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Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 2 India: Events After 1960 Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 2 India: Events After 1960

Class 9 History Chapter 2 India: Events After 1960 Textbook Questions and Answers

1. A. Choose the correct option from the given option and rewrite the statements:
Question 1.
The Prime Minister of India who took an initiative in resolving the question of the Tamil minority in Sri Lanka was
(a) Rajiv Gandhi
(b) Indira Gandhi
(c) H. D. Deve Gowda
(d) P. V. Narasimha Rao
Answer:
(a) Rajiv Gandhi

Question 2.
is the father of the Green Revolution in India.
(a) Dr. Verghese Kurien
(b) Homi Bhabha
(c) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan
(d) Dr. Norman Borlaug
Answer:
(c) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan

B. Identify and write the wrong pair in the following sets:

Question 1.
(1) Indira Gandhi – Emergency
(2) Rajiv Gandhi – Developments of Science and Technology
(3) P. V. Narasimha Rao – Economic improvements
(4) Chandrashekhar – Mandal Commission
Answer:
Chandrashekhar – Mandal Commission

Question 2A.
Based on the information in the chapter, prepare a chronological chart of Prime Ministers and their tenure.
Answer:

1. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru -1947 to 1964
2. Lai Bahadur Shastri -1964 to 1966
3. Indira Gandhi -1966 to 1977
4. Morarji Desai -1977 to 1979
5. Charan Singh -1979 to 1980
6. Indira Gandhi -1980 to 1984
7. Rajiv Gandhi -1984 to 1989
8. Vishwanath Pratap Singh – 1989 to 1990
9. Chandra Shekhar -1990 to 1991
10. P. V. Narasimha Rao -1991 to 1996
11. Atal Bihari Vajpayee -1996
12. H.D. Deve Gowda -1996 to 1997
13. Inder Kumar Gujral -1997 to 1998
14. Atal Bihari Vajpayee – 1998 to 2004

2B. Write Short Notes on:

Question 1.
Globalisation
Answer:
(i) Globalisation brought about many changes in different fields like economy, politics, science and technology, society and culture.
(ii) India has emerged as an important country on the global scene in different spheres.
(iii) India is an important member of international organisations like G-20 and ‘BRICS’ (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa).
(iv) India has experienced an important revolution in the field of telecommunication technology.
(v) Mobile phones, internet and the communication facilities based on satellite have spread all across the country.
(vi) It has resulted in a total transformation in the lifestyle of Indians and especially the youth.
(vii) These changes are visible from their dietary habits, clothing, language and beliefs.

Question 2.
White Revolution
Answer:
(i) White Revolution is a major event of India’s efforts towards self-reliance.
(ii) The experiment in co-operative dairy movement by Dr. Verghese Kurien led to the increase of milk production in India.
(iii) This is called as ‘White Revolution’.

3A. Give reasons:

Question 1.
The Morarji Desai government lasted for a short while.
Answer:
(i) On the backdrop of the emergency, many opposition parties came together and formed a party called the Janata Party.
(ii) The Congress party led by Indira Gandhi was roundly defeated by this newly formed ‘Janata Party’.
(iii) Morarji Desai became the Prime Minister, but under his leadership the Janata Party government couldn’t last long due to its internal differences.
(iv) Hence, the Morarji Desai government lasted for a short while.

Question 2.
The army had to be sent into the Golden Temple in Amritsar.
Answer:
(i) The Sikhs in Punjab demanded an independent state of Khalistan and began a movement which went on to become violent and destructive.
(ii) Pakistan had lent its support to this movement.
(iii) Some terrorists had allegedly taken shelter inside the Golden Temple at Amritsar, a holy shrine of the Sikhs in 1984.
(iv) Hence, the Indian army was sent into the Golden Temple in Amritsar to evict the terrorists who had taken shelter there.

Question 3.
The National Planning Commission was set up in India.
Answer:
(i) India wanted to acquire modernity and self-reliance by establishing industries.
(ii) India wanted to establish an economy based on social justice through planning.
(iii) For this, the National Planning Commission was established. This would coordinate development through the policy of Five Year Plans.

B. Answer the following questions in 25 to 30 words.

Question 1.
How was 1991 a year of important changes in the history of the world and of India?
Answer:
(i) The year 1991 is held to be very important in the history of the world as well as India.
(ii) The Soviet Union disintegrated into several different small countries and the Cold War came to an end.
(iii) During this period, the Ram Janmabhumi and Babri Mosque issue at Ayodhya came to the forefront.
(iv) In India, the Government under the leadership of Prime Minister P. V. Narasimha Rao initiated many changes in the Indian economy.
(v) These economic reforms are called as economic liberalisation. The Indian economy flourished as a result of the implementation of this policy.
(vi) Skilled Indian professionals helped reform the Indian economy. The field of information technology opened several avenues of employment in the country.
(vii) The changes after 1991 are also described as ‘globalisation’.

Question 2.
What are the characteristics of the Indian economy?
Answer:
(i) Right from independence, the modernisation of economy, economic self-sufficiency and social justice have been the characteristics of Indian economy.
(ii) India wanted to acquire modernity and self-reliance by establishing industries.
(iii) It wanted to establish an economy based on social justice through planning.
(iv) For this, the National Planning Commission was established that would coordinate development through the policy of Five Year Plans.

4. With the help of the information in the chapter, complete the list of the challenges before India and the strengths of India.
Question 1.

The Challenges In Front of India	Strengths
For Example: India-Pakistan war	Unity in diversity
…………………………..	……………………..
…………………………….	Nuclear preparedness
Separatism	……………………………..

Answer:

The Challenges In Front of India	Strengths
India-Pakistan war	Unity in diversity
Cross – Border Terrorism	Membership in G20 and BRICS
Corruption	Nuclear preparedness
Separatism	Establishment of National Planning Commission

Class 9 History Chapter 2 India: Events After 1960 Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given option and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
The war between India and China took place in the year ________.
(a) 1952
(b) 1962
(c) 1972
(d) 1982
Answer:
(b) 1962

Question 2.
The Indo – China war was fought in the region of the _______ line.
(a)
MacMahon
(b) Kashmir
(c) St Lawrence
(d) Me Kinley
Answer:
MacMahon

Question 3.
Jawaharlal Nehru passed away in _________.
(a) 1944
(b) 1974
(c) 1984
(d) 1964
Answer:
(d) 1964

Question 4.
After Jawaharlal Nehru _______ became Prime Minister of India.
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Rajiv Gandhi
(c) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(d) Morarji Desai
Answer:
(c) Lal Bahadur Shastri

Question 5.
India and Pakistan went to war over the ________ issue in 1965.
(a) Kashmir
(b) Goa
(c) Hyderabad
(d) Kerala
Answer:
(a) Kashmir

Question 6.
The ______ mediated between the conflicting countries of India and Pakistan.
(a) Soviet Union
(b) USA
(c) Japan
(d) China
Answer:
(a) Soviet Union
(a) Soviet Union

Question 7.
_____ gave the slogan ‘Jai Jawan Jai Kisan’.
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Lai Bahadur Shastri
(c) Morarji Desai
(d) Rajiv Gandhi
Answer:
(b) Lai Bahadur Shastri

Question 8.
Lai Bahadur Shastri breathed his last at ______in 1966.
(a) Gorakhpur
(b) Kuala Lumpur
(c) Tashkent
(d) Varanasi
Answer:
(c) Tashkent

Question 9.
A Freedom Movement was led by Sheikh Mujibur Rahman and his organisation, ______.
(a) Mukti Bahini
(b) Bangla Bahini
(c) Aamar Sonar Bangla
(d) East Bengal Front
Answer:
(a) Mukti Bahini

Question 10.
The 1971 war between India and Pakistan led to the creation of an independent country called _______.
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Sikkim
(d) Telangana
Answer:
(a) Bangladesh

Question 11.
India successfully carried out an underground test of an atomic device at ______ in Rajasthan.
(a) Dispur
(b) Mannapattam
(c) Sriharikota
(d) Pokhran
Answer:
(d) Pokhran

Question 12.
The ______ High Court gave the verdict in 1974 that Indira Gandhi the then Prime Minister had misused the government machinery during her election campaign.
(a) Allahabad
(b) Bombay
(c) Delhi
(d) Panaji
Answer:
(a) Allahabad

Question 13.
The situation set against Indira Gandhi became more complicated due to the movement led by _________.
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji
(b) Jayprakash Narayan
(c) G. D. Agarkar
(d) Ramanand Tirth
Answer:
(b) Jayprakash Narayan

Question 14.
The period of National Emergency lasted from _______ and after that general elections were conducted.
(a) 1922-24
(b) 1984-87
(c) 1975 – 77
(d) 1987-99
Answer:
(c) 1975 – 77

Question 15.
On the backdrop of the emergency, many opposition parties came together and formed a party called the _______.
(a) Republican Party
(b) Congress Party
(c) Janata Party
(d) Samaj Party
Answer:
(c) Janata Party

Question 16.
________ became Prime Minister on behalf of the Janata Party.
(a) Morarji Desai
(b) Indira Gandhi
(c) Rajiv Gandhi
(d) Lai Bahadur Shastri
Answer:
(a) Morarji Desai

Question 17.
The Sikhs in Punjab demanded an independent state of ______.
(a) Khalistan
(b) Pakistan
(c) Kazakhstan
(d) Baluchistan
Answer:
(a) Khalistan

Question 18.
______ had lent its support to the Khalistan movement.
(a) China
(b) Pakistan
(c) England
(d) Baluchistan
Answer:
(b) Pakistan

Question 19.
An organisation called ________ carried on a major movement in north-east India.
(a) United Liberation Front of Assam
(b) United Communist Group
(c) United India Front
(d) United Assam Federation
Answer:
(a) United Liberation Front of Assam

Question 20.
______ laid the foundation of Indian atomic power programme.
(a) Satish Dhawan
(b) Homi Bhabha
(c) A.P.J. Kalam
(d) Vikram Sarabhai
Answer:
(b) Homi Bhabha

Question 21.
______, a terrorist organisation assassinated Rajiv Gandhi.
(a) LTTE
(b) ASEAN
(c) LTEN
(d) LTTA
Answer:
(a) LTTE

Question 22.
India wanted to acquire modernity and self-reliance by establishing _______.
(a) Nuclear reactor
(b) Industries
(c) Electricity grids
(d) Telephonic infrastructure
Answer:
(b) Industries

Question 23.
The _______ government started economic reforms from 1991.
(a) Moraq’i Desai
(b) Indira Gandhi
(c) Narasimha Rao
(d) Lai Bahadur Shastri
Answer:
(c) Narasimha Rao

Question 24.
In 1999, ________ came to power under the flag of Bharatiya Janata Party.
(a) United Progressive Alliance
(b) League of Indian Politics
(c) India’s Administrative Assemblage
(d) National Democratic Alliance
Answer:
(d) National Democratic Alliance

Question 25.
________ is known as the father of the White Revolution.
(a) Dr. Verghese Kurien
(b) Dr. Dayaram Sahni
(c) Dr. Homi Bhabha
(d) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan
Answer:
(a) Dr. Verghese Kurien

Question 26.
In 1975, the first satellite, ________ was launched by India.
(a) Sputnik 1
(b) Apollo 1
(c) Aryabhatta
(d) Agni
Answer:
(c) Aryabhatta

Question 27.
The _________ Commission was set up in 1953 to make recommendations, so as to improve condition of the lower castes.
(a) Ganesh Agarkar
(b) Appasaheb Mayekar
(c) Tarabai Shinde
(d) Kakasaheb Kalelkar
Answer:
(d) Kakasaheb Kalelkar

Write Short Notes on:

Question 1.
Atomic Energy and Space Research.
Answer:
(i) Dr. Homi Bhabha laid the foundation of the Indian atomic power programme.
(ii) India insisted on using atomic energy for peaceful purposes like generation of electricity, pharmaceuticals and defence.
(iii) India has achieved considerable success in space technology as well. In 1975, the first satellite ‘Aryabhatta’ was launched.
(iv) Today, India has a successful space programme and many satellites have been launched under this programme. India has also made considerable advancement in the telecom sector.

Explain the statements with reason:

Question 1.
Globalisation brought about many changes in different fields.
Answer:
(i) India has emerged as an important country on the global scene in different spheres.
(ii) India is an important member of international organisations like G-20 and ‘BRICS’ (Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa).
(iii) India has experienced an important revolution in the field of telecommunication technology.
(iv) Mobile phones, internet and the communication facilities based on satellite have spread all across the country.
(v) In the political field, India has demonstrated to the world how a stable democracy can function successfully.
(vi) All this has resulted in a total transformation in the lifestyle of Indians, especially the youth. These changes are visible from their dietary habits, clothing, language and beliefs.

Question 2.
There were several major changes in the social field in India for upliftment of women.
Answer:
(i) To promote the all-round development of women and children many constructive steps were taken.
(ii) A separate ‘Department of Women and. Child Development’ was created in 1985 under the Ministry of Human Resource Development.
(iii) Some laws were made to ensure social justice to women and to help the implementation of various schemes in this direction.
(iv) They include the Prohibition of Dowry Act, Equal Remuneration Act. As per the 73rd and 74th Constitution Amendments, seats are reserved for women in the local self¬government bodies.

Read the passage and answer the questions.

As a part of India’s policy to use atomic energy for peaceful purposes, India successfully carried out an underground test of an atomic device at Pokharan in Rajasthan in 1974. In 1975, the people of Sikkim voted for joining the Indian republic and Sikkim became a full-fledged State in the Indian federation. During this decade, the political situation in India grew unstable. The Allahabad High Court gave the verdict in 1974 that Indira Gandhi; the then Prime Minister had misused the government machinery during her election campaign. It led to nationwide strikes and protest. During this period, the situation became more complicated due to the movement led by Jayprakash Narayan. The situation of law and order in the country worsened and the government declared a state of National Emergency on the basis of the constitutional provisions relating to Emergency. During this turbulent period, the fundamental rights of Indian citizens were suspended. Due to the emergency, the Indian administration became disciplined, but the human rights were restricted. The period of national emergency lasted from 1975 to 1977 and after that general elections were conducted. On the backdrop of the emergency, many opposition parties came together and formed a party called the Janata Party. The Congress party led by Indira Gandhi was roundly defeated by this newly formed ‘Janata Party’. Morarji Desai became the Prime Minister, but under his leadership the Janata Party government couldn’t last long due to internal differences. Charan Singh succeeded him, but even his government was a short-lived one. Elections were conducted once again in 1980 and the Congress party under the leadership of Indira Gandhi came to power again.

Question 1.
Enlist incidents that culminated in Indira Gandhi’s rise to power post the verdict of Allahabad High Court.
Answer:
Following incidents paved the way of Indira Gandhi back to power:

• Allahabad High Court verdict against Indira Gandhi
• Nation – wide strikes and protest led by Jai Prakash Narayan
• Imposition of National Emergency (1975-77) fundamental rights suspended
• Opposition parties came together to form Janata Party.
• Short lived governments of Morarji Desai and Charan Singh.
• Elections conducted in 1980 – Congress back to power.

Question 2.
Which state became a constituent state of India in 1975?
Answer:
Sikkim voted to join the Indian Republic and it became a full – fledged state of Indian Republic in 1975.

Question 3.
Why do you think India conducted a nuclear test in Pokhran in 1974?
Answer:
India conducted Nuclear tests for two reasons:
(i) to keep Pakistan’s aggression under check post 1971 war.
(ii) To initiate peaceful and constructive use of atomic energy.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
What were the contributions of Lai Bahadur Shastri?
Answer:
(i) Lai Bahadur Shastri succeeded Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru and became the next Prime Minister of India.
(ii) During his tenure, India and Pakistan went to war over the Kashmir issue in 1965.
(iii) The Soviet Union tried to mediate between the two countries.
(iv) Lai Bahadur Shastri gave the slogan ‘Jai Jawan Jai Kisan’ with which he highlighted the importance of Indian soldiers and Indian farmers.
(v) Lai Bahadur Shastri breathed his last at Tashkent in 1966.

Question 2.
Write a note on Rajiv Gandhi.
Answer:
(i) Right after Indira Gandhi’s assassination in 1984, Rajiv Gandhi became the Prime Minister of India.
(ii) He tried to make several reforms in the field of Indian economy and that of science and technology.
(iii) He took the lead in solving the issues of the Tamil minority in Sri Lanka. He promoted the idea of a united Sri Lanka with internal autonomy to the Tamil community, but his efforts in this regard proved to be in vain.
(iv) He faced a lot of criticism in the context of corruption that took place during a defence equipment deal, especially the purchase of long-range canons from a foreign company called Bofors.
(v) Political corruption became a crucial issue in the general elections that followed and the Congress party was defeated.
(vi) In 1991, during the election campaign, the terrorist organisation in Sri Lanka, Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam (LTTE), assassinated Rajiv Gandhi.

Question 3.
Write a note on Atal Bihari Vajpayee.
Answer:
(i) In 1999 the ‘National Democratic Alliance’ came to power under the flag of Bharatiya Janata Party and Atal Bihari Vajpayee became India’s Prime Minister (1998-2004).
(ii) Atal Bihari Vajpayee tried to establish a dialogue with Pakistan but was not successful.
(iii) India conducted a number of nuclear tests in 1998 and declared herself as an atomic power.
(iv) In 1999, there was another war between India and Pakistan in Kargil region over the Kashmir issue
(v) India defeated Pakistan in this war as well.

Question 4.
What is economic liberalisation? What are its benefits?
Answer:
(i) The Narasimha Rao Government started economic reforms from 1991. These economic reforms are known as economic liberalisation.
(ii) The Indian economy flourished as a result of the implementation of this policy.
(iii) The foreign investment in India increased. Skilled Indian professionals helped reform the Indian economy.
(iv) The field of information technology opened several avenues of employment in the country.
(v) The changes after 1991 are also described as ‘globalisation’.

Question 5.
What do you mean by
(i) Green Revolution and
(ii) White revolution?
Answer:
(i) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan is known as the father of the Green Revolution in 1965. He implemented new scientific agricultural techniques and increased the production of foodgrains.
(ii) The experiment in co-operative dairy movement by Dr. Verghese Kurien led to increase of milk production in India. This is called as ‘White Revolution’.

Question 6.
What is the progress of India in the fields of atomic energy and space research?
Answer:
(i) India had also made a lot of progress in the fields of atomic energy and space research.
(ii) Dr. Homi Bhabha laid the foundation of the Indian atomic power programme.
(iii) India insisted on using atomic energy for peaceful purposes like generation of electricity, pharmaceuticals and defence.
(iv) India has achieved considerable success in space technology as well. In 1975, the first satellite ‘Aryabhatta’ was launched.
(v) Today, India has a successful space programme and many satellites have been launched under this programme.
(vi) India has also made considerable advancement in the telecom sector.

Question 7.
Describe the changes in India due to globalisation.
Answer:
(i) Globalisation brought about many changes in different fields like economy, politics, science and technology and society and culture.
(ii) India has emerged as an important country on the global scene in different spheres. India is an important member of international organisations like G-20 and ‘BRICS’ (Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa).
(iii) India has experienced an important revolution in the field of telecommunication technology. Mobile phones, internet and the communication facilities based on satellite have spread all across the country.
(iv) In the political field, India has demonstrated to the world how a stable democracy can function successfully.
(v) All this has resulted in a total transformation in the lifestyle of Indians and especially the
youth. These changes are visible from their dietary habits, clothing, language and beliefs.

Question 8.
How was an independent country of Bangladesh created?
Answer:
(i) Indira Gandhi became the Prime Minister of India in 1966.
(ii) During her tenure, Pakistan’s oppressive I policies in East Pakistan resulted in a big movement there. This movement was led by Sheikh Mujibur Rahman and his organisation, ‘Mukti Bahini.’
(iii) This crisis in East Pakistan affected India as well, because millions of refugees came to India.
(iv) The 1971 war between India and Pakistan led to the creation of an independent country called Bangladesh.

Question 9.
What policies were made to uplift the deprived sections of the society?
Answer:
(i) The ‘Kakasaheb Kalelkar Commission’ was set up in 1953 to make recommendations so as to improve their condition.
(ii) In 1978, a Commission was constituted under the chairmanship of B. P. Mandal to study the issue of the backward classes.
(iii) The policy of reservation was adopted in order to strengthen the representation of backward sections in various services and institutions.
(iv) The Government passed the Prevention of Atrocities Act in 1989 to enable those belonging to the Scheduled Castes and Tribes to live with dignity and respect, free from fear, violence and oppression of the upper classes.

Question 10.
Identify the picture and give relevant information.

Indira Gandhi became the Prime Minister of India in the year 1966.
Indira Gandhi’s strong leadership was prominent in the war between India and Pakistan in 1971.
The first atomic test at Pokharan was carried out under her leadership.
The Allahabad High Court gave the verdict in 1974, that Indira Gandhi had misused the government machinery during her election campaign.
She declared a’state of National Emergency in 1975.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Civics Solutions Chapter 2 The Indian Parliament Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Civics Solutions Chapter 2 The Indian Parliament

Class 8 Civics Chapter 2 The Indian Parliament System Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct option.

Question 1.
Candidates to the Lok Sabha are elected through ……….. .
(a) Territorial constituencies
(b) Religious constituencies
(c) Local bodies
(d) Proportional Representation System
Answer:
(a) Territorial constituencies

Question 2.
The ………….. of India is the ex-officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
(a) President
(b) Vice-President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Chief Justice
Answer:
(b) Vice-President

2. Find and write. 

Question 1.
Members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha are known as ……………….. .
Answer:
Members of Parliament (MPs)

Question 2.
The responsibility of making laws is with the ……………… .
Answer:
Parliament

3. Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
Rajya Sabha is a permanent House.
Answer:

1. The tenure of the members of Rajya Sabha does not get over at the same time.
2. 1/3rd of the total membership of Rajya Sabha retire after every two years and equal number of new members get elected.
3. Because the limited members of Rajys Sabha retire step by step, it can function continuously.
   Since Rajya Sabha is never dissolved completely it is called a permanent House.

Question 2.
Lok Sabha is known as the first House.
Answer:

1. Lok Sabha is the lower and the first House of the Parliament of India.
2. Lok Sabha is the House of Representatives directly elected by the people. Hence, Lok Sabha is known as the first House.

4. Answer the following in 25 to 30 words:

Question 1.
How are members of the Lok Sabha elected?
Answer:

1. As per the Constitution, there can be a maximum of 552 members in Lok Sabha.
2. General elections to Lok Sabha are held after every five years and members are directly elected by the people.
3. To ensure equal representation to all sections of the community, some seats are reserved for members belonging to Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
4. In case there are no representation from the Anglo-Indian community, the President can appoint two members from this community to the Lok Sabha.
5. Thus, Lok Sabha is the representative body of the citizens of India.

Question 2.
Explain the functions of the Speaker of Lok Sabha.
Answer:
The functions of the Speaker of Lok Sabha are :

1. To conduct the business of the House in an unbiased manner.
2. To take care of the rights and privileges of the members of Lok Sabha.
3. To interpret the rules of daily functioning of the House and work accordingly.
4. To maintain the decorum and dignity of the House.

5. Explain the step involved in the lawmaking process.

Question 1.
Parliament :
Answer:

1. The Legislature at the national level is called the Parliament.
2. It consists of the President and two houses, i.e., the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
3. Though the President is an inseparable part of the Parliament, he/she cannot participate in the discussions in either of the Houses of the Parliament.
4. The Constitution of India has created the Parliament.

Question 2.
Amendment to the Constitution :
Answer:

1. According to the changing times, certain necessary changes have to be made in some laws. The process of making such changes is called Amendment.
2. Only the Parliament has the right to make such amendments to the Constitution.
3. The Constitution amendment bill is considered to be an important bill.
4. The Parliament discusses why the amendment is required and decides whether to accept it or not.

Question 3.
Members of Parliament :
Answer:

1. The members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha are known as Members of Parliament (MPs).
2. The members of Lok Sabha are directly elected by the people.
3. The members of Rajya Sabha are elected from the constituent States and Union Territories.
4. MPs try to resolve the queries and complaints of their constituencies by raising questions in the Parliament.
5. MPs also participate in the process of formulation of laws.
6. The Government allocates funds to MPs to carry out development activities in their constituencies.

Question 4.
Bill of Law:
Answer:

1. At the initial stage of lawmaking process, a rough draft of the law is prepared.
2. This rough draft or outline is known as ‘draft proposal of the law’ or ‘bill of law’.
3. The Bill clearly mentions the objectives and the details of the proposed law.
4. Every bill has to undergo three readings in both the Houses, and then it is put to vote.

Can you find out?

For the purpose of elections, the State is divided into territorial constituencies. The constituent States in India get seats on the basis of their population. For e.g.

• Maharashtra – 48 seats
• Gujarat – 26 seats
• Madhya Pradesh – 29 seats
• Goa – 02 seats
• Uttar Pradesh – 80 seats

Understand It:
(The gist of the conversation held between Mazy, Radhika, Ran veer and others.)

1. Any Indian citizen who has completed 18 years of age is only eligible to vote.
2. An Indian citizens who has completed 25 years of age can contest for Lok Sabha election.
3. A citizen of India can contest for election from any constituency of any State.
4. Citizens of other countries cannot contest for elections of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
5. Just as there are set criteria for qualifying for election, there are set criteria for disqualification as well.

Rights regarding passing of Bills:

1. Though Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha have same set of rights, Lok Sabha has certain rights which are not available for Rajya Sabha.
2. Bills related to finance (Money Bills) and such other bills are first introduced and passed in Lok Sabha.
3. Rajya Sabha has limited powers with respect to money bills.
4. Rajya Sabha can pass a resolution on the subject in the State List.

Can you tell?

Certain laws which become out-of-date (obsolete) are abolished. Can you give examples of such obsolete laws? For example, Privy purses.

Know this too:

1. Every year, on 1 February the Union Finance Minister presents the national budget to the Lok Sabha. Previously, it was presented on 28 February.
2. The State Legislatures also follow the same procedure of law making as in the Parliament.
3. The bill passed can become a law only after it is signed by the President at the Union level and by the Governor at the State level.

Project:

The President nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha. Collect information on what are the criteria for their selection.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 2 The Indian Parliament Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct option:

Question 1.
…………….. is the upper House of the Parliament.
(a) Legislative Assembly
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Rajya Sabha
(d) Legislative Council
Answer:
(c) Rajya Sabha

Question 2.
The …………… of India has created the Parliament of India.
(a) Legislature
(b) Executive
(c) Constitution
(d) British Law
Answer:
(c) Constitution

Question 3.
1/3rd members of total membership of Rajya Sabha, who have completed their tenure of six years, retire after every ……………….. years.
(a) two
(b) four
(c) five
(d) six
Answer:
(a) two

Question 4.
If ……………….. feels that the Parliament should make a law of the subject in the state list, it can pass a resolution to that effect.
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Executive
(d) President
Answer:
(b) Rajya Sabha

Question 5.
Every year in the month of February, the ………….. presents the national budget to the Lok Sabha.
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Finance Minister
(d) Speaker
Answer:
(c) Finance Minister

Question 6.
The President appoints ……………….. distinguished personalities to the Rajya Sabha.
(a) two
(b) eight
(c) fifteen
(d) twelve
Answer:
(d) twelve

Find and write:

Question 1.
……………. represent the Lok Sabha.
Answer:
The Speaker

Question 2.
The bill passed by the State legislature becomes a law after it is signed by the ………….. .
Answer:
Governor

Question 3.
The House that gives representation to 29 States and 7 Union Territories is ………………. .
Answer:
Rajya Sabha

Complete the following Concept maps:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
The Chairman of Rajya Sabha :
Answer:

1. The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
2. He exercises a control over the functioning of Rajya Sabha.
3. Maintaining discipline in the House is the function of the Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
4. He also has the responsibility of facilitating discussions in the House by giving members a chance to speak, etc.

Question 2.
Speaker of Lok Sabha :
Answer:

1. The speaker is elected in the very first meeting after the election of Lok Sabha.
2. The members of Lok Sabha elect one member among them as the Speaker.
3. Lok Sabha functions under the guidance and control of the Speaker.
4. It is the responsibility of the speaker to conduct the business of the House in an unbiased manner.
5. The Speaker has to maintain decorum and dignity of the House.
6. Moreover, he has to interpret the rules and work accordingly.

Question 3.
Control over Council of Ministers :
Answer:

1. Council of Ministers are drawn from the Parliament and hence Parliament exercises control over them.
2. The members of Parliament exercise this control through multiple ways.
3. It is the responsibility of the Parliament to see that the Council of Ministers does not disregard the Parliament.
4. In case the Lok Sabha passes a no-confidence motion against the Council of Ministers, it has to resign.

Answer the following in 25 to 30 words :

Question 1.
Write about Lok Sabha elections.
Answer:

1. Since Lok Sabha is a House of people’s representatives, elections are held after every five years.
2. Elections to Lok Sabha which are held every five years are known as General elections.
3. When Lok Sabha is dissolved before the completion of five years and elections are held, such elections are called mid- term elections.
4. When a member resigns or dies suddenly, election held for such a seat is called by-election.

Question 2.
Explain the composition of Rajya Sabha.
Answer:
The composition of Rajya Sabha is as follows :

1. The total membership of Rajya Sabha is 250 members.
2. Amongst them, 238 members are elected from the constituent states and Union Territories.
3. Remaining twelve members, who are distinguished personalities from the fields of literature, arts, science, sports and social work, are appointed by the President.
4. The members of Rajya Sabha are elected through the system of proportional representation.

Question 3.
Explain the functions of the Parliament.
Answer:
In order to achieve welfare of the people and the objectives of the 8 Constitution, the Parliament has to perform 8 following functions :

1. To formulate new laws and to repeal the outdated laws.
2. To make necessary changes in the existing laws.
3. To amend the Constitution wherever necessary.
4. To keep control over Council of Ministers.

Question 4.
Mention the ways of amending the Constitution.
Answer:
The Constitution can be amended in following ways :

1. Few provisions in the Indian Constitution can be amended by simple majority.
2. Some provisions require special (2/3rd) majority of the Parliament.
3. Few other provisions can be amended by special majority plus consent from more than half of the constituent states.

Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
Though Lok Sabha is the Lower House, it is more powerful than Rajya Sabha.
Answer:

1. Since members of Lok Sabha are directly elected by the people, it represents the people of the nation in the true sense.
2. Money bills related to financial matters are presented in Lok Sabha. Rajya Sabha has very limited powers with respect to Money Bills.
3. Since the total membership of Lok Sabha is more than Rajya Sabha, it always gets an upper hand when decisions are taken in the joint meeting of both the Houses.
4. Only Lok Sabha can pass a no-confidence motion against the Council of Ministers.

Hence, though Lok Sabha is the lower House, it is more powerful than Rajya Sabha.

Answer the following questions in details:

Question 1.
Explain the steps involved in the law-making process.
Answer:
The Bill undergoes following process in order to be converted into a Law (Act).
1. First reading :

• The minister of the concerned department/ministry or member of the Parliament presents the bill in the House.
• The objectives and the structure of the Bill are mentioned.

2. Second reading :

• The positive and negative points of the bill are discussed.
• The defects and faults in the bill are stressed.
• After removing the defects and the faults, the bill is put to vote.

3. Committee Stage :

• Sometimes, if required, the Bill is sent to the committee of the House.
• The Bill is discussed in the Committee in details.
• The Committee report consisting of instructions and recommendations is sent to the House.
• The Bill is discussed clause by clause and then voting is taken.

4. Third reading :

• The Bill is once again discussed in the House.
• Voting is taken for approving the Bill.

5. Approval of the other House :

• The Bill has to undergo the same procedure even in the other House.
• The Bill is approved by majority.

6. Assent by the President :

• After getting an approval from both the Houses, the Bill is further sent for assent by the President.
• After the final assent and signature of the President, the Bill is converted into Law.

Question 2.
Distinguish between Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha on the basis of following points:
1. Number of members
2. Age limit
3. Election
4. Tenure
Answer:

Points	Lok Sabha	Rajya Sabha
1. Number of members	Maximum 552 members	Total 250 members.
2. Age limit	25 years	30 years
3. Election	Directly elected by the people	238 members elected from the constituent states and Union Territories. 12 members appointed by the President.
4. Tenure	5 years	Permanent House. Tenure of every member is 6 years.

Question 3.
Why, according to you, the Constitution must have granted the President, the right to appoint twelve members to the Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
1. The President appoints twelve members to the Rajya Sabha. These members are usually experienced and distinguished personalities from the fields of literature, arts, science, sports and social service.

2. Such personalities are very active and totally devoted to their respective fields. Hence, they have no time for contesting the elections.

3. They keep themselves away from election procedures like campaigning, conducting meetings, etc. So their election to the Parliament is not possible.

4. But, to derive benefit from their profound knowledge and experience for making of laws, their presence in the Parliament is essential.
Therefore, I feel that the Constitution has granted the President, the right to appoint twelve members to the Rajya Sabha.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements

Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Human Settlements Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Tick (✓) the correct options:

Question a.
The concentration of settlements is related to following major factors
(a) Proximity to the Sea
(b) Plain region
(c) Availability of water
(d) Climate
Answer:
(c) Availability of water

Question b.
In North-eastern part of Brazil, which types of settlements are found
(a) Nucleated
(b) Linear
(c) Dispersed
(d) Star-shaped
Answer:
(c) Dispersed

Question c.
Where do you find dispersed settlements in India?
(i) Near the rivers
(ii) Near the transport routes
(iii) Hilly areas
(iv) Industrial regions
Answer:
(iii) Hilly areas

Question d.
Concentrated settlements are found in Narmada Valley
(i) Forested land
(ii) Cultivable land
(iii) Undulating topography
(iv) Industries
Answer:
(ii) Cultivable land

Question e.
Which state has the least urbanisation in Brazil?
(i) Para
(ii) Amapa
(iii) Espirito Santo
(iv) Parana
Answer:
(i) Para

2. Give geographical reasons:

Question a.
Availability of water is a major factor affecting settlements.
Answer:
(i) Water is a major factor affecting settlements because water is required for survival of living beings, for purposes like drinking, cooking, agriculture, industries, etc.
(ii) Due to availability of water, agriculture and industries flourish, generating employment opportunities and leading to development of settlements.
(iii) Shortage of water will hamper the growth of agriculture and industries which lead to less development of settlements.

Question b.
In Brazil, majority of population is found in the eastern coastal areas.
Answer:
(i) Although the coastal climate is hot and humid, and flat land is limited due to rugged topography, the eastern coast of Brazil has a good water supply and a large range of natural resources.
(ii) The region has rich fertile soil which is most suitable for coffee cultivation..
(iii) The region is rich in minerals like iron ore and has a steady power supply.
(iv) An excellent transportation facility is also available here.
(v) Due to these factors, agriculture, industries and trade flourish and settlements increase.
So, majority of Brazil’s population is found in the eastern coastal areas.

Question c.
Urbanisation is increasing rapidly in India.
Answer:
(i) In India, there has been growing industrialisation, leading to availability of jobs in urban areas.
(ii) Urban areas have better facilities and amenities like water supply, electricity, health, education, etc.
(iii) There is increasing migration of people from rural areas to urban areas.
(iv) The urban population is increasing due to the expansion of urban centres and emergence of new towns.
So, urbanisation is increasing rapidly in India.

Question d.
Settlements are sparse in north-eastern Brazil.
Answer:
(i) The north east of Brazil is a Highland.
(ii) As this region lies in a rain shadow region it suffers from droughts.
(iii) Due to scanty rainfall and unavailability of resources, agriculture and industries are not well developed.
(iv) Transport facilities are also very poor here. Therefore, settlements are sparse in north – eastern Brazil.

Question e.
Except Delhi and Chandigarh, urbanisation is low in other parts of India.
Answer:
(i) Delhi and Chandigarh are union territories lying in the flat Northern Plains of India.
(ii) Delhi is the capital of India and has an ancient history of urbanisation while Chandigarh is one of the most well-planned cities.
(iii) Both Delhi and Chandigarh have good water supply due to river Yamuna and the Bhakra Canal.
(iv) As compared to the other cities in North India, both the cities have well-developed infrastructure, good transport links and other amenities.
(v) Fast developing industries and commercial centres in these places, offer high employment opportunities leading to urbanisation.
Hence, except Delhi and Chandigarh, urbanisation is low in other parts of India.

3. Answer in short:

Question a.
Write a comparative note on urbanisation in Brazil and India.
Answer:
(i) Rate of urbanisation in higher in Brazil than in India.
(ii) Growth of urbanisation in India has been slow.
E.g. From 18% in 1961 to 31.2% in 2011.
(iii) Growth of urbanisation in Brazil has been rapid.
E.g. From 47.1% in 1960 to 84.6% in 2010.
(iv) Urbanisation has been more in the southern part than in the Northern part of India.
(v) Urbanisation in Brazil has been more in the coastal states of south and southeast than the states in the interior of the west and north.
(vi) India’s rate of urbanisation has increased continously in a fluctuating rate.
(vii) Brazil’s is rate of urbanisation has increased but in a diminishing rate.

Question b.
Differentiate between the human settlements in the Ganga river basin and the Amazon river basin.
Answer:

S.No	Human settlements in the Ganga river basin	Human settlements in the Amazon river basin
(i)	Nucleated settlements are found in Ganga river basin.	(i) Dispersed settlements are found in Amazon river basin.
(ii)	Flat land, availibality of water, fertile soil,favourable climate is suitable for human settlement.	(ii) Unfavourable        climate,      heavy      rainfall, inaccessibility makes the Amazon river basin unsuitable for human settlement.
(iii)	The above conditions along with a good transport network has helped to flourish agriculture and other industries.	(iii) Due to dense evergreen forests and poor transport facility there are restrictions on the use of natural resources, which have affected economic development.

Question c.
Why do human settlements grow in specific locations only?
Answer:
Human settlements depend on various factors like climate, availability of water, slope of the land, level of development.
In India, nucleated human settlements are found in the Ganga River Basin because of flat fertile plains, abundance of water, favourable climate and growth of agriculture and industries. Dispersed settlements are found in Himalayan slopes, eastern and southern Rajasthan because of uneven topography, unfavourable climate and lack of development.

In Brazil, nucleated settlements are found in Sao Paulo and southern coast of Brazil, due to nearness to the ocean, fertile soil, availability of natural minerals like iron ore, steady power supply and good transportation system. Dispersed settlements are found in Northern Brazil due to the inaccessible forests in Amazon river basin, unhealthy climate, limitations on use of natural resources drought region and poor transport connectivity.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Human Settlements Intext Questions and Answers

Geographical Explanation

Study the two types of settlement patterns in India given in figure (a) and (b) Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Identify the type of settlements?
Answer:
Fig a. Settlement Type is: Nucleated and in Fig. b. Settlement Type is: Linear and Dispersed settlement.

Question 2.
Which one is a nucleated settlement? Why?
Answer:
Fig. a. Shows the image of a Nucleated settlement, because it is a cultivated land and has a centrally located water body.

Question 3.
Which one is a dispersed settlement? What could be the reason behind it?
Answer:
In Fig. b. dispersed settlement is observed due to unsuitable topography.

Question 4.
Can you guess in which regions are these settlements located in India?
Answer:
Settlement in Fig. a. is located in the north Indian plain, it might be the river Ganga Basin and settlement in the Fig. b. is located in hilly terrain covered with forest and also a road passing through leads to a dispersed settlement.

Think About It

Question 1.
Tell whether settlements shown in images (a) and (b) are urban or rural.


Answer:
The image shown in (a) is urban and The image shown in (b) is rural

Lets Recall

Question 1.
Some amenities and facilities are given here. Tick (✓) in the relevant column and complete the table on the basis of their presence in urban and rural areas or both.
Answer:

S.No	Amentity	Available in Villages	Available in Cities
(1)	Petrol Pump	✓	✓
(2)	Theatre		✓
(3)	Weekly Market	✓
(4)	Primary Health Centre	✓
(5)	Police Outpost	✓	✓
(6)	Art Gallery		✓
(7)	Gram Panchayat	✓
(8)	Agricultural Produce Market Committee (APMC)	✓
(9)	Primary School	✓	✓
(10)	Senior School		✓
(11)	College		✓
(12)	Shop	✓	✓
(13)	Multi-speciality Hospital		✓
(14)	Metro station		✓
(15)	Bus station	✓	✓
(16)	University		✓

Try This.

Question 1.
In the figure (a) and (b), you can see images of two settlements in Brazil. One is from the Amazon river basin in Brazil while the other belongs to the coastal area. Observe the settlement patterns carefully and name the types of settlement patterns. Write a comment on their density and types.


Answer:
(1) Fig. (a)
Type settlement pattern: Dispersed settlements as they are lying in the dense forested areas of the Amazon Basin.
Density of Population: Sparse.
(2) Fig. (b)
Type settlement pattern: Nucleated settlements as they are lying in the dense forested areas of the Amazon Basin.
Density of Population: Dense.

Can You Tell

Read the graph below and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What was the percentage of urbanisation in 1961?
Answer:
The percentage of urbanisation in 1961 was 18%.

Question 2.
In which decade was urbanisation the highest?
Answer:
Highest urbanisation took place in the decade 1971 -1981.

Question 3.
In which decade was the growth of urbanisation lowest?
Answer:
The growth of urbanisation was lowest in the decade 1961-1971.

Question 4.
What was the growth in the percentage of urbanisation between 1961 and 1971?
Answer:
The growth in the percentage of urbanisation between 1961 and 1971 was of 0.20%

Question 5.
What was the growth in the percentage of urbanisation between 1991 and 2011?
Answer:
The growth in the percentage of urbanisation between 1991 and 2011 was of 5.5%.

Question 6.
What inference can you draw regarding India’s urbanisation after reading the graph?
Answer:
After reading the graph, we can say that urbanisation in India is slowly but continuously rising.

Try This

Look at the table. It shows the growth and share of urban population in total population of Brazil. Draw a line graph from this table. Examine the graph carefully and answer the following questions:
Brazil Percentage of urban population (1960 to 2010)

Answer:

Question 1.
What is the interval of the data?
Answer:
The interval of the data is 10 years.

Question 2.
In which period did urbanisation occur rapidly?
Answer:
Urbanisation occured rapidly in the period 1960 – 1970.

Question 3.
Write five sentences analysing the graph.
Answer:
(i) The graph shows the percentage of urbanisation in Brazil from 1960 to 2010.
(ii) The interval of the data is 10 years.
(iii) Clearly there has been a rapid urbanisation in Brazil.
(iv) The highest urbanisation is seen between 1960 to 1970, when urbanisation grew from 47.1% to 56.8%, a growth of 9.7%.
(v) Urbanisation occurred slowly during the decade from 2000 to 2010, at a growth of 3.1%.

Give It a Try

Question 1.
Prepare a choropleth map showing urban population using the data given in the table below.

S.No.	Urban population percentage category	States /UTs falling in the category
(1)	0-20	Himachal Pradesh, Bihar, Assam and Odisha
(2)	21-40	Meghalaya, Uttar Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Rajasthan, Sikkim, Tripura, Jammu and Kashmir, Nagaland, Manipur, Uttarakhand, West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh, Haryana, A and N Islands, Punjab, Karnataka and M. P.
(3)	41-60	Gujarat, Maharashtra, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Mizoram
(4)	61-80	Goa, Puducherry, Daman and Diu, Lakshadweep
(5)	81 -100	Chandigarh, NCT of Delhi

Answer:

Colours Of Both

Question 1.
Compare the line graph shown in figure and the one drawn by you for Brazil. Write five lines on the changes that have occurred in urbanisation in both the countries, with time.

Answer:
(i) After comparing the graphs of India and Brazil, it is clear that urbanisation in Brazil has been much more rapid as compared to India.

(ii) Urbanisation in Brazil grew from 47.1% in 1960¬70 to 84.6% in 2000-2010. Whereas urbanisation in India grew from 18% in 1961-70 to 31.2% in 2001-2011.

(iii) But Brazil’s rate of urbanisation is showing signs of decline, whereas India’s rate of urbanisation is showing a slow and consistent growth.

(iv) For e.g. the rate of urbanisation in Brazil has decreased from 9.7% in 1960-1970 to 3.1% in 2000¬2010. Whereas the rate of urbanisation in India has increased from 0.2% in 1961-1971 to 3.4% in 2001-2011.

(v) Both Brazil and India are developing countries, but Brazil shows very high urbanisation as compared to India.

Question 2.
Make a short note on the comparison between the settlement patterns in India and Brazil on the basis of the following points:
(i) Location
(ii) Pattern
(iii) Types
(iv) Density
Answer:
India settlement pattern

• Location : Nucleated settlements are found throughout the plateau region of Narmada Valley, paddy lands in Bihar, U.P, Vindhyan Plateau and several other cultivated parts of India.
• Pattern : Nucleated settlements
• Types: Urban
•  Density : High population density

• Location : Dispersed settlements are found in tribal parts covering central part of India, eastern and southern Rajasthan, Himalayan slopes and land with dissected and uneven topography.
• Pattern : Dispersed settlements
• Types: Rural
• Density : Low population density.

Brazilian settlement pattern

• Location: The Southern and South Eastern parts of Brazil – Areas where there is good water supply, a large range of natural resources, rich soil, large supply of natural minerals, steady energy supply, a good transport system, etc.
• Pattern : Nucleated settlement
• Types: Urban
• Density : High population density.

• Location : Brazilian Highlands, Central part, Amazon Basin region : regions with dense forests, unfavourable climate, poor transport limits, limitations on the use and exploitation of natural resources, etc.
• Pattern : Dispersed settlements
• Type : Rural
• Density: Low population density

Give It a Try

Question 1.
“Observe the two satellite images given below. Describe the settlements with respect to physiography, Considering the physiography, where could these settllements be located? Find out their settlement pattern and limitations with respect to their future growth.
Answer:
(i) Location : Both satellite images show human settlements in a mountainous region. One settlement is along mountain slope, while the other is on top of a mountain.
(ii) Pattern : Dispersed settlements.
(iii) Future growth : Further growth for human settlements seems difficult. This is mainly because of the hilly terrain and forested land along the mountain slope.

Study the choropleth map of Brazil showing the Statewise urban population of Brazil and answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Which state (region) in Brazil is the most urbanised?
Answer:
The states of Sao Paulo, Rio de Janeiro, Goias, Espirito Santo in the southeastern part of Brazil and the port Manaus in the north are the most urbanised.

Question 2.
Which state (region) in the least urbanised?
Answer:
The states of Para, Maranhao and Piaui in northern part of Brazil are the least urbanised states.

Use Your Brain Power

Question 1.
Which factors have affected urbanisation in Brazil?
Answer:
(i) In Brazil, rapid urbanisation has taken place in South and South East Coastal regions.
(ii) Being in proximity to the Atlantic Ocean have benefitted these regions immensely in the form of mild climatic conditions.
(iii) Availability of water, fertile soil, natural minerals such as iron ore, good transport system and steady electric supply have positively impacted urbanisation in these parts.
(iv) To the north of the Brazilian Highlands is the rain shadow region of ‘Drought Quadrilateral’ with sparse settlements.

Colours Of Both

Question 1.
Write a paragraph on the settlement pattern, urban and rural settlement and urbanisation in India and Brazil.
Answer:

India settlement pattern

• Location : Nucleated settlements are found throughout the plateau region of Narmada Valley, paddy lands in Bihar, U.P, Vindhyan Plateau and several other cultivated parts of India.
• Pattern : Nucleated settlements
• Types: Urban
•  Density : High population density

• Location : Dispersed settlements are found in tribal parts covering central part of India, eastern and southern Rajasthan, Himalayan slopes and land with dissected and uneven topography.
• Pattern : Dispersed settlements
• Types: Rural
• Density : Low population density.

Brazilian settlement pattern

• Location: The Southern and South Eastern parts of Brazil – Areas where there is good water supply, a large range of natural resources, rich soil, large supply of natural minerals, steady energy supply, a good transport system, etc.
• Pattern : Nucleated settlement
• Types: Urban
• Density : High population density.

• Location : Brazilian Highlands, Central part, Amazon Basin region : regions with dense forests, unfavourable climate, poor transport limits, limitations on the use and exploitation of natural resources, etc.
• Pattern : Dispersed settlements
• Type : Rural
• Density: Low population density

Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Human Settlements Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option and rewrite the statements.

Question 1.
_______ settlements are found in tribal parts covering central part of India.
(a) Nucleated
(b) Linear
(c) Dispersed
(d) Circular
Answer:
(c) Dispersed

Question 2.
The earlier settlements in Brazil were formed by settlers from _______ mainly in coastal areas.
(a) Africa
(b) Asia
(c) Europe
(d) Australia
Answer:
(c) Europe

Question 3.
Sao paulo has _________ settlements.
(a) isolated
(b) nucleated
(c) scattered
(d) dispersed
Answer:
(b) nucleated

Question 4.
Rural areas of Brazil such as the north east highlands suffer from _____ which make it difficult for practising agriculture.
(a) high rainfall
(b) extreme cold
(c) extreme droughts
(d) extreme heat
Answer:
(c) extreme droughts

Question 5.
Settlements become _____ as we go to the central part of Brazil.
(a) sparse
(b) dense
(c) nucleated
(d) triangular
Answer:
(a) sparse

Question 6.
The growth of urbanisation in India has been ________.
(a) quick
(b) moderate
(c) slow
(d) rapid
Answer:
(c) slow

Question 7.
In India, urbanisation has been more in the _______ part.
(a) Western
(b) Eastern
(c) Northern
(d) Southern
Answer:
(d) Southern

Question 8.
Goa is the most urbanised state in India with _______ urban population.
(a) 92%
(b) 52%
(c) 62%
(d) 82%
Answer:
(c) 62%

Question 9.
_____ is more than 80% urban.
(a) Goa
(b) Gujarat
(c) Delhi
(d) Puducherry
Answer:
(c) Delhi

Question 10.
Today, about ______ of Brazil’s population lives in urban area.
(a) 96%
(b) 66%
(c) 86%
(d) 76%
Answer:
(c) 86%

Question 11.
Looking at the growth in a few parts of the country, the government is promoting “Go _______ ” policy which reduces pressure on other densely populated areas.
(a) East
(b) North
(c) South
(d) West
Answer:
(d) West

Question 12.
Urbanisation has occurred more in the _______ states, in Brazil.
(a) inland
(b) coastal
(c) central
(d) north-western
(b) coastal

Question 13.
_________ is a port on the confluence of the Negro and the Amazon rivers, where urbanisation has occurred.
(a) Alagoas
(b) Parana
(c) Manaus
(d) Ceara
(c) Manaus

Find out the correct group :

Question 1.
States of Brazil in having 91% to 100% urban population.
(a) Sao Paulo, Goias, Espirito Santo and Tocantins.
(b) Espirito Santo, Rio De Janeiro, Para and Goias.
(c) Espirito Santo, Goias, Sao Paulo, Rio De Janeiro.
(d) Sao Paulo, Amapa, Santa Catarina, and Rondonia.
Answer:
(c) Espirito Santo, Goias, Sao Paulo and Rio De Janeiro.

Question 2.
States of India having less than 20% of Urbanization.
(a) Meghalaya, Uttar Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh and Rajasthan. .
(b) Lakshadweep, Daman and Diu, Puducherry and Nagaland.
(c) Tamil Nadu, Mizoram, Gujarat and Maharashtra.
(d) Odisha, Assam, Bihar and Himachal Pradesh.
Answer:
(d) Odisha, Assam, Bihar, Himachal Pradesh.

Question 3.
Nucleated settlements in India.
(a) Vindhyan plateau, Plateau region of Narmada valley, Paddy lands in Bihar and Uttar Pradesh.
(b) Rajasthan, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, and Punjab.
(c) Himalayan slopes, East Rajasthan, Tribal part of Madhya Pradesh and Nagaland.
(d) Vindhyan plateau, Paddy lands in Uttar Pradesh, Land with dissected topography and Bihar.
Answer:
(a) Vindhyan plateau, Plateau region of Narmada valley, Paddy lands in Bihar and Uttar Pradesh.

Question 4.
Dispersed settlements in India.
(a) West coast, West Rajasthan, Paddy lands of Punjab and Mizoram.
(b) Land with dissected topography, South Rajasthan, Vindhya plateau and Uttar Pradesh.
(c) Tribal part of Madhya Pradesh, Himalayan slopes, West and South Rajasthan and Land with the uneven topography.
(d) Himalayan slopes, Narmada Valley, West Rajasthan and South India.
Answer:
(c) Tribal part of Madhya Pradesh, Himalayan slopes, West and South Rajasthan and Land with the uneven topography.

Question 5.
States of India having urbanization between 41% to 60%.
(a) Chandigarh, Daman and Diu, Gujarat and Uttar Pradesh.
(b) Maharashtra, Kerala, Gujarat and Mizoram.
(c) Jharkhand, Karnataka, Maharashtra and Goa.
(d) Andhra Pradesh, West Bengal and Uttarakhand, Assam.
Answer:
(b) Maharashtra, Kerala, Gujarat, Mizoram.

Question 1.
Match the columns:

Column ‘A’		Column ‘B’
(1)	Most urbanised state in India	(a)	Sao Paulo
(2)	Most urbanised state in Brazil	(b)	Goa
(3)	Least urbanised state in India	(c)	Mato Grosso
(4)	Least urbanised	(d)	Himachal Pradesh
	state in Brazil	(e)	Delhi
		(f)	Para

Answer:
1 – b
2 – a
3 – d
4 – f

Are the sentences right or wrong?

Question 1.
India does not have a great tradition of urbanisation.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 2.
The earlier settlements in Brazil were formed by the settlers from America.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 3.
North-East Highlands of Brazil suffer from extreme drought.
Answer:
Right.

Question 4.
The growth of urbanisation in India has been very fast, reaching 86% in 2011.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 5.
In underdeveloped countries, the rate of urbanisation is low.
Answer:
Right.

Give geographical reasons:

Question 1.
Sao Paulo area has nucleated settlements.
Answer:
(i) Sao Paulo is situated in South East coast of Brazil.
(ii) The region has a good water supply.
(iii) It an extensive area under rich fertile soil which is ideal for growing coffee.
(iv) It has a large supply of natural minerals, such as iron ore.
(v) It also has a steady energy supply.
(vi) This region has a good transport system too.
So, Sao Paulo area has nucleated settlements.

Question 2.
The Brazilian government is promoting ‘Go West’ policy.
Answer:
(i) Brazil is one of the few developing countries which is highly urbanised.
(ii) But urbanisation in Brazil is confined to South and South East.
(iii) For e.g. States like Sao Paulo, Goias, Minas Gerais, Rio De Janeiro have very high urban population.
(iv) Western Brazil continues to remain least urbanised, which is creating regional imbalance.
(v) In order to reduce regional imbalance, the Brazil Government is promoting ‘Go-West Policy’.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Civics Solutions Chapter 1 Introduction to the Parliamentary System Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Civics Solutions Chapter 1 Introduction to the Parliamentary System

Class 8 Civics Chapter 1 Introduction to the Parliamentary System Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Choose the correct option and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
Parliamentary System of government developed in ……………. .
(a) England
(b) France
(c) United States of America
(d) Nepal
Answer:
(a) England

Question 2.
In the Presidential System, ……….. is the executive head.
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Lok Sabha Speaker
(c) President
(d) Governor
Answer:
(c) President

2. Complete the information in the following table.

Question 1.

Answer:

Sr. No.	Name of the institution	Functions
1.	Legislature	To make laws
2.	Executive	To implement laws, frame policies
3.	Judiciary	To provide justice

3. Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
India adopted the Parliamentary System of government.
Answer:

1. The Parliamentary System of government developed primarily in England.
2. The British ruled over India for about 150 years. During this period, they ruled in accordance with this system.
3. So, Indians were familiar with this system of government.
4. The Constituent Assembly also adopted this system after a thorough discussion.
5. Hence, the framers of the Constitution made a few changes to suit the Indian situation, and adopted the Parliamentary System.

Question 2.
Discussions and deliberations are important in a Parliamentary System of government.
Answer:

1. In a Parliamentary System of government, decisions are taken after discussions and deliberations.
2. Members of the opposition party also participate in the discussions.
3. They may support the government or point out shortcomings in the government policies.
4. Laws are framed after detailed discussions on questions of public welfare. This does not happen in autocratic rule.
5. Hence, to protect the welfare and freedom of common people, discussions and deliberations are important.

4. Answer the following in 25 to 30 words:

Question 1.
What is a Responsible Government?
Answer:

1. The government system in which the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers is responsible to the Legislature for all their actions and policies, is called a Responsible Government.
2. In this system, the Council of Ministers has to take the Legislature into confidence during governance.
3. Every decision taken by any ministry/ department is considered as the decision of the government.
4. The decisions or policies of every ministry is the collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers.
5. Thus, the principle of collective responsibility adopted by the Council of Ministers makes it a responsible government.

Question 2.
Enumerate the characteristics of the Presidential System of government.
Answer:
The following are the characteristics of the Presidential System of government:

1. The President is directly elected by the people.
2. The President has lot of powers including power to implement laws.
3. The President is not dependent on the support of the Legislature.
4. The Legislature and the Executive are not dependent on each other, but still they have mutual control over each other.

5. Why is the role of opposition parties important? Write your opinion.

Question 1.
Why is the role of opposition parties important? Write your opinion.
Answer:
The role of opposition parties is important in Parliamentary as well as Presidential System of government.

1. The opposition parties participate in the discussions and point out the shortcomings in the policies of the government.
2. The opposition parties control the Executive through their arguments based on deep study of the topics discussed in the Parliament.
3. The Executive cannot behave in an irresponsible manner due to the pressure of the opposition parties.
4. The alertness of the opposition parties help in avoiding wrong practices like corruption, ignoring public welfare, passing faulty laws, etc.

Have you thought of this?

1. What is a parliamentary system of government?
2. In India we have Prime Minister but why is there no Prime Minister in the United States of America?
3. What is the difference between a Parliamentary and a Presidential system of government?

Project:

Watch the live telecast proceedings of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha on the national channel Doordarshan and write your observations.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 1 Introduction to the Parliamentary Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
The interrelationship between the Legislature, Executive and Judiciary is decided by the …….
(a) Government
(b) Presidential System
(c) Constitution
(d) Parliament
Answer:
(c) Constitution

Question 2.
The English Constitution is an …….. Constitution where governance is based on conventions.
(a) changeable
(b) unchangeable
(c) unwritten
(d) written.
Answer:
(c) unwritten

Question 3.
Sometimes, when no party gets a clear majority, ……… government is formed.
(a) Presidential
(b) coalition
(c) Military
(d) communist
Answer:
(b) coalition

State whether the following statements are True or False. Correct the False statement and rewrite:

Question 1.
Parliamentary System of government is considered as a contribution of United States of America.
Answer:
False.
Correct: Parliamentary System of government is a contribution of England.

Question 2.
In the Parliamentary System, the Legislature of the Central Government is known as the ‘Parliament’.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Members of the opposition party also take part in the discussion of the questions related to public welfare.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
In the Parliamentary System, the President is directly elected by the people.
Answer:
False.
Correct: In the Presidential System, the President is directly elected by the people.

Find and write:

Complete the concept map:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Write short notes:

Question 1.
Characteristics of Parliamentary System of India:
Answer:
The following are the characteristics of Parliamentary System adopted by India:

1. The Parliament of India is composed of the President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
2. Fixed number of members of the Parliament are directly elected by the people.
3. All political parties contest elections, which are held at regular intervals.
4. The party having majority in Lok Sabha or a coalition government comes into power.
5. The leader of the majority party becomes the Prime Minister and he selects candidates to form the Council of Ministers.
6. The Executive has to perform the responsibility of its individual minister¬ship as well as the responsibility of the Legislature, for all their actions and policies.

Question 2.
Responsibilities of the Executive in India:
Answer:
The Executive in India has to fulfill following responsibilities:

1. Implementing the laws passed by the Parliament.
2. Framing policies for governing the nation.
3. Functioning as the members of the Legislature.
4. Striving to develop the nation through decisions related to the welfare of the people.

Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
No-confidence motion is an effective tool of keeping a check over the Executive.
Answer:

1. In the Parliamentary System, the Executive is dependent upon the confidence of the Legislature in them.
2. If the Legislature feels that the Executive does not work in accordance to its wishes, it can pass a no-confidence motion against the Executive.
3. If the Legislature passes the no-confidence motion with a majority, then the Executive has to resign.
4. The Constitution has provided this tool to prevent the Executive from misusing its powers.
   Hence, no-confidence motion is an effective tool of keeping a check over the Executive.

Question 2.
The Parliament is of great importance in the Parliamentary System of government.
Answer:

1. In the Parliamentary System of government the members of the Legislature are directly elected by the people.
2. Since the elected members represent the people of the nation in the Parliament, they express and carry the hopes and wishes of the people.
3. The Parliament decides the policies for the welfare of the people.
4. If the Parliament feels that the Executive does not work in accordance to its wishes, it can remove the Executive from power by passing a no-confidence motion against it.

Since, the Parliament reflects the wishes and opinions of the people of the nation, it is of great importance.

Have you thought of this?

Question 1.
What is a Parliamentary System of government?
Answer:

1. The Parliamentary System of government is the one where representatives are directly elected by the people.
2. They are the members of the Legislature, which is also known as the Parliament.
3. In this system, elections are held after fixed period.
4. The party which gets the majority forms the government.
5. In this system, the Executive is dependent on the confidence of the Legislature.

Question 2.
In India we have Prime Minister but why is there no Prime Minister in the United States of America?
Answer:

1. In the Parliamentary System of government, the Prime Minister is the head of the Executive, i.e. the Council of Ministers.
2. In the Presidential System of government, the President is the head of the Executive. ‘
3. Since India has adopted the Parliamentary system, we have the post of the Prime Minister.
4. Since United States of America has adopted Presidential System, they have the post of the President.
5. The post of the Prime Minister does not exist in Presidential System of government.

Question 3.
What is the difference between a Parliamentary and a Presidential System of government?
Answer:
Difference between the Parliamentary and Presidential System of government is as follows:

Parliamentary System	Presidential System
1. President is the Constitutional Head.	President is the Executive Head.
2. Prime Minister and Council of Ministers have more powers.	President has more powers.
3. Council of Ministers is formed by the elected members of Parliament.	President is directly elected by the people.
4. Parliament can remove the Prime Minister by passing a no-confidence motion.	President can be removed only by impeachment.
5. Members of the Executive are also the members of the Legislature.	Legislature and Executive are not dependent on each other.

Question 4.
Why is the role of opposition parties important? Write your opinion.
Answer:
The role of opposition parties is important in Parliamentary as well as Presidential System of government.

1. The opposition parties participate in the discussions and point out the shortcomings in the policies of the government.
2. The opposition parties control the Executive through their arguments based on deep study of the topics discussed in the Parliament.
3. The Executive cannot behave in an irresponsible manner due to the pressure of the opposition parties.
4. The alertness of the opposition parties help in avoiding wrong practices like corruption, ignoring public welfare, passing faulty laws, etc.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Civics Solutions Chapter 5 The State Government Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Civics Solutions Chapter 5 The State Government

Class 8 Civics Chapter 5 The State Government Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Choose the correct option and complete the statements:

Question 1.
The winter session of Maharashtra Legislature takes place at ……………… .
(a) Mumbai
(b) Nagpur
(c) Pune
(d) Aurangabad
Answer:
(b) Nagpur

Question 2.
The ……………. appoints the Governor.
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Prime Minister
(c) President
(d) Chief Justice
Answer:
(c) President

Question 3.
The right to summon the state legislature lies with the …………… .
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Governor
(c) President
(d) Speaker
Answer:
(b) Governor

2. Complete the table:

Question 1.

Answer:

3. Write short notes on:

Question 1.
The Governor:
Answer:

1. The Governor is the titular/ nominal head of the state.
2. The government of the state is run in the name of the Governor.
3. He is appointed by the President and holds the office during the pleasure of the President.
4. He appoints the Chief Minister and the Council of Ministers.
5. As the head of the state, he enjoys certain important Legislative and Executive powers.
6. He has a right to summon the session of the state legislature.
7. In case the need arises, he can issue ordinance to make the law.

Question 2.
Functions of the Chief Minister:
Answer:
The functions of the Chief Minister, as an Executive head of the state, are as follows:

1. To form an able Council of Ministers giving maximum representation to various regions and social groups.
2. To distribute portfolios considering the political experience, administrative skills, public awareness, leadership, etc. of the ministers.
3. To develop proper cooperation and coordination between Departments, resolve their conflicts and make them work effectively.
4. To lead the state, frame proper policies and implement them effectively, intervene in issues of the state and solve them for the comfort of the people.

4. Answer the following in brief:

Question 1.
Enumerate the functions of the Speaker of the Vidhan Sabha (Legislative Assembly).
Answer:
The Speaker is elected by the members of Vidhan Sabha. His functions are as follows:

1. To prepare the order of daily proceedings in the House.
2. To carry out the proceedings of the House in a disciplined manner.
3. To suspend the members for misbehaviour or misconduct.
4. To control and guide the proceedings of the House during sessions.

Question 2.
Why did the Constitution adopt a federal system for India?
Answer:

1. India is a country having large geographic expanse.
2. It has a multicultural population.
3. There is a great diversity in language, religion, ways of life and regional characteristics.
4. It would not have been possible to govern such a huge country from a centralised place. Hence, the Constitution adopted a federal system of India.

Question 3.
What are the considerations of the Chief Minister while allocation of portfolios?
OR
Formation of Council of Ministers is a challenging task for the Chief Minister.
Answer:
After the formation of the Council of Ministers, the Chief Minister has to distribute portfolios among the ministers. He has to consider following aspects:

1. Some portfolios are of prime importance while others are of secondary importance. He has to select appropriate people for each portfolio.
2. He has to consider the experience i and the efficiency of the ministers he has selected.
3. The political experience and administrative skills of the concerned ministers is also taken into consideration by him.
4. Other factors like the awareness of public issues, effective leadership, etc. are also considered by him.
5. If the government is in a coalition, he has to distribute portfolios appropriately among the constituent parties in the alliance.

Do you know?

1. At present, India has 29 Constituent States and 7 Union Territories.
2. All Constituent States have Legislative Assemblies.
3. Out of the 7 Union Territories, only Delhi and Puducherry have Legislative Assemblies (Vidhan Sabha).
4. Jammu and Kashmir, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana and Andhra Pradesh have Bicameral Legislatures (both the Houses).

Project:

Visit official website of the Maharashtra Government and collect information of various ministers and the working of their respective departments.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 5 The State Government Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option and complete the statements:

Question 1.
The Indian Union has totally …………….. constituent states.
(a) 22
(b) 25
(c) 29
(d) 32
Answer:
(c) 29

Question 2.
In India, only ……………… states have Bicameral legislatures.
(a) three
(b) five
(c) six
(d) seven
Answer:
(d) seven

Question 3.
Maharashtra’s legislature conducts minimum ………………. sessions in a year.
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) five
Answer:
(b) three

Question 4.
Distinguished personalities from various fields are nominated by the ……………. to the Vidhan Parishad.
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Speaker
(c) Governor
(d) Chairman
Answer:
(c) Governor

Question 5.
When the legislature is not in session and need arises to make law, the Governor can issue ……………….. .
(a) a Bill
(b) a Proposal
(c) an Ordinance
(d) an Order
Answer:
(c) an Ordinance

State whether the following statements are True or False. Correct the False statements and rewrite:

Question 1.
States in India have been formed on the basis of population.
Answer:
False. States in India have been formed on the basis of language.

Question 2.
In exceptional circumstances, elections to Vidhan Sabha can be held before the completion of 5 years.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Absence of cooperation and coordination between Departments can affect the working of the government.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
The people look at the Governor as a ‘Problem Solver’.
Answer:
False. The people look at the Chief Minister as a ‘Problem Solver’.

Question 5.
Every constituent state has a Vidhan Parishad.
Answer:
False. Every constituent state has a Vidhan Sabha.

Find and write:

Question 1.
The State having a government machinery different than other states
Answer:
Jammu and Kashmir

Question 2.
The Vidhan Bhavan of Maharashtrais located in:
Answer:
Mumbai

Question 3.
The member of Vidhan Sabha are called:
Answer:
MLA

Question 4.
Major challenges faced by Maharashtra:
Answer:
Terrorism and Naxalite movements

Question 5.
The place where the winter session of Maharashtra’s legislature is conducted:
Answer:
Nagpur.

Complete the following concept maps:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Explain the following concepts:

Question 1.
Session:
Answer:

1. A session is a meeting where members of both the Houses meet.
2. Maharashtra’s legislature conducts minimum three sessions in a year.
3. The budget session and monsoon session of Maharashtra is held in Mumbai while the winter session is held at Nagpur.
4. The Governor has the right to summon and conclude the session.
5. During the session, new laws are passed, existing laws are amended and out-dated laws are repealed.
6. The sessions are conducted under the leadership and guidance of the Speaker and the Chairman.

Question 2.
Council of Ministers:
Answer:

1. The Council of Ministers consists of the Chief Minister and other ministers.
2. The leader of the majority party in Legislative Assembly is appointed as the Chief Minister by the Governor.
3. The Governor also appoints the other ministers chosen by the Chief Minister to form Council of Ministers.
4. Framing appropriate laws, working for the welfare of the people, governing the state efficiently are some of the functions of the Council of Ministers.
5. The Chief Minister along with his Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly.

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Powers of the Governor:
Answer:
The Governor enjoys certain important Legislative and Executive powers as the head of the state.

1. The Bills passed by Vidhan Sabha and Vidhan Parishad are converted into laws only after receiving his assent.
2. He has the right to summon the session of the state legislature and to conclude it.
3. He can issue an ordinance to make law, on important subject if required, when the Legislature is not in session.
4. He appoints the Chief Minister and the other Council of Ministers.

Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
The Governor is the titular/nominal head of the state.
Answer:

1. The Constitution has granted Executive powers to the Governor as the head of the state.
2. The government of the state is run in the name of the Governor.
3. But in reality, the administration is carried out by the Chief Minister. Hence, the Governor is the titular/ nominal head of the state.

Question 2.
Vidhan Parishad (Legislative Council) is a permanent House.
Answer:

1. All members of the Vidhan Parishad (MLCs) do not retire at the same time.
2. A specific number (1/3rd) of the members retire every 2 years.
3. These vacant seats are filled again by conducting fresh elections for those seats.
4. The tenure of each member is 6 years.
5. Since the Vidhan Parishad is never fully dissolved, it is a permanent House.

Question 3.
India has 29 constituent states, but 31 Vidhan Sabha.
Answer:

1. According to the Constitution, every constituent state must have a Vidhan Sabha (Legislative Assembly).
2. India has 29 constituent states and each state has its Vidhan Sabha.
3. Out of the 7 Union Territories in India, Delhi and Puducherry have Vidhan Sabha. Hence, India has 29 constituent states, but 31 Vidhan Sabha.

Question 4.
The Chief Minister’s post is most important in the state.
Answer:

1. The Chief Minister can select his Council of Ministers according to his choice.
2. He can ask any of his ministers to resign.
3. Framing policies of public welfare and developing the state in a progressive manner entirely depends upon the Chief Minister.
4. The Chief Minister leads the state and people look at him as a problem solver.
5. His intervention in solving the problems of the state comforts the people.

Hence, all these executive powers makes the Chief Minister’s post most important in the State.

Answer the following in brief:

Question 1.
Mention the eligibility conditions for contesting Vidhan Sabha elections.
Answer:
Following are the eligibility conditions for candidates contesting for Vidhan Sabha elections:

1. He/She should be a citizen of India.
2. He/She should have completed 25 years of age.
3. He/She should be a resident of Maharashtra.

Question 2.
Do you consider Maharashtra to be progressive state?
Answer:

1. Industrial development has taken place in Maharashtra on a large scale. It has many industries based on modern technology.
2. Maharashtra’s literacy rate is higher than many other states.
3. It has a rich tradition of saints and social reformers who have nurtured progressive thinking among people.
4. Maharashtra is leading in many fields like education, health, agriculture, sports, tourism, etc.
5. Maharashtra has been a land of Movements. Many important movements like the Labour movement, Farmer’s movement have been initiated here.
6. Similarly, many progressive laws have been passed in Maharashtra.
7. Maharashtra is facing many challenges like terrorism, poverty, crime, Naxalite movements, etc. Even then, I feel that Maharashtra is a progressive state.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Population Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Population

Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Population Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Are the following sentences right or wrong? Correct the wrong ones.

Question a.
Literacy rate is higher in Brazil than India.
Answer:
Right.

Question b.
In Brazil, people prefer living in the south east as compared to the north east.
Answer:
Right.

Question c.
The life expectancy of Indians is decreasing.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question d.
The north-western part of India is densely populated.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question e.
The western part of Brazil is densely populated.
Answer:
Wrong

2. Answer the following questions as per the instructions:

Question a.
Arrange the following states of India in descending order of their population. Himachal Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh.
Answer:
Descending order: Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh.

Question b.
Arrange the states of Brazil in ascending order of their population: Amazonas, Rio de Janeiro,
Alagoas, Sao Paulo, Parana.
Answer:
States of Brazil: Alagoas, Amazonas, Parana, Rio de Janeiro, Sao Paulo.

Question c.
Classify the factors affecting the distribution of population into favourable and unfavourable.
Answer:

Favourable Factors	Unfavourable Factors
(1) Nearness to Sea	Lack of roads
(2) Temperate Climate	Lack of Industries
(3) New cities and towns	Tropical moist forests
(4) Minerals	Semi arid climate
(5) Cultivable land

3. Answer the following questions:

Question a.
Explain the similarities and differences between the population distribution in Brazil and India.
Answer:
(a) Similarities in population distribution in Brazil and India:

• In Brazil as well as in India, population is very unevenly distributed.
• Inaccessible dense forests and absence of facilities are the barriers to human settlements.
• North, north west and north east of both the countries are the regions of low population.
• Population is concentrated in flat fertile regions which have abundant water resources, transport facilities, mild climate and development of agriculture industries and trade in the plain region.
• Coastal regions are densely populated in Brazil and in India.

(b) Differences between population distribution in Brazil and India.

• The average density of population in India is 382 persons per sq.km, and that of Brazil is about 23 persons per sq.km.
• Though the area of both the countries is occupied by vast river basins, the distribution of population is extremely opposite in both the river basins.
• The Amazon River Basin is sparsely populated while the Ganga River Basin is densely populated.

Question b.
Giving examples, correlated to, climate and population distribution
Answer:
Climate and population distribution are closely interreleted. Temperature and rainfall, the two elements of climate greatly influence the population concentration.

(i) Dense population is found in regions with mild climate and moderate rainfall.
E.g. the coastal plains of Brazil, the northern plain as well as the coastal plains of India

(ii) Places with heavy rainfall, inaccessibility and dense forests have low population.
E.g. the interiors of the Amazon Basin in Brazil, north eastern states in India.

(iii) The snow covered regions due to extremely cold climatic conditions have less population.
E.g. the northernmost part of Jammu & Kashmir.

(iv) In certain regions, due to less rainfall and extreme climatic conditions population is sparse.
E.g. Thar desert of Rajasthan and the Drought Quadrilateral region of Brazil.

4. Give geographical reasons:

Question a.
Population is an important resource.
Answer:

• The qualitative aspects of a population are important for a nation’s economic and social progress.
• Natural resources of any country gets utilised properly because of the population.
• Economic growth and development will be slow if population resource is not utilised properly.
• Thus an optimum and quality population can bring about a country’s development.

Question b.
Brazil’s population density is very less.
Answer:

• Brazil is the fifth largest country in the world with respect to area and has a population of about 19 crores (Census 2010).
• It occupies 5.6% of world’s total land area and accounts for only 2.78% of the world’s total population.
• Thus Brazil occupies more percent of world’s land and less percent of world’s total population. Therefore,
• the density of population is very less in Brazil, i.e. around 23 persons per sq.km.

Question c.
India’s population density is high.
Answer:

• India is the second most populous country in the world, with a population of about 121 crores (Census 2011).
• India occupies only 2.41% of the land area of the world, but supports 17.5% of the world’s population.
• Thus India has less percent of world’s land and supports high percent of world’s population.
• Hence, India’s average population density is high i.e. 382 persons per sq. km.

Question d.
The density of population is sparse in the Amazon Basin.
Answer:

• The interior part of the Amazon Basin has a very unfavourable hot and humid climate.
• It receives heavy rainfall of nearly 2000 mm and has dense inaccessible forests.
• Transportation, agricultute and industries are not well developed here.
• All these factors are barriers to the development of human settlements.
• So, the density of population is sparse in the Amazon Basin.

Question e.
Population density is high in the Ganga plains.
Answer:

• Ganga plains are fertile low lying plains formed due to the deposition work of River Ganga and its tributaries.
• Mild climate, moderate rainfall and fertile soil have led to the development of agriculture and industries.
• This region also has a dense network of roadways and railways.
• So, the population density is high in the Ganga Plains.

5. Observe the following diagram and answer the following questions:

Question 5A.
Compare and classify the population densities shown in the figure ‘a’ and ‘b’ representing 1 sq. km. of area.
Answer:
In the fig. (a) density of population is 7 persons per sq. km. The region is sparsely populated.
In the fig. (b), the density of population is 18 persons per sq. km. The region is densely populated.

Question 5B.
If in figure B one sign = 100, then what will be the sex ratio?
Answer:
One symbol = 100 persons
There are 10 female symbols.
Number of females = 100 x 10
= 1000
There are 8 male symbols
Number of males = 100 x 8
= 800

Males	800	1000
Females	1000	?

Number of females = \(\frac { 1000 X 1000 }{ 800 }\)
= 1250
Sex Ratio is 1250 females per 1000 males.

Question 6.
Comment upon the population density of fig (b).
(i) fig (b) shows the population density of India as per 2011.
(ii) The density of population is divided into four categories. They are:
(a) Less than 100 persons per sq.km. .
(b) 101-250 persons per sq.km.
(c) 251-500 persons per sq.km.
(d) more than 500 persons per sq.km.
Answer:

S.No.	Population Density (per sq.km.)	Name of the States / Union Territories
(1)	less than 100	Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim.
(2)	101 to 250	Meghalaya, Manipur, Nagaland, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chattisgarh.
(3)	251 to 500	Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Odisha, Jharkhand, Assam, Tripura.
(4)	more than 501	West Bengal, Bihar, Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh,Kerala and Tamil Nadu, Delhi, Chandigarh, Puducherry, Diu, Daman, Dadra Nagar, Haveli, Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Population Intext Questions and Answers

Study the maps and answer the following questions

Question 1.
States with the highest population density.
Answer:
West Bengal, Bihar, Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.

Question 2.
On the basis of maps given above, classify the distribution population in India in the following table.
Answer:

S.No.	Population Density (per sq.km.)	Name of the States / Union Territories
(1)	less than 100	Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim.
(2)	101 to 250	Meghalaya, Manipur, Nagaland, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chattisgarh.
(3)	251 to 500	Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Odisha, Jharkhand, Assam, Tripura.
(4)	more than 501	West Bengal, Bihar, Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala and Tamil Nadu, Delhi, Chandigarh, Puducherry, Diu, Daman, Dadra Nagar, Haveli, Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Question 3.
States with lowest population density.
Answer:
Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand and Mizoram.

Question 4.
Correlate the climate and physiography of India with its population distribution and write a note on it.
Answer:
(i) Climate and population distribution are closely inter-related.

(ii) Temperature and rainfall are the two elements of climate which greatly influence the population distribution.

(iii) Dense population is found in regions with mild climate and moderate rainfall.
E.g. the northern plain as well as the coastal plains of India

(iv) Places with heavy rainfall, inaccessibility and dense forests have low population.
E.g. northeastern states in India.

(v) The snow-covered regions due to extremely cold climatic conditions have less population.
E.g. the northernmost part of Jammu and Kashmir.

(vi) In certain regions, due to less rainfall and extreme climatic conditions population is sparse.
E.g. Westernmost part of India in the Thar desert, Rajasthan.

Question 1.
In which area is population greatly concentrated?
Answer:
Population is greatly concentrated in the south eastern part of Brazil.

Question 2.
In which area is the distribution of population sparse?
Answer:
The Amazon Basin in the nothern part and the central and western parts of Brazil have sparse distribution of population.

Question 3.
Prepare a note on factors responsible for the uneven distribution of population based on the study of Brazil you have made so far.
Answer:
The distribution of population in Brazil is uneven:

• There is sparse population in the Amazon Basin due to hot and humid climate, heavy rainfall, dense forests, inaccessibility.
• The population is low in the swampy areas of Pantanal.
• Low population is found in the central and western part of Brazil due to lack of minerals, low rainfall, hot and dry climatic conditions.
• The distribution of population is moderate in Brazilian Highlands.
• High population is found in the coastal regions and the southern part of Brazil. This is due to flat fertile land and abundant availability of minerals due to which agriculture, industries and trade have developed.

Question 4.
Identify the type of map showing distribution fig. (a) of textbook.
Answer:
The type of map showing distribution of population is a dot map.

Question 5.
On the basis of the map (b), classify the distribution of population in Brazil in the following table.:

S. No.	Population Density	Names of the places
(1)	Less than 50	Acre, Amazonas, Roraima, Rondonia, Para, Amapa, Mata Grasso, Mato Grasso Do Sul, Goias, Tocantins, Maranhao, Piaui, Bahia, Minas Gerais, Rio Gande Do Sul
(2)	51 -100	Paraiba, Pamambuco, Parana, Santa Catarina, Sergipe, Rio Grande Do Norte, Ceara
(3)	101 -150	Alagoas
(4)	151 – 300	Sao Paulo
(5)	More than 300	Rio de Janerio, Brasilia

USE YOUR BRAIN POWER

Question 1.
Calculate the population density of the area shown in 1 sq.km, of square in ‘a’ and ‘b’ each

Answer:
(a) In fig. (a) there are 16
Each = 80 people
Total number of people = 16 x 80 = 1280
Fig. (a) has a population density of 1280 people per sq. km.

(b) In fig. (b) there are 23
Each = 80 people
Total number of people = 23 x 80 = 1840
Fig. (b) has a population density of 1840 people per sq. km.

GIVE IT A TRY

Question 1.
What could be the reasons of lower sex ratio in any region?
Answer:
With reference to both the countries, the characteristics of population are prominently notable.

• The sex ratio of Brazil has been more than 1000 since decades.
• Considering the sex ratio of Brazil, the number of women have considerably increaesed than men since 2001.
• In India men outnumber women.
• In India we see fluctuations in the sex ratio since few decades. There has been a slight increase in the sex ratio after 1991.

Question 2.
Write a similar conversation using the graph

Answer:
A: What do these graphs show?

B: These graphs show the literacy rate of India and Brazil.

A: What do you mean by literacy rate?

B: It means the total percentage of the population of an area at a particular time aged seven years or above ‘ who can read and write with understanding.

A: It means that, as on today’s date, the literacy rate of our country is 72.2%.

B: But, Brazil had an even higher literacy rate decades back in 1981, i.e. 74.6% and it has touched 92.6 as of today (2018), which is quite commendable.

A: Yes, definitely But, we have also seen a steady growth in the literacy rate of the country, especially, during the period between 1991 and 2011.

B: Still, though we are growing, we are way behind Brazil today with 72.2% because they have a much higher literacy percentage of 92.6.

A: What measures can be adopted to increase the literacy rate of our country?

B: We can make people aware of the need and importance of education, help in teaching them, introducing various literacy campaigns by making use of free calls, free sms services, etc.

Question 3.
Study the indices of density maps of both the countries. What difference do you find? What conclusions can you draw?

Answer:
(i) India’s density of population is proportionately catered while Brazil’s density of population is concentrated only on the eastern coast.
(ii) After studying the indices of the density maps of both the countries, we can conclude that India’s population density is much higher than that of Brazil.
(iii) The lowest value on the map of India indicates less than 100 whereas on the Brazil map it is less than 50.
(iv) Places in Brazil which are highest in density is grouped in the category of more than 300 people’ per sq. km. whereas in India it is more than 500 persons per sq. km.

Question 4.
Considering the above discussion, what should be done so that our manpower is utilized properly, sex ratio improves and population growth is controlled? Write two to three sentences on each.
Answer:
(i) Measures to utilise man power properly:

• Good education, health and training facilities are the basic requirements to improve human resources.
• The focus of education should not just be to chum out jobseekers but also to chum out job creators.
• The young population should be encouraged to be entrepreneurs.

(ii) Measures to improve sex ratio:

• Build an environment to save and protect the girl child.
• Ban sex determination test.

(iii) Measures to control population growth:

• Family planning measures to be encouraged through media.
• Spread of education among illiterate masses, especially about the benefits of having a small family.
• Child marriage should be strictly prohibited.

TRY THIS

Age and Sex Pyramid:

Question 1.
What is this figure called? What is it always known as?
Answer:
The figure is called the Age-Sex Pyramid. It is also known as Population Pyramid.

Question 2.
What does the graph depict?
Answer:
The graph depicts the percentage of male and female population of various age groups in Brazil & India for the year 2016.

Question 3.
In which country is the proportion of adults more?
Answer:
The proportion of adults is comparatively more in India.

Question 4.
‘This country’s population is getting slowly older’. Which country is being referred to? Why?
Answer:
‘This country’s population is getting slowly older – The country being referred to is Brazil. As compared to India, a larger percentage of Brazil’s population falls in the above 60 years age group. So it is said that Brazil’s population is getting slowly older.

Question 5.
In which country are the number of children comparatively more?
Answer:
The proportion of children is comparatively more in India.

Question 6.
While comparing the age-sex pyramids, which pyramid has a broader base?
Answer:
While comparing the age-sex pyramids, India’s pyramid has a broader base.

USE YOUR BRAIN POWER

Question 1.
Is there a relationship between increase in life expectancy and growth of population ? How?
Answer:
(i) Yes, there is a relationship between increase in life expectancy and growth of population.
(ii) Increased life expectancy means there are more people who live longer, which means healthier and better quality of life.
(iii) This kind of population generally prefers fewer children which leads to decreased birth rates.

Question 2.
If the proportion of dependent age groups increases in the composition of population, how will it affect the economy of a country?
Ans.
(i) If the proportion of dependent age groups increases in the composition of population, it will have an adverse effect on the economy of a country.
(ii) The reason is if the working population is less, the economic activities will reduce and will have a direct impact on the economic growth and development of that nation.
(iii) The production will decrease in comparison to consumption leading to inflation also the per capita income and GDP will decrease.
(iv) Export will reduce and imports will increase.
(v) The proportion of the working population will increase, slowing down the pace of development.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Population Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
The ______ aspects of a population are important for a nation’s economic and social progress.
(a) quantitative
(b) qualitative
(c) measurable
(d) calculable
Answer:
(b) qualitative

Question 2.
India is the ________ most populous country in the world.
(a) second
(b) fifth
(c) seventh
(d) sixth
Answer:
(a) second

Question 3.
Due to farming, industries and trade, the proportion of the population got in _____ a few places.
(a) distributed
(b) sparse
(c) concentrated
(d) equal
Answer:
(c) concentrated

Question 4.
In mountainous / hilly regions, dry desert areas and densely forested areas, population density is __________ because of inaccessibility, absence of facilities and tough life.
(a) high
(b) very high
(c) sparse
(d) moderate
Answer:
(c) sparse

Question 5.
Brazil is the _______ populated country in the continent of South America.
(a) second most
(b) third most
(c) fifth most
(d) most
Answer:
(d) most

Question 6.
With a population of around 19 crores, according to Census 2010, Brazil ranks _______ in the world.
(a) 3rd
(b) 5th
(c) 7th
(d) 9th
Answer:
(b) 5th

Question 7.
With respect to area, Brazil stands _______ in the world.
(a) 3rd
(b) 5th
(c) 7th
(d) 9th
Answer:
(b) 5th

Question 8.
A majority of Brazilians have concentrated within 300 kilometers of the ________.
(a) Guyana highlands
(b) Amazon river,
(c) Eastern coastal areas
(d) Pantanal wetlands
Answer:
(c) Eastern coastal areas

Question 9.
The interior of the Amazon basin is ____ populated.
(a) densely
(b) moderately
(c) highly
(d) very sparsely
Answer:
(d) very sparsely

Question 10.
The central and western parts of Brazil is ______ populated.
(a) densely
(b) sparsely
(c) moderately
(d) less
Answer:
(d) less

Question 11.
The density of population in the _______ of Brazil is moderate.
(a) Amazon Basin
(b) coastal lowlands
(c) highlands
(d) forested areas
Answer:
(c) highlands

Question 12.
In India, there has been a _______ in the sex ratio, after 1991.
(a) decrease
(b) slight increase
(c) consistency
(d) steep increase
Answer:
(b) slight increase

Question 13.
The proportion of _______ in India is more.
(a) middle-aged people
(b) old people
(c) children
(d) youth
Answer:
(d) youth

Question 14.
The rate of population growth is now ______ in India.
(a) increasing
(b) declining
(c) stable
(d) stagnant
Answer:
(b) declining

Question 15.
It is observed that Brazil’s population may not increase in the next ______ decades.
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) five
Answer:
(a) two

Question 16.
The eastern coastal areas of Brazil are also called the coastal ________.
(a) lowlands
(b) highlands
(c) ravines
(d) badlands
Answer:
(a) lowlands

Question 17.
In most of the developing countries life expectancy is still less, but with socio economic development it is ________.
(a) decreasing
(b) increasing
(c) gradually declining
(d) steeply increasing
Answer:
(b) increasing

Match the columns:

S.No	Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1)	Coastal lowlands	(a) sparsely populated
(2)	Amazon Basin interior	(b) moderately populated
(3)	Highlands	(c) densely populated (within 300 kms. of the area)

Answer:
1 – c
2 – a
3 – b

Answer the following questions in one or two sentence.

Question 1.
According to Census 2011, what is India’s population and how much is its average population density?
Answer:
According to Census 2011 India’s population is around 121 crores, and its average population density is 382 persons per sq. km.

Question 2.
What percentage of the total land area of the world is occupied by India and Brazil?
Answer:
India occupies only 2.41% of the land area of the world, whereas Brazil occupies 5.6% of the world’s total land area.

Question 3.
What is the difference in the percentage of the world population supported by India and Brazil?
Answer:
India supports 17.5% of the world’s population, whereas Brazil supports 2.78% of the world’s total population. The difference is 14.72% (India has a large population than Brazil)

Question 4.
According to Census 2010, what is the total population of Brazil and what is its average population density?
Answer:
According to Census 2010, Brazil’s total population is around 19 crores and its average population density is 23 persons per sq. km.

Question 5.
What is sex ratio?
Answer:
Sex ratio means, the number of females per 1000 males in a region.

Question 6.
What is a population pyramid?
Answer:
A population pyramid, also called age-sex pyramid, is a graphical illustration that shows the age and sek/gender related aspects of various age groups in a population.

Question 7.
How is the population pyramid useful? OR State the uses of a population pyramid.
Answer:

• The population pyramid is used to study the age and sex related aspects of a region’s population
• We can know the number/percentage of various age groups of males and females in a country.
• It also helps us to know the proportion of children, youth and old people in a country.

Question 8.
What is life expectancy?
Answer:
Life expectancy means the average number of years, a person born in a country is expected to live.

Question 9.
Which factors lead to an increase in average life expectancy?
Answer:
Improvement in medical facilities, progress in the medical field and access to nutritious food lead to an increase in average life expectancy.

Name the following:

Question 1.
Indian cities that are densely populated.
Answer:
Delhi, Kolkata, Mumbai, Pune, Bengaluru, Chennai.

Question 2.
Factors that play an important role in the distribution of population.
Answer:
Physiography and climate.

Question 3.
Factors due to which human settlements have been established for many centuries.
Answer:
Fertile land, plain land and availability of water.

Question 4.
Factors due to which population got concentrated in a few places, in India.
Answer:
Farming, industries and trade.

Question 5.
Areas which have sparse population density in India.
Answer:
Mountainous / hilly regions, dry desert areas, dense forest areas.

Question 6.
Factors due to which population density is sparse in a few areas.
Answer:
Inaccessibility, absence of facilities and tough life.

Question 7.
The most populated country in South American.
Answer:
Brazil.

Question 8.
Brazil’s rank in the world with regard to population as well as land area.
Answer:
Fifth.

Question 9.
The part of Brazil has the maximum concentration of population
Answer:
Eastern coastal areas or coastal lowlands.

Question 10.
The part of Brazil that is sparsely populated.
Answer:
Amazon River Basin.

Question 11.
The region of Brazil that is moderately populated.
Answer:
The Highlands.

Question 12.
The parts of Brazil that are less populated.
Answer:
Central, western and interior of Amazon basin.

Question 13.
Out of Brazil and India, the country where men outnumber women.
Answer:
India.

Question 14.
Increase in this factor is an indicator of development of that society.
Answer:
Life expectancy, Sex Ratio and Literacy Rate.

Question 15.
The development of this aspect of an economy leads to an increase in average life expectancy.
Answer:
Socio-economic development.

Are the following sentences right or wrong?

Question 1.
India is the fifth most populous country in the world.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 2.
India’s average population density is 832 persons per sq. km. as per the 2011 Census.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 3.
Brazil is the second-most populous country in the World.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 4.
Brazil ranks fifth in the world with respect to area.
Answer:
Right.

Question 5.
The total population of Brazil is around 91 crores.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 6.
In Brazil and India, population is evenly distributed.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 7.
The central and western part of Brazil are less populated.
Answer:
Right.

Question 8.
The sex ratio of Brazil has been less than 1000 since centuries.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 9.
It is observed that in Brazil, the rate of population growth is increasing.
Answer:
Wrong.

Fill the map with the given information:

Question 1.
On a map of India, show the following.

1. Largest state areawise.
2. Smallest state areawise.
3. State with highest population.
4. State with lowest population.
5. State having highest density of population.
6. State having lowest density of population.
7. State having highest sex ratio.
8. State having lowest sex ratio.
9. State having highest literacy rate.
10. State having lowest literacy rate.

Answer:

Question 2.
On a map of Brazil, show the following.

1. Largest state areawise.
2. Smallest state areawise.
3. State with highest population.
4. State with lowest population.
5. State having highest density of population,
6. State having lowest density of population.

Answer:

Give geographical reasons:

Question 1.
In India, population is very unevenly distributed.
Answer:
(i) In India, population is very unevenly distributed.
(ii) Physiography and climate play an important role in the distribution of population.
(iii) Due to fertile land, plain land and availability of water, human settlements have been established in some parts for many centuries.
(iv) Due to farming, industries and trade, the . proportion of the population has become concentrated in a few places.
(v) For example, the Northern Plains of the country, Delhi, Kolkata, Mumbai, Pune, Bengaluru, Chennai, etc.
(vi) On the contrary, in mountainous / hilly regions, dry desert areas, dense forest areas, density is sparse because of inaccessibility, absence of facilities and tough life.

Question 2.
The distribution of population is very uneven in Brazil.
Answer:
(i) The distribution of population is very uneven in Brazil. .
(ii) A majority of the Brazilians are concentrated within 300 kilometers of the eastern coastal areas also called the coastal lowlands because agriculture and industries are well developed here.
(iii) In the interior of the Amazon Basin population is very sparse due to.
(iv) Unfavourable climate, heavy rainfall,
inaccessibility and dense forests which are the barriers to development of human settlements here.
(v) The central and western part of Brazil is less moderate.

Question 3.
The average life expectancy in India is increasing.
Answer:
(i) Earlier the average life expectancy in India was low due to, lack of medical facilities which lead to high incidence of diseases and epidemics like chicken pox, malaria, cholera, etc.
(ii) Today with improvement in access to medical facilities and improvement in technology, diseases and epidemics are controlled.
(iii) Also today people in India have an improved standard of living, they eat nutritious food and there is awareness of good health.
All this has led to increase in average life expectancy in India.

Question 4.
In north-eastern India, sparse distribution of population is found.
Answer:
(i) North East India comprises of dense forests and uneven topography.
(ii) There exist unfavourable climatic conditions in this part.
(iii) There is less development of transport, communication and industries here.
So, in north-eastern India, sparse distribution of population is found.

Question 5.
In India, number of men outnumber women. Is this condition found in all the states of India?
Answer:
In India, men outnumber women, on an average. But in Kerala women outnumber men. Sex Ratio of Kerala is 1084 females per 1000 males (2011 Census).

Question 6.
Explain the reasons of low sex ratio in India.
Answer:
Some of the reasons for lower sex ratio in any region are:

• Illiteracy: Narrow mindedness and lack of education leads to gender bias in the society.
• Preference for a male child : There is preference of a boy child over a girl child. Nutrition to girls is ignored.
• Poverty: Povertystruck families do not prefer a girl child as they consider female child a burden due to practices like dowry prevalent in the society.
• Female foeticide and female infanticide: Female foeticide and female infanticide are on the rise due to the wrong use of modem technology.
• Maternity deaths: Higher maternity deaths have lowered the sex ratio.

Question 7.
Explain – The growth rate of population in India is decreasing but population is increasing.
Answer:
(i) Growth rate of population is calculated on the basis of difference between birth rate and death rate.
(ii) Earlier the difference between birth rate and death rate was high, so the growth rate was high.
(iii) Today the growth rate is decreasing because the difference between birth rate and death rate is not as high as it was earlier.
So it is said that in India the growth rate of population is decreasing, but the population is increasing.

Question 8.
Explain the uneven distribution of population in India.
Answer:
(i) Dense population is found in regions with mild climate and moderate rainfall. E.g. the northern plain as well as the coastal plains of India
(ii) Places with heavy rainfall, inaccessibility and dense forests have low population. E.g. north eastern states in India.
(iii) The snow covered regions due to extremely cold climatic conditions have less population. E.g. the northernmost part of Jammu & Kashmir.
(iv) In certain regions, due to less rainfall and extreme climatic conditions population is sparse. E.g. westernmost part of India in the Thar desert, Rajasthan.
(v) Moderate population is found in the plateau regions of Narmada valley.

Try this

Population growth rate graphs :
Look at the graphs in Fig. indicating the population growth rate of Brazil and India and answer the following questions.

Question 1.
What is the common feature in both the graphs?
Answer:
Both the graphs are indicating a downward trend in population growth rate of Brazil and India.

Question 2.
What is India’s growth rate of population in 2011?
Answer:
India’s population growth rate in 2011 is 1.5%.

Question 3.
In which two decades has the population growth rate of India remained almost stable?
Answer:
The population growth rate of India has remained almost stable during the two decades 1971 to 1981 and 1981 to 1991.

Question 4.
From which time period has Brazil seen a sharp decline in the population growth rate?
Answer:
From 1980-1990, Brazil has seen a sharp decline in the population growth rate.

Question 5.
What is the main point of difference between the two graphs?
Answer:
(i) In the first decade between 1961-1971 the growth rate in India showed an upward trend whereas Brazil has a downward trend throughout.
(ii) Also the decline in Brazil is more sharp but India’s decline in the growth rate is marginal.

Question 6.
What is the interesting feature of Brazil’s growth rate of population?
Answer:
The interesting feature of Brazil’s population growth rate is that it is about to touch 0.0 and then will begin its negative growth rate i.e. the population will start decreasing.

Observe the figure carefully and answer the following questions given below.

Question 1.
What is the class interval of the data?
Answer:
The class interval of the data is 10 years.

Question 2.
In which decade was India’s life expectancy the highest?
Answer:
Highest life expectancy in India was in the decade of 1960-1970.

Question 3.
In which year has the difference in the life expectancy between Brazil and India been the maximum? By how much?
Answer:
In the year I960, the difference between the life expectancy of Brazil and India has been the maximum by 13 years. (54 – 51)

Question 4.
Has the difference in life expectancy been increasing or decreasing?
Answer:
During the past 36 years, i.e. from 1980 onwards, the difference between the life expectancy of Brazil and India has remained constant. It has been 7 to 8 years.

Question 5.
What is the similarity between both the graphs?
Answer:
Both India and Brazil have experienced an increase in the life expectancy. Both the graphs indicate an upward trend continuously.

Question 6.
Is the increase in life expectancy a positive or a negative indicator of an economy? Why?
Answer:
The increase in life expectancy is a positive indicator for any economy because longer the people’s average age, longer is their contribution towards the growth of an economy.

Based on the figure, observe carefully and answer the questions given below.

Question 1.
What do the graphs indicate?
Answer:
The graphs indicate the literacy rate of India and Brazil (in percentage).

Question 2.
What is this general conclusion that you can come to, after observing both the graphs?
Answer:
On observing both the graphs, we can conclude that Brazil is and has always been way ahead of India with regard to literacy rate.

Question 3.
Which country has higher literacy rate?
Answer:
Brazil has a higher literacy rate.

Question 4.
What was the literacy rate of Brazil in 2011?
Answer:
Brazil had a literacy rate of 91.4% in 2011.

Question 5.
What is the difference in the literacy rate of Brazil and India in 2016?
Answer:
Literacy rate of Brazil and India had a difference of 20.4% (92.6 – 72.2) in 2016.

Question 6.
What is the difference in the literacy rate of India between the years 2001 and 2011?
Answer:
The difference in the literacy rate of India is 8.3% (69.3 – 61) between the years 2001 and 2011.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 14 Formation of State of Maharashtra Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 14 Formation of State of Maharashtra

Class 8 History Chapter 14 Formation of State of Maharashtra Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options:

Question 1.
The State of …………….. was formed on 1 May, 1960.
(a) Goa
(b) Karnataka
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Maharashtra
Answer:
(d) Maharashtra

Question 2.
…………….. put forth the proposal of Samyukta Maharashtra with Mumbai in the Mumbai Municipal Corporation.
(a) G. T. Madkholkar
(b) Acharya Atre
(c) D. V. Potdar
(d) Shankarrao Dev
Answer:
(b) Acharya Atre

Question 3.
…………….. accepted the responsibility as first Chief Minister of Maharashtra.
(a) Yashwantrao Chavan
(b) Pruthviraj Chavan
(c) Shankarrao Chavan
(d) Vilasrao Deshmukh
Answer:
(a) Yashwantrao Chavan

2. Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti came to be established.
Answer:

1. The demand for a state of Marathi speaking people of all regions was put forth in the Nagpur Pact in 1953.
2. There was no positive response from the Central Government for formation of Samyukta Maharashtra with Mumbai.
3. The agitation was made severe through strikes, demonstrations, rallies, etc. which were organised from time to time.
4. As the issue of the demand of Marathi speaking people started becoming complicated, discontent spread throughout the state.
5. A meeting was held under the leadership of Keshavrao Jedhe on 6 February, 1956 at Tilak Smarak Mandir in Pune and the Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti was formed.

Question 2.
The role of newspapers was important in Samyukta Maharashtra Movement.
Answer:

1. The role of newspapers was equally important in Samyukta Maharashtra Movement. They worked to awaken the people.
2. Navyug, Prabhat, Navakal, Sakai, Prabodhan, Kesari are newspapers which played important role.
3. The ‘Maratha’ newspaper by Acharya Atre had a significant role in Samyukta Maharashtra movement.
4. Balasaheb Thackeray took pen name ‘Mavla’ and drew caricatures in ‘Navyug’.
5. Lokshahir Annabhau Sathe, Shahir Amar Sheikh and Shahir D. N. Gavankar aroused public awakening on a large scale through their writings.

3. Write short notes:

Question 1.
Samyukta Maharashtra Parishad:
Answer:

1. On 12 May 1946, a resolution was passed regarding Samyukta Maharashtra in the Sahitya Sammelan at Belgaon.
2. On this background, Maharashtra Ekikaran Parishad was convened under the leadership of Shankarrao Dev at Mumbai on 28 July.
3. A resolution was passed that all Marathi speaking regions should be united in one state.
4. It should include the regions of Mumbai, Central provinces Marathwada and Gomantak.

Question 2.
Contribution of Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti:
Answer:
Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti f contributed in the following way to form Samyukta Maharashtra.
1. Samyukta Maharashtra movement spread throughout the state and reached in rural areas.
2. Common people also joined the movement spontaneously.
3. When it was clear that Mumbai will not be included in Maharashtra, Samiti held demonstrations to protest and arouse public agitation.
4. The grand success of Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti in Lok Sabha, Vidhan Sabha and Mumbai Municipal Corporation in 1957 made it clear that the voters were in favour of Samyukta Maharashtra.
5. The agitations led by Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti during the visit of Prime Minister Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru made the approach of Central Government favourable in the formation of Maharashtra state.

4. Complete the following diagram.

Question 1.

Answer:

Do you Know?

Contribution of Marathi newspapers and Shahirs: In this movement the role of newspapers was important. Prabodhan, Kesari, Sakal, Navakal, Navyug, Prabhat many such newspapers worked for awakening of the people. Acharya Atre started the ‘Maratha’ newspaper which played an important role in Samyukta Maharashtra Movement.

Balasaheb Thackeray took up the pen name ‘Mavia’ and drew caricatures to make the movement comprehensive. Lokshahir Annabhau Sathe, Shahir Amar Sheikh and Shahir D.N.Gavankar through their writings aroused public awakening on a large scale.

Project:

Collect information about the personalities who greatly contributed to the formation of Maharashtra and prepare a project based on it with the help of your teachers.

Class 8 History Chapter 14 Formation of State of Maharashtra Additional Important Questions and Answers

Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options:

Question 1.
………………… organised rallies to protest against the report of JVP Committee.
(a) Sane Guruji
(b) P. K. Atre
(c) Senapati Bapat
(d) Prabodhankar Thackeray
Answer:
(c) Senapati Bapat

Question 2.
…………….. established Dar Commission for forming linguistic province.
(a) Morarji Desai
(b) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) Yashwantrao Chavan
Answer:
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Question 3.
According to 1953 Pact, Assembly session would be held once in a year at …………….
(a) Pune
(b) Mumbai
(c) Nagpur
(d) Aurangabad
Answer:
(c) Nagpur

Question 4.
Police used lathi charge and tear …………….. gas on the March led by
(a) Bhai Madhavrao Bagal
(b) Comrade Shripad Amrut Dange
(c) S.M. Joshi
(d) Senapati Bapat
Answer:
(d) Senapati Bapat

Question 5.
Acharya Atre started the newspaper …………….. which played an important role in Samyukta Maharashtra Movement.
(a) Navyug
(b) Prabodhan
(c) Maratha
(d) Navakal
Answer:
(c) Maratha

Name the following:

Question 1.
Demanded reconstruction of a state based on language in 1915.
Answer:
Lokmanya Tilak

Question 2.
Commission which advocated bilingual Mumbai.
Answer:
‘Commission for Reconstruction of States’

Question 3.
Samiti established at Tilak Smarak Mandir, Pune.
Answer:
Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti

Question 4.
The Act passed by the Parliament in April 1960.
Answer:
Mumbai Reorganisation Act.

Answer the following questions in one sentence:

Question 1.
What was the appeal made by Shankarrao Dev in the meeting held on Kamgar Maidan?
Answer:
Shankarrao Dev appealed to the people in the following words, “We will oppose the separation of Mumbai from Maharashtra up to our last breath.”

Question 2.
What was the suggestion given by the Commission for Reconstruction of States?
Answer:
The Commission for Reconstruction of States suggested creation of bilingual Mumbai State.

Question 3.
What was the resolution proposed by S. M. Joshi on 7 November, 1955 at the meeting of labourers?
Answer:
At the meeting of the labourers on 7 November, 1955 S. M. Joshi proposed a resolution that Samyukta Maharashtra should be created with Mumbai and Vidarbha.

Question 4.
Where was the memorial of 106 martyrs erected? What is it called?
Answer:
The memorial of 106 martyrs was erected in Mumbai near Flora Fountain. It is called ‘Flutatma Smarak.’

Question 5.
Who played an important role in establishing Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti?
Answer:
Acharya P K. Atre, Madhu Dandavate, Prabodhankar Keshav Thackeray, Y. K. Souni played important role in establishing Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti.

Question 6.
Name the lokshahirs who aroused awakening among people during Samyukta Maharashtra Movement.
Answer:
Lokshahirs Annabhau Sathe, Shahir Amar Sheikh and Shahir D. N. Gavankar aroused public awakening among the people during Samyukta Maharashtra Movement.

Do as Directed:

Complete the following diagram:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Complete the table:

Question 1.

Foundation year	Name of the Commission/Samiti	Name of the President
1. 28 July	……………………………………….	Shankarrao Dev
2. …………………………	Dar Commission	Justice S. R. Dar
3. 29 December, 1943	………………………………………..	Justice Fazal Ali
4. 6 February, 1956	Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti	…………………………….

Answer:

Foundation year	Name of the Commission/Samiti	Name of the President
1. 28 July	Maharashtra Ekikaran Parishad	Shankarrao Dev
2. 17 June, 1947	Dar Commission	Justice S. R. Dar
3. 29 December, 1943	Commission for Reconstruction of States	Justice Fazal Ali
4. 6 February, 1956	Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti	Comrade Shripad Amrut Dange

Write short notes:

Question 1.
Dar Commission:
Answer:

1. The President of Constituent Assembly, Dr. Rajendra Prasad established the Dar Commission on 17 June, 1947.
2. The Commission started the work under the leadership of Justice S. K. Dar to form states on linguistic basis.
3. On 10 December, 1948, the report of Dar Commission was published but the issue remained unsolved.

Question 2.
Commission for Reconstruction of States:
Answer:

1. Indian Government appointed a ‘Commission for Reconstruction of States’ on 29 December, 1953.
2. It was formed under the Chairmanship of Justice Fazal Ali.
3. In the proposal presented by the commission on 10 October, 1955, a creation of bilingual Mumbai State was advocated.

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
What started the demand for an independent state of Marathi speaking people?
Answer:

1. The demand for an independent Marathi speaking state started before independence.
2. N. C. Kelkar presented the idea that the entire Marathi speaking population should be under one dominion.
3. In 1915, Lokmanya Tilak demanded the reconstruction of a state based on language.
4. An important resolution regarding Samyukta Maharashtra was passed in the Sahitya Sammelan at Belgaon. It began the movement to form Independent state of Marathi speaking people.

Question 2.
Write information on the workers meeting held on 7 November, 1955.
Answer:

1. The struggle of Marathi speaking people for formation of Maharashtra with Mumbai had started.
2. On 7 November, 1955 a meeting of labourers was held.
3. Labour Organisation or Communists, Praja Socialists, Socialists, Peasants and Workers Party, Janasangh, etc. participated in the meeting.
4. Comrade Shripad Amrut Dange was the President of this meeting.
5. S. M. Joshi proposed a resolution to create a Samyukta Maharashtra with Mumbai and Vidarbha.

Question 3.
What were the provisions in the Nagpur Pact?
Answer:
The following provisions were made in the Nagpur Pact:

1. Samyukta Maharashtra should be formed including Western Maharashtra 8 and Vidarbha along with Marathwada.
2. Assurance was given regarding equitable financial provisions for development.
3. Ample finance will be provided for technical and vocational education.
4. Government services will be provided in accordance with the population in the region.
5. Once in a year an Assembly session will be held at Nagpur.

Question 4.
What happened on the day a grand march was taken to Vidhan Sabha?
Answer:

1. For the formation of Samyukta Maharashtra, a grand march was taken to the Vidhan Sabha led by Senapati Bapat.
2. The government declared a ban.
3. The police started lathi charge and used tear gas on the protestors who broke the ban.
4. On the same evening, Comrade Shripad Dange guided a mob of fifty thousand on Kamgar Maidan.
5. To give impetus to the Samyukta Maharashtra Movement, it was further decided to hold one day strike on 21 November, 1955.

Question 5.
Which events took place in the final stages of establishment of Maharashtra state?
Answer:
The following events took place in the final stages of establishment of Maharashtra state:

1. Due to agitation of Samyukta Maharashtra Movement, central government gave consent to the formation of two linguistic states.
2. The Congress President, Indira Gandhi also supported the Samyukta Maharashtra Movement.
3. In April 1960, the Parliament passed the Mumbai Reorganisation Act.
4. According to this act, Maharashtra State was formed on 1st May, 1960.
5. Pandit Nehru on the occasion of Labour Day made a formal announcement of the formation of Maharashtra State at a special ceremony at Raj Bhavan.
6. Yashwantrao Chavan accepted the responsibility of first Chief Minister of Maharashtra.

Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
Severe response was seen 9, throughout Maharashtra against JVP Committee report.
Answer:

1. The Congress appointed a three ministers committee on 29 December, 1948 to study the conditions of creating linguistic provinces.
2. The report suggested that Congress accepted the concept of linguistic state in principle but the time was not proper for it.
3. Due to this, severe response of the people was seen throughout Maharashtra against JVP Committee report.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
How did the Central Government favour Maharashtra’s movement under the leadership of Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti?
Answer:

1. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru was going to unveil statue of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj mounted on a horse on Pratapgad on 30 November, 1957.
2. Under the leadership of Bhai Madhavrao Bagal, Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti held huge demonstrations.
3. Leaders like S. M. Joshi, N. G. Gore, Jayantrao Tilak, R K. Atre participated in the protest at Pasarni Ghat and Poladpur.
4. Pandit Nehru became aware of sentiments of the Marathi speaking people.
5. The Congress President Indira Gandhi supported the Samyukta Maharashtra Movement.
6. Finally, the Central government gave consent for formation of two states-Gujarat and Maharashtra from former Mumbai (Bombay) state

Question 2.
Observe the given picture and identify. Write about his contribution in Samyukta Maharashtra.

Answer:

1. This picture is of Acharya R K. Atre. He made important contribution to Samyukta Maharashtra Movement.
2. He played important role in formation of Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti.
3. He presented and supported the pro- united Maharashtra Movement through his newspaper ‘Maratha’.
4. He was in the forefront of the demonstrations at Pasarni Ghat and Poladpur during the visit of Prime Minister Pandit Nehru at Pratapgad.

Question 3.
What are the advantages and disadvantages of linguistic reorganisation of states?
Answer:
Advantages:

1. The feeling of unity is very strong among the people speaking common language.
2. It guarantees social security.
3. It facilitates communication between people.
4. It helps in achieving linguistic and cultural unity.

Disadvantages:

1. Linguistic reorganisation may narrow perspective of the people.
2. Excessive pride in one’s language creates hatred towards other language.
3. Learning other languages and enjoying the literature never takes places.
4. It creates hurdles in social and cultural development.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Civics Solutions Chapter 4 The Indian Judicial System Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Civics Solutions Chapter 4 The Indian Judicial System

Class 8 Civics Chapter 4 The Indian Judicial System Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Choose the correct option and complete the statements:

Question 1.
Laws are made by …………………. .
(a) Legislature
(b) Council of Ministers
(c) Judiciary
(d) Executive
Answer:
(a) Legislature

Question 2.
The Chief Justice of Supreme Court is appointed by the …………………… .
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Home Minister
(d) Law Minister
Answer:
(b) President

2. Explain the concepts:

Question 1.
Judicial Review:
Answer:

1. The Constitution is the fundamental law of the nation and to protect it is the prime responsibility of the Supreme Court.
2. The Parliament cannot pass any law that violates the Constitution.
3. Every act or policy made by the Executive should be consistent with the Constitution.
4. If any law passed by the Legislature or any act of the Executive violates any provision of the Constitution, the said law or act is declared illegal.
5. So, it is struck down by the Supreme Court.
6. This power of the Supreme Court is known as Judicial Review.

Question 2.
Public Interest Litigation (PIL):
Answer:

1. Public Interest Litigation (PIL) refers to litigations filed on issues of public importance and issues related to the welfare of the people.
2. It can be filed by individual citizens, social organisation or Non-Governmental Organisations (NGOs) on behalf of all the people.
3. Issues related to rehabilitation of people who have lost their homes/lands, protection of environment, protection of the weaker sections of society, etc. have been effectively handled through PIL.
4. PILs are effective tool which require minimum expenditure and get immediate justice.

3. Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Civil Law:
Answer:

1. It is one of the two main branches of law.
2. It deals with conflicts which affect or interfere with the rights of an individual.
3. Conflicts regarding land and property, rent agreement, divorce, etc. are included under Civil law.
4. After filing a petition in the relevant court, the court gives a decision.

Question 2.
Criminal Law:
Answer:

1. Serious crimes are dealt under Criminal law.
2. Crimes like theft, robbery, dowry, murder, etc. are included under Criminal law.
3. In these cases, the first step is to file a ‘First Information Report’ (FIR) with the police, who investigate the matter and file a petition in the court.
4. If the charges are proved, there are provisions for severe punishment.

4. Answer in brief:

Question 1.
Why are laws necessary in society?
Answer:

1. Differences in opinions, thoughts, perspectives, different cultures of people give rise to conflicts. These conflicts can be resolved impartially by the Judiciary.
2. Social justice and equality in society can be established with the help of law.
3. It also helps to bring weaker sections of the society, women, children differently-abled and transgenders into the mainstream of the society.
4. Law helps the common man to get the benefits of values of freedom, equality and democracy.
5. Law helps to protect the rights of the people.
6. It prevents emergence of repressive and authoritarian groups and individuals.
   Hence, laws are necessary in society.

Question 2.
Enumerate the functions of the Supreme Court.
Answer:
The functions of the Supreme Court are as follows:

1. As a federal court, it has the responsibility to settle disputes between the centre and the states; and states on one side and states on the other.
2. It gives orders to relevant authorities to protect the fundamental rights of the people.
3. It has the power to review decrees and orders of the lower courts and also review its own decisions.
4. It provides necessary advice to the President if he/she asks for advice to understand the legal aspects in matters of public importance.

Question 3.
Which are the provisions that preserve the independence of the judiciary?
Answer:
The Constitution has made following provisions to preserve the independence of the judiciary:

1. To avoid any political pressure, judges are appointed by the President.
2. Judges enjoy the security of tenure. They cannot be removed from the post for trivial reasons or for political motives.
3. The salaries of the judges are drawn from the Consolidated Fund of India. No discussion regarding this takes place in the Parliament.
4. Personal criticism cannot be made on judges for their acts and decisions. It is considered as contempt of court and is a punishable offence.
5. The Parliament cannot discuss the decisions of the judges.

5. Complete the table:

Question 1.

Answer:

See this example:

1. The court had asked the candidates contesting in elections to declare their property and income details and educational qualifications through or affidavit.
2. The idea behind this was to ensure that the voters will vote on the basis of accurate information about the candidates.
3. This is an attempt to make our election process more transparent.
4. It is mandatory for the contesting candidates to declare whether there are any charges filed against them,
and the nature of the charges whether civil or criminal also has to be declared.

Do it:

High Courts having jurisdiction over more than one state:

1. Mumbai High Court: Maharashtra, Goa and Union Territories of Diu Daman and Dadra-Nagar Haveli.
2. Guwahati High Court: Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Mizoram and Nagaland.
3. Kerala High Court: Kerala and Union Territory of Lakshadweep islands.
4. Kolkata High Court: West Bengal and Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar islands.
5. Chandigarh High Court: Punjab and Haryana.

Project:

Question 1.
Organise a Moot Court’ in your school, prepare and ask questions related to Public Interest Litigations in this Moot Court.

Question 2.
Visit the nearest police station and understand the procedure of filing a First Information Report (FIR) with the help of your teacher.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 4 The Indian Judicial System Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option and complete the statements:

Question 1.
When the common man benefits from the values of freedom, equality and justice, it leads to the widening and deepening of ……………… .
(a) values
(b) democracy
(c) Judiciary
(d) Law
Answer:
(b) democracy

Question 2.
…………. helps to protect the rights of people.
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Judiciary
(d) Social Organisation
Answer:
(c) Judiciary

Question 3.
The …………. is the fundamental law of the nation.
(a) Parliament
(b) Judiciary
(c) Constitution
(d) President’s order
Answer:
(c) Constitution

Question 4.
If any law passed by the Legislature or any act of the Executive violates any provision of the Constitution, the said law or act can be declared illegal by the ………….
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Speaker
(c) President
(d) Supreme Court
Answer:
(d) Supreme Court

Question 5.
The …………. has the power to establish a High Court in every state of India.
(a) Supreme Court
(b) Parliament
(c) President
(d) Prime Minister
Answer:
(b) Parliament

Question 6.
Currently, there are ……………. High Courts in India.
(a) 20
(b) 29
(c) 24
(d) 22
Answer:
(c) 24

Find and write:

Question 1.
Nature of Judiciary in India:
Answer:
Integrated System

Question 2.
In the criminal cases, the first step is to file:
Answer:
First Information Report (FIR)

Question 3.
The District judges are appointed by
Answer:
The Governor

Question 4.
The High Court judges are appointed by:
Answer:
The President.

Complete the following concept map:

Question 1.

Answer:

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Judicial Activism:
Answer:

1. The courts settle the disputes whenever they are approached for that purpose.
2. But, in the recent times, this image of the courts has undergone a change.
3. They have become increasingly active.
4. The courts are now trying to fulfill the constitutional goals of justice and equality.
5. The courts have tried to provide legal protection to the marginalised sections of society, women, tribal, workers, farmers and children.
6. Public Interest Litigations related to issues like victimisation of women, malnourishment among children, etc. have played an important role in boosting Judicial Activism

Question 2.
High Court:
Answer:

1. The Indian Constitution confers the Parliament with the power to establish a High Court in each constituent state in the Union.
2. Normally, each state has a High Court. But, in certain cases where the population and area of the states is less, one High Court has jurisdiction over more than one state.
3. For example, the Bombay High Court’s jurisdiction covers the states of Maharashtra and Goa, and the Union Territories of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu.
4. Currently, there are 24 High Courts in India.

Question 3.
Supreme Court of India:
Answer:

1. Judiciary in India is an integrated system where Supreme Court is at the apex position.
2. The Chief Justice of India (CJI) is the head of the Supreme Court of India.
3. By convention, the seniormost judge of the Supreme Court is appointed as the Chief Justice.
4. The President appoints the Chief Justice of India and other judges of the Supreme Court.
5. The Supreme Court of India is located at New Delhi.

Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
Judiciary in India is an integrated system.
Answer:

1. India is a Union of States. The Centre and the Constituent States have a separate Legislature and Executive.
2. But there is one judicial system for the whole of India.
3. The Supreme Court is the apex court under which there are High Courts.
4. The High Courts control the district courts and below them are the lower courts. Hence, this structure makes Judiciary in India an integrated system.

Question 2.
The Constitution has made provision for independence of Judiciary.
Answer:
1. The Constitution wants Judiciary to work freely, without any kind of pressure.
2. The independence of the judiciary is maintained so as to enable the judges to fearlessly carry out the function of giving justice.
For this purpose, the Constitution has made provisions for independence of Judiciary.

Question 3.
The Indian judiciary has made a significant contribution in the development of the country.
Answer:

1. The Indian judiciary has always given importance to social values while protecting the Constitution.
2. It has exposed wrong practices like superstitions, discrimination, injustice to weaker sections, etc. and forced the legislature to pass laws against them.
3. It has protected individual freedom, the federal system and the Constitution of India.
4. Common people have a lot of respect and trust in the judicial system.

Thus, the Indian judiciary has made a significant contribution in the development of the country.

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
What are the eligibility criteria for appointment of Supreme Court judges?
Answer:
The eligibility criteria laid down by the Constitution for appointment of Supreme Court judges are as follows:

1. He/She must be a citizen of India.
2. He/She must be a legal expert.
3. He/She must have served as a High Court judge or as an experienced advocate in the High Court.

Question 2.
Mention the functions of the High Court.
Answer:
The functions of the High Court are as follows:

1. To supervise over the District and other lower courts in its jurisdiction.
2. To maintain control over the functioning of the lower courts.
3. To give orders to protect the fundamental rights of the citizens.
4. To give advice to the governor while appointing judges in the district courts.

Question 3.
Should the Supreme Court have the power of Judicial Review?
Answer:
The Supreme Court must have the power of Judicial Review for following reasons:

1. Protecting the Constitution is the most important responsibility of the Supreme Court.
2. Many a times, laws violating the Constitution are passed under public pressure or for gaining popularity.
3. The Executive may pass laws or frame policies violating the Constitution.
4. Laws violating the fundamental rights of the citizens may be passed which may prove to be harmful for democracy.
5. The power of Judicial Review helps in curbing all anti-constitutional practices and protects and strengthens democracy.
6. It also helps in keeping the Executive under control.

Question 4.
Why does the President seek the advice of the Supreme Court on any issue of public importance? Can you tell?
Answer:

1. Decisions taken on issues of public importance have long-lasting effect on the lives of the people.
2. Such decisions should also be according to the Rule of Law which treats everyone equally.
3. Care has to be taken that such decisions should not violate the Constitution.
4. Since the President is not a legal expert, he has to seek advice of the Supreme Court on any issues of public importance.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Civics Solutions Chapter 3 The Union Executive Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Civics Solutions Chapter 3 The Union Executive

Class 8 Civics Chapter 3 The Union Executive Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Choose the correct option and rewrite the statement:

Question 1.
In India, the executive power is vested in the ………………. .
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Speaker
Answer:
(a) President

Question 2.
The tenure of the President is of ………… years.
(a) three
(b) four
(c) five
Answer:
(c) five

Question 3.
The Council of Ministers is led by the ………………. .
(a) Party Chief
(b) Prime Minister
(c) President
Answer:
(b) Prime Minister

2. Find and write:

Question 1.
The President, the Prime Minister, the Council of Ministers are called the ……………. .
Answer:
Executive

Question 2.
During the Parliamentary session, the period around 12 noon is known as ……………… .
Answer:
Zero hour

3. write the following concepts in your own words:

Question 1.
Impeachment procedure:
Answer:

1. The responsibility of protecting the Constitution is shouldered by the President.
2. But, if any act of the President violates the Constitution, the Parliament has the authority to remove him.
3. This process known as process of Impeachment.

The procedure for impeachment is as follows:

1. Anyone House can lay the charge of violation of the Constitution.
2. The investigation of the charge is carried out by the other House.
3. If the resolution is passed by special (2/3rd) majority of both the Houses, the President can be removed from his post.

Question 2.
No-confidence motion:
Answer:

1. In the Parliamentary system of government, the Legislature tries to keep control over the Executive.
2. The Executive stays in power till it enjoys the support of the majority in Lok Sabha.
3. The members of the Lok Sabha can move a No-confidence motion by simply expressing “We do not have confidence in the government”.
4. If the motion is passed with majority support, the Council of Ministers (the Executive) has to resign.
5. Thus, this is the most effective way to keep a check on the Council of Ministers.

Question 3.
Jumbo Ministry:
Answer:

1. A huge Council of Ministers with more than necessary ministers is referred to as Jumbo Ministry.
2. There was a trend to keep large Council of Ministers in our country.
3. Later, a constitutional amendment was made to limit the size of the Council of Ministers.
4. As per this amendment, the number of ministers in the Council should not be more than 15% of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.

4. Answer in brief:

Question 1.
Enumerate the functions of the Council of Ministers.
Answer:
The functions of the Council of Ministers are as follows:
1. The Council of Ministers takes initiative in the process of Law-making by drafting the bills/proposals.
2. It introduces and discusses the bills/ proposals in the House.
3. It introduces bills on various subjects like education, agriculture, industry, health, foreign relations, etc. in the Parliament, conducts discussions on them and tries to get them approved by the Parliament.
4. It also takes the responsibility of implementing the policies approved by the Parliament.

Question 2.
How does the Parliament keep a check on the Executive?
Answer:
The Parliament keeps a check on the Executive in the following ways:
1. The bills/proposals presented by the Council of Ministers are discussed in the Parliament.
2. These discussions and debates help the members to scrutinize the bills/ proposals and point out the shortcomings and help in a creation of healthy laws.
3. During Parliamentary sessions, the proceedings of the House begins with questions asked by the members of the House. The concerned Ministers are expected to give satisfactory answers to these questions.
4. During the Parliamentary sessions, the period around 12 noon is called as ‘Zero House’. During this period, any question of public importance can be raised and discussed.
5. The Parliament can pass a No-confidence motion on the Executive. If the motion is passed with majority support, then it has to resign.

5. Complete the concept picture. 

Question 1.

Answer:

Do it:

Find out the text of the oath taken by the President. Understand its meaning with the help of your teachers.

Do you know:

Jumbo Ministry:

1. Earlier, there was a trend to keep large Council of Ministers.
2. Such huge Councils were known as jumbo Ministry’.
3. Later, a constitutional amendment was made to limit the size of the Council of Ministers.
4. As per this amendment, the number of ministers in the council should not be more than 15% of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.

Can you tell?

What should the members of the Parliament do to participate effectively in debates and discussions?

Understand it :
(The gist of the conversation between Rama and Vidya.)

1. The President is the nominal head and the Prime Minister is the executive head.
2. The Prime Minister meets the President regularly and informs him about the conduct of administration.
3. The President has the right to seek information about new laws and policies framed by the Parliament. from the Prime Minister.

Project:

Question 1.
If you become the Prime Minister what works will you prioritise? Create a priority-wise list and present it in class.

Question 2.
Collect pictures and information of India’s Presidents since independence.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 3 The Union Executive Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option and rewrite the statement:

Question 1.
The ………………. bears the responsibility of protecting the Constitution and ensuring that the government runs as per the Constitution.
(a) Speaker
(b) President
(c) Vice-President
Answer:
(b) President

Question 2.
The President can be removed if the impeachment resolution is passed by ………………. majority in both the Houses of Parliament.
(a) 1/3rd
(b) 2/3rd
(c) 3/4th
Answer:
(b) 2/3rd

Question 3.
The ………………. is the Commander-in-Chief of the armed forces.
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Vice-President
(c) President
(d) Brigadier
Answer:
(c) President

Question 4.
In case a minister is not a member of the Parliament, he/she has to get elected to the Parliament within ………………. months.
(a) three
(b) six
(c) nine
(d) two
Answer:
(b) six

Question 5.
As per the amendment, the number of minister’s in the council should not be more than ………………. % of the total number of members in Lok Sabha.
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 15
(d) 25
Answer:
(c) 15

Question 6.
The Council of Ministers stays in power till it enjoys the support of majority in ………………. .
(a) Legislative Assembly
(b) Legislative Council
(c) Rajya Sabha
(d) Lok Sabha
Answer:
(d) Lok Sabha

Question 7.
In the absence of the President, ………………. carries out his functions.
(a) Vice-President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Chief Election Commissioner
Answer:
(a) Vice-President

Find and write:

Question 1.
The group of Parliamentarians and members of the state legislatures who elect the President ……………… .
Answer:
Electoral college

Question 2.
One who has the right to declare emergency in case of crisis …………… .
Answer:
President

Complete the concept map:

Question 1.

Answer:

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Vice-President:
Answer:

1. The Vice-President is elected by members of both the Houses.
2. The person contesting the election for the post of Vice-President should be a citizen of India and should have completed 35 years of age.
3. He is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha and exercises control over the functioning of Rajya Sabha.
4. In the absence of the President, his functions are carried out by the Vice President.

Question 2.
President:
Answer:

1. The President is the Constitutional Head of India.
2. He is elected by the directly elected representatives of the Central and State legislatures.
3. The person elected to the post of the President has to take an oath while accepting the post.
4. According to the oath, the President bears the responsibility of protecting the Constitution and ensuring that the government runs as per the Constitution.
5. The President governs in accordance with the advice given by the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers.
6. He has Legislative, Executive, Judicial, Defence and Emergency powers.

Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
The President is the nominal and constitutional Head of India.
Answer:

1. The Constitution has vested all executive powers in the President.
2. The government carries out its functions in the name of the President.
3. However, in reality, the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers run the government.

Hence, the President is the nominal and Constitutional Head of India.

Question 2.
The Council of Ministers has to take the Parliament into confidence while framing policies.
Answer:

1. The Council of Ministers has to decide specific policies on subject like education, agriculture, industry, health, foreign affairs, etc.
2. The Ministers of respective departments have to lay their policy plans in the House and discuss them thoroughly.
3. The policies cannot be implemented without the approval of the Parliament.
4. Also, the Council of Ministers can stay in power till it enjoys the support of the Parliament.
5. Hence, it has to take the Parliament into confidence while framing policies.

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
How is the President elected?
Answer:

1. The President is not directly elected by the people of India.
2. The common people do not vote in the election of the President.
3. He is elected by the Electoral College.
4. The Electoral College includes all members/elected representatives of Parliament and the members of the State Legislatures.

Question 2.
How is the Council of Ministers formed?
Answer:

1. The party which attains majority in the Lok Sabha election, nominates its leader as the Prime Minister.
2. The Prime Minister is given an oath by the President.
3. The Prime Minister then, chooses his trustworthy and efficient colleagues from within the party to form the Council of Ministers.
4. He gives priority to his colleagues considering their administrative experience, governance skills, efficiency and technical expertise.
5. The President administers oath to all the Council of Ministers. In this way, the Council of Ministers is formed.

Question 3.
State the qualifications necessary for contesting the Presidential election.
Answer:

1. The person contesting the Presidential election should be a citizen of India.
2. He should be 35 years of age.
3. He should also fulfill other conditions mentioned by the Constitution.

Question 4.
Mention the functions of the Prime Minister.
Answer:
The functions of the Prime Minister are as follows:

1. To form the Council of Ministers, selecting trustworthy, experienced and efficient people.
2. To allocate portfolios and chair all the meetings of the Council of Ministers.
3. To lead the Council of Ministers, maintain coordination among various departments, facilitate cooperation among departments and supervise to bring about efficiency and efficacy.
4. To raise the image of the country at international level.
5. To support the people during disasters.

Question 5.
What should the MPs do to enable them to participate effectively in Lok Sabha discussions?
Answer:
For effective participation in Lok Sabha, the MPs have to practise following things:

1. They should come prepared to the Lok Sabha with deep study of the problems of their constituencies and effective solutions to the same.
2. They should thoroughly understand the functioning of the Parliament and express people’s problems in a precise manner, without wasting other’s time.
3. They should be able to criticise the shortcomings and defects in bills/policies effectively.
4. They should be well-versed with the various effective tools, granted by the Constitution, for keeping a check on the Council of Ministers.
5. They should strictly keep away from unparliamentary practices like creating chaos, shouting slogans, tearing papers, being physically aggressive or fighting, etc. as such practices are not helpful in any manner.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 12 India Gains Independence Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 12 India Gains Independence

Class 8 History Chapter 12 India Gains Independence Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options :

Question 1.
………………. was the head of the interim Government.
(a) Vallabhbhai Patel
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Barrister Jinnah
Answer:
(c) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 2.
The plan of creation of two independent nations, India and Pakistan, was made by ………………… .
(a) Lord Wavell
(b) Stafford Cripps
(c) Lord Mountbatten
(d) Pethick Lawrence
Answer:
(c) Lord Mountbatten

2. Answer the following in one sentence:

Question 1.
Which demand was advocated by Barrister Jinnah?
Answer:
The two nation theory and demand of separate Muslim nation named Pakistan was advocated by Barrister Jinnah.

Question 2.
Write the names of the ministers participating in Cabinet Mission.
Answer:
Pethick Lawrence, Stafford Cripps and A.V. Ale ander were the ministers participating in the Cabinet Mission.

3. Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1
The Indian National Congress approved the partition.
Answer:

1. Lord Mountbatten prepared a plan of creation of India and Pakistan as two independent nations.
2. Indian National Congress opposed the plan of partition as unity of the Nation was its basic stand.
3. However, the Muslim League remained adamant on the creation of Pakistan.
4. So, the Indian National Congress was left with no option but to accept the partition with complete helplessness.

Question 2.
The working of Interim Government could not run smoothly.
Answer:

1. Muslim League demanded a separate Muslim nation of Pakistan.
2. The followers of the Muslim League resorted to violent ways.
3. Though the Muslim League declined to participate initially, they later participated in it.
4. However, the leaders of the Muslim League adopted the policy of obstruction and therefore the Interim Government could not run smoothly.

Question 3.
The Wavell Plan could not succeed.
Answer:
The Wavell Plan could not succeed because

1. Barrister Jinnah insisted that only Muslim League should have the right to suggest the names of Muslim representatives to the Viceroy’s Executive Council.
2. The Congress opposed this and as a result, no consensus could be arrived at the meeting called by Lord Wavell.

4. Write the events on the following timeline:

Question 1.

Answer:

5. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
Why did the British took steps towards granting freedom to India?
Answer:

1. The Indian freedom struggle had become very intense during the period of Second World War. The revolt of Navy and Air Force shook the foundation of the British empire.
2. The demand for independence of India was gaining its strength.
3. The Muslim League had demanded a separate Muslim nation.
4. The followers of the Muslim League resorted to violence.
5. The British government realised that it was necessary to take a serious note of it. They realised that their rule in India will not last long.

Accordingly, the British government started preparing plans for granting Independence to India.

Question 2.
Write information about the Mountbatten Plan.
Answer:

1. England’s Prime Minister Atlee announced the transfer of power would be before June 1948.
2. He appointed Lord Mountbatten as the Viceroy of India who was to arrange the transfer of power.
3. He held discussions with the leaders of India.
4. Mountbatten prepared a plan for partition of India i.e., creation of two independent nations, India and Pakistan.
5. The Indian National Congress opposed the plan.
6. But, due to the adamant behaviour of the Muslim League, the Indian National Congress accepted the Plan, with complete helplessness.
7. On the basis of Mountbatten Plan, Indian Independence Act was passed.

Question 3.
Why did Muslim League declare to observe 16 August as Direct Action Day? What were its effects?
Answer:

1. The Muslim League was adamant on the demand of Pakistan.
2. It was not satisfied with Cabinet Mission plan as it had no provision for a separate Muslim state.
3. 16th August 1946 was observed as Direct Action Day. ‘
4. The followers of Muslim League resorted to violent ways.
5. There were Hindu-Muslim riots in various parts of the country.
6. There were massacres in the Noakhali region in the province of Bengal.

Project:

Collect information about the response of common people after gaining independence, with the help of various reference books as well as the internet.

Class 8 History Chapter 12 India Gains Independence Additional Important Questions and Answers

Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options:

Question 1.
……………… put forth the two Nation theory and demanded a separate Muslim nation.
(a) Barrister Muhammad Ali Jinnah
(b) Chaudhary Rahmat Ali
(c) Dr. Muhammad Iqbal
(d) Lord Mountbatten
Answer:
(a) Barrister Muhammad Ali Jinnah

Question 2.
……………., Prime Minister of England, declared that England would leave its dominion on India before June 194 .
(a) Winston Churchill
(b) Linlithgo
(c) Atlee
(d) Mountbatten
Answer:
(c) Atlee

Question 3.
The ……………. initially refused to participate in the Interim Government.
(a) Indian National Congress
(b) Muslim League
(c) Hindu Mahasabha
(d) Kisan Sabha
Answer:
(b) Muslim League

Question 4.
The Muslim League decided to observe 16th August as ……………. Day.
(a) Non Violence
(b) Pakistan
(c) Direct Action
(d) Independence
Answer:
(c) Direct Action

Question 5.
As per ………………, India got independence.
(a) Mountbatten Plan
(b) Wctvell Plan
(c) Indian Independence Act
(d) Cabinet Mission
Answer:
(c) Indian Independence Act

Question 6.
Gandhiji was assassinated on ………………….. .
(a) 30 December 1947
(b) 30 January 194
(c) 30 March 194
(d) 2 October 194
Answer:
(b) 30 January 194

Name the following:

Question 1.
First person to present idea of free Muslim nation.
Answer:
Dr. Muhammad Iqbal

Question 2.
Last Viceroy of India.
Answer:
Lord Mountbatten

Question 3.
One who presented idea of Pakistan.
Answer:
Chaudhary Rahmat Ali

Question 4.
Went to Noakhali to stop violence
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi.

Answer the following in one sentence:

Question 1.
What did Prime Minister Atlee declare in the British Parliament of England?
Answer:
Prime Minister Atlee declared in the British Parliament that England would transfer all of its government responsibility to Indians not later than June 1948.

Question 2.
Why did the Interim Government not work smoothly?
Answer:
The Interim Government could not work smoothly because the Muslim League followed the policy of obstruction.

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
Which were the important provisions :
of the Wavell Plan?
Answer:

1. The Wavell Plan provided a proper representation to Muslims, Dalits and minorities in the Central and Provincial Legislatures.
2. It provided for an equal number of Hindu and Muslim members in Viceroy’s Executive Council.

Question 2.
State the provisions of the Indian Independence Act.
Answer:
The Indian Independence Act was passed on the basis of Mountbatten Plan on 18th July, 1947.
According to the plan :

1. Two Independent nations of India and Pakistan will come into existence on 15th August, 1947.
2. Thereafter, the British Parliament would not retain any control over them.
3. The British supremacy over the princely states would come to an end.
4. They would be free to join either India or Pakistan or remain independent.

Question 3.
Write about the attainment of independence by India.
Answer:

1. As per the Indian Independence Act, India was granted Independence on 15th August, 1947.
2. A meeting of the Constituent Assembly was going on in the hall of Parliament House in Delhi in the midnight of 14th August.
3. At the stroke of midnight, the Union Jack of Britain was lowered and in its place the Indian tricolour flag was unfurled.

Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
The Cabinet Mission Plan could not satisfy the political parties in India.
Answer:
The Cabinet Mission Plan could not satisfy the political parties in India because,

1. The Indian National Congress was not happy with some of its provisions.
2. The Muslim League was also dissatisfied with the plan as it did not provide for the creation of a separate Muslim state of Pakistan.

Question 2.
The joy of attainment of freedom was not untinted:
Answer:

1. India attained Independence from the slavery of 150 years.
2. But, the people were grieved due to the partition of the country and the terrible violence during that period.

So, the joy of attainment of freedom was not untinted.

Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
State the genesis of Pakistan.
Answer:

1. To weaken the national movement, the British adopted the policy of ‘divide and rule’. Its consequence was the establishment of ‘Muslim League’.
2. Famous poet, Dr. Muhammad Iqbal put forth the idea of an independent Muslim state.
3. Later Chaudhary Rahmat Ali coined the name Pakistan.
4. Barrister Muhammad Ali Jinnah put forth the two nation theory and demanded a separate state for the Muslims naming Pakistan.
5. Barrister Jinnah and the Muslim League started the propaganda that Indian National Congress was only a Hindu organisation and the Muslims have no benefit of it.
6. Since their demand was not fulfilled, they observed ‘Direct Action Day’ and resorted to violence.
7. The nation witnessed Hindu-Muslim riots in various parts.
8. After the consent of the Indian National Congress to the Mountbatten Plan, the Indian Independence Act provided for the partition.

Question 2.
Why do you think everyone needs freedom?
Answer:

1. Freedom is liberation from any kind of bondage.
2. The rights of people are denied under foreign rule.
3. Lot of restrictions are imposed by a foreign power.
4. Under a foreign rule or dictatorship, power is not used for the welfare of the people but for the benefit of few.
5. All round development of the citizens take place in an independent free state.
6. Equality, Fraternity, Justice, Humanity are values which are cherished in freedom. Therefore, everyone needs freedom.