Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 1.
Explain Planck’s idea of quantization of energy.
Answer:
Max Planck, in 1900, put forward the idea of quantization of energy to explain the blackbody radiation spectrum. He proposed that atoms behave as tiny oscillators and emit electromagnetic radiation, not continuously but as little packets of energy called quanta. He assumed that the energy associated with a quantum of radiation (now called a photon) is proportional to the frequency v of the oscillator. Thus, E = nhv, where n = 1, 2, 3, 4, … etc., and h is a universal constant, now called Planck’s constant. For n = 1, E = hv. A quantum of radiation is emitted when there is a transition from a higher quantized level of energy of an oscillator to lower quantized level.

[Note : Historically, various terms have been used to denote a particle of light; quantum of electromagnetic radiation ≡ photon ≡ packet of energy ≡ atom of energy ≡ quantum of radiation ≡ bundle of energy. Interaction between two charged particles involves exchange of photons. The photon has zero rest mass, no charge, unit spin and travels in free space at a speed of 2.99792458 × 108 m/s exact by definition. There is no conservation law for photons, i.e., they can be produced / absorbed.]

Question 2.
What was Hertz’s observation regarding emission of electrons from a metal surface?
Answer:
During his experiments on electromagnetic waves in 1887, Heinrich Rudolph Hertz (1857-94), Ger-man physicist, noticed that electric sparks occurred more readily when one of the electrodes of his spark-gap transmitter was exposed to ultraviolet radiation. This discovery was called the Hertz effect and is now known as the photoelectric effect.

Although Hertz did not follow up his discovery, others quickly established that the cause of the sparking ease was due to emission of negatively charged particles from the electrode irradiated. These particles were identified as electrons after the discovery of the electron in 1897.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 3.
Draw a neat labelled diagram to illustrate photoelectric effect.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 1
[Note : Positive metal ions and atoms are not shown in the figure.]

Question 4.
What were the investigations of Hallwachs and Lenard regarding photoelectric effect?
Answer:
Wilhelm Hallwachs (1859-1922), German physicist, found that a metal plate irradiated with ultraviolet radiation lost its charge more rapidly when the plate is negatively charged than when it is neutral or positive.

Investigations of photoelectric effect by Phillipp Lenard (1862-1947), German physicist, showed that

  1. electron emission occurs only with radiations below a critical wavelength, i.e., above a critical frequency.
  2. kinetic energy of the emitted electrons increases as wavelength decreases i.e., frequency increases but is independent of the intensity of radiation which determines the rate of emission of electrons (the number of electrons emitted per unit time).

Question 5.
What is a photosensitive surface?
Answer:
The surface which emits electrons when illuminated by electromagnetic radiation of appropriate frequency is called photosensitive surface.
[Note : The material that exhibits photoelectric effect is called photosensitive material.]

Question 6.
Why are alkali metals most suitable as photo-sensitive surfaces?
Answer:
The alkali metals e.g., caesium, potassium and sodium emit photoelectrons even when visible radiation (light) is incident on them. Hence, they are most suitable as photosensitive surfaces.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 7.
With a neat diagram, describe the apparatus to study the characteristics of photoelectric effect.
Answer:
Apparatus : A photoelectric cell G consists of the emitting electrode E (emitter) of the material being studied and the collecting electrode C (collector). The electrodes are sealed in an evacuated glass envelope provided with quartz window W that allows the passage of UV radiation and visible light. Monochromatic light of variable frequency from a suitable source S (such as a carbon arc) passes through a pair of polarizers P (permitting a change in the intensity of radiation) and falls on the emitter.

The electric circuit, as shown in below figure, allows the collector potential to be varied from positive through zero to negative with respect to the emitter, and permits the measurement of potential difference and current between the electrodes. When the collector is made negative, the voltmeter is connected in reverse.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 2
[ Note : The radiation coming out of a filter is not truly monochromatic, it lies in the wavelength range between λ and λ + ∆λ that depends on the source and the filter. ]

Question 8.
In the experiment to study photoelectric effect, describe the effects of the frequency and intensity of the incident radiation on the photoelectric current, for a given emitter material and potential difference across the photoelectric cell.
Answer:
The emitter of the photoelectric cell is irradiated with monochromatic light whose frequency and intensity can be varied continuously and measured. Initially, the collector is made positive with respect to the emitter, so that photoelectrons ejected move quickly from the emitter to the collector. About 10 V is sufficient to do this. The photoelectric current as a function of intensity and frequency of incident radiation is studied.

(1) Effect of frequency : Keeping the light intensity and the accelerating potential difference V constant, the frequency of the incident radiation is varied from that of far-UV to red. It is found that for every material (usually, a metal) irradiated there is a limiting frequency below which no photoelectrons are emitted irrespective of the intensity of the radiation. This frequency, v0, called the threshold frequency or cut-off frequency, is a characteristic of the material irradiated.

The graph of photoelectric current against frequency is shown in below figure; A and B represent two different metals. The photoelectric current is not the same in the two cases, because the intensity of light is different for different frequencies.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 3
(2) Effect of intensity : With an emitter of a given material, the light intensity is varied by keeping the frequency v (≥ v0) of the light and the accelerating potential difference V constant. It is found that the rate of electron emission, as indicated by the photoelectric current, is proportional to the light intensity. The graph of photoelectric current against light intensity is a straight line through (0, 0), below figure; if we vary either the frequency of the light or the material irradiated, only the slope of the line changes. No electrons are emitted in the absence of incident radiation.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 4
[Note : The dark current, i.e., the current observed in the absence of light, is extremely low. Hence, it is ignored.]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 9.
In the experiment to study photoelectric effect, describe the variation of the photoelectric current as a function of the potential difference across the photoelectric cell, for incident radiation of (1) a given frequency above the threshold but different intensities (2) a given intensity but different frequencies above the threshold.
Answer:
(1) The potential difference (p.d.) across the photo-electric cell is varied keeping both the frequency v (≥ threshold frequency v0) and the intensity of the light constant. Starting with the collector at about 10 V positive, we reduce this potential to zero and then run it negative.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 5
When the p.d. across the tube is 10 V or more, all the emitted electrons are accelerated and travel across the tube, constituting the saturation current for a given light intensity; an increase in the potential of the collector does not cause an increase in current. As the collector potential is reduced from positive values through zero to negative values, the tube current reduces because of the applied retarding potential. In this case, some electrons stop and turn back before they can reach the collector. Eventually the potential difference is large enough to stop the current completely. This is called the stopping potential or cut-off potential VQ. The product of the stopping potential and electronic charge, V0e, is equal to the maximum kinetic energy that an electron can have at the time of emission.
V0e = KEmax \(\frac{1}{2}\)v2max

In above figure, I1 and I2 are two intensities of the incident radiation for the same frequency v ( > v0); I2 = 2I0. Doubling the intensity of light doubles the current at each potential, as in I2, but V0 is independent of I.

(2) The above experiment is repeated with different light frequencies for a given emitter material and light intensity. It is found that the stopping potential increases linearly with the frequency in below figure. Therefore, when photoejection occurs for frequencies above v0, the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons increases linearly with the frequency of the radiation.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 6
[Note : It was shown by Hughes that the stopping potential depends linearly on the frequency of incident radiation. Lawrence and Beams established that the time interval between arrival of a photon on a metal surface and emission of an electron is less than 3 × 10-9 sc.]

Question 10.
What is the effect of the intensity of incident radiation on the stopping potential in photo-electric emission?
Answer:
V0 is independent of intensity.

Question 11.
In the experiment to study photoelectric effect, discuss the effect and significance of extremely weak radiation of frequency greater than the threshold frequency for the emitter material.
Answer:
The emitter of the photoelectric cell is irradiated with monochromatic light whose frequency is greater than the threshold frequency for the emitter material. The collector is kept at 10 V positive with respect to the emitter, so that photoelectrons ejected move quickly from the emitter to the collector.

The light is made extremely dim (i.e., the intensity is extremely weak). In this case, the number of ‘ photoelectrons emitted per unit time is very small (and special techniques are required to detect them); but, however few, they are emitted almost instantaneously and with the same maximum kinetic energy as for bright light of the same frequency.

According to the wave theory of light, wave trains of pulsating electromagnetic field spread out from the source. Dim light corresponds to waves of small amplitudes and small energy. If dim light spreads over a surface, conservation of energy requires that the electrons must store energy over long periods of time, which can be several hours, before gathering enough energy to become free of the metal. The fact that photoelectrons appear immediately, within about 10-9 s, can be explained only by assuming that the light energy is not spread over the surface uniformly as required by the wave theory, but falls on the surface in concentrated bundles.

Question 12.
Define (1) threshold frequency (2) threshold wavelength (3) stopping potential.
Answer:
(1) The threshold frequency for a given metal surface is the characteristic minimum frequency of the incident radiation below which no photoelectrons are emitted from that metal surface (whatever may be the intensity of incident light).

(2) The threshold wavelength for a given metal surface is the characteristic maximum wavelength of the incident radiation above which no photoelectrons are emitted from that metal surface (whatever may be the intensity of incident light).

(3) The stopping potential is the value of the retarding potential difference that is just sufficient to stop the most energetic photoelectrons emitted from reaching the collector so that the photoelectric current in a photocell reduces to zero.

[Note : The threshold wavelength λ0 = c/v0, where c is the speed of light in free space and v0 is the threshold frequency for the metal.]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 13.
State the characteristics of photoelectric effect.
Answer:
Characteristics of photoelectric effect:
(1) For every metal surface there is a limiting frequency of incident radiation below which no photoelectrons are emitted from that metal surface. This frequency, called the threshold frequency, is characteristic of the metal irradiated.

(2) The time rate of emission of photoelectrons in-creases in direct proportion to the intensity, of incident radiation.

(3) The photoelectrons have different speeds at the time of emission ranging from zero to a certain maximum value, which is characteristic for a given metal for a given frequency of the incident radiation. The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons at the time of emission is independent of the intensity but increases linearly with the frequency of the incident radiation.

(4) For incident radiation of frequency greater than or equal to the threshold frequency for a given metal surface, photoelectric emission from the surface is almost instantaneous, even under extremely weak irradiation.

Question 14.
Can we get photoemission with an intense beam of radio waves ? Is photoemission possible at all frequencies ?
Answer:
The frequency of the incident radiation and not its intensity is the criterion for photoelectric effect. The lowest frequency of electromagnetic waves that can cause photoemission is about 4.6 × 1014 Hz (for the alkali metal caesium). Since radio waves have frequencies 1 GHz or lower, they cannot cause photoemission.

Only alkali metals are photosensitive to visible light; other metals are photosensitive only to far ultraviolet radiations.

Question 15.
Explain how wave theory of light fails to explain the characteristics of photoelectric effect.
OR
Explain the failure of wave theory of light to account for the observations from experiments on photoelectric effect.
Answer:
According to the wave theory of light, electromagnetic waves carry the energy stored in oscillating electric and magnetic fields. When enough energy is absorbed by an electron in a substance, it should be liberated as a photoelectron. Frequency of light does not come into picture in this case. Hence, there should not be any threshold frequency for emission of electrons. But it is found that there exists threshold frequency and it depends on the metal.

Experimentally, the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons increases linearly with the frequency of light. This cannot be accounted by the wave theory of light.

If a source of light is weak or far away from a metal surface, emission of an electron will not be almost instantaneous. The electron may have to wait for several hours/days for absorption of enough energy from the incident light as by the wave theory of light, energy is spread over the wavefront. But experimentally, for an appropriate frequency of incident light, photoelectric effect is almost instantaneous.

Only one observation, photoelectric current ∝ intensity of incident light can be accounted by the wave theory of light.

Question 16.
Give Einstein’s explanation of the photoelectric effect.
Answer:
Max Planck put forward the quantum theory in 1900 to explain blackbody spectrum. In the theory, he proposed that the electromagnetic radiation emitted by the body consists of discrete concentrated bundles of energy, each equal to hv, where h is a universal constant (now called Planck’s constant) and v is the frequency of the radiation.

Einstein put forth (1905) that these energy quanta, called light quanta/later called photons, interact with matter much like a particle. When a photon collides with an electron in an atom, the electron absorbs whole of the photon energy hv in a single collision or nothing. The electron uses this energy (1) to liberate itself from the atom, (2) to overcome the potential energy barrier at the surface thus liberating itself from the metal, and (3) retains the remaining part as its kinetic energy. Different electrons need different energies in the first two processes. There are some electrons which use minimum energy in the two processes, and hence come out of the metal with maximum kinetic energy. The minimum energy required, in the form of electromagnetic radiation, to free an electron from a metal is called the photoelectric work function Φ of that metal. Thus, for the most energetic photoelectrons at the time of emission,
maximum kinetic energy of the electron = photon energy – photoelectric work function
∴ \(\frac{1}{2}\)\(m v_{\max }^{2}\) = hv – Φ ∴ hv = Φ + \(\frac{1}{2}\)\(m v_{\max }^{2}\)
The above equation is called Einstein’s photo-electric equation.

Light interacts with matter as concentrated bundles of energy rather than energy spread over a Huygens type wavefront. Even under weak irradiation, an electron absorbs a photon’s energy in a single collision. But the rate of incident photons in dim light being less, the chances of such absorption diminish and consequently the photoelectric current diminishes. However, a photoelectron is emitted as soon as a photon is absorbed.

[Note : Albert Einstein (1879-1955), German-Swiss- US theoretical physicist, gave his photoelectric equation in 1905. In the period 1912-1916, Robert Andrews Millikan (1868 -1953), US physicist, was the first to obtain the precise experimental data from which the straight-line graphs, like the one shown in Fig. 14.6, were plotted for various metals. Einstein’s theoretically predicted equation-clearly having the right form for a straight-line graph-was thus verified.]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 17.
Define photoelectric work function of a metal.
Answer:
The photoelectric work function of a metal is defined as the minimum photon energy that ejects an electron from the metal.
It is equal to hv0, where h is Planck’s constant and v0 is the threshold frequency for the metal.

Question 18.
Write Einstein’s photoelectric equation and explain its various tends. How does the equation explain the various features of the photoelectric effect?
Answer:
Einstein’s photoelectric equation :
hv = Φ + \(\frac{1}{2}\)\(m v_{\max }^{2}\) ………… (1)
where h ≡ Planck’s constant, v ≡ frequency of the electromagnetic radiation, hv ≡ energy of the photon incident on a metal surface, Φ ≡ photo-electric work function, i.e., the minimum energy of light quantum required to liberate an electron from the metal surface, vmax and – \(\frac{1}{2}\)\(m v_{\max }^{2}\) ≡ the maximum speed and maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons at the time of emission. Φ = hv0, where v0 is the threshold frequency for the metal.

Explanation of the characteristics of photoelectric effect:
(1) From the above equation we find that for photoejection, hv ≥ Φ. That is, hvmin = hv0 must be equal to Φ. Hence, photoelectric effect is observed only if hv ≥ hv0, i.e., v ≥ v0. This shows the existence of a threshold frequency v0 for which photoelectrons are just liberated from a metal surface (with zero kinetic energy). Since different metals differ in electronic configuration, the work function hv0 and, therefore, frequency v0 are different and characteristic of different metals.

(2) In this particle model of light,’ intensity of incident radiation’ stands for the number of photons incident on a metal per unit surface area per unit time. As the number of photons incident on a metal per unit surface area per unit time increases, there is a greater likelihood of a photon being absorbed by any electron. Therefore, the time rate of photoejection and hence photoelectric current increases linearly with the intensity of the incident radiation (v ≥ v0).

(3) From Eq. (1), \(\frac{1}{2}\)\(m v_{\max }^{2}\), = hv – Φ= h(v – v0)
This shows that the maximum kinetic energy in-creases linearly with the frequency v of the incident photon (v ≥ v0) and does not depend on the time rate at which photons are incident on a metal surface.

(4) As the incident energy is concentrated in the form of a photon, and not spread over a wavefront, it is expected that an electron is emitted from the metal surface as soon as a photon (v ≥ v0) is absorbed. This is in agreement with the experimental observation.

[ Note : The frequency v that appears in the formula E = hv is the frequency of the oscillating electric field / magnetic field in the electromagnetic wave. ]

Question 19.
Obtain the dimensions of Planck’s constant.
Answer:
The energy of a photon of frequency v is E = hv, where h is the Planck’s, constant.
∴ [h] = \(\frac{[E]}{[v]}=\frac{\mathrm{ML}^{2} \mathrm{~T}^{-2}}{\mathrm{~T}^{-1}}\) = ML2T-1

Question 20.
Is the kinetic energy of all photoelectrons the same when emitted from a certain metal ? Explain.
Answer:
No. Explanation : Depending upon the position and state of an electron in a metal when it absorbs an incident photon, a photoelectron can have kinetic energy ranging from 0 to a certain maximum value equal to the photon energy minus the work function of the metal. Hence, the emitted photoelectrons have this range of kinetic energies.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 21.
In photoelectric effect, what does the stopping potential depend upon ?
Answer:
In photoelectric effect, the stopping potential depends upon the energy of the incident photon and the work function for the metal irradiated (or upon the frequency/wavelength of the incident radiation and the threshold frequency/wavelength for the metal irradiated).

Question 22.
What does the maximum kinetic energy (or the maximum speed) of a photoelectron depend on?
Answer:
The maximum kinetic energy (or the maximum speed) of a photoelectron depends upon the energy of the incident photon and the work function for the metal irradiated (or upon the frequency /wavelength of the incident radiation and the threshold frequency/wavelength for the metal irradiated).

Question 23.
In photoelectric effect, if a graph of stopping potential versus frequency of the incident radiation is plotted, what does the intercept on the frequency axis (v corresponding to Vo = 0) represent?
Answer:
The intercept on the frequency axis (v corresponding to Vo = 0) represents the threshold frequency for the metal.

Question 24.
State the equation that relates the threshold wavelength (λo), the wavelength of incident radiation (λ) and the maximum speed of a photo-electron (vmax).
Answer:
\(\frac{h c}{\lambda}=\frac{h c}{\lambda_{0}}+\frac{1}{2} m v_{\max }^{2}\) is the required equation, where h is Planck’s constant, c is the speed of light in vacuum (free space) and m is the mass of the electron.

Question 25.
What is the energy of a photon (quantum of radiation) of frequency 6 × 1014 Hz?
[h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s]
Answer:
hv = (6.63 × 10-34)(6 × 1014)
= 3.978 × 10-19 J is the energy of the photon.

Question 26.
If the total energy of a radiation of frequency 1014 Hz is 6.63 J, calculate the number of photons in the radiation.
Answer:
E = nhv, where hv is the energy of a photon in a radiation of frequency v and n is the number of photons in the radiation.
∴ n = \(\frac{E}{h v}=\frac{6.63}{\left(6.63 \times 10^{-34}\right)\left(10^{14}\right)}\) = 1020

Question 27.
If in a photoelectric experiment, the stopping potential is 1.5 volts, what is the maximum kinetic energy of a photoelectron ? [e = 1.6 × 10-19 C]
Answer:
\(\frac{1}{2}\)\(m v_{\max }^{2}\) = Vse = ( 1.5)(1.6 × 10-19)
= 2.4 × 10-19 J is the required kinetic energy.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 28.
What is the photoelectric work function for a metal if the threshold wavelength for the metal is 3.315 × 10-7 m?
[h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s, c = 3 × 108 m/s]
Answer:
Photoelectric work function for the metal =
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 7

Question 29.
Explain the utilization of energy absorbed by an electron in a metal during its collision with a photon.
Answer:
When a photon collides with an atomic electron inside an emitter metal, the electron absorbs whole of the photon energy in a single shot or nothing. The electron uses the absorbed energy (1) to liberate itself from the atom, (2) to overcome the potential energy barrier at the surface thus liberating itself from the metal, and (3) retains the remaining part as its kinetic energy.

30. Solve the following :
(h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s, c = 3 × 108 m/s, e = 1.6 × 10-19 J, m (electron) = 9.1 × 10-31 kg)

Question 1.
Find the energy of a photon if
(i) the frequency of radiation is 100 MHz
(ii) the wavelength of radiation is 10000 Å.
Solution:
Data : h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s, v = 100 MHz = 100 × 106 Hz, λ = 10000 Å = 106 m, c = 3 × 108 m/s
(i) The energy of a photon, E = hv
= (6.63 × 10-34)(100 × 106) = 6.63 × 10-26 J

(ii) The energy of a photon, E = \(\frac{h c}{\lambda}\)
= \(\frac{\left(6.63 \times 10^{-34}\right)\left(3 \times 10^{8}\right)}{10^{-6}}\) = 1.989 × 10-19 J

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 2.
A monochromatic source emits light of wavelength 6000 Å. If the power of the source is 10 W, find the number of photons emitted by it per second assuming that 1% of electric energy is converted into light.
Solution:
Data : λ = 6000 Å = 6 × 10-7 m ,h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s, c = 3 × 108 m/s, electric energy converted into light per second = \(\frac{1}{100}\) × 10W = 0.1J/s
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 8

Question 3.
Radiation of intensity 4 × 10-5 W/m2 is incident uniformly on a metal surface with work function 2.4 eV and area 1 cm2. Assume that the radius of a metal atom is 2.4 Å and photoelectrons are ejected only from the surface of the metal. On the basis of the wave theory of light, how long will it take for an electron to be ejected from the metal surface ? (Assume one free electron/metal atom.)
Solution:
Data : Power/area = 4 × 10-5 W/m2, Φ = 2.4 eV = 2.4 × 1.6 × 10-19 J = 3.84 × 10-19 J, A = 1 cm2 = 10-4 m2, r = 2.4 Å = 2.4 × 10-10 m
Number of metal atoms on the surface = \(\frac{A}{\pi r^{2}}\)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 9
For a single free electron, radiant energy incident per unit time
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 10
Ignoring reflection/scattering of light, time needed to absorb energy equal to 3.84 × 10-19 J is
\(\frac{3.84 \times 10^{-19} \mathrm{~J}}{7.24 \times 10^{-24} \mathrm{~J} / \mathrm{s}}\) = 5.304 × 104 s = 53040s
= 14 hours 44 minutes.

Question 4.
The energy of a photon is 2 eV. Find its frequency and wavelength.
Solution:
Data : E = 2 eV = 2 × 1.6 × 10-19 J, c = 3 × 108 m/s, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s
(i) Frequency,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 11
= 6.217 × 10-7 = 6.217 × 10-7 × 1010 Å
= 6217 Å = 621.7 nm

Question 5.
Find the wave number of a photon having an energy of 2.072 eV. [Given : e, c, h]
Solution:
Data : e = 1.6 × 10-19 C, c = 3 × 108 m / s, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s,
E = 2.072 eV = 2.072 × 1.6 × 10-19 J
E = hv = \(\frac{h c}{\lambda}\)
Wave number, \(\frac{1}{\lambda}=\frac{E}{h c}\)
= \(\frac{2.072 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}{\left(6.63 \times 10^{-34}\right)\left(3 \times 10^{8}\right)}\) = 1.666 × 106 m-1

Question 6.
Calculate the energy of a photon, in joule and eV, in a light of wavelength 5000 Å.
Solution :
Data : λ = 5000 Å = 5000 × 10-10 m = 5 × 10-7 m, c = 3 × 108 m/s, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s
Energy of a photon, E = hv = \(\frac{h c}{\lambda}\)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 12

Question 7.
The photoelectric work function for a metal surface is 2.3 eV. 1f the light of wavelength 6800 Å is incident on the surface of the metal, find the threshold frequency and the incident frequency. Will there be an emission of photoelectrons or not? [Given : c, h]
Solution:
Data: c = 3 × 108 m/s, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J.s, Φ = 2.3 eV = 2.3 × 1.6 × 10-19 J, λ = 6800 Å = 6.8 × 10-7 m
(i) Threshold frequency (v0) : Φ = hv0
∴ v0 = \(\frac{\phi}{h}=\frac{2.3 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}\) = 5.550 × 1014 Hz

(ii) Incident frequency (v) : c = vλ
∴ v = \(\frac{c}{\lambda}=\frac{3 \times 10^{8}}{6.8 \times 10^{-7}}\) = 4.412 × 1014 Hz

(iii) Thus, v <v0
As the frequency of the incident orange light is less than the threshold frequency there will be no emission of photoelectrons.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 8.
If the work function of a metal is 3 eV, calculate the threshold wavelength of that metal. [Given : c, h, 1 eV = 1.6 × 10-19 J]
Solution:
Data : Φ = 3 eV, c = 3 × 108 m/s, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J.s, 1 eV = 1.6 × 10-19 J
∴ Φ = 3 × 1.6 × 10-19 J
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 13

Question 9.
The photoelectric work function of copper is 4.7 eV. What are the threshold frequency and wavelength for photoemission from a copper surface? [1 eV = 1.6 × 10-19 J]
Solution :
Data : Φ = 4.7 eV, 1 eV = 1.6 × 10-19 J, c = 3 × 108 m/s, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J.s
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 14

Question 10.
The work functions for potassium and caesium are 2.25 eV and 2.14 eV respectively. Will the photoelectric effect occur for either of these elements
(i) with incident light of wavelength 5650 Å
(ii) with light of wavelength 5180 Å?
Solution:
Data : Φ (potassium) = 2.25 eV,
Φ (caesium) = 2.14 eV, λ1 = 5650 Å = 5.650 × 10-7 m, λ2 = 5180 Å = 5.180 × 10-7 m, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J.s, c = 3 × 108 m/s
Φ (potassium) = 2.25 eV
= 2.25 × 1.6 × 10-19 J =3.6 × 10-19 J
Φ (caesium) = 2.14 eV = 2.14 × 1.6 × 10-19 J
= 3.424 × 10-19 J
Photon energy, E = \(\frac{h c}{\lambda}\)

(i) For λ1 = 5650 Å
E1 = \(\frac{h c}{\lambda_{1}}=\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^{8}}{5.650 \times 10^{-7}}\)
= 3.52 × 10-19 J
This is greater than Φ (caesium), but less than Φ (potassium). Hence, photoelectric effect will occur in case of caesium, but not in case of potassium.

(ii) For λ2 = 5180 Å
E2 = \(\frac{h c}{\lambda_{2}}=\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^{8}}{5.180 \times 10^{-7}}\)
= 3.84 × 10-19 J
This is greater than 0 for potassium and for caesium. Hence, photoelectric effect will occur in both the cases.

Question 11.
Photoemission just occurs from a lead surface when radiation of wavelength 3000 Å is incident on it. Find the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons when the surface is irradiated by UV radiation of wavelength 2500 Å.
Solution:
Data : λ0 = 3000 Å = 3 × 10-7 m, λ = 2500 Å = 2.5 × 10-7 m, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s,c = 3 × 108 m/s
According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation, the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 15

Question 12.
The photoelectric work function for a metal is 4.2 eV. If the stopping potential is 3 V, find the threshold wavelength and the maximum kinetic energy of emitted electrons. [Given : c, h, e]
Solution :
Data : e = 1.6 × 10-19 C, c = 3 × 108 m/s, Φ = 4.2 eV = 4.2 × 1.6 × 10-19 J = 6.72 × 10-19 J, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s, v0 = 3 V
(i) Threshold wavelength.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 16
= 2.960 × 10-7 m or 2960 Å

(ii) Maximum kinetic energy of emitted electrons,
KEmax = eV0 = (1.6 × 10-19)(3) = 4.8 × 10-19 J

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 13.
Radiation of wavelength 2 × 10-7 m is incident on the cathode of a photocell. The current in the photocell is reduced to zero by a stopping potential of 2 V. Find the threshold wavelength for the cathode.
Solution:
Data : λ = 2 × 10-19 m, V0 = 2 V, e = 1.6 × 10-19 C, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s, c = 3 × 108 m/s
According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 17
∴ The threshold wavelength, λ0 = 2.948 × 10-7 m

Question 14.
The photoelectric current in a photoelectric cell can be reduced to zero by a stopping potential of 1.8 volts. Monochromatic light of wavelength 2200 Å is incident on the cathode. Find the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons in joule. [Charge on the electron = 1.6 × 10-19 C]
Solution:
Data: V0 = 1.8 V, e = 1.6 × 10-7 C .
The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons,
KEmax = eV0
= (1.6 × 10-19) (1.8) = 2.88 × 10-19 J

Question 15.
The photoelectric work function of a metal is 3 eV. Find the maximum kinetic energy and maximum speed of photoelectrons when radiation of wavelength 4000 Å is incident on the metal surface.
Solution:
Data : Φ = 3 eV = 3 × 1.6 × 10-19 J, c = 3 × 108 m / s, λ = 4000 Å = 4000 × 10-10 m, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s, m = 9.1 × 10-31 kg
(i) According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation, the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 18
= 1.725 × 10-20 J

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 19
= 1.947 × 105 m/s

Question 16.
The work function of tungsten is 4.50 eV. Calculate the speed of the fastest electron ejected from tungsten surface when light whose photon energy is 5.80eV shines on the surface.
Solution:
Data : Φ = 4.50 eV = 4.50 × 1.6 × 10-19 J = 7.2 × 10-19 J,
hv = 5.80eV = 5.80 × 1.6 × 10-19 J = 9.28 × 10-19 J,
m = 9.1 × 10-31 kg
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 20
This is the speed of the fastest electron ejected.

Question 17.
If the work function for a certain metal is 1.8 eV,
(i) what is the stopping potential for electrons ejected from the metal when light of 4000 Å shines on the metal
(ii) what is the maximum speed of the ejected electrons?
Solution:
Data: Φ = 1.8eV, λ = 4000 Å = 4 × 10-7 m,
h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s, c = 3 × 108 m/s,
m = 9.1 × 10-31 kg, e = 1.6 × 10-19 C
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 21
This is the maximum speed of the ejected electrons.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 18.
The work function of caesium is 2.14 eV. Find
(i) the threshold frequency for caesium
(ii) the wavelength of the incident light if photocurrent is brought to zero by a stopping potential of 0.60 V.
Solution:
Data : Φ = 2.14eV = 2.14 × 1.6 × 10-19 J = 3.424 × 10-19 J, VO = 0.60 V,h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s, c = 3 × 108 m/s, e = 1.6 × 10-19C
(i) Φ = hv0
∴ The threshold frequency, v0 = \(\frac{\phi}{h}\)
= \(\frac{3.424 \times 10^{-19}}{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}\) = 5.164 × 1014 Hz

(ii) VOe = 0.6 × 1.6 × 10-19 = 0.96 × 10-19 J
\(\frac{h c}{\lambda}\) – Φ = VOe ∴ \(\frac{h c}{\lambda}\) = Φ + VOe
∴ λ = \(\frac{h c}{\phi+V_{\mathrm{O}} e}\)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 22
This is the required wavelength of the incident light.

Question 19.
The threshold wavelength for photoemission from silver is 3800 Å. Calculate the maximum kinetic energy in eV of photoelectrons emitted when ultraviolet radiation of wavelength 2600 Å falls on it. Also calculate the corresponding stop-ping potential. [1 eV = 1.6 × 10-19 J]
Solution:
Data : λ0 = 3800 A = 3.8 × 10-7 m,
λ = 2600 Å = 2.6 × 10-7 m, c = 3 × 108 m/s, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s, 1 eV = 1.6 × 10-19 J
(i) According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation, the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 23

Question 20.
When a surface is irradiated with light of wavelength 4950 Å, a photocurrent appears. The current vanishes if a retarding potential greater than 0.6 V is applied across the phototube. When a different source of light is used, it is found that the critical retarding potential is 1.1 V. Find the work function of the emitting surface and the wavelength of light from the second source.
Solution :
Data : λ1 = 4.95 × 10-7 m, VO1 = 0.6 V, VO2 = 1.1 V, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s, c = 3 × 108 m/s, e = 1.6 × 10-19 C
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 24
∴ The wavelength of light from the second source,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 25

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 21.
The work function for the surface of aluminium is 4.2 eV. What potential difference will be required to stop the most energetic electrons emitted by light of wavelength 2000 Å? What should be the wavelength of the incident light for which the stopping potential is zero?
Solution:
Data: Φ = 4.2eV, λ1 = 2 × 10-7 m,VO2 = 0,
h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s, c = 3 × 108 m/s, e = 1.6 × 10-19 C
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 26

Question 22.
Radiation of wavelength 3000 Å falls on a metal surface having work function 2.3 eV. Calculate the maximum speed of ejected electrons.
Solution:
Data : λ = 3000 Å = 3 × 10-7 m, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s, Φ = 2.3 eV = 2.3 × 1.6 × 10-19 J, c = 3 × 108 m/s, m = 9.1 × 10-31 kg
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 27

Question 23.
If the total energy of radiation of frequency 1014 Hz is 6.63 J, calculate the number of photons in the radiation. [Planck’s constant = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s]
Solution:
Data: v = 1014 Hz, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s
The energy of a photon in a radiation of frequency v is hv.
∴ E = nhv,
so that the number of photons in the radiation is
n = \(\frac{E}{h v}\)
= \(\frac{6.63}{\left(6.63 \times 10^{-34}\right)\left(10^{14}\right)}\) = 1020

Question 31.
Explain wave-particle duality of electromagnetic radiation.
Answer:
A particle is an object with a definite position in space at a given instant and having mass (or momentum), while a wave is a periodically repeated pattern in space and time, generally described by its velocity of propagation, wavelength and amplitude. It is a characteristic of a wave that it is not localized, i.e., it is spread over a region. Thus, these two concepts are contradictory and classical physics treats particles and waves as separate.

Under suitable circumstances, light and all other types of electromagnetic radiation exhibit typical ‘ wave phenomena like polarization, interference and diffraction. On the other hand, radiation exhibits a particle-like nature when it interacts with matter, as in the photoelectric effect and the Compton effect (scattering of X-rays by electrons in matter). It is emitted or absorbed only in terms of quanta of energy. This is the concept of photon : a particle with energy E = hv, where v is the frequency of the radiation and Planck’s constant h connects v and E, respectively the wave and particle aspects.

We see, therefore, that radiation exhibits a dual character. The synthesis of these two contradictory descriptions is called wave-particle duality of electromagnetic radiation.
[Notes : (1) Arthur Holly Compton (1892-1962), US physicist, discovered the effect, now known as the Compton effect, in 1923. (2) Planck’s constant h is also called the elementary quantum of action. Like e and c, it is one of the fundamental constants of nature.]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 32.
What is Compton effect? State the formula for the Compton shift and obtain its maximum value.
Answer:
When a high energy X-ray photon or γ-ray photon is scattered by an electron that is (almost) free, the photon loses energy and the electron gains energy shown in figure. This effect was discovered by A.H. Compton in 1923. It is now known as the Compton effect. This effect exhibits particle nature of electro-magnetic radiation.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 28
If X is the wavelength of the incident photon, λ is the wavelength of the scattered photon, θ is the angle through which the photon is scattered, m0 is the rest mass of an electron, c is the speed of light in free space and h is Plank’s constant, then, the wavelength shift, called the Compton shift is given by
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 29
[Note : In a collision between a low energy photon and a high energy electron, scattering results in loss in the energy of the electron and gain in the energy of the photon. This effect is known as the inverse Compton effect.]

Question 33.
What is the implication of Einstein’s interpretation of the photoelectric effect?
OR
What is the significance of the photoelectric effect?
Answer:
The phenomena of interference and polarization exhibit the wave nature of light, and James Clerk Maxwell (1831 – 79), British physicist, had established by 1865 that light is, and propagates as, an electromagnetic wave.

In his interpretation of the photoelectric effect in 1905, Einstein proposed that electromagnetic radiation behaves as a series of small packets or quanta of energy, later called photons. If the frequency of radiation is v, each photon has energy hv and momentum hv/c, where c is the speed of light in free space. Einstein’s photoelectric equation was verified experimentally by Robert Andrews Millikan (1868-1953), US physicist, in 1916.

A very strong additional evidence in support of the quantum theory of radiation was the discovery (in 1923) and explanation of the inelastic scattering of X-rays or γ-rays by electrons in matter by Arthur Holly Compton (1892-1962), US physicist. This inelastic scattering in which a photon transfers part of its energy to an electron is known as the Compton effect. It is similar to the Raman effect. The Compton effect shows particle nature of electro-magnetic radiation.

Since energy and momentum are considered in classical physics as characteristic properties of particles, the photoelectric effect and Compton effect exhibit the particle nature of radiation. But, to describe the photon energy, the quantum theory needs the frequency of the radiation, which is necessarily an attribute associated with a wave in classical physics. Thus, radiation exhibits the dual, seemingly contradictory, characters of particle and wave. In an experiment, we need to use only one of the descriptions, not both at the same time.

[Note : The momentum p and energy £ of a photon are related by the equation, p = E/c, where c is the speed of light in free space.]

Question 34.
Give a brief summary of the quantum theory of radiation.
OR
What is the photon picture of electromagnetic radiation?
Answer:
Quantum theory of radiation (The photon picture of electromagnetic radiation) :
(1) In its interaction with matter, electromagnetic radiation behaves as particles or quanta of energy. A quantum of energy is called a photon.

(2) If the frequency of radiation is v, irrespective of the intensity of radiation, each photon has energy hv and momentum hv/c, where c is the speed of light in free space.

(3) Intensity of radiation corresponds to the number of photons incident per unit time per unit surface area.

(4) Photons are electrically neutral and have zero rest mass.

(5) A photonRarticle collision (such as a photon-electron collision) obeys (he principles of conservation of energy arid momentum. However, in such a collision, an incident photon may be absorbed and/or a new photon may be created, so that the number of photons may not be conserved. For example, a γ-ray photon of energy greater than 1.02 MeV can produce an electron-positron pair in the presence of a heavy nucleus such as lead. In this case, the photon disappears and two particles (electron and positron) are produced. The total energy and momentum are conserved.

[Note: Photons have unit spin. Photons are influenced by gravitational field. A gravitational field can change the path and/or frequency/wavelength of a photon. Even after more than a century of its introduction, the concept of photon is not fully understood.]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 35.
What is the momentum of a photon of energy 3 × 10-19 J? [c = 3 × 108 m/s]
Answer:
Momentum of a photon = \(\frac{E}{c}=\frac{3 \times 10^{-19}}{3 \times 10^{8}}\)
= 10-27 kg∙m/s .

Question 36.
What is the momentum of a photon of wave length 3.315 × 10-7 m? [h = 6.63 × 10-34J∙s]
Answer:
Momentum of a photon \(\frac{h}{\lambda}=\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}{3.315 \times 10^{-7}}\)
= 2 × 10-27 kg∙m/s .

37. Solve the following :

Question 1.
Find the momentum of a photon if the wavelength of the radiation is 6630 Å.
Solution:
Data : λ = 6.63 × 10-7 m, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s
Energy of a photon, E = hv
c = λv
The momentum of a photon,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 30

Question 2.
Find the momentum of a photon of energy 3 eV.
Solution :
Data : e = 1.602 × 10-19 C,
E = 3 eV = 3 × 1.6 × 10-19 J, c = 3 × 108 m/s
The momentum of the photon,
p = \(\frac{E}{c}=\frac{3 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}{3 \times 10^{8}}\) = 1.6 × 10-27 kg∙m/s

Question 3.
Find the energy of a photon with momentum 2 × 10-27 kg∙m/s.
Solution :
Data : p = 2 × 10-27 kg∙m/s
The energy of the photon,
E = pc = (2 × 10-27)(3 × 108) = 6 × 10-19 J
= \(\frac{6 \times 10^{-19}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\) eV = 3.75 eV

Question 38.
What is a photocell or photoelectric cell?
Describe its construction and working with a neat labelled diagram.
Answer:
A photocell or photoelectric cell is a device in which light energy is converted into electrical energy by photoelectric effect.

Construction : One form of the photoelectric cell shown in figure consists of a highly evacuated or gas-filled glass tube, an emitter (cathode) and a collector (anode). The light enters through a quartz window W and falls on the semicylindrical cathode C coated with a photosensitive metal. The anode is in the form of a straight wire of platinum or nickel, coaxial with the cathode.

If the cell is required to respond to the visible part of the spectrum, the cathode is coated with potassium or rubidium and the quartz window is replaced by glass. If the UV radiation only is to be used, cadmium is used as the sensitive surface. The cell is either highly evacuated (for accurate photometry) or filled with an inert gas at low pressure (if a larger current is desired).
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 31
Working : A photocell is connected in series with a battery and a variable resistance. The collector is kept at a positive potential with respect to the emitter. When UV radiation or visible light of frequency greater than the threshold frequency for the emitter surface is incident on the emitter, the ejected photoelectrons are focused by the cylindrical emitter (cathode) towards the collector (anode).

The photoelectrons collected by the collector constitute a photocurrent which may be measured by a microammeter in series with the photocell, as in an exposure meter or lux meter. Otherwise, the photocurrent is used to operate a relay circuit as in an alarm, or to drive the coils of a speaker as in reading an optical sound track in a cine film. The photocurrent becomes zero when the incident light is cut off.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 39.
State any four applications of a photoelectric cell.
OR
Explain any two applications of photoelectric effect.
Answer:
Applications of a photoelectric cell :
(1) In an exposure meter used for photography: A photographic film must be exposed to correct amount of light which, for a given film speed and lens aperture, depends on the exposure time. An exposure meter consists of a photocell, battery and microammeter connected in series. When the meter is directed towards an object, light reflected by the object enters the photocell and the photocurrent is directly proportional to the intensity of this light.
Usually, the microammeter scale is calibrated to read the exposure time directly.

(2) As a lux meter : A lux meter is used to measure the illumination and is similar in working to an exposure meter, except that the scale is calibrated to read the illumination in lux.

(3) In a burglar alarm as a ‘normally closed’ light- activated switch : It consists of a photocell, battery, relay system and a small directed light source. The radiation from the source falls on the photocell. If the light beam is interrupted by an intruder, the photoelectric current stops. This activates the relay system which sets off an alarm.

(4) In an optical reader of sound track in a cine film : The sound track of a cine film is recorded on one side of the positive film that is run in a cinema hall. The track consists of a dark wavy patch modulated by the recorded sound. Light from the projector lamp also passes through the sound track and falls on a photocell behind. The photocurrent is proportional to the transmitted light intensity and changes according to the recorded sound wave. The photocurrent is amplified and is used to drive the loudspeaker.

(5) A photocell can be used to switch on or off street lights.

Question 40.
Name any two instruments in which photo-electric effect is used.
Answer:
Exposure meter used in photography and lux meter.

Question 41.
State the de Broglie hypothesis and the de Broglie equation.
Answer:
De Broglie hypothesis : Louis de Broglie (1892-1987), French physicist, proposed (in 1924) that the wave-particle duality may not be unique to light but a universal characteristic of nature, so that a particle of matter in motion also has a wave or periodicity associated with it which becomes evident when the magnitude of Planck’s constant h cannot be ignored.

De Broglie equation : A particle of mass m moving with a speed v should under suitable experimental conditions exhibit the characteristics of a wave of wavelength
λ = \(\frac{h}{m v}=\frac{h}{p}\)
where p = mv = momentum of the particle.
The relation λ = h/p is called the de Broglie equation, and the wavelength λ associated with a particle momentum is called its de Broglie wavelength. The corresponding waves are termed as matter waves or de Broglie waves or Schrodinger waves.

[Note: This hypothesis was revolutionary at that time and accepted by others because Einstein supported it. Erwin Schrodinger (1887-1961), Austrian physicist, formulated a wave equation for matter waves.]

Question 42.
Explain the concept of de Broglie waves or matter waves.
Answer:
According to de Broglie, a particle of mass m moving with a speed v should, under suitable experimental conditions, exhibit the characteristics of a wave of wavelength
λ = \(\frac{h}{m v}=\frac{h}{p}\) … ………. (1)
where p = mv ≡ momentum of the particle and h is Planck’s constant.

This dual character of matter contained in Eq. (1) is usually referred to as the wave nature of matter or matter waves. They are a set of waves that represent the behaviour of particles under appropriate conditions. It does not, however, mean that the particles themselves are oscillating in space.

Interpretation of matter waves by Max Born (1882-1970), German bom British physicist, is that they are waves of probability, since the square of their amplitude at a given point is linked to the likelihood of finding the particle there. Hence, the wavelength λ may be regarded as a measure of the degree to which the energy is localized. If λ is exceedingly small, the energy is very localized and the particle character of the object is dominant. On the other hand, if λ is very large, the energy is distributed over a large volume; under these circumstances, the wave behaviour is dominant.

The wave nature of material particles such as the electron, neutron and helium atom has been established experimentally beyond doubt.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 43.
Derive an expression for the de Broglie wavelength associated with an electron accelerated from rest through a potential difference V. Consider the nonrelativistic case.
Answer:
Consider an electron accelerated from rest through a potential difference V. Let v be the final speed of the electron. We consider the nonrelativistic case, v << c, where c is the speed of light in free space. The kinetic energy acquired by the electron is
\(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2 = \(\frac{1}{2m}\) (mv)2 = eV ………. (1)
where e and m are the electronic charge and mass (nonrelativistic).

Therefore, the electron momentum,
p = mv = \(\sqrt{2 m e V}\) ………… (2)
The de Broglie wavelength associated with the electron is
λ = \(\frac{h}{p}\) ………….. (3)
where h is Planck’s constant.
From Eqs. (2) and (3),
λ = \(\frac{h}{\sqrt{2 m e V}}\)
Equation (4) gives the required expression.
[Note : Substituting the values of h = 6.63 × 10-34 J-s, m = 9.1 × 10-31 kg, e = 1.6 × 10-19 C in Eq. (4), we obtain λ = \(\sqrt{150 / V}\) × 10-10 m = \(\sqrt{150 / V}\) Å = \(12.25 / \sqrt{V}\) Å, where V is in volt. Therefore, electrons accelerated from rest through 150 volts have a de Broglie wavelength of 1 Å. This corresponds to the X-ray region of the electromagnetic spectrum.]

Question 44.
Derive an expression for the de Broglie wavelength.
Answer:
For the particle-like aspects of electromagnetic radiation, we consider radiation to consist of particles whose motion is governed by the wave propagation properties of certain associated waves.

To determine the wavelength of such waves, consider a beam of electromagnetic radiation of frequency v whose quanta have energy E.
E = hv
where h is the Planck constant.
For a quantum of radiation of momentum p, by Einstein’s theory,
E = pc
where c is the speed of propagation of the radiation in free space.
∴ pc = hv
∴ p\(\frac{c}{v}\) = h
The wavelength X of the associated wave governing the motion of the quanta is given by the relation
λ = c/v.
∴ pλ = h ∴ λ = \(\frac{h}{p}\)
V ’
This is the required expression.

Question 45.
What is the de Broglie wavelength associated with a particle having momentum 10-26 kg∙m/s? [h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s]
Answer:
The de Broglie wavelength associated with the particle,
λ = \(\frac{h}{p}=\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}{10^{-26}}\) = 6.63 × 10-8 m

Question 46.
With a neat labelled diagram, describe the Davisson and Germer experiment in support of the concept of matter waves.
Answer:
Davisson and Germer experiment (1927) :
The experimental arrangement, as shown in below figure, consists of an electron gun, a crystal holder and an electron detector enclosed in a vacuum chamber. In the electron gun, electrons emitted by a heated metallic filament (cathode) are accelerated by a potential difference V between the cathode and the anode, and emerge through a small hole in the anode. The electron gun directs a narrow collimated beam of electrons at a nickel crystal. Scattered electrons are detected by a movable detector.

The angle Φ between the incident and scattered beams is the scattering angle. Polar graphs of the number of scattered electrons as a function of angle Φ are plotted for different values of the accelerating voltage.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 32
It is found that the electrons are scattered at a certain angle more than at others. Also, the number of scattered electrons in this direction is maximum for a certain kinetic energy of the incident electrons.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 33
The detector registered a maximum at a scattering angle Φ = 50° for V = 54 V from figure. This electron diffraction can be understood only on the basis of de Broglie’s matter wave model. The de Broglie wavelength of the electrons accelerated from rest through a p.d. of 54 V is λ = \(\sqrt{150 / 54}\) Å = 1.67 Å
The wavelength calculated from the diffraction effect is 1.65 Å, nearly 1.67 Å.
[ Note : Clinton Joseph Davisson (1881 -1958), US physicist. Lester Halbert Germer (1896-1971), US physicist.]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

47. Solve the following

Question 1.
(2) Find the momentum of the electron having de Brogue wavelength of 0.5 Å.
Solution:
Data: λ = 0.5Å = 5 × 10-11 m, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s
The momentum of the electron, .
p = \(\frac{h}{\lambda}=\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}{5 \times 10^{-11}}\) = 1.326 × 10-23 kg∙m/s

Question 2.
A cracker of mass M at rest explodes in two parts of masses m1 and m2 with non-zero velocities. Find the ratio of the de Broglie wavelengths of the two particles.
Solution:
The cracker has zero momentum before explosion. By the principle of conservation of momentum, after the explosion,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 34

Question 3.
Calculate the de Brogue wavelength of a proton if it is moving with the speed of 2 × 105 m/s. [mp = 1.673 × 10-27 kg]
Solution:
Data: mp = 1673 × 10-27 kg, v = 2 × 105 m/s, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s
De Brogue wavelength, λ = \(\frac{h}{p}=\frac{h}{m v}\)
∴ λ = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}{\left(1.673 \times 10^{-27}\right)\left(2 \times 10^{5}\right)}\)
= 1.981 × 10-12 m

Question 4.
Calculate the de Brogue wavelength of an electron moving with \(\frac{1}{300}\) of the speed of light in vacuum. [Take m (electron) = 9.11 × 10-28 g]
Solution:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 35

Question 5.
Find the de Broglie wavelength of a dust particle of radius 1 μm and density 2.5 g/cm3 drifting at 2.2 m/s. (Take π = 3.14)
Solution:
Data : r = 1 μm = 10-6 m, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s, ρ = 2.5 g/cm3 = 2.5 × 103 kg/m3, v = 2.2 m/s,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 36

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 6.
Find the de Broglie wavelength associated with a car (mass = 1000 kg) moving at 20 m/s.
Solution:
Data : m = 1000 kg, v = 20 m/s,h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s
The de Broglie wavelength,
λ = \(\frac{h}{p}=\frac{h}{m v}=\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}{(1000)(20)}\) = 3.315 × 10-38 m

Question 7.
What is the de Broglie wavelength of an electron accelerated from rest through 25000 volts ?
Solution:
Data: V = 25 × 103 V, e = 1.6 × 10-19 C, me = 9.11 × 10-31 kg, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s
Kinetic energy of the electron,
E = eV
=(1.6 × 10-19)(25 × 103 V)
=4 × 10-15 j
The momentum of the electron,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 37
I Note : Here, the kinetic energy of the electron, 25 keV, is far less than the electron’s rest mass energy (m0c2) which is about 0.51 MeV. Hence, it is a nonrelativistic case.]

Question 8.
Find the de Broglie wavelength of a proton accelerated from rest by a potential difference of 50 V. [mp = 1.673 × 10-27 kg]
Solution:
Data : mp = 1.673 × 10-27 kg, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s, KE = 50 eV = 50 × 1.6 × 10-19 J = 8 × 10-18 J
The kinetic energy of the proton,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 38
= 4.053 × 10-12 m = 0.04053 A

Question 9.
A moving electron and a photon have the same de Brogue wavelength. Show that the electron possesses more energy than that carried by the photon.
Solution:
The de Brogue wavelength, λ = \(\frac{h}{p}\)
If an electron and a photon have the same de Brogue wavelength, they must have the same momentum, p.
For the photon, Ep = hv = \(\frac{h c}{\lambda}=\left(\frac{h}{\lambda}\right) c\) = pc … (1)
For the electron, mass m = \(\frac{m_{0}}{\sqrt{1-v^{2} / c^{2}}}\)
where m0 is the rest mass of the electron and y is its speed.
∴ \(m^{2}\left(\frac{c^{2}-v^{2}}{c^{2}}\right)=m_{0}^{2}\)
∴ m2c4 – m2v2c2 = \(m_{0}^{2} c^{4}\)
∴ (m2c4 = (m0c2)2 + p2c2 (where p = mv)
∴ \(E_{\mathrm{e}}^{2}\) = (m0c2)2 + p2c2
where Ee = mc2 = m0c2 + K is the total energy of the electron, m0c2 being he rest mass energy and K, the kinetic energy.
∴ Ee = \(\sqrt{\left(m_{0} c^{2}\right)^{2}+p^{2} c^{2}}\) …………. (2)
From Eqs. (1) and (2), we have Ee > Ep.
[Note : The result m = \(\frac{m_{0}}{\sqrt{1-v^{2} / c^{2}}}\) was obtained by Einstein in 1905.]

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
The energy of a photon of wavelength λ is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 39
Answer:
(D) \(\frac{h c}{\lambda}\)

Question 2.
The number of photoelectrons emitted
(A) varies inversely with the frequency of radiation
(B) varies directly with the frequency of radiation
(C) varies inversely with the intensity of radiation
(D) varies directly with the intensity of radiation.
Answer:
(D) varies directly with the intensity of radiation.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 3.
A metal emits no electrons if the incident light energy falls below certain threshold. For photo-emission, you would decrease
(A) the intensity of light
(B) the frequency of light
(C) the wavelength of light
(D) the collector potential.
Answer:
(C) the wavelength of light

Question 4.
When light of wavelength 5000 Å falls on a metal surface whose photoelectric work function is 1.9 eV, the kinetic energy of the most energetic photoelectrons is
(A) 0.59 eV
(B) 1.39 eV
(C)1.59eV
(D)2.59eV.
Answer:
(A) 0.59 eV

Question 5.
The threshold wavelengths for photoemission of two metals A and B are 300 nm and 600 nm, respectively. The ratio ΦAB of their photoelectric work functions is
(A) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
(B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
(C) 2
(D) 4.
Answer:
(C) 2

Question 6.
The photoelectric threshold wavelength of a certain metal is 3315 Å. Its work function is
(A) 6 × 10-19 J
(B) 7.286 × 10-19 J
(C) 9 × 10-19 J
(D) 9.945 × 10-19 J.
Answer:
(A) 6 × 10-19 J

Question 7.
The photoelectric work function of a certain metal is 2.5 eV. If the metal is separately irradiated with photons of energy 3 eV and 4.5 eV, the ratio of the respective stopping potentials is
(A) 1
(B) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
(C) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
(D) \(\frac{1}{5}\)
Answer:
(B) \(\frac{2}{3}\)

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 8.
Sodium and copper have photoelectric work functions 2.3 eV and 4.7 eV, respectively. The ratio λ0NaoCu 0f the threshold wavelengths for photoemission is about
(A) 1 : 4
(B) 1 : 2
(C) 2 : 1
(D) 4 : 1.
Answer:
(C) 2 : 1

Question 9.
When light of wavelength A falls on the cathode of a photocell, the kinetic energy of the most energetic photoelectrons emitted is £. If light of wavelength λ/2 is used, what can be said about the new value E’?
(A) E’ = E/2
(B) E’ = E
(C) E’ = 2E
(D) E’ > 2E.
Answer:
(D) E’ > 2E.

Question 10.
Electrons are ejected from a metallic surface when light with a wavelength of 6250 Å is used. If light of wavelength 4500 Å is used instead,
(A) there may not be any photoemission
(B) the photoelectric current will increase
(C) the stopping potential will increase
(D) the stopping potential will decrease.
Answer:
(C) the stopping potential will increase

Question 11.
UV radiation of energy 6.2 eV falls on molybdenum surface whose photoelectric work function is 4.2 eV. The kinetic energy of the fastest photoelectrons is
(A) 3.2 × 10-19 J
(B) 3.52 × 10-19 J
(C) 6.72 × 10-19 J
(D) 9.92 × 10-19 J.
Answer:
(A) 3.2 × 10-19 J

Question 12.
In a photocell, increasing the intensity of light increases
(A) the stopping potential
(B) the photoelectric current
(C) the energy of the incident photons
(D) the maximum kinetic energy of the photo-electrons.
Answer:
(B) the photoelectric current

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 13.
In a photocell, doubling the intensity of the incident light (v > v0) doubles the
(A) stopping potential
(B) threshold frequency
(C) saturation current
(D) threshold wavelength.
Answer:
(C) saturation current

Question 14.
In the usual notation, the momentum of a photon is
(A) hvc
(B) \(\frac{h v}{c}\)
(C) \(\frac{h \lambda}{c}\)
(D) hλc.
Answer:
(B) \(\frac{h v}{c}\)

Question 15.
The momentum of a photon with λ = 3315 Å is
(A) 2 × 10-27 kg∙m/s
(B) 5 × 10-27 kg∙m/s
(C) 2 × 10-41 kg∙m/s
(D) 5 × 10-41 kg∙m/s.
Answer:
(A) 2 × 10-27 kg∙m/s

Question 16.
Let p and E denote the linear momentum and energy of emitted photon, respectively. If the wavelength of incident radiation is increased,
(A) both p and E decrease
(B) p increases and E decreases
(C) p decreases and E increases
(D) both p and E decrease.
Answer:
(C) p decreases and E increases

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 17.
When radiations of wavelength λ1 and λ2 are incident on a certain photosensitive material, the energies of electron ejected are E1 and E2 respectively, such that E1 > E2. Then, Planck’s constant h is [c = speed of light]
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 40
Answer:
(C) \(\frac{\left(E_{1}-E_{2}\right) \lambda_{1} \cdot \lambda_{2}}{c\left(\lambda_{2}-\lambda_{1}\right)}\)

Question 18.
If the frequency of incident light falling on a photosensitive material is doubled, then the kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectron will be
(A) the same as its initial value
(B) two times its initial value
(C) more than two times its initial value
(D) less than two times its initial value.
Answer:
(C) more than two times its initial value

Question 19.
The kinetic energy of emitted photoelectrons is independent of
(A) the frequency of incident radiation
(B) the intensity of incident radiation
(C) the wavelength of incident radiation
(D) the collector plate potential.
Answer:
(B) the intensity of incident radiation

Question 20.
In a photon-electron collision
(A) only total energy is conserved
(B) only total momentum is conserved
(C) both total energy and total momentum are conserved
(D) both total momentum and total energy are not conserved.
Answer:
(C) both total energy and total momentum are conserved

Question 21.
The de Broglie equation for the wavelength of matter waves is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 41
Answer:
(A) λ = \(\frac{h}{p}\)

Question 22.
The momentum associated with a photon is given by
(A) hv
(B) \(\frac{h v}{c}\)
(C) hE
(D) hλ
Answer:
(B) \(\frac{h v}{c}\)

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 23.
The momentum of a photon of de Broglie wave-length 5000 Å is [h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s]
(A) 1.326 × 10-28 kg∙m/s
(B) 7.54 × 10-28 kg∙m/s
(C) 1.326 × 10-27 kg∙m/s
(D) 7.54 × 10-27 kg∙m/s.
Answer:
(C) 1.326 × 10-27 kg∙m/s

Question 24.
The de Broglie wavelength of a 100-m sprinter of mass 66 kg running at a speed of 10 m/s is about
[h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s]
(A) 10-34 m
(B) 10-33 m
(C) 10-32 m
(D) 10-31 m.
Answer:
(C) 10-32 m

Question 25.
Which of the following particles moving with the same speed has the longest de Broglie wavelength?
(A) Proton
(B) Neutron
(C) α-particle
(D) β-particle
Answer:
(D) β-particle

Question 26.
If p and E are respectively the momentum and energy of a photon, the speed of the photon is given by
(A) p∙E
(B) E/p
(C) (E/p)2
(D) \(\sqrt{E / p}\)
Answer:
(B) E/p

Question 27.
If the kinetic energy of a free electron is doubled, its de Broglie wavelength
(A) decreases by a factor of 2
(B) increases by a factor of 2
(C) decreases by a factor of \(\sqrt {2}\)
(D) increases by a factor of \(\sqrt {2}\).
Answer:
(C) decreases by a factor of \(\sqrt {2}\)

Question 28.
The de Broglie wavelength of an a-particle accelerated from rest through a potential difference V is λ. In order to have the same de Broglie wavelength, a proton must be accelerated from rest through a potential difference of .
(A) V
(B) 2V
(C) 4V
(D) 8V.
Answer:
(D) 8V.

Question 29.
If a photon has the same wavelength as the de Broglie wavelength of an electron, they have the same
(A) velocity
(B) energy
(C) momentum
(D) angular momentum.
Answer:
(C) momentum

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 35.
The de Broglie wavelength of a grain of sand, of mass 1 mg, blown by a wind at the speed of 20 m/s is [h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s]
(A) 33.15 × 10-36m
(B) 33.15 × 10-33 m
(C) 33.15 × 10-30 m
(D) 33.15 × 10-30 m.
Answer:
(C) 33.15 × 10-30 m

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits

Question 1.
Write an expression for an alternating emf that varies sinusoidally with time. Show graphically variation of emf with time.
Answer:
An alternating emf that varies sinusoidally with time is given by e = e0 sin ωt, where e0 is the maximum value of the emf, called the peak value, and co is the angular frequency of the emf.
ω = 2πf = \(\frac{2 \pi}{T}\), where f is the frequency of the emf, expressed in Hz, and T is the periodic time of the emf, expressed in second.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 1
Using these data, we can plot e versus t
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 2

Question 2.
An alternating emf is given by e = 2.20 sin ωt (in volt). What will be its value at time t = \(\frac{T}{12}\)?
Answer:
e = 220 sin[latex]\frac{2 \pi}{T}\left(\frac{T}{12}\right)[/latex]= 220 sin(\(\frac{\pi}{6}\))
= 220 \(\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)\) = 110 v.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits

Question 3.
What is the average or mean value of an alternating emf? Obtain the expression for it. (2 marks)
Answer:
The average or mean value of an alternating emf is defined as its average value over half cycle (because the average value over one cycle is zero) and is given as
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 3

Question 4.
If the peak value of an alternating emf is 10 V, what is its mean value over half cycle?
Answer:
eav = 0.6365 e0 = 0.6365(10) = 6.365 V
Note: In general, when e = e0 sin ωt, the correspond ing current is j = i sin (ωt + α), where α is the phase difference between emf e and current j. ¿z may be positive or negative or zero.

i0 is the peak value of the current and iav (over half cycle)
= \(\frac{2}{\pi}\) i0 = 0.6365 i0].

Question 5.
What is the rms value of an alternating current? Find the relation between the rms value and peak value of an alternating current that varies sinusoidaily with time.
Answer:
The root mean square (rms) value of an alternating current i is, by definition,
irms = \(\left[\frac{\int_{0}^{I} i^{2} d t}{T}\right]^{\frac{1}{2}}\), where T is the periodic time, i.e., time for one cycle.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 4
[Note: irms is also called the effective value or virtual value of the alternating current. In one cycle, the heat produced in a resistor by i = i0 sin ωt is the same as that produced by a direct current (dc) equal to irms]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits

Question 6.
What is the relation between i,, (over half cycle) and irms?
Answer:
iav (over half cycle) = \(\frac{2}{\pi}\) i0, and irms = \(\frac{i_{0}}{\sqrt{2}}\)
∴ iav (over half cycle) = \(\left(\frac{2}{\pi}\right)\left(\sqrt{2} i_{\mathrm{rms}}\right)=\frac{2 \sqrt{2}}{\pi} i_{\mathrm{rms}}\)

Question 7.
If irms = 3.142 A, what is iav (over half cycle)?
Answer:
iav (over half cycle) = \(\frac{2 \sqrt{2}}{\pi}\) irms
= \(\frac{(2)(1.414)}{3.142}\)(3.142) = 2.828 A
[Note: iav (over half cycle) < irms]

Question 8.
For e = e0 sin ωt, what is
(i) eav (over half cycle)
(ii) rrms
Answer:
For e = e0 sin ωt, eav (over half cycle) = \(\frac{2}{\pi}\) e0 and erms = \(\frac{e_{0}}{\sqrt{2}}\)

9. Solve the following:
Question 1.
An alternating emf is given by e = 220 sin 314.2 t (in volt). Find its
(i) peak value
(ii) rms value
(iii) average value over half cycle
(iv) frequency
(iv) period
(vi) value at \(\frac{T}{4}\) .
Solution:
Data: e = 220 sin314.2t (in volt), t = \(\frac{T}{4}\)
(i) Comparing the given equation with e = e0 sin ωt, we get, peak value, e0 = 220V.

(ii) erms = e0/\(\sqrt{2}\) = 155.6 V

(iii) eav (over half cycle) = \(\frac{2}{\pi}\)e0 = \(\frac{2(220)}{3.142}\) = 140V

(iv) ω = 2πf= 314.2 ∴ The frequency,
f = \(\frac{\omega}{2 \pi}=\frac{314.2}{2(3.142)}\) = 50 Hz

(v) The period, T = \(=\frac{1}{f}=\frac{1}{50}\) = 0.02 same

(vi) e = 220 sin(\(\frac{2 \pi}{T} \cdot \frac{T}{4}\)) = 220 sin \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) = 220 v

Question 2.
The peak value of AC through a resistor of 10 Ω is 10 mA. What is the voltage across the resistor at time
Solution:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 5
This is the required voltage.

Question 3.
The peak value of AC through a resistor of 100 Ω is 2A If the frequency of AC is 50Hz, find the heat produced in the resistor in one cycle.
Solution:
Data: R = 100 Ω, i0 = 2A, f = 50 Hz
H = \(\frac{R i_{0}^{2}}{2 f}=\frac{100(2)^{2}}{2(50)}\) = 4 J
This is the required quantity.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits

Question 10.
What is a phasor?
Answer:
A phasor is a rotating vector that represents a quantity varying sinusoidally with time.

Question 11.
What is a phasor diagram ? Illustrate it with an example.
Answer:
A diagram that represents a phasor is called phasor diagram. Consider an alternating emf e = e0 sin ωt. The phasor representing it is inclined to the horizontal axis at an angle cot and rotates in an anticlockwise direction as shown in below figure.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 6
The length (OP) of the arrow \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OP}}\) represents the peak value (maximum value), e0, of the emf.
For e = e0 sin ωt, the projection of \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OP}}\) on the y-axis gives the instantaneous value of the emf.

In above figure, OR = e0 sin ωt.
For e = 0 sin ωt, the projection of \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OP}}\) on the x-axis gives the instantaneous value of the emf.
In above figure, OQ = e0 sin ωt.
Phasor diagrams are useful in adding harmonically varying quantities.

Question 12.
An alternating emf e = e0 sin ωt is applied to a resistor of resistance R. Write the expression for the current through the resistor. Show the variation of emf and current with ωt. Draw a phasor diagram to show emf and current.
Answer:
Below figure shows an alternating emf e = e0 sin ωt applied to a resistor of resistance R.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 7
e0 is the peak value and co is the angular frequency of the emf. The instantaneous current through the resistor is i = i0 sin ωt, where i0 is the peak value of the current.
Here, i and e are always in phase.
For ωt = 0, sin ωt = 0,e = 0,i = 0;
for ωt = π/2, sin ωt = 1, e = e0, i = i0;
for ωt = π, sin ωt = 0, e = 0, i = 0;
for ωt = 3π/2, sin ωt = -1, e= – e0, i= -i0;
for ωt = 2π, sin ωt = 0, e = 0, i = 0.
Below figure shows variation of e and i with cot.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 8
Below figure shows phasors of e and i
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 9
Variation of e and i with time t for a purely resistive AC circuit

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits

Question 13.
If the peak value of the alternating emf applied to a resistor of 100Ω is 100 V, what is the rms current through the resistor?
Answer:
The rms current through the resistor,
irms = \(\frac{i_{0}}{\sqrt{2}}=\frac{e_{0}}{R \sqrt{2}}=\frac{100}{100 \sqrt{2}}\) = 0.7071 A

Question 14.
An alternating emf e = e0 sin ωt is applied to a pure inductor of inductance L. Show variation of the emf and current with ωt.
Answer:
Here, e = e0 sin ωt and i = i0 sin (ωt – π/2), where i0 = e0/ωL.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 10
[Note : A pure inductor ≡ an ideal inductor.]

Question 15.
Draw a Phasor diagram showing e and i in the case of a purely inductive circuit.
Answer:
In this case, e = e0 sin ωt and i = i0 sin (ωt – \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)),
where i0 = \(\frac{e_{0}}{\omega L}\) and L is the inductance of the inductor. In this case, the current j lags behind the emf e by a phase angle of \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) rad.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 11

Question 16.
Explain the term inductive reactance. Show graphically variation of inductive reactance with the frequency of the applied alternating emf.
Answer:
When an alternating emf e = e0 sin ωt is applied to a pure inductor of inductance L, the current in the
circuit is i = i0 sin (ωt – \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)), where i0 = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\), where i0 = \(\frac{e_{0}}{\omega L}\) In the case of a pure resistor of resistance R, i = i0 sin ωt for e = e0 sin ωt, and i0 = \(\frac{e_{0}}{R}\)

Comparison of Eqs. i0 = \(\frac{e_{0}}{\omega L}\) and i0 = \(\frac{e_{0}}{R}\) shows that ωL is the resistance offered by the inductor to the applied alternating emf. It is called the reactance. It increases linearly with the frequency because ωL = 2πfL. This is illustrated in the following figure. ωL is denoted by XL.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 12
[Note : Reactance has the same dimensions and unit as resistance.]

Question 17.
What is the reactance of a pure inductor with inductance 10H if the frequency of the applied alternating emf is 50 Hz?
Answer:
The reactance of the inductor,
XL = ωL = 2πfL = 2(3.142)(50)(10) = 3142 Ω
[Note : In a DC circuit, f = 0 ∴ XL = 2πfL = 0.]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits

Question 18.
How does a pure inductor behave when the frequency of the applied alternating emf is
(i) very high
(ii) very low?
Answer:
Inductive reactance = 2πfL.
(i) If the frequency (f) of the applied emf is very high, the inductive reactance (for reasonable value of inductance L) will be very high. Hence, the current through the inductor will be very low (for reasonable value of peak emf). Hence, it will practically block AC.

(ii) For very low f, 2πfL is low and hence the inductor will behave as a good conductor.

Question 19.
The capacitance of an ideal capacitor is 2 μF. What is its reactance if the frequency of the applied alternating emf is 1000 Hz?
Answer:
The reactance of the capacitor =
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 13

Question 20.
How does a pure (an ideal) capacitor behave when the frequency of the applied alternating emf is very low?
Answer:
Capacitive reactance = \(\frac{1}{2 \pi f C}\)
If the frequency (f) of the applied emf is very low, the capacitive reactance (for reasonable value of capacitance C) will be very high and hence the current through the circuit will be very low (for reasonable value of peak emf).

Question 21.
What will be the current through an ideal capacitor if it is connected across a 2 V battery ?
Answer:
In a DC circuit, the frequency (f) of the applied emf is zero.
∴ Capacitive reactance, \(\frac{1}{2 \pi f C}\) = ∞
∴ The current through the capacitor will be zero.
(Note : The capacitor blocks DC and acts as an open circuit while it passes AC of high frequency.]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits

Question 22.
An alternating emf is applied to an LR circuit. Assuming the expression for the current, obtain the expressions for the applied emf and the effective resistance of the circuit. Assume the inductor and resistor to be ideal. Draw the phasor diagram showing the emf and current.
Answer:
Below figure shows a source of alternating emf (e), key K, ideal inductor of inductance L and ideal resistor of resistance R connected to form a closed series circuit. Ignoring the resistance of the source andthekey,wehave,e = Ri + L\(\frac{d i}{d t}\) …………… (1)
where Ri is the potential difference across R and L\(\frac{d i}{d t}\) is the potential difference across L.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 14
where e0 = Zi0 is the peak value of the applied emf.
Z = \(\frac{e_{0}}{i_{0}}=\sqrt{R^{2}+\omega^{2} L^{2}}\) is the effective resistance of the circuit. It is called the impedance. Here, the emf leads the current by phase angle Φ.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 15

Question 23.
(a) What is the impedance of an LR circuit if R = 40 Ω and XL = 30 Ω ?
(b) What is the peak current if the peak emf is 10 V, R = 0 and XL = 30 Ω?
Ans.
(a) The impedance, Z = \(\sqrt{R^{2}+X_{\mathrm{L}}^{2}}\)
= \(\sqrt{1600+900}=\sqrt{2500}\) = 50 Ω.
(b) i0 = \(\frac{e_{0}}{X_{\mathrm{L}}}=\frac{10}{30}=\frac{1}{3}\) A = 0.3333 A.

Question 24.
An alternating emf is applied to a CR circuit. Obtain an expression for the phase difference between the emf and the current. Also obtain the expression for the effective resistance of the cir-cuit. Assume the capacitor and resistor to be ideal. Draw the phasor diagram showing the emf and current.
Answer:
Below figure shows a source of alternating emf (e), key K, ideal capacitor of capacitance C and ideal resistor of resistance R to form a closed series circuit. Ignoring the resistance of the source and the key, we have,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 16
where C is the time independent constant of integration which must be zero as j oscillates about zero when e oscillates about zero.
∴ e = R i0 sin ωt – \(\frac{i_{0}}{\omega C}\) cos ωt
Let Z = \(\sqrt{R^{2}+\frac{1}{\omega^{2} C^{2}}}\), R = Z cos and \(\frac{1}{\omega C}\) = Z sin Φ
∴ e = i0Z (cos Φ sin ωt – sin Φ cos ωt)
= Zi0 (sin ωt cos Φ – cos ωt sin Φ)
= Zi0 sin (ωt – Φ) = e0 sin (ωt – Φ), where e0 = Zi0 is the peak emf. Here, the emf lags behind the current by phase angle Φ.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 17

Question 25.
(a) What is the impedance of a CR circuit if R = 30 Ω and XC = 40 Ω?
(b) What is the peak current if the peak emf is 10 V, R = 0 and XC = 40 Ω ?
Ans.
(a) The impedance, Z = \(\sqrt{R^{2}+X_{\mathrm{C}}^{2}}=\sqrt{900+1600}\)
= \(\sqrt{2500}\) = 50
(b) The peak current i0 = \(\frac{e_{0}}{X_{C}}=\frac{10}{40}\) = 0.25 A.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits

Question 26.
What is meant by the term impedance? State the formula for it in the case of an LCR series circuit.
Answer:
In an AC circuit containing resistance and inductance and / or capacitance, the effective resistance offered by the circuit to the flow of current is called impedance. It is denoted by Z.
For an LCR series circuit,
Z = \(\sqrt{R^{2}+\left(\omega L-\frac{1}{\omega C}\right)^{2}}\) where
ω = 2πf is the angular frequency and f is the frequency of AC.
[Note: Here, in the absence of a capacitor.
Z = \(\sqrt{R^{2}+\omega^{2} L^{2}}\), and in the absence of an inductor,
Z = \(\sqrt{R^{2}+\frac{1}{\omega^{2} C^{2}}}\)].

Question 27.
Draw the impedance triangle for a series LCR AC circuit and write the expressions for the im-pedance and the phase difference between the emf and the current.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 18

28. Solve the following :
Question 1.
An alternating emf e = 40 sin (120 πt) (in volt) is applied across a 100 Ω resistor. Calculate the rms current through the resistor and the frequency of the applied emf.
Solution:
Data : e = 40 sin (120 πt) V, R = 100 Ω
The equation of a sinusoidally alternating emf is e = e0 sin ωt
where e0 is the peak value of the emf.
Comparing the given expression with this, we get, e0 = 40 V
∴ The rms current,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 19
Comparing e = 40 sin (120 πt) with
e = e0 sin ωt, we get,
ω = 2πf= 120 π
∴ f = 60 Hz
This is the frequency of the applied emf.

Question 2.
In problem (1) above, what is the period of the AC?
Solution:
The period of the AC,
T = \(\frac{1}{f}=\frac{1}{60}\) s ≈ 0.01667 s

Question 3.
An alternating emf of frequency 50 Hz is applied a series combination of an inductor (L = 2 H) and a resistor (R = 100 Ω). What is the impedance of the circuit?
Solution:
Data : f = 50 Hz, L = 0.2 H, R = 100 Ω
The inductive reactance, XL = 2πfL
= 2(3.142)(50)(0.2) = 62.84 Ω
The impedance of the circuit, Z = \(\sqrt{R^{2}+X_{\mathrm{L}}^{2}}\)
= \(\sqrt{(100)^{2}+(62.84)^{2}}=\sqrt{10000+3949}=\sqrt{13949}\)
= 118.1 Ω

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits

Question 4.
An alternating emf is applied to a series combination of an inductor and a resistor (R = 100 Ω). If the impedance of the circuit is 100\(\sqrt {2}\) Ω, what is the phase difference between the emf and the current?
Solution:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 20
This is the phase difference between the emf and the current.

Question 5.
When 100 V dc is applied across a coil, a current of 1 A flows through it. When 100 V ac of frequency 50 Hz is applied to the same coil, only 0.5 A current flows through it. Calculate the resistance, impedance and self-inductance of the coil.
Solution:
Data : Vdc = 100 V, Idc = 1 A, Vrms = 100 V,
f = 50 Hz, Irms = 0.5 A
(i) The resistance of the coil,
R = \(\frac{V_{\mathrm{dc}}}{I_{\mathrm{dc}}}=\frac{100}{1}\) = 100 Ω

(ii) The impedance of the coil,
Z = \(\frac{V_{\mathrm{rms}}}{I_{\mathrm{rms}}}=\frac{100}{0.5}\) = 200 Ω
Z2 = R2 + X2L
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 21

Question 6.
A 20 µF capacitor is connected in series with a 25 Ω resistor and a source of alternating emf, 240 V (peak)/50 Hz. Calculate the capacitive reactance, circuit impedance and the maximum current in the circuit.
Solution:
Data : C = 20 µF = 20 × 10-6 F, k = 25 Ω, e0 = 240 V, f = 50 Hz
(i) Capacitive reactance,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 22

Question 7.
A 25 µF capacitor, 0.1 H inductor and 25 Ω resistor are connected in series with an ac source of emf e = 220 sin 314t volt. What is the expression for the instantaneous value of the current?
Solution:
Data : C = 25 µF = 25 × 10-6 F, L = 0.1 H,
R = 25 Ω, e = 220 sin 314t volt
The equation of a sinusoidally alternating emf is e = e0 sin ωt, where e0 is the peak emf. Comparing the given expression with this, we get,
e0 = 220 V, ω = 314 rad/s
∴ Inductive reactance,
XL = ωL = 314 × 0.1 = 31.4 Ω and capacitive reactance,
XC = \(\frac{1}{\omega C}=\frac{1}{314 \times 25 \times 10^{-6}}\) = 127.4 Ω
∴ The reactance of the circuit,
|XL – XC| = 96 Ω (capacitive, ∵ XC > XL)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 23
∴ Φ = – 75°24′
i. e., the applied emf lags behind the current by 75°24′.
The instantaneous value of the current is i = i0 sin (ωt + Φ)
∴ i = 1.569 sin (314 f + 75°24′) ampere

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits

Question 8.
An alternating emf of peak value 110 V and frequency 50 Hz is connected across an LCR series circuit with R = 100 Ω, L = 10 mH and C = 25 µF. Calculate the inductive reactance, capacitive reactance and impedance of the circuit.
Solution:
Data : e0 = 110 V, f = 50 Hz, R = 100 Ω,
L = 10 mH = 10 × 10-3 H, C = 25 µF = 25 × 10-6 F
(i) Inductive reactance,
XL = ωL = 2πfL
= 2 × 3.142 × 50 × 10 × 10-3 = 3.142 Ω

(ii) Capacitive reactance,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 24

Question 29.
An alternating emf with rms value 100 V is applied to a pure resistor of resistance 100 Ω. What is the power consumed over one cycle ?
Answer:
The power consumed over one cycle = erms irms
= erms \(\left(\frac{e_{\mathrm{rms}}}{R}\right)\) = (100) \(\left(\frac{100}{100}\right)\) = 100 W.

Question 30.
An alternating emf is applied to a pure resistor of 400 Ω. If the power consumed over one cycle is 100 W, what is the rms current through the resistor?
Answer:
Pav = R (irms)2
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 25

Question 31.
An alternating emf with erms = 100 V is applied to a series LR circuit with R = 100 Ω and Z = 200 Ω What is the average power consumed over one cycle?
Answer:
The average power consumed over one cycle
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 26

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits

Question 32.
An alternating emf with erms = 60 V is applied to a series CR circuit with R = 100 \(\sqrt {3}\) Ω and capacitive reactance 100 V 3Q. What is the average power consumed over one cycle ?
Answer:
The average power consumed over one cycle
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 27

Question 33.
State the expression for the average power consumed over one cycle in the case of a series LCR AC circuit. What happens if the circuit is purely
(i) resistive
(ii) inductive
(iii) capacitive?
Answer:
Average power consumed over one cycle in the case of a series LCR AC circuit,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 28

Question 34.
In the case of a series LCR AC circuit, what is the power factor if
(i) the resistance is far greater than the reactance
(ii) the resistance is far less than the reactance?
Answer:
Power factor, cos Φ = \(\frac{R}{\sqrt{R^{2}+\left(X_{\mathrm{L}}-X_{\mathrm{C}}\right)^{2}}}\)
(i) For R >> (XL – XC), cos Φ ≅ 1
(ii) For R >> (XL – Xe), cos Φ ≅ zero.

35. Solve the following.
Question 1.
An alternating emf e = 200 sin ωt (in volt) is connected to a 1000 Ω resistor. Calculate the rms current through the resistor and the average power dissipated in it in one cycle.
Solution:
Data: e = 200 sin ωt V, R = 1000 Ω
The equation of a sinusoidally alternating emf is e = e0 sin ωt, where e0 is the peak value of the emf.
Comparing the given expression with this, we get
∴ Peak current, i0 = \(\frac{e_{0}}{R}=\frac{200}{1000}\) = 0.2 A
∴ rms current, irms = \(\frac{i_{0}}{\sqrt{2}}=\frac{0.2}{\sqrt{2}}\) = 0.1414 A
The average power dissipated in the resistor in one cycle,
Pav = erms irms = \(\frac{e_{0} i_{0}}{2}=\frac{200 \times 0.2}{2}\) = 20 W

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits

Question 2.
A circuit has a resistance and a reactance, each equal to 100 Ω Find its power factor. If the rms value of the applied voltage is 200 V, what is the average power consumed by the circuit?
Solution:
Data : R = 100 Ω, X = 100 Ω, Vrms = 200 V
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 29
∴ The average power, P = erms irms cos Φ
= 200 × 1.415 × 0.7071 = 200 W

Question 3.
A dc ammeter and an ac hot-wire ammeter are connected to a circuit in series. When a direct current is passed through the circuit, the dc ammeter shows 6A. When a pure alternating current is passed, the ac ammeter shows 8 A. What will be the reading of each ammeter if the direct and alternating currents pass simultaneously through the circuit?
Solution:
Data: idc = 6 A, irms(ac) = 8A
A dc ammeter measures the average value of a current passing through it. Since the average value of an alternating current over one cycle is zero, when the direct and alternating currents are siniultaneously passed, the dc ammeter will read 6 A which is the dc part.

An ac hot-wire ammeter measures the effective value of a current using the heating effect of an electric current. When the direct and alternating currents are simultaneously passed through the ac ammeter, the average power dissipated is
Pav = i2dcR + i2rms = i2eff R
where R is the resistance of the heating element of the ac ammeter.
∴ ieff = \(\sqrt{i_{\mathrm{dc}}^{2}+i_{\mathrm{rms}}^{2}}\)
= \(\sqrt{(6)^{2}+(8)^{2}}\) = 10 A
Thus, the ac ammeter will read 10 A.

Question 4.
An alternating emf e = 100 sin [2π(1000) t] (in volt) is applied to a series LCR circuit with resistance 300 Ω, inductance 0.1 H and capacitance 1 µF. Find the power factor and the average power consumed over one cycle.
Solution:
Data: e = 100 sin[2π (1000)t] (in volt), R = 300 Ω L = 0.1H, C = 1 µF = 1 × 10-6 F
Comparing e = e0 sin 2πft with the given equation,
we get e0 = 100 V, f = 1000 Hz
∴ XL = 2πfL = 2(3.142)(1000)(0.1) = 628.4 Ω
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 30
= 4.835 W

Question 5.
An ac circuit with a 10 Ω resistor, 0.1 H inductor and 50 µF capacitor is connected across a 200 V/50 Hz supply. Compute
(i) the power factor
(ii) the average power dissipated in the circuit.
Solution:
Data : R = 10 Ω, L = 0.1 H, erms = 200 V, C = 50 µF = 50 × 10-6 F, f = 50 Hz
(i) XL = ωL = (2πf)L
= 2 × 3.142 × 50 × 0.1
= 31.42 Ω
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 31
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 32
[Note: An alternating emf is usually specified by giving its rms value.]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits

Question 36.
How are oscillations produced using an inductor and a capacitor?
Answer:
Consider a charged capacitor of capacitance C, with an initial charge q0, connected to an ideal inductor of inductance L through a key K. We assume that the circuit does not include any resistance or a source of emf. At first, the energy stored in the electric field in the dielectric medium between the plates of the capacitor is UE = \(\frac{1}{2} \frac{q_{o}^{2}}{C^{\prime}}\), while the energy stored in the magnetic field in the inductor is zero.

When the key is closed, the capacitor begins to discharge through the inductor and there is a clockwise current in the circuit, as shown in below figure (a). Let q and i are the instantaneous values of charge on the capacitor and current in the circuit, respectively.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 33
As q decreases, i increases : i = – dq/dt. Thus, the energy UB = \(\frac{1}{2}\) Li2 stored in the magnetic field of the inductor increases from zero. Since the circuit is free of resistance, energy is not dissipated in the form of heat, so that the decrease in the energy stored in the capacitor appears as the increase in energy stored in the inductor. As the current reaches its maximum value i(y the capacitor is fully discharged and all the energy is stored in the inductor, from figure (b).

Although q = 0 at this instant, dq/dt is nonzero. The current in the inductor then continues to transfer charge from the top plate of the capacitor to its bottom plate, as in from figure (c). The electric field in the capacitor builds up again, but now in the opposite sense, as energy flows back into it from the inductor. Eventually, all the energy of the magnetic field of the inductor is transferred back into the electric field of the capacitor, which is now fully charged, from figure (d).

The capacitor then begins to discharge with an anticlockwise current until the energy is completely back with the inductor. The magnetic field in the inductor is in the opposite sense and becomes maximum when the current reaches its maximum minimum value – i0. Subsequently, the current in the inductor charges the capacitor once again until the capacitor is fully charged and back to its original condition.

In the absence of an energy dissipative resistance (ideal condition), this cycle continues indefinitely. When the magnitude of the current is maximum, the energy is stored completely in the magnetic field. When the energy is stored entirely in the electric field, the current is zero. The current varies sinusoidally with time between i0 and – i0. The frequency of this electrical oscillation in the LC circuit is determined by the values of L and C.

[Notes : (1) Electrical oscillations in an LC circuit are analogous to the oscillations of an ideal mechanical oscillator. An LC circuit with resistance is analogous to a damped mechanical oscillator, while one with a source of alternating emf is analogous to a forced mechanical oscillator. (2) With suitable choices of L and C, it is possible to obtain frequencies ranging from 10 Hz to 10 GHz. (3) In practice, LC oscillations are damped because an inductor has some resistance (R) and hence Joule heat (izRt) is developed in it. The amplitude of oscillations goes on decreasing with time and becomes zero eventually. Also, part of energy stored in the inductor and capacitor is radiated in the form of electromagnetic waves. Working of radio and TV transmitters is based on such radiation.]

Question 37.
Explain electrical resonance in an LCR series circuit. Deduce the expression for the resonant frequency of the circuit.
Answer:
Suppose a sinusoidally alternating emf e, of peak value e0 and frequency f, is applied to a circuit containing an inductor of inductance L, a resistor of resistance R and a capacitor of capacitance C, all in series, from figure (a) The inductive reactance, XL, and the capacitive reactance, XC, are
XL = ωL and XC = \(\frac{1}{\omega C}\)
where ω = 2πf.
The rms values irms and erms of current and emf are proportional to one another.
irms = \(\frac{e_{\mathrm{rms}}}{\mathrm{Z}}\)
where Z = \(\sqrt{R^{2}+\left(X_{\mathrm{L}}-X_{\mathrm{C}}\right)^{2}}\) = the impedance of the circuit.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 34
The impedance Z drops to a minimum at the frequency fr for which the inductive and capacitive reactances are equal (and opposite, in a phasor diagram); i.e., when
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 35
At this frequency, Z = R and the phase angle Φ = 0, i.e., the combination behaves like a pure
resistance, and the current and emf are in phase. If R is small, the loss is small. Then, the current may be very large. At any other frequency, the impedance is greater than R. If a mixture of frequencies is applied to the circuit, the current only builds up to a large value for frequencies near the one to which the circuit is ‘tuned’, as given by Eq. (5). The resonance curve, from figure (b), shows the variation of the rms current with frequency. This is an example of electrical resonance. Equations (3) or (4) give the resonance condition and fris called the resonant frequency of the LCR series circuit.

At the resonant frequency, the potential differences across the capacitor and inductor are equal in magnitude but in exact antiphase; the current is in quadrature, i.e., 900 out of phase with them. The energy stored in the electric field of the capacitor changes periodically as the square of the potential difference across it; while the energy stored in the magnetic field of the inductor changes periodically as the square of the current. At moments when the potential difference across the capacitor is a maximum and the current through the inductor zero, there is then a maximum of energy stored in the electric field of the capacitor. At moments the potential difference across the capacitor is zero and the current through the inductor a maximum, there is then a maximum of energy stored in the magnetic field of the inductor.

At resonance, the total energy stored in the L-C system is constant, and is simply passed back and forth between the electric and magnetic fields. When the resonant current is first building up, this energy is drawn from the ac supply. After that, the supply only needs to make up the energy lost as heat in the resistor.

Question 38.
State the characteristics of a series LCR AC resonance circuit.
Answer:
Characteristics of a series LCR AC resonance circuit:

  1. Resonance occurs when inductive reactance (XL = 2πfL) equals capacitive reactance j (XC = \(\frac{1}{2 \pi f C}\)). Resonant frequency, fr = \(\frac{1}{2 \pi \sqrt{L C}}\).
  2. Impedance is minimum and the circuit is purely resistive.
  3. Current is maximum.
  4. Frequencies, other than the resonant frequency (fr) are rejected. Only fr is accepted. Hence, it is called the acceptor circuit.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits

Question 39.
In LCR series circuit, what is the condition for current resonance ?
Answer:
In LCR series circuit, the condition for current resonance is ωL = \(\frac{1}{\omega C}\) or f = \(\frac{1}{2 \pi \sqrt{L C}},\), where L is the inductance, C is the capacitance and / is the frequency of the applied alternating emf.

Question 40.
In LCR series circuit, what is the
(i) reactance and
(ii) impedance at current resonance?
Answer:
In LCR series circuit, at current resonance,

  1. reactance is zero and
  2. impedance equals resistance R.

Question 41.
A series LCR circuit has resistance 5 Ω and reactance, for a certain frequency, is 10\(\sqrt {2}\) Ω, what is the impedance of the circuit?
Answer:
Z = \(\sqrt{R^{2}+\left(X_{\mathrm{L}}-X_{\mathrm{C}}\right)^{2}}=\sqrt{(5)^{2}+(10 \sqrt{2})^{2}}\)
= \(\sqrt{25+200}=\sqrt{225}\) = 15 Ω is the impedance of the circuit.

Question 42.
In LCR series circuit, what is the
(i) power factor and
(ii) phase difference between the emf and current, at resonance.
Answer:
At resonance,

  1. the power factor is 1 and
  2. the phase difference between the emf and current is zero.

Question 43.
What is an acceptor circuit ? State its use.
Answer:
An acceptor circuit is a series LCR resonant circuit used in communications and broadcasting to selec-tively pass a current for a signal of only the desired frequency.

The resonance curve of a series LCR resonant circuit with a small resistance exhibits a very sharp peak at a certain frequency called the resonant frequency fr. For an alternating signal of this frequency, the impedance of the circuit is minimum, equal to R, and the current is maximum. That is, the circuit has a selective property as it prefers to pass a signal of frequency fr and reject those of other frequencies.

Use : An acceptor circuit is used in a radio or television receiver to accept the signal of a desired broadcasting station or channel from all the signals that arrive concurrently at its antenna. Tuning a receiver means adjusting the acceptor circuit to be resonant at a desired frequency.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits

Question 44.
Explain electrical resonance in an LC parallel circuit. Deduce the expression for the resonant frequency of the circuit.
Answer:
Consider a capacitor of capacitance C, and an inductor of large self-inductance L and negligible resistance, connected in parallel across a source of sinusoidally alternating emf from below figure. Let the instantaneous value of the applied emf be
e = e0 sin ωt
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 36
Let iL and iC be the instantaneous currents through the inductor and capacitor respectively.
As the current in the inductor lags behind the emf in phase by π/2 radian,
iL = \(\frac{e_{0}}{X_{\mathrm{L}}} \sin \left(\omega t-\frac{\pi}{2}\right)=-\frac{e_{0}}{X_{\mathrm{L}}} \cos \omega t\)
where XL is the inductive reactance.
As the current in the capacitor leads the emf by a phase angle of π/2 radian,
iC = \(\frac{e_{0}}{X_{C}}\) sin (ωt + π/2) = \(\frac{e_{0}}{X_{C}}\) cos ωt
where XC is the capacitive reactance.
The instantaneous current drawn from the source is
i = iL + iC = e0 \(\left(\frac{1}{X_{\mathrm{C}}}-\frac{1}{X_{\mathrm{L}}}\right)\) cos ωt
If XL = XC, i = 0. Thus, no current is drawn from the source if XL = XC. In such a case, alternating current goes on circulating in the LC loop, though no current is supplied by the source. This condition is called parallel resonance and the frequency of ac at which it occurs is called the resonant frequency (fr).
The condition for resonance is
XL = XC
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 37
In practice, every inductor possesses some resistance and hence even at resonance, some current is drawn from the source. Also, the resonant frequency is different from that for zero resistence.

The resonance curve shows the variation of current (i) and impedance with the frequency of the ac supply, from figure (b). At resonance the current supplied by the source is minimum and the impedance of the circuit is maximum.

Question 45.
State the characteristics of a parallel LC AC resonance circuit.
Answer:
Characteristics of a parallel LC AC resonance circuit:

  1. Resonance occurs when inductive reactance (XL = 2πfL) equals capacitive reactance (XC = \(\frac{1}{2 \pi f C}\))
    Resonant frequency, fr = \(\frac{1}{2 \pi \sqrt{L C}}\)
  2. Impedance is maximum.
  3. Current is minimum.
  4. The circuit rejects fr but allows the current to flow for other frequencies. Hence, it is called a rejector circuit.

Question 46.
What is a rejector circuit? State its use.
Answer:
A rejector circuit is a parallel LC resonant circuit used in communications and broadcasting as well as filter circuits to selectively reject a signal of a certain frequency.

The resonance curve of a parallel resonant circuit with a finite resistance of its inductor windings exhibits a sharp minimum at a certain frequency called the resonant frequency fr. For an alternating signal of this frequency, the impedance of the circuit is maximum and the current is minimum. That is, the circuit has a selective property to reject a signal of frequency fr while passing those of other frequencies.

Use : A rejector circuit is used at the output stage of a radiowave transmitter.

Question 47.
Distinguish between an acceptor circuit and a rejector circuit. (Any two points)
Answer:

Acceptor circuit Rejector circuit
1. An acceptor circuit is a 1. series LCR resonant circuit. 1. A rejector circuit is a parallel LC resonant circuit.
2. For such a circuit with a 2. small resistance, the reson­ance curve has a sharp peak at the resonant frequency, i.e., at this frequency, the impedance is minimum so that the current is maxi­mum. 2. With a small resistance of its inductor windings, the res­onance curve has a sharp minimum at the resonant frequency, i.e., at this fre­quency, the impedance is maximum so that the cur­rent is minimum.
3. It selectively passes a signal 3. of frequency equal to the resonant frequency. 3. It selectively rejects a signal of frequency equal to the resonant frequency.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits

Question 48.
In an LC parallel circuit, under what condition, does the impedance become maximum?
Answer:
In an LC parallel circuit, the Impedance becomes maximum when ωL = \(\frac{1}{\omega C}\) or f = \(\frac{1}{2 \pi \sqrt{L C}^{\prime}}\) where f is the frequency 0f the applied alternating emf, L is the inductance and C is the capacitance.

Question 49.
Explain the terme sharpness of resonance and Q factor (quality factor).
Answer:
In a series LCR Ac circuit, the amplitude of the current, i.e., the peak value of the current, is
i0 = \(\frac{e_{0}}{\sqrt{R^{2}+\left(\omega L-\frac{1}{\omega C}\right)^{2}}}\)
If the angular frequency, n changed. at resonance.
ωrL = \(\frac{1}{\omega_{\mathrm{r}} C}\) giving ωr = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{L C}}\)
For ω different from ωr, the amplitude of i is less than the maximum value of i0. which is \(\frac{e_{0}}{R}\).

Contider the value of ω for which i0 = \(\frac{\left(i_{0}\right)_{\max }}{\sqrt{2}}\)
= \(\frac{e_{0}}{R \sqrt{2}}\) that the power dissipated by the circuit is half the maximum power. This ω is called the half power angular frequency. There are two such values of ω on either side of ωr as shown in below figure.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 38
circuit. \(\frac{\omega_{\mathrm{r}}}{2 \Delta \omega}\) is a measure of the sharpness of resonance If It is high, resonance is sharp; if it is low, resonance is not sharp.

The sharpness of resonance Is measured by a coefficient called the quality or Q fader of the cicuit.

The Q factor of a series LCR resonant circuit is defined as the ratio of the resonant angular frequency to the diference in two angular frequencies taken on both sides of the angular resonant ‘frequency such that at each angular frequency the current amplitude becomes \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\) times the value at resonant frequency.
∴ Q = \(\frac{\omega_{\mathrm{r}}}{\omega_{2}-\omega_{1}}=\frac{\omega_{\mathrm{r}}}{2 \Delta \omega}=\frac{\text { resonant frequency }}{\text { bandwidth }}\)

Q-factor is a dimensionless quantity. The larger the Q-factor, the smaller is the bandwidth i.e., the sharper is the peak in the current It means the series resonant circuit is more selective in this case. from figure shows that the lower angular frequency side of the resonance curve is dominated by the capacitive reactance, the higher angular frequency side is dominated by the inductive reactance and resonance occurs ¡n the middle. This follows from the formulae, XL = ωL and XC = \(\frac{1}{\omega C}\). The higher the ω, the greater ¡s XL and smaller is XC. At ω = ωr, XL = XC.

Question 50.
What Is the natural frequency of LC circuit with inductance 1H and capacitance µF?
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 39

Question 51.
What is a choke coil? What is it used for? Explain.
Answer:
A choke coil is an inductor of high inductance. It consists of a large number of turns of thick insulated copper wire wound closely over a soft iron laminated cure- Average power consumed by it over one cycle is Pav = rrms irms cos Φ, where the power factor cos Φ = \(\frac{R}{\sqrt{R^{2}+\omega^{2} L^{2}}}\)

For ωL >> R. cos Φ is very low implying power consumption is reduced. The energy loss due to hysteresis in iron core is reduced by using a soft Iron core.

In an AC circuit a choke coil is used instead of a resistor to reduce power consumption In case of a pure resistor Pav is high as it is erms irms.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits

Question 52.
What is the approximate value of the power factor of a choke coil with R = 10 Ω and reactance = 100Ω ?
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 40

53. Solve the following 
Question 1.
A coil of resistance S D and self-inductance 0.2 H is connected in series with a variable capacitor across a 30 V(rms) 50 Hz supply. At what capacitance will resonance occur? Find the corresponding current.
Solution:
Data: R = 5 Ω. L = 0.2 H, erms = 30 V. f = 50 Hz
Let C be the capacitance of the capacitor at resonance.
(i) At resonance,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 41

Question 2.
An ac circuit consists of a resistor of 5 0 and an inductor of 10 mH connected In series with a 50 V
(peak)/50 Hz supply. What capacitance should be connected in series with the circuit to obtain maximum current? What will be the maximum current?
Solution:
Data: R = 50 Ω, L = 10 mH = 10 × 10-3 H, e0 = 50 V, f = 50 Hz
(i) Maximum current is obtained at resonance.
The condition for resonance is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 42

(ii) At resonance, Z = R
∴ Maximum current,
i0 = \(\frac{e_{0}}{Z}=\frac{e_{0}}{R}=\frac{50}{5}\) = 10 A

Question 3.
An LCR series combination has R = 10 Ω, L = 1 mH and C = 2 µF. Determine (i) the resonant frequency (ii) the current in the circuit (iii) voltages across L and C, when an alternating voltage of rms value 10 mV operating at the resonant frequency is applied to the series combination.
Solution:
Data : R = 10 Ω, L = 1 mH = 10-3 H, C = 2 × 10-6 F, erms = 10 mV = 10-2 V
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 43

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits

Question 4.
In a parallel resonant circuit, the inductance of the coil is 3 mH and resonant frequency is 1000 kHz. What is the capacitance of the capacitor in the circuit?
Solution:
Data : L = 3 mH = 3 × 10-3 Hz, fr = 1000 kHz = 1000 × 103 = 106 Hz
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 44
= 8.441 × 10-12 F or 8.441 pF

Question 5.
An ac circuit consists of an inductor of inductance 125 mH connected in parallel with a capacitor of capacity 50 µF. Determine the resonant frequency.
Solution :
Data : L = 125 mH = 0.125 H, C = 50 µF = 50 × 10-6 F
Resonant frequency,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 45
= 63.65 Hz

Question 6.
An ac voltage of rms value 1V is applied to a parallel combination of inductor L = 10mH and capacitor C = 4 µF. Calculate the resonant frequency and the current through each branch at resonance.
Solution:
Data : erms = 1 V, L = 10 mH = 10-2H, C = 4 µF = 4 × 10-6 F
(i) Resonant frequency,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 46
= 795.7 Hz

(ii) At resonance, the currents through the inductor and capacitor are in exact antiphase but equal in magnitude : iL = iC.
∴ iC = \(\frac{e_{\mathrm{rms}}}{X_{\mathrm{C}}}\) = (2πfrC) erms
= (2 × 3.142 × 795.7 × 4 × 10-6)(1) = 0.02A

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
The motor of an electric fan has a self inductance of 10 H, and is connected to a 50-Hz ac supply in series with a capacitor. If maximum power transfer occurs when XL = XC, the capacitance of the capacitor is
(A) 0.5 µF
(B) 1 µF
(C) 10 µF
(D) 100 µF.
Answer:
(B) 1 µF

Question 2.
The reactance of a coil is 157 Ω. On connecting the coil across a source of frequency 100 Hz, the current lags behind the emf by 45°. The inductance of the coil is
(A) 0.25 H
(B) 0.5 H
(C) 4 H
(D) 314 H.
Answer:
(A) 0.25 H

Question 3.
In a series LCR circuit, the power factor at resonance is
(A) zero
(B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
(C) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
(D) 1.
Answer:
(D) 1.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits

Question 4.
The current in an LC circuit at resonance is called
(A) the displacement current
(B) the idle current
(C) the wattless current
(D) the apparent current.
Answer:
(C) the wattless current

Question 5.
In a series LCR circuit at resonance, the applied emf and current are
(A) out of phase
(B) in phase
(C) differ in phase by \(\frac{\pi}{4}\) radian
(D) differ in phase by \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) radian.
Answer:
(B) in phase

Question 6.
In a series LCR circuit, R = 3 Ω, XL = 8 Ω and XC = 4 Ω. The impedance of the circuit is
(A) 3 Ω
(B) 7 Ω
(C) 5 Ω
(D) 25 Ω
Answer:
(C) 5 Ω

Question 7.
A sinusoidal emf of peak value 150\(\sqrt {2}\) V is applied to a series LCR circuit in which R = 3 Ω and Z = 5 Ω. The rms current in the circuit is
(A) 30 A
(B) 30\(\sqrt {2}\) A
(C) 50 A
(D) 50\(\sqrt {2}\) A.
Answer:
(A) 30 A

Question 8.
In a series LCR circuit, R = 3 Ω, Z = 5 Ω, irms = 40 A and power factor = 0.6. The average power dissipated in the circuit is
(A) 2880 W
(B) 4800 W
(C) 8000 W
(D) 9600 W.
Answer:
(A) 2880 W

Question 9.
A parallel LC resonant circuit is used as
(A) a filter circuit
(B) a tuning circuit in a television receiver
(C) a transformer
(D) a rectifier.
Answer:
(A) a filter circuit

Question 10.
A senes LCR resonant circuit is used as
(A) a potential divider
(B) a tuning circuit in a television receiver
(C) a source of wattless current
(D) a radiowave trasmitter.
Answer:
(B) a tuning circuit in a television receiver

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits

Question 11.
If AC voltage is applied to a pure capacitor. then voltage acrose the capacitor .
(A) leads the current by phase angle (\(\frac{\pi}{2}\)) rad
(B) leads the current by phase angle π rad
(C) lags behind the current by phase angle (\(\frac{\pi}{2}\)) rad
(D) lags behind the current by phase angle π rad.
Answer:
(C) lags behind the current by phase angle (\(\frac{\pi}{2}\)) rad

Question 12.
In a series LCR circuit at resonance, the phase difference between the current and emf of the source is
(A) π rad
(B) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) rad
(C) \(\frac{\pi}{4}\) rad
(D) zero rad.
Answer:
(D) zero rad.

Question 13.
For e = e0 sin ωt, (average) over one cycle is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 47
Answer:
(D) \(\frac{2}{\pi} e_{0}\)

Question 14.
For i = i0 sin ωt. irms/iav is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 48
Answer:
(A) \(\frac{\pi}{2 \sqrt{2}}\)

Question 15.
If i = 10sin(314t) [in ampere). iav =
(A) 6.365 A
(B) 10/\(\sqrt{2}\) A
(C) 10/π A
(D) 5A.
Answer:
(A) 6.365 A

Question 16.
If e = 10 sin(400t) [in volt]. erms =
(A) \(\frac{10}{\pi}\) V
(B) \(\frac{10 \sqrt{2}}{\pi}\) V
(C) 5V
(D) 7.07V
Answer:
(D) 7.07V

Question 17.
In a purely resistive circuit, the heat produced by a sinusoidally varying AC over a complete cycle is given by H =
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 49
Answer:
(C) \(R\left(i_{\mathrm{rms}}\right)^{2} \cdot \frac{2 \pi}{\omega}\)

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits

Question 18.
In a purely inductive AC circuit, i0 =
(A) \(\frac{e_{0}}{L}\)
(B) \(\frac{e_{0}}{\omega L}\)
(C) \(\frac{e_{0}}{f L}\)
(D) ωLe0.
Answer:
(B) \(\frac{e_{0}}{\omega L}\)

Question 19.
In a purely capacitive AC circuit, i0 =
(A) e0/C
(B) ωCe0
(C) e0/ωC
(D),fCe0.
Answer:
(B) ωCe0

Question 20.
The impedance of a series LCR circuit is
(A) R + (XL – XC)
(B) R + (XC – XL)
(C) \(\sqrt{R^{2}+\left(X_{\mathrm{L}}-X_{\mathrm{C}}\right)^{2}}\)
(D) \(\sqrt{R^{2}+X_{\mathrm{L}}^{2}-X_{\mathrm{C}}^{2}}\)
Answer:
(C) \(\sqrt{R^{2}+\left(X_{\mathrm{L}}-X_{\mathrm{C}}\right)^{2}}\)

Question 21.
In a purely inductive circuit, Pav =
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 50
Answer:
(C) Zero

Question 22.
In a series LCR AC circuit, power factor is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 51
Answer:
(D) \(\frac{R}{Z}\)

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits

Question 23.
The Q factor of an LCR series resonant circuit is
(A) resonant frequency/bandwidth
(B) bandwidth / resonant frequency
(C) ωr/(ω1 + ω2)
(D) (ω1 + ω2)/ ωr
Answer:
(A) resonant frequency/bandwidth

Question 24.
The power factor for a choke coil is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 52
Answer:
(A) \(\frac{R}{\sqrt{R^{2}+\omega^{2} L^{2}}}\)

Question 25.
The power factor for a purely resistive AC circuit is
(A) 0.5
(B) 1
(C) \(\frac{1}{\pi}\)
(D) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
Answer:
(B) 1

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction

Question 1.
Describe Faraday’s magnet and coil experiment. What conclusion can be drawn from the experiment?
Answer:
Faraday’s magnet and coil experiment:

  1. The terminals of a copper coil of several turns are connected to a sensitive galvanometer.
    Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 1
  2. A bar magnet is moved swiftly towards the coil with its N-pole facing the coil. As long as the magnet is in motion, the galvanometer shows a deflection [from figure (a)].
  3. If the magnet is now moved swiftly away from the coil, again the galvanometer shows a deflection, but now in the opposite direction.
  4. The galvanometer shows a deflection when the experiment is repeated with the S-pole of the magnet facing the coil [from figure (b)]. However, the effect of bringing the S-pole towards the coil is the same as that of taking the N-pole away from the coil and vice versa.
  5. The same results are obtained when the magnet is held still and the coil is moved towards or away from the magnet.

Conclusion : A current is induced in an electric circuit whenever the magnetic flux linked with the circuit keeps on changing as a result of relative motion of a magnet and the circuit.

Question 2.
Describe Faraday’s coil-coil experiment. What conclusion can be drawn from the experiment?
Answer:
Faraday’s coil-coil experiment:
(1) A copper coil P of several turns is connected in series to a rheostat, a tap key and a battery. The terminals of another copper coil Q of several turns are connected to a sensitive galvanometer. The coils are placed close to each other such that when a current is passed through coil P by closing the key K, the magnetic flux through P is linked with coil Q.

(2) On closing the key K, the rise of current in coil P changes the flux linked with the coil Q nearby as shown by a momentary deflection (throw) of the galvanometer G, from below figure. A similar deflection in the same direction is seen if the key closed and either coil is moved swiftly towards the other.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 2

(3) On releasing the tap key, the current in the coil P does not reduce to zero instantaneously. With the decreasing flux through its turns, and a consequent decrease in the flux linked with coil Q, there is an opposite throw of the galvanometer. A similar deflection in the same direction is seen if the key is kept closed and either coil is moved swiftly away from the other.

Conclusion : A current is induced in an electric circuit whenever the magnetic flux linked with the circuit keeps on changing, either as a result of changing current in a nearby circuit or due to relative motion between them.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction

Question 3.
Will an induced current be always produced in a coil whenever there is a change of magnetic flux linked with it ?
Answer:
Yes, provided the coil is in a closed circuit.

Question 4.
What is the basis of Lena’s law of electromagnetic Induction?
Answer:
Law of conservation of energy is the basis of Lenz’s law of electromagnetic inductIon.

Question 5.
Express Faraday-Lena’s law of electromagnetic induction in an equation form.
Answer:
Suppose dΦm Is the change in the magnetic flux through a coil or circuit in time dt. Then, by
Faraday’s second law of electromagnetic induction, the magnitude of the einf Induced is
e ∝ \(\frac{d \Phi_{\mathrm{m}}}{d t}\) or e = k\(\frac{d \Phi_{\mathrm{m}}}{d t}\)
where dΦm/dt is the rate of change of magnetic flux
linked with the coil and k is a constant of proportionality. The Sl units of e (the volt) and dΦm df (the weber per second) are so selected that the constant of proportionality, k, becomes unity. Combining Faraday’s law and Lents law of electromagnetic induction, the induced emf
e = – \(\frac{d \Phi_{\mathrm{m}}}{d t}\)
where the minus sign is Included to indicate the polarity of the induced emf as given by Lents law. This polarity simply determines the direction of the induced current in a dosed loop. If a coil has N tightly wound loops, the induced emf will be N times greater than for a single loop, so that
e = – N \(\frac{d \Phi_{\mathrm{m}}}{d t}\)
where \(\frac{d \Phi_{\mathrm{m}}}{d t}\) is the rate of change of magnetic flux through one loop.

Question 6.
State the causes of induced current and explain them on the basis of Lena’s law.
Answer:
According to Lena’s law, the direction of the induced emf or current is such as to oppose the change that produces it. The change that induces a current may be
(i) the motion of a conductor in a magnetic field or
(ii) the change of the magnetic flux through a stationary circuit.
In the first case, the direction of induced emf in the moving conductor Is such that the direction of the side-thrust exerted on the conductor by the magnetic field is opposite in direction to its motion. The motion of the conductor is, therefore, opposed.

In the second case, the induced current sets up a magnetic field of its own which within the area bounded by the circuit is (a) opposite to the original magnetic field if this field is increasing, but (b) is in the same direction as the original field, if the field is decreasing. Thus, it is the change in magnetic flux through the circuit (not the flux itself) which is opposed by the induced current.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction

Question 7.
In one version of Faraday’s coil-coil experiment, the two coils are wound on the same iron ring as shown, where closing and opening the switch induces a current in the other coil. How do the multiple-loop coils and iron ring enhance the observation of induced emf?
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 3
Answer:
The magnetic flux through a coil is directly proportional to the number of turns a coil has. Hence, with multiloop coils in Faraday’s coil-coil experiment, the induced emf is directly proportional to N. Also, the permeability of iron being many orders of magnitude greater than air, the magnetic field lines of the primary coil P are confined to the iron ring and almost all the flux is linked with the secondary coil S. Thus, increased flux and better flux linkage enhances the magnitude of the induced emf.

Question 8.
A circular conducting loop in a uniform magnetic field is stretched to an elongated ellipse as shown below. The magnetic field points into the page. Will an emf be induced in the loop? If so, state why and give the direction of the induced current.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 4
Answer:
Looking in the direction of the magnetic field, there will be an induced current in the clockwise sense.

For the same perimeter, the area of a circle is greater than that of an ellipse. Hence, stretching the loop reduces the inward flux through its plane. To oppose this decreasing flux, a current is induced in the clockwise sense so that the field due to the induced current is into the plane of the diagram.

Question 9.
A bar magnet is dropped vertically through a thick copper ring as shown. What is the direction of the force exerted by the coil on the magnet? Explain.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 5
Answer:
The magnetic flux through the loop increases when the magnet approaches the loop, and decreases after the magnet has passed through. The induced current in the loop opposes the cause producing the change in flux which, in this case, is the falling magnet. Therefore, the motion of the magnet’ is opposed, first with a repulsion and then with an attraction. The force, in both cases, is upward in the + z-direction.

The magnetic dipole moment of the falling magnet is directed up. Therefore, looking down the z-axis, the induced current is clockwise when the magnet is approaching the loop, so that the magnetic moment of the loop points down; subsequently, as the magnet recedes, the induced current is anticlockwise.

Question 10.
Briefly explain the jumping ring experiment.
Answer:
Elihu Thompson’s jumping ring experiment is an outstanding demonstration of Faraday’s laws and Lenz’s law of electromagnetic induction. The apparatus consists of a cylindrical laminated iron- cored solenoid. A conducting non-magnetic ring, usually copper or aluminium, is placed over the extended vertical core of the solenoid. When an alternating current is passed through the solenoid, the ring is thrown off high into the air.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 6
Due to ac, the magnetic field of the solenoid changes continuously. This induces eddy current in the ring. By Lenz’s law, the magnetic field produced by the induced eddy current in the ring opposes the changing magnetic field of the solenoid. Consequently, the two magnetic fields repel each other, making the ring jump.

The iron core increases the magnetic field of the solenoid. Often, the ring is cooled with liquid nitrogen. The colder the ring, the less is its resistance and greater the eddy current in it. More current means a greater magnetic field and even higher jumps.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction

Question 11.
Explain what you understand by magnetic flux.
Answer:
The total number of magnetic lines of force passing normally through a given area in a magnetic field, is called the magnetic flux through that area.

Consider a very small area dA in a uniform magnetic field of induction \(\vec{B}\). The area dA can be represented by a vector \(\overrightarrow{d A}\) perpendicular to it.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 7
[Note : The area vector is perpendicular to the sur-face, so it can point either up and to the right as shown or down and to the left. Although either choice is acceptable, choosing the direction that is closest to the magnetic field is convenient and usually the one we choose.]

Question 12.
How do you find the magnetic flux through a finite area A ?
Answer:
Consider a small area element \(\overrightarrow{d A}\) of a finite area A bounded by contour C, from below figure. Suppose this area is situated in a magnetic field \(\vec{B}\).
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 8
In general, the magnetic field may not be uniform over the area A. Then, the magnetic flux through the area element is dΦm = \(\vec{B} \cdot \overrightarrow{d A}\) = B (dA) cos θ
where θ is the angle between \(\vec{B}\) and \(\overrightarrow{d A}\), so that the flux through the area A is
Φm = \(\int d \Phi_{\mathrm{m}}=\int_{A} \vec{B} \cdot \overrightarrow{d A}=\int_{A}\) B(dA)cos θ
The integration is over the entire area A. \(\vec{B}\) can be taken out of the integral if and. only if \(\vec{B}\) is the same everywhere over A, in which case,
Φm = \(\int_{A}\) B (dA) cos θ = B cos θ \(\int_{A}\) dA = BA cos θ
where \(\int_{A}\) dA is just the total area A.

Question 13.
State an expression for the magnetic flux through a loop of finite area A inside a uniform magnetic field \(\vec{B}\). Hence discuss Faraday’s second law, given that the magnetic flux varies with time.
Answer:
Consider a conducting loop of finite area A, situated in a uniform magnetic field \(\vec{B}\). We choose the direction of the area vector \(\vec{A}\) that is closest to the magnetic field. For the area vector in below figure, the fingers of the right hand must be turned in the sense of the arrow on the contour of the loop.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 9
Since \(\vec{B}\) is the same everywhere over A, the flux through the area A is
Φm = BA cos θ
where θ is the angle between \(\vec{B}\) and \(\vec{A}\).
Faraday’s discovery was that the rate of change of flux dΦm/ dt is related to the work done on taking a unit positive charge around the contour in the reverse direction. This work done is just the induced emf. Accordingly we express Faraday’s second law of electromagnetic induction as
|e| = \(\frac{d \Phi_{\mathrm{m}}}{d t}=\frac{d}{d t}\) (BA cos θ)
If B, A and θ are all constants in time, no emf is induced in the loop. An emf will be induced if at least one of these parameters changes with time. B and A may change in magnitude; the loop may turn, thereby changing θ.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction

Question 14.
When is the magnetic flux through an area element (i) maximum (ii) zero? Explain.
Answer:
When an area element dA is placed in a magnetic field \(\vec{B}\), the magnetic flux through the element is
m = B(dA) cos θ …………. (1)
where 8 is the angle between \(\vec{B}\) and the area vector \(\overrightarrow{d A}\).
(i) The maximum value of cos θ = 1 when θ = 0. Thus, from Eq. (1), the magnetic flux is maximum, dΦm = B(dA), when the magnetic induction is in the direction of the area vector.
(ii) The minimum value of cos θ = 0 when θ = 90°. Then, the magnetic flux is minimum, dΦm = 0, when the magnetic induction is perpendicular to the area vector.

Question 15.
State the SI units and dimensions of
(i) magnetic induction
(ii) magnetic flux.
Answer:
(i) Magnetic induction, B :
SI unit : the tesla (T) : 1 T = 1 Wb / m2
Dimensions: [B] = [MT-2I-1].

(ii) Magnetic flux, Φm:
SI unit : the weber (Wb)
Dimensions : [Φm] = [B][A]
= [MT-2I-1][L2] = [ML2T-2I-1]

Question 16.
State the relation between the SI units volt and weber.
Answer:
1 volt = 1 weber per second (1 V = 1 Wb/s).

Question 17.
Explain how Lenz’s law is incorporated into Faraday’s second law of electromagnetic induction by introducing a minus sign.
Answer:
Consider a conducting loop of area A in a uniform external magnetic field \(\vec{B}\) with its plane perpendicular to the field, i.e., its area vector \(\vec{A}\) is parallel to \(\vec{B}\) , from below figure. We choose the x-axis along \(\vec{B}\), so that \(\vec{B}=B \hat{i}\) and \(\vec{A}=A \hat{i}\).
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 10
Suppose the magnitude of the magnetic induction increases with time. Then, \(\vec{A}\) remaining constant, the induced emf by Faraday-Lenz’s second law of electromagnetic induction is
e = \(-\frac{d \Phi_{\mathrm{m}}}{d t}=-\frac{d}{d t}(B A)=-A \frac{d B}{d t}\) ………….. (1)
Since we have assumed that B is increasing with time, dB / dt is a positive quantity. Also, A = |\(\vec{A}\)| is positive by definition. Hence, the right hand side of Eq. (1) is a negative quantity.

The right hand rule for area vector fixes the positive sense of circulation around the loop as the clockwise sense. Then, by Lenz’s law the induced current in the loop is in the anticlockwise sense. The sense of the induced emf is the same as the sense of the current it drives. With the clockwise sense fixed as positive, the anticlockwise sense of the induced current is negative. Hence, the sense of e is also negative. That is, the left hand side of Eq. (1) is indeed a negative quantity. Thus, introducing a minus sign in Faraday’s second law incorporates Ienz’s law into Faraday’s law.

18. Solve the following
Question 1.
A coil of effective area 25 m2 is placed in a field-free region. Subsequently, a uniform magnetic field that rises uniformly from zero to 1.25 T in 0.15 s is applied perpendicular to the plane of the coil. What is the magnitude of the emf induced in the coil?
Solution:
Data : NA = 25 m2, Bf = 1.25 T, Bi = 0, A t = 0.15 s
Initial magnetic flux, Φi = 0 (∵ Bi = 0)
Final magnetic flux, Φf = NABf
e = –\(\frac{d \Phi}{d t}=-\frac{\left(\Phi_{\mathrm{f}}-\Phi_{\mathrm{i}}\right)}{d t}\)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 11

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction

Question 2.
A rectangular coil of length 0.5 m and breadth 0.4 m has resistance of 5 Ω. The coil is placed in a magnetic field of induction 0.05 T and its direction is perpendicular to the plane of the coil. If the magnetic induction is uniformly reduced to zero in 5 milliseconds, find the emf and current induced in the coil.
Solution:
Data : l =0.5 m, b = 0.4 m, R = 5Ω, B = 0.05 T, Bf = 0, dt = 5 × 10-3 s
Area of the coil, A = lb = 0.5 × 0.4 = 0.2 m2
Initial magnetic flux, Φi = ABi
= 0.02 × 0.05 = 0.01 Wb
Final magnetic flux, Φf = 0 (∵ Bf = 0)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 12

Question 3.
A square wire loop with sides 0.5 m is placed with its plane perpendicular to a magnetic field. The resistance of the loop is 5 Ω. Find at what rate the magnetic induction should be changed so that a current of 0.1 A is induced in the loop.
Solution:
Data : l = 0.5 m, R = 5 Ω, I = 0.1 A
A = l2 = 0.5 × 0.5 = 0.25 m2
The magnitude of the induced emf,
|e| = \(\frac{d \Phi}{d t}=\frac{d}{d t}\) (BA) = A \(\frac{d B}{d t}\)
since the area (A) of the coil is constant. The induced current, I = \(\frac{|e|}{R}=\frac{A}{R} \frac{d B}{d t}\)
∴ The time rate of change of magnetic induction,
\(\frac{d B}{d t}=\frac{I R}{A}=\frac{0.1 \times 5}{0.25}\) = 2 T/s

Question 4.
The magnetic flux through a loop of resistance 0.1 Ω is varying according to the relation Φ = 6t2 + 7t + 1, where Φ is in mihiweber and t is in second. What is the emf induced in the loop at t = 1 s and the magnitude of the current?
Solution:
Data: R = 0.1 Ω, Φm = 6t2 + 7t + 1 mWb, t = 1 s
(i) The induced emf, |e| = \(\frac{d \Phi_{\mathrm{m}}}{d t}\) = \(\frac{d}{d t}\)(6t2 + 7t + 1)
= (12t + 7) mV
= 12(1) + 7 = 19 mV

(ii) The magnitude of the current = \(\frac{|e|}{R}\)
= \(\frac{19 \mathrm{mV}}{0.1 \Omega}\) = 190 mA

Question 5.
A wire 88 cm long is bent into a circular loop and kept with its plane perpendicular to a magnetic field of induction 2.5 Wb/m2. Within 0.5 second, the coil is changed to a square and the magnetic induction is increased by 0.5 Wb/m2. Calculate the emf induced in the wire.
Solution:
Data: l = 88 cm, Bi = 2.5 Wb/m2, Bf = 3 Wb/m2, ∆t = 0.5 s
For the circular loop, l = 2πr
∴ r = \(\frac{l}{2 \pi}=\frac{88}{2 \times(22 / 7)}\) = 14 cm = 0.14 m
Area of the circular loop, Ai = πr2
= \(\frac{22}{7}\) (0.14)2 = 0.0616 m2
Initial magnetic flux, Φi = AiBi
= 0.0616 × 2.5 = 0.154 Wb
For the square loop, length of each side
= \(\frac{88}{4}\) cm = 22 cm = 0.22 m 4
Area of the square loop, Af = (0.22)2
= 0.0484 m2
∴ Final magnetic flux, Φf = AfBf
= 0.0484 × 3 = 0.1452 Wb
Induced emf, e = – \(\frac{\Phi_{\mathrm{f}}-\Phi_{1}}{\Delta t}=\frac{\Phi_{1}-\Phi_{\mathrm{f}}}{\Delta t}\)
∴ e = \(\frac{0.154-0.1452}{0.5}\) = 8.8 × 10-3 × 2
= 1.76 × 10-2 V

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction

Question 6.
A 1000 turn, 20 cm diameter coil is rotated in the Earth’s magnetic field of strength 5 × 10-5 T. The plane of the coil was initially perpendicular t0 the Earth’s field and is rotated to be parallel to the field in 10 ms? Find the average emf induced.
Solution:
Data: N = 1000, d = 0.2 m, B = 5 × 10-5 T,
∆t = 10 ms = 10-2 s
Radius of coil, r = d/2 = 10-1 m
Induced emf, e = -N \(\frac{\Delta \Phi_{\mathrm{m}}}{\Delta t}=-N \frac{\Phi_{\mathrm{f}}-\Phi_{1}}{\Delta t}\)
Initial area, Ai = πr2 and initial flux,
i = NBAi NB (πr2)
Final flux, Φf = 0, since the plane of the coil is parallel to the field lines.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 13

Question 7.
A television loop antenna has diameter of 11 cm. The magnetic field of the TV signal is uniform, normal to the plane of the loop and changing at the rate of 0.16 T/s. What is the magnitude of the emf induced in the antenna?
Solution:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 14

Question 8.
The magnetic field through a wire loop, of radius 12 cm and resistance 8.5 Ω, changes with time as shown in the graph below. The magnetic field is uniform and perpendicular to the plane of the loop. Calculate the emf induced in the loop as a function of time. Hence, find the induced emf in the time interval (a) t = 0 to t = 2 s (b) t = 2 s to t = 4s (c) t = 4s to t = 6s.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 15
Solution :
Data : r = 0.12 m, R = 8.5 Ω
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 16
This is the emf induced in the loop as a function of time.
\(\frac{d B}{d t}\) is the slope of the B-t graph
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 17

Question 19.
What is motional emf?
Answer:
An emf induced in a conductor or circuit moving in a magnetic field is called motional emf.

Question 20.
Determine the motional emf induced in a straight conductor moving in a uniform magnetic field with constant velocity.
Answer:
Consider a straight wire AB resting on a pair of conducting rails separated by a distance l lying wholly in a plane perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field \(\vec{B}\). \(\vec{B}\) points into the page and the rails are stationary relative to the field and are connected to a stationary resistor R.

Suppose an external agent moves the rod to the right with a constant speed v, perpendicular to its length and to \(\vec{B}\). As the rod moves through a distance dx = vdt in time dt, the area of the loop ABCD increases by dA = ldx = lv dt.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 18
Therefore, in time dt, the increase in the magnetic flux through the loop,
m = BdA = Blvdt
By Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction, the magnitude of the induced emf
e = \(\frac{d \Phi_{\mathrm{m}}}{d t}=\frac{B l v d t}{d t}\) = Blv

Question 21.
Determine the motional emf induced in a straight conductor moving in a uniform magnetic field with constant velocity on the basis of Lorentz force.
Answer:
Consider a straight rod or wire PQ of length l, lying wholly in a plane perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of induction B , as shown in below figure; \(\vec{B}\) points into the page.

Suppose an external agent moves the wire to the right with a constant velocity \(\vec{v}\) perpendicular to its length and to \(\vec{B}\). The free electrons in the wire experience a Lorentz force \(\vec{F}\) ( = q\(\vec{v}\) × \(\vec{B}\)).
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 19
According to the right-hand rule for cross products, the Lorentz force on negatively charged electrons is downward. The Lorentz force \(\vec{F}\) moves the free electrons in the wire from P to Q so that P becomes positive with respect to Q. Thus, there will be a separation of the charges to the two ends of the wire until an electric field builds up to oppose further motion of the charges.

In moving the electrons a distance l along the wire, the work done by the Lorentz force is
W = Fl = (qvB sin θ) l = qvBl
since the angle between \(\vec{v}\) and \(\vec{B}\), θ = 90°. Since electrical work done per unit charge is emf, the induced emf in the wire is
e = \(\frac{W}{q}\) = vB l
Alternatively, the electric field due to the separation of charges is \(\vec{F} / q=\vec{v} \times \vec{B}\). Since \(\vec{v}\) is perpendicular to B, the magnitude of the field = vB.
Electric field = \(\frac{\text { p.d. }(e) \text { between } \mathrm{P} \text { and } \mathrm{Q}}{\text { distance } \mathrm{PQ}(l)}\)
Therefore, the p.d. or emf induced in the wire PQ is e = v B l

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction

Question 22.
Determine the motional emf induced in a straight conductor rotating in a uniform magnetic field with constant angular velocity.
Answer:
Suppose a rod of length l is rotated anticlockwise, around an axis through one end and perpendicular to its length, in a plane perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of induction \(\vec{B}\), as shown in below figure; \(\vec{B}\) points into the page. Let the constant angular speed of the rod be ω.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 20
Consider an infinitesimal length element dr at a distance r from the rotation axis. In one rotation, the area traced by the element is dA = 2πrdr. Therefore, the time rate at which the element traces out the area is
\(\frac{d A}{d t}\) = frequency of rotation × dA = f dA
where f = \(\frac{\omega}{2 \pi}\) is the frequency of rotation.
∴ \(\frac{d A}{d t}=\frac{\omega}{2 \pi}\) (2πrdr) = ωr dr
Therefore, the magnitude of the induced emf in the element is
|de| = \(\frac{d \Phi_{\mathrm{m}}}{d t}=B \frac{d A}{d t}\) = B ωr dr
Since the emfs in all the elements of the rod will be in series, the total emf induced across the ends of the rotating rod is
|e| = \(\int d e=\int_{0}^{l} B \omega r d r=B \omega \int_{0}^{l} r d r=B \omega \frac{l^{2}}{2}\)
For anticlockwise rotation in B pointing into the page, the pivot point O\(\vec{B}\) is at a higher potential.

[Note : To understand the polarity of the emf across the ends of the rod, imagine that the rod slides along a wire that forms a circular arc MPN of radius /, as shown below. Assume that the resistor R furnishes all of the resistance in the closed loop. As 9 increases, so does the inward flux through the loop due to \(\vec{B}\).
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 21
To counteract this increase, the magnetic field due to the induced current must be directed out of the page in the region enclosed by the loop. Therefore, the current in the loop POMP circulates anticlockwise with the motional emf directed from P to O.]

23. Solve the following
Question 1.
A straight metal wire slides to the right at a constant 5 m/s along a pair of parallel metallic rails 25 cm apart. A 10 Ω resistor connects the rails on the left end. The entire setup lies wholly inside a uniform magnetic field of strength 0.5 T, directed into the page. Find the magnitude and direction of the induced current in the circuit.
Solution:
Data : v = 5 m/s, l = 0.25 m, R = 10 Ω, B = 0.5T
The induced current,
i = \(\frac{e}{R}=\frac{B l v}{R}=\frac{(0.5)(0.25)(5)}{10}\) = 0.0625 A
Since the magnetic flux into the page through the | closed conducting loop increases, the induced current in the loop must be anticlockwise. Alternatively, Fleming’s right hand rule gives the direction of induced current in the moving wire from bottom to top.

Question 2.
A straight conductor (rod) of length 0.3 m is rotated about one end at a constant 6280 rad/s in a plane normal to a uniform magnetic field of induction 5 × 10-5 T. Calculate the emf induced between its ends.
Solution:
Data : l = 0.3 m, ω = 6280 rad/s, B = 5 × 10-5 T In one rotation, the rod traces out a circle of radius l, i.e., an area, A = πl2. Therefore, the time rate at which the rod traces out the area is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 22

Question 3.
A metal rod 1/\(\sqrt{\pi}\) m long rotates about one of its ends in a plane perpendicular to a magnetic field of induction 4 × 10-3 T. Calculate the number of revolutions made by the rod per second if the emf induced between the ends of the rod is 16 m V.
Solution :
Data : r = l = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\pi}}\) m, B = 4 × 10-3 T, |e| = 16 mV = 16 × 10-3 V
In one rotation, the rod traces out a circle of radius Z, i.e., an area, A = πl2
Therefore, the time rate at which the rod traces out the area is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 23

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction

Question 4.
A cycle wheel with 10 spokes, each of length 0. 5 m, is moved at a speed of 18 km/h in a plane normal to the Earth’s magnetic induction of 3.6 × 10-5 T. Calculate the emf induced between
(i) the axle and the rim of the cycle wheel
(ii) ends of a single spoke and ten spokes.
Solution:
Data : r = l = 0.5 m, v = 18 km/h = \(\frac{18000}{3600}\) = 5 m/s,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 24
Since the spokes have common ends (the axle and wheel rim), they are connected in parallel. Hence,
the emf induced between the end of a single spoke and the other common end of ten spokes is also 4.5 × 10-5 V.

Since the total emf of this parallel combination of identical emfs e is equal to a single emf e, the emf induced between the axle and wheel rim is equal to 4.5 × 10-5 V.

Question 24.
Briefly describe with necessary diagrams the experimental setup to investigate the phenomenon of electromagnetic induction for a magnet swinging through a coil.
Answer:
Apparatus: A permanent magnet is mounted at the centre of the arc of a semicircular aluminium frame of radius 50 cm. The whole frame is pivoted at its centre and can oscillate freely in its plane, from figure (a). Movable weights m1 and m2 on the radial arms of the frame can be symmetrically positioned to adjust the period of oscillation from about 1.5s to 3s. The magnet can freely pass through a copper coil of about 10000 turns.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 25
When the magnet swings through and out of the coil, the magnetic flux through the coil changes, inducing an emf. The amplitude of the swing can be read from the graduations on the arc. Since the induced emf will be small, it may be measured by connecting the terminals of the coils to a CRO (cathode-ray oscilloscope, or they may be connected to a 100 pF capacitor through a diode, from figure (b), and the voltage across the capacitor is measured. The resistor in series with the diode helps to adjust the capacitor charging time ( = RC).

[Note : Real-time graphs can be captured using a datalogger connected to a computer. The datalogger uses rotary motion, voltage and magnetic field sensors to measure the angle, the induced voltage and the magnetic flux, respectively.]

Question 25.
In the experiment to investigate the phenomenon of electromagnetic induction for a magnet swinging through a coil, relate the graphical representations (flux-time and voltage-time) with the motion of the magnet.
Answer:
In the demonstration of a magnet swinging through a coil, a voltage is induced in the coil as the magnet swings through it. For the discussion, we assume the length of the magnet to be smaller (about half) than the length of the coil and the North pole of the magnet swings into the coil from the left. (The polarity of the induced voltage pulse depends on the polarity of the magnet.)

We take the magnetic flux linked with the coil to be nearly zero when the magnet is high up away from the coil. As the magnet moves through it the coil and recedes, the magnetic field through the coil increases to its maximum and then decreases. There is a substantial magnetic field at the coil only when it is very near the magnet. Moreover, the speed of the magnet is maximum when it is at the centre of the coil, since it is then at the mean position of its oscillation. Thus the magnetic field changes quite slowly when the magnet is far away and rapidly as it approaches the coil, from figure (a).
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 26
The flux through the coil increases as the north pole approaches the left end of the coil, and reaches a maximum when the magnet is exactly midway in the coil, as shown by the portion be in from figure (a). By Lenz’s law, the induced emf will produce a leftward flux that will seek to oppose the increasing magnetic flux of the magnet through the coil.

The interval cd, when the flux is maximum but remains constant and induced emf is zero, corresponds to the situation where the magnet is wholly inside the coil.

Once the magnet swings past the centre of the coil, the flux through the coil starts to decrease-the interval de. To reinforce the decreasing flux of the magnet through the coil, a rightward flux is now induced, thereby flipping the polarity of the induced emf.

If we use a coil that is shorter than the magnet, the time interval cd for which the induced emf remains zero would have been shorter. The times f1 and f2 in from figure (a) are the points of inflection of the curve, and in from figure (b) are obviously the minimum and maximum of the induced emf, respectively. The sequence of two pulses, one negative and one positive, occurs during just half a cycle. On the return swing of the magnet, they are repeated in the same order.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction

Question 26.
In the experiment to investigate the phenomenon of electromagnetic induction for a magnet swinging through a coil, show that the peak induced emf is directly proportional to the speed of the magnet (or show that the peak induced emf is directly proportional to the angular amplitude and inversely proportional to the time period).
Answer:
In the experiment, a magnet is swung through a coil in a radius R. The angular position θ of the magnet is measured from the vertical, the mean position of the swing. The angular amplitude is θ0.

The kinetic energy of the system is \(\frac{1}{2}\) Iω2 and the potential energy (relative to the lowest position of the magnet) is MgR(1 – cos θ), where M is mass of the system. Conservation of energy gives, for small θ,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 27
as required. The rate of change of flux through the coil is essentially proportional to the velocity of the magnet as it passes through the coil. By choosing different amplitudes of oscillation of the magnet, we can alter this velocity.

Question 27.
What is an ac generator? State the principle of an ac generator.
Answer:
An electric generator or dynamo converts mechanical energy into electric energy, just the opposite of what an electric motor does.

Principle : An AC generator works on electro-magnetic induction : When a coil of wire rotates between two poles of a permanent magnet such that the magnetic flux through the coil changes periodically with time due to a change in the angle between the area vector and the magnetic field, an alternating emf is induced in the coil causing a current to pass when the circuit is closed.

Question 28.
Briefly describe the construction of a simple ac generator. Obtain an expression for the emf induced in a coil rotating with a uniform angular velocity in a uniform magnetic field. Show graphically the variation of the emf with time (t). OR Describe the construction of a simple ac generator and explain its working.
Answer:
Construction : A simplified diagram of an ac generator is shown in below figure 12.18. It consists of many loops of wire wound on an armature that can rotate in a magnetic field. When the armature is turned by some mechanical means, an emf is generated in the rotating coil.

Consider the coil to have N turns, each of area A, and rotated with a constant angular speed ω – about an axis in the plane of the coil and perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field \(\vec{B}\), as shown in the figure. The frequency of rotation of the coil is f = ω / 2π.

Working : The angle 9 between the magnetic field \(\vec{B}\) and the area of the coil \(\vec{A}\) at any instant t is θ = ωt (assuming θ = 0° at t = 0). At this position, the magnetic flux through the coil is
Φm = \(N \vec{B} \cdot \vec{A}\) = NBA cos θ = NBA cos ωt
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 28
∴ e = e0 sin ωt, where e0 = NBAω.
Therefore the induced emf varies as sin cot and is called sinusoidally alternating emf. In one rotation of the coil, sin cot varies between +1 and – 1 and hence the induced emf varies between +e0 and -e0. The maximum value e0 of an alternating emf is called the peak value or amplitude of the emf.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 29
The sinusoidal variation of emf with time t is shown in above figure. The emf changes direction at the end of every half rotation of the coil. The frequency of the alternating emf is equal to the frequency/of rotation of the coil. The period of the alternating emf is T = \(\frac{1}{f}\)

Imagine looking at the coil of the ac generator from the slip rings along the rotation axis in Fig. 12.18. The magnetic flux, rate of change of flux and sign of the induced emf are shown in the table below for the different orientations of the coil as in below figure.

Coil orientation

Flux Φm m/dt

Induced emf

1 Positive maximum Momentarily zero (constant flux) Zero
2 Positive Decreasing (negative) Positive
3 Zero Decreasing (negative) Positive
4 Negative Decreasing (negative) Positive
5 Negative maximum Momentarily zero (constant flux) Zero
6 Negative Increasing (positive) Negative
7 Zero Increasing (positive) Negative
8 Positive Increasing (positive) Negative
9 Return to positive maximum Momentarily zero (constant flux) Zero

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 30

Question 29.
How does a dc generator differ from an ac generator?
Answer:
A dc generator is much like an ac generator, except that the slip rings at the ouput are replaced by a split-ring commutator, just as in a dc motor.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 31
The output of a dc generator is a pulsating dc as shown in Fig. 12.22. For a smoother output, a capacitor filter is connected in parallel with the output (see below figure for reference).
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 32

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction

Question 30
Explain back emf in a motor.
Answer:
A generator converts mechanical energy into electrical energy, whereas a motor converts electrical energy into mechanical energy. Also, motors and generators have the same construction. When the coil of a motor is rotated by the input emf, the changing magnetic flux through the coil induces an emf, consistent with Faraday’s law of induction. A motor thus acts as a generator whenever its coil rotates. According to Lenz’s law, this induced emf opposes any change, so that the input emf that powers the motor is opposed by the motor’s self-generated emf. This self-generated emf is called a back emf because it opposes the change producing it.

Question 31.
A motor draws more current when it starts than when it runs at its full (i.e., operating) speed. Explain.
OR
When a pump or refrigerator (or other large motor) starts up, lights in the same circuit dim briefly.
Answer:
The back emf is effectively the generator output of a motor, and is proportional to the angular velocity co of the motor. Hence, when the motor is first turned on, the back emf is zero and the coil receives the full input voltage. Thus, the motor draws maximum current when it is first turned on. As the motor speeds up, the back emf grows, always opposing the driving emf, and reduces the voltage across the coil and the amount of current it draws. This explains why a motor draws more current when it first comes on, than when it runs at its normal operating speed.

The effect is noticeable when a high power motor, like that of a pump, refrigerator or washing machine is first turned on. The large initial current causes the voltage at the outlets in the same circuit to drop. Due to the IR drop produced in feeder lines by the large current drawn by the motor, lights in the same circuit dim briefly.

[Note : A motor is designed to run at a certain speed for a given applied voltage. A mechanical overload on the motor slows it down appreciably. If the rotation speed is reduced, the back emf will not be as high as designed for and the current will increase. At too low speed, the large current can even burn its coil. On the other hand, if there is no mechanical load on the motor, its angular velocity will increase until the back emf is nearly equal to the driving emf. Then, the motor uses only enough energy to overcome friction.]

Question 32.
What is back torque in a generator?
Answer:
In an electric generator, the mechanical rotation of the armature induces an emf in its coil. This is the output emf of the generator. Under no-load condition, there is no current although the output emf exists, and it takes little effort to rotate the armature.

However, when a load current is drawn, the situation is similar to a current-carrying coil in an external magnetic field. Then, a torque is exerted, and this torque opposes the rotation. This is called back torque or counter torque.

Because of the back torque, the external agent has to apply a greater torque to keep the generator running. The greater the load current, the greater is the back torque.

33. Solve the following 
Question 1.
An ac generator spinning at a rate of 750 rev/min produces a maximum emf of 45 V. At what angular speed does this generator produce a maximum emf of 102 V ?
Solution:
Data : e1 = 45 V, f1 = 750 rpm, e2 = 102 V
e = NABω = NAB(2πf) ∴ e ∝ f
∴\(\frac{e_{2}}{e_{1}}=\frac{f_{2}}{f_{1}}\)
∴ f2 = \(\frac{e_{2}}{e_{1}}\) × f1 = \(\frac{102}{45}\) × 750 = 1700 rpm
This is the required frequency of the generator coil.

Question 2.
An ac generator has a coil of 250 turns rotating at 60 Hz in a magnetic field of \(\frac{0.6}{\pi}\) T. What must be the area of each turn of the coil to produce a maximum emf of 180 V ?
Solution:
Data : N = 250, f = 60 Hz, B = \(\frac{0.6}{\pi}\) T
e0 = NABω = NAB (2πf)
∴ A = \(\frac{e_{0}}{N B 2 \pi f}=\frac{180}{(250)(0.6 / \pi)(2 \pi \times 60)}=\frac{18}{25 \times 72}\)
= 10-2 m2
This must be the area of each turn of the coil.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction

Question 3.
A dynamo attached to a bicycle has a 200 turn coil, each of area 0.10 m2. The coil rotates half a revolution per second and is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.02 T. Find the maximum voltage generated in the coil.
Solution:
Data : N = 200, A = 0.1 m2, f = 0.5 Hz, B = 0.02T
e0 = NABω = NAB (2πf)
Therefore, the maximum voltage generated,
e0 = (200)(0.1)(0.02)(2 × 3.142 × 0.5) = 1.26 V

Question 4.
A motor has a coil resistance of 5 Ω. If it draws 8.2 A when running at full speed and connected to a 220 V line, how large is the back emf ?
Solution:
Data : R = 5 Ω, I = 8.2 A, eappIied = 220 V
eappIied – eback =IR = 0
∴ eback = appIied – IR = 220 – (8.2)(5)
= 220 – 42 = 178 V

Question 5.
The back emf in a motor is 100 V when operating . at 2500 rpm. What would be the back emf at 1800 rpm? Assume the magnetic field remains unchanged.
Solution:
Data : e1 = 100 V, f1 = 2500 rpm, f2 = 1800 rpm
The back emf is proportional to the angular speed.
∴ \(\frac{e_{2}}{e_{1}}=\frac{f_{2}}{f_{1}}\)
∴ e2 = \(\frac{f_{2}}{f_{1}}\) × e1 = \(\frac{1800}{2500}\) × 100 = 72V
This is the back emf at lower speed.

Question 6.
The armature windings of a dc motor have a resistance of 10 Ω. The motor is connected to a 220 V line, and when the motor reaches full speed at normal load, the back emf is 160 V. Calculate
(a) the current when the motor is just starting up
(b) the current at full speed,
(c) What will be the current if the load causes it to run at half speed ?
Solution:
Data : R = 10 Ω, eappIied = 220 V, eback = 160 V,
f2 = f1/2 .
eappIied – eback – IR = 0
(a) At start up, back emf is zero.
∴ Istart = \(\frac{e_{\text {applied }}}{R}=\frac{220}{10}\) = 22 A

(b) At full speed,
Inormal = \(\frac{e_{\text {applied }}-e_{\text {back }}}{R}=\frac{220-160}{10}=\frac{60}{10}\) = 6 A

(c) Back emf is proprtional to rotational speed. Thus, if the motion is running at half the speed, back emf is half the original value, i.e., 80 V. Therefore, at half speed,
I2 = \(\frac{e_{\text {applied }}-e_{2}}{R}=\frac{220-80}{10}=\frac{140}{10}\) = 14 A

Question 34.
Find an expression for the power expended in pulling a conducting loop out of a magnetic field.
Answer:
When an external agent produces a relative motion between a conducting loop and an external magnetic field, a magnetic force resists the motion, requiring the applied force to do positive work. The work done is transferred to the material of the loop as thermal energy because of the electrical resistance of the material to the current that is induced by the motion.

Proof : Consider a rectangular wire loop ABCD of width l, with its plane perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of induction \(\vec{B}\). The loop is being pulled out of the magnetic field at a constant speed v, as shown in below figure (a).
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 33
At any instant, let x be the length of the part of the loop in the magnetic field. As the loop moves to the right through a distance dx = vdt in time dt, the area of the loop inside the field changes by dA = ldx = lvdt. And, the change in the magnetic flux dΦm through the loop is
m = BdA = Blvdt ………….. (1)
Then, the time rate of change of magnetic flux is
\(\frac{d \Phi_{\mathrm{m}}}{d t}=\frac{B l v d t}{d t}\) = B l v ……………. (2)
By Faraday’s second law, the magnitude of the induced emf is
|e| = \(\frac{d \Phi_{\mathrm{m}}}{d t}\) = B l v ………….. (3)

Due to the motion of the loop, the tree electrons (charge, e) in the wire inside the field experience Lorentz force \(e \vec{v} \times \vec{B}\). In the wire PQ this force moves the Free electrons 1mm P to Q making them travel in the anticlockwise sense around the 1oop. Therefore, the induced conventional current I is in the clockwise sense, as shown.

From figure (b) shows the equivalent circuit of the loop, where the induced emf e is a distributed emf and R is the total resistance of the loop.
∴ I = \(\frac{|e|}{R}=\frac{B l v}{R}\) …………… (4)
Now, a straight current carrying conductor of length L in a magnetic held experiences a torce
\(\vec{F}=I \vec{L} \times \vec{B}\)
whose direction can be found using Fleming’s Left hand rule.

Accordingly, forces \(\vec{F}_{2}\) and \(\vec{F}_{3}\) on wires AH and CD, respectively, are equal in magnitude (= Ix8), opposite in direction and have the same line of action- Hence, they balance each other. There is no torce on the wire BC as it hes outside the field.

The force \(\vec{F}_{1}\) on the wire AD has magnitude F1 = IlB and Is directed towards the left. To move the loop with constant velocity \(\vec{v}\), an external force \(\vec{F}=-\vec{F}_{1}\) must be applied. Therefore, in magnitude,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 34
Because B, l and R are constants a force of constant magnitude F is required to move the loop at constant speed v.

Thus, the power or the rate of doing work by the external agent is
P = \(\vec{F} \cdot \vec{v}\) = Fv = \(\frac{B^{2} l^{2} v^{2}}{R}\) ………….. (5)

Question 35.
Why and where are eddy currents undesirable ? How are they minimized ?
Answer:
Eddy currents result in generation of heat (energy loss) in the cores of transformers, motors, induction coils, etc.

To minimize the eddy currents, instead of a solid metal block, cores are made of thin insulated metal strips or laminae.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction

Question 36.
If a magnet is dropped through a long thick- walled vertical copper tube, it attains a constant velocity after some time. Explain.
Answer:
Every thin transverse section of a thick-walled vertical copper tube is an annular disc. The downward motion of the magnet causes increased magnetic flux through such conducting discs. By Lenz’s . law, the induced or eddy current around the discs produces a magnetic field of its own to oppose the change in flux due to the magnet’s motion.

Initially, as the magnet falls under gravity, its speed increases. But, quickly the vertically upward force on the magnet due to the induced current becomes equal in magnitude to the gravitational force on the magnet and the net force on the magnet becomes zero. The subsequent motion of the magnet is at this constant terminal speed.

Question 37.
Describe in brief an experiment to demonstrate that eddy currents oppose the cause producing them.
Answer:
Apparatus : A strong electromagnet; two thick copper discs (4″ dia, \(\frac{1}{4}\)” thick), each attached to a rod about 30″ long. One of the discs has several vertical slots, about 80 % of the way up. The pendulums can be suspended from a lab stand by a pivot mount and made to oscillate between closely-spaced pole pieces of the electromagnet.

Experiment: When the electromagnet is not turned on, both the pendulums swing freely with some damping due to air resistance. When the electromagnet is turned on, the slotted pendulum still swings, although a little more damped, but the solid pendulum practically stops dead between the pole pieces of the magnet immediately.

Conclusion : As the pendulums enter or exit the magnetic field, the changing magnetic flux sets up eddy currents in the discs. The sense of the eddy currents is so as to produce a torque that opposes the rotation of the discs about their pivot. This opposing torque produces a breaking action, damping the oscillations.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 35
In the case of the solid disc, the continuous volume of the disc offers large unbroken path to the swirling electrons. Thus, the eddy current builds up to a large magnitude. The thicker the disc, the larger is the eddy current and, consequently, the larger the damping.

In the case of the slotted disc, the vertical slots do not allow large eddy current and, consequently, the damping is small.

Question 38.
A solid conducting plate swings like a pendulum about a pivot into a region of uniform magnetic field, as shown in the diagram. As it enters and leaves the field, show and explain the directions of the eddy current induced in the plate and the force on the plate.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 36
Answer:
Figure shows the eddy currents in the conducting plate as it enters and leaves the magnetic field. In both cases, it experiences a force \(\vec{F}\) opposing its motion. As the plate enters from the left, the magnetic flux through the plate increases. This sets up an eddy current in the anticlockwise direction, as shown. Since only the right-hand side of the current loop is inside the field, by Fleming’s right hand rule (FRH rule), an unopposed force acts on it to the left. There is no eddy current once the plate is completely inside the uniform field. When the plate leaves the field on the right, the decreasing flux causes an eddy current in the clockwise direction. The damping magnetic force on the current is to the left, further slowing the motion.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 37
The eddy current in the plate results in mechanical energy being dissipated as thermal energy. Each time the plate enters and leaves the field, a part of its mechanical energy is transformed into thermal energy. After a few swings, the mechanical energy becomes zero and the motion comes to a stop with the warmed-up plate hanging vertically.

39. Solve the following 
Question 1.
A metal rod of resistance of 15 Ω is moved to the right at a constant 60 cm/s along two parallel conducting rails-25 cm apart and shorted at one end. A magnetic field of magnitude 0.35 T points into the page, (a) What are the induced emf and current in the rod? (b) At what rate is thermal energy generated?
Solution:
Data: R = 15Ω, v = 0.6 m/s, l = 0.25m, B = 0.35T
(a) Induced emf, e = Blv = (0.35)(0.25)(0.6)
= 0.0525 V = 52.5 mV
The current in the rod, I = \(\frac{e}{\mathrm{R}}=\frac{52.5}{15}\) = 3 5 mA

(b) Power dissipated, P = eI = 0.0525 × 3.5 × 10-4
= 0.184 mW

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction

Question 2.
A conducting rod 10 cm long is being pulled along horizontal, frictionless conducting rails at a con-stant 5 m/s. The rails are shorted at one end with a metal strip. There is a uniform magnetic field of strength 1.2 T out of the page in the region in which the rod moves. If the resistance of the rod is 0.5 Ω, what is the power of the external agent pulling the rod? Assume that the resistance of the rails is negligibly small.
Solution:
Data: l = 0.1 m, B = 1.2T, v = 5 m/s. R = 0.5 Ω
Power, P = \(\frac{(B l v)^{2}}{R}=\frac{(1.2 \times 0.1 \times 5)^{2}}{0.5}\) = 0.72 W

Question 40.
Explain the concept of self induction.
Answer:
Consider an isolated coil or circuit in which there is a current I. The current produces a magnetic flux linked with the coil.

The magnetic flux linked with the coil can be changed by varying the current in the coil itself, e.g., by breaking and closing the circuit. This produces a self-induced emf in the coil, called a back emf because it opposes the change producing it. It sets up an induced current in the coil itself in the same direction as the original current opposing its decrease when the key K is suddenly opened. When the key K is closed, the induced current is opposite to the conventional current, opposing its increase.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 38
When the current through a coil changes continuously, e.g., by a time-varying applied emf, the magnetic flux linked with the coil also goes on changing.

The production of induced emf in a coil, due to the changes of current in the same coil, is called self induction.

Question 41.
Explain and define the self inductance of a coil.
OR
Define the coefficient of self induction.
Answer:
When the current through a coil goes on changing, the magnetic flux linked with the coil also goes on changing. The magnetic flux (NΦm) linked with the coil at any instant is directly proportional to the current (I) through the coil at that instant.
m ∝ I
∴ NΦm = LI
where L is a constant, dependent on the geometry of the coil, called the self inductance or the coefficient, of self induction of the coil.
The self-induced emf in the coil is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 39
Definition : The self inductance or the coefficient of self induction of a coil is defined as the emf induced in the coil per unit time rate of change of current in the same coil. OR (using L = NΦm/I), the self inductance of a coil is the ratio of magnetic flux linked with the coil to the current in it.

Question 42.
State and define the SI unit of self inductance. Give its dimensions.
OR
Write the SI unit and dimensions of the coefficient of self induction.
Answer:
The SI unit of self inductance or coefficient of self induction or inductance as it is commonly called is called the henry (H).

The self-inductance of a coil is 1 henry, if an emf of 1 volt is induced in the coil when the current through the same coil changes at the rate of 1 ampere per second.

The dimensions of self inductance or coefficient of self induction are [ML2T-2I-2].
1 henry = 1 H = 1 V/A.s = 1 T.m2/A

[ Note : The unit henry is named in honour of Joseph Henry (1797-1878) US physicist.]

Question 43.
What is an inductor?
Answer:
An inductor is a coil of wire with significant self inductance. If the coil is wound on a nonmagnetic cylinder or former, such as ceramic or plastic, it is called an air-core inductor; its circuit symbol is Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 40. If the cod is wound on a magnetic former. such as laminated iron or ferrite. it Is called an iron core inductor; its circuit symbol is Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 41.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction

Question 44.
Current passes through a coil shown from left to right. In which direction is th induced emf. if the current is (a) increasing with time (b) decreasing in time?
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 42
Answer:
From Lent’s law, the induced emf must oppose the diange in the magnetic flux. (a) When the current mcreases to the right, so is the magnetic flux. To oppose the increasing flux to the tight. the induced emi Is to the left. i.e.. the point A is at a positive potential relative to point B.

(b) When the current to the right is decreasing the induced emf acts to boost up the flux to the right and points to the tight, so that the point A is at a negative potential relative to point B.

Question 45.
Derive an expression for the energy stored in the magnetic field of an inductor.
OR
Derive an expression for the electrical work done in establishing a steady current in a coil of self inductance L.
Answer:
Consider an inductor of sell inductance L connected in a circuit When the circuit is dosed, the current in the circuit increases and so does the magnetic flux linked with the coiL At any instant the magnitude of the induced emf is
e = L \(\frac{d i}{d t}\)
The power consumed in the inductor is
P = ei = L \(\frac{d i}{d t}\) ∙ i
[Alternatively, the work done in moving a charge dq against this emf e is
dw = edq = L \(\frac{d i}{d t}\) ∙ dq = Li ∙ di (∵ \(\frac{d q}{d t}\) = i)
This work done is stored in the magnetic field of the inductor. dw = du.]

The total energy stored In the magnetic field when the current increases from 0 to I In a time interval from 0 to t can be determined by integrating this expression :
Um = \(\int_{0}^{t} P d t=\int_{0}^{I} L i d i=L \int_{0}^{I} i d i=\frac{1}{2} L I^{2}\)
which is the required expression for the stored magnetic energy.
[Note: Compare this with the electric energy stored in a capacitor, Ue = \(\frac{1}{2}\)CV2]

Question 46.
State the expression for the energy stored in’the magnetic field of an inductor. Hence, define its self inductance.
Answer:
When a steady current is passed through an inductor of self inductance L the energy stored in the
magnetic field of the inductor is Um = \(\frac{1}{2}\)Li2]. Therefore, for unit current, L = 2Um

Hence, we may define the self inductance of a coil as numerically equal to twice the energy stored in its magnetic field for unit current through the inductor.

Question 47.
What is the role of an inductor in an ac circuit ?
Answer:
As a circuit element, an inductor slows down changes in the current in the circuit. Thus, it provides an electrical inertia and is said to act as a ballast. In a non-inductive coil (L ≅ 0), electrical energy is converted into heat due to ohmic resistance of the coil (Joule heating). On the other hand, an inductive coil or an inductor stores part of the energy in the magnetic field of its coils when the current through it is increasing; this energy is released when the current is decreasing. Thus, an inductor limits an alternating current more efficiently than a non-inductive coil or a pure resistor.

Question 48.
State the expressions for the effective or equivalent inductance of a combination of a number of inductors connected (a) in series (b) in parallel. Assume that their mutual inductance can be ignored.
Answer:
We assume that the inductors are so far apart that their mutual inductance is negligible.
(a) For a series combination of a number of inductors, L1, L2, L3, …, the equivalent inductance is
Lseries = L1 + L2 + L3+ ……..

(b) For a parallel combination of a number of inductors, L1, L2, L3, …, the equivalent inductance is
\(\frac{1}{L_{\text {parallel }}}=\frac{1}{L_{1}}+\frac{1}{L_{2}}+\frac{1}{L_{3}}+\ldots\)

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction

Question 49.
Obtain an expression for the self inductance of a solenoid.
Answer:
Consider a long air-cored solenoid of length Z, diameter d and N turns of wire. We assume that the length of the solenoid is much greater than its diameter so that the magnetic field inside the solenoid may considered to be uniform, that is, end effects in the solenoid can be ignored. With a steady current I in the solenoid, the magnetic field within the solenoid is
B = µ0nI ………….. (1)
where n = N/l is the number of turns per unit length. So the magnetic flux through one turn is
Φm = BA = µ0nIA ……….. (2)
Hence, the self inductance of the solenoid,
L = \(\frac{N \Phi_{\mathrm{m}}}{I}\) =(nl)µ0nA = µ0n2lA = µ0n2 V ………….. (3)
= µ0n2l\(\frac{\pi d^{2}}{4}\) …………. (4)
where V = lA is the interior volume of the solenoid. Equation (3) or (4) gives the required expression.

[Note: It is evident thatthe self inductance of a long solenoid depends only on its physical properties – such as the number of turns of wire per unit length and the volume, and not on the magnetic field or the current. This is true for inductors in general.] .

Question 50.
State the expression for the self inductance of a solenoid. Hence show that the SI unit of magnetic permeability is the henry per metre.
Answer:
The self inductance of an air-cored long solenoid of volume V and number of turns per unit length n is L = µ0n2V. Since [n2] = [L-2], n2V has the dimension of length. The SI unit of the L being the henry, the SI unit of magnetic permeability (µ0) is the henry per metre (H / m). .
µ0 = 4π × 10-7 H/m = 4π × 10-7 T∙m/A

Question 51.
Derive an expression for the self inductance of a narrow air-cored toroid of circular cross section.
Answer:
Consider a narrow air-cored toroid of circular cross section of radius r, central radius R and number of turns N. So that, assuming r << R, the magnetic field in the toroidal cavity is considered to be uniform, equal to
B = \(\frac{\mu_{0} N I}{2 \pi R}\) = µ0nI ………….. (1)
where n = \(\frac{N}{2 \pi R}\) is the number of turns of the wire 2nR per unit length. The area of cross section, A = πr2.
The magnetic flux through one turn is
Φm = BA = µ0nIA ………… (2)
Hence, the self inductance of the toroid,
L = \(\frac{N \Phi_{\mathrm{m}}}{I}\) = (2πRn) µ0nA = µ02πRn2A = µ0n2V …………… (3)
= \(\frac{\mu_{0} N^{2} r^{2}}{2 R}\) ………….. (4)
where V = 2πRA is the volume of the toroidal cavity. Equation (3) or (4) gives the required expression.

Question 52.
Obtain an expression for the energy density of a magnetic field.
Answer:
Consider a short length ¡ near the middle of a long, tightly wound solenoid, of cross-sectional area A, number of turns per unit length n and carrying a steady current I. For such a solenoid, the magnetic field is approximately uniform everywhere inside and zero outside. So, the magnetic energy Um stored by this length l of the solenoid lies entirely within the volume Al.

The magnetic field inside the solenoid is
B = µ0nI …………… (1)
and if L be the inductance of length l of the solenoid,
L = µ0 n2lA …………… (2)
The stored magnetic energy,
Um = \(\frac{1}{2}\)LI2 …………. (3)
and the energy density of the magnetic field (energy per unit volume) is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 43
Equation (6) gives the magnetic energy density in vacuum at any point in a magnetic field of induction B, irrespective of how the field is produced.

[Note : Compare Eq.(6) with the electric energy density in vacuum at any point in an electric field of intensity
e, ue = \(\frac{1}{2}\) ε0e2. Both ue and um are proportional to the square of the appropriate field magnitude.]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction

Question 53.
Determine the magnetic energy stored per unit length of a coaxial cable, represented by two coaxial cylindrical shells of radii a (inner) and b (outer), and carrying a current I. Hence derive an expression for the self inductance of the coaxial cable of length l.
Answer:
Figure (a) shows a coaxial cable represented by two hollow, concentric cylindrical conductors along which there is electric current in opposite directions. The magnetic field between the conductors can be found by applying Ampere’s law to the dashed path of radius r{a < r < b) in figure (a). Because of the cylindrical symmetry, B is constant along the path, and
\(\oint \vec{B} \cdot \overrightarrow{d l}\) = B (2πr) = u0I
∴ B = \(\frac{\mu_{0} I}{2 \pi r}\) ……………… (1)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 44
A similar application of Ampere’s law for r > b and r < a, shows that B = 0 in both the regions. Therefore, all the magnetic energy is stored between the two conductors of the cable.
The energy density of the magnetic field is
um = \(\frac{B^{2}}{2 \mu_{0}}\) …………….. (2)
Therefore, substituting for B from Eq. (1) into Eq. (2), the magnetic energy stored in a cylindrical shell of radius r, thickness dr and length l is
dUm = umdV = um(2πr ∙ dr ∙ l)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 45
Equating the right hand sides of Eqs. (4) and (6),
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 46

54. Solve the following
Question 1.
A coil of self inductance 5 H is connected in series with a switch and a battery. After the switch is closed, the steady state value of the current is 5 A. The switch is then suddenly opened, causing the current to drop to zero in 0.2 s. Find the emf developed across the inductor (coil) as the switch is opened.
Solution:
Data : L = 5 H, Ii = 5 A, If = 0, ∆t = 0.2 s
The rate of change of current,
\(\frac{d I}{d t}=\frac{I_{\mathrm{f}}-I_{\mathrm{i}}}{\Delta t}=\frac{0-5}{0.2}\) = – 25 A/s
∴ The induced emf,
e = -L \(\frac{d I}{d t}\) = -5(-25) = 125 V

Question 2.
A toroidal coil has an inductance of 47 mH. Find the maximum self-induced emf in the coil when the current in it is reversed from 15 A to -15 A in 0.01 s.
Solution:
Data : L = 4.7 × 10-2 H, Ii = 15A, Ii = -15 A,
∆f = 0.01 s
The rate of change of current,
\(\frac{d I}{d t}=\frac{I_{\mathrm{f}}-I_{\mathrm{i}}}{\Delta t}=\frac{(-15)-15}{0.01}\) = – 3000 A/s
∴ The maximum self-induced emf,
e = – L \(\frac{d I}{d t}\) (4.7 × 10-2) (- 3000) = 141 V

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction

Question 3.
An emf of 2 V is induced in a closely-wound coil of 50 turns when the current through it increases uniformly from O to 5 A in 0.1 s. (a) What is the self inductance of the coil? (b) What is the flux through each turn of the coil for a steady current at 5A?
Solution:
Data : e = 2 V, N = 50, Ii = 0, If = 5A, ∆t = 0.1 s
(a) The rate of change of current
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 47
This is the flux through each turn.

Question 4.
At the instant the current through a coil is 0.2 A, the energy stored in its magnetic field is 6 mJ. What is the self indudance of the coil ?
Solution:
Data: I = 0.2A, Um = 6 × 10-3 J
Um = \(\frac{1}{2}\) LI2
Therefore, self inductance of the coil is

Question 5.
A coil of self inductance 3 H and resistance 100 Ω carries a steady current of 2 A. (a) What is the energy stored in the magnetic field of the coil? (b) What is the energy per second dissipated in the resistance of the coil ?
Solution:
Data : L = 3 H, R = 100 Ω, I = 2 A
(a) Magnetic energy stored,
Um = \(\frac{1}{2}\) LI2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) (3) (2)2 = 6 J

(b) Power dissipated in the resistance of the coil,
P = I2R = (2)2(100) = 400 W

Question 6.
A 10 H inductor carries a current of 25 A. Flow much ice at 0 °C could be melted by the energy stored in the magnetic field of the inductor ? [Latent heat of fusion of ice, Lf = 335 J/g]
Solution:
Data : L = 10 H, Z = 25 A, Lf = 335 J/g
Magnetic energy stored,
Um = \(\frac{1}{2}\) LI2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) (10) (25)2 = 3125 J
Heat energy required to melt ice at 0 °C of mass m,
H = mLf
Equating H with Um,
m = \(\frac{U_{\mathrm{m}}}{L_{\mathrm{f}}}=\frac{3125}{335}\) = 9.328 g
Therefore, 9.328 g of ice could be melted by the energy stored.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction

Question 7.
A solenoid 40 cm long has a cross-sectional area of 0.9 cm2 and is tightly wound with wire of diameter 1 mm. Calculate the self inductance of the solenoid.
Solution:
Data : D = 1 mm, l = 40 cm = 0.4 m, A = 0.9 cm2 = 9 × 10-5 m2, Ii = 10 A, If = 0, ∆t = 0.1 s,
μ0 = 4π × 10-7 H/m
The number of turns per unit length,
n = \(\frac{1}{1 \mathrm{~mm}}\) = 1 mm-1 = 103 m-1
Self inductance of the solenoid,
L = μ0n2lA = (4π × 10-7)(103)2(0.4)(9 × 10-5)
= 16 × 9 × 3.142 × 10-7 = 4.524 × 10-5 H

Question 8.
A solenoid of 1000 turns is wound with wire of diameter 0.1 cm and has a self inductance of 2.4 π × 10-5 H. Find (a) the cross-sectional area of the solenoid (b) the magnetic flux through one turn of the solenoid when a current of 3 A flows through it.
Solution:
Data: N = 1000, D = 0.1 cm, L = 2.4π × 10-5 H,
I = 3A, μ0 = 4π × 10-7 H/m
The number of turns per unit length.
n = \(\frac{1}{1 \mathrm{~mm}}\) = 1 mm-1 = 103 m-1
and the length of the solenoid,
l = ND = 1000 × 0.1 = 100 cm = 1 m
L = μ0n2lA

(a) The area of cross section,
A = \(\frac{L}{\mu_{0} n^{2} l}=\frac{2.4 \pi \times 10^{-5}}{\left(4 \pi \times 10^{-7}\right)\left(10^{3}\right)^{2}(1)}=\frac{24 \pi}{4 \pi} \times 10^{-5}\)
= 6 × 10-5 m2

(b) Magnetic flux through one turn,
Φm = BA = (μ0nI)A
= (4π × 10-7)(103)(3)(6 × 10-5)
= 72π × 10-9 Wb

Question 9.
A toroid of circular cross section of radius 0.05 m has 2000 windings and a self inductance of 0.04 H. What is (a) the current through the windings when the energy in its magnetic field is 2 × 10-6 J (b) the central radius of the toroid ?
Solution:
Data : r = 0.05 m, N = 2000, L = 0.04 H,
Um = 2 × 10-6 J, μ0 = 4π × 10-7 H/m
(a) Um = \(\frac{1}{2}\) LI2
Therefore, the current in the windings,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 48

Question 10.
A coaxial cable, whose outer radius is five times its inner radius, is carrying a current of 1.5 A. What is the magnetic field energy stored in a 2 m length of the cable ?
Solution:
Data : b/a = 5, I = 1.5A, l = 2m, \(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi}\) = 10-7 H/m
The total magnetic energy in a given length of a current-carrying coaxial cable,
Um = \(\left(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi}\right) I^{2} l \log _{e} \frac{b}{a}\)
Therefore, the required magnetic energy is
Um = (10-7)(1.5)2(2)loge5
= 4.5 × 107 × 2.303 × log105
= 4.5 × 10-7 × 2.303 × 0.6990 = 7.24 × 10-7 J

Question 55.
Explain the concept/phenomenon of mutual induction.
OR
Explain and define mutual inductance of a coil with respect to another coil.
OR
Define the coefficient of mutual induction.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 49
The production of induced emf in a coil due to the change of current in the same coil is called self induction.

In above figure (a), a current I1 in coil 1 sets up a magnetic flux Φ21 through one turn of a neighbouring coil 2, magnetically linking the two coils. Then, the flux through the N2 turns of coil 2, i.e., the flux linkage of coil 2, is N2Φ21.
N2Φ21 ∝ I1
∴ N2Φ21 = M21I1 …………. (1)
where the constant of proportionality, M21, is called the coefficient of mutual induction of coil 2 with respect to coil 1. If the current I1 in coil 1 changes with time, the varying flux linkage induces an emf e2 in coil 2.
e2 = – \(\frac{d}{d t}\) (N2Φ21) = – M21 \(\frac{d I_{1}}{d t}\) …………. (2)
Similarly, if we interchange the roles of the two coils and set up a current I2 in coil 2 [from figure (b)], Then, the flux linkage of N1 turns of coil 1 is N1Φ12 and
N1Φ12 = M12I2 ………… (3)
where M12 is the coefficient of mutual induction of coil 1 with respect to coil 2. And, for a varying current I2(t), the induced emf in coil 1 is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 50
We define mutual inductance using Eq. (5) or Eq. (6).

The mutual inductance or the coefficient of mutual induction of two magnetically linked coils is equal to the flux linkage of one coil per unit current in the neighbouring coil.
OR
The mutual inductance or the coefficient of mutual induction of two magnetically linked coils is numerically equal to the emf induced in one coil (secondary) per unit time rate of change of current in the neighbouring coil (primary).

Question 56.
State and define the SI unit of mutual inductance. Give its dimensions.
Answer:
The SI unit of mutual inductance is called the henry (H).

The mutual inductance of a coil (secondary) with respect to a magnetically linked neighbouring coil (primary) is one henry if an emf of 1 volt is induced in the secondary coil when the current in the primary coil changes at the rate of 1 ampere per second.

The dimensions of mutual inductance are [ML2T-2I-2] (the same as those of self inductance).

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction

Question 57.
Two coils A and B have mutual inductance 2 × 10-2 H. If the current in the coil A is 5 sin (10πt) ampere, find the maximum emf induced in the coil B.
Ans;
The emf induced in the coil B,
|eB| = M \(\frac{d I_{\mathrm{A}}}{d t}\)
=(2 × 10-2)[5 cos (10πt)] × 10π
∴ |eB|max = π volts.

Question 58.
A long solenoid, of radius R, has n turns per unit length. An insulated coil C of IV turns is wound over it as shown. Show that the mutual inductance for the coil-solenoid combination is given by M = μ0πR2nN.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 51
Answer:
We assume the solenoid to be ideal and that all the flux from the solenoid passes through the outer coil C. For a steady current Is through the solenoid, the uniform magnetic field inside the solenoid is
B = μ0nIs ……………… (1)
Then, the magnetic flux through each turn of the coil due to the current in the solenoid is
ΦCS = BA = (μ0nIs)(πR2) ………….. (2)
Thus, their mutual inductance is
M = \(\frac{N \Phi_{\mathrm{CS}}}{I_{\mathrm{S}}}\) = μ0πR2nN ………….. (3)
Equation (2) is true as long as the magnetic field of the solenoid is entirely contained within the cross section of the coil C. Hence, M does not depend on the shape, size, or possible lack of close packing of the coil.

Question 59.
A solenoid of N1 turns has length l1 and radius R1, and a second smaller solenoid of N2 turns has length l2 and radius R2. The smaller solenoid is placed coaxially and completely inside the larger solenoid. What is their mutual inductance ?
Answer:
Assuming the larger solenoid to be ideal, the magnetic field within it may be considered uniform, so the flux through the small solenoid due to the larger solenoid is also uniform. Assuming a current I1 in the larger solenoid, the magnitude of the magnetic field at points within the small solenoid due to the larger one is
B1 = μ0\(\frac{N_{1}}{l_{1}}\) I1
Then, the flux Φ21 through each turn of the small coil is
Φ21 = B1A2
where is A2 = πR22, the area enclosed by the turn. Thus, the flux linkage in the small solenoid with its N2 turns is
N2Φ21 = N2B1A2
Thus, their mutual inductance is
M = \(\frac{N_{2} \Phi_{21}}{I_{1}}=N_{2}\left(\mu_{0} \frac{N_{1}}{l_{1}}\right)\left(\pi R_{2}^{2}\right)=\mu_{0} \pi \frac{N_{1} N_{2}}{l_{1}} R_{2}^{2}\)
which is the required expression.

Question 60.
What is meant by coefficient of magnetic coupling?
Answer:
For two inductively coupled coils, the fraction of the magnetic flux produced by the current in one coil (primary) that is linked with the other coil (secondary) is called the coefficient of magnetic coupling between the two coils.

The coupling coefficient K shows how good the coupling between the two coils is; 0 ≤ K ≤ 1. In the ideal case when all the flux of the primary passes through the secondary, K=l. For coils which are not coupled, K = 0. Two coils are tightly coupled if K > 0.5 and loosely coupled if K < 0.5.

[ Note ; For iron-core coupled circuits, the value of K may be as high as 0.99, for air-core coupled circuits, K varies between 0.4 to 0.8. ]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction

Question 61.
State the factors which magnetic coupling coefficient of two coils depends on.
Answer:
The coefficient of magnetic coupling between two coils depends on

  1. the permeability of the core on which the coils are wound
  2. the distance between the coils
  3. the angle between the coil axes.

Question 62.
When is the magnetic coupling coefficient of two coils (i) maximum (ii) minimum?
Answer:
The coefficient of magnetic coupling between two coils is

  1. maximum when the coils are wound on the same ferrite (iron) core such that the flux linkage is maximum,
  2. minimum for air-cored coils with the coil axes perpendicular.

Question 63.
Show that the mutual inductance for a pair of inductively coupled coils/circuits of self inductances L1 and L2 is given by M = K\(\sqrt{L_{1} L_{2}}\), where K is the coupling coefficient.
Answer:
Consider a pair of inductively coupled coils having N1 and N2 turns, shown in figure
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 52
A current l1(t) sets up a flux N1Φ1(t) in coil 1 and induces a current l2(t) and flux N2Φ2(t) in coil 2. Then, the self inductances of the coils are
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 53
Alternate method :
Consider a pair of inductively coupled coils shown in above figure.We assume that I1(t), I2(t) are zero at t = 0. as also the magnetic energy of the system.
The induced emfs are
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 54
The net energy Input to the system shown in figure at time t is given by
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 55
If one current enters a dot marked terminal while the other leaves a dot marked terminal, Eq. (2) becomes
W(t) = \(\frac{1}{2}\) L1(I1)2 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) L2(I1)2 – MI1I2 …………. (3)
The net electrical energy input to the system is non-negative, W(t) ≥ 0. We rearrange Eq.(3) as
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 56
The first term in the parenthesis on the right hand side of Eq. (4) is positive for all values of I1 and I2 Thus, for the second term also to be non-negative,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 57
where the coupling coefficient K is a non-negtive number, 0 ≤ K ≤ 1, and is independent of the reference directions of the currents in the coils.

Question 64.
What is a transformer?
State the principle of working of a transformer.
Answer:
A transformer is an electrical device which uses mutual induction to transform electrical power at one alternating voltage into electrical power at another alternating voltage (usually different), without change of frequency of the voltage.

Principle : A transformer works on the principle that a changing current through one coil creates a changing magnetic flux through an adjacent coil which in turn induces an emf and a current in the second coil.

Question 65.
What are step-up and step-down transformers?
Answer:

  1. Step-up transformer : It increases the amplitude of the alternating emf, i.e., it changes a low voltage alternating emf into a high voltage alternating emf with a lower current.
  2. Step-down transformer : It decreases the amplitude of the alternating emf, i.e., it changes a high voltage alternating emf into a low voltage alternating emf with a higher current.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction

Question 66.
Describe the construction and working of a transformer with a neat labelled diagram.
Answer:
Construction : A transformer consists of two coils, primary and secondary, wound on two arms of a rectangular frame called the core.
(1) Primary coil : It consists of an insulated copper wire wound on one arm of the core. Input voltage is applied at the ends of this coil.

In a step-up transformer, thick copper wire is used for primary coil. In a step-down transformer, thin copper wire is used for primary coil.

(2) Secondary coil : It consists of an insulated copper wire wound on the other arm of the core. The output voltage is obtained at the ends of this coil.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 58
In a step-up transformer, thin copper wire is used for secondary coil. In a step-down transformer, thick copper wire is used for secondary coil.

(3) Core : It consists of thin rectangular frames of soft iron stacked together, but insulated from each other. A core prepared by stacking thin sheets rather than using a single thick sheet helps reduce eddy currents.

Working : When the terminals of the primary coil are connected to a source of an alternating emf (input voltage), there is an alternating current through it. The alternating current produces a time varying magnetic field in the core of the transformer. The magnetic flux associated with the secondary coil thus varies periodically with time according to the current in the primary coil. Therefore, an alternating emf (output voltage) is induced in the secondary coil.

Question 67.
Derive the relationship \(\frac{V_{\mathrm{P}}}{V_{\mathrm{S}}}=\frac{I_{\mathrm{S}}}{I_{\mathrm{P}}}\) for a transformer.
Answer:
An alternating emf VP from an ac source is applied across the primary coil of a transformer. This sets up an alternating current IP in the primary circuit and also produces an alternating magnetic flux through the primary coil such that
VP = -NP \(\frac{d \Phi_{\mathrm{P}}}{d t}\),
where NP is the number of turns of the primary coil and ΦP is the magnetic flux through each turn.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 59
Assuming an ideal transformer (i.e., there is no leakage of magnetic flux), the same magnetic flux links both the primary and the secondary coils,
i. e., ΦP = ΦS
As a result, the alternating emf induced in the secondary coil,
VS = = NS \(\frac{d \Phi_{\mathrm{S}}}{d t}\) = – NS \(\frac{d \Phi_{\mathrm{P}}}{d t}\)

where NS is the number of turns of the secondary coil. If the secondary circuit is completed by a resistance R, the secondary current is IS = VS/R, assuming the resistance of the coil to be far less than R. Ignoring power losses, the power delivered to the primary coil equals that taken out of the secondary coil, so VPIP = VSIS.
∴ \(\frac{V_{\mathrm{P}}}{V_{\mathrm{S}}}=\frac{I_{\mathrm{S}}}{I_{\mathrm{P}}}\)
which is the required expression.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction

Question 68.
Derive the relation \(\frac{V_{\mathrm{S}}}{V_{\mathrm{P}}}=\frac{N_{\mathrm{S}}}{N_{\mathrm{P}}}\) for a transformer. Hence, explain a step-up and a step-down trans-former. Also, show that \(\frac{I_{P}}{I_{\mathrm{S}}}=\frac{N_{\mathrm{S}}}{N_{\mathrm{P}}}\)
OR
Derive expressions for the emf and current for a transformer in terms of the turns ratio.
Answer:
An alternating emf VP from an ac source is applied across the primary coil of a transformer, shown in figure.

This sets up an alternating current fP in the primary circuit and also produces an alternating magnetic flux through the primary coil such that
VP = -NP \(\frac{d \Phi_{\mathrm{P}}}{d t}\) ………….. (1)
where NP is the number of turns of the primary coil and ΦP is the magnetic flux through each turn.

Assuming an ideal transformer (i.e., there is no leakage of magnetic flux), the same magnetic flux links both the primary and the secondary coils, i.e., ΦP = ΦS.
As a result, the alternating emf induced in the secondary coil,
VS = – NS \(\frac{d \Phi_{\mathrm{S}}}{d t}\) = – NS \(\frac{d \Phi_{\mathrm{P}}}{d t}\) ……………… (2)
where NS is the number of turns of the secondary coil.
From Eqs. (1) and (2),
\(\frac{V_{\mathrm{S}}}{V_{\mathrm{P}}}=\frac{N_{\mathrm{S}}}{N_{\mathrm{P}}}\) or VS = VP \(\frac{N_{\mathrm{S}}}{N_{\mathrm{P}}}\) …………… (3)

Case (1) i If NS > NP, VS > VP. Then, the trans-former is called a step-up transformer.
Case (2) : If NS < NP, VS < VP. Then the transformer is called a step-down transformer.

Ignoring power losses, the power delivered to the primary coil equals that taken out of the secondary coil, so that VPIP = VSIS …………. (4)
From Eqs. (3) and (4),
\(\frac{I_{\mathrm{P}}}{I_{\mathrm{S}}}=\frac{V_{\mathrm{S}}}{V_{\mathrm{P}}}=\frac{N_{\mathrm{S}}}{N_{\mathrm{P}}}\)

Question 69.
What is the turns ratio of a transformer? What can you say about its value for a (1) step-up transformer (2) step-down transformer?
Answer:
The ratio of the number of turns in the secondary coil (NS) to that in the primary coil (NP) is called the turns ratio of a transformer.
The turns ratio \(\frac{N_{\mathrm{S}}}{N_{\mathrm{P}}}\) > 1 for a step-up transformer.
The turns ratio \(\frac{N_{\mathrm{S}}}{N_{\mathrm{P}}}\) < 1 for a step-down transformer.

Question 70.
State any two factors on which the maximum value of the alternating emf induced in the secondary coil of a transformer depends.
Answer:
The maximum value of the alternating emf induced in the secondary coil of a transformer depends on

  1. the ratio of the number of turns of the secondary coil to that of the primary coil
  2. the maximum value of the alternating emf applied to the primary coil
  3. the core of the transformer.

Question 71.
The primary coil of a transformer has 100 turns and the secondary coil has 200 turns. If the peak value of the alternating emf applied to the primary coil is 100 V, what is the peak value of the alternating emf obtained across the secondary coil?
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 60

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction

Question 72.
Distinguish between a step-up and a step-down transformers. (Any two points)
Answer:

Step-up transformer Step-down transformer
1. The output voltage is more than the input voltage. 1. The output voltage is less than the input voltage.
2. The number of turns of the secondary coil is more than that of the primary coil. 2. The number of turns of the secondary coil is less than that of the primary coil.
3. The output current is less than the input current. 3. The output current is more than that of the input current.
4. The primary coil is made of thicker copper wire than the secondary coil. 4. The secondary coil is made of thicker copper wire than the primary coil.

72. Solve the following
Question 1.
When a current changes from 4 A to 12 A in 0.5 s in the primary coil, an induced emf of 50 mV is generated in the secondary coil. What is the mutual inductance between the two coils ? What will be the emf induced in the secondary, if the current in the primary changes from 3 A to 9 A in 0.02 s ?
Solution:
Data : Ii1 =4 A, If1 = 12 A, ∆t1 = 0.5 s, ∆t2 = 0.02 s
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 61

Question 2.
A plane coil of lo turns is tightly wound around a solenoid of diameter 2 cm having 400 turns per centimeter. The relative permeability of the core is 800. Calculate the mutual inductance.
Solution:
Data: N = 10, R = 1 cm = 10-2 m,
n = 400 cm-1 = 4 × 104 m-1, k = 800,
μ0 = 4π × 104 H/m
Mutual inductance,
M = kμ0πR2nN
=(800)(4π × 10-7)[π × (102)2](4 × 104)(10)
= 0.1264 H

Question 3.
Two coils of 100 turns and 200 turns have self inductances 25 mH and 40 mH, respectively. Their mutual inductance is 3 mH. If a 6 mA current in the first coil is changing at the rate of 4 A/s, calculate (a) 2 that links the first coil (b) self induced emf in the first coil (c) Φ21 that links the second coil (d) mutually induced emf in the second coil.
Solution:
Data : N1 = 100, N2 = 200, L1 = 25 mH, L2 = 40 mH,
I1 = 6 mA, dI1 /dt = 4 A/s
(a) The flux per unit turn in coil 1,
Φ21 = \( \frac{L_{1} I_{1}}{N_{1}}=\frac{\left(25 \times 10^{-3}\right)\left(6 \times 10^{-3}\right)}{100}\)
= 1.5 × 10-6 Wb =1.5 μ Wb

(b) The magnitude of the self induced emf in coil 1 is
L1 = \(\frac{d I_{1}}{d t}\) = (25 × 10-3)(4) = 0.1 V

(c) The flux per unit turn in coil 2,
Φ21 = \(\frac{M I_{1}}{N_{2}}=\frac{\left(3 \times 10^{-3}\right)\left(6 \times 10^{-3}\right)}{200}\)
= 90 × 10-9 Wb = 90 nWb

(d) The mutually induced emf in coil 2 is
e21 = M \(\frac{d I_{1}}{d t}\) = (3 × 10-3)(4) = 12 × 10-3 V
= 12 mV

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction

Question 4.
The coefficient of mutual induction between primary and secondary coils is 2 H. Calculate the induced emf if a current of 4A is cut off in 2.5 × 10-4 second.
Solution:
Data : M = 2 H, dI = – 4 A, dt = 2.5 × 10-4 s
The induced emf, e = – M \(\frac{d I}{d t}=-\frac{2 \times(-4)}{2.5 \times 10^{-4}}\)
= \(\frac{8}{2.5}\) × 104 = 3.2 × 104 V

Question 5.
A current of 10 A in the primary of a transformer is reduced to zero at the uniform rate in 0.1 second. If the mutual inductance be 3 H, what is the emf induced in the secondary and change in the magnetic flux per turn in the secondary if it has 50 turns?
Solution:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 62
This gives the change in the magnetic flux per turn in the secondary.

Question 6.
The primary and secondary coils of a transformer, assumed to be ideal, have 20 and 300 turns of wire, respectively. If the primary voltage is VP = 10 sincot (in volt), what is the maximum voltage in the secondary coil?
Solution:
Data : NP = 20, NS = 300, VP = 10 sin ωt V
VS = \(\frac{N_{\mathrm{S}}}{N_{\mathrm{P}}}\) VP
= \(\frac{300}{20}\) × 10 sin ωt
= 150 sin ωt V
This is of the form V0 sin ωt, where V0 is the peak (or maximum) voltage.
∴ The maximum voltage in the secondary coil is 150 V.

Question 7.
A transformer converts 200 V ac to 50 V ac. The secondary has 50 turns and the load across it draws 300 mA current. Calculate (i) the number of turns in the primary (ii) the power consumed.
Solution:
Data: VP = 200 V, VS = 50 V, NS = 50, IS = 300mA = 0.3 A
(i) \(\frac{N_{\mathrm{P}}}{N_{\mathrm{S}}}=\frac{V_{\mathrm{P}}}{V_{\mathrm{S}}}\)
∴ The number of turns in the primary,
NP = NS\(\frac{V_{\mathrm{P}}}{V_{\mathrm{S}}}\)
= 50 × \(\frac{200}{50}\) = 200

(ii) Power consumed = VSIS = 50 × 0.3 = 15 W

Question 8.
A resistance of 3 Ω is connected to the secondary coil of 60 turns of an ideal transformer. Calculate the current (peak value) in the resistor if the primary has 1200 turns and is connected to 240 V (peak) ac supply. Assume that all the magnetic flux in the primary coil passes through the secondary coil and that there are no other losses.
Solution:
Data : R = 3 Ω, NS = 60, NP = 1200, VP = 240 V
VS = \(\frac{N_{\mathrm{S}}}{N_{\mathrm{P}}}\) × VP
= \(\frac{60}{1200}\) × 240 = 12 V (peak)
∴ The peak value of the current in the resistor in the transformer secondary coil is
IS = \(\frac{V_{\mathrm{S}}}{R}=\frac{12}{3}\) = 4 A

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction

Question 9.
The primary of a transformer has 40 turns and works on 100 V and 100 W. Find the number of turns in the secondary to step up the voltage to 400 V. Also calculate the current in the secondary and primary.
Solution :
Data : NP = 40, VP = 100 V, PP = 100 W, VS = 400 V
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 63
This gives the number of turns in the secondary coil.

(ii) Assuming PS = PS = 100 W,
VSIS = 100 W
∴ IS = \(\frac{100}{V_{\mathrm{S}}}=\frac{100}{400}\) = 0.25 A
This gives the current in the secondary coil.

(iii) VP . IP = PP ∴ IP = \(\frac{P_{\mathrm{P}}}{V_{\mathrm{P}}}=\frac{100}{100}\) = 1 A
This gives the current in the primary coil.

Question 10.
A transformer converts 400 volt ac to 100 volt ac The secondary of the transformer has 50 turns and the load across it draws a current of 600 mA. What is the current in the primary, the power consumed and the number of turns in the primary?
Solution:
Data : VP = 400 V. VS = 100 V, NS = 50, IS = 0.6 A
Assuming no power loss. PPVP = ISVS
∴ The current in the primary,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 64

Question 11.
A step down transformer works on 220 V a mains. What is the efficiency of the transformer when a bulb of 100 Wf20 V is connected to the a mains and the current in the primary is 0.5 A ?
Solution:
Data: VP = 220V, VS = 20V, PS = 100W, IP = 0.5 A
The Input power. PP = IPVP = (0.5)220) = 110 W
The output power, PS = 100 W
∴ The efficiency of the transformer
= \(\frac{\text { output power }}{\text { input power }}=\frac{100}{110}\) = 0.9091 or 90.91%

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
A circular loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field. The total number of magnetic field lines passing normally through the plane of the coil is called
(A) the displacement current
(B) the eddy current
(C) the self inductance
(D) the magnetic flux
Answer:
(D) the magnetic flux

Question 2.
According to Lenz’s law, the direction of the induced current in a closed conducting loop is such that the induced magnetic field attempts to
(A) maintain the original magnetic flux through the loop
(B) maximize the magnetic flux through the loop
(C) maintain the magnetic flux through the loop to zero
(D) minimize the magnetic flux through the loop.
Answer:
(A) maintain the original magnetic flux through the loop

Question 3.
A metallic conductor AB moves across a magnetic field as shown in the following figure.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 65
Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) The free electrons experience a magnetic force and move to the lower part of the conductor.
(B) The free electrons experience a magnetic force and move to the upper part of the conductor.
(C) The positive and negative charges experience a magnetic force and move, respectively, to the upper and lower parts of the conductor.
(D) The moving conductor gives rise to an emf but there is no separation of charges as they are bound in the solid structure.
Answer:
(A) The free electrons experience a magnetic force and move to the lower part of the conductor.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction

Question 4.
A bar magnet moves vertically down, approaching a circular conducting loop in the x-y plane. The direction of the induced current in the loop (looking down the z-axis) is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 66
(A) anticlockwise
(B) clockwise
(C) alternating
(D) along negative z-axis.
Answer:
(A) anticlockwise

Question 5.
A moving conductor AB of length 1 makes a sliding electrical contacts at its ends with two parallel conducting rails. The rails are joined at the left edge (CD) by a resistance R to form a complete circuit.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 67
The rate at which the magnetic flux through the area bounded by the circuit changes is
(A) Bv
(B) Bl/v
(C) Bvl
(D) Bv/l.
Answer:
(C) Bvl

Question 6.
A metre gauge train is heading north with speed 54 km/h in the Earth’s magnetic field 3 × 10-4 T. The emf induced across the axle joining the wheels is
(A) 0.45 mV
(B) 4.5 mV
(C) 45 mV
(D) 450 mV.
Answer:
(B) 4.5 mV

Question 7.
A conducting rod of length l rotates about one of its ends in a uniform magnetic field \(\vec{B}\) with a constant angular speed ω. If the plane of rotation is perpendicular to \(\vec{B}\), the emf induced between the ends of the rod is
(A) \(\frac{1}{2}\)Bωl2
(B) πl2
(C) Bωl2
(D) 2Bωl2.
Answer:
(A) \(\frac{1}{2}\)Bωl2

Question 8.
A circular conducting loop of area 100 cm2 and resistance 3 Ω is placed in a magnetic field with its plane perpendicular to the field. If the field is spatially uniform but varies with time t (in second) as B(f) = 1.5 cos ωt tesla, the peak value of the current is
(A) 3 mA
(B) 5ω mA
(C) 300ω mA
(D) 500 mA.
Answer:
(B) 5ω mA

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction

Question 9.
In a simple rectangular-loop ac generator, the time rate of change of magnetic flux is a maximum when
(A) the induced emf has a minimum value
(B) the plane of the coil is parallel to the magnetic field
(C) the plane of the coil is perpendicular to the magnetic field
(D) the emf varies sinusoidally with time.
Answer:
(B) the plane of the coil is parallel to the magnetic field

Question 10.
A simple generator has a 300 loop square coil of side 20 cm turning in a field of 0.7 T. How fast must it turn to produce a peak output of 210 V ?
(A) 25 rps
(B) 4 rps
(C) 2.5 rps
(D) 0.4 rps
Answer:
(B) 4 rps

Question 11.
A rectangular loop generator of 100 turns, each of area 1000 cm2, rotates in a uniform field of 0.02 π tesla with an angular velocity of 60 π rad/s. The maximum value of \(\frac{d \Phi_{\mathrm{m}}}{d t}\) is
(A) 12π V
(B) 12π2 Wb
(C) 6π2 V
(D) 12π2 V.
Answer:
(D) 12π2 V.

Question 12.
A 250 loop circular coil of area 16π2 cm2 rotates at 100 rev/s in a uniform magnetic field of 0.5 T. The rms voltage output of the generator is nearly
(A) 200\(\sqrt {2}\) V
(B) 20\(\sqrt {2}\) V
(C) 400 V
(D) 2\(\sqrt {2}\) MV.
Answer:
(A) 200\(\sqrt {2}\) V

Question 13.
Two tightly wound solenoids have the same length and circular cross-sectional area, but the wire of solenoid 1 is half as thick as solenoid 2. The ratio of their inductances is
(A) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
(B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
(C) 2
(D) 4
Answer:
(D) 4

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction

Question 14.
The wire of a tightly wound solenoid is unwound and used to make another tightly wound solenoid of twice the diameter. The inductance changes by a factor of
(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
(D) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
Answer:
(B) 2

Question 15.
The back emf of a dc motor is 108 V when it is connected to a 120 V line and reaches full speed against its normal load. What will be its back emf if a change in load causes the motor to run at half speed ?
(A) 66 V
(B) 12 V
(C) 60 V
(D) 54 V
Answer:
(D) 54 V

Question 16.
A single rectangular loop of wire, of dimensions 0.8 m × 0.4 m and resistance 0.2 Ω, is in a region of uniform magnetic field of 0.5 T in a plane perpendicular to the field. It is pulled along its length at a constant velocity of 5 m/s. Once one of its shorter side is just outside the field, the force required to pull the loop out of the field is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 68
(A) 0.2 N
(B) 0.5 N
(C) 1 N
(D) 2 N.
Answer:
(C) 1 N

Question 17.
A pivoted bar with slots falls through a magnetic field. The bar falls the quickest if it is made of [Assume identical plate and slot dimensions. Ignore air resistance.]
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 69
(A) copper
(B) a ferromagnetic
(C) aluminium
(D) plastic
Answer:
(D) plastic

Question 18.
Eddy currents are also called
(A) Maxwell currents
(B) Faraday currents
(C) displacement currents
(D) Foucault currents
Answer:
(D) Foucault currents

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction

Question 19.
At a given instant the current and self-induced emf (e) in an inductor are directed as shown. If e = 60 V,
which of the following is true?
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 70
(A) The current is increasing at 2 A/s. 12 H
(B) The current is decreasing at 5 A/s.
(C) The current is increasing at 5 A/s.
(D) The current is decreasing at 6 A/s.
Answer:
(C) The current is increasing at 5 A/s.

Question 20.
A metal ring is placed in a region of uniform magnetic field such that the plane of the ring is perpendicular to the direction of the field. The field strength is increasing at a constant rate. Which of the following graphs best shows the variation with time t of the induced current I in the ring ?
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 71
Answer:
(C)

Question 21.
At a given instant, the current through a 60 mH inductor is 50 mA and increasing at 100 mA/ s. The energy stored at that instant is
(A) 150 µJ
(B) 75 µJ
(C) 0.6 mJ
(D) 0.3 mJ
Answer:
(B) 75 µJ

Question 22.
The magnetic field within an air-cored solenoid is 0.8 T. If the solenoid is 40 cm long and 2 cm in diameter, the energy stored in its magnetic field is
(A) 32 J
(B) 3.2 J
(C) 6.4 kJ
(D) 64 kJ
Answer:
(A) 32 J

Question 23.
The adjacent graph shows the E induced emf against time of a coil rotated in a uniform magnetic field at a certain frequency. 0;
If the frequency of rotation is reduced to one half of its initial value, which one of the following graphs correctly shows the new variation of the induced emf with time.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 72
[All the graphs are drawn to the same scale.]
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction 73
Answer:
(A)

Question 24.
A transformer has 320 turns primary coil and 120 turns secondary coil. Which of the following statements is true?
(A) It changes current by a factor of \(\frac{8}{3}\) and is a step-up transformer.
(B) It is a step-down transformer and changes current by a factor of \(\frac{8}{3}\).
(C) It changes current by a factor of \(\frac{8}{3}\) and is a step-up transformer.
(D) It is a step-down transformer and changes current by a factor of \(\frac{8}{3}\).
Answer:
(B) It is a step-down transformer and changes current by a factor of \(\frac{8}{3}\).

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetic Induction

Question 25.
Input power at 11000 V is fed to a step-down transformer which has 4000 turns in its primary winding. In order to get output power at 220 V, the number of turns in the secondary must be
(A) 20
(B) 80
(C) 400
(D) 800.
Answer:
(B) 80

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials

Question 1.
How did a magnet derive its name? What was its ancient use?
Answer:
The characteristic of a magnet to attract iron is called its attractive property. This property was discovered in a rock found in the ancient mineral-rich region of Magnesia (modern Turkey). The word magnet is derived from this Magnesian rock.

The rock when floated on water (by tying it to a piece of wood) or suspended freely was found to align approximately in the north-south direction. Because this directional property was used by some ancient travellers to locate the geographic north, it was also called the leading stone or lodestone.

The Magnesian rock is the naturally magnetized iron ore magnetite (Fe3O4). It is hard, black or brownish-black with a metallic luster.

Question 2.
Explain the directional characteristic of a bar magnet.
Answer:
When a bar magnet is suspended so as to rotate freely in a horizontal plane, it comes to rest in approximately the North-South direction.

The end of the magnet directed towards the Earth’s geographic North Pole is called the north-seeking pole or the north pole, and the other end which is directed towards the Earth’s geographic South Pole is called the south-seeking pole or the south pole.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials 1
The cause for this alignment is seen when we consider the turning moment on a bar magnet suspended in a uniform magnetic induction \(\vec{B}\), as shown in below figure. The north pole (pole strength + m) and the south pole (pole strength – m) of the bar magnet experience equal and opposite forces of magnitude mB. If the lines of action of these two forces are not the same, they constitute a couple whose effect is to produce rotation.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials 2

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials

Question 3.
State the expression for the torque acting on a magnetic dipole in a uniform magnetic field.
Answer:
When a magnetic dipole of magnetic dipole moment \(\vec{M}\) is placed in a uniform magnetic field of induction \(\vec{B}\), it experiences a torque whose magnitude is
τ = MB sin θ
where θ is the smaller angle between the magnetic axis and \(\vec{B}\).
[Note: When the dipole is placed with its axis at right-angles to the field, i.e, θ = 90°,
τ = MB or M = \(\frac{\tau}{B}\)
This is the defining equation for the magnetic dipole moment.]

Question 4.
Derive an expression for the torque acting on a magnetic dipole placed in a region of uniform magnetic induction. Express it in vector form.
Answer:
Consider a magnetic dipole consisting of two point poles of pole strength m a distance 2l apart with its axis inclined at an angle θ to a uniform magnetic field of induction \(\vec{B}\), shown in figure. The magnetic force on the positive (or north) pole is m\(\vec{B}\), while that on the negative (or south) pole is – m\(\vec{B}\). These two forces, equal in magnitude, opposite in direction and separated by a finite distance, constitute a couple which tends to line up the magnetic dipole moment with the field \(\vec{B}\).
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials 3
The torque of the couple in the clockwise sense in above figure in magnitude, is
τ = (mB) d
where d is the distance between the lines of action of the forces.
∴ τ = (mB)2lsin θ = MB sin θ (∵ m = \(\frac{M}{2 l}\))
Expressed as a vector product,
\(\vec{\tau}=\vec{M} \times \vec{B}\)
The torque has a maximum magnitude, (m2l)B, when sin θ = 1, i.e., when the magnet is perpendicular to the field. The torque vanishes when the magnet is parallel to the field, where sin θ = 0.

Question 5.
A current-carrying coil with magnetic moment \(\vec{M}\) (M = 5 A∙m2) is placed in a uniform magnetic field of induction \(\vec{B}\) (B = 0.2 Wb/m2) such that the angle between \(\vec{M}\) and \(\vec{B}\) is 30°. What is the torque acting on the coil ?
Answer:
τ = MB sin θ = (5) (0.2) sin 30° = 0.5 N∙m is the torque acting on the coil.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials

Question 6.
Explain what is meant by magnetic potential energy of a bar magnet kept in a uniform magnetic field. Discuss the cases when
(1) θ = 0°
(2) θ = 180°
(3) θ = 90°.
Answer:
A magnet free to rotate in a uniform magnetic field \(\vec{B}\) aligns its dipole moment \(\vec{M}\) with \(\vec{B}\). Work must be done to rotate the magnet from this equilibrium position. The work done is stored as the magnetic potential energy, also called its orientation energy. In a finite angular displacement from 0 to θ, the
magnetic potential energy
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials 4

  1. When θ = 0°, cos θ = cos 0° = 1, Uθ = – MB. At this position, the magnetic moment of the bar magnet is lined up with the field and its magnetic potential energy is minimum. This is its most stable equilibrium position.
  2. When θ = 180°, cos θ = cos 180° = – 1, Uθ = MB. At this position, the magnetic moment is antiparallel to the field and its magnetic potential energy is maximum. This is its most unstable position.
  3. When θ = 90°, cos θ = cos 90° = 0, Uθ = 0. At this position, the bar magnet is perpendicular to the
    magnetic field. Its magnetic potential energy is zero.

Question 7.
What is the nature of the graph between the magnetic potential energy of a bar magnet kept in a uniform magnetic field and angular position of the magnet ?
OR
Draw a graph of magnetic potential energy as a function of angular displacement.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials 5

Question 8.
Derive the expression for the time period of angular oscillations of a bar magnet kept in a uniform magnetic field.
Answer:
Consider a bar magnet of magnetic dipole moment \(\vec{M}\), suspended by a light twistless fibre in a uniform magnetic field \(\vec{B}\) in such a way that it is free to rotate in a horizontal plane. In the rest position θ = 0, \(\vec{M}\) is parallel to \(\vec{B}\).

If magnet is given a small angular displacement θ from its rest position and released, the magnet performs angular or torsional oscillations about the rest position.

Let I be the moment of inertia of the bar magnet about the axis of oscillation and α the angular acceleration. The deflecting torque (in magnitude) is
τd = Iα = I \(\frac{d^{2} \theta}{d t^{2}}\) …………….. (1)
However, the restoring torque tries to bring back the oscillating bar magnet in the rest position. The restoring torque (in magnitude) is, τr = – MB sin θ …………. (2)
The minus sign in Eq. (2) indicates that restoring torque is opposite in direction to the angular deflection.
In equilibrium, both the torques balance each other. From Eqs. (1) and (2),
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials 6
Eq. (4) represents angular simple harmonic motion.
Writing ω2 = \(\frac{M B}{I}\) , the angular frequency ω of the motion is
ω = \(\sqrt{\frac{M B}{I}}\) ………….. (5)
The time period of oscillations of the bar magnet is
T = \(\frac{2 \pi}{\omega}=2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{I}{M B}}\) ……………… (6)
This is the required expression.

9. Solve the following
Question 1.
Find the magnitude of the magnetic moment of a magnet if a couple exerting torque 0.5 N.m is required to hold the magnet with its axis perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of induction 2 × 10-3 T.
Solution:
Data : τ = 0.5 N∙m, B = 2 × 10-3 T, θ = 90°
τ = MB sin θ
∴ M = \(\frac{\tau}{B \sin \theta}=\frac{0.5 \mathrm{~N} \cdot \mathrm{m}}{\left(2 \times 10^{-3} \mathrm{~T}\right) \sin 90^{\circ}}\)
= 250 A∙m2
The magnitude of the magnetic moment of the magnet is 250 A∙m2.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials

Question 2.
A magnetic dipole of magnetic moment 5 A∙m2 is placed in a uniform magnetic field of induction 10-3 T. Find the magnitude of the maximum torque acting on the dipole.
Solution:
Data : M = 5 A∙m2, B = 10-3 T
Torque, τ = MB sin θ
The magnitude of the torque is maximum when θ = 90°.
∴ τmax = MB = 5 × 10-3 N∙m

Question 3.
A bar magnet of magnetic length 0.12 m and pole strength 10 A-m is placed in a uniform magnetic field of induction 3 × 10-2 tesla. If the angle between the magnetic induction and the magnetic moment is 30°, find the magnitude of the torque acting on the magnet.
Solution:
Data : 2l = 0.12 m, m = 10 A∙m, B = 3 × 10-2 T,
θ = 30°
The magnitude of the torque,
τ = MB sin θ = m (2l) B sin θ
= (10 A∙m) (0.12 m)(3 × 10-2 T) sin 30°
= 3.6 × 10-2 × \(\frac{1}{2}\)
= 1.8 × 10-2 N∙m

Question 4.
A bar magnet of moment 10 A∙m is suspended such that it can rotate freely in a horizontal plane. The horizontal component of the Earth’s magnetic field at the place is 36 µT. Calculate the magnitude of the torque when its angular displacement with respect to the direction of the field is 8C and magnetic potential energy.
Solution:
Data : M = 10 A∙m2, Bh = 36µT = 3.6 × 10-5 T,
θ = 8°
The magnitude of the torque is
τ = MBh sin θ
= (10) (3.6 × 10-5) sin 8°
= (36 × 10-5) (0.1391) = 5.007 × 10-5 N∙m
The magnetic potential energy of the bar magnet is
Uθ = MBh cos θ
= (36 × 10-5) cos 8°
= (36 × 10-5) (0.99) = 3.564 × 10-4 J

Question 5.
The time period of angular oscillation of a bar magnet in a horizontal magnetic field is 3.14 s. If the horizontal component of the Earth’s magnetic field at the place is 40 µT and the moment of inertia of the magnet is 10-4 kg∙m2, calculate the magnetic moment of the magnet.
Solution:
Data : T = 3.14 s, Bh = 40 µT = 4 × 10-5 T,
I = 10-4 kg∙m2
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials 7

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials

Question 6.
A bar magnet of moment 10 A∙m2 is suspended such that it can rotate freely in a horizontal plane. The horizontal component of the Earth’s magnetic field at the place is 36 µT. Calculate the magnitude of the torque when its angular displacement with respect to the direction of the field is 8° and magnetic potential energy.
Solution:
Data : M = 10 A∙m2, Bh = 36 µT = 3.6 × 10-5 T, θ = 8°
The magnitude of the torque is
τ = MBh sin θ
=(10)(3.6 × 10-5)sin8°
=(36 × 10-5)(0.1391) = 5.007 × 10-5 N∙m
The magnetic potential energy of the bar magnet is
Uθ = MBh cos θ
=(36 × 10-5)cos8°
=(36 × 10-5)(0.99) = 3.564 × 10-4 J

Question 10.
As the electron revolves in the second Bohr orbit in the hydrogen atom, the corresponding current is (about) 1.3 × 10-4 A. If the area of the orbit is (about) 1.4 × 10-19 m2, what is the (approximate) equivalent magnetic moment?
Answer:
M = IA = (1.3 × 10-4)(1.4 × 10-19)
= 1.82 × 10-23 A∙m2 is the (approximate) equivalent magnetic moment.

Question 11.
What is the magnetic moment of an electron due to its orbital motion?
Answer:
The orbital magnetic moment of an electron, of charge e and revolving with speed v in an orbit of radius r, is \(\frac{1}{2}\) evr.

Question 12.
If the frequency of revolution of a proton (q = 1.6 × 10-19 C) in a uniform magnetic induction is 106 Hz, what is the corresponding electric current?
Answer:
I = \(\frac{q}{T}\) = qf = (1.6 × 10-19)(106)
= 1.6 × 10-13 A
is the corresponding electric current.

Question 13.
The frequency of revolution of the electron in the second Bohr orbit in the hydrogen atom is 8.22 × 1014 Hz. What is the corresponding electric ’ current? [e = 1.6 × 10-19 C]
Answer:
I = \(\frac{e}{T}\) = ef
= (1.6 × 10-19)(8.22 × 1014)
= 1.315 × 10-4A
is the corresponding electric current.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials

Question 14.
A coil has 1000 turns, each of area 0.5 m2. What is the magnetic moment of the coil when it carries a current of 1 mA ?
Answer:
Magnetic moment M = NIA
= 1000 × 1 × 10-3 × 0.5
= 0.5 A∙m2

Question 15.
What is the gyromagnetic ratio of an orbital electron ? State its dimensions and the SI unit.
Answer:
The ratio of the magnitude of the orbital magnetic moment to that of the orbital angular momentum of an electron in an atom is called its gyromagnetic ratio γ0. If \(\vec{M}_{\mathrm{o}}\) is the orbital magnetic moment of the electron with orbital angular momentum \(\vec{L}_{\mathrm{o}}\),
γ0 = \(\frac{M_{\mathrm{o}}}{L_{\mathrm{o}}}=\frac{e}{2 m_{\mathrm{e}}}\)
where e and me are the electronic charge and electron mass, respectively.
Dimensions : [γ0] = \(\frac{[\text { charge }]}{[\text { mass }]}=\frac{[T I]}{[M]}\) = [M-1TI].
SI unit : The coulomb per kilogram (C/kg).
[Note : γ0 = 8.794 × 1010 C/kg. The gyromagnetic ratio of electron spin is nearly twice that of an orbital electron.]

16. Solve the following
Question 1.
A circular coil of 300 turns and diameter 14 cm carries a current of 15 A. What is the magnitude of the magnetic moment associated with the coil?
Solution :
Data : N = 300, d = 14 cm, I = 15 A
r = \(\frac{d}{2}\) = 7 cm = 7 × 10-2 m
The magnitude of the magnetic moment associated with the coil is
M = NIA = NI(πr2)
= (300)(15)(3.142)(7 × 10-2)2
= 4500 × 3.142 × 49 × 10-4
= 69.28 A∙m2

Question 2.
A coil has 300 turns, each of area 0.05 m2.
(i) Find the current through the coil for which the magnetic moment of the coil will be 4.5 A∙m2.
(ii) It is placed in a uniform magnetic field of induction 0.2 T with its magnetic moment making an angle of 30° with \(\vec{B}\). Calculate the magnitude of the torque experienced by the coil.
Solution:
Data : N = 300, A = 0.05 m2, M = 4.5 A∙m2, B = 0.2 T, θ = 30°
(i) M = NIA
∴ The current in the coil,
I = \(\frac{M}{N A}=\frac{4.5}{300 \times 0.05}\) = 0.3 A

(ii) The magnitude of the torque,
τ = MB sin θ = 4.5 × 0.2 × sin 30°
= 0.9 × \(\frac{1}{2}\) = 0.45 N∙m

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials

Question 3.
An electron in an atom revolves around the nucleus in an orbit of radius 0.5 Å. Calculate the equivalent magnetic moment if the frequency of revolution of the electron is 1010 MHz.
Solution:
Data : r = 0.5 Å = 5 × 10-11 m,
f = 1010 MHz = 1016 Hz, e = 1.6 × 10-19 C
Equivalent current, I = \(\frac{e}{T}\) = ef
The equivalent magnetic moment is
M = IA = ef(πr2)
= (1.6 × 10-19)(1016)(3.142)(5 × 10-11)2
= 1.6 × 3.142 × 25 × 10-25
= 1.257 × 10-23 A∙m2

Question 4.
Calculate the orbital magnetic dipole moment of the electron in the second Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom. The radius of the orbit is 2.126 Å and the orbital speed of the electron in the orbit is 1.09 × 106 m/s.
Solution:
Data : r = 2.126 Å = 2.126 × 10-10 m,
v = 1.09 × 106 m/s, e = 1.6 × 10-19 C
The orbital magnetic dipole moment of the electron,
M0 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) evr
=(1.6 × 10-19)(1.09 × 106)(2.126 × 10-10)
=1.6 × 1.09 × 1.063 × 10-23
= 1.854 × 10-23 A∙m2

Question 5.
An electron in an atom revolves around the nucleus in an orbit of radius 0.53 Å. If the frequency of revolution of an electron is 9 × 109 MHz, calcu-late the orbital angular momentum. [Charge on an electron = 1.6 × 10-19 C, gyromagnetic ratio = 8.8 × 1010 C/kg, π = 3.142]
Solution:
Data : r = 0.53 Å = 0.53 × 10-10 m,
f = 9 × 109 MHz = 9 × 1015 Hz, e = 1.6 × 10-19 C, gyromagnetic ratio = 8.8 × 1010 C / kg, π = 3.142
Magnetic moment, M0 =IA = efπr2
= 1.6 × 10-19 × 9 × 1015 × 3.142 × (0.53 × 10-10)2
= 14.4 × 3.142 × (0.53)2 × 10-19 × 1015× 1020
= 1.272 × 10-23 A∙m2
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials 8

Question 6.
The specific charge (charge-to-mass ratio) of an electron is 1.759 × 1011 C/kg.
(i) What is the gyromagnetic ratio of an orbital electron?
(ii) If the measured component of its orbital angular momentum is 2.11 × 10-34 kg∙m3/s. what Is the associatcd orbital magnetic dipole moment?
Solution:
Data: \(\frac{e}{m_{e}}\) = 1.759 × 1011 C/kg,
L = 2.11 × 10-34 kg∙m2/s

(i) The gyromag1etic ratio of an orbital electron,
γ0 = \(\frac{e}{2 m_{\mathrm{e}}}=\frac{1.759 \times 10^{11}}{2}\) =8.795 × 1010 C/kg

(ii) For the given component of the orbital angular momentum, the associated magnetic dipole moment is
Mo = \(\frac{e}{2m_{e}}\) L0 = γ0L0
= (8.795 × 1010 )(2.11 × 10-34)
= 1.856 × 10-23 A∙m2

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials

Question 7.
An electron performs uniform circuLar motion in a uniform magnetic field of induction 1.2T In a plane perpendicular to the field. Its kinetic energy is 6 × 10-20 J and its motion is subject only to the magnetic force due to the field. What is the magnetic dipole moment associated with the motion of the electron?
Solution:
Data:B = 1.2T, KE ≡ Ek = 6 × 10-20 J
The centripetal force on the electron is the magnetic force. If r and e are respectively the radius of the path and linear speed of the electron,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials 9

Question 8.
If the magnetic moment of an electron revolving in an orbit of radius 0.4 Å is 9 × 10-24 A∙m2 then find the linear momentum of the electron in that orbit. (e/m = 1.76 × 1011 C/kg]
Solution:
Data: r = 0.5 Å = 5 × 10-11 m, I = 1.1 × 10-3 A,
x = 100 Å = 10-8 m, \(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi}\) = 10-7 T∙m/A
The magnitude of the magnetic induction at an axial point of a current loop,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials 10

Question 9.
The magnetic moment of an electron revolving in a circular orbit of radius 2.2 Å is 5.024 × 10-24 A∙m2. Calculate the frequency of revolution of the electron in that orbit.
Solution:
Data: d = 0.2 m, B = 4 × 10-4 T,
2l = 5 cm = 5 × 10-2 m, A = 2 cm2 = 2 × 10-4 m2,
\(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi}\) = 10-7 T∙m/A
The magnitude of the magnetic induction at an axial point of a bar magnet.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials 11

Question 17.
Explain magnetization of a material.
Answer:
In an atom, the orbital and spin magnetic moments of its electrons may or may not add up to zero, depending on the electronic configuration. In some materials, their atoms have a net magnetic moment. When such a material is placed in an external magnetic field of induction \(\overrightarrow{B_{0}}\) , the field exerts a torque on each atomic magnet. These torques tend to align the magnetic moments with the applied field. Due to this, the material as a whole acquires a net magnetic moment \(\vec{M}_{\text {net }}\) along \(\overrightarrow{B_{0}}\) and the material is said to be magnetized.

The net magnetic moment per unit volume is called the magnetization \(\vec{M}_{z}\) of the material.
\(\vec{M}_{\mathrm{z}}=\vec{M}_{\text {net }} / V\)
where V is the volume of the material.

Even when the atomic magnetic moment is zero, application of magnetic field induces magnetism in the material. In this case, the magnetization has direction opposite to that of the applied field.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials

Question 18.
Define magnetization.
State its dimensions and the SI unit.
OR
Define magnetization. State its formula and SI unit.
Answer:
Magnetization : The net magnetic moment per unit volume of a material is called the magnetization of the material.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials 12
SI unit: The ampere per metre (A/m).

Question 19.
A bar magnet (volume 1.5 × 10-5 5m3) has a uniform magnetization of 6000 Aim. What is its magnetic dipole moment?
Answer:
Mz = \(\)
∴ M = MzV = (6000)(1.5 × 10-5)
= 9 × 10-2 A∙m2 is the magnetic dipole moment of the magnet.

Question 20.
Define magnetic intensity.
State its dimensions and the SI unit.
Answer:
Magnetic intensity: The magnetic intensity is defined as the magnetic induction in an isotropic medium divided by the permeability of the medium.

The magnetic intensity is a quantitative characteristic of a magnetic field independent of the magnetic properties of the medium. In a medium, it determines the contribution to the magnetic induction in the medium by the external magnetic field.

Dimensions: Within a toroid without a core, which has n windings per unit length carrying a current I, the magnetic intensity, H = nI.
∴ [H] = [n][I] = [L-1][I] = [L-1I]
SI unit : The ampere per metre (A/m).
[Note : The magnetic intensity (also called the magnetic field strength), \(\vec{H}\), is defined as
\(\vec{H}=\frac{\vec{B}}{\mu_{0}}-\overrightarrow{M_{z}}\)
where \(\vec{B}\) is the magnetic induction, \(\vec{M}_{z}\) is the magnetization and μ0 is the permeability of free space.]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials

Question 21.
What is the magnetic susceptibility of a medium?
Answer:
The magnetic susceptibility of a medium is a dimensionless quantity which signifies the contribution made by the medium when subjected to a magnetic field to the magnetic induction inside the medium. For a material in which the magnetization Mz is proportional to the magnetic intensity H, the magnetic susceptibility of the medium is
χm = Mz/H
It is equal to the fractional change in the magnetic induction due to the medium.
Magnetic susceptibility of some materials

Substance χ Substance χ
Silicon -4.2 × 10-6 Aluminium 2.3 × 10-5
Bismuth -1.66 × 10-5 Calcium 1.9 × 10-5
Copper -9.8 × 10-6 Choromium 2.7 × 10-4
Diamond -2.2 × 10-5 Lithium 2.1 × 10-5
Gold -3.6 × 10-5 Magnesium 1.2 × 10-5
Lead -1.7 × 105 Niobium 2.6 × 10-5
Mercury -2.9 × 10-5 Oxygen (STP) 2.1 × 10-6
Nitrogen -5.0 × 10-9 Platinum 2.9 ×10-4

Question 22.
Discuss magnetization of a rod of material having net magnetic moment with the help of a solenoid.
OR
Discuss magnetization of an iron rod placed in a solenoid.
OR
Discuss magnetization of a magnetic material placed in a solenoid.
Answer:
Consider an ideal air-cored solenoid carrying a steady current I. The magnitude of the magnetic induction inside the solenoid is
B0 = \(\frac{\mu_{0} N I}{2 \pi r}\) = μonI ………….. (1)
where n = \(\frac{N}{2 \pi r}\) is the number of turns per unit length and p0 is the permeability of free space.

When a core of magnetic material (such as iron) is present, the magnetic field within the solenoid due to the current in the winding magnetizes the material of the core. With the core, the magnetic induction \(\vec{B}\) inside the solenoid is greater than \(\vec{B}_{0}\), so that
B = B0 + Bm ……………. (2)
where Bm is the contribution of the iron core. Bm is proportional to the magnetization Mz of the material.
Bm = μoMz …………… (3)

While discussing magnetic materials, it is customary to call \(\frac{B_{0}}{\mu_{0}}\) as the magnetizing field or magnetic field intensity, denoted by H, which produces the magnetization.
∴ B0 = μoH …………. (4)
Substituting for B0 and BM in Eq. (1),
B = μ0H + μ0Mz = μ0(H + Mz) …………….. (5)
For materials in which the magnetization is pro-portional to the magnetic intensity,
Mz ∝ H or Mz = χmH ………. (6)
where the constant of proportionality χm is called the magnetic susceptibility.
∴ B = μ0(H + χmH) = μ0(1 + χm)H = μH …………. (7)
where p = μ0(1 + χm) is called the permeability of the material.

[Notes : (1) Mz ∝ H only for diamagnetic and paramagnetic materials. Among ferromagnetic materials, the linear relation in Eq. (6) holds good only for initial magnetization of magnetically softer materials; for magnetically harder materials, Mz is not a single-valued function of H, and depends on the magnetic intensity that the material has been previously exposed to (a phenomenon known as hysteresis). (2) H is defined for convenience; B is more fundamental.]

Question 23.
What is the relation between permeability and magnetic susceptibility of a medium? What is relative permeability of a medium ?
Answer:
If χm is the magnetic susceptibility of a medium, the permeability of the medium is
μ = μ0 (1 + χm)
where μ0 is the permeability of free space.
The ratio of the permeability of a medium to that of free space is called the relative permeability of the medium, denoted by μr.
μr = μ/μ0 = 1 + χm

Question 24.
Write the relation between relative permeability and magnetic susceptibility.
Answer:
μr = 1 – χm, where μr is the relative permeability and χm is the magnetic susceptibility of a substance.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials

Question 25.
Why do magnetic lines of force prefer to pass through iron than air?
Answer:
The permeability of air (≅ 1.00000037) is negligible relative to that of iron, which typically has μ of several hundreds or thousands. That is, permeability of iron is much more than that of air. Hence, magnetic lines of force prefer to pass through iron than air.

[Note : Air is paramagnetic due to the oxygen it contains. Reference for μair: B. D. Cullity and C. D. Graham (2008), Introduction to Magnetic Materials, 2nd edition, p. 16.]

Question 26.
Is magnetic susceptibility a dimensionless quantity? Why?
Answer:
In a magnetizing field of intensity H, a material for which its magnetization Mz ∝ H, we write . Mz = χmH, where the proportionality constant χm is called the magnetic susceptibility. Since both magnetization and magnetic intensity have the same dimensions and units, χm is a dimensionless quantity.
OR
The relative permeability of a medium,
μr = \(\frac{\mu}{\mu_{0}}\) = 1 + χm
where μ and χm are the permeability and magnetic susceptibility of the medium and μ0 is the permeability of free space. Hence, both μ0 and χm are dimensionless quantities.

27. Solve the following
Question 1.
A cylindrical magnet 5 cm long has a diameter of 1 cm and a uniform magnetization of 5000 A/m. Find its magnetic dipole moment.
Solution:
Data : L = 5 × 10-2 m, d = 1 × 10-2 m,
Mz = 5 × 103 A/m .
Volume, V = πr2L = \(\frac{\pi d^{2}}{4}\) L
Mz = \(\frac{M}{V}\)
∴ The magnetic dipole moment,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials 13

Question 2.
A bar magnet made of steel has magnetic moment 2.5 A∙m2 and mass 6.6 × 10-3 kg. Given that the density of steel is 7.9 × 103 kg/m3, find the intensity of magnetization of the magnet. (2 marks )
Solution:
Data : M = 2.5 A∙m2, m = 6.6 × 10-3 kg, ρ = 7.9 × 103 kg/m3
Volume, V = \(\frac{m}{\rho}\)
The intensity of magnetization of the magnet is
Mz = \(\) = M ∙ \(\frac{\rho}{m}\)
= 2.5 x \(\frac{M}{V}\) = 2.992 × 106 A/m
[Note : Intensity of magnetization = magnetization.]

Question 3.
Find the magnetization of a bar magnet of length 10 cm and cross-sectional area 4 cm2, if the magnetic moment is 2 A∙m2.
Solution:
Data : L = 0.1 m, A = 4 × 10-4 m2, M = 2 A∙m2
Magnetization, Mz = \(\frac{M}{V}\)
= \(\frac{M}{L A}=\frac{2}{(0.1)\left(4 \times 10^{-4}\right)}\)
= \(\frac{10^{4}}{0.2}\) = 5 × 104 A/m

Question 4.
The magnetic susceptibility of annealed iron at saturation is 5500. Find the permeability of annealed iron at saturation.
Solution:
Data : χm = 5500, μ0 = 4π × 10-7 T∙m/A
Permeability, μ = μ0(1 + χm)
The permeability of annealed iron at saturation is
μ = (4 × 3.142 × 10-7) (1 + 5500)
= 4 × 3.142 × 5.501 × 10-4
= 6.914 × 10-3 T∙m/A

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials

Question 5.
The magnetic induction B and the magnetic intensity H in a material are found to be 1.6 T and 1000 A/m, respectively. Calculate the relative permeability μr and the magnetic susceptibility χm of the material.
Solution:
Data : B = 1.6 T, H = 1000 A/m,
μ0 = 4π × 10-7 T∙m/A
(i) B = μH = μ0μr H
∴ The relative permeability of the material,
μr = \(\frac{B}{\mu_{0} H}=\frac{1.6}{\left(4 \times 3.142 \times 10^{-7}\right)\left(10^{3}\right)}\)
= \(\frac{4000}{3.142}\) = 1.273 × 103

(ii) μr = 1 + χm
∴ The magnetic susceptibility of the material,
χm = μr – 1
= 1273 – 1 = 1272 or 1.272 × 103

Question 6.
An ideal solenoid has a core of relative permeability 500 and its winding has 1000 turns per metre. If a steady current of 1.6 A is passed through its winding, find
(i) the magnetic field strength H
(ii) the magnetization Mz
(iii) the magnetic induction B within the solenoid. Assume that Mz is directly proportional to H and single valued.
Solution:
Data : μr = 500, n = 1000 m-1, I = 1.6 A,
μ0 = 4π × 10-7 T∙m/A
(i) The magnetic field strength (or magnetic intensity) of the ideal solenoid,
H = nI
= 1000 × 1.6 = 1.6 × 103 A/m

(ii) The magnetization of the core,
Mz = χmH = (μr – 1)H
= (500 – 1) × 1.6 × 103
= 499 × 1.6 × 103 = 7.984 × 105 A/m

(iii) The magnetic induction within the core of the solenoid,
B = μrμ0H
= (500) (4 × 3.142 × 10-7) (1.6 × 103)
= 32 × 3.142 × 10-2 = 1.005 T

Question 28.
What is a diamagnetic material? Give two examples.
Answer:
A material which is weakly repelled by a magnet and whose atoms /molecules do not possess a net magnetic’ moment in the absence of an external magnetic field is called a diamagnetic material.

When a diamagnetic material is placed in a uniform magnetic field, it acquires a small net induced magnetic moment directed opposite to the field.

Examples: Bismuth, copper, gold, silver, anti-mony, mercury, water, air, hydrogen, lead, silicon, nitrogen, sodium chloride.

Question 29.
What is diamagnetism?
Answer:
A material which is weakly repelled by a magnet and whose atoms/molecules do not possess a net magnetic moment in the absence of an external magnetic field is called a diamagnetic material. When a diamagnetic material is placed in a mag-netic field, it acquires a small net induced magnetic moment directed opposite to the field. The induced magnetism exhibited by such materials is called diamagnetism.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials

Question 30.
State any four properties of a diamagnetic material.
Answer:
Properties of a diamagnetic material :

  1. In the absence of an external magnetic field, the magnetic dipole moment of each atom / molecule of a diamagnetic material is zero.
  2. A diamagnetic material is weakly repelled by a magnet.
  3. If a thin rod of a diamagnetic material is suspended in a uniform magnetic field, it comes to rest with its length perpendicular to the field.
  4. When placed in a nonuniform magnetic field, a diamagnetic material is repelled from the region of strong field.
  5. The magnetic susceptibility (χm) of a diamagnetic material is small and negative.
  6. χm is very nearly temperature-independent.
  7. The relative permeability (μr) of a diamagnetic material is slightly less than 1 and very nearly temperature independent.
  8. If a diamagnetic liquid in a watch glass is placed on two closely spaced pole-pieces of a magnet, the liquid accumulates on the sides causing a depression at the centre.
    [ Note : When the pole-pieces are moved apart, the effect is reversed, i.e., the diamagnetic liquid accumulates at the centre, where the magnetic field is weak.]
  9. A diamagnetic liquid in a U-tube placed in a magnetic field shows a depression in the arm to which the magnetic field is applied.
  10. If a diamagnetic gas is introduced between the pole-pieces of a magnet, it spreads at right angles to the field.

Question 31.
Name two materials that have negative magnetic susceptibility.
Answer:
Copper and gold have negative magnetic susceptibility.

Question 32.
Explain the origin of diamagnetism.
OR
Explain the origin of diamagnetism on the basis of atomic structure.
Answer:
An atomic electron is equivalent to a current loop which has orbital magnetic moment. Further, electron spin gives rise to the spin magnetic moment. The magnetic moment of an atom is equal to the vector sum of the magnetic moments of all its electrons.

The electronic configuration in an atom of a diamagnetic material is such that the vector sum of the orbital and spin magnetic moments of all the electrons is zero. Thus, the atomic magnetic moment is zero. Hence, a diamagnetic material has no inherent magnetic moment associated with it.

When a diamagnetic material is placed in a magnetic field, the orbiting electrons are accelerated or decelerated depending on their sense of revolution. For the electrons that are speeded up, the magnetic moment increases and for those that are slowed down, the magnetic moment decreases. This happens due to induced current as per Lenz’s law. Thus, each atom acquires a net magnetic moment and the diamagnetic material is weakly magnetized. The induced magnetic moment is opposite in direction to the applied field.

Diamagnetism is the weakest magnetic phenomenon. Hence, although diamagnetism is a universal property, it can be detected only in the absence of properties resulting in para- and ferromagnetism.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials

Question 33.
Explain the diamagnetic behaviour of superconductors.
Answer:
Suppose a superconducting material in its normal phase, not the superconducting phase, is placed in a uniform applied magnetic field of induction \(\vec{B}\) which is weaker than a certain critical magnetic induction \(\vec{B}_{\mathrm{c}}\) for that material. Then, when the temperature is reduced below the critical temperature for the material, it enters into the superconducting phase and the magnetic field is expelled from the interior of the material.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials 14
There is no magnetic field inside the material, i.e., the material exhibits perfect diamagnetism. The expulsion of the magnetic field in a superconducting material is called the Meissner effect.

[Notes : (1) What happens is that currents appear on the surface of the material whose magnetic field exactly cancels the applied field inside it. (2) The German physicists Fritz Walther Meissner (1882-1974) and Robert Ochsenfeld (1901-1993) discovered the phenomenon in 1933 by measuring the magnetic field distribution outside superconducting tin and lead samples. The Meissner effect is so strong that a magnet can actually be levitated over a material cooled below its superconducting transition temperature Tc.]

Question 34.
What is a paramagnetic material? Give two examples.
Answer:
A material which is weakly attracted by a magnet and whose atoms possess a net magnetic moment with all atomic magnetic moments randomly directed in the absence of an external magnetic field but are capable of being aligned in the direction of the applied magnetic field is called a paramagnetic material.

Examples : Aluminium, platinum, chromium, manganese, sodium, calcium, magnesium, lithium, tungsten, niobium, copper chloride, oxygen.

Question 35.
State any four properties of a paramagnetic material.
Answer:
Properties of a paramagnetic material:

  1. Each atom of a paramagnetic material possesses a magnetic dipole moment. However, in the absence of an external magnetic field, the atomic magnetic moments are randomly oriented and hence the resultant magnetization of a paramagnetic material is zero.
  2. A paramagnetic material is weakly attracted by a magnet.
  3. If a thin rod of a paramagnetic material is sus-pended in a uniform magnetic field, it comes to rest with its length parallel to the field.
  4. When placed in a nonuniform magnetic field, a paramagnetic material is attracted towards the region of strong field.
  5. The magnetic susceptibility (χm) of a paramagnetic material is small and positive.
  6. χm varies inversely with the absolute temperature T.
  7. The relative permeability (μr) of a paramagnetic material is slightly greater than 1 and decreases with increasing temperature.
  8. If a paramagnetic liquid in a watch glass is placed on two closely spaced pole-pieces of a magnet, it shows a slight rise in the middle.
    [Note : If the pole-pieces are moved apart, the para-magnetic liquid moves away from the centre where the field is weak and gets depressed in the middle.]
  9. A paramagnetic liquid in a U-tube placed in a magnetic field shows a rise in the arm to which the magnetic field is applied.

Question 36.
Give one example each of a diamagnetic material and a paramagnetic material.
Answer:
Bismuth is a diamagnetic material and aluminium is a paramagnetic material.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials

Question 37.
Name two materials that have small and positive magnetic susceptibility.
Answer:
Platinum and Chromium have small and positive magnetic susceptibility.

Question 38.
The relative permeability of two materials are 0.999 and 1.001. Identify the materials.
Answer:
A material with relative permeability μr ≤ 1 is diamagnetic while the one with μr ≥ 1 is paramagnetic.

Question 39.
Explain the origin of paramagnetism.
OR
Explain the origin of paramagnetism on the basis of atomic structure.
Answer:
Paramagnetism depends on the presence of permanent atomic or molecular magnetic dipole moments. The inherent net atomic magnetic mo-ment results from a particular combination of the spin and orbital magnetic moments of its electrons.

The spin magnetic moments of the electrons in matter are affected by the internal magnetic field created by the magnetic moments of surrounding electrons. This internal field, ~ 10-2 T to 10-1 T,
causes the spin magnetic moments to precess about the field direction. At normal temperature; the thermal motion of the electrons produces constant fluctuations in the internal field so that the spin magnetic moments have random directions, from figure (a). In the absence of an external magnetizing field, therefore, a paramagnetic material is not magnetized.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials 15
When the applied field strength is greater than that of the internal field, the spin magnetic moments tend to align parallel to the external field direction. But the randomizing effect of thermal agitation prevents complete alignment, from figure (b). Therefore, at room temperature, when a paramagnetic material is placed in a magnetic field, it is weakly magnetized in the direction of the magnetizing field.

If the external field is very large or the temperature is very low, the magnetic dipole moments are effectively aligned parallel to the field so as to have the least magnetic potential energy and the magnetization reaches saturation, from figure (c).

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials

Question 40.
Discuss Curie’s law for paramagnetic material.
OR
State Curie’s law of paramagnetism.
Answer:
Curie’s law : The magnetization of a paramagnetic material is directly proportional to the external magnetic field and inversely proportional to the absolute temperature of the material.

If a paramagnetic material at an absolute temperature T is placed in an external magnetic field of induction \(\overrightarrow{B_{\text {ext }}}\), the magnitude of its magnetization
Mz ∝ \(\frac{B_{\text {ext }}}{T}\) ∴ Mz = C \(\frac{B_{\text {ext }}}{T}\)
where the proportionality constant C is called the Curie constant.

[Notes : (1) The above law, discovered experimentally in 1895 by Pierre Curie (1859-1906) French physicist, is true only for values of Bext/ T below about 0.5 tesla per kelvin.
(2) [C] = [Mz ∙ T] / [Bext] = [L-1I∙Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials 16] /[MT-2I-1]
= [M-1L-1T2I2Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials 16],
where Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials 16 denotes the dimension of temperature.]

Question 41.
Prove that the magnetic susceptibility of a para-magnetic material is inversely proportional to its absolute temperature.
Answer:
Consider a paramagnetic material at an absolute temperature T placed in an external magnetic field of induction \(\vec{B}_{\text {ext }}\). The magnitude of its magnetization is
Mz = C \(\frac{\vec{B}_{\text {ext }}}{T}\) …………. (1)
where the proportionality constant C is called the Curie constant.
Substituting \(\vec{B}_{\text {ext }}\) = μ0H in Eq. (1),
Mz = C \(\frac{\mu_{0} H}{T}\)
where µ0 is the permeability of free space and H is the intensity of the magnetizing field.
The magnetic susceptibility of the medium
χm = \(\frac{M_{z}}{H}\). Thus, Eq. (2) becomes ti
χm = C \(\frac{\mu_{0}}{T}\)
χm ∝ \(\frac{1}{T}\)
This is the required expression.

Question 42.
What is a ferromagnetic material? Give two examples.
Answer:
A material which is strongly attracted by a magnet and whose atoms possess a net magnetic moment (largely due to electron spin) which, within a certain temperature range, spontaneously line up parallel to each other by quantum mechanical exchange interaction is called a ferromagnetic material.

Examples : Transition elements (iron, cobalt and nickel), inner transition elements (gadolinium, Gd, and dysprosium, Dy) and their alloys.

[Note : Ferromagnetic behaviour was first explained by Pierre-Ernest Weiss on the basis of domain theory but its satisfactory explanation is given only by quantum mechanics.]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials

Question 43.
What are domains in a ferromagnetic material ?
OR
Write a short note on domains in a ferromagnetic material.
Answer:
A ferromagnetic material is composed of mosaic of small regions within each of which all the atomic magnetic moments spontaneously line up parallel to each other by quantum mechanical exchange interaction within a certain temperature range. Each such spontaneously magnetized region is called a domain and the common direction of magnetic moment is called the domain axis. A domain is an extremely small region (e.g., a size of about 10-6 m -10-4 m) containing a large number (1010 – 1017) of atoms. The boundary between adjacent domains with a different orientation of magnetic moment is called a domain wall.

Question 44.
Explain ferromagnetism on the basis of the domain theory.
Answer:
Atoms of a ferromagnetic material have a perms tient non-zero magnetic dipole moment arising mainly from spin magnetic moments of the electrons.

According to the domain theory, a ferromagnetic material is composed of small regions called domains.

A domain is an extremely small region contain Inga large number (something like 1015 atoms as in common iron) of atoms,

Within each domain, the atomic magnetic moments of nearest-neighbour atoms interact strongly through exchange interaction (a quantum mechanical phenomenon) and align themselves parallel to each other even in the absence of an extemal magnetic field. A domain is. therefore, spontaneously magnetized to saturation.

In an unmagnetized material, however, the directions of magnetization of the different domains are w oriented that the net magnetization is zero.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials 17
When an external magnetic field Is applied, the resultant magnetization of the specimen Increases. This is achieved in either of two ways: Either a domain that is favourably oriented grows in size at the expenses of a less favourably oriented domain, or the direction of magnetization of an entire domain changes and aligns along the external magnetic field.

When a weak nagnetic field is applied, favour ably oriented domains grow in size by domain boundary displacement, from figure (b). In strong fields, the domains change their magnetization by domain rotation, from figures. 11.9 (c) and (d). If domains reach perfect alignment, as in from figure 11.9 (d),, the domains may merge into one large domain.

After the external field is removed, it may be energetically favourable for a domain’s direction of magnetizaLion to persist. Then, the specimen has a permanent magnetic dipole moment. This phonomenon, called magnetic remanance, Is the basis of the existence of permanent magnets.

Question 45.
State any four properties of a ferromagnetic material.
Answer:
(1) Each atom of a ferromagnetic material possesses a magnetic moment. A ferromagnetic material is composed of domains each of which is spontaneously magnetized to saturation. In an unmagnetized sample, the magnetic moments of different domains are so oriented that the macroscopic magnetization of the sample is zero.

(2) When a ferromagnetic material is placed in a strong external magnetic field, the domains whose magnetic moments are favourably oriented relative to the external field grow in size such that the sample acquires a nonzero macroscopic magnetization.
(3) A ferromagnetic material retains some magnetization even after it is removed from an external magnetic field. This magnetic retentivity is the basis ‘ of the existence of permanent magnets.

(4) A ferromagnetic material is strongly attracted by a magnet.
(5) A bar magnet, suspended in a uniform magnetic field, comes to rest with its magnetic dipole moment in the direction of the external field.
(6) When placed in a nonuniform magnetic field, a ferromagnetic material is attracted towards the region of strong field.
(7) The magnetic susceptibility (χm) and relative permeability (μr) of a ferromagnetic material are very high.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials

Question 46.
Are the (i) diamagnetic materials (ii) paramagnetic materials (iii) ferromagnetic materials attracted or repelled by a magnet?
Answer:
When placed in a nonuniform magnetic field,

  1. a diamagnetic material is weakly repelled from’ the region of strong field
  2. a paramagnetic material is weakly attracted towards the region of strong field
  3. a ferromagnetic material is strongly attracted towards the region of strong field.

Question 47.
Can there be a material which is nonmagnetic?
Answer:
All materials are magnetic. However, only ferromagnetics can have magnetic remanance and exhibit magnetic behaviour even in the absence of an external magnetic field. Diamagnetics and para-magnetics exhibit induced magnetism, i.e., they exhibit magnetic behaviour only in the presence of an external magnetic field.

[Note : A solid solution formed between paramagnetic or diamagnetic metals can be an exception to the general statement that all substances are magnetic. However, the zero value of the susceptibility will be retained only at one temperature, because the susceptibility of the paramagnetic constituent generally changes with temperature. A Cu-Ni alloy with 3.7 wt% Ni has zero susceptibility at room temperature.]

Question 48.
Which magnetic materials have
(i) relative permeability > 1
(ii) relative permeability <1?
Answer:
(i) Both paramagnetic and ferromagnetic materials have relative permeability (μr) greater than 1. μr is only slightly greater than 1 for a paramagnetic material. μr is very high for a ferromagnetic material and is a function of the magnetizing field (also called the magnetic field intensity).

(ii) μr is slightly less than 1 for a diamagnetic material.

Question 49.
Draw a graph showing the variation of magnetic susceptibility of a ferromagnetic material with temperature.
Answer:
The magnetic susceptibility of a ferromagnetic material above Curie temperature Tc is given by χm = \(\frac{C}{T-T_{\mathrm{c}}}\), where C is the Curie constant. Below figure shows the variation of magnetic susceptibility of a ferromagnetic material with temperature.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials 18
[Note : The relation, χm = \(\frac{C}{T-T_{\mathrm{c}}}\), is known as Curie-Weiss law. A plot of reciprocal susceptibility versus temperature for a ferromagnetic material is a straight line intercepting the temperature axis at T. At T = T, the susceptibility diverges which implies that one may have a nonzero magnetization in a zero applied field. This exactly corresponds to the definition of the Curie temperature, being the upper limit for having a spontaneous magnetization.].

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials

Question 50.
Distinguish between a diamagnetic material and a paramagnetic material.
Answer:

Diamagnetic material  Paramagnetic material
1. A material whose atoms/ 1. molecules do not possess a net magnetic moment in the absence of an external magnetic field is called a diamagnetic material.   1. A material whose atoms possess net magnetic mo­ments that are all randomly directed in the absence of an external magnetic field is called a paramagnetic material.
2. When placed in a nonuni­form magnetic field, a diamagnetic material is weakly repelled from the region of strong field.  2. When placed in a nonuni­form magnetic field, a para­magnetic material is weakly attracted towards the region of strong field.
3.  In an external magnetic j field, it gets weakly magnetized in the direction oppo­site to that of the field.  3.  In an external magnetic field, it gets weakly magne­tized in the same direction as that of the field. 
4.  When a rod of a diamagnetic material is suspended in a uniform magnetic field, it comes to rest with its length perpendicular to the direc­tion of the field.  4.  When a rod of a paramag­netic material is suspended in a uniform magnetic field, it comes to rest with its length parallel to the direc­tion of the field.
5.  χm is small, negative and very nearly temperature independent.  5.  χm is small, positive and varies inversely with abso­lute temperature T  
6.  μr is slightly less than 1 and very nearly temperature! independent.  6. μr is slightly greater than 1 and decreases with increas­ing temperature.
 

Question 51.
Distinguish between a paramagnetic material and a ferromagnetic material.
Answer:

A paramagnetic material A ferromagnetic material
1. The permanent atomic mag­netic moments of a para­magnetic material are all randomly oriented so that, in the absence of an external magnetizing field, the material is unmagnetized.
 
1. The permanent atomic mag­netic moments of a ferro­magnetic material interact strongly through exchange interaction forming domains which are spontaneously magnetized to saturation
2. It gets weakly magnetized when placed in an external magnetic field. 2. In an unmagnetized ma­terial, the directions of mag­netization of the different domains are so oriented that the net magnetization is zero.
3. Its magnetization becomes zero when the external magnetic field is removed. 3. It retains some magnetiz­ation even after the external magnetic field is removed.
4. Its magnetization in a given external magnetic field increases with decreasing temperature. The magne­tization reaches saturation only if the external field is very large and the tempera­ture is very low. 4. It retains its domain struc­ture only up to a characte­ristic Curie temperature, above which it becomes paramagnetic.
5. χm is small and positive. μr is slightly greater than 1. 5. χm and μr are positive and very high.  

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials

Question 52.
Distinguish between a ferromagnetic material and a diamagnetic material.
Answer:

A ferromagnetic material A diamagnetic material
1. A material whose atoms/molecules possess permanent  magnetic moments which interact strongly through exchange interaction to form magnetic domains, each of which is magnetized to saturation, is called a ferromagnetic material. 1. A material whose atoms/molecules do not possess a net magnetic moment in the absence of an external magnetic field is called a diamagnetic material.
2. It gets strongly magnetized in the direction of the field even when placed in a weak magnetic field 2. In an external magnetic field, it gets weakly magnetized in the direction opposite to the field.
3. It retains some magnetiz­ation even after the external magnetic field is removed. 3. Its magnetization becomes zero when the external magnetic field is removed.
4. When placed in a nonuni­form magnetic field, a ferromagnetic material is strongly attracted towards the region of strong field. 4. When placed in a nonuni­form magnetic field, a dia­magnetic material is weakly repelled from the region of strong field.
5. χm and μr are positive and very high. 5. χm is small and negative. μr is slightly less than 1.

53. Solve the following
Question 1.
(5) A toroid (Rowland ring) of mean radius 16 cm has 1000 turns of wire closely wound on a ferromagnetic core of relative permeability 400. What is the magnetic induction B within the core for a magnetizing current of 1 A?
Solution:
Data: r = 16 × 10-2 m, N = 1000, μr = 400, I = 1 A,
μ0 = 4π × 10-7 T∙m/A
Magnetic field strength, H = nI = \(\frac{N I}{2 \pi r}\)
∴ The magnetic induction within the core,
B = μ0μrH = μ0μr \(\frac{N I}{2 \pi r}\)
= (4π × 10-7) (400) \(\frac{1000 \times 1}{2 \pi \times 16 \times 10^{-2}}\)
= \(\frac{8 \times 10^{-2}}{16 \times 10^{-2}}\) = 0.5 T

Question 2.
Find the percentage increase in the magnetic induction B when the space within a current-carrying toroid is filled with aluminium. The magnetic susceptibility of aluminium is 2.1 × 10-5.
Solution:
Data: χm = 2.1 × 10-5 (positive, since aluminium is paramagnetic)
The percentage increase in the magnetic induction B within the toroid due to the aluminium core
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials 19

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials

Question 3.
The permeability of a substance at temperature 300 K is 6.284 × 10-3 SI unit. At what temperature will the susceptibility of that substance increase to 9.998 × 103?
Solution:
Data: T1 = 300 K, μ1 = 6.284 × 10-3, χm2 = 9.998 × 103, μ0 = 4π × 10-7 T∙m/A
Permeability, μ = μ0(1 + χm)
∴ The magnetic susceptibility at temperature T1,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials 20
∴ The required temperature,
T2 = \(\frac{\chi_{\mathrm{m} 1}}{\chi_{\mathrm{m} 2}}\) × T1 = \(\frac{4999}{9998}\) × 300 = 150 K

Question 54.
Explain magnetic hysteresis in a ferromagnetic material.
OR
Explain the behaviour of a ferromagnetic material in an external magnetic field with the help of a magnetic hysteresis cycle.
OR
Explain the behaviour of a ferromagnetic material through one cycle of magnetization.
Answer:
A large scale consequence of the magnetic behaviour of a ferromagnetic under different applied magnetic fields can be observed by placing an unmagnetized rod of the material inside a solenoid. A current through the coil establishes the magnetizing field H, which we take as the independent variable. By measuring the voltage induced in a test coil wound alongside, we can determine changes in flux Φ, and hence changes in B inside the rod. B is measured in tesla while H is measured in ampere per metre. Knowing B and H, we can always compute magnetization M. It is however usual to plot B rather than M, as a function of H.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials 21
Typical B-H plot during the following operations :
(1) Starting with an unmagnetized rod, B = 0 and H = 0 (Point O), H is increased until it has the value corresponding to point a : Here the rod has reached its saturation magnetization and B remains constant even with further increase in H. The lower part of the curve Oa is governed by domain growth while the upper flattening part is governed by domain rotation.

(2) Reduce H to zero (point b) : the curve does not retrace itself, as shown by the curve ab. This irre-versibility is called hysteresis. It is largely due to the domain boundary movements being partially irreversible. If the current is simply switched off at this point, the rod will have a residual magnetization as indicated by the non-zero value of B, called retentivity or remanence, for H = 0. Essentially now B = μ0M, i.e., the rod has acquired a permanent magnetization.

(3) Reverse H and increase it in magnitude until it has the value corresponding to point c : Here B is zero. The corresponding reverse magnetizing field H is called coercivity.

(4) Increase H in reverse direction until saturation magnetization is reached (point d).
(5) Reduce H to zero again (point e).
(6) Reverse the current once more until point a is reached again.
The process of taking the magnetic material once through the hysteresis loop abcdefa is called hysteresis cycle.

Question 55.
What is magnetic hysteresis ?
Explain it on the basis of magnetic domains.
Answer:
Magnetic hysteresis is a phenomenon shown by ferromagnetic materials in which the magnetic flux density through a material depends on the applied magnetizing field as well as the previous state of magnetization. Due to retention of its memory of previous state of magnetization, the flux density B lags behind (does not remain in step) with magnetizing field H. This delay in the change of its magnetization M (or equivalently, B) in response to a change in H is called hysteresis.

Hysteresis can be understood through the concept of magnetic domains. Domain boundary displacements and domain rotations are not totally reversible. When the applied magnetizing field H is increased and then decreased back to its initial value, the domains do not return completely to their original configuration but retain some memory or history of their previous alignment.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials

Question 56.
Define :
(1) retentivity
(2) coercivity.
Answer:

  1. Retentivity : The residual magnetic flux density or magnetization in a magnetic material when the magnetizing field intensity is reduced to zero is called retentivity or remanence.
  2. Coercivity: The reversed magnetizing field strength required to reduce the remanent magnetic flux density or magnetization in a magnetic material from its remanent value to zero, i.e., to demagnetize the magnetic material completely, is

Question 57.
What is a ‘soft’ magnetic material?
OR
What is meant by a ‘soft’ iron?
Answer:
A soft magnetic material, usually iron-based, has high permeability, low retentivity and low coercivity. In other words, it does not have appreciable hysteresis, i.e., its hysteresis loop is very narrow. Such a material magnetizes and demagnetizes more easily, by small external fields.

Question 58.
What is an electromagnet?
Answer:
An electromagnet is an insulated coil wrapped around a ferromagnetic core (usually a soft iron) of high permeability and low retentivity. When a current is passed through the coil-a solenoid or toroid, the ferromagnetic material magnifies the magnetic field of the coil, the magnification factor being the relative permeability (μ / μ0) of the core. The magnetic field of the current-carrying coil magnetizes the core material, thereby producing a much larger field than the coil would produce by itself.

Question 59.
What is a magnetically hard material?
Answer:
A ‘hard’ magnetic material, such as ALNICO (an alloy of aluminium, nickel and cobalt), has high permeability, high retentivity and very high coercivity- of the orders of 1 tesla and 104 ampere per metre, respectively. In other words, it has a large zero-field magnetization, and large reverse field needed to demagnetize. Its hysteresis loop is very broad. Such a material can be made into a permanent magnet, that is, its magnetization will persist indefinitely if it is subsequently exposed only to weak magnetic fields.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials

Question 60.
Distinguish between an electromagnet and a permanent magnet.
Answer:

Electromagnet

Permanent magnet

1. Magnetic field of an electromagnet is retained till there is passage of electric current through the solenoid or coil. 1. Magnetic field is retained for a long period of time.
2. current through the solenoid and the number of turns per unit length of the solenoid. 2. The strength of a permanent magnet depends upon the nature of the material of which it is made.
3. For a good electromagnet, the retentivity and coerciv­ity of the material should be low. 3. For a good permanent mag­ net, the retentivity and co­ercivity of the material should be high.
4. It is usually made of soft ferromagnetic material. 4. It is usually made of hard ferromagnetic material.
5. Poles of an electromagnet can be reversed by revers­ing the direction of electric current. 5. Poles of a permanent mag­net cannot be reversed.

Question 61.
Explain magnetic shielding.
Answer:
The use of a shell or box of magnetic material of high permeability to protect sensitive instruments from stray magnetic fields is called magnetic shielding. The permeability of the material being many order of magnitudes greater than air, the magnetic field lines pass through the shell. The saturation v induction B of the material must be greater than the external field to be shielded. from below figure shows the cross section of a cylindrical or spherical shield in which the central region is the field-free region.

Magnetic shielding is useful for a wide range of applications, from small components inside a set of speakers to large magnetically shielded rooms.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials 22
[Note : The most widely used alloy for magnetic shielding purposes is the patented MuMetal®. Its composition of 80% nickel, 4.5% molybdenum and balance iron gives it high permeability.] .

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
A rectangular bar magnet-with sides l. b and w – h.is mass n and magnetic moment M. It is free to rotate about a vertical axis through its centre of mass such that its faces of area l × b are honzoritaL The period T of angular oscillations of this magnet in a uniform magnetic field B is given by
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials 23
Answer:
(B) \(\sqrt{\frac{\pi^{2} m\left(l^{2}+b^{2}\right)}{3 M B}}\)

Question 2.
A magnet of moment \(\vec{m}\) is placed in a uniform magnetic field \(\vec{B}\). Which of the following graphs correctly depicts the variation of its orientation energy Uθ i.e., its potential energy due to its orientation θ with \(\vec{B}\)?
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials 24
Answer:
(D)

Question 3.
The magnetic dipole moment has the dimensions of current
(A) \(\frac{\text { current }}{\text { area }}\)
(B) current × area
(C) \(\frac{\text { area }}{\text { current }}\)
(D) current × length.
Answer:
(B) current × area

Question 4.
The dimensions of magnetic dipole moment are
(A) [L2I]
(B) [LI]
(C) [L-1I]
(D) [L-2I]
Answer:
(A) [L2I]

Question 5.
The gyromagnetic ratio of an orbital electron is the ratio of its
(A) charge to mass
(B) magnetic moment to volume
(C) orbital magnetic moment to linear momentum
(D) orbital magnetic moment to orbital angular momentum.
Answer:
(D) orbital magnetic moment to orbital angular momentum.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials

Question 6.
If \(\vec{M}_{0}, \vec{L}_{0}\) and γ0 are respectively the magnetic dipole moment, orbital angular momentum and gyrornagnetlc ratio of an orbital electron. Then.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials 25
Answer:
(A) \(\vec{M}_{0}=-\gamma_{0} \overrightarrow{L_{0}}\)

Question 7.
Bohr magneton is the magnetic dipole moment of
(A) an orbital electron in the ground state of a Bohr atom
(B) an orbital electron with orbital angular momenturn of \(\frac{h}{2 \pi}\)
(C) the order of 10-23 J/T
(D) all of the above.
Answer:
(D) all of the above.

Question 8.
A bar magnet 10 cm long has cross-sectional area 2 cm2 and magnetic dipole moment of 10 A∙m2. The magnetization of its material, assumed to be uniform, is
(A) 5 × 105 A/m
(B) 2 × 105 A/m
(C) 0.5 A/m
(D) 0.2 A/m.
Answer:
(A) 5 × 105 A/m

Question 9.
An iron rod of volume 10-4 m3 acquires a magnetic moment of 25 A∙m2 when placed inside a solenoid whose windings carry a current of 0.5 A. The magnetization of the rod (in A/m), assumed to be uniform, is
(A) 5 × 10-5
(B) 2.5 × 10-3
(C) 12.5
(D) 2.5 × 105
Answer:
(D) 2.5 × 105

Question 10.
The dimensions of magnetic intensity are
(A) [LI]
(B) [L2I]
(C) [L-1I]
(D) [L-2I].
Answer:
(C) [L-1I]

Question 11.
The ratio of magnetization to magnetic field induction (M/B) for both diamagnetic and paramagnetic materials is, in the usual notation,
(A) χm
(B) \(\frac{\chi_{\mathrm{m}}}{\mu_{0}}\)
(C) µr
(D) µ
Answer:
(B) \(\frac{\chi_{\mathrm{m}}}{\mu_{0}}\)

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials

Question 12.
Magnetic susceptibility for vacuum (where there is no matter) is
(A) zero
(B) positive
(C) negative
(D) infinite.
Answer:
(A) zero

Question 13.
Magnetic susceptibility is positive and small for
(A) silver
(B) platinum
(C) mercury
(D) sodium chloride.
Answer:
(B) platinum

Question 14.
The magnetic induction within an ideal solenoid with air core is 5 mT. With an iron core of magnetic susceptibility 500, the induction within changes by
(A) 2.5 T
(B) 25 T
(C) 50 T
(D) 100 T.
Answer:
(A) 2.5 T

Question 15.
The magnetic moment of any atom in an isolated diamagnetic material is
(A) zero
(B) small
(C) large
(D) negative.
Answer:
(A) zero

Question 16.
Which of the following is diamagnetic?
(A) Dysprosium
(B) Gadolinium
(C) Magnesium
(D) Silver
Answer:
(D) Silver

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials

Question 17.
The most exotic diamagnetic materials are
(A) the glasses
(B) the insulators
(C) the superconductors
(D) the semiconductors.
Answer:
(C) the superconductors

Question 18.
A thin, small gIas rod is suspended between the poles of a strung electromagnet. The rod
(A) is strongly repelled by the magnetic field.
(B) orients itself parallel to the magnetic field
(C) orients itself perpendicuLar to the magnetic field
(D) is weakly attracted by the magnetic field
Answer:
(C) orients itself perpendicuLar to the magnetic field

Question 19.
Which of the following is paramagnetic?
(A) Bismuth
(B) Copper
(C) Liq. oxygen
(D) Silver
Answer:
(C) Liq. oxygen

Question 20.
When a parainagnetic material Is placed in a uniform magnetic field,
(A) its atoms acquire a magnetic moment opposite to the magnetic field
(B) the atomic magnetic moments tend to align along the magnetizing field
(C) all the atomic magnetic moments align along the magnetizing field
(D) the sample temporarily becomes ferromagnetic.
Answer:
(B) the atomic magnetic moments tend to align along the magnetizing field

Question 21.
Curte constant is
(A) a universal constant
(B) constant for a given paramagnetic material
(C) constant for a given diamagnetic material
(D) inversely proportional to the absolute temperature
Answer:
(B) constant for a given paramagnetic material

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 11 Magnetic Materials

Question 22.
The rare-earth element, gadolinium, is
(A) diamagnetic
(B) paramagnetic
(C) ferromagnetic
(D) nonmagnetic.
Answer:
(C) ferromagnetic

Question 23.
Curie’s law is valid for
(A) diamagnelics
(B) paramagnetics
(C) ferromagnetics
(D) all materials,
Answer:
(B) paramagnetics

Question 24.
Magnetizing and demagnetizing a material that has hysteresis involves
(A) increase in the temperature of the material
(B) a terro-to-para phase change
(C) decrease in the temperature of the material
(D) none of the above.
Answer:
(A) increase in the temperature of the material

Question 25.
The length of a bar magnet is large compared to its width and breadth. The time period of its angular oscillation in a vibration magnetometer is 2s. The magnet is cut along its length into two equal parts and the two parts are then mounted together in the magnetometer with their like poles together. The time period of this combination will be
(A) 2 s
(B) 1 s
(C) \(\frac{1}{2}\) s
(D) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\) s
Answer:
(B) 1 s

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 1.
What is the magnetic effect of electric current?
Answer:
An electric current produces a magnetic field around it. This phenomenon is known as the magnetic effect of electric current. It was discovered by Hans Christian Oersted.

It was Ampere who first speculated that all magnetic effects are attributable to electric charges in motion (electric current). It takes a moving electric charge to produce a magnetic field, and it takes another moving electric charge to “feel” a magnetic field.

[Note : Hans Christian Oersted (1777-1851), Danish physicist, discovered electromagnetism in 1820. The oersted, the CGS unit of magnetic field strength, is named after him.]

Question 2.
Describe the magnetic field near a current in a long, straight wire. State the expression for the magnetic induction near a straight infinitely long current-carrying wire.
Answer:
Suppose a point P is at a distance a from a straight, infinitely long, wire carrying a current I, as shown in figure.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 1
It can be shown that the magnitude of the total magnetic induction at P is given by the expression
B = \(\left(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi}\right) \frac{2 I}{a}\)
That is, the magnitude B is inversely proportional to the distance from the wire. Because of the axial symmetry about the straight wire, the magnetic induction has the same magnitude B at all points on a circle in a transverse plane and centred on the conductor; the direction of \(\vec{B}\) is everywhere tangential to such a circle. Thus, the magnetic field lines around the current in the straight wire is a family of circles centred on the wire. The magnitude of the field B depends only on the current and the perpendicular distance a of the point from the wire.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 3.
Explain the use of right hand grip rule to give the direction of magnetic field in the vicinity of a straight current-carrying conductor.
OR
State the right hand rule for the direction of the magnetic field due to a straight current-carrying wire.
Answer:
Right hand [grip] rule : If a straight current-carrying wire is grasped by the right hand, so that the extended thumb points in the direction of the current, the direction of the magnetic induction is the same as the direction of the fingers which are curled around the wire.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 2

Question 4.
State the factors which the magnetic force on a charge depends upon. Hence state the expression for the Lorentz force on a charge due to an electric field as well as a magnetic field.
Hence discuss the magnetic force on a charged particle which is
(i) moving parallel to the magnetic field
(ii) stationary.
Answer:
A charge q moving with a velocity \(\vec{v}\) through a magnetic field of induction \(\vec{B}\) experiences a magnetic force perpendicular both to \(\vec{B}\) and \(\vec{v}\) . Experimental observations show that the magnitude of the force is proportional to the magnitude of \(\vec{B}\), the speed of the particle, the charge q and the sine of the angle θ between \(\vec{v}\) and \(\vec{B}\). That is, the magnetic force, Fm = qvB sin θ
∴ Fm = q(\(\vec{v}\) × \(\vec{B}\))
Therefore, at every instant \(\vec{F}_{\mathrm{m}}\) acts in a direction perpendicular to the plane of \(\vec{v}\) and \(\vec{B}\).
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 3
If the moving charge is negative, the direction of the force \(\vec{F}_{\mathrm{m}}\) acting on it is opposite to that given by the right-handed screw rule for the cross-product \(\vec{v}\) × \(\vec{B}\).

If the charged particle moves through a region of space where both electric and magnetic fields are present, both fields exert forces on the particle.

The force due to the electric field \(\vec{E}\) is \(\vec{F}_{\mathrm{e}}=q \vec{E}\).

The total force on a moving charge in electric and magnetic fields is called the Lorentz force :
\(\vec{F}=\vec{F}_{\mathrm{e}}+\vec{F}_{\mathrm{m}}=q(\vec{E}+\vec{v} \times \vec{B})\)
Special cases :
(i) \(\vec{v}\) is parallel or antiparallel to \(\vec{B}\): In this case, Fm = qvB sin 0° = 0. That is, the magnetic force on the charge is zero.
(ii) The charge is stationary (v = 0) : In this case, even if q ≠ 0 and B ≠ 0, Fm = q(0)B sin θ = 0. That is, the magnetic force on a stationary charge is zero.

Question 5.
Explain why the magnetic force on a charged particle cannot change the linear speed and the kinetic energy of the particle.
OR
One implication of the Lorentz force law is that magnetic force does no work. Justify.
Answer:
The magnetic force on a particle carrying a charge q and moving with a velocity \(\vec{v}\) in a magnetic field of induction \(\vec{B}\) is \(\vec{F}_{\mathrm{m}}=q \vec{v} \times \vec{B}\). At every instant, \(\vec{F}_{\mathrm{m}}\) is perpendicular to the linear velocity \(\vec{v}\), and \(\vec{B}\). Therefore, a non-zero magnetic force may change the direction of the velocity and the dot product
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 4
But \(\vec{F}_{\mathrm{m}} \cdot \vec{v}\) is the power, i.e., the time rate of doing work. Hence, the work done by the magnetic force in every short displacement of the particle is zero. The work done by a force produces a change in kinetic energy. Zero work means no change in kinetic energy. Thus, although the magnetic force changes the direction of the velocity \(\vec{v}\), it cannot change the linear speed and the kinetic energy of the particle.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 6.
Define the SI unit of magnetic induction from Lorentz force.
Answer:
The SI unit of magnetic induction is the tesla.
We can define the unit from the velocity-dependent part of the Lorentz force that acts on a charge in motion parallel to a magnetic field.

Definition : The magnitude of magnetic induction is said to be 1 tesla when a charge of 1 coulomb experiences a force of 1 N when it moves at 1 m/s in a magnetic field in a direction perpendicular to the direction of the field.

1 tesla (T) = 1 N’s/Gm = 1 N/A-m.
[Notes : (1) Since the ampere and not the coulomb is the fundamental unit, the tesla is defined from the expression for the force on a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field when placed perpendicular to the direction of the field (see Unit 10.5, Q. 29): The magnitude of magnetic induction is said to be 1 tesla when a conductor of length 1 metre and carrying a current of 1 ampere experiences a force oflN when it is placed with its length perpendicular to the direction of the magnetic field. (2) The unit is named after Nikola Tesla (1870 -1943), Croatia-born US electrical engineer, inventor of the AC induction motor.]

Question 7.
Name a non-SI unit of magnetic induction. State its relation to the SI unit of magnetic induction.
Answer:
A CGS unit of magnetic induction of historical interest is the gauss, symbol G. However, since the magnetic flux and the magnetic flux density (magnetic induction, B) are defined by similar equations in the CGS system and the SI, this non-SI unit is accepted for use with SI.

1 G = 10-4 T

[Note : The unit gauss is named after Karl Friedrich Gauss (1777 -1855), German mathematician, who strongly promoted in 1832 the use of the French decimal or metric system, with the metre and the kilogram and the astronomical second, as a coherent system of units for physical sciences. Gauss was the first to make absolute measurements of the Earth’s magnetic field in terms of a decimal system based on the three mechanical units millimetre, gram and second for, respectively, the quantities length, mass and time.]

Question 8.
Explain cyclotron motion and cyclotron formula.
Answer:
Suppose a particle of mass m and charge q enters a region of uniform magnetic field of induction \(\vec{B}\). In below figure, \(\vec{B}\) points into the page. The magnetic force \(\vec{F}_{\mathrm{m}}\) on the particle is always perpendicular to the velocity of the particle, \(\vec{v}\). Assuming the charged particle started moving in a plane perpendicular to \(\vec{B}\), its motion in the magnetic field is a uniform circular motion, with the magnetic force providing the centripetal acceleration.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 5
where p = mv is the linear momentum of the particle. Equation (1) is known as the cyclotron formula because it describes the motion of a particle in a cyclotron-the first of the modern particle accelerators.

Question 9.
Explain the condition under which a charged particle will travel through a uniform magnetic field in a helical path.
OR
Describe the general motion of charged particle in a uniform magnetic field.
Answer:
Suppose a particle of mass m and charge q starts in a region of uniform magnetic field of induction \(\vec{B}\) with a velocity \(\vec{v}\) which has a non-zero component v|| in the direction of \(\vec{B}\), From below figure. The magnetic force \(\vec{F}_{\mathrm{m}}\) on the particle is always perpendicular to \(\vec{v}\) and provides a centripetal acceleration such that
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 6
The parallel component of the motion \(\vec{v}_{\|}\) is unaffected by the magnetic field, so that the motion of the particle is a composite motion: an UCM with speed v -the speed perpendicular to \(\vec{B}\) and a translation with a constant speed v||. Therefore, the particle moves in a helix. Thus, the perpendicular component v determines the radius of the helix while the parallel component v|| determines the pitch x of the helix, i.e., the distance between adjacent turns. x = v||/ T.

[Notes : (1) At non-relativistic speeds (v much less than the speed of light), the period T is independent of the speed of the particle. For all particles with the same charge-to-mass ratio (q/ m), faster particles move in larger circles than the slower ones, but all take the same time T to complete one revolution. (2) Looking in the direction of \(\vec{B}\), a positive charge always revolves anticlockwise, and a negative charge always clockwise.]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 10.
State under what conditions will a charged particle moving through a uniform magnetic field travel in
(i) a straight line
(ii) a circular path
(iii) a helical path.
Ans.
(i) A charged particle travels undeviated through a magnetic field \(\vec{B}\), if its velocity \(\vec{v}\) is parallel or antiparallel to \(\vec{B}\). In this case, the magnetic force on the charge is zero.
(ii) A charged particle travels in a circular path within a magnetic field \(\vec{B}\), if its velocity \(\vec{v}\) is perpendicular to \(\vec{B}\).
(iii) A charged particle travels in a helical path through a magnetic field \(\vec{B}\), if its velocity \(\vec{v}\) is inclined at an angle θ to \(\vec{B}\), 0 < θ < 90°. In this case, the component of \(\vec{v}\) parallel to \(\vec{B}\) is unaffected by the magnetic field. The radius and pitch of the helix are determined respectively by the perpendicular and parallel components of \(\vec{v}\).

Question 11.
A particle of charge q enters a region of uniform magnetic field \(\vec{B}\) (pointing into the page). The field deflects the particle a distance d above the original line of flight, as shown in below figure. Is the charge positive or negative ? Find the momentum of the particle in terms of a, d, B and q.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 7
Answer:
Since \(\vec{v} \times \vec{B}\) points upward, and that is also the direction of the magnetic force \(\vec{F}_{\mathrm{m}}\), q must be positive.
Using the Pythagorean theorem to find R in terms of a and d,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 8
[Note: A similar solved question in the textbook, Example 10.2, is wrong. The acceleration qvB/m is the centripetal acceleration whose magnitude remains constant but direction changes continuously. Hence, it cannot be used in a kinematical equation to calculate s. The final expression for p arrived at in the textbook is therefore not correct.]

Question 12.
An ion of mass re and charge q is accelerated from rest through a potential difference V and enters a region of uniform magnetic field of induction B. Within the region, the ion moves in a semidrcle and strikes a photographic plate which lies along the diameter of the semicircle at a distance D from the point of entry. Show that the mass of the ion is given by m = \(k \frac{q D^{2} B^{2}}{V}\)
Answer:
Consider positive ions of charge q and mass m accelerated from rest to a speed r’ by an accelerating potential V. Then, the kinetic energy of the ions is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 9
On entering a region of uniform magnetic field of induction B (see above figure for reference), the Ions travel in a semicircular path in a plane normal to the field with a radius
R = \(\frac{m v}{q B}\)
∴ m2v2 = q2B2R2 ………….. (2)
From Eq. (1) m2v2 = 2qVm ………….. (3)
Equating the right hand sides of Eqs. (2) and (3),
2qVm = q2B2R2
∴ m = \(\frac{q B^{2} R^{2}}{2 V}\)
Since R = \(\frac{D}{2}\),
m = \(\frac{q B^{2} D^{2}}{8 V}\) = k\(\frac{q B^{2} D^{2}}{V}\)
where k = \(\frac{1}{8}\), Equation (4) Is the required expression.

[Note : This is especially the working of a mass spectrometer which Is used to measure the mass of an ion. A mass spectrometer is so sensitive it is used to measure isotopic masses. If the isotopes of an element carry the same charge, they acquire the same energy when accelerator through the same pd. But within the magnetic field, they travel in different semicircles depending on their masses and strike a detector or photographic plate at different D.]

Question 13.
A particle of charge q and momentum p enters a region of uniform magnetic field B travelling at right angles to the field, and is deflected through a right angle as shown. Obtain an expression for the length of the particle’s path In terms of q, p and B.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 10
Answer:
A particle of charge q and momentum p enters a region of uniform magnetic field B travelling at right angles to the field. Within the field, the particle travels in a circular path of radius
R = \(\frac{p}{q B}\) ………. (1)
From the diagram, the length s of the particle’s path in the field is one quarter of the circumference,
∴ s = \(\frac{2 \pi R}{4}=\frac{\pi}{2} \frac{p}{q B}\) ………….. (2)
This is the required expression.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 14.
What is a cyclotron? State its principle of working.
Answer:
A cyclotron is a cyclic magnetic resonance accelerator in which an alternating potential difference of a few kV is used to accelerate light positive ions such as protons, deuterons, α-particles, etc., but not electrons, to very high energies of the order of a few MeV. It was developed by E. O. Lawrence and M. S. Livingston in 1932.

Principle: The cyclotron employs the principle of synchronous acceleration to accelerate charged particles which describe a spiral path at right angles to a constant magnetic field and make multiple passes through the same alternating p.d., whose frequency is the same as the frequency of revolution of the particles. .

Question 15.
Describe the construction of the cyclotron with a neat labelled diagram.
Answer:
Construction of the cyclotron: Two hollow D-shaped chambers that are open at their straight edges form the electrodes. They are called the dees. The dees are separated by a small gap, as shown in below figure, and a high-frequency (106 Hz to 107 Hz) alternating p.d. (of the order of 104 V to 105 V) is applied between them. The whole system is placed in an evacuated chamber between the poles of a large and strong electromagnet (B ≡ ≅ 1 T to 2T).

The ions to be accelerated are produced in an ion source; a hydrogen tube gives protons, heavy hydrogen or deuterium gives deuterons while helium gives x-particles, etc. The positive ions are injected near the centre and are accelerated each time they
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 11
cross the gap between the does. At the edge of one of the does, an electrostatic deflector deflects the spiralling particles out of the system to strike a target.

Question 16.
Explain the working of the cyclotron with a neat labelled diagram.
Answer:
The dees of the cyclotron are separated by a small gap and a high-frequency alternating p.d. is applied between them. Light positive ions are injected into the system near the centre.

Suppose a positive ion of charge q and mass m is injected when D1 is positive and D2 is negative. The positive ion will accelerate towards D2. Inside the dees there is no electric field. Hence, inside D2 it has a constant speed v. The magnetic force of magnitude qvB makes it move in a semicircular path through D2. The radius r of its orbit is given by equating the centripetal force to the magnetic force.

Let t be the time spent by the ion to describe the semicircular path.

If t is also half the period of oscillation T of the alternating p.d., the ion will be in resonance with the electric field in the gap. That is, the ion will emerge from D2 at the instant D1 becomes negative and will be accelerated towards D1. As the ion gains speed in the gap, its path in D1 has greater radius. This process repeats after every half cycle of the alternating p.d. and the ion is accelerated each time it crosses the gap between the dees.

The radius of the path of the charged particles increases proportionately with their speed, the period of revolution remains constant.

After a large number of revolutions, the ion reaches the edge of the system where a negatively charged electrostatic deflector plate deflects it out of the system towards the target.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 17.
State the functions of the electric and magnetic fields in a cyclotron.
Answer:
The function of the electric field in the gap between the dees of a cyclotron is to accelerate the positively charged particles while that of the magnetic field in the dees is to deflect the particles in semicircular paths so that they return to the gap in a fixed time interval to reuse the alternating electric field.

Question 18.
Show that for a given positive ion species in a cyclotron,
(i) the radius of their circular path inside a dee is directly proportional to their speed
(ii) the time spent in a dee (or the cyclotron frequency or the magnetic resonance frequency) is independent of the radius of their path and speed
(iii) the maximum ion energy obtainableis directly proportional to the square of the magnetic induction.
Answer:
Consider positive ions of charge q and mass m injected in a cyclotron. In the electric-field-free region inside a dee, the ions are acted upon only by the uniform magnetic field. Hence, inside a dee the ions travel in a semicircular path with a constant speed y, in a plane normal to the field. If B is the induction of the magnetic field, the magnetic force of magnitude qvB provides the centripetal force.
∴\(\frac{m v^{2}}{r}\) = qvB
∴ r = \(\frac{m v}{q B}\) …………. (1)
Thus, for given q, m and B,
r ∝ v
If t be the time spent in a dee by the ion to describe a semicircular path of radius r,
t = \(\frac{\pi r}{v}=\frac{\pi}{v} \times \frac{m v}{q B}\)
∴ t = \(\frac{\pi m}{q B}\) …………. (2)
Thus, t is independent of r and y, i.e., it takes the ions exactly the same time t to travel the semicircular paths inside the dees irrespective of the radius of the path and the speed of the ions so long a the mass in is constant. This is the critical characteristic of operation of the cyclotron.

The periodic time of an ion in its circular path is
T = 2t = \(\frac{2 \pi m}{q B}\) ………….. (3)

The frequency of revolution,
f = \(\frac{1}{T}=\frac{q B}{2 \pi m}\) …………. (4)
is called the cyclotron frequency or the magnetic resonance frequency. The frequency is independent of r and y for a given ion species and remains constant so long as the mass m is constant.

If R is the maximum radius of the path, the same as the radius of the dee, just before the ions are deflected out of the accelerator,
Vmax = \(\frac{q B R}{m}\) …………. (5)
so that KEmax = \(\frac{q^{2} B^{2} R^{2}}{2 m}\) (in joule)
= \(\frac{q^{2} B^{2} R^{2}}{2 e m}\) (in eV) …………… (6)
Thus, for a given ion species and dees of given radius,
KEmax ∝ B2

Question 19.
What is meant by cyclotron frequency?
Answer:
The cyclotron frequency, or the magnetic resonance frequency, is the frequency of revolution of a charged particle of charge per unit mass \(\frac{q}{m}\) in a magnetic field of induction B inside a cyclotron. The cyclotron frequency, f = \(\frac{q B}{2 \pi m}\). The frequency of the alternating voltage applied to the dees of the cyclotron should be equal to the cyclotron frequency.

Question 20.
What is resonance condition in a cyclotron ?
OR
What should be the frequency of the alternating voltage applied between the dees of a cyclotron?
Answer:
The frequency of the alternating voltage between the dees of a cyclotron should be equal to the cyclotron frequency so that a positive ion exiting a dee always sees an accelerating potential difference to the other dee. This equality of the frequencies is called the resonance condition.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 21.
State any two limitations of a cyclotron.
Answer:
Limitations of a cyclotron :

  1. It cannot be used to accelerate electrons. Because electrons have a very small mass, they quickly achieve relativistic speeds, i.e., speeds at which their mass increases significantly with increase in speed. Then they cannot remain synchronous with the alternating electric field between the dees.
  2. For higher energies, with a given magnetic field strength, the exit radius and thus the dees must be large. It is difficult to produce a uniform magnetic field over a large area.
  3. Even protons, deuterons, a-particles, etc., cannot be accelerated to very high energy, say of the order of 500 MeV, using a cyclotron with a fixed cyclotron frequency.
  4. No particle accelerator can accelerate uncharged particles, such as neutrons.

Question 22.
Does the time spent by a charged particle inside a dee of a cyclotron depend upon its speed and the radius of its path ? Why ?
Answer:
The time spent by a charged particle to describe a semicircular path of radius r inside a dee of a cyclotron is independent of the radius of the path and the speed v so long as the mass m of the particle is constant. This is true for any charged particle of mass m and carrying a charge q, and is the critical characteristic of operation of the cyclotron.
r = \(\frac{m v}{q B}\)
So that the time spent in a dee,
t = \(\frac{\pi r}{v}=\frac{\pi}{v} \times \frac{m v}{q B}=\frac{\pi m}{q B}\)
which is independent of r and v.

Question 23.
The frequency of revolution of the charged particles in a cyclotron does not depend upon their speed. Why?
Answer:
The time t spent by a charged particle, of mass m and carrying a charge q, inside a dee of a cyclotron is independent of the radius of the path and the speed of the particle so long as m is constant. Then, the periodic time of the charged particle in its nearly circular path is T = 2t, and the frequency of revolution,
f = \(\frac{1}{T}=\frac{1}{2 t}=\frac{q B}{2 \pi m}\)
are also independent of the radius and the speed.

Question 24.
What are the factors on which the cyclotron frequency depends?
Answer:
The cyclotron frequency depends upon

  1. the magnetic induction and
  2. the specific charge (the ratio charge/mass) of the charged particles.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 25.
What are the factors on which the maximum kinetic energy acquired by a charged particle in the cyclotron depends?
Answer:
The maximum kinetic energy acquired by a charged particle in the cyclotron depends upon

  1. the magnetic induction
  2. the specific charge (the ratio charge/mass) of the charged particles and
  3. the radius of the dees.

Question 26.
In a certain cyclotron, the cyclotron frequency for acceleration of protons is 108 Hz. What will be its value if the magnetic induction is doubled ?
Answer:
As the cyclotron frequency is directly proportional to the magnetic induction, the new frequency will be 2 × 108 Hz. .

27. Solve the following :

Question 1.
An alpha particle (carrying a positive charge q = 3.2 × 10-19 C) enters a region of uniform magnetic field of induction \(\vec{B}=(0.5 \hat{\mathrm{i}}+\hat{\mathrm{j}}-\hat{\mathrm{k}})\) T with a velocity \(\vec{v}=(4 \hat{\mathrm{i}}+4 \hat{\mathrm{j}}+\hat{\mathrm{k}})\) × 102 m/s. What is the force \(\vec{F}\) on the alpha particle?
Solution:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 12

Question 2.
The magnetic field and electric field in a region in space are \(\vec{B}=B \hat{\mathrm{i}}\) and \(\vec{E}=E \hat{\mathrm{i}}\). A particle of charge q moves into the region with velocity \(\vec{v}=v \hat{\mathrm{j}}\). Find the magnitude and direction of the Lorentz force on the charged particle if q = 1 C,B = 1 T,E = 3 V/m and v = 4 m/s,
Solution:
Data : q = 1 C, B = 1 T, E = 3 V/m, v = 4 m/s
The Lorentz force on the charged particle is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 13
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 14

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 3.
An electron is accelerated from rest through 86 V and then enters a region of uniform magnetic induction of magnitude 1.5 T. What is the maximum value of the magnetic force the electron can experience?
[me = 9.11 × 10-31 kg, e = 1.6 × 10-19 C]
Solution:
Data : V= 86 V, B = 1.5 T, me = 9.11 × 10-31 kg, e = 1.6 × 10-19 C
Since the electron is accelerated from rest, the kinetic energy acquired by it is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 15
The maximum value of the magnetic force on the electron is
Fm = evB
= (1.6 × 10-19 C) (5.496 × 106 m/s) (1.5 T)
= 1.319 × 10-12 N or 1.319 pN

Question 4.
A cosmic ray proton enters the Earth’s magnetic field in a direction perpendicular to the field. If the speed of the proton is 2 × 107 m/s and B = 1.6 × 10-6 T, find the force exerted on the proton by the magnetic field. [Charge on a proton, e = 1.6 × 10-19 C]
Solution :
Data : v = 2 × 107 m/s, B = 1.6 × 10-6 T, e = 1.6 × 10-19 C
The magnetic force on the proton is
Fm = evB (∵ \(\vec{v} \perp \vec{B}\))
= (1.6 × 10-19 C)(2 × 107 m/s)(1.6 × 10-6 T)
= 5.12 × 10-18 N

[Note : The Earth’s magnetic field traps the charged particles in doughnut-shaped regions outside the atmosphere. These regions are called Van Allen radiation belts. Near the poles, charged particles from these belts enter the atmosphere and produce the awesome shimmering curtains of light called the aurora borealis (northern ! lights) and aurora australis (southern lights).]

Question 5.
A charged particle moves with velocity 3 × 106 m/s at right angles to a uniform magnetic field of induction 0.005 T. Find the magnitude of the charge if the particle experiences a force of 2 × 10-2 N.
Solution:
Data : v = 3 × 106 m/s, B = 5 × 10-3 T,
Fm = 2 × 10-2 N
Fm = qvB (∵ \(\vec{v} \perp \vec{B}\))
∴ The charge on the particle,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 16

Question 6.
An electron in a TV picture tube moves horizontally with a speed 2 × 107 m/s. It is deflected upward by a horizontal magnetic field of induction 10-3 T. Find the magnitude of the force acting on the electron due to the action of the magnetic field.
Solution:
Data : e = 1.6 × 10-19 C, v = 2 × 107 m/s,
B = 10-3 T
The magnitude of the magnetic force,
Fm = evB (∵ \(\vec{v} \perp \vec{B}\))
= (1.6 × 10-19 C)(2 × 107 m/s) (10-3 T)
= 3.2 × 10-15 N = 3.2 fN

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 7.
The first practical cyclotron developed by Lawrence and Livingston in 1932 had dees of radius 12 cm and produced protons of about 1 MeV energy.
Calculate (i) the applied magnetic induction
(ii) the frequency of the accelerating electric field.
[mp = 1.67 × 10-27 kg, q = 1.6 × 10-19 C
Solution:
Data: R = 0.12 m, mp = 1.67 × 10-27 kg,
q = 1.6 × 10-19 C,
KEmax = 1 MeV =(1 × 106)(1.6 × 10-19)
= 1.6 × 10-13 J
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 17

Question 8.
In a cyclotron, for the same B and R, show that the maximum kinetic energy of α-particles is twice that of deuterons.
Solution:
Data: Let Eα and Ed denote the maximum kinetic energies of α-particIes (He++ ions) and deuterons
(D+ ions). For an α-partic1e,
q = +2e and m ≅ 4mp and for a deuteron,
q = +e and m ≅ 2mp
where e is the elementary charge and mp is the proton mass.
In a cyclotron, the maximum kinetic energy of the ions obtainable with dec radius R and magnetic field induction B is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 18

Question 28.
Derive an expression for the magnetic force experienced by a straight current-carrying conductor placed in a uniform magnetic field.
Discuss the cases when the force is maximum and minimum.
State the expressions for the force experienced by a current-carrying
(i) conductor of arbitrary shape
(ii) closed circuit (conducting loop).
Answer:
Consider a straight current-carrying conductor placed in a region of uniform magnetic field of induction \(\vec{B}\) pointing out of the page, as shown in below figure by the evenly placed dots. Let the length of the conductor inside the field be l and the current in it be I.

In metallic conductors, electrons are the charge carriers. The direction of conventional current is, however, taken to be that of flow of positive charge which is opposite to the electron current.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 19
Let dq be the positive charge passing through an element of the conductor of length dl in time dt.
\(\overrightarrow{d l}\) has the same direction as that of the current.
Then, I = \(\overrightarrow{d l}\)/dt ………….. (1)
and drift velocity,\(\overrightarrow{v_{\mathrm{d}}}\) = \(\overrightarrow{d l}\)/dt ……….. (2)
The magnetic force on the charge dq is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 20
The charge dq is constrained to remain within the conductor. Hence, the conductor itself experiences this force. The force on the entire part of the conductor within the region of the magnetic field is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 21
Case 1 : When the conductor is parallel to the magnetic field, \(\vec{l}\) is parallel or antiparallel to \(\vec{B}\) according as the current is in the direction of \(\vec{B}\) or opposite to it; then θ = 0° or θ = 180°, so that sin θ = 0. Hence, in either of these two cases, F = 0.

Case 2 : The maximum value of the force is Fmax = IlB, when sin θ = 1, that is, when the conductor lies at right angles to \(\vec{B}\) (θ = 90°).
(i) For a current-carrying wire of arbitrary shape in a uniform field,
\(\vec{F}=\int \vec{f}_{\mathrm{m}}=I\left(\int \overrightarrow{d l}\right) \times \vec{B}\) …………. (5)
(ii) For a current-carrying conducting loop (closed circuit) in a uniform field,
\(\vec{F}=\int \vec{f}_{\mathrm{m}}=I(\oint \overrightarrow{d l} \times \vec{B})\) ………….. (6)
But for a closed loop of arbitrary shape, the integral is zero.
∴ \(\vec{F}\) = 0
[Notes : (1) While the direction of \(\vec{F}\) can be found from the cross product of \(\vec{l}\) and \(\vec{B}\), there is a handy rule due to Sir John Ambrose Fleming (1849-1945), British physicist and electrical engineer.

Fleming’s left hand rule : If the forefinger and the middle finger of the left hand are stretched out to point in the directions of the magnetic field and the current, respectively, then the outstretched thumb indicates the direction of the magnetic force on the current-carrying straight conductor, from below figure.]
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 22
(2) Equation (3) is usually used to define the unit of magnetic field induction, the tesla. See the note to Q. 6. (3) B cannot be taken out of the integral in Eq. (6).]

Question 29.
A straight conductor of length 0.5 m and carrying a current of 2 A is placed in a magnetic field of induction 2 Wb/m2 at right angles to the length of the conductor. What is the magnetic force on the conductor?
Answer:
F = IlB
= (2A) (0.5m) (2 Wb/m2)
= 2 N is the force on the conductor.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 30.
A rectangular loop of wire hanging vertically with one end in a uniform magnetic field \(\vec{B}\), supports a small block of mass m. \(\vec{B}\) points into the page in the shaded region of below figure. For what current I in the loop would the magnetic force exactly balance the downward gravitational force?
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 23
Answer:
The magnetic force on the horizontal segment of the loop inside the field must be upward to balance the downward gravitational force. With \(\vec{B}\) pointing into the page, the current in that segment must be toward the right so that \(\vec{F}=\vec{L} \times \vec{B}\) on that segment points upward. That is, the current in the loop must be clockwise.
Taking L = a, F = IaB
∴ IaB = mg
∴ I = \(\frac{m g}{a B}\)
is the required expression for the current.

Question 31.
Explain with a neat labelled diagram how the magnetic forces on a current loop produce rotary motion as in an electric motor.
Answer:
Consider a current-carrying rectangular loop ABCD, within a uniform magnetic field \frac{m g}{a B}, from below figure. Lead wires and commutator are not shown for simplicity. The coil is free to rotate about a fixed axis. Suppose the sides AB and CD are perpendicular to the field direction.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 24
The magnetic force on each segment act at the centre of mass of that segment. The direction of the force on each segment can be found using the right hand rule for the cross product or from Fleming’s left hand rule.

The magnetic forces on the short sides AD and CB are, in general, equal in magnitude, opposite in direction and have the same line of action along the rotation axis. Hence, these forces cancel out and does not produce any torque. The magnetic forces on the long sides AB and CD are also equal in magnitude and opposite in direction but their lines of action are different. Hence, these forces constitute a couple and tend to rotate the coil about the central axis.

A commutator (not shown) reverses the direction of the current through the loop every half-revolution so that the torque always acts in the same direction.

Question 32.
Derive an expression for the net torque on a rectangular current-carrying loop placed in a uniform magnetic field with its rotation axis
perpendicular to the field.
Answer:
Consider a rectangular loop ABCD of length l, breadth b and carrying a current I, placed in a uniform magnetic field of induction \(\vec{B}\) with its rotation axis perpendicular to \(\vec{B}\), from figure (a). To define the orientation of the loop in the magnetic field, we use a normal vector \(\hat{n}\) that is perpendicular to the plane of the loop. The direction of \(\hat{n}\) is given by a right hand rule: If the fingers of right hand are curled in the direction of current in the loop, the outstretched thumb is the direction of \(\hat{n}\). Suppose the normal vector \(\hat{n}\) of the loop makes an arbitrary angle with \(\vec{B}\), as shown in figure (b).
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 25
In the side view, Fig. 10.15 (b), the sides CD, DA, AB and BC have been labelled as 1, 2, 3 and 4, respectively. In this view, the current in side 1 (CD) is out of the page as shown by a ⊙ while that in side 3 (AB) is into the page shown by a ⊗.

For side 2 (AD) and side 4 (BC), the length of the conductor \(|\vec{L}|\) = b and the angle between \(\vec{L}\) and \(\vec{B}\) is (90° – θ). Hence, the forces on sides 2 and 4 are equal in magnitude :

F2 = F4 = IbB sin(90° – θ) = IbB cosθ

However, \(\vec{F}_{2}\) is directed out of the page while \(\vec{F}_{4}\) is into, and because their common line of action is through the centre of the loop, their net torque is zero. For side 1 (CD) and side 3 (AB), \(|\vec{L}|\) = I and \(\vec{L}\) is perpendicular to \(\vec{B}\). Hence, the forces \(\vec{F}_{1}\), and F\(\vec{F}_{3}\) have the same magnitude : F1 = F3 = IlB

But their lines of action being different, they constitute a couple.

Moment arm of the couple = b sin θ
∴ Torque exerted by the couple = force of the couple x moment arm of couple
∴ τ = (IlB)(b sin θ)
in the clockwise sense in figure (b). The torque tends to rotate the loop so as to align its normal vector h with the direction of the magnetic field.
∴ τ = I(lb)B sin θ = MB sinθ
where A = lb is the area of the loop. For a rectangular coil of N turns in place of a single-turn loop,
τ = NIAB sin θ
This is the required expression for the net torque. The torque has maximum magnitude for θ = 90°, that is when \(\hat{n}\) is perpendicular to \(\vec{B}\) or, in other words, the plane of the coil is parallel to the field.
τmax = NIAB

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 33.
Describe the construction of a suspended-type moving-coil galvanometer with a neat labelled diagram.
Answer:
A permanent fixed-magnet, suspended-type moving-coil galvanometer is shown in below figure. It consists of a coil of a large number of turns of fine insulated copper wire wound on a rectangular, nonconducting, non-magnetic frame. The coil is suspended between the cylindrically concave pole pieces of a horseshoe permanent magnet by a fine phosphor-bronze wire F from an adjustable screw- head. The other terminal of the coil is connected to a loosely-wound wire helix H. The coil swings freely around a cylindrical soft-iron core CS fitted between the pole pieces.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 26
The suspension F and the helix H serve as the two current leads to the coil. The suspension fibre also provides the restoring torque when the coil is rotated from its normal position. The cylindrically concave pole pieces together with the soft-iron core make the magnetic field radial in the annular region in which the vertical sides of the coil move. The soft-iron core also concentrates the magnetic field (i.e., increases the magnetic induction) in the annular region.

The angle of deflection is observed with a beam of light reflected from a small mirror M fixed to the suspension fibre. The reflected beam is observed on a ground-glass scale arranged about a metre from the instrument, the light beam serving as a weightless pointer.

[Note : The diagram given in the textbook (Fig. 10.13) has serious errors, notably, the missing suspension fibre by which the coil is hung. The metal fibre (made of phosphor bronze), which bears the weight of the coil, is also the current lead to the coil and provides the restoring torque. The Tower suspension shown in the textbook is actually a loose wire which merely provides an exit lead to the current but does not exert any torque on the coil.]

Question 34.
State the principle of working of a moving- coil galvanometer (suspended-coil type).
Answer:
Principle : A current-carrying coil suspended in a magnetic field experiences a torque which rotates the plane of the coil and tends to maximize the magnetic flux through the coil.

The deflection of the coil in a moving-coil gal-vanometer is linearly related to the current through it and, therefore, can be used to measure current in terms of the deflection.

Question. 35.
With the help of neat diagrams, describe the working of a moving-coil galvanometer.
Answer:
Consider a rectangular coil-of length Z, breadth b and N turns – carrying a current I suspended in a uniform magnetic field of induction \(\vec{B}\).

The magnetic forces on the horizontal sides of the coil have the same line of action and do not exert any torque. The magnetic forces on the vertical sides constitute a couple and exert a deflecting torque. If the plane of the coil is parallel to \(\vec{B}\), the magnitude of the deflecting torque is maximum equal to
τd = NIAB …………… (1)
where A = lb is the area of each turn of the coil. This torque rotates the coil.

In a moving-coil galvanometer, the coil swings in a radial magnetic field produced by the combination of the cylindrically concave pole pieces and the soft-iron core. Hence, the plane of the coil is always parallel to the field lines, as shown in Fig. 10.18. Therefore, the deflecting torque is constant and maximum as given by Eq. (1).

The rotation of the coil twists the suspension fibre which exerts a restoring torque on the coil. The restoring torque is proportional to the angle of twist θ.
τr = Cθ …………… (2)
where C is the torque constant, i.e., torque per unit angle of twist. C depends on the dimensions and the elasticity of the suspension fibre.

The coil eventually comes to rest in the position where the restoring torque equals the deflecting torque in magnitude. Therefore, in the equilibrium position,
τr = τd
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 27
since N, A, B and C are constant. Thus, the deflection of the coil is directly proportional to the current in it.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 36.
A coil suspended freely in a radial magnetic field rotates through 30° when a current of 30 /(A is passed through it. Through what angle will it rotate if the current is doubled and the magnetic induction is halved?
Answer:
The angle of rotation, θ ∝ IB (in the usual notation)
As I2B2 = (2I1)\(\left(\frac{B_{1}}{2}\right)\) = I1B1, the angle of rotation will be the same, i.e., 30°.

Question 37.
What is the advantage of a radial magnetic field in a moving-coil galvanometer and how is it produced?
Answer:

  1. Advantage of radial magnetic field in a moving- coil galvanometer:
    • As the coil rotates, its plane is always parallel to the field. That way, the deflecting torque is always a maximum depending only on the current in the coil, but not on the position of the coil.
    • The restoring torque is proportional to the deflection so that a radial field makes the deflection proportional to the current. The instrument then has a linear scale, i.e., the divisions of the scale are evenly spaced. This makes it particularly straight forward to calibrate and to read.
  2. Producing radial magnetic field :
    • The pole pieces of the permanent magnet are made cylindrically concave, concentric with the axis of the coil.
    • A soft iron cylinder is centred between the pole pieces so that it forms a narrow cylindrical gap in which the sides of the coil can move. Together, they produce a radial magnetic, field; that is, the magnetic lines of force in the gap are along radii to the central axis.

Question 38.
What will happen if the magnetic field in a moving-coil galvanometer is not radial?
Answer:
Suppose the magnetic field is uniform but not radial. Then, when the coil comes to rest after rotation through an angle θ, NIAB cos θ = Cθ (in usual notations).
∴ I ∝ \(\frac{\theta}{\cos \theta}\)
as N, A, B and C are constants in a particular case. Thus, the current is not directly proportional to the deflection. Hence, we cannot have a linear scale for measurement.

Question 39.
Explain the use of a soft iron core in a moving- coil galvanometer.
Answer:
In a moving-coil galvanometer, the pole pieces of the permanent magnet are made cylindrically concave, coaxial with the coil. A soft iron core is fixed centrally between the pole pieces so that it partly fills the space inside the coil and forms a narrow cylindrical gap in which the sides of the coil can move.
(1) The soft iron core, together with the concave pole pieces produces a radially uniform magnetic field, i.e., the magnetic lines of force in the gap are along radii to the central axis. This makes the deflection of the coil proportional to the current in it. The instrument then has a linear scale which is particularly straightforward to calibrate and to read.

(2) The permeability of iron being more than that of air, the magnetic lines of force pass through the soft iron core. By making the cylindrical gap as narrow as possible then increases the magnetic induction in the gap. This increases the deflecting torque on the coil and the sensitivity of the instrument.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 40.
Why does not the Earth’s magnetic field affect the working of a moving-coil galvanometer?
Answer:
The coil of a moving-coil galvanometer rotates in the magnetic field of a permanent magnet. The magnetic induction of the permanent magnet is many orders of magnitude (typically 104 times) stronger than that of the Earth. Hence, the Earth’s magnetic field does not affect the working of the galvanometer.

Question 41.
Explain the magnetic dipole moment of a current loop. State its magnitude and direction.
Answer:
The responses of a current-carrying coil to an external magnetic field is identical to that of a magnetic dipole (or a bar magnet). Like a magnetic dipole, a current-carrying coil placed in a magnetic field \(\vec{B}\) experiences a torque. In that sense, the coil is said to be a magnetic dipole. To account for a torque τ on the coil due to the magnetic field, we assign a magnetic dipole moment \(\vec{\mu}\) to the coil, such that
\(\vec{\tau}=\vec{\mu} \times \vec{B}=N I \vec{A} \times \vec{B}\)

where \(\vec{\mu}=N I \vec{A}\). Here, N is the number of turns in the coil, I is the current through the coil and A is the area enclosed by each turn of the coil. The direction of \(\vec{\mu}\) is that of the area vector \(\vec{A}\), given by a right hand rule shown in below figure. If the fingers of right hand are curled in the direction of current in the loop, the outstretched thumb is the direction of \(\vec{A}\) and \(\vec{\mu}\). In magnitude, μ = NIA.
The torque tends to align \(\vec{\mu}\) along \(\vec{B}\).
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 28

Question 42.
State if the following statement is true : “The magnetic dipole moment of a current-carrying coil of given geometry is constant.” Justify your answer.
Answer:
The given statement is false.
Consider a coil of N turns, each of area A. If the current through the coil is I, the magnetic dipole moment of the coil is, in magnitude, μ = NIA. That is, μ ∝ I, for given N and A. Thus, for a coil of given geometry, its magnetic dipole moment varies with the current through it.

Question 43.
In analogy with an electric dipole, state an expression for the magnetic potential energy of an magnetic dipole in a uniform magnetic field. Discuss the orientations of the dipole moment for the maximum and minimum of potential energy.
Answer:
Consider an electric dipole of dipole moment \(\vec{p}\) placed in a uniform electric field \(\vec{p}\) making an angle Φ with \(\vec{p}\). The torque \(\vec{\tau}=\vec{p} \times \vec{E}\) tends to rotate the dipole and align it with \(\vec{E}\).

If the dipole was initially parallel to \(\vec{E}\), its potential energy is minimum. We arbitrarily assign U0 = 0 to the minimum potential energy for this position. Then, at a position where \(\vec{p}\) makes an angle θ with \(\vec{E}\), the potential energy of the dipole is
Uθ = -pE cos θ = –\(\vec{p} \cdot \vec{E}\).
A current-carrying coil placed in a magnetic field \(\vec{B}\) experiences a torque,
\(\vec{\tau}=\vec{\mu} \times \vec{B}\) …………. (1)
where \(\vec{\mu}\) is the magnetic dipole moment of the coil. In analogy with an electric dipole, the potential energy of a magnetic dipole is
Uθ = – μB cos θ = – \(\vec{\mu} \cdot \vec{B}\) ……….. (2)
Uθ is also known as orientation energy.
A magnetic dipole has its lowest energy ( = – μB cos 0 = – μB) when its dipole moment is lined up with the magnetic field, and has its highest energy ( = – μBcos 180° = + μB) when is directed opposite the field.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 29

44. Solve the following :
Question 1.
A straight current-carrying conductor 30 cm long carries a current of 5 A. It is placed in a uniform magnetic field of induction 0.2 T, with its length making an angle of 60° with the direction of the field. Find the force acting on the conductor.
Solution:
Data : l = 30 cm = 0.3 m, I = 5 A, B = 0.2 T, θ = 60°
The magnitude of the force on the conductor,
F = I\(|\vec{l} \times \vec{B}|\) = IlB sin θ
= (5 A) (0.3 m) (0.2 T) sin 60°
= 0.3 × 0.866 = 0.2598 N
The direction of the force is given by the cross product rule.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 2.
A conductor of length 25 cm is placed (i) parallel (ii) perpendicular (iii) inclined at an angle 30°, to a uniform magnetic field of induction 2 T. If 1 C of charge passes through it in 5 s, calculate the force experienced by the conductor in each case.
Solution:
Data : l = 25 cm = 0.25 m, θ1 = 0°, θ2 = 90°, θ3 = 30°, B = 2 T, q = 1 C, f = 5 s
The current in the conductor,
I = \(\frac{q}{t}=\frac{1 \mathrm{C}}{5 \mathrm{~s}}\) = 0.2 A
The magnitude of the force on the conductor,
F = I\(|\vec{l} \times \vec{B}|\) = IlB sin θ
(i) θ1 =0° A ∴ sin θ1 = 0 ∴ F = 0 N
(ii) θ2 = 9O° ∴ sin θ2 = 1
∴ F = IlB = (0.2 A)(0.25 m)(2 T)
= 0.1 N
(iii) θ3 = 30° ∴ sin θ3 = 0.5
∴ F = IlB sin θ3 = (0.1 N) (0.5) = 0.05 N
The direction of \(\vec{F}\) in each case is given by the cross product rule.

Question 3.
A horizontal straight wire is in a uniform magnetic field which is horizontal and at right angles to the length of the wire. The part of the wire that lies in the field has a length 2 m and mass 1 gram. If the magnetic induction is 1 mT, find the current that should be passed through the wire to balance it.
Solution:
Data : l = 2 m, m = 1 g = 10-3 kg, g = 9.8 m/s2,
B = 1 mT = 10-3 T
To balance the wire, the upward magnetic force must be equal in magnitude to the downward force due to gravity.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 30

Question 4.
A circular loop of radius 10 cm is carrying a current of 0.1 A. Calculate its magnetic moment.
Solution:
Data : R = 10 cm = 0.1m, N = 1, I = 0.1 A
The magnetic moment,
μ = NIA = NI(πR2)
= (1) (0.1 A) (3.142) (0.1 m)2
= 3.142 × 10-3 A∙m2

Question 5.
An electron in an atom revolves around the nucleus in an orbit of radius 0.53 Å. If the frequency of revolution of an electron is 9 × 109 MHz, calculate the equivalent magnetic moment. [e = 1.6 × 10-19 C]
Solution : .
Data : r = 0.53 Å = 0.53 × 10-10 m,
f = 9 × 109 MHz = 9 × 1015 Hz, e = 1.6 × 10-19 C
Magnetic moment, M0 = IA = efπr2
= 1.6 × 10-19 × 9 × 1015 × 3.142 × (0.53 × 10-10)2
= 14.4 × 3.142 × (0.53)2 × 10-19 × 1015 × 10-20
= 1.272 × 10-23 A∙m2

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 6.
A rectangular coil of 10 turns, each of area 0.05 m2, is suspended freely in a uniform magnetic field of induction 0.01 T. A current of 30 /(A is passed through it.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 31
(i) What is the magnetic moment of the coil?
(ii) What is the maximum torque experienced by the coil?
(iii) What is the minimum torque experienced by the coil?
SoLution:
Data: N = 10, A = 0.05 m2, B = 0.01 T, I = 30 μA = 3 × 10-5 A
(i) The magnetic moment,
μ = NIA = 10(3 × 10-5 A)(0.05 m2)
=1.5 × 10-5 A∙m2 = 15 μA∙m2

(ii) The maximum torque experienced by the coil (when its plane is parallel to \(\vec{B}\)) is
τmax = MB
= (1.5 × 10-5 A∙m2)(0.01 T)
= 1.5 × 10-7 N∙m

(iii) The minimum torque experienced by the coil (when its plane is perpendicular to \(\vec{B}\)) is
τmin = 0

Question 7.
A coil has 300 turns, each of area 0.05 m2. (i) Find the current through the coil for which the magnetic moment of the coil will be 4.5 A-m2. (ii) It is placed in a uniform magnetic field of induction 0.2 T with its magnetic moment making an angle of 30° with \(\vec{B}\). Calculate the magnitude of the torque experienced by the coil. (3 marks)
Solution:
Data : N = 300, A = 0.05 m2, M = 4.5 A ∙ m2, B = 0.2 T, θ = 30°
(i) M = NIA
∴ The current in the coil,
I = \(\frac{M}{N A}=\frac{4.5}{300 \times 0.05}\) = 0.3 A

(ii) The magnitude of the torque,
τ = MB sin θ = 4.5 × 0.2 × sin 30°
= 0.9 × \(\frac{1}{2}\) = 0.45 N∙m

Question 8.
A rectangular coil of 10 turns, each of area 0.05 m2, is suspended freely in a radial magnetic field of 0.01 Wb/m2. If the torsional constant of the suspension fibre is 5 × 10-9 N∙m per degree, find the angle through which the coil rotates when a current of 30 μA is passed through it.
Solution:
Data : A = 0.05 m2, B = 0.01 Wb/m2, N = 10, C = 5 × 10-9 N∙m per degree,
I = 30 μA = 30 × 10-6 A,
I = \(\left(\frac{C}{N A B}\right) \theta\)
∴ The deflection of the coil,
θ = \(\frac{N I A B}{C}=\frac{10 \times 30 \times 10^{-6} \times 0.05 \times 0.01}{5 \times 10^{-9}}\) = 30°

Question 9.
A moving-coil galvanometer has coil of area 10 cm2 and 100 turns. It is suspended by a fibre of torque constant 10-8 N∙m/degree in a radial magnetic field of induction 0.05 Wb/m2. Find the angle through which the coil will be deflected when a current of 16 μA passes through it.
Solution:
Data ; A = 10-3 m2, N = 100, C = 10-8 N∙m/degree, B = 0.05 Wb/m2, 7 = 1.6 × 10-5 A
I = \(\left(\frac{C}{N A B}\right) \theta\)
∴ The deflection of the coil,
θ = \(\frac{N I A B}{C}=\frac{(100)\left(1.6 \times 10^{-5}\right)\left(10^{-3}\right)(0.05)}{10^{-8}}\) = 8

Question 10.
A bar magnet of moment 7.5 A∙m2 experiences a torque of magnitude 1.5 × 10-4 N∙m when placed inclined at 30° in a uniform magnetic field. Find the magnitude of the magnetic induction of the field.
Solution:
Data : μ = 7.5 A∙m2, τ = 1.5 × 10-4 N∙m, θ = 30° T = μB sin θ
∴ The magnitude of the magnetic induction,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 32

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 11.
A circular coil, having 200 turns each of area 2.5 × 10-4 m2, carries a current of 200 μA. Initially, the coil is at rest in a magnetic field of induction 0.8 T, with its magnetic dipole moment aligned with the field. Find the work an external agent has to do to rotate the coil through (i) 90° from its initial position (ii) further 90°.
Solution:
Data : N = 200, A = 2.5 × 10-4 m2, B = 0.8T,
I = 200 μA = 2 × 10-4 A, θ = 90°
W = ∆U =Uθ – U0
(i) The work done to rotate through 90°,
W = U90° – U = – μB cos 90° – (- μB cos 0°)
= 0 + μB = (NIA)B (∵ μ = NIA)
= (200)(2 × 10-4)(2.5 × 10-4)(0.8)
= 8 × 10-6 J = 8 μJ

(ii) The work done to rotate further through 90°, so that the dipole moment is antiparallel to the field,
W = U80° – U90° = – μB cos 180° – (- μB cos 90°)
= μB + 0 = (NIA)B = 8 μJ

Question 12.
A magnetic dipole of moment 0.025 J/T is free to rotate in a uniform magnetic field of induction 50 mT. When released from rest in the magnetic field, the dipole rotates to align with the field. At the instant the dipole moment is parallel to the field, its kinetic energy is 625 μJ. What was the initial angle between the dipole moment and the magnetic field?
Solution:
Data: μ = 0.025J/T, B = 50mT = 5 × 10-2 T,
∆K = 625 pJ = 6.25 × 10-4 J
Change in potential energy,
∆U =Uθ – U0 = – μB cos 0° – (- μ8 cos θ)
= – μB(1 – cos θ)
By the principle of conservation of energy,
∆K + ∆U = 0
∴ ∆K = – ∆U = μB(1 – cos θ)
∴ (2.5 × 10-2)(5 × 10-2)(1 – cos θ) = 6.25 × 10-4
∴ (1 – cos θ) = 0.5 ∴ cos θ = 0.5
The initial angle between the dipole moment and the magnetic field,
θ = 60° .

Question 45.
State the Bio-Savart law (Laplace law) for the magnetic induction produced by a current el-ement. Express it in vector form.
Answer:
Consider a very short segment of length dl of a wire carrying a current I. The product I\(\overrightarrow{d l}\) is called a current element; the direction of the vector \(\overrightarrow{d l}\) is along the wire in the direction of the current.

Biot-Savart law (Laplace law) : The magnitude of the incremental magnetic induction \(\overrightarrow{d B}\) produced by a current element I\(\overrightarrow{d l}\) at a distance r from it is directly proportional to the magnitude Idl of the current element, the sine of the angle between the current element I \(\overrightarrow{d l}\) and the unit vector \(\hat{r}\) directed from the current element toward the point in question, and inversely proportional to the square of the distance of the point from the current element; the magnetic induction is directed perpendicular to both I \(\overrightarrow{d l}\) and \(\hat{r}\) as per the cross product rule.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 33
of free space. Equations (1) and (2) are called Biot-Savart law.

The incremental magnetic induction \(\overrightarrow{d B}\) is given by the right-handed screw rule of vector crossproduct I\(\overrightarrow{d l} \times \hat{\mathbf{r}}\). In below figure, the current element I \(\overrightarrow{d l}\) and \(\hat{r}\) are in the plane of the page, so that \(\overrightarrow{d B}\) points out of the page at point P shown by ⊙; at the point Q, \(\overrightarrow{d B}\) points into the page shown by ⊗.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 34
The magnetic induction \(\vec{B}\) at the point due to the entire wire is, by the principle of superposition, the vector sum of the contributions \(\overrightarrow{d B}\) from all the current elements making up the wire.
From Eq. (2),
\(\vec{B}=\int \overrightarrow{d B}=\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \int \frac{I \vec{d} \times \hat{\mathrm{r}}}{r^{2}}\)
[Notes : (1) The above law is based on experiments by Jean Baptiste Biot (1774-1862) and Felix Savart (1791-1841), French physicists. From their observations Laplace deduced the law mathematically. (2) The Biot- Savart law plays a similar role in magnetostatics as Coulomb’s law does in electrostatics.]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 46.
Using Biot-Savart’s law, obtain the expression for the magnetic induction near a straight infinite ly long current-carrying wire.
Answer:
Suppose a point P is at a distance a from a straight, infinitely long, wire carrying a current I, as shown in below figure. The incremental magnetic induction \(d \vec{B}\) at the point P due to a current element, \(I \overrightarrow{d l}\) is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 35
At the point P, \(d \vec{B}\) is directed perpendicular to the plane of the figure and into of the page as given by the right hand rule for the direction of \(\overrightarrow{d l} \times \hat{\mathbf{r}}\).

At point P, \(d \vec{B}\) has this same direction for all the current elements into which the wire can be divided. Thus, we can find the magnitude of the magnetic field produced at P by the current elements in the lower half of the infinitely long wire by integrating dB in Eq. (2), from 0 to ∞.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 36
Now consider a current element in the upper half of the wire, one that is as far above P as I\(\overrightarrow{d l}\) is below P. By symmetry, the magnetic field produced at P by this current element has the same magnitude and direction as that from I \overrightarrow{d l} in above figure. Thus, the magnetic field produced by the upper half of the wire is exactly the same as that produced by the lower half. Hence, the magnitude of the total magnetic field at P is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 37
That is, the magnitude B is inversely proportional to the distance from the wire. Because of the axial symmetry about the straight wire, the magnetic induction has the same magnitude B at all points on a circle in a transverse plane and centred on the conductor; the direction of \(\vec{B}\) is everywhere tangential to such a circle. Thus, the magnetic field lines around the current in the straight wire is a family of circles centred on the wire.

[Notes : (1) The magnetic field at P due to either only the lower half or the upper half of the infinite wire in figure is half the value in Eq. (5); that is, for a semi-infinite wire,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 38

Question 47.
Show that currents in two long, straight, parallel wires exert forces on each other. Derive the expression for the force.
OR
Derive an expression for the force per unit length between two infinitely long parallel conductors carrying current and hence define the ampere.
Answer:
When two currents pass in adjacent parallel straight conductors, we may think of each of the currents as being situated in the magnetic field caused by the other current. This results in a force on each conductor.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 39
Consider two infinitely long, straight, parallel wires, each of length ¡ a distance s apart in vacuum, as shown in figure (a). The magnetic field around the wire 1, carrying a current I1 has an induction of magnitude
B1 = \(\left(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi}\right) \frac{2 I_{1}}{s}\)
Wire 2, with a current I2 in the same direction as I1, is situated in this field. The direction of the field
with induction \(\overrightarrow{B_{1}}\) at the position of wire 2, given by the right hand Igripi rule, is perpendicular to the plane of the two conductors, as shown. Hence, the force \(\overrightarrow{F_{2}}\) on wire 2 has a magnitude
F2 = I2lB1 = \(\left(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi}\right) \frac{2 I_{1} I_{2} l}{s}\) ……………… (1)
and is, by Fleming’s left hand rule, towards wire 1. Similarly, the magnetic induction \(\overrightarrow{B_{2}}\) at the position of wire 1 has a magnitude
B2 = \(\left(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi}\right) \frac{2 I_{2}}{s}\)
and is also directed perpendicular to the plane of the wires. Hence, the force on wire 1 has a magnitude
F1 = I1lB2 = \(\left(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi}\right) \frac{2 I_{1} I_{2} l}{s}\) ……………… (2)
directed towards wire 2. Thus, the two currents attract each other. \(\vec{F}_{1}=-\vec{F}_{2} \), i.e., they are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction.

Ampere found that the wires attracted each other when the currents in them were in the same direction [from figure (a )], and repelled each other when they were in the opposite directions [from figure (b)].

From the Eq. (2), the force per unit length acting on each wire is
\(\frac{F}{l}=\left(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi}\right) \frac{2 I_{1} I_{2}}{s}\)
Using SI units, μ0/4π = 10-7 N / A2 and, if I1 = I2 = 1 A and s = 1 m, then
\(\frac{F}{l}\) = 2 × 10-7 N / m
In SI, this equation is the defining relation for the ampere.

Definition: The ampere is that constant current which if maintained in two infinitely long straight parallel wires, and placed one metre apart in vacuum, would cause each conductor to experience a force per unit length of 2 × 10-7 newton per metre. [Note : 1 Wb/A∙m = 1 T∙m/A = l N/A2.]

Question 48.
Two very long and straight parallel conductors separated by 0.5 m in vacuum carry currents 2 A and 3 A respectively. What is the force per unit length of a conductor? [\(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi}\) = 10-7 Wb/A∙m]
Answer:
The force per unit length on each conductor,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 40

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 49.
Obtain an expression for the magnetic induction produced by a current in a wire in the shape of a circular arc at its centre of curvature. Hence obtain an expression for the magnetic induction at the centre of a circular coil carrying a current.
Answer:
Consider a wire in the shape of a circular arc of radius of curvature R and carrying a current I. The unit vector \(\hat{\mathrm{r}}\) from each current element I\(\overrightarrow{d l}\) towards
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 41
the centre of the loop is perpendicular to I\(\overrightarrow{d l}\), i.e., the angle θ between them is 90°. The direction of the incremental magnetic induction \(\overrightarrow{d B}\) due to each current element is in the same direction, viz., perpendicular to the plane of the loop, and out of the plane of the figure for the sense of the current shown in above figure.

Since every current element is equidistant from the centre of curvature C, the magnetic field at C due to each current element in the arc by Biot-Savart’s law is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 42
If the arc subtends an angle 0 at its centre of curvature C, the total field at C due to all the elements on the arc is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 43
where Φ is in radian.
The magnitude of the total induction \(\vec{B}\) at the centre of a circular coil is, from Eq. (3),
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 44
If a circular coil has N turns, each of radius r and carries a current I, the magnetic induction at its centre has a magnitude
B = \(\frac{\mu_{0} N I}{2 R}\) …………… (6)

Question 50.
Derive an expression for the magnetic induction at a point on the axis of a circular coil carrying a current.
OR
A circular coil of N turns, each of radius R, carries a current I. Derive the expression for the magnitude of the magnetic induction on the axis of the coil at a distance z. Hence obtain the expression for the magnitude of the magnetic induction for z » R.
Answer:
Consider a circular, conducting loop of radius R in the xy-plane, whose centre is at the origin. For any point P on the z-axis (which is also the axis of the loop), the current element I \(\overrightarrow{d l}\) is perpendicular to the unit vector \(\hat{\mathbf{r}}\) directed from the current element to point P. The incremental magnetic induction, \(\overrightarrow{d B}\), due to a current element at Q lies in the plane QOP, in the direction of I \(\overrightarrow{d l} \times \vec{r}\), as shown in below figure. In magnitude,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 45
Each element of the loop has its diametrically opposed companion I \(\overrightarrow{d l}\) on the other side of the loop, both of equal segment length dl. Point P is equidistant from the two elements, that is, r = r’. Therefore, the two contributions \(\overrightarrow{d B}\) and \(\overrightarrow{d B}^{\prime}\) have equal magnitudes, and their vertical components, dB cos α and dB’cos α, are oppositely directed. Thus, they will add to zero when all the \(\overrightarrow{d B}\) contributions are summed, and there can be no vertical component of the resultant induction \(\vec{B}\). However, the horizontal components are of like direction and will sum to a definite value and hence \(\vec{B}\) will have only a horizontal z-component. For the magnitude of \(\vec{B}\), we need to add only the z-components of the \(\overrightarrow{d B}\) vectors :
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 46
For values of z that are much larger than the radius R, we may ignore the value of R in the denominator above and write
B = \(\left(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi}\right) \frac{2 I A}{z^{3}}\) (for z >> R) …………… (2)
For a circular coil of N turns Eqs. (1) and (2) are, respectively,
B = \(\left(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi}\right) \frac{2 N I A}{\left(R^{2}+z^{2}\right)^{\frac{3}{2}}}\) and B = \(\left(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi}\right) \frac{2 N I A}{z^{3}}\)

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 51.
How is the magnetic field of a small current loop identical to that of a short magnetic dipole? Explain.
OR
Explain the equivalence of the fields of a current-carrying circular coil and a magnetic dipole.
Answer:
An electric current in a circular loop establishes a magnetic field similar in every respect to the field of a magnetic dipole (or a bar magnet).

Consider a circular conducting ioop of radius R, axis along the x-axis and carrying a current I. The area of the loop is A = πR2and \(\vec{A}\) has the direction given by right hand rule. The axial magnetic induction of the current loop at a distance x from its centre is
\(\vec{B}=\left(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi}\right) \frac{2 I \vec{A}}{\left(R^{2}+x^{2}\right)^{3 / 2}}=\left(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi}\right) \frac{2 \vec{\mu}}{\left(R^{2}+x^{2}\right)^{3 / 2}}\)
where \(\vec{M}=I \vec{A}\) is the magnetic moment of the current loop and μ0 is the permeability of free space. For x >> R, ignoring R2 in comparison with X2,
\(\vec{B}=\left(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi}\right) \frac{2 \vec{\mu}}{x^{3}}\)
This equation also gives the magnetic induction on the axis of a short magnetic dipole (or a bar magnet) of magnetic moment \(\vec{\mu}\).

For a magnetic dipole, the dipole moment is directed from the south pole of the dipole to its north pole. For a current loop, the magnetic dipole moment has the direction of the axial field of the current loop as given by the right-hand rule.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 47
When an observer looking at a current carrying circular loop finds the direction of the current anticlockwise, the face of the loop towards the observer acts as the north pole. When an observer looking at a current-carrying circular loop finds the direction of the current clockwise, the face of the loop towards the observer acts as the south pole. This rule is known as the clock rule.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 48

Question 52.
State the expressions for the axial fields of an electric dipole and a small current-loop.
Answer:
The axial far field of an electric dipole of electric dipole moment \(\vec{p}\) at an axial point r is
\(\vec{E}=\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{2 \vec{p}}{r^{3}}\)
The axial magnetic field far from a small current-loop is
\(\vec{B}=\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \frac{2 \vec{\mu}}{r^{3}}\)
where \(\vec{\mu}=I \vec{A}\) is the magnetic dipole moment of the loop, I is the current in the loop and \(\vec{A}\) is the area vector given by the right-hand rule. The axial field of an electric dipole, \(\vec{E}\) is in the direction of the dipole moment \(\vec{p}\). On the axis of a current loop, the magnetic field \(\vec{B}\) is in the direction of the dipole moment \(\vec{\mu}\).

53. Solve the following
Question 1.
(1) Two long parallel current-carrying conductors are 0.4 m apart in air and carry currents 5 A and 10A. Calculate the force per metre on each conductor, if the currents are in the same direction and in the opposite direction.
Solution:
Data: s = 0.4 m, I1 = 5A, I2 = 10A
μ0/4π = 10-7 N/A2
The force per unit length acting on each conductor is
\(\frac{F}{l}=\left(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi}\right) \frac{2 I_{1} I_{2}}{s}\)
= (10-7 N/A2) \(\frac{2(5 \mathrm{~A})(10 \mathrm{~A})}{0.4 \mathrm{~m}}\)
= 2.5 × 10-5 N/m (= 25 μN/m)
This force is attractive if the currents are in the same direction and repulsive if the currents are in the opposite directions.

Question 2.
Two wires 12 m long and 10 cm apart carry the same current. Find the current through each wire if the force per unit length on each wire is 0.001 N/m.
Solution:
Data : l = 12 m, s = 10 cm = 0.1 m,
I1 = I2 = I, \(\frac{F}{l}\) = 0.001 N/m
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 49
The current through each wire is 10\(\sqrt {5}\) A.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 3.
The wire shown below carries a current of 2 A. The curved segment is a quadrant of radius 10 cm while the straight segments are along radii. Find the magnitude and direction of the magnetic induction at the centre O of the quadrant by the entire wire.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 50
Solution:
Data : I = 2 A, R = 10 cm = 10-1 m
The point O lies along the straight segments AB and CD. Hence, the magnetic induction \(\vec{B}\) produced by each of them is zero.

Since θ = 90°, the magnitude of the magnetic induction due to the current in quadrant BC is \(\frac{1}{4}\)th of that produced at the centre of a loop.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 51

Question 4.
A flat coil of 70 turns has a diameter of 20 cm and carries a current of 5 A. Find the magnitude of the magnetic induction at (a) the centre of the coil (b) a point on the axis 20 cm from the centre of the coil.
Solution:
Data : N = 70, R = 10 cm = 0.1 m, I = 5 A, z = 0.2 m, μ0 = 4π × 10-7 T∙m/A
(a) At the centre of the coil:
The magnitude of the magnetic induction,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 52

Question 5.
(12) A current of 10 A passes through a coil having 5 turns and produces a magnetic field of magnitude 0.5 × 10-4 T at the centre of the coil. Calculate the diameter of the coil.
Solution:
Data: I = 10A, N = 5, B = 5 × 10-5 T,
μ0/4π = 10-7 T∙m/A
B = \(\frac{\mu_{0} N I}{2 R}\)
∴ The diameter of the coil,
2R = \(\frac{\mu_{0} N I}{B}=\frac{\left(4 \pi \times 10^{-7} \mathrm{~T} \cdot \mathrm{m} / \mathrm{A}\right)(5)(10 \mathrm{~A})}{5 \times 10^{-5} \mathrm{~T}}\)
= 4 × 3.142 × 10-1 = 1.257 m

Question 6.
Calculate the magnitude of the magnetic induction due to a circular coil of 400 turns and radius 0.05 m, carrying a current of 5 A, at a point on the axis of the coil at a distance 0.1 m.
Solution:
Data : N = 400, R = 0.05 m = 5 × 10-2 m,
I = 5 A, z = 0.1 m, μ0/4π = 10-7 T∙m/A
The magnitude of the magnetic induction,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 53
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 54

Question 7.
A circular coil of wire has 100 turns. The radius of the coil is 50 cm. It is desired to have a magnetic induction of 80 μT at the centre of the coil. What should be the current through the coil ?
Solution:
Data: N = 100, R = 50 cm = 0.5 m,
B = 80 μT = 8 × 10-5 T, μ0/4π = 10-7 T∙m/A
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 55

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 54.
State and explain Ampere’s circuital law.
OR
State Ampere’s circuital law.
Answer:
Ampere’s circuital law : In free space, the line integral of magnetic induction around a closed path in a magnetic field is equal to p0 times the net steady current enclosed by the path.
In mathematical form,
\(\oint \vec{B} \cdot \overrightarrow{d l}\) = μ0I …………. (1)
where \(\vec{B}\) is the magnetic induction at any point on the path in vacuum, \(\overrightarrow{d l}\) is the length element of the path, I is the net steady current enclosed and p0 is the permeability of free space.

Explanation : Below figure shows two wires carrying currents I1 and I2 in vacuum. The magnetic induction \(\vec{B}\) at any point is the net effect of these currents.

To find the magnitude B of the magnetic induction :
(i) We construct an imaginary closed curve around the conductors, called an Amperian loop, and imagine it divided into small elements of length dl. The direction of \(\overrightarrow{d l}\) is the direction along which the loop is traced.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 56
(ii) We assign signs to the currents using the right hand rule : If the fingers of the right hand are curled in the direction in which the loop is traced, then a current in the direction of the outstretched thumb is taken to be positive while a current in the opposite direction is taken to be negative.

For each length element of the Amperian loop, \(\vec{B} \cdot \overrightarrow{d l}\) gives the product of the length dl of the element and the component of \(\vec{B}\) parallel to \(\overrightarrow{d l}\). If θ is the angle between \(\overrightarrow{d l}\) and \(\vec{B}\),
\(\vec{B} \cdot \overrightarrow{d l}\) = (B cos θ) dl
Then, the line integral,
\(\oint \vec{B} \cdot \overrightarrow{d l}=\oint\) Bcosθ dl ……………(2)
For the case shown in figure, the net current I through the surface bounded by the loop is
I = I2 – I1
∴ \(\oint\) Bcosθ dl = μ0 I
= μ0(I2 – I1) ……………. (3)
Equation (3) can be solved only when B is uniform and hence can be taken out of the integral.

[Note : Ampere’s law in magnetostatics plays the part of Gauss’s law of electrostatics. In particular, for currents with appropriate symmetry, Ampere’s law in integral form offers an efficient way of calculating the magnetic field. Like Gauss’s law, Ampere’s law is always true (for steady currents), but it is useful only when the symmetry of the problem enables B to be taken out of the integral \(\oint \vec{B} \cdot \overrightarrow{d l}\). The current configurations that can be handled by Ampere’s law are infinite straight conductor, infinite plane, infinite solenoid and toroid.]

Question 55.
Using Ampere’s law, obtain an expression for the magnetic induction near a current-carrying straight, infinitely long wire.
Answer:
Consider a point P at a distance a from a straight, infinitely long wire carrying a current I in free space, from figure (a). Because of the axial symmetry about the straight wire, the magnetic induction has the same magnitude B at all points on a circle in a transverse plane and centred on the wire. We, therefore, choose an Amperian loop a circle of radius a centred on the wire with its plane perpendicular to the wire, as shown in from figure (b).
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 57
since cos θ = 1 and B has the same value around the path. \(\oint\) dl gives the circumference of the circular loop.

In the figure, the Amperian loop is traced in the anticlockwise sense, so that the current I is taken as positive in accordance with the right hand rule.
By Ampere’s law,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 58
This is the required expression.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 56.
What is a solenoid? With a neat labelled diagram, describe the magnetic field produced by a current-carrying solenoid.
Answer:
A solenoid is a long wire wound in the form of a helix. An ideal solenoid is tightly wound and infinitely long, i.e., its turns are closely spaced and the solenoid is very long compared to its crosssectional radius.

Each turn of a solenoid acts approximately as a circular loop. Suppose the solenoid carries a steady current I. The net magnetic field due to the current in the solenoid is the vector sum of the fields due to the current in all the turns. In the case of a tightly- wound solenoid of finite length, Fig. 10.39, the magnetic field lines are approximately parallel only near the centre of the solenoid, indicating a nearly uniform field there. However, close to the ends, the field lines diverge from one end and converge at the other end. This field distribution is similar to that of a bar magnet. Thus, one end of the solenoid behaves like the north pole of a magnet and the opposite end behaves like the south pole. The field outside is very weak near the midpoint.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 59
For an ideal solenoid, the magnetic field inside is reasonably uniform over the cross section and parallel to the axis throughout the volume enclosed by the solenoid. The field outside is negligible in this case.

Question 57.
Using Ampere’s law, derive an expression for the magnetic induction inside an ideal solenoid carrying a steady current.
Answer:
An ideal solenoid is tightly wound and infinitely long. Let n be the number of turns of wire per unit length and I be the steady current in the solenoid.

For an ideal solenoid, the magnetic induction \(\vec{B}\) inside is reasonably uniform over the cross section and parallel to the axis throughout the volume enclosed by the solenoid; \(\vec{B}\) outside is negligible.

As an Amperian loop, we choose a rectangular path PQRS of length l parallel to the solenoid axis, from below figure. The width of the rectangle is taken to be sufficiently large so that the side RS is far from the solenoid where \(\vec{B}\) = 0. The line integral of the magnetic induction around the Amperian loop in the sense PQRSP is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 60
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 61
Thus, from Eqs. (1), (2), (3) and (4),
\(\oint \vec{B} \cdot \overrightarrow{d l}\) = Bl ……….. (5)
The total current enclosed by the Amperian loop is
Iencl = current through each turn × number of turns enclosed by the loop
= I × nl = nlI ……… (6)
By Ampere’s law,
\(\oint \vec{B} \cdot \overrightarrow{d l}\) = μ0Iencl (in vacuum)
Therefore, from Eq.s (5) and (6),
Bl = μ0 nlI
∴ B = μ0nI …………. (7)
This is the required expression.

[Notes : (1) The field inside an ideal solenoid is uniform-it doesn’t depend on the distance from the axis. In this sense, the solenoid is to magnetostatics what the parallel-plate capacitor is to electrostatics; a simple device for producing strong uniform fields. (2) At an axial point at the end of a long solenoid, B = \(\frac{1}{2}\) μ0nI]

Question 58.
What is the magnetic field (i) outside (ii) inside a long air-cored current-carrying solenoid ?
Answer:
For an ideal solenoid, the magnetic field induction outside is negligible, nearly zero. Inside the solenoid, the field lines are parallel to the axis of the solenoid and the magnitude of the magnetic induction, B = μ0nI, where μ0 is the permeability of free space, n is the number of turns of wire per unit length and I is the steady current in the solenoid.

Question 59.
What is a toroid? With a neat diagram, describe the magnetic field produced by a toroid carrying a steady current.
Answer:
A toroid is a toroidal solenoid. An ideal toroid consists of a long conducting wire wound tightly around a torus, a doughnut-shaped ring, made of a nonconducting material.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 62
In an ideal toroid carrying a steady current, the magnetic field in the interior of the toroid is tangential to any circle concentric with the axis of the toroid and has the same value on this circle (the dashed line in above figure). Also, the magnitude of the magnetic induction external to the toroid is negligible.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 60.
Using Ampere’s law, derive an expression for the magnetic induction inside an ideal toroid carrying a steady current.
Answer:
An ideal toroid consists of a long conducting wire wound tightly around a torus made of a non-conducting material. When a steady current is passed through it, the magnetic induction \(\vec{B}\) in the interior of the toroid is tangent to any circle concentric with y the axis of the toroid and has the same value on this circle.

Suppose the toroid has N turns of wire and I is the current in its coil. As our Amperian loop, we choose a circle of radius r concentric with the axis of the toroid, as shown in figure. Since \(\vec{B}\) has the same value on this circle and is tangential to it, we go around this path in the direction of \(\vec{B}\) so that \(\vec{B}\) and \(\overrightarrow{d l}\) are parallel. Then, the line integral of the magnetic induction around the Amperian loop is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 63
The net current enclosed by the Amperean loop is
Iencl = current through each turn × number of turns enclosed by the loop
= I × N = NI …………….. (2)
By Ampere’s law,
\(\oint \vec{B} \cdot \overrightarrow{d l}\) = μ0 Iencl (in free space)
Therefore, from Eqs. (1) and (2),
B (2πr) = μ0NI
∴ B = \(\frac{\mu_{0}}{2 \pi} \frac{N I}{r}\) …………… (3)
This is the required expression.

61. Solve the following

Question 1.
Four long parallel wires are arranged at the four comers of a square ABCD of side 20 cm. Each wire carries a current of 5 A. Currents in the conductors 1 and 2, at comers A and B, are out of the page while those in the conductors 3 and 4, at comers C and D, are into the page. What is the magnitude of the magnetic induction at the centre of the square?
Solution:
Data : 2l = 20 cm = 0.2 m, I = 5 A
If each side of the square array is 2l, then from geometry, the centre of the square O is a distance \(\sqrt {2}\)l from each corner. Since each wire carries the same current, B1 = B2 = B3 = B4. Using the right hand [grip] rule, the directions of the magnetic inductions due to conductors 1 and 3 are along OB, while those due to conductors 2 and 4 are along OC, as shown.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 64
This is also the magnitude of the magnetic induc-tion along OC, B2 + B4.

Their components parallel to AD (or BC) are oppositely directed and cancel out. Therefore, the total induction at the centre of the square has a magnitude equal to the sum of the components parallel to AB (or DC).
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 65
The magnitude of the magnetic induction at the centre of the square is 2 × 10-5 T.

Question 2.
Two long straight parallel wires in vacuum are 4 m apart and carry currents of 2 A and 6 A in the same direction. Find the neutral point, i.e., the point at which the resultant magnetic induction is zero.
Solution:
Data: I1 =2 A, I2 = 6 A, a =4 m
The currents through the wires are in the same direction. Therefore, the two magnetic inductions \(\overrightarrow{B_{1}}\) and \(\overrightarrow{B_{2}}\) will have opposite directions at any point between the two wires. Hence, the point must lie between the two wires. For the resultant magnetic induction to be zero, we must have B1 = B2. Let the corresponding point (the neutral point) be at a distance a1 from the first wire and a2 from the second wire.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 66
The neutral point lies at a distance of 1 m from the wire carrying a current of 2 A.

Question 3.
A solenoid 1.5 m long and 4 cm in diameter has – 10 turns/cm. A current of 5 A is passing through it. Calculate the magnetic induction (i) inside (ii) at one end on the axis of the solenoid.
Solution:
Data : L = 1.5 m, r = 2 cm, n = 10 turns/cm = 103 turns/metre, I = 5 A, μ0 = 4π × 10-7 T∙m/A
Since the diameter is very small compared to its length, we approximate the solenoid to be long, i.e., an ideal solenoid.

(i) At an axial point well inside a long solenoid,
B = μ0nI
= (4π × 10-7 )(103)(5) = 2 × 3.142 × 10-3
= 6.284 × 10-3 T

(ii) At an axial point at the end of a long solenoid,
B = \(\frac{1}{2}\) μ0nI
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) (6.284 × 10-3) = 3.142 × 10-3 T

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 4.
A toroidally wound coil has an inner radius of 15 cm, an outer radius of 20 cm and is wound with 1500 turns of wire. What is the magnitude of the magnetic induction at the centre of the coil when the current in the winding is 10 A ?
Solution:
Data : Central radius, r = \(\frac{1}{2}\) (15 + 20) = 17.5 cm
= 0.175 m, N = 1500, I = 10 A, \(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi}\) = 10-7 T∙m/A
The magnetic induction,
B = \(\frac{\mu_{0} N I}{2 \pi r}=\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \frac{2 N I}{r}=10^{-7} \times \frac{2 \times 1500 \times 10}{0.175}\)
= 1.714 × 10-2 T

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
A doubly ionized helium nucleus (charge = 3.2 × 10-19 C) enters a region of uniform magnetic field with a velocity (103 m/s)\(\hat{\mathbf{i}}\). The magnetic induction in the region is 20 mT directed towards the positive x-axis. The force on the ion is
(A) (6.4 × 10-18 N) \(\hat{\mathrm{j}}\)
(B) (6.4 × 10-18 N) \(\hat{\mathrm{k}}\)
(C) zero
(D) none of these.
Answer:
(C) zero

Question 2.
In a cyclotron, charged particles are accelerated by
(A) the electrostatic deflector plate
(B) the electric field in the dees
(C) the magnetic field in the dees
(D) the p.d. across the gap between the dees.
Answer:
(D) the p.d. across the gap between the dees.

Question 3.
Cyclotron cannot accelerate
(A) protons
(B) neutrons
(C) α-particles
(D) deuterons.
Answer:
(B) neutrons

Question 4.
If R is the radius of the dees and B the magnitude of the magnetic field induction in which positive charges (q) of mass m escape from the cyclotron, then their maximum speed vmax is
(A) \(\frac{q R}{B m}\)
(B) \(\frac{q m}{B R}\)
(C) \(\frac{q B R}{m}\)
(D) \(\frac{m}{q B R}\)
Answer:
(C) \(\frac{q B R}{m}\)

Question 5.
A charged particle moving with a velocity \(\vec{v}\) enters a region of uniform magnetic field \(\vec{B}\). If the velocity has a component parallel to \(\vec{B}\), which of the following quantities is independent of \(\overrightarrow{\mid v} \mid\)?
(A) Period T of its circular motion
(B) Pitch p of its helical path
(C) Radius r of its helical path
(D) Both p and T
Answer:
(A) Period T of its circular motion

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 6.
A charged particle moving with a velocity \(\vec{v}\) enters a region of uniform magnetic field \(\vec{B}\) such that the pitch of the resulting helical motion is equal to the radius of the helix. The angle between \(\vec{v}\) and \(\vec{B}\) is
(A) tan-1
(B) sin-1
(C) tan-1 \(\frac{1}{2 \pi}\left(\frac{q B}{m}\right)^{2}\)
(D) tan-1 2π\(2 \pi\left(\frac{q B}{m}\right)^{2}\).
Answer:
(A) tan-1

Question 7.
The following four cases show a positive charge moving into a magnetic field \(\vec{B}\) with velocity \(\vec{v}\). In which of the cases are the forces opposite in direction?
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 67
(A) (iii) and (iv)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (i) and (iii)
(D) (ii) and (iv)
Answer:
(B) (i) and (ii)

Question 8.
A charged particle enters a uniform magnetic field initially travelling perpendicular to the field lines and is bent in a circular arc of radius R. If the particle had the same charge but double the mass and were travelling twice as fast, the radius of its circular arc would be
(A) 2R
(B) 4R
(C) R
(D) \(\frac{1}{4}\)R.
Answer:
(B) 4R

Question 9.
A straight wire along the y-axis carries a current of 4 A. The wire is placed in a uniform magnetic field (0.02 T) \((\hat{\mathrm{i}}+\hat{\mathrm{j}})\). If the current in the wire is directed towards the negative y-axis, the force per unit length on the wire is
(A) zero
(B) – (0.08 N/m) \(\hat{\mathrm{k}}\)
(C) (0.08 N/m) \((\hat{\mathrm{i}}-\hat{\mathrm{j}})\)
(D) (0.08 N/m) \(\hat{\mathrm{k}}\)
Answer:
(D) (0.08 N/m) \(\hat{\mathrm{k}}\)

Question 10.
A 30-turn coil of diameter 2 cm carries a current of 10 mA. When it is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.05 T, the magnitude of the maximum torque that could be exerted on the coil by the magnetic field is
(A) 1.88 × 10-5 N∙m
(B) 4.7 × 10-6 N∙m
(C) 4.7 × 10-7 N∙m
(D) 1.88 × 10-8 N∙m.
Answer:
(B) 4.7 × 10-6 N∙m

Question 11.
A circular loop of area \(\sqrt{2}\) cm2 and carrying a current of 10 μA is placed in a magnetic field \(\vec{B}\) with its plane parallel to \(\vec{B}\) (B = 15 mT). When the loop has rotated through an angle of 45°, the magnitude of the torque exerted on this loop is
(A) zero
(B) 15 × 10-12 N∙m
(C) 15 × 10-8 N∙m
(D) 15 × 10-2 N∙m
Answer:
(B) 15 × 10-12 N∙m

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 12.
A current loop of magnetic dipole moment 0.1 A-m2 is oriented with the plane of the loop perpendicular to a uniform 1.50 T magnetic field, as shown. The torque that the magnetic field exerts on the current loop is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 68
(A) 0.15 N∙m
(B) 0.075 N∙m
(C) -0.075 N∙m
(D) -0.15 N∙m.
Answer:
(B) 0.075 N∙m

Question 13.
A rectangular coil of dipole moment fi, free to rotate, is placed in a uniform magnetic field B with its plane parallel to the magnetic lines of force. Then, the coil will
(A) rotate to maximize the magnetic flux through its plane
(B) rotate to minimize the magnetic flux through its plane
(C) not experience any torque
(D) experience a constant torque equal to μB.
Answer:
(C) not experience any torque

Question 14.
When a current is passed through a suspended moving-coil galvanometer, the deflection of the coil is arrested by
(A) the elastic torsion of the suspension fibre
(B) the elastic winding of the helical spring
(C) the friction at the point of suspension
(D) the changing magnetic flux through the coil.
Answer:
(A) the elastic torsion of the suspension fibre

Question 15.
When a current is passed through a suspended moving-coil galvanometer, the deflection of the coil is 9. Then, in the usual notation, the expression \(\frac{\mu B}{\theta}\) is
(A) the torsion constant of the helical spring
(B) the magnetic dipole moment of the current-carrying coil
(C) the current through the coil
(D) the torsion constant of the suspension fibre.
Answer:
(D) the torsion constant of the suspension fibre.

Question 16.
The magnetic potential energy of a coil of dipole moment \(\vec{\mu}\) and area vector \(\vec{A}\) placed in a magnetic \(\vec{B}\) is maximum for which of the following cases ?
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 69
Answer:
(C) \(\vec{B} \uparrow \downarrow \vec{A}\)

Question 17.
Two points, A and B, are at distances rA and rB from a long, straight, current-carrying conductor. If rB = 2 rA, the magnitudes of the magnetic inductions at the two points are related by
(A )BA = BB
(B) BA = 2BB
(C) BA = 4BB
(D) BB = 2BA
Answer:
(B) BA = 2BB

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 18.
Two long, straight, parallel wires are 5 cm apart and carry currents I1 and I2 in the same direction. If 2I1 = 3I2, then at a point P, 2 cm from wire 2,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 70
Answer:
(B) \(\overrightarrow{B_{1}}=-\overrightarrow{B_{2}}\)

Question 19.
A wire of length L is first formed into a loop of one turn and then as a loop of two turns. The same current I is passed through the wire in the two cases. The ratio of the magnitude of the magnetic field induction at the centre of the single-turn loop to that at the centre of the double-turn loop is
(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
(D) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
Answer:
(D) \(\frac{1}{4}\)

Question 20.
Two circular coils 1 and 2 have both their radii and number of turns in the ratio 1 : 2. If the currents in them are in the ratio 2: 1, the magnitudes of the magnetic inductions at the centres of the coils are in the ratio
(A) 1 : 1
(B) 2 : 1
(C) 1 : 2
(D) 1 : 8.
Answer:
(B) 2 : 1

Question 21.
Three straight, parallel wires are coplanar and perpendicular to the plane of the page. The currents I1 and I3 are directed out of the page. If the wire 3 experiences no force due to the currents I1 and I2, then the current in the wire 2 is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 71
(A) I2 = 2I1 and directed into the page
(B) I2 = 0.5I1 and directed into the page
(C) I2 = 2I1 and directed out of the page
(D) I2 = 0.5I1 and directed out of the page.
Answer:
(B) I2 = 0.5I1 and directed into the page

Question 22.
Two diametrically opposite points of a uniform metal ring (radius, R) are connected to the terminals of a battery. If the current drawn from the battery is I, the magnetic induction at the centre of the ring has a magnitude
(A) \(\frac{\mu_{0} I}{R}\)
(B) \(\frac{\mu_{0} I}{2R}\)
(C) \(\frac{\mu_{0} I}{4R}\)
(D) zero
Answer:
(D) zero

Question 23.
Two circular coaxial coils, each of N turns and radius R, are separated by a distance R. They carry equal currents I in the same direction. If the magnetic induction at P, on the common axis and midway between the coils, due to the left hand coil is B, then the total induction at P is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current 72
(A) 2B
(B) B
(C) \(\frac{1}{2}\) B
(D) zero.
Answer:
(A) 2B

Question 24.
A toroid with a circular cross section has a current I in its windings. The total number of windings is N. The total current through an Amperian loop of radius r equal to the mean radius of the toroid is
(A) zero
(B) I
(C) NI
(D) \(\frac{N I}{2 \pi r}\)
Answer:
(C) NI

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 10 Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

Question 25.
A very long solenoid has 8400 windings and a length of 7 m. If the field inside is 2ir x iO T, the current in the windings is about
0/4π = 10-7 T∙m/A]
(A) 0.42 A
(B) 0.83 A
(C) 4.2 A
(D) 8.3 A.
Answer:
(C) 4.2 A

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity

Question 1.
Define the following terms:

  1. Electrical circuit
  2. Junction
  3. Loop
  4. Branch
  5. Electrical network.

Answer:

  1. Electrical circuit: An electrical circuit, in general, consists of a number of electrical components such as an electrical cell, a plug key (or a switch), a resistor, a current meter (a milliammeter or an ammeter), a voltmeter, etc., connected together to form a conducting path.
  2. Junction: A point in an electrical circuit where two or more conductors are joined together is called a junction.
  3. Loop: A closed conducting path in an electrical network is called a loop or mesh.
  4. Branch: A branch is any part of an electrical network that lies between two junctions.
  5. Electrical network: An electrical network consists of a number of electrical components connected together to form a system of inter-related circuits.

Question 2.
State Kirchhoff’s first law or current law or junction law.
Answer:
The algebraic sum of the currents at a junction is zero in an electrical network, i.e. \(\sum_{i=1}^{n}\) Ii = 0, where Ii is
the current in the ith conductor at a junction having n conductors.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity

Question 3.
What is the sign convention used for Kirchhoff’s first law? Explain with an example.
Answer:
A current arriving at a junction is considered positive while a current leaving a junction is considered negative.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 1
Consider a junction in a circuit where six current carrying conductors meet. Currents I1, I3 and I5 are considered positive as they arrive at the junction.
Currents I2, I4 and I6 are considered negative as they leave the junction.

Using Kirchhoff’s current law, \(\sum_{i=1}^{6}\) Ii = 0, we get,
I1 – I2 + I3 – I4 + I5 – I6 = 0
∴ I1 + I3 + I5 = I2 + I4 + I6
Thus the total current flowing towards the junction is equal to the total current flowing away from the junction.

[Note : As the current is the time rate of flow of charge, it follows that the net charge entering the junction in a given time equals the net charge leaving the junction in the same time. Thus, this law (current law/junction law) is based on the conservation of charge. ]

Question 4.
State Kirchhoff’s second law or voltage law or loop law.
Ans. The algebraic sum of the potential differences (products of current and resistance) and the electromotive forces (emf’s) in a closed loop is zero. Σ IR + Σ E = 0

Question 5.
What is the sign convention used for Kirchhoff’s second law ? Explain with an example.
Answer:
(1) While tracing a loop, if we traverse a resistor along the direction of conventional current, the potential difference across the resistor is considered negative. If we traverse the resistor opposite to the direction of conventional current, the potential difference across the resistor is considered positive.

(2) While tracing a loop within the source, if we travel from the negative terminal of the source (cell) to the positive terminal of the source (cell), the emf of the source (cell) is considered positive.

On the contrary, if we travel from the positive terminal of the source (cell) to the negative terminal of the source (cell), the emf of the source (cell) is considered negative.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 2
Consider the electrical network shown in above figure.
Tracing loop ABFGA in the clockwise direction, we get,
– I1R1 – I3R5 – I1R3 + E1 = 0
∴ E1 = I1R1 + I3R5 + I1R3
Tracing loop BFDCB in the anticlockwise direction, we get,
– I3R5 – I2R4 + E2 – I2R2 = 0
∴ E2 = I2R2 + I3R5 + I2R4

[Notes : (1) We may as well consider loop ABCDFGA and write the corresponding equation. (2) As the emf of a cell is the energy provided by the cell per unit charge in circulating the charge and the potential difference across a resistance is the work done per unit charge, it follows that this law (voltage law /loop law) is based on the conservation of energy.]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity

Question 6.
What is the basis of Kirchhoff’s current law and voltage law?
Answer:
Kirchhoff’s current law is consistent with the conservation of electric charge while the voltage law is consistent with the law of conservation of energy.

7. Solve the following

Question 1.
Determine the current flowing through the galvanometer shown in the figure below.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 3
Solution:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 4
To find Ig we apply Kirchhoff’s voltage law.
Loop ABDA :
– 5I1 – 10Ig + 15I2 = 0
∴ – 5I1 + 15I2 = 10Ig
∴ -I1 + 3I2 = 2Ig ………….. (1)
Loop BCDB :
-10(I1 – Ig) + 20 (I2 + Ig) + 10Ig = 0
∴ – 10I1 + 10Ig + 20I2 + 20Ig + 10Ig = 0
∴ I1 – 2I2 = 4Ig …………. (2)
Adding Eqs. (1) and (2), we get, I2 = 6 Ig …………. (3)
Substituting for Z2 from Eq. (3) in Eq. (2).
∴ I1 = 12Ig + 4Ig = 16Ig
Now, I1 + I2 = 2 A by the data.
∴ 16Ig + 6Ig = 2A
∴ 22Ig = 2A
∴ Ig = \(\frac{2}{22}\) A = \(\frac{1}{11}\) A from B to D
This is the current flowing through the galvanometer.

Question 8.
State the factors on which the resistance Of a material depends.
Answer:
The resistance of a material depends upon tem-perature, strain, humidity, etc.

[Note : Depending upon the factors stated above, resistance may vary from near zero to thousands of megaohm.]

Question 9.
What are the applications of Wheatstone’s metre bridge?
Answer:

  1. Wheatstone’s metre bridge is used for measuring the values of very low resistance precisely.
  2. It can also be used to measure the quantities such as strain galvanometer, resistance, capacitance of a capacitor, inductance of an inductor, impedence of a combination of a resistor, capacitor and inductor and the internal resistance of a cell.

Question 10.
What is the balance point in Kelvin’s method to measure the resistance of a galvanometer?
Answer:
Kelvin’s method of determination of the galvanometer resistance is an equal deflection method. The balance point in Kelvin’s method is a point on the wire for which the bridge network is balanced and the galvanometer shows no change in deflection.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity

Question 11.
Why is Kelvin’s method to measure the resistance of a galvanometer called an equal deflection method?
Answer:
In Kelvin’s method of determination of the galvanometer resistance using a Wheatstone metre bridge, the galvanometer is connected in one gap of the bridge and a variable known resistance is connected in the other gap. The junction of the two gaps (say, B) is connected directly to a pencil jockey.

The jockey is tapped along the wire to locate the equipotential balance point D when the galvanometer shows no change in deflection.

Since the galvanometer shows the same deflection on making or breaking the contact between the jockey and the wire, the method is an equal deflection method.

12. Solve the following :

Question 1.
Four resistances 5 Ω, 10 Ω, 15 Ω and X (unknown) are connected in the cyclic order so as to form a Wheatstone network. Determine X if the network is balanced.
Solution:
Data : P = 5 Ω, Q = 10 Ω, R = 15 Ω
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 5
Since the network is balanced,
\(\frac{P}{Q}=\frac{X}{R}\)
∴ \(\frac{5}{10}=\frac{X}{15}\)
∴ X = 15 × \(\frac{5}{10}\) = 7.5 Ω

Question 2.
Resistances P = 10 Ω, Q = 15 Ω, S = 50 Ω and R = 25 Ω are connected in order in the arms AB, BC, CD and DA respectively of a Wheatstone network ABCD. A cell is connected between A and C. What resistance has to be connected in parallel to S to balance the network?
Solution:
Data : P = 10 Ω, Q = 15 Ω, S = 50 Ω and R = 25 Ω
Let x = resistance to be connected in parallel to S to balance the network. The resistance of the parallel combination of S and x is \(\frac{S x}{S+x}\) .
For the balanced network,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 6

Question 3.
Four resistances 4 Ω, 8 Ω, X and 6 Ω are connected in the cyclic order so as to form Wheatstone’s network. If the network is balanced, find X.
Solution:
Data : P = 4Ω, Q = 8 Ω, R = X and S = 6 Ω
Since the network is balanced,
∴ \(\frac{P}{Q}=\frac{S}{R}\)
∴ X = 6\(\frac{8}{4}\) = 12 Ω

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity

Question 4.
Four resistances 4 Ω, 4 Ω, 4 Ω and 12 Ω form a Wheatstone network. Find the resistance which connected across the 12 Ω resistance will balance the network.
Solution:
The resistance in each of the three arms of the network is 4 Ω. Hence, to balance the network, the resistance in the fourth arm must also be 4 Ω.

Hence, the resistance (R) to be connected across. i.e., in parallel to, the 12 Ω resistance should be such that their equivalent resistance is 4Ω.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 7

Question 5.
Four resistances 80 Ω, 40 Ω, 10 Ω and 15 Ω are connected to form Wheatstone’s network ABCD as shown in the following figure.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 8
What resistance must be connected in the branch containing 10 Ω to balance the network?
Solution:
Data : P = 80 Ω, Q = 40 Ω, 10 Ω and R = 15 Ω are connected as shown in above figure.
When the network is balanced,
\(\frac{P}{Q}=\frac{S}{R}\)
∴ \(\frac{80}{40}=\frac{S}{15}\)
∴ S = 15 × 2 = 30 Ω
Let X be the resistance to be connected in series with 10 Ω, so as to obtain 30 Ω.
∴ X + 10 = 30
∴ X = 20 Ω

Question 6.
An unknown resistance is placed in the left gap and resistance of 50 ohms is placed in the right gap of a meter bridge. The null point is obtained at 40 cm from the left end. Determine the unknown resistance.
Solution:
Data : R =50 C in the right gap, lX =40 cm
\(\)
Now, lR = 100 – lX = 100 – 40 = 60 cm
∴ \(\frac{X}{50}=\frac{40}{60}\)
∴ X = 50 × \(\frac{2}{3}\) = \(\frac{100}{3}\) = 33.33 Ω
This is the unknown resistance.

Question 7.
Two resistances X and Y in the two gaps of a metre bridge give a null point dividing the wire in the ratio 2 : 3. If each resistance is increased by 30 Ω, the new null point divides the wire in the ratio 5 : 6, calculate each resistance.
Solution:
From the data, we have in the first case,
\(\frac{X}{Y}=\frac{l_{X}}{l_{Y}}=\frac{2}{3}\)
∴ 3X = 2Y ……….. (1)
and in the second case, \(\frac{X+30}{Y+30}=\frac{l_{X+30}}{l_{Y+30}}=\frac{5}{6}\)
∴ 6X + 180 = 5Y + 150
∴ 6X – 5Y = -30
∴ 6X = 5Y – 30
∴ 2(3X) = 5Y – 30 …………. (2)
Substituting the value of 3X from Eq. (1) in Eq. (2),
we get,
2(2Y) = 5Y – 30
∴ Y = 30 Ω
∴ X = \(\frac{2}{3}\)Y = 20 Ω

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity

Question 8.
In a metre bridge experiment, with a resistance R1 in the left gap and a resistance X in the right gap, the null point is obtained at 40 cm from the left end of the wire. With a resistance R2 in the left gap and the same resistance X in the right gap, the null point is obtained at 50 cm from the left end of the wire. Where will be the null point if R1 and R2 are connected first in series and then in parallel in the left gap, the right gap still containing X?
Solution:
From the data in the example, we have:
When R1 is connected in the left gap and X in the right gap, lR1 = 40 cm, and with R2 in the left gap, lR2 50 cm.
∴ In the first case,
lX = 100 – lR1 = 100 – 40 = 60cm
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 9

(i) When R1 and R2 are connected in series, the effective resistance is
RS = R1 + R2 = \(\frac{2 X}{3}\) + X = \(\frac{5 X}{3}\)
Let the corresponding null point be at a distance l1 from the left end of the wire.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 10

(ii) When R1 and R1 are connected in parallel, the effective resistance is
RP = \(\frac{R_{1} R_{2}}{R_{1}+R_{2}}=\frac{\frac{2 X}{3} \times X}{\frac{2 X}{3}+X}=\frac{2 X}{5}\)
Let the corresponding null point be at a distance l2 Erom the left end of the wire.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 11
With the same resistance X in the right gap, the null points will be at 62.5 cm and 28.6 cm from the left end of the wire for the series and parallel combinations respectively of R1 and R2 in the left gap.

Question 9.
A uniform wire is cut into two pieces such that one piece is twice as long as the other. The two pieces are connected in parallel in the left gap of a metre bridge. When a resistance of 20 Ω is connected in the right gap, the null point is obtained at 60 cm from the right end of the bridge wire. Find the resistance of the wire before it was cut into two pieces.
Solution:
Let Rw be the resistance of the wire before it was cut into two pieces. Let L1, L2 and X1, X2 be the lengths and resistance of the two pieces.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 12
∴ The original resistance of the wire is
Rw = X1 + X2 = 40 + 20 = 60 Ω

Question 10.
Two resistances, 20 Ω and 30 Ω, are connected across the two gaps of a metre bridge as shown in the following figure.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 13
The bridge wire has diameter 0.5 mm and resistance 2 Ω. The emf of the cell is 2 V. Assume that the internal resistance of the cell is zero. Calculate (I) the resistivity (specific resistance) of the material of the bridge wire (ii) the current provided by the cell when the bridge is balanced.
Solution:
Data: R1 = 20 Ω, R2 = 30 Ω. Ig = 0, R (wire) = 2 Ω,
r (wire) = 0.25 mm = 2.5 x iO m (as the diameter of the wire is 0.5mm), l = 1 m, E = 2V
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 14

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity

Question 11.
Two diametrically opposite points of a metal ring are connected to two tenninals of the left gap of a metre bridge. A resistance of 11 Ω is connected in the right gap. If the null point is obtained at 45 cm from the left end, find the resistance of the metal ring.
Solution:
Data: R = 11 Ω, LX = 45 cm
∴ LR = 100 – LX = 100 – 45 = 55cm
Let \(\frac{X}{2}\) be the resistance of each half of the metal ring. Therefore the resistance in the left gap is the effective resistance of the parallel combination of \(\frac{X}{2}\) and \(\frac{X}{2}\)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 15
The resistance of the metal ring is 36 Ω

Question 12.
In a metre bridge experiment, the resistances R and X are connected in the left and right gap, respectively, and the null point is obtained at 33.7 cm from the left end. When a resistance of 12 Ω is connected in parallel to X, the null point is obtained at 51.9 cm from the left end. Calculate R and X.
Solution:
(1) In the first case,
lR = 33.7 cm, lX = 100 – 33.7 = 66.3 cm
∴ \(\frac{X}{R}=\frac{l_{X}}{l_{R}}=\frac{66.3}{33.7}\) …………….. (1)

(2) In the second case,
lR = 51.9 cm, lX = 100 – 51.9 = 48.1 cm
X’ = X || 12 Ω = \(\frac{12 X}{12+X}\)
∴ \(\frac{X^{\prime}}{R}=\frac{48.1}{51.9}\) ……………. (2)
Dividing Eq. (1) by Eq. (2), we get,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 16
Then, from Eq. (1),
R = 13.48 × \(\frac{33.7}{66.3}\) = 6.852 Ω

Question 13.
What is the SI unit of potential gradient?
Answer:
The SI unit of potential gradient is the \(\frac{\text { volt }}{\text { metre }}\left(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{m}}\right)\).

Question 14.
Explain how two cells are connected so as to
(i) assist each other
(ii) oppose each other. Write the formulae for the corresponding effective emf.
Answer:
Consider two cells connected so that the positive terminal of the first cell is connected to the negative terminal of the second cell as shown in figure (a). The emf’s of the two cells are added up and the effective emf of the combination of the two cells is E1 + E2. This method of connecting two cells is called the sum method. Here, the cells assist each other.

Consider two cells connected so that their negative terminals are connected together or their positive terminals are connected together as shown in figure (b).

In this case their emf’s oppose each other and the effective emf of the combination of the two cells is E1 – E2(E1 > E2 assumed). This method of connecting two cells is called the difference method.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 17

Question 15.
What is the internal resistance of the cell ?
Answer:
The internal resistance of a cell is the resistance offered by the electrolyte and electrodes in the cell.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity

Question 16.
Explain how a potentiometer is used as a voltage divider.
Answer:
A potentiometer can be used as a voltage divider to continuously change the output voltage of a voltage supply. As shown in the below figure, potential difference V is set up between points A and B of a potentiometer wire. One end of a device is connected to positive point A and the other other end is connected to a slider that can move along wire AB. The voltage V divides in proportion of lengths l1 and l2 as shown in figure.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 18
By using the slider we can change the output voltage from 0 to V.

Question 17.
State the precautions which must be taken in using a potentiometer.
Answer:
Precautions to be taken in using a potentiometer:

  1. The potential difference across the potentiometer wire must be greater than the emf or potential difference to be balanced. Hence, in comparing emfs, the driver emf E > E1, E2 (direct method) or E > E1 + E2 (combination method).
  2. The positive terminal of the cell with emf E1 and that with emf E2, or their combination, must be connected to the higher potential terminal of the potentiometer.
  3. The potentiometer wire must be of uniform cross section and homogeneous.
  4. The potentiometer wire should be long and have a high resistivity and low temperature coefficient of resistance.

Question 18.
State the advantages of a potentiometer over a voltmeter.
Answer:
Advantages of a potentiometer over a voltmeter :
(1) The cell, whose emf is being measured, draws no current from the circuit at the null point. Thus, the potentiometer measures the open-circuit potential difference across its terminals, or the emf E. A voltmeter will measure the terminal potential difference, V, of the cell in a closed circuit. This is because the resistance of a voltmeter is high but not infinite and hence the voltmeter is not ideal.

(2) By setting up a suitably small potential gradient along a long potentiometer wire, any small voltage can be measured. Increasing the length of the wire effectively decreases the potential gradient, and increases both the precision and accuracy of measurement.

(3) The adjustment of a potentiometer is a ‘null’ method which does not, in any way, depend on the calibration of the galvanometer. The galvanometer is used only to detect the current, not to measure it. The accuracy of a voltmeter is limited by its calibration.

(4) Since a potentiometer can measure both the emf and terminal potential difference of a cell, the internal resistance of the cell can be found.

19. Solve the following

Question 1.
In a potentiometer circuit. E = 2 V, r = 2 Ω, Rwire = 10 Ω, Rext = 1988 Ω and L = 4 m (in the usual notation). What is the potential gradient along the wire ?
Solution:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 19
The potential gradient along the wire is 2.5 × 10-3 V/m

Question 2.
A potentiometer wire has length 2 m and resistance 10 Ω. It is connected in series with a resistance 990 Ω and a cell of emf 2 V. Calculate the potential gradient along the wire.
Solution:
Data : L 10 m, R = 10 Ω, Rext = 990 Ω, E =2 V
The current in the circuit is
I = \(\frac{E}{R+R_{\text {ext }}}=\frac{2}{10+990}=\frac{2}{1000}\) = 2 × 10-3 A
The potential difference across the wire is
V = IR = 2 × 10-3 × 10 = 2 × 10-2 V
∴ The potential gradient along the wire
= \(\frac{V}{L}=\frac{2 \times 10^{-2}}{2}\) = 10-2 V/m

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity

Question 3.
A potentiometer wire 4 m long has a resistance of 4 Ω. What resistance must be connected in series with the wire and a cell of emf 2 V having internal resistance of 2 Ω to get a potential drop of 10-3 V/cm along the wire?
Solution:
Data: L = 4 m, R = 4 Ω, E = 2 V, r = 2 Ω
The required potential drop per unit length of the wire is
10-4 V/cm = \(\frac{10^{-3} \mathrm{~V}}{10^{-2} \mathrm{~m}}\) = 0.1 V/m
Let RS be the series resistance for which the desired potential drop is obtained.
The current in the circuit is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 20

Question 4.
A potentiometer wire of length 5 m is connected to a battery. For a certain cell having negligible internal resistance, the null point is obtained at 250 cm. If the length of the potentiometer wire is increased by 1 m, where will be the new position of the null point?
Solution:
Data : L1 = 5m, L2 = 6m, l1 = 250 cm
E = (\(\frac{V}{L}\))l
where V/L is the potential gradient and l is the balancing length.
∴ E1= (\(\frac{V}{L_{1}}\))l1 = (\(\frac{V}{L_{2}}\))2
l2 = (\(\frac{L_{2}}{L_{1}}\)) × l1 = \(\frac{6}{5}\) × 250 = 300 cm

Question 5.
A potentiometer wire, of length 4 m and resistance 8 Ω, is connected in series with a battery of emf 2 V and negligible internal resistance. If the emf of the cell balances against a length of 217 cm of the potentiometer wire, find the emf of the cell. When the cell is shunted by a resistance of 15 Ω, the balancing length is reduced by 17 cm. Find the internal resistance of the cell.
Solution:
Data: L = 4 m, R = 8 Ω, E = 2V, r = 0,
R(shunt) = 15 Ω, l = 217 cm = 2.17 m,
l1 = 217 – 17 = 200 cm = 2 m
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 21

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity

Question 6.
Two cells of emf’s E1 and E2 (E1 > E2) are connected in a potentiometer circuit so as to assist each other. The null point is obtained at 8.125 m from the high potential end of the potentiometer wire. When the cell with emf E2 is connected so as to oppose the emf E1, the null point is obtained at 1.25 m from the same end. Compare the emf’s of the two cells.
Solution:
Data : l1 = 8.125 m (cells assisting), l2 = 1.25 m (cells opposing)
E1 + E2 = Kl1 and E1 – E2 = Kl2
where K is the potential gradient.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 22

Question 7.
A cell balances against a length of 200 cm on a potentiometer wire when it is shunted by a resistance of 8 Ω. The balancing length reduces by 40 cm when it is shunted by a resistance of 4 Ω. Calculate the balancing length when the cell is in an open circuit. Also calculate the internal resistance of the cell.
Solution:
Data : Part I : R = 8 Ω, l2 = 200 cm;
Part II : R = 4 Ω, l2 = 160 cm
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 23
This is the balancing length when the cell is in open circuit. The internal resistance of the cell,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 24

Question 8.
When a resistance of 12 Ω is connected across a cell, its terminal potential difference is balanced by 120 cm of a potentiometer wire. When a resistance of 18 Ω is connected across the same cell, the balancing length is 150 cm. Find the balancing length when the cell is in open circuit. Also calculate the internal resistance of the cell.
Solution:
Data : Part I : R = 12 Ω, l2 = 120 cm;
Part II : R = 18 Ω, l2 = 150 cm
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 25
∴ \(\frac{l_{1}-120}{10}=\frac{6\left(l_{1}-150\right)}{50}\)
∴ 5 (l1 – 120) = 6(l1 -150)
∴ 5l1 – 600 = 6l1 – 900
∴ l1 = 300 cm
This is the balancing length when the cell is in open circuit.
∴ r = \(12\left(\frac{l_{1}-120}{120}\right)=\frac{300-120}{10}=\frac{180}{10}\) = 18 Ω
This is the internal resistance of the cell a unit

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity

Question 20.
What is a galvanometer?
Answer:
A galvanometer is a device used to detect weak electric currents in a circuit. The current may be of the order of a few microamperes, or even a few nanoamperes.

Question 21.
State the principle of working of a moving coil galvanometer.
Answer:
A current-carrying coil suspended in a magnetic field experiences a torque which rotates the plane of the coil and tends to maximize the magnetic flux through the coil. The torque due to the spring or the suspension fibre to which the coil is attached tends to restore the coil to its initial position. In equilibrium, the coil comes to rest and its deflection is proportional to the current through the coil.

Question 22.
Explain the basic construction of a galvanometer.
Answer:
A galvanometer consists of a coil of a large number of turns of fine insulated copper wire wound on a rectangular nonconducting, nonmagnetic frame. The coil is pivoted (or suspended) between cylindrically concave pole pieces of a horseshoe strong permanent magnet. The coil swings freely around a cylindrical soft iron core fitted between the pole pieces. The deflection of the coil can be read with a pointer attached to it. The position of the pointer on the scale provided depends on the current passing through the galvanometer (or the potential difference across it). A galvanometer can be used as an ammeter or a voltmeter with a suitable modification.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 26
[Note : A table galvanometer has a resistance of about 50 Ω and can carry a current up to about 1 mA.]

Question 23.
What are the modifications necessary to convert a moving-coil galvanometer (MCG) into an ammeter?
Answer:
To convert a moving-coil galvanometer (MCG) into an ammeter, the following modifications are necessary :

  1. The effective current capacity of the MCG must be increased to a desired higher value.
  2. A galvanometer when connected in series with a resistance, should not decrease the current through the resistance. Hence, the effective resistance of the galvanometer must be decreased by connecting an appropriate low resistance across it. An ideal ammeter should have zero resistance.
  3. It must be protected from the damages which are likely to occur due to the passage of an excess electric current.

Question 24.
State the function of the shunt in modifying a galvonometer to an ammeter.
Answer:
Functions of the shunt:

  1. It lowers the effective resistance of the ammeter
  2. It is used to divert to a large part of total current by providing an alternate path and thus it protects the instrument from damage.
  3. With a shunt of proper value, a galvanometer can be modified into an ammeter of practically any desired range.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity

Question 25.
Explain how a moving-coil galvanometer is converted into an ammeter. Derive the necessary formula.
Answer:
A moving-coil galvanometer is converted into an ammeter by reducing its effective resistance by connecting a low resistance S across the coil. Such a parallel low resistance is called a shunt since it shunts a part of the current around the coil, shown in below figure. That makes it possible to increase the range of currents over which the meter is useful.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 27
Let I be the maximum current to be measured and Ig the current for which the galvanometer of resistance G shows a full-scale deflection. Then, the shunt resistance S should be such that the remaining current I – Ig = Is is shunted through it.

In the parallel combination, the potential difference across the galvanometer = the potential difference across the shunt
∴ Ig G = Is S
= (I – Ig)S
∴ S = (\(\frac{I_{\mathrm{g}}}{I-I_{\mathrm{g}}}\)) C
This is the required resistance of the shunt. The scale of the galvanometer is then calibrated so as to read the current in ampere or its submultiples (mA. µA) directly.

[Notes :
(1) Thick bars of manganin are used for shunts because manganin has a very small temperature coefficient of resistivity.
(2) The fraction of the current passing through the galvanometer and shunt are, respectively,
\(\frac{I_{g}}{I}=\frac{S}{S+G}\) and \(\frac{I_{g}}{I}=\frac{G}{S+G}\)
(3) On the right hand side of Eq. (1), dividing both the numerator and denominator by Ig, we get,
S = \(\frac{1}{\left(I / I_{\mathrm{g}}\right)-1}\) ∙ G = \(\frac{G}{p-1}\)
where p = I/Ig is the range-multiplying factor, i.e., the current range of the galvanometer can be increased by a factor p by connecting a shunt whose resistance is smaller than the galvanometer resistance by a factor p – 1.
∴ p = \(\frac{G+S}{S}\)
If RA is the resistance of the ammeter,
RA = \(\frac{G S}{G+S}=\frac{G}{p}\)]

Question 26.
How do you calculate the shunt required to increase the range p times?
Answer:
The value of shunt resistance required to convert a galvanometer into an ammeter is given by,
S = (\(\frac{I_{\mathrm{g}}}{I-I_{\mathrm{g}}}\)) G
If the current I is p times the current Ig, then I = pIg. Using this in the above expression, we get,
S = \(\frac{G I_{\mathrm{g}}}{p I_{\mathrm{g}}-I_{\mathrm{g}}}\) OR S = \(\frac{G}{p-1}\)
This is the required shunt resistance to increase the range p times.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity

Question 27.
What is the current flowing through the shunt resistance?
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 28
If IS is the current through the shunt resistance, then the remaining current (I – IS) will flow through the galvanometer.

Now, the potential difference across the galvanometer = the potential difference across the shunt
∴ G(I – IS) = S IS
∴ GI – GIS = S IS
∴ SIS + GIS = G I
∴ IS = (\(\frac{G}{S+G}\))I
This is the current flowing through the shunt resistance.

Question 28.
What are the modifications required to convert a moving-coil galvanometer into a voltmeter?
Answer:
The modifications required to convert a moving- coil galvanometer into a voltmeter are as follows :

  1. The effective resistance of the galvanometer should be very high. This is because a voltmeter requires a very small current to deflect its pointer. If a larger current than this flows through the voltmeter, the voltmeter is said to load the circuit and it will record a much smaller voltage drop.
  2. The voltage measuring capacity (range) should be increased to a desired value.
  3. It must be protected from damages which are likely to occur due to an excess applied potential difference.

Question 29.
Explain how a moving-coil galvanometer is converted into a voltmeter. Derive the necessary formula.
Answer:
A moving-coil galvanometer is converted into a voltmeter by increasing its effective resistance by connecting a high resistance Rs in series with the galvanometer, shown in figure. The series resistance is also useful for changing the range of any given voltmeter.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 29
Let G be the resistance of the galvanometer coil and Ig the current required for a full-scale deflection.

Let V be the maximum potential difference to be measured. The value of the series resistance RS should be such that when the potential difference applied across the instrument is V, the current through the galvanometer is Ig.

In the series combination, the potential difference V gets divided across the galvanometer (resistance, G) and the resistance RS :
V = IgG + IgRS = Ig(G + RS)
∴ RS = \(\frac{V}{I_{\mathrm{g}}}\) – G
This is the required value of the series resistance. The scale of the galvanometer is then calibrated so as to read the potential difference in volt or its submultiples, e.g., mV, directly.

[Notes :
(1) A series multiplier is made of manganin wire because manganin has a very small temperature coefficient of resistivity.
(2) The maximum potential difference Vg that can be dropped across the galvanometer is Vg = Ig G. Therefore, the above expression for the series resistance may be rewritten as
Rs = \(\frac{V G}{I_{\mathrm{g}} G}\) – G
= \(\frac{V G}{V_{\mathrm{g}}}\) – G = G(p – 1)
where p = V/Vg is the range-multiplying factor, i.e., the voltage range of the galvanometer can be increased by a factor of p by connecting a series resistance which is (p – 1) times the galvanometer resistance.
∴ p = \(\frac{V}{V_{g}}=\frac{\left(R_{\mathrm{S}}+G\right) I_{\mathrm{g}}}{G I_{\mathrm{g}}}=\frac{R_{\mathrm{S}}+G}{G}\)
Since the resistance of the voltmeter is Rv = RS + G,
p = \(\frac{R_{\mathrm{V}}}{G}\)
∴Rv = Gp]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity

Question 30.
State the functions of the series resistance in modifying a galvanometer into a voltmeter.
Answer:
Functions of the series, resistance:

  1. It increases the effective resistance of the voltmeter.
  2. It drops off a larger fraction of the measured potential difference thus protecting the sensitive meter movement of the basic galvanometer.
  3. With resistance of proper value, a galvanometer can be modified to a voltmeter of desired range. .

Question 31.
Distinguish between an ammeter and a voltmeter
Answer:

Ammeter

Voltmeter

1. It measures current. 1. It measures potential difference.
2. It is connected in series with a resistance. 2. It is connected in parallel to a resistance.
3. An ammeter should have very low resistance (ideally zero). 3. A voltmeter should have very high resistance (ideally infinite).
4. Its range can be increased by decreasing the value of shunt resistance. 4. Its range can be increased by increasing the value of series resistance.
5. The resistance of an ammeter is RA = 5. The resistance of a voltmeter is Rv = G + Rs = Gp.

32. Solve the following

Question 1.
Calculate the value of the shunt which when connected across a galvanometer of resistance 38 Ω will allow 1/20th of the current to pass through the galvanometer.
Solution:
Data : G = 38 Ω, Ig / I = \(\frac{1}{20}\)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 30
∴ S + 38 = 20 S
∴ 19 S = 38
∴ S = 2 Ω
This is the required value of the shunt.

Question 2.
A galvanometer is shunted by 1/r of its resistance. Find the fraction of the total current passing through the galvanometer.
Solution:
Let G be the resistance of the galvanometer, I the total current and Ig the current through the galvanometer when it is shunted. The resistance of the shunt is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 31
The fraction \(\frac{1}{1+r}\) of the total current passes through the galvanometer.
[Note : The fraction of the current through the shunt = \(\frac{I_{\mathrm{S}}}{I}=1-\frac{I_{\mathrm{g}}}{I}=\frac{r}{1+r}\)]

Question 3.
A resistance of 3 Ω is connected in parallel to a galvanometer of resistance 297 Ω. Find the fraction of the current passing through the galvanometer.
Solution:
Data : G = 297 Ω, S = 3 Ω
Ig = \(\frac{S}{S+G}\) ∙ I
∴ \(\frac{I_{\mathrm{g}}}{I}=\frac{S}{S+G}=\frac{3}{3+297}=\frac{3}{300}\) = 0.01
This is the fraction of the current through the galvanometer.

[Note: The fraction of the current through the shunt
= \(\frac{I_{\mathrm{S}}}{I}\) = 1 – 0.01 = 0.99]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity

Question 4.
The combined resistance of a galvanometer of resistance 1000Ωand its shunt is 25 Ω. Calculate the value of the shunt.
Solution:
Data: G = 1000 Ω, RA =25 Ω
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 32
This is the value of the shunt.

Question 5.
A galvanometer with a coil of resistance 40 Ω gives a full scale deflection for a current of 5 mA. How will you convert it into an ammeter of range 0 – 5 A?
Solution:
Data: G = 40 Ω, Ig = 5 mA = 5 × 10-3 A, I = 5 A
To convert a galvanometer into an ammeter, a shunt (i.e., low resistance in parallel) should be connected with the galvanometer coil. The required shunt resistance,
S = (\(\frac{I_{\mathrm{g}}}{I-I_{\mathrm{g}}}\)) G = (\(\frac{5 \times 10^{-3}}{5-5 \times 10^{-3}}\)) × 40
= \(\frac{200}{4995}\) = 0.04 Ω

Question 6.
A galvanometer has a resistance of 16 Ω and gives a full scale deflection when a current of 20 mA is passed through it. The only shunt resistance available is 0.04 Ω which is not sufficient to convert the galvanometer to an ammeter to measure up to 10 A. What resistance should be connected in series with the coil of the galvanometer so that the range of the ammeter is 10 A ?
Solution:
Data: G =16 Ω, Ig = 20 mA = 0.02 A,
S = 0.04 Ω, I = 10 A
Let X be the resistance to be connected in series with the coil of the galvanometer.
The fraction of the current through the galvanometer is \(\frac{I_{\mathrm{g}}}{I}\).
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 33
\(\frac{I_{\mathrm{g}}}{I}=\frac{S}{(G+X)+S}\)
∴ (G + X) + S = \(\frac{I}{I_{\mathrm{g}}}\) × S = \(\frac{10}{0.02}\) × 0.04 = 20
∴ X = 20 – (16 + 0.04) = 3.96 Ω
Alternate method:
Let G’ = G + X = 16 + X
The range multiplying factor,
p = \(\frac{I}{I_{\mathrm{g}}}=\frac{10}{0.02}\) = 500
Then, S = \(\frac{G^{\prime}}{p-1}\)
∴ G’= 16 + X = S(p – 1)
= 0.04(500 – 1) = 19.96 Ω
∴ X = 19.96 – 16 = 3.96 Ω

Question 7.
A galvanometer of resistance 100 C gives a full scale deflection for a current of 2 mA. How will you use it to measure (i) current up to 2 A (ii) voltage up to 10 V?
Solution:
Data : G = 100 Ω, Ig = 2 mA = 2 × 10-3 A, I = 2 A, V = 10 V
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 34
A resistance of 0.1001 Ωshould be connected in parallel to the coil of the galvanometer to measure current up to 2 A.

(ii) Rs = \(\frac{V}{I_{\mathrm{g}}}\) – G
= \(\frac{10}{2 \times 10^{-3}}\) – 100 = 5000 – 100 = 4900 Ω
A resistance of 4900 Ω should be connected in series with the coil of the galvanometer to measure voltage up to 10 V.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity

Question 8.
Calculate the value of resistance needed to convert a moving-coil galvanometer of 60 Ω which gives a full scale deflection for a current of 50 mA into (i) an ammeter of range 0 – 5 A (ii) a voltmeter of range 0 – 50 V.
Solution:
Data : G = 60 Ω, Ig = 50 mA = 5 × 10-2 A, I = 5 A, V = 50 V
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 35
A resistance of 0.6061 Ω should be connected in parallel to the coil of the galvanometer to measure current up to 5 A.

(ii) Rs = \(\frac{V}{I_{\mathrm{g}}}\) – G
= \(\frac{50}{5 \times 10^{-2}}\) – 60
= 1000 – 60 = 940 Ω
A resistance of 940 Ω should be connected in series with the coil of the galvanometer to measure voltage up to 50 V.

Question 9.
A voltmeter of resistance 500 Ω can measure a maximum voltage of 5 V. How can it be made to measure a maximum voltage of 100 V? Solution:
Data : G = 500 Ω, Vg = 5 V, V = 100 V
To increase the range of the voltmeter by a factor p = \(\frac{V}{V_{\mathrm{g}}}\), a resistance R should be connected in series with it.
Rs = G(p – 1) = 500(\(\frac{100}{5}\) – 1) = 9500 Ω

Question 10.
A moving-coil galvanometer of resistance 200 ohms gives a full scale deflection of 100 divisions for a current of 50 milliamperes. How will you convert it into an ammeter to read 2 amperes for 20 divisions?
Solution:
Data : G = 200 Ω, Ig = 50 mA = 50 × 10-3 A
The total number of scale divisions is 100. The ammeter has to read 20 divisions for a current of 2 A. Hence, for 100 divisions, the current must be I = 10 A.

To convert the galvanometer into an ammeter, a shunt must be connected in parallel to the galvanometer coil. The required shunt resistance,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 36

Question 11.
A galvanometer of resistance 50 Ω has a current sensitivity of 5 div/mA. The instrument has 25 divisions. How will you convert it into a voltmeter of range 0 – 50 V ?
Solution:
Data : G = 50 Ω, V = 50 V
For a current of 1 mA, the galvanometer shows a deflection of 5 divisions. Hence, for a full scale deflection (i.e. deflection of 25 divisions), the current passing through the galvanometer should be 5 mA.

∴ Ig = 5mA = 5 × 10-3 A

To convert the galvanometer into a voltmeter, a high resistance must be connected in series with the galvanometer coil. This series multiplier,
Rs = \(\frac{V}{I_{\mathrm{g}}}\) – G = \(\frac{50}{5 \times 10^{-3}}\) – 50
= 9950 Ω

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
For a Wheatstone network shown in the following figure, Ig = 0 when .
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 37
(A) E = 0
(B)VB = VD
(C) VB > VD
(D) VB < VD
Answer:
(B)VB = VD

Question 2.
A potentiometer wire is 100 cm long and a constant potential difference is maintained across it. Two cells are connected in series, first to support one another and then in opposite direction. The balance points are obtained at 50 cm and 10 cm from the positive end of the wire in the two cases. The ratio of emfs is
(A) 5 : 4
(B) 3 : 4
(C) 3 : 2
(D) 5 : 1
Answer:
(C) 3 : 2

Question 3.
When the current in a potentiometer wire decreases, the potential gradient
(A) decreases
(B) increases
(C) remains the same provided the resistance and the length of the wire remain the same
(D) remains the same, irrespective of the resistance . of the wire and its length.
Answer:
(A) decreases

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity

Question 4.
In the circuit given below the current through the 6 Ω resistor will be
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 38
Answer:
(B) \(\frac{2}{3}\) A

Question 5.
The accuracy of a potentiometer wire can be increased by
(A) increasing its length
(B) decreasing its length
(C) using a cell of higher emf
(D) using a cell of lower emf.
Answer:
(A) increasing its length

Question 6.
A cell of emf 1.1 V and internal resistance r is connected across an external resistor of resistance R = 10 r. The potential difference across the resistor is
(A) 0.1 V
(B) 0.9 V
(C) 1.0 V
(D) 1.1 V.
Answer:
(C) 1.0 V

Question 7.
When a metal conductor connected in the left gap of a metre bridge is heated, the null point
(A) will shift towards right
(B) will shift towards left
(C) will remain unchanged
(D) will shift towards right or left depending upon the resistivity of the metal.
Answer:
(A) will shift towards right

Question 8.
In using a Wheatstone’s bridge to accurately measure an unknown resistance, a calibrated known variable resistor is varied until
(A) the change in the galvanometer reading is zero
(B) a change in the value of the variable resistor produces no change in the galvanometer reading
(C) the potential difference across the unknown resistance is zero
(D) the potential difference across the galvanometer is zero.
Answer:
(D) the potential difference across the galvanometer is zero.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity

Question 9.
In a Wheatstone network, the resistances in cyclic order are P = 10 Ω, Q = 5 Ω, S = 4 Ω and R = 4 Ω. Then, for the bridge to balance,
(A) 5 Ω should be connected in parallel to Q = 5 Ω
(B) 10 Ω should be connected in series with Q = 5 Ω
(C) 5 Ω should be connected in series with P = 10 Ω
(D) 10 Ω should be connected in parallel to P = 10 Ω
Answer:
(D) 10 Ω should be connected in parallel to P = 10 Ω

Question 10.
Two resistors, R1 and R, are connected in the left gap and the right gap of a metre bridge, and the balancing length is obtained at 20 cm from the left. On inter-changing the resistors in the two gaps, the balancing length shifts by
(A) 20 cm
(B) 40 cm
(C) 60 cm
(D) 80 cm.
Answer:
(C) 60 cm

Question 11.
An instrument which can measure terminal potential difference as well as electromotive force (emf) is
(A) Wheatstone’s metre bridge
(B) a voltmeter
(C) a potentiometer
(D) a galvanometer
Answer:
(C) a potentiometer

Question 12.
A 10 m long wire of resistance 2012 is connected in series with a resistance of 10 Ω and a battery of emf 3 V and negligible internal resistance. The potential gradient, in µV / mm, along the wire is
(A) 2
(B) 20
(C) 200
(D) 2000
Answer:
(C) 200

Question 13.
A 10 m long potentiometer wire has a resistance of 20 Ω. If it is connected in series with a resistance of 55 Ω and a cell of emf 4 V and internal resistance 5 Ω, the potential gradient along the wire is
(A) 0.1 V/m
(B) 0.08 V/m
(C) 0.01 V/m
(D) none of these.
Answer:
(A) 0.1 V/m

Question 14.
A potential gradient of 6 × 10-3 V/ mm is set up on a potentiometer wire which has a resistance of 2 Ω/m. Two emfs 2.5 V and 1.3 V, once assisting and then opposing each other, are balanced on the wire. The balancing lengths in the two cases are in the ratio
(A) 19 : 2
(B) 19 : 6
(C) 25 : 13
(D) 2:1.
Answer:
(B) 19 : 6

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity

Question 15.
A potentiometer wire, having a resistance of 5 Ω and length 10 m, is connected in series a cell of emf 5 V and an external resistance of 495 Ω. A potential difference of 1.5 mV will balance against a length of
(A) 3 cm
(B) 30 cm
(C) 3 m
(D) none of these.
Answer:
(B) 30 cm

Question 16.
A load resistance R is connected across a cell of emf E and internal resistance r. If the closed-circuit p.d. across the terminals of the cell is V, the internal resistance of the cell is
(A) (E – V) R
(B) (V – E)R
(C) \(\frac{E-V}{V} R\)
(D) \(\frac{E-V}{V}\)
Answer:
(C) \(\frac{E-V}{V} R\)

Question 17.
The open-circuit potential difference across the terminals of a cell balances on 150 cm of a potentiometer wire. When the cell is shunted by a 4.9 Ω resistor, the balancing length reduces to 147 cm. The internal resistance of the cell is
(A) 0.01 Ω
(B) 0.05 Ω
(C) 0.1 Ω
(D) 1 Ω
Answer:
(C) 0.1 Ω

Question 18.
To convert a galvanometer into an ammeter
(A) a high resistance is connected in parallel to the galvanometer
(B) a high resistance is connected in series with the galvanometer
(C) a low resistance is connected in parallel to the galvanometer
(D) a low resistance value is connected in series with the galvanometer.
Answer:
(C) a low resistance is connected in parallel to the galvanometer

Question 19.
To convert a galvanometer into a voltmeter
(A) a high resistance is connected in parallel to the galvanometer
(B) a high resistance is connected in series with the galvanometer
(C) a low resistance is connected in parallel to the galvonometer
(D) a low resistance is connected in series with the galvonometer.
Answer:
(B) a high resistance is connected in series with the galvanometer

Question 20.
An ideal ammeter has
(A) a moderate resistance
(B) a high resistance
(C) an infinite resistance
(D) zero resistance
Answer:
(D) zero resistance

Question 21.
An ideal voltmeter has
(A) a low resistance
(B) a high resistance
(C) an infinite resistance
(D) zero resistance
Answer:
(C) an infinite resistance

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity

Question 22.
The fraction of the total current passing through the galvanometer is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 9 Current Electricity 39
Answer:
(A) \(\frac{S}{S+G}\)

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics

Question 1.
State Gauss’s law in electrostatics.
Answer:
Gauss’s law: The net flux through a closed surface in free space is related to the net charge qenci that is enclosed by that surface and is given by
Φ = \(\oint \vec{E} \cdot \overrightarrow{d \mathrm{~s}}=\frac{q_{\mathrm{encl}}}{\varepsilon_{0}}\)
where e0 is the permittivity of free space and the electric flux \(\vec{E} \cdot \overrightarrow{d \mathrm{~s}}\) is integrated over the entire area of the surface.

[Note: The SI unit of electric flux is the newton metre squared per coulomb (N∙m2/C) or, equivalently, the voltmetre (V\vec{E} \cdot \overrightarrow{d \mathrm{~s}}m).]

Question 2.
A Gaussian surface in the form of a cube is centred on a point charge Q. What is the flux through one face of the cube?
Answer:
Since the point charge is at the centre of the cube, the electric flux through each face is the same. Therefore, the electric flux through one face is \(\frac{1}{6}\)th of the electric flux originating from or terminating at the point charge.

If ε is the permittivity of the medium, the electric flux through one face = \(\frac{Q}{6 \varepsilon}\).

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics

Question 3.
An arbitrary surface encloses a dipole. What is the electric flux through this surface?
Answer:
Since the net charge enclosed by the surface is zero, the net electric flux through the surface is also zero. . v

Question 4.
Obtain an expression for the electric field intensity at a point outside a charged conducting spherical shell.
Hence, obtain an expression for the electric intensity (i) on the surface of (i.e., just outside) the spherical conductor (ii) inside the spherical conductor.
Answer:
Consider an isolated charged hollow spherical conductor A, of radius R and surface charge density σ, placed in a medium of permittivity ε. Consider a . point P outside the conductor at a distance r from its centre. To find the electric field intensity at P, we choose a spherical Gaussian surface S of radius r through P and concentric with conductor A. A small element of this surface containing P has an area dS.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 1
The charge Q is uniformly distributed over the outer surface of the spherical conductor. Then, by symmetry, the electric field intensity at every point on surface S is normal to the surface and has the same magnitude E. If charge Q is positive, \(\vec{E}\) at every point on S is radially outward.
The angle θ between \(\vec{E}\) and \(d \vec{S}\) being zero for every surface element, the electric flux through every element is
dΦ = \(\vec{E} \cdot d \vec{S}\) = E dS
Therefore, the flux through the Gaussian surface S is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 2
where ε0 is the permittivity of free space and k = \(\frac{\varepsilon}{\varepsilon_{0}}\) is the relative permittivity (dielectric constant) of the surrounding medium.
∴ E = \(\frac{\sigma\left(4 \pi R^{2}\right)}{4 \pi \varepsilon r^{2}}=\frac{\sigma R^{2}}{\varepsilon r^{2}}\) …………… (6)
Equations (5) and (6) give the magnitude of the electric field intensity at a point P outside a hollow spherical conductor. If the net charge Q enclosed by the Gaussian surface is positive, \(\vec{E}\) is radially outward; if Q is negative, \(\vec{E}\) is radially inward. Equation (5) shows that for a point outside a hollow spherical conductor carrying a charge Q, the conductor behaves like a point charge Q at its centre.

Case (1) : At a point just outside the sphere, r ≅ R.
∴ E = \(\frac{\sigma}{\varepsilon}=\frac{\sigma}{k \varepsilon_{0}}\)

Case (2) : Since electric charge resides on the outer surface of a hollow conductor, the charge inside the hollow spherical conductor is zero. Then, Einside = 0.

[Notes : (1) The surface of a charged conductor is an equipotential surface so that the electric field just outside it must be normal to the surface of the conductor. For a spherical charged conductor, it follows that the field is radial, and because the net charge is, by symmetry, uniformly distributed over its outer surface, the field is spherically symmetric, the same as for a point charge.
(2) The electric field intensity is zero at all points inside a hollow charged conductor of arbitrary shape because under electrostatic condition the net charge of the charged conductor resides on its surface. This is also true for a hollow charged spherical conductor, if there is no charge in the cavity (e.g., on a conductor inside the cavity but insulated from the outer shell).]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics

Question 5.
Does the electric flux due to a point charge enclosed by a spherical Gaussian surface get affected when its radius is increased?
Answer:
No. Electric flux, or the number of electric field lines, passing through the Gaussian surface is independent of the size of the Gaussian surface and depends on the number of field lines originating from or terminating at the point charge, which in turn depends on the magnitude of the point charge and the permittivity of the medium.

Question 6.
Obtain an expression for the electric field intensity at a point outside an infinitely long charged cylindrical conductor.
Answer:
Consider an isolated cylindrical conductor A, of radius R and carrying a charge per unit length λ. We assume the conductor to be infinitely long. Consider a point P outside the conductor at a distance r from its axis. To find the electric field intensity at P, we choose a cylindrical Gaussian surface S of radius r through P and coaxial with the conductor A. As λ is the charge per unit length of conductor A, the net charge enclosed by the Gaussian cylinder of length l is
Q = λl ………….. (1)
A small element on the curved part of the Gaussian surface and containing P has an area dS.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 3
Charge is uniformly distributed over the outer surface of the cylindrical conductor. Then, by symmetry, the electric field intensity at any point outside the conductor is perpendicular to the cylinder axis. Hence, the component of the electric field intensity perpendicular to the plane circular faces of the Gaussian surface is zero. Therefore, the electric flux through these flat faces is zero.

By symmetry, the electric field intensity \(\vec{E}\) at every point on the curved face of surface S is normal to the surface and has the same magnitude \(\vec{E}\). If the charge on conductor A is positive, E is directed along the outward drawn normal \(d \vec{S}\).

The angle θ between \(\vec{E}\) and \(d \vec{S}\) being zero for every surface element, the electric flux through every element is
dΦ = \(\vec{E} \cdot d \vec{S}\) = E dS
Therefore, the flux through the curved face of the Gaussian surface S is
Φ = \(\oint\) E dS = E \(\oint\) dS ……….. (2)
\(\oint\) dS = area of the curved surface = 2πrl, where l is the length of the cylinder as shown in the figure.
∴ Φ = E × 2πrl ………….. (3)
Then, by Gauss’s theorem,
Φ = \(\frac{Q}{\varepsilon}\) = E × 2πrl ……………. (4)
∴ E = \(\frac{\lambda l}{\varepsilon(2 \pi r l)}=\frac{\lambda}{2 \pi \varepsilon r}=\frac{\lambda}{2 \pi k \varepsilon_{0} r}\) ……………… (5)
where ε0 is the permittivity of free space and k = \(\frac{\varepsilon}{\varepsilon_{0}}\) is the relative permittivity (dielectric constant) of the surrounding medium.

This gives the magnitude of the electric field intensity in terms of the linear charge density λ. For positive λ, \(\vec{E}\) is outward, while for negative λ, \(\vec{E}\) is inward.

[Notes : (1) If σ is the surface charge density (charge per unit area), σ = \(\frac{\lambda l}{2 \pi R l}=\frac{\lambda}{2 \pi R}\) ∴ λ = 2πRσ
∴ E = \(\frac{2 \pi R \sigma}{2 \pi \varepsilon_{0} k r}=\frac{R \sigma}{\varepsilon_{0} k r}\) (2) If the charge on the conductor is negative, \(\vec{E}\) is inward.]

Question 7.
An infinitely long positively charged straight wire has a linear charge density λ. An electron is revolving around the wire as its centre with a constant speed in a circular plane perpendicular to the wire. Deduce the expression for its kinetic energy.
Answer:
Let r be the radius of the uniform circular motion of the electron. The electric field intensity \(\vec{E}\) at every point on the circular path is radially outward and has the same magnitude E = \(\frac{\lambda}{2 \pi \varepsilon r}\) .

∴ The centripetal force on the electron,
Fc = \(\frac{m_{\mathrm{e}} v^{2}}{r}\) = eE = \(\frac{e \lambda}{2 \pi \varepsilon r}\)
where me and v are the mass and linear speed of the electron.
∴ mev2 = \(\frac{e \lambda}{2 \pi \varepsilon}\)
∴ The kinetic energy of the electron,
\(\frac{1}{2}\) mev2 = \(\frac{e \lambda}{4 \pi \varepsilon}\)

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics

Question 8.
Obtain an expression for the electric field intensity at a point outside a uniformly charged thin infinite plane sheet.
Answer:
Consider a thin, flat, infinite, positively charged conducting sheet, with a uniform surface charge density σ. let the permittivity of the surrounding medium be ε. The charge density has a planar symmetry, i.e., it appears the same from all points on a plane parallel to the sheet. Then, by symmetry, the electric field intensity \(\vec{E}\) (1) is perpendicular to the sheet (in this case, outwards) at all points outside the sheet, and (2) has the same magnitude E at any given distance on either side of the sheet.

To find E at a point P outside the sheet, imagine a Gaussian surface in the form of a small closed cylinder. Its axis is perpendicular to the sheet, with the point P on one end face, shown in below figure. The cylinder encloses a small area dS of the sheet. So, the charge enclosed by the cylinder = σdS …………. (1)
The flux through one end = EdS
∴ The flux through the Gaussian surface,
Φ = 2EdS …………… (2)
By Gauss’s theorem,
εΦ = net charge enclosed
∴ ε(2EdS) = σdS …………. (3)
∴ E = \(\frac{\sigma}{2 \varepsilon}=\frac{\sigma}{2 k \varepsilon_{0}}\) …………. (4)
where ε0 is the permittivity of free space and k = \(\frac{\varepsilon}{\varepsilon_{0}}\) is the relative permittivity (dielectric constant) of the surrounding medium.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 4
Equation (4) shows that the magnitude of the electric field intensity outside the charged sheet is uniform and independent of the distance from the sheet.

[Notes : (1) The electric field lines are straight, parallel to each other, and perpendicular to the sheet. (2) If the sheet is negatively charged, \(\vec{E}\) on either side of the sheet is directed towards the sheet.]

9. Solve the following

Question 1.
Two metal spheres, of radii 2 cm and 1 cm with respective charge densities 5 mC/m2 and -2 mC/m2, are inside a hypothetical closed surface in vacuum. What is the net electric flux through the surface ?
Solution:
Data : σ1 = 5 × 10-6 C / m2,
σ2 = -2 × 10-6 C/m2, r1 = 2 × 10-2 m, r2 = 2 × 10-2 m
ε0 = 8.85 × 10-12 F/m
Surface charge density, σ = \(\frac{Q}{A}=\frac{Q}{4 \pi r^{2}}\)
∴ The charges on the metal spheres are
Q1 = σ1 (4πr12) and Q2 = σ2(4πr22)
∴ Net charge enclosed, Q = Q1 + Q2 = 4π(σ1r12 + σ2r22) = Q1 + Q2
= 4π[(5 × 10-6)(2 × 10-2)2 +(- 2 × 10-6)(10-2)2]
= 4π[(5 × 10-6)(4 × 10-4) + (- 2 × 10-6)(10-4)]
= 4π(10-10)(20 – 2) = 72π × 10-10 C
∴ By Gauss’s theorem, the net flux through the surface
= \(\frac{Q}{\varepsilon_{0}}=\frac{72 \times 3.142 \times 10^{-10}}{8.85 \times 10^{-12}}\) = 2.556 × 103 V∙m or N∙m2/C

Question 2.
A hollow metal ball 10 cm in diameter is given a charge of 1 × 10-2 C. What is the magnitude of the electric field intensity at a point 20 cm from the centre of the ball ?
Solution:
Data : D = 10 cm, R = \(\frac{D}{2}\) = 5 cm, q = 1 × 10-2 C,
r = 20cm = 0.2 m, ε0 = 8.85 × 10-12
Electric field intensity,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 5

Question 3.
The electric field intensity at a point 1 m from the centre of a charged sphere of radius 25 cm in air is 104 N/C. Find the surface charge density of the sphere.
Solution:
Data : r = 1 m,R = 0.25 m, E = 104 N/C, ε0 = 8.85 × 10-12 F/m
E = \(\frac{\sigma R^{2}}{\varepsilon r^{2}}\)
As the sphere is situated in air, ε ≅ ε0.
∴ The surface charge density,
σ = ε0E(\(\frac{r}{R}\))2
= (8.85 × 10-12)(104)(\(\frac{1}{0.25}\))2
= 1.416 × 10-10 C/m2

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics

Question 4.
A long cylindrical conductor of radius 2 cm carries a charge of 5 μC/m and is kept in a medium of dielectric constant 10. Find the electric field intensity at a point 1 m from the axis of the cylinder.
[\(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}}\) = 9 × 109 \(\frac{\mathbf{N} \cdot \mathbf{m}^{2}}{\mathrm{C}^{2}}\)]
Solution :
Data : R = 2 cm, λ = 5 × 10-6 C/m, k = 10,
r = 1 m, \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}}\) = 9 × 109 N∙m2/C2
Electric field intensity,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 6

Question 5.
The electric field intensity at a point on the surface of a long, charged cylinder in air is 100 V/m. Find the surface charge density on the cylinder.
Solution:
Data: E = 100 V/m, ε0 = 8.85 × 10-12 C2/N∙m2,
k = 1 (for air)
Let σ be the surface charge density on the cylinder.
E = \(\frac{\sigma}{\varepsilon_{0} k}\) :. σ = Eε0k
= 100 × 8.85 × 10-2 × 1
= 8.85 × 10-10 C/m2

Question 10.
Obtain an expression for the electric potential energy of a system of two isolated point charges.
Answer:
Consider a test charge q0 in the electric field \(\vec{E}\) of a source charge + Q. The electric force acting on the test charge, q0\(\vec{E}\), is a conservative force. When the test charge is moved in the field at constant velocity by some external agent, the work done by the field on the charge is equal to the negative of the work done by the external agent causing the displacement. Suppose an external agent moves the test charge without acceleration from a point B, at a distance r1 from + Q, up to a point A, at a distance r, shown in below figure.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 7
Since the electric field surrounding a point charge is not uniform, the electrostatic force on q0 increases as it approaches Q. Consequently, the external agent has to exert on q0 a force of increasing magnitude and, for equal displacements, do increasing amount of work. Because the force exerted varies along the path, we imagine the total displacement to be made up of a large number of infinitesimal displacements \(d \vec{x}\). The distance dx is so small that, at an average distance x from Q, the electrostatic force \(\vec{F}\) on q0 has a constant magnitude
F = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{Q q_{0}}{x^{2}}\)
over the distance dx. The force \(\vec{F}_{\mathrm{ext}}\) by the external agent is equal and opposite to \(\vec{F}\) at every instant : \(\vec{F}_{\text {ext }}=-\vec{F}\)
Therefore, the infinitesimal work dW done by the external agent for the displacement \(\overrightarrow{d x}\) is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 8
The total work done by the external agent in moving the test charge from A up to B is the line intergral of dW between the limits x = r1 and x = r.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 9
where ∆U = UA – UB is the change in the potential energy of the test charge in moving it from the point B to the point A. Choosing the potential energy of q0 to be zero when it is infinitely far away from Q, i.e., r1 = ∞, its potential energy at a distance r from Q is
U(r) = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{Q q_{0}}{r}\)
Thus, the potential energy of a system of two point charges q1 and q2, a distance r apart is
U(r) = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{q_{1} q_{2}}{r}\)
[Note Taking U(∞) = 0 is often a convenient reference level in electrostatics, but in circuit analysis other reference levels are often more convenient.]

Question 11.
Explain the concept of electric potential difference and electric potential.
Answer:
A charge in an electric field possesses electric potential energy just as a particle in a gravitational field possesses gravitational potential energy. Consider a test charge q0 in an electric field, moved very slowly by an external agent from point B where its electric potential energy is UB to a point A where its electric potential energy is UA.

The change in the potential energy, UA – UB is defined as the work WB → A that must be done by an external agent to move the test charge from B to A against the electric force, keeping the charge always in equilibrium, i.-e., without accelerating the charge so as not to give it any kinetic energy.

WB → A = ∆U = UA – UB
The potential difference ∆V = VAB = VA – VB between two points A and B in electric field is
∆V = \(\frac{W_{\mathrm{B} \rightarrow \mathrm{A}}}{q_{0}}=\frac{\Delta U}{q_{0}}\)

Definition : The electric potential difference between two points in an electric field is defined as the work done per unit charge by an external agent against the electric force in moving an infinitesimal positive charge from one point to the other without acceleration.

We choose the potential energy UB and potential VB to be zero when the initial point B is infinitely far from the source charges which produce the field. Then, the work done per unit test charge by an external agent in bringing a test charge from infinity to a point is the electric potential at that point.
The electric potential at a distance r from a source charge,
V(r) = \(\frac{W_{\infty \rightarrow r}}{q_{0}}=\frac{U(r)}{q_{0}}\)
Definition : The electric potential V at a point in an electric field is defined as the work per unit charge that must be done by an external agent against the electric force to move without acceleration a sufficiently small positive test charge from infinity to the point of interest.

[Note : It is more correct to speak about potential difference ∆V between two points than just the potential V at a given point because the latter implies a choice of .zero reference potential. The choice is one of convenience and we may choose the zero reference potential for a point at infinity or at some other location convenient for the problem as is done for gravitational potential.]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics

Question 12.
State the SI unit and one non-SI unit of potential energy.
Answer:
SI unit of energy : the joule (J)
Non-SI unit of energy : the electronvolt (eV).

In electrostatics, one joule is the change in electric potential energy when a charge of one coulomb is moved through a potential difference of 1 volt. Therefore, 1J = 1C × 1V, so that 1V = 1J/C.

Question 13.
State the dimensions and SI unit of electric potential difference.
Answer:
Dimensions : [V] = \(\frac{[W]}{\left[q_{0}\right]}=\frac{\left[\mathrm{ML}^{2} \mathrm{~T}^{-2}\right]}{[\mathrm{TI}]}\)
= [ML2T-3I-1]
SI unit : the volt (V) = the joule per coulomb (J/C).

Question 14.
If the work done in bringing a charge of 10-18 C from infinity to point P is 2 × 10-17 J, what is the electric potential at P?
Answer:
V = \(\frac{W}{q_{0}}=\frac{2 \times 10^{-17} \mathrm{~J}}{10^{-18} \mathrm{C}}\)
= 20 volts is the electric potential at P.

Question 15.
Explain and define the electronvolt.
OR
What is electronvolt?
Answer:
When an electric charge moves under the influence of an electric field, the work done by the field on the charge increases the kinetic energy of the charge as the electric force is a conservative force. Since the elementary charge e is widely encountered in atomic and nuclear physics, a convenient non-SI unit of energy used is the electronvolt.

Definition ; An electronvolt (symbol, eV) is the increase in the kinetic energy of a particle with a charge equal in magnitude to the elementary charge e when the particle is accelerated through a potential difference of one volt.
∆(KE) = qAV
where q is the charge and ∆V is the potential difference.
∴ 1 eV = e(1V)
= (1.602 × 10-19 C) (1 J/C)
= 1.602 × 10-19 J

[Notes : (1) SI prefixes are commonly used with the unit. Therefore, 1 keV = 103 eV = 1.602 × 10-16 J, 1 MeV = 106 eV = 1.602 × 10-13 J, etc. (2) In practice, it is not unusual to use the electronvolt as an energy unit in nonelectrical situations. For example, an air molecule at room temperature has a kinetic energy of about \(\frac{1}{40}\) eV, the electron mass is 511 keV / c02, and the proton mass is 938 MeV/c02, where c0 is the speed of light in free space.]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics

Question 16.
Obtain the relation between the magnitude of electric field intensity and electric potential.
Answer:
Consider a test charge q0 as it moves from point A to point B in an electric field. The electric force on q0 at any point along the path is
\(\vec{F}=q_{0} \vec{E}\)
where \(\vec{E}\) is the field at that point.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 10
The incremental work dW done by the field as q0 undergoes a displacement \(\overrightarrow{d l}\) along the path is
dW = \(\vec{F} \cdot \overrightarrow{d l}\)
= q0 \(\vec{E} \cdot \overrightarrow{d l}\) = q0 E dl
In the process, the charge q0 is moved from a higher potential to a lower potential, thereby losing potential energy. Therefore, the change in potential energy
dU = -dW = -q0 Edl
By definition, the change in electric potential is dv
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 11

The quantity \(\frac{d V}{d l}\) is the rate at which the electric potential changes with distance and is called the electric potential gradient. The above equation thus shows that the magnitude of the electric field intensity at a point is equal to the negative of the potential gradient at that point.

[Note : (1) The negative sign shows that if we move in the direction of the electric field, the potential decreases. In the opposite direction, it increases. (2) If we draw equipotentials [see Unit 8.5] so that adjacent surfaces have equal potential differences, then in regions where the magnitude of \(\vec{E}\) is large, the equipotential surfaces are close together because the field does a relatively large amount of work on a test charge in a relatively small displacement. Conversely, in regions where the field s weaker, the equipotential surfaces are farther apart. (3) Potential gradient is an another name for electric field. (4) From the relation E = – dV/dx, we get another very common SI unit of electric field intensity, namely, the volt per metre (V/m).]

Question 17.
Define electric potential gradient.
Ans
Definition The rate of change of electric potential with distance in a specified direction is called the electric potential gradient in that direction.

Question 18.
Obtain an expression for the electric potential at a point due to an isolated point charge.
Answer:
Consider a point A at a distance r from a static point charge ± Q, as shown in below figure. To determine the electric potential at the point A (due to Q), imagine a test charge q0 being moved from infinity
up to the point A without acceleration. Because the electric field of a point charge is not uniform, the force exerted by Q on q0 increases as it approaches Q. We imagine the total displacement to be made up of a large number of infinitesimal displacements. \(\overrightarrow{d x}\). The distance dx is so small that, at an average distance x from Q, the electrostatic force \(\vec{F}\) on q0 has a constant magnitude
F = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{Q q_{0}}{x^{2}}\)
over the distance dx. The force Fext by the external agent is equal and opposite to \(\vec{F}\) at every instant : \(\vec{F}_{\mathrm{ext}}=-\vec{F}\)

Therefore, the infinitesimal work dW done by the external agent for the displacement \(\overrightarrow{d x}\) is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 12
The total work done by the external agent in moving the test charge from infinity up to the point P (from x = ∞ to x = r) is the integral of dW between the limits x = ∞ and x = r.
W = \(\int_{x=\infty}^{x=r} d W=\int_{\infty}^{r}\left(-\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{Q q_{0}}{x^{2}}\right) d x\)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 13
where ∆U = UA – UB is the change in the potential energy of the test charge in moving it from to the point A. Choosing the potential energy of q0 to be zero when it is infinitely far away from Q, its potential energy at a distance r from Q is
UA = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{Q q_{0}}{r}\)
Therefore, the electric potential at a distance r from Q is
V = \(\frac{U_{\mathrm{A}}}{q_{0}}=\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{Q}{r}\)
The above equation also gives the electric potential either outside or on the external surface of a spherically symmetric charge distribution,

[Notes: (I) A positive charge produces a positive electric potential. A negative charge produces a negative electric potential. (2) A negative electric potential means a positive charge would be attracted from a larger distance, since the potential is lower (more negative) than at larger distances. Conversely, a negative charge would be repelled, as expected. (3) Only differences between potentials at two points are physically significant. Potential at a point is ambiguous unless we specify which is the reference point. (4) Electric potential, like electric field intensity, is independent of the magnitude of the test charge that we use to define it.]

Question 19.
What is the electric potential at 10 Å from a point charge 10-18 C in vacuum?
[\(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}}\) = 9 × 109 N∙m2/C2]
Answer:
V = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \cdot \frac{Q}{r}\)
= \(\frac{9 \times 10^{9} \mathrm{~N} \cdot \mathrm{m}^{2} / \mathrm{C}^{2} \times 10^{-18} \mathrm{C}}{10 \times 10^{-10} \mathrm{~m}}\)
= 9 volts is the required electric potential.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics

Question 20.
Obtain an expression for the electric potential at a point due to several point charges.
Answer:
Consider a point P at distances r1, r2, r3, …, rN from point charges q1, q2, q3, ………, qN, respectively. The electric potentials of P due to the individual charges are
V1 = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{q_{1}}{r_{1}}\) , V2 = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{q_{2}}{r_{2}}\) …………. , VN = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{q_{N}}{r_{N}}\)
Since potential is a scalar quantity, the potential of P due to all the charges is the algebraic sum of the potentials due to the individual charges.
∴ V = V1 + V1 + ………. + VN
= \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}}\left(\frac{q_{1}}{r_{1}}+\frac{q_{2}}{r_{2}}+\ldots+\frac{q_{N}}{r_{N}}\right)\)
= \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \sum_{i=1}^{N} \frac{q_{i}}{r_{i}}\)
[Note : Electric potential is a scalar quantity. To calculate the resultant potential due to two or more point charges, the potentials due to individual charges are added as simple scalars along with its sign, determined by the sign of the q that produces V.]

Question 21.
Derive an expression for the electric potential at a point due to a short electric dipole. Hence, write the expression for the electric potential at a point
(i) on the dipole axis (ii) on the dipole equator.
OR
Derive an expression for the electric potential at a point due to an electric dipole.
Answer:
Consider an electric dipole AB of dipole length 21 and point charges + q and – q. Its electric dipole moment \(\vec{p}\) has magnitude p = 2ql. Let P be a point at a distance r from O, the centre of the dipole, in a direction θ with the dipole axis, as shown in below figure. Let AP = r1 and BP = r2.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 14
The electric potential at P due to the charge +q is
V1 = +\(+\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{q}{r_{1}}\) …………….. (1)
and that due to the charge -q is
V2 = \(-\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{q}{r_{2}}\) …………….. (2)
Method 1
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 15
In the figure, PA1 = PA = r1 and PB1 = PB = r2.
For short dipole (2l << r), ∠OA1A ≅ ∠OB1B ≅ 90°.
Hence, in the right angled ∆s OA1A and OB1B,
OA1 = OB1 = l cos θ
∴ r2 – r1 = PA1 – PB1 = A1B1 = 2l cos θ
Also, r1r2 = PA1 × PB2 = (PO + OA1)(PO – OB1)
= (r + l cos θ)(r – l cos θ)
= l2 – l2 cos2 θ
= r2 (∵ l << r) …………… (4)

Method 2:
From △PAA1, by cosine rule,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 16
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 17
This is the required expression.

Particular cases :
(i) At a point on the dipole axis, θ = 0° (nearer to the charge + q) or 180° (nearer to the charge – q).
∴ cos θ = ±1
∴ Vaxis = \(\pm \frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \cdot \frac{p}{r^{2}}\)

(ii) At a point on the dipole equator, θ = 90° or 270°.
∴ Cos θ = 0 ∴ Vequator = 0

[Note : Since Vequator = 0, the equatorial plane of a dipole is an equipotential plane of electric potential equal to zero. No work is required to move a charge anywhere in the equatorial plane.]

Question 22.
What is the electric potential at a point on the axis of a short electric dipole of moment 27 Cm if the point is at 0.5 m from the centre of the dipole and is located in vacuum? [\(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}}\) = 9 × 109 N∙m2/C2]
Answer:
V = \(\pm \frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \cdot \frac{p}{r^{2}}\)
= \(\pm \frac{\left(9 \times 10^{9} \mathrm{~N} \cdot \mathrm{m}^{2} / \mathrm{C}^{2}\right)\left(10^{-27} \mathrm{C} \cdot \mathrm{m}\right)}{(0.5 \mathrm{~m})^{2}}\)
= ±3.6 × 10-17 V
is the required electric potential.

Question 23.
Distinguish between electric field intensity and electric potential.
Answer:

Electric field intensity Electric potential
1. Electric field intensity is a vector quantity associated with an electric field. 1. Electric potential is a scalar quantity associated with an electric field.
2. It is the electric force per unit positive charge placed at a point in an electric field. 2. It is the work per unit charge which must be done by an external agent against the electric force to bring an infinitesimal posi­tive charge from infinity to a given point in an electric field, without acceleration.
3. Its SI unit is the newton per coulomb or the volt per metre. 3. Its SI unit is the volt.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics

Question 24.
Distinguish between the volt and the electron volt.
Answer:

Volt Electronvolt
1. The volt is the SI unit of electric potential (or poten-tial difference). 1. The electronvolt is a non- SI unit of energy.
2. If one joule per coulomb of work is done by an external agent against the electric force in moving an infini-tesimal charge from one point to another keeping the charge in equilibrium, the potential difference between the two points is called one volt. 2. It is the increase in the kinetic energy of a particle carrying a charge equal to the elementary charge e when it is accelerated through a potential differ¬ence of one volt.
3. 1 V = 1 J/C. 3. 1 eV = 1.602 × 10-19 J.

25. Solve the following

[Data : [\(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}}\) = 9 × 109 N∙m2/C2]
Question 1.
A helium nucleus carries a charge of + 2e, where e is the elementary charge. Find the electric potential at 10-10 m from the helium nucleus.
[e = 1.6 × 10-19 C]
Solution:
Data : If q is the charge on helium nucleus,
q = +2e = 2 × 1.6 × 10-19 C,r = 10-10m,
1/4πε0 = 9 × 109 N∙m2/C2
The electric potential,
V = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{q}{r}\)
= \(\frac{2\left(9 \times 10^{9} \mathrm{~N} \cdot \mathrm{m}^{2} / \mathrm{C}^{2}\right)\left(1.6 \times 10^{-19} \mathrm{C}\right)}{10^{-10} \mathrm{~m}}\)
= 28.8V

Question 2.
Determine the electric potential at the midpoint of the line joining two charges 2 × 10-6 C and -1 × 10-6 C placed in vacuum 10cm apart.
Solution:
Data: q1 = 2 × 10-6 C, q2 = -1 × 10-6 C,
r = \(\frac{10 \mathrm{~cm}}{2}\) = 5cm = 0.05m,
1/4πε0 = 9 × 109 N∙m2/C2
The electric potential at a distance r from a charge q is
V = \(\frac{q}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0} r}\)
Since potential is a scalar quantity, the total electric potential at the midpoint is
V = V1 + V2 = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}}\) (q1 + q2)
= \(\frac{\left(9 \times 10^{9} \mathrm{~N} \cdot \mathrm{m}^{2} / \mathrm{C}^{2}\right)}{0.05 \mathrm{~m}}\) (2 – 1) × 10-6 C
= 1.8 × 105 V

Question 3.
The electric field and electric potential at a certain point due to a point charge in vacuum are 9000 V/m and 18000 V, respectively. Find the distance of the point from the charge and the magnitude of the charge.
Solution:
Data: E = 9000 V/m, V = 18000 V,
1/4πε0 = 9 × 109 N∙m2/C2
E = \(\frac{q}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0} r^{2}}\), V = \(\frac{q}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0} r}\)
\(\frac{V}{E}\) = r
∴ The distance, r = \(\frac{18000 \mathrm{~V}}{9000 \mathrm{~V} / \mathrm{m}}\) = 2 m
∴ The magnitude of the charge is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 18

Question 4.
What is the electric potential at the centre of a square of side 1 m if point charges 1 × 10-8 C, -2 × 10-8 C, 3 × 10-8 C and 2 × 10-8 C are placed at the corners of the square?
Solution:
Data: q1 = 1 × 10-8 C, q2 = -2 × 10-8 C, q3 = 3 × 10-8 C, q4 = 2 × 10-8 C,
1/4πε0 = 9 × 109 N∙m2/C2
The distance of the point of intersection O of the diagonals, from each charge is \(\sqrt {2}\) / 2 = 1/\(\sqrt {2}\) m.
∴ r = 1/\(\sqrt {2}\) m
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 19
The potential at a distance r from a charge q is
V = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{q}{r}\)
As potential is a scalar quantity, the total electric potential at O is
V = V1 + V2 + V3 + V4
= \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0} r}\) (q1 + Vq2 + q3 + q4)
= \(\frac{\left(9 \times 10^{9} \mathrm{~N} \cdot \mathrm{m}^{2} / \mathrm{C}^{2}\right)}{(1 / \sqrt{2} \mathrm{~m})}\) [(1 – 2 + 3 + 2) × 10-8 C]
= 360\(\sqrt {2}\) = 509.2 V

Question 5.
The electric potential due to a dipolar molecule of electric dipole moment 6 × 10-30 A∙m2 at a point along the axis of the dipole is 1 V. Find the distance of the point from the centre of the dipole.
Solution:
Data : p = 6 × 10-30 A∙m2, V = 1 V,
θ = 0° (axial point), 1/4πε0 = 9 × 109 N∙m2/C2
Electric potential,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 20

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics

Question 6.
Two charged particles, carrying – 2 pC each, are held in place 10 cm apart. A point B is at distance of 18 cm from both.
(a) Calculate the electric potential at point B.
(b) A third charged particle, of mass 10-15 kg and carrying charge – 1 pC, is released from rest at point B. What is its speed when it is far from the two fixed charged particles?
Solution:
Data : q1 = q2 = q = – 2 × 10-12 C,
r1 = r2 = r = 18 cm = 0.18m,. q3 = – 1 × 10-12 C,
m3 = 10-15 kg
The electric potential at B,
VB = V1 + V2 = 2(\(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{q}{r}\))
= 2(9 × 109)(\(\frac{-2 \times 10^{-12}}{0.18}\)) = – 0.2 V

(b) By definition, the potential energy of an electric charge at infinity, i.e., far away from other charges, is U = 0. To find the speed of the third charged particle at infinity, we use the principle of conservation of energy.
KB + UB = K + U
where the KE of the particle at B, KB = 0, since it is released from rest. The PE,
UB = q3VB = (-1 × 10-12)(- 0.2) = 2 × 10-13 J

∴ The KE of the particle at infinity,
k = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2 = UB = 2 × 10-13 J
∴ v = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 K_{\infty}}{m}}=\sqrt{\frac{2\left(2 \times 10^{-13}\right)}{10^{-15}}}\) = 20 m/s
This gives the required speed.

[Note: The PE of the third charge at Bis +2 × 10-13 J, while at inifinity it is zero. All of the initial electrical PE is converted to KE because of the positive work done on it by the repulsive field due to the other two charges. The negatively charged third particle gains kinetic energy when it moves from a lower-potential point to a higher- potential point, in this case from VB = – 0.2 V to V = 0. Also note that the net force on the third negatively charged particle decreases as it moves away from point B. Its acceleration is not constant, so kinematical equations cannot be used to find its final speed. Hence, we have used the principle of conservation of energy.]

Question 7.
A proton is released from rest in vacuum in a uniform electric field of intensity 100 V/m. What is its speed after it has travelled a distance of 1 m ? [mp = 1.67 × 10-27 kg, 1 eV = 1.6 × 10-19J]
Solution :
Data : u = 0 m/s, E = 100 V/m, l = 1 m, mp = 1.67 × 10-27 kg, 1 eV = 1.6 × 10-19 C
In a uniform electric field \(\vec{E}\), the potential difference between two points a distance l apart (along \(\vec{E}\)) is
∆V = El = (100 V/m) (1 m) = 100 V
The change in the kinetic energy of the proton is
∆KE = eA V = e (100 V) = 100 eV
= 100 × 1.6 × 10-19
= 1.6 × 10-17 J
Since the proton starts from rest, the initial kinetic, energy is zero. Therefore, the change in kinetic energy equals the final kinetic energy \(\frac{1}{2}\) mpv2.
∴ \(\frac{1}{2}\) mpv2 = 1.6 × 10-17 J
∴ v2 = \(\frac{2\left(1.6 \times 10^{-17} \mathrm{~J}\right)}{1.67 \times 10^{-27} \mathrm{~kg}}\)
= 1.916 × 1010 (m/s)2
∴ v = 1.384 × 105 m/s
The speed of the proton after it has travelled a distance of 1 m is 1.384 × 105 m/s.

Question 8.
A particle carrying 5 electrons starts from rest and is accelerated through a potential difference of 8900 V. Calculate the KE acquired by it in MeV. [Charge on electron = 1.6 × 10-19 C]
Solution :
Data : q = 5e, u = 0, V = 8900 V, e = 1.6 × 10-19 C
q = 5(1.6 × 10-19 C) = 8 × 10-19 C
Initial KE = KEi = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mu2 = 0
∴ ∆KE = KEf – KEi = KEf
∆KE = qV
∴ The final KE, KEf = qV
= (8 × 10-19 C) (8900 V)
= 7.12 × 10-15 J
= \(\frac{7.12 \times 10^{-15}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}} \mathrm{eV}\)
= 4.45 × 104 eV
= (4.45 × 10-2) × 106 eV
= 4.45 × 10-2 MeV

Question 9.
A proton is accelerated from rest through a potential difference of 500 volts. Find its final momentum. [mp = 1.67 × 10-27 kg, e = 1.6 × 10-19 C]
Solution:
Data : mp = 1.67 × 10-27 kg, e = 1.6 × 10-19 C, u = 0, V = 500 V
Initial KE, KE; = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mpu2 = 0
∴ ∆KE = KEf – KEi = KEf
∆KE = qV
∴ KEf = qV KEf = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mpv2 = \(\frac{p_{\mathrm{f}}^{2}}{2 m_{\mathrm{p}}}\)
where pf = mpv ≡ the magnitude of the final momentum of the proton.
∴ Pf2 = 2 mpqV
∴ Pf = \(\sqrt{2 m_{\mathrm{p}} q V}\)
= \(\sqrt{2\left(1.67 \times 10^{-27} \mathrm{~kg}\right)\left(1.6 \times 10^{-19} \mathrm{C}\right)(500 \mathrm{~V})}\)
= 5.169 × 10-22 kg∙m/s
The momentum is directed along the applied electric field.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics

Question 10.
A proton and an α-particle are accelerated from rest through the same potential difference. Compare their final speeds. Charge on an α-particle = 2 × charge on a proton, mass of an α-particle = 4 × mass of a proton.
Solution:
Lution: Let q1 = charge on an α-partic1e, q2 = charge on a proton, m1 = mass of an α-particle, m2 = mass of a proton, v1 = final speed of the α-particle, v2 = final speed of the proton
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 21

Question 26.
What do you mean by an equipotential surface? What is the shape of equipotential surfaces for the special case of (i) a uniform field (ii) a single point charge?
Answer:
An equipotential surface, in a region where an electric field is present, is a three-dimensional surface on which the electric potential is the same at every point.

Electric field lines and equipotential surfaces are always mutually perpendicular. In a diagram, only a few representative equipotentials are shown, usually with equal potential differences between adjacent surfaces. Also, equipotential surfaces for different potentials do not touch or intersect since a point cannot be at two electric potentials simultaneously.

For the special case of a uniform field, in which the field lines are equally-spaced parallel lines, the equipotentials are parallel planes perpendicular to the field lines, from figure (a).

For equal potential differences between adjacent planes, these equipotentials are equally spaced. For the special case of a single point charge, for which the field lines are radial, the equipotentials are concentric spheres centred on the point charge, from figure (b).

For a given point charge q.
V = \(\frac{C}{r}\)
where C = \(\frac{q}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}}\) is a constant. Since \(\frac{1}{r}\) is not a linear function of r, equipotentials with equal potential differences between adjacent surfaces are not evenly spaced in radius.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 22

Question 27.
Electric field lines and equipotential surfaces are always mutually perpendicular. Explain.
Answer:
If a test charge q0 is moved on an equipotential surface of potential V, the electric potential energy U = q0V remains constant. Because U does not change as q0 is moved, the work done by the electric field on q0 must be zero. If \(\vec{E}\) is the electric field on the surface,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 23
Hence, the electric force q0\(\vec{E}\) is always perpendicular to the displacement of a charge moving on an equilateral surface. Thus, electric field lines and equipotential surfaces are always mutually perpendicular.

Note that if \(\vec{E}\) is not perpendicular to a equipotential surface everywhere, it would have a component E|| along the surface, so that for a displacement dx between two points on the surface, the work done dW = E||dx ≠ 0. This would imply a potential difference between the two points which contradicts the definition of a equipotential surface.

Question 28.
Draw a diagram showing the equipotential surfaces and electric field lines in the plane of (i) an electric dipole (ii) a system of two equal positive charges.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 24
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 25
[Note: At each crossing of an equipotential and a field line, the two are perpendicular.]

Question 29.
What can you say about the direction of the electric field on the surface (just outside) of a charged conductor in an electrostatic situation?
Answer:
When all charges on a conductor are at rest, the tangential component of the electric field \(\vec{E}\) is zero at every point on the surface (just outside) of a conductor; otherwise, charges would move around on the surface. If follows that, in an electrostatic situation, the electric field just outside a conductor must be perpendicular to the surface at every point and a conducting surface is always an equipotential surface.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics

Question 30.
What are the electric potentials outside and inside a charged spherical conductor in electro static equilibrium?
Answer:
Consider a spherical conductor of radius R and static charge q. By Gauss’s law, the electric field due to the charged conducting sphere is
\(\vec{E}=\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{q}{r^{2}} \hat{r}\) (r ≥ R)
= 0 (r < R)
because for r < R, charge enclosed by a Gaussian surface inside the sphere is zero but in the region r ≥ R, outside, the charged sphere is identical to a point charge at the centre of the sphere.

Consequently, since V(r) = \(-\int \vec{E} \cdot \overrightarrow{d r}\), the electric potential outside the sphere must be the same as that of an isolated point charge q located a r = 0.
∴ V(r) = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{q}{r}\) (r ≥ R)

Thus, a conducting sphere in electrostatic equilibrium is a spherical equipotential surface at potential V(R) and in the region r ≥ R, the equipotentials are concentric spheres.

Inside the sphere, r < R, E = 0, so V(r) is constant in this region. Since V(R) = q/4πε0R,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 26

Question 31.
Draw diagrams showing the equipotential sur faces and electric field lines (a) within a charged parallel-plate capacitor (a pair of parallel metal plates with charges of equal magnitude and opposite sign)
OR
(b) if one of the plates of the capacitor is replaced by a charged spherical conductor.
Answer:
(a) A pair of charged parallel metal plates sets up a uniform electric field between the plates, away from its edges, as shown by their even spacing. The field is perpendicular to the plates, in the direction from the positive plate toward the negative plate. Conductors are equipotential surfaces, so the negative plate is an equipotential surface with potential taken as zero and the positive plate is an equipotential surface with potential = V. The equipotential surfaces between the plates are parallel to the plates. Electric field lines and equipotential surfaces are perpendicular to each other. Also, because the electric field is uniform between the plates, equipotential surfaces representing equal potential differences are equally spaced.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 27

Question 32.
What are the advantages of using electrostatic potential?
Answer:
The electrostatic potential at each point in space in the vicinity of the source charges represents a scalar field.

The advantages of electrostatic potential field associated with a given distribution of charges are as follows:

  • If we know the potential difference between any two points, we can easily obtain the change in potential energy and the work done when a charge placed in the field moves between these two points.
  • Electric field is a vector field. Electrostatic potential being a scalar field, the potential at any point due to several charges is simply the algebraic sum of the potentials due to the individual charges.
  • The construction of equipotential surfaces helps to visualize the electric field pattern.
  • It is possible to calculate the electric field \(\vec{E}\) from the scalar potential field function V (by differentiating V with respect to the space coordinates.)

Question 33.
Derive an expression for the potential energy of a system of two point charges.
Answer:
The electric potential energy of a system of point charges at rest in free space is defined as the work done by an external agent against the electric force in assembling the charges by bringing them from infinity to their locations in the configuration, always keeping the charges in equilibrium.

Consider assembling a system of two point charges q1 and q2 at points A and B, respectively, in a region free of external electric field. Let \(\vec{r}_{1}\) and \(\vec{r}_{2}\) be the position vectors of A and B, respectively,, with respect to an arbitrary reference frame.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 28
In the absence of charge q2, since there is no external electric field in the region, no work is done in bringing the first charge q1 from infinity to A, so W1 = 0. Subsequently, due to q1 the potential at B is
VB = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{q_{1}}{r_{21}}\)
where r21 = \(\left|\vec{r}_{21}\right|, \vec{r}_{21}=\vec{r}_{2}-\vec{r}_{1}\) being the position vector of B with respect to A. Consequently, the work done by an external agent in bringing q2 from infinity to B in the electric field of q1 is
W2 = VB ∙ q2 = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{q_{1} q_{2}}{r_{21}}\)
Hence, the total work done is
W = W1 + W2 = 0 + \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{q_{1} q_{2}}{r_{21}}\)
= \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{q_{1} q_{2}}{r_{21}}\)
Since the charges were always kept in equilibrium, the change in the potential energy Uf – Ui equals W.

Since the charges were brought from infinity where their potential energy is assumed to be zero, Ui = 0. Therefore, the potential energy of the system of two point charges is
U = Uf = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{q_{1} q_{2}}{r_{21}}\)

Question 34.
A system consisting of a charged spherical shell and an electron has negative electric potential energy U = -15 × 10-20 J, with U(∞) = 0.
(a) What is the sign of the charge on the shell?
(b) If the electron is replaced by a proton, what would be the electric potential energy of the new system?
Answer:
A charged spherical conductor is equivalent to a point charge at its centre. For U(∞) = 0, the potential energy of two point charges q1 and q2 a distance r21 apart is
U = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{q_{1} q_{2}}{r_{21}}\)
Since the FE of the charged shell and electron system is negative, the shell must be positively charged, electron being negatively charged.

If the electron is replaced by a proton, the PE of the new system would be positive equal to U’ = ±15 × 10-20 J.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics

Question 35.
Obtain an expression for the potential energy of a configuration of N point charges.
Answer:
Consider assembling a configuration of N point charges q1, q2, q3, …………., q at points A, B, C, D, …, respectively, in a region free of external electric field. Let \(\overrightarrow{r_{1}}, \overrightarrow{r_{2}}, \overrightarrow{r_{3}}, \ldots, \overrightarrow{r_{N}}\) be the position vectors of the points A, B, C, D, … etc., respectively, with respect to an arbitrary reference frame.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 29
No work is done in bringing the first charge q1 from infinity to point A, so W1 = 0. Subsequently, the potential at B is
VB = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{q_{1}}{r_{21}}\)
where r21 = \(\left|\vec{r}_{21}\right|, \vec{r}_{21}=\vec{r}_{2}-\vec{r}_{1}\) being the position vector of B with respect to A. Consequently, the work done by an external agent in bringing q2 from infinity, to B in the electric field of q1 is
W2 = VB . q2
= \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{q_{1} q_{2}}{r_{21}}\)
Subsequently, the potential at C is
VC = V1 + V2
where V1 and V2 are the potentials due to q1 and q2.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 30
Consequently, the work done by the external agent in bringing the third charge q3 from infinity to C in the electric fields of q1 and q2 is
W3 = VC . q3
= \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}}\left(\frac{q_{1} q_{3}}{r_{31}}+\frac{q_{2} q_{3}}{r_{32}}\right)\)
Now, the potential at D is
VD = V1 + V2 + V3
= \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}}\left(\frac{q_{1}}{r_{41}}+\frac{q_{2}}{r_{42}}+\frac{q_{3}}{r_{43}}\right)\)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 31
Since the charges were brought from infinity where the potential energy is assumed to be zero, Ui = 0. Therefore, the potential energy of the con figuration of N point charges is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 32

Question 36.
What is the potential energy of a point charge in an external electric field?
Answer:
Consider a charge q placed in an external electric field at a point whose position vector with respect to an arbitrary reference frame is \(\vec{r}\). If V(\(\vec{r}\)) is the potential of the point, with respect to an arbitrary reference zero at infinity, then the potential energy of the charge q at the point is
U(\(\vec{r}\)) = qV(\(\vec{r}\))
where it is assumed that q is sufficiently small and does not significantly distort the electric field and the potential at the point.

Question 37.
Derive an expression for the potential energy of a system of two point charges in an external field.
Answer:
Consider assembling a system of two point charges q1 and q2 at points A and B, respectively, in a region of external electric field. Let \(\vec{r}_{1}\) and \(\vec{r}_{2}\) be the position vectors of A and B, respectively, with respect to an arbitrary reference frame. \(\vec{r}_{21}=\overrightarrow{r_{2}}-\overrightarrow{r_{1}}\) is the position vector of B with respect to A. Let V1 and V2 be the electric potentials of A and B due to the external field.

The work done in bringing the charge q1,from infinity to A against the electric force of the external field is
W1 = q1 V1
Subsequently, the electric potential at B is
VB = V2 + V’due t0 q1
= V2 + \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{q_{1}}{r_{21}}\)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 33
Consequently, the work done in bringing the second charge q2 from infinity to B is
W2 = q2VB
= q2V2 + \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{q_{1} q_{2}}{r_{21}}\)
Hence, the total work done by an external agent in assembling the two point charges in a region of external electric field is
W = W1 + W2
= q1V1 + q2V2 + \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{q_{1} q_{2}}{r_{21}}\)
Since the charges were always kept in equilibrium, the change in the potential energy of the system Uf – Ui = W. Also, since the charges were brought from infinity where their potential energy is assumed to be zero, Ui = 0. Therefore, the potential energy of the system of two charges in an external field is
U = Uf = q1V1 + q2V2 + \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{q_{1} q_{2}}{r_{21}}\)

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics

Question 38
Derive an expression for the electric potential energy of an electric dipole in a uniform electric field.
OR
Derive an expression for the total work done in rotating an electric dipole through an angle θ in a uniform electric field.
Answer:
Consider an electric dipole of dipole moment \(\vec{p}\) placed in a uniform electric field \(\vec{E}\) making an
angle Φ with \(\vec{E}\). The torque \(\vec{\tau}=\vec{p} \times \vec{E}\) tends to rotate the dipole and align it with \(\vec{E}\).

Suppose an external torque \(\vec{\tau}_{\text {ext }}\), equal in magnitude and opposite in direction to \(\vec{\tau}\), is applied to rotate the dipole through an infinitesimal angular displacement dΦ, always keeping the dipole in equilibrium.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 34
The work done by this torque is
dW = τext
= p E sin Φ dΦ
In a finite angular displacement from θ0 to θ, the total work done on the dipole by the external agent is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 35
If the dipole was initially parallel to \(\vec{E}\), θ0 = 0 and cos θ0 = 1.
∴ W = pE (1 – cos θ) …………. (2)
If the dipole was initially parallel to \(\vec{E}\), its potential energy U0 = – pE is minimum (more negative). If we arbitrarily assign U0 = 0 to the minimum of potential energy, the potential energy for the system for an inclination θ is
Uθ = – pEcos θ = – \(\vec{p} \cdot \vec{E}\)
This is the required expression.

39. Solve the following

Question 1.
Consider a point charge q = 1.5 × 10-8 C. What is the radius of an equipotential surface having a potential of 30V?
Solution:
Data: q = 1.5 × 10-8 C,
1/4πε0 = 9 × 109 N∙m2/C2, V = 30 V
An equipotential surface surrounding an isolated point charge is a sphere centred on the charge. Let r be the radius of such an equipotential for which V = 30 V.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 36

Question 2.
Two charged spherical conductors, of radii R1 and R2 and surface charge densities σ1 and σ2, are connected by a thin conducting wire. Except for this connecting wire, the spheres are sufficiently separated to be considered as isolated. Show that σ1R1 = σ2R2.
Solution:
The electrical potential at the surface of an isolated, charged conducting sphere of radius R is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 37
Since the spherical conductors are connected by a conducting wire, the system must be equipotential, i.e.,
V1 = V2.
∴ \(\frac{\sigma_{1} R_{1}}{\varepsilon_{0}}=\frac{\sigma_{2} R_{2}}{\varepsilon_{0}}\)
∴ σ1R1 = σ2R2 as required

[Note : Although the above connected system is different from a typical conductor with a variable radius of curvature, the above relation qualitatively indicates how charge density varies over the surface of a conductor of arbitrary shape. The equation indicates that σ and E are small where the radius of curvature is large. Conversely, σ and E are higher at locations with a small radius of curvature. A practical application of this phenomenon is the lightning rod.]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics

Question 3.
Two equipotential surfaces A and B in a uniform electric field, with VA = 50 V and VB = 30 V, are 10 cm apart. Two point charges, q1 = 3 nC and q2 = 5 nC, are placed on A and B, respectively.
(i) What is the magnitude of the electric field?
(ii) 1f the line joining the two charges is parallel to the field, what is the total work done in assembling the two charges?
Solution:
Data: VA = 50 V, VB = 30 V, l = 10 cm = 0.1 m,
q1 = 3 nC = 3 × 10-9 C, q2 = 5 nC = 5 × 10-9 C,
1/4πε0 = 9 × 109 N∙m2/C2
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 38
Since the line joining the two charges is parallel to the fle1d,\(\overrightarrow{r_{21}}\) = l = 0.1 m.

The work done by an external agent in assembling the two charges by bringing them from infinity is
W = q1VA + q2VB + \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{q_{1} q_{2}}{r_{21}}\)
=(3 × 10-9 C)(50 V) + (5 × 10-9 C)(30 V) + (9 × 109 N∙m2/C2) \(\frac{\left(3 \times 10^{-9} \mathrm{C}\right)\left(5 \times 10^{-9} \mathrm{C}\right)}{0.1 \mathrm{~m}}\)
= 1.5 × 10-7 + 1.5 × 10-7 + 13.5 × 10-7
= 16.5 × 10-7 = 1.65 × 10-6 J (= 1.65 μJ)

Question 4.
An electron is circulating around the nucleus of an H-atom in a circular orbit of radius 5.3 × 10-11 m Calculate the electric potential energy of the atom in eV.
Solution:
Data: e = 1.6 × 10-19 C, r = 5.3 × 10-11 m,
1/4πε0 = 9 × 109 N∙m2/C2
The charge of the single proton in the nucleus of a hydrogen atom, q1 = + e = 1.6 × 10-19 C
The charge on the electron,
q2 = -e = -1.6 × 10-19 C
The potential energy of an H-atom,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 39

Question 5.
A proton is to be suspended in vacuum between two parallel plates separated by 1 mm. Find (i) the electric field required (ii) the potential difference between the plates corresponding to the desired field. [mp = 1.67 × 10-27 kg]
Solution:
The gravitational force on the proton should be balanced by the force due to the electric field. So, the electric field must be directed up; the upper plate should be at negative potential and the lower plate at positive potential, as shown in below figure.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 40
For uniform field,
E = \(\frac{V}{d}\), where V = potential difference between the plates and d = distance between the plates.
The potential difference,
V = Ed = (1.023 × 10-7 V/m)(10-3 m)
= 1.023 × 10-10 V

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics

Question 6.
Two point charges, q1 = – 1 μC and q2 = +1 μC, are located in vacuum on the x-axis at x = 0 and x = a, respectively. (i) Find the potential energy of the system. (ii) If a third point charge q3 = + 1 μC is brought from infinity to x = 2a, find the total potential energy of the system of the three charges. (iii) What work has been done by an external agent to bring in the third charge? Take a = 10 cm.
Solution:
Data:q1 = – 1 μC = – 1 × 10-6 C, q2 = q3 = 1 μC
= 1 × 10-6 C, r21 = a = 0.1 m, r31 = 2a = 0.2 m,
r32 = a = 0.1 m, 1/4πε0 = 9 × 109 N∙m2/C2
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 41
(ii) The total potential energy of the system of three charges,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 42

(iii) Additional work done in bringing the third charge
= U3 – U2
= (- 4.5 + 9) × 10-2 J
= 4.5 × 10-2 J

Question 7.
What is the electric potential energy of the following charge configuration?Take q1 = +1 × 10-8 C, q2 = – 2 × 10-8 C, q3 = +3 × 10-8 C, q4 = 2 × 10-8 C and a = 1 m. Assume the charges to be in vacuum.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 43
Solution:
Data : q1 = +1 × 10-8 C, q2 = – 2 × 10-8 C, q3 = +3 × 10-8 C, q4 = 2 × 10-8 C
a = 1 m, 1/4πε0 = 9 × 109 N∙m2/C2
r21 = r41 = r32 = r43 = 1 m, r31 = r42 = \(\sqrt {2}\) m
The electric potential energy of the given configuration of our charges is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 44

Question 8.
An electric dipole has two point charges of 1.6 × 10-19 C and -1.6 × 10-19 C separated by 2 A. ¡f the dipole is placed in a uniform electric field of 10 N/C, making an angle of 300 with the dipole moment, find (i) the magnitude of the torque acting on the dipole due to the field (ii) the potential energy of the dipole.
Solution:
Data: q = 1.6 × 10-19 C, 2l = 2Å = 2 × 10-10 m,
E = 10 N/C, θ = 30°
Electric dipole moment,
p = 2ql = q (2l) = (1.6 × 10-19 C)(2 × 10-10 m)
= 3.2 × 10-29 A∙m2
(j) The magnitude of the torque,
τ = pE sin θ
= (3.2 × 10-29 Am2)(10 N/C) sin 30°
= 3.2 × 10-28 × 0.5
= 1.6 × 10-28 N∙m

(ii) The potential energy,
U = -pE cosθ
= -(3.2 × 10-29 A∙m2)(10 N/C) cos30°
= -3.2 × 10-28 × 0.866
= -2.771 × 10-28 J

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics

Question 9.
A water molecule is made up of two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom, with a total of 10 electrons and 10 protons. The molecule is modelled as a dipole with an effective separation d = 3.9 × 10-12 m between its positive and negative particles. What is the electric potential energy stored in the dipole? What does the sign of your answer mean?
Solution :
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 45
The minus sign means that in bringing the particles together horn infinity, energy is transferred from the system to the surrounding and it would take positive work by an external agent to separate the charged particles of the dipole.

Question 10.
An electric dipole consists of two unlike charges of magnitude 2 × 10-6 C separated by 4 cm. The dipole is placed in an external field of 105 N/C. Find the work done by an external agent to turn the dipole through 180°.
Solution:
Data: q = 2 × 10-6, 2l = 4cm = 4 × 10-2 m.
E = 105 N/C, θ = 180° + θ0
Let us assume the dipole is initially aligned parallel to the field, i.e., θ0 = 0.
Then, θ = 180°.
The work done by an external agent,
W = pE(1 – cos θ)
= q (2l) E(1 – cos 180°)
= (2 × 10-6 C)(4 × 10-2 m)(105 N/C) [1 – (-1)]
= 16 × 10-3 J

Question 11.
An electric dipole has opposite charges of magnitude 2 × 10-15 C separated by 0.2 mm. It is placed in a uniform electric field of 103 N/C. (i) Find the magnitude of the dipole moment. (ii) What is the torque on the dipole when the dipole moment is at 60° with respect to the field?
Solution:
Data : q = 2 × 10-15 C, 2l = 0.2 mm = 2 × 10-4 m,
E = 103 N/C, θ = 60°
(i) The magnitude of the dipole moment is
V = q (2l)
= (2 × 10-15 C) (2 × 10-4 m)
= 4 × 10-19 C∙m

(ii) The torque on the dipole is
τ = pE sin θ
= (4 × 10-19 C∙m) (103 N/C) sin 60°
= 4 × 10-16 × 0.866 = 3.46 × 10-16 N∙m

Question 40.
What constitutes an electric shock?
Answer:
Living organisms are electrical conductors. Electric shock is the result of the passage of electric current through our body. During electric shock we experience an extreme stimulation of nerves and muscles. It needs a minimum of 1 mA of electric current to pass through our body for us to experience a shock.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics

Question 41.
Birds perched on electrical transmission wires do not suffer electric shock, but if a person touches both the wires at once receives a tremendous shock. Why?
Answer:
The danger of electric shock arises not from mere contact with a live wire but rather from simultaneous contact with a live wire and another body or wire at a different potential so that our body provides a conducting path between the two and a current passes through our body.

Touching a single wire by the birds does not result in a current through their bodies because then the electric circuit is not complete. But if a person touches two wires at different potentials at once, or if a bare-footed person touches the live wire only, the electric circuit is complete and the person receives an electric shock. In the latter case, the current from the wire passes to the Earth through the body.

[Notes : (1) We must not touch any electric appliance. when bare-footed or with wet hands. When a bare-footed person touches a short-circuited electric appliance, the current from such an appliance goes to the Earth through his body, thus completing the circuit. When our skin is dry, the electrical resistance of our body is about 50 kΩ, a wet skin lowers the resistance to 10 kΩ. It needs a minimum of 1 mA of electric current to pass through our body for us to experience a shock. Thus, when dry, it needs at least 50 V potential difference to get a shock, but only 10 V is enough when wet. (2) The Earth often serves as a charge reservoir known as a ground. A ground can accept or provide electrons freely, and it is so large that the addition or subtraction of electrons has a negligible effect on it. So, the ground remains essentially neutral at all times. When something is connected to the ground by a conductor, we say that it is earthed or grounded.]

Question 42.
State the properties of conductors in electrostatic conditions.
Answer:
Properties of a charged conductor in electrostatic conditions :

  1. Net electric field inside the conductor is zero.
  2. Net electric field just outside the conductor is normal to its surface at every point.
  3. Electric potential inside the conductor is constant and equal to that on its surface.
  4. Excess charges reside only on the surface of the conductor but, for a conductor of arbitrary shape, the surface charge density at a point is inversely proportional to the local curvature of the surface.

Question 43.
Explain electrostatic shielding. What is a Faraday cage ?
Answer:
When an isolated conductor, uncharged or charged, is placed in an external electric field, as in figure, all points of the conductor come to the same potential. The free conduction electrons in the conductor distribute themselves on the surface, leaving a net positive charge on some regions of the surface and a net negative charge on other regions.

This charge distribution causes an additional electric field at interior points such that the total field at every point inside is zero.

The charge distribution on the conductor is such that the net electric field at all points on the surface to be perpendicular to the surface, thereby altering the shapes of the field lines near the conductor.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 46
The use of a conducting box to protect sensitive instruments from stray electric fields, or the use of a conducting wire cage to protect a person near a high-voltage installation or from lightning strike, is called electrostatic shielding. The hollow conductor or the conducting wire cage that shields its interior from external electric fields is called a Faraday cage or Faraday shield. A Faraday cage, made from a contiguous metal sheet or from a fine metal mesh, is used to shield its content or occupant from static and nonstatic electric fields.

Question 44.
Aran and Careena were driving in the countryside in a car when they get caught in a thunderstorm. Arun is worried that if lightning hits the car, the petrol tank may explode. Careena thinks they should wait out the storm in the car. Is Careena right ?
Answer:
In circumstances where there is danger of lightning strikes, it is wise to enclose oneself in a cavity inside a conducting shell, where the electric field is guaranteed to be zero. A car with a metal body is an almost ideal Faraday cage. When a car is struck by lightning, the charge flows on the outside surface of the car to the ground but the electric field inside remains zero. This leaves the passengers inside unharmed. Also, the petrol is in a metal tank which also acts like a Faraday cage. So, Careena is right.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics

Question 45.
Explain the electrical behaviour of conductors and insulators on the basis of free and bound charges inside the materials.
Answer:
In a material, the inner shell electrons are tightly bound to their respective nuclei and together they have fixed lattice positions. They are called bound charges.

In metals, the outermost valence electrons are loosely bound to their respective nucleus and, due to the regular atomic arrangement in a lattice, are set free to move inside the metal. They are called free charges or free electrons. Under an applied electric field, the free electrons drift in a direction opposite to the electric field and constitute an electric current in the metal. In electrolytes, electrical dissociation of ionic molecules results in both positive and negative free charges, and electric conduction is due to both types of free charges. Under electrostatic conditions, excess charges reside only on the surface of a conductor.

In insulators, all inner shell and outer shell electrons are tightly bound to their respective nuclei so that even at room temperature the number of free charges is several orders lower than that in a metallic conductor. Hence, they are poor conductors of electricity and heat. In the absence of free conduction electrons, excess charges transferred to an insulator remain localized. An insulator can have non-zero surface charge density as well as volume charge density.

Question 46.
You can charge a glass or rubber rod by holding one end of the rod and rubbing the other end with a silk cloth. But you cannot charge a copper rod in the same way. Explain.
Answer:
Glass and rubber are insulators. An excess charge (positive or negative) building up on some part of an insulator remains localized. So, a glass or rubber rod can be held at one end while the far end is being rubbed with silk. The far end of the rod acquires a surplus of electrons but those electrons never flow into the ground through the hand.

A copper rod is an example of a conductor which has free conduction electrons. On holding one end of the copper rod and rubbing the other end with silk, electrons are transferred from the silk to the copper rod, and those excess electrons are free to flow. Because like charges repel, the electrons move away from one another, travel through the rod to the ground through the hand. As a result, the copper rod remains neutral despite the rod being rubbed with silk.

Question 47.
What do you mean by a polar molecule and a nonpolar molecule ? Give two examples of each.
Answer:
A polar molecule is an asymmetric molecule with a permanent electric dipole moment that arises from the finite separation of the centres of the net positive charge and the net negative charge in the molecule, even in the absence of an external electric field.
Dipole moments of polar molecules are of the order of 10-30 C∙m.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 47
Examples : Gaseous hydrogen halides (HF, HCl, etc.); NH3, NO2, N2O, water molecules; all hetero- nuclear diatomic molecules (with any covalent bond between two different atoms).

A nonpolar molecule is one which does not have a permanent electric dipole moment because in the absence of an external electric field, the centres of the net positive charge and the net negative charge in the molecule coincide. Thus, it is a symmetric molecule.

Examples : H2, CO2, N2, O2, methane, polyethylene, polystyrene.

[Note : The asymmetric charge distribution in a polar molecule arises from differences in electronegativity and other features of bonding. A heteronuclear polyatomic molecule may be nonpolar if the vector sum of the bond dipole moments is zero, as in CO2, CH4, CCl4, etc. The absence or presence of a dipole moment in a polyatomic molecule can be a revealing clue to the structure of the molecule. For example, BF3 with a planar trigonal sym-metric structure is nonpolar, while PF3 with a trigonal pyramidal structure is polar. Of the two isomers of dichloroethylene, cis is polar while trans is nonpolar.]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics

Question 48.
What is the bond angle and bond dipole moment of a water molecule?
Answer:
In a water molecule, the bond angle between the two O-H bonds is 104.5° and the dipole moment (known as the bond dipole moment) is about 6.17 × 10-30 C∙m

[Note: The SI unit of dipole moment, the coulomb-metre is too large at molecular level. Hence, bond dipole moments are commonly expressed in the CGS unit, the debye (D); 1 D = 3.335 × 10-30 C m. So, the bond dipole moment of a water molecule is 1.85 D while that of HF, NH3 and HCl are 1.82 D, 1.47 D and 1.08 D, respectively.]

Question 49.
What is a dielectric? State its two types. Give two examples in each case.
Answer:
A dielectric is an electrical insulator i.e., a nonconducting material, that can be polarised by an applied electric field which slightly displaces the positive and negative charges of each molecule. A dielectric can sustain a high electric field up to a certain limit. An ideal dielectric has no free charges.

Important commercial dielectrics are of two types, polar and nonpolar.

Examples :
Polar dielectrics : Silicones, halogenated hydrocarbons.

Nonpolar dielectrics : (1) Solid : Ceramics, glasses, plastics (polyethylene, polystyrene, etc.) mica, paper. (2) Liquid : Mineral oils.

Question 50.
With the help of neat diagrams, explain how a nonpolar dielectric material is polarised in an external electric field.
OR
Explain the behaviour of nonpolar dielectric material in an external electric field.
Answer:
In the absence of an external electric field, the molecules of a nonpolar dielectric have no inherent electric dipole moments. An applied electric field slightly separates the centres of negative and positive charges. Then, a nonpolar molecule acquires an induced dipole moment in the direction of the applied field, as shown in figure. The induced dipole moments of all the molecules add up giving the dielectric a net induced electric dipole moment • in the presence of the applied field.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 48

Question 51.
With the help of neat diagrams, explain how a polar dielectric material acquires a dipole moment in an external electric field.
OR
Explain the behaviour of polar dielectric material in an external electric field.
Answer:
In the absence of an external electric field, the permanent electric dipole moments of the molecules of a polar dielectric orient in random directions due to thermal agitation such that their vector sum is zero, from figure (a).

An applied electric field does slightly increase the separation between the centres of negative and positive charges. But, a much larger effect is the tendency of the dipole moments to align with the field, although thermal agitation prevents complete alignment, as shown in from figure (b). Due to the partial alignment of the dipole moments, a polar dielectric also acquires a net induced electric dipole moment in the direction of the applied field. The extent of polarisation depends on the relative values of the two opposing tendencies : (1) the tendency of the applied field to align the dipoles
(2) thermal agitation that tends to randomize.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 49

Question 52.
What is a linear isotropic dielectric? Give one example.
Answer:
A linear isotropic dielectric is one which when placed in a uniform electric field acquires an induced electric dipole moment in the direction of the field and proportional to the applied electric field intensity.
Examples : Mica, glass.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics

Question 53.
Define electric polarization in dielectrics.
Answer:
Definition The electric polarization at every point within a dielectric is defined as the electric dipole moment per unit volume. It has the direction of the external electric field.

Question 54.
What is electric susceptibility ?
Ans. In a linearly isotropic dielectric placed in a uniform electric field, the electric polarization \(\vec{P}\) is directly proportional to the electric field intensity \(\vec{E}\) inside the dielectric.
∴ \(\vec{P}\) = χeε0\(\vec{E}\)
where the proportionality constant χe, a positive quantity, is called the electric susceptibility of the dielectric.
[Note : χe is dimensionless. SI units of P and E are C/m2 and N/C.]

Question 55.
Explain the reduction of electric field inside a polarized dielectric.
OR
Explain the behaviour of a dielectric slab which is subjected to an external electric field.
Answer:
Consider a rectangular slab of a linear isotropic dielectric placed in a uniform external electric field.

In case of a nonpolar dielectric, the applied field slightly separates the centres of negative and positive charge in a molecule inducing an electric dipole moment in the direction of the field. In most cases, this separation is a very small fraction of a molecular diameter. In case of a polar dielectric, the permanent dipole moments of its molecules are partially aligned with the field. In either case, the dielectric is said to become polarized.

In a uniformly polarized dielectric, the charges of adjacent interior dipoles add to zero. But due to the unbalanced positive ends of dipoles at one face of the slab, bound positive charge appears on that exterior surface. Similarly, bound negative charge appears on the opposite exterior surface of the slab. These bound surface charges are called polarization charges. There is, however, no excess charge in any volume element within the slab and the slab as a whole remains electrically neutral.

The external electric field \(\overrightarrow{E_{0}}\) polarizes the dielectric, with a net polarization \(\vec{P}\) parallel to \(\overrightarrow{E_{0}}\). Within the dielectric, the induced field \(\vec{E}_{\mathrm{p}}=-\vec{P} / \varepsilon_{0}\) due to the polarization charges is opposite to the applied field, from figure.
\(\vec{E}=\vec{E}_{0}+\vec{E}_{\mathrm{p}}=\vec{E}_{0}-\vec{P} / \varepsilon_{0}\)
i.e., E = E0 – Ep in magnitude.
Assuming the dielectric to be isotropic and linear,
\(\vec{P}\) = χeε0 \(\vec{E}\)
where χe is the electric susceptibility of the dielectric.
∴ \(\overrightarrow{E_{0}}\) = (1 + χe)\(\vec{E}\) = k\(\vec{E}\)
where k = 1 + χe is the dielectric constant. This implies E = E0/k, thus less than E0. Thus, the effect of a dielectric material is always to decrease the electric field below the applied electric field.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 50
[Note : The charges + Q and – Q on the plates of a capacitor are said to be free charges because they can move when the potential difference between the plates is changed.]

Question 56.
How does the electric field inside a dielectric decrease when it is placed in an external electric field?
Answer:
Suppose a rectangular slab of dielectric is placed in an electric field \(\overrightarrow{E_{0}}\), with two of its parallel sides perpendicular to the field. The dielectric becomes polarized. Polarization charges appear on the external surfaces of these two parallel sides such that within the dielectric the field due to the polarization charges is opposite to \(\overrightarrow{E_{0}}\). Thus, the magnitude of the net electric field \(\vec{E}\) within the dielectric is less than \(\left|\overrightarrow{E_{0}}\right| \cdot E=\frac{E_{0}}{k}\), where k is the relative permittivity (dielectric constant) of the dielectric.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics

Question 57.
Is vacuum the best dielectric, meaning is its dielectric strength infinite ?
Answer:
In principle, an absence of particles mean no breakdown. However, practical vacuum still has large number of particles of residual gases. In practice, only pressures lower than 10-2 mbar can be considered to provide a real dielectric insulation. In such vacuum, free electrical charges under a sufficiently high force can produce ionization and breakdown of its insulation properties. Thus, the dielectric strength of vacuum is only about 20 kV/mm, better than air but lower than most solid dielectrics.

Question 58.
What is a capacitor ?
Explain capacitance of a capacitor.
Answer:
A capacitor is a device used to store electrical charge and electrical energy. It consists of at least two electrical conductors, called as capacitor plates, separated by a distance. The space between the plates may simply be air or, usually, filled with a dielectric.

Consider a capacitor having two conducting plates close to, but not touching, one another shown in figure. Imagine that each plate is neutral, so the potential difference between the plates is zero. If a small positive charge q is transferred from one plate
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 51
to the other, the second plate acquires a charge + q while that on the first plate is — q and a small potential difference appears between the plates. As the amount of charge on each plate increases, so does the potential difference between the plates. The potential difference AV between the plates is directly proportional to the magnitude of charge Q on each plate : Q ∝ ∆V.
∴ Q = C∆V
The constant of proportionality C is called the capacitance. The capacitance depends only on the geometry of the plates and the type of dielectric between the plates.

When the terminals of a battery are connected to the plates of an initially uncharged capacitor, the battery potential V moves a small amount of charge of magnitude Q from the plate at the higher potential to the other plate. The capacitor remains neutral overall, but with charges + Q and – Q on opposite plates. The capacitance C is then the ratio of the maximum charge Q that can be stored in the capacitor to the applied voltage V across its plates or, in other words, capacitance is the largest amount of charge per unit potential difference that can be stored on the device.

[Note : A capacitor is represented in circuit diagrams by the symbol, Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 52]

Question 59.
The graph shows the potential difference ∆V between the plates of a capacitor versus the charge Q on its plates. Use the graph to find (1) the capacitance of the capacitor (2) the magnitude of the excess charge on its plates.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 53
Solution:
C = \(\frac{Q}{\Delta V}=\frac{1}{\text { slope }}=\frac{1.5 \mathrm{nC}}{30 \mathrm{~V}}\) = 0.05 nF = 50 pF
From the graph, for Q = 0.5 nC, ∆V = 10 V.

Question 60.
Define the capacitance of a capacitor. State and define the SI unit of capacitance.
Answer:
(1) Definition : The capacitance (capacity) of a capacitor is defined as the ratio of the charge on either conductor to the potential difference between the two conductors forming the capacitor.

(2) The SI unit of capacitance is the farad.
Definition : The capacitance of a capacitor is said to be one farad if a charge of one coulomb is required to increase the potential difference between the two conductors forming the capacitor by one volt.
1 farad = 1 coulomb/volt; 1 F = 1 C/V
[Note : Capacitors in common electronic circuits are in microfarad (10-6 F), nanofarad (10-9 F) or picofarad (10-12 F).]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics

Question 61.
State and explain the principle of a capacitor.
Answer:
Principle of a capacitor : Any conductor can be used to store charges, however, its capacity can be increased by keeping a grounded conductor near it.

Consider a metal plate A whose potential is raised to V by depositing a charge + Q on it, so that its capacity is C = Q/V. Now, if an uncharged metal plate B is brought close to plate A, then negative bound charge – Q will be induced on the surface of B near A and positive free charge + Q on the other side of B, from figure (a).

If plate B is grounded, i.e., connected to the Earth, the free charge on it will escape to the Earth, from figure (b). The bound charge (- Q) thus remaining on B will lower the potential of A, as if superimposing a potential – V1 on the potential V of plate A. The resultant potential of A will become V – V1 and its capacity will be Q/(V – V1).
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 54
C’ = \(\frac{Q}{V-V_{1}}\)
Keeping plate B very close to A, V – V1 can be made very small, so that the capacity of the combination can become very much greater than the capacity of conductor A alone. C’ >> C

Question 62.
What are the different types of capacitors? Describe in brief.
Answer:
The three main types of capacitors depending on their shape are (1) parallel-plate capacitor (2) spherical capacitor (3) cylindrical capacitor.
(1) Parallel-plate capacitor: It consists of two parallel metal plates, separated by a small gap [from figure (a)] of air or filled with a dielectric. The charge to be stored is given to one plate (A) while the other plate (B) is earthed.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 55
(2) Spherical capacitor: It consists of two concentric spherical conductors, separated by a small gap of air or filled with a dielectric [from figure (b)]. The charge to be stored is given to the inner sphere (A), while the outer sphere (B) is earthed.

(3) Cylindrical capacitor : It consists of two coaxial, cylindrical conductors separated by a small gap of air or filled with a dielectric [from figure (c)]. The charge to be stored is given to the inner cylinder (A), while the outer cylinder (B) is earthed.

Depending on the dielectric used, the capacitors of different types are (1) mica capacitor (2) air capacitor (3) paper capacitor (4) electrolytic capacitor, etc.

Question 63.
Derive an expression for the effective or equivalent capacitance (capacity) of a combination of a number of capacitors connected in series.
OR
Derive an expression for the effective capacitance of three capacitors connected in series.
Answer:
In the series arrangement of capacitors, the capacitors are connected end to end and a cell is connected across the combination of the capacitors as shown in figure.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 56
Let C1, C2, C3 be the capacitances of the three capacitors connected in series and Q, the charge on each capacitor. Let V1, V2, V3 be the potential differences across the capacitors.

Now, charge = capacitance x potential difference
∴ Q = C1V1 = C2V2 = C3V3
∴ V1 = \(\frac{Q}{C_{1}}\), V2 = \(\frac{Q}{C_{2}}\) and V3 = \(\frac{Q}{C_{3}}\)
If Vis the potential difference across the combination and C is the equivalent or effective capacitance of the combination, we have,
C = \(\frac{Q}{V}\) ∴ V = \(\frac{Q}{V}\)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 57
In general, if n capacitors of capacitances C1, C2, C3, …, C, are connected in series, the equivalent capacitance (C) of the combination is given by
\(\frac{1}{C}=\frac{1}{C_{1}}+\frac{1}{C_{2}}+\frac{1}{C_{3}}+\ldots+\frac{1}{C_{n}}\)

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics

Question 64.
Derive an expression for the effective or equivalent capacitance (capacity) of a combination of a
number of capacitors connected in parallel.
OR
Derive an expression for the effective or equivalent capacitance of three capacitors connected in parallel.
Answer:
In the parallel arrangement of capacitors, the capacitors are connected between two common points and a cell is connected across the combination of the capacitors as shown in below figure. Thus, the potential difference (V ) across each capacitor is the same, Let C1, C2, C3 be the capacitances of the three capacitors connected in parallel and C, the equivalent or effective capacitance of the combination. The charge Q supplied by the cell is distributed as Q1, Q2 and Q3 on the capacitors.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 58
∴ Q1 = C1V, Q2 = C2V, Q3 = C3V and Q = CV
Since, Q = Q1 + Q2 + Q3
CV = C1V + C2V + C3V
∴ C = C1 + C2 + C3
In general, if n capacitors are connected in parallel,
C = C1 + C2 + ……. + Cn .

65. Solve the following

Question 1.
Three capacitors have capacities 2 µF, 4 µF and 8 µF. Find the equivalent capacity when they are connected in (a) series (b) parallel.
Solution:
Data : C1 = 2 µF, C2 = 4 µF, C3 = 8 µF
(a) Series arrangement:
\(\frac{1}{C_{s}}=\frac{1}{C_{1}}+\frac{1}{C_{2}}+\frac{1}{C_{3}}=\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{8}=\frac{7}{8}\)
The equivalent capacity,
∴ Cs = \(\frac{8}{7}\) = 1.143 µF

(b) Parallel arrangement:
The equivalent capacity is
Cp = C1 + C2 + C3 = 2 + 4 + 8 = 14 µF

Question 2.
The equivalent capacitance of two capacitors is 6 µF when they are connected in series and 25 µF when they are connected in parallel. Find the capacitance of each capacitor.
Solution:
Data : Cs = 6 µF, Cp = 25 µF
Let C1 and C2 be the capacitances of the two capacitors respectively.
In parallel combination,
Cp = C1 + C2 = 25
In series combination,
\(\frac{1}{C_{s}}=\frac{1}{C_{1}}+\frac{1}{C_{2}}=\frac{C_{1}+C_{2}}{C_{1} C_{2}}\)
∴ Cs = \(\frac{C_{1} C_{2}}{C_{1}+C_{2}}\)
∴ 6 = \(\frac{C_{1} C_{2}}{25}\)
∴ C1C2 = 150
∴ C1(25 – C1) = 150
∴ 25C1 – C12 = 150
∴ C12 – 25C1 + 150 = 0
∴ (C1 – 15) (C1 – 10) = 0
∴ C1 = 15 µF or 10 µF
∴ C2 = 25 – C1 = 10 µF or 15 µF
∴ The capacitances of the capacitors are 15 µF and 10 µF.

Question 3.
With four capacitors of the same capacity, when three of them are connected in parallel and the remaining one in connected in series with this combination, the resultant capacity is 3.75 µF. Find the capacity of each capacitor.
Solution:
Data : Ceff = 3.75 µF
Let the capacity of each of the four capacitors be C. The equivalent capacity of three of them in parallel is
Cp = C + C + C = 3C
The equivalent capacity of the series combination of Cp and the fourth capacitor is
Ceff = \(\frac{C_{\mathrm{p}} C}{C_{\mathrm{P}}+C}=\frac{(3 C) C}{3 C+C}=\frac{3}{4} C\)
∴ By the data, \(\frac{3}{4}\) C = 3.75 µF
∴ C = \(\frac{4}{3}\) × 3.75 = 5 µF
∴ The capacity of each capacitor = 5 µF.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics

Question 4.
Two capacitors of capacities C1 and C2 are joined in series and this combination is joined in parallel with a capacitor of capacity C3. Show that the capacity of the system is C = \(\frac{C_{1}\left(C_{2}+C_{3}\right)+C_{2}
Solution:
The equivalent capacitance of the series combination of C1 and C2 is
Cs = [latex]\frac{C_{1} C_{2}}{C_{1}+C_{2}}\)
The equivalent capacitance of the parallel combination of Cs and C3 is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 59

Question 5.
Capacitors of capacities 5 µF and 10 µF are connected in parallel in a circuit with a cell of emf 2 V. What should be the capacity of the capacitor to be connected in series with the parallel combination of the capacitors to get 1 µC charge on the combination?
Solution:
Data : C1 = 5 µF, C2 = 10 µF, V = 2 V, Q = 1 µC
The effective capacity of the parallel combination of C1 and C2 is
Cp = C1 + C2 = 5 + 10 = 15 µF

Let C be the capacity of the capacitor to be connected in series with Cp to get the charge of 1 coulomb on the combination. The equivalent capacity (Cs) of the series combination is given by
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 60

Question 6.
Three capacitors of capacities 8 µF, 8 µF and 4 µF are connected in series and a potential difference of 120 V is maintained across the combination. Calculate the charge on the capacitor of capacity 4 µF. Also calculate the potential difference across it.
Solution:
Data : C1 = 8 µF, C2 = 8 µF, C3 = 4 µF, V = 120 V
Let Cs = equivalent capacity of the series combination of the capacitors
∴ \(\frac{1}{C_{s}}=\frac{1}{C_{1}}+\frac{1}{C_{2}}+\frac{1}{C_{3}}=\frac{1}{8}+\frac{1}{8}+\frac{1}{4}\)
= \(\frac{1+1+2}{8}=\frac{4}{8}=\frac{1}{2}\)
∴ Cs = 2 µF = 2 × 10-6 F
In series combination, the charge on each capacitor is the same. It is given by Q = CsV
∴ Q = 2 × 10-6 × 120
= 2.4 × 10-4 coulomb
V3 = \(\frac{Q}{C_{3}}=\frac{2.4 \times 10^{-4}}{4 \times 10^{-6}}=\frac{240}{4}\) = 60 V (∵ C3 = 4 µF = 4 × 10-6 F)
The charge on the 4 µF capacitor is 2.4 × 10-4 C and the potential difference across it is 60 V.

Question 7.
A 100 V battery is connected across the combination of capacitors of capacities 4 µF and 8 µF in parallel and then in series. Calculate the charge on each capacitor in parallel and in series combination.
Solution:
Data : V = 100 V, C1 = 4 × 10-6 F, C2 = 8 × 10-6 F
(i) Parallel combination :
Q1 = C1V = (4 × 10-6)(100) = 4 × 10-4 C
Q2 = C2V = (8 × 10-6)(100) = 8 × 10-4 C

(ii) Series combination :
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 61

Question 8.
Three capacitors are connected as shown in the figure below.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 62
Calculate the effective capacitance between A and B.
Solution:
Data : C1 = 2 µF, C2 = 3 µF, C3 = 4 µF
The resultant capacitance Cs of C1 and C2 in series is given by
\(\frac{1}{C_{s}}=\frac{1}{C_{1}}+\frac{1}{C_{2}}=\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}=\frac{5}{6}\)
∴ Cs = \(\frac{6}{5}\) = 1.2 µF
The effective capacitance between A and B is due to the parallel combination of Cs and C3.
Cp = Cs + C3 = 1.2 + 4 = 5.2 µF

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics

Question 9.
Four capacitors are of the same capacitance.
(a) If three of them are connected in parallel and the remaining one is connected in series with this combination, the resultant capacitance is 3.75 µF. Find the capacitance of each capacitor.
(b) When three of them are connected in series and the remaining one is connected in parallel with this combination, find the resultant capacitance of the combination.
Solution:
(a) Let C be the capacitance of each capacitor.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 63
Between points A and B, three capacitors, each of capacitance C, are connected in parallel from figure. Their effective capacitance (Cp) is given by
Cp = C + C + C = 3C
When a capacitor of capacitance C is connected in series with Cp, their resultant capacitance (Cs) is given by
\(\frac{1}{C_{s}}=\frac{1}{C_{p}}+\frac{1}{C}=\frac{1}{3 C}+\frac{1}{C}=\frac{4}{3 C}\)
∴ Cs = \(\frac{3 C}{4}\)
Given : Cs = 3.75 µF
∴ \(\frac{3 C}{4}\) = 3.75
∴ C = \(\frac{4 \times 3.75}{3}=\frac{15}{3}\) = 5 µF

(b) The arrangement is shown in below figure.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 64
The effective capacitance (Cs) of the series combination of three capacitors, each of capacitance C, is given by
\(\frac{1}{C_{s}}=\frac{1}{C}+\frac{1}{C}+\frac{1}{C}=\frac{3}{C}\)
∴ Cs = \(\frac{C}{3}\)
When another capacitor of capacitance C is connected in parallel with the combination, the result ant capacitance is
Cp = Cs + C = \(\frac{C}{3}\) + c
= \(\frac{4 C}{3}=\frac{4 \times 5}{3}=\frac{20}{3}\)
= 6.667 µF

Question 10.
In below figure, C1 = 10 µF, C2 = 30 µF, C3 = 20 µF, C4 = 40 µF. Find the capacitance between the points A and B when (i) the key K is closed (ii) the key K is open.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 65
Solution:
(i) Key K closed :
The parallel combination of C1, and C3 is in series with the parallel combination of C2 and C4. Let
C5 = C1 || C3 and C6 = C2 || C4.
∴ C5 = C1 + C3 = 10 + 20 = 30 µF
and C6 = C2 + C4 = 30 + 40 = 70 µF
The capacitance between A and B is the equivalent capacitance of C5 and C6 in series, i.e.,
CAB = \(\frac{C_{5} C_{6}}{C_{5}+C_{6}}=\frac{30 \times 70}{30+70}=\frac{2100}{100}\) = 21 µF

(ii) Key K open :
The series combination of C1 and C2 is in parallel with the series combination of C3 and C4. Let C7 and C8 be the equivalent capacitances of the respective series combinations.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 66
The capacitance between A and B is the equivalent capacitance of C7 and C8 in parallel, i.e.,
CAB = C7 + C8 = \(\frac{15}{2}+\frac{40}{3}=\frac{45+80}{6}\)
= \(\frac{125}{6}\) = 20.83 µF

Question 11.
A network of four capacitors, 5 µF each, are connected to a 240 V supply. Determine the equivalent capacitance of the network and the charge on each capacitor.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 67
Solution:
Data : C1 = C2 = C3 = C4 = 5 µF, V = 240 V
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 68
The equivalent capacitance C5 of the series combination is given by
\(\frac{1}{\mathrm{C}_{5}}=\frac{1}{\mathrm{C}_{1}}+\frac{1}{\mathrm{C}_{2}}+\frac{1}{\mathrm{C}_{3}}=\frac{1}{5}+\frac{1}{5}+\frac{1}{5}=\frac{3}{5}\)
∴ C5 = \(\frac{5}{3}\) µF
The equivalent capacitance of the parallel combination of C5 with C4 is
C = C5 + C4 = \(\frac{5}{3}\) + 5 = \(\frac{20}{3}\) µF = 6.667 µF
The potential difference across each of the three capacitors in series = \(\frac{V}{3}=\frac{240}{3}\) = 80 V
and the charge on each of them is the same.
∴ Q1 = Q2 = Q3 = C1 × \(\frac{V}{3}\) = (5 × 10-6)(80)
= 4 × 10-4 C
The charge on the capacitor C4 is
Q4 = C4V = (5 × 10-6)(240) = 1.2 × 10-3 C

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics

Question 12.
Six capacitors of capacities 5 µF, 5 µF, 5 µF, 5 µF, 10 µF, and X µF are connected as shown in the network given below :
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 69
Find (a) the value of X if the network is balanced (b) the resultant capacitance between A and C.
Solution:
(a) The effective capacitance of the series combination in the arm DC is \(\frac{10 X}{10+X}\) µF
Using the balancing condition for the network,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 70

(b) As the network is balanced, no charge flows through the arm BD.
Effective capacitance 5×5 25
CABC = \(\frac{5 \times 5}{5+5}=\frac{25}{10}\)= 2.5 µF (series combination)
Similarly,
CADC =\(\frac{5 \times 5}{5+5}=\frac{25}{10}\) = 2.5 µF (series combination)
Effective (resultant) capacitance between A and C .
= CABC + CADC (parallel combination)
= 2.5 + 2.5 = 5 µF

Question 66.
Derive an expression for the capacitance of a parallel-plate air/vacuum capacitor.
Answer:
Consider a parallel-plate capacitor, consisting of two parallel plates A and B separated by a distance d as shown in below figure. Let A be the area of each plate. Plate B is connected to the Earth. Suppose that the capacitor is connected to the terminals of a battery of potential difference V. The battery transfers a charge + Q to the insulated plate A. A charge – Q is induced on the near surface of the grounded plate B while the + Q charge on the far side of B flows to the ground.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 71
1f the area A is very large and the distance between the plates is very small, the electric field in the region between the plates is almost uniform, except near the edges. The magnitude of the electric field E at a point between the plates and the potential difference V between the plates are related by E = V/d. Outside the capacitors, the electric fields due to the two charged plates cancel out:
\(\frac{\sigma}{2 \varepsilon_{0}}-\frac{\sigma}{2 \varepsilon_{0}}\) = 0.
But, E = \(\frac{\sigma}{\varepsilon_{0}}\), where σ is the surface charge density on the plates.
∴ \(\frac{\sigma}{\varepsilon_{0}}=\frac{V}{d}\) …………. (1)
Now, = \(\frac{Q}{A}\) ∴ E = \(\frac{Q}{\varepsilon_{0} A}=\frac{V}{d}\) …………… (2)
The capacity (capacitance) of a capacitor is, by definition, C = \(\frac{Q}{V}\)
∴ C = \(\frac{\varepsilon_{0} A}{d}\) …………… (3)
This gives the capacitance of a parallel-plate capacitor without a dielectric, i.e., an air or vacuum capacitor.

Question 67.
What is the electric field intensity in the region between the plates of a parallel-plate capacitor if the separation between the plates is 1 mm and the potential difference across the plates is 2V?
Answer:
E = \(\frac{V}{d}=\frac{2}{1 \times 10^{-3}}\) = 2000 N/C is the required electric field intensity.

Question 68.
The capacitance of a parallel-plate air capacitor is 12 µF. If the separation between its plates is doubled, what will be the new capacitance?
Answer:
\(\frac{C_{2}}{C_{1}}=\frac{d_{1}}{d_{2}}\)
∴ C2 = \(\frac{d_{1}}{d_{2}}\) × C1 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 12 = 6pF
is the new capacitance.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics

Question 69.
Explain the effect of a dielectric on the capacitance of a isolated charged parallel-plate capacitor.
Hence, show that if a dielectric of relative permit-tivity (dielectric constant) k completely fills the space between the plates, the capacitance increases by a factor k.
Answer:
Consider a parallel-plate capacitor without a dielectric, of plate area A, plate separation d and capacitance C0, charged to a potential difference V0 and then isolated.
Suppose the charges on its conducting plates are + Q and – Q, from figure (a). The surface density of free charge is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 72
If A is very large and d is very small, the electric field in the region between the plates is almost uniform, except near the edges. The magnitude of the electric field intensity is
E0 = \(\frac{V_{0}}{d}=\frac{\sigma}{\varepsilon_{0}}=\frac{Q}{\varepsilon_{0} A}\)
Without the dielectric, the capacitance of the parallel plate capacitor is, by definition, C0 = \(\frac{Q}{V_{0}}=\frac{\varepsilon_{0} A}{d}\) ……………. (3)

Now, suppose a dielectric slab of permittivity e and thickness t (t < d) is introduced in the space between, and parallel to, the charged plates, from figure (b). A polarisation charge – Qp appears on the exterior surface of the dielectric nearer to the positive plate while a polarisation charge + Qp appears on its opposite face. Since the capacitor was isolated after charging, the free charge Q on the plates is the same as earlier. Within the dielectric, the induced field \(\vec{E}_{\mathrm{p}}\) due to the polarisation charges is opposite to the applied field. The net electric field within the dielectric \(\vec{E}\) is less than the applied field. In magnitude,
E = E0 – Ep …………. (4)
By definition, the relative permittivity (dielectric constant) of the dielectric, k = \(\frac{\varepsilon}{\varepsilon_{0}}=\frac{E_{0}}{E}\) ………. (5)

Between the plates, the field within the dielectric of thickness t is E = E0/k, and that in the region (d – t) is E0. Therefore, the new potential difference between the plates is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 73
Equations (7) and (8) give the capacitance of a capacitor with a dielectric.

Special case: If the dielectric completely fills the space between the plates, t = d. Therefore, from Eq. (7),
C = C0 \(\frac{d}{\left(d-d+\frac{d}{k}\right)}\) = C0 \(\frac{d}{d / k}\) = kC0
Thus, the capacitance increases by the factor of k.

[Notes : (1) It‘is useful to check the other limits :
(i) As the thickness of the dielectric approaches zero, i.e., t → 0, we have C → ε0A/ d = C0, as expected for no dielectric.
(ii) If k = 1, we again have C = ε0A/d = C0, as expected for air or vacuum, capacitor where the dielectric is absent.
(2) The equation, V = \(\frac{V_{0}}{d}\) ( d – t + \(\frac{t}{k}\)), shows that V too is less than V0 for the same charge Q.
(3) Note that the configuration is equivalent to two capacitors of plate separations (d -1) and t connected in series, as shown in below figure. For capacitors connected in series, the equivalent capacitance is given by
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 74
Thus, if the dielectric slab is replaced by a conducting slab of the same thickness f, the right-hand plates in above figure will be shorted and the equivalent capacitance C = C1 = \(\frac{\varepsilon_{0} A}{d-t}=\frac{d}{d-t}\) C0. Therefore, C > C0.

(4) If a battery supplying a potential difference V0 remains connected as a dielectric is inserted filling the space, the charge on the plates is increased by a factor k, the p.d. across the capacitor remaining constant Q = kQ0/ where Q0 is the charge on the plates without the dielectric. The capacitance becomes
C = \(\frac{Q}{V_{0}}=\frac{k Q_{0}}{V_{0}}\) = kC0
which is the same as in Eq. (9) where the charge remained constant, but now the charge has increased.]

Question 70.
State the expression for the capacitance of a parallel-plate capacitor filled with a dielectric. Explain how its capacitance can be increased.
Answer:
The capacitance of a parallel-plate capacitor filled with a dielectric is C = \(\frac{A k \varepsilon_{0}}{d}\)

where A is the area of each plate, k is the relative permittivity (dielectric constant) of the medium between the plates, ε0 is the permittivity of free space and d is the uniform plate separation.

The capacitance of a parallel-plate capacitor can be increased by

  1. increasing the area of each plate
  2. decreasing the distance between the two plates
  3. filling the space between the two plates by a medium of greater relative permittivity.

Question 71.
What are the functions of a dielectric in a capacitor?
Answer:
A dielectric material between the plates of a capacitor

  1. increases the capacitance of the capacitor
  2. provides mechanical support to the plates
  3. increases the maximum operating voltage, i.e., the maximum voltage to which the capacitor may be charged without breakdown of the insulating property of the medium between the plates.

Question 72.
A parallel-plate capacitor consists of n dielectric slabs of end-face areas A1, A2, ………, An and respective relative permittivities (dielectric constants) k1, k2, ….., kn, in the space between the plates as shown in below figure. Find the equivalent capacitance of this arrangement. Hence, show that if the areas are equal, the capacitance is C = \(\frac{\varepsilon_{0} A}{n d} \sum_{j} k_{j}\).
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 75
Answer:
Consider a parallel-plate capacitor without a dielectric, of plate area A, plate separation d and capacitance C0, charged to a potential difference V0 and then isolated. Without a dielectric, the capacitance of the parallel-plate capacitor is, by definition
C0 = \(\frac{Q}{V_{0}}=\frac{\varepsilon_{0} A}{d}\) …………… (1)
Now, suppose n dielectric slabs of end-face areas
A1, A1, …, A3 and respective relative permittivities
(dielectric constants) k1, k2, ………, kn fills the space between the plates as shown in above figure. The charge on the plates remaining the same, the reduced potential difference (V) between the plates is the same across each dielectric slab. Therefore, the capacitor is equivalent to a parallel combination of n capacitors of the same plate separation d but different plate areas and dielectric constants, as shown in below figure.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 76
Then, C1 = k10A1/d, C2 = k2e0A2/d, … and so on.
Therefore, their equivalent capacitance is
C = C1 + C2 + ………… + Cn
= \(\frac{\varepsilon_{0}}{d}\)(k1A1 + k2A2 + …….. + knAn) ………… (2)
If the dielectric slabs have equal thickness such that their end-face areas are equal, i.e., A1 = A2 = …….. = An = A/n.
C = \(\frac{\varepsilon_{0} A}{n d}\)(k1 + k2 + ………… + kn) = \(\frac{\varepsilon_{0} A}{n d}\) Σj K\(\frac{\varepsilon_{0} A}{n d}\)

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics

Question 73.
A dielectric of relative permittivity (dielectric constant) k completely fills the space between the plates of a parallel-plate capacitor with a surface charge density σ. Show that the induced density of surface charge on the dielectric is σp = σ (1 – \(\frac{1}{k}\))
Answer:
Consider a parallel-plate capacitor without a dielectric, of plate area A, plate separation d and capacitance C0, charged to a potential difference V and then isolated.

Suppose the charges on its conducting plates are +Q and -Q, from figure (a). The surface density of free charge is
σ = \(\frac{Q}{A}\) …………. (1)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 77
When no dielectric is present, the electric field \(\overrightarrow{E_{0}}\) in the region between the plates can be found by applying Gauss’s law to the Gaussian surface :
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 78
When a dielectric is inserted as in figure (b), there is an induced charge – Q, on the surface, and . the net charge enclosed by the Gaussian surface is Q – Qp. Then, by Gauss’s law,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 79
The effect of the dielectric is to weaken the original field E0 by a factor k.
Writing E = \(\frac{E_{0}}{k}\),
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 80

Question 74.
The capacitance of a parallel-plate air capacitor is 2 pF. If the air is replaced by a medium of dielectric constant 10. What will be its capacitance?
Answer:
\(\frac{C_{2}}{C_{1}}=\frac{k_{2}}{k_{1}}\)
C2 = \(\frac{k_{2}}{k_{1}}\) × C1 = \(\frac{10}{1}\) × 2 = 20 pF
is the required capacitance.

Question 75.
Explain the concept of displacement current.
Answer:
Consider an uncharged parallel-plate capacitor with capacitance C connected to a resistor R and a battery of voltage V, below figure. For a parallel-plate capacitor, of plate area A, separation d and filled with a dielectric of permittivity ¡, its capacitance is C = εA/d.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 81
When the key is closed, charge begins to flow into the capacitor via the resistor. The initial voltage across the capacitor is zero and the current in the circuit now is called the charging current. As the capacitor charges up, the potential difference across its plates slowly increases. During the charging, the charge on the capacitor grows as Q(t) = Q(1 – e -t/T).

While a capacitor is being charged, there is no current through the capacitor but the electric field between the plates, and the electric flux through a Gaussian surface enclosing one of the plates, increases as the charge on its plates increases. The instantaneous charge on the capacitor is
Q(t) = (εA)E(f) [ε = kε0]
∴ \(\frac{d}{d t}\) Q(t) = (εA)\(\frac{d}{d t}\)E(t) = ε\(\frac{d}{d t}\)Φe(t)
where Φe(t) = AE(t) is the electric flux through the surface. The rate of change of charge, \(\frac{d}{d t}\) Q(t), has the
dimension of current and is the conduction current ic. The fictitious current arising from the changing electric flux is called the displacement current:
id = ε\(\frac{d}{d t}\)Φe(t)
That is, we imagine the changing flux through the dielectric is somehow equivalent to the conduction current in the circuit. This lets us generalize Kirchhoff’s junction rule : considering the top plate of the capacitor in the figure, when we include the displacement current, we see that the conduction current coming in from top and an equal displacement current coming out of the bottom. With this generalized meaning of the term “current”, we speak of current going through the capacitor.

Maxwell introduced the concept of displacement current to generalize Ampere’s law in his formulation of electromagnetic theory that led to the discovery of electromagnetic waves.

[Notes : (1) The lowercase i is used to denote instantaneous value of current. (2) The actual time taken for the charge on the capacitor to reach 63% of its maximum possible voltage is known as one time constant (T = RC). For all practical purposes, a capacitor is considered to be fully charged to Q after a time t = 5T. (3) In the pheno-menon of electromagnetic induction (Chapter 12), we see that a changing magnetic field gives rise to an induced electric field. Remarkably, it turns out that a changing electric field gives rise to a magnetic field – an example of the symmetry in nature. These two effects together explain the existence of all types of electromagnetic waves.]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics

Question 76.
Show that the energy of a charged capacitor is \(\frac{1}{2}\) CV2. Also, express this in other forms.
OR
Derive an expression for the energy stored in a charged capacitor. Express it in different forms.
Answer:
To charge a capacitor, an external agent has to do work against the electrostatic forces due to the charges already present on the plates of the capacitor.

Let C be the capacitance of the capacitor. Let Q and V be the final charge and the potential difference respectively when the capacitor is charged. Let q be the charge on the capacitor at some stage during the charging and v, the corresponding potential difference between the plates. The work done by an external agent in bringing additional small charge dq from infinity and depositing it on the capacitor is
dW = potential difference × charge = v dq
But C = \(\frac{q}{v}\) ∴ v = \(\frac{q}{C}\)
∴ dW = \(\frac{q}{C}\) dq
The total work done in charging the capacitor is
W = \(\int d W=\int_{0}^{Q} \frac{q d q}{C}=\frac{1}{C}\left[\frac{q^{2}}{2}\right]_{0}^{Q}=\frac{1}{2} \frac{Q^{2}}{C}\)
Now, Q = CV
W = \(\frac{1}{2}\)CV2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\)(CV)V = \(\frac{1}{2}\) QV
This work is stored in the form of potential energy, in the electric field in the medium between the plates of the capacitor.
∴ Energy of a charged capacitor
= \(\frac{1}{2} \frac{Q^{2}}{C}=\frac{1}{2} C V^{2}=\frac{1}{2} Q V\)

Question 77.
How does the energy stored in a charged capacitor change if the plates of the capacitor are moved farther apart
(i) after the battery is disconnected
(ii) the battery remaining connected?
Answer:
(i) If the plates of a charged capacitor are moved farther apart after the battery is disconnected, the energy stored increases by the amount of work done by the external agent in pulling the plates apart against the force of attraction between the opposite charges on the plates.

(ii) With the battery still connected, increasing the separation between the plates decreases the energy stored in the charged capacitor.

[Notes : (1) The charge on the capacitor does not change after the battery is disconnected. Because the electric field of a large plate is independent of the distance from the plate, the electric field \(\vec{E}\) between the plates also remains the same. Therefore, since E = V/d, the p.d. between the plates (V) changes in the same proportion as d. Since the energy stored,
U = \(\frac{1}{2} C V^{2}=\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{A \varepsilon}{d}\right)(E d)^{2}=\frac{1}{2}(A \varepsilon D) E^{2}\)
U also changes in the same proportion as d. The addi-tional energy is transferred to the system from the work done by the external agent.

(2) With the battery still connected, the p.d. between the plates remains the same. Since the energy stored,
U = \(\frac{1}{2} C V^{2}=\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{A \varepsilon}{d}\right) V^{2}\), U is inversely proportional to d. With decrease in capacitance, the charge on the plates decreases.]

Question 78.
When a capacitor is charged by a battery, is the energy stored in the capacitor the same as the energy supplied by the battery? Why?
Answer:
Yes. To charge a capacitor, an external agent (the battery) has to do work against the electrostatic force due to the charges already present on the plates of the capacitor. This work done is stored in the form of potential energy in the electric field in the medium between the plates of the capacitor.

Question 79.
If the charge on a capacitor is 2 µC and the potential difference across the conductors forming the capacitor is 100 V, what is the electrostatic energy stored in the capacitor?
Answer:
U = \(\frac{1}{2}\)QV = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 2 × 10-6 C × 100V = 10-4 J
is the required energy.

Question 80.
The capacitance of a charged capacitor is C and the energy stored in it is U. What is the value of the charge on the capacitor ?
Answer:
Let Q be the charge on the capacitor. Then, the energy stored in it is
U = \(\frac{1}{2} \frac{Q^{2}}{C}\)
∴ Q = \(\sqrt{2 U C}\)

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics

Question 81.
Which combination of four identical capacitors has the maximum capacitance? Which combination of these capacitors will store minimum energy when a constant p.d. is applied across it ?
Answer:
The maximum capacitance of four identical capacitors, each of capacitance C, is obtained for their parallel combination : Cp = 4C.

Their series combination has the minimum capacitance. The charge stored in their parallel combination is four times that in their series combination. For the same constant p.d. V, the energy stored in the parallel combination is \(\frac{1}{2}\) (4Q)V and that in the series combination is \(\frac{1}{2}\) QV. Thus, the series combination will store minimum energy.

82. Solve the following

Data : ε0 = 8.85 × 10-12 F/m]
Question 1.
A 3 mm gap between the square metal plates of area 0.25 m2 that form a parallel plate capacitor is partly filled, as in figure (b), by a dielectric slab of the same shape and area, of thickness 2 mm and relative permittivity 2.5. Ignoring edge effects, calculate : .
(i) the capacitance when the dielectric slab covers the full area of the plates
(ii) the capacitance when the dielectric slab is partly withdrawn a distance x(x = 0.2 m) in a direction parallel to an edge of the plates.
Solution:
Data : d = 3mm = 3 × 10-3 m, A = l2 = 0.25m2, t = 2mm = 2 × 10-3 m, k = 2.5, x = 0.3m, ε0 = 8.85 × 10-12 F/m
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 82

(ii) From below figure, the system is equivalent to a parallel combination of two capacitors : C, is air-filled with plate area A1 = lx and C2 has dielectric with plate area A2 = l (l – x).
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 83
since l2 = 0.25 m2, Z = 0.5 m
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 84

Question 2.
A parallel-plate air capacitor has an area 2 × 10-4 m2 and the separation between the two plates is 1 mm. Find its capacitance.
Solution:
Data : A = 2 × 10-4 m2, d = 1 mm = 10-3 m,
ε0 = 8.85 × 10-12 C2/N.m2, k = 1 (for air)
The capacitance,
C = \(\frac{A k \varepsilon_{0}}{d}=\frac{\left(2 \times 10^{-4}\right)(1)\left(8.85 \times 10^{-12}\right)}{10^{-3}}\)
= 1.77 × 10-12 F = 1.77 pF

Question 3.
A parallel-plate air capacitor has circular plates, each of diameter 20 cm, separated by a distance of 2 mm. The potential difference between the plates is maintained at 360 volts. Calculate its capacitance and charge. What is the intensity of the electric field between the plates of the capacitor? [k = 1]
Solution:
Data : The diameter of each plate is 20 cm. Hence, its radius is r = 10 cm = 0.1 m, d = 2 mm = 2 × 10-3 m, V = 360 V, k = 1, ε0 = 8.85 × 10-12 F/m
(i) Capacitance :
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 85

Question 4.
A parallel-plate air capacitor has rectangular plates, each of area 20 cm2 separated by a distance of 2 mm. The potential difference between the plates is 500 volts. Calculate (i) its capacitance (ii) the charge on each plate (iii) the electric field intensity between the two plates.
Solution:
Data : A = 20 cm2 = 20 × 10-4 m2 = 2 × 10-3 m2, k = 1, V = 500V, d = 2 mm = 2 × 10-3 m, ε0 = 8.85 × 10-12 F/m
(i) Capacitance :
C = \(\frac{A \varepsilon_{0} k}{d}=\frac{\left(2 \times 10^{-3}\right)\left(8.85 \times 10^{-12}\right)(1)}{2 \times 10^{-3}}\)
= 8.85 × 10-12 F ( = 8.85 pF)

(ii) Charge :
Q = CV = (8.85 × 10-12)(500)
= 4.425 × 10-9 C (= 4.425 nC)

(iii) Intensity of the electric field :
E = \(\frac{V}{d}=\frac{500}{2 \times 10^{-3}}\) = 2.5 × 105 V/m

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics

Question 5.
A parallel-plate air capacitor has rectangular plates each of length 20 cm and breadth 10 cm. The separation between the plates is 1 mm.
(a) Calculate the potential difference between the plates if 1 µC charge is given to the capacitor.
(b) With the same charge of 1 µC, if the separation between the plates is doubled, what is the new potential difference?
(c) Calculate the electric field between the plates.
Solution:
Data : Q = 1 nC = 10-9 C, l = 20 cm, b = 10 cm, d = 1 mm = 10-3 m, ε0 = 8.85 × 10-12 F/m, k = 1 (air)
Area of the plates, A = lb = 20 × 10 = 200 cm2 = 0.02 m2
(a) The capacitance of the capacitor,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 86
V2 = V1 × \(\frac{d_{2}}{d_{1}}\) = 5.65 × 2 = 11.3 V (∵\(\frac{d_{2}}{d_{1}}\) = 2, by the data )

(c) The electric field between the plates,
E = \(\frac{V}{d}=\frac{5.65}{10^{-3}}\) = 5650 N/C

Question 6.
A parallel-plate air capacitor has a capacity (capacitance) of 20 µF. What will be its new capacity if
(i) the distance between the plates is doubled
(ii) a marble slab of dielectric constant 8 is introduced filling the entire space between the two plates?
Solution:
Data : C1 = 20 µF, d2 = 2d1, k1 = 1 (air), k2 = 8 (marble)
C = \(\frac{A k \varepsilon_{0}}{d}\)
(i) With air as the dielectric,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 87
This gives the new capacity (capacitance) on doubling the plate separation.

(ii) With the plate separation d = d1,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 88
This gives the new capacity (capacitance) with marble as the dielectric.

Question 7.
A parallel-plate air capacitor of plate separation 2 mm and capacitance 1 µF is charged to 200 V. A dielectric of relative permittivity 50 is now inserted so as to fill the space between the plates.
(i) Find the new value of capacitance.
(ii) Find the polarisation charge on one of the boundaries of the dielectric.
(iii) Find the magnitude of the polarisation of the dielectric.
(iv) What is the magnitude of the electric field inside the dielectric?
Solution:
Data : C0 = 10-6 F, d = 2 × 10-3 m, k = 50, V = 200 V, ε0 = 8.85 × 10-12 F/m
(i) The new value of the capacitance is
C = kC0 = 50 × 10-6 F (or 50µF)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 89

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics

Question 8.
A parallel-plate capacitor consists of two identical metal plates. Two dielectric slabs having dielectric constants (relative permittivities) k1 and k2 are introduced in the space between the plates as shown in figures. Show that the capacity (capacitance) of the capacitor in figure (a) is given by C’ = \(\frac{A \varepsilon_{0}\left(k_{1}+k_{2}\right)}{2 d}\) and that in figure (a) is given by C” = \(\frac{2 A \varepsilon_{0}}{d} \cdot \frac{k_{1} k_{2}}{k_{1}+k_{2}}\)
Solution:
(i) The capacitor in figure(a) is equivalent to a parallel combination of two capacitors of plate separation d and plate area A/2, with C1 filled with dielectric of relative permittivity k1 and C2 filled with dielectric of relative permittivity k2, as shown in figure (b).
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 90
The equivalent capacitance of their parallel combination is
C’ = C1 + C2 = \(\frac{A \varepsilon_{0} k_{1}}{2 d}+\frac{A \varepsilon_{0} k_{2}}{2 d}=\frac{A \varepsilon_{0}\left(k_{1}+k_{2}\right)}{2 d}\) ……………. (1)

(ii) Suppose the capacitor in figure (a) is charged by connecting it to a battery. Let the potential of the positive plate a be Va, the potential of the negative plate c be Vc, and the potential midway between the plates at the interface b of the dielectrics be Vb.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 91
The electric field in the absence of any dielectric is
E0 = \(\frac{Q}{\varepsilon_{0} A}\)
The electric field in the first dielectric, E1 = \(\frac{E_{0}}{k_{1}}\)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 92
Equations (1) and (2) give the required expressions.

INote : The capacitor in figure (a) is equivalent to a series combination of two capacitors of plate separation d/2 and plate area A, with C3 filled with dielectric of relative permittivity k1 and C4 filled with dielectric of relative permittivity k2, as shown in below figure.]
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 93

Question 9.
The energy stored in a charged capacitor of capa city 25 µF is 4J. Find the charge on its plate.
Solution:
Data: C = 25 pF = 25 × 10-12 F, U = 4 J
U = \(\frac{1}{2} \frac{Q^{2}}{C}\)
∴ The charge, Q = \(\sqrt{2 U C}\)
= \(\sqrt{2 \times 4 \times 25 \times 10^{-12}}\)
= 1.414 × 10-5 C (= 14.14 µC)

Question 10.
The electrostatic energy of 3.5 × 10-4 J is stored in a capacitor at 700 V. What is the charge on the capacitor?
Solution:
Data: U = 3.5 × 10-4 J, V = 700V
U = \(\frac{1}{2}\) QV
∴ Q = \(\frac{2 U}{V}=\frac{2 \times 3.5 \times 10^{-4}}{700}\) = 10-6 C
This is the charge on the capacitor.

Question 11.
Two capacitors, each of capacity 5 µF, and a battery of emf 180 V are given to you. Which combination gives the maximum energy? What is its value? Also find the charge on each capacitor of that combination.
Solution:
Data : C1 = C2 = 5 µF = 5 × 10-6 F, V = 180 V
(i) The effective capacity (Cp) of their parallel combination is
Cp = C1 + C1
= 5 × 10-6 F + 5 × 10-6 F
= 10 × 10-6F

Series combination :
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 94

(ii) The energy of a charged capacitor is U = \(\frac{1}{2}\) CV2
For a given value of V, the combination of maximum capacity will give maximum energy.
As Cp > Cs, the parallel combination gives maximum energy.

(iii) The value of maximum energy is
Umax = \(\frac{1}{2}\) CpV2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 10 × 10-6 × (180)2
= 0.162 J

(iv) If Q1 and Q2 are the charges on C1 and C2,
Q1 = C1V= 5 × 10-6 × 180 = 9 × 10-4 C
Q2 = C2V = 5 × 10-6 × 180 = 9 × 10-4C

Question 83.
What is the Van de Graaff generator?
Answer:
The Van de Graaff generator is a high-voltage electrostatic generator that is used to produce very high potential differences of several million volts. It was constructed by US physicist Robert Van de Graaff in 1931. The high potential difference produced by the Van de Graaff generator is used to produce high-energy ion beams in a linear accelerator inside.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics

Question 84.
State the principle of working of the Van de Graaff generator. Describe its construction with a neat labelled diagram.
Answer:
Principle of working : The Van de Graaff generator works on the principles of corona or point discharge, that the charge on hollow conductor resides entirely on its outer surface and that the charge supplied to an insulated conductor increases its potential.

Construction : A hollow spherical conductor C is supported and insulated from the ground by a tower of ceramic insulators. A long, vertical, endless belt made of special insulating paper or fabric (rubberised silk) is continuously
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 95
driven by an electric motor from the ground up to the inside of the conductor. Near the ground, the belt passes close to a spraycomb A which is connected to a high-voltage source. The spraycomb consists of a set of sharp needle points. Another spraycomb collector B is connected inside conductor C at the top. The entire apparatus is usually enclosed in a pressurized vessel containing a gas such as nitrogen or Freon.

Housed inside the assembly is an evacuated tube through which positively charged particles may be accelerated from a source at the same potential as the conductor C to a target at the ground potential.

Question 85.
Describe the working and uses of the Van de Graaff generator with a neat labelled diagram.
Answer:
Working : A high-voltage source, consisting of a high-voltage transformer rectifier circuit, is used to apply a potential difference of several thousand volts (about 50 kV to 100 kV) between spraycomb A and the ground. As a result of the high potential to spraycomb A, a continuous electric discharge takes place between comb A and the nonconducting belt that sprays electric charges onto the belt by corona or point discharge.

The moving belt carries this charge upward and transfers it to the hollow conductor. Collector comb B y inside the hollow conductor removes the charge from the belt by point discharge. Then, the charge flows to the outer surface of the hollow conductor where it accumulates as the process continues. The potential difference between the conductor and the Earth cumulatively increases until the energy density of the electric field builds up to such a high value that the insulating property of the surrounding gas breaks down and a corona discharge takes place through the surrounding gas between the conductor and the ground. If C is the capacitance of – the system and |Q| is the magnitude of the charge transferred from the ground to the conductor, the potential difference V between them is given by V = |Q|/C.

If the hollow conductor is well insulated from the Earth, the accumulated charge |Q| can be large enough and V can build up to several million volts. Since V is limited by the breakdown voltage of the surrounding medium, the entire apparatus is usually enclosed in a pressurized vessel containing a gas such as nitrogen or Freon. This raises the breakdown voltage considerably.

Positively charged particles may be accelerated in the evacuated tube from a source at the same potential as the dome conductor toward a target at the ground potential.

Uses : Machines equipped with positive ion sources and arranged for positive ion acceleration are widely used for research in nuclear structure and nuclear reactions, and for production of radioisotopes. Machines equipped with electron sources are used for X-ray therapy, industrial radiography, food and drug sterilization as well as research.

[Note : in a Van de Graaff single-stage accelerator, an ion source is located inside the high-voltage terminal (the dome conductor). Since the electric field inside a charged conductor is zero, the source must be at the same potential as the terminal. The ions are accelerated to the target (at the ground potential) by repulsion. Early quan-titative data on nuclear properties and processes came from Van de Graaff positive ion accelerators, which had a positive ion (proton, deuteron, alpha particle) source and the high voltage terminal raised to a high positive potential.

Van de Graaff electron accelerators had also been very successful as sources for X-rays for radiotherapy and industrial radiography. For an electrostatic electron accel-erator, the terminal is charged to a high negative potential and a thermionic cathode replaces the ion source. Accel-erated electrons impinging on watercooled gold targets provided for the first time high energy X-rays (~2 MeV) for cancer therapy. A number of such X-ray generators were developed by Prof. J. G. Trump and R.J. Van de Graaff which were installed in hospitals and industries. These instruments were about 3 ft in diameter and 6 ft long, and could be swung into any position to direct the X-ray beam.]

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Electric Intensity due to a charged sphere at a point outside the sphere dectea.ses with
(A) an increase in the charge on the sphere
(B) an increase in the dielectric constant
(C) a decrease m the distance from the centre of the sphere
(D) a decrease in the square of the distance from the centre of the sphere.
Answer:
(B) an increase in the dielectric constant

Question 2.
A charged spherical conductor in a medium of permittivity e basa surface charge density σ. At an outside point, a distance r from the centre of the conductor, the electric field intensity is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 96
Answer:
(A) \(\frac{\sigma}{\varepsilon}\)

Question 3.
The electric field intensity in free space at a distance r outside a charged conducting sphere of radius R, in terms of its surface charge density e is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 97
Answer:
(A) \(\frac{\sigma}{\varepsilon_{0}}\left(\frac{R}{r}\right)^{2}\)

Question 4.
If the radius of a sphere is doubled without chianging the charge on it then the electric flux originating from the sphere is
(A) double
(B) half
(C) the same
(D) zero.
Answer:
(C) the same

Question 5.
The intensity of electric field at a point clone but outside a charged conducting cylinder is proportional to
[r is the distance of the point from the axis of the cylinder]
(A) \(\frac{1}{r}\)
(B) \(\frac{1}{r^{2}}\)
(C) \(\frac{1}{r^{3}}\)
(D) r.
Answer:
(A) \(\frac{1}{r}\)

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics

Question 6.
In the diagram, \(\vec{E}\) is a uniform electric field. Point B is to the west of point A while point C is to the east and point D is to the south. Which of the following is correct?
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 98
(A)VB > VA > VC
(B) VB < VA < VC
(C) VB = VC
(D) VD = VA
Answer:
(C) VB = VC

Question 7.
The figure shows three capacitors C1, C2 and C3. The dashed lines are equipotential surfaces within each capacitor. In which of the capacitors is the pd. between the two equipotentials ∆V = 50V?
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 99
(A) Only in C1
(B) Only in C1 and C2
(C) Only in C3
(D) In all three capacitors
Answer:
(D) In all three capacitors

Question 8.
The potential energy of a dipole iii a uniform electric held \(\vec{E}\) is minimum when the dipole moment is
(A) transverse to \(\vec{E}\)
(B) parallel to \(\vec{E}\)
(C) antiparallel to \(\vec{E}\)
(D) either parallel or antiparallel to \(\vec{E}\).
Answer:
(B) parallel to \(\vec{E}\)

Question 9.
Which of the following molecules is nonpoLar?
(A) N2O
(B) H2O
(C) HCl
(D) CO2
Answer:
(D) CO2

Question 10.
A paralel-plate capacitor is charged by connecting it to a battery. The battery is then disconnected and the distance between the plates is doubled. This doubles
(A) the electric field at each point
(B) the charge density on each conductor
(C) the potential difference between the conductors
(D) the stored energy.
Answer:
(D) the stored energy.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics

Question 11.
A dielectric of relative permittivity k completely fills the space between the plates of a parallel.plate capacitor. When the surface charge density on the plates is σ, the polarization of the dielectric is
(A) σ (k – \(\frac{1}{k}\))
(B) \(\frac{\sigma}{k}\)
(C) σ (1 – \(\frac{1}{k}\))
(D) σ (k – 1)
Answer:
(C) σ (1 – \(\frac{1}{k}\))

Question 12.
If at a certain stage during the charging of a capacitor of capacitance C. the charge and potential difference are q and e, the work dW required to transfer an additional amount of charge dq is
(A) vdq
(B) \(\frac{d q}{v}\)
(C) \(\frac{v d q}{C}\)
(D) \(\frac{q^{2}}{2 C}\)
Answer:
(A) vdq

Question 13.
The energy density in the region between the plates of a charged parallel-plate air capacitor is given by the expression
(A) \(\frac{1}{2}\)ε0E2
(B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)ε0E
(C) \(\frac{E^{2}}{2 \varepsilon_{0}}\)
(D) \(\frac{\sigma^{2}}{\varepsilon_{0}}\)
Answer:
(A) \(\frac{1}{2}\)ε0E2

Question 14.
A 5 μF capacitor is charged to a p.d. of 10 V. If it is further charged, so that its p.d. increases to 20 V, the electric energy stored in it increases by
(A) 450 μJ
(B) 500 μJ
(C) 750 μJ
(D) 900 μJ
Answer:
(C) 750 μJ

Question 15.
A 5 pF capacitor is connected in series with a 10 μF capacitor and the combination is connected across a 9 V battery. The potential differences across the capacitors are in the ratio
(A) 4 : 1
(B) 3 : 1
(C) 2 : 1
(D) 1 : 1
Answer:
(C) 2 : 1

Question 16.
A 2 μF capacitor, charged to a p.d. of 200 V, is connected across an uncharged capacitor. If the common p.d. is 20 V, the capacitance of the second capacitor is
(A) 18 μF
(B) 20 μF
(C) 36 μF
(D) 40 μF
Answer:
(A) 18 μF

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics

Question 17.
Three capacitors of capacitances 2 μF, 3 μF and 6 μF are connected in series. The equivalent capacitance of the combination is
(A) 0.5 μF
(B) 1 μF
(C) 1.1 μF
(D) 11 μF
Answer:
(B) 1 μF

Question 18.
Two capacitors each of capacitance 4 μF are connected in series, and a third capacitor of capacitance 4 μF is connected in parallel with the combination. Then, the equivalent capacitance of the arrangement is
(A) 12 μF
(B) 8 μF
(C) 6 μF
(D) 2.65 μF
Answer:
(C) 6 μF

Question 19.
A parallel-plate air capacitor of a plate area A and plate separation d has capacitance C0. A dielectric of thickness d, width A/2 and relative permittivity k, is inserted between the plates as shown. The capacitance of the capacitor is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 100
(A) 2(k + 1) C0
(B) (k + 1 )C0
(C) kC0
(D) \(\frac{k+1}{2}\) C0
Answer:
(D) \(\frac{k+1}{2}\) C0

Question 20.
The resultant capacitance between the points A and B in the figure below is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 101
(A) 1 μF
(B) 1.5 μF
(C) 2 μF
(D) 3 μF.
Answer:
(A) 1 μF

Question 21.
Two parallel plates, separated by a distance d, are kept at potential difference V volt. A charge q of mass m enters between the parallel plates with some velocity. The acceleration of the charged particle will be
(A) \(\frac{q V}{d m}\)
(B) \(\frac{d m}{q V}\)
(C) \(\frac{q m}{d V}\)
(D)\(\frac{d V}{q m}\)
Answer:
(A) \(\frac{q V}{d m}\)

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics

Question 22.
The capacitance of an isolated spherical conductor of radius R in vacuum is
(A) not defined
(B) zero
(C) 4πε0R
(D) infinite.
Answer:
(C) 4πε0R

Question 23.
Three parallel plates, each of area A, form a capacitor. The separation between the first and second plates is d1 and that between the second and third is d2. The gaps are completely filled with dielectrics of dielectric constant k1 and k2, respectively. The capacitance of this capacitor is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 102
Answer:
(D) \(\frac{\varepsilon_{0} A k_{1} k_{2}}{k_{2} d_{1}+k_{1} d_{2}}\)

Question 24.
A parallel-plate capacitor, of plate area A and plate separation d, is filled with dielectrics of dielectric constants k1, k2 and k3, as shown
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 103
Answer:
(C) \(\frac{\varepsilon_{0} A}{d}\left(\frac{k_{1}}{2}+\frac{k_{2} k_{3}}{k_{2}+k_{3}}\right)\)

Question 25.
With three 6 μF capacitors, which of the capacitance values are available to you ?
(A) 2 μF and 18 μF
(B) 2 μF, 9 μF, 12 μF and 18 μF
(C) 2 μF, 9 μF and 18 μF
(D) 2 μF, 6 μF, 9 μF, 12 μF and 18 μF
Answer:
(D) 2 μF, 6 μF, 9 μF, 12 μF and 18 μF

Question 26.
A capacitor of plate separation 0.02 mm is completely filled with a dielectric material of strength 20 kV/mm. The maximum voltage rating of the capacitor is
(A) 100 V
(B) 200 V
(C) 400 V
(D) 800 V
Answer:
(C) 400 V

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics

Question 27.
Three capacitors C1, C2 and C3 are connected to a battery of p.d. V as shown. Which of the following are the correct relations for the charges on the capacitors and the p.d.s across them ?
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 104
(A) Q1 = Q1 = Q3 andV1 = V2 = V3 = V
(B) Q1 = Q2 + Q3 and V = V1 + V2 + V3
(C) Q1 = Q2 + Q3 and V= V1 + V2
(D) Q2 – Q3 and V2 = V3
Answer:
(C) Q1 = Q2 + Q3 and V= V1 + V2

Question 28.
A copper plate of thickness b is inserted between the plates of a parallel-plate capacitor of plate separation d. If b = d/3, the capacitances before and after the insertion of the plate are in the ratio
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 105
(A) 2 : 3
(B) 3 : 2
(C) 1 : \(\sqrt {3}\)
(D) \(\sqrt {3}\) : 1.
Answer:
(A) 2 : 3

Question 29.
The energy stored in a charged capacitor is U. The capacitor is isolated and connected across the terminals of an identical uncharged capacitor. The energy stored in each capacitor is
(A) U
(B) 3U/4
(C) U/2
(D) U/4
Answer:
(D) U/4

Question 30.
An uncharged parallel-plate capacitor filled with a material of dielectric constant k is connected to a parallel-plate air capacitor of identical geometry charged to a potential V. At equilibrium, common potential difference across them is V’. The dielectric constant k is equal to V’-V
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 106
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 107

Question 31.
Two parallel capacitors of capacitances C and 2C are connected in parallel and charged to a potential V. The battery is then disconnected and the space between the plates of the first capacitor is filled with a material of dielectric constant k. The potential difference across the capacitors is
(A) \(\frac{3 V}{k}\)
(B) \(\frac{3 V}{k+2}\)
(C) \(\frac{3 V}{3k+2}\)
(D) \(\frac{4 V}{2k+3}\)
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 8 Electrostatics 108

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics

Question 1.
Name the various theories of the nature of light.
Answer:
The various theories of the nature of light from the 17th century to modern times are

  1. Descartes’ corpuscular theory of light (1637)
  2. Newton’s corpuscular theory (1666)
  3. Huygens’ wave theory of light propagation (1678), modified, verified, and put on a firm mathematical base by Young, Fraunhofer, Fresnel, and Kirchhoff (in the 1800s)
  4. Maxwell’s electromagnetic theory (1865)
  5. the light quantum, i.e., the photon model of the modern quantum theory by Planck (1900) and Einstein (1905).

Question 2.
State the postulates of Newton’s corpuscular theory of light.
Answer:
Sir Isaac Newton developed the corpuscular theory of light proposed by Rene’ Descartes (1596-1650), French philosopher and mathematician. The theory assumed that light consists of a stream of corpuscles emitted by a luminous source.
Postulates of Newton’s corpuscular theory of light:

  1. Light corpuscles are minute, light and perfectly elastic particles.
  2. A luminous source emits light corpuscles in all directions which then travel at high speed in straight lines in a given medium.
  3. The constituent colours of white light are due to different sizes of the corpuscles.
  4. The light corpuscles stimulate the sense of sight on their impact on the retina of the eye.
  5. A reflective surface exerts a force of repulsion normal to the surface on the light corpuscles when they strike the surface.
  6. A transparent medium exerts a force of attraction normal to the surface on the light corpuscles striking the surface. This force is different for different mediums.

Notes :

  1. A consequence of the assumption (6) is that, according to the corpuscular theory, the speed of light in a denser medium is greater than that in air and has different values for different mediums.
  2. It was known from earliest recorded times that when light is incident on the surface of glass or water, it is partly reflected and partly transmitted, simultaneously. To explain this, Newton postulated that the corpuscles must have fits of easy reflection and fits of easy transmission and must pass periodically from one state to the other.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics

Question 3.
State the drawbacks of Newton’s corpuscular theory of light.
Answer:
Drawbacks of Newton’s corpuscular theory of light:

  1. The theory predicted that the speed of light in a
    denser medium should be greater than that in air. This was disproved when experiment showed that the speed of light in water is less than that in air (carried out in 1850 by French physicist Jean Bernard Leon Foucault). ,
  2. The theory could not satisfactorily explain the phenomenon of polarization and the simultaneousness of reflection and refraction.
  3. The corpuscular theory failed to explain the phenomena of diffraction and interference.
  4. There was no basis for the hypothesis that the constituent colours of white light are due to different sized corpuscles.

Question 4.
What is a ray of light?
Answer:
A ray of light is the path along which light energy is transmitted from one point to another in an optical system.

Question 5.
What is meant by ray optics or geometrical optics?
Answer:
The formation of

  1. shadows, and
  2. images by mirrors and lenses can be explained by assuming that light propagates in a straight line in terms of rays. The study of optical phenomena under this assumption is called ray optics. It is also called geometrical optics as geometry is used in this study.

Question 6.
Give a brief account of Huygens’ wave theory of light. State its merits and demerits.
Answer:
Huygens’ wave theory of light [Christiaan Huygens (1629-95), Dutch physicist] :

  1. Light emitted by a source propagates in the form of waves. Huygens’ original theory assumed them to be longitudinal waves.
  2. In a homogeneous isotropic medium, light from a point source spreads by spherical waves.
  3. It was presumed that a wave motion needed a medium for its propagation. Hence, the theory postulated a medium called luminiferous ether that exists everywhere, in vacuum as well as in transparent bodies. Ether had to be assigned some extraordinary properties, a high modulus of elasticity (to account for the high speed of light), zero density (so that it offers no resistance to planetary motion) and perfect transparency.
  4. The different colours of light are due to different wavelengths.

Merits :

  1. Huygens’ wave theory satisfactorily explains reflection and refraction as well as their simultaneity.
  2. In explaining refraction, the theory concludes that the speed of light in a denser medium is less than that in a rarer medium, in agreement with experimental findings.
  3. The theory was later used by Young in 1800-04, Fraunhofer and Fresnel in 1814 to satisfactorily explain interference, diffraction and rectilinear propagation of light. The phenomenon of polarization could also be explained considering the light waves to be transverse.

Demerits :

  1. It was found much later that the hypothetical medium, luminiferous ether, has no experimental basis. Einstein discarded the idea of ether completely in 1905.
  2. Phenomena like absorption and emission of light, photoelectric effect and Compton effect, cannot be explained on the basis of the wave theory.

[Note: To decide between the particle and wave theories of light, Dominique Francois Jean Arago (1786-1853), French physicist, suggested the measurement of the speed of light in air and water. The experiment was performed in 1850 by Leon Foucault (1819-68), French physicist, using Arago’s experimental equipment. He found that the speed of light in water is less than that in air.]

Question 7.
What is meant by wave optics?
Answer:
It is not possible to explain certain phenomena of light, such as interference, diffraction and polarization, with the help of ray optics (geometrical optics). The branch of optics which uses wave nature of light to explain these optical phenomena is called wave optics.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics

Question 8.
What was Maxwell’s concept of light?
Answer:
In 1865, James Clerk Maxwell developed a mathematical theory on the intimate relationship between electricity and magnetism. His theory predicted light to be a high-frequency transverse electromagnetic wave in ether. Electric and magnetic fields in the wave vary periodically in space and time at right angles to each other and to the direction of propagation of the wave.

The speed of the electromagnetic waves in a medium, as calculated on the basis of Maxwell’s theory, was experimentally found to be equal to the measured speed of light in that medium. Maxwell’s electromagnetic theory of light, with addition by others till 1896, could account for all the known phenomena regarding the propagation (or transmission) of light through space and through matter.

Question 9.
What is the photon model or quantum hypothesis of light ?
Answer:
To explain the interaction of light and matter (as in the emission or absorption of radiation), Max Planck, in 1900, and Einstein, in 1905, hypothesized light as concentrated or localized packets of energy. Such an energy packet is called a quantum of energy, which was given the name photon much later, in 1926, by Frithiof Wolfers and Gilbert Newton Lewis. For a radiation of frequency v, a quantum of energy is hv, where h is a universal constant, now called Planck’s constant.

[Note : ‘Localisation’ of energy in a region gives light its particle nature while frequency is a wave characteristic. The complementary properties of particle and wave of light quanta are reconciled as follows : light propagates as wave but interacts with matter as particle.]

Question 10.
Give a brief account of the wave nature of light.
Answer:

  1. Light is a transverse, electromagnetic wave.
  2. A light wave consists of oscillating electric and magnetic fields that are perpendicular to each other and also perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave.
  3. Like all other electromagnetic waves, light waves do not require any material medium as they can travel even through vacuum.
  4. In a material medium, the speed of light depends on the refractive index of the medium, which, in turn depends on the permeability and permittivity of the medium.

Question 11.
Define absolute refractive index of a medium.
Answer:
The absolute refractive index of a medium is defined as the ratio of the speed of light in vacuum to the speed of light in the medium.
[Note : Absolute refractive index of a medium (n) =
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 1
The absolute refractive index of vacuum is 1 (by definition) and that of air is greater than 1, but very nearly equal to 1.]

Question 12.
State the characteristics of the electromagnetic waves.
Answer:

  1. The electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature as they propagate by oscillating electric and magnetic fields that are perpendicular to each other and also perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave.
  2. These waves do not require any material medium for their propagation, i.e., they can travel even through vacuum.
  3. The wavelength of the electromagnetic waves ranges from very small (< 1 fm) to very large (> 1 km). The waves are classified in the order of increasing wavelength as γ-rays, X rays, ultraviolet, visible, infrared, microwave and radio waves.
  4. In vacuum, the speed of electromagnetic waves does not depend on the frequency of the wave. But, in a material medium, it depends on the frequency. For a given frequency, the speed is different in different mediums.
    [Note : 1 fm (femtometre) = 10-15 m]

Question 13.
Define and explain :
(a) a wave normal
(b) a ray of light.
Answer:
(a) Wavenormal: A wave normal at a point on a wavefront is defined as a line drawn perpendicular to the wavefront in the direction of propagation of the wavefront.

In a homogeneous isotropic medium, a wavefront moves parallel to itself. Thus, at any point in the medium, the direction in which the wavefront moves is always perpendicular to the wavefront at that point. This direction is given by the wave normal at that point.

(b) Ray of light: The direction in which light is propagated is called a ray of light.

This term (ray of light) is also used to mean a narrow beam of light waves. Only in a homogeneous isotropic medium is a ray of light the same as a wave normal. For spherical wavefronts spreading out from a point source, the rays are radially divergent. The rays corresponding to a plane’ wavefront form a parallel beam.

Question 14.
What is a cylindrical wavefront? Draw the corresponding diagram.
Answer:
Cylindrical wavefront: An extended linear source, such as an aperture in the form of a narrow slit, gives rise to cylindrical wavefronts. All the points equidistant from the source lie on the curved surface of a cylinder. Thus, the shape of the wavefront is cylindrical.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 2

Question 15.
What is a plane wavefront? Draw the corresponding diagram.
Answer:
Plane wavefront: It may be treated as a part of a spherical or cylindrical wavefront at a very great distance from the source, such that the wavefront has a negligible curvature.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 3

Question 16.
Draw a neat labelled diagram illustrating spherical wavefronts corresponding to a diverging beam of light.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 4
Note : Lenses can be used to obtain

  1. a converging beam of light
  2. a diverging beam of light.

Question 17.
State Huygens’ principle.
Answer:
Huygens’ principle : Every point on a wavefront acts as a secondary source of light and sends out secondary wavelets in all directions. The secondary wavelets travel with the speed of light in the medium. These wavelets are effective only in the forward direction and not in the backward direction. At any instant, the forward-going envelope or the surface of tangency to these wavelets gives the position of the new wavefront at that instant.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics

Question 18.
Explain the construction and propagation of a plane wavefront using Huygens’ principle.
Answer:
Huygens’ construction nf a plane wavefront: A plane wavefront may be treated as a part of a spherical or cylindrical wave at a very great distance from a point source or an extended source, such that the wavefront has a negligible curvature. Let A, B, C, D, …, be points on a plane wavefront in a homogeneous isotropic medium in which the speed of light, taken to be monochromatic, is v.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 5
In a time, t = T, secondary wavelets with points A, B, C, D,…, as secondary sources travel a distance vT. To find the position of the wavefront after a time t = T, we draw spheres of radii vT with A, B, C,…, as centres. The envelope or the surface of tangency to these spheres is a plane A’B’C’. This plane, the new wavefront, is at a perpendicular distance vT from the original wavefront in the direction of propagation of the wave. Thus, in an isotropic medium, plane wavefronts are propagated as planes.

Question 19.
Explain the construction and propagation of a spherical wavefront using Huygens’ principle.
Answer:
Huygens’ construction of a spherical wavefront: Consider a point source of monochromatic light S in a homogeneous isotropic medium. The light waves travel with the same speed v in all directions. After time f, the wave will reach all the points which are at a distance vt from S. This is spherical wavefront XY. Let, A, B, C, …,, be points on this wavefront.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 6
To find the new wavefront after time T, we draw spheres of radius vT with A, B, C,…, as centres. The envelope or the surface of tangency of these spheres is the surface A’B’C’. This is the new spherical wavefront X’Y’. Thus, in an isotropic medium, spherical wavefronts are propagated as concentric spheres.

Question 20.
Suppose a parallel beam of monochromatic light is incident normally at a boundary separating two media. Explain what happens to the wavelength and frequency of the light as it propagates from medium 1 to medium 2. What happens when the medium 1 is vacuum ?
Answer:
Consider a parallel beam of monochromatic light incident normally on interface PQ separating a rarer medium (medium 1) and a denser medium (medium 2).

The three successive wavefronts AB, CD and EF are separated by a distance λ1, the wavelength of light in first medium. The corresponding three wavefronts after refraction, are A’B’, C’D’ and E’F’. Due to the denser medium, the speed of light reduces and hence the wavefronts cover a less distance than that covered in the same time in the first medium. Thus, the wavefronts are comparitively more closely spaced than in the first medium. This distance between successive wavefronts is λ2, the wavelength of light in the second medium. Thus, λ2 is less than λ1,. To find the relation between λ1 and λ2, let us consider the wavefront AB reaching
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 7
PQ at time t = 0. The next wavefront CD, separated from AB by distance λ1, will reach PQ at time t = T. Let v1 and v2 be the speeds of light in medium 1 and medium 2 respectively. T is the time during which light covers distance λ1 in medium 1 and λ2 in medium 2.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 8
This shows how the wavelength of light changes in refraction.

If the first medium is vacuum where the wavelength of light is λ0 and n is the absolute refractive index of medium 2, then
λ2 = λ0\(\left(\frac{v_{2}}{c}\right)\) = \(\frac{\lambda_{0}}{n}\) (as v1 = c) …(3)
Now, speed = frequency × wavelength.
Hence, the ratio of the frequencies v1 and v2, of the wave in the two mediums can be written using
EQ. (2) as, \(\frac{v_{1}}{v_{2}}\) = \(\frac{v_{1} / \lambda_{1}}{v_{2} / \lambda_{2}}\) = 1 …(4)

Thus, the frequency of a wave remains unchanged while going from one medium to another. Thus, v0 = v1 = v2, where v0 is the frequency of light in vacuum.

Question 21.
The refractive indices of diamond and water with respect to air are 2.4 and 4/3 respectively. What is the refractive index of diamond with respect to water ?
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 9
is the refractive index of diamond with respect to water.

Question 22.
What is the refractive index of water with respect to diamond ? For data, see Question 21. above.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 10
is the refractive index of water with respect to diamond.

Question 23.
What happens to the frequency, wavelength and speed of light as it passes from one medium to another?
Answer:
The wavelength and speed of light change, but the frequency remains the same.

Question 24.
The refractive index of water with respect to air, for light of wavelength Aa in air, is 4/3. What is the wavelength of the light in water?
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 11
as the wavelength of the light in water.

Question 25.
If the frequency of certain light is 6 × 1014 Hz, what is its wavelength in free space ? [c = 3 × 108 m/s]
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 12
is the required wavelength.

Question 26.
If the wavelength of certain light in air is 5000 Å and that in a certain medium is 4000 Å, what is the refractive index of the medium with respect to air ?
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 13
is the refractive index of the medium with respect to air.

Data : c = 3 × 108 m/s

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics

Question 27.
Solve the following :

Question 1.
If the refractive index of glass is 3/2 and that of water is 4/3 respectively, find the speed of light in glass and in water.
Solution:
Let ng and nw be the refractive indices of glass and water respectively. Also let va, vg and vw be the speeds of light in air, glass and water, respectively.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 14

Question 2.
The refractive indices of water and diamond are 4/3 and 2.42 respectively. Find the speed of light in water and diamond.
Solution :
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 15
This is the speed of light in diamond.

Question 3.
The refractive indices of glass and water with respect to air are \(\frac{3}{2}\) and \(\frac{4}{3}\), respectively. Determine the refractive index of glass with respect to water.
Solution :
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 16
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 25
This is the refractive index of glass with respect to water.

Question 4.
A diamond (refractive index = 2.42) is dipped into a liquid of refractive index 1.4. Find the refractive index of diamond with respect to the liquid.
Solution :
Data : nd = 2.42, n1 = 1.4
The refractive index of diamond with respect to liquid,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 26

Question 5.
The refractive index of glycerine is 1.46. What is the speed of light in glycerine ? [Speed of light in vacuum = 3 × 108 m/s]
Solution :
Data : ng = 1.46, c = 3 × 108 m/s c
ng = \(\frac{c}{v}\)
v = \(\frac{c}{n}\) = \(\frac{3 \times 10^{8}}{1.46}\) = 2.055 × 108 m/s
This is the speed of light in glycerine.

Question 6.
The refractive indices of glycerine and diamond with respect to air are 1.46 and 2.42 respectively. Calculate the speed of light in glycerine and in diamond. From these calculate the refractive index of diamond with respect to glycerine.
Solution:
Let ng and nd be the refractive indices of glycerine and diamond respectively. Also, let va, vg and vd be the speeds of light in air, glycerine and diamond respectively.
Data : va = 3 × 108 m/s, ng = 1.46, nd = 2.42
(i) Refractive index of glycerine with respect to air,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 27

(ii) Refractive index of diamond with respect to air,
nd = \(\frac{v_{\mathrm{a}}}{v_{\mathrm{d}}}\)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 28

(iii) Refractive index of diamond with respect to glycerine,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 29

Question 7.
The wavelengths of a certain light in air and in a medium are 4560 Å and 3648 Å, respectively. Compare the speed of light in air with its speed in the medium.
Solution:
Let va and vm be the speeds of light in air and in the medium respectively and let λa and λm be the wavelengths of light in air and in the medium respectively. Let v be the frequency of light in air.
When light passes from one medium to another, its frequency remains unchanged.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 30

Question 8.
Monochromatic light of wavelength 632.8 nm is incident from air on a water surface. What are the wavelength, frequency and speed of (a) reflected and (b) refracted light ? [Given : Refractive index of water = 1.33]
Solution:
Let v be the frequency of the light, and λ1 and λ2 the wavelengths of reflected and refracted light respectively.
Data : λ1 = 632.8 nm = 632.8 × 10-9 m,
c = 3 × 108 m/s, anw = 1.33
(a) For reflected light:
When the wave travels in air, its speed v1 = c
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 31

(b) For refracted light:
Frequency does not change while going from one medium to other.
∴ V = 4.741 × 1014 Hz
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 32
This is the speed of the light in water.

Question 9.
The refractive indices of water for red and violet colours are 1.325 and 1.334, respectively. Find the difference between the speeds of the rays of these two colours in water. [c = 3 × 108 m/s]
Solution :
Data : nr = 1.325, nv = 1.334, c = 3 × 108 m/s
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 33

Question 10.
If the difference in speeds of light in glass and water is 2.505 × 107 m/s, find the speed of light in air. [Refractive index of glass = 1.5, refractive index of water = 1.333]
Solution :
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 34
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 35
This is the speed of light in air.

Question 11.
If the difference in speeds of light in glass and water is 0.25 × 108 m/s, find the speed of light in air. [ng = 1.5 and nw = \(\frac{4}{3}\)]
Solution :
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 36
∴ The speed of light in air, c = 12 (nw – vg)
= 12 × 0.25 × 108
= 3 × 108 m/s

Question 12.
Red light of wavelength 6400 Å in air has wavelength 4000 Å in glass. If the wavelength of violet light in air is 4400 Å, what is its wavelength in glass? Assume that the glass has the same refractive index for red and violet colours.
Solution :
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 37
[ Note : This problem was asked in Board examination in October 2014. The assumption nr(glass) = nv(glass) is manifestly gross. No glass can have the same refractive index for red and violet colours.]

Question 13.
A ray of light passes from air to glass. If the angle of incidence is 74° and the angle of refraction is 37°, find the refractive index of the glass.
Solution :
Data : i = 74°, r = 37°
n = \(\frac{\sin i}{\sin r}\) = \(\frac{\sin 74^{\circ}}{\sin 37^{\circ}}\) = \(\frac{0.9613}{0.6018}\)
∴ n = 1.597
This is the refractive index of the glass.

Question 14.
A ray of light is incident on a glass slab making an angle of 30° with the surface. Calculate the angle of refraction in glass and the speed of light in glass. The refractive index of glass and speed of light in air are 1.5 and 3 × 108 m/s, respectively. Solution :
Data : vair = 3 × 108 m/s; n = 1.5
The angle of incidence (i) is the angle made by the incident ray with the normal drawn to the refracting surface.
∴ i = 90° – 30° = 60°
(a) Angle of refraction (r) in glass :
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 38

(b) Speed of light (vglass) in glass :
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 39

Question 15.
A ray of light is incident on a water surface of refractive index \(\frac{4}{3}\) making an angle of 40° with the surface. Find the angle of refraction.
Solution :
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 40
∴ The angle of refraction, r = sin-1(0.5745) = 35°4′

Question 16.
A ray of light travelling in air is incident on a glass slab making an angle of 30° with the surface. Calculate the angle by which the refracted ray in glass is deviated from its original path and the speed of light in glass [Refractive index of glass = 1.5].
Solution:
Solve for the speed (ug) of light in glass and the angle of refraction (r) in glass as in Solved Problem (14). ug = 2 × 108 m/s and r = 35°16′
The angle of incidence (z), i.e., the angle between the incident ray and the normal to the glass surface, is i = 90° – 30° = 60°.
Hence, the angle by which the refracted ray is deviated from the original path is δ = i – r = 60° – 35°16′ = 24°44′

Question 17.
The wavelength of blue light in air is 4500 A. What is its frequency? If the refractive index of glass for blue light is 1.55, what will be the wavelength of blue light in glass ?
Solution :
Data : λa = 4500 Å = 4.5 × 10-7 m, ng = 1.55, va = 3 × 108 m/s
va = vaλa
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 41
This is the wavelength of blue light in glass.

Question 18.
White light consists of wavelengths from 400 nm to 700 nm. What will be the wavelength range seen when white light is passed through glass of refractive index 1.55 ?
Solution:
Let λ1 and λ2 be the wavelengths of light in water for 400 nm and 700 nm (wavelengths in vacuum) respectively. Let λa be the wavelength of light in vacuum.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 42
The wavelength range seen when white light is passed through the glass would be 258.06 nm to 451.61 nm.

Question 19.
Determine the change in wavelength of electro-magnetic radiation as it passes from air to glass, if the refractive index of glass with respect to air for the radiation under consideration is 1.5 and the frequency of the radiation is 3.5 × 1014 Hz. [Speed of the radiation in air (c) = 3 × 108 m/s]
Solution:
Let v be the frequency of the electromagnetic radiation and c its speed in air. Let λa and λb be the wavelengths of the radiation in air and glass, respectively.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 43

Question 20.
Determine the change in wavelength of light during its passage from air to glass, if the refractive index of glass with respect to air is 1.5 and the frequency of light is 5 × 1014 Hz. [Speed of light in air = (c) = 3 × 108 m/s] Solution:
Let v be the frequency of the electromagnetic radiation and c its speed in air. Let λa and λb be the wavelengths of the radiation in air and glass, respectively.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 43
λa = 6000 Å, λg = 4000 Å ∴ λa – λg = 2000 Å

Question 21.
A light beam of wavelength 6400 Å is incident normally on the surface of a glass slab of thickness 5 cm. Its wavelength in glass is 4000 A. The beam of light takes the same time to travel from the source to the surface as it takes to travel through the glass slab. Calculate the distance of the source from the surface.
Solution :
Data : λa = 6400 Å, sg = thickness of the glass slab = 5 cm, λg = 4000 Å
The speeds of light in glass and air are, respectively, vg = λgv and va = λav
where the frequency of the light v remains un-changed with the change of medium.
The time taken to travel through the glass slab,
tg = \(\frac{\mathrm{Sg}}{v_{\mathrm{g}}}\) = \(\frac{S_{g}}{\lambda_{g} v}\)
The time taken to travel through air,
ta = \(\frac{S_{a}}{v_{a}}\) = \(\frac{d}{\lambda_{\mathrm{a}} v}\)
where sa = d is the distance of the glass surface from the source.
Since ta = tg
\(\frac{d}{\lambda_{\mathrm{a}} v}\) = \(\frac{s_{\mathrm{g}}}{\lambda_{\mathrm{g}} v}\)
∴ d = \(\frac{\lambda_{\mathrm{a}}}{\lambda_{\mathrm{g}}} \mathrm{s}_{\mathrm{g}}\)Sg = \(\frac{6400}{4000}\) × 5 = 1.6 × 5 = 8 cm

Question 22.
A parallel beam of monochromatic light is incident on a glass slab at an angle of incidence 60°. Find the ratio of the width of the beam in glass to that in air if the refractive index of glass is \(\frac{3}{2}\).
Data: i = 60, ang = 1.5
By Snell’s law, ang = \(\frac{\sin i}{\sin r}\) ∴ sin r = \(\frac{\sin i}{\mathrm{a} n_{\mathrm{g}}}\)
Solution:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 44

Question 23.
The width of a plane incident wavefront is found to be doubled in a denser medium if it makes an angle of 70° with the surface. Calculate the refractive index for the denser medium.
Solution :
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 44
Data : i = 70°, \(\frac{\mathrm{CD}}{\mathrm{AB}}\) = 2
\(\frac{\cos r}{\cos i}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{CD}}{\mathrm{AB}}\) = 2
∴ cos r = 2 cos 70° = 2 × 0.3420 = 0.6840
∴ r = cos-10.6840 = 46°51′
The refractive index of the denser medium relative to the rarer medium
= \(\frac{\sin i}{\sin r}\) = \(\frac{\sin 70^{\circ}}{\sin 46^{\circ} 51^{\prime}}\) = \(\frac{0.9397}{0.7296}\) = 1.288

Question 24.
A ray of light travelling through air falls on the surface of a glass slab at an angle i. It is found that the angle between the reflected and the refracted rays is 90°. If the speed of light in glass is 2 × 108 m/s, find the angle of incidence.
Solution :
Data : c = 3 × 108 m/s, vg = 2 × 108 m/s, angle between the reflected ray and the refracted ray = 90°
ng = \(\frac{c}{v_{g}}\) = \(\frac{3 \times 10^{8}}{2 \times 10^{8}}\) = 1.5
The angle between the reflected and refracted rays = (90° – i) + (90° – r) = 180° – (i + r) = 90° (by the data)
i + r = 90° ∴ r = 90° – i
∴ sin r = sin(90° – i) = cos i
ng = \(\frac{\sin i}{\sin r}\) = \(\frac{\sin i}{\cos i}\) = tan i
∴ The angle of incidence,
i = tan-1 ng = tan-1 1.5 = 56°19′

Question 28.
What is meant by polarized light ? How does it differ from unpolarized light?
Answer:
According to the electromagnetic theory of light, a light wave consists of electric and magnetic fields vibrating at right angles to each other and to the direction of propagation of the wave. If the vibrations of the electric field \(\vec{E}\) in a light wave are confined to a single plane containing the direction of propagation of the wave so that its electric field is restricted along one particular direction at right angles to the direction of propagation of the wave, the wave is said to be plane-polarized or linearly polarized.

If the vibrations of \(\vec{E}\) in a light wave are in all directions perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the light wave, the light wave is said to be unpolarized. Ordinary light, e.g. that emitted by a bulb, is unpolarized.

According to Biot, unpolarized light may be considered as a superposition of many linearly polarized waves, with random orientations. Also, these component waves are noncoherent, that is, irregular in their phase relationships.

[Note : Ordinary light consists of wave trains, each coming from a separate atom in the source. A beam of ordinary light in a single direction consists of millions of such wave trains from the very large number of atoms in the source radiating in that direction. Hence, the vibrations of \(\vec{E}\) are in all transverse directions with equal probability. Thus, light from an ordinary source is.un-polarized.]

Question 29.
How are polarized light and unpolarized light represented in a ray diagram ?
OR
How will you distinguish between polarized and unpolarized light in a ray diagram?
Answer:
Linearly polarized light is represented in a ray diagram by double-headed arrows or short lines drawn perpendicular to the direction of propagation of light, as shown in below figure.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 45
An unpolarized light beam is represented by both dots and arrows, as shown in above figure. The dots are the ‘end views’ of arrows that are oriented normal to the plane of the diagram.

[Note : The length of an arrow or line represents the amplitude of the electric field (\(\vec{E}\)) in the plane of the diagram and the direction indicates the polarization axis of the beam, i.e., the direction of vibration of \(\vec{E}\). According to Jean Biot (1774-1862), French physicist, unpolarized light may be considered as a superposition of many linearly polarized waves, with random orientations in planes perpendicular to the direction of propagation. In an analytical treatment, the electric vectors may be resolved along two mutually perpendicular directions so that the multiplicity of vectors in can be replaced by the two mutually perpendicular vectors as in, both perpendicular to the direction of
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 46
propagation of light. Sir David Brewster (1781-1868), British physicist, conceived the ordinary unpolarized light to consist of two perpendicular, polarized components of equal intensity.]

Question 30.
What is a polarizer?
Answer:
When a beam of unpolarized light is passed through certain types of materials (or devices), these materials (or devices) allow only those light waves to pass through which have their electric field along a particular direction. All the other waves with the electric field in other directions are blocked. A material (or a device) which exhibits this special property is called a polarizer.

Question 31.
Explain the terms :

  1. polarizing axis of a polarizer
  2. plane of vibration
  3. plane of polarization.

Answer:

  1. Polarizing axis of a polarizer : When unpolarized light is incident on a polarizer, the particular direction along which the electric field of the emergent wave is oriented is called the polarizing axis of the polarizer.
  2. Plane of vibration : The plane of vibration of an electromagnetic wave is the plane of vibration of the electric field vector containing the direction of propagation of the wave. Experiment shows that it is the electric field vector E which produces the optical polarization effects.
  3. Plane of polarization : The plane of polarization of an electromagnetic wave is defined as the plane perpendicular to the plane of vibration. It is the plane containing the magnetic field vector and the direction of propagation of the wave.
    Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 47

Note :
For vision, photography, action of light on electrons and many other observed effects of light, it is the electric vector that is more important than the magnetic one. Hence, nowadays the plane of polarization is taken to be the plane of vibration. Most authoritative; modern books on Optics do not, therefore, explicitly define the plane of vibration. The above convention is obsolete and redundant.

Question 32.
What is a Polaroid? Explain its construction.
Answer:
A Polaroid is a synthetic dichroic sheet polarizer packed with tiny dichroic crystals oriented parallel to each other such that the transmitted light is plane polarized.

Construction : The first large polarizing sheet filter was made by US inventor Edwin H. Land (1909-91). He used the microscopic needlelike crystals of iodoquinine sulphate (known as herapathite) made into a thick colloidal dispersion in nitrocellulose. This material was squeezed through a long narrow slit which forced the needles to orient parallel to one another. The material was then dried to form a solid plastic sheet.

[Note : The modern version of Polaroid is made from long-chain polymer, polyvinyl alcohol. The transmission axis of a Polaroid is the plane of vibration of a plane polarized light which passes through with minimum absorption.]

If the vibrations of the electric field \(\vec{E}\) in a light wave are confined to a single plane containing the direction of propagation of the wave so that its electric field is restricted along one particular direction at right angles to the direction of propagation of the wave, the wave is said to be plane-polarized or linearly polarized.

This phenomenon of restricting the vibrations of light, i.e., of the electric field vector in a particular direction, which is perpendicular to the direction of the propagation of the wave is called polarization of light.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 48

Consider an unpolarized light wave travelling along the x-direction. Let c, v and λ be the speed, frequency and wavelength, respectively, of the wave. The magnitude of its electric field (\(\vec{E}\)) is,
E = E0 sin (kx – ωt), where E0 = Emax = amplitude of the wave, ω = 2πv = angular frequency of the wave and k = \(\frac{2 \pi}{\lambda}\) = magnitude of the wave vector or propagation vector.
The intensity of the wave is proportional to |E0|2. The direction of the electric field can be anywhere in the y-z plane. This wave is passed through two identical polarizers as shown.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 49

When a wave with its electric field inclined at an angle φ to the axis of the first polarizer is passed through the polarizer, the component E0 cos φ will pass through it. The other component E0 sin φ which is perpendicular to it will be blocked.

Now, after passing through this polarizer, the intensity of this wave will be proportional to the square of its amplitude, i.e., proportional to |E0 cos φ|2.

The intensity of the plane-polarized wave emerging from the first polarizer can be obtained by averaging E0 cos φ|2 over all values of φ between 0 and 180°. The intensity of the wave will be
proportional to \(\frac{1}{2}\) |E0|2 as the average value of cos2 φ over this range is \(\frac{1}{2}\). Thus the intensity of an unpolarized wave reduces by half after passing through a polarizer.

When the plane-polarized wave emerges from the first polarizer, let us assume that its electric field (\(\overrightarrow{E_{1}}\)) is along the y-direction. Thus, this electric field is,
\(\overrightarrow{E_{1}}\) = \(\hat{i}\)E10 sin (kx – ωt) … (1)
where, E10 is the amplitude of this polarized wave. The intensity of the polarized wave,
I1 ∝|E10|2 …(2)

Now this wave passes through the second polarizer whose polarization axis (transmission axis) makes an angle θ with the y-direction. This allows only the component E10 cos θ to pass through it. Thus, the amplitude of the wave which passes through the second polarizer is E20 = E10 cos θ and its intensity,
I2 ∝|E20|2
∴ I2 ∝ | E10|2 cos2 θ
∴ I2 = I1 cos2 θ … (3)

Thus, when plane-polarized light of intensity I1 is incident on the second identical polarizer, the intensity of light transmitted by the second polarizer varies as cos2 θ, i.e., I2 = I1 cos2 θ, where θ is the angle between the transmission axes of the two polarizers. This is known as Malus’ law.

[Note : Etienne Louis Malus (1775-1812), French military engineer and physicist, discovered in 1809 that light can be polarized by reflection. He was the first to use the word polarization, but his arguments were based on Newton’s corpuscular theory.]

Question 33.
Unpolarized light is passed through two polarizers. Under what condition is the intensity of the emergent light
(i) maximum
(ii) zero?
Answer:
If the angle θ between the axes of polarization of the two polarizers, is 0°, i.e., the polarization axes of the two polarizers are parallel, the intensity of emergent light is maximum. If θ = 90°, i.e., the polarization axes of the two polarizers are perpendicular, no light emerges from the second polarizer, thus the intensity of emergent light is minimum.
[Note: θ = 0° and 90° are known as parallel and cross settings of the two polarizers.]

Question 34.
With a neat labelled diagram, explain the use of a pair of polarizers to vary the intensity of light. What are crossed polarizers?
Answer:
Consider an unpolarized light beam incident perpendicularly on the first polarizing sheet, called the polarizer, whose transmission axis is vertical, say. The light emerging from this sheet is polarized vertically, and the transmitted electric field is \(\overrightarrow{E_{0}}\).

The polarized light beam then passes through a second polarizing sheet, called the analyser, which is placed parallel to the polarizer with its transmission axis at an angle θ to the transmission axis of the polarizer. The component of \(\overrightarrow{E_{0}}\) which is perpendicular to the axis of the analyser is completely absorbed, and the component parallel to that axis is E0 cos θ.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 50
Since intensity varies as the square of the amplitude, the transmitted intensity varies as I = I0 cos2 θ

where I0 is the incident light intensity on the analyser. This expression (known as Malus’s law) shows that the transmitted intensity is maximum when the transmission axes are parallel and zero when the transmission axes are perpendicular to each other.

Crossed polarizers are a pair of polarizers with their transmission axes perpendicular to each other so that the transmitted light intensity is zero.

Question 35.
If the angle made by the axis of polarization of the second polarizer to that of the first polarizer is 60°, what can you say about the intensity of the light transmitted by the second polarizer?
Answer:
If I1 is the intensity of the light incident on the second polarizer and I2 is the intensity of the light transmitted by the second polarizer,
I2 = I1 cos2 θ = I1 cos2 60°
= I1\(\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{2}\)
= \(\frac{\boldsymbol{I}_{1}}{4}\)

Question 36.
If 75% of incident light is transmitted by the second polarizer, what is the angle made by the transmission axis of the second polarizer to the transmission axis of the first polarizer?
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 51

Question 37.
Explain the phenomenon of polarization of light by reflection.
Answer:
Consider a ray of unpolarized monochromatic light incident at an angle θB on a boundary between two transparent media as shown. Medium 1 is a rarer medium with refractive index n1 and medium 2 is a denser medium with refractive index n2. Part of incident light gets refracted and the rest
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 52
gets reflected. The degree of polarization of the reflected ray varies with the angle of incidence.

The electric field of the incident wave is in the plane perpendicular to the direction of propagation of incident light. This electric field can be resolved into a component parallel to the plane of the paper, shown by double arrows, and a component perpendicular to the plane of the paper shown by dots, both having equal magnitude. Generally, the reflected and refracted rays are partially polarized, i.e., the two components do not have equal magnitude.

In 1812, Sir David Brewster discovered that for a particular angle of incidence. θB, the reflected wave is completely plane-polarized with its electric field perpendicular to the plane of the paper while the refracted wave is partially polarized. This particular angle of incidence (θB) is called the Brewster angle.

For this angle of incidence, the refracted and reflected rays are perpendicular to each other. For angle of refraction θr,
θB + θr = 90° …… (1)
From Snell’s law of refraction,
∴ n1 sin θB = n2 sin θr … (2)
From Eqs. (1) and (2), we have,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 53
This is called Brewster’s law.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics

Question 38.
Define polarizing angle. At the polarizing angle, what is the plane of polarization of the reflected ray ?
Answer:
Polarizing angle : The polarizing angle for an interface is the angle of incidence for a ray of unpolarized light at which the reflected ray is completely polarized.

At the polarizing angle, the reflected ray is completely plane polarized in the plane of incidence.

Question 39.
Give one example in which polarization by reflection is used.
Answer:
Polarization by reflection is used to cut out glare from nonmetallic surfaces. Special sunglasses are used for this purpose. Sunglasses fitted with Polaroids reduce the intensity of partially or completely polarized / reflected light incident on the eyes from reflecting surfaces.

Question 40.
State any four uses of a Polaroid.
Answer:

  1. A Polaroid lens filter makes use of polarization by reflection. This filter is used in photography to reduce or eliminate glare from reflective nonmetallic surfaces like glass, rock faces, water and foliage. It can also deepen the colour of the skies.
  2. Polaroid sunglasses reduce the transmitted intensity by a factor of one half and also reduce or eliminate glare from nonmetallic surfaces such as asphalt roadways and snow fields.
  3. Polaroid filters are used in liquid crystal display (LCD) screens.
  4. Polaroids are used to produce and show 3-D movies to give the viewer a perception of depth.

[Note :Three-dimensional movies are filmed from two slightly different camera locations and shown at the same time through two projectors fitted with polarizers having different transmission axes. The audience wear glasses which have two Polaroid filters whose transmission axes are the same as those on the projectors.]

Question 41.
Explain the phenomenon of polarization by scattering.
Answer:
When a beam of sunlight strikes air molecules or dust particles whose size is of the order of wavelength of light, the beam gets scattered. The scattered light observed in a direction perpendicular to the direction of incidence, is plane polarized. This phenomenon is called polarization by scattering.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 54
As shown in above figure, a beam of an un-polarized light is incident along the Z-axis on a molecule. Light waves being transverse in nature, all the possible directions of vibration of electric field vector in the unpolarized light are confined to the XY plane. The light incident on the molecule is scattered by the electromagnetic field of the molecule.

When observed along the X-axis, only the vibrations of electric field vector which are parallel to Y-axis can be seen. In the similar manner, when observed along the Y-axis, only the vibrations of electric field vector which are parallel to the X-axis can be seen. Thus, the light scattered in a direction perpendicular to the incident light is plane polarized.

Question 42.
Solve the following.

Question 1.
The angle between the transmission axes of two polarizers is 45°. What will be the ratio of the intensities of the original light and the transmitted light after passing through the second polarizer?
Solution :
Data : θ = 45°
According to Malus’ law,
I2 = I2 cos2 θ
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 55
= 2
This is the required ratio.

Question 2.
Two polarizers are so oriented that the maximum amount of light is transmitted. To what fraction of its maximum value is the intensity of the transmitted light reduced when the second polarizer is rotated through
(a) 300
(b) 600?
Solution:
Data : θ = 30°, 60°,
I2 = I2 cos2θ
where I1 is the intensity of the incident light and I2 is that of the transmitted light.
(i) For θ = 30°
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 56
I2 = 0.75 I1
= 75% of I1

(ii) For θ = 60°
I2 = I1 (cos 60°)2
= I1\(\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{2}\) = \(\frac{1}{4}\)I1
= 0.25 I1 = 25% of I1

Question 3.
For a glass plate as a polarizer with refractive index 1.633, calculate the angle of incidence at which reflected light is completely polarized.
Solution :
Data : n = 1.633
tan θB = n = 1.633
∴ The polarizing angle,
θB = tan-1 1.633 = 58°31′

Question 4.
Find the refractive index of glass if the angle of incidence at which the light reflected from the surface of the glass is completely polarized is 58°.
Solution :
Data : θB = 58°
ng = tan θB = tan 58° .
= 1.6003
This is the refractive index of the glass.

Question 5.
The critical angle for a glass-air interface is sin-1\(\frac{5}{8}\). A ray of unpolarized monochromatic light in air is incident on the glass. What is the polarizing angle?
Solution :
Data : θc = sin-1 \(\frac{5}{8}\)
∴ sin θc = \(\frac{5}{8}\)
∴ n = \(\frac{1}{\sin \theta_{\mathrm{c}}}\) = \(\frac{8}{5}\) = 1.6
Also, n = tan θB
∴ θB = tan-1 n
∴ The polarizing angle, θB = tan-1 1.6 = 58°

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics

Question 6.
The refractive index of a medium is \(\sqrt{3}\). What is the angle of refraction, if the unpolarized light is incident on it at the polarizing angle of the medium?
Solution :
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 57
This is the angle of refraction.

Question 7.
For a given medium, the polarizing angle is 60°. What is the critical angle for this medium ?
Solution :
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 58
This is the critical angle for the medium.

Question 8.
Unpolarized light is incident on a plane glass surface. What should be the angle of incidence so that the reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular to each other? [Given n = 1.5]
Solution :
Data : Refractive index, n = 1.5
The reflected and refracted rays will be perpendicular to each other, when the angle of incidence = the polarizing angle θB,
tan θB = n = 1.5
∴ θB = tan-1 (1.5) = 56°19′

Question 9.
If a glass plate of refractive index 1.732 is to be used as a polarizer, what would be the
(i) polarizing angle and
(ii) angle of refraction?
Solution :
Data : ng = 1.732
ng = tan θB
0B = tan-1 (1.732) = 60°
This is the polarizing angle,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 59
∴ θr = sin-1\(\left(\frac{0.8660}{1.732}\right)\)
= sin-1 (0.5) = 30°
This is the angle of refraction.

Question 10.
For a certain unpolarized monochromatic light incident on glass and water, the polarizing angles are 59°32′ and 53°4′, respectively. What would be the polarizing angle for the light if it is incident from water on to the glass?
Solution:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 60

Question 11.
The wavelengths of a certain blue light in air and in water are 4800 Å and 3600 Å, respectively. Find the corresponding Brewster angle.
Solution:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 61
This is the Brewster angle for the given light incident on water surface.

Question 12.
A ray of light is incident on a glass slab at the polarizing angle of 58°. Calculate the change in the wavelength of light in glass.
Solution :
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 62
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 63
∴ The change in the wavelength of the light in glass, λa – λb = 0.37514λa, i.e., 37.51% of its wavelength in air.

Question 13.
For what angle of incidence will light incident on a bucket filled with liquid having refractive index 1.3 be completely polarized after reflection ?
Solution:
The reflected light will be completely polarized when the angle of incidence is equal to the Brewster’s angle which is given by θB = tan-1 \(\frac{n_{2}}{n_{1}}\), where n1 and n2 are refractive indices of the first and the second medium respectively. In this case, n1 = 1 and n2 = 1.3.
Thus, the required angle of incidence = Brewster’s angle = tan-1\(\frac{1.3}{1}\) = 52.26°

Question 43.
State and explain the principle of superposition of waves.
Answer:
Principle of superposition of waves : The dis-placement at a point due to the combined effect of a number of waves arriving simultaneously at the point is the vector sum of the displacements due to the individual waves arriving at the point.

Explanation : This is a general principle of linear systems applied to wave phenomena. When two or more wave trains arrive at a point simultaneously, they interpenetrate without disturbing each other. The resultant displacement at that point is the vector sum of the displacements due to the individual waves arriving at the point. The amplitude and phase angle of the resulting disturbance are functions of the individual amplitudes and phases.

Notes :

  1. In the case of mechanical waves, e.g., sound, the displacement is that of a vibrating particle of the medium.
  2. When we consider superposition of electromagnetic waves, light in this chapter, the term displacement refers to the electric field component of the electromagnetic wave.

Question 44.
Explain what you understand by interference of light.
Answer:
The phenomenon in which the superposition of two or more light waves produces a resultant disturbance of redistributed light intensity or energy is called the interference of light.

Light waves are transverse in nature. If two monochromatic light waves of the same frequency arrive in phase at a point, the crest of one wave coincides with the crest of the other and the trough of one wave coincides with the trough of the other. Therefore, the resultant amplitude and hence the resultant intensity of light at that point is maximum and the point is bright. This phenomenon is called constructive interference. If two light waves having the same amplitude are in opposite phase, the crest of one wave coincides with the trough of the other. Therefore, the resultant amplitude, and hence the intensity, at that point is minimum (zero) and the point is dark. This phenomenon is called destructive interference. If the amplitudes are unequal, the resultant amplitude is minimum, but not zero. At other points, the intensity of light lies between the maximum and zero.

Question 45.
Explain how the phenomenon of interference can be demonstrated in a ripple tank.
Answer:

  1. ‘Two pins, a small distance d apart, are attached to the electrical vibrator or an electrically maintained tuning fork of a ripple tank. The pins are kept vertical with their tips in contact with the surface of water in the ripple tank.
  2. When the vibrator is switched on, the two pins vibrate together in phase with the same frequency and the same amplitude. Their tips form the sources S1 and S2 of circular waves which spread outward along the water surface.
    Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 64
  3. The waves from the two sources interfere constructively at points where they meet in phase. Thus, where the crest of a wave from S1 is superposed on the crest of a wave from S2 (such as point A), and where the trough of a wave from S1 is superposed on the trough of a wave from S2 (such as point B), the water molecules have maximum amplitude of vibration.
  4. The waves from the two sources interfere destructively at points where they meet in opposite phase. Thus, where the crest of a wave from S1 is superposed on the trough of a wave from S2 (such as point C), and where the trough of a wave from S1 is superposed on the crest of a wave from S2 (such as point D), the water molecules have minimum amplitude of vibration.

Question 46.
What are coherent sources? Is it possible to observe interference pattern with light from any two different sources ? Why ?
Answer:
Coherent sources : Two sources of light are said to be coherent if the phase difference between the emitted waves remains constant.

It is not possible to observe interference pattern with light from any two different sources. This is because, no observable interference phenomenon occurs by superposing light from two different sources. This happens due to the fact that different sources emit waves of different frequencies. Even if the two sources emit light of the same frequency, the phase difference between the wave trains from them fluctuates randomly and rapidly, i.e., they are not coherent.

Consequently, the interference pattern will change randomly and rapidly, and steady interference pattern would not be observed.

Question 47.
State the conditions for constructive and destructive interference of light.
Answer:
(1) Constructive interference (brightness) : There is constructive interference at a point and the brightness or intensity is maximum there, if the two waves of light of the same frequency arrive at the point in phase, i.e., with a phase difference of zero or an integral multiple of 2π radians.
A phase difference of 2π radians corresponds to a path difference λ, where λ is the wavelength of light. Since

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 65
for constructive interference with maximum intensity of light, phase difference = 0, 2π, 4π, 6π, … rad
= n(2π) rad
or path difference = 0, λ, 2λ, 3λ, …, etc.
= nλ
where n = 0, 1, 2, 3, …, etc.

(2) Destructive interference (darkness) : There is destructive interference at a point and the point is the darkest, i.e., the intensity of light is minimum, if the two waves of light of the same frequency and intensity arrive at the point in opposite phase, i.e., with a phase difference of an odd-integral multiple of π radians. A phase difference 2π radians corresponds to a path difference λ, where λ is the wavelength of light.
∴ For destructive interference with minimum intensity of light, phase difference = π, 3π, 5π, … rad
= (2m – 1)π rad
or path difference = λ/2, 3λ/2, 5λ/2, …, etc.
= (2m – 1)\(\frac{\lambda}{2}\)
where m = 1, 2, 3, …, etc.

Question 48.
In Young’s double-slit experiment using light of wavelength 5000Å, what phase difference corresponds to the 11th dark fringe from the centre of the interference pattern?
Answer:
The required phase difference is (2m – 1)π rad = (2 × 11 – 1)π rad = 21π rad.

Question 49.
In Young’s double-slit experiment, if the path difference at a certain point on the screen is 2.999 λ, what can you say about the intensity of light at that point ?
Answer:
The intensity of light at that point will be close to the maximum intensity and the point will be nearly bright as the path difference = 2.999 λ \(\approx\) 3λ (integral multiple of λ).

Question 50.
In Young’s double-slit experiment, if the path difference at a certain point on the screen is 7.4999 λ, what can you say about the nature of the illumination at that point ?
Answer:
The point will be nearly dark as the path difference = 7.4999 λ \(\approx\) (8 – 0.5) λ, which is of the form
(m – \(\frac{1}{2}\))λ, where m = 1, 2, … …. 8

Question 51.
How is Young’s interference experiment performed using a single source of light?
Answer:
When a narrow slit is placed in front of an intense source of monochromatic light, cylindrical wave-fronts propagate from the slit. In Young’s experiment, two coherent sources are then obtained by wavefront splitting by placing a second screen with two narrow slits at a small distance from the first slit.

Question 52.
State any two points of importance of Young’s experiment to observe the interference of light.
Answer:
Importance of Young’s experiment observe the interference of light:

  1. It was the first experiment (1800-04) in which the interference of light was observed.
  2. This experiment showed that light is propagated in the form of waves.
  3. From this experiment, the wavelength of monochromatic light can be determined.

Question 53.
What is the nature of the interference pattern obtained using white light?
Answer:
With white light, one gets a white central fringe at the point of zero path difference along with a few coloured fringes on both the sides, the colours soon fade off to white.

The central fringe is white because waves of all wavelengths constructively interfere here. For a path difference of \(\frac{1}{2}\)λviolet, complete destructive interference occurs only for the violet colour; for waves of other wavelengths, there is only partial destructive interference. Consequently, we have a line devoid of violet colour and thus reddish in appearance. A point for which the path difference = \(\frac{1}{2}\)λred is similarly devoid of red colour, and appears violettish. Thus, following the white central fringe we have coloured fringes, from reddish to violettish. Beyond this, the fringes disappear because there are so many wavelengths in the visible region which constructively interfere that we observe practically uniform white illumination.

Question 54.
In Young’s double-slit experiment, the second minimum in the interference pattern is exactly in front of one slit. The distance between the two slits is d and that between the source and screen is D. What is the wavelength of the light used ?
Answer:
The distance of the mth minimum from the central fringe is,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 66
This is the wavelength of the light used.

Question 55.
In Young’s double-slit experiment, a glass slide of refractive index ng and thickness b is placed in front of one of the slits. What happens to the interference pattern and fringe width ? Derive an expression for the positions of the bright fringes in the interference pattern.
Answer:
Suppose, in Young’s double-slit experiment, a glass slide of refractive index ng and thickness b is placed in front of the slit S1.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 67

If the experiment is set up in free space, this introduces an additional optical path length (ng – 1)b in the path S1P.
Then, the optical path difference to the point P from S1 and S2 is,
∆l = S2P – [S1P + (ng – 1)b] = (S2P – S1P) – (ng – 1)b = y\(\frac{d}{D}\) – (ng – 1)b … (1)
where y = PO’, d is the distance between S1 and S2, and D is the distance of the screen from S1 and S2. Thus, point P will be bright (maximum intensity) if ∆l = nλ, where n = 0, 1, 2, … . The central bright fringe, corresponding to n = 0, will be obtained at a distance y0 from O’ such that,
∆l = yo\(\frac{d}{D}\) – (ng – 1)b = 0
∴ yo\(\frac{d}{D}\) = (ng – 1)b ∴ y0 = \(\frac{D}{d}\)(ng-l) b …(2)
Therefore, the central bright fringe and the interference pattern will shift up (towards P) by a distance y0 given by EQ. (2).
The distance of the nth bright fringe from O’ towards P is,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 68
The distance of the (n + l)th bright fringe from O’ towards P is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 69
Therefore, the fringe width,
w = yn+1 – yn = \(\frac{\lambda D}{d}\) ….(5)
Thus, the fringe width remains unchanged.

Question 56.
What happens to the interference pattern when the phase difference between the two sources of light changes with time ?
Answer:
If the two sources do not maintain their phase relation during the time required for observation, the intensity of light at any point on the screen and consequently the interference pattern changes rapidly, and hence steady interference pattern is not observed.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics

Question 57.
Obtain expressions in terms of electric field, for the resultant amplitude and the intensity for the interference pattern produced by monochromatic light waves from two coherent sources.
Answer:
Consider a two-source interference pattern produced by superposition of monochromatic light waves of angular frequency ω, wavelength λ and constant phase difference, φ. At the centre of a bright fringe, there is constructive interference. Here, the amplitude of the resultant wave is double the amplitude of the wave incident on AB. Now, the intensity is proportional to the square of the amplitude of the wave. Hence, the resultant intensity is, I = 4I0, where I0 is the intensity of the incident wave. At the centre of a dark fringe, there is destructive interference. Here, the amplitude of the resultant wave and hence the intensity is zero. At other points the intensity is between 4I0 and zero, depending on the phase difference.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 70
Let the equations of the two waves coming from S1 and S2 at some point in the interference pattern be, E1 = E2 sin ωt and E2 = E0 sin (ωt + φ) respectively, where E0 is the amplitude of the electric field vector.

By the principle of superposition of waves, the resultant electric field at that point is the algebraic sum, E = E1 + E2
∴ E = E0 sin ωt + E0 sin (ωt + φ)
= E0 [sin ωt + sin (ωt + φ)]
= 2E0 sin (ωt + φ/ 2) cos (φ/2)
The amplitude of the resultant wave is 2 E0 cos (φ/2).
Therefore, the intensity at that point is I ∝ |2 E0 cos (φ/2) |2
∴ I = 4I0 cos2 (φ/2)
as I0 ∝ |E0|2.

Question 58.
Monochromatic light waves of amplitudes E10 and E20 and a constant phase difference φ produce an interference pattern. State an expression for the resultant amplitude at a point in the pattern. Hence, deduce the conditions for
(i) constructive interference with maximum intensity
(ii) destructive interference with minimum intensity. Also show that the ratio of the maximum and minimum intensities is
\(\frac{I_{\max }}{I_{\min }}\) = \(\left(\frac{\boldsymbol{E}_{10}+\boldsymbol{E}_{20}}{\boldsymbol{E}_{10}-\boldsymbol{E}_{20}}\right)^{2}\)
Answer:
Consider a two-source interference pattern produced by monochromatic light waves of angular frequency ω, wavelength λ, amplitudes E10 and E20 and a constant phase difference φ.

Let the individual electric fields along the same line due to the waves at some point in the interference pattern be
E1 = E10 sin ωt and E2 = E20 sin (ωt + φ)
By the principle of superposition of waves, the resultant electric field (displacement) at that point is the algebraic sum
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 71
Since, the intensity of a wave is proportional to the square of its amplitude, the resultant intensity at P,
I ∝ |R|2
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 72
Thus, the intensity depends on cos φ.
The condition for constructive interference with maximum intensity is cos φ is maximum, equal to 1, i.e., φ = 2nπ (n = 0, 1, 2, 3…) … (3)
The condition for destructive interference with minimum intensity is cos φ is minimum equal to
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 73

Question 59.
If the amplitude ratio (E20/E10) of two interfering coherent waves producing an interference pattern is 0.5, what is the ratio of the minimum intensity to maximum intensity?
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 74

Question 60.
If the amplitude ratio (E20/E10) of two interfering coherent waves producing an interference pattern is 0.8, what is the ratio of the maximum intensity to the minimum intensity?
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 75

Question 61.
Two slits in Young’s experiment have widths in the ratio 2 : 3. What is the ratio of the intensities of light waves coming from them?
Answer:
The required ratio is \(\frac{I_{1}}{I_{2}}\) = \(\frac{w_{1}}{w_{2}}\) = \(\frac{2}{3}\)

Question 62.
Monochromatic light waves of intensities I1 and I2, and a constant phase difference φ produce an interference pattern. State an expression for the resultant intensity at a point in the pattern. Hence deduce the expressions for the resultant intensity, maximum intensity and minimum intensity if I1 = I2 = I0.
Answer:
Consider a two-source interference pattern produced by monochromatic light waves of intensities I1 and I2, and a constant phase difference φ. The resultant intensity at a point in the pattern is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 76
At a point of constructive interference with maximum intensity, cos φ = 1.
∴ Imax = 2I0(1 + 1) = 4I0 …(3)
At point of destructive interference, with minimum intensity, cos φ = – 1.
∴ Imin = 2I0(1 – 1) = 0… (4)
Notes :

(1) Since 1 + cos φ = 2 cos2φ, EQ. (2) above can be expressed as I = 4I0 cos2\(\frac{\phi}{2}\) = Imax cos2\(\frac{\phi}{2}\).

(2) The average of cos2 \(\frac{\phi}{2}\), averaged over one cycle, is \(\frac{1}{2}\).
Therefore, the average intensity of a bright and dark fringe in an interference pattern is Iav = 4I0 × \(\frac{1}{2}\) = 2I0. The graph of l versus φ is shown, in which the dotted line shows Iav.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 77
In the absence of interference phenomenon, the intensity at a point due to two waves each of intensity I0 is 2I0, which is the same as the average intensity in an interference pattern. Thus, interference of light is consistent with the law of conservation of energy. Interference produces a redistribution of energy out of regions where it is destructive into the regions where it is constructive.

Question 63.
At a point in an interference pattern, the two interfering coherent waves of equal intensity I0 have phase difference 60°. What will be the resultant intensity at that point ?
Answer:
Resultant intensity, I0 = 2I0 (1 + cos φ)
= 2I0(1 + cos 60°) = 2I0(1 + \(\frac{1}{2}\)) = 3I0.

Question 64.
Solve the following :

Question 1.
Find the ratio of intensities at two points X and Y on a screen in Young’s double-slit experiment where waves from the slits S1, and S2 have path difference of 0 and \(\frac{\lambda}{4}\) respectively.
Solution :
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 78

Question 2.
Two coherent sources, whose intensity ratio is 81 : 1, produce interference fringes. Calculate the ratio of the intensities of maxima and minima in the fringe system.
Solution :
Data : I1 : I2 = 81 : 1
If E10 and E20 are the amplitudes of the interfering waves, the ratio of the maximum intensity to the minimum intensity in the fringe system is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 79
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 80

Question 3.
In Young’s double-slit experiment, the ratio of the intensities at the maxima and minima in the interference pattern is 36 : 16. What is the ratio of the widths of the two slits?
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 81

Question 4.
In Young’s double-slit experiment, the ratio of the intensities of the maxima and minima in an interference pattern is 36 : 9. What is the ratio of the intensities of the two interfering waves?
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 82
∴ The ratio of the intensities of the two interfering waves is 9 : 1.

Question 5.
Two slits in Young’s double-slit experiment have widths in the ratio 81 : 1. What is the ratio of the amplitudes of light waves coming from them?
Solution:
Data : w1 : w2 = 81 : 1
Since the intensity of a wave is directly proportional to the square of its amplitude,
\(\frac{I_{1}}{I_{2}}\) = \(\left(\frac{E_{10}}{E_{20}}\right)\) …. (1)
Also, the intensity of a wave coming out of a slit is directly propotional to the slit width.
∴ \(\frac{I_{1}}{I_{2}}\) = \(\frac{w_{1}}{w_{2}}\) …. (2)
From Eqs. (1) and (2),
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 83
The ratio of the amplitudes of light waves from the slits is 9: 1.

Question 6.
Two monochromatic light waves of equal intensities produce an interference pattern. At a point in the pattern, the phase difference between the interfering waves is π/3 rad. Express the intensity at this point as a fraction of the maximum intensity in the pattern.
Solution :
Data : I1 = I2 = I0, φ = π/3 rad
The resultant intensity at the point in the pattern is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 84

Question 7.
In Young’s double-slit experiment using monochromatic light of wavelength λ, the intensity of light at a point on the screen where the path difference is λ is I. What is the intensity of light at a point where the path difference is λ/3 ?
Solution :
Data : ∆l1 = λ, I1 = I, ∆l2 = λ/3
We assume that light waves coming out of the two slits are of equal intensity I0.
Then, at a point in the interference pattern where the phase difference between the interfering waves is φ, the resultant intensity is,
I = 2I0 (1 + cos φ)
Phase difference (φ) = \(\frac{2 \pi}{\lambda}\) × path difference (∆l)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 85
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 86
∴ A The intensity of light at a point where the path difference is λ/3 is λ/4.

Question 8.
The optical path difference between identical waves from two coherent sources and arriving at a point is 87λ. What can you say about the resultant intensity at the point? If the path difference is 49.19 μm, calculate the wavelength of light.
Solution :
Data : Path difference = 87λ = 49.19 /rm.
(i) Path difference = 87λ = nλ, where n = 87. As the path difference is an integral multiple of the wavelength λ, the point where the waves interfere is a bright point with maximum intensity.

(ii) 87 λ = 49.19 μn = 49.19 × 10-6 m .
∴ λ = \(\frac{49.19 \times 10^{-6}}{87}\) = 5.654 × 10-7 m = 5654 Å

Question 9.
The optical path difference between identical waves from two coherent sources and arriving at a point is 172. What can you say about the resultant intensity at the point? If the path difference is 9.18 μm, calculate the wavelength of light.
Solution :
Data : Path difference = 17λ = 9.18 μm
(i) Path difference = 17λ = nλ, where n = 17
As the path difference is an integral multiple of the wavelength λ, the point where the waves interfere is a bright point with maximum intensity.

(ii) 17λ = 9.18 μm = 9.18 × 10-6 m
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 87

Question 10.
At a point on the two-slit interference pattern obtained using a source of green light of wavelength 5500 Å, the path difference is 4.125 pm. Is the point at the centre of a bright or dark fringe ? Hence, find the order of the fringe.
Solution :
Data : Path difference, ∆l = 4.125 × 10-6 λ = 5500 Å = 5.5 × 10-7 m
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 88
As the path difference is an odd integral multiple of \(\frac{\lambda}{2}\) the point is at the centre of a dark fringe.
∴ p = 2m – 1 (m = 1, 2, 3…)
∴ 2m – 1 = 15 ∴ m = 8
∴ The order of the fringe is 8 (i.e., the point lies at the centre of the 8th dark fringe.)

Question 11.
The two slits in an interference experiment are illuminated by light of wavelength 5600 A. Deter-mine the path difference and phase difference between the waves arriving at the centre of the eighth dark fringe on the screen.
Solution :
Data : λ = 5600 A = 5.6 × 10-7 m
Order of the dark fringe is 8, ∴ m = 8
For the fringe to be dark, path difference
= (2m – 1)\(\frac{\lambda}{2}\)
∴ Path difference, ∆l = (2 × 8 – 1)\(\frac{\lambda}{2}\) = 7.5λ
= 7.5 × 5.6 × 10-7 m
= 4.2 × 10-6 m
Phase difference, φ = \(\frac{2 \pi}{\lambda}\) × ∆l
= \(\frac{2 \pi}{5.6 \times 10^{-7}}\) × 4.2 × 10-6 = 15π

Question 12.
In Young’s double-slit experiment, interference fringes are observed on a screen 1 m away from the two slits which are 2 mm apart. A point P on the screen is 1.8 mm from the central bright fringe,
(i) Find the path difference at P.
(ii) If the wavelength of the light used in 4800 Å, what can you say about the illumination at P?
Solution :
Data : D = 1 m, d = 2 mm = 2 × 10-3 m, y = 1.8 mm = 1.8 × 10-3 m, λ = 4800 Å = 4.8 × 10-7 m
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 89
∴ Path difference = 15\(\frac{\lambda}{2}\)
As the path difference is an odd integral multiple of \(\frac{\lambda}{2}\), point P is a dark point with minimum intensity.

Question 13.
Two slits 1.25 mm apart are illuminated by light of wavelength 4500 Å. The screen is 1 m away from the plane of the slits. Find the separation between the 2nd bright fringe on one side and the 2nd bright fringe on the other side of the central maximum.
Solution :
Data : D = 1 m, d = 1.25 mm = 1.25 × 10-3 m,
λ = 4500 Å = 4500 × 10-10 m = 4.5 × 10-7 m
Since, it is a second bright fringe, n = 2. If s is the distance between the 2nd bright fringe on one side and the 2nd bright fringe on the other side of the central maximum, then
s = 2y = 2nλ\(\frac{D}{d}\)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 90
= 14.4 × 10-4 m
W = 1.44 mm

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics

Question 14.
A plane wavefront of light of wavelength 5000 Å is incident on two slits in a screen perpendicular to the direction of light rays. If the total separation of 10 bright fringes on a screen 2 m away is 4 mm, find the distance between the slits.
Solution:
Given : λ = 5000 Å = 5 × 10-7 m,
D = 2 m and the total separation of 10 fringes = 4 mm = 4 × 10-3 m
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 91

Question 15.
In Young’s double-slit experiment with slits of equal width, a point P on the screen is at a distance equal to one-fourth of the fringe width from the central maximum. If the intensity at the central maximum is Ic, find the intensity at P.
Solution :
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 92
Since, the slits have equal width, the intensities of the two interfering waves are equal, say I0. Then the intensity at a point on the screen is
I = 4I0 cos2 \(\frac{\phi}{2}\)
At the central maximum, φ = 0.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 93
The intensity at P is half that at the central maximum.

Question 16.
In a double-slit experiment, the optical path difference between the waves coming from two coherent sources at a point P on one side of the central bright band is 7.5 × 10-6 m and that at a point Q on the other side of the central bright band is 1.8 × 10-6 m. How many bright and dark bands are observed between points P and Q if the wavelength of light used is 6 × 10-7 m ?
Solution :
Data : ∆l1 = 7.5 × 10-6 m, ∆l2 = 1.8 × 10-6 m λ = 6 × 10-7 m
For point P : Let p\(\frac{\lambda}{2}\) = ∆l1
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 94
The path difference ∆l1 is an odd integral multiple of λ/2 : ∆l1 = (2m – 1)\(\frac{\lambda}{2}\), where m is an integer,
∴ 2m – 1 = 25 ∴ m = 13
∴ Point P is at the centre of the 13th dark band.
For point Q :
Let q\(\frac{\lambda}{2}\) = ∆l2
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 95
The path difference ∆l2 is an even integral multiple of \(\frac{\lambda}{2}\) : ∆l2 = (2n)\(\frac{\lambda}{2}\), where n is an integer
∴ 2n = 6 ∴ n = 3
∴ Point Q is at the centre of the 3rd bright band. Between points P and Q, excluding the respective bands at P and Q, the number of dark bands = 12 + 3 = 15 and the number of bright bands (including the central bright band) = 12 + 2 + 1 = 15

Question 17.
In Young’s double-slit experiment, light waves of wavelength 5.2 × 10-7 m and 6.5 × 10-7 m are used in turn keeping the same geometry. Compare the fringe widths in the two cases.
Solution :
Data : λ1 = 5.2 × 10-7 m, λ2 = 6.5 × 10-7 m
As, W = \(\frac{\lambda D}{d}\) and the geometry is the same, i.e., D and d remain the same,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 96

Question 18.
Two coherent sources are 1.8 mm apart and the fringes are observed on a screen 80 cm away from them. It is found that with a certain source of light, the fourth bright fringe is situated at a distance of 1.08 mm from the central fringe. Calculate the wavelength of light.
Solution :
Data : d = 1.8 mm = 1.8 × 10-3 m
D = 80 cm = 0.8 m
For fourth bright fringe, n = 4
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 97
This is the wavelength of light.

Question 19.
Green light of wavelength 5100 Å from a narrow slit is incident on a double-slit. If the overall separation of 10 fringes on a screen 200 cm away from it is 2 cm, find the slit-separation.
Solution :
Data : λ = 5100 Å = 5.1 × 10-7 m,
W = \(\frac{2}{10}\) cm = 2 × 10-3 m,
D = 200 cm = 2 m
W = \(\frac{\lambda D}{d}\)
∴ d = \(\frac{\lambda D}{W}\) = \(\frac{5.1 \times 10^{-7} \times 2}{2 \times 10^{-3}}\)
= 5.1 × 10-4 m
This is the slit-separation.

Question 20.
Sodium light of wavelength 5.896 × 10-7 m is passed through two pinholes 0.5 mm apart, and an interference pattern is formed on a screen kept parallel to the plane of the pinholes and 1.2 m from them. Find the distance between
(i) the second and the fifth bright fringes
(ii) the third and the seventh dark fringes on the same side of the central bright point.
Solution :
Data : λ = 5.896 × 10-7 m, d = 0.5 mm= 0.5 × 10-3 m, D = 1.2 m
(i) The distance of the nth bright fringe from the central bright point is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 98
The distance between the second and the fifth bright fringes on the same side of the central bright point is 4.245 × 10-3 m.

(ii) The distance of the mth dark fringe from the central bright point is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 99
= 5.66 × 10-3 m
The distance between the third and the seventh dark fringes on the same side of the central bright point is 5.66 × 10-3 m.

Question 21.
In Young’s double-slit experiment, the two slits are 2 mm apart. The interference fringes for light of wavelength 6000Å are formed on a screen 80 cm away from them.
(i) How far is the second bright fringe from the central bright point?
(ii) How far is the second dark fringe from the central bright point?
Solution:
Data: D = 80 cm = 0.8 m,
d = 2 mm = 2 × 10-3 m, λ = 6000Å = 6 × 10-7 m
(i) For the second bright fringe from the central bright point, n = 2
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 100
This is the required distance.

(ii) For the second dark fringe from the central bright point, m = 2
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 101
This is the required distance.

Question 21.
In Young’s double-slit experiment, the distance between two consecutive bright fringes on a screen placed at 1.5 m from the two slits is 0.6 mm. What would be the fringe width, if the screen is brought towards the slits by 50 cm, keeping rest of the setting the same?
Solution:
Let λ be the wavelengths of light used and d the distance between the two sources (i.e., slits), if D is the distance between the sources and the screen, the fringe width is
w = \(\frac{\lambda D}{d}\)
For the same λ and d, W ∝ D.
∴ \(\frac{W_{2}}{W_{1}}\) = \(\frac{D_{2}}{D_{1}}\)
Data:
W1 = 0.6 mm = 6 × 10-4 m,
D1 = 1.5 m, D2 = 1 m
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 102
This is the required fringe width.

Question 22.
On passing light of wavelength 5000 Å through two pinholes 2 mm apart, an interference pattern is formed on a screen kept parallel to the plane of the pinholes and 100 cm from them. Find the distance between the fifth bright band on one side of the central bright band and the sixth dark band on the other side.
Solution :
Data : λ = 5000 Å = 5 × 10-7 m, d = 2 mm = 2 × 10-3 m, D = 100 cm = 1 m
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 103
∴ y6d = (6 – \(\frac{1}{2}\)) × 2.5 × 10-4m = 1.375 × 10-3 m
∴ y5b + y6d = 1.25 × 10-3m + 1.375 × 10-3m
= 2.625 × 10-3 m = 2.625 mm
This is the required distance.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics

Question 23.
Monochromatic light from a narrow slit illuminates two narrow slits 3 mm apart, producing an interference pattern with bright fringes 0.15 mm apart on a screen 75 cm away from the slits. Find the wavelength of the light. How will the fringe width be altered if
(a) the distance of the screen from the slits is doubled
(b) the separation between the slits is doubled ?
Solution :
Data : d = 3 mm = 3 × 10-3 m,
W = 0.15 mm = 1.5 × 10-4 m, D = 75 cm = 0.75 m
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 104

Question 24.
In Young’s double-slit experiment the slits are 2 mm apart and interference is observed on a screen placed at a distance of 100 cm from the slits. It is found that the ninth bright fringe is at a distance of 2.208 mm from the second dark fringe from the centre of the fringe pattern. Find the wavelength of light used.
Solution :
Data : d = 2 mm = 2 × 10-3 m,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 105

Question 25.
In Young’s double-slit experiment, the two slits separated by 4 mm are illuminated by light of wavelength 6400 Å. Interference fringes are obtained on a screen placed at a distance of 60 cm from the slits. Find the change in the fringe width if the separation between the slits is
(i) increased by 1 mm
(ii) decreased by 1 mm.
Solution :
Data : d = 4 mm = 4 × 10-3 m, λ = 6.4 × 10-7m, D = 0.6 m, d’ = 5 mm = 5 × 10-3 m, d” = 3 mm = 3 × 10-3m
Fringe width, W = \(\frac{\lambda D}{d}\) ∴ W ∝ \(\frac{1}{d}\)
(i) Since d’ > d, W’ < W, i.e., the fringe width decreases.
Decrease in the fringe width = W – W
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 106

(ii) Since d” < d, W” > W, i.e., the fringe width increases.
Increase in the fringe width = W” – W
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 107

Question 26.
In Young’s double-slit experiment, the separation between the slits is 3 mm and the distance between the slits and the screen is 1 m. If the wavelength of light used is 6000 Å, calculate the fringe width. What will be the change in the fringe width if the entire apparatus is immersed in a liquid of refractive index \(\frac{4}{3}\)?
Solution :
Data : d = 3 × 10-3 m, D = 1 m, λ = 6 × 10-7 m, n = \(\frac{4}{3}\)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 108

Question 27.
In Young’s double-slit experiment using monochromatic light, the fringe pattern shifts by certain distance on the screen when a mica sheet of refractive index 1.6 and thickness 1.964 microns is introduced in the path of one of the interfering waves. The mica sheet is then removed and the slits-to-screen distance is doubled. It is found that the distance between successive maxima now is the same as the observed fringe shift with the mica sheet. Calculate the wavelength of the monochromatic light used.
Solution :
Data : nm = 1.6, b = 1.964 microns
= 1.964 × 10-6 m,
D2 = 2D1, W2 = y0
The fringe shift with the mica sheet,
y0 = \(\frac{D_{1}}{d}\)(nm – 1)b
Subsequent to the removal of the mica sheet and doubling the slits-to-screen distance, the new fringe width is,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 109

Question 28.
What must be the thickness of a thin film which, when kept near one of the slits shifts the central fringe by 5 mm for incident light of wavelength 5890 Å in Young’s double-slit interference experiment ? The refractive index of the material of the film is 1.1 and the distance between the slits is 0.5 mm.
Solution :
Data : λ = 5890 Å, nm = 1.1, the shift of the central bright fringe = 5 mm

Let t be the thickness of the film and P the point on the screen where the central fringe has shifted. Suppose the film is kept in front of slit S1. Due to the film, the optical path travelled by the light passing through it increases by (1.1 – 1)f = 0.1t. Thus, the optical paths between the two beams passing through the two slits are not equal at the midpoint of the screen but are equal at P, 5 mm away from the centre. At this point the distance travelled by light from the other slit S2 to the screen is larger than that travelled by light from S1 by 0.1t.

The difference in distances, S2P – S1P = yλ/d, where y is the distance along the screen = 5 mm = 5 × 10-3m and d = 0.5 mm = 5 × 10-4 m.

This has to be equal to the difference in optical paths introduced by the film.
Thus, 0.1t = 5 × 10-3 × 5890 × 10-10/5 × 10-4.
∴ t = 5890 × 10-8m = 5.89 × 10-5 m = 0.0589 mm

Question 29.
In a biprism experiment, the eyepiece is placed at a distance of 1.2 metres from the source. The distance between the virtual sources was found to be 7.5 × 10-4 m. Find the wavelength of light if the eyepiece is to be moved transversely through a distance of 1.888 cm for 20 fringes.
Solution :
Data : D = 1.2 m, d = 7.5 × 10-4 m,
20 W = 1.888 cm = 1.888 × 10-2 m
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 110

Question 30.
A biprism is placed 5 cm from the slit illuminated by sodium light of wavelength 5890 Å. The width of the fringes obtained on a screen 75 cm from the biprism is 9.424 × 10-2 cm. What is the distance between the two coherent sources?
Solution :
Data : D = 5 cm + 75 cm = 80 cm = 0.8 m,
λ = 5890 Å = 5.890 × 10-7 m,
W = 9.424 × 10-2 cm = 9.424 × 10-4 m
Fringe width, W = \(\frac{\lambda D}{d}\)
∴ The distance between the two coherent sources,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 111
= 5 × 10-4 m = 0.5 mm

Question 31.
In a biprism experiment, the distance of the 20th bright band from the centre of the interference pattern is 8 mm. Calculate the distance of the 30th bright band from the centre.
Solution :
Data : y20 = 8 mm (bright band)
The distance of the nth bright band from the centre of the interference pattern,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 112
The distance of the 30th bright band from the centre of the interference pattern is 12 mm.

Question 32.
In a biprism experiment, a source of light having wavelength 6500 Å is replaced by a source of light having wavelength 5500 Å. Calculate the change in the fringe width, if the screen is at a distance of 1 m from the sources which are 1 mm apart.
Solution :
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 113
The fringe width decreases by 1 × 10-4 m = 0.1 mm.

Question 33.
In a biprism experiment, light of wavelength 5200 Å is used to get an interference pattern on the screen. The fringe width changes by 1.3 mm when the screen is moved towards the biprism by 50 cm. Find the distance between the two virtual images of the slit.
Solution :
Data : λ = 5200 Å = 5.2 × 10-7 m,
W1 – W2 = 1.3 mm = 1.3 × 10-3 m,
D1 – D2 = 50 cm = 0.5 m
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 114
This is the distance between the two virtual sources.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics

Question 34.
In a biprism experiment, the 10th dark band is observed at 2.09 mm from the central bright point on the screen with red light of wavelength 6400 Å. By how much will the fringe width change if blue light of wavelength 4800 A is used with the same setting?
Solution :
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 115

Question 35.
In a biprism experiment, the slit is illuminated by red light of wavelength 6400 Å, and the cross wire of the eyepiece is adjusted at the centre of the 3rd bright band. On using blue light, it is found that the 4th bright band is on the cross wire. Find the wavelength of blue light.
Solution :
Data : λr = 6400 Å, y3 (red, bright)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 116
This is the wavelength of blue light.

Question 36.
In a biprism experiment, the wavelength of red light used is 6000 Å and the nth bright band is obtained at a point P on the screen. Keeping the same setting, the source is replaced by a source of green light of wavelength 5000 Å and the (n + 1)th bright band of green light coincides with point P. Find n.
Solution :
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 117

Question 37.
In a biprism experiment, the slit is illuminated by light of wavelength 4800 Å. The distance between the slit and the biprism is 15 cm and that between the biprism and the eyepiece is 85 cm. If the distance between the virtual sources is 3 mm, determine the distance between the 4th bright band on one side and the 4th dark band on the other side of the central band.
Solution :
Data : λ = 4800 Å = 4.8 × 10-7 m,
d = 3 mm = 3 × 10-3 m,
D = distance between the slit and the biprism + distance between the biprism and the eyepiece = 15 + 85 = 100 cm = 1 m The distance of the nth bright band from the central band is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 118
This is the required distance.

Question 38.
An isosceles prism of refracting angle 179° and refractive index 1.6 is used as a biprism by keeping it 10 cm away from a slit, the edge of the biprism being parallel to the slit. The slit is illuminated by a light of wavelength 600 nm and the screen is 90 cm away from the biprism. Calculate the location of the centre of the 10th dark band from the centre of the interference pattern and the path difference at this location.
Solution :
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 119
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 120

Question 39.
In a biprism experiment, the distance between the second and tenth dark bands on the same side of the central bright band is 0.12 cm, that between the slit and the biprism is 20 cm and that between the biprism and the eyepiece is 80 cm. If the slit images given by the lens in the two positions are 4.5 mm and 2 mm apart, find the wavelength of light used.
Solution :
The distance between the second and tenth dark bands on the same side of the central band is equal to 8 times the fringe width (W).
∴ 8 W = 0.12 cm (by the data)
∴ W = \(\frac{0.12}{8}\) cm = 0.015 cm = 0.015 × 10-2 m
The distance (D) between the slit and the eyepiece is equal to the sum of the distance between the slit and the biprism and the distance between the biprism and the eyepiece.
∴ D = 20 + 80 = 100 cm = 1 m (by the data)
Also, d1 = 4.5 mm and d2 = 2 mm
∴ The distance (d) between the virtual images of the slit is
d = \(\sqrt{d_{1} d_{2}}\) = \(\) mm = 3 mm
= 3 × 10-3 m
∴ The wavelength of light,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 121

Question 40.
In a biprism experiment, the slit and the eyepiece. are 10 cm and 80 cm away from the biprism. When a convex lens was interposed at 30 cm from the slit, the separation of the two magnified images of the slit was found to be 4.5 mm. If the wavelength of the source is 4500 Å, calculate the fringe width.
Solution:
Data : d1 = 4.5 mm = 4.5 × 10-3 m,
λ = 4500 Å = 4.5 × 10-7 m,
distance between the slit and the eyepiece (D) = distance between the slit and the biprism + distance between the biprism and the eyepiece = 10 cm + 80 cm = 90 cm = 0.9 m, u1 = 30 cm = 0.3 m v1 = D – u1 = 0.9m – 0.3m = 0.6 m
Linear magnification of a lens,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 122

Question 65.
Describe with a neat labelled ray diagram the Fraunhofer diffraction pattern due to a single slit. Obtain the expressions for the positions of the intensity minima and maxima. Also obtain the expression for the width of the central maximum.
Answer:
When a parallel beam of monochromatic light of wavelength λ illuminates a single slit of finite width a, we observe on a screen some distance from the slit, a broad pattern of alternate dark and bright fringes. The pattern consists of a central bright fringe, with successive dark and bright fringes of diminishing intensity on both sides. This is called ‘ the diffraction pattern of a single slit.

Consider a single slit illuminated with a parallel beam of monochromatic light perpendicular to the plane of the slit. The diffraction pattern is obtained on a screen at a distance D (» a) from the slit and at the focal plane of the convex lens.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 123

We can imagine the single slit as being made up of a large number of Huygens’ sources evenly distributed over the width of the slit. Then the maxima and minima of the pattern arise from the interference of the various Huygens’ wavelets.
Now, imagine the single slit as made up of two adjacent slits, each of width a/2. Since, the incident plane wavefronts are parallel to the plane of the slit, all the Huygens sources at the slit will be in phase. They will therefore also in phase at the point P0 on the screen, where P0 is equidistant from all the Huygens sources. At P0, then, we get the central maximum.

For the first minimum of intensity on the screen, the path difference between the waves from the Huygens sources A and O (or O and B) is λ/2, which is the condition for destructive interference. Suppose, the nodal line OP for the first minimum subtends an angle θ at the slit; θ is very small. With P as the centre and PA as radius, strike an arc intersecting PB at C. Since, D » a, the arc AC can be considered a straight line at right angles to PB. Then, ∆ ABC is a right-angled triangle similar to A OP0P.
This means that, ∠BAC = θ
∴ BC = a sin θ
∴ Difference in path length,
BC = PB – PA = (PB – PO) + (PO – PA)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 124
(∵ θ is very small and in radian)
The other nodal lines of intensity minima can be understood in a similar way. In general, then, for the with minimum (wi = +1, ±2, ±3, …).
θm = \(\frac{m \lambda}{a}\) (with minimum) … (2)
as θm is very small and in radian.
Between the successive minima, the intensity rises to secondary maxima when the path difference is an odd-integral multiple of \(\frac{\lambda}{2}\) :
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 125
(mth secondary maximum) … (3)
Width of the central maximum :
Equation (1) gives the angular half width of the central maximum. Therefore, the angular width of the central maximum is,
2θ = \(\frac{2 \lambda}{a}\) … (4)
From ∆OP0P, P0P = D tan θ \(\simeq\) D sin θ
(∵ θ is very small and in radian)
∴ y1 = P0P = \(\frac{D \lambda}{a}\) [from Eq. (1)] … (5)
This is the distance of the first minimum from the centre of the central maximum.
∴ Width of the central bright fringe :
Wc = 2y1d = 2W = 2\(\left(\frac{\lambda D}{a}\right)\) …(6)

The central bright fringe is spread between the first dark fringes on either side. Thus, the width of the central bright fringe is the distance between the centres of the first dark fringe on either side.

If the lens is very close to the slit, D is very nearly equal to f, where f is the focal length of the lens. Then Wc = 2\(\left(\frac{\lambda D}{a}\right)\) = 2\(\left(\frac{\lambda f}{a}\right)\) … (7)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 126

Question 66.
Represent graphically intensity distribution in
(a) Young’s double-slit interference
(b) single- slit diffraction and
(c) double-slit diffraction
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 127
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 128

Question 67.
State the characteristics of a single-slit diffraction pattern.
Answer:
Characteristics of a single-slit diffraction pattern :

  1. The image cast by a single-slit is not the expected purely geometrical image.
  2. For a given wavelength, the width of the diffraction pattern is inversely proportional to the slit width.
  3. For a given slit width a, the width of the diffraction pattern is proportional to the wavelength.
  4. The intensities of the non-central, i.e., secondary, maxima are much less than the intensity of the central maximum.
  5. The minima and the non-central maxima are of the same width, Dλ/a.
  6. The width of the central maximum is 2Dλ/a. It is twice the width of the non-central maxima or minima.

Question 68.
Explain briefly the double-slit diffraction pattern.
Answer:
The double-slit diffraction pattern is determined by the diffraction patterns due to the individual slits, and by the interference between them.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 129

We can see narrow interference fringes similar to those obtained in Young’s double-slit experiment. These fringes vary in brightness and the shape of their envelope as that of the single-slit diffraction pattern.

Question 69.
What should be the order of the size of an obstacle or aperture to produce diffraction of light?
Answer:
For pronounced diffraction, the size of an obstacle or aperture should be of the order of the wavelength of light or greater.
[Note : For diffraction from a single slit of width a with monochromatic light of wavelength λ, the condition for first minimum (dark fringe) is
sin θ1 = \(\frac{\lambda}{a}\)
When a = λ, θ1 = 90° and the central maximum spreads over 180°; then, while the diffraction is maximum, no fringe pattern is seen at all.

When a » X (say, a is of the order of a centimetre or more), θ1 is so small that there is practically no diffraction and the illuminated region on the screen is almost as given by geometrical optics. However, diffraction pattern due to a straight-edge will always be seen at the edge of the illuminated region. Hence, for an observable fringe pattern due to a single slit, a should be of the order of X with a > λ..]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics

Question 70.
Solve the following.

Question 1.
Plane waves of light from a sodium lamp are incident on a slit of width 2 μm. A screen is located 2 m from the slit. Find the spacing between the first secondary maxima of two sodium lines as measured on the screen.
(Given : λ1 = 5890 Å and 2 = 5896 Å)
Solution:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 130
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 131
This is the required spacing.

Question 2.
The diffraction pattern of a single slit of width 0. 5 cm is formed by a lens of focal length 40 cm. Calculate the distance between the first dark and the next bright fringe from the axis. The wavelength of light used is 4890 Å.
Solution :
Data : a = 0.5 cm = 0.5 × 10-2 m,
D \(\simeq\) f = 40 cm = 0.4 m, λ = 4890 Å = 4.890 × 10-7 m
The distance between the first dark fringe and the next bright fringe = \(\frac{\lambda D}{2 a}\)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 132

Question 3.
Light of wavelength 6000 Å is incident on a slit of width 0.3 mm. A screen is placed parallel to the slit 2 m away from the slit. Find the position of the first dark fringe from the centre of the central maximum. Also, find the width of the central maximum.
Solution :
Data : λ = 6 × 10-7 m, a = 0.3 mm = 3 × 10-4 m,
D = 2 m
The distance ym of the m th minimum from the centre of the central maximum is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 133
The first dark fringe is 4 mm from the centre of the central fringe.
∴ Half-width of the central maximum = 4 mm
∴ The width of the central maximum = 2 × 4 mm = 8 mm

Question 4.
In a single-slit diffraction pattern, the distance between the first minimum on the right and the first minimum on the left is 5.2 mm. The screen on which the pattern is displayed is 80 cm from the slit and the wavelength of light is 5460 Å. Calculate the slit width.
Solution :
Data : y1 (minimum, right) + y1 (minimum, left)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 134

Question 5.
In a single-slit diffraction pattern, the distance between the first minimum on the right and the first minimum on the left of the central maximum is 4 mm. The screen is 2 m from the slit and the wavelength of light used is 6000 Å. Calculate the width of the slit and the width of the central maximum.
Solution :
Data : y1 (minimum, right) + y1 (minimum, left)
= 4 mm = 4 × 10-3 m, D = 2 m, λ = 6 × 10-7 m
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 135

Question 6.
Determine the angular spread between the central maximum and first order maximum of the diffraction pattern due to a single slit of width 0.25 mm, when light of 6650 Å is incident on it normally.
Solution:
Data : λ = 6650 Å = 6650 × 10-10m, a = 0.25 mm
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 136
This is the required angular spread.

Question 71.
Explain and define the resolving power of an optical instrument.
Answer:
Resolving power of an optical instrument:
The primary aim of using an optical instrument is to see fine details, whether observing a star system through a telescope or a living cell through a microscope. After passing through an optical system, light from two adjacent parts of the object should produce sharp, distinct (separate) images of those parts. The objective lens or mirror of a telescope or microscope acts like a circular aperture. The diffraction pattern of a circular aperture consists of a central bright spot (called the Airy disc and corresponds to the central maximum) and concentric dark and bright rings.

Light from two close objects or parts of an object after passing through the aperture of an optical system produces overlapping diffraction patterns that tend to obscure the image. If these diffraction patterns are so broad that their central maxima overlap substantially, it is difficult to decide if the intensity distribution is produced by two separate objects or by one.

The resolving power of an optical instrument, e.g., a telescope or microscope, is a measure of its ability to produce detectably separate images of objects that are close together.

Definition : The smallest linear or angular separation between two point objects which appear just resolved when viewed through an optical instrument is called the limit of resolution of the instrument and its reciprocal is called the resolving power of the instrument.

Question 72.
State and explain Rayleigh’s criterion for minimum resolution.
Answer:
Rayleigh’s criterion for minimum resolution : Two overlapping diffraction patterns due to two point sources are acceptably or just resolved if the centre of the central peak of one diffraction pattern is as far as the first minimum of the other pattern.

The ‘sharpness’ of the central maximum of a diffraction pattern is measured by the angular separation between the centre of the peak and the first minimum. It gives the limit of resolution.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 137

Two overlapping diffraction patterns due to two point sources are not resolved if the angular separation between the central peaks is less than the limit of resolution. They are said to be just separate, or resolved, if the angular separation between the central peaks is equal to the limit of resolution. They are said to be well resolved if the angular separation between the central peaks is more than the limit of resolution.

Question 73.
Explain the Rayleigh criterion for the limit of resolution for
(i) two linear objects
(ii) a pair of point objects.
Answer:
(i) The Rayleigh criterion for the limit of resolution for two linear objects : Consider, two self luminous objects or slits separated by some distance. Let λ be the wavelength of the light and a the width of the slits. As per the Rayleigh criterion, the first minimum of the diffraction pattern of one of the sources should coincide with the central maximum of the other. Thus, it is at the just resolved condition.
The angular separation dθ (position) of the first principal minimum is,
dθ = \(\frac{\lambda}{a}\) …(1)
This angular separation between the two objects must be minimum as this minimum coincides with the central maximum of the other. This is called the limit of resolution of that instrument. It is written as,
limit of resolution, dθ = \(\frac{\lambda}{a}\)
Minimum separation between the two linear objects that are just resolved, at distance D from the instrument is, ni
y = D(dθ) = \(\frac{D \lambda}{a}\) …(2)
It is the distance of the first minimum from the centre.

(ii) The Rayleigh criterion for the limit of resolution for a pair of point objects : The objects to be viewed through a microscope are often of the point-size. The diffraction pattern of such objects consists of a central bright spot called the Airy disc and corresponds to the central maximum surrounded by concentric dark and bright rings called Airy rings.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 138
If a red laser beam passes through a 90 µm pinhole aperture, the Airy disc and several orders (rings) of diffraction are as shown.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 143

According to Lord Rayleigh, for such objects to be just resolved, the first dark ring of the diffraction pattern of the first object should be formed at the centre of the diffraction pattern of the second object and vice versa. Thus, the minimum separation between the images on the screen should be equal to the radius of the first dark ring.
This is applicable to the eye, microscope, telescope, etc.

Question 74.
Define and explain the resolving power of a microscope. State the expressions for the resolving power of
(i) a microscope with a pair of non-luminous objects
(ii) a microscope with self luminous point objects.
OR
What is meant by the limit of resolution and the resolving power of a microscope?
Answer:
Definition : The limit of resolution of a microscope is the least separation between two-closely spaced points on an object which are just resolved when viewed through the microscope.

Definition : The resolving power of a microscope is defined to be the reciprocal of its limit of resolution.

In a compound microscope, the objective lens forms a real, magnified image of an object placed just beyond the focal length of the lens. The objective has a short focal length (for greater magnification) and is held close to the object so that it gathers as much of the light scattered by the object as possible.

Let a be the least separation between two point objects O and O’ viewed through an objective AB of a compound microscope. The medium between the object and the objective has a refractive index n. The images of the objects O and O’ are I and I’ respectively. In this case, the angular separation between the objects, at the objective is 2α. D is the diameter of the objective AB.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 144

According to the Rayleigh criterion, the first dark ring due to O’ should coincide with I and that of O should coincide with I’. The nature of illumination at a point on the screen is determined by the effective path difference at that point. Let us consider point I to be symmetric with respect to O. Paths of the extreme rays reaching I from O’ are O’AI and O’BI. The paths AI and BI are equal. Thus, the actual path difference is O’B – O’A.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 145
The enlarged view of the region around O and O’ is as shown.
From this,
path difference = DO’ + O’C
= 2a sin α

(i) Microscope with a pair of non-luminous objects (dark objects):
In actual practice, the objects O and O’ viewed through a microscope are illuminated by the same source. Often the eyepiece of the microscope is filled with some transparent material of refractive index n. Then the wavelength of light in this material is
λn = \(\frac{\lambda}{n}\) where λ is the wavelength of light in air.

In such a set up the path difference at the first dark ring in λn. Thus, from eq (1),
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 146
The factor n sin a is called numerical aperture (NA). The resolving power of the microscope is
R = \(\frac{1}{a}\) = \(\frac{2 \mathrm{NA}}{\lambda}\) …. (3)

(ii) Microscope with self luminous point objects : Applying Abbe’s theory of Airy discs and rings to Fraunhofer diffraction due to a pair of self luminous point objects, the path difference between the extreme rays, at the first dark ring is 1.22 λ, thus, for the requirement of just resolution,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 147
The resolving power of the microscope is,
R = \(\frac{1}{a}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{NA}}{0.61 \lambda}\) …. (5)
When the value of a is minimum, the quality of resolution is high.
Notes:

  1. If f and D are the focal length and the diameter of the microscope objective.
    sin imax \(\simeq \frac{D / 2}{f}\) so that Eq. (3) can be written as resolving power = \(\frac{n D}{f \lambda}\)
  2. Ernst Abbe(1840 -1905), German physicist and developer of optical instruments.

Question 75.
Explain why microscopes of high magnifying power have oil filled (oil-immersion) objectives.
Answer:
Higher angular magnification of a high magnifying power microscope is of little use if the finer details in a tiny object are obscured by diffraction effects. Hence, a microscope of high magnifying power must also have a high resolving power.
Resolving power ot a microscope = \(\frac{2 n \sin \alpha}{\lambda}\)
Where α ≡ the half angle of the angular separation between the objects, at the objective lens. n ≡ the refractive index of the medium between the object and the objective, λ ≡ the wavelength of the light used to illuminate the object.

The factor n sin α is called the numerical aperture of the objective and the resolving power increases with increase in the numerical aperture. To increase α the diameter of the objective would have to be increased. But this increase in aperture would degrade the image by decreasing the resolving power. Hence, in microscopes of high magnifying power, the object is immersed in oil that is in contact with the objective. Usually cedarwood oil having a refractive index 1.5 (close to that of the objective glass) is used. Closeness of the refractive indices also reduces loss of light by reflection at the objective lens.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics

Question 76.
On what factors does the resolving power of a microscope depend? How can it be increased?
Answer:
Resolving power of a microscope
= \(\frac{2 n \sin \alpha}{\lambda}\) = \(\frac{2 \mathrm{NA}}{\lambda}\)

where, α ≡ the half angle of the angular separation between the objects at the objective lens. n ≡ the refractive index of the medium between the object and the objective, λ ≡ the wavelength of the light used to illuminate the object, NA = n sin α = the numerical aperture of the objective.

Thus, the resolving power of a microscope depends directly on the NA and inversely on λ.
The resolving power is increased by,

  1. increasing the numerical aperture using oil-immersion objective.
  2. illuminating the object with smaller wavelength radiation. But our eyes are not very sensitive to the shorter wavelength blue end of the visible spectrum. Hence, ultraviolet radiation is used for illumination with quartz lenses, but then photographs must be taken to examine the image.

Question 77.
With a neat ray diagram, explain the resolving power of a telescope. On what factors does it depend ?
OR
What is meant by the angular limit of resolution and resolving power of a telescope?
Answer:
The resolving power of a telescope is defined as the reciprocal of the angular limit of resolution between two closely-spaced distant objects so that they are just resolved when seen through the telescope.

Consider two stars seen through a telescope. The diameter (D) of the objective lens or mirror corresponds to the diffracting aperture. For a distant point source, the first diffraction minimum is at an angle θ away from the centre such that
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 148

Dsin θ = 1.22 λ
where λ is the wavelength of light. The angle 9 is usually so small that we can substitute sin θ \(\approx\) θ (θ in radian). Thus, the Airy disc for each star will be spread out over an angular half-width θ = 1.22 λ/D about its geometrical image point. The radius of the Airy disc at the focal plane of the objective lens is r = fθ = 1.22fλ/D, where f is the focal length of the objective.

When observing two closely-spaced stars, the Rayleigh criterion for just resolving the images as that of two point sources (instead of one) is met when the centre of one Airy disc falls on the first minimum of the other pattern. Thus, the angular limit (or angular separation) of resolution is
θ = \(\frac{1.22 \lambda}{D}\) … (1)

and the linear separation between the images at the focal plane of the objective lens is
y = fθ … (2)
∴ Resolving power of a telescope.
R = \(\frac{1}{\theta}\) = \(\frac{D}{1.22 \lambda}\) … (3)

It depends

  1. directly on the diameter of the objective lens or mirror,
  2. inversely on the wavelength of the radiation.

Question 78.
How can the resolving power of a telescope be increased?
Answer:
The resolving power of an astronomical telescope depends directly on the diameter of the objective lens or mirror, and inversely on the wavelength of radiation. Hence, the resolving power can be increased by

  1. using an objective lens/mirror of larger diameter
  2. observing a celestial object at smaller wavelengths.

Question 79.
Define the resolving power of a telescope and state its formula. What are the advantages of using a large objective lens in an astronomical telescope:
Answer:
Definition: The resolving power of a telescope is defined as the reciprocal of the angular limit of resolution between two closely-spaced distant objects so that they are just resolved when seen through the telescope.
Formula : Resolving power of a telescope
R = \(\frac{1}{\theta}\) = \(\frac{D}{1.22 \lambda}\)
where θ ≡ the minimum angular separation of two closely-spaced celestial objects or the angular limit of resolution, D ≡ the diameter of the objective lens of the telescope, λ ≡ the wavelengh of light.

Advantages of a large objective lens in an astronomical telescope :

  1. The resolving power is directly proportional to the diameter of the objective lens. Hence, a large objective lens results in a smaller Airy disc and a sharper image.
  2. It collects more of the incident radiation from a distant object which results in a brighter image.

Question 80.
What is the resolving power of a telescope if the diameter of the objective of the telescope is 1.22 m and the wavelength of light is 5000 Å ?
Answer:
Resolving power of the telescope = \(\frac{D}{1.22 \lambda}\)
= \(\frac{1.22}{1.22 \times 5 \times 10^{-7}}\)
= \(\frac{10 \times 10^{6}}{5}\) = 2 × 106 rad-1

Question 81.
Briefly explain about radio telescope.
Answer:
A radio telescope is an astronomical instrument consisting of a radio receiver and an antenna system used to detect radio-frequency radiation emitted by extraterrestrial sources. The wavelength of radio-frequency radiation is very long. Hence, it is expressed in metre. In order to attain the resolution of an optical telescope, the radio telescope should be very large. A single disc of such large diameters is impracticable. In such cases arrays of antennae spread over several kilometres are used. Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope (GMRT) located at Narayangaon, Pune, Maharashtra uses such an array consisting of 30 dishes of diameter 45 m each. It spreads over 25 km. It is the largest distance between two of its antennae. The highest angular resolution achievable ranges from about 60 arcsec at the lowest frequency of 50 MHz to about 2 arcsec at 1.4 GHz.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 149

Question 82.
Solve the following :

Question 1.
Light of wavelength 650 nm falls on the objective of a microscope having total angle of angular w separation as 60°. Calculate the resolving power of the microscope. [Refractive index of air = 1]
Solution :
Data : λ = 650 nm = 6.5 × 10-7m, n = 1,
2α = 60°
∴ α = 30°
Resolving power of the microscope = \(\frac{2 n \sin \alpha}{\lambda}\)
= \(\frac{2 \times 1 \times \sin 30^{\circ}}{6.5 \times 10^{-7}}\) = \(\frac{10}{6.5}\) × 106

Question 2.
The semi vertical angle of the cone of the rays incident on the objective of a microscope is 20°. If the wavelength of incident light is 6600 Å, calculate the smallest distance between two points which can be just resolved.
Solution :
Data : α = 20°, λ = 6600 Å = 6.6 × 10-7 m, n = 1 (air) resolution between two closely-spaced distant objects so that they are just resolved when seen through the telescope.
Formula : Resolving power of a telescope
R = \(\frac{1}{\theta}\) = \(\frac{D}{1.22 \lambda}\)
where θ ≡ the minimum angular separation of two closely-spaced celestial objects or the angular limit of resolution, D ≡ the diameter of the objective lens of the telescope, λ ≡ the wavelengh of light.

Advantages of a large objective lens in an astronomical telescope :

  1. The resolving power is directly proportional to the diameter of the objective lens. Hence, a large objective lens results in a smaller Airy disc and a sharper image.
  2. It collects more of the incident radiation from a distant object which results in a brighter image.

Question 83.
What is the resolving power of a telescope if the diameter of the objective of the telescope is 1.22 m and the wavelength of light is 5000 Å ?.
Answer:
Resolving power of the telescope = \(\frac{D}{1.22 \lambda}\)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 150

Question 84.
Briefly explain about radio telescope.
Answer:
A radio telescope is an astronomical instrument consisting of a radio receiver and an antenna system used to detect radio-frequency radiation emitted by extraterrestrial sources. The wavelength of radio-frequency radiation is very long. Hence, it is expressed in metre. In order to attain the resolution of an optical telescope, the radio telescope should be very large. A single disc of such large diameters is impracticable. In such cases arrays of antennae spread over several kilometres are used. Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope (GMRT) located at Narayangaon, Pune, Maharashtra uses such an array consisting of 30 dishes of diameter 45 m each. It spreads over 25 km. It is the largest distance between two of its antennae. The highest angular resolution achievable ranges from about 60 arcsec at the lowest frequency of 50 MHz to about 2 arcsec at 1.4 GHz.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 151

Question 85.
Solve the following :

Question 1.
Light of wavelength 650 nm falls on the objective of a microscope having total angle of angular separation as 60°. Calculate the resolving power of the microscope. [Refractive index of air = 1]
Solution :
Data : λ = 650 nm = 6.5 × 10-7m, n = 1, 2α = 60°
∴ α = 30°
Resolving power of the microscope = \(\frac{2 n \sin \alpha}{\lambda}\)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 152
= 1.538 × 106 m-1

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics

Question 2.
The semi vertical angle of the cone of the rays incident on the objective of a microscope is 20°. If the wavelength of incident light is 6600 Å, calculate the smallest distance between two points which can be just resolved.
Solution :
Data : α = 20°, λ = 6600 Å = 6.6 × 10-7 m, n = 1 (air)
The numerical aperture, NA = n sin α
= 1 × sin 20° = 0.3420
The limit of resolution for an illuminated object,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 153

Question 3.
What is the minimum distance between two objects which can be resolved by a microscope having the visual angle of 30° when light of wavelength 600 nm is used ?
Solution :
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 154

Question 4.
The two headlights of an approaching automobile are 1.22 m apart. At what maximum distance will eye resolve them? Assume a pupil diameter of 5.0 mm and λ = 5500 Å. Assume also that this distance is determined only by the diffraction effect at the circular aperture.
Solution:
Data : y = 1.22 m, diameter D = 5 × 10-3 m,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 155
This is the required distance.

Question 5.
What is the minimum angular separation between two stars if a telescope is used to observe them with an objective of aperture 20 cm? The wavelength of light is 5900 Å.
Solution :
Data : D = 20 cm = 0.2 m,
λ = 5900 Å = 5.9 × 10-7 m
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 156
This is the required angular separation.

Question 6.
The diameter of the objective of a telescope is 10 cm. Find the resolving power of the telescope is 10 cm. Find the resolving power of the telescope if the wavelength of light is 5000 Å.
Solution :
Data : D = 10 cm = 0.1 m, λ = 5000 Å = 5 × 10-7 m
The resolving power of the telescope D 0.1
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 157

Question 7.
A telescope has an objective of diameter 2.44 m. What is its angular resolution when it observes at 5500 A?
Solution :
Data : λ = 5500A = 5.5 × 10-7 m,
D = 2.44 m
Angular resolution. ∆θ = 1.22λ/D, D being the diameter of the aperture.
∴ ∆θ = 1.22 × 5.5 × \(\frac{10^{-7}}{2.44}\)= 2.75 × 10-7 rad
= 0.0567 arcsec

Question 8.
The minimum angular separation between two stars is 4 × 10-6 rad when a telescope is used to observe them with an objective of aperture 16 cm. Find the wavelength of the light.
Solution :
Data : θ = 4 × 10-6 rad, D = 16 cm = 0.16 m
θ = \(\frac{1.22 \lambda}{D}\)
∴ The wavelength of the light used,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 158

Question 9.
Estimate the smallest angular separation of two stars which can be just resolved by the telescope having objective of diameter 25 cm. The mean wavelength of light is 555 nm.
Solution :
Data : λ = 555 nm 555 × 10-9 m
D = 25 cm = 25 × 10-2 m
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 159
= 2.708 × 10-6 rad
This is the required angular separation.

Question 86.
Huygens’ wave theory could not explain
(A) interference
(B) reflection
(C) photoelectric effect
(D) refraction.
Answer:
(C) photoelectric effect

Question 87.
The wavefront originating from a point source of light at finite distance is a wavefront.
(A) circular
(B) spherical
(C) plane
(D) cylindrical
Answer:
(B) spherical

Question 88.
In an isotropic medium, the secondary wavelets centred on every point of a given wavefront are all
(A) spherical
(B) cylindrical
(C) oval
(D) of arbitrary shape.
Answer:
(A) spherical

Question 89.
Consider a medium through which light is propagating with a speed v. Given a wavefront, in order to determine the wavefront after a time interval ∆t, the secondary wavelets are drawn with
a radius.
(A) of unit length
(B) v ∆ t
(C) \(\frac{\Delta t}{v}\)
(D) \(\frac{v}{\Delta t}\)
Answer:
(B) v ∆ t

Question 90.
Two points, equidistant from a point source of light, are situated at diametrically opposite positions in an isotropic medium. The phase difference between the light waves passing through the two points is
(A) zero
(B) π/2 rad
(C) π rad
(D) finite, but not these.
Answer:
(A) zero

Question 91.
Wavenormals to spherical wavefronts can be
(A) only diverging
(B) only converging
(C) parallel to each other
(D) diverging or converging.
Answer:
(D) diverging or converging.

Question 92.
Huygens’ principle is used to
(A) obtain the new position of wavefront geometrically
(B) explain the principle of superposition of waves
(C) explain the phenomenon of interference
(D) explain the phenomenon of polarization.
Answer:
(A) obtain the new position of wavefront geometrically

Question 93.
When a ray of light enters into water from air,
(A) its wavelength decreases
(B) its wavelength increases
(C) its frequency increases
(D) its frequency decreases.
Answer:
(A) its wavelength decreases

Question 94.
A parallel beam of light travelling in water is incident obliquely on a glass surface. After refraction, its width
(A) decreases
(B) increases
(C) remains the same
(D) becomes zero.
Answer:
(B) increases

Question 95.
Light of a certain colour has 1800 waves to the millimetre in air. What is its frequency in water?
[n = \(\frac{4}{3}\) for water]
(A) 1.67 × 106 Hz
(B) 4.05 × 1014 Hz
(C) 5.4 × 1014 Hz
(D) 7.2 × 1014 Hz.
Answer:
(C) 5.4 × 1014 Hz

Question 96.
A ray of light, in passing from vacuum into a medium of refractive index n, suffers a deviation d equal to half the angle of incidence. Then, the refractive index is
(A) sin δ
(B) 2 sin δ
(C) cos δ
(D) 2 cos δ.
Answer:
(D) 2 cos δ.

Question 97.
A ray of light passes from vacuum to a medium of refractive index n. The angle of incidence is found to be twice the angle of refraction. The angle of incidence is
(A) cos-1 \(\left(\frac{n}{2}\right)\)
(B) cos-1 (n)
(C) 2cos-1 \(\left(\frac{n}{2}\right)\)
(D) 2sin-1 \(\left(\frac{n}{2}\right)\).
Answer:
(C) 2cos-1 \(\left(\frac{n}{2}\right)\)

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics

Question 98.
If the polarizing angle for a given medium is 60°, then the refractive index of the medium is
(A) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\)
(B) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)
(C) 1
(D) \(\sqrt{3}\)
Answer:
(D) \(\sqrt{3}\)

Question 99.
A narrow beam of light in air is incident on glass at an angle of incidence of 58°. If the reflected beam is completely plane polarized, the refractive index of the glass is
(A) 1.9
(B) 1.8
(C) 1.7
(D) 1.6.
Answer:
(D) 1.6.

Question 100.
Polarization of light CANNOT be produced by
(A) reflection
(B) double refraction
(C) dichroism
(D) diffraction.
Answer:
(D) diffraction.

Question 101.
A glass plate of refractive index 1.732 is to be used as a polarizer. Its polarizing angle is
(A) 30°
(B) 45°
(C) 60°
(D) 90°.
Answer:
(C) 60°

Question 102.
Light transmitted through a Polaroid P1 has an intensity I and is incident on a crossed Polaroid P2. The intensity of the light transmitted by P2 is
(A) zero
(B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)I
(C) I
(D) 2I.
Answer:
(A) zero

Question 103.
At points of constructive interference with maximum intensity of two coherent monochromatic waves (wavelength λ), the path difference between them is
(A) zero or an integral multiple of λ
(B) zero or an integral multiple of λ/2
(C) zero or an even integral multiple of λ/2
(D) an odd integral multiple of λ/2.
Answer:
(A) zero or an integral multiple of λ

Question 104.
Two sources of light are said to be coherent if light from them have
(A) the same speed and the same phase
(B) the same phase and the same or nearly the same amplitude
(C) constant phase difference and nearly the same frequency
(D) zero, or some constant, phase difference.
Answer:
(D) zero, or some constant, phase difference.

Question 105.
In a two-source interference pattern, the phase difference between the waves reaching a dark point in radian is (m = 1, 2, 3, …)
(A) 0
(B) mπ
(C) (2m – 1)\(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
(D) (2m – 1)π
Answer:
(D) (2m – 1)π

Question 106.
For destructive interference, the phase difference (in radian) between the two waves should be
(A) 0, 2π, π, …
(B) 0, 2π, 4π, …
(C) π, 3π, 5π, …
(D) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\), \(\frac{3 \pi}{2}\), \(\frac{5 \pi}{2}\), …..
Answer:
(C) π, 3π, 5π, …

Question 107.
For constructive interference, the phase difference (in radian) between the two waves should be
(A) 0, \(\frac{\pi}{2}\), π, …
(B) 0, 2π, 4π, …
(C) π, 3π, 5π, …
(D) \(\frac{\pi}{4}\), \(\frac{\pi}{2}\), \(\frac{3 \pi}{4}\), …..
Answer:
(B) 0, 2π, 4π, …

Question 108.
If λ is the wavelength of light used in Young’s double-slit experiment, the path difference for a phase difference of 11π rad is
(A) 23 λ
(B) 11 λ
(C) 11\(\frac{\lambda}{2}\)
(D) 23\(\frac{\lambda}{2}\)
Answer:
(C) 11\(\frac{\lambda}{2}\)

Question 109.
The fringe width in an interference pattern is W. The distance between the 6th dark fringe and the 4th bright fringe on the same side of the central bright fringe is
(A) 1.5 W
(B) 2 W
(C) 2.5 W
(D) 10.5 W.
Answer:
(A) 1.5 W

Question 110.
Which of the following graphs shows the variation of the fringe width with the frequency of light in a two-source interference pattern ?
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 160
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics 161

Question 111.
In an interference pattern using two coherent sources of light, the fringe width is
(A) directly proportional to the wavelength
(B) inversely proportional to the square of the wavelength
(C) inversely proportional to the wavelength
(D) directly proportional to the square of the wavelength.
Answer:
(A) directly proportional to the wavelength

Question 112.
Two slits, 2 mm apart, are placed 300 cm from a screen. When light of wavelength 6000 Å is used, the separation (in mm) between the successive bright lines of the interference pattern is
(A) 0.9
(B) 4.5
(C) 6
(D) 9.
Answer:
(A) 0.9

Question 113.
In two separate setups of Young’s double-slit experiment, the wavelengths of the lights used are in the ratio 1 : 2 while the separation between the slits are in the ratio 2 : 1. If the fringe widths are equal, the ratio of the distances between the slit and the screen is
(A) 1 : 4
(B) 1 : 2
(C) 2 : 1
(D) 4 : 1.
Answer:
(D) 4 : 1.

Question 114.
In Young’s double-slit experiment, the slit separation is reduced to half while the distance of the screen from the slits is increased by 50%. In terms of the initial fringe width, W, the new fringe width is,
(A) \(\frac{1}{4}\) W
(B) \(\frac{3}{4}\) W
(C) \(\frac{3}{2}\) W
(D) 3 W.
Answer:
(D) 3 W.

Question 115.
A pair of slits 1.5 mm apart is illuminated with monochromatic light of wavelength 5500 Å and the interference pattern is obtained on a screen 1.5 m from the slits. The least distance of a point from the central maximum where the intensity is minimum is
(A) 0.275 mm
(B) 0.55 mm
(C) 2.75 mm
(D) 5.5 mm.
Answer:
(A) 0.275 mm

Question 116.
In Young’s double-slit experiment, if a thin transparent sheet covers one of the slits, the optical path of the wave from that slit
(A) increases
(B) decreases
(C) changes by \(\frac{D}{d}\) (nm – 1)t
(D) is not affected.
Answer:
(A) increases

Question 117.
In Young’s double-slit experiment, if a thin mica sheet of thickness t and refractive index nm covers one of the slits, the optical path of the wave from that slit
(A) increases by (nm – 1 )t
(B) decreases by (nm – 1) t
(C) changes by \(\frac{D}{d}\) (nm – 1) t
(D) is not affected.
Answer:
(A) increases by (nm – 1 )t

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics

Question 118.
In a two-slit intereference experiment, if a thin transparent sheet of thickness f and refractive index nm covers both the slits, the optical path difference between the two interfering waves
(A) increases by (nm – 1)t
(B) decreases by (nm – 1)t
(C) changes by \(\frac{D}{d}\)(nm – 1)t
(D) is not affected.
Answer:
(D) is not affected.

Question 119.
In a biprism experiment two interfering waves are produced by division of
(A) amplitude
(B) wavefront
(C) amplitude and wavefront
(D) neither wavefront nor amplitude.
Answer:
(B) wavefront

Question 120.
In Fresnel’s biprism experiment, with the eyepiece 1 m from the two coherent sources, the fringe width obtained is 0.4 mm. If just the eyepiece is moved towards the biprism by 25 cm, then the fringe width
(A) decreases by 0.01 mm
(B) decreases by 0.1 mm
(C) increases by 0.01 mm
(D) increases by 0.1 mm.
Answer:
(B) decreases by 0.1 mm

Question 121.
In a biprism experiment, keeping the experimental setup unchanged, the fringe width
(A) increases with increase in wavelength
(B) decreases with increase in wavelength
(C) increases with decrease in wavelength
(D) remains unchanged with change in wavelength.
Answer:
(A) increases with increase in wavelength

Question 122.
In finding the distance between the two coherent sources in Fresnel’s biprism experiment by the conjugate foci method, one uses
(A) a long focus convex lens that forms real images of the virtual sources
(B) a short focus concave lens that forms real images of the virtual sources
(C) a short focus convex lens that forms virtual images of the virtual sources
(D) a short focus convex lens that forms real images of the virtual sources.
Answer:
(D) a short focus convex lens that forms real images of the virtual sources.

Question 123.
Using a light of wavelength 4800 Å in Fresnel’s biprism experiment, 21 fringes are obtained in a given region. If light of wavelength 5600 Å is used, the number of fringes in the same region will be
(A) 14
(B) 18
(C) 21
(D) 24.
Answer:
(B) 18

Question 124.
To obtain pronounced diffraction with a single slit illuminated by light of wavelength λ, the slit width should be
(A) of the same order as λ
(B) considerably larger than λ
(C) considerably smaller than λ
(D) exactly equal to λ/2.
Answer:
(B) considerably larger than λ

Question 125.
In single-slit diffraction, which of the following are equal ?
(A) Widths of all bright and dark fringes
(B) Intensities of non-central bright fringes
(C) Widths of non-central bright fringes
(D) Both widths and intensities of noncentral bright fringes.
Answer:
(C) Widths of non-central bright fringes

Question 126.
In single slit diffraction (at a narrow slit of width a), the intensity of the central maximum is
(A) independent of a
(B) proportional to a
(C) proportional to a2
(D) inversely proportional to a.
Answer:
(D) inversely proportional to a.

Question 127.
For a single slit of width a, the diffraction pattern minima are located at angles θm, where m is a positive, non-zero integer. Which of the following expressions is most correct ?
(A) a sin θm = mλ
(B) a sin θm = \(\frac{m \lambda}{2}\)
(C) a sin θm = (2m + 1)\(\frac{\lambda}{2}\)
(D) a sin θm = (2m – 1)\(\frac{\lambda}{2}\)
Answer:
(A) a sin θm = mλ

Question 128.
In a diffraction pattern due to a single slit of width a with incident light of wavelength λ, at an angle of diffraction θ, the condition for the first minimum is
(A) λ sin θ = a
(B) a cos θ = λ
(C) a sin θ = λ
(D) λ cos θ = a.
Answer:
(C) a sin θ = λ

Question 129.
The fringes produced in a diffraction pattern are of
(A) equal width with the same intensity
(B) unequal width with varying intensity
(C) equal intensity
(D) equal width with varying intensity.
Answer:
(B) unequal width with varying intensity

Question 130.
For a single slit of width a, the first diffraction maximum with light of wavelength λ subtends an angle θ such that sin θ is equal to
(A) \(\frac{\lambda}{2 a}\)
(B) \(\frac{\lambda}{a}\)
(C) \(\frac{1.5 \lambda}{a}\)
(D) \(\frac{2 \lambda}{a} .\)
Answer:
(C) \(\frac{1.5 \lambda}{a}\)

Question 131.
Fraunhofer diffraction pattern of a parallel beam of light (wavelength λ) passing through a narrow slit (width a) is observed on a screen using a convex lens (focal length f). The angular half-width of the central fringe is
(A) \(\frac{2 \lambda f}{a}\)
(B) \(\frac{\lambda f}{a}\)
(C) \(\frac{2 \lambda}{a}\)
(D) \(\frac{\lambda}{a}\)
Answer:
(D) \(\frac{\lambda}{a}\)

Question 132.
A parallel beam of light (λ = 5000 Å) is incident normally on a narrow slit of width 0.2 mm. The angular separation between the first two minima is
(A) 2.5 × 10-3 degree
(B) 2.5 × 10-3 rad
(C) 5 × 10-3 degree
(D) 5 × 10-3 rad.
Answer:
(B) 2.5 × 10-3 rad

Question 133.
A parallel beam of light (λ = 5000 Å) is incident normally on a narrow slit of width 0.2 mm. The Fraunhofer diffraction pattern is observed on a screen placed at the focal plane of a convex lens (f = 20 cm). The first two minima are separated by
(A) 0.005 cm
(B) 0.05 cm
(C) 2.5 mm
(D) 5 mm.
Answer:
(B) 0.05 cm

Question 134.
A plane wave of wavelength 5500 Å is incident normally on a slit of width 2 × 10-2 cm. The width of the central maximum on a screen 50 cm away is
(A) 2.50 × 10-3 cm
(B) 2.75 × 10-3 cm
(C) 2.75 × 10-3 m
(D) 5.50 × 10-3 m.
Answer:
(D) 5.50 × 10-3 m.

Question 135.
If NA is the numerical aperture of a microscope objective, then its resolving power with an illumination of wavelength λ is
(A) \(\frac{0.5 \lambda}{\mathrm{NA}}\)
(B) \(\frac{0.61 \lambda}{\mathrm{NA}}\)
(C) \(\frac{1.22 \mathrm{NA}}{\lambda}\)
(D) \(\frac{2 \mathrm{NA}}{\lambda}\)
Answer:
(A) \(\frac{0.5 \lambda}{\mathrm{NA}}\)

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Wave Optics

Question 136.
A microscope with numerical aperture 0.122 is used with light of wavelength 6000 A. The limit of resolution is
(A) 3.33 × 106 m
(B) 3.33 mm
(C) 3 × 10-6 m
(D) 3 × 10-7 m.
Answer:
(C) 3 × 10-6 m

Question 137.
The objective lens of a telescope has a diameter D. The angular limit of resolution of the telescope for light of wavelength λ is
(A) \(\frac{D}{1.22 \lambda}\)
(B) \(\frac{1.22 \lambda}{D}\)
(C) \(\frac{D}{0.61 \lambda}\)
(D) \(\frac{0.61 \lambda}{D} .\)
Answer:
(B) \(\frac{1.22 \lambda}{D}\)

Question 138.
Two closely-spaced distant stars are just resolved when seen through a telescope with an objective lens of diameter D and focal length f. The separation between their images is given by.
(A) \(\frac{D}{1.22 \lambda f}\)
(B) \(\frac{f \mathcal{D}}{1.22 \lambda}\)
(C) \(\frac{1.22 \lambda f}{D}\)
(D) \(\frac{1.22 D \lambda}{f}\)
Answer:
(C) \(\frac{1.22 \lambda f}{D}\)

Question 139.
High magnifying power microscopes have oil-immersion objectives
(A) to increase the fringe width
(B) to increase the numerical aperture of the objective
(C) to decrease the wavelength of light
(D) because oil does not damage the observed sample.
Answer:
(B) to increase the numerical aperture of the objective

Question 140.
If the numerical aperture of a microscope is increased, then its
(A) resolving power decreases
(B) limit of resolution decreases
(C) resolving power remains constant
(D) limit of resolution increases
Answer:
(B) limit of resolution decreases

Question 141.
The numerical aperture of the objective of a microscope is 0.12. The limit of resolution, when light of wavelength 6000 A is used to view an object, is
(A) 0.25 × 10-7 m
(B) 2.5 × 10-7m
(C) 25 × 10-7 m
(D) 250 × 10-7 m.
Answer:
(C) 25 × 10-7 m

Question 142.
The resolving power of a refracting telescope is increased by
(A) using oil-immersion objective
(B) increasing the diameter D of the objective lens
(C) resorting to short-wavelength radiation
(D) increasing D and using smaller λ.
Answer:
(D) increasing D and using smaller λ.

Question 143.
The resolving power of a telescope of aperture 100 cm, for light of wavelength 5.5 × 10-7 m, is
(A) 0.149 × 107
(B) 1.49 × 107
(C) 14.9 × 107
(D) 149 × 107
Answer:
(A) 0.149 × 107

Question 144.
The resolving power of a telescope depends upon the
(A) length of the telescope
(B) focal length of the objective
(C) diameter of the objective
(D) focal length of the eyepiece.
Answer:
(C) diameter of the objective

Question 145.
If a is the aperture of a telescope and 2 is the wavelength of light then the resolving power of the telescope is
(A) \(\frac{\lambda}{1.22 a}\)
(B) \(\frac{1.22 a}{\lambda}\)
(C) \(\frac{1.22 \lambda}{a}\)
(D) \(\frac{a}{1.22 \lambda}\)
Answer:
(D) \(\frac{a}{1.22 \lambda}\)

Question 146.
Using a monochromatic light of wavelength 2 in Young’s double-slit experiment, the eleventh dark fringe is obtained on the screen for a phase difference of
(A) \(\frac{11}{2}\) π rad
(B) \(\frac{21}{2}\) π rad
(C) 13 π rad
(D) 21 π rad
Answer:
(D) 21 π rad

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves

Question 1.
What is a progressive wave?
Answer:
A progressive wave or wave motion is a periodic or oscillatory disturbance in a medium or in a vacuum that is propagated without any damping and obstruction from one place to another at a finite speed.
[Note: A progressive wave is also called a traveling wave.]

Question 2.
Define :

  1. transverse
  2. longitudinal progressive wave.

Answer:

  1. A progressive wave in which the vibration of the individual particles of the medium is perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave is called a transverse progressive wave.
  2. A progressive wave in which the vibration of the individual particles of the medium is along the line of propagation of the wave is called a longitudinal progressive wave.

Question 3.
What is a mechanical wave? Explain.
Answer:
A mechanical wave is a wave motion in a material medium.

Such a wave originates in the displacement of some portion of an elastic medium from its normal position. This causes the layers of matter to oscillate about their equilibrium positions. Because of the elastic properties of the material, the disturbance is transmitted from one layer to the next and so the waveform progresses through the medium.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves

Question 4.
What is a simple harmonic progressive wave?
Answer:
A simple harmonic progressive wave is a periodic disturbance in a medium or in a vacuum which propagates at a finite speed and in which the vibrations of the particles of the medium, as in a mechanical wave, or the oscillations of the electric and magnetic fields as in an electromagnetic wave are simple harmonic.

Question 5.
Define the following physical quantities related to a progressive wave :
(1) wave speed
(2) frequency (n)
(3) wavelength
(4) amplitude
(5) period
(6) wave number.
Answer:
(1) Wave speed: The distance covered by a progressive wave per unit time is called wave speed.
(2) Frequency: The number of waves that pass per unit time across a given point of the medium is called the frequency of the wave.
[Note : It is equal to the number of vibrations per unit time made by a particle of the medium.]
(3) Wavelength: Wavelength is the distance between consecutive particles of the medium which are moving in exactly the same way at the same time and have the same displacement from their equilibrium positions.
[Note : Such particles are said to be in the same phase (the same state of vibration).]
(4) Amplitude : The magnitude of the maximum displacement of a particle of the medium from its equilibrium position is called the amplitude of the wave.
(5) Period : The time taken for a complete wave (one wavelength long) to pass a given point in the medium is called the period of the wave.
[Note : It is equal to the periodic time of the vibrational motion of a particle of the medium.]
(6) Wave number : The number of waves present per unit distance is called the wave number.

Question 6.
Write the equation of a progressive wave travelling along the positive x-direction.
Answer:
A progressive wave travelling along the positive x-direction is given by
y(x, t) = A sin (kx – ωt)
where A is the amplitude of the wave, k is the wave number and co is the angular frequency.
[Note : y(x, t) = A sin (kx – ωt), y(x, t) = A sin (ωt – kx), y(x, t) = A cos (kx – ωt), y(x, t) = A cos (ωt – kx) also represent a progressive wave travelling in the positive x-direction. Hence, any one of them can be used. y(x, t) can be written simply as y.]

Question 7.
Write the equation of a progressive wave travelling along the negative x-direction.
Answer:
A progressive wave travelling along the negative x-direction is given by y(x, t) = A sin (kx + ωt)
where A is the amplitude of the wave, k is the wave number and ω is the angular frequency.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves

Question 8.
Express the equation of a simple harmonic progressive wave in different forms.
Answer:
A simple progressive wave travelling along the positive x-direction is given by y = A sin (ωt – kx) … (1)
where A is the amplitude of the wave, k is the wave number and co is the angular frequency.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 1
Frequency of vibrations, n = \(\frac{1}{T}\), Eq. (2) can be written as
y = A sin 2π(\(\overline{\mathrm{T}}\) – \(\frac{x}{\lambda}\))
Equations (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) are the different forms of the equation of a simple harmonic progressive wave.

Question 9.
A simple harmonic progressive wave is given by y = A sin (ωt – kx), where the symbols have their usual meaning. What is

  1. the particle velocity at a point x and time t
  2. the wave speed ?

Answer:

  1. Particle velocity, \(\frac{d y}{d t}\) = ωA cos (ωt – kx)
  2. Wave speed, v = \(\frac{\omega}{k}\).

Question 10.
A simple harmonic progressive wave has frequency 25 Hz and wavelength 4 m. If the phase difference between motions of two particles is (π/10) rad, what is the corresponding path difference?
Answer:
Path difference = \(\frac{\lambda}{2 \pi}\) × phase difference
= \(\frac{4 \mathrm{~m}}{2 \pi \mathrm{rad}}\) × \(\frac{\pi}{10}\) rad = 0.2 m

Question 11.
A simple harmonic progressive of frequency 100 Hz and wavelength 0.5 m travels through a medium. If the path difference between two points in the path of the wave is 0.1 m, what is the corresponding phase difference ?
Answer:
Phase difference = \(\frac{2 \pi}{\lambda}\) × path difference
= \(\frac{2 \pi}{0.5 \mathrm{~m}}\) × 0.1 m = 0.4 rad

Question 12.
The displacement of a particle of a medium when sound wave propagates is represented by y = A cos (ax + bt) where A, a and b are positive constants. The wave is reflected by an obstacle situated at x = 0.

  1. What is the wavelength and frequency of the incident wave ?
  2. Write the equation of the reflected wave.

Answer:
The incident sound wave is represented by y = A cos (ax + bt) where A, a and b are positive constants. The equation of a progressive wave of amplitude A, wavelength λ and frequency n = ω/2π, travelling along the negative direction of the x-axis is
y = A cos (ωt + kx),
where k = 2π/λ is the propagation constant. Comparing the two equations, ω = b and k = a.

  1. Therefore, the wavelength of the incident wave,
    λ = \(\frac{2 \pi}{k}\) = \(\frac{2 \pi}{a}\) and its frequency, n = \(\frac{\omega}{2 \pi}\) = \(\frac{b}{2 \pi}\)
  2. The equation of a progressive wave travelling along the positive direction of the x-axis is
    y = A cos (ωt – kx)
    ∴ The equation of the reflected wave is
    y = A cos (bt – ax).

Question 13.
Solve the following :

Question 1.
A simple harmonic progressive wave travels along a string. The time for a particle of the string to move from maximum displacement to zero is 0.004 s. What are the period and frequency of the wave ? If the wavelength is 1.2 m, what is the wave speed?
Solution :
Data : t = 0.004 s, λ = 1.2 m
The period T of the wave = the periodic time of the vibrational motion of the particle of the string = 4t = 4 × 0.004 = 0.016
∴ The frequency of the wave,
n = \(\frac{1}{T}\) = \(\frac{1}{0.016}\) = 62.5 Hz
The wave speed, v = nλ = 1.2 × 62.5 = 75 m/s

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves

Question 2.
Write the equation of a simple harmonic progressive wave of amplitude 0.05 m and period 0.04 s travelling along the positive x-axis with a velocity of 12.5 m/s.
Solution:
Data : A = 0.05 m, T = 0.04 s, v = 12.5 m/s
∴ Equation of the wave travelling in the positive direction of the x-axis is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 2

Question 3.
A simple harmonic progressive wave is given by the equation y = 0.1 sin 4π (50t – 0.1 x), in SI units. Find the amplitude, frequency, wavelength and speed of the wave.
Solution :
Data : y = 0.1 sin 4π (50t – 0.1 x)
= 0.1 sin 2π (100t – 0.2 x)
= 0.1 sin 2π( 100t – \(\frac{x}{5}\))
Let us compare this equation with that of a simple harmonic progressive wave.
∴ y = A sin 2π(nt – \(\frac{x}{2}\)) = 0.1 sin2π(100t – \(\frac{x}{5}\))
Comparing the quantities on both sides, we get,

  1. amplitude (A) = 0.1 m
  2. frequency (n) = 100 Hz
  3. wavelength (λ) = 5 m
  4. speed (v) = nλ = 100 × 5 = 500 m/s

Question 4.
The equation of a transverse wave on a stretched string is y = 0.2 sin 2π(\(\frac{t}{0.02}\) – \(\frac{x}{20}\)) where distances are in metre and time in second.
Find the

  1. amplitude
  2. frequency
  3. speed of the wave.

Solution:
Let us compare the given equation with the equation of a simple harmonic progressive wave :
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 3
Comparing the quantities on both sides, we get,
A = 0.2 m, T = 0.02 s, λ = 20 m

  1. Amplitude (A) = 0.2 m
  2. Frequency (n) = \(\frac{1}{T}\) = \(\frac{1}{0.02}\) = 50 Hz
  3. Speed (v) = nλ – 50 × 20 = 1000 m/s

Question 5.
The equation of a simple harmonic progressive wave is y = 0.4 sin 100π (t – \(\frac{x}{5}\)) where all quantities are in SI units. Calculate the

  1. wavelength
  2. speed of the wave.

Solution:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 4
Comparing the quantities on both sides, we get,
A = 0.4 m, n = 50Hz and v = 40m/s

  1. Speed (v) =40 m/s
  2. Wavelength (λ) = \(\frac{v}{n}\) = \(\frac{40}{50}\) = 0.8 m

Question 6.
The equation of a simple harmonic progressive wave is given by y = 0.05 sin π (20t – \(\frac{x}{6}\)), where all quantities are in SI units. Calculate the displacement of a particle at 5 m from the origin and at the instant 0.1 second. Also find the phase difference between two particles separated by 5 m.
Solution :
Data : x = 5 m, t = 0.1 s
(i) The displacement of the particle,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 5
Comparing the two sides, we get, λ = 12 m
The phase difference between two points separated by x = 5 m is given by
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 6

Question 7.
A sound wave of amplitude 0.2 cm, frequency 1000 Hz and wavelength 0.31 m is travelling in air. Calculate the displacement of the particle at 3.1 m from the origin after 1.004 s. What would be the phase difference for two positions of the vibrating particle after an interval of 0.001s?
Solution :
Data : A = 0.2 cm = 0.002 m, n = 1000 Hz, λ = 0.31 m, x = 3.1 m, t = 1.004 s, t2 – t1 = 0.001 s
(i) The displacement of the particle,
y = A sin 2π(nt – \(\frac{x}{\lambda}\))
= 0.002 sin 2π(1000 × 1.004 – \(\frac{3.1}{0.31}\))
= 0.002 sin 2π (1004 – 10)
= 0.002 sin 2π(994) = 0 [or y = 0 metre]

(ii) Phase difference = 2πn (t2 – t1)
= 2π × 1000 × 0.001 = 2π radians

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves

Question 8.
The equation of a simple harmonic progressive wave is given by y = 4 sin π(\(\frac{t}{0.02}\) – \(\frac{x}{75}\)). Find the displacement and velocity of a particle at 50 cm from the origin and at 0.1 second. (All quantities are expressed in CGS units.)
Solution :
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 7
The displacement of the particle, y = 3.464 cm = 3.464 × 10-2 m
The velocity of the particle,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 8

Question 14.
What is meant by reflection of a wave ?
Answer:
When a wave travelling in a medium is incident on a boundary with another medium, a part of it returns into the original medium with a change in its direction of propagation while a part of it is transmitted into the second medium. The phenomenon in which a part of the wave is returned into the original medium with reduction in its intensity and energy is called reflection.

Question 15.
Explain the reflection of transverse waves at the surface of
(1) a denser medium
(2) a rarer medium.
OR
Explain the effect on the phase of transverse waves reflected from
(1) a denser medium
(2) a rarer medium.
Answer:
(1) Reflection of transverse waves from a denser medium : Suppose that a crest of a transverse wave travels along a string and is incident on the surface of a denser medium such as a rigid wall at point B, as shown in below figure. As the crest cannot travel further, it is reflected.

Since point B is fixed, its displacement is always zero. Therefore, the crest must be reflected in such a way, that the displacement at B due to the reflected
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 9
wave is exactly equal in magnitude and opposite in direction to that due to the incident wave. Therefore, the crest is reflected as a trough. Hence, there is a phase change of 180° or π radians when transverse waves are reflected from a denser medium.

(2) Reflection of transverse waves from a rarer medium : In this case, the particles of the medium are free to vibrate. Hence,

  1. there is no change of phase
  2. a crest is reflected as a crest and a trough is reflected as a trough.

Question 16.
Consider a heavy string X and a light string Y joined together at point O. Explain what happens when a wave pulse
(1) travelling from the string X reaches the junction O
(2) travelling from the string Y reaches the junction O.
Answer:
The tension in both strings is the same. Hence, the junction O is a discontinuity between string X of greater linear density than string Y because the wave speed is less on X than on Y.

(1) When a pulse travelling on the heavy string X reaches O, the light string Y gets pulled upwards. Thus the pulse, gets partially transmitted and partially reflected as a crest, as shown in below figure. However, the amplitude of transmitted pulse is greater than that of the reflected pulse.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 10

(2) When a pulse travelling on a light string Y reaches O, the heavier string X pulled slightly upwards. Thus, the pulse is partly transmitted as a crest but the reflected part is inverted as a trough, as shown in below figure. Here, the amplitude of transmitted pulse is smaller than that of the reflected pulse.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 11
[Note : In either case, the relative heights of the reflected and transmitted pulses depend on the relative densities of the two strings. Obviously, if the strings are identical, there is no discontinuity at the boundary and no reflection takes place.]

Question 17.
A heavy string X is joined to a light string Y at point O. How will a pulse get reflected
(1) travelling on the string X towards O
(2) travelling on the string Y towards O ?
Answer:
(1) A pulse travelling on a heavy string will reflect without inversion at its boundary with a lighter string. Thus, a crest will reflect as a crest and a trough will reflect as a trough.

(2) When a pulse travelling on a light string encounters a boundary with a heavier string, the reflected pulse is inverted. Thus, a crest will reflect as a trough and vice versa.

Question 18.
Explain the reflection of sound waves (i.e., longitudinal waves) at the surface of
(1) a denser medium
(2) a rarer medium.
OR
Explain the effect on the phase of longitudinal waves reflected from
(1) a denser medium
(2) a rarer medium.
Answer:
(1) Reflection of a longitudinal wave from a denser medium : Consider a sound wave incident on a denser medium such as a rigid wall. When a compression is incident on the wall, the particles of air close to the wall are in a compressed state. To return to their normal condition, the particles begin to press in the opposite direction and therefore a compression gets reflected as a compression and a rarefaction is reflected as a rarefaction. However, the displacements of the particles in the reflected wave are opposite to their displacements in the incident wave, so that there is a change of phase of 180° or π radians.

(2) Reflection of a longitudinal wave from a rarer medium : When sound waves are reflected from
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 12
the surface of a rarer medium, there is no change of phase. Therefore, a compression is reflected as a rarefaction and vice versa. The reason is as follows :
When a compression is incident on the surface of a rarer medium, it can pass into that medium. This is because the particles of the rarer medium are free to move and they get compressed, leaving a rarefaction behind, which travels in the opposite direction. In a similar manner an incident rarefaction gets reflected as a compression.

Question 19.
State the principle of superposition of waves.
Answer:
Principle of superposition of waves : The displacement of a particle at a given point in space and time due to the simultaneous influence of two or more waves is the vector sum of the displacements due to each wave acting independently.

Notes :

  1. The principle of superposition is applicable to all types of waves.
  2. The phenomena of interference, beats, formation of stationary waves, etc. are based on the principle of superposition of waves.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves

Question 20.
Explain the superposition of two wave pulses of equal amplitude and same phase moving towards each other.
OR
Explain constructive interference when two wave pulses of equal amplitude and same phase are superimposed.
Answer:
Consider two wave pulses of the same amplitude and phase moving towards each other, as shown in below figure.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 13
When the two pulses cross each other, stages (b) to (d), the resultant displacement is equal to the vector sum of the displacements due to the individual pulses (shown by dashed lutes). Therefore, the resultant displacement at that point becomes maximum. This phenomenon is called constructive interference. After crossing each other, both the pulses continue to propagate with their initial amplitude.

Question 21.
Explain the superposition of two wave pulses of equal amplitude and opposite phase moving towards each other.
OR
Explain destructive interference when two wave pulses of equal amplitude and opposite phase are superimposed.
Answer:
Consider two wave pulses of the same amplitude but opposite phase moving towards each other, as shown in below figure.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 14
When the two pulses cross each other, stages (b) to (d), the resultant displacement is equal to the vector sum of the displacements due to the individual pulses (shown by dashed lines). Therefore, the resultant displacement at that point becomes minimum, equal to zero, because the individual pulses are exactly 180° out of phase.

[Notes: Music lovers often find many types of ambient sounds that interfere with the sounds coming through their headphones. Active noise-cancelling headphones not only block out some high frequency sound waves but also actively cancel out lower-frequency sound waves by destructive interference. They actually create sound waves with the same amplitude that mimic the incoming noise but with inverted phase (also known as antiphase), i.e., exactly 180° out of phase to the original noise. This inverted signal (in antiphase) is then amplified and a transducer creates a sound wave directly proportional to the amplitude of the original waveform, creating destructive interference. This effectively reduces the volume
of the perceivable noise.]

Question 22.
Derive an equation for the resultant wave produced due to superposition of two waves. Hence, state the expression for the amplitude of the resultant wave when two waves are
(1) in phase
(2) out of phase.
Answer:
Consider two waves of the same frequency, different amplitudes A1 and A2 and differing in phase by φ. Let these two waves interfere at x = 0.
The displacement of each wave at x = 0 are
y1 = A1 sin ωt
y2 = A2 sin (ωt + φ)

According to the principle of superposition of waves, the resultant displacement at that point is
y1 = y1 + y2
= A1 sin ωt + A2 sin (ωt + φ)
Using the trigonometrical identity,
sin (C + D) = sin C cos D + cos C sin D,
y = A1 sin ωt + A2 ωt cos φ + A2 cos ωt sin φ
y = (A1 + A2 cos φ) sin ωt + A2 sin φ cos ωt … (1)
Let (A1 + A2 cos φ) = A cos θ … (2)
and A2 sin φ = A sin θ … (3)
Substituting Eqs. (2) and (3) in EQ. (1), we get the equation of the resultant wave as
y = A cos θ sin ωt + A sin θ cos ωt = A sin (ωt + θ) … (4)
It has the same frequency as that of the interfering waves. The amplitude A of the resultant wave is given by squaring and adding Eqs. (2) and (3).
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 15
Thus, the amplitude of the resultant wave is maximum when the two interfering waves are in phase.

Case (2) : When the two interfering waves are out of phase, ivarphi = ipi. Then, the amplitude of the resultant wave is,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 16
Thus, the amplitude of the resultant wave is minimum when the two interfering waves are in opposite phase.

Question 23.
What is the relation between the amplitude of a wave and its intensity?
Answer:
The intensity of a wave is proportional to the square of its amplitude.

Question 24.
Two interfering waves of the same frequency are out of phase but have different amplitudes A1 and A2. What can you say about the intensity of the resultant wave ?
Answer:
The two interfering waves are out of phase. Thus, the amplitude and hence the intensity of the resultant wave is minimum, Imin ∝ (Amin)2 where (Amin)2 = (A1 – A2)2.

Question 25.
Two interfering waves of the same frequency are in phase but have different amplitudes A1 and A2. What can you say about the intensity of the resultant wave ?
Answer:
The two waves interfere in phase. Thus, the amplitude and hence the intensity of the resultant wave is maximum, Imax ∝ (Amin)2 where (Amax)2 = (A1 + A2)2.

Question 26.
What is a stationary wave? Why is it called stationary?
Answer:
When two progressive waves having the same amplitude, wavelength and speed, travel through the same region of a medium in opposite directions, their super-position under certain conditions creates a stationary interference pattern called as a stationary or standing wave.

It is called stationary because the resultant harmonic disturbance of the particles does not travel in any direction and there is no transport of energy in the medium.

Question 27.
Define :

  1. transverse stationary wave
  2. longitudinal stationary wave.

Answer:

  1. When two identical transverse progressive waves travelling in opposite directions along the same line superimpose, the resultant wave produced is called a transverse stationary wave.
  2. When two identical longitudinal progressive waves superimpose, the resultant wave produced is called a longitudinal stationary wave.

Question 28.
When stationary waves of wavelength 40 cm are formed in a medium, what is the distance between

  1. successive nodes
  2. a node and the next antinode?

Answer:

  1. 20 cm
  2. 10 cm.

Question 29.
The equation of a stationary wave is y = 0.04 cos \(\frac{2 \pi x}{0.6}\) sin 2π (100t) with all quantities in SI units. What is the length of one loop ?
Answer:
Comparing the given equation with
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 17
∴ Length of one loop = \(\frac{\lambda}{2}\) = 0.3 m.

Question 30.
What is the speed of the waves superposed ? For data, see Question 29.
Answer:
n = 100 Hz. v = nλ = 100 × 0.6 = 60 m/s.

Question 31.
What is the maximum speed of a particle at an antinode ? For data, see Question 29.
Answer:
vmax = 2A(2πn) = 0.04 × 2π × 100 = 8π m/s.

Question 32.
Distinguish between progressive waves and stationary waves.
Answer:
Progressive and stationary waves :

Progressive waves Stationary waves
1. They are produced when a disturbance is created in the medium. 1. They are produced due to interference, under certain conditions, between two identical progressive waves travelling in opposite direc­tions.
2. They continuously travel away from the source and transport energy through the medium. 2. They do not move in any direction and hence do not transport energy through the medium.
3. Every particle vibrates with the same amplitude. 3. Amplitude of vibration is different for different par­ticles
4. Phase changes from particle to particle 4. All the particles in the same loop have the same phase, while the particles in adjac­ent loops are in opposite phase.
5. Every particle of the medium is set into vibrations 5. There are some particles of the medium which do not vibrate at all.

Question 33.
Solve the following :

Question 1.
A sound wave of frequency 1000 Hz and travelling with speed 340 m/s is reflected from the closed end of the tube. At what distance from that end will the adjacent node occur?
Solution :
Data : n = 1000 Hz, v = 340 m/s
The wavelength of the stationary wave set up in the tube, λ = \(\frac{v}{n}\).
The distance between successive nodes
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 20

Question 2.
Two simple harmonic progressive waves are represented by y1 = 2 sin 2π(100 t – \(\frac{x}{60}\)) cm and y2 = 2 sin 2π(100t + \(\frac{x}{60}\)) cm. The waves combine to form a stationary wave. Find

  1. the amplitude at an antinode
  2. the distance between adjacent node and antinode
  3. the loop length
  4. the wave speed.

Solution :
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 21
we get, λ = 60 cm and n = 100 Hz. Therefore,

  1. the amplitude at an antinode, | 2A | = 4 cm
  2. the distance between adjacent node and antinode \(\frac{\lambda}{4}\) = \(\frac{60}{4}\) = 15 cm
  3. the loop length = \(\frac{\lambda}{2}\) = \(\frac{60}{2}\) cm = 30 cm
  4. the wave speed = nλ= 100 × 60 = 6000 cm/s

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves

Question 3.
The equation of a standing wave is given by y = 0.02 cos (πx) sin (100 πt) m. Find the amplitude of either wave interfering, wavelength, time period, frequency and wave speed of interfering waves.
Solution :
Data : y = 0.02 cos (πx) sin (100 πt) m
Comparing this equation with
y = 2A cos\(\left(\frac{2 \pi x}{\lambda}\right)\) sin (2π nt)
we get for either interfering waves,

  1. the amplitude, | A | = \(\frac{0.02}{2}\) = 0.01 m
  2. the wavelength, λ = 2 m
  3. the time period, T = \(\frac{1}{n}\) = \(\frac{1}{50}\)s = 0.02 s
  4. the frequency, n = 50 Hz
  5. the wave speed = nλ = 50 × 2 = 100 m/s

Question 34.
Explain
(1) free vibrations
(2) forced vibrations.
Answer:
(1) Free vibrations : A body capable of vibrations is said to perform free vibrations when it is disturbed from its equilibrium position and left to itself.

In the absence of dissipative forces such as friction due to surrounding air and internal forces, the total energy and hence the amplitude of vibrations of the body remains constant. The frequencies of the free vibrations of a body are called its natural frequencies and depend on the body itself.

In the absence of a maintaining force, in practice, the total energy and hence the amplitude decreases due to dissipative forces and the vibration is said to be damped. The frequency of damped vibrations is less than the natural frequency.

(2) Forced vibrations : The vibrations of a body in response to an external periodic force are called forced vibrations.

The external force supplies the necessary energy to make up for the dissipative losses. The frequency of the forced vibrations is equal to the frequency of the external periodic force.

The amplitude of the forced vibrations depends upon the mass of the vibrating body, the amplitude of the external force, the difference between the natural frequency and the frequency of the periodic force, and the extent of damping.

Question 35.
Define resonance.
Answer:
Resonance : If a body is made to vibrate by an external periodic force, whose frequency is equal to the natural frequency (or nearly so) of the body, the body vibrates with maximum amplitude. This phenomenon is called resonance.
The corresponding frequency is called the resonant frequency.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 22
For low damping, the amplitude of vibrations has a sharp maximum at resonance, as shown in above figure. The flatter curve without a pronounced maximum is for high damping.

Question 36.
Distinguish between
(1) free vibrations and resonance
(2) forced vibrations and resonance (Two points of distinction).
Answer:
(1) Free vibrations and resonance:

Free vibrations Resonance
1. These are produced when a body is distributed from its equilibrium position and released. 1. It is produced by forced vibrations when the external periodic force has the frequency equal to the natural frequency (or nearly so) of the body.
2. The energy of the body remains constant in the absence of dissipative forces. 2. Energy is supplied con­tinuously by the external periodic force to com­pensate the loss of en­ergy due to the dissi­pative forces.

(2) Forced vibrations and resonance :

Forced vibrations Resonance
1. These are produced by an external periodic force of any frequency. 1. It is produced by an exter­nal periodic force whose frequency is equal to the natural frequency (or nearly so) of the body.
2. The frequency of vibrations is, in general, different from the natural frequency of the body 2. The frequency of vibrations is the same (or nearly so) as the natural frequency of the body.
3. The amplitude of vibrations is usually very small. 3. The amplitude of vibrations is large.
4. Vibrations stop as soon as the external force is removed. 4. Vibrations continue for rela­tively longer time after the external force is removed.

Question 37.
Give any two applications of resonance.
Answer:

  1. A radio or TV receiver set is tuned to the frequency of the desired broadcast station by adjusting the resonant frequency of its electrical oscillator circuit.
  2. The speed of sound at room temperature can be determined by making the air column of a resonance tube resonate with a vibrating tuning fork of known frequency.
  3. The frequency of a tuning fork can be determined by making a sonometer wire, of known mass per unit length and under known tension, resonate with the vibrating fork.
  4. The amplitude of the oscillations of a child on a swing is increased by pushing with a frequency equal to the natural frequency of the swing.

Question 38.
Give any two disadvantages of resonance.
Answer:

  1. A column of soldiers marching in regular step on a narrow and structurally flexible bridge can set it into dangerously large amplitude oscillations. The bridge may even collapse at the resonance.
  2. Structural resonance of a suspension bridge induced by the winds can lead to its catastrophic collapse. Several early suspension bridges were destroyed by structural resonance induced by modest winds.
  3. Vibrations of a motor or engine can induce resonant vibrations in its supporting structures if their natural frequency is close to that of the vibrations of the engine. A common example is the rattling sound of a bus body when the engine is left idling. Vibrations in an aircraft are caused by the engine and the aerodynamic effects. The vibrations cause metal fatigue, especially in the fuselage, wings and tail, and eventually lead to metal fracture.
  4. Every ship has a natural period of rolling (side to side oscillation about an axis along its length). If the ship encounters a series of waves such that the wave period matches the rolling, it will have no time righting itself before the next wave strikes. Resonant conditions can occur when the combination of wave period, vessel speed and heading with respect to the waves lead to an encounter close to the natural roll period of the vessel. This situation, if not corrected, can lead to severe rolling, with roll angle exceeding 15°.
    Large containerships are particularly vulnerable to rolling. Possible consequences are loss of containers, machinery failure, structural damage and even capsizing of the ship. The speed and direction of the ship can be changed to avoid the consequences of synchronous rolling.

Question 39.
What are overtones? What is the meaning of first overtone ?
Answer:
The higher allowed harmonics above the first harmonic or fundamental are called overtones.
The first overtone is the higher allowed harmonic immediately above the first harmonic.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves

Question 40.
Distinguish between harmonics and overtones.
Answer:

Harmonics

Overtones

1. The lowest allowed frequency of vibration (fundamental) of a bounded medium and all its integral multiples    are called harmonics. 1. The higher allowed frequencies of vibration above the fundamental are called overtones.
2. The lowest allowed frequency (fundamental), n, is called the first harmonic. The second harmonic is In, third harmonic is 3n, … and so on. 2. Above the fundamental, the first allowed frequency is called the first overtone which may be either the second or third harmonic. Depending on the system, the pth overtone corresponds to (p + 1)th or (2p + 1)th harmonic.

Question 41.
What is end correction ? State the cause of end correction. How is it estimated ?
Answer:
When sound waves are sent down the air column in a narrow closed or open pipe, they are reflected at the ends-without phase reversal at an open end and with a phase reversal at a closed end. Interference between the incident and reflected waves under appropriate conditions sets up stationary waves in the air column. Thus, the stationary waves have an antinode at an open end.

However, because air molecules in the plane of an open end are not free to move in all directions, reflection of the longitudinal waves takes place slightly beyond the rim of the pipe at an open end. The distance of the antinode from the open end of the pipe is called end correction. According to Reynolds, the distance of the antinode from the rim is approximately 30% of the inner diameter of a cylindrical pipe. This distance must be taken into account in accurate determination of the wavelength of sound. Hence, this distance is called the end correction.

Therefore, if d is the inner diameter of a cylindrical pipe, an end correction e = 0.3 d for each open end must be added to the measured length of the pipe. If l is the measured length, the effective length of the air column in the case of a pipe closed at one end is l + 0.3d, while that for a pipe open at both ends is l + 0.6 d.

Question 42.
What are the frequencies of the notes produced in an open and closed pipes in terms of the length of pipe L and velocity of waves v?.
Answer:
The frequencies of all the harmonics present in an open pipe are
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 26
The frequencies of the odd harmonics present in a closed pipe are
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 27
where p = 0,1, 2, 3, … .

Question 43.
State the factors on which the fundamental frequency of air column in a pipe depends.
Answer:

  1. Speed of sound in air
  2. length of the pipe
  3. diameter of the pipe.

Question 44.
The fundamental frequency of air column in a pipe closed at one end is 300 Hz. What is the frequency of the

  1. second overtone
  2. third harmonic ? (Ignore the end correction.)

Answer:
Closed pipe.

  1. Second harmonic = fifth harmonic = 5 × 300 = 1500 Hz
  2. Third harmonic = 3 × 300 = 900 Hz.

Question 45.
The fundamental frequency of air column in a pipe open at both ends is 200 Hz. What is the frequency of the

  1. second harmonic
  2. third overtone ? (Ignore the end correction.)

Answer:
Open pipe.

  1. Second harmonic = 2 × 200 = 400 Hz
  2. Third overtone = fourth harmonic
    = 4 × 200 = 800 Hz.

Question 46.
Stationary waves in the air column inside a pipe of length 50 cm and closed at one end have three nodes and three antinodes. What is the wavelength ?
Answer:
Here, L = 5\(\frac{\lambda}{4}\)
∴ Wavelength λ = \(\frac{4 L}{5}\) = \(\frac{4 \times 50 \mathrm{~cm}}{5}\) = 40 cm

Question 47.
Show that the fundamental frequency of vibration of the air column in a pipe open at both ends is double that of a pipe of the same length and closed at one end.
Answer:
Let LO and LC be the lengths of a pipe open at both ends and a pipe closed at one end, respectively. Let nO and nC be their corresponding fundamental frequencies. Then, ignoring the end corrections,
nO = \(\frac{v}{2 L_{\mathrm{O}}}\) and nC = \(\frac{v}{4 L_{\mathrm{C}}}\)
where v is the speed of the sound in air.
Given that LO = LC = L (say),
nO = \(\frac{v}{2 L}\) and nO = \(\frac{v}{4 L}\)
∴ nO = 2\(\left(\frac{v}{4 L}\right)\) = \(2 n_{\mathrm{C}}\)

Question 48.
Prove that a pipe of length 2L open at both ends has the same fundamental frequency as a pipe of length L closed at one end.
Answer:
Let LO and LC be the lengths of a pipe open at both ends and a pipe closed at one end, respectively. Let nO and nC be their corresponding fundamental frequencies. Then, ignoring the end corrections,
nO = \(\frac{v}{2 L_{\mathrm{O}}}\) and nC = \(\frac{v}{4 L_{\mathrm{C}}}\)
where v is the speed of the sound in air.
Given that LC = L and LO = 2L,
nO = \(\frac{v}{4 L}\) and nC = \(\frac{v}{4 L}\) ∴ nO = nC

Question 49.
A pipe open at both ends has the fundamental frequency n. If the pipe is immersed vertically in water up to half its length, what would be the fundamental frequency of the resulting air column?
Answer:
Let L be the length of the pipe open at both ends whose fundamental frequency is n. Then, ignoring the end correction, n = \(\frac{v}{2 L}\)
where v is the speed of sound in air.

When the pipe is immersed vertically in water up to half its length, it becomes a pipe closed at one end with an air column of length L’ = L / 2. Then, its fundamental frequency n’ is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 28
which is equal to n, the fundamental frequency of the open pipe.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves

Question 50.
The pth overtone of an organ pipe open at both ends has a frequency n. When one end of the pipe is closed, the qth overtone has a frequency N. Show that N = \(\frac{(2 q+1) n}{2(p+1)}\).
Answer:
Let L be the length of an organ pipe and v be the speed of sound in air.
When the pipe has both its ends open, the frequency of the pth overtone, ignoring the end correction, is (p + 1)\(\frac{v}{2 L}\).
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 29
When one end of the pipe is closed, the frequency of the qth overtone of a pipe of length L and closed at one end is (2q + 1)\(\frac{v}{4 L}\)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 30
which is the required expression.

Question 51.
Two organ pipes open at both ends and of same length but different radii (or diameters) produce sounds of different frequencies. Why?
Answer:
Stationary waves formed in the air column of a pipe open at both ends have an antinode at each end. These antinodes are slightly beyond the rim of the pipe and an end correction of approximately 30% of the inner diameter must be added to the measured length of the air column for each open end.

Suppose two organ pipes, open at both ends and of same length 1, have inner diameters rf, and d2. Then, the effective lengths of the air columns are respectively L1 = l + 0.6dt and L2 = l + 0.6d2. The fundamental frequencies of the corresponding air columns are
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 31
where v is the speed of sound in air. Thus, if d1 and d2 are different, n1 and n2 will also be different.

Question 52.
Two organ pipes closed at one end have the same diameters but different lengths. Show that the end correction at each end is e = \(\frac{n_{1} l_{1}-n_{2} l_{2}}{n_{2}-n_{1}}\), where the symbols have their usual meanings.
Answer:
Suppose two organ pipes, closed at one end and of the same inner diameter d, have lengths l1 and l2.
Then, the effective lengths of the air columns are respectively
L1 = l1 + 0.3d and L2 = l2 + e = l2 + 0.3d
where e = 0.3d is the end correction for the open end.
The fundamental frequencies of the corresponding air columns are
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 32
where v j the speed of sound in air.
∴ v = 4n1(l1 + e) = 4n1(l2 + e)
∴ n1I1 + n1e = n2I2 + n2e
∴ n1I1 – n2I2 = (n2 – n1)e
∴ e = \(\frac{n_{1} l_{1}-n_{2} l_{2}}{n_{2}-n_{1}}\)
which is the required expression.

Question 53.
State any two limitations of end correction.
Answer:
Limitations of end correction :

  1. Inner diameter of the tube must be uniform.
  2. Effects of air flow and temperature outside the tube are ignored.
  3. The prongs of the tuning fork should be perpendicular to the air column in the tube, with their tips at the centre of the tube and a small distance above the rim of the tube.

Question 54.
A tuning fork is in resonance with a closed pipe. But the same tuning fork cannot be in resonance with an open pipe of the same length. Why ?
Answer:
For the same length of air column, and the same speed of sound, the fundamental frequency of the air column in a closed pipe is half that in an open pipe. Hence, a tuning fork in unison with the air column in a closed pipe cannot be in unison with the air column of the same length in an open pipe.

Question 55.
Solve the following :

Question 1.
Calculate the fundamental frequency of an air column in a tube of length 25 cm closed at one end, if the speed of sound in air is 350 m/s.
Answer:
v = 350 m/s, L = 25 cm = 0.25 m
∴ The fundamental frequency of the air column is
n = \(\frac{v}{4 L}\) = \([\frac{350}{4 \times 0.25}/latex] = 350 Hz

Question 2.
A pipe which is open at both ends is 47 cm long and has an inner diameter of 5 cm. If the speed of sound in air is 348 m/s, calculate the fundamental frequency of the air column in that pipe.
Solution :
Data : l = 47 cm = 0.47 m, d = 5 cm = 0.05 m, v = 348 m/s
e = 0.3 d = 0.3 × 0.05 = 0.015 m
As the tube is open at both ends, the corrected length (L) is
L = l + 2e = 0.47 + (2 × 0.015) = 0.5 m
∴ The fundamental frequency of the air column is
n = [latex]\frac{v}{2 L}\) = \(\frac{348}{2 \times 0.5}\) = 348 Hz

Question 3.
A tube open at both ends is 47 cm long. Calculate the fundamental frequency of the air column. (Ignore the end correction. Speed of sound in air is 3.3 × 102 m/s.)
Solution :
Data : L = 47 cm = 0.47 m, v = 330 m/s.
The fundamental frequency of the air column,
n = \(\frac{v}{2 L}\) = \(\frac{330}{2 \times 0.47}\) = \(\frac{165}{0.47}\) = 351.1 Hz

Question 4.
The speed of sound in air at room temperature is 350 m/s. A pipe is 35 cm in length. Find the frequency of the third overtone in the pipe when it is
(i) closed at one end
(ii) open at both ends. Ignore the end correction.
Solution :
Data : v = 350 m/s, L = 35 cm = 35 × 10-2 m
(i) For a pipe closed at one end, the fundamental frequency is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 33
As only odd harmonics are present in this case, the frequency of pth overtone is np = (p × 2 + 1) nC
∴ The frequency of the 3rd overtone is
n3 = (3 × 2 + 1)nC = 7nC = 7 × 250 = 1750 Hz

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves

(ii) For a pipe open at both ends, the fundamental frequency is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 34
In this case, all harmonics are present.
∴ The frequency of the pth overtone is
np = (p + 1) nO
∴ The frequency of the 3rd overtone is n3 = (3 + 1) nO = 4nO = 4 × 500 = 2000 Hz

Question 5.
Find the frequency of the fifth overtone of an air column vibrating in a pipe closed at one end. The length of the pipe is 42.10 cm and the speed of sound in air at room temperature is 350 m/s. The inner diameter of the pipe is 3.5 cm.
Solution :
Data : L = 42.10 cm = 0.4210 m, v = 350 m/s, d = 3.5 cm = 3.5 × 10-2 m, pipe closed at one end
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 35

Question 6.
Determine the length of a pipe open at both ends which is in unison with a pipe of length 20 cm closed at one end, in the fundamental mode. Ignore the end correction.
Solution :
Let nO and LO be the fundamental frequency and length respectively, of the pipe open at both ends and let nC and LC be the corresponding values for a pipe closed at one end. If v is the speed of sound in air,
nO = \(\frac{v}{2 L_{\mathrm{O}}}\) and nC = \(\frac{v}{4 L_{\mathrm{C}}}\)
As the air columns in the two pipes vibrate in unison,
nO = nC
∴ 2LO = 4LC ∴ LO = 2LC
But LC = 20cm, ∴ LO = 2 × 20 = 40 cm

Question 7.
The fundamental frequency of an air column in a pipe closed at one end is in unison with the third overtone of an open pipe. Calculate the ratio of the lengths of their air columns.
Solution :
Pipe closed at one end : fundamental frequency,
nC = \(\frac{v}{4 L_{C}}\)
column is 51.8 cm.
nO = \(\frac{v}{2 L_{\mathrm{O}}}\)
In this case, the frequency of the third over-tone = \(\frac{4 v}{2 L_{\mathrm{O}}}\) = \(\frac{2 v}{L_{\mathrm{O}}}\)
By the data, \(\frac{v}{4 L_{C}}\) = \(\frac{2 v}{L_{\mathrm{O}}}\)
∴ \(\frac{L_{\mathrm{O}}}{L_{\mathrm{C}}}\) = 8 or \(\frac{L_{\mathrm{C}}}{L_{\mathrm{O}}}\) = \(\frac{1}{8}\)

Question 8.
The consecutive overtones of an air column closed at one end are 405 Hz and 675 Hz respectively. Find the fundamental frequency of a similar air column but open at both ends.
Solution:
For the air column closed at one end, let
L = the length of the air column,
nC = the fundamental frequency,
nq, nq + 1 = the frequencies of the qth and (q + 1)th overtones, where q = 1, 2, 3, …
Since only odd harmonics are present as overtones, nq = (2q + 1)nC and nq + 1 = [2(q + 1) + n]nC
= (2q + 3)nC
Data : nq = 405 Hz, nq+1 = 675 Hz
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 36
Solving for q, q = 1
Therefore, the two given frequencies correspond to the first and second overtones, i.e., the third and fifth harmonics.
∴ 3nC = 405 Hz
∴ nC = 135 Hz
This gives the fundamental frequency of the air column closed at one end.
The fundamental frequency (nO) of an air column of same length but open at both ends is double that of the air column closed at one end (ignoring the end correction).
∴ nO = 2nC = 2 × 135 = 270 Hz
This gives the fundamental frequency of a similar air column but open at both ends.
Solution :
Data : n = 480 Hz, l1 = 16.8 cm, l2 = 51.8 cm
(1) The speed of sound in air is v = 2n (l2 – l1)
= 2 × 480 × (51.8 – 16.8) = 33600 cm/s = 336 m/s

(2) Let λ be the wavelength of sound waves and e be the end correction.
For the first resonance, l1 + e = \(\frac{\lambda}{4}\) … (1)
For the second resonance, l2 + e = \(\frac{3 \lambda}{4}\) … (2)
From Eq. (1), λ = 4(l1 + e).
Substituting this value in Eq. (2), we get,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 37

Question 9.
In a resonance tube experiment, a tuning fork v resonates with an air column 10 cm long and again resonates when it is 32.2 cm long. Calculate the wavelength of the wave and the end correction.
Solution:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 38
This gives the wavelength of the wave. We have,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 39
This gives the end correction.

Question 10.
The length of air column in a resonance tube for fundamental mode is 16 cm and that for second resonance is 50.25 cm. Find the end correction.
Solution:
Data: l1 = 16 cm, l2 = 50.25 cm
End correction,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 40

Question 56.
State the formula for the speed of transverse waves on a stretched string (or wire). Hence obtain an expression for the fundamental frequency of the vibrating string (or wire).
Answer:

  1. If a string (or a wire) stretched between two rigid supports is plucked at some point, the disturbance produced travels along the string in the form of transverse waves. If T is the tension applied to the string and m is the mass per unit length (i.e., linear density) of the string, the speed of the transverse waves is
    v = \(\sqrt{\frac{T}{m}}\)
  2. The transverse waves moving along the string are reflected from the supports. The reflected waves interfere and under certain conditions set up stationary waves in the string. At each support, a node is formed.
  3. The possible or allowed stationary waves are subject to the two boundary conditions that there must be a node at each fixed end of the string. The different ways in which the string can then vibrate are called its modes of vibration.
  4. In the simplest mode of vibration, there are only two nodes (N), one at each end and an antinode (A) is formed midway between them, as shown in
    Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 41
    In this case, the distance between successive nodes is equal to the length of the string (L) and is equal to λ/2, where λ is the wavelength.
    ∴ L = \(\frac{\lambda}{2}\) or λ = 2L
    The frequency of vibrations is n = \(\frac{v}{\lambda}\)
    Substituting v = \(\sqrt{\frac{T}{m}}\) and λ = 2L in this relation, we get,
    n = \(\frac{1}{2 L} \sqrt{\frac{T}{m}}\)
    This is the lowest frequency of the stationary waves on a stretched string and is called the fundamental frequency.

Question 57.
What is the minimum frequency with which a stretched string of length L, linear density m can vibrate under tension T?
Answer:
The minimum frequency with which a stretched string of length L, linear density m can vibrate under tension T is the fundamental frequency given by n = \(\frac{1}{2 L} \sqrt{\frac{T}{m}}\).

Question 58.
The mass per unit length of a wire is 1 × 10-4 kg/m and the tension in the wire is 25 N. What is the speed of the transverse waves on the wire?
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 42

Question 59.
With neat labelled diagrams, explain the three lowest modes of vibration of a string stretched between rigid supports.
Answer:
Consider a string of linear density m stretched between two rigid supports a distance L apart. Let T be the tension in the string.

Stationary waves set up on the string are subjected to two boundary conditions : the displacement y = 0 at x = 0 and at x = L at all times. That is, there must be a node at each fixed end. These conditions limit the possible modes of vibration to only a discrete set of frequencies such that there are an integral number of loops p between the two fixed ends.

Since, the length of one loop (the distance between consecutive nodes) corresponds to half a wavelength (λ),
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 43
In the simplest mode of vibration, only one loop (p = 1) is formed. The corresponding lowest allowed frequency, n, given by
n = \(\frac{1}{2 L} \sqrt{\frac{T}{m}}\) … (4)
is called the fundamental frequency or the first harmonic. The possible modes of vibration with frequencies higher than the fundamental are called the overtones.

In the first overtone, two loops are formed (p = 2). Its frequency,
n1 = \(\frac{2}{L} \sqrt{\frac{T}{m}}\) = 2n … (5)
is twice the fundamental and is, therefore, the second harmonic.

In the second overtone, three loops are formed (p = 3). Its frequency,
n2 = \(\frac{3}{2 L} \sqrt{\frac{T}{m}}\) = 3n … (6)
is the third harmonic.

Question 60.
The speed of transverse waves on a vibrating string is 50 m/s. If the length of the string is 0.25 m, what is the fundamental frequency of vibration?
Answer:
Fundamental frequency, n = \(\frac{v}{(2 L)}\) = \(\frac{50}{(2 \times 0.25)}\)
= 100 Hz

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves

Question 61.
State and explain the laws of vibrating strings.
Answer:
The fundamental frequency of vibration of a stretched string or wire of uniform cross section is 1
n = \(\frac{1}{2 L} \sqrt{\frac{T}{m}}\)
where L is the vibrating length, m the mass per unit length (linear density) of the string and T the tension in the string. From the above expression, we can state the following three laws of vibrating strings.

(1) Law of length : The fundamental frequency of vibrations of a stretched string is inversely proportional to its vibrating length, if the tension and mass per unit length are kept constant. If T and m are constant,
n ∝ \(\frac{1}{L}\) or nL = constant.

(2) Law of tension : The fundamental frequency of vibrations of a stretched string is directly proportional to the square root of the applied tension, if the length and mass per unit length are kept constant. If L and m are constant,
n ∝ or \(\sqrt{T}\) or n2/T = constant.

(3) Law of mass (or law of linear density) : The fundamental frequency of vibrations of a stretched string is inversely proportional to the square root of its mass per unit length, if the length and tension are kept constant. If L and T are constant,
n ∝ \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{m}}\) or n2m = constant.

Question 62.
How does the fundamental frequency of a vibrating string depend on the radius of cross section of the string and the mass density of the material of the string ?
Answer:
Consider a string stretched between two rigid supports a distance L apart. Let T be the tension in the string, r be its radius of cross section and p be the mass density of its material. Then, the mass of the string M = (πr2L)p, so that its linear density, i.e., mass per unit length, m = M/L = πr2p.

According to the law of mass of a vibrating string, the fundamental frequency (n) is inversely proportional to the square root of its linear density, when T and L are constant.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 44

Question 63.
A string/wire is stretched between two rigid supports. State any two factors on which the fundamental frequency of the string/wire depends.
Answer:

  1. Tension in the string/wire
  2. length of the string/wire (or radius or mass per unit length or mass density of the material of the string/wire)

Question 64.
Why are strings of different thicknesses and materials used in a sitar or some other such instruments?
Answer:
The linear density of a string, m = πr2p, where r is the radius of cross section of the string and p is the mass density of its material. By the law of mass of a vibrating string, the frequency of vibrations n of the string is inversely proportional to \(\sqrt{m}\). Therefore, n ∝ \(\frac{1}{r}\) and n ∝\(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\rho}}\). Hence, the strings of different thicknesses and materials in a stringed musical instrument like sitar can be set to different scales.

Question 65.
If Y and ρ are Young’s modulus and mass density of the material of a stretched wire of length L, show that the fundamental frequency of vibration of the wire is n = \(\frac{1}{2 L} \sqrt{\frac{Y \Delta L}{\rho L}}\), where ∆L is the elastic extension of the wire.
Answer:
Consider a wire stretched between two rigid supports a distance L apart. Let T ≡ the tension in the wire, r ≡ the radius of cross section of the wire,
Y, ρ ≡ Young’s modulus and mass density of the material of the wire,
M,m ≡ the mass and linear density of the wire.
Then, M = (πr2L)ρ and m = \(\frac{M}{L}\) = πr2ρ … (1)
The stress in the wire = \(\frac{T}{\pi r^{2}}\)
∴ \(\frac{T}{m}\) = \(\frac{T}{\pi r^{2} \rho}\) = \(\frac{\text { stress }}{\rho}\) … (2)
The The fundamental frequency of vibration of the wire,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 45
if ∆L is the elastic extension of the wire under tension T, strain = ∆L/L.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 46
which is the required expression.

Question 66.
What is the linear density of a wire of mass density 8 g/cm3 and cross-sectional radius 0.05 mm ?
Answer:
Linear density of the wire = nr2p
= π(5 × 10-3)2 (8) = 2π × 10-4 g/cm.

Question 67.
Stationary waves on a vibrating string of length 30 cm has three loops. What is the wavelength ?
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 47

Question 68.
Write a short note on sonometer.
Answer:
A sonometer consists of a uniform wire stretched over a rectangular sounding box, and passes over
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 48
two movable bridges (or knife edges) and a pulley, in above figure. It works on the phenomenon of resonance. The tension in the wire is adjusted by adding weights to the hanger attached to the free end of the wire. The length of the wire between the movable bridges, L, is adjusted to vibrate in unison with a given timing fork either by beats method or by paper-rider method. L is called the vibrating length. First, the vibrating length is set to minimum and then gradually increased in small steps. In the beats method, the wire and the tuning fork are simultaneously set into vibrations for each vibrating length. Beats can be heard when the two frequencies are very close. Then, a finer adjustment of the wire is needed so that no beats are heard. This is when the two are in unison.

For the paper-rider method, a small light paper in the form of Λ is placed on the wire at its centre. The stem of the vibrating timing fork is gently pressed on the sonometer box. The vibrating length is gradually increased from minimum till the paper rider vibrates and thrown off. Because, when the wire resonates with the tuning fork at its lowest fundamental mode, the wire vibrates with maximum amplitude and the centre of the wire is an antinode. Hence, the paper rider is thrown off.

A sonometer is used to determine the frequency of a tuning fork and to verify the laws of vibrating strings.

Question 69.
Explain the use of a sonometer to verify
(i) the law of length
(ii) the law of tension
(iii) the law of linear density.
Answer:
(i) Verification of law of length : According to this law, n ∝ \(\frac{1}{L}\), if T and m are constant. To verify this
law, the sonometer wire of given linear density m is kept under constant tension T. The length of the wire is adjusted for the wire to vibrate in unison with tuning forks of different frequencies n1, n2, n3,… . Let L1, L2, L3, … be the corresponding resonating lengths of the wire. It is found that, within experimental errors, n1L1 = n2L2 = n3L3 = …. This implies that the product, nL = constant, which vertifies the law of length.

(ii) Verification of law of tension : According to this law, n ∝ \(\sqrt{T}\), if L and m are constant. To verify this law, the vibrating length L of the sonometer wire of given linear density m is kept constant.

A set of tuning forks of different frequencies is used. The tension in the wire is adjusted for the wire to vibrate in unison with tuning forks of different frequencies n1, n2, n3,….. . T1, T2, T3, ….. corresponding tensions. It is found that, within experimental errors, \(\frac{n_{1}}{\sqrt{T_{1}}}\) = \(\frac{n_{2}}{\sqrt{T_{2}}}\) = \(\frac{n_{3}}{\sqrt{T_{3}}}\) = ….. This implies \(\frac{n_{1}}{\sqrt{T}}\) = constant which verifies the law of tension.

(iii) Verification of linear density : According to this law, n ∝ \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{m}}\), if T and L are constant. To verify this law, two wires having different linear densities m1 and m2 are kept under constant tension T.
A tuning fork of frequency n is used. The lengths of the wires are adjusted for the wires to vibrate in unison with the tuning fork. Let L1 and L2 be the corresponding resonating lengths of the wires. It is found that, within experimental errors, \(L_{1} \sqrt{m_{1}}\) = \(L_{2} \sqrt{m_{2}}\). This implies \(L \sqrt{m}\) = constant. According to the law of length of a vibrating string, n ∝ \(\frac{1}{L}\).
∴ n ∝ \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{m}}\) which verifies the law of linear density.

Question 70.
A stretched sonometer wire vibrates at 256 Hz. If its length is increased by 10%, without changing the tension in the wire, what will be the frequency of the wire ?
Answer:
L2 = 1.1 L1 = \(\frac{n_{2}}{n_{1}}\) = \(\frac{L_{2}}{L_{1}}\) ∴ \(\frac{n_{2}}{256}\) = 1.1
∴ n2 = 256 × 1.1 = 281.6 Hz

Question 71.
Solve the following :

Question 1.
Find the speed of a transverse wave along a string of linear density 3.6 × 10-3 kg/m, when it is under a tension of 1.8 kg wt.
Solution :
Data : m = 3.6 × 10-3 kg/m, g = 9.8 m/s2
∴ T = 1.8 kg wt = 1.8 × 9.8N
The speed of transverse waves along the string is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 49

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves

Question 2.
The speed of a transverse wave along a uniform metal wire, when it is under a tension of 1000 g wt, is 68 m/s. If the density of the metal is 7900 kg/m3, find the area of cross section of the wire.
Solution :
Data : g = 9.8 m/s2, T = 1000 g wt = 1 kg wt = 9.8 N,
V = 68 m/s, ρ = 7900 kg/m3
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 50
This gives the area of cross section of the wire.

Question 3.
A transverse wave is produced on a string 0.7 m long and fixed at its ends. Find the speed of the wave when it vibrates emitting the second overtone of frequency 300 Hz.
Solution :
Data : L = 0.7 m, n (second overtone) = 300 Hz
In this case, three loops are formed on the string.
∴ L = 3\(\frac{\lambda}{2}\)
∴ λ = \(\frac{2 L}{3}\) ∴ v = nλ = \(\frac{2}{3}\)nL
∴ v = \(\frac{2}{3}\) × 300 × 0.7 = 140 m/s
This gives the speed of the wave.

Question 4.
A uniform wire under tension is fixed at its ends. If the ratio of the tension in the wire to the square of its length is 360 dyn/cm2 and the fundamental frequency of vibration of the wire is 300 Hz, find its linear density.
Solution :
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 51

Question 5.
A metal wire of length 20 cm and diameter 0.2 mm is stretched by a load of 2 kg wt. If the density of the material of the wire is 7.8 g/cm3, find the fundamental frequency of vibration of the wire.
Solution :
Data : L = 20 cm = 0.2 m, d = 0.2 mm, g = 9.8 m/s2, T = 2 kg wt = 2 × 9.8 N = 19.6 N, ρ = 7.8 g/cm3 = 7.8 × 103 kg/m3
∴ r = \(\frac{d}{2}\) = 0.1 mm = 0.1 × 10-3 m
n = \(\frac{1}{2 L} \sqrt{\frac{T}{m}}\) and m = πr2ρ
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 52
The fundamental frequency of vibration of the wire is 707 Hz.

Question 6.
Two wires, each 1 m long and of the same diameter, have densities 8 × 103 kg/m3 and 2 × 103 kg/m3 and are stretched by tensions 196 N and 49 N, respectively. Compare their fundamental frequencies.
Solution :
Data : L1 = L2 = 1 m, d1 = d2 (∴ r1 = r2), ρ1 = 8 × 103 kg/m3, ρ2 = 2 × 103 kg/m3, T1 = 196 N, T2 = 49N
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 53
∴ Their fundamental frequencies are the same.

Question 7.
A uniform wire of length 49 cm and linear density 4 × 10-4 kg/m is subjected to a tension of 28 N. Determine its frequency for

  1. the fundamental mode
  2. the second harmonic
  3. the third overtone.

Solution :
Data : L = 49 cm = 0.49 m, T = 28 N, m = 4 × 10-4 kg/m

  1. Fundamental frequency :
    Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 54
  2. Second harmonic : 2n = 2 × 270 = 540 Hz
  3. Third overtone : 4n = 4 × 270 = 1080 Hz

Question 8.
Two wires of the same material, having lengths in the ratio 2 : 1 and diameters in the ratio 3 :1 are subjected to tensions in the ratio 1 : 4. Find the ratio of their fundamental frequencies.
Solution :
Let n1, L1, T1, m1, r1 and ρ1 be the fundamental frequency, vibrating length, tension, mass per unit length, radius and density of the first wire respectively and let n2, L2, T2, m2, r2 and ρ2 be the corresponding quantities of the second wire.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 55
Substituting these values in the above relation,
\(\frac{n_{1}}{n_{2}}\) = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × \(\frac{1}{3}\) × \(\sqrt{\frac{1}{4} \times 1}\) = \(\frac{1}{12}\)

Question 9.
A wire under a certain tension, gives a note of fundamental frequency 320 Hz. When the tension is changed, the frequency of the fundamental note rises to 480 Hz. Compare the tensions in the wire.
Solution :
Data : n1 = 320 Hz, n2 = 480 Hz Fundamental frequency is n = \(\frac{1}{2 L} \sqrt{\frac{T}{m}}\)
As the length (L) of the wire and its mass per unit length (m) are kept constant,
n ∝ \(\sqrt{T}\)
∴\(\frac{n_{1}}{n_{2}}\) = \(\sqrt{\frac{T_{1}}{T_{2}}}\)
∴ The ratio of the tensions in the wire,
\(\frac{T_{1}}{T_{2}}\) = \(\left(\frac{n_{1}}{n_{2}}\right)^{2}\) = \(\left(\frac{320}{480}\right)^{2}\) = \(\left(\frac{2}{3}\right)^{2}\) = \(\frac{4}{9}\)

Question 10.
A transverse wave is produced on a stretched string 0.9 m long and fixed at its ends. Find the speed of the transverse wave, when the string vibrates while emitting second overtone of frequency 324 Hz.
Solution :
Data : L = 0.9 m, n (second overtone) = 324 Hz
For the second overtone of a vibrating string, λ = \(\frac{2}{3}\)L
The speed of the transverse wave formed on the string, v = nλ
∴ v = n × \(\frac{2}{3}\)L = 324 × \(\frac{2}{3}\) × 0.9
= 324 × 0.6 = 194.4 m/s

Question 11.
The string of a guitar is 80 cm long and has a fundamental frequency of 112 Hz. If a guitarist wishes to produce a frequency of 160 Hz, where should the person press the string ?
Solution :
Data : L1 = 80 cm n1 = 112 Hz, n2 = 160 Hz
According to the law of length, n1L1 = n2L2.
∴ The vibrating length to produce the fundamental frequency of 160 Hz,
L2 = \(\frac{n_{1} L_{1}}{n_{2}}\) = \(\frac{112(80)}{160}\) = 56 cm

Question 12.
What should be the tension applied to a wire of length 1 m and mass 10 grams, if it has to vibrate with the fundamental frequency of 50 Hz ?
Solution :
Data : L = 1 m, mass of the wire = 10 g = 0.01 kg, n = 50 Hz
∴ m = mass per unit length of the wire = \(\frac{0.01}{1}\)
= 0.01 kg/m
n = \(\frac{1}{2 L} \sqrt{\frac{T}{m}}\)
∴ Tension = T = 4n2L2m
= 40(50)2(1)2(0.01)
= 4 × 2500 × 0.01 = 100 N

Question 13.
A sonometer wire of length 1 m weighing 2 g is subjected to a suitable tension. The vibrating length of the wire in unison with a tuning fork of frequency 512 Hz is 12 cm. If the vibrating length of the wire in unison with another fork under the same conditions is 12.8 cm, find the frequency of this fork.
Solution :
Data : L1 = 12 cm, n1 = 512 Hz, L2 = 12.8 cm n1L1 = n2L2
∴ The frequency of the second fork,
n2 = \(\frac{n_{1} L_{1}}{L_{2}}\) = \(\frac{512(12)}{12.8}\) = 480 Hz

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves

Question 14.
A stretched sonometer wire emits a fundamental note of frequency 256 Hz. Keeping the stretching force constant and reducing the length of the wire by 10 cm, the frequency becomes 320 Hz. Calculate the original length of the wire.
Solution:
Data : n1 = 256 Hz, T and m constant, L2 = L1 – 10 cm, n2 = 320 Hz
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 56
∴ 5L1 – 50 = 4L1
∴ L1 = 50 cm = 0.5 m

Alternative method :
Since T and m are constant, nL = constant.
∴ n1L1 = n2L2 ∴ \(\frac{L_{1}}{L_{2}}\) = \(\frac{n_{2}}{n_{1}}\)
∴ \(\frac{L_{1}}{L_{1}-10}\) = \(\frac{320}{256}\) = \(\frac{20}{16}\) = \(\frac{5}{4}\)
∴ 4L1 = 5L1 – 50
∴ 5L1 – 4L1 = 50
∴L1 = 50cm = 0.5 m

Question 15.
A sonometer wire, 36 cm long, vibrates with a frequency of 280 Hz in the fundamental mode when it is under a tension of 24.5 N. Calculate the linear density of the material of the wire.
Solution :
Data: L = 36 cm = 0.36 m, n = 280 Hz, T = 24.5 N,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 57

Question 16.
A sonometer wire 36 cm long, vibrates with a fundamental frequency of 280 Hz, when it is under tension of 24.5 N. Calculate mass per unit length of wire.
Solution :
Data : L = 36 cm = 0.36 m, n = 280 Hz, T = 24.5 N
n = \(\frac{1}{2 L} \sqrt{\frac{T}{m}}\)
∴ Linear density, m = \(\frac{T}{4 L^{2} n^{2}}\)
∴ m = \(\frac{24.5}{4(0.36)^{2}(280)^{2}}\)
= 6.0 × 10-4 kg/m

Question 17.
The length of a sonometer wire between two fixed ends is 110 cm. Where should be the two bridges be placed so as to divide the wire into three segments, whose fundamental frequencies are in the ratio of 1: 2 : 3 ?
Solution :
Data : L1 + L2 + L3 = 110 cm, n1 : n2 : n3 = 1 : 2 : 3
According to the first law of length, n ∝ \(\frac{1}{L}\) if T and m are constant.
By given data, n1 = 2n2 = 3n3
∴ \(\frac{1}{L_{1}}\) = \(\frac{2}{L_{2}}\) = \(\frac{3}{L_{3}}\)
∴ L2 = 2L1 and L3 = 3L1
L1 + 2L1 + 3L1 = 110
∴ 6L1 = 110
∴ L1 = 18.3 cm
∴ L2 = 2 × 18.3 = 36.6 cm
∴ L3 = 3 × 18.3 = 54.9 cm
Therefore, the two bridge should be kept in such a way that the distance between them in 36.6 cm and distance of 1st bridge from the fixed end of the wire is 18.3 cm.

Question 72.
What are beats? Define
(1) the period of beats
(2) beat frequency (1 mark each)
Answer:
A periodic variation in loudness (or intensity) when two sound notes of slightly different frequencies are sounded
at the same time is called beats.

If two notes of slightly different frequencies n1 and n2 are played simultaneously, the resulting
note from their interference has a frequency of (n1 + n2)/2. However, the amplitude of this resulting note varies from the sum to the difference of the amplitudes of the two notes n1 and n2. An intensity maximum and an intensity minimum are respectively called waxing and waning. Thus, the resulting note will be heard as one of periodic loud (waxing) and faint (waning) sound. One waxing and one waning form one beat. Formation of beats is an example of interference in time.

The time interval between successive maxima or minima of sound at a given place is called the period of beats.
The number of beats produced per unit time is called the beat frequency.

Question 73.
Distinguish between stationary waves and beats. (Two points of distinction)
Answer:

Stationary waves

Beats

1. These are formed due to interference, under certain conditions, between two identical progressive waves travelling in opposite directions. 1. These are formed due to interference between two progressive waves which need not be travelling in opposite directions.
2. Interfering waves must have the same frequency. 2. Interfering waves must have slightly different frequencies.
3. At a given point, the amplitude is constant. 3. At a given point, the amplitude changes with time.
4. Nodes and antinodes are produced. 4. There is waxing and waning of resultant intensity.
5. The resultant wave does not travel in any direction. 5. The resultant wave travels in the forward direction.
6. There is no energy transport through the medium. 6. There is energy transport through the medium.

Question 74.
Discuss analytically the formation of beats and show that
(1) the beat frequency equals the difference in frequencies of two interfering waves
(2) the waxing and waning occur alternately and with the same period.
OR
Explain the production of beats and deduce analytically the expression for beat frequency.
Answer:
Consider two sound waves of equal amplitude (A) and slightly different frequencies n1 and n2 (with n1 > n2) propagating through the medium in the same direction and along the same line. These waves can be represented by the equations y1 = A sin 2πn1t and y2 = A sin 2πn2t at x = 0, where y denotes the displacement of the particle of the medium from its mean position.

By the principle of superposition of waves, the resultant displacement of the particle of the medium at the point at which the two waves arrive simultaneously is the algebraic sum
y = y1 + y2 = A sin 2πn1t + A sin 2πn2t
Now, sin C + sin D
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 58
∴y = R sin 2πnt

The above equation shows that the resultant motion has amplitude IRI which changes periodically with time. The period of beats is the period of waxing (maximum intensity of sound) or the period of waning (minimum intensity of sound). The intensity of sound is directly proportional to the square of the amplitude of the wave. It is maximum (waxing) when R becomes maximum;
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 59
The intensity of sound is minimum (waning) when R = 0
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 60
From Eqs. (1) and (2), it can be seen that the waxing and waning occur alternately and with the same period.

Question 75.
The speed of sound in air under certain conditions is 350 m/s. If two sound waves of wavelengths \(\) m and \(\) m arrive at a point at the same time, what will be the beat frequency?
Answer:
Beat frequency = |n1 – n2|
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 61

Question 76.
State the conditions for hearing beats.
Answer:
Conditions for hearing beats : For two sound waves to interfere and give rise to beats,

  1. they should travel in the same medium and arrive at the listener at the same time
  2. their frequencies should not differ by more than about 7 Hz for distinct beats
  3. their amplitudes should be equal or nearly so.

Question 77.
When two tuning forks of slightly different frequencies are sounded together to produce beats, what is the effect on the beat frequency if the prongs of the tuning fork with higher frequency are waxed a little or filed a little?
Answer:
Filing the prongs of a tuning fork reduces its mass and thereby raises its frequency. Applying a little wax to the prongs increases its mass and thereby reduces its frequency. Therefore, filing the prongs of the tuning fork of the higher frequency increases the beat frequency while applying a little wax to its prongs decreases the beat frequency.

Question 78.
When two tuning forks of slightly different frequencies are sounded together to produce beats, what is the effect on beat frequency if the prongs of the tuning fork with lower frequency is waxed a little or filed a little?
Answer:
Filing the prongs of a tuning fork reduces its mass and thereby raises its frequency. Applying a little wax to the prongs increases its mass and thereby reduces its frequency. Therefore, filing the prongs of the tuning fork of the lower frequency decreases the beat frequency while applying a little wax to its prongs increases the beat frequency.

Question 79.
A tuning fork has frequency 512 Hz. What can you say about its frequency when

  1. its prongs are filed
  2. some wax is applied to its prongs ?

Answer:

  1. Its frequency will be more than 512 Hz.
  2. Its frequency will be less than 512 Hz.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves

Question 80.
Explain any two applications of beats.
Answer:
Applications of beats :

(1) Listening for beats – or rather, their absence-is the usual method of tuning musical instruments and in the determination of the frequency of a musical note.

(2) Ultrasonic vocal sounds made by bats and dolphins may be detected by superimposing a sound of different frequency to produce audible beats.

(3) In music, beats are used to produce a low frequency sound (a grave tone). Two notes whose difference in frequency is equal to the desired low frequency are used for this purpose. When two notes are nearly in tune, the beats are slow. But as the beat frequency increases to 20 Hz or more, the beats may ultimately merge into a continuous tone known as a difference tone.

(4) (i) Speed of a moving object can be determined using a Doppler RADAR. Radio waves from the RADAR are reflected off a moving object, such as an aeroplane. The superposition of the incident and reflected waves produces beats. The frequency of beats helps to determine the speed of the aeroplane.
The same principle is used in speed guns used by traffic police to determine the speed of cars on a highway.

(ii) In medicine, a Doppler ultrasound test (sonography) uses reflected sound waves to evaluate blood flow through the major arteries and veins of the arms, legs and neck. It can show blocked or reduced blood flow because of narrowing of the major arteries. Duplex (or 2D) Doppler, Colour Doppler and Power Doppler are different techniques of the same test.

Notes: Some other applications of beats are as follows :

  1. Detection of toxic gases inside mines, especially collieries : Air from inside a mine and pure air are blown through two separate identical organ pipes. If beats are heard it would indicate that the composition of air inside the mines is different from that outside. This can serve as an early warning system.
  2. In music, consonance and dissonance depend upon the beats produced when two notes are sounded simultaneously. A beat frequency between 10 Hz and 50 Hz (between the fundamental notes being played as well as any of their overtones) is unpleasant and results in dissonance.
  3. Superheterodyne reception of radio waves in most radio, television and radar receivers : A low-frequency signal produced in the receiver is beat against an incoming high-frequency radio signal to produce an intermediate (beat) frequency (IF). This IF signal retains the information of the incoming signal. The receiver can be tuned to different broadcast frequencies by adjusting the frequency of the low-frequency signal. The IF signal though can be kept the same in every case and can therefore be amplified with higher gain.]

Question 81.
If beat frequency is 10 Hz, what is the time interval between
(i) successive waxings
(ii) a waxing and subsequent waning of sound.
Answer:
Beat period = \(\frac{1}{\text { beat frequency }}\) = \(\frac{1}{10 \mathrm{~Hz}}\) = 0.1 s
Hence, the time interval will be 0.1 s in case (i) and 0.05 s in case (ii).

Question 82.
A sonometer wire of length L1 is in unison with a tuning fork of frequency n. When the vibrating length of the wire is reduced to L2, it produces x beats per second with the fork. Show that n = x2.\(\frac{L_{2}}{L_{1}-L_{2}}\).
Answer:
The fundamental frequency of vibration of a wire of length L1, mass per unit length m and under tension T is
n1 = \(\frac{1}{2 L_{1}} \sqrt{\frac{T}{m}}\) = n … (1)
since it is in unison with a tuning fork of frequency n. When the vibrating length of the wire is L2, its fundamental frequency is
n2 = \(\frac{1}{2 L_{2}} \sqrt{\frac{T}{m}}\) … (2)
T and m remaining constant.
∴ \(\frac{n_{2}}{n_{1}}[latex] = [latex]\frac{L_{1}}{L_{2}}[latex] … (3)
Since L2 < L1, n2 > n1 so that n2 – n1 = x
∴ n2 = n1 + x …. (4)
Substituting for n2 in Eq. (3),
[latex]\frac{n_{1}+x}{n_{1}}\) = \(\frac{L_{1}}{L_{2}}\) or \(\frac{x}{n_{1}}\) = \(\frac{L_{1}-L_{2}}{L_{2}}\)
∴ n1 = n = x.\(\frac{L_{2}}{L_{1}-L_{2}}\)
which is the required expression.

Question 83.
Solve the following :

Question 1.
A tuning fork C produces 6 beats/second- with another tuning fork D of frequency 320 Hz. When a little wax is put on the prongs of D, the number of beats reduces to 4 per second. Find the frequency of C.
Solution :

  1. Initially 6 beats per second are heard. Hence, the difference between the frequencies of the tuning forks is 6 Hz. As the frequency of fork D is 320 Hz, the frequency of fork C = 320 + 6 Hz
    = 326 Hz or 314 Hz
  2. When the prongs of fork D are loaded with a little wax, the frequency of fork D decreases and becomes less than 320 Hz.
  3. If the frequency of fork C is 326 Hz, the number of beats heard per second must increase.
  4. However, as the number of beats heard per second has decreased from 6 to 4, the frequency of fork C must be 314 Hz.

Question 2.
A tuning fork C produces 8 beats per second with another tuning fork D of frequency 340 Hz. When the prongs of tuning fork C are filed a little, the number of beats produced per second decreases to 4. Find the frequency of tuning fork C before filing its prongs.
Solution :
The frequency of timing fork D is 340 Hz. Let n be the frequency of tuning fork C. Since tuning forks C and D produce 8 beats per second when sounded together,
n – 340 = 8 or 340 – n = 8
∴ n = 348 Hz or 332 Hz
When the prongs of a tuning fork are filed a little, its frequency increases. Let n’ be its frequency after filing : n’ > n.

It is given that the beat frequency is reduced from 8 Hz to 4 Hz.
If n was 348 Hz, n’ will be more than 348 Hz. Hence, the beat frequency should increase. Hence, n ≠ 348 Hz.
∴ n = 332 Hz

Question 3.
A sonometer wire 100 cm long produces a resonance with a tuning fork. When its length is decreased by 10 cm, 8 beats per second are heard. Find the frequency of the tuning fork.
Solution :
Data : L1 = 100 cm, L2 = 100 – 10 = 90 cm, n2 – n1 = 8 beats per second
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 62
Now, n2 – n1 = 8 ∴ \(\frac{10}{9}\)n1 – n1 = 8
∴ 10n1 – 9n1 = 9 × 8 = 72
∴ n1 = 72 Hz
This gives the frequency of the tuning fork as the wire of length 100 cm is in unison with the fork.

Question 4.
A stretched sonometer wire is in unison with a tuning fork. When its length is increased by 4 %, the number of beats heard per second is 6. Find the frequency of the fork.
Solution :
Data : \(\frac{L_{2}}{L_{1}}\) = 1.04, n1 – n2 = 6Hz
n1 = \(\frac{1}{2 L_{1}} \sqrt{\frac{T}{m}}\) and n2 = \(\frac{1}{2 L_{2}} \sqrt{\frac{T}{m}}\)
∴ \(\frac{n_{1}}{n_{2}}\) = \(\frac{L_{2}}{L_{1}}\) = 1.04
∴ n1 = 1.04n2
Now, n1 – n2 = 6
∴ 1.04 n2 – n2 = 6
∴ n2 = \(\frac{6}{0.04}\) = 150 Hz
∴ n1 = n2 + 6 = 150 + 6 = 156 Hz
This gives the frequency of the tuning fork as initially the wire and the fork vibrate in unison.

Question 5.
The wavelengths of two notes in air are \(\frac{83}{170}\) m and \(\frac{83}{172}\) m. Each of these notes produces 4 beats per second with a third note of a fixed frequency. Find the speed of sound in air.
Solution :
Data : λ1 = 83/170 m, λ2 = 83/172 m
Let n1 and n2 be the corresponding frequencies.
∴ v = n1λ1 = n2λ2
where v is the speed of sound in air.
But λ1 > λ2
∴ n1 < n2
If n is the third frequency, n1 < n < n2
∴ n – n1 = 4 and n2 – n = 4
Method 1 :
∴ n2 – n1 = 8 ∴ \(\frac{v}{\lambda_{2}}\) – \(\frac{v}{\lambda_{1}}\) = 8
∴ v\(\left[\frac{172}{83}-\frac{170}{183}\right]\) = 8 ∴ v × \(\frac{2}{83}\) = 8
∴ v = 4 × 83 = 332 m/s
Method 2 :
∴ n1 = n – 4 and n2 = n + 4
∴ (n – 4) × \(\frac{83}{170}\) = (n + 4) × \(\frac{83}{172}\)
Simplifying, we get, 2n = 1368
∴ n = 684 Hz
∴ n1 = 684 – 4 = 680 Hz
∴ v = n1λ1 = 680 × \(\frac{83}{170}\) = 4 × 83
∴ v = 332 m/s

Question 6.
Two sound notes have wavelengths \(\frac{83}{170}\) m and \(\frac{83}{172}\) m in air. These notes, when sounded together, produce 8 beats per second. Calculate the velocity of sound in air and frequencies of the two notes.
Solution :
Data : λ1 = 83/170 m, λ2 = 83/172 m
Let nλ1 and nλ2 be the corresponding frequencies.
∴ v = n1λ1 = n2λ2
where v is the velocity of sound in air.
∴ n1 = \(\frac{v}{\lambda_{1}}\) and n2 = \(\frac{v}{\lambda_{2}}\) … (1)
But λ1 > λ2 ∴ n1 < n2
∴ n2 – n1 = 8
∴ v\(\left(\frac{1}{\lambda_{2}}-\frac{1}{\lambda_{1}}\right)\) = 8 [From Eq. (1)] …(2)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 63

Question 7.
32 tuning forks are arranged in descending order of frequencies. If any two consecutive tuning forks are sounded together, the number of beats heard is eight per second. The frequency of the first tuning fork is octave of the last fork. Calculate the frequency of the first, last and the 21st fork.
Solution :
Data : n1 = 2n32, (n1 is octave of n32) beat frequency = 8 Hz
The set of tuning forks is arranged in descending order of their frequencies.
∴ n2 = n1 – 8
n3 = n2 – 8 = n1 – 2 × 8
n4 = n3 – 8 = n1 – 3 × 8
∴ n32 = n1 – 31 × 8 = n1 – 248
Since n1 = 2n31, n32 = 2n32 – 248
∴ The frequency of the last fork, n32 = 248 Hz
The frequency of the first fork, n1 = 2n32 = 2 × 248 = 496 Hz
∴ The frequency of the 21st fork, n21 = n1 – 20 × 8 = 496 -160 = 336 Hz

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves

Question 8.
A set of 12 tuning forks is arranged in order of increasing frequencies. Each fork produces V beats per second with the previous one. The last is an octave of the first. The fifth fork has a frequency of 90 Hz. Find V and the frequency of the first and the last tuning forks.
Solution :
Data : ni+1 – ni = Y, n12 = 2n1, n5 = 90 Hz n2 – n1 = Y beats/s
∴ n2 = n1 + Y beats/s
Similarly, n3 = n2 + Y = n1 + Y + Y
∴ n3 = n1 + 2Y = n1 + (3 – 1) Y
∴ nx = n1 + (x – 1) Y
Similarly, n12 = n1 + (12 – 1) Y = n1 + 11Y
∴ n12 = 2n1 = n1 + 11Y
∴ n1 = 11Y
Also, n5 = n1 + (5 – 1) Y = n1 + 4Y
∴ n5 = 11Y + 4Y = 15Y
∵ n5 = 90 Hz ∴ 15Y = 90 ∴ Y = 6
∴ n1 = 11Y beats/s = 11 × 6 beats/s = 66 Hz and n12 = 2n1 = 2 (66) = 132 Hz

Question 9.
Two tuning forks when sounded together produce 5 beats per second. A sonometer wire of length 0.24 m is in unison with one of the forks. When the length of wire is increased by 1 cm, it is in unison with the other fork. Find the frequencies of the tuning forks.
Solution :
Data :L1 = 0.24 m = 24 cm, L2 = 24 + 1 = 25 cm, beat frequency = 5 Hz
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 64
∴ n1 = n2 + 5 = 125 Hz
∴ The frequencies of the two tuning forks are 125 Hz and 120 Hz.

Question 10.
A closed pipe and an open pipe sounded together produce 5 beats/s. If the length of the open pipe is 30 cm, find by how much should the length of the closed pipe be changed to make the air columns in the two pipes vibrate in unison. [Speed of sound in air = 330 m/s]
Solution :
Data : Beat frequency = 5 s-1, LO = 0.3 m, v = 330 m/s
The fundamental frequencies of a closed pipe and open pipe are respectively
nC = \(\frac{v}{4 L_{\mathrm{C}}}\) and n0 = \(\frac{v}{2 L_{O}}\)
Let L’C and n’C be the changed length and frequency of the closed pipe,
n’C = nO
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 65
Method 1 :
Since the beat frequency = 5 Hz,
|nC – nO| = |nC – n’C| = 5
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 66
∴ The length of the given closed pipe should be changed by \(\frac{10}{11}\) % to bring it unison with the open pipe.

Method 2 :
Since the beat frequency = 5 Hz,
nC – nO = 5 or nO – nC = 5
i. e., nC = 555 Hz or 545 Hz
∴ LC = \(\frac{v}{4 n_{\mathrm{C}}}\) = \(\frac{330}{4(555)}\) or \(\frac{330}{4(545)}\)
= 0.1486 m or 0.1514 m
= 14.86 cm or 15.14 cm
∴ The length of the given closed pipe should be changed by 0.14 cm.

Question 11.
The forks, A and B, produce 4 beats/s when sounded together. Fork A is in unison with 30 cm length of a sonometer wire and fork B is in unison with 25 cm length of the same wire under the same tension. Calculate the frequencies of the forks.
Solution :
Data : LA = 30 cm, LB = 25 cm, beat frequency = 4 s-1
n ∝ \(\frac{1}{L}\)
Since LA > LB, nA < nB
∴ nB – nA = 4 Hz
and, for the same tension and linear density,
\(\frac{n_{\mathrm{B}}}{n_{\mathrm{A}}}\) = \(\frac{L_{\mathrm{A}}}{L_{\mathrm{B}}}\) = \(\frac{30}{25}\) = \(\frac{6}{5}\)
∴ \(\left(\frac{6}{5}-1\right)\)nA = 4
∴ \(\frac{1}{5}\)nA = 4
∴ nA = 20 Hz
∴ nB = 24 Hz

Question 84.
Explain the following characteristics of sound :
(1) loudness
(2) pitch
(3) quality or timbre.
Ans.
(1) Loudness : The loudness of a note is the magnitude of the sensation produced by the sound waves on the ear. It depends upon
(a) the energy of the vibration
(b) the sensitiveness of the individual ear
(c) the pitch of the sound.

The loudness of a sound depends on the intensity of the sound wave, which is in turn proportional to the square of the amplitude of the wave itself. Loudness is a physiological (subjective) sensation, while intensity is an objectively measurable physical property of the wave. There is no direct relation between loudness and intensity. Near the middle of the audible range of frequencies, the ear is very sensitive to changes in intensity, which it interprets as changes in loudness.

The unit of loudness is the phon. It is equal to the loudness in decibel of any equally loud pure tone of frequency 1000 Hz.

(2) Pitch : By pitch we mean whether the note is high or low. The pitch of a note depends upon the frequency of the sound. But pitch is not determined by frequency alone. A physiological factor is involved and the sense of pitch is modified by the loudness and quality of the sound.

The average range of frequencies that the human ear detects as sound is approximately 20 Hz to 20000 Hz (the audible range). The human ear is capable of detecting a difference in pitch between two notes. The smallest difference in frequency that the ear can detect as a difference in pitch is approximately proportional to the frequency of one of the notes. That is, a given change in frequency of a low note will produce a greater change in pitch than it will in a high note.

(3) Quality : By quality or timbre is meant that characteristic of a sound by which it is possible to distinguish it from all other sounds of the same pitch and loudness. The same note played at the same loudness on two different musical instruments are easily distinguished from each other by their timbre.

[Note : A pure note, consisting of only one frequency, is different from a musical note, which may be a combination of many different frequencies. A musical note has a fundamental, or lowest frequency, and superimposed on it are higher frequencies, called overtones or partials. The number and relative strengths of the partials present determines the timbre of the note. The ear always recognizes the fundamental as determining the pitch of the note.]

Question 85.
Define intensity of sound. State its unit.
Answer:
Definition : The intensity of sound at a point is the time rate of flow of sound energy passing normally through a unit area at that point.
SI unit: the joule per second square metre (j/s.m2) or watt per square metre (W/m2).

Question 86.
What are the factors affecting the loudness of sound ? Is intensity the same as loudness ?
Answer:
(1) The factors affecting the loudness of sound are

  1. the amplitude of the vibrations of the body
  2. the distance of the listener from the vibrating body
  3. the surface area of the vibrating body
  4. the density of the medium
  5. the presence of the resonating bodies
  6. the sensitivity of the ear of the listener.

(2) Intensity and loudness are related, but not the same. Intensity is a measurable quantity whereas loudness is a sensation which is not measurable. Loudness depends on the intensity of sound as well as the sensitivity of the ear of the listener.

Question 87.
Explain the term decibel
Answer:
The intensity level of a sound wave, by definition, is β = log10 \(\left(\frac{I}{I_{0}}\right)\)bels = 10 log10 \(\left(\frac{I}{I_{0}}\right)\) decibels as one decibel is 0.1 bel. Here, I0 (reference intensity) is taken as 10-12 W/m2.

Intensity level is expressed in decibel (dB). There is no direct relation between loudness and intensity. The decibel is not a unit of loudness.

[Note : The decibel, equal to 0.1 bel, is used for comparing two power levels, currents or voltages. The unit bel is named in honour of Alexander Graham Bell (1847-1922) British-American scientist, inventor of the telephone (1876).]

Question 88.
What is the difference between a musical sound and a noise ?
Answer:
A musical sound is pleasing to the listener while a noise is not. The pleasure derived from a musical note is because it strikes the ear as a perfectly undisturbed, uniform sound which remains unaltered as long as it exists. On the other hand, noise is accompanied by a rapid, irregular but distinct, alternations of various kinds of sounds.

A musical sound thus has a regularity or smoothness because the vibrations that cause the sound are periodic. But the converse, that if the vibrations are regular the sound is musical, is not always true. For example, a ticking clock does not produce a musical note, or the definite note produced by a card held against the teeth of a rotating toothed wheel is far from being pleasant to hear. Bearing such reservations in mind, the essential difference between music and noise is that the former is produced by periodic and continuous vibrations, while noise results from discontinuous sudden and sharp sounds with no marked periodicity.

Question 89.

  1. Which quantity out of frequency and amplitude determines the pitch of the sound?
  2. Which out of pitch and frequency is a measurable quantity ?

Answer:

  1. The frequency of sound determines its pitch. A high pitched or shrill sound is produced by a body vibrating with a high frequency and a low pitched or flat sound is produced by a body vibrating with a low frequency.
  2. Frequency is a measurable quantity whereas pitch is not a measurable quantity.

Question 90.
Write a note on the major diatonic scale.
OR
Explain what is a musical scale.
Answer:
A musical scale is constructed on the basis of certain groups of notes with simple intervals. A major chord or triad is a group of three notes with frequencies in the ratio 4:5:6 that produce a very pleasing effect when sounded together. The diatonic musical scale is composed of three sets of triads making eight notes.

Some note called the tonic, is chosen as the basis of the scale, and a triad is constructed using this note as the one of lowest frequency. Calling the tonic as the 1st, the major chords are 1st, 3rd and 5th, 4th, 6th and 8th, and 5th, 7th and 9th; 8th and 9th are respectively the octaves of the 1st and 2nd.

In addition to the eight notes of an octave, that form the major scale, five additional notes are also used. These are derived either by raising or lowering the pitch by the interval 25 / 24. If the pitch is raised the note is sharp, and when lowered, it is flat.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Important Questions 67

Question 91.
Write a short note on Indian musical scale.
Answer:
Indian music is chiefly based on melody, i.e., consonant notes in suitable succession. Besides this physiological sensation, there is a deep psychological involvement.
The notes or svaras (स्वर) used in an Indian musical scale have the same musical intervals as those of the major diatonic scale. The five additional notes in pure intonation, तीव्र (sharp) and कोमल (flat) are also used. Thus, the choice is usually made from the following twelve svaras : सा (shadja), रे(को) and रे (rishabha), ग(को) and ग g\(\bar{a}\)ndh\(\bar{a}\)ra), म and म(ती) (madhyam), प (pancham), ध (को) and ध (dhaivata), नी(को) and नी (nishad), सा. However, as compared to the fixed frequency of the tonic in western music, an Indian vocalist or musician has the freedom to set any frequency as the tonic. Besides, unlike western music, dissonant intervals are sometimes introduced to enhance the musical effect.

However, the whole structure of Indian music is based on r\(\bar{a}\)gas (राग), which are well-established melody types with a wide variety of emotional content. They can be courageous, amorous, melancholy, cheerful, soothing, or ecstatic. R\(\bar{a}\)gas are capable of conveying these emotions to the listener and different r\(\bar{a}\)gas are assigned to different seasons and different parts of the day.

Question 92.
Give reasons :
The notes of a sitar and a guitar sound different even if they have the same loudness and the pitch.
Answer:
The quality or timbre of the sound of a sitar is different from that of a guitar. The number of overtones or partials present and their relative intensities determine the quality or timbre of the sound of a musical instrument. Therefore, even if the pitch and the loudness are the same, the notes of a sitar and a guitar sound different.

Question 93.
Which are the three broad types of musical instruments ?
OR
Write a short note on types of musical instruments.
Musical instruments have been classified in various ways. One ancient system that was based on the primary vibrating medium distinguished three main types of instruments : stringed, wind and percussion.
Examples :
(1) Stringed instruments (stretched strings) :
(a) Plucked : Tanpura, sitar, veena, guitar, harp
(b) Bowed : Violin
(c) Struck : Santoor, pianoforte )

(2) Wind instruments :
(a) Free (air not confined) : Harmonica or mouth organ (without keyboard), harmonium (with keyboard). (Both are reed instruments in which free brass reeds are vibrated by air, blown or compressed.)
(b) Edge (air blown against an edge) : Flute
(c) Reedpipes : Saxophone (single reed), shehnai and bassoon (double reeds)

(3) Percussion instruments :
(a) Stretched skin heads : Tabla, mridangam, drums
(b) Metals (struck against each other or with a beater) : Cymbals, Xylophone

Question 94.
A simple harmonic wave of frequency 20 Hz is travelling in the positive direction of x-axis with a velocity of 30 m/s. Two particles in the path of the wave, 0.45 m apart, differ in phase by
(A) \(\frac{\pi}{3}\) rad
(B) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) rad
(C) 0.6 π rad
(D) π rad.
Answer:
(C) 0.6 π rad

Question 95.
What is the period of the wave given by y = 0.003 sin (\(\frac{\pi}{0.08}\)t + \(\frac{\pi}{8}\)x ) (in SI units) ?
(A) 0.08 s
(B) 0.16 s
(C) 0.32 s
(D) 0.8 s.
Answer:
(B) 0.16 s

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves

Question 96.
The equation of a progressive wave is y = 7 sin(4t – 0.02x), where x and y are in centimetre and time t in second. The maximum velocity of a particle is
(A) 28 cm/s
(B) 32 cm/s
(C) 49 cm/s
(D) 112 cm/s.
Answer:
(A) 28 cm/s

Question 97.
When a longitudinal wave is incident at the boundary of a denser medium, then
(A) a compression reflects as a compression
(B) a compression reflects as a rarefaction
(C) a rarefaction reflects as a compression
(D) a longitudinal wave reflects as a transverse wave.
Answer:
(A) a compression reflects as a compression

Question 98.
A transverse wave travelling in a denser medium is reflected from a rarer medium. Then,
(A) an incident crest is reflected as a crest
(B) an incident crest is reflected as a trough
(C) there is a phase change of 2π rad
(D) there is a phase change of π/2 rad.
Answer:
(A) an incident crest is reflected as a crest

Question 99.
Two simple harmonic waves of the same amplitude and frequency, but 90° out of phase, pass through the same region in a medium. The resultant wave has
(A) an amplitude greater than either of the component waves
(B) an amplitude smaller than either of the component waves
(C) zero amplitude
(D) an amplitude slowly varying with time.
Answer:
(A) an amplitude greater than either of the component waves

Question 100.
At a given instant two vibrating particles in the same loop of a stationary wave have
(A) the same phase
(B) opposite phases
(C) slightly different phases
(D) opposite velocities.
Answer:
(A) the same phase

Question 101.
Two vibrating particles in the adjacent loops of a stationary wave have ….. at a given instant.
(A) the same phase
(B) opposite phases
(C) slightly different phases
(D) the same velocity
Answer:
(B) opposite phases

Question 102.
A stretched string, 2 m long, vibrates in its third overtone. The distance between consecutive nodes is
(A) 40 cm
(B) 50 cm
(C) 66.7 cm
(D) 100 cm.
Answer:
(B) 50 cm

Question 103.
A stretched string of length l vibrates in the third overtone. The wavelength of stationary wave formed is
(A) \(\frac{l}{2}\)
(B) \(\frac{l}{4}\)
(C) l
(D) 21.
Answer:
(A) \(\frac{l}{2}\)

Question 104.
A stretched string tied between two rigid supports vibrates with a frequency double the fundamental frequency. The point midway between the supports is
(A) a node
(B) an antinode
(C) either a node or an antinode
(D) neither a node nor an antinode.
Answer:
(A) a node

Question 105.
A travelling wave of frequency 100 Hz along a string is reflected from a fixed end. The stationary wave formed has the nearest node at a distance of 10 cm from the fixed end. The speed of the travelling wave was
(A) 40 m/s
(B) 20 m/s
(C) 10 m/s
(D) 5m/s.
Answer:
(B) 20 m/s

Question 106.
Stationary waves are produced on a 10 m long stretched string fixed at both ends. If the string vibrates in 5 segments and the wave velocity is 20 m/s, the frequency of the waves is
(A) 10 Hz
(B) 5 Hz
(C) 4 Hz
(D) 2 Hz.
Answer:
(B) 5 Hz

Question 107.
The fundamental frequency of transverse vibrations of a stretched string of radius r is proportional to
(A) r-2
(B) r-1
(C) \(r^{-\frac{1}{2}}\)
(D) r2.
Answer:
(B) r-1

Question 108.
A stretched string of length 50 cm vibrates in five segments when stationary waves are formed on it. If the wave speed is 14 m/s, its frequency of vibration is
(A) 28 Hz
(B) 35 Hz
(C) 70 Hz
(D) 140 Hz.
Answer:
(C) 70 Hz

Question 109.
Two strings A and B are identical except that the diameter of A is twice the diameter of B. The ratio of the frequency of sound from A to that from B is
(A) 2 : 1
(B) \(\sqrt{2}\) : 1
(C) 1 : \(\sqrt{2}\)
(D) 1 : 2.
Answer:
(D) 1 : 2.

Question 110.
Two strings, A and B, have the same tension and length. The string A has a mass m while the string B has a mass Am. If the speed of the waves in string A is v, that on string B is
(A) \(\frac{1}{2}\)v
(B) v
(C) 2v
(D) v.
Answer:
(A) \(\frac{1}{2}\)v

Question 111.
An organ pipe is closed at one end. The pth overtone is the ….. th harmonic.
(A) 2p + 1
(B) 2p – 1
(C) p + 1
(D) P – 1
Answer:
(A) 2p + 1

Question 112.
Of two narrow organ pipes A and B, A is open at one end and B at both ends. Both the pipes have the same fundamental frequency. If A is 1.2 m long, how long is B?
(A) 0.8 m
(B) 1.8 m
(C) 2.4 m
(D) 3.0 m
Answer:
(C) 2.4 m

Question 113.
The value of end correction for an open organ pipe of radius r is
(A) 0.3 r
(B) 0.6 r
(C) 0.9 r
(D) 1.2 r.
Answer:
(D) 1.2 r.

Question 114.
Of two long narrow organ pipes A and B, A is open at one end and B at both ends. If both the pipes have the same fundamental frequency, the first overtone of A is ….. the first overtone of B.
(A) half of
(B) \(\frac{2}{3}\) of
(C) equal to
(D) twice
Answer:
(B) \(\frac{2}{3}\) of

Question 115.
In an open organ pipe, the first overtone produced is of such frequency that the length of the pipe is equal to
(A) \(\frac{\lambda}{4}\)
(B) \(\frac{\lambda}{3}\)
(C) \(\frac{\lambda}{2}\)
(D) λ
Answer:
(D) λ

Question 116.
A sonometer wire vibrates with three nodes and two antinodes. The corresponding mode of vibration is
(A) the first overtone
(B) the second overtone
(C) the third overtone
(D) the fourth overtone.
Answer:
(A) the first overtone

Question 117.
Velocity of a transverse wave along a stretched string is proportional to [T = tension in the string]
(A) \(\sqrt{T}\)
(B) T
(C) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{T}}\)
(D) \(\frac{1}{T}\)
Answer:
(A) \(\sqrt{T}\)

Question 118.
The frequency of the second overtone of the vibration of a stretched string is
A. \(\frac{1}{l} \sqrt{\frac{T}{m}}\)
B. \(\frac{3}{2 l} \sqrt{\frac{T}{m}}\)
C. \(\frac{1}{2 l} \sqrt{\frac{T}{m}}\)
D. \(\frac{2}{3 l} \sqrt{\frac{T}{m}}\)
Answer:
B. \(\frac{3}{2 l} \sqrt{\frac{T}{m}}\)

Question 119.
When the air column in a pipe closed at one end vibrates such that three nodes are formed in it, the frequency of its vibrations is ….. times the fundamental frequency.
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
Answer:
(D) 5

Question 120.
One beat means that the intensity of sound should be
(A) once maximum
(B) once minimum
(C) once maximum and once minimum
(D) twice maximum and twice minimum.
Answer:
(C) once maximum and once minimum

Question 121.
Let n1 and n2 be two slightly different frequencies of sound waves. The time interval between a waxing and the immediate next waning is
(A) \(\frac{1}{n_{1}-n_{2}}\)
(B) \(\frac{2}{n_{1}-n_{2}}\)
(C) \(\frac{n_{1}-n_{2}}{2}\)
(D) \(\frac{1}{2\left(n_{1}-n_{2}\right)}\)
Answer:
(D) \(\frac{1}{2\left(n_{1}-n_{2}\right)}\)

Question 122.
In the formation of beats, the resultant amplitude varies with a frequency equal to
(A) the beat frequency
(B) the average frequency
(C) half the beat frequency
(D) double the beat frequency.
Answer:
(C) half the beat frequency

Question 123.
A tuning fork A of frequency 512 Hz produces 3 beats per second with another tuning fork B of frequency 515 Hz. If the prongs of B are filed a little, the number of beats produced per second will
(A) increase
(B) decrease
(C) remain the same
(D) increase or decrease.
Answer:
(A) increase

Question 124.
A tuning fork gives 1 beat in 2 seconds with a timing fork of frequency 341.3 Hz. If the beat frequency decreases when the first fork is filed a little, its original frequency was
(A) 336.3 Hz
(B) 340.8 Hz
(C) 341.8 Hz
(D) 346.3 Hz.
Answer:
(B) 340.8 Hz

Question 125.
In a set of 25 tuning forks, arranged in order of increasing frequency, each fork gives 3 beats per second with the succeeding one. If the frequency of the 10th fork is 127 Hz, the frequency of the 16th fork is
(A) 139 Hz
(B) 145 Hz
(C) 148 Hz
(D) 151 Hz.
Answer:
(B) 145 Hz

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves

Question 126.
If two sound waves with the same amplitude but slightly different frequencies n1 and n2 superpose to produce beats, the resultant wave motion has frequency
(A) |n1 – n2|
(B) n1 + n2
(C) \(\frac{\left|n_{1}-n_{2}\right|}{2}\)
(D) \(\frac{n_{1}+n_{2}}{2}\)
Answer:
(D) \(\frac{n_{1}+n_{2}}{2}\)

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations

Question 1.
Define :
(1) periodic motion
(2) oscillatory motion. Give two examples.
Answer:
(1) Periodic motion : A motion that repeats itself at definite intervals of time is said to be a periodic motion.
Examples : The motion of the hands of a clock, the motion of the Earth around the Sun.

(2) Oscillatory motion : A periodic motion in which a body moves back and forth over the same path, straight or curved, between alternate extremes is said to be an oscillatory motion.
Examples : The motion of a taut string when plucked, the vibrations of the atoms in a molecule, the oscillations of a simple pendulum.
[Note : The oscillatory motion of a particle is also called a harmonic motion when its position, velocity and acceleration can be expressed in terms of a periodic, sinusoidal functions-sine or cosine, of time.

Question 2.
With a neat diagram, describe a spring-and-block oscillator.
Answer:
Consider a spring-and-block oscillator as shown in below figure in which the block slides on a frictionless horizontal surface. The spring has a relaxed length when the block is at rest at the position O.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 1
The block is then displaced to P by an amount x measured from the equilibrium position O. Upon releasing, the unbalanced force \(\vec{F}\) = –\(k \vec{x}\) toward left accelerates the block and its speed increases. As x gets smaller, |\(\vec{F}\)| and the acceleration decrease proportionately.

k is the elastic constant of the spring called the force constant or spring constant.

At the instant the block passes through the point O, | \(\vec{F}\) | = 0 because x = 0; although there is no acceleration, the speed is maximum.

As soon as the block passes O going to the left, the force on the block and its acceleration increases to the right, because the spring is now compressed. Eventually, the block is brought to rest momentarily at the point Question Then on, the subsequent motion is the same as the motion from P to Q, with all directions reversed.

The acceleration of the block is \(\vec{a}\) = \(\frac{\vec{F}}{m}\) = –\(\frac{k}{m} \vec{x}\) where m is the mass of the block. This shows that the acceleration is also proportional to the displacement and its direction is opposite to that of the displacement, i.e., the force and acceleration are both directed towards the mean or equilibrium position. The motion repeats causing the block to oscillate about equilibrium or mean position O. This oscillatory motion along a straight path is called linear simple harmonic motion (SHM).

The points P and Q are called the extreme positions or the turning points of the motion. One oscillation is a complete to-and-fro motion of the oscillating body (block, in this case) along its path (the motion from O to P, P to Q and Q to O), i.e., two consecutive passages of the body through the point O in the same direction.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations

Question 3.
In linear SHM, what can you say about the restoring force when the speed of the particle is

  1. zero
  2. maximum ?

Answer:
The restoring force is

  1. maximum
  2. zero.

Question 4.
Define period or periodic time, frequency, amplitude and path length of simple harmonic motion (SHM).
Answer:

  1. Period or periodic time of SHM : The time taken by a particle performing simple harmonic motion to complete one oscillation is called the period or periodic time of SHM.
  2. Frequency of SHM : The number of oscillations performed per unit time by a particle executing SHM is called the frequency of SHM.
  3. Amplitude of SHM : The magnitude of the maximum displacement of a particle performing SHM from its mean position is called the amplitude of SHM.
  4. Path length of SHM : The length of the path over which a particle performs SHM is twice the amplitude of the motion and is called the path length or range of the SHM.
    [Note : The frequency of SHM is equal to the reciprocal of the period of SHM.]

Question 5.
Obtain the differential equation of linear simple harmonic motion.
Answer:
When a particle performs linear SHM, the force acting on the particle is always directed towards the mean position. The magnitude of the force is directly proportional to the magnitude of the displacement of the particle from the mean position. Thus, if \(\vec{F}\) is the force acting on the particle when its displacement from the mean position is \(\vec{x}\), \(\vec{F}\) = -k\(\vec{x}\) … (1)
where the constant k, the force per unit displacement, is called the force constant. The minus sign indicates that the force and the displacement are oppositely directed.
The velocity of the particle is \(\frac{d \vec{x}}{d t}\) and its acceleration is \(\frac{d^{2} \vec{x}}{d t^{2}}\).
Let m be the mass of the particle.
Force = mass × acceleration
∴ \(\vec{F}\) = m\(\frac{d^{2} \vec{x}}{d t^{2}}\)
Hence, from Eq. (1),
m\(\frac{d^{2} \vec{x}}{d t^{2}}\) = -k\(\vec{x}\)
∴ \(\frac{d^{2} \vec{x}}{d t^{2}}\) + \(\frac{k}{m} \vec{x}\) = 0 … (2)
This is the differential equation of linear SHM.

Question 6.
Obtain the dimensions of force constant in SHM.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 2
[Note : The SI unit of force constant is the newton per metre (N/m) while the cgs unit is the dyne per centimetre (dyn/cm).]

Question 7.
State the differential equation of linear SHM. Hence, obtain the expressions for the acceleration, velocity and displacement of a particle performing linear SHM.
Answer:
The differential equation of linear SHM is
\(\frac{d^{2} \vec{x}}{d t^{2}}\) + \(\frac{k}{m} \vec{x}\) = 0
where m = mass of the particle performing SHM, \(\frac{d^{2} \vec{x}}{d t^{2}}\) = acceleration of the particle when its displacement from the mean position is \(\vec{x}\) and k = force constant. For linear motion, we can write the differential equation in scalar form :
\(\frac{d^{2} x}{d t^{2}}\) + \(\frac{k}{m}\)x = 0
Let \(\frac{k}{m}\) = ω2, a constant
∴ \(\frac{d^{2} x}{d t^{2}}\) + ω2x = 0
∴ Acceleration, a = \(\frac{d^{2} x}{d t^{2}}\) = ω2
The minus sign shows that the acceleration and the displacement have opposite directions. Writing v = \(\frac{d x}{d t}\) as the velocity of the particle.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 3
Hence, EQ. (1) can be written as
v\(\frac{d v}{d x}\) = -ω2x dx
∴ vdv = -ω2x dx
Integrating this expression, we get,
\(\frac{v^{2}}{2}\) = –\(\frac{-\omega^{2} x^{2}}{2}\) + C
where the constant of integration C is found from a boundary condition.

At an extreme position (a turning point of the motion), the velocity of the particle is zero. Thus, v = 0 when x = ± A, where A is the amplitude.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 4
This equation gives the velocity of the particle in terms of the displacement, x. The velocity towards right is taken to be positive and that towards left as negative.
Since, v = dx/dt, we can write Eq. (2) as follows :
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 5
where the constant of integration, α, is found from the initial conditions, i.e., the displacement and the velocity of the particle at time t = 0.
From Eq. (3), we have
\(\frac{x}{A}\) = sin (ωt + α)
∴ Displacement as a function of time is,
x = A sin (ωt + α)

Question 8.
From the definition of linear SHM, derive an expression for the angular frequency of a body performing linear SHM.
Answer:
When a body of mass m performs linear SHM, the restoring force on it is always directed towards the mean position and its magnitude is directly proportional to the magnitude of the displacement of the body from the mean position. Thus, if \(\vec{F}\) is the force acting on the body when its displacement from the mean position is \(\vec{x}\),
\(\vec{F}\) = m\(\) = – k\(\vec{x}\)
where the constant k, the force per unit displacement, is the force constant.
Let \(\frac{k}{m}\) = ω2, a constant. m
∴ Acceleration, a = –\(\frac{k}{m}\)x = -ω2x
∴ The angular frequency
ω = \(\sqrt{\frac{k}{m}}\) = \(\sqrt{\left|\frac{a}{x}\right|}\)
= \(\sqrt{\text { acceleration per unit displacement }}\)

Question 9.
What is the displacement of a particle at any position, performing linear SHM ?
Answer:
The displacement of a particle performing linear SHM is a specified distance of the particle from the mean position in a specified direction along its path. The general expression for the displacement is x = A sin (ωt + α), where A and ω are respectively the amplitude or maximum displacement and the angular frequency of the motion, and α is the initial phase.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations

Question 10.
Assuming the general expression for displacement of a particle in SHM, obtain the expressions for the displacement when the particle starts from
(i) the mean position
(ii) an extreme position.
Answer:
The general expression for the displacement of a particle in SHM at time t is x = A sin (ωt + α) … (1) where A is the amplitude and re is a constant in a particular case.
∴ ωt + α = sin-1\(\frac{x}{A}\) …. (2)
(i) When the particle starts from the mean position, x = 0 at t = 0. Then, from Eq. (2),
α = sin-1 0 = 0 or π … (3)
Substituting for α into Eq. (1),
x = A sin ωt for α = 0 and x = – A sin ωt for α = π
∴ x = ±A sin ωt … (4)
where the plus sign is taken if the particle’s initial velocity is to the right, while the minus sign is taken when the initial velocity is to the left.

(ii) x = ±A at t = 0 when the particle starts from the right or left extreme position, respectively. Then, from Eq. (2),
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 6
where the plus sign is taken when the particle starts from the positive extreme, while the minus sign is taken when the particle starts from the negative extreme.

Question 11.
At what position is the acceleration of a particle in SHM maximum? What is its magnitude? At what position is the acceleration minimum ? What is its magnitude ?
Answer:
The magnitude of the acceleration of a particle performing SHM is
a = ω2x … (1)
where ω is a constant related to the system.
From Eq. (1), the acceleration has a maximum value amax when displacement x is maximum, |x| = A, i.e., the particle is at the extreme positions.
∴ amax = ω2A
Also from EQ. (1), the acceleration has a minimum value when x is minimum, x = 0, i.e., the particle is at the mean position.
∴ amin = 0

Question 12.
At what position is the velocity of a particle in SHM maximum ? What is its magnitude ? At what position is the velocity minimum? What is its magnitude?
Answer:
The velocity of a particle in SHM is
v = ω\(\sqrt{A^{2}-x^{2}}\) … (1)
where ω is a constant related to the system and A is the amplitude of SHM.
From EQ. (1) it is clear that the velocity is maximum when A2 – x2 is maximum, that is when displacement x = 0, i.e., the particle is at the mean position.
∴ vmax = ωA
Also from Eq. (1), the velocity is minimum when A2 – x2 is minimum, equal to zero. This occurs when x is maximum, x = ± A, i.e., the particle is at the extreme positions.
∴ vmin = 0

Question 13.
For a particle performing linear SHM, show that its average speed over one oscillation is \(\frac{2 \omega A}{\pi}\), where A is the amplitude of SHM.
OR
Show that the average speed of a particle performing SHM in one oscillation is \(\frac{2}{\pi}\) × maximum speed.
Answer:
During one oscillation, a particle performing SHM covers a total distance equal to 4A, where A is the amplitude of SHM. The time taken to cover this distance is the period (T) of SHM.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 7

Question 14.
A body of mass 200 g performs linear SHM with period 2πs. What is the force constant ?
Answer:
Force constant, k = mω2 = m\(\left(\frac{2 \pi}{T}\right)^{2}\)
= 0.2kg × \(\left(\frac{2 \pi}{2 \pi \mathrm{s}}\right)^{2}\) = 0.2N/m.

Question 15.
Derive expressions for the period of SHM in terms of
(1) angular frequency
(2) force constant
(3) acceleration.
Answer:
The general expression for the displacement (x) of a particle performing SHM is x = A sin (ωt + α)
(1) Let T be the period of the SHM and x1 the displacement after a further time interval T. Then
x1 = A sin [ω(t + T) + α]
= A sin (ωt + ωT + α)
= A sin (ωt + α + ωT)
Since T ≠ 0, for x1 to be equal to x, we must have (ωT)min = 2π.
Hence, the period (T) of SHM is T = 2π/ω
This is the expression for the period in terms of the constant co, the angular frequency.

(2) If m is the mass of the particle and k is the force constant, ω = \(\sqrt{k / m}\).
∴T = \(\frac{2 \pi}{\omega}\) = \(\frac{2 \pi}{\sqrt{k / m}}\) = 2π \(\sqrt{\frac{m}{k}}\)

(3) The acceleration of a particle performing SHM has a magnitude a = ω2x
∴ ω = \(\sqrt{a / x}\)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 8

Question 16.
A small uniform cylinder floats upright to a depth d in a liquid. If it is depressed slightly and released, find its period of oscillations.
Answer:
Consider a cylinder, of length L, area of cross section A and density ρ, floating in a liquid of density σ. If the cylinder floats up to depth d in the liquid, then by the law of floatation, the weight of the cylinder equals the weight of the liquid displaced, i.e.,
ALρg = Adσg
∴ L = dσ/p … (1)
Let the cylinder be pushed down by a distance y. Then, the weight of the liquid displaced by the cylinder of length y will exert a net upward force on the cylinder :
F = Ayσg,
which produces an acceleration,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 9

Question 17.
How does the frequency of an SHM vary with

  1. the force constant k
  2. the mass of the particle performing SHM ?

Answer:
The frequency of a particle of mass m performing
SHM is f = \(\frac{1}{T}\) = \(\frac{1}{2 \pi} \sqrt{\frac{k}{m}}\).

  1. ∴ f ∝\(\sqrt{k}\)
    Thus, the frequency of an SHM is directly proportional to the square root of the force constant of the motion.
  2. ∴ f ∝ \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{m}}\)
    Thus, the frequency of an SHM is inversely proportional to the square root of the mass of the particle performing SHM.

Question 18.
In linear SHM, at what position of the particle is the acceleration of the particle half the maximum acceleration?
Answer:
In linear SHM, | a | ∝ | x | ∴ a = \(\frac{a_{\max }}{2}\) when | x | = \(\frac{A}{2}\), where A is the amplitude of SHM.

Question 19.
If the displacement of a particle in SHM is given by x = 0.1 sin (6πrt) metre, what is the frequency of motion ?
Answer:
Comparison of the given equation with
x = A sin (2πft) gives 2πf = 6π rad/s.
∴ Frequency of motion,/= 3 Hz

Question 20.
If the displacement of a particle in SHM is given by x = 0.1 cos (100t) metre, what is the maximum speed of the particle ?
Answer:
Comparison of the given equation with
x = A cos (ωt) gives A = 0.1 m and ω = 100 rad/s.
∴ Maximum speed of the particle = ωA
= 1000 × 0.1 = 10 m/s

Question 21.
A body of mass m tied to a spring performs SHM with period 2 seconds. If the mass is increased by 3m, what will be the period of SHM ?
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 10
∴ T2 = 2T1 = 2 × 2 = 4 seconds gives the required period of SHM.

Question 22.
A particle executing SHM has velocities v1 and v2 when at distances x1 and x2 respectively from the mean position. Show that its period is T = 2π\(\sqrt{\frac{x_{1}^{2}-x_{2}^{2}}{v_{2}^{2}-v_{1}^{2}}}\) and the amplitude of SHM is A = \(\sqrt{\frac{v_{2}^{2} x_{1}^{2}-v_{1}^{2} x_{2}^{2}}{v_{2}^{2}-v_{1}^{2}}}\)
Answer:
If A is the amplitude and co is the angular frequency, V1 = ω\(\sqrt{A^{2}-x_{1}^{2}}\) … (1)
and v2 = ω\(\sqrt{A^{2}-x_{2}^{2}}\) … (2)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 111

Question 23.
Explain
(i) a series combination
(ii) a parallel combination of springs. Obtain the spring constant in each case.
Answer:
(i) Series combination of springs : When two light springs obeying Hooke’s law are connected as shown in below figure and both the springs experience the same force applied to the free end of the combination, they are said to be connected in series.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 12
Consider two springs, 1 and 2, with respective spring constants k1 and k2 connected in series and supporting a load F = mg so that the springs are extended. Since the same force acts on each spring, by Hooke’s law,
F = k1x1 (for spring 1) and F = k2x2 (for spring 2) The system of two springs in series is equivalent to a single spring, of spring constant kS such that F = kSx, where the total extension x of the combination is the sum x1 + x2 of their elongations.
x = x1 + x2
∴ \(\frac{F}{k_{\mathrm{S}}}\) = \(\frac{F}{k_{1}}\) + \(\frac{F}{k_{2}}\) ∴ \(\frac{1}{k_{\mathrm{S}}}\) = \(\frac{1}{k_{1}}\) + \(\frac{1}{k_{2}}\)
For a series combination of N such springs, of spring constants, k1, k2, k3, … kN
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 13

(ii) Parallel combination of springs : When two light springs obeying Hooke’s law are connected via a thin vertical rod as shown, they are said to be connected in parallel. If a constant force \(\vec{F}\) is exerted on the rod such that the rod remains perpendicular to the direction of the force, the springs undergo the same extension.

Consider two springs, 1 and 2, with respective spring constants k1 and k2 connected in series and supporting a load F = mg so that the springs are extended. The two springs stretch by the same amount x but share the load.
F = F1 + F2
The system of two springs in parallel is equivalent to a single spring, of spring constant kF such that F = kPX,
∴ kPx = k1x + k2x ∴ kP = k1 + k2
For a parallel combination of N such springs, of spring constants k1, k2, k3, … kN
kP = k1 + k2 + k3 + … + kN = \(\Sigma_{i=1}^{N} k_{i}\)
Therefore, for a parallel combination of N identical light springs, each of spring constant k, kP = Nk

Question 24.
Solve the following :

Question 1.
A body of mass 1 kg is made to oscillate on a spring of force constant 16 N/m. Calculate
(i) the angular frequency
(ii) the frequency of oscillation.
Solution :
Data : m = 1 kg, k = 16 N/m
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 14

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations

Question 2.
Calculate the time taken by a body performing SHM of period 2 seconds to cover half the amplitude starting from an extreme position.
Solution :
Data : T = 2 s, x0 = + A (initially at positive extremity), x = \(\frac{A}{2}\)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 15
∴ Starting from the positive extremity, the particle takes \(\frac{1}{3}\) s to cover a distance equal to half the amplitude.

Question 3.
A 3 kg block, attached to a spring, performs linear SHM with the displacement given by x = 2 cos (50t) m. Find the spring constant of the spring.
Solution :
Data : m = 3 kg, x = 2 cos (50t) m
Comparing the given equation with x = A cos ωt,
ω = 50 rad/s
ω2 = k/m
∴ The spring constant,
k = mω2 = (3)(50)2
= 3 × 2500 = 7500 N/m

Question 4.
A body oscillates in SHM according to the equation x = 5 cos (2πt + \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)), where x and t are
in SI units. Calculate the
(i) displacement and
(ii) speed of the body at t = 1.5 s.
Solution:
Data: x = cos \(\left(2 \pi t+\frac{\pi}{4}\right)\), t = 1.5 s
(i) The displacement at t = 1.5 s is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 16
= 5(1.414)(3.142) = 22.21 m/s

Question 5.
The equation of motion of a particle executing SHM is x = a sin \(\left(\frac{\pi}{6} t\right)\) + b cos \(\left(\frac{\pi}{6} t\right)\), where a = 3 cm and b = 4 cm. Express this equation in the form x = A sin \(\left(\frac{\pi}{6} t+\phi\right)\). Hence, find A and φ.
Solution:
Let a = A cos φ and b = A sin φ, so that
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 17

Question 6.
A particle performs SHM of amplitude 10 cm. Its maximum velocity during oscillations is 100 cm/s. What is its displacement, when the velocity is 60 cm/s?
Solution :
Data : A = 10 cm, vmax = 100 cm/s, v = 60 cm/s
vmax = ωA = 100 cm/s
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 18

Question 7.
A body of mass M attached to a spring oscillates with a period of 2 seconds. If the mass is increased by 2 kg, the period increases by 1 second. Find the initial mass, assuming that Hooke’s law is obeyed.
Answer:
Data : m1 = M, T1 = 2 s, m2 = M + 2 kg, T2 = 2s + 1 s = 3s
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 19

Question 8.
A load of 100 g increases the length of a light spring by 10 cm. Find the period of its linear SHM if it is allowed to oscillate freely in the vertical direction. What will be the period if the load is increased to 400 g? [g = 9.8 m/s2]
Solution :
Data :m = 100 g = 100 × 10-3 kg, x = 10 cm = 0.1 m g = 9.8 m/s2, m1 = 400 g = 400 × 10-3 kg
(1) Stretching force F = mg
Now F = kx (numerically), where k is the force constant.
∴ mg = kx
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 20

Question 9.
A particle in SHM has a period of 2 seconds and an amplitude of 10 cm. Calculate its acceleration when it is at 4 cm from its positive extreme position.
Solution :
Data : T = 2s, A = 10 cm, A – x = 4 cm
∴ x = 10 cm – 4 cm = 6 cm
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 21

Question 10.
A particle executes SHM with amplitude 5 cm and period 2 s. Find the speed of the particle at a point where its acceleration is half the maximum acceleration.
Solution :
Data: A = 5 cm = 5 × 10-2 m, T = 2s,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 22

Question 11.
The periodic time of a linear harmonic oscillator is 2π seconds, with maximum displacement of 1 cm. If the particle starts from an extreme position, find the displacement of the particle after π/3 seconds.
Solution :
Data : T = 2π s, A = 1 cm, t = π/3
ω = \(\frac{2 \pi}{T}\) = \(\frac{2 \pi}{2 \pi}\) = 1 rad/s
x = A cos ωt (∵ particle starts from extreme position)
= (1) cos\(\left(1 \times \frac{\pi}{3}\right)\) = cos \(\left(1 \times \frac{\pi}{3}\right)\) = cos \(\frac{\pi}{3}\) = \(\frac{1}{2}\) cm

Question 12.
A particle performs SHM of period 12 seconds and amplitude 8 cm. If initially the particle is at the positive extremity, how much time will it take to cover a distance of 6 cm from that position?
Solution :
Data : T = 12 s, A = 8 cm
∴ ω = 2π/T = π/6 rad/s
When the particle covers a distance of 6 cm from the positive extremity, its displacement measured from the mean position is x = 8 – 6 = 2 cm.
As the particle starts from the positive extreme position, its displacement is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 23

Question 13.
A particle executes SHM with amplitude 10 cm and period 10 s. Find the velocity and acceleration of the particle at a distance of 5 cm from the equilibrium position.
Solution :
Data : A = 10 cm = 0.1 m, T = 10 s, x = ± 5 cm = ± 0.05 m
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 24

Question 14.
A body performs SHM on a path 0.12 m long. Its velocity at the centre of the path is 0.12 m/s. Find the period of SHM. Also find the magnitude of the velocity of the body at \(\sqrt{3}\) × 10-2 m from the centre of the path.
Solution :
The path length of the SHM is the range 2 A, and the velocity at the centre of the path, i.e., at the equilibrium position, is the maximum velocity vmax.
Data : 2A = 0.12 m, vmax = 0.12 m/s,
x = ± \(\sqrt{3}\) × 10-2 m
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 25

Question 15.
A particle of mass 2 g executes SHM with a period of 12 s and amplitude 10 cm. Find the acceleration of the particle and the restoring force on the particle when it is 2 cm from its mean position. Also find the maximum velocity of the particle.
Solution :
Data : m = 2g = 2 × 10-3 kg, T = 12 s,
A = 10 cm = 0.1 m, x = ±2 cm = ±2 × 10-2 m
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 26
The acceleration of the particle, a = ω2 = (0.5237)2 (± 2 × 10-2)
= ± 0.2743 × 2 × 10-2 = ± 5.486 × 10-3 m/s2
The restoring force on the particle at that position, F = ma = ± (2 × 10-2) (5.486 × 10-3)
= ±1.097 × 10-5 N
The maximum velocity of the particle, vmax = ωA = 0.5237 × 0.1 5.237 × 10-2 m/s

Question 16.
The maximum velocity of a particle performing linear SHM is 0.16 m/s. If its maximum acceleration is 0.64 m/s2, calculate its period.
Solution :
Data : vmax = 0.16 m/s, amax = 0.64 m/s2
vmax = ωA and amax = ω2A
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 27

Question 17.
A particle performing linear SHM has maximum velocity of 25 cm/s and maximum acceleration of 100 cm/s2. Find the amplitude and period of oscillation, [π = 3.142]
Solution :
Data : vmax = 25 cm/s, amax = 100 cm/s2
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 28

Question 18.
A particle performing linear SHM has a period of 6.28 seconds and path length of 20 cm. What is the velocity when its displacement is 6 cm from the mean position?
Solution :
Data : T = 6.28 s, 2A = 20 cm ∴ A = 10 cm, x = 6 cm
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 29

Question 19.
A uniform wooden rod floats vertically in water with 14 cm of its length immersed in the water. If it is depressed slightly and released, find its period of oscillations.
Solution :
Data : d = 14 cm = 0.14 m
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 30

Question 20.
A particle performs UCM. The diameter of the circle is 4 cm. What is the amplitude of linear SHM that is the projection of the UCM on a diameter?
Answer:
Amplitude of linear SHM = radius of the circle = 2 cm.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations

Question 21.
A particle performs UCM with period 2n seconds along a circle of diameter 10 cm. What is the maximum speed of its shadow on a diameter of the circle ?
Answer:
Maximum speed, vmax = ωA = \(\frac{2 \pi}{T}\)A
= \(\frac{2 \pi}{2 \pi}\) × 5 × 10-2 = 5 × 10-2 m/s.

Question 22.
See Question 20 above. What is the maximum acceleration of the shadow ?
Answer:
Maximum acceleration, amax = ω2A = \(\left(\frac{2 \pi}{T}\right)^{2}\) A
= \(\left(\frac{2 \pi}{2 \pi}\right)^{2}\) × 5 × 10-2 = 5 × 10-2 m/s2.

Question 23.
What do you understand by the phase and epoch of an SHM ?
Answer:
(1) Phase of simple harmonic motion (SHM) represents the state of oscillation of the particle performing SHM, i.e., it gives the displacement of the particle, its direction of motion from its equilibrium position and the number of oscillations completed.

The displacement of a particle in SHM is given by x = A sin (ωt + α). The angle (ωt + α) is called the phase angle or simply the phase of SHM. The SI unit of phase angle is the radian (symbol, rad).

(2) Epoch of simple harmonic motion (SHM) represents the initial phase of the particle performing SHM, i.e., it gives the displacement of the particle and its direction of motion at time t = 0.

If x0 is the initial position of the particle, i.e., the position at time t = 0, x0 = A sin α or α = sin-1 (x0/A). The angle α, therefore, determines the initial state of the particle. Hence, the angle α is the epoch or initial phase or phase constant of SHM.
[Note : The symbol for the unit radian is rad, not superscripted c.]

Question 25.
Solve the following.

Question 1.
The differential equation for a particle performing linear SHM is \(\frac{d^{2} x}{d t^{2}}\) = – 4x. If the amplitude is 0.5 m and the initial phase is π/6 radian, obtain the expression for the displacement and find the velocity of the particle at x = 0.3 m.
Solution:
Data : A = 0.5 m, α = π/6 rad
(1) \(\frac{d^{2} x}{d t^{2}}\) = -4x
Comparing this equation with the general equation \(\frac{d^{2} x}{d t^{2}}\) = – ω2x, we get,
ω2 = 4 or ω = 2 rad/s
Now, x = A sin (ωt + α)
Substituting the values of A, ω and α, the expression for the displacement for the given SHM is
x = 0.5 sin (2t + π/6) m

(2) The velocity of the particle at x = 0.3 m is v = ± ω \(\sqrt{A^{2}-x^{2}}\)
= ± 2 \(\sqrt{(0.5)^{2}-(0.3)^{2}}\) = ± 0.8 m/s

Question 2.
The displacement of a particle performing linear SHM is given by x = 6 sin (3πt + \(\frac{5 \pi}{6}\)) metre. Find
the amplitude, frequency and the phase constant of the motion.
Solution :
Data : x = 6 sin (3πt + \(\frac{5 \pi}{6}\)) metre
Comparing this equation with x = A sin (ωt + α), we get:

  1. Amplitude, A = 6 m
  2. ω = 3π rad / s
    ∴ Frequency, f = \(\frac{\omega}{2 \pi}\) = \(\frac{3 \pi}{2 \pi}\) = 1.5 Hz 5%
  3. Phase constant, α = \(\frac{5 \pi}{6}\) rad

Question 3.
The equation of linear SHM is a: = 10 sin (4πt + \(\frac{1}{24}\)) cm. Find the amplitude, period and phase constant of the motion. Also, find the phase angle \(\frac{1}{24}\) second after the start.
Solution:
Data : x = 10 sin\(\left(4 \pi t+\frac{\pi}{6}\right)\) + cm, f = \(\frac{1}{24}\) s

(1) Comparing the given equation with x = A sin (ωt +α), we get,
A = 10 cm, ω = 4π rad/s, α = \(\frac{\pi}{6}\) rad

  1. Amplitude, A = 10 cm
  2. Period, T = \(\frac{2 \pi}{\omega}\) = \(\frac{2 \pi}{4 \pi}\) = 0.5 s
  3. Phase constant, α = \(\frac{\pi}{6}\) rad

(2) Phase angle = (ωt + α) = 4πt + \(\frac{\pi}{6}\)
The phase angle \(\frac{1}{24}\) second after the start is obtained by substituting t = \(\frac{1}{24}\) in the above expression.
∴ Phase angle = 4πt + \(\frac{\pi}{6}\) = (4π × \(\frac{1}{24}\)) + \(\frac{\pi}{6}\)
= \(\frac{\pi}{6}\) + \(\frac{\pi}{6}\) = \(\frac{\pi}{3}\) rad

Question 4.
Describe the state of oscillation of a particle if the phase angle of SHM is rad.
Solution :
Data : θ = \(\frac{25 \pi}{4}\) rad
θ = \(\frac{25 \pi}{4}\) = 6π + \(\frac{\pi}{4}\) = 3(2π) rad + \(\frac{\pi}{4}\) rad
The first term indicates that the particle has completed 3 oscillations. The second term indicates that the displacement of the particle in the 4th oscillation is A sin \(\frac{\pi}{4}\) = + \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)A, where A is the amplitude of the SHM, and moving towards the positive extreme.

Question 5.
A particle in linear SHM is in its 5th oscillation. If its displacement at that instant is –\(\frac{1}{2}\) A and
is moving toward the mean position, determine its phase at that instant.
Solution :
Data : x = –\(\frac{1}{2}\) A, 5th oscillation
A sin θ1 = –\(\frac{1}{2}\)A ∴ θ1 = sin-1\(\left(-\frac{1}{2}\right)\) = π – \(\frac{\pi}{6}\) rad
As the particle is in its 5th oscillation, its phase is
θ = 2 × 2π + θ1 = 4π + (π – \(\frac{\pi}{6}\)) = 5π – \(\frac{\pi}{6}\) = \(\frac{29 \pi}{6}\) rad

Question 6.
The amplitude and periodic time of SHM are 5 cm and 6 s, respectively. What is the phase at a distance of 2.5 cm from the mean position?
Solution :
Data : A = 5 cm, T = 6 s, x = 2.5 cm
Since the particle starts from the mean position, its epoch, α = 0.
∴ The equation of motion is x = A sin ωt
∴ The required phase of the particle,
ω = sin-1\(\frac{x}{A}\)
= sin-1\(\frac{2.5}{5}\) = sin-1 \(\frac{1}{2}\) = \(\frac{\pi}{6}\) rad

Question 26.
State the expressions for the displacement, velocity and acceleration of a particle performing linear SHM, starting from the mean position towards the positive extreme position. Hence, draw their graphs with respect to time. Draw your conclusions from the graphs.
OR
Represents graphically the displacement, velocity and acceleration against time for a particle performing linear SHM when it starts from the mean position.
Answer:
Consider a particle performing SHM, with amplitude A and period T = 2π/ω starting from the mean position towards the positive extreme position where co is the angular frequency. Its displacement from the mean position (x), velocity (v) and acceleration (a) at any instant are
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 31
as the initial phase α = 0

Using these expressions, the values of x, v and a at the end of every quarter of a period, starting from t = 0, are tabulated below.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 32
Using the values in the table we can plot graphs of displacement, velocity and acceleration with time.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 33
Conclusions :

  1. The displacement, velocity and acceleration of a particle performing linear SHM are periodic (harmonic) functions of time. For a particle starting at the mean position, the x-t and a-t graph are sine curves. The v-t graph is a cosine curve.
  2. There is a phase difference of \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) radians between x and v, and between v and a.
  3. There is a phase difference of n radians between x and a.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 34

Question 27.
State the expressions for the displacement, velocity and acceleration of a particle performing linear SHM, starting from the positive extreme position. Hence, draw their graphs with respect to time. Draw your conclusions from the graphs.
OR
A particle performs linear SHM starting from the positive extreme position. Plot the graphs of its displacement, velocity and acceleration against time.
Answer:
Consider a particle performing linear SHM with amplitude A and period T = 2π/ω, starting from the positive extreme position, where ω is the angular frequency. Its displacement from the mean position (x), velocity (v) and acceleration (a) at any instant (t) are
x = A cos ωt = A cos\(\left(\frac{2 \pi}{T} t\right)\) (∵ ω = \(\frac{2 \pi}{T}\))
v = – ωA sin ωt = -ωA sin \(\left(\frac{2 \pi}{T} t\right)\)
a = – ω2A sin ωt = -ω2A cos \(\left(\frac{2 \pi}{T} t\right)\)

Using these expressions, the values of x, v and a at the end of every quarter of a period, starting from t = 0, are tabulated below.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 35
Using these values, we can plot graphs showing the variation of displacement, velocity and acceleration with time.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 36
Conclusions :

  1. The displacement, velocity and acceleration of a particle performing linear SHM are periodic (harmonic) functions of time. For a particle starting from an extreme position, the x-t and a-t graphs are cosine curves; the v-t graph is a sine curve.
  2. There is a phase difference of \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) radians between x and v, and between v and a.
  3. There is a phase difference of π radians between x and a.

Explanations :
(1) v-t graph : It is a sine curve, i.e., the velocity is a periodic (harmonic) function of time which repeats after a phase of 2π rad. There is a phase difference of π/2 rad between a and v.

v is minimum (equal to zero) at the extreme positions (i.e., at x = ± A) and v is maximum ( = ± ωA) at the mean position (x = 0).

(2) a-t graph : It is a cosine curve, i.e., the acceleration is a periodic (harmonic) function of time which repeats after a phase of 2π rad. There is a phase difference of π rad between v and a. a is minimum (equal to zero) at the mean position (x = 0) and a is maximum ( = \(\mp\)ω2A) at the extreme positions (x = ± A).
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 37

Question 28.
Discuss analytically the composition of two SHMs of the same period and parallel to each other (along the same path). Find the resultant amplitude when the phase difference is
(1) zero
(2) \(\frac{\pi}{3}\) rad
(3) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) rad
(4) π rad.
Answer:
Let a particle be subjected to two parallel linear SHMs of the same period along the same path and the same mean position, represented by
x1 = A1 sin (ωt + α) and x2 = A2 sin (ωt + β),
where A1 and A2 are the amplitudes, and α and β are the initial phases of the two SHMs.

According to the principle of superposition, the displacement of the particle at any instant t is the algebraic sum x = x1 + x2.
∴ x = A1 sin (ωt + α) + A2 sin (ωt + β)
= A1 sin ωt cos α + A1 cos ωt sin α + A2 cos ωt sin β
= (A1 cos α + A2 cos β) sin ωt + (A1 sin α + A2sin β) cos ωt
Let A1 cos α + A2 cos β = R cos δ …. (1)
and A1 sin α + A2 sin β = R sin δ …. (2)
∴ x = R cos δ sin ωt + R sin δ cos ωt
∴ x = R cos(ωt + δ) ….. (3)

Equation (3), which gives the displacement of the particle, shows that the resultant motion is also simple harmonic, along the same path as the SHMs superposed, with the same mean position, and amplitude R and initial phase δ but having the same period as the individual SHMs.

Amplitude R of the resultant motion : The resultant amplitude R is found by squaring and adding Eqs. (1) and (2).
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 38
Initial phase S of the resultant motion : The initial phase of the resultant motion is found by dividing Eq. (2) by Eq. (1).
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 39

Notes :

  1. Since the displacements due to the super-posed linear SHMs are along the same path, their vector sum can be replaced by the algebraic sum.
  2. To determine δ uniquely, we need to know both sin δ and cos δ.

Question 29.
Solve the following :

Question 1.
Two parallel SHMs are given by x1 = 20 sin (8πt) cm and x2 = 10 sin (8πt + π/2) cm. Find the amplitude and the epoch of the resultant SHM.
Solution :
Data : x1 = 20 sin (8πt) cm = A1 sin (ωt + α), x2 = 10 sin (8πt + π/2) cm = A2 sin (ωt + β)
∴ A1 = 20 cm, A2 = 10 cm, α = 0, β = π/2
(1) Resultant amplitude,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 40

(2) Initial phase of resultant SHM,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 41

Question 2.
The displacement of a particle performing SHM is given by x = [5 sin πt + 12 sin \(\left(\pi t+\frac{\pi}{2}\right)\) cm. Determine the amplitude, period and initial phase of the motion.
Solution :
Data : x = [5 sin πt + 12 sin \(\left(\pi t+\frac{\pi}{2}\right)\)] cm
The given expression for displacement may be written as the superposition of two parallel SHMs of the same period as x = x1 + x2, where x1 = 5 sin πt cm = A1 sin (ωt + α) and
x2 = 12 sin \(\left(\pi t+\frac{\pi}{2}\right)\) cm = A2 sin (ωt + β)
∴ A1 = 5 cm, A2 = 12 cm, ω = π rad/s, α = 0, β = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) rad.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 42

Question 3.
An SHM is given by the equation x = [8 sin (4πt) + 6 cos (4πt)] cm. Find its
(1) amplitude
(2) initial phase
(3) period
(4) frequency.
Solution:
Data : x = [8 sin (4πt) + 6 cos (4πt)] cm
x = 8 sin (4πt) + 6 cos (4πt)
= 8 sin (4πt) + 6 sin \(\left(4 \pi t+\frac{\pi}{2}\right)\)
Thus, x is the superposition of two parallel SHMs of the same period : x = x1 + x2, where
x1 = 8 sin (4πt) cm = A1 sin (ωt + α) and
x2 = 6 sin \(\left(4 \pi t+\frac{\pi}{2}\right)\) = A2 sin (ωt + β)
∴ A1 = 8 cm, A2 = 6cm, ω = 4π rad/s, α = 0,
β = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) rad
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 43

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations

Question 30.
Show that the total energy of a particle performing linear SHM is directly proportional to
(1) the square of the amplitude
(2) the square of the frequency.
Answer:
For a particle of mass m executing SHM with angular frequency ω and amplitude A, its kinetic and potential energies are respectively,
KE = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2(A2 – x2) … (1)
and PE = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2x2 … (2)
Then, the total energy,
E = PE + KE
= \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2x2 + \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2(A2 – x2)
= \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2A2 …. (3)
Therefore, total energy of the particle is

  1. directly proportional to the mass (E ∝ m),
  2. directly proportional to the square of the amplitude (E ∝ A2)
  3. proportional to the square of the frequency
    (E ∝f2), as f = ω/2π

Question 31.
State the expression for the total energy of SHM in terms of acceleration.
Answer:
The total energy of a particle of mass m performing SHM with angular frequency ω, E = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2A2
The maximum acceleration of the particle, amax = ω2A2
E = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mAamax is the required expression.

Question 32.
State the expressions for the kinetic energy and potential energy of a particle performing SHM. Find their values at
(i) an extreme position
(ii) the mean position.
Using the expressions for the kinetic energy and potential energy of a particle in simple harmonic motion at any position, show that
(i) at the mean position, total energy = kinetic energy
(ii) at an extreme position, total energy = potential energy.
Answer:
For a particle of mass m executing SHM with force constant k, amplitude A and angular frequency ω = \(\sqrt{k / m}\), its kinetic and potential energies are respectively,
KE = \(\frac{1}{2}\)k(A2 – x2) and
PE = \(\frac{1}{2}\)kx2
and total energy, E = \(\frac{1}{2}\)kA2
(i) At the mean position, x = 0,
KE = \(\frac{1}{2}\)kA2 = E and PE = 0

(ii) At an extreme position, x = ±A, KE = 0 and PE = \(\frac{1}{2}\)kA2 = E

That is, the energy transfers back and forth between kinetic energy and potential energy, while the total mechanical energy of the oscillating particle remains constant. The total energy is entirely kinetic energy at the mean position and entirely potential energy at the extremes.

Question 33.
State the expressions for the kinetic energy (KE) and potential energy (PE) at a displacement x for a particle performing linear SHM. Find
(i) the displacement at which KE is equal to PE
(ii) the KE and PE when the particle is halfway to a extreme position.
Answer:
For a particle of mass m executing SHM with force constant k, amplitude A and angular frequency ω = \(\sqrt{k / m}\), its kinetic and potential energies are respectively,
KE = \(\frac{1}{2}\)E (A2 – x2) and
PE = \(\frac{1}{2}\)kx2
and total energy, E = \(\frac{1}{2}\)kA2
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 44
∴ At x = ±\(\frac{A}{2}\), the energy is 25% potential energy and 75% kinetic energy.

Question 34.
The maximum potential energy (PE) of a particle in SHM is 2 × 10-4 J. What will be the PE of the particle when its displacement from the mean position is half the amplitude of SHM ?
Answer:
(PE)max = \(\frac{1}{2}\)kA2, PE = \(\frac{1}{2}\)kx2
∴ PE = (PE)max \(\left(\frac{x}{A}\right)^{2}\) = 2 × 10-4J × \(\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{2}\)
= 5 × 10-5 J is the required answer.

Question 35.
A particle performs linear SHM of amplitude 10 cm. At what displacement of the particle from its mean position will the potential energy (PE) of the particle be 1 % of the maximum PE ?
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 45

Question 36.
Represent graphically the variations of KE, PE and TE of a particle performing linear SHM with respect to its displacement.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 46

Question 37.
Represent graphically the variation of potential energy, kinetic energy and total energy of a particle performing SHM with time.
Answer:
Consider a particle performing SHM, with amplitude A and period T = \(\frac{2 \pi}{\omega}\) starting from the mean position towards the positive extreme position; ω = \(\sqrt{\frac{k}{m}}\) is the appropriate constant related to the system. The total energy of the particle is E = \(\frac{1}{2}\)kA2. Its displacement (x), potential energy (PE) and kinetic energy (KE) at any instant are given by
x = A sin ωt
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 47
Using the values in the table, we can plot graphs of PE, KE and total energy with times as follows:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 48

Question 38.
Solve the following :

Question 1.
A particle of mass 10 g is performing SHM. Its kinetic energies are 4.7 J and 4.6 J when the displacements are 4 cm and 6 cm, respectively. Compute the period of oscillation.
Answer:
Data : m = 0.01 kg, KE1 = 4.7 J, x1 = 4 × 10-2 m, KE2 = 4.6 J, x2 = 6 × 10-2 m
Since the total energy of a particle in SHM is constant,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 49

Question 2.
The total energy of a particle of mass 100 grams performing SHM is 0.2 J. Find its maximum velocity and period if the amplitude is 2\(\sqrt{2}\) cm.
Solution :
Data : m = 100 g = 0.1 kg, E = 0.2 J,
A = 2\(\sqrt{2}\) cm = 2\(\sqrt{2}\) × 10-2 m
(i) The total energy,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 50

Question 3.
An object of mass 0.5 kg performs SHM with force constant 10 N/m and amplitude 3 cm.
(i) What is the total energy of the object?
(ii) What is its maximum speed ?
(iii) What is its speed at x = 2 cm?
(iv) What are its kinetic and potential energies at x = 2 cm ?
Solution :
Data : m = 0.5 kg, A: = 10 N/m,
A = 3 cm = 3 × 10-2m, x = 2 cm = 2 × 10-2m
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 51

Question 4.
When the displacement in SHM is one-third of the amplitude, what fraction of the total energy is potential and what fraction is kinetic?
Solution :
Data : x = A/3
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 52
Therefore, \(\frac{1}{9}\) th of the total energy is potential and \(\frac{8}{9}\)th of the total energy is kinetic.

Question 5.
A particle executes SHM with a period of 8 s. Find the time in which half the total energy is potential.
Solution :
Data : T = 8 s, PE = \(\frac{1}{2}\)E
ω = \(\frac{2 \pi}{T}\) = \(\frac{2 \pi}{8}\) = \(\frac{\pi}{4}\) rad/s
The total energy, E = \(\frac{1}{2}\)kA2 and the potential
energy = \(\frac{1}{2}\)kx2
Therefore, from the data,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 53
Assuming that the particle starts from the mean position, the equation of motion is
x = A sin ωt
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 54
Therefore, in one oscillation, the particle’s potential energy is half the total energy 1 s, 3 s, 5 s and 7 s after passing through the mean position.

Question 39.
Define practical simple pendulum.
Answer:
Practical simple pendulum is defined as a small heavy sphere, called the bob, suspended by a light and inextensible string from a rigid support.

Question 40.
Under what conditions can we consider the oscillations of a simple pendulum to be linear simple harmonic?
Answer:
The oscillations of a simple pendulum are approximately linear simple harmonic only if

  1. the amplitude of oscillation is very small compared to its length
  2. the oscillations are in a single vertical plane.

Question 41.
What is the effect of mass and amplitude on the period of a simple pendulum ?
Answer:
The period of a simple pendulum does not depend on the mass or material of the bob of the pendulum. This is the law of mass.
The period of a simple pendulum does not depend on the amplitude of oscillations, provided that the amplitude is small. This is the law of isochronism. If the amplitude is large, the motion is periodic but not simple harmonic.

Question 42.
From the definition of linear SHM, derive an expression for the angular frequency of a body performing linear SHM.
Answer:
When a body of mass m performs linear SHM, the restoring force on it is always directed towards the mean position and its magnitude is directly proportional to the magnitude of the displacement of the body from the mean position. Thus, if \(\vec{F}\) is the force acting on the body when its displacement from the mean position is \(\vec{x}\),
\(\vec{F}\) = m\(\vec{a}\) = – kx\(\vec{x}\)
where the constant k, the force per unit displacement, is called the force constant.
Let \(\frac{k}{m}\) = ω2, a constant.
∴ Acceleration, a = –\(\frac{k}{m}\) = – ω2x
∴ The angular frequency,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 55

Question 43.
A simple pendulum is set into oscillations in a uniformly travelling car along a horizontal road. What happens to its period if the car takes a sudden turn towards the left ?
Answer:
The equilibrium position of the string makes an angle θ = tan-1(ac/g) with the vertical due to the centrifugal force to the right.
The centripetal acceleration, ac, is horizontal and towards the left. The acceleration due to gravity is vertically downward.
∴ geff = \(\sqrt{g^{2}+a_{\mathrm{c}}^{2}}\)
so that the period of oscillation T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{L / g_{\text {eff }}}\)
∴ As the car takes a sudden left turn, the period of oscillation decreases.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations

Question 44.
Define a seconds pendulum. Find an expression for its length at a given place. Show that the length of a seconds pendulum has a fixed value at a given place.
Answer:
(1) Seconds pendulum: A simple pendulum of period two seconds is called a seconds pendulum.

(2) The period of a simple pendulum is
T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{L}{g}}\)
For a seconds pendulum, T = 2s.
∴ 2 = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{L}{g}}\) ∴ L = \(\frac{g}{\pi^{2}}\)
This expression gives the length of the seconds pendulum at a place where acceleration due to gravity is g.

(3) At a given place, the value of g is constant.
∴ L = g/π2 = a fixed value, at a given place.

[Note : Because the effective gravitational acceleration varies from place to place, the length of a seconds pendulum should be changed in direct proportion. Since the effective gravitational acceleration increases from the equator to the poles, so should the length of a seconds pendulum be increased.]

Question 45.
Two simple pendulums have lengths in the ratio 1 : 9. What is the ratio of their periods at a given place ?
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 56

Question 46.
If the length of a seconds pendulum is doubled, what will be the new period?
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 57

Question 47.
Distinguish between a simple pendulum and a conical pendulum.
Answer:

Simple pendulum Conical pendulum
1. The oscillations of the bob are in a vertical plane. 1. The bob performs UCM in a horizontal plane and the string traces out a cone of constant semivertical angle.
2. The energy of the bob transfers back and forth between kinetic energy and potential energy, while its total mech­anical energy remains con­stant. 2. The gravitational PE of the bob being constant may be taken to be zero. The total mechanical energy remains constant and is entirely kin­etic.
3. The period depends on the 3. length of the string and the acceleration due to gravity.
T =2π\(\sqrt{L / g}\)
3. The period depends on the length of the string, the ac­celeration due to gravity and cosine of the semiverti­cal angle.
T =2π\(\sqrt{L \cos \theta / g}\)

Question 48.
Solve the following.

Question 1.
A simple pendulum of length 1 m has a bob of mass 10 g and oscillates freely with an amplitude of 2 cm. Find its potential energy at the extreme position. [g = 9.8 m/s2]
Solution :
Data : L = 1 m, m = 10 g = 10 × 10-3 kg = 10-2 kg, g = 9.8 m/s2, A = 2 cm = 0.02 m
Period of a simple pendulum, T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{L}{g}}\)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 58

Question 2.
The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum increases by 20% when the length of the pendulum is increased by 44 cm. Find its
(i) initial length
(ii) initial period of oscillation at a place where g is 9.8 m/s2.
Solution:
Let T and L be the initial period and length of the pendulum. Let T1 and L1 be the final period and length.
Data : T1 = T + 0.2 T = 1.2 T, L1 = L + 0.44 m
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 59
Squaring and cross-multiplying, we get,
L + 0.44 = 1.44 L
∴ 0. 44 L = 0.44
∴ L = \(\frac{0.44}{0.44}\) = 1 m
∴ T = 2π\(\sqrt{\frac{L}{g}}\) = 2 × 3.142 × \(\sqrt{\frac{1}{9.8}}\)
= 2.007 s

Question 3.
Calculate the length of a seconds pendulum at a place where g = 9.81 m/s2.
Answer:
Data : T = 2 s, g = 9.81 m/s2
Period of a simple pendulum, T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{L}{g}}\)
For a seconds pendulum, 2 = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{L}{g}}\)
∴ The length of the seconds pendulum,
L = \(\frac{g}{\pi^{2}}\) = \(\frac{9.81}{(3.142)^{2}}\) = 0.9937

Question 4.
A clock regulated by a seconds pendulum keeps correct time. During summer the length of the pendulum increases to 1.01 m. How much will the clock gain or lose in one day ? [g = 9.8 m/s2]
Solution:
Data: L = 1.01 m, g = 9.8 m/s2
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 60
The period of a seconds pendulum is 2 seconds. Hence, the given pendulum clock will lose 0.017 s in 2.017 s during summer.
∴ Time lost in 24 hours
= \(\frac{24 \times 3600 \times 0.017}{2.017}\)s = 728.1 s
The given pendulum clock will lose 728.1 seconds per day during summer.

Question 5.
A small drop of mercury oscillates simple harmonically inside a watch glass whose radius of curvature is 2.5 m. Find the period of the motion. [g = 9.8m/s2]
Solution :
Data : R = 2.5 m, g = 9.8 m/s2
Consider a small drop of mercury on a watch glass of radius of curvature R.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 61
Away from its equilibrium position O, its weight \(m \vec{g}\) is resolved into two perpendicular components : mg cos θ normal to the concave surface and mg sin θ tangential to the surface, mg cos θ is balanced by the normal reaction (\(\vec{N}\)) of the surface while mg sin θ constitutes the restoring force that brings the drop back to O. If θ is small and in radian,
restoring force, F = ma = – mg sin θ
= – mg θ
= -mg\(\frac{x}{R}\)
∴ The acceleration per unit displacement, |\(\frac{a}{x}\)| = \(\frac{g}{R}\)
∴ The period of the motion, T = \(\frac{2 \pi}{\sqrt{|a / x|}}\) = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{R}{g}}\)
Data : R = 2.5 m, g = 9.8 m/s2
∴ The period of oscillation is
T = 2 × 3.142\(\sqrt{\frac{2.5}{9.8}}\) = 6.284 × 0.5051 = 3.174 s.

Question 49.
Explain angular or torsional oscillations.
Hence obtain the differential equation of the motion.
Answer:
Suppose a disc is suspended from its centre by a wire or a twistless thread such that the disc remains horizontal, as shown in below figure. The rest position of
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 62
the disc is marked by a reference line. When the disc is rotated in the horizontal plane by a small angular displacement 0 = 0m from its rest position (θ = θm), the suspension wire is twisted. When the disc is released, it oscillates about the rest position in angular or torsional oscillation with angular amplitude θm.

The device is called a torsional pendulum and the springiness or elasticity of the motion is associated with the twisting of the suspension wire. The twist in either direction stores potential energy in the wire and provides an alternating restoring torque, opposite in direction to the angular displacement. The motion is governed by this torque.

If the magnitude of the restoring torque (τ) is proportional to the angular displacement (θ), τ ∝ (-θ) or τ = – cθ … (1)
where the constant of proportionality c is called the torsion constant, that depends on the length, diameter and material of the suspension wire. In this case, the oscillations will be simple harmonic.

Let I be the moment of inertia (MI) of the oscillating disc.
Torque = MI × angular acceleration
τ = Iα = I\(\frac{d^{2} \theta}{d t^{2}}\)
Hence, from EQ. (1),
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 63
This is the differential equation of angular SHM.
[Note : Angular displacement being a dimensionless quantity, the SI unit of torsion constant is the same as that of torque = the newton-metre (N-m)]

Question 50.
Define angular SHM. State the differential equation of angular SHM. Hence derive an expression for the period of angular SHM in terms of
(i) the torsion constant
(ii) the angular acceleration.
Answer:
Definition : Angular SHM is defined as the oscillatory motion of a body in which the restoring torque responsible for angular acceleration is directly proportional to the angular displacement and its direction is opposite to that of angular displacement.
The differential equation of angular SHM is
I\(\frac{d^{2} \theta}{d t^{2}}\) + c θ = 0 … (1)
where I = moment of inertia of the
where I = moment of inertia of the oscillating body,
\(\frac{d^{2} \theta}{d t^{2}}\) = angular acceleration of the body when its angular displacement is θ, and c = torsion constant of the suspension wire,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 64

Question 51.
Solve the following :

Question 1.
A bar magnet of moment 10 A.m2 is suspended such that it can rotate freely in a horizontal plane. The horizontal component of the Earth’s magnetic field at the place is 39 μT. Calculate the magnitude of the torque when its angular displacement with respect to the direction of the field is 10°.
Solution :
Data : μ = 10 A.m2, Bh = 3.9 × 10-5 T, θ = 10°
The magnitude of the torque is τ = – μBh sin θ = (10)(3.9 × 10-5) sin 10°
= (3.9 × 10-4)(0.1736) = 6.770 × 10-5 N.m

Question 2.
A disc, of radius 12 cm and mass 250 g, is suspended horizontally by a long wire at its centre. Its period T1 of angular SHM is measured to be 8.43 s. An irregularly shaped object X is then hung from the same wire and its period T2 is found to be 4.76 s. What is the rotational inertia of object X about its suspension axis ?
Solution:
Data : R = 0.12 m, M = 0.25 kg, T, = 8.43 s, T2 = 4.76 s
The MI of the disc about the rotation axis (perpendicular through its centre) is = \(\frac{1}{2}\) MR2
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 65

Question 52.
What is meant by damped oscillations ? Draw a neat, labelled diagram of a damped spring-and-block oscillator.
Answer:
Oscillations of gradually decreasing amplitude are called damped oscillations. Oscillations of a system in the presence of dissipative frictional forces are damped.

The dissipative damping force removes energy from the system which requires external periodic force to continue.

Below Figure shows a spring-and-block oscillator attached with a light vane that moves in a fluid with viscosity. When the system is set into oscillation, the amplitude decreases for each oscillation due to the viscous drag on the vane.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 66

Question 53.
Write the differential equation of motion for an oscillator in the presence of a damping force directly proportional to the velocity. Under what condition is the motion oscillatory? Hence, discuss the frequency, amplitude and energy of the damped oscillations.
OR
Oscillations in the presence of a force proportional to the velocity are periodic but not simple harmonic. Explain.
OR
The presence of a damping force changes the character of a simple harmonic motion. Explain this qualitatively.
Answer:
Consider the oscillations of a body in the presence of a dissipative frictional force such as viscous drag or fluid friction. Such a force is proportional to the velocity of the body and is in a direction opposite to that of the velocity. If the fluid flow past the body is streamline, then by Stokes’ law, the resistive force is
f = -βv = -β\(\frac{d x}{d t}\)… (1)
where v = \(\frac{d x}{d t}\) is the velocity and β is a positive constant of proportionality called the damping constant.
The linear restoring force on the oscillator is F = -kx … (2)
where k is the force constant. If m is the mass of the oscillator and its acceleration is \(\frac{d^{2} x}{d t^{2}}\)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 67
where ω2 = \(\frac{k}{m}\). Equation (3) is the differential equation of the oscillator in presence of a resistive force directly proportional to the velocity.
The solution of the above differential equation obtained using standard mathematical technique is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 68
where constants A and φ can be determined in the usual way from the initial conditions. In writing this solution, it is assumed β is less than 2mω, i.e., the resistive term is relatively small.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 69
In Eq. (4),
(1) the harmonic term, cos \(\left[\sqrt{\omega^{2}-\frac{\beta^{2}}{2 m}} t+\phi\right]\), that the motion is oscillatory with angular frequency ω’ = \(\sqrt{\omega^{2}-\frac{\beta^{2}}{4 m^{2}}}\) if β is less than 2mω. The harmonic term can also be written in terms of a sine function with the same ω’.
(2) A’ = Ae-(β/2m)t is the amplitude of the oscillation. The exponential factor e-(β/2m)t steadily decreases the amplitude of the motion, making it approach zero for large t. Hence, the motion is said to be damped oscillation or damped harmonic motion.
(3) the total energy, \(\frac{1}{2}\)m(ω’)2, decays exponentially with time as the amplitude decreases. The energy is dissipated in the form of heat by the damping force.
(4) the period of the damped oscillations is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 70
∴ T is greater than 2π/ω.
Thus, the motion is periodic but not simple harmonic because the amplitude steadily decreases.

Notes :

  1. The energy decreases faster than the amplitude.
  2. For β < 2mω, the larger the value of β, the faster the amplitude decreases. The condition is called underdamping.
  3. When β = 2mω = \(2 \sqrt{k m}\) km, ω’ = 0, i.e., the system no longer oscillates. When displaced and released, it returns to its equilibrium position without oscillation. The condition is called critical damping.
  4. If β > 2mω, the system is said to overdamped or dead beat. Again, the system does not oscillate but returns to equilibrium position more slowly than for critical damping.
  5. All practical cases of so called free oscillations, such as that of a simple pendulum or a tuning fork, are damped. We also encounter damped oscillations in electrical circuits containing inductance, capacitance and resistance due to resistive losses. While in many cases it is desirable to minimize damping, in ammeters and voltmeters the oscillations of the pointer are designed to be dead beat.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations

Question 54.
Solve the following.

Question 1.
For a damped spring-and-block oscillator, the mass of the block is 0.2 kg, the spring constant is 90 N/m and the damping constant is 0.06 kg/s. Calculate
(i) the period of oscillation
(ii) the time taken for its amplitude to become half its initial value.
Solution :
Data : m = 0.2 kg, k = 90 N/m, β = 0.06 kg/s
(i) The period of the damped oscillation is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 71
(ii) The amplitude of the damped oscillation is
A’ = Ae-(β/2m)t
If the amplitude becomes half the initial amplitude A at time f,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 72

Question 2.
A steel sphere of mass 0.02 kg attains a terminal speed vi = 0.5 m/s when dropped into a tall cylinder of oil. The same sphere is then attached to the free end of an ideal vertical spring of spring constant 8 N/m. The sphere is immersed in the same oil and set into vertical oscillation. Find
(i) the damping constant
(ii) the angular frequency of the damped SHM.
(iii) Hence, write the equation for displacement of the damped SHM as a function of time, assuming that the initial amplitude is 10 cm. [g = 10 m/s2]
Solution :
Data : m = 0.02 kg, vt = 0.5 m/s, k = 8 N/m,
A = 10 cm = 0.1 m, g = 10 m/s2
When the sphere falls with terminal velocity in oil, the resultant force on it is zero. Therefore, the
The equation of motion of the damped oscillation is resistive force and its weight are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction.
∴ |Fr| = βvt = mg
where β is the damping constant.
∴ β = \(\frac{m g}{v_{\mathrm{t}}}\) = \(\frac{0.02 \times 10}{0.5}\) = 0.4 kg/s
The angular frequency of the damped oscillation in oil,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 73
The equation of motion of the damped oscillation is
x = Ae(β/2m)t cos(w’t + φ)
∴ x = (0.1 m)e-(0.4/004)t cos (17.32t + φ)
x = (0.1 m) e-10t cos(17.32t + φ)

Question 55.
Explain
(1) free vibrations
(2) forced vibrations.
Answer:
(1) Free vibrations : A body capable of vibrations is said to perform free vibrations when it is disturbed from its equilibrium position and left to itself.

In the absence of dissipative forces such as friction due to surrounding air and internal forces, the total energy and hence the amplitude of vibrations of the body remains constant. The frequencies of the free vibrations of a body are called its natural frequencies and depend on the body itself.

In the absence of a maintaining force, in practice, the total energy and hence the amplitude decreases due to dissipative forces and the vibration is said to be damped. The frequency of damped vibrations is less than the natural frequency.

(2) Forced vibrations : The vibrations of a body in response to an external periodic force are called forced vibrations.

The external force supplies the necessary energy to make up for the dissipative losses. The frequency of the forced vibrations is equal to the frequency of the external periodic force.

The amplitude of the forced vibrations depends upon the mass of the vibrating body, the amplitude of the external force, the difference between the natural frequency and the frequency of the periodic force, and the extent of damping.

Question 56.
Distinguish between free vibrations and forced vibrations.
Answer:

Free vibrations Forced vibrations
1. Free vibrations are pro­duced when a body is disturbed from its equilibrium position and released.
Ex. Simple pendulum.
1. Forced vibrations are pro­duced by an external periodic force.
Ex. Musical instrument having a sounding board.
2. The frequency of free vibra­tions depends on the body and is called its natural frequency. 2. The frequency of forced vi­brations is equal to that of the external periodic force.
3. The energy of the body remains constant only in the absence of friction, air resis­tance, etc. 3. The energy of the body is maintained constant by the external periodic force.

Question 57.
Explain resonance.
Answer:
Resonance : If a body is made to vibrate by an external periodic force, whose frequency is equal to the natural frequency (or nearly so) of the body, the body vibrates with maximum amplitude. This phenomenon is called resonance.

The corresponding frequency is called the resonant frequency.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 74
For low damping, the amplitude of vibrations has a sharp maximum at resonance, as shown. The flatter curve without a pronounced maximum is for high damping.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 75
Suppose several pendulums-A, B, C, D and E are coupled to a heavier pendulum Z, by suspending them from a stretched cord, and that only the length of C is the same as that of Z. When Z is set into oscillation perpendicular to the cord PQ, the others are also set into forced oscillations in parallel vertical planes. Their amplitudes vary but those of A, B, D and E never become very large because the frequency of Z is not the same as the natural frequency of any of them. On the other hand, C will be in resonant oscillation and its amplitude will be large.

Question 58.
The differential equation of SHM for a seconds pendulum is
(A) \(\frac{d^{2} x}{d t^{2}}\) + x = 0
(B) \(\frac{d^{2} x}{d t^{2}}\) + πx = 0
(C) \(\frac{d^{2} x}{d t^{2}}\) + 4πx = 0
(D) \(\frac{d^{2} x}{d t^{2}}\) + π2x = 0.
Answer:
(D) \(\frac{d^{2} x}{d t^{2}}\) + π2x = 0.

Question 59.
The phase change of a particle performing SHM between successive passages through the mean position is
(A) 2π rad
(B) π rad
(C) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) rad
(D) \(\frac{\pi}{4}\) rad.
Answer:
(B) π rad

Question 60.
If the equation of motion of a particle performing SHM is x = 0.028 cos (2.8πt + π) (all quantities in SI units), the frequency of the motion is
(A) 0.7 Hz
(B) 1.4 Hz
(C) 2.8 Hz
(D) 14 Hz.
Answer:
(B) 1.4 Hz

Question 61.
A spring-and-block system constitutes a simple harmonic oscillator. To double the frequency of oscillation, the mass of the block must be ….. the initial mass.
(A) \(\frac{1}{4}\) times
(B) half
(C) double
(D) 4 times
Answer:
(A) \(\frac{1}{4}\) times

Question 62.
A horizontal spring-and-block system consists of a block of mass 1 kg, resting on a frictionless surface, and an ideal spring. A force of 10 N is required to compress the spring by 10 cm. The spring constant of the spring is
(A) 100 N.m-1
(B) 10N.m-1
(C) N.m-1
(D) 0.1 N.m-1.
Answer:
(C) N.m-1

Question 63.
A vertical spring-and-block system has a block of mass 10 g and oscillates with a period 1 s. The period of SHM of a block of mass 90 g, suspended from the same spring, is
(A) \(\frac{1}{9}\)s
(B) \(\frac{1}{3}\)s
(C) 3 s
(D) 9 s.
Answer:
(C) 3 s

Question 64.
A simple harmonic oscillator has an amplitude A and period T. The time required by the oscillator to cover the distance from x = A to x = \(\frac{A}{2}\) is
(A) \(\frac{T}{2}\)
(B) \(\frac{T}{3}\)
(C) \(\frac{T}{4}\)
(D) \(\frac{T}{6}\)
Answer:
(D) \(\frac{T}{6}\)

Question 65.
The period of SHM of a particle with maximum velocity 50 cm/s and maximum acceleration 10 cm/s2 is
(A) 31.42 s
(B) 6.284 s
(C) 3.142 s
(D) 0.3142 s.
Answer:
(C) 3.142 s

Question 66.
A particle executing SHM of amplitude 5 cm has an acceleration of 27 cm/s2 when it is 3 cm from the mean position. Its maximum velocity is
(A) 15 cm/s
(B) 30 cm/s
(C) 45 cm/s
(D) 60 cm/s.
Answer:
(A) 15 cm/s

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations

Question 67.
A particle performs linear SHM with a period of 6 s, starting from the positive extremity. At time t = 7 s, its displacement is 3 cm. The amplitude of the motion is
(A) 4 cm
(B) 6 cm
(C) 8 cm
(D) 12 cm.
Answer:
(B) 6 cm

Question 68.
A spring-and-block oscillator with an ideal spring of force constant 180 N/m oscillates with a frequency of 6 Hz. The mass of the block is, approximately,
(A) \(\frac{1}{8}\) kg
(B) \(\frac{1}{4}\) kg
(C) 4 kg
(D) 8 kg.
Answer:
(A) \(\frac{1}{8}\) kg

Question 69.
A particle executing linear SHM has velocities v1 and v2 at distances x1 and x2, respectively, from the mean position. The angular velocity of the particle is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 76
Answer:
(B) \(\sqrt{\frac{v_{2}^{2}-v_{1}^{2}}{x_{1}^{2}-x_{2}^{2}}}\)

Question 70.
A particle executes linear SHM with period 12 s. To traverse a distance equal to half its amplitude from the equilibrium position, it takes
(A) 6s
(B) 4s
(C) 2s
(D) 1s.
Answer:
(D) 1s

Question 71.
The minimum time taken by a particle in SHM with period T to go from an extreme position to a point half way to the equilibrium position is
A. \(\frac{T}{12}\)
B. \(\frac{T}{8}\)
C. \(\frac{T}{6}\)
D. \(\frac{T}{4}\)
Answer:
C. \(\frac{T}{6}\)

Question 72.
In simple harmonic motion, the acceleration of a particle is zero when its
(A) velocity is zero
(B) displacement is zero
(C) both velocity and displacement are zero
(D) both velocity and displacement are maximum.
Answer:
(B) displacement is zero

Question 73.
The acceleration of a particle performing SHM is 3m/s2 at a distance of 3 cm from the mean position.
The periodic time of the motion is
(A) 0.02 π s
(B) 0.04 π s
(C) 0.2 π s
(D) 2 π s.
Answer:
(C) 0.2 π s

Question 74.
A particle performing linear SHM with a frequency n is confined within limits x = ±A. Midway between an extremity and the equilibrium position, its speed is
(A) \(\sqrt{6}\)nA
(B) \(\sqrt{3}\)πnA
(C) \(\sqrt{6}\)πnA
(D) \(\sqrt{12}\)πnA
Answer:
(B) \(\sqrt{3}\)πnA

Question 75.
The total energy of a particle executing SHM is proportional to
(A) the frequency of oscillation
(B) the square of the amplitude of motion
(C) the velocity at the equilibrium position
(D) the displacement from the equilibrium position.
Answer:
(B) the square of the amplitude of motion

Question 76.
Two spring-and-block oscillators oscillate harmonically with the same amplitude and a constant phase difference of 90°. Their maximum velocities are v and v + x. The value of x is
(A) 0
(B) \(\frac{v}{3}\)
(C) 2
(D) \(\frac{v}{\sqrt{2}}\).
Answer:
(A) 0

Question 77.
If the length of a simple pendulum is increased to 4 times its initial length, its frequency of oscillation will
(A) reduce to half its initial frequency
(B) increase to twice its initial frequency
(C) reduce to \(\frac{1}{4}\) th its initial frequency
(D) increase to 4 times its initial frequency.
Answer:
(A) reduce to half its initial frequency

Question 78.
If the length of a simple pendulum is doubled keeping its amplitude constant, its energy will be
(A) unchanged
(B) doubled
(C) halved
(D) increased to four times the initial energy.
Answer:
(C) halved

Question 79.
The amplitude of oscillations of a simple pendulum of period T and length L is increased by 5%. The new period of the pendulum will be
(A) T/8
(B) T/4
(C) T/2
(D) T.
Answer:
(D) T.

Question 80.
In 20 s, two simple pendulums, P and Q, complete 9 and 7 oscillations, respectively, on the Earth. On the
Moon, where the acceleration due to gravity is \(\frac{1}{6}\)th that on the Earth, their periods are in the ratio (A) 8 : 1
(B) 9 : 7
(C) 7 : 9
(D) 3 : 14.
Answer:
(C) 7 : 9

Question 81.
If T is the time period of a simple pendulum in an elevator at rest, its time period in a freely falling elevator will be
(A) \(\frac{T}{\sqrt{2}}\)
(B) \(\sqrt{2}\)T
(C) 2T
(D) infinite.
Answer:
(D) infinite.

Question 82.
A seconds pendulum is suspended in an elevator moving with a constant speed in the downward direction. The periodic time (T) of that pendulum is
(A) less than two seconds
(B) equal to two seconds
(C) greater than two seconds
(D) very much greater than two seconds.
Answer:
(B) equal to two seconds

Question 83.
The total work done by a restoring force in simple harmonic motion of amplitude A and angular frequency ω, in one oscillation is
(A) \(\frac{1}{2}\)mA2ω2
(B) zero
(C) mA2ω2
(D) \(\frac{1}{2}\)mAω.
Answer:
(B) zero

Question 84.
Two particles perform linear simple harmonic motion along the same path of length 2A and period T as shown in the graph below. The phase difference between them is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Oscillations Important Questions 77
(A) zero rad
(B) \(\frac{\pi}{4}\) rad
(C) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) rad
(D) \(\frac{3 \pi}{4}\) rad
Answer:
(B) \(\frac{\pi}{4}\) rad

Question 85.
The average displacement over a period of SHM is
(A = amplitude of SHM)
(A) 0
(B) A
(C) 2A
(D) 4A.
Answer:
(A) 0

Question 86.
Two springs of force constants k1 and k2(k1 > k2) are stretched by the same force. If W1 and W2 be the work done in stretching the springs, then
(A) W1 = W2
(B) W1 < W2
(C) W1 > W2
(D) W1 = W2 = 0.
Answer:
(B) W1 < W2

Question 87.
Two bar magnets of identical size have magnetic moments MA and MB. If the magnet A oscillates at twice the frequency of magnet B, then
(A) MA = 2MB
(B) MA = 8MB
(C) MA = 4MB
(D) MB = 8MA.
Answer:
(C) MA = 4MB

Question 88.
A magnet is suspended to oscillate in the horizontal plane. It makes 20 oscillations per minute at a place where the dip angle is 30° and 15 oscillations per minute where the dip angle is 60°. The ratio of the Earth’s total magnetic field at the two places is
(A) 3\(\sqrt{3}\) : 16
(B) 16 : 9\(\sqrt{3}\)
(C) 4 : 9\(\sqrt{3}\)
(D) 9 : 16\(\sqrt{3}\).
Answer:
(B) 16 : 9\(\sqrt{3}\)