Class 10

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 9 Social Health Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 9 Social Health

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks with appropriate word.
a. Laughter club is a remedy to drive away …………..
(a) stress
(b) addictions
(c) lethargy
(d) epidemics
Answer:
(a) stress

b. Alcohol consumption mainly affects …………. system.
(a) digestive
(b) respiratory
(c) nervous
(d) excretory
Answer:
(c) nervous

c. IT Act 2000 is to control the ……….
(a) housebreaking
(b) cybercrimes
(c) cheating
(d) pickpocketing
Answer:
(b) cybercrimes

Question 2.
Answer the following.
a. Which factors affect the social health?
Answer:
(1) In order to maintain the social health of any community there should be good amenities for the people. E.g. food, water, shelter, clothing, medicines and medical help, equal opportunities for education, cleanliness of the surroundings, transport facilities etc. should be properly provided.

(2) The social and political conditions of the surrounding should be such that there should not be any connections with world of criminals. The presence of such criminal ties can affect the social health to a great extent.

(3) The gardens, playgrounds, the empty plots for outdoor games, sports clubs, etc. are important criteria for overall development of the society. This results into personality development and make people happy and strong.

(4) Addictions, criminal tendencies, pervert behaviour and perverse thinking affects other people in the society and this reflects negatively on the social health.

(5) Having large number of friends and relatives, proper use of time when alone and when along the peer group, trust in others, respect and acceptance for others build stronger social health.

b. Which changes occur in persons continuously using the internet and mobile phones?
Answer:

• When a person continuously remains in contact with mobile phones, many physical problems can arise.
• Tiredness, headache, insomnia, forgetfulness, tinnitus, joint pains and problems in vision occur due to radiation emanating from the cell phones. For young children this is more disastrous as these radiations can penetrate through their bones.
• By logging into the internet for a long time, persons become solitary. Such individuals are unable to establish harmonious relations with relatives and other people around.
• They tend to become self-centred and selfish, They lose sensitivity towards others.
• Such people never take any social responsibility and the social health is thus disturbed.

c. Which problems does the common man face due to incidences of cybercrime?
Answer:

• The numbers of Aadhaar card, PAN card, credit or debit card are obtained by the cheaters. This is a cybercrime. The PIN number can be misused and the money can be withdrawn from the bank accounts. The looters withdraw cash from our accounts in this way.
• People can be cheated during online shopping.
• Fake account on Facebook is opened and false information is displayed on it. Through such accounts the girls are emotionally and financially exploited.
• Electronic media are misused for sending derogatory and vulgar messages, obscene pictxfres and provocative statements.
• Through the internet, hackers can send virus to crash someone’s computer or even mobile phones.
  In all such different ways, common people can be victimized by cybercrime.

d. Explain the importance of good communication with others.
Answer:

• Nowadays, there is fierce competition, insecurity and criminal tendencies in the society.
• This kind of atmosphere is increasing mental and emotional stress.
• If the stress remains buried in the mind, persons are depressed or frustrated. This causes, mental disorders if not treated in time. Depression can lead to addictions. The suicidal thoughts hover in the mind. If at that phase we can open our heart by good communication, many problems can be solved.
• Help from counsellors can be taken to relieve the stress.
• By good communication with parents or family members harmonious relations can be re-established.

Question 3.
Solve the following crossword.

1. Continuous consumption of alcoholic and tobacco materials.
Answer:
Addiction

2. This app may cause the cybercrimes
Answer:
Facebook

3. A remedy to resolve stress.
Answer:
Singing

4. Requirement for stress free life.
Answer:
Goodfood

5. Various factors affect ……….. health.
Answer:
Social

6. Art of preparing food items.
Answer:
Cooking.

Question 4.
What are the various ways to minimize mental stress?
Answer:
The ways of stress-bursting are as follows:
(1) Laughter club: People gather together and laugh collectively to reduce stress.

(2) Good communication: One should establish good communication with friends, siblings, cousins, teachers, parents or anybody in whom we can confide and express our feelings.

(3) Writing: By writing and noting the thoughts we feel relieved. We can confess and analyse about our mistakes through writing to reduce our stress.

(4) Hobbies: Collecting curios, photography, reading good literature, music, cooking, gardening, bird watching, keeping a pet, sculpturing, drawing, rangoli, dancing, etc. are such hobbies which are necessary for utilizing our spare time by creativity. Persuading hobby is the best way to be stress-free. Music in particular is said to change the negative thoughts, therefore, listening to music, learning the music and singing helps to fight stress. By admiring nature too, stress is relieved.

(5) Outdoor games and physical exercise: By participating in the sports, there are various benefits such as physical exercise, improving discipline, interaction with others and creating the tendency of unity, becoming more social and reduce stress.

Question 5.
Give three examples of each.
a. Hobbies to reduce stress.
Answer:

1. To listen to music
2. Bird watching and nature trails
3. Reading good books.

b. Diseases endangering the social health.
Answer:

1. AIDS
2. Tuberculosis
3. Leprosy.

c. Physical problems arising due to excessive use of mobile phones.
Answer:

1. Headache
2. Vision problems
3. Joint pains.

d. Activities under the jurisdiction of cybercrime laws.
Answer:

1. To do bank transactions by procuring PIN number of somebody.
2. Misuse of written material of someone or illegal sale of the same.
3. Hacking the information of government institutes and companies.

Question 6.
What will you do? Why?
a. You are spending more time in internet/mobile games, phone, etc.
Answer:
In life, the time once spent never returns back. We therefore must use our time for studies, exercise or outdoor games and some entertainment. In the free time, we must also help our parents in house hold work. But if we are spending hours together on surfing the net without any perfect aim or playing the computer or cell phone games it is total waste of time.

There are many inappropriate sites on the internet, which should not be watched. This causes stress. Continuous use of mobile phone and being hooked to the social media slowly becomes an addiction. If these bad habits are creeping in us, we must try to leave the habits by conscious change.

b. Child of your neighbour is addicted to tobacco chewing. (July 2019)
Answer:
The hazards of tobacco chewing will be explained to this child. Different photographs and videos showing the conditions of oral cancer will be shown to this child to persuade him, so that he can stay away from tobacco. This addiction has to be removed, so help of his parents will be taken. They will be told about the child’s habit and asked to help ? him free from his addiction.

c. Your sister has become incommunicative. She prefers to remain alone. (July 2019)
Answer:
The individual who prefers to be incommunicative has lots of thoughts in his/her mind. If this is the case with sister, she will be taken into confidence and the reason behind this lack of communication will be found out. Most often such persons have depression. So she will not be left alone. Her friends will be invited at home, so that she can converse with them. She should be motivated to mix with her favourite people. She should be encouraged to pursue her hobbies. She should be helped in selecting such work, If nothing changes her, then the help of counsellor should be taken.

d. You have to use free space around your home for good purpose.
Answer:
The free space around our home can be used to make a small garden. The garden-soil can be bought and spread in this free space. Small saplings can be planted here and nurtured for further growth. Nursery of saplings can also be started in this free space.

The space can also be used for outdoor games. The net for Badminton can be fixed and evening times can be spent in playing the game. Also care will be taken to keep the space clean and without any garbage.

e. Your Mend has developed the hobby of snapping selfies. (July 2019)
Answer:
The habit of continuously taking selfie is bad. It shows that the friend is constantly thinking of himself only. His self-centredness is to be removed by counselling him. The reason behind this behaviour should also be understood. He should be diverted and motivated to take some other tasks so that his habit can be lessened. Taking selfies is not a hobby. It is a bad habit if someone is repeatedly engaged in it.

f. Your brother studying in XII has developed the stress.
Answer:
The syllabus for class XII is vast. If the studies are not taken seriously from the beginning of the academic year, then the stress develops due to the fear of examination and result. Therefore, instead of being stressed, he should practise time management and study schedule. He should think of only one subject at a time. The atmosphere in the house should be maintained happy and tension-free. Everybody in the house should interact with him so that he gets a feeling that he is not alone. He should be convinced, “study is for you and you are not for study”.

Question 7.
What type of changes occur in a home having chronically ill old person? How will you help to maintain good atmosphere?
Answer:
If there is a chronically ill old person in the house, the entire atmosphere of the house changes. There is tension and grief in the house. Doctor’s visits to the house become routine. The ill person’s diet and medicines are strictly followed.

In such times, everybody in the family should contribute to the work of taking care of the patient. We can help in bringing medicines. We can sit beside the patient during night time. We should maintain pleasant atmosphere in the house. We should help the person who is burdened by the duties towards the sick patient by helping in whatever little ways that we can.

Project: (Do it your self)

Project 1.
Enlist various factors affecting the social health in your residential area. Decide the necessary changes to correct the situation and implement those changes.

Let’s Think: (Text Book Page No. 101)

Question 1.
Elders always instruct you to get out of the home to interact with relatives and others and play outdoor games but not to spend time continuously with television, phone and internet. Why the children of your age are instructed same in each home?
Answer:
When we interact with the relative, it becomes easier to mix with other strangers later. The personality moulds when we talk and interact with different people. We can exchange the thoughts. We learn to converse in a rightful way. When we go to playground and take part in outdoor games, we get health benefits. Sitting at home and spending productive time in just mobile or computer games, does not benefit in any way.

Most of the serials on the television are of no use for any kind of personality development, instead they push us in a virtual world. Except for few channels like National Geographic and Animal Kingdom, we do not get any knowledge by television viewing.

The elders in the house are experienced people. They understand ‘what is good’ and ‘what is to be avoided’. They are also genuinely concerned about bright future of the youngsters in the house. By giving instructions to the youngsters, they never get benefitted but it is our generation that gets proper guidance. These instructions should be followed for a perfect personality and bright future.

Think: (Text Book Page No. 103)

Question 1.
Whether the incidence shown in the following picture is rational? Express your opinion.

Answer:
In the picture is seen a woman asking the beggar to move away. The beggar looks dirty and sick. In one way, the picture looks proper as the beggar may be causing inconvenience to the people in that house. He is unhygienic and may spread the- infection. But from the humanitarian point of view, he may be needing help. He may be starving. He may be sick. In such a case, Jie should be given food and help.

However, if he is a drug addict the police should be called and person should be transferred immediately. From the picture, the exact condition of the man is not clearly understood and hence, the exact opinion about the rationality of the incidence cannot be made.

Observe: (Text Book Page No. 103)

Question 1.
Two caricatures presenting the situations of the year 1998 and 2017 about playing on playground are given below. Observe those caricatures. Express your opinion about arising of such different situations.

Answer:
In 1998, the technology was not so much advanced as it is today. In every house, there were no computers or laptops. Mobile phones were not popular then. The children used to play games which were outdoor and physical. They used to spend quality time on the playground. They always wanted to rush to the playground after their school hours. Therefore, mothers of that time had the task to get back their children from the playground.

By 2017, the situations and the social and technological change became enormous. The constant growth of the cities also experienced the rising construction. This too resulted in loss of playgrounds. After school time, children started spending their time in mobile and computer games. The parents also became financially well-off and started providing all the amenities to the children.

Due to the internet and the computer at home, the children got hooked to these electronic media. They started spending all the available time in virtual games, Facebook, what’s app and other social media. Thus mothers, of recent times had to force their children out of the house, at least for some time, so that they can play physical games.

Two caricatures presenting the situations of the year 1998 and 2017 about playing on playground show the tremendous social change that has undergone in our society.

Observe: (Text Book Page No. 104)

Question 1.
Observe the images below. Is it rational? Why?



Answer:
In the above three pictures three incidences are shown. In the first picture (Fig. 9.3), the boy who is taking his lunch is shown. He is busy with his mobile while having his food. In second picture (Fig. 9.4), a young man is taking selfie while standing in the busy road. He is not aware of the approaching car too. In the third picture (Fig. 9.5), some men are taking pictures of the accident that has recently happened. The person is injured and bleeding. But these men-are busy in photographing him.

All the three pictures are showing irrational and improper behaviour. We should respect the food while eating. We should eat in a disciplined way. Standing in the middle of the road and taking selfie is like inviting the mishap. Selfie taken in such circumstances usually results in an accident. In the last picture, the sensitivity and the humanity to save the victim is lacking. If the victim is immediately rushed to hospital, his life can be saved. Instead of helping the victim if people are engrossed in taking pictures, then it is absolutely wrong.

Choose the correct alternative and write its alphabet against the sub-question number:

Question 1.
Our ……… has been changed to some extent in the age of technology.
(a) lifestyle
(b) habit
(c) circumstance
(d) passion
Answer:
(a) lifestyle

Question 2.
………… influence is stronger in case of adolescents.
(a) Teacher’s
(b) Father’s
(c) Relative’s
(d) Peer group
Answer:
(d) Peer group

Question 3.
Tobacco containing substances has ……….. effect on mouth and lungs.
(a) acidic
(b) alkaline
(c) carcinogenic
(d) neutral
Answer:
(c) carcinogenic

Question 4.
Persons continuously using computers and the internet become …………..
(a) courageous
(b) timid
(c) solitary
(d) criminal
Answer:
(c) solitary

Question 5.
…………. has been newly launched in Police Department.
(a) Cybercrime unit
(b) Women protection unit
(c) Senior citizen care unit
(d) Forensic unit
Answer:
(a) Cybercrime unit

Question 6.
…………. helps to improve concentration in the studies.
(a) Eatables
(b) Meditation
(c) Hobbies
(d) Sports
Answer:
(b) Meditation

Question 7.
Hobbies like rearing pet animal helps to create a …………..
(a) positive mindset
(b) negative attitude
(c) wealth
(d) concentration
Answer:
(a) positive mindset

Find the odd one out:

Question 1.
Transport facilities, Social security, Counselling, Toilets.
Answer:
Counselling. (All others are factors affecting social health. Counselling is the positive measure for mental health.)

Question 2.
Aadhaar card, PAN card, Greeting card, Credit card.
Answer:
Greeting card. (All others are important cards of personal use.)

Question 3.
What’s app, Instagram, Facebook, Textbook.
Answer:
Textbook. (All others are social media.)

Question 4.
Tobacco, Laughter club, Alcoholism, Drug abuse.
Answer:
Laughter club. (All others are addictions.)

Find out the correlation:

Question 1.
Movement against tobacco : Tata trust : : Education of slum children : …………..
Answer:
Movement against tobacco : Tata trust : : Education of slum children : Salaam Mumbai Foundation

Question 2.
Addictive substances : Drugs : : Carcinogenic (Cancer causing) substances : ………..
Answer:
Addictive substances : Drugs : : Carcinogenic (Cancer causing) substances : Tobacco

Question 3.
Radiations from cell phones : Headache : : ………….. : Hindrance to the brain development.
Answer:
Radiations from cell phones : Headache : : Alcoholism : Hindrance to the brain development.

Select the two options in the ‘B’ group related to ‘A’ group:

Question 1.

‘A’ Group	‘B’ Group
(1) Salaam Mumbai Foundation	(a) Work against alcoholism
	(b) Freedom from tobacco
	(c) Laughter club
	(d) Help to improve student’s lifestyle

Answer:
(1) Salaam Mumbai Foundation – (b) Freedom from tobacco (d) Help to improve student’s lifestyle.

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
Nowadays school going children suffer from mental stress.
Answer:

• These days children stay in nuclear families. Due to need for earning and also due to her career choices, mother of the house is also away for long period of time.
• The grandparents or other elders are not in the home. This makes the children alone in the house.
• At school and during studies, there is fierce competition. The modern technology like internet or mobile phones are luring the children away from their regular exercises or outdoor games.
• The wrong kind of peer pressure introduces addictive substances at the young age.
• There is insecurity in the outside world for the young children.

These facts create emotional burden on the young minds and thus they suffer from mental stress.

Question 2.
Girls are facing the problem of stress due to such gender inequality.
Answer:

• In most of the households there are many bindings on girls and excessive freedom for boys.
• Boys do not participate in the domestic duties whereas girls have compulsion for the same.
• In society too, girls have to face the problems like teasing and molestation.
• This creates insecurity among the minds of girls.
• The social change has made women independent and equal but still the male dominated society and the gender inequality persists causing more stress for young girls.

Question 3.
Consuming liquor is always bad.
Answer:

• When the liquor is produced from alcohol wrong processes can be carried out which makes the liquor highly toxic.
• It may cost the life too. Due to alcohol in the liquor, there is directly effect on the nervous system and especially on the brain.
• Other vital organs such as liver and kidneys are harmed due to alcohol.
• The lifespan of person decreases due to alcoholism.
• In students, the brain functioning is affected and the ability to memorize and think rationally is lost. The learning process becomes slow.
• Due to all these effects, there is social, mental and familial problems in the society. Therefore, consuming liquor is always bad.

Question 4.
We need to keep the PIN number of the debit card secret.
Answer:

• Debit card is used to withdraw our money from the bank account.
• During withdrawal, we have to use our PIN number.
• If this PIN number is known to anybody, he or she can withdraw all our money and loot us.
• Therefore, to prevent such financial loss, we have to keep the PIN number of the debit card secret.

Question 5.
Importance of outdoor games is unparalleled.
Answer:

• Outdoor games give good physical exercise. These games give many physical benefits.
• It improves personal discipline, interaction with fellow players and created sense of unity.
• Through play by driving away the loneliness, mental stress and depression is reduced.
• The person becomes more social.
• Therefore, it is said that the importance of outdoor games is unparalleled.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What is alcoholism? What are its effects?
Answer:

• Alcoholism is the addiction to have alcohol in the form of different types of liquor. Liquor is produced from alcohol. Alcohol is in turn obtained by fermentation of different substances.
• Consuming liquor becomes an addiction for a long-term. Due to alcohol, the efficiency of nervous system and especially the brain is affected.
• Other vital organs such as kidneys and liver are adversely affected.
• Lifespan of an alcoholic decreases due to constant drinking and malnourishment.
• Especially in adolescent age if alcohol is consumed the brain functioning does not take place properly. The mental ability of memorization and learning becomes slow. There is lack of concentration in studies.
• The alcoholic person lacks the rational thinking and hence faces with social, mental and familial problems along with physical illness.

Question 2.
How the excessive use of social media and technology is proving harmful?
Answer:
Excessive use of social media and modem technology is disturbing the social health. It is also affecting physical and mental health. Increase in cybercrime take place. People waste their time by watching useless and obscene material. Violence develops by watching few weird cartoon serials. Dependency on machine rises and persons lose self-reliance.

Question 3.
Explain the importance of exercise, yoga and meditation.
Answer:

• Exercise, yoga and meditation are the ways to reduce mental and physical stress.
• In yoga various asanas and pranayama are performed. It also includes good food and discipline of the body and mind.
• Deep breathing, yogic sleep can help in the building up health.
• Meditation helps in concentration and brings positivity to the mind. Especially, the students increase the concentration in the studies.

Write short notes on the following:

Question 1.
Cybercrimes.
Answer:

• No personal information should be shared on the phone, especially the details of bank account, Aadhaar card, PAN card, credit card or debit card number, etc. Cheating persons by using this information is a greatest cybercrime.
• If PIN of any debit or credit card is known to a stranger, he or she can make fraudulent transactions.
• The PIN number and CVV number should be kept total secret. Otherwise, the bank transactions, are done using PIN without the knowledge of consumers.
• In on-line purchases, many a times consumers are cheated. In this, the consumers are shown superior items on websites but actually the inferior ones are sold to them.
• ‘Hacking of information’ is done by some programmers in which the confidential information about government, institutes and companies is obtained from internet with the help of computer programs.
• Fake Facebook accounts are opened and false information is displayed there. This is for harassing girls or financially exploiting others.
• In internet piracy, written literature, software, photos, videos, music, etc. of other persons are misused or illegally used.

Misuse of electronic media sending derogatory messages, spreading vulgar pictures and provocative statements is also a cybercrime. Very rapid exchange of information through media like email, Facebook and Whatsapp takes place these days. But we have to take care about leaking of our own important information.

However, when our personal information and phone numbers are automatically spread and reached to fraudulent people, then they commit malpractices which can hinder the function or shut of the cell phones or computers. All these are cybercrimes which are also indicative of mental health.

Question 2.
Addiction.
Answer:
(1) In adolescent age group, there is tremendous pressure of peers. This peer-group influence can be at times wrong, if the friends are not good. Instead of following advice of parents, the adolescent girls and boys tend to listen to the wrong advices of their friends.
(2) Due to lack of parental supervision, children in their early age start using tobacco, cigarette, gutkha, alcoholic drinks, drugs, etc. This may be due to peer-pressure.
(3) The children fall into the trap of addictions either due to peer-group pressure or due to false
symbol of high standard living. Sometimes they try to imitate their elders.
(4) The addictive substances are hazardous, and they cause long term effects. Some are temporarily intoxicating substances obtained from the plants. While some of the chemical ingredients in them can permanently damage the human nervous system, muscular system, heart, etc. Some tobacco like substances Eire carcinogenic in action especially on the mouth and lungs.

Complete the paragraph by choosing the appropriate words given in the bracket:

Question 1.
(lungs, heart, carcinogenic, nervous, intoxicating, hazardous, addictions, peer-group)
The children fall into the trap of …………. either due to ……….. pressure or due to false symbol of high standard living. Sometimes they try to imitate their elders. The addictive substances are ………….., and they cause long term effects. Some are temporarily ………… substances obtained from the plants. While some of the chemical ingredients in them can permanently damage the human ……… system, muscular system, …………, etc. Some tobacco like substances are ………. in action especially on the mouth and ………….
Answer:
The children fall into the trap of addictions either due to peer-group pressure or due to false symbol of high standard living. Sometimes they try to imitate their elders. The addictive substances are hazardous, and they cause long term effects. Some are temporarily intoxicating substances obtained from the plants. While some of the chemical ingredients in them can permanently damage the human nervous system, muscular system, heart, etc. Some tobacco like substances are Carcinogenic in action especiailly on the mouth and lungs.

Paragraph based questions:

1. Read the paragraph and answer the questions given below:
Social health involves your ability to form satisfying interpersonal relationships with others.
It also relates to your ability to adapt comfortably to different social situations and act appropriately in a variety of settings. Spouses, co-workers and acquaintances can all have healthy relationships with one another. Each of these relationships should include strong communication skills, empathy for others and a sense of accountability. In contrast, traits like being withdrawn, vindictive or selfish can have a negative impact on your social health. Overall, stress can be one of the most significant threats to a healthy relationship. Stress should be managed through proven techniques such as regular physical activity, deep breathing and positive self-talk.

Questions and Answers:

Question 1.
How can you be socially healthy?
Answer:
If one has ability to form satisfying interpersonal relationships with others, he or she can be socially healthy. In all social situations and settings there should be appropriate behaviour.

Question 2.
Which qualities are needed for having good social contacts?
Answer:
Strong communication skills, empathy for others and sense of accountability are the qualities needed for having good social contacts.

Question 3.
Which traits have negative impacts on social health?
Answer:
Being withdrawn, vindictive or selfish, and stressed out personality has negative impacts on the social health.

Question 4.
What are the stress management techniques?
Answer:
Regular physical activity, deep breathing and positive self-talk can be the simple stress management techniques.

Question 5.
What is the significant threat to social health of an adolescent in your opinion?
Answer:
General stress, addictions, wrong peer pressure, too much screen time, lack of parental care are threats to social health of an adolescent.

Activity based questions:

Question 1.
Fill in the boxes with the help of the given clue: (March ’19)
Continuous consumption of alcohol and tobacco material …………

Answer:
ADDICTION

Question 2.
Observe the pictures and answer the questions. (March’19)
(a) Playing games on mobile while eating is right or wrong. Justify.

Answer:
The boy taking his lunch is shown in the adjoining picture. He is busy with his mobile while having his food. His nutrition may affect due to such behavior.

(b) What do you conclude from the following picture?

Answer:
Cigarette contains carcinogenic nicotine. It should never be smoked. Similarly, always stay away from addictions such as drugs, alcohol, gutkha, etc. The pictures give message for control of addictions.

(c) Observe the following picture and state what can be the outcome?

Answer:
In picture, a young man is taking selfie while standing in the busy road. He is not aware of the approaching car too. This may cause an accident.

Question 3.
Complete the following:
Concept-diagram using factors harming the social health and based on it, answer the following questions :
(i) Tobacco products can be included in which of those factors?
(ii) How the tobacco products are harming the social health?
Answer:
(Answers are given in bold.)

(i) Tobacco products are included under addiction.
(ii) Tobacco is carcinogenic product. By its consumption personal and social health is affected on a large scale. Spitting tobacco anywhere is also common practice among tobacco chewers. This too affects public hygiene and cleanliness.

Question 4.
(9) Observe the following figure and answer the given questions: (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)

(a) What does this picture given in the textbook indicate?
(b) Explain any two causes for this problem.
(c) Describe any two measures to eradicate this problem.
Answer:
(a) Given picture indicates that person is suffering from mental problem. He is under sever depression and frustration. Person may be using the drugs.

(b) Causes of this problems are as under:

1. Nuclear families and working parents.
2. Poverty, divided family and unemployment. Addiction is major cause of this problem.

(c) Measures to eradicate this problem:

• By good communication with parents or family members harmonious relation can be re-established.
• Help from counsellors can be helpful to minimize the problem.

Question 5.
(i) Which mental illness is shown in the picture 9.5?

(ii) Which social message would you like to give through it.
Answer:
(i) The picture (figure 9.5) shows ‘insensitivity’, which is a type of human nature.
(ii)

• Instead of shooting the accident the victim should be given first aid.
• Call on 100 and 108 and seek immediate help from police and ambulance.
• Disperse the crowd and try to save life of victim by giving CPR.

Question 6.
Write, which is an inappropriate action in the picture 9.5? (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Answer:
The picture shows lack of sensitivity and responsibility.

Question 7.
Observe the figure and answer the questions given below.

(a) What do these figures indicate?
(b) Which gadgets can be misused for these?
(c) Give two examples of such events.
(d) Name the act amended by Government of Maharashtra to control such events.
(e) What care should be taken by a person to avoid such events?
Answer:
(a) The above figures indicate different types of cybercrime.

(b) The gadgets that are usually used for cybercrime are internet connected computers, cell phones, ATM machines, debit and credit cards, etc. Also using aadhar and PAN cards of others.

(c) (1) Bank transactions are done without the knowledge of the account holder by stealing necessary numbers or pass codes. (2) By opening the fake accounts of social media and deceiving girls, harming them psychologically by teasing them. (3) Deceiving customers by showing superior options on the internet and providing inferior ones when bought. In online shopping many may be cheated in this way.

(d) IT Act-2000 is the act enacted since 17th Oct. 2000 and amended in 2008 that has been imposed by Government of Maharashtra to control cybercrimes.

(e) To prevent cybercrimes, one has to keep vigil over bank transactions. Never reveal any details on the phone. The ATM pin number and PAN or AADHAR details should not be revealed to anyone. While at ATM machines, the pin number should be covered. Always log out from the internet after the work is over.

Projects:

Project 1.
Observe and Discuss: Observe the chart given on textbook page 101. Discuss about the relationship of various factors shown therein with the social health. (Textbook page no. 101)

Project 2.
Try This! (Textbook page no. 101) Classify your classmates into following groups depending upon the observation for a week.
1. Highly interactive.
2. Occasionally interactive.
3. Non-interactive
Make a list of the friends of each of the above three group members and also mention the group to which you belong.

Project 3.
Compare: (Textbook page no. 103) Distribute the 24 hours of your daily routine as per various duties you have observed. Make two categories as time spent on your health and time spent on other responsibilities and compare both the categories.

Project 4.
Internet is my friend: Visit the website www.cyberswachhtakendra.gov.in

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part – 1 Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part – 1

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks and explain the statements.
a. After complete oxidation of a glucose molecules, ……….. number of ATP molecules are formed.
Answer:
After complete oxidation of a glucose molecules, 38 number of ATP molecules are formed.

b. At the end of glycolysis, ……………… molecules are obtained.
Answer:
At the end of glycolysis, pyruvate molecules are obtained.

c. Genetic recombination occurs in ………… phase of prophuse of meiosis-I.
Answer:
Genetic recombination occurs in pachytene phase of prophase of meiosis-I.

d. All chromosomes are arranged parallel to equatorial plane of cell in …………. phase of mitosis.
Answer:
All chromosomes are arranged parallel to equutorial plane of cell in metaphase phase of mitosis.

e. For formation of plasma membrane, phospholipid molecules are necessary.
Answer:
For formation of plasma membrane, …………… molecules are necessary.

f. Our muscle cells perform ……………… type of respiration during exercise.
Answer:
Our muscle cells perform anaerobic type of respiration during exercise.

Question 2.
Write definitions.
a. Nutrition.
Answer:
Nutrition: The process of taking nutrients in the body and utilizing them by an organism is known as nutrition.

b. Nutrients.
Answer:
Nutrients: The substances like carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, vitamins, minerals etc. which are components of the food are called nutrients.

c. Proteins.
Answer:
Proteins: Protein is a macromolecule which is formed by many amino acids which are joined by peptide bonds.

d. Cellular respiration.
Answer:
Cellular respiration: Oxidation of glucose and other food components which takes place inside the cell in presence or absence of oxygen, is known as cellular respiration.

e. Aerobic respiration.
Answer:
Aerobic respiration: Cellular respiration taking place in presence of oxygen is known as aerobic respiration.

f. Glycolysis.
Answer:
Glycolysis: The process occurring in the cell where a molecule of glucose is oxidized in step by step process forming two molecules of each of pyruvic acid, ATP, NADH₂ and water, is called glycolysis.

Question 3.
Distinguish between
a. Glycolysis and TCA cycle
Answer:
Glycolysis:

• The process of glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell.
• In glycolysis, one molecule of glucose is oxidized step-by-step to produce two molecules each of pyruvic acid, ATP, NADH₂ and water.
• Glycolysis can take place in both aerobic and anaerobic respiration.
• The first step in cellular respiration is glycolysis where glucose is converted into pyruvate.
• Two molecules of pyruvate are obtained in glycolysis.
• Two molecules of ATP are used up in glycolysis.
• Four molecules of ATP are produced in glycolysis.
• CO2 is not produced during glycolysis.

TCA cycle:

• TCA cycle takes place in mitochondria.
  In TCA cycle, molecule of acetyl-co-A is completely oxidized and in the process CO₂, H₂O, NADH₂, FADH₂ and ATP is produced.
• TCA cycle takes place only during aerobic respiration.
• The second step in cellular respiration is TCA cycle.
• Pyruvate is converted into CO₂ and H₂O during TCA cycle.
• ATP molecules are not used up in TCA cycle.
• Two molecules of ATP are produced in TCA cycle.
• CO₂ is produced in TCA cycle.

b. Mitosis and meiosis.
Answer:
Mitosis:

• In mitosis the chromosome number does not change. Diploid cells remain diploid, without change.
• One cell gives rise to two daughter cells in mitosis.
• Karyokinesis of mitosis has four stages, viz. prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase.
• Prophase of mitosis is not lengthy.
• Genetic recombination does not happen in mitosis as there is no crossing over.
• Mitosis is essential for growth and development.
• Mitosis takes place both in somatic cells and germinal cells.

meiosis:

• In meiosis, the chromosome number is reduced to half. The diploid cells become haploid.
• One cell gives rise to four daughter cells in meiosis.
• Meiosis has two major stages, viz. meiosis-I and meiosis-II. Each is further subdivided into prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase.
• Prophase of meiosis-I is very lengthy.
• Genetic recombination takes place in homologous chromosomes as there is crossing over during prophase-I.
• Meiosis is essential for formation of gametes in sexual reproduction.
• Meiosis takes place in only germinal cells. It does not take place in somatic cells.

c. Aerobic and anaerobic respiration.
Answer:
Aerobic respiration:

• Oxygen is required for aerobic respiration.
• Aerobic respiration takes place in nucleus as well as in cytoplasm.
• At the end of aerobic respiration CO₂ and H₂O is formed.
• Energy is produced in large amount in aerobic respiration.
• Glucose is completely oxidized in aerobic respiration.
• 38 molecules of ATP are formed during aerobic respiration.
• Chemical reaction:
  C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂ → 6H₂O + 6 CO₂ + 686 Kcal

Anaerobic respiration:

• Oxygen is not required for anaerobic respiration.
• Anaerobic respiration occurs only in the cytoplasm.
• At the end of anaerobic respiration CO₂ and C₂H₅OH are formed.
• Energy is produced in lesser amount in anaerobic respiration.
• Glucose is incompletely oxidized in anaerobic respiration.
• 2 molecules of ATP are formed during anaerobic respiration.
• Chemical reaction:
  C₆H₁₂O₆ → 2 C₂H₅OH + 2 CO₂ + 50 Kcal

Question 4.
Give scientific reasons.
a. Oxygen is necessary for complete oxidation of glucose.
Answer:

1. When glucose is completely oxidized in aerobic cellular respiration, it produces 38 molecules of ATP.
2. In cellular respiration, three processes take place one after the other, these are glycolysis, Krebs cycle and electron transport chain reactions.
3. In absence of oxygen only glycolysis can occur but further two reactions will not take place.
4. If glycolysis occurs in absence of oxygen, it produces alcohol.
5. By anaerobic glycolysis only two molecules of ATP are produced.
6. This results in less energy supply to the body. Therefore, oxygen is necessary for complete oxidation of glucose.

b. Fibres are one of the important nutrients. (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Answer:

1. Fibres are indigestible substance.
2. They are thrown out along with other useless and undigested matter.
3. This aids in egestion. Some fibres also help in digestion of other substances.
4. Green leafy vegetables, fruits, cereals, etc. are considered as important in diet as they supply nutritious fibres.
5. Thus, fibres are considered as one of the important nutrients.

c. Cell division is one of the important properties of cells and organisms.
Answer:

1. Cell division is very essential for all the living organisms.
2. The growth and development is possible only due to cell division.
3. The emaciated body can be restored only through the cell division which adds new cells.
4. Offspring is produced only through the cell division that take place in parents.
5. In asexual reproduction, mitosis helps to give rise to new generation.
6. In sexual reproduction, meiosis helps to form haploid gametes.
7. All such functions show that cell division is one of the important properties of cells and organisms.

d. Sometimes, higher plants and animals too perform anaerobic respiration.
Answer:

1. When there is deficiency of oxygen in the surrounding, the aerobic respiration is not possible.
2. In such case, to survive, higher plants switch over to anaerobic respiration.
3. In some animal tissues in case of oxygen deficiency cells perform anaerobic respiration.

e. Krebs cycle is also known as citric acid cycle.
Answer:

1. Sir Hans Kreb proposed this cycle and hence it is called Krebs cycle.
2. These are series of cyclic chain reactions which begins with acetyl-coenzyme-A molecules which act with molecules of oxaloacetic acid.
3. The reactions are catalysed with the help of specific enzymes.
4. The first molecule formed in this reaction is called citric acid. Therefore, Krebs cycle is also called citric acid cycle.

Question 5.
Answer in detail.
a. Explain the glycolysis in detail.
Answer:

• Carbohydrates are converted to glucose after the process of digestion is completed. The oxidation of glucose for releasing energy is called glycolysis which takes place in cytoplasm.
• Glycolysis can occur in presence of oxygen or without oxygen too. The first type of glycolysis takes place in aerobic respiration and the second type is in anaerobic respiration.
• In aerobic respiration, there is step-wise oxidation of glucose molecule forming two molecules each of pyruvic acid, ATP, NADH₂ and water.
• Later the pyruvic acid formed in this process is converted into molecules of Acetyl-Coenzyme-A along with two molecules of NADH₂ and two molecules of CO₂.
• During anaerobic respiration along with glycolysis there is fermentation too. This is incomplete oxidation of glucose and thus it results in formation of lesser energy.
• The process of glycolysis was discovered by Gustav Embden, Otto Meyerhof, and Jacob Parnas. Therefore, in their honour, glycolysis is also called as Embden-Meyerhof-Parnas pathway (EMP pathway). For the discovery they had performed experiments on muscles.

b. With the help of suitable diagrams, explain the mitosis in detail.
Answer:
(1) There are two stages of mitosis. These are
(a) Karyokinesis or nuclear division and
(b) Cytokinesis or cytoplasmic division. Karyokinesis takes place in further four phases, viz prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase.



(a) Karyokinesis:
(i) Prophase: During prophase, condensation of chromosomes starts. The thin and thread like chromosomes start thickening. They are seen with their pair of sister chromatids. In animal cells the centrioles are seen to duplicate and move to opposite poles of the cell. Nuclear membrane and nucleolus disappear.

(ii) Metaphase: Chromosomes complete their condensation and each one is seen with its sister chromatids. The chromosomes are seen in equatorial plane of the cell. The spindle fibres are formed from polar region, where centrioles are present, and they attach themselves to the centromere of each chromosome. Nuclear membrane now disappears completely.

(iii) Anaphase: The centromeres of the chromosomes now divide forming two daughter chromosomes. The spindle fibres pull apart the chromosomes from equatorial region to the opposite poles. Chromosomes moving to the poles appear like bunch of bananas. One set of chromosomes reach each pole by the end of the anaphase.

(iv) Telophase: Telophase is reverse of events that occurred in prophase. The thickened chromosomes decondense. They again assume the thin and thread like appearance. Nuclear membrane and nucleolus appear again. The spindle fibres are completely lost. The cell looks as if it has two nuclei in one cytoplasm.

(b) Cytokinesis: In animal cells a notch develops in the middle of the cell. This notch goes on deepening down and later the cytoplasm divides into two. In plant cells, cell plate formation takes place and then cytokinesis takes place.

c. With the help of suitable diagrams, explain the five stages of prophase-I of meiosis.
Answer:



Prophase-I: Prophase – I of meiosis is much longer phase of the meiosis.
It is subdivided into 5 substages, namely leptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene, and diakinesis.
(1) Leptotene: Initially the chromosomes start condensation and they become compact during leptotene.

(2) Zygotene: In zygotene, homologous chromosomes start pairing. This pairing is called synapsis. The structure called synaptonemal complex develops to hold chromosomes in place during this pairing. Each chromosome’s chromatid arm divides and forms structure called bivalent or tetrad.

(3) Pachytene: During pachytene stage, crossing over of non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes takes place. Genetic recombination is produced due to such exchange. The homologous chromosomes still remain paired together at the sites of crossing over.

(4) Diplotene: During diplotene, synaptonemal complex dissolves and the homologous chromosomes of the bivalents separate except at the point of crossing over. Thus, it looks like X-shaped structures called the chiasmata.

(5) Diakinesis: The last phase of prophase is for termination of chiasmata. The spindle fibres originate, and the cross-over homologous chromosomes are now separated. The nucleQlus disappears, and the nuclear envelope breaks down.

d. How do all the life processes contribute to the growth and development of the body?
Answer:

1. Different systems work in co-ordination with each other in the body of the living organisms. In human body the homoeostasis is very advanced.
2. Digestive system, respiratory system, circulatory system, excretory system, nervous system and all the external and internal organs in the bodywork independently but in coordination with each other.
3. The digested and absorbed nutrients of the food are transported to various cells with the help of circulatory system due to pumping of the heart. Simultaneously, the oxygen absorbed in the blood by lungs is also transported to each cell by RBCs.
4. Mitochondria in every cell brings about oxidation of nutrients and produce energy required for all of these functions.
5. The control is exercised by the nervous system on all these actions. This keeps the organism alive and helps in growth and development of the same.

e. Explain the Krebs cycle with reaction.
Answer:

• Krebs cycle was proposed by Sir Hans Kreb. This cycle is named after him. It is also called tricarboxylic acid cycle or citric acid cycle.
• The acetyl-coenzyme-A molecules enter the mitochondria located in the cytoplasm.
• They participate in the chemical reactions taking place in Krebs cycle.
• In the cyclic chemical reactions, acetyl- coenzyme-A is completely oxidised
• It yields molecules of CO₂, H₂O, NADH₂, FADH₂ and ATP upon complete oxidation.

Question 5.
How energy is formed from oxidation of carbohydrates, fats and proteins?
Correct the dagram below.

Answer:
(1) First of all the dietary carbohydrates are digested in the digestive system with the help of various enzymes and converted into glucose. Similarly, proteins are converted into amino acids and fats are broken down into fatty aid and glycerol (alcohol).

(2) Oxidation of carbohydrates takes place during cellular respiration. Glucose is oxidized by three steps during aerobic respiration, viz. glycolysis, tricarboxylic acid cycle or Krebs cycle and electron transfer chain.

(3) From one molecule of glucose two molecules of each pyruvic acid, ATP, NADH₂ and water are formed during glycolysis. Pyruvic acid which is formed in this process is converted into Acetyl-Coenzyme-A along with release of two molecules each of NADH₂ and CO₂.

(4) In the next step, i.e. in TCA cycle, molecules of Acetyl-Co-A enter the mitochondria and a cyclic chain of reactions take place. Acetyl part of Acetyl- Co-A is completely oxidized through this cyclical process. The molecules CO₂, H₂O, NADH₂, FADH₂ are released in this process.

(5) In third step, i.e. in ETC reaction, NADH₂ and FADH₂ formed during first two steps are used for obtaining ATP molecules. 3 molecules of ATP are obtained from each NADH₂ molecule and 2 molecules of ATP from each FADH₂.

(6) Thus, one molecule of glucose upon complete oxidation in presence of oxygen yields 38 molecules of ATP. This is how from carbohydrates, energy is obtained.

(7) If carbohydrates are insufficient in diet, then proteins or lipids are used for energy production. Fatty acids derived from fats and amino acids derived from proteins are converted into Acetyl- Co-A. Acetyl-Co-A once again can yield energy through TCA cycle.

Corrected diagram:

Project:
With the help of information collected from internet, prepare the slides of various stages of mitosis and observe under the compound microscope.

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 12)

Question 1.
How are the food stuffs and their nutrient contents useful for body?
Answer:
The food stuffs are digested and converted into soluble nutrients. These nutrients are carried by blood to every cell of the body. The oxygen inhaled at the time of respiration is also carried to every cell. In the body cells, this oxygen carries out oxidation of nutrients and thus energy is produced. The energy helps the body to carry out all its functions. The nutrients help in the growth and development of the body.

Question 2.
What is the importance of balanced diet for body?
Answer:
Balanced diet has carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins and minerals in the right proportion. Each nutrient carries a specific important function. In balanced diet all these nutrients are in right proportion. Since balanced diet is required for energy and nutrition, it is very important to maintain our health.

Question 3.
Which different functions are performed by muscles in body?
Answer:
There are three 4ypes of muscles in our body. The voluntary muscles bring about all the movements according to our will. Involuntary muscles bring about all vital activities of the body. The visceral organs are under the control of involuntary muscles. The cardiac muscles control the movements of heart. Carbohydrates and proteins are stored in muscles.

Question 4.
What is the importance of digestive juices in digestive system?
Answer:
Digestive juice contains different enzymes. Enzymes act as catalysts and bring about the chemical reactions at faster pace. The digestive juices of stomach make pH of digestive tract acidic while that of intestinal juice make it alkaline.

Question 5.
Which system is in action for removal of waste materials produced in human body?
Answer:
Excretory system helps in the removal of nitrogenous waste materials produced in the human body.

Question 6.
What is the role of circulatory system in energy production?
Answer:
Due to circulatory system, glucose from digestive system and oxygen from respiratory system is transported to every cell. Red blood cells carry the oxygen as the blood is pumped by the heart. In every cell with the help of oxygen, glucose molecules yield the energy by the process of oxidation.

Question 7.
How are the various processes occurring in the human body controlled? In how many ways?
Answer:
The nervous system and the endocrine system brings about control by nervous and chemical coordination in the body. Due to such coordination different functions of the body are carried out in sequential and controlled manner.

Use your barain power:

Question 1.
Many players are seen consuming some food stuffs during breaks of the game. Why may be the players consuming these food stuffs? (Text Book Page No. 12)
Answer:

1. Players require energy in greater amount.
2. They perspire heavily at the time of game or sport which results in the loss of water and electrolytes from their body.
3. This may affect their performance in sport. To prevent such unfavourable effect, they are given, juices or drinks.
4. This helps them to restore the balance of water and electrolytes in their body. It also gives enhanced energy required for the performance.

Question 2.
Many times, we experience dryness in mouth. (Text Book Page No. 17)
Answer:

1. In our body there is 65-70% water. This proportion is always maintained.
2. Sometimes we lose lots of water either through perspiration or due to unavailability of water for a long time. In such situations, we experience dryness in our mouth.
3. Dryness is a natural feeling which creates urge in us to drink water, thereby the proportion of water in the body is brought back to its normal levels.

Question 3.
Oral rehydration solution (Salt-sugar- water) is frequently given to persons experiencing loose motions. (Text Book Page No. 17)
Answer:

1. Loose motions cause lot of loss of water from the body.
2. This may result in dehydration. This can be lethal if ignored.
3. Especially in case of young children this is a very serious fatal problem.
4. Thus, to bring back the normal proportion of water and electrolytes, oral rehydration solution or ORS is given to the patient who suffers from loose motions.

Question 4.
We sweat during summer and heavy exercise. (Text Book Page No. 17)
Answer:

1. During summer, the environmental temperatures are high.
2. This causes rise in our body temperature. Exercising also cause rise in the temperature. But since we can regulate our body temperature to a constant level, the sweat, glands g6t automatically stimulated.
3. This induces perspiration.
4. The sweat evaporates and causes fall in the body temperature. Thus, for regulation of body temperature, we sweat during summer or even after heavy exercise.

Question 5.
What do you mean by diploid (2n) cell? (Text Book Page No. 20)
Answer:

• The cells in which chromosome number is double are known as diploid cells.
• Male and female gametes unite together in the process of fertilization. Their chromosomes mix together in the zygote, therefore, the chromosome number is always diploid.
• E.g. Diploid chromosome no. in human beings is 46. We hate 46 chromosomes in each of our body cells.

Question 6.
What do you mean by haploid (n) cell? (Text Book Page No. 20)
Answer:

• The cells with only one set of chromosomes is known as haploid cell.
• At the time of sexual reproduction, there is meiosis. In meiosis chromosome number of the parental germ cells are reduced to half. Therefore, gametes are haploid.
• The haploid chromosome number (n) in human beings is 23.
• Sperm and ovum both are haploid carrying 23 chromosomes each.

Question 7.
What do you mean by homologous chromosomes? (Text Book Page No. 20)
Answer:

• Every species has definite number of chromosome pairs in their diploid cells.
• In every pair, the two chromosomes are alike in shape, type and genes located over them.
• Such chromosomes are called homologous chromosomes.
• E.g. In human diploid cell, pair of chromosome no. 1 shows chromosome no. 1 from mother and chromosome no. 1 from father. These two chromosomes are homologous to each other.

Question 8.
Whether the gametes are diploid or haploid? Why? (Text Book Page No. 20)
Answer:
The cells that give rise to gametes are diploid (2n). But by meiosis they give rise to gametes which are haploid (n). Two haploid gametes undergo fertilization and the zygote formed becomes once again diploid (2n).

Question 9.
How are the haploid cells formed? (Text Book Page No. 20)
Answer:
Diploid cells undergo meiosis, which is a reduction division. In this way haploid cells are formed.

Question 10.
What is the importance of haploid cells? (Text Book Page No. 20)
Answer:

1. The gametes that take part in the sexual reproduction should be haploid.
2. Otherwise the chromosome number will not be maintained at constancy. E.g. Parents have 2n = 46 chromosomes in their cells.
3. If meiosis does not take place in them, the gametes formed will also contain 46 chromosomes.
4. The resultant offspring will have 46 + 46 = 92 chromosomes.
5. Such skewed number will produce large scale abnormalities.
6. But due to meiosis, the gametes formed are haploid and thus the chromosome number is maintained constant for every species. Gametes are haploid cells, this is the most important fact.

Internet is my friend. (Text Book Page No. 17)

Collect information.
(a) What are symptoms of diseases like night blindness, rickets, beriberi, neuritis, pellagra, anaemia, scurvy?
Answer:

Disease	Symptoms
Night blindness	Near sightedness, or blurred vision when looking at faraway objects Cataracts, or clouding of the eye’s lens. Inability to see in dark. Sometimes blindness.
Rickets	Weak and soft bones Stunted growth In severe cases, skeletal deformities.
Beriberi	Decreased muscle function, particularly in the lower legs. Tingling or loss of feeling in the feet and hands. Pain Mental confusion, difficulty in speaking Vomiting Involuntary eye movement, paralysis.
Neuritis	Numbness in hands and feet Tingling sensation, sharp, jabbing, throbbing, freezing or burning pain. Extreme sensitivity to touch. Lack of coordination and falling.
Pellagra	Delusions or mental confusion. Diarrhoea and nausea Inflammed mucous membrane. Scaly skin sores.
Anaemia	Fatigue and loss of energy Unusually rapid heartbeat, particularly with exercise Shortness of breath and headache, particularly with exercise Difficulty in concentrating Dizziness, Pale skin Leg cramps, Insomnia
Scurvy	Anaemia, debility, exhaustion, Spontaneous bleeding Pain in the limbs, and especially the legs, swelling in some parts of the body Ulceration of the gums and loss of teeth.

(b) What do you mean by coenzymes?
Answer:
Co-enzyme is a non-protein compound that is necessary for the functioning of an enzyme. It is bound to the enzyme as a catalyst. This increases the rate of reaction. Co-enzymes always act along the enzymes. They cannot work independently. But the same molecule of coenzyme can be used again and again.

Many co-enzymes are vitamins or derived from vitamins. When vitamin intake is too low, then an organism also lacks the co-enzymes that catalyse reactions. Water-soluble vitamins, which include all B complex vitamins and vitamin C, lead to the production of co-enzymes. Two of the most important and widespread vitamin-derived coenzymes are Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide (NAD) and co-enzyme A.

(c) Find the full forms of FAD, FMN, NAD, NADP.
Answer:

FAD	Flavin Adenine Dinucleotide
FMN	Flavin Mono Nucleotide
NAD	Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide
NADP	Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide Phosphate

(d) How much quantity of each vitamin is required every day?
Answer:

Vitamin	Daily requirement
A	700 and 900 μ grams
B Complex	100 mg/day for adults.
C	75 mg
D	5 μg
E	10 mg
K	80 μg

Choose the correct alternative and write its alphabet against the sub-question number:

Question 1.
The process of glycolysis occurs in ……….
(a) cytoplasm
(b) mitochondria
(c) nucleus
(d) cell membrane
Answer:
The process of glycolysis occurs in cytoplasm.

Question 2.
ATP is called ………. of the cell.
(a) energy currency
(b) combustion fuel
(c) storage of glucose
(d) protein depot
Answer:
ATP is called protein depot of the cell.

Question 3.
Excess of carbohydrates are stored in liver and muscles in the form of ………….
(a) sugar
(b) glucose
(c) glycogen
(d) protein
Answer:
Excess of carbohydrates are stored in liver and muscles in the form of glycogen.

Question 4.
Chemically vitamin B₂ is ………….
(a) Riboflavin
(b) Nicotinamide
(c) Cyanacobalomine
(d) Pantothetic acid
Answer:
Chemically vitamin B₂ is Riboflavin

Question 5.
Somatic and stem cells undergo type of ………… division. (March 2019)
(a) meiosis
(b) mitosis
(c) budding
(d) cloning
Answer:
Somatic and stem cells undergo type of mitosis division.

Question 6.
We get ……….. energy from carbohydrates.
(a) 9 kcal/gm
(b) 9 cal/gm
(c) 4 cal/gm
(d) 4 kcal/gm
Answer:
We get 4 cal/gm energy from carbohydrates.

Question 7.
Which of the following vitamins is necessary for synthesis of NADH₂?
(a) Vitamin B₂
(b) Vitamin B₃
(c) Vitamin
(d) Vitamin K
Answer:
(b) Vitamin B₃

Write whether the following statements are true or false:

Question 1.
Glucose is oxidized step by step in the cells during the process of respiration at the body level.
Answer:
False. (Glucose is oxidized step by step in the cells during the process of cellular respiration.)

Question 2.
In aerobic respiration, glucose is oxidized in three steps.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Glycolysis is also called Embden-Meyerhof-Paarnas pathway.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Molecules of pyruvic acid formed in this glycolysis are converted into molecules of acetyl-co-enzyme A.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Excess of ATP molecules obtained from proteins are not stored in the body.
Answer:
False. (Excess of ammo acids obtained from proteins are not stored in the body.)

Question 6.
Proteins of animal origin are called ‘first class’ proteins.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
The disease related with the deficient synthesis of insulin is heart disease.
Answer:
False. (The disease related with the deficient synthesis of insulin is diabetes.)

Match the columns:

Protein	Part of the body (July 2019)
(1) Haemoglobin	(a) muscles
(2) Ossein	(b) skin
	(c) bones
	(d) blood

Answer:
(1) Haemoglobin – blood
(2) Ossein – bones.

Protein	Part of the body
(1) Keratin	(a) muscles
(2) Myosin	(b) skin
	(c) bones
	(d) blood

Answer:
(1) Keratin – skin
(2) Myosin – muscles.

Find the odd one out:

Question 1.
Progesterone, Estrogen, Testosterone, Insulin
Answer:
Insulin. (All the others are hormones produced with the help of fatty acids.)

Question 2.
Actin, Ossein, Myosin, Melanin
Answer:
Melanin. (All the others are proteins concerned with locomotion of the body.)

Question 3.
Lipids, Carbohydrates, Fatty acids, Proteins
Answer:
Fatty acids. (All the others are food constituents; fatty acid is soluble nutrient.)

Question 4.
Alcohol, Vinegar, Pyruvic acid, Lactic acid.
Answer:
Pyruvic acid. (All the others are chemical substances formed by the process of fermentation.)

Question 5.
Tricarboxylic acid cycle, Citric acid cycle, Krebs cycle, EMP pathway.
Answer:
EMP pathway. (All the other terms are synonymous to each other.)

Considering the relationship in the first pair, complete the second pair by using a word or group of words:

Question 1.
Process that occurs in the cytoplasm : Glycolysis :: Process that occurs in the mitochondria ………
Answer:
Krebs cycle

Question 2.
Skin : Keratin :: Blood : …………
Answer:
Haemoglobin

Question 3.
Energy obtained from protein : 4 kcal :: Energy obtained from fats / lipids : …………
Answer:
9 Kcal

Question 4.
Breakdown of glucose molecule : Glycolysis :: Formation of glucose from proteins : …………….
Answer:
Gluconeogenesis

Question 5.
Condensation of chromosomes : Prophase :: Formation of spindle fibres : …………
Answer:
Metaphase

Question 6.
Division of nucleus : Karyokinesis :: Division of cytoplasm :: ………..
Answer:
Cytokinesis.

Write definitions:

Question 1.
Gluconeogenesis.
Answer:
Gluconeogenesis: Formation of glucose through non-carbohydrate sources such a protein is called gluconeogenesis.

Question 2.
Fermentation.
Answer:
Fermentation: Conversion of pyruvic acid produced in the process of glycolysis into other organic acids or alcohol with the help of some enzymes is called fermentation.

Name the following:

Question 1.
Products formed after complete oxidation of acetyl part present in the molecule of acetyl-coenzyme-A.
Answer:
Molecules of CO₂, H₂O, NADH₂, FADH₂ and ATP.

Question 2.
Place where electron transfer chain reaction take place.
Answer:
Mitochondria present in the cytoplasm of the cell.

Question 3.
Two co-enzymes involved in cellular respiration.
Answer:
NAD → Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide and FAD Flavin Adenine Dinucleotide.

Question 4.
Scientist who discovered the TCA cycle.
Answer:
Sir Hans Krebs.

Question 5.
Steps of anaerobic respiration.
Answer:
Glycolysis and fermentation.

Question 6.
Most abundantly found protein nature.
Answer:
An enzyme RUBISCO present in plant chloroplasts.

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
We feel exhausted after exercising.
Answer:

• When we undertake constant exercises, there may be shortage of oxygen for the cells.
• Therefore, our muscles and other tissues perform anaerobic respiration in such condition.
• In this process, lactic acid is formed.
• Molecules of ATP produced in oxidation of food are also much less.
• Thus, there is less energy in the body and accumulation of lactic acid too. All this brings about a feeling of exhaustion.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
Write the forms to which the following food materials are converted after digestion:
(a) Milk (b) Potato (c) Oil (d) Chapati.
Answer:
(a) Milk: Proteins (casein) are converted into amino acids. Lactose sugar is converted into glucose. Lipids are converted into fatty acids and glycerol.
(b) Potato: Carbohydrates (starch) are converted into glucose.
(c) Oil: Lipids are converted into fatty acids and glycerol.
(d) Chapati: Carbohydrates (starch) are converted into glucose.

Question 2.
On which two levels does respiration take place in living organisms?
Answer:

1. In organism respiration takes place at two levels, viz. Body level and Cellular level.
2. Respiration at body level: The exchange of respiratory gases such as oxygen and carbon dioxide between body and surrounding is called respiration at body level.
3. Cellular respiration: Oxidation of nutrients inside the cell with or without oxygen is called cellular respiration.

Question 3.
Answer the following questions: (July 2019)
(a) Write main types of vitamins.
Answer:
A, B, C, D, E and K are main types of vitamins.

(b) Name water soluble vitamins.
Answer:
Water soluble vitamins are B and C.

(c) Name fat soluble vitamins.
Answer:
Fat soluble vitamins are A, D, E and K.

Question 4.
Answer the following questions:
(a) Why some living organisms have to perform anaerobic respiration?
Answer:
Some bacteria and lower organisms do not live in the presence of oxygen. In order to survive, they have to perform anaerobic respiration. Sometimes, muscle cells and erythrocytes also perform anaerobic respiration when there is lack of enough oxygen.

(b) Give two examples of such living organisms.
Answer:
Yeast and bacteria.

(c) What are the two steps of anaerobic respiration?
Answer:
Glycolysis and fermentation are the two steps of anaerobic respiration.

Question 5.
Which is the energy currency of the cell? Explain it in detail.
Answer:

• ATP or Adenosine triphosphate is the ‘energy currency’ of the cell.
• Chemical composition of ATP is as follows: it is a triphosphate molecule having adenosine ribonucleoside. The nitrogenous compound-adenine, pentose sugar-ribose and three phosphate groups are present in ATP.
• In this energy-rich molecule the energy remains trapped in the bonds by which phosphate groups are attached to each other.
• ATP molecules are stored in the cells. As per the need, energy is derived by breaking the phosphate bond of ATP.
• During cellular respiration, the oxidation of glucose yields 38 molecules of ATP. Whenever required they are consumed to liberate energy.

Question 6.
How is energy obtained during starvation or hunger?
Answer:

• Due to starvation or hunger, there is less supply of nutrients and energy to the body. In such condition, the stored carbohydrates in the body also deplete.
• In such condition, fats and proteins present in the body are utilized.
• Fats or lipids are converted into fatty acids and proteins are broken down to amino acids.
• Fatty acids and amino acids both are converted to acetyl-coenzyme-A.
• Acetyl-coenzyme-A can undergo series of cyclic reactions and oxidised to liberate energy in the form of ATP molecules.

Question 7.
Why glycolysis is also called EMP pathway?
Answer:
Process of glycolysis was discovered by Gustav Embden, Otto Meyerhof, and Jacob Pamas along with their colleagues. They performed experiments on muscles to understand glycolysis. Hence, in their honour, glycolysis is also edited Embden-Meyerhof-Parnas pathway or EMP pathway.

Question 8.
How are proteins obtained? What are the components of the proteins?
Answer:

• Protein, is a macromolecule which is formed by amino acids.
• When digestion of protein takes place, it forms different amino acids. These amino acids are transported to each cell by blood circulation.
• By protein synthesis, these amino acids are again used to make different kinds of proteins which our body needs.
• Animal proteins are said to be ‘first class proteins’ as they contain good quality amino acids.
• 4 Kcal/gm energy is obtained from the proteins.

Question 9.
Where and in which forms the amino acids formed after digestion of food are used in the body?
Answer:
(1) After digestion of proteins, amino acids are formed. These amino acids are used to synthesise proteins in different forms. e.g.

• In blood-Haemoglobin and antibodies are formed.
• In skin – Melanin and keratin are formed.
• In bones – Ossein is formed.
• In pancreas-Insulin and trypsin are synthesized.
• Pituitary and all other glands produce hormones by utilising amino acids.
• In muscles – Actin and myosin are formed.
• In all the cells, plasma membrane is formed by proteins. All enzymes are also synthesised using the amino acids.

Question 10.
What are fatty acids? What are the different uses of fatty acids ?
Answer:
(1) The fatty acids are components of the lipids. When lipids are digested, it forms fatty acids and alcohol (glycerol).
(2) There are certain chemical bonds between fatty acids and alcohol.
(3) Fatty acids are very essential for the health.
(4) After digestion, fatty acids are absorbed into the blood and transported to the cells.
(5) Different types of cells produce their own substances from these fatty acids.
E.g. (a) Plasma membrane is produced from phospholipids.
(b) Hormones like testosterone, progesterone, estrogen, aldosterone are produced from fatty acids.
(c) The axonal coverings around the neurons are also made from fatty acids.

Give explanations for the following statements:

Question 1.
After complete oxidation of a glucose molecules, 38 number of ATP molecules are formed.
Answer:
I. Glycolysis: No. of ATP molecules formed = 4
No. of ATP molecules used = 2
II. Krebs cycle : No. of ATP molecules formed = 2
III. ETC Reaction :
NADH₂: 10 NAD₂ x 3 ATP = 30 ATP
FADH₂ : 2 FADH₂ x 2 ATP = 4 ATP
Total ATP molecules produced = (4+2+34)
= 40 ATP
ATP molecules used = 2 ATP
Therefore, total ATP molecules = 38 ATP

Question 2.
At the end of glycolysis, pyruvate molecules are obtained.
Answer:
The process of glycolysis takes place m the cytoplasm of the cell. One molecule of glucose is gradually oxidized step by step forming two molecules of each pyruvic acid, ATP, NADH₂ and water. Of these, pyruvate or pyruvic acid takes part in the further reactions.

Question 3.
Genetic recombination occurs in pachytene phase of prophase of meiosis-I.
Answer:
In prophase of meiosis I there are total 5 stages. Of these in pachytene the process of crossing over takes place between homologous chromosomes as chromosomes come near each other forming synapsis.

Question 4.
All chromosomes are arranged parallel to equatorial plane of cell in metaphase of mitosis.
Answer:
In mitosis, the metaphase is the stage when dividing chromosomes lie on the equatorial plane of the cell. They are later pulled by the spindle fibres to the opposite poles.

Question 5.
For formation of plasma membrane, phospholipid molecules are necessary.
Answer:
Upon the digestion of fats, fatty acids and glycerol are formed. The fatty acids can be converted into phospholipid which are essential molecules for development of plasma membrane.

Question 6.
Our muscle cells perform anaerobic type of respiration during exercise.
Answer:
When the proportion of oxygen is less, then the cells switch over to anaerobic respiration. When we are exercising there is increased demand of oxygen for muscle cells. If this is not fulfilled, they perform anaerobic respiration during exercise.

Question 7.
Excess of carbohydrates are stored in liver and muscles in the form of glycogen.
Answer:
The carbohydrates which are not used to produce energy cannot be stored in the body in the form of glucose. This glucose is therefore converted into complex compound called glycogen. Glycogen is stored in muscles and liver.

Complete the paragraph by choosing the appropriate words given in the brackets:

Question 1.
(gamete, crossing over, haploid, Meiosis-II, meiosis-I, diploid)
……….. is just like mitosis. In this stage, the two haploid daughter cells formed in ……… undergo division by separation of recombined sister chromatids and four ……….. daughter cells are formed. Process of …………… production and spore formation occurs by meiosis. In this type of cell division, four haploid (n) daughter cells are formed from one ……….. cell. During this cell division, ………… occurs between, the homologous chromosomes.
Answer:
Meiosis-II is just like mitosis. In this stage, the two haploid daughter cells formed in meiosis-I undergo division by separation of recombined sister chromatids and four haploid daughter cells are formed. Process of gamete production and spore formation occurs by meiosis. In this type of cell division, four haploid (n) daughter cells are formed from one diploid cell. During this cell division, crossing over occurs between the homologous chromosomes.

Question 2.
(external, inhalation, alveolar, breathing, respiration, exhalation)
Release of energy from the assimilated food is called …………. Inhalation and exhalation is called …….. When ……….. is done, air enters the lungs. The oxygen from this air enters the blood while carbon dioxide from the blood exits from the blood. Through exhalation, CO₂ is given out. This gaseous exchange occurs through ……….. membrane. This is called ………….. respiration. The RBCs carry oxygen to every cell.
Answer:
Release of energy from the assimilated food is called respiration. Inhalation and exhalation is called breathing. When inhalation is done, air enters the lungs. The oxygen from this air enters the blood while carbon dioxide from the blood exits from the blood. Through exhalation, CO₂ is given out. This gaseous exchange occurs through alveolar membrane. This is called external respiration. The RBCs carry oxygen to every cell.

Read the paragraph and answer the questions given below:

1. Dietary fibre — found mainly in fruits, vegetables, whole grains and legumes — is probably best known for its ability to prevent or relieve constipation. But foods containing fibre can provide other health benefits as well, such as helping to maintain a healthy weight and lowering your risk of diabetes, heart disease and some types of cancer. Dietary fibre, also known as roughage or bulk, includes the parts of plant foods your body can’t digest or absorb. Unlike other food components, such as fats, proteins or carbohydrates — which your body breaks down and absorbs — fibre isn’t digested by your body. Instead, it passes relatively intact through your stomach, small intestine and colon and out of your body.

Questions and Answers :

Question 1.
Which food items provide rich fibre content?
Answer:
Fruits, vegetables, whole grains and legumes give rich amount of dietary fibre.

Question 2.
Enlist the advantages of fibres in diet.
Answer:
Fibres help to relieve constipation and help in maintaining a healthy weight and lowering risk of diabetes, heart disease and some types of cancer.

Question 3.
Are fibres digested in the body?
Answer:
No, fibres are not digested in the body but are passed on without any alteration.

Question 4.
Which is the path through which fibres pass in the digestive tract?
Answer:
Fibres pass through stomach, small intestine and colon.

Question 5.
What is a roughage?
Answer:
Roughage is the fibre content of the food which consists of plant matter which cannot be digested by the human enzymes, hence form undigested bulk matter in the faeces.

2. The substances formed by specific chemical bond between fatty acids and alcohol are called lipids. Digestion of lipids consumed by us is nothing but their conversion into fatty acids and alcohol. Fatty acids are absorbed and distributed everywhere within the body. From those fatty acids, different cells produce various substances necessary to themselves. Ex. the molecules called phospholipids which are essential for producing plasma membrane are formed from fatty acids. Besides, fatty acids are used for producing hormones like progesterone, estrogen, testosterone, aldosterone, etc. and the covering around the axons of nerve cells. We get 9 Kcal of energy per gram of lipids. Excess of lipids are stored in adipose connective tissue in the body.

Questions and Answers:

Question 1.
Define lipids.
Answer:
Lipids are molecules formed of fatty acids and glycerol (alcohol) which have specific bonds between them.

Question 2.
What happens to fats that are eaten in excess?
Answer:
When excess of fats are eaten, they are stored in adipose connective tissue.

Question 3.
Which hormones regulating reproductive functions are produced from fatty acids?
Answer:
Progesterone, estrogen and testosterone are the reproductive hormones produced from fatty acids.

Question 4.
How is plasma membrane of the cells formed?
Answer:
The digested fats are absorbed in the form of fatty acids. These are converted back to phospholipids from which plasma membrane of cells is formed.

Question 5.
What happens to lipids when their digestion is completed? How much energy do they provide?
Answer:
After complete digestion of lipids they are converted to fatty acids and glycerol. 1 gm of lipid provides 9 kcal of energy.

Diagram based questions:

Question 1.
Draw a neat diagram of the structure of chromosome and label the parts:
(a) Centromere (b) p-arm (March 2019)
Answer:

Question 2.
Sketch and label the diagram to show ATP – the energy currency of the cell.
Answer:

Question 3.
Mitochondria and Krebs cycle:
Answer:

(a) Which co-enzymes are shown in the diagram?
Answer:
The co-enzymes NADH₂ and FADH₂ are shown in the above diagram.

(b) Which chemical reaction takes place in the mitochondria? Which molecules are produced in this reaction?
Answer:
The chemical reaction that takes place in the mitochondria is called Electronic Transport Chain reaction. The molecules of H₂O, carbon dioxide and energy in the form of ATP are produced in this reaction.

Question 4.
Observe the diagrams 2.8 and 2.9 given on the Textbook page no. 19 and answer the following questions.


(a) Which peculiarity do you observe in the figure of Metaphase-I of meiosis ?
Answer:
The chromosomes are seen lying on the equatorial plane in the metaphase-I of meiosis.

(b) What is the important difference between Telophase-I and Telophase-II of meiosis?
Answer:
In figure of Telophase-I the diploid chromosomes are seen in two daughter cells. In Telophase-II four daughter cells are seen with haploid chromosomes in them.

(c) Which figure shows phenomena of crossing over?
Answer:
The third figure of Prophase-I shows phenomena of crossing over.

Question 5.
Label the diagram below? Which phase of cell division is seen in the above diagram?
Answer:
The above figure shows Telophase-II of Meiosis-II.

Question 6.
Observe and label the diagram: (Text Book Page No. 13)
Answer:

Activity based questions:

Question 1.
Complete the following chart and state which process of energy production it represents: (March 2019)

Answer:
The chart shows process of energy production through aerobic respiration of carbohydrates, proteins and fats.
(Answers to the blanks in chart are given in bold.)

Project:

Project 1.
Use of ICT: (Text Book Page No. 20)
Collect videos and photographs of different life processes in living organisms. Prepare a presentation and present it on the occasion of science exhibition.

Project 2.
Books are my friend: (Text Book Page No. 20)
Read different Encyclopaedias of technical terms in biology and anatomy and other reference books.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 1 Heredity and Evolution Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 1 Heredity and Evolution

Question 1.
Complete the following diagram.

Answer:

Question 2.
Read the following statements and justify same in your own words with the help of suituble examples.
a. Human evolution began approximately 7 crore years ago.
Answer:

• Approximately around 7 crore years back the ice age began on the earth. In such conditions, dinosaurs became extinct. The evolution and diversity of mammals started during this time. Due to change in climate the forest cover also declined rapidly.
• Ancestors of monkey-like animals were Lemur like animals which evolved during this time period.
• The tails of these monkey-like creatures started vanishing very gradually around 4 crore years ago.
• The body and brain both increased in volume forming first ape like animals. The monkey like ancestors gave rise to two evolutionary links to apes and human like animals.
• Later, the human evolution took place by changes in the brain volume, the ability to walk upright, excessive use of hand for manipulations.
• This journey of human evolution began 7 crore years ago. But the true wise and intelligent man arose around 50,000 years ago.

b. Geographical and reproductive isolation of organisms gradually leads to speciation.
Answer:

• Every species survives in specific geographical conditions. The requirements of food and habitat, is specific for each species. Their reproductive ability and period is also different.
• Therefore, the individuals from one species cannot reproduce with individuals from other species.
• When they are separated by a distance or geographical barriers they are said to be isolated geographically.
• When they cannot reproduce with each other, they are said to be isolated reproductively.
• The ancestor species of both these subspecies may be the same but due to isolation over a very long-time duration, there is genetic variation between the two. Therefore, the isolation leads to speciation.

c. Study of fossils is an important aspect of study of evolution.
Answer:
Answer:

• Fossils offer palaeontological evidence for the evolutionary process.
• Due to some natural calamities the organisms get buried during ancient times.
• The impressions and remnants of such organisms remain preserved underground. The hot lava also traps some organisms or their impressions. All such formations form fossils.
• Study of fossils help the researcher to understand the characteristics of the organisms that existed in the past.
• Carbon dating method also helps in finding out exact age of the fossil. According to the structure of earth’s crust the fossils are obtained at specific depths.
• The oldest ones are obtained at the depth while the relatively recent ones occupy the upper surface. Thus fossils of invertebrates were seen in very old Palaeozoic era. Later were seen fossils of Pisces, Amphibia and Reptilia. The Mesozoic era was dominated by reptiles while Coenozoic era showed presence of mammals.
• In this way, study of fossils unfold the evolutionary secrets.

d. There is evidences of fatal Science among chordates.
[Please read the above question as: Among different chordates there are embryological evidences.]
Answer:

• Very young embryos of fish, amphibians, reptiles, birds and mammals show quite similar structure in the early stages.
• As the further growth takes place, they acquire different patterns.
• The initial similarity between the vertebrate embryos is an evidence that during evolution, there was a common ancestor for all the vertebrate classes.
• This is called embryological evidence for vertebrate evolution.

Question 3.
complete the statements by choosing correct options from bracket.
(Genes, Mutation, Translocation, Transcription, Gradual development, Appendix)
a. The causality behind the sudden changes was understood due to ………… principle of Hugo de Vries.
Answer:
Mutation

b. The proof for the fact that protein synthesis occurs through ……….. was given by George Beadle and Edward Tatum.
Answer:
Genes

c. Transfer of information from molecule of DNA to mRNA is called as …………… process.
Answer:
Transcription

d. Evolution means ………….
Answer:
Gradual development

e. Vestigial organ ……….. present in human body is proof of evolution.
Answer:
Appendix

Question 4.
Write short notes based upon the information known to you.
a. Lamarckism.
Answer:
(1) Lamarckism consists of two theories which were proposed by Jean Baptiste Lamarck. These are as follows: (a) Use and disuse of the organs (b) Inheritance of acquired characters.
(2) In theory of use and disuse of organs, Lamarck says : The characters of organs develop because specific activities that the organisms perform. If such organ is not used it gets degenerated. Thus the morphological changes take place due to activities or inactivity of a particular organism.
(3) To emphasise this theory, he quoted following examples. Due to constant extension of neck to eat foliage from the top of the trees, giraffe’s neck became long. Similarly blacksmith has strong arms due to constant work. Flightless ostrich and emu did not fly and hence their wings became useless. Aquatic birds like swan and duck made their feet suitable for swimming by living in water. Snake lost limbs as it tried burrowing mode.
(4) Such acquired characters are passed from one parental generation to the offspring. This is called inheritance of acquired characters.
(5) The theory of inheritance of acquired characters is not accepted as such transmission of acquired character does not take place. Only genetic characters are transmitted.

b. Darwin’s theory of natural selection.
Answer:

• Charles Darwin proposed the theory of natural selection after making many observations on different specimens. He published a concept ‘Survival of the fittest’.
• Darwin explains this concept as follows: All the organisms reproduce prolifically. Therefore, there is always a competition for food, mate, etc. Only adaptations for sustaining this struggle.
• Natural selection plays important role by selecting only those organisms which are fit to live. Those that do not have better adaptations, perish. Selected sustaining organisms then perform reproduction and form new species in a very long period of time.
• Darwin published his views in the book titled ‘Origin of Species’.

c. Embryology.
Answer:

• Embryology is the study of developing embryos.
• These embryos in their initial stages are very similar to each other.
• These similarities decrease later in the development.
• This similarity in initial stages indicate that these vertebrates have originated from a common ancestor.
• In evolutionary science, comparative study of embryos of various vertebrates provide evidence for evolution.

d. Evolution.
Answer:

• The sequential changes in the groups of living organisms that take place very gradually is called evolution.
• Evolution is also described as the formation of new species due to natural selection.
• The process of evolution takes millions of years for development and speciation of different organisms.
• Changes in stars and planets in space and the changes in biosphere occurring on the Earth are all included under study of evolution.
• Due to evolution organisms become fit, biodiversity is increased, and new species are created.
• Different scientists have put forth theories to explain the process of evolution. Among these Charles Darwin’s theory of natural selection and speciation is accepted worldwide.

e. Connecting link.
Answer:
Some living organisms possess some characters in them which are the distinctive features of different groups or phyla. Such individuals connect these two groups by sharing the characters of both and hence they are known as connective links.

Examples: (1) Peripatus: Peripatus is the connecting link between Annelida and Arthropoda. It shows characters of both animal phyla. Like annelid worm, it shows segmented body, thin cuticle and parapodia. Like an arthropod, it shows open circulatory system and tracheal system for respiration.
(2) Duck Billed platypus: This is a connecting link between reptiles and mammals. Like reptiles it lays eggs but like mammals it has mammary glands and hairy skin.
(3) Lung fish: Lung fish is a connecting link between fishes and amphibians. Though a fish, it shows lungs for respiration as in amphibian animals.
(4) Connecting links indicate the direction and hierarchy of evolution.

Question 5.
Define heredity. Explain the mechanism of hereditary changes.
Answer:
(1) Heredity: Heredity is the process by which the biological characters from parental generation are transmitted to the next generation through genes.

(2) The mechanism of hereditary changes:

• Mutation: Sudden change in the parental DNA can cause mutations. This results into changes in the hereditary characters.
• At the time of meiosis, the crossing over takes place. This creates new recombination of the genetic information. Therefore, the haploid gametes produced carry changed hereditary characters.

Question 6.
Define vestigial organs. Write names of some vestigial organs in human body and write the names of those animals in whom same organs are functional.
Answer:

• Vestigial organs are degenerated or underdeveloped organs of organisms which do not perform any function.
• According to the principle of natural selection, such organs are on the verge of disappearance. But it takes many millions of years for its complete vanishing.
• The vestigial organs in one animal may be of use but to other kind of the animal as they still perform regular functions.
• Appendix is vestigial for humans, it does not perform any function but in ruminant animals it is concerned with digestion.
• Ear muscles are vestigial for us but in monkeys and cattle they are functional.
• Names of vestigial organs in human body-Appendix, tail-bone or coccyx, wisdom teeth and body hair.

Question 7.
Answer the following questions.
a. How are the hereditary changes responsible for evolution?
Answer:
Hereditary characters are transmitted from parental generation to the offspring. These characters are maintained through inheritance. But the genes which are beneficial for the organisms in helping them to adapt to the environment are transmitted to the next generations in a greater proportion. This happens due to natural selection.

The process of evolution happens at a very slow pace. The favourable genes are preserved in the species as they bring about better survival of the individuals. Such individual reproduces more efficiently and evolve. The individuals with unfavourable genes are not selected by nature and are thus removed from the population through natural death. The fuel for evolution is thus truly supplied by the hereditary changes.

b. Explain the process of formation of complex proteins.
Answer:
The proteins are synthesised in following steps, viz. transcription, translation and translocation. Protein synthesis takes place according to the sequence of nucleotides present on the DNA molecule with the help of RNA molecules. This is known as central dogma of protein synthesis.

1. Transcription: In the process of transcription, mRNA is produced as per the nucleotide sequence on the DNA. For this the two strands DNA are separated. Only one strand participates in the formation of mRNA. The sequence of nucleotides which is complementary to that of present on DNA is copied on mRNA. Instead of thymine present in DNA, uracil is added on the mRNA. Transcription takes place in nucleus but the mRNA leaves nucleus, carries the genetic code and enters the cytoplasm. This genetic code is always in triplet form arid hence is known as triplet codon. The code for each amino acid always consists of three nucleotides.

2. Translation: Each mRNA may carry thousands of codons. But each codon is specific for only one amino acid. The tRNA molecule brings the required amino acid as per the code present on mRNA. There is anticodon on each tRNA which is complementary to the codon on mRNA. This process is known as translation.

3. Translocation: In translocation, the ribosome keeps on moving from one end of mRNA molecule to other end by distance of one triplet codon. While this process is taking place, rRNA, helps in joining the amino acids together by peptide bonds. The peptide chains later come together to form complex protein molecules.

c. Explain the theory of evolution and mention the proof supporting it.
Answer:
1. Theory of evolution:

• According to the theory of evolution, first living material was in the form of protoplasm which was formed in ocean.
• Gradually, it gave rise to unicellular organisms. Changes took place in these unicellular organisms which made them evolve into larger and more complex organisms.
• All evolutionary changes were very slow and gradual taking about 300 crore years to happen.
• Different types of organisms were developed as the changes and development that occurred in living organisms wefts all round and multi-dimensional.
• Hence, this overall process of evolution is called organizational and progressive.
• Variety of plants and animals developed from the ancestors having different structural and functional organization during the process of evolution.

2. Proof here means evidences of evolution.
These evidences are as follows:

• Morphological evidences
• Anatomical evidences
• Vestigial organs
• Palaentological evidences
• Connecting links
• Embryological evidences.

d. Explain with suitable examples importance of anatomical evidences in evolution. (July 2019)
Answer:

• There are similarities in the structure and anatomy of different animal groups. E.g. human hand, forelimb of bull, patagium of bat and flipper of whale are all similar in their internal anatomy. There is similarity in the bones and joints of all these specimens.
• External morphology does not show any similarity. Use of each of the organ is also different in different animals. Structurally, they may not be related.
• However, the similarities in the anatomy is an evidence that they may have a common ancestor.
• In this way, the anatomical evidence throws light on the process of evolution.

e. Define fossil. Explain importance of fossils as proof of evolution.
Answer:

• Fossils offer palaeontological evidence for the evolutionary process.
• Due to some natural calamities the organisms get buried during ancient times.
• The impressions and remnants of such organisms remain preserved underground. The hot lava also traps some organisms or their impressions. All such formations form fossils.
• Study of fossils help the researcher to understand the characteristics of the organisms that existed in the.past.
• Carbon dating method also helps in finding out exact age of the fossil. According to the structure of earth’s crust the fossils are obtained at specific depths.
• The oldest ones are obtained at the depth while the relatively recent ones occupy the upper surface. Thus fossils of invertebrates were seen in very old Palaeozoic era. Later were seen fossils of Pisces, Amphibia and Reptilia. The Mesozoic era was dominated by reptiles while Coenozoic era showed presence of mammals.
• In this way, study of fossils unfold the evolutionary secrets.

f. Write evolutionary history of modern man.
Answer:
(1) Ancestors of humans developed from animals which resembled lemur like animals.
(2) Around seven crore years ago, monkey-like animals evolved from some of these lemur like animals.
(3) Then after about 4 crore years ago, in Africa the tails of these monkey like creatures very gradually disappeared.
(4) Simultaneously, there was enlargement in their body and brain volume too. The hands also improved and were provided with opposable thumb. In this way, ape-like animals were evolved.
(5) These ape-like animals independently gave rise to two lines of evolution, one giving rise to apes like gibbon and orangutan in the South and North-East Asia and gorilla and chimpanzee which stayed in Africa around 2.5 crores of years ago.
(6) The other line of evolution gave rise to human like animals around 2 crore years ago.
(7) The climate became dry and this resulted into reduction of forest cover. This made arboreal apes to descend on the land and start terrestrial mode.
(8) Due to this, there were changes in the pefvic
girdle and vertebral column. The hands were also freed from locomotion and thus they became more manipulative.
(9) Later, journey of hominoid species started from around 2 crores years ago. The first record of human like animal is ‘Ramapithecus’ ape from East Africa.
(10) Ramapithecus → Australopithecus → Neanderthal man → Cro-Magnon are the important steps in human evolution.
(11) Neanderthal man was said to be the first wise man. The increasing growth of brain made man more and more intelligent and thinking animal.
(12) Later, more than biological evolution, it was cultural evolution, when man started agriculture, animal , rearing. There was development of civilizations, arts and science etc. About 200 years ago there were industrial inventions and thus man now rules the earth.

Project:

Project 1.
Make a presentation on human evolution using various computer softwares and arrange a group disscussion over it in the class room.

Project 2.
Read the book – ‘Pruthvivur Manus Uparcich’ written by Late Dr. Sureshchandra Nadkarni and note your opinion on evolution.

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 1)

Question 1.
Which component of the cellular nucleus of living organisms carries hereditary characters?
Answer:
The chromosomes made up of nucleic acids and proteins, present in the nucleus of the cell are the components that carry hereditary characters in living organisms.

Question 2.
What do we call the process of transfer of physical and mental characters from parents to the progeny?
Answer:
The process of transfer of physical and mental characters from parents to the progeny is called inheritance or heredity.

Question 3.
Which are the components of the DNA molecule?
Answer:
DNA molecule is made up of two helical strands consisting of deoxyribose sugar, phosphoric acid and pairs of nitrogenous bases. These three together is called a nucleotide.

Choose the correct alternative and write its alphabet against the sub-question number:

Question 1.
Darwin has published a book titled …………..
(a) Natural selection
(b) Mutation
(c) Fall of a sparrow
(d) Origin of species
Answer:
(d) Origin of species

Question 2.
The …………. man evolved about 50 thousand years ago.
(a) Cro Magnon
(b) Neanderthal
(c) Java man
(d) Ramapithecus
Answer:
(a) Cro Magnon

Question 3.
About 10 thousand years ago, ………….. started to practise agriculture.
(a) Gorilla
(b) wise man
(c) Ramapithecus
(d) Australopithecus
Answer:
(b) wise man

Question 4.
………………. can be considered as the first example of wise-man.
(a) Australopithecus
(b) Ramapithecus
(c) Cro Magnon
(d) Neanderthal man
Answer:
(d) Neanderthal man

Question 5.
………. is a connecting link between Annelida and Arthropoda. (March 2019)
(a) Duck-billed platypus
(b) Peripatus
(c) Lung fish
(d) Whale
Answer:
(b) Peripatus

Question 6.
………… years ago human brain was sufficiently evolved to call him wise man.
(a) 50,000
(b) 30,000
(c) 20,000
(d) 10,000
Answer:
(a) 50,000

Question 7.
The process by which the gene in the nucleotide suddenly changes its position is called ………. (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
(a) translation
(b) translocation
(c) mutation
(d) transcription
Answer:
(c) mutation

Question 8.
…………. is not the vestigial organ in the human body. (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
(a) appendix
(b) Coccyx
(c) Canine
(d) Wisdom teeth
Answer:
(c) Canine

Write whether the following statements are true or false with proper justification for your answer:

Question 1.
It takes thousands of years for a useful structure to disappear.
Answer:
False. (The useful structures of the body do not disappear. The functioning of the body is easier due to such organs. It takes thousands of years for a functionless organ to disappear.)

Question 2.
Dr. Har Govind Khorana was awarded Nobel prize for his invention and publication in the journal Radio carbon.
Answer:
False. (Willard Libby was awarded Nobel prize for his invention and publication in the journal Radio carbon.)

Question 3.
Mesozoic era was dominated by variety of mammals.
Answer:
False. (Mesozoic era dominated by variety of reptiles.)

Question 4.
It seems that invertebrates have been slowly originated from vertebrates.
Answer:
False. (Vertebrates have been slowly originated from invertebrates in course of evolution. The primitive type of organisms always give rise to complex life forms. The invertebrates from Palaeozoic era gradually gave rise to vertebrates.)

Question 5.
The decaying process of C-12 occurs continuously from the dead remains of living organisms.
Answer:
False. (The decaying process of C-14 occurs continuously from the dead remains of living organisms. C-12 is not radioactive and hence it does not show decaying process.)

Question 6.
The theory of natural selection which mentions ‘Survival of fittest’ is given by Lamarck.
Answer:
False. (The theory of natural selection which mentions ‘Survival of fittest’ is given by Darwin.)

Question 7.
Changes acquired during life time are transferred to next generation.
Answer:
False. (Changes acquired during life time are not heritable. They are not transferred to next generation. Only the genes are transferred to the next generation.)

Question 8.
Each species grows in specific geographical conditions and has specific food, habitat, reproductive ability and period.
Answer:
True. (Each species has specifically evolved characters due to evolution and speciation.)

Question 9.
Humans walking with upright posture were confined to Africa only during prehistoric period.
Answer:
False. (Humans walking upright existed in Africa and China, Indonesia of Asian continent too.)

Question 10.
Industrial society was established about 200 years ago.
Answer:
True. (After the development and specialization of human brain, he started indulging in science and technology. Before; this period the idea of industrialization was not existing.)

Match the columns:

Question 1.

Scientist	Discovery
(1) Johann Gregor Mendel	(a) Chromosomes of grasshopper
(2) Hugo de Vries	(b) DNA is genetic material
	(c) Pioneer of the modern genetics
	(d) Mutational theory

Answer:
(1) Johann Gregor Mendel – Pioneer of the modern genetics.
(2) Hugo de Vries – Mutational theory.

Question 2.

Scientist	Discovery
(1) Walter, Sutton	(a) Chromosomes of grasshopper
(2) Mclyn McCarthy	(b) DNA is genetic material
	(c) Pioneer of the modern genetics
	(d) Mutational theory

Answer:
(1) Walter, Sutton – Chromosomes of grasshopper.
(2) Mclyn McCarthy – DNA is genetic material.

Question 3.

Evidences of evolution	Examples
(1) Morphological evidences	(a) Duck billed Platypus and Peripatus
(2) Anatomical evidences	(b) Remnants and impressions
	(c) Human hand and fore limb of bull
	(d) Shape and venation of leaf

Answer:
(1) Morphological evidences – Shape and venation of leaf.
(2) Anatomical evidences – Human hand and fore limb of bull.

Question 4.

Evidences of evolution	Examples
(1) Palaeontological evidences	(a) Duck billed Platypus and Peripatus
(2) Connecting links	(b) Remnants and impressions
	(c) Coccyx and wisdom tooth
	(d) Human hand and fore limb of cat

Answer:
(1) Palaeontological evidences – Remnants and impressions.
(2) Connecting links – Duck billed Platypus and Peripatus.

Find the odd one out:

Question 1.
Transcription, Translation, Translocation, Mutation
Answer:
Mutation. (All others are stages of protein synthesis.)

Question 2.
Bones of the hands, structure of nostrils, position of eyes, structure of ear pinnae
Answer:
Bones of the hands. (All the others are morphological evidences.)

Question 3.
Venation, Shape of seeds, Leaf petiole, Leaf shape
Answer:
Shape of seeds. (All the others are morphological evidences in plants.)

Question 4.
Human hand, wing of cockroach, forelimb of bull, flipper of whale
Answer:
Wing of cockroach. (All others are anatomical evidences, they are homologous organs.)

Identify the correlation between the first two words and suggest the suitable words in the fourth place:

Question 1.
mRNA : Transcription :: tRNA :…………
Answer:
Translation

Question 2.
Peripatus : Connecting link :: Appendix :……….
Answer:
Vestigial organs

Question 3.
Open circulatory system : Arthropods :: Thin cuticle and parapodia :………..
Answer:
Annelida

Question 4.
Between Annelida and Arthropoda : Peripatus ::……….: Lungfish
Answer:
Pisces/Fish and Amphibia

Question 5.
Theory of natural selection : Charles Robert Darwin :: Theory of inheritance of acquired characters :…………
Answer:
Jean Baptiste Lamarck

Question 6.
Survival of fittest : Darwin :: Acquired characters :……….
Answer:
Lamark

Question 7.
Wisdom teeth : Vestigial organs :: Lungfish :………..
Answer:
Connecting link.

Define the following:

Question 1.
Heredity.
Answer:
The transfer of biological characters from one generation to another through genes is called heredity.

Question 2.
Transcription.
Answer:

Question 3.
Translation.
Answer:
The process of bringing tRNA possessing anticodon that is complementary to the codon on mRNA for protein synthesis is called translation.

Question 4.
Translocation.
Answer:
The process of movement of the ribosome from one end of mRNA to other end by the distance of one triplet codon is called translocation.

Question 5.
Mutation.
Answer:
Sudden and drastic change that occurs in the genetic material is called mutation.

Question 6.
Species.
Answer:
The group of organisms that cap produce fertile individuals through natural reproduction is called a species.

Name the following:

Question 1.
Three Scientists who proved that except viruses, all living organisms have DNA as genetic material.
Answer:
Oswald Avery, Mclyn McCarthy and Colin MacLeod.

Question 2.
Genetic disorder caused due to mutation:
Answer:
Sickle cell anaemia.

Question 3.
Fish that can breathe with help of lungs:
Answer:
Lung fish.

Question 4.
Vestigial organs in human beings:
Answer:
Appendix, tail-bone or coccyx, wisdom teeth and body hair.

Question 5.
Important stages in the journey of human evolution:
Answer:

• Animals like Lemur
• Egyptopithecus
• Dryopithecus
• Ramapithecus
• Australopithecus
• Skilled Human
• Homo erectus i.e. Man with erect posture
• Neanderthal man
• Cro-Magnon man.

Distinguish between the following:

Question 1.
Transcription and Translation.
Answer:
Transcription:

1. In the process of transcription, the sequence of nucleotides present on the DNA molecule is copied
   and carried to the cytoplasm by mRNA.
2. The process of transcription takes place in nucleus.
3. During transcription, RNA is produced from DNA.
4. Only mRNA takes part in transcription.

Translation:

1. In the process of translation, the specific amino acids are picked up according to the codons brought by mRNA.
2. The process of translation takes place in ribosomes located in cytoplasm.
3. During translation, proteins are produced with the help of RNA.
4. mRNA, tRNA and rRNA take part in translation.

Question 2.
Ape and Human.
Answer:
Ape:

1. Brain of the apes is smaller in size.
2. Ape cannot walk upright.
3. Ape is less intelligent as compared to human.
4. Apes are arboreal in their habitat and they spend more time on the trees.
5. The forelimbs of ape are longer than the hind limbs.

Human:

1. Brain of humans is larger in size.
2. Humans can walk upright.
3. Human is considered to be the most intelligent animal.
4. Humans are terrestrial in their habitat. They cannot stay on the trees.
5. The forelimbs of humans are shorter than the hind limbs.

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
Some of the characters of parents are seen in their offspring.
Answer:

• The parental genes are transferred to their progeny through male and female gametes.
• These genes carry hereditary characters.
• Since they are transmitted from the parents to their offspring, one can see the parental characters in their offspring.

Question 2.
Darwin’s work on evolution has been a milestone.
Answer:
(1) Darwin has proposed two very important theories of evolution, viz. Theory of natural selection and Theory of origin of species.
(2) The evolution has taken place on the earth for last many crores of years.
(3) The exact nature and process of these evolutionary changes become clear after studying Darwinism. (4) The observations made by Darwin at that time are now tested according to the modern development in science and are found to be correct. Thus, his work is said to be a milestone.

Question 3.
Peripatus is said to be a connecting link between Annelida and Arthropoda.
Answer:

• Peripatus shows segmented body, thin cuticle, and parapodia-like organs.
• These characters are typical of Annelids.
• Similarly, it also shows tracheal respiration and open circulatory system which is a characteristic feature of Arthropods.
• Since Peripatus shares both these characters, it is said to be a connecting link between j Annelida and Arthropoda.

Question 4.
Vertebrates have been slowly originated from invertebrates.
Answer:

• When the carbon dating method was used to assess the age of fossils, it was understood that invertebrates were present on the earth much before the vertebrates.
• The fossils of invertebrates are present in lower layers of earth’s strata.
• They were seen in Palaeozoic era of geological time period. Vertebrates dominated during Coenozoic era.
• Their fossils are seen in the upper strata of the earth’s crust.
• The structural complexity also increased in vertebrates. All these facts indicate that Vertebrates have slowly originated from invertebrates.

Question 5.
During human evolution the hands became available for use.
Answer:

• During human evolution, the climate of earth started becoming dry.
• This resulted in loss of forest cover.
• The apes which were arboreal on the trees thus descended and started walking on land.
• The lumbar bones underwent change and the apes started walking upright on the grasslands.
• The vertebral column also underwent change. Due to upright posture the forelimbs were freed from locomotion.
• The legs started bearing the weight of the body and the hands became available for use.

Read the following statements and justify the same in your own words with the help of suitable examples:

Question 1.
Geographical and reproductive isolation of organisms gradually leads to speciation.
Answer:

• Every species survives in specific geographical conditions. The requirements of food and habitat, is specific for each species. Their reproductive ability and period is also different.
• Therefore, the individuals from one species cannot reproduce with individuals from other species.
• When they are separated by a distance or geographical barriers they are said to be isolated geographically.
• When they cannot reproduce with each other, they are said to be isolated reproductively.
• The ancestor species of both these subspecies may be the same but due to isolation over a very long-time duration, there is genetic variation between the two. Therefore, the isolation leads to speciation.

Question 2.
Study of fossils is an important aspect of study of evolution.
Answer:
(1) Fossils offer palaeontological evidence for the evolutionary process.
(2) Due to some natural calamities the organisms get buried during ancient times.
(3) The impressions and remnants of such organisms remain preserved underground. The hot lava also traps some organisms or their impressions. All such formations form fossils.
(4) Study of fossils help the researcher to understand the characteristics of the organisms that existed in the.past.
(5) Carbon dating method also helps in finding out exact age of the fossil. According to the structure of earth’s crust the fossils are obtained at specific depths.
(6) The oldest ones are obtained at the depth while the relatively recent ones occupy the upper surface. Thus fossils of invertebrates were seen in very old Palaeozoic era. Later were seen fossils of Pisces, Amphibia and Reptilia. The Mesozoic era was dominated by reptiles while Coenozoic era showed presence of mammals.
(7) In this way, study of fossils unfold the evolutionary secrets.

Question 3.
There is evidences of fatal Science among chordates.
[Please read the above question as: Among different chordates there are embryological evidences.]
Answer:

• Very young embryos of fish, amphibians, reptiles, birds and mammals show quite similar structure in the early stages.
• As the further growth takes place, they acquire different patterns.
• The initial similarity between the vertebrate embryos is an evidence that during evolution, there was a common ancestor for all the vertebrate classes.
• This is called embryological evidence for vertebrate evolution.

Question 4.
Human evolution began approximately 7 crore years ago.
Answer:

• Approximately around 7 crore years back the ice age began on the earth. In such conditions, dinosaurs became extinct. The evolution and diversity of mammals started during this time. Due to change in climate the forest cover also declined rapidly.
• Ancestors of monkey-like animals were Lemur like animals which evolved during this time period.
• The tails of these monkey-like creatures started vanishing very gradually around 4 crore years ago.
• The body and brain both increased in volume forming first ape like animals. The monkey like ancestors gave rise to two evolutionary links to apes and human like animals.
• Later, the human evolution took place by changes in the brain volume, the ability to walk upright, excessive use of hand for manipulations.
• This journey of human evolution began 7 crore years ago. But the true wise and intelligent man arose around 50,000 years ago.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Answer the following questions: (March 2019)
(a) What do you mean by central dogma?
Answer:
Information about protein synthesis is present in DNA. As per this information, proteins are produced by DNA through RNA molecules. This is called central dogma.

(b) What is transcription?
Answer:
The process of synthesis of mRNA as per the nucleotide sequence present in DNA is called transcription. The nucleotide sequence on mRNA is complimentary to that of the single DNA strand used in synthesis. Instead of thymine, mRNA possesses uracil.

(c) What is meant by triplet codon?
Answer:
The code for each amino acids always consists of three nucleotides which is known as triplet codon.

Question 2.
Which animal is called a connecting link between Reptiles and Mammals? (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Answer:
Duck billed platypus is called a connecting link between Reptiles and Mammals.

Question 3.
In which way is science of heredity useful these days?
Answer:
The science of heredity is useful in the following ways:

• For diagnosis of hereditary disorders.
• For treatment of hereditary disorders
• For prevention of hereditary disorders
• For production of hybrid varieties of animals and plants
• For using microbes in the industrial processes.

Question 4.
What is meant by carbon dating method?
Answer:
(1) Carbon dating method is technique used for determining the age of fossils.
(2) After the death of the organisms, their consumption of carbon stops. But right from that moment the decaying process of C-14 occurs continuously.
(3) This results in change in the ratio between C-14 and C-12. C-12 is not radioactive as C-14.
(4) Thus the time passed since the death of a plant or animal is calculated by measuring the radioactivity of C-14 and ratio of C-14 to C-12 present in their body.
(5) The points noted during carbon dating are:

• The period after the organism has been dead.
• The activity of C-14 in the dead organism.
• Ratio between C-14 and C-12.

Question 5.
Answer the following questions:
(a) Describe briefly the Darwin’s theory of natural selection.
Answer:
Charles Darwin (1809-1882) proposed the theory of natural selection.
Theory of natural selection: ‘The survival of fittest’, i.e., organisms which are fit for survival, evolve while those that are not, perish. The natural selection thus acts to produce new species.

(b) What were the objections raised against Darwinism?
Answer:
Objections raised against Darwinism:

1. There are other factors too for evolution and just not the Natural Selection.
2. Arrival of useful and useless modifications were not explained by Darwin, though he said about the survival of the fittest.
3. He has not given any explanation about slow changes and abrupt changes occurring during evolution.

(c) Which book was published by Darwin to explain this theory? (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Answer:
Charles Darwin wrote the book ‘Origin of Species’.

Question 6.
What were the objections raised against Darwinism?
Answer:
Some of the main objections raised against Darwinism are as follows:

• There are other factors too for evolution and just not the Natural Selection.
• Arrival of useful and useless modifications were not explained by Darwin, though he said about the survival of the fittest.
• He has not given any explanation about slow changes and abrupt changes occurring during evolution.

Question 7.
Answer the following questions:
(a) Explain in brief-Lamarck’s principle of ‘use or disuse of organs’.
Answer:
The theory of use and disuse of organs says that the morphological characters of organism develop because of specific activities that the organisms perform. If some organ is not used it gets degenerated. If excessively, used, it develops. Thus, the morphological changes take place due to activities or non-working of a particular body parts in an organism.

(b) Give two examples.
Answer:
Due to constant extension of neck to eat foliage from the top of the trees, giraffe’s neck became long. Similarly, blacksmith has strong arms due to constant work. The flightless ostrich and emu did not fly and hence their wings became useless. Aquatic birds like swan and duck made their feet suitable for swimming by living in water. Snake lost limbs as it tried burrowing mode.

(c) What are acquired characters?
Answer:
Acquired characters are those characters which are obtained during the life time by any organism and passed on to next generations.

Write short notes:
(OR)
Write short notes based upon the information known to you:

Question 1.
Theory of evolution.
Answer:

• According to the theory of evolution, first living material was in the form of protoplasm which was formed in ocean.
• Gradually, it gave rise to unicellular organisms. Changes took place in these unicellular organisms which made them evolve into larger and more complex organisms.
• All evolutionary changes were very slow and gradual taking about 300 crore years to happen.
• Different types of organisms were developed as the changes and development that occurred in living organisms was all round and multi-dimensional.
• Hence, this overall process of evolution is called organizational and progressive.
• Variety of plants and animals developed from the ancestors having different structural and functional organization during the process of evolution.

By choosing appropriate words given in the bracket, complete the paragraph:

Question 1.
(translation, anticodon, tRNA, mRNA, amino acids, triplet codon, transcription, DNA)
The …….. formed in nucleus comes in cytoplasm. It brings in the coded message from DNA. The message contains the codes for amino acids. The code for each amino acid consists of three nucleotides. It is called as ‘………..’. Each mRNA is made up of thousands of triplet codons. As per the message on mRNA, ……… are supplied by the ………. For this purpose, tRNA has ‘…………’ having complementary sequence to the codon on mRNA. This is called ‘………..’.
Answer:
The mRNA formed in nucleus comes in cytoplasm. It brings in the coded message from DNA. The message contains the codes for amino acids. The code for each amino acid consists of three nucleotides. It is called as ‘triplet codon’. Each mRNA is made up of thousands of triplet codons. As per the message on mRNA, amino acids are supplied by the tRNA. For this purpose, tRNA has ‘anticodon’ having complementary sequence to the codon on mRNA. This is called ‘translation’.

Question 2.
(Cultural, agriculture, fire, brain, Cro-Magnon, Homo sapiens, Neanderthal)
Evolution of upright man continued in the direction of developing its ………. for the period of about 1 lakh years and meanwhile he discovered the ………. Brain of man, 50 thousand years ago had been sufficiently evolved to the extent that it could be considered as member of the species ………… Neanderthal man can be considered as the first example of wise-man. The ……….. man evolved about 50 thousand years ago and afterwards, this evolution had been faster than the earlier. About 10 thousand years ago, wise-man started to practise the ………. It started to rear the cattle-herds and established the cities. ………..development took place later.
Answer:
Evolution of upright man continued in the direction of developing its brain for the period of about 1 lakh years and meanwhile he discovered the fire. Brain of man 50 thousand years ago had been sufficiently evolved to the extent that it could be considered as member of the species Homo sapiens. Neanderthal man can be considered as the first example of wise-man. The Cro-Magnon man eyolved about 50 thousand years ago and afterwards, this evolution had been faster than the earlier. About 10 thousand years ago, wise-man started-to practise the agriculture. It started to rear the cattle-herds and established the cities. Cultural development took place later.

Read the paragraph and answer the questions given below:

With the help of RNA, the genes present in the form of DNA participate in the functioning of cell and thereby control the structure and functioning of the body. Information about protein synthesis is stored in the DNA and synthesis of appropriate proteins as per requirement is necessary for body. These proteins are synthesized by DNA through the RNA. This is called ‘Central Dogma’. mRNA is produced as per the sequence of nucleotides on DNA. Only one of the two strands of DNA is used in this process. The sequence of nucleotides in mRNA being produced is always complementary to the DNA strand used for synthesis. Besides, there is uracil in RNA instead of thymine of DNA. This process of RNA synthesis is called ‘transcription’.

Questions and Answers:

Question 1.
Which part of the cell control the structure and functioning of the body?
Answer:
Genes present in the form of DNA along with RNA control the structure and functioning of the body.

Question 2.
How is a specific protein synthesised in the cell?
Answer:
The information of protein synthesis is stored in the DNA which is utilised as per the requirement of the body. Later the proteins are synthesised by DNA through the RNA.

Question3.
What is the similarity between mRNA and DNA?
Answer:
The sequence of nucleotides on DNA is copied on mRNA. The nucleotide sequence on mRNA is thus complementary to DNA.

Question 4.
Give one difference between RNA and DNA.
Answer:
RNA has uracil instead of thymine which is present in DNA.

Question 5.
Define central dogma.
Answer:
Central dogma is the concept that proteins are synthesised by DNA through the RNA.

Diagram-based questions:

Question 1.
Observe the figure 1.3 of transcription given on page 9 in this chapter and answer the following questions:

(1) What is the sequence of nucleotides present on one strand of the DNA?
Answer:
A T G C A A T T

(2) According to the above sequence on DNA, what will be the transcribed sequence on the mRNA molecule?
Answer:
U A C G U U A A

(3) Which enzyme is taking part in the above process of transcription?
Answer:
RNA polymerase takes part in the process of transcription.

Question 2.
Observe the figure 1.5 of translation and translocation, given on page 9 this chapter and answer the following questions:

(1) Which is the initiation codon? Where is it present?
Answer:
AUG is the initiation codon, which is present on the mRNA.

(2) What are the types of RNA present inside the ribosome? Which triplet codon is present on it?
Answer:
There are two molecules of tRNA present inside the ribosome. The triplet codons present on them are UAC and AAG respectively.

(3) Which genetic code is present on mRNA that is leaving the nucleus? What must be the sequence on the DNA to have such code on mRNA?
Answer:
The mRNA that leaves the nucleus has genetic code: A U G U U C A A A
The genetic code on DNA therefore should be as follows: T A C A A G T T T

Question 3.
Observe the figure 1.6 given on page 10 from this chapter. Answer the following question based on your observations:

What is the significance of this figure from the viewpoint of evolution? Explain in brief.
Answer:
In the figure, the process of mutation is shown. The original nucleotide sequence of TGC is replaced by new mutated sequence GAT. The change in the nucleotide sequence will change the DNA.

This will result in the change in genes and then changing the hereditary characters. Due to such change in genes, the evolution proceeds. The mutation so formed can be minor or major. The greater the impact of the change, the evolution takes place rapidly. The mutation thereby produce recombinations leading to diversity.

Question 4.
Observe the picture and answer the following questions:

(1) Which evidence of evolution is shown in the picture?
Answer:
Embryological evidences of evolution are shown in this picture.

(2) What can be proven with this proof?
Answer:
The similarities in the initial embryonic stages of different vertebrates shows that there was a common origin of all of them. Thus embryological evidences prove that there was common vertebrate ancestor.

(3) Give one more example of evidence of evolution.
Answer:
Palaeontological evidences such as vestigial organs and connecting links are another examples of evolutionary evidences.

Question 5.
Which concept/theory do you remember after seeing this picture of Giraffes? Describe it in brief.

Answer:

• The picture is based on the Lamarck’s principle of ‘use and disuse of organs’.
• The morphological characters of organism develop because of specific activities that the organisms perform.
• If some organ is not used it gets degenerated. If excessively used, it develops further.
• Thus, the morphological changes take place due to activities or non-working of a particular body parts in an organism. Due to constant extension of neck to eat foliage from the top of the trees, giraffe’s neck became long.

Activity-based Questions:

Try this: (Text Book Page No. 4)

Observe the above images and note the similarities between given animal images and plant images.
Answer:
The above pictures of the animals show similarities such as structure of mouth, position of eyes, structure of nostrils and ear pinnae and body fur. In pictures of plants there are similarities in characters like leaf shape, leaf venation, leaf petiole, etc.
These above morphological evidences show that there may be a common ancestor for all of the species shown.

Observe and Discuss:

Question 1.
Observe the pictures given below. (Text Book Page No. 5)

Answer:
(1) Fossils offer palaeontological evidence for the evolutionary process.
(2) Due to some natural calamities the organisms get buried during ancient times.
(3) The impressions and remnants of such organisms remain preserved underground. The hot lava also traps some organisms or their impressions. All such formations form fossils.
(4) Study of fossils help the researcher to understand the characteristics of the organisms that existed in the.past.
(5) Carbon dating method also helps in finding out exact age of the fossil. According to the structure of earth’s crust the fossils are obtained at specific depths.
(6) The oldest ones are obtained at the depth while the relatively recent ones occupy the upper surface. Thus fossils of invertebrates were seen in very old Palaeozoic era. Later were seen fossils of Pisces, Amphibia and Reptilia. The Mesozoic era was dominated by reptiles while Coenozoic era showed presence of mammals.
(7) In this way, study of fossils unfold the evolutionary secrets.

Question 2.
Observe the pictures given and discuss the characters observed. (Text Book Page No. 6)

Answer:
Some living organisms possess some characters in them which are the distinctive features of different groups or phyla. Such individuals connect these two groups by sharing the characters of both and hence they are known as connective links.

Examples: (1) Peripatus: Peripatus is the connecting link between Annelida and Arthropoda. It shows characters of both animal phyla. Like annelid worm, it shows segmented body, thin cuticle and parapodia. Like an arthropod, it shows open circulatory system and tracheal system for respiration.
(2) Duck Billed platypus: This is a connecting link between reptiles and mammals. Like reptiles it lays eggs but like mammals it has mammary glands and hairy skin.
(3) Lung fish: Lung fish is a connecting link between fishes and amphibians. Though a fish, it shows lungs for respiration as in amphibian animals.
(4) Connecting links indicate the direction and hierarchy of evolution.

Project: (Do it your self)

Project 1.
Internet is my friend: (Text Book Page No. 3)
Collect the information from the internet about Big-Bang theory related with the formation of stars and planets and present it in your class.

Project 2.
Use of ICT: (Text Book Page No. 4)
Collect the information of geological dating and present it in the classroom.

Project 3.
Use of ICT: (Text Book Page No. 5)
Find how the vestigial organs in certain animals are functional in others. Present the information in your class and send it to others.

Project 4.
Internet is my friend: (Text Book Page No. 8)
Collect the pictures and information of various species of monkeys from internet.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 4 Environmental management Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 4 Environmental management

Question 1.
Reorganize the following food chain. Describe the ecosystem to which it belongs.
Grasshopper – Snake – Paddy field – Eagle – Frog.
Answer:

• Correct food chain: Paddy field → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Eagle.
• Such food chain is seen in the terrestrial ecosystem. There are many biotic factors in the terrestrial ecosystem, such as insects, birds, mammals etc.
• The above example mentions about paddy field, so it must be in vicinity of coastal lands. There is water logging in the paddy fields. Therefore, it offers a habitat to the frogs.
• In the above example, paddy fields are producers in the ecosystem. The primary consumer is grasshopper. Secondary consumer is frog, tertiary consumer is snake and the apex consumer is eagle. On every trophic level the bacteria, fungi and some scavenging worms can act as the decomposers.
• In this ecosystem. the solar energy is transferred from the paddy crops to eagle in a step wise food
  chain.

Question 2.
Explain the statement – ‘We have got this Earth planet on lease from our future generations and not as an ancestral property from our ancestors.’
Answer:

• The earth was inhabited by older generations before us. We have replaced them.
• But during their life time, they have created hazardous impact on the earth. The industrialization, the quest for more and more natural resources, wars fought, the construction activities such as dams, roads and bridges, extensive deforestation, etc. were their thoughtless activities.
• All these activities were for development of mankind. But most of them have destroyed the delicate balance between the producers and different levels of consumers.
• Due to ever increasing population of human beings there is shortage of food, clothing and shelter. To procure these basic needs, we have exploited many natural resources causing destruction of the earth’s natural ecosystem.
• Now it is our turn to protect the earth as on the same planet the next generations have to survive. We have to hand over the ecosystems of the earth which are in perfect balance to the new generations.
• The future generations need a good quality of air, water and land along with all other living organisms.
• Due to problems like climate change, global warming, pollution, droughts, etc. the environment is impacted, thus in order to keep sustainability of earth, we have to remember that the earth has not been obtained only as ancestral property but we have to save it for future generations.

Question 3.
Write short notes.
a. Environmental conservation.
Answer:
Due to natural and man-made causes, there are many environmental problems on the earth. These problems affect the existence of various living organisms. In order to save these organisms and maintain the environmental balance, there is need for environmental conservation. If this is not done then there will not be any quality of life for the resident humans. For environmental conservation, the Government has formulated acts and rules. UN has established UNEP for the conservation programs.

The people’s participation in the conservation movement is essential. From school age, the environmental values are inculcated in the young minds. Conservation of environment is the social responsibility of everyone. Judicial use of natural resources conservation also way of environmental conservation.

b. Chipko Movement of Bishnoi.
Answer:
Chipko Movement of Bishnoi or Bishnoi Andolan:
Khejarli or Khejadli is a village in Rajasthan, where Bishnoi community is located. The name of the town is derived from Khejri trees.

The first event of Chipko Movement took place in Khejadli village in 1730 AD. In this village 363 Bishnois, led by Amrita Devi sacrificed their lives for protecting the trees of Khejri trees, which trees are considered as sacred by Bishnoi.

Amrita Devi said, “if a tree is saved even at the cost of one’s head, it’s worth it”. She was killed with the axes that were brought to chop off the trees. The three young daughters Asu, Ratna and Bhagubai also sacrificed their lives for trees.

83 Bishnoi villages came together and villagers sacrificed their lives after hearing about Amrita Devi’s sacrifice. Three hundred and sixty-three Bishnois were killed as they opposed the king. After realizing the mistake, the king ordered stoppage of the felling of trees. Honouring the courage of the Bishnoi community, the ruler of Jodhpur, Maharaja Abhay Singh, apologized. He issued a royal decree to protect trees and wild life.

Chipko movement of 20th century in Uttar Pradesh also followed the same pattern of embracing the trees and saving them from cutting.

c. Biodiversity.
Answer:
Biodiversity means the diverse life forms that inhabit any area. Biodiversity is seen due to variety of life forms and different ecosystems that lodge these organisms. In nature there is biodiversity on the three different levels, viz. genetic diversity, species diversity and ecosystem diversity. This means that there is diversity in the individuals belonging to the same specips due to genetic reasons, there is diversity among the different species of organisms and there is also a diversity in the ecosystems that are present in any region.

Due to development of mankind, the biodiversity is threatened. There are special efforts taken to restore the lost and threatened biodiversity. Some of these are establishing sanctuaries, National Parks, biodiversity hotspots and reserves etc. Certain endangered species are protected by carrying out conservation projects.

d. Sacred Groves.
Answer:
Sacred grove is the green patch of the forest which is conserved by local people in the name of God. It does not belong to forest department. It is like a sanctuary that is conserved by the common people and tribals in the area. It is rich in the biodiversity.

It is conserved as there is a faith that God or deity reside in the sacred grove. Hence in local language, they are known as Deorai. Due to this reason, people do not fell the trees. Also hunting of any wild life is not done here. More than 13000 sacred groves have been reported in India. Most of these are in Western Ghats in Maharashtra, Karnataka and Kerala. Also, in remaining parts of India sacred groves are reported. Role of sacred grove is tremendous in conserving the biodiversity.

e. Disaster and its management.
Answer:

• To save human life from disasters. To help them for moving away from the place of disasters by rapid action.
• To supply essential commodities to the affected people. This helps to reduce the gravity of disaster. People are given grains, water and clothes and other basic necessities under this objective.
• To bring back the conditions of affected people to normalcy.
• To rehabilitate the affected and displaced victims.
• To think and execute the protective measures in order to develop capability to face the disasters in
  future.

Question 4.
How will you justify that overcoming the pollution is a powerful way of environmental management?
(OR)
“Solving the problem of pollution is an effective way of environmental management.” Justify the statement.
Answer:
1. Pollution is created only due to human activities. Air, water, soil, noise, radiation, thermal, light, plastic are different types of pollution.
2. All types of pollution affect environment and particularly threatening the survival of living organisms.
3. Pollution must be controlled in order to have good quality of the environment. E.g. When plastic is thrown anywhere, it causes pollution of the land, it clogs the rain water drains, it affects feeding of the animals. Plastic pollution can be completely stopped by us through proper management of plastic waste. By recycling or reusing, we can overcome the plastic pollution. This would be a powerful way of environmental management.
4. Similarly, when we reduce pollution of different types, we automatically help to regain the environmental health.

Question 5.
Which projects will you run in relation to environmental conservatioh? How?
(OR)
Write six strategies implemented by you for conservation of the environment.
Answer:
Initially, assessment of the environmental problems will be done. The nature and severity of these problems will be understood by detailed study of the same. Then the projects can be undertaken to combat these problems.

1. Tree plantation is one such easier project that can be undertaken to conserve environment. The further nurturing of the tree will also be our responsibility. While selecting the tree, the local and sturdy varieties will be selected. Such trees can survive in polluted environment too and even under the pressure of urbanization.

2. Solid waste management is another very important project that should be undertaken by every society, colony or school. Segregation of waste into dry and wet types and then its proper disposal will be taught to all the people in the neighbouring area.

3. To ban the plastic and make people aware about harmful effects of plastic is another very significant project.

4. Fossil fuels are non-renewable and polluting. Therefore, their use should be reduced as far as possible. Therefore, using bicycle, or walking down for shorter distances or using public transport systems are the better alternatives. The awareness drive about these facts will be taken up as a project.

5. To take care of stray animals, provide shelter, feeding endangered birds like sparrows and allowing them to survive with our support is also one of the essential act to conserve other species.

6. Attempts will be made for bringing awareness among minds of everyone. Such small acts can bring about major shift in the attitude of the people. This will certainly help in the environmental conservation.

Question 6.
Answer the following:
a. Write the factors affecting environment.
Answer:

• The biotic and abiotic- factors affect the environment. Among abiotic factors, the physical and chemical factors can alter the conditions of the environment.
• Abiotic factors are either natural or man-made.
• The various interrelationships between different living organisms can also affect environment.
• The natural disasters such as earthquake, forest fires, cyclones, cloud bursting, drought, etc. change the environment.
• The human activities such as deforestation, urbanisation, constructions etc. cause permanent damage to the ecosystems. Due to man-made impact, there can be large scale changes in the environment.

b. Human beings have important place in environment.
Answer:

• Man came last on the earth during evolution of animals. But due to his intelligence, imagination, critical thinking and memory, he made progress in all fields.
• By virtue of these qualities he became the supreme.
• All the natural resources on the earth were very rapidly exploited by man.
• Under the pretext of technology and. development he made degradation of almost all¬natural ecosystems.
• He never obeys the rules of nature.
• Phenomena like pollution, urbanization, industrialization and deforestation are exclusively his creations.
• Hunting and poaching other animals were his contribution to the extinction of many other animals.
• Except man no other organism on the earth can change the ecosystems in such a drastic way. Therefore, it is rightly said that human beings have important place in environment.

c. Write the types and examples of biodiversity.
Answer:
Biodiversity is documented on the following three levels, viz. genetic diversity, species diversity and ecosystem diversity.
1. Genetic Diversity: Diversity seen among the organisms of same species due to genetic differences is called genetic diversity. E.g. The individual human beings are different from each other. No two animals or plants are exactly alike.

2. Species Diversity: The difference between the different species is the species diversity, e.g. All the species of plants, animals and microbes which are seen in any natural environment.

3. Ecosystem Diversity: In one region there may be different ecosystems, such diversity in the ecosystems is called ecosystem diversity. Ecosystems are natural or artificial. Every region shows different types of ecosystems such as aquatic, terrestrial, desert or forest ecosystems. Each ecosystem has its own habitats with resident flora and fauna.

d. How the biodiversity can be conserved?
Answer:
Biodiversity can be conserved by the following ways:

• Protection of the rare species of plants and animals.
• Creating habitats for the animals and plants by establishing National Parkland Sanctuaries.
• Declaration of bioreserves, the areas which are protected through conservation.
• Conservation projects for protecting special species.
• Conservation of all flora and fauna.
• Strict observance of the acts and rules.
• Use of traditional knowledge and maintaining record of traditional knowledge.

e. What do we learn from the story of Jadav Molai Payeng? (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Answer:
Jadav Molai Payeng is a common man who was just a simple forest worker. But he has conscience about plants and tree plantations. He single-handedly planted thousands of trees. He converted a barren patch of land into forest which is spread over 1360 acres. For these plantations he continuously worked.

He has shown that a single determined person, can establish a new forest! We understand the values of
hard work, sincerity and devotion to the nature through the story of Jadav Molai Payeng. Even a common man can contribute a lot for the conservation and protection of the environment by learning the story of Payeng.

f. Write the names of biodiversity hot spots.
Answer:

• In entire world, 34 highly sensitive biodiversity spots are reported.
• These hotspots occupied 15.7% area of the Earth.
• However, currently about 86% of the sensitive areas are already destroyed.
• Now about 2.3% area of the Earth still has such sensitive biodiversity spots.
• There are 1,50,000 plant species which are about 50% of the species in the world.
• In India, out of 135 species of animals, 85 species are found in the jungles of eastern region.
• There are about 1,500 endemic plant species in Western Ghats.
• About 50,000 plants species out of the total plants in the world are said to be endemic.

g. Which are the reasons for endangering the many species of plants and animals? How can we save those diversity?
Answer:

• The animals and plants species are endangered majorly due to man-made causes.
• Some natural disasters like earthquakes, climate change, forest fires, drought and cyclones also affect the living organisms due to lack of food and water.
• In man-made causes, hunting and poaching are the main reasons.
• Also animal-human conflicts occur due to invasion of human settlements into the habitats of wild animals.
• Construction of dams, roads, and colonies destroy the habitats of wild life.
• Industrialization, urbanization and population explosion of humans are putting severe pressure on all the existing biodiversity.
• In order to save and protect the biodiversity, many scientists and naturalists come together. A stretch of land is protected by declaring it as the sanctuary or a national park by the Government. Even the locals can protect it as a sacred grove.
• Various acts and rules have been formulated to protect the organisms. The violators of such rules are punished accordingly.

Question 7.
What are the meanings of the following symbols? Write your role accordingly. (July ’19; Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
(OR)
What do these symbols indicate? Explain your opinion about those symbols.

Answer:
1. The first symbol is for giving the message, “Reduce, reuse and recycle”. This is important mantra for the utilization of natural resources.
The second symbol gives the message about ‘Save water’.
The third symbol advocates the use of solar energy.

2. These symbols inculcate the importance of being eco-friendly. The first symbol is essential to maintain the natural resources by reusing and recycling them. As far as possible, one should reduce the excessive use of resources by preventing consumerism.

3. Water problems persist in many major cities and villages. In villages it results in drought like conditions. It also reflects into loss of agricultural produce. Therefore, the message about saving water or to make judicious use of water should be spread far and wide.

4. The solar energy is the renewable energy option which is very easily available in country like India. By using solar energy, we can replace the polluting and exhaustible fuels. Thereby, pollution will also be reduced.

Due to such symbols, important messages about environment conservation reach, us and we can change ourselves into more eeofriendly persons.

Project: (Do it your self)

Project 1.
Make a presentation on pollution of Gangci and Yamuna Rivers and effects of air pollution on Taimuhal.

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 36)

Question 1.
What is ecosystem? Which are its different components?
Answer:
In any environment, there are biotic and abiotic components. There are interactions among these components. All such interactions make an ecosystem.

The different components in the ecosystem are as follows:
Abiotic components : Air, water, soil, sunlight, temperature, humidity, etc.
Biotic components: All the types of living organisms, like bacteria, fungi, plants and animals.

Question 2.
Which are the types of consumers? What are the criteria for their classification?
Answer:
Primary consumers, secondary consumers, tertiary consumers or apex consumers are the different types of consumers. These types are according to the trophic level to which they belong.

Question 3.
What may be the relationship between lake and birds on tree?
Answer:
The birds on the tree depend on the aquatic organisms in the lake for their feeding. Birds stay on the trees which are in the vicinity of the lake, so that it is easier for them to capture fishes, frogs, etc. They must also be using the same lake water for drinking.

Question 4.
What is difference between food chain and food web?
Answer:
In every ecosystem, there are always interactions between producers, consumers and decomposers. This sequence of feeding interactions is called food chain. In every food chain there are links between four to five trophic levels constituting the producers, primary consumers, secondary consumers, tertiary consumers, etc. The links of food chain are in linear sequence. But food web is a complex network of many small food chains. In fact, food web is the collection of many small food chains. Thus, when many food chains are interwoven, they form food web.

Think and Answer! (Text Book Page No. 36)

Question 1.
Write the name and category of each of the component shown in picture.
Answer:
By utilizing the solar energy, the green plants perform photosynthesis. Thus, they are producers of the food chain. This food is consumed by the grasshopper. Thus, it is primary consumer. Frog is secondary consumer as its diet consists of insects like grasshopper. Snake is tertiary consumer as it feeds on frogs, while the hawk is apex consumer as it can kill the snake and feed on it. Last picture in the food chain is of fungi which are acting as decomposers. Few bacteria are shown in the picture, act on all the levels and bring about decomposition.

Question 2.
What is necessary to convert this picture into food web? Why?
Answer:
If this food chain has to be converted into a food web, there should be interactions between the different components. Any living organism can be prey to different predators. Moreover, a predator can also be a prey for other. Frog eats different insects. The same frog can be either eaten by snake or by hawk.

Use your brain power. (Text Book Page No. 40)

Question 1.
Why is it said that pollution control is important?
Answer:
The quantity of pollutants and severity of their effects on the ecosystem have to be taken into consideration constantly. The different methods of pollution control have to be used for checking the hazardous effects of pollution on the living organisms. Especially the impact of pollution on health of human beings is assessed from time to time.

The young children and senior citizens are affected to greater extent by the pollution. If the air and water required for the survival of the people is affected, then exercising the pollution control is to be done immediately. Thus, it is said that pollution control is important.

Enlist and discuss (Text Book Page No. 43)

Question 1.
Find the meaning of given symbols in relation to environment conservation. Make a list of other such symbols.
A.
Answer:
This symbol tells us to keep our wastes carefully. The garbage should not be strewn anywhere. But it should be properly managed. Waste if managed properly can be a wealth.
B.
Answer:
This symbol tells us to save electricity. If electricity is carefully used, we can save our natural resources. This message is given through this picture.
C.
Answer:
Use of bicycle means use of green energy. By riding on a bicycle we save on fuel and use our own muscular energy. It is the best eeofriendly, non polluting vehicle.

Observe and fill the information: (Text Book Page No. 8)

Question 1.
Observe the environment around you. Complete the following flow chart.

Answer:

Complete the Chart: (Text Book Page No. 39)

Question 1.
We have studied the air pollution, water pollution and soil pollution in detail in earlier classes. Based on that, complete the following chart.

Answer:

Complete the Chart: (Text Book Page No. 40)

Question 1.
Now a day, we are observing the environmental degradation everywhere. Complete the flow chart given besides with the help of environment.

Answer:

(Text Book Page No. 43)

Question 1.
Where are such sacred groves in Maharashtra? Make a list and visit with your teachers.
Answer:
Sacred groves: Sacred groves form an important landscape feature in the deforested hill ranges of the Western Ghats. The felling of timber and the killing of animals in sacred groves is not allowed by the locals. It is considered as taboo.

In Maharashtra, sacred groves are found in tribal as well as non-tribal areas. The sacred groves in the western part are called Devrai or Devrahati, which means the abode of the gods. In eastern parts it is called Devegudi by the madiya tribal people.

In Maharashtra 2820 Devrais have been documented. Maruti, Vaghoba, Vira, Bhiroba, Khandoba and Shirkai are some deities to which sacred groves are dedicated.

In the sacred groves, the most commonly found plant species are Portia tree, Casuarina, Silk cotton tree, Indian laurel, Indian Elm, Bead tree, Indian butter tree, Turmeric and Japanese ginger. In Maharashtra, sacred groves are maximum in district of Sindhudurg, (More than 1500 out of total 2820) followed by Ratnagiri, then Pune and in district of Satara.

Choose the correct alternative and write that alphabet against the sub-question number:

Question 1.
Paddy fields are frequently attacked by
(a) goats
(b) birds
(c) grasshoppers
(d) monkeys
Answer:
(c) grasshoppers

Question 2.
Basic functional unit to study the ecology is termed as ……………
(a) environment
(b) niche
(c) ecosystem
(d) food chain
Answer:
(c) ecosystem

Question 3.
As per ……….. trading of rare animals has been completely banned.
(a) clause 48A
(b) clause 49B
(c) clause 49A
(d) all the above
Answer:
(c) clause 49A

Question 4.
(4) The jungle in Kokilamukh of Jorhat district of Assam is well known as ………….
(a) Molai jungle
(b) Rhino jungle
(c) Rhino forest
(d) Payang jungle
Answer:
(a) Molai jungle

Question 5.
Maintaining record of ………. knowledge is very necessary.
(a) modern
(b) mythical
(c) vedic
(d) traditional
Answer:
(d) traditional

Question 6.
………… is world’s largest organization engaged in environmental activities.
(a) Greenpeace
(b) Hariyali
(c) B. N. H. S.
(d) I. I. T.
Answer:
(a) Greenpeace

Question 7.
……….. sanctuary of West Bengal is reserved for tigers.
(a) Gir
(b) Sunderban
(c) Molai
(d) Corbett
Answer:
(b) Sunderban

Question 8.
World Biodiversity Day is celebrated on ……… every year.
(a) 22nd April
(b) 5th June
(c) 16th September
(d) 22nd May
Answer:
(d) 22nd May

Question 9.
Out of the total plant species in the entire world, 50,000 are ……………
(a) extinct
(b) endangered
(c) endemic
(d) rare
Answer:
(c) endemic

Question 10.
Giant squirrel is an ………… species.
(a) indeterminate
(b) rare
(c) endemic
(d) endangered
Answer:
(a) indeterminate

Question 11.
In a food chain, autotrophic plants are present at the ……….. level. (March 2019)
(a) tertiary nutrition
(b) secondary nutrition
(c) producer
(d) apex
Answer:
(c) producer

Question 12.
……….. from Manas sanctuary in Assam is under threat. (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
(a) one horned rhino
(b) Lion
(c) Musk deer
(d) Giant squirrel/Shekru
Answer:
(a) one horned rhino

Write whether the following statements are true or false, giving suitable explanation for the same:

Question 1.
Only abiotic factors play very important role in the ecosystem.
Answer:
False. (Both abiotic and biotic factors play very important role in the ecosystem. Only abiotic factors will not decide the working of an ecosystem.)

Question 2.
Paddy fields are frequently attacked by frogs.
Answer:
False. (Paddy fields are frequently attacked by grasshoppers. Frogs feed on grasshoppers and control the population of these insects that cause destruction of the crops.)

Question 3.
Environmental pollution is necessary and acceptable change in the surrounding environment.
Answer:
False. (Environmental pollution is never acceptable. It is always harmful to the entire ecosystem and thus never necessary.)

Question 4.
X-rays and radiations from atomic energy plants are natural radiations.
Answer:
False. (X-rays are not present in natural radiations. Infra-red and ultra-violet rays are present in natural radiations.)

Question 5.
The person breaching the Environmental Conservation Act is entitled for either one year imprisonment or fine up to ₹ 5 lakh.
Answer:
False. (The person breaching the Environmental conservation Act is fined upto ₹ 1 lakh. He is also entitled to imprisonment for five years.)

Question 6.
Many people come together to establish arnew forest but a single person, if determined can destroy the entire forest!
Answer:
False. (When anything constructive has to be done even a single man can start such action. In case of ‘Molai jungle’, this statement holds true. But when destructive actions are done, many people come together and cause damage.)

Question 7.
There are clusters of thick forests only in Western Ghats of India.
Answer:
False. (Entire India is rich in biodiversity. Just not in Western Ghats but in entire India one can observe the clusters of thick forests and this is mainly due to suitable tropical climate.)

Question 8.
86 highly sensitive biodiversity spots are reported all over the world.
Answer:
False. (As per the latest information and available data, there are 34 highly sensitive biodiversity spots.)

Question 9.
Flow of nutrients in an ecosystem is unidirectional.
Answer:
False. (Flow of energy in an ecosystem is unidirectional. Flow of nutrients is cyclic.)

Match the columns:

Question 1.

Column I	Column II
(1) Physical, chemical and biological factors together form	(a) Biodiversity
(2) The science of interactions between biotic and abiotic factors	(b) Ecosystem
	(c) Ecology
	(d) Environment

Answer:
(1) Physical, chemical and biological factors together form – Environment.
(2) The science of interactions between biotic and abiotic factors – Ecology.

Question 2.

Column I	Column II
(1) Basic functional unit in the environment	(a) Biodiversity
(2) Different types of living organisms	(b) Ecosystem
	(c) Ecology
	(d) Environment

Answer:
(1) Basic functional unit in the environment – Ecosystem.
(2) Different types of living organisms – Biodiversity.

Question 3.

Rules/Act	Year
(1) Sound Pollution (Control and Prevention) Rule	(a) 1980
(2) Biomedical Waste (Management and Handling) Rule	(b) 2011
	(c) 1998
	(d) 2000

Answer:
(1) Sound Pollution (Control and Prevention) Rule – 2000.
(2) Biomedical Waste (Management and Handling) Rule – 1998.

Question 4.

Rules/Act	Year
(1) Forest Conservation Act	(a) 1980
(2) Environmental Conservation Act	(b) 1986
	(c) 2011
	(d) 2000

Answer:
(1) Forest Conservation Act – 1980.
(2) Environmental Conservation Act – 1986.

Question 5.

Species	Examples
(1) Endangered	(a) Red panda, Musk deer.
(2) Rare	(b) Tiger, Lion.
	(c) Lion tailed monkey, lesser florican.
	(d) Monkey, squirrel

Answer:
(1) Endangered Species – Lion tailed monkey, lesser florican.
(2) Rare Species – Red panda, Musk deer.

Question 6.

Species	Examples
(1) Vulnerable	(a) Giant squirrel (Shekhru)
(2) Indeterminate	(b) Red panda, Musk deer
	(c) Tiger, Lion
	(d) Lesser florican, sparrow

Answer:
(1) Vulnerable Species – Tiger, Lion.
(2) Indeterminate Species – Giant squirrel (Shekhru).

Find the odd one out:

Question 1.
Ash, Carbon dioxide, Lead, Asbestos
Answer:
Carbon dioxide. (All others are solid particulate pollutants.)

Question 2.
Manas sanctuary, Sunderbans sanctuary, The Western Ghats, Tadoba National Park
Answer:
Tadoba National Park. (All others are endangered heritage places of India.)

Question 3.
Lion tailed monkey, White rats, Musk deer, Tiger
Answer:
White rats. (All others are species that are threatened.)

Question 4.
Conservation, Regulation, Pollution, Prohibition
Answer:
Pollution. (All others are ways of environmental protection.)

Question 5.
IPCC, UNEP, IUCN, BNHS
Answer:
BNHS. (All others are international organizations. BNHS is Bombay Natural History Society.)

Find the correlation:

Question 1.
Rare species : Musk deer : : ………… : Lesser florican.
Answer:
Endangered species

Question 2.
Red panda : Rare species : : Giant Squirrel : …………
Answer:
Indeterminate species

Question 3.
Nitrogen, Oxygen : Gaseous cycle : : Soil and Rocks : …………
Answer:
Sedimentary cycle

Question 4.
Manas : One horned Rhino : : Gir : ………..
Answer:
Asiatic lion

Question 5.
Mumbai : Bombay Natural History Society : : TehriGarhwal : ………….
Answer:
Chipko centre.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
Answer the following questions:
If frog population in paddy field declines all of a sudden,
(a) What will be the effect on paddy crop?
Answer:
If the population of frog declines, then there will be rise in the population of grasshoppers. The paddy fields will hence be infested with insect pests.

(b) Number of which consumers will decline and which will increase?
Answer:
The food chain if altered, results in imbalance in the ecosystem. ‘Paddy → Grasshoppers → Frog → Snake’, this food chain is natural. When by any reason there is dec1ine in the number of frogs, thus secondary consumer will also decline. Due to this decline, snake which is at tertiary consumer level will also decline. Theprimary consumers i.e. grasshoppers will increase as there is now no check on their population. Due to increase in their population the paddy production will be reduced. Due to reduced number of snakes, rats and other rodents from neighbouring areas would also rise, which are also secondary consumers.

(c) Name the Indian states where paddy is cultivated on a large scale.
Answer:
West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Punjab, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Assam and Maharashtra.

Question 2.
What is radioactive pollution? What are its effects?
Answer:
(1) The radiations emitted either through the natural sources or through man-made sources cause radioactive pollution.
(2) The natural radiations is in the form of ultra violet and infrared radiations.
(3) Artificial or man-made radiations are X-rays and radiations from atomic energy plants.
(4) All radiations are highly hazardous for the living organisms. The impact of radiation is also for a very long time.
(5) It has brought about major accidental mishaps at Chernobyl, Windscale, qpd Three Miles Island. These disasters have affected thousands of people.
(6) Some other effects of radiations are as follows – (i) Due to higher radiations of X-rays, cancerous ulceration occurs, (ii) Radiations destroy the body tissues, (iii) Radiations cause mutations and thus genetic changes occur, (iv) There is adverse effect on the vision.

Question 3.
Give one word for “The forest conserved in the name of God.” (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Answer:
Deorai.

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
Certain scavenging caterpillars, termites and insects found in the dung are important.
Answer:

• Scavenging caterpillars and insects are decomposers. They seem to be Worthless due to filthy surrounding in which they thrive.
• But they carry out most important task of decomposition of complex organic substances into simple inorganic elements.
• This recycling is possible only due to decomposers.
• If they are not present, there will be huge accumulation of garbage. Therefore, these living organisms are important.

Question 2.
Destroying trees is to destroy everything.
Answer:

• When a single huge tree is felled many living organisms which are dependent on it, are exterminated.
• Many insects, fungi, birds, etc. lose their habitat.
• Trees take up carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and release oxygen. These natural cycles are also hindered due to loss of trees.
• Due to trees there is shade, cooler atmosphere and increase in the rainfall. When such trees are destroyed all the components in the ecosystem are destroyed too.

Question 3.
There is no definite information about indeterminate species.
Answer:

• Indeterminate species do not have substantial information about them.
• The organisms belonging to such species appear to be endangered due to their some behavioural habits.
• They are shy and do not come in open so that they can be observed keenly.
• For example, animals like Giant squirrel also do not provide such information.

Question 4.
Tigers from Sunderbans and Rhinos from Manas are under threat.
Answer:

• Manas is in the area-of Assam where there are many dams and Indiscriminate use of water.
• This area is also flood affected. Therefore, rhinos are under threat.
• In Sunderbans, there are also problems such as deforestation, dams, excessive fishing, and dug out trenches.
• All of these cause dangers to the tiger population.

Question 5.
There are clusters of thick forests in the Western Ghats of India.
Answer:

• There are many sacred groves in the region of Western Ghats of India.
• These forests are not conserved by Government Forest Departments but are cared for by the local people, in the name of God.
• Due to such faith in the people, the forests are conserved like sanctuaries.
• Such many clusters are in Western Ghats of Maharashtra.

Question 6.
We can see biodiversity on three levels.
Answer:

1. There is biodiversity in the living organisms belonging to the same genus.
2. This diversity is due to different heredity pattern. This is called genetic biodiversity.
3. The organisms occupying the same area and belonging to the same species also show diversity due to different species. This is species biodiversity.
4. The organisms occupying different ecosystems also show differences, which is called ecosystem biodiversity. Therefore, we observe biodiversity on three different levels.

Questions based on diagrams:

Question 1.
What is shown in the picture? Write name and trophic level of each component.

Answer:
In this picture, food chain having rive trophic levels is shown.
(1) Trophic level 1 = Producers : Green plant.
(2) Trophic level 2 = Primary consumer (Herbivore): Grasshopper.
(3) Trophic level 3 = Secondary consumer (Carnivore): Bird.
(4) Trophic level 4 = Tertiary consumer (Carnivore) : Snake.
(5) Trophic level 5 = Top or Apex consumer (Carnivore) : Owl.

Question 2.
Explain the meaning of following symbols A and B and C.
A.

Answer:
The symbol show types of green energy such as solar energy and wind energy. It also expresses that people
should use such sources of energy for their use.

B.

Answer:
This symbol is giving the message “Save water”. Sustainable use of water is necessary for our future.

C.

answer:
The symbols of WWF and BNHS are shown here. BNHS stands for Bombay Natural History Society. This institute works for the conservation and documentation of flora and fauna.

WWF means World Wild Life Fund. Also known as World Wide Life Fund. This International Institute is looking after the welfare of wildlife through different conservation projects. WWF symbol shows Panda while BNHS symbol has Giant Hornbill.

Question 3.
(a) Identify the following symbols and state their significance: (March 2019)

Answer:
(i) This symbol is giving the message “Save water”. Sustainable use of water is necessary for our future.
(ii) Use of bicycle means use of green energy. By riding on a bicycle we save on fuel and use our own muscular energy. It is the best ecofriendly, non polluting vehicle.

(b) How can biodiversity be conserved?
Answer:
Biodiversity can be conserved by the following ways:

• Protection of the rare species of plants and animals.
• Creating habitats for the animals and plants by establishing National Park and Sanctuaries.
• Declaration of bio reserves, the areas which are protected through conservation.
• Conservation projects for protecting special species.
• Conservation of all flora and fauna.
• Strict observance of the acts and rules.
• Use of traditional knowledge and maintaining record of traditional knowledge.

Activity based questions:

Question 1.
Questions based on the charts.
Complete the flow chart: (July 2019)

Answer:

Question 2.
Collect more information about locations of these hotspots present in the world. (Textbook page no. 44)
Answer:
Students should collect this information.

Question 3.
Where are such sacred groves in Maharashtra? Make a list and visit with your teachers. (Textbook page no. 43)
Answer:
Sacred groves: Sacred groves form an important landscape feature in the deforested hill ranges of the Western Ghats. The felling of timber and the killing of animals in sacred groves is not allowed by the locals. It is considered as taboo.

In Maharashtra, sacred groves are found in tribal as well as non-tribal areas. The sacred groves in the western part are called Devrai or Devrahati, which means the abode of the gods. In eastern parts it is called Devegudi by the madiya tribal people.

In Maharashtra 2820 Devrais have been documented. Maruti, Vaghoba, Vira, Bhiroba, Khandoba and Shirkai are some deities to which sacred groves are dedicated.

In the sacred groves, the most commonly found plant species are Portia tree, Casuarina, Silk cotton tree, Indian laurel, Indian Elm, Bead tree, Indian butter tree, Turmeric and Japanese ginger. In Maharashtra, sacred groves are maximum in district of Sindhudurg, (More than 1500 out of total 2820) followed by Ratnagiri, then Pune and in district of Satara.

Projects: (Do it your self)

Project 1.
Let’s Discuss: (Text Book Page No. 41)
Collect the information about Chipko Movement and discuss between two groups of your class about its importance in present situation.

Project 2.
Collect more information on the organization of Greenpeace. (Text Book Page No. 43)
Answer:
Students are expected to write this answer to this question.

Project 3.
There should be positive attitude of human being towards the environment for welfare of entire living world. For this purpose, following roles are important. You can be a conservator, organizer, guide, plant-friend, etc. Describe about the role you wish to perform and your plans for that role. (Text Book Page No. 42)

Project 4.
Survey the plants and animals in your area. Maintain a record about their characteristics. (Text Book Page No. 45)
Answer:
Students can conduct such surveys with the help of elders.

Project 5.
Internet is my friend! (Collect the information Textbook page no. 41)
(1) Sound Pollution (Control and Prevention) Rule, 2000.
(2) Biomedical Waste (Management and Handling) Rule, 1998.
(3) E-waste (Management and Handling) Rule, 2011.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 3.6 The Concert  Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 3.6 The Concert

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 3.6 Warming Up Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Pair up with your partner and ask and answer the following questions.
(a) Do you like music?
(b) What does a concert mean?
(c) Have you ever attended any live concert?
(d) Have you seen a concert on Television?
(e) Whose concert would you love to attend?
Answer:
(a) Yes, I do.
(b) A concert is a musical programme where musicians and classical singers come together to play different pieces of music.
(c) Yes, I have.
(d) Yes, I have.
(e) I would love to attend the concert of A. R. Rahman.

Question 2.
Look at the web diagram given below and study the traits of a good concert organizer.

Answer:

The Concert Class 10 English Workshop Questions and Answers Maharashtra Board

Question 1.
Who said to whom?
(a) “We mustn’t miss the chance.”
(b) “This is not the last time they are going to play.”
(c) “A walk in the park might make you feel better.”
(d) “Tomorrow morning we perform for the boy- Yes?”
Answer:

Statement	Who	To Whom
(a) “We mustn’t miss the chance.’’	The boy	To his sister and mother
(b) “This is not the last time they are going to play.”	the mother	to anant
(c) “A walk in the park will make you feel better.”	Aunt Sushila	to smita
(d) “Tomorrow morning we perform for the boy- Yes?”	Ustad Sahib	to Pandit Ravi Shankar.

Question 2.
Read the following sentences and write which emotions are revealed from these sentences.
(a) Pandit Ravi Shankar is playing tomorrow at the Shanmukhananda auditorium.
(b) It’s the chance of a lifetime.
(c) Will you come to Aunt Sushila’s house and play for him?
(d) Did you…did you hear him?
(e) Is it…It’s not possible?
Answer:
(a) excitement
(b) anticipation, joy, excitement
(c) This sentence expresses the emotion of a sincere plea or entreaty. Smita is practically begging Pandit Ravi Shankar to consider her request.
(d) This sentence expresses the boy’s innermost curiosity, and his desire to confirm if his sister had indeed heard the performances of the musicians whom he so longed to hear.
(e) This sentence expresses the emotion of complete surprise and disbelief. Something the neighbours had thought absolutely impossible was indeed a reality.

Question 3.
Read the text carefully, you will find some words describing a particular specialty of the individuals/personalities in the text. Explain the meaning of the following words given in the table with reference to the particular personality mentioned in the text.

Speciality	Personality	Explanation
Maestro Pandit Ustad Moustachioed	………………….. Ravi Shankar ………………….. …………………..	………………….. ………………….. ………………….. a person having a large or bushy mustache.

Answer:

Specialty	Personality	Explanation
Ustad	Allah Rakha	title for an expert tabla player
Moustachioed	Name unknown	someone who sports ’ a prominent bushy mustache
Maestro	Pandit Ravi Shankar	a distinguished performer of classical music
Pandit	Ravi Shankar	a talented musician (used as a respectful title or form of address)

Question 4.
Describe the condition of Smita when she was going towards the stage. Read the text again and complete the boxes given below. One is done for you.

Answer:

Question 5.
The whole story revolves around Anant. Write a short paragraph on Anant. Take help of the following points to develop the paragraph.
1. Health
2. Disease
3. Early interests
4. Intense desire/wish
5. Fulfillment of desire/wish.
Answer:
Anant was a fifteen-year-old boy, living in a village named Gaganpur with his sister and parents. Very active in his school days, he was a good athlete, the best table-tennis player, could play the sitar very well and had even been composing his own tunes. Suddenly, he was struck with cancer and came to Mumbai for treatment. Then one day, his sister read in the newspaper that Pandit Ravi Shankar would be performing at the Shanmukhananda auditorium.

It was his earnest desire to watch the performance, but due to his sickness, his mother forbade him. Finally, his sister, in a very daring move, went to the concert and after the concert had ended, went backstage and requested Pandit Ravi Shankar to come to their home and play for her brother. The great generous maestro along with Ustad Allah Rakha agreed and did exactly that. As the beautiful soulful music wafted around the room where Anant lay, Anant breathed his last.

Question 6.
The story has three important characters- Anant, Smita and Aunt Sushila. Go through the story again and complete the following table that highlights their special traits of character. You can put X mark if that trait is not mentioned in the text.

Special traits	Smita	Anant	Aunt Sushila
Strength Weaknesses Dreams Motivation

Answer:

Special traits	Smita	Anant	Aunt Sushila
Strength	daring	courage	concern, generosity
Weakness	given to emotion	physical health	X
Dreams	that her brother would get cured	that he would hear Pandit Ravi Shankar play	X
Motivation	love for her brother	love for music	love for the children

Question 7.
The two contradictory pictures are depicted in the story. Discuss in pairs and describe them in your words in front of the class.
Answer:
The brother and sister seem excited about Pandit Ravi Shankar’s upcoming performance. The girl expresses excitement and the boy’s eyes are shining. The mother, however, is more worried about the physical condition of her son, who is on oxygen and apparently out of breath. The mother’s voice breaks when she speaks and her lips utter unbidden prayers. These are the contradictory images presented in this passage.

Question 8.
The text has a big collection of Indian words in it. Using words from another language in a write up is called Code-mixing. Make a list of all the Indian words in table A and their meanings in table B. One is done for you.

‘A’ Indian word	‘B’ Meaning
1. Raga	(a) piece of Indian classical music based on one of the six basic musical modes.
2.	(b)
3.	(c)
4.	(d)
5.	(e)
6.	(f)

Answer:

‘A’ (Indian word)	‘B’ (Meaning)
1. Raga	(a) piece of Indian classical music based on one of the six basic musical modes.
2. Pandit	(b) a talented musician (used’as a respectful title or form of address)
3. sitar	(c) a large, long-necked Indian lute with movable frets, played with a wire pick
4. Ustad	(d) a highly skilled musician
5. Pandit	(e) address for a talented classical musician
6. divan	(f) a long low sofa without a back or arms

Question 9.
(A) Choose the appropriate Adverb or Adjective form to fill in the gaps.
(1) She spoke in an …………………….. tone. (excited / excitedly)
(2) Smita accepted the suggestion …………………….. (grateful / gratefully)
(3) They gave him whatever made him …………………….. (happy/ happily)
(4) He ran very …………………….. (fast / fastly)
(5) He would become a …………………….. sitarist some day. (great / greatly)
(6) Life went out of him …………………….. (gentle / gently)
Answer:
(1) excited
(2) softly
(3) happy
(4) fast
(5) great
(6) gently

(B) Rewrite in Indirect speech
1. “Please”, she begged him, “Please come”.
……………………………………………………………………

2. He said, “What shall we do, Ustad Sahib?”
……………………………………………………………………

3. Her brother said, “Enjoy yourself”. He added, “Lucky you!”
……………………………………………………………………

4. ‘Yes’ Panditji replied. “It’s settled then. Tomorrow morning we shall perform, for the boy.”
……………………………………………………………………
Answer:
(1) She begged him repeatedly to come.
(2) He asked the Ustad Sahib what they should do.
(3) Her brother told her to enjoy herself and then added that she was indeed lucky.
(4) The Panditji replied in the affirmative and added that the matter was then settled. He further added that they would perform for the boy the following morning.

Question 10.
The text mentions names of stalwarts like Pandit Ravi Shankar and Ustad Allah Rakha. Both have earned world wide name and fame for their outstanding contribution to the field of music. Form groups of 5 students each and write a brief note on other stalwarts in this (music) field. You can take help of your school library or search the relevant information on the internet.
Take help of the following points.
1. Name :
2. Field : Music
3. Specialisation : Tabla/Sitar/Violin etc.
4. Guru :
5. Early life :
6. Education :
7. Early success :
8. Contribution to the field and world :
9. Awards:
10. Any special incident that has occurred in his/her life :
Answer:
Pandit Hariprasad Chaurasia
Hariprasad Chaurasia is an Indian classical flutist. He plays the bansuri, an Indian bamboo flute in the Hindustani classical tradition.

His Guru was Bholanath Prasanna of Varanasi. He studied with him for eight years. In 1957, he joined the All India Radio, Cuttack, Odisha. He worked as composer and performer. Much later, he received guidance from the reclusive Annapurna Devi, daughter of Baba Allaudin Khan. Legend has it that she agreed to teach him only if he played with the left hand. True or not, up till today, Hariprasad plays the bansuri with the left hand.

Apart from classical music, Hariprasad has collaborated with Shivkumar Sharma, the santoor exponent forming an association called Shiv-Hari. He has collaborated with world musicians, including the fusion group Shakti, in experimental cross-cultural performances.

He is at present the artistic director of the World Music Department at the Rotterdam Music Conservatory in the Netherlands. In 2006, he founded the Vrindavan Gurukul in Mumbai and in 2010, the Vrindavan Gurukul in Bhubaneshwar. Both of these institutes are schools dedicated to training students in bansuri in the Guru-shishya tradition.

He has collaborated with several western musicians, including John McLaughlin, Jan Garbarek, and Ken Lauber, and has composed music for Indian films.

Chaurasia also played on The Beatles’ 1968 B-side ‘The Inner Light’, which was written by George Harrison.

Question 11.
Imagine you are the monitor of your class. You are assigned the task to invite a classical singer as a chief guest for the Annual Day Programme. Write a letter of invitation to a famous classical singer. Take help of the following points.
Write in short –
1. About your school.
2. About the Annual Day Programme
3. Interest and love of students for music.
4. Motivation.
Answer:
Dilip Rane
Sulochana Devi High School
Mahatma Phule Chowk
Dhule – 424 001,
Date: 20 November, 2020

Shri Gangadin Murkathe
Govardhan Society
Videhi Nagar
Dhule – 424 003.

Subject: Invitation as Chief Guest for the Sulochana Devi High School Annual Function

Dear Sir,
As monitor of Std. X A, Sulochana Devi High School, it is my privilege to invite you to our School Annual Day Function on 15th January, 2021 as Chief Guest.

It will be an evening filled with song and dance, and the first person we thought of was you, as you are an eminent classical singer in your own right. Most of us know about you and have heard your songs either on DVD or on FM.

Our students are highly interested in the classical genre and many are under training at various local i classes. Your presence will serve as motivation for our budding talent and give us pointers as to future careers in music.

Please confirm your presence; for us it will be an honour.

Yours truly,
Dilip Rane,
Monitor (Std. X A)

Question 12.
Write who said to whom:
Answer:

statements	Who	To whom
(a) You’ll wake him up.	The mother	To her daughter
(a) “The chance of a lifetime.”	Anant	to his mother
(c) “Your father will take you.”	Smita’s mother	to Smita

Question 13.
Complete the following web:
Answer:

Question 14.
Why was Smita excited?
Answer:
Smita was excited because she read in the newspaper that Pandit Ravi Shankar was to play the next day at the Shanmukhananda auditorium.

Question 15.
What was the chance of a lifetime for Anant?
Answer:
To be able to hear and see Pandit Ravi Shankar perform was the chance of a lifetime for Anant.

Question 16.
Give reasons: Smita became nervous.
Answer:
Smita became nervous because she remembered that her brother was very ill and that the doctors had given up hope. The truth that Anant was going to die frightened her.

Question 17.
Write from the passage antonyms for the following words:
(a) bored
(b) forget
(c) worse
(d) worst
Answer:
(a) bored x excited
(b) forgot x remembered
(c) worse X better
(d) worst X best

Question 18.
(1) Choose the appropriate Adverb or Adjective form to fill in the gaps:
(b) I wished the noise would stop. It seemed to go on ……………, (endless, endlessly)
Answer:
(b) endlessly

Question 19.
Add question tags:
(a) You know he needs all the sleep and rest he can get.
(b) You’ll wake him up.
(c) His eyes were shining.
(d) We mustn’t miss the chance.
Answer:
(a) You know he needs all the sleep and rest he can get, don’t you?
(b) You’ll wake him up, won’t you?
(c) His eyes were shining, weren’t they?
(d) We mustn’t miss the chance, must we?

Question 20.
The boy on the bed was not asleep: (Rewrite without ‘not’.)
Answer:
The boy on the bed was awake.

Question 21.
How would you feel and react if you came to know that someone closely known to you was suffering from cancer?
Answer:
If I came to know that someone closely known to me was suffering from cancer, I would feel very bad. I would visit the person, spend time, make the person happy in every way possible and most of all pray to God, to relieve the person from suffering.

Question 22.
Say whether the following are True or False: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
Answer:
(a) In Bombay, the family stayed with their aunt.
(b) The doctors told the family directly that Anant did not have many days to live.
(c) The family voiced their fears to Anant.
(d) Anant was well enough to take part in the forthcoming table tennis tournament.
Answer:
True
False
False
False

Question 23.
Why was everyone from the family trying to keep Anant happy?
Answer:
Everyone from the family was trying to keep Anant happy because they knew he did not have many days to live. They did not wish to voice their fears but rather wanted him to be surrounded by whatever made him happy.

Question 24.
Why was Smita not ready to go for the concert?
Answer:
Smita was not ready to go for the concert because she and her brother, Anant, had always done things together.

Question 25.
Write from the passage phrases that mean:
(a) participate
(b) feeling that something good will happen
(c) express their worries
(d) a rare opportunity
Answer:
(a) take part In
(b) high hopes
(c) voice their fears
(d) a chance of a
(e) lifetime.

Question 26.
Match the columns:

A	B
(a) choked (b) roasted (c) Yogic (d) daring	(i) exercises (ii) thought (iii) gram (iv) voice

Answer:

A	B
(a) choked (b) roasted (c) Yogic (d) daring	(iv) voice (iii) gram (i) exercises (ii) thought

Question 27.
Complete the sentence with proper option: Smita accepted the suggestion (grateful/gratefully)
Answer:
Smita accepted the suggestion gratefully.

Question 28.
Frame Yes-No questions to get the sentences as the answer:
(a) There’s no harm in trying it.
(b) It would be nice to go to the concert.
Answer:
(a) Is there any harm in trying it?
(b) Wouldn’t it be nice to go to the concert?

Question 29.
*Two contradictory pictures are depicted in the story.
Answer:
On the one hand, the family is aware that Anant does not have many days to live. They are worried. They have fears but they suppress them. Instead they laugh and smile and talk. They surround Anant with whatever makes him happy. They fulfil his every need and give him whatever he asks for.

Question 30.
(1) Complete the following flow-chart:
Answer:

Question 31.
Write whether the following statements are True or False:
(a) Smita dreamt that she was at the concert.
(b) Anant had said, ‘The chance of a lifetime’ the previous evening.
(c) At the end of the concert, the artistes stood and clapped for the audience.
(d) A man with a long moustache was one of the artistes.
Answer:
(a) False
(b) True
(c) False
(d) False

Question 32.
(1) Arrange the following sentences chronologically according to their occurrence in the passage:
(a) The first notes came over the air.
(b) The audience gave the artistes a standing ovation.
(c) The audience gave the great master a thundering welcome.
(d) The ragas unfolded.
Answer:
(c) The audience gave the great master a thundering welcome.
(a) The first notes came over the air.
(d) The ragas unfolded.
(b) The audience gave the artistes a standing ovation.

Question 33.
How did Smita enjoy the concert?
Answer:
Smita felt as if the gates of a land of enchantment and wonder were opening. She listened spellbound to the unfolding ragas.

Question 34.
Give one example of code-mixing (Indian word) from the passage and explain its meaning.
Answer:
raga – a musical mode in Indian classical music

Question 35.
Pick the odd man out from the following based on the passage and give reasons:
(a) sitting, thundering, unfolding, twinkling
(b) slow, boring, plaintive, twinkling
Answer:
(a) sitting (verb – all the others are adjectives)
(b) boring (describes the noun ‘speech’ – all the others describe the ‘ragas’)

Question 36.
Underline the adverbs:
(a) The curtain came down.
(b) The plan remained firmly in her mind.
(c) The plan she had decided on the evening before remained firmly in her mind.
Answer:
(a) The curtain came down.
(b) The plan remained firmly in her mind.
(c) The plan she had decided on the evening before remained firmly in her mind.

Question 37.
Have you ever attended any concert? How was your experience there?
Answer:
Yes, I have attended a concert in which A. R. Rahman was the main performer. When I heard the first few notes being sung, I was thrilled. Never before had I heard such music or singing. I felt as if I were transported to a wonderland where only music reigned. Every beat, every note filled me with delight. I began wondering if I were in heaven!

Question 38.
Who said this to whom?
“Tomorrow morning we perform for the boy – Yes?”
Answer:
Ustad Sahib said this to Pandit Ravi Shankar.

Question 39.
Write whether the following statements are True or False:
(1) When Smita returned home, Anant was awake.
(2) Both Ravi Shankar and Ustad Allah Rakha came to Aunt Sushila’s house.
(3) Anant’s room was on the ground floor.
(4) Anant survived the sickness.
Answer:
(1) True
(2) True
(3) False
(4) False

Question 40.
What was Smita’s plan?
Answer:
It was Smita’s plan to plead with Pandit Ravi Shankar to come to her aunt’s house and play the sitar for her brother, Anant, who was suffering from cancer.

Question 41.
Why were the neighbours surprised?
Answer:
The neighbours were surprised to see the two great musicians Pandit Ravi Shankar and Ustad Allah Rakha, getting out of a taxi which pulled up outside their block.

Question 42.
Give one word for each of the following:
(a) a soft compressed lump – …………………..
(b) twist or turn the body with quick – …………………..
(c) an expert at music – …………………..
(d) unseen backstage area on the sides of a stage – …………………..
Answer:
(a) wad
(b) wriggle movements
(c) wizard
(d) wings

Question 43.
(1) State the tense of the underlined verbs in the sentences:
(a) A small crowd had gathered
(b) Her knees felt weak.
(c) “Will you come to Aunt Sushila’s house?”
(d) “Its settled then.”
Answer:
(a) Past Perfect
(b) Simple Past
(c) Simple Future
(d) Simple Present.

Question 44.
Choose the appropriate Adverb or Adjective form to fill in the gaps.
(a) Smita spoke ………………. to Anant. (excited/excitedly)
Answer:
(a) excitedly

Question 45.
Music can calm the mind. Share your views.
Answer:
This is very true. Music has the profound effect of calming the mind, filling the soul of the listener with peace and transporting the devotee to a state of mind that is almost heaven.

Question 46.
(1) Pick out the gerund and use it in a sentence: She had been so excited at seeing the announcement.
(2) Arrange the words in alphabetical order: wooden, word, would, wonder
(3) Make a meaningful sentence by using the phrase: catch the attention of
(4) Write two smaller words hidden in the given word: table-tennis
(5) Identify the kind of sentence: Lucky you!
(6) Spot the errors and correct the sentence: Her knees were felt weak and her tongue being dry.
(7) Write the past participle forms of the given verbs: (1) die (2) stay
(8) Punctuate the sentence: did you hear him he whispered
Answer:
(1) Gerund: seeing Sentence: Seeing is believing.
(2) wonder, wooden, word, would
(3) Sentence: One of the girls in the dance caught the attention of the chief guest.
(4) tablet, table (tennis, able)
(5) Exclamatory Sentence
(6) Her knees felt weak and her tongue was dry.
(7) (1) died (2) stayed
(8) “Did you hear him?” he whispered.

Question 47.
(a) Write sentences using the word ‘rest’ with two different meanings.
(b) Rewrite the sentences beginning with the underlined word: The audience gave the artistes a standing ovation.
(c) Write a word register of 8 words for the word ‘concert’.
Answer:
(a) (1) Those who have finished may leave. The rest will please stay back, (the remaining ones)
(2) You may rest in the afternoon, (stop work in order to relax, sleep or gather strength)
(b) The artistes were given a standing ovation (by the audience).
(c) concert: programme, stage, audience, music, dance, box office, venue, band, (performance, recital, show, gig)

Question 48.
(1) State the kind of sentence and pick out the clause, if any: They knew then that the boy had not many days to live.
(2) Use the two given words in one meaningful sentence: cured, sitar
Answer:
(1) Kind of sentence: Complex Clause: that the boy had not many days to live – Noun clause
(2) The doctor told him that after he was cured he could play the sitar.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 6 Animal Classification Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 6 Animal Classification

Question 1.
a. I am diploblastic and acoelomate. Which phylum do I belong to ?
Answer:
I am from phylum Cnidaria or Coelenterata.

b. My body is radially symmetrical. Water vascular system is present in my body. I am referred as fish though I am not. What is my name?
Answer:
Starfish. I am from Echinodermata phylum.

c. I live in your small intestine. Pseudocoelom is present in my thread like body. In which phylum will you include me?
Answer:
I am Ascaris. I am included in Aschelminthes.

d. Though I am multicellular, there are no tissues in my body. What is the name of my phylum?
Answer:
Sponge, Porifera.

Question 2.
Write the characters of each of the following animals with the help of classification chart:
a. Bath sponge.
Answer:
Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Sub-kingdom: Non-chordata
Phylum: Porifera
Characters:

• Multicellular organisms without cell wall
• Cellular grade organization.
• Asymmetrical body
• Acoelomate

Bath sponge is a marine animal. Blackish in colour and round in shape having porous body. It has spongin fibres and spicules which serve as skeleton. Bath sponges have good water-holding capacity. It is sedentary animal which is fixed to some substratum in the aquatic environment. Reproduction is by budding. It also has a good regeneration capacity.

b. Grasshopper.
Answer:
Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Sub-kingdom: Non-chordata
Phylum: Arthropoda
Class: Insecta
Characters:

• Multicellular organisms without cell wall
• Organ-system grade organization
• Bilaterally symmetrical
• Triploblastic and Eucoelomate.

Grasshopper is an insect included under class insecta of phylum arthropoda because it has jointed appendages. There are three pairs of legs and two pairs of wings. It is a terrestrial insect which is well adapted to the surrounding environment by showing camouflage. It has chitinous exoskeleton. The respiration by tracheae.

c. Rohu.
Answer:
Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Phylum: Chordata
Class: Pisces
Subclass: Teleostei (Bony fish)
Characters:

• Multicellular organisms without cell wall
• Organ-system grade organization
• Bilaterally symmetrical
• Triploblastic and Eucoelomate.

Rohu is a fresh water bony fish. It is a chordate having a vertebral column, hence included under subphylum vertebrata. The body is well adapted for aquatic mode of life. The shape of the body is streamlined. The exoskeleton is of scales. The gills Eire present which are used for respiration. The endoskeleton is of bones, hence called bony fish. There are paired fins and a impaired caudal fin which is used in steering and changing the direction during swimming.

d. Penguin.
Answer:
Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Phylum: Chordata
Class: Aves
Characters:

• Multicellular organisms without cell wall
• Organ-system grade organization
• Bilaterally symmetrical
• Triploblastic and Eucoelomate.

Penguin is a flightless bird inhabitant of cold snow-clad regions. It has exoskeleton of feathers. The body is well adapted to survive in cold regions.

It is a warm-blooded bird. The forelimbs are modified into wings. But due. to excessive body weight, the penguins are not seen flying. It can wade in the water with modified hind limbs.

e. Frog.
Answer:
Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Phylum: Chordata
Class: Amphibia
Characters:

• Multicellular organisms without cell wall
• Organ-system grade organization
• Bilaterally symmetrical
• Triploblastic and Eucoelomate.

The frog is a true amphibian that can live in water as well as on land. When on land it respires with the help of lungs while in water it uses its skin for breathing. It does not have exoskeleton. The skin is soft, slimy and moist. It is suitably coloured and hence the frog can camouflage in the surroundings. Body is divisible into head and trunk. Two pairs of limbs are seen. The forelimbs are short and used for support during locomotion. The hind limbs are long and strong, used for jumping when on land and for swimming when in water.

The eyes are large and protruding. Since the neck is absent, such eyes help in looking around. The tympanum is present.

f. Lizard.
Answer:
Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Phylum: Chordata
Class: Reptilia
Characters:

• Multicellular organisms without cell wall
• Organ-system grade organization
• Bilaterally symmetrical
• Triploblastic and Eucoelomate.

The lizard is a cold-blooded reptile. The limbs are weak and do not support the body weight, hence lizard is seen creeping. But the feet are provided with pads and suckers due to which lizards are well- adapted to climb on the vertical walls. The exoskeleton has fine scales. The body is divisible into head, neck and trunk. The capacity to regenerate is developed in lizards, hence it can produce the lost tail or limbs. The mode of reproduction is egg laying. It feeds on insects with the help of long and sticky tongue.

g. Elephant.
f. Lizard.
Answer:
Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Phylum: Chordata
Class: Mammalia
Characters:

• Multicellular organisms without cell wall
• Organ-system grade organization
• Bilaterally symmetrical
• Triploblastic and Eucoelomate.

Elephant is the terrestrial, herbivorous mammal adapted to survive in hot and humid tropical forests.
It is a mammal and hence shows viviparity and milk secretion. The body is divisible into head, neck, trunk, and tail. The proboscis is a characteristic feature of the elephant which is actually modified nose.

h. Jellyfish.
Answer:
Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Sub-kingdom: Non-chordata
Phylum: Cnidaria or Coelenterata
Characters:

• Multicellular organisms without cell wall
• Tissue grade organization
• Radially symmetrical
• Diploplastic and Acoelomate

Jellyfish or Aurelia is a coelenterate. Its body is medusa. It appears as a transparent balloon seen floating in the marine waters. Since it has appearance like a jelly, it is known commonly as jellyfish. There are tentacles provided with cnidoblasts or stinging cells. Tentacles are used for catching the prey. Cnidoblasts are used to secrete a toxin which paralyses the prey.

Question 3.
Write in brief about progressive changes in animal classification.
Answer:
There were different methods of classification of animals.

1. The first classification method was given by the Greek philosopher Aristotle. He took into account the criteria like body size, habits and habitats of the animals. This method was called artificial method of classification.
2. The same artificial method was used by other scientists such as Theophrastus, Pliny, John Ray, Linnaeus, etc.
3. Further due to advances in science the references were changed and there were some new methods of classification proposed.
4. The system of classification called ‘Natural system of classification’ was then proposed. This system of classification was based on criteria such as body organization, types of cells, chromosomes, bio-chemical properties, etc.
5. Later, Dobzhansky and Meyer gave the system of classification based on evolution.
6. In 1977, Carl Woese has also proposed the three domain system of animal classification.

Question 4.
What is the exact difference between grades of organization and symmetry? Explain with examples.
Answer:
I. Grades of organization:
(1) The grades of organization mean the way an organism has different body formation.
(2) Unicellular organisms like amoeba have a single cell in the body and hence the organization in its body is called protoplasmic grade of organization.
(3) Some organisms have only cells in their body which is called cellular grade of organization, e.g. Poriferans.
(4) Some have tissues e.g. Coelenterates. They are said to have tissue grade organization. Some have organs, they are said to have organization-organ grade, e.g. Platyhelminthes. All other higher animals have organ-system grade organization.

II. Symmetry:
(1) Symmetry on the other hand shows the base of the body formation.
(2) The symmetry can be understood by taking an imaginary cut through the animal body.
(3) Based on the symmetry there can be three types.
(4) In asymmetric animals, there is no symmetry in any plane, e.g. Amoeba.
(5) The bilateral symmetry is the one in which an imaginary axis can pass through only one median plane to divide the body into two equal halves. Most of the animals have bilateral symmetry and hence their organs are arranged in symmetric way on both the sides.
(6) The imaginary cut passing through the central axis but any plane of body aan -give more than one equal half. The organs of such animals are arranged in a radius of an imaginary circle, e.g. Cnidarians and some echinoderms.
Both grades of organization and symmetry are the bases for classifying animals into different phyla.

Question 5.
Answer in brief.
a. Give scientific classification of shark upto class.
Answer:
Kingdom: Animalia
Phylum: Chordata
Subphylum: Vertebrata
Class: Pisces
Subclass: Elasmobranchii (Cartilaginous)
Example: Scientific name: Scoliodon sorrakowah.
Common name: Shark

b. Write four distinguishing characters of phylum – Echinodermata.
Answer:
Distinguishing characters of Echinodermata:

1. Marine organisms with skeleton made up of calcareous spines. Calcareous material on the body hence the name is Echiodermata. Some are sedentary while some are free swimming.
2. Body is triploblastic, eucoelomate and radially symmetrical when adult. The larvae are bilateral symmetrical.
3. Locomotion with the help of tube-feet which are also used for capturing the prey.
4. Echinoderms have regeneration capability. Hence they can restore their lost parts.
5. Most of them are unisexual.
6. Examples; Starfish, sea-urchin, brittle star, sea cucumber, etc.

c. Distinguish between butterfly and bat with the help of four distinguish properties.
Answer:
Butterfly:

1. Butterfly is classified as Non-chordate.
2. It is included in class Insecta of phylum Arthropoda.
3. Butterfly has three pairs of legs and two pairs of chitinous wings.
4. Butterfly is a diurnal (active during day) insect.
5. Butterfly lays eggs which hatch into larva. Larva develops into pupa and pupa metamorphoses into an adult.

Bat:

1. Bat is classified as a Chordate.
2. It is included in class Mammalia of subphylum Vertebrata.
3. Bat has one pair of legs and a pair of patagium which are used for flying. Patagium has bones.
4. Bat is a nocturnal (active at night) mammal.
5. Bat is a viviparous animal that gives birth to live young ones. Young ones are fed by milk secreted by mammary glands.

d. To which phylum does Cockroach belong? Justify your answer with scientific reasons.
Answer:
(1) Cockroach belongs to the phylum Arthropoda and class Insecta.
(2) Scientific reasons for placement of Cockroach in the phylum Arthropoda:

• The body is covered by chitinous exoskeleton.
• Jointed appendages present, three pairs of walking legs and two pairs of membranous wings.
• Body is eucoelomate, triploblastic, bilaterally segmented and segmented.
• Respiration by spiracles and tracheal tubes.

Question 6.
Give scientific reasons.
a. Though tortoise lives on land as well as in water, it cannot be included in class-Amphibia.
Answer:

• When tortoise lives on the land, it respires with the help of lungs.
• When in water, it puts out its nares (nasal openings) out of the water and breathes air.
• It cannot take up oxygen dissolved in water. In both the habitats it respires with the help of lungs. In case of true amphibians, this is not the case.
• They can breathe in water with the help of skin and on land with the help of lungs.
• Tortoise also has exo-skeleton which is lacking in Amphibia. Therefore, tortoise cannot be included in class Amphibia.

b. Our body irritates if it comes in contact with jellyfish.
Answer:

• Jellyfish is a coelenterate that has cnidoblasts bearing tentacles.
• These cnidoblasts inject toxins to paralyse the prey at the time of feeding.
• When jellyfish comes in contact with our body, this toxin is released causing reaction to our skin.
• Therefore, our body gets irritation when we come in contact with jellyfish.

c. All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates.
Answer:

• All chordates possess notochord in some period of their development.
• All vertebrates also have notochord during embryonic life, which is later replaced by vertebral column.
• Therefore all vertebrates are chordates.
• But some chrodate’s like Urochordata and cephalochordata do not possess vertebral column and hence they are not vertebrates.

d. Balanoglossus is connecting link between non-chordates and chordates.
Answer:

• Balanoglossus shows some characters of non-chordates.
• It also has notochord as in case of chordates.
• Since it shares the characters of non-chordates and chordates, from the view point of evolution, it is called connecting link between them.

e. Body temperature of reptiles is not constant. (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Answer:

1. Reptiles are cold-blooded animals.
2. The thermoregulatory system is not there in their bodies.
3. Their body temperatures, fluctuate as per the environmental temperatures.
4. Therefore, the body temperature is not maintained at constant level in reptiles.

Question 7.
Answer the following questions by choosing correct option.
a. Which special cells are present in the body of sponges (Porifera)?
1. Collar cells
2. Cnidoblasts
3. Germ cells
4. Ectodermal cells
Answer:
1. Collar cells
Explanation: Porifera animals are attached to the substratum. They do not show locomotion. For gathering and catching the food, they need to produce a current in the water. For this purpose, they have characteristic collar cells in their body. Germ cells and ectodermal cells are seen in all other phyla. Cnidoblasts are characteristic feature of coelenterates.

b. Which of the following animals’ body shows bilateral symmetry?
1. Starfish
2. Jellyfish
3. Earthworm
4. Sponge
Answer:
3. Earthworm
Explanation: When an imaginary plane passing through only one axis can divide the body into two equal halves, then it is called bilateral symmetry. Such symmetry is shown only by earthworm. Sponge body is asymmetrical while starfish and jellyfish are radially symmetrical.

c. Which of the following animals can regenerate it’s broken body part?
1. Cockroach
2. Frog
3. Sparrow
4. Starfish
Answer:
4. Starfish
Explanation: Cockroach, sparrow and frog cannot perform regeneration. Only echinoderms show power of regeneration. So only starfish can regenerate its broken part.

d. Bat is included in which class?
1. Amphibia
2. Reptilia
3. Aves
4. Mammalia
Answer:
4. Mammalia
Explanation: Bat gives birth to young ones and they also possess mammary glands. Amphibia, Reptilia and Aves do not show such features. Therefore, bat is included in Mammalia.

Question 8.

Body cavity	Germ Layer	Phylum
Absent	_____________	Porifera
Absent	Triploblastic	_____________
Pseudocoelom	_____________	Aschelminthes
Present	_____________	Arthropoda

Answer:

Body cavity	Germ Layer	Phylum
Absent	Diploblastic	Porifera
Absent	Triploblastic	Platyhelminthes
Pseudocoelom	Triploblastic	Aschelminthes
Present	Triploblastic	Arthropoda

Question 9.

Type	Character	Examples
Cyclostomata	……………	……………
……………	Gill respiration	……………
Amphibia	……………	……………
……………	……………	Whale, Cat, Man
……………	Poikilotherms	……………

Answer:

Type	Character	Examples
Cyclostomata	Jawless mouth with suckers	Petromyzon, Myxine
Pisces	Gill respiration	Pomfret, Sea horse, Shark
Amphibia	Moist skin without exoskeleton	Frog, Toad, Salamander
Mammalia	Mammary glands	Whale, Cat, Man
Reptilia	Poikilotherms	Tortoise, Lizard, Snake

Question 10.
Sketch, labell and classify.
1. Hydra.
Answer:

Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Division: Non-chordata
Phylum: Coelenterata
Example: Hydra

2. Jellyfish
Answer:

Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Division: Non-chordata
Phylum: Coelenterata
Example: Jellyfish

3. Planaria
Answer:

Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Division: Non-chordata
Phylum: Platyhelminthes
Example: Planaria

4. Roundworm
Answer:

Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Division: Non-Chordata
Phylum: Aschelminthes
Example: Ascaris (Roundworm)

5. Butterfly
Answer:

Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Division: Non-chordata
Phylum: Arthopoda
Class: Insecta
Example: Butterfly

6. Earthworm
Answer:

Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Division: Non-chordata
Phylum: Annelida
Example: Earthworm

7. Octopus
Answer:

Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Division: Non-chordata
Phylum: Mollusca
Example: Octopus

8. star fish
Answer:

Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Division: Non-chordata
Phylum: Echinodermata
Example: Star fish

9. Shark
Answer:

Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Phylum: Chordata
Sub Phylum: Vertebrata
Class: Pisces
Example: Scoliodon (Shark)

10. Frog
Answer:

Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Phylum: Chordata
Sub Phylum: Vertebrata
Class: Amphibia
Example: Frog

11. Wall Lizard
Answer:

Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Phylum: Chordata
Sub Phylum: Vertebrata
Class: Reptilia
Example: Wall Lizard

12. Pigeon.
Answer:

Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Phylum: Chordata
Sub-Phylum: Vertebrata
Class: Aves
Example: Pigeon

Question 11.

Answer:
(1) Jellyfish
(2) Nereis
(3) Flatworm/Planaria
(4) Bony fish.

Project: (Do it your self)

1. In each week, on a specific day of your convenience, observe the animals present around your school and residence. Perform this activity for six months. Keep date-wise record of your observations. After the observation period of six months, analyse your observations with respect to seasons. With the help of your teacher, classify the reported animals.

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 61)

Question 1.
Which criteria are used for classification of organisms?
Answer:
The living organisms are classified according to their basic characteristics, such as presence or absence of nucleus, unicellular body or multicellular body, presence or absence of cell wall and the mode of nutrition in them.

Question 2.
How are the plants classified?
Answer:
The plants are classified according to the following basis:

1. Presence or absence of the organs.
2. Presence or absence of separate

Use your brain power: (Text Book Page No. 74)

(A) Animals like gharial and crocodile live in water as well as on land. Are they amphibians or reptiles?
Answer:
Ghariyal and crocodile are reptiles. They can swim in water and crawl on land. But they can respire only with the help of lungs. Their breathing is through nostrils. Even when in water, they have to inhale and exhale by coming up to the surface of water for air. Amphibians can breathe through the skin when in water and by lungs when on land. They also have hard exoskeleton which amphibians do not have. Hence, ghariyal and crocodile are not amphibians, but they are reptiles.

(B) Animals like whale, walrus live in water (ocean). Are they included in Pisces or Mammalia?
Answer:
Whale and walrus are aquatic and marine mammals. They do not belong to class Pisces. They do not have gills to breathe in dissolved oxygen in water. Neither they have scales on the body nor can they lay eggs. Whales and walrus have mammary glands like all other mammals. They give birth to live young one. They breathe only with the help of lungs by putting their nostrils out of the water at surface. Hence they are included in Mammalia.

Choose the correct alternative and write its alphabet against the sub-question number:

Question 1.
System of classification based on evolution was brought into practice by ……….. and …………
(a) Darwin, Mendel
(b) Lamarck, De Vries
(c) Morgan, Mayor
(d) Dobzansky, Meyer
Answer:
(d) Dobzansky, Meyer

Question 2.
Artificial method of animal classification was proposed by ………….
(a) Aristotle
(b) Darwin
(c) Lamarck
(d) Whittaker
Answer:
(a) Aristotle

Question 3.
Animals attached to substratum are called ……….. animals.
(a) sessile
(b) sedentary
(c) lame
(d) motionless
Answer:
(b) sedentary

Question 4.
In coelenterates, ………… are useful for capturing the prey whereas ………. inject the toxin in the body of prey.
(a) tentacles, cnidoblast
(b) hands, legs
(c) flagella, sting
(d) cilia, sting cells
Answer:
(a) tentacles, cnidoblast

Question 5.
Body of annelidan animals is long, cylindrical and …………. segmented.
(a) annular
(b) metamerically
(c) jointed
(d) cuticular
Answer:
(b) metamerically

Question 6.
…………. is second largest phylum in animal kingdom.
(a) Mollusca
(b) Arthropoda
(c) Porifera
(d) Platyhelminthes
Answer:
(a) Mollusca

Question 7.
Endoskeleton of Cyclostomata animals is …………..
(a) bony
(b) bony and cartilaginous
(c) cartilaginous
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) cartilaginous

Question 8.
Body cavity between the body and internal organs is called ………….
(a) gastrocoel
(b) enteron
(c) coelom
(d) cave
Answer:
(c) coelom

Question 9.
Larvae of ……….. metamorphose into adults after settling down at bottom of the sea.
(a) Hemichdrdata
(b) Urochordata
(c) Cephalochordata
(d) Cyclostomata
Answer:
(b) Urochordata

Question 10.
The body organization of unicellular organisms is of …………. grade.
(a) cellular
(b) tissue
(c) protoplasmic
(d) organ
Answer:
(c) protoplasmic

Question 11.
………….. is a cold blooded animal. (March 2019)
(a) Bat
(b) Snake
(c) Rabbit
(d) Elephant
Answer:
(b) Snake

Question 12.
Calcareous spines are present on the body of ………… animal. (July 2019)
(a) fish
(b) snail
(c) sponge
(d) starfish
Answer:
(d) starfish

Question 13.
Due to which similar characteristic honey bee and cockroach are included in the same phylum?
(a) Wings
(b) Three pair of legs
(c) Jointed appendages
(d) Antenna
Answer:
(c) Jointed appendages

Write whether the following statements are true or false with proper explanation:

Question 1.
Greek philosopher Linnaeus was the first to perform the animal classification.
Answer:
False. (Greek philosopher Aristotle was the first to perform the animal classification.)

Question 2.
Heart if present in the non-chordates is on dorsal side of body.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Arthropoda animals bear numerous pores on their body.
Answer:
False. (Porifera animals bear numerous pores on their body.)

Question 4.
Porifera animals have special type of collar cells.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
Aschelminthes have acoelomate and bilaterally symmetrical body.
Answer:
False. (Platyhelminthes have acoelomate and bilaterally symmetrical body. OR Aschelminthes have pseudocoelomate and bilaterally symmetrical body.

Question 6.
Planet Earth has highest number of animals from phylum Arthropoda.
Answer:
True.

Question 7.
Animals belonging to phylum Annelida perform locomotion with the help of tube-feet.
Answer:
False. (Animals belonging to phylum Echinodermata perform locomotion with the help of tube-feet.)

Question 8.
Herdmania has notochord in only tail region and hence it is called Urochordate.
Answer:
True.

Question 9.
Mammals breathe with the help of lungs.
Answer:
True.

Question 10.
Amphibians are warm blooded.
Answer:
False. (Amphibians are cold-blooded. OR Mammals are warm blooded.)

Match the columns:

Question 1.

Phylum	Characteristics
(1) Mollusca	(a) Collar cells
(2) Hemichordata	(b) Mantle
	(c) Trunk
	(d) Cnidoblasts

Answer:
(1) Mollusca – Mantle
(2) Hemichordata – Trunk.

Question 2.

Phylum	Characteristics
(1) Porifera	(a) Tunic
(2) Coelenterata	(b) Collar cells
	(c) Tentacles bearing cnidoblasts
	(d) Mantle

Answer:
(1) Porifera – Collar cells
(2) Coelenterata – Tentacles bearing cnidoblasts.

Question 3.

Subphylum/Class	Characteristics
(1) Cyclostomata	(a) Collar cells
(2) Urochordat	(b) Sucker
	(c) Tunic
	(d) Chitinous exoskeleton

Answer:
(1) Cyclostomata – Sucker
(2) Urochordata – Tunic.

Find the odd one out:

Question 1.
Physalia, Hyalonema, Ruplectella, Spongilla
Answer:
Physalia. (Physalia belongs to Coelenterata, all the remaining are poriferans.)

Question 2.
Planaria, Liverfluke, Filarial worm, Tapeworm
Answer:
Filarial worm. (Filarial worm is Aschelminthes remaining are Platyhelminthes.)

Question 3.
Star fish, Sea-urchin, Nereis, Sea-cucumber
Answer:
Nereis. (Nereis belongs to Annelida all the remaining are Echinoderm animals.)

Question 4.
Cockroach, Butterfly, Spider, Honey bee
Answer:
Spider. (Spider is eight-legged Arachnid, remaining are insects.)

Question 5.
Amphioxus, Herdmania, Doliolum,Oikopleura
Answer:
Amphioxus. (Amphioxus is Cepholochordate all the remaining are Urochordates.)

Question 6.
Frog, Tortoise, Toad, Salamander
Answer:
Tortoise. (Tortoise is a reptile, the remaining are amphibians.)

Question 7.
Tube feet, Setae, Parapodia, Sucker
Answer:
Tube feet. (Tube feet are locomotory organs of Echinoderms, the remaining are locomotory organs of Annelids.)

Question 8.
Shark, Sting ray, Electric ray, Pomfret
Answer:
Pomfret. (Pomfret is a bony fish, all the remaining are cartilaginous fish.)

Find the correlation:

Question 1.
Annelida : Earthworm : : Platyhelminthes : …………
Answer:
Annelida : Earthworm : : Platyhelminthes : Planaria/Liverfluke

Question 2.
Horse : Mammal : : Seahorse : ………….
Answer:
Horse : Mammal : : Seahorse : Pisces

Question 3.
Parapodia : Annelida : : Tube feet : ………..
Answer:
Parapodia : Annelida : : Tube feet : Echinodermata

Question 4.
Frog : Amphibia : : Turtle : …………..
Answer:
Frog : Amphibia : : Turtle : Reptilia

Question 5.
Proboscis : Hemichordata : : Suctorial mouth : …………
Answer:
Proboscis : Hemichordata : : Suctorial mouth : Cyclostomata

Question 6.
Bird from very cold regions : Penguin : : Aquatic Mammal from very cold regions : ………..
Answer:
Bird from very cold regions : Penguin : : Aquatic Mammal from very cold regions : Whale.

Distinguish between:

Question 1.
Non-chordates and Chordates.
Answer:
Non-chordates

1. Non-chordates are less evolved animals and are on the lower levels of evolution.
2. Non-chordates do not have notochord.
3. In non-chordates, there are no pharyngeal gill slits.
4. Nerve cord, if present is double and solid.
5. Nerve cord is located on the ventral side of the body.
6. Heart if present is on the dorsal side of the body.

Chordates:

1. Chordates are more evolved animals and are on the higher levels of evolution.
2. Chordates have notochord at least in some stage of development.
3. In chordates, there are pharyngeal gill slits.
4. Nerve cord is single and hollow.
5. Nerve cord is located on the dorsal side of the body.
6. Heart if present is on the ventral side of the body.

Question 2.
Phylum Platyhelminthes and Phylum Aschelminthes. OR Write any two points of differences between flat worms and round worms.
Answer:
Phylum Platyhelminthes (Flat worms):

1. Platyhelminth worms have slender and flat leaf or strip like body hence called flat worms.
2. Platyhelminthes are triploblastic and acoelomate.
3. Most of them are hermaphrodite or bisexual having both male and female reproductive systems in the same body.
4. Examples: Planaria, Liver fluke, Tapeworm, etc.

Phylum Aschelminthes (Round worms):

1. Aschelminthes have long thread-like or Cylindrical body, hence called round worms.
2. Aschelminthes are triploblastic and pseudocoelomate.
3. They are unisexual with male and female sexes separate. There is sexual dimorphism.
4. Examples: Ascaris (Intestinal worm), Filarial worm, Loa loa (Eye worm), etc.

Question 3.
Urochordata and Cephalochordata.
Answer:
Urochordata:

1. Urochordates have notochord in the tail region of the adult body.
2. These animals look like small sacs.
3. Usually urochordates are hermaphrodites.
4. Body of urochordate is covered over by skin-like test or tunic.
5. Examples: Herdmania, Doliolum, Oikopleura, etc.

Cephalochordata:

1. Cephalochrodates have notochord in the entire length of the body.
2. These animals look like small fish.
3. Cephalochordates are unisexual.
4. Body of cephalochordate is not covered in a test.
5. Example: Amphioxus.

Question 4.
Cyclostomata and Pisces.
Answer:
Cyclostomata:

1. Cyclostomata are the poorly evolved first class of vertebrate animals.
2. Cyclostomata have circular jawless mouth with suckers.
3. Paired appendages are absent in cyclostomates.
4. Cyclostomes have soft skin which is without any scales.
5. Endoskeleton is cartilaginous.
6. Examples: Petromyzon, Myxine, etc.

Pisces:

1. Pisces are the better evolved class of vertebrates which is well adapted for aquatic living.
2. Pisces have mouth with upper and lower jaws. Teeth are present in the mouth.
3. Paired and unpaired fins present in all kinds of fishes.
4. Fishes have different types of scales on the body.
5. Endoskeleton may be cartilaginous, or it may be bony.
6. Examples: Shark (Scoliodoh), rays which are cartilaginous fishes and pomfret, makerel, sardines, rohu which are bony fishes.

Question 5.
Amphibia and Reptilia.
Answer:
Amphibia:

1. Amphibians can inhabit both land and water. They can survive on both environments by breathing there.
2. The exoskeleton is absent in amphibians. The skin is soft, slimy and moist.
3. Body is divided into head and trunk. Neck is absent.
4. The digits do not have claws.
5. The respiration is by skin when in water and by lungs when on land. The larvae breathe by gills.
6. There is external fertilization at the time of sexual reproduction.
7. The developmental stages are eggs and tadpole. Metamorphosis is seen in amphibians.
8. Examples : Frog, Toad, Salamander, etc.

Reptilia:

1. Reptilians are terrestrial animals. Though turtle and sea snakes can stay in water, they cannot breathe in water.
2. The exoskeleton in the form of scales. Some animals have plates or scutes (e.g. tortoise and crocodile).
3. Body is divided into head, neck and trunk.
4. The digits have claws.
5. The respiration is only by lungs.
6. There is internal fertilization at the time of sexual reproduction.
7. The developmental stages are eggs and juvenile. Metamorphosis is not seen in reptiles.
8. Examples : Tortoise, Lizard, Snake, etc.

Question 6.
Aves and Mammalia.
Answer:
Aves:

1. Aves are totally adapted for the aerial mode of life.
2. Body is spindle shaped. Body is divisible into head, neck and trunk. There are two pairs of limbs. The forelimbs are modified to form wings for flight.
3. Digits have scales and claws.
4. The exoskeleton is in the form of feathers.
5. Jaws are modified into a beak.
6. Birds are oviparous. The eggs hatch into nestlings.
7. The incubation of eggs and feeding of nestlings is done by both parents.
8. Examples: Crow, Sparrow, Peacock, Parrot, Pigeon, Duck, Penguin, etc.

Mammalia:

1. Mammals are adapted for terrestrial life.
2. Body is not spindle shaped. It is divisible into head, neck, trunk and tail. There are two pairs of limbs. They are adapted for walking or running on the ground.
3. Digits have nails or hoofs. Few have claws.
4. The exoskeleton is in the form of fur, hair, wool, etc.
5. Jaws have teeth and they surround the mouth.
6. Mammals are viviparous. They give birth to live young ones. (Exception: Platypus)
7. Parental care is shown only by mother, who feeds, the babies with milk from mammary glands.
8. Examples: Cat, Dog, Tiger, Lion, Elephant, Human, Kangaroo, Dolphin, Bat, etc.

Classification-based questions:

Question 1.
Identify me:
(1) I am metamerically segmented, blood sucking, ectoparasite. I have suckers. Who am I and to what phylum do I belong to? (OR) Who am I? (July 2019)
I have suckers. I am blood sucking.
Answer:
Leech, Phylum Annelida.

(2) I have chitinous exoskeleton, I have four pairs of walking appendages. I can sting you. Who am I? What phylum do I belong to?
Answer:
Scorpion. Phylum Arthropoda.

Question 2.
Characters of a phylum are given below. Read them carefully and answer the questions:
(a) Spines of calcium carbonate are present on the body, (b) These animals are exclusively marine, (c) They perform the locomotion with the help of tube feet, (d) Their skeleton is made up of calcareous plates or spicules.
(i) Animals of which phylum show the above character?
Answer:
Animals belonging to phylum Echinodermata show the above characters.

(ii) Give an example from that phylum.
Answer:
Starfish, brittlestar, sea urchin.

(iii) These animals can be classified with the help of which criteria of new system of animals classification.
Answer:
Animals are classified on the basis of criteria such as body organization, body symmetry, body cavity, etc.

Question 3.
Identify my class/phylum and give one example of it: (March 2019)
(a) I have mammary glands and exoskeleton in the form of hair.
(b) We form the highest number of animals on the planet. We have bilateral symmetry and our exoskeleton is in the form of chitin.
(c) I live in your small intestine, my body is long and thread like and pseudocoelomate.
Answer:
(a) Class: Mammalia, Example: Cat, Dog, Man.
(b) Phylum: Arthropoda, Example: Prawn, Crab.
(c) Phylum: Aschelminthes, Example: Ascaris or round worm, Filarial worm.

Question 4.
Tell me who am I? What is my class/ phylum?
1. My body is divided into proboscis, collar and trunk. I am marine animal.
Answer:
Balanoglossus; Phylum: Hemichordata.

2. I stay inside two shells. My body is divided into head, foot and visceral mass.
Answer:
Bivalve or Oyster; Phylum: Mollusca.

3. I am male as well as female. I am endoparasite having a coelomate and bilaterally symmetrical and flattened body.
Answer:
Liver fluke or tape worm; Phylum: Platyhelminthes.

4. I am sedentary marine animal drinking water all the time through numerous pores on the body.
Answer:
Sponge; Phylum: Porifera.

5. I am venomous, eight legged creature having chitinous exoskeleton.
Answer:
Scorpion; Phylum: Arthropoda.

6. My body is covered by tunic. As a larva I swim but as an adult I settle down.
Answer:
Doliolum or Salpa; Phylum: Chordata subphylum : Urochordata.

Question 5.
Identify the class of given animals and write one characteristic of each animal:
(1) Kangaroq (2) Penguin (3) Crocodile (4) Frog (5) Sea-horse. (July 2019)
Answer:
(1) Kangaroo: Class Mammalia. It is a marsupial animal with pouch for development of offspring. Long hind limbs for jumping.
(2) Penguin: Class Aves. It is flightless bird. Body covered with thick feathery coat. Oviparous mode.
(3) Crocodile: Class Reptilia. It is a large animal seen near water bodies. Can swim in water but cannot respire in water. Body covered with exoskeleton of scaly plates. Limbs very weak in comparison with huge bodies.
(4) Frog: Class Amphibia. Shows aquatic as well as terrestrial mode. Can breathe with lungs and skin. No exoskeleton and skin is slimy.
(5) Sea-horse: Class Pisces. Bony fish. Highly modified body structure showing brood pouch for development of offspring gills for respiration, fins for swimming.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
State any four benefits of animal classification. (March 2019)
Answer:

1. Studying the different animals becomes easy when they are placed under different groups.
2. When few representative animals of the particular group are studied then the idea about other animals belonging to that group also becomes clear.
3. The animal evolution becomes easier to follow after studying classification.
4. The identification of animals can be done accurately.
5. Relationship of the different animals with each other and with other groups can be understood clearly.
6. Habitat of each animal and its role in nature is understood by classification.
7. Various adaptations are understood by learning classification.

Question 2.
Into which phyla is Non-chordata divided? In which three subphyla are Chordates divided?
Answer:
I. The phyla of Non-chordata:

• Protozoa
• Porifera
• Coelenterata or Cnidaria
• Platyhelminthes
• Aschelminthes
• Annelida
• Arthropoda
• Mollusca
• Echinodermata
• Hemichordata

II. The subphyla of Chordata:

• Urochordata
• Cephalochordata
• Vertebrata

Question 3.
Write the characteristics of chordates.
Answer:
Characteristics of Chordates:

1. All chordates possess notochord and pharyngeal gill slits in at least during some developmental stage.
2. Presence of single, tubular and dorsally located spinal cord and ventrally located heart.

Question 4.
Write the characteristics of vertebrates.
Answer:
Characteristics of vertebrates:

• In vertebrates, notochord is replaced by vertebral column.
• Development of head is complete.
• Well-developed cranium which protects the brain.
• Presence of endoskeleton which is either cartilaginous or bony.
• Presence of jaws as in Gnathostomata or absence of jaws as in Agantha.

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
(1) Benefits of classification.
Answer:

• Studying the different animals becomes easy when they are placed under different groups.
• When few representative animals of the particular group are studied then the idea about other animals belonging to that group also becomes clear.
• The animal evolution becomes easier to follow after studying classification.
• The identification of animals can be done accurately.
• Relationship of the different animals with each other and with other groups can be understood clearly.
• Habitat of each animal and its role in nature is understood by classification.
• Various adaptations are understood by learning classification.

Question 2.
Germinal layers.
Answer:

• During the initial embryonic period of any multicellular animal there is formation of germinal layers or germ layer.
• These germ layers give rise to new tissues in the developing animal.
• The primitive animals were diploblastic i.e. they have only two germ layers called ectoderm and endoderm.
• The higher animals are triploblastic, having three germ layers; ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm.
• Cnidarians are diploblastic while all other animals are triploblastic.

Question 3.
Coelom.
Answer:

• Coelom means body cavity. It is situated between the body wall and the internal organs of the body.
• The coelom is formed during early embryonic life in case of multicellular animals. It is formed from either mesoderm or gut.
• Coelom when present in the body, those animals are called eucoelomate. Phylum Annelida onwards are eucoelomate animals. They are animals with true body cavity.
• Those animals in which coelom are absent are called acoelomate animals. Porifera, Cnidaria and Platyhelminthes are acoelomate animals.
• When coelom is not formed from mesoderm or gut, but formed from other tissues, it is called pseudocoelom. Only Aschelminthes animals have such coelom and hence they are called pseudocoelomate.

Question 4.
Notochord.
Answer:

• Notochord is an important feature of Chordates.
• Notochord is supporting rod like structure.
• This structure is present on the dorsal side of the animals.
• It keeps the nervous tissue separated from the rest of the tissues.
• In Hemichordates, the notochord is present in the proboscis.
• In Urochordates, the notochord is present in the tail region of the free swimming larvae.
• In Cephalochordates, the notochord lies throughout the length of the body.
• In vertebrates, notochord is replaced by the vertebral column.

Complete the paragraph by choosing the appropriate words given in the brackets:

Question 1.
(Linnaeus, Dobzhansky, Carl Woese, Theophrastus, Artificial method, Aristotle, Natural system, Traditional system)
Time to time, different scientists have tried to classify the animals. Greek philosopher ………… was the first to perform the animal classification. Aristotle classified the animals, according to the criteria like body size, habits and habitats. Classification proposed by Aristotle is known as ………… Besides Aristotle, artificial method of classification was followed by ……….., Pliny, John Ray and ……….. Later on,’………… of classification’ was followed. Natural system of classification was based on various other criteria. By the time, system of classification based on evolution was also brought into practice. It was used by …………. and Meyer. Recently, ……….. has also proposed the animal classification.
Answer:
Time to time, different scientists have tried to classify the animals. Greek philosopher Aristotle was the first to perform the animal classification. Aristotle classified the animals, according to the criteria like body size, habits and habitats. Classification proposed by Aristotle is known as ‘Artificial method’. Besides Aristotle, artificial method of classification was followed by Theophrastus, Pliny, John Ray and Linnaeus. Later on, ‘Natural system of classification’ was followed. Natural system of classification was based on various other criteria. By the time, system of classification based on evolution was also brought into practice. It was used by Dobzansky and Meyer. Recently, Carl Woese has also proposed the animal classification.

Question 2.
(neck, lungs, skin, exoskeleton, amphibian, metamorphose, aquatic, gills)
Class Amphibia consist of animals which are strictly ……….. only during their larval stages. At that time they breathe through their …………. Tadpoles are such stages which later ………… to form adult frog. Adult frog respires with the help of ………… when in water and with when on land. Thus, it is a true …………. For performing cutaneous respiration, i.e. respiration through skin, they lack ………. in any form. The skin is also kept moist by staying near the water bodies. Amphibians do not have a ………… but eyes are bulging and prominent, this solves the problems of vision.
Answer:
Class Amphibia consist of animals which are strictly aquatic only during their larval stages. At that time they breathe through their gills. Tadpoles are such stages which later metamorphose to form adult frog. Adult frog respires with the help of skin when in water and with lungs when on land. Thus, it is a true amphibian. For performing cutaneous respiration, i.e. respiration through skin, they lack exoskeleton in any form. The skin is also kept moist by staying near the water bodies. Amphibians do not have a neck but eyes are bulging and prominent, this solves the problems of vision.

Paragraph based questions:

1. Read the paragraph and answer the questions given below:
Locomotion is considered as an important j characteristics of the animals. However, animals belonging to Porifera are said to be sedentary. Every 1 other phylum has typical locomotory organs. E.g. Nereis crawls with the help of parapodia, whereas earthworm buries in soil by setae. Spiders have four pairs of walking legs, crab has five while all insects have three pairs of walking legs. The walking legs are also called appendages. Starfish moves with the help of tube feet. Snails and bivalves use muscular foot for locomotion. Birds flying with their spread out wings and fish swimming with their fins, both have spindle-shaped body tapering at both the ends. While flying or swimming such body offers least resistance during locomotion. Mammals have two pairs of limbs while animals like snakes are limbless. Other animals belonging to the class of snakes also have very weak limbs which make them creep on the ground.

Questions and Answers:

Question 1.
What are the locomotory organs in phylum Annelida?
Answer:
Annelidans have parapodia and setae as the locomotory organs.

Question 2.
Which phylum has a characteristic of jointed appendages?
Answer:
Phylum Arthropoda has a characteristic of jointed appendages.

Question 3.
Which the locomotory organ of animals belong to Phylum Mollusca?
Answer:
Animals belonging to Phylum Mollusca have strong muscular foot which is used for locomotion.

Question 4.
Which class of animals show weak legs?
Answer:
Class Reptilia belonging to subphylum vertebrata show weak legs.

Question 5.
In which class of animals the forelimbs are modified?
Answer:
Class Aves belonging to subphylum vertebrata have wings which are modified forelimbs.

Diagram based questions:

Question 1.
Sketch, label and classify the following organisms:
1. Liverfluke.
Answer:

Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Division: Non-chordata
Phylum: Platyhelminthes
Example: Liverfluke

2. Leench.
Answer:

Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Division: Non-chordata
Phylum: Annelida
Example: Leech

3. Cockroach:
Answer:

Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Division: Non-chordata
Phylum: Arthopoda
Class: Insecta
Example: Cockroach

Question 2.
Identify the animal given in the figure and label the figure:
1.

Answer:
Balanoglossus

2.

Answer:
Herdmania.

3.

Answer:
Amphioxus

4.

Answer:
Petromyzon.

5.

Answer:
bat

Question 3.
Identify the class of the animal shown in the figure and write any two characteristics.
Answer:
(1) The animal shown in the figure is bat.
(2) It belongs to class Mammalia of Subphylum Vertebrata. Phylum Chordata.
(3) Characteristics:
(i) Body is divided into head, neck, torso and tail. Patagium present for the flying mode. Nocturnal in habit. It is warm blooded.
(ii) Gives birth to live young ones. Mammary glands present for nourishing young ones.

Question 4.
Observe the figure and answer the following questions.

(a) To which phylum these organisms belong?
(b) Name the substance with which their body is covered.
(c) Name their organs of locomotion.
Answer:
(a) The starfish and the sea urchin shown in the figure belong to phylum Echinodermata.
(b) The body of echinoderm animal is covered with calcareous spines or ossicles/plates.
This is the substance covering the body is mostly calcium salts and compounds.
(c) Their locomotory organs are tube feet.

Question 5.
Observe the figures given below and answer the given questions: (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)

(a) In which phylum are these animals included?
(b) Which substance forms the outer layer of their exoskeleton?
(c) What are their locomotory organs?
Answer:
(a) These animals are included in phylum Arthropoda.
(b) The outer layer of their exoskeleton is covered by chitinous substance.
(c) Their locomotory organs are jointed paired appendages.

Question 6.
Identify the phylum of the given animal and write any two characteristics of this phylum. (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Answer:

This animal is Sycon sponge and its phylum in Porifera.
Characteristics of phylum Porifera
(a) Asymmetrical body.
(b) Many pores on body. Large osculum and smaller ostia.

Question 7.
(a) Identify the animal given here.
(b) Write the phylum to which it belongs.
(c) Identify the pointed parts; p, q, r and s.

Answer:
(a) The given animal is Octopus.
(b) It belongs to the phylum Mollusca.
(c) p = eye, q = sucker, s = siphon and r = tentacle.

Complete the following charts:

Question 1.
Complete the chart by taking into consideration the criteria for classification: (Text Book Page No. 61)

Answer:

Question 2.
Complete the following flow-chart.

Answer:
(A) Eukaryotes
(B) Monera.

Activity based questions:

Question 1.
Observe: (Text Book Page No. 65)
(1) Body organization of human has been shown in the following figure. Use appropriate labels for different organs present in human body.

Answer:
There are different organs in the human body. The liver, pancreas, stomach, intestine, etc. related to the digestive system and a pair of kidney concerned with excretion is present in the abdominal cavity. The cranial cavity shows brain and sense organs. In the thoracic cavity there are lungs and heart. In addition to these organs, there are network of blood capillaries, nerve network, etc. which is spread from head to toes.

Question 2.
Why is earthworm called as friend of farmers? (Get Information: Text Book Page No. 69)
Answer:
Earthworms move through the soil in the farms and fields. They feed on the detritus in the soil. They also help in decomposition of the organic matter. When the soil is loosened due to their activities, the roots of the crops grow well. They enrich the soil by their excreta which act as fertilizers. All these facts make earthworm, a farmer’s friend.

Question 3.
In what way the leech is used in ayurvedic system of treatment? (Get Information: Text Book Page No. 69)
Answer:
Leeches are blood sucking ectoparasite. In Ayurveda leech is used to remove impure blood and blood clots. Such blood is sucked up by leeches and then the patient gets some relief. In the leech body there is. a substance called hirudine which prevent blood clotting as it sucks up the blood. This hirudine is also used for medicinal purpose.

Question 4.
What is chitin? (Find out: Text Book Page No. 70)
Answer:
Chitin is a type of polysaccharide. Its chemical formula is (C8H13O5N)n. It is a long-chain polymer of N-acetylglucosamine, which is actually a derivative of glucose. It is a primary component of cell walls in fungi, the exoskeletons of arthropods, such as crustaceans and insects. In many medicines chitin is used. The industrial processes and the biotechnological experiments also use chitin.

Question 5.
Let’s Think: (Text Book Page No. 70)
(i) What types of benefit and harm occur to human from animals of phylum-Arthropoda?
Answer:
Some insects are very useful for us. We get many products from them. e.g. Honey bee, Lac insect, Silk worm, are the insects that provide us with honey and wax, lac and silk respectively. The culture experiments are done on these insects for large scale production of these substances. Butterflies help in the pollination of crops and are thus helpful for the farmers and gardeners. Lady bug beetle is an insect which acts as a natural pest control as it attacks the other harmful insect pests.

In biological pest control methods it is widely used. Some insects, on the contrary are very harmful. Mosquito, bed bugs, lice are blood sucking parasites which can spread the diseases. Mosquito is a vector for dengue, filariasis and malaria. Some are biting insects that can cause wounds, some cause allergies of various kinds. The grains and crops are destroyed to great extent by the insects. In this way the insects belonging to the phylum Arthropods are harmful to health, wealth and peace of mind too.

(ii) Which are the animals from phylum Arthropoda those have shortest and longest life span?
Answer:
The shortest life span: May fly – About 24 hours. The longest life span : Lobster (Homarus americanus) – About 100 years.

(iii) Why has it been said that only insects directly compete with humans for food?
Answer:
The standing crop in the fields can be totally ruined by insects. The locust can damage the crops when they attack in thousands at a time. The grains are also infested by variety of insects like ants, weevils, beetles, etc. Therefore, we can say that only insects compete with humans for food.

Project: (Do it your self)

Project 1.
How does the infection of tapeworm in man, liver fluke in grazing animals like goat and sheep occur and what are their preventive measures? (Collect the Information, Internet is my friend: Textbook page no. 69)

Project 2.
How does the infection of round worms like Ascaris, filarial worm and plant nematodes occur and what are their preventive measures and treatment? (Collect the Information, Internet is my friend: Textbook page no. 69)

Project 3.
Books are my friend: Collect the information about pearl production from bivalves by reading appropriate books. (Textbook page no. 70)

Project 4.
Book are my friends: The Animal Kingdom: Libbie Hyman and some other similar books.
(Textbook page no. 75)

Project 5.
Use of Information Technology: (Textbook page no. 75)
Prepare the presentation of animal classification using video clips downloaded from internet.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 2.3 Connecting the Dots Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 English Kumarbharati Textbook Solutions Unit 2.3 Connecting the Dots

Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 2.3 Warming Up Questions and Answers

Question 1.
(A) Connect the dots to get what means a lot to you.

The word is ……………………………… .
Answer:

The word is SUN

(B) With your benchmark, use the letters given above to make a word register of ‘computers’. Set a time -limit of 5 minutes and compare your list with that of other classmates.
Answer:
AI, adobe, android, arithmetic, binary, browser, byte, bit, download, document, data, database, disk, format, http, hardware, homepage, java, keyboard, key, Microsoft, malware, memory, network, netscape, program, reboot, spam, spreadsheet, software, virus, web, windows, update, zip.

Question 2.
You are quite familiar with computers, especially the personal computer. Form pairs and make a list of famous computer manufacturing companies. One is given to you.
(a) Apple
(b) ……………………….
(c) ……………………….
(d) ……………………….
(e) ……………………….
(f) ……………………….
Answer:
(a) Apple
(b) Samsung
(c) IBM
(d) Lenovo
(e) Foxconn
(f) HP Inc.

Question 3.
Complete the web by filling the various benefits of computers.

Answer:

Question 4.
(A) Expand the following into their full forms.
(a) that’s
(b) didn’t
(c) here’s
(d) can’t
(e) I’ve
Answer:
(a) that’s – that is
(b) didn’t – did not
(c) here’s – here is
(d) can’t – cannot
(e) I’ve – I have

(B) Write the shortened forms of the following.
(a) You have ……………………….
(b) I would ……………………….
(c) It is ……………………….
(d) You are ……………………….
(e) He will ……………………….
(f) I had ……………………….
(g) will not ……………………….
(h) shall not ……………………….
(i) are not ……………………….
(j) need not ……………………….
(k) must not ……………………….
(l) ought not ……………………….
Answer:
(a) you have – you’ve
(b) I would – I’d
(c) it is – it’s
(d) you are – you’re
(e) he will – he’ll
(f) I had – rd
(g) will not – won’t
(h) shall not – shan’t
(i) arc not – aren’t
(j) need not – needn’t
(k) must not – mustn’t
(l) ought not – oughtn’t

Connecting the Dots Class 10 English Workshop Questions and Answers Maharashtra Board

Question 1.
(A) Rearrange the incidents in the life of Steve Jobs in chronological order.
(a) Steve Jobs started Next.
(b) Jobs underwent a surgery.
(c) Jobs learned about serif and sans serif type faces.
(d) Jobs returned to Apple Inc.
(e) Jobs married Laurene.
(f) Jobs was diagnosed with cancer.
(g) Jobs dropped out of Reed College.
Answer:
(a) Jobs started Next.
(b) Jobs underwent surgery.
(c) Jobs learned about serif and san serif typefaces.
(d) Jobs returned to Apple Inc.
(e) Jobs married Laurene.
(f) Jobs was diagnosed with cancer.
(g) Jobs dropped out of Reed College.

(B) Read the third story again. Complete the flow-chart given below.

Answer:

Question 2.
Read the lesson. Refer to a dictionary and match the words in column ‘A’ with their meanings in column ‘B’.

No	‘A’		‘B’
(a)	diagnosis	(i)	the power believed to control events
(b)	devastating	(ii)	complete list of items especially in a special order and description.
(c)	intuition	(iii)	act of identifying the nature of a problem or illness.
(d)	calligraphy	(iv)	power of understanding situations or people’s feelings before hand.
(e)	destiny	(v)	causing great destruction
(f)	catalogue	(vi)	beautiful handwriting done with a special pen or brush.

Answer:

No	‘A’		‘B’
(a)	diagnosis	(iii)	act of identifying the nature of a problem or illness.
(b)	devastating	(v)	causing great destruction
(c)	intuition	(iv)	power of understanding situations or people’s feelings before hand.
(d)	calligraphy	(vi)	beautiful handwriting done with a special pen or brush.
(e)	destiny	(a)	the power believed to control events
(f)	catalogue	(ii)	complete list of items especially in a special order and description.

Question 3.
Go through all the three stories. Identify some qualities of Steve Jobs and complete the web chart.

Answer:

Question 4.
Complete the following table.
‘The Three Stories in the Life of Steve Jobs’

	About	Setbacks	Reactions	Achievements and benefits
First story
Second story
Third story

Answer:

	About	Setbacks	Reac­tions	Achieve­ments and benefits
First story	College days	no boarding and lodging	managed with friends and at a temple	learnt calligraphy
Second story	starting ’Apple’	fired from the company	started a new company ‘Next’	most creative period; renaissance’ of ‘Apple’
Third story	death	diagnosed with cancer	surgery, cure	learnt not to waste time living someone else’s life

Question 5.
Say HOW?
→ the calligraphy classes helped Steve Jobs after 10 years.
Answer:
10 years later when Steve Jobs was designing the first Macintosh computer, he recalled what he had learned in the calligraphy classes about serif and san serif typefaces as well as other elements that go into great typography. He designed all this into the Macintosh computer.

→ You can connect dots.
Answer:
We can’t connect dots by looking forward; we can only connect them looking backwards. We have to trust that the dots will somehow connect in our destiny.

→ Jobs reacted later on, after the shock of being fired from Apple.
Answer:
After he overcame the shock of being fired from Apple, Jobs felt the lightness of being a beginner again. He felt free to enter one of the most creative periods of his life. He started two companies – Next and Pixar.

→ Jobs was cured of a rare cancer.
Answer:
Jobs was diagnosed with a very rare form of pancreatic cancer. It was curable by surgery. Jobs had the surgery and he was cured.

→ Jobs acquired the famous words ‘Stay Hungry. Stay Foolish’
Answer:
When Jobs was young, he used to read an amazing publication called The Whole Earth Catalogue’. In the final issue was a photograph of an early morning country road beneath which were the words ‘Stay Hungry, Stay Foolish’. Steve acquired these words from the magazine.

Question 6.
Besides those given at the end of the talk by Steve Jobs, pick out other pieces of advice that Jobs gives in his speech.
Answer:
(a) Learn to connect the dots.
(b) Learn whatever you can whenever you can.
(c) We can learn even from negative experiences.
(d) Have trust that somehow the dots will connect in your future.
(e) Have trust in your gut. destiny, life, karma, whatever …
(f) Love what you do.
(g) Keep looking for what you love and don’t ever settle for less.
(h) Even under the most devastating circumstances, you can start all over again.
(i) Don’t lose faith.
(j) Your time is limited, so don’t waste it lining someone else’s life.

Question 7.
(A) Use the following idioms/phrases in sentences of your own.
(a) drop in …………………..
(b) drop out …………………..
(c) stumble on …………………..
(d) look backwards …………………..
(e) look forward …………………..
(f) let (someone) down …………………..
(g) sign off …………………..
(h) begin anew …………………..
Answer:
(a) Though I am not a member of the club, I often play tennis there as a drop in.
(b) I decided to drop out of karate classes as it was taking too much of my time.
(c) While surfing the net, he stumbled into a portal that showed only horror movies.
(d) After his terrible experience in his native place, he went to the city and never looked backwards.
(e) He tried to forget his terrible experience in his native place and looked forward.
(f) He placed great trust in his secretary, and she never let him down.
(g) I would like to sign off by telling you a short story with a beautiful message.
(h) It is never too late to forget past mistakes and begin anew.

(B) Fill in the gaps in choosing the appropriate idioms.
(drown out, hits in the head with a brick, get one’s affairs in order, connect the dots, begin to dawn, stay hungry)
(a) The wealthy landlord made a will before he could die.
(b) Those who aspire for success should always to learn more.
(c) If you you will realise that crime ultimately leads to poverty.
(d) The siren of the ambulance all other traffic noise.
(e) When the father learned about his son’s misdeeds, it
(f) On reading exactly same essays in both answer sheets, it the examiner, that the students had cheated during exams.
Answer:
(a) Getting his affairs in order
(b) Stay hungry
(c) Connect the dots
(d) Drowned out
(e) It hit him on the head with a brick.
(f) Began to dawn on

Question 8.
(A) Name the Tense of the Verbs underlined to include Time (Past/Present/Future) and Aspect (Simple/Continuous/Perfect/Perfect Continuous)
(1) I slept on the floor
(2) We were designing the first Macintosh computer
(3) It had made all the difference
(4) I am fine, now
(5) I have been facing death
(6) I shall be telling you three stories
Answer:
(1) Time – Past; Aspect – Simple.
(2) Time – Past Tense; Aspect – Progressive (continuous).
(3) Time – Past tense Aspect – Perfect
(4) Time – Present; Aspect – Simple.
(5) Time – Present; Aspect – Perfect.
(6) Time – Future; Aspect – Progressive (continuous).

(B) Change the Tense as instructed.
(1) I got fired. (Future Perfect)
(2) Life hits you in the head. (Present Perfect Continuous)
(3) The dots will somehow connect. (Past Perfect)
(4) I started a company. (Present Continuous)
(5) My doctor advised me. (Past Perfect Continuous)
Answer:
(1) Jobs got fired.
(2) Life hits you in the head.
(3) The dots had somehow connected.
(4) I started a company.
(5) My doctor had been advising me.

Question 9.
Read the News item and write an application for a suitable job in the same company. Attach a seperate CV/Resume.
May 19, 2016
Apple Opens Development Office in Hyderabad
(A) The new office in Hyderabad will focus on development of maps, Apple products, like iPhone, iPad, Mac. etc. This will create upto 4000 jobs
Answer:

Answer:
Ratan Shah
11 Salsa Apts.
Hafeczpeth
Hyderabad
Telangana – 500 049.
27th May, 2020

The HR Manager
Apple Development Office
18-23, Rd Number 2
Financial District
Nanakram Guda
Hydcrabad
Telangana — 500 032.

Subject : Application for post of Systems Analyst ‘
Sir,
I read the news item in the Times of India’ dated May 20, which stated that Apple has opened a Development office in Hyderabad, which is likely to create up to 4000 jobs. I am interested in applying for the post of Systems Analyst.

I have a bachelor’s degree In Computer Information Systems (CIS) and 6 months experience in Cornputronic& Ltd. as Systems Analyst. I am well-versed in analyzing, designing and implementing Information Systems. I wish to further my prospects and hence am applying to your company.

I do hope that you will give me the opportunity to prove my mettle.

Yours truly,
Ratan Shah

Attachments: CV, photocopies of Academic and Professional Certificates
Resume:
Name: Ratan Shah
Age: 24 years
Educational Qualification: B.Com (1st class); B.Computer Science (CIS)
Experience: 6 months experience in Computronics Ltd. as Systems Analyst
Marital Status: Single
Special Interests: Chess, Football, Cycling
Contact information: Address as above
Mobile no.: 097

(B) Imagine you are already working as an Engineer in Apple Development Office, Hyderabad. Write an application for 2 weeks leave to the HR Manager as you have to undergo an urgent surgery.
Answer:
Ms. Sara Kanchwala
11 Salsa Apts.
Hafeezpeth
Hyderabad
Telangana 500 049.
3 September, 2020

The HR Manager,
Apple Development Office
18-23, Rd. Number 2
Financial District
Nanakram Guda
Hyderabad
Telangana – 500 032.

Subject : ApplicatIon’ for leave of absence due to Imminent surgery (4th September to 17th September)

Dear Sir,
I had a bad fall a couple of days back and tore a ligament ‘In my knee. The pain is Intense and my doctor has advised me that immediate surgery is necessary.

Please grant me 2 weeks medical leave as the doctor has advised a fortnight’s complete bed rest post-op. Thanking you in advance,

I remain,
Yours truly,
Sara Kanchwala

Question 10.
Prepare a speech on the title “The Will to Win” to be delivered before the class during a competition.
Hints –

• Title
• Introduction
• Objective and Illustrations
• Specific examples
• Purpose of the title.
• Sources/Resourses for implementation.
• Usefulness/Benefits
• Conclusion.

Answer:
The Will to Win

Friends,
The topic before us today is The Will to Win’. This title brings to my mind the story of the hare and the tortoise. When the hare challenged the tortoise to a race, the tortoise knew very well that its speed was in no way comparable to that of the hare. Yet this little animal agreed to the race. And why, may I ask you? Only because it had the will to win. Come what may, the tortoise had to prove to the hare that it could win if it wanted to. And finally it won!

This, in fact, is the driving force behind all great ventures and achievements. The Will to Win!

I remember the time when I went to Std. V. My father had been transferred from Agra to Bhusaval. A subject that I had trouble mastering was the language Marathi. Needless to say in the first term I flunked very badly. But I was a student who usually scored high marks in all subjects. This failure was devastating.

However, I did not let it faze me. I took great interest in class lessons. Read my Marathi textbook over and over. Made friends who spoke fluently in Marathi and ventured speaking to them. At first they poked fun at me. But within a month I had picked up the basic structure of the language and began writing answers to questions on my own. Believe it or not, at the end of the term I topped the class in Marathi. ; Today I can speak in the language as if it is my mother tongue.

Friends, my message to you today is that you can do anything. All you require is the will. If you have the will, the skill will follow. So set your goals, define your objectives and I wish all of you the very best in ; whatever you decide to do in life.

Be sure of one thing: If you have the will, You Will Win!

Thank you.

Question 11.
Project :
Collect more information about Steve Jobs with the help of Internet. Complete it with images into a file.

Question 12.
Do you remember doing some activities in your childhood that you didn’t like it. Form pairs and make a list of all those activities. Do you think, any one of these activities have helped you in solving your problems? Share your experience with the class.

• chopping vegetables:
• cleaning the home; sweeping and dusting
• hanging out clothes to dry
• looking after my little brother
• helping dad to repair the bicycle

Answer:
Once while driving home from school, the chain of my bicycle got dislodged and I almost fell off. There was no bicycle repair shop nearby and no passers-by were able to help me. Since I had experience helping dad to repair his bicycle, somehow I managed to get the chain fixed and wobbled back home. My hands were black and dirty with grease and oil, but at least I didn’t have to walk back home, pushing my bicycle along.

Question 13.
Write True or False for these statements: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
Answer:
(1) Steve Jobs slept in his dorm room. False
(2) Steve took his required courses as a registered student of Reed College. False
(3) During Steve’s College days, one had to pay 5 cents deposit for a Coke bdttle. True
(4) Steve ha’d comfortable college experiences. False

Question 14.
What basic course in Reed College helped while designing the Mac?
Answer:
The basic course of calligraphy in Reed College helped while designing the Mac.

Question 15.
Arrange the following incidents in Steve Jobs’ life in proper sequence based on this passage:
(a) Jobs stayed as a drop-in for 18 months.
(b) Jobs used to sleep on the floor in his friend’s house.
Answer:
(a) Jobs stayed as a drop-in for 18 months.
(b) Jobs used to sleep on the floor in his friend’s house.

Question 16.
Complete the following: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
(1) Steve’s first story is about connecting the dots.
(2) Steve got one good meal every Sunday night at the Hare Krishna temple.
Answer:
Connecting the dots.
Hare Krishna temple.

Question 17.
What did Steve Jobs do for two years after he joined Reed College?
Answer:
After joining Reed College, for two years Steve would stop taking the required classes that didn’t interest him. Instead he began dropping in on the ones that looked interesting.

Question 18.
List the hardships that Steve faced.
Answer:

• Steve didn’t have a dorm room and so had to sleep on the floor in friends’ rooms.
• Steve returned Coke bottles for the 5 cent deposits to buy food with.
• Steve would walk seven miles across town every Sunday night to get one good meal a week at the Hare Krishna temple.

Question 19.
Write from the passage a phrase that means ‘Apart from this, I have nothing more to tell.’
Answer:
That’s it.

Question 20.
Choose the correct contextual meaning of the phrase: connecting the dots.
(a) making a pattern with the help of dots
(b) associating one previous idea with other ideas that follow
(c) joining dots in a puzzle to get the correct picture
(d) understanding a procedure
Answer:
(b) associating one previous idea with other ideas that follow

Question 21.
Match the words in column A with their meanings in column B:

A		B
(i)	intuition	(a)	a set of characters like letters, symbols, etc. in one design
(ii)	calligraphy	(b)	the style and appearance of printed matter
(iii)	typography	(c)	power of understanding the feelings of people
(iv)	typeface	(d)	beautiful handwriting done with a special pen or brush

Answer:

(i)	intuition	(c)	power of understanding the feelings of people
(ii)	calligraphy	(d)	beautiful handwriting done with a special pen or brush
(iii)	ypography	(b)	the style and appearance of printed matter
(iv)	typeface	(a)	a set of characters like letters, symbols, etc. in one design

Question 22.
It was one of the best decisions I ever made. (Rewrite using ‘better than’.)
Answer:
It was better than most other decisions I ever made.

Question 23.
Personal Response: What impression of Steve Jobs do you get from this passage?
Answer:
In this passage, it appears that Steve Jobs is a student who goes by his impulses. He has a thirst for knowledge, but prefers subjects that he finds interesting and avoids those that he finds uninteresting, even though he has enrolled for them. He is ready to face all kinds of hardships in order to study what he wants to. Steve Jobs had a natural curiosity and intuition. He also had an instinct about what makes something really great and the habit of storing it away in his mind for future use.

Question 24.
Fill in the blanks: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
(1) Steve designed the Macintosh computer.
(2) Windows copied the Macintosh computer.
(3) It was impossible to connect the dots looking forward when Steve was in college.
(4) You can only connect the dots looking backward.
Answer:
(1) Macintosh
(2) Windows
(3) forward
(4) backward

Question 25.
Complete the following: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
(1) The Mac ‘computer which he designed would not have had multiple typefaces or proportionally spaced fonts.
(2) Since Windows just copied Mac, it was likely no personal computer would have had them.
Answer:
(1) not have had multiple typefaces or proportionally spaced fonts.
(2) no personal computer would have had them.

Question 26.
Complete the following: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
Words connected with typography from the passage are: typeface and font.
Answer:
typeface and font.

Question 27.
Match the words /phrases in column A with their meanings in column B:

(A)		(B)
(i)	gut	(a)	Macintosh computer.
(ii)	destiny	(b)	having several parts.
(iii)	Mac	(c)	the power believed to control events.
(iv)	multiple	(d)	courage and determination.

Answer:

A		B
(i)	gut	(d)	courage and determination
(ii)	destiny	(c)	the power believed to control events
(iii)	Mac	(a)	Macintosh computer
(iv)	multiple	(b)	having several parts

Question 28.
It was impossible to connect the dots looking forward. (Pick out the verbs and say if they are finite or non-finite.)
Answer:
was – finite; to connect, looking – non-finites

Question 29.
It was very clear. (Rewrite as an exclamatory sentence.)
Answer:
How clear it was!

Question 30.
Mac would never have had multiple typefaces. (Rewrite as an interrogative sentence.)
Answer:
Would Mac ever have had multiple typefaces?

Question 31.
Personal Response: Write about something which you learned in the past and which has helped you in the present.
Answer:
When I was in Std. V, mother enrol led me for dancing classes, I had to stop when I reached Std. IX. However, now whenever I need a break or I am feeling stressed, I put on some music and dance. That gives me relief from stress.

Question 32.
Name the following: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
Answer:
(1) The world’s most successful animation studio. Pixar
(2) The company that Steve Jobs took five years to establish. Next
(3) The company that bought Next. Apple
(4) Steve Jobs’ wife. Laurene

Question 33.
What setback did Jobs suffer when he was thirty?
Answer:
When Jobs was thirty, he was fired from the company which he himself had started. This was devastating and a major setback in his life.

Question 34.
Match the words/phrases in column A with their meanings in column B:

A		B
(i)	renaissance	(a)	causing great destruction
(ii)	to start over	(b)	lost one’s job
(iii)	fired	(c)	revival
(iv)	devastating	(d)	to begin again

Answer:

A		B
(i)	renaissance	(c)	revival
(ii)	to start over	(d)	to begin again
(iii)	fired	(b)	lost one’s job
(iv)	devastating	(a)	causing great destruction

Question 35.
Fill in the blanks choosing the appropriate idioms: (at the heart of, hit him on the head with brick, begin to dawn, lose faith)
(1) Even if you don’t succeed at first, don’t lose faith in yourself.
(2) It is corruption in high places that lies at the heart of the non-development of this locality.
Answer:
(1) Lose faith
(2) At the heart of

Question 36.
Personal Response: What does this second story of Jobs convey to you?
Answer:
The second story of Jobs – about love and loss – conveys to us that even if our efforts result in complete disaster, we should continue believing in ourselves. It tells us that we should love our work. If we haven’t yet found it, we should keep on searching. We should never accept less than what we aim for in life.

Question 37.
Which quality of Steve Jobs impresses you the most? How would you apply it in your life?
Answer:
I admire Steve’s quality of not giving up even after facing a terribly shocking loss. It inspires me never to be disheartened by failure, but to always keep trying. Even if one loses everything, one has to have the courage to start all over again.

Question 38.
Arrange the following incidents in Steve Jobs’ life in proper sequence based on this passage:
(a) Jobs was advised to get his affairs in order.
(b) Jobs was cured of a rare form of cancer.
Answer:
(a) Jobs was advised to get his affairs in order.
(b) Jobs was cured of a rare form of cancer.

Question 39.
Fill in the blanks: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
(1) Steve’s third story is about death.
(2) The doctor describes the last stage of cancer as the ‘prepare to die’ stage.
(3) Steve ‘says that you should follow your heart and intuition.
(4) We should not waste time.
Answer:
(1) death
(2) ‘prepare to die’
(3) heart and intuition.
(4) time.

Question 40.
What does Jobs warn you about life and dogma?
Answer:
Jobs warns us not be trapped by dogma. Dogma is living with the results of other people’s thinking. The overpowering influence of other’s opinions should not drown out our own inner voice.

Question 41.
How does Jobs close his address to the graduate students?
Answer:
Steve Jobs closes his address to the graduate students by telling them about an amazing publication called The Whole Earth Catalogue’. In the final issue on the back cover there was a photograph of an early morning country road. Beneath it were the words ‘Stay Hungry, Stay Foolish’. Jobs wishes the students the same words as his farewell message to them.

Question 42.
Write from the passage four medical words / phrases / terms.
Answer:
pancreatic cancer, diagnosis, biopsy, surgery

Question 43.
Match the words in column ‘A’ with their meanings in column ‘B’:

A		B
(a)	diagnosis	(1)	a set of beliefs held by an organisation which others are expected to accept without argument.
(b)	catalogue	(2)	act of identifying the nature of a problem or illness.
(c)	dogma	(3)	in a new or different way.
(d)	anew	(4)	complete list of items especially in a special order and description.

Answer:

A		B
(a)	diagnosis	(2)	act of identifying the nature of a problem or illness.
(b)	catalogue	(4)	complete list, of items especially in a special order and description.
(c)	dogma	(1)	a set of beliefs held by an organisation which others are expected to accept without argument
(d)	anew	(3)	in a new or different way.

Question 44.
Choose correct question tags for the sentences and rewrite: wasn’t it? isn’t it? aren’t I? will you?
(a) Don’t be trapped by dogma.
(b) It was their farewell message.
(c) Your time is limited.
(d) I’m fine now.
Answer:
(a) Don’t be trapped by dogma, will you?
(b) It was their farewell message, wasn’t it?
(c) Your time is limited, isn’t it?
(d) I’m fine now, aren’t I?

Question 45.
Don’t waste it. (Rewrite without ‘don’t’.)
Answer:
Avoid wasting it.

Question 46.
Personal Response: “Your time is limited. So don’t waste it living someone else’s life.” What are your views about these statements?
Answer:
These are the conclusions that Steve Jobs came to when he discovered that he was suffering from pancreatic cancer. Coming face to face with death, he realized how very little time we have on earth to realize our true potential. Most of our lives are spent following the dictates of others. By this statement, Steve Jobs means that we should spend every moment of our lives trying to discover our own potential and determine our own purpose and path in life.

Question 47.
(1) Pick out the compound words from the given words: dropping, calligraphy, backwards, graduate, photograph
(2) Pick out the gerund and use it in your own sentence: I could begin dropping in on the ones that looked interesting.
(3) Punctuate the sentence: heres one ekample reed college offered perhaps the best calligraphy instruction in the country
(4) Spot the error and rewrite the correct sentence: At the calligraphy class, I learn about what make great typography great.
(5) Identify the type of sentence: Don’t settle.
(6) Find out two hidden words of at least 4 letters each from the word ‘devastating’.
(7) Form present participles in which the last letter is doubled: drop, quit
(8) Arrange these words in alphabetical order: friend, follow, found, freed.
Answer:
(1) backwards = back + wards; photograph = photo + graph
(2) Gerund: dropping Sentence: Stop dropping in here without any warning.
(3) Here’s one example: Reed College offered perhaps the best calligraphy instruction in the country.
(4) At the calligraphy class, I learned about what makes great typography great.
(5) Imperative Sentence in the Negative.
(6) devastating-vast, taste (gate, stain.)
(7) dropping, quitting
(8) follow, found, freed, friend

Question 48.
(1) Write the homophone for the word ‘story’ and frame a sentence.
(2) Rewrite the sentence using the past perfect continuous tense: We were designing the first Macintosh computer.
(3) Rewrite beginning with underlined part: The heaviness of being successful was replaced by the lightness of being a beginner again.
(4) Write a word register for the word: ‘doctor’ (4 words).
Answer:
(1) Homophones: story – storey Sentence: I live in a seven-storys building.
(2) We had been designing the first Macintosh computer.
(3) The lightness of being a beginner again replaced the heaviness of being successful.
(4) physician, surgeon, medico, healer, practitioner. (MD, medic, scientist, specialist)

Question 49.
(1) Use the word,‘trust’ in sentences as a noun as well as a verb.
(2) Underline the modal auxiliary and state its function: I had to take a calligraphy class.
Answer:
(1) (a) I have great trust in my teacher, (noun)
(b) Trust in God. (verb)
(2) I had to take a calligraphy class, (necessity/ obligation/compulsion)

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 2.5 Let’s March Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 English Kumarbharati Textbook Solutions Unit 2.5 Let’s March

Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 2.5 Warming Up Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Observe the pictures and answer.

(a) Main difference between the two images …………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………..
(b) Change required ………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………..
(c) Your contribution as a student to help and make a difference to needy children.
……………………………………………………………………………………..
Answer:
(1) Main difference between the two images : In the first picture, the little boy is working at a construction site or kiln. He is a child labourer. In the second, the boy is going to school.
(2) Change required : The boy in the first picture should not work but go to school.
(3) Your contribution as a student to help and make a difference to needy children : I donate my old books, school bag, etc. to needy children.

Question 2.
Put a [✓] or [✗]
A good speech delivered requires the following characteristics.
(1) Well planned and thoughts well-organized. [ ]
(2) Delivered softly and in a low voice. [ ]
(3) Speaker need not greet the dignitaries and audience. [ ]
(4) Language used should be suitable to the audience. [ ]
(5) Speech should be of a proper duration. [ ]
(6) Speaker should be passive, and have no facial expressions. [ ]
(7) Speech should be supported by good examples/episodes/ visual aids. (where possible) [ ]
(8) Speaker should switch over from one language to another [ ]
Answer:
(1) Well planned and thoughts well-organized. [✓]
(2) Delivered softly and in a low voice. [✗]
(3) Speaker need not greet the dignitaries and audience. [✗]
(4) Language used should be suitable to the audience. [✓]
(5) Speech should be of a proper duration. [✓]
(6) Speaker should be passive and have no facial expressions. [✗]
(7) Speech should be supported by good examples/episodes/visual aids, where possible. [✓]
(8) Speaker should switch over from one language to another. [✗]

Question 3.
Read the expressions and insert them in the proper columns. Put the proper expression numbers in the right column.

Greeting/Salutation	Introduction	Body of the Speech	Conclusion	Thanking the Audience

Expressions
(1) Imagine ! After ten years, what will happen?
(2) Let me begin, today, by sharing my own experience.
(3) Honourable Chief Guest ………………….., eminent dignitaries, ladies and gentlemen.
(4) I don’t understand why we accept this issue so passively.
(5) I am Adarsh Birajdar, (designation) standing before you …………………..
(6) A renowned personality (name) says “ ………………….. ”
(7) Good morning, to one and all present today.
(8) I express my deep gratitude to the organisers of this event/function …………………..
(9) Let me give you an example …………………..
(10) Thank you all for a patient listening and your interest in my talk.
(11) You must have noticed that …………………..
(12) Before I conclude, I would like you to think over the fact that …………………..
Answer:

	ExpressIon No
Greeting/ Salutation	3, 7
Introduction	2, 5
Body of trie Speech	4, 6, 9, 11
Conclusion	1, 12
Thanking the Audience	8, 1

Question 4.
With the help of your teacher and classmates make a list of as many Indian Nobel Laureates as you can. (You can use Internet or school library.)

Let’s March Class 10 English Workshop Questions and Answers Maharashtra Board

Question 1.
Name the following.
(a) The persons to whom Kailash Satyarthi gives the highest credit of his honour –
(b) The greatest personalities from the land of Buddha –
(c) So called daughters of Kailash Satyarthi –
(d) The foreign activists of equal rights, mentioned in the speech –
Answer:
(a) Kaalu Kumar, Dhoom Das, Adarsh Kishore and Iqbal Masih.
(b) Buddha, Guru Nanak, Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Daughters of Kailash Satyarthi
(d) Iqbal Masih, Malala Yousafzai and Tom Harkin.

Question 2.
Mention the social issues highlighted by Kailash Satyarthi in his speech. One social issue is given for you.
(a) Child labor
(b) …………………..
(c) …………………..
(d) …………………..
(e) …………………..
(f) …………………..
Answer:

Question 3.
Complete the following diagram/chart.

Answer:

Question 4.
Complete the following web-chart.

Answer:

Question 5.
Think and give your own response.
(a) How can education help the deprived children and child laborers?
Answer:
Education will help the deprived children and child labourers to stand on their own feet and earn a decent living. It will help them to have financial independence. Education plays a huge role in building confidence, tolerance, and making children global: citizens.

(b) Name any other social activist who has worked/is working earnestly for child-welfare. Write about his/her activities.

(c) What message does the little bird’s story of the forest fire convey to us? Explain.
Answer:
The message the little bird story of the forest fire conveys to us is that we must try to do whatever we can to improve matters. We must not think that our efforts are insignificant. We must not think ‘What can one person do?’ Every little drop counts. If each of us makes a little bit of effort, the sum total will be substantial.

(d) Besides the political freedom that our nation enjoys, what other freedom should it strive for? Say why.
Answer:
Besides the political freedom that our nation enjoys. it should strive for social freedom, where everybody is treated equally irrespective of caste, creed and gender. Our nation should also strive for economic freedom, where everyone is above the poverty line. Only then will our nation progress.

(e) What is your impression of the acceptance speech given by Kailash Satyarthi, when he received the Nobel Prize? Write in 3 to 4 sentences.
Answer:
The speech was very emotional. It could be due to the fact that the speech was an earnest appeal to the hearts of the people world over. If we wish the children of the world to be looked after well, we have to rouse the adults to act in a responsible and compassionate manner. This can be done only by trying to touch their hearts and their emotions, which the speaker has attempted to do.

Question 6.
Choose the correct option and write in front of the given word, to convey the exact meaning.
(a) divinity : ………………………..
(i) goodness
(ii) godliness
(iii) god – fearing
Answer:
(ii) godliness

(b) extremist : ………………………..
(i) militant
(ii) robber
(iii) spy
Answer:
(i) militant

(c) culminate : ………………………..
(i) destroy
(ii) succeed
(iii) rise to a peak
Answer:
(iii) rise to a peak

(d) exploitation : ………………………..
(i) explosion
(ii) misuse
(iii) employment
Answer:
(ii) misuse

(e) mortality : ………………………..
(i) death
(ii) virtues
(iii) starvation
Answer:
(i) death

(f) dignity : ………………………..
(i) self-pride
(ii) self-support
(iii) self-esteem
Answer:
(i) self-esteem

Question 7.
Pick out from the lesson the-
(A) Noun forms of the following words-
(a) dignified
(b) pacify
(c) pursue
(d) ignore
(e) poor
(f) divine
Answer:
(a) dignity
(b) pacification
(c) pursuit
(d) ignorance
(e) honor
(f) divinity

(B) Verb forms of-
(a) democracy
(b) global
(c) hindrance
(d) resolution
(e) liberty
(f) service
Answer:
(a) democret
(b) globalise
(c) hinder
(d) resolve
(e) liberate
(f) serve

Question 8.
(A) Use the following words as a noun as well as a verb and make meaningful sentences with each set, in your notebook. march, honour, credit, stitch
Answer:
March:
(a) Gandhiji led the legendary salt march against the British, (noun)
(b) The women marched to the police station angrily, (verb)

Honour:
(1) honour – (a) The poor old man had the honour of shaking hands with the King, (noun)
(b) We must honour oui’ national heroes. (verb)

Credit:
(a) The athlete said that the full credit for her success goes to hci- coach. (noun)
(b) She credits ‘her success to her farnlly’s support. (verb)

Stitch:
(a) A stitch in time saves nine, (noun)
(b) Mary always stitched her school uniform herself, (verb)

(B) Write minimum 4 hidden words of more than 4 letters from – intergovernmental
Answer:
intergovernmental:

• governmental,
• meant,
• government,
• internal,
• train

(C) Make meaningful sentences by using the following phrases, in your notebook.
(a) in the pursuit of
(b) be afraid of
(c) give up
Answer:
(a) In pursuit of a ha1thier diet, more people now turn to organic foods.
(b) One should not be afraid of facing difficult situations.
(c) We must never give up hope even when we face problems.

(D) Pick from the lesson the antonyms of
(i) ignorance x ……………………….
(ii) immortality x ……………………….
(iii) deny x ……………………….
(iv) violence x ……………………….
(v) well- known x ……………………….
(vi) slavery x ……………………….
Answer:
(i) knowledge
(ii) freedom
(iii) accept
(iv) peace
(v) unknown
(vi) mortality

Question 9.
(A) What will you do in the following situations?
(a) If you see a child working in a restaurant.
……………………………………………………..
(b) If you find a child working at a construction site.
……………………………………………………..
(c) If you find a child working at a brickwork site.
……………………………………………………..
(d) If you come across a beggar child.
……………………………………………………..
Answer:
(a) I will talk to the restaurant owner and ask him to send the child to a government school. I will offer to give the child my old books and clothes.
(b) I will talk to the child’s parents and ask them to send him to school. I will also inform my parents and ask them to help.
(c) I will find an NGO and inform them about it.
(d) I will find an orphanage or NGO in the area and ask them to help him. I will also give him some picture books so that he begins to take an interest in books.

(B) Write any 2 efforts that you can make to enroll deprived children/ out of school children into a school. One is given for you.
(a) I will persuade parents of such children to send them to school.
(b) ……………………………………………………..
(c) ……………………………………………………..

Question 10.
(A) Types of Sentence
A sentence is a group of words that expresses a complete idea. Sentences can be classified in various ways. The following is a classification of sentences.

(i) Assertive sentence (Statement) : A sentence that makes a statement or assertion is a sentence.
For example, ‘There are many villages in India.’

(ii) Interrogative sentence : It is a sentence that asks a question. It is of two sub-types.
Yes/no interrogative sentence :
It generally begins with a helping verb or an auxiliary verb and can be answered by saying ‘Yes’ or ‘No’. For example, ‘Are you coming with us?’

Wh-interrogative sentence : It begins with a wh – word, such as ‘who’ and ‘why’ and cannot be answered by saying ‘yes’ or ‘no’. For example, ‘What is the time?’

(iii) Imperative sentence : It expresses commands, requests etc. It generally begins with a verb. For example, ‘Open your books’.

(iv) Exclamatory sentence : It expresses a strong feeling.
For example, ‘How wonderful the river looks !’ ‘What a shame !’

(B) Say whether the following sentences are Assertive (Statements), Imperative (Commands, Requests, etc.), Interrogative (Questions) or Exclamatory (Exclamations).
(1) The Mantra carries a prayer. ………………………….. .
(2) Is the world so poor? ………………………….. .
(3) Kill not your children because of poverty. ………………………….. .
(4) Let’s walk together. ………………………….. .
(5) What can one person do? ………………………….. .
(6) We have made progress. ………………………….. .
(7) How utterly we have failed our children! ………………………….. .
(8) What a big challenge it is! ………………………….. .
Answer:
(1) Assertive
(2) Interrogative
(3) Imperative
(4) Imperative
(5) Interrogative
(6) Assertive
(7) Exclamatory
(8) Exclamatory

(C) Rewrite the following sentences as Assertive (statements).
(1) Why didn’t you come earlier? ………………………….. .
(2) How frightened their eyes look! ………………………….. .
(3) How angry it makes me! ………………………….. .
(4) Should I accept such shackles of slavery? ………………………….. .
(5) What can one person do? ………………………….. .
Answer:
(1) You should have come earlier.
(2) Their eyes look very frightened.
(3) It makes me very angry.
(4) I should not accept such shackles of slavery.
(5) One person cannot do much.

Question 11.
(A) Observe the following underlined phrases. Here ‘have /has’ are followed by the past participle form of the verb. This construction indicates the present perfect tense. Find more such sentences from the text.
(1) We have made progress in the last couple of decades.
(2) We have prevented millions of child deaths.
(3) It has happened.
(4) ………………………….. .
(5) ………………………….. .
Answer:
(4) Let us inculcate….
(5) Let us globalise compassion.

(B) In the following sentences the underlined words are called infinitives. Find such examples from the speech and underline the infinitives.
(1) Every child is free to grow.
(2) I refuse to accept that all the laws and constitutions, police and judges are unable to protect our children.
(3) ………………………….. .
(4) ………………………….. .
(5) ………………………….. .
Answer:
(3) To grow and develop, to eat, to laugh, to play, to go to school, to dream
(4) Kailash Satyarthi is. not ready to accept:
(5) The Nobel Committee has generously invited me to present a lecture.

(C) Complete the following sentences with the help of the sentence given below.
(a) The biggest challenge knocking on the doors of human kind is fear and intolerance.
(i) No other challenge knocking ………………………….. as big as ………………………….. .
(ii) Fear and intolerance are bigger ………………………….. .
Answer:
(i) No other challenge knocking on the doors of humankind is as big as fear and intolerance.
(ii) Fear and intolerance are bigger than any other challenge knocking on the doors of humankind.

(b) The Nobel Prize is one of the greatest honours in the world.
(i) Very few honours ………………………….. .
(ii) The Nobel Prize is greater than ………………………….. .
Answer:
(i) Very few honours in the world are as great as the Nobel Prize.
(ii) The Nobel Prize is greater than most other honours in the world.

Question 12.
(A) Match the sentences given in part ‘A’ with the sentences given in part ‘B’. Note the differences in structure.

‘A’ Part	‘B’ Part
(1) He was kidnapped by an extremist militia.	(a) They forced the child to kill his friends and family.
(2) The child was forced to kill his friends and family.	(b) We can do this.
(3) This can be done by us.	(c) An extremist militia kidnapped him.

Answer:

‘A’ Part	‘B’ Part
(1) He was kidnapped by an extremist militia.	(c) An extremist militia kidnapped him.
(2) The child was forced to kill his friends and family.	(b) They forced the child to kill his friends and family.
(3) This can be done by us.	(a) We can do this.

(B) You might have observed that The sentences in Part A are in the passive voice while the sentences in Part B are in the active voice. Now change the following sentences into the passive voice.
1. We can do it. ……………………………
2. Her angry question still shakes me. ……………………………
3. Governments must make child-friendly policies. ……………………………
4. His answer made me angry. ……………………………
Answer:
1. It can be done by us.
2. I am still shaken by her angry question.
3. Child-friendly policies must be made by governments.
4. I was made angry by his answer.

Question 13.
Imagine your school invites Malala to preside over ‘Children’s Day’ celebration programme. Draft a welcome speech for this guest of honour. Gather information about her from Internet or your school library. While drafting a speech the following points should be kept in mind.
(1) Greeting and salutation
(2) Self-introduction and introduction of the topic
(3) A catchy thought/piece of news/short episode, to start with
(4) Body of the speech supported with related examples and episodes
(5) Conclusion
Answer:
A Welcome Speech

Honorable Chief Guest, respected Principal, teachers and my dear friends,

A pleasant good morning to you all. I am Ananya Iyer, the Cultural Secretary of our school. Today, on Children’s Day, I have the pleasure and privilege of welcoming an eminent personality, Ms. Malala Yousafzai. as our Guest of Honour. Ms. Yousafzai is a Pakistani activist who took up the cause of female education and fought for it with a missionary zeal. She is the youngest Nobel Prize laureate. She is known for human rights activities, especially the education of women and ’children in her native Swat Valley in Khyber Pakhtunkhwa. northwest Pakistan.

On 9 October 2012, while on a bus in the Swat District, Ma’am Yousafzai and two other girls were shot by a Taliban gunman in an assassination attempt in retaliation for her activism. Ma’am Yousafzai was hit in the head with a bullet and remained unconscious and in a critical condition. Following her recovery, she became a prominent voice for the right to education. She founded the Malala Fund, a non-profit organisation and in 2013 co-authored I am Malala, an international best seller.

In 2012, she was the recipient of Pakistan’s first National Youth Peace Prize and the 2013 Sakharov Prize. In 2014, she was the co-recipient of the 2014 Nobel Peace Prize, along with Shri Kailash Satyarthi. Aged 17 at the time, this made her the youngest-ever Nobel Prize laureate. In 2015, Ma’am Yousafzai was a subject of the Oscar- shortlisted documentary He Named Me Malala. The 2013, 2014 and 2015 issues of Time magazine featured her as one of the most influential people

Ma’am, we are proud and privileged to have you with us today. We hope that your presence will inspire and motivate all of us here to take up issues relating to women and children’s rights in earnest. We request you to say a few words to the audience before the inauguration of the function. Thank You.

Question 14.
Select the correct alternative and complete the following: Kailash Satyarthi:
(1) Wants to do this, so that no one is left behind in any corner of the world: walk together. (walk tog ether/remember his ancestors)
(2) Wants to do this, to show respect to his late parents: bow to them, (bow to them/speak to them)
(3) Feels if we do this, our minds will come together: speak together. (smile/speak together)
(4) Feels this, each time he frees a child from slavery: liberated. (honoured/liberated)
Answer:
(1) walk together.
(2) bow to them
(3) speak together
(4) liberated

Question 15.
Match the words to their meanings: (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)

Words	Meaning
(1) Podium	(a) The action of trying to achieve something
(2) Aspiration	(b) A small platform
(3) Pursuit	(c) To remember something
(4) Recall	(d) An ardent wish

Answer:

Words	Meaning
(1) Podium	(b) A small platform
(2) Aspiration	(d) An ardent wish
(3) Pursuit	(a) The action of trying to achieve something
(4) Recall	(c) To remember something

Question 16.
This mantra carries a prayer, an aspiration and a resolve that has the potential to liberate humanity from all man-made crises.
Answer:
This mantra carries not only a prayer, but also an aspiration and a resolve that has the potential to liberate humanity from all man-made crises.

Question 17.
I bow to my late parents, to my motherland India and to the mother earth.
Answer:
I bow not only to my late parents, but also to my motherland India and to the mother earth.

Question 18.
Find sentences in the present perfect tense from the passage:
Answer:
I have freed a child from slavery.

Question 19.
Find sentences from the passage that’ contain infinitives: (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Answer:
(1) I am deeply honoured to recite a mantra.
(2) …the potential to liberate humanity…
(3) Let’s walk together. (The infinitives without ‘to’ before them are called ‘Bare Infinitives’.)
(4) Let’s speak together.
(5) Let our minds come together.
(6) Let us create knowledge together.

Question 20.
Let us create knowledge for all. (Begin the sentence with ‘Let knowledge …’ and rewrite) (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Answer:
Let knowledge be created for all.

Question 21.
Write about the various problems that children are facing today. (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Answer:
Children in cities face problems like severe competition, addiction to social networking and video games, etc. Children in rural areas face problems like exploitation, bonded labour, poverty, lack of: opportunities, etc.

Question 22.
Explain the reason why a chair is kept empty on the podium by Shri Satyarthi.
Answer:
The empty chair kept on the podium by Shri Satyarthi represents or symbolises the suffering and struggles of millions of children who are left behind.

Question 23.
Find the odd man out:
(a) dream, tiny, militia, expenditure
(b) compassion, liberty, children, pessimism
Answer:
(a) tiny-this is an adjective; the other words are nouns.
(b) children-this is a common noun; the other words are abstract nouns.

Question 24.
I am representing here – the sound of silence.
Answer:
(1) met – simple past tense
(2) am representing – present continuous tense

Question 25.
Find sentences in the present perfect tense from the passage:
Answer:
The Nobel Committee has generously invited me to present a lecture.

Question 26.
Make a list of the things that Kailash Satyarthi is not ready to accept:
Answer:
Kailash Satyarthi is. not ready to accept:
(1) that all the temples, churches, mosques and prayer houses have no place for the dreams of our 1 children, when all great religions and all countries ! teach us to care for our children.
(2) that the world is so poor, whenust one week of global military expenditure is sufficient to pay for the education of all the children.
(3) that all the laws and constitutions, police and judges, are unable to protect our children.
(4) that the shackles of slavery can eves be’ stronger than the quest for freedom.

Question 27.
Pick out from the passage the noun form of poor:
Answer:
poverty

Question 28.
I have the privilege of working with many courageous people who have the same aim. (Rewrite using the noun form of the underlined wofd.)
Answer:
I have the privilege of working with many people with courage who have the same aim.

Question 29.
All the great religions teach us to care for our children. (Frame a Wh-question to get the underlined words as the answer.)
Answer:
What do all the great religions teach us?

Question 30.
Find sentences in the present perfect tense from the passage:
Answer:
We have never given up against any threat.

Question 31.
Find sentences in the present perfect tense from the passage:
Answer:
(1) We have made progress.
(2) We have reduced the number……..
(3) We have prevented millions of child deaths.
(4) We have utterly failed our children…

Question 32.
Find sentences from the passage that contain infinitives.
Answer:
Let us make no mistake.

Question 33.
(1) Eighteen years ago, millions of individuals! demanded a new international law for the abolition of ’ the worst form’of child labour.
(2) Satyarthi wants to inculcate and transform individuals’ compassion into a global compassion.
Answer:
(1) A new international law for the abolition of ’ the worst form’of child labour.
(2) Individuals’ compassion into a global compassion.

Question 34.
List the examples Kailash Satyarthi gives to show how the world is interconnected.
Answer:
Kailash Satyarthi says that we live in an age of rapid globalisation. We are connected through:
(i) the high-speed internet
(ii) the exchange of goods and services in one single global market and
(iii) the thousands of flights from one corner to another corner of the globe.

Question 35.
Change the following sentence into the passive voice: We can do it.
Answer:
It can be done by us.

Question 36.
Do as directed:
We are connected through high-speed internet. (Frame a Wh-question to get the underlined part as the answer.)
Answer:
How are we connected?

Question 37.
The bird said, “I am doing my bit.” (Frame 2 questions which will give the above sentence as the answer.)
Answer:
(i) Who said, “I am doing my bit.”?
(ii) What did the bird say?

Question 38.
Find an example of present perfect tense from the passage.
Answer:
…….. and it has happened, …

Question 39.
Find sentences from the passage that contain infinitives.
Answer:
(1) Let us inculcate….
(2) Let us globalise compassion.

Question 40.
Pick out from the passage the noun forms of the following words:
(i) passive
Answer:
(i) passivity

Question 41.
Rewrite the sentences as directed:
(1) I challenge the passivity and pessimism surrounding our children. (Rewrite replacing the participle with the finite verb.)
(2) Children are questioning our inaction and watching our actions. (Rewrite as a rhetorical question.)
Answer:
(1) I challenge the passivity and pessimism that surrounds our children.
(2) Aren’t children questioning our inaction and watching our actions? ‘

Question 42.
Find an example of present perfect tense from the passage:
Answer:
….. yet have never tasted chocolate…

Question 43.
Find sentences from the passage that contain infinitives.
Answer:
(1) If we are to teach real peace…
(2) We shall have to begin …….
(3) ….let us unite the world….
(4) ….the power to shake the whole world…
(5) …will we allow to go without rescue….

Question 44.
Explain why the eight-year-old girl’s question shakes Mr. Satyarthi.
Answer:
The eight-year-old girl’s question shakes Mr. Satyarthi because he realizes that we are doing too little too late for the exploited children of this world. Our collective inaction is robbing them of their childhood and allowing them to be exploited.

Question 45.
What was the response of the boy’s father? What was Satyarthi’s reaction to it?
Answer:
The boy’s father said that he had never thought about the fact that his son was working outside the gate of the school and not studying with the others in the school. His answer made Satyarthi angry at that time and still makes him angry.

Question 46.
Choose the correct verb forms of the following from the given options:
(1) slavery: (a) sloven (b) slave (c) enslave.
(2) bold: (a) bolden (b) embolden (c) embold.
Answer:
(1) enslave
(2) embolden.

Question 47.
Pick out from the following the words formed by using a prefix:
(1) illiteracy
(2) innovative
(3) invest
(4) abuse.
Answer:
(1) illiteracy
(4) abuse.

Question 48.
Replace the modal auxiliary in the following sentences with another showing obligation:
(1) All of us must stand with our children.
(2) We must keep our promises.
Answer:
(1) All of us ought to stand with our children.
(2) We ought to keep our promises.

Question 49.
Find a sentence in the present perfect tense from the passage:
Answer:
I have never thought about it.

Question 50.
Find sentences from the passage that contain infinitives.
Answer:
(1) … to put an end to all forms….
(2) … must work together to accelerate action…
(3) I gathered the courage to ask the boy’s father.
(4) We are born to work.

Question 51.
Do you think that it is possible to stop child labour in our country?
Answer:
Yes. If the government is determined enough, it can be done. The programme to eradicate small pox was conducted on a war footing, and we have managed to eradicate small pox from our country., In the same way, if a programme to educate children is conducted on similar lines, we will be able to send all our children to school and stop child labour.

Question 52.
Complete the following: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
(1) Mr Satyarthi’s vision as a child was a vision of the future, of the cobbler boy sitting’ with him in his classroom.
(2) The foreign activists of equal rights mentioned in the speech are Nelson ivfandela and Martin Luther King.
(3) Mr Satyarthi requests the listeners to put their hands close to their hearts, close their eyes and feel and listen to the child inside them.
(4) According to Mr. Satyarthi, thousands of Mahatma Gandhis. Nelson Mandelas and Martin Luther Kings are calling on us.
Answer:
(1) A vision of the future, of the cobbler boy sitting’ with him in his classroom.
(2) Nelson ivfandela and Martin Luther King.
(3) their hands close to their hearts, close their eyes and feel and listen to the child inside them.
(4) thousands of Mahatma Gandhis. Nelson Mandelas and Martin Luther Kings are calling on us.

Question 53.
Complete the chart with the speaker’s words:
Answer:

Question 54.
Pick out from the passage the verb form of emocracy
Answer:
democratise

Question 55.
As a child, I had a vision of tomorrow. (Rewrite as a complex sentence.)
Answer:
When I was a child. I had a vision of tomorrow.

Question 56.
Find an example of present perfect tense from the passage:
…that tomorrow has become today
Answer:
has become

Question 57.
Find sentences from the passage that contain infinitives.
Answer:
(1) …for every child to have a right to life….
(2) I want you to see and feel this…
(3) I request you to put your hand….
(4) let us democratise knowledge…universalise justice….globalise compassion…let us march….

Question 58.
What is your vision of tomorrow?
Answer:
My vision of tomorrow is of an India where there is no corruption and no poverty. In my vision of India everybody can live a life of comfort and ease.

Question 59.
(1) Write two compound words of your own.
(2) Pick out an infinitive from the lesson and use it in your own sentence.
(3) Find out five hidden wordš from the given word : intergovernmental.
(4) Use the following phrase in your own sentence: in small groups
(5) Spot the error and rewrite the correct sentence: Let us made no mistake, great challenges still remain.
(6) Identify the type of sentence: We have utterly failed our children in imparting education.
(7) Write the following words in alphabetical order: invisibility, innocence, deliberations, expenditure
(8) Write the present and past participles of a verb where the last letters are doubled:
(9) Complete the word chain using nouns from the lesson: shackles →s_ _ _e, →e_ _ _e, → e_ _ _e, → e_ _ _n
Answer:
(1) classroom, motherland.
(2) to teach: Someone needs to teach her what is right and wrong.
(3) intergovernmental: governmental, meant, government, internal, train
(4) The hikers waited in small groups at the base camp.
(5) Let us make no mistake, great challenges still remain.
(6) Assertive sentence
(7) deliberations, expenditure, innocence, invisibility.
(8) plot: plotting, plotted.
(9) shackles → sense → expense → essence → education

Question 60.
(1) Use the following word and its homophone in two separate sentences: peace
(2) Prepare a word register of 4 abstract nouns from the lesson.
(3) He asked me, “What is my fault?”(Rewrite in reported speech.)
Answer:
(1) (i) We said a prayer for world peace, (ii) We are missing one piece of their saw puzzle.
(2) Abstract nouns: knowledge,ustice, compassion, prosperity, slavery, liberty, violence, peace.
(3) He asked me what his fault was.

Question 61.
(1) Use both the given words in a single meaningful sentence: privilege, progress.
(2) Analyse the sentence: I refuse to accept that all the laws and constitutions, police andudges, are unable to protect our children.
Answer:
(1) Today, we have the privilege of witnessing the progress our country is making.
(2) Complex Sentence: I refuse to accept – Main Clause; that all the laws and constitutions, police andudges, are unable to protect our children – subordinate noun clause.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 3.3 Stephen Hawking Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 English Kumarbharati Textbook Solutions Unit 3.3 Stephen Hawking

Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 3.3 Warming Up Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Get into pairs and match the prominent personalities with the disabilities they had :

‘A’	‘B’
(1) John Milton	(a) The great German composer and musician who became deaf at the age of 28 years.
(2) Beethoven	(b) The great English poet who became blind at the age of 43 years.
(3) Stephen Hawking	(c) An American entrepreneur, animator, voice actor, had a learning disability.
(4) Walt Disney	(d) Famous scientist of the 20th century who was paralyzed.
(5) Albert Einstein	(e) Great inventor who has over 1000 patents had a learning disability and became deaf.
(6) Thomas Edison	(f) Great 20th Century scientist and noted physicist who had a learning disability.
(7) Hellen Keller	(g) Dancer whose leg had to be amputated because of an accident.
(8) Sudha Chandran	(h) Was blind and deaf.
(9) Tanay Grey-Thompson	(i) Had polio and was elected as the President of the United States for four terms.
(10) Franklin Roosevelt	(j) Is a wheelchair racer.

Answer:

A	B
(1) John Milton	(b) The great English poet who became blind at the age of 43 years.
(2) Beethoven	(a) The great German composer and musician who became deaf at the age of 28 years.
(3) Stephen Hawking	(d) Famous scientist of the 20th century who was paralyzed.
(4) Walt Disney	(c) An American entrepreneur, animator, voice actor, had a learning disability.
(5) Albert Einstein	(f) Great 20th Century scientist and noted physicist who had a learning disability.
(6) Thomas Edison	(e) Great inventor who has over 1000 patents had a learning disability and became deaf.
(7) Hellen Keller	(h) Was blind and deaf.
(8) Sudha Chandran	(g) Dancer whose leg had to be amputated because of an accident.
(9) Tanay Grey-Thompson	(j) Is a wheelchair racer.
(10) Franklin Roosevelt	(i) Had polio and was elected as the President of the United States for four terms.

Question 2.
Word Building.
(a) Reduplication : The root/stem of a word is repeated exactly the same or with a slight change.
For example,

• tweet-tweet,
• pitter-patter,
• chit-chat,
• bang-bang,
• riff-raff.

Answer:
(a) Reduplication : bow-wow; hee-haw; cheep! cheep; chomp-chomp; ping-pong

(b) Blending : Parts of two or more words combine to form a new one.
For example,

• breakfast + lunch = brunch
• smoke + fog = smog
• motor + hotel = motel

Answer:
(b) Blending : bionic, carjack, Chunnel, cineplex, cyborg, emoticon, infotainment, internet, liger (lion + tiger), netizen, telethon, vidiot, workaholic

(c) Clipping : Reducing a word to one of its syllables or a part of it.
For example, l Mathematics – Maths

• Advertisement – Ad
• Laboratory – Lab

Answer:
(c) Clipping : exam, gym (gymnasium), ‘flu (influenza), gas (gasoline), memo (memorandum)

(d) Acronym : Words formed from the first letter of each of the words involved.
For example, l radar, scuba, Unicef, Nasa

• BBC, CID, USA, ATM, VIP
• DOB, KYC, PM, GN, TY etc.

Answer:
(d) Acronym : laser, CD-ROM, IOU, K9, PIN

In your notebook, write five examples of each of the above types of word-building devices. (You may take the help of a Dictionary/Internet)

Night of the Scorpion Class 10 English Workshop Questions and Answers Maharashtra Board

Question 1.
Observe the time line and search the occurances according to it. Prepare a chart.

Answer:

Question 2.
Make a list of books written by Stephen Hawking.

Name of the book	What’s in it? (topics covered)	His contribution to the world
1. …………………………..	(a) …………………………..
2. …………………………..	(b) …………………………..
3. …………………………..	(c) …………………………..
4. …………………………..	(d) …………………………..

Answer:

His Name of the What’s in it?	contribution book (topics covered)	His contribution to the world
1. A Brief History of Time	overview of space and time, existence of God and the future	an account of cosmology for the masses
2. The Universe in a Nutshell	guide to cosmology’s big theories	illustrated, easier to understand
3. A Briefer History of Time	touched upon the newest developments in the field like the String theory	simplified the original work’s core concepts

Question 3.
Make a list of Hawking’s physical inabilities after 1963.
(a) …………………………..
(b) …………………………..
(c) …………………………..
(d) …………………………..
(e) …………………………..
(f) …………………………..
Answer:
Hawking’s physical inabilities after 1963
(a) could not go anywhere except on a wheelchair
(b) an ever-worsening physical state
(c) needed someone 24/7 to manage his care and. work
(d) except for feeding himself and getting out of bed, had need of assistance for virtually everything else
(e) speech increasingly slurred, finally lost his voice for good
(f) ability to do his work in peril

Question 4.
Shape your mind. Complete the network of cluster diagram with the name of great personalities and their contribution.

Answer:

Question 5.
Complete the following web.

Answer:

Question 6.
Explain how the life of Stephen Hawking proves the proverb ‘Every cloud has a silver lining’. Write it down in your notebook.
Answer:
Every cloud has a silver lining.
This proverb ‘Every cloud has a silver lining’ means that you should never feel hopeless because difficult times always lead to better days. Difficult times are like dark clouds that pass overhead and block the sun. But at the same time, on the outer edge of the clouds you will invariably observe a silver lining that provides some measure of light and hope.

The problems and difficulties that we face in life are like those dark clouds. Stephen Hawking started experiencing problems with his health while he was barely 21, a student at Oxford. On occasion he would trip and fall, or slur his speech. Later on, he was diagnosed with ALS, Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis. It was a disease in which the nerves that controlled his muscles were shutting down. He was given two and a half years to live. But as we know -he went on to live more than a half century beyond.

Thanks to an early diagnosis, advanced medical treatment and complete support from family, friends and students, he lived a full life and made major contributions to existing theories in physics and cosmology. These, in fact, were the silver linings that brightened what would otherwise have been a lacklustre life.

The life of Stephen Hawking proves that even though the difficulty we face might seem enormous, there is always hope, there are always ways to circumvent them and to keep on achieving and contributing to the world.

Question 7.
Do you agree or disagree with the following statements? Justify your stand/answer by quoting a line from the text.
(a) Stephen Hawking was diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease.
(b) Hawking believed that man cannot live on other planets in the future.
(c) Though Hawking lost control over his body, he writes with a prolific rate with the help of assistants.
(d) Hawking has written or co-written more than 25 books.
Answer:
(a) No, I do not agree.
The line from the text justifying this stand is Eventually, however, doctors did diagnose Hawking with the early stages of ALS.

(b) No, I do not agree.
The line from the text justifying this stand is He’s convinced that time travel is possible and that humans may indeed colonize other planets in the future,

(c) Yes, I do agree.
The line from the text justifying this stand is Through the program and the help of assistants, Stephen Hawking has continued to write at a prolific rate.

(d) No, I do not agree.
The line from the text justifying this stand is Over the years, Stephen Hawking has written or co-written a total of 15 books.

Question 8.
The following incidents in Stephen Hawking’s life are given in jumbled order. Arrange the incidents in proper sequence as per their order of occurrence in Hawking’s life.
(a) Hawking’s book ‘The Universe in a Nutshell’ offered an illustrated guide to cosmology’s big theories.
(b) Hawking published the book ‘A Brief History of Time’ that offered an overview of space and time.
(c) Hawking was unable to attend a conference in Arizona.
(d) Hawking was diagnosed with ALS while studying cosmology at the University of Cambridge.
(e) Hawking published ‘A Brief History of Time’ that contained the newest development.
Answer:
(c) Hawking’s book ‘The Universe in a Nutshell’ offered an illustrated guide to cosmology’s big theories,
(d) Hawking published the book ‘A Brief History of Time’ that offered an overview of space and time.
(b) Hawking was unable to attend a conference in Arizona.
(a) Hawking was diagnosed with ALS while studying cosmology at the University of Cambridge.
(e) Hawking authored ‘A Briefer History of Time’ that contained the newest developments.

Question 9.
Fill in the blanks with the proper form of the Verbs as per the Subject :
(1) Mother ………………………………… a good meal. (cook/cooks)
(2) Mother and her daughter ………………………………… a good meal. (cook/cooks)
(3) The rise and fall of the Empire ………………………………… recorded in History. (is/are)
(4) Neither Ritesh nor Alok ………………………………… well. (play/plays)
(5) Either of the two ………………………………… guilty. (is/are)
(6) Everyone ………………………………… mistakes. (make/makes)
(7) That news ………………………………… published today. (is/are)
(8) Eight lakh rupees ………………………………… a big amount. (was/were)
(9) The Committee ………………………………… approved of it. (has/have)
(10) The cost of all the goods ………………………………… risen. (has/have)
Answer:
(1) cooks
(2) cook
(3) is
(4) plays
(5) is
(6) makes
(7) is
(8) was
(9) has
(10) has

Question 10.
From the following sentences, underline the Nouns and encircle their Determiners that specify the noun in a noun phrase.
(articles/possessive pronouns/demonstratives or quantifiers)
(1) He lost his voice for good.
(2) Over the years, Hawking has written 15 books.
(3) These three books articulate his search for science’s Holy Grail.
(4) A few events prevented him from despondency.
(5) That dream made him realize it.
Answer:

Question 11.
Complete the information from following graphic organiser and prepare summary.

Summary Maker

Title of the text :
(a) Name of the personality : ………………………………………………..
(b) Age : ………………………………………………..
(c) Books (As Author) : ………………………………………………..
(d) Field of Excellence : ………………………………………………..
(e) Achievements : ………………………………………………..
Answer:

Title of the text	Stephen Hawking
Name of the personality	Stephen Hawking
Age	born 8 January 1942
Books as author	‘A Brief History of Time’ ‘The Grand Design’ ‘The Universe in a Nutshell’ ‘A Briefer History of Time’ ‘Black Holes and Baby Universes’
Film	‘The Theory of Everything’
Field of excellence	Theoretical Physics, Cosmology
Achievements	Albert Einstein Award, 1978; Co-founder of Microsoft Research

Question 12.
You have come to know from the text that ‘The Theory of Everything’ is a film describing the life and work of Stephen Hawking. Watch the film on internet and write a complete review of it. You can take help of the following points while writing the review of the film.
(1) Title
(2) Characters
(3) Story
(4) Dialogues
(5) Picturisation
(6) Music
(7) Special features (if any)
(8) Opinion / Views
(9) Message/Moral values.
Answer:
The Theory of Everything – Movie Review
The movie ‘The Theory of Everything’ is based on ! the life of Stephen Hawking. He was diagnosed with ALS at the age of 21, but because of the love of fellow Cambridge student, Jane Wilde, whom he married, he went on to secure achievement after achievement and began to be called the successor to Einstein.

He and Jane defy terrible odds and break new ground In the fields of medicine and science, achieving more than either could hope to Imagine. Hawkings physical decline weakens his already frail body. His mind, on the other hand, remains sharp, always in pursuit of that single equation that would explain the elusive ‘Theory of Everything’. Right up to his mid-seventies, Stephen Hawking has no plans to retire.

The dialogue smoothly carries the narrative forward, at times Indulging In monosyllabic repartee, which, at times, provides crisp tongue-in-cheek humour. It is a very enjoyable film. It is tasteful and engaging and beautiful visually.

The music, which is quite haunting, was nominated for the best musical score at the Oscars.

The film has been criticised for harping on the theme of ‘Time’ throughout, and for being too sentimental!

However, its message that a person can accomplish much in one’s lifetime despite being afflicted with a severe physical disability is universally relevant. Moral values of love and loyalty permeate the film and thus makes it a’treat to watch.

Question 13.
Answer in one word
(1) At what age was Stephen diagnosed with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?
(2) Over the years, how many books has Stephen written or co-written?
(3) When did Stephen catapult to international prominence?
(4) In which year was his life story depicted?
Answer:
21
15
1988
2014

Question 14.
(a) Hawking’s book ‘A Brief History of Time’ spent more than four years atop the ‘London Sunday Times’.
Answer:
(a) Hawking’s book ‘A Brief History of Time’ spent more than four years atop the ‘London Sunday Times’.

Question 15.
Observe the timellne and search from the passage the occurrences according to It. (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
Answer:

Question 16.
Complete the table with relevant information about Hawking: (The answer is given directly.)
Answer:

Books	Films
(1) A Brief History of Time	The Theory of everything
(2) The Universe in a Nutshell
(3) A Briefer History of Time

Question 17.
Write from the passage words for
(a) status
(b) summary
(c) people
(d) immediate.
Answer:
(a) status – prominence
(b) summary – overview
(c) people – masses
(d) immediate – instant.

Question 18.
Find out the antonyms from the passage for the following
(i) worst
(ii) exclude
(iii) duplicate
(iv) oldest
Answer:
(i) worst x best
(ii) exclude xinclude
(iii) duplicate x original
(iv) oldest x newest

Question 19.
(1) He was diagnosed with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis. (Rewrite using the present perfect tense of the underlined part.)
Answer:
He has been diagnosed with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.

Question 20.
It has sold millions of copies worldwide and been translated into more than 40 languages. (Change into a simple sentence)
Answer:
Having sold millions of copies worldwide, it has been translated into more than 40 languages.

Question 21.
The short informative book became an account of cosmology. (Add a question tag.)
Answer:
The short informative book became an account of cosmology, didn’t it?

Question 22.
Stephen Hawking wps a versatile personality. Justify.
Answer:
Stephen Hawking was a versatile personality. He has not only done groundbreaking work in physics and cosmology but also written or co-written 15 books. He worked as a professor of mathematics for a long time. He used to attend various conferences and could think in 11 dimensions.

Question 23.
Fill in the blanks (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
(a) Hawking claimed that he could think in …………… dimensions.
(b) ……………. is the study of the big. …………….. is the study of the small.
(c) ………………. is a single unifying theory that can combine cosmology with quantum mechanics.
Answer:
(a) 11
(b) Cosmology, Quantum Mechanics
(c) Science’s Holy Grail

Question 24.
*(1) Record the occurrence according to the time chart (The answer is given directly and underlined.)
Answer:

Question 25.
Complete the table
Answer:

Name of Hawking’s book	Central Idea	Conclusion
The Grand Design	God could not have created the universe.	The Big Bang was the inevitable consequence of laws of physics and nothing more.

Question 26.
Complete the following: What is Hawking convinced of?
Answer:

Question 27.
(1) Write words ending in ‘-ity’ using the words given
(a) unify
(b) possible
(c) compatible
(d) inevitable.
Answer:
(a) unify – unity
(b) possible – possibility
(c) compatible – compatibility
(d) inevitable – inevitability.

Question 28.
Match the words in Column A with their meanings in Column B

‘A’	‘B’
(a) unifying	(a) agreeable
(b) compatible	(b) unavoidable
(c) inevitable	(c) unplanned
(d) spontaneous	(d) joining

Answer:

(a) unifying	(d) joIning
(b) compatible	(a) agreeable
(c) inevitable	(b) unavoidable
(d) spontaneous	(c) unplanned

Question 29.
Write sentences using the given phrases
(a) lay out
(b) be the consequence of
(c) is compatible with.
Answer:
(a) I want you to lay out your plans for the future before you graduate.
(b) Your present sad condition is the consequence of your past bad habits.
(c) “The king’s view on this topic is compatible with mine,” said the queen.

Question 30.
Hawking spoke against the idea. (Rewrite using ‘did not’.)
Answer:
Hawking did not speak in favour of the idea,

Question 31.
State the function of the underlined auxiliaries
(a) Humans may colonize other planets in the future.
(b) The universe can create itself from nothing.
(c) The universe will create itself from nothing.
Answer:
(a) may – possibility
(b) can – ability
(c) will – future action/prediction.

Question 32.
Add question tags
(a) The Big Bang was the inevitable consequence of the laws of physics.
(b) There is something rather than nothing.
Answer:
(a) The Big Bang was the inevitable consequence of the laws of physics, wasn’t it?
(b) There is something rather than nothing, isn’t there?

Question 32.
Do you believe that there is a God? Why?
Answer:
I believe that there is a God. This world had to have had a Creator. There is infinite variety of creation all around us and it is not possible that all of it came on its own.

Question 33.
The Big Bang was a natural occurrence.
Answer:
In the context of the passage, yes, I agree. The line from the text justifying this stand is The Big Bang was the inevitable consequence of the laws of physics and nothing more.

Question 34.
Arrange the following in order of occurrence
(a) Hawking is admitted into a medical clinic.
(b) Hawking notices problems with his physical health while at Oxford and later at Cambridge.
(c) Hawking undergoes a series of tests.
(d) Hawking’s father takes him to see a doctor.
(e) Hawking’s father takes notice of the condition.
Answer:
(b) Hawking notices problems with his physical health while at Oxford and later at Cambridge,
(e) Hawking’s father takes notice of the condition,
(d) Hawking’s father takes him to see a doctor.
(a) Hawking is admitted into a medical clinic.
(c) Hawking undergoes a series of tests.

Question 35.
Fill in the blanks in the boxes (The answers are given directly.)
(a) Two scientists other than Stephen Hawking mentioned in this passage are ………………….. and Lou Gehrig.
(b) Hawking was ……………… years old when he was admitted Into a medical clinic.
(c) Hawking first began to notice problems with his physical health while he was at …………………..
Answer:
(a) Sir Isaac Newton
(b) 21
(c) Oxford

Question 36.
Complete the following map:
Answer:

Question 37.
Complete the following:
(a) A decade is a period of ………………….
(b) ……………. refers to the formless matter supposed to have existed before the creation of the universe.
(c) To ……………. one’s speech is to speak (words) indistinctly so that the sounds run into one another.
Answer:
(a) 10 years.
(b) Chaos
(c) slur

Question 38.
The Grand Design was Hawking’s first major publication in almost a decade.
Answer:
The Grand Design was Hawking’s first major publications in almost a decade.

Question 39.
Hawking first began to notice problems with his physical health while he was at Oxford.
(Frame a ‘Wh-’ question to get the underlined part as answer.)
Answer:
When did Hawking first begin to notice problems with his physical health?

Question 40.
He would trip and fall or slur his speech. (Rewrite using ‘not only … but also …’.)
Answer:
He would not only trip and fall but also slur his speech.

Question 41.
He didn’t look into the problem until 1963. (Rewrite without ‘didn’t’.)
Answer:
He avoided looking into the problem until 1963.

Question 42.
(1) You must have suffered from some illness or sickness. Mention two or three symptoms.
That I was an atypical case.
Answer:
Once I suffered from a viral infection of the throat. It began with a slight irritation in the throat. Then there was pain and I found difficulty in swallowing food and even water. I developed high fever, a runny nose and even had fits of shivering. I visited a doctor’ who confirmed the illness and who prescribed tablets for the cure.

(2) Explain in your own words the following statement made by Stephen Hawking
That I was an atypical case.
Answer:
Stephen Hawking describes how after undergoing a series of tests at the hospital, it became clear that he had a physical condition called Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS). In fact, the doctors made it clear that his was a very unusual case, and not representative of a type, group or class.

Question 43.
(1) The following incidents in Stephen Hawking’s life are given in jumbled order. Arrange the incidents in proper sequence as per their order of occurrence in Hawking’s life
(a) At college, Hawking was bored with life.
(b) Hawking reflected on the condition of the boy suffering from leukemia.
(c) After the diagnosis, Hawking went on to became a noted scientist.
Answer:
(a) Hawking reflected on the condition of the boy suffering from leukemia.
(b) At college. Hawking was bored with life.
(c) After the diagnosis, Hawking went on to became a noted scientist.

Question 44.
In the mid-1970’s what did the Hawking’s family do?
Answer:
In the mid-1970’s, the Hawking family had taken in one of Hawking’s graduate students to help manage his care and work.

Question 45.
What effect did the incidents mentioned below have on Hawking?

(a) Hawking saw a boy in the same room he was in suffering from leukemia.
Answer:
Hawking reflected that his situation seemed more tolerable.

(b) Hawking had a dream that he was going to be executed.
Answer:
Hawking realized that there were still things to do with his life.

Question 46.
Why was Hawking forced to use a wheelchair?
Answer:
Hawking was forced to use a wheelchair because physical control over his body had diminished becoming completely despondent.

Question 47.
Only those who knew him well could understand him. (Rewrite using ‘no one’.)
Answer:
Other than (Apart from) those who knew him well, no one could understand him.

Question 48.
The resulting situation required 24-hour nursing care for the acclaimed physicist. (Underline the words used as adjectives.)
Answer:
The resulting situation .required 24-hour nursing care for the acclaimed physicist.

Question 49.
Fill in the blanks (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
(a) For 30 years, Stephen Hawking held the post of ………………….
(b) Stephen Hawking selected his words with a ………………..
(c) Stephen Hawking failed to appear at the conference because of a ………………
(d) ……………… remains a constant anxiety.
Answer:
(a) Lucasian Professor of Mathematics at Cambridge.
(b) hand-held clicker.
(c) chest infection.
(d) Hawking’s health

Question 50.
The following incidents in Stephen Hawking’s life are given in jumbled order. Arrange the incidents in proper sequence as per their order of occurrence in Hawking’s life
(a) Hawking was rushed to hospital.
(b) Hawking’s predicament caught the attention of a California computer programmer.
(c) Hawking announced that he was retiring.
Answer:
(a) Hawking’s predicament caught the attention of ; a California computer programmer.
(b) Hawking announced that he was retiring.
(c) Hawking was rushed to hospital.

Question 51.
What do Stephen Hawking’s works include?
Answer:
Stephen Hawking’s works include numerous scientific papers as well as information for the non- scientific community.

Question 52.
Complete the following.
Answer:

Question 53.
Record the occurrence according to the time chart (The answer is given directly.)
Answer:
2009 – Hawking failed to appear at a conference in Arizona because of a chest infection.

Question 54.
Find evidences of Stephen Hawking’s special life.
Answer:
(a) Hawking used a computer speaking program to select words on a screen that were then passed through a speech synthesizer.
(b) Hawking directed the program through a cheek muscle attached to a sensor.
(c) Hawking had virtually lost all control of his body.

Question 55.
Explain the life of Stephen Hawking with reference to the following statement:
Hawking’s health, of course, remains a constant concern.
Answer:
Due to his physical condition, Hawking’s health is always a source of worry. There are times when his body is not able to cope with the physical challenges of a routine day. There are times when his health deteriorates to such an extent that he has to be rushed to hospital. Despite all this, he continues to share his ideas with the world.

Question 56.
Guess the meaning of predicament.
Answer:
a difficult or unpleasant situation.

Question 57.
Write the adjective forms of:
(a) infection
(b) office.
Answer:
(a) infectious
(b) official.

Question 58.
Write from the last paragraph phrases that give an indication of Stephen Hawking’s health situation.
Answer:
a constant concern, a worry, rushed to the hospital, ‘gravely ill’, make a full recovery

Question 59.
Underline the determiners. (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
Today, with virtually …………. control of ………….. body gone, Hawking directs ……………. program through ………….. cheek muscle attached to ………… sensor.
Answer:
all
his
the
a
a

Question 60.
Pick out the verbs and state the tense.
(a) Stephen Hawking has continued to write at a prolific rate.
(b) He had already announced he was retiring.
Answer:
(a) has continued – Present perfect
(b) had – announced – Past perfect.

Question 61.
He failed to appear at a conference. (Rewrite using ‘not’.)
Answer:
He did not appear at a conference.

Question 62.
Pick out the prepositions
(a) Hawking directs the program through a cheek muscle attached to a sensor.
(b) He was rushed to the hospital for being what ! the university officials described as being ‘gravely ill’.
Answer:
(a) through, to
(b) to, for, as.

Question 63.
(1) Write two compound words of your own
(2) Pick out the present participle and use it in a sentence He has done groundbreaking work in physics and cosmology.
(3) Spot the errors in the sentence and rewrite the sentence It been translated into many than 40 languages.
(4) Frame a sentence using the given phrase to look into
(5) Identify the sentence Hawking’s health, of course, remains a constant concern.
(6) Write the present participle verb form of the given words (a) simplify, (b) argue
(7) Arrange the words in alphabetical order speech, spontaneous, space, spine
(8) Write two hidden words in the word international
Answer:
(1) noteworthy, worldwide (humankind, handheld)
(2) Present Participle groundbreaking Sentence C V Raman carried out groundbreaking work in the field of light scattering.
(3) It has been translated into more than 40 languages.
(4) The teacher said he would look into the matter of the missing chocolates.
(5) Assertive Sentence.
(6) (a) simplifying (b) arguing
(7) space, speech, spine, spontaneous
(8) inter, intern (nation, national)

Question 64.
(1) Write a word that sounds the same as the given word and make sentences with both the words allowed
(2) Complete the word chain of nouns from the lesson. cosmology y………….. …………… …………..
(3) Prepare a word register of 4 words for the given word time.
(4) Rewrite using the indirect form of narration. “Because there is a law such as gravity, the universe can and will create itself from nothing,” Hawking said.
Answer:
(1) allowed – He allowed the students to take a break. aloud – He was angry when the student spoke aloud.
(2) cosmology, years, scientist, time, existence
(3) time age, day, date, year, (month, clock, tide, moment, second, present, past, future, term, hour, era, century, interval, tempo, week)
(4) Hawking said that because there was a law such as gravity, the universe could and would create itself from nothing.

Question 65.
(1) Change to the comparative degree It is the highest civilian award in the US.
(2) Use the given word as a noun and verb in sentences focus
Answer:
(1) It is the higher than any other civilian award in the US.
(2) focus (a) After Std. X, you must focus on your career, (verb)
(b) Never lose focus of your goals in life, (noun)