Reflection of Light Class 9 Science Chapter 11 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Class 9 Science Chapter 11

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 9 Science Chapter 11 Reflection of Light Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Class 9 Science Chapter 11 Reflection of Light Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. Answer the following questions.

a. Explain the difference between a plane mirror, a concave mirror and a convex mirror with respect to the type and size of the images produced.
Answer:

Plane mirror Concave mirror Convex mirror
Type of image Virtual and Erect Virtual (erect) as well as Real (inverted) Virtual and Erect
Size of image Same size Diminished, Same size and magnified Diminished

b. Describe the positions of the source of light with respect to a concave mirror in
1. Torch light
2. Projector lamp
3. Floodlight
Answer:
(a) Torch light: The source of light is placed at the focus.
(b) Projector lamp : The source of light is placed at the centre of curvature.
(c) Flood light : The source of light is placed just beyond the centre of curvature.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light

c. Why are concave mirrors used in solar devices?
Answer:

  • Solar devices like solar cooker or solar water heater use solar energy to cook food or heat water.
  • When sun rays fall on the concave mirror, they converge and come together in the focal plane.
  • Due to convergence, the intensity of sun rays increases and the food or water is heated faster. Hence, concave mirrors are used in solar- devices.

d. Why are the mirrors fitted on the outside of cars convex?
Answer:

  • A convex mirror is used as rear view mirror because they form erect, virtual, and diminished images.
  • This, allows the driver to view a large area in a small mirror.

e. Why does obtaining the image of the sun on a paper with the help of a concave mirror burn the paper?
Answer:

  • When sunrays fall on the concave mirror, they converge and come together in the focal plane.
  • Due to convergence, the intensity of sunrays increases.
  • Hence, image of the sun on a paper with the help of concave mirror bums the paper.

f. If a spherical mirror breaks, what type of mirrors are the individual pieces?
Answer:

  • When a spherical mirror breaks into smaller pieces, the radius of curvature and focal length does not change.
  • Hence, it will continue to behave like a spherical mirror only.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light

2. What sign conventions are used for reflection from a spherical mirror?
Answer:
According to the Cartesian sign convention, the pole of the mirror is taken as the origin. The principal axis is taken as the X-axis of the frame of reference. The sign conventions are as follows.

  1. The object is always kept on the left of the mirror. All distances parallel to the principal axis are measured from the pole of the mirror.
  2. All distances measured towards the right of the pole are taken to be positive, while those measured towards the left are taken to be negative.
  3. The distance measured vertically upwards from the principal axis are taken to be positive.
  4. The distance measured vertically downwards from the principal axis are taken to be negative.
  5. The focal length of a concave mirror is negative while that of a convex mirror is positive.

3. Draw ray diagrams for the cases of images obtained in concave mirrors as described in the table on page 122.
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light 1
Answer:
(a) A ray diagram for object at infinity for a concave mirror.
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light 3

Image position Nature of image
At focus Real, inverted and point image

(b) A ray diagram for object beyond centre of curvature for a concave mirror.
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light 4
An object beyond centre of curvature for a concave mirror

Image position Nature of image
Between the centre of curvature and focus. Real, inverted and diminished.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light

(c) A ray diagram for object at the centre of curvature for a concave mirror.
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light 5
Object at centre of Curva fu re be a concave mirror.

Image position Nature of image
At the centre of curvature. Real, inverted and same size

(d) A ray diagram for object between F and C for a concave mirror.
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light 6
Object between F & C for a concave mirror

Image position Nature of image
Beyond the centre of curvature. Real, inverted and magnified.

(e) A ray diagram for obj ect at focus for a concave mirror.
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light 7
Object at focus for a concave mirror.

Image position Nature of image
At infinity. Real, inverted and highly magnified.

(f) A ray diagram for object between pole and focus for a concave mirror.
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light 8

Image position Nature of image
Behind the mirror. Virtual, erect and magnified.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light

4. Which type of mirrors are used in the following?
Periscope, floodlights, shaving mirror, kaleidoscope, street lights, headlamps of a car.

Answer:

Objects Type of Mirror
Periscope Plane mirror
Floodlights Concave mirror
Shaving mirror Concave mirror
Kaleidoscope Plane mirror
Street lights Convex mirror
Head lamps of car Concave mirror

5. Solve the following examples

a. An object of height 7 cm is kept at a distance of 25 cm in front of a concave mirror. The focal length of the mirror is 15 cm. At what distance from the mirror should a screen be kept so as to get a clear image? What will be the size and nature of the image?
Solution:
Given: Object size (h1) = 7 cm
Object distance (u) = -25 cm
Focal length (f) = -15cm
To find: Image distance (u) = ?
Image size (h2) = ?
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light 9
The screen should be kept 373 cm in front of the mirror. The image is real.
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light 10
The height of the image is 10.5 cm, it is an inverted and enlarged image.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light

b. A convex mirror has a focal length of 18 cm. The image of an object kept in front of the mirror is half the height of the object. What is the distance of the object from the mirror?
Solution:
Given: Image size (h2) = 1/2 h1
Focal length (f) = 18 cm
To find: Object distance (u) ?
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light 11
The object is placed in front of the convex mirror at a distance of 18 cm.

c. A 10 cm long stick is kept in front of a concave mirror having focal length of 10 cm in such a way that the end of the stick closest to the pole is at a distance of 20 cm. What will be the length of the image?
Solution:
Given: Object size (h1) = 10 cm
Object distance (u) = -20 cm
Focal length (f) = -10 cm
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light 12
The height of the image is 10 cm and it is a real and inverted image.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light

6. Three mirrors are created from a single sphere. Which of the following:
pole, centre of curvature, radius of curvature, principal axis – will be common to them and which will not be common?
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light 30

  • Centre of curvature and Radius of curvature will be common for all three pieces.
  • Pole and Principal axis will not be common.

Class 9 Science Chapter 11 Reflection of Light Intext Questions and Answers

Class 9 Science Chapter 11 Reflection Of Light Question 1.
What is light
Answer:
Light is a form of electromagnetic radiation that produces the sensation of vision.

9th Class Science Chapter 11 Reflection Of Light Exercise Question 2.
What is a mirror?
Answer:
A mirror is a reflecting surface which reflects light and creates clear images.

9th Class Science Chapter 11 Reflection Of Light Exercise Answer Question 3.
Principal Focus of Concave and Convex Mirror.
Answer:

Principal Focus of the Concave Mirror Principal Focus of the Convex Mirror
(i) Incident rays which are parallel to the principal axis of a concave mirror, after reflection from the mirror, meet at a particular point in front of the mirror on the principal axis. This point (F) is called the principal focus of the concave mirror.
(ii) It is formed in front of the mirror.
(iii) Focus of concave mirror is real.
(i) Incident rays parallel to the principal axis, after reflection, appear to come from a particular point behind the mirror lying along the principal axis. This point is called the principal focus of the convex mirror.
(ii) It is formed behind the mirror.
(iii) Focus of convex mirror is virtual.

9th Class Science Chapter 11 Reflection Of Light Notes Question 4.
If we hold a page of a book in front of a mirror, we see laterally inverted letters in the mirror. Why does it happen?
Answer:

  • When we hold a page of a book in front of the mirror, the image of the words appear laterally inverted.
  • The image of every point of the word is formed behind the mirror at the same distance from the mirror
  • Because of this the left and right side of the image is interchanged.
  • Hence, if we hold a page of a book in front of a mirror, we see laterally inverted letters in the mirror.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light

11 Reflection Of Light Exercise Question 5.
Which letters of the English alphabet form images that look the same as the original letters?
Answer:
A, H, I, M, O, T, U, V, W, X, Y

9th Science Chapter 11 Reflection Of Light Exercise Question 6.
When a person stands in front of a plane mirror, how is the image formed? What is the nature of the image?
Answer:

  • The image of a person is formed from every point of the source, thereby forming an extended image of the whole source.
  • The image formed would be virtual, upright and left-right reversed.

Answer the following questions:

Reflection Of Light Class 9 Questions And Answers Question 1.
Place two plane mirrors at an angle of 90a to each other. Place a small object between them. Images will be formed in both mirrors. How many images do you see? Now change the angle between the mirrors as given in the following table and count the number of images each time. How is this number related to the measure of the angle?
Answer:
The Relation between the angle between the mirrors and the number of images formed is given by
\(n=\frac{360^{\circ}}{\mathrm{A}}-1\)
n = number of images,
A = angle between the mirrors

Angle Number of images
120° 2
90s 3
60® 5
45® 7
30® 11

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light 13

Class 9 Science Chapter 11 Reflection of Light Additional Important Questions and Answers

Can you recall?

9th Class Science Chapter 11 Reflection Of Light Question 1.
What is meant by reflection of light and what are the types of reflection?
Answer:
The bouncing back of light when it hits an opaque surface is called reflection of light. The two types of reflection are regular and irregular reflection.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light

Reflection Of Light Class 9 Exercise Answers Question 2.
What are the laws of reflection.
Answer:

  • The incident ray, reflected ray and normal all lie in the same plane at the point of incidence.
  • The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection.
  • The incident ray and the reflected ray lie on opposite sides of the normal.

Choose and the correct option:

Class 9th Science Chapter 11 Reflection Of Light Question Answer Question 1.
If the reflected rays do not actually meet, such an image is called as image.
(a) real
(b) virtual
(c) magnified
(d) inverted
Answer:
(b) virtual

Class 9 Science Chapter 11 Reflection Of Light Exercise Solutions Question 2.
In a plane mirror, the perpendicular distance of the image from the mirror is equal to
(a) the perpendicular distance of the source from the object.
(b) the perpendicular distance of the source from the mirror.
(c) the parallel distance of the source from the object.
(d) the parallel distance of the source from the mirror.
Answer:
(b) the perpendicular distance of the source from the mirror

Reflection Of Light Class 9 Notes Pdf Maharashtra Board Question 3.
The image formed in a convex mirror is always
(a) virtual, smaller and behind the mirror
(b) virtual, smaller and in front of the mirror
(c) real, smaller and behind the mirror
(d) real, smaller and in front of the mirror
Answer:
(a) virtual, smaller and behind the mirror

Reflection Of Light Class 9 Solutions Question 4.
images can be displayed on a screen.
(a) Virtual
(b) Real
(c) Virtual and erect
(d) Virtual and inverted
Answer:
(b) Real

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light

9th Class Science Chapter 11 Reflection Of Light Exercise Pdf Question 5.
A concave mirror is also called as a mirror.
(a) converging
(b) diverging
(c) plane
(d) outward curved
Answer:
(a) converging

9th Science Chapter 11 Reflection Of Light Question 6.
The centre of the mirror surface is called its
(a) pole
(b) centre of curvature
(c) principal axis
(d) focus
Answer:
(a) pole

Class 9 Science Chapter 11 Question Answer Reflection Of Light Question 7.
According to the new sign convention, the of the mirror is taken as origin.
(a) focus
(b) pole
(c) optical centre
(d) centre of curvature
Answer:
(b) pole

Class 9 Science Chapter 11 Reflection Of Light Exercise Question 8.
A convex mirror is also called as a mirror.
(a) converging
(b) plane
(c) diverging
(d) inward curved
Answer:
(c) diverging

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light

Reflection Of Light Class 9 Maharashtra Board Question 9.
In order to see the full image of a person standing in front of a mirror, the minimum height of the mirror must be
(a) same height as that of the person
(b) double the height of the person
(c) half the height of the person
(d) quarter the height of the person
Answer:
(c) half the height of the person

Reflection Of Light Exercise 9th Class Question 10.
If the inner surface of the spherical mirror is reflecting, then it is a mirror, and if the outer surface is reflecting then it is mirror.
(a) convex, concave
(b) convex, plane
(c) concave, plane
(d) concave, convex
Answer:
(d) concave, convex

9th Std Science Chapter 11 Reflection Of Light Question 11.
The image formed by a concave mirror is
(a) always virtual and erect
(b) always virtual and inverted
(c) virtual if the object is placed between the pole and the focus
(d) virtual if the object is beyond the focus
Answer:
(c) virtual if the object is placed between the pole and the focus

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light

Question 12.
No matter how far you stand from a spherical mirror, your image appears erect. The mirror may be
(a) plane
(b) concave
(c) convex
(d) either plane or convex
Answer:
(d) either plane or convex

Question 13.
In case of a concave mirror, an erect image is
(a) real and enlarged
(b) real and diminished
(c) virtual and diminished
(d) virtual and enlarged
Answer:
(d) virtual and enlarged

Question 14.
A rear view mirror of a car is
(a) plane mirror
(b) concave mirror
(c) convex mirror
(d) cylindrical mirror
Answer:
(c) convex mirror

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light

Question 15.
An image of an object placed at infinite distance from a concave mirror is formed at
(a) the focus of the mirror
(b) behind the mirror
(c) centre of curvature
(d) infinity
Answer:
(a) the focus of the mirror

Question 16.
A ray of light parallel to principal axis after reflection from concave mirror passes through
(a) centre of curvature
(b) focus
(c) pole
(d) optical centre
Answer:
(b) focus

Question 17.
The image made by a plane mirror is a image.
(a) real
(b) virtual
(c) inverted
(d) diminished
Answer:
(b) virtual

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light

Question 18.
The size of the image of an object placed at the focus of a concave mirror is
(a) erect
(b) very large
(c) same size
(d) diminished
Answer:
(b) very large

Question 19.
For virtual images, the height is while for real images, it is
(a) positive, positive
(b) negative, positive
(c) negative, negative
(d) positive, negative
Answer:
(d) positive, negative

Find the odd man out:

Question 1.
Torches, flood lights, head lamps of vehicles, rear view mirror.
Answer:
Rear view mirror – In rear view mirrors, convex . mirror is used. Concave mirrors are used in the rest.

Question 2.
Side mirrors of cars, parking mirrors, flood lights, mirror fitted in shops.
Answer:
Flood lights – In flood lights concave mirror is used. Convex mirrors are used in the rest.

Question 3.
Virtual and enlarged, virtual and diminished, real and inverted, real and magnified
Answer:
Virtual and diminished type of image is not formed by a concave mirror. All the other types of images are formed by a concave mirror.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light

Question 4.
Image is laterally inverted, image is of same size, image is at same distance, image is diminished.
Answer:
Image is diminished is not a characteristic of image formed in a plane mirror. Rest of them are characteristics of plane mirror.

Answer the following in one sentence:

Question 1.
What kind of mirror will a doctor use to concentrate on teeth, eyes, ears etc.?
Answer:
The doctor will use a concave mirror to concentrate on teeth, eyes, ears etc.

Question 2.
What do the nature, position and size of the image depend on?
Answer:
The nature, position and size of the image depend upon the distance of the object from the reflecting surface.

Question 3.
Give the expression for mirror formula.
Answer:
\(\frac{1}{v}+\frac{1}{u}=\frac{1}{f}\)

Question 4.
State any four uses of concave mirror.
Answer:
Concave mirrors are used in torches, headlights, shaving mirrors, dentists’ mirrors, solar devices etc.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light

Question 5.
What are the two types of spherical mirror?
Answer:
Convex mirror and concave mirror are the two types of spherical mirror.

Match the columns:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
(1) Plane mirror (a) Rear view mirror
(2) Concave mirror (b) At laughing gallery
(3) Convex mirror (c) At a hair dresser
(4) Irregular

curved mirror

(d) At a dentist

Answer:
(1 – c),
(2 – d),
(3 – a),
(4 – b)

Question 2.

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
(1) Plane mirror (a) Virtual and diminished image
(2) Concave mirror (b) Virtual and same size image
(3) Convex mirror (c) Real and inverted image

Answer:
(1 – b),
(2 – c),
(3 – a)

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light

State whether the following statements are true or false. Correct the false statements:

(1) If the mirrors are kept at right angle to each other, then the number of images formed will be 4.
(2) A convex mirror is used in flood lights.
(3) A concave mirror always forms a magnified image.
(4) Images formed by convex mirrors are always virtual.
(5) The distance between the focus and the pole is called the radius of curvature.
(6) Reflection from a spherical mirror obeys laws of reflection.
(7) The reflecting surface of a concave mirror is curved.
(8) Distances measured in the direction of the incident light are taken as positive.
(9) If the image is erect, the height of the image is negative.
(10) A real image can be displayed on a screen.
(11) A concave mirror always forms a real and inverted image.
(12) Doctors use diverging beam of light to study teeth, ears and eyes.
Answer:
(1) False. if the mirrors are kept at right angle to each other then the number of images formed will be 3.
(2) False. a concave mirror is used in flood lights.
(3) False. a concave mirror can sometimes form a diminished image as well.
(4) True
(5) False. the distance between the focus and the pole is called the focal length.
(6) True
(7) True
(8) True
(9) False. if the image is erect, the height of the image is positive.
(10) True
(11) False. a concave mirror can also form a virtual and erect image.
(12) False. doctors use a converging beam of light to study teeth, ears and eyes.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
A concave mirror is called a converging mirror.
Answer:

  • When rays of light parallel to the principal axis are incident on concave mirror, they converge.
  • After convergence, they meet at one point on the principal axis, hence concave mirror is called converging mirror.

Question 2.
Concave mirrors are used in torches and in car headlights.
Answer:

  1. Concave mirrors are used in torches and car headlights because when a source of light is placed at the focus of a concave mirror, a parallel beam of light rays is obtained.
  2. This helps us to see things upto a considerable distance in the darkness.

Question 3.
A dentist uses a concave mirror while examining teeth.
Answer:

  • A concave mirror produces an erect, virtual and magnified image of an object placed between its pole and focus.
  • A dentist uses this principle to get a clear and distinct image of teeth, hence, a dentist uses a concave mirror.

Solve the following numerlcals.

Tips for solving numerical:

  • Object distance (u) is always -ve
  • If Image distance (u) is +ve then image is behind the mirror and virtual. if u is -ve then image is in front of the mirror and real.
  • Object height (h1) is always +ve since it is erect.
  • Image height (h2) can be +ve for virtual and -ve for real.

Type – A

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light 14

Question 1.
A bird is sitting in front of two plane mirrors inclined at an angle of 600 to each other. How many images does the bird see in the mirror?
Solution:
Given : Angle between mirror A = 600
To find: Number of images formed n = ?
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light 15
The brrd sees 5 images in the mirror.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light

Question 2.
A coin is kept in front of two plane mirrors inclined to each other. If 3 images of the coin are seen then what is the angle A between the mirrors?
Solution:
Given: no. of images formed n =3
To find: Angle between mirror A =?
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light 16
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light 17
The mirrors are inclined atan angle of 900 to each other.

Question 3.
An image is formed 5 cm behind a convex mirror of focal length 10 cm. At what distance is the object placed from the mirror?
Solution:
Given: Image distance (u) = 5 cm
Focal length (f) = 10 an
To find: Object distance (u) = ?
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light 18
The object is placed at a distance of 10 cm in front of the mirror.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light

Question 4.
An object placed 20 cm in front of a convex mirror is found to have an image 15cm behind the mirror. Find the focal length of the mirror.
Solution:
Given: Object distance (u) = -20 cm
Image distance (u) = 15 cm
To find: focal length (f) = ?
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light 19
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light 20
The focal length of the convex mirror is 60 cm.

Numerical For Practice

Question 5.
An object is placed at a distance of 36 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 12 cm. Find the image distance.
Answer:
-18 cm

Question 6.
An arrow is placed at a distance of 25 cm from a diverging mirror of focal length 20 cm. Find the image distance.
Answer:
11.1 cm

Type – B

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light 21

Question 1.
An object 4cm in height is placed at a distance of 36 cm from a concave mirror. The image is formed 18 cm in the front of the mirror. Find the height of the image.
Solution:
Given: Object height (h1) = 4 cm
Image distance (u) = -18 cm
Object distance (u) = -36 cm
To find: Height of image (h2) = ?
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light 22
The height of the image is 2 cm and it is inverted.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light

Question 2.
An object 2 cm high is placed at a distance of 16cm from a concave mirror which produces a real image 3 cm high. Find the image distance.
Solution:
Given: Object height (h1) = 2 cm
Object distance (u) = -16 cm
Image height (h2) = -3 cm
To find: Image distance (u) = ?
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light 23
The image is formed at a distance of 24 cm in front of the mirror.

Numericals For Practice

Question 3.
An object 10cm in height is placed at a distance of 36 cm from a concave mirror. 1f the image is formed at a distance of 18 cm in front of the mirror, find the height of the image.
Answer:
-5cm

Question 4.
A converging mirror forms a real image of height 4 cm of an object of height 1 cm placed 20 cm away from the mirror. Find the image distance.
Answer:
-80cm

Type – C

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light 24

Question 1.
Rajashree wants to get an inverted image of height 5 cm of an object kept at a distance of 30 cm from a concave mirror. The focal length of the mirror is 10 cm. At what distance from the mirror should she place the screen? What will be the type of the image, and what is the height of the object?
Solution:
Given:
Focal length = f = -10 cm,
Object distance = u = -30 cm
Height of the image = h2 = 7 cm
To find: Height of the object = h1 = ?
Image distance = u =?
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light 25
Rajashree has to place the screen 15 cm to the left of the mirror.
Magnification formula
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light 26
The height of the object is 10 cm. Thus, the image will be real and diminished.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light

Question 2.
A 10 cm long stick is kept horizontally in front of the concave mirror having focal length of 10 cm in such a way that the end of the stick closest to the pole is at a distance of 20 cm. What will be the length of the image?

Solution:
The stick is kept parallel to the Principal axis. Distance between A and P is 20 cm. Say u1 = 20 cm.
Hence, the other end of the stick is at distance, u2 = (u1 + 10) = 30 cm from pole of the mirror.
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light 27
Using mirror formula for concave mirror,
Solution:
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light 28
Here, negative signs indicate that images are formed on the left of the mirror.
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light 29

The length of the image formed ?s given by, u = u2 – u1 = 15 – (-20) = 5cm.
The length of the image is 5 cm.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light

Numerical For Practice

Question 3.
An object 2 cm in height is placed at a distance of 16 cm from a concave mirror. If the focal length of the mirror is 9.6 cm., find the image distance, nature and size of the image.
Answer:
u = -24 an, h2 = -3 cm; real, inverted and enlarged.

Question 4.
An arrow of 2.5cm height is placed at a distance of 25 cm from a diverging mirror of focal length 20 cm. Find the nature, position and size of the image formed.
Answer:
v = 11.1cm, h1 = 1.1cm; virtual and in dimirrished form.

Define the following:

Question 1.
Centre of curvature of mirror (C)
Ans.
The centre of the sphere of which the mirror is a parte is called the centre of curvature of the mirror.

Question 2.
The radius of curvature (R)
Answer:
The radius of the sphere of which the mirror is a part, is called the radius of curvature of the mirror.

Question 3.
Pole (P)
Answer:
The centre of the mirror surface is called its pole.

Question 4.
The principal axis of a mirror
Answer:
The straight line passing through the pole and centre of curvature of the mirror is called its principal axis.

Question 5.
The focus of a concave mirror (F)
Answer:
Incident rays which are parallel to the principal axis of a concave mirror, after reflection from the mirror, meet at a particular point in front of the mirror on the principal axis. This point (F) is called the principal focus of the concave mirror.

Question 6.
Focus of a convex mirror (F)
Answer:
Incident rays parallel to the principal axis, after reflection, appear to come from a particular point behind the mirror lying along the principal axis. This point is called the principal focus of the convex mirror.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light

Question 7.
Focal length of a mirror (f)
Answer:
The distance (f) between the pole and the principal focus of the mirror is called the focal length. This distance is half of the radius of curvature of the mirror. \(f=\frac{R}{2}\)

Answer the following in short:

Question 1.
What are the rules for drawing ray diagrams for the formation of image by spherical mirror?
Answer:
The rules are as follows :

  • If an incident ray is parallel to the principal axis, then the reflected ray passes through the principal focus.
  • If an incident ray passes through the principal focus of the mirror, the reflected ray is parallel to the principal axis.
  • If an incident ray passes through the centre of curvature of the mirror, the reflected ray traces the same path back.

Distinguish between:

Question 1.
Convex mirror and Concave mirror
Answer:

Convex mirror Concave mirror
(i) In a convex mirror, the reflecting surface is on the outer side.
(ii) It is called a diverging mirror.
(iii) The focus of a convex mirror is virtual.
(iv) It can form only a virtual image.
(v) It can form only a diminished image.
(i) In a concave mirror, the reflecting surface is on the inner side.
(ii) It is called a converging mirror.
(iii) The focus of a concave mirror is real.
(iv) It can form a real as well as a virtual image.
(v) It can form an enlarged, diminished as well as the same size image.

Question 2.
Real image and Virtual image
Answer:

Real image Virtual image
(i) A real image is formed only when the reflected rays actually meet at a point.
(ii) Real images can be obtained on a screen.
(iii) All real images are inverted.
(i) A virtual image is formed only when the reflected rays appear to meet at a point.
(ii) Virtual images cannot be obtained on a screen.
(iii) All virtual images are erect.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
If we keep the mirrors parallel to each other, how many images will we see ?
Answer:
When two mirrors are kept parallel to each other infinite images are formed, this is because light gets reflected infinite times.

Answer in detail:

Question 1.
What sign conventions are used for reflection from a spherical mirror?
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light 2
According to the Cartesian sign convention, the pole of the mirror is taken as the origin. The principal axis is taken as the X-axis of the frame of reference. The sign conventions are as follows.

  • The object is always kept on the left of the mirror. All distances parallel to the principal axis are measured from the pole of the mirror. Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light
  • All distances measured towards the right of the pole are taken to be positive, while those measured towards the left are taken to be negative.
  • Distance measured vertically upwards from the principal axis are taken to be positive.
  • Distance measured vertically downwards from the principal axis are taken to be negative.
  • The focal length of a concave mirror is negative while that of a convex mirror is positive.

Question 2.
Draw ray diagrams for the image obtained in convex mirrors.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light 31

Image position Nature of image
Behind the mirror. (A) Virtual,
(B) Erect
(C) Diminished

Question 3.
In order to see the full image of a person standing in front of a mirror, the minimum height of the mirror must be half the height of the person. Explain.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light 32

Proof:

  1. In the figure, the point at the top of the head, the eyes and a point at the feet of a person are indicated by H, E and F respectively.
  2. R and S are midpoints of HE and EF respectively.
  3. The mirror PQ is at a height of NQ from the ground and is perpendicular to it. PQ is the minimum height of the mirror in order to obtain the full image of the person.

For this, RP and QS must be perpendicular to the mirror.

Minimum height of the mirror
PQ = RS
= RE + ES
\(=\frac{\mathrm{HE}}{2}+\frac{\mathrm{EF}}{2}=\frac{\mathrm{HF}}{2}\)
= Half of the person’s height.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light

Question 4.
Determine the sign of magnification in each of the 6 cases in the table and verify that they are same using formulae
\(\mathbf{M}=\frac{h_{2}}{h_{1}}\) and \(\mathbf{M}=\frac{-v}{u}\)
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light 33

Question 5.
Explain the images formed by concave mirrors with respect to position of the image and object and also the Nature and size of image
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Reflection of Light 34

9th Std Science Questions And Answers:

Study of Sound Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Class 9 Science Chapter 12

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 12 Study of Sound Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 9 Science Chapter 12 Study of Sound Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Study of Sound Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. Fill in the blanks and explain.

a. Sound does not travel through ……………………….……….. .
b The velocity of sound in steel is ……………………….………… than the velocity of sand in water.
c. The incidence of ……………………….………… in daily life shows that the velocity of sound is less than the velocity of light.
d. To discover a sunken ship or objects deep inside the sea, ……………………….………… technology is used.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 12 Study of Sound

2. Explain giving scientific reasons.

a. The roof of a movie theatre and a conference hall is curved.
Answer:

  • Sound waves get reflected from the walls and roof of a room multiple times. This causes a single sound to be heard not once but continuously. This is called reverberation.
  • Due to reverberation, some auditoriums or some particular seats in an auditorium have inferior sound reception. This can be compensated with curtains.
  • Ceilings of these halls are made curved so that sound after reflecting from the ceiling, reaches all parts of the hall and the quality of sound improves.

b. The intensity of reverberation is higher in a closed and empty house.
Answer:

  • Reverberation occurs due to multiple reflections of sound.
  • The furniture in the house acts as a sound-absorbing material.
  • So if the house is closed and empty, a reflection of sound will be maximum and hence, intensity of reverberation is higher.

c. We cannot hear the echo produced in a classroom.
Answer:

  • For distinct echoes, the minimum distance of the reflecting surface from the source of sound must be 17.2 m.
  • Benches in the classroom are sound absorbing materials which prevent echo of sound.
  • Because of these two reasons echo is not heard in a classroom.

3. Answer the following questions in your own words.

a. What is an echo? What factors are important to get a distinct echo?
Answer:

  • An echo is the repetition of the original sound because of reflection by some surface.
  • At 22°C, the velocity of sound in air is 344 m/s.
  • Our brain retains a sound for 0.1 seconds Thus, for us to be able to hear a distinct echo, the sound should take more than 0.1 seconds after starting from the source to get reflected and. come back to us.
  • We know that,
    Distance = speed x time
    = 344 m/s x 0.1 s
    = 34.4 m
  • Thus, to be able to hear a distinct echo, the reflecting surface should be at a minimum distance of half of the above, i.e. 17.2 m.
  • As the velocity of sound depends on the temperature of air, this distance depends on the temperature.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 12 Study of Sound

b. Study the construction of the Golghumat at Vijapur and discuss the reasons for the multiple echoes produced there.
Answer:

  • Goighumat with a height of 51 metres and diameter of 37 metres with 3 metres thick walls is spread over approximately 1700 square metres.
  • This meets the conditions for echo i.e. : 17.2 metres minimum.
  • The dome of the golghumat is curved and hence, sound reflects multiple times before reaching the observer.
  • This is the reason for multiple echoes being produced.

c. What should be the dimensions and the shape of classrooms so that no echo can be produced there?
Answer:

  1. Dimensions: The distance between opposite walls in a classroom must be less than 17.2 m so that the reflected sound returns to the observer within 0.1 s.
  2. Shape: The classrooms should have curved ceilings and walls so that the reflected sound is directed towards the observer instantly within 0.1 s

4. Where and why are sound-absorbing materials used?
Answer:
The sound absorbing materials are used in :

  • School, cinema hall, concert hall, houses or places where quality of sound is important.
  • In the absence of sound absorbing material the sound will undergo multiple reflection causing reverberation of sound.

5. Solve the following examples.

a. The speed of sound in air at O °C is 332 m/s. If it increases at the rate of 0.6 m/s per degree, what will be the temperature when the velocity has increased to 344 m/s?
Answer:
Given:
Initial speed of sound at 0°C 332 m/s.
Final speed of sound -344 m/s.
Rate of increase per degree rise in temp. = 0.6m/s
To find:
Temperature when speed is 344m/s
Formulae:
Increase in temperature
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 12 Study of Sound 1
Temperature when the speed of sound is 344 m/sis 20°C

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 12 Study of Sound

b. Nita heard the sound of lightning after 4 seconds of seeing it. What was the distance of the lightning from her? (The velocity of sound in air is 340 m/s?)
Answer:
Given : Speed of sound (v) = 340 m/s
Time taken (f) = 4 sec
To find : Distance (s) = ?
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 12 Study of Sound 2
The lightning has struck at a distance of 1360 m from the observer.

c. Sunil is standing between two walls. The wall closest to him is at a distance of 360 m. If he shouts, he hears the first echo after 4 s and another after another 2 seconds.
1. What is the velocity of sound in air?
2. What is the distance between the two walls? (Ans: 330 m/s; 1650 m)
Answer:
Given:
Distance of the closer wall (S1) = 660 m
Time of echo from closer wall = 4 sec
∴ Time taken (t1) = 4/2 sec = 2 sec
Time of echo from distant wall = 6 sec
∴ Time taken (t2) = 6/2 sec = 3 sec
To find :
Velocity of sound in air (y) =?
Distance between two walls (S1 + S2) = ?
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 12 Study of Sound 3
The velocity of sound in air is 330 mIs and the distance between two walls is 1650 m.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 12 Study of Sound

d. Hydrogen gas is filled in two identical bottles, A and B, at the same temperature. The mass of hydrogen in the two bottles is 12 gm and 48 gm respectively. In which bottle will sound travel faster? How may times as fast as the other? (Ans: In A; Twice)
Answer:
In A; Thrice

e. Helium gas is filled in two identical bottles A and B. The mass of the gas in the two bottles is 10 gm and 40 gm respectively. If the speed of sound is the same in both bottles, what conclusions will you draw? (Ans: Temperature of B is 4 times the temperature of A.)
Given:
Mass of Helium in bottle A = (mA) = 10gm
Mass of Helium in bottle B = (mB) = 40gm
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 12 Study of Sound 4
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 12 Study of Sound 5
The temperature of B is 4 times the temperature of A

Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Study of Sound Intext Questions and Answers

Study Of Sound Class 9 Notes Maharashtra Board Question 1.
How does the velocity of sound depend on its frequency?
Answer:
The velocity of sound is directly proportional to its frequency
ν = υ λ
when ν = velocity
υ = frequency
λ = wavelength

9th Class Science Chapter 12 Study Of Sound Exercise Question 2.
The molecular weight of oxygen gas (O2) is 32 while that of hydrogen gas (H2) is 2. Prove that under the same physical conditions, the velocity of sound in hydrogen is four times that in oxygen.
Answer:
Given:
Molecular wt of Oxygen (Mo) =32
Molecular wt of hydrogen (MH) = 2
To Find:
VH = 4 vo
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 12 Study of Sound 6
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 12 Study of Sound 7
Hence, proved that velocity of sound in hydrogen is four times that in oxygen.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 12 Study of Sound

Answer the following:

Study Of Sound Class 9 Maharashtra Board  Question 1.
How will you reduce reverberation in public halls or buildings?
Answer:
(i) Reverberation in public halls or buildings will be reduced by using sound absorbing materials like curtains on wall, carpets on the floor.
(ii) By keeping the windows open, as sound will not get reflected.

12 Study Of Sound 9th Class Exercise  Question 2.
How is ultrasound used in medical science?
Answer:

  • Sonography: Sonography technology uses ultrasonic sound waves to generate images of internal organs of the human body.
  • Echocardiography: Echocardiography is a test that uses ultrasonic sound waves to produce live images of your heart.

9th Science Chapter 12 Study Of Sound Exercise Question 3.
To hear the echo distinctly, will the distance from the source of sound to the reflecting surface be same at all temperatures? Explain your answer.
Answer:

  • No,the distance from the source of sound to the reflecting surface will not be the same at all temperatures.
  • Velocity of sound is directly proportional to the square root of temperature.
  • One of the conditions of echo is that the time interval between the original and reflected sound should be more than 0.1 sec.
  • So if the temperature increases, the velocity of sound increases and the reflected sound reaches in less than 0.1 sec.
  • So for echo to be heard the distance between the observer and the reflecting surface has to increase.

9th Science Chapter 12 Study Of Sound Question 4.
When is the reflection of sound harmful?
Answer:

  • Reflected sound of high intensity called as noise is disturbing and harmful to the ears.
  • When sound reverberates i.e it undergoes multiple reflections, poor quality of sound is produced.

9th Class Science Chapter 12 Study Of Sound Question Answer Question 5.
What kind of waves are created when a stone is dropped in water ?
Answer:

  • When a stone is dropped in water, the particles of water oscillate up and down.
  • These oscillations are perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave, such waves are called transverse waves.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 12 Study of Sound

Answer the following question:

12 Study Of Sound 9th Class Question 1.
Observe the graph/ diagram and discuss your observation.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 12 Study of Sound 19

  1. Fig. A shows changes in density. The region where particles are crowded is called compression and where they are far apart are rarefaction.
  2. Fig. B show change in pressure. The lines represent layers of air. The regions when lines are crowded are high pressure regions while when they are far apart are of low pressure.
  3. Fig. C shows changes in density or pressure. The crest represents high pressure region while trough represents low pressure region.

Answer the following question:

Study Of Sound Class 9 Question Answer Question 1.
How are the frequencies of notes sa, re, ga, ma, pa, dha, ni related to each other?
Answer:
The frequencies of notes sa, re, ga, ma, pa, dha, ni are related in the ratio.
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 12 Study of Sound 20
i.e if first Sa is 240Hz then the next Sa will be 240 x 2 = 480Hz

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 12 Study of Sound

Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Study Of Sound Exercise Question 2.
What is the main difference between the frequencies of the voice of a man and that of a woman?
Answer:

  • Voice of a woman is high pitch i.e shorter wavelength and higher frequency
  • Voice of man is low pitch i.e larger wavelength and smaller frequency.

Question 3.
Try this;
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 12 Study of Sound 21

(a) In the above activity, what will happen if you lift one of the tubes to some height?
Answer:
If one of the tubes is lifted, angle of incidence will not be equal to angle of reflection, hence, the sound will not be clearly audible.

(b) Measure the angle of incidence 01 and the angle of reflection 02. Try to see if they are related in any way.
Answer:
Angle of incidence is same as the angle of reflection.

Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Study of Sound Additional Important Questions and Answers

Can you recall?

12.Study Of Sound Question 1.
How is the direction of the oscillation of the particles of the medium related to the direction of propagation if the sound wave?
Answer:

  • Sound travels as a longitudinal wave.
  • In a longitudinal wave, the particle of the medium oscillate parallel to the direction of propagation of the wave.

Choose and write the correct option:

Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Study Of Sound Question 1.
The unit of frequency is ……………………………… .
(a) Hertz
(b) m/s2
(c) Decibels
(d) m/s
Answer:
(a) Hertz

Study Of Sound Class 9 Exercise Question 2.
The normal hearing range for humans is ……………………………… .
(a) 0 Hz to 20 Hz
(b) greater than 20,000 Hz
(c) 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 12 Study of Sound

Class 9th Science Chapter 12 Study Of Sound Question Answer  Question 3.
Sound will not travel through ……………………………… .
(a) Vacuum
(b) Liquid
(c) Solid
(d) Gases
Answer:
(a) vacuum

Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Study Of Sound Question Answer Question 4.
SI unit of ………………………………. is Hertz (Hz).
(a) Wavelength
(b) Frequency
(c) Speed of wave
(d) Velocity
Answer:
(b) frequency

Reflection Of Sound Class 9 Question 5.
The velocity of sound is inversely proportional to the ……………………………… .
(a) Pressure
(b) Square root of temperature
(c) Square root of density
(d) Humidity
Answer:
(c) square root of density

Question 6.
Sound waves with frequency greater than 20 kHz are called ……………………………… .
(a) Infrasound
(b) Ultrasound
(c) Sonic
(d) Damped sound
Answer:
(b) ultrasound

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 12 Study of Sound

Question 7.
The loudness of a sound depends upon ……………………………… .
(a) Amplitude
(b) Speed
(c) Density
(d) Wavelength
Answer:
(a) Amplitude

Question 8.
……………………………… are used in sonography.
(a) High frequency ultrasound
(b) Stationary waves
(c) High frequency infrasound
(d) High frequency micro waves
Answer:
(a) High frequency ultrasound

Question 9.
The ……………………………… receives the vibrations coming from the membrane and converts them into electrical signals which are sent to the brain through the nerve.
(a) Cochlea
(b) Tympanic cavity
(c) Stapes
(d) Pinna
Answer:
(a) Cochlea

Find the odd one out:

Question 1.
Bats, rats, cats, dolphins
Answer:
Cats: cannot produce ultrasonic sound.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 12 Study of Sound

Question 2.
Clothes, paper, curtains, mirror
Answer:
Mirror: is a good reflector of sound, while others are poor reflectors.

Question 3.
Submarines, icebergs, internal organ, sunken ships.
Answer:
Internal organ: sonography is used , while for others sonar system is used.

Question 4.
Temperature, density, molecular weight, pressure
Answer:
Pressure: for a fixed temperature, the speed of sound does not depend on the pressure of the gas, all other factors affect speed of sound.

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
How can one produce sound?
Answer:
Vibration set up in an object produces sound (or) sound is produced when an object is disturbed and starts vibrating.

Question 2.
What is velocity of sound wave ?
Answer:
The distance covered by a point on the wave in unit time is the velocity of the sound wave.

Question 3.
What is the minimum distance of the reflecting surface to hear an echo ?
Answer:
To be able to hear a distinct echo, the reflecting surface should be at a minimum distance of 17.2 m.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 12 Study of Sound

Match the columns:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’ Column B’ Column C
(1) Transverse wave (a) Particles oscillate parallel to direction of propagation (i) Wave produced in a slinky
(2) Longitudinal wave (b) Particles oscillate perpendicular to direction of propagation (ii) Frequency less than 20 Hz
(3) Ultrasound (c) Echo formation is heard under particular conditions (iii) Wave produced in string
(4) Infrasound (d) High frequency waves (iv) Frequency between 20 Hz to 20000 Hz
(5) Audible frequency (e) Low frequency waves (v) Frequency greater than 20000 Hz

Answer:
(1-b- iii),
(2a- i),
(3 – d – v),
(4 – e – ii),
(5 -c- iv)

Question 2.

Column A’ Column ‘B’ Column C
(1) Amplitude (a) T (i) Pitch of sound
(2) Frequency (b) A (ii) Loudness of sound
(3) Wavelength (c) υ (iii) Reciprocal of frequency
(4) Time period (d) λ (iv) v/υ

Answer:
(1 -b – ii),
(2 -c – i),
(3-d – iv),
(4 – a – iii)

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 12 Study of Sound

Name the following:

Question 1.
A form of energy which produces sensation of hearing in our ears.
Answer:
Sound energy

Question 2.
Repetitions of sound due to reflection .
Answer:
Echo

Question 3.
The audible range of sound for human being.
Answer:
20 Hz to 20,000 Hz

Question 4.
A method to obtain images of internal organs of the human body.
Answer:
Sonography

Question 5.
The matter or substance through which sound gets transmitted.
Answer:
Solid, liquid, gases

Question 6.
Three major parts of the ear.
Answer:
External ear, the middle ear and the inner ear.

Question 7.
Any two examples in which infrasound is produced.
Answer:
Pendulum, earthquake.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 12 Study of Sound

Question 8.
Name the living beings that can produce ultrasound.
Answer:
Bats, dolphins, mice.

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
Bats can navigate in dark.
Answer:

  • The ultrasonic sound produced by bats, gets reflected on hitting an obstacle.
  • This reflected sound is received by their ears and they can locate the obstacle and estimate its distance even in the dark.
  • Hence, bats can navigate in dark.

Question 2.
A SONAR system is installed in a ship.
Answer:

  • A SONAR system determines the depth of the sea.
  • It locates underwater hills, valleys, icebergs, submarines and sunken ships. It also locates the positions of other ships or submarines.
  • Hence a SONAR system is installed in a ship.

Question 3.
Sound travels faster in iron than in air.
Answer:

  • Sound requires a material medium for its propagation and travels in the form of a longitudinal wave.
  • The denser the medium, faster is the propagation of sound.
  • Hence, sound travels faster in iron than in air.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 12 Study of Sound

Solve the following:

Type – A

Formula:
\(\text { (i) Velocity }=\frac{\text { distance }}{\text { time }}\)

Question 1.
Ultrasonic waves are transmitted downwards into the sea with the help of a SONAR. The reflected sound is received after 4 s. What is the depth of the sea at that place? (Velocity of sound in seawater = 1550 m/s)
Answer:
Given:
Time to hear echo = 4 sec
Time taken by sound waves to reach the bottom 4 of sea (t) = 4/2 sec = 2 sec
Velocity of sound in sea water (v) = 1550 m/s
To find:
Depth of sea(s) = ?
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 12 Study of Sound 8
The depth of the sea at that place is 3100 m.

Question 2.
A person standing near a hill fires a gun and hears the echo after 1 second. If speed of sound in air is 340 m/s. Find the distance between the hill and the person.
Answer:
Given:
Time to hear echo = 1 sec 1
Time taken (t) = 1/2 sec
Velocity of sound (v) = 340 m/s
To find:
Distance (s) = ?
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 12 Study of Sound 9
Distance between the person and hill is 170 m.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 12 Study of Sound

Numerical For Practice

Question 3.
If you hear the thunder 20 seconds after you see the flash of lightning, how far from you has the lightning occurred? (Speed of sound in air = 340 m/s)
Answer:
6800m

Question 4.
Aboy observes smoke from a cannon 3 seconds before he hears the bang. If the cannon is 1020 m from the observer, find the velocity of sound.
Answer:
340 rn/s

Question 5.
A soldier standing between the two buildings fires a gun. He heard the echo of the sounds from the first building after 2 seconds and echo from the second building after 3 seconds. Find the distance between two buildings. (Speed of sound in air = 340 m/s)
Answer:
850m

Type – B

\(Formula:
(i) Velocity = Frequency \times Wavelength
(ii) Velocity =\frac{\text { distance }}{\text { time }}\)

Question 1.
Sound waves of wavelength 1 cm have a velocity of 340 mIs in air. What is their frequency? Can this sound be heard by the human ear?
Answer:
Given:
wave length (λ) = 1cm = 1/100
Velocity of sound (v) = 340 m/s
To fInd :
frequency (u) = ?
Formulae:
ν = υ λ
Solution:
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 12 Study of Sound 10
The frequency of the sound waves is 34000 Hz. The frequency is higher than 20000 Hz and therefore, this sound cannot be heard by the human ear.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 12 Study of Sound

Question 2.
How long will it take for a sound wave of 25 cm wavelength and 1.5 kHz frequency, to travel a distance of 1.5 km?
Answer:
Given:
frequency (u) = 1.5 kHz = 1500 Hz
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 12 Study of Sound 11
\(\begin{array}{l}
=\frac{1500}{375} \\
=4 \mathrm{sec}
\end{array}\)
The sound wave takes 4 sec to travel the distance of 1.5 km.

Question 3.
Calculate distance travelled by a sound wave having frequency 1000 Hz and wavelength 0.25 m, if it travels for 5 seconds in a certain medium.
Answer:
Given:
frequency (u) = 1000 Hz
wavelength (λ) = 0.25 m
time (t) = 5 seconds
To find :
Distance (d) =?
Formulae:
ν = υ λ
Solution:
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 12 Study of Sound 12
The distance travelled by the sound wave is 1250 m.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 12 Study of Sound

Question 4.
The audible range of sound is 20 Hz to 20000 Hz. At 22°C in air speed of sound is 344 mIs. Express the range of sound in terms of wavelength by calculating the respective values.
Answer:
Given:
frequency (u1) 20 Hz
frequency ( u2) = 20,000 Hz
velocity (v) = 344 rn/s
To find :
Wavelengths λ1 and λ2 = ?
Formulae:
ν = υ λ
Solution:
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 12 Study of Sound 13
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 12 Study of Sound 14
Audible range of wavelength of sound is from 17.2 x 10-3 m to 17.2 m.

Numerical For Practice

Question 5.
A sound wave has frequency 320 Hz and wavelength 0.25 m. How much distance will it travel in 10 second?
Answer:
The distance travelled is 800 m.

Type – C

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 12 Study of Sound 15

Question 1.
Hydrogen gas is filled in two identical bottles, A and B, at the same temperature. The mass of hydrogen in the two bottles is 12 gm and 48 gin respectively. In which bottle will sound travel faster? How many timés as fast as the other?
Answer:
Given:
Mass of hydrogen in bottle A (mA) = 12gm
Mass of hydrogen in bottle B(mB) = 48gm
To find:
In which bottle sound travels faster.
Formulae:
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 12 Study of Sound 16
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 12 Study of Sound 17
Since both bottles are identical hence, the volume is the same, i.e. v
Dividing (j) and (ii),
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 12 Study of Sound 18

(i) Vivacity of sound will be more in bottle A.
(ii) Velocity of sound in bottle A (VA) is twice of that in bottle B (vB)

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 12 Study of Sound

Numerical For Practice

Question 2.
Argon gas is filled in two identical bottles X and Y. The mass of the gas in the two bottles is 5 gm and 25gm respectively. If the speed of sound is the same in both bottles, what conclusions will you draw?
Answer:
(Temperature of Y is 5 times the temperature of X.)

Type – D

Numerical For Practice

Question 1.
Velocity of sound in air at 0°C is 332nVs. It increases by 0.6ni/s for each °Celsius rise in temperature. At what temperature of ait the velocity will be 359m1s?
Answer:
45°C

Question 2.
Velocity of sound In air at 0°C is 332m/s It increases by 0.6mIs for each degree Celsius rise In temperature. What will be the velocity of sound at 60°C?
Answer:
368 rn/s

Define the following:

Question 1.
Wave length (λ)
Answer:
The distance between two consecutive compressions (or crests) or two consecutive rarefactions (or troughs) is called the wavelength.

Question 2.
Amplitude (A)
Answer:
The maximum value of pressure or density is called amplitude.

Question 3.
Frequency (υ)
Answer:
The frequency of a sound wave is defined as the number of complete oscillations of density (or pressure of the medium) per second.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 12 Study of Sound

Question 4.
Time Period (T)
Answer:
The time taken for one complete oscillation of pressure or density at a point in the medium is called the time period.

Question 5.
Echo
Answer:
An echo is the repetition of the original sound because of reflection by some surface.

Question 6.
Transverse waves
Answer:
Oscillations of the particles of the medium vibrate at right angles to the direction of propagation of the wave are called transverse waves.

Question 7.
longitudinal waves
Answer:
The particles of the medium oscillate about their central or mean position in a direction parallel to the propagation of wave is called as longitudinal waves.

Question 8.
Velocity of wave
Answer:
The distance covered by a point on the wave (for example the point of highest density or lowest density) in unit time is the velocity of the sound wave.’

Distinguish between:

Question 1.
Infrasound and Ultrasound
Answer:

Infrasound Ultrasound
(i) Longitudinal waves whose are below 20 Hz are called Infrasound waves. frequencies Infrasonic or (i) Longitudinal waves whose frequencies lie- above 20,000 Hz are called Ultrasonic or ultrasound waves.
(ii) Whales, elephants produce sound in the infrasound range. (ii) Bats produce (30 kHz to 50 kHz) frequency and dolphins produce ultrasound (100 kHz).

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 12 Study of Sound

Question 2.
Transverse waves and Longitudinal waves
Answer:

Transverse waves Longitudinal waves
(i) Particles of the medium vibrate at right angles to the direction of propagation of the wave.
(ii) They produce crests and troughs.
(iii) For transverse waves, a wavelength is made up of one crest and one trough.
(i) Particles of the medium vibrate parallel to the direction of propagation of the wave.
(ii) They produce compression and rarefaction.
(iii) For longitudinal waves, a wavelength is made up of one compression and one rarefaction.

Question 3.
Consider two cases
(A) whistle of train (B) roar of a lion

(I) In which case the sound is high pitch?
Answer:
Whistle of a train is high pitch as compared to roar of a lion, as the frequency is higher.

(II) What is the real cause of sound production? Explain with examples.
Answer:

  • Vibrations in the object are responsible to produce a sound.
  • Vibration is a rapid to and fro motion of an object.
  • Sometimes the vibrations may be strong enough to be seen by eyes, e.g. string vibrations in string instruments, vibration on mobile phone, blowing air in the cap of your pen by holding it near the lips.

(III) Three sounds 5 Hz, 500 Hz and 50,000 Hz are produced by different sources.
(a) Which sound will be heard by humans?
(b) Which sounds may be produced by bats?
(c) Which sounds may be produced by elephants?
Answer:
(a) 500 Hz – Humans can hear sounds in the range of 20 Hz-20,000 Hz
(b) 50,000 Hz – Bats produce ultrasonic sounds above 20,000 Hz
(c) 5 Hz – Elephants can produce infrasonic sounds below 20 Hz

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 12 Study of Sound

Question 6.
Suppose you and your friend are on the moon. Will you be able to hear any sound
Answer:
Sound waves need a material medium for their propagation. Since there is no atmosphere on the moon, we cannot hear any sound on the moon.

Answer in detail:

Question 1.
What are the factors on which velocity of sound in gaseous medium depend?
Answer:
The velocity of sound in a gaseous medium depends on the physical conditions i.e. the temperature, density of the gas and its molecular weight.

  1. Temperature (T): The velocity of sound is directly proportional to the square root of the temperature of the medium. This means that increasing the temperature four times doubles the velocity.
    \(\text { v } \alpha \sqrt{\mathrm{T}}\)
  2. Density(p): The velocity of sound is inversely proportional to the square root of density. Thus, increasing the density four times, reduces the velocity to half its value.
    \(\mathrm{v} \alpha \frac{1}{\sqrt{\rho}}\)
  3. Molecular weight (M): The velocity sound is inversely proportional to the square root of molecular weight of the gas. Thus, increasing the molecular weight four times, reduces the velocity to haff its value.
    \(\mathrm{v} \alpha \frac{1}{\sqrt{\mathrm{M}}}\)

Question 2.
What are the uses of ultrasonic sound?
Answer:
Uses of ultrasonic sound are as follows:

  • For communication between ships at sea.
  • To join plastic surfaces together.
  • To sterilize liquids like milk by killing the bacteria in it so that the milk keeps for a longer duration.
  • Echocardiography which studies heartbeats, is based on ultrasonic waves (Sonography technology).
  • To obtain images of internal organs in a human body.
  •  In industry to clean intricate parts of machines where hands cannot reach.
  • To locate the cracks and faults in metal blocks.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 12 Study of Sound

Question 3.
Explain with the help of a neat labelled diagram the working of human ear.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 12 Study of Sound 22

  • The ear is an important organ of the human body.
  • When sound waves fall on the eardrum, it vibrates and these vibrations are converted into electrical signals which travel to the brain through nerves.
  • The ear can be divided into three parts:
    (a) Outer ear
    (b) Middle ear
    (c) Inner ear.

(a) Outer ear or Pinna
The outer ear collects the sound waves and passes them through a tube to a cavity in the middle ear. Its peculiar funnel like shape helps to collect and pass sounds into the middle ear.

(b) Middle ear
There’ is a thin membrane in the cavity of the middle ear called the eardrum. When a compression in a sound wave reaches the eardrum, the pressure outside it increases and it gets pushed inwards. The opposite happens when a rarefaction reaches there. The pressure outside decreases and the membrane gets pulled outwards. Thus, sound waves cause vibrations of the membrane.

(c) Inner ear
The auditory nerve connects the inner ear to the brain. The inner ear has a structure resembling the shell of a snail. It is called the cochlea. The cochlea receives the vibrations coming from the membrane and converts them into electrical signals which are sent to the brain through the nerve. The brain analyses these signals.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 12 Study of Sound

Question 4.
Write a short note on SONAR
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 12 Study of Sound 23
(i) SONAR is the short form for Sound Navigation and Ranging. It is used to determine the direction, distance and speed of an underwater object with the help of ultrasonic sound waves. SONAR has a transmitter and a receiver, which are fitted on ships or boats.

(ii) The transmitter produces and transmits ultrasonic sound waves. These waves travel through water, strike underwater objects and get reflected by them. The reflected waves are received by the receiver on the ship.

(iii) The receiver converts the ultrasonic sound into electrical signals and these signals are properly interpreted. The time difference between transmission and reception is noted. This time and the velocity of sound in water give the distance from the ship, of the object which reflects the waves.

(iv) SONAR is used to determine the depth of the sea. SONAR is also used to search underwater hills, valleys, submarines, icebergs, sunken ships etc.

Question 5.
Write a short note on Sonography. How is it misused?
Answer:

  • Sonography technology uses ultrasonic sound waves to generate images of internal organs of the human body.
  • This is useful in finding out the cause of swelling, infection, pain, condition of the heart, the state of the heart after a heart attack as well as the growth of foetus inside the womb of a pregnant woman.
  • This technique makes use of a probe and a gel.
  • The gel is used to make proper contact between the skin and the probe so that the full capacity of the ultrasound can be utilized. Maharashtra Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 12 Study of Sound
  • High-frequency ultrasound is transmitted inside the body with the help of the probe.
  • The sound reflected from the internal organ is again collected by the probe and fed to a computer which generates the images of the internal organ.
  • As this method is painless, it is increasingly used in medical practice for correct diagnosis.
  • This technique is used by many people to find out gender of an unborn baby and this often leads to the incidence of female foeticide.

9th Std Science Questions And Answers:

Std 9 History Chapter 5 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 5 Education Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Education Class 9 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Class 9 History Chapter 5 Education Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

History Class 9 Chapter 5 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. Choose the right option and rewrite the sentence:

Question 1.
The Scientist who developed the Param – 8000 supercomputer _________.
(a) Dr Vijay Bhatkar
(b) Dr R. H. Dave
(c) P. Parthasarathy
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Dr. Vijay Bhatkar

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 5 Education

Question 2.
The magazine Jeevan Shikshan is published by _______.
(a) Balbharati
(b) University Education Commission
(c) MSCERT
(d) NCERT
Answer:
(c) MSCERT

Question 3.
The educational institution called IIT is famous for educational in the area of _______.
(a) Agriculture
(b) Medicine
(c) Skilled managers
(d) Engineering
Answer:
(d) Engineering

2. Do as directed.

Question 1.
Complete the table below with details about individuals in the education field and their work.

Individual Work
First education minister of India Maulana Abul Kalam Azad.
—————– Chairman of the University Education Commission
Prof Sayyad Rauf …………..
…………………….. Kosbad Project

Answer:

Individual Work
First education minister of India Maulana Abul Kalam Azad.
Dr. Sarvapalli Radhakrishna Chairman of the University Education Commission
Prof Sayyad Rauf Preparation of common state-wide curriculum for Std. I to VII for Maharashtra.
Anutai Wagh Kosbad Project

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 5 Education

Question 2.
Obtain information about the National Council of Educational Research and Training, from the internet, and present it in the form of a timeline.
Answer:

1st September 1961 The National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) was established in Delhi.
27th January 1967 The Maharashtra State Bureau of Textbook Production and Curriculum Research (Balbharati) was established in Pune.
1986 The National Policy on Education was adopted.
1988 The ‘Primary Education Curriculum was prepared.
1995 The Competency-based primary education curriculum.
1975 India met with success in its attempt to use a satellite for the purpose of education.
1970 The United Nations declared the year 1970 as the International Education Year. A seminar was organised in New Delhi and led to the establishment of an open university.
1974 The government appointed a committee under the chairmanship of P. Parthasarathy

3. Explain the following statements giving reasons for your answer:

Question 1.
The District Primary Education Programme was undertaken.
Answer:
(i) In 1994, the District Primary Education Programme (DPEP) was started with the objective of universalisation of primary education. It was implemented in seven States including Maharashtra.

(ii) The plan envisaged 100% attendance in primary schools, arresting student drop-out, education for girls and for the physically handicapped.

(iii) It included programmes such as research on and evaluation of primary education, alternative education, creating societal awareness, etc.

Question 2.
The NCERT was established.
Answer:
(i) National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) was established in Delhi on the 1st of September 1961.

(ii) Its main objective is to help the Central Government in matters of school education in the context of a comprehensive policy and in implementing educational schemes. The NCERT was given the responsibility of educational research and development, training, extension, educational programmes, restructuring of school curriculum and textbooks.

(iii) It has played a central role in designing school curricula and textbooks with the cooperation of the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE).

(iv) It provides guidance and cooperation in the area of primary and secondary education to the state governments.

(v) It has been involved in designing workbooks and handbooks for teachers, in teacher training, in developing teaching-learning techniques and conducting talent search examinations at the national level.

Question 3.
The farmers were benefited by the Indian Agricultural Research Institute.
Answer:
(i) The Indian Agricultural Research Institute was given the status of a University in 1958 and work began in departments such as the development of the agriculture sector, research, well-equipped laboratories, soil science, agricultural sciences, economic botany and other departments.

(ii) Research also began on wheat, pulses, oilseeds, vegetables and many other problems.

(iii) Its most significant achievement is the fundamental research it has conducted on the methods of taking multiple crops in a year, which has been of great benefit to farmers.

4. Write notes:

Question 1.
Indira Gandhi National Open University
Answer:
(i) Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU) was established with the objective that the stream of education should make
its way into every average household of the country.

(ii) The United Nations had declared 1970 as the International Education Year. In the same year, a seminar was organised in New Delhi on the subject of Open University by the Government of India Departments of Education and Social Welfare, Information and Broadcasting, University Grants Commission along with UNESCO. The idea of establishing an open university evolved in this seminar.

(iii) In 1974, the government appointed a committee under the chairmanship of P. Parthasarathy and the Open University took shape on 20 September, 1985 in accordance with its recommendations and suggestions. It was named after Prime Minister Indira Gandhi. Those who are unable to get a college education in the formal way are given concessions in eligibility criteria, age and other conditions for admission to this university.

(iv) In 1990, the IGNOU started an audio-visual distance education programme through Akashvani and Doordarshan. It conducted more than one thousand curricula of various branches.
It provides facilities for education through 58 training centres in the country and 41 centres in foreign countries.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 5 Education

Question 2.
Kothari Commission
Answer:
(i)In 1964 a Commission was appointed under the Chairmanship of Dr D. S. Kothari. Dr J. P. Naik made valuable contributions to the work of this Commission.

(ii)The Commission also recommended the 10+2+3 pattern for secondary, higher secondary and university education. This system was implemented from 1972.

(iii)The Commission also suggested a uniform national system of education, the inclusion of the mother tongue, Hindi and English in education, as well as continuing education, adult education, education by correspondence and open universities to make education trickle down to the lowest rungs of society.

(iv)It also recommended increased provision in the government’s budget for expenditure on education of neglected sections like the scheduled castes and tribes. Maharashtra government adopted the 10+2+3 pattern in 1972 and conducted the first Std X Board exam in 1975.

Question 3.
Bhabha Atomic Research Centre
Answer:
(i) Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) has conducted valuable research in the fields of nuclear physics, solid state physics, spectroscopy, chemical and life sciences.

(ii) It also started a school to train scientists for setting up nuclear reactors.

Question 4.
Balbharati
Answer:
(i) The Maharashtra State Bureau of Textbook Production and Curriculum Research (Balbharati) was established in Pune on 27 January 1967.

(ii) Balbharati prepares textbooks for school children. Textbooks are made in eight languages, namely, Marathi, Hindi, English, Urdu, Kannad, Sindhi, Gujarati and Telugu. ‘Kishor’, a monthly magazine for children, is also published by Balbharati.

5. Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
Which programmes were included in the Operation Blackboard scheme?
Answer:
(i) The government made funds available to help improve the standard of the schools and to fulfil minimum educational needs such as at least two proper classrooms, toilets, one of the two teachers to be female, a blackboard, maps, laboratory apparatus, a small library, a playground, sports equipment, etc. This scheme helped the primary education system to gain some momentum.

(ii) In 1994, this scheme was expanded and provision was made for one additional classroom and for appointing one more teacher in schools with an enrolment of more than 100 students, with priority given to girls’ schools, schools with a majority of scheduled caste and tribe students and schools in rural areas.

(iii) It was also made binding upon the State government to appoint female teachers to fifty per cent of the posts in schools.

Question 2.
What role do agriculture schools/colleges play in the development of agriculture?
Answer:
(i) The Indian Agricultural Research Institute was given the status of a University in 1958 and work began in departments such as the development of the agriculture sector, research, well-equipped laboratories, soil science, agricultural sciences, economic botany and other departments. Research also began on wheat, pulses, oilseeds, vegetables and many other problems.

(ii) Its most significant achievement is the fundamental research it has conducted on the methods of taking multiple crops in a year, which has been of great benefit to farmers.

Question 3.
Describe with examples of the progress that India has made in the field of medicine.
Answer:
(i) The Indian Council for Medical Research (ICMR) was established for conducting research in the medical field. It was given the responsibility of cooperating with universities, medical colleges, government and non-government research institutes and giving them guidance and financial support for research activities.

(ii) Twenty-six centres were started in different parts of the country for research on various diseases. Their research has made it possible to control tuberculosis and leprosy.

(iii) The All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) was established to give further impetus to advanced education and research in medicine.

(iv) It was given the responsibility of undergraduate and postgraduate courses in medicine. Colleges for undergraduate and postgraduate education in most branches of medicine, good research facilities and well- equipped hospitals are the significant features of this institute.

(v) The institute also provides medical treatment to the common people at nominal rates. It has established special colleges for training in nursing, and super-speciality centres for treatment of disorders of the heart, brain and eyes.

(vi) For further development of the medical field, the Medical Council of India was restructured in 1958 and was entrusted with the task of determining criteria for quality of medical education, its supervision and inspection.

(vii) These institutes have the responsibility of conducting research on various diseases, developing tests and standardisation of medicines.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 5 Education

Question 4.
Write a note on the curricular and co-curricular activities conducted in your school.
Answer:
(i) Languages – Our school motivates us to participate in theatres or plays organised on works of Shakespeare and Munshi Premchand. We also take part in elocution and poetry recitation competitions to enhance public speaking. Our school makes every child read the newspaper headlines from Marathi and English dailies in the auditorium turn wise.

(ii) Maths and Science – Scientific experiments mentioned in our textbook are practically performed by each of us under the supervision of our teachers. On Sundays, our Math teachers take special classes on Vedic Maths. Our school has also organised trips to Nehru Planetarium and ‘Jantar Mantar’ to give us an understanding of the astronomical aspects of science. Every year our school conducts Homi Bhabha scholarship exam. A display of the best 25 science projects is done in the school hall.

(iii) Social Studies – Field studies are taken up to explain to us the topography of Indian landscapes. The school library holds a large number of book and documentaries over world history trips to museums and historical places.

Class 9 History Chapter 5 Education Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
In 1995, the _____ scheme was started to provide proper nourishment for the students.
(a) free ration
(b) foodgrain subsidy
(c) mid-day meal
(d) medical-check up
Answer:
(c) mid-day meal

Question 2.
_______was the first education minister of Independent India.
(a) Vallabhbhai Patel
(b) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad
(c) Sachchidanand Sinha
(d) J.B.Kriplani
Answer:
(b) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad

Question 3.
_____ recommended increased provision in government’s budget for expenditure on education of neglected sections like the SC/ST.
(a) University Education Commission
(b) Mudaliar Commission
(c) National Council of Educational Research and Training
(d) Kothari Commission
Answer:
(d) Kothari Commission

Question 4.
_______, a scientist with ISRO played an important role in providing satellite education.
(a) K. Kasturirangan
(b) Eknath Chitnis
(c) A. S. Kirankumar
(d) G. Madhavan Nair
Answer:
(b) Eknath Chitnis

Question 5.
In 1990 _____ started an audio-visual distance education programme through Akashwani and Doordarshan.
(a) ISRO
(b) NCERT
(c) IGNOU
(d) CSIR
Answer:
(c) IGNOU

Question 6.
The National Institute for Research in Mathematical and Physical Sciences’ in ______ was established in 1962.
(a) Chandigarh
(b) Kerala
(c) Karnataka
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(d) Tamil Nadu

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 5 Education

Question 7.
India’s first IIT was setup at _______ at West Bengal in 1951.
(a) Kharagpur
(b) Midnapore
(c) Hooghly
(d) Howrah
Answer:
(a) Kharagpur

Identify and write the wrong pair in the following sets:

Question 1.
(1) TCS – obtained an American contract for software production.
(2) FTII – Systematic training in all aspects of film-making.
(3) C-DAC – developed Param – 8000
(4) IIM – imparting training in industrial design.
Answer:
Wrong Pair : IIM – imparting training in industrial design.

Question 2.
(1) The Advanced Centre for Treatment Research and Education in Cancer – Branch of Tata Memorial Centre
(2) AIIMS – advanced education and research in medicine.
(3) DPEP – Charts showing learning competencies upto Std.V
(4) National Policy on Education 1986 – Common core curriculum was framed for all states.
Answer:
Wrong Pair : DPEP – Charts showing learning competencies upto Std.

Question 3.
(1) National Institute of Design – Ahmedabad
(2) Maharashtra State Board of Secondary and Higher Secondary Education – Pune
(3) The National Institute for Research in the Mathematical and Physical Science – Delhi
(4) Indian Institute of Technology – West Bengal
Answer:
Wrong Pair: The National Institute for Research in the Mathematical and Physical Science – Delhi

Question 4.
(1) J.P. Naik – Kothari Commission
(2) P. Parthasarthy – Committee on Open University
(3) Sayyad Rauf – Drafted common state wide curriculum
(4) Dr. Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan – Director of NCERT.
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Dr. Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan Director of NCERT.

Question 5.
(1) Dave Committee – minimum levels of learning.
(2) The Art Department – designing workbooks and hand books.
(3) Kosbad project – Education of Adivasis
(4) Council of Scientific and Industrial Research – Promote scientific research.
Answer:
Wrong Pair : The Art Department – designing workbooks and hand books.

Question 6.
(1) MSCERT – Jeevan Shikshan
(2) Balbharati – Kishor
(3) The Maharashtra State Board of Secondary and Higher Secondary Education – Countrywide classroom.
(4) SITE – Satellite Education.
Answer:
Wrong Pair : The Maharashtra State Board of Secondary and Higher Secondary Education – Countrywide classroom

Question 7.
(1) Tarabai Modak – Kuranshalas
(2) Anutai Wagh – Kosbad Projects
(3) Eknath Chitnis – Education Minister
(4) R. H. Dave – Competency based Primary Education Curriculum.
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Eknath Chitnis – Education Minister

Complete the concept maps:

Question 1.
Objectives of Education:
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 5 Education 1

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 5 Education

Question 2.
Central Council for Research in Indian Medicine and Homeopathy:
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 5 Education 2

Question 3.
Departments of the Indian Agricultural Research Institute:
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 5 Education 3

Question 4.
Role of Dave Committee:
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 5 Education 4

Question 5.
Features of the IIT
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 5 Education 5

Question 6.
IIMs in India
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 5 Education 6

Question 7.
Concept map of basic responsibilities of NCERT
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 5 Education 11

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 5 Education

Write short notes:

Question 1.
AIIMS
Answer:
(i) The All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) was established to give further impetus to advanced education and research in medicine.

(ii) It was given the responsibility of undergraduate and post-graduate courses in medicine.

(iii) Colleges for undergraduate and postgraduate education in most branches of medicine, good research facilities and well-equipped hospitals are the significant features of this institute.

(iv) The institute also provides medical treatment to the common people at nominal rates.

(v) It has established special colleges for training in nursing, and super-speciality centres for treatment of disorders of the heart, brain and eyes.

(vi) For further development of the medical field, the Medical Council of India was restructured in 1958 and was entrusted with the task of determining criteria for quality of medical education, its supervision and inspection.

Question 2.
Achievements of CSIR
Answer:
(i) In the post-independence period in 1950, the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) was established with the objective to promote scientific research in the country and to take the benefits of the research to all the people.

(ii) The achievements of the CSIR include making the ink used for marking voters’ fingers during elections, medicines for malaria, elephantiasis and tuberculosis, water purification technology, reduction in the time required for bamboo production.

(iii) It also used DNA fingerprinting for the first time in India, conducted a genetic study of the Adivasis of the Andamans and proved that those tribes are 60,000 years old and developed the earthquake early warning system.

(iv) It has also played an important role in the use of neem as a pesticide, use of turmeric for healing wounds and in the case of the patents for varieties of rice.

(v) The CSIR has prepared a digital encyclopedia of Indian traditional knowledge and made it available in eight international languages.

Question 3.
NCERT
Answer:
(i) National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) was established in Delhi on the 1st of September 1961.

(ii) Its main objective is to help the Central Government in matters of school education in the context of a comprehensive policy and in implementing educational schemes. The NCERT was given the responsibility of educational research and development, training, extension, educational programmes, restructuring of school curriculum and textbooks.

(iii) It has played a central role in designing school curricula and textbooks with the cooperation of the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE). ’

(iv) It provides guidance and cooperation in the area of primary and secondary education to the state governments.

(v) It has been involved in designing workbooks and handbooks for teachers, in teacher training, in developing teaching-learning techniques and conducting talent search examinations at the national level.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 5 Education

Read the passage and answer the questions and answer the questions based on it.

Passage I

National Council of Educational Research and Training. This body was established in Delhi on the 1st of September 1961. Its main objective is to help the Central Government in matters of school education in the context of a comprehensive policy and in implementing educational schemes. The NCERT was given the responsibility of educational research and development, training, extension, educational programmes, restructuring of school curriculum and textbooks. It has played a central role in designing school curricula and textbooks with the cooperation of the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE). It provides guidance and cooperation in the area of primary and secondary education to the state governments. It has been involved in designing workbooks and handbooks for teachers, in teacher training, in developing teaching-learning techniques and conducting talent search examinations at the national level.
SCERTs were established in all States on the lines of the NCERT. The Maharashtra State Council of Educational ‘Research and Training was established in Pune, This institute performs various functions such as , improving the standard of primary education, in service training of teachers, training in the areas of syllabii and evaluation, vocational guidance for students after Std X and Std XII exams and other , educational functions This institute is known as the , academic authority. It brings out a periodical called Jeevan Sikshan. ‘

Question 1.
What was the main objective behind establishment of NCERT?
Answer:
The main objective behind establishment of NCERT is to help the central government in matters of school education in the context of a comprehensive policy and in implementing educational schemes.

Question 2.
SCERT was established only in Maharashtra State on the lines of the NCERT. Identify True or False.
Answer:
False.

Question 3.
State 4 research institutes in India.
Answer:
Following are the 4 research institutes in India:

  • Council of Scientific & Industrial Research.
  • Bhabha Atomic Research Centre.
  • Indian Council of Medical Research.
  • Indian Agricultural Research Institute.

Passage II

National Policy on Education 1986: According to this policy, certain changes of a fundamental nature were brought about in primary, secondary and higher , secondary education in keeping with the changing needs of society. Under this policy, a common core curriculum was framed for all States. The expectation , is that, by this means, all students in India will get equal educational opportunity. There is scope in the national curriculum for individual States to bring in flexibility in accordance with their cultural, geographical and historical needs.
The ‘Primary Education Curriculum 1988’ was prepared on the basis of the plan of action designed at the national level for the effective implementation of the National Policy on Education 1986. The competency based primary Education curriculum 1995: Even as the Primary Education Curriculum , 1988 was being implemented, a Committee was formed at the national level with Dr. R. H. Dave as its Chairman, to determine minimum levels of learning, The Dave as Committee developed charts of minimum , levels of learning in language, mathematics and environmental studies up to Std V. The charts showed the sequence of learning of the competencies meant for each class.
Use of a satellite: In 1975, India met with success in its attempt to use a satellite for the purpose of education, Eknath Chitnis, a scientist with ISRO, played an , important role in it.
SITE (Satellite Instructional Television Experiment) , was undertaken for educational purposes under the leadership of the Space Applications Centre at Ahmedabad. The concept of satellite education came , out of this experiment. America had helped India in , this programme. The programme helped to make provisionsforagoodstandardofeducationinruralareas.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 5 Education

Question 1.
What was done to implement the National Policy on Education 1986?
Answer:
For the effective implementation of National Policy on Education 1986, the Primary Education Curriculum 1988 was prepared on the basis of the action plan formulated at the National level.

Question 2.
How did the Dave committee determine the minimum levels of learning?
Answer:
To determine the minimum levels of learning the Dave committee developed charts in language, mathematics and environmental studies upto Std. V. Sequential learning competencies were depicted on these charts to set standards through levels of learning.

Question 3.
Who is your favourite educationist? State his/ her educational ideas which impacted the society.
Answer:
(i) My favourite educationist are Rabindranath Tagore, Dr. Annie Besant and Dr. Sarvapalli Radha Krishnan.

(ii) They all enlightened the society with their educational ideas and deeds. Dr. Annie Besant in particular was iconic.

(iii) Her ideas of education were imbibed with political freedom, women’s liberation and universal brotherhood. Her teachings of ‘Home Rule’ and ‘theosophy’ impacted our society during British Rule. She taught these ideas through political lectures to motivate the youth.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
What does the District Primary Education Programme envisage?
Answer:
(i) In 1994, the District Primary Education Programme (DPEP) was started with the objective of universalisation of primary education. It was implemented in seven States including Maharashtra.

(ii) The plan envisaged 100% attendance in primary schools, arresting student drop-out, education for girls and for the physically handicapped.

(iii) It included programmes such as research on and evaluation of primary education, alternative education, creating societal awareness, etc.

Question 2.
State the contribution of Tarabai Modak in educating adivasis.
Answer:
(i) Tarabai Modak began work in the field of education in Bordi and Kosbad.
(ii) She started Anganwadis for Adivasi children.
(iii) She worked hard to bring in the Teaming by doing’ method, to start kuranshalas (meadow schools) and to spread vocational technical education.

Question 3.
What purpose did the Kosbad Project serve?
Answer:
(i) Anutai Wagh established an institution at Kosbad for the progress of Adivasis in Thane district.
(ii) It is known as the Kosbad Project.
(iii) She started creches, nurseries, primary schools, adult education classes, balsevika training schools, etc. for the education of Adivasis.

Question 4.
What was proposed by the Mudaliar Commission?
Answer:
(i) In 1952-53, the Mudaliar Commission was appointed.
(ii) At that time, the pattern of education consisted of 11 + 4 years for the first degree or of 11 + 1 + 3 years.
(iii) The Commission studied secondary education, the nature of the curriculum, medium of instruction, teaching methodology and made certain recommendations.
(iv) This Commission proposed the concept of Higher Secondary Education. However, it was found difficult to implement it all over the country.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 5 Education

Question 5.
State the recommendation of Kothari Commission.
Answer:
(i) The Kothari Commission recommended the 10+2+3 pattern for secondary, higher secondary and university education. This system was implemented from 1972.

(ii) The Commission also suggested a uniform national system of education, the inclusion of the mother tongue, Hindi and English in education, as well as continuing education, adult education, education by correspondence and open universities to make education trickle down to the lowest rungs of society.

(iii) It also recommended increased provision in the government’s budget for expenditure on education of neglected sections like the scheduled castes and tribes.

Question 6.
What do you know about the Education Board of your state?
Answer:
(i) The Maharashtra State Board of Secondary and Higher Secondary Education was established on the 1st of January 1966 at Pune.
(ii) This Board conducts the school leaving examinations of Std. X and Std. XII.
(iii) It also publishes a periodical called ‘Shikshan Sankraman’.

Question 7.
State the functions of MSCERT.
Answer:
(i) The Maharashtra State Council of Educational Research and Training was established in Pune.
(ii) This institute performs various functions such as improving the standard of primary education,
in-service training of teachers, training in the areas of syllabi and evaluation, vocational guidance for students after Std X and Std XII exams and other educational functions.

Question 8.
How did the concept of satellite education evolve in India?
Answer:
(i) SITE (Satellite Instructional Television Experiment) was undertaken for educational purposes under the leadership of the Space Applications Centre at Ahmedabad.
(ii) The concept of satellite education came out of this experiment. America had helped India in this programme.
(iii) The programme helped to make provisions for a good standard of education in rural areas.

Question 9.
Discuss the responsibilities of Indian Council for Medical Research.
Answer:
(i) Indian Council for Medical Research (ICMR) was established for conducting research in the medical field.
(ii) It was given the responsibility of cooperating with universities, medical colleges, government and non-government research institutes and giving them guidance and financial support for research activities.

Question 10.
Which institute works for advanced research in cancer?
Answer:
The Advanced Centre for Treatment, Research and Education in Cancer is a branch of the Tata Memorial Centre. It functions as the national centre for treatment, research and education in relation to cancer.

Observe the pictures/personality and write relevant information:

Question 1.
Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 5 Education 8
Answer:
(i) Kothari Commission recommended the 10+2+3 pattern for secondary, higher secondary and university education.
(ii) The objectives of Education were :

  • Modernisation of Education.
  • Social and national integration.
  • Nurture of social, moral, spiritual values.
  • Education and Productivity.
  • Securing and strengthening of democracy.

(iii) The following are the other recommendations made by the Kothari commission:

  • A uniform national system of education
  • inclusion of mother tongue (along with Hindi and English)
  • Continuing education
  • Adult education
  • Education by correspondence
  • Open Universities.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 5 Education

Question 2.
Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 5 Education 9
Answer:
(1) The open university was established with the objective that the stream of education should make its way into every average household of the country.

(2) In 1974, the government appointed a committee under the chairmanship of P. Parthasarthy and open university took shape on 20th September 1985 in accordance with its recommendations and suggestions.
It was named after Prime Minister – Indira Gandhi.

(3) In 1990, IGNOU started an audio-visual distance education programme through Akashwani and Doordarshan.

(4) It provides facilities for education through 58 centres in the country and 41 centres in foreign countries.

Question 3.
Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 5 Education 10
Answer:
(1) CSIR was established with the objective to promote scientific research in the country and to take the benefits of the research to all the people.

(2) CSIR conducted research in fields like:

  • Physics, chemistry, pharmaceuticals, food processing and mining

(3) The achievements of CSIR include:

  • Making the ink used for marking voter’s fingers during elections
  • Medicines for malaria, elephantiasis and tuberculosis
  • water purifying technology
  • DNA fingerprinting for the first time in India.

(4) CSIR has prepared a digital encylopoedia of Indian traditional knowledge and made it available in eight international languages.

9th Std History Questions And Answers:

Std 9 Political Science Chapter 5 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 5 India and Other Countries Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

India and Other Countries Class 9 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Class 9 Political Science Chapter 5 India and Other Countries Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Political Science Class 9 Chapter 5 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. Choose the right option and rewrite the sentence:

Question 1.
The country that has a free international border with India _______.
(a) Pakistan
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Nepal
(d) Myanmar
Answer:
(c) Nepal

Maharashtra Board Class Maharashtra Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 5 India and Other Countries

Question 2.
The countries that have tense relations with India _______.
(a) Pakistan and China
(b) Nepal and Bhutan
(c) Myanmar and Maldives
(d) Afghanistan and America
Answer:
(a) Pakistan and China

Question 3.
Factors that have an influence on the relations between India and Pakistan _____.
(a) Difference in the world view of both the countries
(b) Kashmir issue
(c) Nuclear Rivalry
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

2. Explain with reasons whether the following statements are true or false:

Question 1.
India has an important position among the South Asian countries.
Answer:
True.

  • India’s position in Asia is geographically and politically important.
  • Afghanistan, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh, Myanmar, Nepal, Bhutan, China and Maldives are India’s neighbours.
  • The values of equality and mutual respect have a great importance in India’s foreign policy. India has established relations with neighbouring countries on the basis of these values.
  • India is the biggest country in the Indian subcontinent. Similarly, India is economically and technologically more advanced. It is thus natural that India has a great influence among the South Asian countries.

Maharashtra Board Class Maharashtra Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 5 India and Other Countries

Question 2.
Sino-Indian relations are friendly.
Answer:
False.

  • The conflict between India and China is connected to two issues : (a) Border issue and (b) The status of Tibet.
  • The border dispute between India and China is related to the Aksai Chin area and the Macmahon line.
  • China claims that the area, South of Aksai Chin and Macmahon line (Arunachal Pradesh) is Chinese Territory. China is not willing to agree that Macmahon Line is an international border.
  • India made several efforts to sort this border dispute by means of dialogue, but it has not met with much success. In 1962, China Attacked India.
  • When China was stepping up its military control in Tibet, Dalai Lama took asylum in India. This issue has been responsible for the conflict between the two countries.

Question 3.
India sent a peacekeeping force to help the Sri Lankan government.
Answer:
True.

  • India has friendly relations with the southern neighbour Sri Lanka.
  • Political instability in Sri Lanka after 1985 was a result of the differences between the Tamil and the Sri Lankan Government. At that time,
    India had sent a peace keeping force to help the Sri Lankan government.
  • Friendly relations with Sri Lanka are important from the point of view of security in the Indian Ocean.

3. Complete the following chart.

Question 1.

Treaties/Exchanges Countries
………….. India and Pakistan
Macmahon Line ……………..
………………… India and Bangladesh
Import of natural gas …………..
………….. India and Africa

Answer:

Treaties/Exchanges Countries
Shimla Agreement, Tashkent Agreement India and Pakistan
Macmahon Line India and China
Treaties about sharing river waters and borders India and Bangladesh
Import of natural gas Myanmar
Civil Nuclear Agreement India and Africa

4. Write short notes :

Question 1.
Shimla Agreement
Answer:
(i) India tried to solve Indo-Pak conflict bi-laterally. The Shimla Agreement of 1972 was based on these principles.

(ii) Pakistan considers Kashmir as the biggest hurdle in establishing relations with India.

(iii) The first Indo-Pak war took place in 1965, over Kashmir. The Tashkent Agreement was signed in 1966, but nothing much came out of it.

(iv) Even though the 1971 war was about the creation of Bangladesh, it also had the dimension of the Kashmir problem to it.

(v) The Shimla Agreement in 1972 provided a new format to the interaction between India and Pakistan.

Question 2.
Indo-Nepalese Friendship Treaty
Answer:
(i) The foundation of friendship between India and Nepal was laid with Indo-Nepalese Friendship Treaty in 1950.

(ii) According to this treaty, Nepalese citizens can not only enter India, but they are also permitted to take up government jobs and carry on trade in India.

(iii) The year 1990 marked the beginning of Nepal’s transition to democracy.

(iv) Nepal is dependent upon India for economic progress, basic facilities, food related needs, trade and energy needs.

(v) India sent a lot of help to Nepal at the time of the 2015 earthquake.

Maharashtra Board Class Maharashtra Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 5 India and Other Countries

Question 3.
MacMahonLine
Answer:
(i) The conflict between India and China is connected to two issues :

  • Border issue
  • The status of Tibet

(ii) The border dispute between India and China is related to Aksai Chin area and the Macmahon line.
(iii) China claims that the area South of Aksai Chin and Macmahon line (Arunachal Pradesh) is Chinese Territory.
(iv) China is not willing to agree that Macmahon Line is an international border.
(v) India made several efforts to sort this border dispute by means of dialogue, but it has not met with much success.
(vi) In 1962, China attacked India.

Question 4.
Indo-Afghanistan Relation
Answer:
(i) There is a lot of political instability in Afghanistan.

(ii) The dominance of the terrorist organisation, Taliban is responsible for this.

(iii) India has extended help to bring peace, security and stability, curb violence and establish a democratic government.

(iv) Similarly, India is also helping Afghanistan in re-establishing communication facilities that have got destroyed due to war, build roads, cooperate in the fields of science and technology, build schools, health facilities and irrigation projects.

5. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
Explain the background of cooperative relations between India and America.
Answer:
India and America are two powerful nations who have democratic political systems. Right from the beginning, America was India’s most important trading partner.

(i) Many Indians have gone to America for education or work. Due to the presence of these non-resident Indians, the cultural, social and economic relations between America and India have been increasing.

(ii) After the end of Cold War, the military relations between India and America have increased on a large scale.

(iii) After India accepted free market economy, the speed of economic progress slowly increased. It resulted in further strengthening the trade relations between India and America.

(iv) When India conducted nuclear tests in 1998, there was tension in the relations between the two countries.

(v) Many rounds of discussions took place after that to improve the relations. Through these rounds of talks, America came to believe that India will use its nuclear weapons with responsibility. This completely transformed the Indo-American relations.

(vi) The Civil Nuclear Agreement signed in 2005 that was approved by the U.S. Congress in 2008 was an important landmark in Indo-American relations.

Question 2.
Give some information about the efforts taken by India for the establishment of democracy in neighbouring countries with examples.
Answer:
India upheld sovereignty and democratic values in Nepal, Afghanistan, Sri Lanka and Pakistan.

(i) Nepal was a Hindu Kingdom which adopted democratic government in 2006. India backed up its decision of adopting popular rule by helping Nepal with constitutional guidelines.

(ii) India also extended friendly relations to Ashraf Ghani through SAARC and other international platforms after the collapse of Taliban there.

(iii) India sent a peacekeeping force to Sri Lanka to bring about a cease fire between Sinhalese and Tamils and enforce peace and democracy.

(iv) The regime of Pervez Musharraf had adopted aggressive foreign policies and oppressed public opinion in Pakistan which led to violence and chaos. India had also criticised military rule in Pakistan.

Maharashtra Board Class Maharashtra Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 5 India and Other Countries

Question 3.
What is the role of South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation?
Answer:
SAARC is a regional organisation established by the South Asian countries in 1985.

(i) The aim of this organisation is to encourage economic co-operation between South Asian nations and thereby achieve the development of the South Asian region.

(ii) The organisation of SAARC is a platform for South Asian countries to come together and discuss common questions and interests.

(iii) Some common interests of South Asian countries are alleviation of poverty, development of agriculture and technological revolution.

(iv) Some treaties were signed on the SAARC platform to make it easy for South Asian countries to trade with each other.

(v) As a part of this, it has been decided that South Asia should be made into a free trade area. For an equitable development of South Asian nations, a treaty about forming South Asian Free Trade Area was signed and South Asian University was established.

6. Give your own opinion about :

Question 1.
What remedies would you suggest in order to reduce the tensions in the relations between India and Pakistan?
Answer:
(i) To reduce tensions in the relations between India and Pakistan, I suggest that

(ii) Cultural exchange between the two nations must be enhanced by allowing and inviting artists of these nations to perform in each other’s countries. Films and sports would also work wonders to improve relations between them.

(iii) Since India is the largest democracy in the world, it should assist and uphold establishment of democratic systems in Pakistan, where government is either overpowered or practically governed by military.

(iv) Pakistan should be convinced through world opinion at international summits, conferences and organisations such as the UN.

(v) India should ascertain that the media does not mislead people in both the nations, by telecasting exaggerated content which might negatively influence the relations.

(vi) India should appeal the Pakistani Government for preservation of Hindu and Sikh pilgrimage places and cultural sites. India must also promote tourism in both the countries, so that civilians across borders have cordial relations.

(vii) Incidents of cross-border terrorism, violence and infiltration must be taken to international forums. Government of India should frame suitable policies for retrieval of Indian subjects, Prisoners of War and fishermen held in captivity of Pakistani Government.

Question 2.
Do you agree with the statement: ‘Hurdles are created in the way of internal development due to tense relations of India with neighbouring countries/ Explain with reasons.
Answer:
(i) Yes, I agree that hurdles are created in the way of internal development due to tense relations of India with neighbouring countries. Due to tense relations with the neighbours, India is unable to focus on the internal law and order situation and social welfare.

(ii) Non-cordial relations with the neighbours will force India to embark on military and nuclear mobilisation to retaliate the pressure of foreign aggression. This might culminate into a war.

(iii) War with neighbours will disturb the peace in the Indian subcontinent and compel India to divert its resources and efforts towards defence and manufacturing weapons.

(iv) Money and resources which should be invested for constructive purposes like health, education and infrastructure would be diverted towards destruction.

(v) A war with her neighbours can put tremendous pressure on India’s economy giving rise to problems like scarcity and inflation.

Question 3.
Do you think that strong healthy relations of India with America are conducive to India’s economic development?
Answer:
(i) Yes, I believe that strong healthy relations of India with America are conducive to India’s economic development.

(ii) America is an undisputable super power of the world and India is on its way to become a super power. Co-operation between these two countries can thwart terrorism in the world, which is a big challenge in the path of economic development.

(iii) Both countries follow democratic systems of government and free market economies. Co-operation from America is a must to enhance India’s economic prospects.

(iv) The non-resident Indians in America have helped to improve on Indian Foreign Reserves. With Indians taking up more employment in America, India can boost its foreign exchange.

(v) Call centres of American MNCs and other ways of outsourcing have provided employment opportunities to the Indian youth. American companies such as Coca Cola, Colgate and MacDonald established their franchises in India, whereas Indian IITians have dominated the Silicon Valley. An Indian – Sundar Pichai, today is the CEO of ‘Google’ – an American company.

(vi) As American companies find Indian economy very promising, FDI has also increased. The ’Make in India’ drive is now seeking empowerment of Indian economy and employment of Indians through such FDI’s.

Maharashtra Board Class Maharashtra Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 5 India and Other Countries

Class 9 Political Science Chapter 5 India and Other Countries Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
in l972,______ provided a new format to the interaction between India and Pakistan.
(a) Tashkent Agreement
(b) Shimla Agreement
(c) Civil Nuclear Agreement
(d) Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty
Answer:
(b) Shimla Agreement

Question 2.
Aung Sang Su Kyi is credited with having established democracy in ______.
(a) Bhutan
(b) Myanmar
(c) Cambodia
(d) the Maldives
Answer:
(b) Myanmar

Question 3.
The border dispute between India and China is related to ______ area and the Macmahon line.
(a) Sir Creek Area
(b) Siachien
(c) Aksai Chin
(d) Baltistan
Answer:
(c) Aksai Chin

Question 4.
Due to a series of tripartite talks between ____, China and India, Sino-Indian relations are improving slowly.
(a) Pakistan
(b) America
(c) Russia
(d) Japan
Answer:
(b) America

Question 5.
When China was stepping up its military control in Tibet,_____ took asylum in India.
(a) Dalai Lama
(b) Avalokiteshwara
(c) Bodhisattvas
(d) Vajarayana followers
Answer:
(a) Dalai Lama

Question 6.
The ______ signed in 2005 that was approved by the U.S. Congress in 2008 was an important landmark in Indo-American relations.
(a) Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty
(b) Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty
(c) Civil Nuclear Agreement
(d) Treaty of Friendship and Co-operation
Answer:
(c) Civil Nuclear Agreement

Question 7.
The policy of increasing trade with South-East Asian nations is known as the ______ policy.
(a) Act East
(b) Pact East
(c) Look East
(d) Seek East
Answer:
(c) Look East

Maharashtra Board Class Maharashtra Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 5 India and Other Countries

Question 8.
The Summit Conference of India and Africa was held in 2015 with representatives from all _____ African nations attending it.
(a) 54
(b) 56
(c) 58
(d) 53
Answer:
(a) 54

Question 9.
India has co-operated in the project to produced ______ on a large scale, using the water source in Bhutan.
(a) Irrigation facilities
(b) Hydel power
(c) Tube wells
(d) Water reservoirs
Answer:
(b) Hydel power

Question 10.
_______has agreed to extend cooperation and technological help to India in the development and security of coastal areas.
(a) Malaysia
(b) Indonesia
(c) Brunei
(d) Japan
Answer:
(d) Japan

Question 11.
European Nations, especially ______ invest on a large scale in the field of technology in India.
(a) Greece and Italy
(b) Germany and France
(c) Belgium and Netherlands
(d) Spain and Portugal
Answer:
(b) Germany and France

Question 12.
The dominance of the terrorist organisation _______ is responsible for political instability in Afghanistan.
(a) Lashkar-e-Taiba
(b) Jamaat-ud-Dawa
(c) Taliban
(d) Al-Qaeda
Answer:
(c) Taliban

State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons:

Question 1.
Write about India’s relation with Maldives.
Answer:
(i) India’s relations with Maldives have been friendly right from the beginning. This small nation to the South of India is dependent on India for a lot of reasons.

(ii) Trade relations have been established between the two since 1981.

(iii) India has helped Maldives in the development of basic facilities or infrastructure, health and communication.

(iv) From 2006 onwards, co-operation in the military field also started between the two countries.

(v) They have entered into treaties with respect to cooperation in space research, conservation of historical objects and tourism. Similarly, they have decided to co-operate in the area of fighting against terrorism.

Maharashtra Board Class Maharashtra Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 5 India and Other Countries

Write short notes:

Question 1.
SAARC
Answer:
(i) SAARC is a regional organisation established by the South Asian countries in 1985.

(ii) The aim of this organisation is to encourage economic co-operation between South Asian nations and there by, achieve the development of the South Asian region.

(iii) The organisation of SAARC is a platform for South Asian countries to come together and discuss common questions and interests.

(iv) Some common interests of South Asian countries are alleviation of poverty, development of agriculture and technological revolution.

(v) Some treaties were signed on the SAARC platform to make it easy for South Asian countries to trade with each other.

Do as directed:

Complete the following charts:

Question 1.

S.No Column ’A’ Column ’B’
(1) Joint Naval Exercises ……….
(2) Oil imports ………..
(3) Security in the Indian Ocean ……….
(4) Hydel Power Plant ………….

Answer:

S.No Column ’A’ Column ’B’
(1) Joint Naval Exercises Japan
(2) Oil imports United Arab Emirates
(3) Security in the Indian Ocean Sri Lanka
(4) Hydel Power Plant Bhutan

Question 2.

S.No. Help extended by India Beneficiary Nations
(1) Sent Peacekeeping Force to restore peace Sri Lanka
(2) Supplies during 2015 earthquake Nepal
(3) Communication facilities, roads, science and technology, schools, health and irrigation projects Afghanistan
(4) Helped in the freedom struggle Bangladesh
(5) Cooperation in the project to produce Hydel Power Bhutan

Answer:

S.No. Help extended by India Beneficiary Nations
(1) Sent Peacekeeping Force to restore peace Sri Lanka
(2) Supplies during 2015 earthquake Nepal
(3) Communication facilities, roads, science and technology, schools, health and irrigation projects Afghanistan
(4) Helped in the freedom struggle Bangladesh
(5) Cooperation in the project to produce Hydel Power Bhutan

Prepare the following flow charts:

Question 1.
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 5 India and Other Countries 4
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 5 India and Other Countries 1

Question 2.
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 5 India and Other Countries 5
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 5 India and Other Countries 2

Question 3.
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 5 India and Other Countries 6
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 5 India and Other Countries 3

Answer the following questions in brief.

Question 1.
Illustrate the differences in world views between India and Pakistan.
Answer:
(i) India and Pakistan have totally different world views.

(ii) In line with the Indian world view, India opposed the military alliances of the Cold War and tried to solve the Indo-Pak conflict bilaterally.

(iii) On the other hand, Pakistan tried to maintain relations with the Islamic world and China entered into a military agreement with America.

Question 2.
Describe the Kashmir issue between India and Pakistan.
Answer:
(i) Pakistan considers Kashmir as the biggest hurdle in establishing relations with India.

(ii) The first Indo-Pak war took place in 1965 over Kashmir.

(iii) The Tashkent Agreement was signed in 1966, but nothing much came out of it.

(iv) Even though the 1971 war was about the creation of Bangladesh, it also had the dimension of the Kashmir problem to it.

(v) The Shimla Agreement in 1972 provided a new format to the interaction between India and Pakistan.

(vi) In 1999, there was a conflict between India and Pakistan over the infiltration by Pakistan in the Kargil region.

(vii) Even today, the Kashmir question is the basic cause of conflict between the two countries.

Question 3.
Sino-Pak Friendship has affected the security of India. Explain.
Answer:
(i) The threat to India’s security is increasing due to friendship between China and Pakistan, supply of weapons from China to Pakistan and also transfer of missile and nuclear weapons technology.

(ii) The increasing friendship between China and Pakistan and increasing influence of China over India’s other neighbours is a cause of concern for India.

Maharashtra Board Class Maharashtra Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 5 India and Other Countries

Question 4.
How is India trying to resolve its differences with China?
Answer:
(i) India has always made efforts to improve relations with China.

(ii) A joint executive group has been set up to solve the Sino-Indian border dispute.

(iii) When the rate of economic growth of both India and China increased, the trade relations between both the countries began to get strengthened.

(iv) Because of improvement in economic and trade relations between India and China and a series of tripartite talks between Russia, China and India, Sino-Indian relations are improving slowly.

(v) Even though the border dispute is not completely resolved, it has taken a back seat and relations in other areas have become more important.

Question 5.
How was Bangladesh created?
Answer:
(i) Today’s Bangladesh is the erstwhile East Pakistan. When Pakistan was created, it had two parts: West and East Pakistan.

(ii) There was linguistic difference between them. There were other political conflicts as well.

(iii) The movement to liberate Bangladesh emerged out of this.

(iv) This movement tried to free Bangladesh from the dominance of West Pakistan.

(v) India helped Bangladesh in its freedom struggle. Bangladesh was formed in 1971.

Maharashtra Board Class Maharashtra Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 5 India and Other Countries

Question 6.
How could India and African nations benefits from each other?
Answer:
(i) Having close relations with Africa will be beneficial from the point of view of both.

(ii) Many countries in Africa are developing rapidly.

(iii) MaharashtraBoardSoLutions.com diness to help in the all-round development of African youth. India has also agreed to give economic help and even grants to bring about development in different areas like technology, agriculture, tourism, etc.

(iv) India’s energy needs can be fulfilled by the energy rich countries like Egypt, Nigeria, Angola and Sudan.

(v) India is making efforts to increase trade with Africa.

9th Std Political Science Questions And Answers:

Std 9 History Chapter 9 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 9 Changing Life 1 Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Changing Life 1 Class 9 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Class 9 History Chapter 9 Changing Life 1 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

History Class 9 Chapter 9 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. Choose the proper option and rewrite the completed statements:

Question 1.
The first open-heart surgery under the leadership of Dr N Gopinath was successfully performed in the city of _____.
(a) Chennai
(b) Vellore
(c) Hyderabad
(d) Mumbai
Answer:
(b) Vellore

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 9 Changing Life 1

Question 2.
_______is known as the father of the ‘Jaipur foot’.
(a) Dr N. Gopinathan
(b) Dr Pramod Sethi
(c) Dr Mohan Rao
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Dr Pramod Sethi

2. Identify the wrong pair and rewrite the corrected one:

Question 1.
(1) Dr N. Gopinath – open heart surgery
(2) Ramchandra Sharma – a skilled craftsman
(3) Dr Subhash Mukhopadhyaya – test tube baby
(4) Dr Mohan Rao – polio
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Dr Mohan Rao – polio

3. Explain the concepts:

Question 1.
The institution of the family.
Answer:
The institution of family can be explained as follows:

  • During the pre-independence period, the institution of the family was an important identifying feature of Indian society.
  • India was known all over the world as the country of joint families.
  • However, the wave of globalisation has now given an impetus to the system of nuclear families.

Question 2.
Jaipur Foot technology
Answer:
(i) Dr Pramod Sethi designed and manufactured artificial limbs, noses and ears, with the help of the skilled craftsman Ramchandra Sharma.

(ii) These artificial body parts manufactured with the help of the Jaipur foot technology have made it easy for the differently-abled to walk bare-foot on rough surfaces, run, go cycling, work in the fields, climb trees, and even climb mountains, etc.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 9 Changing Life 1

Question 3.
Urbanization
Answer:
(i) Urbanisation is a process of the concentration of population in a city or urban area. Increasing population is one major reason for urbanisation.

(ii) A few other factors affecting urbanisation are air, water and the economic as well as social organisations necessary for community life.

(iii) In the context of post-independence India, the increase in urban population is also due to factors such as a reduction in the mortality rate, industrialisation, unavailability of means of livelihood in rural areas, job opportunities in cities and the resulting migration.

Question 4.
Changing economic life
Answer:
(i) Earlier, every village was economically self-sufficient. A majority of the villagers were dependent on farming. Farm produce used to be distributed among artisans as payment for their work.
(ii) Now this situation has changed. Rural areas are engaged in agriculture and occupations ancillary to farming while urban society is engaged in non-agricultural production and the service sector.

4. Give reasons:

Question 1.
The campaign for pulse polio immunisation was initiated.
Answer:
The campaign of pulse polio immunisation was initiated because:

  • Before 1978, every year, six Indian infants out of every 10 who were bom faced fatal health problems in the very first year of their birth.
  • The immunisation programme was taken up to overcome the threat of polio, measles, tetanus, TB, diphtheria, and whooping cough.
  • The ‘pulse polio’ immunisation programme started in 1995 has controlled polio.

Question 2.
The Rural Water Supply Scheme was started.
Answer:
The State started the Rural Water Supply Scheme for sinking wells and providing piped water because:

(i) It is necessary to give priority to facilities for public hygiene and health-care. However even today, the rural population faces problems related to year-round provision of drinking water, toilets, open drainage, narrow roads, inadequate electrification and lack of facilities for medical treatment.

(ii) There is a lack of good quality educational facilities from primary level to higher education, centres for recreation and libraries.

(iii) The collective development scheme had an important place in all the first four five year plans of the government of India. The State of Maharashtra registered remarkable achievements under this scheme. By 1971,1677 small dams had also been built.

5. Answer the following questions in 25-30 words:

Question 1.
Which kinds of discrimination does the Constitution prohibit?
Answer:
(i) According to our Constitution, all Indians are equal before the law, and they cannot be discriminated against on the basis of religion, race, caste, gender or place of birth.

(ii) All citizens have the right to freedom of speech and expression, freedom to assemble peacefully without arms, freedom to form associations, freedom to move, to live and settle down anywhere on Indian territory and to practice any occupation.

(iii) Indian citizens living anywhere in India enjoy the right to nurture their language, script and culture.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 9 Changing Life 1

Question 2.
What is the aim of the social welfare programme?
Answer:
(i) The objective to establish the welfare state has been incorporated in the Constitution itself.

(ii) The social welfare programmes aim to make opportunities for full-time employment, health care, education and development available to all Indian citizens. Indian society is riddled with large scale economic, social, educational and cultural inequalities.

(iii) However, it is necessary that opportunities for development reach women, children, the differently-abled, the scheduled castes and tribes as well as other minorities.

(iv) Hence on 14th June 1964, the government of India constituted the Ministry of Social Welfare. Under this ministry, various programmes are implemented for nutrition and child- development, social security and social protection, women’s welfare and development.

Question 3.
What are the challenges facing rural development?
Answer:

(i) In 1961, 82% of India’s population resided in villages. In 1971, the percentage was 80.01%.
(ii) So far, the rural area has shouldered the responsibility of providing food grains and other raw material to urban areas, supplying labour to the industrial sectors of the city, and taking care of natural resources.
(iii) However there are three major challenges with reference to rural development, namely, bringing about economic development, developing facilities to meet social needs and finally bringing about a change of attitude in matters concerning society, culture and ways of thinking.
(iv) It is also equally necessary to expedite irrigation projects and bring about land reforms.

6. Write a brief review of the significant events in the field of public health in India.
Answer:
The Constitution of India states that the primary duty of the government is to raise the people’s standard of living, to ensure proper nutrition and to improve public health. The Ministry of Health and Social Welfare at the Centre helps the state governments in this regard.

(i) To make primary health services as well as medical care available to rural people, the tribals and the poor was an objective of the Sixth Five Year plan. Efforts were made towards helping people maintain good health by giving recognition to Unani, Homoeopathy, Ayurveda and Naturopathy in addition to Allopathy.

(ii) In 1962, the first successful open heart surgery was performed under the leadership of Dr N. Gopinath at Christian Medical College Hospital at Vellore in Tamil Nadu. Hence, it is no longer necessary to go abroad for such treatment.

(iii) The invention of the ‘Jaipur Foot’ has transformed the lives of the disabled in India.

(iv) Before 1968, if a person lost a leg in an accident, he had to suffer for the rest of his life. In order to remedy the situation, Dr Pramod Sethi designed and manufactured artificial limbs, noses and ears, with the help of the skilled craftsman Ramchandra Sharma.

(v) These artificial body parts manufactured with the help of the Jaipur foot technology have made it easy for the differently-abled to walk bare-foot on rough surfaces, run, go cycling, work in the fields, climb trees, and even climb mountains, etc.

(vi) They save on the expenses on shoes as there is no need for footwear on these artificial limbs. They can bend their legs at the knees and sit cross-legged.

(vii) These feet are also convenient while working in water or under wet conditions.

Class 9 History Chapter 9 Changing Life 1 Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
On 14th June 1964, the government of India constituted the Ministry of ________.
(a) Home Affairs
(b) Social Justice
(c) Social Welfare
(d) Education
Answer:
(c) Social Welfare

Question 2.
According to the 1971 Census, _____ people in India belonged to scheduled castes.
(a) 21%
(b) 22%
(c) 23%
(d) 24%
Answer:
(b) 22%

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 9 Changing Life 1

Question 3.
UNESCO awarded its international prize for the spread of literacy to ______ in 1972 and tribes.
(a) Gujarat
(b) Bengal
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Karnataka
Answer:
(c) Maharashtra

Question 4.
‘Sinhagad Express’ on the Pune-Mumbai route and ‘ _____’ on the Mumbai-Kolkata route were started which had no class divisions.
(a) Karmabhoomi Express
(b) Howrah Mail
(c) Shalimar Express
(d) Gitanjali Express
Answer:
(d) Gitanjali Express

Question 5.
A _______ was formed to help the development of industry in rural areas.
(a) Village Industries Planning Committee
(b) Co-operative Credit Societies
(c) Industrial Development Association
(d) Rural Industrial Council
Answer:
(a) Village Industries Planning Committee

Question 6.
A settlement smaller than a village is called a _____.
(a) Town
(b) Taluka
(c) Hamlet
(d) Locality
Answer:
(c) Hamlet

Identify and write the wrong pair in the following sets:

Question 1.
(1) Kothari Commission – Agricultural Universities
(2) Durga – Open heart surgery
(3) Pramod Sethi – Artifical limbs
(4) Dr Mohan Rao – Kidney transplant
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Durga – Open heart surgery

Question 2.
(1) Christian Medical College – Tamil Nadu
(2) Vidya Niketan – Chikhaldara
(3) Gitanjali Express – Pune-Mumbai route
(4) First successful artificial conception – Kolkata
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Gitanjali Express – Pune-Mumbai route

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 9 Changing Life 1

Question 3.
(1) Ministry of Social welfare established in -1962
(2) Pulse polio immunisation started – 1995
(3) Maharashtra received a prize for literacy in Maharashtra -1972
(4) Rural Electrification Corporation – 1969
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Ministry of Social welfare established in -1962

Question 4.
(1) Village Industries Planning Committee – Development of Industries in rural areas
(2) Vidya Niketan – residential highschools
(3) Rural water supply schemes – sinking wells
(4) Objective of Sixth Five Year Plan – Advanced technology
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Objective of Sixth five year plan – Advanced technology

Do as Directed:

Complete the table

Question 1.
Answer:

Institutes Location
Rural Electrification Co-operative societies Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Karnataka, Maharashtra and Uttar Pradesh
Agriculture Universities Rahuri, Akola, Parbhani and Dapoli in Maharashtra
Vidya Niketan Satara, Aurangabad, Nasik and Chikhaldara

Question 2.
Answer:

Rural Community in Pre-Globalisation period Urban Community in Pre-Globalisation period
Priority to farming and ancillary vocations (jobs) Priority to nonagricultural production and services.
Small in size, homogeneous in terms of language, culture and tradition. Large in size, heterogeneous in terms of languages, cultures and traditions.
Elementary kinds of vocations; trend of sending villagers to cities rather than accommodating outsiders in rural occupations. Large industries, production for global consumption, accommodating outsiders.
Large proportion of vocations running in the family Less proportion of vocations running in the family.
Priority to the head of the family and to the family as an institution. Joint family system. Family secondary, priority to individuals. Trend towards – nuclear families.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 9 Changing Life 1

Complete the web diagram

Question 1.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 9 Changing Life 1 2

Question 2.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 9 Changing Life 1 3

Write short notes:

Question 1.
Rural Development
Answer:
(i) In 1961, 82% of India’s population resided in villages.

(ii) In 1971, the percentage was 80.01%. So far, the rural area has shouldered the responsibility of providing food grains and other raw material to urban areas, supplying labour to the industrial sectors of the city, and taking care of natural resources.

(iii) There are three major challenges with reference to rural development, namely, bringing about economic development, developing facilities to meet social needs and finally bringing about a change of attitude in matters concerning society, culture and ways of thinking.

(iv) It is equally necessary to expedite irrigation projects and bring about land reforms.

Question 2.
Social Welfare
Answer:
(i) The objective to establish the welfare state has been incorporated in the Constitution itself. India is the first country in the world to do so.

(ii) The social welfare programmes aim to make opportunities for full-time employment, health care, education and development available to all Indian citizens.

(iii) It is necessary that opportunities for development reach women, children, the differently abled, the scheduled castes and tribes as well as other minorities.

(iv) This was the greatest challenge facing the government during the post-independence period

(v) That is why, on 14 June 1964, the government of India constituted the Ministry of Social Welfare.

(vi) Under this ministry various programmes are implemented for nutrition and child development, social security and social protection, women’s welfare and development.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 9 Changing Life 1

Question 3.
Kidney transplant
Answer:
(i) Since kidney transplant can now be performed in India, doctors have succeeded in saving patients’ lives. Such surgeries were not so common in India till 1971.

(ii) But in 1971, it was successfully performed at the Christian Medical College hospital at Vellore in Tamil Nadu.

(iii) Dr. Johny and Dr. Mohan Rao transplanted the kidney donated by a living person into the patient’s body.

(iv) Nowadays, patients from underdeveloped countries come to India for such surgeries.

Question 4.
Test-tube baby
Answer:
(i) Right from early times, having a baby is considered to be of utmost importance in the Indian family system.
(ii) The support of ‘test-tube baby’ technology has been available to childless couples since 1978.
(iii) It was under the supervision of Dr. Subhash Mukhopadhyaya that the experiment of the test-tube baby was successfully carried out at Kolkata.
(iv) This was the first successful attempt at artificial conception. A girl named Durga was born.
(v) This technology helped to solve the problem of childless couples who wanted children.

Explain statements with reason:

Question 1.
Rural electrification is essential.
Answer:
Rural electrification is essential because:

(i) Electricity is essential for the development of rural areas. Automatic pumps are needed to water the fields.

(ii) Electricity is also needed to preserve perishable food items such as milk, eggs, fruits, and vegetables, to run fertilizer projects and for fans and TV, and for lights for studying at night.

(iii) During the first five-year plan, electricity had been provided to three thousand villages in India. By 1973, it reached 1,38,646 villages. From 1966, it was decided to supply more electricity for pumps and borewells.

(iv) ‘Rural Electrification Corporation’ was established in 1969.

Question 2.
It is necessary to give special attention to rural areas.
Answer:
(i) It is necessary to give priority to facilities for public hygiene and health-care.

(ii) Even today the rural population faces problems related to year round provision of drinking water, toilets, open drainage, narrow roads, inadequate electrification and lack of facilities for medical treatment.

(iii) There is a lack of good quality educational facilities from primary level to higher education, centres for recreation and libraries. That is why it is necessary to give special attention to rural areas.

Question 3.
The Rural Local Self-Government was empowered with more authority.
Answer:
(i) Keeping in mind the goal of rural development, the collective development scheme has come into force.

(ii) Plans were made for improving farming technology, increasing the area of irrigated land, extending educational facilities, enacting the laws for land reform under this scheme.

(iii) It also aimed at increasing agricultural produce as well as expanding the means of transport, health services and scope for education in the rural areas.

(iv) The government undertook this work through the medium of Gram Panchayats which included the people from all castes and tribes.

(v) To achieve this, the Gram Panchayats, Panchayat Samitis and Zilla Parishads were empowered with more authority.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 9 Changing Life 1

Read the following passage and answer the questions below:

Public health: The Constitution of India states that ‘ the primary duty of the government is to raise the people’s standard of living, to ensure proper nutrition i and to improve public health. The ministry of health i and Social Welfare at the Centre helps the state governments in this regard. To make primary health services as well as medical care available to rural people, the tribals and the poor was an objective of the Sixth Five Year plan. Efforts were made towards helping people maintain good health by giving recognition to Unani, Homoeopathy, Ayurveda and Naturopathy in addition to Allopathy, Progress in the medical field has made the life of Indians relatively free of health concerns. In 1962, the first successful open heart surgery was performed under the leadership of Dr. N. Gopinath at Christian Medical College Hospital at Vellore in Tamil Nadu, Hence, it is no longer necessary to go abroad for such treatment.

Question 1.
Prepare a concept map of recognised health care and medical treatments in India.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 9 Changing Life 1 1

Question 2.
Who was Dr. N. Gopinath? State his achievement?
Answer:
Dr. N. Gopinath was an experienced surgeon at Christian Medical College Hospital of Vellore under whose leadership an Open Heart Surgery was performed for the first time in India in 1962.

Question 3.
Which disease among children do you consider most threatful? Why?
Answer:
I would consider Polio as one of the most threatening diseases. It renders an infant physically impaired or incapacitated for life. Without physical development, it is not possible for a child to lead a normal life. He/she becomes dependent on others for daily chores and cannot become self-reliant.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
State the achievements of Christian Medical College Hospital.
Answer:
(i) In 1962, the first successful open heart surgery was performed under the leadership of Dr. N. Gopinath at Christian Medical College Hospital at Vellore in Tamil Nadu.

(ii) In 1971, kidney transplant was successfully performed at the Christian Medical College hospital at Vellore in Tamil Nadu. Dr Johny and Dr Mohan Rao transplanted the kidney donated by a living person into the patient’s body.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 9 Changing Life 1

Question 2.
Explain, how ‘Jaipur Foot’ has transformed the lives of the disabled in India?
Answer:
(i) The invention of the ‘Jaipur Foot’ has transformed the lives of the disabled in India. Before 1968, if a person lost a leg in an accident, he had to suffer for the rest of his life.

(ii) In order to remedy the situation, Dr Pramod Sethi designed and manufactured artificial limbs, noses and ears, with the help of the skilled craftsman Ramchandra Sharma.

(iii) These artificial body parts manufactured with the help of the Jaipur foot technology have made it easy for the differently abled to walk bare-foot on rough surfaces, rim, go cycling, work in the fields, climb trees, and even climb mountains, etc.

(iv) They save on the expenses on shoes as there is no need for footwear on these artificial limbs. They can bend their legs at the knees and sit cross-legged.

(v) These feet are also convenient while working in water or wet conditions.

Question 3.
What measures were taken up to uplift the scheduled castes and tribes?
Answer:
(i) According to the 1971 Census, 22% people in India belonged to scheduled castes and tribes.

(ii) Laws were enacted so that they got educational scholarships, and representation in Parliament as well State Assemblies. Some seats are also reserved for them in Government services.

Question 4.
Give an account of the collective development scheme that was featured in the first four Five Year Plans.
Answer:
(i) The collective development scheme had an important place in all the first four five year plans of the government of India.

(ii) The State of Maharashtra registered remarkable achievements under this scheme. For example, ‘Zilla Parishads’ was established in 1962.

(iii) Nutritious diet scheme was launched in 1970-1971. The State also started the ‘Rural Water Supply Scheme’ for sinking wells and providing piped water.

(iv) By 1971,1677 small dams had also been built.

9th Std History Questions And Answers:

Std 9 History Chapter 4 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 4 Economic Development Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Economic Development Class 9 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Class 9 History Chapter 4 Economic Development Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

History Class 9 Chapter 4 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1.A Choose right option and write the sentence:

Question 1.
On 19th July, 1969 ______ major banks in India were nationalised.
(a) 12
(b) 14
(c) 16
(d) 18
Answer:
(b) 14

Question 2.
_________ declared a 20 – point programme.
(a) Pandit Nehru
(b) Lai Bahadur Shastri
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) P.V. Narasimha Rao
Answer:
(c) Indira Gandhi

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 4 Economic Development

B. Identify the wrong pair and rewrite the corrected one:

Question 1.
(1) Kawasajee Dawar – Iron and Steel factory.
(2) Dr. Datta Samant – Leadership of mill workers.
(3) N. M. Lokhande – Holiday for mill workers.
(4) Narayan Surve – Depiction of lives of workers through poems.
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Kawasajee Dawar – Iron and Steel factory.

2.A Complete the following chart:

Question 1.

Five Year Plan Duration Purposes
First ………………. Agriculture and Social Development
Second 1956 -1961 Industrialisation
Third ……………… Elimination of inequality, increasing opportunities for employment, increase in national income.
…………. 1969 -1974 Scientific research, health and family planning.
Fifth ……………. …………………..

Answer:

Five Year Plan Duration Purposes
First 1951 -1956 Agriculture and Social Development
Second 1956 -1961 Industrialisation
Third 1961 -1966 Elimination of inequality, increasing opportunities for employment, increase in national income.
Fourth 1969 -1974 Scientific research, health and family planning.
Fifth 1974 -1979 Making India economically self-sufficient by alleviating poverty.

B. Explain the concepts:

Question 1.
Mixed Economy
Answer:
(i) In a capitalist system, the means of production are privately owned. In a socialist economy, the means of production are owned by the State in the name of the society.
(ii) A mixed economy works both in the private and the public sector.
(iii) In order to achieve economic development of modem India, we gave preference to a model of ‘mixed economy’. We can see three parts in this kind of economy:

(a) Public Sector: The industries in this sector are completely under the control and management of the government. For example, production of defence equipment.

(b) Private Sector: The industries in this sector are owned by private industrialists. Of course, the government supervises and controls them too. For example, consumer goods.

(c) Joint Sector: In this sector, some industries are owned by private industrialists, while some are run under government management.

(iv) For mixed economy to run smoothly there is a need for co-ordination between the private sector and the public sector.
(v) This system aims at maximisation of production and popular participation on a large scale.
(vi) An effort has been made in this system to bring together the good aspects of both the capitalist and the socialist systems.
(vii) A mixed economy cannot ignore the profit motive, entrepreneurship, discipline, time bound planning, etc.

Question 2.
20 – Point Programme
Answer:
20-Point Programme: Prime Minister Indira Gandhi announced the 20-Point Programme on 1st July 1975 and resolved to make efforts towards rapidly becoming a developed nation. The main provisions of the 20 point programme are as follows:

  • Land ceiling for cities and agricultural land, equal division of wealth, minimum wages for workers, increase in water conservation schemes.
  • Workers’ participation in industry, national training scheme, freeing bonded labour.
  • Prevention of tax evasion, economic crimes and smuggling.
  • Regulation of prices of basic necessities, improvement in the public distribution system.
  • Improvement in the textile industry by developing handloom sector, waiving loans for weaker sections, housing, communication facilities, making educational equipment available to schools.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 4 Economic Development

3.A Give reasons.

Question 1.
Independent India opted for mixed economy.
Answer:
(i) Our Prime Minister Pandit Nehru adopted the middle path rather than taking recourse to any extremes. Some countries had adopted Capitalism, while some had adopted Socialism. Each type of economy had its own advantages.

(ii) In a capitalist system, the means of production are privately owned. In a socialist economy, the means of production are owned by the State in the name of the society.

(iii) A mixed economy works both in the private and the public sector. In order to achieve economic development of modem India, we gave preference to a model of ‘mixed economy’.

Question 2.
Banks were nationalised in 1969.
Answer:
(i) During the tenure of Prime Ministers Pandit Nehru and Lai Bahadur Shastri, banking was a monopoly of the private sector.

(ii) These banks represented different industrial groups. The Directors of these banks were working towards developing industrial sector and increasing its profit.

(iii) In order to stop this, the government nationalised the ‘Imperial Bank’ in 1955 and it got converted into State Bank of India.

(iv) This Bank opened several branches all over the country in a short while and played a major role in development.

(v) India had adopted a mixed economy after independence. Nationalisation of banks was essential to cover the deficits if they occurred while implementing different schemes.

(vi) Also the profit of these banks would come into the government treasury once they were nationalised. Prime Minister Indira Gandhi nationalised 14 banks on 19th July, 1969.

Question 3.
Mill workers went on strike.
Answer:
(i) During the Diwali of 1981, the workers expected to get a bonus of 20%.
(ii) The Rashtriya Mill Mazdoor Sangh, which was negotiating with the employers, agreed upon 8 to 17% bonus without taking the workers into confidence.
(iii) The cut in the bonus proved to be the cause of unrest. Some workers went to Dr. Datta Samant.
(iv) They asked him to accept their leadership. Workers of 65 mills came together and Dr. Datta Samant led the strike. On 18th January 1982, two and a half lakh workers went on strike.

B. Answer the following questions in 25 to 30 words.

Question 1.
Which programmes were started in the Eighth Five Year Plan?
Answer:
Following programmes were started in the Eighth Five Year Plan:

  • Pradhanmantri Rozgar Yojana
  • Mahila Samriddhi Yojana
  • Rashtriya Samajik, Arthik Sahayya Yojana
  • Midday Meal Scheme
  • Indira Mahila Scheme
  • Ganga Kalyan Scheme

Question 2.
Which heavy industries were set up under the Second Five Year Plan?
OR
Which projects were started in the Second Five Year Plan?
Answer:
(i) Iron and steel industries at Durgapur, Bhilai and Rourkela; Chemical fertilisers plant at Sindri; rail engine factory at Chittaranjan; factory of railway bogies at Perambur, Ship building factory at Vishakhapattanam and other heavy industries were set up in the Public Sector.

(ii) Huge dams like Bhakra-Nangal, Damodar, etc. were built to make water available for agriculture.

Class 9 History Chapter 4 Economic Development Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
India removed the import restriction on several commodities for _____ countries.
(a) BRICS
(b) SAARC
(c) Third – World
(d) Middle – East countries
Answer:
SAARC

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 4 Economic Development

Question 2.
The efforts of _____ resulted in the weekly Sunday holiday for mill workers from 1st January 1882.
(a) Mahatma Jyotirao Phule
(b) Sane Guruji
(c) Babu Jagjeevan Ram
(d) Narayan Meghaji Lokhande
Answer:
Narayan Meghaji Lokhande

Question 3.
During the tenure of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi ,________ a group in the Congress Party, made a demand for nationalisation of commercial banks.
(a) Congress Socialist Party
(b) Congress Forum for Socialist Action
(c) Congress wing of Socialist Propaganda
(d) Agency of Socialist Congress
Answer:
Congress Forum for Socialist Action

Question 4.
In 1995, India became a member of _______.
(a) World Trade Organisation
(b) International Monetary Fund
(c) GATT
(d) SAARC
Answer:
World Trade Organisation

Question 5.
In order to overcome drought and food shortages ______ undertook the experiment of Green Revolution.
(a) Chaudhary Charansingh
(b) Gulzarilal Nanda
(c) H D Deve Gowda
(d) Lal Bahadur Shastri
Answer:
Lal Bahadur Shastri

Question 6.
During the tenure of Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao, _______ was our Finance Minister.
(a) John Mathai
(b) Yashwant Sinha
(c) P. Chidambaram
(d) Dr. Manmohan Singh
Answer:
Dr. Manmohan Singh

Question 7.
The first textile mill was started in Mumbai on 11th July, 1851 by _______.
(a) Pirojsha Burjorji Godrej
(b) Jamsedji Nusserwanji Tata
(c) Kawasjee Dawar
(d) Azim Hashim Premji
Answer:
Kawasjee Dawar

Question 8.
The new government of Janata Party ended the fifth Five Year plan by March 1978 and started the _______ from April 1978.
(a) Development Plan
(b) Enrolling Plan
(c) Rolling Plan
(d) Redemption Plan
Answer:
Rolling Plan

Question 9.
Manmohan Singh signed the agreement with the WTO and launched the policy of privatisation, ______ and globalisation.
(a) Liberalisation
(b) Industrialisation
(c) Maximisation
(d) Profitisation
Answer:
Liberalisation

Question 10.
On 18th January 1982, two and a half lakh workers went on a strike under the leadership of _________.
(a) Dhondo Keshav Karve
(b) Baba Amte
(c) Dr. Datta Samant
(d) Anna Hazare
Answer:
Dr. Datta Samant

Question 11.
The _______ plan is a reflection of the liberalisation and free market policy adopted in 1991.
(a) Seventh
(b) Eighth
(c) Fifth
(d) Sixth
Answer:
Eighth

Question 12.
The government nationalised the ‘Imperial Bank’ in 1955 and it got converted into ______
(a) Syndicate Bank
(b) Bank of India
(c) State Bank of India
(d) Reserve Bank of India
Answer:
State Bank of India

Question 13.
The term ‘Girangaon’ means ________.
(a) Town of hills
(b) Town of mills
(c) Group of industries
(d) Cottage industries
Answer:
Town of mills

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 4 Economic Development

Identify and write the wrong pair in the following sets:

Question 1.
(1) Public Sector – Controlled and managed by government
(2) Mixed Economy – Coordination in private and public sector
(3) 20 point programme – Nationalisation of 13 textile mills.
(4) Increased oil prices – Invasion of Kuwait by Iraq.
Answer:
Wrong Pair : 20 point programme Nationalisation of 13 textile mills.

Question 2.
(1) Congress Forum for Socialist Action – demanded nationalisation of banks.
(2) Rashtriya Mill Mazdoor Sangh – negotiations with the employer.
(3) Imperial Bank – converted in State Bank of India.
(4) National Stock Exchange – existed before WTO.
Answer:
Wrong Pair : National Stock Exchange – existed before WTO.

Question 3.
(1) SAPTA – Preferential trade
(2) SAARC – removal of import restrictions by India
(3) SEBI – established in 1998
(4) WTO – regulate global trade
Answer:
Wrong Pair : SEBI – established in 1998

Question 4.
(1) Barrister A.R.Antulay – leader of Rashtriya Mill Mazdoor Sangh
(2) Dr. Manmohan Singh – Finance Minister
(3) Indira Gandhi – nationalised 14 banks
(4) V.P. Singh – waived off loans of the farmers
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Barrister A.R.Antulay – leader of Rashtriya Mill Mazdoor Sangh

Question 5.
(1) Babasaheb Bhonsale – Chief Minster of Maharashtra
(2) Namdev Dhasal – Marathi Poet
(3) Shahir Sable – Programmes of public education
(4) Chandrashekhar – Associate of Mahatma Jyotirao Phule.
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Chandrashekhar – Associate of Mahatma Jyotirao Phule.

Complete the concept maps and flow charts of various programmes and schemes introduced:

Question 1.
Answer:

SECOND FIVE YEAR PLAN (1956-1961)
Iron and Steel industries Durgapur, Bhilai, Rourkela
Chemical Fertilisers Plant Sindri
Rail Engine Factory Chittaranjan
Factory of railway bogies Perambur
Ship building Factory Vishakhapattanam

Question 2.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 4 Economic Development 1

Question 3.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 4 Economic Development 2

Question 4.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 4 Economic Development 3

Question 5.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 4 Economic Development 4

Question 6.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 4 Economic Development 5

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 4 Economic Development

Question 7.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 4 Economic Development 6

Give Reasons:

Question 1.
India established the Planning Commission to deal with economic repercussions of British colonialism,
Answer:
(i) The colonial power had exploited India economically. The country faced severe problems like poverty, unemployment, population growth, low standards of living, low productivity of agriculture and industries and backwardness in the fields of knowledge, science and technology. Planning was essential to solve these problems.

(ii) India established the Planning Commission in 1950 with Prime Minister Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru as its Chairman.

(iii) It formulated India’s five year plans that included rural and agricultural development, : balanced industrialisation, provision for a minimum standard of living and economic development consistent with democratic ideals.

(iv) It focused on people’s participation and individual development in the formulation and implementation of the five year plans.

Read the passage and answer the questions.

Passage I

Issues of workers: The first textile mill was started in Mumbai on 11th July, 1851 by Kawasjee Dawar. Eventually, mills started in Dadar, Parel, Bhaykhala, Shivdi, Prabhadevi and Worli. This part came to be i known as Girangaon or ‘town of mills’. In the 1980s, the increasing unrest among workers was due to the economic conditions in other sectors. In some industries the wages of the workers were increasing. They were also getting more amounts as bonus. They were getting more facilities than the textile mill workers.
In the Diwali of 1981, the workers expected to get a bonus of 20%. The Rashtriya Mill Mazdoor Sangh, which was negotiating with the employers, agreed upon 8 to 17% bonus without taking the workers into confidence. The cut in the bonus proved to be the cause of unrest. Some workers went to Dr. Datta Samant. They asked him to accept their leadership, Workers of 65 mills came together and Dr. Datta Samant led the strike. On 18th January 1982, two and a half lakh workers went on strike. Girangaon mills stopped running making it seem like Mumbai’s heart topped throbbing.
The Chief Minister of Maharashtra, Barrister A. R. , Antulay set up a committee to solve this issue. Later Babasaheb Bhosale became the Chief Minister of Maharashtra State. He insisted that as per law, he would talk only with the Rashtriya Mill Mazdoor Sangha. Dr. Datta Samant demanded that the law be revoked. In the beginning, the striking workers received help from their native villages. It was also , not very difficult for them to help each other. They set up departmental committees and distributed food grains, assistance in the form of funds, etc. The left parties had supported the strike. As the strike , dragged on, efforts were made to split the striking workers’ ranks. Even as the strike completed 6 months, the central government completely ignored it. The workers started a Jail Bharo Agitation’. In , September 1982, one and a half lakh workers took a march on the Legislative Assembly of Maharashtra State. It didn’t help at all. The strike completed a year. This was the first strike to have gone on for a year. In this period, about one and a half lakh workers became unemployed. As polyester had come into greater demand than cotton cloth, the sale of mill , cloth had already got affected. The mills moved from Mumbai to Surat in Gujarat. The Central government nationalised 13 textile mills. Appointment of i arbitrators did not help to resolve the issue.

Question 1.
Name the worker’s union mentioned in the passage. Why were the workers agitated with it?
Answer:
(i) The worker’s organisation mentioned in the passage is Rashtriya Mill Mazdoor Sangh.
(ii) The workers were agitated because they received less bonus and facilities in their textile mills, whereas economic conditions in the other sectors of the economy were far better.
(iii) The Rashtriya Mill Mazdoor Sangh that negotiated with the employers, settled at 8 to 17% of bonus as against the expectation of 20% by the workers.
(iv) The cut in the bonus led to the workers agitation.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 4 Economic Development

Question 2.
State the contribution of Dr. Datta Samant in raising workers issues in Maharashtra?
Answer:
(i) Dr. Datta Samant was the leader of two and a half lakh workers who went on strike.
(ii) He demanded that the law be revoked which had empowered Rashtriya Mill Mazdoor Sangh alone to talk on behalf of the workers.

Question 3.
What is mixed economy?
Answer:
(i) In a capitalist system, the means of production are privately owned. In a socialist economy, the means of production are owned by the State in the name of the society.
(ii) A mixed economy works both in the private and the public sector.
(iii) In order to achieve economic development of modem India, we gave preference to a model of ‘mixed economy’.

Passage II

General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) existed at the international level before the World Trade Organisation came into being. It regulated commerce. In India there were opposed, extreme views about the World Trade Organisation. Yet India decided to take its membership. The provisions of the World Trade Organisation are regarding grants, import-export, foreign investment, agriculture, technology and services. The sectors of electricity, water transportation, education and health rapidly commercialised since India became a member of the World Trade Organisation. As per the various reports of the World Trade Organisation, India has made a considerable improvement in different areas like reduction in the below poverty line (BPL) population, decline in infant mortality, availability of facilities regarding drinking water and waste water management. India signed the South Asian Preferential Trade Agreement (SAPTA) along the lines of the World Trade Organisation. India removed the import restrictions on several commodities for SAARC countries. India also gave discounts on import duties. India opened up the insurance sector to private and foreign investment.

Question 1.
Study the passage and give the full forms of GATT and SAPTA.
Answer:
GATT – General Agreement on Tariff and Trade.
SAPTA – South Asian Preferential Trade Agreement.

Question 2.
Explain, in your own words, the economic policy of “Make in India”.
Answer:
’Make in India’ is an economic policy as well as an organised progamme of the Government of India to encourage and promote various companies and enterprises to start manufacturing and producing goods in India. The aim of this initiative is to generate employment, enhance the skill of Indians and also to attract foreign investment.

Question 3.
What do the provisions of the WTO cater to?
Answer:
The provisions of the WTO cater to grants, import -export, foreign investment, agriculture, technology and services.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
What is the fundamental principle of the Five Year Plans? Which economic goals are set forth by the Government?
Answer:
Fundamental principle of planning: A general principle of planning is the proportionate distribution of the resources of a country and the appropriate use of the human resources to fulfill the needs of the people.
Goals of Plans:
The general goals of the economic planning of India are as follows:

  • Increase in the national income.
  • Bringing about rapid industrialisation by focusing on the basic industries.
  • Bringing about an increase in agricultural production so that the country becomes self-sufficient in foodgrain production.
  • Use the human resources in the country optimally by availing increasing employment opportunities.
  • Remove inequality in earnings and wealth.
  • Maintain stable prices of commodities.
  • Controlling the growth of population through family planning.
  • Improve the standard of living by eradicating poverty.
  • Develop social services.
  • Make the economy self-sufficient.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 4 Economic Development

Question 2.
Describe the prolonged agitation of the mill workers under Dr. Datta Samant.
Answer:
(i) In the beginning, the striking workers received help from their native villages. It was also not very difficult for them to help each other.

(ii) They set up departmental committees and distributed food grains, assistance in the form of funds, etc

(iii) The left parties had supported the strike. As the strike dragged on, efforts were made to split the striking workers’ ranks.

(iv) Even as the strike completed 6 months, the central government completely ignored it. The workers started a ‘Jail Bharo Agitation’.

(v) In September 1982, one and a half lakh workers took a march on the Legislative Assembly of Maharashtra State.

(vi) It didn’t help at all. The strike completed a year. This was the first strike to have gone on for a year.

(vii) In this period, about one and a half lakh workers became unemployed.

(viii) As polyester had come into greater demand than cotton cloth, the sale of mill cloth got affected. The mills moved from Mumbai to Surat in Gujarat.

(ix) The Central government nationalised 13 textile mills. Appointment of arbitrators did not help to resolve the issue.

Question 3.
Which enterprises came under government due to the lack of capital investment?
Answer:
(i) The industries like defence, scientific research, education, roads, railways, waterways, sea port and airport development require huge capital investment but the returns in these areas are delayed.
(ii) Not many private industrialists are keen to invest in these areas. In such a situation, the government has to take the initiative.

Question 4.
State the Industrial policy of 1973.
Answer:
(i) The industrial policy of 1973 increased the speed of development.
(ii) Priority was given in this policy to control the influence of heavy industries, industrial families and foreign industries and remove the imbalance in regional development.
(iii) The government focused on the development of small scale industries and cottage industries.

Question 5.
What were the aims of the ‘Third Five Year Plan’?
Answer:
(i) This plan was aimed at bringing about a balance in industries and agriculture.
(ii) The other goals of the plan included increase in national income, heavy industries, development in transport and mineral industry, alleviation of poverty and to expand the opportunities for employment.

Question 6.
What was the background for . the nationalisation of banks?
Answer:
(i) India had adopted a mixed economy after independence.
(ii) Nationalisation of banks was essential to cover the deficits if they occurred while implementing different schemes.
(iii) Also the profits of these banks would come into the government treasury once they are nationalised.

Question 7.
State the cultural contributions of the working class.
Answer:
(i) The working class has contributed culturally as well through folk theatre, folk art and literature. Anna Bhau Sathe, Shahir Amar Sheikh, Shahir Sable were popular for their programmes aimed at public education.
(ii) Poets like Narayan Surve, Namdev Dhasal, etc., portrayed the real life of the workers through their poems.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 4 Economic Development

Question 8.
Who took responsibility to bring the Indian economy in sync with the global mainstream?
Answer:
(i) The year 1991 is very important in the history of modem India. After the 10th General elections, P. V. Narasimha Rao became the Prime Minister of India.

(ii) With Dr. Manmohan Singh as Finance Minister, he adopted the new economic policy of linking India’s economy with the global economy.

(iii) For this, fundamental changes were brought about in the Indian economy. Indian economy was brought in tune with the global mainstream.

Question 9.
Which corrective measures were taken by Manmohan Singh to relieve the crisis of the Indian economy?
Answer:
(i) Dr. Singh undertook many corrective measures. The situation began to change.
(ii) He removed the restrictions on foreign investments.
(iii) He restricted the licence system to 18 industries. In view of the increasing losses in the public sector industries, he opened up the public sector for investment by private industries.
(iv) In order to bring the share market under control, he established the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) in 1992.
(v) National Stock Exchange was computerised. He gave priority to remove the spectre of recession.

Question 10.
State the impact of corrective measures taken by Dr. Manmohan Singh on the economy of our country.
Answer:
(i) Foreign Investment in India grew during the first tenure of Dr. Manmohan Singh as Finance Minister.
(ii) India could recover the gold mortgaged with the Bank of England.
(iii) The government got the support of the capitalist class as well as the middle class.
(iv) As the government opened up the telecom sector, mobile phone services started all over the country.
(v) Dr. Manmohan Singh signed the agreement with the World Trade Organisation and launched the policy of “privatisation, liberalisation and globalisation.”

Question 11.
What were the objectives of the WTO?
Answer:
(i) In 1995, India became a member of the World Trade Organisation (WTO).
(ii) The organisation had the following objectives: to free trade between countries, to put an end to all those discriminatory laws, restrictions, rules and policies that are hurdles in the way of international free trade and to regulate global trade with the help of a formal multi – party mechanism.

Question 12.
Do you agree that membership with the WTO has ushered in changes in the economic sector of our country? State the reason for your answer.
Answer:
(i) Yes, of course. The provisions of the World Trade Organisation have included grants, import-export, foreign investment, agriculture, technology and services.

(ii) The sectors of electricity, water transportation, education and health have been rapidly commercialised since India became a member of the World Trade Organisation.

Question 13.
State the improvements which have occurred in our economy as per the reports of WTO.
Answer:
As per the various reports of the World Trade Organisation, India has made considerable improvement in different areas like reduction in the below poverty line (BPL) population, decline in infant mortality, availability of facilities regarding drinking water and waste water management.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 4 Economic Development

Question 14.
Which economic challenges were faced by the Government of Prime Minister Chandra Shekhar?
Answer:
(i) During the tenure of Chandra Shekhar the rate of inflation was 17%.
(ii) Economic growth rate had decreased by 1.1%. India had foreign exchange reserves only enough to last for imports for a week.
(iii) It had become difficult to pay back its loan and the interest on it.
(iv) In May 1991, the government had tried to control the situation by selling some of its gold reserves and by mortgaging some.

Question 15.
Which economic liabilities were incurred by V. P. Singh government?
Answer:
(i) The V. P. Singh government had incurred a liability of over 10 thousand crore rupees on the economy by waiving off the loans of all the farmers.
(ii) The proportion of internal loans of central and state government together to the Gross Domestic Product was 55%.
(iii) In 1980-81 foreign loan was 2350 crore dollars. It increased to 8380 crore dollars in 1990-91.
(iv) At this time, India had foreign exchange reserves of only 100 crore dollars.
(v) This also had the background of the increased oil prices due to the invasion of Kuwait by Iraq.
(vi) It became difficult for India to raise a loan. Even the non-resident Indians started withdrawing their deposits in foreign currency from India.

Identify the picture and give relevant information.

Question 1.
Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 4 Economic Development 7
Answer:
(i) Nationalisation of banks was essential to cover the deficits if they occurred while implementing different schemes and profit of these banks came under the government treasury.

(ii) Also the profit of these banks would come into the government treasury once they were nationalised. Prime Minister Indira Gandhi nationalised 14 banks on 19th July, 1969.

Question 2.
Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 4 Economic Development 8
Answer:
(i) P. V. Narasimha Rao and Manmohan Singh.
(ii) They removed the restrictions on foreign investments.
(iii) Restricted the license system to 18 industries.
(iv) Opened up the public sector for investment by private industries.
(v) Established the SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) in 1992 to regulate and bring share market under control.
(vi) Foreign investment in India grew.
(vii) India could recover the gold mortgaged with the Bank of England.

9th Std History Questions And Answers:

Std 9 Political Science Chapter 4 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 The United Nations Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

The United Nations Class 9 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Class 9 Political Science Chapter 4 The United Nations Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Political Science Class 9 Chapter 4 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. Choose the right option and rewrite the sentence:

Question 1.
This country is not a permanent member of United Nations Security Council _____.
(a) America
(b) Russia
(c) Germany
(d) China
Answer:
(c) Germany

Maharashtra Board Class Maharashtra Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 The United Nations

Question 2.
The United Nations has _______ number of members.
(a) 190
(b) 193
(c) 198
(d) 199
Answer:
(b) 193

Question 3.
This international organisation conducts workshops in India on remedial measures to tackle the problem of malnutrition among children
(a) UNICEF
(b) UNESCO
(c) Trusteeship Council
(d) Red Cross
Answer:
(a) UNICEF

2. Explain with reasons whether the following statements are true or false:

Question 1.
The United Nations General Assembly is a platform to discuss global problems.
Answer:
True.

  • Every year the General Assembly meets in its session. During the session, the General Assembly discusses important issues like environment, disarmament, etc.
  • The significance of the General Assembly lies in it being a platform for representatives of member nations to come together and discuss and make policy decisions on issues of global importance.

Maharashtra Board Class Maharashtra Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 The United Nations

Question 2.
The status of all the member nations of the United Nations is not equal.
Answer:
False.

  • As mentioned in the principles of UN, all member nations have the same status.
  • There is no discrimination among nations based on geographical size, economic or military power.

Question 3.
A resolution can be passed even if China exercises its veto power.
Answer:
False

  • China is one of the five permanent members of the UN and the permanent members have veto power.
  • If even one of the five permanent members uses it’s veto i.e. gives a negative vote, the decision cannot be taken.

Question 4.
India has played a major role in the work of the United Nations.
Answer:
True.

  • India has always sent her troops to participate in the United Nations peacekeeping forces.
  • India has participated in bringing issues like decolonisation, disarmament, racial segregation on the United Nations platform.

3. Explain the following concepts:

Question 1.
Veto
Answer:
(i) Security Council has 5 permanent members and 10 non-permanent members.
(ii) For any decision to be taken, the assent of all five permanent members and four non¬permanent members is necessary.
(iii) America, Russia, England, France and China are permanent members of the Security Council. They have the veto power.
(iv) If even one of the five permanent member uses its veto i.e. gives a negative vote, the decision cannot be taken

Question 2.
UNICEF
Answer:
(i) UNICEF is an affiliated organisation of the United Nations.
(ii) It works towards making nutritious food and health care available to children.
(iii) Several workshops were organised in India to find out measures to overcome malnutrition among babies and children.

4. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
Write the reasons for the establishment of the United Nations.
Answer:
The United Nations is the world’s largest international organisation. The reasons for the establishment of the United Nations are:

(i) Two World Wars were fought at the beginning of the twentieth century.

(ii) Life and property were destroyed on a large scale in these wars.

(iii) As a result, the League of Nations was established after the First World War and the United Nations was established after the Second World War out of a realisation that there has to be a mechanism to establish world peace.

(iv) The League of Nations did not succeed at all.

(v) But after the use of the nuclear weapons in the . Second World War, the idea took root that such destructive wars should be stopped and that it is the collective responsibility of all nations to do so.

(vi) The United Nations was established after the Second World War to instill this understanding among all nations.

(vii) Hence, the United Nations, an international organisation was established to ensure peace and security at the international level.

Maharashtra Board Class Maharashtra Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 The United Nations

Question 2.
Write the objectives of the United Nations.
Answer:
The United Nations has its own definite objectives. They are as follows:

  • To establish friendly relations among nations.
  • To enhance international security by solving international disputes.
  • To safeguard and foster human rights and freedom.
  • Along with these, the United Nations also aim at enhancing economic cooperation at the international level.

Question 3.
What is the role of the Peacekeeping Forces of the United Nations?
Answer:
(i) The peacekeeping activity of the United Nations involves creating appropriate circumstances favourable for bringing about permanent peace in strife-tom areas.
(ii) The peacekeeping forces help these areas to progress towards peace.
(iii) In conflict ridden areas, security is provided and at the same time, help is extended for establishing peace.
(iv) The United Nations takes up peacekeeping as one of the tasks for safeguarding and fostering peace in the world.

5. Do as directed:

Question 1.
Complete the following chart giving information about the organs of the United Nations.

S.No Organ Number of members Functions
1. United Nations General Assembly ………. …………….
2. United Nations Security Council ………….. …………….
3. International Court of Justice ………….. ……………….
4. Economic and Social Council ………….. ………………..

Answer:

S.No. Organ Number of members Functions
(1) United
Nations
General Assembly
193 (1) To elect the non-permanent members of the Security Council.
(2)  To choose the United Nations Secretary General and the judges of the International Court of Justice (ICJ) in consultation with the Security Council.
(3) To pass the annual budget of the United Nations.
(2) United Nations Security Council 15

(5 Permanent and 10 NonPermanent)

(1) To maintain international peace and security.
(2) To prepare policies for arms control.
(3) To play a joint role along with the General Assembly in the appointments of the judges of the International Court of Justice and of the United Nations Secretary General.
(3) International Court of Justice 15 judges (1) To settle the disputes between two or more member nations of the United Nations.
(2) To interpret international law authentically.
(3) To advise the various organs or subsidiary bodies of the United Nations about legal issues.
(4) Economic and Social Council 54 members (1) Initiate discussions at the global level on issues like poverty, unemployment, economic and social inequality and suggest policies to tackle these problems.
(2) Discuss issues like women’s questions, empowerment of women, human rights, fundamental freedoms, global trade, health related issues, etc., and make decisions.
(3) Make efforts to establish cultural and educational cooperation at the international level.
(4) Coordinate the functioning of the different organisations working in association with the United Nations.

Question 2.
Show the chronology of the establishment of the United Nations.
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 The United Nations 4
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 The United Nations 3

Maharashtra Board Class Maharashtra Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 The United Nations

Question 3.
Complete the following tree diagram about the United Nations.
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 The United Nations 10
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 The United Nations 9

Class 9 Political Science Chapter 4 The United Nations Intext Questions and Answers

Answer the following in brief:

Question 1.
Did India participate in the conferences during the Second World War?
Answer:
India was among the original members of the United Nations that signed the Declaration by United Nations at Washington, D.C. on 1st January, 1942 and also participated in the United Nations Conference on International Organization at San Francisco from 25th April to 26th June 1945.

Question 2.
Which day is celebrated as United Nations day?
Answer:
United Nations was established on 24th October 1945. The day is now celebrated each year . around the world as United Nations Day.

Question 3.
Can the United Nations intervene militarily if there is a serious threat to international peace?
Answer:
The United Nations can’t intervene militarily if there is a serious threat to international peace. The UN, after approval by the Security Council, sends peacekeepers to regions where armed conflict has recently ceased or stalled to enforce the terms of peace agreements and to discourage combatants from resuming hostilities.

Question 4.
What steps have the United Nations taken to foster human rights and freedom?
Answer:
One of the UN’s primary purposes is to promote and encourage respect for human rights and to ensure fundamental freedoms for all without distinction on the basis of race, sex, language, or religion. In 1948, the General Assembly adopted a Universal Declaration of Human Rights. In 1979, the General Assembly adopted the Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women, followed by the Convention on the Rights of the Child, in 1989. United Nations Commission on Human Rights was formed in 1993 to oversee human rights issues for the UN.

Maharashtra Board Class Maharashtra Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 The United Nations

Question 5.
Only one Indian has so far been the President of the UN General Assembly. Who is that person? When and at which session?
Answer:
Mrs. Vijayalakshmi Pandit is the only Indian so far who has been the President of the UN General Assembly, at the eighth session in 1953.

Activity:

Question 1.
Write the names of United Nations Secretary Generals until now.
Answer:
(i) Mr. Trygve Lie
(ii) Mr. Dag Hammarskjold
(iii) Mr. U. Thant
(iv) Mr. Kurt Waldheim
(v) Mr. Javier Perez de Cuellar
(vi) Mr. Boutros Boutros Ghali
(vii) Mr. Kofi Annan
(viii) Mr. Ban Ki Moon
(ix) Mr. Antonio Guterres

Question 2.
Is it necessary that the Secretary-General should be a citizen of the great powers/the big five?
Answer:
It is not necessary that the Secretary General should be a citizen of one of the great powers/ the big five. Here is the list of Secretary Generals with their countries: Mr. Trygve Lie (Norway) Mr. Dag Hammarskjold (Sweden)

  • Mr. U. Thant (Mayanmar)
  • Mr. Kurt Waldheim (Austria)
  • Mr. Javier Perez de Cuellar (Peru)
  • Mr. Boutros Boutros Ghali (Egypt)
  • Mr. Kofi Annan (Ghana)
  • Mr. Ban Ki Moon (South Korea)
  • Mr. Antonio Guterres (Portugal)

Question 3.
Are citizens of a particular country given priority for being Secretary-General?
Answer:
The citizens of no particular country are given priority for being Secretary General.

Question 4.
Who is the current Secretary General and which country does he belong to?
Answer:
The current Secretary General is Antonio Guterres and he belongs to Portugal.

Class 9 Political Science Chapter 4 The United Nations Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
The United Nations Organisation was founded on _______.
(a) August 9,1944
(b) October 24,1944
(c) October 24,1945
(d) December 10,1945
Answer:
(c) October 24,1945

Maharashtra Board Class Maharashtra Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 The United Nations

Question 2.
The United Nations has ____ main organs.
(a) four
(b) five
(c) six
(d) seven
Answer:
(c) six

Question 3.
The United Nations has ______ official languages.
(a) four
(b) five
(c)six
(d) three
Answer:
(c)six

Question 4.
This language is not an official language of the United Nations
(a) French
(b) Spanish
(c) Arabic
(d) Italian
Answer:
(d) Italian

Question 5.
There are ______ permanent members in the Security Council.
(a) four
(b) five
(c)six
(d) seven
Answer:
(b) five

Question 6.
There are ________ non-permanent members in the Security Council.
(a) ten
(b) five
(c) fifteen
(d) seven
Answer:
(a) ten

Question 7.
The term of a non-permanent member of the Security Council is of ______.
(a) four years
(b) five years
(c) two years
(d) one year
Answer:
(c) two years

Question 8.
Which organ of the United Nations has suspended its operations since 1994?
(a) Trusteeship Council
(b) Economic and Social Council
(c) Secretariat
(d) International Court of Justice
Answer:
(a) Trusteeship Council

Question 9.
How many Judges are there in the International Court of Justice?
(a) 9
(b) 10
(c) 12
(d) 15
Answer:
(d) 15

Question 10.
What is the term of the United Nations Secretary General?
(a) 3 years
(b) 4 years
(c) 6 years
(d) 5 years
Answer:
(d) 5 years

Maharashtra Board Class Maharashtra Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 The United Nations

Question 11.
UN Secretary General heads which principal organ of the United Nations Organisation?.
(a) General Assembly
(b) Security Council
(c) Economic and Social Council
(d) The Secretariat
Answer:
(d) The Secretariat

Question 12.
What is the term of a judge of the International Court of Justice?
(a) 9 years
(b) 4 years
(c) 6 years
(d) 5 years
Answer:
(a) 9 years

Question 13.
How many members does the Economic and Social Council have?
(a) 33
(b) 40
(c) 15
(d) 54
Answer:
(d) 54

Give the full forms of the following acronyms:

Question 1.
ILO:
Answer:
International Labour Organisation

Question 2.
FAO:
Answer:
Food and Agriculture Organisation

Question 3.
WHO:
Answer:
World Health Organisation

Question 4.
WB:
Answer:
World Bank

Question 5.
IMF:
Answer:
International Monetary Fund

Question 6.
UNICEF:
Answer:
United Nations Children’s Fund

Question 7.
UNESCO:
Answer:
United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation

State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons:

Question 1.
UNICEF is the main organ of UN.
Answer:
False.
(i) The United Nations has six main organs:

  1. General Assembly
  2. Security Council
  3. Economic and Social Council
  4. International Court of Justice
  5. Trusteeship Council and
  6. Secretariat.

(ii) UNICEF is an affiliated organisation of the United Nations. It works towards making nutritious food and health care available to children.

Maharashtra Board Class Maharashtra Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 The United Nations

Explain the following concepts:

Question 1.
Millennium Development Goals
Answer:
The United Nations member nations came together in 2000 and decided upon the development goals for the new millennium. Some of the important goals are as follows:

  • To eliminate poverty and hunger.
  • To make the facilities of primary education available.
  • To bring about women’s empowerment, reduce infant mortality rate.
  • To take special care of the health of pregnant women.
  • To fight diseases like AIDS, malaria, etc.
  • To protect the environment and increase the cooperation between developed and developing countries.

Question 2.
International Criminal Court
Answer:
(i) The International Criminal Court is an inter-governmental organisation and an international tribunal.
(ii) Its headquarters are at The Hague in the Netherlands.
(iii) The International Criminal Court has the jurisdiction to prosecute individuals for international crimes of genocide, crimes against humanity and war crimes that are of concern to the international community.

Question 3.
International Court of Justice.
Answer:
(i) International Court of Justice means the judicial branch of the United Nations. The International Court of Justice is located at The Hague in the Netherlands.
(ii) There are 15 judges in the International Court of Justice.
(iii) They are chosen by the General Assembly and the Security Council. Every judge has tenure of nine years.
(iv) Functions:

  • To settle the disputes between two or more member nations of the United Nations.
  • To interpret international law authentically.
  • To advise the various organs or subsidiary bodies of the United Nations about legal issues.

Question 4.
The UN Security Council.
Answer:
Security Council is one of the 6 main organs of the UN:

(i) There are 15 members in the Security Council. Of them, five are permanent members, while ten are non-permanent members.

(ii) The non-permanent members are chosen every two years by the General Assembly. America, Russia, England, France and China are permanent members of the Security Council. They have the veto power.

(iii) For any decision to be taken, the assent of all five permanent members and four non permanent members is necessary. If even one of the five permanent member uses his veto i.e. gives a negative vote, the decision cannot be taken.

(iv) Functions of the Security Council:

(a) The main responsibility of the Security Council is to maintain international peace and security.
The Security Council may suggest one among the following alternatives in situations of international conflict:

  • End/resolve conflict and make efforts to establish peace
  • Impose economic sanctions or take a decision of military action against the aggressor nation.

(b) To prepare policies for arms control.
(c) To play a joint role along with the General Assembly in the appointments of the judges of the International Court of Justice and of the United Nations Secretary General.

Complete the following table:

Question 1.

(1) WHO (a) ………….
(2) UNESCO (b) …………..
(3) UNICEF (c) …………
(4) ILO (d) …………….

Answer:

(1) WHO (a) World Health Organization
(2) UNESCO (b) United Nations Educational Scientific and Cultural Organization
(3) UNICEF (c) United Nations Children’s, Fund
(4) ILO (d) International Labour Organization

Maharashtra Board Class Maharashtra Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 The United Nations

Question 2.

(1) New York (a) ……….
(2) Hague, Netherlands (b) …………
(3) San Francisco (c) ………..

Answer:

(1) New York (a) Headquarters of UN
(2) Hague, Netherlands (b) International Court of Justice
(3) San Francisco (c) Drafting of UN Charter

Complete the flow chart:

Question 1.
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 The United Nations 1
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 The United Nations 2

Complete the chart:

Question 1.
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 The United Nations 6
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 The United Nations 5

Question 2.
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 The United Nations 8
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 The United Nations 7

Answer the following in brief:

Question 1.
State the role of UN General Assembly as platform to discuss global problems.
Answer:
The United Nations General Assembly is a platform to discuss global problems because:

  • Every year the General Assembly meets in its session from September to December.
  • During the session, the General Assembly discusses important issues like environment, disarmament, etc
  • The decisions in the General Assembly are taken by the majority. These decisions are in the form of resolutions.
  • The significance of the General Assembly lies in being a platform for representatives of member nations to come together and discuss and make policy decisions on issues of global importance.

Question 2.
United Nations plays an important role in preservation of peace. Explain the statement.
Answer:
(i) The objective of the United Nations is to settle international conflict peacefully.

(ii) The United Nations Charter lays down the ways and means to be employed to achieve this goal.

(iii) It includes appointing an intermediary acceptable to the nations involved in the conflict, use the legal procedure, appoint an arbitrator to solve the dispute and if needed, to take recourse to military means and ensure that conflict will not occur again.

(iv) In modem times, human security has been threatened by terrorism, racist and religious conflict. As a result, the function of securing peace of the United Nations has acquired a lot of importance.

(v) The United Nations makes efforts to ensure that violence does not erupt in strife-tom areas and normalcy is restored as soon as possible, by (for example), starting schools, creating awareness among the people about human rights, making social, economic, political facilities available, conducting elections, etc.

Question 3.
How had India helped to solve international conflicts peacefully?
Answer:
(i) India had participated in the different Conferences that were held before the establishment of the United Nations.

(ii) India has participated in bringing issues like decolonisation, disarmament and racial segregation on the United Nations platform.

(iii) In 1946, India was the first country to raise . the question of racism in the United Nations.India has always led the discussions about the problems of undeveloped and developing countries.

(iv) India has always sent her troops to participate in the United Nations peacekeeping forces. Not just that, India has sent an all-woman peacekeeping force as well.

(v) It is evident from the foregoing analysis that India makes serious efforts to solve international conflicts by peaceful means.

Question 4.
What is the role of UNESCO?
Answer:
UNESCO, is an affiliated organisation of the United Nations works towards peace and security in the world by promoting cooperation between member countries in the fields of education, science and culture.

Maharashtra Board Class Maharashtra Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 The United Nations

Question 5.
What are the principles of the United Nations?
Answer:
The United Nations is an organisation created by the coming together of sovereign nations. Naturally, it is based on certain principles or rules. They are as follows:

  • All member nations will have the same status. There is no discrimination among nations based on geographical size, economic or military power.
  • All member nations of the United Nations should respect the freedom and geographical unity of other member nations.
  • All member nations should solve their international disputes and mutual issues peacefully.

Question 6.
What are the functions of the General Assembly?
Answer:
The United Nations General Assembly is a platform to discuss global problems. Functions of General Assembly are:

  • To elect the non-permanent members of the Security Council.
  • To choose the United Nations Secretary General and the judges of the International Court of Justice (ICJ) in consultation with the Security Council.
  • To pass the annual budget of the United Nations.

Question 7.
What are the specialised agencies of UN?
Answer:
(i) Apart from these six major organs, there are many affiliated organisations of the United Nations that help it in its functions. They are called specialised agencies.

(ii) Working in specific areas, they help different nations in those areas.

(iii) The following are some of these important agencies:

  • International Labour Organisation (ILO)
  • Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO)
  • World Health Organisation (WHO)
  • World Bank (WB)
  • International Monetary Fund (IMF)
  • United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF)
  • United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO)

Question 8.
Why was the Trusteeship Council setup and why has it suspended its operations?
Answer:
(i) After the Second World War, the territories that were undeveloped were placed under the responsibility of the developed nations.

(ii) The latter were supposed to help bring about the development of the trust territories and once they attain independence from their colonies, help establish democracy.

(iii) The work of the Trusteeship Council is over as there are no trust territories left.

(iv) The work of the Trusteeship Council ended when Palau got independence on 1st November 1994.

Question 9.
Write about the phases in establishment of the United Nations.
Answer:
The United Nations is an international organisation of sovereign nations. It was established in the following manner:

(i) The Atlantic Treaty was signed between Prime Minister of England, Sir Winston Churchill and American, President Franklin D Roosevelt during the Second World War on 14th August 1941.

(ii) According to this treaty, a decision was taken to set up a permanent mechanism to establish international security after the Second World War was over.

(iii) Detailed discussions followed on this decision in two conferences among allied powers in 1944 and 1945.

(iv) A draft of the treaty to establish an international organisation was prepared.

(v) At San Francisco in America, representatives of fifty countries drafted the Charter of the United Nations after discussions.

(vi) As soon as the war was over, the Charter was signed on 24th October, 1945 and the United Nations was established.

Question 10.
Explain the characteristics of the Economic and Social Council.
Answer:
Economic and Social Council:

(i) The main objective of this organisation is to coordinate the economic and social policies of the United Nations.
(ii) The Council has 54 members. They are selected by the General Assembly.
(iii) Each member has a tenure of three years and each year, one-third of the members are newly chosen. Decisions are taken by majority vote.
(iv) Functions:

  •  Initiate discussions at the global level on issues like poverty, unemployment, economic and social inequality and suggest policies to tackle these problems.
  • Discuss issues like women’s questions, empowerment of women, human rights, fundamental freedoms, global trade, health related issues, etc. and make decisions.
  • Make efforts to establish cultural and educational cooperation at the international level.
  • Coordinate the functioning of the different organisations working in association with the United Nations.

Activity:

Question 1.
Name the UN Secretary-General who later on became the President of his country.
Answer:
Mr. Kurt Waldheim of Austria.

Maharashtra Board Class Maharashtra Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 The United Nations

Question 2.
Name the UN Secretary-General who died in an air-crash.
Answer:
Dag Hammarskjold of Sweden, died on September 18, 1961, during a Congo Mission.

9th Std Political Science Questions And Answers:

Std 9 History Chapter 8 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 8 Industry and Trade Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Industry and Trade Class 9 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Class 9 History Chapter 8 Industry and Trade Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

History Class 9 Chapter 8 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1A. Choose the right option and rewrite the sentence:

Question 1.
In 1948, Industrial Finance Corporation of India was formed for ________.
(a) better development of the industrial sector
(b) making available long term loans to industrial projects
(c) generating employment
(d) determining the quality of finished goods
Answer:
(b) making available long term loans to industrial projects

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 8 Industry and Trade

Question 2.
industry in India is called the _____.
‘Sunrise Sector’.
(a) Jute
(b) Automobile
(c) Cement
(d) Khadi and village industries
Answer:
(b) Automobile

Question 3.
The major responsibility of the textiles committee is ________.
(a) Production of cloth
(b) Determining the quality standards of cloth
(c) Export of cloth
(d) Generate employment for people
Answer:
(b) Determining the quality standards of cloth

Question 4.
__________ is the major Indian city in the production of bicycles.
(a) Mumbai
(b) Ludhiana
(c) Cochin
(d) Calcutta
Answer:
(b) Ludhiana

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 8 Industry and Trade

B. Identify the wrong pair and rewrite the corrected one:

Question 1.
(1) Industrial Finance Corporation of India – makes long term loans available for industrial projects.
(2) Industrial Development Corporation – development of the industrial sector.
(3) Textiles Committee – the welfare of weavers.
(4) Khadi and Village Industries Commission – promotion of industrialization in rural areas
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Textiles Committee – the welfare of weavers.

Question 2.
(1) Bicycle – Ludhiana
(2) Seribiotic Research Laboratory – Nagpur
(3) Tractor Export – Africa
(4) Port for Trade – Mumbai.
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Seribiotic Research Laboratory -Nagpur.

2A. Create a concept picture based on the chapter:

Question 1.
Industries in India.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 8 Industry and Trade 1

Question 2.
India’s imports and exports or foreign trade.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 8 Industry and Trade 2

B. Explain the following concept:

Question 1.
Internal trade of India.
Answer:
(i) India’s internal trade takes place through railways, waterways, roads, airways, etc. Ports like Mumbai, Kolkata, Cochin and Chennai are important.
(ii) Commodities like coal, cotton, cotton textiles, rice, wheat, raw jute, iron, steel, oilseeds, salt, sugar, etc. are included in internal trade.
(iii) Due to the development of industries, the standard of life in the country improves.
(iv) Many opportunities for employment become available. On the whole, it helps in the progress of the country.

3A. Explain with reasons:

Question 1.
The tourism industry has developed to a great extent in India.
Answer:
(i) India has a rich cultural heritage. There are places of worship of different religions, pilgrimage centers, confluences of rivers, forts, caves, etc. all over our country.

(ii) Tourists from our country as well as from abroad travel in India throughout the year.

(iii) The facilities for tourists to stay, travel, etc. are provided through the Tourism Development Corporation. Sale of curios and the hotel industry thrives in tourist places. In some places, there are guides who give information to tourists about that area.

(iv) Sometimes when vehicles don’t reach the destination in some remote areas and difficult to reach tourist places, the local people help the tourists in return for a fee.

(v) Employment opportunities are generated out of these needs. Thus, the tourism industry has developed a lot in India.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 8 Industry and Trade

Question 2.
The quality of life and standard of living of Indian citizens is increasing.
Answer:
(i) After India became independent, the Industrial Finance Corporation of India was established in 1948 to make available long term loans to Industrial projects.

(ii) The Industrial Development Corporation was established in 1954 in order to bring about greater development of the industrial sector.

(iii) Due to the development of industries, many opportunities for employment become available.

(iv) On the whole, it helps in the progress of the country.

(v) Thus the standard of life in the country improves.

B. Write the answer in 25 to 30 words:

Question 1.
What efforts are made by our government to promote agricultural industries?
Answer:
The following efforts are made by our Government to promote agriculture and industries:

(i) To encourage farming, loans are given to farmers through rural banks and cooperative institutions.

(ii) Study visits, agricultural outdoor trips and farmers’ get-togethers are organised through the Panchayat Samitis to bring about improvements in agriculture.

(iii) Tools and implements, seeds and fertilisers are also supplied. The farmers are given training regarding soil testing, nursery of fruit plants, pisciculture, poultry, cattle and goat rearing, dairy farming, etc.

(iv) Guidance is given to farmers by a district level training institute. Financial help is given to build warehouses for storing the farm produce.

Question 2.
How is employment generated in the tourism sector?
Answer:
(i) The facilities for tourists to stay, travel, etc. are provided through the Tourism Development Corporation.
(ii) Sale of curios and the hotel industry thrives in tourist places.
(iii) In some places, there are guides who give information to tourists about that area.
(iv) Sometimes when vehicles don’t reach the destination in some remote areas and difficult to reach tourist places, the local people help the tourists in return for a fee.
Thus, employment opportunities are generated out of these needs.

Question 3.
Which industries in India are based on forests?
Answer:
(i) Government has reserved some forests for the industries based on forests.
(ii) The task of conservation of the forests is done by the Central government, the State government, and by the local people.
(iii) Forests are necessary for the raw material for industries like construction, paper, newsprint, silk, matchboxes, medicinal herbs, honey, lacquer, and raw material needed for paint.

Question 4.
Write a short note on the leather industry in India.
Answer:
(i) It is a big industry in India. It is primarily export-oriented.
(ii) The Council for Leather Export is the main trade promotion organization for Indian leather Industry.
(iii) The Indian leather industry contributes almost 13% of world’s leather production.
(iv) India is the second largest producer of footwear and leather garments in the world.

4. Complete the table:

Question 1.

Goods imported in India ………………….
Goods exported from India ……………………

Answer:

Goods imported in India When planning started in 1951, the import of industrial goods and raw material required for production increased. India’s imports included machines, iron, mineral oil, fertilisers, medicines, etc.
Goods exported from India India also gave impetus to exports after independence in order to gain valuable foreign exchange. India’s exports included tea, coffee, spices, cotton textiles, leather, footwear, pearls, precious stones, etc.

Class 9 History Chapter 8 Industry and Trade Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
Market mechanisms like ______ enables the craftsmen from rural and urban areas to get a market for their wares.
(a) Dilli Haat
(b) Mumbai Market
(c) Handloom Emporium
(d) Handicraft Expo.
Answer:
(a) Dilli Haat

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 8 Industry and Trade

Question 2.
The textile industry forms ______ % of the total industrial production.
(a) 17
(b) 14
(c) 16
(d) 15
Answer:
(b) 14

Question 3.
________ industry functions under the Ministry of Textiles.
(a) Automobile
(b) Cement
(c) Leather
(d) Silk
Answer:
(d) Silk

Question 4.
_______ is a scheme that helps weavers through self-finance groups and nongovernmental organisations.
(a) MNREGA
(b) Employment Generation Program
(c) Swarnajayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana
(d) Mega Cluster
Answer:
(d) Mega Cluster

Question 5.
Industrial Finance Corporation of India was established in _______.
(a) 1948
(b) 1949
(c) 1951
(d) 1991
Answer:
(a) 1948

Question 6.
Industrial Development Corporation was established in ________.
(a) 1955
(b) 1956
(c) 1957
(d)1954
Answer:
(d)1954

Question 7.
Textile Committee Act was passed in ________.
(a)1961
(b) 1960
(c) 1963
(d) 1964
Answer:
(c) 1963

Question 8.
Industrial Licensing Policy was formulated in _______.
(а) 1970
(b) 1980
(c)1990
(d) 1991
Answer:
(а) 1970

Identify and write the wrong pair in the following sets:

Question 1.
(1) Industrial Licensing policy – 1970
(2) Textile Committee Act – 1963
(3) Industrial Finance Corporation of India – 1948
(4) Industrial Development Corporation – 1958
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Industrial Development Corporation -1958.

Question 2.
(1) Mega cluster – Welfare scheme for weavers.
(2) Dilli Haat – Enables the craftsmen to get a market
(3) Cement Industry – Sunrise sector
(4) Leather Industry – Export Oriented
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Cement Industry – Sunrise sector.

Question 3.
(1) Hand Sculpting – labour intensive
(2) Silk Industry – Ministry of textiles
(3) Khadi and Village Industry Commission – Fourth five year plan
(4) Tourism Development Corporation – facilities for tourist
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Khadi and Village Industry Commission -Fourth five year plan

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 8 Industry and Trade

Do as Directed:

Question 1.
Arrange the following in chronological order:
(i) Textile Committee Act
(ii) Industrial Finance Corporation of India was established
(iii) Industrial Licensing Policy
(iv) Industrial Development Corporation was established
Answer:
(i) Industrial Finance Corporation of India was established in 1948
(ii) Industrial Development Corporation was established in 1954
(iii) Textile Committee Act 1963
(iv) Industrial Licensing Policy of 1970

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Hand sculpting Industry.
Answer:
(i) This is a labour intensive craft.
(ii) Sculptors got employment due to the capacity of the craft to absorb more craftsmen, small investment, more profits, preference to exports and possibility of earning more foreign exchange.
(iii) Several cities have market mechanisms like ‘Dilli Haat’ which enables the craftsmen from rural and urban areas to get a market for their wares.

Question 2.
‘Mega cluster’ scheme and Jute Industry.
Answer:
(i) ‘Mega cluster’ is a scheme that helps weavers through self-finance groups and non-governmental organisations.
(ii) Help is given in the form of raw material, design banks, development of technology and welfare of the weavers.
(iii) India is the top ranking country in jute production. India is a major exporter of jute products.
(iv) We get cloth, sack cloth and ropes from jute.

Question 3.
Cement Industry.
Answer:
(i) The role of cement industry is important in the development of housing and infrastructure.
(ii) This industry is one of the most technologically advanced. India is currently an important producer of cement in the world.

Question 4.
Salt and Bicycle industry.
Answer:
(i) India is one of the top producers of salt in the world.
(ii) The annual production of salt in India is 200 lakh tons.
(iii) The production of iodised salt is 60 lakh tons.
(iv) India is a leading producer of bicycles in the world.
(v) Bicycles are made in the states of Punjab and Tamil Nadu.
(vi) The main centre of bicycle manufacturing in India is Ludhiana.
(vii) India exports bicycles to countries like Nigeria, Mexico, Kenya, Uganda and Brazil.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 8 Industry and Trade

Question 5.
Mineral wealth and fisheries.
Answer:
(i) The availability of the minerals, iron and coal plays a major role in the industrial development of the country.
(ii) We have adequate stores of iron, manganese, coal and mineral oil in our country.
(iii) Fisheries include sea water fish and fresh water fish found in rivers, canals, ponds and lakes.
(iv) Harbours have been built or old harbours have been redeveloped, fish seed incubation centres and fishing industry training centres have been provided for the growth of this industry.

Question 6.
Khadi and Village Industries Commission.
Answer:
(i) The Khadi and Village Industries Commission was established to give impetus to industrialisation in rural areas.
(ii) The main objectives behind the establishment of the corporation were to develop the traditional industries, handicrafts, cottage industries and to encourage industries that use the material and human resources available at the local level and make the villages self-reliant by creating employment there.

Explain the statements with reason:

Question 1.
Agriculture fulfills man’s basic needs.
Answer:
(i) The major occupation in India is agriculture and other tasks based on agriculture.
(ii) Many varieties of crops are grown. Jowar, wheat, rice, pulses and oilseeds are mainly produced.
(iii) Agriculture also includes the production of fruits and vegetables. Nowadays, industries processing these fruits and vegetables have come up.
(iv) Thus, Agriculture fulfills man’s basic needs.

Read the following passage and answer the questions.

Forest resources: The government has reserved some forests for the industries based on forests. The task of conservation of the forests is done by the Central government, the State government, and by the local, people. Forests are necessary for the raw material for industries like construction, paper, newsprint, silk, matchboxes, medicinal herbs, honey lacquer, and raw material needed for paint.
Fisheries: Fisheries include seawater fish and fresh i water fish found in rivers, canals, ponds, and lakes.
Tourism: India has a rich cultural heritage. There are places of worship of different religions, pilgrimage centers, confluences of rivers, forts, caves, etc. all over our country. Tourists from our country as well as from abroad travel in India throughout the year.
The facilities for tourists to stay, travel, etc. are, provided through the Tourism Development Corporation. The sale of curios and the hotel industry thrives in tourist places. In some places, there are guides who give information, to tourists about that area. Sometimes when vehicles, don’t reach the destination in some remote and difficult to reach tourist places, the local people help the tourists in return for a fee. Employment, opportunities are generated out of these needs.

Question 1.
Name a few industries which depend upon forest resources for their production.
Answer:
A few industries which depend upon forest resources are – construction, newsprint, paper and silk industry. Even lacquer is required to paint and coat furniture, honey and herbs for medicinal use.

Question 2.
Do you think Tourism is an industry? How has this industry prospered in India so far?
Answer:
Yes, tourism is an industry. India attracts a lot of foreign tourists every year as it is a home of many pilgrimage places, has a confluence of rivers, scenic landscapes and historical monuments. The Tourism Development Corporation provides all facilities of stay and travel in India. Not just the guides but also local people of the tourist spots help the tourists to reach difficult destinations with ease. The sale of curios and the hotel industry thrives in tourist places. Hence India’s tourism is prospering at a fast pace.

Question 3.
Do you agree that cross-border terrorism in Kashmir has affected tourism in this region? what can be done to protect tourism there?
Answer:
It is true that cross-border terrorism has affected tourism in the Kashmir region. I think the following are a few measures which can ensure protection of tourists:

(i) The army and other paramilitary forces should become more tourist – friendly and convince them to refrain from visiting terror-prone areas.

(ii) Bilateral talks at the governmental level can also play a vital role in preventing unpleasant experiences for the tourists.

(iii) During skirmishes or conflicts of any kind, the tourists should be restricted from visiting the valley. Those already stuck in the regions during sudden eruption of violence must be given a safe passage with priority.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 8 Industry and Trade

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
Explain Agriculture in India.
Answer:
(i) Agriculture, in India, is practised using traditional and modern methods. Tasks are performed using bullocks as well as machines.

(ii) Seventy percent of Indian society depends upon jobs related to agriculture and agricultural production.

(iii) Agriculture and animal husbandry are practised in villages. In this industry the participation of women is equal to that of men.

(iv) Variety of crops like jowar, wheat, rice, pulses and oilseeds, cotton and sugarcane are produced in India.

(v) To encourage farming, loans are given to farmers through rural banks and cooperative institutions.

(vi) Study visits, agricultural outdoor trips and farmers’ get-togethers are organised through the Panchayat Samitis to bring about improvements in agriculture.

(vii) Tools and implements, seeds and fertilisers are also supplied. The farmers are given training regarding soil testing, nursery of fruit plants, pisciculture, poultry, cattle and goat rearing, dairy farming, etc.

(viii) Guidance is given to farmers by a district level training institute. Financial help is given to build warehouses for storing the farm produce.

(ix) Modern techniques like drip irrigation, organic farming are used for farming.

Question 2.
Industries in India.
Answer:
(i) Textile industry: The textile industry forms 14% of the total industrial production.
It includes the powerloom and the handloom industries. The handloom industries are labour-intensive. According to the ‘Textile Committee Act 1963’, a Textile Committee has been established. This committee sets the quality standards for textiles manufactured for sale in the internal market as well as for export.

(ii) Silk industry: This industry functions under the Ministry of Textiles. The research about the species of the silkworm and mulberry trees is done in the Seribiotic Research Laboratory at Bengaluru. This industry is primarily in the States of Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, West Bengal, Jammu and Kashmir. Now it is being spread in states with predominantly tribal populations.

(iii) Jute industry: India is the top ranking country in jute production. India is a major exporter of jute products. We get cloth, sack cloth and ropes from jute.

(iv) Hand sculpting: This is a labour intensive craft. Sculptors got employment due to the capacity of the craft to absorb more craftsmen, small investment, more profits, preference to exports and possibility of earning more foreign exchange. Several cities have market mechanisms like ‘Dilli Haat’ which enables the craftsmen from rural and urban areas to get a market for their wares.

(v) Automobile industry: India is one of the major producers of vehicles. Vehicles are exported to 40 countries from India. The automobile industry is called the ‘sunrise sector’ in India. India’s tractor industry is the biggest in the world. One third of the tractors manufactured world-wide are produced in India. Tractors manufactured in India are exported to Turkey, Malaysia and several countries in Africa.

(vi) Cement industry: The role of cement industry is important in the development of housing and infrastructure. This industry is one of the most technologically advanced. India is currently an important producer of cement in the world.

(vii) Leather industry: It is a big industry in India. It is primarily export oriented.

(viii) Salt industry: India is one of the top producers of salt in the world. The annual production of salt in India is 200 lakh tons. The production of iodised salt is 60 lakh tons.

(ix) Bicycle industry: India is a leading producer of bicycles in the world. Bicycles are made in the States of Punjab and Tamil Nadu. The main centre of bicycle manufacturing in India is Ludhiana. India exports bicycles to countries like Nigeria, Mexico, Kenya, Uganda and Brazil.

(x) Khadi and village industry: The Khadi and Village Industries Commission was established to give impetus to industrialization in rural areas. The main objectives behind the establishment of the corporation were to develop the traditional industries, handicrafts, cottage industries and to encourage industries that use the material and human resources available at the local level and make the villages self-reliant by creating employment there.

Question 3.
India’s imports and exports or foreign trade.
Answer:
(i) When planning started in 1951, import of industrial goods and raw material was required for increasing the production.
(ii) India’s imports included machines, iron, mineral oil, fertilisers, medicines, etc.
(iii) India also gave impetus to exports after independence in order to gain valuable foreign exchange.
(iv) India’s exports included tea, coffee, spices, cotton textiles, leather, footwear, pearls, precious stones, etc.

Question 4.
Explain the policy of the Central Government.
Answer:
(i) In the fourth five year plan, focus was placed on paper industry, pharmaceutical industry, motor-tractor industry, leather goods, textile industry, food processing industry, oil, colour, sugar industries, etc.

(ii) According to the Industrial Licensing Policy of 1970, all those factories requiring an investment of more than 5 crore rupees were to be included as heavy industries.

(iii) The big industrial houses and foreign companies were allowed to invest in heavy industries that were not reserved for the public sector.

(iv) As a result of this policy, by the end of 1972,3 lakh 18 thousand small industries were registered with the government registration office.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 8 Industry and Trade

Question 5.
Write a note on Silk Industry.
Answer:
(i) The silk industry functions under the Ministry of Textiles.
(ii) The research about the species of the silkworm and mulberry trees is done in the Seribiotic Research Laboratory at Bengaluru.
(iii) This industry is primarily in the States of Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, West Bengal and Jammu and Kashmir.
(iv) Now it is being spread in States with predominantly tribal populations.

9th Std History Questions And Answers:

Std 9 History Chapter 3 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 3 India’s Internal Challenges Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

India’s Internal Challenges Class 9 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Class 9 History Chapter 3 India’s Internal Challenges Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

History Class 9 Chapter 3 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. Write briefly.

Question 1.
Which demands were put forward through the ‘Anandpur Sahib Resolution’ by the Akali Dal?
OR
Which demands were raised by the Akali Dal through the ‘Anandpur Sahib Resolution’?
Answer:
In 1973, the Akali Dal passed the ‘Aanandpur Sahib Resolution’. The following demands were made in this resolution:
(i) Chandigarh should be made part of Punjab.
(ii) The Punjabi speaking parts in other states should be included in the state of Punjab,
(iii) Recruitment of people from Punjab in the Indian army should be increased.
(iv) More autonomy should be given to the state of Punjab.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 3 India’s Internal Challenges

Question 2.
What can we do to end communalism?
Answer:
(i) It is necessary that we all counter communalism with all our strength. For this, we should mix with people of different religions. We should accept the good practices and ideas of each other.

(ii) We should be able to look at and understand our economic and social problems rationally. We should not mix these matters with religion.

(iii) We should look for the economic, political or historical reasons that are responsible for disrupting religious harmony. This is the only way to put an end to communalism and strengthen national unity.

Question 3.
How does regionalism gain strength/become strong?
Answer:
(i) Regionalism thrives on regional imbalance in development. In the post-independence period, some states achieved more progress, while some states remained backward.

(ii) As a result, the states that develop economically can also achieve progress in other areas like education, health and culture.

(iii) The states which have not developed in this manner remain backward in education and civic amenities. The opportunities of development available to people in developed states are not possible for people in backward states.

(iv) They are troubled by problems of education, backwardness, unemployment, poverty, etc. They begin to think that they are being cheated; they are being kept away from the benefits of development. Because of this, the understanding between states is broken.

(v) The people of developed states begin to believe that they are superior due to their superior history and culture and hence they have developed that much. Then they begin to look down upon the people of underdeveloped regions.

(vi) They are not willing to share the benefits of ‘ development with the backward states.

(vii) On the other hand, the people from backward areas need to arouse their regional identity to organise themselves. For this, they try to unnecessarily glorify local traditions.

2. Explain the following concepts in your own words:

Question 1.
Communalism
Answer:
(i) Communalism is a serious threat to the unity of our country. It emerges out of narrow religious pride.

(ii) Fanaticism is the base of communalism. It makes one oblivious to national interest. Fanaticism makes the perspective of looking at events and people prejudiced.

(iii) Some people begin to think of economic and social questions in the framework of their own religion. They hold the idea that government is partial towards their religion.

(iv) If anybody speaks about their religion or insults their religious symbols knowingly or unknowingly, riots break out because of this kind of thinking. Hundreds of innocent people are killed. Public peace is destroyed.

Question 2.
Regionalism
Answer:
(i) Regionalism refers an over-adherence to the language, culture, socio-political structures and economic growth of one’s own region or territory which leads to disregard for people of other regions.

(ii) It is grounded in the uneven industrial and infrastructural development of various regions of the same nation. For example, states like Maharashtra, Gujarat, Punjab and Tamil Nadu are well developed economically and industrially, whereas states like Odisha, Bihar, Assam, have remained undeveloped economically and industrially.

(iii) The disparity in availability of education, employment and other civic amenities between developed and backward regions of the country leads to regionalism.

(iv) The people of economically backward states often feel neglected and deprived, whereas the people of developed states might become narrow-minded and refuse to share the benefits of their development.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 3 India’s Internal Challenges

3. Give reasons:

Question 1.
It became necessary to carry out Operation Blue Star.
Answer:
(i) In 1980, the movement for ‘Independent Khalistan’ took root in Punjab.

(ii) During that period, the leader of the Akali Dal was Sant Harcharan Singh Longowal. He used to direct his activists from the Golden Temple to stage protests.

(iii) On the other side of the Golden Temple, armed followers started gathering around the staunch Khalistan supporter Sant Jamail Singh Bhindranwale. During that period, terrorist activities had begun.

(iv) Bhindranwale was arrested in 1981, accused of the murder of newspaper editor, Lala Jagatnarayan. After this incident, the situation worsened.

(v) Due to these developments, President’s rule was imposed in Punjab in 1983.

(vi) Bhindranwale went to stay at a religious place called Akal Takht.

(vii) Bhindranwale’s followers captured the Golden Temple and built a barricade of sand bags over there. The area looked like a fort.

(viii) This greatly disturbed peace in Punjab. It was a major challenge to Indian democracy.

Question 2.
We should fight communalism with all our strength.
Answer:
(i) It is necessary that we all counter religious communalism with all our strength.
(ii) For this to become a reality, we should mix with people of different religions. We should accept the good practices and ideas of each other.
(iii) We should be able to look at and understand our economic and social problems rationally. We should not mix these issues with religion.
(iv) We should look for the economic, political or historical reasons that are responsible for disrupting religious harmony.
(v) This is the only way to put an end to communalism and to strengthen national unity.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 3 India’s Internal Challenges

4. Write the full forms:

Question 1.
NEFA
Answer:
North East Frontier Agency
Question 2.
MNF
Answer:
Mizo National Front

Question 3.
NNC
Answer:
Naga National Council

Class 9 History Chapter 3 India’s Internal Challenges Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
Akali Dal was the major political party of _______, which came to power in 1977.
(a) Haryana
(b) Punjab
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Gujarat
Answer:
Punjab

Question 2.
Akali Dal demanded ‘Holy City’ status for _______.
(a) Jalandhar
(b) Bhatinda
(c) Chandigarh
(d) Amritsar
Answer:
Amritsar

Question 3.
During the movement for ‘Independent Khalistan’ ______ was the leader of Akali Dal.
(a) Sant Jamail Singh Bhindranwale
(b) Sant Harcharan Singh
(c) Major General Shahbeg Singh
(d) Major General Kuldeep Singh Brar
Answer:
Sant Harcharan Singh

Question 4.
On the morning of 3rd June 1984, mission _____ started.
(a) Operation Blue Star
(b) Operation Black Thunder
(c) Operation Vijay
(d) Operation Smiling Buddha
Answer:
Operation Blue Star

Question 5.
The north-east consists of ____ states.
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 5
Answer:
8

Question 6.
In 1954, NEFA comprised of the territories on the ______ border and tribal areas towards the north of Assam.
(a) Indo-Pak
(b) Sino-Indian
(c) Indo-Nepalese
(d) Indo-Bhutanese
Answer:
Sino-Indian

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 3 India’s Internal Challenges

Question 7.
In 1965, the responsibility of administering the north-east regions of India was given to _______.
(a) Defence Ministry
(b) Ministry of External Affairs
(c) President of India
(d) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
Ministry of External Affairs

Question 8.
When India became independent, the government gave administrative autonomy to the districts of ______ majority areas of Lushai Hills.
(a) Naga
(b) Ahom
(c) Mizo
(d) Assamese
Answer:
Mizo

Question 9.
In 1961, Laldenga established the _______.
(a) All Assam Students Union
(b) Asom Gana Sangram Parishad
(c) Mizo National Front
(d) Naga National Council
Answer:
Mizo National Front

Question 10.
The Naga Tribe in north-east India was known to be a _____ tribe.
(a) nomadic
(b) pastoral
(c) martial
(d) ethnic
Answer:
martial

Question 11.
Naga National Council was led by ________.
(a) Prafullakumar Mohanto
(b) Laldenga
(c) Vizar Angami
(d) Angami Zapu Fizo
Answer:
Angami Zapu Fizo

Question 12.
The intense agitation of 1983 in Assam was staged over the question of _____.
(a) Exploitation by the landlords
(b) Bengali migrants from Bangladesh
(c) Autonomy in Assam
(d) Naxalites
Answer:
Bengali migrants from Bangladesh

Question 13.
On 20th February 1987, _______ got the status of a constituent state.
(a) Manipur
(b) Nagaland
(c) Assam
(d) Arunachal Pradesh
Answer:
Arunachal Pradesh

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 3 India’s Internal Challenges

Question 14.
The Naxalite movement started at Naxalbari in ______ district.
(a) Darjeeling
(b) Hojai
(c) Bishnupur
(d)Tuensang
Answer:
Darjeeling

Question 15.
The Naxalites established an organisation called _____.
(a) North-east Frontier Agency
(b) People’s Liberation Guerilla Army
(c) Mizo National Front
(d) Naga National Council
Answer:
People’s Liberation Guerilla Army

Identify and write the wrong pair in the following sets:

Question 1.
(1) Greater Mizoram – Mizo National Front
(2) Aanandpur Sahib Resolution – Akali Dal
(3) Action Committees – Communalism
(4) Operation Blue Star – Kuldeep Singh Brar
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Action Committees – Communalism

Question 2.
(1) Laldenga – Chief Minister of Mizoram
(2) Lala Jagatnarayan – Naxalite
(3) Prafullakumar Mahanta-Assam Ganaparishad
(4) Jamail Singh Bhindranwale – Independent Khalistan
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Lala Jagatnarayan – Naxalite

Question 3.
(1) 1973 – Anandpur Sahib Resolution
(2) 1954 – NEFA became Arunachal Pradesh
(3) 1972 – Mizo areas got the status of Union Territory
(4) 1961 – Mizo National Front was established
Answer:
Wrong Pair: 1954 – NEFA became Arunachal Pradesh

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 3 India’s Internal Challenges

Write the full form of the following acronyms:

Question 1.
PLGA
Answer:
People’s Liberation Guerilla Army

Do as directed

Question 1.
Complete the table using the information of Naxalite areas of activity provided in the chapter:
Answer:

(1) East Godavari Andhra Pradesh
(2) Adilabad, Bastar Rajnandangaon and Sukma Chhattisgarh
(3) Balaghat and Mandala Madhya Pradesh
(4) Gadchiroli, Bhandara, parts of Chandrapur Maharashtra
(5) Koraput Odisha
(6) Parts of Vishakhapatnam and Karimnagar Telangana

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Military action was taken to suppress the skirmishes of Naga activists.
Answer:
(i) In 1946, some’ educated Naga youth established an organisation called Naga National Council (NNC).
(ii) Later they made a demand for an independent state of Nagaland. They were led by Angami Zapu Fizo.
(iii) In 1954, the Naga National Council announced the establishment of an independent federation of Nagaland.
(iv) In 1955, skirmishes took place between local Nagas and the soldiers of the Assam Rifles. Military action was therefore taken to suppress the skirmishes (clashes).

Question 2.
The Naxalites established an organisation called PLGA.
Answer:
(i) The Naxalite Movement originated from Darjeeling, West Bengal, to raise a voice against the exploitation of farmers by the landlords and to confiscate the lands of the landlords and distribute it amongst the tenants.

(ii) Later, the Naxalites took to terrorism and started a parallel system by rejecting democracy, thereby threatening the internal security of India.

(iii) The movement was mainly located in West Bengal.

(iv) Later, the movement spread to East Godavari in Andhra Pradesh and parts of Vishakhapattanam, Karimnagar in Telangana, Adilabad, Bastar, Rajnandangaon and Sukma in Chhattisgarh, Gadchiroli, Bhandara and parts of Chandrapur in Maharashtra, Balaghat and Mandala in Madhya Pradesh and Koraput in Odisha.

(v) In order to maintain their influence, the Naxalites established an organisation called People’s Liberation Guerilla Army (PLGA). This conflict is still going on.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 3 India’s Internal Challenges

Question 3.
Fanaticism is the base of communalism.
Answer:
(i) Communalism is a serious threat to the unity of our country. Communalism emerges out of narrow religious pride.
(ii) But when this pride becomes excessive, then it turns into bigotry.
(iii) Each one then begins to consider their religion superior and others’ inferior. This leads to religious fanaticism which is the base of communalism.

Question 4.
Regionalism thrives on regional imbalance in development.
Answer:
(i) In the post-independence period, some states achieved more progress, while some states remained backward.
(ii) States that develop economically can also achieve progress in other areas like education, health and culture.
(iii) The states which have not developed in this manner remain backward in education and civic amenities.
(iv) They are harassed by problems of education, backwardness, unemployment and poverty, etc.
(v) They begin to think that they are being cheated; they are being kept away from the benefits of development.
(vi) Because of this, the understanding between states is broken. This in turn, has a negative impact on national unity.

Question 5.
Skirmishes took place between local Nagas and the soldiers of Assam Rifles.
Answer:
(i) In 1946, some educated Naga youth established an organisation called Naga National Council (NNC).
(ii) Later, they made a demand for an independent State of Nagaland. They were led by Angami Zapu Fizo.
(iii) In 1954, the Naga National Council announced the establishment of an independent federation of Nagaland. In 1955, skirmishes happened between local Nagas and the soldiers of the Assam Rifles.

Question 6.
Naxalite movements are a threat to internal insecurity.
Answer:
(i) The movement had the objectives of establishing Action Committees to raise a voice against the exploitation of the farmers by the landlords and confiscate the land of the landlords and distribute it among the tenants.

(ii) Later, the movement strayed away from its objectives. It took recourse to terrorism to prevent any government schemes and welfare policies from reaching the common people.

(iii) The Naxalites started a parallel system by rejecting the democratic system. This made Naxalism a serious challenge to India’s internal security.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 3 India’s Internal Challenges

Answer the following:

Question 1.
Which event prompted the arrest of Jamailsingh Bhindranwale?
Answer:
Bhindranwale was arrested in 1981, accused of the murder of newspaper editor, Lala Jagatnarayan. After this incident, the situation in Punjab worsened.

Question 2.
Name the constituent states of the north-east of India.
Answer:
North-east India consists of the eight states of Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim and Tripura.

Question 3.
What made the Mizo leaders demand autonomy for their province?
Answer:
(i) When India became independent, the government gave administrative autonomy to the districts of Mizo majority areas of the Lushai hills.
(ii) When the States Reorganisation Commission was appointed in 1954, the expectations of the people in this area grew. That is when the Mizo leaders started demanding an autonomous ‘Mizo’ province.

Question 4.
What do you mean by ‘Operation Black Thunder’?
Answer:
In 1986, an operation has to be conducted against terrorists in the Golden Temple. It was called ‘Operation Black Thunder’.

Question 5.
What was the objective of Naxalite Action Committees?
Answer:
The Naxalite movement had the objective of establishing Action Committees to raise a voice against the exploitation of the farmers by the landlords and to confiscate the lands of the landlords and distribute them among the tenants.

Read the following passages and answer the questions:

Passage: I

Mizoram : The tribes in north-east India have an ancient history. When India became independent, the government gave administrative autonomy to the districts of Mizo majority areas of the Lushai hills, When the States Reorganisation Commission was i ! appointed in 1954, the expectations of the people in this area grew.Mizo leaders started demanding an autonomous ‘Mizo’ province. In 1959 the territory of Mizoram experienced severe drought. During this famine, Mizo , leader Laldenga served the common people a lot. In 1961, Laldenga established an organisation called Mizo National Front (MNF). He asked for ‘Greater Mizoram’, an independent nation carved out of Tripura, Manipur and Mizo majority areas from the Lushai hills.
In March 1966, Mizo National Front announced the emergence of Independent Mizoram. Prime Minister , Indira Gandhi handled the situation firmly and suppressed the rebellion. When the situation calmed down in 1972, the Mizo majority area was given the status of a Union Territory. In 1985, Prime Minister , Rajiv Gandhi had an agreement with the Mizo National Front and Mizoram was given the status of a full-fledged State. Laldenga became the Chief Minister of the State.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 3 India’s Internal Challenges

Question 1.
Which areas in north-east eventually formed the state of Mizoram?
Answer:
Mizo majority areas of Lushai Hills formed the State of Mizoram.

Question 2.
Name the leading party of Mizoram.
Answer:
Mizo National Front.

Question 3.
Which operation was carried in 1986 against the terrorists in the Golden Temple?
Answer:
Operation ‘Black Thunder’

Passage: II

Nagaland: The Naga tribe in northeast India is known as a martial tribe. The Naga tribe had settled in Eastern Himalayas, the Naga hills, border areas of Assam and Myanmar. In 1946, some educated Naga youth established an organisation called Naga National Council (NNC). Later they made a demand for an independent State of Nagaland. They were led by Angami Zapu’Fizo. In 1954, the Naga National Council announced the establishment of an independent ,federation of Nagaland. In 1955, skirmishes happened between local Nagas and the soldiers of the Assam Rifles. Military action was taken to suppress the , skirmishes. Several rounds of discussions took place between the Central Government and the Naga National Council. Central Government decided , to give the Naga majority territory the status of a Union Territory. Nagaland was made a fullfledged State on 1st December 1963 by putting together the Naga majority territory and part of Tuensang.

Question 1.
Who was the leader of Naga National Council?
Answer:
Angami Zapu Fizo.

Question 2.
Which areas does Nagaland comprise of?
Answer:
Tribes residing in the eastern Himalayas, Naga Hills and on the border areas of Assam and Myanmar emerged as Nagaland. A part of Tuensang was also added to it later.

Question 3.
Which territory in the North-East eventually formed the state of Nagaland?
Answer:
Nagaland was made a fullfledged State on 1st December 1963 by putting together the Naga majority territory and part of Tuensang.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 3 India’s Internal Challenges

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
President’s rule was imposed in Punjab in 1983. Why?
Answer:
(i) In 1980, the movement for ‘Independent Khalistari took root in Punjab.

(ii) During that period, the leader of the Akali Dal was Sant Harcharan Singh Longowal. He used to direct his activists from the Golden Temple to stage protests.

(iii) On the other side of the Golden Temple, armed followers started gathering around the staunch Khalistan supporter Sant Jamail Singh Bhindranwale. During that period, terrorist activities had begun.

(iv) Bhindranwale was arrested in 1981, accused of the murder of newspaper editor, Lala Jagatnarayan.

(v) After this incident, the situation worsened. Due to these developments, President’s rule was imposed in Punjab in 1983.

Question 2.
Which states does north-east India comprise of and in what respects are they different from each other?
Answer:
(i) North-east India consists of the eight states of Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim and Tripura.
(ii) International borders of India touch each of the states to varying extents.
(iii) These states are different with respect to ethnicity, language and cultural diversity.

Question 3.
State the role of Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru in the assimilation of the north-eastern states into the mainstream of the country.
Answer:
(i) The first Prime Minister of independent India took the lead in bringing the tribes living in these areas into the mainstream of the country.

(ii) In 1954, he formed the North-East Frontier Agency (NEFA) area, comprising of the territories on the Sino-Indian border and the tribal areas towards the north of Assam.

(iii) Nehru took the position of bringing about the development of hundreds of tribes in these parts while preserving their culture.

Question 4.
State the constitutional measures taken by the government to assimilate north-east India into the mainstream.
Answer:
(i) Special provisions have been made with respect to these areas in the VI Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
(ii) In 1965, the responsibility of administering this area was given to the Ministry of External Affairs.
(iii) The Northeastern Council Act of 1971 was supposed to advise the Central Government regarding aspects of common interest in economic and social spheres, inter-state transport, electricity, flood control, etc.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 3 India’s Internal Challenges

Question 5.
What is the role of Mizo leader, Laldenga in emergence of independent Mizoram?
Answer:
(i) In 1959 the territory of Mizoram experienced severe drought. During this famine, Mizo leader Laldenga served the common people a lot.

(ii) In 1961, Laldenga established an organisation called Mizo National Front (MNF).

(iii) He asked for’ Greater Mizoram’, an independent nation carved out of Tripura, Manipur and Mizo majority areas from the Lushai hills.

(iv) In March 1966, Mizo National Front announced the emergence of Independent Mizoram.

(v) In 1985, Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi had an agreement with the Mizo National Front and Mizoram was given the status of a full-fledged state. Laldenga became the Chief Minister of the State.

Question 6.
Describe the establishment of democracy and peace in Assam.
Answer:
(i) In 1985, Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi, Central Home Minister Shankarrao Chavan and Assamese leader Prafullakumar Mohanto signed an Accord.

(ii) It was dedded to that the Bangladeshi dtizens who had infiltrated in Assam would be sent back to their original places.

(iii) In 1986, elections were held for Assam Legislative Assembly and Prafullakumar Mohanto, of the Asom Ganaparishad became the new Chief Minister. Due to this democratic process, it became possible to establish peace in Assam.

Question 7.
What are the features of religious fanaticism?
Answer:
(i) People of different religions don’t trust each other. They become suspidous of each other.

(ii) Compatriots following different religions are looked at as enemies. Even commensality or coming together on festivals becomes rare.

(iii) The perspective of looking at events and people is prejudiced. Some people begin to think of economic and sodal questions from within the framework of their own religion.

(iv) Some people might think that since they belong to a particular religion, they have no influence in politics. They begin to believe that they are being treated unjustly. They hold the idea that the government is against their religion.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 3 India’s Internal Challenges

Question 8.
Regionalism can affect developed as well as undeveloped states. Justify the statement.
Answer:
(i) The people of developed states begin to believe that they are superior due to their superior history and culture.

(ii) They then begin to look down upon people of underdeveloped regions. They are not willing to share the benefits of development with backward states.

(iii) On the other hand, the people from backward areas arouse their regional identity to organise themselves. For this, they try to unnecessarily glorify local traditions and culture to prove their uniqueness.

Question 9.
What do you mean by ‘Operation Blue Star’?
Answer:
(i) Operation Blue Star was a military action of getting the terrorists out of the Golden temple. This operation was entrusted to Major General Kuldeep Singh Brar.

(ii) On the morning of 3rd June 1984, the mission ‘Operation Blue Star’ started. The Operation ended on 6th June.

Question 10.
Which events from the Golden Temple in 1980 disturbed the peace in Punjab?
Answer:
(i) In 1980, the movement for ‘Independent Khalistan’ took root in Punjab. During that period, the leader of the Akali Dal was Sant Harcharan Singh Longowal. He used to direct his activists from the Golden Temple to stage protests.

(ii) On the other side of the Golden Temple, armed followers started gathering around the staunch Khalistan supporter Sant Jarnail Singh Bhindranwale. During that period, terrorist activities had begun.

9th Std History Questions And Answers:

Std 9 History Chapter 7 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 7 Science and Technology Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Science and Technology Class 9 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Class 9 History Chapter 7 Science and Technology Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

History Class 9 Chapter 7 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1.A Choose the right option and rewrite the sentence:

Question 1.
_______ was named as the first Chairman of Atomic Energy Commission.
(a) Dr Homi Bhabha
(b) Dr Homi Sethna
(c) Dr A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(d) Dr Raja Ramanna
Answer:
(a) Dr Homi Bhabha

Question 2.
________ was the first completely indigenous communication satellite made by ISRO.
(a) Aryabhatta
(b) Insat 1 B
(c) Rohini-75
(d) APPLE
Answer:
(d) APPLE

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 7 Science and Technology

B. Identify the wrong pair:

Question 1.
(1) Prithvi – Surface-to-Surface ballistic missile
(2) Agni – Surface-to-Sea ballistic missile
(3) Akash – Surface-to-Air missile
(4) Nag – anti-tank missile
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Agni – Surface-to-Sea ballistic missile

2A. Prepare a timeline of the progress of India in science and technology:

Question .1
Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 7 Science and Technology 1
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 7 Science and Technology 7
Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 7 Science and Technology 3
Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 7 Science and Technology 4
Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 7 Science and Technology 5

B. Explain the following concepts:

Question 1.
Space research
Answer:
(i) In 1961, Indian National Committee for Space Research (NCSR) launched India’s first research rocket from Thumba Equatorial Launch Centre in Thumba in the State of Kerala.
(ii) In 1969, our indigenously built rocket Rohini-75 was successfully launched.
(iii) The next stage was the successful launch of the first Indian satellite Aryabhatta in 1975 with help from the Soviet Union.
(iv) This success proved that Indian scientists can indigenously build and launch a satellite. Indian scientists were confident that they could acquire the technology for sending a message from the Earth Station and to assess the working of the satellite.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 7 Science and Technology

Question 2.
Telex service
Answer:
(i) The department of telecommunications under the Ministry of Communications started the telex service in 1963 to transmit typed messages from one part of the country to another rapidly.
(ii) In 1969, the telex service started in Devanagari script in Delhi.
(iii) Later, it spread all over the country.
(iv) This service began to be used in different fields. With the rise of internet after 1990, the significance of this service reduced.

3. Explain the following with reasons:

Question 1.
Pandit Nehru established the Atomic Energy Commission.
Answer:
(i) India’s first Prime Minister Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru wanted to nurture a scientific temper and bring about the nation’s progress.
(ii) From this perspective, he set up the Indian Atomic Energy Commission on 10th August, 1948.
(iii) Dr Homi Bhabha was appointed as the first Chairman of the Commission.
(iv) The objectives of the commission were to produce electricity from atomic energy, increase the yield of food grains and make them last longer, set up the technology for achieving this and develop nanotechnology.

Question 2.
India decided to conduct nuclear tests.
Answer:
(i) India successfully performed her first nuclear test at Pokharan in Rajasthan on 18th May, 1974 in consonance with the policy of using nuclear energy for peaceful purposes and for self sufficiency.

(ii) The reason why India took this decision was China’s nuclear capability and Pakistan’s desperate efforts to acquire nuclear weapons with China’s help.

(iii) Dr Homi Sethna, the chairman of the Indian Atomic Energy Commission and Dr Raja Ramanna, Director of the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre played a major role in conducting this nuclear test.

(iv) Prime Minister Indira Gandhi took the decision of carrying out a ‘nuclear explosion’. Pokharan was chosen on the basis of the required criteria for the location of the nuclear tests : far away from human settlement and no ground water reserves.

Question 3.
USA imposed economic sanctions on India.
Answer:
(i) On 11th May 1998, India carried out its second nuclear test to prove its nuclear preparedness.
(ii) Three tests were done on this day.
(iii) One of them was of the hydrogen bomb.
(iv) Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee assured that there would be no first use of nuclear weapons by India. But the USA imposed economic sanctions on India immediately.

4. Write the answers in 25 to 30 words:

Question 1.
Write about Pokharan nuclear test.
Answer:
(i) India successfully performed her first nuclear test at Pokharan in Rajasthan on 18th May, 1974 in consonance with the policy of using nuclear energy for peaceful purposes and for self-sufficiency.

(ii) The reason why India took this decision was China’s nuclear capability and Pakistan’s desperate efforts to acquire nuclear weapons with China’s help.

(iii) Dr Homi Sethna, the chairman of the Indian Atomic Energy Commission and Dr Raja Ramanna, Director of the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre played a major role in conducting this nuclear test.

(iv) Prime Minister Indira Gandhi took the decision of carrying out a ‘nuclear explosion’. Pokharan was chosen on the basis of the required criteria for the location of the nuclear tests: far away from human settlement and no groundwater reserve.

Question 2.
For which sector was Bhaskar-1 satellite expected to be useful?
Answer:
(i) India launched remote sensing experimental satellite Bhaskar-1 from the Soviet Union in 1979 in order to observe various things on the surface of the Earth by remote sensing technology.

(ii) This remote sensing technology would be useful for India’s development by regarding water bodies, mineral deposits and forecasting weather.

(iii) The photographs taken with the help of this technology about the bowels of the Earth, environment and forests were important.

(iv) Another area in which the information from this satellite was useful was Oceanography

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 7 Science and Technology

5. Write in brief:

Question 1.
Which of the everyday services are influenced by satellite technology?
Answer:
(i) Bhaskar-1: India launched remote sensing experimental satellite Bhaskar-1 from the Soviet Union in 1979 in order to observe various things on the surface of the Earth by remote sensing technology. This remote sensing technology would be useful for India’s development by regarding water bodies, mineral deposits and forecasting weather. The photographs taken with the help of this technology about the bowels of the Earth, environment and forests were important. Another area in which the information from this satellite was useful was Oceanography. In 1981, ‘Bhaskar-2’ was launched from Soviet Union.

(ii) (if APPLE (Ariane Passenger Payload Experiment): The first completely indigenously built satellite by ISRO in India, APPLE was launched on 19th June, 1981 from the French Guiana. ‘APPLE’ was beneficial in the field of education. The objective of providing emergency telecommunication services was successful.

(iii) Indian National Satellite (INSAT): In August 1983, the satellite INSAT 1-B was launched in space. Because of this satellite, a major revolution came about in the areas of telecommunication, television, radio, weather forecasting and space research in India. Due to INSAT, 207 Akashwani or Radio stations could be connected to each other. This mechanism was also useful for search and rescue of people caught in some disaster like a shipwreck or an air plane crash, for forecasting weather, to look for and follow cyclones or storms, in the fields of telemedicine and educational institutions. The tele-medicine service enabled the population from remote areas to get advice and treatment from expert doctors. Public Primary Health Centers in villages have been connected with super speciality hospitals through INSAT.

(iv) Satellite Communication Centre: In order to establish satellite communication with the help of an artificial satellite, a domestic satellite communication Earth station was established in 1967, at Jodhpur Tekra near Ahmedabad. This made it easy to train scientists and technicians in setting up and running an Earth Station within the country. In 1970, a centre was established at Aarvi near Pune, equipped for international telecommunication service. The technology adopted by railways has a big role in the history of modern India.

Question 2.
Why is Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam called as the ‘Missile Man’?
Answer:
(i) In 1958, Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) was established under the Department of Defence of the government of India. The objective of this organisation was to make India self-sufficient with respect to means, equipment and weapons required for defence. After 1983, this organisation developed several missiles under the leadership of Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam. Dr Kalam has made a great contribution in the production of missiles. Dr Kalam is known as the father of India’s missile programme. He is also referred to as the ‘Missile Man’ of India.

(ii) Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP) was conceived by and carried out under the leadership of Dr A.P.J. Abdul Kalam. Defence Research and Development organisation (DRDO) undertook the task of building the missiles.

Question 3.
How can one have computerized reservation done for railway travel?
Answer:
(i) There is a site called IRCTC for online railway bookings. On it’s site, sign up option is given through which Login Id and Password is created for IRCTC account. One must login with this ID and password for booking railway ticket. A captcha image needs to be filled to ensure the account is not being misused.

(ii) To the left of the page on the site, a column is given to enter the destination and boarding point, along with the date on which the journey is supposed to be made. After filling this, the list of trains along with their numbers, berth system, schedules is shown. The Quota, i.e. general, ladies, senior citizen needs to be filled here.

(iii) Here, if the ladies quota is selected, the berth is booked in the compartment reserved exclusively for ladies. If senior citizen quota is selected, exemption in travel fees is given.

(iv) After this, berth preferences i.e. sleeper, second seating is to be selected to book the tickets. Upon which, a new window opens for filling the details like name of the passenger, age, etc. A captcha image needs to be filled again to confirm booking.

(v) The gateway to online payment opens up which is done through Debit Card or Internet Banking, whichever is easier for the person booking it. A message of confirmation and email is received to the person booking it for his/her detail.

Question 4.
Write the key features of the Konkan Railway.
Answer:
(i) The Konkan Railway started in 1998.

(ii) There are several records of technology to the credit of Konkan Railway which stretches over the four states of Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka and Kerala over a distance of 760 kilometres.

(iii) There are 12 tunnels on this track. The 6.5 km tunnel at Karbude is the longest tunnel. There are 179 big and 1819 small bridges on this track.

(iv) Out of these, the 2065.8 m long bridge on River Sharavati near Honnawar is the biggest, i.e. The 64 m tall bridge on River Panval near Ratnagiri is India’s tallest bridge.

(v) For avoiding accidents on tracks that are prone to landslides, there are sensors fitted to the railway engines.

Class 9 History Chapter 7 Science and Technology Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
The Indian Atomic Energy Commission was set up on_______.
(a) 10th Aug, 1958
(b) 10th Aug, 1948
(c) 10th Aug, 1968
(d) 19th Aug, 1858
Answer:
(b) 10th Aug, 1948

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 7 Science and Technology

Question 2.
In 1956, the Department of Atomic Energy set up _______, a nuclear reactor functioning on atomic energy.
(a) Syrus
(b) Zarlina
(c) Poornima
(d) Apsara
Answer:
(d) Apsara

Question 3.
India successfully performed her first nuclear test at ______.
(a) Pokhran
(b) Jaipur
(c) Delhi
(d) Haryana
Answer:
(a) Pokhran

Question 4.
Prime Minister _________ assured that there would be no first use of nuclear weapons by India.
(a) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) VP Singh
Answer:
(b) Atal Bihari Vajpayee

Question 5.
The first digit of the pincode indicates the ______.
(a) State
(b) Region
(c) Nation
(d) District
Answer:
(b) Region

Question 6.
Agni had a range of ________ km.
(a) 800
(b) 600
(c) 700
(d) 500
Answer:
(c) 700

Question 7.
In 1981, ‘Bhaskar-2’ was launched from _______ .
(a) Soviet Union
(b) Japan
(c) China
(d) America
Answer:
(a) Soviet Union

Question 8.
_____a surface to surface ballistic missile was given to the Army.
(a) Prithvi -1
(b) Prithvi – 2
(c) Prithvi – 3
(d) Agni
Answer:
(a) Prithvi -1

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 7 Science and Technology

Question 9.
APPLE’ was beneficial in the field of _______.
(a) Military
(b) Education
(c) Health
(d) Technology
Answer:
(b) Education

Question 10.
In _________ the telecommunication department was restructured.
(a) 1991
(b) 2000
(c) 2002
(d) 1880
Answer:
(b) 2000

Question 11.
Konkan railway started in the year _______.
(a) 1888
(b) 1988
(c) 1998
(d) 1994
Answer:
(c) 1998

Question 12.
On,________ the mobile phone service started in India.
(a) 23rd Aug, 1994
(b) 22nd Aug, 1994
(c) 24th Aug, 1994
(d) 21st Aug, 1994
Answer:
(b) 22nd Aug, 1994

Question 13.
In 1970, a domestic satellite communication earth centre was established at Aarvi near _______, equipped for international telecommunication service.
(a) Mumbai
(b) Pune
(c) Nagpur
(d) Nashik
Answer:
(b) Pune

Identify and write the wrong pair from the following sets:

Question 1.
(1) Dr. Homi Sethna – Chairman of DRDO
(2) Dr. Raja Ramanna – Director of BARC
(3) Sam Pitroda – Spearheaded telecommunication
(4) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam – Conceived and Carried out IGMDP
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Dr. Homi Sethna – Chairman of DRDO

Question 2.
(1) First diesel engine – Diesel Locomotive Works at Varanasi
(2) India’s tallest bridge – at Karbude
(3) Completely Indian made nuclear reactor – Dhruva at Trombay
(4) India’s first research rocket – Thumba Equatorial Launch Centre at Kerala.
Answer:
Wrong Pair : India’s tallest bridge – at Karbude

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 7 Science and Technology

Question 3.
(1) Indigenously built rocket – Rohini 75
(2) First Indian Satellite – Aryabhatta
(3) Headquarters of ISRO – Sriharikota
(4) Reactor research Centre – Kalpakkam
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Headquarters of ISRO – Sriharikota

Question 4.
(1) NPCIL – setup in 1987
(2) Bhaskar – 2 – launched in 1981
(3) ONGC – established in 1998
(4) Tarapur power station – Setup in 1969
Answer:
Wrong Pair : ONGC – established in 1998

Question 5.
(1) Post and Telegraph Department started the 6 digit pincode system – 15th August 1972
(2) Indian Atomic Energy Commission was setup – 10th August 1948
(3) Indian Space Research Organisation was established – 15th August 1959
(4) First Nuclear test at Pokhran – 18th May 1974
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Indian Space Research Organisation was established – 15th August 1959

Question 6.
(1) Domestic Satellite Communication Earth Centre – Jodhpur Tekra
(2) Space station to launch satellites – Sriharikota
(3) Mineral Oil Deposit – Digboi in Assam
(4) Factories manufacturing Heavy Water – Chittaranjan in Bardwan
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Factories manufacturing Heavy Water – Chittaranjan in Bardwan

Question 7.
(1) Satellite built by ISRO – APPLE
(2) Satellite to connect super speciality hospitals – INSAT
(3) Remote sensing experimental satellite – Bhaskar -1
(4) First Indian Satellite – Rohini – 75
Answer:
Wrong Pair : First Indian Satellite – Rohini – 75

Question 8.
(1) INSAT, 1-B was launched – August 1983
(2) APPLE was launched – June 1981
(3) Mobile services started – August 1994
(4) Second Nuclear test – June 1998
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Second Nuclear test – June 1998

Question 9.
(1) Telex services started in Devanagari Script -1969
(2) India successfully tested missile Agni -1989
(3) Computerised reservation started in Delhi -1986
(4) Satellite Communication Centre established at Aarvi, Pune -1970
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Computerised reservation started in Delhi -1986

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 7 Science and Technology

Write short notes:

Question 1.
Pincode
Answer:
(i) From 15 August 1972, the Post and Telegraph Department started the six digit pincode system in the country.
(ii) The Postal Index Code was intended to bring efficiency in distributing the mail. In this system, the country was divided into nine regions.
(iii) The first digit of the Pincode indicates the region, the second digit indicates the Sub¬region, the third digit shows the main disbursement district, while the remaining three digits show the location of the local post office.
(iv) For Maharashtra, 40, 41, 42, 43, 44 are the first two digits. In 1986, the speed post service was started to send postage rapidly.

Question 2.
Akash and Nag missiles
Answer:
(i) In 1990, the missile Akash was developed to fire from land into air.
(ii) This missile has a capacity to carry 720 kilogram explosives at supersonic speed and a range of 30 kilometres.
(iii) The missile ‘Nag’ was made in order to destroy the tanks of the enemy.
(iv) It is of the ‘fire and forget’ type. India has militarily become secure due to the production of missiles.

Question 3.
Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL)
Answer:
(i) In 2000, the telecommunication department was restructured.
(ii) The responsibility to make policy decisions was retained with the Telecom Department.
(iii) Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited was established to actually provide the services to consumers.
(iv) Along with the telephone service, cellular phone, internet, broadband services were also made available.

Question 4.
Dhruva Nuclear Reactor
Answer:
(i) In 1985, a completely Indian made nuclear reactor called Dhruva was started at Trombay near Mumbai.
(ii) The Dhruva nuclear reactor uses uranium as fuel.
(iii) At this center, 350 radioactive substances are produced. They are used in industry, agriculture and medicine.

Question 5.
Nuclear Power Corporation of India Ltd. (NPCIL)
Answer:
(i) This Company was set up in 1987 to generate electricity from atomic energy.

(ii) The objective of the company is to master and develop the technology to generate safe, cheap and environmentally profitable power and make the country self-sufficient.

Question 6.
DRDO was established.
Answer:
(i) In 1958, Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) was established under the Department of Defence of the Government of India.

(ii) The objective of this organisation was to make India self-sufficient with respect to means, equipment and weapons required for defence.

(iii) After 1983, this organisation developed several missiles under the leadership of Dr A.P.J. Abdul Kalam. Dr Kalam has made a great contribution in the production of missiles.

(iv) Dr Kalam is known as the Father of India’s Missile Programme. He is also referred to as the ‘Missile Man’ of India.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 7 Science and Technology

Read the passage and answer the questions:

Passage I

Space research: In 1961, Indian National Committee for Space Research (NCSR) launched India’s first , research rocket from Thumba Equatorial Launch Center in Thumba in the State of Kerala. In 1969, our indigenously built rocket Rohini-75 was successfully launched. The next stage was the successful launch , of the first Indian satellite Aryabhatta in 1975 with ‘ help from the Soviet Union. This success proved that Indian scientists can indigenously build and launch satellite. Indian scientists were confident that they , could acquire the technology for sending a message from the Earth Station and to assess the working of the satellite.
Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) : After , the success of the basic programme in space research and rocket related project, Indian Space Research Organisation was established on 15th August 1969 in order to carry out further space research. ‘ The headquarters of ISRO are at Bengaluru. ISRO activated the space station at Sriharikota in Andhra Pradesh for launching our satellites in space.

Bhaskar-1: India launched remote sensing ,experimental satellite Bhaskar-1 from the Soviet Union in 1979 in order to observe various things on the surface of the earth by remote sensing technology, This remote sensing technology would be useful for India’s development by regarding water bodies, mineral deposits and forecasting weather. The photographs taken with the help of this technology about the bowels of the earth, environment and forests were important. Another area in which the information from this satellite was useful was oceanography. In 1981, ‘Bhaskar-2’ was launched from Soviet Union.

Question 1.
What does the passage deal with?
Answer:
The passage deals with India’s success in space research.

Question 2.
Complete the following
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 7 Science and Technology 8

Question 3.
State the benefits of remote sensing technology.
Answer:
Following are the benefits of Remote Sensing Technology:

  • Useful for India’s development by regarding water bodies mineral deposits and forecasting weather.
  • Important information can be gathered about bowels of earth, environment and forests through the photograph.
  • Useful information about Oceanography can be assessed.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 7 Science and Technology

Passage II

Oil and Natural Gas Commission (ONGC) : In 1956, the Oil and Natural Gas Commission was established to search for the deposits of mineral oil and natural gas and to increase their production. After Digboi in Assam, mineral oil deposits were found in Ankleshwar , area in Gujarat. Later, mineral oil and natural gas deposits were found in the gulf of Khambhat in Gujarat. In 1974, the Oil and Natural Gas Commission , started digging an oil well in ‘Bombay High’ area , with the help of Russian scientists by a drillship called ‘Sagar Samrat’. From 1975, mineral oil and natural gas began to be extracted from there. Later, more than 8500 oil wells and 33 natural gas wells dug eventually in this area began to contribute , 38% of the total mineral oil production in the country and met 14% of the country’s demand for crude oil.

Railways and Technology : The technology adopted by railways has a big role in the history of modem India. In order to bring efficiency, accuracy and coordination in the reservation system in rail travel, computerised reservation system was started for the first time in Delhi in 1984. In the same year, the Metro was started in Kolkata. In this way India has been making progress in the fields of science and technology. New inventions have been made. India is an important 21st century nation, which has always used technology for establishing peace in the world. India is making all these advancements in order to be the foremost among nations in the 21st century. In the next chapter, we shall learn about the progress India , has made in the fields of commerce and trade.

Question 1.
State the odd man out – and state the reason Digboi, Kohima, Ankleshwar, Bombay High
Answer:
Kohima – Because the other three locations of Digboi, Ankleshwar and Bombay High have notable reserves of natural gas and mineral oil
deposits.

Question 2.
Complete the following – Konkan Railway chart:
Answer:

Established 1998
States Covered Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka Kerala.
Longest Tunnel 6.5 km long tunnel at Karbude
Tallest Bridge 64 mt. tall bridge on River Panvel near Ratnagiri

Question 3.
Do you think we can rely on our mineral oil deposits for time to come? Justify your answer.
Answer:
Mineral Oil Deposits are fast depleting due to it’s indiscriminate consumption by industries. Such natural resources of energy should be spared through fuel conservation schemes and greater use of inexhaustible sources of energy such as – Tidal, Solar or Wind energy.
Since mineral oil deposits are not renewable source of energy, it is advisable not to rely on it for time to come or we may face energy crisis.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
Write a note on the Indian Atomic Energy Commission.
Answer:
(i) In India’s first Prime Minister Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru wanted to nurture a scientific temper and bring about the nation’s progress. From this perspective, he set up the Indian Atomic Energy Commission on 10th August 1948. Dr. Homi Bhabha was appointed as the first Chairman of the Commission. The objectives of the commission were to produce electricity from atomic energy, increase the yield of food grains and make them last longer, set up the technology for achieving this and develop nanotechnology. In 1956, the Department of Atomic Energy set up ‘Apsara’, a nuclear reactor functioning on atomic energy.

(ii) In 1969, an atomic power station was set up at Tarapur. A Reactor Research Centre was set up at Kalpakkam in Tamil Nadu to successfully use Thorium for generating atomic power. The role of reactors is important in developing atomic power.

(iii) Factories manufacturing the heavy water needed for the generation of atomic power were set up at Vadodara, Talcher, Tutikorin, Kota, etc. An institution called Heavy Water Projects was set up to carry out research on manufacturing heavy water within the country. It was later renamed ‘Heavy Water Board’.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 7 Science and Technology

Question 2.
Write about ISD.
Answer:
(i) In 1972, Overseas Communication Service was established in Mumbai for the Management of International Telecommunication Service.

(ii) In 1976, the International Subscriber Dialled Telephone Service started to connect Mumbai and London directly on the phone.

(iii) Alongside the telephone service, services like telex, teleprinter and radio images started. In 1986, Videsh Sanchar Nigam Limited (VSNL) took a big leap in this field. Before that, Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Limited (MTNL) was a public sector company for giving telephone service in big cities.

(iv) In the 1990s, Videsh Sanchar Nigam Limited held the distinction of being the main internet service provider in India. The contribution of Sam Pitroda in this field is significant.

Question 3.
Write about Oil and Natural Gas Commission.
Answer:
(i) In 1956, the Oil and Natural Gas Commission was established to search for the deposits of mineral oil and natural gas and to increase their production.

(ii) After Digboi in Assam, mineral oil deposits were found in Ankleshwar area in Gujarat. Later, mineral oil and natural gas deposits were found in the gulf of Khambhat in Gujarat.

(iii) In 1974, the Oil and Natural Gas Commission started digging an oil well in ‘Bombay High’ area with the help of Russian scientists by a drillship called ‘Sagar Samrat’.

(iv) From 1975, mineral oil and natural gas began to be extracted from there.

(v) Later, more than 8500 oil wells and 33 natural gas wells dug eventually in this area began to contribute 38% of the total mineral oil production in the country and met 14% of the country’s demand for crude oil.

Observe the picture and write relevant information:

Question 1.
Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 7 Science and Technology 9
Answer:
Bhaskar 1 was a remote sensing experimental satellite launched by India.
Remote Sensing Technology would be useful for India’s development by regarding water bodies, mineral deposite and forecasting weather.
The photographs taken with the help of this technology about the bowels of the earth environment and forest were important. Bhaskar -1 was launched in 1979 and Bhaskar 2 was launched in 1981 from Soviet Union.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 7 Science and Technology

Question 2.
Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 7 Science and Technology 10
Answer:
Indian Atomic Energy Commission:
India’s first Prime Minister Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru wanted to nurture a scientific temper and bring about the nation’s progress. From this persepective, he set up the Indian Atomic Energy Commission on 10th August 1948. Dr. Homi Bhabha was appointed as the first Chairman of the Commission. The objectives of the Commission were to produce electricity from atomic energy, increase the yield of food grains and make them last longer, set up the technology for achieving this and develop nanotechnology.

Question 3.
Maharashtra Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 7 Science and Technology 11
Answer:
In 1958, Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) was established under the Department of Defence of the government of India. The objective of this organisation was to make India self-sufficient with respect to means, equipment and weapons required for defence. After 1983, this organisation developed several missiles under the leadership of Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam. Dr. Kalam has made a great contribution in the production of missiles. Dr. Kalam is known as the ‘Father of India’s missile programme’. He is also referred to as the ‘Missile Man’ of India.

9th Std History Questions And Answers: