Important Questions

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Political Science Important Questions Chapter 6 India and the World Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Political Science Important Questions Chapter 6 India and the World

Complete the following statements by selecting the appropriate option.

Question 1.
The core of nonalignment was
(a) Independent understanding of world affairs
(b) Participation in cold war
(c) Democratic socialism as policy
(d) Policy of regionalism
Answer:
(a) Independent understanding of world affairs

Question 2.
Farakka Agreement about sharing of river waters is between India and
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Pakistan
(c) China
(d) Nepal
Answer:
(a) Bangladesh

Question 3.
The vision for India Ocean Rim Association (IORA) originated in 1995 during the visit of to India.
(a) Nelson Mandela
(b) Yasser Arafat
(c) Pervez- Musharraf
(d) President Jayewardene
Answer:
(a) Nelson Mandela

Question 4.
The main building at NDA, Pune is named to reflect cooperation between India and
(a) Indonesia
(b) Russia
(c) Sudan
(d) Nepal
Answer:
(c) Sudan

Question 5.
Objective of India Foreign Policy is incorporated in DPSP as Article
(a) 44
(b) 356
(c) 370
(d) 51
Answer:
(d) 51

Question 6.
The First Summit meeting of NAM in 1961 was held at
(a) Bandung
(b) Belgrade
(c) Dhaka
(d) Jakarta
Answer:
(b) Belgrade

Question 7.
After India’s nuclear test in 1998, took the lead in imposing sanctions on India.
(a) USA
(b) France
(c) China
(d) Russia
Answer:
(a) USA

Question 8.
In 2008, India signed a Civil Nuclear Cooperation Agreement with
(a) Russia
(b) France
(c) USA
(d) Canada
Answer:
(c) USA

Question 9.
In 1971, India signed a Friendship Treaty with
(a) USA
(b) Soviet Union
(c) China
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(b) Soviet Union

Question 10.
The war in 1962 was between India and
(a) China
(b) Pakistan
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Bangladesh
Answer:
(a) China

Question 11.
In the late 1990s, Foreign Minister Primakov mooted the idea of a Trilateral Summit between Russia, India and
(a) USA
(b) Pakistan
(c) China
(d) Vietnam
Answer:
(c) China

Question 12.
Status of Kashmir has been a cause of tension between India and
(a) Bangladesh
(b) China
(c) Afghanistan
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(d) Pakistan

Question 13.
In 1972, Shimla Agreement was signed between India and
(a) USA
(b) Russia
(c) Pakistan
(d) China
Answer:
(c) Pakistan

Question 14.
In 1975, the Himalayan Kingdom of opted to integrate with India.
(a) Nepal
(b) NEFA
(c) Sikkim
(d) Bhutan
Answer:
(c) Sikkim

Identify the incorrect pair in every set and correct it.

Question 1.
(a) Myanmar – Aung San Suu Kyi
(b) Bangladesh – Mujibur Rahman
(c) Pakistan – Jayewardene
Answer:
(b) ANZUS – Australia, New Zealand, USA

Question 2.
(a) Lahore Agreement (1999) – Pakistan
(b) Friendship Treaty (1971) – Bangladesh
(c) Nuclear Cooperation Agreement (2008) – USA
Answer:
(b) Friendship Treaty (1971) – Soviet Union

Complete the following sentences by selecting the appropriate reason.

Question 1.
Relations with West Asian countries are important for India because ……………..
(a) they work as a counter against Pakistan.
(b) they are important trade partners.
(c) they are important dialogue partners in SAARC.
Answer:
(a) they work as a counter against Pakistan.

Question 2.
Jawaharlal Nehru is called ‘architect of India’s foreign policy’ because ……………….
(a) he was the first Foreign Minister of India.
(b) his speech in September 1946 spelt out core features of India’s foreign policy.
(c) he was instrumental in signing of treaties with China.
Answer:
(b) his speech in September 1946 spelt out core features of India’s foreign policy.

Question 3.
Relations between India and China have been strained due to …………………
(i) border disputes such as Aksai Chin.
(ii) China’s support to Pakistan.
(iii) India has given political asylum to the Dalai Lama.
(a) none of the above.
(b) only (i) and (ii)
(c) all of the above.
Answer:
(c) all of the above.

Question 4.
The Sagarmala project is aimed at ………………….
(a) countering piracy and securing trade routes.
(b) promoting port-led development in India.
(c) promoting exclusive economic zone in the India Ocean.
Answer:
(b) promoting port-led development in India.

State the appropriate concept for the given statements.

Question 1.
2008, India-US Agreement.
Answer:
Civil Nuclear Cooperation Agreement

Question 2.
Rebel, militant Tamil group in Sri Lanka.
Answer:
LTTE

Question 3.
Policy due to which India began significant relations with South-East Asian nations.
Answer:
Look East, Act East

Question 4.
It was created in March 1997 to promote balanced and sustained development in India Ocean region.
Answer:
Indian Ocean Rim Association.

Find the odd word.

Question 1.
Sukhoi fighter aircraft, Brahmos missiles, Sakhalin-1 oil fields, BIMSTEC.
Answer:
BIMSTEC (not included in Indo-Russia relations)

Question 2.
NEFA, Nepal, Tibet, BRI.
Answer:
Nepal (not an issue in China-India relations)

Question 3.
PLO, ARF, SCO, SAARC.
Answer:
P. L. O (India is not associated)

Question 4.
Nepal, Sikkim, Myanmar, Bhutan.
Answer:
Myanmar (not a Himalayan kingdom)

Expand the following abbreviations.

(1) SEATO
(2) IAEA
(3) NEFA
(4) LTTE
(5) PLO
(6) ARF
(7) IORA
(8) ONGC
(9) LAC
(10) AFRICA Fund
Answer:
(1) SEATO – South East Asia Treaty Organisation
(2) IAEA – International Atomic Energy Agency
(3) NEFA – North East Frontier Agency
(4) LTTE – Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam
(5) PLO – Palestine Liberation Organisation
(6) ARF – ASEAN Regional Forum
(7) IORA – The Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation
(8) ONGC – Oil and Natural Gas Commission
(9) LAC – Line of Actual Control
(10) AFRICA Fund – The Action for Resisting Invasion, Colonialism and Apartheid Fund

Complete the concept maps.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Observe the maps in textbook and answer the following questions.

1.

Question 1.
Name the three water bodies bordering India.
Answer:
Bay of Bengal, Indian Ocean, Arabian Sea.

Question 2.
Name three countries bordering India to the North.
Answer:
China, Nepal, Bhutan.

Question 3.
Name three countries bordering Afghanistan.
Answer:
Pakistan, Iran, Uzbekistan, Turkmenistan

Question 4.
Name three countries lying in the Indian Ocean.
Answer:
Sri Lanka, Indonesia, Maldives

2.

Question 1.
Name three countries around South China Sea.
Answer:
Philippines, Vietnam, China, Taiwan.

Question 2.
Name three African countries bordered by Indian Ocean.
Answer:
Somalia, Mozambique, Tanzania.

Question 3.
Name two West Asian countries bordered by water on the east.
Answer:
Yemen, Oman bordered by waterbody on the east.

State whether the following statements are true or false with reason.

Question 1.
In the past two decades Indo-US relations have improved considerably.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. During the Cold War and even immediately after that, Indo-US relations were strained mainly due to India’s nonaligned policy and US support to Pakistan.
2. However, India supported US war on terrorism and later the signing of India-US Civil Nuclear Cooperation Agreement (2008) led to bettering of ties between USA and India. US regards India as a major trade and defence partner.

Question 2.
International situation has played a significant role in determining India’s Foreign Policy.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. Factors like geography, history, economy, political leadership have impacted India’s foreign policy. During the Cold War, superpower politics impacted India’s policy.
2. There were many significant changes in India’s foreign policy when the Cold War ended.
3. India’s relations with world powers like USA and with its own neighbours like China and Pakistan have influenced its foreign policy.

Question 3.
Indian foreign policy has undergone a change post 1990s
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. During the Cold War era, Indian foreign policy had evolved around three pillars viz. nonalignment in international relations, preservation of autonomy in domestic affairs and solidarity among developing nations.
2. After 1991, Indian economy opened under economic liberalisation. India developed relations with different nations based on realistic understanding of national interest. Thus, India emerged as a significant economic and technological power post 1990s.

Explain the correlation between the following.

Question 1.
Political leadership – India’s foreign policy.
Answer:
The principles of India’s foreign policy include respect for the sovereignty and territorial integrity of all nations, belief in peaceful coexistence and peaceful resolution of international disputes. One of the main factors influencing foreign policy is the political leadership of the country. India’s first Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru’s speech spelt out the core feature of India’s foreign policy i.e., friendly relations with England, USA and Soviet Union.

He was a co-founder of the Non- Aligned Movement and opted not to be a part of any military alliance. Prime Ministers who have played an important role in India’s foreign policy include Lai Bahadur Shastri (Indo-Pak war 1965 and Tashkent Agreement) Indira Gandhi (Indo-Pak war, 1971 and Shimla Agreement) Rajiv Gandhi (peacekeeping force to Sri Lanka, 1987), Atal Bihari Vajpayee, Dr. Manmohan Singh and Narendra Modi.

Express your opinion of the following.

Question 1.
India-US relations.
Answer:
During the Cold War, relations between India and US were strained due to several reasons

1. India kept out of US led military alliances like CENTO, etc., and co-founded Non-Aligned Movement.
2. India’s criticism of US intervention in Vietnam.
3. US position on the Kashmir issue and constant support to Pakistan.

Even after end of the Cold War, Indo-US relations did not immediately improve. The US brought pressure on the new State of Russia to stop supply of space technology to India. After India carried out its second nuclear testing in 1998 at Pokhran, the US not only imposed economic sanctions on India but also pressurized other nations like Canada, Japan, etc. to impose sanctions as well. However, towards the end of the last century Indo-US ties have improved due to the following reasons-
1. Anti-terrorism stance – India supported President George W. Bush’s “war on terrorism” similarly, after the 2001, terrorist attack on Indian Parliament by Pakistan supported terrorist groups, US demanded that Pakistan should stop sponsoring cross-border terrorism.

2. Partnership apd Agreements – The US regards India as a major partner in the Indo- Pacific region. India regards the USA as a major source of investment and partner in trade and defence as well as in multilateral fora like India-US-Japan forum. In 2008, the India-US Civil Nuclear Cooperation Agreement was signed by which India became the only country outside NPT that has nuclear capabilities.

Answer the following questions in 80 to 100 words.

Question 1.
Elaborate on India’s “Look East, Act East” policy.
Answer:
After independence, Jawaharlal Nehru attempted to weave unity among countries of Asia. One of the major partners in this effort was Indonesia. During the Cold War period, India’s relations with most of the South-East Asian nations was nominal. In 1991, India under Prime Minister P. V. Narsimha Rao propounded the “Look East” Policy as an effort to cultivate extensive economic and strategic relations with the South-East Asian countries and bolster it’s standing as a regional power. Subsequent Prime Ministers such as Atal Bihari Vajpayee and Dr. Manmohan Singh also pursued this policy.

In 2014, under Prime Minister Narendra Modi a more outcome-based policy of Act East was announced to focus more on relations with ASEAN and other East Asian countries especially Vietnam and Japan. India has particularly good relations with Singapore which is a major investor in India. Relations with Thailand, Malaysia, Indonesia have also improved. India has a Free Trade Agreement with the ASEAN and is a partner in ASEAN Regional Forum (ARF) a regional security group. India has promoted regional cooperation groups like BIMSTEC.

Question 2.
Describe India-Pakistan relations.
Answer:
1. There have been tensions and military standoffs between India and Pakistan since 1947 for e.g., Conflict of 1947-48, Kargil conflict (1999) as well as two-wars (1965, 1971). The main problem areas between India and Pakistan is over the Kashmir issue. India has accused Pakistan of sponsoring cross border terrorism in Indian territory.

2. China-Pakistan Economic Corridor is a route for Chinese investments in Pakistan. China has extended support to Pakistan on the Kashmir issue while Pakistan recognizes China’s claims to Aksaichin.

3. Disputes over sharing of the Indus river waters and Baglihar Dam issue. Efforts have been made to improve bilateral relations between India and Pakistan such as the Shimla Agreement (1972) signed between Prime Minister Indira Gandhi and President Z. A. Bhutto. In 1999, Prime Ministers of India and Pakistan signed three agreements. Both countries have launched several mutual confidence building measures such as the Delhi-Lahore bus service, hotlines between Prime Ministers of India and Pakistan, etc.

Answer the following question with reference to the given points.

Question 1.
Elaborate on India’s relations with
(a) USA
(b) Russia / Soviet Union
(c) China
Answer:
India has played an active role in international relations even before independence for e.g., as a signatory at the San Francisco Conference that gave shape to the United Nations Charter.
The primary objectives of India’s Foreign Policy are:

1. Maintenance of international peace and security.
2. Protection of the sovereignty and integrity of the country.
3. Maintaining good relations with neighbouring countries and with regional groups such as ASEAN.
4. Greater integration with the world economy in order to sustain a high growth rate.

(a) USA – During the Cold War, relations between India and US were strained due to a number of reasons:

1. India kept out of US led military alliances like CENTO, etc., and co-founded Non- Aligned Movement.
2. India’s criticism of US intervention in Vietnam.
3. US position on the Kashmir issue and constant support to Pakistan.

Even after end of the Cold War, Indo-US relations did not immediately improve. The US brought pressure on the new State of Russia to stop supply of space technology to India. After India carried out its second nuclear testing in 1998 at Pokhran, the US not only imposed economic sanctions on India but also pressurized other nations like Canada, Japan, etc. to impose sanctions as well.

(b) Russia / Soviet Union – During the Cold War era, Soviet Union provided aid to India in the form of technology, weapons and low-interest credit to India’s heavy industry projects in the public sector. Indo-Soviet Friendship Treaty (1971) is considered a milestone in their bilateral relations. After the disintegration of the Soviet Union, Russia agreed to provide reactors for India’s Kudankulam nuclear power plant and for joint ventures to produce Sukhoi fighter aircraft and Brahmos missiles. Both India and Russia have major Stakes in Russia oil fields such as Sakhalin-1 highlighting the importance of energy security.

(c) China – In 1949, the Communist revolution took place in China. India was among the first nations to recognize the People’s Republic of China. In 1954, India and China signed the Panchsheel Agreement and India also recognised Chinese Suzerainty on Tibet. The main hindrances in Sino-Indian relations are-

1. 1962 Indo-China war and 2017 Dokhlam skirmish.
2. Border disputes in AksaiChin and NEFA region.
3. China has been critical of India offering political asylum to the Dalai Lama.
4. Chinese support to Pakistan.
5. India’s apprehensions about China’s Belt and Road Initiative.

On the positive side India-China relationship has improved

1. Agreement on maintenance of peace and tranquility along the LOC.
2. China has become among the largest trading partners of India.
3. India and China are part of BRICS and SCO.
4. In the late 1990s, Russia mooted the idea of a Trilateral Summit of Russia, China, India which was a recognition of India’s status as a major regional power.

Question 2.
Elaborate on India’s relations with
(a) Pakistan
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Sri Lanka
Answer:
India has played an active role in international relations even before independence for e.g., as a signatory at the San Francisco Conference that gave shape to the United Nations Charter. The primary objectives of India’s Foreign Policy are:

1. Maintenance of international peace and security.
2. Protection of the sovereignty and integrity of the country.
3. Maintaining good relations with neighbouring countries and with regional groups such as ASEAN.
4. Greater integration with the world economy to sustain a high growth rate.

(a) Pakistan-
1. There have been tensions and military standoffs between India and Pakistan since 1947 for e.g., Conflict of 1947-48, Kargil conflict (1999) as well as two wars (1965, 1971). The main problem areas between India and Pakistan is over the Kashmir issue. India has accused Pakistan of sponsoring cross border terrorism in Indian territory.

2. China-Pakistan Economic Corridor is a route for Chinese investments in Pakistan. China has extended support to Pakistan on the Kashmir issue while Pakistan recognizes China’s claims to Aksai Chin.

3. Disputes over sharing of the Indus river waters and Baglihar Dam issue.

Efforts have been made to improve bilateral relations between India and Pakistan such as the Shimla Agreement (1972) signed between Prime Minister Indira Gandhi and President Z. A. Bhutto. In 1999, Prime Ministers of India and Pakistan signed three agreements. Both countries have launched several mutual confidence building measures such as the Delhi-Lahore bus service, Samjhauta Express, hotlines between Prime Ministers of India and Pakistan, etc.

(b) Bangladesh – India played a major role in securing independence for Bangladesh in 1971. Major issues in Indo-Bangladesh relations were about distribution of waters of Teesta river, land and maritime boundaries, Chakma refugees, etc. Cross border terrorism is a concern for both countries.

(c) Sri Lanka – India is the only neighbour of Sri Lanka, separated by the Palk Strait. They share deep racial and cultural links. For most of Tamils in Sri Lanka (earlier Ceylon) their ancestors were from India. Ties between the two countries have been tested by the Civil War in Sri Lanka and Indian intervention during the war (1983-2009). It was caused by insurgency against the government by the Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam (LTTE) which aimed to create an independent Tamil State in the north and east of Sri Lanka.

The LTTE was formed in 1976 under leadership of V. Prabhakaran as Tamils began to feel alienated in Sri Lanka due to Sinhala being made official language and Tamil migrant plantation workers being disenfranchised. Indian Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi deployed the Indian Peace Keeping Force (IPKF) under Operation Pawan to disarm different militant groups in Sri Lanka. The Indo-Sri Lanka Accord (1987) was signed to provide a political solution to Sri Lanka’s conflict.

Today, India is Sri Lanka’s largest trading partner. Both India and Sri Lanka are members of SAARC and BIMSTEC. Sri Lanka’s leaning towards China e.g., Hamabantota port being built in Sri Lanka by China is a major concern for India.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 History Important Questions Chapter 5 India: Social and Religious Reforms Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th History Important Questions Chapter 5 India: Social and Religious Reforms

1A. Choose the correct alternative and rewrite the statement.

Question 1.
The practice of Sati was abolished by a law passed in the year __________
(a) 1829
(b) 1830
(c) 1831
(d) 1832
Answer:
(a) 1829

Question 2.
Raja Ram Mohan Roy started a philosophical discussion circle named ‘ __________’.
(a) Prarthana Samaj
(b) Arya Samaj
(c) Satyashodhak Samaj
(d) Atmiya Sabha
Answer:
(d) Atmiya Sabha

Question 3.
The Brahmo Samaj was founded in the year __________
(a) 1826
(b) 1827
(c) 1828
(d) 1829
Answer:
(c) 1828

Question 4.
The Mughal emperor of India conferred the title of ‘____________’ on Ram Mohan Roy.
(a) Pandit
(b) Raja
(c) Alamgir
(d) Badshah
Answer:
(b) Raja

Question 5.
__________ has its origins in Paramhamsa Sabha.
(a) Prarthana Samaj
(b) Arya Samaj
(c) Brahmo Samaj
(d) Satyashodhak Samaj
Answer:
(a) Prarthana Samaj

Question 6.
__________ established ‘Scientific Society’ for Muslims.
(a) Mahatma Phule
(b) Sir Sayyad Ahmad
(c) Swami Dayanand
(d) Tarabai Shinde
Answer:
(b) Sir Sayyad Ahmad

Question 7.
__________ participated in the Vykom Satyagraha in Travancore against untouchability.
(a) Ramaswamy Naikar
(b) Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay
(c) Dr. Ambedkar
(d) Swami Vivekananda
Answer:
(a) Ramaswamy Naikar

Question 8.
Rajarshi Shahu Maharaj was strongly opposed to __________
(a) Bajubandi
(b) Setubandi
(c) Rajbandi
(d) Rotibandi
Answer:
(d) Rotibandi

1B. Find the incorrect pair from group ‘B’ and write the corrected one.

Question 1.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(a) Sati Act	1829
(b) Restriction of Press	1830
(c) Arya Samaj	1875
(d) Ramkrishna Mission	1897

Answer:
Restriction of Press – 1824

2A. Write the names of historical places/persons/events.

Question 1.
Governor-General who abolished Sati in 1829 –
Answer:
Lord William Bentinck

Question 2.
The company that put restrictions on the freedom of the press –
Answer:
The British East India Company

Question 3.
The social reformer who severely criticized untouchability in his book ‘Vital Vidhwamsan’ –
Answer:
Gopalbaba Walangkar

Question 4.
Editor of ‘Ain-i-Akbari’ written by Abul Fazl –
Answer:
Sir Sayyad Ahmad Khan

Question 5.
The movement led by Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar at Mahad –
Answer:
Satyagraha of Chavadar Tank

Question 6.
Founder of ‘Independent Labour Party –
Answer:
Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar

Question 7.
The ruler who organised‘Sahabhoj for all castes –
Answer:
Maharaja Sayajirao Gaikwad

Question 8.
The ruler who opposed ‘Vyavasaybandi’ –
Answer:
Rajarshi Shahu Maharaj

2B. Choose the correct reason from those given below and complete the sentence.

Question 1.
The progress of Indian society was stunted because of __________
(a) superstitions
(b) the orthodox way of life
(c) caste discriminations
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(d) all of the above

Question 2.
Sati was abolished in 1829 because __________
(a) a law was passed by Lord William Bentinck abolishing this inhuman practice
(b) the people of India wanted this custom to be abolished
(c) the Brahmin class wanted Sati to be abolished
(d) women wanted to put an end to this custom
Answer:
(a) a law was passed by Lord William Bentinck abolishing this inhuman practice

Question 3.
The Mughal emperor conferred the title of‘Raja’ on Ram Mohan Roy because __________
(a) Ram Mohan Roy was the emperor’s favourite
(b) Ram Mohan Roy had gone to England to plead the case of the Mughal emperor
(c) Ram Mohan Roy was an efficient lawyer
(d) Ram Mohan Roy visited England
Answer:
(b) Ram Mohan Roy had gone to England to plead the case of the Mughal emperor

Question 4.
Swami Vivekanand established the Ramkrishna Mission because __________
(a) he was asked by his Guru to do so
(b) he wanted to compete with other organisations
(c) he wanted to serve the needy people
(d) so that many people join his Mission
Answer:
(c) he wanted to serve the needy people

3. Complete the following concept map.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Social Reformers	Participated in Movements
1. Maharshi V.R.Shinde	………………………………..
2. …………………………………	Kala Ram Temple, Nasik
3. Ramaswamy Naikar	………………………………..
4. Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay	………………………………..
5. ………………………………..	Non-Brahmanical Movement, Kolhapur

Answer:

Social Reformers	Participated in Movements
1. Maharshi V. R. Shinde	Parvati Temple, Pune
2. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar	Kala Ram Temple, Nasik
3. Ramaswamy Naikar	Vykom Satyagraha, Travancore
4. Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay	Quit India Movement
5. Rajarshi Shahu Maharaj	Non-Brahminical Movement, Kolhapur

4A. Write short notes.

Question 1.
Arya Samaj.
Answer:
Arya Samaj:

• Founded by Swami Dayanand Saraswati in 1875.
• Regarded Vedas as holy.
• Rejected discrimination based on caste differences.
• Encouraged education of women, widow remarriage, and inter-caste marriage.

Question 2.
Tarabai Shinde.
Answer:
Tarabai Shinde:

• Born in 1839.
• She demanded gender equality.
• She was the first woman to challenge the patriarchal system.
• She was of the opinion that religious systems suppress women because religions are created by men.

4B. Explain the following statements with reasons.

Question 1.
The British wanted to bring progress to Indian society.
Answer:
The progress of Indian society was stunted because of superstitions, an orthodox way of life, caste discriminations, false social notions, lack of curiosity, and rationality that prevailed on a large scale. The British felt the need to create a new society that was based on the values of ‘Freedom, Equality, Fraternity, and Humanism’.

Question 2.
Raja Ram Mohan Roy was the first Indian to oppose the custom of Sati.
Answer:
Raja Ram Mohan Roy witnessed his brother’s wife commit Sati and this disturbed him deeply. He pointed out that none of the religious texts mentioned the practice of Sati as a prescribed religious obligation. It is because of his efforts that a law was passed by Governor-General Lord William Bentinck abolishing the practice of Sati in 1829.

Question 3.
Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar used print media to create public awareness.
Answer:
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar knew the importance of print media. For him, it was the best instrument to create awareness and to build the movement for social equality. Therefore, he began to publish his own newspapers namely ‘Mooknayak’, ‘Bahishkrut Bharat’, ‘Janata’ and ‘Samata’.

5. State your opinion.

Question 1.
Tarabai Shinde was the first Indian woman to challenge the patriarchal system.
Answer:
Tarabai Shinde was of the opinion that religious systems suppress women because religious systems are created by men. Therefore, she took a brave step in expressing her thoughts in a brave manner in her essay on women’s rights. In this essay, she not only discussed reforms like widow remarriage, women’s education, abolition of Sati but demanded greater gender equality.

Question 2.
Arya Samaj was founded by Swami Dayanand Saraswati in 1875.
Answer:
Arya Samaj:

• Founded by Swami Dayanand Saraswati in 1875.
• Regarded Vedas as holy.
• Rejected discrimination based on caste differences.
• Encouraged education of women, widow remarriage, and inter-caste marriage.

6. Answer the following question with the help of the given points.

Question 1.
Discuss the role played by Religious Reform Organisations in the field of religious awakening.
(a) Prarthana Samaj
(b) Satyashodhak Samaj
(c) Arya Samaj
(d) Ramkrishna Mission
Answer:
(a) Prarthana Samaj:

• Had its origins in Paramhamsa Sabha.
• Founded by Dadoba Pandurang Tarkhadkar.
• Founding members like Dr. Atmaram Pandurang, Justice M. G. Ranade, Dr. R. G. Bhandarkar opposed idol worship and emphasized monotheism.
• Opened schools for girls, orphanages, and night schools for workers.
• Focussed on gender equality, wiping outcaste discriminations, and appreciating the values of mundane life.

(b) Satyashodhak Samaj:

• Founded in 1873 by Mahatma Jotirao Phule in Pune.
• Cracked a whip on the social customs and practices which pushed the Indian masses into a miserable state.
• Showed a new path to artisans, workers, and other downtrodden people.
• Characteristics of Satyashodhak Samaj included monotheism, rejection of the authority of Vedas and Puranas, acceptance of rationality, opposition to the dominance of priests and idol worship, etc.
• Mahatma Phule and his wife Savitribai Phule started a school for girls.
• His work was continued by Gopalbaba Walangkar who criticized untouchability in his book ‘Vital Vidhwamsan’.
• Shivram Janba drew attention to the problems of deprived women like Murali, Jagatini, and Devdasi.

(c) Arya Samaj:

• Founded by Swami Dayanand Saraswati in 1875.
• Regarded Vedas as holy.
• Rejected discrimination based on caste differences.
• Encouraged education of women, widow remarriage, and inter-caste marriage.

(d) Ramkrishna Mission:

• Swami Vivekananda founded the Ramkrishna Mission in 1897.
• Focussed on serving needy people, working for people affected by famine, health care for the sick people, education for women, etc.
• It also gave a message to the Indian youth to get up to awaken and keep moving until the goal is achieved.

Question 2.
What role did the following social reformers play in bringing about social change?
(a) Sir Sayyad Ahmad Khan
(b) Tarabai Shinde
(c) Maharshi Vitthal Ramji Shinde
(d) Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay.
(e) Ramaswamy Naikar
Answer:
(a) Sir Sayyad Ahmad Khan:

• Was born in 1817 in Delhi.
• Fluent in Urdu, Persian, Arabic, and English.
• Established ‘Scientific Society’ for Muslims.
• After returning from England he founded the Mohammadan Anglo-Oriental College in 1875 which later developed into ‘Aligarh Muslim University.
• Started a periodical entitled ‘Mohammadan Social Reformer’.
• Worked for the propagation of modern education, science, and technology.

(b) Tarabai Shinde:

• Born in 1839.
• She demanded gender equality.
• She was the first woman to challenge the patriarchal system.
• She was of the opinion that religious systems suppress women because religions are created by men.

(c) Maharshi Vitthal Ramji Shinde:

• Opened Marathi schools and schools for technical training in Parel, Deonar in Mumbai under the umbrella of ‘Depressed Classes Mission’ that was established by him.
• Worked to create public awareness about the issues affecting the depressed classes like entry into temples (for example, protestations for the right of entry in Parvati temple in Pune), agricultural conference, and joint electorate system of depressed classes.

(d) Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay:

• Was an active volunteer of Congress.
• She convinced Mahatma Gandhi to let women participate in salt satyagraha, and she participated in the satyagraha.
• She worked for women’s rights.
• Organized demonstrations to draw attention to the problems of workers and farmers.
• Emphasized justice to female agricultural labourers.
• Insisted that women working in factories should have the necessary facilities.
• Followed up the issue of maternity leave to women.
• Imprisoned by the British for one year for participating in the Quit India Movement.

(e) Ramaswamy Naikar:

• Born in ‘Erode’ in Tamil Nadu in 1879.
• He became a follower of Mahatma Gandhi’s philosophy and worked for propagating the use of ‘Swadeshi’.
• He participated in the Vykom Satyagraha in Travancore against untouchability.
• Started the ‘Swabhiman Andolan’ in Tamil Nadu.
• Fought against the varna system and child marriage.
• He was addressed as ‘Periyar’ or Great Soul because of his magnanimous work.
• Was a great speaker and author.
• Took a radical position on issues like women’s rights and family planning.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Economics Important Questions Chapter 3A Demand Analysis Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Economics Important Questions Chapter 3A Demand Analysis

1. A. Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
The demand curve slopes downward.
(a) Inverse relationship between price quantity demanded
(b) from left to right
(c) from right to left
(d) Direct relationship quantity demanded
Options :
(1) a,b and c
(2) a, b, c and d
(3) a and b
(4) a and d
Answer:
(3) a and b

Question 2.
Demand for a commodity from an individual consumer.
(a) Direct demand
(b) Market demand
(c) Individual demand
(d) Increase in demand
Options:
(1) a
(2) b
(3) c
(4) d
Answer:
(3) c

Question 3.
Demand for a commodity from different consumer at different prices.
(a) Decrease in demand
(b) Contraction in demand
(c) Individual demand
(d) Market demand
Options:
(1) c
(2) b
(3) a
(4) d
Answer:
(4) d

Question 4.
Direct demand.
(a) Vegetable
(b) Milk
(c) Land
(d) Cloth
Options :
(1) a,b and c
(2) a, b and d
(3) b, c and d
(4) c
Answer:
(2) a, b and d

Question 5.
Indirect demand.
(a) Machinery
(b) Sugar
(c) Labour
(d) Capital
Options :
(1) a, b, c and d
(2) a, b and c
(3) a, b and d
(4) a, c and d
Answer:
(4) a, c and d

Question 6.
Joint demand for i tea.
(a) Sugar
(b) Milk
(c) Tea powder
(d) Rice
Options :
(1) a,b and c
(2) b and d
(3) a,b and d
(4) b, c and d
Answer:
(1) a,b and c

Question 7.
Determinant of Demand.
(a) Price
(b) Population
(c) Income
(d) Advertisement
Options :
(1) a and d
(2) a, c and d
(3) a, b, c and d
(4) c and d
Answer:
(3) a, b, c and d

Question 8.
Composite demand.
(a) Electricity
(b) Water
(c) Steel
(d) Xerox machine
Answer:
(1) a, b and d
(2) a, b and c
(3) a, b and d
(4) a and d
Answer:
(2) a, b and c

Question 9.
Competitive demand.
(a) Thums-up
(b) Pepsi
(c) Buttermilk
(d) Coco-cola
Options:
(1) a, b and c
(2) a, c and d
(3) a, b and d
(4) c and d
Answer:
(3) a, b and d

Question 10.
The law of demand was introduced by neo-classical economist.
(a) Alfred Marshall
(b) Adam Smith
(c) Ragnar Frisch
(d) Samuelson
Options:
(1) e
(2) b
(3) d
(4) a
Answer:
(4) a

Question 11.
Assumptions for the law of Demand.
(a) Constant Income
(b) No change in taxation policy
(c) Change in tradition
(d) Stable population
Options :
(1) a, b and d
(2) a, b and c
(3) a and d
(4) only d
Answer:
(1) a, b and d

Question 12.
Exceptions to the law of Demand.
(a) Inferior goods
(b) Jewellery
(c) Habitual goods
(d) Price of substitute goods
Options :
(1) a, b and d
(2) a, b and c
(3) only d
(4) a, c and d
Answer:
(2) a, b and c

Question 13.
Variation in Demand.
(a) Change in Price
(b) Change in quantity demanded
(c) Change in other factors
(d) No change in other factors
Options :
(1) a, b and c
(2) a, b and d
(3) c and d
(4) only a and b
Answer:
(2) a, b and d

Question 14.
Expansion of Demand.
(a) Fall in price
(b) Rise in quantity demanded
(c) No change in income
(d) Change in population
Options :
(1) only c
(2) a, b and c
(3) a, b and d
(4) b, c, and d
Answer:
(2) a, b and c

Question 15.
Change in Demand.
(a) Constant price
(b) Change in demand
(c) Changes in other factors
(d) Increase and Decrease in demand
Options :
(1) a and b
(2) c and d
(3) a, b, c and d
(4) None of these
Answer:
(3) a, b, c and d

Question 16.
Individual demand.
(a) Micro economics
(b) Slicing method
(c) Lumping method
(d) Study of individual unit
Options :
(1) a, b and d
(2) b and c
(3) b, c and d
(4) only a
Answer:
(1) a, b and d

Question 17.
Market demand.
(a) Aggregate demand
(b) Macro economics
(c) Micro economics
(d) Lumping method
Options :
(1) a, b and d
(2) b, c and d
(3) b and c
(4) only c
Answer:
(1) a, b and d

Question 18.
Decrease in demand.
(a) Favourable changes in other factors
(b) Unfavourable changes in other factors
(c) Decrease in quantity demanded
(d) Changes in income of the consumer
Options :
(1) b, c and d
(2) a, b and c
(3) a and b
(4) a, c and d
Answer:
(1) b, c and d

(B) Complete the Correlation.

(1) Individual consumer ……………… :: Total of all the individual: Market demand
(2) Labour : Indirect demand:: Clothes : ………………
(3) Joint demand : Pencil and Paper :: ……………… Electricity
(4) Complementary demand : Car and Petrol:: ………………: Pepsi and Coke
(5) Constant level of Income : Assumption : : Prestige goods : ………………
(6) Expansion in demand : Downward movement on the demand curve :: ………………: Upward movement on the demand curve
(7) Change in demand : Increase in Demand :: ………………: Extension in demand
(8) Increase in demand : Favourable changes in other factors :: Decrease in demand : ………………
(9) Fall in Price : ……………… :: Rise in Price : Quantity demanded falls
(10) ……………… : Tea :: Composite demand : Milk
Answer:
(1) Individual demand
(2) Direct demand
(3) Composite demand
(4) Competitive demand
(5) Exception
(6) Contraction in demand
(7) Variation in demand
(8) Unfavourable changes in other factors
(9) Quantity demanded rises
(10) Joint demand

(C) Give economic terms.

(6) Desire + willingness to purchase + Ability to pay.
(7) The demand by a single consumer in a market.
(8) The demand by all consumer in a market.
(9) Other factors remaining constant, a fall in demand due to a rise in price.
(10) Other factors remaining constant, a rise in demand due to a fall in price.
(11) To satisfying a want of sewing, needle and thread is required.
(12) A rise in demand due to changes in other factors, price remaining constant.
(13) Fall in demand due to changes in other factors, price remaining constant.
(14) Goods of low quality are considered as inferior goods.
(15) The demand for commodities to satisfy the human wants directly.
(16) The demand for factors of production like land, labour, etc.
(17) Two or more goods are demanded at a time to satisfy one want.
Answer:
(6) Demand
(7) Individual Demand
(8) Market Demand
(9) Contraction in Demand
(10) Expansion in Demand
(11) Complementary or Joint Demand
(12) Increase in Demand
(13) Decrease in Demand
(14) Giffen’s Goods
(15) Direct Demand
(16) Indirect Demand
(17) Joint or Complementary Demand

(D) Find the o’dd word out.

(1) Desire, Ability to pay, Uselessness, \ Willingness to purchase
(2) Pepsi, Limca, Coffee, Coke
(3) Cloth, Sugar, Fertilizer, Milk
(4) Land, Capital, Raw material, Flowers
(5) Tea and Sugar, Pen and Pencil, Car and Petrol, Mobile phones and Sim cards
(6) Indirect demand, Individual demand, Composite demand, Competitive demand
(7) Consumer demand, Complementary demand, Composite demand, Competitive demand
(8) Tea – Coffee, Car – Fuel, Thums-up – Pepsi, Rice – Wheat
(9) Coffee powder, Chilli powder, Milk, Sug >r
(10) Gold, Diamond, Platinum, Aluminium
(11) Sony, Samsung, Onida, Karbonn
Answer:
(1) Uselessness
(2) Coffee
(3) Fertilizer
(4) Flowers
(5) Pen and Pencil
(6) Individual demand
(7) Consumer demand
(8) Car – Fuel
(9) Chilli powder
(10) Aluminium
(11) Karbonn

(E) Complete the following statements.

(1) The willingness to have something is called …………….
(2) Desire, willingness to purchase and ability to pay are the three necessary conditions for …………….
(3) The total quantities of a commodity demanded by a particular buyer is ……………..
(4) The sum of the total quantities of a commodity demanded by all buyers in a market is ……………..
(5) Commodities and services satisfying the human wants directly is known as ……………..
(6) The purchasing power of the consumer depends on ……………..
(7) One commodity can be put to several uses, it is known as ……………..
(8) Marshall’s law of demand describes the functional relationship between ……………..
(9) Inferior goods like cheap bread, vegetable ghee, etc., is known as ……………..
(10) Expensive goods such as diamonds, luxury cars are known as ……………..
(11) When demand changes due to changes in price, it is known as ………………
(12) A rise in demand caused by favourable changes in other factors at same price is called ………………
Answer:
(1) desire
(2) demand
(3) individual demand
(4) market demand
(5) direct demand
(6) ability to pay
(7) composite demand
(8) Demand and Price
(9) Giffen goods
(10) Prestige goods
(11) variation in demand
(12) increase in demand

(F) Choose the wrong pair :

I.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(1) Individual demand	Particular consumer
(2) Complementary demand	Pen – Ink
(3) Competitive demand	Milk – Sugar
(4) Indirect demand	Labour

Answer:
Wrong pair : Competitive demand – Milk- 5 Sugar

II.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(1) Expansion of demand	Other factors remaining constant
(2) Law of demand	Slopes downwards from left to right
(3) Market demand	Demand of all consumers
(4) Direct demand	Factors of production

Answer:
Wrong pair : Direct demand – Factors production

III.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(i) Inferior goods	Giffen goods
(2) Prestige goods	Luxury goods
(3) Expanasion of demand	Fall in price
(4) Increase in demand	Unfavourable changes in other factors

Answer:
Wrong pair : Increase in demand Unfavourable changes in other factors

IV.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(1) Sir Robert Giffen	England
(2) Increase in real income	Decrease in demand
(3) Inferior goods	Bread
(4) Superior goods	Meat

Answer:
Wrong pair : Increase in real income Decrease in demand

V.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(1) Individual demand	Individual consumer
(2) Joint demand	Tea-coffee
(3) Variation in demand	Other factors remaining constant
(4) Decrease in demand	Price remains constant

Answer:
(2) Joint demand Tea-coffee

(G) Assertion and Reasoning

Question 1.
Assertion (A) – Individual demand refers to the quantity of a commodity demanded by particular consumer.
Reasoning (R) – Market demand refers to the total demand for commodity from all the consumers.
(i) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(ii) (A) is false but (R) is true. .
(iii) Both (A) and (R) is true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) is true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(iv) Both (A) and (R) is true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Question 2.
Assertion (A) – Marginal utility goes on diminishing with an increase in the stock of ) a commodity. I
Reasoning (R) – Purchasing power of a consumer increases when the price of a commodity increases. 5-
(i) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(ii) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) is true and (R) is the correct l explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) is true but (R) is not the ( correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(i) (A) is true but (R) is false.

Question 3.
Assertion (A) – Indirect demand refers to the demand for goods and services which are needed for further production.
Reasoning (R) – All factors of production have indirect or derived demand.
(i) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(ii) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) is true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) is true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(iii) Both (A) and (R) is true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 4.
Assertion (A) – When the population size is larger, demand for commodity will be less.
Reasoning (R) – Change in the price of one commodity would also affect the demand of substitute goods.
(i) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(ii) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) is true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) is true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(ii) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Question 5.
Assertion (A) – Demand curve slopes downwards from left to right.
Reasoning (R) – The price of a commodity falls, quantity demanded rises and when S price of commodity rises, quantity demanded falls.
(i) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(ii) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) is true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) is True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(iii) Both (A) and (R) is true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 6.
Assertion (A) – If consumer can anticipate the future price of a commodity then it will affect the present demand of a commodity.
Reasoning (R) – Ram buy’s less mangoes in anticipation of getting it at cheaper rate in further date.
(i) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(ii) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) is true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) is true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(iii) Both (A) and (R) is true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 7.
Assertion (A) – Variations in demand refers to change in quantity demanded due to change in price alone and other factors remain constant.
Reasoning (R) – Increase in demand and decrease in demand are the types of variations in demand.
(i) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(ii) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) is true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) is true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(i) (A) is true but (R) is false.

Question 8.
Assertion (A) – Increase in demand refers rise in quantity demanded due to favourable changes in other factors and price remains constant.
Reasoning (R) – Decrease in demand refers to fall in quantity demand due to unfavourable changes in other factors and price remains constant.
(i) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(ii) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) is true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) is True but (R) is not the ) correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(iii) Both (A) and (R) is true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(H) Choose the correct pair :

I.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(1) Joint Demand	(a) Luxury car
(2) Demand and price	(b) Exception to the law of demand
(3) Giffen’s goods	(c) Inverse relationship
(4) Prestige goods	(d) Several commodities
	(e) Vegetables

Answer:
(1)-(d), (2)-(c), (3)-(b), (4)-(a).

II.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(1) Factors of production	(a) Change in price alone
(2) Inferior goods	(b) Change in other factors
(3) Pen and Pencil	(c) Substitute goods
(4) Change in Demand	(d) Giffen’s goods
	(e) Indirect demand

Answer:
(1) – (e), (2) – (d), (3) – (c), (4) – (b).

III.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(1) Contraction in demand	(a) Less is demanded at a same price
(2) Decrease in demand	(b) Complementary goods
(3) Demand curve	(c) Substitute goods
(4) Tea and Coffee	(d) Less is demanded at a higher price
	(e) Slopes downwards from left to right

Answer:
(1)-(d), (2)-(a), (3)-(e), (4) – (c).

IV.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(1) Demand	(a) A new demand curve
(2) Variation in Demand	(b) Same demand curve
(3) Extension of demand	(c) Ability and willingness to pay
(4) Increase in demand	(d) Change in price alone
	(e) Distribution of income

Answer:
(1)-(c), (2)-(d), (3)-(b), (4)-(a).

V.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(1) Demand	(a) Exceptional demand
(2) Prestige goods	(b) Prof. Marshall
(3) Joint demand	(c) Demand curve shift to right
(4) Demand increases	(d) Complementary demand
	(e) A higher price

Answer:
(1)-(b), (2)-(a), (3)-(d), (4)-(c).

2.[A] Identify and explain the concept from given illustrations.

Question 1.
Ramesh has bought 1kg of Tea powder instead of expensive coffee powder.
Answer:
Concept: Competitive Demand
Explanation : Competitive Demand refers to demand for those goods which substitute for each other.
Change in the price of one commodity can affect the demand for substitute goods. Ramesh has found price of coffee at very high level, thus he bought tea powder.

Question 2.
Since Manoj’s salary has increased he has bought 5 kgs of rice instead of 3 kgs rice which he buys normally.
Answer:
Concept: Increase in demand
Explanation : Increase in demand refers to change in quantity demanded due to favourable changes in other factors like tastes, income, etc., and price remains constant.
Manoj has got increment this month and hence he has bought more quantity of rice at same price.

Question 3.
Due to increase in population of Mumbai, demand for electricity is rising day by day.
Answer:
Concept: Composite demand
Explanation : Composite demand refers to the demand for a commodity which can be put to several uses.
Demand for electricity is rising due to more industries, increase in household consumption etc.
Due to urbanization and industrialization many people are getting migrated to Mumbai and thus the consumption of electricity in increasing day by day.

Question 4.
Pari has bought most desirable Apple iphone 11 pro.
Answer:
Concept: Demand
Explanation : In economics demand means a desire which is backed by willingness and ability to pay.
It was Part’s most favourite phone, thus she spend whatever price for it was and bought the phone.

Question 5.
Whenever there is decrease in price of gold, demand for gold rises.
Answer:
Concept : Expansion or Extension of Demand
Explanation : Expansion of Demand refers to rise in quantity demanded due to fall in price alone while other factors like tastes, income, etc., remain unchanged.
There is general tendency of consumer to buy more whenever price falls.
Gold is most preferred investment of general public thus it is most demanded with fall in price.

(B) Distinguish between.

Question 1.
Individual Demand and Market Demand.
Answer:
Individual Demand:

1. Individual demand refers to total quantities of a commodity demanded by an individual or household at a given price during a period of time.
2. It is basically micro or narrow concept and not very useful in framing business, production and price policies.
3. Individual demand depend on the price of goods, disposable income credit facilities, taste, preference, etc.
4. It can be presented with the help of individual demand schedule and individual demand curve.

Market Demand :

1. Market demand refers to the total quantities of a commodity demanded by all the individuals in the market at a given price, during a given period of time.
2. It is a macro or broader concept and is very useful in framing, business, production and price policies. Even the law of demand is based on market demand.
3. Market demand depends on size of population, social customs, distribution of income, etc.
4. It can be presented with the help of market demand schedule and market demand curve.

Question 4.
Inferior Goods or Giffen’s Goods and Normal Goods.
Answer:
Inferior Goods or Giffen’s Goods:

1. Giffen’s goods refers to inferior goods like cheap quality rice, vegetable ghee, bread, etc. purchased by poor people.
2. The demand for inferior goods falls when prices falls.
3. The demand curve for Giffen’s goods is upward sloping from left to right as shown below.
   
4. Giffen’s goods are exceptions to the law of demand. As price and demand are directly related.

Normal Goods:

1. Normal goods are those goods which are better in quality and purchased by higher income group like rice, sugar, clothes.
2. The demand for normal goods falls when price rises.
3. The demand curve for normal goods is downwards sloping from left to right as shown below.
   
4. Normal goods represent the law of demand.
   As price and demand are inversely related.

Question 5.
Normal Demand Curve and Exceptional Demand Curve.
Answer:
Normal Demand Curve:

1. Normal demand curve represents the law of demand, which states that demand is inversely related to price.
2. The normal demand curve slopes downwards from left to right.
3. Normal goods like rice, wheat, clothes have normal demand curve.
   

Exceptional Demand Curve:

1. Exceptional demand curve goes against the law of demand. It represents a direct relationship between price and demand.
2. Exceptional demand curve slopes upwards from left to right.
3. Giffen’s goods, prestige goods, branded goods, habituated goods, like cigarette have exceptional demand curve.
   

Question 6.
Direct Demand and Derived Demand / Indirect Demand
Answer:
Direct Demand:

1. Demand for consumer goods is direct because it satisfies our wants directly.
2. Demand for consumers goods are directly for consumption.
3. Direct demand comes from consumers or household sector.
4. Direct demand depends on price, income, taste, habits, etc. of consumers.
5. E.g. all consumer goods like books, furniture, T.V., tea, etc. have direct demand.

Derived Demand / Indirect Demand:

1. Demand for factors of production like land, labour, capital is derived as they satisfy our wants indirectly
2. Demand for factors of production are for further production.
3. Derived demand comes from producers or firms.
4. Derived demand depends on demand for final goods and services.
5. E.g. when demand for cotton shirt will increase, demand for raw cotton increases.

Question 7.
Extension I Expansion of Demand and Increase in Demand.
Answer:
Extension / Expansion of Demand:

1. Extension of demand refers to a rise in demand due to fall in price. Other factors remaining constant.
2. It is a case of variation in demand.
3. Extension in demand takes place due to a fall in price, other things remaining constant.
4. When there is extension in demand the demand curve moves downward on the same demand curve.
   

Increase in Demand:

1. Increase in demand takes place when more quantity is demanded at the same price.
2. It is a case of changes in demand.
3. Increase in demand takes place due to change in other factors, price remaining constant such as change in income, taste, habits, population, etc.
4. When there is a increase in demand the demand curve shifts to the right of the otiginal demand curve.
   

Question 8.
Contraction of Demand and Decrease in Demand
Answer:
Contraction of Demand

1. Contraction of demand means fall in demand due to a rise in price alone, other factors remaining constant.
2. Contraction of demand is a case of variation of demand.
3. Contraction in demand takes place due to rise in price alone.
4. It is shown by an upward movement along the same demand curve.
   

Decrease in Demand

1. Decrease in demand means when less is demanded at the same price or same quantity demanded at a lower price.
2. Decrease in demand is a case of changes in demand.
3. Decrease in demand is due to –
   (a) decrease in income
   (b) decrease in price of substitute
   (c) increase in price of complementary goods
   (d) decrease in population, etc.
4. A decrease in demand is shown by a shift in demand curve to the left of the original demand curve.
   

Question 9.
Variation in Demand and Chañges in Di
Answer:
Variation in Demand :

1. Variation in demand refers to changes in quantity demanded due to changes in price, other things remaining constant.
2. There are two types of variation in demand –
   (a) Expansion or Extension in demand.
   (b) Contraction in demand.
3. When price rises, quantity demanded falls, it is known as contraction and when price falls quantity demanded rises, it is known as expansion.
4. Variation in demand are shown by a movement along the same demand curve. Upward movement indicates contraction and downward movement indicates expansion.
   

Changes in Demand:

1. Changes in demand refers to changes in quantity demanded due to changes in factor other than price like change in income of consumer, size of population, change in fashion, change in price of substitute, etc.
2. There are two types of changes in demand –
   (a) Increase in demand
   (b) Decrease in demand
3. Increase in demand means when more quantity is demanded at the same price and decrease in demand means when less quantity is demanded at a same price.
4. Changes in demand are shown by shift in demand curve. Increase in demand is shown by a shift in demand curve to right side and decrease in demand is shown by a shift to the left side.
   

Question 10.
Joint Demand and Composite Demand.
Answer:
Joint Demand:

1. When two or more goods are demanded jointly to satisfy a single want, it is called joint or complementary demand.
2. E.g. of joint demand are car and petrol, ink cartridge and printers, mobile and sim card.
3. A rise in demand for one product will lead to a rise in the demand for other and vice versa.
4. In case of joint demand an increase in price of one good will reduce the demand for its joint product i.e. a rise in price of petrol will reduce the demand for car.
5. The demand for joint products is inelastic.

Composite Demand:

1. When goods are demanded for several uses, it is the case of composite demand.
2. E.g. of composite demand are for electricity, coal, steel, sugar, etc.
3. A change in demand for one use will affect the supply in other use.
4. In case of composite demand, an increase in the price of product will reduce its demand for different uses. Electricity / coal will be put to only important uses when its price rises.
5. The demand for composite commodities is elastic.

Question 11.
Complementary Demand or Joint Demand and Competitive Demand.
Answer:
Complementary Demand or Joint Demand:

1. When two or more goods are demanded jointly to satisfy one want, it is called complementary or joint demand.
2. E.g. bread and butter, car and petrol, mobile and sim card.
3. A rise in demand for one product will lead to a rise in the demand for the other and vice versa.
4. The cross elasticity of demand is negative.
5. When price of one commodity rises the demand for the other commodity i.e. its joint product falls. When price of car falls the demand for petrol rises.
6. The demand curve has a negative slope.
   

Competitive Demand Demand:

1. When two goods are close substitutes i.e. the demand for one competes with that of the other it is a case of competitive demand.
2. E.g. tea or coffee, pepsi or coke, petrol or diesel, Lux or Dove.
3. Rise in demand for one product will lead to a fall in the demand for other and vice versa.
4. The cross elasticity of demand is positive.
5. When the price of one commodity rises, the demand for the substitute commodity rises. When price of tea rise, the demand for coffee increases.
6. The demand curve has a positive slope.
   

Question 12.
Demand and Aggregate Demand.
Answer:
Demand:

1. Demand is a micro concept.
2. It refers to that quantity of a commodity which a person is ready to buy at a particular price and during a specific period of time.

Aggregate Demand:

1. Aggregate demand is a macro concept.
2. It refers to the total amount of sales proceeds which an entrepreneur actually expects from the sale of output produced at a given level of employment during the year.

3. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Write short notes on types of demand.
Answer:
Types of Demand:

1. Direct Demand : When a commodity satisfies the want of a consumer directly, it is said to have direct demand. Demand for consumer goods like food, clothes, sugar, vegetables, milk, etc.
2. Indirect Demand : It refers to demand for goods which are required for further production. It is also called as derived demand. Demand for factors of production like land, labour, capital, etc.
3. Joint or Complementary Demand : When two or more goods are demanded at a same time to satisfy single want, it is known as Joint or Complementary Demand. E.g. car and fuel, pen and ink, mobile phone and sim card, etc.
4. Composite Demand : When one commodity can be utilize for several needs or multiple uses, it is known as composite demand. E.g. electricity, steel, coal, etc.
5. Competitive Demand : It is demand for those goods which are substitute for each other. E.g. tea or coffee, sugar or jaggery, pepsi or Thumsup, etc.

Question 2.
Explain Market Demand schedule with a suitable diagram.
Answer:
It refers to total demand for a commodity from all the consumers. It is total quantity of commodity demanded by different consumers at different prices during a given period of time.
Market Demand Schedule is a tabular representation of various quantities of a commodity demanded by different consumers at different prices during a given period of time.
This can be explained with the help of following schedule-

The above market demand schedule shows an inverse relationship between price and market demanded of commodity ‘X’. At a high price of ₹10 per kg of commodity ‘X’, the market demand is only 30 kg and at a lower price of market demand rises to 90 kg of commodity ‘X’.

Market Demand Curve.
It is a graphical representation of market demand schedule X-axis represents quantity demanded (Market Demand) and Y-axis represents the price of the commodity. When the above market demand schedule is plotted on the graph, we derive the market demand curve ‘DD’, which slopes downward from left to right indicating inverse relationship between price and quantity demanded.

Question 3.
Explain the concept of change in j demand.
Answer:
Change in demand refers to change in s quantity demanded due to change in other factors of demand and price remains constant.
There are two types of changes in demand. They are : (1) Increase in demand (2) Decrease in demand.

(1) Increase in demand : It refers to rise in quantity demanded due to favourable changes in other factors like tastes, income, etc. and price remains constant.
Demand curve shifts to the right hand side of the original demand curve.

In the above diagram, DD is the demand curve which is showing downward movement on the same demand curve from point ‘b’ to point ‘c’ which indicates an expansion of demand.

(2) Decrease in demand : It refers to fall in quantity demanded due to unfavourable changes in other factors like tastes, income, etc. and price remains constant. Demand curve shift to the left hand side of the original demand curve.

In the above diagram DD is the original demand curve. D₂ D₂ demand curve indicates, decrease in demand by shifting towards the left hand side of original demand curve from point ‘b’ to point ‘a’.

Question 4.
Explain the assumptions to the Law of Demand.
Answer:
Assumptions to the Law of Demand:

• Prices of Substitute goods remain constant : The price of substitute goods should remain unchanged, as change in the price will affect the demand for the commodity.
• Prices of Complementary goods remains constant : A change in the price of one good will affect the demand for other, thus the prices of complementary goods should remain unchanged.
• No Expectation about future changes in prices : The consumers do not expect any significance rise or fall in the future prices.
• No change in size of Population : The size of population, gender ratio and age composition are assumed to remain constant. As such changes are sure to affect demand.
• No change in Taxation Policy : The level of direct and indirect tax imposed by the government on the income and goods should remain constant.
• Constant Level of Income : Consumer’s income must remain unchanged because if income increases, consumer may buy more even at a higher price not following the law of demand.
• No Change in Tastes, Habits,
  Preference, Fashions, etc. : If the taste changes then the consumers preference will also change which will affect the demand. When commodities are out of fashion, then demand will be low even at a lower price.

Question 5.
What is meant by extension and contraction of demand?
Answer:
Variations in demand refers to change in quantity demanded for a commodity due to change in price alone and other factors remaining constant.
There are two types of variations in demand.
They are (1) Expansion or Extension of demand (2) Contraction of Demand.

(1) Expansion or Extension of demand : It refers to rise in quantity demanded due to fall in price alone and other factors like tastes, income, etc. remaining unchanged. It is shown by a downward movement on the same demand curve.

In the above diagram, DD is the demand curve which is showing downward movement on the same demand curve from point ‘b’ to point ‘c’ which indicates an expansion of demand.

(2) Contraction of demand : It refers to fall in quantity demanded due to rise in price alone and other factors like tastes, income, population, etc. remaining unchanged. It is shown by a upward movement on the same demand curve.

In the above diagram, DD is the demand curve which is showing upward movement on the same demand curve from point ‘e’ to point ‘b’ and indicates contraction of demand.

Question 6.
Explain the concept of Giffen Paradox
Answer:
Giffen Paradox:

1. Giffen good are low quality or inferior goods like jowar, palm oil, etc.
2. Demand for low quality goods and inferior goods decrease even if there prices falls.
3. This behaviour of consumer was observed by Sit Robert Giffen in england.
4. Sir Robert Giffen observed that when price of bread (inferior good)declined, people did not buy more of it, because with increased real income they preferred to buy superior goods like meat.
5. In this case, demand curve slopes upward from left to right, showing exception to the law of demand.
   

4. State with reasons whether you agree or disagree with the following statements:

Question 1.
There are no exceptions to the Law of Demand.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with this statement.
There are some important cases in which the demand for the commodity is greater when price rises and smaller when price falls. Such cases are called exceptions to the law of Demand. In such case, demand curve slopes upwards from left to right and it has a positive slope.

• Prestige Goods : Rich people buy more expensive goods like gold, diamonds, etc., even when there prices are high to maintain their status.
• Giffen Paradox : Demand for low quality goods and inferior goods decrease even if there prices falls.
  According to Sir Robert Giffen when price of bread declined, people did not buy more because of increase in their real income and they prefer to buy superior goods like meat.
• Speculation : People are tend to buy more commodities if they expect prices to rise further. E.g. prices of oil, sugar. etc., are expected to rise before Diwali, so people buy more of these commodities even at higher price.
• Habitual goods : Due to habit of consumption, certain goods like tea is purchased in required quantities even at higher price.
• Ignorance : Sometimes people completely ignore the price of commodity and buy more of that commodity ignoring higher price.
• Price Illusion : Consumer feels that good at higher price are of better quality, therefore demand for such goods are higher even at rise in their prices.
  

Question 2.
Various factors influence the demand for a commodity.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.

Meaning of Demand : Demand refers to a desire or want for goods. Desire is the willingness to have some commodity which is backed by willingness and ability to pay.
Definition : According to Benham, “The demand for anything at a given price is the amount of it, which will be bought per unit of time at that price.

Features of Demand :

1. Demand is a relative concept.
2. Demand is essentially expressed with reference to time and price. ?

Determinants of Demand :

1. Price of Complementary Goods : Demand changes with changes in price of complementary goods like car and petrol, etc.
2. Advertisement : Effective advertisement and sales promotion will lead to greater demand of product. E.g. cosmetics, toothbrush, etc.
3. Price : Demand for a commodity is mainly influenced by its price. Normally at a higher price the demand is less and at a lower price it is more. Thus, demand varies inversely with price of a commodity.
4. Taste, Habits and Fashions : Habits influence market demand. If people habituated to the consumption of certain goods they will not give up such habits easily. E.g. demand for liquor, cigarettes, etc. Sometimes fashion change attitude and preference of people which in turn changes market demand.
5. Income: Income determines the purchasing power. Rise in income will lead to a rise in demand of a commodity and fall in income will lead to a fall in demand of a commodity.
6. Other Factors : (a) Climatic condition, (b) Changes in technology, (c) Government policy, (d) Customs and traditions, etc.
7. Nature of Product: Under necessary and unavailable circumstances the demand of a commodity will continue to be same irrespective of the corresponding price. E.g. medicine to control blood-pressure.
8. Level of Taxation : There would be increase in price of goods and services due to high rates of taxes which results in a decrease in demand and vice-versa.
9. Expectation about the Future Prices : If the consumer expect a rise in price in the near future they will demand more at present price. Similarly, when they expect price to fall, then they will buy less at present prices.
10. Price of Substitute Goods : Demand for cheaper substitute goods will rise when there is fall in price of such goods. E.g. when sugar price rises, then the demand for jaggery will rise.
11. Size of Population: Demand for commodity depends upon size and composition of population like age structure, gender ratio which influence demand for certain goods. E.g. larger the child population, more will be the demand for toys, chocolates, etc.

Question 3.
The demand curve slopes upwards from left to right.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with this statement.
OR
Demand curve slopes downward from left to right.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.
Reasons justifying downwards sloping demand curve are as follows:

• The law ofDiminishing Marginal Utility: Marginal utility goes on diminishing when there is increase in the stock of commodity and consumer tends to buy more when price falls and vice-versa.
• Income Effects : Whenever there is a fall in price of a commodity, purchasing power of a consumer gets increased, which enables him to buy more of that commodity.
• Substitution Effect : When price of commodity rises consumer tends to buy more of cheaper substitute goods and less of the commodity whose price has increased.
• Multi-purpose Uses : When a commodity can be used for satisfying multiple needs, its demand will rise with a fall in its price and vice-versa.
• New Consumers : When there is fall in price of a commodity, a new consumer class buy the commodity as they can afford it.
  Thus total demand for commodity increases with fall in price.

Question 4.
The law of Demand is based on assumptions.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.

Assumptions to the Law of Demand:

• Prices of Substitute goods remain constant : The price of substitute goods should remain unchanged, as change in the price will affect the demand for the commodity.
• Prices of Complementary goods remains constant : A change in the price of one good will affect the demand for other, thus the prices of complementary goods should remain unchanged.
• No Expectation about future changes in prices : The consumers do not expect any significance rise or fall in the future prices.
• No change in size of Population : The size of population, gender ratio and age composition are assumed to remain constant. As such changes are sure to affect demand.
• No change in Taxation Policy : The level of direct and indirect tax imposed by the government on the income and goods should remain constant.
• Constant Level of Income : Consumer’s income must remain unchanged because if income increases, consumer may buy more even at a higher price not following the law of demand.
• No Change in Tastes, Habits,
  Preference, Fashions, etc. : If the taste changes then the consumers preference will also change which will affect the demand. When commodities are out of fashion, then demand will be low even at a lower price.

Question 5.
Price is the only determinant of demand.
OR
Price is the only factor that affects demand for a commodity.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with this statement.
There are many other determinants of demand beside price, like –

1. Income: Income determines the purchasing power. Rise in income will lead to a rise in demand of a commodity and fall in income will lead to a fall in demand of a commodity.
2. Price of Substitute Goods : Demand for cheaper substitute goods will rise when there is fall in price of such goods. E.g. when sugar price rises, then the demand for jaggery will rise.
3. Price : Demand for a commodity is mainly influenced by its price. Normally at a higher price the demand is less and at a lower price it is more. Thus, demand varies inversely with price of a commodity.
4. Nature of Product: Under necessary and unavailable circumstances the demand of a commodity will continue to be same irrespective of the corresponding price. E.g. medicine to control blood-pressure.
5. Size of Population: Demand for commodity depends upon size and composition of population like age structure, gender ratio which influence demand for certain goods. E.g. larger the child population, more will be the demand for toys, chocolates, etc.

Question 6.
All desires are not demand.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.

• Desire means an individual’s wish to acquire a commodity.
• In economics, demand means desire which is backed by willingness and ability to pay.
• Symbolically, Demand = Desire + Ability to pay + Willingness to pay
• All desires may not be backed by ability to pay and willingness to pay.
• Therefore, all desires are not demand.

Question 7.
Population is the only determinant or factors of demand. (Mar. ‘15)
Answer:
No, I do not agree with this statement.

Determinants of Demand :

1. Price of Complementary Goods : Demand changes with changes in price of complementary goods like car and petrol, etc.
2. Advertisement : Effective advertisement and sales promotion will lead to greater demand of product. E.g. cosmetics, toothbrush, etc.
3. Price : Demand for a commodity is mainly influenced by its price. Normally at a higher price the demand is less and at a lower price it is more. Thus, demand varies inversely with price of a commodity.
4. Taste, Habits and Fashions : Habits influence market demand. If people habituated to the consumption of certain goods they will not give up such habits easily. E.g. demand for liquor, cigarettes, etc. Sometimes fashion change attitude and preference of people which in turn changes market demand.
5. Income: Income determines the purchasing power. Rise in income will lead to a rise in demand of a commodity and fall in income will lead to a fall in demand of a commodity.
6. Other Factors : (a) Climatic condition, (b) Changes in technology, (c) Government policy, (d) Customs and traditions, etc.

Question 8.
There are many types of demand.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.

1. Direct Demand : When a commodity satisfies the want of a consumer directly, it is said to have direct demand. Demand for consumer goods like food, clothes, sugar, vegetables, milk, etc.
2. Indirect Demand : It refers to demand for goods which are required for further production. It is also called as derived demand. Demand for factors of production like land, labour, capital, etc.
3. Joint or Complementary Demand : When two or more goods are demanded at a same time to satisfy single want, it is known as Joint or Complementary Demand. E.g. car and fuel, pen and ink, mobile phone and sim card, etc.
4. Composite Demand : When one commodity can be utilize for several needs or multiple uses, it is known as composite demand. E.g. electricity, steel, coal, etc.
5. Competitive Demand : It is demand for those goods which are substitute for each other. E.g. tea or coffee, sugar or jaggery, pepsi or Thumsup, etc.

5. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
State and explain the law of Demand with assumptions.
Answer:
(A) Introduction : The law of demand is one of the important law of consumption which explain the functional relationship between price and quantity demanded of a commodity. Prof. Alfred Marshall in his book ‘Principle of Economics’ which was published in 1890, has explained the consumer’s behaviour as follows:

(B) Statement of the Law : According to Prof. Alfred Marshall, “Other things being equal, higher the price of a commodity, smaller is the quantity demanded and lower the price of a commodity, larger is the quantity demanded.
In other words, other things remaining constant, demand varies inversely with price. Marshall’s law of demand describes the functional relationship between demand and price. It can be presented as:
D_x = f(P_x)
where D = Demand for Commodity
x = Commodity
f = function
P_x = Price of a commodity
(C) Assumption :

• Prices of Substitute goods remain constant : The price of substitute goods should remain unchanged, as change in the price will affect the demand for the commodity.
• Prices of Complementary goods s remains constant : A change in the price j of one good will affect the demand for other,  thus the prices of complementary goods  should remain unchanged.
• No Expectation about future changes jj in prices: The consumers do not expect any \ significance rise or fall in the future prices.
• No change in Taxation Policy : The level of direct and indirect tax imposed by the government on the income and goods should remain constant.
• Constant Level of Income : Consumer’s income must remain unchanged because if income increases, consumer may buy more even at a higher price not following the law of demand.
• No Change in Tastes, Habits, Preference, Fashions, etc. : If the taste changes then the consumers preference will also change which will affect the demand. When commodities are out of fashion, then demand will be low even at a lower price.

(D) Explanation of the law of Demand :
The law of demand is explained with the help of the following demand schedule and diagram:
Demand Schedule

Price of Commodity ‘X’ (in Rs.)	Quantity Demanded of Commodity ‘X’ (in kgs)
50	1
40	2
30	3
20	4
10	5

From the above demand schedule we observe that at higher price of ₹ 50 per kg, quantity demanded is 1 kg. When price fall from ₹ 50 to ₹ 40, quantity demanded rises from 1 kg to 2 kg. Similarly, at price ₹ 30 quantity demanded is 3kg and when price falls from ₹ 20 to ₹ 10 quantity demanded rises from 4 kg to 5 kg. This shows an inverse relationship between price and demand.

In the above diagram X-axis represent quantity demanded and Y-axis represent the price of the commodity. The demand curve DD slopes downwards from left to right ] showing an inverse relationship between price and demand. It has a negative slope.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Geography Important Questions Chapter 3 Human Settlements and Land Use Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Geography Important Questions Chapter 3 Human Settlements and Land Use

Choose the correct option by identifying the correct correlation in the sentences.

Question 1.
In dry region is crucial for the development of settlements.
(a) climate
(b) water
(c) soil
(d) drainage
Answer:
(b) water

Question 2.
Sometimes factor is responsible to the fragmentation of settlement.
(a) social
(b) physical
(c) political
(d) religion
Answer:
(a) social

Question 3.
………………… settlement develops along a road.
(a) Rectangular
(b) Linear
(c) Radial
(d) Circular
Answer:
(b) Linear

Question 4.
……………… settlement is found at the confluence point of the river.
(a) Triangular
(b) Radial
(c) Linear
(d) Rectangular
Answer:
(a) Triangular

Question 5.
………………. settlement grows around a central object.
(a) Circular
(b) Radial
(c) Linear
(d) Rectangular
Answer:
(b) Radial

Question 6.
With the development of settlement and increase in size of population ………………. pattern develops.
(a) radial
(b) rectangular
(c) circular
(d) patternless
Answer:
(d) patternless

Identify the correct correlation.

Question 1.
A – Houses are built along the source of water.
R – In dry regions water is a crucial factor.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
A – Land cover can be determined by analysing the satellite imagery.
R – Land use cannot be determined from satellite imagery alone.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Identify the incorrect factor.

Question 1.
Cantonment towns in India.
(a) Khadki
(b) Agra
(c) Dehu road
(d) Kolhapur
Answer:
(d) Kolhapur

Question 2.
Religious towns in India.
(a) Kolhapur
(b) Varanasi
(c) Nashik
(d) Pune
Answer:
(d) Pune

Question 3.
Mining towns in India.
(a) Chandrapur
(b) Singrauli
(c) Hutar
(d) Belgaum
Answer:
(d) Belgaum

Question 4.
Suburbs of Mumbai.
(a) Sion
(b) Dombivali
(c) Kalyan
(d) Virar
Answer:
(a) Sion

Question 5.
On the basis of spacing between the house’s settlement are divided.
(a) Compact
(b) fragmented
(c) dispersal
(d) linear
Answer:
(d) linear

Question 6.
Tourism towns in India.
(a) Shimla
(b) Udaipur
(c) Manali
(d) Mumbai
Answer:
(d) Mumbai

Question 7.
Industrial towns in India.
(a) Jamshedpur
(b) Chinchwad
(c) Khopoli
(d) Mahabaleshwar
Answer:
(d) Mahabaleshwar

Complete the Chain

Question 1.

A	B	C
(1) Linear pattern	(1) Around central object	(1) Houses are closely spaced
(2) Triangular pattern	(2) Along the road	(2) Straight line
(3) Circular pattern	(3) Around lake	(3) Three sides growth
(4) Radial pattern	(4) Confluence of river	(4) Around centre

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Linear pattern	(1) Along the road	(1) Straight line
(2) Triangular pattern	(2) Confluence of river	(2) Three sides growth
(3) Circular pattern	(3) Around lake	(3) Houses are closely spaced
(4) Radial pattern	(4) Around central object	(4) Around the centre

Question 2.

A	B	C
(1) Permanent pasture	(1) Land left fallow for more than 5 years	(1) Privately owned
(2) Area under miscellaneous tree crops	(2) Owned by village Panchayat	(2) It can be brought under cultivation
(3) Current fallow	(3) Orchards and fruit trees	(3) Common property resource
(4) Culturable waste-land	(4) Land left without cultivation for one or less than one agricultural year	(4) Cultural practice adopted for giving the land rest

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Permanent pasture	(1) Owned by village Panchayat	(1) Common property resource
(2) Area under miscellaneous tree crops	(2) Orchards and fruit trees	(2) Privately owned
(3) Current fallow	(3) Land left without cultivation for one or less than one agricultural year	(3) Cultural practice adopted for giving the land rest
(4) Culturable waste-land	(4) Land left fallow for more than 5 years	(4) It can be brought under cultivation

Write short notes on.

Question 1.
Size and types of settlements.
Answer:

• Settlements vary in size and type. The size of settlement varies from hamlet to metropolitan town.
• A small settlement could be sparsely spaced and large size settlement could be closely spaced.
• On the basis of spacing between the houses, settlements can be divided into four types such as compact/clustered/nucleated /dispersed settlements, semi clustered or fragmented settlements and isolated settlements etc.
• Economic character and social structure of settlement varies with the size of settlement.
• Settlements can also be divided into two types on the basis of their function namely rural settlements and urban settlements.
• Due to large population in urban areas, urban settlements are compact and larger in size.
• Rural settlements are semi-clustered or fragmented and smaller in size.
• In urban settlements there are various functions such as industrial, commercial, administrative, educational, religious, cantonment, tourism etc., therefore urban settlements are multifunctional.
• Some cities are known by their functional importance. For example, Allahabad is known as a religious centre, Jaipur is known as a tourist centre.
• Secondary and tertiary activities are more developed in urban settlements. ,
• In rural settlements primary activities are more developed compared to secondary and tertiary activities.
• In rural settlements agriculture is the main function and other activities related to agriculture such as livestock rearing, tree crops growing, lumbering, fishing are developed.

Differentiate between.

Question 1.
Linear Settlement and Triangular Settlement
Answer:

Linear Settlement	Triangular Settlement
(i) Settlements which develop along Roads, railway lines, canals or rivers.	(i) Settlements which develop at the meeting point of two rivers or roads.
(ii) They grow in straight line or take shape of the road or river.	(ii) They grow in all three sides depending upon physical or social reasons.
(iii) For example, settlement along Mumbai- Pune Highway.	(iii) Settlement of Karad town along the meeting point of Krishna and Koyna river.

Answer the following questions in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the land use in rural areas.
Answer:
1. In rural areas land use is mainly for agriculture and related activities. The Land Records Department has done classification of land use in rural areas as follows:
Net sown area: The land which is used to grow various crops is net sown area. This is main land used in rural areas for agriculture.

Area under tree crops and groves : This land is used to grow fruit crops and orchards.

Area under permanent pastures : This land is covered with grass permanently and it is used for grazing.

2. This land is mostly owned by government or village panchayat.
Current fallow : This is a cultivable land but it is kept empty that is without cultivation for twelve months or less than that.

3. Due to continuous cropping on same patch of land, the land loses its fertility, therefore to regain the fertility of the soil, rest is given to land. During this period land regains the fertility naturally.

Fallow other than current fallow : This land is kept fallow for more than one year but less than five years to regain fertility naturally. Land becomes culturable wasteland, if it is kept fallow for more than five years.

Culturable wasteland : If land is kept fallow for more than five years, it is called culturable wasteland. This land can be used again for cultivation after reclamation practices.

Barren land or wasteland : The land which is not useful for cultivation is called barren land and therefore it is wasteland. For example, hilly area, desert land, marshy land, ravines etc.

Non-agricultural land : The land used for residential purpose, for construction of canals, dams, roads, agro-based industries, fruit processing industries etc., comes under this category. Land under forest: In rural areas some lands are under forest.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Sociology Important Questions Chapter 3 Diversity and Unity in Indian Society Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Sociology Important Questions Chapter 3 Diversity and Unity in Indian Society

1A. Complete the following statements by choosing the correct alternative given in the brackets and rewrite it.

Question 1.
India is a ___________ country. (homogenous, secular, non-religious)
Answer:
secular

Question 2.
Dr. B.S. Guha classifies the population of India into ___________ main racial groups. (four, five, six)
Answer:
six

Question 3.
___________ tends to bring together people of the faith to celebrate commonly cherished festivals and
events. (Race, Religion, Caste)
Answer:
Religion

Question 4.
In ___________ Indian States were organized on a linguistic basis. (1947, 1971, 1956)
Answer:
1956

Question 5.
The Constitution of India has approved ___________ Official languages. (20, 27, 22)
Answer:
22

Question 6.
21st February 2017 was declared as an International ___________ Language Day by the United Nation. (Mother, Father, Spiritual)
Answer:
Mother

Question 7.
___________ refers to territorial entities found within the country. (Religion, Language, Region)
Answer:
Region

Question 8.
Sharing of natural resources gives the people a sense of ___________ unity. (religious, cultural, geographical)
Answer:
geographical

Question 9.
___________ examines the role of religion in social integration as a binding force among individuals and groups. (M. N. Srinivas, Iravati Karve, G. S. Ghurye)
Answer:
M. N. Srinivas

Question 10.
___________ refers mainly to loyalty to one’s own religion before the nation. (Casteism, Communalism, Regionalism)
Answer:
Communalism

Question 11.
Indian States have been divided on a ___________ basis. (religious, caste, linguistic)
Answer:
linguistic

Question 12.
___________ is built into the fabric of society and passed down from one generation to the next. (Equality, Inequality, democracy)
Answer:
inequality

Question 13.
The spirit of tolerance promotes ___________ (economic growth, national integration, diversity)
Answer:
national integration

Question 14.
Economic disparity means ___________ distribution of wealth. (normal, uneven, even)
Answer:
uneven

Question 15.
India is federal Union comprising of ___________ states with seven union territories. (29, 30, 28)
Answer:
29

Question 16.
Language plays an important role of ___________ in an organisation. (interest, communication, transport)
Answer:
communication

Question 17.
Caste an example of ___________ (equality, inequality, none)
Answer:
inequality

Question 18.
___________ refers to loyalty to one’s own religion before nation. (Casteism, Communalism, Linguism)
Answer:
Communalism

Question 19.
Unity implies a sense of oneness meaning ___________ (uniformity, integration, identity)
Answer:
integration

Question 20.
After independence India has adopted ___________ system. (presidential, federal, dictatorship)
Answer:
federal

Question 21.
In the constitution of India there are ___________ fundamental rights. (six, seven, eight)
Answer:
six

Question 22.
State were formed on the linguistic basis in the year ___________ (1956, 1951, 1947)
Answer:
1956

Question 23.
___________ is a multi-religious Country. (India, Bangladesh, China)
Answer:
India

Question 24.
India has always ___________ different cultures. (assimilated, diversified, obstructed)
Answer:
assimilated

Question 25.
Thrissurpuram is the festival held which state ___________ (Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka)
Answer:
Kerala

Question 26.
A large section of the tribal population of India live in ___________ State. (North eastern, southern, western)
Answer:
Noth eastern

Question 27.
Gender expression is linked to gender ___________ (culture, biology, socialisation)
Answer:
socialisation

Question 28.
___________ implies respect and tolerance for people of all faiths. (communalism, secularism, casteism)
Answer:
secularism

Question 29.
The Constitution of India, allows affirmative action through ___________ in education and employment. (discrimination, reservation, tolerance)
Answer:
reservation

B. Correct the incorrect pair and rewrite it.

Question 1.
(a) Kerala – Onam
(b) Tamil Nadu – Pongal
(c) Punjab – Baisakhi
(d) Assam – Makar Sankranti
Answer:
(d) Assam – Bihu

Question 2.
(a) North – Badrainarayan
(b) South – Rameshwaram
(c) East – Golden Temple
(d) West – Dwarka
Answer:
(c) East – Puri

Question 3.
(a) Hindus – Diwali
(b) Muslims – Muharram
(c) Christians – Christmas
(d) Parsi – Easter
Answer:
(d) Parsi – Pateti

Question 4.
(a) Secularism – Sarvadharmasamabhav
(b) Linguism – Language patriotism
(c) Communalism – Religious patriotism
(d) Religionism – Excessive attachment of one’s own caste
Answer:
(d) Religionism – Excessive attachment of one’s own state

Question 5.
(a) Kaveri water dispute – Linguism
(b) Babari – Masjid demolition – Communalism
(c) Unequal distribution of wealth – Economic inequalities
(d) Caste-based vote banks – Casteism
Answer:
(a) Kaveri water dispute – Regionalism

Question 6.
(a) Sanskrit, Kashmiri, Hindi, Bengali – Indo-Aryan
(b) Telugu, Kurukh, Oraon, Maler – Dravidian
(c) Himalayan and Bhutia Languages – Austro-Asiatic
(d) Aka – Jeru, Ongan and Sentinelese – Andamanese
Answer:
(c) Himalayan and Bhutia Languages – Sino-Tibetan

Question 7.
(a) The Three Language Formula – Religious unity
(b) The rule of law – Political unity
(c) Celebration of festivals – Cultural unity
(d) Sharing of natural resources – Geographical unity
Answer:
(a) The Three Language Formula – Linguistic unity

Question 8.
(a) ‘Below Poverty Line’ – Private property
(b) Private school differences – Educational differences
(c) The mall culture – Social environment
(d) Capacities and capabilities – Individual differences
Answer:
(a) ‘Below Poverty Line’ – Family influence

1C. Identify the appropriate term from the given options in the box and rewrite it against the given statement.

Unity, Language, Race, Regionalism, Class, Gender fluidity, North East, Jajmani, Sexuality, Culture, Egalitarian society, Secularism, Kannada, Northeast, Ethnocentrism, Totalitarianism.

Question 1.
The state of togetherness and oneness.
Answer:
Unity

Question 2.
A classical language of India.
Answer:
Kannada

Question 3.
A group of people with set distinctive physical features.
Answer:
Race

Question 4.
The region comprises seven sisters.
Answer:
East North

Question 5.
Relating to another person physically, emotionally and/or sexually.
Answer:
Sexuality

Question 6.
Those who do not limit themselves within the binary.
Answer:
Gender fluidity

Question 7.
The exchange of goods and services between various jatis.
Answer:
Jajmani

Question 8.
People belonging to different religious feel that their religion is superior.
Answer:
Ethnocentrism

Question 9.
Respect and tolerance for people of all faith.
Answer:
Secularism

Question 10.
Loyalty to one’s own state or region before one’s nation.
Answer:
Regionalism

Question 11.
It is based on the principle of cultural integration.
Answer:
National Anthem

Question 12.
It is caused by Religious fundamentalism.
Answer:
Terrorism

Question 13.
Malnutrition deaths of infants.
Answer:
Below Poverty Line

1D. Correct underlined words and complete the statement.

Question 1.
In Kolkata, the festival of lights (Diwali) is celebrated along with the Parsis Festival of Lights (Hannukah).
Answer:
In Kolkata, the festival of lights (Diwali) is celebrated along with the Jewish Festival of Lights (Hannukah).

Question 2.
700 jatis are classified under the Scheduled Caste communities.
Answer:
750 jatis are classified under the Scheduled Caste communities.

Question 3.
Religion has become a means for competing for access to resources and power in modern India.
Answer:
Caste has become a means for competing for access to resources and power in modern India.

Question 4.
Communalism leads to Inter-State rivalries.
Answer:
Regionalism leads to Inter-State rivalries.

Question 5.
In all societies, we see economic equality.
Answer:
In all societies, we see economic inequality.

Question 6.
When people are identified on the basis of wealth, education and job is caste.
Answer:
When people are identified on the basis of wealth, education and job is class.

Question 7.
In traditional Indian society, importance was given to achieved status.
Answer:
In traditional Indian society, importance was given to ascribed status.

Question 8.
Due to racial discrimination, women are denied many rights privileges and opportunities that they deserve.
Answer:
Due to gender discrimination, women are denied many rights privileges, and opportunities that they deserve.

Question 9.
Class diversity is observed in various fields like costumes tradition, food, habits, norms, values, festivals, and lifestyle.
Answer:
Cultural diversity is observed in various fields like costumes tradition, food, habits, norms, values, festivals, and lifestyle.

Question 10.
Indians have faith in dictatorships.
Answer:
Indians have faith in democracy.

Question 11.
Regional fundamentalism can lead to acts of terrorism.
Answer:
Religious fundamentalism can lead to acts of terrorism.

Question 12.
Disputes created among the racists are the distribution of river water, constructions, dams, demand separate states, etc.
Answer:
Disputes created among the regions/states are the distribution of river water, constructions, dams, demand for separate state etc.

Question 13.
Many regions of south India disapprove of the acceptance of English as an official language.
Answer:
Many regions of south India disapprove of the acceptance of Hindi as an official language.

Question 14.
Religion participation is required to conserve language diversity.
Answer:
Community participation is required to conserve language diversity.

Question 15.
The role and significance of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj are well-established in Gujarat.
Answer:
The role and significance of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj are well-established in Maharashtra.

2. Write short notes.

Question 1.
Secularism
Answer:
Given the nature of our religious plurality, the concept of secularism in India fosters a modern outlook showing religious tolerance. In India, secularism implies respect and tolerance for people of all faiths, beautifully encapsulated in the term, ‘Sarva dharma samabhav’.

India has been and continues to be a land with multiple faith systems. This necessarily includes acceptance of people who do not subscribe to any religious identity, custom or practice, but who may express their loyalty and commitment to secular values such as scientific endeavor, humanitarianism, humanism, and so forth.

The term secularism implies respect and tolerance for people of all faith. The concept of secularism dates back to 2300 years ago by emperor Ashoka the term ‘Sarva Dharma Samabhav’ is one of the most cherished Indian values it is one of the biggest achievements of a democratic country. Secularism is a simple word that refers to an ideology that provides people with the right to follow any religion. It means separate religion from political, economic, social, and cultural aspects of life.

The constitution of India gives the right of freedom to all religions, protects the belief patterns and values of their religion. It permits the state with the responsibility to maintain neutrality in matters of religion. Secularism states that no one shall be subject to discrimination by any state or any social institution on grounds of religion or belief patterns.

Living in a secular state brings faith and acceptance of people from different religious backgrounds. In this way, secularism fosters a modern outlook showing religious tolerance, humanity and promotes the integration of all people in society.

Question 2.
Linguistic Unity
Answer:
Linguistic Unity means that every language in the country whether regional or national language must be treated equally. The Indian State recognizes linguistic diversities and makes special provisions to protect and support some of the languages and dialects that are on the verge of extinction.

People speaking different languages have been living harmoniously without any conflicts. The three-language formula followed by all State Education Boards enables the inculcation of Hindi and English as languages to connect with the Union, English to connect with the outside world, and the regional/local language for communication within the State.

As per the policy the three languages recommended were:

• 1st language: Regional Language or Mother Tongue.
• 2nd language: English or Modern Indian Language (in Hindi speaking States) Hindi or English (in non-Hindi speaking States)
• 3rd language: English or Modern Indian Language (in Hindi speaking States)

Classical languages and languages of linguistic minorities have also found a place in the educational curriculum

Many educational bodies offer learners the option of answering their examinations in a range of mediums (e.g. Marathi, Hindi, Urdu, Gujarati, Kannada, English). Doordarshan and Akashwani have programmes in multiple Indian languages that reach out to millions of persons. These are measures that promote a sense of linguistic unity among multi-lingual people of the land.

Question 3.
Process of Unity in India
Answer:
At the root of all the co-existing diversities, there exists an underlying unity. This has created a composite culture decisively pan-Indian in nature. In India, secularism implies respect and tolerance for people of all faiths. India has been and continues to be a land with multiple faith systems

Following are the unifying factors in India:
Geographical unity: one would find unity in the agrarian cycles such as the sowing season and the harvest season. Sharing of natural resources gives people a sense of oneness. Festivals such as Onam in Kerala, Makar Sankrant in Western and South India, Pongal in Tamil Nadu, Baisakhi in Punjab, and Bihu in Assam revolve around the harvest season.

Religious Unity: Although various religious groups in India present external differences, there are some commonly shared elements. India is a land of diverse religious faiths. Religious unity in India finds its expression through places of worship scattered all over the country.

Political Unity: National unity and integrity have been maintained even though sharp economic and social inequalities have obstructed the emergence of an egalitarian society. The Five-Year Plans and several developmental schemes were geared towards uplifting the poor and weaker sections of society. The Constitution of India has established the “rule of law” throughout the country. All citizens are equal and subject to the same authority.

Linguistic diversity: The Indian State recognizes linguistic diversities and makes special provisions to protect and support some of the languages and dialects that are on the verge of extinction. The three-language formula followed by all State Education Boards enables the inculcation of Hindi and English as languages to connect with the Union, English to connect with the outside world, and the regional/local language for communication within the States.

3. Write differences.

Question 1.
Religious diversity and Caste diversity
Answer:

Religious diversity	Caste diversity
(i) Meaning: Religious diversity means people practicing different religions living together Religions like Hinduism, Jainism, Buddhism, Christianity, Islam, Zoroastrianism, and Sikhism have flourished in India.	(i) Meaning: There is caste diversity in India with four varnas or caste groups Caste diversity means people belonging to different castes living together.
(ii) Sub Division: Each major religion is subdivided along the lines of religious doctrines, sects, and cults.	(ii) Sub Division: There are thousands of castes and subcastes in India.
(iii) Features: Each religion has its own philosophy, ideology, and rituals.	(iii) Features: Each caste has its own lifestyle, rituals, festivals, and deities.
(iv) Impact: This diversity leads to communalism i.e. loyalty to one’s own religion leads.	(iv) Impact: This diversity creates a negative and conservative attitudes and leads to casteism i.e. extreme loyalty to one’s own caste.
(v) Result: It creates a feeling of insecurity and gives rise to communal tensions.	(v) Result: It breaks up the solidarity and creates disunity.
(vi) Function: Religion tends to bring together people of the faith to celebrate commonly cherished festivals and events.	(vi) Function: The different castes functioned in an interdependent barter relationship which was the basis of the agrarian economy.

Question 2.
Gender Binary and Gender Diversity
Answer:

Gender Binary	Gender Diversity
(i) Meaning: Gender binary is the classification of gender into two distinct, opposite forms of masculine and feminine, due to the social system.	(i) Meaning: Gender diversity go beyond gender binaries of female-male, masculine and feminine, etc
(ii) Socialization: It results in Gender stereotypes determining people’s beliefs about the characteristics of males and females.	(ii) Socialization: It results in gender plurality which seeks to identify all gender identities or expressions in addition to the binary.
(iii) Approach: It excludes non-conformists, and supports patriarchal values.	(iii) Approach: It has an inclusive approach and promotes Constitutional gender equality.
(iv) Effect: It results in the dominance of heteronormativity in society and in all its institutions.	(iv) Effect: It results in acceptance of gender fluidity.

4. Explain the following concepts with examples.

Question 1.
Regionalism
Answer:
Regionalism refers to loyalty to one’s own State or region before one’s nation. This interferes with national integration to a great extent. The history of a particular region is glorified and often it is misused to stress divisive forces, thus ignoring the common cultural legacy and heritage.

Regionalism emerges due to the desire of people speaking one language to have one State. There is also a strong urge to give priority to the economic development of one’s own region. This leads to Inter-State rivalries. So long as this Inter-State rivalry is economic and social (e.g. for funds and welfare schemes), it is healthy.

But when this rivalry takes political overtones, it becomes very dangerous. Political parties give more importance and weightage to local and regional matters and problems rather than the nation. Regionalism thus strengthens sectarian biases by political parties. Inter-regional tensions escalate over economic, political, and such issues. This has led to regional movements for State rights and militant movements for separatism.

Example: The Jammu and Kashmir issue, the Punjab problem, Assam issue, etc. All this, if unchecked, can strike at the very root of democracy.

Question 2.
Linguistic Unity
Answer:
Linguistic unity means that every language in the country, whether regional or national language, must be treated equally. The Indian State recognizes linguistic diversities and also makes special provisions to protect and support some of the languages and dialects that are on the verge of extinction.

Classical languages and languages of linguistic minorities have also found a place in educational curricula. Many educational bodies offer learners the option of answering their examinations in a range of mediums (e.g., Marathi, Hindi, Urdu, Gujarati, Kannada, and English). Doordarshan and Akashwani have programmes in multiple Indian languages that reach out to millions of persons who tune in to them. These are measures that promote a sense of linguistic unity among multi-lingual people of the land.

Example: The three-language formula followed by all State Education Boards enables the inculcation of Hindi and English as languages to connect with the Union, English to connect with the outside world, and the regional/local language for communication within the State.

5A. Complete the concept map.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Question 4.

Answer:

Question 5.

Answer:

Question 6.

Answer:

Question 7.

Answer:

5B. State whether the following statements are True or False with reasons.

Question 1.
Discrimination based on caste is a major hurdle for national integration.
Answer:
This statement is True.

Casteism refers to loyalty to one’s own caste before loyalty to the nation. Caste ties are so strong that people are inclined to think in terms of caste before the nation. This may lead to caste members protecting their own caste group through social service, education, medical, and other welfare schemes. Caste members take with them their biases and prejudices into politics. They then begin to express their sectarian interests in various ways. People are influenced by them and vote for their own caste members. Those castes having numerical strength rise up through politics. Those who win the elections then favour their caste groups in various ways. In view of all this, the problem of national integration becomes very serious.

Despite laws, urbanization, industrialization, and education, the caste system continues in the mindsets of many people. Caste has become a means for competing for access to resources and power in modern India. Discrimination based on caste is a major hurdle for national integration. People engaged in weakening the unity of the country tried desperately to create divisions and rifts in the name of caste, creed, and culture. The feeling of social neglect among scheduled castes due to suppression by upper castes has disturbed the sense of ‘we feeling’ and unity which has resulted in caste atrocities and caste prejudices. Excessive caste-based loyalty is particularly evident at the time of elections, with political parties wooing members of their own caste for the sake of votes.

Question 2.
India is a diversified country
Answer:
This statement is True.

India is a land of variety, there is so much diversity along the lines of regions, language, religion, caste, etc. Here, we see various places of religious worship, a celebration of festivals, values of equality, secularism, humanity, etc., are nourished.

Some of the diversifying factors are:
(i) Religious diversity: Religion is one of the key facts of diversity in Indian society. Although India is a multi-religious and multi-cultural country, the Constitution of India ensures that the secular fabric of society is maintained. The Right to Freedom of Religion is also declared as a Fundamental Right by the Indian Constitution. Religion tends to bring together people of the faith to celebrate commonly cherished festivals and events.

(ii) Linguistic diversity: India is a land of many languages. The Constitution of India has approved 22 official languages. Among these, three languages have been recognized as classical languages viz. Sanskrit, Tamil, and Kannada. The Language Policy of India guarantees protection to linguistic minorities. A unique feature of India is the concept of protecting the interest of children to get basic education in their mother tongues (i.e., home language).

(iii) Caste diversity: Caste is a major source of diversity in Indian society. That there are about 3500 jatis found in India, out of which 751 are classified under the Scheduled Caste communities. The caste system provided the basis of social structure. The practice of the caste system is not confined to Hindus. Caste-like divisions are seen among Muslims, Christians, and Sikhs as well.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 History Important Questions Chapter 4 Colonialism and the Marathas Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th History Important Questions Chapter 4 Colonialism and the Marathas

1A. Choose the correct alternative and rewrite the statement.

Question 1.
In __________ Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj attacked the region of Bardesh.
(a) 1667
(b) 1668
(c) 1669
(d) 1670
Answer:
(a) 1667

Question 2.
In 1668, the __________ established their factory at Rajapur.
(a) British
(b) Dutch
(c) French
(d) Portuguese
Answer:
(c) French

Question 3.
The __________ fort was under siege laid by Adilshah’s army.
(a) Panhala
(b) Raigad
(c) Raj gad
(d) Simhagad
Answer:
(a) Panhala

Question 4.
__________ was offered asylum by the British.
(a) Madhavrao Peshwa
(b) Narayanrao Peshwa
(c) Raghunathrao
(d) Vishwasrao
Answer:
(c) Raghunathrao

Question 5.
The third Anglo-Maratha War was fought in __________
(a) 1815
(b) 1816
(c) 1817
(d) 1818
Answer:
(c) 1817

Question 6.
The __________ arrived from Abyssinia.
(a) British
(b) French
(c) Dutch
(d) Siddis
Answer:
(d) Siddis

1B. Find the incorrect pair from group ‘B’ and write the corrected one.

Question 1.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(a) Ibrahim Khan Gardi	Mercenary
(b) Fazal Khan	Brother of Afzal Khan
(c) Abdul Karim	Subhedar of Rajapur
(d) Henry Oxenden	British agent

Answer:
Fazal Khan – son of Afzal Khan

2A. Write the names of historical places/persons/events.

Question 1.
A book was written by Cosme da Guarda-
Answer:
Vide de Celehro Sevagy (Life of the Celebrated Shivaji)

Question 2.
The Portuguese emissary who met Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj-
Answer:
Gonsalo Martez

Question 3.
A type of revenue collected by the Maratha rulers-
Answer:
Chauthai

Question 4.
The younger brother of Peshwa Bajirao I-
Answer:
Chimajiappa

Question 5.
Treaty signed by the British and Peshwa Bajirao II-
Answer:
Treaty of Vasai

Question 6.
The battle fought between the Marathas and Ahmadshah Abdali in 1761-
Answer:
The Third Battle of Panipat

Question 7.
The northern region of Goa was known as-
Answer:
Bardish

2B. Choose the correct reason from those given below and complete the sentence.

Question 1.
The Portuguese were alarmed because __________
(a) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj built a strong navy
(b) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj had a strong army
(c) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj had the support of other European powers
(d) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj had a good network of spies
Answer:
(a) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj built a strong navy

Question 2.
Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj was determined to humble the Portuguese __________
(a) The Portuguese opposing the construction work by the Marathas in Chaul
(b) Forcing their subjects in Goa for religious conversion
(c) Pillaging of the trading ships
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

3A. Observe the map on textbook page 29 and answer the questions based on it.

Question 1.
Who was in charge of Indore?
Answer:
The Holkars were in charge of Indore.

Question 2.
Where was the seat of the Mughal empire?
Answer:
The seat of the Mughal empire was in Delhi.

Question 3.
Where were the centers of the Maratha empire?
Answer:
Dhar, Indore, Gwalior, Nagpur, and Vadodara were centers of the Maratha empire.

Question 4.
Under whose command was Goa?
Answer:
Goa was under the command of Portuguese.

Question 5.
Name the places that were under British rule.
Answer:
Mumbai (Bombay) and Chennai (Madras) were under the rule of the British.

Question 6.
What is the old name of Kolkata?
Answer:
The old name of Kolkata is Calcutta.

Question 7.
Who captured Janjira?
Answer:
The Siddis captured Janjira.

3B. Complete the following concept map.

Question 1.

Answer:

4A. Write short notes.

Question 1.
Vide de Celebre Sevagy
Answer:
A book written by Cosme da Guarda, a Portuguese historian, is a very important source of the history of Maharashtra. This book is entitled Vide de Celebre Sevagy (Life of the Celebrated Shivaji). He was the first European author to write a biography of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj.

Question 2.
Dutch and the Maratha Empire
Answer:
The Dutch established a factory at Vengurla in 1649. Their trade flourished there. However, their trade was severely affected when Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj attacked Kudal. In 1665, the Mughal subedar of Surat asked for help for destroying the Maratha naval force. However, the Dutch offered no help. Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj had allowed them to build a factory at Dabhol. The political relations between the Dutch and the Marathas kept changing to suit the need of the time.

The Marathas did not harm the Dutch factory at Surat. Also, during the Karnataka campaign, the Marathas ensured the safety of the Dutch factory and also issued them trading permits. For these favours the Dutch paid tributes to Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj. The Dutch factories at Porto Novo/Parangipettai and Tegnapattam/ Devanapattinam were unharmed by Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj.

4B. Explain the following statements with reasons.

Question 1.
Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj adopted a strong policy against the European colonisers.
Answer:
Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj had foreseen the ulterior motives of the foreigners and their ways of infiltration. He built strategies to arrest their advances in India. He took immediate measures by creating a strong naval force. He levied octroi on British trade salt as a measure to protect the local salt trade. Thus, Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj adopted a strong policy against the European colonisers.

Question 2.
Another Anglo-Maratha War took place in 1803.
Answer:
The relations between Holkar and Peshwa Bajirao II turned bitter. As a result, Yashwantrao Holkar attacked Pune. Bajirao Peshwa II panicked and sought asylum from the British. A treaty was signed by the British and the Peshwa is known as the ‘Treaty of Vasai’. However, this treaty was not acceptable to Shinde and Holkar. Hence, there was another Anglo-Maratha War in 1803.

5. State your opinion.

Question 1.
Ibrahim Khan Gardi was hired by the Marathas.
Answer:
Ibrahim Khan Gardi was a mercenary who had trained under the French. He was hired by Sadashivraobhau Peshwa as the chief of artillery. In the Third Battle of Panipat, Mahadji Shinde had observed Ibrahim Khan’s skills. Inspired by it, he built a trained army with the help of de Boigne, a French military trainer, and also established well-equipped artillery.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 8 Positive Psychology Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Psychology Important Questions Chapter 8 Positive Psychology

Choose the correct option and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
Life …………….. indicates a life full of stress and anxiety.
(a) below zero
(b) at zero
(c) above zero
Answer:
(a) below zero

Question 2.
………………. refers to the ability to handle adverse situations effectively.
(a) Coping
(b) Competence
(c) Confidence
Answer:
(b) Competence

Question 3.
……………….. helps us to focus on the ‘Here and Now’ effectively.
(a) Mindfulness
(b) Mindlessness
(c) Optimism
Answer:
(a) Mindfulness

Question 4.
………………. is the key to most successful relationships.
(a) Resilience
(b) Mindfulness
(c) Empathy
Answer:
(c) Empathy

Match the pairs.

Question 1.

Group A	Group B
(1) Seligman	(a) Broaden and Build theory
(2) Fredrickson	(b) empathy
(3) Masten	(c) mindfulness
(4) Baron-Cohen	(d) resilience
	(e) optimism

Answer:

Group A	Group B
(1) Seligman	(e) optimism
(2) Fredrickson	(a) Broaden and Build theory
(3) Masten	(d) resilience
(4) Baron-Cohen	(b) empathy

State whether the following statements are true or false.

Question 1.
Negative events easily attract our attention compared to positive ones.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Positive psychology focuses on life at and below zero.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
A positive frame of mind effectively builds our social and psychological resources.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
There are subjective differences in the experience of happiness.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
We must always choose very easy goals so we can feel happiness.
Answer:
False

Question 6.
Most pessimists perceive difficulties as challenges/ opportunities.
Answer:
False

Question 7.
Empathy and sympathy are synonymous.
Answer:

Question 8.
Brain damage can diminish a person’s ability to empathize.
Answer:
True

Answer the following in one sentence each.

Question 1.
What does positive psychology focus on?
Answer:
Positive psychology focuses on building of character strengths such as courage, happiness and perseverance rather than on anxiety, conflict and avoidance.

Question 2.
What does ‘life below zero’ indicate?
Answer:
‘Life below zero’ indicates a life that is full of problems, stress, diseases, etc.

Question 3.
How does an optimist view challenges and difficulties?
Answer:
Optimists have a positive approach towards challenges and difficulties and hence view them as opportunities to progress and become strong.

Question 4.
What does mindlessness mean?
Answer:
Mindlessness means performing a task with less concentration and awareness mainly because we are absorbed in our own thoughts, worries, etc.

Question 5.
What is psychological resilience?
Answer:
Psychological resilience refers to developing coping strategies that enable one to adapt to uncertainty, challenges and adversity and to move on without prolonged negative consequences.

Explain the concepts in 25 – 30 words each.

Question 1.
Broaden and Build theory.
Answer:
The ‘Broaden and Build theory of positive emotions’ by Barbara Fredrickson explains that when we experience positive emotions, we have more positive thoughts and also indulge in positive behaviours. Experiencing a positive emotion leads to broadening the number of actions that we can think of performing. This will increase and strengthen our psychological and social resources to lead a fulfilling life.

Question 2.
Life above zero.
Answer:
Traditional psychology focused on life at and below zero. Zero is the line that divides illness from health. Hence, life below zero indicates a life that is full of problems, stress, diseases, etc. Positive psychology emphasizes the study of life above zero. Life above zero covers a large area of positive aspects of behaviour such as mindfulness, resilience, happiness, hope, trust and empathy.

Question 3.
Mindfulness meditation
Answer:
Mindfulness means a moment-by-moment awareness of our bodily sensations, thoughts and feelings. In Buddhist philosophy, mindfulness practice is a form of meditation. Mindfulness meditation helps in developing a non-reactive state of mind which is the foundation of a peaceful mind. This helps to reduce anxiety, frustration, etc., and enhances mental well-being.

Answer the following questions in 35 – 40 words each.

Question 1.
Why is positive psychology considered significant today?
Answer:
Positive psychology is a newly emerging branch of psychology. Martin Seligman officially introduced Positive Psychology as a subfield of psychology. It is the science of happiness, human strength and growth.

Negative events tend to be intense and hence easily attract our attention, e.g., outburst of anger by a person will be quickly noticed. Positive psychology believes that a person can prevent and overcome many psychological problems by adopting a positive approach. Therefore, today, positive psychology is important. Positive psychology is concerned with the “good life” and the factors that contribute the most to a fulfilling, happy life. It can help increase self esteem, improve relationships and greater chances of success.

Question 2.
What are the characteristics of optimists?
Answer:
Optimism is a mental attitude that includes feelings of hopefulness. It is a belief that the future will be positive and favourable and that negative events are merely setbacks that are temporary and can be overcome.
The characteristics of optimists are-

1. they try to choose the best options available
2. they tend to be high on self confidence
3. they face difficulties positively as they view them as a challenge for a person to become strong
4. they are hopeful about the future and do not generalize present failure to future events.

Question 3.
How can empathy be nurtured?
Answer:
Empathy is the capacity to understand and feel what another person is experiencing from within their frame of reference i.e. capacity to place oneself in another’s position. According to Simon Baron-Cohen there are three components of emotions viz. cognitive empathy emotional reactivity and social skills.

Empathy builds a sense of security and trust. It is closely related to emotional intelligence and is a key to successful relationships. Empathy can be nurtured by employing methods like-

1. increase social interactions
2. connecting through similarities
3. understanding one’s own feelings
4. challenge your self
5. cultivate a sense of curiosity
6. widen the social contact circle.

Write short notes on the following in 50 – 60 words each.

Question 1.
Components of empathy
Answer:
Empathy is the capacity to understand and feel what another person is experiencing from within their frame of reference, i.e., capacity to place oneself in another’s position.
According to Simon Baron-Cohen, there are three components of empathy viz. cognitive empathy emotional reactivity and social skills.

1. Cognitive empathy – This is called perspective taking, i.e., knowing how the other thinks and feels. Cognitive empathy responds to a problem using brainpower.
2. Emotional reactivity – We feel the emotions as intensely as the other person. It involves connecting intimately with another person to form a strong bonds.
3. Social skills – It involves being moved to help the person using our emotional person to form a strong bonds.

Answer the following questions in 80 – 100 words each.

Question 1.
Types of resilience
Points:
(i) Physical resilience
(ii) Psychological resilience
(iii) Emotional resilience
(iv) Community resilience
Answer:
According to the American Psychological Association, resilience is the process of adapting well in the face of adversity, trauma, tragedy, threats or significant sources of stress such as family, health, etc. It is the act of ‘bouncing back’ inspite of barriers or set backs.
There are three ways in which people face adverse situations viz.

1. consider oneself as a ‘victim’ and hence indulge in self pity or anger
2. get overwhelmed by negative emotions like fear, anxiety, etc., which makes them vulnerable to physiological and psychological collapse
3. become upset about the disruption and experience a sense of loss, pain, grief, etc.

However, they understand that setbacks are a part of life. Hence, they work through these feelings in ways that foster strength and growth. Sometimes, they may emerge stronger than they were prior to the setback. Such persons are called Resilient individuals. The four types of resilience are-
(i) Physical resilience – It is the body’s ability to adapt to challenges, maintain stamina, and quickly recover when faced with illness, injury or other physical demands.

(ii) Psychological resilience – It is developing coping strategies that enable one to adapt to uncertainty, challenges and adversity and to move on without prolonged negative consequence. The person can remain calm and focused during stressful situations.

(iii) Emotional resilience – It refers to the ability to manage one’s emotions by adequately using one’s resources to cope with adversity and stress. It is the ability to understand what one is feeling and why?

(iv) Community resilience – It is the ability of groups of people to respond to and recover from adverse situations such as natural disasters, epidemics, war, economic hardships and other challenges to their community. This is mainly due to strong connections or bonds that community members have with each other.

Question 2.
Empathy
Points:
(i) Meaning
(ii) Components
(iii) Nurturing empathy
Answer:
(i) Meaning – Empathy is the capacity to understand and feel what another person is experiencing from within their frame of reference, i.e., capacity to place oneself in another’s position. Empathy builds a sense of security and trust. It is closely related to emotional intelligence. It supports social corrections required for communication and shared activities. Empathy is considered the key to successful relationships. Research indicates that there is a neurological foundation of empathy. A broad range of brain areas spanning the sensory motor area, insula and cingulate cortex together form a neural network for empathy processing.

(ii) Components-

• Cognitive empathy – This is called perspective taking, i.e., knowing how the other thinks and feels. Cognitive empathy responds to a problem using brainpower.
• Emotional reactivity – We feel the emotions as intensely as the other person. It involves connecting intimately with another person to form a strong bonds.
• Social skills – It involves being moved to help the person using our emotional intelligence. One should not become overwhelmed by sadness or trying to ‘fix’ things.

(iii) Nurturing empathy-
A world with empathetic persons will be nurturing and supportive. The methods to nurture empathy are-

• Increase social interactions – Especially with people who need help in order to understand their perspectives and motives.
• Connecting through similarities with others, e.g., those having same hobbies/ work/ goals, etc.
• Understanding what you are feeling – Those who are able to accurately judge their own motives, can empathize better.
• Challenge yourself – Tasks that are challenging lead to the person struggling to achieve a goal. This lead to humility which enables empathy.
• Cultivate a sense of curiosity – This leads to open-mindedness and a better understanding of those around us.
• Widen our social circle – Contact with people of different races, cultures, viewpoints helps to increase empathy towards them at a neurological level.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Economics Important Questions Chapter 6 Index Numbers Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Economics Important Questions Chapter 6 Index Numbers

1. A. Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
Index Numbers are used –
(a) to determine production
(b) to determine the level of employment
(c) to revise dearness allowance
(d) to revise cost of living
Options :
(1) a, b and c
(2) b, c and d
(3) c and d
(4) only d
Answer:
(3) c and d

Question 2.
Statements related to features of Index Numbers.
These are specialised form of averages. These help to determine price index.
These are not the barometers of economic activity.
Base year is taken as 100.
Options :
(1) a, b and d
(2) b, c and d
(3) b and c
(4) All of these
Answer:
(1) a, b and d

Question 3.
How does purchasing power changes with the increase in price level?
(a) Remains unchanged
(b) Increases
(c) Decreases
(d) None of these
Options :
(1) a, b and c
(2) b, c and d
(3) only c
(4) only b
Answer:
(3) only c

Question 4.
What do Index numbers measure?
(a) Value of money
(b) Relative prices
(c) Relative change in prices
(d) All of these
Options :
(1) b, c and d
(2) only b
(3) only c
(2) a, b and c
Answer:
(3) only c

(B) Complete the Correlation.

1. Base year quantity : …………….. :: Current year quantity : 125
2. Present period : Current period :: Past period : ……………..
3. All commodities with equal importance : …………….. :: All commodities with different importance :: Weighted Index
4. Dearness Allowance : Consumer Price Index :: Standard of Living : ……………..
5. P₀₁ = \(\frac{\Sigma p_{1} q_{0}}{\Sigma p_{0} q_{0}}\) x 100 : Laspeyre’s Index ::
   P₀₁ = \(\frac{\Sigma p_{1} q_{1}}{\Sigma p_{0} q_{1}}\) x 100 = ……………..

Answers:

1. 100
2. Base period
3. Simple Index
4. Cost of Living Index
5. Paasche’s Index

(C) Give economic terms.

(1) Index number calculated from a single variate.
(2) Index number calculated from a group of variable.
(3) The year for which Index number is being prepared.
(4) The year from which the changes are measured.
(5) Barometer of economic activity.
(6) Index which measures price level of goods traded in whole sale market.
(7) Average of quantity of commodities produced in different sectors of the economy.
(8) Index which measures price level of goods in retail market.
(9) Base year index number.
(10) Purchasing power of money is measured by.
(11) Quantity Index number is also called.
(12) Index which helps in determining the depreciation cost of durable goods.
(13) Base year is also known as.
(14) Laspeyre uses period quantity as weights.
(15) Paasche uses period quantity as weights.
Answer:
(1) Unvariate index
(2) Composite index
(3) Current year
(4) Base year
(5) Index numbers
(6) Wholesale Price index
(7) Quantity Index number
(8) Retail Price Index number
(9) 100
(10) Cost of Living Index
(11) Volume Index number
(12) Price Index
(13) Reference year
(14) Base
(15) Current

(D) Complete the following sentences.

(1) Index numbers are ………….. averages.
(2) Index number is an ………….. barometer.
(3) A base year should be a………….. year.
(4) The ratio of current year price to the base year price multiplied by 100 is called ………….. index number.
(5) ………….. index number is the average of all quantity of commodities produced in different sectors.
(6) ………….. index number is a simple average of the index numbers of individual goods.
(7) ………….. Index number gives equal importance to all items.
(8) Purchasing power of money can be measured by………….. index number.
(9) To know the changes in production………….. index number is more useful.
(10) Index number for the base year is …………..
(11) ………….. refer to the relative importance of different items in the construction of Index Number.
Answers:

1. specialised
2. economic
3. recent
4. Price
5. Quantity
6. Simple
7. Simple
8. cost of living
9. quantity
10. 100
11. Weights

(E) Choose the correct pair :

I.

Answer:
Options :
(1) (1) – d, (2) – c, (3) – a, (4) – b
(2) (1) – d, (2) – a, (3) – b, (4) – c
(3) (1) – b, (2) – c, (3) – d, (4) – a
(4) (1) – c, (2) – d, (3) – a, (4) – b
Answer:
(2) (1) – d, (2) – a, (3) – b, (4) – c

II.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(1) Index Number	(a) Cost of living
(2) Dearness Allowance	(b) Economic Barometer
(3) Base year	(c) Wholesale Price Index
(4) Whole sale market goods	(d) 100

Options :
(1) (1) – b, (2) – a, (3) – d, (4) – c
(2) (1)- c, (2) – d, (3)- a, (4) – b
(3) (1)- d, (2) c, (3)- b, (4) – a
(4) (1)- a, (2) b, (3) c, (4) – d
Answer:
(1) (1) – b, (2) – a, (3) – d, (4) – c

2. Answer the following :

Question 1.
What are the different methods of constructing Index numbers?
Answer:
Following chart helps to know different methods of constructing Index Numbers:

(A) Simple Index Number : A Simple Index Number is constructed when all the items like food, clothing, transport, housing, etc. are given equal importance. There are three methods of constructing it.

1. Price Index Number : It is calculated using the following formula:
P₀₁ = \(\frac{\Sigma p_{1}}{\Sigma p_{0}}\) x 100
where – P₀₁ = Price Index Number
Σp₁ = Total of the current year price of various commodities.
Σp₀ = Total of base year prices of various commodities.

2. Quantity Index Number : It is calculated by using the following formula :
Quality Index Number Q₀₁ = \(\frac{\Sigma q_{1}}{\Sigma q_{0}}\) x 100
where, Σq₁ = Sum total of current year quantities of all commodities
Σq₀ = Sum total of base year quantities of all commodities

3. Value Index Number : It is calculated by using the following formula:
Value Index Number V₀₁ = \(\frac{\Sigma p_{1} q_{1}}{\Sigma p_{0} q_{0}}\) x 100
where, Σp₁q₁ = Sum total of the product of the prices and quantities of the current year
Σp₀q₀ = Sum total of the product of the prices and quantities of the base year.

(B) Weighted Index Number : Under this method, physical quantities are used as weights, therefore prices themselves are weighted by quantities. We can take either the base year quantities or current year quantities as weights or the average of the two.
These index numbers are the simple aggregative type with the fundamental difference that weights are assigned to the various items included in the index.
There are two methods of constructing it.
(1) Laspeyre’s Method
(2) Paasche’s Method

(1) Laspeyre’s Method : This method was devised by Laspeyre’s, a German economist in 1871. In this method the weights are determined by quantities in the base year.
P₀₁ = \(\frac{\Sigma p_{1} q_{0}}{\Sigma p_{0} q_{0}}\) x 100
where, P₀₁ = Price Index Number.
p₀ = Prices of the base year.
q₀ = Quantities of the base year,
p₁ = Prices of the current year.
Σ p₁q₀ = Sum of all the products of p, and q₀.
Σ p₀q₀ = Sum of all the products of p0 and q₀.

(2) Paasche’s Method : This method was devised by a German economist known as Hermann Paasche in 1874. The weights of current year are used as base year in constructing the Index Number.

P₀₁ = \(\frac{\Sigma p_{1} q_{1}}{\Sigma p_{0} q_{1}}\) x 100
where, P₀₁ = Price Index Number.
p₁ = Prices of the current year.
q₁ = Quantities of the current year.
p₀ = Prices of the base year.
Σp₁q₁ = Sum of all the products of p₁ and q₁,
Σp₀q₁ = Sum of all the products of p₀ and q₁

Question 2.
Explain the features of Index Numbers. ?
Answer:
Features of Index Numbers :

• Index numbers are a specialised form of averages.
• They are expressed in percentage form without using a percentage sign.
• The year for which index number is being prepared is the current year.
• The year from which index number is being prepared is called the base year which is always taken as 100.
• They are used in measuring the changes in magnitudes which cannot be measured directly.
• The formula used for Price Index Number = \(\frac { Total price of the current year }{ Total price of the base year }\) x 100
• They are considered as barometer of economic activity.
• Index number which is calculated from a single variable is called “univariate • index” and which is constructed from a group of variables is called a “composite index”.

Question 3.
Explain the steps involved in the construction of index numbers.
Answer:
Steps involved in the construction of index numbers are as follows :

• Purpose of an Index Number : Before constructing an index number, one must know the purpose for which the index number is constructed. E.g. for the whole c sale price or retail price or for agricultural output, etc.
• Selection of a Base Year : It is important to select a base year against which comparisons are made. So base year or reference year should be a recent year and not a distant past. it should be normal and free from natural calamities, war, etc.
• Selection of Commodities: When the cost c of living index number of the middle class families is to be constructed, the items that are used by middle class families in everyday life should be included and items like big cars, AC’s, etc. should not be included.
• Selection of Prices : Prices differ from city ‘I to city and even from shop to shop in the same city. Hence, we should take a few standard shops from where middle class families buy goods and take the average of the prices of goods sold by them. Otherwise index number constructed may be misleading.
• Selection of suitable Average : An ; index number is a special kind of average, Generally arithmetic mean is commonly ? used for construction of index number as it is simple to calculate.
• Selection of Formula : Number of formulae can be used for construction, of index numbers. Economists have to decide which formula to use for the construction of a particular index number.
• Assigning proper Weights : Weights refer to the relative importance of different items in the construction of an index number. Weights may either be quantity weights (q) or value weights (p). All weights may not be equally important. Therefore, by s assigning specific weights better result can be obtained.

3. State with reasons whether you agree or disagree with the following statements:

Question 1.
Index Numbers can be constructed without the base year.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with this statement.
Index numbers can be constructed without the base year because :

• Index Numbers are the tools for measuring the changes in the magnitude of a variable or a group of variables over time with respect to a chosen year.
• Prices of some goods may increase and of other may decrease during the two periods. Index numbers solves this problem by taking the average change.
• For example, to know cost of living of people in general in India, Government chooses a base year 2010 which is taken as 100. Then cost of living is calculated in 2019 which may be 140.
• This difference of 40(140-100) shows that cost of living in India has increased by 40% since 2010.
  Hence, Index Numbers cannot be constructed – without the base year.

Question 2.
Any year can be taken as a base year for index number.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with this statement.

• In preparing index number the first step is c to select a year which serves as a reference)period.
• The prices in any other year are compared to the prices in the base year.
• The base year should be a recent year.
• If the base year is in the distant past, the result will not be meaningful. E.g. if the index number of the cost of living is calculated for the current year and compared with adistant past of 1970 as a base year it will not be meaningful.
• Base year should also be a year when the prices are regarded as normal prices.
  Hence, any year cannot be taken as a base year for index number.

Question 3.
Index numbers are very useful in economics and business.
OR
Index numbers are economic barometer.
Answer:
Yes, I do agree with this statement. Index numbers are very useful in economics and business and are used as powerful tools to measure the changes in various phenomena over a period of time like; measuring changes in the cost of living, wholesale prices, industrial production, exports, etc.
Uses of Index Numbers are :

• They help in the study of trends.
• They act as an economic barometer.
• They measure the purchasing power of money.
• They help to adjust national income.
• They provide guidelines for formulating policies and arriving at decisions.
  Hence, Index numbers are very useful in economics and business.

4. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Define index number. What are its main features?
Answer:
(A) Definition:
Different economists define index numbers in different ways.

• According to Spiegel, index number is, “a statistical measure to show changes in variable or a group of related variables with reference to time, geographical location and other characteristics such as income, profession, etc.”
• Croxton and Cowden defines index numbers as, “a device for measuring difference in the magnitude of a group of related variables.”
• According to Bewley, “Index Numbers are used to measure the changes in some quantity which cannot be observed directly. ”

(B) Meaning:
An index number is a specialised average which measures percentage changes in a variable (or a group of variables) over a specified time. When we say that the index of the whole sale price for the year 2018 is 125, taking the base year as 2015, it means that there is an increase of the wholesale price by 25%. Hence, index numbers are used to measure general changes in price, cost of living, wages, production, stock market, etc. Therefore, they are called “economic barometer”.

(C) Features of Index Numbers :

• Index numbers are a specialised form of averages.
• They are expressed in percentage form without using a percentage sign.
• The year for which index number is being prepared is the current year.
• The year from which index number is being prepared is called the base year which is always taken as 100.
• They are used in measuring the changes in magnitudes which cannot be measured directly.
• The formula used for Price Index Number = \(\frac { Total price of the current year }{ Total price of the base year }\) x 100
• They are considered as barometer of economic activity.
• Index number which is calculated from a single variable is called “univariate • index” and which is constructed from a group of variables is called a “composite index”.

Question 2.
What are the different types of Index Numbers?
Answer:
Index numbers may be of following types.
(A) Price Index Number It may be further classified into:

• Retail Price Index Number
• Wholesale Price Index Number
• Cost of Living Index Number

(B) Quantity Index Number
(C) Special Purpose Index Number
(D) Value Index Number

(A) Price Index Number : A price index number measures the changes in the prices of an entire group of related commodities over a period of time. It may be of following three types.

(i) Retail Price Index Number : These are ; complied to measure the changes in the retail price of various commodities eg. index number of consumer prices, bonds, etc.

(ii) Wholesale Price Index Number : This measures price level of goods traded in the wholesale market. They indicate general changes in the purchasing power of money.

(iii) Cost of Living Index Number: It is special type of retail price index which shows the price variations in a group of commodities consumed by different classes of people over a period of time. This index number aims ‘ to measure the changes in cost of living of different classes of people over a period of time e.g. cost of living index number of middle class people, rich class people, etc.

(B) Quantity Index Number: It is the average of the quantity of commodities produced in different sectors of the economy. It helps us to know whether the level of production in the country is rising or falling as compared to the production in previous years. It is also called volume index number.

(C) Special Purpose Index Number : Special purpose index numbers are constructed to know the index of productivity of labour, exports and imports, shares on stock market, etc.

(D) Value Index Number : It measures the relative changes in the total value of items like retail sales, profit, etc. as compared to their level in the base year. It is obtained by multiplying the price of an item with its quantity (P x Q).

Question 3.
Explain the significance / uses of index numbers in economics?
Answer:
Index numbers are significant tools of economic analysis in the following ways:
(1) Help in formulating Policies : Index numbers help the government and business organisations in framing their suitable economic policies for agriculture and industrial sector, wage and dearness allowance policies, etc.

(2) Help in the study of Trends and Tendencies : Index numbers study the relative changes in the level of phenomenon of different periods of time, so they can be used to predict future events. The economists can study the general trends of changes in price levels, agricultural and industrial production, export, imports, etc.

(3) Economic Barometer : Just as barometer is used to measure atmospheric pressure, index numbers measure the level of economic and business behaviour. They are very important for an economist, businessman, planners, policy makers, etc.

(4) Helps in Measurement of Inflation :
It helps the government to take measures against inflation by giving additional D.A. to the employees on the basis of Dearness Index.

(5) Help to adjust National Income : By comparing current year’s national product prices with the base year’s prices, the Domestic Product (GDP) produced. Hence, this shows changes in real national income.

(6) To present Financial Data in Real Income : Index numbers are used to adjust price change, wage change, etc. Thus deflating helps to present the financial data at constant prices.
(Note: Deflating means to make adj ustments / in the original data)

(7) Helps in determining Depreciation Cost: The price index helps in determining the depreciation cost of durable goods. At the time of inflation, it is useful to know the ) original cost of the commodities.

Question 4.
What are the limitation of Index Numbers?
Answer:
Although index numbers are very useful to business and industry, they suffer from the ) following limitations: ;

(1) Bias in the Data : Index numbers are constructed on the basis of various types of data. If the data is not collected properly, we may not get proper index numbers.

(2) Misuse of Index Numbers: Index numbers can be misused. We compare the index numbers with the base year. Hence a person may choose a base year which is suitable forhis purpose. A businessman may use a base year in which profits are high and show that his profits are falling now.

(3) Based on Samples : Index numbers are based on samples so it cannot include all the items in the consideration of index numbers. Hence index numbers are not free from sampling errors.

(4) Defects in the Formulae : There are number of formulae, but every formula suffers from some defects. Index number is an average , so index number may have the same limitations which an average may have.

(5) Changes in the Economy : In the long run, habits, tastes and expectations of people change, so it is difficult to incorporate all these changes in index numbers. For a good index number items should remain the same price wise over a period of time. But this is practically not possible.

(6) Neglecting Qualitative Change : The index number of price (or) production (or) quantity may ignore the change in quality of the commodities which may be significant at any point of time. A better quality commodity will cost more than an inferior commodity. So a rise in the price index may be due to an improvement in the quality and not due to a rise in prices.

(7) Arbitrary Weights : The weights (relative importance) assigned to different commodities may be random.

(8) Limited Scope : An index number is useful for the purpose for which it is designed. So its use is limited only to that phenomenon and not for another purpose.

5. Solved Examples Construction of Index Numbers

Question 1.
Calculate the price index number based for the following data.

Solution:
Calculate the price index number

where, P₀₁ = Price Index
Σp₁ = Sum total of current year prices of all commodities
Σp₀ = Sum total of base year prices of all commodities
p₀₁ = \(\frac{\Sigma p_{1}}{\Sigma p_{0}}\) x 100
= \(=\frac{400}{310}\) x 100
= 129.03 g
Hence, P₀₁ = 129.03 g

Question 2.
Calculate a Quantity Index number of g the given data.

Solution :

where, Σq₀ = Sum total of all the commodities of the base year
Σq₁ Sum total of all the commodities of the current year
Quantity Index Number Q₀₁ = \(\frac{\Sigma q_{1}}{\Sigma q_{0}}\) x 100
= \(\frac{300}{200}\) x 100
= 150
Hence, Q₀₁ = 150

Question 3.
Calculate Value Index number using a simple method of the following data:

Solution:


Steps : Σp₀q₀ = Sum total of product of the p₀ and q₀ of base year
Σp₁q₁ = Sum total of product of the p₁ and q₁ of current year
Value Index Number V₀₁ = \(\frac{\Sigma p_{1} q_{1}}{\Sigma p_{0} q_{0}}\) x 100
= \(\frac{4,200}{290}\) x 100
= 1,448
Hence, V₀₁ = 1,448

Question 4.
Given below are the price quantity data with price quoted in Rs. per kg and production in quintals. Construct index number by Laspeyre’s method.

Solution:

Steps: Σp₁q₀ = Sum total of product p₁ and q₀
Σp₀q₀ = Sum total of product p₀ and q₀
P₀₁ = \(\frac{\Sigma p_{1} q_{0}}{\Sigma p_{0} q_{0}}\) x 100
= \(\frac{34,370}{28,020}\) x 100
= 122.66
Hence P₀₁ = 122.66

Question 5.
Construct the index number by Paasche’s method.

Solution :

Steps : Σp₁q₁ = Sum total of product of the P₁ and q₁
Σp₁q₁= Sum total of product P₀ and q₁
p₀₁ = \(\frac{\Sigma p_{1} q_{1}}{\Sigma p_{0} q_{1}}\) x 100
= \(\frac{38,720}{31,520}\) x 100
= 122.84
Hence P₀₁ = 122.84

Question 6.
Calculate Laspeyre’s and Paasche’s Index from the given data.

Answer:
(A) Calculation of Laspeyre’s Index Number:

Laspeyre’s Index P₀₁ = \(\frac{\Sigma p_{1} q_{0}}{\Sigma p_{0} q_{0}}\) x 100
= \(\frac{1,200}{660}\) x 100
= 181.81

(B) Paasche’s Index Number :

Paasche’s Index Number
P₀₁ = \(\) x 100
= \(\) x 100
= 172.22
Laspeyre’s Index = 181.81
Paasche’s Index = 172.22

Question 7.
Construct Price Index Number from the given data.

Answer:

Price Index P₀₁ = \(\) x 100
= \(\frac{42}{40}\) x 100
= 105
Hence, P₀₁ = 105

Question 8.
Construct Value Index Number of the following data.

Answer:

V₀₁ = \(\) x 100
= \(\) x 100
= 138.18
Hence V₀₁ = 138.18

Question 9.
Calculate Laspeyre’s and Paasche’s Price Index numbers from the given data.

Answer:
Construction of Laspeyre’s and Paasche’s Price index Numbers.

(A) Laspeyre’s Price Index Number:
P₀₁ = \(\frac{\Sigma p_{1} q_{0}}{\Sigma p_{0} q_{0}}\) x 100
= \(\frac{200}{110}\) x 100
= 181.81

(B) Paasche’s Price Index Number:
P₀₁ = \(\frac{\Sigma p_{1} q_{1}}{\Sigma p_{0} q_{1}}\) x 100
= \(\frac{187}{97}\) x 100
= 192.78
(A) Laspeyre’s P₀₁ = 181.81
(B) Paasche’s P₀₁ = 192.78

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 7 First Aid in Mental Health Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Psychology Important Questions Chapter 7 First Aid in Mental Health

Choose the correct option and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
According to the NIMHANS study (2014-2016) about …………………. of the population suffers from common mental disorders.
(a) 10%
(b) 13%
(c) 25%
Answer:
(a) 10%

Question 2.
The Indian city that obtained an International license in 2017 to carry out the standard MHFA programme across India is ………………
(a) New Delhi
(b) Bengaluru
(c) Chennai
Answer:
(c) Chennai

Question 3.
If early signs of mental illness are recognized, it can assist the individual to get help. This is known as …………………
(a) diagnosis
(b) early intervention
(c) rehabilitation
Answer:
(b) early intervention

Question 4.
Imbalance of certain in the brain may be a factor in anxiety.
(a) neurotransmitters
(b) fluids
(c) organs
Answer:
(a) neurotransmitters

Match the pairs.

Question 1.

Group A	Group B
(1) Anthony Jorm	(a) technology related mental health issues
(2) Traumatic events	(b) depression
(3) SHUT clinic in NIMHANS	(c) co-founder of MHFA programme
(4) Red flag in internet usage	(d) social phobia
(5) Feeling of worthlessness	(e) anxiety
	(f) craving and compulsion

Answer:

Group A	Group B
(1) Anthony Jorm	(c) co-founder of MHFA programme
(2) Traumatic events	(e) anxiety
(3) SHUT clinic in NIMHANS	(a) technology related mental health issues
(4) Red flag in internet usage	(f) craving and compulsion
(5) Feeling of worthlessness	(b) depression

State whether the following statements are true or false.

Question 1.
There is a stigma attached to mental illness.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Mental illness is caused due to supernatural forces.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Mental illness usually does not develop ‘out of the blue’.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Relapse prevention is important in Mental Health First Aid.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Any anxiety experienced by a person is a cause for concern.
Answer:
False

Question 6.
DSM-5 considers behaviour addictions as a mental disorder.
Answer:
False

Answer the following in one sentence each.

Question 1.
What is the assumption of First Aid in Mental Health?
Answer:
The assumption of First Aid in Mental Health is the concept of ‘prevention is better than cure’.

Question 2.
What are some non-medical explanations for mental illness?
Answer:
Some non-medical explanations for mental illness are based on myths and superstitions that such behaviour is due to evil spirits and black magic.

Question 3.
Who developed the Mental Health First Aid (MHFA) programme?
Answer:
Betty Kitchener and Antony Jorm originally developed the Mental Health First Aid (MHFA) programme.

Question 4.
What is the objective of MHFA?
Answer:
MHFA is an internationally recognized training programme whose objective is to teach people how to identify the signs and symptoms of mental health problems and to provide assistance on a first aid basis.

Question 5.
What is the rationale of SHUT clinics by NIMHANS?
Answer:
NIMHANS (Bengaluru) has begun the Service for Healthy Use of Technology (SHUT) to deal exclusively with mental health issues that are technology related.

Answer the following questions in 35 – 40 words each.

Question 1.
What are the main hurdles to receiving treatment in case of mental illness?
Answer:
The main hurdles in receiving treatment for poor mental health are-

1. Lack of knowledge and awareness.
2. Stigma attached to mental illness due to which treatment is discontinued.
3. High cost of treatment.
4. Reliance on non-medical explanations for mental illness, for e.g., evil spirits.
5. Shortage of trained mental health professionals.
6. Slow improvement in the behaviour due to which treatment is discontinued.

Question 2.
What are the self help strategies in Mental Health First Aid?
Answer:
Self help strategies are tasks that help to increase our resources to deal with stress and to maintain mental health. MHFA is an internationally recognized training programme whose objective is to teach people how to identify the signs and symptoms of mental health problems and to provide assistance on a first aid basis.

1. Physical activity and exercise like playing a sport, jogging, yoga, etc.
2. Cultivate a hobby or engage in an enjoyable activity.
3. Sleep hygiene, i.e., 7 to 8 hours of sleep with a proper routine.
4. Reduce digital involvement, i.e., disconnect everyday for some time from gadgets.
5. Build social support and spend time with friends / family.

Question 3.
Enumerate behavioural changes noticed in persons suffering from depression.
Answer:
Individuals who experience depression, commonly have a negative thinking style and feel worthless and helpless. A number of changes are noticed in their behaviour such as-

1. Complaining of feeling tired or sleepy all the time
2. avoiding family and friends and spending much time alone
3. remaining sad and forgetful
4. bunking class or performing poorly in exams and having difficulty in concentrating.

Question 4.
What are the ‘red flags’ that indicate over dependence on the internet?
Answer:
Signs that help to identify individuals who show deviance or distress and require help in mental health are called red flags.
The ‘red flags’ that indicate over dependence on internet are-

1. Feelings of euphoria while using the internet.
2. Physical symptoms like headache, dry eyes, etc.
3. Inability to keep to schedules and boredom with routine tasks.
4. Poor personal hygiene and nutrition to remain online.

Write short notes in 50 – 60 words each.

Question 1.
First Aid in Mental Health.
Answer:
Mental Health First Aid (MHFA) is an internationally recognized training programme designed to teach people how to identify the signs and symptoms of mental health problems and to provide assistance on a first aid basis. MHFA was originally developed by Betty Kitchener and Anthony Jorm.

First Aid in Mental Health is a concept based on the idea of ‘prevention is better than cure’. It teaches one how to identify understand and respond to signs of mental illness as well as substance use disorders. Through role playing and simulations, MHFA demonstrates how to assess a mental health crisis, select interventions, provide initial help and connect the person to self-help resources, social support or professional aid if needed.

If the early signs of mental illness are recognized, it can help in the following ways.

1. Diagnosis – timely diagnosis at the onset of mental illness helps to prevent it from developing into a more severe form.
2. Intervention – early intervention helps to get professional help.
3. Relapse prevention – it prevent reoccurrence of symptom of the mental illness.

Question 2.
Self help strategies in Mental Health First Aid.
Answer:
Mental Health First Aid (MHFA) programme was developed by Betty Kitchener and Anthony Jorm. It is designed to identify the signs and symptoms of mental health and to provide assistance on a first aid basis.
Self help strategies are not luxuries but rather essential things that can be incorporated in your life.

1. Sleep hygiene – Ensuring that you get 7 to 8 hours of sleep every night. You should try to maintain the same schedule, that is go to sleep every night at the same time and wake up at the same time every day. This will help set a routine and improve your well-being
2. Reduce screen time and digital involvement – You should disconnect everyday for some time from your gadgets. Try to set a time limit for the number of hours you will surf the internet each day.
3. Physical activity – Try to add some physical activity in your day to day schedule. This can be playing a sport or just going for a walk every day.
4. Engage in activity that you enjoy doing, cultivate hobbies – This can be any activity like reading a book or listening to your favourite song.
5. Build and maintain Social Support – Meeting and spending time with your friends and family. Participating in social gatherings.

Question 3.
5-4-3-2-1 relaxation technique.
Answer:
There are certain times when you feel tense or anxious. One strategy that we can use to help us calm down is the 5-4-3-2-1 technique. This is a simple technique that you can use whenever you are feeling overwhelmed by the situation and need to relax. First take a few deep breaths and then follow the below instructions.

1. Think of 5 things that you can see around you. For example, a pen, book etc.
2. Think of 4 things that you can touch around you. For example, your hair, the ground under your feet etc
3. Think of 3 things that you can hear around you. For example, the sound of traffic, sound of people who are talking around you etc.
4. Think of 2 things that you can smell around you. For example, the scent of soap from your hands, the fragrance of your deodorant etc
5. Think of 1 thing that you can taste. For example the taste of the last meal that you had etc. Performing this exercise will help you focus on the present and stop worrying.

Question 4.
Behavioural changes in persons suffering from anxiety.
Answer:
Anxiety refers to a condition in which the person feels worried/tense and uneasy for a long time for no obvious reasons. Symptoms of anxiety include nervousness, restlessness, feelings of danger, etc.
Individuals who are anxious may-

1. Not want to go to college or work.
2. Complain repeatedly of various physiological problems.
3. Get irritated while interacting with their friends or family.
4. Spend lot of time worrying about how they look.
5. Be extremely quiet in the class or at work and get scared of asking questions to the teachers or colleagues.
6. Sometimes ask the same questions repeatedly.
7. They visibly show the physical symptoms of anxiety like sweating or excessive body movements.

Question 5.
Four C’s to identify excessive internet usage.
Answer:
Excessive internet usage is characterised by extensive, problematic addiction to the use of computer and internet. It signifies poorly controlled preoccupations or behaviour regarding such usage. Excessive internet usage leads to personal distress and social impairment.
The four C’s to identify excessive internet usage are as follows-

1. Craving – Do you have an intense desire to use the internet?
2. Control – Do you have an inability to control your self using the internet?
3. Compulsion – Do you find it difficult to stop using the internet? Even though you know you should not spend so much time on it?
4. Consequence – Have you ever experienced any physical or psychological ill effects as a result of excessive use of the internet?

If you answer a ‘yes’ for at least three of the C’s, it can be a matter of concern.

Question 6.
Over-dependence on internet.
Answer:
The amount of time as well as reason for using the internet may become a matter of concern for e.g., online gambling, gaming, etc. The person may socialise more online with friends than real life socialising. Spending excess time online may cause the person to neglect family, relationships, work etc. Virtual world enables games/gambling almost continuously.

This leads to the person neglecting personal hygiene, real life relationships and become withdrawn and irresponsible. The person may feel guilty or defensive about internet use. He/she may panic in the absence of internet service. A growing dependence on internet refers to an inability to stop and down down.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 History Important Questions Chapter 8 World Wars and India Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th History Important Questions Chapter 8 World Wars and India

1A. Choose the correct alternative and rewrite the statement.

Question 1.
The Austrian prince __________ and his wife assassinated in Serbia.
(a) King George II
(b) Kaiser William II
(c) Prince William
(d) Archduke Franz Ferdinand
Answer:
(d) Archduke Franz Ferdinand

Question 2.
Austria and Hungary were trying to suppress __________
(a) England
(b) America
(c) Germany
(d) Serbia
Answer:
(d) Serbia

Question 3.
During the First World War __________ stood up with Belgium and called a war against Germany.
(a) Bulgaria
(b) England
(c) Serbia
(d) Austria
Answer:
(b) England

Question 4.
After the end of the First World War, the treaty of __________ was signed.
(a) Brazil
(b) Tokyo
(c) Versailles
(d) Holland
Answer:
(c) Versailles

Question 5.
An organisation known as __________ was established after World War I to maintain peace in the
world.
(a) World Health Organisation
(b) League of Nations
(c) United Nation Organisation
(d) North Atlantic Treaty Organisation
Answer:
(b) League of Nations

Question 6.
After the end of the First World War, the Nazis under the leadership of __________ grabbed the power
in Germany.
(a) Woodrow Wilson
(b) Hitler
(c) Benito Mussolini
(d) Linlithgow
Answer:
(b) Hitler

Question 7.
In 1938, Hitler won __________ province in Czechoslovakia.
(a) Sudeten
(b) Prague
(c) Bratislava
(d) Bohemia
Answer:
(a) Sudeten

Question 8.
During the Second World War, Prime Minister of England __________ resigned from the post.
(a) Ramsay MacDonald
(b) Woodrow Wilson
(c) David Lloyd George
(d) Neville Chamberlain
Answer:
(d) Neville Chamberlain

Question 9.
__________ was the leader of Azad Hind Sena.
(a) Pandit Nehru
(b) Lokmanya Tilak
(c) Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
Answer:
(c) Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose

Question 10.
__________ was appointed as the first Field Marshall of independent India.
(a) Sam Manekshaw
(b) Lord Mountbatten
(c) Pandit Nehru
(d) Dr. Dwarkanath Kotnis
Answer:
(a) Sam Manekshaw

1B. Find the incorrect pair from group ‘B’ and write the corrected one.

Question 1.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(a) Russia	Communism
(b) Italy	Fascism
(c) Germany	Socialism
(d) England	Imperialism

Answer:
Germany – Nazism

2A. Write the names of historical places/persons/events.

Question 1.
Germany’s attack on this country directly provoked Britain to go to war –
Answer:
Belgium

Question 2.
Governor-General of India during First World War –
Answer:
Lord Chelmsford

Question 3.
Secretary of State of India in 1917 –
Answer:
Edwin Samuel Montagu

Question 4.
The leader of Indian migrants on Kamagata Maru steamship –
Answer:
Baba Gurudit Singh

Question 5.
The port where 30 passengers of Kamagata Maru steamship died due to firing of British officers –
Answer:
Bajbaj

Question 6.
A place where a naval war was fought between Germany and England and England defeated the German navy –
Answer:
Jutland in the North Sea

Question 7.
The American President who took a lead for the establishment of the League of Nations –
Answer:
Woodrow Wilson

Question 8.
Prime Minister of England after the resignation of Neville Chamberlain during World War II –
Answer:
Winston Churchill

Question 9.
The Viceroy of India who announced India’s participation in World War II –
Answer:
Lord Linlithgow

Question 10.
Dictator of Russia during World War II –
Answer:
Stalin

Question 11.
Daughter of Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru –
Answer:
Indira Gandhi

Question 12.
An international organization formed after World War II to maintain peace in the world –
Answer:
United Nations

Question 13.
The leader of the Soviet Russian army who defeated Germany during Second World War –
Answer:
Marshal Georgy Zhukov

2B. Choose the correct reason from those given below and complete the sentence.

Question 1.
The main responsibility of the United Nations __________
(a) to avoid war
(b) independence of colonies
(c) improving the economies of different countries
(d) disarmament
Answer:
(a) to avoid war

Question 2.
America declared war against Japan in 1941 because __________
(a) Japan attacked Pearl Harbour and destroyed the American naval base
(b) Japan conquered the Maldives
(c) Japan violated the treaty of Brest-Litovsk
(d) Japan entered into the North Sea
Answer:
(a) Japan attacked Pearl Harbour and destroyed the American naval base

Question 3.
Japan surrendered on 15th August 1945 because __________
(a) Japan was against the war
(b) they lacked financial help
(c) Germany convinced Japan to surrender
(d) America launched aerial attacks on Hiroshima and Nagasaki with atom bombs
Answer:
(d) America launched aerial attacks on Hiroshima and Nagasaki with atom bombs

Question 4.
Imperialistic European nations began to search for newer lands __________
(a) for more raw material and more markets to sell their surplus products
(b) to help other nations financially
(c) to maintain peace in the world
(d) to enhance the industrial production of these nations
Answer:
(a) for more raw material and more markets to sell their surplus products

3. Complete the following concept map.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Points	First World War	Second World War
1. Period	…………………………	1939 – 1945
2. Involved nations	Allied Nations: Britain, France, Russia, Italy, America Central Powers: ……………….	Allied Nations: ……………… Axis powers: Germany, Japan, Italy

Answer:

Points	First World War	Second World War
1. Period	1914 – 1918	1939 – 1945
2. Involved nations	Allied Nations: Britain, France, Russia, Italy, America Central Powers: Germany, Austria-Hungary, Turkey, Bulgaria	Allied Nations: Britain, France, Soviet Union, America Axis powers: Germany, Japan, Italy

4A. Write short notes.

Question 1.
Fascism
Answer:

• Fascism is derived from the Latin word ‘Fasces’ which suggests ‘strength through unity.
• An Italian leader and former Prime Minister of Italy Benito Mussolini built this movement.
• The major characteristics of Fascism are as follows:
  • Opposition to democratic institutions-It is a political ideology that does not believe in democracy, liberalism, individual freedom, and equality.
  • In Fascism, the greater focus is on the action, absolute political authority, centralization of political power, justification of war, and violence.
  • Aggressive nationalism, Militarism, and Anti-Communism.

Question 2.
Nazism
Answer:

• Nazism is a set of political beliefs associated with the Nazi party of Germany.
• Nazism is in a way slightly diverse form of fascism. Nazism gave more importance to racism.
• It was an extremely aggressive and corrupt manifestation of fascism.
• The genocide (the murder of all the people of a particular race, religion, etc.) of European Jews in Germany by Hitler had its roots in racism.

Question 3.
The ‘Kamagata Maru’ incidence.
Answer:

• During the time of the Second World War Indian people began to migrate to Canada and America.
• The government of Canada was heavily under the influence of the British government.
• It rejected the entry of Indian migrants. It did not allow ‘Kamagata Maru’ a steamship with Indian migrants aboard under the leadership of Baba Gurudit Singh, to anchor in the Canadian port of Vancouver.
• People on this ship returned to India. On their return journey, Kamagata Maru reached the port of ‘Bajbaj’ near Kolkata. There the British officers ordered Indian passengers to return immediately to their own towns and villages.
• But the Indians did not follow the orders so the British officers began to shoot and 30 Indian passengers died in it.
• This incidence of cruelty on the part of British officers created public outcry throughout India.

Question 4.
Azad Hind Sena
Answer:

• Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose was a great freedom fighter. He officially took charge of the Azad Hind Sena also known as Indian National Army in 1943.
• During the Second World War when the Japanese army reached the eastern border of India several volunteers joined this army. They were the patriotic members of Azad Hind Sena.
• Netaji’s policy was to take advantage of the situation to move the Indians for the intense opposition to the British, while the Britishers were engaged in war.
• He felt that even the enemy of the British may be approached for help if the need be.
• Azad Hind Sena fought fiercely for attaining its goal of independence of India and contributed to India’s freedom struggle.

Question 5.
Congress and Defence Policy
Answer:
Indian National Congress had formed a number of policies related to the defense issues of the country. It included:

• There should be a defense academy in India.
• The British Government should share part of the defense expenditure meant for India’s protection from its treasury.
• The official expenditure on defense should be curbed.
• Indian citizens should be provided facilities of education and training to make themselves capable of self-defense and defense of the nation.
• Indian men should be recruited in the regional units of the army.
• Home Guards and a group of volunteers should be established.
• By the ‘Queen’s Proclamation’, Indian people should be appointed on the posts of higher grades.

Question 6.
First World War and TISCO.
Answer:

• There is a very close relationship between First World War and Tata Iron and Steel Company.
• During First World War England required good railway tracks in Europe and military logistics in the province of Iraq.
• The company took great efforts and manufactured 1500 miles long tracks.
• In 1919, after the end of the First World War, Viceroy Lord Chelmsford visited the TISCO factory. In his speech, he attributed their victory to the railway track supplied by India.

Question 7.
Field Marshall Sam Manekshaw.
Answer:

• During World War II Sam Manekshaw was sent under the 17th Infantry Division to prevent Japanese attacks in Burma.
• He was appointed as the acting Commander. The army attacked the Sittang Bridge under his leadership. The enemy attacked him.
• He was hit by nine bullets fired from the Japanese machine guns. Maj. Gen. David Cowan, a senior commanding officer witnessed Manekshaw’s unmatched valour and pinned his own Military Cross ribbon on Manekshaw.
• A Military Cross could be awarded only to a soldier who is alive. He was appointed as the first Field Marshall of independent India.

Question 8.
Second World War and India.
Answer:

• In the period of war, England required manpower and money. So, they enforced the recruitment of army personnel from India.
• Extra taxes levied on Indians and taxes on trade and industries increased to raise funds needed for war.
• Due to inflation, prices of essential items increased and Indians have also been affected by an increase in unemployment.
• England exploited India and its resources to achieve victory in this war. India was a British colony and they took it in their right to use it as a source of supplying industrial products, cloth, and other commodities of daily use to their allied nations.
• Due to exploitation by the Britishers, a large number of Indians, from various societies, workers, and farmers joined the national movement against the British.
• India was pulled forcibly into this war by the British Government. India did not gain anything from this war.

4B. Explain the following statements with reasons.

Question 1.
Japan surrendered in August 1945 and Second World War came to an end.
Answer:

• The Second World War was fought between Allied powers and Axis powers.
• Japan entered this war in support of Germany. In 1941, Japan attacked Pearl Harbour and destroyed an American naval base. This resulted in America declared war against Japan.
• Later Japan went on capturing the regions of the Philippines, Myanmar, Malaya, Singapore and even marched up to Assam, Arakan, and Imphal.
• This drove the British to act against Japan’s aggression. America launched aerial attacks on two Japanese cities with atom bombs, first on Hiroshima and then on Nagasaki. So, finally, Japan surrendered on 15 August 1945. This put an end to the Second World War.

5. State your opinion.

Question 1.
World War II witnessed the rise of nationalism throughout the world but there is a difference between Indian nationalism and German nationalism.
Answer:
Nationalism means love, loyalty, and devotion to a nation. The differences between German nationalism and Indian nationalism were as follows:

• Germany is a country which, nourished nationalism. India was also greatly influenced by nationalism. But there is a difference between Indian nationalism and German nationalism.
• Germans were out to conquer other countries in order to make their country the most powerful and biggest in the world whereas the nationalism of the Indians was making them fight for regaining their independence.
• Indian nationalism was based on a broader perspective of the spread of Democracy all over the world including India.
• Germany was strongly influenced by racism. Hitler killed many European Jews. However, in India people of varied religions, races and castes were staying together for ages. These are the characteristics of Indian nationalism, which confirms its magnanimity.

6. Answer the following questions in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the impact of World War II on India.
Answer:
Lord Linlithgow’s announcement of India joining the war:

• The Second World War was started in September 1939. In the Second World War England and France fought against Italy and Germany.
• England declared war against Germany. At the same time, Viceroy of India Lord Linlithgow declared that India would also join the war in support of England.

Protest of Indian National Congress:

• Indian National Congress was against the aggressive dictatorship of Germany and Italy. Congress did not support colonialism so they protested against the viceroy’s announcement.
• England claimed that it was fighting for the protection of democracy in Europe. Indian National Congress now demanded the freedom of India from British domination.

The decision of the Indian National Congress:

• Indian National Congress gave assurance to England that India as an independent nation would support England in World War II. They also announced that Indians will not help the British if the British continued with their imperialist administration in India.
• Lord Linlithgow announced that British Government will not look upon any issues related to India till the end of the war, reacting to this Indian National Congress decided not to participate in the war.

Contribution of Azad Hind Sena:

• When the Japanese army reached the eastern border of India several volunteers of Azad Hind Sena joined this army under the leadership of Netaji Subash Chandra Bose against the British.
• Netaji thought that even the enemy of the British may be approached for help if needed. Azad Hind Sena fought bravely to attain its goal of freedom of India and in this way contributed a lot to India’s Freedom Struggle.

Question 2.
Explain the impact of the First World War on India.
Answer:
(i) The British Government of India compelled India, one of their colonies, to participate in the World War.

(ii) India became the source of procuring help in the form of money, food, clothing, and other war supplies. During 1919-20, the British Government in India provided help to England worth Rs.19 billion. India also contributed one hundred and fifty crores of rupees to the war expenses.

(iii) Seventeen of the Indian soldiers were honoured and decorated with ‘Victoria Cross’, a medal, given for gallantry.

(iv) War left a significant impact on various fields including production of war supplies, civil industries, trade, economic policies, farming and agricultural production, etc. This war boosted India’s industrial growth, especially in the Iron and steel industry. Considerable growth was also seen in motor transportation and motor vehicles.

(v) During the wartime and post-war period there was a decrease in export. The prices of agricultural products reduced but the prices of industrial products increased. Indian food grains were exported to allied nations. It caused a shortage of food and increasing prices of food grains for the Indians.

(vi) Due to war experience Indians realized that India could be considered backward in the matters of aircraft, mechanized war instruments, medical facilities. In 1917, Montagu- Chelmsford administrative reforms were introduced in India. India became extremely poor due to war.

7. Answer the following question with the help of the given points.

Question 1.
Explain the causes of the First World War.
(i) Increase in production
(ii) Imperialism
(iii) Division of Europe into two hostile groups
(iv) Immediate cause
Answer:
The First World War was fought between allied nations and central powers. The First World War
began in 1914 C.E. The causes of the war were:
(i) Increase in production: Due to the industrial revolution machines came into use for the various production processes. It also led to increasing in production because of mechanization.

(ii) Imperialism: The European countries needed more raw material to match the quantitative increase in production and more markets to sell their surplus products. Imperialistic European nations began to search for newer lands to meet these needs.

(iii) Growing Militarisation: The search for newer lands and colonies would often create warlike situations among them. Keeping this in view more powerful nations in Europe felt the need to continuously increase their military power and armory.

(iv) Division of Europe into two hostile groups: Germany, England, Russia, France, Austria, Hungary where the nations of primary importance. Among them, rival groups were formed. Because of the rivalry, every nation began to enhance its military and naval strength, There was a competition to produce more and more destructive weapons.

(v) Immediate cause: The Austrian Prince Archduke Franz Ferdinand and his wife were assassinated by a Serbian maniac. In Austria, people believed that this whole act was maneuvered by the Serbian Kingdom. Hence, Austria called a war against Serbia. Russia came to help Serbia. Two distinct groups were formed, one group supporting Austria (Germany, Turkey, Bulgaria) known as central powers and another supporting Serbia (England, France, Russia) known as allied nations.

Question 3.
Explain the impacts of the World Wars on India.
(i) Awareness against the exploitative rule of the British and participation of masses in the Indian freedom struggle
(ii) Protest of Indian National Congress
(iii) Contribution of Azad Hind Sena
(iv) India got independence
Answer:
India was forced into both the World Wars started by the British Imperial rule. The impacts of wars on India were as follows:
(i) Awareness against the exploitative rule of the British and participation of masses in the Indian freedom struggle: During wartime, the British Government started recruiting army personnel from India. Extra taxes were levied on Indians for raising funds. The prices of essential commodities went up. Indians suffered from the problems of inflation, unemployment. Indians from all strata of society, workers, farmers, middle class, and women joined in the Indian national movement against British rule.

(ii) Protest of Indian National Congress: The Indian National Congress protested against the Viceroy’s announcement of India’s participation in the war. The Congress demanded India’s freedom in return to India’s help to England in war. However, Lord Linlithgow turned the demand of the Congress so Congress decided not to participate in World War II.

(iii) Contribution of Azad Hind Sena: Azad Hind Sena under the leadership of Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose joined Japanese forces against the British and fought fiercely for attaining independence of India.

(iv) India got independence: After the end of the Second World War British realized that India was not going to be the perennial source of profit for them as it used to be. They decided to return home and India got Independence.