Class 10

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 Social and Political Movements Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 Social and Political Movements

Question 1.
Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the sentences.
(1) ………………………….. is the main demand of farmers movement.
(a) Right to cultivate on the forest land
(b) To get the right price for agricultural product
(c) Protection of consumers
(d) Building of dams
Answer:
(b) To get the right price for agricultural products

(2) To increase agricultural production and become self-sufficient with regard to food grains ………………………….. was initiated.
(a) Water revolution
(b) Green revolution
(c) Industrial revolution
(d) White revolution
Answer:
(b) Green revolution

Question 2.
Explain the concepts.
(1) Tribal movement
Answer:

• Tribal community was always dependent on forest wealth for their living.
• The British had prohibited the tribals from making use of forest wealth to earn their livelihõod
• Kolam, Gond, Santhal, Koli, Bhilla, Munda Tribals of different parts of India revolted against the British.
• Even after independence their problem to earn a livelihood is not solved. Their right on the forest land, to gather forest products and to cultivate on forest land is not yet recognised.

Therefore, for these demands, Tribal Movement is active in many parts.

(2) Labour movement
Answer:

• Industries in public and private sector like textile mills, railway companies started in India in the latter part of the nineteenth century.
• Due to industrialisction, a large number’ of labour force came into existence.
• Thiš led to lot of labour issues. In 1920, All India Trade Union. Congress was established to solve their problems.
• Many unions were formed after independence. The Trade Union Movement was very effective from 1960 tifi 1980s.
• After 1980s trade union movement lost its momentum and slowly disintegrated. Globalization gave a final blow to the movement.

Question 3.
Answer the following questions in brief.
(1) Explain the activities/role/functions of environmental movement.
Answer:
(i) Role : The environment movement rias played a key role in –

• Creating public awareness about the importance of balance in environment through television, newspapers, and other mediums.
• Opposing developmental projects with environmental concerns.

(ii) Functions : The function of the environment movement is to make efforts silently or rigorously to protect natural areas through afforestation, recycling or pollution control. Forest department and the pollution board are actively involved and extend support by making stringent laws to book the culprits.

(iii) Activities : Different activities are conducted to promote the environment movement:

• Environmental degradation has become a serious issue not only in India but also in the world.
• The issues of degradation was discussed at. Rio-de-Janeiro, Paris and Kyoto Conferences.
• Even in India many movements are active for conservation of the environment like the Chipko movement, Appiko movement ana Vanmahatsov.

(2) Explain the nature of farmers movement in India.
Answer:

1. The Indian farmers organised themselves in pre-independence era to fight against the anti-agricultural policies of the colonial British rulers.
2. The farmers were inspired by the thoughts of Mahatma Phule, Justice Ranade and Mahatma Gandhi. They organised satyagraha against revenue collection in Bardoli and Champaranya.
3. Farmers’ movement slowed down because of tenancy laws under land reforms. Green revolution failed to improve conditions of the poor farmers.
4. Farmers’ movement gained momentum with demands like, appropriate price for agricultural products, debt relief and debt cancellation after recommendations from Swaminathan Commission.

(3) For which reforms were the women’s movement in the pre-independence period fighting?
Answer:
In the pre-independence period women’s movement were working for the following reforms :

• Eliminating injustice against women.
• To put an end to the exploitation of women and help them lead a respectful and dignified life.
• They should be able to participate actively in social life.
• To end the practices like Sati, child marriage, polygamy and bring about reforms such as widow remarriage and women’s education.

Question 4.
State wheather the following statements are true or false. Give reasons for your answer.
(1) Movements are important in a democracy.
Answer:
The above statement is True.

• People organise themselves and start a movement to solve social issues.
• Leaders and activists provide all the information regarding those issues to the government.
• The government takes, notice of the problems because of the movement.
• Some movements aim at opposing some policies of the government and certain decisions. This is the most recognised method of protest in democracy.

Hence, movements have great importance in democracy

(2) Movements do not need a strong leadership.
Answer:
The above statement is False.

• The success of any movement depends on leadership. The movement remains active because of the strong leader.
• The decisions regarding the objective of the movement, programme of action, strategy of agitation are decided and taken by the leader.
• Firm leadership has a wide reach. They can get public support making the movement very effective. So, the need of a strong leadership is utmost essential.

(3) Consumer movement came into existence.
Answer:
The above statement is True.

• The consumers faced different problems because of changing economy and social system.
• Adulteration increased the cost of products and faulty weights and measures are some of the problems faced by the consumers.
• To protect the consumers from such frauds the Consumer Protection Act was passed in 1986.
• The Consumer Protection movement was started to create awareness among the consumers about their rights and their safety.

Project
(1) Collect the news in the newspapers about various activities of social movements.
(2) Write a report on movements in your area which are working to resolve general problems.
(3) Prepare a format of a complaint you will submit under consumer protection act if you are cheated in purchase of vegetables or grains
Answer:

Memory Map

Question 5.
Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the sentences :
(a) In …………………., movements have more importance.
(a) socialist rule
(b) dictatorship
(c) democracy
(d) communist rule
Answer:
(c) democracy

(b) In democracy, Right to …………………. is considered an important right.
(a) rehabilitate
(b) pursue questions
(c) behave with control and responsibility
(d) protest
Answer:
(d) protest

(c) is the objective of Green Revolution.
(a) To stop degradation of environment
(b) Protection of the forests
(c) Increase in agricultural output
(d) To stop the felling of trees.
Answer:
(c) Increase in agricultural output.

(d) The trade union movement in India has background of ………………… .
(a) freedom struggle
(b) globalisation
(c) prestigious past
(d) industrialisation
Answer:
(d) industrialisation

(e) In 1899, …………………. workers called for a strike.
(a) railway
(b) mill
(c) handloom
(d) rice mill
Answer:
(a) railway

(f) Dr. Rajendrasinh Rana had brought about …………………. in Rajasthan.
(a) White Revolution
(b) Water Revolution
(c) Green Revolution
(d) Consumer Revolution
Answer:
(b) Water Revolution

(g) Dr. Rajendrasinh Rana is known as the …………………. of India.
(a) Farmer man
(b) environment affectionate
(c) Man of the Millennium
(d) Waterman
Answer:
(d) Waterman

(h) Tribals in Bihar revolted against the British under the leadership of ………………… .
(a) Rajendrasinh Rana
(b) Birsa Munda
(c) Umaji Naik
(d) Kajarsingh
Answer:
(b) Birsa Munda.

(i) Swadeshi movement is an important …………………. movement.
(a) political
(b) social
(c) economic
(d) cultural
Answer:
(c) economic

(j) …………………. is one of the problems faced by consumers.
(a) Cancellation
(b) Malnutrition
(c) Adulteration
(d) Transportation
Answer:
(c) Adulteration

(k) The main demand of the farmer’s movement was to accept suggestions of the …………………. Commission.
(a) Sunderlal Bahuguna
(b) Verghese Kurien
(c) Swaminathan
(d) Kothari
Answer:
(c) Swaminathan

(l) In 1986, …………………. Act came into force.
(a) Consumer Protection
(b) Women Empowerment
(c) Child Marriage
(d) Environment Protection
Answer:
(a) Consumer Protection

(m) The post-1980 movements are called ………………… .
(a) New
(b) Neo-social
(c) Broad
(d) Globalisation
Answer:
(b) Neo-social

(n) …………………. was established in 1920.
(a) Farmer’s Organization
(b) Bhartiya Kisan Union
(c) All India Trade Union Congress
(d) All India Kisan Sabha
Answer:
(d) All India Trade Union Congress.

Question 6.
Explain the following statements by giving reasons :
(a) Political parties can concentrate on one particular issue.
Answer:
The above statement is False.

• Political parties contest elections to solve problems of common people.
• Parties have to take into consideration all matters from public cleanliness to roads to space research. They have to have a national perspective and take decisions.
• Political parties should have programmes for the development of all the sections of society like youth, senior citizens, businessmen, women, farmers and labourers.
• This – means that political parties cannot concentrate on just one particular issue.

(b) People’s active participation is expected in the movement.
Answer:
The above statement is True.

• A. movement is started to solve issues of public interest.
• People offer support to the movements which are related to their cause or a particular issue.
• Deciding upon the issues of the people a programme is decided and a group is formed.

(c) Dr. Rajendrasinh Rana is called the Waterman of India.
Answer:
The above statement is True.

• Dr. Rajendrashinh Rana built thousands of ‘Johads’ in Rajasthan.
• He revived many rivers in the desert region of Rajasthan.
• He formed an organisation – “Tarun Bharat Sangh” which built eleven thousand Johads to harvest water. .
• He started a campaign for Water conservation, revival of rivers, forest conservation and wildlife conservation.
• He worked continuously for this cause for 31 years building 11 thousand johads bringing about water revolution in Rajasthan. Therefore, is called the Waterman of India.

Question 7.
Explain the concept :
(a) Movement:
Answer:

1. When people organise themselves to resolve a certain issue it is called a movement.
2. Movements increase the participation of people in social life.
3. Movements are for public welfare and to solve issues. The aim of any movement is not only to pressurize the government but also to oppose its decision or policies.
4. A movement is started for different reasons like religious, social, cúltural, protection of the environment, ill practices and traditions.

(b) Public Interest Litigation:
Answer:

1. A litigation is filed if an individual or group feels that fundamental rights which are enshrined in the Constitution are undermined by the government.
2. To safeguard human rights, citizens can file a litigation in High Court or Supreme Court. Such a litigation is known as Public Interest Litigation.
3. Public Interest Litigation is filed for problems such as pollution, government avoiding public works and for social problems such as violence, discrimination and ostracising someone.
4. It is the most effective way of seeking justice.

(c) Environment Movement :
Answer:

• Different activities are conducted to promote the environment movement in India.
• Environment degradation has become a serious issue not only in India but also all over the world.
• The issues of degradation were discussed at Rio-de-Janeiro, Paris and Kyoto Conferences.
• Even in India many movements are active for conservation of the environment like the Chipko movement, Appika movement and Vanmahatsov.

Question 8.
(A) Complete the graphical representation :

(1)

Answer:

(2)

Answer:

(3)

Answer:

(4)

Answer:

(B) Explain the events in Trade Union Movement:

Answer:

Question 9.
Answer the following questions in brief:
(a) Explain the features of a movement.
Answer:

• A movement is a collective action which has active participation or support of the people.
• People take up a particular issue and organise themselves.
• A movement requires strong leadership. A strong leader makes the movement effective.
• If people feel connected to the issue, then they extend their support to the movement.

(b) What are the demands of Trade Union Movement?
Answer:
The Trade Uniin Movement makes demands regarding following issues :

• Contract labour and unstable employment..
• financial insecurity and unfavourable conditions at workplace.
• Unlimited working hours and health hazards.
• No protection of labour laws.

(c) How did the objectives of women’s movement change after independence?
Answer:

1. In the pre-independence era the aim of the women’s movement was to put an end to the unjust practices against women and end their exploitation.
2. After independence, the aim of their movement changed because they realised that though the Constitution had given equal rights both to men and women in practice they were never considered equal.
3. The objective of the women’s movement was to achieve freedom in real sense, i.e. they should be treated as human beings and should get equal rights and to live a dignified life.

(d) Which issues were taken up by the women’s movement after independence?
Answer:
Many issues were taken up by the women’s movement for welfare of the women after independence. Some are:

• Health and education of women
• financial independence
• Social security
• To be treated as human beings and have a status and prestige.

(e) Which issues are handled through movements?
Answer:
Movements arise out of public issues, which could be social, political, economic and religious.

1. To protect the rights of the citizens like voting, freedom and for similar issues, political movements are organised.
2. financial security, minimum wages, employment, insistence on an indigenous product are the reasons for economic movement.
3. Social and religious movements are organized to eliminate ill practices like untouchability, entry of women in temples,’ discrimination and social issues.
4. Movements are organised to raise voice against injustice done to a particular region, language and for issues like cleanliness, environment and movements for development like Green revolution and White resolution.

(f) Which movements started in India are actively working for rehabilitation of the displaced and to secure their livelihood?
Answer:
People who got displaced started this movement for different reasons. Some movements lasted for short time while some lasted long.

• “Narmada Bachao Andolan” was a popular movement.
• People living in Maharashtra and Gujarat continued it for 28 years.
• People in the Sindhudurg district who got displaced due to the Talamba dam started movement for rehabilitation. It lasted for 32 years.
• Farmers who got displaced because of Pune-Nagpur highway or for the planned Purandar airport launched movements on a large scale. Such movements are going on all over India.

(g) Name the policies started by the government for the welfare of farmers and landless labourers?
Answer:
The government has started the following policies for the welfare of the farmers and landless labourers :

• National agriculture policy
• Crop insurance scheme (FASAL Bima Yojana)
• Jalyukt Shivar
• Indira Gandhi Niradhar (old), landless, destitute women farm labour scheme.
• Neem Coated Urea.
• Name the policies started by the government for the welfare of farmers and landless labourers.

(h) Name the movements started by Mahatma Gandhi, Mahatma Phule, Sant Gadge Maharaj and Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar.
Answer:

• Mahatma Phule laid the foundation of the movement for education of women and social equality.
• To stop the practice of widow tonsure he called for a strike of barbers in Mumbai.
• Mahatma Gandhi adopted the technique of satyagraha and started the movement for farmers in Champaranya and Kheda.
• He also started the Non-cooperation Movement and Civil Disobedience Movement..
• Sant Gadge Maharaj started the cleanliness campaign.
• Dr. Babashaeb Ambedkar launched satyagraha to allow untouchables to use water from a public tank in Mahad..
• He also led the movement in Nashik for Dalits so that they could get entry into the Kalaram temple.

(i) All movements have ideologies. (Discuss : Textbook page 92)
Answer:

• Even though movements are launched for social welfare there is always an ideology behind every movement.
• The scope of movements against child marriage or dowry prohibition is not limited to oppose the social evil practice but have wider aim of social reformation.
• The movements started against female foeticide ‘Beti Bachao Beti Padhav’, violence against women and to empower women had objectives to achieve equal social status for women and their protection.
• Movements like cleanliness campaign, Chipko Andolan, Save Trees aim not only at environment protection but also aim at saving humanity.
• These movements have faith in democratic values like equality and brotherhood and humanity. This shows all movements have ideologies.
• Generally the movements are devoted to one particular issue but have an ideology behind them.
• For example movements against child marriage, dowry believe in values of democracy, women empowerment and social equality.
• Sometimes some movements gradually get transformed into political parties.

Question 10.
Give your opinion :
(a) Do you think, if all the movements co-ordinate with each other, the result will be more effective?
Answer:

• Our society has witnessed many movements from pre-independence times.
• If all these movements co-ordinate with each other they will be definitely, effective.
• With each other’s cooperation they can work together to find the root cause of the problem and also find a solution.
• The manpower will not get divided. The work will get divided and that would save time and energy to a great extent.
• The movement will be more effective.

(a) On which issues does the ‘Sons of the Soil’ movement in India insist? (Discuss : Textbook page 93)
Answer:
People migrate for various reasons within the country. They create lot of problems in their newly adopted homeland which give rise to the ‘Sons of the Soil’ movement. The main reasons for the movement are :

• Sons of the Soil, i.e. local people lose out on employment opportunities.
• They are deprived of their jobs.
• Their land is confiscated.
• Housing becomes expensive.
• The migrants pose a threat to the language and culture of local people.
• Sons of the Soil lose economic monopoly as well as political influence.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 10 Disaster Management Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 10 Disaster Management

Question 1.
Complete the table.

Answer:

Question 2.
Write notes.
a. Disaster Management Authority.
Answer:
Disaster Management Authority is the body that works at the level of government from national level to village level. This work is basically about management of any disaster and tackling the problems of the affected people. At National level there is National Disaster Management Authority for which the Prime Minister is the chairman. For every state there is State Disaster Management Authority, where the chief minister of every state is the chairman. Under the state level, there are district level units where district collector is responsible for disaster management and implementation of rehabilitation schemes. Below district level authority there are Taluka and then Village Disaster Management Committees.

The Tahsildar is the chairman for Taluka level while the Sarpanch of the village is responsible for management of disasters at village level. Collector of each district helps in planning, coordinating and controlling the implementation of rehabilitation programme and also gives essential instructions and reviews the entire system.

b. Nature of disaster management.
Answer:
Disaster management involves either prevention of disasters (Pre-disaster management) or creating preparedness to face them (Post-disaster management). The action plans are prepared for managing disasters. This is done after studying the different aspects such as preventive measures, rehabilitation and reconstruction plans. The disasters are tackled by executing action plans in the following steps: Preparation, redemption, preparedness, action during actual disaster, response, resurgence and restoration. At every level there are other voluntary organizations and Government meteorological institutions for their help.

c. Mock drill.
Answer:

• Mock drill is the practice to check whether there is preparedness for dealing with the sudden attack of disaster.
• For this purpose, virtual or apparent situations that simulate the disaster are created.
• The reaction time for any type of disaster is checked by such activity. In the presence of trained personnel, the execution of the rescue plans are observed.
• People also understand their responsibilities at the time of actual disaster.
• The experts also check execution of plan designed for disaster redressal.
• By such mock drills, the efficacy of the system can be understood. In future, when actual calamity strikes, there is already preparation for disaster redressal. Therefore, mock drill is useful.

d. Disaster Management Act, 2005.
Answer:
Government of India has made Disaster Management Act in 2005. The affected people are given all necessary help as per this act. With the humanitarian view, people are rehabilitated and helped them to come back to normalcy after the disaster.

As per this Act, National Disaster Response Force has been established. This force consists of 12 divisions in entire India which are attached with Indian Army. The headquarter is located in Delhi, but the action is taken all over the country with the help of army. As per the Act, in Maharashtra National Disaster Response Force is in action through State Reserve Polioe Force. The personnel of this force are trained accordingly, and they take part in the rescue work during different disasters.

Question 3.
Answer the following questions.
a. Explain the role of district disaster control unit after occurrence of any disaster.
Answer:
(1) District control unit looks after the ; disaster management of the district.
(2) It is immediately formed either after the impact of disaster or if warning is given about some upcoming disaster.

District-wise Disaster Control Unit performs following role:

• The review of various aspects of disasters is done.
• Through the disaster control unit there is continuous contact established with various agencies like army, air force, navy, telecommunication department, paramilitary forces, etc. for obtaining help.
• The unit also coordinates with various voluntary organizations for their help in disaster management.

b. Give the reasons for increase in human disasters after the World War-II.
Answer:

• After Second World War, the feelings of peace and brotherhood among the global citizens were lost. The geographic, religious, racial and ethnic differences sprang up tremendously.
• Atrocities that Nazi has performed made deep impact on the minds of people. Terrorism, abduction, robberies and social unrest increased in almost all the countries.
• The financial losses had incurred in the World War II. The misuse of science and technology was done to retrieve these deficits.
• At the end of World War II, the atomic bombs were dropped in Japan. This has created health problems in the entire world.
• Social inequality, economic disparity, racial and religious differences were some adversaries that created unrest in the country.
• Later, the neighbouring nations kept on fighting. The geographical boundaries were changed. People always had feelings of insecurity. The terrorism flourished. All such instances gave rise to man-made disasters.

c. What are the objectives of disaster management?
(OR)
State any four objectives of disaster management. (March ’19)
Answer:
Objectives of disaster management:

• To save human life from disasters. To help them for moving away from the place of disasters by rapid action.
• To supply essential commodities to the affected people. This helps to reduce the gravity of disaster. People are given grains, water and clothes and other basic necessities under this objective.
• To bring back the conditions of affected people to normalcy.
• To rehabilitate the affected and displaced victims.
• To think and execute the protective measures in order to develop capability to face the disasters in future.

d. Why is it essential to get the training of first aid? (July ’19)
Answer:
When there is a disaster, we need to immediately help the victim. Till the medical help arrives, one should be in position to treat the injured and save his or her life. In such cases; knowing first- aid is essential. Such kind of a need may arise in case of our parents, our siblings at home or with friends in school. Those who are injured should be treated at once. If we know about techniques of first aid, we can save such person before the medical help arrives. Therefore, it is essential to get the training of the first aid.

e. Which different methods are used for transportation of patients? Why?
Answer:
For the transportation of patients following methods are used:

• Cradle method: This method is used for children and persons with less weight.
• Carrying piggy back: This method is useful in carrying the unconscious persons.
• Human crutch method: If one leg of the person is injured, then the victim is supported with minimum load on the other leg. This is called human crutch method.
• Pulling or lifting method: For carrying an unconscious person for a short distance this method is used.
• Carrying on four-hand chair: This method is used when the support is needed for a part below waist region.
• Carrying on two-hand chair: Patients that cannot use their hands but can hold their body upright, are carried by such method.
• Stretcher: By making temporary stretcher in case of emergency, the unconscious patient can be moved. Such temporary stretchers are made by using bamboos, blanket, etc.

Question 4.
On the basis of the structure of disaster management authority, form the same for your school.
Answer:

Question 5.
Write down the reasons, effects and remedial measures taken for any two disasters experienced by you.
Answer:
Students are expected to write the answer based on their own experiences.

Question 6.
Which different aspects of disaster management would you check for your school? Why?
Answer:
For the pre-disaster management at school following aspects would be inspected.

• Are the telephones 6f the school working properly?
• Is there a first-aid box in each class?
• Are there any basic medicines in the school?
• Is the team ready for rescue of smaller children from lower classes?
• Has monitor or prefect participated in a mock drill? Does he/she know about first aid?
• Is the contact of parent representative available in emergency situations?
• Is the Medical Officer/Doctor present on the school campus?
• Is there enough drinking water and some dry snacks available in the school?
• Are the staircases and corridors suitable for quick evacuation of the children?

Question 7.
Identify the type of disaster.
a. Terrorism.
Answer:
Man-made, intentional.
Due to the activities of terrorism, many innocent lives are lost. Many are seriously injured. Some become crippled for their entire life. Buildings, monuments, vehicles everything is completely destroyed. There is rift between different religions or sects. The peaceful atmosphere is disturbed. The entire society is under the constant fear of insecurity.

b. Soil erosion.
Answer:
Natural, geophysical, geological.
When the upper fertile layer of soil is lost, it becomes barren. The trees are uprooted. The fertility of the area is lost. The land becomes unsuitable for cultivation or farming. Due to wind, flowing water or grazing animals the naturally occurring soil erosion becomes hazardous for the environment.

c. Hepatitis.
Answer:
Natural, biological, animal-origin.
Hepatitis is a viral disease which spreads through the contaminated food and water. The outburst of epidemic of hepatitis is difficult to control. As in big cities the quality of road side food is often consumed, the spread of hepatitis is. fast. People suffer due to hepatitis.

d. Forest fire.
Answer:
Natural, biological, plant-origin.
Due to heat and wind, the dry grass and the shrubs catch fire in the forests, resulting in forest fires. Such rapidly spreading forest fire can finish the biodiversity within a very short span of time. It is difficult to extinguish the naturally lit forest fires. Many trees and other vegetation, animals and birds along with their habitats are destroyed due to forest fire. The smoke emanating causes the air pollution.

e. Famine.
Answer:
Natural, climatic.
Due to famine there is severe water scarcity. In absence of water, the fields and farms become barren as the crops cannot grow without water. There is shortage of food grains. The cattle dies due to want of water and grass. Local people have to migrate in search of food, water and shelter.

f. Theft.
Answer:
Man-made, intentional.
Theft causes economic loss for the one whose money or valuables are looted. The person who suffers the loss also undergo mental and emotional shock. Sometimes the thief may also cause physical harm. It may cost on life too.

Question 8.
Some symbols are given below. Explain those symbols. Which disasters may occur if those symbols are ignored?

Answer:
The above signs are warning symbols which should never be ignored.
The meaning of each is given below. They are giving warnings about explosive, inflammable, oxidizing, compressed gas, corrosive, toxic, irritant, environmentally hazardous and health hazard.

(1) Explosive: Some materials are explosive. While handling such materials care should be taken. We should not take anything that would cause fire leading to explosion. If explosion occurs, there would be a major disaster causing great loss of life and property. Thus if this sign is seen, great care has to be taken.

(2) Inflammable: Similar to explosive substances, the inflammable materials can also catch fire easily. Therefore, to warn people such sign is given on materials that can cause hazard by burning.

(3) Oxidizing: Some chemical substances are oxidizing. They carry out chemical reactions with a rapid speed. E.g. If potassium permanganate falls on the cloth, it starts the reaction on its C-C bonds. Due to such property of carrying out reactions, the cloths may catch fire. Therefore, oxidizing substances should be handled with care.

(4) Compressed: Compressed substances are filled under pressure in some container. If mishandled, they can come out of the container by bursting it open. This can cause some injuries.

(5) Corrosive: The corrosive substances are very reactive. The mere touch of corrosive substances can cause destruction of skin, eyes, respiratory passages, digestive organs, etc. rapidly. Just touching or smelling of such substances can cause major injury and thus warning sign of corrosive substance should never be ignored.

(6) Toxic: To taste a toxic substance or even to smell it, can lead to death. The packing of these substances are therefore marked as dangerous. They should be avoided as far as possible.

(7) Irritant: When skin or any delicate part of the body comes in contact with the irritant substance, it can cause harmful reaction. Especially, eyes, nasal mucosa and skin are affected by contact with corrosive substances.

(8) Environmentally hazardous: Many sub¬stances cause harm to the environment due to their toxicity. Air, water or soil can be polluted due to such pollutants. When environment is affected, ultimately these hazardous effects come back to human species. Therefore, such substances should be carefully used. Their use should be judicious and controlled.

(9) Health hazard: The substances that can cause hazard to our health should always be distanced from us. Such substances should not be kept in proximity. As far as possible they should be kept away and handled with great care if needed for any work. Materials marked with health hazard can cause severe toxicity.

Question 9.
Explain that why is it said like that?
a. Mock drill is useful.
Answer:

• Mock drill is the practice to check whether there is preparedness for dealing with the sudden attack of disaster.
• For this purpose, virtual or apparent situations that simulate the disaster are created.
• The reaction time for any type of disaster is checked by such activity. In the presence of trained personnel, the execution of the rescue plans are observed.
• People also understand their responsibilities at the time of actual disaster.
• The experts also check execution of plan designed for disaster redressal.
• By such mock drills, the efficacy of the system can be understood. In future, when actual calamity strikes, there is already preparation for disaster redressal. Therefore, mock drill is useful.

b. Effective disaster management makes us well prepared for future.
Answer:

• Disaster can strike any time. The sudden disasters can be man-made with some bad intentions or may be accidental.
• When natural calamity strikes suddenly with a huge impact, large scale devastation of property and general environment degradation occurs along with substantial mortality of people and animals.
• Therefore, it is most appropriate to have the preparedness to reduce the impact of any future disasters.
• We cannot control the onset of the natural disaster, but we can definitely reduce the harsh effects of the disaster by following disaster management plan.

Question 10.
Complete the following chart.

Answer:

Question 11.
Following are the pictures of some disasters. How will be your pre and post-disaster management in case you face any of those disasters?

Answer:
In the pictures given, following disasters are shown:
(1) Two groups of children are fighting with each other.
(2) There is gas leakage from the LPG cylinder.
(3) There is heavy downpour due to cloud bursting which has led to waterlogging in the town.
(4) There is cyclone causing a tornado. (Commonly called a twister)

Projects:

Project 1.
Demonstrate the activities shown on page no. 106 of Std. IX Science and Technology textbook in front of the students of other classes. Make a video clip and send it to others.

Project 2.
Form a group of students from your school to demonstrate the mock drill and demonstrate it in the school

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 109)

Question 1.
What is disaster?
Answer:
Disaster is the incidence that occurs suddenly causing heavy damage to life and property. The disaster can be man-made or due to natural reason.

Question 2.
Which disasters have you experienced in your area?
Answer:
On September 2019, there was a heavy downpour in Pune. This disaster has been experienced recently.
On 26th November 2008 there was attack at several places by the Pakistani terrorists. The stories about the deaths and damage caused by this disaster were seen in films and learnt about this from our elders.

Question 3.
What are the effects of that disaster on local and surrounding conditions?
Answer:
Due to a heavy downpour in Pune, there was waterlogging in all the shallow areas. All the transport systems collapsed on that day. Large trees fell down injuring the people. The water logging caused condition like floods. Schools, colleges and offices were shut down. People were caught in troublesome situation.

On 26th November 2008 many innocent people lost their lives. There was tremendous damage caused to some of the important places like Taj Palace Hotel and Chabad house.

Use your brain power: (Text Book Page No. 111)

Question 1.
Depending upon information given on page 111, explain the various effects of the disaster of railway accident.
Answer:
The effects of disastrous railway accident:
The effect will be dependent upon the nature of the accident that has occurred. Whether, it is a collapse of bridge or due to derailment of the train, or due to collision of two moving trains, whether it is due to failure in signaling system, due to land slide or due to obstacle in the tunnel, that has to be understood. The impact of such railway accident will be dependent on the way that accident has occurred. Based on this impact the effects will take place.

(1) Environmental	The entire surroundings will show destruction.
(2) Administrative/ Managerial	The railway department will have stress and the time table will collapse. The regular use of tracks will hamper, resulting into delay in railway traffic.
(3) Political	Ministry of railways is considered to be responsible for the accident. Sometimes the Railway Minister resigns.
(4) Medical	The passengers commuting in the train die or suffer from serious injuries.
(5) Economic	The railways suffer huge financial loss.
(6) Social	The railway traffic is disturbed. Passengers are troubled as they get held up at some place.

Observe/Discuss:
Let’s Discuss: (Text Book Page No. 110)
Question 1.
observe the images on textbook page no. 110. whether the places of disasters are known to you? Discuss the emfects of these disasters on public lire. How people could lave been saved from these disasters? Discuss with your friends in the classroom.
Answer:
Students should discuss the disasters given in the pictures by themselves after collecting the information.

Observe: (Text Book Page No. 114)

Question 1.
Observe the disaster cycle given below and explain each aspect of the disaster of earthquake.
Answer:
The main aspects of disaster cycle to tackle disaster of earthquake are as follows:
(1) Preparation : With the help of seismograph, the warning about forthcoming earthquake can be obtained these days. The intensity of the earthquake is also predicted with the help of technology. If the estimate of the Richter scale is on the higher sides, there would be more preparatory measures taken to tackle the forthcoming problem of earthquake.

(2) Redemption: Once this information is obtained the possible impact of the earthquake on the houses, buildings, people can be studied by the geological experts. The meetings of the Disaster Management Authority will be organized for same.

(3) Preparedness: What the general public should do and what action the reserved forces should take, will be decided in case of actual incidence of the earthquake. The schemes and plans will be made ready in this direction.

(4) Impact of Earthquake: In case of disaster of earthquake, people will be helped to safety. The trapped people will be rescued. First aid and other necessary help will be provided. The data about the losses and the intensity of this disaster will be noted and reported for the further process.

(5) Response: In this phase the response of the people as well as the action of Government can be well studied. The response should be quick and positive. The maximum lives and property should be saved by such responses. The disaster of earthquake should be managed with positivity and through help given to the sufferers.

(6) Resurgence: Earthquakes can destroy the entire households or even entire community. Such homeless people should be given the place to stay. Resurgence is important phase for the national welfare. If the citizens of India are cared for, the nation too will progress.

(7) Restoration: The earthquake victims should be settled by providing them with new settlements. Sometimes, entire village is to be settled. E.g. In Latur or Kutch, there twas very large scale devastation. But Government of India as well as some NGOs helped to reconstruct the houses. In such earthquake-prone areas, houses are built in specific pattern to withstand any possible future calamities.

Observe: (Text Book Page No. 117)

Question 1.
Give the reference of following pictures and explain importance of each of those in disaster management. Which are other such activities ?

Answer:
The actions shown in the above pictures are as follows:
(a) The patient is made to lie on the stretcher. He must be unconscious and injured to greater extent, so that he cannot move by himself.
(b) The patient is helped by giving artificial respiration. Probably the victim is suffocated and needs oxygen supply.
(c) and (d) The patient is being picked up. Most probably the patient is unconscious.
The unconscious person who cannot move by himself is carried by these two methods. In method ‘c’, the weight of the patient is less and hence he can be lifted as shown in the picture. In picture ‘d’ the victim has to be lifted in other way, may be due to his greater body weight.
(e) The patient is carried on the back as in ‘carrying piggy back’ position. He too is unconscious and needs to be shifted for medical treatment.
(f) The patient in this picture is carried by ‘human crutch method’. When victim’s one leg is injured, he cannot walk without support. Hence, he needs to be carried in such a way.

In all the above methods, the injured person at the time of disaster is transported to hospital or dispensary for further medical help. The primary first-aid is given to the victim. Now the volunteer is taking him for further treatment. Such rescue activities depend upon the type of disaster and the extent of the injury. Hence the methods will be of different nature.

Let’s Think: (Text Book Page No. 111)

Question 1.
What will be the effect on yourself and surrounding, if any accident-like disaster occurs during the sports on playground or in school?
Answer:
When in school, there is an accident, first of all we get scared. But with caring help of the teacher, we will give the first aid to the injured friends by using first aid kit. If the injury is serious, we will take him to the medical centre of the school. While playing or during sports event, children flock around and make unnecessary crowding. In case of such accident, first of all the crowd will have to be dispersed. If there is major disaster, one should not fumble but manage the disaster in a wise way with the help of teachers.

Let’s Think: (Text Book Page No. 112)

Question 1.
Explain the nature and scope of the disaster of flood with the help of six points given on text book page no. 112.
Answer:
The nature and the scope of the disaster of flood can be described according to the six points:
(1) Pre-disaster phase: Due to Indian Meteorological Department the warning predictions are received before any climatic disaster strikes. If the scope of the flood is predicted to be high, then the people who may be affected by the calamity are relocated to a safer area.

(2) Warning phase: In the warning phase the Government warns the general public about the forthcoming disaster of floods through mass media like radio, television, newspapers, etc. In recent times, even the cellphone messages are sent to people for warning them. The people living in coastal areas will be worst affected and hence such people are given greater care and they are immediately made to leave their houses. They are taken to the safe places.

(3) Emergency phase: When the flood waters actually start rising up, the low-lying areas are submerged. Houses, roads and shops everything goes under water. The rescue operations are carried out by army men from National Disaster Rescue Force. They take every possible effort to rescue the trapped people. The emergency continues till the water does not recede. Later after the water starts receding, people who had been taken to places on heights, start coming back. During this phase, search, rescue operations, medical treatment, and first aid are all the aspects on which the attention is focussed.

(4) Rehabilitation phase: The people affected due to floods are given emotional and financial support. The fields, farms, houses or cattle-shed are under water. Such people are given transient accommodations. Many cattle and other animals die by drowning. Their rotting carcasses have to be disposed as soon as possible because the decaying process spreads epidemics of diseases. People are given vaccinations to protect them from diseases of such kind. Special care of young children and senior citizens is taken during this period. Supply of food and drinking water is also very important task during this time.

(5) Recovery phase: During recovery phase, the life comes gradually back to normalcy. The removal of dead, decaying material and the debris is the first priority. The water connections and electricity is restored back. Various NGOs or Government organizations provide help of various kind to the affected people. This help is to be distributed to those who are in real need. This work is also done by Disaster Management Department.

(6) Reconstruction phase: The houses and building that collapse due to floods are built back. Agricultural activities start again. Roads and water supply is once again normalized. Schools and colleges start once again. Thus, the once flood affected area comes back to routine functioning again.

Let’s Think: (Text Book Page No. 117)

Question 1.
Following are some pictures of disasters. Which precautions would you take during those disasters?

Answer:
The pictures shown above are showing earthquake, fire and snake bite respectively.
In the above disasters, the initial precautions to be taken are as follows:
(1) Earthquake: In case of earthquake, one should immediately come out of house and stand in the open ground. If this is not possible, one has to go below table or any other cover. During collapse of the building, there should not be a head injury. This precaution is basically for prevention of dangerous injuries and saving our life. Switch off the power supply. If in journey, stay inside the vehicle.

(2) Fire: First and foremost is to save ourselves from fire. Then one can help others in rescue operations. Help others to extinguish fire. Call the fire department for immediate action.

(3) Snake bite: Many a times the biting snake can be non-venomous too. But the victim is psychologically affected too. The tourniquet should be tied in the region above the snake bite. The rope, piece of cloth or even handkerchief can be used for this purpose, so that the venom, if any should not rise and reach vital organs. The wound should be made near the bite-wound so that the blood will ooze out and some venom can automatically flow out. Though these are first-aid measures, the victim should be rushed to a qualified doctor for an injection of antivenin.

Choose the correct alternative and write its alphabet against the sub-question number:

Question 1.
Disasters definitely affect the ………… of the nation.
(a) people
(b) economy
(c) security
(d) employment
Answer:
(b) economy

Question 2.
If local ………… is not strong enough, citizens become confused.
(a) leadership
(b) women
(c) politicians
(d) cattle
Answer:
(a) leadership

Question 3.
…………… problems arise diming the disaster.
(a) Local
(b) Global
(c) Administrative
(d) Private
Answer:
(c) Administrative

Question 4.
Stinking pollution caused due to decomposing corpses of humans and other animal is ………… disaster.
(a) environmental
(b) health
(c) necessary
(d) effective
Answer:
(a) environmental

Question 5.
After the subsidence of any type of disaster, rehabilitation work is started in ………… phase.
(a) later
(b) transitional
(c) terminal
(d) ultimate
Answer:
(b) transitional

Question 6.
…………. phase is highly complicated phase.
(a) Reconstruction
(b) Recycling
(c) Reuse
(d) Redevelopment
Answer:
(a) Reconstruction

Question 7.
There had been a huge ……….. in the village Malin, Tal. Ambegaon in 2014.
(a) earthquake
(b) storm
(c) landslide
(d) change
Answer:
(c) landslide

Question 8.
The atomic energy plant at Chernobyl was used only for generating ………….
(a) electricity
(b) solar power
(c) atomic energy
(d) agriculture
Answer:
(a) electricity

Question 9.
Supply of essential ………….. to the affected people can reduce the effect of the disaster.
(a) food
(b) water
(c) commodities
(d) money
Answer:
(c) commodities

Question 10.
Keeping …………. ready is a practice to check the preparedness of facing the disaster.
(a) First aid
(b) Mock drill
(c) Ambulance
(d) Fire brigade
Answer:
(b) Mock drill

Question 11.
Which of the following is man-made disaster. (March, July ’19)
(a) Earthquake
(b) Flood
(c) Meteor
(d) Leakage of toxic gases
Answer:
(d) Leakage of toxic gases

Question 12.
What should be done if gas cylinder at your house catches fire?
(a) Water should be sprinkled
(b) Sand, soil should be put on it
(c) Cylinder should be covered with wet blanket
(d) one should run away
Answer:
(c) Cylinder should be covered with wet blanket

Which type of disaster is described in the following statements:

Question 1.
On 26th July 2005, entire suburban Mumbai was waterlogged.
Answer:
Cloudbursting and severe downpour

Question 2.
Elephants in the Bandipur forest started running helter and skelter due to smoke.
Answer:
Forest fires

Question 3.
Many innocent people died in the bomb blast that occurred on 11th July 2006 in local trains.
Answer:
Bomb explosion-Terrorism

Question 4.
In Kutch, suddenly many school children were buried under the rubble.
Answer:
Earthquake

Question 5.
Because of lack of crops, people from Vidarbha are migrating to other regions.
Answer:
Dry famine

Question 6.
The huge waves in Chennai engulfed many human lives in December 2004.
Answer:
Tsunami.

Find the correlation:

Question 1.
Earthquake in recent times : Gujarat, Latur : : Devastating floods in 2018 : ………….
Answer:
Earthquake in recent times : Gujarat, Latur : : Devastating floods in 2018 : Kerala/Assam

Question 2.
Toxic gas leakage: Accidental disaster : : war : …………..
Answer:
Toxic gas leakage: Accidental disaster : : war : Intentional

Question 3.
Sun spots : Atmospheric type of disaster : : Salinization : …………..
Answer:
Sun spots : Atmospheric type of disaster : : Salinization : Geological type of disaster

Question 4.
Pre-disaster management : Preparation and warning : : Post-disaster management : ………..
Answer:
Pre-disaster management : Preparation and warning : : Post-disaster management : Resurgence and restoration.

Match the columns:

Question 1.

Column A: Disaster	Column B: Type
(1) Earthquake and volcano	(a) Animal origin
(2) Snowfall and snowstorms	(b) Geological
	(c) Climatic
	(d) Terrorism

Answer:
(1) Earthquake and volcano – Geological.
(2) Snowfall and snowstorms – Climatic.

Question 2.

Column A: Disaster	Column B: Type
(1) Aquatic weeds	(a) Animal origin
(2) Attack by locusts (insects)	(b) Plant origin
	(c) Geological
	(d) Climatic

Answer:
(1) Aquatic weeds – Plant origin
(2) Attack by locusts (insects) – Animal origin.

Question 3.

Column A: Disaster	Column B: Type
(1) Atomic tests	(a) Intentional
(2) Terrorism	(b) Unintentional
	(c) Geological
	(d) Animal origin

Answer:
(1) Atomic tests – Unintentional
(2) Terrorism – Intentional.

Question 4.

Column A: Effect	Column B: Effect
(1) Contamination of water	(a) Economical
(2) Collapsing of transport system	(b) Environmental
	(c) Administrative
	(d) Geological

Answer:
(1) Contamination of water – Environmental
(2) Collapsing of transport system – Administrative.

Question 5.

Column A: Effect	Column B: Problem
(1) Spread of epidemics	(a) Economical
(2) Shortage of funds	(b) Administrative
	(c) Medical
	(d) Physical

Answer:
(1) Spread of epidemics – Medical
(2) Shortage of funds – Economical.

Question 6.

Column A: Effect	Column B: Problem
(1) Rift due to religions	(a) Economical
(2) Citizens getting confused	(b) Social
	(c) Political
	(d) Environmental

Answer:
(1) Rift due to religions – Social
(2) Citizens getting confused – Political.

Identify the type of disaster and describe the effects of the same in brief:

Question 1.
Accident at Chernobyl.
Answer:
Man-made, unintentional. At Chernobyl in Russia there was the atomic energy plant, where disastrous accident took place. The radiations emitted through the reactors caused tremendous radiation pollution. These hazardous effects are even seen today.

Give reasons:

Question 1.
When there are riots, the cities, towns or villages show signs of tense atmosphere.
Answer:

• During riots, there is financial loss for all the rioting groups.
• The belongings, houses, shops, etc. are destroyed or damaged.
• Property is looted. There is no guarantee of safety and security for anyone.
• Women and children suffer the most as they are easily victimized. Therefore, when there are riots, the cities, towns or villages show signs of tense atmosphere.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
which are the disaters that make Impact for longer duration? Give examples.
Answer:
Those disasters that make the impact for long duration and those disasters, whose after-elfbcts are either severe are long term disasters. Their severity increases with thme. Such disasters are famine, various problems of growth of crop, strikes of workers, rising levels of oceans, desertification, etc.

Question 2.
What types of disaster are the following? Explain their impacts.
(a) Floods (b) War. (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Answer:
(a) Flood is geophysical climatic disaster.
(b) War is man-made intentional disaster.

Impact of flood : The low-lying and the coastal areas are seen to be submerged. The entire region is waterlogged.
Impact of war: Tremendous destruction causing loss. Many lives are lost. The costs of all the items rise due to war conditions. Entire nation faces insecurity.

Question 3.
Explain in brief the sensitive issues of general public about disaster.
(OR)
Which are the three aspects of disaster tjiat are important for common citizens?
Answer:
The phase of emergency, transitional phase and reconstruction phase are the three phases of disaster that are important for common citizens.

(1) Phase of emergency: If timely and rapid action is taken during this phase, maximum lives can be saved. Search and rescue operations, medical help, first aid, restoring communication services, removing the people from affected area are done during this phase. The gravity of disaster can be estimated during this phase.

(2) Transitional Phase: The disaster subsides and then the work of transitional phase starts. The main concern is rehabilitation work for the affected and displaced people. This work includes clearing of debris, restoring water supply, repairing roads, etc. to bring normalcy in public life. Help from different voluntary and Government institute is taken to offer the monetary provision and essential commodities to affected victims. Permanent means of livelihood is given to the people to reduce their mental and emotional stress. The victims are truly rehabilitated.

(3) Reconstruction Phase: Reconstruction phase is a highly complicated phase which actually overlaps with transition stage. Help is offered to people to reconstruct their buildings. Other facilities like roads and water supply are restored. Farming practices are restarted. It is a very gradual phase that makes the victims to completely rehabilitate.

Question 4.
What are the objectives of mock drill?
Answer:
Objectives of Mock Drill:

• To evaluate the response of the people to the disaster.
• To improve the coordination between various departments of disaster control.
• To identify one’s own abilities if disaster approaches.
• To improve the ability to quick response to disaster and taking rapid action.
• To check the competency of the planned actions.
• To identify the possible errors and risks while dealing with disasters.

Question 5.
Write down the names of international organizations that work for disaster management.
Answer:
Following international organizations work for disaster management.

• United Nations Disaster Relief Organization
• United Nations Centre for Human Settlements
• Asian Disaster Reduction Centre.
• Asian Disaster Preparedness Centre.
• World Health Organization.
• United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization.

Question 6.
The building in which you are residing ( has caught fire on the ground floor. What necessary rescue steps will you take? (July ’19)
Answer:

• We shall call out for help.
• We shall immediately call fire brigade.
• We shall try to extinguish fire with the help of other people.
• We will give first aid to people who are injured, fill the medical help arrives.
• We will cover our nose and mouth with moist cloth to prevent suffocation.

Write short notes:

Question 1.
Pre-disaster management.
Answer:
The management measures taken before onset of a disaster is called pre-disaster management.
In pre-disaster management, complete preparation and planning to face any type of disaster is done. For this purpose, following steps are taken.

• Identifying the areas where the disaster can strike. Such disaster-prone areas are to be thoroughly studied.
• Through predictive intensity maps and hazard maps, the information is collected about the intensity of disaster and probable sites of disasters respectively.
• Special training for disaster management is given to the concerned people.
• The mass awareness is created about disaster management through training programmes, mass media and internet, etc.

Question 2.
Post-disaster management.
Answer:
The management measures taken after the striking of a disaster is called post-disaster management.
Following steps are taken during post-disaster management:

• Helping the victims of disasters by giving all possible help needed for their survival.
• Local people are trained to take part in the disaster management so that affected people can be saved rapidly.
• Establishing the help centres that could provide all the necessary help. Such centres will be different in case of different disasters.
• Collection and categorization of the material received from control centre for helping the victims. Distributing the same and reviewing the measures continuously.
• Disaster rescue programmes are mainly focused.

Some symbols are given below. Explain those symbols. Which disasters may occur if those symbols are ignored?

Question 1.
Write what the signs indicate:

Answer:

• Figure A indicates inflammable substances. They can catch fire if they come in contact with oxygen-rich air.
• Figure B indicates corrosive substances which can cause damage to tissues of skin, eyes and other delicate organs etc.
• Both the symbols are warning signs for people to keep away or handle carefully such substances.

Question 2.
What does the symbols below indicate? Write in brief. (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)

Answer:
(1) Symbol ‘A’ indicates Irritant. When skin or any delicate part of the body comes in contact with the irritant substance, it can cause harmful reaction. Especially, eyes, nasal mucosa and skin are affected by contact with corrosive substances.
(2) Symbol ‘B’ indicates toxic substance. To taste a toxic substance or even to smell it, can lead to death. The packing of these substances are therefore marked as dangerous. They should be avoided as far as possible.

Complete the paragraph by choosing the appropriate words given in the brackets:

(Capability, Rehabilitation, Commodities, Human, objectives, normalcy, amusements)
The ………. of disaster management comprise of the following aspects …………. life is saved from the disasters. People are helped to move away from the place of disasters. They are given essential ……….. by the government so that the gravity of disaster is reduced. The disaster conditions are brought back to ………… of the affected and displaced victims is done. Moreover, protective measures for future are also planned to develop ………… among the people to face any possible disasters in future.
Answer:
The objectives of disaster management, comprise of the following aspects. Human life is saved from the disasters. People are helped to move away from the place of disasters. They are given essential commodities by the government so that the gravity of disaster is reduced. The disaster conditions are brought back to normalcy. Rehabilitation of the affected and displaced victims is done. Moreover, protective measures for future are also planned to develop capability among the people to face any possible disasters in future.

Paragraph based questions:

1. Read the paragraph and answer the questions given below:
Disasters can be properly classified into three categories, viz. natural disasters, technological disasters and man-made disasters. The forces that cause natural disasters cannot be controlled. Moreover, they are becoming more frequent in the current years due to phenomena of climate change. On and off incidences of cyclones, cloud bursting, floods, etc. am creating havoc in the lives of people. Technological disasters are due to improper and callous behaviour at the different processes carried out in technical establishments. Man-made disasters are conflicts arising due to different religions, regions and-terrorism.

Questions and Answers:

Question 1.
What are three broad areas of disasters?
Answer:
Natural disasters, technological disasters and manmade disasters are three broad areas of disasters.

Question 2.
Which disasters cannot be controlled? Why?
Answer:
Natural disasters cannot be controlled as they are due to natural phenomena beyond the human power to stop them.

Question 3.
Which type of disasters were very common in Western Maharashtra in recent times? Why?
Answer:
Cloud bursting and floods were very common in Western Maharashtra caused due to climate change.

Question 4.
Give any one example of technological disaster that shook the entire India.
Answer:
Bhopal gas tragedy that occurred in 1984 was a worst disaster that shook the entire India.

Question 5.
Which types of disasters can be controlled in order to lead happy, peaceful and secured life? How?
Answer:
We have to control manmade disasters such as wars, riots, terrorism, etc. by having peaceful negotiations, respect for each human being and feeling of brotherhood among all.

Questions based on tables and charts:

Question 1.
Complete the chart: (Text Book Page No. 111)
Different problems occur with disasters. In the concept map different effects are mentioned. Read it and fill the blank places.
Answer:
(Answers are given directly in bold.)

Question 2.
Complete the chart: (Text Book Page No. 117)
Complete the chart as per the objectives of the first aidr:t
Answer:
(Answers are given directly in bold.)

Activity based questions:

Question 1.
Observe the images ‘A’ and ‘B’ and answer the following questions.

(i) Which disasters are shown in the images ?
Answer:
Image A is showing damage due to earthquake. Image B is showing house on fire.

(ii) Which primary precautions will you take in case of disaster shown in ‘A’?
Answer:
In the above disasters, the initial precautions to be taken are as follows :
Earthquake: In case of earthquake, one should immediately come out of house and stand in the open ground. If this is not possible, one has to go below table or any other cover. During collapse of the building, there should not be a head injury. This precaution is basically for prevention of dangerous injuries and saving our life. Switch off the power supply. If in journey, stay inside the vehicle.

(iii) Which type of first-aid is offered to the injured people in disaster ‘B’?
Answer:
First aid given to burn victim:

• The person who is injured by fire should be dotised with cold water on his/her body. This will extinguish fire and give some relief caused due to inflammation. Do not break the blisters. Give water to drink.
• Cover the burnt part by wet and moist cloth. Wash the wounds with antiseptic solution.
• If the person is severely burnt, transfer him/her immediately to hospital.

Question 2.
Correct the following diagram:

Answer:

Projects:

Project 1.
Can you tell? ( Textbook page no. 118)
Whether there had been mock drill by fire fighters under the disaster management scheme in your school? Which techniques did you see during the drill?

Project 2.
Try this: (Textbook page no. 115)
Which factors will you consider while designing the pre-disaster management plan for your school/home? Prepare a survey report with the help of your teacher.

Project 3.
Get information:
(1) Visit the district collector or Taluka Tehasildar office and collect the information about disaster management. (Textbook page no. 115)
(2) Meet the medical officer/doctor from your village and collect information about providing the first aid. (Textbook page no. 118)

Project 4.
Internet is my friend:
(1) Search for the video clips of disasters. Discuss in your class about effects of disasters and remedies over it. (Textbook page no. 110)
(2) Find out more about the activities of international organizations that work for disaster management.
(Textbook page no. 116)
1. United Nations Disaster Relief Organization.
2. United Nations Centre for Human Settlements.
3. Asian Disaster Reduction Centre.
4. Asian Disaster Preparedness Centre.
5. World Health Organization.
6. United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 9 Heritage Management Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 9 Heritage Management

Question 1.
(A) Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the statement.
(1) Lovre Museum has in its collection the much-acclaimed painting of …………..…….. by Leonardo da Vinci.
(a) Napoleon
(b) Mona Lisa
(c) Hans Sloan
(d) George II
Answer:
(b) Mona Lisa

(2) …………..…….. at Kolkata is the first museum in India.
(a) Government Museum
(b) National Museum
(c) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Vastusangrahalay
(d) Indian Museum
Answer:
(d) Indian Museum

(B) Identify and write the wrong pair in the following set.
(1) Maharaja Sayajirao University – Delhi
(2) Banaras Hindu University – Varanasi
(3) Aligarh Muslim University – Aligarh
(4) Jivaji University – Gwalior
Answer:
(1) Wrong Pair: Maharaja Sayajirao University – Delhi

Question 2.
Explain the following statements with reasons.
(1) Archives and libraries publish research journals, informative pamphlets, leaflets, posters, etc.
Answer:

• Libraries preserve and conserve old’ books and artefacts discovered during excavation.
• If these documents and artefacts are not exhibited then they are kept in archives.
• All the historical sources are our assets and they should reach the people.
• Libraries not only preserve these documents but also carry out research, to know the authenticity.

In order to make the historical events, personalities, and historical research known to the people, archives and libraries publish research journals, informative pamphlets and leaflets.

(2) Only trained persons, who are duly qualified can take up the tasks involved in the work of conservation and preservation.
Answer:

1. While conducting historical research, one has to do the different tasks carefully like collecting sources, preserving, exhibiting, etc.
2. The skill required for every task is different. The procedure followed for each task is different as well as the preliminary preparations.
3. It is essential to know about precautions to be taken.
4. Hence only trained persons who are duly qualified can take up the tasks involved in the work of conservation and preservation.

Question 3.
Write notes:
(1) Sthalakosh
Answer:

• History does not shape itself in oblivion. It takes place at some place.
• Geographic information is essential to study history.
• Chakradhar Swami, of Mahanubav sect, visited many villages and details of those villages were noted by Muni Vyas.
• Siddheshwarshastri Chitrav wrote Prachin Bharatiya Sthalkosh. It gives us information on various places mentioned in Vedic literature, Kautiliya’s Arthashastra, Panini’s Grammar, Ramayana.
• Mahabharata and also in Buddhist Jain Greek, Chinese and Persian literature.
• Sthalakosh gives us information on ancient cities and history of those cities. It serves as an important written source of history.

(2) Vishwakosh
Answer:

• The first Chief Minister of Maharashtra, Shri Yashwantrao Chavan, established the ‘Maharashtra Rajya Sahitya Samskruti Mandal.
• The objective of making Vishwakosh was to develop and enhance Marathi language and literature.
• Tarkteerth Lakshmanshastri Joshi was appointed as the chief editor. 20 volumes of Vishwakosh are published till date.
• Marathi Vishwakosh contains knowledge about all possible subjects which exist in the world. It has important entries about history.

(3) Samdnya Kosh
Answer:

1. While studying any subject we come across many new words. If their exact meaning is not understood, it can create a lot of confusion.
2. Terms in history like colonialism, imperialism, liberalisation, globalisation, socialism, communism need explanation and clarity. In order to avoid such confusions, this kosh is prepared.
3. In Samdnya Kosh, all subject related concepts are collected and explained. Information on what led to the development of concepts is provided.
4. Samdnya Kosh is very helpful for research students, teachers of history as well as common people.

(4) Saraswati Mahal Granthalay
Answer:

• The Saraswati Mahal Granthalay was built in 16-17th century in Tanjavur, Tamil Nadu during the reign of Nayak Dynasty.
• In 1675, Maharaj Vyankojiraje Bhosale conquered ‘ Thanjavur and established his independent rule. He and his successors contributed to the expansion of this library. ‘
• Sarfojiraje Bhosale contributed the most in expanding and enriching the library. Because of his contribution, to honour him, the library was renamed as ‘The Thanjavur Maharaj Sarfoji’s Saraswati Mahal Library’.

Question 4.
Give elaborate answers to the following.
(1) Why is library management important?
Answer:
Library is not just about a collection of books but managing it is equally important.

• Readers can easily get the books they want if the library is properly organised.
• The location of the book should be easily traced. It saves the time and efforts of readers as well as the librarian.
• Preservation and conservation of books is done effectively with proper management. It prolongs life of books and causes less damage.
• If the management is well acquainted, they will have good collection that will make available good quality books to reader.
• Instead of collecting books on one subject there should be variety in the collection so as to cater of different readers who are very selective in their choices.
• Facilities like proper catalogues, indexes, computerised systems and modern facilities are provided by effective management of library.
• If the management is creative it will organise exhibitions, advertise, have seasonal offers for vacations, conduct competitions to increase membership.

(2) Which tasks are important in archives management?
Answer:
The following tasks are important in archives’ management:

• Important documents to be preserved and care should be taken that document with important contents are preserved in their original condition. Confidentiality of important papers should be maintained.
• To classify the documents by preparing indexes and to create accurate systems of retrieval of documents.
• Documents from the archives are supposed to be very reliable.
• Therefore, it is important to safeguard the papers from humidity, fungus and other environmental factors.
• It is important to remain updated with latest technology in archive management.
• Computerise/Digitalse all systems. To make use of information technology in managing libraries and archives.
• To establish regional and local archives*.
• To preserve national, cultural and historical heritage.
• To create a hasslefree system.

Question 5.
Complete the following Concept chart.

Answer:

Project
Obtain information about the important libraries in Maharashtra. Visit the library in your vicinity and learn about its functioning.

Question 6.
Complete the sentences by choosing the correct option:
(a) Documents and artefacts which are not exhibited are kept in …………………… .
(a) Museum
(b) Library
(c) Archives
(d) Government office
Answer:
(c) Archives

(b) ……………………. was the 16th century artist who worked under the patronage of French King Francis I.
(a) Leonardo-da-Vinci
(b) Michaelangelo
(c) Raphael
(d) Dante
Answer:
(a) Leonardo-da-Vinci

(c) The collection in ……………………. increased to a great extent because of the antiquities brought by Napoleon Bonaparte.
(a) National Museum of Natural History
(b) British Museum
(c) Louvre Museum
(d) The Calico Museum
Answer:
(c) Louvre Museum.

(d) ……………………., a natural scientist handed over about 71 thousand objects in his collection to the British Museum.
(a) Sir Hans Sloan
(b) King George II
(c) Napoleon Bonaparte
(d) King Francis I
Answer:
(a) Sir Hans Sloan

(e) The Museum of Natural History which 8 houses more than 12 crore specimens of fossils is in ……………………. .
(a) England
(b) France
(c) Switzerland
(d) USA.
Answer:
(d) USA

(f) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Vastu-sangrahalay was built to commemorate the visit of ……………………. .
(a) King George I
(b) Queen Elizabeth
(c) Prince Charles
(d) Prince of Wales
Answer:
(c) Prince of Wales

(g) The building of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Vastusangrahalay is built in ……………………. style.
(a) Mughal
(b) Indo-Greek
(c) Indo-Gothic
(d) Indo-Persian
Answer:
(c) Indo-Gothic

(h) ……………………. is given status of Grade I heritage building in Mumbai.
(a) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Railway Terminus
(b) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Vastusangrahalay
(c) Reserve Bank of India
(d) Jehangir Art Gallery
Answer:
(b) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Vastusangrahalay.

(i) The Royal Library of Ashurbanipal, the ……………………….. Emperor in Mesopotamia is one of the earliest libraries in the world.
(a) Hispanic
(b) Assyrian
(c) Mongol
(d) Akkadian
Answer:
(b) Assyrian

(j) The ……………………….. in Thanjavur, Tamil Nadu was built in 16th-17th century during the times of Nayak dynasty.
(a) Vyankojiraje Bhosale
(b) Sarfojiraje Bhosale
(c) Saraswati Mahal Granthalay
(d) Vidya Niketan
Answer:
(c) Saraswati Mahal Granthalay

(k) The first official archives of India, the ……………………….. was established in 1891 C.E. in Kolkata.
(a) National Archive
(b) Federal Record of Nation
(c) Archive National
(d) Imperial Record Department
Answer:
(d) Imperial Record Department

(l) There are about five crore Modi documents related to Maratha history in the Pune branch which are referred as ………………………. .
(a) Peshwa Daftar
(b) Bhosale Daftar
(c) British Daftar
(d) Maratha Daftar
Answer:
(a) Peshwa Daftar

(m) ……………………….. prepared during the reign of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj is considered as an important encyclopaedia.
(a) Bharatiya Vyavahar Kosh
(b) Rajavyavaharkosh
(c) Vyavaharik Kosh
(d) Bharatiya Prachin Charitrakosh
Answer:
(b) Rajavyavaharkosh.

Question 7.
Identify the wrong pair in the following and write it:
(1)

(1) Maharaj Sayajirao University	Delhi
(2) Banaras Hindu University	Varanasi
(3) Aligarh Muslim University	Aligarh
(4) Jivaji University	Gwalior

Answer:
Wrong Pair: Maharaj Sayajirao University – Delhi.

(2)

(1) Sangeetshastrakar va Kalavant Yancha Itiha£	Lakshman Dattatray Joshi
(2) Krantikarakancha Charitrakosh	S. R. Date
(3) Svantantryasainik Charitrakosh	N. R. Phatak
(4) Bharatvarshiya Prachin Aitihasik Kosh	Shridhar Vyankatesh Ketkar

Answer:
Wrong Pair: Bharatvarshiya Prachin Aitihasik Kosh – Shridhar Vyankatesh Ketkar

(3)

(1) Bharatvarshiya Charitrakosh	Siddeshwar Shastri Chitral
(2) Marathi Vishwakosh	Raghunath Bhaskar Godbole
(3) Bharatiya Samskruti Kosh	Pandit Mahadevshastri Joshi
(4) Maharashtriya Dnyankosh	Shridhar Vyankatesh Ketkar

Answer:
Wrong Pair: Marathi Vishwakosh – Raghunath Bhaskar Godbole

(4)

(1) Sthanapothi	Muni Vyas
(2) Index of Marathi Periodicals	S. G. Date
(3) First Encyclopaedia of Natural History	Denis Diderot
(4) Asiatic Society of Bengal	First museum in India

Answer:
Wrong Pair: First Encyclopaedia of Natural History – Denis Diderot

Question 8.
Complete the following concept chart:
(1)

Answer:

(2)

Answer:

(3)

Answer:

Question 9.
Explain the concept :

(a) Archives:
Answer:

1. An archive is a place where documents with important content in their original conditions are preserved in a scientific manner.
2. Artefacts and documents which are not exhibited in museums or libraries but have historical importance are kept in archives.
3. Archives provide documents to the § government, research students and local public when required. Technically, the management of archives is akin to library management.
4. The documents in the archives are preserved in their original condition and hence no changes can be made to it. Documents from archives are very reliable.

(b) Encyclopaedia:
Answer:

1. Encyclopaedia can be defined as a systematic compilation of words with meaning, information or knowledge on various topics.
2. A specific method is adopted to compile the information or to organise the available knowledge. g
3. Accuracy, meticulousness, objectivity, standardised format of presentation and updated information are the special features of good encyclopaedia.
4. The objective of making an encyclopaedia is to make the available knowledge easily accessible to the readers.

(c) Dictionaries:
Answer:

• A type of encyclopaedia giving word meaning arranged in alphabetical order is a Dictionary.
• Dictionaries help the readers to know meaning of the words and enrich their vocabulary.
• Dictionaries have word meanings, synonyms and etymology.
• Dictionaries are of various type like comprehensive dictionaries, dictionaries of terminology, etymology, thesaurus and dictionaries of idioms and proverbs.

(d) Comprehensive Encyclopaedia (Vishwakosh):
Answer:

• Comprehensive Encyclopaedia (Vishwakosh) means a book which has information on all subjects known, i.e. all subjects under the sun.
• Vishwakosh is an important medium” of documenting and disseminating information.
• The information is included in encyclopaedia after thorough research and study.
• (a) There are two types of encydopaedias – one that includes all subjects like ‘Encyclopaedia Britannica’, Maharashtriya Dnyankosh, Marathi Vishvakosh.
  (b) The other type of encyclopaedia includes comprehensive information on one chosen subject, e.g. Bharatiya Samskruti Kosh, ‘Vyayam Dnyankosh1.

(e) Index:
Answer:

• Index means a list.
• Index is at the end of a book which includes alphabetical lists of individuals, subjects, key words, reference books, etc.
• As the list is in alphabetical order, the reader finds it easy to access required information.
• The index of Marathi periodicals prepared by S. G. Date and index of ‘Marathyancha Itihasachi Sadhane1 is well-known.

(f) Charitrakosh (Encyclopaedia of Biographies):
Answer:

1. Charitrakosh contained biographies of individuals who lived in a particular period and their work which inspired and motivated all the people in the society.
2. Charitrakosh enables the researcher and scholars to know about the historic period, with regard to social structure and social life.
3. Bharatvarshiya Prachin Aitihasik Kosh written by Raghunath Bhaskar Godbole is the earliest encyclopaedia of this kind.

(g) Bharatiya Samskruti Kosh:
Answer:

• It contains the description of Indian history, geography, religions, sects, culture, traditions, beliefs, ethnic and lingual groups residing in our country.
• Bharatiya Samskruti Kosh throws light on, people living in a particular region, festivals and their culture.
• Mahadevshastri Joshi edited and published 10 volumes of this Kosh.
• Chakradhar Swami, of Mahanubav sect, visited many villages and details of those villages were noted by Muni Vyas.

Question 10.
Write short notes:
(a) Louvre Museum:
Answer:

• The Louvre Museum in Paris was established in the 18th century.
• It has antiquities collected by the royal family of France.
• The world famous painting of Mona Lisa by Leonardo-Da-Vinci is kept in this museum.
• The antiquities brought back by Napoleon Bonaparte on his return from conquests are exhibited in this museum.
• Presently, the museum has more than 3 lakh and 80 thousand artefacts.

(b) British Museum:
Answer:

• The British Museum was established in the 18th century in London.
• It has a collection of 71 thousand objects given by natural scientist Sir Hans Sloan to King George. II.
• Several books, pictures, specimens of preserved plants are included in it.
• The ancient objects and artefacts which the Britishers have collected from their colonies are exhibited in this museum.
• At present, it has about 80 lakh objects in its collection.

(c) National Museum of Natural History:
Answer:

• The National Museum of Natural History was established in Washington DC in 1846.
• The Smithsonian Institute managed the museum from its inception. This is a museum of natural history.
• Remains of animals, plants, organisms and thousands of specimens of fossils are kept in it.
• It also has human fossils, minerals, rocks, shells, artefacts. All together it has a collection of more than 12 crore (120 million).

(d) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Vastusangrahalay:
Answer:

1. Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Vastusangrahalay was built to commemorate the visit of Prince of Wales to India. Some influential residents in Mumbai decided to establish a museum in 1904.
2. The foundation of the building was laid on 2nd November 1905 and the construction was completed in 1922. The museum was named as ‘Prince of Wales of Western India’. In 1998 C.E. it was renamed as ‘Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Vastusangrahalay.’
3. The museum building is constructed in Indo-Gothic style and has been awarded the status of Grade I heritage building.
4. The museum has about 50 thousand antiquities which are divided into three categories, viz.. Arts, Archaeology and Natural History.

(e) Bharatvarshiya Prachin Aitihasik Kosh:
Answer:

• Raghunath Bhaskar Godbole wrote Bharatvarshiya Prachin Aitihasik Kosh.
• It is the first dictionary of Biography in Indian regional language.
• We get information on Manu and many ancient personalities from Mahabharat.
• We come to know about legendary people who lived in Bharatvarsha and were renowned.
• Information about their women, their sons, religions, lands, capitals, mountains and rivers.
• Which flowed in their land their entire history is given in this encyclopaedia.

(f) Bharatiya Samskruti Kosh:
Answer:

• Pandit Mahadevshastri Joshi edited and published 10 volumes of Bharatiya Samskruti Kosh.
• He wrote about Indian history, geography, about people speaking different languages and how they created history.
• Detailed information on culture of India and festivals, geography, traditions, ideas, is taken into consideration.

Therefore these koshs are useful for readers and research scholars.

Question 11.
Explain the following statements with reasons:

(a) Encyclopaedias should be created in as many languages as possible.
Answer:
Encyclopaedias symbolise the richness and vast gamut of words a language has.

• It fulfils the curiosity of readers and solves the confusion of a layman.
• Encyclopaedias inspire to carry out more research as one gets information, knowledge and references.
• Encyclopaedias provide complete information and knowledge to researchers and students which enriches their previous knowledge.
• Encyclopaedias represent intellectual and cultural development of a society.
• Many languages in India and the world are rich and resourceful and hence encyclopaedias should be created in as many languages as possible to raise intellectual level of society.

(b) Encyclopaedia and history are related.
Answer:

• Encyclopaedias contain information about personalities, events and ancient cultures.
• In order to gather information it is essential to take the help of history,
• The common factors between an encyclopaedia and history are objectivity and authenticity.
• Research scholars of history need to refer to encyclopaedias to find information on events, personalities, concept, places, etc. as encyclopaedias are created with the help of history. Hence encyclopaedia and history are related.

(c) Improved versions of Encyclopaedia or supplements to original editions need to be published.
Answer:

1. Encyclopaedia is a systematic compilation of information or knowledge on various topics ranging from people, places and events to concepts, word meanings, etc.
2. With the passage of time the spectrum of knowledge has widened.
3. With the advent of new technology new words are added. Latest or updated information, knowledge, concepts enrich the language.
4. The references of the past events change in context of the new research. If all these changes are not incorporated in the encyclopaedias, they will become outdated.

Therefore, encyclopaedia or supplements to original editions need to be published.

Question 12.
Answer the following questions in 25-30 words:
(a) What are the ways to preserve and conserve oral resources?
Answer:

• Folk songs ancl folk tales are collected and compiled.
• Collected material is classified. It is interpreted and analysed after compilation.
• The result of research conducted is then published.

(b) What steps are taken to preserve written sources?
Answer:
Written sources have great importance in the writing of history. To preserve written sources we need –

• To collect old books, historical books, pictures, photographs, copper plates, manuscripts and official records and edit them.
• To decide upon the historical values of collected documents.
• To exhibit the selected documents.
• To publish edited documents and research reports.
• To complete necessary chemical and mechanical process of cleaning for conserving and preserving the documents.

(c) What methods should be followed while studying material source?
Answer:
The following methods should be followed by research scholars while studying material source:

• To collect the artefacts and classify them according to their historical date and type and prepare indexes.
• To arrange exhibitions of selected artefacts or their replicas.
• To write and publish research articles about artefacts.
• To complete required mechanical and chemical processes of cleaning for conservation and preservation of the collected documents.

(d) Write about the earliest libraries in the world.
Answer:
Libraries were established in different parts of the world in ancient times:

• The Royal Library of Ashurbanipal is the earliest library dating back to the 7th century B.C.E. in Mesopotamia. The library was owned by the Assyrian emperor.
• A library was discovered at Alexandria in Egypt which was built in 4th century C.E.
• The library at Takshashila university in 5th century B.C.E. – 5th century C.E. as it was a noted centre of learning.

(e) Write about format of Encyclopaedias.
Answer:
Format of Encyclopaedias:

• Encyclopaedias are made according to selected subjects; therefore encyclopaedias are classified according to the subjects.
• Encyclopaedias are framed according to alphabetical order or as per the order of topics.
• They provide the exact meaning of words and give information on concepts.
• The type of order is kept according to the convenience of the readers. An index is provided at the end of the encyclopaedia for this purpose.

(f) Write about Encyclopaedic Literature.
Answer:

• It appears similar to an encyclopaedia but differs in composition.
• Information and scholarly articles on all possible aspects of a subject is covered.
• Experts are called to write on different topics which are compiled to create encyclopaedia
• ‘Maharashtra Jeevan’ Volume I and II; ‘Shahar Pune’ Volume I and II; Yearbook like Manorama, etc. are the examples of Encyclpaedic Literature.

(g) Give information on early encyclopaedias made in the west.
Answer:

• The process of making encyclopaedias started in before 1st century C.E. in the west. Pliny wrote the first encyclopaedia on natural history between 23 C.E.-79 C.E.
• In the 8th and 9th century, encyclopaedias were written in England, France and in Arab countries.
• French Philosopher Denis Diderot wrote Encyclopaedia in the 18th century C.E.
• The important milestone in this process was ‘Encyclopaedia Britannica’ published in 1767 C.E.
• Wikipedia is considered equivalent to encyclopaedia. The information given in this encyclopaedia is highly reliable and updated.

(h) Write about ancient Indian encyclopaedias.
Answer:

• In the 7th century C.E., Nighantu, a dictionary (information on ancient medicine) in Sanskrit language was written. Dictionaries like Dhatupath were written.
• In tjie medieval times, encyclopaedic text was composed by Mahanubhav sect.
• Amarsimha wrote a thesaurus in Sanskrit ‘Amarkosha’.
• Raghunath Pandit prepared Rajavyavaharkosh as directed by Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj.

Question 13.
Read the following passage and answer the following questions:
(a) Which factors influence Encyclopaedia?
Answer:
The influence of national policies, ethical values and ideals, philosophy and traditions is seen in an encyclopaedia.

(b) What is the common factor between history and encyclopaedia?
Answer:
History and encyclopaedia both are objective.

(c) Explain the statement: Encyclopaedias are looked upon as outstanding achievements of a society.
Answer:

• The knowledge in all the spheres of society is made accessible to everyone is the major reason behind making an encyclopaedia.
• What inspires people to create encyclopaedias is the instinct to gain knowledge and spread it.
• Encyclopaedias reflect the collective intellect and creativity of society.
• One develops a sense of pride after knowing about nation’s progress through it.

Hence encyclopaedias are looked upon as outstanding achievements of a society.

Question 14.
Give elaborate answers to the following: (3 marks each)

(a) What kind of training is required to study written sources?
Answer:
While studying and handling written sources the following training is required:

• The students should have knowledge of scripts like Brahmi, Modi, Persian and their development.
• They should know ways to obtain information about the social organisations and traditions.
• They should know about the literature and writing style in past societies.
• They should have basic knowledge about administrative systems, dynasties and cultures of the past.
• They should study prevalent schools of painting and sculpture.
• They should be able to collect information on types of paper, know about ink and colour of ancient document and ways to handle.
• They should be well acquainted with properties of stones and metals used for inscriptions.
• Articles published earlier on case study should be read.
• They should know the chemicals and equipment used in various processes of cleaning and preserving the documents.
• Modern know-how of approaches of managing exhibitions in museums, galleries and information technology.

(b) What kind of training is required to study material sources?
Answer:
Student should have following knowledge to study material resource:

• They should have basic knowledge of archaeological method and theory.
• They should be acquainted with the history of ancient civilisations.
• They should have knowledge of various techniques of excavation.
• Stones, minerals and clay used to make artefacts and their characteristics to be studied.
• They should be well-acquainted with the sources of the material used and their chemical properties.
• They should also know about various styles of making artefacts and development in their making process.
• They should have the knowledge and skills of making replicas of artefacts and fossils.
• They should read research papers previously published on his case study.
• They should acquire information about the approaches of arranging exhibitions and administrations.
• They should know about the equipment and chemicals necessary for the cleaning of artefacts.
• They should be able to write research reports and articles.

(c) Write information about museums in India.
Answer:

• ‘Indian Museum’ established by the Asiatic Society of Bengal in Kolkata was the first museum in India in 1814.
• The ‘Government Museum’ established in Chennai in 1851 C.E. was the second museum in India. The National Museum was established in Delhi in 1949.
• The foundation of the Prince of Wales Museum was laid in Mumbai in 1905. Its construction was completed in 1922. It was renamed as Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Vastusangrahalay in 1998 C.E.
• At present, there are many museums in various states of India.
• Many museums are connected to libraries and archives. Some are connected to Universities.
• Such museums offer courses in Museology also.

(d) Give information on “National Archives of India.
Answer:

• The first official archive of India was established m Kolkata in 1891 C.E. as the ‘Imperial Record Department’.
• It was moved to Delhi in 1911 C.E.
• In 1998 C.E. it was made accessible to the public by the then President of India K.R. Narayanan.
• It was renamed as ‘National Archive’ (National Archive of India). Archives come under the Ministry of Culture of the Indian Government.
• This archive has papers, maps, books and micro films preserved in chronological order since 1748.
• Records in English, Arabic, Hindi, Persian, Sanskrit, Devanagari and Modi languages are preserved.
• Papers kept in archives are classified into public, oriental, manuscripts and private papers.
• The National Archives of India is the largest in Asia and technologically advanced.

(e) Explain the statement: A nation should have museums and libraries.
Answer:
Museums and libraries mirror the history of the country and that is the reason they are very valuable for a nation.

• Museums and Libraries make it easy for the research scholar to write history.
• Historical events and life stories of important people reach the masses.
• People get an idea about past social, political and cultural conditions.
• A visit to museums increases one’s interest.
• A change in a prejudiced view about history is seen.
• Information on animals, microorganisms, birds and elements of nature.
• Museums contribute to the process of gaining and dissemination of knowledge.
• Ancient historical sources are preserved.
• Tourism is promoted.
• It creates opportunities for employment.

Hence it can be said that it is important for a nation to have museums and libraries as they both are symbols of nation’s progress and glory.

Memory Map

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 2 Historiography Indian Tradition Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 2 Historiography Indian Tradition

Question 1.
(A) Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the statement.
(1) …………………..…….. was the first Director-General of the Archaeological Survey of India.
(a) Alexander Cunningham
(b) William Jones
(c) John Marshall
(d) Friedrich Max Muller
Answer:
(a) Sir Alexander Cunningham

(2) …………………..…….. translated the Sanskrit text of ‘Hitopadesh’ in the German language.
(a) James Mill
(b) Friedrich Max Muller
(c) Mountstuart Elphinstone
(d) Sir John Marshall
Answer:
(b) Friedrich Max Muller

(B) Identify and write the wrong pair in the following set.
(1) ‘Who were the Shudras’ – subaltern History
(2) ‘Stri-Purush Tulana’ – Feminist writing
(3) ‘The Indian War of Independence 1857’ – Marxist History
(4) Grant Duff – Colonial History.
Answer:
(1) Right Pair: ‘Who were the Shudras’ – subaltern History
(2) Right Pair: ‘Stri-Purush Tulana’ – Feminist writing
(3) Wrong Pair: ‘The Indian War of Independence 1857’ – Marxist History
(4) Right Pair: Grant Duff – Colonial History.

Question 2.
Explain the following with its reason.
(1) Writing of the regional history received a momentum.
Answer:

• Indian historians trained in the British educational system showed an inclination to restore the self-esteem of Indians They started writing Nationalistic historiography.
• Historians from the different regions of India criticised the prejudiced history of India written by the British officers.
• Their attention was drawn towards geographic conditions and history of different regions of India.
• The nationalistic historiography helped in triggering the independence movement.
• It provided a momentum to the writing of regional histories for e.g.
• Nationalistic writings in Maharashtra were inspired by Vishnu Shastri Chiplunkar.

Hence, writing of the regional history received momentum.

(2) Bakhar is an important type of historical documents.
Answer:

• Bakhars are important source of history like coins, inscriptions, texts, copper plates and travelogues.
• Bakhars contain eulogies of the heroes, historic events, stories of lives of great men and description of battles.
• It portrays a picture of prevalent society, religions and economic life.
• Bakhars are of various types which contain biographies of kings, dynastic history, description of events, sects, autobiographies, mythologies, administration of kings, etc.
• These descriptions are helpful for writing historiography.
• Among well-known Marathi. Bakhars ‘Sabhasad Bakhar’ written by Krishnaji Anant Sabhasad requires a special mention Bhausahebanchi Bakhar and Panipatachi Bakhar describe the ‘Battle of Panipat’.

Hence, Bakhars are important type of historical document.

Question 3.
Write detailed Answers the following questions in detail.
(1) What is Marxist History?
Answer:

1. In the post-independence era, new trends emerged in writing Indian historiography. Marxist historiography is prominent among them.
2. Historiography which is based on ideas of Karl Marx is known as Marxist Historiography. In Marxist Historiography, more importance was given to class struggles.
3. Marxist Historiography reflects concerns for means and modes of production as well as the industrial relations. These became centre of writings of the Marxist historians.
4. How every social event affects the life of people was analysed and it became the theme of Marxist historians Marxist historians studied the transitions that took place in the caste system.
5. Notable Indian historians who adopted Marxist ideologies were Damodar Kosambi, Comrade Shripad Dange, Sharad Patil and Ram Sharan Sharma.
6. Their writings reflected Marxist ideology. Comrade Dange was the founder member of the Indian Communist Party

(2) What is the contribution of Itihasacharya V.K. Rajwade to historiography?
Answer:

1. V.K. Rajwade is well-known for his writings in Marathi on subjects like history, linguistics, etymology and grammar. His contributions are as follows:
2. He compiled and edited 22 volumes of Marathyanchya Itihasachi Sadhane.
3. He stated that history is the all-inclusive image of the past societies.
4. V. K. Rajwade was of the view that history does not include only the stories of political images, conspiracies and Wars for seizing power.
5. He was of the firm opinion that we should write our own history and insisted that history . should be written only using the authentic sources.
6. He was of the opinion that description of any human event in historiography should have balanced combination of three factors namely – Time, Space and Personalities.

Question 4.
(a) Complete the following chart.

Historian	Name of the Book
James Mill	‘The History of British India’
James Grant Duff	……………………………………………
……………………………………………	‘The History of India’
S.A. Dange	……………………………………………
……………………………………………	‘Who were the Shudras’

Answer:

Historian	Name of the Book
James Mill	The History of British India
James Grant Duff	A History of Mahrattas
Mountstuart Elphinstone	The History of India
S. A. Dange	Primitive Communism to Slavery
Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar	Who Were the Shudras

(b) Complete the following concept chart.

Answer:

Question 5.
Explain the following concepts.
(1) Orientalist historiography.
Answer:

1. In the later part of the eighteenth century many European scholars felt curious to know about civilisations and countries of the East.
2. These scholars who studied the Indian Civilization had respect and admiration for it. They were known as ‘Orientalists’.
3. They studied similarities between Sanskrit and some of the European languages, focussing more on Vedic traditions and Sanskrit literature.
4. It resulted in the notion that an ancient language could be the mother of all Indo-European languages.
5. Notable Orientalist scholars are Friedrich Max Muller and William Jones.

(2) Nationalistic historiography.
Answer:

1. English education started in India in the nineteenth century. The Indian historians who were trained in English education system realised the glory of their past.
2. They showed an inclination to restore the pride in the ancient glory of India and the self-esteem of the Indian readers.
3. They laid the foundation of Nationalistic writing. Nationalistic writings in Maharashtra were inspired by ‘Vishnushastri Chiplunkar’.
4. Nationalistic historians opposed the prejudiced history written by the British officers.
5. Mahadev Govind Ranade, Vinayak Damodar Savarkar, Ramesh Chandra Majumdar are renowned Nationalistic historians.
6. Nationalistic historiography inspired freedom struggle against the Britishers and gave momentum to write about regional history. While glorifying the past, at times they are blamed for ignoring to critically analyse the truth.

(3) Subaltern history.
Answer:

• History of deprived classes or communities who were deprived of all rights is known as subaltern history.
• The seeds of subaltern history can be traced in the Marxist history. Italian historian Antonio Gramsci has special importance in writing the subaltern history.
• He presented the idea that history should be written starting from the bottommost ranks of people in the society.
• Ranjit Guha, an Indian historian, has given prominence to subaltern history and played a major role in establishing it as an important academic school of historiography.
• Similar thoughts were expressed by Mahatma Phule and Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar which can be found in their writings.

Project
Prepare an illustrated manuscript with the help of the internet giving more information about the historians mentioned in this lesson.
Answer:

Memory Map

Question 6.
Complete the sentences by choosing a correct option:
(a) The first written document found in India was inscribed during the rule of Emperor ……………….. .
(a) Akbar
(b) Harshavardhan
(c) Ashoka Maurya
(d) Aurangzeb
Answer:
(c) Ashoka Maurya

(b) Banabhatta wrote King Harsha’s biography titled ………………… in the 7th century CE.
(a) Meghdoot
(b) Rajtarangini
(c) Rasratnakar
(d) Harshacharit
Answer:
(d) Harshacharit

(c) In the 12th century C.E., ………………… wrote a book ‘Rajtarangini’ about history of Kashmir.
(a) Banabhatta
(b) Kalhana
(c) Ziquddin Barani
(d) Patanjali
Answer:
(b) Kalhana.

(d) The historians in the courts of Muslim rulers were influenced by ………………… historiography.
(a) Greek and Roman
(b) Arabic and Persian
(c) English and French
(d) Arabic and Urdu
Answer:
(b) Arabic and Persian

(e) We get information about the rule of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj from ……………….. .
(a) Bhausahebanchi Bakhar
(b) Panipatachi Bakhar
(c) Sabhasad Bakhar
(d) Holkaranchi Bakhar
Answer:
(c) Sabhasad Bakhar

(f) ‘Bhausahebanchi Bakhar’ describes Battle of ……………….. .
(a) Raigad
(b) Panipat
(c) Plassey
(d) Vasai
Answer:
(b) Panipat

(g) The first book written by a British historian on Indian history is ……………….. .
(a) The History of India
(b) The History of Maharaj
(c) The History of British India
(d) The Sacred Books of the East
Answer:
(c) The History of British India

(h) Nilkanth Janardan Kirtane and V.K. Rajwade exposed the limitations in writings of ……………….. .
(a) Friedrich Max Muller
(b) Colonel Todd
(c) Grant Duff
(d) William Wilson Hunter
Answer:
(c) Grant Duff

(i) …………………, an Indian historian played a major role in establishing subaltern history as an important academic school of historiography.
(a) Comrade Sharad Patil
(b) Ranjit Guha
(c) Dharmanand Kosambi
(d) Ram Sharan Sharma
Answer:
(b) Ranjit Guha.

(j) The writings of British officials on India display strong influence of ……………….. .
(a) Marxism
(b) Colonalism
(c) Feminism
(d) Capitalism
Answer:
(b) Colonalism

(k) The Nationalistic Historiography in Maharashtra was inspired by works of ……………….. .
(a) Vinayak Damotfar Savarkar
(b) Ramkrishna Gopal Bhandarkar
(c) Vishnushastri Chiplunkar
(d) Justice Mahadev Govind Ranade
Answer:
(c) Vishnushastri Chiplunkar

(l) The two volumes written by ……………….. on Indian history show impartial treatment of the subject.
(a) Colonel Todd
(b) William Wilson Hunter
(c) Grant Duff
(d) James Mill
Answer:
(b) William Wilson Hunter

(m) ‘Primitive Communism to Slavery’, represents ……………….. the historiography.
(a) Colonial
(b) Orientalist
(c) Nationalistic
(d) Marxist
Answer:
(d) Marxist

(n) ‘Stripurush Tulana’ was written by ……………….. is acknowledged as first feminist book in India.
(a) Meera Kosambi
(b) Dr. Sharmila Rege
(c) Tarabai Shinde
(d) Pandita Ramabai
Answer:
(c) Tarabai Shinde.

Question 7.
Identify the wrong pair and write it:
(1)

Name of the Book	Types of Historiography
(1) Who were the	(a) Subaltern history
Shudras	(July ’19)
(2) Stripurush Tulana	(b) Feminist writing
(3) The Indian War of Independence	(c) Marxist History
(4) Grant Duff	(d) Colonial History

Answer:
Wrong pair: The Indian War of Independence – Marxist History.

(2)

Name of the Book	Historian
(1) The Rise of the Maratha Power	(a) Justice Mahadev Govind Ranade
(2) Marathyanchya Itihasachi Sadhane	(b) Vishnushastri Chiplunkar
(3) Maratha Riyasat	(c) Govind Sakharam Sardesai
(4) Gulamgiri	(d) Mahatma Phule

Answer:
Wrong pair: Marathyanchya Itihasachi Sadhane- Vishnushastri Chiplunkar.

(3)

Work	Scholars
(1)  Bharat Itihas Samshodhak Manda	(a)   V. K. Rajwade
(2)  Asiatic Society	(b)   Sir William Jones
(3)  Inspiration for Nationalistic historiography	(c)  Vishnushastri Chiplunkar
(4)  Discovery of Harappan Civilization	(d)  James Mill

Answer:
Wrong pair: Discovery of Harappan CIvilization – James Mill.

(4)

Historiography	Historian
(1) Nationalistic Historiography	(a) V. D. Savarkar
(2) Marxist Historiography	(b) Damodar Kosambi
(3) Subaltern Historiography	(c) Ramchandra Guha
(4) Feminist Historiography	(d) Sharmila Rege

Answer:
Wrong pair: Subaltern Historiography – Bamchandra Guha.

Question 8.
Do as directed:
(1)

Answer:

(2)

Answer:

(3) Prepare a flow chart on Literary work of Max Muller:
Answer:

Question 9.
Explain the concepts:
(a) Colonial Historiography:
Answer:

• The history written by British officers and Christian missionaries in support of British rule and colonialism is known as Colonial historiography.
• It reflected their prejudiced mindset about Indian culture. They ridiculed the Indian culture as being primitive.
• Their writings justified the colonial British rule.
• The distinct example of colonial historiography is ‘Cambridge History of India’ in five volumes published during 1922-1937.

Question 10.
Write short notes:
(a) Alexander Cunningham:
Answer:

• British rulers started archaeological exploration and research in India in the 20th century.
• They established the Archaeological Survey of India and appointed Sir Alexander Cunningham as its first Director General.
• He mainly chose the sites mentioned in the Buddhist texts for excavations.
• Many other ancient sites were excavated under his supervision.

(b) James Mill:
Answer:

• James Mill, a‘British historian, had written the monumental book ‘The History of British India’. He published it in three volumes in 1817.
• The book is important as it was the first book written by a British officer on Indian history.
• The book: lacks objective perspective and is prejudiced about various aspects of the Indian culture.

(c) Grant Duff:
Answer:

• Grant Duff, a British officer, wrote the book ‘A History of Mahrattas’, in three volumes.
• His name stands out among the British officers who wrote about Maratha history.
• The tendency of the British historians to condemn Indian culture and history is found in Grant Duff’s writing.
• Historians Nilkanth Janardan Kirtane and Vishwanath Kashinath Rajwade exposed the limitations of Grant Duff’s writings.

(d) Indian Feminist Historiography:
Answer:

1. Tarabai Shinde, Pandita Ramabai and Dr. Rukhamabai were feminist historians before independence.
2. They wrote about employment of women, their right to political equality, treatment meted out to women at their workplace and gender discrimination.
3. A lot of literature is available unfolding the viewpoint of Dalit women on problems like social class, caste, etc. In the post-independence era.
4. Dr. Sharmila Rege included her essays on the autobiographies of Dalit women in her book, ‘Writing Caste, Writing Gender: Reading Dalit Women’s Testimonies.’
5. Meera Kosambi’s book, ‘Crossing Thresholds: Feminist Essays in Social History’ contains essays on the life stories of women like Pandita Ramabai and Dr. Rukhamabai, the first practising lady Doctor of India.

Question 11.
Explain the following with reasons:
(a) The history of Indian civilization dates back to 3rd millennium BCE.
Answer:

• Indian civilisation is among the various ancient civilisations in the world.
• Excavations at Harappa took place in 1920 under the supervision of Sir John Marshall, then Director General of Archaeological Survey of India (ASI). This led to the discovery of Harappan Civilization.
• This discovery prqved helpful to trace the antiquity of Indian history which dates back 3rd millennium BCE or earlier.

(b) It became necessary to rethink of women’s position in history.
Answer:

• For a considerable period of time, mainly male scholars were involved in the writing of Indian history.
• It was obvious that the perspective was male-dominated.
• The work of the women historians was neglected for long. So it became important to highlight this fact.
• It was a huge challenge in front of the women: historians to compile the work and do research which would prove to be a medium to put forth their status in society.

Hence, it became necessary to rethink about the position of women in history.

(c) Govind Sakharam Sardesai was addressed as ‘Riyasatkar’.
Answer:

• Govind Sakharam Sardesai had a momentous achievement to his credit by publishing ‘Maratha Riyasat’.
• He published several volumes of Maratha history.
• His work became so popular that people began to address him as ‘Riyasatkar’.

Question 12.
Answer the following in 25-30 words:
(a) Which things are included in the description by Emperor Babur in bis autobiography?
Answer:
Babur, the founder of the Mughal empire, in his autobiography entitled Tuzuk-i-Babari describes:

• The battles fought by him.
• Recordings of minute observations of various regions and cities visited by him noting minute observations.
• Observation of the local customs, economy, fauna and flora of the region travelled by him.

(b) What is the contribution of Swatantryaveer Savarkar to nationalistic historiography?
Answer:

1. The writings of Swatantryaveer Savarkar were infused with nationalistic ideas. He looked at the revolt of 1857 as the First War of Independence and wrote the ‘book ‘The Indian War of Independence, 1857’.
2. His book gave inspiration to Nationalistic historiography which helped in triggering independence movement of the Indian people against the British. Even the writing of regional history got momentum.
3. The attention of historians was drawn towards the history and geographic conditions and variations in the South Indian region.

(c) Write about the contribution of Banabhatta in writing historiographies.
Answer:

• It was considered an important step in the Indian historiography to write biographies of kings and dynastic histories.
• Banabhatta wrote Harshacharit, King Harsha’s biography, in the 7th century C.E.
• It portrays a realistic picture of the social, economic, political, religious and cultural life during the period when King Harsha ruled.

(d) Write information on ‘Rajtarangini’.
Answer:

• Rajtarangini was written by Kalhana in the 12th century C.E. It traces the history of Kashmir.
• These eight books contain records of dynasties which ruled Kashmir, local traditions, coins, remains of monuments and inscriptions. Kalhana wrote the text after critically examining the various sources.
• The book is a good example to show how scientific technique is applied in writing history.

(e) Write about historiography in the post-independence period.
Answer:

• In the post-independence period, along with dynastic history, cultural, social and economic histories were also written.
• New schools of thought like Marxist, Subaltern and Feminist History were included in historiography.
• The scholars in this era began to feel the need of writing histories of various communities, sciences, economic systems, political ideologies, cultural aspects, etc.
• They presented the new schools of ideologies. These changes increased the scope of writing historiography.

(f) What are the objectives of writing history according to Ziauddin Barani?
Answer:

• Ziauddin Barani explained the ’ objectives of historiography. According to him, the duty of a historian does not end with recording the ruler’s valour and welfare policies.
• He should also write about the ruler’s failings and incorrect policies.
• He further adds that a historian should also take into account the impact of the teachings of the wise, the learned and the saints on the cultural life of people.

Thus, Ziauddin Barani holds important place as he expanded the scope of historiography.

(g) What are the salient features of writings of historians in the courts of Mughal emperors?
Answer:
The salient features of writings of historians in the courts of Mughal emperors are:

• Historians praised the Mughal emperors in their writings.
• Their loyalty towards the rulers is exhibited.
• The custom of adding suitable poetic quotes was introduced. The historians started to include beautiful pictures as well.

(h) Write about the importance of Tarabai Shinde in writing feminist historiography. *
Answer:

• Tarabai Shinde has a prominent place among the feminist historians who wrote about women in the nineteenth century, i.e. pre-independence era.
• She wrote a book Stripurush Tulana which was published in 1882. It is acknowledged as the first feminist book published in India.
• Her writings attacked the male-dominated social system and the caste system.

Question 13.
Read the given passage and answer the questions given below:
(a) Complete the graphical presentation:

Answer:

(b) What was considered more important by the historians in the Mughal Court?
Answer:
Praising the Mughal emperor and exhibition of loyalty was considered more 8 important by the historians in the Mughal Court.

(c) Why is Abbul Fazl’s writing considered realistic?
Answer:

• Abul Fazl’s Akbarnama reflects his critical viewpoint.
• He collected authentic historical documents for this book.
• He scrutinized these documents to affirm their reliability. Therefore, his method is looked upon as devoid of bias and hence realistic.

Question 14.
Write detailed answers to the following questions:
(a) Write information about historiography in the ancient period of India.
Answer:

• In the ancient period, stories of great deeds of ancestors, mythological lore, memories of social transitions were preserved through oral traditions.
• The art of writing was mastered by Indians as early as 3rd millennium B.C.E. But Harappan script is not deciphered yet.
• The earliest written documents found in India were in the form of inscriptions that are as old as 3rd century B.C.E. during the period of Emperor Ashok. His edicts are inscribed on natural rocks and stone pillars.
• Inscriptions started to occur on coins, metal images and sculptures and also on copper plates from the 1st century B.C.E.
• Epics like Ramayana, Mahabharat, Puranas, Jain and Buddhist texts are important sources of ancient Indian literature.
• Historical accounts by Indian authors and travelogues by foreign travellers are also important sources of history.

(b) Explain the works of Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar and Mahatma Phule in Subaltern History.
Answer:

• History of the deprived classes expressed in folklore was known as ‘Subaltern History’.
• Similar thoughts were expressed by Mahatma Jotirao Phule and Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar.
• Mahatma Phule unfolded the history of the Shudratishudra communities in his book ‘Gulamgiri’.
• He drew attention to show how women, Shudras and Atishudras were exploited under the name of religion.
• Dr. Ambedkar focused on the idea that in spite of having a significant role in shaping the cultural and political aspects of India, the role of Dalits was not duly acknowledged in colonial and nationalistic historiography.
• Injustice done to the Dalits was mostly written by him. ‘Who Were the Shudras’ and ‘The Untouchables’ are his books which can be cited as examples of subaltern history.

Question 15.
Observe the given picture and answer the question given below:

(a) Write a short note on Copper-plate inscriptions.

Answer:

• The copper-plate shown in the picture was found at Sohagaura in Gorakhpur district in Uttar Pradesh.
• It is supposed to be from the Mauryan period and the inscription on it is in Brahmi script.
• Many symbols are inscribed on it ‘Tree-in-railing’ and ‘Mountain’ at the beginning of inscription occur on punch marked coins.
• A structure created on four pillars is indicative of a granary.
• The inscriptions have a record of royal order that the grains stored in the granary should be distributed carefully.
• This order is suggestive of precautionary measures taken during famine.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 3 Political Parties Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 3 Political Parties

Question 1.
Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the sentences.
(1) When people come together and participate in electoral process, to acquire political power, such organisations are called ………………………….. .
(a) Government
(b) Society
(c) Political parties
(d) Social organisations
Answer:
(c) Political parties

(2) National Conference is a party in ………………………….. this region.
(a) Odisha
(b) Assam
(c) Bihar
(d) Jammu and Kashmir
Answer:
(d) Jammu and Kashmir

(3) Justice Party- a non-Brahmin movement was transformed into ………………………….. Political Party.
(a) Assam Gan Parishad
(b) Shivsena
(c) Dravid Munnetra Kazhagam
(d) Jammu and Kashmir National Conference
Answer:
(c) Dravid Munnetra Kazhagam

Question 2.
State whether the following statements are true or false. Give reasons for your answer.
(1) Political parties act as a link between government and people.
Answer:
The above statement is True.

• The political parties convey the demands and complaints of the people to the government.
• Information about various government policies and schemes are conveyed to the people by the political parties.
• People’s reaction to the policies and their expectations are conveyed to the government too by the parties. In this way, political parties act as a link between government and the people.

(2) Political parties are social organisations.
Answer:
The above statement is True.

• People who have similar views come together voluntarily and form a party, so it can be said that political parties are an integral part of our society.
• The political parties try to solve the problems of the people.
• Some political parties represent the role of a particular community in society, its ideology and work to achieve it. Hence it can be said that political parties are social organizations.

(3) Coalition politics leads to instability.
Answer:
The above statement is False.

• As no single party got majority after the elections held in 1989, coalition government came to power at the centre and many states.
• Parties had to set aside their policies and programmes and concentrate on a common agenda to run the government.
• Both Congress Party and the Bharatiya Janata Party made an experiment of establishing a coalition government.
• The National Democratic Alliance formed by BJP and its partners and the Democratic Front government formed by Congress and its partners ruled at the centre and state level effectively.

Therefore, the belief that the coalition government brings instability was proved wrong.

(4) Shiromani Akali Dal is a national party.
Answer:
The above statement is False.
The Election Commission of India recognises a political party as National or Regional party on the basis of specific criteria namely:

• The number of seats secured in Parliament and Legislative Assembly or percentage of votes secured.
• Shiromani Akali Dal does not meet the criteria listed above.
• As its influence is limited to the state of Punjab and not in any other state.
• The Election Commission has given recognition to it as regional party.

Question 3.
Explain the following concepts.
(1) Regionalism
Answer:

• India is a vast country with great physical diversity. People belonging to different regions have their own language, culture and traditions.
• Along with the physical diversity, we find diversity in literature, education, history and movements.
• Each one feels an affinity for his language, traditions and history of social reforms. This gives rise to linguistic identity.
• This affinity towards all the above-mentioned aspects develops into identity consciousness and gives rise to excessive regional pride.
• People start giving preference only to the development of their language and region.
• This is known as Regionalism.

(2) National Parties
Answer:
A party which functions at the national level is known as National Party.

1. The Election Commission has laid certain criteria for a party to get recognised as a Political party. The political party should secure at least f 6% valid votes in four or more states in the earlier Lok Sabha. OR
2. State Assembly elections and minimum four members should be elected in the Lok Sabha from any state or states in the earlier elections. OR
3. The candidates of a party should be elected from a minimum three states or should be elected from a minimum 2% constituencies of the total Lok Sabha constituencies. OR
4. It is important to get recognition as a state party in at least four states.

Question 4.
Answer the following questions in brief.
(1) What are the major characteristics of political parties?
Answer:
The main features of political parties are as follows:

• Political parties aim at securing power by contesting elections.
• Every political party has some ideology.
• Every party has an agenda. It is based on the party’s ideology.
• The party that gets majority seats in election forms the government and the one that does not secure the majority act as opposition parties.
• Political parties are a link between the people and the government and work to gain the support of the people.

(2) What changes have taken place in the nature of political parties in India?
Answer:
The following changes were seen in the party system in India:

• Indian- National Congress was the only dominant party in states and at the centre after independence.
• All other parties came together and formed a coalition in 1977 and defeated the Congress.
• For the first time in history, the two-party system got importance over one-party system.
• The one-party system came to an end after the 1989 elections.
• Regional parties got importance and the coalition government was formed at the centre and in the states.

Project
(1) In a map of Maharashtra, point out the Loksabha constituency that includes the names of your parents.
(2) In a map of India, point out the places where national political parties have their influence.
Answer:

Memory Map

Question 5.
Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the sentences:
(a) The party which fails to secure majority is known as ………………………. party.
(a) Ruling
(b) Opposition
(c) Independent
(c) Coalition
Answer:
(b) Opposition

(b) ‘Bharatiya Janata Party’ which was formed in 1980 after a split with ………………………. a component of Janata Party.
(a) Jan Sangh
(b) Lok Dal
(c) Independent party
(b) Janata Dal
Answer:
(a) Jan Sangh.

(c) Social support received by a political party is called ………………………. .
(a) Democracy
(b) People’s rule
(c) Mass base
(d) Public relation
Answer:
(c) Mass base

(d) Promotion of the Marathi language is the objective of the ………………………. .
(a) Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam
(b) Shiromani Akali Dal
(c) Shiv Sena
(d) Assam Gana Parishad
Answer:
(c) Shiv Sena

(e) There are ………………………. recognised parties in India.
(a) five
(b) seven
(c) nine
(d) six
Answer:
(b) seven

(f) The main objective of the political party is to capture ………………………. and retain it.
(a) publicity
(b) victory
(c) power
(d) information
Answer:
(c) power

(g) The ideology of the Communist Party of India is based on ………………………. Philosophy.
(a) Capitalist
(b) Marxist
(c) Democracy
(d) Imperialist
Answer:
(b) Marxist

(h) Shiromani Akali Dal is a prominent regional party in ………………………. state.
(a) Odisha
(b) Assam
(c) Punjab
(d) Jammu and Kashmir
Answer:
(c) Punjab

Question 6.
State whether the following statements are true or false. Give reasons for your answer:

(a) Political parties do not need support of the people.
Answer:
The above statement is False.

• To secure power is the main aim of political parties.
• Political parties have to implement various policies and programmes for the welfare of people and to gain the support of the people.
• The party which solves the issues related to the welfare of the people get support.
• Without the support of the people they can never get a mandate.

Hence, all political parties require support of the people.

(b) The Communist Party of India was split.
Answer:
The above statement is True.

• The Communist Party of- India was established in 1925. The Communist Parties follow Marxist ideology.
• In 1962, due to differences in the leadership a rift was created in the party.
• The main reason for the split was about which political line to follow.

(c) Sometimes the sentiments of regionalism gets strengthened in the country.
Answer:
The above statement is True.

1. A country like India has diversity of government language, region and culture. This diversity creates affinity towards a region.
2. This affinity gives rise to excessive regional S pride and initiating movements to save it. The significance of such movements is claimed to be for preserving culture.
3. Asserting to be rightful claimant of material resources, job opportunities and development of the region these movements strengthen the regional pride.
4. Thus, this excessive regional pride turns morbid taking the form of regionalism.

(d) Regional parties have no influence on National Politics.
Answer:
The above statement is False.

• No single party got majority in the elections to Lok Sabha held in 1989.
• The national parties formed coalition government at the centre taking help of regional parties.
• As regional parties share power at the centre they have influence on national politics.

Question 7.
Explain the concept:
(a) Regional Parties:
Answer:

1. The groups having a proud feeling about the different identity of their region and who compete to capture power to bring about regional development are ‘Regional Parties’.
2. The influence of such parties are limited to their region. They give importance to regional problems. Development of one’s own region is the prime objective of these parties.
3. Sometimes they demand for independent state or autonomy. They influence the national politics because of their dominance in the region.
4. They have passed through various phases, from separatism to autonomy and have then merged with mainstream national politics.

(b) Political Party:
Answer:

1. A Political Party is a kind of social organisation of like-minded people. The main aim of any political party is to contest election and secure power.
2. The stand taken by various political parties on issues becomes their political ideology.
3. In democracy, political parties are at the centre of all political activities. They are a link that connects common people, democracy, representation and elections.
4. The party that secures a majority becomes the ruling party and the rest are known as the. opposition.

Question 8.
Write short note:
(a) Party System:
Answer:

1. If one party remains in power in a country for a long period and no other party has any kind of influence the party system it is called ‘One- Party System’.
2. When there are two equally strong parties which alternatively come to power. It is called ‘Two-Party System’.
3. In a country where many political parties exist and compete with each other to capture power and have more or less influence in different states is called ‘Multi-Party System’.
4. Democracy develops in Multi-Party System.

(b) Indian National Congress:
Answer:

• The Indian National Congress was established in 1885.
• The party represented the hopes and aspirations of Indians and led the freedom struggle.
• Groups having diverse ideologies became part of the Congress to fight for freedom.
• It believes in democratic socialism, social equality and international peace.
• After independence, the Congress Party was a dominant party for almost four decades and ruled at the centre and in the states.

(c) Communist Party of India:
Answer:

• The Communist Party of India was established in 1925. The Communist Party follows the Marxist ideology.
• The party aims at working to protect the interests of workers and labourers.
• The main objective of this party is to oppose capitalism and protect the interests of workers.
• The party split due to ideological differences in 1964. Those who walked out of the party formed Communist Party (Marxist).

(d) Nationalist Congress Party:
Answer:

• Nationalist Congress Party (NCP) is the splinter or breakaway party from the Congress Party.
• It considers the values like democracy, equality and secularism important.
• It became part of United Progressive Alliance (UPA) and came to power in Maharashtra.
• It was in power in Maharashtra from 1999 to 2014 and at the centre from 2004 to 2014.

(e) Trinamool Congress:
Answer:

• All India Trinamool Congress was established in 1998.
• The Election Commission of India gave it recognition in 2016.
• Democracy, Secularism and protection of the weaker sections of the society are some of the policies of the party.
• Presently (April 2019), this party is in power in the state of West Bengal.

(f) Shiv Sena:
Answer:

1. The Shiv Sena was founded in 1966.
2. The main objective of the party was to fight for the cause of Marathi-speaking people and preservation of Marathi language.
3. They resisted the people from other regions.
4. In 1995, it became the ruling party with BJP in Maharashtra and its strategic tie-up with BJP helped it to enter national politics.
5. It was in power at the centre with BJP from 1998 to 2004. Again it has shared power with the BJP at the centre and state since 2014.

(g) Shiromani Akali Dal:
Answer:

• Shiromani Akali Dal was formed in 1920.
• It is a dominating party in Punjab.
• It gives preference to nurture religious and for the regional pride.
• The party has retained power in Punjab for many years.

(h) Dravid Munnetra Kazhagam:
Answer:

• Justice party, a non-Brahmin movement, started in 1920. In 1944, it transformed into a political party called Dravid Kazhagam.
• In 1949, a group within the party got split and formed Dravid Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK).
• The party works for the protection of Tamil identity.
• This party implemented many policies for welfare of the people and therefore has support from all the sections of society.
• Another group separated from it in 1972 and formed All India Dravid Munnetra Kazhagham.
• It remained in power for a long time in Tamil Nadu and for sometime at the centre.

Question 9.
Do as directed
(a) Complete the concept map:

Answer:

Answer:

(3)

Answer:

(b) Complete the Time-line writing the name of the party or the year of establishment:

Answer:

Question 10.
Answer the following questions in brief:

(a) What is called “mass base”?
Answer:

• Every political party is formed with some ideology.
• Political parties take a certain stand towards public issues.
• Their ideology and their stand towards public issues are conveyed to the people through various programmes.
• If the people agree with their role and ideology, they get the support of the people.
• Such social support received by a political – party is called ‘mass base’.

(b) Write about the policies of Indian National Congress.
Answer:
The policies of the Indian National: Congress are as follows:

• Equal rights for the minorities and weaker sections of society.
• Secularism, all-round development and social welfare are its objectives.
• Introduction of socialist democracy.
• Belief in values like international peace and social equality.

(c) Explain the role of Bharatiya Janata Party.
Answer:
Bharatiya Janata Party was formed in 1980 with the following objectives:

• To preserve Indian culture and traditions.
• To create a strong and rich India.
• To give importance to economic reforms for development of India.

(d) Write about the policies of Communist Party of India (Marxist).
Answer:
Communist Party of India (Marxist) was formed in 1964 with the following objectives:

• The party advocates socialism, secularism and democracy.
• The main policy of the party is to work for the welfare of farmers, landless labourers and workers.
• The party opposes imperialism.

(e) Why was Bahujan Samaj Party formed?
Answer:
The Bahujan Samaj Party was formed in 1984 to achieve the following objectives:

• To bring socialist ideology into practice.
• To secure power for ‘majority’ comprising of scheduled castes, scheduled tribes and other backward classes.
• To give power in the hands of ‘majority’.

(f) What do the regional parties give preference for?
Answer:
The regional parties give preference to the following issues:

• Importance should be given to regional issues and bring about development.
• Regional issues should be handled* at regional level.
• The power rests in the hands of regional people. ‘
• People living in that region should get preference in administration and jobs. .

(g) What changes are seen in the nature and role of regional parties?
Answer:
The role of regional parties changed over period of time. The changes are as follows:

• After independence, regional identity gave rise to separatists movements and demands were put up by regional parties for separate state.
• They wanted to break away from the Indian union and form a separate state.
• The demands of the regional parties changed gradually and these parties started asking for autonomy.
• In the later period, for the development of their region and people the parties demanded representation of their people in the state and central government.
• Regional parties in the north eastern region also started demanding more autonomy after split up.
• The journey of the regional parties began with a split up and then a demand for autonomy going on to share power in federation and then entry into mainstream national politics.

(h) What are the objectives of Assam Gana Parishad?
Answer:
Assam Gana Parishad was formed in 1985 with the following objectives:

• To preserve the uniqueness of Assam’s culture, language and social identity.
• To make efforts for economical development of Assam.
• To resolve problems of displaced people.

(i) What are the criteria for a regional party to get recognition?
Answer:

• In the last general .elections to the State Assembly, the party should not secure less than 6% of the total number of valid votes polled.
• At least 2 members to be elected to the Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha).
• 3% seats of the total seats of Legislative Assembly or at least 3 seats in Legislative Assembly.

(j) What work is done by political parties?
Answer:
The following work is done by political parties:

• To propagate policies and programmes of the party and contest elections.
• They implement various policies when they come to power.
• If they fail to secure power, they act as opposition party and try to gain support of the people.
• They communicate the demands and complaints of the people to the government and the policies and programmes of the government to the people.

Question 11.
Give your opinion:

(a) Imagine you are opposition party leader and you have observed that the ruling party has not done good work in the field of health. What will you do as a leader of opposition?
Answer:
As opposition leader, I will do the following to make the government realise its negligence in the health field:

• I will question the government in Parliament and point out their shortcomings and ask about the prolonged projects.
• I will create awareness among the people by writing articles in newspapers.
• I will give interviews,on radio and television and criticize the government.
• I will organise rallies and meetings to sensitize among the people.

(b) Think and write
What has to be done to bring partyless democracy in modern times?
Answer:

• The recognition of all the parties should be cancelled. ‘
• People should be given the right to make decisions.
• In order to improve the decision-making power, people should be educated on political issues.
• To improve the moral character of the people who want to take the leadership.
• To initiate direct democracy and prepare the people for the same.
• Stress should be given for decentralization.
• Mahatma Gandhi, Vinoba Bhave and Jayprakash Narayan put forth the idea of partyless democracy.
• What has to be done to bring such democracy in modern times?

Question 12.
What do you understand by the following news in newspapers? Explain in brief.

(a) Opposition parties held a meeting in Mumbai to resist the Ruling party. Will take up the issue of farmers?
Answer:

• The ruling party did not undertake any work for the welfare of farmers. Therefore all the opposition parties decided to trap the government on this issue.
• The opposition parties have kept aside their differences and come together for this cause.
• It is the duty of the opposition party to question the negligence of the government.
• This news makes us aware of the line of action taken by the opposition.
• Opposition parties held a meeting in Mumbai to resist the Ruling party. Will take up the issue of farmers?
• Ruling party organised ‘Samvad Yatra’ in rural areas.

(b) Ruling party has organised ‘Samvad Yatra’ in rural areas.
Answer:

• Political parties adopt different ways to popularise their party and influence the people.
• As the means of communication are limited in rural areas they organise the Yatra.
• It shows the efforts of the government to understand problems of people in rural areas.
• It is essential to have dialogue with people to know their problems and opinions.
• As the initiative is taken by the government, people will develop faith in government.
• The news conveys to us that the ruling party is carrying out its duties properly.
• The faith in government becomes profound when people feel that government is sensitive towards them.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 4.3 World Heritage Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 English Kumarbharati Textbook Solutions Unit 4.3 World Heritage

Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 4.3 Warming Up Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Pair up with your partner and answer the following questions.
(a) Do you like to travel?
(b) Where have you traveled?
(c) Have you heard about the wonders of the world?
(d) Have you heard about UNESCO?
(e) What does UNESCO stand for?
(f) What is meant by Heritage?
(g) Do you know of any Heritage building in your own city?
Answer:
(a) yes, no, sometimes, etc.
(b) Discuss the places, the mode of travel, the sights, etc.
(c) Yes, I have.
(d) Yes, I have, but not much.
(e) UNESCO stands for United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization.
(f) Heritage is something that is valued and preserved because of its historical/cultural/natural importance
(g) Students can find out the heritage buildings in their own towns/cities.

Question 2.
Your teacher will explain the ‘Heritage Cycle’.
→ By understanding (cultural heritage) people value it.
→ By valuing it people want to care for it.
→ By caring for it, it will help people enjoy it.
→ From enjoying it, comes a thirst to understand.
→ By understanding it …………………

Question 3.
Do you know the difference between :
(a) World Heritage
(b) Cultural Heritage
Refer to a dictionary/encyclopedia/reference book/the internet to get the detailed meaning.
Answer:
(a) World heritage means a global heritage that belongs to everyone.
(b) Cultural heritage is the legacy of physical artifacts and intangible attributes of society that are inherited from past generations, maintained in the present and preserved for the benefit of futurft generations. Cultural heritage includes tangible culture (such as buildings, monuments, landscapes, books, works of art, and artifacts), intangible culture (such as folklore, traditions, language, and knowledge), and natural heritage (including culturally significant landscapes, etc.)

Question 4.
With the help of your partner complete the information in the table.

Tourist spot	Favourite	Why?
Park
Mountain
Beach
Sea
Forest
Countryside/Rural site

Question 5.
Heritage Sites – Rank these with your partner. Put the best at the top.

• Great Barrier Reef
• Mount Fuji
• Grand Canyon
• The Pyramids
• Panda Sanctuaries
• Machu Picchu
• Vatican City
• Great Wall of China

World Heritage Class 10 English Workshop Questions and Answers Maharashtra Board

Question 1.
Answer the following questions.
(a) What do heritage sites in the world include?
Answer:
A World Heritage Site should have significant cultural or natural importance to humanity.

(b) What kind of sites are protected and maintained by the International World Heritage Programme?
Answer:
Sites which have significant cultural or natural importance to humanity are protected and maintained by the International World Heritage Programme. They may include forests, lakes, monuments, buildings and cities. They can also be a combination of cultural and natural areas.

(c) How many world Heritage sites were there around the world?
Answer:
World Heritage Sites include forests, lakes, monuments, buildings and cities. They cari also be a combination of cultural and natural areas.

(d) What is the role of World Heritage Committees?
Answer:
World Heritage Sites are those that are significant culturally and naturally. People are interested in seeing such sites and learning the history behind them; hence they are a major tourist attraction, and they draw tourists to a country, boosting the country’s revenue.

(e) What is the texture of World Heritage Committee?
Answer:
The tenure of the World Heritage Committee is six years.

(f) What are our duties towards preservation/conservation of any historical site?
Answer:
We should see that the historical sites are not in any danger due to pollution, tourism, uncontrolled urbanization, etc. Whenever we visit the site we must maintain the cleanliness and purity of the place. We must obey whatever orders and guidelines are put in place by the authorities. We should motivate others to do so too.

(g) Why should we preserve the World Heritage Sites?
Answer:
World Heritage Sites promote tourism. They are a part of the culture of the world, a part of the past. It is essential to preserve the past in order to learn from it. Natural beauty too should be preserved so that everyone today and in future can enjoy it. Hence, we should preserve World Heritage Sites.

(h) What is the role of World Heritage Sites in developing tourism in any country?
Answer:
World Heritage Sites are those that are significant culturally and naturally. People are interested in seeing such sites and learning the history behind them; hence they are a major tourist attraction, and they draw tourists to a country, boosting the country’s revenue.

Question 2.
Complete the following.

Year	Establishment	Role
1954	…………………………………………………	…………………………………………………
1959	…………………………………………………	…………………………………………………
1965	…………………………………………………	…………………………………………………
1968	…………………………………………………	…………………………………………………
1972	…………………………………………………	…………………………………………………

Answer:

Year	Establishment	Role
1954	Egypt starts plans to build Aswan High Dam	Started the momentum for the protection of cultural and natural heritage sites around the world.
1959	International campaign by UNESCO to protect temples and artifacts likely to be destroyed by Aswan High Dam; a draft convention initiated for the same	Protection of natural and cultural sites around the world
1965	A White House Conference in the US called for a World Heritage Trust’.	To protect not only the historic and cultural sites but also the significant natural and scenic sites around the world.
1968	The International Union for Conservation of Nature	Development of goals similar to those of the White House Conference
1972	Convention concerning the protection of World Cultural and Natural Heritage adopted by UNESCO’s General Conference.	To protect not only Are histone and cultural sites but also the significant natural and scenic sites around the world.

Question 3.
Complete the following by giving reasons why World Heritage Sites are in danger.

Answer:

Question 4.
Choose the correct alternative and complete the given sentences.
(a) Mount Huangshan is situated in …………………………. .
(i) Japan
(ii) China
(iii) Philippines
Answer:
(ii) China

(b) The famous dam situated in Egypt on River Nile is …………………………. .
(i) Buzwaa High Dam
(ii) Rizwa High Dam
(iii) Aswan High Dam
Answer:
(iii) Aswan High Dam

(c) The conference based on Human Environment was held at …………………………. .
(i) Athens, Greece
(ii) Mascow, Russia
(iii) Stockholm, Sweden
Answer:
(iii) Stockholm, Sweden

(d) The highest number of world Heritage Sites are located in …………………………. .
(i) France
(ii) Italy
(iii) Germany
Answer:
(ii) Italy

(e) …………………………. can delete/exclude a site from World Heritage list.
(i) World Heritage Committee
(ii) World Peace Committee
(iii) World Health Committee.
Answer:
(i) World Heritage Committee

(f) The tenure of World Heritage Committee is …………………………. years.
(i) Four
(ii) Five
(iii) Six.
Answer:
(iii) Six.

Question 5.
Match the pairs to define different roles of the World Heritage Sites.

	A		B
(i)	Identify cultural and natural sites	a	green, local based, stable and decent jobs.
(ii)	Identify sites of	b	of outstanding universal value across countries.
(iii)	Identify sites that represent	c	preserve outstanding sites and natural resources.
(iv)	UNESCO seeks to	d	tourism.
(v)	World Heritage Sites should have	e	an asset for economic development and investment.
(vi)	World Heritage Sites should	f	protect these sites.
(vii)	World Heritage Sites serve as	g	best examples of world’s cultural and/or natural heritage.
(viii)	World Heritage Sites should ensure	h	special importance for everyone.
(ix)	It should at large develop	i	relevant development plan policies.

Answer:

‘A’	‘B’
(1) Identify cultural and natural sites	(a) green, local based, stable and decent.
(2) Identify sites of	(b) of outstanding universal values across countries.
(3) Identify sites that represent	(c) preserve outstanding sites and natural resources.
(4) UNESCO seeks to	(d) tourism.
(5) World Heritage Sites should have	(e) an asset for economic development and investment.
(6) World Heritage should	(f) protect these sites.
(7) World Heritage Sites serve as	(g) best examples of world’s cultural and or natural heritage.
(8) World Heritage Site should ensure	(h) special importance for everyone.
(9) It should at large develop	(i) relevant development plan policies.

Question 6.
Look at the words and their meanings. Choose the correct alternative.
(a) determine :
(i) think over
(ii) decide
(iii) ask for
(iv) look over
Answer:
(ii) decide

(b) monument :
(i) statue
(ii) pillar
(iii) memorial
(iv) fort
Answer:
(iii) memorial

(c) significant:
(i) clever
(ii) effective
(iii) systematic
(iv) important
Answer:
(iv) important

(d) disaster:
(i) problem
(ii) incident
(iii) calamity
(iv) accident
Answer:
(iii) calamity

Question 7.
Find from the text minimum 8 words related to cultural heritage and make a word register. Arrange them in alphabetical order.
Cultural heritage: Abu Simbel Temples, artifacts, buildings, cilles, Histqric Center of Vienna, Machu Picchu, monuments, Mount Huangshan, Sydney Opera House.

Question 8.
Complete the following information from the text.

Answer:
(a) Preservation of any historical site (Duties):
(i) International World Heritage Programme
(ii) UNESCO World Heritage Committee.

(b) Preserving World Heritage Sites (Reasons) :
(i) They have significant cultural and natira Importance to humanity.
(ii) They promote tourism.

(C) Promoting tourism (Role) :
(i) They attract tourists.
(ii) They help one to understand the history of a place.

Question 9.
Write a report on any tourist place/historical place/World Heritage Site you recently visited using the points given below.
(i) Title
(ii) Place/Location
(iii) Background/History
(iv) Features/Specialities
(v) Security policies
(vi) Sign boards and discipline
(vii) Overall scenario.
Answer:
Ajanta – A Masterpiece In Rock
– Rani Iyer
Mumbai, 12 February: The Ajanta Caves, situated in the Deccan in Maharashtra and about 110 km from Aurangabad, are a UNESCO World Heritage Site. A visit to the place reveals a large slice of history.

These rock – cut cave temples and monasteries of Buddhists date back to around 2nd century BCE. Since they were in the jungles, cut into a mountainside, the external world did not know about them for a long time. They were discovered only in the 19th century, The caves include paintings and rock – cut sculptures described as among the finest surviving examples of ancient Indian art. The paintings are expressive and present emotion through gesture, pose and form, According to UNESCO, these are masterpieces of Buddhist religious art that influenced the Indian art I that followed.

Two new visitor centers provide extensive information about the heritage site using audiovisual media. Local staff is employed for security purposes. Though photography is allowed at certain places, with fees for the use of a camera, use of tripods and flash is prohibited. Signboards and brochures/leaflets provide information about the care to be taken to preserve this UNESCO protected heritage site. “The caves are now being looked after by a private company under the Indian government’s ‘Adopt a Heritage Site’ program,” said a senior official.

Question 10.
(A) Use ‘not only but also’ in the following sentences.
(a) UNESCO and the International Council on monuments initiated a draft convention to create an international organisation responsible for protecting cultural heritage.
(b) The state parties are responsible for identifying and nominating new sites.
(c) Opera House in Australia and the Historic Center of Vienna in Austria are cultural sites of World Heritage.
(d) World Heritage Sites can also be a combination of both cultural and natural areas.
Answer:
(a) Not only UNESCO but also the International Council on Monuments and Sites initiated a draft convention to create an international organization responsible for protecting cultural heritage.
(b) The State Parties are responsible for not only identifying but also nominating new sites.
(c) Not only the Opera House in Australia but also the Historic Center of Vienna in Austria are cultural sites of World Heritage.
(d) World Heritage Sites can be a combination of not only cultural but also natural areas.

(B) Rewrite the following sentences replacing ‘as soon as’ by ‘No sooner than’
(Note : The phrase, ‘No sooner’ must always be followed by an auxiliary (helping verb).)
For example : As soon as he came, they all gave an applause.
No sooner did he come, than they all gave an applause.

(a) As soon as the Bill is passed, it will become an Act.
(b) As soon as the thief escaped, the family informed the police.
(c) As soon as you have finished, you can submit your answer- papers.
(d) As soon as they can manage, they should change their house.
(e) As soon as the bell rings, the School Assembly will start.
Answer:
(a) No sooner is the Bill passed, than it will become an Act.
(b) No sooner did the thief escape, than the family informed the police.
(c) No sooner do you finish, than you can submit your answer papers.
(d) No sooner can they manage, than they should change their house.
(e) No sooner does the bell ring, than the School Assembly will start.

Question 11.
Identify whether the following sentences are Simple (One Subject + One Predicate or Complex (One Main Clause + One or more Dependent Clauses) or Compound (Combination of 2 or more Independent/ Co-ordinate Clauses).
(1) They vary in type but they include forests, monuments etc.
(2) The mountain is significant because of its characteristics.
(3) To protect the temples and artefacts, UNESCO launched an international campaign.
(4) If the site meets with this criteria, it can be inscribed on the World Heritage List.
(5) There are 890 World Heritage Sites that are located in 148 countries.
(6) The project cost about US $ 80 million and $ 40 million came from 50 different countries.
Answer:
(1) Compound
(2) Simple
(3) Simple
(4) Complex
(5) Complex
(6) Compound

Question 12.
Following are the ways to preserve ‘World Heritage Sites.’ Transfer these points into a small paragraph. Suggest a title.

• Practical conservation of posterity
• Human/animal trespassing to be prohibited
• Monitored/controlled/restricted access
• Threat of local administrative negligence to be removed

Answer:
Ways to Preserve World Heritage Sites
World Heritage Sites need to be preserved for posterity. The future generations must know about their history and culture. For this purpose, steps have to be taken to preserve these sites. First and foremost, trespassing by either humans or animals should be strictly prohibited. Access to these sites for tourists, vendors, officials and the general public should be restricted or monitored carefully. Another important step is to keep a check on the local administration of the site, so that negligence in the performance of the duties at this level is ruled out.

Question 13.
Read the points given in column ‘A’ specifying Dos towards prevention of any historical site. Write Don’ts in column ‘B’ specifying things that should not be done.

	Dos	Don’ts
(i)	Obey rules and regulations.
(ii)	Maintain discipline and order.
(iii)	Maintain cleanliness.
(iv)	Use dustbins and garbage bags.
(v)	Observe silence.
(vi)	Maintain environmental safety.
(vii)	Protect our country’s heritage.

Answer:

Dos	Don’ts
1. Obey rules and regulations.	1. Don’t dirty the surroundings.
2. Maintain discipline and order.	2. Don’t write on the walls/trees.
3. Maintain cleanliness.	3. Don’t pluck flowers/ destroy plants.
4. Use dustbins and garbage bags.	4. Don’t smoke/ drink alcohol.
5. Observe silence.	5. Don’t play loud music or make a loud noise.
6. Maintain environmental safety.	6. Don’t defecate in the open.
7. Protect our country’s heritage.	7. Don’t trespass.

Question 14.
Complete the following flow chart by choosing the option given below to show how any site of any country can become a World Heritage Site.

Options :
1. Inclusion of the name of site from tentative list to the nomination file.
2. Name of the site is inscribed on the World Heritage List after meeting the criteria.
3. Inclusion of the name of site for the nomination in a tentative list after an inventory in country or State.
4. Decision of the World Heritage Committee after review of the nominated file.
5. A review of the included file by the advisory bodies.
Answer:
Step 1 : Inclusion of the name of the site for nomination in a tentative list after inventory in country or state.
Step 2 : Inclusion of the name of site from tentative list to the nomination file.
Step 3 : A review of the included file by the advisory bodies.
Step 4 : Decision of the World Heritage Committee after review of the nominated file.
Step 5 : Name of the site inscribed on the World Heritage List after meeting the criteria.

Question 15.
Projects :
(a) Make a list of sites from our State which are included in the World Heritage Sites. Try to visit one of them. Write the importance of this World Heritage Site. Also write your impression of it in your notebook.

(b) Write a ‘tourism leaflet’ on any one of the following :
(i) Your home town
(ii) A historical place
(iii) A place of natural beauty
(iv) A place of pilgrimage

→ Make use of the following points :
(i) How to reach there?
(ii) Accommodation facilities
(iii) What to see and visit?/Attractions of the place
(iv) Places of interest nearby
(v) Best time to visit
(vi) Shopping Attractions
Add your own points.
Answer:
MATHERAN: ‘UNSPOILT NATURE’
(1) How to get there:
(a) By train: From Mumbai or Pune to Neral Junction.. From Neral to Matheran by narrow – gauge train that depart at fixed times.
(b) By road: Shared taxis or minibuses from Neral to MTDC Holiday Camp. Cars and other vehicles not allowed beyond a certain point.
(2) Accommodation facilities: Plenty of hotels offering full or half board. MTDC Tourist Camp provides dorm – beds at affordable rates. The ‘camp’ is near the Dasturi car park. You can eat at one of the many thali joints along MG Road.
(3) Best Time of the year to visit: All the year round except the rainy season.
(4) What to see: Viewpoints such as Porcupine, Louisa and Echo have the finest views. On a clear day, one can see Mumbai lying afar from ‘Hart Point’; perpendicular cliffs plunge into steep ravines; monkeys and squirrels.
(5) Shopping Attractions: Locally made chappals, home – made chocolates and chikkis, caps and other items for campers; walking sticks.
(6) Special features: Greenery, nature at its best, trekking, horse riding; good for a day’s group picnic.

(c) Vocabulary Extension – Choose several words from the text. Use a dictionary or internet to build up more associations/collocations of each word.
Answer:
(1) Associations:

(2) Collocations:

(d) World Heritage Sites – Make a poster about World Heritage Sites, specifying some details and specialties about each of them.

(e) Letter – Write a letter to an expert on the environment. Ask him/her five questions about your concern/doubts about World Heritage sites. Give him/her three ideas on how to protect them.
Answer:
Amit Awte
102, Riddhi Vihar
R.N. Road
Aurangabad – 431 001,
12th November, 2020

To
Mr. Avinash Ranade
‘Nisarg’
Shastri Marg
Aurangabad – 431 002.
Sub: Protection of World Heritage Sites

Sir
It was with great interest that I read in our local newspaper about your interest in the protection of World Heritage Sites. I would like to ask you a few questions which have haunted me for some time.

They are:
(1) Does India have enough experts to restore the damage done to our sites by nature/visitors etc.?
(2) Is there enough security to protect the sites from vandalism?
(3) Can there be a restriction on the number of visitors to the sites?
(4) Are the funds allocated to the preservation of the sites by the World Heritage Committee sufficient?
(5) Is there enough information about the sites on tourist websites/ Internet?

I would like to give some suggestions. Can we not impose a limit on the number of tourists visiting these places? We can also have sessions on how to maintain cleanliness and prevent vandalism. Stiff fines must be imposed on all those who break the rules.

I hope to receive a reply from you, as I am also very concerned about the preservation of our heritage sites.

Yours faithfully,
Amit Awte

(f) Article – Write an article for a magazine about the World Heritage sites at risk. Include imaginary interviews with people who are trying to save them. Read your article in front of your class.

Question 16.
The project of dismantling and moving the temples in the valley to higher ground cost $80 million.
(i) $40 million
(ii) $50 million
(iii) $80 million.
Answer:
(iii) $80 million.

Question 17.
Complete the following: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
(1) A World Heritage Site should have significant …………………
(2) World Heritage Sites include ……………………..
(3) They can also be a ……………………..
(4) The convention concerning the protection of  Cultural Natural Herttage was adopted by ……………………
Answer:
(1) cultural or natural importance to humanity.
(2) combination of cultural and natural areas.
(3) forests, lakes, monuments, buildings and cities.
(4) UNESCO’s General Conference on November 16, 1972.

Question 18.
(a) UNESCO launched an international campaign in 1959.
Answer:
In 1954, Egypt started plans to build the Aswan High Dam. The initial plans for the dam’s construction would have flooded the valley containing the Abu Simbel Temples and scores of ancient Egyptian artifacts. To protect the temples and artifacts, UNESCO launched an international campaign in 1959, that called for the dismantling and movement of the temples to higher ground.

(b) A White House Conference in the United States called for a ‘World Heritage Trust’.
Answer:
A White House Conference in the United States called for a World Heritage Trust’ to protect the world’s historic and cultural sites as well as the significant natural and scenic sites.

(c) convention:
(i) typical
(ii) agreement
(iii) old – fashioned
(iv) persuade
Answer:
(d) agreement

Question 19.
Pick out 4 adjectives from the passage ending with the suffix ‘ – al’.
Answer:
1. educational,
2. cultural,
3. natural,
4. historical.

Question 20.
The World Heritage Committee meets once a year.
(i) once a year
(ii) twice a year
(iii) three times a year
Answer:
(i) once a year

Question 21.
A nominated site has to be first included in a Tentative List.
(i) World Heritage List
(ii) Nomination File
(iii) Tentative List
Answer:
(iii) Tentative List

Question 22.
Explain what the World Heritage Committee is responsible for.
Answer:
The World Heritage Committee is the main group responsible for establishing which sites will be listed as UNESCO World Heritage Sites.

Question 23.
Who makes recommendations to the World Heritage Committee?
Answer:
The recommendations to the World Heritage Committee are made by two Advisory Bodies, the International Council on Monuments and Sites and the World Conservation Union.

Question 24.
(1) Choose the correct noun forms from those given in the brackets:
(1) inscribed (inscription/inscribtion)
(2) responsible (responsive/responsibility)
(3) nominated (nominative/nomination)
(4) included (inclusion/inclution)
Answer:
(1) inscription
(2) responsibility
(3) nomination
(4) inclusion.

Question 25.
Complete the following by choosing the correct nouns from the box:
Bodies Parties List File
(1) Tentative ……………….
(2) Nomination ……………….
(3) Advisory ……………….
(4) State ……………….
Answer:
(1) Tentative List
(2) Nomination File
(3) Advisory Bodies
(4) State Parties.

Question 26.
World Heritage Committee can delete/exclude a site from the World Heritage List
(a) World Heritage Committee
(b) World Peace Committee
(c) World Health Committee
Answer:
(a) World Heritage Committee

Question 27.
There are 890 World Heritage Sites around the World.
(a) 689
(b) 890
(c) 36
Answer:
(b) 890

Question 28.
36 – sites have been included from India.
(a) 176
(b) 44
(c) 36
Answer:
(c) 36

Question 29.
Match the places with the countries:

‘A’	‘B’
(1) Sydney Opera House	(a) Vienna
(2) Historic Center	(b) Peru
(3) Grand Canyon National Park	(c) Australia
(4) Machu Pichhu	(d) United States

Answer:

‘A’	‘B’
(1) Sydney Opera House	(c) Australia
(2) Historic Center	(a) Vienna
(3) Grand Canyon National Park	(d) United States
(4) Machu Pichhu	(b) Peru

Question 30.
Complete the following:
(1) Peru’s Machu Picchu is an example of a ………………….
(2) The World Heritage Committee can choose to delete a site from the list if ……………….
Answer:
(1) mixed site, both cultural as well as natural.
(2) the site loses the characteristics which allowed for it to originally be included on the World Heritage List.

Question 31.
Explain the role of the World Heritage Committee.
Answer:
The World Heritage Committee allocates resources from the World Heritage Fund to a World Heritage Site which is in danger due to any reason or in need of protection or restoration. If a site loses the characteristics which allowed for it to originally be included on the World Heritage List, the World Heritage Committee can choose to delete the site from the list.

Question 32.
Choose the correct meanings:
(a) allocate:
(i) allow
(ii) distribute
(iii) catch
(iv) understand
Answer:
(b) distribute

Question 33.
Fill in the blanks with the correct words from the passage: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
(a) Many small towns of the previous century have become crowded cities now due to rapid ………………..
(b) We should be well – prepared for …………….. problems like global warming.
Answer:
(a) urbanization.
(b) environmental

Question 34.
(1) Pick out a gerund from the lesson and use – it in your own sentence.
(2) Find out five hidden words from the given word: international
(3) Use the following phrase in your own sentence: a corhbination of
(4) Spot the error/errors and rewrite the correct sentence: The State Parties is then responsible for identifying and nominating new sites.
(5) Identify the type of sentence: Get out of my way.
(6) Punctuate: if however a site loses the characteristics which allowed for it to be originally included on the world heritage list the world heritage committee can choose to delete the site from the list.
(7) From the following verbs, pick out the verb which forms its present and past participle by doubling the last letter. run, lose, trip, quit
(8) Arrange the following words in alphabetical order: Sydney, Vienna, Austria, Peru, Australia, Egypt, China
Answer:
(1) protecting: We should think of various ways of protecting our environment.
(2) internatIonal : natIonal, nation, train, trail, trial.
(3) The rainbow is a combination of seven colours.
(4) The State Parties are then responsible for identifying and nominating new sites.
(5) Imperative sentence.
(6) If however, a site loses the characteristics which allowed for it to be originally included on the World Heritage List, the World Heritage Committee can choose to delete the site from the list.
(7) trip : tripped, trIpping.
(8) Australia, Austria, China, Egypt, Peru, Sydney, Vienna

Question 35.
(1) Use the following word and its homophone in two separate sentences : rain
(2) UNESCO launched an International campaign In 1959. (Rewrite beginning ‘An lnternattonal…..)
(3) DIfferent plans are put Into place. (Rewrite using the future perfect tense of the verb.)
Answer:
(1) (i) There was light rain yesterday evening near my house.
(ii) In the past, a cõuntry progressed dutlng the reign of good kings.
(2) An international campaign was launched by UNESCO in 1959.
(3) Different plans will have been put into place.

Question 36.
(1) Italy has the highest number of World Heritage Sites. (Rewrite using the comparative form.)
(2) The World Heritage Committee meets once a year to review these recommendations. (Rewrite as a compound sentence.)
Answer:
(1) Italy has a higher number of World Heritage Sites than any other country.
(2) The World Heritage Committee meets once a year and (it) reviews these recommendations.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 8 Metallurgy Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 8 Metallurgy

Question 1.
a. Alloy of sodium with mercury.
Answer:
Silver amalgam.

b.Molecular formula of common ore of aluminium.
Answer:
Al₂O₃.nH₂O

c. The oxide that forms salt and water by reacting with both acid and base.
Answer:
Aluminium oxide (Al₂O₃).

d. device used for grinding an ore.
Answer:
The device used for grinding an ore is grinding mill.

e. The nonmetal having electrical conductivity.
Answer:
Graphite having electrical conductivity.

f. The reagent that dissolves noble metals.
Answer:
Aqua regia is the reagent that dissolves noble metals like gold and platinum.

Question 2.
Make pairs of substances and their properties.

Column I	Column II
Substance	Property
(1) Potassium bromide	(a) Combustible
(2) Gold	(b) Soluble in water
(3) Sulphur	(c) No chemical reaction
(4) Neon	(d) High ductility
	(e) Magnetic ingredient

Answer:
(1) Potassium bromide – Soluble in water
(2) Gold – High ductility
(3) Sulphur – Combustible
(4) Neon – No chemical reaction

Question 3.
Identify the pairs of metals and their ores from the following.

Column I (ores)	Column II (metals)
(1) Bauxite	(a) Mercury
(2) Cassiterite	(b) Aluminium
(3) Cinnabar	(c) Tin
	(d) Copper

Answer:
(1) Bauxite – Aluminium
(2) Cassiterite – Tin
(3) Cinnabar – Mercury

Question 4.
Explain the terms.
a. Metallurgy
Answer:
Metallurgy: The process used for extraction of metals in their pure form from their ores, then metals are further purified by different methods of purification. All the process is called metallurgy.

b. Ores.
Answer:
Ores: The minerals from which metals are extracted profitably and conveniently are called ores.
Examples: Bauxite (Al₂O₃.H₂O), Cinnabar (HgS).

c. Minerals.
Answer:
Minerals: The naturally occurring compounds of metals along with other impurities are known as minerals.
Examples: Rocks are composed of mixtures of minerals. Talc and granite are minerals.

d. Gangue.
Answer:
Gangue: Ores contain metal compounds with some of the impurities like soil, sand, rocky material, etc. These impurities are called gangue.

Question 5.
Write scientific reasons.
a. Lemon or tamarind is used for cleaning copper vessels turned greenish.
Answer:

• Copper undergoes oxidation in air to form black copper oxide. Copper oxide reacts slowly with carbon dioxide in air and gains a green coat. This green substance is copper carbonate.
• Lemon and tamarind contain acid. The acid dissolves the green coating of basic copper carbonate present on the surface of a tarnished copper utensil and makes it shiny again.

b. Generally the ionic compounds have high melting points.
Answer:

• The ionic compounds exist in solid state and are hard due to strong electrostatic force of attraction between oppositely charged ions.
• The intermolecular force of attraction is high in ionic compounds and large energy is required to overcome it. Therefore, ionic compounds have high melting points.

c. Sodium is always kept in kerosene.
(OR)
Why is sodium stored in kerosene?
Answer:

• Sodium reacts so vigorously with atmospheric oxygen that it catches fire if kept in the open.
• It does not react with kerosene and sinks in it. Hence, to protect sodium and to prevent accidental fires it is always kept in kerosene.

d. Pine oil is used in the froth floatation process.
Answer:

• In the concentration of an ore by froth floatation process, the ore is mixed with water and pine oil. When air is bubbled through the mixture a froth is formed.
• The mineral particles in the ore are preferentially wetted by the oil and float on the top in the froth.
• The gangue particles are wetted by water and settle down. Thus the mineral can be separated from the gangue and the ore is concentrated.

e. Anodes need to be replaced from time to time during the electrolysis of alumina.
Answer:

• During electrolysis of alumina, the oxygen liberated at the carbon anode reacts with graphite rods (carbon anode) and forms carbon dioxide.
• As the anodes get oxidised during electrolysis of alumina, they are continuously eroded. Hence, it is necessary to replace anodes from time to time.

Question 6.
When a copper coin is dipped in silver nitrate solution, a glitter appears on the coin after some time. Why does this happen? Write the chemical equation.
Answer:
When a copper coin is dipped in a silver nitrate solution, more reactive copper displaces silver from silver nitrate solution. The silver so liberated deposits on the copper coin. As a result, a shiny coat of silver is formed on the coin.
Cu_(s) + 2AgNO_3(aq) → Cu(NO₃)_2(aq) + 2Ag_(s)

Question 7.
The electronic configuration of metal ‘A’ is 2, 8, 1 and that of metal ‘B’ is 2, 8, 2. Which of the two metals is more reactive? Identify these metals. Write their reaction with dilute hydrochloric acid. (Practice Activity Sheet – 1)
Answer:
If the number of electrons in the outermost orbit is less, then the metal is more reactive. Metal A contains one electron in the outermost shell, while metal B contains two electrons. Hence, metal A is more reactive than metal B.

Metal A is sodium and metal B is magnesium. Reactions of Na and Mg with dil. HCl are,

Question 8.
Draw a neat labelled diagram.
a. Magnetic separation method.
Answer:

b. Forth floatation.
Answer:

c. Electrolytic reduction of alumina.
Answer:

d. Hydraulic separation method.
Answer:

Question 9.
Write chemical equation for the following events.
a. Aluminium came in contact with air.
Answer:
When aluminium is exposed to air, it develops a thin oxide layer of aluminium.

b. Iron filings are dropped in aqueous solution of copper sulphate.
Answer:
When iron filings are dropped in copper sulphate solution, more reactive iron displaces copper from copper sulphate solution. The iron filings get coated with reddish brown copper metal and the blue colour of copper sulphate fades gradually and ferrous sulphate is formed.

c. A reaction was brought about between ferric oxide and aluminium.
Answer:
The reaction between ferric oxide and iron produces aluminium oxide and iron. It is a thermite reaction and is highly exothermic.
It produces a large amount of heat, which is released to melt oxygen and aluminium. This reaction is used in welding of machineries. It is also used in warfare to make grenades.

The chemical reaction for the above is as follows:
3Fe₃O₂ + 4Al → 2Al₂O₃ + 6Fe

d. Electrolysis of alumina is done.
Answer:
During electrolysis of alumina, aluminium is deposited at the cathode. Molten aluminium being heavier than the electrolyte, is collected at the bottom of the tank. Oxygen gas is liberated at the anode.
Anode reaction: 2O^–– → O₂ + 4e^– (Oxidation)
Cathode reaction: Al³⁺ + 3e^– → Al_(l) (Reduction)

e. Zinc oxide is dissolved in dilute hydrochloric acid.
Answer:
Zinc oxide is dissolved in dilute hydrochloric acid, zinc chloride and water are formed.

Question 10.
Complete the following statement using every given options.
During the extraction of aluminium
a. Ingredients and gangue in bauxite.
b. Use of leuching during the concentration of ore.
c. Chemical reaction of transformation of bauxite into alumina by Hall’s process.
d. Heating the aluminium ore with concentrated caustic soda.
Answer:
c. Chemical reaction of transformation of bauxite into alumina by Hall’s process.

Question 11.
Divide the metals Cu, Zn, Ca, Mg, Fe, Na, Li into three groups, namely, reactive metals, moderately reactive metals and less reactive metals.
Answer:
Reactive metals: Na, Li, Ca
Moderately reactive metals: Zn, Fe, Mg,
Less reactive metals: Cu

Project: (Do it your self)

Collect metal vessels and various metal articles. Write detailed informciton. write the steps in the procedure that can be done in the laboratory for giving glitter to these. Seek guidance from your teacher.

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 93)

Question 1.
what are the physical properties of metals and nonmetals?
Answer:
Properties of metals:

1. Solid state (Exception: Mercury and gallium)
2. Typical lustre
3. Malleability and ductility
4. Hardness (Exception: Lithium, sodium and potassium)
5. Good conductors of heat and electricity
6. High melting and boiling points (On the other hand, the melting and boiling points of the metals sodium, potassium, mercury and galium are very low.)
7. Sonorous and produce sound on striking a hard surface.

Properties or nonmetals:

1. Gaseous or solid state (Exception: Bromine in liquid state)
2. Lack of any typical lustre (Exception: Iodine and Diamond)
3. Brittleness in the solid state (Exception: Diamond is the hardest natural substance)
4. Bad conductors of heat and electricity (Exception: Graphite) (Diamond is good conductor of heat)
5. Low melting and boiling points.

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 102)

Question 1.
What is the electronic definition of oxidation and reduction?
Answer:
When a metal loses çlectrons the process is called an oxidation while when a nonmetal gains electrons, it is called a reduction,
Na → Na⁺ + e^– (oxidation)
Cl^– + e^– → Cl (reduction)

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 106)

Question 1.
What is meant by corrosion?
Answer:
Corrosion is degradation of a material due toreaction with its environment.

Question 2.
Have you observed the following things?
(1) Old iron bars in the builthngs.
Answer:
When old iron bars in the buildings are exposed to moist air for a long time, they acquire a coating of browm nlaky substance called rust. (Fe₂O₃.H₂O)

(2) Copper vessels not cleaned for a long time.
Answer:
If copper vessels are not cleaned for a long time, they react with moist carbon dioxide in the air, lose their shine and gain a green coat of copper carbonate. (CuCO3)

Question 3.
Silver ornaments or idols exposed to air for a long time.
Answer:
When silver ornaments or idols are kept exposed to air for a long time, silver reacts with sulphur in the air to form a coating of black silver sulphide. (Ag₂S)

Question 4.
Old vehicles fit to be thrown away.
Answer:
The metallic parts of the body of old cars are corroded, eaten up and sometimes become perforated. The old cars also lose the original colour due to formation of flakes of rust.

Use your brain power! (Text Book Page No. 98)

Question 1.
In the reaction between chlorine and HBr a transformation or HBr into Br₂ takes place. Can this transformation be called oxidation? What Is the oxidant that brings about this oxidation?
Answer:
The conversion of HBr to Br₂ is an oxidation process. In the above reaction, Cl₂ in the oxidant.

Can you tell? (Text Book Page No. 104)

Question 1.
what are the moderately reactive metals?
Answer:
In the middle of the reactivity series, metals such as iron. zinc, lead, copper are moderately reactive.

Question 2.
In which form to the moderately reactive metals occur in nature?
Answer:
The moderately reactive metals which occur in nature are in the form of their sulphide salts or carbonate salts.

Think about it (Text Book Page No. 106)

Question 1.
Why do silver articles turn blackish while copper vessels turn greenish on keeping in air for long time?
Answer:

1. Silver articles turn blackish on exposure to air for a long time. This is because of silver sulphide (Ag₂S) laver formed on the silver articles by the reaction of silver with hydrogen sulphide.
2. Carbon dioxide in moist air reacts with copper vessel. Copper loses its lustre due to formation of greenish layer of copper carbonate (CuCO₃) on its surface.

Question 2.
Why do pure gold and platinum always glitter?
Answer:
Gold and platinum are noble metals as they do not react with moisture, O₂ and CO₂ from air also acids and alkalis, therefore, pure gold and platinum always glitter.

Use your brain power! (Text Book Page No. 103)

Question 1.
Write the electrode reaction for electrolysis of molten magnesium chloride and calcium chloride.
Answer:
(1) Magnesium chloride (MgCl₂):
MgCl₂ → Mg²⁺ + 2Cl^–
At the cathode: Mg²⁺ + 2e^– → Mg
At the anode: 2Cl^– → Cl₂ + 2e^–

(2) Calcium chloride (CaCl2):
At the cathode: Ca²⁺ + 2e^– → Ca
At the anode: 2Cl^– → Cl₂ + 2e^–

Can you tell? (Text Book Page No. 106)

Question 1.
Which measures would you suggest to stop the corrosion of metallic articles or not allow the corrosion to start?
Answer:
Various types of methods are used to protect metals from corrosion. Almost in all the methods, special attention is paid so that iron does not rust. It is possible to lower the rate of the process of rusting of iron. Corrosion of metals can be stopped by detaching the air from metals.

Some methods are as follows :

1. To fix a layer of some substance on the metal surface so that the contact of the metal with moisture and oxygen in the air is prevented and no reaction would occur between them.
2. To prevent corrosion of metals by applying a layer of paint, oil, grease or varnish on their surface. For example, corrosion of iron can be prevented by this method.

Question 2.
What is done so to prevent rusting of iron windows and iron doors of your house?
Answer:
To prevent rusting of iron windows and iron doors in the house, they are painted so that they do not rust.

Question 3.
What is done so to prevent rusting or iron windows and iron doors of your house?
Answer:
To prevent rusting of iron windows and iron doors in the house, they are painted so that they do not rust.

Use your brain power! (Text Book Page No. 107)

Question 1.
Can we permanently prevent the rusting of an iron article by applying a layer of paint on its surface?
Answer:
The method of painting is alright for some time. We cannot protect the articles permanently from rusting by painting them.

Question 2.
Why do new iron sheets appear shiny?
Answer:
The new iron sheets appear shiny because a layer of non-corrosionable metal is fixed on the surface of corrosionable metal.

Collect information. (Text Book Page No. 108)

Question 1.
What are the various alloys used in daily life? Where are those used?
Answer:

Various alloys	Uses
1. Bronze	It is used to prepare: Coins, utensils, medals, statues
2. Brass	Pipes, condenser tubes, utensils worshipping God.
3. Stainless steel	Utensils, tools, dairy equipment, boilers.
4. Steel	Construction of bridges and buildings, cutting tools, blades.
5. Tungsten steel	High speed cutting tools
6. Amalgam	Silver amalgam used by dentists
7. Duralumin	Bodies of aircraft, buses, kitchenwares
8. Aluminium bronze	Pigment in ink and paint
9. German silver	Electrical heaters, resistors
10. Gun metal	Guns, boiler fittings
11. Magnelium	Beams of scientific balances, aircraft parts.
12. Gold with copper or nickel or silver or platinum	Jewellery

Question 2.
What are the properties that the alloy used for minting coins should have?
Answer:
The alloy used for minting coins should have excellent wear resistance and anti-corrosion properties.

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
……………has the highest melting point.
Answer:
Tungsten has the highest melting point.

Question 2.
Mercury and…………are two metals in the liquid state at room temperature.
Answer:
Mercury and galium are two metals in the liquid state at room temperature.

Question 3.
…………is the hardest natural substance.
Answer:
Diamond is the hardest natural substance.

Question 4.
The naturally occurring compounds of metals along with other impurities are known as………….
Answer:
The naturally occurring compounds of metals along with other impurities are known as minerals.

Question 5.
The minerals from which metals are extracted profitably and conveniently are called…………..
Answer:
The minerals from which metals are extracted profitably and conveniently are called ores.

Question 6.
An ore contains some of the impurities like soil, sand, etc. These impurities are called…………
Answer:
An ore contains some of the impurities like soil, sand, etc. These impurities are called gangue.

Question 7.
The process of extraction of a metal from its ore is called……….
Answer:
The process of extraction of a metal from its ore is called metallurgy.

Question 8.
Bauxite is a common ore of………..
Answer:
Bauxite is a common ore of aluminium.

Question 9.
…………. process is used for the purification of bauxite.
Answer:
Bayer’s process is used for the purification of bauxite.

Question 10.
During the electrolysis of alumina, ………..is liberated at the anode.
Answer:
During the electrolysis of alumina, oxygen is liberated at the anode.

Question 11.
The reaction of iron oxide with aluminium is known as…………..reaction.
Answer:
The reaction of iron oxide with aluminium is known as thermit reaction.

Question 12.
The process of coating a thin layer of zinc on iron is known as…………
Answer:
The process of coating a thin layer of zinc on iron is known as galvanising.

Question 13.
The metal that produces a sound on striking a hard surface is said to be………….
Answer:
The metal that produces a sound on striking a hard surface is said to be sonorous.

Question 14.
The process in which carbonate ores are changed into oxides by heating strongly in limited air is known as …………….
Answer:
The process in which carbonate ores are changed into oxides by heating strongly in limited air is known as calcination.

Question 15.
…………compounds are insoluble in solvents like kerosene and petrol.
Answer:
Ionic compounds are insoluble in solvents like kerosene and petrol.

Question 16.
…………… is used to obtain pure metals from impure metals.
Answer:
Electrolys is method is used to obtain pure metals from impure metals.

Question 17.
Corrosion can be prevented-by putting a layer of…………metal on corrosionable metal.
Answer:
Corrosion can be prevented by putting a layer of non-corrosionable metal on corrosionable metal.

Rewrite the following statements by selecting the correct options:

Question 1.
………… is a metal.
(a) Mg
(b) S
(c) P
(d) Br
Answer:
Mg is a metal.

Question 2.
………. is a nonmetal.
(a) Au
(b) Hg
(c) Br
(d) Cu
Answer:
Br is a nonmetal.

Question 3.
………… is a metalloid.
(a) Aluminium
(b) Antimony
(c) Zinc
(d) Mercury
Answer:
Antimony is a metalloid.

Question 4.
Metalloids have properties of ………..
(a) metals
(b) nonmetals
(c) both metals and nonmetals
(d) neither metals nor nonmetals
Answer:
Metalloids have properties of both metals and nonmetals.

Question 5.
…………. is a good conductor of electricity.
(a) Bromine
(b) Iodine
(c) Graphite
(d) Sulphur
Answer:
Graphite is a good conductor of electricity.

Question 6.
………. is a metal which is in liquid form at ordinary temperature and pressure.
(a) Magnesium
(b) Sodium
(c) Scandium
(d) Mercury
Answer:
Mercury is a metal which is in liquid form at ordinary temperature and pressure.

Question 7.
………. is an amphoteric oxide.
(a) Na₂O
(b) MgO
(c) ZnO
(d) SO₂
Answer:
ZnO is an amphoteric oxide.

Question 8.
……….. is an acidic oxide.
(a) Na₂O
(b) CO₂
(c) FeO₃
(d) H₂O
Answer:
CO₂ is an acidic oxide.

Question 9.
………. is a basic oxide.
(a) CO₂
(b) K₂O
(C) SO₂
(d) Al₂O₃
Answer:
K₂O is a basic oxide.

Question 10.
………… is an ore of aluminium.
(a) Cryolite
(b) Bauxite
(c) Haematite
(d) Aluminium carbonate
Answer:
Bauxite is an ore of aluminium.

Question 11.
Bronze is an alloy of ………..
(a) copper and tin
(b) copper and zinc
(c) copper and iron
(d) iron and nickel
Answer:
Bronze is an alloy of copper and tin.

Question 12.
An alloy prepared from iron, nickel and chromium is known as …………
(a) brass
(b) bronze
(c) stainless steel
(d) amalgam
Answer:
An alloy prepared from iron, nickel and chromium is known as stainless steel.

Question 13.
…………. is an allotropic form of a nonmetal which conducts electricity.
(a) Sulphur
(b) Graphite
(c) Chlorine
(d) Iodine
Answer:
Graphite is an allotropic form of a nonmetal which conducts electricity.

Question 14.
………….. has an oxide which is soluble in sodium hydroxide.
(a) Calcium
(b) Magnesium
(c) Iron
(d) Zinc.
Answer:
Zinc has an oxide which is soluble in sodium hydroxide.

Question 15.
………… prevents the rusting of iron.
(a) Copper
(b) Zinc
(c) Aluminium
(d) Silver
Answer:
Zinc prevents the rusting of iron.

Question 16.
………….. is obtained by the reduction of its oxide by carbon.
(a) Zinc
(b) Aluminium
(c) Sodium
(d) Potassium
Answer:
Zinc is obtained by the reduction of its oxide by carbon.

Question 17.
………….. is used as an anode during the electrolytic reduction of bauxite.
(a) Sulphur
(b) Graphite
(c) Platinum
(d) Aluminium
Answer:
Graphite is used as an anode during the electrolytic reduction of bauxite.

Question 18.
Silver gets corroded due to ………… in air.
(a) oxygen
(b) hydrogen sulphide
(c) carbon dioxide
(d) nitrogen
Answer:
Silver gets corroded due to hydrogen sulphide in air.

Question 19.
…………. is the hardest substance and has the highest melting and boiling points.
(a) Iodine
(b) Sulphur
(c) Diamond
(d) Phosphorus
Answer:
Diamond is the hardest substance and has the highest melting and boiling points.

Question 20.
Jewellery articles are gold plated ………….
(a) to prevent corrosion
(b) to prevent rusting of the base metal
(c) to make articles attractive
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 21.
To show that zinc is more reactive than copper, the correct procedure is to ………..
(a) prepare copper sulphate solution and dip a zinc strip in it
(b) prepare zinc sulphate solution and dip a copper strip in it
(c) heat together zinc and copper strips
(d) add dil. nitric acid to both the strips
Answer:
To show that zinc is more reactive than copper, the correct procedure is to prepare copper sulphate solution and dip a zinc strip in it.

Question 22.
Iron is ………
(a) more reactive than zinc
(b) more reactive than aluminuium
(c) less reactive than copper
(d) less reactive than aluminium
Answer:
Iron is less reactive than aluminium.

Question 23.
A solution of Al₂(SO₄)₃ in water is …………
(a) blue
(b) pink
(c) green
(d) colourless
Answer:
A solution of Al₂(SO₄)₃ in water is colourless.

Question 24.
A solution of ………… in water is blue in colour.
(a) CuSO₄
(b) FeSO₄
(c) ZnSO₄
(d) Al₂(SO₄)₃
Answer:
A solution of CuSO₄ in water is blue in colour.

Question 25.
A solution of …………. n water is green in colour.
(a) CuSO₄
(b) FeSO₄
(c) ZnSO₄
(d) Al₂(SO₄)₃
Answer:
A solution of FeSO₄ in water is green in colour.

Question 26.
What would be the correct order if Zn, Fe, Al and Cu are arranged in increasing order of reactivity?
(a) Cu, Fe, Zn, Al
(b) Al, Cu, Fe, Zn
(c) Zn, Al, Cu, Fe
(d) Fe, Zn, Al, Cu (Practice Activity Sheet – 2)
Answer:
(a) Cu, Fe, Zn, Al

Question 27.
During the extraction of aluminium ……….
(a) Ingredients and gangue in bauxite
(b) Use of leaching during the concentration of ore
(c) Chemical reaction of transformation of bauxite into alumina by Hall’s process.
(d) Heating the aluminium ore with concentrated caustic soda.
Answer:
During the extraction of aluminium Chemical reaction of transformation of bauxite into alumina by Hall’s process.

Question 28.
A solution of CuSO₄ in water is ………… in colour.
(a) pink
(b) blue
(c) colourless
(d) green
Answer:
A solution of CuSO₄ in water is blue in colour.

Question 29.
Which of the following process is to be carried out to avoid the formation of greenish layer on brass vessels due to corrosion?
(a) Plating
(b) Anodization
(c) Tinning
(d) Alloying (Practice Activity Sheet – 3)
Answer:
(c) Tinning

State whether the following statements are True or False (If a statement is false, correct it and rewrite it.):

Question 1.
Metals are known as sonar metals.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Diamond is the softest natural substance.
Answer:
False. (Diamond is the hardest natural substance.)

Question 3.
Electrolysis method is used to obtain pure metals from impure metals.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
Iodine and diamond are lustrous substances.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
Aqua Regia is a mixture of conc. HCl and conc. HNO₃ in the ratio of 1:3.
Answer:
False. (Aqua Regia is a mixture of conc. HCl and conc. HNO₃ in the ratio of 3:1.)

Question 6.
Corrosion of metals can be stopped by detaching the air from metals.
Answer:
True.

Question 7.
Due to corrosion a greenish layer forms on the surface of copper or brass vessel.
Answer:
True.

Question 8.
Ionic compounds are soluble in kerosene.
Answer:
False. (Ionic compounds are soluble in water and insoluble in kerosene.)

Question 9.
Ionic compounds in the solid state conduct electricity.
Answer:
False. (Ionic compounds in the solid state do not conduct electricity.)

Question 10.
Mercury, silver and gold are very reactive metals.
Answer:
False. (Mercury, silver and gold are least reactive metals.)

Question 11.
In electroplating a metal is coated with another metal using electrolysis.
Answer:
True.

Question 12.
In anodising method. the copper or aluminium article is used as anode.
Answer:
True.

Question 13.
Silver plated spoon, gold plated ornaments are the examples of alloying.
Answer:
False. (Silver plated spoon, gold plated ornaments are the examples of electroplating)

Question 14.
silver amalgam is mainly used by dentists.
Answer:
True.

Question 15.
Aluminium oxide is an acidic oxide.
Answer:
False. (Aluminium oxide is an amphoteric oxide.)

Question 16.
copper reacts with moist carbon form copper carbonate.
Answer:
True.

Question 17.
Corrosion is degradation of a reaction with its environment.
Answer:
True.

Find the correlation in the given pair and rewrite the answer:

Question 1.
Brass : Copper and Zinc :: Bronze :………….
Answer:
Brass : Copper and Zinc :: Bronze : Copper and tin

Question 2.
Tinning : Tin :: Galvanizing :…………….
Answer:
Tinning : Tin :: Galvanizing : Zinc

Question 3.
Pressure cooker : Anodizing :: Silver plated spoons :…………..
Answer:
Pressure cooker : Anodizing :: Silver plated spoons : Electro-plating

Question 4.
The sulphides ores are strongly heated in air : Roasting :: The carbonates ores are strongly heated in a limited supply of air :………….
Answer:
The sulphides ores are strongly heated in air : Roasting :: The carbonates ores are strongly heated in a limited supply of air : Calcination.

Question 5.
Sulphide ores : Froth floatation method : Cassiterite ore :………..
Answer:
Sulphide ores : Froth floatation method : Cassiterite ore : Magnetic separation method.

Find the odd one out:

Question 1.
Sodium, Potassium, Silver, Sulphur
Answer:
Sulphur. (All except sulphur, others are metals.)

Question 2.
Boron, Chlorine, Bromine, Fluorine
Answer:
Boron. (All except boron, others are nonmetals.)

Question 3.
Copper, Iron, Mercury, Brass
Answer:
Brass. (All except brass, others are metals.)

Question 4.
Brass, Bronze, Phosphorus, Stainless steel
Answer:
Phosphorus. (All except phosphorus, others are alloys.)

Question 5.
Magnesium chloride, Sodium chloride, Water, Zinc chloride
Answer:
Water. (All except water, others are ionic compounds.)

Question 6.
Tinning, Anodization, Alloying, Froth floatation (March 2019)
Answer:
Froth floatation. (All except froth floatation, others are processes of coating a thin layer of metal on the surface of other metals.)

Match the following:

Question 1.

Column I	Column II
(1) ZnS	(a) Cuprous sulphide
(2) HgS	(b) Bauxite
(3) Cu2S	(c) Zinc blend
(4) Al2O3.H2O	(d) Cinnabar
	(e) Cryolite

Answer:
(1) ZnS – Zinc blend
(2) HgS – Cinnabar
(3) Cu₄S – Cuprous sulphide
(4) Al₂O₃.H₂O – Bauxite.

Question 2.

Column I	Column II
(1) Copper and zinc	(a) Stainless steel
(2) Copper and tin	(b) Zinc amalgam
(3) Iron, nickel and chromium	(c) Bronze
(4) Mercury and zinc	(d) Brass
	(e) Steel

Answer:
(1) Copper and zinc – Brass
(2) Copper and tin – Bronze
(3) Iron, nickel and chromium – Stainless steel
(4) Mercury and zinc – Zinc amalgam.

Question 3.

Column I	Column II
(1) Galvanising	(a) Pressure cooker
(2) Tinning	(b) Silver plated spoons
(3) Electroplating	(c) Coating of tin on copper
(4) Anodizing	(d) Coating of Zn on iron

Answer:
(1) Galvanising – Coating of Zn on iron
(2) Tinning – Coating of tin on copper
(3) Electroplating – Silver plated spoons
(4) Anodizing – Pressure cooker.

Translate the following statements into chemical equations and then balance them:

Question 1.
steam is passed over aluminium.
Answer:

Question 2.
Extraction of copper from its sulphide ore.
Answer:

Question 3.
Thermit reaction.
Answer:

Question 4.
Magnesium reacts with hot water.
Answer:

Question 5.
what happens when aluminium oxide dissolves in aqueous sodium hydroxide?
Answer:

Question 6.
Zinc reacts with sulphuric acid.
Answer:

Question 7.
Iron reacts with sulphuric acid.
Answer:

Name the following:

Question 1.
A metal which forms an amphoteric oxide.
Answer:
Aluminium forms an amphoteric oxide.

Question 2.
An alloy of copper and zinc.
Answer:
An alloy of copper and zinc is termed as brass.

Question 3.
A compound which is added to lower the fusion temperature.
Answer:
Cryolite (AlF₃, 3NaF) and fluorspar (CaF₂) are added to lower the fusion temperature.

Question 4.
A metal which does not react with cold water but reacts with steam.
Answer:
Aluminium does not react With cold water but reacts with Steam.

Question 5.
A common ore of aluminium.
Answer:
Bauxite (Al₂O₃.H₂O) is a common ore of aluminium.

Question 6.
A metal which is in liquid state at ordinary temperature.
Answer:
Mercury is in liquid state at ordinary temperature.

Question 7.
Two metals which are malleable.
Answer:
Iron and aluminium are malleable metals.

Question 8.
Two metals which are ductile.
Answer:
Gold and silver are ductile metals.

Question 9.
Two metals which are good conductors of heat.
Answer:
Silver and copper are good conductors of heat.

Question 10.
Two metals which are good conductors of electricity.
Answer:
Copper and aluminium are good conductors of electricity.

Question 11.
Two metals which are used for making cooking vessels.
Answer:
Copper and aluminium are used in making cooking vessels.

Question 12.
Two metals having low melting points.
Answer:
Sodium and potassium have low melting points.

Question 13.
Two highly reactive metals.
Answer:
Sodium and potassium are highly reactive metals.

Question 14.
A nonmetal which is in liquid state at room temperature.
Answer:
Bromine is in liquid state at room temperature.

Question 15.
Two ionic compounds.
Answer:
Sodium chloride (NaCl) and magnesium chloride (MgCl₂) are ionic compounds.

Question 16.
The process of heating the sulphide ore to a high temperature in the excess of air.
Answer:
In roasting, sulphide ore is heated to a high temperature in the excess of air.

Question 17.
The process of heating the carbonate ore to a high temperature in limited air.
Answer:
In calcination, carbonated ore is heated to a high temperature in limited air.

Question 18.
The compound formed by the reaction between aluminium oxide and sodium hydroxide.
Answer:
Sodium aluminate is formed by the reaction between aluminium oxide and sodium hydroxide.

Question 19.
Two metals which are found in the free state in nature.
Answer:
Gold (Au) and silver (Ag) are found in the free state in nature.

Question 20.
A metal which has the highest melting point.
Answer:
Tungsten has the highest melting point.

Question 21.
Two nonmetals which are lustrous.
Answer:
Iodine and diamond are lustrous in nature.

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question 1.
State the property of the metals due to which they can be drawn into wires.
Answer:
The property of the metal due to which they can be drawn into wires is called ductility.

Question 2.
State the property of the metals due to which they can be beaten into thin sheets.
Answer:
The property of the metals due to which they can be beaten into thin sheets is called malleability.

Question 3.
Which is the hardest substance?
Answer:
Diamond which is a form of carbon is the hardest substance.

Question 4.
What material is used to coat electrical wires?
Answer:
PVC (Polyvinyl chloride) is used to coat electrical wires.

Question 5.
State two metals which can be cut easily with a knife.
Answer:
Sodium and potassium are soft metals and can be cut easily with a knife.

Question 6.
Which of the following metals react with cold water?
Sodium, iron, copper, potassium.
Answer:
Sodium and potassium metals react with cold water.

Question 7.
Which of the following metals do not react with cold water or hot water?
Sodium, potassium, aluminium, iron.
Answer:
Aluminium and iron do not react with cold water or hot water.

Question 8.
State two metals which displace hydrogen from dilute acids and two metals which do not do so.
Answer:
Metals which displace hydrogen from dilute acids are: Magnesium and zinc.
Metals which do not displace hydrogen from dilute acids are: Copper and silver.

Question 9.
Arrange the following metals in the increasing order of their activity:
Copper, Silver, Aluminium, Iron. (Practice Activity Sheet – 1)
Answer:
The arrangement of metals in the increasing order of their activity:
Silver < Copper < Iron < Aluminium

Question 10.
Write the chemical equation for the reaction of hot iron with steam.
Answer:

Question 11.
Complete the following reactions:
(1) Zn_(s) + H₂O_(g) → _____________

Answer:
(1) Zn_(s) + H₂O_(g) → ZnO_(s) + H_2(g)

Question 12.
Complete the following reactions:

Answer:

Question 13.
3MnO₂ + 4Al → 3Mn + 2Al₂O₃ + heat.
Identify the substances undergone oxidation and reduction reactions.
Answer:
MnO₂ is reduced to Mn.
Al is oxidised to Al₂O₃

Question 14.
State the impurities present in the bauxite ore.
Answer:
The main impurities present in the bauxite ore are silica (SiO₂) and iron oxide (Fe₂O₃).

Question 15.
Write the formula of (i) bauxite (ii) cryolite.
Answer:
The formula of bauxite is Al₂O_3·H₂O and that of cryolite is (Na₃AlF₆).

Question 16.
What is galvanization?
Answer:
The process of coating a thin layer of zinc on iron or steel is called galvanization.

Question 17.
Name the reaction in which aluminium is used as a reducing agent.
Answer:
The thermite reaction in which iron oxide is reduced by aluminium. Aluminium is used as a reducing agent in the thermit reaction.

Question 18.
What are the constituents of bronze?
Answer:
Copper and tin are the constituents of bronze.

Question 19.
State the term used to express the purity of gold.
Answer:
The purity of gold is expressed in carat.

Question 20.
What is meant by amalgam?
Answer:
The amalgam is an alloy in which one of the metals is mercury.

Question 21.
What is meant by electroplating?
Answer:
A process in which a less reactive metal is coated on a more reactive metal by electrolysis is called electroplating.

Question 22.
Why are metals called electropositive elements?
Answer:
Metals are reactive. They lose electrons and become positively charged ions. Therefore, metals are called electropositive elements.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Distinguish between the physical properties of metals and nonmetals with respect to the following points:
(1) Physical state (2) Lustre (3) Ductility and malleability (4) Conduction of heat and electricity (5) Hardness (6) Melting and boiling points.
Answer:
(1) Physical state: Under ordinary conditions, metals are generally solids. Exceptions: mercury and gallium are liquids. Under ordinary conditions, nonmetals may be solids or gases. Exception: bromine is in liquid state.

(2) Lustre: Metals usually have a high lustre (called metallic lustre). They can be polished to give a highly reflective surface. With the exceptions of gold and copper, metals usually have silvery grey colour. Nonmetals lack lustre, exceptions: graphite and iodine. Some nonmetals are colourless and others possess a variety of colours.

(3) Ductility and malleability: Metals are ductile and malleable. Nonmetals are not ductile and mallfeable.

(4) Conduction of heat and electricity: Metals are good conductors of heat and electricity. Nonmetals are bad conductors of heat and electricity. Exception: Graphite is a good conductor of electricity.

(5) Hardness: Metals are usually hard, but not brittle, exceptions: sodium, potassium, lead, zinc. Nonmetals are brittle in the solid state, exception: diamond.

(6) Melting and boiling points: The melting and boiling points of metals are high, exceptions: sodium, potassium, mercury, gallium. The melting and boiling points of nonmetals are low, exceptions: carbon, silicon.

Question 2.
Write any three physical properties of nonmetals.
Answer:

1. Nonmetals may be solid or gaseous.
2. Nonmetals lack lustre. They are not ductile and malleable.
3. The melting and boiling points of nonmetals are low.
4. Nonmetals are bad conductors of heat and electricity.

Question 3.
Metals are good conductors of heat. Explain why.
Answer:
(1) The electrons in the outermost shells of atoms of a metal are free to move throughout the metal.
(2) When a metal is heated, these electrons start moving with higher velocity and conduct heat. Hence, metals are good conductors of heat.

Question 4.
Metals are good conductors of electricity. Explain why.
Answer:
(1) The electrons in the outermost shells of atoms of a metal are free to move throughout the metal.
(2) When a potential difference is applied between the ends of a metal wire, the net movement of the electrons in a particular direction, from a point at lower potential to a point at higher potential, constitutes an electric current. Hence, metals are good conductors of electricity.

Question 5.
A metal can be drawn into a wire. Explain why.
Answer:

1. The property due to which a substance can be drawn into a thin wire without cracking or breaking is called ductility.
2. Metals are ductile. Thus, a metal can be drawn into a wire.

Question 6.
A metal can be hammered into a thin sheet. Explain why.
Answer:

1. The property due to which a substance can be hammered (or rolled) into a thin sheet without cracking is called malleability.
2. Metals are malleable. Thus, a metal can be hammered to form a thin sheet.

Question 7.
How do metals react with oxygen?
Answer:
Metals combine with oxygen on heating in air and metal oxides are formed.
Metal + Oxygen → Metal oxide

Question 8.
How does a metal react with water?
Answer:
Sodium and potassium react vigorously with water to evolve hydrogen. Calcium reacts with water slowly and less vigorously to evolve hydrogen and the metal floats on water. Magnesium reacts with hot water to evolve hydrogen. Aluminium, iron and zinc do not react with cold or hot water but they react with steam to evolve their oxides and hydrogen.
2Na_(s) + 2H₂O_(l) → 2NaOH_(aq) + H_2(g) + heat energy
2K_(s) + 2H₂O_(l) → 2KOH_(aq) + H_2(g) + heat energy
2Ca_(s) + 2H₂O_(l) → 2Ca(OH)_2(aq) + H_2(g)
Mg_(s) + 2H₂O_(hot) → Mg(OH)_2(aq) + H_2(g)
2Al_(s) + 3H₂O _steam → Al₂O_3(s) + 3H_2(g)
3Fe_(s) + 4H₂O _steam → Fe₃O₄ + 4H_2(g)
Zn_(s) + H₂O _steam → ZnO_(s) + H_2(g)

Question 9.
(9) How does a metal react with an acid?
Answer:
Reaction of metals with acids: Metals react with dilute hydrochloric acid or dilute sulphuric acid to form metal chloride or metal sulphate and hydrogen gas. The rate of evolution of H2 is maximum in case of magnesium. The reactivity decreases in the order
Mg > Al > Zn > Fe.
Mg_(s) + 2HCl_(aq) → MgCl_2(s) + H_2(g)
2Al_(s) + 6HCl_(aq) → 2AlCl_3(aq) + 3H_2(g)
Zn_(s) + 2HCl_(aq) → ZnCl_2(aq) + H_2(g)
Fe_(s) + 2HCl_(aq) → FeCl_2(aq) + H_2(g)
Fe_(s) + H₂SO_4(aq) → FeSO₄ + H_2(g)
Zn_(s) + H₂SO_4(aq) → ZnSO₄ + H_2(g)
Mg_(s) + H₂SO_4(aq) → MgSO_4(aq) + H_2(g)

Question 10.
How does a metal react with nitric acid?
Answer:
Metals react with nitric acid to form nitrate salts. Depending on the concentration of nitric acid, various oxides of nitrogen (NO, NO₂) are formed.

Question 11.
Arrange the following metals in the decreasing order of chemical reactivity:
Cu, Mg, Fe, Ca, Zn, Na.
Answer:
The reactivity of metal decreases in the following order:
Na > Mg > Ca > Zn > Fe > Cu.

Question 12.
What is meant by aqua regia?
Answer:
Aqua regia is a highly corrosive and fuming liquid. It is a freshly prepared mixture of conc. HCl and conc. HNO₃ in the ratio of 3:1. Most of the substances dissolve in it. Aqua regia is a reagent which dissolves gold and platinum.

Question 13.
How does a metal react with salts of other metals?
Answer:
The reaction of metals with solutions of salts of other metals is the displacement reaction. If a metal A displaces other metal B from the solution of its salt, it means that the metal A is more reactive than the metal B.
Metal A + Salt solution of metal B → Salt solution of metal A + metal B

In this reaction Fe has displaced Cu from CuSO₄. It means Fe is more reactive than Cu.

Question 14.
Explain the reactivity series of the metals.
Answer:
The arrangement of metals in decreasing order of their reactivity in the form of a series is called the reactivity or activity series of the metals.
The most reactive metal is placed at the top of the list and least reactive metal is placed at the bottom of the list.

On the basis of reactivity, we can classify metals into the following categories:

1. High reactivity metals
2. Moderately reactive metals
3. Less reactive metals.

1. Extraction of High reactivity metals: The metals which are placed at the top of the reactivity series are very reactive. They are never found in nature as free elements, e.g., sodium, potassium, calcium and aluminium. These metals are obtained by electrolytic reduction.

2. Extraction of Moderately reactive metals: The metals in the middle of reactivity series such as iron, zinc, lead, copper are moderately reactive. These elements are present as sulphides or carbonates in nature. Generally metals are obtained from their oxide as compared to their sulphides and carbonates.

3. Extraction of Less reactive metals: The metals which are placed at the bottom of the reactivity series are least reactive. They occur in free state, e.g. gold, silver and copper. Copper and silver are also found in the combined state as sulphide and oxide ores. These metals are obtained from their ores by just heating the ores in air.

Question 15.
Atomic number of metal “A” is 11, while atomic number of metal “B” is 20. Which of them will be more reactive? Write the chemical reaction of dilute HCl with metal “A”. (Practice Activity Sheet – 2)
Answer:
Metal ‘A’ is more reactive than metal ‘B’.
Atomic number of metal ‘A’ is 11, hence it is Na.
2Na + 2HCl → 2NaCl_(aq) + H_2(g)

Question 16.
How does a metal react with a nonmetal?
Answer:
By oxidation of a metal, cations are formed, on the other hand by reduction of a nonmetal, anions are formed. The ionic compound is formed due to the metal losing electrons while the nonmetal accepts the electrons. The ionic compound of sodium chloride is formed as sodium loses one electron while chlorine accepts one electron.

Similarly Mg and K form ionic compounds MgCl₂ and KCl.

Question 17.
How do nonmetals react with oxygen?
Answer:
Nonmetals combine with oxygen to form acidic oxides. In some cases, neutral oxides are formed.

Question 18.
How do nonmetals react with water?
Answer:
Nonmetals do not react with water, (exception : halogen). Chlorine dissolves in water giving hypochlorous acid.

Question 19.
How do nonmetals react with dilute acids?
Answer:
Nonmetals do not react with dilute acid, (exception: halogen). Chlorine reacts with dil. hydrobromic acid to form bromine and HCl.

Question 20.
How do nonmetals react with hydrogen?
Answer:
Nonmetals react with hydrogen under certain conditions (such as proper temperature, pressure, catalyst, etc.)

Question 21.
What is meant by an ionic compound?
Answer:
The compound formed from two units, namely cation and anion is called an ionic compound.

Question 22.
What is meant by an ionic bond?
Answer:
The cation and anion being oppositely charged, there is an electrostatic force of attraction between them, this force of attraction between cation and anion is called the ionic bond.

Question 23.
State the general properties of ionic compounds.
Answer:

1. Ionic compounds are solids and hard due to strong electrostatic force of attraction between oppositely charged ions.
2. They are generally brittle. When pressure is applied they break into pieces.
3. They have high melting and boiling points, due to intermolecular force of attraction is high in ionic compounds.
4. They are soluble in water and insoluble in solvents such as kerosene and petrol.
5. Ionic compounds cannot conduct electricity when in solid state, they are electrically neutral. They conduct electricity in the molten state and also in an aqueous solution.

Question 24.
Explain the following terms:
1. Concentration of ores
2. Roasting
3. Calcination
4. Refining
Answer:
1. Concentration of ores: The process of separating gangue from the other ores is called concentration of ores.
2. Roasting: The process of heating an ore to a high temperature in excess of air and converting it into its oxide is called roasting.
Examples: ZnS (zinc blend), PbS (Galena)

3. Calcination: The process of heating an ore in a limited supply of air and converting it into its oxide is called calcination.
Example: Zinc carbonate (ZnCO₃)
ZnCO₃ → ZnO + CO₂ ↑
4. Refining: The metal obtained by chemical reduction contains impurities. The process of electrolysis method is used to obtain pure metals from impure metals is known as refining.

Question 25.
State two methods of concentration of ores in which the heavy particles of ores can be separated from the light gangue particles by the gravitational method.
Answer:

1. Wilfley table method
2. Hydraulic separation method are two methods of concentration of ores in which the heavy particles of ores can be separated from the light, gangue particles by the gravitational method.

Question 26.
What are the different methods used for removing gangue from ores?
(OR)
Write the five methods of concentration of ores.
Answer:

1. Wilfley table method
2. Hydraulic separation method
3. Magnetic separation method
4. Froth floatation method
5. Leaching method.

Question 27.
Write short notes on: (1) Wilfley table method (2) Hydraulic separation method (3) Magnetic separation method (4) Froth floatation method (5) Leaching method.
Answer:
(1) Wilfley table method : (Separation based on gravitation) This method of separation uses the Wilfley table, it is made by fixing narrow and thin wooden wedges/blocks on inclined surface with low slope. The table is kept continuously vibrating.

Lumps of the ore is made powdered ore by using ball mill. This powdered ore is poured on the table and a stream of water is simultaneously released from the upper side. This result in the lighter gangue particles getting carried away along with the flowing water, while the heavier particles in which proportion of minerals is more and proportion of gangue particles is less, are blocked by the wooden wedges and is collected through the slits between them.

(2) Hydraulic separation method: The hydraulic separation method is based on the working of a mill. This is a tapering vessel similar to that used in a grinding mill. It opens in a tank like a container that is tapering on the lower side. The tank has an outlet for water on the upper side and a water inlet on the lower side.

Finely ground ore is added to the tank. A fast stream of water is released in the tank from the lower side. The lighter gangue particles flow out along with the water stream from the outlet on the upper side of the tank and are collected separately, simultaneously the heavy particles of the ore are collected at the bottom from the lower side of the tank. This method is based on the law of gravitation, wherein particles of the same size are separated by their weight with the help of water.

(3) Magnetic separation method: Electro-magnetic machine is used in this method. The main parts of this machine are two types of iron rollers and the conveyor belt continuously moving around them. One of the rollers is nonmagnetic while the other is electromagnetic. The conveyor belt moving around the rollers is made up of leather or brass (nonmagnetic). The powdered ore is poured at that end of the conveyor belt which is on the side of the nonmagnetic roller. Two collector vessels are placed below the magnetic roller.

The particles of the nonmagnetic part in the ore are not attracted towards the magnetic roller. Therefore, they are carried out further along the belt and fall in the collector vessel which is away from the magnetic roller. Simultaneously the particles of the magnetic ingredients of the ore stick to the magnetic roller and therefore fall in the collector vessel near the belt.

In this way the magnetic and nonmagnetic particles in the ore are separated because of their magnetic nature. For example, cassiterite is a tin ore. It contains mainly the nonmagnetic ingredient stannic oxide (SnO₂) and the magnetic ingredient ferrous tungstate (FeWO₄). These are separated by the electromagnetic method.

(4) Froth floatation method: The froth floatation method is based on the two opposite properties, hydrophilic and hydrophobic, of the particles. The metal sulphides particles get wet mainly with oil due to their hydrophobic property. The gangue particles get wet with water due to the hydrophilic property.

In this method the finely ground mineral is put into a big tank containing a lot of water. The finely powdered ore and vegetable oil such as pine oil, eucalyptus oil are mixed with water for formation of froth. The pressurised air is blown through the mixture. There is an agitator rotating around its axis in the centre of the floatation tank. The agitator is used as per the requirement. Bubbles are formed due to the blown air.

A foam is formed from oil, water and air bubbles together, due to the agitating. This foam rises to the surface of the water and floats. Hence this method is called froth floatation. Sulphide minerals float with the foam on water as they get and can be removed. The gangue particles are wetted by water, settles down at the bottom. This method is used for concentration of zinc blend (ZnS) and copper pyrite (CuFeS₂).

(5) Leaching: Leaching is the first step in the extraction of the metals like aluminium, gold and silver from their ores. In this method the ore is soaked in a particular solution for long time. The ore dissolves in that solution due to specific chemical reaction. The gangue, however, does not react and therefore does not dissolve in that solution. It can be separated easily.

For example, concentration of bauxite, the aluminium ore, is done by leaching method. Bauxite is soaked in aqueous NaOH or aqueous Na₂CO₃ which dissolves the main ingredient alumina in it. This means that bauxite is leached by sodium hydroxide.

Question 28.
Draw a neat labelled diagram of the arrangement of the equipment used in (1) Wilfley table method (2) Hydraulic separation method.
Answer:
1. Wilfley table method:

2. Hydraulic separation method:

Question 29.
Complete the following flow chart and answer the questions below:

(i) In which method pine oil is used?
(ii) Explain that method of concentration in brief. (Practice Activity Sheet – 2)
Answer:

(i) Pine oil is used in froth floatation method.

(ii) The finely powdered ore and vegetable oil such as pine oil, eucalyptus oil are mixed with water for formation of froth. The pressurised air is blown through the mixture. The agitator is used as per the requirement. Bubbles are formed due to the blown air. A foam is formed from oil, water and air bubbles together, due to the agitating. This foam rises to the surface of the water and floats. Hence this method is called froth floatation. Sulphide minerals float with the foam on water as they get and can be removed. The gangue particles are wetted by water, settles down at the bottom. This method is used for concentration of zinc blend (ZnS) and copper pyrite (CuFeS₂).

Question 30.
A tapping vessel opens in a tank like container that is tapering on the lower side. The tank has an outlet for water on the upper side and a water inlet on the lower side. Finely ground ore is released in the tank. A forceful jet of water is introduced in the tank from lower side and gangue particles and pure ore are separated by this method.
(i) The above description is of which gravitation separation method?
(ii) Draw labelled diagram of this method. (March 2019)
Answer:
(i) Hydraulic separation method.
(ii)

Question 31.
How are sodium, magnesium and potassium obtained from their molten chloride salts?
Answer:
The metals sodium, calcium and magnesium are obtained by electrolysis of their molten chloride salts. In this process metal is deposited on the cathode while chlorine gas is liberated at the anode.

Question 32.
Name the main ore of aluminium.
Answer:
Bauxite (Al₂O₃·H₂O) is the main ore of aluminium.

Question 33.
What is bauxite? What are the main impurities found in this ore?
Answer:
Bauxite (Al₂O₃·H₂O) is hydrated aluminium oxide. It contains 30% to 70% Al₂O₃. The main impurities present in it are iron oxide (Fe₂O₃) and sand (SiO₂).

Question 34.
From which ore is aluminium extracted? What are the stages in its extraction (give only names)?
Answer:
Aluminium is extracted from bauxite (Al₂O₃·nH₂O). Stages id the extraction: (i) Concentration of ore, i.e., conversion of bauxite into alumina, (ii) Electrolytic reduction of alumina.

Question 35.
Describe Bayer’s process for concentration of bauxite.
Answer:
(1) Bayer’s process is used to obtain pure aluminium oxide from bauxite.
(2) Bauxite is then concentrated by chemical separation. Bauxite contains impurities like iron oxide (Fe₂O₃) and silica (SiO₂).
(3) Bauxite ore is powdered and heated with sodium hydroxide under high pressure for 2 to 8 hours at 140 °C in the digester. The aluminium oxide being amphoteric in nature present in bauxite reacts with sodium hydroxide to form water soluble sodium aluminate. This means that bauxite leached by sodium hydroxide. Silica reacts with sodium hydroxide to form soluble sodium silicate. The basic iron oxide (Fe₂O₃) in the gangue remains unaffected. It is separated by filtration.

(4) The filtrate containing sodium aluminate and sodium silicate is stirred with water and then cooling to 50° C. It is hydrolysed to give precipitate of aluminium hydroxide.

(5) Aluminium hydroxide is then filtered, washed with water, dried and then calcinated by heating at 1000 °C to get pure aluminium oxide.

Question 36.
Describe Hall’s process for concentration of bauxite.
Answer:
In Hall’s process the ore is powdered and then it is leached by heating with aqueous sodium carbonate in the digester to form water soluble sodium aluminate. Then the insoluble impurities are filtered opt. The filtrate is warmed and neutralised by passing carbon dioxide gas through it. This result in precipitation of aluminium hydroxide.


The precipitate of Al(OH)₃ obtained in this processes is filtered, washed, dried and then calcinated by heating at 1000 °C to obtain alumina.

Question 37.
Describe the process of preparation of aluminium by the electrolysis of alumina.
(OR)
Draw and label the diagram of electrolysis of alumina and explain the electrolytic reduction of alumina.
Answer:
Electrolytic reduction of alumina:
(1) The electrolytic cell consists of a rectangular steel tank lined from inside with graphite.

(2) The carbon lining (graphite) acts as a cathode. The anode consists of graphite rods suspended in the molten electrolyte.
(3) Alumina has very high melting point ( > 2000 °C). The electrolysis of alumina is carried out at a low temperature by dissolving it in molten cryolite (Na₃AlF₆). The solution of alumina in cryolite and small amount of fluorspar (CaF₂) is added in the mixture to lower its melting point up to 1000 °C.
(4) On passing an electric current, alumina is electrolysed.
(5) Molten aluminium is collected at the cathode, while oxygen gas is evolved at the anode.
The electrode reactions are shown below:
Al₂O₃ → 2Al³⁺ + 3O^2-
Anode reaction: 2O^2- → O_2(g) + 4e^–
Cathode reaction: Al³⁺ + 3e^– → Al
The molten aluminium is heavier than the electrolyte. Therefore, it sinks to the bottom of the electrolyte and is removed from time to time. About 99% pure aluminium is obtained by this process. The oxygen gas liberated reacts with carbon anode and forms carbon dioxide. As the anode gets oxidised during the electrolysis of alumina, it has to be replaced from time to time.

Question 38.
In the extraction of aluminium:
(i) Name the process of concentration of bauxite.
Answer:
The process of concentration of bauxite is known as Bayer’s process.

(ii) Write the cathode reaction in electrolytic reduction of alumina.
Answer:
At the cathode: Al³⁺ + 3e^– → Al.

(iii) Write the function and formula of cryolite in the extraction of aluminium.
Answer:
Cryolite is added to the molten mixture of alumina to reduce the melting point to about 1000 °C.
The formula of cryolite is (Na₃AlF₆) or AlF₃, 3NaF.

(iv) write an equation for the action of heat on aluminium hydroxide.
Answer:

(v) Draw the diagram of extraction of aluminium.
Answer:

(vi) Write the anode reaction in electrolytic reduction of alumina.
Answer:
Al₂O₃ → 2Al³⁺ + 3O^2-
At Anode: 2O^2- → O_2(g) + 4e^–

(vii) Write the cathode reaction in electrolytic reduction of alumina.
Answer:
Al₂O₃ → 2Al³⁺ + 3O^2-
Cathode: Al³⁺ + 3e^– → Al(l)

Question 39.
What happens when aluminium ore is heated with caustic soda? Write the balanced chemical equation for the same.
Answer:
When aluminium ore is heated with caustic soda solution under high pressure for 2 to 8 hours and at 140 °C to 150 °C, aluminium oxide from aluminium ore, being amphoteric in nature, dissolves in caustic soda solution to form sodium aluminate.

Question 40.
How is zinc extracted from its ore zinc sulphide or zinc carbonate?
Answer:
The crude zinc sulphide ore is heated strongly in excess of air. Zinc sulphide is converted into zinc oxide. This process is known as roasting.

(OR)
The crude zinc carbonate ore is heated strongly in limited supply of air. Zinc carbonate is converted into zinc oxide. This process is known as calcination.

The zinc oxide is reduced to zinc by using a reducing agent such as carbon.

Question 41.
How is copper extracted from its sulphide ore?
Answer:
Copper is found as cuprous sulphide (Cu₂S) in nature. When Cu₂S is heated in air, copper is obtained.

Question 42.
How is mercury extracted from cinnabar?
(OR)
Extraction of mercury from its ore cinnabar and write the corresponding chemical reaction.
Answer:
Cinnabar is an ore of mercury. When cinnabar is heated (roasted), it is converted into mercuric oxide (HgO). Mercuric oxide is then reduced to mercury on further heating.

Question 43.
Show the steps involved in the extraction of moderately reactive metals from their sulphide ores.
Answer:
Moderately reactive elements are present as sulphides or carbonates in nature.

Question 44.
In the reactivity series of metals, some metals are misplaced. Rearrange these metals in the decreasing order of their reactivity.

Answer:

Question 45.
Complete the table, if a metal reacts with the reagent then mark ✓ and if not then ✗.

Metal	Ferrous sulphate	Silver nitrate	Copper sulphate	Zinc sulphate
Cu
Al

Answer:

Metal	Ferrous sulphate	Silver nitrate	Copper sulphate	Zinc sulphate
Cu	✗	✓	✗	✗
Al	✓	✓	✓	✓

Question 46.
Explain the term corrosion with a suitable example.
(OR)
What is corrosion ?
Answer:
The process in which a metal is destroyed gradually by the action of air, moisture or a chemical (like an acid) on its surface is called corrosion.
(OR)
Corrosion is degradation of a material due to reaction with its environment.
The major problem of corrosion occurs with iron, as it is used as a structural material in construction, bridges, shipbuilding.
Iron gets covered by reddish brown flakes when exposed to atmosphere. This is an example of corrosion.

Question 47.
Explain the different methods to prevent corrosion of metals.
Answer:
(1) Corrosion of a metal can be prevented if the contact between metal and air is cut off.
(2) Corrosion of a metal is prevented by coating with something which does not allow moisture and oxygen to react with it.
(3) A layer of oil or paint or grease is applied on the surface of a metal to prevent corrosion. The rusting or corrosion of iron can be prevented by this method.
(4) Corrosion is also prevented by coating a corrosive metal with a noncorrosive metal. Galvanising, tinning, electroplating, anodising and alloying are the different methods in which a metal is coated with a noncorrosive metal to prevent corrosion.

Question 48.
Write three methods of preventing rusting of iron.
Answer:

1. The rusting of iron can be prevented by painting, oiling, greasing or varnishing its surface.
2. Galvanisation is another method of protecting iron from rusting by coating iron with a thin layer of zinc.
3. Corrosion of iron is prevented by coating iron with noncorrosive substance like carbon. This process is termed as alloying.

Question 49.
What is meant by an alloy? Give two examples with chemical composition.
Answer:
The homogeneous mixture formed by mixing a metal with other metals or nonmetals in certain proportion is called an alloy.
Examples:
1. Bronze: Bronze is an alloy formed from 90% copper and 10% tin. Bronze statues stay well in sun and rain.
2. Stainless steel: Stainless steel alloy is made from 74% iron, 18% chromium and 8% carbon. This alloy does not get stained with air or water and does not rust.

Write short notes on the following:

Question 1.
Galvanizing.
Answer:
(1) The process of coating a thin layer of zinc on iron or steel is called galvanization.
(2) In this method corrosion of zinc occurs first because zinc is more electropositive than iron. After a few years zinc layer goes away and the iron layer gets exposed and starts rusting.
(3) In galvanization an iron object is dipped into molten zinc. A thin layer of zinc is formed all over the iron object. Examples: Shiny iron nails, pin, iron pipes.

Question 2.
Tinning.
Answer:
The process of coating a thin layer of tin (molten tin) on copper or brass is called tinning. Cooking vessels made of copper and brass get a greenish coating due to corrosion. The greenish substance is copper carbonate and it is poisonous. If buttermilk or curry is placed in such a vessel it gets spoiled. Therefore, these vessels are coated with tin to prevent corrosion.

Question 3.
Electroplating.
Answer:

The process in which a less reactive metal is coated on a more reactive metal by electrolysis is called electroplating.
Examples: Silver-plated spoon, gold-plated jewellery.
(1) Which process will you study with the help of above material and solutions.
Answer:
With the help of above material and solutions, electroplating process is studied.

(2) Define the process.
Answer:
The process in which less reactive metal is coated on a more reactive metals by electrolysis is called electroplating.

(3) Write the anode and cathode reactions.
Answer:
At anode: Ag → Ag⁺ + e^–
At cathode: Ag⁺ + e^– → Ag

Question 4.
Anodizing.
(OR)
Identify the process shown in the above diagram and explain it in brief. (Practice Activity Sheet – 3)

Answer:
The anodizing technique is an application of electrolysis. In this method copper or aluminium article is used as anode and it is coated with a strong film of their oxides by means of electrolysis. This oxide layer is strong and uniform all over the surface. This thin film protects the metals from corrosion. The protection can be further increased by making the oxide layer thicker during the anodization.
Examples: Kitchen articles such as ; anodized pressure cooker and anodized pan.

Question 5.
Alloying.
Answer:
A homogenous mixture of two or more metals or a metal and a nonmetal in a definite proportion is called an alloy. The physical properties of an alloy are different from those of its constituents. Alloys are corrosion resistant. Alloy decreases the intensity of corrosion of metals.

Examples: Brass is made from copper and zinc, 90 % Copper and 10 % tin are used to make an alloy called bronze, Stainless steel is made from 74% iron, 8 % carbon and 18 % chromium.

Distinguish between: (Two points of distinction)

Question 1.
Metals and Nonmetals.
Answer:
Metals:

1. Metals have a lustre.
2. They are generally good conductors of heat and electricity.
3. They are generally solids at room temperature.
   Exception: Mercury and gallium are liquids.
4. Metals form basic oxides.

Nonmetals:

1. Nonmetals have no lustre.
   Exception: Iodine and Diamond.
2. They are bad conductors of heat and electricity.
   Exception: Graphite.
3. They are generally gases and solids at room temperature.
   Exception: Bromine is a liquid.
4. Nonmetals form acidic or neutral oxides.

Question 2.
Roasting and Calcination.
Answer:
Roasting:

1. In this process, the ore is heated strongly in the presence of air.
2. In this process, sulphide ore is converted into metal oxide.
3. During this process SO₂ is given out.

Calcination:

1. In this process, the ore is heated strongly in the limited supply of air.
2. In this process, carbonate ore is converted into metal oxide.
3. During this process CO₂ is given out.

Give scientific reasons for the following:

Question 1.
Calcium floats on water during the reaction with water.
Answer:

1. Calcium reacts with water less vigorously hence the heat evolved is not sufficient for hydrogen to catch fire.
2. Instead, calcium floats on water because the bubbles of hydrogen gas formed stick to the surface of the metal.

Question 2.
Common salt has high melting and boiling points.
Answer:

• Common salt is an ionic compound. Common salt is solid and hard due to strong electrostatic attraction between oppositely charged Na+ and Cl- ions.
• A large amount of energy is required to break the strong intermolecular attraction (strong ionic bond). Hence, common salt has high melting and boiling points.

Question 3.
Metals are good conductors, while non-metals are poor conductors of electricity.
Answer:

• The electrons in the outermost orbit of atoms of a metal are free to move throughout the metal.
• When a potential difference is applied between the ends of a metal wire, the movement of the electrons constitutes an electric current. Hence, metals are good conductors of electricity.
• Nonmetals involve covalent bonding and do not have free electrons like metals. Hence, nonmetals are poor conductors of electricity.

Question 4.
Sodium is more reactive than aluminium.
Answer:

• If the number of electrons in the outermost orbit of an atom of a metal is less, the metal is more reactive.
• Sodium has electronic configuration (2, 8, 1) and aluminium has electronic configuration (2, 8, 3). The number of electrons in the outermost orbit of sodium and aluminium atoms are 1 and 3, respectively. Hence, sodium is more reactive than aluminium.

Question 5.
When zinc granules are added to copper sulphate solution, the blue coloured solution turns colourless.
Answer:

• Zinc is more reactive than copper.
• When zinc granules are added to copper sulphate solution, they displace copper from the copper sulphate solution to form zinc sulphate solution. As zinc sulphate is colourless, the blue coloured solution of copper sulphate disappears.

Question 6.
When an iron nail is dipped into a copper solution, a shiny coat of copper is formed on the nail.
Answer:

• Iron is more reactive than copper.
• When an iron nail is dipped into copper sulphate solution, iron displaces copper from the copper sulphate solution. The copper so liberated deposits on the iron nail. As a result, a shiny coat of copper is formed on the nail.

Question 7.
Cryolite (Na3AlF6) and fluorspar (CaF₂) are added to the electrolytic mixture containing pure alumina.
Answer:
(1) Alumina has very high melting point ( > 2000 °C). Cryolite (Na₃AlF₆) and fluorspar (CaF₂) lower the fusion temperature of the mixture containing alumina from 2000 ° C to 1000 ° C, thereby saving electrical energy.
(2) They increase the conductivity and the mobility of the fused mixture. Hence, cryolite and fluorspar are added to the electrolytic mixture containing pure alumina.

Question 8.
Air is bubbled through the mixture in Froth floatation process.
Answer:
(1) In the froth floatation process, in a tank water, ore and an oil are mixed. When air is bubbled through the mixture the oil forms froth.
(2) The mineral particles are wetted by the oil and float on the surface.
(3) The gangue particles are wetted by water and settle down. Hence, the ore can be concentrated. Hence, air is bubbled through the mixture in froth floatation process.

Question 9.
Silver amalgam is used for filling dental cavities.
Answer:
(1) Silver is a soft metal and wears off on constant usage particularly due to abrasion. Silver amalgam is an alloy of silver with mercury.
(2) It is a hard substance. It is nontoxic. Besides these properties it is a lustrous shining substance. It melts at a comparatively low temperature and can therefore conveniently fill in the cavities. Hence, silver amalgam is used for filling dental cavities.

Explain the following reactions with the help of balanced equations:

Question 1.
Out of sodium and sulphur which is a metal? Explain its reaction with oxygen. (March 2019)
Answer:
Sodium is a metal. Sodium reacts with oxygen in air at room temperature to form sodium oxide.

Question 2.
Magnesium burns in air.
Answer:
When magnesium bums in air, it combines with oxygen, emitting intense light and heat to form magnesium oxide.

Question 3.
Copper reacts with air.
Answer:
Copper tarnishes in moist air and forms black coloured oxide when strongly heated.

Question 4.
Sodium reacts with water.
Answer:
When sodium reacts with water, it evolves hydrogen which immediately catches fire producing a lot of heat.

Question 5.
Calcium reacts with water.
Answer:
Calcium reacts with water less vigorously to form hydrogen gas and calcium hydroxide. In this reaction, the heat evolved is not sufficient for hydrogen to catch fire.

Question 6.
Steam is passed over aluminium.
Answer:
When steam is passed over aluminium, hydrogen gas and aluminium oxide are formed.

Question 7.
Steam is passed over iron.
Answer:
When steam is passed over iron, iron (III) oxide and hydrogen gas are formed.

Question 8.
Magnesium reacts with dil. hydrochloric acid.
Answer:
When magnesium reacts with dil. hydrochloric acid, magnesium chloride is formed and hydrogen gas is evolved.

Question 9.
Aluminium is treated with dil. hydrochloric acid.
Answer:
When aluminium is treated with dil. hydrochloric acid, aluminium chloride and hydrogen gas are formed.

Question 10.
Zinc reacts with dil. hydrochloric acid.
Answer:
When zinc reacts with dil. hydrochloric acid, zinc chloride and hydrogen gas are formed.

Question 11.
Iron is treated with dil. hydrochloric acid.
Answer:
When iron reacts with dil. hydrochloric acid, ferrous chloride and hydrogen gas is formed.

Question 12.
Copper is reacted with cone, nitric acid.
Answer:
When copper is reacted with cone, nitric acid, copper nitrate and reddish brown nitrogen dioxide are formed.

Question 13.
Copper is reacted with dil. nitric acid.
Answer:
When copper is reacted with dil. nitric acid, copper nitrate and nitric oxide are formed.

Question 14.
Sodium metal is reacted chlorine gas.
Answer:
When sodium metal is reacted with chlorine, sodium chloride an ionic compound is formed.

Question 15.
Sulphur burns in air.
Answer:
When sulphur burns in air, it combines with oxygen to form acidic sulphur dioxide.

Question 16.
Chlorine dissolves in water.
Answer:
When chlorine dissolves in water, hypochlorous acid is formed.

Question 17.
Chlorine is treated with hydrobromic acid.
Answer:
When chlorine is treated with hydrobromic acid, chlorine displaces bromine from hydrobromic acid.
Cl_2(g) + 2HBr_(aq) → 2HCl_(aq) + Br_2(aq)

Question 18.
Hydrogen gas is passed over boiling sulphur.
Answer:
When hydrogen gas is passed over boiling sulphur, sulphur combines with hydrogen to form hydrogen sulphide which has rotten egg smell.

Question 19.
Sodium aluminate is treated with water.
Answer:
When sodium aluminate is treated with water, it is hydrolysed to give a precipitate of aluminium hydroxide.

Question 20.
Dry aluminium hydroxide is ignited at 1000 °C.
Answer:
When dry aluminium hydroxide is ignited at 1000 °C, alumina (Al₂O₃) formed.

Question 21.
Zinc sulphide is heated strongly in excess of air.
Answer:
When zinc sulphide is heated strongly in excess of air, it forms zinc oxide and sulphur dioxide gas.

Question 22.
Zinc carbonate is heated strongly in a limited supply of air.
Answer:
When zinc carbonate is heated strongly in a limited supply of air, it gives zinc oxide and carbon dioxide.

Question 23.
Zinc oxide is treated with carbon.
Answer:
When zinc oxide is treated with carbon, it is reduced to zinc. In this reaction, carbon acts as reducing agent.

Question 24.
Manganese dioxide is heated with aluminium.
Answer:
When manganese dioxide is heated with aluminium, manganese dioxide is reduced to manganese and large amount of heat is evolved.

Question 25.
Cinnabar is heated in air.
Answer:
When cinnabar is heated in air, it forms mercuric oxide and sulphur dioxide.

Question 26.
Cuprous sulphide is heated in air.
Answer:
When cuprous sulphide is heated in air, cuprous oxide is formed. Cuprous oxide is reduced to copper in the presence of ore.

Project: (Do it your self)

Project 1.
Which metals are used in day to day life? What are its uses?

Project 2.
Which nonmetals are used in day to day life? What are its uses?

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 10 Space Missions Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 10 Space Missions

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks and explain the statements with reasoning:
a. If the height of the orbit of a satellite from the earth’s surface is increased, the tangential velocity of the satellite will ………………
Answer:
If the height of the orbit of a satellite from the earth’s surface, is increased, the tangential velocity of the satellite will decrease.
Explanation: The gravitational force (F) exerted by the earth on the satellite will decrease if the height of the orbit of the satellite from the earth’s surface is increased. Hence, the tangential velocity of the satellite will decrease.
The formula

shows that υ_c decreases with increasing h.

b. The initial velocity (during launching) of the Mangalyaan must be greater than ………… from the earth.
Answer:
The initial velocity (during launching) of the Mangalyaan must be greater than the escape velocity from the earth.
Explanation: If a satellite is to travel beyond the gravitational pull of the earth, its velocity must be more than the escape velocity from the earth.
[Note: The velocity must be atleast equal to the escape velocity. Refer the definition of escape velocity.]

Question 2.
State with reasons whether the following statements are true or false.
a. If a spacecraft has to be sent away from the influence of the earth’s gravitational field, its velocity must be less than the escape velocity.
Answer:
False.
Explanation: The escape velocity of a body is the minimum velocity with which it should be projected from the earth’s surface, so that it can escape the influence of the earth’s gravitational field. This clearly shows that the given statement is false.

b. The escape velocity on the moon is less than that on the earth.
Answer:
True.
Explanation: Escape velocity of an object from the earth,

c. A satellite needs a specific velocity to revolve in a specific orbit.
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
Centripetal force on the satellite \(\frac{m v_{c}^{2}}{R+h}\) = gravitational force exerted by the earth on the satellite \(\frac{G M m}{(R+h)^{2}}\)
where,
m: mass of the satellite
υ_c: critical velocity of the satellite
h: height of the satellite from the surface of the earth
M: mass of the earth
R: radius of the earth
G: gravitational constant
∴ \(v_{\mathrm{c}}^{2}=\frac{G M}{R+h}\)
∴ \(v_{\mathrm{c}}=\sqrt{\frac{G M}{R+h}}\)
Thus, if the value of h changes, the value of υ_c also changes. It means a satellite needs to be given a specific velocity (in the tangential direction) to keep it revolving in a specific orbit.

d. If the height of the orbit of a satellite increases, its velocity must also increase.
Answer:
False.
Explanation:
Centripetal force on the satellite \(\frac{m v_{c}^{2}}{R+h}\) = gravitational force exerted by the earth on the satellite \(\frac{G M m}{(R+h)^{2}}\)
where,
m : mass of the satellite
υ_c : critical velocity of the satellite
h : height of the satellite from the surface of the earth
M : mass of the earth
R : radius of the earth
G : gravitational constant
∴ \(v_{\mathrm{c}}^{2}=\frac{G M}{R+h}\)
∴ \(v_{\mathrm{c}}=\sqrt{\frac{G M}{R+h}}\)
Thus, if the value of h changes, the value of υ_c also changes. It means a satellite needs to be given a specific velocity (in the tangential direction) to keep it revolving in a specific orbit.

As per the formula υ_c = \(\sqrt{\frac{G M}{R+h}}\) , if the value of h increases, the value of υ_c decreases. Hence, if the height of the satellite from the surface of the earth increases, its velocity decreases.

Question 3.
Answer the following questions:
a. What is meant by an artificial satellite? How are the satellites classified based on their functions?
(OR)
Write the importance of artificial satellites in your words. (Practice Activity Sheet – 3)
Answer:
A manmade object orbiting the earth or any other planet is called an artificial satellite. Satellites work on solar energy and hence photovoltaic panels are attached on both sides of the satellite, which look like wings. Satellites are also installed with various transmitters and other equipment to receive and transmit signals between the earth and the satellites.

Classification of satellites depending on their functions:
(1) Weather satellites: weather satellites collect the information regarding weather conditions of the region. It records temperature, air pressure, wind direction, humidity, cloud cover, etc. this information is sent to the space research station on the earth and then with this information weather forecast is made.

(2) Communication satellites: In order to establish communication between different places on the earth through mobile phones or computer assisted internet, communication satellites are used. Many artificial satellites placed at various locations in the earth’s orbit are well interconnected and help us to have communication with any place, from anywhere, at any time and in any form including voicemail, email, photographs, audio mail, etc.

(3) Broadcasting satellites: Broadcasting satel¬lites are used to transmit various radio and television programs and even live programs from any place on the earth to any other place. As a result, one can have access to information about current incidents, events, programs, sports and other events right from his drawing room with these satellites.

(4) Navigational satellites: Navigational satel¬lites assist the surface, water and air transportation and coordinate their busy schedule. These satellites also assist the user with current live maps as well as real time traffic conditions.

(5) Military satellites: Every sovereign nation needs to keep the real time information about the borders. Satellites help to monitor all movements of neighboring countries or enemy countries. Military satellites also help to guide the missiles effectively.

(6) Earth observation satellites: These satellites observe and provide the real time information about the earth. These satellites also help us to collect information about the resources, their management, continuous observation about a natural phenomenon and the changes within it.

(7) Other satellites: Apart from these various satellites, certain satellites for specific works or purposes are also sent in the space. E.g. India has sent EDUSAT for educational purpose; CARTOSAT for surveys and map making. Similarly, satellites with telescopes, like Hubble telescope or a satellite like International Space Station help to explore the universe. In fact, ISS (International Space Station) provides a temporary residence where astronauts can stay for a certain short or long period and can undertake the research and study space activities.
The various functions listed above show the importance of artificial satellites.

b. What is meant by the orbit of a satellite? On what basis and how are the orbits of artificial satellites classified?
Answer:
Orbit of a satellite is its path around the earth.
Orbits of artificial satellites can be classified on various basis.
(1) On the basis of the angle of the orbital plane: Orbital plane of a satellite can be the equatorial plane of the earth or it can be at an angle to it.
(2) On the basis of the nature of the orbit: Orbital plane can be circular or elliptical in shape.
(3) On the basis of the height of the satellite: Orbit of a satellite can be HEO, MEO or LEO.

(i) High Earth Orbit (HEO) satellite: A satellite orbiting at a height equal to or greater than 35780 km above the earth’s surface is called a High Earth Orbit satellite. The critical velocity (υc) of a satellite revolving in an orbit at 35780 km above the earth surface is 3.08 km/s. Such a satellite will take about 23 hours 54 minutes to complete one revolution around the earth. The earth completes one rotation about its axis in the same time. The orbital plane of such a satellite is the equatorial plane of the earth. The satellite’s relative position appears stationary with respect to a place on the earth. This satellite is, therefore, called a geostationary satellite or geosynchronous satellite.

(ii) Medium Earth Orbit (MEO) satellite: A satellite orbiting at a height between 2000 km and 35780 km above the earth’s surface is called a Medium Earth Orbit satellite. The orbital path of such a satellite is normally elliptical and passes through the North and the South polar regions. These satellites take about 12 hours to complete one revolution around the earth.

(iii) Low Earth Orbit (LEO) satellite:
A satellite orbiting at a height between 180 km and 2000 km above the earth’s surface is called a Low Earth Orbit satellite. Normally, these satellites take 90 minutes to complete one revolution around the earth. Weather satellites, space telescopes and International Space Station are Low Earth Orbit satellites.

c. Why are geostationary satellites not useful for studies of polar regions? (Practice Activity Sheet – 4)
(OR)
Explain the following statement. A geostationary satellite is not useful in the study of polar regions. (Practice Activity Sheet – 1)
Answer:
Geostationary satellites have two distinct characteristics:
(1) Geostationary satellites are HEO satellites and are placed at 35780 km above the earth’s surface.

(2) A geostationary satellite revolves in the equatorial plane of the earth, and thus, it can never fly above the polar regions.
Hence, geostationary satellites are not useful for studies of polar regions.

d. What is meant by a satellite launch vehicle? Explain the satellite launch vehicle developed by ISRO with the help of a schematic diagram.
Answer:
A rocket used to carry an artificial satellite to a desired height above the earth’s surface and then project it with a proper velocity so that the satellite orbits the earth in the desired orbit is called a launch vehicle. A satellite launch vehicle needs a specific velocity as well as a thrust to reach the desired height above the earth’s surface. The velocity and the thrust of a satellite launch vehicle depend on the weight and orbital height of the satellite.

Accordingly, the structure of the launch vehicle is decided and designed. The weight of the fuel also contributes a major portion in the total weight of the launch vehicle. This also influences the structure of the launch vehicle. In order to use the fuel optimally, multiple stage launch vehicles are now designed and used.

The Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) developed by ISRO is shown below in a schematic diagram.

e. Why is it beneficial to use a satellite j launch vehicle made up of more than one stage?
Answer:
Earlier Satellite Launch Vehicles (SLV) used to be of a single stage vehicles. Such SLVs used to be very heavy as well as expensive in terms of its fuel consumption. As a result, SLVs with multiple stages were developed.

In multistage SLVs, as the journey of the launch vehicle progresses and the vehicle achieves a specific velocity and a certain height, the fuel of the first stage is exhausted and the empty fuel tank gets detached from the main body of the launch vehicle and falls back into a sea or on unpopulated land. As the fuel in the first stage is exhausted, the engine in the second stage is Ignited. However, the weight of the launch vehicle is now less than what it was earlier and hence it can move with higher velocity, Thus, it saves fuel consumption. Hence, it is beneficial to use a multistage satellite launch vehicle.

Question 4.
Complete the following table:

Answer:

Question 5.
Solve the following problems:
a. If the mass of a planet is eight times the mass of the earth and its radius is twice the radius of the earth, what will be the escape velocity for that planet?
Answer:
Given:
(1) The mass of the planet (M) is eight times the mass of the earth, i.e., 8 × 6 × 10²⁴ kg
(2) The radius of the planet (R) is twice the radius of the earth, i.e., 2 × 6.4 × 10⁶ km
(3) G = 6.67 × 10^-11 N·m²/kg²
Escape velocity for that planet

= 2.237 × 10⁴ m/s
= 22.37 km/s

b. How much time would a satellite in an orbit at a height of 35780 km above the earth’s surface take to complete one revolution around the earth, if the mass of the earth were four times its original mass?
Answer:
Given: R (Earth) = 6400 km = 6.4 × 10⁶ m,
M (Earth) = 6 × 10²⁴ kg
∴ M’ = 4M = 4 × 6 × 10²⁴ kg
h = 35780 km = 3.578 × 10⁷ m = 35.78 × 10⁶ m,
G = 6.67 × 10^-11 N·m²/kg², T = ?
The time that the satellite would take to complete one revolution around the earth,

= Approx 4.303 × 10⁴ s
= Approx 11.95 h
or 11 hours 57 minutes 10 seconds.

c. If the height of a satellite completing one revolution around the earth in T seconds is h₁ meters, then what would be the height of a satellite taking 2\(\sqrt{2}\) T seconds for one revolution?
Answer:
Given:
(1) Time: T seconds
(2) Height: h₁
Let us assume the height of the satellite completing one revolution in 2\(\sqrt{2}\) T seconds as h₂.

∴ R + h₂ = 2R + 2h₁
∴ h₂ = R + 2h₁

Project:

Project 1.
Collect information about the space missions undertaken by Sunita Williams.
Hints:
The following sources can be used to get the information on the above topic:
(1) Google Search Engine
(2) YouTube
(3) E-books on Sunita Williams
(4) English and other regional language books on Sunita Williams available in your library
(5) Newspaper clippings

Based on the information you have collected from the above sources, complete the project in about 5 pages. You can do value addition to your project with the help of suitable photos, clippings, charts, graphs and sketches.

Project 2.
Assume that you are interviewing Sunita Williams. Prepare a questionnaire and also the answers.
Answer:
Points to make a list of a questionnaire for the interview of Sunita Williams :
(1) Primary and higher education
(2) The source of inspiration to become an astronaut
(3) Information about her mentor
(4) General and specific training
(5) Initial experience of being an astronaut
(6) First space mission, its nature, duration and experience
(7) Natureofresearchcarriedoutinspace
(8) Some special memories
(9) Future plans
(10) Tips and guidance for the younger generation.

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 135)

Question 1.
What is the difference between space and sky?
Answer:

1. The visible portion of the atmosphere and outer space seen by simple eyes, without any equipment from the earth, is known as the sky.
2. The infinite three-dimensional expanse in which the Solar system, stars, celestial bodies, galaxies and the endless Universe exist is known as space.
3. Both sky and space lack a definite boundary. However, the sky is a very tiny part of space.

Question 2.
What are different objects in the Solar system?
Answer:

1. Our Solar system is a very tiny part of a huge Galaxy-Milky Way.
2. The Sun is at the centre of the Solar system. Sun is a star.
3. Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune are planets in our Solar system. These planets revolve around the Sun. Some of these planets have their own natural satellites.
4. Besides, there are asteroids, meteoroids, comets and meteors in the Solar system.

Question 3.
What is meant by a satellite?
Answer:

1. An astronomical object orbiting any planet of our Solar system is called a satellite.
2. Mercury and Venus have no satellites.
3. Some planets have more than one satellite. E.g. Jupiter has 69 satellites.

Question 4.
How many natural satellites does the earth have?
Answer:
The earth has one natural satellite called the moon.

Question 5.
Which type of telescopes are orbiting around the earth? Why is it necessary to put them in space?
Answer:
(1) The following three types of telescopes are orbiting around the earth:

• Optical Refracting Telescope.
• Optical Reflecting Telescope.
• Radio Telescope.

(2) Visible light and radio waves emitted by celestial bodies in space pass through the atmosphere before reaching the earth’s surface. During this journey, some light is absorbed by the atmosphere. Hence, the intensity of the light reaching the earth’s surface decreases. Besides, temperature and air pressure cause the atmospheric turbulence. Hence, light rays change their path, resulting in a change in the position of the image of a celestial body.

City lights during night, and bright sunlight during day also put limitations on usage of optical telescopes on the earth. To minimize these problems, optical telescopes are situated on mountain top, away from inhabited places. However, limitations caused by the atmosphere still persist.

To get rid of these problems scientists have successfully launched telescopes in space. Images obtained by these telescopes are brighter and clearer than those obtained by the telescopes located on the earth’s surface.

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 135)

Question 1.
Where does the signal in your cellphone come from?
Answer:
In nearby area of our residence, many mobile towers are installed at various places. Cellphones receive signals from one of these mobile towers.

Question 2.
Where from does it come to mobile towers?
Answer:
All mobile towers are connected to satellites. Cellphone signal reaching the nearest mobile tower in our vicinity is first transmitted to the satellite. The satellite transmits the signal to the mobile tower near the destination.

Question 3.
Where does the signal to your TV set come from?
Answer:
(1) Television Centre or Studio transmits the TV program which first reaches the satellite. The dish antenna of the cable operator in our area receives these signals. The TV programs reach our TV set through a cable connected between the cable operator’s receiving station and our TV set.

(2) Alternatively, a small portable dish antenna fixed on the rooftop is also used to receive the TV signals directly from the satellites. Finally, a cable connected to the dish antenna and TV set brings the programme to our TV set.

Question 4.
You may have seen photographs showing the position of monsoon clouds over the country in the newspaper. How are these images obtained?
Answer:
Weather satellites take photographs of the sky above the earth’s surface at regular intervals. Some satellites, capable of receiving radio signals, also collect the information of weather conditions and finally images of the sky are built with computers. Territorial boundaries of the states and the country are drawn later on these images. Such satellite images with imposed boundaries are printed in media or shown on the television.

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
A man-made object revolving around the earth in a fixed orbit is called …………..
Answer:
A man-made object revolving around the earth in a fixed orbit is called an artificial satellite.

Question 2.
Chandrayaan-I discovered the presence of ………….. on the moon.
Answer:
Chandrayaan-I discovered the presence of water on the moon.

Question 3.
Apart from launching a satellite around the earth, India has been able to launch a satellite around ……………
Answer:
Apart from launching a satellite around the earth, India has been able to launch a satellite around Mars.

Question 4.
All satellites work on …………… energy.
Answer:
All satellites work on solar energy.

Question 5.
……………. are used to carry and place a satellite in a specific orbit.
Answer:
Satellite launchers are used to carry and place a satellite in a specific orbit.

Question 6.
USA has developed ……………. as an alternative to space launch vehicles.
Answer:
USA has developed space shuttles as an alternative to space launch vehicles.

Question 7.
Hubble telescope is a ………….. satellite.
Answer:
Hubble telescope is a Low Earth Orbit (LEO) satellite.

Question 8.
……………. executed the first ever mission to the moon in the world.
Answer:
Russia executed the first ever mission to the moon in the world.

Question 9.
………… executed the first manned mission to the moon in the world.
Answer:
USA executed the first manned mission to the moon in the world.

Select the appropriate answer from given options:

Question 1.
Which one of the following is a Low Earth Orbit (LEO) satellite?
(a) Navigational satellite
(b) Geostationary satellite
(c) International Space Station
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) International Space Station

Question 2.
Which of the following satellite launchers is developed by India?
(a) INSAT
(b) IRNSS
(c) EDUSAT
(d) PSLV
Answer:
(d) PSLV

Question 3.
Which of the following astronauts travelled through space shuttle ‘Discovery’ first time? (Practice Activity Sheet – 4)
(a) Kalpana Chawla
(b) Rakesh Sharma
(c) Sunita Williams
(d) Neil Armstrong
Answer:
(c) Sunita Williams

Considering the correlation between the words of the first pair, pair the third word accordingly with proper answer. (OR) Considering the first correlation, complete the second.

Question 1.
IRNSS : Direction showing satellite :: INSAT :………… (Practice Activity Sheet – 1)
Answer:
IRNSS : Direction showing satellite :: INSAT : Weather satellite

Question 2.
Hubble telescope : 569 km high from the earth’s surface :: Revolving orbit of Hubble telescope :………. (Practice Activity Sheet – 2; March 2019)
Answer:
Hubble telescope : 569 km high from the earth’s surface :: Revolving orbit of Hubble telescope : Low Earth Orbit.

Match the column:

Question 1.

Column A	Column B
(1) Clouds over India	(a) Low Earth Orbit
(2) Global communication	(b) PSLV
(3) Launch vehicle made by ISRO	(c) Communication satellite
(4) International Space Station	(d) EDUSAT
(5) Navigational satellite	(e) Weather satellite
	(f) Medium Earth Orbit

Answer:
(1) Clouds over India – Weather satellite
(2) Global communication – Communication satellite
(3) Launch vehicle made by ISRO – PSLV
(4) International Space Station – Low Earth Orbit
(5) Navigational satellite – Medium Earth Orbit.

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question 1.
What do you mean by the orbit of a satellite?
Answer:
Orbit of a satellite is its path around the earth.

Question 2.
Which factor decides the orbit of a satellite?
Answer:
The function of a satellite decides the orbit of the satellite.

Question 3.
What is a High Earth Orbit satellite?
Answer:
A satellite orbiting at a height equal to or greater than 35780 km above the earth’s surface is called a High Earth Orbit satellite.

Question 4.
Give two examples of Low Earth Orbit satellites.
Answer:
Weather satellite and International Space Station are Low Earth Orbit satellites.

Question 5.
What is a launch vehicle?
Answer:
A rocket used to carry an artificial satellite to a desired height above the earth’s surface and then project it with a proper velocity so that the satellite orbits the earth in the desired orbit is called a launch vehicle.

Question 6.
Name the launch vehicle developed by India.
Answer:
The launch vehicle developed by India is known as PSLV, i.e., Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Write the proper name of the orbits of satellites shown in the following figure with their height from the earth’s surface. (Practice Activity Sheet – 4)

Answer:

(a) Low earth orbits: height above the earth’s surface: 180 km to 2000 km
(b) Medium earth orbits: height above the earth’s surface: 2000 km to 35780 km
(c) High earth orbits: height from the earth’s surface > 35780 km

Question 2.
Explain the need and importance of space missions.
Answer:
Man has always been curious about the sun, moon, stars and the world beyond the earth. Initially, man tried to observe space with the help of telescopes. However, later he dreamt to fly into space and finally succeeded to reach into space.

Space missions are now essential to understand the origin and evolution of our solar system as well as to study the Universe beyond the Solar system.

Space missions have given us many benefits and made our life simpler. It is because of space missions that the real-time immediate communication and exchange of information across the globe is now possible. We can receive the abundant information at the desk at our home or office. We also get information about any topic at any time and anywhere at fingertips through the Internet. Besides, the advanced alerts about some natural calamities like cyclones or storms are received through satellites sent as a part of space missions. Satellites have also helped us in entertainment. Programmes, sports events, etc., can be telecast live and can reach millions at a time throughout the world.

Satellite surveillance of the enemy, exploring the reserves of various minerals resources, access to various activities like trade, tourism and navigation, and easy global reach to make world a global village is all possible due to the space missions. Thus, space missions are extremely important in defence, communication, weather forecast, observation, direction determination, etc.

Question 3.
What are space expeditions? Explain their need and importance in your words. (Practice Activity Sheet – 2)
Answer:
A mission planned (i) for establishing artificial satellites in the earth’s orbit, using them for research or for the benefit of life, or (ii) for sending a spacecraft to the various components of the solar system or outside is called a space expedition.

Man has always been curious about the sun, moon, stars and the world beyond the earth. Initially, man tried to observe space with the help of telescopes. However, later he dreamt to fly into space and finally succeeded to reach into space. Space missions are now essential to understand the origin and evolution of our solar system as well as to study the Universe beyond the Solar system.

Space missions have given us many benefits and made our life simpler. It is because of space missions that the real-time immediate communication and exchange of information across the globe is now possible. We can receive the abundant information at the desk at our home or office. We also get information about any topic at any time and anywhere at fingertips through the Internet. Besides, the advanced alerts about some natural calamities like cyclones or storms are received through satellites sent as a part of space missions. Satellites have also helped us in entertainment. Programmes, sports events, etc., can be telecast live and can reach millions at a time throughout the world.

Satellite surveillance of the enemy, exploring the reserves of various minerals resources, access to various activities like trade, tourism and navigation, and easy global reach to make world a global village is all possible due to the space missions. Thus, space missions are extremely important in defence, communication, weather forecast, observation, direction determination, etc.

Question 4.
What are the objectives of the space mission?
Answer:
Man initially tried to satisfy his curiosity to know the world and universe beyond the earth with the help of telescopes. However, it has some obvious limitations and to overcome these limitations, man later ventured into space missions.

Space missions carried out by man were aimed at four specific objectives:

1. To launch artificial satellites in the earth’s orbit for study and research.
2. To launch artificial satellites in the earth’s orbit for various purposes like telecommunication, weather forecast, radio and TV programme transmission, etc.
3. To send artificial satellites beyond the earth’s orbit to observe, study and collect the information from other planets, meteors, meteoroids, asteroids and comets.
4. To sense and understand space beyond the solar system.

Question 5.
Write on significant space missions carried out by man.
Answer:
Man has carried out many space missions within and beyond the earth’s orbit. Significant space missions are as follows:
(1) Space missions within the earth’s orbit: Man has so far sent many artificial satellites of various types in the earth’s orbit. These satellites have made the life of man simpler. Besides, it has also helped us in resource management, communication, disaster management, etc.

(2) Moon missions : Moon is the natural satellite , of the earth and it is the nearest celestial body to us. Naturally, our initial space missions were directed to the moon. As of now, only Russia, USA, European Union, China, Japan and India have successfully undertaken . moon missions. Russia executed 15 moon missions between 1959 and 1976. Of these, last 4 missions brought the stone samples from the moon for study and analysis. However all these missions were unmanned. USA executed moon missions between 1962 and 1972. Some of these missions were unmanned.

However, the historic moon mission took place on 20^th July, 1969, when American astronaut Neil Armstrong became the first human to step on the moon. India has undertaken the moon mission. Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) successfully launched Chandrayaan-I and placed it in orbit of the moon. It sent useful information to the earth for about a year. The most important discovery made during the mission was the presence of water on moon’s surface. India was the first country to discover this.

(3) Mars mission: The second nearest celestial object to the earth is Mars and many nations sent spacecraft towards it. But only few of them have been successful. However, the performance of Mangalyaan, the Indian spacecraft sent by ISRO towards Mars, was remarkable. Mangalyaan was launched in November 2013 and was placed in the orbit of Mars successfully in September 2014. It has obtained useful information about the surface and atmosphere of Mars.

(4) Space missions to other planets: Other than moon and Mars missions, many other space missions were undertaken for studying other planets. Some spacecraft orbited the planets, some landed on some planets, and some just observed the planets, passed near them and went further to study other celestial bodies. Some spacecraft were sent specifically to study asteroids and comets. Some spacecraft’s have brought dust and stone samples from asteroids for the study.

All these space missions are very useful in getting information and helping us in clarifying our concepts about the origin of the earth and the Solar system.

Question 6.
Bring out the contribution of India’s space missions.
Answer:
Successful space missions as well as scientific and technological accomplishments by India in space technology have made a significant contribution in the national and social development of our country.
India has indigenously built various launchers and these launchers can put the satellites having the mass up to 2500 kg in orbit.

Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has designed and built two important launchers: Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) and Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV).

Many satellites in INS AT and GSAT series are active in telecommunication, television broadcasting, meteorological services, disaster management and in monitoring and management of natural resources. EDUSAT is used specifically for education while satellites in IRNSS series are used for navigation. Thumba, Sriharikota and Chandipur are Indian satellite launch centers.

Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre at Thiruvananthapuram, Satish Dhawan Space Research Centre at Sriharikota and Space Application Centre at Ahmedabad are space research organizations of India.

Question 7.
What is meant by space debris? Why is there need to manage the debris? (March 2019)
Answer:
In a space nonessential objects such as the parts of launchers and satellites, revolving around the earth are called the debris in space.

The debris can be harmful to the artificial satellites. It can collide with the satellite or spacecrafts and damage them. Therefore the future of artificial satellites or spacecrafts are in danger.
Hence, it is necessary to manage the debris.

Solve the following examples/numerical problems:
[Note: See the textbook for the relevant data.]

Problem 1.
If the mass of a planet is 8 times that of the earth and its radius is twice the radius of the earth, what will be the escape velocity for that planet? (Escape velocity for the earth = 11.2 km/s) (Practice Activity Sheet – 2)
Answer:
Given:
Mass of the planet = 8ME radius of the planet, Rp = 2RE,
escape velocity for the earth, υ_escE = 11.2 km/s
escape velocity for the planet, υ_escP = ?

Problem 2.
Calculate the critical velocity (υ_c) of the satellite to be located at 35780 km above the surface of the earth.
Answer:
Given:
G: 6.67 × 10^-11 N·m²/kg²,
M(Earth): 6 × 10²⁴ kg,
R(Earth): 6.4 × 10⁶ m,
h: 35780 km = 35780 × 10³ m,
υ_c = ?
Critical velocity of the satellite

= 3.08 × 10³ m/s
= 3.08 Km/s.

Problem 3.
In the above example (2) how much time will the satellite take to complete one revolution around the earth?
Answer:
Given:
R: 6400mkm = 6.4 × 10⁶ m
h: 35780 km = 3.5780 × 10⁷ m
v: 3.08 km/s = 3.08 × 10³ m/s
T = ?
The time required for the satellite to complete one revolution around the earth,

= Approx 86060 s
= 23 hours 54 minutes 20 seconds

Problem 4.
Calculate the critical velocity (υ_c) of the satellite to be located at 2000 km above the surface of the earth.
Answer:
Refer to the example (2) above.
Here,h = 2 × 10⁶ m
υ_c = 6902 m/s

Problem 5.
In the above example (4), how much time will the satellite take to complete one revolution around the earth?
Answer:
Refer to example (3) above.
Approx 7647 s
= 2 hours 7 minutes 27 seconds.
[Note: For more solved problems and problems for practice, refer Chapter 1 (Gravitation)]

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 3 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part – 2 Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 3 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part – 2

Question 1.
Complete the following chart.

Asexual reproduction	Sexual reproduction
1. Reproduction that occurs with the help of somatic cells is called asexual reproduction.	1. __________________________________________ ____________________________________________
2. __________________________________________ ____________________________________________	2. Male and female parent are necessary for sexual reproduction.
3. This reproduction occurs with the help of mitosis only.	3. __________________________________________ ____________________________________________
4. __________________________________________ ____________________________________________	4. New individual formed by this method is genetically different from parents.
5. Asexual reproduction occurs in different individuals by various methods like binary fission, multiple fission, budding, fragmentation, regeneration, vegetative propagation, spore production, etc.	5. __________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________

Answer:

Asexual reproduction	Sexual reproduction
1. Reproduction that occurs with the help of somatic cells is called asexual reproduction.	1. Reproduction that occurs due to fertilization of gametes is called sexual reproduction.
2. For asexual reproduction only one parent is necessary.	2. Male and female parents are necessary for sexual reproduction.
3. This reproduction occurs with the help of mitosis only.	3. This reproduction occurs with the help of both mitosis and meiosis.
4. New individual formed by this method is genetically identical with parents.	4. New individual formed by this method is genetically different from parents.
5. Asexual reproduction occurs in different individuals by various methods like binary fission, multiple fission, budding, fragmentation, regeneration, vegetative propagation, spore production, etc.	5. Sexual reproduction occurs in two steps: First formation of haploid gametes by meiosis and then fertilization of these haploid gametes to form diploid zygote. There are no subtypes in the sexual reproduction.

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks.
a. In humans, sperm production occurs in the organ …………
(a) prostate gland
(b) testis
(c) ovaries
(d) Cowper’s gland
Answer:
(b) testis

b. In humans, …………. chromosome is responsible for maleness.
(a) X
(b) Y
(c) Z
(d) O
Answer:
(b) Y

c. In male and female reproductive system of human, …………. gland is same.
Answer:
There is no similar gland in male and female reproductive system. There may be some homologies but there is no similarity.

d. Implantation of embryo occurs in …………
(a) ovaries
(b) fallopian duct
(c) uterus
(d) vagina
Answer:
(c) uterus

e. …………type of reproduction occurs without fusion of gametes.
(a) Asexual
(b) sexual
(c) Fertilization
(d) Gamete formation
Answer:
(a) Asexual

f. Body breaks up into several fragments and each fragment begins to live as a new individual.
This is ………. type of reproduction.
(a) regeneration
(b) fragmentation
(c) binary fission
(d) budding
Answer:
(b) fragmentation

g. Pollen grains are formed by division in locules of anthers.
(a) meiosis
(b) mitosis
(c) amitosis
(d) binary
Answer:
(a) meiosis

Question 3.
Complete the paragraph with the help of words given in the bracket:
(Luteinizing hormone, endometrium of uterus, follicle stimulating hormone, estrogen, progesterone, corpus luteum)
Growth of follicles present in the ovary occurs under the effect of ………….. This follicle secretes estrogen. Ovarian follicle along with oocyte grows/regenerates under the effect of estrogen. Under the effect of ………….., fully grown up follicle bursts, ovulation occurs and …………….. is formed from remaining part of follicle. It secretes ……………. and ………. Under the effect of these hormones, glands of ……….. are activated and it becomes ready for implantation.
Answer:
Growth of follicles present in the ovary occurs under the effect of follicle stimulating hormone. This follicle secretes estrogen. Ovarian follicle along with oocyte grows/regenerates under the effect of estrogen. Under the effect of Luteinizing hormone, fully grown up follicle bursts, ovulation occurs and corpus luteum is formed from remaining part of follicle. It secretes estrogen and progesterone. Under the effect of these hormones, glands of endometrium of uterus are activated and it becomes ready for implantation.

Question 4.
Answer the following questions short.
a. Explain with examples types of asexual reproduction in unicellular organism.
Answer:


There are different methods of asexual reproduction in different unicellular animals.
(1) Binary fission: The process in which the parent cell divides to form two similar daughter cells
is binary fission. It takes place either by mitosis or amitosis. When there are favourable conditions and abundant food supply then the organisms undergo binary fission. Prokaryotes, Protists and eukaryotic 5 cell-organelle like mitochondria and chloroplasts perform binary fission.

Based on axis of fission there are three subtypes of binary fission.
(a) Simple binary fission: The plane of division is not definite, it can be in any direction due to lack of specific shape as in Amoeba.
(b) Transverse binary fission: The plane of J division is transverse, as in Paramoecium.
(c) Longitudinal binary fission: The plane of division is in length-wise direction as in Euglena.

(2) Multiple fission:

During unfavourable conditions when there is lack of food, multiple fission is shown by amoeba. Amoeba forms protective covering and becomes encysted. Inside the cyst, amoeba undergoes repeated nuclear division. This is followed by cytoplasmic divisions. Many amoebulae are formed which remain dormant inside the cyst. When favourable conditions reappear, they come out by breaking the cyst.

(3) Budding in yeast:

Yeast is unicellular fungus that performs budding. The parent cell produces two daughter nuclei by mitotic division. This results in a small bulgingbud on the surface of parent cell. One daughter nucleus enters the bud. It then grows and upon becoming big it separates from the parent cell to have independent life as new yeast cell.

b. Explain the concept of IVF.
Answer:
(1) IVF means In Vitro Fertilization (IVF)
(2) This is the technique in the modern medical field where childless couples can be blessed by their own child.
(3) IVF technique is used for childless couples who are faced with problems such as less sperm count, obstacles in oviduct, etc.
(4) The IVF technique is done by removing the oocyte from the mother and artificially fertilizing by the sperms collected from father. This fertilization is done in a test-tube. Thus it is also called test tube baby. The embryo formed is implanted in uterus of real mother or a surrogate mother at appropriate time.

c. Which precautions will you follow to maintain the reproductive health?
Answer:
About reproductive health one should have scientific and authentic information. The cleanliness of body is very essential but keeping the mind clean is also important to maintain good reproductive health. One should be careful about sexual relationships. These things should not be experimented in young age. Mistakes committed like these can change the sexual health forever. The cleanliness and hygiene during menstruation, the cleanliness of genitals and other private parts are the aspects of personal hygiene. When living in a society, one should always be away from cross-infections of venereal type.

d. What is menstrual cycle? Describe it in brief.
Answer:

• Menstrual cycle is the events of cyclic changes that takes place with the interval of 28 to 30 days in mature woman.
• Hormones from pituitary, FSH (Follicle Stimulating Hormone) and LH (Luteinizing Hormone) and hormones from ovary, estrogen and progesterone control the menstrual cycle.
• Due to influence of FSH, the ovarian follicle grows along with the oocyte that is present in it.
• This growing follicle produces estrogen.
• Under the influence of estrogen, the uterine inner layer called endometrium grows or regenerates. In the meantime the development of follicle is completed.
• LH from pituitary stimulates the bursting of ovarian follicle and releases the mature oocyte out of the follicle and the ovarian wall. This process is called ovulation.
• The empty ovarian follicle after the ovulation becomes corpus luteum. Corpus luteum produces hormone progesterone.
• Under the influence of progesterone, the glands from uterine endometrium start secreting. The oocyte if fertilized is implanted over this endometrium.
• If oocyte is not fertilized, the corpus luteum becomes a degenerate body called corpus albicans. The corpus albicans cannot secrete estrogen and progesterone.
• Due to lack of these hormones, the endometrial layer of the uterus collapses. The tissue debris, along with unfertilized egg is given out through the vagina as menstrual flow. This results in bleeding for about 5 days.
• If woman is not pregnant, then this menstrual cycle keeps on repeating with regularity.

Question 5.
In case of sexual reproduction, newborn show similarities about characters. Explain this statement with suitable examples.
Answer:
(1) Sexual reproduction occurs due to two different gametes. One male gamete is from father while the other female gamete is from mother.
(2) Both the gametes are produced by meiosis.
(3) When the gametes unite it is called process of fertilization which produces diploid zygote.
(4) Due to the chromosomes of parents, their DNA pass to the next generation through such fertilization. Therefore, the characters of newborn show similarities with parents.

Question 6.
Sketch the labelled diagrams.
a. Human male reproductive system.
Answer:

b. Human female reproductive system.
Answer:

c. Flower with its reproductive organs.
Answer:

d. Menstrual cycle.
Answer:

Question 7.
Give the names.
a. Hormones related with male reproductive system.
Answer:
Follicle stimulating hormone and ICSH or Luteinizing hormone secreted by pituitary gland, testosterone secreted by testis.

b. Hormones secreted by ovary of female reproductive system.
Answer:
Estrogen and progesterone.

c. Types of twins.
Answer:
Monozygotic twins, Siamese twins and Dizygotic twins.

d. Any two sexual diseases.
Answer:
Gonorrhea and Syphilis.

e. Methods of family planning.
Answer:
Copper T, condoms, oral contraceptive pills.

Question 8.
Gender of child is determined by the male? partner of couple. Explain with reasons whether this statement is true or false.
(OR)
“A couple shall have a male child or female child totally depends upon husband”. Prove truthfulness of this statement with scientific reason.
Answer:

Sex determination in Human being
(1) The statement Gender of child is determined by the male partner of couple is true.
(2) It is clearly seen from the diagram that there are two types of sperms produced by males. One sperm has a X chromosome while the other has a Y chromosome, apart from autosomes. The mother on the other hand has all X bearing oocytes. Thus the sperm that fertilizes the oocyte decides the sex of the child.
(3) If X bearing sperm fertilizes the oocyte, daughter is born and when Y bearing sperm fertilizes the oocyte, son is born.
(4) Thus father or male partner is responsible for the determination of the sex.

Question 9.
Explain asexual reproduction in plants.
Answer:

• Vegetative propagation is the method of asexual reproduction in plants.
• It takes place with the help of vegetative parts like root, stem, leaf and bud.
• Potato, suran (Amorphophallus) and other tubes propagate with the help of ‘eyes’ which are buds. These eyes are present on the stem tubers.
• In case of plants like sugarcane and grasses, buds present on nodes perform vegetative propagation.
• Plants like Bryophyllum performs vegetative propagation with the help of buds present on leaf margin.

Question 10.
Modern techniques like surrogate mother, sperm bank and IVF technique will help the human beings. Justify this statement.
OR
Despite various diagnostic tests, a couple could not have a child. In this situation, which remedies will you suggest? (July 2019)
Answer:
(1) Some couples want a child but they are not able to bear one due to various problems either in mother or in father. In such cases modern techniques such as IVF, surrogacy and sperm bank are useful in conceiving a child.

(2) These methods are as follows:
(i) Surrogacy: In woman if there is problem regarding the implantation of embryo in uterus, then help of another women is taken. This women is called surrogate mother.

Oocyte from real mother is taken out and fertilized with sperms collected from her husband. These gametes are fertilized outside in a test-tube and then the fertilized zygote is implanted in the surrogate mother.

(ii) In Vitro Fertilization (IVF) is done when there are problems like less sperm count or obstacles in oviduct. In IVF, fertilization is done in the test-tube. The embryo formed is implanted in uterus of woman for further growth.

(iii) Sperm bank: If man has problems with the sperm production, then the sperms are collected from the sperm bank. Sperm bank is the place where the donor’s donate the sperms and such sperms are kept stored. The donor’s identity is kept secret and he should also be physically and medically fit person.

Question 11.
Explain sexual reproduction in plants.
(OR)
Explain double fertilization in plants.
Answer:

• Plants reproduce sexually with the help of flowers.
• Androecium and gynoecium are male and female parts of the flowers respectively.
• In the carpel, the ovule undergoes meiosis and forms embryo sac.
• A haploid egg cell and two haploid polar nuclei are present in each embryo sac.
• The pollen grains from the anther reach the stigma of flower by the process of pollination. They germinate here on the stigma.
• As a result of germination, long pollen tube and two male gametes are formed.
• The pollen tube travels through the style of flower and the male gametes present in the pollen tube are transferred till the embryo sac in ovary. Upon reaching there, tip of the pollen tube bursts releasing two male gametes in embryo sac.
• One male gamete unites with the egg cell and forms zygote. While other male gamete unites with two polar nuclei forming the endosperm.
• Because there are two nuclei participating in this process, therefore it is called double fertilization.
• After fertilization ovule develops into seed and ovary forms a fruit. When the seed again gets favourable conditions, it can produce a new plant.

Activities: (Do it your self)

Question 1.
Collect the official data about present and a decade old population of various Asian countries and plot a graph of that data. With the help of it, draw your conclusions about demographic changes.

Question 2.
With the help of your teacher, compose and present a road show to increase the awareness about prenatal gender detection and gender bias.

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 22)

Question 1.
Which are the important life processes in living organisms?
Answer:
The important life processes in living organisms are respiration, circulation, nutrition, excretion, sensation and response through nervous system.

Question 2.
Which life processes are essential for production of energy required by body?
Answer:
The oxidation of nutrients that are absorbed in body is done because of oxygen supplied to cells by respiratory and circulatory system. This helps in liberation of energy. Thus respiration, circulation and nutrition are the life processes that are essential for production of energy required by body.

Question 3.
Which are main types of cell division? What are the differences?
Answer:
The main types of cell division are mitosis and meiosis. In mitosis, the chromosome number remains the same. 2 daughter cells are obtained from one cell. In meiosis, the chromosome number is reduced to half. From one cell, four daughter cells are obtained.

Question 4.
What is the role of chromosomes in cell division?
Answer:
Due to chromosomes, the DNA from parental cells enter into daughter cells. The hereditary, characters are transmitted to next generation by cell division.

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 22)

Question 1.
What do we mean by maintenance of species?
Answer:
Maintenance of species means a species undertakes successful reproduction and produces individuals of its own kind. This keeps the species existing on the earth.

Question 2.
Whether the new organism is genetically exactly similar to earlier one that has produced it?
Answer:
No. The new organism produced from the old one is not genetically exactly similar to the parents. In meiotic cell division there is crossing over in the homologous chromosomes. This produces genetic recombination. Thus the new organism is different from the earlier one. However, if the reproduction is of asexual type, then the young one is exactly similar to the parents.

Question 3.
Who determines whether the two organisms of a species will be exactly similar or not?
Answer:
The type of reproduction, whether it is asexual or sexual, the type of crossing over, the extent of genetic recombination, etc. determine the similarity among the parent organisms and their, offspring. Based on this genetic recombination the two organisms of a species do not show exact similarity. However, in case of monozygotic twins there is exact similarity. In asexual reproduction to there is similarity.

Question 4.
What is the relationship between the cell division and formation of new organism of same species by earlier existing organism?
Answer:
In the process of reproduction, there is division of chromosomes. Due to cell division, the gametes are formed. The union of gametes produce new offspring. In sexual reproduction, all these processes take place due to cell division. In asexual reproduction too there is cell division. Growth of new organism also occurs due to cell division.

Let’s Think: (Text Book Page No. 26)

Question 1.
What would have been happened if the male and female gametes had been diploid?
Answer:
Diploid (2n) gametes if united, they will form 4n, i.e. tetraploid variety. Such zygote will show severe abnormality. The chromosome number will not be maintained.

Question 2.
What would have been happened if any of the cells in nature had not been divided by meiosis?
Answer:
If meiosis does not happen the gametes produced will be diploid. This will create abnormality.

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 28)

Question 1.
Which different hormones control the functions of human reproductive system through chemical coordination?
Answer:
Pituitary gland secretes FSH and LH. LH is known as ICSH in males, as its function in the male body is different. From the gonads of male and female, hormones are secreted which are essential for male and female reproductive functions respectively. These hormones are testosterone secreted from testis in males and estrogen and progesterone secreted from the ovaries in females. Testosterone is essential for masculinity as well as for sperm production while female hormones are essential for changes in the female body leading to motherhood.

Question 2.
Which hormones are responsible for changes in human body occurring during onset of sexual maturity?
Answer:
Testosterone in male body and estrogen in female body are responsible for maturity onset changes in human body.

Question 3.
Why has the Government of India enacted the law to fix the minimum age of marriage as 18 in girls and 21 in boys?
Answer:
The full growth of female body is not completed till the age of 18. Till 18 years of age the physical and emotional maturity is not attained. Therefore, she is not suitable for marriage, sexual relationship and pregnancy. Similarly, boy attains complete growth only the age of 21. Therefore, to keep individuals and their progeny safe and healthy the Government of India enacted the law to fix the minimum age of marriage as 18 in girls and 21 in boys.

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 31)

Question 1.
Which hormone is released from pituitary of mother once the foetal development is completed?
Answer:
The hormone oxytocin is released from the posterior pituitary of mother once the foetal development is completed.

Question 2.
Under the effect of that hormone, which organ of the female reproductive system starts to contract and thereby birth process (parturition) is facilitated?
Answer:
Due to oxytocin, uterus contracts involuntarily and the baby is expelled out. Thus initiation of birth process is possible due to contractions of uterus.

Use your brain power. (Text Book Page No. 24)

Question 1.
Does the parent cell exist after asexual reproduction-fission?
Answer:
In fission, the parent cell divides into two. This nucleus and cytoplasm, both are divided. Thus, parent cell does not exist any longer, it is converted into new cells.

Choose the correct alternative and write that alphabet against the sub-question number:

Question 1.
Pranav and Pritee are twins in your class. They belong to ……….. twins type.
(a) monozygotic
(b) dizyotic
(c) siamese
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) dizyotic

Question 2.
Longitudinal binary fission is seen in …………..
(a) Paramoecium
(b) Euglena
(c) Amoeba
(d) Spirogyra
Answer:
(b) Euglena

Question 3.
Yeast cell performs asexual reproduction by ……………..
(a) fragmentation
(b) budding
(c) binary fission
(d) regeneration
Answer:
(b) budding

Question 4.
Carrot and raddish undergoes …………. with the help of their roots.
(a) vegetative propagation
(b) fragmentation
(c) budding
(d) regeneration
Answer:
(a) vegetative propagation

Question 5.
Androecium and gynoecium are ……….. whorl of the flower.
(a) accessory
(b) essential
(c) external
(d) internal
Answer:
(b) essential

Question 6.
Flowers without stalk are called ……….. flowers.
(a) stalkless
(b) sessile
(c) incomplete
(d) complete
Answer:
(b) sessile

Question 7.
………….. on the inner surface of fallopian ducts (oviducts) push the egg towards uterus.
(a) Cilia
(b) Tentacles
(c) Flagella
(d) Fibres
Answer:
(a) Cilia

Question 8.
Pregnant mother supplies nourishment to her foetus through …………..
(a) breasts
(b) uterus
(c) placenta
(d) ovaries
Answer:
(c) placenta

Question 9.
The length of a sperm is about …………. micrometers.
(a) 400
(b) 5
(c) 60
(d) 600 (July ’19)
Answer:
(c) 60

Question 10.
Vegetative propagation is performed with the help of ……….. in sweet potato.
(a) root
(b) stem
(c) leaf
(d) flower
Answer:
(a) root

Question 11.
Which of the following is not a unisexual flower?
(a) Coconut
(b) Papaya
(c) Gulmohar
(d) Maize
Answer:
(c) Gulmohar

Write whether the following statements are true or false, with the suitable reason:

Question 1.
Absence of genetic recombination is an advantage whereas fast process is drawback of asexual reproductive method.
Answer:
False. (Absence of genetic recombination is a drawback whereas fast process is advantage of asexual reproductive method.)

Question 2.
Prokaryotes show fission which occurs either by mitosis or amitosis.
Answer:
True. (Prokaryotes show fission by both the methods, i.e. mitosis and amitosis.)

Question 3.
During favourable conditions multiple fission is performed by amoeba.
Answer:
False. (During unfavourable conditions multiple fission is performed by amoeba.)

Question 4.
Any encysted Amoeba or any other protist is called ‘Cyst’.
Answer:
True. (Cyst is the tough capsule like structure which keeps the protists dormant inside it. This helps the organisms to tide over unfavourable conditions.)

Question 5.
If the body of Sycon breaks up accidentally into only large and few fragments, then only each fragment develops into new Sycon.
Answer:
False. (If the body of Sycon breaks up accidentally into many fragments, each fragment develops into new Sycon. Because the capacity to regenerate is very strong in poriferan Sycon, even a small piece of parent Sycon can give rise to entire new individual.)

Question 6.
Pollen tube reaches the zygote via style.
Answer:
False. (Pollen tube reaches the embryo sac via style. Later, double fertilization takes place and the zygote and endosperm are formed.)

Question 7.
There is glucose sugar in the semen.
Answer:
False. (There is fructose sugar in the semen. Glucose is not present in semen.)

Question 8.
Out of 2 – 4 million ova, approximately only 400 oocytes are released up to the age of menopause.
Answer:
True. (During the reproductive span of the woman, from menarche to menopause only one oocyte per one month is released in the span of 30 to 35 years.)

Question 9.
If the oocyte is fertilized, secretion of estrogen and progesterone stops completely.
Answer:
False. (If the oocyte is not fertilized, there is no need of corpus luteum which secretes progesterone. In absence of conception, the progesterone is not needed, thus corpus luteum degenerates and forms corpus albicans.)

Question 10.
During menstruation there is need of rest along with special personal hygiene.
Answer:
True. (During phase of menstruation there is pain and bleeding in woman. Her body is also susceptible for infections. There is weakness and hence she needs rest along with special personal hygiene.)

Find the odd one out:

Question 1.
Circulation, Excretion, Sensation, Reproduction.
Answer:
Reproduction. (All others are processes necessary for survival of the individual.)

Question 2.
Budding in hydra, Regeneration, Binary fission, Fragmentation
Answer:
Binary fission. (All others are processes of asexual reproduction in multicellular organisms.)

Question 3.
Carrot, Radish, Potato, Sweet potato.
Answer:
Potato. (All others are edible roots.)

Question 4.
Vas eferens, vas deferens, prostate gland, epididymis.
Answer:
Prostate gland. (All others are duct systems in male reproductive system.)

Question 5.
Prostate gland, Bartholin’s gland, Cowper’s gland, Epididymis.
Answer:
Bartholin’s glands. (All others are parts of male reproductive system.)

Question 6.
Stigma, style, pollen, ovary.
Answer:
Pollen. (All others are parts of gynoecium.)

Identify the correlation between the first two words and suggest the suitable words in the fourth place:

Question 1.
Amoeba : Fission : : Hydra : ………….
Answer:
Amoeba : Fission : : Hydra : Budding

Question 2.
Transverse binary fission : Paramoecium : : Longitudinal binary fission : ………… (July ‘19)
Answer:
Transverse binary fission : Paramoecium : : Longitudinal binary fission : Euglena

Question 3.
Calyx : Sepals : : Corolla : ………….
Answer:
Calyx : Sepals : : Corolla : Petals

Question 4.
Accessory whorls : Calyx and corolla : : Essential whorls : ………..
Answer:
Accessory whorls : Calyx and corolla : : Essential whorls : Androecium and gynoeciuin

Question 5.
Bisexual flower : Hibiscus : : Unisexual flower : ………….
Answer:
Bisexual flower : Hibiscus : : Unisexual flower : Papaya

Question 6.
FSH : Development of qocyte : : LH : ………….
Answer:
FSH : Development of qocyte : : LH : Ovulation

Define the following/Give meanings of the following:

Question 1.
Budding in yeast.
Answer:
Budding in yeast: Budding is the asexual reproductive process in which a! small bulge or bud appears on the surface of parent cell as seen in unicellular yeast.

Question 2.
Budding in hydra.
Answer:
Budding in hydra: Budding in hydra is asexual reproductive process in which an outgrowth is formed by repeated divisions of regenerative cells of body wall called bud.

Question 3.
Regeneration.
Answer:
Regeneration: Regeneration is the asexual reproduction in Planaria in which the body is broken up into two parts and resulting each part regenerates remaining part of the body.

Question 4.
Fragmentation.
Answer:
Fragmentation: Fragmentation is the asexual type of reproduction in which the body of parent organism breaks up into many fragments. Each fragment can start living independently.

Question 5.
Vegetative propagation.
Answer:
Vegetative propagation: Vegetative propagation is a type of asexual reproduction in plants that takes place with the help of vegetative parts like root, stem, leaf and bud.

Question 6.
Fertilization.
Answer:
Fertilization: The process by which two haploid gametes unite to form a diploid zygote is called fertilization.

Question 7.
Pedicel.
Answer:
Pedicel: The stalk of the flower which is for the support is called pedicel.

Question 8.
Pollination.
Answer:
Pollination: Transfer of pollen grains from anther to the stigma is called pollination.

Question 9.
Self-Pollination.
Answer:
Self-Pollination: Pollination involving only one flower or two flowers borne on same plant is called self-pollination.

Question 10.
Cross-Pollination.
Answer:
Cross-Pollination: Pollination involving two flowers borne on two plants of same species is cross-pollination.

Question 11.
Endosperm.
Answer:
Endosperm: Endosperm is the nourishing substance formed by the union of second male gamete with two polar nuclei at the time of fertilization in plants.

Question 12.
Embryo sac.
Answer:
Embryo sac: There are many ovules in the ovary, the structure formed in each of the ovule by meiosis is called embryo sac.

Question 13.
Menopause.
Answer:
Menopause: Stoppage of functioning of female reproductive system due to lack of synthesis of hormones due to advancing age is called menopause.

Question 14.
Placenta.
Answer:
Placenta: An organ developed in the uterus of the pregnant mother, through which the embryo is given nourishment is called placenta.

Question 15.
Menstrual cycle.
Answer:
Menstrual cycle: The repetitive changes at the interval of every 28-30 days in female reproductive system that take place after puberty, form menstrual cycle.

Question 16.
Corpus luteum.
Answer:
Corpus luteum: Corpus luteum is the secondary structure that is formed from empty ovarian follicle after ovulation. This corpus luteum produces progesterone and thereby maintains pregnancy.

Question 17.
Corpus albicans.
Answer:
Corpus albicans: Corpus albicans is the degenerate body which is formed from corpus luteum, if the ovum is not fertilized.

Question 18.
Ovulation.
Answer:
Ovulation: Bursting of mature ovarian follicle under the influence of hormones to release the oocyte is called ovulation.

Question 19.
IVF.
Answer:
IVF: In Vitro Fertilization is the technique in which fertilization is brought about outside the female body but in the test-tube and the embryo is implanted in uterus of woman.

Question 20.
Sperm bank.
Answer:
Sperm bank: Sperm bank is the place where semen donated by the desired men is collected after their thorough physical and medical check-up and stored at sub-zero temperatures in sterile conditions.

Name the following/Give the names:

Question 1.
Different glands associated with male reproductive system.
Answer:
Seminal vesicles, Prostate gland, Cowper’s or bulbourethral glands.

Question 2.
Agents of pollination.
Answer:
Biotic: Insects, birds, few animals.
Abiotic: Water and wind.

Question 3.
Components of semen.
Answer:
Secretion of prostate gland seminal vesicles and Cowper’s glands along with sperms.

Question 4.
Two accessory whorls in flower.
Answer:
Calyx and corolla.

Question 5.
Two essential whorls in flower.
Answer:
Androecium and gynoecium.

Question 6.
The modern techniques in reproduction.
Answer:
In Vitro Fertilization, Surrogate mother, Sperm bank.

Question 7.
Symptoms of gonorrhea.
Answer:
Painful and burning sensation during urination, oozing of pus through penis and vagina, inflammation of urinary tract, anus, throat, eyes, etc.

Question 8.
Symptoms of syphilis.
Answer:
Occurrence of chancre (patches) on various parts of body including genitals, rash, fever, inflammation of joints, alopecia, etc.

Write the functions of the following organs:

Question 1.
Sporangium.
Answer:
Storing the spores and releasing them by bursting.

Question 2.
Calyx.
Answer:
Protection of inner whorls of the flower.

Question 3.
Corolla.
Answer:
Attracting insects for pollination. Protecting inner whorls.

Question 4.
Androecium.
Answer:
Production of pollen grains, the male gametes of flower.

Question 5.
Gynoecium.
Answer:
Production of female gametes of flower. Participating in production of fruits.

Question 6.
Endosperm.
Answer:
Nourishment of the growing embryo.

Question 7.
Testis.
Answer:
Production of sperms and male hormone-testosterone.

Question 8.
Scrotum.
Answer:
Protection and temperature control of testis.

Question 9.
Seminal vesicles.
Answer:
Secretion of seminal fluid which forms major portion of semen. Nourishment of sperms.

Question 10.
Penis.
Answer:
Transferring of sperms to vagina at the time of intercourse. Release of urine at the time of urination.

Question 11.
Ovary.
Answer:
Production of oocytes and female hormones – estrogen and progesterone.

Question 12.
Uterus.
Answer:
Growth and development of foetus during pregnancy. Helping in parturition (childbirth) by contractions.

Question 13.
Fallopian tubes/ducts.
Answer:
Transporting the released oocyte after ovulation to the uterus. Providing space for fertilization of oocyte by sperm. Conception is possible only when sperm and oocyte meet in the fallopian tube.

Question 14.
Vagina.
Answer:
Passage for copulation/intercourse. Birth canal. Passage for menstrual flow.

Question 15.
Placenta.
Answer:
Supplying nourishment to the growing foetus.

Distinguish between:

Question 1.
Binary fission and Multiple fission.
Answer:
Binary fission:

1. Two new individuals are formed from one old individual at one time.
2. The division of nucleus and cytoplasm takes place initially.
3. The axis of division can be transverse, longitudinal or any one axis as it is in simple binary fission.
4. Formation of protective cyst does not take place.
5. Binary fission can be done during favourable period.

Multiple fission:

1. Many new individuals are formed from one old individual at one time.
2. Only nucleus divides initially followed by division of cytoplasm.
3. There is no exact axis for the fission.
4. Protective covering is formed around dividing amoebulae which is called cyst.
5. Multiple fission takes place only at the time of unfavourable period.

Question 2.
Human male and Human female reproduction system.
Answer:
Human male reproductive system:

1. Testis are essential organs which are located outside the abdomen in the scrotal sacs.
2. There is common urethra through which urine and semen, are passed out.
3. Reproductive system of male continues to work even in old age.
4. Sperms or male gametes are produced by meiosis in the testis.
5. Sperms are produced in millions at one time.
6. Three accessory glands are associated with the male reproductive system.
7. Testis secrete testosterone which is essential male hormone.

Human female reproductive system:

1. Ovaries are essential organs which are located along with all other organs inside the lower abdomen.
2. Urethra and vagina are two separate openings that open to outside.
3. Reproductive system works only till menopause.
4. Oocytes or ova are produced by meiosis in the ovaries.
5. Only single oocyte is produced per month.
6. Only one gland is associated with female reproductive system.
7. Ovaries produce estrogen and progesterone which are essential female hormones.

Question 3.
Monozygotic twins and Dizygotic twins.
Answer:
Monozygotic twins:

1. Two children developing from only one zygote are called monozygotic twins.
2. Monozygotic twins develop from same oocyte.
3. Gender of both the twins is same.
4. The monozygotic twins are genetically exactly alike.

Dizygotic twins:

1. Two children developing from two different zygotes are called dizygotic twins.
2. Dizygotic twins develop from two different oocytes.
3. Gender of both the twins can be same or can be different.
4. The dizygotic twins are genetically not exactly alike.

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
Individual developed by sexual reproduction always carry recombined genes of both the parents.
Answer:

• In sexual reproduction, the haploid male and female gametes are united to form diploid zygote.
• The zygote thus carries chromosomes of both parents which are transferred via male and female gametes.
• While producing gametes, there is meiosis in which genetic recombination takes place.
• Therefore, the individual developed by sexual reproduction always carry recombined genes of both the parents.

Question 2.
Flower is the structural unit of sexual reproduction in plant.
Answer:

• Flower produces male and female gametes.
• For this purpose there are essential whorls of androecium and gynoecium.
• The double fertilization also takes place in flower.
• Therefore, flower is called the structural unit of sexual reproduction in plants.

Question 3.
Fertilization in plants is called double fertilization.
Answer:

• After pollination the pollen grains drop on the sticky stigma of the flower.
• They germinate here producing two male gametes and a long pollen tube.
• The male gametes travel through the pollen tube till they reach the embryo sac.
• Here the male gametes are released by bursting the pollen tube. One male gamete unites with the egg cell to form zygote while the second male gamete unites with two polar nuclei forming endosperm.
• In this way because two nuclei participate in the fertilization process, therefore it is called double fertilization.

Question 4.
By the age of 45 – 50 women gets menopause.
Answer:

• By the age of 45-50, the secretion of hormones which control the functioning of the reproductive system is reduced gradually and then it stops.
• This causes end of menstrual cycle. This results into menopause.

Question 5.
Older mothers have greater chance of conceiving abnormal children.
Answer:

• In older women the menopausal age approaches.
• The oocytes, released from ovaries during this phase are not normal.
• Their meiotic cell division is abnormal and thus oocyte becomes abnormal too.
• If such abnormal oocytes are fertilized, the baby is born with many genetic problems, e.g. Down’s syndrome or Turner’s syndrome.

Question 6.
Indians should follow family planning for controlling the population.
Answer:

• There is severe population explosion in India. It has almost reached to 121 crores.
• This results into unemployment, decreasing per capita income and increasing loan, stress on natural resources, etc.
• Only by controlling population, the quality of life can be restored.
• Therefore, Indians should follow family planning for controlling the population.

Answer the following questions in short:

Question 1.
How does reproduction take place in fungus Mucor?
Answer:

• Mucor reproduces asexually by spore formation.
• It has filamentous body that possess sporangia.
• When the spores are formed, the sporangia burst. The spores are released which settle down at suitable Places.
• They germinate in moist and warm place forming a new fungal colony.

Question 2.
What is the type of asexual reproduction shown in the diagram below? (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Answer:

Type of asexual reproduction shown in the diagram above is fragmentation in Spirogyra.

Question 3.
Describe the structure of a flower.

Answer:
(1) The structural unit of sexual reproduction in plants is flower. There are total four floral whorls. Of these, two are accessory floral whorls while two are essential floral whorls.
(2) Calyx and corolla are accessory whorls. They are protective in nature.
(3) Members of calyx are known as sepals. They are usually green in colour. They protect the inner whorls.
(4) The members of corolla are called petals. They can be of different colours.
(5) Androecium and gynoecium are essential whorls as they participate in sexual reproduction.
(6) The male whorl androecium is made up of stamens. Each stamen has a filament with anther located at the upper end. In the anther there are four locules. Inside the locules the meiosis takes place forming pollen grains. During suitable time, the pollen grains are released from anther lobes.
(7) Gynoecium is made up of carpels, either in separate form or are united. Each carpel is formed of ovary at the basal end hollow ‘style’ and the stigma at the tip of style. There are one or many ovules inside the ovary.
(8) In bisexual flowers both androecium and gynoecium are located in the same flower, e.g. Hibiscus.
(9) In unisexual flowers, androecium is present in male flowers and gynoecium is present in the female flowers, e.g. Papaya.

Question 4.
Describe the human male reproductive system.
Answer:

In human male reproductive system, the reproductive organs are as follows:

• Testes, different types of duct systems and glands.
• Testes are in pair. Each testis lies in the scrotum which lies outside to abdominal cavity.
• Testes -consist of numerous seminiferous tubules. The germinal epithelium of seminiferous tubules form sperms by undergoing meiosis.
• These sperm cells are immature.
• They are pushed gradually through various duct systems till the penis.
• This path is as follows:
  Rete testis → vas efferentia → epididymis → vasa deferentia → Ejaculatory duct → urethra
• As the sperms are travelling, they gradually become mature. They are made capable to perform process of fertilization.
• Seminal vesicles (in pairs), Single prostate gland and a pair of Cowper’s glands secrete their secretions. These secretions and the sperms together form semen.
• This semen is deposited in the vagina with help of penis.

Question 5.
Describe the human female reproductive system.
Answer:

• All the organs of the human female reproductive system are located inside the lower abdomen.
• There are pair of ovaries, pair of fallopian ducts and a single median uterus.
• The uterus opens out by vagina. In vaginal walls there are Bartholin’s glands.
• The urethra in female body is separate and not a common passage as in male body.
• The free end of fallopian duct is funnel-like having an opening in the centre. The oocyte released from the ovary due to ovulation is picked up by this funnel.
• The other end of fallopian duct opens into uterus. There are cilia on inner surface of oviduct. With the help of the cilia the oocyte is pushed to the uterus through the fallopian duct.
• The fertilization of oocyte can take place only in the middle’part of the fallopian duct.
• The lower end of uterus opens into vagina. The contractions of uterus help in the process of parturition.
• Vagina is the birth canal as well as copulatory passage. It is also a passage for menstrual flow.

Question 6.
What problems cause infertility in couple?
Answer:

• In woman if there are problems like irregularity in menstrual cycle, difficulties in oocyte production or implantation in uterus, obstacles in the oviduct, etc.
• In man if there are no sperms in the semen, slow movement of sperms, or anomalies in the sperms then he becomes sterile.
• But now with the help of advanced medical techniques these problems can be overcome and a childless couple can be parents.

Question 7.
Answer the following questions: (July 2019)
(a) In our country, there seems to be lack of awareness regarding reproductive health. Why?
(b) Write the symptoms of disease gonorrhea.
(c) What precautions will you take to maintain reproductive health?
Answer:
(a) There is lack of awareness about reproductive health among majority of people of our country. This is due to social customs, traditions, illiteracy, social taboo and shyness.

(b) Symptoms of gonorrhea are as follows:

1. Painful burning during urination.
2. Oozing of pus through penis or vagina.
3. Inflammation of urinary tract, anus, throat, eyes, etc.

(c) Precautions to maintain reproductive health are cleanliness and personal hygiene. Guarding against any sexual infections.

Question 8.
If a piece of bread is kept in a container in moist place for 2-3 days, (1) What will you see? (2) Write scientific name and a character of the organism you may observe.
Answer:
(1) If a piece of bread is kept in moist container we can see growth of fungus on it.
(2) Fungi belonging to species Mucor is seen. It has filamentous body and sporangia. Sporangia burst open to spread spores. It has saprophytic mode of nutrition as it devoid of chlorophyll.

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Multiple fission.
Answer:

During unfavourable conditions when there is lack of food. multiple fission is shown by amoeba. Amoeba forms protective covering and becomes encysted. Inside the cyst, amoeba undergoes repeated nuclear division. This is followed by cytoplasmic divisions. Many amoebulae are formed which remain dormant inside the cyst. When favourable conditions reappear, they come out by breaking the cyst.

Question 2.
Regeneration.
Answer:

In developed animals like wall lizard the process of regeneration is used to restore the lost parts like tail or limbs. As the reproductive system is one of the fullfledged system in the body, the process of regeneration cannot be called type of reproduction.

But some primitive organisms such as Plarfaria use this method for procreation. Planaria breaks up its body into two parts. Each part has the ability to develop the lost part by process of regeneration. This forms two new Planaria.

Question 3.
Seed germination.
Answer:

Seed germination is the process in which the seed develops into a new plantlet. In the plants, after fertilization the ovule develops into seed and ovary turns into fruit. Seeds fallen on the ground due to bursting of the fruits start germinating. Only under favourable conditions in the soil, this germination takes place. The zygote present inside the seed uses food stored in endosperm of seed and hence develops further to produce a new plantlet.

Question 4.
Budding in hydra.
Answer:

In multicellular organisms asexual reproduction by budding is shown by hydra. In fully grown Hydra, at specific part of its body there is development of bud.

This development is only during favourable period. The bud is an outgrowth developed due to repeated divisions of regenerative cells of body wall. It grows up gradually to form a small hydra. Parent hydra’s dermal layers and digestive cavity are in continuity with those of the budding hydra. It receives all the nutrition from parent hydra.When the budding hydra grows sufficiently, it detaches from parent hydra. Then it leads an independent life.

Question 5.
Fragmantation.
Answer:

Fragmentation is one of the type of asexual reproduction in multicellular organisms. During fragmentation, the body of parent organism breaks up into many fragments. All the resulting fragments start to develop as an independent new organism. In alga Spirogyra, and sponge like Sycon asexual reproduction takes place by fragmentation. Spirogyra grow up very fast and break up into many small fragments when there are favourable conditions. Each newly formed fragment lives independently as a new Spirogyra. Similarly the body of Sycon if accidentally broken into many fragments, develops into new Sycon from each old fragment.

Question 6.
Monozygotic twins.
Answer:
The twins developed from a single embryo are called monozygotic twins. If within 8 days of zygote formation i.e. in early embryonic development cells of that embryo divide into two groups. Each one develop as two separate embryos forming two monozygotic twins. Monozygotic twins are genetically exactly similar to each other. The gender of the twins is also same.

The Siamese twins develop from monozygotic twins, if the embryonic cells are divided into two groups 8 days after the zygote formation. These are conjoined twins where some parts of body are joined to each other. Also some organs are common in Siamese twins.

Read the paragraph and answer the questions given below:

Reproduction is the process by which the living species continues its existence. Lower organisms carry out asexual reproduction while higher plants and animals always show sexual reproduction. Plants reproduce asexually by methods such as fragmentation, vegetative propagation, budding, spore formation. For sexual reproduction they form gametes. In animal kingdom, budding, fission of different types and parthenogenesis are some of the methods that do not require both the sexes. Though regeneration also forms new individual, it is not considered to be a reproductive process because, basically it is a repair process. The ability to regenerate is lost in higher phyla. In human beings | it is restricted only to wound healing. Sexual reproduction is also undergoing lots of experimentation such as cloning which may make females capable of producing their own baby without intervention of any male.

Questions and Answers:

Question 1.
How do living species continue their existence?
Answer:
Through the process of reproduction, living species continue their existence.

Question 2.
Which are asexual methods of reproduction in kingdom Animalia?
Answer:
Fission, budding and parthenogenesis are the asexual methods of reproduction in Kingdom Animalia.

Question 3.
Why is regeneration not true method of reproduction?
Answer:
Regeneration is the repair process than a reproductive process. It is not done with the intention of producing offspring, but is for healing or repairing the lost part.

Question 4.
What are methods of reproduction in plants?
Answer:
Plants reproduce by asexual as well as sexual methods. Asexual reproduction is by fragmentation, vegetative propagation, budding, spore formation, while by formation of gametes, sexual reproduction is done.

Question 5.
What is the modern method of reproduction aimed at in higher organisms?
Answer:
Cloning is the modern method of reproduction by which production of young one can be aimed at.

Diagram-based Questions:

Question 1.
Observe the figure 3.18 and answer the questions below: (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)

(a) What does the figure 3.18 indicate?
Answer:
The figure indicates the menstrual cycle in human female.

(b) Which human organs are involved in this process?
Answer:
The ovary and uterus are primarily involved in this process. But the pituitary gland also controls this cycle.

(c) Which hormones take part in this process?
Answer:
Following hormones regulate this menstrual cycle.
Pituitary hormones: Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) and Luteinizing Hormone (LH).
Ovarian hormones: Estrogen and progesterone.

(d) What is the periodicity for these changes?
Answer:
The menstrual cycle shows repetitive changes every 28 to 30 days.

(e) The body of woman undergoing this process is impure, she should remain away from other people. What is your opinion about this statement? Give justification for your opinion.
Answer:
A menstruating woman is not at all with impure body. It is a natural process in which the endometrium of the uterus is sloughed off and repaired.

She should get enough rest and nutrition during this period. It is painful period in which there is a possibility of infections. Therefore, she should take ! hygienic care and rest till the bleeding persists. But blind faith and superstition to keep her away from others should not be followed.

Question 2.
Observe the diagram (Fig. 3.19) of menstrual cycle and answer the following questions:

(1) What is the period of menstruation?
Answer:
1 to 5 days is the period of menstruation.

(2) On which day does ovulation occur during menstrual cycle?
Answer:
Ovulation occurs on 14th or 15th day.

(3) During which period is corpus luteum active during menstrual cycle? Which hormones are secreted by corpus luteum ?
Answer:
Corpus luteum is active till the 28th day of menstrual cycle. During this time if there is no union of sperm and ovum, then corpus luteum degenerates. Corpus luteum secretes estrogen and progesterone.

(4) In menstrual cycle which reproductive organs undergo changes?
Answer:
Ovary and uterus undergo changes during menstrual cycle.

(5) Which period is said to be period of regeneration of endometrium?
Answer:
In menstrual cycle, days 5 to 14 are period of regeneration of endometrium.

(6) Which period is said to be period of secretions of glands in endometrium?
Answer:
Period of secretions of glands in endometrium is 15 to 28 days.

Question 3.
Observe the following picture and describe the type of reproduction shown in.

Answer:
In developed animals like wall lizard the process of regeneration is used to restore the lost parts like tail or limbs. As the reproductive system is one of the fullfledged system in the body. the process of regeneration cannot be called type of reproduction.

But some primitive organisms such as Planaria use this method for procreation. Planaria breaks up its body into two parts. Each part has the ability to develop the lost part by process of regeneration. This forms two new Planaria.

Question 4.
Answer the following questions: (March 2019)
(a) “Gender of child is determined by the male partner of couple.” Draw a diagram explaining the above statement.
Answer:

(b) Prepare a slogan for campaign against female foeticide.
Answer:

• Save the girl child.
• Daughters give lot of joy, it is not only the boy.

(c) In the following figure, explain how new fungal colonies of mucor are formed:

Answer:
Mucor is a fungus having filamentous body. The filaments bear sporangia. Mature sporangia burst and release spores. Spores germinate to form new hyphae upon getting favourable moist and warm place.

(d) Identify and state the type of reproduction represented in the above figure.
Ans. The spore formation is asexual type of reproduction seen in Mucor.

Question 5.
Write the type of asexual reproduction shown in the figure.

Answer:
The figure shows budding in yeast. Budding is the type of asexual reproduction.

Experiments:
(Try this: Text Book Pages 23 and 24)

(1) Observation of Paramoecia.
(2) Observation of yeast.
(3) Study of Hibiscus.
[For detailed information on practicals, refer to Vikas Science and Technology Experiment Book: Standard X]

Projects:

Project 1.
Use of ICT. (Textbook page no. 27)
Make an video album of pollination and show it in the class.

Project 2.
Internet is my friend. (Textbook page no. 33)
You may have read that sometimes a woman may deliver more than two offspring at a time. Collect more information from internet about reasons for such incidences.

Project 3.
Get information. (Textbook page no. 34)
Visit a public health centre nearby your place and collect the information through an interview of health officer about meaning and various methods of family planning.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 7 Introduction to Microbiology Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 7 Introduction to Microbiology

Question 1.
Rewrite the following statements using correct of the options and explain the completed statements.
(gluconic acid, coagulation, amino acid, 4% acetic acid, clostridium, lactobacilli)

a. Process of ……. of milk proteins occurs due to lactic acid.
Answer:
Process of Coagulation of milk proteins occurs due to lactic acid.
Explanation: The lactobacilli are the bacteria carrying out fermentation of the milk. In this process, the lactose sugar in the milk is converted into lactic acid. This lactic acid causes coagulation of the proteins present in the milk.

b. Harmful bacteria like ………. in the intestine are destroyed due to probiotics.
Answer:
Harmful bacteria like Clostridium in the intestine are destroyed due to probiotics.
Explanation: In probiotics, there are lactobacilli which are useful. They control other bacteria present in the alimentary canal and also their metabolism. These bacteria thus stop the action of Clostridium which is a harmful bacteria.

c. Chemically, vinegar is …………
Answer:
Chemically, vinegar is 4% Acetic acid.
Explanation: Chemically vinegar is 4% acetic acid. It is a good preservative of the food and thus while using it as additive to the food, it is called vinegar.

d. Salts which can be used as supplement of calcium and iron are obtained from ……………. acid.
Answer:
Salts which can be used as supplement of calcium and iron are obtained from Gluconic acid.
Explanation: The microbe Aspergillus niger is used on the source material of glucose and corn steep liquor to produce amino acid called Gluconic acid. Gluconic acid is used for the production of minerals used as supplement for calcium and iron.

Question 2.
Match the pairs.

‘A’ group	‘B’ group
(1) Xylitol	(a) Pigment
(2) Citric acid	(b) To impart sweetness
(3) Lycopene	(c) Microbial restrictor
(4) Nycin	(d) Protein binding emulsifier
	(e) To impart acidity

[Note: In examination match the column question will ham 2 components in Column ‘A’ with 4 alternatives in Column ‘B’.]
Answer:
(1) Xylitol – To impart sweetness
(2) Citric acid – To impart acidity
(3) Lycopene – Pigment
(4) Nycin – Microbial restrictor.

Question 3.
Answer the following:
a. Which fuels can be obtained by microbial processes? Why is it necessary to increase the use of such fuels?
Answer:

• Microbial anaerobic decomposition of urban agricultural and industrial waste forms the gaseous fuel in the form of methane gas.
• Alcohol is another clean form of energy which is used in the form of ethanol. It is obtained by the fermentation of molasses by treating it with Saccharomyces-yeast.
• By photoreduction of water with the help of bacteria, hydrogen gas is released in the process of bio-photolysis of water. This hydrogen gas is said to be the fuel of the future.
• The conventional fuels are exhaustible. After few hundred years, they will be over completely. Moreover, these fossil fuels cause lot of air pollution due to emission of carbon dioxide. The fuels obtained by the microbial processes are not polluting. Therefore, it is necessary to increase the use of eco-friendly fuels.

b. How can the oil spills of rivers and oceans be cleaned?
Answer:

• The oil spills in rivers or oceans are caused by crude oil or petroleum hydrocarbons.
• This crude oil is highly toxic to the flora and fauna of the aquatic environment.
• By using mechanical means the oil spill can be removed, but this is very difficult.
• The biological way to remove this pollution is done by using culture of microbes like Pseudomonas spp. and Alcanovorax borkumensis.
• They have the ability to destroy the pyridines and other chemicals present in the hydrocarbons.
• These bacteria are called as hydrocarbono-clastic bacteria (HCB) which decompose the hydrocarbons and bring about the reaction of carbon with oxygen.
• In the process CO₂ and water are formed. In this way the oil spills are cleaned, by releasing HCB at the place of oil spills.

c. How can the soil polluted by acid rain be made fertile again?
Answer:

• The soil polluted by the acid rain is made fertile again by using bacteria.
• Acidophillium spp. and Acidobacillus ferroxidens are the bacteria which have the capacity to use sulphuric acid as their energy source.
• Since this sulphuric acid present in the acid rain, can be controlled by these bacteria.
• In this way, bacteria can control the soil pollution occurring due to acid rain, making the soil fertile again.

d. Explain the importance of bio pesticides in organic farming.
Answer:

• By using bio pesticides, soil pollution is minimized. Otherwise by using chemical pesticides and fertilizers there is large scale soil pollution.
• When chemical pesticides are used in agriculture, there is contamination of soil by fluoroacetamide – like chemicals.
• These are harmful to other plants, animals as well as for-human beings. They may cause skin diseases in humans.
• By using bacterial and fungal toxins the pests and pathogens can be destroyed. Such toxins are directly incorporated in the plant materials.
  E.g. Spinosad is a biopesticide produced as a by-product of fermentation.

e. What are the reasons for increasing the popularity of probiotic products?
Answer:

• Probiotic substances are mostly milk products containing live bacteria. Such probiotics are very good for health.
• The useful colonies of bacteria are produced in the alimentary canal of human beings due to the probiotics.
• Probiotics decrease the population of harmful microbes like. Clostridium from our digestive tract.
• The immunity is enhanced due to regular intake of probiotics in the diet.
• The ill-effects of harmful substances formed during metabolic activities are reduced by the probiotics.
• If someone takes the antibiotic treatment, then his or her useful intestinal bacterial flora becomes inactive or is eradicated. In such cases, probiotics restore the bacterial flora and make the person well again.

All these facts have made probiotics a popular choice for people.

f. How the bread and other products produced using baker’s yeast are nutritious?
Answer:

• In order to make the bread the baker’s yeast – Saccharomyces cerevisiae is added to the flour for the fermentation process.
• In commercial bakery, compressed yeast is used while in domestic settings dry, granular form of yeast is used.
• The flour prepared by using commercial yeast contains various useful contents like carbohydrates, fats, proteins, various vitamins, and minerals.
• The anaerobic fermentation also increases the nutritive content of the flour.
• Due to this, bread and other products produced with the help of yeast become nutritive.

g. Which precautions are necessary for proper decomposition of domestic waste?
Answer:
The domestic waste should be properly segregated into biodegradable (wet waste) and non-biodegradable (dry waste). After segregation, these wastes should be stored separately into two different containers. The non-biodegradable substances should he either reused or sent for recycling. The biodegradable substances are decomposed naturally.

The decomposition process can be done at house-hold level too in a pot or a tank. This decomposition will yield a rich manure. The pot should be covered by a thin layer of soil and it should be kept in a dark but airy place.

The non-biodegradable things such as plastic articles, glass pieces, metal objects, unused 5 medicines, e-waste should never be thrown in wet wastes. The toxic substances and the insecticides if added to wet waste, will never allow the natural decomposition process. Therefore, only after taking proper precautions we can aim at proper decomposition of domestic wastes.

h. Why is it necessary to ban the use of plastic bags?
Answer:
Plastic is a non-biodegradable substance. It cannot be degraded back into its original constituents. It remains just like that for many hundreds of years. It causes solid waste pollution in any environment wherever it is thrown indiscriminately. If burnt, it releases very toxic gases. If dumped in landfills it obstructs the other decomposition processes.

If thrown in water bodies, it causes harm to aquatic life. Cattle graze on plastic unknowingly and are killed by it as it clogs inside their alimentary canal. The gutters and rain water drains get clogged due to plastic bags and this causes cities to submerge in water during heavy rains. Nowadays, the fishermen get more than half of plastic if they cast their net in the sea.

People use the plastic bags indiscriminately without any thought towards their environmental impact. There are better alternatives for plastic bags such as cloth bags which can be reused again and again. Therefore, it is absolutely necessary to ban the use of plastic bag.

Question 4.
Complete the following conceptual picture.

Answer:

Question 5.
Give scientific reasons.
a. Use of mutant strains has been increased in industrial microbiology.
Answer:

• By using industrial microbiology, the commercial use of microbes is done.
• In such experiments, various economic, social and environment related processes and products are included.
• In this, fermentation processes are used to make bread, cheese, wines, enzymes, nutrients, etc.
• Different types of antibiotics are also made by using processes of industrial microbiology.
• In pollution control and solid waste management, the industrial microbiology becomes helpful.
• In farming too biotechnology is used to produce BT crops.

b. Enzymes obtained by microbial process are mixed with detergents.
Answer:

• When detergents are mixed with microbial enzymes, they start working more efficiently.
• The cleaning process takes place at lesser temperatures.
• Therefore, for better results, enzymes obtained by microbial process are mixed with detergents.

c. Microbial enzymes are used instead of chemical catalysts in chemical industry. (March 2019)
(OR)
Microbial enzymes are said to be eco-friendly.
Answer:

• Microbial enzymes are active at low temperature, pH and pressure.
• Due to this property, the energy is saved. The costlier erosion-proof instruments need not be used.
• In enzymatic reactions, the unnecessary byproducts are not formed as the reactions are highly specific.
• The expenses on purification of the product are minimized as no unnecessary products are formed.
• The elimination and decomposition of waste material is avoided and enzymes can be reused again. Hence, microbial enzymes which are eco¬friendly are used in chemical industry.

Question 6.
Complete the following conceptual picture with respect to its uses. (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)

Answer:

Question 7.
Complete the following conceptual picture related to environmental management.

Answer:

Question 8.
Answer the following questions.
a. What is the role of microbes in compost production?
Answer:

• Microbes can bring about natural decomposition of the organic compounds.
• During the biodegradation, some bacteria andmfungi bring about such decomposition and release the inorganic constituents back into the nature.
• Compost is formed in such a way by recycling process.

b. What are the benefits of mixing ethanol with petrol and diesel?
Answer:
When only diesel or petrol is used as fuel, there is increased air pollution. Morevoer, since these are non-renewable and exhaustible fuels, they will be finished in next some years. When petrol and diesel is mixed with ethanol, the proportion of CO₂, CO, and hydrocarbons which are emitted in the atmosphere becomes lesser.

The particulate pollutants which otherwise are emitted through combustion of petrol and diesel are not formed when fuels are mixed with ethanol. By adding ethanol to the fuels, the cost of expensive petrol or diesel also becomes less. The ethanol burns more efficiently hence ethanol is mixed with petrol and diesel.

c. Which plants are cultivated to obtain the fuel?
Answer:

• The ethanol is obtained from wheat, maize, beet, sugarcane and molasses of sugarcane.
• For biodiesel, the soybean, rapeseed, jatropa, mahua, flaxseed, mustard, sunflower, palm, jute and some types of algae are cultivated.

d. Which fuels are obtained from biomass?
Answer:
From biomass, the biogas and biodiesel are mainly obtained. The biogas is obtained from dung of cattle. The fermentation of cattle dung gives rise to methane. From methane, methanol is obtained. Ethanol is obtained from molasses of sugarcane and some other crops. In some countries, special crops are cultivated for the biodiesel.

e. How does the bread become spongy?
Answer:

• When the dough for bread is prepared, the baker’s yeast – Saccharomyces cerevisiae is added to it.
• This yeast carries out anaerobic fermentation.
• This results in formation of CO₂ and ethanol.
• The CO₂ formed tries to escape out of the flour and thus the dough rise. When such dough is baked, it produces spongy bread.

Project: (Do it your self)

Project 1.
Find the ways to implement the zero garbage system at domestic level.

Project 2.
Which are the microbes that destroy the chemical pesticides in soil?

Project 3.
Collect more information about reasons for avoiding the use of chemical pesticides.

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 77)

Question 1.
Which different microbes are useful to us?
Answer:
Many microbes are useful to us, such as bacteria which are used for making curds from milk, yeast used to ferment the batter of bread, bacteria used for making other milk products, bacteria and fungi used for making antibiotics. The bacteria are even used for pollution control.

Question 2.
Which different products can he produced with the help of Microbes?
Answer:
Milk products, cheese, cocoa, pickles made from vegetables, wine and other beverages, bread, probiotic substances and cattle feed are produced with the help of microbes.

Use your brain power. (Text Book Page No. 79)

Question 1.
In the earlier class, you had prepared the solution of dry yeast for observation of yeast. Which substance is prepared by its use on commercial basis?
Answer:
The commercial production of bread and other bakery products need yeast. In wine and beer making also solution of yeast is required.

(Use your brain power. (Text Book Page No. 81)

Question 1.
Food materials like cold drinks, ice creams, cakes, juices are available in various colours and flavours. Whether these colours and flavours are really derived from fruits?
Answer:
The eatables can be made directly from fruits or essence of fruits. But most of the food products purchased from markets use these colours and flavours which are derived from synthetic chemicals.

Let’s Think: (Text Book Page No. 83)

Question .1
Why is it asked to segregate wet and dry waste in each home?
Answer:
The wet waste decomposes on its own as most of the matter therein is biodegradable. This waste can be converted into manure by composting. The dry waste can be picked up by the bhangarwala or kabadiwala. This waste can be reused or recycled. Therefore, if dry and wet wastes are kept separately, the solid waste management becomes much easier.

On the contrary if everything is dumped indiscriminately, it adds to the total volume of the solid wastes. This becomes unmanageable. Therefore, to reduce the problems of solid waste management, the dry and wet waste segregation must be done at every point source. This also could fetch wealth from waste.

Question 2.
What is done with the segregated waste?
Answer:
In big cities, there is a mechanism to pick up the solid waste every day or even twice a day at some places. The segregated garbage is taken by the municipal garbage trucks at the land filling sites. Here it is buried deep in the ground. The dry waste that can be reused or recycled, is sold to the recycling units.

Question 3.
Which is most appropriate method of disposal of dry waste?
Answer:
Reuse and recycle is the most appropriate method of disposal of dry waste.

Choose the correct alternative and write its alphabet against the sub-question number:

Question 1.
Enzyme ……….. obtained from fungi is used to produce vegetarian cheese.
(a) lipase
(b) protease
(c) amylase
(d) trypsin
Answer:
(b) protease

Question 2.
Milk is subjected to ………… at the beginning to destroy unwanted microbes.
(a) pasteurization
(b) fermentation
(c) coagulation
(d) decomposition
Answer:
(a) pasteurization

Question 3.
………….. like compounds are formed due to lactobacilli that gives characteristic taste to the yoghurt.
(a) Lactose
(b) Caesin
(c) Acetyldehyde
(d) All the above
Answer:
(c) Acetyldehyde

Question 4.
Methane can be obtained by …………. decomposition of urban agricultural and industrial waste.
(a) aerobic
(b) anaerobic
(c) microbial anaerobic
(d) chemical
Answer:
(c) microbial anaerobic

Question 5.
……….. gas is considered to be the fuel of future.
(a) Hydrogen
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Methane
(d) Butane
Answer:
(a) Hydrogen

Question 6.
………. are mixed with waste materials at land-filling sites for quicker decomposition.
(a) Microbes
(b) Bioreactors
(c) Fungi
(d) Worms
Answer:
(b) Bioreactors

Question 7.
…………. bacteria decompose the xenobiotic chemicals present in sewage.
(a) Hydrocarbonoclastic
(b) Decomposing
(c) E.coli
(d) Phenol oxidizing
Answer:
(d) Phenol oxidizing

Question 8.
Microbes are used for ………… of environment polluted due to sewage.
(a) protection
(b) conservation.
(c) bioremediaiion
(d) decomposition
Answer:
(c) bioremediaiion

Question 9.
……….. is a powerful antibiotic against tuberculosis.
(a) Streptomycin
(b) Tetracycline
(c) Rifamycin
(d) Bacitracin
Answer:
(c) Rifamycin

Question 10.
Bacteria are used to clear the oil spills are called ………….. bacteria.
(a) phenol oxidizing
(b) electrolytic
(c) hydrocarbonoclastic
(d) decomposing
Answer:
(c) hydrocarbonoclastic

Question 11.
………… convert these salts of uranium into insoluble salts.
(a) Saccharomyces
(b) Thiobacillus
(c) Acidobacillus
(d) Geobacter
Answer:
(d) Geobacter

Question 12.
………….., a byproduct of fermentation is a biopesticide.
(a) Fluoroacetamide
(b) Vanillin
(c) Aspertame
(d) Spinosad
Answer:
(d) Spinosad

Question 13.
…………. beverage is obtained by fermentation of apple juice. (July ’19)
(a) Cider
(b) Wine
(c) Coffee
(d) Cocoa
Answer:
(a) Cider

Question 14.
Vinegar is the chemically ………… acid. (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
(a) Citric
(b) Gluconic
(c) Glutamic
(d) Acetic
Answer:
(d) Acetic

Question 15.
In which of the following industries microbial enzymes are not used?
(a) Glass industry
(b) Cheese industry
(c) Tanning industry
(d) Paper industry
Answer:
(a) Glass industry

Question 16.
Citric acid used in production of beverages, toffees, chocolates is obtained by fermentation of …….. by Aspergillus niger.
(a) grapes
(b) sugar molasses
(c) apple
(d) coffee nuts
Answer:
(b) sugar molasses

Match the pairs:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Vinegar	(a) Polylactic acid
(2) Xanthan gum	(b) Molasses
	(c) Icecreams and puddings
	(d) Acetic acid

Answer:
(1) Vinegar – Acetic acid
(2) Xanthan gum – Icecreams and puddings

Find the odd one out:

Question 1.
Lactobacillus acidophilus, Lactobacillus casei, Bifidobacterium bifidum, Streptococcus thermophilus
Answer:
Streptococcus thermophilus. (All others are bacteria producing probiotics.)

Question 2.
Lactobacillus lactis, Bifidobacterium bifidtim, Lactobacillus cremoris, Streptococcus thermophilus
Answer:
Bifidobacterium bifidum. (All others are bacteria used in cheese production.)

Question 3.
Dark chocolate, Miso soup, Wafers, Corn syrup
Answer:
Wafers. (All others are probiotic products.)

Question 4.
Vinegar, Soya sauce, Ketchup, Monosodium glutamate
Answer:
Ketchup. (All others are products prepared by microbial fermentation.)

Question 5.
Actinomycetes, Streptomyces, Nocardia, yeast
Answer:
Yeast. (All others have ability of decomposing rubber from garbage.)

Find the correlation:

Question 1.
Bread Baker’s yeast : : Soya sauce : ……….
Answer:
Bread Baker’s yeast : : Soya sauce : Aspergillus oryzae

Question 2.
Coffee : Caffea arabica : : Cocoa : …………
Answer:
Coffee : Coffea arabica : : Cocoa : Theobroma cacao

Question 3.
Oil slick : Alcanovorax : Rubber from garbage : …………
Answer:
Oil slick : Alcanovorax : Rubber from garbage : Actinomycetes

Question 4.
Conversion of metals into comounds : Thiobacilli : : Conversion of uranium salts …………
Answer:
Conversion of metals into comounds : Thiobacilli : : Conversion of uranium salts Geobacter.

Name the following:

Question 1.
Microbial enzymes.
Answer:
Oxidoreductases, transferases, hydrolases, lyases, isomerases, ligases.

Question 2.
Emulsifiers.
Answer:
Polysaccharides and glycolipids.

Question 3.
Microbe used in preparation of wine and cider.
Answer:
Saccharomyces cerevisiae.

Question 4.
Effective antibiotic against tuberculosis.
Answer:
Rifamycin.

Question 5.
Antibiotics.
Answer:
Penicillin, cephalosporins, monobactam, erythromycin, gentamycin, neomycin, streptomycin, tetracyclins, vancomycin.

Question 6.
Bacteria that use sulphuric acid as source of energy.
Answer:
Acidobacillus ferroxidens, Acidophillium spp.

Question 7.
Substance that makes biodegradable plastic.
Answer:
Polylactic acid.

Question 8.
Curd like food product made from sheep milk.
Answer:
Kefir.

Question 9.
Enzyme used to make vegetarian cheese.
Answer:
Protease.

Question 10.
Fungus used for making soya sauce.
Answer:
Aspergillus oryzae.

Complete the charts:

Question 1.

Fruit	Microbe used	Name of beverage
___________________________	___________________________	Coffee
Theobroma cacao	Candida, Hansenula, Pichia, Saccharomyces	___________________________
Grapes	___________________________	___________________________
Apple	Saccharomyces cerevisiae	___________________________

Answer:

Fruit	Microbe used	Name of beverage
Caffea arabica	Lactobacillus  brevis	Coffee
Theobroma cacao	Candida, Hansenula, Pichia, Saccharomyces	Cocoa
Grapes	Saccharomyces  cerevisiae	Wine
Apple	Saccharomyces cerevisiae	Cider

Question 2.

Source	Microbe	Amino acid	Use
Sugar and beet molasses, ammonia salt	___________________	___________________	Production of monosodium glutamate (Ajinomoto).
___________________	Aspergillus niger	___________________	Drinks, toffees, chocolate production.
Glucose, corn steep liquor	___________________	Gluconic acid	___________________
Molasses, corn steep liquor	Lactobacillus delbrueckii	___________________	___________________
___________________	Aspergillus itaconius	Itaconic acid	___________________

Answer:

Source	Microbe	Amino acid	Use
Sugar and beet molasses, ammonia salt	Brevibacterium, Corynobacterium	L-glutamic acid	Production of monosodium glutamate (Ajinomoto).
Sugar molasses, salt	Aspergillus niger	Citric acid	Drinks, toffees, chocolate production.
Glucose, corn steep liquor	Aspergillus niger	Gluconic acid	Production of minerals used as  supplement for calcium and iron.
Molasses, corn steep liquor	Lactobacillus delbrueckii	Lactic acid	Source of nitrogen, production of vitamins.
Molasses, corn steep liquor	Aspergillus itaconius	Itaconic acid	Paper, textile, plastic industry, gum production

Question 3.

Source	Microbe	Amino acid
(1) Sugar molasses and salt	___________________	Citric acid
(2) ___________________	Lactobacillus delbrueckii	___________________
(3) Corn steep liquor	Aspergillus itaconius	___________________

Answer:

Source	Microbe	Amino acid
(1) Sugar molasses and salt	Aspergillus niger	Citric acid
(2) Molasses, corn steep liquor	Lactobacillus delbrueckii	Lactic acid
(3) Corn steep liquor	Aspergillus itaconius	Itaconic acid

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Which microbes are used in the baking industries? (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Answer:
Yeast i.e. Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used in the baking industries.

Question 2.
There is an oil layer on the water surface of river in your area. What will you do? (March 2019)
Answer:
If there is an oil layer on the water surface, we shall use hydrocarbonoclastic bacteria like Pseudomonas to clean up the oil spill.

Question 3.
(a) How are microbes used in sewage management?
(b) How is the sludge produced in this process utilized? (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Answer:
(a)

• In cities, the sewage is sent to processing plant and is treated with microbes.
• Microbes that carry out decomposition, are mixed with sewage. Such microbes are able to destroy, pathogens as well as decompose any compounds.
• Some microbes bring about bioremediation of environment, that are used for treating sewage pollution.
• Upon decomposition of the carbon compounds present in sewage, microbes release methane and CO₂.

(b) The sludge formed in this process, is used as fertilizer.

Question 4.
Answer the following questions:
(a) What is clean technology?
Answer:
Clean technology is the method to use microbes for controlling air, soil and water pollution. These microbes can degrade the manmade chemicals.

(b) Why is it essential to ban plastic bags?
Answer:
Plastic is a non-biodegradable substance. It cannot be degraded back into its original constituents. It remains just like that for many hundreds of years. It causes solid waste pollution in any environment wherever it is thrown indiscriminately. If burnt, it releases very toxic gases. If dumped in landfills it obstructs the other decomposition processes.

If thrown in water bodies, it causes harm to aquatic life. Cattle graze on plastic unknowingly and are killed by it as it clogs inside their alimentary canal. The gutters and rain water drains get clogged due to plastic bags and this causes cities to submerge in water during heavy rains. Nowadays, the fishermen get more than half of plastic if they cast their net in the sea.

People use the plastic bags indiscriminately without any thought towards their environmental impact. There are better alternatives for plastic bags such as cloth bags which can be reused again and again. Therefore, it is absolutely necessary to ban the use of plastic bag.

Write short notes on the following:

Question 1.
Production of Yoghurt.
Answer:

• Yoghurt is one of the milk product produced from milk with the help of lactobacilli (inoculant).
• In the industrial production of yoghurt, the milk is added with condensed milk powder. This increases the protein content of the milk. Then this milk is subjected to fermentation.
• Milk is boiled and then it is cooled till it becomes lukewarm.
• Then the bacterial strains of Streptococcus thermophiles and Lactobacillus delbrueckii are added to this lukewarm milk in 1:1 proportion.
• The Streptococcus bacteria convert the milk into solution containing lactic acid. This makes the proteins to gel out. It makes the yoghurt dense.
• The lactobacilli help in the formation of acetaldehyde like compounds giving a characteristic taste to the yoghurt.
• For commercial reasons, various fruit juices are mixed with yoghurt to impart different flavours forming strawberry yoghurt, banana yoghurt, etc.
• The pasteurization is carried out to increase the shelf life of yoghurt and improve its probiotic properties.

Question 2.
Production of cheese.
Answer:
Cheese is made from cow’s milk throughout the world. The steps in the process of cheese manufacture are as follows:

• Chemical and microbiological testing of milk is done.
• Three types of bacteria, viz. Lactobacillus lactis, Lactobacillus cremoris and Streptococcus thermophilus along with some colour is added to the milk.
• It imparts sourness to the milk and it is converted into yoghurt like substance.
• The water from this yoghurt, i.e. whey is not removed to make the yoghurt denser.
• Enzyme, rennet or protease is added to the mixture to make it more denser.
• Later cutting the solid yoghurt into pieces, washing, rubbing, salting, land mixing of essential microbes, pigments and flavours is done in suitable steps.
• The pressed cheese is then cut in to pieces and stored for ripening.

Question 3.
Land-filling sites.
Answer:

• In the land-filling sites the degradable wastes are transferred. Usually such sites are in urban areas.
• The land-filling sites are away from the residential areas for the hygienic reasons. Here large pits arb dug in open spaces.
• These pits are lined with plastic sheets. Therefore, the leaching of toxic and harmful materials is avoided to reduce the chance of soil pollution due to leachates.
• Compressed waste is put in the pit and is covered with layers of soil, saw dust, leafy waste.
• Specific biochemical substances are added for speedy decomposition.
• Bioreactors which are mixtures of bacteria are mixed at some places.
• Soil microbes and other top layers decompose the waste.
• Soil slurry is used to seal the pits completely.
• After a certain period, best quality compost is formed. Such land filling sites can be reused after removal of compost.

Complete the paragraph by choosing the appropriate words given in the brackets:

Question 1.
(Nocardia, Geobacter, Ideonella sakaiensis, Pseudomonas, Alcanovorax borkumensis, hydrocarbonoclastic, Acidophillium, streptomyces)
Bacteria like ………… spp. and ………. have the ability to destroy the pyridines and other chemicals. Hence, these bacteria are used to clear the oil spills. These are called ………. bacteria. It has been observed that species like Vibrio, …………… can decompose the PET. Similarly, species of fungi like ………… have ability of decomposing rubber from garbage. Sulphuric acid is source of energy for some species of bacteria like ………… Hence, these bacteria can control the soil pollution occurring due to acid rain. …………..convert the salts of uranium into insoluble salts.
Answer:
Bacteria like Pseudomonas spp. and Alcanovorax borkumensis have the ability to destroy the pyridines and other chemicals. Hence, these bacteria are used to clear the oil spills. These are called hydrocarbonoclastic bacteria. It has been observed that species like Vibrio, Ideonella sakaiensis can decompose the PET. Similarly, species of fungi like Nocardia have ability of decomposing rubber from garbage. Sulphuric acid is source of energy for some species of bacteria like Acidophillium. Hence, these bacteria can control the soil pollution occurring due to acid rain. Geobacter convert the salts of uranium into insoluble salts.

Read the paragraph and answer the questions given below:

Remediation is the process of removing dangerous or poisonous substances from the environment, or limiting the effect that they have on it. When any biological organism is used for remediation, it is called bioremediation. When plant species are used for the purpose of remediation, it is called phytoremediation. When any microbes are used then it is named as microbial remediation. The methods of such remediation have helped to clean the environment from toxic effluents, especially sewage and crude oil. Dr. Anand Chakraborty, a scientist of Indian origin, has worked on Pseudomonas aeruginosa which have reduced the crude oil films into carbon dioxide and water.

Questions and Answers:

Question 1.
What is the meaning of remediation?
Answer:
Remediation is the process by which dangerous or toxic substances are removed from the environment.

Question 2.
What is the difference between phytoremediation and microbial remediation?
Answer:
When any plant species are used for remediation process, then it is called phytoremediation, whereas when any microbe species used for remediation then it is called microbial remediation.

Question 3.
Which environmental pollutant is mainly removed through bioremediation processes?
Answer:
Toxicants released through sewage and crude oil are removed by bioremediation processes.

Question 4.
What is the role of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
Answer:
Pseudomonas aeruginosa helps in bioremediation by acting on film of crude oil and reduces it to carbon dioxide and water.

Question 5.
Why Dr. Anand Chakraborty’s work phenomenal?
Answer:
Dr. Anand Chakraborty discovered that Pseudomonas aeruginosa bacteria can act on oil film which is toxic and reduce it to nontoxic products. This helps in controlling the oil pollution of marine waters which otherwise is very difficult to control.

Diagram based questions:

Question 1.
Observe the diagram and answer the following questions:

(a) Name the following method of solid waste management.
Answer:
The above diagram shows modern landfill site. This method is used for solid waste management.

(b) What type of waste is used in this method?
Answer:
In this method only degradable waste matter collected in cities can be used. Such solid waste can undergo biodegradation and hence can be managed in an eco-friendly way.

(c) What kind of useful substances can be obtained from such methods?
Answer:
From such decomposition, organic fertilizers and manure formed through composting are obtained. Methane gas is also obtained which is used as fuel.

Question 2.
Observe the Figure 7.1 and answer the following questions: (March 2019)

(a) Identify the process shown in the figure.
Answer:
The figure shows modern land fill site where microbial biodegradation process is carried out.

(b) Explain the process in short.
Answer:
Land-filling sites:

• In the land-filling sites the degradable wastes are transferred. Usually such sites are in urban areas.
• The land-filling sites are away from the residential areas for the hygienic reasons. Here large pits arb dug in open spaces.
• These pits are lined with plastic sheets. Therefore, the leaching of toxic and harmful materials is avoided to reduce the chance of soil pollution due to leachates.
• Compressed waste is put in the pit and is covered with layers of soil, saw dust, leafy waste.
• Specific biochemical substances are added for speedy decomposition.
• Bioreactors which are mixtures of bacteria are mixed at some places.
• Soil microbes and other top layers decompose the waste.
• Soil slurry is used to seal the pits completely.
• After a certain period, best quality compost is formed. Such land filling sites can be reused after removal of compost.

Activity based questions:

Question 1.
Collect Information Search : (Textbook page no. 84)
(i) Which materials should not be present in garbage for its proper microbial decomposition?
Answer:
If there are non-biodegradable materials in the garbage, they will not decompose. The plastic, glass, metals etc. will not undergo microbial decomposition, therefore, such items should not be- there in the garbage. The toxic matter, hazardous chemicals and e-waste should also be removed. If such materials are present in the garbage, the microbes will be killed and the entire process of decomposition will be suffered.

(ii) How the sewage generated in your house or apartment is disposed off ?
Answer:
The sewage generated in our house is carried by the drainage pipes to municipal sewage treatment plants. Here, primary, secondary and tertiary treatment is done on the sewage. The safe water is then released into the ocean.

Question 2.
Observe: (Textbook page no. 83)
Observe the garbage vans of gram panchayat and municipality. Nowadays, there is facility of decreasing the volume of garbage by compaction in those vans. Explain the advantages of this activity.
Answer:
When the garbage is compressed, its volume is reduced. The trips of the vans that pick up the garbage can be reduced due to such measures. The land filling sites can also accommodate more garbage if it is compacted.

Question 3.
Observe the figure and answer the following:

(i) Lack of management of which factor is shown in the picture?
Answer:
The above picture shows the lack of management of sewage resulting in waste water being dumped carelessly.

(ii) How can that factor be managed with the help of microbes?
Answer:
Microbes which can destroy the pathogens of cholera, typhoid, etc. are mixed with sewage. They release methane and CO₂ by decomposition of the carbon compounds present in sewage. Other microbes that decompose chemical compounds are also released. Phenol oxidizing bacteria decompose the xenobiotic chemicals present in sewage.

(iii) How are the oil spills in oceans cleared?
Answer:
Hydrocarbonoclastic bacteria like
Alcanivorax borkumensis and Pseudomonas are used to clear the oil spillage from ocean water. These bacteria decompose the hydrocarbons. They bring about the reaction of released carbon with oxygen to produced CO₂ and water.

Projects: (Do it your self)

Project 1.
Search: (Textbook page no. 81)
Read the ingredients and their proportion printed on bottles of cold drinks and juices and wrappers of ice creams. Find out the natural and artificial ingredients.

Project 2.
Internet is My Friend: (Textbook page no. 85)
Collect pictures of various useful microbes. Display chart of their information in the classroom.

Project 3.
Observe the figure given on Textbook page no. 82. Discuss about bio-fuel?