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Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Land Use Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Land Use

Class 8 Geography Chapter 6 Land Use Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Examine the following statements and correct the incorrect ones:

Question A.
Mining Is not type of land use.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: Mining is a type of land use.

Question B.
There are factories in the Central Business District.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: There are many shops, banks and offices in the Central Business District.

Question C.
In urban areas, the largest area is used for residential purposes.
Answer:
Correct.

Question D.
The village attendant issues the 7/12 extract.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: The village talathi issues the 7/12 extract.

Question E.
In rural areas, residential areas occupy large tracts.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: In rural areas, residential areas occupy small tracts.

Question F.
Extract 7 indicates Record of Rights.
Answer:
Correct.

Question G.
Extract 12 indicates change in ownership.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: Extract 12 indicates tracts under cultivation.

2. Give geographical reasons.

Question A.
Land use for public facility is extremely important in urban areas.
Answer:

1. Government provides various services to fulfill the needs of citizens. The land used for fulfilling these needs is known as public utility/ facility area.
2. The lands used for post offices, police stations, public grounds, public schools, public hospitals, etc. are included public facility land use.
3. Land use for public facility increases the’ social welfare. Therefore, land use for public facility is extremely important in urban areas.

Question B.
The record of ownership of non- agricultural land is same as that of agricultural land.
Answer:
1. The record of agricultural land is maintained in the form of 7/12 extract. Similarly the record of ownership of non-agricultural land is maintained in the form of property card.

2. Like 7/12 extract, property card provides details of ownership of land, city survey number, plot number, amount of tax, area of property assessed, right to access, etc. Thus, the record of ownership of non-agricultural land is same as that of agricultural land.

Question C.
A region can be classified as developed or developing on the basis of land use.
Answer:

1. The land used in a particular region for agriculture, grazing, etc. indicates that the region is underdeveloped or developing.
2. The land used in a particular region for commercial purposes, transportation, recreation, etc. indicates that the region is developed. In this way, a region can be classified as developed or developing on the basis of land use.

3. Write answers:

Question A.
Why is agriculture important in rural land use?
Answer:

1. In India, agriculture is the main occupation of most of people in rural areas.
2. In India, farming occupation is very important as it satisfies the need of food grain and provides raw material to industries.
3. The maximum land in rural areas is used for carrying out agricultural activities. Therefore, agriculture is important in rural land use.

Question B.
State the factors affecting land use.
Answer:
(a) The factors affecting rural land use :

1. The factors like climatic conditions, fertility of soil, altitude and slope of land, irrigational facilities, natural resources, government policies, etc. affect rural land use.
2. For example, the land with gentle slope is not used for residential purpose, but is used for step farming.

(b) The factors affecting urban land use :

1. The factors like location of land, natural resources, housing development policies of government, transportation routes, industrialisation, trade and commerce, entertainment facilities, government policies, etc. affect urban land use.

2. For example, the land site near the railway station, market, etc. is mostly used for commercial purposes.

Question C.
Clarify the differences between rural and urban land use.
Answer:
The differences between rural and urban land use are as follows :

1. Land in rural areas is used for limited purposes. On the other hand, land in urban areas is used for many purposes.
2. The pattern of rural land use is comparatively simple. On the other hand, the pattern of urban land use is comparatively complex.
3. Use of land for cultivation is the major form of rural land use. On the other hand, use of land for commercial activities and residence are the major forms of urban land use.

Question D.
Differentiate between 7/12 extract and property card.
Answer:
The differences between 7/12 extract and property card are as follows :

1. 7/12 extract is issued by public revenue department of the government. On the other hand, property card is issued by city survey office of government.
2. 7/12 extract is the land record of ownership and history of ownership of the land in rural areas. Property card is the land record of ownership and history of ownership of the land in urban areas.

Activity:

Question A.
Obtain information about a town close to your village based on the following points and make a presentation in class.
(site, condition. development, land use pattern work)
a. Classify your settlement as rural or urban
b. Note the changes in land use from Central Business District outwards to the periphery in your settlement after consulting elders. Prepare a land use pattern.

Question B.
Study the 7/12 extract or the Property Card in your house and write a note.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 6 Land Use Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct answer:

Question a.
Recreational land use is use of land for …………………
(A) garden
(B) farming
(C) industry
(D) rail route
Answer:
(A) garden

Question b.
Which of the following is a planned city in India?
(A) Seoul
(B) Zurich
(C) Chandigarh
(D) Brasilia
Answer:
(C) Chandigarh

Question c.
Of which city are Bandra, Bhandup, etc. suburbs?
(A) Pune
(B) Nagpur
(C) Nashik
(D) Mumbai
Answer:
(D) Mumbai

Examine the following statements and correct the incorrect ones:

Question A.
Government policies affect the land use.
Answer:
Correct.

Question B.
The areas of mixed land use are found in cities.
Answer:
Correct.

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question A.
What is meant by land use?
Answer:
Land use is the way or purpose for which land in a particular region is used.

Question B.
What is called fallow land?
Answer:
The agricultural land which is temporarily not in use is called fallow land.

Question C.
What is called forest land?
Answer:
The land which is reserved for forest area is called forest land.

Question D.
Which products are obtained from forest areas?
Answer:
The products like firewood, flowers, fruits, gum, grass, honey, etc. are obtained from forest areas.

Question E.
What is called grassland?
Answer:
The land owned by Village Panchayat or the government and which is used for grazing is called grassland.

Question F.
What is meant by commercial land use?
Answer:
Commercial land use is the use of land in urban areas for commercial purpose.

Question G.
What is meant by mixed land use?
Answer:
Mixed land use is the use of land in urban areas for more than one purpose at a time.

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question A.
How does the pattern of land use get developed?
Answer:

1. The pattern of land use gets developed through the continuous interactions between man and geographical factors.
2. The interaction between the factors like availability of land, quality of land, human needs, etc. leads to the development of specific pattern of land use.
3. For example, mineral rich land is used for carrying out mining activity.
4. For example, fertile piece of land is used for carrying out farming activity, etc.

Question B.
Write in brief about residential land use in rural areas.
Answer:

1. The density of population is found to be low in rural areas.
2. As population in rural areas is comparatively limited, the residential land use in rural areas is found to be limited.
3. In rural areas, the land close to the areas of main occupations is used for settlements.
4. For example, farmers’ residences are found near farms, fishermen’s settlements are found near coastal areas, etc.

Question C.
Write in brief about features of trAnswer:itional areas.
Answer:
The following are the features of transitional areas:

1. The intermediate areas between rural settlements and urban settlements are known as transitional areas.
2. The blend of rural and urban land use and culture is found in transitional areas.
3. Over time, trAnswer:itional areas are converted into urban areas and they are called suburbs.
4. For example, Bandra, Bhandup, etc. are the suburbs of Mumbai city.

Question D.
Write in brief about property card.
Answer:
The brief information of property card is as follows:

1. Property card is the land record of ownership and history of ownership of the land in urban areas.
2.  It is a land record of non-agricultural land.
3. Property card is issued by city survey office of government.
4. Property cards provide details of city survey number, plot number, amount of tax, area of property assessed, right to access, etc.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question A.
Give information about arable land use and fallow land use in rural areas.
Answer:
The information about arable land : use and fallow land use in rural areas is as follows :
(a) Arable land use :

1. The use of land for cultivation is called arable land use.
2. In India, in 2011, nearly 57 per cent of land was under arable land use.
3. Generally, arable land is owned I individually.
4. The arable land can be classified on the basis of ownership of the land and types of agriculture.

(b) Fallow land use:

1. The agricultural land which is temporarily not in use is called fallow land.
2. Fallow land use is a form of rural land use.
3. To increase the fertility of soil, farmers do not use a part of agricultural land for few seasons.

Question B.
Give information about grassland use and forest land use in rural areas.
Answer:
The information about grassland use and forest land use in rural areas is as follows:
(a) Grassland land use:

1. The land owned by village panchayat or the government and which is used for grazing purpose is called grassland.
2. It is also called pastureland.
3. Mostly, grassland is owned by entire village. Very limited individual ownership of grassland is found.

(b) Forest land use:

1. The land kept reserved for forest area is called forest land.
2. Large trees, bushes, creepers and grass are found in forest land.
3. The forest products like firewood, fruits, flowers, gum, grass, honey, etc. are obtained from forest land.

Question C.
Give information about commercial land use and residential land use in urban areas.
Answer:
The information about commercial land use and residential land use in urban areas is as follows:
(a) Commercial land use:

1. The use of urban land for commercial use is called commercial land use.
2. Many shops, banks and offices are found in commercial land areas.
3. The concept of Central Business District (CBD) has emerged from commercial land use.
4. For example, Fort area or BKC (Bandra Kurla Complex) in Mumbai are the areas of commercial land use.

(b) Residential land use:

1. The use of urban land for residential purpose is called residential land use.
2. Houses and residential buildings are found in residential land areas.
3. The density of population is found to be high in urban areas. As its effect, the percentage of residential land use in urban areas is increasing day by day.

Question D.
Give information about trAnswer:port land use and public utility area in urban areas.
Answer:
The information about transport land use and Public utility area in urban areas is as follows:
(a) TrAnswer:port land use:

1. The use of urban land for providing transportation facilities is called transport land use.
2. The land used for roadways, railways, petrol pumps, vehicle repairing centres, etc. is included in transport land use.

(b) Public utility area:

1. Government provides various services to fulfill the needs of citizens. The land used for fulfilling these needs is known as public utility area.
2. Post offices, police stations, public grounds, public schools, public hospitals, etc. are included in public utility area.

Question E.
Give information about recreational land use and mixed land use in urban areas.
Answer:
The information about recreational land use and mixed land use in urban areas is as follows:
(a) Recreational land use:

1. Recreational land use is a use of urban land for fulfilling the needs of entertainment of people.
2. Public parks, swimming pools, theatres, etc. are included in recreational land use.

(b) Mixed land use:

1. Mixed land use is a use of urban land for fulfilling more than one wants at a time.
2. For example, area used for residential and entertainment purposes.

Question F.
Write about the features of planned cities.
Answer:
The features of planned cities are as follows:
(a) Need:

1. After industrial revolution, unplanned urbanisation occurred on a large scale all over the world.
2. Due to unplanned urbanisation, cities began to develop in a very haphazard manner.
3. People started migrating to cities in search of employment opportunities.

(b) Nature: City which is developed as per the pre-determined and planned layout of land use is called planned city.

(c) Singapore, Seoul from South Korea, Zurich from Switzerland, Washington D.C. from U.S.A., Brasilia from Brazil, Chandigarh, Bhubaneshwar from India are the examples of planned cities.

Question G.
Give information about 7/12 extract.
Answer:
The information about 7/12 extract is as follows:

1. 7/12 is an extract published and given by public revenue department of the government.
2. 7/12 extract gives detailed information of a particular registered land.
3. The register of the revenue department keeps a record of details of ownership rights of family, status of debt and loans, transfer of ownership, areas under different crops etc. related to registered land.
4. Village form no. 7 and Village form no. 12 are combined and 7/12 extract is prepared.
5. These village forms are available with the talathi of every village.
6. The accurate reading of 7/12 extract gives exact idea about ownership of land, tax levied on land, status of loan taken, etc.

Study the following map/figure/graph and answer the following questions:

Can you tell?

Study the Figure and answer the following questions:

Question A.
In which country is the land under forests more?
Answer:
The land under forests is more in Japan.

Question B.
In which country is the land under agriculture more?
Answer:
The land under agriculture is more in India.

Question C.
Considering the two questions above, how will you relate the physiography and climate of India and Japan with their respective land uses?
Answer:
Due to plains and monsoon climatic conditions, the population in India is more. Therefore, agricultural land use is prominent in India. Due to mountainous region and more proportion of precipitation, the forest land use is prominent in Japan.

Question D.
Correlate their land use and development.
Answer:
The land use in India shows comparatively low development. On the other hand, land use in Japan shows comparatively high development.

Question E.
Which land use is found in Japan?
Answer:
The land use like agricultural land use, forest land use, grassland land use, other land use, etc. are found in Japan.

Question F.
Considering the land use in both the countries, make a list of factors affecting land use.
Answer:
Considering the land use in both the countries, lists of factors affecting land use are as follows:
(a) Factors affecting land use in India:

1. Fertility of soil
2. Climatic conditions
3. Natural resources
4. Slope of land, etc.

(b) Factors affecting land use in Japan:

1. Technical advancement
2. Availability of resources
3. Government policies, etc.

Can you tell?

Study the Figure and answer the following questions:

Question A.
What kind of land use is shown in Figure 6.2 and 6.3?
Answer:
Land use shown in Figure 6.2 is agricultural land use and land use shown in Figure 6.3 is non-agricultural land use.

Question B.
Can you tell in which area the property is located?
Answer:
The property shown in Figure 6.2 is located in rural areas and the property shown in Figure 6.3 is located in urban areas.

Can you tell?

Study the Figure and answer the following questions:

Question A.
Which are the land uses of 1990-91 that show decline in 2010-11? What could be reasons for this?
Answer:
Total agricultural land use and other non-agricultural land use of 1990-91 show decline in 2010-11. Increased urbanisation could be reason for this.

Question B.
Which type of land use is the maximum? What would be the impact of this on India’s environment?
Answer:
Agricultural land use is the maximum. It indicates that India is an agrarian country and its environment is comparatively more natural.

Question C.
Can a decline in the area under agriculture equated with food shortage?
Answer:
A decline in the area under agriculture cannot be equated with food shortage. With modern technology, the maximum agricultural food production can be undertaken in limited areas.

Can you tell?

Study the figure and answer the following questions:

Question A.
What is the percentage of land suitable for cultivation?
Answer:
The percentage of land suitable for cultivation is 56.8.

Question B.
What is the percentage of barren land?
Answer:
The percentage of barren land is 8.3.

Question C.
What is the percentage of land under forest in Maharashtra?
Answer:
The percentage of land under forest in Maharashtra is 16.9.

Question D.
What is the percentage of non- agricultural land in Maharashtra?
Answer:
The percentage of non-agricultural land in Maharashtra is 10.2.

Give it a try.

Study the Figure. It shows the satellite images of Mondha Village (Taluka – Hingna, District – Nagpur).

Question A.
Find out the changes in land use pattern over time and write a note.
Answer:

1. The satellite image of Mondha Village in Hingna taluka in Nagpur district shows that agricultural land use in the village has declined from 2010 to 2017.
2. The satellite image of Mondha Village in Hingna taluka in Nagpur district shows that residential land use in the village has increased from 2010 to 2017.
3. Urbanisation, increasing population, etc. factors must be responsible for changes in land use pattern over time in Mondha Village.

Thought Provoking Question:

Think about it.

Question A.
If land is left fallow, or is not in use, then can it be termed as a kind of land use?
Answer:
1. The agricultural land which is temporarily not in use is called fallow land.
2. Fallow land use is a form of rural land use.
3. To increase the fertility of soil, farmers do not use a part of agricultural land for few seasons. After one or two seasons fallow land is again utilized for cultivation. Therefore, if land is left fallow, or is not in use, then it can be termed as a kind of land use.

Open-Ended Question:

Question A.
Write the advantages of planned cities in your own words.
Answer:
The advantages of planned cities are as follows:

1. There will not be a problem of traffic jam in planned cities.
2. The level of pollution will be the minimum in the planned cities.
3. The planned cities will be clean and they will maintain environmental balance.
4. The quality of human life will be superior in planned cities.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 8 Industry and Trade Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 8 Industry and Trade

Class 9 History Chapter 8 Industry and Trade Textbook Questions and Answers

1A. Choose the right option and rewrite the sentence:

Question 1.
In 1948, Industrial Finance Corporation of India was formed for ________.
(a) better development of the industrial sector
(b) making available long term loans to industrial projects
(c) generating employment
(d) determining the quality of finished goods
Answer:
(b) making available long term loans to industrial projects

Question 2.
industry in India is called the _____.
‘Sunrise Sector’.
(a) Jute
(b) Automobile
(c) Cement
(d) Khadi and village industries
Answer:
(b) Automobile

Question 3.
The major responsibility of the textiles committee is ________.
(a) Production of cloth
(b) Determining the quality standards of cloth
(c) Export of cloth
(d) Generate employment for people
Answer:
(b) Determining the quality standards of cloth

Question 4.
__________ is the major Indian city in the production of bicycles.
(a) Mumbai
(b) Ludhiana
(c) Cochin
(d) Calcutta
Answer:
(b) Ludhiana

B. Identify the wrong pair and rewrite the corrected one:

Question 1.
(1) Industrial Finance Corporation of India – makes long term loans available for industrial projects.
(2) Industrial Development Corporation – development of the industrial sector.
(3) Textiles Committee – the welfare of weavers.
(4) Khadi and Village Industries Commission – promotion of industrialization in rural areas
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Textiles Committee – the welfare of weavers.

Question 2.
(1) Bicycle – Ludhiana
(2) Seribiotic Research Laboratory – Nagpur
(3) Tractor Export – Africa
(4) Port for Trade – Mumbai.
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Seribiotic Research Laboratory -Nagpur.

2A. Create a concept picture based on the chapter:

Question 1.
Industries in India.
Answer:

Question 2.
India’s imports and exports or foreign trade.
Answer:

B. Explain the following concept:

Question 1.
Internal trade of India.
Answer:
(i) India’s internal trade takes place through railways, waterways, roads, airways, etc. Ports like Mumbai, Kolkata, Cochin and Chennai are important.
(ii) Commodities like coal, cotton, cotton textiles, rice, wheat, raw jute, iron, steel, oilseeds, salt, sugar, etc. are included in internal trade.
(iii) Due to the development of industries, the standard of life in the country improves.
(iv) Many opportunities for employment become available. On the whole, it helps in the progress of the country.

3A. Explain with reasons:

Question 1.
The tourism industry has developed to a great extent in India.
Answer:
(i) India has a rich cultural heritage. There are places of worship of different religions, pilgrimage centers, confluences of rivers, forts, caves, etc. all over our country.

(ii) Tourists from our country as well as from abroad travel in India throughout the year.

(iii) The facilities for tourists to stay, travel, etc. are provided through the Tourism Development Corporation. Sale of curios and the hotel industry thrives in tourist places. In some places, there are guides who give information to tourists about that area.

(iv) Sometimes when vehicles don’t reach the destination in some remote areas and difficult to reach tourist places, the local people help the tourists in return for a fee.

(v) Employment opportunities are generated out of these needs. Thus, the tourism industry has developed a lot in India.

Question 2.
The quality of life and standard of living of Indian citizens is increasing.
Answer:
(i) After India became independent, the Industrial Finance Corporation of India was established in 1948 to make available long term loans to Industrial projects.

(ii) The Industrial Development Corporation was established in 1954 in order to bring about greater development of the industrial sector.

(iii) Due to the development of industries, many opportunities for employment become available.

(iv) On the whole, it helps in the progress of the country.

(v) Thus the standard of life in the country improves.

B. Write the answer in 25 to 30 words:

Question 1.
What efforts are made by our government to promote agricultural industries?
Answer:
The following efforts are made by our Government to promote agriculture and industries:

(i) To encourage farming, loans are given to farmers through rural banks and cooperative institutions.

(ii) Study visits, agricultural outdoor trips and farmers’ get-togethers are organised through the Panchayat Samitis to bring about improvements in agriculture.

(iii) Tools and implements, seeds and fertilisers are also supplied. The farmers are given training regarding soil testing, nursery of fruit plants, pisciculture, poultry, cattle and goat rearing, dairy farming, etc.

(iv) Guidance is given to farmers by a district level training institute. Financial help is given to build warehouses for storing the farm produce.

Question 2.
How is employment generated in the tourism sector?
Answer:
(i) The facilities for tourists to stay, travel, etc. are provided through the Tourism Development Corporation.
(ii) Sale of curios and the hotel industry thrives in tourist places.
(iii) In some places, there are guides who give information to tourists about that area.
(iv) Sometimes when vehicles don’t reach the destination in some remote areas and difficult to reach tourist places, the local people help the tourists in return for a fee.
Thus, employment opportunities are generated out of these needs.

Question 3.
Which industries in India are based on forests?
Answer:
(i) Government has reserved some forests for the industries based on forests.
(ii) The task of conservation of the forests is done by the Central government, the State government, and by the local people.
(iii) Forests are necessary for the raw material for industries like construction, paper, newsprint, silk, matchboxes, medicinal herbs, honey, lacquer, and raw material needed for paint.

Question 4.
Write a short note on the leather industry in India.
Answer:
(i) It is a big industry in India. It is primarily export-oriented.
(ii) The Council for Leather Export is the main trade promotion organization for Indian leather Industry.
(iii) The Indian leather industry contributes almost 13% of world’s leather production.
(iv) India is the second largest producer of footwear and leather garments in the world.

4. Complete the table:

Question 1.

Goods imported in India	………………….
Goods exported from India	……………………

Answer:

Goods imported in India	When planning started in 1951, the import of industrial goods and raw material required for production increased. India’s imports included machines, iron, mineral oil, fertilisers, medicines, etc.
Goods exported from India	India also gave impetus to exports after independence in order to gain valuable foreign exchange. India’s exports included tea, coffee, spices, cotton textiles, leather, footwear, pearls, precious stones, etc.

Class 9 History Chapter 8 Industry and Trade Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
Market mechanisms like ______ enables the craftsmen from rural and urban areas to get a market for their wares.
(a) Dilli Haat
(b) Mumbai Market
(c) Handloom Emporium
(d) Handicraft Expo.
Answer:
(a) Dilli Haat

Question 2.
The textile industry forms ______ % of the total industrial production.
(a) 17
(b) 14
(c) 16
(d) 15
Answer:
(b) 14

Question 3.
________ industry functions under the Ministry of Textiles.
(a) Automobile
(b) Cement
(c) Leather
(d) Silk
Answer:
(d) Silk

Question 4.
_______ is a scheme that helps weavers through self-finance groups and nongovernmental organisations.
(a) MNREGA
(b) Employment Generation Program
(c) Swarnajayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana
(d) Mega Cluster
Answer:
(d) Mega Cluster

Question 5.
Industrial Finance Corporation of India was established in _______.
(a) 1948
(b) 1949
(c) 1951
(d) 1991
Answer:
(a) 1948

Question 6.
Industrial Development Corporation was established in ________.
(a) 1955
(b) 1956
(c) 1957
(d)1954
Answer:
(d)1954

Question 7.
Textile Committee Act was passed in ________.
(a)1961
(b) 1960
(c) 1963
(d) 1964
Answer:
(c) 1963

Question 8.
Industrial Licensing Policy was formulated in _______.
(а) 1970
(b) 1980
(c)1990
(d) 1991
Answer:
(а) 1970

Identify and write the wrong pair in the following sets:

Question 1.
(1) Industrial Licensing policy – 1970
(2) Textile Committee Act – 1963
(3) Industrial Finance Corporation of India – 1948
(4) Industrial Development Corporation – 1958
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Industrial Development Corporation -1958.

Question 2.
(1) Mega cluster – Welfare scheme for weavers.
(2) Dilli Haat – Enables the craftsmen to get a market
(3) Cement Industry – Sunrise sector
(4) Leather Industry – Export Oriented
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Cement Industry – Sunrise sector.

Question 3.
(1) Hand Sculpting – labour intensive
(2) Silk Industry – Ministry of textiles
(3) Khadi and Village Industry Commission – Fourth five year plan
(4) Tourism Development Corporation – facilities for tourist
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Khadi and Village Industry Commission -Fourth five year plan

Do as Directed:

Question 1.
Arrange the following in chronological order:
(i) Textile Committee Act
(ii) Industrial Finance Corporation of India was established
(iii) Industrial Licensing Policy
(iv) Industrial Development Corporation was established
Answer:
(i) Industrial Finance Corporation of India was established in 1948
(ii) Industrial Development Corporation was established in 1954
(iii) Textile Committee Act 1963
(iv) Industrial Licensing Policy of 1970

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Hand sculpting Industry.
Answer:
(i) This is a labour intensive craft.
(ii) Sculptors got employment due to the capacity of the craft to absorb more craftsmen, small investment, more profits, preference to exports and possibility of earning more foreign exchange.
(iii) Several cities have market mechanisms like ‘Dilli Haat’ which enables the craftsmen from rural and urban areas to get a market for their wares.

Question 2.
‘Mega cluster’ scheme and Jute Industry.
Answer:
(i) ‘Mega cluster’ is a scheme that helps weavers through self-finance groups and non-governmental organisations.
(ii) Help is given in the form of raw material, design banks, development of technology and welfare of the weavers.
(iii) India is the top ranking country in jute production. India is a major exporter of jute products.
(iv) We get cloth, sack cloth and ropes from jute.

Question 3.
Cement Industry.
Answer:
(i) The role of cement industry is important in the development of housing and infrastructure.
(ii) This industry is one of the most technologically advanced. India is currently an important producer of cement in the world.

Question 4.
Salt and Bicycle industry.
Answer:
(i) India is one of the top producers of salt in the world.
(ii) The annual production of salt in India is 200 lakh tons.
(iii) The production of iodised salt is 60 lakh tons.
(iv) India is a leading producer of bicycles in the world.
(v) Bicycles are made in the states of Punjab and Tamil Nadu.
(vi) The main centre of bicycle manufacturing in India is Ludhiana.
(vii) India exports bicycles to countries like Nigeria, Mexico, Kenya, Uganda and Brazil.

Question 5.
Mineral wealth and fisheries.
Answer:
(i) The availability of the minerals, iron and coal plays a major role in the industrial development of the country.
(ii) We have adequate stores of iron, manganese, coal and mineral oil in our country.
(iii) Fisheries include sea water fish and fresh water fish found in rivers, canals, ponds and lakes.
(iv) Harbours have been built or old harbours have been redeveloped, fish seed incubation centres and fishing industry training centres have been provided for the growth of this industry.

Question 6.
Khadi and Village Industries Commission.
Answer:
(i) The Khadi and Village Industries Commission was established to give impetus to industrialisation in rural areas.
(ii) The main objectives behind the establishment of the corporation were to develop the traditional industries, handicrafts, cottage industries and to encourage industries that use the material and human resources available at the local level and make the villages self-reliant by creating employment there.

Explain the statements with reason:

Question 1.
Agriculture fulfills man’s basic needs.
Answer:
(i) The major occupation in India is agriculture and other tasks based on agriculture.
(ii) Many varieties of crops are grown. Jowar, wheat, rice, pulses and oilseeds are mainly produced.
(iii) Agriculture also includes the production of fruits and vegetables. Nowadays, industries processing these fruits and vegetables have come up.
(iv) Thus, Agriculture fulfills man’s basic needs.

Read the following passage and answer the questions.

Forest resources: The government has reserved some forests for the industries based on forests. The task of conservation of the forests is done by the Central government, the State government, and by the local, people. Forests are necessary for the raw material for industries like construction, paper, newsprint, silk, matchboxes, medicinal herbs, honey lacquer, and raw material needed for paint.
Fisheries: Fisheries include seawater fish and fresh i water fish found in rivers, canals, ponds, and lakes.
Tourism: India has a rich cultural heritage. There are places of worship of different religions, pilgrimage centers, confluences of rivers, forts, caves, etc. all over our country. Tourists from our country as well as from abroad travel in India throughout the year.
The facilities for tourists to stay, travel, etc. are, provided through the Tourism Development Corporation. The sale of curios and the hotel industry thrives in tourist places. In some places, there are guides who give information, to tourists about that area. Sometimes when vehicles, don’t reach the destination in some remote and difficult to reach tourist places, the local people help the tourists in return for a fee. Employment, opportunities are generated out of these needs.

Question 1.
Name a few industries which depend upon forest resources for their production.
Answer:
A few industries which depend upon forest resources are – construction, newsprint, paper and silk industry. Even lacquer is required to paint and coat furniture, honey and herbs for medicinal use.

Question 2.
Do you think Tourism is an industry? How has this industry prospered in India so far?
Answer:
Yes, tourism is an industry. India attracts a lot of foreign tourists every year as it is a home of many pilgrimage places, has a confluence of rivers, scenic landscapes and historical monuments. The Tourism Development Corporation provides all facilities of stay and travel in India. Not just the guides but also local people of the tourist spots help the tourists to reach difficult destinations with ease. The sale of curios and the hotel industry thrives in tourist places. Hence India’s tourism is prospering at a fast pace.

Question 3.
Do you agree that cross-border terrorism in Kashmir has affected tourism in this region? what can be done to protect tourism there?
Answer:
It is true that cross-border terrorism has affected tourism in the Kashmir region. I think the following are a few measures which can ensure protection of tourists:

(i) The army and other paramilitary forces should become more tourist – friendly and convince them to refrain from visiting terror-prone areas.

(ii) Bilateral talks at the governmental level can also play a vital role in preventing unpleasant experiences for the tourists.

(iii) During skirmishes or conflicts of any kind, the tourists should be restricted from visiting the valley. Those already stuck in the regions during sudden eruption of violence must be given a safe passage with priority.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
Explain Agriculture in India.
Answer:
(i) Agriculture, in India, is practised using traditional and modern methods. Tasks are performed using bullocks as well as machines.

(ii) Seventy percent of Indian society depends upon jobs related to agriculture and agricultural production.

(iii) Agriculture and animal husbandry are practised in villages. In this industry the participation of women is equal to that of men.

(iv) Variety of crops like jowar, wheat, rice, pulses and oilseeds, cotton and sugarcane are produced in India.

(v) To encourage farming, loans are given to farmers through rural banks and cooperative institutions.

(vi) Study visits, agricultural outdoor trips and farmers’ get-togethers are organised through the Panchayat Samitis to bring about improvements in agriculture.

(vii) Tools and implements, seeds and fertilisers are also supplied. The farmers are given training regarding soil testing, nursery of fruit plants, pisciculture, poultry, cattle and goat rearing, dairy farming, etc.

(viii) Guidance is given to farmers by a district level training institute. Financial help is given to build warehouses for storing the farm produce.

(ix) Modern techniques like drip irrigation, organic farming are used for farming.

Question 2.
Industries in India.
Answer:
(i) Textile industry: The textile industry forms 14% of the total industrial production.
It includes the powerloom and the handloom industries. The handloom industries are labour-intensive. According to the ‘Textile Committee Act 1963’, a Textile Committee has been established. This committee sets the quality standards for textiles manufactured for sale in the internal market as well as for export.

(ii) Silk industry: This industry functions under the Ministry of Textiles. The research about the species of the silkworm and mulberry trees is done in the Seribiotic Research Laboratory at Bengaluru. This industry is primarily in the States of Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, West Bengal, Jammu and Kashmir. Now it is being spread in states with predominantly tribal populations.

(iii) Jute industry: India is the top ranking country in jute production. India is a major exporter of jute products. We get cloth, sack cloth and ropes from jute.

(iv) Hand sculpting: This is a labour intensive craft. Sculptors got employment due to the capacity of the craft to absorb more craftsmen, small investment, more profits, preference to exports and possibility of earning more foreign exchange. Several cities have market mechanisms like ‘Dilli Haat’ which enables the craftsmen from rural and urban areas to get a market for their wares.

(v) Automobile industry: India is one of the major producers of vehicles. Vehicles are exported to 40 countries from India. The automobile industry is called the ‘sunrise sector’ in India. India’s tractor industry is the biggest in the world. One third of the tractors manufactured world-wide are produced in India. Tractors manufactured in India are exported to Turkey, Malaysia and several countries in Africa.

(vi) Cement industry: The role of cement industry is important in the development of housing and infrastructure. This industry is one of the most technologically advanced. India is currently an important producer of cement in the world.

(vii) Leather industry: It is a big industry in India. It is primarily export oriented.

(viii) Salt industry: India is one of the top producers of salt in the world. The annual production of salt in India is 200 lakh tons. The production of iodised salt is 60 lakh tons.

(ix) Bicycle industry: India is a leading producer of bicycles in the world. Bicycles are made in the States of Punjab and Tamil Nadu. The main centre of bicycle manufacturing in India is Ludhiana. India exports bicycles to countries like Nigeria, Mexico, Kenya, Uganda and Brazil.

(x) Khadi and village industry: The Khadi and Village Industries Commission was established to give impetus to industrialization in rural areas. The main objectives behind the establishment of the corporation were to develop the traditional industries, handicrafts, cottage industries and to encourage industries that use the material and human resources available at the local level and make the villages self-reliant by creating employment there.

Question 3.
India’s imports and exports or foreign trade.
Answer:
(i) When planning started in 1951, import of industrial goods and raw material was required for increasing the production.
(ii) India’s imports included machines, iron, mineral oil, fertilisers, medicines, etc.
(iii) India also gave impetus to exports after independence in order to gain valuable foreign exchange.
(iv) India’s exports included tea, coffee, spices, cotton textiles, leather, footwear, pearls, precious stones, etc.

Question 4.
Explain the policy of the Central Government.
Answer:
(i) In the fourth five year plan, focus was placed on paper industry, pharmaceutical industry, motor-tractor industry, leather goods, textile industry, food processing industry, oil, colour, sugar industries, etc.

(ii) According to the Industrial Licensing Policy of 1970, all those factories requiring an investment of more than 5 crore rupees were to be included as heavy industries.

(iii) The big industrial houses and foreign companies were allowed to invest in heavy industries that were not reserved for the public sector.

(iv) As a result of this policy, by the end of 1972,3 lakh 18 thousand small industries were registered with the government registration office.

Question 5.
Write a note on Silk Industry.
Answer:
(i) The silk industry functions under the Ministry of Textiles.
(ii) The research about the species of the silkworm and mulberry trees is done in the Seribiotic Research Laboratory at Bengaluru.
(iii) This industry is primarily in the States of Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, West Bengal and Jammu and Kashmir.
(iv) Now it is being spread in States with predominantly tribal populations.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Population Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Population

Class 8 Geography Chapter 7 Population Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Complete the following sentences:

Question A.
If the birth rate is greater than the death rate then the population …………. .
(i) decreases
(ii) increases
(iii) remains constant
(iv) becomes surplus
Answer:
(ii) increases

Question B.
People of …………… age group are included in the productive population.
(i) 0 to 14
(ii) 14 to 60
(iii) 15 to 60
(iv) 16 to 59
Answer:
(iv) 16 to 59

Question C.
The spread of modern technology in society is mostly dependent on …………….. .
(i) sex ratio
(ii) birth rate
(iii) literacy
(iv) migration
Answer:
(iv) migration

2. Examine the following statements and correct the incorrect ones:

Question a.
The population density of a region can be understood from its area.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct sentence: The population density of a region can be understood from its area and the total volume of population living in it.

Question b.
The quality of population is determined on the basis of literacy.
Answer:
Correct.

Question c.
There is an adverse impact on manpower in the regions of out migration.
Answer:
Correct.

Question d.
Greater economic prosperity indicates the development of region.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct sentence: Greater economic prosperity as well as higher standards of living, higher quality of life, availability of opportunities, freedom, etc, indicate the development of region.

Question e.
Developing countries have an HDl of 1.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct sentence: Developing countries have and HDI of 0.50 to 0.60.

3. Answer in brief.

Question a.
What are the aspects considered in the structure of population?
Answer:
The following are the aspects considered in the structure of the population:

1. Sex ratio/structure: Sex ratio/structure is a structure that considers the sub division of population on the basis of gender.
2. Age structure: Age structure is a structure that considers the sub division of population as per age groups.
3. Occupational structure: Occupational structure is a structure that considers sub division of population on the basis of dependency and workability.
4. Rural – urban structure: Rural – Urban structure is a structure that considers sub division of population on the basis of area of residence.
5. Literacy structure: Literacy structure is a structure that considers sub division of population on the basis of capability of reading and writing.

Question b.
Prepare a list of advantageous and disadvantageous factors, affecting population distribution.
Answer:
A list of advantageous factors affecting population distribution is as follows:

1. Availability of sufficient sunlight, clean air and water.
2. Region with low altitude
3. Moderate rainfall and temperature
4. Fertile soil
5. Deposits of minerals
6. Industrialisation
7. Urbanisation
8. Availability of transportation facilities
9. Availability of market
10. Political stability
11. International peace
12. Favourable government policies
13. Favourable social customs and traditions.

A list of disadvantageous factors affecting population distribution is as follows:

1. Shortage of sufficient sunlight, clean air and water.
2. Region with high altitude
3. Extremely less or more rainfall and temperature
4. Infertile soil
5. Scarcity of minerals
6. Low industrialisation
7. Lack of urbanisation
8. Non-availability of transportation facilities
9. Non-availability of market
10. Political instability
11. International disputes
12. Unfavourable government policies
13. Evil social customs and traditions.

Question c.
What are the problems in areas of high population densities?
Answer:
The ratio of the population of a country to its area is population density. While discussing population distribution, density of population is also considered. The density is calculated, as per the formula given below.
Density of population = Population of a region/Area of a region.

The problems in areas of high population densities are as follows:
1. Pollution – Pollution is one of the major reasons which people face due to high population density. Due to an increase in land degradation by making houses and flats, land pollution will be caused, water will be contaminated by a huge number of people, resulting in water pollution and huge number of vehicles will cause air pollution.

2. Overcrowded – The areas with high population density become overcrowded, which bring chaos and lack of peace in the society.
3. Lack of open space – High population density makes it difficult to get a free open space.

Question d.
What arc the problems in area of low population densities?
Answer:
The development of a country depends upon its size of population. A lower population is somehow manageable and resources can be distributed equally. But, sometimes the low population leads to lower demands of goods and services and lower tax revenues for the government to provide goods and services.

4. Give geographical reasons:

Question a.
Population is an important resource.
Answer:

1. The economic and cultural development of any country depends upon the volume and the quality of population.
2. If a country has a high volume and less quality of population, it has slow economic growth and development.
3. If a country has optimum population with high quality of population, it has fast economic growth and development. Thus, population is an important resource.

Question b.
Productive population is an important group.
Answer:

1. People belonging to age group of 16 to 59 age are considered as productive. Therefore this population is called productive population.
2. People below 16 years of age and above 60 years of age are considered as dependent or non-working population.
3. Productive population/people are involved in services or businesses. Therefore they play very important role in economic
4. If country has more proportion of productive population and youth, it develops rapidly. Thus, productive population is an important group.

Question c.
The study of age structure is important.
Answer:

1. The study of age structure helps to know the percentage of children, adolescents, youth, middle aged, and old aged in population.

2. The study of age structure helps to know the proportion of productive people (Working people between 16 years to 59 years of age) and unproductive people (Non working people below 16 years of age and above 60 years of age).

3. The study of age structure helps government in planning various economic, social, educational, medical, etc. schemes for the overall development of country.

4. The study of age structure helps to know the speed of economic growth. Thus, the study of age structure is important.

Question d.
Literacy is directly related to development.
Answer:

1. The country with high literacy rate, develops rapidly in economic, social and cultural aspects.
2. The country with low literacy rate, faces many obstacles in its economic, social and cultural growth and development.
3. Literacy rate is related to quality of life, the opportunities available and freedom. Thus, literacy is directly related to development.

Question e.
The real progress of a country is understood with the help of the Human Development Index.
Answer:
1. Human Development Index is calculated by taking into account the values of economic, health and education parameters.

2. Thus, Human Development Index is calculated on the basis of Gross National Product, life expectancy and literacy rate.

3. Human Development Index indicates the standard of living, economic and social welfare, quality of life, opportunities available and freedom. Therefore, the real progress of a country is understood with the help of the Human Development Index.

5. Write notes.

Question a.
Sex ratio.
Answer:
1. The number of females per thousand males is called sex ratio.

2. The sex ratio is calculated with the help of the following formula :

3. If the number of females per thousand males is less, the sex ratio is considered to be low. On the other hand, if the number of females per thousand males is more, the sex ratio is considered to be high.

4. According to Census 2011, the sex ratio was highest (1084) in the state of Kerala. According to Census 2011, the sex ratio was 929 in the state of Maharashtra.

5. Out-migration of males leads to high sex ratio in a region from where males have out-migrated. Less female birth rate leads to low sex ratio.

Question b.
Age structure.
Answer:

1. Sub division of population as per age groups is known as age structure.
2. Age structure is helpful in knowing the proportion of children, adolescents, young, middle aged and old people in population.
3. It is also helpful in knowing proportion of active population (Population between the ages 16 and 59) and dependent population (Population below 16 years of age and above 60 years of age).
4. Age structure is helpful to the government in framing various policies.

Question c.
Literacy.
Answer:
1. Population above the age of seven can be sub divided on the basis of capability of reading and writing.

2. People above the age of seven and are unable to read and write are considered illiterate. On the other hand, people above the age of seven and are able to read and write are considered literate.

3. High literacy rate is an indicator of social and economic development of society. On the other hand, high illiteracy rate leads to slow economic, social and cultural development of society.

4. Literacy rate is related to quality of life, the opportunities available and freedom. Thus, it is directly related to development.

Activity:

Question a.
Survey 5 families in your neighbourhood on the basis of the following points and make a presentation.
(a) Sex
(b) Age groups
(c) Education
(d) Occupation

Class 8 Geography Chapter 7 Population Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the correct word and complete the sentences:

Question A.
……………… state of India has the highest sex ratio.
(i) Maharashtra
(i) Kerala
(c) Punjab
(d) Haryana
Answer:
(b) Kerala

Question B.
………………. district of Maharashtra has low density of population.
(a) Mumbai City
(b) Mumbai Suburb
(c) Thane
(d) Osmanabad
Answer:
(d) Osmanabad

Examine the following statements and correct the incorrect ones:

Question a.
The state of Maharashtra has a balanced population.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct sentence: The state of Maharashtra has imbalanced population.

Question b.
The areas with plenty of natural resources normally have more volume of population.
Answer:
Correct.

Question c.
The region with more proportion of youth in population has a rapid speed of development.
Answer:
Correct.

Question d.
Most of people in rural areas are engaged in tertiary activities.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct sentence: Most of people in rural areas are engaged in primary activities.

Question e.
Human Development Index is published by World Health Organisation.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct sentence: Human Development Index is published by United National Development Programme.

Question f.
Density of population is found to be more in the state of Goa.
Answer:
Correct.

Question g.
The state of Rajasthan is densely populated.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct sentence: The state of Rajasthan is sparsely populated.

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question a.
What is birth rate?
Answer:
Birth rate is the number of live births per one thousand people in a year.

Question b.
What is death rate?
Answer:
Death rate is the number of deaths per one thousand people in a year.

Question c.
What is life expectancy?
Answer:
Life expectancy is the expected average life span of an individual at the time j of his/her birth.

Question d.
What is meant by in-migration?
Answer:
Migration of people in a particular region from outside regions is known as in-migration.

Question e.
What is meant by out-migration?
Answer:
Migration of people from a particular region to outside regions is known as out-migration.

Question f.
What is meant by sex ratio?
Answer:
The total number of females per thousand males is known as sex ratio.

Question g.
In which types of occupations are people in urban areas involved?
Answer:
People in urban areas are involved in secondary and tertiary occupations.

Question h.
Who put forth the concept of Human Development Index?
Answer:
Mahbub Ul Haq and Amartya Sen put forth the concept of Human Development Index.

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question a.
Explain the various types of migration.
Answer:
The various types of migration are as follows:

1. In-migration: In-migration is migration of people in a particular region from outside regions.
2. Out-migration: Out-migration is migration of people from a particular region to outside regions.
3. Short term mfgration: Short term migration is migration of people on a i temporary basis. For example, migration due to tourism or natural disaster or education is a short term migration.
4. Long term migration: Long term migration is migration of people on a permanent basis. For example, migration due to transfer of service or marriage or war j and partition is a long term migration.

Question b.
Explain the effects of migration.
Answer:
The effects of migration are as follows:

1. Out-migration leads to fall in population of a region from where people have migrated outside. This in turn leads to shortage of manpower in a region from where out-migration has occurred.

2. In-migration leads to increase in population of a region in which people from outside regions have migrated. This in turn, puts a pressure on public amenities and infrastructure of a region in which people have migrated.

3. Migration leads to redistribution of population.
4. Migration also leads to a change in the structure of population in a particular region.

Give geographical reasons:

Question a.
The density of population is found to be high in Mumbai City and Mumbai Suburb district.
Answer:

1. Mumbai is economic capital of India.
2. In Mumbai City and Mumbai Suburb district, industrialisation and urbanisation has taken place on a large scale.
3. Transportation, educational, medical, etc. facilities are available on a large scale in these districts.
4. Many employment opportunities are also available in these districts.

Due to all these favourable factors, many people from other districts of Maharashtra as well as from other states of India have migrated to Mumbai on a permanent basis. Therefore, the density of population is found to be high in Mumbai City and Mumbai Suburb district.

Study the following map/figure/graph and answer the following questions:

Study the Figure is given and answer the following questions:

Question a.
Which state has the highest sex\ratio?
Answer:
Kerala state has the highest sex j ratio.

Question b.
Which state has the lowest sex J ratio?
Answer:
Haryana state has the lowest sex ratio.

Question c.
What changes should take place in Maharashtra, to bring about a balanced > sex ratio and how much change is i necessary?
Answer:
The following changes should take place in Maharashtra to bring about a balanced sex ratio:

1. Sex ratio must get increased by having total control over female infanticide and launching various government schemes for women empowerment, etc.
2. The sex ratio must get increased by 71 i.e. the number of females per thousand males must get increased from 929 to 1000.

Try this: 

Question a.
Prepare bar graphs on the basis of the table given below and write a note. (Discuss in group about the issue of literacy in the country.)?

Answer:
(A) Bar graph:

(B) Note:

1. From the above bar diagram it can be seen that the literacy rate is found to be high in developed countries, moderate in developing countries and low in underdeveloped countries.
2. In 2010, the literacy rate was 72.1°/e in India.
3. In 2010, the literacy rate was 98.1% in Argentina and it was 38.1% in Afghanistan.
4. Literacy rate is directly or indirectly related to quality of life, opportunities available and the freedom.

Can you tell? 

Study Figure is given and answer the following questions:

Question a.
Which are the most densely populated districts?
Answer:
The most densely populated districts are:

1. Mumbai City
2. Mumbai Suburb
3. Thane
4. Pune
5. Kolha5ur, etc.

Question b.
Name the sparsely populated districts with a density of less than 100 per sq. km.
Answer:
The sparsely populated districts with a density of less than 100 sq. km:

1. Gadchiroli
2. Beed
3. Osmanabad, etc.

Question c.
Name two districts with moderate population.
Answer:
District with moderate population:

1. Nashik
2. Nagpur.

Question d.
What is the density of the dark shaded regions?
Answer:
The density of the dark shaded regions is greater than 1000 person per sq. km.

Question e.
Why is the density of population less in Gadchiroli?
Answer:
The density of population is less in Gadchiroli due to dense forests.

Question f.
Have a discussion in the class on the effect of physiography, climate, area under forest, industries, etc. on the density of population.
Answer:
1. Physiography: The density of population is found to be high in plain areas. On the other hand, the density of population is found to be low in mountainous regions.

2. Climate: The density of population is found to be high in the areas with moderate temperature and moderate rainfall. On the other hand, the density of population is found to be low in the areas of extremely low or high temperature and extremely high or low rainfall.

3. Area under forest: The density of population is found to be high in the area where forest cover is limited. On the other hand, the density of population is found to be low in the area under dense forests.

4. Industries: The density of population is found to be high in industrially developed region. The density of population is found to be low in industrially backward: region.

Thought-Provoking Questions:

Can you tell? 

Study the table is given and answer the following questions:

Question a.
Which city has greater number of newly born children?
Answer:
‘B’ City has greater number of newly born children.

Question b.
Which city records greater number of deaths?
Answer:
‘B’ City records greater number of deaths.

Question c.
Looking at the figures of in-migration and out-migration which city has received more migrants?
Answer:
Looking at the figures of in-migration and out-migration, ‘A’ City has received more migrants. .

Question d.
Calculate the population of both the cities in 2017.
Answer:
The population of ‘A’ City in 2017 is 121, 500 and of ‘B’ City in 2017 is 120, 550.

Question e.
After considering all the points, which city has recorded more growth of population in one year?
Answer:
After considering all the points, ‘A’ City has recorded more growth of population in one year. .

Question f.
The total number of births are given. What would be this figure per thousand population? What is the term for this?
Answer:
The total number of births are given. This figure would be 20 per thousand. The term for this is ‘Birth rate’.

Question g.
What would be the number of deaths per thousand population? What is the term used for this?
Answer:
The number of deaths per thousand would be 25. The term used for this is ‘Death rate’.

Complete the following table:
(Note: The answer is given directly.)

Question a.

Answer:

State	Population (2011)	Area (Sq. Km)	Density
1. Uttar Pradesh	19,98,12,341	2,40,926	829.35
2. Maharashtra	11,23,74,333	3,07,713	356.19
3. Tamil Nadu	7,26,26,809	1,30,058	558.41
4. Rajasthan	68,54,837	3,42,239	20.02
5. Manipur	27,21,756	22,327	121.90
6. Goa	14,58,545	3,702	393.98

Think about it:

Question a.
Even though area wise Rajasthan is a large state, the population is less. Which geographical factors may be responsible for this?
Answer:
The amount of rainfall is comparatively less in the state of Rajasthan. The Thar desert is located in the western part of the state of Rajasthan. Therefore, even though area wise Rajasthan is a large state, the population is less.

Can you tell? 

Question a.
Classify Male, Adolescent, Illiterate, Children, Unemployed, Infants, Literate, Rural, Working population, Urban, Female, Old, Young, Dependent population and Adult into the following categories:

1. Sex
2. Age
3. Rural
4. Urban
5. Literacy
6. Productive population.

Answer:

1. Sex: Male, Female
2. Age: Adolescent, Children, Infants, Old, Young, Adult
3. Rural: Rural
4. Urban: Urban
5. Literacy: Illiterate, Literate
6. Productive population: Unemployed, Working population, Dependent population.

Can you tell? 

Study the figure and answer the following questions:

Question a.
What do you think are the reasons for the changing land use pattern of Mondha village?
Answer:
Urbanisation and rise in population are the reasons for the changing land use pattern of Mondha village.

Question b.
What kind of changes have taken place?
Answer:
In Mondha village, the agricultural land use has decreased and the non-agricultural land use (i.e. commercial land use, residential land use) has increased.

Question c.
Due to this change in land use, do you think there has been a change in population? If yes, what is the change and why?
Answer:
Due to this change in land use, there has been a change in population. The population of Mondha has increased due to the in-migration.

Can you tell?

Study the table showing percentage of immigrant population of various countries given on page 46 and answer the following questions:

Question a.
Which countries have less than 10% migrant population?
Answer:
Afghanistan, Brazil, Bangladesh, India and Great Britain have less than 10% migrant population.

Question b.
Which are the countries with a migrant population of between 10% and 20%?
Answer:
Germany and U.S.A. are the countries with a migrant population of between 10%
and 20%.

Question c.
Which are the countries with a migrant population of more than 20%
Answer:
Kuwait, Hong Kong, Oman and Saudi Arabia are the countries with a migrant population of more than 20%.

Question d.
Find the reasons behind the migrant population of more than 20%.
Answer:
The reasons behind the migrant population of more than 20% are:

1. Huge stock of mineral oil and other natural resources
2. Availability of employment opportunities
3. Great demand for labour in these countries.

Question c.
Draw pie diagrams for any two countries.
Answer:
1. Kuwait: A pie diagram showing percentage of immigrant population for Kuwait is as follows:

2. Oman: A pie diagram showing percentage of immigrant population for Oman is as follows:

Question d.
Have a discussion on migration and development.
Answer:
1. Out-migration leads to a shortage of manpower/labour supply. This in turn adversely affects the development of the region from where out-migration has occurred.
2. In-migration leads to increase in population of a region in which in-migration has occurred. This too, adversely affects the development of the respective region.
3. The migration up to certain extent increases the mobility of labourer and it boosts the development of a particular region.

Use your brainpower: 

Question a.
In India, 0.52 % of the population are migrants. What is the actual number of people who have migrated to India?
Answer:
According to Census 2011, the population of India was nearly 121 crore. In India, 0. 52 % of the population are migrants. Thus, according to Census 2011, the actual number of people who have migrated to India is nearly 629,200.

Try this:

Question a.
Write a note on the Human Development Index. (HDI) of various countries on the basis of the following table:
HDI Rank wise Country Value of HDI Level of Development

Answer:

1. Norway ranks first in the world with respect to Human Development Index (HDI). The value of HDI for Norway is 0.949.
2. The countries like Japan, United Kingdom, Denmark, Switzerland, Germany and Australia have the value of Human Development Index (HDI) more than 0.900. These countries show very high level of development.
3. The countries like Sri Lanka, Brazil and China have the value of Human Development Index (HDI) between 0.700 and 0.800. These countries show high level of development.
4. The countries like India, Bhutan and Pakistan have the value of Human Development Index (HDI) between 0.500 and 0.600. These countries show medium level of development.
5.  The countries like Niger and Central African Republic have value of Human Development Index (HDI) between 0.300 and 0.400. These countries show less development.
6. From the above table it can be seen that Human Development Index (HDI) is an indicator of development.
7. Higher value (around 1) of Human Development Index indicates high level of development and lower value (around 0) of Human Development Index indicates low level of development.

Use your brain power:

Question a.
Discuss and write the advantages and disadvantages of low population or high population with reference to the following factors:
(Note: The answer is given directly.)

Answer:

Headings	Low population	High population
Per capita land availability	Per capita land availability is comparatively more.	Per capita land availability is comparatively less.
Foodgrains	Food grains are available in plenty.	There is shortage of food grains.
Resources	Resources are available in plenty.	There is strain on resources.
Per capita income	Per capita income is comparatively high.	Per capita income is comparatively low.
Basic amenities and facilities	Basic amenities and facilities are available in sufficient quantity.	There is strain on basic amenities and facilities.
Percentage of unproductive consumers	Percentage of unproductive consumers is comparatively low.	Percentage of unproductive consumers is comparatively high.
Planning	Planning is comparatively more effective.	Planning is comparatively less effective.
Employment	More employment opportunities are available.	Less employment opportunities are available.
Urbanisation	The rate of urbanisation may be comparatively low.	The rate of urbanisation may be comparatively high.
Health	The quality of health may be comparatively high.	The quality of health may be comparatively low.
Higher education	The number of highly qualified people may be comparatively more.	The number of highly qualified people may be comparatively low.
Social environment	Social environment may be comparatively supportive and favourable.	Social environment may be comparatively adverse and unfavourable.

Give it a try:

Question a.
Since the past two centuries, the size of family is decreasing. But inspite of this the population of the country is increasing. Find out why is this happening.
Answer:
1. Since the past two centuries, the death rate in India has reduced to a great extent. On the other hand, since the past two centuries, the birth rate in India has reduced negligibly. Therefore, since the past two centuries, the size of family is decreasing. But in spite of this the population of country is increasing.

Use your brain power:

Question a.
As per the population Census of 2011, the population of India is 121 crores. For domestic use, the per capita requirement per day is 50 litres of water. Taking this into account, what would be the total amount of water requirement in India for domestic purpose only.
Answer:

1. As per the Population Census of 2011, the population of India is. 121 crores?
2. For domestic use, the per capita requirement per day is 50 litres of water.
3. Taking this into account, the total amount of water requirement in India for domestic purpose only, will be nearly 6050 crores litre.

Open-Ended Questions:

Question a.
What are the problems in areas of high population distribution?
Answer:
The following are the problems in areas of high population distribution:

1. Increased level of water, air, sound and soil pollution.
2. Traffic jam
3. Shortage of residential areas
4. Increased criminal tendencies, etc.

Question b.
What are the problems in areas of low population densities?
Answer:
The following are the problems in areas of low population densities:

1. Shortage of labour supply
2. Low levels of demand for various goods and services
3. Under utilization of resources, etc.

Give it a try:

Question a.
How do imbalanced sex ratios affect the society?
Answer:
Imbalanced sex ratios affect the society as follows:

1. Increased problems in society, workplace, etc.
2. Increased crimes against women.

Question b.
What measures can be taken to strike a balance in the sex ratio?
Answer:
The following measures can be taken to strike a balance in the sex ratio:

1. Increasing literacy rate of females.
2. Increasing employment opportunities for women.
3. Eradicating evil social customs.
4. Launching government schemes of women empowerment.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 2 India’s Foreign Policy Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 2 India’s Foreign Policy

Class 9 Political Science Chapter 2 India’s Foreign Policy Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Choose the right option and rewrite the sentence:

Question 1.
This was the main objective behind establishing the Indian Atomic Energy Commission ________.
(a) Enhance military capacity
(b) Conduct nuclear tests
(c) To stop the proliferation of nuclear weapons
(d) Production of atomic energy
Answer:
(a) Enhance military capacity

Question 2.
The following is now the objective of all the nations of the world _____.
(a) atomic development
(b) economic development
(c) nuclear test
(d) security system
Answer:
(b) economic development

Question 3.
The is an important aspect of India’s foreign policy _______.
(a) free economic policy
(b) interdependence
(c) non-alignment
(d) nuclear development
Answer:
(c) non-alignment

Question 4.
India coriducted nuclear tests in 1974 at ______.
(a) Sriharikota
(b) Thumba
(c) Pokharan
(d) Jaitapur
Answer:
(c) Pokharan

2. Explain with reasons whether the following statements are true or false:

Question 1.
Pandit Nehru contributed towards improving Sino-Indian relations.
Answer:
True.
Self-opinion based

• Pandit Nehru formulated Panchsheel which was a treatise of the five principles of peaceful coexistence to govern relations between India and China. The first formal codification in the form of a treaty was an agreement between China and India in 1954.
• Mutual non-interference in internal affairs, mutual non-aggression, equality of mutual benefit, mutual respect, and peaceful co-existence were the principles for seeking peace with China.
• Nehru backed China’s permanent membership in the United Nations Security Council.
• Though Nehru had a policy of improving Sino- Indian relations, China attacked India in 1962.

Question 2.
Atal Bihari Vajpayee took lead in improving relations with Pakistan.
Answer:
True.
Evaluative, self-opinion based

• In an effort to develop friendly relations, India and Pakistan have started a bus service called ‘Sada-e-Sarhad’ (Call of the border) between Delhi and Lahore when Atal Bihari Vajpayee was the Prime Minister. He also revived the train called Samjhauta Express (Friendship Express).
• Atal Bihari Vajpayee rendered help to the earthquake victims of Pakistan during the rule of Pervez Musharraf.
• In 1999, there was another war between India and Pakistan in the Kargil region over the Kashmir issue. India defeated Pakistan in this war as well.
• Atal Bihari Vajpayee tried to establish a dialogue with Pakistan but was not successful.

3. Explain the following concepts:

Question 1.
India’s Foreign Policy.
Answer:
(i) India got independence in 1947 and from then onwards India started shaping its Foreign Policy independently.
(ii) Article 51 among the Directive Principles of State Policy lay down the broad framework for Foreign Policy.
(iii) According to it, India should give priority to safeguard international peace and security, and resolve our international problems and disputes by peaceful means.
(iv) The objectives of our Foreign Policy should be to maintain friendly relations with other nations and respect international law.

Question 2.
National Interest
Answer:
(i) National interest implies the means through which the independence and sovereignty of our country can be safeguarded.

(ii) National interest also includes efforts to achieve our economic development and to take steps towards increasing our national power.

(iii) When decisions are taken after giving careful thought to what is beneficial and good for our country, we say that we are nurturing our national interest.

Question 3.
World Peace
Answer:
(i) World peace is an ideal state of freedom, peace, and happiness among and within all nations and people.
(ii) This idea of world non-violence provides a basis for peoples and nations to willingly co-operate.
(iii) Either voluntarily or by virtue of a system of governance, that prevents warfare.
(iv) India has been consistently supporting efforts for disarmament because it is India’s policy that there should be peace and security.

4. What is your opinion about the fact that world peace is threatened due to nuclear preparedness?
Answer:
Nuclear preparedness leads to an Arm’s Race. It increases the possibilities of wars.
(i) If a nuclear bomb exploded in a major city, the blast center would be hotter than the surface of the sun.
(ii) Survivors would have no electricity, no transportation, no phones, and hospitals would be overwhelmed if they were still standing
(iii) India is now a country that has nuclear weapons. We have accepted the role of a responsible nuclear power. India has been consistently supporting efforts for disarmament because it is India’s position that there should be peace and security in the world.

5. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
On what principles is India’s foreign policy based?
Answer:
(i) India got independence in 1947 and from then onwards we started shaping our foreign policy independently.

(ii) The Directive Principles of State Policy have laid down guidelines about how to shape Foreign Policy. Article 51 among the Directive Principles of State Policy lay down the broad framework for foreign policy.

(iii) According to it, India should give priority to safeguard international peace and security, and resolve our international problems and disputes by peaceful means.

(iv) The objectives of our foreign policy should be to maintain friendly relations with other nations and respect international law. India’s Foreign Policy till now has been developed in this framework.

Question 2.
Who has contributed to improving Sino- Indian relations?
Answer:
(i) Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee contributed a great deal to improving Sino-Indian relations.
(ii) The President, the Prime Minister, the Foreign Minister, the Defence Minister, the Finance Minister, and the Home Minister have a role in deciding foreign policy.
(iii) The persons holding these positions try to maintain the continuity in Foreign Policy and to improve upon it.

Question .3
Write the objectives of India’s Foreign Policy.
Answer:
Objectives of India’s Foreign Policy are as follows:

• While maintaining friendly relations with neighboring countries, ensure that the defense and security of India are not affected.
• Not to compromise about the geographical boundaries of the nation.
• Protect the unity and integrity of the country.
• Protect the interests of India’s citizens living in other countries. This responsibility is fulfilled by the Indian embassies there.
• To establish economic and commercial relations with other countries for achieving the economic development of India.

6. Prepare the following concept map:

Question 1.

Answer:

Class 9 Political Science Chapter 2 India’s Foreign Policy Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the sentence:

Question 1.
Prime Minister ______ shaped India’s Foreign Policy during the early period.
(a) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(c) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(d) Rajiv Gandhi
Answer:
(a) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 2.
Foreign policy is framed to establish economic and _____ relations with other countries for achieving economic development of India,
(a) Social
(b) Commercial
(c) Economic
(d) All of above
Answer:
(b) Commercial

Question 3.
The period from independence to ____ can be considered as the first stage.
(a) 1984
(b) 1990
(c) 1992
(d) 2011
Answer:
(b) 1990

Question 4.
Peace and ______ became the fundamental principles of Non-Aligned Policy.
(a) justice
(b) freedom
(c) relations
(d) power
Answer:
(b) freedom

Question 5.
The first Chairman of the Indian Atomic Energy Commission was ______.
(a) Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
(b) Dr. A.P.J.Abdul Kalam
(c) Dr. Homi Bhabha.
(d) Dr. Manmohan Singh.
Answer:
(c) Dr. Homi Bhabha.

Question 6.
After ________, India reduced the government controls over the economy and adopted the free-market policy.
(a) 1992
(b) 1991
(c) 1984
(d) 1957
Answer:
(b) 1991

Question 7.
In the decade after 1990, our relations with the South Asian countries like ______, Thailand, Vietnam, etc. became stronger.
(a) China
(b) Japan
(c) Indonesia
(d) Singapore
Answer:
(d) Singapore

State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons:

Question 1.
Foreign Policy is always dynamic.
Answer:
True.

• Foreign Policy is drawn up to foster the national interest of defence and economic development.
• National interest is considered to be the goal and foreign policy is considered to be the means to achieve it.
• Goals of nations change with changes in conditions and time.
• Accordingly, national interest also changes.
• These changes are reflected in foreign policy. Therefore, foreign policy is always dynamic.

Question 2.
India has not signed NNPT or CTBT.
Answer:
True.

• Nuclear weapons are extremely destructive.
• Hence, it is necessary to, make consistent efforts so that they are never used. Two treaties have been made to stop the spread of nuclear weapons.

1. Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NNPT)
2. Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (CTBT).

• The conditions of both these treaties are of benefit to big nuclear powers and they put unfair restrictions on developing countries, hence India has not signed either of these treaties.

Explain the concept:

Question 1.
Objectives of India’s Foreign Policy.
Answer:
(i) While maintaining friendly relations with neighboring countries, ensure that the defense and security of India are not affected.
(ii) Protecting the unity and integrity of the country.
(iii) Protecting the interests of India’s citizens living in other countries. This responsibility is fulfilled by the Indian embassies there.
(iv) To establish economic and commercial relations with other countries for achieving economic development.

Question 2.
Role of Economy in Foreign Policy.
Answer:
(i) Foreign policy is shaped by the need to establish economic relations with other countries, import-export, participation in world trade, all aimed at strengthening the economy of the country.
(ii) In today’s world, the issues of economic security are as important as national security.
(iii) A country is recognized to be powerful in proportion to the economic security it enjoys.
(iv) Countries having a strong economy are less dependent on others, and they can have an independent foreign policy as well.

Question 3.
National leadership
Answer:
(i) The President, the Prime Minister, the Foreign Minister, the Defence Minister, the Finance Minister and the Home Minister have a role in deciding foreign policy.
(ii) The persons holding these positions try to maintain continuity in foreign policy and to improve upon it.
(iii) For example, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru contributed the policy of non-alignment to India’s foreign policy.
(iv) Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee contributed a great deal to improving Sino-Indian relations.

Question 4.
Write about Article 51 of the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
(i) India got independence in 1947, and from then onwards we started shaping our foreign policy independently.
(ii) The Directive Principles of State Policy have laid down guidelines about how to shape foreign policy.
(iii) Article 51 among the Directive Principles of State Policy lay down the broad framework for foreign policy. According to it, India should give priority to safeguard international peace and security, and resolve our international problems and disputes by peaceful means.
(iv) The objectives of our foreign policy should be to maintain friendly relations with other nations and respect international law.

Do as directed:

Complete the list:

Question 1.
Complete the list by writing the contribution made by the following leaders. For example, Lai Bahadur Shastri: Tashkent Agreement
(i) Indira Gandhi: ____
(ii) Rajiv Gandhi : ____
(iii) Atal Bihari Vajpayee : _______
Answer:
(i) Indira Gandhi: Pokhran Nuclear Test.
(ii) Rajiv Gandhi: Science and Technology
(iii) Atal Bihari Vajpayee: Sino-Indian Relations

Question 2.
Name the Prime Minister who followed these policies?
(i) _____ : Look East
(ii) ______ : Efforts to increase Foreign Direct Investment
Answer:
(i) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru: Look East
(ii) P. V. Narasimha Rao: Efforts to increase Foreign Direct Investment

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
Name the three things that influenced India’s foreign policy in the early phase.
Answer:
(i) Three things that influenced India’s foreign policy in this period.
(ii) We made an effort to understand all international events and developments independently, without any pressure from any power. Peace has always been a central feature of India’s foreign policy.
(iii) The threats from China and Pakistan were also taken into account.
(iv) One more feature of India’s foreign policy at this time was the insistence on self-reliance.

Question 2.
Flow did India promote the concept at regional development in the beginning?
Answer:
(i) In the beginning, India decided to improve relations with countries in Asia.

(ii) Efforts were taken to cooperate with Asian countries in order to achieve development and to keep our independence intact.

(iii) This concept of regional development later expanded to include Africa, as well.

(iv) But some Asian-African countries participated in the military pacts led either by America or the Soviet Union.

(v) This stopped the process of regional development. After this, countries of Asia and Africa, which did not participate in these military pacts supported the concept of non-alignment.

(vi) Peace and freedom became the fundamental principles of non-aligned policy.

Question 3.
Describe India’s relations with foreign nations post-1970.
Answer:
(i) In the decade of the 1970s, there came about some stability in India’s Foreign Policy.

(ii) India had risen as a powerful regional power in South Asia.

(iii) By conducting nuclear tests in 1974, India had also proved its nuclear capability.

(iv) From 1980, however, some changes began to take place. In order to increase cooperation among South Asian countries, South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) was established.

(v) India initiated a dialogue to improve relations with China. India also started interaction with America for cooperation in the field of security.

Question 4.
Name the three factors that influenced India’s foreign policy in the early phase.
Answer:
Three factors that influenced India’s foreign policy in the early period are:

1. We made an effort to understand all international events and developments independently, without any pressure from any power. Peace has always been a central feature of India’s foreign policy.
2. The threats from China and Pakistan were also taken into account.
3. One more feature of India’s foreign policy at this time was the insistence on self-reliance.

Question 5.
Write about Pandit Nehru’s contribution to India’s foreign policy in the early phase.
Answer:
Prime Minister Pandit Nehru shaped India’s foreign policy in the early period. He opposed colonialism through India’s foreign policy. He took an internationalist position and gave priority to global peace and security.

Question 6.
Describe the conflicts India had to face in its early phase of foreign policy.
Answer:
In the early period, India had to face conflict with neighbouring countries. Wars happened between India and Pakistan over the Kashmir question in 1947-48 and 1965. In the third war, which happened in 1971, Pakistan broke apart and independent Bangladesh was created.

Question 7.
Describe the important changes that took place in India’s foreign policy from the 1980s.
Answer:
From 1980, some important changes began to take place. In order to increase cooperation among South Asian countries, the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) was established. India initiated a dialogue to improve relations with China. India also started interaction with America for cooperation in the field of security.

Question 8.
What is India’s role in regional development?
Answer:
(i) In the beginning, India decided to improve relations with countries in Asia.

(ii) Efforts were taken to cooperate with Asian countries in order to achieve development and to keep our independence intact.

(iii) This concept of regional development later expanded to include Africa as well.

(iv) But some Asian-African countries participated in the military pacts led either by America or the Soviet Union. This stopped the process of regional development.

(v) After this, countries of Asia and Africa, which did not participate in these military pacts supported the concept of Non-alignment.

Question 9.
Write about the Political system as a factor influencing India’s small Foreign Policy.
Answer:
(i) In a democratic political system, the nation’s Parliament plays a major role in evolving Foreign Policy.

(ii) When different aspects come up for discussion in Parliament, the opposition parties try to regulate the Foreign Policy by raising questions about the same.

(iii) Federal political systems have to take into account the inclinations of the constituent states while shaping Foreign Policy because the affairs in neighbouring nations affect constituent states.

(iv) For example, events in Sri Lanka may affect Tamil Nadu, and those in Bangladesh may affect West Bengal and the North-East Indian States.

Question 10.
Write about the administrative factors of India’s Foreign Policy.
Answer:
(i) Ministry of External Affairs, Foreign Secretary, embassies in different countries, Diplomatic officers, etc. are the administrative factors involved in creating Foreign Policy.

(ii) Even though the final decisions about Foreign Policy are taken by the Prime Minister and the Minister for External Affairs, the administrative machinery helps to arrive at that decision.

(iii) The administrative officers collect information needed to shape the foreign policy, analyze it and give appropriate advice based on it.

(iv) The National Security Advisor also completes this task.

Question 11.
Write a note on the first stage of India’s Foreign Policy 1947-1990.
Answer:
(i) India adopted the policy of non-alignment in the context of the cold war. As a result, priority was given to maintaining friendly relations with all nations and to taking the help required for development from different countries. Due to the policy of non-alignment, India could get aid from both the superpowers.

(ii) There was a lot of stress on improving/ strengthening India’s defence. The technology required for this was imported. Soviet Union, France, and Germany helped India in this matter.

(iii) In this period, India had to face some challenges. These included the conflict with Pakistan, the creation of Bangladesh, and the conflict with China.

(iv) India proved its nuclear capability by conducting nuclear tests in 1974.

Question 12.
Write a note on Geographical Location.
Answer:
(i) In the globe or map of the world. We see the geographical location of any nation of the world.

(ii) Some countries are far away from other countries, while there are several neighbouring countries around some countries. Some nations have a long coastline, while some have plenty of mineral wealth.

(iii) In sum, the size, population, topography, coastline, availability of natural resources, all these factors need to be considered while deciding the foreign policy of any country.

Question 13.
Describe the factors included in National interest in any country.
Answer:
The following factors are included in the national interest of any country.

• Defence, i.e. the protection of our country’s independence, sovereignty, and integrity is the highest national interest.
• Economic development is also an important national interest.
• An economically weak nation will not be able to maintain its independence.
• Hence, economic development is understood to be an important national interest, next only to defense.

Question 14.
Consider the developments of India’s Foreign Policy from 1991 till date.
Answer:
(i) India’s Foreign Policy became more comprehensive and dynamic in the second stage.

(ii) In the post-cold war period, the priority no longer remained on political and military relations.

(iii) Several other dimensions like the economy, trade, education, and technology got included in foreign policy.

(iv) After 1991, India reduced the government controls over the economy and adopted the free-market policy.

(v) In the decade after 1990, our relations with South Asian countries like Singapore, Thailand, Vietnam, etc. became stronger.

(vi) Our trade exchange with Israel, Japan, China, and European Union increased.

(vii) India began to participate in organizations at the international and regional levels more than before.

(viii) For example, G-20 and BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa).

(ix) Our relations with America strengthened.

(x) India’s nuclear policy is an important part of India’s foreign policy. India undertook the nuclear energy program immediately after independence. India built nuclear weapons and conducted nuclear tests in 1998. India is now a country that has nuclear weapons.

Question 15.
State the importance of foreign policy.
Answer:
(i) Interdependence being a key feature in the international system each country has to decide the nations with which it should be friendly, in which bloc it should participate or what position it should take in international relations.

(ii) Such decisions should be made thoughtfully.

(iii) The theoretical framework in which such decisions are taken is called Foreign Policy.

(iv) Every sovereign and independent country decides its own Foreign Policy.

(v) Hence in the discipline of international politics, which studies international relations between nations, Foreign Policy has an important place.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 1 Post World War Political Developments Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 1 Post World War Political Developments

Class 9 Political Science Chapter 1 Post World War Political Developments Textbook Questions and Answers

1A. Choose the right option and rewrite the sentence:

Question 1.
A system of independent and sovereign states ___.
(a) Political system
(b) International system
(c) Social system
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) International system

Question 2.
The main responsibility of the United Nations ____.
(a) to avoid war
(b) independence of colonies
(c) improving the economics of different nations
(d) disarmament
Answer:
(a) to avoid war

Question 3.
The Cold War ended with the event, _____.
(a) Establishment of the United Nations
(b) Disintegration of the Soviet Union
(c) Creation of Military Organisations
(d) Cuban Missile Crisis
Answer:
(b) Disintegration of the Soviet Union

2. Explain with reasons whether the following statements are true or false:

Question 1.
The League of Nations was established after the First World War.
Answer:
True.

• At the end of the First World War, all the nations felt that such a war should not happen again and some measures need to be taken to achieve that end.
• An international organisation called the League of Nations was established out of this thinking.
• It became an important platform to solve international disputes and carry out negotiations.
• The main responsibility of the League of Nations was understood to be to avoid war.

Question 2.
The world became unipolar due to the Cold War.
Answer:
False.

• During the Cold War, most countries of the world joined either of the two super power blocs (USA or USSR).
• Such a division of the nations of the world in two groups is bipolarisation.

Question 3.
The policies of Mikhail Gorbachev gave an impetus to democratisation.
Answer:
True.

• The Soviet Union adopted the policy of opening up the economy. The state loosened up its control of the economy.
• The then President of the Soviet Union Mikhail Gorbachev implemented the policies of Perestroika (Restructuring) and Glasnost (Openness).
• Due to these policies, the control over the media reduced.
• Important changes took place in political and economic spheres, i.e. these spheres, were restructured. This gave impetus to democracy.

3. Explain the following concepts:

Question 1.
Cold War
Answer:
(i) America and the Soviet Union, who were allies in the Second World War became competitors, as soon as the war was over.

(ii) The cooperation between them gave way to rivalry. This rivalry occupied a period of 40-45 years of international politics

(iii) There was no open war between these two countries; but there was such tension in their relations, that it seemed that a war would erupt any time.

(iv) The concept of Cold War is used to describe the condition where there is no actual war, but there are such tensions in the circumstances, that they may be responsible to cause war.

(v) In this period, America was already a super power, but the Soviet Union also tried to become a super power by making nuclear weapons and by increasing its military might.

(vi) The struggle for power, arms race, differences in ideologies, attitude of checkmating each other by strategies and counter-strategies gave rise to the Cold War.

Question 2.
Non-Aligned Movement
Answer:
(i) In the period of the Cold War, while the world was becoming bipolar, there were some countries which did not want to join the super power rivalry. Such nations decided to stay out of the cold war rivalry. Their policy is known as non-alignment.

(ii) The Asian and African countries, which became independent after the Second World War supported the idea of non-alignment.

(iii) This movement started from 1961 under the leadership of India’s Prime Minister Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, President of Yugoslavia Marshall Tito, President of Egypt Gamal Abdal Nasser, President of Indonesia Dr. Sukarno and Prime Minister of Ghana Dr. Kwame Nkrumah.

(iv) The non-aligned Movement has opposed colonialism, imperialism and racism. It has encouraged the resolution of international disputes by peaceful means.

(v) India led this movement under the guidance of Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru. India continued to actively support the movement afterwards as well.

(vi) Even after the end of the Cold War, the importance of the movement has not reduced. The non-aligned movement is based on eternal principles of humanism, global peace and equality.

(vii) It has inspired the less developed countries to come together. It has encouraged the resolution of international disputes by peaceful means.

(viii) While taking a firm stand on disarmament, fostering human rights, the non-aligned movement put forth the problems of poor, undeveloped countries firmly. This movement made a demand of a New International Economic Order (NIEO).

Question 3.
Interdependence
Answer:
(i) All the countries of the world are dependent on each other for one reason or the other. However big, prosperous or developed a nation may be, it can never be self-sufficient to fulfill all its needs.

(ii) Even big nations have to depend upon other big and small nations. Thus, interdependence is an important feature of the international system, i.e. today’s global system.

Question 4.
Bipolarisation
Answer:
During the Cold War, most countries of the world joined either of the two super power blocks. Such a division of the nations of the world in two groups is bipolarisation.

Question 5.
Globalization
Answer:
(i) After the end of the Cold War, trade and economic relations between countries became more open. As it has been mentioned before, capital, labour, markets and information began circulating globally.

(ii) The give and take of ideas among people all over the world grew.

(iii) Due to the revolution in information technology, different events and developments began to be known everywhere.

(iv) The boundaries between nations did not remain as sacrosanct as they were before. All these processes are together called globalisation.

(v) Just as globalisation has brought us benefits, it has also caused losses. For example, as the economies of different countries got linked with each other, trade increased, economic unification grew, plenty of products became available in the markets; but (at the same time) the gap between the poor and rich nations did not reduce.

4. Give your opinion on the following topics:

Question 1.
What measures should the League of Nations have taken to avoid the Second World War?
Answer:
(i) League of Nations should have organised a military wing with the help of member nations to keep a check over the aggressors like Germany and Japan.

(ii) League should have reconsidered implementation of harsh term of treaties imposed on the losers to avoid the revengeful policies of dictators like Adolf Hitler.

Question 2.
Non-Alignment was necessary during the Cold War.
Answer:
(i) Yes. This was important to keep newly independent countries of Asia and Africa away from the super power rivalry.

(ii) Since these countries did not officially show allegiance to any super power, they freed themselves from the dominance of USA and USSR and could independently frame their foreign policies.

(iii) This further promoted peace and co-operation.

Question 3.
Human welfare was neglected due to the Cold War.
Answer:
(i) Yes, due to military alliances the world was gripped in the fear of a possible Third World War, which would have annihilated the entire human race.

(ii) Moreover the Arms Race diverted the resources and harnessed science for destruction rather than human welfare.

Question 4.
Which countries can emerge as super powers, in competition with America in present times?
Answer:
India and China could be future super powers.

5. Write brief answers:

Question 1.
Compare the First World War and the Second World War with the help of the following points.

Points	First World War	Second World War
(1) Period
(2) Involved nations
(3) Impacts (Political and Economic)
(4) International Organisations established after the War

Answer:

Points	First World War	Second World War
(1) Period	1914-1918	1939 -1945
(2) Involved nations	Allied Powers – Britain, France, Russia, Italy, America Central Powers – Germany, Austria, Hungary, Ottoman Empire, Bulgaria	Allied Powers – Britain, France, Australia, Canada, New Zealand, India, Soviet Union, China, America Axis powers – Germany, Japan, Italy
(3) Impacts (Political and Economic)	(i) Earlier empires in Europe collapsed and new nations came into being.	(i) Beginning of Cold War
	(ii) Independence movements in European colonies changed hegemony of European Nations.	(ii) Destruction of public property on larger scale due to use of nuclear weapons
	(iii) League of nations was established.
	(iv) Autocratic regime came up in Germany, Spain, Italy and other countries.
	(v) Destruction of public property.
(4) International Organisations established after the War	League of Nations	United Nations Organisation

Question 2.
What were the factors responsible for the end of Cold War?
Answer:
The factors responsible for the end of Cold War are:

(i) The Soviet Union adopted the policy of opening up the economy. The State loosened up its control of the economy.

(ii) The then President of the Soviet Union Mikhail Gorbachev implemented the policies of Perestroika (Restructuring) and Glasnost (Openness). Due to these policies, the control over the media reduced.

(iii) As the East European countries under the influence of the Soviet Union adopted the capitalist and democratic paths, the Soviet Union disintegrated and several new nations were created out of it.

Question 3.
What major changes occurred in global politics after the end of the Cold War?
Answer:
(i) Major changes took place in world politics after the end of the Cold War. For example, America remained the only super power in world politics.

(ii) A conducive atmosphere prevailed for the growth in trade and economic relations between and among nations.

(iii) As all nations of the world decided to give priority to trade relations, the idea of giving ‘aid’ to other nations fell behind.

(iv) The United Nations now had to take more concrete steps to maintain global peace and security.

(v) Environmental protection, fostering of human rights, gender equality and management of natural calamities now acquired a global dimension.

Class 9 Political Science Chapter 1 Post World War Political Developments Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the sentence:

Question 1.
President of Soviet Union who implemented ‘Perestroika’ and ‘Glasnost’ ______.
(a) Nikita Khrushchev
(b) Mikhail Gorbachev
(c) General Molotov
(d) Vladimir Lenin
Answer:
(b) Mikhail Gorbachev

Question 2.
Military organisation formed under dominance of USA ______.
(a) North Atlantic Treaty Organisation
(b) Warsaw Pact
(c) New International Economic Order
(d) Non-Aligned Movement
Answer:
(a) North Atlantic Treaty Organisation

Question 3.
Division of world into two power blocs is called ______.
(a) Globalisation
(b) Nuclear Escalation
(c) Bipolarisation
(d) Internationalism
Answer:
(c) Bipolarisation

Question 4.
Among the following ________ is not an Axis Power.
(a) Germany
(b) Italy
(c) Belgium
(d) Japan
Answer:
(c) Belgium

Question 5.
______ is an important event of the Cold War.
(a) Fashoda Incident
(b) Cuban Missile Crisis
(c) Wall Street Crash
(d) Red Menace
Answer:
(b) Cuban Missile Crisis

Question 6.
Non-aligned movement is opposed to ____.
(a) Racism
(b) Capitalism
(c) McCarthyism
(d) Nepotism
Answer:
(a) Racism

Question 7.
Non-aligned movement demanded establishment of _______.
(a) Association of South East Asian Nations
(b) League of Nations
(c) New International Economic Order (NIEO)
(d) European Union (EU)
Answer:
(c) New International Economic Order (NIEO)

Question 8.
The policy of Perestroika means restructuring and Glasnost means ______.
(a) strictness
(b) oneness
(c) massiveness
(d) openness
Answer:
(d) openness

State whether the following statements are True or False, with reasons:

Question 1.
A system of Independent States is called International System.
Answer:
True.

• Our social life and well being is dependent on others and mutual co-operation has a very important place in it.
• The same is true about society, and it applies to different nations as well. There are many independent nations in the world, like India.
• Some exchange and interaction goes on among these nations on a regular basis. These independent states also enter into treaties with each other.
• A system of all these independent, sovereign states that emerges is called an International System.

Question 2.
Interdependence is not an important feature of the International System.
Answer:
False.

• All the countries of the world are dependent on each other for one reason or the other. However big, prosperous or developed a nation may be, it can never be self-sufficient to fulfill all its needs.
• Even big nations have to depend upon each other and on smaller nations. Thus, interdependence is an important feature of the international system, i.e. today’s global system.

Question 3.
The Second World War proved to be far more destructive than the First World War.
Answer:
True.

• The Second World War was fought between 1939 and 1945. It proved to be far more destructive than the First World War.
• Not only was it more widespread compared to the First World War, but far more advanced technology was employed in this war.
• Countries which took part in the Second World War once again faced a situation of economic crisis.

Question 4.
Efforts towards arms control and disarmament happened during the Cold War.
Answer:
True.

• The Super Powers started producing arms on a large scale to outsmart each other.
• There started a rivalry to make more and more destructive weapons and to acquire the technology required for the same.
• But soon, both the Super Powers realised that the arms race may endanger international peace.
• Hence, efforts towards arms control and disarmament also happened during this period.

Question 5.
Non-alignment was an important movement during the Cold War.
Answer:
True.

• In the period of the Cold War, while the world was becoming bipolar, there were some countries which did not want to join the super power rivalry.
• Such nations decided to stay out of the cold war rivalry. Their policy is known as Non-alignment.
• Non-alignment was an important movement during the Cold War.
• The Asian and African countries, which became independent after the Second World War supported the idea of non-alignment.

Explain the concept:

Question 1
Military Organisation
Answer:
(i) During the Cold War, power struggle between USSR and USA created need for nations who will support their ideologies.

(ii) Thus, organisations were created for helping nations militarily and thus dragging them into either of the super power blocs for their hegemony.

(iii) The respective super powers took up the responsibility of the security of the countries joining the military organisations led by them.

(iv) NATO (North Atlantic Treaty Organisation) was a military organisation under the dominance of America, while the Warsaw Pact was a military organisation, under the command of the Soviet Union.

Do as directed/instructed:

Complete the charts.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
What were the effects of World War I?
Answer:
(i) The First World War was fought between 1914 and 1918. The war caused a tremendous loss of life and property. The countries which joined the war suffered tremendous economic losses.

(ii) Even the countries which did not join the war were impacted by the war. The economies of the victorious as well as the losing countries collapsed.

(iii) Earlier empires in Europe collapsed and new nations came into being.

(iv) Independence movements in European colonies changed hegemony of European Nations.

(v) League of Nations was established.

(vi) Autocratic regime came up in Germany Spain, Italy and other countries.

Question 2.
Describe America’s role in the Second World War.
Answer:
(i) America played a major role in the Second World War. It had manufactured nuclear weapons.

(ii) In order to end the war, it dropped two nuclear weapons on two cities of Japan – Hiroshima and Nagasaki on 6th and 9th August 1945 respectively.

Question 3.
What gave rise to the Cold War?
Answer:
(i) America was already a super power, but the Soviet Union also tried to become one, by making nuclear weapons and by increasing its military might.

(ii) The struggle for power, arms race, differences in ideologies, attitude of checkmating each other by strategies and counter-strategies gave rise to the Cold War.

Question 4.
Describe extreme differences among USA and USSR.
Answer:
(i) The U.S.A was a democratic State, advocating capitalism, while the Soviet Union advocated socialism and a one party authoritarian system.
(ii) Both the super powers wanted to expand their own dominance in the world.
(iii) America wanted to spread capitalism, while the Soviet Union wanted to spread socialism.

Question 5.
What is meant by Non-Aligned Movement and who were its founding fathers?
Answer:
(i) The Asian and African countries, which became independent after the Second World War supported the idea of non-alignment.

(ii) This movement started from 1961 under the leadership of India’s Prime Minister Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, President of Yugoslavia Marshall Tito, President of Egypt Gamal Abdal Nasser, President of Indonesia Dr. Sukarno and Prime Minister of Ghana Dr. Kwame Nkrumah.

Question 6.
Evaluate the Non-Aligned Movement.
Answer:
(i) The Non-Aligned Movement has opposed colonialism, imperialism and racism.
(ii) It has encouraged the resolution of international disputes by peaceful means.
(iii) The Non-Aligned movement is based on eternal principles of humanism, global peace and equality.
(iv) It has inspired the less developed countries to come together.
(v) While taking a firm stand on disarmament, fostering human rights, the Non-Aligned movement put forth the problems of poor, undeveloped countries firmly.
(vi) This movement made a demand of a New International Economic Order (NIEO).

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 10 Changing Life 2 Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 10 Changing Life 2

Class 9 History Chapter 10 Changing Life 2 Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Choose the proper option and rewrite the completed sentences:

Question 1.
India won the cricket world cup under the captainship of ______.
(a) Sunil Gavaskar
(b) Kapil Dev
(c) Sayyad Kirmani
(d) Sandip Patil
Answer:
(b) Kapil Dev

Question 2.
The _____ language is gaining importance in India due to the process of globalisation.
(a) Punjabi
(b) French
(c) English
(d) Hindi
Answer:
(c) English

2. Complete the information in the following table:

Question 1.

(1)	Important languages in India	…………
(2)	Players who have won medals at the Olympic games	……………
(3)	Childrens’ movies that you have seen	……………
(4)	Names of channels telecasting various news bulletins	……………..

Answer:

(1)	Important languages in India	Marathi, Hindi, Gujarati
(2)	Players who have won medals at the Olympic games	Karnam Malleswari, Abhinav Bindra, P.V. Sindhu
(3)	Childrens’ movies that you have seen	The Lion King, Minions, Finding Nemo etc.
(4)	Names of channels telecasting various news bulletins	DD News, CNN, ABP News

3. Give reasons for the following statements:

Question 1.
Cricket began to be played all over India, to a greater or smaller extent.
Answer:
Cricket began to be played all over India, to a greater or smaller extent because:-

• In 1983, the Indian team won the World Cup for cricket, under the captainship of Kapil Dev. It was a historic victory.
• Cricket instantly won great popularity across the country.
• In the same year, Sunil Gavaskar broke the earlier record of maximum centuries in test cricket.
• In 1985, India won the ‘Benson and Hedges’ World Championship of cricket. As a result, cricket came to be played in all States to a lesser or greater extent, but at the cost of indigenous Indian games.

Question 2.
The economy of movies is changing.
Answer:
(i) Movies in foreign languages are now translated. Even during the screening of English movies, a short Hindi translation now appears on the screen as sub-titles.

(ii) Hindi movies now compete with ‘global’ movies as they have reached every nook and comer of the world. We see a reflection of politics, social events, industry and technology in the movies.

(iii) Movies which were 3-4 hours long are now of only one or one and a half hours. Moreover, the concept of one screen and one cinema hall has given way to multiplexes.

(iv) The days of a movie running for 100 weeks in one cinema hall are over. Now one movie runs in thousands of cinema halls in India and abroad simultaneously.

(v) This development has changed the economy of movies. Production of movies has attained the status of industry.

(vi) The industry now employs crores of people. The movie industry in regional languages is also thriving.
Therefore the economy of movies is changing.

4. Answer the following questions in 25-30 words:

Question 1.
Why is it necessary to keep alive the dialects of Indian languages?
Answer:
(i) Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannad, Kashmiri, Malayalam, Marathi, Odiya, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu, Konkani,
Manipuri, Nepali and Sindhi are the official languages in India.
(ii) These Indian languages also have dialects, but their number is now on the decline.
(iii) Timely steps should be taken to nurture them, otherwise we will lose an important part of our heritage.
(iv) Nevertheless, Hindi, which has reached everywhere through the medium of Hindi movies, has served to unite the country by language.

Question 2.
Elaborate upon the changing scope of newspapers.
Answer:
(i) During early post-independence period, the newspapers were expected to not only give the news of daily events, but also give impetus to industry and commerce by printing advertisements.

(ii) Earlier, newspapers were black and white. With the changing times, colour printing became common.

(iii) Earlier, newspapers were thought to be the mouthpieces of the taluka or district. Now they have to face tough competition from the State level newspaper chains. But on the whole, newspapers are now becoming more active.

(iv) Their scope has enlarged to include raising funds for drought affected and flood affected people, helping meritorious students from lower income groups to go for higher education and organizing or sponsoring cultural programmes. This is how newspapers have now become an inseparable part of our lives.

Question 3.
What changes have taken place in the medium of television?
Answer:
(i) Television came to India during the post-independence period. Earlier it was black and white. Now it is coloured. Earlier it was limited to some selected programmes and fixed time-slots.

(ii) Gradually its scope was enlarged to include educational programmes, news bulletins, detailed reporting of the tours of the President and the Prime Minister.

(iii) During the telelcast of Ramayana and Mahabharat, a majority of the people used to sit glued to the television set. These serials proved the popularity of this medium. Then in 1991, CNN channel showed to the entire world a live visual reporting of the Iraq war.

(iv) In 1998, STAR (Satellite Television Asia Region) a private media house entered India, and the uninteresting, monotonous and propagandist news telecasts of the early period underwent a sea change.

(v) The language, the technique of presentation, studios equipped with the latest technology and the use of OB (outdoor broadcasting) vans have expanded the scope of Indian T.V. channels still further, and brought in transparency and variety. Now, every nook and corner of the country is connected.

Class 9 History Chapter 10 Changing Life 2 Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
_____ won the national championship of billiards for teenagers at the age of 15.
(a) Milkha Singh
(b) Rafael Nadal
(c) Geet Sethi
(d) Prakash Padukone
Answer:
(c) Geet Sethi

Question 2.
In________ STAR (Satellite Television Asia Region) a private media house entered India.
(a) 1995
(b) 1996
(c) 1997
(d) 1998
Answer:
(d) 1998

Question 3.
In 1991, _______ showed to the entire world a live visual reporting of the Iraq War.
(a) CNN
(b) CNBC
(c) HBO
(d) NDTV
Answer:
(a) CNN

Question 4.
The Kohima Radio station had to make its broadcast in __________ languages which included English, Hindi and Naga dialects.
(a) 28
(b) 26
(c) 24
(d) 25
Answer:
(d) 25

Identify and write the wrong pair in the following sets:

Question 1.
(1) Karnam Malleshwari – Weight lifting
(ii) Sunil Gavaskar – Ace Indian Cricketer
(iii) CNN – Iraq War
(iv) Star Television – Sponsoring cultural programmes
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Star Television – Sponsoring cultural programmes

Question 2.
(i) Kapil Dev -1983 World Cup
(ii) Geet Sethi – Benson and Hedges
(iii) Karnam Malleshwari – First woman to win a medal at Olympics
(iv) Sunil Gavaskar – Maximum centuries in test cricket
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Geet Sethi – Benson and Hedges

Question 3.
(i) India won Cricket World Cup – 1983
(ii) Karnam Malleshwari won a medal at Olympics – 2000 ’
(iii) Live telecast of Iraq War -1991
(iv) Star T.V. entered India -1992
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Star T.V. entered India -1992

Do as directed:

Question 1.
Complete the following concept:

Answer:

Explain the statements with reason.

Question 1.
Hindi Movies have reached every nook and corner of the world.
Answer:
(i) In the field of entertainment, the place of Hindi movies is incomparable.
(ii) Now movies reflect contemporary themes. Film shooting locales have moved abroad.
(iii) So, viewers can now see many different places in foreign countries. Movies in foreign languages are now translated.
(iv) During the screening of English movies, a short Hindi translation now appears on the screen as sub-titles.
(v) Hindi movies now compete with ‘global’ movies as they have reached every nook and corner of the world.

Read the following passage and answer the questions:

Sports: During the pre-independence period, only a few selected games were known to people in general. Some sports persons changed this situation. This enhanced the status of both – the sports, and the sportspersons. For example, Geet Sethi achieved , global excellence in snooker, a variation of billiards. He won the national championship of billiards for teenagers at the age of 15. Later, he went on to win national and international championships. At the , global level, he won the amateur billiards competition thrice, and the professional one five times. His success made the game popular, and newspapers began to report news about billiards. Thus he made a new field available to rising sportspersons in India, It was in 1983, that the Indian team won the World , Cup for cricket, under the captainship of Kapil Dev. It was a historic victory. Cricket instantly won great , popularity across the country. In the same year, ‘Sunil Gavaskar broke the earlier record of maximum centuries in test cricket. In 1985, India won the ‘Benson and Hedges’ World Championship of cricket. As a , result, cricket came to be played in all States to a lesser or greater extent, but at the cost of indigenous Indian games. A few movies were also produced around the , theme of cricket. Live telecasts of the full five days or , one day of the matches also became available.
India had been participating in Asiad and Olympic of year 2000, Karnam Malleshwari won a medal for, weight-lifting. She was the first Indian woman to win , a medal at the Olympics. India’s representation began to rise in various Olympic games such as hockey, badminton, tennis, swimming, weightlifting and archery.

Question 1.
Which two cricket tournaments mentioned in the passage records a victory for India?
Answer:
World Cup 1983 and Benson and Hedges -1985 are the two tournaments mentioned in the passage that recorded victory for India.

Question 2.
Who was the first Indian woman to win a medal at the Olympics? Which sport did she represent?
Answer:
Karnam Malleshwari was the first Indian Women to win a medal for India at Olympic. She represented India in Women’s Weight Lifting.

Question 3.
Why do you think cricket has overshadowed other indigenous Indian Games?
Answer:
Cricket was introduced in India by the British. In the post independence period this game was mostly played by the elite. In times to come, cricket gained glamour and popularity across the nation gradually giving a setback to other indigenous games in India. Since cricketers received more professional coaching, funding and infrastructural facilities as compared to players of other games, it became inevitable that other games in India were overshadowed.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
Do you think English has threatened our indigenous languages? How?
Answer:
(i) Hindi, which has reached everywhere through the medium of Hindi movies, has served to unite the country by language.
(ii) However, English language has been gaining ground in India due to the process of globalisation which began after 1990.
(iii) English opens the doors to multiple job opportunities. Moreover, Indians are at the forefront in learning English.
(iv) However, it is necessary to ensure that this process does not endanger the very existence of regional languages.

Question 2.
Explain the contribution of Geet Sethi and Kamam Malleswari to the field of sports.
Answer:
(i) Geet Sethi:

• Geet Sethi achieved global excellence in snooker, a variation of billiards.
• He won the national championship of billiards for teenagers at the age of 15.
• Later, he went on to win national and international championships.
• At the global level, he won the amateur billiards competition thrice, and the professional one five times.
• His success made the game popular, and newspapers began to report news about billiards.

(ii) Karnam Malleswari: At the Olympics of the year 2000, Karnam Malleswari won a medal for weightlifting. She was the first Indian woman to win a medal at the Olympics.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 5 Education Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 5 Education

Class 9 History Chapter 5 Education Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Choose the right option and rewrite the sentence:

Question 1.
The Scientist who developed the Param – 8000 supercomputer _________.
(a) Dr Vijay Bhatkar
(b) Dr R. H. Dave
(c) P. Parthasarathy
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Dr. Vijay Bhatkar

Question 2.
The magazine Jeevan Shikshan is published by _______.
(a) Balbharati
(b) University Education Commission
(c) MSCERT
(d) NCERT
Answer:
(c) MSCERT

Question 3.
The educational institution called IIT is famous for educational in the area of _______.
(a) Agriculture
(b) Medicine
(c) Skilled managers
(d) Engineering
Answer:
(d) Engineering

2. Do as directed.

Question 1.
Complete the table below with details about individuals in the education field and their work.

Individual	Work
First education minister of India	Maulana Abul Kalam Azad.
—————–	Chairman of the University Education Commission
Prof Sayyad Rauf	…………..
……………………..	Kosbad Project

Answer:

Individual	Work
First education minister of India	Maulana Abul Kalam Azad.
Dr. Sarvapalli Radhakrishna	Chairman of the University Education Commission
Prof Sayyad Rauf	Preparation of common state-wide curriculum for Std. I to VII for Maharashtra.
Anutai Wagh	Kosbad Project

Question 2.
Obtain information about the National Council of Educational Research and Training, from the internet, and present it in the form of a timeline.
Answer:

1st September 1961	The National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) was established in Delhi.
27th January 1967	The Maharashtra State Bureau of Textbook Production and Curriculum Research (Balbharati) was established in Pune.
1986	The National Policy on Education was adopted.
1988	The ‘Primary Education Curriculum was prepared.
1995	The Competency-based primary education curriculum.
1975	India met with success in its attempt to use a satellite for the purpose of education.
1970	The United Nations declared the year 1970 as the International Education Year. A seminar was organised in New Delhi and led to the establishment of an open university.
1974	The government appointed a committee under the chairmanship of P. Parthasarathy

3. Explain the following statements giving reasons for your answer:

Question 1.
The District Primary Education Programme was undertaken.
Answer:
(i) In 1994, the District Primary Education Programme (DPEP) was started with the objective of universalisation of primary education. It was implemented in seven States including Maharashtra.

(ii) The plan envisaged 100% attendance in primary schools, arresting student drop-out, education for girls and for the physically handicapped.

(iii) It included programmes such as research on and evaluation of primary education, alternative education, creating societal awareness, etc.

Question 2.
The NCERT was established.
Answer:
(i) National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) was established in Delhi on the 1st of September 1961.

(ii) Its main objective is to help the Central Government in matters of school education in the context of a comprehensive policy and in implementing educational schemes. The NCERT was given the responsibility of educational research and development, training, extension, educational programmes, restructuring of school curriculum and textbooks.

(iii) It has played a central role in designing school curricula and textbooks with the cooperation of the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE).

(iv) It provides guidance and cooperation in the area of primary and secondary education to the state governments.

(v) It has been involved in designing workbooks and handbooks for teachers, in teacher training, in developing teaching-learning techniques and conducting talent search examinations at the national level.

Question 3.
The farmers were benefited by the Indian Agricultural Research Institute.
Answer:
(i) The Indian Agricultural Research Institute was given the status of a University in 1958 and work began in departments such as the development of the agriculture sector, research, well-equipped laboratories, soil science, agricultural sciences, economic botany and other departments.

(ii) Research also began on wheat, pulses, oilseeds, vegetables and many other problems.

(iii) Its most significant achievement is the fundamental research it has conducted on the methods of taking multiple crops in a year, which has been of great benefit to farmers.

4. Write notes:

Question 1.
Indira Gandhi National Open University
Answer:
(i) Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU) was established with the objective that the stream of education should make
its way into every average household of the country.

(ii) The United Nations had declared 1970 as the International Education Year. In the same year, a seminar was organised in New Delhi on the subject of Open University by the Government of India Departments of Education and Social Welfare, Information and Broadcasting, University Grants Commission along with UNESCO. The idea of establishing an open university evolved in this seminar.

(iii) In 1974, the government appointed a committee under the chairmanship of P. Parthasarathy and the Open University took shape on 20 September, 1985 in accordance with its recommendations and suggestions. It was named after Prime Minister Indira Gandhi. Those who are unable to get a college education in the formal way are given concessions in eligibility criteria, age and other conditions for admission to this university.

(iv) In 1990, the IGNOU started an audio-visual distance education programme through Akashvani and Doordarshan. It conducted more than one thousand curricula of various branches.
It provides facilities for education through 58 training centres in the country and 41 centres in foreign countries.

Question 2.
Kothari Commission
Answer:
(i)In 1964 a Commission was appointed under the Chairmanship of Dr D. S. Kothari. Dr J. P. Naik made valuable contributions to the work of this Commission.

(ii)The Commission also recommended the 10+2+3 pattern for secondary, higher secondary and university education. This system was implemented from 1972.

(iii)The Commission also suggested a uniform national system of education, the inclusion of the mother tongue, Hindi and English in education, as well as continuing education, adult education, education by correspondence and open universities to make education trickle down to the lowest rungs of society.

(iv)It also recommended increased provision in the government’s budget for expenditure on education of neglected sections like the scheduled castes and tribes. Maharashtra government adopted the 10+2+3 pattern in 1972 and conducted the first Std X Board exam in 1975.

Question 3.
Bhabha Atomic Research Centre
Answer:
(i) Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) has conducted valuable research in the fields of nuclear physics, solid state physics, spectroscopy, chemical and life sciences.

(ii) It also started a school to train scientists for setting up nuclear reactors.

Question 4.
Balbharati
Answer:
(i) The Maharashtra State Bureau of Textbook Production and Curriculum Research (Balbharati) was established in Pune on 27 January 1967.

(ii) Balbharati prepares textbooks for school children. Textbooks are made in eight languages, namely, Marathi, Hindi, English, Urdu, Kannad, Sindhi, Gujarati and Telugu. ‘Kishor’, a monthly magazine for children, is also published by Balbharati.

5. Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
Which programmes were included in the Operation Blackboard scheme?
Answer:
(i) The government made funds available to help improve the standard of the schools and to fulfil minimum educational needs such as at least two proper classrooms, toilets, one of the two teachers to be female, a blackboard, maps, laboratory apparatus, a small library, a playground, sports equipment, etc. This scheme helped the primary education system to gain some momentum.

(ii) In 1994, this scheme was expanded and provision was made for one additional classroom and for appointing one more teacher in schools with an enrolment of more than 100 students, with priority given to girls’ schools, schools with a majority of scheduled caste and tribe students and schools in rural areas.

(iii) It was also made binding upon the State government to appoint female teachers to fifty per cent of the posts in schools.

Question 2.
What role do agriculture schools/colleges play in the development of agriculture?
Answer:
(i) The Indian Agricultural Research Institute was given the status of a University in 1958 and work began in departments such as the development of the agriculture sector, research, well-equipped laboratories, soil science, agricultural sciences, economic botany and other departments. Research also began on wheat, pulses, oilseeds, vegetables and many other problems.

(ii) Its most significant achievement is the fundamental research it has conducted on the methods of taking multiple crops in a year, which has been of great benefit to farmers.

Question 3.
Describe with examples of the progress that India has made in the field of medicine.
Answer:
(i) The Indian Council for Medical Research (ICMR) was established for conducting research in the medical field. It was given the responsibility of cooperating with universities, medical colleges, government and non-government research institutes and giving them guidance and financial support for research activities.

(ii) Twenty-six centres were started in different parts of the country for research on various diseases. Their research has made it possible to control tuberculosis and leprosy.

(iii) The All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) was established to give further impetus to advanced education and research in medicine.

(iv) It was given the responsibility of undergraduate and postgraduate courses in medicine. Colleges for undergraduate and postgraduate education in most branches of medicine, good research facilities and well- equipped hospitals are the significant features of this institute.

(v) The institute also provides medical treatment to the common people at nominal rates. It has established special colleges for training in nursing, and super-speciality centres for treatment of disorders of the heart, brain and eyes.

(vi) For further development of the medical field, the Medical Council of India was restructured in 1958 and was entrusted with the task of determining criteria for quality of medical education, its supervision and inspection.

(vii) These institutes have the responsibility of conducting research on various diseases, developing tests and standardisation of medicines.

Question 4.
Write a note on the curricular and co-curricular activities conducted in your school.
Answer:
(i) Languages – Our school motivates us to participate in theatres or plays organised on works of Shakespeare and Munshi Premchand. We also take part in elocution and poetry recitation competitions to enhance public speaking. Our school makes every child read the newspaper headlines from Marathi and English dailies in the auditorium turn wise.

(ii) Maths and Science – Scientific experiments mentioned in our textbook are practically performed by each of us under the supervision of our teachers. On Sundays, our Math teachers take special classes on Vedic Maths. Our school has also organised trips to Nehru Planetarium and ‘Jantar Mantar’ to give us an understanding of the astronomical aspects of science. Every year our school conducts Homi Bhabha scholarship exam. A display of the best 25 science projects is done in the school hall.

(iii) Social Studies – Field studies are taken up to explain to us the topography of Indian landscapes. The school library holds a large number of book and documentaries over world history trips to museums and historical places.

Class 9 History Chapter 5 Education Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
In 1995, the _____ scheme was started to provide proper nourishment for the students.
(a) free ration
(b) foodgrain subsidy
(c) mid-day meal
(d) medical-check up
Answer:
(c) mid-day meal

Question 2.
_______was the first education minister of Independent India.
(a) Vallabhbhai Patel
(b) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad
(c) Sachchidanand Sinha
(d) J.B.Kriplani
Answer:
(b) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad

Question 3.
_____ recommended increased provision in government’s budget for expenditure on education of neglected sections like the SC/ST.
(a) University Education Commission
(b) Mudaliar Commission
(c) National Council of Educational Research and Training
(d) Kothari Commission
Answer:
(d) Kothari Commission

Question 4.
_______, a scientist with ISRO played an important role in providing satellite education.
(a) K. Kasturirangan
(b) Eknath Chitnis
(c) A. S. Kirankumar
(d) G. Madhavan Nair
Answer:
(b) Eknath Chitnis

Question 5.
In 1990 _____ started an audio-visual distance education programme through Akashwani and Doordarshan.
(a) ISRO
(b) NCERT
(c) IGNOU
(d) CSIR
Answer:
(c) IGNOU

Question 6.
The National Institute for Research in Mathematical and Physical Sciences’ in ______ was established in 1962.
(a) Chandigarh
(b) Kerala
(c) Karnataka
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(d) Tamil Nadu

Question 7.
India’s first IIT was setup at _______ at West Bengal in 1951.
(a) Kharagpur
(b) Midnapore
(c) Hooghly
(d) Howrah
Answer:
(a) Kharagpur

Identify and write the wrong pair in the following sets:

Question 1.
(1) TCS – obtained an American contract for software production.
(2) FTII – Systematic training in all aspects of film-making.
(3) C-DAC – developed Param – 8000
(4) IIM – imparting training in industrial design.
Answer:
Wrong Pair : IIM – imparting training in industrial design.

Question 2.
(1) The Advanced Centre for Treatment Research and Education in Cancer – Branch of Tata Memorial Centre
(2) AIIMS – advanced education and research in medicine.
(3) DPEP – Charts showing learning competencies upto Std.V
(4) National Policy on Education 1986 – Common core curriculum was framed for all states.
Answer:
Wrong Pair : DPEP – Charts showing learning competencies upto Std.

Question 3.
(1) National Institute of Design – Ahmedabad
(2) Maharashtra State Board of Secondary and Higher Secondary Education – Pune
(3) The National Institute for Research in the Mathematical and Physical Science – Delhi
(4) Indian Institute of Technology – West Bengal
Answer:
Wrong Pair: The National Institute for Research in the Mathematical and Physical Science – Delhi

Question 4.
(1) J.P. Naik – Kothari Commission
(2) P. Parthasarthy – Committee on Open University
(3) Sayyad Rauf – Drafted common state wide curriculum
(4) Dr. Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan – Director of NCERT.
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Dr. Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan Director of NCERT.

Question 5.
(1) Dave Committee – minimum levels of learning.
(2) The Art Department – designing workbooks and hand books.
(3) Kosbad project – Education of Adivasis
(4) Council of Scientific and Industrial Research – Promote scientific research.
Answer:
Wrong Pair : The Art Department – designing workbooks and hand books.

Question 6.
(1) MSCERT – Jeevan Shikshan
(2) Balbharati – Kishor
(3) The Maharashtra State Board of Secondary and Higher Secondary Education – Countrywide classroom.
(4) SITE – Satellite Education.
Answer:
Wrong Pair : The Maharashtra State Board of Secondary and Higher Secondary Education – Countrywide classroom

Question 7.
(1) Tarabai Modak – Kuranshalas
(2) Anutai Wagh – Kosbad Projects
(3) Eknath Chitnis – Education Minister
(4) R. H. Dave – Competency based Primary Education Curriculum.
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Eknath Chitnis – Education Minister

Complete the concept maps:

Question 1.
Objectives of Education:
Answer:

Question 2.
Central Council for Research in Indian Medicine and Homeopathy:
Answer:

Question 3.
Departments of the Indian Agricultural Research Institute:
Answer:

Question 4.
Role of Dave Committee:
Answer:

Question 5.
Features of the IIT
Answer:

Question 6.
IIMs in India
Answer:

Question 7.
Concept map of basic responsibilities of NCERT
Answer:

Write short notes:

Question 1.
AIIMS
Answer:
(i) The All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) was established to give further impetus to advanced education and research in medicine.

(ii) It was given the responsibility of undergraduate and post-graduate courses in medicine.

(iii) Colleges for undergraduate and postgraduate education in most branches of medicine, good research facilities and well-equipped hospitals are the significant features of this institute.

(iv) The institute also provides medical treatment to the common people at nominal rates.

(v) It has established special colleges for training in nursing, and super-speciality centres for treatment of disorders of the heart, brain and eyes.

(vi) For further development of the medical field, the Medical Council of India was restructured in 1958 and was entrusted with the task of determining criteria for quality of medical education, its supervision and inspection.

Question 2.
Achievements of CSIR
Answer:
(i) In the post-independence period in 1950, the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) was established with the objective to promote scientific research in the country and to take the benefits of the research to all the people.

(ii) The achievements of the CSIR include making the ink used for marking voters’ fingers during elections, medicines for malaria, elephantiasis and tuberculosis, water purification technology, reduction in the time required for bamboo production.

(iii) It also used DNA fingerprinting for the first time in India, conducted a genetic study of the Adivasis of the Andamans and proved that those tribes are 60,000 years old and developed the earthquake early warning system.

(iv) It has also played an important role in the use of neem as a pesticide, use of turmeric for healing wounds and in the case of the patents for varieties of rice.

(v) The CSIR has prepared a digital encyclopedia of Indian traditional knowledge and made it available in eight international languages.

Question 3.
NCERT
Answer:
(i) National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) was established in Delhi on the 1st of September 1961.

(ii) Its main objective is to help the Central Government in matters of school education in the context of a comprehensive policy and in implementing educational schemes. The NCERT was given the responsibility of educational research and development, training, extension, educational programmes, restructuring of school curriculum and textbooks.

(iii) It has played a central role in designing school curricula and textbooks with the cooperation of the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE). ’

(iv) It provides guidance and cooperation in the area of primary and secondary education to the state governments.

(v) It has been involved in designing workbooks and handbooks for teachers, in teacher training, in developing teaching-learning techniques and conducting talent search examinations at the national level.

Read the passage and answer the questions and answer the questions based on it.

Passage I

National Council of Educational Research and Training. This body was established in Delhi on the 1st of September 1961. Its main objective is to help the Central Government in matters of school education in the context of a comprehensive policy and in implementing educational schemes. The NCERT was given the responsibility of educational research and development, training, extension, educational programmes, restructuring of school curriculum and textbooks. It has played a central role in designing school curricula and textbooks with the cooperation of the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE). It provides guidance and cooperation in the area of primary and secondary education to the state governments. It has been involved in designing workbooks and handbooks for teachers, in teacher training, in developing teaching-learning techniques and conducting talent search examinations at the national level.
SCERTs were established in all States on the lines of the NCERT. The Maharashtra State Council of Educational ‘Research and Training was established in Pune, This institute performs various functions such as , improving the standard of primary education, in service training of teachers, training in the areas of syllabii and evaluation, vocational guidance for students after Std X and Std XII exams and other , educational functions This institute is known as the , academic authority. It brings out a periodical called Jeevan Sikshan. ‘

Question 1.
What was the main objective behind establishment of NCERT?
Answer:
The main objective behind establishment of NCERT is to help the central government in matters of school education in the context of a comprehensive policy and in implementing educational schemes.

Question 2.
SCERT was established only in Maharashtra State on the lines of the NCERT. Identify True or False.
Answer:
False.

Question 3.
State 4 research institutes in India.
Answer:
Following are the 4 research institutes in India:

• Council of Scientific & Industrial Research.
• Bhabha Atomic Research Centre.
• Indian Council of Medical Research.
• Indian Agricultural Research Institute.

Passage II

National Policy on Education 1986: According to this policy, certain changes of a fundamental nature were brought about in primary, secondary and higher , secondary education in keeping with the changing needs of society. Under this policy, a common core curriculum was framed for all States. The expectation , is that, by this means, all students in India will get equal educational opportunity. There is scope in the national curriculum for individual States to bring in flexibility in accordance with their cultural, geographical and historical needs.
The ‘Primary Education Curriculum 1988’ was prepared on the basis of the plan of action designed at the national level for the effective implementation of the National Policy on Education 1986. The competency based primary Education curriculum 1995: Even as the Primary Education Curriculum , 1988 was being implemented, a Committee was formed at the national level with Dr. R. H. Dave as its Chairman, to determine minimum levels of learning, The Dave as Committee developed charts of minimum , levels of learning in language, mathematics and environmental studies up to Std V. The charts showed the sequence of learning of the competencies meant for each class.
Use of a satellite: In 1975, India met with success in its attempt to use a satellite for the purpose of education, Eknath Chitnis, a scientist with ISRO, played an , important role in it.
SITE (Satellite Instructional Television Experiment) , was undertaken for educational purposes under the leadership of the Space Applications Centre at Ahmedabad. The concept of satellite education came , out of this experiment. America had helped India in , this programme. The programme helped to make provisionsforagoodstandardofeducationinruralareas.

Question 1.
What was done to implement the National Policy on Education 1986?
Answer:
For the effective implementation of National Policy on Education 1986, the Primary Education Curriculum 1988 was prepared on the basis of the action plan formulated at the National level.

Question 2.
How did the Dave committee determine the minimum levels of learning?
Answer:
To determine the minimum levels of learning the Dave committee developed charts in language, mathematics and environmental studies upto Std. V. Sequential learning competencies were depicted on these charts to set standards through levels of learning.

Question 3.
Who is your favourite educationist? State his/ her educational ideas which impacted the society.
Answer:
(i) My favourite educationist are Rabindranath Tagore, Dr. Annie Besant and Dr. Sarvapalli Radha Krishnan.

(ii) They all enlightened the society with their educational ideas and deeds. Dr. Annie Besant in particular was iconic.

(iii) Her ideas of education were imbibed with political freedom, women’s liberation and universal brotherhood. Her teachings of ‘Home Rule’ and ‘theosophy’ impacted our society during British Rule. She taught these ideas through political lectures to motivate the youth.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
What does the District Primary Education Programme envisage?
Answer:
(i) In 1994, the District Primary Education Programme (DPEP) was started with the objective of universalisation of primary education. It was implemented in seven States including Maharashtra.

(ii) The plan envisaged 100% attendance in primary schools, arresting student drop-out, education for girls and for the physically handicapped.

(iii) It included programmes such as research on and evaluation of primary education, alternative education, creating societal awareness, etc.

Question 2.
State the contribution of Tarabai Modak in educating adivasis.
Answer:
(i) Tarabai Modak began work in the field of education in Bordi and Kosbad.
(ii) She started Anganwadis for Adivasi children.
(iii) She worked hard to bring in the Teaming by doing’ method, to start kuranshalas (meadow schools) and to spread vocational technical education.

Question 3.
What purpose did the Kosbad Project serve?
Answer:
(i) Anutai Wagh established an institution at Kosbad for the progress of Adivasis in Thane district.
(ii) It is known as the Kosbad Project.
(iii) She started creches, nurseries, primary schools, adult education classes, balsevika training schools, etc. for the education of Adivasis.

Question 4.
What was proposed by the Mudaliar Commission?
Answer:
(i) In 1952-53, the Mudaliar Commission was appointed.
(ii) At that time, the pattern of education consisted of 11 + 4 years for the first degree or of 11 + 1 + 3 years.
(iii) The Commission studied secondary education, the nature of the curriculum, medium of instruction, teaching methodology and made certain recommendations.
(iv) This Commission proposed the concept of Higher Secondary Education. However, it was found difficult to implement it all over the country.

Question 5.
State the recommendation of Kothari Commission.
Answer:
(i) The Kothari Commission recommended the 10+2+3 pattern for secondary, higher secondary and university education. This system was implemented from 1972.

(ii) The Commission also suggested a uniform national system of education, the inclusion of the mother tongue, Hindi and English in education, as well as continuing education, adult education, education by correspondence and open universities to make education trickle down to the lowest rungs of society.

(iii) It also recommended increased provision in the government’s budget for expenditure on education of neglected sections like the scheduled castes and tribes.

Question 6.
What do you know about the Education Board of your state?
Answer:
(i) The Maharashtra State Board of Secondary and Higher Secondary Education was established on the 1st of January 1966 at Pune.
(ii) This Board conducts the school leaving examinations of Std. X and Std. XII.
(iii) It also publishes a periodical called ‘Shikshan Sankraman’.

Question 7.
State the functions of MSCERT.
Answer:
(i) The Maharashtra State Council of Educational Research and Training was established in Pune.
(ii) This institute performs various functions such as improving the standard of primary education,
in-service training of teachers, training in the areas of syllabi and evaluation, vocational guidance for students after Std X and Std XII exams and other educational functions.

Question 8.
How did the concept of satellite education evolve in India?
Answer:
(i) SITE (Satellite Instructional Television Experiment) was undertaken for educational purposes under the leadership of the Space Applications Centre at Ahmedabad.
(ii) The concept of satellite education came out of this experiment. America had helped India in this programme.
(iii) The programme helped to make provisions for a good standard of education in rural areas.

Question 9.
Discuss the responsibilities of Indian Council for Medical Research.
Answer:
(i) Indian Council for Medical Research (ICMR) was established for conducting research in the medical field.
(ii) It was given the responsibility of cooperating with universities, medical colleges, government and non-government research institutes and giving them guidance and financial support for research activities.

Question 10.
Which institute works for advanced research in cancer?
Answer:
The Advanced Centre for Treatment, Research and Education in Cancer is a branch of the Tata Memorial Centre. It functions as the national centre for treatment, research and education in relation to cancer.

Observe the pictures/personality and write relevant information:

Question 1.

Answer:
(i) Kothari Commission recommended the 10+2+3 pattern for secondary, higher secondary and university education.
(ii) The objectives of Education were :

• Modernisation of Education.
• Social and national integration.
• Nurture of social, moral, spiritual values.
• Education and Productivity.
• Securing and strengthening of democracy.

(iii) The following are the other recommendations made by the Kothari commission:

• A uniform national system of education
• inclusion of mother tongue (along with Hindi and English)
• Continuing education
• Adult education
• Education by correspondence
• Open Universities.

Question 2.

Answer:
(1) The open university was established with the objective that the stream of education should make its way into every average household of the country.

(2) In 1974, the government appointed a committee under the chairmanship of P. Parthasarthy and open university took shape on 20th September 1985 in accordance with its recommendations and suggestions.
It was named after Prime Minister – Indira Gandhi.

(3) In 1990, IGNOU started an audio-visual distance education programme through Akashwani and Doordarshan.

(4) It provides facilities for education through 58 centres in the country and 41 centres in foreign countries.

Question 3.

Answer:
(1) CSIR was established with the objective to promote scientific research in the country and to take the benefits of the research to all the people.

(2) CSIR conducted research in fields like:

• Physics, chemistry, pharmaceuticals, food processing and mining

(3) The achievements of CSIR include:

• Making the ink used for marking voter’s fingers during elections
• Medicines for malaria, elephantiasis and tuberculosis
• water purifying technology
• DNA fingerprinting for the first time in India.

(4) CSIR has prepared a digital encylopoedia of Indian traditional knowledge and made it available in eight international languages.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Humidity and Clouds Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Humidity and Clouds

Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Humidity and Clouds Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Match the column and complete the chain: 

‘A’ Column	‘B’ Column	‘C’ Column
1. Cirrus	i. Vertical extent in the sky	a. Roaring clouds
2. Cumulonimbus	ii. Higher altitude	b. Floating clouds
3. Nimbostratus	iii. Medium altitude	c. Continuous rainfall
4. Alto-cumulus	iv Low altitude	d. Snowflake clouds

Answer:

‘A’ Column	‘B’ Column	‘C’ Column
1. Cirrus	ii. Higher altitude	d. Snowflake clouds
2. Cumulonimbus	i. Vertical extent in the sky	a. Roaring clouds
3. Nimbostratus	iv Low altitude	c. Continuous rainfall
4. Alto-cumulus	iii. Medium altitude	b. Floating clouds

2. Choose the correct word from the brackets and complete the sentences:
(Options: Cumulonimbus, relative humidity, absolute humidity, condensation, vapor-holding capacity)

Question a.
The ………….. of the air is dependent on the temperature of the air.
Answer:
vapour-holding capacity

Question b.
The amount of vapour in 1 cu.m, of air shows the ………….
Answer:
absolute humidity

Question c.
As …………. is less in the desert areas, the air is dry there.
Answer:
relative humidity

Question d.
……………. type of clouds are indicators of the storm.
Answer:
Cumulonimbus

Question e.
In a free environment, the ………….. of the vapour present in the atmosphere takes place around the dust particles.
Answer:
condensation

3. Differentiate between: 

Question a.
Humidity and clouds:
Answer:

Question b.
Relative humidity and Absolute humidity
Answer:

Question c.
Cumulus clouds and Cumulonimbus clouds
Answer:

4. Answer the following questions:

Question a.
Why is the air in a region dry?
Answer:
Due to the low amount of the moisture in the air, the air in a region is I dry.

Question b.
How is humidity measured?
Answer:
1. The amount of water vapour in 1 cu.m, of air is called the absolute humidity.

2. Absolute humidity is measured with the help the following formula:
Absolute humidity
= \(\frac{\text { Mass of water vapour }}{\text { Volume of air }}\)

3. The amount of water vapour present in air expressed as a percentage of the amount needed for saturation at the same temperature is called relative humidity.

4. Relative humidity is measured with the help of the following formula: Relative humidity (%)

Question c.
What are the prerequisites for condensation?
Answer:
High relative humidity and dew point temperature of the air are the j prerequisites for condensation.

Question d.
What is a cloud? Write its types.
Answer:
A. Meaning:
A visible mass of fine particles of ice and water accumulated around the dust particles in the air at high altitude is called a cloud.

B. Types:
The following are the types of clouds:

1. High clouds: Clouds at an altitude of 7000 m to 14000 m are considered as high clouds. Cirrus, Cirro-Stratus and CirroCumulus are high clouds.
2. Medium clouds: Clouds at an altitude of 2000 m to 7000 m are considered as medium clouds. Alto-Stratus and Alto Cumulus are medium clouds.
3. Low clouds: Clouds at an altitude of less than 2000m are considered as low clouds. Strato-Cumulus, Stratus, Nimbostratus, Cumulus and Cumulonimbus are low clouds

Question e.
Which type of clouds give rain?
Answer:
Nimbostratus and cumulonimbus type of clouds give rain.

Question f.
On what does the percentage of relative humidity depend?
Answer:
The percentage of relative humidity depends on the absolute humidity and vapour-holding capacity of the air at a given temperature.

5. Give geographical reasons:

Question a.
Clouds float in the sky.
Answer:

1. The condensed water or fine particles of snow accumulate around dust particles at high altitudes leading to formation of clouds.
2. The condensed water or fine particles in the clouds are almost weightless. Therefore, clouds float in the sky.

Question b.
The proportion of relative humidity changes according to altitude.
Answer:
1. The temperature is found to be comparatively high in the areas at sea level. Due to high temperature, moisture-holding capacity of air near sea level is found to be high. Therefore, the humidity of the air at sea level is comparatively high.

2. The temperature is found to be comparatively low in the areas at high altitude. Due to low temperature, moisture-holding capacity of air at high altitudes is found to below. Therefore, the humidity of the air at high altitude is comparatively low. In this way, the proportion of relative humidity changes according to the altitude.

Question c.
Air becomes saturated.
Answer:

1. At certain temperature, the moisture-holding capacity of air gets fulfilled and it becomes equal to the proportion of the moisture present in it.
2. At this state, no more moisture can be absorbed by the air. Thus, air becomes saturated.

Question d.
Cumulus clouds change into cumulonimbus clouds.
Answer:

1. Cumulus clouds are found between 500 m to 6000 m altitude. They are mostly formed due to the vertical flow of the air.
2. Sometimes, the vertical expanse of the cumulus clouds increases and it leads to formation of huge mountain-like cumulonimbus clouds. Thus, cumulus clouds change into cumulonimbus clouds.

6. Solve the following:

Question a.

When the temperature of the air is 30° C, its vapour-holding capacity is 30.37 gms/cu.m., If absolute humidity is 18 gms/cu.m., then what will be the relative humidity?
Answer:
Relative humidity (%)

Question b.
What would be the absolute humidity of air if 1 cu.m, air contains 4.08 gms of vapour at 0° C temperature.
Answer:
Absolute humidity

7. Collect the weather related information from newspapers for the month of July. Relate the difference in the maximum and minimum temperatures with humidity.

Activity:

Question a.
Make a table showing the types of clouds. Use various photographs.
Answer:

Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Humidity and Clouds Additional Important Questions and Answers

Examine the following statements and correct the incorrect ones:

Question a.
Cumulonimbus clouds are the indicators of the pleasant atmosphere.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: Cumulonimbus clouds are the indicators of the thunderstorm.

Question b.
The relative humidity is found to be high in desert region.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: The relative
humidity is found to be less in desert region.

Question c.
The high temperature of the air leads to rapid evaporation.
Answer:
Correct.

Question d.
When the humidity in the air is 0 gm/cu.m. at any temperature, the air is said to be humid.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: When the humidity in the air is o gm/cu.m. at any temperature, the air Is said to be dry.

Question e.
Cirrostratus appears like a bed sheet with wrinkles.
Answer:
Correct.

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question a.
What is evaporation?
Answer:
The process of converting water into steam or water vapour is called evaporation.

Question b.
What is meant by the moisture-holding capacity of air?
Answer:
The capacity of air to hold moisture at a given temperature, is called the moisture-holding capacity of air.

Question c.
What is meant by the saturation of the air?
Answer:
The condition of air at a certain temperature, in which the moisture-holding capacity of air becomes equal to the I proportion of moisture present in it, is called saturation of the air.

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question a.
Write in brief about the features of high clouds.
Answer:
Clouds at an altitude of 7000 m to 14000 m are considered as high clouds. High clouds are mainly made up of ice particles. Cirrus, Cirro-Stratus and Cirro-Cumulus are high clouds. The following are the features of high clouds :

1. Cirrus: Cirrus are wispy.
2. Cirro-Stratus: Cirro-Stratus look like bed sheet with wrinkles. A halo is generally seen around these clouds.
3. Cirro-Cumulus clouds: Cirro- Cumulus look like groups of small waves.

Question b.
Write in brief about the features of medium clouds.
Answer:
Clouds at an altitude of 2000 m to 7000 m are considered as medium clouds. Alto-Stratus and Alto-Cumulus are medium clouds. The following are the features of medium clouds :

1. Alto-Stratus : Alto-Stratus are comparatively thin. The sun is visible through these clouds as if seen through a milky glass.
2. Alto-Cumulus : Alto-Cumulus are in the form of layers. They have wave-like structure. They are white in colour and have a grey shade.

Question c.
Write in brief about the features of Strato-Cumulus, Stratus and Nimbostratus.
Answer:
The features of Strato-Cumulus, Stratus and Nimbostratus are as follows :

1. Strato-Cumulus: Strato-Cumulus have layers. These clouds are mostly seen in round clusters. They are white to earthy in colour.
2. Stratus: Stratus are found in layers. They have uniform base. They are ash coloured.
3. Nimbostratus: Nimbostratus have thick layers. They are greyish in colour. They cause continuous rainfall. They are also responsible for snowfall.

Question d.
Write in brief about the features of Cumulus and Cumulonimbus.
Answer:
The features of Cumulus and Cumulonimbus are as follows :
1. Cumulus : Cumulus are found between 500 m to 6000 m altitude. They are mostly formed due to the vertical flow of the air. They have huge size and dome-like shape. They are grey in colour. They indicate pleasant atmosphere. With an increase in the vertical expanse, these clouds turn into cumulonimbus clouds and bring rain.

2. Cumulonimbus : Cumulonimbus appear like huge mountain. They are dense and dark in colour. They have anvil-like shape at the top. They are the indicators of thunder, lightning and storm. They bring rain with storm. Sometimes they also bring hailstones. The raindrops of these clouds are found to be larger in size.

Give geographical reasons for the following:

Question a.
The absolute humidity of air in coastal region is higher than humidity of air in inland areas.
Answer:
1. The rate of evaporation is found to be high in the coastal region. As its effect, the amount of moisture in air in coastal region is found to be high. This results in high absolute humidity of air in coastal region.

2. On the other hand, the rate of evaporation is found to be low in the inland areas. As its effect, the amount of moisture in air in inland regions is found to be low. This results in low absolute humidity of air in inland areas. Thus, the absolute humidity of air in coastal region is higher than humidity of air in inland areas.

Question b.
The absolute humidity of air in equatorial region is higher than humidity of air in polar region.
Answer:
1. Equatorial region receives perpendicular sunrays throughout the year leading to high temperature. High temperature increases the rate of evaporation and this further leads to high absolute humidity of air in equatorial region.

2. Polar regions receive extremely slanted sunrays throughout the year leading to very low temperature. Very low temperature decreases the rate of evaporation and this further leads to very low absolute humidity of air in polar region. Thus, the absolute humidity of air in equatorial region is higher than humidity of air in polar region.

Question c.
Damp air is found in the coastal regions.
Answer:

1. The rate of evaporation is found to be high in the coastal region. As its effect, the amount of moisture in air in coastal region is found to be high.
2. The absolute humidity of the air near coastal region is found to be high. Therefore, damp air is found in the coastal regions.

Question d.
Dry air is found in the inland regions.
Answer:

1. The rate of evaporation is found to be low in inland region. As its effect, the amount of moisture in air in inland region is found to be low.
2. The absolute humidity of the air in inland region is found to be low. Therefore, dry air is found in inland regions.

Differentiate between the following :

Question a.
Densification and Sublimation :
Answer:

Study the following map/figure /graph and answer the following questions:

1. Study the figure 3.7 given on page 20 of the textbook and answer the following questions :

Question a.
What is the maximum diameter of the raindrop?
Answer:
The maximum diameter of the raindrop is 5 mm.

Question b.
Around what does the condensation of the water vapour in the air occur?
Answer:
The condensation of the water vapour in the air occurs around the minute particles of dust or salt in the air.

2. Study the Figure 3.9 given on page 22 of the textbook and answer the following questions :

Question a.
Which type of charge is found at the upper end of the cumulonimbus clouds?
Answer:
Positive charge is found at the upper end of the cumulonimbus clouds.

Question b.
Which type of charge is found at the low end of the cumulonimbus clouds?
Answer:
Negative charge is found at the low end of the cumulonimbus clouds.

Question c.
Which type of charge is found on the land below the cumulonimbus clouds?
Answer:
Positive charge is found on the land below the cumulonimbus clouds.

Use your brainpower!

Find where the symbols given below are used while showing the weather of a place. Write their meanings in the boxes given below:
(Note: The answer is given directly.)

Question a

Answer:

Thought-Provoking Questions:

Think about it.

Question a.
During winters, when you exhale on the glass of your mirror, what happens. If you do this in summer why doesn’t it happen?
Answer:
1. During winters, the moisture-holding capacity of air is low due to low temperature. Therefore during winters, when we exhale on the glass of mirror, the condensation of water vapour present in the exhaled air takes place. As its effect very thin water drops are found on the glass of mirror.

2. During summer, the moisture-holding capacity of air is high due to high temperature. Therefore during summer, when we exhale on the glass of mirror, the water vapour present in the exhaled air gets absorbed in air. Therefore, no water drops are found on the glass of mirror.

Give it a try.

The vapour-holding capacity of 1 cu.m, of air in various temperature is given in the following table.

Calculate the difference in the capacities by observing the following table :
(Note: The answer is given directly.)

Question a.

Answer:

Temperature of the air (°C)	Vapour-holding (gm/cu.m3 (gm/cu.m3)capacity	Difference in the capacities (gm/cu.m3)
-5	3.26	—
0	4.85	1.59
5	6.80	1.95
10	9.40	2.60
15	12.83	3.43
20	17.30	4.47
30	30.37	13.07
40	51.12	20.75

Use your brain power!

Question a.
In which season is humidity generally more?
Answer:
Humidity is generally more in monsoon.

Question b.
How does the humidity affect the human body?
Answer:
The rate of respiration and sweating increases due to humidity.

Question c.
Observe how humidity affects the food materials at our home and write about the same.
Answer:
Due to humidity, fungus flourish on food materials at our home and it gets spoiled.

Question d.
Is there any relationship between formation of fungus and humidity?
Answer:
There is a direct relationship between formation of fungus and humidity. Humidity supports the growth of fungus.

Question e.
How is the early or late drying up of clothes related to humidity?
Answer:
As the moisture-holding capacity is found to be high in low humidity air, it leads to early drying up of clothes. As the moisture-holding capacity is found to be low in high humidity air, it leads to late drying up of clothes.

Think about it.

Question a.
What will happen if the temperature of saturated air at 20° C drops to 10° C abruptly?
Answer:

1. If the temperature of saturated air at 20° C drops to 10° C abruptly, the relative humidity of the air will increase abruptly.
2. Rise in the relative humidity will lead to condensation or sublimation of water vapour in the air. This in turn, will lead to precipitation or snowfall.

Open-Ended Question:

Question a.
Explain the effect of humidity on human life.
Answer:

1. High humidity increases the rate of sweating and respiration. This adversely affects the daily functioning.
2. Low humidity with pleasant atmosphere, have favourable effects on the daily routine.
3. High humidity leads to late drying up of clothes and early spoiling of food materials.
4. Low humidity leads to early drying up of clothes and late spoiling of food materials.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 4 Economic Development Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 4 Economic Development

Class 9 History Chapter 4 Economic Development Textbook Questions and Answers

1.A Choose right option and write the sentence:

Question 1.
On 19th July, 1969 ______ major banks in India were nationalised.
(a) 12
(b) 14
(c) 16
(d) 18
Answer:
(b) 14

Question 2.
_________ declared a 20 – point programme.
(a) Pandit Nehru
(b) Lai Bahadur Shastri
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) P.V. Narasimha Rao
Answer:
(c) Indira Gandhi

B. Identify the wrong pair and rewrite the corrected one:

Question 1.
(1) Kawasajee Dawar – Iron and Steel factory.
(2) Dr. Datta Samant – Leadership of mill workers.
(3) N. M. Lokhande – Holiday for mill workers.
(4) Narayan Surve – Depiction of lives of workers through poems.
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Kawasajee Dawar – Iron and Steel factory.

2.A Complete the following chart:

Question 1.

Five Year Plan	Duration	Purposes
First	……………….	Agriculture and Social Development
Second	1956 -1961	Industrialisation
Third	………………	Elimination of inequality, increasing opportunities for employment, increase in national income.
………….	1969 -1974	Scientific research, health and family planning.
Fifth	…………….	…………………..

Answer:

Five Year Plan	Duration	Purposes
First	1951 -1956	Agriculture and Social Development
Second	1956 -1961	Industrialisation
Third	1961 -1966	Elimination of inequality, increasing opportunities for employment, increase in national income.
Fourth	1969 -1974	Scientific research, health and family planning.
Fifth	1974 -1979	Making India economically self-sufficient by alleviating poverty.

B. Explain the concepts:

Question 1.
Mixed Economy
Answer:
(i) In a capitalist system, the means of production are privately owned. In a socialist economy, the means of production are owned by the State in the name of the society.
(ii) A mixed economy works both in the private and the public sector.
(iii) In order to achieve economic development of modem India, we gave preference to a model of ‘mixed economy’. We can see three parts in this kind of economy:

(a) Public Sector: The industries in this sector are completely under the control and management of the government. For example, production of defence equipment.

(b) Private Sector: The industries in this sector are owned by private industrialists. Of course, the government supervises and controls them too. For example, consumer goods.

(c) Joint Sector: In this sector, some industries are owned by private industrialists, while some are run under government management.

(iv) For mixed economy to run smoothly there is a need for co-ordination between the private sector and the public sector.
(v) This system aims at maximisation of production and popular participation on a large scale.
(vi) An effort has been made in this system to bring together the good aspects of both the capitalist and the socialist systems.
(vii) A mixed economy cannot ignore the profit motive, entrepreneurship, discipline, time bound planning, etc.

Question 2.
20 – Point Programme
Answer:
20-Point Programme: Prime Minister Indira Gandhi announced the 20-Point Programme on 1st July 1975 and resolved to make efforts towards rapidly becoming a developed nation. The main provisions of the 20 point programme are as follows:

• Land ceiling for cities and agricultural land, equal division of wealth, minimum wages for workers, increase in water conservation schemes.
• Workers’ participation in industry, national training scheme, freeing bonded labour.
• Prevention of tax evasion, economic crimes and smuggling.
• Regulation of prices of basic necessities, improvement in the public distribution system.
• Improvement in the textile industry by developing handloom sector, waiving loans for weaker sections, housing, communication facilities, making educational equipment available to schools.

3.A Give reasons.

Question 1.
Independent India opted for mixed economy.
Answer:
(i) Our Prime Minister Pandit Nehru adopted the middle path rather than taking recourse to any extremes. Some countries had adopted Capitalism, while some had adopted Socialism. Each type of economy had its own advantages.

(ii) In a capitalist system, the means of production are privately owned. In a socialist economy, the means of production are owned by the State in the name of the society.

(iii) A mixed economy works both in the private and the public sector. In order to achieve economic development of modem India, we gave preference to a model of ‘mixed economy’.

Question 2.
Banks were nationalised in 1969.
Answer:
(i) During the tenure of Prime Ministers Pandit Nehru and Lai Bahadur Shastri, banking was a monopoly of the private sector.

(ii) These banks represented different industrial groups. The Directors of these banks were working towards developing industrial sector and increasing its profit.

(iii) In order to stop this, the government nationalised the ‘Imperial Bank’ in 1955 and it got converted into State Bank of India.

(iv) This Bank opened several branches all over the country in a short while and played a major role in development.

(v) India had adopted a mixed economy after independence. Nationalisation of banks was essential to cover the deficits if they occurred while implementing different schemes.

(vi) Also the profit of these banks would come into the government treasury once they were nationalised. Prime Minister Indira Gandhi nationalised 14 banks on 19th July, 1969.

Question 3.
Mill workers went on strike.
Answer:
(i) During the Diwali of 1981, the workers expected to get a bonus of 20%.
(ii) The Rashtriya Mill Mazdoor Sangh, which was negotiating with the employers, agreed upon 8 to 17% bonus without taking the workers into confidence.
(iii) The cut in the bonus proved to be the cause of unrest. Some workers went to Dr. Datta Samant.
(iv) They asked him to accept their leadership. Workers of 65 mills came together and Dr. Datta Samant led the strike. On 18th January 1982, two and a half lakh workers went on strike.

B. Answer the following questions in 25 to 30 words.

Question 1.
Which programmes were started in the Eighth Five Year Plan?
Answer:
Following programmes were started in the Eighth Five Year Plan:

• Pradhanmantri Rozgar Yojana
• Mahila Samriddhi Yojana
• Rashtriya Samajik, Arthik Sahayya Yojana
• Midday Meal Scheme
• Indira Mahila Scheme
• Ganga Kalyan Scheme

Question 2.
Which heavy industries were set up under the Second Five Year Plan?
OR
Which projects were started in the Second Five Year Plan?
Answer:
(i) Iron and steel industries at Durgapur, Bhilai and Rourkela; Chemical fertilisers plant at Sindri; rail engine factory at Chittaranjan; factory of railway bogies at Perambur, Ship building factory at Vishakhapattanam and other heavy industries were set up in the Public Sector.

(ii) Huge dams like Bhakra-Nangal, Damodar, etc. were built to make water available for agriculture.

Class 9 History Chapter 4 Economic Development Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
India removed the import restriction on several commodities for _____ countries.
(a) BRICS
(b) SAARC
(c) Third – World
(d) Middle – East countries
Answer:
SAARC

Question 2.
The efforts of _____ resulted in the weekly Sunday holiday for mill workers from 1st January 1882.
(a) Mahatma Jyotirao Phule
(b) Sane Guruji
(c) Babu Jagjeevan Ram
(d) Narayan Meghaji Lokhande
Answer:
Narayan Meghaji Lokhande

Question 3.
During the tenure of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi ,________ a group in the Congress Party, made a demand for nationalisation of commercial banks.
(a) Congress Socialist Party
(b) Congress Forum for Socialist Action
(c) Congress wing of Socialist Propaganda
(d) Agency of Socialist Congress
Answer:
Congress Forum for Socialist Action

Question 4.
In 1995, India became a member of _______.
(a) World Trade Organisation
(b) International Monetary Fund
(c) GATT
(d) SAARC
Answer:
World Trade Organisation

Question 5.
In order to overcome drought and food shortages ______ undertook the experiment of Green Revolution.
(a) Chaudhary Charansingh
(b) Gulzarilal Nanda
(c) H D Deve Gowda
(d) Lal Bahadur Shastri
Answer:
Lal Bahadur Shastri

Question 6.
During the tenure of Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao, _______ was our Finance Minister.
(a) John Mathai
(b) Yashwant Sinha
(c) P. Chidambaram
(d) Dr. Manmohan Singh
Answer:
Dr. Manmohan Singh

Question 7.
The first textile mill was started in Mumbai on 11th July, 1851 by _______.
(a) Pirojsha Burjorji Godrej
(b) Jamsedji Nusserwanji Tata
(c) Kawasjee Dawar
(d) Azim Hashim Premji
Answer:
Kawasjee Dawar

Question 8.
The new government of Janata Party ended the fifth Five Year plan by March 1978 and started the _______ from April 1978.
(a) Development Plan
(b) Enrolling Plan
(c) Rolling Plan
(d) Redemption Plan
Answer:
Rolling Plan

Question 9.
Manmohan Singh signed the agreement with the WTO and launched the policy of privatisation, ______ and globalisation.
(a) Liberalisation
(b) Industrialisation
(c) Maximisation
(d) Profitisation
Answer:
Liberalisation

Question 10.
On 18th January 1982, two and a half lakh workers went on a strike under the leadership of _________.
(a) Dhondo Keshav Karve
(b) Baba Amte
(c) Dr. Datta Samant
(d) Anna Hazare
Answer:
Dr. Datta Samant

Question 11.
The _______ plan is a reflection of the liberalisation and free market policy adopted in 1991.
(a) Seventh
(b) Eighth
(c) Fifth
(d) Sixth
Answer:
Eighth

Question 12.
The government nationalised the ‘Imperial Bank’ in 1955 and it got converted into ______
(a) Syndicate Bank
(b) Bank of India
(c) State Bank of India
(d) Reserve Bank of India
Answer:
State Bank of India

Question 13.
The term ‘Girangaon’ means ________.
(a) Town of hills
(b) Town of mills
(c) Group of industries
(d) Cottage industries
Answer:
Town of mills

Identify and write the wrong pair in the following sets:

Question 1.
(1) Public Sector – Controlled and managed by government
(2) Mixed Economy – Coordination in private and public sector
(3) 20 point programme – Nationalisation of 13 textile mills.
(4) Increased oil prices – Invasion of Kuwait by Iraq.
Answer:
Wrong Pair : 20 point programme Nationalisation of 13 textile mills.

Question 2.
(1) Congress Forum for Socialist Action – demanded nationalisation of banks.
(2) Rashtriya Mill Mazdoor Sangh – negotiations with the employer.
(3) Imperial Bank – converted in State Bank of India.
(4) National Stock Exchange – existed before WTO.
Answer:
Wrong Pair : National Stock Exchange – existed before WTO.

Question 3.
(1) SAPTA – Preferential trade
(2) SAARC – removal of import restrictions by India
(3) SEBI – established in 1998
(4) WTO – regulate global trade
Answer:
Wrong Pair : SEBI – established in 1998

Question 4.
(1) Barrister A.R.Antulay – leader of Rashtriya Mill Mazdoor Sangh
(2) Dr. Manmohan Singh – Finance Minister
(3) Indira Gandhi – nationalised 14 banks
(4) V.P. Singh – waived off loans of the farmers
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Barrister A.R.Antulay – leader of Rashtriya Mill Mazdoor Sangh

Question 5.
(1) Babasaheb Bhonsale – Chief Minster of Maharashtra
(2) Namdev Dhasal – Marathi Poet
(3) Shahir Sable – Programmes of public education
(4) Chandrashekhar – Associate of Mahatma Jyotirao Phule.
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Chandrashekhar – Associate of Mahatma Jyotirao Phule.

Complete the concept maps and flow charts of various programmes and schemes introduced:

Question 1.
Answer:

SECOND FIVE YEAR PLAN (1956-1961)
Iron and Steel industries	Durgapur, Bhilai, Rourkela
Chemical Fertilisers Plant	Sindri
Rail Engine Factory	Chittaranjan
Factory of railway bogies	Perambur
Ship building Factory	Vishakhapattanam

Question 2.
Answer:

Question 3.
Answer:

Question 4.
Answer:

Question 5.
Answer:

Question 6.
Answer:

Question 7.
Answer:

Give Reasons:

Question 1.
India established the Planning Commission to deal with economic repercussions of British colonialism,
Answer:
(i) The colonial power had exploited India economically. The country faced severe problems like poverty, unemployment, population growth, low standards of living, low productivity of agriculture and industries and backwardness in the fields of knowledge, science and technology. Planning was essential to solve these problems.

(ii) India established the Planning Commission in 1950 with Prime Minister Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru as its Chairman.

(iii) It formulated India’s five year plans that included rural and agricultural development, : balanced industrialisation, provision for a minimum standard of living and economic development consistent with democratic ideals.

(iv) It focused on people’s participation and individual development in the formulation and implementation of the five year plans.

Read the passage and answer the questions.

Passage I

Issues of workers: The first textile mill was started in Mumbai on 11th July, 1851 by Kawasjee Dawar. Eventually, mills started in Dadar, Parel, Bhaykhala, Shivdi, Prabhadevi and Worli. This part came to be i known as Girangaon or ‘town of mills’. In the 1980s, the increasing unrest among workers was due to the economic conditions in other sectors. In some industries the wages of the workers were increasing. They were also getting more amounts as bonus. They were getting more facilities than the textile mill workers.
In the Diwali of 1981, the workers expected to get a bonus of 20%. The Rashtriya Mill Mazdoor Sangh, which was negotiating with the employers, agreed upon 8 to 17% bonus without taking the workers into confidence. The cut in the bonus proved to be the cause of unrest. Some workers went to Dr. Datta Samant. They asked him to accept their leadership, Workers of 65 mills came together and Dr. Datta Samant led the strike. On 18th January 1982, two and a half lakh workers went on strike. Girangaon mills stopped running making it seem like Mumbai’s heart topped throbbing.
The Chief Minister of Maharashtra, Barrister A. R. , Antulay set up a committee to solve this issue. Later Babasaheb Bhosale became the Chief Minister of Maharashtra State. He insisted that as per law, he would talk only with the Rashtriya Mill Mazdoor Sangha. Dr. Datta Samant demanded that the law be revoked. In the beginning, the striking workers received help from their native villages. It was also , not very difficult for them to help each other. They set up departmental committees and distributed food grains, assistance in the form of funds, etc. The left parties had supported the strike. As the strike , dragged on, efforts were made to split the striking workers’ ranks. Even as the strike completed 6 months, the central government completely ignored it. The workers started a Jail Bharo Agitation’. In , September 1982, one and a half lakh workers took a march on the Legislative Assembly of Maharashtra State. It didn’t help at all. The strike completed a year. This was the first strike to have gone on for a year. In this period, about one and a half lakh workers became unemployed. As polyester had come into greater demand than cotton cloth, the sale of mill , cloth had already got affected. The mills moved from Mumbai to Surat in Gujarat. The Central government nationalised 13 textile mills. Appointment of i arbitrators did not help to resolve the issue.

Question 1.
Name the worker’s union mentioned in the passage. Why were the workers agitated with it?
Answer:
(i) The worker’s organisation mentioned in the passage is Rashtriya Mill Mazdoor Sangh.
(ii) The workers were agitated because they received less bonus and facilities in their textile mills, whereas economic conditions in the other sectors of the economy were far better.
(iii) The Rashtriya Mill Mazdoor Sangh that negotiated with the employers, settled at 8 to 17% of bonus as against the expectation of 20% by the workers.
(iv) The cut in the bonus led to the workers agitation.

Question 2.
State the contribution of Dr. Datta Samant in raising workers issues in Maharashtra?
Answer:
(i) Dr. Datta Samant was the leader of two and a half lakh workers who went on strike.
(ii) He demanded that the law be revoked which had empowered Rashtriya Mill Mazdoor Sangh alone to talk on behalf of the workers.

Question 3.
What is mixed economy?
Answer:
(i) In a capitalist system, the means of production are privately owned. In a socialist economy, the means of production are owned by the State in the name of the society.
(ii) A mixed economy works both in the private and the public sector.
(iii) In order to achieve economic development of modem India, we gave preference to a model of ‘mixed economy’.

Passage II

General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) existed at the international level before the World Trade Organisation came into being. It regulated commerce. In India there were opposed, extreme views about the World Trade Organisation. Yet India decided to take its membership. The provisions of the World Trade Organisation are regarding grants, import-export, foreign investment, agriculture, technology and services. The sectors of electricity, water transportation, education and health rapidly commercialised since India became a member of the World Trade Organisation. As per the various reports of the World Trade Organisation, India has made a considerable improvement in different areas like reduction in the below poverty line (BPL) population, decline in infant mortality, availability of facilities regarding drinking water and waste water management. India signed the South Asian Preferential Trade Agreement (SAPTA) along the lines of the World Trade Organisation. India removed the import restrictions on several commodities for SAARC countries. India also gave discounts on import duties. India opened up the insurance sector to private and foreign investment.

Question 1.
Study the passage and give the full forms of GATT and SAPTA.
Answer:
GATT – General Agreement on Tariff and Trade.
SAPTA – South Asian Preferential Trade Agreement.

Question 2.
Explain, in your own words, the economic policy of “Make in India”.
Answer:
’Make in India’ is an economic policy as well as an organised progamme of the Government of India to encourage and promote various companies and enterprises to start manufacturing and producing goods in India. The aim of this initiative is to generate employment, enhance the skill of Indians and also to attract foreign investment.

Question 3.
What do the provisions of the WTO cater to?
Answer:
The provisions of the WTO cater to grants, import -export, foreign investment, agriculture, technology and services.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
What is the fundamental principle of the Five Year Plans? Which economic goals are set forth by the Government?
Answer:
Fundamental principle of planning: A general principle of planning is the proportionate distribution of the resources of a country and the appropriate use of the human resources to fulfill the needs of the people.
Goals of Plans:
The general goals of the economic planning of India are as follows:

• Increase in the national income.
• Bringing about rapid industrialisation by focusing on the basic industries.
• Bringing about an increase in agricultural production so that the country becomes self-sufficient in foodgrain production.
• Use the human resources in the country optimally by availing increasing employment opportunities.
• Remove inequality in earnings and wealth.
• Maintain stable prices of commodities.
• Controlling the growth of population through family planning.
• Improve the standard of living by eradicating poverty.
• Develop social services.
• Make the economy self-sufficient.

Question 2.
Describe the prolonged agitation of the mill workers under Dr. Datta Samant.
Answer:
(i) In the beginning, the striking workers received help from their native villages. It was also not very difficult for them to help each other.

(ii) They set up departmental committees and distributed food grains, assistance in the form of funds, etc

(iii) The left parties had supported the strike. As the strike dragged on, efforts were made to split the striking workers’ ranks.

(iv) Even as the strike completed 6 months, the central government completely ignored it. The workers started a ‘Jail Bharo Agitation’.

(v) In September 1982, one and a half lakh workers took a march on the Legislative Assembly of Maharashtra State.

(vi) It didn’t help at all. The strike completed a year. This was the first strike to have gone on for a year.

(vii) In this period, about one and a half lakh workers became unemployed.

(viii) As polyester had come into greater demand than cotton cloth, the sale of mill cloth got affected. The mills moved from Mumbai to Surat in Gujarat.

(ix) The Central government nationalised 13 textile mills. Appointment of arbitrators did not help to resolve the issue.

Question 3.
Which enterprises came under government due to the lack of capital investment?
Answer:
(i) The industries like defence, scientific research, education, roads, railways, waterways, sea port and airport development require huge capital investment but the returns in these areas are delayed.
(ii) Not many private industrialists are keen to invest in these areas. In such a situation, the government has to take the initiative.

Question 4.
State the Industrial policy of 1973.
Answer:
(i) The industrial policy of 1973 increased the speed of development.
(ii) Priority was given in this policy to control the influence of heavy industries, industrial families and foreign industries and remove the imbalance in regional development.
(iii) The government focused on the development of small scale industries and cottage industries.

Question 5.
What were the aims of the ‘Third Five Year Plan’?
Answer:
(i) This plan was aimed at bringing about a balance in industries and agriculture.
(ii) The other goals of the plan included increase in national income, heavy industries, development in transport and mineral industry, alleviation of poverty and to expand the opportunities for employment.

Question 6.
What was the background for . the nationalisation of banks?
Answer:
(i) India had adopted a mixed economy after independence.
(ii) Nationalisation of banks was essential to cover the deficits if they occurred while implementing different schemes.
(iii) Also the profits of these banks would come into the government treasury once they are nationalised.

Question 7.
State the cultural contributions of the working class.
Answer:
(i) The working class has contributed culturally as well through folk theatre, folk art and literature. Anna Bhau Sathe, Shahir Amar Sheikh, Shahir Sable were popular for their programmes aimed at public education.
(ii) Poets like Narayan Surve, Namdev Dhasal, etc., portrayed the real life of the workers through their poems.

Question 8.
Who took responsibility to bring the Indian economy in sync with the global mainstream?
Answer:
(i) The year 1991 is very important in the history of modem India. After the 10th General elections, P. V. Narasimha Rao became the Prime Minister of India.

(ii) With Dr. Manmohan Singh as Finance Minister, he adopted the new economic policy of linking India’s economy with the global economy.

(iii) For this, fundamental changes were brought about in the Indian economy. Indian economy was brought in tune with the global mainstream.

Question 9.
Which corrective measures were taken by Manmohan Singh to relieve the crisis of the Indian economy?
Answer:
(i) Dr. Singh undertook many corrective measures. The situation began to change.
(ii) He removed the restrictions on foreign investments.
(iii) He restricted the licence system to 18 industries. In view of the increasing losses in the public sector industries, he opened up the public sector for investment by private industries.
(iv) In order to bring the share market under control, he established the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) in 1992.
(v) National Stock Exchange was computerised. He gave priority to remove the spectre of recession.

Question 10.
State the impact of corrective measures taken by Dr. Manmohan Singh on the economy of our country.
Answer:
(i) Foreign Investment in India grew during the first tenure of Dr. Manmohan Singh as Finance Minister.
(ii) India could recover the gold mortgaged with the Bank of England.
(iii) The government got the support of the capitalist class as well as the middle class.
(iv) As the government opened up the telecom sector, mobile phone services started all over the country.
(v) Dr. Manmohan Singh signed the agreement with the World Trade Organisation and launched the policy of “privatisation, liberalisation and globalisation.”

Question 11.
What were the objectives of the WTO?
Answer:
(i) In 1995, India became a member of the World Trade Organisation (WTO).
(ii) The organisation had the following objectives: to free trade between countries, to put an end to all those discriminatory laws, restrictions, rules and policies that are hurdles in the way of international free trade and to regulate global trade with the help of a formal multi – party mechanism.

Question 12.
Do you agree that membership with the WTO has ushered in changes in the economic sector of our country? State the reason for your answer.
Answer:
(i) Yes, of course. The provisions of the World Trade Organisation have included grants, import-export, foreign investment, agriculture, technology and services.

(ii) The sectors of electricity, water transportation, education and health have been rapidly commercialised since India became a member of the World Trade Organisation.

Question 13.
State the improvements which have occurred in our economy as per the reports of WTO.
Answer:
As per the various reports of the World Trade Organisation, India has made considerable improvement in different areas like reduction in the below poverty line (BPL) population, decline in infant mortality, availability of facilities regarding drinking water and waste water management.

Question 14.
Which economic challenges were faced by the Government of Prime Minister Chandra Shekhar?
Answer:
(i) During the tenure of Chandra Shekhar the rate of inflation was 17%.
(ii) Economic growth rate had decreased by 1.1%. India had foreign exchange reserves only enough to last for imports for a week.
(iii) It had become difficult to pay back its loan and the interest on it.
(iv) In May 1991, the government had tried to control the situation by selling some of its gold reserves and by mortgaging some.

Question 15.
Which economic liabilities were incurred by V. P. Singh government?
Answer:
(i) The V. P. Singh government had incurred a liability of over 10 thousand crore rupees on the economy by waiving off the loans of all the farmers.
(ii) The proportion of internal loans of central and state government together to the Gross Domestic Product was 55%.
(iii) In 1980-81 foreign loan was 2350 crore dollars. It increased to 8380 crore dollars in 1990-91.
(iv) At this time, India had foreign exchange reserves of only 100 crore dollars.
(v) This also had the background of the increased oil prices due to the invasion of Kuwait by Iraq.
(vi) It became difficult for India to raise a loan. Even the non-resident Indians started withdrawing their deposits in foreign currency from India.

Identify the picture and give relevant information.

Question 1.

Answer:
(i) Nationalisation of banks was essential to cover the deficits if they occurred while implementing different schemes and profit of these banks came under the government treasury.

(ii) Also the profit of these banks would come into the government treasury once they were nationalised. Prime Minister Indira Gandhi nationalised 14 banks on 19th July, 1969.

Question 2.

Answer:
(i) P. V. Narasimha Rao and Manmohan Singh.
(ii) They removed the restrictions on foreign investments.
(iii) Restricted the license system to 18 industries.
(iv) Opened up the public sector for investment by private industries.
(v) Established the SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) in 1992 to regulate and bring share market under control.
(vi) Foreign investment in India grew.
(vii) India could recover the gold mortgaged with the Bank of England.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 3 India’s Internal Challenges Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 3 India’s Internal Challenges

Class 9 History Chapter 3 India’s Internal Challenges Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Write briefly.

Question 1.
Which demands were put forward through the ‘Anandpur Sahib Resolution’ by the Akali Dal?
OR
Which demands were raised by the Akali Dal through the ‘Anandpur Sahib Resolution’?
Answer:
In 1973, the Akali Dal passed the ‘Aanandpur Sahib Resolution’. The following demands were made in this resolution:
(i) Chandigarh should be made part of Punjab.
(ii) The Punjabi speaking parts in other states should be included in the state of Punjab,
(iii) Recruitment of people from Punjab in the Indian army should be increased.
(iv) More autonomy should be given to the state of Punjab.

Question 2.
What can we do to end communalism?
Answer:
(i) It is necessary that we all counter communalism with all our strength. For this, we should mix with people of different religions. We should accept the good practices and ideas of each other.

(ii) We should be able to look at and understand our economic and social problems rationally. We should not mix these matters with religion.

(iii) We should look for the economic, political or historical reasons that are responsible for disrupting religious harmony. This is the only way to put an end to communalism and strengthen national unity.

Question 3.
How does regionalism gain strength/become strong?
Answer:
(i) Regionalism thrives on regional imbalance in development. In the post-independence period, some states achieved more progress, while some states remained backward.

(ii) As a result, the states that develop economically can also achieve progress in other areas like education, health and culture.

(iii) The states which have not developed in this manner remain backward in education and civic amenities. The opportunities of development available to people in developed states are not possible for people in backward states.

(iv) They are troubled by problems of education, backwardness, unemployment, poverty, etc. They begin to think that they are being cheated; they are being kept away from the benefits of development. Because of this, the understanding between states is broken.

(v) The people of developed states begin to believe that they are superior due to their superior history and culture and hence they have developed that much. Then they begin to look down upon the people of underdeveloped regions.

(vi) They are not willing to share the benefits of ‘ development with the backward states.

(vii) On the other hand, the people from backward areas need to arouse their regional identity to organise themselves. For this, they try to unnecessarily glorify local traditions.

2. Explain the following concepts in your own words:

Question 1.
Communalism
Answer:
(i) Communalism is a serious threat to the unity of our country. It emerges out of narrow religious pride.

(ii) Fanaticism is the base of communalism. It makes one oblivious to national interest. Fanaticism makes the perspective of looking at events and people prejudiced.

(iii) Some people begin to think of economic and social questions in the framework of their own religion. They hold the idea that government is partial towards their religion.

(iv) If anybody speaks about their religion or insults their religious symbols knowingly or unknowingly, riots break out because of this kind of thinking. Hundreds of innocent people are killed. Public peace is destroyed.

Question 2.
Regionalism
Answer:
(i) Regionalism refers an over-adherence to the language, culture, socio-political structures and economic growth of one’s own region or territory which leads to disregard for people of other regions.

(ii) It is grounded in the uneven industrial and infrastructural development of various regions of the same nation. For example, states like Maharashtra, Gujarat, Punjab and Tamil Nadu are well developed economically and industrially, whereas states like Odisha, Bihar, Assam, have remained undeveloped economically and industrially.

(iii) The disparity in availability of education, employment and other civic amenities between developed and backward regions of the country leads to regionalism.

(iv) The people of economically backward states often feel neglected and deprived, whereas the people of developed states might become narrow-minded and refuse to share the benefits of their development.

3. Give reasons:

Question 1.
It became necessary to carry out Operation Blue Star.
Answer:
(i) In 1980, the movement for ‘Independent Khalistan’ took root in Punjab.

(ii) During that period, the leader of the Akali Dal was Sant Harcharan Singh Longowal. He used to direct his activists from the Golden Temple to stage protests.

(iii) On the other side of the Golden Temple, armed followers started gathering around the staunch Khalistan supporter Sant Jamail Singh Bhindranwale. During that period, terrorist activities had begun.

(iv) Bhindranwale was arrested in 1981, accused of the murder of newspaper editor, Lala Jagatnarayan. After this incident, the situation worsened.

(v) Due to these developments, President’s rule was imposed in Punjab in 1983.

(vi) Bhindranwale went to stay at a religious place called Akal Takht.

(vii) Bhindranwale’s followers captured the Golden Temple and built a barricade of sand bags over there. The area looked like a fort.

(viii) This greatly disturbed peace in Punjab. It was a major challenge to Indian democracy.

Question 2.
We should fight communalism with all our strength.
Answer:
(i) It is necessary that we all counter religious communalism with all our strength.
(ii) For this to become a reality, we should mix with people of different religions. We should accept the good practices and ideas of each other.
(iii) We should be able to look at and understand our economic and social problems rationally. We should not mix these issues with religion.
(iv) We should look for the economic, political or historical reasons that are responsible for disrupting religious harmony.
(v) This is the only way to put an end to communalism and to strengthen national unity.

4. Write the full forms:

Question 1.
NEFA
Answer:
North East Frontier Agency
Question 2.
MNF
Answer:
Mizo National Front

Question 3.
NNC
Answer:
Naga National Council

Class 9 History Chapter 3 India’s Internal Challenges Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
Akali Dal was the major political party of _______, which came to power in 1977.
(a) Haryana
(b) Punjab
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Gujarat
Answer:
Punjab

Question 2.
Akali Dal demanded ‘Holy City’ status for _______.
(a) Jalandhar
(b) Bhatinda
(c) Chandigarh
(d) Amritsar
Answer:
Amritsar

Question 3.
During the movement for ‘Independent Khalistan’ ______ was the leader of Akali Dal.
(a) Sant Jamail Singh Bhindranwale
(b) Sant Harcharan Singh
(c) Major General Shahbeg Singh
(d) Major General Kuldeep Singh Brar
Answer:
Sant Harcharan Singh

Question 4.
On the morning of 3rd June 1984, mission _____ started.
(a) Operation Blue Star
(b) Operation Black Thunder
(c) Operation Vijay
(d) Operation Smiling Buddha
Answer:
Operation Blue Star

Question 5.
The north-east consists of ____ states.
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 5
Answer:
8

Question 6.
In 1954, NEFA comprised of the territories on the ______ border and tribal areas towards the north of Assam.
(a) Indo-Pak
(b) Sino-Indian
(c) Indo-Nepalese
(d) Indo-Bhutanese
Answer:
Sino-Indian

Question 7.
In 1965, the responsibility of administering the north-east regions of India was given to _______.
(a) Defence Ministry
(b) Ministry of External Affairs
(c) President of India
(d) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
Ministry of External Affairs

Question 8.
When India became independent, the government gave administrative autonomy to the districts of ______ majority areas of Lushai Hills.
(a) Naga
(b) Ahom
(c) Mizo
(d) Assamese
Answer:
Mizo

Question 9.
In 1961, Laldenga established the _______.
(a) All Assam Students Union
(b) Asom Gana Sangram Parishad
(c) Mizo National Front
(d) Naga National Council
Answer:
Mizo National Front

Question 10.
The Naga Tribe in north-east India was known to be a _____ tribe.
(a) nomadic
(b) pastoral
(c) martial
(d) ethnic
Answer:
martial

Question 11.
Naga National Council was led by ________.
(a) Prafullakumar Mohanto
(b) Laldenga
(c) Vizar Angami
(d) Angami Zapu Fizo
Answer:
Angami Zapu Fizo

Question 12.
The intense agitation of 1983 in Assam was staged over the question of _____.
(a) Exploitation by the landlords
(b) Bengali migrants from Bangladesh
(c) Autonomy in Assam
(d) Naxalites
Answer:
Bengali migrants from Bangladesh

Question 13.
On 20th February 1987, _______ got the status of a constituent state.
(a) Manipur
(b) Nagaland
(c) Assam
(d) Arunachal Pradesh
Answer:
Arunachal Pradesh

Question 14.
The Naxalite movement started at Naxalbari in ______ district.
(a) Darjeeling
(b) Hojai
(c) Bishnupur
(d)Tuensang
Answer:
Darjeeling

Question 15.
The Naxalites established an organisation called _____.
(a) North-east Frontier Agency
(b) People’s Liberation Guerilla Army
(c) Mizo National Front
(d) Naga National Council
Answer:
People’s Liberation Guerilla Army

Identify and write the wrong pair in the following sets:

Question 1.
(1) Greater Mizoram – Mizo National Front
(2) Aanandpur Sahib Resolution – Akali Dal
(3) Action Committees – Communalism
(4) Operation Blue Star – Kuldeep Singh Brar
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Action Committees – Communalism

Question 2.
(1) Laldenga – Chief Minister of Mizoram
(2) Lala Jagatnarayan – Naxalite
(3) Prafullakumar Mahanta-Assam Ganaparishad
(4) Jamail Singh Bhindranwale – Independent Khalistan
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Lala Jagatnarayan – Naxalite

Question 3.
(1) 1973 – Anandpur Sahib Resolution
(2) 1954 – NEFA became Arunachal Pradesh
(3) 1972 – Mizo areas got the status of Union Territory
(4) 1961 – Mizo National Front was established
Answer:
Wrong Pair: 1954 – NEFA became Arunachal Pradesh

Write the full form of the following acronyms:

Question 1.
PLGA
Answer:
People’s Liberation Guerilla Army

Do as directed

Question 1.
Complete the table using the information of Naxalite areas of activity provided in the chapter:
Answer:

(1)	East Godavari	Andhra Pradesh
(2)	Adilabad, Bastar Rajnandangaon and Sukma	Chhattisgarh
(3)	Balaghat and Mandala	Madhya Pradesh
(4)	Gadchiroli, Bhandara, parts of Chandrapur	Maharashtra
(5)	Koraput	Odisha
(6)	Parts of Vishakhapatnam and Karimnagar	Telangana

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Military action was taken to suppress the skirmishes of Naga activists.
Answer:
(i) In 1946, some’ educated Naga youth established an organisation called Naga National Council (NNC).
(ii) Later they made a demand for an independent state of Nagaland. They were led by Angami Zapu Fizo.
(iii) In 1954, the Naga National Council announced the establishment of an independent federation of Nagaland.
(iv) In 1955, skirmishes took place between local Nagas and the soldiers of the Assam Rifles. Military action was therefore taken to suppress the skirmishes (clashes).

Question 2.
The Naxalites established an organisation called PLGA.
Answer:
(i) The Naxalite Movement originated from Darjeeling, West Bengal, to raise a voice against the exploitation of farmers by the landlords and to confiscate the lands of the landlords and distribute it amongst the tenants.

(ii) Later, the Naxalites took to terrorism and started a parallel system by rejecting democracy, thereby threatening the internal security of India.

(iii) The movement was mainly located in West Bengal.

(iv) Later, the movement spread to East Godavari in Andhra Pradesh and parts of Vishakhapattanam, Karimnagar in Telangana, Adilabad, Bastar, Rajnandangaon and Sukma in Chhattisgarh, Gadchiroli, Bhandara and parts of Chandrapur in Maharashtra, Balaghat and Mandala in Madhya Pradesh and Koraput in Odisha.

(v) In order to maintain their influence, the Naxalites established an organisation called People’s Liberation Guerilla Army (PLGA). This conflict is still going on.

Question 3.
Fanaticism is the base of communalism.
Answer:
(i) Communalism is a serious threat to the unity of our country. Communalism emerges out of narrow religious pride.
(ii) But when this pride becomes excessive, then it turns into bigotry.
(iii) Each one then begins to consider their religion superior and others’ inferior. This leads to religious fanaticism which is the base of communalism.

Question 4.
Regionalism thrives on regional imbalance in development.
Answer:
(i) In the post-independence period, some states achieved more progress, while some states remained backward.
(ii) States that develop economically can also achieve progress in other areas like education, health and culture.
(iii) The states which have not developed in this manner remain backward in education and civic amenities.
(iv) They are harassed by problems of education, backwardness, unemployment and poverty, etc.
(v) They begin to think that they are being cheated; they are being kept away from the benefits of development.
(vi) Because of this, the understanding between states is broken. This in turn, has a negative impact on national unity.

Question 5.
Skirmishes took place between local Nagas and the soldiers of Assam Rifles.
Answer:
(i) In 1946, some educated Naga youth established an organisation called Naga National Council (NNC).
(ii) Later, they made a demand for an independent State of Nagaland. They were led by Angami Zapu Fizo.
(iii) In 1954, the Naga National Council announced the establishment of an independent federation of Nagaland. In 1955, skirmishes happened between local Nagas and the soldiers of the Assam Rifles.

Question 6.
Naxalite movements are a threat to internal insecurity.
Answer:
(i) The movement had the objectives of establishing Action Committees to raise a voice against the exploitation of the farmers by the landlords and confiscate the land of the landlords and distribute it among the tenants.

(ii) Later, the movement strayed away from its objectives. It took recourse to terrorism to prevent any government schemes and welfare policies from reaching the common people.

(iii) The Naxalites started a parallel system by rejecting the democratic system. This made Naxalism a serious challenge to India’s internal security.

Answer the following:

Question 1.
Which event prompted the arrest of Jamailsingh Bhindranwale?
Answer:
Bhindranwale was arrested in 1981, accused of the murder of newspaper editor, Lala Jagatnarayan. After this incident, the situation in Punjab worsened.

Question 2.
Name the constituent states of the north-east of India.
Answer:
North-east India consists of the eight states of Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim and Tripura.

Question 3.
What made the Mizo leaders demand autonomy for their province?
Answer:
(i) When India became independent, the government gave administrative autonomy to the districts of Mizo majority areas of the Lushai hills.
(ii) When the States Reorganisation Commission was appointed in 1954, the expectations of the people in this area grew. That is when the Mizo leaders started demanding an autonomous ‘Mizo’ province.

Question 4.
What do you mean by ‘Operation Black Thunder’?
Answer:
In 1986, an operation has to be conducted against terrorists in the Golden Temple. It was called ‘Operation Black Thunder’.

Question 5.
What was the objective of Naxalite Action Committees?
Answer:
The Naxalite movement had the objective of establishing Action Committees to raise a voice against the exploitation of the farmers by the landlords and to confiscate the lands of the landlords and distribute them among the tenants.

Read the following passages and answer the questions:

Passage: I

Mizoram : The tribes in north-east India have an ancient history. When India became independent, the government gave administrative autonomy to the districts of Mizo majority areas of the Lushai hills, When the States Reorganisation Commission was i ! appointed in 1954, the expectations of the people in this area grew.Mizo leaders started demanding an autonomous ‘Mizo’ province. In 1959 the territory of Mizoram experienced severe drought. During this famine, Mizo , leader Laldenga served the common people a lot. In 1961, Laldenga established an organisation called Mizo National Front (MNF). He asked for ‘Greater Mizoram’, an independent nation carved out of Tripura, Manipur and Mizo majority areas from the Lushai hills.
In March 1966, Mizo National Front announced the emergence of Independent Mizoram. Prime Minister , Indira Gandhi handled the situation firmly and suppressed the rebellion. When the situation calmed down in 1972, the Mizo majority area was given the status of a Union Territory. In 1985, Prime Minister , Rajiv Gandhi had an agreement with the Mizo National Front and Mizoram was given the status of a full-fledged State. Laldenga became the Chief Minister of the State.

Question 1.
Which areas in north-east eventually formed the state of Mizoram?
Answer:
Mizo majority areas of Lushai Hills formed the State of Mizoram.

Question 2.
Name the leading party of Mizoram.
Answer:
Mizo National Front.

Question 3.
Which operation was carried in 1986 against the terrorists in the Golden Temple?
Answer:
Operation ‘Black Thunder’

Passage: II

Nagaland: The Naga tribe in northeast India is known as a martial tribe. The Naga tribe had settled in Eastern Himalayas, the Naga hills, border areas of Assam and Myanmar. In 1946, some educated Naga youth established an organisation called Naga National Council (NNC). Later they made a demand for an independent State of Nagaland. They were led by Angami Zapu’Fizo. In 1954, the Naga National Council announced the establishment of an independent ,federation of Nagaland. In 1955, skirmishes happened between local Nagas and the soldiers of the Assam Rifles. Military action was taken to suppress the , skirmishes. Several rounds of discussions took place between the Central Government and the Naga National Council. Central Government decided , to give the Naga majority territory the status of a Union Territory. Nagaland was made a fullfledged State on 1st December 1963 by putting together the Naga majority territory and part of Tuensang.

Question 1.
Who was the leader of Naga National Council?
Answer:
Angami Zapu Fizo.

Question 2.
Which areas does Nagaland comprise of?
Answer:
Tribes residing in the eastern Himalayas, Naga Hills and on the border areas of Assam and Myanmar emerged as Nagaland. A part of Tuensang was also added to it later.

Question 3.
Which territory in the North-East eventually formed the state of Nagaland?
Answer:
Nagaland was made a fullfledged State on 1st December 1963 by putting together the Naga majority territory and part of Tuensang.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
President’s rule was imposed in Punjab in 1983. Why?
Answer:
(i) In 1980, the movement for ‘Independent Khalistari took root in Punjab.

(ii) During that period, the leader of the Akali Dal was Sant Harcharan Singh Longowal. He used to direct his activists from the Golden Temple to stage protests.

(iii) On the other side of the Golden Temple, armed followers started gathering around the staunch Khalistan supporter Sant Jamail Singh Bhindranwale. During that period, terrorist activities had begun.

(iv) Bhindranwale was arrested in 1981, accused of the murder of newspaper editor, Lala Jagatnarayan.

(v) After this incident, the situation worsened. Due to these developments, President’s rule was imposed in Punjab in 1983.

Question 2.
Which states does north-east India comprise of and in what respects are they different from each other?
Answer:
(i) North-east India consists of the eight states of Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim and Tripura.
(ii) International borders of India touch each of the states to varying extents.
(iii) These states are different with respect to ethnicity, language and cultural diversity.

Question 3.
State the role of Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru in the assimilation of the north-eastern states into the mainstream of the country.
Answer:
(i) The first Prime Minister of independent India took the lead in bringing the tribes living in these areas into the mainstream of the country.

(ii) In 1954, he formed the North-East Frontier Agency (NEFA) area, comprising of the territories on the Sino-Indian border and the tribal areas towards the north of Assam.

(iii) Nehru took the position of bringing about the development of hundreds of tribes in these parts while preserving their culture.

Question 4.
State the constitutional measures taken by the government to assimilate north-east India into the mainstream.
Answer:
(i) Special provisions have been made with respect to these areas in the VI Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
(ii) In 1965, the responsibility of administering this area was given to the Ministry of External Affairs.
(iii) The Northeastern Council Act of 1971 was supposed to advise the Central Government regarding aspects of common interest in economic and social spheres, inter-state transport, electricity, flood control, etc.

Question 5.
What is the role of Mizo leader, Laldenga in emergence of independent Mizoram?
Answer:
(i) In 1959 the territory of Mizoram experienced severe drought. During this famine, Mizo leader Laldenga served the common people a lot.

(ii) In 1961, Laldenga established an organisation called Mizo National Front (MNF).

(iii) He asked for’ Greater Mizoram’, an independent nation carved out of Tripura, Manipur and Mizo majority areas from the Lushai hills.

(iv) In March 1966, Mizo National Front announced the emergence of Independent Mizoram.

(v) In 1985, Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi had an agreement with the Mizo National Front and Mizoram was given the status of a full-fledged state. Laldenga became the Chief Minister of the State.

Question 6.
Describe the establishment of democracy and peace in Assam.
Answer:
(i) In 1985, Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi, Central Home Minister Shankarrao Chavan and Assamese leader Prafullakumar Mohanto signed an Accord.

(ii) It was dedded to that the Bangladeshi dtizens who had infiltrated in Assam would be sent back to their original places.

(iii) In 1986, elections were held for Assam Legislative Assembly and Prafullakumar Mohanto, of the Asom Ganaparishad became the new Chief Minister. Due to this democratic process, it became possible to establish peace in Assam.

Question 7.
What are the features of religious fanaticism?
Answer:
(i) People of different religions don’t trust each other. They become suspidous of each other.

(ii) Compatriots following different religions are looked at as enemies. Even commensality or coming together on festivals becomes rare.

(iii) The perspective of looking at events and people is prejudiced. Some people begin to think of economic and sodal questions from within the framework of their own religion.

(iv) Some people might think that since they belong to a particular religion, they have no influence in politics. They begin to believe that they are being treated unjustly. They hold the idea that the government is against their religion.

Question 8.
Regionalism can affect developed as well as undeveloped states. Justify the statement.
Answer:
(i) The people of developed states begin to believe that they are superior due to their superior history and culture.

(ii) They then begin to look down upon people of underdeveloped regions. They are not willing to share the benefits of development with backward states.

(iii) On the other hand, the people from backward areas arouse their regional identity to organise themselves. For this, they try to unnecessarily glorify local traditions and culture to prove their uniqueness.

Question 9.
What do you mean by ‘Operation Blue Star’?
Answer:
(i) Operation Blue Star was a military action of getting the terrorists out of the Golden temple. This operation was entrusted to Major General Kuldeep Singh Brar.

(ii) On the morning of 3rd June 1984, the mission ‘Operation Blue Star’ started. The Operation ended on 6th June.

Question 10.
Which events from the Golden Temple in 1980 disturbed the peace in Punjab?
Answer:
(i) In 1980, the movement for ‘Independent Khalistan’ took root in Punjab. During that period, the leader of the Akali Dal was Sant Harcharan Singh Longowal. He used to direct his activists from the Golden Temple to stage protests.

(ii) On the other side of the Golden Temple, armed followers started gathering around the staunch Khalistan supporter Sant Jarnail Singh Bhindranwale. During that period, terrorist activities had begun.