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Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 1 Psychology: A Scientific Discipline Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Psychology Important Questions Chapter 1 Psychology: A Scientific Discipline

Choose the correct option and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
……………………. was the school of thought in psychology that focused on the power of free will towards self-actualization.
(a) Humanistic Psychology
(b) Behaviourism
(c) Structuralism
Answer:
(a) Humanistic Psychology

Question 2.
………………….. method is the most objective and scientific method used in Psychology.
(a) Correlation
(b) Experimental
(c) Survey
Answer:
(b) Experimental

Question 3.
A pre-determined set of respondents on whom the survey is conducted is called the ……………..
(a) variable
(b) coefficient
(c) sample
Answer:
(c) sample

Question 4.
………………… is the qualitative research method extensively used by clinical psychologists.
(a) Observation
(b) Survey Method
(c) Case study method
Answer:
(c) Case study method

Question 5.
Correlation between Urbanization and Pollution will be ………………
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) zero
Answer:
(a) positive

Question 6.
The value of negative correlation is …………………..
(a) 0.00 to-0.50
(b)-1.00 to 0.00
(c) 0.00 to-1.00
Answer:
(c) 0.00 to-1.00

Question 7.
Reactions of commuters stuck in heavy traffic can be best studied using the ………………. method.
(a) experimental
(b) case study
(c) observation
Answer:
(c) observation

Question 8.
An experiment is conducted to study the effect of practice on memory. In this, the Independent Variable (I.V)
(a) practice
(b) experiment
(c) memory
Answer:
(a) practice

Question 9.
The method of Introspection was advocated by ……………….
(a) William James
(b) Sigmund Freud
(c) Wilhelm Wundt
Answer:
(c) Wilhelm Wundt

Match the pair

Question 1.

Group ‘P’	Group ‘Q’
Rational Emotive Behavioural Therapy	(a) Jean Piaget
Psychoanalysis	(b) Ivan Pavlov
Humanistic Psychology	(c) Albert Ellis
Case Study Method	(d) Sigmund Freud
	(e) Carl Rogers

Answer:

Group ‘P’	Group ‘Q’
Rational Emotive Behavioural Therapy	(c) Albert Ellis
Psychoanalysis	(d) Sigmund Freud
Humanistic Psychology	(e) Carl Rogers
Case Study Method	(a) Jean Piaget

State whether the following statements are true or false.

Question 1.
Functionalism focused on the study of human consciousness.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
A sample is a tentative supposition which attempts to explain some facts.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Experiments in psychology cannot be repeated.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
The Dependent Variable is manipulated by the experimenter.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Rational individuals are more likely to be tolerant and show flexibility.
Answer:
True

Answer the following in one sentence each.

Question 1.
What is meant by Dependent Variable?
Answer:
Dependent Variable is the change in behaviour that occurs in the participants as a result of the Independent Variable introduced by the experimenter.

Question 2.
Write the tools employed in the survey method.
Answer:
Survey method employs tools like questionnaires, check lists, interview, inventories and rating scales.

Question 3.
Write the types of correlation.
Answer:
There are three types of correlation, i.e., positive correlation, negative correlation and zero correlation.

Question 4.
What is the focus of Humanistic Psychology?
Answer:
According to Rogers, the focus of Humanistic Psychology is the power of free will, self-determination and self-actualization.

Question 5.
What sources does case study rely on?
Answer:
Case study provides descriptive information about the person from sources such as family, peers, neighbours, teachers, academic records, health records and results of psychological tests.

Question 6.
What does rationality mean?
Answer:
According to Stanovich, “Rationality involves adaptive reasoning, good judgment and good decision making.”

Question 7.
Which two schools of thought in Psychology were replaced by Cognitivism during the 1950’s and 1960’s?
Answer:
Psychoanalysis and Behaviourism were the two schools of thought in psychology replaced by Cognitivism during the 1950’s and 1960’s.

Write short notes on the following in 50 – 60 words each.

Question 1.
Elaborate the key features of a science.
Answer:
The word science is derived from the Latin word ‘Scientia’ which means ‘Knowledge’. Science is the pursuit and application of knowledge and understanding of the natural and social world, following a systematic methodology based on evidence.
The key features of a science are:

1. Empirical evidence – It refers to acquiring information through direct observation or experiments. Scientific knowledge is based on verifiable evidence.
2. Objectivity – This refers to the ability to observe and accept facts as they exist, setting aside all sources of expectations, values, prejudices, etc.
3. Scientific causality – Science aims to establish cause-effect between the variables under consideration, i.e., the effect of the Independent Variable on the Dependent Variable.
4. Systematic exploration – Science adopts a sequential procedure for studying various phenomena. It includes scientific steps like formulating a hypothesis, collection of facts, scientific generalization, etc.
5. Replication – Scientific knowledge can be replicated under the same circumstances as the original experiment. This ensures reliability of results towards establishing a scientific theory.
6. Predictability – Science involves describing and explaining phenomena as well as to make predictions accordingly.

Question 2.
Explain the correlation method.
Answer:
A correlation refers to a statistical tool used to measure the relationship between two or more variables. If the change in one variable is accompanied by a change in the other variable, this interdependence is called correlation. It is measured by correlation coefficient which extends between -1.00 to +1.00. Direction of correlation can be positive or negative.
The types of correlation are:

1. Positive – Both variables move in the same direction i.e., both increase or both decrease. It extends 0.00 to +1.00 for e.g., identical twins reared together showed IQ correlation of +.88.
2. Negative – Variables move in the opposite direction i.e., increase in one variable is associated with a decrease in the other variable. The value of negative correlation is 0.00 to -1.00 for e.g., high level of job satisfaction and low level of absenteeism.
3. Zero – Any change in one variable brings about no significant change in the other variable. Value of coefficient is 0 for e.g., height and intelligence.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Political Science Important Questions Chapter 6 India and the World Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Political Science Important Questions Chapter 6 India and the World

Complete the following statements by selecting the appropriate option.

Question 1.
The core of nonalignment was
(a) Independent understanding of world affairs
(b) Participation in cold war
(c) Democratic socialism as policy
(d) Policy of regionalism
Answer:
(a) Independent understanding of world affairs

Question 2.
Farakka Agreement about sharing of river waters is between India and
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Pakistan
(c) China
(d) Nepal
Answer:
(a) Bangladesh

Question 3.
The vision for India Ocean Rim Association (IORA) originated in 1995 during the visit of to India.
(a) Nelson Mandela
(b) Yasser Arafat
(c) Pervez- Musharraf
(d) President Jayewardene
Answer:
(a) Nelson Mandela

Question 4.
The main building at NDA, Pune is named to reflect cooperation between India and
(a) Indonesia
(b) Russia
(c) Sudan
(d) Nepal
Answer:
(c) Sudan

Question 5.
Objective of India Foreign Policy is incorporated in DPSP as Article
(a) 44
(b) 356
(c) 370
(d) 51
Answer:
(d) 51

Question 6.
The First Summit meeting of NAM in 1961 was held at
(a) Bandung
(b) Belgrade
(c) Dhaka
(d) Jakarta
Answer:
(b) Belgrade

Question 7.
After India’s nuclear test in 1998, took the lead in imposing sanctions on India.
(a) USA
(b) France
(c) China
(d) Russia
Answer:
(a) USA

Question 8.
In 2008, India signed a Civil Nuclear Cooperation Agreement with
(a) Russia
(b) France
(c) USA
(d) Canada
Answer:
(c) USA

Question 9.
In 1971, India signed a Friendship Treaty with
(a) USA
(b) Soviet Union
(c) China
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(b) Soviet Union

Question 10.
The war in 1962 was between India and
(a) China
(b) Pakistan
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Bangladesh
Answer:
(a) China

Question 11.
In the late 1990s, Foreign Minister Primakov mooted the idea of a Trilateral Summit between Russia, India and
(a) USA
(b) Pakistan
(c) China
(d) Vietnam
Answer:
(c) China

Question 12.
Status of Kashmir has been a cause of tension between India and
(a) Bangladesh
(b) China
(c) Afghanistan
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(d) Pakistan

Question 13.
In 1972, Shimla Agreement was signed between India and
(a) USA
(b) Russia
(c) Pakistan
(d) China
Answer:
(c) Pakistan

Question 14.
In 1975, the Himalayan Kingdom of opted to integrate with India.
(a) Nepal
(b) NEFA
(c) Sikkim
(d) Bhutan
Answer:
(c) Sikkim

Identify the incorrect pair in every set and correct it.

Question 1.
(a) Myanmar – Aung San Suu Kyi
(b) Bangladesh – Mujibur Rahman
(c) Pakistan – Jayewardene
Answer:
(b) ANZUS – Australia, New Zealand, USA

Question 2.
(a) Lahore Agreement (1999) – Pakistan
(b) Friendship Treaty (1971) – Bangladesh
(c) Nuclear Cooperation Agreement (2008) – USA
Answer:
(b) Friendship Treaty (1971) – Soviet Union

Complete the following sentences by selecting the appropriate reason.

Question 1.
Relations with West Asian countries are important for India because ……………..
(a) they work as a counter against Pakistan.
(b) they are important trade partners.
(c) they are important dialogue partners in SAARC.
Answer:
(a) they work as a counter against Pakistan.

Question 2.
Jawaharlal Nehru is called ‘architect of India’s foreign policy’ because ……………….
(a) he was the first Foreign Minister of India.
(b) his speech in September 1946 spelt out core features of India’s foreign policy.
(c) he was instrumental in signing of treaties with China.
Answer:
(b) his speech in September 1946 spelt out core features of India’s foreign policy.

Question 3.
Relations between India and China have been strained due to …………………
(i) border disputes such as Aksai Chin.
(ii) China’s support to Pakistan.
(iii) India has given political asylum to the Dalai Lama.
(a) none of the above.
(b) only (i) and (ii)
(c) all of the above.
Answer:
(c) all of the above.

Question 4.
The Sagarmala project is aimed at ………………….
(a) countering piracy and securing trade routes.
(b) promoting port-led development in India.
(c) promoting exclusive economic zone in the India Ocean.
Answer:
(b) promoting port-led development in India.

State the appropriate concept for the given statements.

Question 1.
2008, India-US Agreement.
Answer:
Civil Nuclear Cooperation Agreement

Question 2.
Rebel, militant Tamil group in Sri Lanka.
Answer:
LTTE

Question 3.
Policy due to which India began significant relations with South-East Asian nations.
Answer:
Look East, Act East

Question 4.
It was created in March 1997 to promote balanced and sustained development in India Ocean region.
Answer:
Indian Ocean Rim Association.

Find the odd word.

Question 1.
Sukhoi fighter aircraft, Brahmos missiles, Sakhalin-1 oil fields, BIMSTEC.
Answer:
BIMSTEC (not included in Indo-Russia relations)

Question 2.
NEFA, Nepal, Tibet, BRI.
Answer:
Nepal (not an issue in China-India relations)

Question 3.
PLO, ARF, SCO, SAARC.
Answer:
P. L. O (India is not associated)

Question 4.
Nepal, Sikkim, Myanmar, Bhutan.
Answer:
Myanmar (not a Himalayan kingdom)

Expand the following abbreviations.

(1) SEATO
(2) IAEA
(3) NEFA
(4) LTTE
(5) PLO
(6) ARF
(7) IORA
(8) ONGC
(9) LAC
(10) AFRICA Fund
Answer:
(1) SEATO – South East Asia Treaty Organisation
(2) IAEA – International Atomic Energy Agency
(3) NEFA – North East Frontier Agency
(4) LTTE – Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam
(5) PLO – Palestine Liberation Organisation
(6) ARF – ASEAN Regional Forum
(7) IORA – The Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation
(8) ONGC – Oil and Natural Gas Commission
(9) LAC – Line of Actual Control
(10) AFRICA Fund – The Action for Resisting Invasion, Colonialism and Apartheid Fund

Complete the concept maps.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Observe the maps in textbook and answer the following questions.

1.

Question 1.
Name the three water bodies bordering India.
Answer:
Bay of Bengal, Indian Ocean, Arabian Sea.

Question 2.
Name three countries bordering India to the North.
Answer:
China, Nepal, Bhutan.

Question 3.
Name three countries bordering Afghanistan.
Answer:
Pakistan, Iran, Uzbekistan, Turkmenistan

Question 4.
Name three countries lying in the Indian Ocean.
Answer:
Sri Lanka, Indonesia, Maldives

2.

Question 1.
Name three countries around South China Sea.
Answer:
Philippines, Vietnam, China, Taiwan.

Question 2.
Name three African countries bordered by Indian Ocean.
Answer:
Somalia, Mozambique, Tanzania.

Question 3.
Name two West Asian countries bordered by water on the east.
Answer:
Yemen, Oman bordered by waterbody on the east.

State whether the following statements are true or false with reason.

Question 1.
In the past two decades Indo-US relations have improved considerably.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. During the Cold War and even immediately after that, Indo-US relations were strained mainly due to India’s nonaligned policy and US support to Pakistan.
2. However, India supported US war on terrorism and later the signing of India-US Civil Nuclear Cooperation Agreement (2008) led to bettering of ties between USA and India. US regards India as a major trade and defence partner.

Question 2.
International situation has played a significant role in determining India’s Foreign Policy.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. Factors like geography, history, economy, political leadership have impacted India’s foreign policy. During the Cold War, superpower politics impacted India’s policy.
2. There were many significant changes in India’s foreign policy when the Cold War ended.
3. India’s relations with world powers like USA and with its own neighbours like China and Pakistan have influenced its foreign policy.

Question 3.
Indian foreign policy has undergone a change post 1990s
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. During the Cold War era, Indian foreign policy had evolved around three pillars viz. nonalignment in international relations, preservation of autonomy in domestic affairs and solidarity among developing nations.
2. After 1991, Indian economy opened under economic liberalisation. India developed relations with different nations based on realistic understanding of national interest. Thus, India emerged as a significant economic and technological power post 1990s.

Explain the correlation between the following.

Question 1.
Political leadership – India’s foreign policy.
Answer:
The principles of India’s foreign policy include respect for the sovereignty and territorial integrity of all nations, belief in peaceful coexistence and peaceful resolution of international disputes. One of the main factors influencing foreign policy is the political leadership of the country. India’s first Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru’s speech spelt out the core feature of India’s foreign policy i.e., friendly relations with England, USA and Soviet Union.

He was a co-founder of the Non- Aligned Movement and opted not to be a part of any military alliance. Prime Ministers who have played an important role in India’s foreign policy include Lai Bahadur Shastri (Indo-Pak war 1965 and Tashkent Agreement) Indira Gandhi (Indo-Pak war, 1971 and Shimla Agreement) Rajiv Gandhi (peacekeeping force to Sri Lanka, 1987), Atal Bihari Vajpayee, Dr. Manmohan Singh and Narendra Modi.

Express your opinion of the following.

Question 1.
India-US relations.
Answer:
During the Cold War, relations between India and US were strained due to several reasons

1. India kept out of US led military alliances like CENTO, etc., and co-founded Non-Aligned Movement.
2. India’s criticism of US intervention in Vietnam.
3. US position on the Kashmir issue and constant support to Pakistan.

Even after end of the Cold War, Indo-US relations did not immediately improve. The US brought pressure on the new State of Russia to stop supply of space technology to India. After India carried out its second nuclear testing in 1998 at Pokhran, the US not only imposed economic sanctions on India but also pressurized other nations like Canada, Japan, etc. to impose sanctions as well. However, towards the end of the last century Indo-US ties have improved due to the following reasons-
1. Anti-terrorism stance – India supported President George W. Bush’s “war on terrorism” similarly, after the 2001, terrorist attack on Indian Parliament by Pakistan supported terrorist groups, US demanded that Pakistan should stop sponsoring cross-border terrorism.

2. Partnership apd Agreements – The US regards India as a major partner in the Indo- Pacific region. India regards the USA as a major source of investment and partner in trade and defence as well as in multilateral fora like India-US-Japan forum. In 2008, the India-US Civil Nuclear Cooperation Agreement was signed by which India became the only country outside NPT that has nuclear capabilities.

Answer the following questions in 80 to 100 words.

Question 1.
Elaborate on India’s “Look East, Act East” policy.
Answer:
After independence, Jawaharlal Nehru attempted to weave unity among countries of Asia. One of the major partners in this effort was Indonesia. During the Cold War period, India’s relations with most of the South-East Asian nations was nominal. In 1991, India under Prime Minister P. V. Narsimha Rao propounded the “Look East” Policy as an effort to cultivate extensive economic and strategic relations with the South-East Asian countries and bolster it’s standing as a regional power. Subsequent Prime Ministers such as Atal Bihari Vajpayee and Dr. Manmohan Singh also pursued this policy.

In 2014, under Prime Minister Narendra Modi a more outcome-based policy of Act East was announced to focus more on relations with ASEAN and other East Asian countries especially Vietnam and Japan. India has particularly good relations with Singapore which is a major investor in India. Relations with Thailand, Malaysia, Indonesia have also improved. India has a Free Trade Agreement with the ASEAN and is a partner in ASEAN Regional Forum (ARF) a regional security group. India has promoted regional cooperation groups like BIMSTEC.

Question 2.
Describe India-Pakistan relations.
Answer:
1. There have been tensions and military standoffs between India and Pakistan since 1947 for e.g., Conflict of 1947-48, Kargil conflict (1999) as well as two-wars (1965, 1971). The main problem areas between India and Pakistan is over the Kashmir issue. India has accused Pakistan of sponsoring cross border terrorism in Indian territory.

2. China-Pakistan Economic Corridor is a route for Chinese investments in Pakistan. China has extended support to Pakistan on the Kashmir issue while Pakistan recognizes China’s claims to Aksaichin.

3. Disputes over sharing of the Indus river waters and Baglihar Dam issue. Efforts have been made to improve bilateral relations between India and Pakistan such as the Shimla Agreement (1972) signed between Prime Minister Indira Gandhi and President Z. A. Bhutto. In 1999, Prime Ministers of India and Pakistan signed three agreements. Both countries have launched several mutual confidence building measures such as the Delhi-Lahore bus service, hotlines between Prime Ministers of India and Pakistan, etc.

Answer the following question with reference to the given points.

Question 1.
Elaborate on India’s relations with
(a) USA
(b) Russia / Soviet Union
(c) China
Answer:
India has played an active role in international relations even before independence for e.g., as a signatory at the San Francisco Conference that gave shape to the United Nations Charter.
The primary objectives of India’s Foreign Policy are:

1. Maintenance of international peace and security.
2. Protection of the sovereignty and integrity of the country.
3. Maintaining good relations with neighbouring countries and with regional groups such as ASEAN.
4. Greater integration with the world economy in order to sustain a high growth rate.

(a) USA – During the Cold War, relations between India and US were strained due to a number of reasons:

1. India kept out of US led military alliances like CENTO, etc., and co-founded Non- Aligned Movement.
2. India’s criticism of US intervention in Vietnam.
3. US position on the Kashmir issue and constant support to Pakistan.

Even after end of the Cold War, Indo-US relations did not immediately improve. The US brought pressure on the new State of Russia to stop supply of space technology to India. After India carried out its second nuclear testing in 1998 at Pokhran, the US not only imposed economic sanctions on India but also pressurized other nations like Canada, Japan, etc. to impose sanctions as well.

(b) Russia / Soviet Union – During the Cold War era, Soviet Union provided aid to India in the form of technology, weapons and low-interest credit to India’s heavy industry projects in the public sector. Indo-Soviet Friendship Treaty (1971) is considered a milestone in their bilateral relations. After the disintegration of the Soviet Union, Russia agreed to provide reactors for India’s Kudankulam nuclear power plant and for joint ventures to produce Sukhoi fighter aircraft and Brahmos missiles. Both India and Russia have major Stakes in Russia oil fields such as Sakhalin-1 highlighting the importance of energy security.

(c) China – In 1949, the Communist revolution took place in China. India was among the first nations to recognize the People’s Republic of China. In 1954, India and China signed the Panchsheel Agreement and India also recognised Chinese Suzerainty on Tibet. The main hindrances in Sino-Indian relations are-

1. 1962 Indo-China war and 2017 Dokhlam skirmish.
2. Border disputes in AksaiChin and NEFA region.
3. China has been critical of India offering political asylum to the Dalai Lama.
4. Chinese support to Pakistan.
5. India’s apprehensions about China’s Belt and Road Initiative.

On the positive side India-China relationship has improved

1. Agreement on maintenance of peace and tranquility along the LOC.
2. China has become among the largest trading partners of India.
3. India and China are part of BRICS and SCO.
4. In the late 1990s, Russia mooted the idea of a Trilateral Summit of Russia, China, India which was a recognition of India’s status as a major regional power.

Question 2.
Elaborate on India’s relations with
(a) Pakistan
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Sri Lanka
Answer:
India has played an active role in international relations even before independence for e.g., as a signatory at the San Francisco Conference that gave shape to the United Nations Charter. The primary objectives of India’s Foreign Policy are:

1. Maintenance of international peace and security.
2. Protection of the sovereignty and integrity of the country.
3. Maintaining good relations with neighbouring countries and with regional groups such as ASEAN.
4. Greater integration with the world economy to sustain a high growth rate.

(a) Pakistan-
1. There have been tensions and military standoffs between India and Pakistan since 1947 for e.g., Conflict of 1947-48, Kargil conflict (1999) as well as two wars (1965, 1971). The main problem areas between India and Pakistan is over the Kashmir issue. India has accused Pakistan of sponsoring cross border terrorism in Indian territory.

2. China-Pakistan Economic Corridor is a route for Chinese investments in Pakistan. China has extended support to Pakistan on the Kashmir issue while Pakistan recognizes China’s claims to Aksai Chin.

3. Disputes over sharing of the Indus river waters and Baglihar Dam issue.

Efforts have been made to improve bilateral relations between India and Pakistan such as the Shimla Agreement (1972) signed between Prime Minister Indira Gandhi and President Z. A. Bhutto. In 1999, Prime Ministers of India and Pakistan signed three agreements. Both countries have launched several mutual confidence building measures such as the Delhi-Lahore bus service, Samjhauta Express, hotlines between Prime Ministers of India and Pakistan, etc.

(b) Bangladesh – India played a major role in securing independence for Bangladesh in 1971. Major issues in Indo-Bangladesh relations were about distribution of waters of Teesta river, land and maritime boundaries, Chakma refugees, etc. Cross border terrorism is a concern for both countries.

(c) Sri Lanka – India is the only neighbour of Sri Lanka, separated by the Palk Strait. They share deep racial and cultural links. For most of Tamils in Sri Lanka (earlier Ceylon) their ancestors were from India. Ties between the two countries have been tested by the Civil War in Sri Lanka and Indian intervention during the war (1983-2009). It was caused by insurgency against the government by the Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam (LTTE) which aimed to create an independent Tamil State in the north and east of Sri Lanka.

The LTTE was formed in 1976 under leadership of V. Prabhakaran as Tamils began to feel alienated in Sri Lanka due to Sinhala being made official language and Tamil migrant plantation workers being disenfranchised. Indian Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi deployed the Indian Peace Keeping Force (IPKF) under Operation Pawan to disarm different militant groups in Sri Lanka. The Indo-Sri Lanka Accord (1987) was signed to provide a political solution to Sri Lanka’s conflict.

Today, India is Sri Lanka’s largest trading partner. Both India and Sri Lanka are members of SAARC and BIMSTEC. Sri Lanka’s leaning towards China e.g., Hamabantota port being built in Sri Lanka by China is a major concern for India.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Geography Important Questions Chapter 3 Human Settlements and Land Use Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Geography Important Questions Chapter 3 Human Settlements and Land Use

Choose the correct option by identifying the correct correlation in the sentences.

Question 1.
In dry region is crucial for the development of settlements.
(a) climate
(b) water
(c) soil
(d) drainage
Answer:
(b) water

Question 2.
Sometimes factor is responsible to the fragmentation of settlement.
(a) social
(b) physical
(c) political
(d) religion
Answer:
(a) social

Question 3.
………………… settlement develops along a road.
(a) Rectangular
(b) Linear
(c) Radial
(d) Circular
Answer:
(b) Linear

Question 4.
……………… settlement is found at the confluence point of the river.
(a) Triangular
(b) Radial
(c) Linear
(d) Rectangular
Answer:
(a) Triangular

Question 5.
………………. settlement grows around a central object.
(a) Circular
(b) Radial
(c) Linear
(d) Rectangular
Answer:
(b) Radial

Question 6.
With the development of settlement and increase in size of population ………………. pattern develops.
(a) radial
(b) rectangular
(c) circular
(d) patternless
Answer:
(d) patternless

Identify the correct correlation.

Question 1.
A – Houses are built along the source of water.
R – In dry regions water is a crucial factor.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
A – Land cover can be determined by analysing the satellite imagery.
R – Land use cannot be determined from satellite imagery alone.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Identify the incorrect factor.

Question 1.
Cantonment towns in India.
(a) Khadki
(b) Agra
(c) Dehu road
(d) Kolhapur
Answer:
(d) Kolhapur

Question 2.
Religious towns in India.
(a) Kolhapur
(b) Varanasi
(c) Nashik
(d) Pune
Answer:
(d) Pune

Question 3.
Mining towns in India.
(a) Chandrapur
(b) Singrauli
(c) Hutar
(d) Belgaum
Answer:
(d) Belgaum

Question 4.
Suburbs of Mumbai.
(a) Sion
(b) Dombivali
(c) Kalyan
(d) Virar
Answer:
(a) Sion

Question 5.
On the basis of spacing between the house’s settlement are divided.
(a) Compact
(b) fragmented
(c) dispersal
(d) linear
Answer:
(d) linear

Question 6.
Tourism towns in India.
(a) Shimla
(b) Udaipur
(c) Manali
(d) Mumbai
Answer:
(d) Mumbai

Question 7.
Industrial towns in India.
(a) Jamshedpur
(b) Chinchwad
(c) Khopoli
(d) Mahabaleshwar
Answer:
(d) Mahabaleshwar

Complete the Chain

Question 1.

A	B	C
(1) Linear pattern	(1) Around central object	(1) Houses are closely spaced
(2) Triangular pattern	(2) Along the road	(2) Straight line
(3) Circular pattern	(3) Around lake	(3) Three sides growth
(4) Radial pattern	(4) Confluence of river	(4) Around centre

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Linear pattern	(1) Along the road	(1) Straight line
(2) Triangular pattern	(2) Confluence of river	(2) Three sides growth
(3) Circular pattern	(3) Around lake	(3) Houses are closely spaced
(4) Radial pattern	(4) Around central object	(4) Around the centre

Question 2.

A	B	C
(1) Permanent pasture	(1) Land left fallow for more than 5 years	(1) Privately owned
(2) Area under miscellaneous tree crops	(2) Owned by village Panchayat	(2) It can be brought under cultivation
(3) Current fallow	(3) Orchards and fruit trees	(3) Common property resource
(4) Culturable waste-land	(4) Land left without cultivation for one or less than one agricultural year	(4) Cultural practice adopted for giving the land rest

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Permanent pasture	(1) Owned by village Panchayat	(1) Common property resource
(2) Area under miscellaneous tree crops	(2) Orchards and fruit trees	(2) Privately owned
(3) Current fallow	(3) Land left without cultivation for one or less than one agricultural year	(3) Cultural practice adopted for giving the land rest
(4) Culturable waste-land	(4) Land left fallow for more than 5 years	(4) It can be brought under cultivation

Write short notes on.

Question 1.
Size and types of settlements.
Answer:

• Settlements vary in size and type. The size of settlement varies from hamlet to metropolitan town.
• A small settlement could be sparsely spaced and large size settlement could be closely spaced.
• On the basis of spacing between the houses, settlements can be divided into four types such as compact/clustered/nucleated /dispersed settlements, semi clustered or fragmented settlements and isolated settlements etc.
• Economic character and social structure of settlement varies with the size of settlement.
• Settlements can also be divided into two types on the basis of their function namely rural settlements and urban settlements.
• Due to large population in urban areas, urban settlements are compact and larger in size.
• Rural settlements are semi-clustered or fragmented and smaller in size.
• In urban settlements there are various functions such as industrial, commercial, administrative, educational, religious, cantonment, tourism etc., therefore urban settlements are multifunctional.
• Some cities are known by their functional importance. For example, Allahabad is known as a religious centre, Jaipur is known as a tourist centre.
• Secondary and tertiary activities are more developed in urban settlements. ,
• In rural settlements primary activities are more developed compared to secondary and tertiary activities.
• In rural settlements agriculture is the main function and other activities related to agriculture such as livestock rearing, tree crops growing, lumbering, fishing are developed.

Differentiate between.

Question 1.
Linear Settlement and Triangular Settlement
Answer:

Linear Settlement	Triangular Settlement
(i) Settlements which develop along Roads, railway lines, canals or rivers.	(i) Settlements which develop at the meeting point of two rivers or roads.
(ii) They grow in straight line or take shape of the road or river.	(ii) They grow in all three sides depending upon physical or social reasons.
(iii) For example, settlement along Mumbai- Pune Highway.	(iii) Settlement of Karad town along the meeting point of Krishna and Koyna river.

Answer the following questions in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the land use in rural areas.
Answer:
1. In rural areas land use is mainly for agriculture and related activities. The Land Records Department has done classification of land use in rural areas as follows:
Net sown area: The land which is used to grow various crops is net sown area. This is main land used in rural areas for agriculture.

Area under tree crops and groves : This land is used to grow fruit crops and orchards.

Area under permanent pastures : This land is covered with grass permanently and it is used for grazing.

2. This land is mostly owned by government or village panchayat.
Current fallow : This is a cultivable land but it is kept empty that is without cultivation for twelve months or less than that.

3. Due to continuous cropping on same patch of land, the land loses its fertility, therefore to regain the fertility of the soil, rest is given to land. During this period land regains the fertility naturally.

Fallow other than current fallow : This land is kept fallow for more than one year but less than five years to regain fertility naturally. Land becomes culturable wasteland, if it is kept fallow for more than five years.

Culturable wasteland : If land is kept fallow for more than five years, it is called culturable wasteland. This land can be used again for cultivation after reclamation practices.

Barren land or wasteland : The land which is not useful for cultivation is called barren land and therefore it is wasteland. For example, hilly area, desert land, marshy land, ravines etc.

Non-agricultural land : The land used for residential purpose, for construction of canals, dams, roads, agro-based industries, fruit processing industries etc., comes under this category. Land under forest: In rural areas some lands are under forest.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 8 Positive Psychology Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Psychology Important Questions Chapter 8 Positive Psychology

Choose the correct option and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
Life …………….. indicates a life full of stress and anxiety.
(a) below zero
(b) at zero
(c) above zero
Answer:
(a) below zero

Question 2.
………………. refers to the ability to handle adverse situations effectively.
(a) Coping
(b) Competence
(c) Confidence
Answer:
(b) Competence

Question 3.
……………….. helps us to focus on the ‘Here and Now’ effectively.
(a) Mindfulness
(b) Mindlessness
(c) Optimism
Answer:
(a) Mindfulness

Question 4.
………………. is the key to most successful relationships.
(a) Resilience
(b) Mindfulness
(c) Empathy
Answer:
(c) Empathy

Match the pairs.

Question 1.

Group A	Group B
(1) Seligman	(a) Broaden and Build theory
(2) Fredrickson	(b) empathy
(3) Masten	(c) mindfulness
(4) Baron-Cohen	(d) resilience
	(e) optimism

Answer:

Group A	Group B
(1) Seligman	(e) optimism
(2) Fredrickson	(a) Broaden and Build theory
(3) Masten	(d) resilience
(4) Baron-Cohen	(b) empathy

State whether the following statements are true or false.

Question 1.
Negative events easily attract our attention compared to positive ones.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Positive psychology focuses on life at and below zero.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
A positive frame of mind effectively builds our social and psychological resources.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
There are subjective differences in the experience of happiness.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
We must always choose very easy goals so we can feel happiness.
Answer:
False

Question 6.
Most pessimists perceive difficulties as challenges/ opportunities.
Answer:
False

Question 7.
Empathy and sympathy are synonymous.
Answer:

Question 8.
Brain damage can diminish a person’s ability to empathize.
Answer:
True

Answer the following in one sentence each.

Question 1.
What does positive psychology focus on?
Answer:
Positive psychology focuses on building of character strengths such as courage, happiness and perseverance rather than on anxiety, conflict and avoidance.

Question 2.
What does ‘life below zero’ indicate?
Answer:
‘Life below zero’ indicates a life that is full of problems, stress, diseases, etc.

Question 3.
How does an optimist view challenges and difficulties?
Answer:
Optimists have a positive approach towards challenges and difficulties and hence view them as opportunities to progress and become strong.

Question 4.
What does mindlessness mean?
Answer:
Mindlessness means performing a task with less concentration and awareness mainly because we are absorbed in our own thoughts, worries, etc.

Question 5.
What is psychological resilience?
Answer:
Psychological resilience refers to developing coping strategies that enable one to adapt to uncertainty, challenges and adversity and to move on without prolonged negative consequences.

Explain the concepts in 25 – 30 words each.

Question 1.
Broaden and Build theory.
Answer:
The ‘Broaden and Build theory of positive emotions’ by Barbara Fredrickson explains that when we experience positive emotions, we have more positive thoughts and also indulge in positive behaviours. Experiencing a positive emotion leads to broadening the number of actions that we can think of performing. This will increase and strengthen our psychological and social resources to lead a fulfilling life.

Question 2.
Life above zero.
Answer:
Traditional psychology focused on life at and below zero. Zero is the line that divides illness from health. Hence, life below zero indicates a life that is full of problems, stress, diseases, etc. Positive psychology emphasizes the study of life above zero. Life above zero covers a large area of positive aspects of behaviour such as mindfulness, resilience, happiness, hope, trust and empathy.

Question 3.
Mindfulness meditation
Answer:
Mindfulness means a moment-by-moment awareness of our bodily sensations, thoughts and feelings. In Buddhist philosophy, mindfulness practice is a form of meditation. Mindfulness meditation helps in developing a non-reactive state of mind which is the foundation of a peaceful mind. This helps to reduce anxiety, frustration, etc., and enhances mental well-being.

Answer the following questions in 35 – 40 words each.

Question 1.
Why is positive psychology considered significant today?
Answer:
Positive psychology is a newly emerging branch of psychology. Martin Seligman officially introduced Positive Psychology as a subfield of psychology. It is the science of happiness, human strength and growth.

Negative events tend to be intense and hence easily attract our attention, e.g., outburst of anger by a person will be quickly noticed. Positive psychology believes that a person can prevent and overcome many psychological problems by adopting a positive approach. Therefore, today, positive psychology is important. Positive psychology is concerned with the “good life” and the factors that contribute the most to a fulfilling, happy life. It can help increase self esteem, improve relationships and greater chances of success.

Question 2.
What are the characteristics of optimists?
Answer:
Optimism is a mental attitude that includes feelings of hopefulness. It is a belief that the future will be positive and favourable and that negative events are merely setbacks that are temporary and can be overcome.
The characteristics of optimists are-

1. they try to choose the best options available
2. they tend to be high on self confidence
3. they face difficulties positively as they view them as a challenge for a person to become strong
4. they are hopeful about the future and do not generalize present failure to future events.

Question 3.
How can empathy be nurtured?
Answer:
Empathy is the capacity to understand and feel what another person is experiencing from within their frame of reference i.e. capacity to place oneself in another’s position. According to Simon Baron-Cohen there are three components of emotions viz. cognitive empathy emotional reactivity and social skills.

Empathy builds a sense of security and trust. It is closely related to emotional intelligence and is a key to successful relationships. Empathy can be nurtured by employing methods like-

1. increase social interactions
2. connecting through similarities
3. understanding one’s own feelings
4. challenge your self
5. cultivate a sense of curiosity
6. widen the social contact circle.

Write short notes on the following in 50 – 60 words each.

Question 1.
Components of empathy
Answer:
Empathy is the capacity to understand and feel what another person is experiencing from within their frame of reference, i.e., capacity to place oneself in another’s position.
According to Simon Baron-Cohen, there are three components of empathy viz. cognitive empathy emotional reactivity and social skills.

1. Cognitive empathy – This is called perspective taking, i.e., knowing how the other thinks and feels. Cognitive empathy responds to a problem using brainpower.
2. Emotional reactivity – We feel the emotions as intensely as the other person. It involves connecting intimately with another person to form a strong bonds.
3. Social skills – It involves being moved to help the person using our emotional person to form a strong bonds.

Answer the following questions in 80 – 100 words each.

Question 1.
Types of resilience
Points:
(i) Physical resilience
(ii) Psychological resilience
(iii) Emotional resilience
(iv) Community resilience
Answer:
According to the American Psychological Association, resilience is the process of adapting well in the face of adversity, trauma, tragedy, threats or significant sources of stress such as family, health, etc. It is the act of ‘bouncing back’ inspite of barriers or set backs.
There are three ways in which people face adverse situations viz.

1. consider oneself as a ‘victim’ and hence indulge in self pity or anger
2. get overwhelmed by negative emotions like fear, anxiety, etc., which makes them vulnerable to physiological and psychological collapse
3. become upset about the disruption and experience a sense of loss, pain, grief, etc.

However, they understand that setbacks are a part of life. Hence, they work through these feelings in ways that foster strength and growth. Sometimes, they may emerge stronger than they were prior to the setback. Such persons are called Resilient individuals. The four types of resilience are-
(i) Physical resilience – It is the body’s ability to adapt to challenges, maintain stamina, and quickly recover when faced with illness, injury or other physical demands.

(ii) Psychological resilience – It is developing coping strategies that enable one to adapt to uncertainty, challenges and adversity and to move on without prolonged negative consequence. The person can remain calm and focused during stressful situations.

(iii) Emotional resilience – It refers to the ability to manage one’s emotions by adequately using one’s resources to cope with adversity and stress. It is the ability to understand what one is feeling and why?

(iv) Community resilience – It is the ability of groups of people to respond to and recover from adverse situations such as natural disasters, epidemics, war, economic hardships and other challenges to their community. This is mainly due to strong connections or bonds that community members have with each other.

Question 2.
Empathy
Points:
(i) Meaning
(ii) Components
(iii) Nurturing empathy
Answer:
(i) Meaning – Empathy is the capacity to understand and feel what another person is experiencing from within their frame of reference, i.e., capacity to place oneself in another’s position. Empathy builds a sense of security and trust. It is closely related to emotional intelligence. It supports social corrections required for communication and shared activities. Empathy is considered the key to successful relationships. Research indicates that there is a neurological foundation of empathy. A broad range of brain areas spanning the sensory motor area, insula and cingulate cortex together form a neural network for empathy processing.

(ii) Components-

• Cognitive empathy – This is called perspective taking, i.e., knowing how the other thinks and feels. Cognitive empathy responds to a problem using brainpower.
• Emotional reactivity – We feel the emotions as intensely as the other person. It involves connecting intimately with another person to form a strong bonds.
• Social skills – It involves being moved to help the person using our emotional intelligence. One should not become overwhelmed by sadness or trying to ‘fix’ things.

(iii) Nurturing empathy-
A world with empathetic persons will be nurturing and supportive. The methods to nurture empathy are-

• Increase social interactions – Especially with people who need help in order to understand their perspectives and motives.
• Connecting through similarities with others, e.g., those having same hobbies/ work/ goals, etc.
• Understanding what you are feeling – Those who are able to accurately judge their own motives, can empathize better.
• Challenge yourself – Tasks that are challenging lead to the person struggling to achieve a goal. This lead to humility which enables empathy.
• Cultivate a sense of curiosity – This leads to open-mindedness and a better understanding of those around us.
• Widen our social circle – Contact with people of different races, cultures, viewpoints helps to increase empathy towards them at a neurological level.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 7 First Aid in Mental Health Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Psychology Important Questions Chapter 7 First Aid in Mental Health

Choose the correct option and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
According to the NIMHANS study (2014-2016) about …………………. of the population suffers from common mental disorders.
(a) 10%
(b) 13%
(c) 25%
Answer:
(a) 10%

Question 2.
The Indian city that obtained an International license in 2017 to carry out the standard MHFA programme across India is ………………
(a) New Delhi
(b) Bengaluru
(c) Chennai
Answer:
(c) Chennai

Question 3.
If early signs of mental illness are recognized, it can assist the individual to get help. This is known as …………………
(a) diagnosis
(b) early intervention
(c) rehabilitation
Answer:
(b) early intervention

Question 4.
Imbalance of certain in the brain may be a factor in anxiety.
(a) neurotransmitters
(b) fluids
(c) organs
Answer:
(a) neurotransmitters

Match the pairs.

Question 1.

Group A	Group B
(1) Anthony Jorm	(a) technology related mental health issues
(2) Traumatic events	(b) depression
(3) SHUT clinic in NIMHANS	(c) co-founder of MHFA programme
(4) Red flag in internet usage	(d) social phobia
(5) Feeling of worthlessness	(e) anxiety
	(f) craving and compulsion

Answer:

Group A	Group B
(1) Anthony Jorm	(c) co-founder of MHFA programme
(2) Traumatic events	(e) anxiety
(3) SHUT clinic in NIMHANS	(a) technology related mental health issues
(4) Red flag in internet usage	(f) craving and compulsion
(5) Feeling of worthlessness	(b) depression

State whether the following statements are true or false.

Question 1.
There is a stigma attached to mental illness.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Mental illness is caused due to supernatural forces.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Mental illness usually does not develop ‘out of the blue’.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Relapse prevention is important in Mental Health First Aid.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Any anxiety experienced by a person is a cause for concern.
Answer:
False

Question 6.
DSM-5 considers behaviour addictions as a mental disorder.
Answer:
False

Answer the following in one sentence each.

Question 1.
What is the assumption of First Aid in Mental Health?
Answer:
The assumption of First Aid in Mental Health is the concept of ‘prevention is better than cure’.

Question 2.
What are some non-medical explanations for mental illness?
Answer:
Some non-medical explanations for mental illness are based on myths and superstitions that such behaviour is due to evil spirits and black magic.

Question 3.
Who developed the Mental Health First Aid (MHFA) programme?
Answer:
Betty Kitchener and Antony Jorm originally developed the Mental Health First Aid (MHFA) programme.

Question 4.
What is the objective of MHFA?
Answer:
MHFA is an internationally recognized training programme whose objective is to teach people how to identify the signs and symptoms of mental health problems and to provide assistance on a first aid basis.

Question 5.
What is the rationale of SHUT clinics by NIMHANS?
Answer:
NIMHANS (Bengaluru) has begun the Service for Healthy Use of Technology (SHUT) to deal exclusively with mental health issues that are technology related.

Answer the following questions in 35 – 40 words each.

Question 1.
What are the main hurdles to receiving treatment in case of mental illness?
Answer:
The main hurdles in receiving treatment for poor mental health are-

1. Lack of knowledge and awareness.
2. Stigma attached to mental illness due to which treatment is discontinued.
3. High cost of treatment.
4. Reliance on non-medical explanations for mental illness, for e.g., evil spirits.
5. Shortage of trained mental health professionals.
6. Slow improvement in the behaviour due to which treatment is discontinued.

Question 2.
What are the self help strategies in Mental Health First Aid?
Answer:
Self help strategies are tasks that help to increase our resources to deal with stress and to maintain mental health. MHFA is an internationally recognized training programme whose objective is to teach people how to identify the signs and symptoms of mental health problems and to provide assistance on a first aid basis.

1. Physical activity and exercise like playing a sport, jogging, yoga, etc.
2. Cultivate a hobby or engage in an enjoyable activity.
3. Sleep hygiene, i.e., 7 to 8 hours of sleep with a proper routine.
4. Reduce digital involvement, i.e., disconnect everyday for some time from gadgets.
5. Build social support and spend time with friends / family.

Question 3.
Enumerate behavioural changes noticed in persons suffering from depression.
Answer:
Individuals who experience depression, commonly have a negative thinking style and feel worthless and helpless. A number of changes are noticed in their behaviour such as-

1. Complaining of feeling tired or sleepy all the time
2. avoiding family and friends and spending much time alone
3. remaining sad and forgetful
4. bunking class or performing poorly in exams and having difficulty in concentrating.

Question 4.
What are the ‘red flags’ that indicate over dependence on the internet?
Answer:
Signs that help to identify individuals who show deviance or distress and require help in mental health are called red flags.
The ‘red flags’ that indicate over dependence on internet are-

1. Feelings of euphoria while using the internet.
2. Physical symptoms like headache, dry eyes, etc.
3. Inability to keep to schedules and boredom with routine tasks.
4. Poor personal hygiene and nutrition to remain online.

Write short notes in 50 – 60 words each.

Question 1.
First Aid in Mental Health.
Answer:
Mental Health First Aid (MHFA) is an internationally recognized training programme designed to teach people how to identify the signs and symptoms of mental health problems and to provide assistance on a first aid basis. MHFA was originally developed by Betty Kitchener and Anthony Jorm.

First Aid in Mental Health is a concept based on the idea of ‘prevention is better than cure’. It teaches one how to identify understand and respond to signs of mental illness as well as substance use disorders. Through role playing and simulations, MHFA demonstrates how to assess a mental health crisis, select interventions, provide initial help and connect the person to self-help resources, social support or professional aid if needed.

If the early signs of mental illness are recognized, it can help in the following ways.

1. Diagnosis – timely diagnosis at the onset of mental illness helps to prevent it from developing into a more severe form.
2. Intervention – early intervention helps to get professional help.
3. Relapse prevention – it prevent reoccurrence of symptom of the mental illness.

Question 2.
Self help strategies in Mental Health First Aid.
Answer:
Mental Health First Aid (MHFA) programme was developed by Betty Kitchener and Anthony Jorm. It is designed to identify the signs and symptoms of mental health and to provide assistance on a first aid basis.
Self help strategies are not luxuries but rather essential things that can be incorporated in your life.

1. Sleep hygiene – Ensuring that you get 7 to 8 hours of sleep every night. You should try to maintain the same schedule, that is go to sleep every night at the same time and wake up at the same time every day. This will help set a routine and improve your well-being
2. Reduce screen time and digital involvement – You should disconnect everyday for some time from your gadgets. Try to set a time limit for the number of hours you will surf the internet each day.
3. Physical activity – Try to add some physical activity in your day to day schedule. This can be playing a sport or just going for a walk every day.
4. Engage in activity that you enjoy doing, cultivate hobbies – This can be any activity like reading a book or listening to your favourite song.
5. Build and maintain Social Support – Meeting and spending time with your friends and family. Participating in social gatherings.

Question 3.
5-4-3-2-1 relaxation technique.
Answer:
There are certain times when you feel tense or anxious. One strategy that we can use to help us calm down is the 5-4-3-2-1 technique. This is a simple technique that you can use whenever you are feeling overwhelmed by the situation and need to relax. First take a few deep breaths and then follow the below instructions.

1. Think of 5 things that you can see around you. For example, a pen, book etc.
2. Think of 4 things that you can touch around you. For example, your hair, the ground under your feet etc
3. Think of 3 things that you can hear around you. For example, the sound of traffic, sound of people who are talking around you etc.
4. Think of 2 things that you can smell around you. For example, the scent of soap from your hands, the fragrance of your deodorant etc
5. Think of 1 thing that you can taste. For example the taste of the last meal that you had etc. Performing this exercise will help you focus on the present and stop worrying.

Question 4.
Behavioural changes in persons suffering from anxiety.
Answer:
Anxiety refers to a condition in which the person feels worried/tense and uneasy for a long time for no obvious reasons. Symptoms of anxiety include nervousness, restlessness, feelings of danger, etc.
Individuals who are anxious may-

1. Not want to go to college or work.
2. Complain repeatedly of various physiological problems.
3. Get irritated while interacting with their friends or family.
4. Spend lot of time worrying about how they look.
5. Be extremely quiet in the class or at work and get scared of asking questions to the teachers or colleagues.
6. Sometimes ask the same questions repeatedly.
7. They visibly show the physical symptoms of anxiety like sweating or excessive body movements.

Question 5.
Four C’s to identify excessive internet usage.
Answer:
Excessive internet usage is characterised by extensive, problematic addiction to the use of computer and internet. It signifies poorly controlled preoccupations or behaviour regarding such usage. Excessive internet usage leads to personal distress and social impairment.
The four C’s to identify excessive internet usage are as follows-

1. Craving – Do you have an intense desire to use the internet?
2. Control – Do you have an inability to control your self using the internet?
3. Compulsion – Do you find it difficult to stop using the internet? Even though you know you should not spend so much time on it?
4. Consequence – Have you ever experienced any physical or psychological ill effects as a result of excessive use of the internet?

If you answer a ‘yes’ for at least three of the C’s, it can be a matter of concern.

Question 6.
Over-dependence on internet.
Answer:
The amount of time as well as reason for using the internet may become a matter of concern for e.g., online gambling, gaming, etc. The person may socialise more online with friends than real life socialising. Spending excess time online may cause the person to neglect family, relationships, work etc. Virtual world enables games/gambling almost continuously.

This leads to the person neglecting personal hygiene, real life relationships and become withdrawn and irresponsible. The person may feel guilty or defensive about internet use. He/she may panic in the absence of internet service. A growing dependence on internet refers to an inability to stop and down down.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 6 Psychological Disorders Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Psychology Important Questions Chapter 6 Psychological Disorders

Choose the correct option and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
A persistent but disproportionate and irrational fear of a specific object or situation is called ……………….
(a) anxiety
(b) mania
(c) phobia
Answer:
(c) phobia

Question 2.
A cluster of symptoms is called as ……………….
(a) therapy
(b) maladjustment
(c) syndrome
Answer:
(c) syndrome

Question 3.
Bipolar disorder is also called ……………… disorder.
(a) manic-depressive
(b) schizophrenia
(c) PTSD
Answer:
(a) manic-depressive

Question 4.
The DSM-5 comprises of …………….. broad categories of mental disorders along with subcategories.
(a) 19
(b) 11
(c) 22
Answer:
(c) 22

Question 5.
Ashok experiences feelings of unhappiness but has no apparent mental illness. According to Illness Wellness Continuum Model, he will be in Quadrant ……………..
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 6.
Mr. X tries to stop his drug usage. He experiences tremors, muscle pains, etc. This indicates, ……………. symptoms.
(a) withdrawal
(b) recovery
(c) negative
Answer:
(a) withdrawal

State whether the following statements are true or false.

Question 1.
Illness and absence of illness are distinct categories.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Individual distress and impairment are criteria for psychological disorders.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Imbalance in neurotransmitters may cause bipolar disorders.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Extremely traumatic events may lead to the onset of Acute Stress Disorder.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Most schizophrenics suffer from delusions and hallucinations.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
Generally, negative symptoms of schizophrenia improve much with proper treatment.
Answer:
False

Question 7.
The same therapy can be applied with equal success to all persons who exhibit similar symptoms.
Answer:
False

Answer the following in one sentence each.

Question 1.
What is the literal meaning of word ‘schizophrenia’.
Answer:
The word ‘schizophrenia’ is derived from the Greek words ‘schizein’ (to split) and ‘phren’ (mind). Thus, the literal meaning of the word ‘schizophrenia’ is split mind.

Question 2.
What is meant by delusion?
Answer:
Delusion refers to false belief held by the individual which cannot be shaken off in spite of clear evidence that is contrary to it.

Question 3.
What are the two states of bipolar disorder?
Answer:
The two states of bipolar disorder are mania state and depression state.

Question 4.
When is the person diagnosed with PTSD?
Answer:
The person is said to be diagnosed with PTSD when the symptoms of Acute Stress Disorder (ASD) continue for more than one month with the same intensity.

Question 5.
What are addictive disorders?
Answer:
Addictive disorders refer to the physical and psychological inability to stop consuming some substance or indulging in some activity although it is harmful.

Question 6.
What is psychotherapy?
Answer:
Psychotherapy refers to the systematic attempt by a mental health professional to assist a person to overcome some psychological disorders.

Question 7.
What is the suggestible stage of PTSD?
Answer:
Suggestible stage of PTSD refers to a person who may seek guidance from others and may either accept these suggestions unquestioningly or may get extra sensitive.

Explain the following concepts.

Question 1.
Delusions
Answer:
Delusions is a false belief that is strongly held by an individual in spite of the presence of contrary evidence, Delusions are a symptom of mental disorders. Commonly noticed delusions are delusion of grandeur, delusions of persecution, delusion of influence or control, delusion of reference, etc.

Answer the following questions Briefly.

Question 1.
Explain Acute Stress Disorder.
Answer:
If a person (aged 6 years and above) has experienced extremely stressful situations like death of a loved one, serious disease or injury, sexual abuse, natural disasters, etc., then he/she may experience ASD.
The symptoms of ASD include-

1. emotional numbness and instability
2. nightmares and sleep disturbances
3. insomnia, lack of concentration, irritability and guilt feelings
4. depression

Question 2.
What are the red flags in identifying psychological disorders?
Answer:
Signs that help to identify individuals who require expert (professional) help in mental health are called ‘red flags’.
Symptoms, if present, in any person should satisfy three requirements-

1. it should be present for a considerably long period of time
2. symptom has become more severe than before
3. it has created problems in the person’s life.

Question 3.
What is Generalized Anxiety Disorder?
Answer:
Anxiety refers to a condition in which a person feels uneasy for a long time for no obvious reasons. The main anxiety disorders include Generalized Anxiety Disorder, Phobia, Panic attacks etc.

In Generalized Anxiety Disorder the person frequently experiences anxiety more intensely so that it starts interfering with the ability to perform daily tasks. Symptoms include irritability, headaches, insomnia, dizziness, breathlessness, etc.

Write short notes on the following.

Question 1.
Identification and treatment of psychological disorders.
Answer:
Signs that help to identify individuals who require expert (professional) help in mental health are called ‘red flags’. Symptoms, if present, in any person should satisfy three requirements

1. it should be present for a considerably long period of time
2. symptom has become more severe than before
3. it has created problems in the person’s life.

The signals indicating a need for professional help are:

1. inability to concentrate or to sleep well.
2. severe confusion and memory loss.
3. intense and uncontrollable negative feelings.
4. self-neglect or even self-harm.
5. loss of interest in friends/ family/ activities.
6. odd statement or strange use of words.

Treatment strategies range form pharmacotherapy (administering drugs) to psychotherapy such as Rational Emotive Behaviour Therapy, Interpersonal Therapy, Group/Family Therapy, etc. Mental health professionals are qualified to decide the plan of treatment.

Answer the following questions in 150 – 200 words.

Question 1.
Discuss the red flags indicating the need for psychological help.
Answer:
Signs that help to identify individuals who require expert (professional) help in mental health are called ‘red flags’.
Symptoms, if present, in any person should satisfy three requirements

1. it should be present for a considerably long period of time
2. symptom has become more severe than before
3. it has created problems in the person’s life.

Signals indicating need for professional help-

1. Inability to concentrate
2. Inability to sleep well
3. Various physical complaints
4. Uncontrollable and frequent bad thoughts
5. Too intense uncontrollable negative feelings (fear, anger, sadness, worry, etc.)
6. Severe confusion
7. Memory loss
8. Loss of interest in activities and friends
9. Odd or irrational statements or strange use of words or way of speaking
10. Self-harm
11. Signs of self-neglect

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Political Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Key Concepts and Issues Since 1991: Humanitarian Issues Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Political Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Key Concepts and Issues Since 1991: Humanitarian Issues

Complete the following statements by selecting the appropriate option.

Question 1.
The Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit (1992) focused on
(a) Environment and development
(b) Nuclear non-proliferation
(c) International trade
(d) Gender issues
Answer:
(a) Environment and development

Question 2.
The 2002 Earth Summit recognised as the most important goal at all level.
(a) poverty
(b) socio-economic develop
(c) sustainable development
(d) gender issues
Answer:
(c) sustainable development

Question 3.
The 2030 Agenda for sustainable Development was adopted in the year
(a) 2015
(b) 2002
(c) 1992
(d) 2019
Answer:
(a) 2015

Question 4.
The Second UN Decade for poverty eradication was in
(a) 1997-2006
(b) 1971-1980
(c) 2008-2017
(d) 1992-2003
Answer:
(c) 2008-2017

Question 5.
The Revolution aimed to make India self-sufficient in food grains.
(a) Import substitution
(b) Green
(c) White
(d) Infrastructural
Answer:
(b) Green

Question 6.
The is a scheme introduced in 1978-79 to create opportunities for self-employment in
the rural sector.
(a) MGNREGA
(b) JRY
(c) IRDP
(d) KVY
Answer:
(c) IRDP

Complete the following sentences by selecting the appropriate reason.

Question 1.
Green Revolution was introduced in India in the 1960’s to ………………
(a) make India self sufficient in food grains.
(b) generate employment and tackle poverty.
(c) to combine economic growth with social justice.
Answer:
(a) make India self sufficient in food grain

Question 2.
The Department of Women and Child Development was set up as a separate Ministry in 2006 to …………..
(a) facilitate health and education programmes for women.
(b) provided political representation to women
(c) empower women to live with dignity and contribute as equal partners in development.
Answer:
(c) make India self sufficient in food grains.

State the appropriate concept for the given statements.

Question 1.
Introduction of high yielding variety of seeds and irrigation methods.
Answer:
Green Revolution

Question 2.
Think tank of the Government of India, providing both directional and policy inputs.
Answer:
NITI Aayog

Question 3.
The responsible interaction with the environment to avoid depletion or degradation of natural resources.
Answer:
Sustainable development

Question 4.
Deprivation of common necessities that determine the quality of life.
Answer:
Poverty

Question 5.
A view that free market economy promotes development.
Answer:
Capitalism

Question 6.
Blueprint for prosperity for people and planet adopted by the UN in 2015.
Answer:
2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development

Question 7.
Agency set up in 1950 to formulate a plan for effective and balanced utilisation of India’s resources.
Answer:
Planning Commission

Question 8.
India’s policy towards poverty and development.
Answer:
Growth with Social Justice and Equity

Question 9.
The process by which oppressed persons gain control over their own lives.
Answer:
Empowerment

Question 10.
Socially constructed characteristics of women and men such as behaviour, norms, roles and relationships.
Answer:
Gender

Find the odd word.

Question 2.
Pollution, Deforestation, Poverty, Water Scarcity.
Answer:
Poverty (not a direct environment concern)

Question 2.
Brundtland Commission, Rio+20 Summit, Johannesburg Earth Summit, United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
Answer:
UNDP (not a commission/ summit associated with sustainable development)

Expand the following abbreviations.

(1) UNCED
(2) ECOSOC
(3) UNDP
(4) IRDP
(5) JGSY
(6) MPI
Answer:
(1) UNCED – United Nations Conference on Environment and Development
(2) ECOSOC – Economic and Social Council of the UN.
(3) UNDP – United Nations Development Programme
(4) IRDP – Integrated Rural Development Programme
(5) JGSY – Jawahar Gram Samridhi Yojana
(6) MPI – Multidimensional Poverty Index

Complete the concept maps.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

State whether the following statements are true or false with reason.

Question 1.
Rio Earth Summit (1992) was a landmark in environment issues.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit (1992) sought to raise public awareness on the need to integrate environment and development.
2. It’s objective was to create a partnership between developing and more industrialized nations to ensure a healthy future for the planet.

Question 2.
The perception of poverty has undergone a change in recent times.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. The traditional perception of poverty focused on the deprivation of the basic necessities of life such as food, shelter, etc.
2. The new perception of poverty as expressed by the ECOSOC, considers poverty as lack of basic capacity to participate effectively in society.
3. It is perceived as a denial of choices, opportunities and human dignity.

Question 3.
The 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development (2015) is a significant document.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. The 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development (2015) adopted by the UN, provides a blueprint for prosperity of the people and planet for now and in the future
2. It mentions seventeen Sustainable Development Goals for action by all countries in a global partnership for e.g., No Poverty, Climate action, Gender equality, etc.

Question 4.
The economic reforms initiated in India after 1991 had far-reaching implications.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. After 1991, India introduced the policies of economic liberalisation and privatisation of the public sector and brought an increase in economic and industrial growth rate.
2. These reforms changed the role of the State to focus more on social development such as in heath care, sanitation, education, etc.

Explain the correlation between the following.

Question 1.
Department of Women and Child Development – Women’s empowerment.
Answer:
The Department of Women and Child Development, Government of India came into existence as separate ministry in 2006. Before this, it was a department under HRD ministry: The Department of Women and Child Development was constituted with the intention of addressing gaps in State action for women and children and to create gender equitable and child-centered legislations, policies and programmes.

It aims to achieve the empowerment of women i.e., to live in dignity and to contribute as equal partners in development in an environment free from discrimination, injustice and violence. The Ministry has prepared the National Policy for the Empowerment of Women (2001). The Draft of the National Policy for women (2016) aims at women’s empowerment by following a socially inclusive rights-based approach.

Express your opinion of the following.

Question 1.
There is a need to protect the environment.
Answer:
I agree with this statement.
The environment refers to all living and non-living things that make up our surroundings. Many environmental problems result due to unplanned management, human activities and technological development that interfere with the environment. Protection of environment refers to conservation and preservation of environment by reducing pollution, soil erosion, global warming, deforestation etc.

Main environmental concerns hence are climate change, water scarcity, pollution, loss of biodiversity, etc. Environmental degradation and depletion of resources will result in spread of pests and vector diseases, extinction of species, natural disasters like floods; acid rain, melting of glaciers, etc. Life on this earth cannot exist unless we restore environmental balance.

Question 2.
Poor political representation of women is a major concern.
Answer:
I agree with this statement.
Poor political representation of women is a significant gender concern in India. The first Lok Sabha had only 24 women of total 489 members i.e., 5%, and the 17th Lok Sabha (2019) has 78 women (14%). This is the highest representation of women in Lok Sabha till date. The Women’s Reservation Bill which proposes to reserve 33% of all seats in Lok Sabha and in State Assemblies for women is pending in the Lok Sabha. This bill was first introduced in Parliament in 1996, by the United Front government of Prime Minister H.D. Deve Gowda.

As per the bill, seats will be reserved for women on a rotational basis. The UPA-I government (2004-2009) again introduced the bill in May 2008 and it was passed in May 2010 by the Rajya Sabha. Currently, the bill is still pending in Lok Sabha. However, there exists 33% reservation for women in rural and urban local bodies (as per 73rd and 74th Amendment Acts).

Answer the following question in 80 to 100 words.

Question 1.
What is the Green Revolution?
Answer:
Green Revolution refers to a large increase in crop production that is achieved by the use of high yielding crop varieties, pesticides, artificial fertilizers, machines and better management of agricultural resources. Norman Borlaug, an agricultural scientist of USA is considered as ‘Father of the Green Revolution’ for which he was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize (1970). In India, M.S. Swaminathan is credited with introducing the Green Revolution in 1965 especially in Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh.

This was necessitated due to famine and acute food shortages due to low productivity in food production. Green Revolution was mainly in wheat, maize and gram production. During it’s early years, the Green Revolution yielded great economic prosperity leading to significant increases in agricultural output and farmers incomes. However, this did not benefit marginal farmers who could not afford expensive inputs.

Question 2.
What is empowerment? Suggest measures for empowerment of women.
Answer:
Empowerment refers to the process by which oppressed or marginalized sections of the population become stronger, especially in controlling their own life and claiming their own rights. This may happen socially, economically, politically or nationally. The approach to women’s issues has progressed from ‘welfare’ to ‘development’ to ‘empowerment’.

Some of the measures for empowerment of women include-

1. Political empowerment – giving women better representation in legislative bodies and in the decision making process.
2. Economic empowerment – such as strengthening women’s access to property inheritance and land rights, skill training, work opportunities, micro-credit, increased right to economic resources and power.
3. Social empowerment – through literacy/education, training and raising awareness, freedom from domestic violence, access to information, health services and sanitation.

In India, schemes to empower women include Beti Bachao Beti Padhao Yojana (2015), Support to Training and Employment Programme for Women (STEP), Mahila Shakti Kendras (2017) etc.

Question 3.
Describe international efforts to deal with environmental concerns.
Answer:
There have been many international efforts to deal with environmental concerns as well as about the relationship between economic development and environmental degradation.
1. UN Conference on Human Environment (Stockholm, 1972) The purpose was to encourage and provide guidelines for protection of the environment.

2. World Commission on Environment and Development (1983) also called Brundtland commission put forward the concept of sustainable growth.

3. Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit (1992) sought to raise public awareness on the need to integrate environment and development and to create a partnership between developing and more industrialized nations to ensure a healthy future for the planet.

4. Earth Summit at Johannesburg (2002) recognized sustainable development as the most important goal for institutions at the national, regional and international levels

5. UN Conference on sustainable development (Rio-2012) is also called Rio Earth Summit or Rio+20. Environmental sustainability is defined as responsible interaction with the environment to avoid depletion or degradation of natural resources and allow for long¬term environmental quality. It’s goal is to conserve natural resources, to reduce pollution, to develop alternate sources of power, etc.

Question 4.
Elaborate on the aspects of development in India.
Answer:
The purpose of development is to ensure welfare of the people and is associated with economic growth. The traditional approaches to development focus on the predominant role of the State in promoting economic growth (Socialist) or role of free market economy (Capitalist). Since the 1990s, the alternative view of development that focuses on both material and non-material aspects has become acceptable. The focus today is development based on equity, participation, empowerment and sustainability.

1. Modernisation of the economy – During the Nehruvian period, the focus was on land reforms, irrigation and large-scale industrialisation to provide employment and increase productivity.
2. Self – reliance – This included ‘import substitution’ strategy to develop indigenous industry.
3. Socialist pattern of society – It was based on promotion of the Welfare State, employment generation and importance ,to the public sector. The Planning Commission (March 1950 to 31st December 2014) was created to chalk out Five Year Plans for development.

“Growth with Social Justice and Equity’ has been India’s policy towards poverty and development. Its development strategy has evolved over the years. In the early stages, government played a dominant role through the public sector.

Question 5.
Describe the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development adopted in 2015 by the UN.
Answer:
In 2015, the United Nations adopted the ‘2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development. It provides a blueprint for peace and prosperity for people and the planet for now and into the future. The Agenda mentions 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) for action by all developed and developing countries in a global partnership.

The Sustainable Development Goals are:

1. No Poverty
2. Zero hunger
3. Good health and well being
4. Quality
5. Gender equality
6. Clean water and sanitation
7. Affordable and clean energy
8. Decent work and economic growth
9. Industry, innovation and infrastructure
10. Reduced inequalities
11. Sustainable cities and communities
12. Responsible consumption and production
13. Climate action
14. Life below water
15. Life on land
16. Peace, justice and strong institutions
17. Partnership goals

Answer the following question with reference to the given points.

Question 1.
Explain condition of women in India.
(a) Economic inequality
(b) Trafficking and exploitation
(c) Literacy rate
(d) Political representation
Answer:
All over the world, women have to face serious problems such as discrimination and violence, under representation in economic and political decision-making, inequalities in education, health care, landholdings and workplaces and even in human rights.

Some of the important gender issues:
(a) Economic inequality – Participation of women in the labour market is about 28% only. There is also income inequality due to wide gender wage gaps as well as inequality of opportunities to women e.g., unequal access to education and finance. In many countries, women are either not encouraged to work or employed in the informal sector. Women continue to be underrepresented in high-level, highly paid positions and experience gender discrimination and sexual harassment in the workplace. Women experience high levels of poverty, unemployment and other economic hardships.

(b) Trafficking and exploitation – Women are often exploited and denied basic rights. They are trafficked for purpose of sexual and economic exploitation particularly prostitution, ‘sold’ as brides, subjected to sexual crimes, forced labour, street begging, etc. Trafficking in women means that they are deceived or forced/sold, physically confined, abused with no access to protection or health care.

(c) Literacy rate – low literacy among women is acute in India. As per 2011 census report, female literacy rate is only 65.46% while for males it is 82.14%. The reasons for the low female literacy are-

1. traditional patriarchal notions that do not consider female education as economically advantageous
2. Schools in rural areas are not easily accessible and travel may not safe or easy.
3. Benefits of schemes like R.T.E have not reached many rural females.
4. Social evils like child marriage, female foeticide, dowry, etc.

(d) Political Representation – Poor political representation of women is a significant gender concern in India. The First Lok Sabha had only 24 women of total 489 members i.e., 5% and the 17th Lok Sabha (2019) has 78 women (14%). This is the highest representation of women in Lok Sabha till date. The Women’s Reservation Bill which proposes to reserve 33% of all seats in Lok Sabha and in State Assemblies for women is pending in the Lok Sabha. However, there exists 33% reservation for women in rural and urban local bodies.

Question 2.
Describe the following poverty alleviation programmes in India.
(a) Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP)
(b) Jawahar Gram Samridhi Yojana (JGSY)
(c) Pradhan Mantri Gramin Awaas Yojana (PMGAY)
(d) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act. (MGNREGA)
(e) Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana.
Answer:
The poverty alleviation programmes in India have been designed for both rural areas and urban areas. Most of the programmes are designed to target the rural poverty as prevalence of poverty is high in rural areas.
(a) Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP) – It was first introduced in 1978¬79. The main objective of IRDP is to create sustainable opportunities for self-employment in the rural sector.

(b) Jawahar Gram Samridhi Yojana (JGSY) – It is the revised version of the Jawahar Rozgar Yojana (JRY). It was started in 1999. The main aim of this programme was development infrastructure like roads to connect the villages to different areas and other social, education (schools) and infrastructure like hospitals in the rural areas.

(c) Pradhan Mantri Gramin Awaas Yojana – It was started in 1985. This scheme aimed at creating housing for everyone.

(d) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act. (MGNREGA) – It was launched in 2005. It provides 100 days assured employment every year to every rural household.

(e) Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana – It was started in 2014. According to this yojana, each Member of Parliament will take the responsibility of developing three villages by 2019. The idea is to make India’s villages to be fully developed with physical and institutional infrastructure.

Question 3.
Discuss the following humanitarian issues.
(a) Environmental degradation
(b) Poverty
(c) Gender issues
Answer:
Humanitarian issues refer to concerns about issues affecting human welfare with the aim of alleviation of sufferings. Examples of humanitarian issues include natural disasters, famine, epidemics, armed conflicts, poverty, inequalities and injustice, environmental problems, etc.

(a) Environmental degradation – Indiscriminate exploitation of natural resources had resulted in environmental depletion and degradation. This results in significant environmental concerns such as deforestation, soil erosion,loss of biodiversity, climate change, endangerment of species, water scarcity, acid rain, pollution, spread of diseases etc. The relationship between economic development and environmental degradation has been considered at various international conferences like Rio Earth Summit, etc.

Environmental degradation has serious consequences for humans, animals, plants as well as the ecological balance. The causes of degradation include resource depletion due to overuse, landfills and illegal dumping, waste production, overpopulation and consumption behaviour, etc.

(b) Poverty – The traditional perception of poverty is where people are unable to provide for their basic necessities of life. It is the deprivation of common necessities that determine the quality of life including food, clothing, shelter and safe drinking water. The alternative view of poverty focuses on both material and non-material aspects i.e., focus on community ties, values and availability of common resources, participatory decision making and political and economic decentralisation.

The purpose of development is to ensure welfare of the people and is associated with economic growth. The traditional approaches to development focus on the predominant role of the State in promoting economic growth (socialist) or role of free market economy (capitalist). Since the 1990s, the alternate view of development that focuses on both material and non material aspects has become acceptable. The focus today is development based on equity, participation, empowerment and sustainability.

(c) Gender issues – There is a distinct link between poverty and unsatisfactory conditions of women. In most parts of the world women are poor due to cultural norms, unequal power equations between men and women. In the 1970s, women empowerment came to be accepted as an important philosophy to bring about gender justice. The UN ‘Decade for Women’ began in 1976 to-

1. link women’s issues with developmental issues
2. promote equal rights and opportunities for women across the globe.

Question 4.
Discuss the vision of the development process in India.
(a) Modernisation of the economy
(b) Self-reliance
(c) Socialist pattern of society
Answer:
The purpose of development is to ensure welfare of the people and is associated with economic growth. The traditional approaches to development focus on the predominant role of the State in promoting economic growth (Socialist) or role of free market economy (Capitalist). Since the 1990s, the alternative view of development that focuses on both material and non material aspects has become acceptable. The focus today is development based on equity, participation, empowerment and sustainability. India’s vision of development had three aspects:

(a) Modernisation of the economy – This implied industrialization to provide employment to a growing labour force and to increase productivity During the Nehruvian period, the focus was on large scale industrialization and factory production. Land reforms and irrigation were looked at as the means to achieve agricultural growth and productivity.

(b) Self-reliance – This included ‘import substitution’ strategy to develop indigenous industry. Aid taken from Soviet Union, France, etc. was utilised mainly in the public sector and for infrastructure.

(c) Socialist pattern of society – The approach of planning for development was based on promotion of the welfare State, employment generation and importance to the public sector. The Planning Commission (March 1950 31st December 2014) was created to chalk out Five Year Plans for development.

“Growth with Social Justice and Equity” has been India’s policy towards poverty and development. Its development strategy has evolved over the years. In the early stages, government played a dominant role through the public sector.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 5 Emotions Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Psychology Important Questions Chapter 5 Emotions

Choose the correct option and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
According to the theory, we experience physiological arousal and feelings simultaneously and independently.
(a) James-Lange
(b) Cannon-Bard
(c) Schachter-Singer
Answer:
(b) Cannon-Bard

Question 2.
According to Ekman, there are basic emotions.
(a) 2
(b) 5
(c) 6
Answer:
(c) 6

Question 3.
is an emotion that is in response to some threat.
(a) Sadness
(b) Fear
(c) Disgust
Answer:
(b) Fear

Question 4.
Plutchik’s model explains that there are primary emotions.
(a) 8
(b) 6
(c) 12
Answer:
(b) 6

Question 5.
is not a primary/ basic emotion according to Plutchik.
(a) Trust
(b) Anticipation
(c) Jealousy
Answer:
(c) Jealousy

Question 6.
Emotions are controlled by the ……………….. in the brain.
(a) cerebral cortex
(b) limbic system
(c) RAS
Answer:
(b) limbic system

Question 7.
Aniket shows creativity and has meaningful relationships. He has …………. emotional well-being.
(a) high
(b) low
(c) moderate
Answer:
(a) high

State whether the following statements are true or false.

Question 1.
“I feel sad because I cry”, This is the premise of the Schachter – Singer theory.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Pride and guilt are considered as higher cognitive emotions.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
The fight or flight reaction is a reaction to sadness.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Low serotonin levels are associated with clinical depression.
Answer:
True

Answer the following in one sentence each.

Question 1.
What is the premise of the facial feedback hypothesis?
Answer:
According to the facial feedback hypothesis, our facial expressions provide feedback to our brain about our emotions.

Question 2.
What are complex emotions?
Answer:
Complex emotions are emotions which result form the combination of basic emotions for e.g., surprise and sadness lead to disappointment.

Question 3.
According to Ekman, which are the basic emotions?
Answer:
According to Ekman, there are six basic (universal) types of emotions, i.e., happiness, sadness, anger, fear, surprise, disgust.

Question 4.
When does a person experience disgust?
Answer:
A person usually experiences disgust as a response to some unwanted stimulus.

Question 5.
According to Plutchik, how do emotions result?
Answer:
According to Plutchik, emotions result due to evolving over a period of time for increasing our chances of survival.

Question 6.
Why is Plutchik’s model important?
Answer:
Plutchik’s model is important from the perspective of emotional literacy, i.e., understanding emotional levels, complexity and change as well as appropriate emotional labelling.

Question 7.
What does emotional well-being mean?
Answer:
Emotional well-being means managing both positive and negative emotions, so that we can lead a healthy and productive life.

Question 8.
What does anger management mean?
Answer:
Anger management is an intervention programme to prevent anger from turning into a habit or obstacle by creating awareness of and responsibility for our emotions.

Explain the concepts in 25 – 30 words each.

Question 1.
Emotions
Answer:
The word emotion is derived from the latin word ‘emovere’, which means to stir up or to move. An emotion refers to an involuntary, aroused state of an organism involving physical, cognitive and behavioural components. It is described as a combination of bodily arousal, e.g., increased heartrate, thoughts and feelings, i.e. emotional tone and expressive behaviour i.e. facial expression.

Question 2.
Emotional well-being.
Answer:
Emotional well-being means managing our emotions, both positive and negative ones, so that we can lead a healthy and productive life. Persons who have high emotional well-being experience benefits such as-

1. better able to deal with stress
2. better self-regulation
3. increased productivity in tasks undertaken
4. increased creativity and openness to new experiences
5. life satisfaction due to meaningful activities and relationship.

Question 3.
Emotional Abuse.
Answer:
Emotional abuse is any kind of abuse that is emotional rather than physical in nature. It occurs when one person subjects or exposes another person to intentionally harmful behaviour that may result in anxiety, depression and psychological trauma in the victim.
The types of emotional abuse may be-

1. verbal abuse such as blaming, insulting, labeling, threatening, swearing, etc.
2. nonverbal abuse such as ignoring, rejection, bullying, spying, etc.

Question 4.
Anger Management.
Answer:
Anger management is an intervention programme to prevent anger from turning into a habit or obstacle. It enables the person to create awareness of and responsibility for his/her emotions. Anger management involves two aspects (i) managing one’s own anger (ii) learning to respond effectively to anger in others. The three R’s in anger management are Relax, Reassess and Respond.

Answer the following questions in 35 – 40 words each.

Question 1.
What are the techniques to deal with emotional abuse?
Answer:
Emotional abuse is any kind of abuse that is emotional rather than physical in nature. It occurs when one person subjects or exposes another person to intentionally harmful behaviour that may result in anxiety, depression and psychological trauma for the victim.
The techniques to deal with emotional abuse-

1. Accept that emotional abuse is not because of you, i.e., don’t justify the actions of the abuser.
2. Respond assertively to the abuser but seek distance from him/her.
3. Give yourself time to heal.
4. Prioritize your self-care, eating right, exercise, etc.
5. Mobilise support from family and friends. If needed, seek professional help.

Question 2.
What are the benefits of emotional well-being?
Answer:
Emotional well-being means managing our emotions, both positive and negative ones, so that we can lead a healthy and productive life. Persons who have high emotional well-being experience benefits such as-

1. better able to deal with stress
2. better self-regulation
3. increased productivity in tasks undertaken
4. increased creativity and openness to new experiences
5. life satisfaction due to meaningful activities and relationship.

Write short notes on the following in 50 – 60 words each.

Question 1
Characteristics of emotions
Answer:
The word emotion is derived from the latin word ‘emovere’, which means to stir up or to move. An emotion refers to an involuntary, aroused state of an organism involving physical, cognitive and behavioural components. It is described as a combination of bodily arousal, e.g., increased heartrate, thoughts and feelings, i.e. emotional tone and expressive behaviour i.e. facial expression.
Some characteristics of emotions are-

1. Emotions may be positive, e.g., joy or negative, e.g., anger.
2. Emotions may occur for a brief period or may be long lasting.
3. Emotions may be important for our survival, e.g., fear or for our psychological well-being, e.g., love.
4. Emotions differ in intensity in expression for e.g., annoyance-anger-rage.
5. Complex emotions (higher cognitive level emotions) result from the combination of basic emotions, for e.g., surprise and sadness lead to disappointment.
6. According to Ekman, there are six basic (universal) types of emotions, i.e., happiness, sadness, anger, fear, surprise, disgust.

Question 2.
Physiological changes during emotions.
Answer:
Physiological changes refer to automatic reactions that take place in our body in response to some stimulus, for e.g., if you saw a snake, the brain at the cognitive level perceived the stimulus as dangerous. This leads to physiological arousal such as dilated pupils, increased heart rate, increased pulse rate, sweating. At the emotional level you experience fear. The Autonomic Nervous System and Glandular system signal the pituitary gland which activates the adrenal glands to secrete the cortisol hormone. This triggers “the fight or flight” response. At the behavioural level there is an action plan such as running away or calling for help, etc.

Answer the following questions 80 – 100 words each.

Question 1.
Theories of emotions.
Points:
(i) James-Lange theory
(ii) Cannon-Bard theory
(iii) Schachter-Singer theory
Answer:
The word emotion is derived from the latin word ‘emovere’, which means to stir up or to move. An emotion refers to an involuntary, aroused state of an organism involving physical, cognitive and behavioural components. It is described as a combination of bodily arousal, e.g., increased heartrate, thoughts and feelings, i.e. emotional tone and expressive behaviour, i.e., facial expression.
The main theories of emotions are-
(i) James-Lange theory – It was one of the earliest theories to explain emotion. According to William James and Carl Lange, physiological arousal instigates the experience of emotion. It proposes that each specific emotion is attached to a different pattern of physiological arousal. For e.g., we feel sad because we cry. The sequence of events in emotional experience is Emotion Stimulus – Physiological Response Pattern → Affective Experience.

(ii) Cannon-Bard theory – According to Walter Cannon and Philip Bard, we may experience the same physiological arousal but emotions can be different, for e.g., we don’t cry only when we are sad but we also cry when we are angry or extremely happy. We experience physiological arousal and feelings at the same time and independently. For e.g., seeing a man with a gun prompts the feeling of fear as well as a racing heartbeat.

(iii) Schachter and Singer’s Two Factor theory – According to Stanley Schachter and Jerome Singer, emotion is based on two factors, i.e., physiological arousal and cognitive label, for e.g., an environmental stimuli (growling dog) elicits a physiological response (increased heart rate). We cognitively label this response (fear).

Question 2.
Emotional well-being.
Points:
(i) Meaning
(ii) Aspects
(iii) Benefits
Answer:
The word emotion is derived from the latin word ‘emovere’, which means to stir up or to move. An emotion refers to an involuntary, aroused state of an organism involving physical, cognitive and behavioural components. It is described as a combination of bodily arousal, e.g., increased heart rate, thoughts and feelings, i.e. emotional tone and expressive behaviour i.e. facial expression.

(i) Meaning – Emotional well-being means managing our emotions, both positive and negative ones, so that we can lead a healthy and productive life. Emotional well-being is not easily observable. It can be guaged on the basis of how a person rationally handles a situation involving some stressors or leading to negative emotions. Emotional well-being refers to understanding and managing one’s emotions without getting overwhelmed by negative emotions but instead encouraging positive emotions.

(ii) Aspects – The aspects of emotional well-being are at three levels viz. physical, emotional and social.

1. Physical level, i.e., well balanced diet, exercise.
2. Emotional level, i.e., practise mindfulness, raising levels of motivation and optimism.
3. Social level, i.e., engaging in prosocial behaviour, meaningful relationships.

(iii) Benefits – Persons who have high emotional well-being experience benefits such as-

1. Coping with stress – It helps to deal with stress using healthy methods such as exercise, social support, etc.
2. Better self-regulation – It enables the person to label how they feel and accept negative emotions life fear, anger, etc.
3. Increases productivity in tasks undertaken – The ability to focus is enhanced, the person feels positive and energized.
4. Increases creativity – The person indulges in divergent thinking, shows curiosity is open to new experiences.
5. Life satisfaction – The individual is able to have meaningful interactions and relationships, show empathy, altruism and engage in activities like volunteer work.