Important Questions

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Geography Important Questions Chapter 2 Population Part 2 Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Geography Important Questions Chapter 2 Population Part 2

Choose the correct option by identifying the correct correlation in the sentences.

Question 1.
In 2016, the male and female literacy rate was the same in the …………….. region.
(a) Europe and North America
(b) North-East and South-East
(c) Latin America
(d) Southeast Asia
Answer:
(a) Europe and North America

Question 2.
In 2016, the lowest male literacy rate was in …………….. region.
(a) Central Asia
(b) Sub-Saharan Africa
(c) Southeast Asia
(d) North America
Answer:
(b) Sub-Saharan Africa

Question 3.
In 2016, male and female literacy rate was the same in …………….. region.
(a) Europe
(b) South Asia
(c) Sub-Saharan Africa
(d) Western Asia
Answer:
(a) Europe

Question 4.
The highest sex ratio in the world is recorded in …………….. country.
(a) Ukraine
(b) India
(c) China
(d) Afghanistan
Answer:
(a) Ukraine

Question 5.
On an average the world population reflects the sex ratio …………….. females per 1000 men.
(a) 667
(b) 990
(c) 1162
(d) 960
Answer:
(b) 990

Question 6.
There are …………….. females per 1000 males in Saudi Arabia.
(a) 1162
(b) 990
(c) 667
(d) 867
Answer:
(c) 667

Question 7.
In 2011, 48.96 percentage population in India was engaged in …………….. occupation.
(a) primary
(b) secondary
(c) tertiary
(d) quaternary
Answer:
(a) primary

Identify the correct co-relation

Question 1.
A – Large size population in the age group of 15 to 59 indicate large size independent population.
R – The number of children in 0-15 age group indicate high dependency ratio.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
A – The sex ratio is an important information about the status of men in the country.
R – The ratio between the number of women and men in the population is called sex ratio.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(b) Only R is correct.

Question 3.
A – Migration brings changes in population.
R – If people migrate to any region the population of the region will change.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 4.
A – The recipient region may face a pressure on housing.
R – Lack of housing leads to increase in slums.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Identify the incorrect factor.

Question 1.
Primary occupations
(a) Cultivators
(b) Forestry
(c) Construction
(d) Mining
Answer:
(c) Construction

Question 2.
Secondary occupations
(a) Heavy industry
(b) Fishing
(c) Small scale industry
(d) Construction work
Answer:
(b) Fishing

Question 3.
Tertiary occupations
(a) Trade
(b) Commerce
(c) Manufacturing
(d) Communication
Answer:
(c) Manufacturing

Question 4.
Quaternary occupations
(a) Education
(b) Medicine
(c) Research
(d) Communication
Answer:
(d) Communication

Question 5.
Examples of short-term migration
(a) Tourist
(b) Migration in search of fodder
(c) Migration of labour in sugarcane production areas
(d) Migration to Mumbai for jobs
Answer:
(d) Migration to Mumbai for jobs

Question 6.
Economic factors responsible for migration.
(a) Jobs
(b) Education
(c) Business
(d) Improved standard of living
Answer:
(b) Education

Question 7.
Physical factors responsible for migration.
(a) Drought
(b) Earthquakes
(c) Cyclones
(d) Discrimination
Answer:
(d) Discrimination

Question 8.
Social factors responsible for migration.
(a) Education
(b) Marriage
(c) Health
(d) Improved standard of living
Answer:
(d) Improved standard of living

Question 9.
Tertiary Occupations
(a) Doctors
(b) Teachers
(c) Traders
(d) Administrators
Answer:
(c) Traders

Question 10.
Physical factors responsible for migration.
(a) Volcanoes
(b) Tsunami
(c) Jobs
(d) Droughts
Answer:
(c) Jobs

Question 11.
Social factors responsible for migration
(a) Discrimination
(b) Education
(c) Standard of living
(d) Medical facilities
Answer:
(c) Standard of living

Complete the Chain

Question 1.

A	B	C
(1) Physical	(1) Forcing to migrate	(1) Discrimination
(2) Economic	(2) Earthquake	(2) Floods
(3) Social	(3) Standard of living	(3) Business

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Physical	(1) Earthquake	(1) Floods
(2) Economic	(2) Standard of living	(2) Business
(3) Social	(3) Forcing to migrate	(3) Discrimination

Question 2.

A	B	C
(1) Physical	(1) Marriage	(1) Education
(2) Economic	(2) Drought	(2) Volcano
(3) Social	(3) Business	(3) Jobs

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Physical	(1) Drought	(1) Volcano
(2) Economic	(2) Business	(2) Jobs
(3) Social	(3) Marriage	(3) Education

Question 3.

A	B	C
(1) Primary Occupation	(1) Trade	(1) Fishing
(2) Tertiary Occupation	(2) Cultivation	(2) Teaching
(3) Quaternary Occupation	(3) Medical	(3) Communication

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Primary Occupation	(1) Cultivation	(1) Fishing
(2) Tertiary Occupation	(2) Trade	(2) Communication
(3) Quaternary Occupation	(3) Medical	(3) Education

Give geographical reasons.

Question 1.
Age structure affects economy of the country.
Answer:

• The economic development of the country depends upon number of people in young age, adult age and old age groups.
• The population in young age group i.e., 0-15, are non-working and dependent population.
• The population in old age group i.e., 60+, are also non-working and dependent population.
• Larger percentage of old age population means more expenses on medical facilities.
• The population in adult age group i.e., 16-59, are working population and there is more economic development of the country.
• A greater proportion of young and old age group compared to adult age group leads to less economic development of the country.

Question 2.
Many countries are considering to increase retirement age.
Answer:

• Generally, retirement age is 60 years in most of the countries. People of this age come under non-productive or dependent age group.
• In most of the countries life expectancy of population is increasing so old age population is increasing.
• Due to high number of old age population government has to spend more on pension, retirement benefits, medical facilities etc.
• Due to high life expectancy people can work for longer than just 60 years of age.
• Therefore, many countries are considering to increase retirement age.

Differentiate between.

Question 1.
Internal migration and External migration
Answer:

Internal migration	External migration
(i) Internal migration means migration of people within the political boundaries of the country.	(i) External migration means migration of people outside the political boundaries of the country.
(ii) People do not leave the country, they migrate within their country.	(ii) People leave the country and go to another country.
(iii) People migrate from one city to another city, from one district to another district, from one state to another state or region in the country.	(iii) People migrate from one country to another country or one region to another region in the world.
(iv) For example, people going to Mumbai from other states of India for jobs.	(iv) For example, Africans migrating to other countries for higher education.

Answer the following question by using given map/graph.

Question 1.
What is shown in the map?
Answer:
World density of population is shown in the map.

Question 2.
Name any two continents having the same density and population.
Answer:
North America and South America have the same density and population.

Question 3.
Name any two countries having more than 500 persons per sq. km.
Answer:
Bangladesh and Japan are two countries having more than 500 persons per sq. km.

Question 4.
What is the density of population in China?
Answer:
Density of population in China is 200-250 persons per sq. km.

Answer the following questions in detail.

Question 1.
Causes of migration
Answer:
There are various causes of migration of people from one area to another areas. The causes of migration can be classified into four categories namely physical, economic, social and political causes.
(i) Physical causes:

• Sometimes there are changes in physical environment of some areas and people are forced to migrate.
• Natural disasters like flooding, droughts, earthquakes, cyclones, tsunami, etc, create unfavourable physical environment, so people migrate from that area.

(ii) Economic causes:

• Sometimes people migrate to other places for economic reasons.
• If there is no employment opportunities or limited resources, people migrate to areas where job or business opportunities are available.
• Some people even though they have recourses in their area migrate to other areas to improve their standard of living.

(iii) Social causes:

• Sometimes people are compelled to migrate due to social problems.
• Due to lack of education, health or medical facilities people migrate to other areas.
• Some females migrate to husband and place of residence after marriage.
• Sometimes people are victim of discrimination by certain groups, so people are forced to migrate.

(iv) Political causes:

• Sometimes due to political instability or war conditions people feel unsafe so they move to other areas or countries.
• For example: Many Pakistanis migrated to India after the partition.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Political Science Important Questions Chapter 5 Contemporary India: Good Governance Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Political Science Important Questions Chapter 5 Contemporary India: Good Governance

Complete the following statements by selecting the appropriate option.

Question 1.
The concept of ‘citizens charter’ is part of
(a) POSDCORB
(b) development administration
(c) good governance
(d) NGO activity
Answer:
(c) good governance

Question 2.
The good governance model looks at inter-linkages between the government and
(a) civil society
(b) political parties
(c) public administration
(d) human rights
Answer:
(a) civil society

Question 3.
The culture of ‘secrecy’ in administration has been challenged by the good governance value of
(a) effectiveness
(b) transparency
(c) accountability
(d) equity
Answer:
(b) transparency

Question 4.
The Consumer Protection Act was passed in the year
(a) 1986
(b) 1990
(c) 2000
(d) 2012
Answer:
(a) 1986

Identify the incorrect pair in every set and correct it.

Question 1.
(a) Lokayuktas – States
(b) Fundamental duties – good governance
(c) E-governance – Digitisation of records
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy – good governance
Answer:
(b) Fundamental duties – good governance

Complete the following sentences by selecting the appropriate reason.

Question 1.
Governance is a broader view of public administration because ………………
(a) it includes not only formal institutions of government but also informal institutions.
(b) it is based on e-governance.
(c) it was introduced after the second ARC.
Answer:
(a) it includes not only formal institutions of government but also informal institutions.

State the appropriate concept for the given statements.

Question 1.
Wide range of organisations such as labour unions, NGO’s etc.
Answer:
Civil Society

Question 2.
Institution created in India in 2013 to inquire into allegations of corruption against officials at union level.
Answer:
Lokpal

Question 3.
Governance facilitated by I.C.T.
Answer:
e-governance

Question 4.
Act of 2005 that enables citizens to seek important public information from the government.
Answer:
Right to Information Act

Find the odd word.

Question 1.
Religious groups, Bur6aucracy, Professional groups, NGO’s.
Answer:
Bureaucracy (not included in civil society / non-state actors)

Question 2.
Buddhists, Christians, Hindus, Jains.
Answer:
Hindus (not included in religious minorities in India)

Question 3.
Secrecy, Efficiency, Responsiveness, Inclusiveness.
Answer:
Secrecy (not a core value of good governance)

Question 4.
Policy framework, Funding framework, Institutional framework, Redressal and grievances framework
Answer:
Redressal and grievances framework (not a pillar of e-governance)

Complete the concept maps

Question 1.

Answer:

State whether the following statements are true or false with reason.

Question 1.
Good governance approach is a break from the traditional model of public administration.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. Good governance approach aims to improve the performance of public institutions by making administration citizen-centered and not merely rule-bound.
2. It aims to replace traditional administration that was archaic and riddled with red tapism and corruption with participative, responsive, equitable and transparent administration.

Question 2.
E-governance has brought administration closer to people.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. E-governance refers to good governance which is facilitated using Information and Communications Technology (ICT) This helps in the instantaneous transmission, processing, storage and retrieval of data.
2. The objective of the National e-governance Plan of Government of India is to bring public service closer home to citizens. This can be done by building a countrywide infrastructure and large scale digitisation of records to enable easy, reliable access over the Internet for e.g., passport application can be done online.

Question 3.
Right to Information is the key to strengthening participatory democracy.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. Right to Information Act, 2005 has enabled citizens to seek important public information from the government and helps to usher in people-centered governance.
2. R.T.I is a basic necessity of good governance as it helps to bring transparency in government organisations and makes them function in an efficient, responsive manner.

Explain the correlation between the following.

Question 1.
Good Governance – Traditional model of administration.
Answer:
The concept of development administration brought in changes in the traditional role of administration. Governance refers to the cooperative effort of government as well as non¬government bodies in public administration. Since the traditional approach of public administration was archaic, riddled with red tapism and corruption it would not satisfy the requirements of the citizens. The good governance model is based on core values of efficient, effective, responsible, responsive, transparent and accountable public administration.

Question 2.
Citizen participation – Good governance.
Answer:
In development administration, not only the government but also citizens and NGO’s play a vital role. The term ‘governance’ is used to describe this cooperative effort of the government and non¬governmental bodies in public administration.
The Good Governance approach aims at the following-

1. to reform the traditional, huge-sized public administration which was riddled with red tape and corruption
2. to replace the archaic systems with responsible, participative and equitable systems
3. to look at interlinkages between government and civil society
4. to make the administration citizen-centered and not rule bound.

Citizen participation refers to the following aspects-

1. the development process is a ‘bottom-up’ approach in which citizens are not recipients but participants in this process
2. citizens have a right in making decisions pertaining to themselves
3. there are modalities by which citizens can take control of resources and influence decision making
4. it contributes to a responsive, participative democracy.

Question 3.
Good Governance – Right to Information. (RTI)
Answer:
In development administration, not only the government but also citizens and NGO’s play a vital role. The term ‘governance’ is used to describe this cooperative effort of the government and non¬governmental bodies in public administration.
The Good Governance approach aims at the following-

1. to reform the traditional, huge-sized public administration which was riddled with red tape and corruption.
2. to replace the archaic systems with responsible, participative and equitable systems.
3. to look at interlinkages between government and civil society.
4. to make the administration citizen-centered and not rule bound.

The R. T. I became operative w.e.f. 12th October 2005. The main objectives of the R.T.I is for citizens to secure access to information under control of public authorities so as to increase citizens awareness and ability to exercise their other rights. It is a basic necessity of good governance which enables citizens to seek important public information from the government i.e., about public policies and actions Transparency in government institutions makes them function more objectively and enables citizens to participate effectively in the governance process.

R.T.I. is an implied fundamental right under the constitution i.e., a part of Article 19 (1) (a) as well as of Article 21. It grants access to information held by a public authority so as to promote openness, transparency and accountability in administration. According to the UN Commission on Human Rights, “Good governance creates an enabling environment conducive to the enjoyment of human rights and prompts growth and sustainable development”. Thus R.T.I. helps in good governance.

Express your opinion of the following.

Question 1.
The National Commission for Minorities (NCM) is an important institutional mechanism towards good governance.
Answer:
I agree with this statement.
The NCM was set up by the Union Government under National Commission for Minorities Act (1992). It monitors the working of safeguards for religious minorities (i.e. Muslim, Christian, Sikh, Buddhist, Zoroastrian (Parsis) and Jain). It looks into specific complaints regarding deprivation of rights of the minorities and takes up such matters with the appropriate authorities. The NCM enables that benefits of good governance must be available to all sections of society, especially to minorities.

Answer the following question in 80 to 100 words.

Question 1.
Elaborate on e-Governance.
Answer:
In the last few decades, governance has become more complex and varied. Citizens expectations from the government have also increased. Information and Communications Technology (ICT) is used in governance. This is called ‘e-governance’. It helps in-

1. instant transmission and processing information and efficient storing and retrieval of data.
2. increasing the reach of government both geographically and demographically.
3. speeding up decision making and increasing transparency and accountability of government processes. E-governance in India has evolved from computerisation of departments to initiatives which are citizen centric and service oriented.

The Government of Maharashtra has identified six priority pillars to use e-governance so as to become proactive and responsive to its citizens’ needs.
Pillar – 1: Establishment of Policy/Legal Frameworks: Legal Framework has to be updated regularly with changing times and technologies.
Pillar – 2: Develop Strong Capacity Building Framework: Capacity Building of employees is necessary.
Pillar – 3: Facilitate abundant Funding: Ensure mechanisms for provision of adequate and timely funds.
Pillar – 4: Institutional Framework: Develop administrative structures that are capable of envisioning and guiding the e-Governance programs.
Pillar 5 – Build Core e-Governance Common Infrastructure: Develop the core e-Governance infrastructure like Data Centre, Common Service Centres and State Wide Area Network etc.
Pillar 6 – Develop Common Statewide Projects: Develop applications like e-Tendering, e-Office, SMS gateway, payment gateway etc. that are common to majority of State departments to ensure coordination.

Question 2.
Discuss the initiatives for good governance in India.
Answer:
After independence, India adopted a socialist model of development aimed at achieving a Welfare State. The Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances looks after administrative reforms in India. It’s objectives are-

1. to promote administrative reforms in government policies and processes.
2. to promote citizen-centric governance.
3. to conduct innovations in e-governance.

The Second Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) was set up in 2005 to prepare a blueprint for revamping the public administration system in India. It looked at the following issues.

1. To make public administration accountable, transparent, efficient, responsive and result- oriented.
2. Citizen centric, participative administration.

There have been a large number of reform measures which have sought to bring administration closer to the people. Broadly these initiatives include :

1. Enacting laws giving certain rights to people.
2. Setting up of new institutional mechanisms to redress citizens’ grievances.
3. Improving accessibility to citizens by setting up units closer to people.
4. Simplifying procedures to reduce bureaucratic delays.
5. Using technology to improve internal efficiency.
6. Reducing regulatory control.
7. Holding public contact programmes etc.

Question 3.
Find out examples of the reforms that have been initiated for each of the measures stated below.
Answer:

1. Enacting laws giving rights to people – Reform initiated – Right to Information (2005).
2. Setting up of new institutional mechanisms to redress citizens’ grievances – Reform initiated: Creating commissions like NHRC, NCW, NCM, etc.
3. Improving accessibility to citizens by setting up units closer to people – Reform initiated: Building a countrywide infrastructure reaching down to the remotes areas.
4. Simplifying procedures to reduce bureaucratic delays – Reform initiated: Formulation of Citizen’s Charters to specify service standards.
5. Using technology to improve internal efficiency – Reform initiated: e-governance i.e., use of Information and Communications Technology (I.C.T) to enable easy access over the internet.
6. Improving discipline within the organisation – Reform initiated: Establishing body of Lokpal for the Union and Lokayukta for States.

Answer the following question with reference to the given points.

Question 1.
Discuss in detail the following specific programmes aimed at bringing good governance in India.
(a) Lokpal and Lokayukta
(b) Right to Information
(c) E-Governance
(d) Citizen’s Charters
Answer:
After independence, India adopted a socialist model of development aimed at achieving a Welfare State. The Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances looks after administrative reforms in India. It’s objectives are-

1. to promote administrative reforms in government policies and processes.
2. to promote citizen-centric governance.
3. to conduct innovations in e-governance.

The Second Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) was set up in 2005 to prepare a blueprint for revamping the public administration system in India. It looked at the following issues.

1. to make public administration accountable, transparent, efficient, responsive and result-oriented.
2. citizen centric, participative administration.

(a) Lokpal and Lokayukta – The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act (2013) provides for the establishment of Lokpal (central government) and Lokayuktas (States) to inquire into allegations of corruption against public officials in a commitment to responsive, clean governance. The Maharashtra Lokayukta Institution came into being in 1972.

(b) Right to Information – It is a basic necessity of good governance which enables citizens to seek important public information from the government i.e., about public policies and actions. Transparency in government institutions makes them function more objectively and enables citizens to participate effectively in the governance process.

(c) E-Governance In the last few decades, governance has become more complex and varied. Citizens expectations from the government have also increased. Information and Communications Technology (ICT) is used in governance. This is called ‘e-governance’. It helps in-

1. instant transmission and processing information and efficient storing and retrieval of data.
2. increasing the reach of government both geographically and demographically.
3. speeding up decision making and increasing transparency and accountability of government processes. E-governance in India has evolved from computerisation of departments to initiatives which are citizen centric and service oriented.

(d) Citizen’s Charters – The exercise to formulate citizen’s charters began in 1996. Each organisation must spell out the services it has to perform and the standards / norms for these services. If these standards are not met then that agency can be held accountable.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Geography Important Questions Chapter 1 Population Part 1 Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Geography Important Questions Chapter 1 Population Part 1

Choose the correct option by identifying the correct correlation in the sentences.

Question 1.
…………… continent has the least population.
(a) Europe
(b) North America
(c) Australia
(d) Africa
Answer:
(c) Australia

Question 2.
………………. continent has the largest population.
(a) Europe
(b) North America
(c) Asia
(d) Africa
Answer:
(c) Asia

Question 3.
…………………. continent has the largest land mass in the world.
(a) North America
(b) South America
(c) Asia
(d) Australia
Answer:
(c) Asia

Question 4.
……………… continent has the smallest land mass in the world.
(a) Australia
(b) Europe
(c) North America
(d) Africa
Answer:
(a) Australia

Question 5.
…………………. continent has the most landmass as well as most of the population.
(a) North America
(b) Asia
(c) Africa
(d) Australia
Answer:
(b) Asia

Question 6.
…………….. continent has the least landmass and also least population.
(a) South America
(b) North America
(c) Australia
(d) Europe
Answer:
(c) Australia

Question 7.
…………………. country has the largest population in the world.
(a) India
(b) China
(c) USA
(d) Australia
Answer:
(b) China

Question 8.
……………….. country has the second largest population in the world.
(a) China
(b) USA
(c) India
(d) Brazil
Answer:
(c) India

Question 9.
The crude birth rate per thousand in India is ………………..
(a) 46
(b) 12
(c) 12
(d) 18
Answer:
(d) 18

Question 10.
The crude death rate per thousand in India ………………..
(a) 9
(b) 11
(c) 7
(d) 8
Answer:
(c) 7

Complete the chain.

Question 1.

A	B	C
(1) Asia	(1) 28.50% of the world landmass	(1) 18.09% of the world population
(2) Europe	(2) 5.90% of the world landmass	(2) 0.55% of the world population
(3) Australia	(3) 6.80% of the world landmass	(3) 4.75% of the world population
(4) North and South America	(4) 29.20% of the world landmass	(4) 59.65% of the world population

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Asia	(1) 29.20% of the world landmass	(1) 59.65% of the world population
(2) Europe	(2) 6.80% of the world landmass	(2) 4.75% of the world population
(3) Australia	(3) 5.90% of the world landmass	(3) 0.55% of the world population
(4) North and South America	(4) 28.50% of the world landmass	(4) 18.09% of the world population

Question 2.

A	B	C
(1) India	(1) 171 lakh sq. km	(1) 1073 persons per sq. km
(2) USA	(2) 105 lakh sq. km	(2) 411 persons per sq. km
(3) Bangladesh	(3) 95.3 lakh sq. km	(3) 34 persons per sq. km
(4) Russia	(4) 321 lakh sq. km	(4) 8.5 persons per sq. km

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) India	(1) 32.9 lakh sq. km	(1) 411 persons per sq. km
(2) USA	(2) 95.3 lakh sq. km	(2) 34 persons per sq. km
(3) Bangladesh	(3) 1.5 lakh sq. km	(3) 1073 persons per sq. km
(4) Russia	(4) 171 lakh sq. km	(4) 8.5 persons per sq. km

Question 3.

A	B	C
(1) Mountains	(1) Siberia	(1) High density of population
(2) Climate	(2) Odd physical conditions	(2) Government promote to shift people
(3) Mining	(3) Mediterranean	(3) Equable climate
(4) Government	(4) Dehradun	(4) High cost minerals attract people

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Mountains	(1) Dehradun	(1) High density of population
(2) Climate	(2) Mediterranean	(2) Equable climate
(3) Mining	(3) Odd physical conditions	(3) High cost minerals attract people
(4) Government	(4) Siberia	(4) Government promote to shift people

Question 4.

A	B	C
(1) Stage 1	(1) Birth rate is not less than death rate but it is almost the same	(1) China
(2) Stage 2	(2) Birth rates and death rates are also decreasing	(2) USA
(3) Stage 3	(3) Birth rate and death rates are high, population growth is stable	(3) No country in this category
(4) Stage 4	(4) Reduction in death rates and birth rates are constant	(4) Population explosion

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Stage 1	(1) Birth rate and death rates are high, population growth is stable	(1) No country in this category
(2) Stage 2	(2) Reduction in death rates and birth rates are constant	(2) Population explosion
(3) Stage 3	(3) Birth rates and death rates are also decreasing	(3) China
(4) Stage 4	(4) Birth rate is not less than death rate but it are almost the same	(4) USA

Identify the incorrect factor.

Question 1.
Continents which have least population.
(a) South America
(b) Asia
(c) Australia
(d) Africa
Answer:
(b) Asia

Question 2.
Continents which have large population.
(a) Europe
(b) North America
(c) Asia
(d) Africa
Answer:
(d) Africa

Question 3.
Physical factors affecting population distribution.
(a) Relief
(b) Climate
(c) Soil
(d) Transportation
Answer:
(d) Transportation

Question 4.
Human factors affecting population distribution.
(a) Agriculture
(b) Availability of water
(c) Urbanisation
(d) Transportation
Answer:
(b) Availability of water

Question 5.
Sparsely populated regions in the world.
(a) Snow covered regions
(b) Hot deserts
(c) Coastal regions
(d) Mountainous and hilly regions
Answer:
(c) Coastal regions

Question 6.
Densely populated regions of the world.
(a) Hot deserts
(b) Coastal plains
(c) Flat plains
(d) Flood plains
Answer:
(a) Hot deserts

Question 7.
Countries which have large population in the world.
(a) India
(b) China
(c) USA
(d) Australia
Answer:
(d) Australia

Question 8.
Countries which have low population in the world.
(a) China
(b) Australia
(c) Brazil
(d) Rumania
Answer:
(a) China

Question 9.
Countries which have crude birth rate more than 10 in the year 2017.
(a) Sweden
(b) China
(c) USA
(d) Greece
Answer:
(d) Greece

Question 10.
Countries which have crude death rate less than 10 in the year 2017.
(a) Sweden
(b) Greece
(c) India
(d) China
Answer:
(b) Greece

Complete the following as per instructions.

Question 1.
Arrange the following continents on the basis of area in percentage in ascending order. Antarctica, Europe, North America, Asia, Australia
Answer:
Australia, Europe, Antarctica, North America, Asia

Question 2.
Arrange the following continents on the basis of area in the percentage in descending order.
Australia, Asia, North America, Antarctica, Europe
Answer:
Asia, North America, Antarctica, Europe, Australia

Question 3.
Arrange the following continents on the basis of population in percentage in descending order.
North America, South America, Africa, Asia, Australia, Antarctica
Answer:
Asia, Africa, North America, South America, Australia, Antarctica

Question 4.
Arrange the following continents on the basis of population in percentage in ascending order.
Australia, Antarctica, Asia, Africa, North America, South America
Answer:
Antarctica, Australia, South America, North America, Africa, Asia.

Question 5.
Arrange the following countries on the basis of population in crores in descending order.
India, Pakistan, USA, Russia, China
Answer:
China, India, USA, Pakistan, Russia

Question 6.
Arrange the following countries on the basis of population in crores in ascending order.
Russia, China, Mexico, India, Brazil
Answer:
Mexico, Russia, Brazil, India, China

Question 7.
Arrange the following countries in descending order on the basis of birth rate in the year 2017.
USA, Greece, China, India, Niger
Answer:
Niger, India, China, USA, Greece

Question 8.
Arrange the following countries in ascending order on the basis of birth rate in the year 2017.
USA, Greece, China, India, Niger
Answer:
Greece, USA, China, India, Niger

Question 9.
Arrange the following countries in descending order on the basis of death rate in the year 2017.
China, India Greece, USA, Sweden
Answer:
Greece, Sweden, USA, India, China

Question 10.
Arrange the following countries in ascending order on the basis of death rate in the year 2017.
China, India, Greece, USA, Sweden
Answer:
China, India, USA, Sweden, Greece

Write short notes on.

Question 1.
Impact of climate on distribution of population.
Answer:

• Climate is the most important factor of all the factors influencing the distribution of population.
• Areas of extreme climate like too hot, too cold, too humid, too dry and region of very heavy rainfall are not comfortable for inhabitation of people. Such areas are sparsely populated.
• For example, polar regions where Eskimo and Lapps live are sparsely populated due to extreme cold climate. Sahara Desert is sparsely populated due to extreme hot climate.
• On the other hand, areas with equable climate, that is climate with not much seasonal variation attract people. People feel comfortable to stay in these areas.
• For example, coastal areas have dense population because of equable climate and wide scope for the development of agriculture, industries and trade.

Question 2.
Impact of transportation on distribution of population.
Answer:
1. Availability of transport facilities is also an important human factor which affect the distribution of population in

2. Roads and railways are two important means of transportation. They increase accessibility to the region and provide facilities for the movement of people goods. Thus, developing trade and generating employment opportunities. Hence, population in such areas increases.

3. For example, density of roads and railways is very high in Uttar Pradesh and therefore it is one of the most densely populated state of India.

4. In some areas due to growth of sea transport, development of port cities and trade takes place. There is also an increase in the transport facilities connecting to the surrounding areas. Therefore, population in coastal areas increases. For example, port cities on eastern and western coastal of India are densely populated.

5. On the other hand, due to lack of transport facilities areas become inaccessible, movement of goods and people become costly and require more time and hence such areas are thinly populated.

Question 3.
Impact of mining on distribution of population.
Answer:

• Minerals are important raw materials in the development of industries.
• Therefore, industries develop where good quality minerals are available. Mining and industries generate employment for large number of people and hence skilled and semi¬skilled labourers attract to such regions and mining areas become densely populated.
• For example, Richest mineralised zone of India – Chota Nagpur region, Ruhr region of Germany (due to coal and iron mines) are densely populated.
• In some country’s valuable minerals like gold, silver, copper are mined. In such areas in spite of adverse climate and relief minerals are extracted. Also, the region around the mines are densely populated.
• For example, gold producing areas in Africa, mineral oil mines in the deserts of south-west Asia.

Question 4.
Stage 5 of Demographic Transition Theory.
Answer:

• Stage 5 in Demographic Transition Theory is the last stage.
• In this stage the birth rate is very low and death rate is high. Therefore, the growth of population is slow or negative growth of population is seen.
• Due to large number of old people the death rate is high and due to a smaller number of young people birth rate is low.
• Tertiary activities are more developed and they contribute more to the economy.
• The standard of living of people is high, economic condition of the country is good.
• In this stage government provides high quality educational and medical facilities.
• Overall people are happy due to healthy environment and comfortable life.
• For example, Norway, Sweden, Finland are in this stage.

Question 5.
Population characteristics in Stage 1 and Stage 2 in Demographic Transition theory
Answer:

Stage 1	Stage 2
(i) Both birth rates and death rates are high.	(i) Birth rates are constant and death rates are declining.
(ii) Population growth is stable.	(ii) Population grows rapidly.
(iii) Low sanitation, high occurrence of contagious diseases.	(iii) Efforts are made to control and combat diseases.
(iv) Due to lack of medical facilities and malnutrition mortality rate is high.	(iv) Reduction in mortality rate.
(v) People depend on agriculture and other primary activities.	(v) Secondary activities and transport developed
(vi) No country falls in this category.	(vi) Most of the developing countries fall in this category.

Question 6.
Population composition and Population structure
Answer:

Population composition	Population structure
(i) Population composition covers all the characteristics of population that can be measured.	(i) Composition of population gives idea about the structure of population.
(ii) On the basis of composition, we can classify and understand it’s characteristics.	(ii) Population structure gives idea about dependency ratio and its impact on economy of the country.
(iii) Examples of population composition are age structure, sex ratio, literacy rate, occupational structure etc.	(iii) For example, age composition gives idea about percentage of young, adult and old age population.

Question 7.
Population characteristics in Stage 4 and Stage 5 in Demographic Transition Theory.
Answer:

Stage 4	Stage 5
(i) Improvement in the economic status of the citizens.	(i) High economic status of the citizens of the country.
(ii) Secondary and tertiary occupations have higher share than primary occupations.	(ii) Tertiary occupation contribute most towards the economy.
(iii) Population growth is almost minimal.	(iii) Population may reduce because of lower birth rate than death rate.
(iv) USA is passing through this stage.	(iv) Sweden and Finland population are in this stage.

Question 8.
Early expanding stage and Late expanding stage
Answer:

Early expanding stage	Late expanding stage
(i) Birth rates continue to remain constant.	(i) Death rates continue to decrease. Birth rates are also decreasing.
(ii) Population grows rapidly.	(ii) Rate of growth of population reduces.
(iii) Agricultural and industrial production increases.	(iii) Rise in technological growth and expansion of secondary and tertiary activities.
(iv) For e.g., Uganda, Congo, Bangladesh, Niger etc.	(iv) For e.g., China.

Answer the following questions in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the human factors affecting distribution of population.
Answer:
Important human factors affecting distribution of population are
(i) Agriculture
(ii) Mining
(iii) Transportation
(iv) Urbanisation
(v) Government policy

(i) Agriculture

• Due to use of fertilizers and irrigation facilities, agricultural production increases and it supports large number of people.
• The method of cultivation, crops grown, types of agriculture and specialisation in particular crop are the other factors that affects the distribution of population.

(ii) Mining

• Minerals are the important raw materials for the development of industries.
• Industries develop in mineral rich areas and generate employment for skilled and unskilled labour. People are attracted in such areas and thus density of population increases.
• For example, richest mineralised zone of India – Chota Nagpur region in India is densely populated.

(iii) Transportation

• Regions having well developed network of transportation facilities are densely populated.
• Transportation network increases accessibility and helps to develop industries and generate employment and increases density of population.
• On the other hand, the areas where transport facilities are not developed, movement of goods and people become difficult and time consuming and therefore density of population is less.

(iv) Urbanisation

• Due to the development of industries, there is growth of towns and cities.
• In cities transportation, trade and other tertiary activities develop on large scale to fulfil the needs of increasing population.
• People are attracted to city areas due to better employment opportunities, educational and medical facilities, development of means of transport and communication and thus population goes on increasing. For e.g. Mumbai, London, Tokyo, New York.

(v) Government policy

• There is direct effect of government policies on density and distribution of population.
• Sometimes the government encourages people to settle in certain areas to reduce the pressure of population in certain cities. The government provides incentives to attract people.
• For example, to reduce overcrowding in Mumbai city, government provided land, water, and power at concessional rate in New Mumbai area.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 History Important Questions Chapter 9 World: Decolonisation Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th History Important Questions Chapter 9 World: Decolonisation

1A. Choose the correct alternative and rewrite the statement.

Question 1.
___________ was largely responsible for facilitating the process of decolonisation after Second
World War.
(a) League of Nations
(b) World Health Organisation
(c) United Nations
(d) World Trade Organisation
Answer:
(c) United Nations

Question 2.
The British developed ___________ in Sri Lanka as international port city.
(a) Colombo
(b) Madurai
(c) Kandy
(d) Galle
Answer:
(a) Colombo

Question 3.
The British appointed ___________ as Vice President of Myanmar.
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Pandit Nehru
(c) Aung San
(d) Mao Tse Tung
Answer:
(c) Aung San

Question 4.
The first conference of Asian and African countries held in 1955 was known as ___________ conference.
(a) Paris
(b) Versailles
(c) Myanmar
(d) Bandung
Answer:
(d) Bandung

Question 5.
H.S. Williams formed ___________ organisation in London for African unity.
(a) Asian Unity
(b) Free State
(c) Pan-African Association
(d) Nationalist Association
Answer:
(c) Pan-African Association

Question 6.
The end of the Second World War created an environment in which the process of ___________ gained momentum.
(a) Industrialisation
(b) decolonisation
(c) mechanisation
(d) urbanisation
Answer:
(b) decolonisation

Question 7.
In 1964 Tanganyika and Zanzibar were amalgamated and the independent state of ___________ came into existence.
(a) South Africa
(b) Ethiopia
(c) The United Republic of Tanzania
(d) Soviet Russia
Answer:
(c) The United Republic of Tanzania

Question 8.
The process of decolonisation is supposed to have received momentum mainly because of the document known as ___________
(a) Paris Peace Conference
(b) Atlantic Charter
(c) Treaty of Versailles
(d) Queen’s Proclamation
Answer:
(b) Atlantic Charter

1B. Find the incorrect pair from group ‘B’ and write the corrected one.

Question 1.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(a) the Maldives	26th July 1965
(b) Sri Lanka	1948
(c) Myanmar (Brahmadesh)	4th January 1948
(d) India	2nd October 1945

Answer:
India – 15th August 1947

2A. Write the names of historical places/persons/events.

Question 1.
The leader of the Indian National Movement –
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi

Question 2.
An organisation responsible for facilitating the process of decolonisation after World War II –
Answer:
United Nations

Question 3.
The Sultan who ended Portuguese rule from the Maldives –
Answer:
Muhammad Thakuruphanu Al Azam

Question 4.
An organisation created by the people of Myanmar under the leadership of Aung San in 1937 –
Answer:
‘Burma Independence Army’

Question 5.
The country that called the first conference of Asian countries –
Answer:
India

Question 6.
The place where the fifth Pan-African Congress was held in 1945 –
Answer:
Manchester

Question 7.
An American sociologist of African origin was present at the first conference of ‘Pan-American Association’. –
Answer:
W.E.B.Du Bois

Question 8.
The name of the German General who attacked the British empire in Africa –
Answer:
General Erwin Rommel

2B. Choose the correct reason from those given below and complete the sentence.

Question 1.
The ‘League of Nations’ introduced the system of trustees ___________
(a) to manage the administration of the colonies which were under the control of Germany and Turkey
(b) to introduce western education in French colonies
(c) to give the compensation to axis powers
(d) to conduct a plebiscite in the defeated countries
Answer:
(a) to manage the administration of the colonies which were under the control of Germany and Turkey

Question 2.
The British empire in Africa was in danger because ___________
(a) people participated in the election process
(b) people decided to take part in the war
(c) of the aggression of Italy and the German
(d) of the calamity of 1920
Answer:
(c) of the aggression of Italy and the German

3. Complete the following concept map.

Question 1.

Name of the country	Continent	Colony	Year of Decolonisation (independence)
1. Ivory Coast	……………..	French	7th August 1960
2. South Africa	Africa	……………..	1920
3. Sri Lanka	……………..	British	……………..
4. India	Asia	……………..	……………..

Answer:

Name of the country	Continent	Colony	Year of Decolonisation (independence)
1. Ivory Coast	Africa	French	7th August 1960
2. South Africa	Africa	British	1920
3. Sri Lanka	Asia	British	1948
4. India	Asia	British	15th August 1947

4A. Write short notes.

Question 1.
Atlantic Charter.
Answer:
The Atlantic Charter was a pivotal policy statement issued on August 14, 1941, that defined goals for the post-war world. The Atlantic Charter was drafted by British Prime Minister Winston Churchill and U.S. President F.D. Roosevelt at the Atlantic Conference in Newfoundland. All the allies of World War II later confirmed it.

4B. Explain the following statements with reasons.

Question 1.
After the Second World War independence movements strengthened in the African countries.
OR
How western education created the spirit of Nationalism among the African people.
Answer:

• During the 15 year period of 1950-1965 people in the European colonies in Africa freed themselves from the foreign rule.
• The education system imposed by the Europeans was alien to them. Ironically, African leaders were trained in this alien educational system.
• Their education had introduced them to American Independence Struggle, French Revolution, and Nationalism.
• The African people became aware of nationalism and national pride.
• After Second World War England and France gradually began to grant more rights to the Africans in their colonies.
• This strengthened the independence movements in African nations.

5. State your opinion.

Question 1.
Italy and Germany had to lose their colonies in Africa at the end of the Second World War in 1945.
Answer:

• The African battlefield in the Second World War had spread from Morocco and Libya in the north to Ethiopia and Somali Land on the eastern border of Africa.
• The British empire in Africa was in danger because of the aggressions of Italy and the German General Erwin Rommel.
• Indian soldiers in the British army fought with great resilience. With their help, the British could compel the combined armies of Italy and Germany and they had to lose their colonies in Africa at the end of the Second World War in 1945.

6. Answer the following questions in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the decolonisation of the African continent.
Answer:

• An introduction of western education created awareness and feelings of nationalism among the African people.
• European colonies in Africa were involved in First World War. After the defeat of Germany in the war, allied nations began to compete with each other for occupying German colonies in Africa.
• On the advice of American President Woodrow Wilson, the ‘League of Nations decided with the mutual understanding that England, France, and Belgium should divide the colonies among themselves.
• The four British colonies namely Cape Colony, Natal, Orange Free State, and Transvaal were amalgamated and the state of South Africa was created in 1920.
• Egypt got its independence before the end of the Second World War. Following it Libya, Tunisia, Morocco, Algeria, and Ghana became independent one after another.
• In the middle of the 20th century in all the 12 French colonies, such as Ivory Coast, Madagascar, Mali in central Africa became independent. Somalia, Cameroon, and other European colonies under the care of ‘League of Nations became independent one by one.
• Algeria became independent by conducting a plebiscite in 1962. In 1964 Tanganyika and Zanzibar were amalgamated and ‘The United Republic of Tanzania’ came into existence.
• At the end of the Second World War Italy and Germany had to lose their colonies in Africa.

7. Answer the following question with the help of the given points.

Question 1.
Explain decolonisation of Asian continents.
(a) the Maldives
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Myanmar
Answer:
By the end of the 20th-century colonialism came to an end and the process of decolonisation was completed.
(a) Maldives:

• Portuguese entered the Maldives in 1529. Since then Maldives began to pay tribute to the Portuguese in Goa.
• Sultan Muhammad Thakuruphanu A1 Azam from Malabar ended the Portuguese rule and signed a treaty with the Dutch and gave them administrative responsibility of Maldives.
• the Later Maldives was taken over by the British. They built naval bases and radio transmission centers in the Maldives. They also took Indian labourers to work in the paddy fields in the Maldives.
• the Maldives became independent on 26th July 1965, by a treaty signed at Colombo.

(b) Sri Lanka:

• The British ruled Sri Lanka (Ceylon) from 1798 to 1948. They defeated the Portuguese and Dutch.
• There were uprisings in Sri Lanka against British rule. The British plantation owners had taken many labourers from Tamil Nadu to work in coffee plantations.
• In Sri Lanka, the British dominated the production of coffee, tea, rubber, and coconut. They developed Colombo as an international port city.
• They established colleges and universities in Sri Lanka and encouraged Buddhist studies. Sri Lanka became independent in 1948.

(c) Myanmar:

• In 1599, the Portuguese annexed Myanmar, however, in 1611 Portuguese were defeated and United Myanmar was formed. Now Myanmar followed expansionist policy and attacked the British territories of Assam and Manipur in India.
• This situation caused three wars between Myanmar and the British also known as Anglo- Burmese war. The British won the third war and got the control of entire Myanmar.
• Till 1935 it was a part of province of British India. In 1935 it was separated from India and granted autonomy. After 1937 the people of Myanmar formed an organization called ‘Burma Independence Army’ under the leadership of Aung San.
• The British granted independence to Myanmar on 4th January 1948 and appointed Aung San as Vice President.

Maharashtra State Board HSC 12th History Important Questions and Answers

• Chapter 1 Renaissance in Europe and Development of Science Important Questions
• Chapter 2 European Colonialism Important Questions
• Chapter 3 India and European Colonialism Important Questions
• Chapter 4 Colonialism and the Marathas Important Questions
• Chapter 5 India: Social and Religious Reforms Important Questions
• Chapter 6 Indian Struggle against Colonialism Important Questions
• Chapter 7 Decolonisation to Political Integration of India Important Questions
• Chapter 8 World Wars and India Important Questions
• Chapter 9 World: Decolonisation Important Questions
• Chapter 10 Cold War Important Questions
• Chapter 11 India Transformed Part 1 Important Questions
• Chapter 12 India Transformed Part 2 Important Questions

Maharashtra Board 12th HSC Important Questions

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Political Science Important Questions Chapter 4 Contemporary India: Challenges to Peace, Stability and National Integration Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Political Science Important Questions Chapter 4 Contemporary India: Challenges to Peace, Stability and National Integration

Complete the following statements by selecting the appropriate option.

Question 1.
‘Unity in diversity is one of the important Indian values associated with
(a) Panchayati Raj
(b) National integration
(c) Concept of a nation
(d) Concept of ‘melting pot’
Answer:
(b) National integration

Question 2.
Charu Majumdar is associated with the
(a) JKLF
(b) Naxal movement
(c) Hizb-ul-Mujahideen
(d) Assam Oil Blockage
Answer:
(b) Naxal movement

Question 3.
States in India were reorganised in 1956 on the basis of
(a) language
(b) religion
(c) region
(d) caste
Answer:
(a) language

Question 4.
In 1947-48, India had a conflict with
(a) Jammu and Kashmir
(b) England
(c) Pakistan
(d) China
Answer:
(c) Pakistan

Question 5.
In 1980, an oil blockade agitation was in to focus on the demand for economic development.
(a) Jharkhand
(b) Nagaland
(c) Kashmir
(d) Assam
Answer:
(d) Assam

Question 6.
………………. signed the Instrument of Accession with India in 1947.
(a) Maharaja Hari Singh
(b) Amanullah Khan
(c) Kanu Sanyal
(d) Hafiz Saeed
Answer:
(a) Maharaja Hari Singh

Identify the incorrect pair in every set and correct it.

Question 1.
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru – Discovery of India
(b) Struggle for rights of Tamil – LTTE
(c) National Integration Council – Article 370
Answer:
(c) ‘Special status’ for State of Jammu and Kashmir – Article 370

Complete the following sentences by selecting the appropriate reason.

Question 1.
In 1962, the N. I. C was created in India to ……………….
(a) review all matters pertaining to national integration.
(b) oversee the integration of Princely States into India.
(c) deal with insurgency in North-East India.
Answer:
(a) review all matters pertaining to national integration.

Question 2.
The freedom movement played an important role in national integration because …………….
(a) it provided a platform to express democratic views.
(b) it brought Indians together in a common framework of political identity and loyalty.
(c) it provided nationalistic symbols like the National Flag and common citizenship.
Answer:
(b) it brought Indians together in a common framework of political identity and loyalty.

Question 3.
India can be described as the ‘Salad bowl’ identity because ………………….
(a) it recognizes every culture, religion, etc., of a pluralistic society and it’s importance in national integration.
(b) it stresses on a system of assimilation towards a homogeneous society.
(c) it recognizes the right to self-determination of diverse groups in the country.
Answer:
(a) it recognizes every culture, religion, etc., of a pluralistic society and it’s importance in national integration.

State the appropriate concept for the given statements.

Question 1.
A sense of political identity.
Answer:
Nationalism

Question 2.
Concept used to describe American society based on a process of assimilation.
Answer:
Melting pot

Question 3.
The concept that argues that all aspects of diversity should be maintained in a pluralistic society.
Answer:
Salad bowl

Question 4.
Secessionist movement in the Punjab in 1980s.
Answer:
Khalistani movement

Question 5.
A militant movement that originated in the communist ideology
Answer:
Naxalism or Left Wing Extremism

Find the odd word.

Question 1.
CPI (M-L), PWG, MCCI, NIC.
Answer:
NIC (not a Naxal organisation)

Question 2.
Lashkar-e-Taiba, JKLF, IRA, Jaish-e-Mohammed.
Answer:
IRA (not a terrorist group operating in India)

Question 3.
Kerala, Jharkhand, Telangana, Chhattisgarh.
Answer:
Kerala (not affected by Naxalism)

Observe the maps in the textbook and answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Which two union territories have been created due to the bifurcation of the State of Jammu and Kashmir (2019)?
Answer:

1. Jammu and Kashmir
2. Ladakh

Question 2.
Name two Indian States that border Jammu and Kashmir.
Answer:

1. Punjab
2. Himachal Pradesh

Question 3.
Name two districts in the Union Territory of Ladakh.
Answer:

1. Kargil
2. Leh

Question 4.
Name two district in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.
Answer:

1. Udhampur
2. Kupwara

Question 5.
Name two countries that were neighbours of the erstwhile State of Jammu and Kashmir.
Answer:

1. China
2. Pakistan

State whether the following statements are true or false with reason.

Question 1.
Cross Border terrorism in Jammu and Kashmir is a major threat to nation building in India.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. There are many terrorist outfits operating out of Pakistan Occupied Kashmir (POK) or Pakistan such as LET, Hizbul. This has led to frequent terrorist violence in the region since the last two and half decades.
2. Terrorists indulge in acts like bombings, assassinations, etc. They try to radicalise people through ‘fake news’ and vested social groups as well as to encourage local insurgent groups. Terrorists have even indoctrinated children to hate the country and indulge in criminal acts like stone throwing and arson.

Question 2.
Left-Wing Extremism has spread over many States in India.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. Left-Wing Extremism or Naxalism has it’s ideological foundations in communism and the writings of Charu Majumdar. It’s main purpose is to show existing government structures and process as being ineffective.
2. Maoist operations are primarily in rural underdeveloped areas with support base among landless and dalits across the Red Corridor i.e., States like Bihar, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, etc.

Question 3.
The Khalistan movement occurred in the State of Kashmir
Answer:
This statement is False.

1. The Khalistan movement occurred in the State of Punjab as a separatist movement for an independent homeland for Sikhs i.e., The Khalistan or the Land of the Khalsa.
2. The Jammu and Kashmir region has been subjected to terrorism due to local militant outfits as well as cross border terrorism.

Question 4.
Modern day terrorism is State-centric.
Answer:
This statement is False.

1. Modern day terrorism is not State-centric but is a global abstract fight for religious or ideological goals e.g., 2001 attacks by the A1 Qaeda in USA.
2. Traditional form of terrorism was State-centric i.e., a specific section of people fighting for their rights against the State e.g., LTTE in Sri Lanka.

Explain the correlation between the following.

Question 1.
Insurgency in North East India and Neglect of the region
Answer:
North-East India comprises of eight States which are ethnically and culturally very diverse. Many of these States share boundaries with other countries like China, Nepal, Bhutan, Myanmar, Bangladesh. Many of these States are not well connected with mainland India. Some regions of the states in North-East India are not well developed. Ensuring industrial and economic development has been a major issue. Various insurgent groups have created havoc in States like Nagaland, Mizoram, Tripura, etc., In Assam, the ‘anti-foreigner’ movement was about it’s resources being diverted elsewhere, leading to lack of development.

Express your opinion of the following.

Question 1.
Naxal operations are primarily prevalent in underdeveloped areas of the country.
Answer:
Naxalism is a movement based on Maoist ideology that began in 1967 at Naxalbari (West Bengal) as a protest against the feudal order and oppression by the landlords. Naxalites target existing infrastructure and aim to show government programmes as ineffective. Naxalites find support amongst landless agricultural labour, tribals and dalits. They are based in inaccessible, underdeveloped areas of India which lack communication facilities, are heavily forested or have difficult terrain where the security forces find it difficult to operate.

Question 2.
National unity is not homogeneity.
Answer:
National unity refers to solidarity among citizens of a country. It advocates a ‘community of communities’ with respect to diversity, shared values and experiences. It is ethnic, religious, linguistic acceptance towards peace and stability. National unity is a major step towards social peace i.e., it is essential in maintaining a stable, functional and harmonious society. National unity in India reflects the ‘salad bowl’ concept i.e., it is not an assimilation of diverse groups but the maintenance of distinctive beliefs in a plural society.

Question 3.
India went into an economic transformation in the 1990s.
Answer:
After independence, India adopted a socialistic pattern of society with mixed economy and Five Year Plans. However, keeping in view, socio-political changes in the world such as the collapse of the Soviet Union, India went into an economic transformation in the 1990s. It opted for economic liberalisation to tackle the problem of economic stagnation. This led to economic recovery of the country.

Question 4.
The National Integration Council (N. I. C) plays an important role in nation building.
Answer:
In 1961, the first National Integration Conference was held to find ways to combat evils like casteism, communalism, regionalism, etc. Based on it’s recommendations, National Integration Council was set up in 1962, to review all matters pertaining to national integration. It dedicates itself to achieving values like equality, justice, fraternity, secularism and unity in diversity.

Answer the following question in 80 to 100 words.

Question 1.
Trace the changes that have taken place in Article 370.
Answer:
Article 370 gave special status to Jammu and Kashmir (J & IQ conferring it with the authority to have a separate constitution, separate State flag and autonomy over it’s internal administration. The article was drafted in Part XXI of the Indian constitution : Temporary, Transitional and special provisions. Along with Article 35A, this article defined that residents of Jammu and Kashmir had separate laws related to citizenship, ownership of property, etc. The Constituent Assembly of Jammu and Kashmir was empowered to recommend articles of the India constitution that should be applied to the State and a subsequent. Presidential Order (1954) was issued.

On 5th August 2019, the Government of India revoked the special status granted to Jammu and Kashmir under Art. 370. President Ramnath Kovind issued an order nullifying all provisions of autonomy granted to the State. Both houses of Parliament passed the Reorganisation of Jammu and Kashmir bill. As of now the following changes are apparent;

1. People of the State have access to all government schemes like Reservations, RTE, RTI, etc.
2. The State was bifurcated into the Union Territories of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh.

Answer the following question with reference to the given point in 150 to 200 words.

Question 1.
Challenges to nation building in India.
(a) Terrorism
(b) Communalism
(c) Left Wing Extremism
Answer:
Nation building means constructing a national identity which aims at uniting the people within a country so that it remains politically stable. It is closely related to the concept of national integration. It demands a democratic government and participative civil society. Nation building in India faces several challenges such as casteism, regionalism, communalism, insurgency, extremism and terrorism.

(a) Terrorism – It is the actual use or threat to use violence with an intention to disrupt life and create panic. It is called ‘asymmetric’ or ‘indirect’ warfare. It may take the form of assassination of political figures, hijackings, bombings and attacks on civilians etc. Earlier, terrorism was State-centric e.g., LTTE in Sri Lanka. However, modern day terrorism aims for abstract ideological or religious goals at the global level e.g., Taliban, Boko Haram. India has been the target of numerous terrorist attacks e.g., bomb blasts in Mumbai (1993, 2006) and LET attack on 26th November 2008 in Mumbai, attack on Parliament (2001), attacks on security forces at Uri (2016) and Pulwama (2019).

(b) Communalism refers to excessive pride in and attachment to one’s own religion/sect that leads to religious orthodoxy or fundamentalism and promotes intolerance and hatred of other religious groups. In India, roots of communalism can be traced to-

1. British policy of ‘Divide and Rule’.
2. Hindu and Muslim revivalist movements.
3. Rise of communal, fundamentalist parties and other vested interests that aim to radicalise members of their communities.
4. Politics of appeasement by various political parties.
5. psychological factors – history of communal violence has led to lack of trust between Hindus and Muslims.
6. Role of media and ‘fake news’ which may indulge in sensationalism aimed to incite communal hatred.

Some of the prominent cases of communal violence in India are:

1. 1947-49 there was mass bloodshed in the wake of the Partition of India.
2. 1969 Ahmedabad riots.
3. 1983 in Assam against Muslim immigrants from Bangladesh.
4. 1984 Anti-Sikh riots broke out after the assassination of Mrs. Indira Gandhi especially in Delhi.
5. 1992-93 saw the worst riots post independence following demolition of the Babri Masjid especially in Mumbai, Surat, etc.
6. 2002 Gujarat riots especially in Godhra.
7. 2013 Muzaffarnagar riots in UP.

(c) Left Wing Extremism – Left Wing Extremism (also called Maoist movement or Naxalism) has major support base among landless labourers, dalits and tribals who experience a sense of oppression, injustice and neglect. The first attempt to promote a peasant struggle was the Telangana Movement (1946-51). The Naxal movement originated in 1967 in Naxalbari (West Bengal) led by Kanu Sanyal and writings of Charu Majumdar.

Since 1980s the movement has taken a militant turn. In 2004 CPI (M-L), People’s War Group (PWG) and Maoist Communist Centre of India merged to form CPI (Maoist) which aims to overthrow the government, Naxal activities aim to and destroy public property and attack police and officials. The Red Corridor of Naxal activities extends across States like Bihar, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, etc.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 History Important Questions Chapter 12 India Transformed Part 2 Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th History Important Questions Chapter 12 India Transformed Part 2

1A. Choose the correct alternative and rewrite the statement.

Question 1.
Sundarlal Bahuguna started ___________ movement.
(a) Civil Disobedience
(b) Right to Information
(c) Chipko
(d) Water conservation
Answer:
(c) Chipko

Question 2.
Rahibai Popere is popularly known as ___________
(a) Beejmata (seed mother)
(b) Adimata
(c) Narishakti
(d) Strishakti
Answer:
(a) Beejmata (seed mother)

Question 3.
As a result of work of ‘Sahyadri Nisarga Mitra’ ___________ were included in schedule I of the ‘Wildlife Protection Act – 1972.’
(a) Indian Blackege
(b) Sherpalite
(c) Indian Turtlelets
(d) Indian Swiftlets
Answer:
(d) Indian swiftlets

Question 4.
“Lets’s all learn, Let’s all progress” was the motto of ___________ programme.
(a) Khelo India
(b) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan – SSA
(c) Padhega India
(d) Mid-day Meal
Answer:
(b) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan – SSA

Question 5.
Indian wrestler ___________ earned fame in international wrestling.
(a) Kling Chang
(b) Muhammad Ali
(c) Bruce Lee
(d) Khashaba Jadhav
Answer:
(d) Khashaba Jadhav

Question 6.
Sachin Tendulkar was awarded the highest award of ___________
(a) Paramveer Chakra
(b) Bharat Ratna
(c) Dronacharya
(d) Padmacharya
Answer:
(b) Bharat Ratna

Question 7.
In 2011, Government of India announced a scheme named as ___________
(a) Play and music
(b) Play and chat
(c) Come and play
(d) run for India
Answer:
(c) Come and play

Question 8.
The Government of India established National Sports University at ___________ in 2018.
(a) Delhi
(b) Manipur
(c) Pune
(d) Kolkata
Answer:
(b) Manipur

Question 9.
___________ was an advertisement campaign designed to boost tourism.
(a) Mahan Bharat
(b) Atulya Bharat
(c) Enriched India
(d) The Indian Charisma
Answer:
(b) Atulya Bharat

Question 10.
On 6th July 2019, ___________ city in Rajasthan was inscribed as ‘World Heritage’ by UNESCO.
(a) Bikaner
(b) Jaipur
(c) Aajamghad
(d) Kotta
Answer:
(b) Jaipur

1B. Find the incorrect pair from group ‘B’ and write the corrected one.

Question 1.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(a) Sahyadri Nisarg Mitra	Institute for conservation of turtles
(b) Department of Ayurveda, Yoga and Naturopathy, Unani Medicine, Siddha and Homeopathy	AYUR
(c) Federation of Association in Indian Tourism and Hospitality (FAITH)	Organised Indian Tourism Mart – 2018
(d) National Education Policy (NEP)	Emphasised on universalisation of education

Answer:
Department of Ayurveda, Yoga, and Naturopathy, Unani Medicine, Siddha, and Homeopathy – AYUSH

Question 2.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(a) Medha Patkar	Narmada Bachao Movement
(b) Sundarlal Bahuguna	Chipko Movement
(c) Dr. Rajendra Singh	Soil conservation
(d) Premsagar Mestri	SEESCAP

Answer:
Dr. Rajendra Singh – Water Conservation

Question 3.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(a) (DPEP) District Primary Education Programme	Providing access to Primary Education
(b) Mid-day Meal	to provide mid-day meals to children in Primary Schools
(c) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan – SSA	The right to free education was granted to children
(d) Sakharshala	Night Schools

Answer:
Sakharshala – Schools for the seasonal workers harvesting sugarcane

2A. Write the names of historical places/persons/events.

Question 1.
This programme was launched by the State Government of Maharashtra to save girl child –
Answer:
Lek Ladki

Question 2.
The fuel which is used for vehicles to overcome pollution problem –
Answer:
CNG – Compressed Natural Gas

Question 3.
Rahibai Popere was felicitated by the President of India by this award on 8th March 2018 –
Answer:
Nari Shakti Award

Question 4.
The annual event celebrated by ‘Sahyadri Nisarg Mitra’ every year –
Answer:
Turtle Festival

Question 5.
To achieve universalisation of education in India, this satellite was launched in 2004 –
Answer:
EDUSAT (GSAT-3)

Question 6.
The travel show was released on the discovery channel to boost tourism to places of unique nature and culture in the northeastern states of India –
Answer:
GO NORTHEAST

Question 7.
The founder of ‘Muslim Satyashodhak Samaj’ –
Answer:
Hamid Dalwai

Question 8.
The act which was formed to provide protection to women from domestic violence in 2005 –
Answer:
Domestic Violence Act

Question 9.
The movement started by Sunadarlal Bahuguna for the protection of the environment –
Answer:
Chipko Movement

Question 10.
The person who started first night school in Maharashtra –
Answer:
Mahatma Jotiba Phule

Question 11.
The schools started by the government for the children of seasonal workers harvesting sugarcane –
Answer:
Sakharshala

Question 12.
The programme is specially meant to benefit the students who work in the daytime –
Answer:
Ratrashala

Question 13.
The motto of Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan – SSA –
Answer:
“Let’s all learn, Let’s all progress”

Question 14.
The satellite launched in 2004 to achieve universalisation of education –
Answer:
EDUSAT (GSAT-3)

Question 15.
An institution established in Delhi, in 1984 which is working for heritage conservation –
Answer:
INTACH – Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage

Question 16.
The fund which was established for the development of sports in India –
Answer:
The ‘National Sports Development Fund’

Question 17.
The scheme launched by the Ministry of Tourism of the Indian government to chalk out tours to the pilgrim and spiritual centers –
Answer:
‘Swadesh Darshan’ or ‘Prasad’

Question 18.
The Samiti in which Rahibai Popere worked for the conservation of seeds –
Answer:
Kalasubai Parisar Biyanee Samvardhan Samiti

Question 19.
Bhau Katdare and his associates work for the conservation of nature through this institute –
Answer:
Sahyadri Nisarg Mitra

Question 20.
A non-governmental organisation in which Premsagar Mestri and his associates work for the conservation of vultures –
Answer:
SEESCAP ‘Society for Eco Endangered Species Conservation and Protection’.

2B. Choose the correct reason from those given below and complete the sentence.

Question 1.
The main objective of National Human Rights Commission is ___________
(a) to protect the girl child
(b) to protect fundamental human rights
(c) to provide shelter to all middle-class people
(d) to establish committee far environment conservation
Answer:
(b) to protect fundamental human rights

Question 2.
The pollution of water and food is increasing because ___________
(a) of artificial and non-biodegradable materials like plastic and pesticides
(b) increasing air pollution
(c) using oil for making food
(d) use of natural ingredients for the preparation of food
Answer:
(a) of artificial and non-biodegradable materials like plastic and pesticides

3. Complete the following concept map.

Question 1.

Plan	Year of	Objective
1. (DPEP) District Primary Education Programme	……………………….	To provide access to primary education to all.
2. ………………………….	13th August 1995	To provide mid-day meals to children in primary school
3. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA)	………………………..	The right to free education was granted to children in the age group of 6 – 14 years.

Answer:

Plan	Year of	Objective
1. (DPEP) District Primary Education Programme	1994	To provide access to primary education to all.
2. Mid-day Meal (Shaley Poshan Ahar)	13th August 1995	To provide mid-day meals to children in primary school
3. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA)	2001	The right to free education was granted to children in the age group of 6 – 14 years.

4A. Write short notes.

Question 1.
AYUSH
Answer:

• For developing alternate medicine a new department was established by the ‘Ministry of Health and Family Welfare of the Government of India.
• In 2009, this department was renamed as ‘Department of Ayurveda, Yoga, and Naturopathy, Unani Medicine, Siddha and Homeopathy (AYUSH).
• This department is also working for the development of syllabi and education of these branches of medicine, advanced research, standardisation of medicine, etc.

Question 2.
Hamid Dalwai.
Answer:

• Hamid Dalwai was a social reformer inspired by the work and thoughts of Mahatma Jotiba Phule.
• He founded ‘Muslim Satyashodhak Samaj’ in 1970. His main concern was the rights of Muslim women.
• He opposed the custom of ‘Triple Talaq’. The law passed by the Indian Parliament in 2019, has declared this custom illegal.
• He was of the opinion that in Secular India uniform civil code should be applicable to all.

4B. Explain the following statements with reasons.

Question 1.
The Indian government launched a new scheme named ‘Khelo India’.
Answer:

• The Indian government launched a new scheme named ‘Khelo India’ by combining some old schemes with some new objectives.
• The main objective of this scheme was to establish excellence in sports by creating a larger popular platform.
• The scheme also aimed at creating interest among the students about sports from early days in schools and to increase girl’s participation in sports.
• For the development of sports, the ‘National Development Fund’ was established and donation to this fund is eligible for 100% exemption of income tax.
• The Indian Government gives various awards for different sports each year. Some of them are the ‘Arjun Award’, ‘Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna award, Lifetime Achievement Award, Dronacharya’, etc.
• ₹ 75,00,000 was given to the player who wins the gold medal in Olympics. Similarly visually impaired are given a good amount of rewards and jobs.
• There is a provision of pension for a retired sportsperson. A winner of the Olympics is given a pension of ₹ 20,000 since 2018 and the winner of the Asian games gets ₹ 12,000 per month.
• In this way, the Indian government launched various schemes for making the youth aware of sports as a life career.

Question 2.
The Government of Maharashtra decided to teach English from the 1st standard.
Answer:

• The Government of Maharashtra decided to teach English from 1st standard so that the children could master the English language along with their mother tongue.
• Emphasis was given on listening, speaking, reading, and writing skills with the emphasis on children enjoying the learning of English as a language.
• Following the syllabus, the Maharashtra State Textbook Bureau (Balbharati) took up the responsibility of preparing best-illustrated textbooks. The initiative was appreciated by the national knowledge commission.

5. Answer the following question with the help of the given points.

Question 1.
Explain different policies implemented by the Indian Government in the field of education.
(a) Primary Education
(b) Mid-day Meal
(c) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
Answer:
The transformation of India is seen in the field of education as well. 1990 was declared as the ‘International Year of Literacy.’ During this year Kerala became the first state in India to achieve a 100% literacy rate. The government of India has started different innovative programmes to educate people:
(a) Primary Education:

• District Primary Education Programme (DPEP) was started in 1994 aiming at providing access to primary education to all.
• This programme was financially supported by the world bank and started in seven states including Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Haryana, and Assam.
• The main objective of this programme was to achieve 100% registration and attendance of children in primary schools and bringing down the number of drop-outs.

(b) Mid-day Meal (Shaley Poshan Ahar):

• A programme was implemented by the government on 15th August 1995, to provide mid-day meals to children in primary schools.
• If the facility to cook the food in schools was not available then food grains were distributed to each child to ensure his/her attendance in school.

(c) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan:

• This programme was launched in 2001. The motto of this programme was “Let’s all learn, Let’s all progress”.
• By the 86th Amendment in the Constitution of India, the right to free education was granted to children in the age group of 6-14.
• This programme was launched by combining the earlier programme of ‘Khadu-Phala Yojana’ and ‘Mid-day Meal’.
• The programme gives special attention to the education of girl children and children with special needs (Divyang).

Question 2.
Explain the contribution of the following environment activists in the context of conservation and preservation of the environment with special reference to Maharashtra:
(a) Rahibai Popere
(b) Bhau Katdare
(c) Premsagar Mestri
Answer:
Efforts of a number of environmental activists have contributed to environmental conservation and preservation. In Maharashtra, the following three people worked tirelessly to further the goal of environmental conservation and to protect endangered animal species.
(a) Rahibai Popere:

• She was facilitated by the ‘Nari Shakti Award’ by the President of India on 8th March 2018.
• She is popularly known as ‘Beejmata’ (seed mother) for her work in ‘Kalasubai Parisar Biyanee Samvardhan Samiti.’
• She has worked relentlessly to preserve seeds of native cultivars for the future generation.
• The food made with hybrid varieties of food grains and vegetables caused many problems in the human body so thought to preserve native varieties of food grains to overcome the problems.
• She began to cultivate native varieties of food grains and store the seeds of those landraces. She did not confine her efforts to only to her family, but through micro banking groups (bachat gat) she spread this movement into other villages.
• This movement was supported by ‘Bharatiya Agro Industries Foundation (BAIF)’.
• She preserves these seeds in an earthen pot which is covered by the plaster of soil and cow dung in order to save the seeds from ants and insects.
• She has a collection of more than 50 landraces of food grains and 30 landraces of vegetables.
• She is one of the three Indian women selected as ‘Women of the year 2018’ by BBC among 100 women from various countries.

(b) Bhau Katdare:

• Bhau Katdare and his associates worked to save an endangered species of ‘White-breasted Sea Eagle’ through an institute called ‘Sahyadri Nisarg Mitra’.
• He created public awareness to save and conserve this bird by trekking the sea coast of Ratnagiri district.
• The nests of this bird were smuggled out and sold in foreign countries. Due to the efforts of Bhau Katdare and his associate’s Indian swiftlets were included in schedule ‘I’ of the ‘Wildlife Protection Act’ – 1972, which was a remarkable contribution of ‘Sahyadri Nisarg Mitra’.
• Through his institution, he also worked to save Olive Ridley turtles. In the first year, they successfully protected 50 nests and 2734 baby turtles. From these 50 nests were released back into the sea. Hundreds of tourists come every year to watch the ‘Turtle festival’ to watch the occasion of baby turtles returning to sea.
• To accommodate them, facilities of ‘Home Stay’ were developed and the peasants were trained in this.
• Now, they started the protection of the endangered ‘Pangolin’ (anteater / Khavalya Manjar)

(c) Premsagar Mestri:

• Prem Sagar Mestri and his associates are working for the protection of two species of vultures, ‘Long-billed vultures’ and ‘White back vultures’ which are observed in the region around Raigad.
• They are also working for increasing the number of these species of vultures and to make available safe food for them through ‘Society for Eco Endangered Species Conservation and Protection – SEESCAP a non-governmental organisation.
• The number of vultures is decreasing because of the painkillers given to animals which have proved to be toxic for these scavengers. Besides the dearth of trees with adequate height, scarcity of food, etc., are the causes responsible for the decrease in the vulture population. People working for SEESCAP are successful in saving the vultures of this vicinity.

Question 3.
Explain in detail India’s transformation in the social domain.
(a) Human Rights Protection Act-1993
(b) Establishment of Human Rights Commission
(c) The ‘Domestic Violence Act of 2005
(d) Low sex ratio of girls
(e) Government schemes to overcome this problem
Answer:
A lot of changes have been taken place in the field of the social domain. These changes are as follows:
(a) Human Rights Protection Act 1993: The government is trying hard to reduce the social disparity and to bring all the classes of people in the society into the mainstream of economic development. Human Rights Protection Act was passed in 1993.

(b) Establishment of Human Rights Commission: National Human Rights Commission was established under this act. The main objective of this act is to protect fundamental human rights like the right to life, equality, etc., and to see that nobody is deprived of these rights. According to this act, the commission can act on the basis of a report of a case of deprivation of fundamental rights, published in a newspaper or other media (‘Sui Moto cognizance’). A complaint can be lodged by a social activist or a social institute on behalf of the victim.

(c) The ‘Domestic Violence Act of 2005: The domestic violence act was passed in 2005 to provide protection to women from domestic violence. The most important provision of this act is the right of a woman to the house where she has been residing even if she doesn’t own the house.

(d) Low sex ratio of girls: According to the 2011 census, the sex ratio of girls in India is very low. In the age group of 0-6 years, the number of girls is 914 against 1000 boys. This is really an alarming situation and several women organizations raised a voice expressing their concern over this matter.

(e) Government schemes to overcome this problem: The state government of Maharashtra implemented different schemes to overcome the problem of the low sex ratio of girls. The Maharashtra state government banned sex/gender prediction tests of a fetus and launched a programme called ‘Lek Ladki’. After all these programmes, awareness has been created among the people and the social loathing for the birth of a girl is diminishing.

Question 4.
Explain the changes that took place in the field of education with special reference to Maharashtra.
(a) Need for modification in the school syllabi
(b) The guidelines for the new syllabi
(c) Recommendation of ‘Acharya Ram Murti committee
(d) Objectives of ‘Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan’
(e) Establishment of central schools with uniform syllabi
(f) The programs of ‘Ratrashala’ and ‘Sakharshala’
Answer:
Different positive changes that took place in the education field are as follows:
(a) Need for modification in the school syllabi: The National Council of Educational Research and Training, Delhi suggested some modifications in the school syllabi and the structure of school textbooks.

(b) The guidelines for the new syllabi: The guidelines in the new syllabi were based on democratic principles, social justice, awareness of duties and responsibilities, gender equality, protection of the environment, eradication of superstition, population education as also norms of individual behaviour. The syllabi were also formed for creating awareness among the students regarding unity in diversity. Several training programs are arranged for teachers all over Maharashtra for intensifying the effects to fulfill the objectives of the new syllabi. It helped to create awareness regarding the state-level training and school textbooks, comparable to the awareness created at the time of the ‘National Literacy Mission’.

(c) Recommendation of‘Acharya Ram Murti Committee: In 1990, the report of‘Acharya Ram Murti Committee was received by the Government of India. The committee examined the National Educational Policy (NEP). This committee emphasised on universalisation of education, education for women and backward classes, and educational democracy. The most important recommendation of this committee was to include education in fundamental rights and to raise the government funds allotted to education. The directives were issued related to the weight of school bags of children which leads to a reduction in the weight of a school bag. The practices of interviewing children before school admission were banned.

(d) Objectives of ‘Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan’:

• To enroll every child in school to raise the standard of education.
• To eliminate gender discrimination in education.
• To achieve 100% attendance in school by 2010.

(e) Establishment of Central Schools with uniform syllabi: Central schools with uniform syllabi were created throughout the country so that the wards of Central Government’s and Armed forces employee may not have to suffer. The central schools focus on sports and extracurricular activities along with the academic syllabi.

(f) The programmes of ‘Ratrashala’ and ‘Sakharshala’: The Government started the programmes like ‘Ratrashala’ and ‘Sakharshala’. Mahatma Jotirao Phule started first night school in Maharashtra in the 19th century. A number of night schools are opened in Maharashtra inspired by Mahatma Phule’s work. This programme is specially meant to benefit the students who work in the daytime. In the season of sugarcane harvesting, many labourers migrate temporarily to the sites of various sugar factories. To facilitate the education of their children special schools known as ‘Sakharshala’ were started. The State Government also take help of voluntary organization to increase literacy rate. This has helped in increasing the literacy rate. The districts of Sindhudurg and Wardha achieved a 100% literacy rate. It provided an impetus to adult education. The government provided books to school children for supplementary reading.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Political Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Key Concepts and Issues Since 1991: Globalisation Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Political Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Key Concepts and Issues Since 1991: Globalisation

Complete the following statements by selecting the appropriate option.

Question 1.
Some of the important changes that occurred in the economic sphere in the age of globalization are
(a) Free flow of finance capital
(b) Creation of GATT
(c) Rise of Transnational Companies
(d) Focus on intellectual property rights
Answer:
(c) Rise of Transnational Companies

Question 2.
The term ‘socialist market economy’ is used to describe the system in
(a) India
(b) China
(c) France
(d) United States
Answer:
(b) China

Question 3.
Activities like farming, fishing, etc., are included in the ……….. sector.
(a) primary
(b) secondary
(c) service
(d) tertiary
Answer:
(d) tertiary

Question 4.
The Indus Waters Treaty is signed between India and
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Nepal
(c) China
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(d) Pakistan

Question 5.
At Kundankulam there is opposition to building of the
(a) airport
(b) special economic Zone
(c) nuclear power plant
(d) oil refinery
Answer:
(c) nuclear power plant

Complete the following sentences by selecting the appropriate reason.

Question 1.
Investment in the infrastructure sector is more important than that in the consumer sector because ………………….
(a) there is greater extent of profit in it.
(b) real development will take place only when infrastructure is prevalent.
(c) foreign investments are mostly in the consumer sector.
Answer:
(b) real development will take place only when infrastructure is prevalent.

Question 2.
Prior to the 1990s, foreign investments in India were rare because ………………
(a) government regulations made investments difficult.
(b) cold war was in progress.
(c) India was self reliant and did not need any investments.
Answer:
(a) government regulations made investments difficult..

Question 3.
TRIPs by WTO is a significant treaty because ………………
(a) it has replaced the GATT.
(b) it has extended the multilateral trading systems to services.
(c) it sets down minimum standards for most forms of intellectual property regulation.
Answer:
(c) it sets down minimum standards for most forms of intellectual property regulation.

Question 4.
During the Cold War, India had a mixed economy as ………………….
(a) it was nonaligned.
(b) both public sector and private sector played an important role.
(c) it had adopted the economic pattern of Soviet Union.
Answer:
(b) both public sector and private sector played an important role.

State the appropriate concept for the given statements.

Question 1.
Changes that occurred in the post cold war era due to advanced interconnectedness and technology.
Answer:
Globalisation

Question 2.
A category of property that refers to intangible creations of human intellect such as patents.
Answer:
Intellectual property

Find the odd word.

Question 1.
Wipro, Dabur, Burger King, ONGC.
Answer:
Burger King (not an Indian MNC)

Question 2.
Manufacturing, Farming, Mining, Fishing
Answer:
Manufacturing (not from primary sector)

Question 3.
Copyrights, Insurance, Trademarks, Patents.
Answer:
Insurance (not intellectual property)

Question 4.
Green Peace, Amnesty International, Red Cross, Taliban.
Answer:
Taliban (terrorist outfit)

Expand the following abbreviations.

Question 1.
WTO
NGO
GATT
TRIPs
Answer:
WTO – World Trade Organisation
NGO – Non-Governmental Organisation
GATT – General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade
TRIPs – Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights

State whether the following statements are true or false with reason.

Question 1.
Position of the State is being challenged externally as well as internally.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. Some analysts argue that in the age of globalisation, the State has become less important. It’s sovereignty is being challenged from both, outside and within.
2. External challenges come from rise of regional organisations, international laws, growing humanitarian concerns, etc. Internal challenges come from growth of ethnic nationalism, relevance of non State actors and a decline of national consensus.

Question 2.
Countries should have the right to interpret human rights according to their situation.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. In the age of globalisation, protection and promotion of human rights is very significant. The western approach to human rights focuses on civil and political rights while developing countries maintain that economic development must precede full enjoyment of individual rights.
2. Countries have to interpret human rights in accordance to their history, culture, economic and political needs.

Question 3.
In a globalised world, the State has become irrelevant.
Answer:
This statement is False.

1. Many analysts explain that the role of the State is slowly reducing in the economic as well as political sphere. Some of the State’s powers may have reduced due to international treaty obligations but the State’s authority remains the same.
2. The State still remains the key actor in the domestic as well as international sphere. The State remains relevant inspite of the emergence of global civil society and increasing levels of cross border trade and investment.

Question 4.
All countries in the world follow almost the same type of economic system today.
Answer:
This statement is False.

1. Today, in a globalised world, there appears to be only one dominant ideological and economic , system i.e. ‘Market Economy.’ However, the nature of the market economy is determined by the ideology of that country.
2. The USA has a ‘capitalist market’ economy which combines capitalist system with market economics. In most West European nations, the political system is a ‘welfare State’, so they adhere to welfare market economies. China has a socialist market economy and Indian system is described as economic liberalism.

Explain the correlation between the following.

Question 1.
Transnational Corporations – Globalisation
Answer:
Transnational Corporations are a type of Multi National Companies e.g., General Electric, Walmart, Nike etc. It is a borderless entity as it does not consider any particular country as it’s homebase. Globalisation has led to many private sector companies expanding their area of operations in foreign lands. Due to globalisation traditional companies can now spread out their operations in many countries to sustain high levels of responsiveness to the local markets. Transnational Corporations (TNCs) try to make decisions from a global perspective rather than from one centralised base. Actions taken by TNC’s can help in better relationships between nations as well as in the spread of resources.

Express your opinion of the following.

Question 1.
Multi National Companies are both beneficial as well as disadvantageous to developing nations.
Answer:
Multi National Companies (MNC’s) refer to organizations that own or control production of goods or services in at least two or more countries other than it’s home country e.g., Amazon, Coca-Cola Company, eBay, Honda, etc.

The advantages of MNC’s are they improve local infrastructure, provide local employment, diversify local economies, encourage innovation and better standards of production. They provide an inflow of capital and help to utilise the developing nation’s resources.

Disadvantages of MNC’s in developing countries are that natural resources may be overexploited, environment may be damaged, local laws may be ignored, MNC’s import skilled labour and so may not really lead to better employment but may put local outfits out -of business.

Question 2.
The Arab spring in Egypt is sometimes called the ‘Facebook revolution’ in Egypt.
Answer:
The Arab Spring refers to a series of anti-government protests and uprisings that spread across much of the Arab world in the early 2010s. It began in Tunisia and spread to Libya, Egypt, Yemen, Syria and to a smaller extent to Iraq, Lebanon, Sudan, Morocco, etc. It’s main goals were regime change, economic progress and human rights. In Egypt, it began on 25th January 2011 when millions of protestors all over Egypt protested against President Hosni Mubarak’s regime. This was in response to a ‘Day of Revolution’ organized on Facebook on 25th January. It lasted till 11th February 2020.

Answer the following question in 80 to 100 words.

Question 1.
Discuss the political issues in the context of globalisation.
Answer:
Globalisation refers to the rapid spread of goods and services, technology and information, ideas and culture, trade and interactions across the world. It is the connection of different parts of the world resulting in the expansion of international cultural, informational, economic and political activities. In the early 1990s, the term globalisation was used to include economic, political, socio¬cultural, technological and ideological changes that occurred in the world in the post cold war era. The world has become more interconnected due to advances in technology and communication. Events in one part of the world have an impact on other parts of the world. Changes have taken place economically and culturally.

The political issues in the context of globalisation are-
1. Importance of Democracy – Disintegration of the Soviet Union and the revolutions in East European countries was an expression of end of communism and a move towards democratic systems. Today, concepts like ‘Participatory State’, ‘Good governance’, etc., have become important. A participatory State indicates that all sections of society participate in policy making and in the democratic process. Good governance focuses on the role of civil society in the functioning of an accountable, responsible and responsive government.

2. Position of the State – Under globalisation, sovereignty of the State which is closely linked to it’s jurisdiction appears to be challenged internally and externally. Internal challenges include activism of nonstate actors, rise of divisive factors, decline of national consensus, etc while external challenges include rise of regional economic organisations, growing humanitarian concerns, etc.

3. Nonstate actors – Today, not only States but also non-state actors like NGO’s play a significant role in international affairs and in promoting humanitarian issues.

4. Human Rights – Protection and promotion of human rights is an important issue in the age of globalisation. Countries interpret human rights in accordance with their history, culture, economy and polity, Many nations including India lay stress on social justice before full enjoyment of civil and political rights.
It is often argued that the role and importance of the State is slowly reducing, However, the State is still pivot in domestic and international spheres.

Question 2.
Discuss the economic issues in the context of globalisation.
Answer:
Globalisation refers to the rapid spread of goods and services, technology and information, ideas and culture, trade and interactions across the world. It is the connection of different parts of the world resulting in the expansion of international cultural, informational, economic and political activities. In the early 1990s, the term globalisation was used to include economic, political, socio-cultural, technological and ideological changes that occurred in the world in the post cold war era. The world has become more interconnected due to advances in technology and communication. Events in one part of the world have an impact on other parts of the world. Changes have taken place economically and culturally.

The economic issues in the context of globalisation are-
1. Free flow of finance and capital – Investments provide finance and help to build industries. Indian companies both private for e.g., Tatas and government e.g., ONGC have invested in many countries in Asia, Africa and Europe. Foreign companies have also invested in India in sectors like power plants, infrastructure projects, consumer food chains, etc. This free flow of capital is both ways i.e., India to foreign countries and vice-versa. Foreign investment especially in the infrastructure sector is essential.

2. Change in the concept of trade

• WTO – It was established in 1995 to replace GATT. The WTO is the only agency that oversees the rules of international trade, settles trade disputes and organises trade negotiations and agreements.
• The scope of the term ‘trade’ has widened to include not only traditional commodities like fruits, grains, minerals, oil, etc., but also services like banking, insurance and intellectual property like trademarks.
• Use of container cargo ships to carry huge amount of goods all over the world.

3. Rise of Transnational companies for e.g., Nestle, Unilever, etc., operate in India. Even Indian multinational companies like Wipro, Bajaj, etc are doing well. This affects the economy as follows-

• Labour market – MNC’s recruit skilled and semi-skilled employees for eg Indian labour is employed in West Asia, Europe, USA, etc in industrial and service sectors.
• Small shops and industries – Those stores which are efficient, continue to thrive while some industries either sell out to MNC’s or shut down.
• Agricultural sector- Many MNC’s have introduced new technology and opened up direct markets for Indian agricultural products for eg India exports spices, fish, etc. to many nations.

Answer the following question with reference to the given point in 150 to 200 words.

Question 1.
Discuss the following issues in the context of globalisation.
(a) Economic issues
(b) Ideological issues
(c) Socio-cultural issues
(d) Technological issues
Answer:
Globalisation refers to the rapid spread of goods and services, technology and information, ideas and culture, trade and interactions across the world. It is the connection of different parts of the world resulting in the expansion of international cultural, informational, economic and political activities. In the early 1990s, the term globalisation was used to include economic, political, socio¬cultural, technological and ideological changes that occurred in the world in the post cold war era. The world has become more interconnected due to advances in technology and communication. Events in one part of the world have an impact on other parts of the world. Changes have taken place economically and culturally.
(a) Economic Issues
Some economic changes that have occurred due to globalisation.
1. Free flow of finance and capital – Investments provide finance and help to build industries. Indian companies both private for e.g., Tatas and government e.g., ONGC have invested in many countries in Asia, Africa and Europe. Foreign companies have also invested in India in sectors like power plants, infrastructure projects, consumer food chains, etc. This free flow of capital is both ways i.e., India to foreign countries and vice- versa. Foreign investment especially in the infrastructure sector is essential.

2. Change in the concept of trade

• WTO – It was established in 1995 to replace GATT. The WTO is the only agency that oversees the rules of international trade settles trade disputes and organises trade negotiations and agreements
• The scope of the term ‘trade’ has widened to include not only traditional commodities like fruits, grains, minerals, oil, etc., but also services like banking, insurance and intellectual property like trademarks.
• Use of container cargo ships to carry huge amount of goods all over the world.

3. Rise of Transnational companies for e.g., Nestle, Unilever, etc., are operate in India. Even Indian multinational companies like Wipro, Bajaj, etc., are doing well. This affects the economy as follows-

• Labour market – MNC’s recruit skilled and semi-skilled employees for e.g., Indian labour is employed in West Asia, Europe, USA, etc., in industrial and service sectors.
• Small shops and industries – Those stores which are efficient, continue to thrive while some industries either sell out to MNC’s or shut down.
• Agricultural Sector – Many MNC’s have introduced new technology and opened up direct markets for Indian agricultural products for e.g., India exports spices, fish, etc., to many nations.

(b) Ideological Issues – During the Cold War, East European nations, Soviet Union and China followed socialist ideology where the public sector was important. USA and West European countries were capitalist and so the private sector was important. India followed Democratic Socialism and a ‘Mixed Economy’ where both public and private sector coexisted in the economic system.

Today, there is only one dominant ideological and economic system i.e., Market Economy. However, the nature of the market economy is determined by the ideology of that country for e.g., USA has ‘capitalist market economy’, many west European countries have ‘Welfare market economy’, China has ‘socialist market economy’. The Indian system is based on ‘economic liberalism’.

(c) Social and Cultural Issues – Today a ‘global cosmopolitan culture’ has emerged i.e movement of people across the world and public awareness of global issues. This is noticed in matters like values e.g., secularism, clothing, food choices, ways of celebrating festivals, etc. There is international awareness of India’s rich cultural and historical heritage. Similarly, westernisation and urbanisation have influenced Indian society eg breakup of the traditional joint family and rise of individualism and materialism in the country.

(d) Technological issues – Rapid advances in global communication such as Internet, satellite communication etc brought in revolutionary changes in our lives. The internet has provided search engines like ‘Google’ to find out information and has enabled social networking through micro media like Instagram, Skype, etc. All these technologies are transnational and may be positively inclined e.g., NGO’s working for humanitarian issues or negatively inclined such as terrorist organisations.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 4 Cognitive Processes Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Psychology Important Questions Chapter 4 Cognitive Processes

Choose the correct option and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
Stimuli that are near to each other are perceived as a unit, this refers to the law of……………
(a) proximity
(b) continuity
(c) similarity
Answer:
(a) proximity

Question 2.
The learning process by forming associations or connections is called ………………
(a) assimilation
(b) classical conditioning
(c) operant conditioning
Answer:
(b) classical conditioning

Question 3.
…………… is the mental manipulation of information.
(a) Creativity
(b) Learning
(c) Thinking
Answer:
(c) Thinking

Match the pairs.

Question 1.

Group A	Group B
1. Albert Bandura	(a) Learning by assimilation and accommodation
2. B.F. Skinner	(b) Learning by classical conditioning
3. Max Wertheimer	(c) Learning by observation
4. Edward Tolman	(d) Learning by operant conditioning
5. Jean Piaget	(e) Learning by use of cognitive processes
	(f) Laws of perception grouping

Answer:

Group A	Group B
1. Albert Bandura	(c) Learning by observation
2. B.F. Skinner	(d) Learning by operant conditioning
3. Max Wertheimer	(f) Laws of perception grouping
4. Edward Tolman	(e) Learning by use of cognitive processes
5. Jean Piaget	(a) Learning by assimilation and accommodation

State whether the following statements are true or false.

Question 1.
Size and intensity of the stimulus influences attention.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
It is very easy to divide our attention to two tasks simultaneously.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Awareness of the stimuli around us is called perception.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Top-down processing is influenced by the context in which the information occurs.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
The tendency to fill in gaps in an incomplete stimulus so as to perceive it as a meaningful figure refers to the law of closure.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
All changes in behaviour can be attributed to learning.
Answer:
False

Answer the following in one sentence each.

Question 1.
What are cognitive process?
Answer:
Cognitive processes are those processes by which we become aware of and understand the world around us such as sensation, attention, perception, learning, memory, thinking, reasoning, problem solving, etc.

Question 2.
What is attention?
Answer:
Attention is the mental process of bringing few stimuli into the centre of awareness out of the many stimuli present.

Question 3.
What is fluctuation of attention?
Answer:
Our attention shifts from the original stimulus to another stimulus for a fraction of time and then comes back to the original stimulus.

Question 4.
What is perception?
Answer:
Perception is defined as the process of assigning meaning to information received about the environment based on the past experiences.

Question 5.
What is the perceptual law of similarity?
Answer:
Stimuli that are similar to each other are perceived together compared to stimuli that are distinct from each other.

Question 6.
What is thinking?
Answer:
Thinking is the mental activity that uses various cognitive elements and processes that involves the manipulation of information.

Question 7.
Explain the meaning of schema.
Answer:
Schema is an internal representation that organizes knowledge about related concepts and relationships among them.

Question 8.
What is learning?
Answer:
Learning is a relatively permanent change in behaviour that occurs due to experience or practice.

Question 9.
According to B.F. Skinner, how does learning take place?
Answer:
According to B. F. Skinner, learning takes place to gain positive consequences or to avoid negative consequences.

Question 10.
What is Jean Piaget’s view about the learning process?
Answer:
Jean Piaget explains that we learn by forming and refining our concepts on the basis of similarities and differences between the new and existing information.

Explain the concepts in 25 – 30 words each.

Question 1.
Attention
Answer:
Attention is the selective process by which we focus on only a few stimuli from among the various stimuli that are present in our environment. According to Norman Munn, “Attention is the mental process of bringing few stimuli into the centre of awareness out of the many stimuli present”. Attention is influenced by objective factors such as intensity, size, movement, repetition of the stimuli as well as subjective factors like interest, mind-set, experiences of the individual.

Question 2.
Distraction of attention
Answer:
Distraction of attention refers to the drifting of attention from a specific stimulus to another stimulus. This is due to external factors such as intensity, novelty, movement, colour, repetition, etc., of stimuli or internal factors like physical state, lack of interest, mental set of the individual.

Question 3.
Learning
Answer:
Learning is defined as “a relatively permanent change in behaviour that occurs due to experience or practice”. The characteristics of learning are:

1. It involves some relatively permanent change in behaviour.
2. The change in behaviour is due to experience or practice.
3. Change in behaviour may be in knowledge or in skill or in muscular movements.
4. Learning is an inferred process. The main processes by which learning occurs is by Classical Conditioning,
5. Operant Conditioning, Observation, Cognitive processes, etc.

Question 4.
Learning by cognitive processes
Answer:
Learning is a relatively permanent change in behaviour as a result of past experience or practice. According to Edward Tolman, learning may take place using cognitive processes like problem solving, reasoning, concept formation, etc. and not only due to the forming of connections (classical conditioning) or due to consequences of behaviour (operant conditioning).

Answer the following questions in 35 – 40 words each.

Question 1.
What does ‘span of attention’ refer to?
Answer:
Attention is the mental process of bringing few stimuli into the centre of awareness out of the many stimuli present.
It is the total number of stimuli that we can become clearly aware of in a single glance. Span of attention refers to the total number of stimuli that we can become clearly aware of in a single . glance. Span of attention is limited i.e., it is about 7 to 8 items only. Factors like age, intelligence, motivation, practice, etc., of the person affect the span of attention.

Question 2.
Explain division of attention.
Answer:
Attention is the mental process of bringing few stimuli into the centre of awareness out of the many stimuli present.
It is not possible to divide attention to two tasks simultaneously. We can perform two tasks at the same time only if both of them are too simple or mechanical. If we try to pay attention to two tasks at the same time it may result in decreased efficiency and more confusion. Example: if a person has to read a passage from a book and thread a needle simultaneously, it wouldn’t be possible.

Answer the following question 80 – 100 words each.

Question 1.
Types of perceptual processing.
Points:
(i) Top-down processing
(ii) Bottom-up processing
Answer:
Perception is defined as the process of assigning meaning to information received about the environment based on the past experiences.
The two types of processing and Top-down processing and Bottom-up processing.

(i) Top-down processing – If we pay attention to each of our senses all the time, our senses would be overwhelmed. Therefore, many times, our brain uses the context in which it appears or existing knowledge about it while perceiving a particular stimulus. This process is called as top-down processing. When we utilize top-down processing, our ability to understand information is influenced by cognition and context.

Our brain applies what it knows or expects to perceive to understand the stimulus. Top-down processing happens when we work from the general to the specific. It helps us to quickly make sense of the environment. However, perceptual set (our fixed way of viewing stimuli based on past experience/expectations) can hinder our ability to be creative/open-minded.

(ii) Bottom-up processing – Many times our perceptual experience is based entirely on the sensory stimuli and is not influenced by the context in which it appears. In such situations, we take in energy from the environment and convert it to neural signals (sensation) and then try to interpret it (perception). This process is called as bottom-up processing. Bottom-up processing is a process that starts with an incoming stimulus and works upwards until a representation of the object is formed in our brain. Our perceptual experience is based entirely on the sensory stimuli that we piece together. It is only data based i.e., takes place as it happens and requires no previous knowledge or learning.

For e.g.,
13 may be viewed as letter B or the number 13.
This is bottom-up processing-

1. 11, 12, 13, 14 – It is perceived as 13 in the number sequence.
2. ‘I enjoyed the film A13CD’. It is perceived as letter B.

Question 2.
Explain the processes of learning.
Points:
(i) learning by classical conditioning
(ii) learning by operant conditioning
(iii) learning by observation
(iv) learning by assimilation and accommodation
Answer:
Learning is defined as a relatively permanent change in behaviour that occurs due to past experience or practice.
The characteristics of learning are:

1. It involves some relatively permanent change in behaviour,
2. The change in behaviour is due to experience or practice,
3. Change in behaviour may be in knowledge, e.g. learning a new formula, or in skill, e.g. learning to ride a cycle, or in muscular movements.
4. Learning is an inferred process.

The processes of learning are:
(i) Learning by classical conditioning – Classical conditioning was first explained by Ivan Pavlov. It is learning by forming associations and by stimulus substitution. In daily life, we learn many things this way. Example: a child is given an injection by the doctor and begins to cry in pain. He soon makes the connection between ‘doctor’, ‘injection’ and ‘pain’ and begins crying as soon as he is taken to a doctor. Many of our fears, phobias and superstitions are learnt by classical conditioning.

(ii) Learning by operant conditioning – Learning by operant conditioning was first explained by B. F. Skinner. He said that learning takes place to gain positive consequences or to avoid negative consequences. Example: in Skinner’s experiment a rat was put in a special box that had a lever. When the rat pressed the lever, it received a food pellet. Gradually it learnt to press the lever to receive the pellet of food. In daily life, we tend to learn some behaviour either because we are rewarded for it or because we are not punished for it.

(iii) Learning by observation – According to Albert Bandura, we learn by observation and imitation of the of behaviour of others, etc. Both desirable behaviour and for e.g., empathy, and undesirable behaviour for e.g., bullying, can be learned this way. This occurs, in respect to skills, for e.g., eating with a fork/spoon as well as in our thinking, decision making, etc.

(iv) Learning by assimilation and accommodation – Jean Piaget explains that we learn by forming and refining our concepts on the basis of similarities and differences between new and existing information. Example: A child forms a concept of cow by extracting some characteristics of the cow. When the child encounters a buffalo he/she notices the differences between cow and buffalo and forms a new concept of buffalo.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Economics Important Questions Chapter 5 Forms of Market Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Economics Important Questions Chapter 5 Forms of Market

1. A. Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
Features of Perfect Competition are –
(a) Large number of buyers
(b) Large number of sellers
(c) Different prices
(d) Perfect mobility
Options :
(1) a, b and c
(2) a, b and d
(3) b, c and d
(4) c and d
Answer:
(2) a, b and d

Question 2.
Features of monopoly are –
(a) Single seller
(b) No close substitutes
(c) Control over supply
(d) Price taker
Options :
(1) a, b and d
(2) a, b, c and d
(3) c and d
(4) a, b and c
Answer:
(4) a, b and c

Question 3.
Features of Monopolistic Competition are –
(a) Homogeneous product
(b) Selling cost
(c) Downward sloping demand curve
(d) Few buyers
Options :
(1) b and c
(2) a, b and d
(3) c and d
(4) a, b and c
Answer:
(1) b and c

Question 4.
Legal monopoly is recognized by –
(a) Legal provision
(b) Trade Mark
(c) License
(d) Copyright
Options :
(1) a, b, c and d
(2) a, b and d
(3) a, b and c
(4) a and c
Answer:
(1) a, b, c and d

Question 5.
Examples of discriminating monopoly are –
(a) Doctors
(b) Lawyers
(c) Consultants
(d) All of the above
Options :
(1) a and d
(2) a, b and d
(3) a, b and c
(4) a, b, c and d
Answer:
(4) a, b, c and d

Question 6.
Types of imperfect market are –
(a) Monopoly
(b) Oligopoly
(c) Monopolistic Competition
(d) Perfect Competition
Options :
(1) b and c
(2) a, b and c
(3) only d
(4) all of these
Answer:
(2) a, b and c

(B) Complete the Correlation.

(1) Tata group : Private monopoly :: Indian Railways : ………………..
(2) Few sellers : Oligopoly :: Many sellers : ………………..
(3) Less than one year : Short period :: More than five years : ………………..
(4) Perfect competition : No selling cost :: Monopolistic competition : ………………..
(5) Natural monopoly : Wheat from Punjab :: ……………….. : Copy right
(6) Perfect competition : Homogeneous :: ……………….. : Differentiated products
(7). Theory of Monopolistic competition : Prof. Chamberlin :: Perfect competition : ………………..
(8) Perishable goods : Local market :: Non-perishable goods : ……………….
(9) OPEC : Group Monopoly :: RIL : ………………..
(10) Petroleum : ……………….. :: Scooter : National market.
Answers:

1. Public monopoly
2. Perfect competition
3. Very long period
4. Selling cost
5. Legal monopoly
6. Imperfect competition
7. Mrs. Joan Robinson
8. National Market
9. Private monopoly
10. International market

(C) Give economic terms.

1. A monopoly recognised by law.
2. The cost that can add to the price of the product in a distant market.
3. A market in which laissez faire policy is adopted by the government.
4. A network of dealings between buyers and sellers.
5. A market in which a firm and industry are same.
6. A monopoly that arises when a particular type of natural resources are located in a particular region.
7. A price that is determined by intersection of demand and supply.
8. Welfare oriented monopoly. Railways, Courier services, Water supply,
9. A practice of charging different prices for the same product.
10. A monopoly formed by an organisation of Petroleum Exporting countries.
11. When there is no difference between the firm and industry.

Answer:

1. Legal monopoly
2. Transport cost
3. Perfect competition
4. Market
5. Monopoly
6. Natural monopoly
7. Equilibrium price
8. Public monopoly
9. Price discrimination
10. Voluntary monopoly
11. Monopsony

(D) Find the odd word out

(1) Market structure on the basis of place :
Local, National, Oligopoly, International.
(2) Peculiarities of Perfect competition :
Many buyers, Few sellers, Price taker, No transport cost.
(3) Examples of Public Monopoly :
Railways, Courier services, Water supply, Electricity.
(4) Features of Monopoly :
Many sellers, Many buyers, Entry barriers to sellers, Firm coincides with industry.
(5) Natural Monopoly depends upon :
Climate, Rainfall, Specific location, Many sellers.
(6) Private monopoly :
Tata group, OPEC, Adani power, Post office.
(7) Imperfect competition :
Price discrimination, Uniform price, Barriers to entry, Price maker.
Answer:

1. Oligopoly
2. Few sellers
3. Courier services
4. Many sellers
5. Many sellers
6. Post office
7. Uniform price

(E) Complete the following statements.

(1) Equilibrium price is that level of price where ………………
(2) A seller is price maker in ………………
(3) A welfare oriented monopoly is called ………………
(4) A Market in which sellers sell and buyers buy the product in the region in which it is produced is called ………………
(5) A market in which buyers and sellers trade in goods and services across the national borders is called ………………
(6) A classification of market on the basis of place are local, national and ………………
(7) A market on the basis of competition which is ideal and imaginary concept is called………………
(8) A market showing some but not all the features of a competitive market is called………………
(9) When a private body controls a monopoly firm, it is called ………………
(10) When the production is totally controlled and operated by the government it is known as………………
(11) Tea cultivation in Assam is an example of………………
(12) A firm which charges different prices to different buyers for the same product, it is called………………
(13) When some monopolists come together voluntarily to form a group of monopolists, it is called ………………
(14) Different brands of washing powders, liquid cleaners are examples of………………
(15) Selling cost is an important feature of………………
(16) Mobile service providers and cement companies are examples of ………………
(17) A period of production is so long that all inputs are variable is called ………………
(18) A market in which supply is fixed is called ………………
(19) A book “Theory of Monopolistic Competition is written by ………………
(20) The objective of the seller in monopoly market is ………………
(21) Under monopoly there is existence of ………………
Answer:

1. market demand is equal to market supply
2. monopoly .
3. public monopoly
4. local market
5. international market
6. international
7. perfect competition
8. imperfect market
9. private monopoly
10. public monopoly
11. natural monopoly
12. discriminating monopoly
13. voluntary monopoly
14. monopolistic competition
15. monopolistic competition
16. oligopoly market
17. very long period market
18. very short period market
19. Prof. E. H. Chamberlin
20. profit maximisation
21. single seller

[F] Choose the wrong pair ;

I.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. Perfect competition	Many buyers and sellers
2. Oligopoly	Many buyers and few sellers
3. Imperfect market	Monopoly, International market

Answer:
3.

II.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. Market on the basis of place	Local, National, International
2. Market on the basis of competition	Perfect competition, International
3. Market on the basis of time	Very short, short, long, Very long

Answer:
2

III.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. Public Monopoly	Wheat from Punjab
2. Natural Monopoly	Tea from Assam
3. Private Monopoly	Reliance Group

Answer:
1

(G) Choose the correct pair

I.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. Very short period	(a) More than 5 years
2. Short period	(b) Less than 1 year
3. Long period	(c)Few days or weeks
4. Very long period	(d) Upto 5 years

Answer:
(1)-(c), (2)-(b), (3)-(d), (4)-(a).

II.

Group A	Group B
1. Perfect Competition	(a) Product Differentiation
2. Monopoly	(b) Uniform Price
3. Monopolistic Competition	(c) Few Sellers
4. Oligopoly	(d) Single Seller

Answer:
(1)-(b), (2)-(d), (3)-(a), (4)-(c).

2.[A] Identify and explain the concept from given illustrations.

Question 1.

Output sold in units	Price of ‘X’ in ₹	Price of ‘Y‘ in ₹
100	50	50
200	50	40
300	50	30

Identify the type of market of two goods X’ and ‘Y’ Give reason for your answer.
Answer:
Concept : Market for good ‘X’ is perfect competition.
Explanation : At the same price ? 50 sellers are ready to sell more and more in the market.
Concept : Market for good ‘Y’ is
monopolistic competition.
Explanation : As price of ‘Y’ falls, more and more sellers enter the market to sell their product.

Question 2.

Client	Elec, per unit by Government	Lawyer fee in ₹
A	10	1000
B	10	2000
C	10	3000

(1) Identify the type of monopoly by the government and Lawyer. Give reason for your answer.

Answer:
Concept: Electricity charges by government – Public Monopoly.
Explanation : Public monopoly is welfare oriented monopoly and is owned by the government. Therefore, their price per unit remains uniform.
Answer:
Concept : Lawyer fee – Discriminating Monopoly.
Explanation : In case of lawyer, being a private practitioner, he can charge different fee from different customers. Hence, it is called discriminating monopoly.

Question 3.
A washing powder seller incurs extra cost in order to give free samples to the customers as a sales strategy.
Answre:
Concept : Monopolistic Competition (Selling Cost).
Explanation : In this type of market, there are many sellers who sell the product which are close substitutes of each other.
As there are many variety of washing powders available in the market, he distributes free samples to attract the customers to buy his product.

Question 4.
“A monopoly firm can exercise considerable influence on the supply of his commodity and thereby its price.”
Answre:
Concept : Price Maker (Feature of Monopoly).
Explanation : A monopolist is a single seller in the market for his product and has control over the supply and can determine the price for his product.
There are no close substitutes available for his product in the market.
So, he is a price maker.

[B] Distinguish between :

(1) Perfect Competition and Monopoly.
Answer:
Perfect Competition:

1. Perfect competition is a type of market where there are large number of firms producing homogeneous product.
2. The product sold are homogeneous and so they are perfect substitutes.
3. The firm is a price taker so the demand curve is a horizontal demand curve.
4. There is free entry and free exit.
5. Single price prevails in the whole market.
6. 

Monopoly:

1. Monopoly is a type of market where there is only one firm producing a product which has no substitute.
2. The product has no substitute.
3. The firm is a price maker. Thus firm has a downward sloping demand curve.
4. There are strong entry barriers.
5. Price discrimination is possible because seller has complete hold in the market.
6. 

Question 2.
Perfect Competition and Monopolistic Competition.
Answer:
Perfect Competition:

1. It is a market situation in which there are large number of buyers and large number of sellers selling homogeneous product.
2. Products are perfect substitute for another as they are identical.
3. Uniform price prevails in the whole market. There is no selling cost.
4. Firms are price takers. Thus the firm has a horizontal demand curve.
5. It is an unrealistic market.

Monopolistic Competition:

1. It is a market situation in which there are many buyers and many sellers selling differentiated products.
2. Products are similar but not identical. They are close substitutes.
3. Individual price policy is followed and huge selling cost is incurred on sales promotions.
4. The firms are price makers. Thus the firms have a downward sloping demand curve.
5. It is a realistic market.

Question 3.
Natural Monopoly and Social Monopoly.
Answer:
Natural Monopoly:

1. The monopoly power is acquired by a firm due to natural advantages such as good location, control over scarce resources, natural skill, talent, etc.
2. Natural monopoly is determined by the availability of natural resources or natural talents and skills.
3. Normally the monopolist would charge higher prices for the goods.
4. Main objective is to maximise profit.
5. Gulf countries monopolies in production of oil. India’s monopoly in production of jute and cotton. Lata Mangeshkar monopolised as a professional singer once upon a time.

Social Monopoly / Public Monopoly:

1. When government nationalises an industry and acquires complete control over its market that monopoly is called as social monopoly.
2. Social monopoly is determined by economic aims and objectives of the government.
3. Government may not charge higher prices keeping in mind the welfare aspect.
4. The main objective is to provide social welfare.
5. Public utility services like water supply, railway services etc., are examples of public monopoly.

Question 4.
Natural Monopoly and Legal Monopoly.
Answer:
Natural Monopoly:

1. The monopoly power acquired by a firm due to natural advantages such as good location, control over scarce resources or natural skill, etc.
2. The main objective of a natural monopolist is to maximise profits.
3. Monopoly due to location or may be old establishment like the TATA products or Godrej Locks, Cupboards etc., or an actor like Amir Khan.

Legal Monopoly:

1. It arises due to legal protection given to the producers by the government authorities.
2. The objective is to prevent the competitors from producing identical products.
3. Monopoly due to legal rights, conferred by the government such as patent right, copy right, trade marks etc.

Question 5.
Monopoly and Monopolistic Competition.
Answer:
Monopoly:

1. Monopoly is a market structure in which there is a single seller of a product which has no close substitute.
2. There is no competition.
3. There are strong barriers to entry.
4. The demand for the product is less elastic as there are no close substitute.
5. There is no selling cost incurred.
6. Firm and industry are identical.
7. Pure monopoly is an inelastic market.

Monopolistic Competition:

1. It is a market structure in which large number of firms produce and sell products that are differentiated but close substitutes.
2. There is competition among the firms producing very close substitutes.
3. There is free entry and exit for the firms.
4. Demand of the product is elastic as there are close substitutes for the product.
5. Selling cost has an important role in Monopolistic Market.
6. Under monopolistic competition firm and industry are not identical. They are a group.
7. It is a realistic market.

Question 6.
Perfect Competition and Imperfect Competition.
Answer:
Perfect Competition:

1. Perfect competition is a type of market where there are large number of firms producing homogeneous product.
2. Each seller is price taker.
3. Each individual firm controls only a small portion of the total supply.
4. Each seller and buyer has perfect knowledge about the market situation.
5. There are no types in perfect competitive market.

Imperfect Competition:

1. Imperfect competition is a type of market where the product produced by the sellers may be similar or differentiated.
2. Each seller is price maker.
3. Each seller may control more or less portion of the total supply.
4. Each seller and buyer may not have perfect knowledge about the market situation.
5. Examples of imperfect market are monopoly, oligopoly, monopolistic competition, etc.

Question 7.
Local Market and National Market.
Answer:
Local Market:

1. Local market is one in which goods are produced and sold mostly in local areas.
2. Generally, perishable goods like milk, vegetables and bulky goods like sand have local market.
3. Demand is limited in local market.
4. Less variety is available in this market.

National Market:

1. National Market is a domestic market in which goods are produced and sold within the country.
2. Generally goods demanded by common man like wheat, rice, soaps have national market.
3. Demand is very high in national market.
4. Huge variety is available in this market.

Question 8.
Short Period and Long Period.
Answer:
Short Period:

1. A short period is one during which the stock of a commodity can be changed to some extent.
2. This is done by changing the quantity of variable factors like labour and raw material.
3. Supply can be slightly adjusted to the change in demand.
4. Demand plays more important role in determining the price.
5. This period is usually upto 8-10 months.

Long Period:

1. A long period is one during which the stock of a commodity can be fully changed.
2. This is done by changing the size of the plant because all factors are variable.
3. Supply can be fully adjusted to the change in demand.
4. Supply plays more important role in determining the price.
5. This period is usually form 1 year to 4-5 years.

3. Answer the following questions;

Question 1.
Define market.
Answer:
In economics, ‘Market’ refers to an arrangement through which buyers and sellers come in close contact with each other directly or indirectly for exchange of goods at a particular price. Thus, market is a network of dealings between buyers and sellers.
According to Augustin Cournot, “Economist understand by the term market, not any particular market place in which things are bought and sold, but the whole of any region in which buyers and sellers are in such close contact with one another that prices of the same goods tend to equality, easily and quickly.”

Thus, market is said to exist when –

1. there are many buyers and sellers.
2. they may be spread either to a place, region, country or world.
3. goods are bought and sold at a price.
4. people have the knowledge about market price.
5. there is freedom of entry and exit of firms.

Question 2.
Classify the market on basis of place and explain.
Answer:
On the basis of place, market can be classified as follows :

1. Local Market : When the goods are produced and sold in the local area mainly due to the high transport cost are called local markets. For example bricks, stone, etc. Also perishable goods like fish, milk, etc. have local market.

2. National Market : Market confined to a domestic market in a country is called national market. E.g. cars, scooters, TV sets. These goods can be easily transported within the country.

3. International Market : Goods which can be sold in any part of the world have international market. E.g. Tea, cotton, petroleum. Such goods can be exported and imported at a low transport cost.

Question 3.
Classify the market on the basis of time and explain.
Answer:
On the basis of time market can be classified into following four types :

1. Very short period market: A very short period market is one during which supply of a commodity is fixed as it is already produced. This market is for a few days or maximum a week. So the price of the product is determined by demand. Eg. During festival time supply of fruits can be increased, so price rises.

2. Short period market : A short period market is said be a market upto one year. In this market supply of goods can be increased by increasing the variable factors like labour and raw material with the given fixed factors like machinery.

3. Long period market : A long period market is a market upto five years. In this J supply of a commodity can fully increased on demand as all factors of production can j be changed.

4. Very long period market : A very long period market is for more than five years. In this period there can be full adjustment of supply to demand.

Question 4.
Classify the market on the basis of competition and explain.
On the basis of competition, market can be { classified into two main types :
1. Perfect competition
2. Imperfect competition : It is further classified into.
(A) Monopoly
(B) Oligopoly
(C) Monopolistic Competition

According to Mrs. Joan Robinson, “Perfect competition prevails when the demand for the output of each producer is perfectly elastic. ” Hence, it is a market where there are large number of buyers and sellers engaged in buying and selling a homogeneous product at a single price in the market.
Imperfect competition:

(A) Monopoly: According to E. H. Chamberlin, “A monopoly refers to a single firm which has control over the supply of a product which has no close substitutes.” Hence, he can charge different prices from different buyers on the basis of demand.

(B) Oligopoly : An oligopoly is a market situation in which there are few sellers and a large number of buyers. Sellers may sell similar or different products which are close substitutes of each other.

(C) Monopolistic Competition : According to E. H. Chamberlin, “Monopolistic competition refers to competition among a large number of sellers producing close but not perfect substitutes.” Hence, this is a market which has features of both monopoly and perfect competition. E.g. for soaps, washing powders, etc.

Question 5.
What are the main features of Monopoly?
Answer:
Features of Monopoly:

1. Single Seller and Many Buyers : In
Monopoly market, there is only one seller or producer and many buyers. Monopoly firm does not have a rival in the market. So there is no competition.

2. No Close Substitute : The commodity produced by the monopolist does not have close substitutes. Hence they do not face any competition.

3. Entry Barriers : The fact that there is only one firm under monopoly means that other firms are restricted from entering the market. The entry barriers may be natural, legal or financial in nature.

4. Firm Coincides with Industry : In monopoly market, the firm and industry are one and the same. In other words, there is no distinction between firm and industry.

5. Price Maker : In monopoly the seller is a Trice Maker’. Since the monopolist has control over the supply he can determine the price of his product.

6. Profit Maximisation (super normal profit) : A monopolist earns super normal profit. His decision regarding the price and the level of output are guided by profit maximisation motive.

7. Control Over Supply : The monopolisthas a complete hold over market supply as he is the sole producer.
Price discrimination : This implies charging different prices for the same l product to different buyers.

Question 6.
What are the different types of monopoly?
Answer:
There are different types of monopoly as analysed below:

1. Natural Monopoly : A natural monopoly arises when a particular type of natural resource is located in a particular region like petrol or crude oil in Gulf countries. Also natural advantages such as good location, business reputation, age – old establishment s etc., confer natural monopoly. Similarly, many professional skills, natural talents give monopoly power. E.g. A singer or actor has monopoly of his skill, talent.

2. Legal Monopoly : Legal monopolies are those monopolies which are recognised by law. Legal protection granted by the Government in the form of trade mark, copy rights, license etc., give monopoly power to the firms. Here the potential competitors are not allowed to copy the product registered under the given brand names, patents or trade marks according to the law.

3. Joint Monopoly or Voluntary
Monopoly : This monopoly arises through mutual agreement and business combinations like the formation of cartels, syndicate, trust etc. For e.g. Oil producing nations have come together and formed a Cartel OPEC (Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries).

4. Simple Monopoly : A simple monopoly firm charges a uniform price for its product to all the buyers.

5. Discriminating Monopoly : A discriminating monopoly firm charges different prices for the same product to different buyers. E.g. a doctor, a teacher, a lawyer, etc., charges different fees from the people. The practice of charging different prices from different buyers is called “Price discrimination.”

6. Private Monopoly : When an individual or a private firm enjoys the monopoly of manufacturing and supplying a particular product, it is called private monopoly. The main aim of private monopolist is profit maximisation.

7. Public Monopoly : When a field of production is solely owned, controlled and operated by the government, it is regarded as public monopoly. Eg. Public utility service like Railways, Electricity, Water Supply etc. Since these monopolies are service motivated and welfare oriented they are also called welfare monopolies.

Question 7.
What are the features of Oligopoly?
Answer:
The term Oligopoly is derived from the Greek words ‘Oligo’ which means few and ‘Poly’ which means sellers. Hence, following are its features –

1. Many buyers and few sellers : There are many buyers and a few sellers or firms (may be five or six) who dominate the market and have major control over the price of a product.

2. Interdependence : Since the number of firms are less, any change in price, output, product etc. by one firm will affect the rival firms and will force them to change their price, output, etc. E.g. In case of Coke and Pepsi in soft drink market.

3. Selling cost or advertising : Each firm in order to sell more of its product takes aggressive steps to advertise or through free samples. This helps them to capture larger sales.

4. Barrier to entry : The firm can easily exit from the industry whenever it wants, but to enter a new industry it has certain entry barriers like government license, patent right, etc.

5. Uncertainty : There is a great uncertainty in this market if the rival firms join hands and may try to fight each other.

6. Lack of Uniformity : The firms may produce either homogeneous or differentiated products. Eg. In automobile industry, Maruti, Indica are examples of differentiated product but cooking gas of Bharat Petroleum and Hindustan Petroleum are examples of homogeneous product or pure oligopoly.

4. State with reasons whether you agree or disagree with the following statements:

Question 1.
Single price prevails in perfect competition.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.
Single price prevails under perfect competition because.

1. In perfect competition there are large number of buyers and sellers. A single seller nor a single buyer can influence the supply nor the demand and the price.
2. In perfect competitive market price is determined by the interaction of the forces of demand and supply.
3. Hence sellers and buyers are ‘Price takers’ only.
4. Products sold in perfectly competitive market are homogeneous, and hence uniform or single price rules throughout the market for that product and also there is no selling cost incurred.
5. There is perfect knowledge on the part of buyers and sellers about market conditions, which prevents price – discrimination, so single price prevails.
6. Transport costs are ignored under perfect competition. If transport costs are involved then the prices of homogeneous goods would tend to differ.

Question 2.
Price discrimination is possible under monopoly.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.
Price discrimination is possible under Monopoly because :

1. Monopoly is a market situation where there is only one seller who has complete control over the supply of commodity.
2. So he is the price maker and also there is no close substitute for his product.
3. Therefore, the buyer has no alternative but to buy the product from the monopolist or go without it.
4. So a monopolist can charge different prices from different buyers for the same product.
5. Generally he charges higher price from rich and lower price frpm poor.
6. E.g. a doctor in a village may charge less fees from poor and high fees from rich.

Question 3.
Selling cost is incurred by a firm in Monopolistic Competition.
OR
In Monopolistic market, the selling cost is must.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.
Selling cost is incurred by a firm in Monopolistic Competition because –

1. Monopolistic competition is a market where there are many sellers selling differentiated products which are substitutes for each other.
2. So there is an element of ‘Monopoly’ and ‘Competition.’
3. There is keen competition among group of monopolists producing same, though not identical product. So selling costs are incurred to increase the demand for the product.
4. Selling costs are those costs which are incurred by the firms to create demand and increase the demand for its product through advertisements, publicity, salesmanship, etc.
5. The main purpose of selling cost is to push up the sales of the product.
6. The buyers in this market buy the product not by chance but by choice and preference. The advertisements, salesmanship etc can change the preference of the consumer towards their product.

Question 4.
A monopolist cannot control the supply of goods.
OR
Monopolist is price maker.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with this statement. A monopolist can control the supply of goods because –

1. Monopoly is a market situation in which there is a single producer or seller of a product, which has no substitute.
2. It means the entire production and supply of a particular product is in the hands of a single firm. Thus monopoly firm does not have a rival in the market. So he controls the supply.
3. There is no distinction between a firm and an industry under monopoly.
4. He is a price maker and normally fixes a higher price for profit maximisation.

Question 5.
Sellers and buyers are the price takers j in Perfect Competition.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.

1. In perfect competition, there are large number of sellers.
2. Individual seller contributes only a fraction of the total market supply.
3. Similarly, there are large number of buyers.
4. The individual buyers contribute only a fraction of the total market demand.
5. Thus, a single seller or single buyer cannot influence the market price.
6. The market price is determined by an interaction of market demand and market supply, which has to be accepted by the buyers and sellers.
7. Therefore, a large number of sellers and buyers in a perfect competition are the price – takers.

Question 6.
The existence of Perfect Competition is an unrealistic concept. (Oct.’05)
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.

1. Perfect competition is based on certain fundamental assumptions, which are hard to realise because such ideal conditions are not found in real life.
2. In real economic world, products are not homogeneous. Products are differentiated due to influence of advertisement, difference in quality, design, packing etc.
3. Due to ignorance the buyers and sellers do not possess perfect knowledge of market conditions.
4. This leads to imperfect competition and discriminatory price for identical product.
5. Customs and sentiments, also curtail the freedom of buyers and sellers.
6. Also due to social and moral constraints factors of production particularly labour is imperfectly mobile.
7. For all these reasons perfect competition is a myth. It is an unrealistic market.

Question 7.
Monopolistic Competition is not found in real life.
OR
Monopolistic Competition does not enjoys practical existence. (Mar., ’09)
Answer:
No, I do not agree with this statement.
OR In reality, there is monopolistic competition.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.

1. In real world we find a market in which the characteristics of both Monopoly and Competition are interwoven.
2. For instance we find in the market many producers producing same product ‘Soap’ but it is not homogeneous.
3. The soap for example produced by Hindustan Lever and ITC and Proctor & Gamble is slightly different in shape, size, fragrance etc., like Lux is different from Dove and Vivel.
4. Each producer is the monopolist in a way of his own brand value but has to face competition from his rival.
5. All these producers compete with each other in selling soaps.
6. Thus monopolistic competition is found in real life.

Question 8.
A seller is a price maker in monopoly.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.

1. In monopoly market there is a single seller of a product. The aim of the monopolist is to earn maximum profit.
2. Being a single seller, the monopolist has complete control over the market supply.
3. The monopolist can thus have control over the price. He is, thus, a price maker.

Question 9.
Public Monopoly is welfare oriented.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.

• Public Monopoly is solely owned, operated and controlled by the Government.
• Government owned firm provide utility service. It does not aim at profit but welfare maximisation.
• Utility services like the Railways, banks, water supply etc., if left to the private firms will lead to exploitation.
• This is because such services have inelastic demand, so if it is left to private firm they will charge high prices.

Question 10.
Perishable goods have local market.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.
Perishable goods have local market because:

• Market confined to a particular area or locality like a village or town is called local market.
• Perishable goods are those goods which last for 2-3 days e.g. Goods like fish, milk, fruits, vegetables, flowers, etc. usually have local market.
• Since, such goods are get destroyed soon and if transported to far off markets places, transport cost would also be high, increasing the cost of goods.
  Hence, perishable goods usually have local market.

Question 11.
Market in Economic is a place where goods are bought and sold.
Answre:
No, I do not agree with this statement.

1. In common language, the term market is generally understood as a place buyers and sellers meet to buy and sell the commodities.
2. For market to exist, there should be arrangement through which buyers and sellers come in close contact with each other directly or indirectly for exchange of goods and services.
3. This exchange may be by way of telephone, tele-marketing, internet all over the world.

5. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
What are the features / characteristics / conditions / assumptions / peculiarities of perfect competition?
Answer:

(1) Perfect Mobility of Factors of Production : Factors of production that is land, labour, capital are perfectly free to move from one firm to another or from one industry to another from one region to another or from one occupation to another. This ensures freedom of entry and exit for individuals and firms.

(2) Single / Uniform Price : There exists a single price for homogeneous product in the entire market at a given point of time. The price is determined by forces of demand and supply.

(3) Large Numbers of ellers : There are many sellers in this market. The number of sellers (firms) are so large that a single seller cannot influence the market price nor the total output in the market (Industry). The contribution of one seller is insignificant and microscopic. The price in the market is determined by the forces of market demand and market supply. Hence, a firm or seller is a ‘price taker’ and not a ‘price maker.’

(4) Homogeneous Product : The products produced by all the firms in the industry are identical and are perfect substitute to each other. The products are identical in shape, size, colour, etc. and hence uniform price rules the market for the product.

(5) Large Number of Buyers : There are large number of buyers in the market. One individual buyer’s demand is only a small fraction of total market demand so he is not in a position to influence the price. He is a price taker.

(6) No Government Intervention : It is assumed that the government does not interfere with the working of market economy. There are no tariffs, subsidies, licensing policy or other government interventions. This non – intervention of government is necessary to permit free entry of firms and automatic adjustment of demand and supply. In short, laissez faire policy prevails under perfect

(7) Perfect Knowledge : There is perfect knowledge on the part of buyers and sellers regarding the market conditions especially regarding market price. As a result no buyer will pay a higher price than the market price and no seller will charge a lower price than the market price. So a single price would prevail for a commodity in the entire market.

(8) Free Entry and Free Exit : There is freedom for new firms or sellers to enter the industry or market. There are no legal, j economic or any other type of restrictions or; barriers for new firms to enter the industry or an existing firms to quit the industry, Entry of new firm usually takes place j when existing firms enjoy abnormal profit. Similarly, existing firms quit the industry when they face losses.

(9) No Transport Cost: It is assumed that all firms are close to the market and hence there  is no transport cost. If the transport cost are added to the price of product then the homogeneous commodity will have different prices depending upon the distance from the place of supply to the market

Question 2.
How is the equilibrium price determined under perfect competition?
Answre:
Under perfect competition price is determined by the two forces of Demand and Supply. The interaction of demand and supply determines the equilibrium price of a commodity in the market. Equilibrium price is that price at which quantity demanded is equal to the quantity supplied. According to Marshall, demand and supply are like two blades of a pair of scissors. Just as the cutting of cloth is not possible without the use of both the blades, the equilibrium price of a commodity cannot be determined either by the force of demand or supply alone. Both together determine the price. This can be explained with the help of a table and a graph.

From the above table, we see that at price of ₹50 and ₹40 per unit, the supply is more than demand. This is because more sellers want to supply at higher prices due to greater profit margin but buyer’s demand is less at a higher price, so there is excess supply (i.e. S >D). Here the number of sellers are more than buyers, the competition among sellers will put a downward pressure on price. The price will fall to ₹30 as a result supply will contract and demand will expand. Now at ?30, the demand becomes equal to supply (D = S). So ₹30 is called the equilibrium price.

Now suppose the market price is ₹10, or ₹20 per unit, which is less than the equilibrium price, the demand is greater i.e. 500 and 400 units than supply which is 100 and 200 units (D > S). There is excess of demand because buyers want to buy more at a lower price but sellers want to sell less as the profit margin is less. Hence there will be shortage of supply. Now, since the buyers are more the competition among buyers will put a upward pressure on the price, so the price rises to ₹30.

Here, some of the sellers will exit the market due to the high cost of production and low market price, which lowers the profit margin. But there will be entry of new buyers with low marginal utility. So demand rises and becomes equal to supply. ₹30 will prevail in the market as long as demand and supply conditions remain the same. It is a stable price where quantity demanded and supplied is 300 units.

When the above demand and supply) schedule is represented graphically, we get S demand curve DD sloping downward and supply curve SS sloping upward.

The demand curve DD intersects the; supply curve SS at point E at which the c equilibrium price determined is OP and OQ is equilibrium quantity demanded and supplied.

If the price is OP₁ which is higher than the equilibrium price OP there is excess s supply i.e. ab. This will force the prices to ( fall downward from seller side. If the price ) falls to OP₂ below the equilibrium price OP there is excess demand i.e. cd. This willforce the price to rise upward. In this way the equilibrium price OP is determined by forces of demand and supply. At equilibrium price quantity demanded is equal to quantity supplied i.e. OQ.

Question 3.
What are features of monopolistic competition?
Answer:
Features of Monopolistic Competition

(1) Fairly large number of Sellers : There are large number of sellers selling closely related, but not identical products. There is tough competition among sellers. An individual seller supply is just a small part of the total supply, so he has limited degree l of control over market supply and price. Each firm (seller) can formulate its own price and output policy independently.

(2) Fairly large number of Buyers: There are large numbers of buyers in a monopolistic competition market. Each buyer enjoys his preference over a particular brand and chooses to buy a specific brand of product. Hence, the buying is by choice and not by chance.

(3) Product Differentiation : The most distinguishing feature of monopolistic competition is that the product produced by different firms are not identical, they are slightly different from each other but they are close substitutes. The product differentiation can be done in different ways like may be in the form of brand names say Raymonds. It can be differentiated in terms of colour, size, design, etc., say soap, mobiles etc., or through sales technique. For e.g. cars, two wheelers, air conditioners, etc.

(4) Free Entry of Firms: A firm is free to enter the market as there are no entry barriers. Similarly there are no restrictions if the firm wants to quit the market. Freedom of entry leads to occurrence of only normal profit in the long run.

(5) Selling Cost : One of the special features of monopolistic competition is the selling cost. Selling costs are those costs, which are incurred by firms to create more and more demand for its products through advertisement, salesmanship, free samples, exhibitions, etc.

(6) Downward Sloping Elastic Demand Curve : The demand curve faced by each firm is downward sloping and comparatively more elastic. It implies that an individual firm can sell more only by reducing the price.

(7) Concept of Group : Under monopolistic competition, Prof. E. H. Chamberlin introduced the concept of group in place of Marshallian concept of industry. Industry means a number of firms producing identical products. A group means a number of firms producing differentiated product, which are close substitutes.

Question 4.
What is monopoly? Explain the features of monopoly.
Answer:
Monopoly: According to E. H. Chamberlin, “A monopoly refers to a single firm which has control over the supply of a product which has no close substitutes.” Hence, he can charge different prices from different buyers on the basis of demand.

Features of Monopoly:

1. Single Seller and Many Buyers : In
Monopoly market, there is only one seller or producer and many buyers. Monopoly firm does not have a rival in the market. So there is no competition.

2. No Close Substitute : The commodity produced by the monopolist does not have close substitutes. Hence they do not face any competition.

3. Entry Barriers : The fact that there is only one firm under monopoly means that other firms are restricted from entering the market. The entry barriers may be natural, legal or financial in nature.

4. Firm Coincides with Industry : In monopoly market, the firm and industry are one and the same. In other words, there is no distinction between firm and industry.

5. Price Maker : In monopoly the seller is a Trice Maker’. Since the monopolist has control over the supply he can determine the price of his product.

6. Profit Maximisation (super normal profit) : A monopolist earns super normal profit. His decision regarding the price and the level of output are guided by profit maximisation motive.

7. Control Over Supply : The monopolisthas a complete hold over market supply as he is the sole producer.
Price discrimination : This implies charging different prices for the same l product to different buyers.

Question 5.
Define perfect competition and explain price determination under perfect competition.
Answer:
According to Mrs. Joan Robinson, “Perfect competition prevails when the demand for the output of each producer is perfectly elastic. ” Hence, it is a market where there are large number of buyers and sellers engaged in buying and selling a homogeneous product at a single price in the market.
Imperfect competition:

Under perfect competition price is determined by the two forces of Demand and Supply. The interaction of demand and supply determines the equilibrium price of a commodity in the market. Equilibrium price is that price at which quantity demanded is equal to the quantity supplied. According to Marshall, demand and supply are like two blades of a pair of scissors. Just as the cutting of cloth is not possible without the use of both the blades, the equilibrium price of a commodity cannot be determined either by the force of demand or supply alone. Both together determine the price. This can be explained with the help of a table and a graph.

From the above table, we see that at price of ₹50 and ₹40 per unit, the supply is more than demand. This is because more sellers want to supply at higher prices due to greater profit margin but buyer’s demand is less at a higher price, so there is excess supply (i.e. S >D). Here the number of sellers are more than buyers, the competition among sellers will put a downward pressure on price. The price will fall to ₹30 as a result supply will contract and demand will expand. Now at ?30, the demand becomes equal to supply (D = S). So ₹30 is called the equilibrium price.

Now suppose the market price is ₹10, or ₹20 per unit, which is less than the equilibrium price, the demand is greater i.e. 500 and 400 units than supply which is 100 and 200 units (D > S). There is excess of demand because buyers want to buy more at a lower price but sellers want to sell less as the profit margin is less. Hence there will be shortage of supply. Now, since the buyers are more the competition among buyers will put a upward pressure on the price, so the price rises to ₹30.

Here, some of the sellers will exit the market due to the high cost of production and low market price, which lowers the profit margin. But there will be entry of new buyers with low marginal utility. So demand rises and becomes equal to supply. ₹30 will prevail in the market as long as demand and supply conditions remain the same. It is a stable price where quantity demanded and supplied is 300 units.

When the above demand and supply) schedule is represented graphically, we get S demand curve DD sloping downward and supply curve SS sloping upward.

The demand curve DD intersects the; supply curve SS at point E at which the c equilibrium price determined is OP and OQ is equilibrium quantity demanded and supplied.

If the price is OP₁ which is higher than the equilibrium price OP there is excess s supply i.e. ab. This will force the prices to ( fall downward from seller side. If the price ) falls to OP₂ below the equilibrium price OP there is excess demand i.e. cd. This willforce the price to rise upward. In this way the equilibrium price OP is determined by forces of demand and supply. At equilibrium price quantity demanded is equal to quantity supplied i.e. OQ.