Class 9

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Introduction to Economics Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Introduction to Economics

Class 9 Geography Chapter 8 Introduction to Economics Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Explain the types of economies by filling correct information in the place of questions in the circle.

Answer:

2. Give an explanation:

Question 1.
The economy begins at home.
Answer:

• Household finance is related to income and expenditure.
• Every household has unlimited expenditure and the income earned is limited.
• The household has to make a choice regarding how it has to spend its limited resources.
• Management of this limited income to meet the unlimited expenses is Economics.
• As we manage the finance of our family, similarly the villages/cities, states, countries and the whole world needs to have economic management. So we say Economy begins at home.

Question 2.
India’s economy is of mixed type.
Answer:

• Mixed economy is a combination of Capitalism and Socialism.
• India is said to be a Mixed economy because there is a co-existence of both public and the private sectors.
• The private sector undertakes production for the profit motive, whereas the state tries to achieve social welfare.
• India, therefore, tries to achieve a balance between maximum social welfare for its citizens on one hand and profit on the other. Therefore, India’s economy is of Mixed type.

Question 3.
On the basis of economies, we can divide countries into three groups.
Answer:
The activities related to the production, distribution and consumption of goods and services in a specific region is called economy. On the basis of economies, countries are divided into three groups. Capitalist Economy, Socialist Economy and Mixed Economy.

1. Capitalistic Economy is a kind of economy in which the means of production is in the hands of the private sector, e.g. Germany, Japan, the U.S.A.
2. Socialist Economy is a kind of economy in which the means of production belongs to the society i.e. the government’s control, e.g. China, Russia.
3. Mixed Economy is a kind of economy in which there is a co-existence of both private and public sectors, e.g. India, Sweden, the U.K.

3. Write the following questions in one line:

Question 1.
To which economic factor is the management of individual or family finances related?
Answer:
Management of individual or family finances is related to the economic factor of ‘income and expenditure.

Question 2.
From which Greek word is the term ‘Economics’ derived?
Answer:
The word ‘Economics’ is derived from the Greek word ‘Oikonomia’ which means family management.

Question 3.
In a capitalistic economy, to whom does the ownership and management of means of production belong?
Answer:
In a Capitalistic Economy, the ownership and management of means of production belong to the private sector.

Question 4.
What do you mean by globalisation?
Answer:
Globalisation means aligning the country’s economy with the world economy.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 8 Introduction to Economics Intext Questions and Answers

Can you tell?
Suppose this is your expenditure this month and your monthly income is? 20,000. To strike a balance between your income and your expenditure, decide that will be your preferences for expenditure.

Rewrite the table according to your preferences and discuss in class.

Sr.No.	—	Estimated Expenditure (₹)
1.	Daily food	6,000
2.	Buying two sets of Uniform	2,000
3.	School Stationery	500
4.	Medical expenditure	450
5.	Recreation	500
6.	Mobile Bill	1,000
7.	Vegetables, Fruits, etc.	1,000
8.	Public transport (bus, railway, rick-shaw, etc.)	2,600
9.	Electricity Bill	1,500
10.	Tourism	4,000
11.	Bank Installment	3,000
	Total Expenditure	22,550

Answer:
Income And Expenditure Statement

• Preferences have been rearranged to their urgency.
• Most urgent wants are placed on the top. Least urgent wants are placed at the bottom.
• Expenses have been cut down wherever possible.
• Money spent on tourism is nil.
• Mobile bill has been reduced to? 500 from? 1000.
• And Savings equals? 3000.

Can you do it?

Question 1.
Suppose you are the finance minister of an agrarian country. Giving priority to the overall development of the country, make a five-point program.
Answer:
As a Finance Minister of an Agrarian country like India, I would focus on transforming India in five areas:

• Modernization of agriculture, encouragement to export-oriented agro-processing industries.
• Education, skill-building, and healthcare.
• Information and communication technology.
• Infrastructure development for rural industrialization.
• Spirit of Entrepreneurship.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 8 Introduction to Economics Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the statements choosing the correct option:

Question 1.
The term economics’ is derived from Greek word
(a) oikomonia
(b) oikonomica
(c) oikonomia
(d) oikonomics
Answer:
(c) oikonomia

Question 2.
China and Russia have adopted type of economy.
(a) Socialistic
(b) Capitalistic
(c) Mixed
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Socialistic

Question 3.
The main motive of a economy is to earn profit.
(a) Mixed
(b) Capitalistic
(c) Simple
(d) Socialistic
Answer:
(b) Capitalistic

Question 4.
The main aim of Socialistic economy is to achieve
(a) social welfare
(b) profit
(c) injustice
(d) tolerance
Answer:
(a) social welfare

Question 5.
Germany is an example of a country which has adopted economy.
(a) Simple
(b) Socialistic
(c) Mixed
(d) Capitalistic
Answer:
(d) Capitalistic

Question 6.
Adam Smith has defined economics as the
(a) science of knowledge
(b) science of wealth
(c) science of peace
(d) science of needs
Answer:
(b) science of wealth

Question 7.
means making the country’s economy aligned with world economy.
(a) Liberalisation
(b) Privatisation
(c) Globalisation
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Globalisation

Question 8.
Economics is an important science.
(a) social
(b) political
(c) physical
(d) alternative
Answer:
(a) social

Question 9.
One of the main functions of the economy is to the production cost
(a) maximize
(b) inflate
(c) increase
(d) minimize
Answer:
(d) minimize

Question 10.
An economy strives to create a balance between resources and needs.
(a) unlimited, limited
(b) limited, unlimited
(c) plentiful, limited
(d) limited, scarce
Answer:
(b) limited, unlimited

Question 11.
is known as the Father of Economics.
(a) Lionel Robbins
(b) Prof. Samuelson
(c) Amartya Sen
(d) Adam Smith
Answer:
(d) Adam Smith

Question 12.
Economics is a science which studies human behaviour as a relationship between and scarce which have alternative uses.
(a) means, ends
(b) people, resources
(c) money, land
(d) ends, means
Answer:
(d) ends, means

Question 13.
We understand from economics, how to use, money, land and effectively.
(a) minerals, factory
(b) time, labour
(c) food grains, machines
(d) people, power
Answer:
(b) time, labour

Question 14.
On a global level, there are types of economies.
(a) four
(b) two
(c) three
(d) five
Answer:
(c) three

Question 15.
economy is a borderless economy.
(a) State
(b) Town
(c) Village
(d) World
Answer:
(d) World

Question 16.
In Globalisation, there is trade and all restrictions on are set aside.
(a) restricted, economy
(b) free, investments
(c) no, activity
(d) zero, labour
Answer:
(b) free, investments

Match the column

Group A	Group B
(1) Capitalist economy	(a) India
(2) Socialist economy	(b) USA
(3) Mixed economy	(c) Russia

Answer:
(1 – b),
(2 – c),
(3 – a)

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question 1.
Define Economics.
Answer:
According to Lionel Robbins, “Economics is a science which studies human behaviour as a relationship between ends and scarce means which have alternative uses”.

Question 2.
What is an Economy?
Answer:
The activities related to the production, distribution and consumption of goods and services in a specific region is called an economy.

Question 3.
What is a Capitalistic Economy?
Answer:
The economy in which the ownership and management of the means of production is in the hands of private individuals is called as a Capitalistic Economy.

Question 4.
What is the main aim of a Capitalistic Economy?
Answer:
The main aim of a Capitalistic Economy is to earn maximum profit.

Question 5.
Which countries have adopted Capitalistic Economy?
Answer:
Germany, Japan and USA are the examples of countries which have adopted Capitalistic economy.

Question 6.
What do you mean by Socialistic economy?
Answer:
The economy in which the means of production belong to the society as a whole i.e. the government’s control is known as a Socialistic economy.

Question 7.
What is the main aim of a Socialistic economy?
Answer:
The main aim of a Socialistic economy is to achieve social welfare.

Question 8.
Name Adam Smith’s book and year of publication.
Answer:
Adam Smith’s book is titled ‘Wealth of Nations/ and was published in 1776.

Question 9.
What are the types of economy at the global level?
Answer:
Capitalist, Socialist and Mixed Economy are the types of economy at the global level

Question 10.
Which economist is known as Father of Economics?
Answer:
Adam Smith is known as Father of Economics.

Question 11.
How does Adam Smith describe Economics in his ‘Wealth of Nations’?
Answer:
In the book ‘Wealth of Nations’ Adam Smith describes Economics as ‘the science of wealth’.

Question 12.
What is the World Economy?
Answer:
World Economy is a borderless economy in which natural resources, profit, services, capital, labour and technology flow freely across the countries.

Distinguish between Capitalist Economy and Socialist Economy.
Answer:

Capitalist Economy	Socialist Economy
(i) Ownership and management of means of production is in the hands of the private individuals. (ii) To earn maximum profit is the main aim of the Capitalist Economy. (iii) The USA, Germany and Japan have Capitalist Economy.	The means of production belong to the society as a whole and are under the control of the government. To achieve social welfare is the main aim of the Socialist Economy. Russia and China have Socialist Economy.

Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the functions of an economy.
Answer:
Every country has a different economy. But the main functions of an economy are similar. Some of the main functions of an economy are:

• Deciding the product and quantity of its production.
• Deciding for whom will the goods be produced.
• Minimising the production costs as much as possible.
• Distributing national income1 according to social and economic justice2.
• Making appropriate provisions3 for the economic needs of the future.

Question 2.
Explain the importance of Economics.
Answer:
Economics is an important Social Science Subject.

• We use Economics on a large scale in agriculture, trade, finance, administration, law and in our daily life.
• Economics holds a paramount4 importance in the overall social development of humans.

Question 3.
Name the factors affecting an economy.
Answer:
The factors affecting an economy are:

• Geographical area and natural resources.
• Population
• Occupations
• Political Sovereignty

Question 4.
Write a description of Economics given by Lionel Robbins.
Answer:

• According to Lionel Robbins, “Economics is a science which studies human behaviour as a relationship between ends and scarce means which have alternative uses”.
• Since human wants are unlimited their priority is determined.
• The satisfaction of the basic needs are given priority.
• A scarce resource like land can be used either for agriculture or industries or development of infrastructure.
• In this way, Economics studies human behaviour related to unlimited wants with limited resources that have alternative uses.

Question 5.
Explain the nature of the Capitalist Economy.
Answer:

• The ownership and control of means of production is in the hands of the private individuals in the Capitalist Economy.
• There is no control of the government over economic activities in their ‘Free Market Economy’.
• The objective of economic activities is to earn maximum profit.
• The capitalist economy exists in Germany, Japan and the USA.

Question 6.
Explain the nature of the Socialist Economy.
Answer:

• There is no private ownership of the means of production as these belong to the society as a whole.
• There is total control of the State over the economy.
• The objective of the economic activities is the fulfilment of social needs (social welfare).
• Socialist economy exists in Russia and China.

Question 7.
What are the main features (components) of the economy?
Answer:

1. The economy is a system related to the production, distribution and consumption of goods and services in a specific region.
2. The main features of an economy are :
   • Well defined geographical area.
   • Population, i.e. the people living within that geographical area and undertaking various economic activities.
   • Natural resources to undertake economic activities.
   • Political sovereignty that exercises control over the economy.

Question 8.
Explain the nature of globalisation.
Answer:

• Globalisation means aligning the economy of the country with the world economy.
• There is free trade and all restrictions on (foreign) investments are set aside.
• There is free flow of natural resources, profit, services, capital, labour and technology across the world.
• The aim is to establish a borderless economy.
• The recent economic policies of the government are leading the economy towards globalisation.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 3 India’s Internal Challenges Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 3 India’s Internal Challenges

Class 9 History Chapter 3 India’s Internal Challenges Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Write briefly.

Question 1.
Which demands were put forward through the ‘Anandpur Sahib Resolution’ by the Akali Dal?
OR
Which demands were raised by the Akali Dal through the ‘Anandpur Sahib Resolution’?
Answer:
In 1973, the Akali Dal passed the ‘Aanandpur Sahib Resolution’. The following demands were made in this resolution:
(i) Chandigarh should be made part of Punjab.
(ii) The Punjabi speaking parts in other states should be included in the state of Punjab,
(iii) Recruitment of people from Punjab in the Indian army should be increased.
(iv) More autonomy should be given to the state of Punjab.

Question 2.
What can we do to end communalism?
Answer:
(i) It is necessary that we all counter communalism with all our strength. For this, we should mix with people of different religions. We should accept the good practices and ideas of each other.

(ii) We should be able to look at and understand our economic and social problems rationally. We should not mix these matters with religion.

(iii) We should look for the economic, political or historical reasons that are responsible for disrupting religious harmony. This is the only way to put an end to communalism and strengthen national unity.

Question 3.
How does regionalism gain strength/become strong?
Answer:
(i) Regionalism thrives on regional imbalance in development. In the post-independence period, some states achieved more progress, while some states remained backward.

(ii) As a result, the states that develop economically can also achieve progress in other areas like education, health and culture.

(iii) The states which have not developed in this manner remain backward in education and civic amenities. The opportunities of development available to people in developed states are not possible for people in backward states.

(iv) They are troubled by problems of education, backwardness, unemployment, poverty, etc. They begin to think that they are being cheated; they are being kept away from the benefits of development. Because of this, the understanding between states is broken.

(v) The people of developed states begin to believe that they are superior due to their superior history and culture and hence they have developed that much. Then they begin to look down upon the people of underdeveloped regions.

(vi) They are not willing to share the benefits of ‘ development with the backward states.

(vii) On the other hand, the people from backward areas need to arouse their regional identity to organise themselves. For this, they try to unnecessarily glorify local traditions.

2. Explain the following concepts in your own words:

Question 1.
Communalism
Answer:
(i) Communalism is a serious threat to the unity of our country. It emerges out of narrow religious pride.

(ii) Fanaticism is the base of communalism. It makes one oblivious to national interest. Fanaticism makes the perspective of looking at events and people prejudiced.

(iii) Some people begin to think of economic and social questions in the framework of their own religion. They hold the idea that government is partial towards their religion.

(iv) If anybody speaks about their religion or insults their religious symbols knowingly or unknowingly, riots break out because of this kind of thinking. Hundreds of innocent people are killed. Public peace is destroyed.

Question 2.
Regionalism
Answer:
(i) Regionalism refers an over-adherence to the language, culture, socio-political structures and economic growth of one’s own region or territory which leads to disregard for people of other regions.

(ii) It is grounded in the uneven industrial and infrastructural development of various regions of the same nation. For example, states like Maharashtra, Gujarat, Punjab and Tamil Nadu are well developed economically and industrially, whereas states like Odisha, Bihar, Assam, have remained undeveloped economically and industrially.

(iii) The disparity in availability of education, employment and other civic amenities between developed and backward regions of the country leads to regionalism.

(iv) The people of economically backward states often feel neglected and deprived, whereas the people of developed states might become narrow-minded and refuse to share the benefits of their development.

3. Give reasons:

Question 1.
It became necessary to carry out Operation Blue Star.
Answer:
(i) In 1980, the movement for ‘Independent Khalistan’ took root in Punjab.

(ii) During that period, the leader of the Akali Dal was Sant Harcharan Singh Longowal. He used to direct his activists from the Golden Temple to stage protests.

(iii) On the other side of the Golden Temple, armed followers started gathering around the staunch Khalistan supporter Sant Jamail Singh Bhindranwale. During that period, terrorist activities had begun.

(iv) Bhindranwale was arrested in 1981, accused of the murder of newspaper editor, Lala Jagatnarayan. After this incident, the situation worsened.

(v) Due to these developments, President’s rule was imposed in Punjab in 1983.

(vi) Bhindranwale went to stay at a religious place called Akal Takht.

(vii) Bhindranwale’s followers captured the Golden Temple and built a barricade of sand bags over there. The area looked like a fort.

(viii) This greatly disturbed peace in Punjab. It was a major challenge to Indian democracy.

Question 2.
We should fight communalism with all our strength.
Answer:
(i) It is necessary that we all counter religious communalism with all our strength.
(ii) For this to become a reality, we should mix with people of different religions. We should accept the good practices and ideas of each other.
(iii) We should be able to look at and understand our economic and social problems rationally. We should not mix these issues with religion.
(iv) We should look for the economic, political or historical reasons that are responsible for disrupting religious harmony.
(v) This is the only way to put an end to communalism and to strengthen national unity.

4. Write the full forms:

Question 1.
NEFA
Answer:
North East Frontier Agency
Question 2.
MNF
Answer:
Mizo National Front

Question 3.
NNC
Answer:
Naga National Council

Class 9 History Chapter 3 India’s Internal Challenges Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
Akali Dal was the major political party of _______, which came to power in 1977.
(a) Haryana
(b) Punjab
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Gujarat
Answer:
Punjab

Question 2.
Akali Dal demanded ‘Holy City’ status for _______.
(a) Jalandhar
(b) Bhatinda
(c) Chandigarh
(d) Amritsar
Answer:
Amritsar

Question 3.
During the movement for ‘Independent Khalistan’ ______ was the leader of Akali Dal.
(a) Sant Jamail Singh Bhindranwale
(b) Sant Harcharan Singh
(c) Major General Shahbeg Singh
(d) Major General Kuldeep Singh Brar
Answer:
Sant Harcharan Singh

Question 4.
On the morning of 3rd June 1984, mission _____ started.
(a) Operation Blue Star
(b) Operation Black Thunder
(c) Operation Vijay
(d) Operation Smiling Buddha
Answer:
Operation Blue Star

Question 5.
The north-east consists of ____ states.
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 5
Answer:
8

Question 6.
In 1954, NEFA comprised of the territories on the ______ border and tribal areas towards the north of Assam.
(a) Indo-Pak
(b) Sino-Indian
(c) Indo-Nepalese
(d) Indo-Bhutanese
Answer:
Sino-Indian

Question 7.
In 1965, the responsibility of administering the north-east regions of India was given to _______.
(a) Defence Ministry
(b) Ministry of External Affairs
(c) President of India
(d) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
Ministry of External Affairs

Question 8.
When India became independent, the government gave administrative autonomy to the districts of ______ majority areas of Lushai Hills.
(a) Naga
(b) Ahom
(c) Mizo
(d) Assamese
Answer:
Mizo

Question 9.
In 1961, Laldenga established the _______.
(a) All Assam Students Union
(b) Asom Gana Sangram Parishad
(c) Mizo National Front
(d) Naga National Council
Answer:
Mizo National Front

Question 10.
The Naga Tribe in north-east India was known to be a _____ tribe.
(a) nomadic
(b) pastoral
(c) martial
(d) ethnic
Answer:
martial

Question 11.
Naga National Council was led by ________.
(a) Prafullakumar Mohanto
(b) Laldenga
(c) Vizar Angami
(d) Angami Zapu Fizo
Answer:
Angami Zapu Fizo

Question 12.
The intense agitation of 1983 in Assam was staged over the question of _____.
(a) Exploitation by the landlords
(b) Bengali migrants from Bangladesh
(c) Autonomy in Assam
(d) Naxalites
Answer:
Bengali migrants from Bangladesh

Question 13.
On 20th February 1987, _______ got the status of a constituent state.
(a) Manipur
(b) Nagaland
(c) Assam
(d) Arunachal Pradesh
Answer:
Arunachal Pradesh

Question 14.
The Naxalite movement started at Naxalbari in ______ district.
(a) Darjeeling
(b) Hojai
(c) Bishnupur
(d)Tuensang
Answer:
Darjeeling

Question 15.
The Naxalites established an organisation called _____.
(a) North-east Frontier Agency
(b) People’s Liberation Guerilla Army
(c) Mizo National Front
(d) Naga National Council
Answer:
People’s Liberation Guerilla Army

Identify and write the wrong pair in the following sets:

Question 1.
(1) Greater Mizoram – Mizo National Front
(2) Aanandpur Sahib Resolution – Akali Dal
(3) Action Committees – Communalism
(4) Operation Blue Star – Kuldeep Singh Brar
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Action Committees – Communalism

Question 2.
(1) Laldenga – Chief Minister of Mizoram
(2) Lala Jagatnarayan – Naxalite
(3) Prafullakumar Mahanta-Assam Ganaparishad
(4) Jamail Singh Bhindranwale – Independent Khalistan
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Lala Jagatnarayan – Naxalite

Question 3.
(1) 1973 – Anandpur Sahib Resolution
(2) 1954 – NEFA became Arunachal Pradesh
(3) 1972 – Mizo areas got the status of Union Territory
(4) 1961 – Mizo National Front was established
Answer:
Wrong Pair: 1954 – NEFA became Arunachal Pradesh

Write the full form of the following acronyms:

Question 1.
PLGA
Answer:
People’s Liberation Guerilla Army

Do as directed

Question 1.
Complete the table using the information of Naxalite areas of activity provided in the chapter:
Answer:

(1)	East Godavari	Andhra Pradesh
(2)	Adilabad, Bastar Rajnandangaon and Sukma	Chhattisgarh
(3)	Balaghat and Mandala	Madhya Pradesh
(4)	Gadchiroli, Bhandara, parts of Chandrapur	Maharashtra
(5)	Koraput	Odisha
(6)	Parts of Vishakhapatnam and Karimnagar	Telangana

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Military action was taken to suppress the skirmishes of Naga activists.
Answer:
(i) In 1946, some’ educated Naga youth established an organisation called Naga National Council (NNC).
(ii) Later they made a demand for an independent state of Nagaland. They were led by Angami Zapu Fizo.
(iii) In 1954, the Naga National Council announced the establishment of an independent federation of Nagaland.
(iv) In 1955, skirmishes took place between local Nagas and the soldiers of the Assam Rifles. Military action was therefore taken to suppress the skirmishes (clashes).

Question 2.
The Naxalites established an organisation called PLGA.
Answer:
(i) The Naxalite Movement originated from Darjeeling, West Bengal, to raise a voice against the exploitation of farmers by the landlords and to confiscate the lands of the landlords and distribute it amongst the tenants.

(ii) Later, the Naxalites took to terrorism and started a parallel system by rejecting democracy, thereby threatening the internal security of India.

(iii) The movement was mainly located in West Bengal.

(iv) Later, the movement spread to East Godavari in Andhra Pradesh and parts of Vishakhapattanam, Karimnagar in Telangana, Adilabad, Bastar, Rajnandangaon and Sukma in Chhattisgarh, Gadchiroli, Bhandara and parts of Chandrapur in Maharashtra, Balaghat and Mandala in Madhya Pradesh and Koraput in Odisha.

(v) In order to maintain their influence, the Naxalites established an organisation called People’s Liberation Guerilla Army (PLGA). This conflict is still going on.

Question 3.
Fanaticism is the base of communalism.
Answer:
(i) Communalism is a serious threat to the unity of our country. Communalism emerges out of narrow religious pride.
(ii) But when this pride becomes excessive, then it turns into bigotry.
(iii) Each one then begins to consider their religion superior and others’ inferior. This leads to religious fanaticism which is the base of communalism.

Question 4.
Regionalism thrives on regional imbalance in development.
Answer:
(i) In the post-independence period, some states achieved more progress, while some states remained backward.
(ii) States that develop economically can also achieve progress in other areas like education, health and culture.
(iii) The states which have not developed in this manner remain backward in education and civic amenities.
(iv) They are harassed by problems of education, backwardness, unemployment and poverty, etc.
(v) They begin to think that they are being cheated; they are being kept away from the benefits of development.
(vi) Because of this, the understanding between states is broken. This in turn, has a negative impact on national unity.

Question 5.
Skirmishes took place between local Nagas and the soldiers of Assam Rifles.
Answer:
(i) In 1946, some educated Naga youth established an organisation called Naga National Council (NNC).
(ii) Later, they made a demand for an independent State of Nagaland. They were led by Angami Zapu Fizo.
(iii) In 1954, the Naga National Council announced the establishment of an independent federation of Nagaland. In 1955, skirmishes happened between local Nagas and the soldiers of the Assam Rifles.

Question 6.
Naxalite movements are a threat to internal insecurity.
Answer:
(i) The movement had the objectives of establishing Action Committees to raise a voice against the exploitation of the farmers by the landlords and confiscate the land of the landlords and distribute it among the tenants.

(ii) Later, the movement strayed away from its objectives. It took recourse to terrorism to prevent any government schemes and welfare policies from reaching the common people.

(iii) The Naxalites started a parallel system by rejecting the democratic system. This made Naxalism a serious challenge to India’s internal security.

Answer the following:

Question 1.
Which event prompted the arrest of Jamailsingh Bhindranwale?
Answer:
Bhindranwale was arrested in 1981, accused of the murder of newspaper editor, Lala Jagatnarayan. After this incident, the situation in Punjab worsened.

Question 2.
Name the constituent states of the north-east of India.
Answer:
North-east India consists of the eight states of Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim and Tripura.

Question 3.
What made the Mizo leaders demand autonomy for their province?
Answer:
(i) When India became independent, the government gave administrative autonomy to the districts of Mizo majority areas of the Lushai hills.
(ii) When the States Reorganisation Commission was appointed in 1954, the expectations of the people in this area grew. That is when the Mizo leaders started demanding an autonomous ‘Mizo’ province.

Question 4.
What do you mean by ‘Operation Black Thunder’?
Answer:
In 1986, an operation has to be conducted against terrorists in the Golden Temple. It was called ‘Operation Black Thunder’.

Question 5.
What was the objective of Naxalite Action Committees?
Answer:
The Naxalite movement had the objective of establishing Action Committees to raise a voice against the exploitation of the farmers by the landlords and to confiscate the lands of the landlords and distribute them among the tenants.

Read the following passages and answer the questions:

Passage: I

Mizoram : The tribes in north-east India have an ancient history. When India became independent, the government gave administrative autonomy to the districts of Mizo majority areas of the Lushai hills, When the States Reorganisation Commission was i ! appointed in 1954, the expectations of the people in this area grew.Mizo leaders started demanding an autonomous ‘Mizo’ province. In 1959 the territory of Mizoram experienced severe drought. During this famine, Mizo , leader Laldenga served the common people a lot. In 1961, Laldenga established an organisation called Mizo National Front (MNF). He asked for ‘Greater Mizoram’, an independent nation carved out of Tripura, Manipur and Mizo majority areas from the Lushai hills.
In March 1966, Mizo National Front announced the emergence of Independent Mizoram. Prime Minister , Indira Gandhi handled the situation firmly and suppressed the rebellion. When the situation calmed down in 1972, the Mizo majority area was given the status of a Union Territory. In 1985, Prime Minister , Rajiv Gandhi had an agreement with the Mizo National Front and Mizoram was given the status of a full-fledged State. Laldenga became the Chief Minister of the State.

Question 1.
Which areas in north-east eventually formed the state of Mizoram?
Answer:
Mizo majority areas of Lushai Hills formed the State of Mizoram.

Question 2.
Name the leading party of Mizoram.
Answer:
Mizo National Front.

Question 3.
Which operation was carried in 1986 against the terrorists in the Golden Temple?
Answer:
Operation ‘Black Thunder’

Passage: II

Nagaland: The Naga tribe in northeast India is known as a martial tribe. The Naga tribe had settled in Eastern Himalayas, the Naga hills, border areas of Assam and Myanmar. In 1946, some educated Naga youth established an organisation called Naga National Council (NNC). Later they made a demand for an independent State of Nagaland. They were led by Angami Zapu’Fizo. In 1954, the Naga National Council announced the establishment of an independent ,federation of Nagaland. In 1955, skirmishes happened between local Nagas and the soldiers of the Assam Rifles. Military action was taken to suppress the , skirmishes. Several rounds of discussions took place between the Central Government and the Naga National Council. Central Government decided , to give the Naga majority territory the status of a Union Territory. Nagaland was made a fullfledged State on 1st December 1963 by putting together the Naga majority territory and part of Tuensang.

Question 1.
Who was the leader of Naga National Council?
Answer:
Angami Zapu Fizo.

Question 2.
Which areas does Nagaland comprise of?
Answer:
Tribes residing in the eastern Himalayas, Naga Hills and on the border areas of Assam and Myanmar emerged as Nagaland. A part of Tuensang was also added to it later.

Question 3.
Which territory in the North-East eventually formed the state of Nagaland?
Answer:
Nagaland was made a fullfledged State on 1st December 1963 by putting together the Naga majority territory and part of Tuensang.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
President’s rule was imposed in Punjab in 1983. Why?
Answer:
(i) In 1980, the movement for ‘Independent Khalistari took root in Punjab.

(ii) During that period, the leader of the Akali Dal was Sant Harcharan Singh Longowal. He used to direct his activists from the Golden Temple to stage protests.

(iii) On the other side of the Golden Temple, armed followers started gathering around the staunch Khalistan supporter Sant Jamail Singh Bhindranwale. During that period, terrorist activities had begun.

(iv) Bhindranwale was arrested in 1981, accused of the murder of newspaper editor, Lala Jagatnarayan.

(v) After this incident, the situation worsened. Due to these developments, President’s rule was imposed in Punjab in 1983.

Question 2.
Which states does north-east India comprise of and in what respects are they different from each other?
Answer:
(i) North-east India consists of the eight states of Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim and Tripura.
(ii) International borders of India touch each of the states to varying extents.
(iii) These states are different with respect to ethnicity, language and cultural diversity.

Question 3.
State the role of Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru in the assimilation of the north-eastern states into the mainstream of the country.
Answer:
(i) The first Prime Minister of independent India took the lead in bringing the tribes living in these areas into the mainstream of the country.

(ii) In 1954, he formed the North-East Frontier Agency (NEFA) area, comprising of the territories on the Sino-Indian border and the tribal areas towards the north of Assam.

(iii) Nehru took the position of bringing about the development of hundreds of tribes in these parts while preserving their culture.

Question 4.
State the constitutional measures taken by the government to assimilate north-east India into the mainstream.
Answer:
(i) Special provisions have been made with respect to these areas in the VI Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
(ii) In 1965, the responsibility of administering this area was given to the Ministry of External Affairs.
(iii) The Northeastern Council Act of 1971 was supposed to advise the Central Government regarding aspects of common interest in economic and social spheres, inter-state transport, electricity, flood control, etc.

Question 5.
What is the role of Mizo leader, Laldenga in emergence of independent Mizoram?
Answer:
(i) In 1959 the territory of Mizoram experienced severe drought. During this famine, Mizo leader Laldenga served the common people a lot.

(ii) In 1961, Laldenga established an organisation called Mizo National Front (MNF).

(iii) He asked for’ Greater Mizoram’, an independent nation carved out of Tripura, Manipur and Mizo majority areas from the Lushai hills.

(iv) In March 1966, Mizo National Front announced the emergence of Independent Mizoram.

(v) In 1985, Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi had an agreement with the Mizo National Front and Mizoram was given the status of a full-fledged state. Laldenga became the Chief Minister of the State.

Question 6.
Describe the establishment of democracy and peace in Assam.
Answer:
(i) In 1985, Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi, Central Home Minister Shankarrao Chavan and Assamese leader Prafullakumar Mohanto signed an Accord.

(ii) It was dedded to that the Bangladeshi dtizens who had infiltrated in Assam would be sent back to their original places.

(iii) In 1986, elections were held for Assam Legislative Assembly and Prafullakumar Mohanto, of the Asom Ganaparishad became the new Chief Minister. Due to this democratic process, it became possible to establish peace in Assam.

Question 7.
What are the features of religious fanaticism?
Answer:
(i) People of different religions don’t trust each other. They become suspidous of each other.

(ii) Compatriots following different religions are looked at as enemies. Even commensality or coming together on festivals becomes rare.

(iii) The perspective of looking at events and people is prejudiced. Some people begin to think of economic and sodal questions from within the framework of their own religion.

(iv) Some people might think that since they belong to a particular religion, they have no influence in politics. They begin to believe that they are being treated unjustly. They hold the idea that the government is against their religion.

Question 8.
Regionalism can affect developed as well as undeveloped states. Justify the statement.
Answer:
(i) The people of developed states begin to believe that they are superior due to their superior history and culture.

(ii) They then begin to look down upon people of underdeveloped regions. They are not willing to share the benefits of development with backward states.

(iii) On the other hand, the people from backward areas arouse their regional identity to organise themselves. For this, they try to unnecessarily glorify local traditions and culture to prove their uniqueness.

Question 9.
What do you mean by ‘Operation Blue Star’?
Answer:
(i) Operation Blue Star was a military action of getting the terrorists out of the Golden temple. This operation was entrusted to Major General Kuldeep Singh Brar.

(ii) On the morning of 3rd June 1984, the mission ‘Operation Blue Star’ started. The Operation ended on 6th June.

Question 10.
Which events from the Golden Temple in 1980 disturbed the peace in Punjab?
Answer:
(i) In 1980, the movement for ‘Independent Khalistan’ took root in Punjab. During that period, the leader of the Akali Dal was Sant Harcharan Singh Longowal. He used to direct his activists from the Golden Temple to stage protests.

(ii) On the other side of the Golden Temple, armed followers started gathering around the staunch Khalistan supporter Sant Jarnail Singh Bhindranwale. During that period, terrorist activities had begun.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 7 Science and Technology Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 7 Science and Technology

Class 9 History Chapter 7 Science and Technology Textbook Questions and Answers

1.A Choose the right option and rewrite the sentence:

Question 1.
_______ was named as the first Chairman of Atomic Energy Commission.
(a) Dr Homi Bhabha
(b) Dr Homi Sethna
(c) Dr A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(d) Dr Raja Ramanna
Answer:
(a) Dr Homi Bhabha

Question 2.
________ was the first completely indigenous communication satellite made by ISRO.
(a) Aryabhatta
(b) Insat 1 B
(c) Rohini-75
(d) APPLE
Answer:
(d) APPLE

B. Identify the wrong pair:

Question 1.
(1) Prithvi – Surface-to-Surface ballistic missile
(2) Agni – Surface-to-Sea ballistic missile
(3) Akash – Surface-to-Air missile
(4) Nag – anti-tank missile
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Agni – Surface-to-Sea ballistic missile

2A. Prepare a timeline of the progress of India in science and technology:

Question .1

Answer:

B. Explain the following concepts:

Question 1.
Space research
Answer:
(i) In 1961, Indian National Committee for Space Research (NCSR) launched India’s first research rocket from Thumba Equatorial Launch Centre in Thumba in the State of Kerala.
(ii) In 1969, our indigenously built rocket Rohini-75 was successfully launched.
(iii) The next stage was the successful launch of the first Indian satellite Aryabhatta in 1975 with help from the Soviet Union.
(iv) This success proved that Indian scientists can indigenously build and launch a satellite. Indian scientists were confident that they could acquire the technology for sending a message from the Earth Station and to assess the working of the satellite.

Question 2.
Telex service
Answer:
(i) The department of telecommunications under the Ministry of Communications started the telex service in 1963 to transmit typed messages from one part of the country to another rapidly.
(ii) In 1969, the telex service started in Devanagari script in Delhi.
(iii) Later, it spread all over the country.
(iv) This service began to be used in different fields. With the rise of internet after 1990, the significance of this service reduced.

3. Explain the following with reasons:

Question 1.
Pandit Nehru established the Atomic Energy Commission.
Answer:
(i) India’s first Prime Minister Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru wanted to nurture a scientific temper and bring about the nation’s progress.
(ii) From this perspective, he set up the Indian Atomic Energy Commission on 10th August, 1948.
(iii) Dr Homi Bhabha was appointed as the first Chairman of the Commission.
(iv) The objectives of the commission were to produce electricity from atomic energy, increase the yield of food grains and make them last longer, set up the technology for achieving this and develop nanotechnology.

Question 2.
India decided to conduct nuclear tests.
Answer:
(i) India successfully performed her first nuclear test at Pokharan in Rajasthan on 18th May, 1974 in consonance with the policy of using nuclear energy for peaceful purposes and for self sufficiency.

(ii) The reason why India took this decision was China’s nuclear capability and Pakistan’s desperate efforts to acquire nuclear weapons with China’s help.

(iii) Dr Homi Sethna, the chairman of the Indian Atomic Energy Commission and Dr Raja Ramanna, Director of the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre played a major role in conducting this nuclear test.

(iv) Prime Minister Indira Gandhi took the decision of carrying out a ‘nuclear explosion’. Pokharan was chosen on the basis of the required criteria for the location of the nuclear tests : far away from human settlement and no ground water reserves.

Question 3.
USA imposed economic sanctions on India.
Answer:
(i) On 11th May 1998, India carried out its second nuclear test to prove its nuclear preparedness.
(ii) Three tests were done on this day.
(iii) One of them was of the hydrogen bomb.
(iv) Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee assured that there would be no first use of nuclear weapons by India. But the USA imposed economic sanctions on India immediately.

4. Write the answers in 25 to 30 words:

Question 1.
Write about Pokharan nuclear test.
Answer:
(i) India successfully performed her first nuclear test at Pokharan in Rajasthan on 18th May, 1974 in consonance with the policy of using nuclear energy for peaceful purposes and for self-sufficiency.

(ii) The reason why India took this decision was China’s nuclear capability and Pakistan’s desperate efforts to acquire nuclear weapons with China’s help.

(iii) Dr Homi Sethna, the chairman of the Indian Atomic Energy Commission and Dr Raja Ramanna, Director of the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre played a major role in conducting this nuclear test.

(iv) Prime Minister Indira Gandhi took the decision of carrying out a ‘nuclear explosion’. Pokharan was chosen on the basis of the required criteria for the location of the nuclear tests: far away from human settlement and no groundwater reserve.

Question 2.
For which sector was Bhaskar-1 satellite expected to be useful?
Answer:
(i) India launched remote sensing experimental satellite Bhaskar-1 from the Soviet Union in 1979 in order to observe various things on the surface of the Earth by remote sensing technology.

(ii) This remote sensing technology would be useful for India’s development by regarding water bodies, mineral deposits and forecasting weather.

(iii) The photographs taken with the help of this technology about the bowels of the Earth, environment and forests were important.

(iv) Another area in which the information from this satellite was useful was Oceanography

5. Write in brief:

Question 1.
Which of the everyday services are influenced by satellite technology?
Answer:
(i) Bhaskar-1: India launched remote sensing experimental satellite Bhaskar-1 from the Soviet Union in 1979 in order to observe various things on the surface of the Earth by remote sensing technology. This remote sensing technology would be useful for India’s development by regarding water bodies, mineral deposits and forecasting weather. The photographs taken with the help of this technology about the bowels of the Earth, environment and forests were important. Another area in which the information from this satellite was useful was Oceanography. In 1981, ‘Bhaskar-2’ was launched from Soviet Union.

(ii) (if APPLE (Ariane Passenger Payload Experiment): The first completely indigenously built satellite by ISRO in India, APPLE was launched on 19th June, 1981 from the French Guiana. ‘APPLE’ was beneficial in the field of education. The objective of providing emergency telecommunication services was successful.

(iii) Indian National Satellite (INSAT): In August 1983, the satellite INSAT 1-B was launched in space. Because of this satellite, a major revolution came about in the areas of telecommunication, television, radio, weather forecasting and space research in India. Due to INSAT, 207 Akashwani or Radio stations could be connected to each other. This mechanism was also useful for search and rescue of people caught in some disaster like a shipwreck or an air plane crash, for forecasting weather, to look for and follow cyclones or storms, in the fields of telemedicine and educational institutions. The tele-medicine service enabled the population from remote areas to get advice and treatment from expert doctors. Public Primary Health Centers in villages have been connected with super speciality hospitals through INSAT.

(iv) Satellite Communication Centre: In order to establish satellite communication with the help of an artificial satellite, a domestic satellite communication Earth station was established in 1967, at Jodhpur Tekra near Ahmedabad. This made it easy to train scientists and technicians in setting up and running an Earth Station within the country. In 1970, a centre was established at Aarvi near Pune, equipped for international telecommunication service. The technology adopted by railways has a big role in the history of modern India.

Question 2.
Why is Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam called as the ‘Missile Man’?
Answer:
(i) In 1958, Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) was established under the Department of Defence of the government of India. The objective of this organisation was to make India self-sufficient with respect to means, equipment and weapons required for defence. After 1983, this organisation developed several missiles under the leadership of Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam. Dr Kalam has made a great contribution in the production of missiles. Dr Kalam is known as the father of India’s missile programme. He is also referred to as the ‘Missile Man’ of India.

(ii) Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP) was conceived by and carried out under the leadership of Dr A.P.J. Abdul Kalam. Defence Research and Development organisation (DRDO) undertook the task of building the missiles.

Question 3.
How can one have computerized reservation done for railway travel?
Answer:
(i) There is a site called IRCTC for online railway bookings. On it’s site, sign up option is given through which Login Id and Password is created for IRCTC account. One must login with this ID and password for booking railway ticket. A captcha image needs to be filled to ensure the account is not being misused.

(ii) To the left of the page on the site, a column is given to enter the destination and boarding point, along with the date on which the journey is supposed to be made. After filling this, the list of trains along with their numbers, berth system, schedules is shown. The Quota, i.e. general, ladies, senior citizen needs to be filled here.

(iii) Here, if the ladies quota is selected, the berth is booked in the compartment reserved exclusively for ladies. If senior citizen quota is selected, exemption in travel fees is given.

(iv) After this, berth preferences i.e. sleeper, second seating is to be selected to book the tickets. Upon which, a new window opens for filling the details like name of the passenger, age, etc. A captcha image needs to be filled again to confirm booking.

(v) The gateway to online payment opens up which is done through Debit Card or Internet Banking, whichever is easier for the person booking it. A message of confirmation and email is received to the person booking it for his/her detail.

Question 4.
Write the key features of the Konkan Railway.
Answer:
(i) The Konkan Railway started in 1998.

(ii) There are several records of technology to the credit of Konkan Railway which stretches over the four states of Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka and Kerala over a distance of 760 kilometres.

(iii) There are 12 tunnels on this track. The 6.5 km tunnel at Karbude is the longest tunnel. There are 179 big and 1819 small bridges on this track.

(iv) Out of these, the 2065.8 m long bridge on River Sharavati near Honnawar is the biggest, i.e. The 64 m tall bridge on River Panval near Ratnagiri is India’s tallest bridge.

(v) For avoiding accidents on tracks that are prone to landslides, there are sensors fitted to the railway engines.

Class 9 History Chapter 7 Science and Technology Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
The Indian Atomic Energy Commission was set up on_______.
(a) 10th Aug, 1958
(b) 10th Aug, 1948
(c) 10th Aug, 1968
(d) 19th Aug, 1858
Answer:
(b) 10th Aug, 1948

Question 2.
In 1956, the Department of Atomic Energy set up _______, a nuclear reactor functioning on atomic energy.
(a) Syrus
(b) Zarlina
(c) Poornima
(d) Apsara
Answer:
(d) Apsara

Question 3.
India successfully performed her first nuclear test at ______.
(a) Pokhran
(b) Jaipur
(c) Delhi
(d) Haryana
Answer:
(a) Pokhran

Question 4.
Prime Minister _________ assured that there would be no first use of nuclear weapons by India.
(a) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) VP Singh
Answer:
(b) Atal Bihari Vajpayee

Question 5.
The first digit of the pincode indicates the ______.
(a) State
(b) Region
(c) Nation
(d) District
Answer:
(b) Region

Question 6.
Agni had a range of ________ km.
(a) 800
(b) 600
(c) 700
(d) 500
Answer:
(c) 700

Question 7.
In 1981, ‘Bhaskar-2’ was launched from _______ .
(a) Soviet Union
(b) Japan
(c) China
(d) America
Answer:
(a) Soviet Union

Question 8.
_____a surface to surface ballistic missile was given to the Army.
(a) Prithvi -1
(b) Prithvi – 2
(c) Prithvi – 3
(d) Agni
Answer:
(a) Prithvi -1

Question 9.
APPLE’ was beneficial in the field of _______.
(a) Military
(b) Education
(c) Health
(d) Technology
Answer:
(b) Education

Question 10.
In _________ the telecommunication department was restructured.
(a) 1991
(b) 2000
(c) 2002
(d) 1880
Answer:
(b) 2000

Question 11.
Konkan railway started in the year _______.
(a) 1888
(b) 1988
(c) 1998
(d) 1994
Answer:
(c) 1998

Question 12.
On,________ the mobile phone service started in India.
(a) 23rd Aug, 1994
(b) 22nd Aug, 1994
(c) 24th Aug, 1994
(d) 21st Aug, 1994
Answer:
(b) 22nd Aug, 1994

Question 13.
In 1970, a domestic satellite communication earth centre was established at Aarvi near _______, equipped for international telecommunication service.
(a) Mumbai
(b) Pune
(c) Nagpur
(d) Nashik
Answer:
(b) Pune

Identify and write the wrong pair from the following sets:

Question 1.
(1) Dr. Homi Sethna – Chairman of DRDO
(2) Dr. Raja Ramanna – Director of BARC
(3) Sam Pitroda – Spearheaded telecommunication
(4) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam – Conceived and Carried out IGMDP
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Dr. Homi Sethna – Chairman of DRDO

Question 2.
(1) First diesel engine – Diesel Locomotive Works at Varanasi
(2) India’s tallest bridge – at Karbude
(3) Completely Indian made nuclear reactor – Dhruva at Trombay
(4) India’s first research rocket – Thumba Equatorial Launch Centre at Kerala.
Answer:
Wrong Pair : India’s tallest bridge – at Karbude

Question 3.
(1) Indigenously built rocket – Rohini 75
(2) First Indian Satellite – Aryabhatta
(3) Headquarters of ISRO – Sriharikota
(4) Reactor research Centre – Kalpakkam
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Headquarters of ISRO – Sriharikota

Question 4.
(1) NPCIL – setup in 1987
(2) Bhaskar – 2 – launched in 1981
(3) ONGC – established in 1998
(4) Tarapur power station – Setup in 1969
Answer:
Wrong Pair : ONGC – established in 1998

Question 5.
(1) Post and Telegraph Department started the 6 digit pincode system – 15th August 1972
(2) Indian Atomic Energy Commission was setup – 10th August 1948
(3) Indian Space Research Organisation was established – 15th August 1959
(4) First Nuclear test at Pokhran – 18th May 1974
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Indian Space Research Organisation was established – 15th August 1959

Question 6.
(1) Domestic Satellite Communication Earth Centre – Jodhpur Tekra
(2) Space station to launch satellites – Sriharikota
(3) Mineral Oil Deposit – Digboi in Assam
(4) Factories manufacturing Heavy Water – Chittaranjan in Bardwan
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Factories manufacturing Heavy Water – Chittaranjan in Bardwan

Question 7.
(1) Satellite built by ISRO – APPLE
(2) Satellite to connect super speciality hospitals – INSAT
(3) Remote sensing experimental satellite – Bhaskar -1
(4) First Indian Satellite – Rohini – 75
Answer:
Wrong Pair : First Indian Satellite – Rohini – 75

Question 8.
(1) INSAT, 1-B was launched – August 1983
(2) APPLE was launched – June 1981
(3) Mobile services started – August 1994
(4) Second Nuclear test – June 1998
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Second Nuclear test – June 1998

Question 9.
(1) Telex services started in Devanagari Script -1969
(2) India successfully tested missile Agni -1989
(3) Computerised reservation started in Delhi -1986
(4) Satellite Communication Centre established at Aarvi, Pune -1970
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Computerised reservation started in Delhi -1986

Write short notes:

Question 1.
Pincode
Answer:
(i) From 15 August 1972, the Post and Telegraph Department started the six digit pincode system in the country.
(ii) The Postal Index Code was intended to bring efficiency in distributing the mail. In this system, the country was divided into nine regions.
(iii) The first digit of the Pincode indicates the region, the second digit indicates the Sub¬region, the third digit shows the main disbursement district, while the remaining three digits show the location of the local post office.
(iv) For Maharashtra, 40, 41, 42, 43, 44 are the first two digits. In 1986, the speed post service was started to send postage rapidly.

Question 2.
Akash and Nag missiles
Answer:
(i) In 1990, the missile Akash was developed to fire from land into air.
(ii) This missile has a capacity to carry 720 kilogram explosives at supersonic speed and a range of 30 kilometres.
(iii) The missile ‘Nag’ was made in order to destroy the tanks of the enemy.
(iv) It is of the ‘fire and forget’ type. India has militarily become secure due to the production of missiles.

Question 3.
Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL)
Answer:
(i) In 2000, the telecommunication department was restructured.
(ii) The responsibility to make policy decisions was retained with the Telecom Department.
(iii) Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited was established to actually provide the services to consumers.
(iv) Along with the telephone service, cellular phone, internet, broadband services were also made available.

Question 4.
Dhruva Nuclear Reactor
Answer:
(i) In 1985, a completely Indian made nuclear reactor called Dhruva was started at Trombay near Mumbai.
(ii) The Dhruva nuclear reactor uses uranium as fuel.
(iii) At this center, 350 radioactive substances are produced. They are used in industry, agriculture and medicine.

Question 5.
Nuclear Power Corporation of India Ltd. (NPCIL)
Answer:
(i) This Company was set up in 1987 to generate electricity from atomic energy.

(ii) The objective of the company is to master and develop the technology to generate safe, cheap and environmentally profitable power and make the country self-sufficient.

Question 6.
DRDO was established.
Answer:
(i) In 1958, Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) was established under the Department of Defence of the Government of India.

(ii) The objective of this organisation was to make India self-sufficient with respect to means, equipment and weapons required for defence.

(iii) After 1983, this organisation developed several missiles under the leadership of Dr A.P.J. Abdul Kalam. Dr Kalam has made a great contribution in the production of missiles.

(iv) Dr Kalam is known as the Father of India’s Missile Programme. He is also referred to as the ‘Missile Man’ of India.

Read the passage and answer the questions:

Passage I

Space research: In 1961, Indian National Committee for Space Research (NCSR) launched India’s first , research rocket from Thumba Equatorial Launch Center in Thumba in the State of Kerala. In 1969, our indigenously built rocket Rohini-75 was successfully launched. The next stage was the successful launch , of the first Indian satellite Aryabhatta in 1975 with ‘ help from the Soviet Union. This success proved that Indian scientists can indigenously build and launch satellite. Indian scientists were confident that they , could acquire the technology for sending a message from the Earth Station and to assess the working of the satellite.
Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) : After , the success of the basic programme in space research and rocket related project, Indian Space Research Organisation was established on 15th August 1969 in order to carry out further space research. ‘ The headquarters of ISRO are at Bengaluru. ISRO activated the space station at Sriharikota in Andhra Pradesh for launching our satellites in space.

Bhaskar-1: India launched remote sensing ,experimental satellite Bhaskar-1 from the Soviet Union in 1979 in order to observe various things on the surface of the earth by remote sensing technology, This remote sensing technology would be useful for India’s development by regarding water bodies, mineral deposits and forecasting weather. The photographs taken with the help of this technology about the bowels of the earth, environment and forests were important. Another area in which the information from this satellite was useful was oceanography. In 1981, ‘Bhaskar-2’ was launched from Soviet Union.

Question 1.
What does the passage deal with?
Answer:
The passage deals with India’s success in space research.

Question 2.
Complete the following
Answer:

Question 3.
State the benefits of remote sensing technology.
Answer:
Following are the benefits of Remote Sensing Technology:

• Useful for India’s development by regarding water bodies mineral deposits and forecasting weather.
• Important information can be gathered about bowels of earth, environment and forests through the photograph.
• Useful information about Oceanography can be assessed.

Passage II

Oil and Natural Gas Commission (ONGC) : In 1956, the Oil and Natural Gas Commission was established to search for the deposits of mineral oil and natural gas and to increase their production. After Digboi in Assam, mineral oil deposits were found in Ankleshwar , area in Gujarat. Later, mineral oil and natural gas deposits were found in the gulf of Khambhat in Gujarat. In 1974, the Oil and Natural Gas Commission , started digging an oil well in ‘Bombay High’ area , with the help of Russian scientists by a drillship called ‘Sagar Samrat’. From 1975, mineral oil and natural gas began to be extracted from there. Later, more than 8500 oil wells and 33 natural gas wells dug eventually in this area began to contribute , 38% of the total mineral oil production in the country and met 14% of the country’s demand for crude oil.

Railways and Technology : The technology adopted by railways has a big role in the history of modem India. In order to bring efficiency, accuracy and coordination in the reservation system in rail travel, computerised reservation system was started for the first time in Delhi in 1984. In the same year, the Metro was started in Kolkata. In this way India has been making progress in the fields of science and technology. New inventions have been made. India is an important 21st century nation, which has always used technology for establishing peace in the world. India is making all these advancements in order to be the foremost among nations in the 21st century. In the next chapter, we shall learn about the progress India , has made in the fields of commerce and trade.

Question 1.
State the odd man out – and state the reason Digboi, Kohima, Ankleshwar, Bombay High
Answer:
Kohima – Because the other three locations of Digboi, Ankleshwar and Bombay High have notable reserves of natural gas and mineral oil
deposits.

Question 2.
Complete the following – Konkan Railway chart:
Answer:

Established	1998
States Covered	Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka Kerala.
Longest Tunnel	6.5 km long tunnel at Karbude
Tallest Bridge	64 mt. tall bridge on River Panvel near Ratnagiri

Question 3.
Do you think we can rely on our mineral oil deposits for time to come? Justify your answer.
Answer:
Mineral Oil Deposits are fast depleting due to it’s indiscriminate consumption by industries. Such natural resources of energy should be spared through fuel conservation schemes and greater use of inexhaustible sources of energy such as – Tidal, Solar or Wind energy.
Since mineral oil deposits are not renewable source of energy, it is advisable not to rely on it for time to come or we may face energy crisis.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
Write a note on the Indian Atomic Energy Commission.
Answer:
(i) In India’s first Prime Minister Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru wanted to nurture a scientific temper and bring about the nation’s progress. From this perspective, he set up the Indian Atomic Energy Commission on 10th August 1948. Dr. Homi Bhabha was appointed as the first Chairman of the Commission. The objectives of the commission were to produce electricity from atomic energy, increase the yield of food grains and make them last longer, set up the technology for achieving this and develop nanotechnology. In 1956, the Department of Atomic Energy set up ‘Apsara’, a nuclear reactor functioning on atomic energy.

(ii) In 1969, an atomic power station was set up at Tarapur. A Reactor Research Centre was set up at Kalpakkam in Tamil Nadu to successfully use Thorium for generating atomic power. The role of reactors is important in developing atomic power.

(iii) Factories manufacturing the heavy water needed for the generation of atomic power were set up at Vadodara, Talcher, Tutikorin, Kota, etc. An institution called Heavy Water Projects was set up to carry out research on manufacturing heavy water within the country. It was later renamed ‘Heavy Water Board’.

Question 2.
Write about ISD.
Answer:
(i) In 1972, Overseas Communication Service was established in Mumbai for the Management of International Telecommunication Service.

(ii) In 1976, the International Subscriber Dialled Telephone Service started to connect Mumbai and London directly on the phone.

(iii) Alongside the telephone service, services like telex, teleprinter and radio images started. In 1986, Videsh Sanchar Nigam Limited (VSNL) took a big leap in this field. Before that, Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Limited (MTNL) was a public sector company for giving telephone service in big cities.

(iv) In the 1990s, Videsh Sanchar Nigam Limited held the distinction of being the main internet service provider in India. The contribution of Sam Pitroda in this field is significant.

Question 3.
Write about Oil and Natural Gas Commission.
Answer:
(i) In 1956, the Oil and Natural Gas Commission was established to search for the deposits of mineral oil and natural gas and to increase their production.

(ii) After Digboi in Assam, mineral oil deposits were found in Ankleshwar area in Gujarat. Later, mineral oil and natural gas deposits were found in the gulf of Khambhat in Gujarat.

(iii) In 1974, the Oil and Natural Gas Commission started digging an oil well in ‘Bombay High’ area with the help of Russian scientists by a drillship called ‘Sagar Samrat’.

(iv) From 1975, mineral oil and natural gas began to be extracted from there.

(v) Later, more than 8500 oil wells and 33 natural gas wells dug eventually in this area began to contribute 38% of the total mineral oil production in the country and met 14% of the country’s demand for crude oil.

Observe the picture and write relevant information:

Question 1.

Answer:
Bhaskar 1 was a remote sensing experimental satellite launched by India.
Remote Sensing Technology would be useful for India’s development by regarding water bodies, mineral deposite and forecasting weather.
The photographs taken with the help of this technology about the bowels of the earth environment and forest were important. Bhaskar -1 was launched in 1979 and Bhaskar 2 was launched in 1981 from Soviet Union.

Question 2.

Answer:
Indian Atomic Energy Commission:
India’s first Prime Minister Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru wanted to nurture a scientific temper and bring about the nation’s progress. From this persepective, he set up the Indian Atomic Energy Commission on 10th August 1948. Dr. Homi Bhabha was appointed as the first Chairman of the Commission. The objectives of the Commission were to produce electricity from atomic energy, increase the yield of food grains and make them last longer, set up the technology for achieving this and develop nanotechnology.

Question 3.

Answer:
In 1958, Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) was established under the Department of Defence of the government of India. The objective of this organisation was to make India self-sufficient with respect to means, equipment and weapons required for defence. After 1983, this organisation developed several missiles under the leadership of Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam. Dr. Kalam has made a great contribution in the production of missiles. Dr. Kalam is known as the ‘Father of India’s missile programme’. He is also referred to as the ‘Missile Man’ of India.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 6 Empowerment of Women and Other Weaker Sections Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 6 Empowerment of Women and Other Weaker Sections

Class 9 History Chapter 6 Empowerment of Women and Other Weaker Sections Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Complete the statements by choosing the proper option:

Question 1.
In 1992, a movement against drinking alcohol was started in _________.
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Gujarat
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Uttarakhand
Answer:
(c) Andhra Pradesh

Question 2.
In 1975, the government of India formed the Committee on the status of women under chairmanship of ______.
(a) Dr Phulrenu Guha
(b) Uma Bharati
(c) Vasundhara Raje
(d) Pramila Dandavate
Answer:
(a) Dr Phulrenu Guha

2.B Identify the wrong pair and rewrite the corrected one:

Question 1.
(i) Saudamini Rao – Stree-Mukti Andolan Samiti
(ii) Vidya Bal – Nari Samata Manch
(iii) Pramila Dandavate – Mahila Dakshata Samiti
(iv) Jyoti Mhapsekar – Committee on the Status of Women
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Jyoti Mhapsekar – Committee on the Status of Women

3. Make a concept chart:

Question 1.
Laws related to women:
Answer:

4. Explain the concepts:

Question 1.
Alimony
Answer:
(i) A fixed amount paid to a married woman for her upkeep by the husband who has divorced her, is called alimony.
(ii) The law enacted in 1952, recognizes women’s right to alimony and their share in the father’s property. Her right to Sreedharan was recognized.

Question 2.
Minority
Answer:
(i) In any society, a group of people of a particular religion, language or race who are few in number are termed as a minority.
(ii) As there are various religions, sects, and languages in our country, we see great cultural diversity. There is variation in cultural traditions, too.

5. Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
The evolution of the women’s liberation movement.
Answer:
(i) The United Nations had declared 1975 as the International Women’s Year.

(ii) In 1975, the government of India constituted the Committee on the Status of Women and appointed Dr Phulrenu Guha as its Chairman.

(iii) A comprehensive survey was conducted on several issues such as the social position of women, their status, the consequences of the constitutional provisions made for women as also education of women and its percentage, their progress due to education, difficulties faced by working women, the position of women with respect to work /livelihood, their wages , the female-male ratio, birth and mortality rate and the role of women.

(iv) Taking into consideration this entire background, a State-wide conference for women was held in 1975 organised by the Stree-mukti Sangharsha Samiti. Women from all walks of life / regions participated in it.

(v) The Samiti published its manifesto in 1978. The policy of a struggle against discrimination on the basis of gender, caste and vama was adopted.

(vi) In 1977, groups like the Streemukti Andolan Samiti established by Soudamini Rao in Pune, Bayaja a fortnightly, as also Stree Uvach, Maitrin and Stree Anyayavirodhi Manch in Aurangabad, Mahila Dakshata Samiti in Kolhapur, Mahila Hakka in Nashik and Nari Prabodhan Manch in Latur were formed.

(vii) Anti-dowry protection committees were formed all over Maharashtra. A conference to protest against oppression of women was organised in Dhule city.

Question 2.
The Prohibition of Dowry (Amendment) Act was enacted in 1984.
Answer:
(i) Even after the enactment of the anti-dowry law, incidents like ‘Woman bums to death as sari pallu catches fire while cooking’ and ‘Woman slips into well while washing clothes, drowns and dies’ continued to be reported.
(ii) Investigations still revealed dowry to be the most frequent cause of such deaths.
(iii) The role of the police, the administration and judiciary were highlighted. This created greater awareness.
(iv) As a result, the Dowry Prohibition (Amendment) Act came into force in 1984.

Question 3.
The practice of untouchability was banned by law.
Answer:
(i) In the post-independence period, our Constitution adopted the values of freedom, equality, fraternity and social justice.
(ii) In accordance with this, the practice of untouchability was banned by law.
(iii) Untouchability was removed by the 17th paragraph of the Constitution and this class was included in the Scheduled Castes.

Question 4.
The Constitution gives cultural and educational rights to minorities.
Answer:
(i) In any society, a group of people of a particular religion, language or race who are few in number are termed a minority.

(ii) As there are various religions, sects and languages in our country, we see great cultural diversity. There is variation in cultural traditions, too.

(iii) In order to preserve their cultural traditions and develop their own language, the Constitution gives the citizens certain educational and cultural rights.

(iv) Minorities have the right to protect and conserve their language, culture and traditions.

(v) For this purpose they have the right to set up separate educational institutions.

6. Answer the following questions in 25 to 30 words:

Question 1.
Describe the Chipko movement.
Answer:
(i) The show of constructive woman power was seen during the Chipko movement in 1973.
(ii) Trees from the forests in the foothills of the Himalayas were to be cut down for commercial purposes.
(iii) Chandiprasad Bhat and Sunderlal Bahuguna had started a movement to prevent this.
(iv) Women followed the strategy of holding hands and encircling each tree.
(v) As their method consisted of protecting the tree by embracing it, the movement came to be known as the Chipko movement.
(vi) Women took part in it in large numbers. Women had a big role to play in the agricultural economy of this region.
(vii) Gaura Devi was the activist who created this awareness among the women with the help of Sudesha Devi and Bachani Devi.

Question 2.
Write a note on the Protection of Human Rights Act.
Answer:
(i) In 1993, the Protection of Human Rights Act law was enacted to prevent injustice to men and women.
(ii) The National Human Rights Commission was also formed for this purpose.
(iii) In some States, the State Human Rights Commission was also formed on the same lines.
(iv) This law which deals with collective oppression, the social conditions of divorced women, women and secure work places, played an effective role in mitigating injustices to women.

7. Answer the following question in detail:

Question 1.
Explain with examples how the united strength of women can bring about constructive changes in various fields.
Answer:
(i) Women, who have to face the brunt of scarcity of supplies and rising prices, gave a show of their strength as an organised entity in 1972.

(ii) Under the leadership of the socialist leader Mrinal Gore, women in Mumbai participated in a demonstration which came to be known as the laatne morcha (the rolling pin demonstration).

(iii) Commodities like oil, ghee, rava, maida, would become scarce just as Diwali was near at hand. Kerosene had become very expensive.

(iv) Women came together brandishing their rolling pins and took part in the demonstration.

(v) This movement met with success and the public got a glimpse of the united power of women.

(vi) Another show of constructive woman power was seen during the Chipko movement in 1973. Gaura Devi was the activist who created awareness among the women with the help of Sudesha Devi and Bachani Devi.

(vii) In 1992, three youths of Dubuganta village of Nellore district in Andhra Pradesh drowned in a lake, in a state of inebriation, and died.

(viii) At this instance, the women of the village came together and forced the closure of arrack shops.

(ix) The movement spread to the entire State and the government had to adopt a strict policy against the sale of alcohol.

(x) On 4th September 1987, Roop Kanwar, a married woman, committed sati. She did not do this of her own free will; she was coerced into doing so. Committing sati, glorifying the practice of sati were all illegal acts.

(xi) The women activists and journalists, Meena Menon, Geeta Seshu, Sujata Anandan, Anu Joseph and Kalpana Sharma investigated the case. In 1998, the government passed the Sati (Prevention) Act with very stringent provisions.

Class 9 History Chapter 6 Empowerment of Women and Other Weaker Sections Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
Under the leadership of the socialist leader ______ women in Mumbai participated in a demonstration which came to be known as the Laatne Morcha.
(a) GauraDevi
(b) Dr Phulrenu Guha
(c) Meena Menon
(d) Mrinal Gore
Answer:
(d) Mrinal Gore

Question 2.
Vinoba Bhave made use of women power in the _____.
(a) Bhoodan Movement
(b) Chipko Movement
(c) Laatne Morcha
(d) Anti-liquor movement
Answer:
(a) Bhoodan Movement

Question 3.
Women activists associated with the Chipko movement ________.
(a) Sucheta Kripalani, Nandini Satpathy and Jayalalitha
(b) Dr Phulrenu Guha, Uma Bharati and Vasundhara Raje
(c) Gaura Devi, Sudesha Devi and Bachani Devi
(d) Dr Phulrenu Guha, Meena Menon and Mrinal Gore
Answer:
(c) Gaura Devi, Sudesha Devi and Bachani Devi

Question 4.
The Chipko movement was started by ______.
(a) Chandiprasad Bhat and Sunderlal Bahuguna
(b) Sudesha Devi and Bachani Devi
(c) Vinoba Bhave and Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Meena Menon and Mrinal Gore
Answer:
(a) Chandiprasad Bhat and Sunderlal Bahuguna

Question 5.
The United Nations had declared as _____ the International Women’s Year.
(a) 1992
(b) 2000
(c) 1975
(d) 1988
Answer:
(c) 1975

Question 6.
A collection of songs called Streemuktichi Lalkari, a street play called Mulgi Jhaali Ho are written by ______.
(a) Vidya Bal
(b) Pramila Dandavate
(c) Sujata Anandan
(d) Jyoti Mhapsekar
Answer:
(d) Jyoti Mhapsekar

Question 7.
A State-wide conference for women was held in 1975 organised by the _______.
(a) Samajwadi Mahila Sabha.
(b) Stree-mukti Sangharsha Samiti.
(c) Nari Prabodhan Manch.
(d) Stree Anyayavirodhi Manch.
Answer:
(b) Stree-mukti Sangharsha Samiti.

Question 8.
Census is conducted in India every _______.
(a) 5 years
(b) 10 years
(c) 15 years
(d) 20 years
Answer:
(b) 10 years

Identify and write the wrong pair in the following sets:

Question 1.
(i) Vinoba Bhave – Bhoodan Movement
(ii) Chandiprasad Bhat and Sunderlal Bahuguna – Chipko movement
(iii) Dr Phulrenu Guha – Laatne Morcha
(iv) Shah Bano Begum – Right to alimony
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Dr Phulrenu Guha – Laatne Morcha

Question 2.
(i) Stree Anyayavirodhi Manch – Aurangabad
(ii) Mahila Dakshata Samiti – Pune
(iii) Mahila Hakka – Nashik
(iv) Nari Prabodhan Manch – Latur
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Mahila Dakshata Samiti – Pune

Question 3.
(i) Stree-mukti Andolan Samiti – Soudamini Rao
(ii) Mahila Dakshata Samiti – Phulrenu Guha
(iii) Milun Saryajani – Vidya Bal
(iv) Laatne Morcha – Mrinal Gore
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Mahila Dakshata Samiti – Phulrenu Guha

Question 4.
(i) Streemuktichi Lalkari – Collection of songs
(ii) Mulgi Jhaali Ho – Periodical
(iii) Bayaja – fortmighty
(iv) Sitama Katha – Story
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Mulgi Jhaali Ho – Periodical

Do as directed
Make a concept chart:

Question 1.
Roop Kanwar Sati Case.
Answer:

Question 2.
List at least five Women Chief Ministers in India:
Answer:

• Sucheta Kriplani (Uttar Pradesh)
• Nandini Satpathy (Odisha)
• Jayalalitha (Tamil Nadu)
• Mayawati (Uttar Pradesh)
• Vasundhara Raje (Rajasthan)
• Mamata Banerjee (West Bengal)
• Rabdi Devi (Bihar)
• Anandiben Patel (Gujarat)
• Sheila Dixit (Delhi)
• Mehbooba Mufti Sayeed (Jammu & Kashmir)
• Uma Bharati (Madhya Pradesh)
• Rajendra Kaur Bhattal (Punjab)
• Sushma Swaraj (Delhi)
• Shashikala Kakodkar (Goa)
• Sayeeda Anwar Taimur (Assam)
• Janaki Ramachandran (Tamil Nadu), are all women who have led their States as Chief Ministers.

Complete the following chart:

Question 1.

Women	Contribution
Dr. Phulrenu Guha	………………….
………………	Streemukti Andolan Samiti
Vidya Bal	………………..
………………..	Mahila Dakshata Samiti

Answer:

Women	Contribution
Dr. Phulrenu Guha	Chairman Committee on Status for Women
Soudamini Rao	Streemukti Andolan Samiti
Vidya Bal	Nari Samata Manch
Pramila Dandavate	Mahila Dakshata Samiti

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
International Women’s Day
Answer:
(i) A demonstration was held in New York on 8 March 1857.

(ii) It was the first demonstration by working women and its demands were for fewer working hours, proper remuneration, provision of creches, etc.

(iii) On 8 March 1909 women went on strike for the very same demands. That is why, this day was declared as the Women’s Struggle Day at the Women’s Socialist International, a conference held in Denmark.

(iv) The year 1975 was observed as the International Women’s Year and in 1977, 8 March was declared as International Women’s Day by a resolution passed in the General Assembly of the United Nations.

(v) The three aspects of this programme were peace, development and equality between men and women.

Question 2.
Family Courts
Answer:
(i) Family courts were established to resolve conflicts arising out of differences within marriage and domestic problems as well as issues such as alimony, single parenthood, separation, care of children and ownership which are all related to the family situation.
(ii) These family courts give priority to mutual understanding over witnesses and evidence and to counsellors over lawyers.
(iii) Emphasis is on resolving issues quickly but justly.

Question 3.
Reservation for Women
Answer:
(i) The 73rd and 74th amendments to the Constitution provide for reservation of one-third of the seats for women in Gram Panchayats, Panchayat Samitis, Zilla Parishads, municipalities and municipal corporations as well as for the posts of Sarpanch, Chairman and Mayor.
(ii) Maharashtra and 15 other states have reserved 50% seats for women.
(iii) This provision provides women the opportunity to participate in the business of the community.

Question 4.
Scheduled Tribes
Answer:
(i) The Scheduled Tribes or Adivasis who live in remote parts of the country face several difficulties.

(ii) As they have lived far away from the progress made in modem times, they are economically and socially backward.

(iii) Even though their conditions have seen some improvement in recent times, they do not have any means of livelihood other than agriculture and forest produce.

(iv) Modem farming implements have not yet reached them. Hence, their income from agriculture is very small. Besides, their fields are on hillsides and not fertile.

(v) They are malnourished due to insufficient and poor quality of diet.

(vi) Adivasis in remote areas find it difficult to get medical attention in time. For all these reasons, there is a need to give special protection to Adivasis.

(vii) In the Indian Constitution, Adivasis have been enumerated as Scheduled Tribes. They are given representation in law boards, education, government service, etc.

Question 5.
8th March was declared as International Women’s Day.
Answer:
(i) A demonstration was held in New York on 8 March, 1857. It was the first demonstration by working women and its demands were for fewer working hours, proper remuneration, provision of creches, etc.

(ii) On 8 March 1909 women went on strike for the very same demands. That is why, this day was declared as the Women’s Struggle Day at the Women’s Socialist International, a conference held in Denmark.

(iii) The year 1975 was observed as the International Women’s Year and in 1977, 8 March was declared as International Women’s Day by a resolution passed in the General Assembly of the United Nations.

Question 6.
The ‘Muslim Women’s Act’ (Protection of rights on divorce) was passed by Parliament.
Answer:
(i) A fixed amount paid to a married woman for her upkeep by the husband who has divorced her, is called alimony.

(ii) In the case of Mohammad Ahmed Khan vs Shah Bano Begum, the Supreme Court gave the verdict that Shah Bano Begum had the right to alimony.

(iii) However, religious organisations protested vociferously against the verdict.

(iv) As a result, the ‘Muslim Women’s Act’ (Protection of rights on divorce) was passed by Parliament.

Question 7.
In 1998, the government passed the Sati (Prevention) Act with very stringent provisions.
Answer:
(i) On 4th September 1987, Roop Kanwar, a married woman, committed sati. She did not do this of her own free will; she was coerced into doing so.

(ii) Committing Sati, glorifying the practice of Sati were all illegal acts.

(iii) The women activists and journalists, Meena Menon, Geeta Seshu, Sujata Anandan, Anu Joseph and Kalpana Sharma investigated the case.

(iv) So in 1998, the government passed the Sati (Prevention) Act with very stringent provisions.

Read the passage and answer the questions:

Passage I

International Women’s year: The United Nations ! had declared 1975 as the International Women’s Year. The three aspects of this programme were peace, development and equality between men and women. In 1975, the government of India constituted the Committee on the Status of Women and appointed Dr Phulrenu Guha as its Chairman. A comprehensive survey was conducted of several issues such as the social position of women, their status, the consequences of the constitutional provisions made for Women as also education of women and its percentage, their progress due to education, difficulties faced by working women, the position of women with respect to work/livelihood, their wages (relative to men’s wages), the female-male ratio, birth and mortality rates and the role of women.
Taking into consideration this entire background, State-wide conference for women was held in 1975 organised by the stree-mukti Sangharsha Samiti. Women from all walks of life/regions participated in it. The Samiti published its manifesto in 1978. The Samiti published its manifesto discrimination on the basis of gender, caste and vama was adopted.
This gave rise to a collection of songs called Streemuktichi Lalkari, a street play called Mulgi Jhali Ho by Jyoti Mhapsekar and a periodical called Prerak Lalkari which became their mouthpiece and other such programmes. In 1977, groups like the Streemukti Andolan Samiti established by Soudamini Rao in Pune, Bayaja a fortnightly, as also Stree Uvach, Maitrin and Stree Anyayavirodhi Manch in Aurangabad, Mahila Dakshata Samiti in Kolhapur, Mahila Hakka in Nashik and Nari Prabodhan Manch in Latur were formed. Anti-dowry protection committees were formed all over Maharashtra. A conference to protest against oppression of women was organised in Dhule City.

Question 1.
Prepare a time line of the highlights mentioned in the passages.
Ans:
Timeline of the Highlights of the passage

• 1975 – UN declared International Women’s Day Committee on the Status of women was appointed.
• 1975 – Stree Mukti Sangharsha Samiti was organised.
• 1978 – Stree Mukti Sangharsha Samiti published a Manifesto
• 1977 – Stree Mukti Andolan Samiti was established by Soudamini Rao.

Question 2.
State the issues on which a survey was conducted by the committee on the status of women.
Ans:
The Committee on Status of Women appointed under the chairmanship of Dr. Phulrenu Guha made a comprehensive survey over several issues:

• Social position of women and their status.
• Consequences of the constitutional provision made for women.
• Education of women and it’s a percentage.
• Their progress due to education.
• Difficulties faced by working women with respect to work, livelihood, and wages.
• Female – male ratio.
• Birth and mortality rates.
• Role of women.

Question 3.
Name any two women who according to you managed to break the norms of the Indian Society and came up as icons of woman power.
Ans:
(i) Mrinal Gore
(ii) Gaura Devi

Passage II

Vidya Bal’s periodicals, Nari Samata Manch, and Milun Saryajani, as also the work ofthe Samajwadi Mahila Sabha and the Krantikari Mahila Sanghatana were of great help in dealling with women’s issues. The Employment Guarantee Scheme in Maharashtra also helped to empower women. Pramila Dandavate established the Mahila Dakshata Samiti in Delhi in 1976. Branches of the Samiti came up in the States of Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and Punjab. The Communist Party established the Akhil Bharatiya Janavadi Mahila Sanghatana in 1980. Efforts were made to start branches of this Organisation in all parts of India. The Sanghatana started a struggle against issues like dowry, female foeticide, domestic abuse, Research on women’s issues was undertaken at various levels. Women’s Studies Centres were started at the first women’s university, Mumbai and at Tata Institute of Social Sciences, Mumbai, Savitribai Phule Pune University and Shivaji University, Kolhapur. These Centres played an important role in critical analysis and in developing a vision on women’s issues.

Question 1.
State the role of Pramila Dandavate and Vidhya Bal in women’s upliftment.
Answer:
(i) Pramila Dandavate established Mahila Dakshata Samiti in Delhi in 1976.
(ii) Vidya Bal published periodicals like ’Nari Samata Manch’ and ‘Milun Saryajani’.

Question 2.
Where are the women’s study centers located in Maharashtra?
Answer:
Women study centers are located at:

• Shrimati Nathibai Damodar Thakersey Women’s University – Mumbai.
• Tata Institute of Social Sciences – Mumbai.
• Savitribai Phule University – Pune
• Shivaji University – Kolhapur.

Question 3.
Do you think International Beauty Pageants can help in creating awareness about women’s issues? why?
Answer:
Yes, International Beauty Pageants can help in creating global awareness on women’s issues world wide.
The participants in these events come from different cultures and backgrounds, they speak on many subjects affecting women which is covered by international media. Concerns pertaining to women’s political rights have been brought to the notice of the world through these pageants.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
Explain, in detail, the Anti-liquor movement.
Answer:
(i) In 1992, in Andhra Pradesh, a movement was started against the drinking of alcohol. It received a good response in other States too.

(ii) When the head of the household dies an untimely death due to addiction to alcohol, the family faces a serious crisis which affects women the most.

(iii) Due to alcoholism, they have to deal with extreme sorrow and poverty. This movement got the support of the anti-arrack movement in Andhra Pradesh.

(iv) As a result of a government policy, arrack (a locally produced alcohol) dealers set up shop in every town and village.The poor labouring people began to get addicted to alcohol.

(v) At the same time, a literacy programme was being run in the villages of the State. The Sitama Katha (Sita’s story) was narrated as a part of this programme.

(vi) It was a story about Sita who creates awareness among the people of a village and gets alcohol to be banned from the village.

(vii) In 1992, three youths of Dubuganta village of Nellore district in Andhra Pradesh drowned in a lake, in a state of inebriation, and died.

(viii) At this instance, the women of the village came together and forced the closure of arrack shops.

(ix) The report of this news in the local newspapers had its effect on many other villages.

(x) The movement spread to the entire State and the government had to adopt a strict policy against the sale of alcohol.

Question 2.
Explain the term ‘Nomadic’ and ‘De-notified’ Tribes.
Answer:
(i) Castes and tribes that move from place to place for a livelihood, are included under Nomadic Tribes.
(ii) They live by rearing animals and engaging in some other occupations.
(iii) The British had declared some of them as criminal tribes.
(iv) In the Law of 1871 to curb crimes, some of the main groups were mentioned as criminal tribes and their occupations and movements were banned.
(v) This unjust law was repealed in the post¬independence period.
(vi) And the curbs on these tribes were lifted. They were included under De-notified Tribes.
(vii) Special efforts are made by the government for the purpose of their social and economic development.
(viii) These tribes have been given representation in educational institutions and the government sector.

Question 3.
What do you mean by Scheduled Castes?
Answer:
(i) In the post-independence period, our Constitution adopted the values of freedom, equality, fraternity and social justice.
(ii) In accordance with this, the practice of untouchability was banned by law.
(iii) Untouchability was removed by the 17th paragraph of the Constitution and this class was included in the Scheduled Castes.
(iv) In view of the educational and social backwardness of these castes, they were given reservations in education as well as jobs to facilitate their development.

Question 4.
Write a note on the manifestation of woman power.
Answer:
(i) Women, who have to face the brunt of scarcity of supplies and rising prices, gave a show of their strength as an organised entity in 1972.
(ii) Under the leadership of the socialist leader Mrinal Gore, women in Mumbai participated in a demonstration which came to be known as the laatne morcha (the rolling pin demonstration).
(iii) Commodities like oil, ghee, rava, maida, would become scarce just as Diwali was near at hand. Kerosene would become very expensive.
(iv) Women came together brandishing their rolling pins and took part in the demonstration.
(v) This movement met with success and the public got a glimpse of the united power of women.

Observe the pictures and write relevant information about them:

Question 1.

Answer:
(i) A show of constructive women power was seen during the Chipko Movement in 1973. The trees from the forests in the foothills of Himalayas were to be cut down for commercial purposes.
(ii) The important leaders of the Chipko Movement were: Chandiprasad Bhat, Sunderlal Bahuguna, Gaura Devi, Sudesha Devi and Bachani Devi.

Question 2.

Answer:
(i) In 1992, in Andhra Pradesh a movement was started against the drinking of alcohol.
(ii) In 1992, three youths of Dubuganta village of Nellore district in Andhra Pradesh drowned in lake, in a state of inebriation and died. At this instance, the women of the village came together and forced the closure of arrack shops.
(iii) Arrack is a locally produced alcohol. As a result of a government policy arrack dealers set up shop in every town and village.

Question 3.

Answer:
(i) In 1998, the govt passed the Sati (Prevention) Act with very stringent provisions.
(ii) On 4th Sept. 1987, Roop Kanwar a married woman, committed sati. She did not do this of her own free will, she was coerced into doing so.
The women activists and journalists, Meena Menon, Geeta Seshu, Sujata Anandan, Anu Joseph and Kalpana Sharma investigated the case.

Question 4.

Answer:
(i) The Dowry Prohibition Act of 1961 made both giving and taking of dowry a cognizable criminal offence.
(ii) Even after the enactment of the anti-dowry law investigations still revealed dowry to be the most frequent cause of deaths. This created greater awareness. Thus, Dowry Prohibition (Amendment) Act came into force in 1984.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Precipitation Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Precipitation

Class 9 Geography Chapter 5 Precipitation Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Identify the precipitation type with the help of the description given:

(a) It is the main source of the water that you use. Sometimes it is torrential and sometimes continuous. Most of the agriculture in India is dependent on it.
(b) It seems as if water droplets are floating in the atmosphere. In London, one cannot see the Sun till the afternoon during winters because of this phenomenon.
(c) It never precipitates like this in equatorial areas. Precipitation in the solid form sometimes causes damage to the crops.
(d) A white cotton-like layer spreads on the earth’s surface. Because of this form of precipitation, the State of Jammu and Kashmir has to change its capital in winters. In Maharashtra, it does not precipitate like this.
Answer:
(a) rainfall
(b) fog
(c) hail
(d) snow

2. Look at the following pictures and identify the correct rainfall type.

Answer:
Convectional rainfall

Answer:
Orographic rainfall

Answer:
Cyclonic rainfall

3. Look at the figures above and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
In fig B, on which side of the mountain is it raining more?
Answer:
The windward side is receiving more rainfall.

Question 2.
Shade the rain shadow region in fig B and name it.
Answer:
Students to show the leeward side in the picture.

Question 3.
What is the difference between A and C?
Answer:
In figure 5.4 i.e. convectional rainfall the hot air rises upwards and then the air cools and begins to condense and due to continuous condensation rainfall occurs. Here rainfall is accompanied by lightning and thunder.

In figure 5.6 , i.e. cyclonic rainfall, air from surrounding regions comes towards the centre of the cyclone and starts moving upwards. As it rises, the temperature of the air reduces, condensation occurs and rainfall takes place.

Question 4.
Stormy winds and floods are associated with which rainfall type?
Answer:
Stormy winds and floods are associated with Cyclonic rainfall.

Question 5.
What type of rainfall occurs in Singapore?
Answer:
Cyclonic rainfall occurs in Singapore.

4. Identify the odd man out:

Question 1.
Orographic rainfall, acid rain, cyclonic rainfall, convectional rainfall
Answer:
Acid rain

Question 2.
Snowfall, rainfall, hailstones, dew
Answer:
Dew

Question 3.
Thermometer, rain gauge, anemometer, measuring jar
Answer:
Measuring jar

5. Answer in brief:

Question 1.
In what ways does precipitation occur on the earth?
Answer:
Precipitation means water falls in the solid or liquid state from the clouds to the earth surface. Snow, hailstorms, rainfall are the major forms of precipitation.

(i) Snow:
Answer:

• When the temperature in the atmosphere falls below the freezing point the water vapour directly turns into snowflakes. This is called sublimation.
• Hence the vapour in the form of gas transform into solid snow. Precipitation in the form of solid particles is known as snowfall.
• As snow is in the solid form. It does not run like water and layers of the snow get deposited on the top of the others and when the snow melts the region gets fresh water.

(ii) Hail:

• When there is lot of heat on the earth’s surface, the upward air flow blows at a greater speed. Because of this upward flow, the temperature of air reduces and the condensation of the water vapour takes place, and dark clouds are formed.
• Because of the upward movement of the air, these water droplets go at higher altitude and solidify forming hailstones.
• As the hailstones are heavy, they fall toward the earth’s surface because of gravity. The crops may get destroyed and loss of life and property may occur.
• Hailstones occurs in summer in India, Africa and in some parts of south east Asia.

(iii) Rainfall:

• We get water generally in the form of rainfall. The temperature of the air with water vapour reduces when it goes higher and condensation of the vapour occurs.
• Clouds formed with the condensed water droplets and dust particles accumulate.
• As these water droplets increase in the size, they cannot float in the air anymore because of their weight. They come down as rainfall
• The different types of rainfall are: Convectional rainfall, Orographic rainfall and Cyclonic rainfall.

(iv) Fog, dew and frost:

• When the condensation or solidification of the water vapour in the atmosphere occurs near the earth’s surface, it leads to the formation of fog, dew and frost.

Question 2.
Comment on the rainfall occurring in the rain shadow area.
Answer:

• The winds coming from lakes or seas are moisture-laden and they are obstructed by the high mountain ranges coming in their way
• They start going upwards along the slope of the moutains. The temperature of these winds drop and condensation occurs and rainfall takes place.
• This rainfall takes place because of the obstruction of the mountains which results in the condensation of water vapour.
• The windward side of the mountain gets more rain; the amount of vapour in the air reduces after crossing the mountain and the moisture-holding capacity of the air increases.
• The leeward side of the mountain gets lesser rainfall as compared to windward side.
• Thus, the leeward side area is identified as rain shadow area as it recieves meagre rainfall.

Question 3.
Which type of rainfall occurs in most of the world? Why?
Answer:

• Orographic rainfall occurs in most parts of the world.
• Convectional rainfall is regional in nature.
• There is a certainty in the convectional rainfall occurring in the equatorial areas.
• Comparatively, the orographic and cyclonic rainfall is less certain.
• And therefore, such areas are prone to very heavy rainfall, floods or droughts frequently.

Question 4.
If condensation occurs closer to the earth’s surface, what types of forms become visible?
Answer:
If condensation and solidification of the water vapour in the atmosphere closer to the earth surface are visible, they are in the form of fog, dew or frost.

(i) Fog:

• The temperature of the layers of the air near the surface of the earth reduces. As the temperature reduces, water vapour condenses.
• In this process the water vapour turns into microscopic water particles and float in the air.
• When the density of these droplets in the air increases it leads to the formation of fog

(ii) Dew:

• When moisture-laden air near the earth surface comes in contact with very cold objects condensation of water vapour takes place.
• They turn into very small water droplets and stick to the surface of cold objects, e.g. eg: leaves and this is called dew.

(iii) Frost:

• When the temperature of the air reaches less then 0 degree Celcius the water droplet stuck to the surface of the cold objects and freezes.
• This frozen water droplet is called as frost.

Question 5.
What precautions should be taken while measuring rainfall?
Answer:

• Rainfall is an important source of water on planet earth and rainfall is formed because of changes in the temperature of the air with water vapour.
• The instrument that is used to measure rainfall is called rain gauge.
• The funnel i.e. used for measuring rain has a specific diameter and the rain falling in this funnel is collected in bottle fitted in the gauge.
• The collected water is then measured with the help of measuring jar. In the areas of heavy rainfall, the reading of the rain with rain gauge should be taken every three hours. The measuring jar reads rain in millimetres
• The gauge has to be kept on open ground on 30cm high flat-mount.
• So that the rain water is collected without any obstruction.

6. Distinguish between

Question 1.
Dew and frost
Answer:

	Dew		Frost
(i)	When moisture-laden air near the earth’s surface comes into contact with very cold objects, condensation of vapour takes place into small water droplets called dew.	(i)	If the temperature of the air is less then CPC, the water droplets stuck to the surface of cold objects, freezes forming frost.
(ii)	Water vapour condenses and forms droplets of water.	(ii)	Water droplets stuck to cold surface turns to frozen water droplets.
(iii)	Dew sticks to the cold object but does not freeze.	(iii)	It sticks to the cold object and freeze.

Question 2.
Snow and hail
Answer:

	Snow		Hail
(i)	Precipitation in the form of solid particles of snow is known as snow fall.	(i)	Precipitation in the form of frozen water droplets falling rapidly to the ground is know as hail.
(ii)	The fall of temperature in the atmosphere below the freezing point causes snow fall	(ii)	Extreme heat on the surface of the earth initiates the process of hail formation.
(iii)	Heavy accumulation of snow can collapse the transportation and communication system of the area.	(iii)	It destroys crops and causes loss of life an

Class 9 Geography Chapter 5 Precipitation Intext Questions and Answers

Can you tell?

Question 1.
The blade of grass look like this in winter mornings. From where does the water on the blades of grass come?

Answer:

1. The blade of grass looks like this in winter mornings because of dew. These are small water droplets.
2. The dew is formed in winter because moisture-laden air near the earth surface comes in contact with cold objects due to which condensation of vapour takes place, turning into small water droplets.

Question 2.
Snow is found everywhere in the winters in Kashmir.
Answer:
Snow is found everywhere in winters of Kashmir because Kashmir is located at a higher altitude where the temperature falls below freezing point. Hence water vapour directly turn into snowflakes leading to snowfall.

Question 3.
Why isn’t snow found in our surroundings?
Answer:
Because we have a moderate temperature and we are closer to the sea, snow is not found in our surroundings.

Question 4.
Generally, it rains between June and September in our region.
Answer:
We get rainfall between June and September, in our region when the moisture-laden south-west monsoon winds are obstructed by the Western Ghats leading to orographic rainfall.

Question 5.
How do the rain droplets form?
Answer:
Clouds form when condensed water droplets and dust particles accumulate forming large rain droplets.

Question 6.
In London, there is a fog like this till the afternoon in the winters.
Answer:
In London there is fog till the afternoon in winters because London is far away from equator and it has temperate oceanic climate and they have cool summers.

Question 7.
We do not have fog until afternoons in summers.
Answer:
We do not have fog until afternoons in summer because we are near to equator and we have tropical climate and hot summers.

Question 8.
Sometimes hailstones destroy the standing crops in the field.
Answer:
Hailstones are solid and heavy in nature and they hit the earth due to gravity and this is the reason they destroy the crops in the field.

Question 9.
Why don’t we get hailstones frequently?
Answer:
For the formation of hailstones the following 2 conditions are required:

• Intense heating which results in upwards air flow.
• The decrease in air temperature at higher layers of the atmosphere.
• As India is a tropical country, we do not find cooler air at higher levels because of the intense heating of land.

Think about it.

Question 1.
We use a raincoat or umbrella to protect ourselves from rainfall. What will you use to protect yourself from severe hailstorms?
Answer:
If a person is outside without any coverage, he needs to seek shelter immediately, making sure to protect his head from hailstones.

Question 2.
Because of the conventional processes, convectional rainfall occurs in the afternoon in equational areas. But why doesn’t it rain in afternoons in the oceanic areas of the equatorial belt?
Answer:
One of the necessary conditions of convectional rainfall is intense heating of surface which causes air to expand and rise. Since land heats up faster than water, it rains only on the land in the equatorial regions and not in the oceanic areas.

Question 3.
Why are the areas of high rainfall situated in tropical areas?
Answer:

• Tropical areas receive direct rays of the Sun almost throughout the year. Hence the rate of evaporation1 is high here.
• The tropical region receives convectional rainfall throughout the year and also orographic rainfall is experienced here.
• Thus areas of high rainfall are situated in the tropical area.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 5 Precipitation Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the statements choosing the correct option from the bracket:

Question 1.
……………. part of the earth’s surface is full of water.
(a) 30.7%
(b) 4.09%
(c) 60.5%
(d) 70.8%
Answer:
(d) 70.8%

Question 2.
When the temperature in the atmosphere falls below the freezing point and the water vapour directly turns into snowflakes, the process is called as ……………..
(a) sublimation²
(b) frostbite³
(c) carbonation
(d) convection
Answer:
(a) sublimation

Question 3.
In areas located at higher altitudes and high latitudes, where the temperatures are below 0°C get precipitation in the form of ………….
(a) dew
(b) rain
(c) snow
(d) hail
Answer:
(c) snow

Question 4.
Because of ………………. crops may get destroyed and loss of life and property may occur.
(a) dew
(b) rain
(c) snow
(d) hail
Answer:
(d) hail

Question 5.
Hails do not occur in ……………… areas.
(a) temperate
(b) equatorial
(c) landlocked
(d) mountainous
Answer:
(b) equatorial

Question 6.
In equatorial areas, …………. type of rainfall occurs almost daily in the afternoons.
(a) frontal
(b) convectional
(c) cyclonic
(d) orographic
Answer:
(b) convectional

Question 7.
…………… rainfall occurs because of obstruction from high mountain ranges.
(a) Frontal
(b) Convectional
(c) Cyclonic
(d) Orographic
Answer:
(d) orographic

Question 8.
Cyclonic rainfall occurs more in …………… zones.
(a) temperate
(b) equatorial
(c) torrid
(d) polar
Answer:
(a) temperate

Question 9.
…………… rainfall occurs in most of the parts in the world.
(a) Frontal
(b) Convectional
(c) Orographic
(d) Cyclonic
Answer:
(c) orographic

Question 10.
Snowfall can also be measured with the help of ……………
(a) hygrometer
(b) rain gauge
(c) barometer
(d) anemometer
Answer:
(b) rain gauge

Question 11.
A layer of ice is equivalent to 10mm of rainfall.
(a) 10mm
(b) 50mm
(c) 100mm
(c) 120mm
Answer:
(c) 120mm

Question 12.
When moisture-laden air near the earth’s surface comes in contact of very cold objects and form water droplets which stick to the surface of the cold objects is formed.
(a) dew
(b) frost
(c) hail
(d) fog
Answer:
(a) dew

Question 13.
If the temperature of the air reaches less than 0°C, the water droplets stuck to the surfaces of cold objects freeze and form
(a) dew
(b) frost
(c) hail
(d) fog
Answer:
(b) frost

Question 14.
If precipitation does not take place, then conditions of arise.
(a) floods
(b) hail
(c) snowstorm
(d) drought
Answer:
(d) drought

Question 15.
Visibility reduces because of
(a) floods
(b) drought
(c) fog
(d) dew
Answer:
(c) fog

Match the column:

Question 1.

Column A	Column B
(1) Snowflakes	(a) upward air flow
(2) Hailstones	(b) sublimation
(3) Dew	(c) microscopic water particles floating in the air
(4) Fog	(d) condensation4 on cold objects

Answer:
(1 – b),
(2 – a),
(3 – d),
(4 – c)

Question 2.

Column A	Column B
(1) Orographic rainfall (2) Convectional Rainfall (3) Cyclonic Rainfall	(a) Daily in equatorial areas (b) More in temperate zones (c) Mountain barrier

Answer:
(1 – c),
(2 – a),
(3 – b)

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
What percentage of the earth’s surface is covered with water?
Answer:
70.8% of the earth’s surface is covered with water.

Question 2.
Why do we see different forms of condensation?
Answer:
Different forms of condensation are seen due to changes in atmospheric conditions.

Question 3.
What is precipitation?
Answer:
When water falls in the solid or liquid state from the clouds to the ground, it is called as precipitation.

Question 4.
Name the major forms of precipitation.
Answer:
Snow, hailstones and rainfall are the major forms of precipitation.

Question 5.
Explain the process of sublimation.
Answer:
When the temperature in the atmosphere falls below the freezing point, water vapour directly turns into snowflakes this process is called sublimation.

Question 6.
In India, hails occur in which season?
Answer:
Hails occur in summer reason in India.

Question 7.
Why don’t hails occur in cold zones?
Answer:
Hails do not occur in cold zones because of lack of upward flow.

Question 8.
Why don’t hails occur in equatorial areas?
Answer:
Hails do not occur in equatorial areas because of the heat in the atmosphere.

Question 9.
Which type of rainfall occurs because of obstruction of mountain?
Answer:
Orographic rainfall occurs because of obstruction of mountains.

Question 10.
Convectional rainfall is mainly experienced in which region?
Answer:
Convectional rainfall is mainly experienced in equatorial region.

Question 11.
What is a Cyclone?
Answer:
Cyclone is a specific air formation when the pressure at an area is less than the surrounding regions.

Question 12.
What is acid rain?
Answer:
Precipitation of water with dissolved acids is called acid rain.

Study the rainfall map of the world given below and answer the following question:

Question 1.
Which region experiences more rainfall?
Answer:
The tropical region experiences more rainfall.

Question 2.
What is the reason for low rainfall in the Central Peninsular India?
Answer:
The Central Peninsular India falls on the leeward side of the Western Ghats and hence a rain shadow region is formed here.

Question 3.
Why does the eastern part of Central African continent gets less rainfall than the western part despite its location close to the equator?
Answer:

• Eastern part of the African Continent is a rain shadow region of westerly monsoon winds whereas the western part lies on the windward side and gets more rain.
• The eastern part of Africa also comes under the influence of the North east trade winds but still receive less rains as they are dry winds originating from the land.

Question 4.
Why does the amount of high rainfall in the western part of the European continent reduce in the eastern part?
Answer:
There are many mountain ranges in the western part of Europe. These obstruct the rain-bearing clouds coming from the west and therefore the amount of rainfall received is high in the west and it reduces towards the east.

Question 5.
Why is rainfall more only in the eastern coast of Australia?
Answer:
The eastern part of Australia is a mountainous region. The winds blowing from the Pacific Ocean are obstructed by these mountains resulting in orographic rainfall towards the east and the formation of a rain shadow zone towards the west.

Observe the horizontal profile of Maharashtra in the following figure and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What type of rainfall occurs in Maharashtra?
Answer:
Orographic rainfall occurs in Maharashtra.

Question 2.
Where will the rain shadow area lie in Maharashtra?
Answer:
The rain shadow area lies to the Leeward side of Sahyadri hills (Maharashtra plateau).

Question 3.
Think about the figure and estimate the rainfall of your district.
Answer:
The answer may vary.

Give reasons:

Question 1.
Crops may get destroyed due to hailstones.
Answer:

• As hailstones are heavy they fall towards the earth’s surface, but because of the frequent upward flow of air, they are repeatedly taken upwards.
• Here, a new layer of snow encapsulates the hail. This happens quite a few times.
• Hence, concentric layers are formed while the hail grows in size.
• These big heavy hailstones fall rapidly to the ground because of gravity. This type of precipitation is called as hail.
• Hence due to hail, crops may get destroyed.

Question 2.
There is a difference between ice and snow.
Answer:

• In areas located at higher altitudes and high- latitudes, where the temperatures are below 0°C get precipitation in the form of snow.
• Snow is friable and opaque. This snow accumulates in the form of layers on top of each other.
• Because of the pressure from the upper layers, the lower layers of the snow become homogeneous, massive and transparent.
• Massive transparent snow formed in such a way is called ice.

Thus, there is a difference between ice and snow.

Question 3.
In equatorial areas, convectional rainfall occurs almost daily in the afternoons.
Answer:

• In equatorial areas, the surface gets heated because of the sun’s heat and the air near it also gets heated.
• As it gets heated, it spreads and becomes lighter and moves upwards. It cools down when it goes upward. The moisture-holding capacity of cold air is less.
• Consequently, condensation of the water vapour occurs and rainfall occurs in equatorial areas.
• Thus in equatorial areas, convectional rainfall occurs almost daily in the afternoons.

Question 4.
A rain shadow area is formed on the leeward side of the Western Ghats.
Answer:

• Winds coming from Arabian sea are moisture-laden. They are obstructed by the Western Ghats coming in their way.
• According to the slope of the Western Ghats, the moisture-laden winds start going upwards.
• The temperature of these winds drop and condensation occurs and rainfall takes place. Thus, because of the obstruction of the Western Ghats, orographic rainfall occurs.
• The windward side of the mountains gets more rain; amount of vapour in the air reduces after crossing the mountain and the water vapour carrying capacity of the air increases.
• The leeward side of the mountain gets lesser rainfall and hence a rain-shadow area is formed here.

Question 5.
Snowfall is not experienced in Maharashtra.
Answer:

• Solid snow particles are formed in regions where the temperature falls below the freezing point leading to the process of sublimation.
• In the sublimation process, the water vapour directly turns into snowflakes.
• In Maharashtra, during winters the temperature never falls below the freezing point.
• Hence snowflakes are never formed in the atmosphere.
• Thus snowfall is not experienced in Maharashtra.

Question 6.
Hailstones do not occur frequently.
Answer:

• Strong vertical movements of air with very high difference in temperature are an ideal condition for the formation of hailstones.
• Presence of moisture is also necessary in the air.
• Such conditions do not exist frequently.
• Hence hailstones are not experienced frequently.

Question 7.
Dew and frost occur on a large scale in winters.
Answer:

• During winters when moisture-laden air near the earth’s surface comes in contact very cold objects, condensation of the vapour takes place.
• They turn into very small water droplets. These water droplets get stick to the surface of the cold objects. This is called dew.
• If the temperature of the air is less than 0°C, the water droplets stuck to the surfaces of cold objects freeze.
• This frozen water droplet is called frost.
• Thus dew and frost occur on a large scale in winters.

Draw diagram of Rain Gauge:
Answer:

Question 6.
Explain the effects of precipitation.
Answer:

• The main source of potable water available on the earth is precipitation.
• As extreme rainfall is destructive so is the absence of rainfall.
• Floods may occur because of heavy rainfall and causes loss to life and property.
• If precipitation does not take place then conditions of drought arise. It causes a shortage of food and food may have to be imported and farmers’ conditions becomes grave.
• The economy of an agrarian1 country like India is dependent on agriculture. The agriculture in India to a large extent is dependent on monsoons. Hence rainfall in India is important to the whole country.
• A good rainfall at the right time increases crop production while untimely rain can damage the crope.
• Acid rains which is a combination of harmful gases and rainwater is harmful to the living organisms as well as non-living objects.

Explain:

Question 1.
Snowfall
Answer:

• When the temperature in the atmosphere falls below the freezing point, the water vapour directly turns into snowflakes. This is called sublimation.
• Here, the vapour in the form of gas transforms into solid snow.
• Precipitation in the form of solid particles is known as snowfall.
• In high latitudinal and temperate regions, snowfall occurs at the mean sea level while in tropical areas, snowfall occurs at places located higher than the snowline altitude.

Question 2.
Formation of hailstones.
Answer:

• When there is a lot of heat on the earth’s surface, the upward air flow blows at a great speed.
• Because of this upward flow, the temperature of the air reduces and the condensation of the water vapour takes place.
• Dark clouds are formed. Because of the upward movement of air, these water droplets go at a higher altitude.
• Here, solidification of these droplets occur and hailstones are formed.

Question 3.
Cyclonic rainfall
Answer:

• Cyclone is the specific air formation when the pressure at an area is less than the surrounding regions.
• Air from the surrounding region comes toward the center of the cyclone and starts moving upwards.
• As it rises, the temperature of the air reduces, condensation occurs and rainfall takes place.
• It rains in areas over which the cyclone passes. Cyclonic rainfall occurs more in temperate zones and its area is also quite extensive.
• Comparatively, cyclonic rainfall occurring in tropical regions is limited in extent and is stormy in nature.

Question 4.
Rain Gauge.
Answer:

• The instrument that is used to measure rainfall is called rain gauge.
• The funnel that is used for measuring rain has a specific diameter. The rain falling in this funnel is collected in a bottle fitted in the gauge.
• The collected water is then measured with the help of measuring jar. The measuring jar reads in millimetres.
• In areas of heavy rainfall, the reading of the rain is taken every three hours.
• The gauge is kept on open ground on a 30cm flat-mount. Hence, the rainwater is collected without any obstruction.

Question 5
Fog, dew and frost
Answer:
(i) Fog:

• The temperature of the layers of the air near the surface of the earth reduces. As temperature reduces, water vapour condenses.
• In this process, vapour turns into microscopic water particles and float in the air.
• When the density of these droplets in the air increases, fog occurs.

(ii) Dew:

• When moisture-laden air near the earth’s surface comes in contact with very cold objects, condensation of the vapour takes place. They turn into very small water droplets.
• These water droplets get stick to the surface of the cold objects. This is called dew.

(iii) Frost:

• If the temperature of the air reaches less than 0°C, the water droplets stuck to the surfaces of cold objects and freeze.
• This frozen water droplet is called frost.

Question 6.
Acid Rain
Answer:

• Because of air pollution in industrial areas, various gases get mixed in the air.
• Different adds are created when the water vapour in the air reacts chemically with these gases. For example, nitric add, sulphuric add, etc.
• Acids dissolved in rainwater fall with the rain j during precipitation. Such a type of rain which has acids dissolved in it is called acid rain.
• Such type of rainfall is harmful to the living organisms and the non-living objects.

Question 7.
Convectional Rainfall
Answer:

1. In equatorial areas, the surface gets heated because of the sun’s heat and the air near it also gets heated. As it gets heated, it spreads and becomes lighter and moves upwards.
2. It cools down when it goes upward & as the j moisture-holding capacity of cold air is less, condensation and rainfall occurs.
3. This type of rainfall is called as Convectional! Rainfall.
4. In equatorial areas, such a type of rainfall occurs almost daily in the afternoons. Rainfall is accompanied by lightning and thunder.
5. The Congo basin of the Africa and the Amazon basin in the South America experience convectional rainfall.
6. Such a rainfall has a very limited area on the earth.

Question 8.
Orographic rainfall
Answer:

• Winds coming from lakes or seas are moisture-laden. They are obstructed by the high mountain ranges coming in their way.
• They start going upwards along the slope of the mountains.
• The temperature of these winds drop and condensation occurs and rainfall takes place. Thus because of the obstruction of the mountains, this type of rainfall occurs.
• The windward side of the mountains gets; more rain; the amount of vapour in the air reduces after crossing the mountain and the moisture-holding capacity of the air increases.
• The leeward side of the mountain gets lesser rainfall and hence this area is identified as rain- shadow area.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Exogenetic Movements Part 2, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Exogenetic Movements Part 2

Class 9 Geography Chapter 4 Exogenetic Movements Part 2 Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Rewrite the correct statement:

Question 1.
The temperature range helps the wind in its work.
Answer:
Correct.

Question 2.
River’s work is more prominent than other agents of erosion in desert regions.
Answer:
Incorrect. Work of wind is more prominent in desert regions than other agents of erosion.

Question 3.
The work of groundwater is effective in the area with soft rocks.
Answer:
Correct.

2. Correct and rewrite the incorrect statements:

Question 1.
The ice on the lateral side of the glacier moves faster than the ice at the base.
Answer:
Incorrect. The ice on the base of the glacier moves faster than the ice on the lateral side.

Question 2.
The depositional work by rivers happens because of gentle slope, reduced speed and transported sediments.
Answer:
Correct.

Question 3.
A river flows at a faster speed than the glacier.
Answer:
Correct.

Question 4.
The speed of the glacier is more on both the banks than in the middle.
Answer:
Correct.

3. Identify the wrong pair

Question 1.
Deposition – V-shaped valley
Answer:
Wrong pair.
Correct pair is – Erosion – V-shaped valley

Question 2.
Transport – Ripple Marks
Answer:
Transport – Ripple Marks

Question 3.
Erosion – Mushroom Rocks
Answer:
Erosion – Mushroom Rocks

4. Identify and name the landforms in the following diagrams :

Answer:
(i) V-shaped valley
(ii) Gorge (Canyon)
(iii) Delta

5. Complete the following table by classifying the landforms according to their agents of erosion.
(waterfall, delta, cirque, arête, barchans, moraine, pothole, mushroom rock, sinkholes, beach, pillars, lagoons)
Rivers Wind Glacier Sea Waves Groundwater
Answer:

Rivers	Wind	Glacier	Sea waves	Ground Water
Waterfall	Barchans	Cirque	Beach	Sinkholes
Delta	Mushroom rock	Aretes	Lagoons	Pillars
Pothole		Moraine

6. Answer the following questions in brief.

Question 1.
List the landforms that are a result of the erosional work of the rivers.
Answer:
Gorges (canyons), V-shaped valleys and waterfalls are the result of the erosional work of the rivers.
(i) ‘V’ Shaped Valley:

• A ‘V shaped valley is formed due to the erosional work of a river.
• Over a period of time, the amount of load in the flow starts increasing.
• More and more energy of the river gets consumed in transporting the material.
• As a result, there is less erosion of the bed. The erosion along the banks and the slopes of the valley increases.
• Hence, the slopes recedes and the valley with near-vertical sides becomes wider, resembling the letter ‘V’.

(ii) Gorge:

• A gorge is found in the upper course of the river.
• It is a deep and narrow valley with steep sides.
• In mountainous areas, the river flows with great speed. Therefore, the bed of the river gets eroded more than its banks, giving rise to a gorge that has a steep banks and a narrow bed.

(iii) Waterfall:

• Waterfalls are formed as a result of the erosional work of a river.
• Water flowing over a hilly region cascades down a cliff, forming a waterfall.
• In the areas, where the hard and soft rocks are next to each other, the soft rocks are eroded faster than the hard ones. A difference in the height along the river bed leads to the formation of a waterfall.

Question 2.
Which agent is responsible for the formation of stalactites and stalagmites and where are they formed?
Answer:

• The work of groundwater is responsible for the formation of stalactites and stalagmites.
• In areas of limestone, the alkaline water seeps through the roof of the limestone caves.
• When this water evaporates, minerals get deposited at the bottom and at the top of the limestone caves.
• This leads to formation of stalactites and stalagmites.

Question 3.
List the landforms that are produced by the depositional work of the sea waves
Answer:
The landforms like beaches, sand bar, lagoons are formed due to depositional work of the sea waves.
(i) Beach:

• Large amount of sediments come from the landward side in areas between two adjoining headlands.
• Moreover, as these areas are shallow, the velocity of the waves decreases.
• As a result, the sediments that come from the land, as well as those coming from the deep sea, get deposited in this area.
• Predominantly fine sand gets settled along the coast.
• Such sandy deposits along the coasts are called beaches.

(ii) Lagoon:

• The brackish water separated from the seawater by sand bars and lying in the areas between the coast and bars is called a lagoon.
• As the waters are separated from the open sea, large waves are not generated.
• These lagoons run parallel to the sea coast.

(iii) Sand bars:

• Sand gets deposited along the sides of the headlands.
• The deposition extends parallel to the coast from one headland to the next.
• Over a period of time, these deposits extend over long distances forming bars that protrude into the water at some distance away from the beach.
• These are known as ‘sand bars’, Sometimes, the eroded material from the’ beach, gives rise to the sand bars.

Question 4.
Name the types of moraines.
Answer:
The glaciers carry sediments with them. These sediments are called moraines. Depending ond the location of the deposits, moraines can be divided into 4 types: ground moraines, lateral moraines, medial moraines and terminal moraines.

• The material deposited at the base of a glacier is called ground moraine.
• The material deposited along the banks of a glacier is called Lateral moraine.
• After the confluence of two glaciers, the moraine deposited in the central part of the glacier is known as medial moraine. It is formed out of . the side moraine of the inner banks of the two glaciers.
• At the end where a glacier turns into a stream, huge quantity of moraine is deposited. The stream of water is unable to carry the moraine further. As the deposited moraine is at the terminal part of a glacier, it is called terminal moraine.

7. Observe the following picture carefully. Identify the landforms formed by different agents of erosion. Number them with a pencil here and write their names in the sequence in your notebook.

(i)

Answer:
Depositional work of river

(ii)

Answer:
Depositional work of river

(iii)

Answer:
Erosional work of river

(iv)

Answer:
Depositional work of river

(2) Some pictures of the landforms formed by glaciers3 are given below. Write the function because of which they have been formed.

(i)

Answer:
Erosional work of glacier

(ii)

Answer:
Erosional work of glacier

(iii)

Answer:
Depositional work of glacier

(iv)

Answer:
Depositional work of glacier

(v)

Answer:
Erosional work of glacier

(vi)

Answer:
Erosional work of glacier

(vii)

Answer:
Depositional work of glacier

(3) Some pictures of the Iandforms produced by the work of the winds are given below. See the pictures and write in the box whether they have been formed by erosion or deposition.

(i)

Answer:
Erosional work of wind

(ii)

Answer:
Depositional work of wind

(iii)

Answer:
Depositional work of wind

(iv)

Answer:
Depositional work of wind

(v)

Answer:
Erosional work of wind

(vi)

Answer:
Erosional work of wind

(4) Some pictures of the landforms produced by the work of the sea waves are given below. See the pictures and write in the box whether they have been formed by erosion or deposition.

With the help of internet, obtain information regarding the places along the Konkan coast where you will find the landforms formed by sea waves.

(i)

Answer:
Erosional work of sea waves.

(ii)

Answer:
Depositional work of sea waves

(iii)

Answer:
Erosional work of sea waves.

(iv)

Answer:
Erosional work of sea waves.

(v)

Answer:
Erosional work of sea waves.

(vi)

Answer:
Depositional work of sea waves.

(vii)

Answer:
Depositional work of sea waves.

(5) See the pictures of the landforms produced by the work of groundwater. Write in the box below them whether they are formed through the work of erosion or deposition.

(i)

Answer:
Erosional work of ground water

(ii)

Answer:
Depositional work of ground water

Class 9 Geography Chapter 4 Exogenetic Movements Part 2 Intext Questions and Answers

Draw a diagram showing landforms at the sea coast:
Answer:

Can You Tell?

Question 1.
How will you differentiate between a rill, gully, stream and a river?
Answer:
The smallest natural flow of rain water is a rill. Many rills come together to form a gully. Many gullies come together and form a stream. Many streams come together and form a river. Thus we can see that rills, gullies, streams nad rivers are the various forms of flowing water in increasing order of their size.

Question 2.
What is a river?
Answer:
Running water flows naturally in a direction according to gravity along the slope, making its own way. This is called a flow of water when many such flows of water come together a river is formed.

Question 3.
Where can you see the work by glaciers in India?
Answer:
Glaciers can be seen in the Himalayan region in India.

Question 4.
In which natural region can you see the work of glaciers at the sea level?
Answer:
We can see the work of glacier at sea level in the Polar regions (Antarctica).

Question 5.
Where will you find the landforms formed by sea waves along the Konkan coast?
Answer:
Along the Konkan coast, landforms formed by sea waves can be found at Harihareshwar, Bhagwatibandar, Shrivardhan, Ratnagiri and Sindhudurg.

Think about it.

Question 1.
There are many creeks found in the coastal areas of Konkan but no delta, why?
Answer:
The Konkan coast has an indented (broken) coastline. Hence many creeks are found here. Many small seasonal rivers originate in the steep western side of the Western Ghats. As the rivers flow through the steep slopes their velocity increases. So, there is very little erosion done by them. Due to the narrow width of the Konkan coast, the rivers cover a short distance and drain in the Arabian sea. Thus they do not form estuaries rather than deltas.

Question 2.
Can you see a glacier moving just as you can observe the movement of river water?
Answer:
No

Question 3.
Ramu has to dig a well in his farm. But he is in a dilemma as to which season should he dig it so that there is water supply for a longer time. What will you suggest to Ramu?
Answer:
Ramu should dig a well during the summer season. A deep well can be dug during the summer season. This will ensure water supply not only during the monsoon and winter season but also during the next summer season.

Question 4.
Which agent has more kinetic energy of all-wind, river or glacier?
Answer:
Glacier is the agent of erosion which has the most kinetic energy of all. The glacier is a mixture of heavy soil and rock particles which are flowing. Thus it has both weight and movement.

Find out.

Question 1.
Is there any lake found near the meanders of the river? Obtain information about them.
Answer:

• Ox-Bow lakes are usually found near the meanders of a river.
• Wherever the river changes its direction, erosion takes place along the outer banks.
• If these conditions occur again and again, the river develops a zigzag path.
• Such a zigzag path is called a meandering path (course) and each loop along the path is called meander.
• When the turns in the course become acute, the limbs of a turn come very close.
• During flood, as the force of water increases, the river skips the meandering path and follows a straight path.
• The abandoned portion of the loop develops into a lake that is called an ‘ox-bow’ lake.

Question 2.
Where will you find mushroom rocks in the Deccan Plateau?
Answer:
Mushroom rocks can be found in the Hyderabad.

Question 3.
Can you find the work of wind near coastal areas? What landforms will be formed there?
Answer:
Yes, Ripple marks and sand mounds can be seen on the sand in the coastal regions.

Question 4.
Where are limestone caves, stalactites and stalagmites found in Maharashtra?
Answer:
Limestone caves, stalactites and stalagmites are found in Kanhur caves in the Ahmednagar district of Maharashtra.

Question 5.
Why are the landforms formed in limestone called Karst?
Answer:
A karst is an area of land formation created by eroding and dissolving portions of limestone or other soluble rock layers above or below the ground. According to the prevalent interpretation, the term is derived from the German name for the Karst region, a limestone plateau above the city of Trieste in the northern Adriatic.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 4 Exogenetic Movements Part 2 Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the statements by choosing the correct options.

Question 1.
The sediments are deposited at the foothills of the mountains in a triangular area forming an/a ………….. .
(a) alluvial fan
(b) yardang
(c) delta
(d) V-shaped valley
Answer:
(a) alluvial fan

Question 2.
The sediments carried by the glacier2 are called ………….. .
(a) sediments
(b) silt
(c) moraines
(d) alluvium
Answer:
(c) moraines

Question 3.
The erosional, transportation and depositional work of wind is more prominent in ………….. .
(a) polar regions
(b) deserts
(c) temperate regions
(d) grasslands
Answer:
(b) deserts

Question 4.
When many flows of water come together a …………… is formed.
(a) gorge
(b) river
(c) glacier
(d) canyon
Answer:
(b) river

Question 5.
The water which percolates through the porous rocks on the non-porous layer of rock is termed as ………….. .
(a) glacier
(b) flood leeves
(c) ground water
(d) surface water
Answer:
(c) ground water

Question 6.
…………… is formed due to depositional work of river.
(a) Delta
(b) Gorge
(c) V-shaped valley
(d) Canyon
Answer:
(a) Delta

Question 7.
In regions, where the temperatures are generally below freezing points, precipitation is in the form of ………….. .
(a) rainfall
(b) hail
(c) snowfall
(d) frost
Answer:
(c) snowfall

Question 8.
The erosional work of glacier forms ………….. .
(a) drumlins
(b) eskers
(c) cirques
(d) yardangs
Answer:
(c) cirques

Question 9.
The Jacobshavn Glacier in …………… is one of the fastest moving glaciers in the world.
(a) Finland
(b) Greenland
(c) Antarctica
(d) Himalayas
Answer:
(b) Greenland

Question 10.
The depositional work of ground water forms ………….. .
(a) limestone caves
(b) lagoons
(c) ripple marks
(d) seifs
Answer:
(a) limestone caves

Question 11.
Stalactites grow ………….. .
(a) downwards
(b) upwards
(c) sidewards
(d) fast
Answer:
(a) downwards

Question 12.
The ground water levels sink down in …………… season.
(a) summer
(b) winter
(c) rainy
(d) spring
Answer:
(a) summer

Question 13.
…………… is formed as a result of the depositional work of the sea waves.
(a) Sea cliff
(b) Lagoon
(c) Wave-cut platform
(d) Sea cave
Answer:
(b) Lagoon

Question 14.
The landforms developed in limestone areas are also called as …………… landforms.
(a) lime
(b) sinkhole
(c) krast
(d) coastal
Answer:
(c) krast

Match the Columns:

(1) River

Column A’		Column B’
(1)	Erosion	(a)	Ox-bow lake
(2)	Deposition	(b)	Meanders
		(c)	Yardangs

Answer:
(1 – b),
(2-a)

(2) Glacier

Column ‘A’		Column ‘B’
(1)	Erosion	(a)	Seif
(2)	Deposition	(b)	Eskers
		(c)	Cirque

Answer:
(1 – c),
(2 – b)

(3) Wind

Column ‘A’		Column B’
(1)	Erosion	(a)	Sand dunes
(2)	Deposition	(b)	Mushroom Rock
		(c)	Lagoon

Answer:
(1 – b),
(2 – a)

(4)

Column ‘A’		Column B’
(1)	Ground water	(a)	Delta region
(2)	Sea waves	(b)	Lagoon
		(c)	Sink holes

Answer:
(1 – c),
(2 – b)

(5)

Column ‘A’		Column B’
(1)	Stalactites & stalagmites	(a)	wind
(2)	Sand bar	(b)	ground water
		(c)	sea waves

Answer:
(1 – b),
(2 – c)

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
Name the agents of erosion.
Answer:
The agents of erosion are wind, rivers, glaciers, sea waves and ground water.

Question 2.
What factors does the work of a river depend on?
Answer:
The works of river depends on the nature of rock, the slope of land, velocity of the flow and the volume of water.

Question 3.
What are the important phases of a river’s work?
Answer:
The important phases of a river’s work are erosion, transportation and deposition.

Question 4.
What factors does the work of glaciers depend on?
Answer:
The work of glacier depends on the thickness of the accumulated ice, the temperature, and the slope of the land.

Question 5.
Which landforms are created due to the processes of erosion by the river?
Answer:
Landforms like gorges, V-shaped valleys, potholes and waterfalls are created due to the processes of erosion by the river.

Question 6.
Which landforms are formed mainly due to the transportational and depositional work of a river?
Answer:
Due to the transportational and depositional work of a river, meanders, ox-bow lakes, flood levees, flood plains and delta regions are formed.

Question 7.
Which landforms are created as a result of the erosional work of a glacier?
Answer:
The landforms such as a cirque, arete and matterhorn, U-shaped valley, hanging valleys, etc. are created as a result of the erosional work of a glacier.

Question 8.
Name the landforms formed by the depositional work of glaciers.
Answer:
The landforms formed by the depositional work of glaciers are drumlins, eskers etc.

Question 9.
Name the types of moraine.
Answer:
Ground moraine, lateral moraine, medial moraine and terminal moraine are the different types of moraine.

Question 10.
Which landforms are created as a result of the erosional work of the wind?
Answer:
The landforms like mushroom rocks, deflation hollows, yardangs etc. are created as a result of the erosional work of the wind.

Question 11.
Which landforms are created as a result of the transportation and depositional work of the wind?
Answer:
Sand dunes, barchans, seif, ripple marks, and loess plains are created as a result of transportation and depositional work of the wind.

Question 12.
Which landforms are produced as a result of the erosional work of sea waves?
Answer:
The landforms like sea cliffs, sea caves, wave-cut platforms, sea arches and sea stacks are produced as a result of the erosional work of sea waves.

Question 13.
Mention the landforms created due to the transportation and depositional work of sea waves.
Answer:
Beaches, sand bars and lagoons are created due to the transportation and depositional work of sea waves.

Fill the map with the given information and make a legend.

(1) Konkan Coast where work of sea waves can be seen
(2) Region in India where work of glaciers can be seen
(3) Desert region in India where work of wind can be seen
Answer:

Give geographical reasons:

Question 1.
Like the river, a glacier too carries out the work of erosion, transportation and deposition.
Answer:

• In regions, where the temperatures are generally below freezing points, precipitation is in the form of snowfall.
• Layers of snow accumulate on the earth’s surface because of snowfall.
• The heavy weight of these overlying layers makes the snow move along the slope.
• At the base of the layer, the snow starts melting because of the friction and the pressure from above. Glacier starts moving slowly along the slope.
• Thus like the river, a glacier too carries out the work of erosion, transportation and deposition.

Question 2.
Specific landforms are formed due to deposition by wind in arid and semi arid regions.
Answer:

• Sand particles that blow with the winds are of different shapes and sizes.?
• Those particles which are very fine are carried to larger distances while the larger ones get transported to shorter distances only.
• These sand particles get deposited in deserts and semi-arid climates.
• As a result, specific landforms are formed.
• Sand dunes, barchans, seifs, ripple marks, loess plains, etc. are formed by deposition by wind.

Question 3.
The work of sea waves cause different landforms.
Answer:

• In coastal areas, the sea waves carry out erosional, depositional and transportational work.
• Winds and tides cause the movements of sea water. As a result, waves come to the coast.
• Because of their hitting the rocks at the coasts, erosion of the rocks occurs.
• The landforms like wave cut platforms, sea caves, sea arches, sea cliffs, etc. are formed because of the erosional work of the waves.
• The landforms like beaches, sand bar, lagoons are formed due to depositional work of the sea waves.

Question 4.
In the desert, the work of wind is effective.
Answer:

• The work of wind is predominantly found in the hot desert and semi-arid regions.
• Hot deserts are found close to the Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn.
• The average annual rainfall in the hot deserts is 250 mm or even less. Therefore, the vegetal cover is negligible.
• As there are no obstacles due to lack of vegetal cover, the work of wind is effective in the desert.

Question 5.
Glaciers have a low velocity.
Answer:

• In the high altitude areas and the areas of high elevation, the ice slides down the slope. Such a sliding mass of ice is called a glacier.
• As the ice moving in a glacier is in the solid state, its velocity is very low.
• The thickness of the accumulated ice, the temperature and the slope of the land are the factors that determine the velocity of the glacier.

Question 6.
The ground water level changes according to seasons.
Answer:

• The upper level of the stored ground water is called ground water level.
• It varies according to the slope of the land, porosity and compactness of the rocks and the rainfall in the region.
• Ground water level also changes according to season.
• In the rainy season, it is closer to the ground surface whereas during summer, it drops down deeper.

Identify the land forms made by waves and write their names in the given picture.

Answer:

• Wave-cut platform
• Lagoon
• Beach
• Sea cave
• Sea arch
• Sea stack
• Sea cliff

Write the name of the landforms with which the following diagrams are associated. Colour the eroded and the remaining part, if any, in the given diagrams.

Answer:
(a) Mushroom Rock
(b) Sand Dune (Barchan)
(c) Yardangs
(d) Seif (Sand Mounds)

Identify the landforms formed by groundwater in the given diagram.

Answer:
Stalactite and Stalagmite cave.

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
List the agents responsible for new landforms. i
Answer:
The agents – running water (river), glaciers, wind, sea waves and groundwater, – do the work of erosion, transportation and deposition. Because of these agents, the earth’s surface keeps undergoing changes and new landforms are formed.
(i) Running water (river):

• The river beds, as well as the banks of a river, are eroded due to the speedy flowing stream of water. The load that a river carries also erodes the banks and the bed of the river.
• The rocks, stones, sand, etc. collide with one another and break into fragments
• Different landforms like gorge, V-shaped valley, pothole and waterfall are formed due to the erosional work of a river.

(ii) Glaciers:

• As a glacier is nothing but a solid mass of ice, its velocity is very low. Nevertheless, the mass of water in the solid form is quite high. Therefore, glaciers cause a considerable amount of erosion.
• The glaciers erode the ice-clad base of the mountain slopes and the snow-clad sides of the mountains to a large extent.
• The Cirque, Arete and horn, U-Shaped valley and hanging valley are the landforms formed by the erosional work of a glacier.

(iii) Wind:

• The wind carries sand and pebbles.
• When they strike and scratch the rocks, the elevated and basal parts of the rocks get eroded.
• Due to the erosional processes of the wind, deflation hollows, mushroom rocks and yardangs3 are formed.

(iv) Sea waves:

• The basal portions of the headlands get severely eroded due to the continuous attack of sea waves. This leads to the erosion of the rocks on a large scale.
• Rocky coasts are formed where the headlands get severely eroded.
• Landforms such as sea cliffs, sea caves, wave- cut platforms, sea arches and sea stacks are formed due to the erosional work of sea waves.

(v) Groundwater:

• Soluble minerals in the rocks dissolve in water and they move along with the ground water. This process is called erosion by ground water.
• The work of ground water is predominant in the region where rock like limestone is found on a large scale.
• Limestone dissolves in carbonic acid. Carbonic acid is formed due to the presence of carbon? dioxide in ground water. This acid dissolves carbonates like limestone. Thus, chemical weathering takes place.
• The landforms like sinkholes and caves are the result of the erosional work of groundwater.

Question 2.
List the landforms that are produced due to deposition of sediments by rivers.
Answer:
Landforms like flood levees, flood plains, deltas are formed because of deposition of sediments,

1. Flood levees: When in flood, the river deposits ; the coarser material on the banks which in duecourse rises parallel to the banks of the river. These are called ‘flood levees’.
2. Flood plains: The finer silt deposited away from the banks during the flood form plains on ! either side of the river. They are called ‘flood plains’.
3. Delta: The continuous deposition leads to the formation of a plain in the shape of a triangle called delta. Extensive deltas have been formed ! at the mouth of rivers Ganga, Godavari, Kaveri.

Question 3.
Write in detail about the erosional and depositional work of wind.
Answer:
(i) Erosional work of winds:

• Wind carries small sand particles, small pebbles, etc. along with it.
• These particles cause erosion along rocks coming in the way due to friction.
• This leads to formation of mushroom rocks, deflation hollows, yardangs, etc.

(ii) Depositional work of winds:

• Sand particles that blow with the winds are of different shapes and sizes.
• Those particles which are very fine are carried to larger distances while the larger ones get transported to shorter distances only.
• These sand particles get deposited in deserts and semi-arid climates. As a result, specific landforms are formed.
• Sand dunes, barchans, seifs, ripple marks, loessplains, etc. are formed by deposition by wind.

Question 4.
Write in detail about the erosional and depositional work of sea waves.
Answer:
(i) Erosional work of sea waves:

• When the waves break at the coast, they bring with them water, transported stones, pebbles,sand particles, etc. This leads to the erosion of the coast.
• Because of the chemical and hydraulic action of the sea wave too, the erosion occurs. The landforms like wavecut platforms, sea caves, sea arches, sea cliffs, etc. are formed because of the erosional work of the waves.

(ii) Depositional work of sea waves:

• The eroded materials accumulate at the sea bed. Because of tides, they keep on moving towards the coast and away from the coast.
• They become fine because of attrition and hitting towards each other.
• Deposition of such materials occurs at the places where the effect of waves is less. The landforms like beaches, sand bar, lagoons are formed due to the depositional work of the sea waves.

Explain:

Question 1.
Erosional work of rivers
Answer:

• The rivers originate at a much higher altitude from the sea level.
• Here, the river flows at a great speed and therefore, its power to erode is great.
• The riverbed and the river banks get eroded because of the speedy flow of the river, sand particles, pebbles. Also, various tributaries join the main river.
• All these lead to the formation of gorges (canyons), V-shaped valleys and waterfalls.

Question 2.
Transportation and deposition by rivers
Answer:

• A river flows down the slope from a hilly region.
• At the foothills, the change in the slope causes deposition of coarse sediments.
• As these are deposited in a triangular shape, they form an alluvial fan. As the steepness of the slope decreases and the transport capacity of the river reduces, it starts flowing slowly.
• It bends (meanders) often in its way in an effort to cross even small obstacles.
• By the time the river reaches the sea, its riverbed becomes very wide and its speed becomes very slow.
• The sediments of the river get deposited in its bed and on its banks. The factors that determine the deposition of sediments are thelength of the rivers, volume of water, amountof sediments, and the slope of the river and the earth’s surface.
• Thus, landforms like flood levees, flood plains,deltas are formed because of deposition of sediments.

Question 3.
Erosion work by glaciers
Answer:

• Though the velocity of glaciers is less, the mass of the ice is more and hence the glacier erodes its own banks and its bed on a large scale.
• The erosional work of glaciers produces landforms like cirques, aretes, horns, U-shaped valleys, hanging valleys and roche moutonnees (or sheepbacks).

Question 4.
Transportation and deposition by glaciers
Answer:

• The glaciers carry sediments with them. These sediments are called moraines.
• Depending on the location of the deposits, moraines can be divided into 4 types: ground moraines, lateral moraines, medial moraines and terminal moraines.
• The depositional work of glacier produces landforms like drumlins, eskers, etc.

Question 5.
Erosional and depositional work of wind
Answer:

• Erosional work of wind: Wind carries smallsand particles, small pebbles, etc. along with I it. These particles cause erosion along rockscoming in the way due to friction.
• This leads to formation of mushroom rocks, deflation hollows, yardangs, etc.
• Depositional work of winds: Sand particles that blow with the winds are of different shapes and sizes.
• Those particles which are very fine are carried to larger distances while the larger ones get transported to shorter distances only.
• These sand particles get deposited in deserts ; and semi-arid climates. As a result, specific landforms are formed.
• Sand dunes, barchans, seifs, ripple marks, loess plains, etc. are formed by deposition by wind.

Question 6.
Erosional work of sea waves
Answer:

• When the waves break at the coast, they bring with them water, transported stones, pebbles, sand particles, etc.
• This leads to the erosion of the coast. Because of the chemical and hydraulic action of the sea wave too, the erosion occurs.
• The landforms like wave cut platforms, sea caves, sea arches, sea cliffs, etc. are formed because of the erosional work of the waves.

Question 7.
Depositional work of sea waves
Answer:

• The eroded materials accumulate at the sea bed.
• Because of tides, they keep on moving towards the coast and away from the coast.
• They become fine because of attrition and hitting towards each other. Deposition of such materials occurs at the places where the effect of waves is less.
• The landforms like beaches, sand bar, lagoons are formed due to depositional work.

Question 8.
Work of groundwater and landforms
Answer:

• The rainwater seeps below the earth’s surface through porous rocks or the cracks in the rocks.
• This water accumulates at the non-porous layer of the rock. This accumulated water is called groundwater.
• The soluble minerals in the water get dissolved and flow with the groundwater. This is the erosional work of the groundwater.
• When the groundwater evaporates or the volume of soluble minerals is more than the solubility of the groundwater, the deposition of dissolved materials starts.
• Landforms like sinkholes, limestone caves, stalactites and stalagmites are formed.
• Thus, the groundwater carries out the erosion, transportation and depositional work.

Question 9.
Groundwater table
Answer:

• The upper surface of the water accumulated below the ground is called the ground water table.
• Factors like seasons, porosity of rocks, amount of rainfall, etc. affect the level of water table.
• The water table is closer to the ground during rainy seasons while it is deeper in the summers.?

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 2 India: Events After 1960 Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 2 India: Events After 1960

Class 9 History Chapter 2 India: Events After 1960 Textbook Questions and Answers

1. A. Choose the correct option from the given option and rewrite the statements:
Question 1.
The Prime Minister of India who took an initiative in resolving the question of the Tamil minority in Sri Lanka was
(a) Rajiv Gandhi
(b) Indira Gandhi
(c) H. D. Deve Gowda
(d) P. V. Narasimha Rao
Answer:
(a) Rajiv Gandhi

Question 2.
is the father of the Green Revolution in India.
(a) Dr. Verghese Kurien
(b) Homi Bhabha
(c) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan
(d) Dr. Norman Borlaug
Answer:
(c) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan

B. Identify and write the wrong pair in the following sets:

Question 1.
(1) Indira Gandhi – Emergency
(2) Rajiv Gandhi – Developments of Science and Technology
(3) P. V. Narasimha Rao – Economic improvements
(4) Chandrashekhar – Mandal Commission
Answer:
Chandrashekhar – Mandal Commission

Question 2A.
Based on the information in the chapter, prepare a chronological chart of Prime Ministers and their tenure.
Answer:

1. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru -1947 to 1964
2. Lai Bahadur Shastri -1964 to 1966
3. Indira Gandhi -1966 to 1977
4. Morarji Desai -1977 to 1979
5. Charan Singh -1979 to 1980
6. Indira Gandhi -1980 to 1984
7. Rajiv Gandhi -1984 to 1989
8. Vishwanath Pratap Singh – 1989 to 1990
9. Chandra Shekhar -1990 to 1991
10. P. V. Narasimha Rao -1991 to 1996
11. Atal Bihari Vajpayee -1996
12. H.D. Deve Gowda -1996 to 1997
13. Inder Kumar Gujral -1997 to 1998
14. Atal Bihari Vajpayee – 1998 to 2004

2B. Write Short Notes on:

Question 1.
Globalisation
Answer:
(i) Globalisation brought about many changes in different fields like economy, politics, science and technology, society and culture.
(ii) India has emerged as an important country on the global scene in different spheres.
(iii) India is an important member of international organisations like G-20 and ‘BRICS’ (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa).
(iv) India has experienced an important revolution in the field of telecommunication technology.
(v) Mobile phones, internet and the communication facilities based on satellite have spread all across the country.
(vi) It has resulted in a total transformation in the lifestyle of Indians and especially the youth.
(vii) These changes are visible from their dietary habits, clothing, language and beliefs.

Question 2.
White Revolution
Answer:
(i) White Revolution is a major event of India’s efforts towards self-reliance.
(ii) The experiment in co-operative dairy movement by Dr. Verghese Kurien led to the increase of milk production in India.
(iii) This is called as ‘White Revolution’.

3A. Give reasons:

Question 1.
The Morarji Desai government lasted for a short while.
Answer:
(i) On the backdrop of the emergency, many opposition parties came together and formed a party called the Janata Party.
(ii) The Congress party led by Indira Gandhi was roundly defeated by this newly formed ‘Janata Party’.
(iii) Morarji Desai became the Prime Minister, but under his leadership the Janata Party government couldn’t last long due to its internal differences.
(iv) Hence, the Morarji Desai government lasted for a short while.

Question 2.
The army had to be sent into the Golden Temple in Amritsar.
Answer:
(i) The Sikhs in Punjab demanded an independent state of Khalistan and began a movement which went on to become violent and destructive.
(ii) Pakistan had lent its support to this movement.
(iii) Some terrorists had allegedly taken shelter inside the Golden Temple at Amritsar, a holy shrine of the Sikhs in 1984.
(iv) Hence, the Indian army was sent into the Golden Temple in Amritsar to evict the terrorists who had taken shelter there.

Question 3.
The National Planning Commission was set up in India.
Answer:
(i) India wanted to acquire modernity and self-reliance by establishing industries.
(ii) India wanted to establish an economy based on social justice through planning.
(iii) For this, the National Planning Commission was established. This would coordinate development through the policy of Five Year Plans.

B. Answer the following questions in 25 to 30 words.

Question 1.
How was 1991 a year of important changes in the history of the world and of India?
Answer:
(i) The year 1991 is held to be very important in the history of the world as well as India.
(ii) The Soviet Union disintegrated into several different small countries and the Cold War came to an end.
(iii) During this period, the Ram Janmabhumi and Babri Mosque issue at Ayodhya came to the forefront.
(iv) In India, the Government under the leadership of Prime Minister P. V. Narasimha Rao initiated many changes in the Indian economy.
(v) These economic reforms are called as economic liberalisation. The Indian economy flourished as a result of the implementation of this policy.
(vi) Skilled Indian professionals helped reform the Indian economy. The field of information technology opened several avenues of employment in the country.
(vii) The changes after 1991 are also described as ‘globalisation’.

Question 2.
What are the characteristics of the Indian economy?
Answer:
(i) Right from independence, the modernisation of economy, economic self-sufficiency and social justice have been the characteristics of Indian economy.
(ii) India wanted to acquire modernity and self-reliance by establishing industries.
(iii) It wanted to establish an economy based on social justice through planning.
(iv) For this, the National Planning Commission was established that would coordinate development through the policy of Five Year Plans.

4. With the help of the information in the chapter, complete the list of the challenges before India and the strengths of India.
Question 1.

The Challenges In Front of India	Strengths
For Example: India-Pakistan war	Unity in diversity
…………………………..	……………………..
…………………………….	Nuclear preparedness
Separatism	……………………………..

Answer:

The Challenges In Front of India	Strengths
India-Pakistan war	Unity in diversity
Cross – Border Terrorism	Membership in G20 and BRICS
Corruption	Nuclear preparedness
Separatism	Establishment of National Planning Commission

Class 9 History Chapter 2 India: Events After 1960 Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given option and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
The war between India and China took place in the year ________.
(a) 1952
(b) 1962
(c) 1972
(d) 1982
Answer:
(b) 1962

Question 2.
The Indo – China war was fought in the region of the _______ line.
(a)
MacMahon
(b) Kashmir
(c) St Lawrence
(d) Me Kinley
Answer:
MacMahon

Question 3.
Jawaharlal Nehru passed away in _________.
(a) 1944
(b) 1974
(c) 1984
(d) 1964
Answer:
(d) 1964

Question 4.
After Jawaharlal Nehru _______ became Prime Minister of India.
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Rajiv Gandhi
(c) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(d) Morarji Desai
Answer:
(c) Lal Bahadur Shastri

Question 5.
India and Pakistan went to war over the ________ issue in 1965.
(a) Kashmir
(b) Goa
(c) Hyderabad
(d) Kerala
Answer:
(a) Kashmir

Question 6.
The ______ mediated between the conflicting countries of India and Pakistan.
(a) Soviet Union
(b) USA
(c) Japan
(d) China
Answer:
(a) Soviet Union
(a) Soviet Union

Question 7.
_____ gave the slogan ‘Jai Jawan Jai Kisan’.
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Lai Bahadur Shastri
(c) Morarji Desai
(d) Rajiv Gandhi
Answer:
(b) Lai Bahadur Shastri

Question 8.
Lai Bahadur Shastri breathed his last at ______in 1966.
(a) Gorakhpur
(b) Kuala Lumpur
(c) Tashkent
(d) Varanasi
Answer:
(c) Tashkent

Question 9.
A Freedom Movement was led by Sheikh Mujibur Rahman and his organisation, ______.
(a) Mukti Bahini
(b) Bangla Bahini
(c) Aamar Sonar Bangla
(d) East Bengal Front
Answer:
(a) Mukti Bahini

Question 10.
The 1971 war between India and Pakistan led to the creation of an independent country called _______.
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Sikkim
(d) Telangana
Answer:
(a) Bangladesh

Question 11.
India successfully carried out an underground test of an atomic device at ______ in Rajasthan.
(a) Dispur
(b) Mannapattam
(c) Sriharikota
(d) Pokhran
Answer:
(d) Pokhran

Question 12.
The ______ High Court gave the verdict in 1974 that Indira Gandhi the then Prime Minister had misused the government machinery during her election campaign.
(a) Allahabad
(b) Bombay
(c) Delhi
(d) Panaji
Answer:
(a) Allahabad

Question 13.
The situation set against Indira Gandhi became more complicated due to the movement led by _________.
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji
(b) Jayprakash Narayan
(c) G. D. Agarkar
(d) Ramanand Tirth
Answer:
(b) Jayprakash Narayan

Question 14.
The period of National Emergency lasted from _______ and after that general elections were conducted.
(a) 1922-24
(b) 1984-87
(c) 1975 – 77
(d) 1987-99
Answer:
(c) 1975 – 77

Question 15.
On the backdrop of the emergency, many opposition parties came together and formed a party called the _______.
(a) Republican Party
(b) Congress Party
(c) Janata Party
(d) Samaj Party
Answer:
(c) Janata Party

Question 16.
________ became Prime Minister on behalf of the Janata Party.
(a) Morarji Desai
(b) Indira Gandhi
(c) Rajiv Gandhi
(d) Lai Bahadur Shastri
Answer:
(a) Morarji Desai

Question 17.
The Sikhs in Punjab demanded an independent state of ______.
(a) Khalistan
(b) Pakistan
(c) Kazakhstan
(d) Baluchistan
Answer:
(a) Khalistan

Question 18.
______ had lent its support to the Khalistan movement.
(a) China
(b) Pakistan
(c) England
(d) Baluchistan
Answer:
(b) Pakistan

Question 19.
An organisation called ________ carried on a major movement in north-east India.
(a) United Liberation Front of Assam
(b) United Communist Group
(c) United India Front
(d) United Assam Federation
Answer:
(a) United Liberation Front of Assam

Question 20.
______ laid the foundation of Indian atomic power programme.
(a) Satish Dhawan
(b) Homi Bhabha
(c) A.P.J. Kalam
(d) Vikram Sarabhai
Answer:
(b) Homi Bhabha

Question 21.
______, a terrorist organisation assassinated Rajiv Gandhi.
(a) LTTE
(b) ASEAN
(c) LTEN
(d) LTTA
Answer:
(a) LTTE

Question 22.
India wanted to acquire modernity and self-reliance by establishing _______.
(a) Nuclear reactor
(b) Industries
(c) Electricity grids
(d) Telephonic infrastructure
Answer:
(b) Industries

Question 23.
The _______ government started economic reforms from 1991.
(a) Moraq’i Desai
(b) Indira Gandhi
(c) Narasimha Rao
(d) Lai Bahadur Shastri
Answer:
(c) Narasimha Rao

Question 24.
In 1999, ________ came to power under the flag of Bharatiya Janata Party.
(a) United Progressive Alliance
(b) League of Indian Politics
(c) India’s Administrative Assemblage
(d) National Democratic Alliance
Answer:
(d) National Democratic Alliance

Question 25.
________ is known as the father of the White Revolution.
(a) Dr. Verghese Kurien
(b) Dr. Dayaram Sahni
(c) Dr. Homi Bhabha
(d) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan
Answer:
(a) Dr. Verghese Kurien

Question 26.
In 1975, the first satellite, ________ was launched by India.
(a) Sputnik 1
(b) Apollo 1
(c) Aryabhatta
(d) Agni
Answer:
(c) Aryabhatta

Question 27.
The _________ Commission was set up in 1953 to make recommendations, so as to improve condition of the lower castes.
(a) Ganesh Agarkar
(b) Appasaheb Mayekar
(c) Tarabai Shinde
(d) Kakasaheb Kalelkar
Answer:
(d) Kakasaheb Kalelkar

Write Short Notes on:

Question 1.
Atomic Energy and Space Research.
Answer:
(i) Dr. Homi Bhabha laid the foundation of the Indian atomic power programme.
(ii) India insisted on using atomic energy for peaceful purposes like generation of electricity, pharmaceuticals and defence.
(iii) India has achieved considerable success in space technology as well. In 1975, the first satellite ‘Aryabhatta’ was launched.
(iv) Today, India has a successful space programme and many satellites have been launched under this programme. India has also made considerable advancement in the telecom sector.

Explain the statements with reason:

Question 1.
Globalisation brought about many changes in different fields.
Answer:
(i) India has emerged as an important country on the global scene in different spheres.
(ii) India is an important member of international organisations like G-20 and ‘BRICS’ (Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa).
(iii) India has experienced an important revolution in the field of telecommunication technology.
(iv) Mobile phones, internet and the communication facilities based on satellite have spread all across the country.
(v) In the political field, India has demonstrated to the world how a stable democracy can function successfully.
(vi) All this has resulted in a total transformation in the lifestyle of Indians, especially the youth. These changes are visible from their dietary habits, clothing, language and beliefs.

Question 2.
There were several major changes in the social field in India for upliftment of women.
Answer:
(i) To promote the all-round development of women and children many constructive steps were taken.
(ii) A separate ‘Department of Women and. Child Development’ was created in 1985 under the Ministry of Human Resource Development.
(iii) Some laws were made to ensure social justice to women and to help the implementation of various schemes in this direction.
(iv) They include the Prohibition of Dowry Act, Equal Remuneration Act. As per the 73rd and 74th Constitution Amendments, seats are reserved for women in the local self¬government bodies.

Read the passage and answer the questions.

As a part of India’s policy to use atomic energy for peaceful purposes, India successfully carried out an underground test of an atomic device at Pokharan in Rajasthan in 1974. In 1975, the people of Sikkim voted for joining the Indian republic and Sikkim became a full-fledged State in the Indian federation. During this decade, the political situation in India grew unstable. The Allahabad High Court gave the verdict in 1974 that Indira Gandhi; the then Prime Minister had misused the government machinery during her election campaign. It led to nationwide strikes and protest. During this period, the situation became more complicated due to the movement led by Jayprakash Narayan. The situation of law and order in the country worsened and the government declared a state of National Emergency on the basis of the constitutional provisions relating to Emergency. During this turbulent period, the fundamental rights of Indian citizens were suspended. Due to the emergency, the Indian administration became disciplined, but the human rights were restricted. The period of national emergency lasted from 1975 to 1977 and after that general elections were conducted. On the backdrop of the emergency, many opposition parties came together and formed a party called the Janata Party. The Congress party led by Indira Gandhi was roundly defeated by this newly formed ‘Janata Party’. Morarji Desai became the Prime Minister, but under his leadership the Janata Party government couldn’t last long due to internal differences. Charan Singh succeeded him, but even his government was a short-lived one. Elections were conducted once again in 1980 and the Congress party under the leadership of Indira Gandhi came to power again.

Question 1.
Enlist incidents that culminated in Indira Gandhi’s rise to power post the verdict of Allahabad High Court.
Answer:
Following incidents paved the way of Indira Gandhi back to power:

• Allahabad High Court verdict against Indira Gandhi
• Nation – wide strikes and protest led by Jai Prakash Narayan
• Imposition of National Emergency (1975-77) fundamental rights suspended
• Opposition parties came together to form Janata Party.
• Short lived governments of Morarji Desai and Charan Singh.
• Elections conducted in 1980 – Congress back to power.

Question 2.
Which state became a constituent state of India in 1975?
Answer:
Sikkim voted to join the Indian Republic and it became a full – fledged state of Indian Republic in 1975.

Question 3.
Why do you think India conducted a nuclear test in Pokhran in 1974?
Answer:
India conducted Nuclear tests for two reasons:
(i) to keep Pakistan’s aggression under check post 1971 war.
(ii) To initiate peaceful and constructive use of atomic energy.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
What were the contributions of Lai Bahadur Shastri?
Answer:
(i) Lai Bahadur Shastri succeeded Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru and became the next Prime Minister of India.
(ii) During his tenure, India and Pakistan went to war over the Kashmir issue in 1965.
(iii) The Soviet Union tried to mediate between the two countries.
(iv) Lai Bahadur Shastri gave the slogan ‘Jai Jawan Jai Kisan’ with which he highlighted the importance of Indian soldiers and Indian farmers.
(v) Lai Bahadur Shastri breathed his last at Tashkent in 1966.

Question 2.
Write a note on Rajiv Gandhi.
Answer:
(i) Right after Indira Gandhi’s assassination in 1984, Rajiv Gandhi became the Prime Minister of India.
(ii) He tried to make several reforms in the field of Indian economy and that of science and technology.
(iii) He took the lead in solving the issues of the Tamil minority in Sri Lanka. He promoted the idea of a united Sri Lanka with internal autonomy to the Tamil community, but his efforts in this regard proved to be in vain.
(iv) He faced a lot of criticism in the context of corruption that took place during a defence equipment deal, especially the purchase of long-range canons from a foreign company called Bofors.
(v) Political corruption became a crucial issue in the general elections that followed and the Congress party was defeated.
(vi) In 1991, during the election campaign, the terrorist organisation in Sri Lanka, Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam (LTTE), assassinated Rajiv Gandhi.

Question 3.
Write a note on Atal Bihari Vajpayee.
Answer:
(i) In 1999 the ‘National Democratic Alliance’ came to power under the flag of Bharatiya Janata Party and Atal Bihari Vajpayee became India’s Prime Minister (1998-2004).
(ii) Atal Bihari Vajpayee tried to establish a dialogue with Pakistan but was not successful.
(iii) India conducted a number of nuclear tests in 1998 and declared herself as an atomic power.
(iv) In 1999, there was another war between India and Pakistan in Kargil region over the Kashmir issue
(v) India defeated Pakistan in this war as well.

Question 4.
What is economic liberalisation? What are its benefits?
Answer:
(i) The Narasimha Rao Government started economic reforms from 1991. These economic reforms are known as economic liberalisation.
(ii) The Indian economy flourished as a result of the implementation of this policy.
(iii) The foreign investment in India increased. Skilled Indian professionals helped reform the Indian economy.
(iv) The field of information technology opened several avenues of employment in the country.
(v) The changes after 1991 are also described as ‘globalisation’.

Question 5.
What do you mean by
(i) Green Revolution and
(ii) White revolution?
Answer:
(i) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan is known as the father of the Green Revolution in 1965. He implemented new scientific agricultural techniques and increased the production of foodgrains.
(ii) The experiment in co-operative dairy movement by Dr. Verghese Kurien led to increase of milk production in India. This is called as ‘White Revolution’.

Question 6.
What is the progress of India in the fields of atomic energy and space research?
Answer:
(i) India had also made a lot of progress in the fields of atomic energy and space research.
(ii) Dr. Homi Bhabha laid the foundation of the Indian atomic power programme.
(iii) India insisted on using atomic energy for peaceful purposes like generation of electricity, pharmaceuticals and defence.
(iv) India has achieved considerable success in space technology as well. In 1975, the first satellite ‘Aryabhatta’ was launched.
(v) Today, India has a successful space programme and many satellites have been launched under this programme.
(vi) India has also made considerable advancement in the telecom sector.

Question 7.
Describe the changes in India due to globalisation.
Answer:
(i) Globalisation brought about many changes in different fields like economy, politics, science and technology and society and culture.
(ii) India has emerged as an important country on the global scene in different spheres. India is an important member of international organisations like G-20 and ‘BRICS’ (Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa).
(iii) India has experienced an important revolution in the field of telecommunication technology. Mobile phones, internet and the communication facilities based on satellite have spread all across the country.
(iv) In the political field, India has demonstrated to the world how a stable democracy can function successfully.
(v) All this has resulted in a total transformation in the lifestyle of Indians and especially the
youth. These changes are visible from their dietary habits, clothing, language and beliefs.

Question 8.
How was an independent country of Bangladesh created?
Answer:
(i) Indira Gandhi became the Prime Minister of India in 1966.
(ii) During her tenure, Pakistan’s oppressive I policies in East Pakistan resulted in a big movement there. This movement was led by Sheikh Mujibur Rahman and his organisation, ‘Mukti Bahini.’
(iii) This crisis in East Pakistan affected India as well, because millions of refugees came to India.
(iv) The 1971 war between India and Pakistan led to the creation of an independent country called Bangladesh.

Question 9.
What policies were made to uplift the deprived sections of the society?
Answer:
(i) The ‘Kakasaheb Kalelkar Commission’ was set up in 1953 to make recommendations so as to improve their condition.
(ii) In 1978, a Commission was constituted under the chairmanship of B. P. Mandal to study the issue of the backward classes.
(iii) The policy of reservation was adopted in order to strengthen the representation of backward sections in various services and institutions.
(iv) The Government passed the Prevention of Atrocities Act in 1989 to enable those belonging to the Scheduled Castes and Tribes to live with dignity and respect, free from fear, violence and oppression of the upper classes.

Question 10.
Identify the picture and give relevant information.

Indira Gandhi became the Prime Minister of India in the year 1966.
Indira Gandhi’s strong leadership was prominent in the war between India and Pakistan in 1971.
The first atomic test at Pokharan was carried out under her leadership.
The Allahabad High Court gave the verdict in 1974, that Indira Gandhi had misused the government machinery during her election campaign.
She declared a’state of National Emergency in 1975.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Properties of Sea Water Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Properties of Sea Water

Class 9 Geography Chapter 6 Properties of Sea Water Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Tick the correct box according to the salinity of the ocean water ✓

Answer:
(a) Low
(b) Low
(c) High
(d) High
(e) Low
(f) High.

2. Give reasons.

(a) Salinity is low in the land-locked Baltic Sea.
Answer:

• The Baltic Sea lies in the temperate region.
• In temperate regions, the sunrays are slanting and therefore, the temperatures are lower.
• The supply of fresh water is also more, as numerous rivers empty their waters into the Baltic sea.
• Therefore, in spite of being landlocked, due to low rate of evaporation and ample supply of fresh water, the salinity of the Baltic Sea is low.

(b) There is higher salinity in the northern Red Sea while lower in the southern.
Answer:

• The Red Sea is one of the saltiest bodies of water in the world, owing to high evaporation.
• The salinity is 36%o in the southern part because of the effect of the Gulf of Aden.
• It reaches 41 %o in the northern part, owing mainly to the Gulf of Suez and the high evaporation as well as very little precipitation.
• Hence, there is more salinity in the northern Red Sea while lesser in the south.

(c) Oceans located at the same latitude do not have same salinity.
Answer:

• The salinity of the oceans depends on factors like rate of evaporation and supply of fresh water.
• In Oceans where rate of evaporation is more than the supply of fresh water, the salinity is higher.
• In Oceans where supply of freshwater exceeds the rate of evaporation, salinity is low.
• Salinity is not affected much in areas where supply of freshwater and the evaporation of water is low.
• Thus, oceans located on the same latitude do not have the same salinity.

(d) With increasing depth, the temperature of sea water decreases to a certain limit.
Answer:
With increasing depth, the temperature of sea water decreases to a certain limit because –

• While most of the sunrays radiate back from the surface of the sea, some of them penetrate to certain depths in the water.
• As a result, the intensity of sunrays decreases with the increasing depth.
• The temperature decreases up to 2000m depth.
• After 2000m, the temperature of the seawater is uniform everywhere.

(e) There are more salt-pans on the Western coast of India than its eastern coast.
Answer:

• The Arabian Sea lies lying to the west and Bay of Bengal lies to the east of India.
• Many large peninsular rivers drain their waters in the Bay of Bengal and on the contrary, only small seasonal coastal rivers drain in the Arabian Sea.
• Hence, the salinity of the eastern coast is 34%, while it is 35% in the Arabian Sea.
• Thus, there are more salt-pans on the Western coast of India than its Eastern coast.

(f) Salinity increases in the mid-latitudinal zones.
Answer:

• Mid-latitudinal zones lies between 25° to 35° north and south of the equator.
• In this zone, the rainfall is less and the supply of fresh water from rivers is also low.
• This region experiences high-temperature conditions which are marked by the presence of hot deserts of the world. These high-temperature conditions lead to a high rate of evaporation.
• Thus, the salinity of the seas is found to be higher in mid-latitudinal zones.

3. Answer the following questions.

(a) What are the factors affecting the salinity of the sea water?
Answer:

1. The uneven distribution of temperature on earth and uneven supply of freshwater affects the salinity of seawater.
2. In the tropical zone, temperature is higher. Rate of evaporation is also higher and therefore, the salinity is higher.
3. Around 5° N and S of the equator, in the equatorial calm belt, the sky is cloudy for a long period of time and convectional rainfall occurs every day.
4. Large rivers like Congo and Amazon in the equatorial regions meet the sea. Therefore, supply of freshwater is abundant, too. But because of higher temperatures, rate of evaporation is more and therefore, the seas in these areas are more saline.
5. In mid-latitudinal zones (25° to 35° N and S), rainfall is lesser and the supply of freshwater from rivers is also low. This zone has the hot deserts of the world. Thus, the salinity of the seas is found to be higher here.
6. In temperate regions, the sunrays are slanting and therefore, the temperatures are lower. Because of the melting of the snow, the supply of water is also more, and therefore, in this zone, salinity decreases with increasing latitudes.
7. In the polar areas, temperatures are very low. Evaporation is also very less in polar areas. So, salinity is low.
8. Landlocked seas have higher salinity than open seas as the rate of evaporation is more. There is a lack of supply of fresh water from large rivers. Thus, there is a difference in the salinities of open and closed seas.

(b) Explain the distribution of salinity around the Tropic of Cancer and tropic of Capricorn.
Answer:

• The uneven distribution of temperature on earth, and uneven supply of freshwater affects the salinity of sea water.
• Region, between the Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn is called as the Tropical zone.
• In the tropical zone, temperature is higher.
• Hence, the rate of evaporation is also higher, and therefore, salinity is higher.

(c) What are the factors affecting the temperature of the sea water?
Answer:

1. Temperature is a major property of the sea water.
2. Sea water upto the depth of 500m is called as surface water. The surface temperature of the sea water is not uniform everywhere. This is dependent on different factors. .
3. Latitudinally, the surface temperature of the seawater decreases from the equatorial areas towards the poles.
4. The average temperature in equatorial areas is around 25° C, while it is about 2° C near the poles.
5. Besides this, cyclones, rainfall, sea waves, ocean currents, salinity, pollution, convectional currents, and seasons also affect the surface temperature.
6. Regions where cold ocean currents flow, the surface temperature of ocean water is less, while the regions where the warm currents move, the temperature increase.

(d) Explain the changes occurring in the temperature of sea water according to the depth.
Answer:

• While most of the sunrays radiate back from the surface of the sea, some of them penetrate to certain depths in the water.
• As a result, the intensity of sunrays decreases with the increasing depth.
• The temperature decreases up to 2000m depth.
• After 2000m, the temperature of the seawater is uniform everywhere.
• It is around 4°C everywhere from the equatorial regions to the polar areas.
• Temperature reduces only up to 4° C according to depth, and therefore, the water at greater depths does not freeze.
• The temperature of the seawater changes rapidly with depth at the equatorial areas. The difference in temperature is lesser in polar areas.
• There is also a difference in open seas and landlocked seas. In low latitudes, because the salinity of the landlocked seas is more, the temperature of the landlocked seas is higher than the open seas.

(e) Name the factors affecting salinity.
Answer:
Due to the sun’s heat, evaporation happens at a faster rate. Evaporated water turns into water vapour and reduces in quantity. But amount of salt remains the same in the remaining water and therefore the salinity of water increases.

• In seas where the rate of evaporation is high than the supply of fresh water, salinity is high.
• In seas where the supply of freshwater exceeds the rate of evaporation, salinity is low.
• Salinity is not affected much in seas where both the supply of freshwater and evaporation of water is low.

4. Explain how temperature affects the following.

(a) the density of sea water
Answer:

• If temperature reduces, density of water increases.
• Hence, cold water is denser than hot water.

(b) the salinity of sea water
Answer:

• If the salinity of water is high, the density of water increases.

Activity:

Complete the table showing the salinity of open and land-locked seas.

Answer:

Class 9 Geography Chapter 6 Properties of Sea Water Intext Questions and Answers

Observe the following Map and answer the questions:

Question 1.
What is the salinity around the tropics?
Answer:
The salinity around the tropics is 36%o.

Question 2.
Which region has the least salinity?
Answer:
The Bay of Bengal has the least salinity of 32%o.

Question 3.
Which ocean has salinity more than 37%o?
Answer:
Atlantic ocean has salinity of more than 37%o.

Question 4.
What are the reasons of differences in salinity on a global level?
Answer:
The uneven distribution of temperature on earth, and uneven supply of freshwater, etc. are the reasons for differences in salinity on a global level.

Observe the Graph and answer the questions:

Question 1.
What is the maximum temperature of seawater in equatorial areas? How much is this temperature at a depth of 500 m?
Answer:
The maximum temperature of sea water in equatorial areas is 18° C. The temperature at the depth of 500 m is 11° C.

Question 2.
What is the temperature of seawater at the sea level in the mid-latitudes?
Answer:
The temperature of seawater at the sea level in the mid-latitudes is 14° C approximately.

Question 3.
How much has this temperature changed at 1500 m depth?
Answer:
The temperature is about 5° C at the depth of 1500 m. Thus the temperature of sea water at mid-latitudes has changed from 14°C at the sea level to about 5°C at the depth of 1500 m i.e. temperature has changed (reduced) by 9°C.

Question 4.
What does the thermal graph for the high latitude say? What is its temperature at 500, 1000 and 1500 m depths?
Answer:
In high latitudes the temperature of sea water at all depths remains constant at 4° C.

Question 5.
After what depth does the seawater temperature remain stable everywhere?
Answer:
After 2000 m, the temperature of the sea water is uniform everywhere.

Question 6.
With increasing depth, what decreases: temperature, salinity or density?
Answer:
Temperature and salinity decreases with increasing depth.

Question 7.
After what depth does the change in these factor become almost zero?
Answer:
After the depth of 1000 m there is no change in all these factors.

Question 8.
Till what depth is the change in these factors higher?
Answer:
The higher change can be seen up to a depth of about 500m.

Question 9.
Explain the correlation between all the three factors.
Answer:
If the temperature is less, density is more. If the salinity is less, then density is also less. However temperature affects the density more as compared to the salinity. If the temperature is less, then the density is more despite less salinity.

Let’s Recall.

Question 1.
Which is the largest water storage of the world?
Answer:
Oceans are the largest water storage of the world.

Question 2.
Why is the seawater salty?
Answer:

• Salt in the ocean comes from rocks on land.
• Rivers carry dissolved salts to the ocean.
• Water evaporates from the oceans to fall again as rain and to feed the rivers, but the salts remain in the ocean.

Question 3.
What are the reasons for high salinity in the oceans?
Answer:
High rate of evaporation and low supply of fresh water leads to high salinity in the oceans:

Question 4.
How can we obtain the salts from the ocean water?
Answer:

• Sea water contains a large amount of common salt and the salts of other metals dissolved in it.
• Near the sea-shore, the sea water is collected in shallow pits (salt pans) and allowed to evaporate in the sunshine.
• In a few days, the water evaporates, leaving behind salt.
• The salt so obtained is collected and transported to factories, where it is purified and packed for consumption.

Question 5.
What is the use of the salts in the oceans to us?
Answer:

• The salts is used in the food we eat.
• It is used for making various chemicals and medicines.
• Salt is also used to preserve things for longer periods. It is also used in ice factories.

Can You Tell?

Question 1.
What is the difference in the temperatures of the land and the sea?
Answer:
During the daytime land is hotter than the sea whereas, during the night time land is cooler than the sea.

Question 2.
What would be the difference in the temperature of the seawater from the equatorial region to the polar areas?
Answer:
Latitudinally, the surface temperature of the seawater decreases from the equatorial areas towards the poles. The average temperature in equatorial areas is around 25° C while it is about 2° C near the poles.

Think about it.

Question 1.
If you think about India there is the Arabian sea to the west and the Bay of Bengal to the east. The salinity of the eastern coast is 34%o while it is 35%o in the Arabian sea. What could be the reason of higher salinity in the western coastal region?
Answer:
Many large peninsular rivers drain their waters in the Bay of Bengal and on the contrary only small seasonal coastal rivers drain in the Arabian sea. Hence the salinity of Arabian sea is more than the Bay of Bengal.

Try this.

Question 1.
In which container has the water increased or decreased?
Answer:

• The water has increased in the container which is in the classroom in which freshwater was added.
• The water has decreased in the container which was kept in the sun outside.

Question 2.
What could be the reasons behind the decrease or increase?
Answer:

• Since freshwater was added to one of the containers in the classroom the water level increased.
• The water has decreased in the container which was kept outside in the sun due to evaporation.

Question 3.
What could be the reason behind the low and high salinity of the water in the container?
Answer:

• In the container which as kept outside in the sun, due to high rate of evaporation, the salinity is high.
• As we kept on adding fresh water to the container kept in the classroom the salinity is low.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 6 Properties of Sea Water Additional Important Questions and Answers

Select the correct option:

Question 1.
The average temperature in equatorial areas is
(a) 25° C
(b) 35° C
(c) 15° C
(d) 5° C
Answer:
(a) 25°C

Question 2.
The average temperature in mid-latitudes is
(a) 25° C
(b) 10° C
(c) 16° C
(d) 5° C
Answer:
(c) 16°C

Question 3.
The average temperature near poles is about
(a) 10° C
(b) 20° C
(c) 15° C
(d) 2° C
Answer:
(d) 2°C

Question 4.
With the increasing depth of sea, the intensity of sunrays
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) is uneven
Answer:
(b) decreases

Question 5.
Seawater upto the depth of 500m is called
(a) ground water
(b) surface water
(c) deep water
(d) saline water
Answer:
(b) surface water

Question 6.
ocean is the most saline ocean in the world.
(a) Pacific
(b) Arctic
(c) Indian
(d) Atlantic
Answer:
(d) Atlantic

Question 7.
The sea lying on the border of Israel and Jordan has a salinity of %o.
(a) 37
(b) 50
(c) 256
(d) 332
Answer:
(d) 332

Question 8.
The buoyancy of the sea water increases because of its
(a) evaporation
(b) salinity
(c) density
(d) high temperature
Answer:
(b) salinity

Question 9.
has an altitude of – 400m.
(a) Baltic Sea
(b) Arabian Sea
(c) Dead Sea
(d) the Mediterranean Sea
Answer:
(c) Dead sea

Question 10.
act as temperature controllers at a global level.
(a) Ocean currents
(b) Sea breeze
(c) Land breeze
(d) Trade winds
Answer:
(a) Ocean currents

Question 11.
is a major porperty of the sea water.
(a) Temperature
(b) Uniform salinity
(c) Buoyancy
(d) Equal Density
Answer:
(a) Temperature

Question 12.
have higher salinity than open seas.
(a) Equatorial seas
(b) Landlocked seas
(c) Freshwater lakes
(d) Seas in polar regions
Answer:
(b) landlocked seas

Question 13.
Temperature decreases upto depth.
(a) 500 m
(b) 1000 m
(c) 1500 m
(d) 2000 m
Answer:
(d) 2000m

Question 14.
In regions where cold currents flow, the surface temperature of ocean water is
(a) high
(b) less
(c) uniform
(d) uneven
Answer:
(b) less

Question 15.
Temperature of seawater changes rapidly with depth in areas.
(a) equatorial
(b) mid latitudinal
(c) temperate
(d) polar
Answer:
(a) equatorial

Question 16.
In seas where the rate of evaporation is than the supply of fresh water, salinity is high.
(a) less
(b) high
(c) same
(d) low
Answer:
(b) high

Question 17.
The salinity of Bay of Bengal is than that of Arabian sea.
(a) less
(b) more
(c) same
(d) equal
Answer:
(a) less

Question 18.
In areas the salinity of sea water is low.
(a) equatorial
(b) mid-latitudinal
(c) temperate
(d) polar
Answer:
(d) polar

Question 19.
The salinity of Battic sea is %.
(a) 332
(b) 32
(c) 37
(d) 7
Answer:
(d) 7

Match the Column:

Column A	Column B
(1) Equatorial areas (2) Mid-latitudinal areas (3) Temperate regions	(a) Salinity of 332%o (b) Slanting sunrays, melting of snow (c) Cloudy sky and convectional rainfall (d) Hot deserts

Answer:
(1-c),
(2- d),
(3 – b)

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
What is the major property of seawater?
Answer:
Temperature is a major property of seawater.

Question 2.
What is the average surface temperature of seawater in equatorial areas, mid-latitudes & poles?
Answer:
The average surface temperature of seawater is equatorial areas is around 25°C in mid-latitude it is around 16°C & 2°C near the poles.

Question 3.
After what depth is the seawater temperature uniform everywhere?
Answer:
After 2000m, the temperature of seawater is uniform everywhere

Question 4.
Name the instruments used to measure salinity?
Answer:
Hydrometer, Refractometer and salinometer are used to measure salinity.

Question 5.
Which is the most saline ocean?
Answer:
The Atlantic ocean is the most saline ocean.

Give geographical reasons:

Question 1.
The climate of the earth gets affected by ocean currents.
Answer:

• The ocean currents are generated because of the difference in the properties of seawater.
• They act as temperature controllers at the global level.
• The distribution of temperature gets controlled due to the ocean currents.
• Thus, the climate of the earth gets affected by ocean currents.

Question 2.
Dead Sea has a salinity of 332%0.
Answer:

• The sea lying on the border of Israel and Jordan has a salinity of 332%0.
• The average salinity of ocean is 35%o.
• Jordan is the only large river meeting this sea.
• Low rainfall, low supply of freshwater and high evaporation is the reason of high salinity.

Question 3.
The surface temperature of the sea is not uniform everywhere.
Answer:

• The surface temperature of sea water is not uniform everywhere and it changes with latitudes.
• The surface temperature of the seawater decreases from the equatorial areas towards the poles.
• The average temperature in equatorial areas is around 25° C, it is 16° C in mid-latitudes while it is about 2° C near the poles.
• Besides this, cyclones, rainfall, sea waves, ocean currents, salinity, pollution, convergence flow, seasons, etc. also affect the surface temperature.
• Thus the surface temperature of the sea is not uniform everywhere.

Question 4.
The seas in equatorial calm belt are more saline.
Answer:

• Around 5° N and S of the equator, in the equatorial calm belt, the sky is cloudy for a long period of time and convectional rainfall occurs every day.
• Large rivers like Congo and Amazon in the equatorial regions meet the sea.
• Therefore, supply of freshwater abundant too.
• But because of higher temperatures, rate of evaporation is more and therefore, the seas in these areas are more saline.

Explain

Question 1.
Factors affecting surface water temperature
Answer:

• Temperature is a major property of the seawater. The surface temperature of the seawater is not uniform everywhere. This is dependent on different factors.
• Latitudinally, the surface temperature of the seawater decreases from the equatorial areas towards the poles.
• Besides this, cyclones, rainfall, sea waves, ocean currents, salinity, pollution, convergence flow and seasons also affect the surface temperature.
• Regions where cold ocean currents flow, the surface temperature of ocean water is less. The regions where the warm currents move, the temperature increase.

Question 2.
Density of sea water
Answer:

• Temperature and salinity are the two properties of sea water that control the density of the sea water.
• If temperature reduces, density of water increases.
• Cold water is denser, and so is saline water.
• As compared to salinity, temperature affects the density more. Hence, sometimes, more saline water has lower temperature at the surface.
• Sea water having higher temperature and low salinity, can have lower density.

Question 3.
Measurement of salinity of sea water.
Answer:

• The weight of all dissolved salts in water in ratio of parts per thousand of water is called the salinity of seawater.
• For example, if the weight of dissolved salts in 1000g (1 kg) of seawater is 40g, then the salinity is 40%o i.e. 40 per thousand parts.
• Hydrometer, refractometer and salinometer are also used to measure salinity.

Question 4.
Factors affecting salinity of sea water.
Answer:

Latitudes	Temperature / Rate of evaporation	Supply of fresh water	Salinity
Tropical Zone 5°N – 5°Sof equator	High	Abundant from (River Congo / Amazon)	High
Mid­latitudes (25° – 35° N and S)	High (hot desert are found here)	low	High
Temperate regions	Temperature is lower due to slanting sunrays	The supply of water is more due to melting snow	low
Polar regions	Very low	low	low

 

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Exogenetic Movements Part 1 Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Exogenetic Movements Part 1

Class 9 Geography Chapter 3 Exogenetic Movements Part 1 Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Answer in brief.
(a) What is mechanical weathering?
Answer:

1. The disintegration of rocks without any change in their chemical composition is called mechanical weathering.
2. The minerals in the rocks expand because of heat and contract when the temperature decreases. Due to such continuous contracting and expansion, tension develops in the rock particles.
3. Each mineral reacts differently to the temperature; some minerals expand more, while others do not expand as much. Consequently, the tension formed in the rocks also increases and decreases. As a result, cracks develop in the rocks and they break.
4. In areas where the temperatures drop below 0°C for quite some time, the water accumulated in the cracks and crevices in the rocks freezes. Its volume increases which leads to tension in the rocks and they shatter.
5. When the alkaline water of the sea fills in the cracks of the rocks, the soluble minerals in the rock get dissolved leading to the formation of small holes in the rocks.
6. Because of the heat, this water turns into water vapour and only crystals of alkaline materials remain in the rocks. Crystals occupy more space which causes tension in the rock.
7. Sometimes the outer layers of the rocks exert pressure on the inner or lower layers. When this pressure ceases to exist, the lower or inner layers get freed from the pressure. This also leads to weathering.
8. In areas of heavy rainfall soaking of rock water also causes weathering of some rocks like sandstone and conglomerate. When water penetrates such rocks, the particles get loose and separate from the main rock.

(b) What are the main types of chemical weathering?
Answer:
The process of decomposition of rocks due to changes in their chemical composition is called chemical weathering.
Its main types are:
(i) Carbonation

• When the rain water mixes with the carbon dioxide in the atmosphere it leads to the formation of dilute carbonic acid.
• Many rocks like limestone get easily dissolved in such acids.

(ii) Solution

• Some minerals in the rock get dissolved in water.
• Because of this solution, alkalis in the rock dissolve and make them brittle.

(iii) Oxidation

• This process occurs in rocks which have iron present in them. The iron in the rock comes in contact with water and a chemical reaction takes place between iron and oxygen.
• Hence, a reddish coloured layer forms on the rocks. This is called rust.
• It occurs in rocks in areas with high rainfall.

(c) How does biological weathering occur?
Answer:

• It is the process by which rocks are broken into small fragments and fine particles due to the action of plants, animals and human beings.
• The roots of the plants enter the points and ! cracks of the rocks in search of moisture.
• As the roots grow bigger, they create tension in the rocks and start breaking them.
• Animals such as mice, rabbits and rats dig I holes, anthills etc. and weaken the rock, which makes them loose and break into pieces.
• Besides these, algae, moss1, lichen2, other flora grow in the rocks. They also help in weathering.
• Thus, the weathering caused by living organisms is called biological weathering,

(d) Distinguish between weathering and mass wasting.
Answer:

Weathering	Mass Wasting
(i) Breaking or weakening of rocks is called as weathering.	(i) When weathered rock material moves down the slopes due to gravity and accumulate near the foothills or gentle slopes, it is mass wasting.
(ii) Weathering is of three types – Mechanical, Chemical and Biological.	(ii) Mass wasting is of two types – Rapid and Slow.

2. Write whether the statements are true or false. Correct the incorrect ones.

(a) Climate affects earthquakes.
Answer:
False – Internal movements affect (leads to) earthquakes.

(b) Mechanical weathering is less effective in humid climates.
Answer:
True

(c) Mechanical weathering happens on a large scale in dry climates.
Answer:
True

(d) The breaking down of rocks into smaller particles is called weathering.
Answer:
True

(e) Lateritic rocks are formed through exfoliation.
Answer:
False – Lateritic rocks are formed due to oxidation.

3. Complete the flowchart below.

Answer:

4. Identify the type of weathering from the given description.

(a) Some animals live inside the grounds by making burrows.
(b) The rock rusts.
(c) Water which has accumulated in the crevices of the rocks freezes. Consequently, the rock breaks.
(d) The pipes supplying water in colder regions break.
(e) Sand formation occurs in deserts
Answer:
(a) Biological weathering
(b) Chemical weathering
(c) Mechanical weathering
(d) Mechanical weathering
(e) Mechanical weathering

Class 9 Geography Chapter 3 Exogenetic Movements Part 1 Intext Questions and Answers

Can You Tell?
(1) See the given pictures. Observe the physical appearance of the rocks in each picture. You can see that rocks are broken, fractured and have holes in them. In a picture you can also see that the statue has been deformed. Why are the rocks in such a condition? Think about them and briefly tell the reasons you can think of. Discuss the reasons. Check with the teachers if your reasons are relevant.
Answer:

• At some places the day temperatures are very high and the night temperatures are very low. In the given pictures the rocks may have broken due to temperature variation during day time and night time.
• In coastal areas when the sea waves hit the rocks, the rocks fracture and break down.
• Due to the roots of trees, and activities of burrowing animals like ant, rats etc. in the soft rocks, the rocks break down.
• The statues might be deformed due to heat and humidity.

Lets Recall

Question 1.
Have you seen the process of biological weathering3 around you?
Answer:
I have seen process of biological weathering3 around me. Many plants and trees have grown in an old dilapidated building which is located near my house. The roots of the trees have broken the walls and slabs of the building at many places.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 3 Exogenetic Movements Part 1 Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the statements choosing the correct option from the bracket:

Question 1.
…………………… is formed due to chemical precipitation between water and alkalis.
(a) Limestone
(b) Sandstone
(c) Coal
(d) Iron
Answer:
(a) Limestone

Question 2.
…………………… process occurs in rocks which have iron present in them.
(a) Shattering
(b) Oxidation
(c) Carbonation
(d) Granular
Answer:
(b) Oxidation

Question 3.
Sometimes the weathered materials do not move downward but sink ‘in situ’. This is called ………………….. .
(a) carbonation
(b) exfoliation
(c) precipitation
(d) slumping
Answer:
(d) slumping

Question 4.
periglacial regions along the slopes, small layers of soil accumulate because of the movement of soil. This is called ………………….. .
(a) soil erosion
(b) solifluction
(c) shattering
(d) block disintegration
Answer:
(b) solifluction

Question 5.
Biological weathering occurs because of ………………….. .
(a) high temperatures
(b) frost
(c) crystal growth
(d) living organisms
Answer:
(d) living organisms

Question 6.
come minerals in the rock get dissolved in the water and undergo chemical weathering. This process is called ………………….. .
(a) solution
(b) carbonation
(c) exfoliation
(d) precipitation
Answer:
(a) solution

Question 7.
When dilute carbonic acids reacts with the minerals in the rocks the process is called as ………………….. .
(a) carbonation
(b) exfoliation
(c) precipitation
(d) slumping
Answer:
(a) carbonation

Question 8.
When the outer layers of the rock fall apart from the main rock due to difference in temperatures, the process is called ………………….. .
(a) shattering
(b) oxidation
(c) exfoliation
(d) carbonation
Answer:
(c) exfoliation

Question 9.
…………………… is a universal solvent¹.
(a) Soil
(b) Water
(c) Carbon
(d) Oxygen
Answer:
(b) Water

Question 10.
Alkalis in the rock dissolve because of the solution and make them ………………….. .
(a) even
(b) sturdy
(c) brittle
(d) crusty
Answer:
(c) brittle

Match the Column:

I.

(I) Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Mechanical weathering (2) Chemical weathering (3) Biological weathering	(a) burrowing (b) frost (c) carbonation (d) erosion

Answer:
(1-b),
(2- c),
(3 – a)

II.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Oxidation (2) Slumping (3) Solifluction	(a) Mass movement occurring slowly (b) Carbon dioxide gets mixed with air (c) Chemical reaction between iron and oxygen (d) Weathered material which sink in situ

Answer:
(1 – c),
(2 – d),
(3 – a)

Answer in one sentence each;

Question 1.
What are the Exogenetic processes?
Answer:
Exogenetic processes are external processes 1 that occur on or above the earth’s surface, E.g. weathering, erosion, transportation, deposition etc.

Question 2.
Explain the Process of weathering
Answer:
Breaking or weakening of rocks is called as weathering.

Question 3.
What is Mechanical Weathering?
Answer:
The disintegration of rocks without any change in their chemical composition is called mechanical weathering.

Question 4.
What is Chemical Weathering (Salt Weathering)?
Answer:
The process of decomposition of rocks due to changes in their chemical composition is called chemical weathering.

Question 5.
What do you mean by Biological Weathering?
Answer:
The weathering process caused by human beings, animals and plants is called biological weathering.

Question 6.
What is Slumping?
Answer:
Sometimes the weathered materials do not move downward but sink ‘in situ’ (where they ! are). This is called slumping. ;

Question 7.
What is Solifluction?
Answer:
In periglacial regions along the slopes, small layers of soil accumulate because of the movement of soil. This is called solifluction.

Question 8.
Explain Granular Weathering.
Answer:
When water penetrates in rocks like sandstones and conglomerates1, the particles get loose and separate from the main rock. This is called granular weathering.

Question 9.
What is Block Disintegration?
Answer:
When water accumulates in wide points and big blocks of rocks separate from each other, this is called block disintegration.

Question 10.
What is Exfoliation?
Answer:
When the outer layer of the racks fall apart from the main rock due to temperature, the process is called exfoliation.

Question 11.
What does the term ‘diurnal Range’ mean
Answer:
The difference between the daily maximum and minimum temperature is diurnal Range.

Question 12.
What is Solution?
Answer:
The minerals in rocks which dissolve in water leads to the formation of solutions.

Question 13.
Name the two types of mass movements.
Answer:
The two types of mass movements are:
(a) Rapid Mass Movement and
(b) Show Mass movement.

Question 14.
What are the types of Mechanical weathering?
Answer:
The types of Mechanical weathering are
(a) Temperatures
(b) Frost
(c) Crystal growth
(d) Release of pressure and
(c) water

Question 15.
Types of chemical weathering.
Answer:
The types of chemical weathering are:
(a) Carbonation
(b) Solution and
(c) Oxidation

Question 16.
Where does Mechanical weathering occur?
Answer:
Mechanical weathering occurs mainly in the arid climates.

Question 17.
Chemical weathering can be seen in which climates?
Answer:
In humid conditions, one can see chemical weathering.

Write whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE. Correct the incorrect statements.

Question 1.
Soil creep is uncommon in areas with dry climates and gentle slopes.
Answer:
False – It is a common phenomenon in such areas.

Question 2.
Shattering is a type of mechanical weathering
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Granular weathering occurs in areas of heavy rainfall.
Answer:
True.

Distinguish between:

Question 1.
Mechanical Weathering and Chemical Weathering.
Answer:

Mechanical Weathering	Chemical Weathering
(i) In this type of weathering, rocks get disintegrated but the chemical composition of the rocks does not change.	(i) It is a process where rocks get disintegrated and the chemical composition of the rocks change.
(ii) It is caused due to differences in the day and night temperature.	(ii) It is caused due to the reaction of oxygen, carbon dioxide and water with certain rock minerals.
(iii) It is more common in an extremely cold climates and hot dry desert climates.	(iii) It is more common in hot and humid climates.

Fill the map with the given information and make a legend.
(1) Area affected by a landslide (mudslide) in Maharashtra.
(2) Wadgaon Darya

Give geographical reasons:

Question 1.
Oxidation process occurs in heavy rainfall areas.
Answer:

• The oxidation process occurs in rocks which have iron present in them.
• The iron in the rock comes in contact with water and a chemical reaction takes place between iron and oxygen.
• A reddish coloured layer forms on the rocks.
• Thus, the oxidation process occurs in heavy rainfall areas.

Question 2.
Chemical weathering occurs in areas of heavy rainfall.
Answer:

• The rain water travels through the atmosphere before reaching the ground. Carbon dioxide in the air gets mixed in the water in this process.
• Dilute carbonic acid gets formed. Materials like limestone get easily dissolved in such acids leading to weathering of rocks.
• Some minerals in the rock gets dissolved in water. Limestone is formed due to chemical precipitation between water and alkalis.
  Similarly, because of the solution, alkalis in the rock dissolves and make them brittle.
• Oxidation process occurs in rocks which have iron present in them. The iron in the rock comes in contact with water and a chemical reaction takes place between iron and oxygen.
• Hence, a reddish coloured layer forms on the rocks. This is called rust.

Question 3.
Mechanical weathering3 takes place in the cold regions.
Answer:

• In the cold regions, the temperature drops below 0°C for a period of time.
• The water that has percolated through the cracks in the rocks freezes and turns into ice.
• Ice requires greater space than water. Tension is developed when the ice tries to acquire greater space.
• The continuous process of freezing and melting finally leads to the breaking of the rock mass.

Question 4.
Rapid mass movements occurs along the steep slopes.
Answer:

• A thick layer of weathered material forms on the steep slopes.
• When it rains in such areas, the rainwater penetrates the weathered materials and their weight increases.
• Due to this the weathered materials move very rapidly and come down the steep slopes.

Question 5.
Mechanical weathering is seen in areas where the diurnal range of temperature is high.
OR
Change in temperature leads to Mechanical weathering.
Answer:

• The minerals in the rocks expand because of heat and contract when the temperature decreases.
• Due to such continuous contracting and expanding, tension develops in the rock particles.
• Each mineral reacts differently to the temperature. Some minerals expand more, while others do not expand as much.
• Consequently, the tension formed in the rocks also increases and decreases. As a result, cracks develop in the rocks and they break.
• Thus in areas, where the diurnal range of temperature is higher, mechanical weathering is seen.

Question 6.
Water plays an important role in chemical weathering.
Answer:

• Rock is a mixture of many minerals.
• Since many things get dissolved easily in water, it is considered a universal solvent.
• The solubility1 of the solution increases because the matter gets dissolved in water.
• Water speeds up the process of carbonation, solution and oxidation. These processes lead to the weathering of rocks.
• Thus water plays an important role in chemical weathering.

Question 7.
Frost leads to mechanical weathering.
Answer:

• In areas where the temperatures drop below 0°C for quite some time, the water accumulated in the cracks and crevices in the rocks freezes.
• The volume of water increases on freezing.
• This leads to tension in the rocks and they shatter.
• In this way frost leads to mechanical weathering.

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
What is a mass movement? What are the types of mass movements?
Answer:
The weathered rock materials move along the slopes due to gravity and accumulate near the foothills or the gentler slopes. When the weathered particles move down due to gravity alone, the process is called mass movements.

Types of Mass movements:
(i) Rapid mass movements:

• A thick layer of weathered material forms on the slope. When it rains in such areas, the rain water penetrates the weathered materials and their weight increases.
• The weathered materials move very rapidly and come down the slope.
• Sometimes the weathered materials sink in situ. (Where they are)
• Rockfalls, landslides, land subsidence are ; termed as rapid mass movements.

(ii) Slower mass movements:

• Soil creep is the most common phenomenon in areas with dry climate and gentler slopes.
• In periglacial regions along the soil. This is called as solifluction.

Question 2.
How does external processes occur?
Answer:

• External processes occur because of the forces working on the earth’s surface.
• They are mainly solar energy, gravitational force and kinetic energy associated with the moving objects on the earth’s surface.

Question 3.
What is exfoliation?
Answer:

• In regions of high temperatures, the exposed part of the rock heats more while the inner part is comparatively cooler.
• As a result, the outer layers of the rocks fall apart from the main rock.
• This is called the exfoliation of the rock.

Question 4.
Explain the process of oxidation.
Answer:

• The oxidation process occurs in rocks which have iron present in them.
• The iron in the rock comes in contact with water and a chemical reaction takes place between iron and oxygen.
• Hence, a reddish coloured layer forms on the rocks. This is called rust.

Explain:

Question 1.
Block Disintegration
Answer:

• Sometimes both temperature and water are responsible for weathering.
• The difference in temperature cause contraction and expansion of minerals in the rocks. This leads to widening theoints or cracks in the rocks.
• Water accumulates in such wideouts and big blocks of rocks separate from each other.
• This is called Block Disintegration.

Question 2.
Carbonation
Answer:

• Carbonation is a type of chemical weathering.
• The rainwater travels through the atmosphere before reaching the ground.
• Carbon dioxide in the air gets mixed in the water in this process and dilute carbonic acid gets formed.
• For e.g Water + Carbon Dioxide = Carbonic Acid (H₂O +CO₂ = H₂CO₃)
• Materials like limestone get easily dissolved in such acids.

Question 3.
Solution
Answer:

• Some minerals in the rock get dissolved in water.
• Limestone is formed due to chemical precipitation between water and alkalis.
• At Wadgaon Darya in Ahmadnagar district, limestone gets precipitated chemically i.e. undergoes chemical weathering again.
• Similarly, because of solution, alkalis in the rock dissolve and make them brittle.

Question 4.
Make a record of few landslides that have occured in India and write about them briefly.
Answer:
Landslide is a rapid mass movement which is caused majorly due to heavy rains, floods, earthquakes etc. The following are some fatal landsides in India.

1. Guwahati landslide, Assam:- The landslide took place in the year 1948 due to heavy rains & over 500 people died in this landslide.
2. Darjeeling landslide, West Negal:- This landslide happened in the year of 1968. It was triggered by floods and thousands of people died due to this landslide.
3. Malpa landslide, Uttarkhand:- Consecutive landslides occured in August 1998 in village of Mapla due to which 380 people died as an entire village was destroyed in the landslide.
4. Kedarnath landslide, Uttarakhand:- This landslide took place onune 16, 2013 & was the result of Uttar Khand floods. Over 5700 people were reported dead and over 4200 villages were affected by floods and post-flood landslide.
5. Malin landslide, Maharashtra:- This landslide occured onuly 30, 2014, in a village in Malin. The landslide occured due to heavy rainfall and around 151 people died and 100 people went missing after the disaster.