Prasanna

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Geography Important Questions Chapter 6 Tertiary Economic Activities Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Geography Important Questions Chapter 6 Tertiary Economic Activities

Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
Canadian Pacific Railway connects
(a) Halifax – New York
(b) Vancouver – Boston
(c) Halifax- New Orleans
(d) Vancouver – Halifax
Answer:
(d) Vancouver – Halifax

Question 2.
Panama Canal connects
(a) Atlantic – Pacific
(b) Atlantic – Indian Ocean
(c) Bay of Bengal – Arabian sea
(d) Mediterranean Sea – Red sea
Answer:
(a) Atlantic – Pacific

Question 3.
Trans-Siberian Railway line connects
(a) Moscow – Novosibirsk
(b) Vancouver – Boston
(c) Moscow – Khabarovsk
(d) Moscow – Vladivostok
Answer:
(d) Moscow – Vladivostok

Question 4.
Suez Canal connects
(a) Atlantic – Pacific
(b) Atlantic – Indian Ocean
(c) Bay of Bengal – Arabian sea
(d) Mediterranean Sea – Red sea
Answer:
(d) Mediterranean Sea – Red sea

Identify the correct correlation.

A : Assertion, R : Reasoning
Question 1.
A – Some products are processed in secondary activities.
R – Some products received from primary activities cannot be consumed directly.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
A – In international trade of grapes, air transport is used.
R – Grapes are perishable goods.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.

Question 3.
A – In Africa and South America, construction of roads and railways of long distance is difficult.
R – Generally, it is easier to build roads and railways where relief is not rugged.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 4.
A – Densely populated countries have to worry about feeding their own populations.
R – The country with less population will depend less on trade because of less human resources engaged in production.
(a) Only A is correct.
(d) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Identify the incorrect factor.

Question 1.
Important stations of Trans-Siberian railway
(a) Vladivostok
(b) Moscow
(c) Hamburg
(d) Novosibirsk
Answer:
(c) Hamburg

Question 2.
Important stations on Canadian Pacific railway
(a) Halifax
(b) Boston
(c) Montreal
(d) Vancouver
Answer:
(b) Boston

Question 3.
Important ports on Mumbai-Tokyo waterway
(a) Mumbai
(b) Colombo
(c) Perth
(d) Tokyo
Answer:
(c) Perth

Question 4.
Important airports on Mumbai-Washington air route
(a) Istanbul
(b) London
(c) Halifax
(d) Washington
Answer:
(c) Halifax

Question 5.
Parts of the world known for their specific art and craft
(a) Kashmiri shawl
(b) Indian textile
(c) Iranian carpets
(d) Batik print of Indonesia
Answer:
(b) Indian textile

Question 6.
Transportation facilities are well developed in
(a) North America
(b) Africa
(c) Asia
(d) Europe
Answer:
(b) Africa

Question 7.
Important quinary activities are-
(a) Government officials
(b) Scientists
(c) Judges
(d) Statisticians
Answer:
(d) Statisticians

Question 8.
Important quaternary activities are-
(a) Financial planner
(b) Tax consultant
(c) Judges
(d) Software developers
Answer:
(c) Judges

Question 9.
The factors which affect tertiary activities are-
(a) Soil
(b) Climate
(c) Relief
(d) Location
Answer:
(a) Soil

Complete the Chain

Question 1.

A	B	C
(1) Climate	(1) Soil	(1) Import food
(2) Natural Resources	(2) High density	(2) Woollen products
(3) Population	(3) Dry farming	(3) Agriculture
(4) Culture	(4) Snow covered area	(4) Kashmiri shawl
(5) Israel	(5) Art and craft	(5) Export services for agriculture

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Climate	(1) Snow covered area	(1) Woollen products
(2) Natural Resources	(2) Soil	(2) Agriculture
(3) Population	(3) High density	(3) Import food
(4) Culture	(4) Art and craft	(4) Kashmiri shawl
(5) Israel	(5) Dry farming	(5) Export services for agriculture

Question 2.

A	B	C
(1) Climate	(1) Skills	(1) Information technology
(2) Population	(2) Tropical	(2) Tea, Coffee export
(3) Culture	(3) Poor soil	(3) Export oil
(4) Gulf countries	(4) Art and craft	(4) Chinese porcelain

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Climate	(1) Tropical	(1) Tea, Coffee export
(2) Population	(2) Skills	(2) Information technology
(3) Culture	(3) Art and craft	(3) Chinese porcelain
(4) Gulf countries	(4) Poor soil	(4) Export oil

Give geographical reasons.

Question 1.
The population of the country also affects trade.
Answer:
The quality and quantity of population in the country have direct effect on the trade.
Densely populated countries have a lot of local demand. So, there is hardly any surplus for export trade.
The thinly populated countries have limited local demand. Therefore, they have a lot of surplus for trade.

The quality of population also affects trade. More resourceful, enthusiastic and skilled people in the country, more innovative production and trade in the country.

In many countries, skills of a person is preserved from generation to generation. Hence, they are specialised in certain products. Therefore, they develop trade of such goods. For example, carpets in Iran, woollen goods of Jammu and Kashmir, Chinese porcelain, etc.

The standard of living also affects trade. In some countries population is less but due to high standard of living, there is more demand for expensive goods. So, import trade is developed there.

Answer the following questions by any given map.

1. Write the name of transcontinental railway line in Russia.
2. Write the name of transcontinental railway line in Canada.
3. Write the name of canal which connects Red Sea with Mediterranean Sea or Asia with Europe.
4. Write the name of canal which connects Pacific Ocean with Atlantic Ocean.
5. Write the name of the important international airport of North India.
6. Name the international airport of UK.
7. Which means of transport are shown in the map?

Answer:

1. The transcontinental railway line in Russia is the Trans-Siberian railway line.
2. The transcontinental railway line in Canada is the Canadian-Pacific railway line.
3. The canal which connects Red Sea with Mediterranean Sea or Asia with Europe is the Suez canal.
4. The canal which connects Pacific Ocean with Atlantic Ocean is the Panama canal.
5. The important international airport of North India is in Delhi.
6. The important international airport of the UK is in London.
7. The means of transport shown in the map are transcontinental railway lines and airways.

Write short notes on.

Question 1.
Climate and trade.
Answer:
Climate has a direct effect on agriculture of the country. Due to favourable climate there is specialisation of certain crops in some areas. For example, due to hot and humid climate there is specialisation of rice crops in Southeast Asian countries. So, they have developed trade of rice in the world.

The quality of grass depends upon climate. In cool climates, soft and juicy grass grows, so such area has developed pastoral activities and trade of animal products. For example, Australia and New Zealand have become some of the leading exporters of butter, cheese, condensed milk powder, mutton, etc.

Climate also affects the growth and type of forest in the country. Due to a cool climate in Canada, Russia, Scandinavian countries, the coniferous forest grows which provides softwood; it has great demand in the world market. Therefore, Canada, Norway, Sweden, Finland, Russia are leading exporters of wood.

In some countries, there is a specialization of certain goods due to specific climates. For example, in snow-covered areas there is more production of woolen goods; therefore, there is more export trade of woolen goods from the Jammu and Kashmir states of India.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Geography Important Questions Chapter 4 Primary Economic Activities Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Geography Important Questions Chapter 4 Primary Economic Activities

Identify the correct correlation.

A: Assertion R : Reasoning
Question 1.
A – Collection of forest products is not done on large scale in the equatorial forest region.
R – Humid and unhealthy climate of the equatorial region.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
A – Commercial lumbering is not done in equatorial rainforest.
R – Trees in equatorial rain forest have hardwood.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 3.
A – Lumbering is mostly practiced in coniferous forest region.
R – Coniferous forest are not very dense.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(a) Only A is correct.

Question 4.
A – Fishing on the coastal areas of Japan is well developed.
R – Presence of cold and warm ocean water currents.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 5.
A – Animal husbandry has developed on a commercial basis in North America and Australia.
R – In North and South America animal husbandry is carried out with the help of advanced technology on a commercial basis.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Identify the incorrect factor

Question 1.
Commercial fishing is carried along the following coastlines.
(a) North-East Atlantic coastline
(b) North-West Atlantic coastline
(c) Eastern coastline of Africa
(d) North-West coastline of Pacific Ocean
Answer:
(c) Eastern coastline of Africa

Question 2.
Agriculture is developed in the following continents.
(a) Antarctica
(b) Asia
(c) Europe
(d) North America
Answer:
(a) Antarctica

Question 3.
Animal husbandry is developed on a commercial basis in the following continents.
(a) North America
(b) Australia
(c) Asia
(d) South America
Answer:
(c) Asia

Question 4.
The following physical factors are important for agriculture.
(a) Climate
(b) Transport
(c) Soil
(d) Relief
Answer:
(b) Transport

Question 5.
The following economic factors are essential for agriculture.
(a) Transport
(b) Storage facilities
(c) Climate
(d) Capital
Answer:
(c) Climate

On an outline map of the world, show the following with appropriate symbols and prepare-an index.

Question 1.
(a) Horticultural area in Europe
(b) Plantation agriculture area in Asia
(c) Extensive commercial agriculture area in USA and Russia
(d) North-East Atlantic fishing
(e) Countries leading in commercial lumbering in Europe,
(f) Mining areas in Africa
Answer:

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Political Science Important Questions Chapter 5 Contemporary India: Good Governance Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Political Science Important Questions Chapter 5 Contemporary India: Good Governance

Complete the following statements by selecting the appropriate option.

Question 1.
The concept of ‘citizens charter’ is part of
(a) POSDCORB
(b) development administration
(c) good governance
(d) NGO activity
Answer:
(c) good governance

Question 2.
The good governance model looks at inter-linkages between the government and
(a) civil society
(b) political parties
(c) public administration
(d) human rights
Answer:
(a) civil society

Question 3.
The culture of ‘secrecy’ in administration has been challenged by the good governance value of
(a) effectiveness
(b) transparency
(c) accountability
(d) equity
Answer:
(b) transparency

Question 4.
The Consumer Protection Act was passed in the year
(a) 1986
(b) 1990
(c) 2000
(d) 2012
Answer:
(a) 1986

Identify the incorrect pair in every set and correct it.

Question 1.
(a) Lokayuktas – States
(b) Fundamental duties – good governance
(c) E-governance – Digitisation of records
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy – good governance
Answer:
(b) Fundamental duties – good governance

Complete the following sentences by selecting the appropriate reason.

Question 1.
Governance is a broader view of public administration because ………………
(a) it includes not only formal institutions of government but also informal institutions.
(b) it is based on e-governance.
(c) it was introduced after the second ARC.
Answer:
(a) it includes not only formal institutions of government but also informal institutions.

State the appropriate concept for the given statements.

Question 1.
Wide range of organisations such as labour unions, NGO’s etc.
Answer:
Civil Society

Question 2.
Institution created in India in 2013 to inquire into allegations of corruption against officials at union level.
Answer:
Lokpal

Question 3.
Governance facilitated by I.C.T.
Answer:
e-governance

Question 4.
Act of 2005 that enables citizens to seek important public information from the government.
Answer:
Right to Information Act

Find the odd word.

Question 1.
Religious groups, Bur6aucracy, Professional groups, NGO’s.
Answer:
Bureaucracy (not included in civil society / non-state actors)

Question 2.
Buddhists, Christians, Hindus, Jains.
Answer:
Hindus (not included in religious minorities in India)

Question 3.
Secrecy, Efficiency, Responsiveness, Inclusiveness.
Answer:
Secrecy (not a core value of good governance)

Question 4.
Policy framework, Funding framework, Institutional framework, Redressal and grievances framework
Answer:
Redressal and grievances framework (not a pillar of e-governance)

Complete the concept maps

Question 1.

Answer:

State whether the following statements are true or false with reason.

Question 1.
Good governance approach is a break from the traditional model of public administration.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. Good governance approach aims to improve the performance of public institutions by making administration citizen-centered and not merely rule-bound.
2. It aims to replace traditional administration that was archaic and riddled with red tapism and corruption with participative, responsive, equitable and transparent administration.

Question 2.
E-governance has brought administration closer to people.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. E-governance refers to good governance which is facilitated using Information and Communications Technology (ICT) This helps in the instantaneous transmission, processing, storage and retrieval of data.
2. The objective of the National e-governance Plan of Government of India is to bring public service closer home to citizens. This can be done by building a countrywide infrastructure and large scale digitisation of records to enable easy, reliable access over the Internet for e.g., passport application can be done online.

Question 3.
Right to Information is the key to strengthening participatory democracy.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. Right to Information Act, 2005 has enabled citizens to seek important public information from the government and helps to usher in people-centered governance.
2. R.T.I is a basic necessity of good governance as it helps to bring transparency in government organisations and makes them function in an efficient, responsive manner.

Explain the correlation between the following.

Question 1.
Good Governance – Traditional model of administration.
Answer:
The concept of development administration brought in changes in the traditional role of administration. Governance refers to the cooperative effort of government as well as non¬government bodies in public administration. Since the traditional approach of public administration was archaic, riddled with red tapism and corruption it would not satisfy the requirements of the citizens. The good governance model is based on core values of efficient, effective, responsible, responsive, transparent and accountable public administration.

Question 2.
Citizen participation – Good governance.
Answer:
In development administration, not only the government but also citizens and NGO’s play a vital role. The term ‘governance’ is used to describe this cooperative effort of the government and non¬governmental bodies in public administration.
The Good Governance approach aims at the following-

1. to reform the traditional, huge-sized public administration which was riddled with red tape and corruption
2. to replace the archaic systems with responsible, participative and equitable systems
3. to look at interlinkages between government and civil society
4. to make the administration citizen-centered and not rule bound.

Citizen participation refers to the following aspects-

1. the development process is a ‘bottom-up’ approach in which citizens are not recipients but participants in this process
2. citizens have a right in making decisions pertaining to themselves
3. there are modalities by which citizens can take control of resources and influence decision making
4. it contributes to a responsive, participative democracy.

Question 3.
Good Governance – Right to Information. (RTI)
Answer:
In development administration, not only the government but also citizens and NGO’s play a vital role. The term ‘governance’ is used to describe this cooperative effort of the government and non¬governmental bodies in public administration.
The Good Governance approach aims at the following-

1. to reform the traditional, huge-sized public administration which was riddled with red tape and corruption.
2. to replace the archaic systems with responsible, participative and equitable systems.
3. to look at interlinkages between government and civil society.
4. to make the administration citizen-centered and not rule bound.

The R. T. I became operative w.e.f. 12th October 2005. The main objectives of the R.T.I is for citizens to secure access to information under control of public authorities so as to increase citizens awareness and ability to exercise their other rights. It is a basic necessity of good governance which enables citizens to seek important public information from the government i.e., about public policies and actions Transparency in government institutions makes them function more objectively and enables citizens to participate effectively in the governance process.

R.T.I. is an implied fundamental right under the constitution i.e., a part of Article 19 (1) (a) as well as of Article 21. It grants access to information held by a public authority so as to promote openness, transparency and accountability in administration. According to the UN Commission on Human Rights, “Good governance creates an enabling environment conducive to the enjoyment of human rights and prompts growth and sustainable development”. Thus R.T.I. helps in good governance.

Express your opinion of the following.

Question 1.
The National Commission for Minorities (NCM) is an important institutional mechanism towards good governance.
Answer:
I agree with this statement.
The NCM was set up by the Union Government under National Commission for Minorities Act (1992). It monitors the working of safeguards for religious minorities (i.e. Muslim, Christian, Sikh, Buddhist, Zoroastrian (Parsis) and Jain). It looks into specific complaints regarding deprivation of rights of the minorities and takes up such matters with the appropriate authorities. The NCM enables that benefits of good governance must be available to all sections of society, especially to minorities.

Answer the following question in 80 to 100 words.

Question 1.
Elaborate on e-Governance.
Answer:
In the last few decades, governance has become more complex and varied. Citizens expectations from the government have also increased. Information and Communications Technology (ICT) is used in governance. This is called ‘e-governance’. It helps in-

1. instant transmission and processing information and efficient storing and retrieval of data.
2. increasing the reach of government both geographically and demographically.
3. speeding up decision making and increasing transparency and accountability of government processes. E-governance in India has evolved from computerisation of departments to initiatives which are citizen centric and service oriented.

The Government of Maharashtra has identified six priority pillars to use e-governance so as to become proactive and responsive to its citizens’ needs.
Pillar – 1: Establishment of Policy/Legal Frameworks: Legal Framework has to be updated regularly with changing times and technologies.
Pillar – 2: Develop Strong Capacity Building Framework: Capacity Building of employees is necessary.
Pillar – 3: Facilitate abundant Funding: Ensure mechanisms for provision of adequate and timely funds.
Pillar – 4: Institutional Framework: Develop administrative structures that are capable of envisioning and guiding the e-Governance programs.
Pillar 5 – Build Core e-Governance Common Infrastructure: Develop the core e-Governance infrastructure like Data Centre, Common Service Centres and State Wide Area Network etc.
Pillar 6 – Develop Common Statewide Projects: Develop applications like e-Tendering, e-Office, SMS gateway, payment gateway etc. that are common to majority of State departments to ensure coordination.

Question 2.
Discuss the initiatives for good governance in India.
Answer:
After independence, India adopted a socialist model of development aimed at achieving a Welfare State. The Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances looks after administrative reforms in India. It’s objectives are-

1. to promote administrative reforms in government policies and processes.
2. to promote citizen-centric governance.
3. to conduct innovations in e-governance.

The Second Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) was set up in 2005 to prepare a blueprint for revamping the public administration system in India. It looked at the following issues.

1. To make public administration accountable, transparent, efficient, responsive and result- oriented.
2. Citizen centric, participative administration.

There have been a large number of reform measures which have sought to bring administration closer to the people. Broadly these initiatives include :

1. Enacting laws giving certain rights to people.
2. Setting up of new institutional mechanisms to redress citizens’ grievances.
3. Improving accessibility to citizens by setting up units closer to people.
4. Simplifying procedures to reduce bureaucratic delays.
5. Using technology to improve internal efficiency.
6. Reducing regulatory control.
7. Holding public contact programmes etc.

Question 3.
Find out examples of the reforms that have been initiated for each of the measures stated below.
Answer:

1. Enacting laws giving rights to people – Reform initiated – Right to Information (2005).
2. Setting up of new institutional mechanisms to redress citizens’ grievances – Reform initiated: Creating commissions like NHRC, NCW, NCM, etc.
3. Improving accessibility to citizens by setting up units closer to people – Reform initiated: Building a countrywide infrastructure reaching down to the remotes areas.
4. Simplifying procedures to reduce bureaucratic delays – Reform initiated: Formulation of Citizen’s Charters to specify service standards.
5. Using technology to improve internal efficiency – Reform initiated: e-governance i.e., use of Information and Communications Technology (I.C.T) to enable easy access over the internet.
6. Improving discipline within the organisation – Reform initiated: Establishing body of Lokpal for the Union and Lokayukta for States.

Answer the following question with reference to the given points.

Question 1.
Discuss in detail the following specific programmes aimed at bringing good governance in India.
(a) Lokpal and Lokayukta
(b) Right to Information
(c) E-Governance
(d) Citizen’s Charters
Answer:
After independence, India adopted a socialist model of development aimed at achieving a Welfare State. The Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances looks after administrative reforms in India. It’s objectives are-

1. to promote administrative reforms in government policies and processes.
2. to promote citizen-centric governance.
3. to conduct innovations in e-governance.

The Second Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) was set up in 2005 to prepare a blueprint for revamping the public administration system in India. It looked at the following issues.

1. to make public administration accountable, transparent, efficient, responsive and result-oriented.
2. citizen centric, participative administration.

(a) Lokpal and Lokayukta – The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act (2013) provides for the establishment of Lokpal (central government) and Lokayuktas (States) to inquire into allegations of corruption against public officials in a commitment to responsive, clean governance. The Maharashtra Lokayukta Institution came into being in 1972.

(b) Right to Information – It is a basic necessity of good governance which enables citizens to seek important public information from the government i.e., about public policies and actions. Transparency in government institutions makes them function more objectively and enables citizens to participate effectively in the governance process.

(c) E-Governance In the last few decades, governance has become more complex and varied. Citizens expectations from the government have also increased. Information and Communications Technology (ICT) is used in governance. This is called ‘e-governance’. It helps in-

1. instant transmission and processing information and efficient storing and retrieval of data.
2. increasing the reach of government both geographically and demographically.
3. speeding up decision making and increasing transparency and accountability of government processes. E-governance in India has evolved from computerisation of departments to initiatives which are citizen centric and service oriented.

(d) Citizen’s Charters – The exercise to formulate citizen’s charters began in 1996. Each organisation must spell out the services it has to perform and the standards / norms for these services. If these standards are not met then that agency can be held accountable.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Geography Important Questions Chapter 1 Population Part 1 Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Geography Important Questions Chapter 1 Population Part 1

Choose the correct option by identifying the correct correlation in the sentences.

Question 1.
…………… continent has the least population.
(a) Europe
(b) North America
(c) Australia
(d) Africa
Answer:
(c) Australia

Question 2.
………………. continent has the largest population.
(a) Europe
(b) North America
(c) Asia
(d) Africa
Answer:
(c) Asia

Question 3.
…………………. continent has the largest land mass in the world.
(a) North America
(b) South America
(c) Asia
(d) Australia
Answer:
(c) Asia

Question 4.
……………… continent has the smallest land mass in the world.
(a) Australia
(b) Europe
(c) North America
(d) Africa
Answer:
(a) Australia

Question 5.
…………………. continent has the most landmass as well as most of the population.
(a) North America
(b) Asia
(c) Africa
(d) Australia
Answer:
(b) Asia

Question 6.
…………….. continent has the least landmass and also least population.
(a) South America
(b) North America
(c) Australia
(d) Europe
Answer:
(c) Australia

Question 7.
…………………. country has the largest population in the world.
(a) India
(b) China
(c) USA
(d) Australia
Answer:
(b) China

Question 8.
……………….. country has the second largest population in the world.
(a) China
(b) USA
(c) India
(d) Brazil
Answer:
(c) India

Question 9.
The crude birth rate per thousand in India is ………………..
(a) 46
(b) 12
(c) 12
(d) 18
Answer:
(d) 18

Question 10.
The crude death rate per thousand in India ………………..
(a) 9
(b) 11
(c) 7
(d) 8
Answer:
(c) 7

Complete the chain.

Question 1.

A	B	C
(1) Asia	(1) 28.50% of the world landmass	(1) 18.09% of the world population
(2) Europe	(2) 5.90% of the world landmass	(2) 0.55% of the world population
(3) Australia	(3) 6.80% of the world landmass	(3) 4.75% of the world population
(4) North and South America	(4) 29.20% of the world landmass	(4) 59.65% of the world population

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Asia	(1) 29.20% of the world landmass	(1) 59.65% of the world population
(2) Europe	(2) 6.80% of the world landmass	(2) 4.75% of the world population
(3) Australia	(3) 5.90% of the world landmass	(3) 0.55% of the world population
(4) North and South America	(4) 28.50% of the world landmass	(4) 18.09% of the world population

Question 2.

A	B	C
(1) India	(1) 171 lakh sq. km	(1) 1073 persons per sq. km
(2) USA	(2) 105 lakh sq. km	(2) 411 persons per sq. km
(3) Bangladesh	(3) 95.3 lakh sq. km	(3) 34 persons per sq. km
(4) Russia	(4) 321 lakh sq. km	(4) 8.5 persons per sq. km

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) India	(1) 32.9 lakh sq. km	(1) 411 persons per sq. km
(2) USA	(2) 95.3 lakh sq. km	(2) 34 persons per sq. km
(3) Bangladesh	(3) 1.5 lakh sq. km	(3) 1073 persons per sq. km
(4) Russia	(4) 171 lakh sq. km	(4) 8.5 persons per sq. km

Question 3.

A	B	C
(1) Mountains	(1) Siberia	(1) High density of population
(2) Climate	(2) Odd physical conditions	(2) Government promote to shift people
(3) Mining	(3) Mediterranean	(3) Equable climate
(4) Government	(4) Dehradun	(4) High cost minerals attract people

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Mountains	(1) Dehradun	(1) High density of population
(2) Climate	(2) Mediterranean	(2) Equable climate
(3) Mining	(3) Odd physical conditions	(3) High cost minerals attract people
(4) Government	(4) Siberia	(4) Government promote to shift people

Question 4.

A	B	C
(1) Stage 1	(1) Birth rate is not less than death rate but it is almost the same	(1) China
(2) Stage 2	(2) Birth rates and death rates are also decreasing	(2) USA
(3) Stage 3	(3) Birth rate and death rates are high, population growth is stable	(3) No country in this category
(4) Stage 4	(4) Reduction in death rates and birth rates are constant	(4) Population explosion

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Stage 1	(1) Birth rate and death rates are high, population growth is stable	(1) No country in this category
(2) Stage 2	(2) Reduction in death rates and birth rates are constant	(2) Population explosion
(3) Stage 3	(3) Birth rates and death rates are also decreasing	(3) China
(4) Stage 4	(4) Birth rate is not less than death rate but it are almost the same	(4) USA

Identify the incorrect factor.

Question 1.
Continents which have least population.
(a) South America
(b) Asia
(c) Australia
(d) Africa
Answer:
(b) Asia

Question 2.
Continents which have large population.
(a) Europe
(b) North America
(c) Asia
(d) Africa
Answer:
(d) Africa

Question 3.
Physical factors affecting population distribution.
(a) Relief
(b) Climate
(c) Soil
(d) Transportation
Answer:
(d) Transportation

Question 4.
Human factors affecting population distribution.
(a) Agriculture
(b) Availability of water
(c) Urbanisation
(d) Transportation
Answer:
(b) Availability of water

Question 5.
Sparsely populated regions in the world.
(a) Snow covered regions
(b) Hot deserts
(c) Coastal regions
(d) Mountainous and hilly regions
Answer:
(c) Coastal regions

Question 6.
Densely populated regions of the world.
(a) Hot deserts
(b) Coastal plains
(c) Flat plains
(d) Flood plains
Answer:
(a) Hot deserts

Question 7.
Countries which have large population in the world.
(a) India
(b) China
(c) USA
(d) Australia
Answer:
(d) Australia

Question 8.
Countries which have low population in the world.
(a) China
(b) Australia
(c) Brazil
(d) Rumania
Answer:
(a) China

Question 9.
Countries which have crude birth rate more than 10 in the year 2017.
(a) Sweden
(b) China
(c) USA
(d) Greece
Answer:
(d) Greece

Question 10.
Countries which have crude death rate less than 10 in the year 2017.
(a) Sweden
(b) Greece
(c) India
(d) China
Answer:
(b) Greece

Complete the following as per instructions.

Question 1.
Arrange the following continents on the basis of area in percentage in ascending order. Antarctica, Europe, North America, Asia, Australia
Answer:
Australia, Europe, Antarctica, North America, Asia

Question 2.
Arrange the following continents on the basis of area in the percentage in descending order.
Australia, Asia, North America, Antarctica, Europe
Answer:
Asia, North America, Antarctica, Europe, Australia

Question 3.
Arrange the following continents on the basis of population in percentage in descending order.
North America, South America, Africa, Asia, Australia, Antarctica
Answer:
Asia, Africa, North America, South America, Australia, Antarctica

Question 4.
Arrange the following continents on the basis of population in percentage in ascending order.
Australia, Antarctica, Asia, Africa, North America, South America
Answer:
Antarctica, Australia, South America, North America, Africa, Asia.

Question 5.
Arrange the following countries on the basis of population in crores in descending order.
India, Pakistan, USA, Russia, China
Answer:
China, India, USA, Pakistan, Russia

Question 6.
Arrange the following countries on the basis of population in crores in ascending order.
Russia, China, Mexico, India, Brazil
Answer:
Mexico, Russia, Brazil, India, China

Question 7.
Arrange the following countries in descending order on the basis of birth rate in the year 2017.
USA, Greece, China, India, Niger
Answer:
Niger, India, China, USA, Greece

Question 8.
Arrange the following countries in ascending order on the basis of birth rate in the year 2017.
USA, Greece, China, India, Niger
Answer:
Greece, USA, China, India, Niger

Question 9.
Arrange the following countries in descending order on the basis of death rate in the year 2017.
China, India Greece, USA, Sweden
Answer:
Greece, Sweden, USA, India, China

Question 10.
Arrange the following countries in ascending order on the basis of death rate in the year 2017.
China, India, Greece, USA, Sweden
Answer:
China, India, USA, Sweden, Greece

Write short notes on.

Question 1.
Impact of climate on distribution of population.
Answer:

• Climate is the most important factor of all the factors influencing the distribution of population.
• Areas of extreme climate like too hot, too cold, too humid, too dry and region of very heavy rainfall are not comfortable for inhabitation of people. Such areas are sparsely populated.
• For example, polar regions where Eskimo and Lapps live are sparsely populated due to extreme cold climate. Sahara Desert is sparsely populated due to extreme hot climate.
• On the other hand, areas with equable climate, that is climate with not much seasonal variation attract people. People feel comfortable to stay in these areas.
• For example, coastal areas have dense population because of equable climate and wide scope for the development of agriculture, industries and trade.

Question 2.
Impact of transportation on distribution of population.
Answer:
1. Availability of transport facilities is also an important human factor which affect the distribution of population in

2. Roads and railways are two important means of transportation. They increase accessibility to the region and provide facilities for the movement of people goods. Thus, developing trade and generating employment opportunities. Hence, population in such areas increases.

3. For example, density of roads and railways is very high in Uttar Pradesh and therefore it is one of the most densely populated state of India.

4. In some areas due to growth of sea transport, development of port cities and trade takes place. There is also an increase in the transport facilities connecting to the surrounding areas. Therefore, population in coastal areas increases. For example, port cities on eastern and western coastal of India are densely populated.

5. On the other hand, due to lack of transport facilities areas become inaccessible, movement of goods and people become costly and require more time and hence such areas are thinly populated.

Question 3.
Impact of mining on distribution of population.
Answer:

• Minerals are important raw materials in the development of industries.
• Therefore, industries develop where good quality minerals are available. Mining and industries generate employment for large number of people and hence skilled and semi¬skilled labourers attract to such regions and mining areas become densely populated.
• For example, Richest mineralised zone of India – Chota Nagpur region, Ruhr region of Germany (due to coal and iron mines) are densely populated.
• In some country’s valuable minerals like gold, silver, copper are mined. In such areas in spite of adverse climate and relief minerals are extracted. Also, the region around the mines are densely populated.
• For example, gold producing areas in Africa, mineral oil mines in the deserts of south-west Asia.

Question 4.
Stage 5 of Demographic Transition Theory.
Answer:

• Stage 5 in Demographic Transition Theory is the last stage.
• In this stage the birth rate is very low and death rate is high. Therefore, the growth of population is slow or negative growth of population is seen.
• Due to large number of old people the death rate is high and due to a smaller number of young people birth rate is low.
• Tertiary activities are more developed and they contribute more to the economy.
• The standard of living of people is high, economic condition of the country is good.
• In this stage government provides high quality educational and medical facilities.
• Overall people are happy due to healthy environment and comfortable life.
• For example, Norway, Sweden, Finland are in this stage.

Question 5.
Population characteristics in Stage 1 and Stage 2 in Demographic Transition theory
Answer:

Stage 1	Stage 2
(i) Both birth rates and death rates are high.	(i) Birth rates are constant and death rates are declining.
(ii) Population growth is stable.	(ii) Population grows rapidly.
(iii) Low sanitation, high occurrence of contagious diseases.	(iii) Efforts are made to control and combat diseases.
(iv) Due to lack of medical facilities and malnutrition mortality rate is high.	(iv) Reduction in mortality rate.
(v) People depend on agriculture and other primary activities.	(v) Secondary activities and transport developed
(vi) No country falls in this category.	(vi) Most of the developing countries fall in this category.

Question 6.
Population composition and Population structure
Answer:

Population composition	Population structure
(i) Population composition covers all the characteristics of population that can be measured.	(i) Composition of population gives idea about the structure of population.
(ii) On the basis of composition, we can classify and understand it’s characteristics.	(ii) Population structure gives idea about dependency ratio and its impact on economy of the country.
(iii) Examples of population composition are age structure, sex ratio, literacy rate, occupational structure etc.	(iii) For example, age composition gives idea about percentage of young, adult and old age population.

Question 7.
Population characteristics in Stage 4 and Stage 5 in Demographic Transition Theory.
Answer:

Stage 4	Stage 5
(i) Improvement in the economic status of the citizens.	(i) High economic status of the citizens of the country.
(ii) Secondary and tertiary occupations have higher share than primary occupations.	(ii) Tertiary occupation contribute most towards the economy.
(iii) Population growth is almost minimal.	(iii) Population may reduce because of lower birth rate than death rate.
(iv) USA is passing through this stage.	(iv) Sweden and Finland population are in this stage.

Question 8.
Early expanding stage and Late expanding stage
Answer:

Early expanding stage	Late expanding stage
(i) Birth rates continue to remain constant.	(i) Death rates continue to decrease. Birth rates are also decreasing.
(ii) Population grows rapidly.	(ii) Rate of growth of population reduces.
(iii) Agricultural and industrial production increases.	(iii) Rise in technological growth and expansion of secondary and tertiary activities.
(iv) For e.g., Uganda, Congo, Bangladesh, Niger etc.	(iv) For e.g., China.

Answer the following questions in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the human factors affecting distribution of population.
Answer:
Important human factors affecting distribution of population are
(i) Agriculture
(ii) Mining
(iii) Transportation
(iv) Urbanisation
(v) Government policy

(i) Agriculture

• Due to use of fertilizers and irrigation facilities, agricultural production increases and it supports large number of people.
• The method of cultivation, crops grown, types of agriculture and specialisation in particular crop are the other factors that affects the distribution of population.

(ii) Mining

• Minerals are the important raw materials for the development of industries.
• Industries develop in mineral rich areas and generate employment for skilled and unskilled labour. People are attracted in such areas and thus density of population increases.
• For example, richest mineralised zone of India – Chota Nagpur region in India is densely populated.

(iii) Transportation

• Regions having well developed network of transportation facilities are densely populated.
• Transportation network increases accessibility and helps to develop industries and generate employment and increases density of population.
• On the other hand, the areas where transport facilities are not developed, movement of goods and people become difficult and time consuming and therefore density of population is less.

(iv) Urbanisation

• Due to the development of industries, there is growth of towns and cities.
• In cities transportation, trade and other tertiary activities develop on large scale to fulfil the needs of increasing population.
• People are attracted to city areas due to better employment opportunities, educational and medical facilities, development of means of transport and communication and thus population goes on increasing. For e.g. Mumbai, London, Tokyo, New York.

(v) Government policy

• There is direct effect of government policies on density and distribution of population.
• Sometimes the government encourages people to settle in certain areas to reduce the pressure of population in certain cities. The government provides incentives to attract people.
• For example, to reduce overcrowding in Mumbai city, government provided land, water, and power at concessional rate in New Mumbai area.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Political Science Important Questions Chapter 4 Contemporary India: Challenges to Peace, Stability and National Integration Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Political Science Important Questions Chapter 4 Contemporary India: Challenges to Peace, Stability and National Integration

Complete the following statements by selecting the appropriate option.

Question 1.
‘Unity in diversity is one of the important Indian values associated with
(a) Panchayati Raj
(b) National integration
(c) Concept of a nation
(d) Concept of ‘melting pot’
Answer:
(b) National integration

Question 2.
Charu Majumdar is associated with the
(a) JKLF
(b) Naxal movement
(c) Hizb-ul-Mujahideen
(d) Assam Oil Blockage
Answer:
(b) Naxal movement

Question 3.
States in India were reorganised in 1956 on the basis of
(a) language
(b) religion
(c) region
(d) caste
Answer:
(a) language

Question 4.
In 1947-48, India had a conflict with
(a) Jammu and Kashmir
(b) England
(c) Pakistan
(d) China
Answer:
(c) Pakistan

Question 5.
In 1980, an oil blockade agitation was in to focus on the demand for economic development.
(a) Jharkhand
(b) Nagaland
(c) Kashmir
(d) Assam
Answer:
(d) Assam

Question 6.
………………. signed the Instrument of Accession with India in 1947.
(a) Maharaja Hari Singh
(b) Amanullah Khan
(c) Kanu Sanyal
(d) Hafiz Saeed
Answer:
(a) Maharaja Hari Singh

Identify the incorrect pair in every set and correct it.

Question 1.
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru – Discovery of India
(b) Struggle for rights of Tamil – LTTE
(c) National Integration Council – Article 370
Answer:
(c) ‘Special status’ for State of Jammu and Kashmir – Article 370

Complete the following sentences by selecting the appropriate reason.

Question 1.
In 1962, the N. I. C was created in India to ……………….
(a) review all matters pertaining to national integration.
(b) oversee the integration of Princely States into India.
(c) deal with insurgency in North-East India.
Answer:
(a) review all matters pertaining to national integration.

Question 2.
The freedom movement played an important role in national integration because …………….
(a) it provided a platform to express democratic views.
(b) it brought Indians together in a common framework of political identity and loyalty.
(c) it provided nationalistic symbols like the National Flag and common citizenship.
Answer:
(b) it brought Indians together in a common framework of political identity and loyalty.

Question 3.
India can be described as the ‘Salad bowl’ identity because ………………….
(a) it recognizes every culture, religion, etc., of a pluralistic society and it’s importance in national integration.
(b) it stresses on a system of assimilation towards a homogeneous society.
(c) it recognizes the right to self-determination of diverse groups in the country.
Answer:
(a) it recognizes every culture, religion, etc., of a pluralistic society and it’s importance in national integration.

State the appropriate concept for the given statements.

Question 1.
A sense of political identity.
Answer:
Nationalism

Question 2.
Concept used to describe American society based on a process of assimilation.
Answer:
Melting pot

Question 3.
The concept that argues that all aspects of diversity should be maintained in a pluralistic society.
Answer:
Salad bowl

Question 4.
Secessionist movement in the Punjab in 1980s.
Answer:
Khalistani movement

Question 5.
A militant movement that originated in the communist ideology
Answer:
Naxalism or Left Wing Extremism

Find the odd word.

Question 1.
CPI (M-L), PWG, MCCI, NIC.
Answer:
NIC (not a Naxal organisation)

Question 2.
Lashkar-e-Taiba, JKLF, IRA, Jaish-e-Mohammed.
Answer:
IRA (not a terrorist group operating in India)

Question 3.
Kerala, Jharkhand, Telangana, Chhattisgarh.
Answer:
Kerala (not affected by Naxalism)

Observe the maps in the textbook and answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Which two union territories have been created due to the bifurcation of the State of Jammu and Kashmir (2019)?
Answer:

1. Jammu and Kashmir
2. Ladakh

Question 2.
Name two Indian States that border Jammu and Kashmir.
Answer:

1. Punjab
2. Himachal Pradesh

Question 3.
Name two districts in the Union Territory of Ladakh.
Answer:

1. Kargil
2. Leh

Question 4.
Name two district in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.
Answer:

1. Udhampur
2. Kupwara

Question 5.
Name two countries that were neighbours of the erstwhile State of Jammu and Kashmir.
Answer:

1. China
2. Pakistan

State whether the following statements are true or false with reason.

Question 1.
Cross Border terrorism in Jammu and Kashmir is a major threat to nation building in India.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. There are many terrorist outfits operating out of Pakistan Occupied Kashmir (POK) or Pakistan such as LET, Hizbul. This has led to frequent terrorist violence in the region since the last two and half decades.
2. Terrorists indulge in acts like bombings, assassinations, etc. They try to radicalise people through ‘fake news’ and vested social groups as well as to encourage local insurgent groups. Terrorists have even indoctrinated children to hate the country and indulge in criminal acts like stone throwing and arson.

Question 2.
Left-Wing Extremism has spread over many States in India.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. Left-Wing Extremism or Naxalism has it’s ideological foundations in communism and the writings of Charu Majumdar. It’s main purpose is to show existing government structures and process as being ineffective.
2. Maoist operations are primarily in rural underdeveloped areas with support base among landless and dalits across the Red Corridor i.e., States like Bihar, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, etc.

Question 3.
The Khalistan movement occurred in the State of Kashmir
Answer:
This statement is False.

1. The Khalistan movement occurred in the State of Punjab as a separatist movement for an independent homeland for Sikhs i.e., The Khalistan or the Land of the Khalsa.
2. The Jammu and Kashmir region has been subjected to terrorism due to local militant outfits as well as cross border terrorism.

Question 4.
Modern day terrorism is State-centric.
Answer:
This statement is False.

1. Modern day terrorism is not State-centric but is a global abstract fight for religious or ideological goals e.g., 2001 attacks by the A1 Qaeda in USA.
2. Traditional form of terrorism was State-centric i.e., a specific section of people fighting for their rights against the State e.g., LTTE in Sri Lanka.

Explain the correlation between the following.

Question 1.
Insurgency in North East India and Neglect of the region
Answer:
North-East India comprises of eight States which are ethnically and culturally very diverse. Many of these States share boundaries with other countries like China, Nepal, Bhutan, Myanmar, Bangladesh. Many of these States are not well connected with mainland India. Some regions of the states in North-East India are not well developed. Ensuring industrial and economic development has been a major issue. Various insurgent groups have created havoc in States like Nagaland, Mizoram, Tripura, etc., In Assam, the ‘anti-foreigner’ movement was about it’s resources being diverted elsewhere, leading to lack of development.

Express your opinion of the following.

Question 1.
Naxal operations are primarily prevalent in underdeveloped areas of the country.
Answer:
Naxalism is a movement based on Maoist ideology that began in 1967 at Naxalbari (West Bengal) as a protest against the feudal order and oppression by the landlords. Naxalites target existing infrastructure and aim to show government programmes as ineffective. Naxalites find support amongst landless agricultural labour, tribals and dalits. They are based in inaccessible, underdeveloped areas of India which lack communication facilities, are heavily forested or have difficult terrain where the security forces find it difficult to operate.

Question 2.
National unity is not homogeneity.
Answer:
National unity refers to solidarity among citizens of a country. It advocates a ‘community of communities’ with respect to diversity, shared values and experiences. It is ethnic, religious, linguistic acceptance towards peace and stability. National unity is a major step towards social peace i.e., it is essential in maintaining a stable, functional and harmonious society. National unity in India reflects the ‘salad bowl’ concept i.e., it is not an assimilation of diverse groups but the maintenance of distinctive beliefs in a plural society.

Question 3.
India went into an economic transformation in the 1990s.
Answer:
After independence, India adopted a socialistic pattern of society with mixed economy and Five Year Plans. However, keeping in view, socio-political changes in the world such as the collapse of the Soviet Union, India went into an economic transformation in the 1990s. It opted for economic liberalisation to tackle the problem of economic stagnation. This led to economic recovery of the country.

Question 4.
The National Integration Council (N. I. C) plays an important role in nation building.
Answer:
In 1961, the first National Integration Conference was held to find ways to combat evils like casteism, communalism, regionalism, etc. Based on it’s recommendations, National Integration Council was set up in 1962, to review all matters pertaining to national integration. It dedicates itself to achieving values like equality, justice, fraternity, secularism and unity in diversity.

Answer the following question in 80 to 100 words.

Question 1.
Trace the changes that have taken place in Article 370.
Answer:
Article 370 gave special status to Jammu and Kashmir (J & IQ conferring it with the authority to have a separate constitution, separate State flag and autonomy over it’s internal administration. The article was drafted in Part XXI of the Indian constitution : Temporary, Transitional and special provisions. Along with Article 35A, this article defined that residents of Jammu and Kashmir had separate laws related to citizenship, ownership of property, etc. The Constituent Assembly of Jammu and Kashmir was empowered to recommend articles of the India constitution that should be applied to the State and a subsequent. Presidential Order (1954) was issued.

On 5th August 2019, the Government of India revoked the special status granted to Jammu and Kashmir under Art. 370. President Ramnath Kovind issued an order nullifying all provisions of autonomy granted to the State. Both houses of Parliament passed the Reorganisation of Jammu and Kashmir bill. As of now the following changes are apparent;

1. People of the State have access to all government schemes like Reservations, RTE, RTI, etc.
2. The State was bifurcated into the Union Territories of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh.

Answer the following question with reference to the given point in 150 to 200 words.

Question 1.
Challenges to nation building in India.
(a) Terrorism
(b) Communalism
(c) Left Wing Extremism
Answer:
Nation building means constructing a national identity which aims at uniting the people within a country so that it remains politically stable. It is closely related to the concept of national integration. It demands a democratic government and participative civil society. Nation building in India faces several challenges such as casteism, regionalism, communalism, insurgency, extremism and terrorism.

(a) Terrorism – It is the actual use or threat to use violence with an intention to disrupt life and create panic. It is called ‘asymmetric’ or ‘indirect’ warfare. It may take the form of assassination of political figures, hijackings, bombings and attacks on civilians etc. Earlier, terrorism was State-centric e.g., LTTE in Sri Lanka. However, modern day terrorism aims for abstract ideological or religious goals at the global level e.g., Taliban, Boko Haram. India has been the target of numerous terrorist attacks e.g., bomb blasts in Mumbai (1993, 2006) and LET attack on 26th November 2008 in Mumbai, attack on Parliament (2001), attacks on security forces at Uri (2016) and Pulwama (2019).

(b) Communalism refers to excessive pride in and attachment to one’s own religion/sect that leads to religious orthodoxy or fundamentalism and promotes intolerance and hatred of other religious groups. In India, roots of communalism can be traced to-

1. British policy of ‘Divide and Rule’.
2. Hindu and Muslim revivalist movements.
3. Rise of communal, fundamentalist parties and other vested interests that aim to radicalise members of their communities.
4. Politics of appeasement by various political parties.
5. psychological factors – history of communal violence has led to lack of trust between Hindus and Muslims.
6. Role of media and ‘fake news’ which may indulge in sensationalism aimed to incite communal hatred.

Some of the prominent cases of communal violence in India are:

1. 1947-49 there was mass bloodshed in the wake of the Partition of India.
2. 1969 Ahmedabad riots.
3. 1983 in Assam against Muslim immigrants from Bangladesh.
4. 1984 Anti-Sikh riots broke out after the assassination of Mrs. Indira Gandhi especially in Delhi.
5. 1992-93 saw the worst riots post independence following demolition of the Babri Masjid especially in Mumbai, Surat, etc.
6. 2002 Gujarat riots especially in Godhra.
7. 2013 Muzaffarnagar riots in UP.

(c) Left Wing Extremism – Left Wing Extremism (also called Maoist movement or Naxalism) has major support base among landless labourers, dalits and tribals who experience a sense of oppression, injustice and neglect. The first attempt to promote a peasant struggle was the Telangana Movement (1946-51). The Naxal movement originated in 1967 in Naxalbari (West Bengal) led by Kanu Sanyal and writings of Charu Majumdar.

Since 1980s the movement has taken a militant turn. In 2004 CPI (M-L), People’s War Group (PWG) and Maoist Communist Centre of India merged to form CPI (Maoist) which aims to overthrow the government, Naxal activities aim to and destroy public property and attack police and officials. The Red Corridor of Naxal activities extends across States like Bihar, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, etc.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Political Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Key Concepts and Issues Since 1991: Globalisation Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Political Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Key Concepts and Issues Since 1991: Globalisation

Complete the following statements by selecting the appropriate option.

Question 1.
Some of the important changes that occurred in the economic sphere in the age of globalization are
(a) Free flow of finance capital
(b) Creation of GATT
(c) Rise of Transnational Companies
(d) Focus on intellectual property rights
Answer:
(c) Rise of Transnational Companies

Question 2.
The term ‘socialist market economy’ is used to describe the system in
(a) India
(b) China
(c) France
(d) United States
Answer:
(b) China

Question 3.
Activities like farming, fishing, etc., are included in the ……….. sector.
(a) primary
(b) secondary
(c) service
(d) tertiary
Answer:
(d) tertiary

Question 4.
The Indus Waters Treaty is signed between India and
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Nepal
(c) China
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(d) Pakistan

Question 5.
At Kundankulam there is opposition to building of the
(a) airport
(b) special economic Zone
(c) nuclear power plant
(d) oil refinery
Answer:
(c) nuclear power plant

Complete the following sentences by selecting the appropriate reason.

Question 1.
Investment in the infrastructure sector is more important than that in the consumer sector because ………………….
(a) there is greater extent of profit in it.
(b) real development will take place only when infrastructure is prevalent.
(c) foreign investments are mostly in the consumer sector.
Answer:
(b) real development will take place only when infrastructure is prevalent.

Question 2.
Prior to the 1990s, foreign investments in India were rare because ………………
(a) government regulations made investments difficult.
(b) cold war was in progress.
(c) India was self reliant and did not need any investments.
Answer:
(a) government regulations made investments difficult..

Question 3.
TRIPs by WTO is a significant treaty because ………………
(a) it has replaced the GATT.
(b) it has extended the multilateral trading systems to services.
(c) it sets down minimum standards for most forms of intellectual property regulation.
Answer:
(c) it sets down minimum standards for most forms of intellectual property regulation.

Question 4.
During the Cold War, India had a mixed economy as ………………….
(a) it was nonaligned.
(b) both public sector and private sector played an important role.
(c) it had adopted the economic pattern of Soviet Union.
Answer:
(b) both public sector and private sector played an important role.

State the appropriate concept for the given statements.

Question 1.
Changes that occurred in the post cold war era due to advanced interconnectedness and technology.
Answer:
Globalisation

Question 2.
A category of property that refers to intangible creations of human intellect such as patents.
Answer:
Intellectual property

Find the odd word.

Question 1.
Wipro, Dabur, Burger King, ONGC.
Answer:
Burger King (not an Indian MNC)

Question 2.
Manufacturing, Farming, Mining, Fishing
Answer:
Manufacturing (not from primary sector)

Question 3.
Copyrights, Insurance, Trademarks, Patents.
Answer:
Insurance (not intellectual property)

Question 4.
Green Peace, Amnesty International, Red Cross, Taliban.
Answer:
Taliban (terrorist outfit)

Expand the following abbreviations.

Question 1.
WTO
NGO
GATT
TRIPs
Answer:
WTO – World Trade Organisation
NGO – Non-Governmental Organisation
GATT – General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade
TRIPs – Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights

State whether the following statements are true or false with reason.

Question 1.
Position of the State is being challenged externally as well as internally.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. Some analysts argue that in the age of globalisation, the State has become less important. It’s sovereignty is being challenged from both, outside and within.
2. External challenges come from rise of regional organisations, international laws, growing humanitarian concerns, etc. Internal challenges come from growth of ethnic nationalism, relevance of non State actors and a decline of national consensus.

Question 2.
Countries should have the right to interpret human rights according to their situation.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. In the age of globalisation, protection and promotion of human rights is very significant. The western approach to human rights focuses on civil and political rights while developing countries maintain that economic development must precede full enjoyment of individual rights.
2. Countries have to interpret human rights in accordance to their history, culture, economic and political needs.

Question 3.
In a globalised world, the State has become irrelevant.
Answer:
This statement is False.

1. Many analysts explain that the role of the State is slowly reducing in the economic as well as political sphere. Some of the State’s powers may have reduced due to international treaty obligations but the State’s authority remains the same.
2. The State still remains the key actor in the domestic as well as international sphere. The State remains relevant inspite of the emergence of global civil society and increasing levels of cross border trade and investment.

Question 4.
All countries in the world follow almost the same type of economic system today.
Answer:
This statement is False.

1. Today, in a globalised world, there appears to be only one dominant ideological and economic , system i.e. ‘Market Economy.’ However, the nature of the market economy is determined by the ideology of that country.
2. The USA has a ‘capitalist market’ economy which combines capitalist system with market economics. In most West European nations, the political system is a ‘welfare State’, so they adhere to welfare market economies. China has a socialist market economy and Indian system is described as economic liberalism.

Explain the correlation between the following.

Question 1.
Transnational Corporations – Globalisation
Answer:
Transnational Corporations are a type of Multi National Companies e.g., General Electric, Walmart, Nike etc. It is a borderless entity as it does not consider any particular country as it’s homebase. Globalisation has led to many private sector companies expanding their area of operations in foreign lands. Due to globalisation traditional companies can now spread out their operations in many countries to sustain high levels of responsiveness to the local markets. Transnational Corporations (TNCs) try to make decisions from a global perspective rather than from one centralised base. Actions taken by TNC’s can help in better relationships between nations as well as in the spread of resources.

Express your opinion of the following.

Question 1.
Multi National Companies are both beneficial as well as disadvantageous to developing nations.
Answer:
Multi National Companies (MNC’s) refer to organizations that own or control production of goods or services in at least two or more countries other than it’s home country e.g., Amazon, Coca-Cola Company, eBay, Honda, etc.

The advantages of MNC’s are they improve local infrastructure, provide local employment, diversify local economies, encourage innovation and better standards of production. They provide an inflow of capital and help to utilise the developing nation’s resources.

Disadvantages of MNC’s in developing countries are that natural resources may be overexploited, environment may be damaged, local laws may be ignored, MNC’s import skilled labour and so may not really lead to better employment but may put local outfits out -of business.

Question 2.
The Arab spring in Egypt is sometimes called the ‘Facebook revolution’ in Egypt.
Answer:
The Arab Spring refers to a series of anti-government protests and uprisings that spread across much of the Arab world in the early 2010s. It began in Tunisia and spread to Libya, Egypt, Yemen, Syria and to a smaller extent to Iraq, Lebanon, Sudan, Morocco, etc. It’s main goals were regime change, economic progress and human rights. In Egypt, it began on 25th January 2011 when millions of protestors all over Egypt protested against President Hosni Mubarak’s regime. This was in response to a ‘Day of Revolution’ organized on Facebook on 25th January. It lasted till 11th February 2020.

Answer the following question in 80 to 100 words.

Question 1.
Discuss the political issues in the context of globalisation.
Answer:
Globalisation refers to the rapid spread of goods and services, technology and information, ideas and culture, trade and interactions across the world. It is the connection of different parts of the world resulting in the expansion of international cultural, informational, economic and political activities. In the early 1990s, the term globalisation was used to include economic, political, socio¬cultural, technological and ideological changes that occurred in the world in the post cold war era. The world has become more interconnected due to advances in technology and communication. Events in one part of the world have an impact on other parts of the world. Changes have taken place economically and culturally.

The political issues in the context of globalisation are-
1. Importance of Democracy – Disintegration of the Soviet Union and the revolutions in East European countries was an expression of end of communism and a move towards democratic systems. Today, concepts like ‘Participatory State’, ‘Good governance’, etc., have become important. A participatory State indicates that all sections of society participate in policy making and in the democratic process. Good governance focuses on the role of civil society in the functioning of an accountable, responsible and responsive government.

2. Position of the State – Under globalisation, sovereignty of the State which is closely linked to it’s jurisdiction appears to be challenged internally and externally. Internal challenges include activism of nonstate actors, rise of divisive factors, decline of national consensus, etc while external challenges include rise of regional economic organisations, growing humanitarian concerns, etc.

3. Nonstate actors – Today, not only States but also non-state actors like NGO’s play a significant role in international affairs and in promoting humanitarian issues.

4. Human Rights – Protection and promotion of human rights is an important issue in the age of globalisation. Countries interpret human rights in accordance with their history, culture, economy and polity, Many nations including India lay stress on social justice before full enjoyment of civil and political rights.
It is often argued that the role and importance of the State is slowly reducing, However, the State is still pivot in domestic and international spheres.

Question 2.
Discuss the economic issues in the context of globalisation.
Answer:
Globalisation refers to the rapid spread of goods and services, technology and information, ideas and culture, trade and interactions across the world. It is the connection of different parts of the world resulting in the expansion of international cultural, informational, economic and political activities. In the early 1990s, the term globalisation was used to include economic, political, socio-cultural, technological and ideological changes that occurred in the world in the post cold war era. The world has become more interconnected due to advances in technology and communication. Events in one part of the world have an impact on other parts of the world. Changes have taken place economically and culturally.

The economic issues in the context of globalisation are-
1. Free flow of finance and capital – Investments provide finance and help to build industries. Indian companies both private for e.g., Tatas and government e.g., ONGC have invested in many countries in Asia, Africa and Europe. Foreign companies have also invested in India in sectors like power plants, infrastructure projects, consumer food chains, etc. This free flow of capital is both ways i.e., India to foreign countries and vice-versa. Foreign investment especially in the infrastructure sector is essential.

2. Change in the concept of trade

• WTO – It was established in 1995 to replace GATT. The WTO is the only agency that oversees the rules of international trade, settles trade disputes and organises trade negotiations and agreements.
• The scope of the term ‘trade’ has widened to include not only traditional commodities like fruits, grains, minerals, oil, etc., but also services like banking, insurance and intellectual property like trademarks.
• Use of container cargo ships to carry huge amount of goods all over the world.

3. Rise of Transnational companies for e.g., Nestle, Unilever, etc., operate in India. Even Indian multinational companies like Wipro, Bajaj, etc are doing well. This affects the economy as follows-

• Labour market – MNC’s recruit skilled and semi-skilled employees for eg Indian labour is employed in West Asia, Europe, USA, etc in industrial and service sectors.
• Small shops and industries – Those stores which are efficient, continue to thrive while some industries either sell out to MNC’s or shut down.
• Agricultural sector- Many MNC’s have introduced new technology and opened up direct markets for Indian agricultural products for eg India exports spices, fish, etc. to many nations.

Answer the following question with reference to the given point in 150 to 200 words.

Question 1.
Discuss the following issues in the context of globalisation.
(a) Economic issues
(b) Ideological issues
(c) Socio-cultural issues
(d) Technological issues
Answer:
Globalisation refers to the rapid spread of goods and services, technology and information, ideas and culture, trade and interactions across the world. It is the connection of different parts of the world resulting in the expansion of international cultural, informational, economic and political activities. In the early 1990s, the term globalisation was used to include economic, political, socio¬cultural, technological and ideological changes that occurred in the world in the post cold war era. The world has become more interconnected due to advances in technology and communication. Events in one part of the world have an impact on other parts of the world. Changes have taken place economically and culturally.
(a) Economic Issues
Some economic changes that have occurred due to globalisation.
1. Free flow of finance and capital – Investments provide finance and help to build industries. Indian companies both private for e.g., Tatas and government e.g., ONGC have invested in many countries in Asia, Africa and Europe. Foreign companies have also invested in India in sectors like power plants, infrastructure projects, consumer food chains, etc. This free flow of capital is both ways i.e., India to foreign countries and vice- versa. Foreign investment especially in the infrastructure sector is essential.

2. Change in the concept of trade

• WTO – It was established in 1995 to replace GATT. The WTO is the only agency that oversees the rules of international trade settles trade disputes and organises trade negotiations and agreements
• The scope of the term ‘trade’ has widened to include not only traditional commodities like fruits, grains, minerals, oil, etc., but also services like banking, insurance and intellectual property like trademarks.
• Use of container cargo ships to carry huge amount of goods all over the world.

3. Rise of Transnational companies for e.g., Nestle, Unilever, etc., are operate in India. Even Indian multinational companies like Wipro, Bajaj, etc., are doing well. This affects the economy as follows-

• Labour market – MNC’s recruit skilled and semi-skilled employees for e.g., Indian labour is employed in West Asia, Europe, USA, etc., in industrial and service sectors.
• Small shops and industries – Those stores which are efficient, continue to thrive while some industries either sell out to MNC’s or shut down.
• Agricultural Sector – Many MNC’s have introduced new technology and opened up direct markets for Indian agricultural products for e.g., India exports spices, fish, etc., to many nations.

(b) Ideological Issues – During the Cold War, East European nations, Soviet Union and China followed socialist ideology where the public sector was important. USA and West European countries were capitalist and so the private sector was important. India followed Democratic Socialism and a ‘Mixed Economy’ where both public and private sector coexisted in the economic system.

Today, there is only one dominant ideological and economic system i.e., Market Economy. However, the nature of the market economy is determined by the ideology of that country for e.g., USA has ‘capitalist market economy’, many west European countries have ‘Welfare market economy’, China has ‘socialist market economy’. The Indian system is based on ‘economic liberalism’.

(c) Social and Cultural Issues – Today a ‘global cosmopolitan culture’ has emerged i.e movement of people across the world and public awareness of global issues. This is noticed in matters like values e.g., secularism, clothing, food choices, ways of celebrating festivals, etc. There is international awareness of India’s rich cultural and historical heritage. Similarly, westernisation and urbanisation have influenced Indian society eg breakup of the traditional joint family and rise of individualism and materialism in the country.

(d) Technological issues – Rapid advances in global communication such as Internet, satellite communication etc brought in revolutionary changes in our lives. The internet has provided search engines like ‘Google’ to find out information and has enabled social networking through micro media like Instagram, Skype, etc. All these technologies are transnational and may be positively inclined e.g., NGO’s working for humanitarian issues or negatively inclined such as terrorist organisations.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 4 Cognitive Processes Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Psychology Important Questions Chapter 4 Cognitive Processes

Choose the correct option and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
Stimuli that are near to each other are perceived as a unit, this refers to the law of……………
(a) proximity
(b) continuity
(c) similarity
Answer:
(a) proximity

Question 2.
The learning process by forming associations or connections is called ………………
(a) assimilation
(b) classical conditioning
(c) operant conditioning
Answer:
(b) classical conditioning

Question 3.
…………… is the mental manipulation of information.
(a) Creativity
(b) Learning
(c) Thinking
Answer:
(c) Thinking

Match the pairs.

Question 1.

Group A	Group B
1. Albert Bandura	(a) Learning by assimilation and accommodation
2. B.F. Skinner	(b) Learning by classical conditioning
3. Max Wertheimer	(c) Learning by observation
4. Edward Tolman	(d) Learning by operant conditioning
5. Jean Piaget	(e) Learning by use of cognitive processes
	(f) Laws of perception grouping

Answer:

Group A	Group B
1. Albert Bandura	(c) Learning by observation
2. B.F. Skinner	(d) Learning by operant conditioning
3. Max Wertheimer	(f) Laws of perception grouping
4. Edward Tolman	(e) Learning by use of cognitive processes
5. Jean Piaget	(a) Learning by assimilation and accommodation

State whether the following statements are true or false.

Question 1.
Size and intensity of the stimulus influences attention.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
It is very easy to divide our attention to two tasks simultaneously.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Awareness of the stimuli around us is called perception.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Top-down processing is influenced by the context in which the information occurs.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
The tendency to fill in gaps in an incomplete stimulus so as to perceive it as a meaningful figure refers to the law of closure.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
All changes in behaviour can be attributed to learning.
Answer:
False

Answer the following in one sentence each.

Question 1.
What are cognitive process?
Answer:
Cognitive processes are those processes by which we become aware of and understand the world around us such as sensation, attention, perception, learning, memory, thinking, reasoning, problem solving, etc.

Question 2.
What is attention?
Answer:
Attention is the mental process of bringing few stimuli into the centre of awareness out of the many stimuli present.

Question 3.
What is fluctuation of attention?
Answer:
Our attention shifts from the original stimulus to another stimulus for a fraction of time and then comes back to the original stimulus.

Question 4.
What is perception?
Answer:
Perception is defined as the process of assigning meaning to information received about the environment based on the past experiences.

Question 5.
What is the perceptual law of similarity?
Answer:
Stimuli that are similar to each other are perceived together compared to stimuli that are distinct from each other.

Question 6.
What is thinking?
Answer:
Thinking is the mental activity that uses various cognitive elements and processes that involves the manipulation of information.

Question 7.
Explain the meaning of schema.
Answer:
Schema is an internal representation that organizes knowledge about related concepts and relationships among them.

Question 8.
What is learning?
Answer:
Learning is a relatively permanent change in behaviour that occurs due to experience or practice.

Question 9.
According to B.F. Skinner, how does learning take place?
Answer:
According to B. F. Skinner, learning takes place to gain positive consequences or to avoid negative consequences.

Question 10.
What is Jean Piaget’s view about the learning process?
Answer:
Jean Piaget explains that we learn by forming and refining our concepts on the basis of similarities and differences between the new and existing information.

Explain the concepts in 25 – 30 words each.

Question 1.
Attention
Answer:
Attention is the selective process by which we focus on only a few stimuli from among the various stimuli that are present in our environment. According to Norman Munn, “Attention is the mental process of bringing few stimuli into the centre of awareness out of the many stimuli present”. Attention is influenced by objective factors such as intensity, size, movement, repetition of the stimuli as well as subjective factors like interest, mind-set, experiences of the individual.

Question 2.
Distraction of attention
Answer:
Distraction of attention refers to the drifting of attention from a specific stimulus to another stimulus. This is due to external factors such as intensity, novelty, movement, colour, repetition, etc., of stimuli or internal factors like physical state, lack of interest, mental set of the individual.

Question 3.
Learning
Answer:
Learning is defined as “a relatively permanent change in behaviour that occurs due to experience or practice”. The characteristics of learning are:

1. It involves some relatively permanent change in behaviour.
2. The change in behaviour is due to experience or practice.
3. Change in behaviour may be in knowledge or in skill or in muscular movements.
4. Learning is an inferred process. The main processes by which learning occurs is by Classical Conditioning,
5. Operant Conditioning, Observation, Cognitive processes, etc.

Question 4.
Learning by cognitive processes
Answer:
Learning is a relatively permanent change in behaviour as a result of past experience or practice. According to Edward Tolman, learning may take place using cognitive processes like problem solving, reasoning, concept formation, etc. and not only due to the forming of connections (classical conditioning) or due to consequences of behaviour (operant conditioning).

Answer the following questions in 35 – 40 words each.

Question 1.
What does ‘span of attention’ refer to?
Answer:
Attention is the mental process of bringing few stimuli into the centre of awareness out of the many stimuli present.
It is the total number of stimuli that we can become clearly aware of in a single glance. Span of attention refers to the total number of stimuli that we can become clearly aware of in a single . glance. Span of attention is limited i.e., it is about 7 to 8 items only. Factors like age, intelligence, motivation, practice, etc., of the person affect the span of attention.

Question 2.
Explain division of attention.
Answer:
Attention is the mental process of bringing few stimuli into the centre of awareness out of the many stimuli present.
It is not possible to divide attention to two tasks simultaneously. We can perform two tasks at the same time only if both of them are too simple or mechanical. If we try to pay attention to two tasks at the same time it may result in decreased efficiency and more confusion. Example: if a person has to read a passage from a book and thread a needle simultaneously, it wouldn’t be possible.

Answer the following question 80 – 100 words each.

Question 1.
Types of perceptual processing.
Points:
(i) Top-down processing
(ii) Bottom-up processing
Answer:
Perception is defined as the process of assigning meaning to information received about the environment based on the past experiences.
The two types of processing and Top-down processing and Bottom-up processing.

(i) Top-down processing – If we pay attention to each of our senses all the time, our senses would be overwhelmed. Therefore, many times, our brain uses the context in which it appears or existing knowledge about it while perceiving a particular stimulus. This process is called as top-down processing. When we utilize top-down processing, our ability to understand information is influenced by cognition and context.

Our brain applies what it knows or expects to perceive to understand the stimulus. Top-down processing happens when we work from the general to the specific. It helps us to quickly make sense of the environment. However, perceptual set (our fixed way of viewing stimuli based on past experience/expectations) can hinder our ability to be creative/open-minded.

(ii) Bottom-up processing – Many times our perceptual experience is based entirely on the sensory stimuli and is not influenced by the context in which it appears. In such situations, we take in energy from the environment and convert it to neural signals (sensation) and then try to interpret it (perception). This process is called as bottom-up processing. Bottom-up processing is a process that starts with an incoming stimulus and works upwards until a representation of the object is formed in our brain. Our perceptual experience is based entirely on the sensory stimuli that we piece together. It is only data based i.e., takes place as it happens and requires no previous knowledge or learning.

For e.g.,
13 may be viewed as letter B or the number 13.
This is bottom-up processing-

1. 11, 12, 13, 14 – It is perceived as 13 in the number sequence.
2. ‘I enjoyed the film A13CD’. It is perceived as letter B.

Question 2.
Explain the processes of learning.
Points:
(i) learning by classical conditioning
(ii) learning by operant conditioning
(iii) learning by observation
(iv) learning by assimilation and accommodation
Answer:
Learning is defined as a relatively permanent change in behaviour that occurs due to past experience or practice.
The characteristics of learning are:

1. It involves some relatively permanent change in behaviour,
2. The change in behaviour is due to experience or practice,
3. Change in behaviour may be in knowledge, e.g. learning a new formula, or in skill, e.g. learning to ride a cycle, or in muscular movements.
4. Learning is an inferred process.

The processes of learning are:
(i) Learning by classical conditioning – Classical conditioning was first explained by Ivan Pavlov. It is learning by forming associations and by stimulus substitution. In daily life, we learn many things this way. Example: a child is given an injection by the doctor and begins to cry in pain. He soon makes the connection between ‘doctor’, ‘injection’ and ‘pain’ and begins crying as soon as he is taken to a doctor. Many of our fears, phobias and superstitions are learnt by classical conditioning.

(ii) Learning by operant conditioning – Learning by operant conditioning was first explained by B. F. Skinner. He said that learning takes place to gain positive consequences or to avoid negative consequences. Example: in Skinner’s experiment a rat was put in a special box that had a lever. When the rat pressed the lever, it received a food pellet. Gradually it learnt to press the lever to receive the pellet of food. In daily life, we tend to learn some behaviour either because we are rewarded for it or because we are not punished for it.

(iii) Learning by observation – According to Albert Bandura, we learn by observation and imitation of the of behaviour of others, etc. Both desirable behaviour and for e.g., empathy, and undesirable behaviour for e.g., bullying, can be learned this way. This occurs, in respect to skills, for e.g., eating with a fork/spoon as well as in our thinking, decision making, etc.

(iv) Learning by assimilation and accommodation – Jean Piaget explains that we learn by forming and refining our concepts on the basis of similarities and differences between new and existing information. Example: A child forms a concept of cow by extracting some characteristics of the cow. When the child encounters a buffalo he/she notices the differences between cow and buffalo and forms a new concept of buffalo.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 3 Personality Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Psychology Important Questions Chapter 3 Personality

Choose the correct option and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
………………… are outgoing, friendly, and talkative individuals.
(a) Introverts
(b) Extroverts
(c) Ambiverts
Answer:
(b) Extroverts

Question 2.
In the ……………. interview, the direction of the interview is predetermined.
(a) structured
(b) unstructured
(c) projective
Answer:
(a) structured

Question 3.
Rorschach’s Ink-Blots are a …………… test of personality.
(a) self-report
(b) situational
(c) projective
Answer:
(c) projective

Question 4.
……………….. is a self-report technique of personality assessment.
(a) TAT
(b) MBTI
(c) WAIS
Answer:
(b) MBTI

Question 5.
Projective techniques are based on the ………………… perspective.
(a) Behavioural
(b) Psychoanalytic
(c) Trait
Answer:
(b) Psychoanalytic

Match the Pair

Question 1.

Group A	Group B
1. S.R. Hathaway	(a) TAT
2. Hermann Rorschach	(b) Trait theory of personality
3. Morgan and Murray	(c) Type perspective of personality
4. McCrae and Costa	(d) MMPI
5. Gordon Allport	(e) Humanistic perspective of personality
6. Carl Jung	(f) Ink-blot test
	(g) Five factor model

Answer:

Group A	Group B
1. S.R. Hathaway	(d) MMPI
2. Hermann Rorschach	(f) Ink-blot test
3. Morgan and Murray	(a) TAT
4. McCrae and Costa	(g) Five factor model
5. Gordon Allport	(b) Trait theory of personality
6. Carl Jung	(c) Type perspective of personality

State whether the following statements are true or false.

Question 1.
Mass media plays a major role in personality development.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
A person who is high on conscientiousness will be hardworking, punctual and responsible.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Peer group influence on personality is always positive.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
According to the social cognitive perspective, observational learning plays an important role in personality development.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Cardinal traits are the building blocks of personality.
Answer:
False

Question 6.
Individuals who are high on openness to experience tend to be sensitive and sometimes nonconforming.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
Sentence Completion Test is a self-report technique.
Answer:
False

Answer the following in one sentence each.

Question 1.
What is a trait?
Answer:
A trait is a relatively enduring and consistent way of thinking, feeling and acting.

Question 2.
Name the two types of interviews.
Answer:
The two types of interviews are Structured interview and Unstructured interview.

Question 3.
According to Allport, what are the categories of traits ?
Answer:
According to Allport, the three categories of traits are Cardinal traits, Central trails and Secondary traits.

Question 4.
Who developed the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)?
Answer:
C.D. Morgan and Henry Murray developed the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT).

Question 5.
What was the early interpretation of personality?
Answer:
Personality was earlier interpreted as “projected behaviour” of an individual.

Question 6.
How do endocrine glands affect our personality?
Answer:
Over secretion or under secretion of hormones produced by the endocrine glands can adversely affect our personality.

Question 7.
What are some undesirable effects of excessive dependence on mass media by any person?
Answer:
Excessive dependence on mass media may lead to egocentrism, poor academic performance, sleep disturbances, etc.

Question 8.
What is the assumption of the type perspective of personality?
Answer:
The assumption of the type perspective of personality is that every individual has an unique personality type based on his/her physique, temperament and mental characteristics.

Question 9.
What does ambiverts refer to?
Answer:
In real life, most individuals tend to exhibit a blend of traits of introverts and extroverts, i.e., ambiverts.

Question 10.
Why do secondary traits play a minor role in personality?
Answer:
Secondary traits play a minor role in personality as they appear only in specific situations or under specific circumstances.

Question 11.
What does conscientiousness refer to?
Answer:
Conscientiousness concerns the way in which people control, regulate and direct their impulses.

Question 12.
What does neuroticism refer to?
Answer:
Neuroticism refers to a tendency to experience negative emotions such as anger, anxiety or depression more intensely and for longer periods than most people.

Define / Explain the concepts in 25 – 30 words each.

Question 1.
Introverts
Answer:
Carl Jung classified individuals into introverts and extroverts, based on the characteristics exhibited by them. Characteristics of introverts are:

1. Introverts tend to look within themselves for stimulation
2. they are shy, reserved, avoid social interactions
3. they choose careers and hobbies that do not involve much social contact
4. they may be sensitive to criticism.

Question 2.
Extroverts
Answer:
Carl Jung classified individuals into introverts and extroverts, based on the characteristics exhibited by them. Characteristics of extroverts are:

1. Extroverts depend on external stimulation and evaluate themselves based on impressions of others
2. they tend to be outgoing, cheerful, optimistic
3. they choose careers and hobbies that bring them in contact with others.
4. they tend to be enthusiastic, and full of energy.

Question 3.
Cardinal trait
Answer:
A trait is a relatively enduring and consistent way of thinking, feeling and acting. It is some distinctive characteristic of the person that leads him/her to behave in more or less consistent ways across situations and over a period of time. According to Gordon Allport, the categories of traits are Cardinal traits, Central traits and Secondary traits.

Cardinal trait is a single trait that dominates the individual’s personality. Every action of the person can be traced to the influence of this trait, for e.g., in case of Gandhiji honesty was the cardinal trait, in case of Napoleon, the cardinal trait was ambition.

Question 4.
Neuroticism
Answer:
Five factor model of personality is based on the trait perspective. It was proposed by Robert McCrae and Paul Costa. The five broad trait factors are-

1. Openness to Experience
2. Conscientiousness
3. Extroversion
4. Agreeableness
5. Neuroticism.

Neuroticism refers to a tendency to experience negative emotions such as anger, anxiety or depression more intensely and for longer periods than experienced by other people. Those who score high on neuroticism tend to be irritable, fearful, emotionally unstable and interpret ordinary situations as threatening and hopeless. Individuals who score low on neuroticism tend to be more emotionally stable and less likely to be frustrated or experience loneliness, guilt and anger.

Question 5.
Self-report inventories
Answer:
Personality can be assessed using techniques such as Self Report Measures (Inventories), Behavioural Analysis Techniques and Projective Techniques. In self-report inventories such as Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) 16 Personality Factor Questionaire (16 PFQ), etc., the individual provides information of his/ her personality by responding to statements/questions on the inventory. Responses are scored in quantitative terms and interpreted on the basis of norms that are developed for the test.

Answer the following questions in 35 – 40 words each.

Question 1.
How does the peer group influence personality of an individual?
Answer:
Peer groups refers to individuals of the same age group, e.g., classmates or sharing the same interests, e.g., members of a sports club. Influence of the peer group is most noticed in adolescence since it serves as a reference group. The influence of peer group on the person may be positive such as developing healthy gender attitudes, skills of communication, etc., or it may be negative e.g., developing aggressive tendencies, prejudices, etc.

Question 2.
Explain openness to experience as a factor in personality.
Answer:
According to the Five Factor Model proposed by Robert McCrae and Paul Costa, the five broad trait factors are:

1. Openness to Experience
2. Conscientiousness
3. Extroversion
4. Agreeableness
5. Neuroticism

People who are open to experience are intellectually curious imaginative, appreciative of art, sensitive to beauty. They sometimes tend to think and act in nonconforming, adventurous ways. Those with low openness to experience tend to be cautious, pragmatic, consistent and some times may be dogmatic.

Question 3.
Explain the psychoanalytic perspective of personality.
Answer:
The word personality is derived from the Latin word ‘persona’. According to Gordon Allport, “Personality is the dynamic organization within-the individual of those psychophysical systems that determines his unique adjustments to the environment.” The main perspectives of studying personality are Psychoanalytic, Humanistic, Social Cognitive, Trait perspective, etc.

The Psychoanalytic perspective explains that early childhood experiences and the unconscious mind play a role in personality development. Sigmund Freud is the main proponent of the psychoanalytic perspective.

Question 4.
Elaborate on central traits
Answer:
A trait is a relatively enduring and consistent way of thinking, feeling and acting. It is some distinctive characteristic of the person that leads him/her to behave in more or less consistent ways across situations and over a period of time. According to Gordon Allport, the categories of traits are Cardinal traits, Central traits and Secondary traits.

Central traits are a ‘core’ or ‘basic’ characteristics that form the building blocks of personality. There are about 5-10 traits such as sensitivity, sociability, diligence, etc., that can best describe an individual’s personality.

Write short notes on the following in 50 – 60 words each.

Question 1.
Carl Jung’s Theory of Personality.
Answer:
The word personality is derived from the Latin word ‘persona’ which was used to refer to masks worn by actors during a stage performance, Thus, the meaning of personality was interpreted as ‘projected behaviour’ of an individual.

According to Gordon Allport, “Personality is the dynamic organization within the individual of those psychophysical systems that determines his unique adjustments to the environment.” Carl Jung classified individuals into introverts and extroverts, based on the characteristics exhibited by them.
(a) The characteristics of introverts are:

1. they tend to look within themselves for stimulation
2. they are shy, reserved, avoid social interactions
3. they choose careers and hobbies that do not involve much social contact
4. they may be sensitive to criticism.

(b) The characteristics of extroverts are:

1. they depend on external stimulation and evaluate themselves based on impressions of others
2. they tend to be outgoing, cheerful, optimistic
3. they choose careers and hobbies that bring them in contact with others.
4. they tend to be enthusiastic, and full of energy.

In real life, most individuals tend to exhibit a blend of traits of introverts and extroverts i.e. ambiverts.

Question 2.
Interview as an assessment tool of personality.
Answer:
The word personality is derived from the Latin word ‘persona’ which was used to refer to masks worn by actors during a stage performance, Thus, the meaning of personality was interpreted as ‘projected behaviour’ of an individual.

According to Gordon Allport, “Personality is the dynamic organization within the individual of those psychophysical systems that determines his unique adjustments to the environment.” Personality can be assessed using techniques such as Self Report Measures (Inventories), Behavioural Analysis Techniques and Projective Techniques. Behavioural Analysis techniques include Interview and Observation.

Interview – It is a process in which the interviewer collects information about the personality of an interviewee by asking him/her specific questions. The main types of interview, depending on the purpose of assessment are – structured interview and unstructured interview.

(i) Structured interview – The number, type and sequence of questions to be asked in the interview are pre-determined. The answers expected are also specific. This type of interview is used where exact quantification is required, for e.g., industrial psychologists use structured interviews to select employees for a job.

(ii) Unstructured interview – The type and sequence of questions to be asked by the interviewer are not pre-determined. Detailed answers can be given and scoring is often subjective. It is employed by clinical psychologists, counsellors, etc.

Question 3.
Projective techniques.
Answer:
Projective techniques emerged from the psychoanalytic perspective. The individual responds freely to relatively unstructured or ambiguous stimuli/material. It is assumed that individuals project their own personality onto these stimuli, often revealing personal conflicts, hidden urges, coping styles, etc. Projective techniques cannot be scored in an objective manner. They use various materials like ink-blots, ambiguous pictures, incomplete sentences, word associations, etc. Main projective techniques include Rorschach’s The Ink-Blot Test, Tests, Thematic Apperception Test (TAT), Sentence Completion Test, etc.

Question 4.
Rorschach’s Ink-Blots
Answer:
Projective Techniques are a method of personality assessment. Projective techniques emerged from the psychoanalytic perspective. The individual responds freely to relatively unstructured . or ambiguous stimuli/material. It is assumed that individuals project their own personality onto these stimuli, often revealing personal conflicts, coping styles, etc. Projective techniques cannot be scored in an objective manner. They use various materials like ink-blots, ambiguous pictures, incomplete sentences, word associations, etc.

This test was developed by Hermann Rorschach in 1921. It uses ten irregular-ink-blots (five in black and white, five in colour.) standing against a white background. Each ink-blot is shown in a fixed number of ways and the subjects are asked to describe what they see in each card. The subjects are allowed to hold the card in any position they want, whether it’s upside down or sideways. Analysis of this test requires trained and skilful examiner.

Answer the following questions with given points in 80 – 100 words each.

Question 1.
Elaborate on the various projective techniques.
Points:
(i) Rorschach’s Ink-Blots
(ii) Thematic Apperception Test
(iii) Sentence Completion Test
Answer:
The word personality is derived from the Latin word ‘persona’ which was used to refer to masks worn by actors during a stage performance, Thus, the meaning of personality was interpreted as ‘projected behaviour’ of an individual.

According to Gordon Allport, “Personality is the dynamic organization within the individual of those psychophysical systems that determines his unique adjustments to the environment.”

The main assessment methods of personality are Self Report Inventories, Behavioural Analysis techniques and Projective Techniques. Projective techniques emerged from the psychoanalytic perspective. The individual responds freely to relatively unstructured or ambiguous stimuli/material. It is assumed that individuals project their own personality onto these stimuli, often revealing personal conflicts, coping styles, etc. Projective techniques cannot be scored in an objective manner. They use various materials like ink-blots, ambiguous pictures, incomplete sentences, word dissociations, etc. Main projective techniques include Rorschach’s Ink-Blot Tests, Thematic Apperception Test (TAT), Sentence Completion test, etc.

(i) Rorschach’s Ink-Blot Test:
This test was developed by Hermann Rorschach in 1921. It uses ten irregular-inkblots (five in black and white, five in colour.) standing against a white background. Each inkblot is shown in a fixed number of ways and the subjects are asked to describe what they see in each card. The subjects are allowed to hold the card in any position they want, whether it’s upside down or sideways. Analysis of this test requires trained and skilful examiner.

(ii) Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) :
The TAT was developed by Morgan and Murray in 1935. It requires the individual to look at the picture and to interpret it by telling a story. The individual is invited to say what led up to the scene in the picture, why such events occurred, what is currently happening and what the consequences will be?

(iii) Sentence-completion test:
Sentence completion test (SCT) is a type of projective technique used to assess personality. The individual is given a series of incomplete sentences and is asked to complete them in his/her own words, for e.g., My mother …………., My greatest fear is ………….. It is assumed that the
endings provided by the person will reflect their motivation, urges, internal conflicts etc.

Answer the following questions in 150 – 200 words each.

Question 1.
Define personality. Explain the factors that affect personality.
Answer:
The word personality is derived from the Latin word ‘persona’ which was used to refer to masks worn by actors during a stage performance, Thus, the meaning of personality was interpreted as ‘projected behaviour’ of an individual.

According to Norman Munn, “Personality is a unique combination of individual’s physical structure, needs, interests, abilities and aptitudes.” According to Gordon Allport, “Personality is the dynamic organization within the individual of those psychophysical systems that determines his unique adjustments to the environment.” Personality is shaped by biological factors like heredity and endocrine glands and by psychosocial factors like family, peer groups, school and culture.

(i) Heredity – It implies the genetic inheritance of an individual. Heredity affects the physical characteristics, for e.g., height, physique, etc. It also influences the self-concept which in turn influences personality.

(ii) Endocrine glands – Personality is shaped by endocrine glands like pituitary, thyroid, adrenals, pancreas, gonads, etc. Over secretion or under secretion of hormones produced by these glands can adversely affect our personality, for e.g., over secretion of growth hormone by the pituitary gland leads to gigantism (very tall).

(iii) F amily – As the first agency of socialization, the fqmily exerts a strong influence on personality. Aspects of family such as family structure, atmosphere, and relationships, family interactions and childrearing practices influence personality, for e.g., if parents show rejection or over protection, etc., towards the child, it leads to low self-esteem and has adverse effects on the personality.

(iv) Peer group – It refers to individuals of the same age group, e.g., classmates or sharing the same interests, e.g., members of a sports club. Influence of the peer group is most noticed in adolescence since it serves as a reference group. The influence of peer group on the person may be positive such as developing healthy gender attitudes, skills of communication, etc., or it may be negative e.g., developing aggressive tendencies, prejudices, etc.

(v) School – Various aspects of school such as teaching-learning process, academic and co-curricular facilities, role of the teachers, school location, management and discipline, etc., influence the child’s personality, for e.g., teachers who are well qualified, creative, build a rapport which the students, tend to motivate students and help to develop a good personality.

(vi) Mass media – It includes print media e.g., newspapers; audio-visual media e.g., T.V. and new media e.g., internet. Media is a source of information, education, entertainment and even socialization. It has a considerable effect on our value system, behaviour patterns and personality. However, excessive dependence on media may lead to egocentrism, poor academic performance, difficult in concentration, sleep disturbance, etc.

(vii) Cultural factors – Culture refers to the customs, values and social behaviour of a particular society. Every culture has its own set of beliefs, norms, expectations, etc., which influence the thoughts, feelings and behaviour of its members.

Question 2.
Discuss the various methods of personality measurement.
Answer:
The word personality is derived from the Latin word ‘persona’ which was used to refer to masks worn by actors during a stage performance, Thus, the meaning of personality was interpreted as ‘projected behaviour’ of an individual.

According to Gordon Allport, “Personality is the dynamic organization within the individual of those psychophysical systems that determines his unique adjustments to the environment.” According to Norman Munn, “Personality is a unique combination of individual’s physical structure, needs, interests, abilities and aptitudes

The main methods to assess personality include Behavioural Analysis techniques, Projective techniques and Self-Report Measures (Personality inventories).

(i) Behavioural Analysis
Behavioural Analysis techniques such as Interview and Observation can provide information about an individual’s personality in a variety of situations.
(a) Interview – It is a process in which the interviewer collects information about the personality of an interviewee by asking him/her specific questions. The main types of interview depending on the purpose of assessment are: structured interview and unstructured interview

1. Structured interview – The number, type and sequence of questions to be asked are pre-determined. The answers expected are also specific. This type of interview is used where exact quantification is required, for e.g., industrial psychologists use structured interviews to select employees for a job.

2. Unstructured interview – The type and sequence of questions to be asked by the interviewer are not pre-determined. Detailed answers can be given and scoring is often subjective. It is employed by clinical psychologists, counsellors, etc.

(b) Observation – The types of observation include Naturalistic observation, Laboratory observation, Participant observation, Non-participant observation, etc. This method is useful only when there is a trained observer, clear objectives and adequate guidelines for observations.

(ii) Self-Report Techniques (Inventories)
The individual provides information about his/her personality by responding to statements/ questions on the inventory, for e.g., Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI), Cattell’s 16 Personality Factor Questionnaire, etc. Responses are scored in quantitative terms and interpreted on the basis of norms that are developed for the test.

(a) Rorschach’s Ink-Blot Test: This test was developed by Hermann Rorschach in 1921. It uses ten irregular-inkblots (five in black and white, five in colour.) standing against a white background. Each inkblot is shown in a fixed number of ways and the subjects are asked to describe what they see in each card. The subjects are allowed to hold the card in any position they want, whether it’s upside down or sideways. Analysis of this test requires trained and skilful examiner.

(b) Thematic Apperception Test (TAT): The TAT was developed by Morgan and Murray in 1935. It requires the individual to look at the picture and to interpret it by telling a story. The individual is invited to say what led up to the scene in the picture, why such events occurred, what is currently happening and what the consequences will be?

(c) Sentence-completion test: Sentence completion test (SCT) is a type of projective technique used to assess personality. The individual is given a series of incomplete sentences and is asked to complete them in his/her own words, for e.g., My mother …………., My greatest fear is ………. It is assumed that the endings provided by the person will reflect their motivation, urges, internal conflicts etc.

(iii) Projective Techniques
Projective techniques emerged from the psychoanalytic perspective. The individual responds freely to relatively unstructured or ambiguous stimuli/material. It is assumed that individuals project their own personality onto these stimuli, often revealing urges/desires, personal conflicts, coping styles, etc. Projective techniques cannot be scored in an objective manner. They use various materials like ink-blots, ambiguous pictures, incomplete sentences, word , dissociations, etc.

Main projective techniques include Rorschach’s Ink-Blot Tests, Thematic Apperception Test (TAT), Sentence Completion Test, etc.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Political Science Important Questions Chapter 1 The World Since 1991 Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Political Science Important Questions Chapter 1 The World Since 1991

Complete the following statements by selecting the appropriate option.

Question 1.
The world order was dominated by the in the early part of the post-cold war area.
(a) UK
(b) Soviet Union
(c) USA
(d) EU
Answer:
(c) USA

Question 2.
The term ‘New World Order’ was first used by
(a) Woodrow Wilson
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Joseph Nye
(d) George H. Bush
Answer:
(d) George H. Bush

Question 3.
In 1993, the World Conference on Human Rights was held in
(a) Vienna
(b) Belgrade
(c) Paris
(d) New York
Answer:
(a) Vienna

Question 4.
Market reforms were introduced in People’s Republic of China in the mid 1970s under leadership of
(a) Mao-Tse-Tung
(b) Deng Xiaoping
(c) Jinping
(d) Chou-en-Lai
Answer:
(b) Deng Xiaoping

Question 5.
Shenzhen Area is related to the region.
(a) Asia
(b) South Asia
(c) European Union
(d) South America
Answer:
(c) European Union

Question 6.
In 2007, became a member of SAARC.
(a) China
(b) Maldives
(c) India
(d) Afghanistan
Answer:
(d) Afghanistan

Question 7.
…………………. acts as a bridge between South Asia and South East Asia.
(a) BIMSTEC
(b) BRICS
(c) ASEAN
(d) SAARC
Answer:
(a) BIMSTEC

Identify the incorrect pair in every set and correct it.

Question 1.
(a) Kosovo – Serbia
(b) Catalonia – France
(c) Chechnya – Russia
Answer:
(b) Catalonia – Spain

Question 2.
(a) Nepal – SAARC
(b) Myanmar – BIMSTEC
(c) SCO – Afghanistan
Answer:
(c) SAARC – Afghanistan

Complete the following sentences by selecting the appropriate reason.

Question 1.
There were revolutions in East European States because ………………….
(a) they desired more freedom and economic wellbeing
(b) they were now aligned to the USA.
(c) of the rise of multipolarity.
Answer:
(a) they desired more freedom and economic wellbeing

Question 2.
Schengen Visa in significant because ………………….
(a) it is a kind of trade bloc.
(b) it allows individuals to travel freely in 26 Schengen area countries.
(c) it allows all European Union States free trade and travel.
Answer:
(b) it allows individuals to travel freely in 26 Schengen area countries.

State the appropriate concept for the given statements.

Question 1.
When a State gets other countries to act in ways contrary to their preferences, using coercion.
Answer:
Hard power

Question 2.
The use of violence or threat of violence with an intention to create panic in society.
Answer:
Terrorism

Question 3.
The military campaign launched by then US President, George W. Bush in response to the 9/11 terrorist attacks.
Answer:
War on Terror

Question 4.
The agreement which resulted in abolition of internal borders between five European nations in 1985.
Answer:
Schengen Agreement

Question 5.
The executive-bureaucratic arm of the EU.
Answer:
European Commission

Question 6.
This forum acts as a platform for discussion between developed and developing nations.
Answer:
G-20

Question 7.
Group of nations make special agreements regarding their economic relationships.
Answer:
Trade Bloc.

Find the odd word.

(1) Croatia, Montenegro, Serbia, Latvia
(2) Belgium, France, Spain, Germany.
(3) China, Russia, Tajikistan, Ukraine.
(4) Cambodia, Thailand, Nepal, India.
Answer:
(1) Latvia (was not created due to disintegration of Yugoslavia)
(2) Spain (not a signatory to Schengen Agreement in 1985)
(3) Ukraine (not a member of SCO)
(4) Cambodia (not a member of BIMSTEC)

Expand the following abbreviations.

BIMSTEC
SAARC
SAFTA
NATO
UNTAC
ASEAN
EEC
ECSC
Answer:
BIMSTEC – The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation.
SAARC – South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation.
SAFTA – South Asian Association Free Trade Area.
NATO – North Atlantic Treaty Organisation.
UNTAC – United Nations Transitional Authority in Cambodia.
ASEAN – Association of South East Asian Nations.
EEC – European Economic Community.
ECSC – European Coal and Steel Community.

Complete the concept maps.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Observe the maps in the textbook and answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Name any four countries in the Schengen area.
Answer:
Sweden, Denmark, Germany, Belgium, France.
Question 2.
Name any two non-European Union countries within Schengen area.
Answer:
Norway, Romania, Bulgaria, Croatia.

Question 3.
Name any two countries who are EU members but not Schengen member.
Answer:
Belarus, Ukraine Serbia

Question 1.
Write two neighbouring countries of Iraq.
Answer:
Syria, Jordan, Iran, Kuwait.

Question 2.
Write two African nations bordered by the Red Sea
Answer:
Sudan, Eritrea

Question 3.
Write two countries bordered by the Gulf of Aden.
Answer:
Yemen, Somalia, Djbouti.

Question 4.
Write two ‘seas’ bordering Turkey.
Answer:
Black Sea, Mediterranean Sea.

State whether the following statements are true or false with reason.

Question 1.
‘New World Order’ described by US President George H. Bush was the first expression of the unipolar world order.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. During the Gulf war (Iraq invasion of Kuwait), the USA led a multinational force to free Kuwait from Iraqi control. Countries of the NATO, Arab States, as well as Israel, China, Soviet Union, etc., supported the US in this action.
2. Eventually, the meaning of the term ‘New World Order’ came to imply US dominance in matters of security at the global level i.e. unipolarity.

Question 2.
Terrorism in the world today is different from traditional forms of terrorism.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. Traditional forms of terrorist activity included hijackings, bombings, assassinations of political leaders, etc. This mainly targeted institutions of the government and was associated with separatist movements or struggles for the rights of some specific people e.g., I.R.A.
2. Modern day terrorism is motivated by an abstract ideology towards abstract goals and the operations are global in nature e.g., 9/11 attacks in the USA were carried out by Osama Bin Laden led Al-Qaeda based in Afghanistan.

Question 3.
There has been a shift from unipolar to multipolar world order in recent times.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. In the post Cold War era, due to it’s military, technological and economic might, the USA was the only superpower.
2. However, in recent times, the dominant position of USA has been directly or indirectly challenged by factors such as
   (a) European Union, (b) military resurgence of Russia (c) rise of Asia through the presence of China, Japan and India in the global world order, (d) new regional organisations like BRICS, BIMSTEC, etc.

Explain the correlation between the following.

Question 1.
Rise of China and Russia and Multipolarity
Answer:
After the end of the Cold War, USA emerged as the only super power due to it’s technological and military superiority and the use of‘Soft Power’. However, this dominant position of the USA has been challenged in recent times by China and Russia.

China’s rise to global prominence began in the mid 1970s due to market reforms introduced by Deng Xiaoping. China aims to create a sphere of influence in Central and East Asian regions through ambitious projects like One Belt One Road and China Pakistan Economic Corridor. China is also building up it’s naval and air power in order to back up it’s claims in the South China Sea.

Russia has emerged as an energy superpower due to its progress in oil and gas production and military assertiveness. It continues to influence Central and Eastern Europe. Both China and Russia are founding members of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation. Thus, China and Russia have also become significant centres of power, challenging US dominance.

Question 2.
UN Peacekeeping – Conflict zones.
Answer:
One of the main tasks of the UN Peacekeeping is to prevent conflicts from escalating or recurring, to maintain peace and to protect human rights of the affected people. The UN thus intervened in Cambodia, Somalia, Yugoslavia, Afghanistan, Syria, etc.

The United Nations does not have its own army. But in order to maintain international peaee and security, member States of the United Nations, have created a peacekeeping force out of their own military resources. This force known as UN Peacekeeping Force. The Peacekeepers are sent to conflict-prone or war zones, based upon UN Security Council recommendations, often when ceasefires are established.

Answer the following

Question 1.
Elaborate on ‘Self determination based on ethnic identity’ that arose after the end of the cold war.
Answer:
In 1991, the Soviet Union disintegrated leading to the creation of many new States. The revolutions in the East European countries also led to many new countries being formed. All this was against communist regimes, as the people within these regions desired freedom and economic progress. Ethnic identity of various people in the region became stronger, leading to the demand for creation of new States based on ethnic identity. Some examples of this trend are-

1. Yugoslavia split into Croatia, Serbia, Bosnia, Slovenia, etc.
2. Czechoslovakia split into Czech Republic and Slovakia in 1993.
3. Former Soviet Union disintegrated into fifteen States such as Russia, Armenia, Belarus, Ukraine, Estonia, etc.

Creation of new States based on ethnic nationalism was also seen in other parts of the world for e.g.

1. East Timor (became independent from Indonesia).
2. Eretria (became independent from Ethiopia).
3. South Sudan (became independent from Sudan).
4. Chechnya (wants independence from Russia).

Question 2.
Describe how USA became the only superpower after the end of the cold war.
Answer:
In 1991, the Soviet Union disintegrated and the Cold War ended. This led to the end of an international order dominated by the two superpowers i.e., USA and Soviet Union. Bipolarity gave rise to unipolarity. During the invasion of Kuwait by Iraq, the USA took the initiative and led a multinational force to free Kuwait. The US President, George H. Bush used the term ‘New World Order’ to describe the existing global situation. The US initiative was supported by China, Israel, Arab States, Soviet Union and countries of the NATO. Soviet Union was facing internal problems so not much opposition was possible against the USA. Thus, the term ‘New World Order’ implied American dominance and it’s leadership in matters of security was accepted at the global level. This was the first expression of the unipolar world order.

Answer the following question in detail with help of given points.

Question 1.
Discuss the European Union with help of given points.
(a) History
(b) European Commission
(c) European Parliament
(d) European Council
(e) European Court of Justice
Answer:
(a) History – The European Coal and Steel Community (ECSC) and European Economic Community (EEC) were created to foster economic interdependence. On 7th February 1992, the Maastricht Treaty was signed to create the European Union. This led to expansion of spheres of cooperation to include internal affairs, judicial matters, foreign policy, etc. The Euro (€) is the official currency of 19 out of 28 countries of the EU. These nations are collectively called ‘Eurozone’.

(b) European Commission – The Commission is the executive bureaucratic arm of the EU. It is mainly responsible for drawing up proposals for new European legislation,and it implements the policy decisions of the European Parliament and the Council of the EU.

(c) European Parliament – The European Parliament is composed of 751 Members, who are directly elected every five years. It is a body entrusted with legislative, supervisory, and budgetary responsibilities.

(d) European Council – The structure of the European Council consists of the Presidents or Prime Ministers of each member State, accompanied by their foreign ministers, and a full¬time President of the European Council. The European Council meets four times a year and provides strategic leadership for the EU.

(e) European Court of Justice (ECJ) – The ECJ interprets, and adjudicates on, EU law and treaties. As EU law has primacy over the national law of EU member States.

Question 2.
Elaborate on developments in the post-cold war period.
(a) Rise of new States
(b) Emergence of unipolarity
(c) Humanitarian intervention
(d) Terrorism
(e) Multipolarity and Regionalism
Answer:
The disintegration of the Soviet Union ended the era of the Cold War as well as the East-West division of the world. Developments in the post-Cold War period can be analyzed through five dimensions.
(a) Rise of new States – The East European revolution of 1989, led to assertion of ethnic nationalism based on the right to self determination. It was an expression of the middle class for freedom and economic well being as well as for autonomy and eventually for independence. Many new States were created based on ethnic identity for e.g., Yugoslavia split into States like Croatia, Serbia, Bosnia-Herzegovina, etc. Similarly, 15 new States were created after the collapse of the Soviet Union.

(b) Emergence of unipolarity – In 1990, Iraq invaded Kuwait. The USA led a multinational force to free Kuwait from Iraqi control. The US President, George H. Bush had described this victory as ‘New World Order’ as the multinational support to the USA came from NATO, Israel, Soviet Union, China and many Arab countries. After the collapse of the Soviet Union in 1991, the world became unipolar and the New World Order implied US dominance and leadership in matters of global security. They had political and economic dimensions. The US employed “Soft Power” method i.e., without use of coercion or military force but through socio-cultural and economic influence.

(c) Humanitarian intervention – There have been many instances of ethnic conflicts and bloodshed in the creation of new States particularly in Bosnia, East Timor, Somalia, Cambodia, etc. The UN Peacekeeping Force has intervened in a number of conflict situations to bring about peaceful resolution of the conflict as well as to maintain peace and protect human rights. Humanitarian intervention refers to an increasing awareness about the significance of human rights and the need for their protection.

(d) Terrorism – Terrorism is defined as the use of violence, or the threat to use violence with an intention to create panic in society, in the pursuit of political/religious/ideological goals. Terrorist groups indulge in hijackings, bombings, etc., and are usually associated with separatist movements. Modern day terrorist operations are global in nature. Some instances of terrorist attacks post 1991, include Al-Qaeda attacks on 11th September 2001 in Washington D.C, Bali (2002), Mumbai (2008), etc.

(e) Multipolarity and Regionalism – In the post cold war era, the USA emerged as the only superpower. However, in recent times, the dominant position of the USA has been challenged due to the rise of Asian nations like China, Japan and India creation of the European Union; military resurgence of Russia and growing importance of regional organisations like SAARC, etc.

Regionalism refers to creation of regional organisations based on geographical proximity or on common ideological, political, economic concerns in areas like communication, health, energy, education, etc. In the 1960s organisations like ASEAN focused on economic issues.

Question 3.
Describe the following regional organisations in the post cold war era.
(a) European Union
(b) SAARC
(c) BIMSTEC
(d) Shanghai Cooperation Organisation
(e) G-20
Answer:
(a) EuropeanUnion-The European CoalandSteel Community (ECSC) and European Economic Community (EEC) were created to foster economic interdependence. On 7thFebruary 1992, the Maastricht Treaty was signed to create the European Union. This led to expansion of spheres of cooperation to include internal affairs, judicial matters, foreign policy, etc. The Euro (€) is the official currency of 19 out of 28 countries of the EU. These nations are collectively called Eurozone.

The Schengen Agreement (1985) was signed by France, Germany, Belgium, Netherlands and Luxembourg. Today 22 countries are part of the Schengen Area which is an area without internal borders. The EU functions on four key institutions viz. European Commission, European Parliament, European council and European court of Justice. The UK formally ended it’s membership of the EU on 31st January 2020.

(b) SAARC – It was formed in 1985 at Dhaka with seven members viz. Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka. In 2006, SAFTA was activated. Afghanistan joined SAARC in 2007. There are also nine observers such as EU, China, UK, USA, etc.

(c) BIMSTEC – The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation was established in 1997. It comprises of five countries from South Asia viz. Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Sri Lanka and two countries from South-East Asia viz. Myanmar, Thailand. BIMSTEC aims to facilitate collaboration and rapid economic development among countries lying in adjacent areas of the Bay of Bengal.

(d) Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) – It was founded in 2001 in Shanghai by the leaders of China, Russia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan. In 2016, India and Pakistan joined the SCO. The focus of SCO is to bring about peace, stability and cooperation in the Eurasian region.

(e) G-20 – This forum was created in 1999 with the aim to discuss policies relating to financial stability. It includes developed countries like USA, UK, France, Germany the EU as well as developing countries like Argentina, Brazil, India.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 2 Intelligence Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Psychology Important Questions Chapter 2 Intelligence

Choose the correct option and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
Self-driving cars function on ………………… intelligence.
(a) artificial
(b) general
(c) alternate
Answer:
(a) artificial

Question 2.
…………………. revised the Binet-Simon Intelligence Scales in 1916.
(a) Terman
(b) Spearman
(c) Stern
Answer:
(a) Terman

Question 3.
Raj is generally impatient, apathetic and restless. He exhibits ……………… emotional intelligence.
(a) high
(b) satisfactory
(c) low
Answer:
(c) low

Question 4.
Army Alpha is a ……………….. test of intelligences.
(a) verbal-individual
(b) verbal-group
(c) performance-group
Answer:
(b) verbal-group

Question 5.
Toxic behaviour indicates a low level of ……………….. intelligence.
(a) social
(b) cognitive
(c) artificial
Answer:
(a) social

Question 6.
If MA is greater than CA then the child has ………………. intelligence.
(a) average
(b) below average
(c) above average
Answer:
(c) above average

Question 7.
According to ……………….., intelligence is composed of seven primary mental abilities.
(a) Thorndike
(b) Gardner
(c) Thurstone
Answer:
(c) Thurstone

Match the pairs.

Group A	Group B
(1) Alfred Binet	(a) concept of IQ
(2) Lewis Terman	(b) concept of emotional intelligence
(3) William Stern	(c) concept of multiple intelligence
(4) Mayer and Salovey	(d) concept of Mental Age
(5) Howard Gardner	(e) Two Factor Theory of intelligence
(6) Charles Spearman	(f) Stanford-Binet Scale

Answer:

Group A	Group B
(1) Alfred Binet	(d) concept of Mental Age
(2) Lewis Terman	(f) Stanford-Binet Scale
(3) William Stern	(a) concept of IQ
(4) Mayer and Salovey	(b) concept of emotional intelligence
(5) Howard Gardner	(c) concept of multiple intelligence
(6) Charles Spearman	(e) Two Factor Theory of intelligence

State whether the following statements are true or false.

Question 1.
Paper pencil tests are non-verbal tests of intelligence.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
According to the modern notion of intelligence, distinct types of intelligences exist.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
If MA = CA, then the individual has average intelligence.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Performance tests are more efficient to measure higher mental abilities.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Verbal tests are culture free tests.
Answer:
False

Question 6.
Artificial Intelligence can take decisions independently.
Answer:
False

Answer the following in one sentence each.

Question 1.
What type of tests is Army Beta test?
Answer:
Army Beta test is a group non-verbal test.

Question 2.
What was the classical notion of intelligence?
Answer:
The classical notion of intelligence explains it as an unitary ability and only the functions of intelligence may take different forms.

Question 3.
Which two tests were developed in 1917 for recruitment of soldiers?
Answer:
Army Alpha test and Army Beta test were the two tests developed in 1917 for recruitment of soldiers during First World War.

Question 4.
What is meant by Social Intelligence?
Answer:
According to Karl Albrecht, “Social intelligence is the ability to get along well with others and to get them to cooperate with oneself’.

Question 5.
What are the two factors of intelligence according to Charles Spearman?
Answer:
According to Charles Spearman the factors of intelligence are General factor and Specific factor.

Question 6.
What are the two types of intelligence according to Cattell and Horn?
Answer:
According to Cattell and Horn the two types of intelligence are Fluid intelligence and Crystallized intelligence.

Explain the concepts in 25 – 30 words each.

Question 1.
Intelligence
Answer:
Intelligence is the highest attribute of human beings. Different psychologists have defined intelligence differently. Lewis Terman explains intelligence as, “An ability to think on an abstract level.” David Wechsler defines intelligence as, ‘The aggregate or global capacity of an individual to act purposefully, to think rationally and to deal effectively with his environment.”
The two main perspectives on intelligence are-

1. Intelligence as a single, general ability
2. Intelligence as a set of multiple abilities

Question 2.
Multiple Intelligences
Answer:
The modern view of intelligence as explained by psychologists like Charles Spearman (Two Factor Theory), E. L. Thorndike, Louis Thurstone (7 Primary Mental Abilities) Howard Gardner, etc. states that multiple abilities are involved in intelligence. They believe that distinct types of intelligences exist. Howard Gardner in his theory of multiple intelligence asserted that there are nine independent types of intelligence that grow and develop differently in different people, depending upon the individual’s heredity characteristics or environmental experiences for e.g., linguistic intelligence, musical intelligence, etc.
These nine types of intelligences are-

1. Linguistic intelligence,
2. Logical-mathematical intelligence
3. Spatial intelligence
4. Musical intelligence
5. Bodily-kinesthetic intelligence
6. Interpersonal intelligence
7. Intra-personal intelligence
8. Naturalistic intelligence and
9. Existential intelligence.

Answer the following questions in 35 – 40 words each.

Question 1.
What is the application of tests of intelligences.
Answer:
Intelligence tests are of great significance today.

1. Effective Schooling – On the basis of intelligence test scores, teachers can classify students into intellectual categories and devise special instructional programmes suited to their mental development.
2. Aids Mental Health Personnel – Intelligence tests are helpful to Mental Health personnel such as psychologists etc., for diagnosis purposes and therapy.
3. Effective Parenting – Parents can provide appropriate educational facilities to their children based on their IQ scores.
4. Career Counselling – Scores obtained on intelligence tests help the student to select the right educational options/ courses.
5. Vocational Counselling – Individuals can choose a suitable career and achieve job satisfaction when they make a realistic choice a vocation based on IQ scores.

Question 2.
Write the characteristics of people with high emotional intelligence.
Answer:
The term emotional intelligence was used for the first time by John Mayer and Peter Salovey. It is defined as ‘the ability to perceive and monitor one’s own and others emotions, to discriminate among them and to use this information to guide one’s thinking and actions.’ Persons with high emotional intelligence have the following characteristics:

1. They tend to be patient and emotionally stable.
2. They tend to be satisfied, enthusiastic and happy.
3. They tend to show independence and optimism.
4. They exhibit the ability to understand and regulate emotions of themselves and others.

Question 3.
Write the applications of Artificial Intelligence.
Answer:
The term Artificial intelligence was suggested by John McCarthy. Artificial intelligence is an innovation created by human intelligence. It refers to enabling software programmes and computer systems to perform tasks that normally require human intelligence.

Today, Artificial Intelligence is used on a large scale to perform various daily routine tasks as well as to solve various critical problems. For example, it is used for:

1. Speech recognition
2. Natural language processing
3. Spam filtering from emails
4. Medical diagnosing
5. Detecting frauds in economic transactions
6. Weather forecasting, etc.

Question 4.
Explain E.L. Thorndike’s view about intelligence.
Answer:
Intelligence is the highest attribute of human beings. Different psychologists have defined intelligence differently.
Lewis Terman explains intelligence as, “an ability to think on an abstract level.”
David Wechsler defines intelligence as, “the aggregate or global capacity of an individual to act purposefully, to think rationally and to deal effectively with his environment.”
E. L. Thorndike put forth three independent abilities that can be called intelligence.

1. Abstract intelligence – It refers to the ability to engage in verbal and symbolic thinking.
2. Social intelligence – It refers to the ability to communicate with people, understand and perform social relations.
3. Concrete (mechanical) intelligence – It refers to the ability to effectively control one’s body and to manipulate objects.

Question 5.
Explain Cattell and Horn’s theory of intelligence.
Answer:
Intelligence is the highest attribute of human beings. Different psychologists have defined intelligence differently.
Lewis Terman explains intelligence as, “an ability to think on an abstract level.”
David Wechsler defines intelligence as, “the aggregate or global capacity of an individual to act purposefully, to think rationally and to deal effectively with his environment.”
Raymond Cattell with his student John Horn proposed a theory of intelligence explaining two types of intelligence viz.

1. Fluid intelligence is dependent on neurological development and it is relatively free from the influences of learning and experiences.
2. Crystallized intelligence is not dependent on one’s neurological development and it is a function of one’s educational attainment, acquired experiences and stock of knowledge.

Write short notes on the following in 50 – 60 words.

Question 1.
Howard Gardner’s theory of Multiple Intelligences.
Answer:
Intelligence is the highest attribute of human beings. Different psychologists have defined intelligence differently.
David Wechsler defines intelligence as, ‘the aggregate or global capacity of an individual to act purposefully, to think rationally and to deal effectively with his environment.’
The two main perspectives on intelligence are-
(i) Intelligence as a single, general ability – The classical notion of intelligence explains it as an unitary ability and only the functions of intelligence may take different forms. Psychologists like Alfred Binet, David Wechsler, William Stern and Lewis Terman believed that intelligence is a single index of cognitive abilities.

(ii) Intelligence as a set of multiple abilities – The modern view of intelligence as explained by psychologists like Charles Spearman, E.L. Thorndike, Howard Gardner, etc., states that multiple abilities are involved in intelligence.

Howard Gardner in his theory of multiple intelligence asserted that there are nine independent types of intelligence that grow and develop differently in different people, depending upon the individuals heredity characteristics or environmental experiences. These nine types of intelligences are-

1. Linguistic intelligence
2. Logical-mathematical intelligence
3. Spatial intelligence
4. Musical intelligence
5. Bodily-kinesthetic intelligence
6. Interpersonal intelligence and
7. Intra-personal intelligence
8. Naturalistic intelligence and
9. Existential intelligence