Class 12

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Chemistry Textbook Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Chemistry Solutions Chapter 15 Introduction to Polymer Chemistry

1. Choose the correct option from the given alternatives.

Question i.
Nylon fibers are …………………………………..
A. Semisynthetic fibres
B. Polyamide fibres
C. Polyester fibres
D. Cellulose fibres
Answer:
B. polyamide fibres

Question ii.
Which of the following is naturally occurring polymer?
A. Telfon
B. Polyethylene
C. PVC
D. Protein
Answer:
D. Protein

Question iii.
Silk is a kind of …………………………………. fibre
A. Semisynthetic
B. Synthetic
C. Animal
D. Vegetable
Answer:
C. an animal

Question iv.
Dacron is another name of …………………………………. .
A. Nylon 6
B. Orlon
C. Novolac
D. Terylene
Answer:
D. Terylene

Question v.
Which of the following is made up of polyamides?
A. Dacron
B. Rayon
C. Nylon
D. Jute
Answer:
C. Nylon

Question vi.
The number of carbon atoms present in the ring of ε – caprolactam is
A. Five
B. Two
C. Seven
D. Six
Answer:
D. Six

Question vii.
Terylene is …………………………………. .
A. Polyamide fibre
B. Polyester fibre
C. Vegetable fibre
D. Protein fibre
Answer:
B. Polyester fibre

Question viii.
PET is formed by …………………………………. .
A. Addition
B. Condensation
C. Alkylation
D. Hydration
Answer:
D. Hydration

Question ix.
Chemically pure cotton is …………………………………. .
A. Acetate rayon
B. Viscose rayon
C. Cellulose nitrate
D. Cellulose
Answer:
D. Cellulose

Question x.
Teflon is chemically inert, due to presence of …………………………………. .
A. C-H bond
B. C-F bond
C. H- bond
D. C=C bond
Answer:
A. C-H bond

2. Answer the following in one sentence each.

Question i.
Identify ‘A’ and ‘B’ in the following reaction …………………………………. .

Answer:

Question ii.
Complete the following statements
a. Caprolactam is used to prepare …………………………………. .
b. Novolak is a copolymer of …………………………………. and …………………………………. .
c. Terylene is ………………………………….. polymer of terephthalic acid and ethylene glycol.
d. Benzoyl peroxide used in addtion polymerisation acts as …………………………………. .
e. Polyethene consists of polymerised …………………………………. .
Answer:
a. Nylon-6
b. Phenol, formaldehyde
c. polyester
d. initiator (catalyst)
e. linear or branched-chain

Question iii.
Draw the flow chart diagram to show the classification of polymers based on type of polymerisation.
Answer:

Question iv.
Write examples of Addition polymers and condensation polymers.
Answer:
Addition polymers : Polyvinyl chloride, polythene
Condensation polymers : Bakelite, terylene, Nylon-66

Question v.
Name some chain-growth polymers.
Answer:
Chain growth polymers : Polythene, polyacrylonitrile and polyvinyl chloride.

Question vi.
Define the terms :
1) Monomer
2) Vulcanisation
3) Synthetic fibres
Answer:
1. Monomer is a small and simple molecule and has a capacity to form two chemical bonds with other monomers. Examples : Ethene, Propylene.
2. The process by which a network of cross-links is introduced into an elastomer is called vulcanisation or it can also be defined as the process of heating natural rubber with sulphur to increase the tensile strength, toughness and elasticity of natural rubber is known as vulcanization of rubber.
3. The man-made fibres prepared by polymerization of one monomer or copolymerization of two or more monomers are called synthetic fibres.

Question vii.
What type of intermolecular force leads to high-density polymer?
Answer:
High density polymers have low degree of branching along the hydrocarbon chain. The molecules are closely packed together during crystallization. This closer packing means that the van der Waals attraction between the chains are greater and so the plastic (high density polymer) is stronger and has a melting point.

Question viii.
Give one example each of copolymer and homopolymer.
Answer:
Homopolymer : PVC, Nylon-6
Copolymer : Terylene, Buna-S

Question ix.
Identify Thermoplastic and Thermosetting Plastics from the following …………………………………. .
1. PET
2. Urea-formaldehyde resin
3. Polythene
4. Phenol formaldehyde
Answer:
Thermoplastic plastics : PET, Polythene
Thermosetting plastics : Urea formaldehyde resin, Phenol formaldehyde

3. Answer the following.

Question i.
Write the names of classes of polymers formed according to intermolecular forces and describe briefly their structural characteristics.
Answer:
Molecular forces bind the polymer chains either by hydrogen bonds or Vander Waal’s forces. These forces are called intermolecular forces. On the basis of magnitude of intcrmolccular forces, polymers are further classified as ebstomers, fibres, thermoplastic polymers. thermosetting polymers.

(1) Elastomers: Weak van der Waals type of intermolecular forces of attraction between the polymer chains are observed in cbstomcrs. When polymer is stretched, the polymer chain stretches and when the strain is relieved the chain returns to its odginal position, Thus, polymer shows elasticity and is called elastomers. Elastomers, the elastic polymers, have weak van der Waals type of intermolecular forces which permit the polymer to be stretched. Lilastorners are soft and stretchy and used in making rubber bands. E.g.. neoprene, vulcanized rubber, buna.S, buna-N.

(2) Fibres : It consists of strong intermolecular forces of’ attraction due to hydrogen bonding and strong dipole-dipole forces. These polymers possess high tensile strength. Due to these strong intermolecular forces the fibres are crystalline in nature. They are used in textile industries, strung tyres. etc.. e.g., nylon, terylene.

(3) Thermoplastic polymers: These polymer possess moderately strong intermolecular forces of attraction between those of elastomers and fibres. These polymers arc called thermoplastic because they become soft on heating and hard on cooling. They are either linear or branched chain polymers. They can be remoulded and recycled. E.g. polyethenc, PVC, polystyrene.

(4) Thermosetting polymers: These polymers are cross linked or branched molecules and are rigid polymers. During their formation they have property of being shaped on heating. but they get hardened while hot. Once hardened these become infusible, cannot be softened by heating and therefore, cannot be remoulded and recycled.
This shows extensive cross linking by covalent bonds formed in the moulds during hardening/setting process while hot. E.g. Bakelite, urea formaldehyde resin.

Question ii.
Write reactions of formation of :
a. Nylon 6
b. Terylene
Answer:
Terylene is polyester fibre formed by the polymerization of terephthalic acid and ethylene glycol.

Terylene is obtained by condensation polymerization of ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid in presence of catalyst zinc acetate and antimony trioxide at high temperature.

Properties :

• Terylene has relatively high melting point (265 °C)
• It is resistant to chemicals and water.

Uses :

• It is used for making wrinkle free fabrics by blending with cotton (terycot) and wool (terywool), and also as glass reinforcing materials in safety helmets.
• PET is the most common thermoplastic which is another trade name of the polyester polyethylenetereph- thalate.
• It is used for making many articles like bottles, jams, packaging containers.

Question iii.
Write the structure of natural rubber and neoprene rubber along with the name and structure of thier monomers.
Answer:

Question iv.
Name the polymer type in which the following linkage is present.
Answer:
The linkage is present in terylene or dacron polymer.

Question v.
Write the structural formula of the following synthetic rubbers :
a. SBR rubber
b. Buna-N rubber
c. Neoprene rubber
Answer:

Question vi.
Match the following pairs :
Name of polymer – Monomer
1. Teflon – a. CH₂ = CH₂
2. PVC – b. CF₂ = CF₂
3. Polyester – c. CH₂ = CHCl
4. Polythene – d. C₆H₅OH and HCHO
5. Bakelite – e. Dicarboxylic acid and polyhydoxyglycol
Answer:

1. Teflon – CF₂ = CF₂
2. PVC – CH₂ = CHCI
3. Polyester-Dicarboxylic acid and polyhydoxyglycol
4. Polythene – CH₂ = CH₂
5. Bakelite – C₆H₅OH and HCHO

Question vii.
Draw the structures of polymers formed from the following monomers
1. Adipic acid + Hexamethylenediamine
2. e – Aminocaproic acid + Glycine
Answer:

Question viii.
Name and draw the structure of the repeating unit in natural rubber.
Answer:
Repeating unit of natural rubber (Basic unit : isoprene)

Question ix.
Classify the following polymers as natural and synthetic polymers
a. Cellulose
b. Polystyrene
c. Terylene
d. Starch
e. Protein
f. Silicones
g. Orlon (Polyacrylonitrile)
h. Phenol-formaldehyde resins
Answer:

Natural Polymers	1. Cellulose 4. Starch 5. Protein
Synthetic Polymers	2. Polystyrene 3. Terylene 6. Silicones 7. Orion (Polyacrylonitrile) 8. phenol-formaldehyde resin

Question x.
What are synthetic resins? Name some natural and synthetic resins.
Answer:
Synthetic resins are artificially synthesised high molecular weight polymers. They are the basic raw material of plastic. The main properties of plastic depend on the synthetic resin it is made from.

Examples of natural resins : Rosin, Damar, Copal, Sandarac, Amber, Manila
Examples of synthetic resins : Polyester resin, Phenolic resin, Alkyl resin, Polycarbonate resin, Polyamide resin, Polyurethane resin, silicone resin, Epoxy resin, Acrylic resin.

Question xi.
Distinguish between thermosetting and thermoplastic resins. Write example of both the classes.
Answer:

Thermosetting resin	Thermoplastic resin
(1) They harden when heated. Once hardened it no longer melts.	(1) They soften when heated and harden again when cooled.
(2) They cannot be re-shaped.	(2) They can be reshaped
(3) They are strong, hard.	(3) They are weak, soft.
(4) Thermosetting resin show cross-linking. Examples : Melamine resin Epoxy resins, Bake-lite.	(4) Thermoplastic molecules do not cross link, hence are flexible. Examples : Polythene, polypropylene, nylon, polyester.

Question xii.
Write name and formula of raw material from which bakelite is made.
Answer:
The raw material or monomers used to prepare bakelite are o-hydroxymethyl phenol and formaldehyde (HCHO)

4. Attempt the following :

Question i.
Identify condensation polymers and addition polymers from the following.

Answer:

Question ii.
Write the chemical reactions involved in the manufacture of Nylon 6, 6
Answer:
Nylon-6, 6 is a linear polyamide polymer formed by the condensation polymerisation reaction. The monomers used in the preparation of Nylon-6, 6 are :
(1) Adipic acid : HOOC-(CH₂)₄-COOH
(2) Hexamethylene diamine : H₂N-(CH₂)₆-NH₂

When equimolar aqueous solutions of adipic acid and hexamethylene diamine are mixed and heated, there is neutralization to form a nylon salt. During polymerisation at 553 k nylon salt loses a water molecule to form nylon 6, 6 polymer. Both monomers (hexamethylene diamine and adipic acid) contain six carbon atoms each, hence the polymer is termed as Nylon-6,6.

Properties and uses : Nylon 6,6 is high molecular mass (12000 – 50000 u) linear condensation polymer. It possesses high tensile strength. It does not soak in water. It is used for making sheets, bristles for brushes, surgical sutures, textile fabrics, etc.

Question iii.
Explain the vulcanisation of rubber. Which vulcanizing agents are used for the following synthetic rubber.
a. Neoprene
b. Buna-N
Answer:
The process by which a network of cross links is introduced into an elastomer is called vulcanization.

Vulcanization enhances the properties of natural rubber like tensile strength, stiffness, elasticity, toughness etc. Sulphur forms cross links between polyisoprene chains which results in improved properties of rubber.

• For neoprene vulcanizing agent is MgO.
• For Buna-N vulcanizing agent is sulphur.

Question iv.
Write reactions involved in the formation of …………………………………. .
1) Teflon
2) Bakelite
Answer:
The monomers phenol and formaldehyde undergo polymerisation in the presence of alkali or acid as catalyst.

Phenol reacts with formaldehyde to form ortho or p-hydroxy methyl phenols, which further reacts with phenol to form a linear polymer called Novolac. It is used in paints.

In the third stage, various articles are shaped from novolac by putting it in appropriate moulds and heating at high temperature (138 °C to 176 °C) and at high pressure forms rigid polymeric material called bakelite. Bakelite is insoluble and infusible and has high tensile strength.

Bakelite is used in making articles like telephone instrument, kitchenware, electric insulators frying pans, etc.

2. Teflon is polytetrafluoroethylene. The monomer used in preparation of teflon is tetrafluoroethylene, (CF₂ = CF₂) which is a gas at room temperature. Tetrafluoroethylene is polymerized by using free radical initiators such as hydrogen peroxide or ammonium persulphate at high pressure.

Properties:

• Telflon is tough, chemically inert and resistant to heat and attack by corrosive reagents.
• C – F bond is very difficult to break and remains unaffected by corrosive alkali, organic solvents.
  Uses : Telflon is used in making non-stick cookware, oil seals, gaskets, etc.

Question v.
What is meant by LDP and HDP? Mention the basic difference between the same with suitable examples.
Answer:

• LDP is low density polyethylene and HDP is high density polyethylene.
• LDP is a branched polymer with low density due to chains are loosely held and HDP is a linear polymer with density due to close packing.
• HDP is much stiffer than LDP and has high tensile strength and hardness.

LDP is mainly used in preparation of pipes for agriculture, irrigation and domestic water line connections. HDP is used in manufacture of toys and other household articles like bucket, bottles, etc.

Question vi.
Write preparation, properties and uses of Teflon.
Answer:
Teflon is polytetrafluoroethylene. The monomer used in preparation of teflon is tetrafluoroethylene, (CF₂ = CF₂) which is a gas at room temperature. Tetrafluoroethylene is polymerized by using free radical initiators such as hydrogen peroxide or ammonium persulphate at high pressure.

Properties:

• Telflon is tough, chemically inert and resistant to heat and attack by corrosive reagents.
• C – F bond is very difficult to break and remains unaffected by corrosive alkali, organic solvents.
  Uses : Telflon is used in making non-stick cookware, oil seals, gaskets, etc.

Question vii.
Classify the following polymers as straight-chain, branched-chain and cross-linked polymers.

Answer:

5. Answer the following.

Question i.
How is polythene manufactured? Give their properties and uses.
Answer:
LDP means low density polyethylene. LDP is obtained by polymerization of ethylene under high pressure (1000 – 2000 atm) and temperature (350 – 570 K) in presence of traces of O₂ or peroxide as initiator.

The mechanism of this reaction involves free radical addition and H-atom abstraction. The latter results in branching. As a result the chains are loosely held and the polymer has low density.

Properties of LDP :

• LDP films are extremely flexible, but tough chemically inert and moisture resistant.
• It is poor conductor of electricity with melting point 110 °C.

Uses of LDP :

• LDP is mainly used in preparation of pipes for agriculture, irrigation, domestic water line connections as well as insulation to electric cables.
• It is also used in submarine cable insulation.
• It is used in producing extruded films, sheets, mainly for packaging and household uses like in preparation of squeeze bottles, attractive containers, etc.

HDP means high density polyethylene. It is a linear polymer with high density due to close packing.

HDP is obtained by polymerization of ethene in presence of Zieglar-Natta catalyst which is a combination of triethyl aluminium with titanium tetrachloride at a temperature of 333K to 343K and a pressure of 6-7 atm.

Properties of HDP :

• HDP is crystalline, melting point in the range of 144 – 150 °C.
• It is much stiffer than LDP and has high tensile strength and hardness.
• It is more resistant to chemicals than LDP.

Uses of HDP :

• HDP is used in manufacture of toys and other household articles like buckets, dustbins, bottles, pipes, etc.
• It is used to prepare laboratory wares and other objects where high tensile strength and stiffness is required.

Question ii.
Is synthetic rubber better than natural rubber? If so, in what respect?
Answer:
Yes. Synthetic rubber is more resistant to abrasion than natural rubber and is also superior in resistance to heat and the effects of aging (lasts longer). Many types of synthetic rubber are flame-resistant, so they can be used in insulation for electrical devices.

It also remains flexible at low temperatures and is resistant to grease and oil. It is resistant to heat, light and certain chemicals.

Question iii.
Write main specialities of Buna-S, Neoprene rubber?
Answer:
Buna-S is an elastomer and it is copolymer of styrene with butadiene. Its trade name is SBR. Buna-S is superior to natural rubber, because of its mechanical strength and abrasion resistance. It is used in tyre industry. It is vulcanized with sulphur. Neoprene is a synthetic rubber and it is a condensation polymer of chloroprene (2-chloro-l, 3-butadiene). Vulcanization of neoprene takes place in presence of MgO. It is resistant to petroleum, vegetable oils. Neoprene is used in making hose pipes for transport of gasoline and making gaskets.

Question iv.
Write the structure of isoprene and the polymer obtained from it.
Answer:

Question v.
Explain in detail the free radical mechanism involved during the preparation of the addition polymer.
Answer:
Polymerisation of ethylene is carried out at high temperature and at high pressure in presence of small amount of acetyl peroxide as initiator.

(1) Formation of free radicals : The first step involves clevage of acetyl peroxide to form two carboxy radicals. These carboxy radicals immediately undergo decarboxylation to give methyl initiator free radicals.

(2) Chain initiating step : The methyl radical thus formed adds to ethylene to form a new larger free radical.

(3) Chain propagation step : The larger free radical formed in the chain initiating step reacts with another molecule of ethene to form another big size free radicals and chain grows. This is called chain propagation step.

The chain reaction continues till thousands of ethylene molecules are added.

(4) Chain terminating step : The continuous chain reaction can be terminated by the combination of free radicals to form polyethene.

Activity :
i. Collect the information of the process like extrusion and moulding in Textile Industries.
ii. Make a list of polymers used to make the following articles
a. Photographic film
b. Frames of spectacles
c. Fountain pens
d. Moulded plastic chains
e. Terywool or Terycot fabric
iii. Prepare a report on factors responsible for degradation of polymers giving suitable example.
iv. Search and make a chart/note on silicones with reference to monomers, structure, properties and uses.
v. Collect the information and data about Rubber industry, plastic industry and synthetic fibre (rayon) industries running in India.

12th Chemistry Digest Chapter 15 Introduction to Polymer Chemistry Intext Questions and Answers

Use your brain power! (Textbook Page No 323)

Question 1.
Differentiate between natural and synthetic polymers.
Answer:

Natural polymers	Synthetic polymers
(1) The polymers are obtained either from plants or animals.	(1) The man made fibres prepared by polymerization of monomer or copolymerization of two or more monomers.
(2) They are further divided into two types : (i) plant polymers (ii) Animal polymers.Examples: Cotton, linen, latex	(2) They are further divided into three subtypes : (i) fibres (ii) synthetic rubbers (iii) plastics.Examples : Nylon, terylene Buna-S

Use your brain power! (Textbook Page No 325)

Question 1.
What is the type of polymerization in the following examples?

Answer:
(i) Addition polymerization
(ii) Condensation polymerization

Problem 15.1 : (Textbook Page No 326)

Question 1.
Refer to the following table listing for different polymers formed from respective monomers. Identify from the list whether it is copolymer or homopolymer.

Monomer	Polymers
Ethylene	Polyethene
Vinyl chloride	Polyvinyl chloride
Isobutylene	Polyisobutylene
Acrylonitrile	Polyacrylonitrile
Caprolactam	Nylon 6
Hexamethylene diammonium adipate	Nylon 6, 6
Butadiene + styrene	Buna-S

Solution :
In each of first five cases, there is only one monomer which gives corresponding homopolymer. In the sixth case hexamethylene diamine reacts with adipic acid to form the salt hexamethylene diammonium adipate which undergoes condensation to form Nylon 6, 6. Hence nylon 6, 6 is homopolymer. The polymer Buna-S is formed by polymerization of the monomers butadiene and styrene in presence of each other. The repeating units corresponding to the monomers butadiene and styrene are randomly arranged in the polymer. Hence Buna-S is copolymer.

Use your brain power! (Textbook Page No 328)

Question 1.
(1) From the cis-polyisoprene structure of natural rubber explain the low strength of van der Waals forces in it.
(2) Explain how the vulcanization of natural rubber improves its elasticity. (Hint : consider the intermolecular links.)
Answer:
(1) (i) Natural rubber is cis-polyisoprene. It is obtained by polymerization of isoprene units at 1, 4 positions. In rubber molecule, double bonds are located between C₂ and C₃ of each isoprene unit. These cis-double bonds do not allow the polymer chain to come closer. Therefore, only weak vander Waals’ forces are present. Since the chains are not linear, they can be stretched just like springs and exhibit elastic properties.

(ii) Cis-1, 4 polyisoprene (Natural rubber), due to this cis configuration about the double bonds, has the adjacent chain that do not fit together well (there is no close packing of adjacent chains). The only force that interact is the weak or low strength of van der Waals’ forces.

(iii) Cis-polyisoprene has a coiled structure in which the various polymer chains are held together by weak van der Waals’ forces.

(2) (i) Vulcanization of rubber is a process of improvement of the rubber elasticity and strength by heating it in the presence of sulphur, which results in three dimensional cross-linking of the chain rubber molecules (polyisoprene) bonded to each other by sulphur atoms.

(ii) Vulcanisation makes rubber more elastic and more stiffer. On vulcanisation, sulphur forms cross links at the reactive sites of double bonds and thus rubber get stiffened.

(iii) The improved properties of vulcanised rubber are (i) high elasticity (ii) low water absorption tendency,

(iii) resistance to oxidation.

Use your brain power! (Textbook Page No 334)

Question 1.
Write structural formulae of styrene and polybutadiene.
Answer:

(1) Classify the following polymers as addition or condensation.
(i) PVC (ii) Polyamides
(iii) Polystyrene
(iv) Polycarbonates
(v) Novolac
Answer:
Addition polymers: PVC, Polystyrene
(ondensatlon polymers: Polyamides. Polycarbonates, Novolac

Question 2.
Completed the following table :
Answer:

Use your brain power! (Textbook Page No 335)

(1) Represent the copolymerization reaction between glycine and e aminocaproic acid to form the copolymer nylon 2-nylon 6.
(2) What is the origin of the numbers 2 and 6 in the name of this polymer?
Answer:
(1) It is a copolymer and has polyamide linkages. The monomers glycine and e-amino caproic acid undergo condensation polymerisation to form nylon-2-nylon-6.

Nylon-2-nylon-6 is used in orthopaedic devices and implants.

(2) Monomer glycine contains two carbon atoms and e amino caproic acid contains six carbon atoms, hence the polymer is termed as nylon-2-nylon-6.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Biology Textbook Solutions Chapter 2 Reproduction in Lower and Higher Animals Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Biology Solutions Chapter 2 Reproduction in Lower and Higher Animals

1. Multiple choice questions

Question 1.
The number of nuclei present in a zygote is ……………….
(a) two
(b) one
(c) four
(d) eight
Answer:
(b) one

Question 2.
Which of these is the male reproductive organ in human?
(a) Sperm
(b) Seminal fluid
(c) Testes
(d) Ovary
Answer:
(c) Testes

Question 3.
Attachment of embryo to the wall of the uterus is known as ……………….
(a) fertilization
(b) gestation
(c) cleavage
(d) implantation
Answer:
(d) implantation

Question 4.
Rupturing of follicles and discharge of ova is known as ……………….
(a) capacitation
(b) gestation
(c) ovulation
(d) copulation
Answer:
(c) ovulation

Question 5.
In human females, the fertilized egg gets implanted in uterus ……………….
(a) after about 7 days of fertilization
(b) after about 30 days of fertilization
(c) after about two months of fertilization
(d) after about 3 weeks of fertilization
Answer:
(a) after about 7 days of fertilization

Question 6.
Test tube baby technique is called ……………….
(a) In vivo fertilization
(b) In situ fertilization
(c) In Vitro Fertilization
(d) Artificial Insemination
Answer:
(c) In Vitro Fertilization

Question 7.

The given figure shows a human sperm. Various parts of it are labelled as A, B, C, and D. Which labelled part represents acrosome?
(a) B.
(b) C
(c) D
(d) A
Answer:
(d) A

Question 8.
Presence of beard in boys is a ……………….
(a) primary sex organ
(b) secondary sexual character
(c) secondary sex organ
(d) primary sexual character
Answer:
(b) secondary sexual character

2. Very short answer questions

Question 1.
What is the difference between a foetus and an embryo?
Answer:
Embryo is a growing egg after fertilization until the main parts of the body and the internal organs have started to take shape while foetus is a stage which has the appearance of a fully developed offspring.

Question 2.
Outline the path of sperm up to the urethra.
Answer:
The path of sperm up to the urethra in male is as follows :
Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Vas deferens → Ejaculatory ducts Urethra.

Question 3.
Which glands contribute fluids to the semen?
Answer:
The glands which contribute fluids to the semen are seminal vesicles, prostate gland.

Question 4.
Name the endocrine glands involved in maintaining the sexual characteristics of males.
Answer:
Interstitial cells of Leydig which lie in between the seminiferous tubules are involved in maintaining the sexual characteristics of male by secreting the male hormone androgen or testosterone. Adenohypophysis also regulates this secretion from the testis.

Question 5.
Where does fertilization and implantation occur?
Answer:
Fertilization of ovum takes place in the ampulla region of fallopian tube whereas implantation occur in the endometrium of uterus.

Question 6.
Enlist the external genital organs in female.
Answer:
The external genital organs in female include the following parts such as vestibule, labia minora, clitoris, labia majora and mons Veneris.

Question 8.
What is the difference between embryo and zygote?
Answer:
Zygote is the unicellular diploid structure formed as a result of fusion of sperm and ovum whereas embryo is a multicellular structure formed from zygote in the uterus 3 weeks after fertilization.

3. Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
The primary sex organ in human male is ……………….
Answer:
testis

Question 2.
The ……………… is also called the womb.
Answer:
uterus

Question 3.
Sperm fertilizes ovum in the ……………….. of fallopian tube.
Answer:
ampulla

Question 4.
The disc like structure which helps in the transfer of substances to and from the foetus’s body is called ………………..
Answer:
placenta

Question 5.
Gonorrhoea is caused by ……………….. bacteria.
Answer:
Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Question 6.
The hormone produced by the testis is ……………………
Answer:
testosterone / androgen.

4. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Budding in Hydra.
Answer:

1. Budding is a type of asexual reproduction method seen in Hydra.
2. Budding takes place during favourable period.
3. Towards the basal end of the body, small outgrowth is produced which is called a bud.
4. It grows and forms tentacles and gradually forms a new individual.
5. The young Hydra after complete development detaches from the parent and becomes an independent new organism.

Question 2.
Explain the different methods of reproduction occurring in sponges.
Answer:

1. Sponges reproduce both asexually and sexually and they also possess the power of regeneration. Their sexual reproduction is similar to higher animals even though their body organization is primitive type.
2. Asexual reproduction in sponges takes place by regeneration, budding and gemmule formation.
3. In sponges, during unfavourable period, gemmule is produced. It is an internal bud.
4. Archaeocytes which are dormant cells are seen in the aggregation in gemmule. These cells are capable of developing into a new organism.
5. Amoebocytes are other cells which secrete thick resistant layer of secretion which is coated around archaeocytes.
6. When favourable conditions of water and temperature return back, the gemmules can develop into new individuals by hatching, e.g. Spongilla.

Question 3.
IVF.
Answer:

1. In laboratory under sterile conditions, oocyte and sperms are placed in a test tube or glass plate to form a zygote. This process is called In Vitro Fertilization.
2. The zygote with 8 blastomeres is then transferred into the fallopian tube for further development.
3. IVF technique is used when childless couple wants to have a baby, but there are issues of sterility.
4. IVF is also called test tube baby technique.

Question 4.
Comment on any two mechanical contraceptive methods.
Answer:
Two mechanical contraceptive methods are as follows:
A. Condom or Nirodh:

1. It is a protective barrier in the form of thin rubber sheath which is used by male partner during the sexual coitus. It covers the penis and does not allow semen to flow during copulation.
2. Thus the entry of ejaculated semen into the female reproductive tract is obstructed. This can prevent conception. It is a simple and effective method and has no side effects.
3. “Nirodh” is a condom, most widely used in India as a contraceptive by males.
4. Condom also protects both the partners against sexually transmitted diseases such as AIDS and others.

B. Diaphragm, cervical caps and vaults:

1. Diaphragm and cervical caps are to be used by females as mechanical contraceptive measures.
2. They are made up of rubber. They are fitted on the cervix in vagina so that they prevent the entry of sperms into the uterus.
3. They are kept at least six hours after sexual intercourse in order to inhibit sperms from entering female genital tract.

Question 5.
Tubectomy.
Answer:

1. The permanent birth control method in women, is called tubectomy.
2. It is a surgical method, also called sterilization.
3. In tubectomy, a small part of the fallopian tube is tied and cut.
4. Tubectomy blocks transport of oocytes and also blocks sperms, thus preventing fertilization from reaching the oocyte.

Question 6.
Give the name of causal organism of Syphilis and write on its symptoms.
Answer:
1. Syphilis is a sexually transmitted veneral disease caused by a Spirochaete bacterium Treponema pallidum.

2. The site of infection is the mucous membrane in genital, rectal and oral region.

3. Symptoms of syphilis:

• Primary lesion known as chancre at the site of infection.
• They are seen on the external genitalia in males and inside the vagina in females.
• Skin rashes accompanied by fever, inflammed joints and loss of hair.
• Paralysis
• Degenerative changes in the heart and brain.

Question 7.
What is colostrum?
Answer:

1. The fluid secreted by the mammary glands soon after childbirth is called colostrum.
2. Colostrum is the sticky and yellow fluid. It contains proteins, lactose and mother’s antibodies, e.g. IgA.
3. The fat content in colostrum is low.
4. The antibodies present in colostrum helps in developing resistance for the newborn baby at a time when its own immune response is not fully developed.

5. Answer the Following Questions

Question 1.
Describe the phases of menstrual cycle and their hormonal control.
Answer:
Menstrual cycle (Ovarian cycle):
i. Menstrual cycle involves a series of cyclic, changes in the ovary and uterus. The cyclic events are regulated by gonadotropins from pituitary and the hormones from ovary.
ii. The cyclic events in woman are repeated within approximately 28 days.
iii. Menstrual cycle is divided into following phases, viz.

1. Menstrual phase (Day 1-5)
2. Follicular phase in ovary that coincides with proliferative phase in uterus. Post menstrual phase (Day 5-14)
3. Ovulatory phase (Day 14-15)
4. Luteal phase in ovary which coincides with secretory phase in uterus (Day 16 to 28).

1. Menstrual Phase:

• Menstrual phase occurs in the absence of fertilization.
• During menstruation, uterine endometrium is sloughed off. Level of progesterone and estrogen decrease during this phase resulting into release of prostaglandins which cause this rupture.
• Blood about 45-100 ml, tissue fluid, mucus, endometrial lining and unfertilized oocyte and other cellular debris is discharged through vagina as a menstrual flow. The endometrial lining becomes about 1 mm thin.
• Fibrinolysin does not allow blood to clot during this period.
• Pituitary starts secreting FSH, which further makes many primordial follicles to develop into primary and few of them into secondary follicles.

2. Proliferative phase/Follicular phase/Post menstrual phase:

• During this phase in the ovary the follicles develop while in uterus the endometrium starts proliferating. 6 to 12 secondary follicles start developing but usually only one of them becomes Graafian follicle due to action of FSH.
• Developing secondary follicles secrete the hormone estrogen.
• Estrogen brings about regeneration of endometrium. Further proliferation of endometrium causes formation of endothelial cells, endometrial or uterine glands and network of blood vessels. Endometrium’s thickness becomes 3-5 mm.

(3) Ovulatory phase:

• Ovulation occurs in this phase. Mature Graafian follicle ruptures and secondary oocyte is released into the pelvic region of abdomen.
• Ovulation occurs due to surging quantity of LH from pituitary.

(4) Luteal phase/Secretary phase :
(i) Since the empty Graafian follicle converts itself into corpus luteum under the influence of LH, this phase is called luteal phase in ovary. At the same time, the uterine endometrium thickens and becomes more secretory and hence it is called secretory phase in uterus.

(ii) Corpus luteum secretes progesterone, some amount of estrogens and inhibin. These hormones stimulate the growth of endometrial glands which later start uterine secretions.

(iii) Endometrium becomes more vascularized becomes 8-10 mm. in thickness. These changes are the preparation for the implantation of the ovum if fertilization occurs.

(iv) In absence of fertilization, corpus luteum can survive for only two weeks and then degenerate into a non-secretory white scar called corpus albicans.

(v) If ovum is fertilized, woman becomes pregnant and hormone hCG (human Chorionic Gonadotropin) is secreted by chorionic membrane of embryo which keeps corpus luteum active till the formation of placenta.

Question 2.
Explain the steps of parturition.
Answer:
Parturition involves the following three steps:
1. Dilation stage:

• Dilation stage means dilating the birth canal or passage though which baby is pushed out. In the beginning uterine contractions start from top and baby is moved to cervix. Due to compression of blood vessels and movements of flexible joints in pelvic girdle, mother experiences labour pains.
• Oxytocin is secreted later in more amount causing severe uterine contractions. This pushes baby in a head down position and closer to cervix.
• Cervix and vagina both are dilated.
• This stage lasts for about 12 hours.
• At the end, amniotic sac ruptures and amniotic fluid is passed out.

2. Expulsion stage:

• During second stage of about 20 to 60 minutes, the uterine and abdominal contractions become stronger.
• Foetus moves out with head down position through cervix and vagina.
• The umbilical cord which connects the baby to placenta is tied and cut off close to the baby’s navel.

3. After birth or placental stage : In the last stage of 10 to 45 minutes, once the baby is out then the placenta is also separated from uterine wall and is expelled out as “after birth”. This is accompanied by severe contractions of the uterus.

Question 3.
Explain the histological structure of testis.
Answer:
Histological structure of testis:

1. The external covering of testis is a fibrous connective tissue called tunica albuginea.
2. Then there is an incomplete peritoneal covering called tunica vaginalis.
3. Interior to this there is a covering called tunica vascularis formed by capillaries.
4. The testis is composed of many seminiferous tubules that are lined by cuboidal germinal epithelial cells.
5. In the seminiferous tubules various stages of developing sperms are seen as spermatogenesis takes place here. These stages are spermatogonia, primary and secondary spermatocytes, spermatids and sperms.
6. Large, pyramidal sub tentacular cells, nurse cells or Sertoli cells are present between germinal epithelium. Sperm bundles remain attached to Sertoli cells with their heads.
7. Seminiferous tubules form sperms whereas Sertoli cells provide nourishment to the sperms till maturation.
8. In between the seminiferous tubules there are interstitial cells of Leydig which are endocrine in nature. They secrete testosterone.

Question 4.
Describe the structure of blastocyst or blastulation
Answer:

1. The outer layer of cells of the morula is called trophoblast or trophoectoderm. This layer absorbs the nutritive fluid secreted by uterine endometrial membrane.
2. As more and more fluid is absorbed by trophoblast cells, the cells become flat and a cavity called blastocyst cavity or blastocoel or segmentation cavity is formed.
3. This causes trophoblast cells to get separated from inner cell mass except at one side.
4. The trophoblast cells in contact with embryonal knob are known as cells of Rauber. As the quantity of fluid increases, the morula enlarges rapidly and assumes the shape of a cyst. This stage is called blastocyst.
5. The side of the blastocyst to which embryonal knob is attached is known as the embryonic or animal pole and the opposite side as abembryonic pole.
6. The trophoblast produces extra embryonic membranes and does not participate in the formation of embryo proper.
7. Zona pellucida disappears allowing the blastula to increase in size and volume. The blastocyst stage is reached in about five days after fertilization.
8. Blastocyst depends on mother for nutrition which it obtained through placenta.

Question 5.
Explain the histological structure of ovary in human.
Answer:
Histological structure of ovary:
(1) Each ovary is a compact structure differentiated into a central part called medulla and the outer part called cortex.

(2) The cortex is covered externally by a layer of germinal epithelium while the medulla contains the stroma or loose connective tissue with blood vessels, lymph vessels and nerve fibres.

(3) Different stages of developing ovarian follicles are seen in the cortex. Each primordial follicle has at its centre a large primary oocyte (2n) surrounded by a single layer of flat follicular cells, then gradually it matures.

(4) In the ovary during each menstrual cycle there is a maturation of primordial follicles into multilayered primary, secondary and Graafian follicles.

(5) Every Graafian follicle has three layers, viz. theca externa, theca interna and membrana granulosa which are from outer to inner side. A space called antrum filled with liquor folliculi is present inside the follicle. There is a small hillock of cells called cumulus oophours or discus proligerus over which the ovum is lodged. The ovum in turn is covered by vitelline membrane, zona pellucida and corona radiata from inner side to outer surface.

(6) Ovarian cortex also shows corpus luteum, or yellow body formed from empty Graafian follicle after ovulation. Corpus luteum is converted into corpus albicans or white body in case of absence of conception.

Question 6.
Describe the various methods of birth control to avoid pregnancy.
Answer:
Birth control/Contraceptive methods are of two main types, viz. temporary and permanent.
A. Temporary methods:
(1) Natural method/Safe period/Rhythm method : A week before and a week after menstrual bleeding is considered the safe period for sexual intercourse. It is based on the fact that ovulation occurs on the 14th day of menstrual cycle.

(2) Coitus Interruptus or withdrawal : In this method, the male partner withdraws his penis from the vagina before ejaculation, so as to avoid insemination. This method also has some drawbacks, as the pre-ejaculation fluid may contain sperms and this can cause fertilization.

(3) Lactational amenorrhoea (absence of menstruation) : This method is based on the fact that ovulation does not occur during the period of intense lactation following parturition so chances of conception are almost negligible. However, this method also has high chances of failure.

(4) Chemical means (spermicides) : In this method chemicals like foam, tablets, jellies and creams are introduced into the vagina before sexual intercourse, they adhere to the mucous membrane, immobilize and kill the sperms.

(5) Mechanical means/Barrier methods:
(i) Condom : It is a thin rubber sheath that is used to cover the penis of the male. Condom should be used before starting coital activity. It also prevents STDs and AIDS.

(ii) Diaphragm, cervical caps and vaults : These devices made of rubber are inserted into the female reproductive tract to cover the cervix diming copulation. They prevent conception by blocking the entry of sperms through the cervix.

(iii) Intra-uterine devices (IUDs) : These are plastic or metal objects placed in the uterus by a doctor. These include Lippes loop, copper releasing IUDs (Cu-T, Cu 7, multiload 375) and hormone releasing IUDs (LNG-20, progestasert). They prevent fertilization of the egg or implantation of the embryo.

(6) Physiological (Oral) Devices : Birth control pills (oral contraceptive pills) check ovulation as they inhibit the secretion of follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) that are necessary for ovulation. The pill ‘Saheli’ is taken weekly.

(7) Other contraceptives : The birth control implant is similar to that of pills in their mode of action. It is implanted under the skin of the upper arm of the female.

B. Permanent methods surgical operations : In men surgical operation is called vasectomy and in women it is called tubectomy. This method blocks gamete transport and prevent pregnancy.

Question 7.
What are the goals of RCH programmes?
Answer:
Goals of RCH programmes are as follows:

1. Various aspects related to reproduction are made aware to general public.
2. Facilities are provided to people to understand and build up reproductive health.
3. Support is given for building up a reproductively healthy society.
4. Three critical health indicators, i.e. reducing total infertility rate, infant mortality rate and maternal mortality rate are well looked after.

Question 8.
What is parturition? Which hormones are involved in parturition?
Answer:

1. Parturition is the act of expelling out the mature foetus from the uterus of mother via the vagina.
2. When the foetus is fully mature, it starts secreting ACTH (Adreno Cortico Trophic Hormone) from its pituitary.
3. ACTH stimulates adrenal glands of foetus to produce corticosteroids.
4. These corticosteroids diffuse from foetal blood to mother’s blood across the placenta. Corticosteroids accumulate in mother’s blood that results in decreased amount of progesterone. Corticosteroids also increase secretion of prostaglandins.
5. Simultaneously estrogen levels rise bringing about initation of contractions of uterine muscular wall.
6. Reduced progesterone level and increased estrogen level cause secretion of oxytocin from mother’s pituitary. This causes greater stimulation of myometrium of uterus.
7. Prostaglandins cause increased forceful contraction of uterus which expels the foetus out of the uterus.
8. Hormone relaxin secreted by the placenta makes the pubic ligaments and sacroiliac joints of the mother loosen. This causes widening of birth canal which facilitates the normal birth of the baby.

Question 9.
What are the functions of male accessory glands?
OR
Write a brief account of accessory sex glands associated with human male reproductive system.
Answer:
Seminal Vesicles, prostate gland and Cowper’s glands are associated with human male reproductive system.
(i) Seminal Vesicles:

1. Seminal vesicles occur in pair present on the posterior side of urinary bladder. Its secretion consists about 60% of the total volume of the semen. The secretion is an alkaline seminal fluid containing fructose, fibrinogen and prostaglandins.
2. Fructose helps in the movement of sperms by providing energy to them.
3. Semen is coagulated in bolus by fibrinogen. This helps in faster movements of sperms in vagina after insemination.
4. Reverse peristalsis in vagina and uterus for faster movement of sperms towards the egg in the female body is elided by prostaglandins.

(ii) Prostate gland:

1. It is a single gland located under the urinary bladder. It has about 20 to 30 separate lobes which open separately into the urethra.
2. Prostatic fluid secreted by this gland is milky white and slightly acidic. It forms 30 % of the semen and is secreted in urethra.
3. Its contents are citric acid, acid phosphatase and various other enzymes.
4. The sperms are protected from the acidic environment of vagina by acid phosphatase.

(iii) Cowper’s glands (Bulbo-urethral glands):

1. Cowper’s glands occur in pair on either side of urethra. They are small and pea shaped.
2. Cowper’s glands secrete an alkaline, viscous, mucous-like fluid. It helps as lubricant during copulation.

Question 10.
What is capacitation? Give its importance.
Answer:

1. Capacitation is the process by which the sperms are made capable to swim up to the fallopian tubes. This process takes place in 5-6 hours.
2. 50% of ejaculated sperms die due to unfavourable vaginal and uterine conditions.
3. The remaining sperms are capacitated with the help of prostaglandin and vestibular secretions of female tract. It involves the changes in the membrane covering the acrosome.
4. Due to capacitation, acrosome membrane becomes thin, Calcium ions enters the sperm and their tail begin to show rapid whiplash movements.
5. Sperms become extra active and then they ascend upwards to reach fallopian tubes.
6. After capacitation the sperms swim through the vagina and uterus and reach ampulla of fallopian tube within 5 minutes.

Long answer questions

Question 1.
Explain the following parts of male reproductive system along with labelled diagram showing these parts – Testis, vasa deferentia, epididymis, seminal vesicle, prostate gland and penis.
OR
With the help of a neat, labelled diagram, describe the human male reproductive system.
Answer:

(i) Testis, the male gonad, the accessory ducts and glands along with external genitalia form the male reproductive system.

(ii) Testes:

1. Testes are male gonads with dimensions of about 4.5. cm length, 2.5 cm width and 3 cm thickness.
2. There are about 200 to 300 lobules in each testis in which there are seminiferous tubules that form rete testis.
3. Testes produce sperms and secrete male sex hormone, androgen or testosterone.

(iii) Accessory ducts : Rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis, vas deferens, ejaculatory duct and urethra together form the accessory ducts of male reproductive system.
1. Vasa efferentia : Vasa efferentia are 12-20 fine tubules. They arise from rete testis and end into the epididymis. The sperms from the testis are carried by these ducts to the epididymis.

2. Epididymis : Epididymis are long and coiled tubes having three parts, viz. caput, corpus and cauda epididymis. They are located on the posterior border of each testis. The sperms undergo maturation in epididymis.

3. Vasa deferentia:

• Vasa deferentia are a pair of 40 cm long tubular structures that arise from cauda epididymis.
• Each vas deferens enters the abdominal cavity through the inguinal canal and then ascends in the form of spermatic cord.
• Vas deferens of each side is joined by the duct from seminal vesicle to form ejaculatory duct.

4. Ejaculatory duct : About 2 cm long pair of ducts formed by joining of vas deferens and a duct of seminal vesicle are the ejaculatory ducts. Both ejaculatory ducts open into urethra near the prostate gland. Seminal fluid containing spermatozoa are carried by ejaculatory duct to the urethra.

5. Urethra : The male urethra provides a common passage for the urine and semen hence is also called urinogenital duct.

(iv) Accessory glands : Associated with male reproductive system are : (a) Seminal vesicles (b) Prostate gland and (c) Cowper’s or Bulbourethral glands. Every accessory gland has secretion which helps in functions of reproductive system.

(v) External genitalia : External genitalia consists of penis and scrotum.
1. Penis:

• Penis is the copulatory organ used for insemination or deposition of sperms in female genital tract.
• It is cylindrical, erectile and pendulous organ through which passes the urethra.
• It contains three columns of erectile tissues which has abundant blood sinuses.
• The tip is called glans penis while the retractible fold of skin on penis is called prepuce.

2. Scrotum : The scrotum is a pouch of pigmented skin arising from lower abdominal wall. It protects testes within it. Scrotum acts as thermoregulator. Testis are suspended in scrotum by spermatic cord.

Question 2.
Describe female reproductive system of human
Answer:

The female reproductive system consists of internal organs and external genitalia.

Internal organs are pair of ovaries and pair of fallopian ducts or oviducts, single median uterus and vagina. External genitalia is called vulva. There are a pair of vestibular glands in external genitalia. Mammary glands or breasts are also associated with reproductive system of female.

(1) Ovaries:

• Ovaries are situated in the abdomen in upper lateral part of the pelvis near the kidneys. Their dimensions are about 3 cm in length, 1.5 cm in breadth and 1.0 cm thick. They are solid, oval or almond shaped organs.
• Ovaries produce ova and they are also endocrine in nature as they produce estrogen, progesterone, relaxin, activin and inhibin.
• Ovarian hormones bring about secondary sexual characters. They also control menstrual cycle, pregnancy and parturition.

(2) Fallopian tubes/oviducts:
(i) Fallopian tubes lie horizontally over peritoneal cavity. These are about 10 to 12 cm long, narrow, muscular structure lined by ciliated epithelium.
(ii) They transport the ovum after ovulation from the ovary to the uterus.
(iii) Fallopian tube can be subdivided into the following three parts:

• The infundibulum which bears a number of finger-like processes called fimbriae at its free border.
• Infundibulum is funnel-shaped having ostium which receives ova released from the ovary.
• The second part is the ampulla where the fertilization takes place.
• The last part is short cornua or isthmus which opens into the uterus.

(3) Uterus/Womb:
(i) Uterus is a pear-shaped, highly muscular, thick walled, hollow organ measuring about 8 cm in length, 5 cm in width and 2 cm in thickness.

(ii) Uterus has the following three parts : Fundus, Body or corpus and Cervix.

(iii) The cervix communicates above with the body of the uterus by an aperture, the internal os and with vagina below by an opening the external os.

(iv) Uterus has three-layered wall. These layers are:

• Perimetrium : An outer serous layer.
• Myometrium : The middle thick muscular layer of smooth muscles.
• Endometrium : The inner highly vascular mucosa that has many uterine glands.

(v) Uterus receives the ovum from fallopian tube. It develops placenta during pregnancy for the nourishment of foetus. At the time of parturition, it expels the young one at birth.

(4) Vagina:

• Vagina is a highly distensible fibro-muscular tube that lies between the cervix and the vestibule.
• It is about 7 to 9 cm in length and is internally lined by stratified and non- keratinised epithelium. The vaginal wall has inner mucous lining.
• Vagina acts as a birth canal as well as copulatory passage. It also allows passage of menstrual flow.
• Vagina opens into vestibule by vaginal orifice which may be covered with hymen which is also a mucous membrane.

(5) External genitalia or vulva or pudendum : The external genitalia consists of five parts; viz. labia majora, labia minora, mons veneris, clitoris and vestibule.

(6) A pair of vestibular glands / Bartholin’s glands : These glands open into the vestibule and release a lubricating fluid.

(7) A pair of mammary glands/breasts : These are the accessory organs of female reproductive system for production and release of milk after parturition.

Question 3.
Describe the process of fertilization.
Answer:
(1) Fertilization is the process of fusion of the haploid male and female gametes which results in the formation of a diploid zygote (2n).

(2) In human beings fertilization is internal. Sperms deposited in vagina, swim across the uterus and fertilize the ovum in ampulla of the fallopian tube.

(3) Fertilization involves the following events:
(i) Insemination : Discharge of semen into the vagina at the time of copulation is called insemination.

(ii) Movement of sperm towards egg : Sperms reaching the vagina undergo capacitation process for 5-6 hours. During capacitation acrosomal membrane of sperm becomes thin and Ca⁺⁺ enters the sperm making it extra active. Sperms reach up to the ampulla by swimming aided with contraction of uterus and fallopian tubes. These contractions are stimulated by oxytocin of female. By capacitation sperm can reach ampulla within 5 minutes, they remain 5 viable for 24 to 48 hours, whereas ovum remains viable for 24 hours.

(iii) Entry of sperm into the egg : Though many sperms reach the ampulla, only a single sperm fertilizes the ovum. The acrosome of sperm after coming in contact with the ovum, releases lysins; hyaluronidase and corona penetrating enzymes. Due to these enzymes cells of corona radiata are separated and dissolved. The sperm head then passes through zona pellucida of egg. The zona pellucida has glycoprotein fertilizin receptor proteins. These bind to specific acid protein-antifertilizin of sperm. This makes sperm and ovum to come together. Fertilizin-Antifertilizin interaction is species- specific.

(iv) Acrosome reaction : When the sperm head comes in contact with the zona pellucida, its acrosome covering ruptures to release lytic enzymes, acrosin or zona lysin. These enzymes dissolve plasma membrane of egg so that the sperm nucleus and the centrioles enter the egg, while other parts remain outside. Now the vitelline membrane of egg changes into fertilization membrane which prevents any further entry of other sperms into the egg, thus polyspermy is prevented.

(v) Activation of ovum : After the entry of sperm head into ovum, it gets activated to resume and complete its meiosis-II. With this it gives out the second polar body. The germinal vesicle organises into female pronucleus. At this stage, it is true ovum.

(vi) Fusion of egg and sperm : The coverings of male and female pronuclei degenerate results in the formation of a synkaryon by a process called syngamy or karyogamy. The zygote is thus formed.

Question 4.
Explain the process by which zygote divides and redivides to form the morula.
Answer:
(1) Cleavage is a rapid mitotic division to form a blastula. These divisions takes place immediately after fertilization. The cells formed by cleavage are called blastomeres.

(2) The type of cleavage in human is holoblastic, i.e. the whole zygote gets divided, radial and indeterminate, i.e. fate of each blastomere is not predetermined.

(3) Cleavage show faster synthesis of DNA and high consumption of oxygen.

(4) Since there is no growth phase between the cleavages, the size of blastomeres will be reduced with every successive cleavage.

(5) The cleavages occur as follows:

(6) Successive divisions produce a solid ball of cells called morula of 16 cells. It consists of an outer layer of smaller clearer cells and an inner mass of larger cells.

(7) Morula reaches the uterus about 4-6 days after fertilization.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Biology Textbook Solutions Chapter 1 Reproduction in Lower and Higher Plants Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Biology Solutions Chapter 1 Reproduction in Lower and Higher Plants

1. Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Insect pollinated flowers usually possess ………………
(a) sticky pollen with a rough surface
(b) large quantities of pollens
(c) dry pollens with a smooth surface
(d) light colored pollens
Answer:
(a) sticky pollen with a rough surface

Question 2.
In ovule, meiosis occurs in ………………
(a) Integument
(b) Nucellus
(c) Megaspore
(d) Megaspore mother cell
Answer:
(d) Megaspore mother cell

Question 3.
The ploidy level is NOT the same in ………………
(a) Integuments and nucellus
(b) Root tip and shoot tip
(c) Secondary nucleus and endosperm
(d) Antipodals and synergids
Answer:
(c) Secondary nucleus and endosperm

Question 4.
Which of the following types require pollination but result is genetically similar to autogamy?
(a) Geitonogamy
(b) Xenogamy
(c) Apogamy
(d) Cleistogamy
Answer:
(a) Geitonogamy

Question 5.
If diploid chromosome number in a flowering plant is 12, then which one of the following will have 6 chromosomes?
(a) Endosperm
(b) Leaf cells
(c) Cotyledons
(d) Synergids
Answer:
(d) Synergids

Question 6.
In angiosperms, endosperm is formed by/ due to ………………
(a) free nuclear divisions of megaspore
(b) polar nuclei
(c) polar nuclei and male gamete
(d) synergids and male gametes
Answer:
(c) polar nuclei and male gamete

Question 7.
Point out the odd one.
(a) Nucellus
(b) Embryo sac
(c) Micropyle
(d) Pollen grain
Answer:
(d) Pollen grain

2. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
The part of gynoecium that determines the compatible nature of pollen grain.
Answer:
Stigmatic surface.

Question 2.
How many haploid cells are present in a mature embryo sac?
Answer:
6 cells, 2 synergids, 1 egg cell, 3 antipodals.

Question 3.
Even though each pollen grain has 2 male gametes why at least 20 pollen grains are required to fertilize 20 ovules in a particular carpel?
Answer:
Angiosperms have phenomenon of double fertilization in which both the male gametes are utilized, one for fusion with egg cell to form zygote and other for fusion with secondary nucleus to form endosperm.

Question 4.
Megasporogenesis
Answer:
It is the process of formation of haploid megaspores from diploid megaspore mother cell.

Question 5.
What is hydrophily?
Answer:
Transfer of pollen grains in pollination process through agency of water is known as hydrophily.

Question 6.
The layer which supplies nourishment to the developing pollen grains.
Answer:
Tapetum

Question 7.
Parthenocarpy
Answer:
The condition in which fruit is developed without the process of fertilization is called parthenocarpy.

Question 8.
Are pollination and fertilization necessary in apomixis?
Answer:
Apomixis is formation of embryos without formation of gametes hence there is no need of pollination and fertilization.

Question 9.
The part of pistil which develops into fruit and seed.
Answer:
Ovary develops into fruit and ovules into seed.

Question 10.
What is the function of filiform apparatus ?
Answer:
Filiform apparatus guides the pollen tube towards egg cell.

3. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
How polyembryony can be commercially exploited?
Answer:

1. Polyembryony is the development of more than one embryo inside the seed.
2. When such polyembryonic seed germinate we get multiple seedlings from it.
3. This condition increases the chances of survival of new plants.
4. Nucellar embryos are genetically identical to parent plants hence we get uniform plants.
5. In horticulture we can utilize these as rootstock for grafting, hence they have significant role in fruit breeding programmes e.g. Citrus, Mango.

Question 2.
Pollination and seeds formation are very crucial for the fruit formation, Justify.
Answer:

1. After fertilization, ovary is transformed into fruit, where ovary wall becomes fruit wall, i.e pericarp.
2. Mature ovules are transformed into seeds after fertilization.
3. Fertilization is a process where male gametes unites with female gamete to form zygote which develops into embryo.
4. In pollination process pollen grains carrying non-motile male gamete are transferred on stigma.
5. Seeds have embryo which germinate into new plant hence the goal of reproduction to create offspring for next generation is achieved. Hence these are the crucial events for fruit formation.

Question 3.
Incompatibility is a natural barrier in the fusion of gametes. How will you explain this statement?
Answer:

1. Self incompatibility or self-sterility is a genetic mechanism that prevents germination of pollen on stigma of same flower. This favours cross pollination. E.g. Tobacco.
2. In pollen-pistil interaction, when pollen grain is deposited on stigma, pistil has the ability to recognize and allow germination of right type of pollen.
3. Special type of proteins on stigmatic surface determine compatibility or incompatibility.
4. A physiological mechanism operates to ensure successful germination of compatible pollen.
5. Compatible pollen absorbs water and nutrients from stigmatic surface that are absent in pollen and then pollen tube emerges which grow-s through style.

Question 4.
Describe three devices by which cross pollination is encouraged in Angiosperms by avoiding self-pollination?
Answer:

1. Unisexuality, dichogamy, prepotency, heteromorphy and herkogamy are the outbreeding devices.
2. Unisexuality : The plants bear either male or female flowers. Due to unisexual nature, self-pollination is avoided. Plants are either dioecious, e.g. Papaya or monoecious, e.g. maize.
3. Heteromorphy : In same plants different types of flowers are produced. In these flowers, stigmas and anthers are situated at different levels. There is heterostyly and heteroanthy. This prevents self-pollination e.g. Primrose.
4. Herkogamy : In bisexual flowers we may come across mechanical device to prevent self-pollination. Natural physical barrier avoids contact of pollens with stigma. E.g. Calotropis where pollinia are situated below the stigma.

4. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Describe the process of double fertilization.
Answer:
Double fertilization:
(1) Out of the two male gametes produced by the male gametophyte in angiosperms, one unites with the female gamete and the other with the secondary nucleus. Since both the male gametes take part in fertilization and fertilization occurs twice, it is called double fertilization.

(2) During double fertilization, the pollen tube on reaching the ovule enters the embryo sac through micropyle and bursts in one of the synergids. Owing to this, the two male gametes contained in the pollen tube, are set free.

(3) Out of the two male gametes, one unites with the egg or female gamete and the other unites with the secondary nucleus of the embryo sac, forming a triploid or triple fusion nucleus, called the primary endosperm nucleus. The process involving the fusion of one of the male gametes with the egg nucleus, resulting in the formation of a diploid zygote is called syngamy.

(4) The reproductive process in which non-motile male nuclei are carried to the egg cell through a pollen tube is called siphonogamy.

(5) After fertilization, zygote develops into an embryo. Certain changes take place in the ovule leading to the development of a seed.

Question 2.
Explain the stages involved in the maturation of microspore into male gametophyte.
OR
Describe the development of male gametophyte before pollination in angiosperms.
OR
Sketch and label male gametophyte in angiosperm.
Answer:

1. Microspore or pollen grain is first cell of male gametophyte.
2. The protoplast of pollen grain divides mitotically to form two unequal cells – a small thin walled generative cell and a large naked vegetative or tube cell.
3. The generative cell possesses thin cytoplasm and a nucleus. It separates and floats in the cytoplasm of vegetative cell.
4. The vegetative, possesses thick cytoplasm, irregular shaped nucleus and the reserved food.
5. In majority of the angiosperms, the pollen grains are liberated at two-celled stage after the dehiscence of the anther.
6. The generative cell of the pollen grain divides by mitosis to form two male non-motile gametes.

Question 3.
Explain the development of dicot embryo.
Answer:
Development of embryo (dicot) in angio- sperm:

The oospore undergoes a transverse division to form a large basal cell towards the micropyle and a small apical or terminal cell towards the chalaza of the embryo sac. This two celled structure is called proembryo. The basal cell or suspensor initial undergoes repeated transverse divisions to form a multicellular structure called suspensor. The suspensor pushes the embryo towards the endosperm to draw its nutrition.

1. The development of embryo from a zygote is called embryogenesis.
2. The fusion of male gamete and an egg cell during fertilization results in the formation of a diploid zygote. The zygote develops a wall around it and is converted into oospore.
3. The apical cell or embryonal initial of the proembryo undergoes a transverse division followed by two vertical divisions at right angles to form an octant stage.
4. From octant, the lower four cells form hypocotyl and radicle while four cells of upper side form plumule with two cotyledons.
5. The lowermost cell of suspensor is hypophysis and by its further division forms part of radicle and root cap.
6. The cells from upper side of octant divide repeatedly to form heart shaped which elongated further to form two lateral cotyledons.
7. Enlargement of hypocotyl and cotyledon results into curved embryo which appears horse shoe shaped.

Question 4.
Draw a diagram of the L.S of anatropous ovule and list the components of embryo sac and mention their fate after fertilization.
Answer:
Components of Embryo sac.

1. Mature embryo sac is 7-celled and 8 nucleate.
2. Egg apparatus at micropylar end – with 2 synergids and egg cell.
3. Central cell with secondary nucleus formed by 2 polar nuclei
4. Antipodal cells at chalazal end – 3 cells.
5. Pollen tube enters the synergids, Synergids guide the growth of pollen tube towards egg.
6. Male gamete fuses with female gamete, i.e. syngamy to form zygote which develops into embryo.
7. One male gamete fuses with secondarynucleus to form primary endosperm nucleus (PEN) which forms endosperm, nutritive tissue for embryo.

5. Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
The ……………… collects the pollen grains.
Answer:
biotic agents

Question 2.
The male whorl, called the ……………… produces ………………
Answer:
androecium, pollen grains

Question 3.
The pollen grains represent the ………………
Answer:
male

Question 4.
The ……………… contains the egg or ovum.
Answer:
embryo sac

Question 5.
…………….. takes place when one male gamete and the egg fuse together. The fertilized egg grows vs into seed from which the new plants can grow.
Answer:
Fertilization

Question 6.
The ……………… is the base of the flower to which other floral parts are attached.
Answer:
thalamus

Question 7.
……………… is the transfer of pollen grains from anther of the flower to the stigma of the same or a different flower.
Answer:
Pollination

Question 8.
Once the pollen reaches the stigma, pollen tube traverses down the ……………… to the ovary where fertilization occurs.
Answer:
style

Question 9.
The ……………… are coloured to attract the insects that carry the pollen. Some flowers also produce ……………… or ……………… that attracts insects.
Answer:
petals, fragrance, nectar

Question 10.
The whorl ……………… is green that protects the flower until it opens.
Answer:
Calyx.

6. Label the Parts of seed.

Answer:

7. Match the following

Column I (Structure Before seed formation)	Column II (Structure After seed formation)
A. Funiculus	i. Hilum
B. Scar of Ovule	ii. Tegmen
C. Zygote	iii. Testa
D. Inner Integument	iv. Stalk of Seed
	v. Embryo

(a) A-v, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
(b) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-v
(c) A-iv, B-i, C-v D-ii
(d) A-iv, B-v C-iii, D-ii
Answer:
(c) A-iv, B-i, C-v D-ii

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Chemistry Textbook Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids

1. Choose the most correct option.

Question i.
In the following resonating structures A and B, the number of unshared electrons in valence shell present on oxygen respectively are

Answer:
c. 4, 6

Question ii.
In the Wolf -Kishner reduction, alkyl aryl ketones are reduced to alkylbenzenes. During this change, ketones are first converted into
a. acids
b. alcohols
c. hydrazones
d. alkenes
Answer:
c. hydrazones

Question iii.
Aldol condensation is
a. electrophilic substitution reaction
b. nucleophilic substitution reaction
c. elimination reaction
d. addition – elimination reaction
Answer:
d. addition-elimination reaction

Question iv.
Which one of the following has the lowest acidity?


Answer:
(c)

Question v.
Diborane reduces
a. ester group
b. nitro group
c. halo group
d. acid group
Answer:
d. acid group

Question vi.
Benzaldehyde does NOT show positive test with
a. Schiff reagent
b. Tollens’ ragent
c. Sodium bisulphite solution
d. Fehling solution
Answer:
d. Fehling solution

2. Answer the following in one sentence

Question i.
What are aromatic ketones?
Answer:
The compounds in which group is attached to either two aryl groups or one aryl and one alkyl group are called aromatic ketones.

For example :

Question ii.
Is phenylacetic acid an aromatic carboxylic acid?
Answer:
Phenylacetic acid is not an aromatic carboxylic acid.

Question iii.
Write reaction showing conversion of ethanenitrile into ethanol.
Answer:

Question iv.
Predict the product of the following reaction:
\(\mathrm{CH}_{3}-\mathrm{CH}_{2}-\mathrm{COOCH}_{3} \frac{\mathrm{i} \cdot \mathrm{AlH}(\mathrm{i}-\mathrm{Bu})_{2}}{\text { ii. } \mathrm{H}_{3} \mathrm{O}^{\oplus}}{\longrightarrow} ?\)
Answer:

Question v.
Name the product obtained by reacting toluene with carbon monoxide and hydrogen chloride in presence of anhydrous aluminium chloride.
Answer:

Question vi.
Write reaction showing conversion of Benzonitrile into benzoic acid.
Answer:

Question vii.
Name the product obtained by the oxidation of 1,2,3,4-tetrahydronaphthalene with acidified potassium permanganate.
Answer:

Question viii.
What is formalin?
Answer:
The aqueous solution of formaldehyde (40%) is known as formalin.

Question ix.
Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of their boiling points : Formaldehyde, ethane, methyl alcohol.
Answer:
Ethane, formaldehyde, methyl alcohol.

Question x.
Acetic acid is prepared from methyl magnesium bromide and dry ice in presence of dry ether. Name the compound which serves not only reagent but also as cooling agent in the reaction.
Answer:
The cooling agent used in the above reaction is dry ice (O = C = O).

3. Answer in brief.

Question i.
Observe the following equation of reaction of Tollens’ reagent with aldehyde. How do we know that a redox reaction has taken place. Explain.
\(\begin{array}{r}
\mathrm{R}-\mathrm{CHO}+2 \mathrm{Ag}\left(\mathrm{NH}_{3}\right)_{2}^{+}+\mathrm{OH}^{-} \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} \\
\mathrm{R}-\mathrm{COO}^{-}+2 \mathrm{Ag} \downarrow+4 \mathrm{NH}_{3}+2 \mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}
\end{array}\)
Answer:
Tollen’s reagent oxidises acetaldehyde to acetic acid (carboxylate ion) and Ag in Tollen’s reagent complex are reduced to silver. In this reaction, oxidation and reduction takes place simultaneously hence, it is a redox reaction.

Question ii.
Formic acid is stronger than acetic acid. Explain.
Answer:

In acetic acid, the methyl group is an electron-donating group. The acetate ion formed gets destabilized due to the electron releasing effect of methyl group ( +1 effect) which is higher than that of H-atom in the corresponding formic acid. As a result, acetic acid dissociates to a lesser extent. Thus decreasing the acidity of acetic acid.

Formic acid having lower pK_a value than acetic acid. Hence, formic acid is a stronger acid than acetic acid.

Question iii.
What is the action of hydrazine on cyclopentanone in presence of —. KOH in ethylene glycol?
Answer:

Question iv.
Write reaction showing conversion of Acetaldehyde into acetaldehyde dimethyl acetal.
Answer:

Question v.
Aldehydes are more reactive toward nucleophilic addition reactions than ketones. Explain.
Answer:
The reactivity of aldehydes and keones is due to the polarity of carbonyl group which results in electrophilicity of carbon. The reactivity is further explained on the basis of electronic effect and steric effects.

(1) Influence of electronic effects: A ketone has two electron-donating aJ.kyl groups ( + I effect) bonded to carbonyl carbon which are responsible for decreasing its positive polarity and electrophilicity. In contrast. aldehydes have only electron-donating group bonded to carbonyl carbon. This shows aldehydes are more electrophilic than ketones.

(2) Steric effects : Two bulky alkyl groups in ketone come in the way of the incoming nucleophile. This is called steric hindrance to nucleophilic attack.

On the other hand. nucleophile can easily attack the carbonyl carbon in aldehyde because has one alkyl group and is less crowded or sterically less hindered.

Hence aldehydes are more reactive and can easily be attacked by nucleophiles.

Question vi.
Write reaction showing the action of the following reagent on propane nitrile
a. Dilute NaOH
b. Dilute HCl ?
Answer:
(1) Action of dil NaOH:

(2) Action of dil HCl:

Question vi.
Arrange the following carboxylic acids with increasing order of their acidic strength and justify your answer.

Answer:
The increasing order of acidity will be 1 <3 <2. Acidity depends on mainly two factors : (1) ease of proton release (2) stability of conjugate base formed. In example (3) the ether O exerts a I effect and is closer to COOH group than in 2 (1 effect diminishes). Also the conjugate base formed will be stabilized by the same – I effect by delocalization of charge.

4. Answer the following

Question i.
Write a note on
a. Cannizaro reaction
b. Stephen reaction.
Answer:
(1) The carbon atom adjacent to carbonyl carbon atom is called a-carbon atom (α – C) and the hydrogen atom attached to a-carbon atom is called α-hydrogen atom (α – H).

(2) The α-hydrogen of aldehydes and ketones is acidic in nature due to (i) the strong-I effect of carbonyl group (ii) resonance stabilization of the carbanion.

(3) Aldol condensation reaction is characteristic reaction of aldehydes and ketones containing active α-hydrogen atom.

(4) When aldehydes or ketones containing α – H atoms are warmed with a dilute base or dilute acid, two molecules of them undergo self condensation to give β-hydroxy aldehyde (aldol) or β-hydroxy ketone (ketol) respectively. The reaction is known as Aldol addition Reaction.

(5) In aldol condensation, the product is formed by the nucleophilic addition of α-carbon atom of a second molecule which gets attached to carbonyl carbon atom of the first molecule and α-hydrogen atom of the second molecule gets attached to carbonyl oxygen atom of the first molecule forming (- OH) group to give β-hydroxy aldehyde or ketone.

(6) This is a reversible reaction, establishing an equilibrium favouring aldol formation to a greater extent than ketol formation.

(7) For aldehyde :

Acetaldol on heating undergoes subsequent elimination of water giving rise to α, β unsaturated aldehyde.

The overall reaction is called aldol condensation. It is a nucleophilic addition-elimination reaction. For ketone :

Diacetone alcohol on dehydration by heating forms α, β unsaturated ketone.

Question ii.
What is the action of the following reagents on toluene ?
a. Alkaline KMnO₄, dil. HCl and heat
b. CrO₂Cl₂ in CS₂
c. Acetyl chloride in presence of anhydrous AlCl₃.
Answer:
(1) Action of alkaline KMnO₄ : When toluene is heated with alkaline KMnO₄. (methyl group gets oxidised to earboxy lic group) benzoic acid is obtained

(2) Action of CrO₂Cl₂ in C₂:
Answer:
When Loluenc is ircated with soluion of chromyl chloride (CrO₂Cl₂) in Cs₂, brown chromium complex is obtained, which on acid hydrolysis gives benzaldehyde.

(3) Action of acetyl chloride in presence of anhyd. AlCl₃.
Answer:
When toluene is treated with acetyl chloride in presence of anhydrous AlCl₃ 4-methyl acetophenone is obtained.

Question iii.
Write the IUPAC names of the following structures :

Question iv.
Write reaction showing conversion of p- bromoisopropyl benzene into p-Isopropyl benzoic acid (3 steps).
Answer:

Question v.
Write reaction showing aldol condensation of cyclohexanone.
Answer:

Activity :
Draw and complete the following reaction scheme which starts with acetaldehyde. In each empty box, write the structural formula of the organic compound that would be formed.

12th Chemistry Digest Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Intext Questions and Answers

Use your brain power! (Textbook Page No 254)

Question 1.
Classify the following as aliphatic and aromatic aldehydes.

Answer:

Use your brain power! (Textbook Page No 255)

Question 1.
Classify the following as simple and mixed ketones. Benzoplienone, acetoneq hutanoneq acetophenone.

Compoun
Benzophenone	……………………………………………..
Acetone	……………………………………………..
Butanone	……………………………………………..
Acetophenone	……………………………………………..

Answer:

Compound
Benzophenone	Simple ketone
Acetone	Simple ketone
Butanone	Mixed ketone
Acetophenone	Mixed ketone

Use your brain power! (Textbook Page No 264)

Write IUPAC names for the following compounds.

Try this ….. (Textbook Page No 260)

Question 1.
Draw structures for the following :
(1) 2-Methylpentanal
(2) Hexan-2-one
Answer:

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No 260)

Question 1.
Which is the reagent that oxidizes primary alcohols to only aldehydes and does not oxidize aldehydes further into carboxylic acid ?
Answer:
The reagent that is used to make only aldehydes is-heated Cu at 573 K.

Use your brain power! (Textbook Page No 261)

Question 1.
Write the structure of the product formed on Rosenmund reduction of ethanoyl chloride and benzoyl chloride.
Answer:

Can you think? (Textbook Page No 261)

Question 1.
What is the alcohol formed when benzoyl chloride is reduced with pure palladium as the catalyst ?
Answer:

Use your brain power! (Textbook Page No 262)

Question 1.
Name the compounds which are used for the preparation of benzophenone by Friedel-Crafts acylation reaction. Draw their structures.
Answer:
The compounds which are used in preparation of benzophenone by Friedel – Crafts reaction are :

Use your brain power! (Textbook Page No 263)

Identify the reagents necessary to achieve each of the following transformations:

Answer:

Use your brain power! (TextBook Page No 264)

Predict the products (name and structure) in the following reactions.

Answer:

Problem 12.1 : (Textbook Page No 276)

Question 1.
Alcohols (R – OH), phenols (Ar – OH) and carboxylic acids (R – COOH) can undergo ionization of O – H bond to give away proton H⁺; yet they have different pK_a values, which are 16, 10 and 4.5 respectively. Explain.
Solution :
pK_a value is indicative of acid strength. Lower of pK_a value stronger the acid. Alcohols, phenols and carboxylic acids, all involve ionization of an O – H bond. But their different pK_a values indicate that their acid strengths are different. This is because the resulting conjugate bases are stabilized to different extents.

As the conjugate base of carboxylic acid is best stabilized, among the three, carboxylic acids are strongest and have the lowest pKa value. As conjugate base of alcohols is destabilized, alcohols are weakest acids and have highest pIQ value. As conjugate base of phenols is moderately stabilized, phenols are moderately acidic and have intermediate pBQ value.

Try this….. (Textbook Page No 277)

Question 1.
Compare the following two conjugate bases and answer.

(1) Indicate the inductive effects of CH₃ – group in (a) and Cl-group in (b) by putting arrowheads in the middle of appropriate covalent bonds.
(2) Which species is stabilized by inductive effect, (a) or (b) ?
(3) Which species is destabilized by inductive effect, (a) or (b) ?
Answer:

(2) The monochloroacetate ion formed gets stabilised due to electron-withdrawing of Cl atom (- I effect).
(3) The acetate ion formed gets destabilised due to electron releasing effect of methyl group

Use your brain power! (Textbook Page No 277)

Question 1.
(1) Compare the pK_a values and arrange the following in an increasing order of acid strength. CI₃CCOOH, ClCH₂COOH, CH₃COOH, Cl₂CHCOOH
(2) Draw structures of conjugate bases of monochloroacetic acid and dichloroacetic acid. Which one is more stabilized by – 1 effect?
Answer:

The dichloroacetate ion formed gets stabilised due electron-withdrawing effect of two chlorine atoms. (- 1 effect)

Try this….. (Textbook Page No 277)

Question 1.
Arrange the following acids in order of their decreasing acidity.

Answer:
Acidity in the decreasing order

Try this ….. (Textbook Page No 267)

Question 1.
Draw the structure of propanone and indicate its polarity.
Answer:

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No 268)

Question 1.
Simple hydrocarbons, ethers, ketones and alcohols do not get oxidized by Tollen’s reagent. Explain, Why?
Answer:
(1) Due to the presence of hydrogen atom in aldehyde group , an aldehyde is oxidised to carboxylic acid which is not possible in case of ethers, ketones, alcohols and hydrocarbons.
(2) In ketones, carbonyl atom is attached to C-atom, hence C – C bond in can’t be broken easily.
(3) H atom attached to carbonyl carbon can be oxidised to – OH group giving carboxylic group Therefore, aldehyde reduces Tollen’s reagent, whereas simple hydrocarbons, ethers, ketones and alcohols do not reduce Tollen’s reagent.

Use your brain power! (Textbook Page No 269)

Question 1.
Sodium bisulfite is sodium salt of sulfurous acid, write down its detailed bond structure.
Answer:

Bond structure of sodium bisulfite

Use your brain power! (Textbook Page No 270)

Predict the product of the following reaction:

Answer:

Use your brain power! (Textbook Page No 271)

Question 1.
Draw the structures of
(1) The semicarbazone of cyclohexanone
(2) The imine formed in the reaction between 2-methylhexanal and ethyl amine
(3) 2, 4-dinitrophenyl hydrazone of acetaldehyde.
Answer:
(1) The semi carbazone of cyclohexanone.

(2) The imine formed between 2-methyl hexanal and ethyl amine.

(3) 2, 4-dinitrophenylhydrazone of acetaldehyde.

Try this….. (Textbook Page No 272)

Question 1.
Write chemical reactions taking place when propan-2-ol is treated with iodine and sodium hydroxide.
Answer:

Question 2.
When acetaldehyde Is treated with dilute NaOH, the following reaction is observed.

(1) What are the functional groups in the product?
(2) Can another product be formed during the same reaction? (Deduce the answer by doing atomic audit of reactant and product)
(3) Is this an addition reaction or condensation reaction?
Answer:
(1) There arc two functiona’ groups in the product: -CRO and -OH
(2) No other product can be formed in the same reaction.
(3) This is an addition reaction.

Use your brain power! (Textbook Page No 273)

Question 1.
Observe the following reaction.
Answer:

Question 2.
Will this reaction give a mixture of products like a cross aldol reaction ?
Answer:
No, since benzaldehyde, does not have a-hydrogen atom, it will not undergo self aldol condensation.

Use your brain power! (Textbook Page No 274)

Question 1.
Can isobutyraldehyde undergo a Cannizzaro reaction? Explain.
Answer:
Since isobutyraldehydecontains a-carbon atom, it cannot undergo Cannizzaro reaction.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No 279)

What is the term used for elimination of water molecule ?
Answer:
Dehydration.

Use your brain power! (Textbook Page No 278)

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks and rewrite the balanced equations.

Answer:

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Chemistry Textbook Solutions Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers

1. Choose the correct option.

Question i.
Which of the following represents the increasing order of boiling points of (1), (2) and (3)?
(1) CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₂ – OH
(2) (CH₃)₂ CH – O – CH₃
(3) (CH₃)₃COH
A. (1) < (2) < (3)
B. (2) < (1) < (3)
C. (3) < (2) < (1)
D. (2) < (3) < (1)
Answer:
(a) (1) < (2) < (3)

Question ii.
Which is the best reagent for carrying out following conversion ?

A. LiAlH₄
B. Conc. H₂SO₄, H₂O
C. H₂/Pd
D. B₂H₆, H₂O₂ – NaOH
Answer:
B. Conc. H₂SO₄, H₂O

Question iii.
Which of the following reaction will give ionic organic product on reaction ?
A. CH₃ – CH₂ – OH + Na
B. CH₃ – CH₂ – OH + SOCl₂
C. CH₃ – CH₂ – OH + PCl₅
D. CH₃ – CH₂ – OH + H₂SO₄
Answer:
C. CH₃ – CH₂ – OH + PCl₅

Question iv.
Which is the most resistant alcohol towards oxidation reaction among the follwoing ?

Answer:
(c)

Question v.
Resorcinol on distillation with zinc dust gives
A. Cyclohexane
B. Benzene
C. Toluene
D. Benzene-1, 3-diol
Answer:
(b) Benzene

Question vi.
Anisole on heating with concerntrated HI gives
A. Iodobenzene
B. Phenol + Methanol
C. Phenol + Iodomethane
D. Iodobenzene + methanol
Answer:
B. Phenol + Methanol

Question vii.
Which of the following is the least acidic compound ?

Answer:
(b)

Question viii.
The compound incapable of hydrogen bonding with water is ……

Answer:
(b)

Question ix.
Ethers are kept in air tight brown bottles because
A. Ethers absorb moisture
B. Ethers evaporate readily
C. Ethers oxidise to explosive peroxide
D. Ethers are inert
Answer:
C. Ethers oxidise to explosive peroxide

Question x.
Ethers reacts with cold and concentrated H₂SO₄ to form
A. oxonium salt
B. alkene
C. alkoxides
D. alcohols
Answer:
A. oxonium salt

2. Answer in one sentence/ word.

Question i.
Hydroboration-oxidation of propene gives…..
Answer:
n-propyl alcohol (CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – OH)

Question ii.
Write the IUPAC name of alcohol having molecular formula C₄H₁₀O which is resistant towards oxidation.
Answer:

Question iii.
Write the structure of optically active alcohol having molecular formula C₄H₁₀O
Answer:

Question iv.
Write name of the electrophile used in Kolbe’s Reaction.
Answer:
Electrophile : Carbon dioxide (O = C = O)

3. Answer in brief.

Question i.
Why phenol is more acidic than ethyl alcohol ?
Answer:
(1) In ethyl alcohol, the -OH group is attached to sp³ – hybridised carbon while in phenols, it is attached to sp² – hybridised carbon.

(2) Due to higher electronegativity of sp² – hybridised carbon, electron density on oxygen decreases. This increases the polarity of O-H bond and results in more ionization of phenol than that of alcohols.

(3) Electron donating inductive effect (+1 effect) of the alkyl group destabilizes alkoxide ion. As a result alcohol does not ionize much in water, therefore alcohol is neutral compound in aqueous medium.

(4) In alkoxide ion, the negative charge is localized on oxygen, while in phenoxide ion the negative charge is delocalized. The delocalization of the negative charge (structure I to V) makes phenoxide ion more stable than that of phenol.

The delocalization of charge in phenol (structures VI to X), the resonating structures have charge separation (where oxygen atom of OH group to be positive and delocalization of negative charge over the ortho and para positions of aromatic ring) due to which phenol molecule is less stable than phenoxide ion. This favours ionization of phenol. Thus phenols are more acidic than ethyl alcohol.

Question ii.
Why p-nitrophenol is a stronger acid than phenol ?
Answer:
(1) In p-nitrophenol, nitro group (NO₂) is an electron withdrawing group present at para position which enhances the acidic strength (-1 effect). The O-H bond is under strain and release of proton (H⁺) becomes easy. Further p-nitrophenoxide ion is more stabilised due to resonance.

(2) Since the absence of electron withdrawing group (like – NO₂) in phenol at ortho and para position, the acidic strength of phenol is less than that of p-nitrophenol.

Question iii.
Write two points of difference between properties of phenol and ethyl alcohol.
Answer:

Question iv.
Give the reagents and conditions necessary to prepare phenol from
a. Chlorobenzene
b. Benzene sulfonic acid.
Answer:
(1) From chlorobenzene : Reagents required : NaOH and dil. HC1 Temperature : 623 K, Pressure : 150 atm
(2) From Benzene sulphonic acid : Reagents required : aq NaOH, caustic soda, dil. HC1 Temperature : 573 K

Question v.
Give the equations of the reactions for the preparation of phenol from isopropyl benzene.
Answer:
Preparation of phenol from cumene (isopropylbenzene) : This is the commercial method of preparation of phenol. When a stream of air is passed through cumene (isopropylbenzene) suspended in aqueous Na₂CO₃ solution in the presence of cobalt naphthenate catalyst, isopropyl benzene hydroperoxide or cumene hydroperoxide is formed. Isopropylbenzene hydroperoxide on warming with dil. H₂SO₄ gives phenol and acetone. Acetone is an important by-product of the reaction and is separated by distillation. The reaction is called auto oxidation.

Question vi.
Give a simple chemical test to distinguish between ethanol and ethyl bromide.
Answer:
When ethyl bromide is heated with aq NaOH; ethyl alcohol is formed whereas ethanol does not react with aq NaOH

4. An ether (A), C₅H₁₂O, when heated with excess of hot HI produce two alkyl halides which on hydrolysis form compound (B)and (C), oxidation of (B) gave and acid (D), whereas oxidation of (C) gave a ketone (E). Deduce the structural formula of (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E).
Answer:

5. Write structural formulae for

a. 3-Methoxyhexane
b. Methyl vinyl ether
c. 1-Ethylcyclohexanol
d. Pentane-1,4-diol
e. Cyclohex-2-en-1-ol
Answer:

6. Write IUPAC names of the following

Answer:

Activity :
• Collect information about production of ethanol as byproduct in sugar industry and its importance in fuel economy.
• Collect information about phenols used as antiseptics and polyphenols having antioxidant activity.

12th Chemistry Digest Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers Intext Questions and Answers

Use your brain power! (Textbook Page No 235)

Question 1.
Classify the following alcohols as l0/2°/3° and allylic/benzylic

Answer:
(1) Ally lie alcohol (primary)
(2) Allylic alcohol (secondary)
(3) Allylic alcohol (tertiary)
(4) Benzylic alcohol (primary)
(5) Benzylic alcohol (secondary)

Use your brain power ….. (Textbook Page No 236)

Question 1.
Name t-butyl alcohol using carbinol system of nomenclature.
Answer:
Trimethyl carbinol.

Problem 11.1 (Textbook Page No 238)

Question 1.
Draw structures of following compounds:
(i) 2,5-DiethIphenoI
(ii) Prop-2-en-I-oI
(iii) 2-methoxypropane
(iv) Phenylmethanol
Solution :

Try this ….. (Textbook Page No 238)

Write IUPAC names ol (he following compounds.

Do you know (Textbook Page No 238)

Question 1.
The mechanism of hydration of ethylcnc to ethyl alcohol.
Answer:
The mechanism of hydration of ethylene involves three steps:

Step 1: Ethylene gets protonated to form carbocation by electrophilic attack of H₃O (Formation of carbocation intermediate).

Step 2 : Nucleophilic attack of water on carbocation

Step 3 : Deprotonation to form an alcohol

Problem 11.2 : (Textbook Page No 239)

Question 1.
Predict the products for the following reaction.

Solution:
The substrate (A) contains an isolated and an aldehyde group. H₂/Ni can reduce both these functional groups while LiAlH₄ can reduce only – CHO of the two, Hence

Try this ….. (Textbook page 240)

Question 1.
Arrange O – H, C – H and N – H bonds in increasing order of their bond polarity.
Answer:
Increasing order of polarity :C – H, N – H, O – H

Problem 11.3 : (Textbook Page No 241)

Question 1.
The boiling point of n-butyl alcohol, isobutyl alcohol, sec-butyl alcohol and tert-butyl alcohol are 118 °C, 108 °C. 99 °C and 82 °C respectively. Explain.
Solution:
As branching increases, intermolecular van der Waal’s force become weaker and the boiling point decreases. Therefore, n-butyl alcohol has highest boiling point 118 °C and tert-butyl alcohol has lowest boiling point 83 °C. Isobutyl alcohol is a primary alcohol and hence its boiling point is higher than that of sec-butyl alcohol.

Problem 11.4 : (Textbook Page No 242)

The solubility of o-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol is 0.2 g and 1.7 g/100 g of H₂O respectively. Explain the difference.
Solution :

p-Nitrophenol has strong intermolecular hydrogen bonding with solvent water. On the other hand, o-nitrophenol has strong intramolecular hydrogen bonding and therefore the intermolecular attraction towards solvent water is weak. The stronger the intermolecular attraction between solute and solvent higher is the solubility. Hence p-nitrophenol has higher solubility in water than that of o-nitrophenol.

Problem 11.5 : (Textbook Page No 243 & 244)

Question 1.
Arrange the following compounds in decreasing order of acid strength and justify.
(1) CH₃ – CH₂ – OH
(2) (CH₃)₃ C – OH
(3) C₆H₅ – OH
(4) p-NO₂ – C₆H₄ – OH
Solution :
Compounds (3) and (4) are phenols and therefore are more acidic than the alcohols (1) and (2). The acidic strengths of compounds depend upon stabilization of the corresponding conjugate bases. Hence let us compare electronic effects in the conjugate bases of these compounds :

The conjugate base of the alcohol (1) is destabilized by + 1 effect of one alkyl group, whereas conjugate base of the alcohol (2) is destabilized by +1 effect of three alkyl groups. Hence (2) is weaker acid than (1)

Phenols : The conjugate base of p-nitrophenol (4) is better resonance stabilized due to six resonance structures compared to the five resonance structure of conjugate base of phenol (3). The resonance structure VI has – ve charge on only electronegative oxygens. Hence the phenol (4) is stronger acid than (3). Thus the decreasing order of acid strength is (4), (3), (1), (2).

Use your brain power (Textbook Page No 244)

Question 1.
What are the electronic effects exerted by – OCH₃ and – Cl? Predict the acid strength of

Answer:
The electronic effects exerted by – Cl and – O CH₃ are as follows :
(1) Cl being more electronegative atom it pulls the bonding electrons towards itself. This is known as negative inductive effect (- I).

(2) – OCH₃ is less electronegative group which repels the bonding electrons away from it. This is known as positive inductive effect ( + I).

(3) The relative to parent phenol, is more acidic than .

Problem 11.6 : (Textbook Page No 245)

Question 1.
Mechanism of acid catalyzed dehydration of ethanol to give ethene.
Answer:
The mechanism of dehydration of ethanol involves the following order :
Step 1 : Formation of protonated alcohols : Initially ethyl alcohol gets protonated to form ethyl oxonium ion.

Step 2 : Formation of carbocation : It is the slowest step and hence, the rate determining step of the reaction.

Steps 3: Formation of ethene: Removal of a proton (H⁺) from carbocation.

The acidused in step I is released in step 3, the equilibrium is shifted to the right, ethene is removed as it is formed.

Problem 11.6 : (Textbook Page No 245)

Question 1.
Write the reaction showing major and minor products formed on heating butan-2-ol with concentrrated sulphuric acid.
Solution :
In the reaction described butan-2-ol undergoes dehydration to give but-2-ene (major) and but-l-ene (minor) in accordance with Saytzeff rule.

Problem 11.7 : (Textbook Page No 246)

Question 1.
Write and explain reactions to convert propan-l-ol into propan-2-ol.
Solution :
The dehydration of propane-l-ol to propene is the first step. Markownikoff hydration of propene is the second step to get the product propan-2-ol. This is brought about by reaction with concemtrated H₂SO₄ followed by hydrolysis.

Problem 11.8 : (Textbook Page No 246)

Question 1.
An organic compound gives hydrogen on reaction with sodium metal. It forms an aldehyde having molecular formula C₂H₄O on oxidation with pyridinium chlorochromate. Name the compounds and give equations of these reactions.
Solution :
The given molecular formula C₂H₄O of aldehyde is written as CH₃ – CHO. Hence the formula of alcohol from which this is obtained by oxidation must be CH₃ – CH₂ – OH. The two reactions can, therefore, be represented as follows :

(Do you know? Textbook Page No 248)

Question 90.
Write the mechanism of dehydration of alcohol to give ether.
Answer:
Dehydration of alcohols to form ether is SN₂ reaction. The mechanism of dehydration of ethanol involves the following steps.

Step 1 (Protonation) : Initially ethyl alcohol gets protonated in the presence of acid to form ethyl oxonium ion.

Step 2 (SN² mechanism) : Protonated alcohol species undergoes a backside attack by second molecule of alcohol is a slow step.

Step 3 (Deprotonation) : Formation of diethyl ether by elimination of proton

Problem 11.9 : (Textbook Page No 249)

Question 1.
Ethyl isopropyl ether does not form on reaction of sodium ethoxide and isopropyl chloride.

(i) What would be the main product of this reaction?
(ii) Write another reaction suitable for the preparation of ethyl isopropyl ether.
Solution :
(i) Isopropyl chloride is a secondary chloride. On treating with sodium ethoxide it gives elimination reaction to form propene as the main product.

(ii) Ethyl isopropyl ether can be prepared as follows using ethyl chloride (1⁰ chloride) as substrate.

Do you know? (Textbook Page No 250)

Question 1.
The mechanism of the reaction of HI with methoxy ethane.
Answer:
The reaction mechanism takes place as follows :
Step 1 : Protonation of ether Initially the ether molecule (methoxy ethane) protonated by cone. HI to form oxonium ion.

Step 2 : Iodide is a good nucleophile. It attacks the least substituted carbon of the oxonium ion formed in step 1 and displaces an alcohol molecule by SN² mechanism.

For example :
• Use of excess HI converts the alcohol into alkyl iodide.
• In case of ether having one tertiary alkyl group the reaction with hot HI follows SN1 mechanism, and tertiary iodide is formed rather than tertiary alcohol.

Step 1 :

Step 2 :

Balbharti Yuvakbharati English 12th Digest Chapter 1.1 An Astrologer’s Day Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 12 English Yuvakbharati Solutions Chapter 1.1 An Astrologer’s Day

12th English Digest Chapter 1.1 An Astrologer’s Day Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Discuss with your partner and complete the table:

Answer:

Your Strengths	Why do you feel so?	Your Dream career
painting and drawing	can visualise, express	commercial artist, cartoonist
…………………….	………………………	………………………….
……………………	………………………	…………………………
…………………..	……………………….	………………………..

Question 2.
The scene in a local market of a village/ town/city is very attractive. People with different occupations sell their wares. Discuss with your partner the variety of activities at the local market.
Answer:

1. selling flowers, selling grocery
2. selling garments and cloth
3. selling imitation jewellery and accessories
4. selling snacks and fast food
5. selling steel and earthenwares

Question 3.
In a village/town/city it is quite a common sight to see an astrologer sitting by the roadside with his professional equipment. Discuss with your partner and list the requirements for his trade.
Answer:

1. parrot, cards, etc.
2. turban, beard, dhoti
3. dried leaves with writing on them
4. cloth with mystic signs to spread his cards
5. bead necklace, coins, shells, punchang, etc.

Question 4.
There are certain unreasonable beliefs among people living in our society. Certain common events are linked with superstitions. List such events, discuss the superstitions linked with them and the means of their eradication.
Answer:
Events and superstitions linked with them:

1. A cat crossing your path (something bad will happen)
2. Walking under a ladder (something unfortunate will happen)
3. Wearing black clothes for an auspicious function (will bring bad luck to the hosts)
4. Spilling salt (unlucky for the person)
5. A black crow cawing outside your window (you will be having guests)

Means of eradication: The only means of eradication is through education. Scientific attitude must be developed in society. Religious heads must counsel and guide their followers. The elders in families must also get rid of old beliefs.

A1.

(i) Given below are some descriptions. Discuss them with your partner and find out one word for each of them.

Question (a)
The scientific study of the universe and the objects in it, including stars, planets, nebulae and galaxies:
Answer:
Astronomy

Question (b)
The study of the movements of the planets, Sun, Moon, and Stars in the belief that these movements can have an influence on people’s lives:
Answer:
Astrology

Question (c)
A prediction of what will happen in the future:
Answer:
Prophecy

Question (d)
Scientific discipline that studies mental states and processes and behaviour in humans and other animals:
Answer:
Psychology

Question (ii)
In the story we are told that the Town Hall Park was a remarkable place in many ways for an astrologer to build his business. List the exceptional qualities of the place from this extract.
Answer:
The exceptional qualities of the place were:

1. A surging crowd
2. A variety of trades and occupations, like medicine sellers, sellers of stolen hardware and junk
3. magicians
4. auctioneers of cheap cloth
5. a vociferous vendor of fried groundnuts.

Question (iii)
The astrologer never opened his mouth till the other had spoken for at least ten minutes. Discuss the reasons behind his act.
Answer:
(a) He was good at reading people.
(b) He obtained a lot of information about their lives from their talk.
(c) He could analyse their character and understand their problems.
(d) He could easily frame his statements to their satisfaction.

A2.

Question (i)
The tactics used by the astrologer to earn his wages are:

Answer:

Question (ii)
An astrologer’s appearance helps to create an impression on his clients. Complete the following:
(The answer is given directly and underlined.)
Answer:

1. The turban on his head
2. The sacred ash and vermilion on his forehead
3. dark whiskers covering the face
4. a sparkle in his eye accompanied by an abnormal gleam

1. Read the following sentences and choose the correct one:

Question (a)
The astrologer says that if Nayak does not leave his village again, he would –
(1) return the money
(2) face danger
(3) go back home and stop looking for the man who tried to kill him
(4) not find the killer.
Answer:
(2) face danger

Question (b)
According to the narrator, the astrologer’s success in his profession is primarily due to –
(1) luck
(2) the bargains he drives
(3) his appearance
(4) his understanding of people.
Answer:
(4) his understanding of people

Question (c)
The story suggests that the astrologer’s comments and observations pleased people by –
(1) promising them success and good fortune
(2) proving, as time passes, to have been true
(3) flattering them or supporting their own views
(4) helping them to learn to solve their own problems.
Answer:
(3) flattering them or supporting their own views

Question (d)
Guru Nayak the astrologer because he wants to –
(1) understand the past
(2) find out who the astrologer is
(3) make some money through a bet
(4) get the answer to a specific question.
Answer:
(4) get the answer to a specific question.

Question (e)
Guru Nayak is looking for the man who tried to kill him –
(1) to take revenge
(2) to get an apology
(3) to demand an explanation
(4) to prove that the man was unsuccessful.
Answer:
(1) to take revenge

Question (f)
The astrologer’s remarks make Guru Nayak feel all of the following except –
(1) relieved
(2) suspicious
(3) impressed
(4) disappointed.
Answer:
(2) suspicious

Question (g)
Reactions of the astrologer’s wife to his news suggest that she –
(1) was unaware of his past
(2) has been worried about his safety
(3) has known him since he was young
(4) is concerned about her future with him.
Answer:
(1) was unaware of his past

Question (iv)
Read the following sentences and find out the True and False sentences. Correct the False sentences:
(a) The astrologer gave a correct prediction to the client about his past that he was stabbed, thrown into a well and left for dead
(b) When the astrologer came to know that the man whom he killed is alive he felt that he was relieved of his guilt.
(c) The astrologer tried to back out of the deal and talked about the client’s past.
(d) The astrologer rescued himself from Guru Nayak’s revenge.
(e) The moral of the story is that we must be responsible about what we have done and should not run away from our mistakes.
Answer:
(a) True.
(b) True: When the astrologer came to know that the man whom he killed is alive he felt that he was relieved of his guilt.
(c) False
Corrected sentence. The astrologer struck a bargain with the client and then talked about the client’s past.
(d) True.
(e) False: The moral of the story is that we must be responsible about what we have done and should not run away from our mistakes.
Corrected sentence: The moral is that we should never believe in superstitions.

Question (v)
The astrologer had changed his appearance and his persona when he arrived in the city. Give specific reasons for this.
Answer:
The astrologer thought that he had killed a man after a quarrel. He was afraid that he would be arrested and jailed for this crime. Hence, to avoid detection he changed his appearance and his persona when he arrived in the city.

Question (vi)
‘The darkness load that was inside the astrologer has disappeared’. Through this sentence, explain the significance of the title ‘An Astrologer’s Day’.
OR
(vii) The astrologer feels relieved that Guru is not dead as it relieves a great burden from him. Critically justify the statement and explain it.
Answer:
The astrologer thought that he had killed a man after a quarrel. Hence he had run away from his village, changed his appearance and his persona when he arrived in the city, and become an astrologer. However, he still felt guilty for what he had done. When he came to know that the man he thought he had killed was actually alive, the dark load inside him disappeared, and it made his day, i.e. he felt relieved and happy. This is the significance of the title ‘An Astrologer’s Day’.

Question (viii)
The astrologer wins/gets the sympathy/ criticism of the reader in the end. Express your opinion with the support of the main story.
Answer:
I think I sympathize with the astrologer. He did not try to intentionally kill Guru Nayak; it had happened in the heat of the moment. Of course, he should not have tried to run away but should have accepted responsibility for his crime. However, he is genuinely sorry for what had happened.

His words ‘a great load is gone from me today. I thought I had the blood of a man on my hands all these years’ indicates this. Hence, I sympathize with him and am happy that he can now live in peace.

Question (ix)
Suggest some steps to eradicate superstitions and other ill practices from our society.
Answer:
To eradicate superstitions and other ill practices from our society the first and most important step is education. Schools and colleges must help their students to develop a scientific attitude and think logically and rationally.

Secondly, as people in India tend to listen to their religious heads, all religious heads should send out clear messages to their followers about the eradication of superstitions. And lastly, the older generation should change their opinions and ideas and get rid of silly superstitious beliefs.

Question (x)
In the story, the astrologer has great listening power. Listening helps in developing good relations with people. Express your opinion.
Answer:
Yes, listening helps in developing good relations with people. When we listen, we indicate to the speaker that we care about him/her and are interested in his/her problems/joys. We show that we are ready to help him/her if necessary. We share his/ her ideas. We also realize how we can deal with people successfully by listening to their views.

(A3)

Question (i)
In the story, the astrologer, Guru Nayak and astrologer’s wife reveal their qualities through words and actions. Pick out from the box the words that describe them and write in the appropriate columns:

Answer:

Astrologer	Guru Nayak	Astrologer’s wife
shrewd	manipulative	caring
clever	gullible	suspicious
smart	quarrelsome	protective
sharp	arrogant	worried
intuitive	aggressive	humanistic
mystical	demanding	rational
cunning	antagonistic
mean	sceptical
over­	impetuous
confident

Question 1.
Match the suffixes with the words and make words:

Answer:

Word	Suffix	Noun
auction	able	auctioneer
enchantment	enchantment	enchantment
know	ment	knowledge
prepare	ure	preparation
proceed	tion	procedure
appear (this word is not in the lesson)	ment	appearance
remark	ure	remarkable

Question (iii)
‘An Astrologer’s Day’ has ironic elements where the astrologer pretends to have ‘supernatural knowledge’ that coincidently turns out to be the truth. Find out an example of irony from the extract and write it down:
Find out the examples of irony from the extract and write them down.
Answer:
His eyes sparkled with a sharp abnormal gleam which was really an outcome of a continual searching look for customers, but which his simple clients took to be a prophetic light and felt comforted.
1. He knew no more of what was going to happen to others than he knew what was going to happen to himself the next minute.
2. He was as much a stranger to the stars as were his innocent customers.
3. He said things which pleased and astonished everyone : that was more a matter of study, practice, and shrewd guesswork.

Question (iv)
Find the examples of code-mixing from the extract and write them down.
Answer:
1. ‘cowrie shells’
2. turban

Question (v)
There are some phrases where the word ‘crown’ is used with different shades of meaning. Use the following phrases to complete the sentences meaningfully. One is done for you.
Crowning achievement, to crown the effect, crown of thorns, crowning glory, to crown it all
Answer:
e.g. To crown the effect, he wound a saffron- coloured turban around his head.
(a) The works of Shakespeare are the crowning glory of English drama.
(b) Amitabh has given us awesome movies throughout five decades. But his crowning achievement is his performance in the movie ‘Black’.
(c) In her pursuit of success, Radha has distanced herself from her family. Her fame has become a real crown of thorns.
(d) They threw a wonderful party for me with costumes, games and to crown it all my favourite kind of ice cream.
(e) Medical science has great inventions, but organ transplantation is definitely a crowning achievement for human beings.

(A4)

Question (i)
Use the word given in the brackets and rewrite the sentence:
(a) The power of his eyes was considerably enhanced. (enhancement)
(b) He had a working analysis of mankind’s troubles, (worked)
(c) He knew what was going to happen to himself the next minute. (happening)
(d) If you find my answers satisfactory, will you give me five rupees? (satisfaction)
(e) He shook his head regretfully. (regret)
(f) It was a bewildering crisscross of light rays, (bewildered)
(g) “I should have been dead if some passer-by had not chanced to peep into the well,” exclaimed the other, overwhelmed by enthusiasm. (enthusiastically)
(h) You tried to kill him. (killing)
(i) I will prepare some nice stuff for her. (preparation)
(j) The other groaned on hearing it. (heard)
Answer:
(a) There was considerable enhancement in the power of his eyes.
(b) He had worked out an analysis of mankind’s troubles.
(c) He knew what could be happening to himself the next minute.
(d) If my answers give you satisfaction, will you give me five rupees?
(e) He shook his head with regret.
(f) He was bewildered by the crisscross of light rays.
(g) “I should have been dead if some passer-by had not chanced to peep into the well,” exclaimed the other enthusiastically.
(h) You tried killing him.
(i) I will make a preparation of some nice stuff for her.
(j) The other groaned when he heard it.

(A5)

Question (i)
Prepare a speech on Science and Superstitions.
Answer:
Science and Superstitions
Respected teacher and my dear friends,

I wish you all a very good morning. Today we are celebrating Science day in our school, and on this occasion I, Rohan Kamte, would like to say a few words about Science and Superstitions.

Science and Superstitions are two opposite ends of a pole. Those who have the scientific attitude and believe in science cannot possibly believe in superstitions. After all, what exactly are superstitions? They are only some tales made up by people for some reason or the other. Let me give you an example. Many years ago, in a house in a village, they were having an auspicious function. A lot of food was being cooked.

A cat and her kitten were moving about here and there in the kitchen. Afraid that the cat would be trampled upon or may fall into one of the open fires, the mistress of the house ordered the servant to put the cat and its kitten under a basket, and to do so every time there was a function in the house. This became a ‘superstition’ and in some houses, people actually brought a cat into the house and put it under a basket whenever they had a function!

This is what superstitions are all about. The superstition of bad luck if you walk under a ladder too has its reasons. The ladder could fold up and injure a person walking beneath it, or something could fall on the person’s head.

So friends, I request you: In this age of Science, do not believe in silly superstitions. Keep your minds open. Be rational and logical. Analyse things. Believe something only if it has the backing of Science. Thank you.

(ii) Read the following proverbs. Share you views and expand the ideas.

Question (a)
Actions speak louder than words.
Answer:
Actions speak louder than words

Today a lot of importance is being given to the way we speak and what we speak. But we have to remember that ultimately it is not words but actions that are important. Mahatma Gandhi, the Father of our Nation, did not give any grand speeches. However, by his actions he saw that India gained her freedom. Our soldiers do not give long lectures on patriotism they merely act to defend the country. What would have happened if they had only spoken but not acted?

This very well-known proverb is very apt when it comes to parent-child interaction. It has been seen that children observe the actions of their parents and imitate them not their words. In the animal kingdom too, the actions of the parent are of paramount importance. During elections, politicians make loud speeches but later on do not work. It is because of this behaviour that they lose the trust of the people. Thus, we must act with responsibility, always remembering that people observe our actions and are not swayed by our words.

Question (b)
The face is the index of the mind.
Answer:
[Points: facial expressions and eyes indicate one’s thoughts – this is. non-verbal communication – that is why we smile when happy and frown when sad – however, smart people can hide their feelings so that face does not show them – so one has to be careful while reading faces]

Question (c)
Speech is silver and silence is golden.
Answer:
[Points: we speak – we give others information or reveal our thoughts – others speak, we get information – sometimes we speak hastily and hurt others – create problems – remain silent and think – can find solutions – many leaders speak hastily – create international problems – better to be silent and let one’s actions speak]

Question (d)
Argument is the worst kind of communication.
Answer:
[Points: arguments – people get angry – angry words and raised voices – hurt people – confusion – relationships spoilt – instead talk softly and allow others to talk – accept that others can think in a different way – ‘a man convinced against his will is of the same opinion still’]

Question (e)
Attitudes are the real figures of speech.
Answer:
[Points: quote by Edwin H Friedman – in communication, more than the verbal message, the non-verbal message important – your attitude and behaviour have more impact than your words – for example, if you say ‘sorry’ in a harsh tone without any apology on your face – the word has no meaning – hence body language and attitude are very important)

Question (f)
The wise man has long ears and a short tongue
Answer:
[Points: better to listen than to speak – wise people listen more and speak only when they have something important to say – speech is silver and silerwe is golden – in any situation it is better to remain silent and evaluate situation – empty vessels make the most noise]

(A6)

Question (i)
Bill Naughton has written a collection of wonderful stories which you can read in his book ‘The Goal Keeper’s Revenge and Other Stories’. Read all the stories and discuss their themes with your partner.

Question (ii)
Read R.K. Narayan’s humorous collections of short stories and novels. Here are some titles you can read.
(a) ‘Under The Banyan Tree’
(b) ‘The Doctor’s Word’
(c) ‘LawleyRoad’
(d) ‘A Horse and Two Goats’
(e) ‘Gateman’s Gift’

(A7)

Question 1.
Surf the internet and find out the career opportunities in Astronomy.

Yuvakbharati English 12th Digest Chapter 1.1 An Astrologer’s Day Additional Important Questions and Answers

Read the extract and complete the activities given below:

Global Understanding:

Question 1.
List the fancy names the vendor of fried groundnuts gave his wares.
Answer:
The fancy names the vendor of fried groundnuts gave his wares are:

1. ‘Bombay Ice Cream’
2. ‘Delhi Almond’
3. ‘Raja’s Delicacy’, etc.

Question 2.
Complete the following:
(The answer is given directly and underlined.)
Answer:
If the astrologer had stayed in the village, he would have carried on the work of his forefathers-namely, tilling the land, living, marrying and growing old in his cornfield and ancestral home.

Question 3.
The Town Hall Park was a remarkable place in many ways for an astrologer to build his business. List the exceptional qualities of the place from the extract.
Answer:
The exceptional qualities of the place were:

1. lack of municipal lighting
2. flare from the groundnut heap
3. hissing gaslights, some with naked flares, and cycle lamps
4. bewildering criss-cross of light rays and moving shadows

Question 4.
Complete the following:
(The answers are given directly and underlined.)
The signal for the astrologer to leave was when the nuts vendor blew out his flare and rose to go home.
The astrologer spoke only when his client had spoken for at least ten minutes.

Question 5.
Rearrange the following sentences in the order of their occurrence in the extract:

1. “I will speak to you tomorrow.”
2. “Oh, stop that,” the other said.
3. “There is a woman ”
4. “Or will you give me eight annas?”

Answer:

1. “Oh, stop that,” the other said.
2. “Or will you give me eight annas?”
3. “I will speak to you tomorrow.”
4. “There is a woman ………..”

Complex Factual:

Question 1.
Complete the following:
(The answer is given directly and underlined.) The tactics used by the astrologer to earn his wages are:
Answer:

Question 2.
Describe how the astrologer had left the village.
Answer:
The astrologer had left the village without any previous thought or plan. He had left home without telling anyone. He did not rest till he left behind his village a couple of miles.

Question 3.
The astrologer could understand the problem in five minutes. Give reasons from the extract.
Answer:
The astrologer had a working analysis of mankind’s troubles like marriage, money and the tangle of human ties. Long practice had sharpened the way he perceived things, and thus he could understand the problem in five minutes.

Question 4.
Complete the following :
(The answer is given directly and underlined.)
Answer:

Question 5.
Complete the web:
(The answers are given directly and underlined.)
Answer:

Question 6.
Complete the following with what had happened to Guru Nayak’s enemy, according to the astrologer. According to the astrologer ………….. .
Answer:
According to the astrologer, Guru Nayak’s enemy had died. He had been crushed by a lorry.

Question 7.
Describe the load on the astrologer’s mind.
Answer:
The astrologer thought that he had killed a man after a quarrel. He felt intensely guilty about this, and had run away from his village. This feeling of guilt was the load on his mind.

Question 8.
Was the astrologer’s wife happy with his day’s earnings? What did she plan to do with it?
Answer:
Yes, the astrologer’s wife was overjoyed with his day’s earnings. She planned to buy some jaggery and coconut and make some sweets for their daughter.

Inference/Interpretation/Analysis:

Question 1.
The presence of the groundnut vendor is beneficial to the astrologer. Justify.
Answer:
The vendor of fried groundnuts gave his wares fancy names like ‘Bombay Ice Cream’, ‘Delhi Almond’, ‘Raja’s Delicacy’ and so on. People were amused and attracted by this and flocked to him to buy groundnuts. As the astrologer was seated right next to him, the groundnut vendor’s customers dallied near the astrologer and were probably tempted to consult him.

Question 2.
Pick out the lines that tell you that the astrologer did not have any real knowledge of astrology.
Answer:

1. He had not in the least intended to be an astrologer when he began life.
2. He knew no more of what was going to happen to others than he knew what was going to happen to himself the next minute.
3. He was as much a stranger to the stars as were his innocent customers.
4. It was a bewildering crisscross of light rays and moving shadows. This suited the astrologer very well.

Question 3.
The astrologer could tell the person/client about his life. Describe the method he used.
Answer:
The astrologer would listen to his client talk for about ten minutes. He would thus get all the information about his life from him, and then cleverly pose questions which made it appear that he actually knew about the person’s life.

Question 4.
‘Our friend felt piqued.’ Name the friend and give reasons for him feeling ‘piqued’.
Answer:
‘Our friend’ is the astrologer. He felt piqued because the man cut short his words rudely and told him to tell him something worthwhile. The astrologer was used to people listening eagerly and respectfully to whatever he had to say, and the behaviour of the man showed that he did not value the usual smooth talk. That is why the astrologer felt piqued.

Question 5.
Complete the following:
(The answers are given directly and underlined.)
Answer:
1. The man was left for dead because he had been pushed into a well in a field. Nobody normally looked into the well, and he would have died had there not been a passer-by who chanced to peep into the well.
2. The man looked gratified because his enemy had met his death by being crushed under a lorry. Guru Nayak felt that the man deserved such a terrible fate for what he had done to him.

Personal Response:

Question 1.
Do you like to hear predictions about your future? Give reasons.
Answer:
No, I do not like to hear predictions about my future. I do not believe that any person can foretell what is going to happen in someone’s life. Astrology is just a way of making money from gullible people. I believe that one must work hard and be a good human being if one wants to be successful in life.

Question 2.
Do you think that astrology is an art and can be studied? Discuss.
Answer:
Yes, astrology is an art. There are various methods of predicting the future, like palm-reading, reading the pulse, reading the horoscope, etc. These methods can be studied, or the knowledge can be inherited from one’s ancestors. However, the astrologer must have intuition and talent for this art.

Question 3.
Explain with examples your reactions when someone challenges you.
Answer:
If the challenge is worthwhile, I take it up. For example, my friend Rohan challenged me to a bicycle race to the top of a nearby hill. I took it up as it was interesting, and I knew I could do it.

However, when my friend Soham challenged me to jump from the first floor of our building, I refused the challenge, as I knew it was dangerous and I was likely to break some bones. Though Soham scoffed at me, and said that he had already done it, I did not let his ridicule bother me.

Language Study:

Question 1.
The power of his eyes was considerably enhanced by their position.
(Rewrite beginning ‘The position …………’)
Answer:
The position of his eyes considerably enhanced their power.

Question 2.
This colour scheme never failed.
(Rewrite as an affirmative sentence.)
Answer:
This colour scheme was always successful.

Question 3.
He had left his village without any previous thought or plan. (Rewrite using neither … nor …’)
Answer:
He had left his village with neither any previous thought nor plan.

Question 4.
One or two had hissing gaslights. (Identify the part of speech of the underlined word.)
Answer:
hissing – adjective (present participle used as an adjective)

Question 5.
He never opened his mouth till the other had spoken for at least ten minutes.
(Rewrite using ‘only’.)
Answer:
He opened his mouth only after the other had spoken for at least ten minutes.

Question 6.
He looked up and saw a man standing before him. (Rewrite as a simple sentence.)
Answer:
Looking up, he saw a man standing before him.

Question 7.
If I prove you are bluffing, you must return that anna to me with interest. (Pick out the clauses and state their type.)
Answer:
you must return that anna to me with interest-main clause
If I prove you are bluffing-adverb clause of condition

Question 8.
“Tell me something worthwhile.” (Identify the type of sentence.)
Answer:
Imperative sentence.

Question 9.
Never travel southward again, and you will live to be a hundred. (Rewrite using ‘only if)
Answer:
You will live to be a hundred only if you never travel southward again.

Question 10.
He flung the coins at her and said “Count them. One man gave all that.” (Rewrite in reported speech.)
Answer:
He flung the coins at her and instructed her to count them. He added that one man had given all of it.

Question 11.
I will prepare some nice stuff for her. (Rewrite using the past perfect tense of the verb.)
Answer:
I had prepared some nice stuff for her.

Vocabulary:

Question 1.
Match the suffixes with the words and make words:
Answer:

Word	Suffix	Noun
innocent	able	innocence
reason	ledge	reasonable

Question 2.
Pick out two words from the extract that indicate sound.
Answer:
crackled, hissing

Question 3.
Guess the meaning of ‘pies’
Answer:
pies – is the plural form of pie which is a former bronze coin of India, the 12th part of an anna.

Question 4.
Find an example of code mixing from the extract and write it down.
Answer:
pies

Question 5.
Find out the examples of irony from the extract and write them down.
Answer:
1. When he told the person before him, gazing at his palm, “In many ways you are not getting the fullest results for your efforts,” nine out of ten were disposed to agree with him.
2. “Most of your troubles are due to your nature. How can you be otherwise with Saturn where he is? You have an impetuous nature and a rough exterior.” This endeared him to their hearts immediately, for even the mildest of us loves to think that he has a forbidding exterior.

Question 6.
Guess the meaning of the words:

1. tilting
2. bluffing
3. glimpse

Answer:

1. tilting – to move into a sloping position.
2. bluffing – deceiving, lying
3. glimpse – to see someone or something for a very short time

Question 7.
Find examples of code mixing from the extract and write them down.
Answer:

1. anna
2. rupee
3. cheroot
4. jutka

Question 8.
Guess the meaning of the words:

1. passer-by
2. peep
3. overwhelmed
4. groaned

Answer:

1. passer-by – a person who happens to be going past something or someone, especially on foot.
2. peep – to peer into something cautiously
3. overwhelmed – overcome
4. groaned – made a low sound of distress.

Question 9.
Find examples of code mixing from the extract and write them down.
Answer:
1. annas
2. pyol

Question 10.
Find from the extract the antonyms of the following words:

1. light
2. noise
3. few
4. dead

Answer:

1. light × darkness
2. noise × silence
3. few × many
4. dead × alive

Non-Textual Grammar:

1. Do as directed:

Question 1.
A stone struck the man on the head.
(Rewrite using the passive voice.)
Answer:
The man was struck on the head by a stone.

Question 2.
You will not recover. Refrain from smoking.
(Rewrite using ‘unless’.)
Answer:
You will not recover unless you refrain from smoking.

Question 3.
He is certainly taller than his brother.
(Rewrite in the positive degree.)
Answer:
His brother is certainly not as tall as he is.

Spot the error in the following sentences:

Question 1.
His mouth watered when he saw a bouquet of grapes.
Answer:
His mouth watered when he saw a bunch of grapes.

Question 2.
They left their luggages at the railway station.
Answer:
They left their luggage at the railway station.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Tertiary Economic Activities Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Tertiary Economic Activities

1. Complete the Chain

Question 1.

A	B	C
(1) Matheran	(1) Tea	(1) Communication
(2) GPS	(2) the Atlantic Ocean	(2) Tertiary Activity
(3) Sri Lanka	(3) Satellite	(3) Export
(4) Panama Canal	(4) Tourism	(4) the Pacific Ocean

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Matheran	(1) Tourism	(1) Tertiary Activity
(2) GPS	(2) Satellite	(2) Communication
(3) Sri Lanka	(3) Tea	(3) Export
(4) Panama Canal	(4) Atlantic Ocean	(4) Pacific Ocean

2. Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
Tertiary activities include
(a) Use of natural resources
(b) Finished product
(c) Raw material
(d) Transportation
Answer:
(d) Transportation

Question 2.
Natural ports
(a) Kochi
(b) JNPT
(c) Delhi International Terminal
(d) Nagpur Cargo Hub (MIHAN)
Answer:
(a) Kochi

Question 3.
Trans-Australian Railway connects
(a) Perth – Sydney
(b) Perth – Vladivostok
(c) Sydney – Vancouver
(d) Vancouver – Vladivostok
Answer:
(b) Perth – Vladivostok

3. Give geographical reasons.

Question 1.
Tertiary activities include both services and exchapge.
Answer:

• Transportation, communication, trade and commerce are the main tertiary activities.
• Road, rail and airways are the important modes of transportation, which help in exchange of goods and services. Therefore, it is a service activity.
• Transportation provides facilities for the movement of goods from areas of surplus to areas of scarcity produced in primary and secondary activities.
• Credit facilities, banking facilities, marketing are also tertiary activities, they provide services to people.
• Postal services, shopkeepers, vegetable sellers, fruit sellers, etc., are also included in service activities.

Question 2.
The proportion of airways as means of transportation is increasing.
Answer:

• Air transport is an important enabler to achieve economic growth and development.
• In the global world, there is exchange of goods between countries. Therefore, there is more use of air transport to carry perishable, valuable and light goods from surplus areas to scarcity areas.
• It facilitates integration into global economy and provides vital connectivity on a national, regional and international scale.
• Nowadays tourism is the fastest growing industry; air transport is more used for international tourism.
• Therefore, the proportion of airways as means of transportation is increasing.

Question 3.
Geographical diversity is responsible for trade to occur.
Answer:

• The geographical diversity is the set of physical, human and cultural elements differentiated from each other that converge in the relatively small geographic space that is part of the same zone, region or country.
• If you take into consideration natural regions of the world, each region is different from another.
• The natural resource available in one country will be different from the ones available in different regions.
• There is variation in climate, soil, minerals, forest, relief, water supply etc.
• Depending upon the availability of geographical factors, there is specialisation of certain economic activities in certain areas and there is trade from surplus areas to scarcity areas. For example, in one region, plenty of oil is available while in another region no oil reserves are available.
• This variation in distribution of oil will be responsible for the development of trade between oil rich and oil poor countries.
• Thus, geographical diversity is responsible for trade to occur.

4. Write short notes on.

Question 1.
Importance of satellite as means of communication.
Answer:

• A communications satellite is an artificial satellite that relays and amplifies radio telecommunication signals via. transponder.
• Communications satellites are used for television, telephone, radio, internet and military applications.
• The information about physical and human factors is obtained from satellite communication.
• Satellite communication is used in remote islands, in some countries and continents where landline telecommunication is rare or not available.
• As television becomes the main market, its demand for satellite communication becomes very important.
• Satellites are also used for internet communication, military communications, etc.
• Thus, importance of satellite as means of communication is increasing.

Question 2.
Role of transportation in trade.
Answer:

• Transport support trade and industry in carrying raw material to the place of production and distribution of finished products for consumption.
• Transport means to make goods available to consumers.
• Transport makes possible movement of goods from one place to another with great ease and speed.
• Trade means exchange of goods and services. In trade there is movement of goods from surplus areas to scarcity areas. The movement of goods is possible only because of transport.
• In other words, without the help of transport development of trade is not possible.
• Thus, transport plays an important role in economic development and globalisation of trade.

Question 3.
Tourism and GDP.
Answer:

• Tourism is vital for the success of many economies around the world.
• Tourism boosts the revenue of the economy, creates thousands of jobs and develops the infrastructures of the country.
• It also creates jobs in agriculture, communication, health and educational sectors.
• The government that depends on tourism, invests a lot in the infrastructure of the country. They construct new roads and highways, develop parks, improve public places, and set up airports, etc.
• With augmenting facilities, more and more tourists are attracted in such countries, thus, there is boosting of the GDP.

5. Differentiate between.

Question 1.
Secondary Economic Activities and Tertiary Economic Activities
Answer:

Secondary Economic Activities	Tertiary Economic Activities
(i) Secondary activities are concerned with activities adding value to already existing products from primary activities.	(i) Tertiary activities are concerned with providing services rather than providing material goods.
(ii) Development of secondary activities depends upon the production of resources in primary activities.	(ii) Development of tertiary activities depends upon the development of secondary activities.
(iii) Manufacturing and construction are important secondary activities.	(iii) Trade, transport communication, banking, insurance, etc., are tertiary activities.
(iv) Secondary activities produce goods and commodities.	(iv) Tertiary activities help reach these goods and commodities to the consumers.
(v) Secondary activities may be away from the market and settlement.	(v) Tertiary activities are always near the market and settlement.

Question 2.
Quaternary Activities and Quinary Activities
Answer:

Quaternary Activities	Quinary Activities
(i) Quaternary activities refer to those activities where the task is to think, research and develop ideas.	(i) Quinary activities involve work related to administration.
(ii) Confined to research, training and education.	(ii) Confined to the highest-level decision taking and policy making.
(iii) Software developers, statisticians, hospital  staff, teachers, financial planners tax consultants, people working in theatres, etc., comes under quaternary activities.	(iii) Senior business executives, government officials, scientists, judges, etc., comes under quinary activities.

Question 3.
Waterways and Airways
Answer:

Waterways	Airways
(i) Development of water transport needs courted area with broken coastlines.	(i) Development of airways needs favourable climate, advance technology and plain land for airports.
(ii) This is the cheapest mode of transport.	(ii) This is an expensive mode of transport.
(iii) Heavy and bulky goods are transported, e.g., minerals, oil, coal, machinery, etc.	(iii) Light, perishable and expensive goods are transported, e.g., electronic goods, gold, silver, fish, dairy products, etc.
(iv) Slow mode of transportation.	(iv) Fast mode of transportation.
(v) More used for goods transport than passengers’ transport	(v) More used for passengers’ transport than for goods transport.

6. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
Explain the factors affecting trade between two countries.
Answer:
Trade refers to transfer of goods or services from one person to another or from one country to another. Factors which affect the trade are natural resources, climate, population, culture, economic cost, specialization, etc.

Natural resources : Distribution of natural resources is uneven. The natural resources available in one country differs from another. Because of this uneven distribution of resource, there is trade between resources surplus and resource deficit.

Climate : Climate mainly affects the plants and animals in a region. In the areas of different climate, there are different types of plants and animals. Example, in the tropical countries like Sri Lanka whose major export is tea or Malaysia and Indonesia, whose major export is rubber. This occurs naturally because of favourable climate for growing tea and rubber plants in these countries.

Population : Population size, distribution and density are different in different countries. This leads to difference in production and consumption and hence trade occurs.

Standard of living can also determine the demand for various goods and services. The country with less population depends more on trade because fewer human resources is engaged in production of goods.

Culture : Some countries are known for their specific art and craft, based on their culture, specific production of goods which have worldwide market, for e.g., Kashmiri shawls or Iranian carpets.

Economic Cost : Cost of production is the major factor in the process of production. It is cheaper to import certain goods than producing it in the country itself. For example, it is cheaper to import tea from India and Sri Lanka than producing it in England.

Specialisation : Due extremely favourable factors of production, some countries have specialisation for certain goods and they have name and fame in the world market, so they develop export trade. For example, watches of Switzerland or electronic goods of Japan or tender beef of Argentina.

Government Policy: Government policy about export or import affects trade. For example, Government may increase import duties of some goods, to encourage people to buy domestic goods. Thus, import trade of those goods goes down.

Question 2.
Development of transportation is dependent on geographical factors. Explain.
Answer:

• Various geographical factors affect the development of transport.
• Relief, climate and location are the three most important factors that affect the development of transportation.
• It is easier to build roadways and railways in plain areas.
• Dense forests, hilly and mountainous regions affect the construction of roads and railways, in Africa and South America.
• Coastal location with broken coast lines is favourable for development of ports and harbours.
• For the development of airways; favourable climate and plain region for construction of airports are essential.
• Foggy and smoggy weather and high peaks will be obstacles for the development of air transport.

Question 3.
Why is transportation system important in the development of any nation?
Answer:

• Transportation plays important role in rapid economic growth of a nation.
• The introduction of railways has been historically the most important and powerful single factor in the process of economic development of industrial nations of the world like USA, France, Germany, Japan, etc.
• The significance of transportation in economic activity is found in its effects on both human wants and satisfaction of wants through production and distribution of goods.
• Transportation increases the quality and variety of consumer goods, thereby stimulating the demand and development of trade and economy of the nation.
• Transport provides various employment opportunities and boosts up the economy of the country. For example, many people got employment in construction work of Metro rail track.

Question 4.
Tertiary activities are expanding day-by-day. Explain the statement.
Answer:

• Tertiary activities act as the link between primary and secondary activities.
• These activities are mostly in the form of services.
• Tertiary activities include transport and communication, trade, loading and unloading of goods, banking, insurance, marketing, export, etc.
• Providing public services like hospital, education, research and development, administration, etc., are also included in tertiary activities.
• With increasing industrialisation population growth and trade, number of people working in banking, insurance, tax consultants, software developers, teachers, etc., went on expanding day by day.

7. On an outline map of the world, show the following with the help of suitable index

(1) A canal bringing radical changes in sea transport.
(2) Railway connecting two continents.
(3) An international airport in India.
(4) An important port in India.
Answer:

8. Read the given passage and answer the following questions

Careful planning and implementation is necessary for economic development of any country. In the tourism sector the need for planned development is of great importance. It involves many industries working together in a complex way and needs special attention. Planning basically tries to allot limited resources between various competitors with a view to maximize output, income and employment and to make sure different sectors have fair growth. Tourism planning is a process through which the set goals can be achieved and the various choices linked to tourism development can be addressed. It is a long term and constant process of preparing, upgrading and improving a destination for tourist.

Communities are the basic elements of tourism. It mainly depends upon the level of acceptance shown by local communities. In the process of planning their involvement is essential. The development of tourism creates impact on mainly environment, socio-culture and economy of the host community at any destination. These impacts produce both negative as well as positive impacts. Planning is necessary to reduce the negative impact and boost the positive impact for sustainable development of a destination.

Question 1.
Why does the tourism sector need planning?
Answer:
Plan development in the tourist sector is of great importance, since it involves many industries working together in a complex and hence special attention.

Planning will help to allot limited resources between various competitors with view to maximise output, income and-employment.

Question 2.
What is the importance of communities in planning?
Answer:

• In the process of planning communities are basic elements of tourism.
• It mainly depends upon level of acceptance shown by local communities.
• In the process of planning their involvement is necessary and therefore, community planning is necessary.

Question 3.
Explain any two benefits of planning.
Answer:
Planning reduces the negative impact and boosts the positive impact for sustainable development of a destination.

Question 4.
What factors affect the economy of the host community?
Answer:
The development of tourism creates impact on mainly environment socio-culture and economy and economy of host community at any destination.

Question 5.
Why planning is a long-term task?
Answer:
Planning is a long-term task because planning is a constant process of preparing, upgrading and improving a destination for tourists.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Tertiary Economic Activities Intext Questions and Answers

Think about it.

Read the following comprehension and answer the questions that follow:

There are three friends from different back-grounds. They decided to become entrepreneurs after graduating from the same college. Rohit is a farmer’s son. He pursued his bachelor degree in the Arts faculty. He was thinking of continuing his father’s profession but at a different level. He wanted to grow export-quality agricultural products in his two acres of farmland.

Sejal is the daughter of a businessman. They produce and sell bakery products on a wholesale basis. She has passed her degree in Science. She wants to become an entrepreneur in Fast Moving Consumer Goods (FMCG) products. Asif is a son of a small hotel owner. He has passed his graduation in Event Management. He wants to start his own company of Event Management.

After graduating with good grades, they decided to help each other and begin their careers. Rohit, Sejal and Asif tried to find out information about haw to start their businesses. They tried to get maximum information regarding their businesses. They wanted to plan, organise and then establish their start¬ups. During this period, they found information regarding their businesses.

Rohit found out that he will have to do major changes in his farmland to grow export-quality products like lily, orchid flowers and fruits like kiwis, dragon fruits, etc. He will have to maintain moisture and temperature in the air. He will also need to use special fertilizers to maintain the soil’s pH value.

He also came to know that he has to take help of the Agricultural officer from the same Taluka. More importantly, he has to take out a licence to establish a business. He also got to know that he will need an account which can be used for foreign transactions. He also got information from where, he would get saplings for the export-quality products. He came to know that, these flowers are in great demand in Gulf countries and they give high returns too. As these countries are within the reach of an hour or two by air, the flowers can remain fresh and retain their quality. He also decided to visit few vendors from these countries to directly setup his business.

Sejal realised that toothpaste is a product which is required daily by the people. Since her background was from Science, she decided to derive an advanced formula which will be good for dental health. She also took help from a cousin brother from the Pharmaceutical industry.

She came to know that she needed the following things to set up the industrial unit:

• Machinery and labour force to work in the plant.
• Land for setting up the plant.
• NOC from competent authorities before taking the product to the market.
• Other licenses like NOC from fire service department.
• Industries that will give tubes to fill ready toothpaste and cartons to wrap the product.
• Appoint an advertising agency to promote the product.

She was reluctant for this start-up since it required land and a large capital investment. But she felt relieved that due to the Government’s Start-up schemes, she can get subsidised loan. Her father helped her solve her land problem. He had a small piece of land near her town which was sufficient for this purpose. He arranged for other basic amenities like water, electricity, etc. which are required for an industry. He leased out that plot to Sejal.

Asif realised that he mainly needed services and labour for his start-up, which he can arrange by hiring them from various agencies like caterers, florists, hall owners, band players, sound systems, etc. He also understood how to take permission from various competent authorities to arrange various events. He realised that it will be good if he opens up an office to start his business in the market. To advertise his start up, he got a brochure designed and printed visiting cards for marketing his services.

After planning for a year, all the friends started their entrepreneurship in their respective businesses. As their businesses have been established as per their likings; they are enjoying their work. Their businesses are now their passions.

Question 1.
What do you understand by the term competent authorities?
Answer:
A competent authority is a person or organization that has the legally delegated or invested authority, capacity or power to perform a designated function.

Question 2.
In which types of economic activities are the children in the story engaged?
Answer:
Children in the story are engaged in the following economic activities:

• Rohit – primary activity
• Sejal – tertiary activity
• Asif – tertiary activity

Question 3.
While being occupied in their type of economic activity, which other activities they interact with?
Answer:
Rohit, Sejal and Asif interacted with the following activities for the development of their activities. Agriculture officer, vendors, pharmacist, competent authorities, service department, advertising agency, caterers, florists, hall owners, band players, sound system provider, brochure designer, etc.

Question 4.
Classify all the economic activities you come across in the passage.
Answer:
All economic activities we came across are basically tertiary economic activities. However, we can divide these tertiary economic activities in two groups
(i) Quaternary economic activities : Advertising agency, caterers, florists, hall owners, band players, sound system provider and brochure designer, etc.

(ii) Quinary economic activities : Agriculture officer, pharmacists, competent authority, fire service department, etc.

Use your brain power!

Question 1.
Do tertiary activities involve only services? (Textbook Page No. 56)
Answer:
Yes, tertiary activities involve only services to businessmen and people.

Question 2.
Can there be products in tertiary activities? (Textbook Page No. 56)
Answer:
There cannot be products in tertiary activities; they only provide services for distribution of primary and secondary products to consumers.

Question 3.
Given below are the countries which are least dependent on tourism. Locate these countries on a map. Explain the geographical factors which are responsible for non¬development of tourism in these countries. (Textbook Page No. 62)

Country	Contribution of Tourism to GDP (%) (2018)
Democratic Republic of the Congo	0.66
Papua New Guinea	0.66
Uzbekistan	0.93
Moldova	0.96
Gabon	1.02

Tourism is not developed in these countries because of unfavourable physical factors such as climate, relief, location, dense forest, etc.

In Gabon, Papua New Guinea and in Democratic Republic of the Congo, there is equatorial type of climate, dense forest growth, wet land areas, so there are problems in development of transport facilities and infrastructure. Most of the areas in the country are inaccessible.

The countries of Moldova and Uzbekistan are landlocked countries, there is extreme climate, rainfall is very limited. Due to extreme climate tourists are not interested to visit these countries.

Question 4.
Are maps a means of communication? (Textbook Page No. 63)
Answer:
Yes, maps are means of communication because they provide a lot of information.

Can you tell?

Question 1.
In many economic activities included in tertiary occupations are enlisted. Classify the following economic activities in the following two categories:

1. Activities dependent on geographical factors.
2. Activities not dependent on geographical factors. (Textbook Page No. 56)

Answer:

Question 2.
Make a list of things you use in your daily life. (Textbook Page No. 57)
Answer:
(i) Divide the activities through which they have been obtained into primary, secondary and tertiary. For example, salt is obtained from primary activity.
(ii) Does your list contain any products which have been derived by using either of the activities?
Answer:

Primary Activities	Secondary Activities	Tertiary Activities
Rice	Idli	Newspaper
Wheat	Bread	TV program
Potato	Potato chips	Internet
Tomato	Tomato ketchup	Landline
Sugarcane	Jaggery	Banking services
Chili	Chili powder	Mobile services
Onion	Mixer	Hospitals
Pulses	Washing machine	Theatres
	Fans

(ii) All above products are received from primary, secondary and tertiary activities.

Question 3.
Can intelligence or physical efforts be imported or exported? (Textbook Page No. 61)
Answer:
Yes, intelligence or physical efforts can be imported or exported in the form of intelligent people or skilled people. For example, Saudi Arabia invited many engineers to construct the roads, bridges, flyovers, etc., in their country, therefore there was development of infrastructure in their country.

Question 4.
(i) What are the lists of items mentioned in timeline related to?
(ii) Which means you are aware of?
(iii) Which means do you actually use?
(iv) Which of these are now outdated?
(v) What could be reasons for them getting outdated?
(vi) Can you add more to the list? (Textbook Page No. 62)

Answer:
(i) In the list means of communication are mentioned.
(ii) We are aware of a postman, telegram, telephone, fax, radio, pager, email, mobile, satellite phones.
(iii) We use telephone, radio, mobile, email, satellite phones.
(iv) Coloured smoke, messenger, horsemen/camel man are outdated means of communication
(v) Coloured smoke, messenger, horsemen/camel man are outdated means of communication because of limited speed. They can be operated in limited area and difficult to use as against modern communication system.
(vi) The Internet banking, email, WhatsApp, NEFT, RTGS, etc., are the other means of communication.

Question 5.
Which practicals of geography for Class 11 and Class 12 have you carried out with the help of satellites? (Textbook Page No. 63)
Answer:
Topographical maps of survey of India.

Make friends with maps!

Look at the map in Fig. 6.2 and answer the following questions : (Textbook Page No. 57)

Question 1.
Which means of transportation are shown in the map?
Answer:
Waterways, airways and railways are shown in the map.

Question 2.
Between which continents do you see an overall higher flow of transportation?
Answer:
High flow of transportation is seen between North America and Europe.

Question 3.
Which canals can you see in their waterways? What can be the purpose?
Answer:
We see two canals in waterways: Suez Canal and Panama Canal.
The purpose of construction of Suez Canal is to avoid the long route along Cape of Good Hope in Africa. This canal reduced the distance of travel by thousands of kilometres between Europe and Asia.

The purpose of construction of Panama Canal is to avoid the long distance route between Eastern coastline and Western coastline of North America. This canal provided a short cut to connect two coastlines.

Question 4.
Which two major cities in India are connected internationally through airways?
Answer:
The two major cities in India connected internationally through airways are Delhi and Mumbai.

Question 5.
Which two continents show lesser use of air routes?
Answer:
Africa and South America show lesser use of air routes.

Question 6.
Which two continents show lesser use of rail routes? Why?
Answer:
The continents of Africa and South America have lesser use of rail route because in both the continents physical factors like climate and relief are not favourable for development of rail route. Due to the mountains, hills, dense forest and desert in these areas, the construction and maintenance of the railway line is difficult and expensive.

Question 7.
Which rail route connects two continents?
Answer:
The Trans-Siberian Railway connects two continents i.e., Asia and Europe.

Question 8.
Why do you see a concentration of transportation routes in the southern part of Australia as opposed to northern parts in all the continents?
Answer:
Compared to the northern part of Australia, southern part is having levelled land, equable climate, urbanisation and industrialisation. Therefore, concentration of transport routes is more in the southern part of Australia.

Question 9.
Which continents do not have continuous internal rail routes? Why?
Answer:
South America and Africa do not have continuous internal rail routes because some areas in these continents are densely forested and extensive areas are covered by deserts and mountains.

Try this

Question 1.
Consider the following conditions a, b, and c and answer the questions that follow
(a) There are two countries ‘A’ and ‘B’. ‘A’ produces 500 tonnes of wheat by employing 200 labourers. ‘B’ produces 1,000 tonnes of wheat by employing 300 labourers.
(b) Country ‘C’ produces 300 kg of tea and ‘D’ produces 500 kg of coffee. ‘C’ does not produce coffee and ‘D’ does not produce tea.
(c) Country ‘E’ has expertise in water engineering and agriculture. Country ‘F’ has expertise in metro-making. (Textbook Page No. 59)
(i) Will the trade take place between A and B in condition (a)?
Answer:
No, trade of wheat will not take place in between A and B because both are producing wheat.

Question 2.
Will trade take place between C and D in condition (b)?
Answer:
Yes, trade will take place between C and D in condition (b) because C country produces tea and D country produces coffee. Since they produce different products – tea and coffee, they will exchange their products through trade.

Question 3.
If trade occurs between A and B in condition (a), what does it tell you about the conditions of countries in term of their economy?
Answer:
Firstly, both countries are producing wheat and therefore, if their production of wheat is sufficient for their population, trade will not take place.
Secondly, per capita production of wheat in country A is less than country B. As a result, the cost of production of wheat in country A is more than B country.

Under the above conditions if country B is ready to export wheat to country A, country A will get wheat from B at the lower cost than the production cost in their country and trade in wheat will take place and both countries will be economically benefited and can improve their economy.

Question 4.
If trade occurs between C and D in (b), what does it tell you about the climate of the countries?
Answer:
Country C produces tea and country D produces coffee. So country C can export tea to country D and country D can export coffee to country C and trade will take place between C and D depending upon market for tea and coffee in respective countries.

As far as climate is concerned in both countries there must be tropical climate because cultivation of tea as well as coffee needs same type of climate conditions. Since both crops requires same climate, both can produce tea and coffee too and avoid trade or one can specialize in tea cultivation and another in coffee cultivation and develop trade.

Question 5.
Considering that trade occurs between two countries in condition (c), what does it tell you about the human resources of the countries?
Answer:
Country E has developed technology in water engineering and agriculture. While F has developed technology in construction of the metro. This shows that both countries are technologically advanced and hence their human resources are very rich.

Question 6.
Make a list of factors which affect the trade between any two countries.
Answer:
The various factors which affect the trade area are as follows:

• Difference in natural resources
• Climate
• Population
• Culture
• Economic cost
• Specialisation
• Government policy

Question 7.
The graph shows trade carried from 1980 to 2010 through sea transport. Interpret the graph in your own words. (Textbook Page No. 61)

Answer:
Between 1980 and 2010 transportation in the Atlantic Ocean declined by almost 50%, whereas sea transport in the Pacific Ocean has increased considerably. There is slight growth in the sea transport in Indian Ocean. There is no change in sea transport in Mediterranean Sea during the same period.

Question 8.
See the following two tables and answer the questions given below:
What do the tables shows?
Are the countries in the table same?
Locate them on the world map.
Can you tell, why contribution of tourism is high in these countries in terms of GDP and employment?
Write a concluding paragraph on factors affecting tourism as an occupation in a country. (Textbook Page No. 61)

TABLE 1: Direct Contribution of Travel and Tourism to GDP of some regions (%) (2018)
Maldives	38.92
British Virgin Islands	32.96
Macao	28.01
Aruba	27.64
Seychelles	25.73

TABLE 2 : People engaged in tourism in some regions (%) (2018)
Aruba	29.91
St. Lucia	27.29
The Bahamas	26.49
Macao	26.48
Seychelles	25.35

Answer:
(i) Table 1 shows direct contribution of travel and tourism to GDP of some regions in (%) 2018. Table 2 shows people engaged in tourism in some regions in (%) in 2018.

(ii) Countries shown in the table are island countries.

(iii)

(iv) These are island countries having beautiful beaches and scenery. They provide coastal water sports as well as sea adventure sports facilities to tourists. Naturally large numbers of tourists are attracted and therefore, the contribution of tourists in these countries in terms of GDP and employment is very high.

(v) Today, tourism is one of the fastest growing economic activities in the world. Beautiful natural scenery attracts a large number of tourists. Waterfalls, glaciers, beautiful beaches attract large number of tourists.

Apart from good climate and beautiful scenery, the development of tourism also depends upon the availability of certain amenities for tourists. The tourist centres must be easily accessible. Air transports have revolutionized travel. Roads and railways are other modes of transportation which make tourist places accessible.

Places of tourist interest must provide good accommodation facilities. Five star hotels, ordinary hotels, guest houses, holiday camps, etc., are essential for the overnight stay of tourists.

Question 9.
In Fig. 6.6, five hypothetical countries and some information about their conditions are given. Study them carefully and answer the following questions:

(i) Considering the natural resources available in these countries, which activities will flourish here? (Textbook Page No. 63)
(ii) Between which countries will export-import of goods occur? (Textbook Page No. 63)
(iii) Which tertiary activities will take place here? (Textbook Page No. 64)
(iv) Considering the location of E country, how will it carry out trade with other countries? (Textbook Page No. 64)
(v) Write in your own words the effect of geographical factors on human economic activities in these countries. (Textbook Page No. 64)
Answer:
(i) Agriculture, fishing, trade, lumbering activities will flourish.

(ii) The export-import trade will occur between all countries because all countries have developed different economic activities and have specialisation of different products. They can exchange the goods.

(iii) Transportation, trade, wholesaling, retailing, banking, financial institutes, etc., will develop.

(iv) ‘E’ country is an island country, therefore it can carry trade with other countries by water transport.

(v) Due to availability of natural resources all primary activities are developed in these countries.

• Due to fertile soil, and water supply by river, agriculture is developed. Rice, tea, coffee and fruit crops are grown in most of the countries.
• Due to coastal location, trade & fishing activities are developed in all countries.
• In ‘D’ and ‘E’ countries, due to forest growth lumbering can be developed.
• For transport of primary goods and to carry export-import, tertiary activities like transportation, wholesaling, retailing, banking, etc., will develop.

Find out

Question 1.
Find out, what are these places famous for (Textbook Page No. 61)
(i) Coorg, Yusmarg, Saputara, Ladghar, Milan, Marina beach, Istanbul.
(ii) What is the main economic activity carried here?
(iii) Is there any relationship between their location (geographical) and their economic activities?
Answer:
(i) All places mentioned are places of tourist interest. Coorg, Yusmarg, Saputara are hill stations, Ladghar and Marina are beaches, Milan is world famous fashion centre and Istanbul is a major city and cultural centre in Turkey.
(ii) Main economic activity is tourism at all places.
(iii) Yes, there is relationship between their location and their economic activities. For e.g., Marina and Ladghar are beaches, Coorg and Saputara are hill stations.

Give it a try

Question 1.
Draw a suitable graph for the information given in table 6.1. and write a paragraph interpreting the data. (Textbook Page No. 63)

Answer:

Interpretation of the data and graph.
The data and graph shows contribution of primary, secondary and tertiary sectors in the national income in the year 2018.

We can divide these ten countries, on the basis of persons engaged in primary activities, as less than 5% workers engaged in primary activity and more than 50% workers engaged in tertiary activities.

There are four countries – Denmark, Russia, United Kingdom and USA, where less than 5% workers are engaged in primary activities and there are six countries – Denmark, Russia, United Kingdom, USA and India, where more than 50% workers are engaged in tertiary activities.

In all ten countries, number of workers engaged in secondary activities are in the range of 20% to 30%, except Russia where 43% workers are engaged in secondary activities.

From the above discussion we can draw the conclusion that Kenya, Uganda, Tajikistan, Tanzania are developing countries and Denmark, Russia, USA, United Kingdom, New Zealand are the developed countries.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Political Science Solutions Chapter 6 India and the World Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Political Science Solutions Chapter 6 India and the World

1. (A) Complete the following statements by selecting the appropriate option.

Question 1.
Sheikh Mujibur Rahman was the first Prime Minister of
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Pakistan
(c) Iran
(d) Afghanistan
Answer:
(a) Bangladesh

Question 2.
In 1987, India sent a Peacekeeping Force (IPKF) to
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Somalia
(d) Vietnam
Answer:
(b) Sri Lanka

(B) Identify the incorrect pair in every set and correct it.

Question 1.
(a) NATO – Europe
(b) ANZUS Africa
(c) SEATO – South East Asia
(d) CENTO – West Asia
Answer:
(c) Sri Lanka – Jayewardene

2. State whether the following statements are true or false with reason.

Question 1.
Myanmar has been a traditional friend of India.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. India and Myanmar (formerly Burma) have a long historical and cultural relations. In fact, Burma a part of British India from 1824 to 1937.
2. India established diplomatic relations after Myanmar’s independence in 1948. However, Indo- Myanmar ties got strained since India supported pro-democracy movements in Myanmar against the ruling military Junta. Both countries are members of BIMSTEC and cooperate to counteract drug trafficking and insurgent groups like Arakan Army operating in the border areas.

Question 2.
In changing world order of 1990s, the issue of terrorism has been dominant.
Answer:
This statement is True.
1. Terrorism refers to the use of or the threat to use violence with the intention to destabilise the political system, cause economic harm and panic in society towards the attainment of some religious or ideological goals.

2. Post 1900s, terrorism has become a global phenomenon with forms like cross-border terrorism, international terrorism etc., causing widespread destruction e.g., 2001 attack in the USA by Al-Qaeda, attacks in Bali, Kabul, Mumbai, Madrid, etc. Each Country in the world is involved in trying to secure its territory and deal with terrorism e.g., US led ‘War on Terror’.

Question 3.
The Sagarmala project is a more comprehensive road connectivity plan.
Answer:
This statement is False.

1. India has sought to harness it’s 14,500 km of potentially navigable waterways and strategic location on key international maritime trade routes through two compatible programmes viz. Sagarmala and Bharatmala.
2. Sagarmala programme aims to promote port and river transport systems and Bharatmala programme is a comprehensive road connectivity plan.

3. Express your opinion of the following.

Question 1.
India’s role in the Indian Ocean
Answer:
The Indian Ocean is one of the most busy and critical maritime transportation links in the world. The economies of littoral countries depend heavily on ports, shipping and vast natural resources. India’s vast coastline of about 7500 km presents both opportunity and challenge to India in terms of security and foreign perspectives. India’s exclusive economic zone is 2.4 million sq. kms. 90% of our trade by volume and almost all oil imports come through the sea. India is a co-founder of the Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation in 1997 (IORA).

The main objective of IORA is to promote sustained, balanced development of the Indian Ocean region. India has initiated the Sagarmala and Bharatmala programmes to harness India’s coastline.

4. Answer the following

Question 1.
Write a note on India’s relations with Africa.
Answer:
In the first few decades after independence, India supported the fight against apartheid and provided financial and material aid to liberation struggles in Africa for eg., the AFRICA Fund created at the NAM Summit (Harare)
There are several issues in the context of India-African relations-

1. The India-Africa summit was held in 2015
2. About 24 percent of Indian crude oil imports are sourced from the African continent e.g., ONGC Videsh has invested in Sudan and Egypt
3. About two million people in Eastern and Southern Africa constitute the India diaspora which is considered as an asset by the Indian government
4. Indian industries are interested in offering technological and material services to developing African nations
5. India continues to be one of the military training destination e.g., National Defence Academy, Pune has the ‘Sudan Block’ as a symbol of cooperation between India and Sudan
6. Countries from Somalia to South Africa fall under the India maritime strategic perspective. Hence, cases of terrorism and piracy in Somalian waters have made this region sensitive to Indian concerns.

Question 2.
Briefly Discuss India-China relations.
Answer:
In 1949, the Communist revolution took place in China. India was among the first nations to recognize the People’s Republic of China. In 1954, India and China signed the Panchsheel Agreement and India also recognised Chinese suzerainty on Tibet. The main hindrances in Sino- Indian relations are-

1. 1962 Indo-China war and 2017 Dokhlam skirmish.
2. Border disputes in Aksai Chin and NEFA region.
3. China has been critical of India offering political asylum to the Dalai Lama.
4. Chinese support to Pakistan.
5. India’s apprehensions about China’s Belt and Road Initiative.

On the positive side India-China relationship has improved

1. Agreement on maintenance of peace and tranquility along the LOC.
2. China has become among the largest trading partners of India.
3. India and China are part of BRICS and SCO.
4. In the late 1990s, Russia mooted the idea of a Trilateral Summit of Russia, China, India which was a recognition of India’s status as a major regional power.

5. Answer the following question with reference to the given points.

Question 1.
Explain the factors influencing Indian foreign policy.
(a) Geography
(b) History
(c) International System Economy
(d) Policy
Answer:
Factors Influencing India’s Foreign Policy-
1. Geography – The extensive coastline of the India peninsula and the Himalayan mountain ranges have shaped India’s security and foreign policy. India shares a border with all neighbouring countries of South Asia. It also holds a dominant position in the India Ocean.

2. History – It includes the influence of traditional cultural values, cultural ties as well as values like anti-colonialism which were imbibed during the freedom struggle.

3. Economy – The strong urge to come out of the poverty and economic backwardness created by the colonial period as well as the policy of Non-Alignment shaped India’s foreign policy. India followed democratic socialism through the policy of import-substitution and importance to the public sector Post-1991, after adopting the policy of Liberalisation, Privatisation, and Globalisation many changes have occurred in the Indian foreign policy.

4. Polity – Political leadership has a significant impact on India’s foreign policy for e.g., Prime Ministers Jawaharlal Nehru, Lai Bahadur Shastri, Indira Gandhi, Atal Bihari Vajpayee, Narendra Modi have played a decisive role in determining India’s foreign policy. Ministry of External Affairs and National Security Advisor plays an important role in formulating foreign policy.

Activity

Read the speech on Indian Foreign Policy given by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru on All India Radio on 7th September 1946 and discuss it in class.

Class 12 Political Science Chapter 6 India and the World Intext Questions and Answers

Activity (Text Book Page No. 60)

The First Summit Meeting of the Nonaligned countries at Belgrade (1961) finalized the criterion for nonalignment. Find out these criteria.
Answer:
Non-Aligned Movement:
The first summit of Non-Aligned countries was held in September 1961 at Belgrade and attended by representatives of 25 countries. The purpose of the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) was to help countries keep “national sovereignty, territorial integrity and security in their struggle against imperialism, colonialism, racism and all forms of foreign aggression, occupation, domination or interference as well as against great power and bloc politics”.

The objectives of the Non-Aligned Movement are-

1. To keep the newly independent nations of Asia and Africa away from the rivalry of the two viz. USA and Soviet Union
2. To oppose colonialism, imperialism, and racial discrimination.
3. To eliminate all those factors and tendencies in the international arena that could lead to war.
4. To advocate the sovereign equality of all States.
5. To oppose the use of force and nuclear weapons in international disputes.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Primary Economic Activities Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Primary Economic Activities

1. Choose the correct option and complete the sentence.

Question 1.
The gathering of various products from the forests for livelihood is mainly carried in
(a) Temperate coniferous forests.
(b) Temperate deciduous forests.
(c) Tropical deciduous forests.
(d) Equatorial evergreen forests.
Answer:
(d) Equatorial evergreen forests.

Question 2.
Ideal location for fishing
(a) rugged coasts, shallow seas, hot climate, growth of planktons.
(b) shallow seas, confluence of warm and cold ocean currents, growth of planktons, cold climate.
(c) continental shelf, growth of planktons, good fishing skills, cold climate.
(d) continental shelf, rugged coasts, growth of planktons, cold climate.
Answer:
(b) shallow seas, confluence of warm and cold ocean currents, growth of planktons, cold climate.

Question 3.
Primary economic activities not related directly to latitudinal locations
(a) lumbering
(b) fishing
(c) mining
(d) agriculture
Answer:
(c) mining

Question 4.
Characteristics of extensive commercial agriculture
(a) monoculture, use of water, tropical, cereal production.
(b) monoculture, use of machinery, tropical cereal production.
(c) monoculture, use of manual labour, equator, Thailand, horticulture.
(d) monoculture, use of scientific know how, sub-tropical, production of pulses.
Answer:
(b) monoculture, use of machinery, tropical cereal production.

2. Complete the chain.

Question 1.

A	B	C
(1) Intensive subsistence agriculture	(1) Dogger bank	(1) Small size of farm
(2) Pampas grassland region	(2) Off shore oil and gas production	(2) Unfavourable Climate
(3) Fishing	(3) Rice	(3) Bombay high
(4) Gathering	(4) Dense forest	(4) NE Atlantic Ocean
(5) Mining	(5) Commercial animal husbandry	(5) South America

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Intensive subsistence agriculture	(1) Rice	(1) Small size of farm
(2) Pampas grassland region	(2) Commercial animal husbandry	(2) South America
(3) Fishing	(3) Dogger bank	(3) NE Atlantic Ocean
(4) Gathering	(4) Dense forest	(4) Unfavourable Climate
(5) Mining	(5) Off shore oil and gas production	(5) Bombay high

3. Write short notes on.

Question 1.
Plantation agriculture
Answer:

• Plantation agriculture is an extensive type of agriculture having large farm size on which one crop is cultivated. This is known as monoculture.
• Care has been taken to maintain the quality of the crop using scientific methods. This type of agriculture is modern as well as capital intensive agriculture.
• Since most of the work is done by human labour this type of agriculture is also referred to as labour intensive agriculture.
• The plantation crops once grown provides production for 10 to 15 years.
• Tea, coffee, rubber, cocoa, cashew nut, spices, etc., are the most important crops. For example, Rubber plantations in Kerala or tea plantations in Assam.
• Malaysia, Indonesia, Sri Lanka, India, Thailand, Vietnam, Caribbean islands are the important countries where plantation agriculture is practiced.

Question 2.
Physical factors and fishing
Answer:
Development of fishing requires specific physical factors.
Therefore, it is developed on a commercial scale where physical factors are favourable for fishing.

The following are the important physical factors, which can be responsible for the development of fishing.

• Broad continental shelf, with shallow water is favourable. For example, continental shelf along the eastern coastline of Japan is broad and water is shallow.
• Warm and cold ocean currents should meet near the coastline, so that plankton (favourite fish food) is available in plenty.
• Broken coast line which provides natural ports and harbours.
• Cold climate is favourable for natural preservation of fish.
• Since above all physical factors are present on the north-east coast of USA, north western coastline of Europe as well as in Japan, commercial fishing is well developed.

Question 3.
Lumbering on a commercial scale
Answer:
Commercial lumbering is well developed in coniferous forest region of Canada, North Western Europe and Soviet Union.

The important factors responsible for the development of commercial lumbering in the above areas are as follows.

• In coniferous forest one species of trees are found over an extensive area.
• Coniferous trees are tall and away from each other so lumbering is easy.
• Wood is soft and durable. Coniferous forests provide good raw material for paper and pulp industry and furniture making industry.
• Due to good quality of wood (softwood) it has great demand in the world market.
• Cool and pleasant climate is favourable for labour to work throughout the year.

Question 4.
Hunting and loss of ecosystem
Answer:

• Before the development of agriculture hunting was the important activity of man to obtain food.
• Many animal species were becoming extinct because of large scale hunting.
• Therefore, to protect the ecosystem, in many countries commercial hunting is banned.
• Presently, many laws are being passed to conserve and protect the animals and ecosystem.
• Yet, many tribal people such as Eskimos in Tundra region, Pygmies of Equatorial Selvas, Bushmen of Kalahari, Sentinels in Andaman etc., are still doing hunting.

4. Give geographical reasons.

Question 1.
Agriculture is done on a large scale in India.
Answer:

• More than 46 percent of the total population of India is engaged in Agricultural Activities.
• In northern India, we have extensive fertile alluvial soil in Gangetic plains most suitable for the development of agriculture.
• In south peninsular India, there is very fertile black cotton soil suitable for a variety of crops.
• Along the coastal lines fertile soil is found in the deltas of river Krishna, Godavari, Mahanadi, Tapi, Narmada, etc.
• Many rivers like Ganga, Yamuna, Godavari, Tapi, Narmada and their thousands of tributaries and canals provide water for irrigation.
• The economic and social factors, including labour, market, capital, transportation facilities, storage facilities and government policies, etc., are all favourable for the development of agriculture.

Question 2.
Mining is developed in Chhota Nagpur plateau of India.
Answer:

• The distribution of minerals is highly uneven in India.
• The geology of Chhota Nagpur region is very rich in minerals.
• There is concentration of minerals like iron-ore, manganese, mica, copper, limestone, and lead in Chhota Nagpur region.
• The government policy, capital investment in mining activities, technological development, availability of skilled labour, transport facilities, etc., are favourable for the development of mining activity in Chhota Nagpur region.
• Development of many industries related to minerals are located in this area, which gave boost to the development of mining activities.

Question 3.
Lumbering is developed on a large scale in Canada.
Answer:

• Lumbering is one of the most important economic activity in the areas covered by coniferous forest in Canada.
• In Canada coniferous forest grow in large belt, since the climate is suitable for the growth of coniferous trees.
• In these forests only one species of trees grows in one area which is favourable for the lumbering.
• The development of lumbering depends upon the type of wood, climate, market and transport facilities.
• Commercial lumbering is developed in Canada because there is coniferous forest region, which provides soft wood, which is easy to cut, carry and durable.

Cool climate of Canada, well developed transport facilities for the movement of logs, use of machinery for logging, large demand in local and international market for paper and pulp industries, limited development of other economic activities due to extreme cold climate are the other factors responsible for lumbering in Canada.

Question 4.
Extensive agriculture is a commercial type of agriculture.
Answer:

• Extensive commercial agriculture was developed in temperate grassland region in Steppes, Prairies, Downs, Pampas and Veld grasslands.
• In these grassland areas population density is low and size of farms is very large from few hundred to thousand acres.
• There is extensive use of machinery from sowing to harvesting.
• Modern and scientific methods of agriculture are used, so production is large.
• The per hectare production is low whereas per capita production is high.
• Since population in those grasslands is very low and there is surplus production,
• Therefore, large quantities of food grains are available for export, so this agriculture is known as commercial type of agriculture.

Question 5.
Lumbering is practiced more in coniferous region than in tropical region.
Answer:

• Lumbering activity depends upon nature of wood – hard or soft, density of forest, number of species in the forest, transportation facilities, use of machinery and market.
• In coniferous forest region trees provide softwood, which is easy to cut and durable.
• In coniferous forest region one type of species are found in extensive area, so lumbering is easy.
• In coniferous forest region there is use of machinery for lumbering and transport facilities are also well developed.
• There is lot of demand for softwood in local and international market, hence commercial lumbering is more developed.
• On the other hand, in tropical region, density of trees is very high, different types trees grow in close proximity, so lumbering is difficult.
• In tropical region surface movement is difficult and transport facilities are not developed because of marshy land.
• In tropical region there is no local market since trees provide hardwood and therefore commercial lumbering is not developed.

Question 6.
Hunting has been banned.
Answer:

• In the older days hunting was the most important primitive activity of man to obtain food.
• Since agriculture was not developed, it was the only source of food for man.
• As a result, large number of animals were killed to such an extent, that some of the species
  of animal have become extinct or at the verge of extinction.
• In order to conserve and protect animals, hunting is banned all over the world.

5. Differentiate between.

Question 1.
Lumbering in Equatorial forests and Temperate forests.
Answer:

Equatorial Forests	Temperate Forests
(i) It is a tropical evergreen forest.	(i) It is a temperate coniferous forest.
(ii) It is mixed forest.	(ii) One species of trees are found over an extensive area.
(iii) Wood is hard.	(iii) Wood is soft.
(iv) Hot and humid climate, suitable for labour.	(iv) Cool and pleasant climate is suitable for labour.
(v) Surface movement difficult.	(v) Surface movement not difficult.
(vi) Mechanisation not possible for cutting trees.	(vi) Mechanisation is used for cutting trees.
(vii) No demand in local market.	(vii) Local market well developed.

Question 2.
Plantation Agriculture and Extensive Commercial Agriculture
Answer:

Plantation Agriculture	Extensive Commercial Agriculture
(i) Developed in tropical region.	(i) Developed in temperate region.
(ii) Labour intensive farming.	(ii) Machinery is more used.
(iii) Only crops are grown.	(iii) Commercial animal rearing is also done along with farming.
(iv) Tea coffee, cocoa spices are important crops.	(iv) Wheat and maize are important crops.
(v) This type of agriculture is practiced in Malaysia, India, Sri Lanka, Indonesia, etc.	(v) This type of agriculture is practiced in temperate grasslands of North America, South America, Europe and Asia.
(vi) Crops for export purpose.	(vi) Crops for export purposes.

Question 3.
Mining and Fishing
Answer:

Mining	Fishing
(i) Since ancient times man is using minerals as raw material.	(i) Since ancient time man is using fish as a food.
(ii) Found naturally in crust of the earth.	(ii) Found naturally but in rivers, lakes, seas and oceans.
(iii) Used as industrial raw materials.	(iii) Used as a food.
(iv) Highly uneven distribution.	(iv) Found everywhere in waterbodies.
(v) Availability of minerals depends upon geological structure.	(v) Availability of fish depends on nature of coast line, cool climate, cold and warm ocean water currents etc.

6. Answer the following questions in detail.

Question 1.
What are the factors affecting commercial fishing?
Answer:
Following factors affect commercial fishing.

• Extensive continental shelf with shallow water. For example, Dogger bank fishing area.
• Confluence of warm and cold ocean water currents, which is favourable for the growth of plankton. For example, Gulf warm pcean current and Labrador cold current meet together near Dogger bank on North Eastern coast of North America.
• Broken coastline for the development of ports and -.
• Traditional skills of some local people who are expert in fishing.
• Large size of population to provide demand for fish.
• Limited land to grow protein rich food, so that fish becomes staple food of people.
• Use of advanced fishing boats and fishing nets.
• Cool climate for natural preservation of fish.
• Forest resources to provide wood for ship building industry.

Question 2.
Write a note on Intensive Subsistence agriculture.
Answer:

• Intensive subsistence farming is practiced in densely populated countries like China, India. Japan, Sri Lanka and east Asian countries.
• Since there is large population and limited fertile agricultural land, there is small land holding.
• Farmers work intensively to get maximum yield from available small land.
• Rice is the dominant food crop produced in this region.
• Mostly manual labour and animals are used for all agricultural activities.
• Most of the production is consumed locally and hence no surplus is available for export.
• Yield per hectare is high but yield per capita is low.

Question 3.
Give characteristics of Market Gardening.
Answer:
The following are the characteristics of market gardening.

• It is a modern type of agriculture developed mainly on the fringe of highly industrialised and densely populated urban areas.
• Vegetables, fruits, milk, eggs, meat etc., are the important products produced.
• Size of the farm is very small like garden.
• Scientific and technological knowledge as well as manual labour to some extent is used in production.
• Use of capital is very high.
• Natural organic manures and chemical fertilizers are used.
• Developed in areas lying at the distance of overnight journey by trucks, so that perishable products can be carried to nearby city market as early as possible. For example, vegetables and fruits grown at Vasai and Virar are carried to Mumbai.

Question 4.
Write a note on the areas in the world practicing commercial animal husbandry.
Answer:

• Commercial animal husbandry is practiced in 30°N to 60°N latitude, and 30°S to 55°S latitudes.
• Commercial animal husbandry is practiced in temperate grassland regions of steppes in Russia, prairies in North America, downs in Australia and velds in South Africa and Pampas plains of Argentina.
• In these areas there is cultivation of crops as well as grass for animals.
• In these areas agriculture and animal husbandry is done together.
• This type of farming needs huge capital investment and more use of modern machinery, advanced technology, market and large land.
• In North and South America, it is carried with the help of advanced technology on a commercial scale.

Question 5.
Mining is dependent on the extraction of naturally occurring minerals. Explain.
Answer:

• Mining is one of the oldest economic activity of man.
• Man cannot produce minerals that are naturally found in the crust of the earth.
• This activity solely depends on the presence of minerals.
• It also depends on geology of the region, value of minerals, quality of minerals, capital investments, technology and availability of skilled labour, etc.

Question 6.
Write in detail about the characteristics of primary economic activities.
Answer:

• Hunting, gathering, fishing, rearing animals, mining and agriculture, etc., are the important primary economic activities of man.
• These activities are solely dependent on nature.
• Primary activities mean extraction of natural resources.
• These activities mainly produce raw materials required in different types of industries.
• Natural calamities affect most of the primary activities.
• In developing countries very large proportion of working population is engaged in primary activities, since there is less use of machinery.
• In developed countries there is less proportion of working population engaged in primary activities, since there is more use of machinery.

7. On an outline map of the world, show the following with appropriate symbols and prepare-an index.

Question 1.
(a) Dogger Bank fishing area.
(b) Area of lumbering in Asia.
(c) Area of animal husbandry in Australia.
(d) An area of agriculture in Europe.
(e) Mining area in Arabian Sea.
(f) Fishing area in South-West Atlantic Ocean.
Answer:

8. Given below is the data about the continent wise employment engaged in primary economic activities in the year 2018. Draw a suitable diagram to represent the data and answer the questions that follow

Question 1.

Continent	% of population engaged in primary economic activities
Europe	7.91
Asia	24.49
North America	14.93
South America	14.94
Africa	47.28
Australia	27.79

(1) In which continents is less than 10% of the population engaged in agriculture?
(2) In which continent is more than 40% population engaged in agriculture?
(3) Looking at the given data, can you arrange these continents in ascending order on the basis of level of economic development?
Answer:

(1) In Europe less than 10% population is engaged in agriculture.
(2) In Africa more than 40% population is engaged in agriculture.
(3) Ascending order is as follows:
Africa, Asia, Australia, South America, North America, Europe

Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Primary Economic Activities Intext Questions and Answers

Try this.

Question 1.
Complete the table. (Textbook Page No. 33)

Answer:

Question 2.
Complete the chain by observing columns A to C. Write the number of the relevant characteristics and type of agriculture in column A. (Textbook Page Nos. 37-39)
Answer:

Question 3.
On the basis of the information given and pictures shown in textbook fig. classify the factors affecting agriculture into physical and human factors. (Textbook Page No. 39)
Answer:

Give it a try.

Question 1.
Complete table. (Textbook Page No. 34)

Answer:
Lumbering practiced in different parts of the world.

Make friends with maps!

Question 1.
Observe the map (Textbook Page No. 32) and answer the following questions (Textbook Page No. 33)

(i) Which economic activities are shown in the following map?
(ii) In which region do you don’t find any activity? what could be the reason?
(iii) In which latitudes do you primarily find the distribution of lumbering activity?
(iv) Why is fishing occupation only found in certain areas in the oceans?
(v) Which primary economic activities are mostly found in Europe?
(vi) What production does the symbol of mining shown in seas and oceans depict?
(vii) In which continent mining is not found?
(viii) In which ocean is the world’s fishing mostly carried out?
(ix) Which primary economic activities are found to the south of Tropic of Capricorn?
(x) Which primary activity is found in the islands of South East Asia?
(xi) Considering all four continents, in which continent do you find less agriculture being practiced?
(xii) Write a paragraph on relationship between latitudinal extent of agriculture and climate in your own words.
Answer:
(i) Agriculture, animal husbandry, fishing, mining and lumbering are the economic activities shown in the map.
(ii) In Antarctica region we do not find any activity because of permafrost and uninhabited continent.
(iii) Lumbering activity is primarily found in 50° to 70° North latitudinal region.

(iv) Fishing can develop only in those areas in the oceans where continental shelf is broad and shallow, meeting of cold and warm ocean water currents and availability plankton food for fish, cool climate etc. Since these physical factors are found only certain areas, so fishing occupation is developed in certain areas only. For example, Dogger banks in Europe or Grand Banks in north eastern part of USA etc.

(v) Agriculture, lumbering, mining and animal husbandry are the primary economic activities found in Europe.
(vi) A star (★) symbol for mining is shown for the production of mining in seas and oceans.
(vii) Mining is not found in the continent of Antarctica.
(viii)The world’s fishing is mostly carried out in the Atlantic Ocean.
(ix) Agriculture, mining, fishing, lumbering and animal husbandry are the primary economic activities found to the south of Tropic of Capricorn.
(x) Agriculture, fishing, and lumbering are the economic activities found in the islands of South East Asia.
(xi) Out of the four continents less agriculture is practiced in the continent of Australia.

(xii) Considering latitudinal extent except North Africa agricultural activities are important economic activities in latitudinal belt 8° to 50° North parallel of latitudes in the northern hemisphere and 20° to 45° latitudes in the southern hemisphere.

• Climate is the most important deciding factors in the development of agriculture.
• With the exception of a few areas, no country in this latitudinal belt experiences snowfall or frost. These weather phenomenon are harmful for the development of agriculture.
• Rainfall in this latitudinal belt is also sufficient and fairly distributed except deserts in continents of Asia and Africa.
• These are all generalised statements. However, agriculture in these latitudinal belts is affected as per the local variations in local weather conditions and physiography of the region.

Can you tell?

Question 1.

(i) Identify the images given in fig. (Textbook Page No. 34)
(ii) What are these products made from?
(iii) What do you find the raw material that are required to make these products.
(iv) What is the occupation of obtaining these products called?
Answer:
(i) Honey, brush, chewing gum, tendu leaves, rope, broom, ornament and wild fruits images are given in photograph.
(ii) These products are made from nature.
(iii) The raw material required is coconut coir, rubber, tendu trees, honeybee and wood.
(iv) The occupation is called food gathering.

Question 2.
List out the effects of deforestation on the environment, animals, birds and humans. (Textbook Page No. 35)
Answer:

• For thousands of years man has been using forests for his shelter, food and clothing and therefore, world’s forest resources are gradually diminishing.
• If, too many trees are cut, forest is not capable of re-establishing itself. This may lead to many environmental problems.

Some of the important problems are as follows.

• After deforesting in many areas, a decrease in rainfall could be noticed.
• As a result of rapid deforestation environmental problems like floods, cyclones, soil erosion, tsunami etc., are increasing.
• Due to large scale deforestation in India, 79 species of mammals, 44 species of birds, 15 species of reptiles and 3 species of amphibians are threatened.
• Nearly 1,500 plant species are considered endangered.

Find out.

Question 1.
With the help of internet, find out about Wild Life (Conservation) Act. (Textbook Page No. 33)
Answer:
Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 and Amendment in 1991.
(i) Objective of the Act is to protect the wild animals, birds and plants particularly the endangered or threatened species.
(ii) The Act prohibits the capturing, killing, poisoning or trapping of wild animals.
(iii) A national wildlife action plan has been made under it.
(iv) The Act envisages the creation and management of sanctuaries and national parks.
(v) A section has also been incorporated for creation of Biosphere Reserves.

The objectives and components of the Act are as follows:

• Control the rapid decline of wildlife. Therefore, specified endangered species are to be protected as a matter of priority.
• In general, protect all species.
• Prohibit regulate hunting (prohibit unlicensed poaching) of wild animals and birds.
• Prohibit regular trade in wild animals, their body parts and articles made by using their body parts.
• Set up protected areas like wildlife sanctuaries and national parks.
• Set up central 200 authorities to regulate zoos and encourage captive breeding of endangered species in the zoos.
• Constitute a wildlife Advisory Board in each state to advice the respective state Governments.

In 1991, the Act was amended to include plants in its definition of wildlife. Until then, for almost two decades, protection of plant life was not on agenda.

Question 2.
Find out how over exploitation of all kinds of animal resources affect human lives and environment. (Textbook Page No. 36)
Answer:

• Due to over exploitation of animal resources there is over grazing and heavy soil erosion.
• Many times, heavy soil erosion results into desertification of land.
• Many times, trees, shrubs and even their roots are used by rural people to feed the animals, it results into deforestation and desertification becomes intense.
• All disadvantages of soil erosion and desertification are faced by human beings.

Question 3.
Mining causes air, water, land and noise pollution on large scale. Look for one example each. (Textbook Page No. 37)
Answer:

• Environment impact of mining can occur at local, regional and global scales through direct and indirect mining practices.
• Impact can result in erosion, sinkholes, loss of biodiversity or the contamination soil. Example of land erosion due to mining is Tedi mines in Papua New Guinea.
• There is pollution of ground water and surface water by the chemicals emitted from mines.
• These processes also have impact on the atmosphere from the emissions of carbon, which have effect on the quality of human health and also biodiversity.

Think about it.

Question 1.
What is the difference between fishing and pisciculture? (Textbook Page No. 36)
Answer:

• The term ‘fishing’ includes all human efforts to obtain the aquatic animals in the sea, inland water and rivers.
• Breeding, rearing and transplantation of fish by artificial means is called pisciculture.
• In other words, pisciculture is fish farming. It involves raising of fish commercially in tanks or enclosures.

Question 1.
Observe the given map in fig. (Textbook Page No. 32) and answer the following questions. (Textbook Page No. 34)

(i) Which countries in the monsoon region practice lumbering on large scale.
(ii) In which part of Australia is lumbering carried on?
(iii) Why do you think lumbering is not carried out in the Northern part of Africa?
(iv) Write a note on relationship between latitudes and lumbering.
(v) Why lumbering is not developed on commercial level in Equatorial region?
Answer:
(i) India, Myanmar, Nepal, Cambodia, Vietnam and Philippines.
(ii) In south western and south eastern part of Australia lumbering is carried on.
(iii) Lumbering is not carried in Northern part of Africa because it is covered by Sahara Desert.

(iv) Lumbering is practiced in the areas where forest grows.

• Different types of forest need different rainfall and temperature conditions for growth of trees.
• The temperature and rainfall are related to latitude.
• Monsoon forests grow in areas of moderate temperature and rainfall; thus, they grow in 30°N to 40°N latitude.
• Coniferous forests grow in cool climate so they grow in 50°N to 70°N latitude

(v) Commercial lumbering is not developed in Equatorial region due to following reasons.

• In Equatorial region there dense and mixed forest growth. Land is covered with marshes.
• The trees provide hardwood which is hard to cut and heavy to carry.
• Due to hardwood it has less demand in the world market.
• Hot and humid climate of this region is not suitable for labour.
• Transport facilities are not well developed.
• Traditional methods of lumbering are used.

Question 2.
Observe the map in figure. (Textbook Page No. 32) and answer the questions given below. (Textbook Page No. 35)

(i) Along which bank of North America is Grand bank located?
(ii) Along which coast of South America is the fishing mostly practiced?
(iii) In which part of Australian continent fishing activity developed?
(iv) Fishing is carried on large scale on the western coast of Africa than on the eastern coast of Africa. Give reasons.
(v) Commercial fishing is practiced on the southern coastline of Greenland. Give reasons.
Answer:
(i) Along North-Eastern bank of North America Grand bank is located.
(ii) Along the Western coast of South America fishing is mostly practiced.
(iii) Along South Eastern part of Australian continent fishing activity is developed.

(iv) Along the western coast of Africa, the continental shelf is broad and water is shallow.

• The Guinea and Benguela warm current and Canary cold current meet together near the Western coastline of Africa, so lot of plankton is available.
• The Western coastline is broken so it is suitable for fishing.
• There is more demand for fish along the western coastline because supply of agricultural goods and meat is limited.
• On the eastern coast of Africa, the continental shelf is narrow, water near the coastline is shallow coastline is smooth, limited plankton etc so fishing is not carried on large scale.
• Therefore, fishing is not carried on large scale on the eastern coast of Africa.

(v) The southern coastline is the traditional area of fishing in Greenland.

• The continental shelf of southern coastline is broad and water near the coastline is shallow.
• The southern coastline of Greenland is broken so it is suitable for fishing.
• The West Greenland current flows along the south coastline of Greenland which brings plenty for plankton near southern coastline.
• It is traditional occupation so skilled people are available for fishing.
• The cold climate of Greenland is suitable for fishing.
• The important species of fish caught near southern coastline of Greenland are Greenland Halibut, Atlantic cod, Snow crab, Atlantic Herring etc.

Question 3.
Look at the map in fig. (Textbook Page No. 32) and answer the following questions. (Textbook Page No. 36)

(i) Do you think there is correlation between animal husbandry and grassland?
(ii) In which continent animal husbandry not practiced on large scale?
(iii) In which regions of the world do animal husbandry and agriculture coincide?
(iv) Animal husbandry is found in between which latitude of the world?
(v) In which zone between 30°North to 30°South latitudes, is animal husbandry not found on large scale? What could be the reason behind.
(vi) What could be the reason of concentration of animal husbandry in the eastern part of Australia?
(vii) Why is animal husbandry developed more in the arid regions of the interior of the continents?
Answer:
(i) Yes, there is correlation between animal husbandry and grassland because animals are grazed on grassland.
(ii) In Africa continent animal husbandry not practiced on large scale.
(iii) In North America, Europe and Asia animal husbandry and agriculture coincide.
(iv) Animal husbandry is found between 30° North to 60° North and 30° South to 55° South.

(v) In a zone between 5° North to 5° South latitudes, animal husbandry is not found on large scale. This zone has equatorial climate, so dense forest growth and inhospitable climate and lack of good quality grass are the reasons for no development of animal husbandry in above mentioned zone.

(vi) For the development of animal husbandry, climate is more important factor. In eastern part of Australia, the climate is suitable for the growth of good quality grass, therefore, animal husbandry is more developed.

(vii) The arid regions of interior of the continents receive very low rainfall.

• Only grass grows in low rainfall areas.
• Due to limited water supply, other economic activities cannot be developed.
• Therefore, only animal husbandry can be developed with the help of grass.

Question 4.
Look at the Fig. (Textbook Page No. 32) and answer the following questions (Textbook Page No. 36 and 37)

(i) In which part of North American continent is mining mainly found?
(ii) Mining activity is located along which coastal side of South America?
(iii) Comparing other primary economic activities, do you think the extent of mining is related to latitude.
(iv) Looking at the concentration of mining in the world, can you relate it with the economic development of the country?
Answer:
(i) Along North Eastern and Western coastline of USA and South Western part of Canada.
(ii) Northern, Western and Southern coastline of South America.
(iii) No, the extent of mining is not related to latitude.

(iv) Yes, we can relate mining with economic development of the country because minerals provide raw material to many industries, especially heavy industries. Therefore, countries rich in minerals have more economic development. For example, USA, Developed countries of Europe.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 7 National Income Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 7 National Income

1. Complete the following statements:

Question 1.
While estimating national income, we include the only the value of final goods and services in order to
a) make computation easier
b) avoid double counting
c) maximize national welfare of the people
d) evaluate the total economic performance of a nation
Answer:
b) avoid double counting

Question 2.
NDP is obtained by
a) deducting depreciation from GNP
b) deducting depreciation from GDP
c) including depreciation in GDP
d) including depreciation in GNP
Answer:
b) deducting depreciation from GDP

Question 3.
In India, national income is estimated using
a) output method
b) income method
c) expenditure method
d) combination of output and income method
Answer:
d) combination of output and income method

2. Complete the Correlation:

1) ……………… :C+I+G+(X-M)::GNP:C+I+G + (X-M) + (R-P).
2) Output method : ……………… :: Income method : Factor cost method
3) Theoretical difficulty : Transfer payments :: ……………… : Valuation of Inventories
Answer:

1. GDP
2. Product / Inventory method
3. Practical difficulty

3. Identify the incorrect pair:

a) National Income Committee — 1949
b) Financial year 1’ April to 31st March
c) Income method — National Income = Rent + Wages + Interest + Profit + Mixed income + Net Income from abroad
d) Expenditure method – National Income = Rent + Wages + Interest + Profit
Options:
1) a 2) b 3) c 4) d
Answer:
d) Expenditure method — National Income = Rent + Wages + Interest + Profit

4. Identify and Explain the following concepts:

Question 1.
Vrinda receives monthly pension of Rs.5,000/- from the State Government.
Answer:
Concept: Transfer payment.
Explanation : Pension is a part of money income earned by an employee during his service period with the entrepreneur.
Such income is paid by Government to an employee after his retiement so as to make employee survive during his retirement period.
Thus, transfer income is not included in National Income. It is just an government expenditure.

Question 2.
Viru kept aside 1oo kgs. out of 500 kgs. of wheat produced in his farm for his family.
Answer:
Concept: Production for self-consumption. Explanation : In above case, Viru’s total production is 500 kgs but he keep aside 100 kgs for his self consumption.
This 100 kg will not be shown by him as his income and hence it will not be included in national income accounting.
Such output kept for self consumption is called as theoretical difficulty in measurement of national income.

Question 3.
Sheetal purchased wheat flour for her bakery from the flour mill.
Answer:
Concept: Intermediate goods.
Explanation : In the above case, wheat flour is not the final product.
Wheat flour will be used by Sheetal to produce cake or pastry or biscuits which will be final product for her.
So, in above case wheat flour is considered j! (8) as intermediate goods. Intermediate goods are excluded while calculating NI by Final ( Ans. Goods approach method and included while calculating by Value Added approach method.

Question 4.
Shobha collected data regarding the money value of all final goods and services produced in the country for the financial year 2018-2019.
Answer:
Concept: National Income.
Explanation : National Income estimate ( measures the column of commodities and ) services turned out during a given period, counted without duplication.
NI is the macro concept. It is flow concept.

Question 5.
Rajendra has a total stock of 500 gel pens in his shop which includes 200 gel pens produced in the previous financial year.
Answer:
Concept: Flow Concept
Explanation : National Income accounting considers the production of goods and services in a current year. The production of previous year is ignored.
Thus, out of total inventory, of Mr Rajendra, only 300 pens will be taken into consideration while calculating NI for the current year.

5. Answer the following

Question 1.
Explain the two sector model of circular flow of national income.
OR
Explain the circular flow of National Income.
Answer:
The two sector economy consists of household J and business firm. The income is circulated between household and business firm. It is explained with the help of following diagram.

In every economy there is household sector on one hand and business firm on the other hand.

(A) Household is the basic consuming unit. It) centres around a family. Its main function j is to consume goods and services. Business firm is the basic producing unit. Its main function is to produce goods and services with the aim of maximising profits. When s the household supplies factor services (land, ^ labour, capital, enterprise to business firms, business firms supply goods and services to the household. This is known as Real Flow.

(B) In a money economy when the household supplies factor services, there is a flow of income from the business firm to the j household in form of rent, wages, interest and profit. This income comes from the firms to the household sector. The household ; sector uses this income to satisfy the wants. Therefore, there is a flow of consumption expenditure from the household to the business firms. The flow of factor payments from business sector to household sector and corresponding flow of consumption expenditure from household sector to business firms. This is known as Money Flow. Both the money flow and real flow should balance for the smooth functioning of the economy. If the money flow is greater j than real flow there would be inflation and if the money flow is less than the real flow there would be deflation.

(C) In the above diagram, the inner circle represents the Real flow and the outer circle represents the Money flow. There is circular and continuous flow of money income as production is a continuous activity due to never ending human wants. The circular J flow shows interdependence in the economy.

Question 2
Explain the importance of national income.
Answer:
National income data is very useful for various purposes. It is as follow :

• For the Economy : National income data are very important for macro economic analysis and performance of the economy.
• National Policies : National income gives the industrial policy, agricultural policy, export promotion policy etc.
• Economic Planning : The data of national income is very important tools for long term and short term economic planning e.g. planning for aggregate saving, investment, output, etc.
• Economic Research: The data of national income is very useful to the research students to study in detail how income is produced, how it is distributed, how much is spent, saved or taxed.
• Comparison of Standard of Living :
  Because of national income, it is possible to do comparison between the standard of living of the people of different countries and home country.
• Distribution of Income : The data of national income is very important to understand the disparities in the income of different sections of the society and to make the policies to reduce the disparities in income.
• Speed of Economic Growth : Because of national income, it is possible to know the trends or speed of the economic growth of our country in relation to previous years.

Question 3.
Explain the features of national income.
Answer:
(1) Flow Concept : National Income is the flow of goods and services produced in the economy during a year. The flow of goods takes place when there is production activity in the economy. It generates flow of income in the form of rent, wages, interest and profit.

(2) Avoid Double Counting: While estimating National Income we include only the value of final goods and services and not the value of intermediate goods or raw materials to avoid double counting.

(3) National Income is the net aggregate value : National Income includes net value of goods and services produced. It does not include depreciation cost. Depreciation is wear and tear of capital goods due to their continuous use in production.

(4) Transfer Income : Transfer Income in J the form of old age pension, lottery prize, scholarship, etc. are not to be included as they are received without contributing anything to the current national income.

(5) National Income is money valuation of goods: National Income is always expressed ( in money terms. Only those goods and services which are exchanged for money are included. Unpaid services like the service of housewife should not be included.

(6) National Income is calculated for one year : National Income is always expressed with reference to time period i.e. generally one financial year from 1st April to 31st March of every year.

(7) Net Income from Abroad: While estimating National Income net Income from abroad i.e. difference between exports and imports (X – M) as well as net income from foreign investment should be included (R – P).

(8) Macro Economic Concepts : National Income is a macro economic concepts as it is the aggregate income of the country. It includes the value of goods and services produced in the different sectors of the economy. National Income data present the (1) There are many theoretical difficulties picture of the performance of the economy in the measurement of National Income, during a given period of time.

(9) National Income is calculated at current and constant price: National Income when calculated at the prevailing market price it is called National Income at current price and when it is calculated at the base year price, it is called National Income at constant price

Question 4.
Explain the concept of Green GNP.
Answer:
The Green GNP is the measurement of the national income adjusted for degradation of environment.
E.g. The National Income for a current year is 8,000 units and the degradation of environment is 500 units, so Green GNP is ( 8000 – 500 = 7500 units.
The green GNP considers the environmental degradation or resource depletion.
It is defined as, “Green GNP is an indicator of sustainable use of natural environment and equitable distribution of benefits of development.”

The features of Green GNP are :

1. Sustainable economic development means economic development without creating pollution or environmental degradation.
2. The benefits of sustainable economic development should be equally distributed. In the long period of time it helps to promote economic welfare.
   Green GNP = (Net fall in stock of natural capital + Pollution load)

6. State with reasons, whether you agree or disagree with the following statements:

Question 1.
There are many theoretical difficulties in the measurement of national income.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.
National income is a very broad concept and it is difficult to precisely define what exactly should be included and not to be included.

• Transfer payment: If it included in national income then there will be overestimation of NI. E.g. pension, gifts, unemployment allowances, etc. are excluded.
• Unpaid services : The value of unpaid services are not included in national income as they are not paid for. E.g. services of housewife.
• Illegal income : The income from illegal activities are not included in NI. E.g. black marketing, smuggling.
• Production kept for self-consumption :
  It is not accounted for in the national income as such product does not enter the

Question 2.
Under output method, value added approach is used to avoid double counting.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.

• The value added approach is the difference between the value of final output and input at each stage of production.
• In this approach, the value added at each stage of production is considered.
• E.g.
  
• In the above example, value of groundnut with shell is ₹ 50, after removing shells value of groundnut is ₹ 80, after crushing groundnut value oil ₹ 120 and when oil is packed its value ₹ 150.
• So, the value added raw groundnut (₹ 50), groundnut (₹ 30), oil (₹ 40), packed oil (₹ 30), total value ₹ 150 is included in national income.

7. Answer in detall:

Question 1.
Explain the practical difficulties involved in the measurement of national income.
Answer:
National Income means money value of) goods and services produced in the country in a year.
AccordingtoNationallncome Committee:
“A national income estimate measures the volume of goods and services turned out during a period without duplication.” National income is a very broad concept and it is difficult to precisely define what exactly should be included and not to be included. So, there are many practical difficulties in the measurement of NI.

Practical Difficulties or Statistical Difficulties :

• Problem of double counting: In case of certain goods it is difficult to distinguish properly between final goods and intermediate goods. That’s why problem of double counting arises e.g. flour is final goods for housewife, but it is intermediate goods for the bakery.
• Existence of non-monetised sector : In India large non-monetised sector exists in rural area specially in agriculture. In agriculture many places goods and services are exchanged with goods that’s why it is difficult to count in national income.
• Inadequate and unreliable data : Because of illiteracy it is difficult to get adequate and reliable data from unorganised sector, small enterprises, agriculture, etc.
• Depreciation : Its difficult to measure exact value of depreciation. There are no uniform common accepted standard rates of depreciation applicable to the various capital assets.
• Capital gain or loss : Due to capital gain there is over estimation and due to capital loss there is under estimation of national income.
• Illiteracy and ignorance : Majority of small producer in developing counties are illiterate and ignorant and are not able to keep accounts of their productive activities.
• Lack of systematic, occupational classification: There is lack of systematic occupational classification, which makes the calculation of national income difficult. Especially in rural areas where many villagers work on farms for some time and also take some other job during off season.
• Untrained and incompetent staff: Due to untrained and incompetent staff, accurate and timely, information cannot be obtained.

Importance of National Income (NI) :
For the economy : National income data are particularly important for macro economic analysis and performance of the economy.

Question 2.
Explain the income method and expenditure method of measuring national income.
OR
Explain any two methods of measuring National Income.
Answer:
National Income is macro economic concept. National Income means money value of goods and services produced in the country in a year. There are three methods to measure national income.
(1) The Output Method,
(2) The Income Method,
(3) The Expenditure Method.

(A) The Income Method : This method is also known as factor cost method. According to this method national income is the sum of income received by all factors of production in a year. So national income is the income received by all the citizens of the country in a year. In income method national income studied from the distribution side. According to income method national income or GNP is
NI = R + W + I + P + MI + (X – M)

• Rent (R) : Rent and Royalty is usually treated as the payment for the land, building, machines that are rented.
• Wages (W) : It includes wages and salaries earned by labour as well as it includes commission, bonus, social security payments, fringe benefits, etc.
• Interest (I) : Interest is the payment for using the services of capital. It includes interest paid by banks, insurance companies etc.
• Profit (P) : It includes the profit of private and public sector companies.
• Mixed Income (MI) : It is the income which is earned by self-employed. They earn income through various sources like wages for effort put, rent on own property, interest on own capital, etc.
• Net Exports (X – M) : It is the difference between export and imports.

Precautions :

• Transfer payment : It should not be included in national income. E.g. pension, gifts, unemployment allowances, lottery prize, etc.
• Unpaid services : It should not be included in national income. E.g. services of housewife, teacher teaching her own child, etc.
• Second hand goods : The income from sale of second hand goods should not be included.
• Financial asset : The income from sale of shares and bonds should not be included in national income.
• Tax revenue : The revenue of government through taxes should not be included in national income.
• Undistributed profits of companies, income from government property and profits from public enterprise should be included.
• The imputed value of production kept for self-consumption and rental value of owner-occupied houses should be included in national income.

(B) Expenditure Method :
This method also known as outlay method. NI = C + I + G + (X – M) + (R – P)
National Income can also be calculated by adding up the expenditure incurred on purchase of final goods and services. We can get National Income by summing up all consumption expenditure, investment expenditure made by all individuals, firms as well as the government of a country during a year.

• Consumption Expenditure (C) : It includes all expenditure incurred on goods and services by households during the year. It includes expenditure mostly on durable and non-durable goods, which are consumed by the consumers. E.g. food, medical care, clothing, car, computer and services, etc.
• Investment Expenditure (I) : It refers to the investment made by private businessman on capital goods like machinery, plants, factories, warehouses, etc.
• Government Expenditure on goods and services (G) : Government expenditure refers to expenditure on consumption and investment –
  • Consumption expenditure : It refers to expenditure incurred on various administrative services like law and order, defence education, generation and distribution of electricity.
  • Investment expenditure : It refers to expenditure incurred by government on construction of roads, railways, dams, canals, etc.
• Net Exports (X – M): It refers to difference between exports and imports of the country. If the exports are more than imports then net exports will be positive, it is called Trade Surplus and if imports are greater than exports, the net exports will be negative, it is called as Trade Deficit.
• Net Receipts (R-P) : It is the difference between expenditure incurred by foreigners in the country (R) and expenditure incurred abroad by Nationals (P). Net Receipts can also be Positive or Negative.
  Net National Expenditure = NNE = C + I + G + (X – M) + (R – P) – Depreciation. NNPFC or NI = C + I + G + (X -M) + (R -P) “Depreciation “ Indirect Tax + Subsidies.

Precautions :
The following precautions should be taken while estimating National Income.

• To avoid double-counting take the expenditure incurred only on final goods and services.
• Government expenditure on transfer payments to be excluded like unemployment allowances, old age pension, etc.
• Expenditure on second-hand goods like furniture, house, land, and financial assets { like shares, bonds, etc. should be excluded.
• Exclude expenditure incurred on the purchase of financial assets such as shares, bonds, etc.
• Deduct indirect tax and add subsidies. Out of these methods, output method and income method are extensively used.
• The expenditure method is rarely used because of its practical difficulties.
• In India, the Central Statistical Organisation (CSO) adopts a combination of output method and income method to estimate N.I. of India.