Bhagya

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 4 Fundamental Rights Part 1 Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 4 Fundamental Rights Part 1

Class 7 Civics Chapter 4 Fundamental Rights Part 1 Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
What do you understand by ‘Fundamental Rights’?
Answer:
(i) Demanding one’s rights is insisting on creating an atmosphere conducive to the development of the self as well as the entire society.

(ii) The Indian Constitution has guaranteed equal rights to all citizens in order to create this conducive atmosphere.

(iii) These rights are Fundamental Rights.

Question 2.
Name the awards that are conferred by the Government upon people for their distinguished contribution in different fields.
Answer:
Padmashree, Padmabhushan, Padmavibhushan.

Question 3.
Why is it prohibited to employ children under 14 years of age in hazardous places?
Answer:
(i) Employing children under 14 years of age in hazardous places can be dangerous. Children may be grievously injured and they may even lose their life.

(ii) To prevent the exploitation of children and ban oppression of any kind, it is prohibited to employ children under 14 years of age in hazardous places.

Question 4.
Why has the Constitution given equal rights to all citizens?
Answer:
(i) We get rights at birth. Every newborn baby has a right to live.

(ii) The entire society and government takes efforts to ensure that the baby is in the best of health.

(iii) Only when all individuals get protection from injustice, exploitation, discrimination and deprivation, will they be able to develop their skills and qualities.

(iv) Demanding one’s rights is insisting on creating an atmosphere conducive to the development of the self as well as the entire society.

(v) The Indian Constitution has guaranteed equal rights to all citizens in order to create this conducive atmosphere.

2. Prepare a picture strip on the right to liberty
Answer:

3. Correct and rewrite the following sentences:

Question 1.
No one gets rights at birth.
Answer:
We get rights at birth.

Question 2.
Government can deprive you of a job by discriminating on the basis of religion, sex, place of birth while giving government jobs.
Answer:
According to the Right to Equality mentioned in our Constitution the State cannot discriminate against any citizen on grounds of religion, sex, place of birth or other grounds

4. Complete the following graphical description.

Answer:

Activities:

• Collect news clippings about certain important rights like the right to information, right to education, etc.
• If you find small children working on construction sites in your neighbourhood, talk to them and their parents about their problems and present the problems in your class.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 4 Fundamental Rights Part 1 InText Questions and Answers

Do this:

Following are the actions of A, B and C. Which kind of freedom do you connect them with?

Question 1.
‘A’ established ‘Adivasi Co-operation Forum’ to solve the problems of the tribal people.
Answer:
Freedom to Assemble Peacefully.

Question 2.
‘B’ decided to move his father’s bakery production from Goa to Maharashtra.
Answer:
Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India.

Question 3.
‘C’ found some lacunae in the new tax policy of the Government. He wrote an artide about it and sent it to a newspaper for publication.
Answer:
Freedom of Speech and Expression.

Let’s discuss:

Question 1.

• Children are not employed here.
• Workers are paid daily here.

You see such boards in shops and hotels. In what way are they related to the Fundamental rights in the Constitution?
Answer:
They ensure that the Right against Exploitation mentioned in the Constitution is honoured and the right is not denied to the workers and children.

Question 2.
You must be aware of children’s rights. Can you name two important rights of children?
Answer:
(a) Right to Protection:

• Right to be protected from all sorts of violence.
• Right to be protected from physicaL and sexual abuse.
• Right to be protected from dangerous drugs.

(b) Right to Development

• Right to education
• Right to learn
• Right to relax and play
• Right to all forms of development – emotional, mental and physical.

Question 3.
Can rights be taken away?
Answer:
No, the rights cannot be taken away by anyone.

Question 4.
If rights are taken away, who should we contact for redressal?
Answer:
If rights are taken away one may appeal in the courts to seek justice for the same.

Question 5.
If the pet animals could speak, what rights do you think they would ask from you?
Answer:

• The right to roam around freely, wherever and whenever they wish.
• Right to expression
• Right to eat whatever they want whenever they want.

Question 6.
What are the advantages of equality before law and equal protection of the law?
Answer:

• There is no discrimination among citizens as superior – inferior, as men-women or while extending any protections like protection from arrest without a warrant.
• There is no discrimination among the citizens on the basis of religion, caste, race, sex, place of birth or residence.
• The inhuman practice of untouchability has been abolished in order to establish equality in the Indian society.
• Titles like Raja, Maharaja, Raobahadur etc. have also been abolished.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 4 Fundamental Rights Part 1 Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
The ______ has guaranteed equal rights to all citizens in order to create a conducive atmosphere.(Indian judiciary, Indian Government, Indian Constitution)
Answer:
Indian Constitution

Question 2.
We have protection from arrest without _______. (prior intimation, proof, warrant)
Answer:
warrant

Question 3.
________ gives a guarantee of all the liberties necessary from the point of view of an individual. (Right to Equality, Right to Liberty Right against Exploitation)
Answer:
Right to Liberty

Question 4.
______ implies getting a guarantee to live and availability of a conducive environment for living. (Right against Exploitation, Right to
Liberty, Right to Life)
Answer:
Right to Life

Question 5.
All children between 6 and ______ years of age are entitled to get education as a Fundamental Right. (11,10,14)
Answer:
14

Question 6.
It is prohibited to employ children under _______ years of age in hazardous places. (10,14,16)
Answer:
16

Match the following:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Right to Equality	(a) liberties necessary from the point of view of individuals
(2) Right to Liberty	(b) bans all types of oppression.
(3) Right against	(c) No discrimination
Exploitation	amongst citizens.

Answer:
1 – c
2 – a
3 – b

Name the following:

Question 1.
The equal rights guaranteed to all citizens by the Indian Constitution in order to create a conducive atmosphere for the development of the self and the entire society.
Answer:
Fundamental Rights.

Question 2.
According to this right, the State cannot discriminate among citizens as superior- interior or men-women and cannot give different treatment or privileges to anybody.
Answer:
Right to Equality.

Question 3.
The State cannot discriminate against any citizen on these grounds for government employment.
Answer:
Religion, caste, race, sex, descent or place of birth or religion.

Question 4.
This inhuman practice that was prevalent in our country has been abolished by law.
Answer:
Untouchability.

Question 5.
These titles have been abolished as it creates artificial hierarchy among people.
Answer:
Raja, Maharaja, Raobahadur.

Question 6.
Any two freedoms we enjoy as Indian citizens.
Answer:
Freedom of Speech and Expression, Freedom to Assemble Peacefully.

Question 7.
The new right included in the Right to Liberty.
Answer:
Right to Education.

Question 8.
Children between this age group are entitled to get education as a Fundamental Right.
Answer:
6-14 years.

Question 9.
Two places where children cannot be made to work.
Answer:
Factories, Mines.

Question 10.
It implies getting a guarantee to live and availability of a conducive environment for living.
Answer:
Right to Life.

Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
When will individual be able to develop their skills and qualities?
Answer:
Only when all individuals get protection from injustice, exploitation, discrimination and deprivation, will the individuals be able to j develop their skills and qualities.

Question 2.
What does demanding one’s rights imply?
Answer:
Demanding one’s rights is insisting on creating an atmosphere conducive to the development of the self as well as the entire society.

Question 3.
What does the Right to Education ensure?
Answer: Right to Education ensures that no child between the age of 6 and 14 will be deprived of education.

Question 4.
Which are the different forms of exploitation which are prevented through Right against Exploitation?
Answer:
Bonded labour or forcing somebody to work against his wish, treating somebody like a slave, denying them legitimate compensation, making them do excessive or strenuous work, starving them or ill-treating them are different forms of exploitation which are prevented through Right against Exploitation

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Right to Equality
Answer:
According to the Right to Equality, the State cannot discriminate among citizens as superior-inferior or a men-women and cannot give different treatment or privileges to anybody. The same law applies equally to all. Many laws give protection. For example, we have protection from arrest without warrant. The State cannot discriminate even while extending such protection.

Question 2.
Right to Liberty
Answer:
This is a very important right given by the Constitution. It gives a guarantee of all the liberties necessary from the point of view of the individual. As Indian citizens, we have the right to:

• Freedom of speech and expression.
• Freedom to assemble peacefully.
• Freedom to form associations or unions.
• Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India.
• Freedom to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India.
• Freedom to practise any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.

Question 3.
Right against Exploitation
Answer:
(i) The right against exploitation implies the right to prevent exploitation.

(ii) While the Constitution has banned all types of oppressions through the right against exploitation, it has made a special provision to prevent the exploitation of children.

(iii) Accordingly, it is prohibited to employ children under 14 years of age in hazardous places.

(iv) Children cannot be employed or made to work in factories and mines.

(v) Exploitation includes bonded labour or forcing somebody to work against his wish, treating somebody like a slave, denying them legitimate compensation, making them do excessive or strenuous work, starving them or ill-treating them.

(vi) Generally women, children, the weaker sections of society and powerless people are exploited.

(vii) This right enables us to stand up against any kind of exploitation.

Correct and rewrite the following sentences:

Question 1.
No one gets rights at birth.
Answer:
We get rights at birth.

Question 2.
The government can deprive you of a job by discriminating on the basis of religion, sex, place of birth while giving government jobs.
Answer:
According to the Right to Equality mentioned in our Constitution the State cannot discriminate against any citizen on grounds of religion, sex, place of birth or other grounds.

Question 3.
People can have titles like Raja, Maharaja, Raobahadur etc.
Answer:
The Constitution has abolished titles like Raja,, Maharaja, Raobahadur etc., that create aq artificial hierarchy among people.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Science Solutions Chapter 8 Pollution Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Science Solutions Chapter 8 Pollution

Class 8 Science Chapter 8 Pollution Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Following are some statements about pollution. Which type of pollution do those express:

Question a.
Fog seems to be appearing in Delhi during day hours.
Answer:
Air pollution-Smog
(The sentence should have the word Smog and not fog. Smog is fog with smoke. Only fog cannot be polluting, but the smog is.)

Question b.
Many times, vomiting and dysentery occurs after eating ‘panpuri’.
Answer:
Water pollution-Contaminated food and water due to bacteria or virus

Question c.
Problem of sneezing occurs sometimes during visit to garden.
Answer:
Air pollution due to pollens

Question d.
Crop does not grow up in some areas.
Answer:
Soil pollution

Question e.
People living in the busy squares face the problems like short breathing and other respiratory problems.
Answer:
Air pollution due to traffic

2. Read the passage and identify the sentences expressing types of pollution.

Question a.
Nilesh is a student of Std. VII and lives in urban area. It takes about an hour to go to the school by bus. He faces the heavy traffic of two wheelers, four wheelers, rickshaws, buses while going to school. He is facing the problem of asthma since last few days, Doctors recommended him to stay away from urban area. Since then, his mother sent him to the village of his maternal uncle, Nilesh saw the heaps of garbage at many places in village. Foul smell of human and animal wastes was present at many places. Blackish water with foul smell was flowing in a stream. He developed some abdominal disease within few days.
Answer:

1. It takes about an hour to go to the school. (Due to traffic jam, Nilesh is spending more time in polluted, contaminated air.)
2. He faces the heavy traffic. (Large scale combustion of fossil fuel.)
3. He is facing the problem of asthma. (Air pollution – Harmful to human health.)
4. The heaps of garbage at many places. (Solid waste – Land pollution.)
5. Foul smell of human and animal wastes. (Biological pollution, air pollution.)
6. Blackish water with foul smell was flowing in a stream. (Improper sewage management – Water pollution.)
7. He developed some abdominal disease within few days. (Water pollution – Effect on human health.)

3. Match the pairs from ‘A’ and ‘B’ columns and explain the effect of pollution on human health.

Question a.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Water containing cobalt	a. Mental retardation
2. Methane gas	b. Paralysis
3. Water containing lead	c. Inflammation of lungs
4. Sulphur dioxide	d. Skin cancer
5. Nitrogen dioxide	e. Irritation of eyes

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Water containing cobalt	b. Paralysis
2. Methane gas	d. Skin cancer
3. Water containing lead	a. Mental retardation
4. Sulphur dioxide	e. Irritation of eyes
5. Nitrogen dioxide	c. Inflammation of lungs

4. True or false.

Question a.
Water does not get polluted by washing the clothes in running water of river.
Answer:
False. (Even if washing of soiled clothes is done in running water, it will cause pollution as the dirt and the waste materials will be added to water. This certainly will cause water pollution.)

Question b.
More the use of electric appliances, more will be the pollution.
Answer:
True. (Most of the electricity is generated in India by burning coal. The power generation plants thus cause lots of air pollution. More the electricity is used by using more appliances, there will be more pollution. However, only power generation through solar energy cannot cause pollution.)

5. Answer the following:

Question a.
What is pollution?
Answer:
Contamination of natural environment that can harmfully affect the environment is called pollution.

Question b.
What are Pollutants?
Answer:
The products which affect the normal functioning of ecosystem and have an adverse effect on plants, animals and humans are called pollutants.

Question c.
What is acid rain?
Answer:
1. When rainwater contains harmful amounts of nitric and sulphuric acids, it is called acid rain.
2. Burning of fossil fuels such as coal, wood, petroleum, etc. releases nitrogen oxide and sulphur oxide into the atmospheric air.
3. Since these oxides are soluble in water, they dissolve in rainwater. Nitrogen and sulphur oxides dissolved in large quantities of water vapour form acids like nitric acid, nitrous acid, sulphurous acid and sulphuric acid.
4. These acids mix with mist, drops of rainwater and snow. They change their composition and fall back on the ground in the form of acid rain.
5. Effects of acid rain are as follows:

• Increase in the acidity of soil and water bodies.
• Damage to the trees.
• Water becomes unsuitable for fish and wildlife.
• Buildings, statues, sculptures, bridges, monuments and fences are corroded due to acid rain. Thus, acid rain damages our national assets.
• Acid rain affects agriculture and crop lands.

Question d.
What is greenhouse effect?
Answer:

1. Greenhouse effect is the ; phenomenon due to which global warming and climate change occur.
2. The earth receives solar energy in the form of heat from the sun. The surface of earth absorbs this heat and reflects it back to the atmosphere as infrared radiation. Some of this heat energy goes directly into space.

Question e.
Which are visible pollutants known to you?
Answer:
1. The polluting substances that are seen easily with the naked eyes can be called as visible pollutants. E.g. Solid wastes, plastic articles, plastic bags, the suspended things in the water, metal refuse, etc.

Question f.
Which are invisible pollutants?
Answer:
The pollutants which are completely dissolved in water or mixed in the air, cannot be seen and hence they can be called invisible pollutants. Since they are not seen, we remain unaware about the presence of these pollutants. E.g. the insecticides spread f on the crops. Aerosols, many hazardous gases in the air, toxic compounds that are totally soluble in water, etc.

6. Answer the following.

Question a.
Give two examples of each of water, soil and air pollution from your residential area.
Answer:
Air pollution:

1. New buildings are constructed. Old structures are demolished. This is creating lots of dust pollution. The air is full of particulate matter.
2. The number of vehicles on the road has tremendously increased. This causes smoky environment.

Water pollution:

1. The sea shows lots of floating plastic and decaying flowers, etc. When beaches are visited it is a common sight.
2. Many fishes are seen dying in great numbers and are washed off to the shore.

Soil pollution :

1. Everywhere garbage heaps are seen. In that plastic bags, needles, old medicine vials and cartons are seen in abundance.
2. The sludge brought by rainwater is spread everywhere and that causes stink.

Question b.
How does the pollution occur due to vehicles? Give the names of vehicles causing least pollution.
Answer:

1. More than 50% of the air pollution is caused by vehicular traffic.
2. Particulate matter, unburnt hydrocarbons, CO, nitrogen oxides and carcinogenic hydrocarbons are present in the automobile exhausts.
3. Fossil fuels like petrol, diesel, natural gas, gasoline, etc. which are burnt to run the automobiles lead to the emission of CO₂ and other gases.
4. Therefore, vehicles are said to be the major contributors to air pollution.
5. The only vehicle which is non¬polluting is bicycle. The four-wheelers which are battery operated are also manufactured recently.

These two types of vehicles are eco-friendly. The cars that run on C.N.G. are also said to be lesser polluting.

Question c.
What are natural reasons causes for water pollution?
Answer:
The natural causes of the water pollution:
1. If organic pollutants are added to the water there is an overgrowth of weeds such as Eichhornia. The growth of algae also makes the water unsuitable for consumption. These aquatic plants release oxygen during daytime but by night they require oxygen thus depleting the dissolved oxygen level. The natural characters of water are then changed.

2. The decomposing matter when added to the water make it polluted and stinking.

3. Due to deposition of sludge or eroded soil, the rivers change their path and divert from original flow. The currents are also changed. Deposition of sludge makes the water polluted.

4. Due to soil erosion, surrounding the water bodies, the microbes, bacteria, protozoans and the worms and larvae of nematodes enter the water causing severe biological pollution. Many inorganic pollutants are also added to the water. The fungand bacteria present in the water make it non-potable. Such water spreads water-borne diseases.

Question d.
Suggest four preventive measures for air pollution.
Answer:
The following methods are adopted to control air pollution from the industries:

1. The source discharge is diluted by tall chimneys.
2. There are source correction methods like changing the raw material, equipment modification, process modification, etc.
3. Effective pollution controlling equipment like dust collectors, electrostatic precipitators, wet scrubbers, etc. should be used.
4. There should be ban and control over atomic tests and chemical weapons on the international level.

Question e.
Explain relation between greenhouse effect and global warming.
Answer:
Because of greenhouse effect, there is increase in the global temperature. The heat on the earth remains trapped due to envelope of greenhouse gases. The percentage of carbon dioxide and methane is constantly increasing and hence there is increase in the temperature too. Thus the greenhouse effect is directly related to the global warming.
Effects of this relation between greenhouse effect and global warming are as follows:

1. The polar ice caps and the glaciers at both the poles are melting due to increased temperature.
2. The oceans’ water is rising due to this melted ice. The sea level rise is causing coastal land submergence. The islands at various regions are threatened of drowning.
3. Many species of living organisms are already extinct due to global warming. The rest are also threatened.
4. Wild animals are showing weird migrations. Polar bear is endangered.
5. The increased temperature of the oceanic water is causing many changes in the tides and currents. This results into increased occurrence of cyclones, hurricanes and cloud bursting. The natural disasters are rising in last decade.
6. The agricultural production is decreasing. The regions with less rainfall are facing draughts.

Question f.
Construct two slogans each on air, water and soil pollution.
Answer:
Air pollution:

1. Be a part of the solution and not part of pollution.
2. Show your care, clean your air.

Water pollution:

1. Water, water everywhere, Not a drop to drink. The pollution is making all the water stink.
2. Save the fish and the little turtle. Don’t throw plastic or it will encircle.

Soil Pollution:

1. Don’t be mean, keep environment clean.
2. Let’s keep land clean, together only we can win.

7. Classify the following pollutants into natural and manmade categories.

Question
Classify the following pollutants into natural and manmade categories.
Sewage, dust, pollen grains, chemical fertilizers, vehicular smoke, algae, pesticides, waste of animals and birds.
Answer:

Man-made	Natural
1. Sewage	1. Dust (Natural)
2. Dust (Construction related)	2. Pollen grains
3. Chemical fertilizers	3. Algae
4. Vehicular smoke	4. Waste (Excreta) of animals and
5. Pesticides

Project:

Question 1.
Visit the water testing laboratory in your area and collect the information about tests for checking the purity of water.

Question 2.
Visit the square having heavy traffic in your area and report the pollution at different times of day and find out the duration of maximum pollution.

Class 8 Science Chapter 8 Pollution Additional Important Questions and Answers

Rewrite the sentences after filling the blanks:

Question 1.
Natural pollutants are destroyed in due course of time by …………. .
Answer:
Natural pollutants are destroyed in due course of time by nature’s rule.

Question 2.
Air pollutants with ……….. cause colour change in paints, oil paintings, nylon, etc.
Answer:
Air pollutants with sulphur cause colour change in paints, oil paintings, nylon, etc.

Question 3.
Boards indicating the …………. are displayed in busy squares in metro cities.
Answer:
Boards indicating the air quality index are displayed in busy squares in metro cities.

Question 4.
Soil ………… decreases due to pollution.
Answer:
Soil fertility decreases due to pollution.

Question 5.
Problem of …………… pollution increases due to soil pollution.
Answer:
Problem of water pollution increases due to soil pollution.

State whether the following statements are True or False. Explain your statement:

Question 1.
Polluted water is responsible for diseases such as cholera, hepatitis, typhoid, skin diseases and diseases of the alimentary canal.
Answer:
True. (The water sources if they are contaminated with biological pollutants such as bacteria, viruses or protozoans, can cause variety of water-borne diseases.)

Question 2.
When water is mixed with natural or artificial unwanted material, the dissolved oxygen level of such water increases.
Answer:
False. (When water is mixed with natural or artificial unwanted material, the dissolved oxygen level of such water decreases. This causes harm to the resident animals. However when aquatic weeds and algae outgrow in number it causes rise in oxygen only during day time.)

Question 3.
Though any amount of pollutants are added to the soil, the toxic substances do not leach into water.
Answer:
False. (The toxic substances added to the soil can leach in the groundwater and cause water pollution.)

Identify the odd term:

Question 1.
Industrialization, Population explosion, Mining, Vehicular transport, Dust storms.
Answer:
Dust storms (All others are man-made causes environmental degradation.)

Question 2.
Poisoning, asthma, Silicosis, respiratory diseases.
Answer:
Silicosis (All others are effects of methane.)

Question 3.
Irritation of eyes, respiratory tract, excess mucus, mental weakness
Answer:
Mental weakness (All other are effects of sulphur dioxide.)

Question 4.
Volcanic eruption, Earthquake, Atomic explosion, Forest fires.
Answer:
Atomic explosion (All others are natural causes of air pollution.)

Question 5.
Uranium, Sulphur, Thorium, Plutonium.
Answer:
Sulphur (All others are elements which are used in the production of atomic energy.)

Consider the relation between the items in the first pair and write the correlation for second pair:

Question 1.
Industrialization: Sulphur compounds : :…………………. : Lead compounds
Answer:
Use of fuels/Transportation

Question 2.
City where smoke and soot caused it to be called black city : Petersburg : : Indian city where worst ever industrial accident has occurred : ……………….
Answer:
Bhopal

Question 3.
Arsenic and Cadmium : Inorganic water pollutants : : Weedicides and insecticides : ………….
Answer:
Organic water pollutants.

Write definitions:

Question 1.
Air pollution.
Answer:
Contamination of air by toxic gaseous and particulate pollutants in concentration which is harmful to human beings and his surroundings is called air pollution.

Question 2.
Water pollution.
Answer:
When toxic and unwanted substances enter, dissolve or remain suspended in the water bodies deteriorating the quality of water and affecting the aquatic ecosystem, then it is known as water pollution.

Question 3.
Soil pollution.
Answer:
Soil pollution is the phenomenon caused due to natural or man-made causes, which occurs when there are changes in its physical, biological and chemical properties of the soil leading to decreased fertility due to either natural or man-made reasons.

Distinguish between the following:

Question 1.
Degradable and Non-degradable pollutants:

Degradable pollutants	Non-degradable pollutants
1. Degradable pollutants can degrade on their own after some time.	1. non-degradable pollutants cannot degrade on their own.
2. Degradable pollutants are usually acted upon by microorganisms to reduce them to inorganic substances.	2. non-degradable pollutants are not acted upon by microorganisms and hence are not reduced to inorganic substances.
3. Degradable pollutants are not accumulated in nature.	3. non-degradable pollutants accumulate in nature and remain there for a long period of time.
4. Degradable pollutants emit foul odour when they are being decomposed.	4. non-degradable pollutants may not emit foul odour as they are not decomposed.
5. Vegetables and fruits, food refuse, organic matter, etc. form degradable pollutants.	5. Metals, plastic, glass, etc. form non-degradable pollutants.

Question 2.
Industrial waste and Domestic waste:

Industrial waste	Domestic waste
1. Most of the industrial waste contains non-degradable pollutants.	1. Most of the domestic waste contains bio-degradable pollutants.
2. Industrial wastes are produced during industrial and manufacturing processes.	2. Domestic wastes are produced in every home due to day to day activities.
3. Pollution monitoring and controlling bodies like MPCB keep a watch on the proportion of industrial wastes.	3. Pollution monitoring and controlling bodies like MPCB do not keep a watch on the proportion of domestic wastes. It is the individual responsibility of every citizen to reduce the amount of domestic waste that they produce.
4. Fly ash from thermal power plants, heavy metals, chemicals, etc. form the industrial wastes.	4. Garbage, domestic refuse, and discarded solid materials containing food waste, paper, cardboard, peels of fruits, vegetable matter, etc. form the domestic wastes.

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
Domestic sewage is harmful for all forms of life.
Answer:

1. Domestic sewage contains water
2. There are detergents and washing private vehicles. powders containing phosphate, which are used to soften the water.
3. These chemicals are harmful to aquatic animals.
4. They also contain disease. causing pathogenic bacteria and viruses.
5. Hence, domestic sewage is harmful for originating from kitchen, bathrooms, toilet, forms of

Question 2.
Use public transport instead of private vehicles.
Answer:

1. All the automobiles use fossil used to soften the water. fuels Burning of fossil fuels causes air pollution by gaseous pollutants as well as by particulates.
2. Toxic gases such as CO, CH₄, SO₂, etc. are emitted through automobile exhausts.
3. When each person uses private vehicles, the proportion of air pollution increases.
4. Instead, public transport helps to reduce air pollution it will also help to ease trafficams.
5. Therefore, as a role of citizen in pollution control, public transport should be used instead of private vehicles.

Question 3.
Due to agriculture, there can be a lot of air pollution.
Answer:

1. During agricultural practices, open field burning is done. Due to this burning there is emission of gases like SO₂, CO₂, CH₄, CO and oxides of nitrogen along with large amounts of particulate matter.
2. In agricultural practices, pesticides used emit toxic chemicals.
3. Industrial farms pollute air by emitting foul odour and airborne pollutants.
4. When manure is decomposed, there is production of greenhouse gases.

Question 4.
A hole has been observed in the ozone layer in the stratosphere near Antarctica.
Answer:

1. Ozone layer depletion is mainly caused due to the action of CFC (Chlorofluorocarbon) molecules in the air.
2. Due to various increased activities of humans, the magnitude of air pollution has been increasing in the last few decades.
3. CFC molecules were used as coolants in refrigerators, freezers and air conditioners.
4. They were also present in industrial solvents, dry cleaning agents and hospital sterilants, aerosols and foam. Due to such enhanced use, much of the CFCs were liberated in the last few years.
5. CFC molecules are decomposed by ultraviolet rays which release chlorine and fluorine molecules.
6. Chlorine and fluorine react with the ozone resulting in a hole in the ozone layer present in the stratosphere.

Therefore, a hole has been observed in the ozone layer in the stratosphere above Antarctica.

Answer the following.

Question 1.
What do you mean by ozone layer depletion? What are the causes of ozone layer depletion?
Answer:
1. The ozone layer is present at the top of the stratosphere. The stratosphere is the second layer of the atmosphere which is present 48 km above the earth’s surface.
2. Ozone layer is protective layer for living organisms of the earth, as it absorbs harmful UV rays from the sun. When this layer is reduced or destroyed, it is called ozone layer depletion.

3. Causes of the ozone layer depletion:

1. The main cause of ozone depletion are CFC molecules.
2. Chlorine atoms are present in chlorofluoro-carbons (CFC) molecules. They react with ozone and deplete it.
3. CFCs are used as coolants in refrigerators, freezers and air conditioners manufactured before 1995.
4. CFCs are also present in industrial solvents, dry cleaning agents and hospital sterilants (sterilizers), aerosols and foam. All the above materials release a lot of CFCs into the atmosphere.
5. CFC molecules are broken down by ultraviolet radiations which result in release of chlorine and fluorine, which further reduce the ozone layer.

Question 2.
What adverse effect does ozone depletion have?
Answer:

1. When the ozone layer is depleted, the ultraviolet radiations of the sun can reach the earth’s surface in greater proportion.
2. This results in damage to animal and plant life on the earth.
3. Ultraviolet rays cause skin cancer and cataract in human beings.
4. The ozone hole is seen in the stratosphere above Antarctica.

Question 3.
Describe the effects of air pollution on animals and plants.
Answer:
1. Effects of air pollution on animals:

• Air pollutants affect breathing of the animals.
• Particulate pollutants can cause problems to the wildlife.
• Particulate matter containing heavy metals is accumulated in the bodies of animals. The accumulated heavy metals at high levels in the body tissues, can cause problems. ‘
• Acid rain causes serious problems to animal life.

2. Effects of air pollution on plants:

• Various parts of the plant show reduced growth after coming in contact with air pollutants.
• The leaves show yellowing or chlorosis on exposure to air pollutants.

Question 4.
What are man-made reasons for water pollution?
Answer:
The effluents and other substances released by man into the surrounding water bodies together can be called man-made reasons for water pollution.
1. Domestic sewage: The excreta, urine and other domestic-use water is added to the water bodies in many cities and villages. In big metro-cities, the sewage is partially treated but these management practices are not enough.

2. Industrial effluent: Different industries and factories release effluents which may contain toxic and harmful components, such as various pigments, bleaching chemicals, leather pieces, fibres, mercury, lead, etc.

3. Oil pollution: Oil spillages are seen in the seas due to leakage of crude oil. The crude oil is hazardous as it contains cancer causing hydrocarbons.

4. Fertilizers and pesticides: These compounds when used in farm, may get washed off to nearby water body. The chemical fertilizer containing N, P, K cause water pollution. Pesticides such as endrin, chlorine, carbonate containing pesticides, etc. are mixed with water. They cause contamination of the aquatic animals.

5. The wrong behaviour of human beings causes water pollution. The addition of wastes, defecation near coasts, washing clothes, decomposing hemp and flax in water, disposal of ashes, floral offerings to god, dumping ashes all such activities result into water pollution.

6. The warm water released into the water body through thermal power plants cause thermal pollution.

Question 5.
What are the effects of water pollution on human beings?
Answer:
The water-borne diseases that are caused by different bacteria and viruses cause infections to human beings through contaminated water. Some bacterial and viral diseases are spread through epidemics. Cholera, hepatitis, enteritis, diarrhoea, typhoid are such diseases that can cause severe infections to man. Polluted water also cause skin diseases and deformities of bones, Some pollutants accumulated in vital organs cause their ailments. Liver, kidneys, brain, etc. are affected in this way. Person may develop hypertension too due to pollutants.

Question 6.
What are the effects of water pollution on the ecosystem?
Answer:
Biological effects:

1. Plants in the ecosystem show retarded growth, resulting into species loss.
2. Due to imbalance in the ecosystem, the food chain and food web is disturbed.
3. Pollutants cause mortality in fish and other aquatic animals.
4. Oil slick causes harmful impact on the marine birds.
5. Useful bacterial fauna in the water is lost.

Abiotic effects:

1. Pollutants cause changes in physical and chemical properties of water.
2. Salinity of the water changes.
3. Dissolved oxygen in the water is depleted, causing mortality of fishes.

Question 7.
Describe the effects of air pollution on the environment.
Answer:
Air pollution can cause the following serious effects on the environment:

1. Deforestation and fuel consumption bring about rise in CO₂ concentration.
2. Excess CO₂ in air causes rise in atmospheric temperature of the earth.
3. The increased temperature is called global warming.
4. The global warming results into melting of glaciers, subsequently causing rise in the sea level.
5. There is a change in the climate and pattern of rainfall. This may indirectly affect the agricultural production.

Question 8.
Describe the effects of soil pollution.
Answer:
Effect of soil pollution:

1. There are many pathogenic bacteria, viruses and parasitic intestinal worms in the sewage sludge. These are able to cause many diseases.
2. Soil and vegetable crops are contaminated by manure made from human and animal excreta containing pathogens. This can lead to various diseases.
3. There is loss of fertility and productivity of soil and land due to soil pollution.
4. Soil pollution leads to water pollution, when toxic chemicals leach into the groundwater. Similarly, when contaminated soil enters into streams or lakes, it also causes water pollution.
5. Radioactive materials and soil contaminants can travel through food chains. They move away from the soil into crops, livestock and human bodies.

Question 9.
How do biodegradable and non- biodegradable wastes cause land pollution?
Answer:

1. Biodegradable material is mainly present in the domestic waste.
2. It is in the form of food waste, peels of fruits, vegetables, etc.
3. Paper is also a main part of the domestic waste which is biodegradable.
4. Polythene bags, plastic waste and footwear, etc. are non-biodegradable waste from the domestic sources. All of these pollute the land.

Question 10.
How do you protect soil from being polluted?
Answer:

1. We should not throw domestic waste and industrial waste indiscriminately on the land, so that it contaminates soil.
2. Proper disposal of solid wastes and more importantly safe disposal of biomedical waste material should be practised.
3. Instead of throwing non-biodegradable materials on the land, they should be properly recycled and reused.
4. Biodegradable materials should be composted and converted into useful manure, rather than throwing them to cause pollution of the soil.
5. Excessive use of fertilizers and pesticides should be avoided so that the soil does not get contaminated.

Question 11.
What are the different laws to prevent pollution?
Answer:
The different laws to prevent pollution are as follows:

1. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
2. Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
3. Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
4. There are different laws and rules which have been made for the disposal of hazardous waste, biomedical waste, solid waste and prevention of noise pollution.

Question 12.
Who implements the laws related to pollution?
Answer:
The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) and Maharashtra Pollution Control Board (MPCB) check whether the organizations like factories, industrial estates, Municipalities, Zilla Parishads, Panchayat Samities and Gram Panchayats follow all the laws related to control of pollution.

Use your brain power!

Question 1.
Which types of pollutants are observed?
Answer:
Pollutants are of many varied types. They can be classified according to their sources, according to which ecosystem they are polluting, and according to their characteristics.

Question 2.
Whether the pollutants are degradable or non-degradable?
Answer:
Some pollutants are biodegradable while some are non-biodegradable. The pollutants that spread in the air are in the form of gases or particulate matter. Though they are non-degradable, they constantly make chemical reactions with each other.

The pollutants thrown in water and on land are of both the types. Pollutant like plastic is totally non-biodegradable. The biodegradable substances can be decomposed by various bacteria and fungand are converted back into elemental form. The pollutants added in S the water are also of two types. The heavy metals and colours are non-degradable.

Think about it:

Question 1.
If natural materials are pollutants, why do we not perceive their adverse effects during their use? When such materials are referred as pollutants?
Answer:
The natural pollutants are active only for a short duration. Due to natural reasons their activity is limited, and they are lost after a specific time. Their sources are not continuous and their spread too is not regular as in case of man-made pollutants which are emitted steadily.

Thus, we can avoid these substances. We also use them in limited quantity. Therefore, the natural substances, though may be polluting in nature, we are unable to perceive its toxicity. However, if we use them in abundance and create an imbalance, then its effect can be experienced as a great hazard.

Question 2.
What are the reasons other than those mentioned on the textbook page no. 55 mentioned responsible for air pollution?
Answer:
1. The automobile vehicles like two-wheelers and four-wheelers are increasing tremendously in numbers. This uncontrolled number of vehicles and their heavy traffic is causing air pollution to very high level in megacities.
2. Construction industries, demolition of the old buildings, digging the roads, are such activities which are adding to the particulate air pollution of the cities.
3. The bursting of firecrackers on the occasion of festivals and ceremonies, the spread of gulal during processions are also actions which result into unwanted air pollution.
4. Aeroplane traffic, rocket launching, industrial farming are the modern sources of air pollution.

Question 3.
Whether the vehicles with two- stroke engine cause more pollution than four stroke engine?
Answer:
Yes, they do. Scooters and motor cycles are more dominant source of air pollution as they emit soot and organic particles. In urban areas this proportion is high. These particles are toxic and they create heavy air pollution.

The two-wheelers have two-stroke engines. Such engines are far less efficient in burning the fuel that is used in the vehicles. The exhaust systems are also less effective at removing pollutants. On the contrary most of the four-wheelers have catalytic converters. Therefore, the exhaust fumes from scooters contain higher levels of the chemicals found in the fuel and oil they use.

The vehicles with two-stroke engine such as two wheelers emit significantly more primary organic aerosols and volatile organic compounds from incomplete burning of the fuel. They also produce significant secondary organic aerosols as gases released from the exhaust react with the air and microscopic particles of soot.

These pollutants increase the risk of heart and lung disease. Older two-stroke vehicles produced reactive oxygen molecules that are known to be potentially harmful for lung health. In recent times there is excessive use of two-wheelers which is deteriorating the air quality to great extent.

Question 4.
Give 5 examples of each of domestic waste, biological waste and agricultural waste and write in your own words about soil pollution due to those wastes.
Answer:
Domestic waste:

1. Empty containers of medicines, papers, bottles, etc.
2. Plastic
3. Glass pieces
4. Old utensils, clothes
5. Tins and cartons of used items, the discarded household items.

Biological waste:

1. Dead corpse of animals.
2. Urine and faeces
3. Peels of fruits, stalks of vegetables and fruits.
4. Food waste
5. Garlands and old bouquets.

Agricultural waste:

1. The stubs of crops after the grains are removed.
2. Cattle dung and urine
3. Some persistent amount of insecticides
4. Some amount of fertilizers
5. Empty containers, bags, cartons of insecticide, chemical fertilizers, seeds, gunny bags, etc.

Diagram based questions:

Question 1.
Given below is a diagram showing hazardous polluting event.
Explain what is this and what are its effects shown in the diagram.

Answer:
The above picture depicts the formation and effects of acid rain. The toxic gases such as SO2 , CO2 and NO2 are released through the chimneys of factories. These oxides are released in air. They get dissolved in the rainwater and reach back the earth’s surface in the form of acids. The plants, animals and houses are being damaged due to this acid rain.

Question 2.
Draw a well labelled diagram to show greenhouse effect.
Answer:

Activity based questions:

Question 1.
Discuss the issues like ‘dry waste-wet waste’ and ‘toilet in each home’ and write information in your own words.

MCQs based on practical:

Question 1.
Which fertilizers when used in excessive amounts cause soil pollution that spreads to neighbouring water bodies and cause water pollution too?
(a) Chemical
(b) Organic
(c) Artificial
(d) Compost
Answer:
(a) Chemical

Question 2.
What is the type of pollutants that are present in the industrial effluents that is released in the rivers and sea?
(a) Inorganic
(b) Organic
(c) Biological
(d) Biomedical
Answer:
(a) Inorganic

Question 3.
What grows in excess when eutrophication of the water bodies take place?
(a) Plants
(b) Algae
(c) Fishes
(d) Fungi
Answer:
(b) Algae

Question 4.
Which of the following is seen in the polluted water body?
(1) flowers used in pooja
(2) fruits
(3) fishes
(4) aquatic insects
(5) plastic bags
(6) turtles
(7) thick growth of algae
(8) light blue colour of water
(9) cattle wading in water
(10) broken idols
(a) (1) (3) (5) (6) (9) (10)
(b) (1) (2) (5) (7) (9) (10)
(c) (1) (3) (6) (8) (9) (10)
(d) (1) (2) (4) (7) (8) (9)
Answer:
(b) (1) (2) (5) (7) (9) (10)

Question 5.
Which is the easiest method to identify the polluted water?
(a) To taste the water
(b) To check the depth of water
(c) To observe colour and odour of the water
(d) To swim in the water
Answer:
(c) To observe colour and odour of the water

Formative Evaluation:

Question 1.
Which factors are responsible for pollution shown in the following pictures?

Question 2.
Compare the two neighbouring photographs.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 3 Features of the Constitution Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 3 Features of the Constitution

Class 7 Civics Chapter 3 Features of the Constitution Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Prepare a table to show the separation of powers in a Federal Government.

Answer:

Union List	State List	Concurrent List
Defence, foreign relations, war and peace, currency, international trade, etc.	Agriculture, law and order, local government, health, prison administration etc.	Employment, environment economic and social planning, personal law, education, etc.

2. Find one word for:

Question 1.
The Government at the centre which carries out the administration of the entire country.
Answer:
Union Government

Question 2.
The machinery with whom rests the responsibility of conducting elections in a free and fair atmosphere.
Answer:
Election Commission.

Question 3.
The third list of subjects for making laws
Answer:
The Concurrent List

3. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Why does the Government function at two levels in a Federation?
Answer:
(i) One of the important features of our Constitution is the Federal System.

(ii) In countries with large territories and huge populations, the Government is run by a Federal System.

(iii) Ruling a large territory from a single capital city is not only difficult but may also lead to the neglect of some far-flung areas.

(iv) People residing there cannot participate in the affairs of the Government. Therefore, the governments function at two levels in a § Federation.

Question 2.
What do you understand by Residuaiy Powers?
Answer:
(i) Our Constitution has given three lists on various subjects.

(ii) The first list is called Union List. It contains 97 subjects on which the Union Government makes laws.

(iii) The State List is for the State Governments to legislate upon. It contains 66 subjects.

(iv) Apart from these two lists, there is a Concurrent List which contains 47 subjects.

(v) Both governments can make laws on subjects included in this list. If a subject comes up that is not included in any of the lists, the Union Government is entitled to make laws on it. These powers are termed as ‘Residuary Powers’.

Question 3.
Why has the Constitution created an independent Judiciary in India?
Answer:
(i) The Judiciary of India is independent machinery according to the provisions of the Constitution.

(ii) It is separate from the Executive and Legislative bodies of the Indian Government.

(iii) The Supreme Court is the guardian of the Constitution which ensures that the Fundamental Rights of the citizens are not violated.

(iv) To carry out its duties without fear or favour or external pressure, the Judiciary in India is independent.

4. Hold a group discussion on the merits and demerits of an independent judicial system.
Answer:
Merits of an independent judicial system:

• The judicial system enables the courts to give impartial judgements.
• Judiciary does not act under any political pressure.
• As the judges are appointed by the President and not by the Government.

Demerits of an independent judicial system:

• As the judiciary is independent, it is out of the scope of the government’s control.
• The judiciary is not answerable to anyone if the process of dispensing justice is slow.

5. Find out about the Electronic Voting Machine (EVM) and discuss the advantages of conducting elections with EVM.
Answer:

• Difficult to tamper/cheat
• Cost-effective and economical
• Time-saving
• Calculation is faster
• Easy to use / carry / transport
• Data can be saved for later use.

Activity:

Establish an Election Commission in your class, decide upon the positions you would like to fill through elections. Then conduct elections under the guidance of this Commission.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 3 Features of the Constitution InText Questions and Answers

Do this:

Question 1.
Make a list of North-Eastern Indian States and name their capital cities.
Answer:

State	Capital
Arunachal Pradesh	Itanagar
Assam	Dispur
Meghalaya	Shillong
Manipur	Imphal
Mizoram	Aizwal
Nagaland	Kohima
Tripura	Agartala

Find out:

Question 1.
Find out about the Electronic Voting Machine (EVM) and discuss the advantages of conducting elections with EVM.
Answer:

• Difficult to tamper/cheat
• Cost effective and economical
• Time saving
• Calculation is faster
• Easy to use / carry / transport
• Data can be saved for later use.

Question 2.
How many amendments have been made in the Indian Constitution till date?
Answer:
As of September 2016, there have been 101 (latest of List Bill) amendments to the Constitution of India, since it was first enacted in 1950.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 3 Features of the Constitution Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
One of the important features of our Constitution is the _______ System. (Federal, Unitary, Republic)
Answer:
Federal

Question 2.
The Government functions at ________ levels in a Federation. (two, three, four)
Answer:
two

Question 3.
The Government that oversees the administration of the region that we live in is called _______.(Union Government, State Government, None of the above)
Answer:
State Government

Question 4.
The system of running the administration of a country cooperatively by the governments at two levels, making laws about different subjects is called __________. (Socialism, Communism, Federalism)
Answer:
Federalism

Question 5.
The ______ is for the Union Government to make laws. (State List, Union List, Concurrent List)
Answer:
Federalism

Question 6.
The _______ is for the State Government to legislate upon. (Union List, State List, Concurrent List)
Answer:
State List

Question 7.
The ______ List contains 47 subjects and both the Government can make laws on these subjects. (Concurrent List, Union List, State List)
Answer:
Concurrent List

Question 8.
If a subject comes up and it is not included in any of the Lists, the _______ is entitled to make laws. (State Government, Union Government, President)
Answer:
Union Government

Question 9.
In India, there are ____ State Governments and _______ Union Territories.(29, 7 ; 28, 8)
Answer:
29, 7

Question 10.
The ______ System of Government the Legislature has the highest decision making power. (Parliamentary, Autocratic, Communist)
Answer:
Parliamentary

Question 11.
The ______ who runs the administration emerge from the Lok Sabha and is / are answerable to the Lok Sabha for all its / their decisions.
(Opposition Ministers, Council of Ministers,President)
Answer:
Council of Ministers

Question 12.
Judges are appointed by the ______ (President, Government, Vice-President)
Answer:
President

Question 13.
The Indian Constitution has granted _________ to all Indians. (Single citizenship, Dual citizenship, None of these)
Answer:
Single citizenship

Question 14.
The ________ ensures free, fair and just atmosphere for the election. (President, Election Commission, Ruling Party)
Answer:
Election Commission.

Match the following:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) War and peace (2) Law and order (3) Economic and Social planning	(a)  State Government (b) Both Union and State Government (c) Union Government

Answer:
1 – c
2 – a
3 – b

State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons:

Question 1.
Defence is a subject on which the State Government makes laws.
Answer:
False:

• The Constitution has divided the subjects for making laws between the Union and the State Government.
• Defence is a subject on which Union Government makes laws.

Question 2.
The Union List contains 97 subjects and defence is one of the subjects included in it.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Chandigarh is controlled by the State Government.
Answer:
False: Chandigarh is one of the seven Union Territories of India. The Union Government controls the Union Territories.

Question 4.
In India, the Executive has the highest decision-making power.
Answer:
False: The Indian Constitution has provided for a Parliamentary System of Government. In such a system the Parliament, i.e. the Legislature has the highest decision-making power.

Name the following:

Question 1.
The system which is an important feature of our Constitution.
Answer:
Federalism

Question 2.
The Government that oversees the administration of the place we live.
Answer:
State Government

Question 3.
Number of subjects in the Union List on which the Union Government makes laws.
Answer:
97 Subjects

Question 4.
The list with 66 subjects which the State government legislates upon.
Answer:
The State List

Question 5.
The powers of the Union Government to make laws on a subject which comes up and is not mentioned in any list.
Answer:
Residuary Powers

Question 6.
Any two subjects with the Union Government.
Answer:
Defence, Currency

Question 7.
Subjects with the State Government
Answer:
Health, Prison

Question 8.
Subjects with both the governments.
Answer:
Employment, Education

Question 9.
2 Union Territories in India.
Answer:
Daman and Diu, New Delhi

Question 10.
Answerable to the Lok Sabha
Answer:
The Council of Ministers.

Question 11.
An example to show that the Indian Judiciary is independent.
Answer:
Appointment of Judges by the President

Question 12.
The type of citizenship granted to the citizens by the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
Single citizenship

Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
Write any one of the important features of our Constitution.
Answer:
Federal system is one of the important features of our Constitution.

Question 2.
In which countries are governments run by the Federal System?
Answer:
In countries with large territories and huge population, the Government is run by a Federal System.

Question 3.
What is the problem faced while ruling a large territory from a single capital?
Answer:
Ruling a large territory from a single capital city is not only difficult but may also lead to neglect of some far-flung areas.

Question 4.
Explain the term Union Government.
Answer:
The Government at the centre carries out tasks like defence of the entire country, foreign policy, establishing peace, etc. It is called ‘Union Government or ‘Federal Government’.

Question 5.
What do you mean by State Government?
Answer:
The Government that oversees the administration of the region that we live in is called State Government.

Question 6.
What is called ‘Federalism’?
Answer:
The system of running the administration of a country cooperatively by the Governments at two levels, making laws about different subjects is called ‘Federalism’.

Question 7.
Which are the three lists into which the Constitution has divided subjects for making Laws?
Answer:
The three lists into which the Constitution has divided subjects for making laws are State List, Union List and Concurrent List.

Question 8.
Which powers are termed as Residuary Powers?
Answer:
(a) If a subject comes up that is not included in any of the three Lists, the Union List, the State List or the Concurrent List, the Union Government is entitled to make laws on it
(b) These powers are termed as residuary powers.

Question 9.
Which are the seven Union territories in India?
Answer:
The seven Union Territories in India are New Delhi, Daman and Diu, Puducherry, Chandigarh, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep.

Question 10.
In the Parliamentary system of Government, who has the highest decision-making power?
Answer:
In the Parliamentary system of Government, the Parliament has the highest decision-making power.

Question 11.
What does the Indian Parliament include?
Answer:
The Indian Parliament includes the President, the Lbk Sabha or the House of the People and the Rajya Sabha or the Council of States.

Question 12.
Whom is the Council of Ministers answerable to, for all its decisions?
Answer:
The Council of Ministers is answerable to the Lok Sabha for all its decisions.

Question 13.
What have great significance in Parliamentary Democracy?
Answer:
In Parliamentary Democracy, the discussion and debates that take place in the Parliament have great significance.

Question 14.
Which disputes are referred to the Judiciary?
Answer:
The disputes that cannot be resolved mutually are referred to the Judiciary.

Question 15.
Which are the two provisions in the Constitution which ensures that the Judiciary remains more independent?
Answer:
The two provisions in the Constitution which ensures independence of Judiciary are that the judges are appointed by the President and not by the Government, and it is not easy to remove the Judges from their office.

Question 16.
Why is it necessary to amend the Constitution?
Answer:
There comes up a need to make changes or amendments in the provisions of the Constitution due to the changing circumstances.

Question 17.
What can frequent amendments in the Constitution lead to?
Answer:
Frequent amendments in the Constitution may lead to instability.

Question 18.
Write a short note on Parliamentary System of Government.
Answer:
(i) The Indian Constitution has provided for a Parliamentary System of Government.

(ii) In such a system, the Parliament, i.e. the Legislature has the highest decision-making power.

(iii) The Indian Parliament includes the President, the Lok Sabha or the House of the People and the Rajya Sabha or the Council of States.

(iv) The Council of Ministers that run the administration emerge from the Lok Sabha and is answerable to the Lok Sabha for all its decisions. In Parliamentary Democracy, the discussion and debates that take place in the Parliament have great significance.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Science Solutions Chapter 7 Metals and Nonmetals Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Science Solutions Chapter 7 Metals and Nonmetals

Class 8 Science Chapter 7 Metals and Nonmetals Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Complete the table:

Question a.

Answer:

Property of metal	Use in everyday life
i. Ductility	i. Gold, silver ornaments
ii. Malleability	ii. Aluminium sheets, galvanised sheets
iii. Conduction of heat	iii. Stainless steel vessels, copper vessels, boilers
iv. Conduction of electricity	iv. Copper wires
v. Sonority	v. Brass articles

2. Identify the odd term.

Question a.
Gold, Silver, Iron, Diamond.
Answer:
Diamond. (Others are metals.)

Question b.
Ductility, Brittleness, Sonority, Malleability.
Answer:
Brittleness. (Other properties are metallic properties.)

Question c.
Carbon, Bromine, Sulphur, Phosphorus.
Answer:
Bromine. (Others are solids.)

Question d.
Brass, Bronze, Iron, Steel.
Answer:
Iron. (Others are alloys.)

3. Give scientific reasons:

Question a.
The stainless steel vessels in kitchen have copper coating on the bottom.
Answer:

1. Stainless steel is an alloy of iron ; with carbon, chromium and nickel.
2. The conductivity of copper is higher than that of iron in steel. Copper heats uniformly and faster. The time for cooking is reduced, as a result it saves fuel. Hence, the stainless steel vessels in kitchen have copper coating on the bottom.

Question b.
Copper and brass vessels are cleaned with lemon.
Answer:

1. Copper undergoes oxidation in air to form black copper oxide. Copper oxide reacts slowly with carbon dioxide in air and gains a green coat. This green substance is copper carbonate.
2. Lemon contains acid. The acid dissolves the green coating of basic copper carbonate present on the surface of a tarnished copper and brass vessels and makes them shiny again.

Question c.
Sodium metal is kept in kerosene.
Answer:

1. Sodium reacts so vigorously with atmospheric oxygen and water that it catches fire if kept in the open.
2. It does not react with kerosene and sinks in it. Hence, to protect sodium and to prevent accidental fires it is always kept in kerosene.

4. Answer the following: 

Question a.
What is done to prevent corrosion of metals?
Answer:
By applying a layer of paint, oil, grease or varnish on the surface of a metal to prevent corrosion. Also plating with noncorroding metal is done. Iron is coated with thin layer of zinc. Due to these processes the contact of metal surface with air is lost and corrosion is prevented.

Question b.
What are the metals that make the alloys brass and bronze?
Answer:
The alloy brass is formed from copper and zinc and the alloy bronze is formed from copper and tin.

Question c.
What are the adverse effects of i corrosion?
Answer:

1. A reddish coloured deposit (rust) is formed on iron by reaction with oxygen gas.
2. A greenish coloured deposit (copper carbonate) is formed on copper by reaction with carbon dioxide.
3. A blackish coloured deposit is formed (silver sulphide) on silver.
4. Corrosion causes damages to car bodies, bridges, iron railings, ships specially those of iron, silver articles and copper vessels.

Question c.
What are the uses of noble metals?
Answer:
Uses of Noble Metals:

1. Gold, silver and platinum are used to prepare ornaments.
2. Silver is used in medicines. (It has antibacterial property).
3. Gold and silver are also used to make metals and few electronic devices.
4. Platinum, palladium metals are used as catalyst.

5. Three experiments to study the process of rusting are given below. Observe the three test tubes and answer the following questions.

Question a.
Why the nail in the test tube 2 is not rusted?
Answer:
In the test tube 2, oil cuts the supply of air to nail due to which oxidation of nail is prevented and boiled water is free from gases. Hence, the nail in the test tube 2 is not rusted.

Question b.
Why is the nail in the test tube 1 is rusted highly?
Answer:
The nail in the test tube 1 is highly rusted because nail is in contact with water and air. The oxidation process is fast.

Question c.
Would the nail in the test tube 3 get rusted?
Answer:
No change is observed in the test tube 3. Nail remains as it is because the calcium chloride absorbs moisture, making the air dry, thus preventing rusting of the nail.

Project:

Question a.
How is the Varkha or silver foil used in sweets made? Collect the information about which metals are used to make ‘Varkha’.

Class 8 Science Chapter 7 Metals and Nonmetals Additional Important Questions and Answers

Rewrite the sentences after filling the blanks:

Question 1.
Gold of 100% purity is …………… carat gold.
Answer:
Gold of 100% purity is 24 carat gold.

Question 2.
The stainless steel utensils used at home are made of an alloy of iron with carbon, …………… and ……….. .
Answer:
The stainless steel utensils used at home are made of an alloy of iron with carbon, nickel and chromium.

Question 3.
…………….. is used in medicines.
Answer:
Silver is used in medicines.

Question 4.
To prepare ornaments ………… carat gold is used.
Answer:
To prepare ornaments 22 carat gold is used.

Question 5.
Non-metals are ………… conductors of heat and electricity.
Answer:
Non-metals are bad conductors of heat and electricity.

Question 6.
Non-metals form ………….. oxides.
Answer:
Non-metals form acidic oxides.

Question 7.
Some element can be hammered into thin sheets. This property is called …………….. .
Answer:
Some element can be hammered into thin sheets. This property is called malleability.

Question 8.
Iodine and ……………. are the two non – metals having typical metallic lustre.
Answer:
Iodine and diamond are the two non¬metals having typical metallic lustre.

Question 9.
Non-metals form ………. ions by gain of electrons.
Answer:
Non-metals form negative ions by gain of electrons.

Question 10.
During formation of positively charged ion, atom of metal ………….. .
Answer:
During formation of positively charged ion, atom of metal lose electrons.

Rewrite the following statements by selecting the correct options:

Question 1.
Metalloids have properties of …………. .
(a) metals
(b) non-metals
(c) both metals and non-metals
(d) neither metals nor non-metals
Answer:
(c) both metals and non-metals

Question 2.
………….. is a metal.
(a) Hg
(b) S
(c) P
(d) Br
Answer:
(a) Hg

Question 3.
…………… is a non-metal.
(a) Aug
(b) Ag
(c) Br
(d) Cu
Answer:
(c) Br

Question 4.
……………. is a metalloid.
(a) Aluminium
(b) Antimony
(c) Zinc
(d) Mercury
Answer:
(b) Antimony

Question 5.
……………. is a metal which is in liquid form at ordinary temperature.
(a) Gallium
(b) Magnesium
(c) Sodium
(d) Scandium
Answer:
(a) Gallium

Question 6.
…………….. is an acidic oxide.
(a) Na₂O
(b) CO₂
(c) FeOs
(d) H₂O
Answer:
(b) CO₂

Question 7.
The valence electron in …………… atom is 1.
(a) magnesium
(b) sodium
(c) silicon
(d) aluminium
Answer:
(b) sodium

Question 8.
The electronic configuration of oxygen is …………….. .
(a) 2, 5
(b) 2, 6
(c) 2, 4
(d) 2, 8, 6
Answer:
(b) 2, 6

Question 9.
Pure ………… is soft.
(a) aluminium
(b) silver
(c) gold
(d) platinum
Answer:
(c) gold

Question 10.
…………… is a highly malleable metal.
(a) Iron
(b) Nickel
(c) Manganese
(d) Aluminium
Answer:
(d) Aluminium

Question 11.
22 carat gold is gold of …………… purity.
(a) 100%
(b) 91.66%
(c) 75%
(d) 44%
Answer:
(b) 91.66%

State whether the following statements are True or False:

Question 1.
Metals are sonorous.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Diamond is the softest natural substance.
Answer:
False. (Diamond is the hardest natural substance.)

Question 3.
The density of lithium is lower than water.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
Sulphur is brown in colour.
Answer:
False. (Sulphur is yellow in colour.)

Question 5.
Germanium is a metalloid.
Answer:
True.

Question 6.
Ornaments are made from 24 carat gold.
Answer:
False. (Ornaments are made from 22 carat gold.)

Question 7.
A reddish coloured deposit is formed on iron by reaction with oxygen.
Answer:
True.

Question 8.
Paladium and rhodium are noble metals.
Answer:
True.

Question 9.
The metal oxides are acidic in nature.
Answer:
False. (The metal oxides are basic in nature.)

Question 10.
The metal reacts with dilute acids to form a metal salt.
Answer:
True.

Identify the odd term:

Question 1.
Magnesium, Mercury, Sodium, Iron.
Answer:
Mercury. (Others metals are in solid state at normal temperature.)

Question 2.
Magnesium, Aluminium, Sulphur, Copper.
Answer:
Sulphur. (Others are metals.)

Question 3.
Iron, Copper, Graphite, Phosphorus.
Answer:
Phosphorus. (Others are good conductors of electricity.)

Question 4.
Tin, Bronze, Steel, Stainless steel.
Answer:
Tin. (Others are alloys.)

Consider the relation between the items in the first pair and write the correlation for second pair:

Question 1.
Mercury : Metal : : Carbon : …………. .
Answer:
Non-metal

Question 2.
Wood : Bad conductor of electricity : : Copper : ………………… .
Answer:
Good conductor or electricity

Question 3.
Gold : Noble metal : : Copper: ……………. .
Answer:
Metal

Question 4.
Iron and carbon : Steel : : Copper and Tin : ……….. .
Answer:
Bronze

Question 5.
0 : 2, 6 : : Mg : …………….. .
Answer:
2, 8, 2.

Match the columns:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Copper	a. Low melting point
2. Sodium	b. Liquid
3. Magnesium	c. High melting point
4. Boron	d. Conduction of heat
	e. 2, 8, 2

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Copper	d. Conduction of heat
2. Sodium	a. Low melting point
3. Magnesium	e. 2, 8, 2
4. Boron	c. High melting point

Question 2.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Silver	a. Copper + tin
2. Mercury	b. Medicines
3. Platinum	c. Thermometer
4. Brass	d. Catalyst

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Silver	b. Medicines
2. Mercury	c. Thermometer
3.Platinum	d. Catalyst
4. Brass	a. Copper + tin

Define the following:

1. Ductility: The property due to which a substance can be drawn into a thin wire is called ductility.
2. Malleability: The property due to which a substance can be hammered into a thin sheet is called malleability.
3. Metalloids: The element which shows the properties of metals as well as those of non-metals is called a metalloid.
4. Corrosion: Gases in the air react with metals in presence of moisture to form metal compounds on its surface, this destroys the metal gradually and is called corrosion.
5. Alloy: A homogeneous mixture of two or more metals or a homogeneous mixture of metal with non-metals is called alloy.

Answer the following questions in one sentence:

Question 1.
Name an alloy of copper and tin.
Answer:
An alloy of copper and tin is termed as bronze.

Question 2.
Name a metal which is in liquid state at ordinary temperature.
Answer:
Mercury is in liquid state at ordinary temperature.

Question 3.
Name two metals which are malleable.
Answer:
Iron and aluminium are malleable metals.

Question 4.
Name two metals which are ductile.
Answer:
Gold and silver are ductile metals.

Question 5.
Name two metals which are good conductors of heat.
Answer:
Silver and copper are good conductors of heat.

Question 6.
Name two metals which are good conductors of electricity.
Answer:
Copper and aluminium are good conductors of electricity.

Question 7.
Name two non-metals which are in solid state at room temperature.
Answer:
Carbon and sulphur are solids at room temperature.

Question 8.
Name two non-metals which are in gaseous state at room temperature.
Answer:
Hydrogen and oxygen are in gaseous state at room temperature.

Question 9.
Name the non-metal having electrical conductivity.
Answer:
Graphite has electrical conductivity.

Question 10.
Name two non-metals which are lustrous.
Answer:
Iodine and diamond are lustrous in nature.

Question 11.
Name two non-metals having high melting points.
Answer:
Carbon and boron melt at high temperature.

Question 12.
State two metals which can be cut easily with a knife.
Answer:
Sodium and potassium are soft metals and can be cut easily with a knife.

Question 13.
Which is the hardest natural substance?
Answer:
Diamond, which is a form of carbon is the hardest natural substance.

Question 14.
State the property of the metals for which they can be drawn into wires.
Answer:
The property of the metals due to which they can be drawn into wires is called ductility.

Question 15.
State the property of the metals due to which they can be beaten into thin sheets.
Answer:
The property of the metals due to which they can be beaten into thin sheets is called malleability.

Question 16.
Which of the following metals react with cold water? Sodium, iron, copper, potassium.
Answer:
Sodium and potassium metals react with cold water.

Question 17.
Which of the following metals do not react with cold water or hot water?
Answer:
Aluminium and iron do not react with cold water or hot water.

Question 18.
What are the constituents of stainless steel?
Answer:
Iron with carbon, chromium and nickel are the constituents of stainless steel.

Question 19.
State the term used to express the purity of gold.
Answer:
The purity of gold is expressed in carat.

Question 20.
Name two metals having low melting points and boiling points.
Answer:
Sodium and potassium having low melting points and boiling points.

Question 21.
Name a non-metal which is in liquid state at room temperature.
Answer:
Bromine is in liquid state at room temperature.

Question 22.
State the atomic number and electronic configuration of sodium.
Answer:
Atomic number of sodium: 11.
Electronic configuration of sodium (Na): 2, 8, 1.

Question 23.
State the atomic number and electronic configuration of aluminium.
Answer:
Atomic number of aluminium: 13.
Electronic configuration of aluminium (Al): 2, 8, 3.

Question 24.
Give two example of metalloids.
Answer:
Metalloids: Arsenic (As),
germanium (Ge), antimony (Sb).

Question 25.
State the atomic number and electronic configuration of nitrogen.
Answer:
Atomic number of nitrogen: 7.
Electronic configuration of nitrogen (N): 2, 5.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
A metal can be drawn into a wire. Explain why.
Answer:

1. The property due to which a substance can be draw into a thin wire is called ductility.
2. Metals are ductile. Thus, a metal can be draw into a wire.

Question 2.
A metal can be hammered into a i thin sheet. Explain why.
Answer:

1. The property due to which a substance can be hammered (or rolled) into a thin sheet without cracking is called malleability.
2. Metals are malleable. Thus, a metal can be hammered to form a thin sheet.

Question 3.
State the properties of metals.
Answer:

1. Metals have a lustre.
2. Metals are malleable. They can be beaten into thin sheets.
3. Metals are ductile. They can be drawn into wires.
4. They are good conductors of heat and electricity.
5. At ordinary temperature, metals are generally solid. (Exception: Mercury is liquid.)
6. Metals usually have high density.

Question 4.
State the properties of non-metals.
Answer:

1. Non-metals lack lustre.
2. As non-metals are brittle, they are not malleable.
3. They are not ductile.
4. Non-metals are poor conductors of heat and electricity.
5. At ordinary temperature, non-metals are in the solid or gaseous state. (Exception: Bromine is liquid.)
6. Non-metals have low density in the solid state.

Question 5.
How are metal ions formed? Give two examples.
Answer:
Metals have a tendency to lose their valence electrons to form positively charged ions, called cations.
Examples:

Question 6.
Classify the following elements into metals and non-metals :
Silicon, gold, silver, sulphur, carbon, aluminium, copper and phosphorus.
Answer:
Metals: Gold, silver, aluminium and copper.
Non-metals: Silicon, sulphur, carbon and phosphorus.

Question 7.
How are metal oxides formed? Explain with an example.
Answer:
Metals combine with oxygen in the ’ air to form their oxides.
Metal + Oxygen → Metal oxide
[Note: Reaction/explanation given in the screen are for better understanding of students. The same are not given in the textbook.]
When magnesium burns in air, it combines with oxygen to form magnesium oxide.
2Mg + O₂ → 2MgO
Magnesium Oxygen Magnesium oxide

Question 8.
How will you show that metal oxides are basic in nature?
Answer:
1. Take magnesium oxide in a test S tube. Add water in the test-tube. Shake the test-tube. Test the solution with red and blue litmus paper. Blue litmus paper remains as it is while red litmus paper turns blue. This shows that metal oxides are basic in nature.

2. Metal oxides react with an acid to form salt and water. Therefore, metal oxides are basic in nature.
Metal oxide + Acid → + Water

Question 9.
How do metals react with acid? Explain with an example.
Answer:
The metals react with dilute acids to form metal salts. Metals liberate hydrogen gas from dilute acids.
Metal + Dilute acid → Metal salt + Hydrogen gas.
Magnesium reacts with dilute HCl to form magnesium chloride and hydrogen gas.

Question 10.
How do metals react with water? Explain with an example.
Answer:
Most metals do not react with cold water. But some metals like sodium and potassium react with cold water to form their hydroxides and hydrogen gas.
Sodium reacts with water to form sodium hydroxide.

Question 11.
How do non-metals react with oxygen? Explain with an example.
Answer:
Non-metals combine with oxyen to form their oxides.
Non-metal + Oxygen → Non-metal oxide
When carbon burns in air, it combines with oxygen to form carbon dioxide.

Question 12.
How will you show that non- metal oxides are acidic in nature?
Answer:
1. Take non-metal oxide in a test tube. Add water in the test tube. Test the solution with blue and red litmus paper. Red litmus paper remains as it is while blue litmus paper turns red. This shows that non¬metal oxides are acidic in nature.

2. The oxides of non-metals are acidic in nature. They react with bases to form soluble salt and water. Therefore, non-metal oxides are acidic in nature.
C + O₂ → CO₂
CO₂ + 2NaOH → Na2CO₃ + H₂O

Question 13.
How are non-metal ions formed? Give two examples.
Answer: Non-metals have a tendency to accept electrons in their valence shell to form negatively charged ions called anions.
Examples:

Question 14.
What is meant by noble metals? Give two examples.
Answer:
Some metals like gold, silver, platinum, paladium and rhodium are found in nature in the form of elements. They are not affected by air, water, acids and heat etc. Hence, they are called noble metals.

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
Ornaments are generally not made from 24-carat gold.
Answer:

1. 24-carat gold is considered as gold of 100% purity.
2. 24-carat pure gold is very soft. 100% pure gold breaks due to pressure or gets bent easily. Therefore, ornaments are generally not made from 24-carat gold.

c

Question 2.
Ships are painted at frequent intervals.
Answer:
1. The metal sheets of ships are made from iron.
2. Due to salty seawater, the metal sheets of ships get rusted and corroded. Paints contain metals like zinc or magnesium. This prevents the metal surface of the ship coming into direct contact with salty seawater. Therefore, ships are painted at frequent intervals.

Question 3.
Gold and platinum are called noble elements.
Answer:

1. The metals such as gold and platinum are found in nature in the form of elements.
2. They are not affected by water, air, acids, heat and also do not take part in chemical reactions. Hence, they are called noble metals.

Explain the following reactions with the help of balanced equations:

Question 1.
Magnesium combines with oxygen.
Answer:
Magnesium combines with oxygen to form magnesium oxide.

Question 2.
Magnesium oxide reacts with dilute HCl.
Answer:
When magnesium oxide reacts with dilute HCl, magnesium chloride (salt) and water are formed.

Question 3.
Magnesium reacts with dilute HCl.
Answer:
When magnesium reacts with dil.
hydrochloric acid, magnesium chloride is formed and hydrogen gas is evolved.

Question 4.
Sodium reacts with water.
Answer:
When sodium reacts with water, sodium hydroxide and hydrogen gas are formed.

Question 5.
Carbon burns in air.
Answer:
When carbon burns in air, carbon dioxide is formed.

Question 6.
Carbon dioxide reacts with sodium hydroxide.
Answer:
When carbon dioxide reacts with sodium hydroxide, soluble salt sodium ; carbonate and water are formed.

Question 7.
Carbon dioxide reacts with water.
Answer:
When carbon dioxide reacts with water, carbonic acid is formed.

Question 8.
Sulphur dioxide reacts with water.
Answer:
When sulphur dioxide reacts with water, sulphurous acid is formed.

Question 9.
Sulphur trioxide reacts with water.
Answer:
When sulphur trioxide reacts with water, sulphuric acid is formed.

Write short notes:

Question 1.
The noble metals.
Answer:
Some metals like gold, silver, platinum, paladium and rhodium are found in nature in the form of elements. They are not affected by air, water, acids and heat etc. Hence, they are called noble metals.

Uses of Nobel Metals:

1. Gold, silver and platinum are used to prepare ornaments.
2. Silver is used in medicines. (It has antibacterial property).
3. Gold and silver are also used to make metals and few electronic devices.
4. Platinum, palladium metals are used as catalyst. .

Question 2.
The purity of gold.
Answer:
1. The purity of gold is measured in carats.
2. Twenty-four carat gold is considered as gold of 100% purity.
3. 24-carat pure gold is very soft. 100% pure gold bends easily or breaks due to pressure. Therefore, copper or silver is added to gold in the necessary proportion (while making ornaments).
4. Generally, 22-carat gold is used in making ornaments.

Percentage of gold	Carat
100%	24
91.66%	22
75%	18
58.33%	14
50%	12
41.66%	10

Question 3.
Corrosion.
Answer:
Corrosion: Gases in the air react with metals in presence of moisture to form metal compounds on its surface, this destroys the metal gradually and is called corrosion.

By applying a layer of paint, oil, grease or varnish on the surface of a metal to prevent corrosion. Also plating with noncorroding metal is done. Iron is coated with thin layer of zinc. Due to these processes, the contact of a metal surface with air is lost and corrosion is prevented.

1. A reddish coloured deposit (rust) is formed on iron by reaction with oxygen gas.
2. A greenish coloured deposit (copper carbonate) is formed on copper by reaction with carbon dioxide.
3. A blackish coloured deposit is formed (silver sulphide) on silver.
4. Corrosion causes damages to car bodies, bridges, iron railings, ships specially those of iron, silver articles and copper vessels.

Question 4.
Alloys.
Answer:

1. A homogeneous mixture of two or more metals or of metals and non-metals is called an alloy.
2. They contain metals in specific proportions.
3. The physical properties of an alloy are different from those of its constituents, but chemical properties remain the same.
4. Copper and tin are used to make an alloy called bronze. It is hard and corrosion resistant.
5. When iron and carbon are mixed, an alloy steel is formed. It is a stronger material.
6. The alloy, stainless steel is made from iron, carbon, nickel and chromium. It is more durable, clean and does not rust.

Distinguish between the following:

Question 1.
Metals and Non-metals
Answer:

Metals	Non-metals
1. Metals have lustre.	1. Non-metals do not have lustre.
2. Metals are malleable.	2. Non-metals are not malleable.
3. Metals are ductile.	3. Non-metals are not ductile.
4. Metals are good conductors of heat and electricity.	4. Non-metals are poor conductors of heat and electricity.
5. At room temperature, metals are in the solid state. (Exception : Mercury is liquid.)	5. At room temperature, non-metals are in the solid, or gaseous state. (Exception Bromine. It is in liquid state.)
6. Generally, metals have high densities.	6. Generally, non-metals have lower densities.

 

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 13 Life of the People in Maharashtra Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 13 Life of the People in Maharashtra

Class 7 History Chapter 13 Life of the People in Maharashtra Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Complete the chart.

Answer:

2. Which undesirable customs are prevalent in today’s society ? Suggest measures for their eradication.
Answer:
The bad traditions prevalent in the society are:

• No Education for girls.
• Female infanticide.
• Dowry.
• Animal sacrifice
• Superstitions.
• Bonded labour.

The ways to get rid of these bad traditions are:

• Special provisions for girl’s education.
• Awareness programme for women.
• Inculcating scientific attitude.
• Special law to protect the women and girl child.
• Thinking positive, parental guidance to think in a systematic way, to get science knowledge update to disperse the blind belief will eradicate superstition.

3. Make a detailed notes of the festivals and auspicious days in your area.
Answer:
(a) Diwali, Holi, Mahashivaratri, Eid, Raksha Bandhan, Navaratri, Krishna Janmashtami, Gurpurabh, Parsi new year, Onam are celebrated with great pomp and show in our area.

(b) Sanskasthi Chaturthi, Ekadashi, Akshaya Tritiya etc., are some of the auspicious days celebrated in our area.

4. Use the following points to compare life in the era of Shivaji Maharaj and today’s life.

S. No.	Point	At the time of Shivaji Maharaj	Today
(1)	Transactions	……………	…………
(2)	Houses	…………….	Permanent, Well-constructed cement-concrete multi-storeyed house.
(3)	Transportation	………….	Bus, Railway and Aeroplane.
(4)	Entertainment	……………	…………….

Answer:

S. No.	Point	At the time of Shivaji Maharaj	Today
(1)	Transactions	Barter system	Coins, Paper money, Plastic money, Currency – Rupee, Cashless transaction through banks.
(2)	Houses	Village Houses: Made with simple mud and bricks. Cities- Wadas with one or two storeys.	Permanent, Well-constructed cement-concrete multi-storeyed house.
(3)	Transportation	Bullock cart, Horseback, Boat	Bus, Railway and Aeroplane.
(4)	Entertainment	Tamasha, Ballads on Dap	Music, Drama, Dance, Watching Television, Play, movie, Opera etc.

Activity

Gather information about the capable women of our country and read it aloud in your class, e.g. information on P.V. Sindhu, Sakshi Malik.

Class 7 History Chapter 13 Life of the People in Maharashtra Textbook Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
The Patils were given some land as Inam for his job as a _____. (Patil, Jagir, Watans)
Answer:
Patil

Question 2.
For any major or minor events or for battles an ______ was checked. (Time, Muhurta, Place)
Answer:
Muhurta

Question 3.
The _______ festival was celebrated on a large scale during the Peshwa Era. (Ganesh, Diwali, Makar Sankranti)
Answer:
Ganesh

Question 4.
______ script was used for day to day affairs. (Marathi, Sanskrit, Modi)
Answer:
Modi

Question 5.
______ was very popular sport. (Wrestling, Mallakhamb, Martial arts)
Answer:
Martial arts

Question 6.
The Jain Mandir at Jamod in Vidarbha had paintings of Jin Charitra, ______ stories (mythological, various festivals, animals)
Answer:
Mythological

Question 7.
________ was popular as an entertainment programme during the Peshwa Era. (Stage show, Tamasha, Lavani)
Answer:
Tamasha

Question 8.
_______ was a well-known painter. (Mallamma Desai, Gopikabai, Gangaram Tambat)
Answer:
Gangaram Tambat

Question 9.
The letters were carried by _______and messengers. (Birds, Camel riders, Post)
Answer:
Camel riders

Question 10.
People used to believe in ______ a lot. (astrology, scientific vision, dreams)
Answer:
astrology

Match the following:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Festival	(a) Mankoji
(2) Sport	(b) Bail-Pola
(3) Sculpture	(c) Mallakhamb
(4) Ghat	(d) Ghrishneshwar Temple
(5) Painter	(e) Toke

Answer:
1 – b
2 – c
3 – d
4 – e
5 – a

Question 2.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) The Patils	(a) To manage the revenue
(2) The Kulkarni	(b) To protect the village
(3) Black Soil,	(c) Work in an office
(4) White-collared	(d) Farmers

Answer:
1 – b
2 – a
3 – d
4 – c

Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
What was the chief source of production at the village level during the Peshwa era?
Answer:
Agriculture and agriculture based businesses were die chief source of production at the village level.

Question 2.
When was Ganesh festival celebrated?
Answer:
Ganesh festival was celebrated every year Bhadrapad Chaturthi to Anant Chaturdashi.

Question 3.
Which festivals were celebrated during Diwali?
Answer:
During Diwali the Balipratipada and Bhau- beej days were celebrated on large scale.

Question 4.
What were organised during the Jatras days?
Answer:
Wrestling Match were Organised during the Jatras days.

Question 5.
Which Subjects were taught in Pathshalas and Madarasas?
Answer:
Writing, reading, accounting were taught in Pathshalas and Madarasas.

Question 6.
Which games were played during the Peshwa Era?
Answer:
Martial arts were very popular, Mallakhamb Dand, Wrestling, Lathi, Dandpatta, Bothati these games were played.

Question 7.
What was the religious policy of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj?
Answer:
(i) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj had a liberal religious policy.
(ii) He believed that everyone should follow his or her own religion but nobody should force his or her religion upon others.

Question 8.
What did the daily meal of the people consist of?
Answer:
The daily meal consisted of Bhakari, onion, chutney and gravy.

Question 9.
What did men and women use to wear during that period?
Answer:
(a) Men used to wear dhoti, kurta, angarakha, turban.
(b) Women use to wear sarees (nine-yard) and blouses.

Question 10.
What were used in Wada decoration?
Answer:
Artwork, decorative painting, firewood, sculptures, mirrors were used in wada decoration.

Name the following:

Question 1.
The land was given as inam to Patils do the job.
Answer:
Patilaki

Question 2.
Festival celebrated on large scale.
Answer:
The Ganesh festival.

Question 3.
Crops grown.
Answer:
Jowar, bajra, wheat, nachni, corn, rice etc.

Question 4.
Education was given in.
Answer:
Pathshalas and Madarasas.

Question 5.
Modes of transport.
Answer:
Ghat roads, the bridges on the river, boats.

Question 6.
Means of communication.
Answer:
Camel riders and Messengers.

Question 7.
Popular outdoor games.
Answer:
Hututu, Kho-kho and Atyapatya.

Question 8.
Learned women in the Peshwa Era.
Answer:
(a) Veermata Jijabai
(b) Maharani Yesubai
(c) Maharani Tarabai
(d) Umabai Dabhade.

Question 9.
Famous architect during that period.
Answer:
Hiroji Indulkar.

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
Discuss everyday living of the people in that Era.
Answer:
Most of the people were staying in the village. The villages were self sufficient.

(a) Crops grown: The farmers grown the crops like jowar, bajra, wheat, nachani, com, rice etc.

(b) Food: The farmers’ daily meal consisted of bhakari, onion, chutney and gravy. Rich people’s meal consisted of rice, dal-varan, chapatis, vegetables, salads and milk products.

(c) The transaction in rural area were based on barter system.

(d) Houses: The houses were simple and were made of soil and bricks.

(e) Clothing :
(i) Men wear – Dhoti, Kurta, Angarakha, Turban.
(ii) Women wear – Saree (nine yard) and blouse.

Question 2.
The life of women’s during Peshwa Period.
Answer:
(a) Their world were confined to the house of first their father and then their husband.

(b) Their education was neglected.

(c) Only a few exceptional women had achieved any progress in literacy, administration and battle skills.

(d) They include Veermata Jijabai, Maharani Yesubai, Maharani Tarabai, Umabai Dabhade, Gopikabai, Punyashlok Ahilyabai.

(e) Customs like child marriage, unequal marriage, widowhood, keshwapan, sati, polygamy had imposed harsh restrictions on the way women lived.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 12 Progression of the Empire Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 12 Progression of the Empire

Class 7 History Chapter 12 Progression of the Empire Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Answer in one word:

Question 1.
She took the charge of the Indore administration.
Answer:
Ahilyabai Holkar

Question 2.
The most capable and brave man in Nagpurkar Bhosale family.
Answer:
Raghuji

Question 3.
He reinstated the Emperor on the throne of Delhi.
Answer:
Mahadji Shinde

Question 4.
He managed politics in the South.
Answer:
Nana Phadnavis

2. Arrange chronologically:

• The battle of Ashti.
• Maratha dominance over Odisha.
• The British hoisted the Union Jack in Pune.

Answer:

• Maratha dominance over Odisha.
• The battle of Ashti.
• The British hoisted the Union Jack in Pune.

3. Write briefly:

Question 1.
The work done by Ahilyabai Holkar.
Answer:

• She created new laws for agricultural tax and tax recovery.
• She brought barren land under cultivation.
• Dug wells for farmers.
• She promoted trade and industry.
• Built water reservoirs.
• She constructed mandirs, ghats, matts and dharamshalas.
• Provided water facilities over India.
• She brought cultural integration in the country.

Question 2.
The valour shown by Mahadji Shinde.
Answer:
(a) He played a major role in re-establishing the Maratha power in the North after the defeat of the Marathas at Panipat.

(b) He realised that guerilla tactics would not be any more useful so he trained and modernised his army under a French military expert de Boigne.

(c) With this trained army, he defeated the Rohillas, the Jats, the Rajputs and the Bundellas.

(d) Mahadji managed the difficult affairs with strong determination and looked after the Delhi affairs during CE 1784 to CE 1794.
The Mughal Emperor honoured him with the title Vakil-i-Mutlak.

Question 3.
The Maratha rule in Gujarat.
Answer:
(a) General Khanderao Dabhade and his son laid the foundation of Maratha power in Gujarat.

(b) After the death of Khanderao, his wife Umabai took the charge, bravely fought the battle with Mughal Sardar at Ahmadabad and captured a fort.

(c) The Gaikwads made Vadodara their centre of power.

4. Discuss the reasons behind the end of the Maratha rule.
Answer:
The reasons behind the end of Maratha rule were:

(a) After the death of Mahadji Shinde and Nana Phadnavis, the Maratha power started declining.

(b) Raghunathrao’s son, Bajirao II the Peshwa did not have leadership qualities which could create solidarity among the Maratha Sardars.

(c) Maratha power got weakened due to these differences among the Maratha Sardars.

(d) The supremacy of the Marathas declined in the North and the South during the period of Bajirao II.

(e) The British dethroned the Maratha power and became the rulers

Activity:

Create a pictorial chart to show the families that contributed to the expansion of the Maratha power. Exhibit it in your school.

Class 7 History Chapter 12 Progression of the Empire Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate word from the options given below:

Question 1.
The Gaikwads made _______ in Gujarat a seat of their power. (Vadodara, Ahmadabad, Surat)
Answer:
Vadodara

Question 2.
_____ was the founder of the Holkar rule in Indore. (Mahadji, Malharrao, Raghunathrao)
Answer:
Malharrao

Question 3.
_____ managed to take care of the politics in the South. (Nana Phadnavis, Kanhoji, Khanderao)
Answer:
Nana Phadnavis

Question 4.
________ strengthened the naval power of Shivaji. (Patwardhan, Bhosale of Nagpur,Kanhoji Tulaji Angre)
Answer:
Kanhoji Tulaji Angre

Question 5.
During the reign of _____ there was a complete breakdown of the Maratha power. (Ahilyabai, Bhosale, Bajirao-ll)
Answer:
Bajirao-ll

Question 6.
_____ laid the foundation of Maratha power in Gujarat. (Khanderao Dabhade, Madhavrao, Raghuji)
Answer:
Khanderao

Question 7.
Malharrao Holkar was well versed in ________ (Sword fighting, Martial art, Guerrilla Warfare)
Answer:
Guerrilla warfare

Question 8.
The British managed to get the rights of the _______ of the Bengal region. (Diwani, Chauthai, Sardeshmukhi)
Answer:
Diwani

Question 9.
Delhi was under the influence of Maratha power till ______. (1803 CE, 1807 CE, 1819 CE)
Answer:
1803 CE

Question 10.
British defeated the Marathas in the battle of Ashti in Solapur in _________. (CE 1818, CE 1820, CE 1814)
Answer:
1818 CE

Match the following:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Khanderao Dabhade’s wife	(a)  Raghuji Bhosale
(2) The most capable and brave Maratha Sardar.	(b) Umabai
(3) Mahadji’s death	(c) Akhilyabai Holkar
(4) She played a role in the judiciary	(d) Wanawadi (e) Wadgaon

Answer:
1 – b
2 – a
3 – d
4 – c

Answer in one word:

Question 1.
Title conferred to Mahadji Shinde.
Answer:
Vakil-i-Mutlak (Chief agent of the Emperor)

Question 2.
An expert in guerilla tactics.
Answer:
Mahadji Shinde

Question 3.
She was the wife of Khanderao, Malharrao’s son.
Answer:
Ahilyabai Holkar

Question 4.
Managed the supremacy in the South.
Answer:
Nana Phadnavis

Question 5.
Peshwa who didn’t have leadership qualities.
Answer:
Bajirao II

Question 6.
Appointed as Sardar in the North.
Answer:
Ranoji Shinde

Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
Which regions were given as jagirs to Parasoji by Shahu Maharaj?
Answer:
Varhad and Gondawan were given to Parasoji by Shahu Maharaj.

Question 2.
What rights were assigned to Raghuji?
Answer:
Raghuji Bhosale was assigned the Chauthai rights of Bengal, Bihar and Odisha.

Question 3.
Who laid the foundation of the Maratha power in Gujarat?
Answer:
Khanderao Dabhade and his son Trimbakrao laid the foundation of the Maratha power in Gujarat.

Question 4.
Why did Mahadji Shinde train his army?
Answer:
Mahadji Shinde trained his army because the Marathas generally used the guerrilla tactics in 1 the hilly regions of the South. But would not be
suitable in the plains of the North.

Question 5.
What was the contribution of Punyashloka Ahilyabai?
Answer:
(a) Punyashloka Ahilyabai ruled for twenty-eight years and enhanced the Maratha prestige in the North.
(b) She brought peace and order in her kingdom and made her people happy.

Question 6.
What was crystal clear amongst the British and Marathas?
Answer:
It was crystal clear that whoever will rule India will be ultimately decided by the war between the Marathas and the British.

Give reason:

Question 1.
Mahadji Shinde conferred the title of Vakil-i- Mutlak (Chief agent of the Emperor).
Answer:
British wanted to take the Delhi Emperor in their captivity. Even though the conditions were unfavourable, Mahadji Shinde defeated the British and again reinstated the Emperor on the throne. The Emperor was pleased with his bravery and conferred the title of Vakili- Mutlak. (Chief Agent of the Emperor).

Question 2.
The Maratha Sardars became successful in establishing the supremacy in North and South India.
Answer:
After the death of Madhavrao Peshwa, the Maratha Empire went in a disarray, Nana Phadnavis and Mahadji Shinde brought it back to normal. Mahadji was busy in the North to establish the supremacy of Marathas, Nana Phadnavis managed to take care of the politics in South. Leadership and capability helped the Maratha power to reach to a new pinnacle. Hence the Maratha Sardar became successful in establishing the supremacy in north and south India.

Question 3.
The supremacy of Marathas in the North and the South declined in the times of Bajirao II.
Answer:
Bajirao II became the Peshwa. He didn’t have any leadership qualities. On the contrary he had many vices. He couldn’t create solidarity amongst the Maratha Sardars. Because of many such reasons, the supremacy of the Maratha power in the North and the South declined in the times of Bajirao II.

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Malharrao Holkar
Answer:

• He was the founder of the Holkar rule at Indore.
• He served the Maratha kingdom for a long time.
• He was expert in guerilla warfare.
• He proved his valour in the eras of Bajirao I and Nanasaheb Peshwa.
• He played a major role in establishing the supremacy of the Marathas in Malwa and Rajputana.
• He greatly helped Madhavrao Peshwa in re-establishing the Maratha supremacy after the defeat at Panipat.

Question 2.
Mahadji Shinde
Answer:

• Madhavrao Peshwa was conferred the title of Vakil-i-Mutlak by the Emperor. He was brave and an astute statesmen.
• After the Maratha defeat at Panipat, he played a major role in re-establishing the Maratha dominance and prestige in the Northern India.
• He realised that the guerilla tactics of Marathas would not be useful in the plains of the northern region.
• He trained his army under the French military expert de-Boigne and updated his artillery.
• With the help of his trained army, he subdued the Rohillas, Jats, Rajputs, Bundellas, etc.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 11 Marathas – The Protectors of the Nation Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 11 Marathas – The Protectors of the Nation

Class 7 History Chapter 11 Marathas – The Protectors of the Nation Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Name them:

Question 1.
They came from Afghanistan.
Answer:
The Pathans

Question 2.
They settled at the foothills of the Himalayas.
Answer:
The Rohillas

Question 3.
The brother of Nanasaheb Peshwa.
Answer:
Raghunathrao

Question 4.
The chief of Jats at Mathura.
Answer:
Surajmaljat

Question 5.
Defeated the Nizam at Rakshasbhuvan near Paithan.
Answer:
Madhavrao

2.Write in brief about:

Question 1.
Raising the Maratha standard at Attack. Or Hoisting the Maratha standard at Attack.
Answer:

• Najib Khan, the Rohillas chief could not tolerate the Maratha supremacy.
• Najib Khan requested Abdali to invade India again. He captured Delhi.
• He returned to Afghanistan and collected huge wealth.
• Raghunathrao and Madhavrao Holkar marched to the North and captured Delhi.
• They defeated Abdali’s officers and captured Punjab.

Question 2.
Conflict with the Afghans.
Or
Battle with the Afghans.
Answer:

• In CE 1751, Ahmadshah Abdali conquered Punjab.
• Due to that, the Mughals were facing threat from Abdali.
• So they joined hands with the Marathas to protect Delhi.
• The Emperor signed a treaty with Marathas in 1752.
• As per the treaty, the Marathas agreed to protect the Mughal Empire.
• The Maratha army marched towards Delhi.
• As Abdali got this news, he returned to his native country (Afghanistan).
• Due to the Maratha power, the threat of Abdali got subsided.

Question 3.
The after effects of the battle of Panipat.
Answer:

• The Marathas were defeated.
• The whole generation of Marathas were killed.
• Many brave soldiers died on the battlefield.
• It caused a great harm to the reputation of Marathas in Northern India.

3. Arrange chronologically:

• The battle of Rakshasbhuvan
• The death of Tipu Sultan
• The death of Madhavrao Peshwa
• The battle of Panipat
• The battle of Buradi Ghat

Answer:

• The battle of Buradi Ghat
• The battle of Panipat
• The battle of Rakshasbhuvan
• The death of Madhavrao Peshwa
• The death of Tipu Sultan.

4. Find the names of people in the chapter :

Question 1.
N _ n _ _ _ _ _ _
Answer:
Nanasaheb

Question 2.
D _ _ _ _ _ _
Answer:
Dattaji

Question 3.
N _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
Answer:
Nizamshah

Activity:

Find more information about the battle of Panipat on the internet and make a presentation in your class.

Class 7 History Chapter 11 Marathas – The Protectors of the Nation Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate word from the options given below:

Question 1.
Ahmadshah Abdali was the Emperor of ______. (Mysore, Paithan, Afghanistan)
Answer:
Afghanistan

Question 2.
The chief of the Maratha artillery was ____. (Ibrahim khan, Hyder Ali, Najib Khan)
Answer:
Ibrahim khan

Question 3.
The Marathas defeated _________ in a battle at Motitalao near Srirangapattan. (Hyder Ali, Ibrahim Khan, Abdali)
Answer:
Hyder Ali

Question 4.
Safadarjung was the Nawab of ______.(Mysore, Paithan, Ayodhya)
Answer:
Ayodhya

Question 5.
_____ the ruler of Afghanistan conquered Punjab in 1751 CE. (Ahmadshah Abdali, Rohillas, Hyder Ali)
Answer:
Ahmadshah Abdali

Question 6.
Nanasaheb sent ________ to the North to crush Abdali. (Sadashivraobhau, Surajmal Jat, Vishwasrao)
Answer:
Sadashivraobhau

Question 7.
Hyder Ali usurped the throne of _____ (Mysore, Paithan, Ayodhya)
Answer:
Mysore

Question 8.
______was a Rohilla chief. (Ibrahimkhan, Najibkhan, Ahmadshah)
Answer:
Najibkhan

Question 9.
Madhavrao defeated the Nizam at ______ near Paithan. (Srirangapattan, Rakshasbhuvan, Buradi Ghat)
Rakshasbhuvan

Question 10.
After the death of Peshwa Nanasaheb, his son ________ succeeded him. (Bajirao II, Madhavrao, Vishwasrao)
Answer:
Madhavrao

Match the following:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) The Nawab of Ayodhya	(a) Raja Sawal Jaysingh.
(2) The Rohilla Chief	(b) Safadarjung
(3) The Chief of the Jats	(c) Najib Khan
(4) The chief of the Maratha artillery	(d)  Surajmal (e)  Ibrahim Khan Gardi

Answer:
1 – b
2 – c
3 – d
4 – e

Find the name of people in the chapter:

Question 1.
I _ _ _ h _ _ _ _ _ _
Answer:
Ibrahimkhan

Name them:

Question 1.
He met a heroic death in the battle.
Answer:
Dattaji

Question 2.
He became Peshwa after Bajirao.
Answer:
Nanasaheb

Question 3.
They do not help Marathas in the Battle of Panipat.
Answer:
Jats and Rajputs

Question 4.
The army of the Marathas attacked Abdali on 14th January, 1761.
Answer:
Battle of Panipat

Question 5.
The Sultan who took advantage of the defeat of the Marathas at Panipat and attacked the Maratha territory in Karnataka.
Answer:
Sultan Hyder Ali

Question 6.
The death of this capable Peshwa caused a great loss to Maratha Kingdom.
Answer:
Peshwa Madhavrao

Question 7.
Understood that only Marathas can rule over the chaos in North and wished that Marathas should rule the North.
Answer:
Abdali and his heirs

Answer the following in one sentence:

Question 1.
Why did the Peshwa send Dattaji Shinde and Janakoji Shinde to the North?
Answer:
The Peshwa sent Dattaji Shinde and Janakoji Shinde to crush the power of Najibkhan and to get a firm hold over the Punjab.

Question 2.
Why did the Nawab of Ayodhya invite the Marathas?
Answer:
The Nawab invited the Marathas to subdue the Rohillas.

Question 3.
Who helped the wounded Maratha soldiers in the Panipat battle?
Answer:
Surajmal Jat, Queen Kishori helped the wounded Maratha soldiers in the Panipat battle.

Question 4.
When did the third battle of Panipat start?
Answer:
The Marathas attacked Abdali on 14th January, 1761 and the third battle of Panipat started.

Question 5.
What conditions were laid in the treaty signed between the Emperor and the Marathas in April 1752?
Answer:
According to this treaty, the Marathas agreed to protect the Mughal Empire from enemies like the Rohillas, Jats, Rajputs and Afghans, etc. In return, the Marathas got cash and the rights to collect Chauthai from a few regions of North (Punjab, Multan, Rajputana, Sindh and Rohilkhand).

Question 6.
With whom did Nanasaheb campaign against Abdali?
Answer:
Jayappa Shinde, Madhavrao Holkar along with Nanasaheb campaigned against Abdali.

Question 7.
Why did Hyder Ali attack Marathas when they were defeated at Panipat and they had become weak?
Answer:
Hyder Ali thought that the Marathas were defeated at Panipat and they had become weak and so he attacked them.

Question 8.
In which battle did the Marathas defeat Hyder Ali?
Answer:
In the battle at Moti Talav, near Srirangapattan

Question 9.
From where did the Pathans migrate and settle?
Answer:
The Pathans had migrated from Afghanistan and they settled near Ayodhya at the foot of the Himalayas.

Question 10.
How did the history of Maratha describe Madhavrao?
Answer:
Madhavrao is described as an honest, hardworking, determined and a caring administrator for the common people.

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
The battle of Panipat.
Answer:

• Sadashivraobhau captured Delhi.
• The third battle of Panipat started.
• The Marathas attacked Abdali on 14th January, 1761.
• A bullet hit Vishwasrao and he fell dead.
• When Sadashivraobhau heard this, he attacked the enemy in madness, and disappeared from the battlefield.
• The Maratha soldiers lost courage.
• Abdali with the reserve contingent attacked the Marathas.
• The Marathas got defeated.

Complete the following family tree of Peshwa:

Question 1.

Answer:

1. Balaji alias Nanasaheb
2. Raghunathrao
3. Madhavrao (Peshwa)
4. Sawai Madhavrao (Peshwa)

Question 2.
Find the name of people in the lesson in following grid:
Answer:

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Science Solutions Chapter 6 Composition of Matter Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Science Solutions Chapter 6 Composition of Matter

Class 8 Science Chapter 6 Composition of Matter Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Choose the appropriate option and rewrite the following statements:

Question a.
The intermolecular force is ……………. in the particles of solid.
(a) minimum
(b) moderate
(c) maximum
(d) indefinite
Answer:
(c) maximum

Question b.
Solids retain their volume even when external pressure is applied. This property is called …………… .
(a) plasticity
(b) incompressibility
(c) fluidity
(d) elasticity
Answer:
(d) elasticity

Question c.
Matter is classified into the types mixture, compound and element, by applying the criterion …………… .
(a) states of matter
(b) phases of matters
(c) chemical composition of matter
(d) all of these
Answer:
(c) chemical composition of matter

Question d.
Matter that contain two or more constituent substances is called ……… .
(a) mixture
(b) compound
(c) element
(d) metalloid
Answer:
(a) mixture

Question e.
Milk is an example of type of matter called …………. .
(a) solution
(b) homogeneous mixture
(c) heterogeneous mixture
(d) suspension
Answer:
(c) heterogeneous mixture

Question f.
Water, mercury and bromine are similar to each other, because the three are ……….. .
(a) liquids
(b) compounds
(c) nonmetals
(d) elements
Answer:
(a) liquids

Question g.
Valency of carbon is 4 and that of oxygen is 2. From this, we understand that there are …………. chemical bond/bonds between the carbon atom and one oxygen atom in the compound- carbon dioxide.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4.
Answer:
(b) 2

2. Identify the odd term out and explain.

Question a.
Gold, silver, copper, brass.
Answer:
Brass. (Others are elements.)

Question b.
Hydrogen, hydrogen peroxide, carbon dioxide, water vapour.
Answer:
Hydrogen. (Others are compounds.)

Question c.
Milk, lemon juice, carbon, steel.
Answer:
Carbon. (Others are mixtures.)

Question d.
Water, mercury, bromine, petrol.
Answer:
Petrol. (Others are inorganic compounds.)

Question e.
Sugar, salt, baking soda, blue vitriol.
Answer:
Sugar. (Others are inorganic compounds.)

Question f.
Hydrogen, sodium, potassium, carbon.
Answer:
Carbon. (Others are monovalent elements)

3. Answer the following question.

Question a.
Plants synthesize glucose in sunlight with the help of chlorophyll from carbon dioxide and water and give away oxygen. Identify the four compounds in this process and name their types.
Answer:
Photosynthesis:

Carbon dioxide, water, glucose, and Chlorophyll are compounds.
Types: Organic compounds: Glucose
Inorganic compounds: Carbon dioxide and water
Complex compounds: Chlorophyll.

Question b.
In one sample of brass, the following ingredients were found: copper (70%) and zinc (30%). Identify the solvent, solute and solution from these.
Answer:
Brass is an alloy, it contains 70% copper and 30% zinc. The largest proportion is solvent, i.e. copper. The smaller proportion is solute, i.e. zinc. The solution is Brass.

Question c.
Seawater tastes salty due to the dissolved salt. The salinity (the proportion of salts in water) of some water bodies Lonar lake – 7.9%, Pacific Ocean 3.5%, Mediterranean sea – 3.8%, 5 Dead sea – 33.7%. Explain two characteristics of mixtures from the above information.
Answer:

1. The constituents of a mixture (the proportion of salts in water) do not combine chemically.
2. Their constituents are present in any proportion by weight.
3. The constituent of a mixture can be separated by a physical process.

4. Give two examples each.

Question a.
Liquid element.
Answer:
Mercury (Hg), Bromine (Br₂)

Question b.
Gaseous element.
Answer:
Hydrogen (H₂), Oxygen (O₂).

Question c.
Solid element.
Answer:
Iron (Fe), Copper (Cu), Silver (Ag).

Question d.
Homogeneous mixture.
Answer:
Sea water, blue vitriol dissolved in water.

Question e.
Colloid.
Answer:
Milk, blood.

Question f.
Organic compound.
Answer:
Glucose, urea.

Question g.
Complex compound.
Answer:
Chlorophyll, Haemoglobin.

Question h.
Inorganic compound.
Answer:
Soda, rust, limestone.

Question i.
Metalloid.
Answer:
Silicon, arsenic.

Question j.
Element with valency 1.
Answer:
Sodium (Na), potassium (K), chlorine (Cl).

Question l.
Element with valency 2.
Answer:
Magnesium (Mg), Calcium (Ca).

5. Write the names and symbols of the constituent elements and identify their valencies from their molecular formulae given below:
KCl, HBr, MgBr₂. K₂O, NaH, CaCl₂, CCl₄, HI, H₂S, Na₂S, FeS, BaCl₂.

Question a.
Write the names and symbols of the constituent elements and identify their valencies from their molecular formulae given below:
KCl, HBr, MgBr_2, K₂O, NaH, CaCl₂, CCl₄, HI, H₂S, Na₂S, FeS, BaCl₂.
Answer:

Molecular formula	Constituent element/Name symbol	Valency
1. KCl	Potassium (K) Chlorine (Cl)	1 1
2. HBr	Hydrogen (H) Bromine (Br)	1 1
3. MgBr2	Magnesium (Mg) Bromine (Br)	2 1
4. K2O	Potassium (K) Oxygen (O)	1 2
5. NaH	Sodium (Na) Hydrogen (H)	1 1
6. CaCl2	Calcium (Ca) Chlorine (Cl)	2 1
7. CCl4	Carbon (C) Chlorine (Cl)	4 1
8. HI	Hydrogen (H) Iodine (I)	1 1
9. H2S	Hydrogen (H) Sulphur (S)	1 2
10. Na2S	Sodium (Na) Sulphur (S)	1 2
11. FeS	Iron (Fe) Sulphur (S)	2 2
12. BaCl2	Barium (Ba) Chlorine (Cl)	2 1

6. Chemical composition of some matter is given in the following table. Identify the main type of matter from them.

Question a.
Chemical composition of some matter is given in the following table. Identify the main type of matter from them.

Answer:

Name of matter	Chemical composition	Main type of matter
Sea water	H2O + NaCl + MgCl2 +…	Mixture
Distilled water	H2O	Compound
Hydrogen gas filled in a balloon	H2	Element
The gas in LPG cylinder	C4H10 + C3H8	Mixture
Baking soda	NaHCO3	Compound
Pure gold	Au	Element
The gas in oxygen cylinder	O2	Element
Bronze	Cu + Sn	Mixture
Diamond	C	Element
Heated white powder of blue vitriol	CuSO4	Compound
Limestone	CaCO3	Compound
Dilute hydrochloric acid	HCl + H2O	Mixture

7. Write scientific reason.

Question a.
Hydrogen is combustible, oxygen helps combustion, but water helps to extinguish fire.
Answer:

1. Water is a compound of hydrogen and oxygen.
2. In a compound, the constituents do not retain their individual properties. Hence, hydrogen is combustible and oxygen helps combustion, but water is neither combustible nor supports combustion, it helps to extinguish fire.

Question b.
The constituent substances of a colloid cannot be separated by oridinary filtration.
Answer:

1. A colloidal solution is heterogeneous.
2. The diameters of colloidal particles are of the order of 10^-5 m.
3. The particles of a colloid can easily pass through a filter paper as the pore size of a filter paper is big. Hence, the constituents of a colloidal cannot be separated by filtration.

Question c.
Lemon sherbat has sweet, sour and salty taste and it can be poured in a glass.
Answer:

1. Lemon sherbat is a mixture. It is made up of lemon juice, sugar, salt and water.
2. Formation of lemon sherbat does not involve any chemical reaction.
3. The constituents of sherbat retain their individual properties. Hence, lemon sherbat is sweet, sour and salty to taste and it can be poured in a glass.

Question d.
A solid matter has the properties of definite shape and volume.
Answer:

1. The forces among the constituent particles (atom/molecules) are called intermolecular forces.
2. In solids these forces are strong enough to keep the particles together in fixed positions, as a result solids have a definite shape and volume.

8. Deduce the molecular formulae of the compound obtained from the following pairs of elements by the cross multiplication method.

Question a.
C (Valency 4) & Cl (Valency 1)
Answer:
Step 1: Write the symbols of the constituent elements.

Step 2: Write the valency below the respective elements.

Step 3: Cross multiply the valencies.

The molecular formula: CCl₄

Question b.
N (Valency 3) & H (Valency 1)
Use your brain power!
Answer:
Step 1: Write the symbols of the constituent elements.

Step 2: Write the valency below the respective elements.

Step 3: Cross multiply the valencies.

The molecular formula: NH₃

Question c.
C (Valency 4) & O (Valency 2)
Answer:
Step 1: Write the symbols of the constituent elements.

Step 2: Write the valency below the respective elements.

Step 3: Cross multiply the valencies.

The formula: C₂O₄
The number of constituent atoms in the final molecular formula should be the smallest possible whole number. Divide the formula C₂O₄ by suitable number.
Final molecular formula obtained by dividing by ‘2’.
Molecular formula: CO₂

Question d.
Ca (Valency 2) & O (Valency 2)
Answer:
Step 1: Write the symbols of the constituent elements.

Step 2: Write the valency below the respective elements.

Step 3: Cross multiply the valencies.

The formula: Ca₂O₂
Divide the formula by suitable number ‘2’.
The molecular formula: CaO.

Project:

Question a.
Collect the wrappers of ready-made foodstuff. Use the information given and prepare a chart of foodstuff and the ingredients in it. Procure the ingredients available. Discuss with friends and teacher, test the procured ingredients with combustion test under the supervision of your teacher. Thereby identify the ingredients as organic or inorganic.

Class 8 Science Chapter 6 Composition of Matter Additional Important Questions and Answers

Rewrite the sentences after filling the blanks:

Question 1.
………….. have no definite shape, but have a definite volume.
Answer:
Liquids have no definite shape, but have a definite volume.

Question 2.
………… have neither a definite shape nor a definite volume.
Answer:
Gases have neither a definite shape nor a definite volume.

Question 3.
The properties of a …………… are different than those of the constitute elements.
Answer:
The properties of a compound are different than those of the constitute elements.

Question 4.
The part of matter having uniform composition is called ………………. .
Answer:
The part of matter having uniform composition is called phase.

Question 5.
The heterogeneous mixture of a liquid and a solid is called a ……………. .
Answer:
The heterogeneous mixture of a liquid and a solid is called a suspension.

Question 6.
A colloid is a ………………. .
Answer:
A colloid is a heterogeneous mixture.

Question 7.
Bronze contains atoms of the elements ……………. and ………….. .
Answer:
Bronze contains atoms of the elements copper and tin.

Question 8.
When all the components of a mixture form one phase, it is called ………….. .
Answer:
When all the components of a mixture form one phase, it is called homogeneous mixture.

Question 9.
…………… is a mixture of water, lactose, fats and proteins.
Answer:
Milk is a mixture of water, lactose, fats and proteins.

Question 10.
The intermolecular force is …………….. in the gaseous state.
Answer:
The intermolecular force is very weak in the gaseous state.

Choose the appropriate option and rewrite the following statements:

Question 1.
When a liquid is poured from one container to another, its shape may change, but its volume ………….. .
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains the same
(d) none of them
Answer:
(c) remains the same

Question 2.
The property by which some solids maintain their shape even when subjected to external forces is called ………. .
(a) elasticity
(b) fluidity
(c) rigidity
(d) plasticity
Answer:
(c) rigidity

Question 3.
…………… is a complex compound.
(a) Glucose
(b) Blue vitriol
(c) Chlorophyll
(d) Soda
Answer:
(c) Chlorophyll

Question 4.
………….. is a homogeneous mixture.
(a) Sand + water
(b) Flour + water
(c) Salt + water
(d) Oil + water
Answer:
(c) Salt + water

State whether the following statements are True or False:

Question 1.
Liquids do not have a definite shape
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Gases have a definite shape and volume.
Answer:
False. (Gases do not have shape and volume.)

Question 3.
The crystals of blue vitriol form a single phase.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
Water is a mixture.
Answer:
False. (Water is a compound)

Question 5.
Milk is a colloid.
Answer:
True.

Question 6.
A suspension does not scatters light.
Answer:
True.

Question 7.
Copper sulphate is a mixture.
Answer:
False. (Copper sulphate is a compound.)

Question 8.
An atom forms as many chemical bonds with other atom as its valency.
Answer:
True.

Question 9.
The strength of intermolecular forces is weak in the liquid state.
Answer:
False. (The strength of intermolecular forces is moderate in the liquid state.)

Question 10.
All the gases present together constitute a single phase.
Answer:
True.

Match the column:

Question 1.

Column I	Column II
1. Potassium dichromate	a. Complex compound
2. Cyanocobalamine	b. Element
3. Air	c. Compound
4. Silver	d. Mixture

Answer:

Column I	Column II
1. Potassium dichromate	c. Compound
2. Cyanocobalamine	a. Complex compound
3. Air	d. Mixture
4. Silver	b. Element

Question 2.

Column 1	Column II
1. Milk	a. Alloy
2. Lemonade	b. Colloid
3. Sand and water	c. Solution
4. Brass	d. Suspension

Answer:

Column 1	Column II
1. Milk	b. Colloid
2. Lemonade	c. Solution
3. Sand and water	d. Suspension
4. Brass	a. Alloy

Question 3.

Column I	Column II
1. Sea water	a. Solid in solid
2. Vinegar	b. Solid in liquid
3. Air	c. Liquid in liquid
4. Bronze	d. Gas in liquid
5. Chlorinated water	e. Gas in gas

Answer:

Column I	Column II
1. Sea water	b. Solid in liquid
2. Vinegar	c. Liquid in liquid
3. Air	e. Gas in gas
4. Bronze	a. Solid in solid
5. Chlorinated water	d. Gas in liquid

Answer the following questions in one sentence:

Question 1.
Why does a solid have definite volume ?
Answer:
In solids intermolecular forces are strong enough to keep the particles together in fixed positions, as a result solids have definite volume.

Question 2.
Why does a liquid have indefinite shape?
Answer:
In a liquid intermolecular forces are not strong enough to keep the particles together in fixed positions, as a result liquid has indefinite shape.

Question 3.
Why does a gas have indefinite volume and shape?
Answer:
In a gas intermolecular forces are very weak and the distance between the particles is very large, as a result gas has indefinite volume and shape.

Question 4.
What can you say about the distance between the neighbouring particles of solid?
Answer:
The particles of solid are very close to each other and the distance between them is minimum.

Question 5.
What can you say about the distance between the constituent particles of gas?
Answer:
The intermolecular force is very weak in gases. The distance between the particles of gas is very large. They move freely and occupy all the available space.

Question 6.
State whether the mixture of oil in water is a homogeneous or heterogeneous mixture.
Answer:
The mixture of oil in water is a heterogeneous mixture.

Question 7.
State whether seawater is a homogeneous or heterogeneous mixture.
Answer:
Seawater is a homogeneous mixture.

Question 8.
Give two examples of liquid in liquid.
Answer:
Examples of liquid in liquid:
Vinegar, dilute sulphuric acid.

Question 9.
Give two examples of gas in gas.
Answer:
Examples of gas in gas: Air, cooking gas.

Question 10.
Give two examples of solid in solid.
Answer:
Examples of solid in solid: Brass, stainless steel.

Question 11.
Give two examples of gas in liquid.
Answer:
Examples of gas in liquid: Chlorinated water, hydrochloric acid.

Question 12.
Give molecular formulae of 1. potassium chloride, 2. sodium sulphide.
Answer:

1. Molecular formula of potassium chloride: KCl
2. Molecular formula of sodium sulphide: Na₂S.

Question 13.
State the molecular formula and number of hydrogen atoms in methane.
Answer:
Molecular formula of methane: CH₄
The number of hydrogen atoms in methane is 4.

Question 14.
Identify the valency of chlorine in
(i) KCl and (ii) CaCl₂.
Answer:
i. The valency of chlorine in KCl is 1.
ii. The valency of chlorine in CaCl₂ is 1.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
State two principal ways of classifying matter.
Answer:
Two principal ways of classifying matter are:

1. On the basis of physical state as a solid, liquid or gas.
2. On the basis of chemical constitution as an element, compound or mixture.

Question 2.
What are the different states of matter?
Answer:
The different states of matter are solid, liquid and gas.

Question 3.
Define solid.
Answer:
A substance which has a definite shape and volume is called a solid.

Question 4.
State any three characteristics of solids.
Answer:

1. Solids have a definite shape and volume.
2. Most of the solids are rigid while some are plastic and some elastic.
3. Solids have practically negligible compressibility, i.e., their volume is not very much changed by external forces.

Question 5.
What is meant by rigidity of solids?
Answer:
The property by which solids maintain their shapes when subjected to external forces is called rigidity.

Question 6.
What is meant by elasticity of solids?
Answer:
Some solids undergo a change in their shapes and volume when subjected to external forces and regain their original shapes and volume on removal of the forces. This property of solids is called elasticity.

Question 7.
What is meant by plasticity?
Answer:
Some solids are deformed by external forces and do not regain their original shapes on removal of the forces. This property of solids is called plasticity.

Question 8.
Solids have a high density and negligible compressibility. Explain.
Answer:

1. The forces among the constituent particles (atoms/molecules) are called intermolecular forces.
2. In solids these forces are strong enough to keep the particles together in fixed positions, as a result solids have a high density and negligible compressibility.

Question 9.
Define liquid.
Answer:
A substance which does not have a definite shape, but has a definite volume is called a liquid.

Question 10.
State any three characteristics of liquids.
Answer:

1. Liquids have a definite volume.
2. Liquids do not have a definite shape. They take the shape of the container in which they are stored.
3. When they spill on a plane surface, they spread and flow in the surrounding areas, i.e., they have fluidity.
4. They have very small compressibility.

Question 11.
What is meant by fluidity?
Answer:
Liquids flow easily and change their shapes in response to external forces. This property of liquids is called fluidity. It is exhibited by gases also.

Question 12.
Liquids have fluidity and they do not have a definite shape. Explain.
Answer:
1. The forces among the constituent particles (atoms/molecules) are called intermolecular forces.
2. In liquids, the intermolecular forces are strong enough to keep the particles within the bulk in aggregation, but not strong enough to keep them in fixed positions. As a result, they flow easily and change shapes according to that of container.

Question 13.
Define gas.
Answer:
A substance which has neither a definite shape nor a definite volume is called a gas.

Question 14.
State any three characteristics of gases.
Answer:

1. Gases have neither a definite shape nor a definite volume.
2. They spread in all directions.
3. They can be compressed or expanded easily.
4. In gases intermolecular forces are very weak.

Question 15.
Gases have neither a definite shape nor a definite volume. Explain.
Answer:

1. The forces among the constituent particles (atoms/molecules) are called intermolecular forces.
2. In gases the intermolecular forces are extremely weak. As a result, the molecules of a gas move freely and a gas occupies all the available space.

Question 16.
Why are gases more compressible, than liquids?
Answer:
In liquids the distances between the neighbouring molecules are less than those in the gases. The intermolecular forces are extremely weak in gases, but not so weak in liquids. Hence, gases are more compressible than liquids.

Question 17.
What is an element? Give two examples.
Answer:
A type of matter composed of only one kind of substances where each smallest indivisible part of it has the same properties is called an element. It cannot be subdivided into simpler substances by any physical or chemical means.
Examples: Oxygen, nitrogen, silver.

Question 18.
Write any two characteristics of an element.
Answer:

1. All the atoms/molecules of an element are alike.
2. Atoms/molecules of different elements are different.
3. An element cannot be decomposed into simple substances by any chemical reaction or simple physical process.

Question 19.
What is a compound? Give two examples.
Answer:
A substance produced by a chemical reaction of two or more elements combined in a fixed proportion is called a compound.
Examples: Water, common salt, sugar.

Question 20.
Write any two characteristics of a compound.
Answer:

1. The proportion of constituent elements in a compound is constant.
2. The properties of a compound is different than those of the constituent elements.

Question 21.
What is a mixture? Give two examples.
Answer:
When two or more elements or compounds which do not react chemically with each other are mixed in any proportion, a mixture is formed.
Examples: Air, steel, milk.

Question 22.
Write any two characteristics of a mixture.
Answer:

1. The constituent molecules of mixture are different from each other and notoined by chemical bonds.
2. The proportion of constituent substances are retained in the mixture.
3. The constituents of a mixture can be separated by a physical process.

Question 23.
Classify the following into elements, compounds and mixtures:
Sugar, sodium, nitrogen, sodium carbonate, air, sulphuric acid, mercury, stainless steel, cement, potassium dichromate.
Answer:

• Elements: Sodium, nitrogen, mercury.
• Compounds: Sugar, sodium carbonate, sulphuric acid, potassium dichromate.
• Mixtures: Air, stainless steel, cement.

Question 24.
Write the composition of the following materials by means of chemical formulae and classify them accordingly.

Answer:

Name of the material	Chemical formulae/composition	Type of matter
Water	H2O	Compound
Carbon	C	Element
Oxygen	O2	Element
Air	O2 + N2 + CO2 + other gases	Mixture
Aluminium	Al	Element
Brass	Cu + Zn	Mixture
Carbon dioxide	CO2	Compound

Question 25.
What is meant by an organic compound? Give two examples.
Answer:
The compound which when heated strongly gives black coloured carbon residue is called an organic compound or carbon compound.
Examples: Carbohydrates, proteins, hydrocarbons (petrol, cooking gas).

Question 26.
What is meant by an inorganic compound? Give two examples.
Answer:
Compounds which when heated strongly decomposes to give a residue behind are called inorganic compounds.
Examples: Common salt, rust, blue vitriol, limestone.

Question 27.
What is meant by complex compounds? Give two examples.
Answer:
The molecules of compounds which have a complex structure formed by many atoms and in the centre of this structure metal atoms are also included are called complex compounds.
Examples: Haemoglobin, chlorophyll.

Question 28.
Classify the following compounds into organic compounds, inorganic compounds and complex compounds.
Petrol, common salt, haemoglobin, blue vitriol, cyanocobalamine, cooking gas.
Answer:

• Organic compounds: Petrol, cooking gas
• Inorganic compounds: Common salt, blue vitriol.
• Complex compounds: Cyano cobalamine, haemoglobin.

Question 29.
What is a phase?
Answer:
The part of matter with uniform composition is called a phase.

Question 29.
What is a homogeneous mixture? Give two examples.
Answer:
When all the components of a mixture form one phase, it is called homogeneous mixture.
Example: Solution of blue vitriol in water, solution of sugar in water.

Question 30.
What is heterogeneous mixture? Give two examples.
Answer:
When the components of a mixture are distributed into two or more phases, it is called a heterogeneous mixture.
Examples: Oil and water, sand and water.

Question 31.
Define solution or What is meant by a solution? Give two examples.
Answer:
A homogeneous mixture of two or more substances is called a solution.
Examples: Seawater, sugar, syrup.

Question 32.
What is meant by a solvent?
OR
Define solvent. Give two examples.
Answer:
The component which is present in largest proportion in a solution is called a solvent.
Examples:

1. In sea water, water is the solvent.
2. In tincture iodine, alcohol is the solvent.

Question 33.
What is meant by a solute?
OR
Define solute. Give two examples.
Answer:
The component of a solution which is present in smaller proportion than the solvent is called a solute.
Examples:

1. In sea water, salt is a solute.
2. When a small of amount of sugar is dissolved in water, sugar is the solute in the solution.

Question 34.
Define suspension.
OR
What is meant by a suspension?
Answer:
A heterogeneous mixture of a liquid and a solid is called a suspension. The diameter of the solid particles in a suspension is larger than 10^-4 m.

Question 35.
Define colloid.
Answer:
A heterogeneous mixture in which the particles cannot be seen with a naked eye is called a colloid. The diameter of colloidal particles is around 10^-5 m.

Question 36.
State the characteristics of a solution.
Answer:

1. A solution is clear and transparent, it passes through a filter paper.
2. The particles are not visible to the naked eye.
3. A light can easily pass through it without scattering.
4. A solution is homogeneous mixture.

Question 37.
State the characteristics of a suspension.
Answer:

1. In suspension, the solute particles do not dissolve but remain suspended in it. The liquid and solid components of suspension are separated by filtration.
2. The particles are visible to the naked eye.
3. The particles in suspension are of very small size and scatter a beam of light passing through it.
4. It is heterogeneous in nature.

Question 38.
State the characteristics of a colloid.
Answer:

1. In a colloid, the particles are spread uniformly throughout the solution.
2. The size of the particles is less than that of the particles in a suspension.
3. The particles are not visible to the naked eye.
4. The particles scatter a beam of light.
5. A colloidal solution appears to be homogeneous, but actually it is heterogeneous. ‘

Question 39.
Give two examples of each of the following:

1. Phase
2. Homogeneous matter
3. Heterogeneous matter
4. Homogeneous mixture
5. Heterogeneous mixture
6. Solution
7. Suspension
8. Colloid.

Answer:

1. Phase: (i) Solid: Sodium chloride, blue vitriol, sand, (ii) Liquid: Water, alcohol, (iii) Gas: Chlorine, ammonia.
2. Homogeneous matter: Blue vitriol (solid), a solution of blue vitriol in water (a solid in a liquid), chlorinated water (a gas in a liquid).
3. Heterogeneous matter: Sand and water, sand and alcohol, blue vitriol and sand.
4. Homogeneous mixture: A solution of sodium chloride in water, air, a mixture of water and alcohol.
5. Heterogeneous mixture: A mixture of sand and blue vitriol, sodium chloride and iron filings, oil and water.
6. Solution: Seawater, a solution of sugar in water, a solution of blue vitriol in water.
7. Suspension: A mixture of sand and water, sand and alcohol, muddy water, limestone in water.
8. Colloid: Milk, milk of magnesia, blood, printing ink.

Question 40.
State the different types of solutions. Give one example.
Answer:
The different types of solutions:

• Liquid in liquid. Examples: Vinegar, dilute sulphuric acid.
• Gas in gas. Example: Air.
• Solid in solid. Examples: Brass, stainless steel, bronze.
• Gas in liquid. Examples: Chlorinated water.

Question 41.
Classify the following into homogeneous solution and heterogeneous solution?
Soda water, potassium permanganate solution, milk, alcohol in water, ink solution, wheat flour in water.
Answer:

• Homogeneous solution: Soda water, potassium permanganate solution, alcohol in water.
• Heterogeneous solution: Milk, ink solution, wheat flour in water.

Question 42.
Classify the following into solution, suspension and colloids:
Milk, sand in water, lemonade, smoke, oxygen in water.
Answer:

• Solution: Lemonade, oxygen in water.
• Suspension: Sand in water.
• Colloids: Milk, smoke.

Question 43.
What is meant by molecular formula?
Answer:
The number of atom of each of the constituent elements present in one molecule of a compound is called molecular formula.

Question 44.
What is meant by valency of an element?
Answer:
The capacity of an element to combine with another element is known as valency.

Question 45.
Deduce the molecular formulae of the compound obtained from the following pairs of elements by the cross multiplication method.
Answer:
Question a.
H (Valency 1) and O (Valency 2)
Answer:
Step 1: Write the symbols of the constituent elements.

Step 2: Write the valency below the respective elements.

Step 3: Cross multiply the valencies.

∴ The molecular formula: H₂O.

Question b.
Fe (Valency 2) and S (Valency 2)
Answer:
Step 1: Write the symbols of the constituent elements.

Step 2: Write the valency below the respective elements.

Step 3: Cross multiply the valencies.

The molecular formula: FeS

Question c.
The valencies of the atom H, O and N are 1, 2 and 3 respectively. The molecular formulae of these gaseous elements are H₂, O₂ and N₂ respectively. How many chemical bonds are there in each of these molecules?
Answer:
Chemical bond in H₂ is one

Chemical bond in O₂ are two

Chemical bond in N₂ are three

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
Hydrogen is an element.
Answer:

1. Hydrogen has only one kind of atoms.
2. Hydrogen cannot be further divided into new substances by any physical or chemical means. Therefore, hydrogen is an element.

Question 2.
Water is a compound.
Answer:

1. The composition of water is same throughout i.e., the elements hydrogen and oxygen whose atoms are combined in the ratio by weight is always 1 : 8.
2. The properties of water are totally different from those of its constituents, i.e. hydrogen and I oxygen. Hence, water is a compound.?

Question 3.
Air is a mixture.
Answer:

1. Air contains nitrogen, oxygen and other gases.
2. These gases retain their original properties. They do not combine with each other. Hence, air is a mixture.

Question 4.
A potassium permanganate solution in water is a homogeneous mixture, while a mixture of oil and water is a heterogeneous mixture.
Answer:

1. In a potassium permanganate solution in water the constituents, i.e. potassium permanganate and water are uniformly mixed throughout.
2. The properties and composition of a homogeneous mixture are the same throughout the mixture. Hence, potassium permanganate solution is a homogeneous mixture.
3. In a mixture of oil and water, the constituents are not uniformly mixed throughout the mixture.
4. The properties and composition of a heterogeneous mixture are not the same throughout the mixture. Hence, a mixture of oil and water is a heterogeneous mixture.

Question 5.
Milk is a colloid.
Answer:

1. In milk, the particles are spread uniformly throughout and due to very small size of the particles, milk appears to be homogeneous.
2. But milk is a colloid solution and it is a heterogeneous mixture. Here, milk is liquid particles of proteins and fats having a diameter around 10^-5 m dispersed in the aqueous medium. Hence, a milk is a colloid.

Distinguish between the following:

Question 1.
Answer:

Solids	Liquids
1.  Solids have a definite shape.	1. Liquids have no definite shape.
2.  They have very low compressibility.	2. They have moderate compressibility.
3. In solids, the intermolecular forces are very strong. E.g. iron, stone, salt.	3. In liquids, the intermolecular forces are moderately strong. E.g., water, alcohol, mercury.

Question 2.
Liquids and Gases:
Answer:

Liquids	Gases
1. Liquids have a definite volume.	1. Gases do not have a definite volume.
2. They have moderate compressibility.	2. They have high compressibility.
3. In liquids, the intermolecular forces are moderately strong. E.g. water, alcohol, mercury.	3. In gases, the intermolecular forces are very weak. E.g. oxygen, air.

Question 3.
Solids and Gases:
Answer:

Solids	Gases
1. Solids have a definite shape and volume.	1. Gases have neither a definite shape nor a definite volume.
2. They have incompressibility.	2. They have high compressibility
3. In solids, the intermolecular forces are very strong. E.g. iron, stone.	3. In gases, the intermolecular forces are very weak. E.g. hydrogen, oxygen.

Question 4.
Element and Compound:
Answer:

Element	Compound
1. An element consists of only one kind of substance.	1. A compound is formed from two or more elements.
2. An element cannot be further divided into simpler substances by any physical or chemical means. E.g. iron, copper, oxygen.	2. A compound can be further divided into simple substances by chemical means. E.g. common salt, sugar, water.

Question 5.
Compound and mixture:
Answer:

Compound	Mixture
1. A compound is made of two or more elements chemically combined in a fixed proportion.	1. A mixture is obtained by just mixing two or more substances in any proportion.
2. A compound can be further subdivided into simpler substances by chemical means only.	2. A mixture can be further subdivided into simpler substances by simple physical processes.
3. The properties of a compound are entirely different from the properties of its constituents. E.g. common salt, sugar, water.	3. The constituents of a mixture retain their original properties. E.g. air, seawater.

Question 6.
Colloidals and Suspension:
Answer:

Colloidals	Suspension
1. The particles in a colloidal solution can pass through a filter paper.	1. The particles in a suspension cannot pass through a filter paper.
2. The colloidal particles cannot be seen with a naked eye.	2. The suspended particles can be seen with a naked eye.
3. The diameter of solid particles is around 10-5 m	3. The diameter of the solid particles is larger than 10-4 m.

Activity-based questions:

Activity 1:
Apparatus: Plastic jar, balloon, thread
Material: Mustard seeds
Take some mustard seeds in a transparent plastic jar. Thread a long thread at the centre of a big balloon by means of a needle and tie it tight. Stretch this rubber diaphragm and fix it on the mouth of the jar by means or a rubber band. Pull the diaphragm up and down with the help of the thread first slowly, then with moderate force and then vigorously. Record your observation in the following table.

Question 1.

Answer:

Activity 2:
Apparatus: Hammer, sand paper
Material: Iron nail, copper wire, aluminium wire, coal.
Take the following objects: iron nail/sheet, copper wire, aluminium wire, a piece of coal. Rub each object on a fresh surface of sandpaper and observe. Hammer each object with force. (Take care not to hurt yourself.) Record your observations in the following table.
The objects in the activity are made of the elements iron (Fe), copper (Cu), aluminium (Al) and carbon (C); respectively. Fill the following table on the basis of the observations obtained on doing the above two tests on each of the objects.

Question 1.

Answer:

Activity 3:
Apparatus: Evaporating dish, tripod stand, burner, etc.
Chemicals: Camphor, washing soda, blue vitriol, sugar, glucose, urea.
Keep the evaporating dish on the tripod stand. Take some camphor in the evaporating dish. Heat the camphor in the dish strongly with the help of a burner. Find out what remains behind in the evaporating dish. Repeat the above procedure using limestone, washing soda, blue vitriol, sugar, glucose and urea instead of camphor. Record your observation in the following table. (Do this activity carefully under the supervision of your teacher, as some of the powders may catch fire.)

Question 1.

Answer:

Activity 4: (Textbook page 43)
Apparatus: Beakers, rods
Chemicals: Blue vitriol, sand, water, etc.
Take three beakers. Take a little sand and water in the first beaker. Take some crystals of blue vitriol and water in the second beaker. Take some blue vitriol and sand in the third beaker. Stir the materials in all the three beakers and observe. Record your observation in the following table.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.
In the above activity after stirring a homogeneous mixture is formed in only one beaker? Which is that?
Answer:
The homogeneous mixture is formed in the second beaker. It is a solution of blue vitriol.

Activity 5:
Apparatus: Beaker, conical flask, funnel, filter paper
Chemicals: Common salt, saw dust, milk.
Procedure: Take three beakers. Take 10 g common salt in the first beaker, 10 g saw dust in the second beaker and 10 ml milk in the third beaker. Add 100 ml water to all the three beakers and stir. Which of the mixtures shows separate water phase ? Place the three beakers in front of a vertically held paper and pass a laser beam through the beakers from the opposite side. (Use the laser beam under the guidance of teacher.) At the same time observe what appears on the paper in front of the beaker. Also look at the beaker from the side. Arrange three filtration assemblies using conical flask, funnel and filter paper for doing filtration. Stir the mixtures in the three beakers and carry out filtration. Record all the observations in the following table.

Question 1.

Answer:

Activity 6: (Textbook page 44)
Apparatus: Horseshoe magnet, evaporating dish, burner. Chemicals: Iron filings, sulphur.
Procedure: Take two evaporating dishes. Take 7 g iron filings in the first dish and 4 g sulphur in the second. Take a horseshoe magnet near the matter in both the dishes and observe. Transfer the entire iron filings from the first dish to the second, stir with a glass rod and observe by taking the horseshoe magnet near the matter. Also observe the colour of the matter. Now heat the matter in the second dish for a while and let it cool. Observe the colour change, if any in the matter and observe whether there is any effect of the horseshoe magnet on it. Record all the observation in the following table.

Question 1.

Answer:

Complete the following:

Question 1.
Complete the table:

Answer:
Molecular formulae of some compounds are given in the following table. Use these to fill in the gaps in the table.

Question 2.
Complete the table:

Answer:
Molecular formulae of various compounds formed by hydrogen with other elements are given in the following table. From that, deduce the valencies of the concerned elements.

Question 3.
Complete the table:

Answer:

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Marathi Solutions Kumarbharti Chapter 4 उत्तमलक्षण (संतकाव्य) Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Marathi Kumarbharti Chapter 4 उत्तमलक्षण (संतकाव्य)

Marathi Kumarbharti Std 10 Digest Chapter 4 उत्तमलक्षण Textbook Questions and Answers

प्रश्न. पुढील कवितेच्या आधारे दिलेल्या सूचनांनुसार कृती करा :

कृती १ : (आकलन)

प्रश्न 1.
आकृत्या पूर्ण करा :
(i)

उत्तर :

(ii)

उत्तर :

प्रश्न 2.
चौकटी पूर्ण करा :

उत्तर :

प्रश्न 3.
पुढील गोष्टींबाबत संत रामदास कोणती दक्षता घ्यायला सांगतात. (मार्च ‘१९)

उत्तर :

कृती २ : (आकलन)

प्रश्न 1.
शब्दजाल पूर्ण करा :
(i)

उत्तर :

(ii)

उत्तर :

(iii)

उत्तर :

प्रश्न 2.
पुढील व्यक्तींशी कसे वागावे, असे संत रामदास म्हणतात :

उत्तर :

प्रश्न 3.
पुढील गोष्टींबाबत कोणती दक्षता घ्यावी, ते लिहा :

उत्तर :
(i) तोंडाळासी भांडू नये.
(ii) संतसंग खंडू नये.
(iii) सत्यमार्ग सोडू नये.

प्रश्न 4.
असत्य विधान ओळखा :
(i) संतसंग सोडू नये.
(ii) अपकार घेऊ नये.
(iii) व्यापकपण सांडू नये.
(iv) खोटेपणाच्या पंथाला जाऊ नये.
उत्तर :
असत्य विधान – अपकार घेऊ नये.

प्रश्न 5.
अचूक विधान ओळखा : (मार्च ‘१९)
(i) पैज, होड लावावी.
(ii) सत्याची वाट धरावी.
(iii) पापद्रव्य सहज जोडावे.
(iv) नेहमी अभिमानाने वागावे.
उत्तर :
अचूक विधान – सत्याची वाट धरावी.

प्रश्न 6.
तुमच्यातील प्रत्येकी तीन गुण व तीन दोष शोधून लिहा.
उत्तर :
नमुना उत्तर :
गुण : (i) मी रोज व्यायाम करतो.
(ii) मी खोटे बोलत नाही.
(iii) मी आईला कामात मदत करतो.

दोष : (i) मला चटकन राग येतो.
(ii) मी ताटात अन्न टाकतो.
(iii) माझे अक्षर चांगले नाही.

कृती ३ : (काव्यसौंदर्य)

प्रश्न 1.
‘सभेमध्ये लाजों नये। बाष्कळपणे बोलों नये।’ या ओळीतील विचार स्पष्ट करा.
उत्तर :
‘उत्तमलक्षण’ या कवितेमध्ये संत रामदास यांनी आदर्श गुणसंपन्न व्यक्तीची लक्षणे समजावून सांगितली आहेत. त्यांपैकी एक लक्षण उपरोक्त चरणात सूचित केले आहे.

मनुष्य हा समाजप्रिय प्राणी आहे. माणसांमध्ये तो नित्य वावरत असतो. समूहामध्ये आदर्श व्यक्तीचे वर्तन कसे असावे, हे सांगताना संत रामदास म्हणतात – सभेमध्ये वावरताना, आपले मत मांडताना कधीही लाजू नये. स्पष्टपणे आपले म्हणणे मांडावे; परंतु त्याच वेळी बालिशपणे बोलून आपले हसे करून घेऊ नये. निरर्थक असे वक्तव्य करू नये. बाष्कळपणे बोलू नये. उत्तम पुरुषाचे एक मर्मग्राही लक्षण या ओवीतून मांडले आहे.

प्रश्न 2.
‘आळसें सुख मानूं नये,’ या ओळीचा तुम्हांला समजलेला अर्थ स्पष्ट करा.
उत्तर :
‘उत्तमलक्षण’ या ओव्यांमध्ये संत रामदास यांनी उत्तम व्यक्तीची लक्षणे विशद करताना आळस हा माणसाचा शत्रू आहे, असे ठासून प्रतिपादिले आहे.

‘आळस’ हा माणसाच्या अंगी असलेला दुर्गुण आहे. आळसामुळे कार्य करायला उत्साह राहत नाही व त्यामुळे बरीच कामे खोळंबून राहतात. ‘आळसे कार्यभाग नासतो!’ या समर्थ रामदासांच्या उक्तीमध्ये हेच तत्त्व सांगितले आहे. माणसाच्या मनाला जे षड्विकार जडतात, त्यात ‘आळस’ हा एक विकार आहे. दैनंदिन कामांमध्ये आळसाला स्थान देऊ नये. आळसामुळे प्रगती खुंटते, भविष्य अंधारते. आळसामुळे मनाला जडत्व प्राप्त होते व माणूस नाकर्ता होतो. आळशी माणसाला समाजात मान मिळत नाही. म्हणून आळसात सुख मानू नये, समाधान मानू नये, असे समर्थ रामदास सांगतात.

Marathi Kumarbharti Class 10 Textbook Solutions Chapter 4 उत्तमलक्षण Additional Important Questions and Answers

प्रश्न. पुढील कवितेसंबंधी त्याखाली दिलेल्या मुद्द्यांच्या आधारे कृती सोडवा :

प्रश्न 1.
कविता-उत्तमलक्षण.

उत्तर : उत्तमलक्षण.
(१) प्रस्तुत कवितेचे कवी : संत रामदास.
(२) कवितेचा रचनाप्रकार : ओवी.
(३) कवितेचा काव्यसंग्रह : श्रीदासबोध.
(४) कवितेचा विषय : उत्तम माणसाची लक्षणे.
(५) कवितेतून व्यक्त होणारा (स्थायी) भाव : आदर्श माणसे घडवण्याचा ध्यास.

(६) कवितेच्या कवींची लेखनवैशिष्ट्ये : प्रस्तुत कवितेची रचना ओवी या छंदात केलेली आहे. ओवी हा उच्चारणाला सुलभ असा अत्यंत लवचीक रचनाप्रकार आहे. त्यामुळे या कवितेतील भाषा ओवी या छंदाला साजेशी सुबोध व सर्वसामान्यांना सहज समजेल अशी आहे. साहजिक कवितेची आवाहन शक्ती वाढली आहे. चुकीचे वर्तन व चांगले वर्तन या दोन्ही बाबी समर्थांनी स्पष्ट शब्दांत कोणतीही संदिग्धता न ठेवता सांगितल्या आहेत. समर्थांच्या या रचनेत प्रासादिकता आढळते.

(७) कवितेची मध्यवर्ती कल्पना : प्रस्तुत कवितेत संत रामदासांनी उत्तम, गुणसंपन्न, आदर्श व्यक्तीची लक्षणे सांगितली आहेत. समाजात वावरताना कसे वागावे, काय करावे व काय टाळावे यांचे सुस्पष्ट शब्दांत निवेदन केले आहे. समाज नीतिमान व कर्तबगार व्हावा, ही तळमळ या पदयपाठातून स्पष्टपणे जाणवते.

(८) कवितेतून व्यक्त होणारा विचार : प्रस्तुत कवितेत संत रामदासांनी, व्यक्तीने समाजात कसे वागावे याचे मार्गदर्शन केले आहे. नेहमीच सावध मनाने वागावे. इतरांना सहकार्य करावे. कोणाशीही कपटाने वागू नये. तोंडाळ, वाचाळ माणसांना टाळावे. आळस झटकून टाकावा. पूर्ण विचार करून वागावे. उपकाराची परतफेड करावी. नेहमी उदारपणाने वागावे. मनाचा मोठेपणा बाळगावा. परावलंबी होऊ नये. नेहमी सत्याने वागावे. कुप्रसिद्धी टाळावी इत्यादी अनेक गुणांचे आचरण करण्यास या कवितेत संत रामदासांनी सांगितले आहे.

(९) कवितेतील आवडलेलो ओळ :
अपकीर्ति ते सांडावी। सत्कीर्ति वाडवावी।।
विवेके दृढ धरावी । वाट सत्याची ।।

(१०) कविता आवडण्याची वा न आवडण्याची कारणे : मला ही कविता खूप आवडली. एकतर हे विचार पटकन पटण्यासारखे आहेत. ही कविता उच्चारताना, वाचताना आनंद होतो. उच्च, उदात्त विचार मनात घोळवल्याने मनही आनंदित होते. सर्व गुण-अवगुण रामदासांनी अत्यंत स्पष्टपणे, परखडपणे सांगितले आहेत. कुठेही शब्दांचा बोजडपणा नाही. प्रत्येक शब्दागणीक अर्थ स्पष्ट होत जातो. मुख्य म्हणजे दैनंदिन जीवनात वागताना आवश्यक असलेल्या गुणांचे मार्गदर्शन घडत असल्याने कविता आपली, स्वतःची, स्वतःसाठी असलेली वाटत राहते.

(११) कवितेतून मिलणाग संदेश : प्रत्येक व्यक्तीने चांगले वागण्याचाच प्रयत्न केला पाहिजे. त्यासाठी वाईट गुण कोणते व चांगले गुण कोणते हे स्पष्टपणे समजून घ्यावे. प्रत्येकाने उत्तम माणूस बनण्याचा प्रयत्न करावा. यातूनच चांगला व समर्थ समाज निर्माण होतो.

कृतिपत्रिकेतील प्रश्न २ (इ) साठी…

प्रश्न. पुढील ओळींचे रसग्रहण तुमच्या शब्दांत लिहा :

प्रश्न 1.
‘जनी आर्जव तोडूं नये । पापद्रव्य जोडूं नये ।
पुण्यमार्ग सोडूं नये । कदाकाळीं ।।’ (मार्च ‘१९)
उत्तर :
आशयसौंदर्य : ‘उत्तमलक्षण’ या श्रीदासबोधातील एका समासामध्ये समर्थ रामदासांनी गुणसंपन्न आदर्श व्यक्तिमत्त्वाची महत्त्वाची लक्षणे सांगितली आहेत. त्यांपैकी उपरोक्त ओवीमध्ये तीन लक्षणांचा ऊहापोह केला आहे.

काव्यसौंदर्य : समाजात वावरताना व्यक्तीने कोणते आचरण करावे हे सांगताना संत रामदास म्हणतात – लोकांचे मन मोडू नये. लोकांनी केलेली विनंती धुडकावू नये. उलट जनभावनांचा आदर . करावा. तसेच वाईट मार्गाने संपत्ती साठवू नये. अशी संपत्ती हे पापाचे धन असते. म्हणून सत्शील मार्गाने जीवन व्यतीत करावे. पुण्यमार्ग आचारावा. कधीही पुण्यमार्गाने जाण्याचे सोडू नये.

भाषिक वैशिष्ट्ये : वरील ओवीमध्ये जनांसाठी खूप सुगम निरूपण केले आहे. ‘तोडू नये, जोडू नये, सोडू नये’ अशा सोप्या यमकांद्वारे संदेशामध्ये आवाहकता आली आहे. ओवीछंदाला साजेशी सुबोध भाषा वापरल्यामुळे जनमानसावर तत्त्व ठसवणे सुलभ झाले आहे. पापद्रव्य व पुण्यमार्ग यांतील विरोधाभास ठळकपणे उठून दिसतो. ओवीमध्ये प्रासादिकता हा गुण आढळतो.

प्रश्न 2.
‘अपकीर्ति ते सांडावी। सत्कीर्ति वाडवावी।
विवेकें दृढ धरावी। वाट सत्याची।।’ (मार्च ‘१९)
उत्तर :
आशयसौंदर्य : संत रामदासांनी ‘उत्तमलक्षण’ या कवितेत आदर्श गुणवान व्यक्तीची वैशिष्ट्ये सांगताना या ओळींमधून सद्वर्तन कशा प्रकारे करावे, याची शिकवण दिली आहे.

काव्यसौंदर्य : संत रामदास म्हणतात – लोक आपल्याला दूषणे देतील व निंदा करतील असे वर्तन कदापिही करू नये. ज्या वागण्याने आपली अपकीर्ती होईल, असे वागणे टाळावे. उलट आपल्या व्यक्तिमत्त्वाची कीर्ती पसरेल, अशी वागणूक करायला हवी. स्वतः चांगले वागून सत्कीर्ती वाढवायला हवी. त्यासाठी बुद्धीचा विवेक महत्त्वाचा ठरतो. सद्विचाराने, विवेकाने सत्याचा मार्ग ठामपणे आचरावा. विवेकबुद्धी ठोस असणे गरजेचे आहे.

भाषिक वैशिष्ट्ये : सन्मार्गाचे लक्षण सांगताना जनसामान्यांना समजतील असे तीन मुद्दे या ओळीत सहजपणे सांगितले आहेत. अपकीर्ती व सत्कीर्ती तसेच सांडावी व वाढवावी या विरोधी शब्दांमुळे ओवीची खुमारी वाढली आहे. दृढ धरणे हा वाक्प्रचार चपखलपणे उपयोगात आणला आहे. जनमानसावर तत्त्व ठसवण्याची समर्थांची हातोटी समर्थपणे व्यक्त झाली आहे.

व्याकरण व भाषाभ्यास

कृतिपत्रिकेतील प्रश्न ४ (अ) आणि (आ) यांसाठी…

अ. व्याकरण घटकांवर आधारित कृती:

१. समास :

प्रश्न 1.
पुढील तक्ता पूर्ण करा : (ठळक अक्षरांत उत्तरे दिली आहेत.)

२. अलंकार :
पुढील ओळी वाचून तक्ता पूर्ण करा :
प्रश्न 1.
‘ऊठ पुरुषोत्तमा । वाट पाही रमा ।
दावि मुखचंद्रमा । सकळिकांसी।।’

प्रश्न 2.
‘नयनकमल’ हे उघडित हलके जागी हो जानकी.

उत्तर :

३. वृत्त :
पुढील ओळींचे लगक्रम लिहा :

प्रश्न 1.
ऐकू न ये तुज पिकस्वर मंजुळे का?
उत्तर :

प्रश्न 2.
मना सज्जना भक्तिपंथेचि जावे.
उत्तर :

उत्तमलक्षण Summary in Marathi

कवितेचा भावार्थ :
उत्तम पुरुषाची (आदर्श व्यक्तीची) लक्षणे सांगताना संत रामदास श्रोत्यांना म्हणतात – श्रोतेहो, तुम्हांला आता मी उत्तम, गुणवान व्यक्तीची लक्षणे सांगतो, ती सावध मनाने ऐकावीत. ही लक्षणे ऐकून तुम्ही सर्व गोष्टी जाणण्याची खूण अंगी बाणवावी. ।।१।।

पूर्ण माहिती असल्याशिवाय कुठल्याही रस्त्याने जाऊ नये. वाटेमधील अडथळे जाणून घेतल्याशिवाय प्रवास करू नये. फळाचे अंतरंग (गुण) ओळखल्याशिवाय ते खाऊ नये. रस्त्यात पडलेली वस्तू अचानक पटकन उचलू नये. ।।२।।

लोकांनी केलेली विनंती लक्षात घ्यावी. तिला अमान्य करू नये. पाप किंवा कपट करून मिळवलेल्या संपत्तीचा साठा करू नये. कपट करून पैसा मिळवू नये. पुण्याचा मार्ग म्हणजे सच्छील मार्ग, सद्वर्तन कधीही सोडू नये. ।।३।।

जी तोंडाळ, भांडकुदळ व्यक्ती असेल, त्या व्यक्तीशी कधीही भांडू नये. व्यर्थ बडबड करणाऱ्या वाचाळ माणसाशी तंटा करू नये. सज्जनाची संगत कधी मध्येच सोडू नये, (हे कायम मनात ठेवा.) मनापासून झालेली संतांची मैत्री सोडू नये. ।।४।।

काम न करता ऐदीपणे, आळस करून आनंद घेऊ नये. आळसात सुख नसते. कुणाबद्दल उखाळ्यापाखाळ्या करून चहाडी करू नये. दुसऱ्याबद्दल खोटेनाटे बोलणे मनातही आणू नये. संपूर्ण शोध घेतल्याशिवाय कोणतेही काम करू नये. (काम अर्धवट सोडू नये.) ।।५।।

सभेमध्ये, समूहाच्या बैठकीमध्ये लाजू नये, मुखदुर्बळ राहू नये. मोकळ्या मनाने बोलावे परंतु बालिशपणे बोलू नये. बाष्कळ बडबड करू नये, कोणत्याही प्रकारची पैज, शर्यत लावू नये. कुणाशीही स्पर्धा करू नये. ।।६।।

कोणाचे उपकार सहसा घेऊ नयेत आणि घेतलेच तर त्यांची लगेच परतफेड करावी, उपकारातून लवकर उतराई व्हावे. दुसऱ्यांना दुःख देऊ नये, त्यांना व्यथित करू नये. कुणाचा विश्वासघात किंवा बेइमानी मुळीच करू नये. ।।७।।

स्वत:च्या मनाचा मोठेपणा कधी सोडून देऊ नये. मन कोते करू नये, ते व्यापक ठेवावे. परावलंबी होऊ नये. कुणावरी आपल्या आयुष्याचे ओझे लादू नये. ।।८।।

सत्याचा मार्ग कधी सोडू नये. खरेपणाने वागावे, असत्याच्या, खोटेपणाच्या मार्गाने जाऊ नये. खोटारडेपणा करून वागू नये. खोटेपणाचा कधीही वृथा अभिमान, व्यर्थ गर्व करू नये. ।।९।।

अपकीर्तीला बळी पडू नये. कुप्रसिद्धी टाळावी. चांगली कीर्ती वाढवावी. चांगल्या प्रकारे प्रसिद्ध पावावे. सारासार विचाराने, विवेकाने वर्तन करून सत्यमार्ग पत्करावा. ।।१०।।

उत्तमलक्षण शब्दार्थ

• उत्तम – आदर्श, गुणसंपन्न,
• लक्षण – गुणवैशिष्ट्य.
• श्रोतीं – ऐकणाऱ्या लोकांनो.
• सावधान – सावध होणे, सजग होणे.
• उत्तम – उत्कृष्ट, जेणें – ज्याने.
• बाणे – बाणणे, अंगिकारणे, सवय लागणे,
• सर्वज्ञ – सारे जाणणारा.
• पुसल्याविण – विचारल्याशिवाय,
• येकायेकी – एकदम, पटकन.
• जनीं – लोकांचे. आर्जव – विनंती.
• पापद्रव्य – पापाने (कपटाने) मिळवलेली संपत्ती.
• जोडू नये – साठवू नये.
• पुण्यमार्ग – चांगला रस्ता, सद्वर्तन,
• कदाकाळी – कोणत्याही वेळी.
• तोंडाळ – वाटेल ते बोलणारा, भांडकुदळ.
• वाचाळ – व्यर्थ बडबड करणारा.
• तंडो नये – तंटा (भांडण) करू नये.
• संतसंग – सज्जन माणसाची संगत.
• खंडू नये – तोडू नये.
• अंतर्यामी – मनातून, हृदयातून.
• आळस – काम न करणे.
• चाहाडी – एखादयाबद्दल वाईट सांगणे, आगलावेपणा.
• कार्य – काम,
• सभा – समूहाची बैठक.
• बाष्कळपणा – बालिशपणा.
• पैज – स्पर्धा, शर्यत.
• होड – पैज,
• परपीडा – दुसऱ्याला छळणे, दुःख देणे.
• विश्वासघात – बेइमानी.
• व्यापकपण – (मनाचा) मोठेपणा.
• पराधेन – परावलंबी, दुसऱ्यावर विसंबणे.
• वोझें – (स्वत:चा) भार,
• कोणीयेकासी – कोणावरही.
• सत्यमार्ग – खऱ्याचा मार्ग, सद्वर्तन.
• असत्य – खोटेपणा.
• पंथे – मार्गाने, वाटेने.
• कदा – कधीही.
• अभिमान – व्यर्थ गवं.
• अपकीर्ति – बेअब्रू, वाईट प्रसिद्धी,
• सत्कीर्ति – चांगली प्रसिद्धी.
• वाडवावी – वाढवावी.
• विवेके – चांगल्या विचाराने.
• दृढ – ठाम, मजबूत, ठोस.