Important Questions

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Economics Important Questions Chapter 5 Forms of Market Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Economics Important Questions Chapter 5 Forms of Market

1. A. Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
Features of Perfect Competition are –
(a) Large number of buyers
(b) Large number of sellers
(c) Different prices
(d) Perfect mobility
Options :
(1) a, b and c
(2) a, b and d
(3) b, c and d
(4) c and d
Answer:
(2) a, b and d

Question 2.
Features of monopoly are –
(a) Single seller
(b) No close substitutes
(c) Control over supply
(d) Price taker
Options :
(1) a, b and d
(2) a, b, c and d
(3) c and d
(4) a, b and c
Answer:
(4) a, b and c

Question 3.
Features of Monopolistic Competition are –
(a) Homogeneous product
(b) Selling cost
(c) Downward sloping demand curve
(d) Few buyers
Options :
(1) b and c
(2) a, b and d
(3) c and d
(4) a, b and c
Answer:
(1) b and c

Question 4.
Legal monopoly is recognized by –
(a) Legal provision
(b) Trade Mark
(c) License
(d) Copyright
Options :
(1) a, b, c and d
(2) a, b and d
(3) a, b and c
(4) a and c
Answer:
(1) a, b, c and d

Question 5.
Examples of discriminating monopoly are –
(a) Doctors
(b) Lawyers
(c) Consultants
(d) All of the above
Options :
(1) a and d
(2) a, b and d
(3) a, b and c
(4) a, b, c and d
Answer:
(4) a, b, c and d

Question 6.
Types of imperfect market are –
(a) Monopoly
(b) Oligopoly
(c) Monopolistic Competition
(d) Perfect Competition
Options :
(1) b and c
(2) a, b and c
(3) only d
(4) all of these
Answer:
(2) a, b and c

(B) Complete the Correlation.

(1) Tata group : Private monopoly :: Indian Railways : ………………..
(2) Few sellers : Oligopoly :: Many sellers : ………………..
(3) Less than one year : Short period :: More than five years : ………………..
(4) Perfect competition : No selling cost :: Monopolistic competition : ………………..
(5) Natural monopoly : Wheat from Punjab :: ……………….. : Copy right
(6) Perfect competition : Homogeneous :: ……………….. : Differentiated products
(7). Theory of Monopolistic competition : Prof. Chamberlin :: Perfect competition : ………………..
(8) Perishable goods : Local market :: Non-perishable goods : ……………….
(9) OPEC : Group Monopoly :: RIL : ………………..
(10) Petroleum : ……………….. :: Scooter : National market.
Answers:

1. Public monopoly
2. Perfect competition
3. Very long period
4. Selling cost
5. Legal monopoly
6. Imperfect competition
7. Mrs. Joan Robinson
8. National Market
9. Private monopoly
10. International market

(C) Give economic terms.

1. A monopoly recognised by law.
2. The cost that can add to the price of the product in a distant market.
3. A market in which laissez faire policy is adopted by the government.
4. A network of dealings between buyers and sellers.
5. A market in which a firm and industry are same.
6. A monopoly that arises when a particular type of natural resources are located in a particular region.
7. A price that is determined by intersection of demand and supply.
8. Welfare oriented monopoly. Railways, Courier services, Water supply,
9. A practice of charging different prices for the same product.
10. A monopoly formed by an organisation of Petroleum Exporting countries.
11. When there is no difference between the firm and industry.

Answer:

1. Legal monopoly
2. Transport cost
3. Perfect competition
4. Market
5. Monopoly
6. Natural monopoly
7. Equilibrium price
8. Public monopoly
9. Price discrimination
10. Voluntary monopoly
11. Monopsony

(D) Find the odd word out

(1) Market structure on the basis of place :
Local, National, Oligopoly, International.
(2) Peculiarities of Perfect competition :
Many buyers, Few sellers, Price taker, No transport cost.
(3) Examples of Public Monopoly :
Railways, Courier services, Water supply, Electricity.
(4) Features of Monopoly :
Many sellers, Many buyers, Entry barriers to sellers, Firm coincides with industry.
(5) Natural Monopoly depends upon :
Climate, Rainfall, Specific location, Many sellers.
(6) Private monopoly :
Tata group, OPEC, Adani power, Post office.
(7) Imperfect competition :
Price discrimination, Uniform price, Barriers to entry, Price maker.
Answer:

1. Oligopoly
2. Few sellers
3. Courier services
4. Many sellers
5. Many sellers
6. Post office
7. Uniform price

(E) Complete the following statements.

(1) Equilibrium price is that level of price where ………………
(2) A seller is price maker in ………………
(3) A welfare oriented monopoly is called ………………
(4) A Market in which sellers sell and buyers buy the product in the region in which it is produced is called ………………
(5) A market in which buyers and sellers trade in goods and services across the national borders is called ………………
(6) A classification of market on the basis of place are local, national and ………………
(7) A market on the basis of competition which is ideal and imaginary concept is called………………
(8) A market showing some but not all the features of a competitive market is called………………
(9) When a private body controls a monopoly firm, it is called ………………
(10) When the production is totally controlled and operated by the government it is known as………………
(11) Tea cultivation in Assam is an example of………………
(12) A firm which charges different prices to different buyers for the same product, it is called………………
(13) When some monopolists come together voluntarily to form a group of monopolists, it is called ………………
(14) Different brands of washing powders, liquid cleaners are examples of………………
(15) Selling cost is an important feature of………………
(16) Mobile service providers and cement companies are examples of ………………
(17) A period of production is so long that all inputs are variable is called ………………
(18) A market in which supply is fixed is called ………………
(19) A book “Theory of Monopolistic Competition is written by ………………
(20) The objective of the seller in monopoly market is ………………
(21) Under monopoly there is existence of ………………
Answer:

1. market demand is equal to market supply
2. monopoly .
3. public monopoly
4. local market
5. international market
6. international
7. perfect competition
8. imperfect market
9. private monopoly
10. public monopoly
11. natural monopoly
12. discriminating monopoly
13. voluntary monopoly
14. monopolistic competition
15. monopolistic competition
16. oligopoly market
17. very long period market
18. very short period market
19. Prof. E. H. Chamberlin
20. profit maximisation
21. single seller

[F] Choose the wrong pair ;

I.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. Perfect competition	Many buyers and sellers
2. Oligopoly	Many buyers and few sellers
3. Imperfect market	Monopoly, International market

Answer:
3.

II.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. Market on the basis of place	Local, National, International
2. Market on the basis of competition	Perfect competition, International
3. Market on the basis of time	Very short, short, long, Very long

Answer:
2

III.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. Public Monopoly	Wheat from Punjab
2. Natural Monopoly	Tea from Assam
3. Private Monopoly	Reliance Group

Answer:
1

(G) Choose the correct pair

I.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. Very short period	(a) More than 5 years
2. Short period	(b) Less than 1 year
3. Long period	(c)Few days or weeks
4. Very long period	(d) Upto 5 years

Answer:
(1)-(c), (2)-(b), (3)-(d), (4)-(a).

II.

Group A	Group B
1. Perfect Competition	(a) Product Differentiation
2. Monopoly	(b) Uniform Price
3. Monopolistic Competition	(c) Few Sellers
4. Oligopoly	(d) Single Seller

Answer:
(1)-(b), (2)-(d), (3)-(a), (4)-(c).

2.[A] Identify and explain the concept from given illustrations.

Question 1.

Output sold in units	Price of ‘X’ in ₹	Price of ‘Y‘ in ₹
100	50	50
200	50	40
300	50	30

Identify the type of market of two goods X’ and ‘Y’ Give reason for your answer.
Answer:
Concept : Market for good ‘X’ is perfect competition.
Explanation : At the same price ? 50 sellers are ready to sell more and more in the market.
Concept : Market for good ‘Y’ is
monopolistic competition.
Explanation : As price of ‘Y’ falls, more and more sellers enter the market to sell their product.

Question 2.

Client	Elec, per unit by Government	Lawyer fee in ₹
A	10	1000
B	10	2000
C	10	3000

(1) Identify the type of monopoly by the government and Lawyer. Give reason for your answer.

Answer:
Concept: Electricity charges by government – Public Monopoly.
Explanation : Public monopoly is welfare oriented monopoly and is owned by the government. Therefore, their price per unit remains uniform.
Answer:
Concept : Lawyer fee – Discriminating Monopoly.
Explanation : In case of lawyer, being a private practitioner, he can charge different fee from different customers. Hence, it is called discriminating monopoly.

Question 3.
A washing powder seller incurs extra cost in order to give free samples to the customers as a sales strategy.
Answre:
Concept : Monopolistic Competition (Selling Cost).
Explanation : In this type of market, there are many sellers who sell the product which are close substitutes of each other.
As there are many variety of washing powders available in the market, he distributes free samples to attract the customers to buy his product.

Question 4.
“A monopoly firm can exercise considerable influence on the supply of his commodity and thereby its price.”
Answre:
Concept : Price Maker (Feature of Monopoly).
Explanation : A monopolist is a single seller in the market for his product and has control over the supply and can determine the price for his product.
There are no close substitutes available for his product in the market.
So, he is a price maker.

[B] Distinguish between :

(1) Perfect Competition and Monopoly.
Answer:
Perfect Competition:

1. Perfect competition is a type of market where there are large number of firms producing homogeneous product.
2. The product sold are homogeneous and so they are perfect substitutes.
3. The firm is a price taker so the demand curve is a horizontal demand curve.
4. There is free entry and free exit.
5. Single price prevails in the whole market.
6. 

Monopoly:

1. Monopoly is a type of market where there is only one firm producing a product which has no substitute.
2. The product has no substitute.
3. The firm is a price maker. Thus firm has a downward sloping demand curve.
4. There are strong entry barriers.
5. Price discrimination is possible because seller has complete hold in the market.
6. 

Question 2.
Perfect Competition and Monopolistic Competition.
Answer:
Perfect Competition:

1. It is a market situation in which there are large number of buyers and large number of sellers selling homogeneous product.
2. Products are perfect substitute for another as they are identical.
3. Uniform price prevails in the whole market. There is no selling cost.
4. Firms are price takers. Thus the firm has a horizontal demand curve.
5. It is an unrealistic market.

Monopolistic Competition:

1. It is a market situation in which there are many buyers and many sellers selling differentiated products.
2. Products are similar but not identical. They are close substitutes.
3. Individual price policy is followed and huge selling cost is incurred on sales promotions.
4. The firms are price makers. Thus the firms have a downward sloping demand curve.
5. It is a realistic market.

Question 3.
Natural Monopoly and Social Monopoly.
Answer:
Natural Monopoly:

1. The monopoly power is acquired by a firm due to natural advantages such as good location, control over scarce resources, natural skill, talent, etc.
2. Natural monopoly is determined by the availability of natural resources or natural talents and skills.
3. Normally the monopolist would charge higher prices for the goods.
4. Main objective is to maximise profit.
5. Gulf countries monopolies in production of oil. India’s monopoly in production of jute and cotton. Lata Mangeshkar monopolised as a professional singer once upon a time.

Social Monopoly / Public Monopoly:

1. When government nationalises an industry and acquires complete control over its market that monopoly is called as social monopoly.
2. Social monopoly is determined by economic aims and objectives of the government.
3. Government may not charge higher prices keeping in mind the welfare aspect.
4. The main objective is to provide social welfare.
5. Public utility services like water supply, railway services etc., are examples of public monopoly.

Question 4.
Natural Monopoly and Legal Monopoly.
Answer:
Natural Monopoly:

1. The monopoly power acquired by a firm due to natural advantages such as good location, control over scarce resources or natural skill, etc.
2. The main objective of a natural monopolist is to maximise profits.
3. Monopoly due to location or may be old establishment like the TATA products or Godrej Locks, Cupboards etc., or an actor like Amir Khan.

Legal Monopoly:

1. It arises due to legal protection given to the producers by the government authorities.
2. The objective is to prevent the competitors from producing identical products.
3. Monopoly due to legal rights, conferred by the government such as patent right, copy right, trade marks etc.

Question 5.
Monopoly and Monopolistic Competition.
Answer:
Monopoly:

1. Monopoly is a market structure in which there is a single seller of a product which has no close substitute.
2. There is no competition.
3. There are strong barriers to entry.
4. The demand for the product is less elastic as there are no close substitute.
5. There is no selling cost incurred.
6. Firm and industry are identical.
7. Pure monopoly is an inelastic market.

Monopolistic Competition:

1. It is a market structure in which large number of firms produce and sell products that are differentiated but close substitutes.
2. There is competition among the firms producing very close substitutes.
3. There is free entry and exit for the firms.
4. Demand of the product is elastic as there are close substitutes for the product.
5. Selling cost has an important role in Monopolistic Market.
6. Under monopolistic competition firm and industry are not identical. They are a group.
7. It is a realistic market.

Question 6.
Perfect Competition and Imperfect Competition.
Answer:
Perfect Competition:

1. Perfect competition is a type of market where there are large number of firms producing homogeneous product.
2. Each seller is price taker.
3. Each individual firm controls only a small portion of the total supply.
4. Each seller and buyer has perfect knowledge about the market situation.
5. There are no types in perfect competitive market.

Imperfect Competition:

1. Imperfect competition is a type of market where the product produced by the sellers may be similar or differentiated.
2. Each seller is price maker.
3. Each seller may control more or less portion of the total supply.
4. Each seller and buyer may not have perfect knowledge about the market situation.
5. Examples of imperfect market are monopoly, oligopoly, monopolistic competition, etc.

Question 7.
Local Market and National Market.
Answer:
Local Market:

1. Local market is one in which goods are produced and sold mostly in local areas.
2. Generally, perishable goods like milk, vegetables and bulky goods like sand have local market.
3. Demand is limited in local market.
4. Less variety is available in this market.

National Market:

1. National Market is a domestic market in which goods are produced and sold within the country.
2. Generally goods demanded by common man like wheat, rice, soaps have national market.
3. Demand is very high in national market.
4. Huge variety is available in this market.

Question 8.
Short Period and Long Period.
Answer:
Short Period:

1. A short period is one during which the stock of a commodity can be changed to some extent.
2. This is done by changing the quantity of variable factors like labour and raw material.
3. Supply can be slightly adjusted to the change in demand.
4. Demand plays more important role in determining the price.
5. This period is usually upto 8-10 months.

Long Period:

1. A long period is one during which the stock of a commodity can be fully changed.
2. This is done by changing the size of the plant because all factors are variable.
3. Supply can be fully adjusted to the change in demand.
4. Supply plays more important role in determining the price.
5. This period is usually form 1 year to 4-5 years.

3. Answer the following questions;

Question 1.
Define market.
Answer:
In economics, ‘Market’ refers to an arrangement through which buyers and sellers come in close contact with each other directly or indirectly for exchange of goods at a particular price. Thus, market is a network of dealings between buyers and sellers.
According to Augustin Cournot, “Economist understand by the term market, not any particular market place in which things are bought and sold, but the whole of any region in which buyers and sellers are in such close contact with one another that prices of the same goods tend to equality, easily and quickly.”

Thus, market is said to exist when –

1. there are many buyers and sellers.
2. they may be spread either to a place, region, country or world.
3. goods are bought and sold at a price.
4. people have the knowledge about market price.
5. there is freedom of entry and exit of firms.

Question 2.
Classify the market on basis of place and explain.
Answer:
On the basis of place, market can be classified as follows :

1. Local Market : When the goods are produced and sold in the local area mainly due to the high transport cost are called local markets. For example bricks, stone, etc. Also perishable goods like fish, milk, etc. have local market.

2. National Market : Market confined to a domestic market in a country is called national market. E.g. cars, scooters, TV sets. These goods can be easily transported within the country.

3. International Market : Goods which can be sold in any part of the world have international market. E.g. Tea, cotton, petroleum. Such goods can be exported and imported at a low transport cost.

Question 3.
Classify the market on the basis of time and explain.
Answer:
On the basis of time market can be classified into following four types :

1. Very short period market: A very short period market is one during which supply of a commodity is fixed as it is already produced. This market is for a few days or maximum a week. So the price of the product is determined by demand. Eg. During festival time supply of fruits can be increased, so price rises.

2. Short period market : A short period market is said be a market upto one year. In this market supply of goods can be increased by increasing the variable factors like labour and raw material with the given fixed factors like machinery.

3. Long period market : A long period market is a market upto five years. In this J supply of a commodity can fully increased on demand as all factors of production can j be changed.

4. Very long period market : A very long period market is for more than five years. In this period there can be full adjustment of supply to demand.

Question 4.
Classify the market on the basis of competition and explain.
On the basis of competition, market can be { classified into two main types :
1. Perfect competition
2. Imperfect competition : It is further classified into.
(A) Monopoly
(B) Oligopoly
(C) Monopolistic Competition

According to Mrs. Joan Robinson, “Perfect competition prevails when the demand for the output of each producer is perfectly elastic. ” Hence, it is a market where there are large number of buyers and sellers engaged in buying and selling a homogeneous product at a single price in the market.
Imperfect competition:

(A) Monopoly: According to E. H. Chamberlin, “A monopoly refers to a single firm which has control over the supply of a product which has no close substitutes.” Hence, he can charge different prices from different buyers on the basis of demand.

(B) Oligopoly : An oligopoly is a market situation in which there are few sellers and a large number of buyers. Sellers may sell similar or different products which are close substitutes of each other.

(C) Monopolistic Competition : According to E. H. Chamberlin, “Monopolistic competition refers to competition among a large number of sellers producing close but not perfect substitutes.” Hence, this is a market which has features of both monopoly and perfect competition. E.g. for soaps, washing powders, etc.

Question 5.
What are the main features of Monopoly?
Answer:
Features of Monopoly:

1. Single Seller and Many Buyers : In
Monopoly market, there is only one seller or producer and many buyers. Monopoly firm does not have a rival in the market. So there is no competition.

2. No Close Substitute : The commodity produced by the monopolist does not have close substitutes. Hence they do not face any competition.

3. Entry Barriers : The fact that there is only one firm under monopoly means that other firms are restricted from entering the market. The entry barriers may be natural, legal or financial in nature.

4. Firm Coincides with Industry : In monopoly market, the firm and industry are one and the same. In other words, there is no distinction between firm and industry.

5. Price Maker : In monopoly the seller is a Trice Maker’. Since the monopolist has control over the supply he can determine the price of his product.

6. Profit Maximisation (super normal profit) : A monopolist earns super normal profit. His decision regarding the price and the level of output are guided by profit maximisation motive.

7. Control Over Supply : The monopolisthas a complete hold over market supply as he is the sole producer.
Price discrimination : This implies charging different prices for the same l product to different buyers.

Question 6.
What are the different types of monopoly?
Answer:
There are different types of monopoly as analysed below:

1. Natural Monopoly : A natural monopoly arises when a particular type of natural resource is located in a particular region like petrol or crude oil in Gulf countries. Also natural advantages such as good location, business reputation, age – old establishment s etc., confer natural monopoly. Similarly, many professional skills, natural talents give monopoly power. E.g. A singer or actor has monopoly of his skill, talent.

2. Legal Monopoly : Legal monopolies are those monopolies which are recognised by law. Legal protection granted by the Government in the form of trade mark, copy rights, license etc., give monopoly power to the firms. Here the potential competitors are not allowed to copy the product registered under the given brand names, patents or trade marks according to the law.

3. Joint Monopoly or Voluntary
Monopoly : This monopoly arises through mutual agreement and business combinations like the formation of cartels, syndicate, trust etc. For e.g. Oil producing nations have come together and formed a Cartel OPEC (Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries).

4. Simple Monopoly : A simple monopoly firm charges a uniform price for its product to all the buyers.

5. Discriminating Monopoly : A discriminating monopoly firm charges different prices for the same product to different buyers. E.g. a doctor, a teacher, a lawyer, etc., charges different fees from the people. The practice of charging different prices from different buyers is called “Price discrimination.”

6. Private Monopoly : When an individual or a private firm enjoys the monopoly of manufacturing and supplying a particular product, it is called private monopoly. The main aim of private monopolist is profit maximisation.

7. Public Monopoly : When a field of production is solely owned, controlled and operated by the government, it is regarded as public monopoly. Eg. Public utility service like Railways, Electricity, Water Supply etc. Since these monopolies are service motivated and welfare oriented they are also called welfare monopolies.

Question 7.
What are the features of Oligopoly?
Answer:
The term Oligopoly is derived from the Greek words ‘Oligo’ which means few and ‘Poly’ which means sellers. Hence, following are its features –

1. Many buyers and few sellers : There are many buyers and a few sellers or firms (may be five or six) who dominate the market and have major control over the price of a product.

2. Interdependence : Since the number of firms are less, any change in price, output, product etc. by one firm will affect the rival firms and will force them to change their price, output, etc. E.g. In case of Coke and Pepsi in soft drink market.

3. Selling cost or advertising : Each firm in order to sell more of its product takes aggressive steps to advertise or through free samples. This helps them to capture larger sales.

4. Barrier to entry : The firm can easily exit from the industry whenever it wants, but to enter a new industry it has certain entry barriers like government license, patent right, etc.

5. Uncertainty : There is a great uncertainty in this market if the rival firms join hands and may try to fight each other.

6. Lack of Uniformity : The firms may produce either homogeneous or differentiated products. Eg. In automobile industry, Maruti, Indica are examples of differentiated product but cooking gas of Bharat Petroleum and Hindustan Petroleum are examples of homogeneous product or pure oligopoly.

4. State with reasons whether you agree or disagree with the following statements:

Question 1.
Single price prevails in perfect competition.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.
Single price prevails under perfect competition because.

1. In perfect competition there are large number of buyers and sellers. A single seller nor a single buyer can influence the supply nor the demand and the price.
2. In perfect competitive market price is determined by the interaction of the forces of demand and supply.
3. Hence sellers and buyers are ‘Price takers’ only.
4. Products sold in perfectly competitive market are homogeneous, and hence uniform or single price rules throughout the market for that product and also there is no selling cost incurred.
5. There is perfect knowledge on the part of buyers and sellers about market conditions, which prevents price – discrimination, so single price prevails.
6. Transport costs are ignored under perfect competition. If transport costs are involved then the prices of homogeneous goods would tend to differ.

Question 2.
Price discrimination is possible under monopoly.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.
Price discrimination is possible under Monopoly because :

1. Monopoly is a market situation where there is only one seller who has complete control over the supply of commodity.
2. So he is the price maker and also there is no close substitute for his product.
3. Therefore, the buyer has no alternative but to buy the product from the monopolist or go without it.
4. So a monopolist can charge different prices from different buyers for the same product.
5. Generally he charges higher price from rich and lower price frpm poor.
6. E.g. a doctor in a village may charge less fees from poor and high fees from rich.

Question 3.
Selling cost is incurred by a firm in Monopolistic Competition.
OR
In Monopolistic market, the selling cost is must.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.
Selling cost is incurred by a firm in Monopolistic Competition because –

1. Monopolistic competition is a market where there are many sellers selling differentiated products which are substitutes for each other.
2. So there is an element of ‘Monopoly’ and ‘Competition.’
3. There is keen competition among group of monopolists producing same, though not identical product. So selling costs are incurred to increase the demand for the product.
4. Selling costs are those costs which are incurred by the firms to create demand and increase the demand for its product through advertisements, publicity, salesmanship, etc.
5. The main purpose of selling cost is to push up the sales of the product.
6. The buyers in this market buy the product not by chance but by choice and preference. The advertisements, salesmanship etc can change the preference of the consumer towards their product.

Question 4.
A monopolist cannot control the supply of goods.
OR
Monopolist is price maker.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with this statement. A monopolist can control the supply of goods because –

1. Monopoly is a market situation in which there is a single producer or seller of a product, which has no substitute.
2. It means the entire production and supply of a particular product is in the hands of a single firm. Thus monopoly firm does not have a rival in the market. So he controls the supply.
3. There is no distinction between a firm and an industry under monopoly.
4. He is a price maker and normally fixes a higher price for profit maximisation.

Question 5.
Sellers and buyers are the price takers j in Perfect Competition.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.

1. In perfect competition, there are large number of sellers.
2. Individual seller contributes only a fraction of the total market supply.
3. Similarly, there are large number of buyers.
4. The individual buyers contribute only a fraction of the total market demand.
5. Thus, a single seller or single buyer cannot influence the market price.
6. The market price is determined by an interaction of market demand and market supply, which has to be accepted by the buyers and sellers.
7. Therefore, a large number of sellers and buyers in a perfect competition are the price – takers.

Question 6.
The existence of Perfect Competition is an unrealistic concept. (Oct.’05)
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.

1. Perfect competition is based on certain fundamental assumptions, which are hard to realise because such ideal conditions are not found in real life.
2. In real economic world, products are not homogeneous. Products are differentiated due to influence of advertisement, difference in quality, design, packing etc.
3. Due to ignorance the buyers and sellers do not possess perfect knowledge of market conditions.
4. This leads to imperfect competition and discriminatory price for identical product.
5. Customs and sentiments, also curtail the freedom of buyers and sellers.
6. Also due to social and moral constraints factors of production particularly labour is imperfectly mobile.
7. For all these reasons perfect competition is a myth. It is an unrealistic market.

Question 7.
Monopolistic Competition is not found in real life.
OR
Monopolistic Competition does not enjoys practical existence. (Mar., ’09)
Answer:
No, I do not agree with this statement.
OR In reality, there is monopolistic competition.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.

1. In real world we find a market in which the characteristics of both Monopoly and Competition are interwoven.
2. For instance we find in the market many producers producing same product ‘Soap’ but it is not homogeneous.
3. The soap for example produced by Hindustan Lever and ITC and Proctor & Gamble is slightly different in shape, size, fragrance etc., like Lux is different from Dove and Vivel.
4. Each producer is the monopolist in a way of his own brand value but has to face competition from his rival.
5. All these producers compete with each other in selling soaps.
6. Thus monopolistic competition is found in real life.

Question 8.
A seller is a price maker in monopoly.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.

1. In monopoly market there is a single seller of a product. The aim of the monopolist is to earn maximum profit.
2. Being a single seller, the monopolist has complete control over the market supply.
3. The monopolist can thus have control over the price. He is, thus, a price maker.

Question 9.
Public Monopoly is welfare oriented.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.

• Public Monopoly is solely owned, operated and controlled by the Government.
• Government owned firm provide utility service. It does not aim at profit but welfare maximisation.
• Utility services like the Railways, banks, water supply etc., if left to the private firms will lead to exploitation.
• This is because such services have inelastic demand, so if it is left to private firm they will charge high prices.

Question 10.
Perishable goods have local market.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.
Perishable goods have local market because:

• Market confined to a particular area or locality like a village or town is called local market.
• Perishable goods are those goods which last for 2-3 days e.g. Goods like fish, milk, fruits, vegetables, flowers, etc. usually have local market.
• Since, such goods are get destroyed soon and if transported to far off markets places, transport cost would also be high, increasing the cost of goods.
  Hence, perishable goods usually have local market.

Question 11.
Market in Economic is a place where goods are bought and sold.
Answre:
No, I do not agree with this statement.

1. In common language, the term market is generally understood as a place buyers and sellers meet to buy and sell the commodities.
2. For market to exist, there should be arrangement through which buyers and sellers come in close contact with each other directly or indirectly for exchange of goods and services.
3. This exchange may be by way of telephone, tele-marketing, internet all over the world.

5. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
What are the features / characteristics / conditions / assumptions / peculiarities of perfect competition?
Answer:

(1) Perfect Mobility of Factors of Production : Factors of production that is land, labour, capital are perfectly free to move from one firm to another or from one industry to another from one region to another or from one occupation to another. This ensures freedom of entry and exit for individuals and firms.

(2) Single / Uniform Price : There exists a single price for homogeneous product in the entire market at a given point of time. The price is determined by forces of demand and supply.

(3) Large Numbers of ellers : There are many sellers in this market. The number of sellers (firms) are so large that a single seller cannot influence the market price nor the total output in the market (Industry). The contribution of one seller is insignificant and microscopic. The price in the market is determined by the forces of market demand and market supply. Hence, a firm or seller is a ‘price taker’ and not a ‘price maker.’

(4) Homogeneous Product : The products produced by all the firms in the industry are identical and are perfect substitute to each other. The products are identical in shape, size, colour, etc. and hence uniform price rules the market for the product.

(5) Large Number of Buyers : There are large number of buyers in the market. One individual buyer’s demand is only a small fraction of total market demand so he is not in a position to influence the price. He is a price taker.

(6) No Government Intervention : It is assumed that the government does not interfere with the working of market economy. There are no tariffs, subsidies, licensing policy or other government interventions. This non – intervention of government is necessary to permit free entry of firms and automatic adjustment of demand and supply. In short, laissez faire policy prevails under perfect

(7) Perfect Knowledge : There is perfect knowledge on the part of buyers and sellers regarding the market conditions especially regarding market price. As a result no buyer will pay a higher price than the market price and no seller will charge a lower price than the market price. So a single price would prevail for a commodity in the entire market.

(8) Free Entry and Free Exit : There is freedom for new firms or sellers to enter the industry or market. There are no legal, j economic or any other type of restrictions or; barriers for new firms to enter the industry or an existing firms to quit the industry, Entry of new firm usually takes place j when existing firms enjoy abnormal profit. Similarly, existing firms quit the industry when they face losses.

(9) No Transport Cost: It is assumed that all firms are close to the market and hence there  is no transport cost. If the transport cost are added to the price of product then the homogeneous commodity will have different prices depending upon the distance from the place of supply to the market

Question 2.
How is the equilibrium price determined under perfect competition?
Answre:
Under perfect competition price is determined by the two forces of Demand and Supply. The interaction of demand and supply determines the equilibrium price of a commodity in the market. Equilibrium price is that price at which quantity demanded is equal to the quantity supplied. According to Marshall, demand and supply are like two blades of a pair of scissors. Just as the cutting of cloth is not possible without the use of both the blades, the equilibrium price of a commodity cannot be determined either by the force of demand or supply alone. Both together determine the price. This can be explained with the help of a table and a graph.

From the above table, we see that at price of ₹50 and ₹40 per unit, the supply is more than demand. This is because more sellers want to supply at higher prices due to greater profit margin but buyer’s demand is less at a higher price, so there is excess supply (i.e. S >D). Here the number of sellers are more than buyers, the competition among sellers will put a downward pressure on price. The price will fall to ₹30 as a result supply will contract and demand will expand. Now at ?30, the demand becomes equal to supply (D = S). So ₹30 is called the equilibrium price.

Now suppose the market price is ₹10, or ₹20 per unit, which is less than the equilibrium price, the demand is greater i.e. 500 and 400 units than supply which is 100 and 200 units (D > S). There is excess of demand because buyers want to buy more at a lower price but sellers want to sell less as the profit margin is less. Hence there will be shortage of supply. Now, since the buyers are more the competition among buyers will put a upward pressure on the price, so the price rises to ₹30.

Here, some of the sellers will exit the market due to the high cost of production and low market price, which lowers the profit margin. But there will be entry of new buyers with low marginal utility. So demand rises and becomes equal to supply. ₹30 will prevail in the market as long as demand and supply conditions remain the same. It is a stable price where quantity demanded and supplied is 300 units.

When the above demand and supply) schedule is represented graphically, we get S demand curve DD sloping downward and supply curve SS sloping upward.

The demand curve DD intersects the; supply curve SS at point E at which the c equilibrium price determined is OP and OQ is equilibrium quantity demanded and supplied.

If the price is OP₁ which is higher than the equilibrium price OP there is excess s supply i.e. ab. This will force the prices to ( fall downward from seller side. If the price ) falls to OP₂ below the equilibrium price OP there is excess demand i.e. cd. This willforce the price to rise upward. In this way the equilibrium price OP is determined by forces of demand and supply. At equilibrium price quantity demanded is equal to quantity supplied i.e. OQ.

Question 3.
What are features of monopolistic competition?
Answer:
Features of Monopolistic Competition

(1) Fairly large number of Sellers : There are large number of sellers selling closely related, but not identical products. There is tough competition among sellers. An individual seller supply is just a small part of the total supply, so he has limited degree l of control over market supply and price. Each firm (seller) can formulate its own price and output policy independently.

(2) Fairly large number of Buyers: There are large numbers of buyers in a monopolistic competition market. Each buyer enjoys his preference over a particular brand and chooses to buy a specific brand of product. Hence, the buying is by choice and not by chance.

(3) Product Differentiation : The most distinguishing feature of monopolistic competition is that the product produced by different firms are not identical, they are slightly different from each other but they are close substitutes. The product differentiation can be done in different ways like may be in the form of brand names say Raymonds. It can be differentiated in terms of colour, size, design, etc., say soap, mobiles etc., or through sales technique. For e.g. cars, two wheelers, air conditioners, etc.

(4) Free Entry of Firms: A firm is free to enter the market as there are no entry barriers. Similarly there are no restrictions if the firm wants to quit the market. Freedom of entry leads to occurrence of only normal profit in the long run.

(5) Selling Cost : One of the special features of monopolistic competition is the selling cost. Selling costs are those costs, which are incurred by firms to create more and more demand for its products through advertisement, salesmanship, free samples, exhibitions, etc.

(6) Downward Sloping Elastic Demand Curve : The demand curve faced by each firm is downward sloping and comparatively more elastic. It implies that an individual firm can sell more only by reducing the price.

(7) Concept of Group : Under monopolistic competition, Prof. E. H. Chamberlin introduced the concept of group in place of Marshallian concept of industry. Industry means a number of firms producing identical products. A group means a number of firms producing differentiated product, which are close substitutes.

Question 4.
What is monopoly? Explain the features of monopoly.
Answer:
Monopoly: According to E. H. Chamberlin, “A monopoly refers to a single firm which has control over the supply of a product which has no close substitutes.” Hence, he can charge different prices from different buyers on the basis of demand.

Features of Monopoly:

1. Single Seller and Many Buyers : In
Monopoly market, there is only one seller or producer and many buyers. Monopoly firm does not have a rival in the market. So there is no competition.

2. No Close Substitute : The commodity produced by the monopolist does not have close substitutes. Hence they do not face any competition.

3. Entry Barriers : The fact that there is only one firm under monopoly means that other firms are restricted from entering the market. The entry barriers may be natural, legal or financial in nature.

4. Firm Coincides with Industry : In monopoly market, the firm and industry are one and the same. In other words, there is no distinction between firm and industry.

5. Price Maker : In monopoly the seller is a Trice Maker’. Since the monopolist has control over the supply he can determine the price of his product.

6. Profit Maximisation (super normal profit) : A monopolist earns super normal profit. His decision regarding the price and the level of output are guided by profit maximisation motive.

7. Control Over Supply : The monopolisthas a complete hold over market supply as he is the sole producer.
Price discrimination : This implies charging different prices for the same l product to different buyers.

Question 5.
Define perfect competition and explain price determination under perfect competition.
Answer:
According to Mrs. Joan Robinson, “Perfect competition prevails when the demand for the output of each producer is perfectly elastic. ” Hence, it is a market where there are large number of buyers and sellers engaged in buying and selling a homogeneous product at a single price in the market.
Imperfect competition:

Under perfect competition price is determined by the two forces of Demand and Supply. The interaction of demand and supply determines the equilibrium price of a commodity in the market. Equilibrium price is that price at which quantity demanded is equal to the quantity supplied. According to Marshall, demand and supply are like two blades of a pair of scissors. Just as the cutting of cloth is not possible without the use of both the blades, the equilibrium price of a commodity cannot be determined either by the force of demand or supply alone. Both together determine the price. This can be explained with the help of a table and a graph.

From the above table, we see that at price of ₹50 and ₹40 per unit, the supply is more than demand. This is because more sellers want to supply at higher prices due to greater profit margin but buyer’s demand is less at a higher price, so there is excess supply (i.e. S >D). Here the number of sellers are more than buyers, the competition among sellers will put a downward pressure on price. The price will fall to ₹30 as a result supply will contract and demand will expand. Now at ?30, the demand becomes equal to supply (D = S). So ₹30 is called the equilibrium price.

Now suppose the market price is ₹10, or ₹20 per unit, which is less than the equilibrium price, the demand is greater i.e. 500 and 400 units than supply which is 100 and 200 units (D > S). There is excess of demand because buyers want to buy more at a lower price but sellers want to sell less as the profit margin is less. Hence there will be shortage of supply. Now, since the buyers are more the competition among buyers will put a upward pressure on the price, so the price rises to ₹30.

Here, some of the sellers will exit the market due to the high cost of production and low market price, which lowers the profit margin. But there will be entry of new buyers with low marginal utility. So demand rises and becomes equal to supply. ₹30 will prevail in the market as long as demand and supply conditions remain the same. It is a stable price where quantity demanded and supplied is 300 units.

When the above demand and supply) schedule is represented graphically, we get S demand curve DD sloping downward and supply curve SS sloping upward.

The demand curve DD intersects the; supply curve SS at point E at which the c equilibrium price determined is OP and OQ is equilibrium quantity demanded and supplied.

If the price is OP₁ which is higher than the equilibrium price OP there is excess s supply i.e. ab. This will force the prices to ( fall downward from seller side. If the price ) falls to OP₂ below the equilibrium price OP there is excess demand i.e. cd. This willforce the price to rise upward. In this way the equilibrium price OP is determined by forces of demand and supply. At equilibrium price quantity demanded is equal to quantity supplied i.e. OQ.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Sociology Important Questions Chapter 6 Social Problems in India Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Sociology Important Questions Chapter 6 Social Problems in India

1A. Complete the following statements by choosing the correct alternative given in the brackets and rewrite it.

Question 1.
Several social movements emerged to solve __________ problems. (social, legal, political)
Answer:
social

Question 2.
The problems are a __________ process. (singular, mono, two-way)
Answer:
two-way

Question 3.
An individual problem __________ may rest with the individual. (cause, solution, depth)
Answer:
cause

Question 4.
Lack of education or skills is __________ problem. (group, individual, normal)
Answer:
individual

Question 5.
A social problem is __________ than an individual problem. (same, old, different,)
Answer:
different

Question 6.
People feel the need for collection action to solve the __________ problem. (individual, social, legal)
Answer:
social

Question 7.
__________ is an inevitable and irreversible biological process of life. (Ageing, Workplace, Family)
Answer:
Ageing

Question 8.
The commonest criterion for measuring the process of ageing in an individual is one’s __________ age. (death, chronological, birth)
Answer:
chronological

Question 9.
In India, the age of __________ has been adopted by the Census of India for classifying and categorising ageing population. (50, 60, 70)
Answer:
60

Question 10.
Many ages persons are fully or partially dependent for __________ support on their families. (government, financial, NGOs)
Answer:
financial

Question 11.
The National Policy on older persons was announced in __________ (Jan 1997, Jan 1998, Jan 1999)
Answer:
Jan 1999

Question 12.
__________ are helping to solve the problem of the aged in India. (NGOs, Family, Society)
Answer:
NGOs

Question 13.
Nowadays there are __________ communities which gives support to older persons. (dance, online, sports)
Answer:
online

Question 14.
Many __________ are lacking basic amenities and are impersonal in their care of the inhabitants. (old age homes, family, NGOs)
Answer:
old age homes

Question 15.
The term __________ means, “People who are jobless, actively seeking work and available to take a job”. (Job, Work, Unemployment)
Answer:
Unemployment

Question 16.
According to NSSO, an unemployed person is one who puts in less than __________ hours of paid work in a week. (14, 16, 20)
Answer:
14

Question 17.
Advances in technology have rendered numerous workers unemployed as their __________ has become redundant today. (skill sets, habits, experience)
Answer:
skillsets

Question 18.
When individuals are __________ jobs, there is a period of no employment between one job and the next. (joining, switching, enjoying)
Answer:
switching

Question 19.
During the __________ periods, there are greater chances of workers to lose theirs in the construction sector. (important, boom, lull)
Answer:
lull

Question 20.
__________ of people to urban areas has an effect on urban unemployment. (Demand, Poverty, Seasonal migration)
Answer:
Seasonal migration

Question 21.
As per the Census of India definition, the productive category refers to people within the ages of __________ years. (11-49, 15-59, 20-60)
Answer:
15-59

Question 22.
An unemployed __________ population unable to add value to the economy becomes a burden on the working population. (adult, minor, aged)
Answer:
adult

Question 23.
Lack of __________ may drive people to engage in anti-social activities. (obstacles, jobs, opportunities)
Answer:
opportunities

Question 24.
__________ need to develop mindsets that are open to change. (Ageing, Academics, Addiction)
Answer:
Academics

Question 25.
The __________ programmes must be on choice-based, need-based and learner-centred. (educational, occupational, family)
Answer:
educational

Question 26.
The __________ has laid emphasis on vocational training from the secondary stage upwards. (RUSA, New Pension Policy, New Educational Policy)
Answer:
New Educational Policy

Question 27.
__________ is one measure to minimise the extent of unemployment. (Self-employment, Jobs, Shifts)
Answer:
Self-employment

Question 28.
__________ are a significant percentage of the agrarian workforce. (Farmers, Monsoon, Technology)
Answer:
Farmers

Question 29.
Human intervention has led to increased __________ (problem, pollution, solution)
Answer:
pollution

Question 30.
The emission of greenhouse gases has caused depletion of the __________ layer. (Methane, Butane, Ozone)
Answer:
Ozone

Question 31.
Failure of the crops forces impoverished farmers to live a life in __________ (fun, bury, debt)
Answer:
debt

Question 32.
The psychological burden of being indebted passes on the __________ (next generation, neighbours, relatives)
Answer:
next generation

Question 33.
The __________ are farmers with large landholdings. (Zamindars, Deshmukh, Peasants)
Answer:
Zamindars

Question 34.
In rural India, the custom of __________ has wreaked havoc for farmers. (dowry, debt, ageing)
Answer:
dowry

Question 35.
Farmer’s suicide can dampen the spirit of __________ (trading, domestic work, farming)
Answer:
Farming

Question 36.
__________ insurance should be provided to farmers against crop failure. (Crop, Health, Mediclaim)
Answer:
Crop

Question 37.
Water harvesting and water management will help to channelise the use of __________ resources with great discretion. (natural, water, air)
Answer:
water

Question 38.
To stop the exploitation of farmers removal of the system of __________ is necessary. (debt, insurance, middlemen)
Answer:
middlemen

Question 39.
__________ is an alternative to monoculture. (multi-cropping, water harvesting, domestication)
Answer:
multi-cropping

Question 40.
Domestic violence means within the family. (abuse, suicide, policy)
Answer:
abuse

Question 41.
Victims of domestic violence may need __________ (support, intensive counselling, medicines)
Answer:
intensive counselling

Question 42.
__________ plays an effective role to sensitize the public about domestic violence. (family, peers, media)
Answer:
media

Question 43.
NGOs are backed with services of __________ and __________ departments. (social and moral, fun and fair, legal and police)
Answer:
legal and police

Question 44.
__________ is a situation of psychological or physical dependence on alcohol, drugs, the internet, or mobiles. (Addiction, Ageing, Unemployment)
Answer:
Addiction

Question 45.
Addiction can also lead to __________ behaviour. (social and happy, anti-social and depression, moral and value)
Answer:
anti-social and depression

Question 46.
The addictive element in tobacco is __________ which impacts the brain. (amphetamine, nicotine, cocaine)
Answer:
nicotine

Question 47.
The deadly effects of __________ addiction are mouth, throat and lung cancer. (tobacco, alcohol, cocaine)
Answer:
tobacco

Question 48.
__________ are types of drugs that have the potential to be addictive. (Narcotics, hookah, dhumti)
Answer:
Narcotics

Question 49.
__________ is chewing tobacco known as a carcinogen and is highly addictive. (Pan, Gutka, Chaini)
Answer:
Gutka

Question 50.
__________ addiction is on the rise among teenagers in India. (Smoking, Snacks, Whitener,)
Answer:
Whitener

Question 51.
__________ products are abused throughout the country. (Cannabis, Form, International)
Answer:
Cannabis

Question 52.
According to the present __________, smoking in public places is banned. (Friendly Smoking law, Anti-Smoking Law, Peer Smoking law)
Answer:
Anti-Smoking Law

Question 53.
The minimum age of buying tobacco products is __________ years of age. (14, 16, 18)
Answer:
18

1B. Correct the incorrect pair and rewrite it.

Question 1.
(a) Unacceptable behaviour by several persons – Social problem
(b) Degenerative process – Ageing
(c) Single, without a child, isolated people face the problem of – Loneliness
(d) Due to mechanical lifestyle – Weaker section
Answer:
(d) Due to mechanical lifestyle – Lack of empathy

Question 2.
(a) Role of government – Educational stagnation
(b) Old age homes – Lack of basic amenities
(c) Weaker sections – Women, LGBT
(d) Exploitation – If dependent on others
Answer:
(a) Role of government – To care of the aged

Question 3.
(a) Unemployment – Jobless people
(b) Seasonal shift – Family
(c) Rural unemployment – 5.3%
(d) Urban unemployment – 7.8%
Answer:
(b) Seasonal shift – Agriculture

Question 4.
(a) Switching jobs – Influx of people migration in urban areas
(b) Changing economy – Face lull and the boom period
(c) Gap in demand and supply – Unemployment crisis
(d) Productive age group – 12-70 years
Answer:
(d) Productive of age group – 15 to 59 years

Question 5.
(a) Unutilised human resources – Adult employment
(b) Educational stagnation – Educated but skill-deficient
(c) Anti-Social activities – School
(d) Underemployment – Person with Ph.D. degree works as a clerk
Answer:
(c) Anti-social activities – Lack of opportunities

Question 6.
(a) Industry-Education symbiosis – Farmers
(b) Impact on mental health – Disappointed with life
(c) Academics need to change – learner-centered
(d) New educational policy – Vocational training
Answer:
(a) Industry-Education symbiosis – Industry-University

Question 7.
(a) Entrepreneurship and self-employment – Start-ups
(b) Depletion of the ozone layer – Flood
(c) Farmers – Agrarian workforce
(d) Exploitation of natural resources – Environmental degradation
Answer:
(b) Depletion of the ozone layer – Greenhouse gases

Question 8.
(a) Impoverished farmers – Indebtedness
(b) Unaware of new technologies and method farming – Ignorance
(c) Landless – Labourers
(d) Indebted – Zamindars
Answer:
(d) Large landholdings – Zamindars

Question 9.
(a) Wreaked havoc in farmers life – Dowry system
(b) Criminal offense – Social evil dowry
(c) Health status – Life and Crop insurance
(d) Vidarbha and Marathwada regions – Farmer’s suicide
Answer:
(c) For distressed farmers and crop failure – Life and Crop insurance

Question 10.
(a) Multi-cropping – Monoculture
(b) Middlemen – Operator between farmer and markets
(c) Water harvesting – Use of water resources
(d) Role of Banks – Set the system as farmer-friendly
Answer:
(a) Multi-cropping – Polyculture

Question 11.
(a) Sensitise the public and create awareness – Role of media
(b) Support women, children – Role of NGOs
(c) Empowering LGBT – Role of law
(d) Enforcing law – Personal empowerment
Answer:
(d) Enforcing law – Role of Police

Question 12.
(a) Dysfunctional relationships – Snide remarks, bickering
(b) Traditional and religious outlook – The supremacy of man over women
(c) Gender binary – Family
(d) Heteronormativity – Heterosexism
Answer:
(c) Gender binary – Female and male

Question 13.
(a) Vulnerability – Lack of power, control, and finance.
(b) Victims of domestic violence – Psychological trauma
(c) Psycho-somatic disorder – Bedwetting, irregular menstrual cycle
(d) Section 377 – Role of NGO
Answer:
(d) Section 377 – Empowering LGBT persons

1C. Identify the appropriate term from the given options in the box and rewrite it against the given statement.

Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan, Internet addiction, Unemployment crises, Narcotic drugs, Verbal spats, and physical assault, Switching job, Environmental deterioration, Peer pressure, Mobile phone, Cannabis, heroin, Gender discrimination, Educational change, Mobile addiction, Chronological age, Domestic violence, Multi cropping, Seva Dhan Foundation, Mumbai, Individual Problem, Inadequate Skills, Higher longevity, Substance addiction, 15-59 years, Startup, Nicotine, NGOs, Internet, NPCP, Domestic violence, Unutilised human resources.

Question 1.
One’s own habit is the root cause of the problem.
Answer:
Individual problem

Question 2.
Collective action is required to solve the problem.
Answer:
Social problem

Question 3.
The size of ageing population is continuously increasing.
Answer:
Higher longevity

Question 4.
The commonest criterion for measuring the process of ageing.
Answer:
Chronological age

Question 5.
In January 1999 a policy was announced for the matter of well-being of older persons.
Answer:
NPCP

Question 6.
Advances in technology have rendered many workers unemployed.
Answer:
Inadequate Skills

Question 7.
It leads to an influx of people in urban areas.
Answer:
Switching job

Question 8.
More job applications and fewer vacancies.
Answer:
Unemployment crises

Question 9.
As per the census of India, the productive age group.
Answer:
15-59 years

Question 10.
The adult population is unemployed.
Answer:
Unutilised human resources

Question 11.
A young company founded by one or more entrepreneurs to develop a unique product and bring it to the market.
Answer:
Startup

Question 12.
Academics need to develop mindsets that are open to change.
Answer:
Educational change

Question 13.
The salient feature of which is to enable institutions of higher education for capacity building in different fields of employment.
Answer:
Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan

Question 14.
Farmers find it difficult to engage in gainful agricultural activity.
Answer:
Environmental deterioration

Question 15.
The practice of growing two or more crops on the same price of land in the same growing season.
Answer:
Multi cropping

Question 16.
It finds in almost all classes, ages, categories, sexes, and genders.
Answer:
Domestic violence

Question 17.
Dysfunctional relationships between different members within the family can lead to.
Answer:
Verbal spats and physical assault

Question 18.
Not acceptable in the 21st century.
Answer:
Domestic violence

Question 19.
They provide legal and professional support to deal with domestic violence cases.
Answer:
NGOs

Question 20.
It’s an outcome of physical and biological dependence on chemical substances.
Answer:
Substance addiction

Question 21.
The addictive element in tobacco impacts the brain.
Answer:
Nicotine

Question 22.
The most frequently abused drugs in India.
Answer:
Cannabis, heroin

Question 23.
It is a means to an entire virtual world and the world of social media.
Answer:
Internet

Question 24.
A constant need to access sites for gaming, adult sites, social media, entertainment and stimulation.
Answer:
Internet addiction

Question 25.
The need to almost constantly be on call.
Answer:
Mobile addiction

Question 26.
One of the reasons for the habit of smoking or doing weed among friends.
Answer:
Peer pressure

Question 27.
De-addiction centres in Maharashtra.
Answer:
Seva Dhan Foundation, Mumbai

Question 28.
Nowadays, it’s a status symbol in society.
Answer:
Mobile phone

1D. Correct underlined words and complete the statement.

Question 1.
Smoking in public places is permissible.
Answer:
Smoking in public places is banned.

Question 2.
The minimum age of buying tobacco products is 14 years of age.
Answer:
The minimum age of buying tobacco products is 18 years of age.

Question 3.
Alcohol is a drink that contains ozone.
Answer:
Alcohol is a drink that contains ethanol.

Question 4.
An addict will try to access the car or vehicle at any cost to which he/she is addicted.
Answer:
An addict will try to access the substance or object at any cost to which he/she is addicted.

Question 5.
Games can also lead to anti-social behaviour and depression.
Answer:
Addiction can also lead to anti-social behaviour and depression.

Question 6.
Tobacco addiction refers to habituated tobacco drinking or swallowing.
Answer:
Tobacco addiction refers to habituated tobacco chewing or smoking.

Question 7.
The deadly effects of mobile addiction are mouth, throat, and lung cancer.
Answer:
The deadly effects of tobacco addiction are mouth, throat, and lung cancer.

Question 8.
Alcohol is a type of drug that has the potential to be addictive.
Answer:
Narcotics are types of drugs that have the potential to be addictive.

Question 9.
Codeine-based tablets continue to be diverted from the domestic market for drug abuse.
Answer:
Codeine-based cough syrups continue to be diverted from the domestic market for drug abuse.

Question 10.
Excessive use of garments diminishes the value of interpersonal relationships.
Answer:
Excessive use of the internet diminishes the value of interpersonal relationships.

Question 11.
Addiction is open Pandora’s box of possibilities.
Answer:
Internet/mobile phones are open Pandora’s box of possibilities.

Question 12.
Domestic violence refers to cooperation within the family.
Answer:
Domestic violence refers to abuse within the family.

Question 13.
In a matriarchal context; there is the unwritten acceptance of male authority.
Answer:
In a patriarchal context; there is the unwritten acceptance of male authority.

Question 14.
Industrialists are a significant percentage of the agrarian workforce.
Answer:
Farmers are a significant percentage of the agrarian workforce.

Question 15.
Farmer’s rebirth is a serious social problem.
Answer:
Farmer’s suicide is a serious social problem.

Question 16.
Animal intervention has led to an increased population.
Answer:
Human intervention has led to an increased population.

Question 17.
The impoverished farmers live a life steeped in money.
Answer:
The impoverished farmers live a life steeped in debt.

Question 18.
The psychological burden at farmers being indebted passes on to the villagers.
Answer:
The psychological burden of farmers being indebted passes on to the next generation.

Question 19.
Bt cotton seeds are cheaper.
Answer:
Bt cotton seeds are more expensive.

Question 20.
The seeds obtained from corn crops cannot be used for the next sowing.
Answer:
The seeds obtained from BT crops cannot be used for the next sowing.

Question 21.
Dowry is a social wealth.
Answer:
Dowry is a social evil.

Question 22.
Employed means “people who are jobless.”
Answer:
Unemployed means “people who are jobless.”

Question 23.
The periodic industrial boom is one of the causes of unemployment.
Answer:
The periodic industrial recession is one of the causes of unemployment.

Question 24.
Typing skills on the age-old manual printer has very limited use in present times.
Answer:
Typing skills on the age-old manual typewriter have very limited use in present times.

Question 25.
Addiction is intrinsic to the organism.
Answer:
Ageing is intrinsic to the organism.

Question 26.
Higher longevity and lower mortality have resulted in a decrease in the ageing population in India.
Answer:
Higher longevity and lower mortality have resulted in an increase in the ageing population in India.

Question 27.
The loss of a spouse or loved one can cause much crowded.
Answer:
The loss of a spouse or loved one can cause much loneliness.

Question 28.
Anxiety and depression are significant among youngsters.
Answer:
Anxiety and depression are significant among the aged.

Question 29.
MGOs have contributed significantly towards helping the problem of the aged in India.
Answer:
NGOs have contributed significantly towards helping the problem of the aged in India.

Question 30.
Social problem is experienced by an individual.
Answer:
Individual problem is experienced by an individual.

Question 31.
The problems are one-way processes.
Answer:
The problems are a two-way process.

2. Write short notes.

Question 1.
Factors responsible for unemployment
Answer:
Unemployment means people who are jobless and actively seeking work and are available to take a job.
There are various factors responsible for employment they are as follows.
Inadequate skills – Advancement in technology has made many workers unemployed as their skill-sets have become redundant today. In short lack adequate skills many people face unemployment.

The frequent shift in jobs – Frequently switching jobs, creates a period of no employment between one job and the next. For example, a farmer may remain unemployed after the harvest season and may have to search for other odd jobs in urban areas.

Changing economy – The world economy has ups and downs that affect the opportunities for employment. For example, the construction and real estate sector is well-known for periods of huge economic activity and lull periods In the lull periods there are greater chances of workers losing their jobs.

Seasonal shift – especially in agricultural fields, banking and shipping industry has an effect on urban unemployment.

The gap in demand and supply – Job aspirants are more but job opportunities are less, which creates unemployment crises. The number of individuals who fit a job is far higher than the openings available.
Above are the factors which are responsible for unemployment.

Question 2.
Effects of unemployment
Answer:
Unemployment means “people who are jobless and actively seeking work and available to take a job.”
The effects of unemployment are as follows:
Unutilised human resources – All individuals are valuable human resources whether they are skilled or unskilled but unutilized human resources become a burden on the working population.

Educational stagnation – Educational stagnation means their training has failed to equip them adequately for the world of work. The government spends crores of rupees on education and yet the educated output is largely skill-deficient or unemployable.

Underemployment – There are many examples of persons who are trained in one field but who work in a totally unrelated area are cases of unemployment. A person with a professional degree or Ph.D. may work as a clerk in absence of suitable employment.

Anti-social activities – Increase in anti-social activities due to lack of opportunities.

Impact on mental health – Those who end up being disappointed with life, studies or trapped in boredom. May become frustrated, develop a negative outlook on life; and even fee-lonely, depressed and suicidal.

Question 3.
Causes of Farmers’ suicide
Answer:
Impact of environmental deterioration – Due to environmental deterioration, farmers face many problems such as crops get completely destroyed and it creates adverse conditions wherein farmers find it difficult to engage in gainful agricultural activity. In India, we have in recent times seen instances of flooding and drought.

Impact of globalization – Dumping of agricultural products in India due to globalization’s free trade policy has adversely affected the pricing of local products.

Indebtedness – Farmers who take loans from government agencies, private individuals or organisations, are often unable to repay loans and their interest if the crops fail for one or more seasons. The impoverished farmers live a life in debt.

The disparity of land holdings – Landless agricultural are the largest section of farmers who depend on others’ land for survival. Hence most farmers in India have small and marginal landholding. Their economic resources are inadequate which compel them to suicide. Most farmers in India have small and marginal landholding. Their economic resources are inadequate.

Dowry system – Farmers take money from institutions or money lenders on the pretext of agricultural needs, but end up utilizing the loans for personal purposes such as giving into dowry demands. This has been seen in the case of suicides in the Vidarbha and Marathwada regions of Maharashtra.

Thus, inability to repay the loans to avoid humiliation and out of depression, a large number of Indian farmers are committing suicide.

Question 4.
Causes of domestic violence
Answer:
Patriarchal system – Patriarchal family is the root cause of domestic violence. There is a huge imbalance of power between men and others in our society. There is the unwritten acceptance of male authority.

Insecurity – Insecurity of one partner, especially of men can lead to feelings of suspicion, the threat to one’s ego, one’s authority, notions of infidelity, etc. which are reasons enough to cause violence and abuse.

Heteronormativity – It refers to the social expectation that human behavior must fit into the gender binary. There are numerous instances of gender discrimination not merely against women, but also transgender persons, and gender non-conforming family members.

Dysfunctional relationships – There are various factors responsible for strains in relationships between different members within the family, which can trigger snide remarks, bickering, labelling, verbal spats, and physical assault.

Question 5.
Measures to tackle addiction problems
Answer:
Creating awareness – The very first measure is to create awareness about various kinds of addiction, via educational programs and camps.

Counselling – It is necessary to recommend people with addiction problems to professionals such as counsellors or psychologists for professional intervention.

De-addiction Clinics – Are professional clinics that work as centres to help addicts through de-addiction which works as a support system for the addicts.

Laws – Legislative provisions for those drug peddlers who upload messages or data which are anti-social, dangerous, life-threatening, and so forth.

Mass media – Mass media is an effective tool to do societal awareness about awareness can be created. Through the World Wide Web.

The above listed are the few measures that we can utilize to tackle the addiction problems.

Question 6.
Social problem
Answer:
A social problem is a condition affecting a significant number of people in ways considered undesirable, able which it is felt that something can be done through collective social action.

Social problems are types of behavior seen as unacceptable by several persons and groups. Such behavior is problematic as it goes against existing social norms or the aspirations of people. People feel the need for collective action to solve the problem.

For example, some of the specific social problems which are widespread in 21st century India are ageing, domestic violence, addiction, gender inequality.

The social problem means a violation of the established norm. It gives rise to stress, strain, tension, and conflicts. The social problem is a universal phenomenon. Although social problems are universal their nature differs from society to society.

3. Write differences.

Question 1.
Mobile/smartphones addiction and Internet addiction
Answer:

Mobile addiction	Internet addiction
(i) Nature: It refers to obsession to mobile phone for various reasons ,and a desire to constantly upgrade one’s mobile phone.	(i) Nature: It refers to a compelling need on the part of an individual to have to continuously access to specific internet sites for personal needs orobsessions.
(ii) Impact: Mobile addiction may cause injuries and deaths due to careless behaviours like speaking on the phone while driving, dangerously posing for selfies, anxiety caused by loss of one’s phone and contacts.	(ii) Impact: Internet addiction increases stress or anxiety in the individual. It affects one’s physical health, interpersonal relationships, personal neglect and access to inaccurate, prejudiced, and exploitative data.
(iii) Nature of problem: Mobile addiction is a problem as it leads to the need to almost constantly be on call, taking selfies or photos, the need to post all images of oneself, forwarding messages etc.	(iii) Nature of problem: Internet addiction is a problem because one constantly needs to access sites for gaming, adult sites, social media, entertainment and stimulation.
(iv) Solution: Self-assessment and social involvement in hobby, sports, games can help overcome mobile addiction.	(iv) Solution: Laws to prevent cyber bullying, counselling, group activity can help overcome the problem of internet addiction.
(v) Effects: Smart phone addiction is often fueled by an overuse of internet.	(v) Effects: Internet addiction results to mobile addiction as it give access to Connectivity, social media networking, gaming, web world etc.

4. Explain the following concepts with examples.

Question 1.
Dowry System
Answer:

• Dowry is any property or valuable security given directly or indirectly to a man by his bride or brides family at the time of her marriage is the exploitation of the women by her in laws. Not only the women (bride) but also her family is held to ransom by demanding dowry.
• The ill-treatment makes the life of the women so miserable that she may take recourse to suicide.
• No consideration is paid to the economic conditions of the bride’s parents who may become bankrupt under the burden of the Dowry Prohibition Act-1961 abolishes practice of dowry.
• Examples: Evil system deeply rooted in people give or take dowry for improving their social prestige.

Question 2.
Substance addiction
Answer:

• Substance Addiction: refers to a physical and biological dependence on chemical substances which leads to unpleasant symptoms when the person stops using the substance.
• Most common addictions involve the use of alcohol, tobacco, other legal and illegal drugs and other mood-altering substances. The use of these may be physically, biologically and psychologically harmful to the user and others. It can also lead to anti-social behaviour and depression.
• The epidemic of substance abuse in the younger generations has assumed alarming dimensions in India. Causes for this are changing values, increasing economic stress and dwindling supportive bonds.
• Example: Abuse of substances such as alcohol, marijuana, cocaine, tobacco, gutka, etc. can cause serious problems with family, friends, the workplace and the law.

Question 3.
Mass Media
Answer:

• Mass media communication is an effective tool to raise societal awareness about addiction.
• The mass media has played a significant role in formulating and influencing public opinion on social issues by disseminating information.
• The world wide web has numerous platforms such as FAQs answered, help lines, help groups etc., through which social awareness can be related.
• Examples: Newspaper, T.V., Radio, Internet

Question 4.
Heteronormativity
Answer:

• Heteronormativity refers to the social expectations of human behaviour; that it must necessarily fit into the ‘gender binary’.
• The ‘gender binary’ is the division of gender into boy/man and girl/woman. Heteronormativity implies that boys/men and girls/women are expected to behave differently, according to the sex as male or female. Thus, their behaviour is understood to fall into two categories:
  • behaviour expected from boys and men
  • behaviour expected from girls and women.
• Those who do not follow these expectations are criticized, made fun of, teased, harassed or even punished. However, today, heteronormativity and its related gender stereotypes are questioned or challenged.
• Example: Examples of heteronormative expectations that are found in society are:
  • boys are strong and courageous
  • Teaching or nursing is a girl’s profession, they can be good caretakers.

Question 5.
Ageing
Answer:
According to Hess ageing is “An inevitable and irreversible biological process of life.”

Ageing is universal, it occurs in all members of the population, unlike disease. Ageing is progressive; it is a continuous process. Ageing is intrinsic to the organism. Ageing is degenerative. In India the size of ageing population is continuously increasing. Higher longevity andl ower mortality have resulted in the increase in the number of ageing population in India.

As one ages, there is a tendency for various parts of the physical body to begin deteriorating. There is a sense of being neglected by others in the family, or even in the neighbourhood leading to loneliness.Many aged are fully or partially dependent for financial support on their families.they may not have access to health care of any kind – for physical or psychological ailments.

Example: The youth, younger adults and care givers may also fail to understand the problems of the aged give rise to the problem of ageing

Question 6.
Start-ups
Answer:

• A Start-up is a young company founded by one or more entrepreneurs to develop a unique product or service and bring it to the market.
• It can get its funding from incubators, they help start-ups get started and running.
• The IT field has given a significant boost to start-ups in India.
• Examples: OLA, Flipkart, Makemy Trip, Shop Clues, Trazoo

Question 7.
Patriarchy
Answer:

• A family wherein the authority rests within the eldest male or in his absence, with the eldest son is called patriarchal family.
• Descent is traced to paternal line. After marriage the woman lives in her husband’s house.
• Property is transferred through the father and only the sons inherit it.
• Patriarchal family is universal.
• Examples: In India majority of families are patriarchal based.

5A. Complete the concept map.

Question 1.

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Question 2.

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Question 3.

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Question 4.

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Question 5.

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Question 6.

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Question 7.

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Question 8.

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Question 9.

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Question 10.

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Question 11.

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Question 12.

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Question 13.

Answer:

Question 14.

Answer:

5B. State whether the following statements are True or False with reasons.

Question 1.
Problems are a two-way process.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• Problems are of two types individual problem and social problem.
• Individual problem are interconnected with social problem.
• Individuals don’t live in isolation but are part of a larger group, e.g., an individual may have a personal of loneliness. This could be rooted in the fact that the people around her/him have’ isolated her/him due to some reason.
• On the other hand, this same individual may feel lonely because of one’s own peculiar personality traits which the larger group disapproves of. e.g., having excess pride due to one’s self-image.
• Hence problems are a two way process.

Question 2.
Ageing is an artificial and reversible process.
Answer:
This statement is False.

• Ageing is an inevitable and irreversible biological process of life.lt is regular changes that occur in mature genetically representative organisms living under representative environmental conditions as they advance in chronological age.
• Ageing is universal, it occurs in all members of the population, unlike disease. It is progressive; and a continuous process.
• Ageing implies changes in the body and mind of a person along with it’s gradual impact on social life and life style.
• Ageing is intrinsic to the organism and degenerative.

Question 3.
The problems of the ageing leads to social, physical and mental health issues.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• Health concerns – Health includes physical, mental and emotional wellness. As one ages, there is a tendency for various parts of the physical body to begin deteriorating Problems can relate to any physiological/biological problem, such as dental, bones, stomach, heart, hearing, vision etc.
• In addition to physical problems, there are mental health issues revolving around feelings of alienation, conflict, dissatisfaction, disappointment, anxiety, loneliness.
• Psychological problems – Loss of a spouse or loved one can cause loneliness. Inability to do things which one was capable of previously can add to the sense of loneliness. Which is a psychological problem, ageing may also lead to Anxiety and depression accompanied by a sense of guilt; a tendency to feel that one is a burden to one’s family, friends and relatives.
• Social concerns – The aged are forced to do all kinds of work and also subjected to cruelty, abuse, mockery, harassment – from within the family as well as from outside. Elderly/Aged persons may become victims of exploitation especially when they become increasingly dependent on others for all kinds of services.
• Thus, the problems of the ageing leads to social, physical and mental health issues.

Question 4.
Changes made in the content of educational courses will help overcome the problem of unemployment.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• If educational programmes are relevant to community needs, local needs, industrial needs, they will help to develop useful human resources for needs in a changing world.
• There is a need to cultivate skills through education especially those which are employment worthy or those which can promote self-employment, and develop entrepreneurial potential of the learners.
• Vocationalisation will provide options for learner to branch into vocational programmes of study and industry.
• Education symbiosis is encouraged in several institutions in areas of science, engineering, pharmacy, medicine, technology, media studies, fashion designing and management it provides employment opportunities.

Question 5.
Training of many individuals has failed to equip them adequately for the world of work.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• There are many individuals who receive formal training and who continue to remain unemployed. Perhaps their training has failed to equip them adequately for the world of work.
• It is true that many educational are out of touch with the needs of the outside world. Much of what is learnt is knowledge-centric. While the role of knowledge is invaluable, there is a desperate need to also cultivate skills, especially those which can promote self-employment, and develop entrepreneurial potential of the learners.
• The government spends crores of rupees on education and yet the educated output is largely skill-deficient or unemployable.

Question 6.
Lack of employment opportunities may drive people to engage in social activities and a negative impact on national development.
Answer:
This statement is False.

• Lack of employment opportunities may drive people to engage in anti-social activities.
• Several children every year drop out from school system and find themselves engaged in anti-social activities. They do this to make quick and easy money.
• An adult population which is unemployed are unable to add value to the economy but become dependent on others for satisfaction of their needs. They become a burden on the working population.
• Youth and young adults make up the future of our society. Unemployment among them can have a negative effect on national development.

Question 7.
In 21st century a mobile phone is a status symbol.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• It is a fact that sale of mobile phones are even increasing.
• The market is flooded with all kinds of advance mobile phones.
• Advertisements have trapping/encouraging the masses to purchase more sophisticated models, with large memories, battery life, camera and many more.
• Above all proves that now mobile phones is not just a communication gadget but status quo.

Question 8.
Internet and mobile addiction is not a serious problem.
Answer:
This statement is False.

• The impact of mobile addiction is similar to the consequences of internet addiction, both have adverse impact on individuals overusing it.
• A teenager or young adult may spend hours on gaming; an older adult could be obsessed with sex sites.
• Internet addiction becomes a problem when it increases stress or anxiety in the individual affects one’s physical health, diminishes the value of interpersonal relationships, leads to personal neglect, leads individuals to data that is inaccurate, prejudiced, titillating, unreliable and exploitative.
• Similarly, mobile addiction is a problem again, like in the case of internet addiction, it leads to a certain type of behaviour. It may create a need to almost constantly be on call, to almost continuously take selfies or photos of any and everything, an urge to post all images of oneself immediately on social media, the need to keep forwarding messages mindlessly to numerous people and so on.
• Mobile phones and internet can be used for destructive, negative and vested purposes.
• There are many accounts of injuries and deaths due to careless behaviours like speaking on the phone while driving, dangerously posing for selfies, being overemotional in a public space; checking one’s messages during sleep. The consequences take a toll on mental and physical well-being.
• Hence, we can conclude mobile and internet have created serious problems.

6. Give your personal response.

Question 1.
Do you think de-addiction centres play a vital role in the life of addicts. Explain it.
Answer:

• Yes, de-addiction centres play a vital rule in the life of addicts.
• De-addiction centres treats the addicts carefully and monitoring their health. As per the requirement of addicts they give them moderate dosages of drugs for to recovery and to face withdrawal syndrome.
• De-addiction centres make a support system for it to help addicts.

Question 2.
A farmer named Lahanu Tatya Khabale and his joint family have been living in Vidharbha region, Marathwada, Maharashtra for almost five generations. But last year all of a sudden, his grandfather committed suicide. Give possible reasons behind his suicide.
Answer:
As per the latest study of Vidharbha regions many farmers suicide focuses majorly on:

• Crop failure, due to this, many farmers in Vidharbha region are switching to use BT cotton seeds.
• BT cotton seeds provide higher yield but are expensive and require good irrigational facilities, which are not available in
• Lahanu Khabale’s land and on top of that irregular monsoons leads to crop failure.
• Besides this, BT seeds obtained from BT crops cannot be used for the next sowing.
• Due to that Lahanu Khabale was deeply rooted in debt.
• He was also in further debt to private money lenders because he had borrowed money for his daughters dowry.
• Above mentioned economic burdens and social stigma provoked Lahanu Khabale’s grandfather to commit suicide.

Question 3.
Youngsters nowadays pick up various forms of addictions even though they were not exposed to these addictions in their family. Explain how this happens.
Answer:

• Today’s youth have access to a vast array of knowledge i.e., internet.
• Many youngsters get exposed to different forms of addiction on the internet.
• Due to a lack of reliable information they become vulnerable to various forms of addiction i.e., drugs.
• Mostly youngsters aren’t introduced to these addictions through their families, but rather through they’re peers with whom they are closer due to the internet.
• It is mostly these peers who provoke them towards addiction.
• Peer pressure and social acceptance are the main driving forces behind addiction in the youth of today.

7. Answer the following question in detail. (About 150-200 words)

Question 1.
Discuss why domestic violence occur suggest remedial measures to prevent domestic violence.
Answer:
Domestic violence happen across all classes, age, categories, sexes and gender. Domestic violence means abuse within the family. Violence means abuse within the family. Violence implies psychological, emotional, verbal and physical torture.

Domestic violence occur because of various reasons such as

• Patriarchy which demands unwritten acceptance of male authority.
• Insecurity of one partner, can lead to feelings of suspicion causing domestic violence.
• Dysfunctional relationships : strains a relationship .
• Traditional and religious outlook.

Following are some of the measures to prevent domestic violence:

• Creating awareness: It is necessary to create awareness that domestic violence is not acceptable in 21st century society.
• Personal empowerment: Especially weaker section like women, child, transgender who are most vulnerable for abuse. It is necessary for them to empower themselves through Self-Help Groups (SHGs), NGOs, age-mates, social workers and so on.
• Role of media: Various types of media can help for creating awareness and can help to dispel ignorance about domestic violence.
• Role of NGOs: Non-governmental organisations play a vital role for dealing with domestic violence cases. NGOs are backed up with police department, legal professionals all together they can help victims to get justice.
• Role of law: Only laws cannot make changes in the society but legal and constitutional provisions make remarkable changes for empowering individuals.
• Role of police: It is very important that police staff become sensitive and serious about the cases of domestic violence. Today there are women police staff specially assigned to handle issues regarding violence towards women.

Question 2.
“Social problem is universal”, discuss this statement with regards to factors responsible for ‘unemployment’.
Answer:
Social problem is when a society traditional or modern, faces some problems. When people feel the need for collective action to solve the problem, that problem is refer as social problem.
Now we will discuss about unemployment a social problem and factors affecting to it:

• Lack of skills or inadequate skills: Due to technology advancement in industry the workers are lacking with required skills. So, such people face unemployment.
• Switching of jobs: When individual switch the job that time, there is a period of no employment between one job and the next e.g., a farmer who is able to work during the monsoons, may remain unemployed after the harvest season.
• Changing economy: The world economy has its up and downs e.g., real estate sector. Due to global economy industry face lull period and boom period and during lull period there are chances of workers to losing their jobs.
• Seasonal shift: Like the season cycle, in certain sectors employment are facing seasonal period. This is seen in agriculture, banking sectors and shipping industry.
• Gap in demand and supply: India is facing unemployment crisis means number of job vacancies are very less as compare to number of applicants.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Economics Important Questions Chapter 8 Public Finance in India Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Economics Important Questions Chapter 8 Public Finance in India

1. A. Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
Optional functions of Government.
(a) Protection from external attack.
(b) Provision of education and health services.
(c) Provision of social security measures.
(d) Collection of tax.
Options :
(1) b and c
(2) a, b and c
(3) b,c and d
(4) All of the above
Answer:
(1) b and c

Question 2.
Public finance is……………..
(a) one of the old branches of economics, which highlights the role of government
(b) a study of the principles of income and expenditure of the government
(c) also a part of the study of political science
(d) less elastic in supply
Options :
(1) a and b
(2) a, b and c
(3) a and d
(4) b, c and d
Answer:
(2) a, b and c

Question 3.
Non tax revenue includes
(a) Prices of public goods and services
(b) Gifts, Grants and Donations
(c) Goods and Service Tax (GST)
(d) Fines and penalties
Options :
(1) a, b and d
(2) a, b and c
(3) b and d
(4) a and c
Answer:
(1) a, b and d

Question 4.
The examples of revenue expenditure …………..
(a) administration cost of the government
(b) huge investments in different developmental projects
(c) salaries, allowances and pensions of government employees
(d) medical and public health services
Options :
(1) a, b and c
(2) a and b
(3) c and d
(4) a, c and d
Answer:
(4) a, c and d

Question 5.
Reasons for growth in public expenditure.
(a) increase in the activities of the government
(b) rapid increase in population
(c) spread of democracy
(d) industrial development
Options :
(1) a, b and c
(2) b, c and d
(3) a, c and d
(4) a, b, c and d
Answer:
(4) a, b, c and d

(B) Complete the Correlation .

(1) Direct Tax : Wealth Tax :: …………….. : Excise Duty
(2) High degree of credit: Public finance:: Limited Credit: ……………..
(3) Expenditure on education : Developmental expenditure :: War expenditure :……………..
(4) Internal debt : Government borrows from its citizens :: …………….. : Government borrows from World Bank
(5) Surplus budget : Government Receipts Government Expenditure:: ……………..: Government Receipts Government Expenditure
(6) Optional function : Provision of social security :: ……………..: Protection from external attacks
(7) Progressive Tax : Tax rate increases with . increase in income :: ………………. : Tax rate decreases with rise in income :
(8) Old age pension : Revenue expenditure :: Investment in machines : ……………….
Answers:

1. indirect tax
2. Private finance
3. Non-developmental expenditure
4. External debt
5. Deficit budget
6. Obligatory function
7. Regressive Tax
8. Capital expenditure

(C) Give economic terms.

(1) The expenditure which is incurred by the public authority for promoting social and economic welfare.
Answer:
Public Expenditure

(2) A financial statement showing the expected receipts and proposed expenditure of the government in a financial year.
Answer:
Budget

(3) A compulsory contribution to the government by a person without receiving any direct or proportionate benefit in return.
Answer:
Tax

(4) Borrowings of the government from financial institutions within the country.
Answer:
Internal Debt

(5) The financial policy implemented by the government which deals with public expenditure, public revenue and public debt.
Answer:
Fiscal Policy

(6) The type of budget where estimated revenue and expenditure of the government are equal.
Answer:
Balanced Budget

(7) The aggregate collection of income with the government through various sources.
Answer:
Public revenue

(8) It is paid by the tax payer on his income and property.
Answer:
Direct Tax

(9) It is a category of tax which is levied at the same and constant rate on all income.
Answer:
Proportionate tax

(10) Revenue received by the government administration, other than taxes.
Answer:
Non Tax Revenue

(D) Find the odd word out.

(1) Fees, Fines and penalties, Excise duty, Special levy.
Answer:
Excise duty

(2) Revenue expenditure, Capital expenditure, Labour expenditure, Developmental expenditure
Answer:
Labour expenditure

(3) Public expenditure, Public park, Public revenue, Public debt.
Answer:
Public park

(4) Service tax, Entry tax, Entertainment tax, Wealth tax
Answer:
Wealth tax

(5) R.B.I, Foreign Banks, IMF, World Bank
Answer:
R.B.I.

(6) Deficit budget, Zero budget, Balanced budget, Surplus budget
Answer:
Zero budget

(7) Inflation, Depression, Rising prices, Reduce purchasing power
Answer:
Depression

(8) Earthquakes, Floods, Cyclones, Social unrest
Answer:
Social unrest

(9) Public health, Social welfare, Spread of education, Donations
Answer:
Donations

(10) Defence, Infrastructure, Registration fees, Health care
Answer:
Registration fees

(E) Complete the sentences .

Question 1.
Obligatory function of the government includes …………..
(a) provision of education and health services ?
(b) maintaining internal law and order
(c) provision of social security
(d) construction of public park and garden
Answer:
(b) maintaining internal law and order

Question 2.
There is a continuous growth in public expenditure
(a) only because of growing population
(b) only because of increase in defence expenditure
(c) only due to inflation
(d) due to all the above mentioned factors
Answer:
(d) due to all the above mentioned factors

Question 3.
Capital expenditure of the government is ……………
(a) pensions of government employees
(b) administration cost of the government
(c) investment in different developmental projects
(d) war expenditure
Answer:
(c) investment in different developmental projects

Question 4.
The expenditure which results in generation of employment is
(a) development expenditure
(b) non-development expenditure
(c) revenue expenditure
(d) capital expenditure
Answer:
(a) development expenditure

Question 5.
Tax is paid by a tax payer because .
(a) he gets good benefits of it
(b) it is owner’s pride and neighbour’s envy
(c) it is a compulsory contribution to the government
(d) he gets good publicity
Answer:
(c) it is a compulsory contribution to the government

Question 6.
Direct tax is paid by the tax-payer .
(a) on sale and purchase of a commodity
(b) on his income and property
(c) which is levied on goods and services
(d) and shifted to other person
Answer:
(b) on his income and property

Question 7.
In case of regressive tax, the larger the income of a tax-payer.
(a) smaller is the proportion of tax levied
(b) tax is levied at the constant rate
(c) greater is the proportion of tax levied
(d) zero tax is levied
Answer:
(a) smaller is the proportion of tax levied

Question 8.
Special assessment, fines and penalties are examples of
(a) direct tax
(b) indirect tax
(c) non-tax revenue
(d) tax revenue
Answer:
(c) non-tax revenue

Question 9.
External debt of the government means
(a) loans from IMF, World bank, etc.
(b) borrowings from the citizens of a country
(c) borrowings from financial institutions in a country
(d) borrowings from Reserve Bank of India
Answer:
(a) loans from IMF, World bank, etc.

Question 10.
The capital budget consists of
(a) capital receipts and revenue receipts
(b) tax revenue and non-tax revenue
(c) revenue receipts and revenue expenditure
(d) capital receipts and capital payments
Answer:
(d) capital receipts and capital payments

(F) Choose the wrong pair :

I.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. Direct Tax	(a) Wealth tax
2. Hugh Dalton	(b) Definition of public finance
3. GST	(c) Non-tax revenue
4. External Debt	(d) Foreign Government

Answer:
(3) – c

II.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. Revenue expenditure	(a) Administration cost of Government
2. Capital expenditure	(b) Repayment of Government loan
3. Development expenditure	(c) Expenditure on education
4. Non- developmental expenditure	(d) Expenditure on social welfare

Answer:
(4) – d

III.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. Balanced budget	(a) Advocated by Adam Smith
2. Public revenue	(b) expenditure of the government
3. A deficit budget	(c) useful in depression period
4. Surplus budget	(d) Receipts  > Expenditure

Answer:
(2) – b

(F) Choose the right group of pairs :

I.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. Budget	(a) Simplifying tax system
2. Financial administration	(b) Use of foreign currency
3. External debt	(c) Annual financial statement
4. GST	(d) Implementation of revenue

Options :
(a) (1) – d, (2) – c, (3) – b, (4) – a
(b) (1) – c, (2) – d, (3) – a, (4) – b
(c) (1) – d, (2) – c, (3) – a, (4) – b
(d) (1) – d, (2) – b, (3) – c, (4)-a
Answer:
(c) (1) – d, (2) – c, (3) – a, (4) – b

II.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. Fines and Penalties	(a) Use of domestic currency
2. Tax	(b) Violation of the law
3. internal debt	(c) French word
4. Bougette	(d) Major source of government revenue

Options : (a) (1) – c, (2) – b, (3) – d, (4) – a
(b) (1) – b, (2) – d, (3) – a, (4) – c
(c) (1) – b, (2) – c, (3) – d, (4) – a
(d) (1) – d, (2) – c, (3) – a, (4) – b
Answer:
(b) (1) – b, (2) – d, (3) – a, (4) – c

III.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(1) Budget	(a) Simplifying tax system
(2) Financial administration	(b) Use of foreign currency
(3) External debt	(c) Annual financial statement
(4) GST	(d) Implementation of revenue

Options :
(a) (1) – c, (2) – d, (3) – b, (4) – a
(b) (1) – c, (2) – b, (3) – a, (4) – d
(c) (1) – b, (2) – c, (3) – d, (4) – a
(d) (1) – d, (2) – c, (3) – b, (4)-a
Answer:
(a) (1) – c, (2) – d, (3) – b, (4) – a

2.[A] Identify and explain the concept from given illustrations.

Question 1.
internal law and order to avoid social unrest.
Answer:
Concept: Obligatory Function.
Explanation : Obligatory functions are those functions which must be performed by government for socio-economic welfare and to avoid social unrest and to establish social justice in a country.

Question 2.
Sanjay paid charges to traffic police for jumping signal.
Answer:
Concept: Fine and penalty
Explanation : The government imposes fines and penalties on those who violate the laws of a country.
Traffic police charges fine and collects money for violating traffic rule.
The objective of taking fine is to discourage the citizens from violating the laws framed by government.

Question 3.
Government of India takes loan from World Bank for Mumbai Metro Train.
Answer:
Concept: External Debt
Explanation : When the government borrows from foreign government or international organisations like IMF, World Bank, etc., it is known as external debt.
Government needs to raise loan for investing in developmental project of a country.
Mumbai Metro Train is a project which require huge investment.
So, Government of India takes loan from World Bank.

Question 4.
Prachi can spend only ₹ 80,000/- though her income is one lakh per month.
Answer:
Concept: Disposable Income
Explanation : Disposable income refers to income which remains with a person after deducting income tax from total personal income.
So, Disposable Income = Total Personal Income – Direct Taxes (income tax)
It indicates actual spending capacity of a person.
Every person is legally bound to pay income tax because it is compulsory to the government.

Question 5.
Government of India borrowed from nationalized bank for construction of bridge.
Answer:
Concept: Internal debt
Explanation : When the government borrows from its citizens or nationalized banks, it is called internal debt.
It means borrowing within a country, for development of infrastructure facilities in a country.
Provision of infrastructure like roads, bridge energy supply, etc., require huge investment.
So, government borrows money in form of internal debt from RBI, nationalized banks or citizens of a country.

Question 6.
Jyoti purchased furniture from mall and paid tax on it.
Answer:
Concept: GST (Goods and Service Tax)
Explanation : GST is a comprehensive tax base with nationwide coverage of goods and services.
It came into effect in India from 1st July, 2017.
It is a tax on goods and services. GST simplified the tax system in a country.

(B) Distinguish between

Question 1.
Deficit Budget and Balanced Budget.
Answer:
Deficit Budget:

1. When the government revenue is less than government expenditure, it is called a Deficit Budget.
2. Deficit Budget would lead to increase in aggregate demand.
3. Deficit Budget leads to flow of money from the government to the economy.
4. It is suitable for government when the economy suffers from depression.
5. The policy of deficit budget would lead to increase in employment, investment, etc.

Balanced Budget:

1. When the government revenue is equal to government expenditure, it is called a Balanced Budget.
2. Balanced Budget would not affect the aggregate demand in the economy.
3. The flow revenue of the government is equal to meet the expenditure of the government.
4. It is not possible to introduce a balanced budget under present circumstances.
5. The balanced budget policy is called “Sound Finance” where the government performs only minimum functions.

Question 2.
Government Revenue (income) and Government Expenditure.
Answer:
Government Revenue (income):

1. Government income refers to the revenue of the government from different sources including tax revenue, non-tax revenue, administrative revenue etc.
2. E.g. Tax revenue including Direct and Indirect Tax.
3. Non-tax revenue include profit from government enterprise administrative revenue like fees, fines, penalties.
4. Generally government income results in transfer of purchasing power from people to government.
5. Surplus income with government indicates sound financial background.

Government Expenditure:

1. Government expenditure refers to the expenditure by government to perform various functions and duties.
2. E.g. Revenue expenditure on health, education, defence and administration.
3. Capital expenditure on roads, railways, dams, machinery and public enterprise.
4. Government expenditure leads to transfer of purchasing power from government to people.
5. Massive expenditure indicates more welfare to people.

Question 3.
Revenue Budget and Capital Budget.
Answer:
Revenue Budget:

1. Revenue Budget consists of
   (1) Revenue Receipts
   (2) Revenue Expenditure
2. It explains how revenue is generated by government and how it is allocated among various expenditure heads.
3. Revenue receipts consists of
   (1) Tax Revenue
   (2) Non-Tax Revenue
4. Revenue expenditure includes developmental and non – developmental expenditure of Central Government.
5. Revenue Receipts do not create any liability of the government.
6. Revenue expenditure does not lead to the creation of assets.

Capital Budget:

1. Capital Budget consists of
   (1) Capital Receipts
   (2) Capital Expenditure
2. It deals with the capital aspect.
3. Capital receipts consists of
   (1) Borrowing
   (2) Recovery of loans
   (3) Disinvestment, small savings
4. Capital expenditure includes expenditure on land and building machinery, investment in shares, loans granted by Central Government to State.
5. Capital receipt create a liability of the government.
6. Capital expenditure leads to the creation of assets.

Question 4.
Surplus Budget and Balanced Budget.
Answer:
Surplus Budget:

1. A Surplus Budget is that type of budget in which the estimated revenue is greater than the estimated expenditure.
2. Government raises tax revenue which is more than what is required for meeting the expenditure.
3. Surplus budget would lead to reduction in aggregate demand.
4. It is suitable for families and not favoured for government.
5. The policy of Surplus Budget would lead to unemployment and recession in the economy. ‘

Balanced Budget:

1. Balanced Budget is a type of budget in which the estimated revenue of the government is equal to estimated expenditure of the government.
2. Government raises revenue to such an extent which is just sufficient to meet the expenditure.
3. Balanced budget would not affect the aggregate demand in the economy.
4. It is not possible to introduce a balanced budget under present circumstances.
5. The balanced budget policy is called ‘Sound Finance’ where the government performs only minimum function.

Question 5.
Deficit Budget and Surplus Budget.
Answer:
Deficit Budget:

1. A deficit budget is one in which estimated expenditure exceeds estimated revenue.
2. It leads to flow of money from government to the economy and increases aggregate demand.
3. It is suitable for governments especially when the economy suffers from depression.
4. The policy of deficit budget would lead to employment and revival of economic activities.
5. Deficit budget is not desirable during inflation.

Surplus Budget:

1. A surplus budget is a budget in which estimated revenue are greater than estimated expenditures.
2. It leads to flow of money from economy to government and lead to decrease in aggregate demand.
3. It is suitable for individuals and families but not favoured for government.
4. The policy of surplus budget would lead to unemployment and recession due to low investment.
5. Surplus budget is advocated during inflation to reduce demand and prices by imposing high taxes.

Question 6.
Revenue Expenditure (Budget) and Capital Expenditure (Budget).
Answer:
Revenue Expenditure (Budget):

1. Revenue expenditure of the government refers to expenses incurred on day-to-day functioning of the government.
2. It is recurring in nature as it is incurred regularly.
3. E.g. administration cost, salary, allowances, pensions of the government employees, etc.
4. It does not create any asset to government.

Capital Expenditure (Budget):

1. Capital expense of the government refers to expenses incurred for the development of a country.
2. It is not recurring in nature as it does not incur regularly.
3. E.g. investment in different developmental projects, loans granted to state government, repayment of loan, etc.
4. It makes addition to the assets of the economy.

Question 7.
Obligatory functions of Government and Optional functions of Government.
Answer:
Obligatory functions of Government

1. Obligatory functions are those functions which must be performed by government, by making adequate provision of resources.
2. Obligatory functions are given first priority, as they are compulsory functions.
3. Obligatory functions are mainly performed by public authority for the protection of their citizen.

Optional functions of Government:

1. Optional functions of government are those functions which may be undertaken by government if funds permit.
2. Optional functions are given second priority, as they are called discretionary functions.
3. Optional functions are performed by central, state and local government for promoting economic activities and social welfare.

Question 8.
Tax revenue and Non-tax revenue.
Answer:
Tax revenue:

1. Tax revenue refers to revenue received by the government through various taxes.
2. Tax revenue comes from direct tax, i,e. income tax, wealth tax and indirect tax, i.e,, G.S.T.
3. Tax is a major source of revenue to the government.
4. Tax revenue particularly direct tax is collected to reduce economic inequality.

Non-tax revenue:

1. Non-tax revenue refers to revenue received by the government from various sources, other than taxes.
2. Non-tax revenue comes from fines and penalties, fees, gifts, grants, donations, borrowings, special levy, etc.
3. Non- tax revenue is not a major source of revenue to the government.
4. Non-tax revenue, particularly special levy, fines and penalties, etc. are collected to discourage the citizens from violating the law.

3. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Explain non-tax sources of revenue of the government.
Answer:
Non-tax revenue refers to the revenue received by the government from various , sources other than taxes.
The sources of non-tax revenue are as follows:

1. Fees : It refers to charges paid, in return for certain specific services rendered by the government. E.g. fees paid for registration of house, car, education fees, etc.

2. Prices of Public Goods and Services : Various types of goods and services are produced, supplied and sold by modern government to the citizens. It; is added to public revenue when people s purchase them and pay their prices.

3. Special Assessment : It is special kind of tax, which is levied by local government on the residents of a particular area. In exchange of it, government provides some special facilities to them.

4. Fines and Penalties : It is imposed by government on those who violate the laws of the country.

E.g. a traffic police charges fine and collects money if someone violates traffic rule. The objective behind collection of fines and penalties is not to earn money but to discourage the people from violating the laws framed by the government It is small source of income.

5. Gifts, Grants and Donations : The government receives gifts from its citizens and others. It is included in public revenue. The government may also get grants from foreign government and institutions for general and specific purposes.
Foreign aid is also an important form of public revenue for developing country like India. However, this source of revenue is uncertain in nature.

6. Special Levies : It refers to the charges levied by government on those commodities, whose consumption is harmful to human health.
Special levies are paid for using commodities like wine, opium and other intoxicants. Special levy is imposed, not to earn income, but to discourage the people from using harmful products.

7. Borrowings: Government borrows to raise fund because government expenditure generally exceeds government revenue, in a welfare state.
When government borrows from foreign government or international organisations, it is known as external debt. It is more popular source of public revenue for investment in development of projects. Thus, public revenue in form of non-tax sources play very important role in socio economic development of a country.

Question 2.
Explain the classification of public expenditure.
OR
Explain the budget expenditure of the government.
Answer:
Public expenditure is an important aspect which is incurred by the public authority (central, state and local government). Public expenditure is required for the protection of the citizens of a country, for satisfying social needs or collective needs and for promoting social and economic welfare of the people in a country.

Classification of public expenditure is as under:
(1) Revenue expenditure : It is the expenditure of the government to carry out day-to-day functions. It is recurring in nature. It does not create any assets to government It consists of administrative expenditure, interest payment, pensions and salaries to government employees, etc.

(2) Capital expenditure : It refers to the expenditure of the government for the development of a country.
It consists of huge investment in different developmental projects, repayment of government loans, investment on land, building, machines, etc.
It is non-recurring in nature

(3) Developmental expenditure : The expenditure which results in generation of employment and price stability, it is known as developmental expenditure.

It consists of expenditure on education, social welfare, industrial development, etc. It leads to an increase in production. It is s productive in nature.

(4) Non-developmental expenditure : It is that government expenditure which does not yield any direct productive impact on the economy. It is mainly in form of expenses on administration costs, war expenses, etc. It is unproductive in nature. It is observed that, since last 30 years, there is a tremendous growth in the total public expenditure of a country because modern government performs many functions for the social and economic development of a country.

Question 3.
Explain the structure of Tax-revenue of the government.
Answer:

Tax is a major source of revenue to the Government
According to Prof. Taussig, “The essence of a tax as distinguished from other charges by government is the absence of a direct ‘quid pro quo’ (benefit) between the tax payer and the public authority. ”
Prof. Seligman states that, “a tax is a compulsory contribution from a person to the government, without reference to special benefits confessed. ”
Thus, every citizen of a country is legally bound to pay tax.
Tax is imposed on income, property or commodities and services.

Types of Taxes :

(1) Direct Tax : It is paid by the tax payer on his income and property. A tax-payer cannot transfer the burden of direct tax to others.
Impact and incidence of direct tax falls on the same person. E.g. Income tax, wealth tax, etc.
Direct taxes are further classified into three categories.
(i) Proportionate tax (ii) Progressive tax (iii) Regressive tax

(2) Indirect Tax : It is levied on goods and services. It is paid at the time of production or sale and purchase of a commodity or a service.
The burden of indirect tax can be shifted by the tax-payer (producers) to other persons. Hence, impact and incidence of tax are on others. E.g. GST.
Thus, major share of public revenue is the contribution by tax revenue in India.

Question 4.
Explain GST (Goods and Service Tax) in detail.
Answer:
The GST (Goods and Service Tax) came into effect in India on 1st July, 2017.
It was proposed by the Kelkar Task Force on Implementation of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act in July, 2004.
GST is an indirect tax used in India on the supply of goods and services.
GST is comprehensive because it has replaced almost all indirect taxes like excise duty, entertainment tax, entry tax, etc.

GST is classified as follows :

• Central Goods and Service Tax (CGST) : It is a tax levied on interstate supplies of both goods and services by the central government which will be governed l by CGST Act.
• State Goods and Service Tax (SGST): It is received by the state in which the goods and services are consumed and not by the state where they are manufactured.
• Integrated Goods and Service Tax (IGST) : It is a tax levied on all interstate supplies of goods and services which will be governed by the IGST Act.

Benefits of GST :

• Comprehensive tax base with nation wide coverage of goods and services.
• Boost to foreign investments and export.
• Encouragement to manufacturing ‘Make in India’ campaign.
• Improvement in investment atmosphere in a country.
• Tax system in a country simplified.
• Generating more employment and poverty eradication.

Question 5.
Explain the term public debt with its types.
Answer:
Public debt policy of the government plays an important role in public finance.
Public debt refers to borrowings of the government Raising debt loan is the most common activity of a government because in a welfare state, government expenditure generally exceeds government revenue.

Public debt is classified into two types : –
(1) Internal debt : It refers to borrowings of  the government to raise fund within the economy. In case of internal debt, domestic currency is used. It is less complex to manage internal debt. E.g. borrowings from RBI, nationalized banks and business organisations within a country.

(2) External debt : It refers to borrowings of the government to raise fund outside the economy. In case of external debt, foreign currency is used. It is more complex to manage external debt. E.g. borrowings from foreign government and international organisation like IMF, World Bank, etc. Government requires fund for investing in production as well as for making provision of infrastructure facilities.

Thus, public debt is more popular source of revenue for the government in the modern times.

Question 6.
Explain the developmental and non-developmental expenditures of the government.
Answer:
Developmental expenditure : The expenditure which results in generation of employment and price stability, it is known as developmental expenditure.

It consists of expenditure on education, social welfare, industrial development, etc. It leads to an increase in production. It is s productive in nature.

Non-developmental expenditure : It is that government expenditure which does not yield any direct productive impact on the economy. It is mainly in form of expenses on administration costs, war expenses, etc. It is unproductive in nature. It is observed that, since last 30 years, there is a tremendous growth in the total public expenditure of a country because modern government performs many functions for the social and economic development of a country.

Question 7.
Explain the importance of budget.
Answer:
Importance of Budget:
Budget is important in number of ways.

• Tax rates presented in the budget indicates disposable income of the tax payer. It also determines the development of business and individuals.
• Government expenditure is also a part of budget. This public expenditure on defence, administration, infrastructure, education, health care, etc. affects the lives of the citizens and overall economy.
• Government uses budget as a medium for implementing economy policies in the country.
• Budgetary actions of the government affect production size and distribution of income, utilization of human and material resources of the country.
  Thus, implementing suitable budgetary policy is very important for overall development of the economy.

4. State with reasons whether you agree or disagree with the following statements:

Question 1.
Tax is a major source of government revenue.
Ans. Yes, I agree with this statement.
One of the important and major source of public revenue is the tax revenue. A tax is a compulsory payment made by the citizens of the country to the government without any direct quid pro-quo. It implies that a tax has to be paid by all people and it does not involve any corresponding obligation on the part of the government i.e., government need not repay anything. Taxes are of two types (1) Direct Tax (2) Indirect Tax.

Question 2.
In Surplus budget, government revenue is greater than government expense.
Ans. Yes, I agree with this statement.
Surplus budget implies that government’s expected revenue is greater than government’s proposed expenditure.
When there is too much inflation, the government can adopt the policy of surplus budget.
In order to curb inflation, government increases revenue by levying taxes on people.
This reduces the disposable income of people and also consumption.
Since governments spending will be less than its income, aggregate demand will decrease and which will help to reduce the price and control inflation.

Question 3.
For the period of depression, deficit budget is prepared.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.
Deficit budget is one where the estimated government expenditure is more than the l expected revenue.
Normally developing countries have deficit budget.
During depression, it is used as a stabilizing tool to control economic fluctuation.
Recession occurs mainly due to lack of effective demand.
So increase in government expenditure tends to increase the income of people.
As a result, the aggregate demand increases, which will help in reducing unemployment and expanding the economic activities in the economy.
Therefore, for the period of depression deficit budget is prepared. s

Question 4.
The surplus budget creates inflationary pressure in the economy.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with this statement.
The deficit budget creates inflationary pressure in the economy.
Deficit Budget is one where the estimated government expenditure is more than expected revenue.
In order to meet the deficit, the government generally resorts to (a) borrowings from Central Bank (b) borrowings from
Commercial Banks (c) issue of new currency of the government.
This leads to increased supply of money.
As the government spend this money, there is excess supply of money without corresponding increase in the production of goods and services in short period.
As a result the prices of goods and services begin to rise.
Thus, the deficit budget creates inflationary pressure in the economy.

Question 5.
Revenue receipts and revenue expenses are known as revenue budget.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.
Revenue Budget explains how revenue is generated by the government and how it is allocated among various expenditure heads. Revenue receipts of government refers to income, which is received by government from all sources i.e., tax and non-tax revenue. These receipts do not create a liability. Revenue expenditure is the expenditure incurred for the normal running of government departments and various services.
They neither create any asset nor cause reduction in any liability of the government. E.g. expenditure on defence, police, medical public health, education, transport, etc.

Question 6.
Public finance and Private finance are same.
No, I do not agree with this statement.
There is a difference between public finance and private finance.
Public Finance : Public finance refers to income an expenditure of public authorities. The objective of public finance is to offer maximum social advantage. More credit is available in the market to increase public finance. The supply of public finance is more elastic. In case of public finance, government first determines the volume and different ways of it’s expenditure.

Private Finance : Private finance refers to income and expenditure of individual and private sector organisations. The objective of private finance is to fulfil private interest. Credit availability is limited to increase private finance. The supply of private finance is less elastic. In case of private finance, an individual considers income first and then determines the volume of expenditure.

Question 7.
There is a continuous growth in public expense in India.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.
In a developing country like India, public expense is continuously increasing.
The modern government has to perform many obligatory as well as optional functions for the social and economy development of a country.

These functions include spread of education, public health, public works, infrastructure facilities, public recreation, social welfare schemes, protection of a country, industrial development, etc.
Old functions are being performed more efficiently and new functions are added i continuously.
In addition to this, many natural and man made calamities occur frequently. So, government has to spend a huge amount for ; disaster management.
So, there is a continuous growth in the public expense in India.

Question 8.
During the period of inflation, surplus budget is advisable.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.
During inflationary period, price of commodities rises rapidly.
This rise in price can be controlled by lowering the level of effective demand in the economy.
This can be done by increasing taxes which will automatically reduce the purchasing power of the people, which will result in fall of aggregate demand.
The fall in aggregate demand will lead producers and sellers to reduce the price of l their products to increase their sale.
Thus, inflationary pressure is controlled by adopting surplus budget.

5. Study the following table figures passages and answer the following :

1.

Trends in Public Expense
Sr. No.	Year	Total Expense (Rs. in crores)
1	1991-92	72,317
2	2001-02	3,62,450
3	2005-06	5,06,123
4	2009-10	10,24,487
5	2015-16	11,95,025
6	2016-17	13,74,203
7	2017-18	14,35,233
8	2018-19	17,29,682

Question 1.
What was the total public expense in the year 2009-10?
Answer:
In the year 2009-10, the total public expense was ? 10,24,487 crores.

Question 2.
Calculate the difference between public expense of 1991-92 to 2001-02.
Ans. The difference between public expense of 1991-92 and 2001-02 is ? 2,90,133 crore (3,62,450 – 72,317).

Question 3.
Observe the trends in public expense from 2015 to 2019.
Ans. The year 2018-19 shows greater trend in public expense.

Question 4.
What is the tendency of trends in public expense, shown in the given table?
Ans. The given table shows that, there is a tremendous growth in the total public expense of the country over the period of time.

(2) Read the given passage and answer the questions :

“The conventional notion of social security is that the government would make periodic payments to look after people in their old age, ill-health, disability and poverty. This idea should itself change from writing a cheque for the beneficiary to institutional arrangements to care for beneficiaries, including by enabling them to look after themselves, to a large extent.
The write-a-cheque model of social security is a legacy from the rich world at the optimal phase of its demographic transition, when the working population was numerals enough and earning enough to generate the taxes to pay for the care of those not working. This model is ill-suited for less, well-off India with growing life expectancy, increasing urbanization and resultant migration. Social security under urbanization will be different from social security in a static society.

Question 1.
State the conventional notion of social security.
Answer:
The conventional notion of social security is that the government would make periodic payments to look after people in their old age, ill-health, disability and poverty.

Question 2.
What kind of conceptual change is suggested in the given paragraph?
Answer:
The given paragraph suggests that, the idea should change from writing a cheque for the beneficiary to institutional arrangement to care for beneficiaries.
It will enable them to look after themselves to a large extent.

Question 3.
WTiat is a legacy of social security from the rich world?
Answer:
The write-a-cheque model of social security i is a legacy from the rich world.

Question 4.
Which features of India make the traditional model of social security illsuited for the economy?
Answer:
Growing life expectancy, increasing urbanization and resultant migration are the features of India that make the traditional model of social security ill suited for the economy.

6. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Explain the various types of Government budget (Union budget).
Answer:
There are three types of government budget:
(1) Balanced Budget, (2) Surplus Budget and (3) Deficit Budget.
(1) Balanced Budget : Balanced budget is a situation in which estimated revenue of the government during the year is equal to its anticipated expenditure.

For individuals and families, it is always advisable to have a balanced budget, s Classical economist advocated Balanced
Budget, which was based on the policy of “live-with-in means”. According to them i government’s revenue should not fall short of expenditure.

They favoured balanced budget because they believed that government should not interfere in economic activities and should just concentrate on the maintenance of internal and external security and provision of basic economic and social overheads.

Till 1930 generally accepted norm was that of ‘Sound Finance’ which implied that public authority should balance its budget. But the great depression of 1930’s proved that Balanced Budget was not a guarantee of stability and full employment. It was then realised that the government can play an effective role in recovery of the economy. This is because if governments expenditure exceeds its revenue, it will generate additional demand which will accelerate the pace of economic growth. It was Keynes who gave a new approach to the budgetary policy, he replaced the norm of Balanced Budget with the norm of functional finance.

(2) Surplus Budget: A surplus budget implies when the expected government revenue is greater than proposed government expenditure.
Surplus budget shows the financial soundness of the government. When there is too much inflation, the government can adopt the policy of surplus budget as it reduces aggregate demand by spending less than its income.
In periods of inflation, although there is greater employment, there is also a tendency for prices to rise rapidly. This can be checked. The inflationary gap can be corrected by lowering the level of effective demand in the economy. It can be corrected by increasing taxes. This will reduce the purchasing power of the people but increase the revenue of the government. Thus aggregate demand will fall. The inflationary gap can be corrected by lowering the level of public expenditure.

When Government reduces its expenditure the revenue with government is in excess of its expenditure.
In modern times, governments responsibilities have increased. Surplus budget will mean that the government instead of spending for the welfare of the people is busy earning and accumulating wealth. Hence, surplus budget practically is non-existing.

3. Deficit Budget: Deficit budget is one where the estimated government expenditure is more than expected revenue. Today almost all the countries of the world follow deficit budget instead of surplus or balanced budget.
Deficit Budget solves the problem of recession and depression which occurs mainly due to lack of effective demand. Increase in total expenditure of the government, increases employment and income of the people. As a result, the aggregate demand for consumer goods increases. Increase in total expenditure tends to expand aggregate economic activity in the economy.

Question 2.
Explain components or scope of public finance in India.
OR
Explain the main components of budget.
Answer:
Public finance is one of the most important branches of economy. It highlights the role and functions of the government Government has to perform various functions like protection from external attack, generation of employment, protection of property, maintaining law and order, provision of collective needs, etc.

To perform these functions efficiently, any government needs finance which can be received from various sources.
Public finance deals with the study of principles of income and expense of the government.
The structure of public finance can be explained as follows:

The Components or Scope of Public Finance

(A) Public Expenditure : It refers to that expenditure which is incurred by the public authority (Central, State and Local Government) for promoting economic and social welfare of a country.
Public expenditure is classified as follows:

(a) Public Expenditure : It refers to expenditure on day-to-day functioning of the government. E.g. administration cost, salary allowances and pensions of government employees, etc.
It is incurred regularly but it does not create any assets to government.

(b) Capital Expenditure : It refers to the expenditure for the development of a country. E.g. investment by government in projects, provision of infrastructure, repayment of loan, etc. It does not incur regularly but it makes addition to the assets of the economy.

(c) Developmental Expenditure : It refers to that expenditure of the government, which gives productive impact to the economy.
It results into generation of employment, increase in production, etc.

(d) Non-developmental Expenditure : It refers to that government expenditure which does not yield any direct productive impact on the economy. E.g. war expenditure.
It is unproductive in nature.

(B) Public Revenue : It refers to aggregate collection of income with the government through various sources. They are classified as:
(a) Tax Revenue
(b) Non-tax Revenue

(a) Tax Revenue : There are two types of taxes collected by the government. They are as follows:

Direct tax : Direct tax is that tax which is paid by a person on whom it is legally s imposed. E.g. income tax, wealth tax, etc.
Direct tax can be proportionate – (constant rate of tax on all incomes), progressive (rate of tax increases with an increase in income) or regressive (rate of tax declines ) with rise in income. In India, we have progressive tax rate system.

Indirect tax : Indirect tax is that tax which ( is imposed on one person but can be paid by the other, e.g. GST.

A taxpayer cannot shift the burden of direct tax to others, however, in case of indirect tax, tax burden can be shifted to others.

(b) Non-tax Revenue : Non-tax revenue refers to the revenue received by the government from various sources other than taxes.

Public expenditure is an important aspect which is incurred by the public authority (central, state and local government). Public expenditure is required for the protection of the citizens of a country, for satisfying social needs or collective needs and for promoting social and economic welfare of the people in a country.

Classification of public expenditure is as under:
(1) Revenue expenditure : It is the expenditure of the government to carry out day-to-day functions. It is recurring in nature. It does not create any assets to government It consists of administrative expenditure, interest payment, pensions and salaries to government employees, etc.

(2) Capital expenditure : It refers to the expenditure of the government for the) development of a country.
It consists of huge investment in different developmental projects, repayment of government loans, investment on land, building, machines, etc.
It is non-recurring in nature

(3) Developmental expenditure : The expenditure which results in generation of employment and price stability, it is known as developmental expenditure.

It consists of expenditure on education, social welfare, industrial development, etc. It leads to an increase in production. It is s productive in nature.

(4) Non-developmental expenditure : It is that government expenditure which does not yield any direct productive impact on the economy. It is mainly in form of expenses on administration costs, war expenses, etc. It is unproductive in nature. It is observed that, since last 30 years, there is a tremendous growth in the total public expenditure of a country because modern government performs many functions for the social and economic development of a country.

(C) Public Debt:

Tax is a major source of revenue to the Government
According to Prof. Taussig, “The essence of a tax as distinguished from other charges by government is the absence of a direct ‘quid pro quo’ (benefit) between the tax payer and the public authority. ”
Prof. Seligman states that, “a tax is a compulsory contribution from a person to the government, without reference to special benefits confessed. ”
Thus, every citizen of a country is legally bound to pay tax.
Tax is imposed on income, property or commodities and services.

Types of Taxes :

(1) Direct Tax : It is paid by the tax payer on his income and property. A tax-payer cannot transfer the burden of direct tax to others.
Impact and incidence of direct tax falls on the same person. E.g. Income tax, wealth tax, etc.
Direct taxes are further classified into three categories.
(i) Proportionate tax (ii) Progressive tax (iii) Regressive tax

(2) Indirect Tax : It is levied on goods and services. It is paid at the time of production or sale and purchase of a commodity or a service.
The burden of indirect tax can be shifted by the tax-payer (producers) to other persons. Hence, impact and incidence of tax are on others. E.g. GST.
Thus, major share of public revenue is the contribution by tax revenue in India.

(D) Fiscal Policy : It is the means through s which government adjusts its spending’s c and tax rates. It helps to monitor and influence nation’s economy. It deals with public expenditure, public revenue and l public debt.
Thus, it is the financial policy implemented by the government.

(E) Financial Administration : It implies I an efficient implementation of revenue, external and debt policy of the government. It includes preparation and implementation of the government budget along with overall economic growth of a country.

 

Budgetary actions of the government affect production, size and distribution of income and utilization of material and human resources of a country. Thus, the scope of public finance is important in a modern economy.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 3 Personality Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Psychology Important Questions Chapter 3 Personality

Choose the correct option and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
………………… are outgoing, friendly, and talkative individuals.
(a) Introverts
(b) Extroverts
(c) Ambiverts
Answer:
(b) Extroverts

Question 2.
In the ……………. interview, the direction of the interview is predetermined.
(a) structured
(b) unstructured
(c) projective
Answer:
(a) structured

Question 3.
Rorschach’s Ink-Blots are a …………… test of personality.
(a) self-report
(b) situational
(c) projective
Answer:
(c) projective

Question 4.
……………….. is a self-report technique of personality assessment.
(a) TAT
(b) MBTI
(c) WAIS
Answer:
(b) MBTI

Question 5.
Projective techniques are based on the ………………… perspective.
(a) Behavioural
(b) Psychoanalytic
(c) Trait
Answer:
(b) Psychoanalytic

Match the Pair

Question 1.

Group A	Group B
1. S.R. Hathaway	(a) TAT
2. Hermann Rorschach	(b) Trait theory of personality
3. Morgan and Murray	(c) Type perspective of personality
4. McCrae and Costa	(d) MMPI
5. Gordon Allport	(e) Humanistic perspective of personality
6. Carl Jung	(f) Ink-blot test
	(g) Five factor model

Answer:

Group A	Group B
1. S.R. Hathaway	(d) MMPI
2. Hermann Rorschach	(f) Ink-blot test
3. Morgan and Murray	(a) TAT
4. McCrae and Costa	(g) Five factor model
5. Gordon Allport	(b) Trait theory of personality
6. Carl Jung	(c) Type perspective of personality

State whether the following statements are true or false.

Question 1.
Mass media plays a major role in personality development.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
A person who is high on conscientiousness will be hardworking, punctual and responsible.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Peer group influence on personality is always positive.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
According to the social cognitive perspective, observational learning plays an important role in personality development.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Cardinal traits are the building blocks of personality.
Answer:
False

Question 6.
Individuals who are high on openness to experience tend to be sensitive and sometimes nonconforming.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
Sentence Completion Test is a self-report technique.
Answer:
False

Answer the following in one sentence each.

Question 1.
What is a trait?
Answer:
A trait is a relatively enduring and consistent way of thinking, feeling and acting.

Question 2.
Name the two types of interviews.
Answer:
The two types of interviews are Structured interview and Unstructured interview.

Question 3.
According to Allport, what are the categories of traits ?
Answer:
According to Allport, the three categories of traits are Cardinal traits, Central trails and Secondary traits.

Question 4.
Who developed the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)?
Answer:
C.D. Morgan and Henry Murray developed the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT).

Question 5.
What was the early interpretation of personality?
Answer:
Personality was earlier interpreted as “projected behaviour” of an individual.

Question 6.
How do endocrine glands affect our personality?
Answer:
Over secretion or under secretion of hormones produced by the endocrine glands can adversely affect our personality.

Question 7.
What are some undesirable effects of excessive dependence on mass media by any person?
Answer:
Excessive dependence on mass media may lead to egocentrism, poor academic performance, sleep disturbances, etc.

Question 8.
What is the assumption of the type perspective of personality?
Answer:
The assumption of the type perspective of personality is that every individual has an unique personality type based on his/her physique, temperament and mental characteristics.

Question 9.
What does ambiverts refer to?
Answer:
In real life, most individuals tend to exhibit a blend of traits of introverts and extroverts, i.e., ambiverts.

Question 10.
Why do secondary traits play a minor role in personality?
Answer:
Secondary traits play a minor role in personality as they appear only in specific situations or under specific circumstances.

Question 11.
What does conscientiousness refer to?
Answer:
Conscientiousness concerns the way in which people control, regulate and direct their impulses.

Question 12.
What does neuroticism refer to?
Answer:
Neuroticism refers to a tendency to experience negative emotions such as anger, anxiety or depression more intensely and for longer periods than most people.

Define / Explain the concepts in 25 – 30 words each.

Question 1.
Introverts
Answer:
Carl Jung classified individuals into introverts and extroverts, based on the characteristics exhibited by them. Characteristics of introverts are:

1. Introverts tend to look within themselves for stimulation
2. they are shy, reserved, avoid social interactions
3. they choose careers and hobbies that do not involve much social contact
4. they may be sensitive to criticism.

Question 2.
Extroverts
Answer:
Carl Jung classified individuals into introverts and extroverts, based on the characteristics exhibited by them. Characteristics of extroverts are:

1. Extroverts depend on external stimulation and evaluate themselves based on impressions of others
2. they tend to be outgoing, cheerful, optimistic
3. they choose careers and hobbies that bring them in contact with others.
4. they tend to be enthusiastic, and full of energy.

Question 3.
Cardinal trait
Answer:
A trait is a relatively enduring and consistent way of thinking, feeling and acting. It is some distinctive characteristic of the person that leads him/her to behave in more or less consistent ways across situations and over a period of time. According to Gordon Allport, the categories of traits are Cardinal traits, Central traits and Secondary traits.

Cardinal trait is a single trait that dominates the individual’s personality. Every action of the person can be traced to the influence of this trait, for e.g., in case of Gandhiji honesty was the cardinal trait, in case of Napoleon, the cardinal trait was ambition.

Question 4.
Neuroticism
Answer:
Five factor model of personality is based on the trait perspective. It was proposed by Robert McCrae and Paul Costa. The five broad trait factors are-

1. Openness to Experience
2. Conscientiousness
3. Extroversion
4. Agreeableness
5. Neuroticism.

Neuroticism refers to a tendency to experience negative emotions such as anger, anxiety or depression more intensely and for longer periods than experienced by other people. Those who score high on neuroticism tend to be irritable, fearful, emotionally unstable and interpret ordinary situations as threatening and hopeless. Individuals who score low on neuroticism tend to be more emotionally stable and less likely to be frustrated or experience loneliness, guilt and anger.

Question 5.
Self-report inventories
Answer:
Personality can be assessed using techniques such as Self Report Measures (Inventories), Behavioural Analysis Techniques and Projective Techniques. In self-report inventories such as Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) 16 Personality Factor Questionaire (16 PFQ), etc., the individual provides information of his/ her personality by responding to statements/questions on the inventory. Responses are scored in quantitative terms and interpreted on the basis of norms that are developed for the test.

Answer the following questions in 35 – 40 words each.

Question 1.
How does the peer group influence personality of an individual?
Answer:
Peer groups refers to individuals of the same age group, e.g., classmates or sharing the same interests, e.g., members of a sports club. Influence of the peer group is most noticed in adolescence since it serves as a reference group. The influence of peer group on the person may be positive such as developing healthy gender attitudes, skills of communication, etc., or it may be negative e.g., developing aggressive tendencies, prejudices, etc.

Question 2.
Explain openness to experience as a factor in personality.
Answer:
According to the Five Factor Model proposed by Robert McCrae and Paul Costa, the five broad trait factors are:

1. Openness to Experience
2. Conscientiousness
3. Extroversion
4. Agreeableness
5. Neuroticism

People who are open to experience are intellectually curious imaginative, appreciative of art, sensitive to beauty. They sometimes tend to think and act in nonconforming, adventurous ways. Those with low openness to experience tend to be cautious, pragmatic, consistent and some times may be dogmatic.

Question 3.
Explain the psychoanalytic perspective of personality.
Answer:
The word personality is derived from the Latin word ‘persona’. According to Gordon Allport, “Personality is the dynamic organization within-the individual of those psychophysical systems that determines his unique adjustments to the environment.” The main perspectives of studying personality are Psychoanalytic, Humanistic, Social Cognitive, Trait perspective, etc.

The Psychoanalytic perspective explains that early childhood experiences and the unconscious mind play a role in personality development. Sigmund Freud is the main proponent of the psychoanalytic perspective.

Question 4.
Elaborate on central traits
Answer:
A trait is a relatively enduring and consistent way of thinking, feeling and acting. It is some distinctive characteristic of the person that leads him/her to behave in more or less consistent ways across situations and over a period of time. According to Gordon Allport, the categories of traits are Cardinal traits, Central traits and Secondary traits.

Central traits are a ‘core’ or ‘basic’ characteristics that form the building blocks of personality. There are about 5-10 traits such as sensitivity, sociability, diligence, etc., that can best describe an individual’s personality.

Write short notes on the following in 50 – 60 words each.

Question 1.
Carl Jung’s Theory of Personality.
Answer:
The word personality is derived from the Latin word ‘persona’ which was used to refer to masks worn by actors during a stage performance, Thus, the meaning of personality was interpreted as ‘projected behaviour’ of an individual.

According to Gordon Allport, “Personality is the dynamic organization within the individual of those psychophysical systems that determines his unique adjustments to the environment.” Carl Jung classified individuals into introverts and extroverts, based on the characteristics exhibited by them.
(a) The characteristics of introverts are:

1. they tend to look within themselves for stimulation
2. they are shy, reserved, avoid social interactions
3. they choose careers and hobbies that do not involve much social contact
4. they may be sensitive to criticism.

(b) The characteristics of extroverts are:

1. they depend on external stimulation and evaluate themselves based on impressions of others
2. they tend to be outgoing, cheerful, optimistic
3. they choose careers and hobbies that bring them in contact with others.
4. they tend to be enthusiastic, and full of energy.

In real life, most individuals tend to exhibit a blend of traits of introverts and extroverts i.e. ambiverts.

Question 2.
Interview as an assessment tool of personality.
Answer:
The word personality is derived from the Latin word ‘persona’ which was used to refer to masks worn by actors during a stage performance, Thus, the meaning of personality was interpreted as ‘projected behaviour’ of an individual.

According to Gordon Allport, “Personality is the dynamic organization within the individual of those psychophysical systems that determines his unique adjustments to the environment.” Personality can be assessed using techniques such as Self Report Measures (Inventories), Behavioural Analysis Techniques and Projective Techniques. Behavioural Analysis techniques include Interview and Observation.

Interview – It is a process in which the interviewer collects information about the personality of an interviewee by asking him/her specific questions. The main types of interview, depending on the purpose of assessment are – structured interview and unstructured interview.

(i) Structured interview – The number, type and sequence of questions to be asked in the interview are pre-determined. The answers expected are also specific. This type of interview is used where exact quantification is required, for e.g., industrial psychologists use structured interviews to select employees for a job.

(ii) Unstructured interview – The type and sequence of questions to be asked by the interviewer are not pre-determined. Detailed answers can be given and scoring is often subjective. It is employed by clinical psychologists, counsellors, etc.

Question 3.
Projective techniques.
Answer:
Projective techniques emerged from the psychoanalytic perspective. The individual responds freely to relatively unstructured or ambiguous stimuli/material. It is assumed that individuals project their own personality onto these stimuli, often revealing personal conflicts, hidden urges, coping styles, etc. Projective techniques cannot be scored in an objective manner. They use various materials like ink-blots, ambiguous pictures, incomplete sentences, word associations, etc. Main projective techniques include Rorschach’s The Ink-Blot Test, Tests, Thematic Apperception Test (TAT), Sentence Completion Test, etc.

Question 4.
Rorschach’s Ink-Blots
Answer:
Projective Techniques are a method of personality assessment. Projective techniques emerged from the psychoanalytic perspective. The individual responds freely to relatively unstructured . or ambiguous stimuli/material. It is assumed that individuals project their own personality onto these stimuli, often revealing personal conflicts, coping styles, etc. Projective techniques cannot be scored in an objective manner. They use various materials like ink-blots, ambiguous pictures, incomplete sentences, word associations, etc.

This test was developed by Hermann Rorschach in 1921. It uses ten irregular-ink-blots (five in black and white, five in colour.) standing against a white background. Each ink-blot is shown in a fixed number of ways and the subjects are asked to describe what they see in each card. The subjects are allowed to hold the card in any position they want, whether it’s upside down or sideways. Analysis of this test requires trained and skilful examiner.

Answer the following questions with given points in 80 – 100 words each.

Question 1.
Elaborate on the various projective techniques.
Points:
(i) Rorschach’s Ink-Blots
(ii) Thematic Apperception Test
(iii) Sentence Completion Test
Answer:
The word personality is derived from the Latin word ‘persona’ which was used to refer to masks worn by actors during a stage performance, Thus, the meaning of personality was interpreted as ‘projected behaviour’ of an individual.

According to Gordon Allport, “Personality is the dynamic organization within the individual of those psychophysical systems that determines his unique adjustments to the environment.”

The main assessment methods of personality are Self Report Inventories, Behavioural Analysis techniques and Projective Techniques. Projective techniques emerged from the psychoanalytic perspective. The individual responds freely to relatively unstructured or ambiguous stimuli/material. It is assumed that individuals project their own personality onto these stimuli, often revealing personal conflicts, coping styles, etc. Projective techniques cannot be scored in an objective manner. They use various materials like ink-blots, ambiguous pictures, incomplete sentences, word dissociations, etc. Main projective techniques include Rorschach’s Ink-Blot Tests, Thematic Apperception Test (TAT), Sentence Completion test, etc.

(i) Rorschach’s Ink-Blot Test:
This test was developed by Hermann Rorschach in 1921. It uses ten irregular-inkblots (five in black and white, five in colour.) standing against a white background. Each inkblot is shown in a fixed number of ways and the subjects are asked to describe what they see in each card. The subjects are allowed to hold the card in any position they want, whether it’s upside down or sideways. Analysis of this test requires trained and skilful examiner.

(ii) Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) :
The TAT was developed by Morgan and Murray in 1935. It requires the individual to look at the picture and to interpret it by telling a story. The individual is invited to say what led up to the scene in the picture, why such events occurred, what is currently happening and what the consequences will be?

(iii) Sentence-completion test:
Sentence completion test (SCT) is a type of projective technique used to assess personality. The individual is given a series of incomplete sentences and is asked to complete them in his/her own words, for e.g., My mother …………., My greatest fear is ………….. It is assumed that the
endings provided by the person will reflect their motivation, urges, internal conflicts etc.

Answer the following questions in 150 – 200 words each.

Question 1.
Define personality. Explain the factors that affect personality.
Answer:
The word personality is derived from the Latin word ‘persona’ which was used to refer to masks worn by actors during a stage performance, Thus, the meaning of personality was interpreted as ‘projected behaviour’ of an individual.

According to Norman Munn, “Personality is a unique combination of individual’s physical structure, needs, interests, abilities and aptitudes.” According to Gordon Allport, “Personality is the dynamic organization within the individual of those psychophysical systems that determines his unique adjustments to the environment.” Personality is shaped by biological factors like heredity and endocrine glands and by psychosocial factors like family, peer groups, school and culture.

(i) Heredity – It implies the genetic inheritance of an individual. Heredity affects the physical characteristics, for e.g., height, physique, etc. It also influences the self-concept which in turn influences personality.

(ii) Endocrine glands – Personality is shaped by endocrine glands like pituitary, thyroid, adrenals, pancreas, gonads, etc. Over secretion or under secretion of hormones produced by these glands can adversely affect our personality, for e.g., over secretion of growth hormone by the pituitary gland leads to gigantism (very tall).

(iii) F amily – As the first agency of socialization, the fqmily exerts a strong influence on personality. Aspects of family such as family structure, atmosphere, and relationships, family interactions and childrearing practices influence personality, for e.g., if parents show rejection or over protection, etc., towards the child, it leads to low self-esteem and has adverse effects on the personality.

(iv) Peer group – It refers to individuals of the same age group, e.g., classmates or sharing the same interests, e.g., members of a sports club. Influence of the peer group is most noticed in adolescence since it serves as a reference group. The influence of peer group on the person may be positive such as developing healthy gender attitudes, skills of communication, etc., or it may be negative e.g., developing aggressive tendencies, prejudices, etc.

(v) School – Various aspects of school such as teaching-learning process, academic and co-curricular facilities, role of the teachers, school location, management and discipline, etc., influence the child’s personality, for e.g., teachers who are well qualified, creative, build a rapport which the students, tend to motivate students and help to develop a good personality.

(vi) Mass media – It includes print media e.g., newspapers; audio-visual media e.g., T.V. and new media e.g., internet. Media is a source of information, education, entertainment and even socialization. It has a considerable effect on our value system, behaviour patterns and personality. However, excessive dependence on media may lead to egocentrism, poor academic performance, difficult in concentration, sleep disturbance, etc.

(vii) Cultural factors – Culture refers to the customs, values and social behaviour of a particular society. Every culture has its own set of beliefs, norms, expectations, etc., which influence the thoughts, feelings and behaviour of its members.

Question 2.
Discuss the various methods of personality measurement.
Answer:
The word personality is derived from the Latin word ‘persona’ which was used to refer to masks worn by actors during a stage performance, Thus, the meaning of personality was interpreted as ‘projected behaviour’ of an individual.

According to Gordon Allport, “Personality is the dynamic organization within the individual of those psychophysical systems that determines his unique adjustments to the environment.” According to Norman Munn, “Personality is a unique combination of individual’s physical structure, needs, interests, abilities and aptitudes

The main methods to assess personality include Behavioural Analysis techniques, Projective techniques and Self-Report Measures (Personality inventories).

(i) Behavioural Analysis
Behavioural Analysis techniques such as Interview and Observation can provide information about an individual’s personality in a variety of situations.
(a) Interview – It is a process in which the interviewer collects information about the personality of an interviewee by asking him/her specific questions. The main types of interview depending on the purpose of assessment are: structured interview and unstructured interview

1. Structured interview – The number, type and sequence of questions to be asked are pre-determined. The answers expected are also specific. This type of interview is used where exact quantification is required, for e.g., industrial psychologists use structured interviews to select employees for a job.

2. Unstructured interview – The type and sequence of questions to be asked by the interviewer are not pre-determined. Detailed answers can be given and scoring is often subjective. It is employed by clinical psychologists, counsellors, etc.

(b) Observation – The types of observation include Naturalistic observation, Laboratory observation, Participant observation, Non-participant observation, etc. This method is useful only when there is a trained observer, clear objectives and adequate guidelines for observations.

(ii) Self-Report Techniques (Inventories)
The individual provides information about his/her personality by responding to statements/ questions on the inventory, for e.g., Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI), Cattell’s 16 Personality Factor Questionnaire, etc. Responses are scored in quantitative terms and interpreted on the basis of norms that are developed for the test.

(a) Rorschach’s Ink-Blot Test: This test was developed by Hermann Rorschach in 1921. It uses ten irregular-inkblots (five in black and white, five in colour.) standing against a white background. Each inkblot is shown in a fixed number of ways and the subjects are asked to describe what they see in each card. The subjects are allowed to hold the card in any position they want, whether it’s upside down or sideways. Analysis of this test requires trained and skilful examiner.

(b) Thematic Apperception Test (TAT): The TAT was developed by Morgan and Murray in 1935. It requires the individual to look at the picture and to interpret it by telling a story. The individual is invited to say what led up to the scene in the picture, why such events occurred, what is currently happening and what the consequences will be?

(c) Sentence-completion test: Sentence completion test (SCT) is a type of projective technique used to assess personality. The individual is given a series of incomplete sentences and is asked to complete them in his/her own words, for e.g., My mother …………., My greatest fear is ………. It is assumed that the endings provided by the person will reflect their motivation, urges, internal conflicts etc.

(iii) Projective Techniques
Projective techniques emerged from the psychoanalytic perspective. The individual responds freely to relatively unstructured or ambiguous stimuli/material. It is assumed that individuals project their own personality onto these stimuli, often revealing urges/desires, personal conflicts, coping styles, etc. Projective techniques cannot be scored in an objective manner. They use various materials like ink-blots, ambiguous pictures, incomplete sentences, word , dissociations, etc.

Main projective techniques include Rorschach’s Ink-Blot Tests, Thematic Apperception Test (TAT), Sentence Completion Test, etc.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Political Science Important Questions Chapter 1 The World Since 1991 Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Political Science Important Questions Chapter 1 The World Since 1991

Complete the following statements by selecting the appropriate option.

Question 1.
The world order was dominated by the in the early part of the post-cold war area.
(a) UK
(b) Soviet Union
(c) USA
(d) EU
Answer:
(c) USA

Question 2.
The term ‘New World Order’ was first used by
(a) Woodrow Wilson
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Joseph Nye
(d) George H. Bush
Answer:
(d) George H. Bush

Question 3.
In 1993, the World Conference on Human Rights was held in
(a) Vienna
(b) Belgrade
(c) Paris
(d) New York
Answer:
(a) Vienna

Question 4.
Market reforms were introduced in People’s Republic of China in the mid 1970s under leadership of
(a) Mao-Tse-Tung
(b) Deng Xiaoping
(c) Jinping
(d) Chou-en-Lai
Answer:
(b) Deng Xiaoping

Question 5.
Shenzhen Area is related to the region.
(a) Asia
(b) South Asia
(c) European Union
(d) South America
Answer:
(c) European Union

Question 6.
In 2007, became a member of SAARC.
(a) China
(b) Maldives
(c) India
(d) Afghanistan
Answer:
(d) Afghanistan

Question 7.
…………………. acts as a bridge between South Asia and South East Asia.
(a) BIMSTEC
(b) BRICS
(c) ASEAN
(d) SAARC
Answer:
(a) BIMSTEC

Identify the incorrect pair in every set and correct it.

Question 1.
(a) Kosovo – Serbia
(b) Catalonia – France
(c) Chechnya – Russia
Answer:
(b) Catalonia – Spain

Question 2.
(a) Nepal – SAARC
(b) Myanmar – BIMSTEC
(c) SCO – Afghanistan
Answer:
(c) SAARC – Afghanistan

Complete the following sentences by selecting the appropriate reason.

Question 1.
There were revolutions in East European States because ………………….
(a) they desired more freedom and economic wellbeing
(b) they were now aligned to the USA.
(c) of the rise of multipolarity.
Answer:
(a) they desired more freedom and economic wellbeing

Question 2.
Schengen Visa in significant because ………………….
(a) it is a kind of trade bloc.
(b) it allows individuals to travel freely in 26 Schengen area countries.
(c) it allows all European Union States free trade and travel.
Answer:
(b) it allows individuals to travel freely in 26 Schengen area countries.

State the appropriate concept for the given statements.

Question 1.
When a State gets other countries to act in ways contrary to their preferences, using coercion.
Answer:
Hard power

Question 2.
The use of violence or threat of violence with an intention to create panic in society.
Answer:
Terrorism

Question 3.
The military campaign launched by then US President, George W. Bush in response to the 9/11 terrorist attacks.
Answer:
War on Terror

Question 4.
The agreement which resulted in abolition of internal borders between five European nations in 1985.
Answer:
Schengen Agreement

Question 5.
The executive-bureaucratic arm of the EU.
Answer:
European Commission

Question 6.
This forum acts as a platform for discussion between developed and developing nations.
Answer:
G-20

Question 7.
Group of nations make special agreements regarding their economic relationships.
Answer:
Trade Bloc.

Find the odd word.

(1) Croatia, Montenegro, Serbia, Latvia
(2) Belgium, France, Spain, Germany.
(3) China, Russia, Tajikistan, Ukraine.
(4) Cambodia, Thailand, Nepal, India.
Answer:
(1) Latvia (was not created due to disintegration of Yugoslavia)
(2) Spain (not a signatory to Schengen Agreement in 1985)
(3) Ukraine (not a member of SCO)
(4) Cambodia (not a member of BIMSTEC)

Expand the following abbreviations.

BIMSTEC
SAARC
SAFTA
NATO
UNTAC
ASEAN
EEC
ECSC
Answer:
BIMSTEC – The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation.
SAARC – South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation.
SAFTA – South Asian Association Free Trade Area.
NATO – North Atlantic Treaty Organisation.
UNTAC – United Nations Transitional Authority in Cambodia.
ASEAN – Association of South East Asian Nations.
EEC – European Economic Community.
ECSC – European Coal and Steel Community.

Complete the concept maps.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Observe the maps in the textbook and answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Name any four countries in the Schengen area.
Answer:
Sweden, Denmark, Germany, Belgium, France.
Question 2.
Name any two non-European Union countries within Schengen area.
Answer:
Norway, Romania, Bulgaria, Croatia.

Question 3.
Name any two countries who are EU members but not Schengen member.
Answer:
Belarus, Ukraine Serbia

Question 1.
Write two neighbouring countries of Iraq.
Answer:
Syria, Jordan, Iran, Kuwait.

Question 2.
Write two African nations bordered by the Red Sea
Answer:
Sudan, Eritrea

Question 3.
Write two countries bordered by the Gulf of Aden.
Answer:
Yemen, Somalia, Djbouti.

Question 4.
Write two ‘seas’ bordering Turkey.
Answer:
Black Sea, Mediterranean Sea.

State whether the following statements are true or false with reason.

Question 1.
‘New World Order’ described by US President George H. Bush was the first expression of the unipolar world order.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. During the Gulf war (Iraq invasion of Kuwait), the USA led a multinational force to free Kuwait from Iraqi control. Countries of the NATO, Arab States, as well as Israel, China, Soviet Union, etc., supported the US in this action.
2. Eventually, the meaning of the term ‘New World Order’ came to imply US dominance in matters of security at the global level i.e. unipolarity.

Question 2.
Terrorism in the world today is different from traditional forms of terrorism.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. Traditional forms of terrorist activity included hijackings, bombings, assassinations of political leaders, etc. This mainly targeted institutions of the government and was associated with separatist movements or struggles for the rights of some specific people e.g., I.R.A.
2. Modern day terrorism is motivated by an abstract ideology towards abstract goals and the operations are global in nature e.g., 9/11 attacks in the USA were carried out by Osama Bin Laden led Al-Qaeda based in Afghanistan.

Question 3.
There has been a shift from unipolar to multipolar world order in recent times.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. In the post Cold War era, due to it’s military, technological and economic might, the USA was the only superpower.
2. However, in recent times, the dominant position of USA has been directly or indirectly challenged by factors such as
   (a) European Union, (b) military resurgence of Russia (c) rise of Asia through the presence of China, Japan and India in the global world order, (d) new regional organisations like BRICS, BIMSTEC, etc.

Explain the correlation between the following.

Question 1.
Rise of China and Russia and Multipolarity
Answer:
After the end of the Cold War, USA emerged as the only super power due to it’s technological and military superiority and the use of‘Soft Power’. However, this dominant position of the USA has been challenged in recent times by China and Russia.

China’s rise to global prominence began in the mid 1970s due to market reforms introduced by Deng Xiaoping. China aims to create a sphere of influence in Central and East Asian regions through ambitious projects like One Belt One Road and China Pakistan Economic Corridor. China is also building up it’s naval and air power in order to back up it’s claims in the South China Sea.

Russia has emerged as an energy superpower due to its progress in oil and gas production and military assertiveness. It continues to influence Central and Eastern Europe. Both China and Russia are founding members of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation. Thus, China and Russia have also become significant centres of power, challenging US dominance.

Question 2.
UN Peacekeeping – Conflict zones.
Answer:
One of the main tasks of the UN Peacekeeping is to prevent conflicts from escalating or recurring, to maintain peace and to protect human rights of the affected people. The UN thus intervened in Cambodia, Somalia, Yugoslavia, Afghanistan, Syria, etc.

The United Nations does not have its own army. But in order to maintain international peaee and security, member States of the United Nations, have created a peacekeeping force out of their own military resources. This force known as UN Peacekeeping Force. The Peacekeepers are sent to conflict-prone or war zones, based upon UN Security Council recommendations, often when ceasefires are established.

Answer the following

Question 1.
Elaborate on ‘Self determination based on ethnic identity’ that arose after the end of the cold war.
Answer:
In 1991, the Soviet Union disintegrated leading to the creation of many new States. The revolutions in the East European countries also led to many new countries being formed. All this was against communist regimes, as the people within these regions desired freedom and economic progress. Ethnic identity of various people in the region became stronger, leading to the demand for creation of new States based on ethnic identity. Some examples of this trend are-

1. Yugoslavia split into Croatia, Serbia, Bosnia, Slovenia, etc.
2. Czechoslovakia split into Czech Republic and Slovakia in 1993.
3. Former Soviet Union disintegrated into fifteen States such as Russia, Armenia, Belarus, Ukraine, Estonia, etc.

Creation of new States based on ethnic nationalism was also seen in other parts of the world for e.g.

1. East Timor (became independent from Indonesia).
2. Eretria (became independent from Ethiopia).
3. South Sudan (became independent from Sudan).
4. Chechnya (wants independence from Russia).

Question 2.
Describe how USA became the only superpower after the end of the cold war.
Answer:
In 1991, the Soviet Union disintegrated and the Cold War ended. This led to the end of an international order dominated by the two superpowers i.e., USA and Soviet Union. Bipolarity gave rise to unipolarity. During the invasion of Kuwait by Iraq, the USA took the initiative and led a multinational force to free Kuwait. The US President, George H. Bush used the term ‘New World Order’ to describe the existing global situation. The US initiative was supported by China, Israel, Arab States, Soviet Union and countries of the NATO. Soviet Union was facing internal problems so not much opposition was possible against the USA. Thus, the term ‘New World Order’ implied American dominance and it’s leadership in matters of security was accepted at the global level. This was the first expression of the unipolar world order.

Answer the following question in detail with help of given points.

Question 1.
Discuss the European Union with help of given points.
(a) History
(b) European Commission
(c) European Parliament
(d) European Council
(e) European Court of Justice
Answer:
(a) History – The European Coal and Steel Community (ECSC) and European Economic Community (EEC) were created to foster economic interdependence. On 7th February 1992, the Maastricht Treaty was signed to create the European Union. This led to expansion of spheres of cooperation to include internal affairs, judicial matters, foreign policy, etc. The Euro (€) is the official currency of 19 out of 28 countries of the EU. These nations are collectively called ‘Eurozone’.

(b) European Commission – The Commission is the executive bureaucratic arm of the EU. It is mainly responsible for drawing up proposals for new European legislation,and it implements the policy decisions of the European Parliament and the Council of the EU.

(c) European Parliament – The European Parliament is composed of 751 Members, who are directly elected every five years. It is a body entrusted with legislative, supervisory, and budgetary responsibilities.

(d) European Council – The structure of the European Council consists of the Presidents or Prime Ministers of each member State, accompanied by their foreign ministers, and a full¬time President of the European Council. The European Council meets four times a year and provides strategic leadership for the EU.

(e) European Court of Justice (ECJ) – The ECJ interprets, and adjudicates on, EU law and treaties. As EU law has primacy over the national law of EU member States.

Question 2.
Elaborate on developments in the post-cold war period.
(a) Rise of new States
(b) Emergence of unipolarity
(c) Humanitarian intervention
(d) Terrorism
(e) Multipolarity and Regionalism
Answer:
The disintegration of the Soviet Union ended the era of the Cold War as well as the East-West division of the world. Developments in the post-Cold War period can be analyzed through five dimensions.
(a) Rise of new States – The East European revolution of 1989, led to assertion of ethnic nationalism based on the right to self determination. It was an expression of the middle class for freedom and economic well being as well as for autonomy and eventually for independence. Many new States were created based on ethnic identity for e.g., Yugoslavia split into States like Croatia, Serbia, Bosnia-Herzegovina, etc. Similarly, 15 new States were created after the collapse of the Soviet Union.

(b) Emergence of unipolarity – In 1990, Iraq invaded Kuwait. The USA led a multinational force to free Kuwait from Iraqi control. The US President, George H. Bush had described this victory as ‘New World Order’ as the multinational support to the USA came from NATO, Israel, Soviet Union, China and many Arab countries. After the collapse of the Soviet Union in 1991, the world became unipolar and the New World Order implied US dominance and leadership in matters of global security. They had political and economic dimensions. The US employed “Soft Power” method i.e., without use of coercion or military force but through socio-cultural and economic influence.

(c) Humanitarian intervention – There have been many instances of ethnic conflicts and bloodshed in the creation of new States particularly in Bosnia, East Timor, Somalia, Cambodia, etc. The UN Peacekeeping Force has intervened in a number of conflict situations to bring about peaceful resolution of the conflict as well as to maintain peace and protect human rights. Humanitarian intervention refers to an increasing awareness about the significance of human rights and the need for their protection.

(d) Terrorism – Terrorism is defined as the use of violence, or the threat to use violence with an intention to create panic in society, in the pursuit of political/religious/ideological goals. Terrorist groups indulge in hijackings, bombings, etc., and are usually associated with separatist movements. Modern day terrorist operations are global in nature. Some instances of terrorist attacks post 1991, include Al-Qaeda attacks on 11th September 2001 in Washington D.C, Bali (2002), Mumbai (2008), etc.

(e) Multipolarity and Regionalism – In the post cold war era, the USA emerged as the only superpower. However, in recent times, the dominant position of the USA has been challenged due to the rise of Asian nations like China, Japan and India creation of the European Union; military resurgence of Russia and growing importance of regional organisations like SAARC, etc.

Regionalism refers to creation of regional organisations based on geographical proximity or on common ideological, political, economic concerns in areas like communication, health, energy, education, etc. In the 1960s organisations like ASEAN focused on economic issues.

Question 3.
Describe the following regional organisations in the post cold war era.
(a) European Union
(b) SAARC
(c) BIMSTEC
(d) Shanghai Cooperation Organisation
(e) G-20
Answer:
(a) EuropeanUnion-The European CoalandSteel Community (ECSC) and European Economic Community (EEC) were created to foster economic interdependence. On 7thFebruary 1992, the Maastricht Treaty was signed to create the European Union. This led to expansion of spheres of cooperation to include internal affairs, judicial matters, foreign policy, etc. The Euro (€) is the official currency of 19 out of 28 countries of the EU. These nations are collectively called Eurozone.

The Schengen Agreement (1985) was signed by France, Germany, Belgium, Netherlands and Luxembourg. Today 22 countries are part of the Schengen Area which is an area without internal borders. The EU functions on four key institutions viz. European Commission, European Parliament, European council and European court of Justice. The UK formally ended it’s membership of the EU on 31st January 2020.

(b) SAARC – It was formed in 1985 at Dhaka with seven members viz. Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka. In 2006, SAFTA was activated. Afghanistan joined SAARC in 2007. There are also nine observers such as EU, China, UK, USA, etc.

(c) BIMSTEC – The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation was established in 1997. It comprises of five countries from South Asia viz. Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Sri Lanka and two countries from South-East Asia viz. Myanmar, Thailand. BIMSTEC aims to facilitate collaboration and rapid economic development among countries lying in adjacent areas of the Bay of Bengal.

(d) Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) – It was founded in 2001 in Shanghai by the leaders of China, Russia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan. In 2016, India and Pakistan joined the SCO. The focus of SCO is to bring about peace, stability and cooperation in the Eurasian region.

(e) G-20 – This forum was created in 1999 with the aim to discuss policies relating to financial stability. It includes developed countries like USA, UK, France, Germany the EU as well as developing countries like Argentina, Brazil, India.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 History Important Questions Chapter 1 Renaissance in Europe and Development of Science Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th History Important Questions Chapter 1 Renaissance in Europe and Development of Science

1A. Choose the correct alternative and rewrite the statement.

Question 1.
__________ means ‘Rebirth’.
(a) Reformation
(b) Renaissance
(c) Revival
(d) Rejuvenation
Answer:
(b) Renaissance

Question 2.
The first crusade began in the year __________
(a) 1096
(b) 1097
(c) 1098
(d) 1099
Answer:
(a) 1096

Question 3.
__________ is said to have mentioned the sunspots (Tamas Kilakas) in his treatise ‘Brihatsamhita’.
(a) Ibn Batuta
(b) Varahamihir
(c) Alberuni
(d) Arya Bhatt
Answer:
(b) Varahamihir

Question 4.
Edmund Cartwright invented the __________
(a) telescope
(b) printing press
(c) steam engine
(d) power loom
Answer:
(d) power loom

Question 5.
__________ invented the steam engine.
(a) James Watt
(b) Thomas Bell
(c) Robert Fulton
(d) George Stephenson
Answer:
(a) James Watt

Question 6.
__________ landed at the port of Calicut in 1498.
(a) Ferdinand Magellan
(b) Vasco da Gama
(c) Capt. James Cook
(d) Mungo Park
Answer:
(b) Vasco da Gama

Question 7.
__________ is considered to be the father of ‘Hydraulics’.
(a) Ibn Batuta
(b) Amir Khushrow
(c) Alberuni
(d) Abul Fazl
Answer:
(c) Alberuni

1B. Find the incorrect pair from group ‘B’ and write the corrected one.

Question 1.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(a) Galileo	Telephone
(b) Thomas Bell	Cylinder for printing
(c) Robert Fulton	Steamboat
(d) George Stephenson	Steam engine for transport

Answer:
Galileo – Telescope

Question 2.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(a) Marco Polo	India
(b) Amerigo Vespucci	Venezuela
(c) Samuel de Champlain	Quebec
(d) Mungo Park	Western Africa expedition

Answer:
Marco Polo – China

2A. Write the names of historical places/persons/events.

Question 1.
Two cities considered holy by Jews, Christians, and Muslims
Answer:
Jerusalem and Bethlehem

Question 2.
Sultan of Egypt who defeated the crusaders by conquering Jerusalem
Answer:
Sultan Saladin

Question 3.
The highest authority of the Catholic Church
Answer:
The Pope

Question 4.
The first printing press was started by
Answer:
Johannes Gutenberg

Question 5.
Author of the epics ‘Iliad’ and ‘Odyssey’
Answer:
Homer

Question 6.
The King who gave trading permission to Vasco da Gama
Answer:
Zamorin

Question 7.
The book written by Louis Antony da Bougainvillea
Answer:
Voyages Around the World

Question 8.
The methodology used in Zoology to classify animals is called
Answer:
Taxonomy

2B. Choose the correct reason from those given below and complete the sentence.

Question 1.
The ‘Medieval’ Period is called ‘Renaissance’ because __________
(a) it saw advances in various fields of life
(b) people wanted change
(c) the rulers imposed restrictions on their thinking
(d) people were tired of fighting wars
Answer:
(a) it saw advances in various fields of life

Question 2.
The ‘Crusades’ was a failure because __________
(a) the Pope and the rulers initiated the wars for their own vested interests
(b) common people losing faith
(c) there was a rift between the Pope and the European rulers
(d) of all of the above reasons
Answer:
(d) of all of the above reasons

Question 3.
The European colonies in the African continent increased because __________
(a) Europeans wanted to settle in Africa
(b) it was rich in diamonds, gold, and copper
(c) the cold climate of Europe made them migrate to Africa
(d) Human labour was very expensive in Europe
Answer:
(b) it was rich in diamonds, gold, and copper

Question 4.
Industrial revolution took place in England because __________
(a) the atmosphere was suitable for the industrial revolution in England
(b) the other nations were weak to compete with England
(c) mechanized production did not take place in the other nations
(d) England wanted to prove her superiority
Answer:
(a) the atmosphere was suitable for the industrial revolution in England

3A. Observe the map on textbook page 05 and answer the questions based on it.

Question 1. Name the ocean that lies in the northern hemisphere.
Answer:
The Arctic

Question 2.
Name the ocean that lies in the southern hemisphere.
Answer:
The Antarctic

Question 3.
Who circumnavigated the earth?
Answer:
Ferdinand Magellan

Question 4.
In which continent lies the Cape of Good Hope?
Answer:
Africa

Question 5.
Where did Vasco da Gama land in India in 1498?
Answer:
Calicut (Kozhikode)

Question 6.
After whom is ‘America’ named?
Answer:
Amerigo Vespucci

3B. Complete the following concept map.

Question 1.

Inventors	Inventions
Galileo	…………………………….
……………………….	Power Loom
James Watt	……………………………
……………………….	Spinning Mule

Answer:

Inventors	Inventions
Galileo	Telescope
Edmund Cartwright	Power Loom
James Watt	Steam Engine
Samuel Crompton	Spinning Mule

Question 2.

Answer:

4. Write Short Notes.

Question 1.
Inventions and Discoveries during the Renaissance period.
Answer:

• In 1543 C.E., Nicolaus Copernicus told the world that the centre of our planetary system is the ‘Sun’ and not the ‘Earth’.
• In 1609, Galileo prepared a sophisticated telescope that supported the theories propounded by Copernicus and Kepler.
• This facilitated research in physical sciences.
• Inventions of gunpowder and printing brought about changes in the techniques of warfare and dissemination of knowledge.
• In the world of printing, the first printing press was started by Johannes Gutenberg in 1440 and the first printing press started in Italy in 1451.

Question 2.
Roman Church.
Answer:

1. In the pre-renaissance period, the Roman church not only controlled the religious life of the people but also the individual life.
2. It exploited the common people in the following ways-
   • By issuing mandates for payments of fees.
   • Put restrictions on free-thinking and its circulation.
   • Anyone who dared to interpret Bible was sentenced to death.
3. The humanist philosophy was instrumental in making a ground for resistance against the powerful church.

Question 3.
Ibn Batuta.
Answer:

• He was a sailor and a famous medieval traveler.
• Ibn Batuta visited several countries like India, Maldives, Sumatra, China, Spain, Sardinia, East, and West Africa.

Question 4.
Alberuni.
Answer:

• accompanied Sultan Mahmud of Ghazni during his visit to India.
• tried to estimate the diameter of the earth.
• determined the latitudes and longitudes accurately.
• prepared a map of the earth indicating its round shape.
• considered as the father of ‘Hydraulics’.

5. Explain the following statements with reasons.

Question 1.
The rise of ‘Economic Nationalism’ was an outcome of the industrial revolution.
Answer:

• Arresting the growth of rival nations along with pursuing the growth of one’s own nation became important.
• Putting economic restrictions on rival nations by devising ways.
• For e.g. Prohibiting the import-export transactions of other countries, levying heavy toll duties on their goods, establishing colonies mainly in Asia and Africa, and fighting with the natives were part of the economic nationalism.
• Thus, economic nationalism led to imperialism.

Question 2.
The number of European colonies in the African continent increased.
Answer:

• The continent was rich in diamonds, gold, and copper.
• It was also rich in fertile land, timber, and forests.
• Later the Portuguese captured them and sold them as slaves.
• Cheap human labour was the need of the Europeans.
• This increased the demand for African slaves and helped them to expand the slave trade.

Question 3.
Galileo is known as the ‘Father of Empirical Sciences’.
Answer:

• Galileo established the rational method of empirical observation and forming a theory based on those observations.
• He proved that the speed of objects of different weights falling down is equal by carrying out actual demonstrations from the heights of the tower of Pisa in Italy.
• He triggered a revolution with his modified telescope which benefited the seafarers to a large extent.
• With his telescope, he discovered four major satellites of the planet Jupiter.
• He proved that there are mountains and valleys on the moon and the light emitted from it are actually the rays of the sun.
• He also calculated that the sun takes 27 days to complete one cycle around itself.
• He was also the first scientist to observe spots on the sun.
• Hence, Galileo is known as the ‘Father of Empirical Sciences’.

6. State your opinion.

Question 1.
Scientific inventions in various fields.
Answer:

• The compass, the barometer, telescope, and the thermometer were invented during this period.
• Microscopes were invented to observe various types of micro-organisms.
• Robert Boyle, an alchemist discovered that that the absolute pressure and the volume of a gas are inversely proportional.
• The research in physics was more focused on heat and sound.
• In zoology, a methodology known as ‘Taxonomy’ was developed to classify animals.
• Benjamin Franklin’s research was on lightning and electricity. He coined many technical terms which are used in science even today.

Question 2.
Galileo is known as the ‘Father of Empirical Sciences’.
Answer:

• Galileo established the rational method of empirical observation and forming a theory based on those observations.
• He proved that the speed of objects of different weights falling down is equal by carrying out actual demonstrations from the heights of the tower of Pisa in Italy.
• He triggered a revolution with his modified telescope which benefited the seafarers to a large extent.
• With his telescope, he discovered four major satellites of the planet Jupiter.
• He proved that there are mountains and valleys on the moon and the light emitted from it are actually the rays of the sun.
• He also calculated that the sun takes 27 days to complete one cycle around itself.
• He was also the first scientist to observe spots on the sun.
• Hence, Galileo is known as the ‘Father of Empirical Sciences’.

Question 3.
In the pre-renaissance period, the Roman Church controlled both the religious as well as the individual life of the people.
Answer:

1. In the pre-renaissance period, the Roman church not only controlled the religious life of the people but also the individual life.
2. It exploited the common people in the following ways-
   • By issuing mandates for payments of fees.
   • Put restrictions on free-thinking and its circulation.
   • Anyone who dared to interpret Bible was sentenced to death.
3. The humanist philosophy was instrumental in making a ground for resistance against the powerful church.

7. Answer the following questions in detail.

Question 1.
Write a detailed note on the industrial revolution in England.
Answer:
‘Industrial Revolution’ indicates the transition from manual production to mechanized production.

• In England, the atmosphere was suitable for the industrial revolution.
• Large amounts of iron ore and coal were available.
• The humid climate of England was suitable for producing yarn.
• These conditions proved to be favourable for the textile industry in England.
• England had also established a large number of colonies by then so England could obtain raw material at cheap rates from these colonies.
• England could also export the processed goods and sell them in their colonies with large profit margins using their navy.
• The availability of cheap labour made it possible for them to maintain an optimum level of costs.
• These factors prepared the ground for the industrial revolution in England thus giving a boost to its economy.
• Because of the above reasons Industrial revolution first began in England.

8. Answer the following questions with the help of given points.

Question 1.
Discuss the scientific inventions that took place in the following fields.
(a) Textile Industry
(b) Metallurgy
Answer:
(a) Textile industry:

• In the year 1738, John Kay made and patented the ‘flying shuttle’ which increased the speed of weaving.
• The ‘spinning jenny’, a spinning frame with multiple spindles were made by James Hargreaves in England. It reduced the amount of labour and time of production.
• In the year 1769, Richard Arkwright made a more advanced spinning frame. It could produce yarns much faster.
• Samuel Crompton invented the ‘spinning mule’ in 1779 C. E..This machine increased the speed of producing cloth two hundred times.
• In 1785, Edmund Cartwright invented the power loom.
• In 1793, a machine called the ‘cotton gin’ was introduced. This machine separated cotton seeds from cotton fibres at a greater speed.

(b) Metallurgy:

• England had a number of iron mines.
• Therefore, it was necessary to advance the technique of smelting iron to acquire purified iron from it.
• The fuel for iron furnaces was replaced from wood to coal.
• Special machines were made to keep the furnaces at a set temperature and to maintain their aeration.
• In 1865, the process of producing steel from molten iron was invented and the nature of the iron industry underwent a major transformation.
• At about the same time, a method was adopted to pour the molten metal into casts for making iron bars (e.g. rails).

Question 2.
Give an account of the geographical discoveries made by the following explorers
(a) Marco Polo
(b) Henry the Navigator
(c) Bartholomew Dias
(d) Christopher Columbus
Answer:
(a) Marco Polo: An Italian traveller who introduced China and other Asian countries to Europe. He stayed at the royal court of Kublai Khan where he studied Mongolian and Chinese languages.

(b) Henry the Navigator: He was the prince of Portugal in the 15th century. He encouraged people to carry out expeditions which resulted in the discovery of ‘Madeira’ and ‘Azores’, two archipelagos near Africa. These are the autonomous regions of Portugal. The Portuguese transported the African people to Portugal and sold them as slaves. The Portuguese also brought African gold with them.

(c) Bartholomew Dias: Dias began his expeditions on the orders of the king of Portugal, John II. He reached the southern tip of Africa which he named the Cape of Storms. Later on, the name was changed to ‘Cape of Good Hope. He was the first to circumnavigate the African continent.

(d) Christopher Columbus: The eastern sea route was closed to the Europeans and it became necessary to search for an alternative trade route to reach Asia. With the help of King Ferdinand and Queen Isabel of Spain, Christopher Columbus, an Italian explorer set sail in search of India. He, however, reached the islands near America instead of India.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 2 Intelligence Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Psychology Important Questions Chapter 2 Intelligence

Choose the correct option and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
Self-driving cars function on ………………… intelligence.
(a) artificial
(b) general
(c) alternate
Answer:
(a) artificial

Question 2.
…………………. revised the Binet-Simon Intelligence Scales in 1916.
(a) Terman
(b) Spearman
(c) Stern
Answer:
(a) Terman

Question 3.
Raj is generally impatient, apathetic and restless. He exhibits ……………… emotional intelligence.
(a) high
(b) satisfactory
(c) low
Answer:
(c) low

Question 4.
Army Alpha is a ……………….. test of intelligences.
(a) verbal-individual
(b) verbal-group
(c) performance-group
Answer:
(b) verbal-group

Question 5.
Toxic behaviour indicates a low level of ……………….. intelligence.
(a) social
(b) cognitive
(c) artificial
Answer:
(a) social

Question 6.
If MA is greater than CA then the child has ………………. intelligence.
(a) average
(b) below average
(c) above average
Answer:
(c) above average

Question 7.
According to ……………….., intelligence is composed of seven primary mental abilities.
(a) Thorndike
(b) Gardner
(c) Thurstone
Answer:
(c) Thurstone

Match the pairs.

Group A	Group B
(1) Alfred Binet	(a) concept of IQ
(2) Lewis Terman	(b) concept of emotional intelligence
(3) William Stern	(c) concept of multiple intelligence
(4) Mayer and Salovey	(d) concept of Mental Age
(5) Howard Gardner	(e) Two Factor Theory of intelligence
(6) Charles Spearman	(f) Stanford-Binet Scale

Answer:

Group A	Group B
(1) Alfred Binet	(d) concept of Mental Age
(2) Lewis Terman	(f) Stanford-Binet Scale
(3) William Stern	(a) concept of IQ
(4) Mayer and Salovey	(b) concept of emotional intelligence
(5) Howard Gardner	(c) concept of multiple intelligence
(6) Charles Spearman	(e) Two Factor Theory of intelligence

State whether the following statements are true or false.

Question 1.
Paper pencil tests are non-verbal tests of intelligence.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
According to the modern notion of intelligence, distinct types of intelligences exist.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
If MA = CA, then the individual has average intelligence.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Performance tests are more efficient to measure higher mental abilities.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Verbal tests are culture free tests.
Answer:
False

Question 6.
Artificial Intelligence can take decisions independently.
Answer:
False

Answer the following in one sentence each.

Question 1.
What type of tests is Army Beta test?
Answer:
Army Beta test is a group non-verbal test.

Question 2.
What was the classical notion of intelligence?
Answer:
The classical notion of intelligence explains it as an unitary ability and only the functions of intelligence may take different forms.

Question 3.
Which two tests were developed in 1917 for recruitment of soldiers?
Answer:
Army Alpha test and Army Beta test were the two tests developed in 1917 for recruitment of soldiers during First World War.

Question 4.
What is meant by Social Intelligence?
Answer:
According to Karl Albrecht, “Social intelligence is the ability to get along well with others and to get them to cooperate with oneself’.

Question 5.
What are the two factors of intelligence according to Charles Spearman?
Answer:
According to Charles Spearman the factors of intelligence are General factor and Specific factor.

Question 6.
What are the two types of intelligence according to Cattell and Horn?
Answer:
According to Cattell and Horn the two types of intelligence are Fluid intelligence and Crystallized intelligence.

Explain the concepts in 25 – 30 words each.

Question 1.
Intelligence
Answer:
Intelligence is the highest attribute of human beings. Different psychologists have defined intelligence differently. Lewis Terman explains intelligence as, “An ability to think on an abstract level.” David Wechsler defines intelligence as, ‘The aggregate or global capacity of an individual to act purposefully, to think rationally and to deal effectively with his environment.”
The two main perspectives on intelligence are-

1. Intelligence as a single, general ability
2. Intelligence as a set of multiple abilities

Question 2.
Multiple Intelligences
Answer:
The modern view of intelligence as explained by psychologists like Charles Spearman (Two Factor Theory), E. L. Thorndike, Louis Thurstone (7 Primary Mental Abilities) Howard Gardner, etc. states that multiple abilities are involved in intelligence. They believe that distinct types of intelligences exist. Howard Gardner in his theory of multiple intelligence asserted that there are nine independent types of intelligence that grow and develop differently in different people, depending upon the individual’s heredity characteristics or environmental experiences for e.g., linguistic intelligence, musical intelligence, etc.
These nine types of intelligences are-

1. Linguistic intelligence,
2. Logical-mathematical intelligence
3. Spatial intelligence
4. Musical intelligence
5. Bodily-kinesthetic intelligence
6. Interpersonal intelligence
7. Intra-personal intelligence
8. Naturalistic intelligence and
9. Existential intelligence.

Answer the following questions in 35 – 40 words each.

Question 1.
What is the application of tests of intelligences.
Answer:
Intelligence tests are of great significance today.

1. Effective Schooling – On the basis of intelligence test scores, teachers can classify students into intellectual categories and devise special instructional programmes suited to their mental development.
2. Aids Mental Health Personnel – Intelligence tests are helpful to Mental Health personnel such as psychologists etc., for diagnosis purposes and therapy.
3. Effective Parenting – Parents can provide appropriate educational facilities to their children based on their IQ scores.
4. Career Counselling – Scores obtained on intelligence tests help the student to select the right educational options/ courses.
5. Vocational Counselling – Individuals can choose a suitable career and achieve job satisfaction when they make a realistic choice a vocation based on IQ scores.

Question 2.
Write the characteristics of people with high emotional intelligence.
Answer:
The term emotional intelligence was used for the first time by John Mayer and Peter Salovey. It is defined as ‘the ability to perceive and monitor one’s own and others emotions, to discriminate among them and to use this information to guide one’s thinking and actions.’ Persons with high emotional intelligence have the following characteristics:

1. They tend to be patient and emotionally stable.
2. They tend to be satisfied, enthusiastic and happy.
3. They tend to show independence and optimism.
4. They exhibit the ability to understand and regulate emotions of themselves and others.

Question 3.
Write the applications of Artificial Intelligence.
Answer:
The term Artificial intelligence was suggested by John McCarthy. Artificial intelligence is an innovation created by human intelligence. It refers to enabling software programmes and computer systems to perform tasks that normally require human intelligence.

Today, Artificial Intelligence is used on a large scale to perform various daily routine tasks as well as to solve various critical problems. For example, it is used for:

1. Speech recognition
2. Natural language processing
3. Spam filtering from emails
4. Medical diagnosing
5. Detecting frauds in economic transactions
6. Weather forecasting, etc.

Question 4.
Explain E.L. Thorndike’s view about intelligence.
Answer:
Intelligence is the highest attribute of human beings. Different psychologists have defined intelligence differently.
Lewis Terman explains intelligence as, “an ability to think on an abstract level.”
David Wechsler defines intelligence as, “the aggregate or global capacity of an individual to act purposefully, to think rationally and to deal effectively with his environment.”
E. L. Thorndike put forth three independent abilities that can be called intelligence.

1. Abstract intelligence – It refers to the ability to engage in verbal and symbolic thinking.
2. Social intelligence – It refers to the ability to communicate with people, understand and perform social relations.
3. Concrete (mechanical) intelligence – It refers to the ability to effectively control one’s body and to manipulate objects.

Question 5.
Explain Cattell and Horn’s theory of intelligence.
Answer:
Intelligence is the highest attribute of human beings. Different psychologists have defined intelligence differently.
Lewis Terman explains intelligence as, “an ability to think on an abstract level.”
David Wechsler defines intelligence as, “the aggregate or global capacity of an individual to act purposefully, to think rationally and to deal effectively with his environment.”
Raymond Cattell with his student John Horn proposed a theory of intelligence explaining two types of intelligence viz.

1. Fluid intelligence is dependent on neurological development and it is relatively free from the influences of learning and experiences.
2. Crystallized intelligence is not dependent on one’s neurological development and it is a function of one’s educational attainment, acquired experiences and stock of knowledge.

Write short notes on the following in 50 – 60 words.

Question 1.
Howard Gardner’s theory of Multiple Intelligences.
Answer:
Intelligence is the highest attribute of human beings. Different psychologists have defined intelligence differently.
David Wechsler defines intelligence as, ‘the aggregate or global capacity of an individual to act purposefully, to think rationally and to deal effectively with his environment.’
The two main perspectives on intelligence are-
(i) Intelligence as a single, general ability – The classical notion of intelligence explains it as an unitary ability and only the functions of intelligence may take different forms. Psychologists like Alfred Binet, David Wechsler, William Stern and Lewis Terman believed that intelligence is a single index of cognitive abilities.

(ii) Intelligence as a set of multiple abilities – The modern view of intelligence as explained by psychologists like Charles Spearman, E.L. Thorndike, Howard Gardner, etc., states that multiple abilities are involved in intelligence.

Howard Gardner in his theory of multiple intelligence asserted that there are nine independent types of intelligence that grow and develop differently in different people, depending upon the individuals heredity characteristics or environmental experiences. These nine types of intelligences are-

1. Linguistic intelligence
2. Logical-mathematical intelligence
3. Spatial intelligence
4. Musical intelligence
5. Bodily-kinesthetic intelligence
6. Interpersonal intelligence and
7. Intra-personal intelligence
8. Naturalistic intelligence and
9. Existential intelligence

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Sociology Important Questions Chapter 1 Introduction to Indian Society Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Sociology Important Questions Chapter 1 Introduction to Indian Society

1A. Complete the following statements by choosing the correct alternative given in the brackets and rewrite it.

Question 1.
Law of _________ is also known as the law of cause and effect. (artha, dharma, karma)
Answer:
karma

Question 2.
_________ is the ultimate goal of salvation according to Hinduism. (Moksha, Artha, karma)
Answer:
Moksha

Question 3.
_________ refers to the acquisition of wealth through the path of righteousness through hard work. (Moksha, Artha, karma)
Answer:
Artha

Question 4.
Ahimsa and tapas are integral components of the _________ way of life. (Jain, Hindu, Buddhist)
Answer:
Jain

Question 5.
The society in the _________ Vedic period was less rigid with respect to occupation-based divisions. (Later, Early, Medieval)
Answer:
Early

Question 6.
_________ advocated an austere and strict lifestyle based on penance. (Jainism, Buddhism, Hinduism)
Answer:
Jainism

Question 7.
_________ is the sacred literature of Buddhism. (Puranas, Tripitkas, Vedas)
Answer:
Tripitkas

Question 8.
_________ promoted the spread of Buddhism across ancient Asia. (Akbar, Harshvardhan, Ashoka)
Answer:
Ashoka

Question 9.
The _________ period is the period of history of ancient peninsular India. (Ancient, Sangham, Vedic)
Answer:
Sangham

Question 10.
_________ do not permit proselytisation. (Zoroastrianism, Judaism, Islam)
Answer:
Zoroastrianism

Question 11.
The _________ movement brought religious reform in Hinduism during the medieval period. (Peasant, Tribal, Bhakti)
Answer:
Bhakti

Question 12.
Some important exponents of _________ are Kabir, Rahim and Guru Nanak. (Jainism, Sufism, Buddhism)
Answer:
Sufism

Question 13.
During the early Vedic period, those women who pursued their education until they were married were known as _________ (Sadyavadhu, Brahmavadinis, Sola Sati)
Answer:
Sadyavadhu

Question 14.
In the _________ Vedic period, the caste system became entrenched. (Early, Later, Medieval)
Answer:
Later

Question 15.
The _________ Vedic period witnessed a decline in the status of women in society. (Early, Later, Medieval)
Answer:
Later

Question 16.
_________ Jains believe that the principle of nudity is an essential element in the path of liberation. (Digambara, Swetambara, Hinayana)
Answer:
Digambara

Question 17.
The _________ learnt the art of warfare and administration. (Shudras, Kshatriyas, Brahmins)
Answer:
Kshatriyas

Question 18.
Education during the medieval period is centred on the _________ (Vedas, Bible, Quran)
Answer:
Quran

Question 19.
_________ included comprehensive study of the Quran. (Maktabs, Madrasas, Khanqahs)
Answer:
Madrasas

Question 20.
_________ literature makes reference to tribes and traditional castes. (Sangham, Vedic, Puranic)
Answer:
Sangham

Question 21.
_________ referred to the four stages in the life of a Hindu. (Purusharthas, Ashramvyavastha, Varna)
Answer:
Ashramvyavastha

Question 22.
Path of knowledge is _________ marg. (Bhatki, Jnana, Raja)
Answer:
Juana

Question 23.
Sadhus are people who choose the path of _________ (Bhatki, Jnana, Asceticism)
Answer:
Asceticism

Question 24.
The _________ Dynasty believed to be the “Golden Age”. (Maurya, Gupta, Kushan)
Answer:
Gupta

Question 25.
_________ wrote on astronomy and astrology during the classical period. (Aryabhatta, Varahamihira, Dhanvantri)
Answer:
Varahamihira

Question 26.
_________ wrote on medicine during the classical period. (Aryabhatta, Varahamihira, Dhanvantri)
Answer:
Dhanvantri

Question 27.
_________ wrote on geometry and cosmology. (Aryabhatta, Varahamihira, Dhanvantri)
Answer:
Aryabhatta

Question 28.
During the _________ society experienced a synthesis of Indian and Islamic culture. (Maurya dynasty, Gupta dynasty, Delhi Sultanate)
Answer:
Delhi Sultanate

Question 29.
_________ gave India a strong and stable political administration. (Akbar, Ashoka, Chandragupta Maurya)
Answer:
Akbar

Question 30.
_________ is referred to as first urbanisation. (Harappa, Mesopotamia, Malwa)
Answer:
Harappa

Question 31.
The small Indo-Aryan chieftaincies are called _________ (Mahajanpadas, Janapadas, Republics)
Answer:
Janapadas

Question 32.
In the year _________ the Suez Canal was opened to promote trade interests. (1869, 1969, 1828)
Answer:
1869

Question 33.
The _________ century saw the emergence of the Indian National Congress. (18th, 19th, 20th)
Answer:
19th

Question 34.
The abrogation of Article _________ in August 2019 gave special status to Jammu and Kashmir. (371, 370, 374)
Answer:
370

Question 35.
The Juvenile Justice Act was passed in the year _________ (2019, 2015, 2005)
Answer:
2015

Question 36.
The Transgender Persons Act was passed in the year _________ (2019, 2015, 2005)
Answer:
2019

1B. Correct the incorrect pair and rewrite it.

Question 1.
(a) Doing one’s duties – Dharma
(b) Sensuous pleasure – Kama
(c) Acquisition of wealth – Dharma
(d) Ultimate goal of salvation – Moksha
Answer:
(c) Acquisition of wealth – Artha

Question 2.
(a) Priests, teachers, intellectuals – Brahmin
(b) Rulers and warriors – Jajman
(c) Menial work – Shudra
(d) Traders, farmers – Vaishya
Answer:
(b) Rulers and warriors – Kshatriya

Question 3.
(a) Studenthood and celibacy – Brahmacharyaashram
(b) Householder – Grihasthashram
(c) Hermithood and retirement – Dharmashastras
(d) Renunciation – Sanyasashram
Answer:
(c) Hermithood and retirement – Vanaprasthashram

Question 4.
(a) Path of Knowledge – Moksha Marg
(b) Path of Devotion – Bhakti Marg
(c) Path of Meditation – Raja Marg
(d) Path of Action – Karma
Answer:
(a) Path of Knowledge – Jnana Marg

Question 5.
(a) Skyclad – Digambaras
(b) White clad – Shvetambaras
(c) Lesser vehicle – Hinayana
(d) Greater vehicle – Vajarayan
Answer:
(d) Greater vehicle – Mahayana

Question 6.
(a) Advisory and supervisory powers – Sangham priests
(b) Nomadic ballad singers – Khema
(c) Hunter and highway robbers – Vedars
(d) Warrior section – Marrakudi
Answer:
(b) Nomadic ballad singers – The Bards

Question 7.
(a) Sultans and their relatives – Aristocrats and nobles
(b) Ulemas and Brahmin – Peasants
(c) Urban wealthy merchants, traders – Townspeople
(d) Rural agriculturalists – Peasants
Answer:
(b) Ulemas and Brahmin – Priests

Question 8.
(a) Brahmo Samaj – Raja Rammohan Roy
(b) Arya Samaj – Swami Dayanand Saraswati
(c) Prathana Samaj – Mahatma Jyotirao Phule
(d) Harijan Sevak Sangh – Mahatma Gandhi
Answer:
(c) Prathana Samaj – Aatmaram Pandurang

Question 9.
(a) The Sati Prohibition Act – 1829
(b) The Indian Slavery Act – 1843
(c) The Caste Disabilities Removal Act – 1850
(d) The Hindu Widow Remarriage Act – 1870
Answer:
(c) The Hindu Widow Remarriage Act – 1856

1C. Identify the appropriate term from the given options in the box and rewrite it against the given statement.

Puranas, Purusharthas, Jati System, Vardhaman Mahavir, Sola Sati, Ardhamagadhi, Jainism, Holy Sabbath, Din-i-Ilahi, Langar, Brahmo Samaj, Social Legislations, Dr. B. R. Ambedkar, Viharas, Buddhism, Animism, Guru Granth Sahib, Lopamudra

Question 1.
Tribal belief system.
Answer:
Animism

Question 2.
Code of Conduct based on the Law of Karma.
Answer:
Puranas

Question 3.
The four aims of Hindu life.
Answer:
Purusharthas

Question 4.
It is based on the principle of “purity and pollution”.
Answer:
Jati system

Question 5.
24th Tirthankar of Jainism.
Answer:
Vardhaman Mahavir

Question 6.
The language of teachings of Mahavir.
Answer:
Ardhamagadhi

Question 7.
It advocated an austere and strict lifestyle based on penance.
Answer:
Jainism

Question 8.
It spread because of the patronage of the Mauryan emperor, Ashoka.
Answer:
Buddhism

Question 9.
A sacred observance of Jews.
Answer:
Holy Sabbath

Question 10.
A religion started by Akbar.
Answer:
Din-i-Ilahi

Question 11.
The sacred literature of Sikhs.
Answer:
Guru Granth Sahib

Question 12.
The Punjabi term for a community kitchen.
Answer:
Langar

Question 13.
One of the notable Vedic and Upanishadic woman scholars.
Answer:
Lopamudra

Question 14.
It highlights exemplary religious qualities which are emulated as role models by Jain women.
Answer:
‘Sola Sati’

Question 15.
Buddhist monasteries.
Answer:
Viharas

Question 16.
It refers to laws passed to promote social justice.
Answer:
Social Legislation

1D. Correct underlined words and complete the statement.

Question 1.
Widow remarriage was permitted in the Later Vedic period.
Answer:
Widow remarriage was permitted in the Early Vedic period.

Question 2.
The Yajur Veda states that “all classes have an equal right to study the Veda”.
Answer:
The Atharva Veda states that “all classes have an equal right to study the Veda”.

Question 3.
Those who never married and continued studying and imparting education throughout their lives were known as Sadyavadhu.
Answer:
Those who never married and continued studying and imparting education throughout their lives were known as Brahmavadinis.

Question 4.
Puducherry had gained prominence and formed the base of the Mauryan Empire.
Answer:
Magadha had gained prominence and formed the base of the Mauryan Empire.

Question 5.
The drainage system is one indicator of the collective life of the Harrapan people.
Answer:
The Great Bath is one indicator of the collective life of the Harrapan people.

Question 6.
Great Traditions include folk art, folklore, and the religious traditions of the local people.
Answer:
Little Traditions include folk art, folklore, and the religious traditions of the local people.

Question 7.
The period c.500 BCE to c.200 BCE is considered the period of First urbanization’.
Answer:
The period c.500 BCE to c.200 BCE is considered the period of Second urbanization’.

Question 8.
The Portuguese entered India for trade in the 17th century CE.
Answer:
The Portuguese entered India for trade in the 16th century CE.

Question 9.
The implementation of the Judiciary system during the time of the British was carried out on a traditional basis.
Answer:
The implementation of the Judiciary system during the time of the British was carried out on a secular basis.

Question 10.
The Wahabi Movement was the Initiative of Behramji Malabari.
Answer:
The Wahabi Movement was the Initiative of Syed Waliullah.

Question 11.
The Constituent Assembly of India was founded on 6th December 1947.
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly of India was founded on 6th December 1946.

Question 12.
The Female Infanticide Prevention Act was passed in the year 1870.
Answer:
The Female Infanticide Prevention Act was passed in the year 1872.

Question 13.
The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act was enacted in the year 1920.
Answer:
The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act was enacted in the year 1985.

Question 14.
The economic growth of India until recently was guided by Planned Development, through ten Five-Year Plans till 2017.
Answer:
The economic growth of India until recently was guided by Planned Development, through twelve Five-Year Plans till 2017.

2. Write short notes.

Question 1.
Education during the Later Vedic period.
Answer:
During the Later Vedic period, women were denied access to the Upanayana ceremony, which then denied them access to learning. There was an emphasis on the institution of sacrifice and this led to the growth of large amounts of literature related to sacrifice. The first millennium CE saw the disintegration of tribal units and chieftains were overthrown. In this situation of hopelessness emerges asceticism as a means for salvation from worldly life which was now preached by the Upanishads.

In eastern parts of India, there was the rise of free speculation and the emergence of humanitarian and theistic movements, which in turn led to new centers of spiritual leadership – the ascetics and wanderers (Sramanas or Parivrayakas) who rejected the authority of the Vedas and of Vedic priests. They criticized blood sacrifices which became a part of Brahminic ritual and gave importance to the practice of ahimsa or non-injury of living beings.

After Mahavir became a Kevalin (omniscient), a Jina (conqueror), and Mahavir (a great hero), he now became part of the sect called Nirgranthas, which came to be referred to as Jainas (following of Jina). Mahavir was a religious teacher for three decades.

Buddha borrowed and adapted from the popular beliefs of the region. The Buddhist system of education was conducted through Buddhist monasteries (viharas). The center of the Buddhist system of learning revolved around the Order (Sangh) of monks (bhikkus); later Buddha permitted the entry of women as nuns (bhikkhunis). Religious instruction was imparted in the viharas and like the Brahmanical system of education, there was a special relationship between the learner and teacher; the student had to live with the teacher (Upajjhaya or Acharya) and serve him.

Just as Vedic culture centred on sacrifices, Buddhist education and learning revolved around monasteries. Education in the Sangham period was a widespread social activity. It was a secular factor and not the privilege of any one community. Works on grammar, poetry, mathematics, astronomy, and fine arts (music, dance, drama, painting, sculpture), and architecture were the specializations.

The decline of Buddhist Viharas resulted in the decline of an organized system of education.

Question 2.
Nature of education during Medieval Period.
Answer:
Education during the Medieval Period is centred on the Quran. Without the ability to read and write, it would have been impossible to study the Quran, the Hadith, and other sciences. The Prophet Mohammed exhorts all people of faith to acquire knowledge.

However, unlike the previous systems of learning, there was no requirement for the strictness associated with Vedic schools nor renunciation (rejection) of the world. The Islamic system of education is open to all followers of the faith irrespective of one’s status.

Education was imparted in three ways:

• Maktab (for elementary education)
• Madrasa (for higher learning and generally attached to a mosque)
• Khanqah (theological training)

Maktabs had an age of admission around four years, which was marked by a religious ceremony. Early training focused on the R’s of learning – reading, recitation, writing, and arithmetic. The study of the Quran would start from around age seven.

Madrasas included a comprehensive study of the Quran and its commentary by established theologians alongside practical subjects like agriculture, accountancy, astrology, astronomy history, geography, mathematics, Islamic law and jurisprudence and statecraft i.e., the art of administration) and languages such as Arabic and Persian. Akbar enabled the study of Sanskrit and Upanishads for Hindu students who wished to learn at the Madrasa. The education was based upon the political, social and economic needs of the community at large. Students had the freedom to choose subjects according to one’s interests and their aims in life.

Post-madrasa training could be followed up by engaging the services of a learned teacher (for example, Abdul Qadir Badaoni, Abul Fazl, Faizi). Madrasas provided facilities for residence for both, students and teachers. In this regard, they were similar to Buddhist Viharas and temple colleges of South India from after the 7th century CE. Khanqahs can be linked to monasteries of Medieval Europe and they were often linked to the tombs of celebrated, much loved, and respected saints. These came to be regarded as Dargahs.

In the course of time, the arts themselves came to be influenced by the tast.es, ideas, and interests of the patrons, namely, Muslim rulers in Medieval India.

During the Medieval Period, education suffered a setback due to changed political circumstances. Educational work was carried out in the villages and towns by private individuals and institutions. The mediums of instruction were Sanskrit, Arabic, and Persian. Education, however, was made available to only a small section of people e.g., the elite and the ulema, the Brahmins, and a few upper caste groups. The education of girls was perceived as being a personal matter to be decided by their fathers or guardians. Women from the Muslim nobility were permitted to receive education in their homes at the hands of teachers who were presented with expensive gifts. Since, only a relatively small number of people belonging to the upper strata of society, it is reasonable to assume that the education of girls and women during the Medieval period was bleak.

Question 3.
Urbanisation during the ancient and medieval periods.
Answer:
The archaeological evidence from the Harappan civilization suggests that Harappa was indeed a well-planned town with a ‘way of life that can be referred to as ‘first urbanisation’. The city had a covered drainage system and a well-developed drainage system underground. The social conditions were well-advanced like other contemporary civilizations.

Towards the end of the Later Vedic period, after the pastoral and nomadic Indo-Aryans spread from Punjab to the Gangetic Plain; they deforested large areas of land to pave way for agriculture.

The period c.500 BCE to c.200 BCE is considered the period of ‘second urbanisation’ which brought a large-scale beginning of town life in the middle Gangetic basin. Magadha had gained prominence and formed the base of the Mauryan Empire.

Sixteen monarchies and “republics” known as Mahajanpadas, stretched across the Indo- Gangetic Plain from modern-day Afghanistan to Bengal and Maharashtra.

This period saw the second major rise of urbanism in India after the Harappan civilisation. Evidence for it comes through archaeological excavations, especially those of the Northern Black Polished Ware (NBPW) culture. Jain, Buddhist, and Sutra literature are among the important sources of information about cities and socio-political life of this period.

The beginning of coinage (metallic coins) started in this period. These cities became the centres of administration as well as of trade and commerce. This led to the emergence of city-based artisan and merchant guilds. A network of routes for internal and distant trade developed in both eastern and western regions. The position of ‘king’ gained much strength and respect the king was assisted by ministers and officials, who often came from the Brahmin and Kshatriya caste.

Question 4.
Religious beliefs and practices during the ancient and medieval periods.
Answer:
The impact of three ancient indigenous religions – Hinduism, Jainism, and Buddhism are significant especially up to the end of the Later Vedic period. The Vedic period is usually divided into – Early Vedic Period (c.1500 BCE to c.1000 BCE) and the Later Vedic Period (c.1000 BCE to c.500 BCE).

For Hindus, the Puranas and Dharmashastras laid out a Code of Conduct based on the Law of Karma (Action) rebirth, until it can attain moksha (salvation). The four aims of Hindu life (Purusharthas) are:

• Dharma
• Kama
• Artha
• Moksha

Jainism is said to have been revealed by 24 Tirthankaras of which Vardhaman Mahavir was the last. Similar to the Hindu Doctrine of Karma, Jain teachings are also based on the Theory of Karma. However, ahimsa (non-harming) and tapas (penance) are important and integral components of the Jain way of life. Buddha, with his teachings, advocated the middle path based on the Four Noble Truths and the Eightfold Path.

The Medieval Period (c. 650 CE – c. 1500 CE), saw several religions come to India from outside. These include Judaism, Christianity, Islam, and much later Zoroastrianism. The Sangham Period (6th century BCE to 3rd century CE) is the period of the history of ancient peninsular India.

The roots of Zoroastrianism are found in the Middle East region. People of the Jewish faith are believed to be one of the early foreign religions to come to India. It is in the 1st century CE that Saint Thomas, an Apostle of Jesus Christ, brought Christianity to the shores of Malabar in South India the essential foundation of the Christian faith is the principle of love and all Christians believe in the Death and Resurrection of Jesus Christ, their Saviour.

Islam first came to India in the 8th century CE, the impact and influence of the religion is seen only much later. Like Judaism and Christianity, Islam also preaches monotheism, and the faith centers on the Holy Quran. Muslims believe in the Five Pillars of Faith.

Sikhism emerged in the late 15th century CE and was founded by Guru Nanak (1469 CE – 1539 CE). Like Hinduism, Jainism, and Buddhism, Sikhism too preached the Karma theory.

The Bhakti Movement emerged with the need to bring religious reform in Hinduism during the medieval period.

Question 5.
The Islamic system of education.
Answer:
The Islamic system of education is open to all followers of the faith irrespective of one’s status.

Education was imparted in three ways:

• Maktab (for elementary education)
• Madrasa (for higher learning and generally attached to a mosque), and
• Khanqah (theological training)

Maktabs had an age of admission around four years, which was marked by a rite of entry. Early training focused on the R’s of learning – reading, recitation, writing, and arithmetic.

Several hours were spent on developing the art of writing. The study of the Quran would start from around age seven.

Madrasas included a comprehensive study of the Quran and its commentary by established theologians alongside practical subjects like agriculture, accountancy, astrology, astronomy, history, geography, mathematics, Islamic law and jurisprudence and statecraft (i.e., the art of administration) and languages such as Arabic and Persian (which were languages also taught elsewhere in the contemporary Islamic world). Noted scholar Abul Fazl informs us that Akbar enabled the study of Sanskrit and Upanishads for Hindu students who wished to learn at the Madrasa. The education was based upon the political, social and economic needs of the community at large students had the freedom to choose subjects according to one’s interests and their aims in life.

Khanqahs can be likened to monasteries of Medieval Europe and they were often linked to the tombs of celebrated, much loved, and respected saints. These came to be regarded as Dargahs.

Education of women: Muslim rulers at the imperial capitals at Delhi and Agra did not do anything remarkable for the promotion of the education of women.

The education of girls was perceived as being a personal matter to be decided by their fathers or guardians. Women from the Muslim nobility were permitted to receive education in their homes at the hands of teachers who were presented with expensive gifts.

Art: In the course of time, the arts themselves came to be influenced by the tastes, ideas, and interests of the patrons, namely, Muslim rulers in Medieval India. The mediums of instruction were Sanskrit, Arabic, and Persian. Education, however, was made available to only a small section of people e.g., the elite and the ulema, the Brahmins, and a few upper caste groups.

Question 6.
Zoroastrianism.
Answer:
The roots of Zoroastrianism are found in the Middle East region. Persecution of the people of this faith brought them to the Western coast of India, near present-day Gujarat, into which they culturally assimilated.

Zoroastrianism is the only outside religious community that still practices endogamy; it did not permit proselytization i.e., conversions into their faith. Fire temples are their place of worship and entry into their Fire temples is restricted to members of the community.

It is one of the world’s oldest and continuously practiced religions. It is centered on a dualistic cosmology of good and evil (Heaven and Hell).

Their sacred scripture is Avesta in which it is stated that the supreme creator is Ahura Mazda, from whom Asha (cosmic order) originates. Fire and clean water are agents of ritual purity. The Holy Flame was brought by priests from Persia to Navsari in Gujarat (c. 9th century CE).

While maintaining their strong sense of identity and culture, despite their diminishing numerical strength, Parsis has contributed in all walks of life.

Question 7.
Social life during the ancient and medieval periods.
Answer:
Harappan civilisation was known for its well-planned towns covered drainage system, its granary which was used for storing and trading surplus grain. The Great Bath is one indicator of the collective life of the people. Thus, there were peasants, artisans, traders, fishermen, priests, administrators, artists, weavers, etc.

Sangham literature makes reference to tribes and traditional castes. This indicates their coexistence. Though the Brahmins constituted a numerical minority, they played an important role in the development of Tamilian culture. Sangham priests though not dominating were in the process of assuming advisory and supervisory powers. The Bards (nomadic ballad singers) were a special class. Vedars (hunter and highway robbers) were much feared. The Marrakudi was a separate warrior section that had its own traditions and beliefs. Then, there were the fishermen, salt manufacturers, weavers, agriculturalists, shepherds, and cowherds who were also important.

The Varna System during the Vedic period referred to the social order or class of people. There was flexibility and fluidity with respect to occupation. It was only towards the end of the Vedic period that Varna turned into a rigid jati (caste) hierarchy based on the ideology of purity and pollution.

• Brahmin – priests, teachers, intellectuals
• Kshatriya – rulers, and warriors
• Vaishya – merchants, traders, farmers
• Shudra – menial work

The first three varnas began to call themselves the upper varnas. They became the ‘twice-born (dvija) because they were entitled to the initiation ceremony (upanayana).

Ashramvyavastha was prescribed for the so-called twice-born castes. This referred to the four stages in the life of a Hindu.

• Brahmacharyashram – Student hood, single status, and celibacy
• Grihasthashram – Householder
• Vanaprasthashram – hermithood and retirement.
• Sanyasashram – renunciation

The Classical Period (i.e. the period of the Gupta Dynasty) believed to be the ‘Golden Age, is when Indian society grew and thrived, setting the foundations in arts, science, politics, religion, philosophy, and economics that define Indian culture to this day. It became a global trade center arid an epicenter of artistic and intellectual achievement. Eventually, the smaller kingdoms broke away. This allowed the Huns of Central Asia to invade and defeat the Gupta dynasty around 550 CE and finally, the classical period declined by 650 CE.

Many texts (Nitishastras and Dharmashastras) were written during a period of ‘second urbanisation’, which elaborated on socio-political laws.

The Medieval Period of India witnessed the Muslim invasion of India’s material resources. During the Delhi Sultanate, society experienced a synthesis of Indian and Islamic culture Amir Khusro, used a form of Hindustani, which he called Hindavi. At the same time, the Delhi Sultanate was also responsible for the large-scale destruction and desecration of temples.

During this period also, a rigid caste system was followed. Efforts of Emperor Akbar gave India a strong and stable political administration.

The Medieval Period is often stated to be the darkest period in the history of India however, there emerged several changes that transformed Indian society also. Performing arts, architecture and sculpture flourished alongside internal and foreign trade and commerce. The establishment of Din-I-Ilahi by Akbar was a new religion based on ethical rationalism. Towards the 19th century CE there emerged a widening gap between liberals and orthodox groups from various faiths.

3. Write differences.

Question 1.
Status of women in the Early Vedic period and medieval period.
Answer:

Status of women in the Early Vedic period	Status of women in the Medieval period
(i) Status: Indian women enjoyed a high status during the early Vedic period.	(i) Status: The status of women deteriorated in Medieval India.
(ii) Education: Women during the Early Vedic period had access to Vedic education.	(ii) Education: Only women from upper castes and aristocracy were given education in private.
(iii) Access of Knowledge: There were qualified women and some notable Vedic and Upanishadic women scholars during the early Vedic period.	(iii) Access of Knowledge: Knowledge of the scriptures and literacy was denied to Women and her status was reduced to being dependent on men.
(iv) Widow Remarriage: Widow remarriage was permitted in the Vedic period.	(iv) Widow Remarriage: Widow remarriage was considered taboo.
(v) Marriage: The main form of marriage was Monogamy and women in early Vedic marriage could marry late or decide not to marry.	(v) Marriage: Practices of child marriage, sati, and devadasi system, the customs of polygamy, and early marriage made women the objects of exploitation.
(vi) Freedom: Women were considered as useful and productive members of society and they were given the freedom to choose their life partners for marriage.	(vi) Freedom: Freedom of women was curtailed and was reduced to being dependent on men throughout her lifetime.

Question 2.
Buddhism and Jainism.
Answer:

Buddhism	Jainism
(i) Founder: The founder of Buddhism is Gautama Buddha.	(i) Founder: The founder of Jainism is Vardhaman Mahavir.
(ii) Teaching: The teachings of Gautam Buddha were in the language of the common people, Pali.	(ii) Teaching: The teachings of Mahavira were in the language of the common people, Ardhamagadhi.
(iii) Sacred books: The Sacred book of Buddhists is Tipitaka.	(iii) Sacred books: The Sacred books of Jains is Agamas.
(iv) Principles: Buddhism advocated the middle path based on the Four Noble Truths and the Eightfold Path.	(iv) Principles: Jainism preached (1) Ahimsa (2) Satya (3) Asteya (4) Aparigraha.

4. Explain the following concepts with examples.

Question 1.
Social Reform Movements
Answer:
It was the educated Indians, often from the upper social strata, who campaigned the agenda for change at the micro-socio levels. The 19th century is witness to the emergence of many social and religious reform movements.

All these groups struggled to bring about changes at the local level in which they operated. They aimed in solving social problems which were socio-religious-cultural in nature.

They worked towards reforming obsolete, repressive, and regressive religious practices. The urge for reform was generated largely as a result of their interaction with the West.

Many groups worked to promote education among the ‘weaker sections – especially women and so-called lower castes. Organisations like the Arya Samaj aimed at restoring Vedic traditions and integrating Vedic knowledge with the modern curriculum.

Examples of some movements of social reforms:

• Brahmo Samaj – Raja Rammohan Roy
• Arya Samaj – Swami Dayanand Saraswati
• Prathana Samaj – Aatmaram Pandurang
• Harijan Sevak Sangh – Mahatma Gandhi
• Theosophical Society – Annie Besant

Question 2.
Westernisation
Answer:
Many of the educated elite took to the lifestyle of the British with respect to food habits, dressing, customs, mannerisms, attitudes, beliefs, language, sports, and entertainment, etc. Eminent Indian sociologist, M. N. Srinivas referred to this process of imitation of the British, as ‘Westerisation’.

The impact of Western culture has been classified into four types by Alatas. They are :

• eliminative changes (i.e., fading out of cultural elements)
• additive changes (i.e., new cultural additions)
• supportive changes (i.e., changes that support existing cultural traits)
• synthetic changes (i.e., the synthesis of old and new culture)

Examples: Drinking tea and coffee, changes in eating habits, using the dining table, crockery, and cutlery, hugging and kissing as a form was adopted universally, western sports like cricket, became popular.

5A. Complete the concept map.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Question 4.

Answer:

Question 5.

Answer:

Question 6.

Answer:

5B. State whether the following statements are True or False with reasons.

Question 1.
The Bhakti Movement brought religious reform to Hinduism during the medieval period.
Answer:
This statement is True.

The Bhakti Movement rejected the caste system. It criticized excessive ritualism and advocated simplicity in worship. It professed that all human beings were equal in the eyes of God. The focus was on devotional singing and the repetition of his name.

Sufism also preached the unity of humanity and believed in the equality of all human beings in the eyes of God. Some important exponents of this are Kabir, Rahim, and Guru Nanak. Kabir and Rahim denounced external observances of religion such as rituals, superstitious practices, idolatry. Guru Nanak decried the caste system, ritualism, and idol worship.

Bhakti Movement in Maharashtra began in the 13th century CE with Dnyaneshwar. Namdev was his contemporary who criticized fasts, pilgrimages, and all other external forms of religious practices.

Question 2.
After Independence, the goals and programmes of the country have not seen many changes.
Answer:
This statement is False.

After Independence, the goals and programmes of the country have seen numerous changes. Some significant factors that have affected India after 1947.

Constitution of India:

• The Constitution of India was framed by the Constituent Assembly which was founded on 6th December 1946 to write the Constitution of India.
• The head of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution was Dr. B. R. Ambedkar.
• It is a document based on the strengths of the diversity of Indian society. It cherishes the goals of liberty, equality, and fraternity. It supports secularism.
• There have been numerous amendments to the Indian Constitution. A recent change has been the abrogation of Article 370 in August 2019 which gave special status to Jammu and Kashmir.

Economy: The economic growth of India recently was guided by Planned Development, through twelve Five-Year Plans till 2017. Each plan period has had its own objectives. It was in 1991, globalisation was introduced in India which has its share of positives and negative sides.

Since 2014, changes such as demonetization, single taxation policy under GST, welfare schemes, borderless trade practices, Swachh Bharat drives, promoting entrepreneurship, etc. have been key points.

Education: There has been a significant expansion of the number of anganwadis, schools, universities, deemed universities, autonomous institutions, IITs (Indian Institute of Technology), IIMs (Indian Institute of Management), IIITs (Indian Institute of Information Technology), NITs (National Institute of Technology), vocational programmes, open learning, online education, self-learning opportunities and so on.

• Enrolment numbers have been swelling beyond control in several cases.
• The number of teachers has also risen.
• The Draft New Education Policy has been formulated in 2019.

Question 3.
India is the most populous democracy in the world. –
Answer:
This statement is True.

In Post-Independent India, we have taken on a system of governance based on the principle of democracy. The three arms of government are the Executive, Assembly Legislature as well as Judiciary. We have the principle of democratic decentralization where power percolates down to the grassroots level.

The Indian political system no longer recognizes the former statuses of prince, nawab, raja or rani. All citizens are equal in the eyes of law. Modern India has embraced the principles and practice of free and fair elections. Voting rights are given to all citizens of India, on the attainment of age 18. India also has a multi-party system – and parties may be national, state or regional in character. Individuals also have the right to contest in elections. We also have a federal system of governance – Centre, and State/Union Territory.

The goals, policies, and agenda of each government are guided by its own principles or ideologies. There are differences and multiple views (for example, Left, Right, and Centre). The role of the opposition is the responsibility of keeping a check on the government in power. Consensus is an important value in a democratic society. Thus, India is the most populous democracy in the world.

6. Give your personal response.

Question 1.
India is a melting pot of culture.
Answer:

• India is a melting pot of many cultures and traditions, It is endowed with rich traditions of art, craft, culture, and cuisine, We have assimilated cultures of all civilizations that have come to our shores.
• Indian society is formed by the incorporation of culture followed by Indians since ancient times.
• Undoubtedly, Indian culture is one of the oldest existing cultures in the world. With each passing decade, it’s evolving.
• Western culture has also influenced Indian society. It has led to a few advancements, but at the same time, has caused Indians to disconnect from their roots rapidly.

7. Answer the following question in detail in about 150-200 words.

Question 1.
Discuss with relevant examples, consequences of Colonialism in India with respect to the following factors.
(i) Introduction of the new education system
(ii) Introduction of new administration system
(iii) Introduction of new7 economic system
(iv) Introduction of Transport and Communication
(v) Nationalist Movement
Answer:
(i) Introduction of the new education system: The British set up a system of education that had a far-reaching impact on Indian society. The medium of instruction in high school now became English. It became the common language of communication among the learned people. Schools and colleges were open to all individuals, irrespective of caste, creed, gender, etc.

The Indian Universities Act, 1856, enabled the establishment of the first universities in Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras. The content of education was secular – which included subjects like Mathematics, Science, Philosophy, Sociology, History, etc. This led to the rise of a new class of intelligentsia, who were of Indian origin but trained in ‘Western’ values customs, and practices. Some of them played a significant role in the reform movements. New values like rationality, equality, social justice, secular approach, and individualism gained firmer ground.

(ii) Introduction of new administration system: The British set in place new systems of administration. They started the system of services like the Economic Service, Education Service, Revenue Service, and Administrative Service. A new judiciary system was created, which took into consideration the earlier legal traditions of the Indian communities.

However, its implementation was carried out on a secular basis; each individual was judged on an equal basis, irrespective of one’s caste and creed. The authority of feudal lords and zamindars was abolished.
The Indian Councils Act, The Indian High Court Act, and The Indian Civil Service Act of 1861 all led to major changes in the Executive, Legislative and Judicial administration of India.

(iii) Introduction of new economic system: The economic system got transformed by industrial growth and its twin process of urbanization. Caste-based skills and occupations and, social relationships were gradually changing due to the impact of a changing economy and the rise of factories. The emergence of economic and educated classes was on the rise. New Revenue systems were started by the British in different parts of India which affected the peasants adversely.

(iv) Introduction of Transport and Communication: Systems of railways and roadways, and, Post and Telegraph offices were set up through the length and breadth of the country. These were ways in which it became possible to reach people in all parts of the country and access resources. In 1869, the Suez Canal was opened to promote trade interests. Development of transportation and communication led to an increase in market outlets for Indian raw materials.

(v) Nationalist Movement: Use of English as a common language of communication among. the educated elite played a significant role in networking, the nationalist movement received momentum. The awakening among the Indian masses against alien rule resulted in the call for the expulsion of the British from India and to fight for independence. The 19th century saw the emergence of the Indian National Congress and Mahatma Gandhi as the key figure in the call for independence.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 1 Psychology: A Scientific Discipline Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Psychology Important Questions Chapter 1 Psychology: A Scientific Discipline

Choose the correct option and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
……………………. was the school of thought in psychology that focused on the power of free will towards self-actualization.
(a) Humanistic Psychology
(b) Behaviourism
(c) Structuralism
Answer:
(a) Humanistic Psychology

Question 2.
………………….. method is the most objective and scientific method used in Psychology.
(a) Correlation
(b) Experimental
(c) Survey
Answer:
(b) Experimental

Question 3.
A pre-determined set of respondents on whom the survey is conducted is called the ……………..
(a) variable
(b) coefficient
(c) sample
Answer:
(c) sample

Question 4.
………………… is the qualitative research method extensively used by clinical psychologists.
(a) Observation
(b) Survey Method
(c) Case study method
Answer:
(c) Case study method

Question 5.
Correlation between Urbanization and Pollution will be ………………
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) zero
Answer:
(a) positive

Question 6.
The value of negative correlation is …………………..
(a) 0.00 to-0.50
(b)-1.00 to 0.00
(c) 0.00 to-1.00
Answer:
(c) 0.00 to-1.00

Question 7.
Reactions of commuters stuck in heavy traffic can be best studied using the ………………. method.
(a) experimental
(b) case study
(c) observation
Answer:
(c) observation

Question 8.
An experiment is conducted to study the effect of practice on memory. In this, the Independent Variable (I.V)
(a) practice
(b) experiment
(c) memory
Answer:
(a) practice

Question 9.
The method of Introspection was advocated by ……………….
(a) William James
(b) Sigmund Freud
(c) Wilhelm Wundt
Answer:
(c) Wilhelm Wundt

Match the pair

Question 1.

Group ‘P’	Group ‘Q’
Rational Emotive Behavioural Therapy	(a) Jean Piaget
Psychoanalysis	(b) Ivan Pavlov
Humanistic Psychology	(c) Albert Ellis
Case Study Method	(d) Sigmund Freud
	(e) Carl Rogers

Answer:

Group ‘P’	Group ‘Q’
Rational Emotive Behavioural Therapy	(c) Albert Ellis
Psychoanalysis	(d) Sigmund Freud
Humanistic Psychology	(e) Carl Rogers
Case Study Method	(a) Jean Piaget

State whether the following statements are true or false.

Question 1.
Functionalism focused on the study of human consciousness.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
A sample is a tentative supposition which attempts to explain some facts.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Experiments in psychology cannot be repeated.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
The Dependent Variable is manipulated by the experimenter.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Rational individuals are more likely to be tolerant and show flexibility.
Answer:
True

Answer the following in one sentence each.

Question 1.
What is meant by Dependent Variable?
Answer:
Dependent Variable is the change in behaviour that occurs in the participants as a result of the Independent Variable introduced by the experimenter.

Question 2.
Write the tools employed in the survey method.
Answer:
Survey method employs tools like questionnaires, check lists, interview, inventories and rating scales.

Question 3.
Write the types of correlation.
Answer:
There are three types of correlation, i.e., positive correlation, negative correlation and zero correlation.

Question 4.
What is the focus of Humanistic Psychology?
Answer:
According to Rogers, the focus of Humanistic Psychology is the power of free will, self-determination and self-actualization.

Question 5.
What sources does case study rely on?
Answer:
Case study provides descriptive information about the person from sources such as family, peers, neighbours, teachers, academic records, health records and results of psychological tests.

Question 6.
What does rationality mean?
Answer:
According to Stanovich, “Rationality involves adaptive reasoning, good judgment and good decision making.”

Question 7.
Which two schools of thought in Psychology were replaced by Cognitivism during the 1950’s and 1960’s?
Answer:
Psychoanalysis and Behaviourism were the two schools of thought in psychology replaced by Cognitivism during the 1950’s and 1960’s.

Write short notes on the following in 50 – 60 words each.

Question 1.
Elaborate the key features of a science.
Answer:
The word science is derived from the Latin word ‘Scientia’ which means ‘Knowledge’. Science is the pursuit and application of knowledge and understanding of the natural and social world, following a systematic methodology based on evidence.
The key features of a science are:

1. Empirical evidence – It refers to acquiring information through direct observation or experiments. Scientific knowledge is based on verifiable evidence.
2. Objectivity – This refers to the ability to observe and accept facts as they exist, setting aside all sources of expectations, values, prejudices, etc.
3. Scientific causality – Science aims to establish cause-effect between the variables under consideration, i.e., the effect of the Independent Variable on the Dependent Variable.
4. Systematic exploration – Science adopts a sequential procedure for studying various phenomena. It includes scientific steps like formulating a hypothesis, collection of facts, scientific generalization, etc.
5. Replication – Scientific knowledge can be replicated under the same circumstances as the original experiment. This ensures reliability of results towards establishing a scientific theory.
6. Predictability – Science involves describing and explaining phenomena as well as to make predictions accordingly.

Question 2.
Explain the correlation method.
Answer:
A correlation refers to a statistical tool used to measure the relationship between two or more variables. If the change in one variable is accompanied by a change in the other variable, this interdependence is called correlation. It is measured by correlation coefficient which extends between -1.00 to +1.00. Direction of correlation can be positive or negative.
The types of correlation are:

1. Positive – Both variables move in the same direction i.e., both increase or both decrease. It extends 0.00 to +1.00 for e.g., identical twins reared together showed IQ correlation of +.88.
2. Negative – Variables move in the opposite direction i.e., increase in one variable is associated with a decrease in the other variable. The value of negative correlation is 0.00 to -1.00 for e.g., high level of job satisfaction and low level of absenteeism.
3. Zero – Any change in one variable brings about no significant change in the other variable. Value of coefficient is 0 for e.g., height and intelligence.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Economics Important Questions Chapter 1 Introduction to Micro and Macro Economics Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Economics Important Questions Chapter 1 Introduction to Micro and Macro Economics

1. A. Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
The term ‘Micro’ is derived from the Greek word.
(a) Makros
(b) Maikros
(c) Mikros
(d) Mikrosoft
Options:
(1) a
(2) b
(3) c
(4) d
Answer:
(3) c

Question 2.
The term ‘micro’ and ‘macro’ economics were first coined and used by Norwegian Economist.
(a) Adam Smith
(b) Ragnar Frisch
(c) Dr. Marshall
(d) Prof. Ricardo
Options :
(1) a
(2) b
(3) d
(4) c
Answer:
(2) b

Question 3.
Statements related to features of Micro economics.
(a) The study of individual unit
(b) It deals with income theory
(c) It splits the whole economy
(d) It suggests suitable economic policies to promote economic growth
Options :
(1) a, b, c and d
(2) a and b
(3) a, c and d
(4) b and d
Answer:
(3) a, c and d

Question 4.
Scope of Micro economics.
(a) Theory of factor pricing
(b) Theory of general price level
(c) Theory of product pricing
(d) Theory of economic welfare
Options :
(1) a, b, c and d
(2) a and b
(3) a, c and d
(4) b and d
Answer:
(3) a, c and d

Question 5.
Theory of Economic Welfare.
(a) Efficiency in production
(b) Efficiency in consumption
(c) Overall economic efficiency
(d) Efficiency in social activities
Options :
(1) c and d
(2) a, b and d
(3) a, b and c
(4) b, c and d
Answer:
(3) a, b and c

Question 6.
Main features of macro economics.
(a) Income theory
(b) Lumping method
(c) Price theory
(d) Study of aggregates
Options :
(1) a, b and c
(2) b, c and d
(3) a, b and d
(4) Only b
Answer:
(3) a, b and d

Question 7.
Importance of Micro Economics.
(a) Free market economy
(b) Functioning of an economy
(c) Basis of welfare economy
(d) Foreign Trade
Options :
(1) a, b, c and d
(2) a, b and c
(3) a, b and d
(4) a, c and d
Answer:
(4) a, c and d

Question 8.
Micro Economic is based on certain assumption.
(a) Perfect competition
(b) Pure capitalism
(c) Full employment
(d) Fluctuations in the national income
Options :
(1) b, c and d
(2) c and d
(3) a, b and c
(4) a, c and d
Answer:
(3) a, b and c

Question 9.
Importance of Macro-economics.
(a) National Income
(b) Economic development
(c) Price determination
(d) General level of employment
Options :
(1) b, c and d
(2) a, b and d
(3) a, b, c and d
(4) None of these
Answer:
(2) a, b and d

Question 10.
Scope of Macro economics.
(a) Theory of Income and employment
(b) Theory of General Price level and inflation
(c) Theory of Economic growth and development
(d) Theory of Factor Pricing
Options :
(1) a and b
(2) a, b and c
(3) a, c and d
(4) a, b, c and d
Answer:
(2) a, b and c

Question 11.
Factors of Production which make contribution in production process.
(a) Land
(b) Profit
(c) Labour
(d) Transport
Options :
(1) a, b and c
(2) a and c
(3) b, c and d
(4) All of above
Answer:
(2) a and c

B. Complete the correlation:

1. Macro economic theory : Income and employment:: Micro economics : ………………
2. General equilibrium : Macro economics :: ……………… : Micro economic
3. Macro Economics : Large :: Micro Economics : ………………
4. Classical Economist: ……………… :: Neo-classical Economist: Prof. Alfred Marshall J
5. Prof. Alfred Marshall : Principles of Economics :: ……………… : General theory of Employment, Interest and Money
6. Study of Individual unit: ……………… :: Study of aggregates : Macro economics
7. Theory of Economic welfare : Scope of Micro economics :: ……………… : Scope of Macro economics
8. Land: Rent:: ……………… : Wages
9. Capital: ……………… :: Entrepreneur : Profit
10. ……………… : Demand and Supply Analysis :: Theory of Income and employment : Consumption and Investment function
11. Macro economics : Entire economy :: Micro economics: ………………
12. Study of the whole economy : Lumping ’ method :: Study of small individual unit : ………………
Answers:

1. Price theory
2. Partial equilibrium
3. Small
4. Adam Smith
5. Maynard Keynes
6. Micro economics
7. Theory of Economic growth and development
8. Labour
9. Interest
10. Theory of Product Pricing
11. Small part of economy
12. Slicing method

(C) Give economic terms.

(1) Micro economics derived from the Greek word.
(2) Macro economics derived from the Greek word.
(3) Study of large economic unit.
(4) Study of small or millionth part of economic unit.
(5) Price determination of individual commodity by forces of demand and supply.
(6) Price determination of factor of production for contributing to the production process.
(7) Maximum satisfaction of people due to efficiency in the allocation of resources.
(8) Determination of the prices of goods and services as well as factors of production.
(9) Equal distribution of produce goods and services to the society for consumption.
(10) Production of most desired goods and services.
(11) Equilibrium position of an individual economic unit.
(12) Assumption of Micro economics i.e. other things remaining constant.
(13) Micro economics does not deal with macro problems.
(14) Economic decisions are taken at individual levels without intervention of government.
(15) Explanation of effects of tariffs, exchange rate, etc.
(16) Micro economics explain various complex economic situation with the help of economic models.
(17) Equilibrium position of whole economy.
Answer:
(1) Mikros
(2) Makros
(3) Macro economics
(4) Micro economics
(5) Theory of Product Pricing
(6) Theory of Factor Pricing
(7) Theory of Economic Welfare
(8) Price Theory
(9) Efficiency in Consumption
(10) Overall Economic Efficiency
(11) Partial equilibrium
(12) Ceteris Paribus
(13) Limited scope
(14) Free Market economy
(15) Foreign Trade
(16) Economic Model building
(17) General Equilibrium Analysis

(D) Find the odd word out:

(1) Prof. Pigou, Prof. Samuelson, Adam Smith, J. R. Hicks.
(2) Individual consumer, Individual producer, Particular commodity, Total savings.
(3) Product pricing, Investment function, Factor pricing, Economic welfare.
(4) Efficiency in social activities, Efficiency in production, Efficiency in consumption, Overall economic efficiency.
(5) Price theory, Slicing method, Limited scope, Lumping method.
(6) Aggregate demand, Aggregate supply, Personal income, National income.
(7) National income, National output, National employment, National anthem.
(8) Keynes, Malthus, Fisher, Marshall.
(9) Theory of Economic welfare, Theory of income and employment, Theory of General price level, Theory of Economic growth.
(10) National Income, National Product, Per Capita Income, Gross Salary.
(11) Big, Large, Vast, Tiny.
(12) Microscopic, Massive, Small, Minimum.
(13) Rent, Wages, Capital, Profit.
(14) Land, Labour, Interest, Entrepreneur.
(15) Railways, Reliance, K.E.M. Hospital,
Answer:
(1) Adam Smith
(2) Total savings
(3) Investment
(4) Efficiency in
function social activities
(5) Lumping
(6) Personal income method
(7) National
(8) Marshall anthem
(9) Theory of Economic Income
Welfare
(10) Per Capita
(11) Tiny
(12) Massive
(13) Capital
(14) Interest
(15) Reliance

(E) Complete the following statements.

(1) The term Macro Economics is derived from the Greek word ‘Makros’ which means …………….
(2) The terms ‘Micro economics’ and ‘Macro economics’ were coined by Norwegian Economist …………….
(3) According to Maurice Dobb, Micro economics is in fact a ……………..
(4) The price of all commodity is determined by the forces of …………….
(5) Four main factors contributing to the production process, are …………….
(6) Micro economics deals with the study of behaviour of …………….
(7) Micro economics is based on ‘Ceteris Paribus’ assumptions which means …………….
(8) Micro economics is useful to government in framing …………….
(9) According to Keynes, macro economics is a …………….
(10) Macro economics is known as theory of Income …………….
(11) Macro economics examines the forest …………….
Answer:
(i) study of large unit
(2) Ragnar Frisch
(3) microscopic study of the economy
(4) demand and supply
(5) land, labour, capital and entrepreneur
(6) small individual unit
(7) other things remaining constant
(8) economic policies
(9) policy oriented science
(10) and employment
(11) not a single tree

[F] Choose the wrong pair :

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(1)Macro	Individual unit
(2) Factor pricing	Rent, wages, interest and profit
(3) Ceteris paribus	Other things being constant
(4) Micro	Price theory

Answer:
Wrong pair : Macro – Individual unit

II.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(1) Slicing method	Micro economics
(2) Economic welfare	Overall economic efficiency
(3)Macro economics	Income theory
(4) Maynard Keynes	Microscopic study of economy

Answer:
Wrong pair : Maynard Keynes Microscopic study of economy

III.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(1) Lumping method	Macro economics
(2) Product Pricing	Forces of demand and supply
(3) Micro economics	General equilibrium
(4) National income	Study of aggregate

Answer:
Wrong pair : Micro economics – General equilibrium

IV.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(1) Maynard Keynes	Macro economic approach
(2) Micro	Mikros
(3) Adam Smith	Classical economist
(4) Census	Limited scope

Answer:
Wrong pair : Census – Limited scope

V.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(1) Macro	(a) Makros
(2) Prof. Alfred Marshall	(b) Neo-classical economist
(3) Lumping method	(c) Splits the whole economy
(4) Partial equilibrium	(d) Micro economics

Answer:
Wrong pair : Lumping method – Splits the whole economy

(G) Assertion and Reasoning

Question 1.
Assertion (A) – Micro of a small part of the national economy.
Reasoning (R) – Micro economics divides the economy into small units.
(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(ii) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 2.
Assertion (A) – Micro economics is known as Price theory.
Reasoning (R) – Macro economics is known as Income theory.
(i) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(ii) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Question 3.
Assertion (A) – Macro economics studies overall conditions in the economy.
Reasoning (R) – Micro economics deals with National income and employment.
(i) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(ii) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(i) (A) is true but (R) is false.

Question 4.
Assertion (A) – General equilibrium deals with the behaviour of individual price of commodity.
Reasoning (R) – Lumping method is the study of aggregates.
(i) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(ii) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(ii) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Question 5.
Assertion (A) – Macro economic analyses shows how the general price level is determined.
Reasoning (R) – The study of general price level is important on account of the problems created by inflation and deflation.
(i) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(ii) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 6.
Assertion (A) – In Micro economics decision regarding production of goods can be taken by individual.
Reasoning (R) – Study of macro economics help to understand the problems of developing countries and suggest important steps to achieve economic development.
(i) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(ii) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Question 7.
Assertion (A) – Micro economics is based on assumption of ‘Ceteris paribus’.
Reasoning (R) – Macro economics consists of the story of economic growth and development.
(i) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(ii) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Question 8.
Assertion (A) – Micro economics help to analyse the general level of employment of out put in an economy.
Reasoning (R) – Macro economics helps us to analyse the performance of an economy.
(i) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(ii) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(ii) (A) is false but (R) is true.

(H) Choose the correct pair :

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(1)Macro	(a) Slicing method
(2) Micro	(b) Classical economist
(3) Adam Smith	(c) Neo-classical economist
(4) Prof. Marshall	(d) Inflation
	(e)Lumping method

Answer:
(1)-(e), (2)-(a), (3)-(b), (4) – (c).

II.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(1) Factor of Production	(a) Other things being equal
(2) Ceteris Paribus	(b) Land
(3) Price theory	(c) Micro economics
(4) Lumping method	(d) Profit
	(e)Whole economy

Answer:
(1)-(b), (2) – (a), (3) -(c), (4) -(e).

III.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(1) National Income	(a) Rent, wages, interest, etc.
(2) Factor Pricing	(b) Mikros
(3) Micro	(c) Study of aggregate
(4) Slicing method	(d) Makros
	(e)Splits the whole economy

Answer:
(1)-(c), (2)-(a), (3)-(b), (4)-(e).

IV.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(1) Micro economics	(a) Theory of investment
(2) Macro economics	(b) Key tool of micro economics
(3) Marginalism	(c) Price theory
(4) Aggregate study	(d) Forest
	Income and employment theory

Answer:
(1) – (c), (2) – (e). (3) – (b). (4) – (d).

V.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(1) Maurice Dobb	(a) Principles of Economics
(2) Ragnar Frisch	(b) Policy oriented science
(3) Alfred Marshall	(c) Microscopic study
(4) Adam Smith	(d) Oslo University
	(e) Classical economist

Answer:
(1)-(c), (2)-(d), (3)-(a), (4)-(e).

2.[A] Identify and explain the concept from given illustrations.

Question 1.
Through public distribution system rationing shops distribute goods to poor people.
Answer:
Concept: Efficiency in consumption.
Explanation : Efficiency in consumption means distribution of produced goods and services to the people for consumption for having maximum satisfaction.
Public distribution system is developed specially to help economically weaker section of society to satisfy their consumption.
Rationing shops provide subsidized food and non food items to below poverty line people.

Question 2.
Mukesh divided his departmental J store into two separate divisions i.e. S food grains and garments to find actual profitability separately.
Answer:
Concept: Slicing method.
Explanation : Micro economics splits or divides the whole economy into small individual units and then studies each unit separately in detail.
Mukesh has divided its business into two separate divisions to understand thedetail cost of operations and profitability separately for food business as well as garment business.
Government collect whole information about population through census.
Concept : Lumping method / Macro economics.
Explanation : Macro economics use lumping method to study the whole economy rather than its part.

Question 6.
Government collect whole information about population through census.
Answer:
Concept : Lumping method / Macro economics.
Explanation : Macro economics use lumping method to study the whole economy rather than its part.
Govern ment collects data through census which gives them details about population such as sex ratio, literacy rate, unemployment rate, age composition, etc.

Question 7.
Reliance industries has created more employment opportunities through its biggest oil refinery in Jamnagar and improved the standard of living of its employee.
Answer:
Concept: Economic development. Explanation : Macro economics help to understand the problems of developing countries and suggest important steps to achieve economic development.
Economic development is a growth of the standard of living of people from low income to high income.
Through developing oil refinery Reliance has created numbers of job opportunities and hence improved the standard of living. Amul has fixed price of ₹ 44 per litre of milk after considering the cost such as machinery cost, labour cost, transportation cost, etc.
Concept: Price determination.
Explanation : Micro economics is known as price theory because it deals with determination of the prices of goods and services as well as factors of production. After considering cost of operations such as machinery cost, raw material cost, labour cost, transportation cost, etc. Amul has fixed price of its product (milk).

B. Distinhbish between

Question 1.
Micro Economics and Macro Economics.
Answer:

Micro Economics	Macro Economics
(a) Micro economics deals with the economic behaviour of small units like particular firm, particular household, individual prices, wages, etc.	(a) Macro economics deals with the economic behaviour of large units or entire economy such as National Income, aggregate demand, aggregate supply, etc.
(b) It studies each unit in depth by using slicing method.	(b) It studies the economy as a whole using lumping method.
(c) It is based on partial equilibrium analysis based on assumptions.	(c) It is based on a general equilibrium analysis.
(d) Micro economic analysis is also called as ‘Price theory.’	(d) Macro economic analysis is also called as ‘Income theory.’
(e) Most of the theories are given by Dr. Alfred Marshall.	(e) Theories are profounded by Lord J. M. Keynes.

Question 2.
Micro Variables and Macro Variables.
Answer:

Micro Variables	Macro Variables
(a) Micro variables refer to individual demand, market demand, individual supply, price of a commodity, etc.	(a) Macro variables refer to inflation rate, aggregate demand, aggregate supply, employment.
(b) Micro variables are mostly independent. It does not affect the whole economy, as they are based on assumptions.	(b) Macro Variables are inter related and inter dependent. It affects the working of the economy as a whole.
(c) E.g., Price and Quantity demanded are universally related. This will hold true only if the income of the consumer, taste, fashion, etc., remain constant.	(c) Change in aggregate demand, aggregate supply will affect income, employment, etc. in the economy.

Question 3.
Partial Equilibrium and General Equilibrium.
Answer:

Partial Equilibrium	General Equilibrium
(a) Micro economics uses Partial Equilibrium analysis based on the assumption, other things remaining constant.	(a) Macro economics uses general equilibrium. It is not based on assumption.
(b) Partial Equilibrium studies the equilibrium of a consumer, a firm, an industry or a market.	(b) It deals with the Equilibrium position of the economy as a whole.
(c) It deals with one or two variables at a time. So it is a simple method. It is independent.	(c) It deals with all the variables of the Economic System simultaneously. So it is sophisticated. There is inter dependence.
(d) Partial Equilibrium is regarded as a worm’s eye-view.	(d) General Equilibrium is a bird’s eye-view.

Question 4.
Micro Theory of Distribution and Macro Theory of Distribution.
Answer:

Micro Theory of Distribution	Macro Theory of Distribution.
(a) Micro Theory of distribution refers to distribution of Factor Income to individual factor owners for their contribution to the production of a commodity or service.	(a) Macro theory of distribution refers to distribution of National Income to factors like wages to the labourers, rent to landlords and interest to capitalist.
(b) It is determined by the market forces of demand and supply.	(b) It is determined by the Aggregate demand and Aggregate supply and Employment level in the country.

Question 5.
Slicing Method and Lumping Method.
Answer:

Slicing Method	Lumping Method
(a) In slicing method the entire economy is cut into individual slices and each unit is studied in depth.	(a) In lumping method, we study the economy as a whole without slicing it.
(b) Micro Economics uses the slicing method.	(b) Macro Economics uses the Lumping Method.
(c) In slicing method, in depth study of the behaviour of an individual unit like a household, a firm, a product, a factor is done.	(c) In lumping method, it deals with the behaviour of large aggregates like National Income, aggregate demand, aggregate supply, employment and their functional relationship is studied.
(d) It relates to the in-depth study of a tree and not the study of forest as a whole.	(d) It relates to the study of the forest as a whole and not a particular tree.
(e) Here we achieve a worm’s eye view.	(e) It gives a bird’s eye view of the whole economy.

3. State with reasons whether you agree or disagree with the following statements:

Question 1.
Micro economics is the study of aggregate.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with this statement.
OR Micro economics studies individual economic units.
Yes, I agree with this statement.

• Micro economics is the microscopic study of individual economic units in great detail.
• It deals with individual firms, individual demand and supply, prices of individual, firms, etc.
• But macro-economics deals with economic behaviour of the whole economy with respect to national income, aggregate demand and supply, general price level, etc.
• Hence, micro economics is the study of individual economic units whereas macro economics is the study of aggregates.

Question 2.
Macro economics is a partial equilibrium analysis.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with this statement.
OR
Macro Economics deals with the whole s economy.
Yes, I agree with this statement.

• Macro economics deals with entire economy.
• Macro economics follow general equilibrium analysis. On the other hand, micro economics follow partial equilibrium analysis.
• Macro economics studies the behaviour of number of aggregate economic variables.
• Macro economics follows general equilibrium. It assumes “everything depends on every thing else.”
• General equilibrium deals with the behaviour of demand, supply and prices in the whole economy.
• Therefore, macro economics is not a partial equilibrium analysis but it is a general equilibrium analysis.

Question 8.
Micro economics is useful to the Government.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.
Useful to Government : It is useful in formulating and evaluating economic policies including pricing and distribution policies that promote economic welfare. It is useful in determining tax policy, public, expenditure policy, etc.

Question 9.
The scope of macro economics is wide.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.
(A) Theory of Income and Employment : It ?
explains which factors determine the level of National Income and employment and what causes fluctuations in the level of income, output and employment.
To understand how the level of employment is determined, we have to study the consumption function. It includes theory of business cycles.

(B) Theory of General Price Level and Inflation: Macro economics analyses shows how the general price level is determined and the causes for fluctuations in it. This study is important for understanding the problems created by inflation and deflation.

(C) Theory of Economic Growth and Development : Macro economics studies the causes of under development and poverty in poor countries and suggests strategies for accelerating growth and development in the country.

(D) Macro theory of Distribution : Macro theory of distribution deals with the relative share of rent, wages, interest and profit in the total national income of various classes.

Question 10.
Theories of micro economics are based on certain assumptions.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.
Based on certain ssumption : Micro economics is based on ‘ceteris paribus’ assumption i.e., other things remaining constant like full employment, laissez faire policy, perfect competition, pure capitalism, etc.

Question 11.
Macro economics is also known as income and employment theory.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.
Theory of Income and Employment : It ?
explains which factors determine the level of National Income and employment and what causes fluctuations in the level of income, output and employment.
To understand how the level of employment is determined, we have to study the consumption function. It includes theory of business cycles.

4. Study the following table / figures / passages and answer :

Question 1.
Read the passage and answer the following questions.
The census of 1991 was the fifth census of independent India and conducted as usual from 9th to 28th February, 2001 to present census data as on sunrise of 1st March 2001, the reference date. The two phases were continued in the same way like previous two censuses.

In the first phase a house list was canvassed to collect the information on housing data and also amenities available to the households. The scope of house list was enlarged and for the first time a question regarding type of fuel used for cooking was canvassed. In 1981 the question on availability of toilet facility was canvassed for urban areas only. However, in 1991, it was canvassed for rural area also.
During 2nd phase following two schedules were canvassed, (a) Household schedule and (b) Individual slip

1. Between which dates the census for 2001 was conducted.
Answer:
The census for 2001 was conducted between 9th to 28th February 2001.

2. What information was collected in the first phase of census?
Answer:
In the first phase of census a house list was canvassed for collecting information about housing data and amenities available.

3. Which question was canvassed in 1991?
Answer:
In 1991 question on availability of toilet were canvassed – (a) household schedule and facility was canvassed for rural area. I 03) Individual slip.

4. Which two schedule were canvassed in IInd phase?
Answer:
During IInd phase below two schedules were canvassed –
(a) household schedule and
(b) Individual slip.

Question 2.
Go through the following chart and answer the questions.
Answer:

1. Which are the two main sectors in Indian education system?
Answer:
The two main sectors in Indian education system are (a) Public sector (b) Private sector.

2. What does public sector education system includes?
Answer:
Public sector education system includes public schools, central government funded institutions, state government funded institutions and higher education institutions.

3. Where are multimedia schools positioned in Indian education system?
Answer:
Multimedia school comes under non-formal setup of private sector in Indian education system.

4. What are the setups in private sector educational system?
Answer:
There are two setups in private sector educational system i.e. formal setup and non-formal setup.

Question 3.
Study the below table and answer the given questions.

(1) Which state has the highest literacy [ rate?
Answer:
Kerala has the highest literacy rate of 90.92%.

(2) What is the male literacy rate for1 Maharashtra?
Answer:
For Maharashtra the male literacy rate is 86.27%.

(3) What is difference of female literacy rate between Delhi and Rajasthan?
Answer:
There is a difference of 30-66% as a whole in female literacy rate between Delhi and Rajasthan.

(4) Which states has highest male literacy and lowest female literacy rate?
Answer:
Kerala has the highest male literacy rate of 94.20% and Uttar Pradesh has the lowest female literacy rate of 42.98%.

5. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Explain the scope of Micro economics.
OR
Explain the subject matter of micro economics.
Answer:

(a) Theory of Product Pricing : The price of each commodity is determined by the forces of demand and supply. Micro economics is a study of demand analysis i.e. individual consumer behaviour and supply analysis i.e. individual producer behaviour.
(b) Theory of Factor Pricing : There are four main factors contributing to the production process which are land, labour, capital and entrepreneur. Micro economics helps in determining the factor rewards like land gets rent, labour gets wages, capital gets interest and entrepreneur gets profit.
(c) Theory of Economic Welfare : This theory deals with efficiency in allocation of resources which aim at maximum satisfaction of people. Three economic efficiencies are as follows :

• Efficiency in production: It mean producing the maximum amount of goods and services from a given amount of goods and j services from a given amount of resources.
• Efficiency in consumption: It means distribution of produce goods and services to the society for consumption in such a way to have maximum total satisfaction of people.
• Overall economics efficiency: It means to produce those goods and services which are most desired by the people.