Class 7

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Science Solutions Chapter 3 Properties of Natural Resources Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Science Solutions Chapter 3 Properties of Natural Resources

Class 7 Science Chapter 3 Properties of Natural Resources Textbook Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks with the appropriate term.

Question 1.
The capacity of air to hold moisture depends upon the …………… of the air.
Answer:
temperature

Question 2.
Water does not have a …………… but has definite ………… and ………. .
Answer:
shape, volume, mass

Question 3.
While freezing, the ………….. of water is lowered.
Answer:
density

Question 4.
…………….. soil has pH 7.
Answer:
neutral

2. Why is the said that –

Question a.
Air is a homogeneous mixture of various gases.
Answer:

1. Air is made of oxygen, nitrogen, carbondioxide, water vapour and dust particles.
2. All these are in different proportions. Therefore air is a mixture.

Question b.
Water is a universal solvent.
Answer:

1. Water dissolves more substances than any other liquid. It dissolves solids, other liquids and even gases in it. Therefore, it is called as Universal solvent.
2. Water is used as a solvent in factories, laboratories, foodstuffs and in various types of biological processes occurring in the body such as digestion, excretion, etc.

Question c.
There is no alternative to water for cleaning purposes.
Answer:
Water is a universal solvent. It dissolves more substances than any other liquid so there is no alternative to water for cleaning purposes.

3. What will happen if……

Question a.
The amount of water vapour in the air increases.
Answer:
We feel the dampness or the humidity.

Question b.
Only one crop is grown repeatedly in the soil.
Answer:
The fertility of the soil decreases.

4. With whom should I pair up? 

Question a.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Air	a. Excretion
2. Water	b. Scattering of light
3. Soil	c. Plasticity

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Air	b. Scattering of light
2. Water	a. Excretion
3. Soil	c. Plasticity

5. State whether the following statements are true or false.

Question a.
Sandy soil has low capacity for holding water.
Answer:
True

Question b.
Sea water is a bad conductor of electricity.
Answer:
False. Sea water is a good conductor of electricity

Question c.
The substance in which a solute dissolves is called a solvent.
Answer:
True

Question d.
The pressure exerted by air is called atmospheric pressure.
Answer:
True

6. Explain the picture in your own words. 

Question a.
Explain the picture in your own words.

Answer:

• Diagram (a): Water is filled in the crack.
• Diagram (b): Water in the crack turns to ice due to decrease in temperature. When it turns to ice the volume increases and it expands. Due to expansion, the size of crack widens more than in diagram (a).

 7. Write answers to the following questions in your own words. 

Question a.
How is light scattered by the air?
Answer:
Air is a mixture of very fine particles of some gases, dust, smoke and moisture. When rays of light fall on these minute particles, the particles spread the light in all the directions. This natural phenomenon is called scattering of light.

Question b
Explain the various properties of water.
Answer:
Various properties of water are as follows:

1. It is a fluid substance because it can flow.
2. It does not have its own shape, it takes the shape of a container in which it is kept.
3. It has a definite volume.
4. It is a transparent liquid and it has no colour.
5. It is tasteless and odourless.
6. It is a universal solvent.

Question c.
Why is the density of seawater is more than that of rainwater?
Answer:
Seawater has many minerals dissolved in it as compared to rainwater. So due to more dissolved salts, density of seawater is more than that of rainwater.

Question d.
What is the importance of good soil structure?
Answer:
The fertility of soil depends upon soil structure. So importance of good soil structure is as follows: (a) Roots get sufficient supply of oxygen, (b) Water drainage is good therefore the roots of plants grow well.

Question e.
What are the various uses of soil?
Answer:
The uses of soil are as follows:
Plant conservation: To help plants grow. Water conservation: Soil holds water. As a result, by means of bunds and lakes, we can get water for use throughout the year.
Plasticity: (a) Soil can be given any required shape. This property of soil is called plasticity, (b) Because of its plasticity, we can use it to make articles of a variety of shapes, (c) These articles can be baked to make them hard, (d) Water storage earthen pots, earthen lamps, idols, bricks etc. are articles made from soil.

Question f.
What is the need and importance of soil testing from the point of view of farmers?
Answer:

1. The properties of the various ingredients of soil can be determined by soil testing.
2. During soil testing, the soil is examined for colour, texture and the proportion of organic matter in it.
3. Soil is tested to find out if there is a deficiency of any ingredients and to decide what measures should be taken to remove the deficiency. These information would enable the farmers to maintain the fertility of the soil.

Question g.
What is the importance of air in transmission of sound?
Answer:

1. Air is useful as a medium for the transmission of sound. Density of the air changes with temperature.
2. If the density of air increases, we can hear the sound more loud and clear.

Question h.
Why should a glass bottle completely filled with water never be kept in a freezer?
Answer:

1. Due to anomalous behaviour of water, when you cool water below 4°C, the volume of the water increases.
2. Therefore when the glass bottle completely filled with water is kept in a freezer, water expands on cooling and its volume increases so glass bottle breaks.
3. To avoid this, completely filled bottle is never kept in a freezer.

Project:

Question a.
Visit a soil testing laboratory. Learn the process of soil testing and share it with others.

Class 7 Science Chapter 3 Properties of Natural Resources Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks with the appropriate term.

Question 1.
Air is a …………… of gases.
Answer:
mixture

Question 2.
Atmospheric pressure is the …………… in all the directions.
Answer:
same

Question 3.
…………… is used to measure atmospheric pressure.
Answer:
Barometer

Question 4.
As we go higher the sea level and the atmospheric pressure …………… .
Answer:
decreases

Question 5.
Pressure of air …………… when its velocity …………… .
Answer:
increases, decreases

Question 6.
…………… an effect of the difference in air pressure.
Answer:
Wind

Question 7.
The level of …………… in the air is determined by its capacity to hold water vapour.
Answer:
humidity

Question 8.
When the temperature of air is low, its capacity to hold the vapour is …………… .
Answer:
less

Question 9.
Air is useful as a …………… for the transmission of sound.
Answer:
medium

Question 10.
Water is a …………… substance.
Answer:
fluid

Question 11.
Ice is …………… than water.
Answer:
lighter

Question 12.
Density of ice is …………… than that of water.
Answer:
less

Question 13.
The space occupied by a substance is its …………… .
Answer:
volume

Question 14.
The storage of matter in a substance is its …………… .
Answer:
mass

Question 15.
The density of water is maximum at …………… °C.
Answer:
4°C

Question 16.
The substance in which the solute dissolves is called …………… .
Answer:
solvent

Question 17.
The particles of sandy soil are made of the mineral called …………… .
Answer:
silicon dioxide (quartz)

Question 18.
…………… soil has a highest water holding capacity.
Answer:
clay

Question 19.
…………… soil is red in colour.
Answer:
Terracotta

Question 20.
…………… soil is used in cosmetics.
Answer:
Multani

Question 21.
…………… is celebrated as World Soil Day.
Answer:
5th December

Question 22.
The excess of water vapour during the night or dawn is transformed into ………….. .
Answer:
dew

Question 23.
Under ordinary conditions atmospheric pressure at sea level is …………… Newtons per square mater.
Answer:
101400

Question 24.
Swedish Scientist …………… put forth the important principle that the pressure of air decreases when its velocity increases.
Answer:
Daniel Bernoulli

Question 25.
When rays of light fall on fine particles of air, the particles spread light in all the directions, this is called …………… of light.
Answer:
Scattering

Question 26.
…………… soil is easy to plough but less fertile.
Answer:
Sandy

Say whether true or false, correct and rewrite the false statements.

Question 1.
Terracotta soil is white in colour.
Answer:
False. Terracotta soil is red in colour

Question 2.
The fertility of soil depends upon soil structure.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Multani soil is used to make statues and idols.
Answer:
False. Shadu soil is used to make statues and idols

Question 4.
Clay soil has the maximum proportion of small particles.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Silt soil is not as ploughable as sandy soil.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
The colour of soil near land surface is darker than the colour of the lower layers.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
Kerosene is a universal solvent.
Answer:
False. Water is an universal solvent

Question 8.
The density of substance is the inter-relation between the volume and mass of a substance.
Answer:
True

Question 9.
Water is lighter than ice.
Answer:
False. Ice is lighter than water

Question 10.
Rotation of crops decreases the fertility of the soil.
Answer:
False. Rotation of crop increases the fertility of the soil.

Match the columns:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Concept of pH	a. pH higher than 7.5
2. Acidic Soil	b. pH 6.5 – 7.5
3. Neutral Soil	c. pH less than 6.5
4. Alkaline Soil	d. Sorensen

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Concept of pH	d. Sorensen
2. Acidic Soil	c. pH less than 6.5
3. Neutral Soil	b. pH 6.5 – 7.5
4. Alkaline Soil	a. pH higher than 7.5

Write short answers.

Question 1.
What is atmospheric pressure?
Answer:
The molecules of the gases in the air are in constant motion. When these molecules strike a body, they create pressure on that body. This pressure of air is called atmospheric pressure.

Question 2.
What is Bernoulli’s principle?
Answer:
Bernoulli’s principle is that the pressure of air ‘ decreases when its velocity increases while the pressure of air increases when its velocity decreases.

Give scientific reasons.

Question 1.
When the piston of a syringe is released, it is immediately pushed in.
Answer:

1. On pulling the piston of a syringe with the inlet hole of the syringe closed, more space becomes available to the air in the syringe, and it becomes rarified.
2. As a result, the pressure of the air in the syringe is lowered.
3. Comparatively the pressure of the outside air is very high. So when the pulled out piston is A released, it is immediately pushed in.

Question 2.
Water droplets are seen on the outer surface of a glass having ice cubes in it.
Answer:

1. Due to the ice cubes in the glass, the air surrounding the glass cools down.
2. As the water vapour in this air cools down, it condenses and gets transformed into water.
3. It is this water that collects on the outer surface of the glass.

Question 3.
Early morning dew drops are found on the grass.
Answer:

1. During the dawn (early morning) when the temperature of air is low, its capacity to hold the vapour is less.
2. At such times, the excess vapour is transformed into water droplets and we call them as dew drops.

Question 4.
During the afternoon we feel that the air is dry.
Answer:

1. In the afternoon, when the temperature of the air is high, the capacity of the air to hold the moisture also increases.
2. Then, compared to its full capacity to hold water the proportion of moisture in the air is less and we feel that the air is dry.

Question 5.
Earth’s surface remains warm and suitable for the living world on the earth.
Answer:

1. The earth receives energy from the sun. This energy is reflected by the earth in the form of heat.
2. The constituents of air surrounding the earth, such as water vapour, carbon dioxide, absorb a part of this heat and give it to the other constituents of air.
3. So the Earth’s surface remains warm and suitable for the living world on the earth.

Question 6.
We can hear the whistle of a distant train clearly early in the morning in winter.
Answer:

1. The density of air changes due to change in its temperature.
2. In winter, temperature is low so the density of the air is more. So we can hear the whistle of a distant train clearly early in the morning in winter.

Question 7.
Ice floats on water.
Answer:

1. When water freezes means it transforms into the soild state therefore its volume increases.
2. When volume increases its density decreases
3. Therefore, density of ice is less than the water, so ice floats on water.

Question 8.
In cold countries aquatic animals remain alive even after the rivers or lakes freeze in water.
Answer:
1. Due to anomalous behaviour of water, in cold countries when water gets cool and turn to ice, its volume increases, so its density decreases
2. Due to less density ice floats on water.
3.  (a) Ice is a bad conductor of heat and electricity, (b) It doesn’t allow outside heat to go from the ice to water so water temperature below the ice doesn’t change, (c) It remains as water so aquatic animals remain alive even after the rivers or lakes freeze in winter.

Question 9.
It is easier to swim in the sea than in a well or a lake.
Answer:

1. Sea water is saline. It contains salt whereas it is not so in well or a lake water.
2. Due to salts dissolved in sea water, density of sea water is more, so the swijnmer will not sink.
3. Hence, it is easier to swim in the sea than in a well or a lake.

Question 10.
Sandy soil is less fertile.
Answer:

1. Sandy soil is made up of large particles and these particles of sandy soil are made of the mineral called silicon dioxide.
2. These particles do not dissolve in water therefore soil has very little capacity to supply nutrients, so sandy soil is less fertile.

Question 11.
China clay is used for making crockery.
Answer:
China clay is used for making crockery because on heating, this clay acquires a glaze and hardness. It can be moulded into any shape and being a bad conductor of heat, it is easy to handle.

Answer the following:

Question 1.
Write the properties of air.
Answer:

1. Air is a mixture of gases.
2. Air has mass and volume.
3. It spreads in all directions.
4. It exerts pressure.
5. It is colourless.

Question 2.
Name the tests for finding out the characteristic of soil. Describe any one method of it.
Answer:
There are two tests for finding out the characteristics of soil: (1) pH (2) electrical conductivity tests.
1. pH tests: The Danish scientist Sorensen put forth the concept of pH, based on the concentration of hydrogen ions. To determine the pH of soil, a mixture of water and soil in the proportion of 1 : 2 is taken and tested using several indicators.
Accordingly, soil may be found to be one of the following types.

• Acidic soil – pH less than 6.5
• Neutral soil – pH 6.5 – 7.5
• Alkaline soil – pH higher than 7.5

2. By Electrical conductivity tests we come to know how many nutrients are present in the soil.

Question 3.
Write the causes of diminished soil fertility.
Answer:
Following are the causes of diminished soil fertility.

1. Soil pH less than 6 or higher than 8.
2. Low proportion of organic matter.
3. No proper drainage of water.
4. Repeated cultivation of the same crop.
5. Continuous use of saline water.
6. Excessive use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides.

Question 4.
Which crops reduce the fertility of soil and Which crops increase the fertility of soil?
Answer:
Wheat reduces the fertility of soil and leguminous crops like peanut, moong, moth bean, pea, lentil, Bengal gram, soyabean increase the fertility of soil.

Question 5.
Name and explain some useful types of soil.
Answer:
Following are some useful types of soil.

1. China clay (Kaolin): (a) It is white in colour, (b) It is used to make crockery, bathroom tiles, tanks, laboratory apparatus, masks, jars etc.
2. Shadu soil: (a) It is whitish in colour, (b) It is used for making statues and idols.
3. Terracotta soil: (a) This soil is red in colour, (b) Decorative articles and pots used for growing plants are made from this soil.
4. Multani soil: This soil is used in cosmetics.

Question 6.
Explain the types of soil on the basis of its texture.
Answer:
There are 3 types of soil on the basis of its texture.
1. Sandy soil: (a) Large particles are high in sandy soil, (b) Water drains rapidly through sandy soil, (c) It is easy to plough this soil, (d) It is less fertile because the particles of sandy soil are made of the mineral called silicon dioxide (quartz), (e) These particles do not dissolve in water and therefore the soil has very little capacity to supply dissolved nutrients.

2. Silt soil: (a) The particles of silt soil are of medium size, (b) Silt soil is not as ploughable as sandy soil but is much more ploughable than clay soil, (c) This soil contains a large proportion of organic materials, (d) Its capacity to supply nutrients is much greater, (e) Silt soil is also called sedimentary soil.

3. Clay soil: (a) The proportion of small particles is maximum, (b) The particles of clay soil feel smooth to touch, (c) Clay soil has a high water holding capacity.

Explain the given picture in your own words.

Question 1.

Answer:
1. The potato will sink in water as potato’s density is more than water.
2. This is the effect of density. The potato will float in salt solution as the density of salt solution is more than potato. The density of the water becomes greater due to the dissolved salt. That is why it is easier to swim in sea than in a well or a lake.

Can you tell?

Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
What change takes place in a balloon on filling air in it?
Answer:
On filling air in balloon, the shape of the balloon changes. Its size increases due to expansion.

Question 2.
Why is it easier to swim in the sea than in a well or a lake?
Answer:

1. Sea water is salty due to minerals in it. Whereas it is absent in well or a lake water.
2. Due to presence of salts, density of seawater is more than well or lake water, so it is easier to swim in the sea than in a well or lake.

Use your brain power!

Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
What is the effect of increased temperature on the pressure of air?
Answer:
Condition for closed environment:

1. When the temperature increases, the pressure of air also increases.
2. For example, as the air warms up, the molecules in the air become more active.
3. They use up more individual space even though there is same number of molecules. T1 s causes an increase in the air pressure.

Question 2.
Dip an uncorked inverted empty bottle in a slanting position into the water in a wide container. What do you observe?

Answer:

1. When an uncorked inverted empty bottle is kept slanting in the water container bubbling sound will be heard.
2. Air bubbles come out from the empty bottle and water enters the bottle.
3. Empty bottle is actually not empty but it is occupied by air.
4. When this air comes out, its place is taken by water. This shows that air occupies space.

Question 3.
In cold countries how do aquatic animals remain alive even after the rivers or lakes freeze in winter.
Answer:

1. Due to anomalous behaviour of water, in cold countries, water changes to ice.
2. Due to this change, its volume increases and density decreases. So ice floats on water.
3. Ice is a bad conductor of heat so it doesn’t allow heat to go inside so the water below ice remains as it is. So aquatic animals remain alive even after the rivers or lakes freeze in winter.

Question 4.
Why is it difficult to plough clay soil?
Answer:
It is difficult to plough clay soil because in clay soil the proportion of small particles is maximum. The particles of clay soil feel smooth to touch and has high water holding capacity, making it very difficult to penetrate through it.

Question 5.
Why is it easy to plough sandy soil?
Answer:

1. Sandy soil has large sized particles. It has weak structure due to less organic matter and large spaces between them.
2. The water also drains quickly through it making it dry and allows the plough to penetrate through it.

Question 6.
What is the water holding capacity of silt soil?
Answer:
Silt occurs as a deposit in riverbeds. The size of silt particles is between those of sand and clay. This soil also has humus in it which makes it the best soil to hold the right amount of water.

Question 7.
Which soil is suitable for cultivation? Why?
Answer:
The silt soil is suitable for cultivation.

1. The particles of silt soil is of medium size.
2. Silt soil is much more ploughable than clayey soil.
3. It contains large proportions of organic material.
4. This helps the soil in retention of water for a proper amount of time and makes it suitable for crops to grow.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Science Solutions Chapter 5 Food Safety Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Science Solutions Chapter 5 Food Safety

Class 7 Science Chapter 5 Food Safety Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Complete the following statements by using the correct option from those given below.
(Irradiation, dehydration, pasteurization, natural, chemical)

Question a.
Drying the food grains from farms under the hot sun is called …………. .
Answer:
dehydration

Question b.
Materials like milk are instantly cooled after heating up to a certain high temperature. This method of food preservation is called ……….. .
Answer:
pasteurization

Question c.
Salt is a ……….. type of food preservative.
Answer:
natural

Question d.
Vinegar is a …………. type of food preservative.
Answer:
chemical

2. Answer the following questions in your own words. 

Question a.
How is milk pasteurised?
Answer:
Boil the milk at 80°C for 15 minutes and cool it quickly. This destroys the microbes present in the milk and it can remain for a longer duration. This process is called pasteurization of milk.

Question b.
Why should we not consume adulterated food materials?
Answer:
Different types of adulterants affect our health in different ways. Some adulterants cause abdominal discomfort or poisoning while some may affect the functioning of some organs if consumed over a long period of time or even cause cancer.

Question c.
What precautions do your parents take to keep foodstuffs safe?
Answer:
Our parents take following care to keep foodstuffs safe

1. Drying of grains.
2. Boiling of milk, soups and curries from time to time.
3. Refrigeration of vegetables, fruits, milk and cooked food.
4. Candying of jams.
5. Use natural preservatives like oil, spices, neem leaves, salt, etc.
6. Use chemical preservatives in sauces, ketchups, pickles, jams and squashes.

Question d.
How does food spoilage occur? Which are the various factors spoiling the food?
Answer:
Food spoilage is the process in which food deteriorates to the point in which it is not edible to humans or its quality of edibility becomes reduced.
Following are the factors for spoiling of food:

1. Bacteria causes food to spoil
2. Incorrect storage may spoil the food.
3. Infestation by pests.
4. Chemical reaction takes place in food and it gets spoiled.

Question e.
Which methods of food preservation would you use?
Answer:
I use following methods to preserve the food:

1. Freezing
2. Boiling
3. Salting of pickles
4. drying of grains
5. candying of jams.

3. What shall we do?

Question a.
There are vendors selling uncovered sweet-meats in open places in the market.
Answer:
We should tell them to sell the covered sweets because uncovered sweets are harmful to eat because it contains dust, dirt and germs. And buyers also should not purchase these uncovered sweets.

Question b.
A ‘pani-puriwala’ is serving the panipuri with dirty hands.
Answer:
We should tell him to wear gloves before serving panipuri because dirty hands contain dirt and germs which are harmful to us.

Question c.
We have purchased a large quantity of fruits and vegetables.
Answer:
We should keep them in refrigerator because in refrigerator, due to low temperature, fruits and vegetables do not spoil and biological and chemical reactions in fruits and vegetables are slowed down at low temperature.

Question d.
We need to protect foodstuffs from pests like rats, cockroaches, wall-lizards etc.
Answer:

1. If we do not protect foodstuffs from pests like rats, cockroaches, wall-lizards etc. then the food get spoiled by them and germs carried by them enters into the food.
2. If we eat this food then we may get food poisoning and we fall sick so we need to protect foodstuffs from pests like rat, cockroaches, wall lizards etc.

4. Find the odd-man-out. 

Question a.
Salt, vinegar, citric acid, sodium benzoate.
Answer:
Salt

Question b.
Lakhi dal, brick dust, metanyl yellow, turmeric powder.
Answer:
Turmeric powder

Question c.
Banana, apple, guava, almond.
Answer:
Almond

Question d.
Storing, freezing, settling, drying
Answer:
Storing

5. Complete the chart below.

Question a.

Answer:

Foodstuff	Adulterant
1. Turmeric powder	Metanil yellow
2. Black pepper	Dried papaya seeds
3. Rava	Iron filings
4. Honey	Sugar, water and jaggery

6. Explain why this happens and suggest possible remedies.

Question a.
Qualitative wastage of food.
Answer:
Qualitative wastage of food happens due to wrong methods of protecting food, excessive use of food preservatives, over-cooking, washing the vegetables after cutting them, mis¬handling of fruits like grapes and mangoes, miscalculation of the time required to transport food from producers to consumers are some of the reasons of qualitative wastage of food.
Possible remedies:

1. Avoid overcooking of food.
2. Store grains and other perishable foodstuffs like vegetables, fruits, milk etc. using proper methods.
3. Wash fruits and vegetables before cutting it.

Question b.
The cooked rice is underdone.
Answer:
Sometimes in a hurry if we cook the rice it is underdone.
Possible remedies: Use proper pressure cooker to cook the rice.

Question c.
The wheat that was bought is a bit moist.
Answer:
Sometimes due to sudden rain, wheat gets a bit moist. Possible remedies: Do not store the moist wheat, it gets spoiled due to fungus so first sundry it and then store in a clean and dry container to avoid microbial growth.

Question d.
The taste of yoghurt is too sour/slightly bitter.
Answer:
The taste of yoghurt is too sour/slightly bitter means it is spoiled. This happens if it is not kept in the refrigerator.
Possible remedies:- Always keep the yoghurt in refrigerator to avoid biological and chemical reactions in food materials.

Question e.
Cut fruits turned black.
Answer:
Fruit contains an enzyme called polyphenol oxidase or tyrosinase that reacts with oxygen. The oxidation reaction basically forms a sort of rust on the surface of fruits so it turns black.
Possible remedies:

1. Coat the fruits with sugar syrup
2. Add lemon juice on fruits.

7. Give reasons.

Question 1.
Food remains safe at 5° Celsius.
Answer:
Food remains safe at 5° Celsius because at 5°C, micro-organisms stop growing.

Question 2.
Nowadays, food is served in buffet style during large gatherings.
Answer:
Nowadays, food is served buffet style during large gatherings because due to buffet style quantitative wastage of food can be avoided, as people take only as much as they could eat.

Project:

Question 1.
Go to your kitchen und take notes about the food safety measures and the food wastage you see there.

Question 2.
In a science exhibition demonstrate the various methods of detecting food adulteration.

Class 7 Science Chapter 5 Food Safety Important Questions and Answers

Complete the following statements by using the correct option from those given below.
(Irradiation, dehydration, pasteurization, natural, chemical)

Question 1.
………………………. is celebrated as “World Food Day”.
Answer:
16th October

Question 2.
FSSAI means ………………………. .
Answer:
Food Safety and Standardization Authority of India

Question 3.
………………………. gas is filled in tight packets of potato wafers.
Answer:
Nitrogen

Question 4.
Common name of acetic acid is ……………………….
Answer:
Vinegar

Question 5.
………………………. is sprayed on the gunny bags containing food grains.
Answer:
Melathion

Question 6.
………………………. is used in smoking method.
Answer:
Aluminium phosphide

Question 7.
………………………. and ………………………. are emitted by radioactive isotopes in irradiation method.
Answer:
X – rays, gamma rays

Question 8.
In Maharashtra, irradiation plants have been installed at ………………………. for onions and potatoes and at for spices and condiments.
Answer:
Lasalgaon, Navi Mumbai

Question 9.
………………………. found the pasteurisation method.
Answer:
Louis Pasteur

Question 10.
………………………. adulterant is added to turmeric powder.
Answer:
Metanyl yellow

Question 11.
………………………. adulterant is added to red chilly powder.
Answer:
Brickdust

Question 12.
………………………. is used to make fruits more attractive.
Answer:
calcium carbide

Question 13.
………………………. and ………………………. harmful chemicals are mixed with cold drinks.
Answer:
carbonated soda, phosphoric acid

Question 14.
Shopkeepers change the of the ………………………. food packets fo avoid a financial loss.
Answer:
expiry date

Question 15.
Milk vendors add ………………………. to the milk to appear as higher fat content.
Answer:
urea

Question 16.
The shelf life of potatoes and onions ………………………. due to slowed-down of sprouting.
Answer:
increases

Question 17.
Serving too much food to guests at traditional feasts and banquets leads to ………………………. wastage of food.
Answer:
Quantitative

Question 18.
Miscalculation of the time required to transport food from producers to consumers leads to ……………………… . wastage of food.
Answer:
Qualitative

Question 19.
Prevention of food spoilage by microbial growth and infestation by pests is called ………………………. .
Answer:
food protection

Question 20.
………………………. is an example of a chemical preservative.
Answer:
Sodium benzoate.

Say whether True or False,, Correct and rewrite the false statement.

Question 1.
To prevent adulteration of food, it is inspected by the “Food and Drug Administration department of the government”.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Overcooking of food increases the quality of food.
Answer:
False. Over cooking of food spoils it

Question 3.
Peanuts become rancid then, it is not good to eat.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Oil and ghee contain fats.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Prevention of food spoilage by microbial growth and infestation by pests is called food wastage.
Answer:
False. Prevention of food spoilage by microbial growth and infestation by pests is called food protection.

Question 6.
Serve yourself only as much as you can eat.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
Salt, sugar and oil are naturally available preservatives.
Answer:
True

Question 8.
Pickles can be preserved by salting.
Answer:
True

Question 9.
Milk vendors add urea to the milk so that it appears to have higher fat content.
Answer:
True

Question 10.
Shelf life of fruits and vegetables decreases by gamma rays emitted by radio-active isotopes.
Answer:
False. Shelf life of fruits and ‘ vegetables increases by gamma rays emitted by radioactive isotopes.

Give scientific reasons.

Question 1.
Refrigerators are used in the kitchen.
Answer:

1. Biological and chemical reactions in food materials are slowed down at low temperature.
2. As a result food remains in good condition for a longer period. Therefore refrigerators are used in the kitchen.

Question 2.
Potatoes and onions are treated with gamma rays.
Answer:
Potatoes and onions are treated with gamma rays because irradiation with gamma rays prevents their wastage due to sprouting and increases their shelf life.

Question 3.
Grains are sun-dried.
Answer:
Grains are sun-dried to preserve them because on sun drying their water content gets reduced and hence they last longer.

Question 4.
We boil milk from time to time.
Answer:
We boil milk from time to time to kill microorganisms in it and thus prevent it from getting spoilt.

Question 5.
Jams or pickles get spoilt if their jars are not sealed properly.
Answer:
If the jar is not sealed properly, micro¬organisms from the air enter in the jar and start growing on the food. Oxygen in the air helps the micro-organisms and fungi to grow faster and hence bring about the spoilage of the jams and pickles.

Question 6.
Some vendors add urea to the milk.
Answer:
Some vendors add urea to the milk so that it appears to have higher fat content.

Question 7.
Food wastage should be avoided.
Answer:
In countries like India, the food requirement is plenty and people do not get proper meals even once in a day. If food is not wasted then it could have met the need of many others. Therefore, food should not be wasted and proper measures should be implemented to stop quantitative and qualitative wastage of food.

Question 8.
Adulterated food should not be consumed.’
Answer:

1. The health of all people is endangered by food adulteration.
2. Different types of adulterants affect our health in different ways.
3. Some adulterants cause abdominal discomfort or poisoning, while some may affect the functioning of some organs if consumed over a long period of time or even cause cancer.

Can you tell?

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
How and where food is wasted?
Answer:
Quantitative wastage of food:
1. Wrong methods of farming like hand sowing of, ts seeds, inadequate threshing, improper storage and wrong methods of distribution are some reasons for quantitative wastage of food.

2. Besides, much food is wasted as a result of the custom of offering and serving too much food to guests at traditional feasts or banquets.

3. Had it not been wasted, all this food could have met the need of many others Qualitative wastage of food: Using wrong methods of protecting food, excessive use of food preservatives, over-cooking, washing the vegetables after cutting them, mis-handling of fruits like grapes and mangoes, mis-calculation of the time required to transport food from producers to consumers, are some of the causes of quantitative wastage of food.

Question 2.
How is the food adulterated?
Answer:
Food is adulterated by the following ways:

1. Removal of some important components of food. e.g. removal of fat content of milk, essence of cloves, cardamoms, etc.
2. Mixing of a low quality inedible or cheaper material or harmful colour with food.
3. Mixing of some harmful materials like small stones, fine sand, iron filings, urea, dung of horse, sawdust etc.

How will you find out if food has been adulterated?

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 6 Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duties Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 6 Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duties

Class 7 Civics Chapter 6 Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duties Textbook Questions and Answers

1. List the restrictions on the powers of the Government.

Answer:
Restrictions upon the powers of the Government are listed below:

• State should not discriminate between and among citizens on the basis of caste, religion, race, language or gender.
• State shall not deny anybody equality before the law and equal protection of the laws.
• No person shall be deprived of his life.
• State shall not impose any religious taxes.

2. Say ‘Yes’ or ‘No’.

Question 1.
The jobs advertised in the newspaper are for men and women both.
Answer:
Yes

Question 2.
Men and women doing the same work in a factory get different wages.
Answer:
No

Question 3.
Government implements various schemes for the improvement of public health.
Answer:
Yes

Question 4.
State shall protect all monuments of historic interest and national importance.
Answer:
Yes

3. Tell why:

Question 1.
The State shall protect all monuments of historic interest and national importance.
Answer:

• It is one of important Directive Principles of State policy.
• Monuments are a part of India’s rich cultural heritage. A rich source to learn history, it is our collective responsibility to protect them.

Question 2.
A pension scheme is implemented for old people.
Answer:

• The pension scheme is the State’s way of offering public assistance to citizens who have retired from work.
• This ensures that the retired person can lead a comfortable life.
• Hence a pension scheme is implemented for old people.

Question 3.
Free and compulsory education has been made available to children in the age group 6 to 14.
Answer:

• No child should be deprived of education. So it is made available.
• Right to Liberty now also includes Right to Education and all children are entitled to get education as a Fundamental right.

4. Say right or wrong. Correct and write the wrong ones:

Question 1.
Not to let the National Flag fall down on the ground.
Answer:
Right: It is our Fundamental Duty to respect the National Flag.

Question 2.
To stand in attention while the National Anthem is playing.
Answer:
Right: It is our Fundamental Duty to respect our National Anthem.

Question 3.
To carve or paint our names on the walls of a historic place like a fort.
Answer:
Wrong: It is our Fundamental Duty to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.

Question 4.
To give lesser wages to women than to men for the same work.
Answer:
Wrong: Fundamental Rights put restrictions on the power of the government and one of the restriction states that the state should not discriminate between and among citizens on the basis of gender amongst other things.

Question 5.
To keep public places clean.
Answer:
Right: It is our Fundamental Duty to safeguard public property.

5. Write about the following:

Question 1.
The Directive Principles of the Constitution enumerated in the textbook.
Answer:
(i) The State should secure adequate means of livelihood to all citizens without any gender discrimination.

(ii) The State should secure equal pay for equal work for both men and women.

(iii) The State should secure the improvement of public health.

(iv) The State shall endeavour to protect and improve the environment and safeguard the forests and wild-life of the country.

(v) The State shall protect all monuments of historic interest and national importance.

(vi) The State shall promote with special care the educational and economic interests of the weaker sections of the people, especially the Scheduled Castes and Tribes.

(vii) The State shall offer public assistance to citizens in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness, etc.

(viii) The State shall secure a uniform civil code applicable to the entire country.

Question 2.
The provision of a Uniform Civil Code for citizens in the Directive Principles of the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
(i) The provision of a Uniform Civil Code for citizens in mentioned in the Constitution.

(ii) It aims to replace personal laws based on the customs and scriptures of the different religious communities living in India with a common set of laws, which is uniform to all the citizens of India.

Question 3.
Why is it said that the Directive Principles and Fundamental Rights are two sides of the same coin?
Answer:

(i) Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Rights are two sides of the same coin.

(ii) Due to Fundamental Rights, citizens get the most needed liberty, while Directive Principles of State Policy creates an atmosphere conducive to the growth of democracy.

6. What are the ways in which citizens can conserve the environment ? Write with examples.
Answer:
There are various ways in which citizens can conserve the environment:

(i) Citizens can support the endeavour of the State to protect and improve the environment and safeguard the forests and wild-life of the country.

(ii) Citizens should collectively take responsible actions to protect and improve the natural environment we are a part of.

(iii) Citizens should put to an end cruelty towards animals and have compassion for living creatures.

Activities

• Education is our right. Form groups and discuss our duties in this respect.
• The State shall protect all monuments of historic interest and national importance. This is one of the Directive Principles. Find out the efforts made by the State about the conservation and protection of forts and make a chart.
• Gather information about the schemes implemented by the Government for children’s health.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 6 Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duties Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
Due to citizens get the most needed liberty. (Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles of State Policy, Fundamental Duties)
Answer:
Fundamental Rights

Question 2.
In order that the Indian citizens become conscious of their responsibilities ______ were included in the Constitution.
(Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties, Directive Principles of State Policy)
Answer:
Fundamental Duties

Question 3.
We should perform all the tasks that we have undertaken honestly always striving for ______. (excellence, progress, prosperity)
Answer:
excellence

Question 4.
Fundamental Rights restricts the power of the government to impose any ________. (laws, restrictions, religious taxes)
Answer:
religious taxes

Question 5.
Every citizen of India who is a parent or guardian should provide opportunities of education to his or her child or ward between the age of six and _______years. (eighteen, fourteen, seventeen)
Answer:
fourteen

Say ‘Yes’ or ‘No’:

Question 1.
The state should secure the improvement of public health.
Answer:
Yes

Question 2.
Public assistance is provided to citizens in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness etc.
Answer:
Yes

Name the following:

Question 1.
Put restriction on the power of the government.
Answer:
Fundamental Rights

Question 2.
Direction or guidelines in the Constitution about how to achieve the goals expressed in the Preamble of the Constitution.
Answer:
Directive Principles of the State Policy

Question 3.
Any two challenges faced by India after independence.
Answer:
Establishing order, carrying out smooth administration.

Question 4.
Any one directive which ensures that there is no gender discrimination.
Answer:
State should secure equal pay for equal work for both men and women.

Question 5.
It is our Fundamental Duty to respect these two national symbols.
Answer:
National Flag, National Anthem.

Question 6.
Any one practice we are expected to renounce according to the Fundamental Duties listed in our Constitution.
Answer:
Practices derogatory to the dignity of women.

Question 7.
It is our Fundamental Duty to develop these values.
Answer:
Scientific temper, Humanism, Spirit of inquiry and reform.

Say right or wrong with reason. Correct the write down the corrections:

Question 1.
To sacrifice our life for the sake of our motherland.
Answer:
Right: It is our Fundamental Duty .to defend the country, and to render national service when called upon to do so.

Question 2.
The State protects all monuments of historic interest and national importance.
Answer:
Right: It is one of the important Directive Principles of the State Policy.

Answer in one or two sentence:

Question 1.
Which restrictions on the power of the government by the Fundamental Rights ensure that no discrimination is practised by the State?
Answer:
Fundamental Rights restrains the State from discriminating between and among citizens on the basis of caste, religion, race, language or gender.

Question 2.
When India got independence, why was it necessary to draw up new policies?
Answer:
When India got independence the task of nation building had to be undertaken and for this new policies had to be drawn up.

Question 3.
What is included in the Directive Principles of the State Policy with respect to environment?
Answer:
It is included in the Directive Principles of the State Policy that the State shall endeavour to protect and improve the environment and safeguard the forest and wild-life of the country.

Question 4.
What is stated in the Directive Principles of State Policy with respect to weaker sections of the Society?
Answer:
It is stated in the Directive Principles of the State Policy that State shall promote with special care the educational and economic interest of the weaker sections of the people, especially the Scheduled Castes and Tribes.

Question 5.
What is the State expected to secure as per the Directive Principles of State Policy which is applicable to the entire country?
Answer:
The State is expected to secure a Uniform Civil Code applicable to the entire country according to the Directive Principles of State policy.

Question 6.
What can we do if a Directive is not implemented by the Government.
Answer:
If a Directive is not implemented by the Government, we can put pressure on the Government in various ways to make a policy in order to meet the goals.

Question 7.
When will the benefits of the various schemes of the Government not reach all the people?
Answer:
The benefits of the various schemes of the government cannot reach all the people if they do not fulfil their Fundamental Duties.

Question 8.
Why were the Fundamental Duties included in the Constitution?
Answer:
Fundamental Duties were included in the Constitution so that the Indian citizens become conscious of their responsibilities.

Question 9.
Why is it mentioned in our Fundamental Duties that we should strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity?
Answer:
It is mentioned in our Fundamental Duties that we should strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation can constantly rise to higher levels of endeavour and achievement.

Answer the following in brief:

Question 1.
What are the ways in which citizens can conserve the environment?
Answer:
There are various ways in which citizens can conserve the environment:

• Citizens can support the endeavour of the State to protect and improve the environment and safeguard the forests and wild-life of the country.
• Citizens should collectively take responsible actions to protect and improve the natural environment we are a part of.
• Citizens should put to an end cruelty towards animals and have compassion for living creatures.

Question 2.
State any five Fundamental Duties of the Indian citizens.
Answer:
Fundamental Duties of the Indian citizens are as follows:

• To abide by the Constitution and respect the National Anthem.
• To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom.
• To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
• To defend the country, and to render national service when called upon to do so.
• To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood transcending diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.

Give reason:

Question 1.
The State shall protect all monuments of historic interest and national importance.
Answer:

• It is one of important Directive Principles of State policy.
• Monuments are a part of India’s rich cultural heritage. A rich source to learn history, it is our collective responsibility to protect them.

Question 2.
A pension scheme is implemented for old people.
Answer:

• The pension scheme is the State’s way of offering public assistance to citizens who have retired from work.
• This ensures that the retired person can lead a comfortable life.
  Hence a pension scheme is implemented for old people.

Question 3.
Free and compulsory education has been made available to children in the age group 6 to 14.
Answer:

• No child should be deprived of education. So it is made available.
• Right to Liberty now also includes Right to Education and all children are entitled to get education as a Fundamental right.

Give your own response:

Question 1.
What else do you think the Government should do for students? Make a list of your demands. How would you convince others that your demands are just?
Answer:
The list of our demands are:

• Emphasis on skill training in school.
• Choice of a wide variety of subjects based on one’s interest.
• Compulsory training in a particular Sport.
• Making a foreign language compulsory in the curriculum.
• Better facilities in schools.
• Programme of mid-day meals should be implemented in all the schools in the rural areas.
• Inspection of schools from time to time to check the quality of education imparted.
• I will convince others through dialogues and discussion and go by the will of the majority.

Question 2.
Which improvements will be possible with the following facilities offered by the Government?
Answer:

• Public toilets: Maintenance from time to time and continuous water supply.
• Clean water supply: Ensuring that water treatment to remove contaminants is done before it reaches homes and other places for consumption.
• Vaccination of children:
• Create awareness among parents about different vaccinations through different media of communication.
• Organise vaccination drives from time to time.

Can you tell?

Question 1.
There is a directive to ensure ‘equal pay for equal work’.
Which principles and ideals of the Constitution will be realised with this directive? Why does it happen that inspite of doing the same work, women are paid less than men?
Answer:
(i) Right to Equality and the assurance that State shall not discriminate among citizens will be realised with this objective.

(ii) Due to lack of awareness of rights and no strict implementation of law, we witness gender discrimination at work.

Observe the Picture and answer the questions given below:

Which of the Fundamental Duties are not being followed in the situations above?

Question 1.
A boy scribbling on a historical structure.
Answer:
The duty to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.

Question 2.
Hanging lemon, chillies
Answer:
The duty to develop the scientific temper, humanism and spirit of inquiry and reform.

Question 3.
Damaging a public bus
Answer:
The duty to safeguard public property and to abjure violence.

Question 4.
A woman emptying a garbage can on the street.
Answer:
The duty to protect and improve the natural environment.

What do you think?

Question 1.
Girls and boys between the ages 6 and 14 have got the Right to Education. All the girls and boys in this age group should be in school. Yet many girls and boys are not able to go to school because of many reasons. They have to work to help their parents earn a living for the family. Do you think that it is unfair to such children to insist that they go to school?
Answer:
No I don’t think it is unfair to such children to insist that they go to school.

(i) Practising child labour is a form of exploitation and we have the Right against Exploitation which extends constitutional protection to children.

(ii) Similarly it is the Fundamental Duty of every citizen who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities of education to his or her child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years.

Question 2.
Which improvements will be possible with the following facilities offered by the Government?
Answer:
(i) Public toilets :

• Public toilets will eradicate open defecation and will improve the overall public health
• As the availability of toilets at close proximity to highway will ensure that people do not face inconvenience while traveling.

(ii) Clean water supply:

• Water is our basic need hence providing clean water is very important
• It will prevent the spread of water borne diseases like cholera, jaundice, etc.

(iii) Vaccination of children:

• Vaccination will improve the health of infants
• Vaccination will reduce the occurrence of diseases like polio in infants

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 5 Fundamental Rights Part 2 Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 5 Fundamental Rights Part 2

Class 7 Civics Chapter 5 Fundamental Rights Part 2 Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Write about the following:

Question 1.
The Constitution prevents the imposition of religious taxes.
Answer:

• State cannot impose religious taxes that might be used to encourage a particular religion. That is, our Constitution forbids religious taxes.
• This is done in order to broaden the scope of religious freedom.

Question 2.
What is meant by Right to Constitutional Remedies?
Answer:

• In case of encroachment of Fundamental Rights, the Indian citizens have the right to get judicial remedies is also a fundamental right.
• This is called the Right to Constitutional Remedies.
• This means providing legal remedies in case people’s rights get violated.
• So, it becomes a Constitutional duty of the courts to protect the rights of the people.

2. Find one appropriate word:

Question 1.
Protection from illegal arrest and detention.
Answer:
Habeas Corpus

Question 2.
To restrain a person from acting in an office to which he is not entitled.
Answer:
Quo Warranto

Question 3.
The order of the Supreme Court or the High Court commanding the government to perform an action that is its duty to perform.
Answer:
Mandamus

Question 4.
The order preventing a Subordinate Court from exceeding its jurisdiction.
Answer:
Prohibition.

3. State the reason why we are free to practise the following:

Question 1.
All Indian citizens can celebrate all festivals joyfully, because
Answer:

• In India, we have a great diversity of festivals. Our Constitution has given the different communities the right to preserve their cultural uniqueness.
• This is guaranteed by our Constitution by giving the citizens the Right to Freedom of Religion.
• So we are free to celebrate all festivals joyfully.

Question 2.
We can make efforts towards the preservation and propagation of our language, its script and literature, because…
Answer:

• Cultural and Educational Rights in our Constitution gives the communities the right to preserve their cultural uniqueness.
• So we are free to make efforts towards preservation and propagation our language, its script and literature

4. Fill in the blanks with appropriate words:

Question 1.
We can approach the ______ in case of infringement of our rights (Court, Police, Government)
Answer:
Court

Question 2.
________ education cannot be made compulsory in educational institutions that get aid from the state. (Political, Religious, Racial)
Answer:
Religious

Class 7 Civics Chapter 5 Fundamental Rights Part 2 Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
_____ right provides freedom to establish institutions for religious reasons. (Right to Religion, Cultural and Educational Rights, Right to Constitutional remedies)
Answer:
Right to Religion

Question 2.
_____ is the right which gives people freedom to preserve their own language, script and literature. (Right to Freedom of Religion, Right to Equality, Cultural and Educational Rights)
Answer:
Cultural and Educational Rights

Question 3.
Sometimes the rights that are guaranteed to us by the Constitution may get encroached upon and we are not able to exercise our rights and this is called _______.(violation of our rights, infringement of our rights, deprivation of our rights)
Answer:
infringement of our rights

Question 4.
The writ which ensures protection from unlawful arrest and detention is ________. (Mandamus, Certiorari, Habeas Corpus)
Answer:
Habeas Corpus

Question 5.
The writ which prevents a subordinate court from exceeding its jurisdiction is _____. (Prohibition, Quo Warranto, Certiorari)
Answer:
Prohibition

Question 6.
The writ which restrains a person from acting in an office to which he is not entitled is ________. (Prohibition, Quo Warranto, Mandamus)
Answer:
Quo Warranto

Question 7.
The writ which orders removal of a lawsuit from a subordinate court to superior court is ______. (Habeas corpus, Mandamus, Certiorari)
Answer:
Certiorari

Question 8.
There are ______, protection available for judicial rights. (judicial, religious, educational)
Answer:
judicial

Question 9.
There are _______ official languages in Indian Constitution. (22, 28, 24)
Answer:
22

Question 10.
While considering fundamental rights, we also need to remember our _______. (duties, belief, self-interest)
Answer:
duties

Answer in one or two sentence:

Question 1.
In which educational institutions is it not allowed to make religious education compulsory?
Answer:
Religious education cannot be made compulsory in educational institutions that receives aid from the state.

Question 2.
In which aspects of social life of our country do we witness diversity?
Answer:
We can see that there is a great diversity of festivals, food and ways of life in the social life of our country.

Question 3.
Write any one right given to the different communities to preserve their cultural uniqueness.
Answer:
The communities can establish institutions for the development of their language.

Question 4.
Which Fundamental Right ensures that there is no encroachment on our Fundamental Rights?
Answer:
The Right to Constitutional Remedies is the Fundamental Right which ensures that there is no encroachment on our Fundamental Rights.

Question 5.
What is called an infringement of our rights?
Answer:
Sometimes the rights that are guaranteed to us by the Constitution may get encroached upon and we are not able to exercise our rights. This is called an infringement of our rights.

Question 6.
What does protection of Fundamental Rights by the courts ensure?
Answer:
Protection of Fundamental Rights by courts ensure that the citizens are able to exercise their Fundamental Rights and that they can fulfil their roles as alert, responsible and active citizens.

State the reason why we are free to practice the following:

Question 1.
We can move to court if there is encroachment of Fundamental Rights because….
Answer:
(i) In case of encroachment of Fundamental Rights, the Indian citizens have the right to get judicial remedies.

(ii) The Right to Constitutional Remedies is a Fundamental Right. So we can move the court if there is an encroachment on Fundamental Rights.

Write about the following:

Question 1.
what is each Indian free to practise?
Answer:
According to Right to Freedom of Religion, each Indian citizen is free to practise any religion and to establish institutions for religious reasons.

Question 2.
What right has our Constitution given to different communities?
Answer:

• One of our Fundamental Rights is Cultural and Educational Rights.
• Our Constitution has given the different communities the rights to preserve their cultural uniqueness.

Question 3.
What does the court do if there is infringement of our rights?
Answer:
The court considers our complaint, investigates it and in case it is convinced that rights have indeed been infringed upon and injustice has been done to the aggrieved individual, the court gives an appropriate verdict.

Question 4.
Give some instances which illustrate the infringement of rights:
Answer:
Some instances of infringement of rights are:

• Arresting an individual without reason.
• Preventing a person from leaving a village or a town without giving a valid reason.
• Refusing food, water or medicines to jail inmates.

Let’s us discuss:

Question 1.
How many official languages are listed in the Constitution?
Answer:
Currently there are 22 scheduled languages in India.

Question 2.
Which institutions have been established by the Maharashtra State Government for the further development of the Marathi language?
Answer:
Some institutions established by Maharashtra State Government for the further development of Marathi language are:

• Akhil Bharatiya Marathi Nathya Parishad.
• Maharashtra Sahitya Parishad – Pune.
• Rajya Marathi Vikas Sanstha.
• Akhil Bharatiya Marathi Sahitya Mahamandal.

Question 3.
Is the reaction of this Government official right or wrong?
An officer tells a woman who presents all the documents for getting the benefits of a scheme i for destitutes, “You don’t look like a destitute” and refuses her the benefits of the scheme. In this instance, do you think the woman’s right has been infringed? Where should she go to get redressal?
Answer:

• The reaction of this government official is incorrect since the woman has presented all the documents pertaining to the scheme.
• This is encroachment of her Fundamental Rights.
• She should move to court and lodge a complaint and seek constitutional remedy for infringement of her rights.

Find out and discuss:

Question 1.
How many official languages are listed in the Constitution?
Answer:
The Eight schedules of the Constitution consists,of the following 22 languages:

1. Assamese
2. Bengali
3. Gujarati
4. Hindi
5. Kannada
6. Kashmiri
7. Konkani
8. Malayalam
9. Manipuri
10. Marathi
11. Nepali
12. Oriya
13. Punjabi
14. Sanskrit
15. Sindhi
16. Tamil
17. Telugu
18. Urdu
19. Bodo
20. Santhali
21. Maithili
22. Dogri.

Question 2.
Do you think that all the work of the government and the courts should be done in Marathi in Maharashtra? What should be done to do so?
Answer:
Yes, I do think that all the work of the government and courts should be done in Marathi in Maharashtra since Marathi is the official language of Maharashtra To achieve this

• Marathi, as well as non-Marathi speakers working in the government organizations and courts, should be given formal training in Marathi.
• Workshops can be conducted to train people for conversing and corresponding in Marathi.
• What should be done at the school – level

Question 3.
for the development of your language and culture?
Answer:

• Schools should encourage reading of books written in the respective language.
• School should make students acquainted with different fors of literature.
• School should establish a language club.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 4 Fundamental Rights Part 1 Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 4 Fundamental Rights Part 1

Class 7 Civics Chapter 4 Fundamental Rights Part 1 Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
What do you understand by ‘Fundamental Rights’?
Answer:
(i) Demanding one’s rights is insisting on creating an atmosphere conducive to the development of the self as well as the entire society.

(ii) The Indian Constitution has guaranteed equal rights to all citizens in order to create this conducive atmosphere.

(iii) These rights are Fundamental Rights.

Question 2.
Name the awards that are conferred by the Government upon people for their distinguished contribution in different fields.
Answer:
Padmashree, Padmabhushan, Padmavibhushan.

Question 3.
Why is it prohibited to employ children under 14 years of age in hazardous places?
Answer:
(i) Employing children under 14 years of age in hazardous places can be dangerous. Children may be grievously injured and they may even lose their life.

(ii) To prevent the exploitation of children and ban oppression of any kind, it is prohibited to employ children under 14 years of age in hazardous places.

Question 4.
Why has the Constitution given equal rights to all citizens?
Answer:
(i) We get rights at birth. Every newborn baby has a right to live.

(ii) The entire society and government takes efforts to ensure that the baby is in the best of health.

(iii) Only when all individuals get protection from injustice, exploitation, discrimination and deprivation, will they be able to develop their skills and qualities.

(iv) Demanding one’s rights is insisting on creating an atmosphere conducive to the development of the self as well as the entire society.

(v) The Indian Constitution has guaranteed equal rights to all citizens in order to create this conducive atmosphere.

2. Prepare a picture strip on the right to liberty
Answer:

3. Correct and rewrite the following sentences:

Question 1.
No one gets rights at birth.
Answer:
We get rights at birth.

Question 2.
Government can deprive you of a job by discriminating on the basis of religion, sex, place of birth while giving government jobs.
Answer:
According to the Right to Equality mentioned in our Constitution the State cannot discriminate against any citizen on grounds of religion, sex, place of birth or other grounds

4. Complete the following graphical description.

Answer:

Activities:

• Collect news clippings about certain important rights like the right to information, right to education, etc.
• If you find small children working on construction sites in your neighbourhood, talk to them and their parents about their problems and present the problems in your class.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 4 Fundamental Rights Part 1 InText Questions and Answers

Do this:

Following are the actions of A, B and C. Which kind of freedom do you connect them with?

Question 1.
‘A’ established ‘Adivasi Co-operation Forum’ to solve the problems of the tribal people.
Answer:
Freedom to Assemble Peacefully.

Question 2.
‘B’ decided to move his father’s bakery production from Goa to Maharashtra.
Answer:
Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India.

Question 3.
‘C’ found some lacunae in the new tax policy of the Government. He wrote an artide about it and sent it to a newspaper for publication.
Answer:
Freedom of Speech and Expression.

Let’s discuss:

Question 1.

• Children are not employed here.
• Workers are paid daily here.

You see such boards in shops and hotels. In what way are they related to the Fundamental rights in the Constitution?
Answer:
They ensure that the Right against Exploitation mentioned in the Constitution is honoured and the right is not denied to the workers and children.

Question 2.
You must be aware of children’s rights. Can you name two important rights of children?
Answer:
(a) Right to Protection:

• Right to be protected from all sorts of violence.
• Right to be protected from physicaL and sexual abuse.
• Right to be protected from dangerous drugs.

(b) Right to Development

• Right to education
• Right to learn
• Right to relax and play
• Right to all forms of development – emotional, mental and physical.

Question 3.
Can rights be taken away?
Answer:
No, the rights cannot be taken away by anyone.

Question 4.
If rights are taken away, who should we contact for redressal?
Answer:
If rights are taken away one may appeal in the courts to seek justice for the same.

Question 5.
If the pet animals could speak, what rights do you think they would ask from you?
Answer:

• The right to roam around freely, wherever and whenever they wish.
• Right to expression
• Right to eat whatever they want whenever they want.

Question 6.
What are the advantages of equality before law and equal protection of the law?
Answer:

• There is no discrimination among citizens as superior – inferior, as men-women or while extending any protections like protection from arrest without a warrant.
• There is no discrimination among the citizens on the basis of religion, caste, race, sex, place of birth or residence.
• The inhuman practice of untouchability has been abolished in order to establish equality in the Indian society.
• Titles like Raja, Maharaja, Raobahadur etc. have also been abolished.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 4 Fundamental Rights Part 1 Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
The ______ has guaranteed equal rights to all citizens in order to create a conducive atmosphere.(Indian judiciary, Indian Government, Indian Constitution)
Answer:
Indian Constitution

Question 2.
We have protection from arrest without _______. (prior intimation, proof, warrant)
Answer:
warrant

Question 3.
________ gives a guarantee of all the liberties necessary from the point of view of an individual. (Right to Equality, Right to Liberty Right against Exploitation)
Answer:
Right to Liberty

Question 4.
______ implies getting a guarantee to live and availability of a conducive environment for living. (Right against Exploitation, Right to
Liberty, Right to Life)
Answer:
Right to Life

Question 5.
All children between 6 and ______ years of age are entitled to get education as a Fundamental Right. (11,10,14)
Answer:
14

Question 6.
It is prohibited to employ children under _______ years of age in hazardous places. (10,14,16)
Answer:
16

Match the following:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Right to Equality	(a) liberties necessary from the point of view of individuals
(2) Right to Liberty	(b) bans all types of oppression.
(3) Right against	(c) No discrimination
Exploitation	amongst citizens.

Answer:
1 – c
2 – a
3 – b

Name the following:

Question 1.
The equal rights guaranteed to all citizens by the Indian Constitution in order to create a conducive atmosphere for the development of the self and the entire society.
Answer:
Fundamental Rights.

Question 2.
According to this right, the State cannot discriminate among citizens as superior- interior or men-women and cannot give different treatment or privileges to anybody.
Answer:
Right to Equality.

Question 3.
The State cannot discriminate against any citizen on these grounds for government employment.
Answer:
Religion, caste, race, sex, descent or place of birth or religion.

Question 4.
This inhuman practice that was prevalent in our country has been abolished by law.
Answer:
Untouchability.

Question 5.
These titles have been abolished as it creates artificial hierarchy among people.
Answer:
Raja, Maharaja, Raobahadur.

Question 6.
Any two freedoms we enjoy as Indian citizens.
Answer:
Freedom of Speech and Expression, Freedom to Assemble Peacefully.

Question 7.
The new right included in the Right to Liberty.
Answer:
Right to Education.

Question 8.
Children between this age group are entitled to get education as a Fundamental Right.
Answer:
6-14 years.

Question 9.
Two places where children cannot be made to work.
Answer:
Factories, Mines.

Question 10.
It implies getting a guarantee to live and availability of a conducive environment for living.
Answer:
Right to Life.

Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
When will individual be able to develop their skills and qualities?
Answer:
Only when all individuals get protection from injustice, exploitation, discrimination and deprivation, will the individuals be able to j develop their skills and qualities.

Question 2.
What does demanding one’s rights imply?
Answer:
Demanding one’s rights is insisting on creating an atmosphere conducive to the development of the self as well as the entire society.

Question 3.
What does the Right to Education ensure?
Answer: Right to Education ensures that no child between the age of 6 and 14 will be deprived of education.

Question 4.
Which are the different forms of exploitation which are prevented through Right against Exploitation?
Answer:
Bonded labour or forcing somebody to work against his wish, treating somebody like a slave, denying them legitimate compensation, making them do excessive or strenuous work, starving them or ill-treating them are different forms of exploitation which are prevented through Right against Exploitation

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Right to Equality
Answer:
According to the Right to Equality, the State cannot discriminate among citizens as superior-inferior or a men-women and cannot give different treatment or privileges to anybody. The same law applies equally to all. Many laws give protection. For example, we have protection from arrest without warrant. The State cannot discriminate even while extending such protection.

Question 2.
Right to Liberty
Answer:
This is a very important right given by the Constitution. It gives a guarantee of all the liberties necessary from the point of view of the individual. As Indian citizens, we have the right to:

• Freedom of speech and expression.
• Freedom to assemble peacefully.
• Freedom to form associations or unions.
• Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India.
• Freedom to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India.
• Freedom to practise any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.

Question 3.
Right against Exploitation
Answer:
(i) The right against exploitation implies the right to prevent exploitation.

(ii) While the Constitution has banned all types of oppressions through the right against exploitation, it has made a special provision to prevent the exploitation of children.

(iii) Accordingly, it is prohibited to employ children under 14 years of age in hazardous places.

(iv) Children cannot be employed or made to work in factories and mines.

(v) Exploitation includes bonded labour or forcing somebody to work against his wish, treating somebody like a slave, denying them legitimate compensation, making them do excessive or strenuous work, starving them or ill-treating them.

(vi) Generally women, children, the weaker sections of society and powerless people are exploited.

(vii) This right enables us to stand up against any kind of exploitation.

Correct and rewrite the following sentences:

Question 1.
No one gets rights at birth.
Answer:
We get rights at birth.

Question 2.
The government can deprive you of a job by discriminating on the basis of religion, sex, place of birth while giving government jobs.
Answer:
According to the Right to Equality mentioned in our Constitution the State cannot discriminate against any citizen on grounds of religion, sex, place of birth or other grounds.

Question 3.
People can have titles like Raja, Maharaja, Raobahadur etc.
Answer:
The Constitution has abolished titles like Raja,, Maharaja, Raobahadur etc., that create aq artificial hierarchy among people.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 3 Features of the Constitution Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 3 Features of the Constitution

Class 7 Civics Chapter 3 Features of the Constitution Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Prepare a table to show the separation of powers in a Federal Government.

Answer:

Union List	State List	Concurrent List
Defence, foreign relations, war and peace, currency, international trade, etc.	Agriculture, law and order, local government, health, prison administration etc.	Employment, environment economic and social planning, personal law, education, etc.

2. Find one word for:

Question 1.
The Government at the centre which carries out the administration of the entire country.
Answer:
Union Government

Question 2.
The machinery with whom rests the responsibility of conducting elections in a free and fair atmosphere.
Answer:
Election Commission.

Question 3.
The third list of subjects for making laws
Answer:
The Concurrent List

3. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Why does the Government function at two levels in a Federation?
Answer:
(i) One of the important features of our Constitution is the Federal System.

(ii) In countries with large territories and huge populations, the Government is run by a Federal System.

(iii) Ruling a large territory from a single capital city is not only difficult but may also lead to the neglect of some far-flung areas.

(iv) People residing there cannot participate in the affairs of the Government. Therefore, the governments function at two levels in a § Federation.

Question 2.
What do you understand by Residuaiy Powers?
Answer:
(i) Our Constitution has given three lists on various subjects.

(ii) The first list is called Union List. It contains 97 subjects on which the Union Government makes laws.

(iii) The State List is for the State Governments to legislate upon. It contains 66 subjects.

(iv) Apart from these two lists, there is a Concurrent List which contains 47 subjects.

(v) Both governments can make laws on subjects included in this list. If a subject comes up that is not included in any of the lists, the Union Government is entitled to make laws on it. These powers are termed as ‘Residuary Powers’.

Question 3.
Why has the Constitution created an independent Judiciary in India?
Answer:
(i) The Judiciary of India is independent machinery according to the provisions of the Constitution.

(ii) It is separate from the Executive and Legislative bodies of the Indian Government.

(iii) The Supreme Court is the guardian of the Constitution which ensures that the Fundamental Rights of the citizens are not violated.

(iv) To carry out its duties without fear or favour or external pressure, the Judiciary in India is independent.

4. Hold a group discussion on the merits and demerits of an independent judicial system.
Answer:
Merits of an independent judicial system:

• The judicial system enables the courts to give impartial judgements.
• Judiciary does not act under any political pressure.
• As the judges are appointed by the President and not by the Government.

Demerits of an independent judicial system:

• As the judiciary is independent, it is out of the scope of the government’s control.
• The judiciary is not answerable to anyone if the process of dispensing justice is slow.

5. Find out about the Electronic Voting Machine (EVM) and discuss the advantages of conducting elections with EVM.
Answer:

• Difficult to tamper/cheat
• Cost-effective and economical
• Time-saving
• Calculation is faster
• Easy to use / carry / transport
• Data can be saved for later use.

Activity:

Establish an Election Commission in your class, decide upon the positions you would like to fill through elections. Then conduct elections under the guidance of this Commission.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 3 Features of the Constitution InText Questions and Answers

Do this:

Question 1.
Make a list of North-Eastern Indian States and name their capital cities.
Answer:

State	Capital
Arunachal Pradesh	Itanagar
Assam	Dispur
Meghalaya	Shillong
Manipur	Imphal
Mizoram	Aizwal
Nagaland	Kohima
Tripura	Agartala

Find out:

Question 1.
Find out about the Electronic Voting Machine (EVM) and discuss the advantages of conducting elections with EVM.
Answer:

• Difficult to tamper/cheat
• Cost effective and economical
• Time saving
• Calculation is faster
• Easy to use / carry / transport
• Data can be saved for later use.

Question 2.
How many amendments have been made in the Indian Constitution till date?
Answer:
As of September 2016, there have been 101 (latest of List Bill) amendments to the Constitution of India, since it was first enacted in 1950.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 3 Features of the Constitution Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
One of the important features of our Constitution is the _______ System. (Federal, Unitary, Republic)
Answer:
Federal

Question 2.
The Government functions at ________ levels in a Federation. (two, three, four)
Answer:
two

Question 3.
The Government that oversees the administration of the region that we live in is called _______.(Union Government, State Government, None of the above)
Answer:
State Government

Question 4.
The system of running the administration of a country cooperatively by the governments at two levels, making laws about different subjects is called __________. (Socialism, Communism, Federalism)
Answer:
Federalism

Question 5.
The ______ is for the Union Government to make laws. (State List, Union List, Concurrent List)
Answer:
Federalism

Question 6.
The _______ is for the State Government to legislate upon. (Union List, State List, Concurrent List)
Answer:
State List

Question 7.
The ______ List contains 47 subjects and both the Government can make laws on these subjects. (Concurrent List, Union List, State List)
Answer:
Concurrent List

Question 8.
If a subject comes up and it is not included in any of the Lists, the _______ is entitled to make laws. (State Government, Union Government, President)
Answer:
Union Government

Question 9.
In India, there are ____ State Governments and _______ Union Territories.(29, 7 ; 28, 8)
Answer:
29, 7

Question 10.
The ______ System of Government the Legislature has the highest decision making power. (Parliamentary, Autocratic, Communist)
Answer:
Parliamentary

Question 11.
The ______ who runs the administration emerge from the Lok Sabha and is / are answerable to the Lok Sabha for all its / their decisions.
(Opposition Ministers, Council of Ministers,President)
Answer:
Council of Ministers

Question 12.
Judges are appointed by the ______ (President, Government, Vice-President)
Answer:
President

Question 13.
The Indian Constitution has granted _________ to all Indians. (Single citizenship, Dual citizenship, None of these)
Answer:
Single citizenship

Question 14.
The ________ ensures free, fair and just atmosphere for the election. (President, Election Commission, Ruling Party)
Answer:
Election Commission.

Match the following:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) War and peace (2) Law and order (3) Economic and Social planning	(a)  State Government (b) Both Union and State Government (c) Union Government

Answer:
1 – c
2 – a
3 – b

State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons:

Question 1.
Defence is a subject on which the State Government makes laws.
Answer:
False:

• The Constitution has divided the subjects for making laws between the Union and the State Government.
• Defence is a subject on which Union Government makes laws.

Question 2.
The Union List contains 97 subjects and defence is one of the subjects included in it.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Chandigarh is controlled by the State Government.
Answer:
False: Chandigarh is one of the seven Union Territories of India. The Union Government controls the Union Territories.

Question 4.
In India, the Executive has the highest decision-making power.
Answer:
False: The Indian Constitution has provided for a Parliamentary System of Government. In such a system the Parliament, i.e. the Legislature has the highest decision-making power.

Name the following:

Question 1.
The system which is an important feature of our Constitution.
Answer:
Federalism

Question 2.
The Government that oversees the administration of the place we live.
Answer:
State Government

Question 3.
Number of subjects in the Union List on which the Union Government makes laws.
Answer:
97 Subjects

Question 4.
The list with 66 subjects which the State government legislates upon.
Answer:
The State List

Question 5.
The powers of the Union Government to make laws on a subject which comes up and is not mentioned in any list.
Answer:
Residuary Powers

Question 6.
Any two subjects with the Union Government.
Answer:
Defence, Currency

Question 7.
Subjects with the State Government
Answer:
Health, Prison

Question 8.
Subjects with both the governments.
Answer:
Employment, Education

Question 9.
2 Union Territories in India.
Answer:
Daman and Diu, New Delhi

Question 10.
Answerable to the Lok Sabha
Answer:
The Council of Ministers.

Question 11.
An example to show that the Indian Judiciary is independent.
Answer:
Appointment of Judges by the President

Question 12.
The type of citizenship granted to the citizens by the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
Single citizenship

Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
Write any one of the important features of our Constitution.
Answer:
Federal system is one of the important features of our Constitution.

Question 2.
In which countries are governments run by the Federal System?
Answer:
In countries with large territories and huge population, the Government is run by a Federal System.

Question 3.
What is the problem faced while ruling a large territory from a single capital?
Answer:
Ruling a large territory from a single capital city is not only difficult but may also lead to neglect of some far-flung areas.

Question 4.
Explain the term Union Government.
Answer:
The Government at the centre carries out tasks like defence of the entire country, foreign policy, establishing peace, etc. It is called ‘Union Government or ‘Federal Government’.

Question 5.
What do you mean by State Government?
Answer:
The Government that oversees the administration of the region that we live in is called State Government.

Question 6.
What is called ‘Federalism’?
Answer:
The system of running the administration of a country cooperatively by the Governments at two levels, making laws about different subjects is called ‘Federalism’.

Question 7.
Which are the three lists into which the Constitution has divided subjects for making Laws?
Answer:
The three lists into which the Constitution has divided subjects for making laws are State List, Union List and Concurrent List.

Question 8.
Which powers are termed as Residuary Powers?
Answer:
(a) If a subject comes up that is not included in any of the three Lists, the Union List, the State List or the Concurrent List, the Union Government is entitled to make laws on it
(b) These powers are termed as residuary powers.

Question 9.
Which are the seven Union territories in India?
Answer:
The seven Union Territories in India are New Delhi, Daman and Diu, Puducherry, Chandigarh, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep.

Question 10.
In the Parliamentary system of Government, who has the highest decision-making power?
Answer:
In the Parliamentary system of Government, the Parliament has the highest decision-making power.

Question 11.
What does the Indian Parliament include?
Answer:
The Indian Parliament includes the President, the Lbk Sabha or the House of the People and the Rajya Sabha or the Council of States.

Question 12.
Whom is the Council of Ministers answerable to, for all its decisions?
Answer:
The Council of Ministers is answerable to the Lok Sabha for all its decisions.

Question 13.
What have great significance in Parliamentary Democracy?
Answer:
In Parliamentary Democracy, the discussion and debates that take place in the Parliament have great significance.

Question 14.
Which disputes are referred to the Judiciary?
Answer:
The disputes that cannot be resolved mutually are referred to the Judiciary.

Question 15.
Which are the two provisions in the Constitution which ensures that the Judiciary remains more independent?
Answer:
The two provisions in the Constitution which ensures independence of Judiciary are that the judges are appointed by the President and not by the Government, and it is not easy to remove the Judges from their office.

Question 16.
Why is it necessary to amend the Constitution?
Answer:
There comes up a need to make changes or amendments in the provisions of the Constitution due to the changing circumstances.

Question 17.
What can frequent amendments in the Constitution lead to?
Answer:
Frequent amendments in the Constitution may lead to instability.

Question 18.
Write a short note on Parliamentary System of Government.
Answer:
(i) The Indian Constitution has provided for a Parliamentary System of Government.

(ii) In such a system, the Parliament, i.e. the Legislature has the highest decision-making power.

(iii) The Indian Parliament includes the President, the Lok Sabha or the House of the People and the Rajya Sabha or the Council of States.

(iv) The Council of Ministers that run the administration emerge from the Lok Sabha and is answerable to the Lok Sabha for all its decisions. In Parliamentary Democracy, the discussion and debates that take place in the Parliament have great significance.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 13 Life of the People in Maharashtra Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 13 Life of the People in Maharashtra

Class 7 History Chapter 13 Life of the People in Maharashtra Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Complete the chart.

Answer:

2. Which undesirable customs are prevalent in today’s society ? Suggest measures for their eradication.
Answer:
The bad traditions prevalent in the society are:

• No Education for girls.
• Female infanticide.
• Dowry.
• Animal sacrifice
• Superstitions.
• Bonded labour.

The ways to get rid of these bad traditions are:

• Special provisions for girl’s education.
• Awareness programme for women.
• Inculcating scientific attitude.
• Special law to protect the women and girl child.
• Thinking positive, parental guidance to think in a systematic way, to get science knowledge update to disperse the blind belief will eradicate superstition.

3. Make a detailed notes of the festivals and auspicious days in your area.
Answer:
(a) Diwali, Holi, Mahashivaratri, Eid, Raksha Bandhan, Navaratri, Krishna Janmashtami, Gurpurabh, Parsi new year, Onam are celebrated with great pomp and show in our area.

(b) Sanskasthi Chaturthi, Ekadashi, Akshaya Tritiya etc., are some of the auspicious days celebrated in our area.

4. Use the following points to compare life in the era of Shivaji Maharaj and today’s life.

S. No.	Point	At the time of Shivaji Maharaj	Today
(1)	Transactions	……………	…………
(2)	Houses	…………….	Permanent, Well-constructed cement-concrete multi-storeyed house.
(3)	Transportation	………….	Bus, Railway and Aeroplane.
(4)	Entertainment	……………	…………….

Answer:

S. No.	Point	At the time of Shivaji Maharaj	Today
(1)	Transactions	Barter system	Coins, Paper money, Plastic money, Currency – Rupee, Cashless transaction through banks.
(2)	Houses	Village Houses: Made with simple mud and bricks. Cities- Wadas with one or two storeys.	Permanent, Well-constructed cement-concrete multi-storeyed house.
(3)	Transportation	Bullock cart, Horseback, Boat	Bus, Railway and Aeroplane.
(4)	Entertainment	Tamasha, Ballads on Dap	Music, Drama, Dance, Watching Television, Play, movie, Opera etc.

Activity

Gather information about the capable women of our country and read it aloud in your class, e.g. information on P.V. Sindhu, Sakshi Malik.

Class 7 History Chapter 13 Life of the People in Maharashtra Textbook Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
The Patils were given some land as Inam for his job as a _____. (Patil, Jagir, Watans)
Answer:
Patil

Question 2.
For any major or minor events or for battles an ______ was checked. (Time, Muhurta, Place)
Answer:
Muhurta

Question 3.
The _______ festival was celebrated on a large scale during the Peshwa Era. (Ganesh, Diwali, Makar Sankranti)
Answer:
Ganesh

Question 4.
______ script was used for day to day affairs. (Marathi, Sanskrit, Modi)
Answer:
Modi

Question 5.
______ was very popular sport. (Wrestling, Mallakhamb, Martial arts)
Answer:
Martial arts

Question 6.
The Jain Mandir at Jamod in Vidarbha had paintings of Jin Charitra, ______ stories (mythological, various festivals, animals)
Answer:
Mythological

Question 7.
________ was popular as an entertainment programme during the Peshwa Era. (Stage show, Tamasha, Lavani)
Answer:
Tamasha

Question 8.
_______ was a well-known painter. (Mallamma Desai, Gopikabai, Gangaram Tambat)
Answer:
Gangaram Tambat

Question 9.
The letters were carried by _______and messengers. (Birds, Camel riders, Post)
Answer:
Camel riders

Question 10.
People used to believe in ______ a lot. (astrology, scientific vision, dreams)
Answer:
astrology

Match the following:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Festival	(a) Mankoji
(2) Sport	(b) Bail-Pola
(3) Sculpture	(c) Mallakhamb
(4) Ghat	(d) Ghrishneshwar Temple
(5) Painter	(e) Toke

Answer:
1 – b
2 – c
3 – d
4 – e
5 – a

Question 2.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) The Patils	(a) To manage the revenue
(2) The Kulkarni	(b) To protect the village
(3) Black Soil,	(c) Work in an office
(4) White-collared	(d) Farmers

Answer:
1 – b
2 – a
3 – d
4 – c

Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
What was the chief source of production at the village level during the Peshwa era?
Answer:
Agriculture and agriculture based businesses were die chief source of production at the village level.

Question 2.
When was Ganesh festival celebrated?
Answer:
Ganesh festival was celebrated every year Bhadrapad Chaturthi to Anant Chaturdashi.

Question 3.
Which festivals were celebrated during Diwali?
Answer:
During Diwali the Balipratipada and Bhau- beej days were celebrated on large scale.

Question 4.
What were organised during the Jatras days?
Answer:
Wrestling Match were Organised during the Jatras days.

Question 5.
Which Subjects were taught in Pathshalas and Madarasas?
Answer:
Writing, reading, accounting were taught in Pathshalas and Madarasas.

Question 6.
Which games were played during the Peshwa Era?
Answer:
Martial arts were very popular, Mallakhamb Dand, Wrestling, Lathi, Dandpatta, Bothati these games were played.

Question 7.
What was the religious policy of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj?
Answer:
(i) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj had a liberal religious policy.
(ii) He believed that everyone should follow his or her own religion but nobody should force his or her religion upon others.

Question 8.
What did the daily meal of the people consist of?
Answer:
The daily meal consisted of Bhakari, onion, chutney and gravy.

Question 9.
What did men and women use to wear during that period?
Answer:
(a) Men used to wear dhoti, kurta, angarakha, turban.
(b) Women use to wear sarees (nine-yard) and blouses.

Question 10.
What were used in Wada decoration?
Answer:
Artwork, decorative painting, firewood, sculptures, mirrors were used in wada decoration.

Name the following:

Question 1.
The land was given as inam to Patils do the job.
Answer:
Patilaki

Question 2.
Festival celebrated on large scale.
Answer:
The Ganesh festival.

Question 3.
Crops grown.
Answer:
Jowar, bajra, wheat, nachni, corn, rice etc.

Question 4.
Education was given in.
Answer:
Pathshalas and Madarasas.

Question 5.
Modes of transport.
Answer:
Ghat roads, the bridges on the river, boats.

Question 6.
Means of communication.
Answer:
Camel riders and Messengers.

Question 7.
Popular outdoor games.
Answer:
Hututu, Kho-kho and Atyapatya.

Question 8.
Learned women in the Peshwa Era.
Answer:
(a) Veermata Jijabai
(b) Maharani Yesubai
(c) Maharani Tarabai
(d) Umabai Dabhade.

Question 9.
Famous architect during that period.
Answer:
Hiroji Indulkar.

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
Discuss everyday living of the people in that Era.
Answer:
Most of the people were staying in the village. The villages were self sufficient.

(a) Crops grown: The farmers grown the crops like jowar, bajra, wheat, nachani, com, rice etc.

(b) Food: The farmers’ daily meal consisted of bhakari, onion, chutney and gravy. Rich people’s meal consisted of rice, dal-varan, chapatis, vegetables, salads and milk products.

(c) The transaction in rural area were based on barter system.

(d) Houses: The houses were simple and were made of soil and bricks.

(e) Clothing :
(i) Men wear – Dhoti, Kurta, Angarakha, Turban.
(ii) Women wear – Saree (nine yard) and blouse.

Question 2.
The life of women’s during Peshwa Period.
Answer:
(a) Their world were confined to the house of first their father and then their husband.

(b) Their education was neglected.

(c) Only a few exceptional women had achieved any progress in literacy, administration and battle skills.

(d) They include Veermata Jijabai, Maharani Yesubai, Maharani Tarabai, Umabai Dabhade, Gopikabai, Punyashlok Ahilyabai.

(e) Customs like child marriage, unequal marriage, widowhood, keshwapan, sati, polygamy had imposed harsh restrictions on the way women lived.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 12 Progression of the Empire Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 12 Progression of the Empire

Class 7 History Chapter 12 Progression of the Empire Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Answer in one word:

Question 1.
She took the charge of the Indore administration.
Answer:
Ahilyabai Holkar

Question 2.
The most capable and brave man in Nagpurkar Bhosale family.
Answer:
Raghuji

Question 3.
He reinstated the Emperor on the throne of Delhi.
Answer:
Mahadji Shinde

Question 4.
He managed politics in the South.
Answer:
Nana Phadnavis

2. Arrange chronologically:

• The battle of Ashti.
• Maratha dominance over Odisha.
• The British hoisted the Union Jack in Pune.

Answer:

• Maratha dominance over Odisha.
• The battle of Ashti.
• The British hoisted the Union Jack in Pune.

3. Write briefly:

Question 1.
The work done by Ahilyabai Holkar.
Answer:

• She created new laws for agricultural tax and tax recovery.
• She brought barren land under cultivation.
• Dug wells for farmers.
• She promoted trade and industry.
• Built water reservoirs.
• She constructed mandirs, ghats, matts and dharamshalas.
• Provided water facilities over India.
• She brought cultural integration in the country.

Question 2.
The valour shown by Mahadji Shinde.
Answer:
(a) He played a major role in re-establishing the Maratha power in the North after the defeat of the Marathas at Panipat.

(b) He realised that guerilla tactics would not be any more useful so he trained and modernised his army under a French military expert de Boigne.

(c) With this trained army, he defeated the Rohillas, the Jats, the Rajputs and the Bundellas.

(d) Mahadji managed the difficult affairs with strong determination and looked after the Delhi affairs during CE 1784 to CE 1794.
The Mughal Emperor honoured him with the title Vakil-i-Mutlak.

Question 3.
The Maratha rule in Gujarat.
Answer:
(a) General Khanderao Dabhade and his son laid the foundation of Maratha power in Gujarat.

(b) After the death of Khanderao, his wife Umabai took the charge, bravely fought the battle with Mughal Sardar at Ahmadabad and captured a fort.

(c) The Gaikwads made Vadodara their centre of power.

4. Discuss the reasons behind the end of the Maratha rule.
Answer:
The reasons behind the end of Maratha rule were:

(a) After the death of Mahadji Shinde and Nana Phadnavis, the Maratha power started declining.

(b) Raghunathrao’s son, Bajirao II the Peshwa did not have leadership qualities which could create solidarity among the Maratha Sardars.

(c) Maratha power got weakened due to these differences among the Maratha Sardars.

(d) The supremacy of the Marathas declined in the North and the South during the period of Bajirao II.

(e) The British dethroned the Maratha power and became the rulers

Activity:

Create a pictorial chart to show the families that contributed to the expansion of the Maratha power. Exhibit it in your school.

Class 7 History Chapter 12 Progression of the Empire Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate word from the options given below:

Question 1.
The Gaikwads made _______ in Gujarat a seat of their power. (Vadodara, Ahmadabad, Surat)
Answer:
Vadodara

Question 2.
_____ was the founder of the Holkar rule in Indore. (Mahadji, Malharrao, Raghunathrao)
Answer:
Malharrao

Question 3.
_____ managed to take care of the politics in the South. (Nana Phadnavis, Kanhoji, Khanderao)
Answer:
Nana Phadnavis

Question 4.
________ strengthened the naval power of Shivaji. (Patwardhan, Bhosale of Nagpur,Kanhoji Tulaji Angre)
Answer:
Kanhoji Tulaji Angre

Question 5.
During the reign of _____ there was a complete breakdown of the Maratha power. (Ahilyabai, Bhosale, Bajirao-ll)
Answer:
Bajirao-ll

Question 6.
_____ laid the foundation of Maratha power in Gujarat. (Khanderao Dabhade, Madhavrao, Raghuji)
Answer:
Khanderao

Question 7.
Malharrao Holkar was well versed in ________ (Sword fighting, Martial art, Guerrilla Warfare)
Answer:
Guerrilla warfare

Question 8.
The British managed to get the rights of the _______ of the Bengal region. (Diwani, Chauthai, Sardeshmukhi)
Answer:
Diwani

Question 9.
Delhi was under the influence of Maratha power till ______. (1803 CE, 1807 CE, 1819 CE)
Answer:
1803 CE

Question 10.
British defeated the Marathas in the battle of Ashti in Solapur in _________. (CE 1818, CE 1820, CE 1814)
Answer:
1818 CE

Match the following:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Khanderao Dabhade’s wife	(a)  Raghuji Bhosale
(2) The most capable and brave Maratha Sardar.	(b) Umabai
(3) Mahadji’s death	(c) Akhilyabai Holkar
(4) She played a role in the judiciary	(d) Wanawadi (e) Wadgaon

Answer:
1 – b
2 – a
3 – d
4 – c

Answer in one word:

Question 1.
Title conferred to Mahadji Shinde.
Answer:
Vakil-i-Mutlak (Chief agent of the Emperor)

Question 2.
An expert in guerilla tactics.
Answer:
Mahadji Shinde

Question 3.
She was the wife of Khanderao, Malharrao’s son.
Answer:
Ahilyabai Holkar

Question 4.
Managed the supremacy in the South.
Answer:
Nana Phadnavis

Question 5.
Peshwa who didn’t have leadership qualities.
Answer:
Bajirao II

Question 6.
Appointed as Sardar in the North.
Answer:
Ranoji Shinde

Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
Which regions were given as jagirs to Parasoji by Shahu Maharaj?
Answer:
Varhad and Gondawan were given to Parasoji by Shahu Maharaj.

Question 2.
What rights were assigned to Raghuji?
Answer:
Raghuji Bhosale was assigned the Chauthai rights of Bengal, Bihar and Odisha.

Question 3.
Who laid the foundation of the Maratha power in Gujarat?
Answer:
Khanderao Dabhade and his son Trimbakrao laid the foundation of the Maratha power in Gujarat.

Question 4.
Why did Mahadji Shinde train his army?
Answer:
Mahadji Shinde trained his army because the Marathas generally used the guerrilla tactics in 1 the hilly regions of the South. But would not be
suitable in the plains of the North.

Question 5.
What was the contribution of Punyashloka Ahilyabai?
Answer:
(a) Punyashloka Ahilyabai ruled for twenty-eight years and enhanced the Maratha prestige in the North.
(b) She brought peace and order in her kingdom and made her people happy.

Question 6.
What was crystal clear amongst the British and Marathas?
Answer:
It was crystal clear that whoever will rule India will be ultimately decided by the war between the Marathas and the British.

Give reason:

Question 1.
Mahadji Shinde conferred the title of Vakil-i- Mutlak (Chief agent of the Emperor).
Answer:
British wanted to take the Delhi Emperor in their captivity. Even though the conditions were unfavourable, Mahadji Shinde defeated the British and again reinstated the Emperor on the throne. The Emperor was pleased with his bravery and conferred the title of Vakili- Mutlak. (Chief Agent of the Emperor).

Question 2.
The Maratha Sardars became successful in establishing the supremacy in North and South India.
Answer:
After the death of Madhavrao Peshwa, the Maratha Empire went in a disarray, Nana Phadnavis and Mahadji Shinde brought it back to normal. Mahadji was busy in the North to establish the supremacy of Marathas, Nana Phadnavis managed to take care of the politics in South. Leadership and capability helped the Maratha power to reach to a new pinnacle. Hence the Maratha Sardar became successful in establishing the supremacy in north and south India.

Question 3.
The supremacy of Marathas in the North and the South declined in the times of Bajirao II.
Answer:
Bajirao II became the Peshwa. He didn’t have any leadership qualities. On the contrary he had many vices. He couldn’t create solidarity amongst the Maratha Sardars. Because of many such reasons, the supremacy of the Maratha power in the North and the South declined in the times of Bajirao II.

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Malharrao Holkar
Answer:

• He was the founder of the Holkar rule at Indore.
• He served the Maratha kingdom for a long time.
• He was expert in guerilla warfare.
• He proved his valour in the eras of Bajirao I and Nanasaheb Peshwa.
• He played a major role in establishing the supremacy of the Marathas in Malwa and Rajputana.
• He greatly helped Madhavrao Peshwa in re-establishing the Maratha supremacy after the defeat at Panipat.

Question 2.
Mahadji Shinde
Answer:

• Madhavrao Peshwa was conferred the title of Vakil-i-Mutlak by the Emperor. He was brave and an astute statesmen.
• After the Maratha defeat at Panipat, he played a major role in re-establishing the Maratha dominance and prestige in the Northern India.
• He realised that the guerilla tactics of Marathas would not be useful in the plains of the northern region.
• He trained his army under the French military expert de-Boigne and updated his artillery.
• With the help of his trained army, he subdued the Rohillas, Jats, Rajputs, Bundellas, etc.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 11 Marathas – The Protectors of the Nation Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 11 Marathas – The Protectors of the Nation

Class 7 History Chapter 11 Marathas – The Protectors of the Nation Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Name them:

Question 1.
They came from Afghanistan.
Answer:
The Pathans

Question 2.
They settled at the foothills of the Himalayas.
Answer:
The Rohillas

Question 3.
The brother of Nanasaheb Peshwa.
Answer:
Raghunathrao

Question 4.
The chief of Jats at Mathura.
Answer:
Surajmaljat

Question 5.
Defeated the Nizam at Rakshasbhuvan near Paithan.
Answer:
Madhavrao

2.Write in brief about:

Question 1.
Raising the Maratha standard at Attack. Or Hoisting the Maratha standard at Attack.
Answer:

• Najib Khan, the Rohillas chief could not tolerate the Maratha supremacy.
• Najib Khan requested Abdali to invade India again. He captured Delhi.
• He returned to Afghanistan and collected huge wealth.
• Raghunathrao and Madhavrao Holkar marched to the North and captured Delhi.
• They defeated Abdali’s officers and captured Punjab.

Question 2.
Conflict with the Afghans.
Or
Battle with the Afghans.
Answer:

• In CE 1751, Ahmadshah Abdali conquered Punjab.
• Due to that, the Mughals were facing threat from Abdali.
• So they joined hands with the Marathas to protect Delhi.
• The Emperor signed a treaty with Marathas in 1752.
• As per the treaty, the Marathas agreed to protect the Mughal Empire.
• The Maratha army marched towards Delhi.
• As Abdali got this news, he returned to his native country (Afghanistan).
• Due to the Maratha power, the threat of Abdali got subsided.

Question 3.
The after effects of the battle of Panipat.
Answer:

• The Marathas were defeated.
• The whole generation of Marathas were killed.
• Many brave soldiers died on the battlefield.
• It caused a great harm to the reputation of Marathas in Northern India.

3. Arrange chronologically:

• The battle of Rakshasbhuvan
• The death of Tipu Sultan
• The death of Madhavrao Peshwa
• The battle of Panipat
• The battle of Buradi Ghat

Answer:

• The battle of Buradi Ghat
• The battle of Panipat
• The battle of Rakshasbhuvan
• The death of Madhavrao Peshwa
• The death of Tipu Sultan.

4. Find the names of people in the chapter :

Question 1.
N _ n _ _ _ _ _ _
Answer:
Nanasaheb

Question 2.
D _ _ _ _ _ _
Answer:
Dattaji

Question 3.
N _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
Answer:
Nizamshah

Activity:

Find more information about the battle of Panipat on the internet and make a presentation in your class.

Class 7 History Chapter 11 Marathas – The Protectors of the Nation Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate word from the options given below:

Question 1.
Ahmadshah Abdali was the Emperor of ______. (Mysore, Paithan, Afghanistan)
Answer:
Afghanistan

Question 2.
The chief of the Maratha artillery was ____. (Ibrahim khan, Hyder Ali, Najib Khan)
Answer:
Ibrahim khan

Question 3.
The Marathas defeated _________ in a battle at Motitalao near Srirangapattan. (Hyder Ali, Ibrahim Khan, Abdali)
Answer:
Hyder Ali

Question 4.
Safadarjung was the Nawab of ______.(Mysore, Paithan, Ayodhya)
Answer:
Ayodhya

Question 5.
_____ the ruler of Afghanistan conquered Punjab in 1751 CE. (Ahmadshah Abdali, Rohillas, Hyder Ali)
Answer:
Ahmadshah Abdali

Question 6.
Nanasaheb sent ________ to the North to crush Abdali. (Sadashivraobhau, Surajmal Jat, Vishwasrao)
Answer:
Sadashivraobhau

Question 7.
Hyder Ali usurped the throne of _____ (Mysore, Paithan, Ayodhya)
Answer:
Mysore

Question 8.
______was a Rohilla chief. (Ibrahimkhan, Najibkhan, Ahmadshah)
Answer:
Najibkhan

Question 9.
Madhavrao defeated the Nizam at ______ near Paithan. (Srirangapattan, Rakshasbhuvan, Buradi Ghat)
Rakshasbhuvan

Question 10.
After the death of Peshwa Nanasaheb, his son ________ succeeded him. (Bajirao II, Madhavrao, Vishwasrao)
Answer:
Madhavrao

Match the following:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) The Nawab of Ayodhya	(a) Raja Sawal Jaysingh.
(2) The Rohilla Chief	(b) Safadarjung
(3) The Chief of the Jats	(c) Najib Khan
(4) The chief of the Maratha artillery	(d)  Surajmal (e)  Ibrahim Khan Gardi

Answer:
1 – b
2 – c
3 – d
4 – e

Find the name of people in the chapter:

Question 1.
I _ _ _ h _ _ _ _ _ _
Answer:
Ibrahimkhan

Name them:

Question 1.
He met a heroic death in the battle.
Answer:
Dattaji

Question 2.
He became Peshwa after Bajirao.
Answer:
Nanasaheb

Question 3.
They do not help Marathas in the Battle of Panipat.
Answer:
Jats and Rajputs

Question 4.
The army of the Marathas attacked Abdali on 14th January, 1761.
Answer:
Battle of Panipat

Question 5.
The Sultan who took advantage of the defeat of the Marathas at Panipat and attacked the Maratha territory in Karnataka.
Answer:
Sultan Hyder Ali

Question 6.
The death of this capable Peshwa caused a great loss to Maratha Kingdom.
Answer:
Peshwa Madhavrao

Question 7.
Understood that only Marathas can rule over the chaos in North and wished that Marathas should rule the North.
Answer:
Abdali and his heirs

Answer the following in one sentence:

Question 1.
Why did the Peshwa send Dattaji Shinde and Janakoji Shinde to the North?
Answer:
The Peshwa sent Dattaji Shinde and Janakoji Shinde to crush the power of Najibkhan and to get a firm hold over the Punjab.

Question 2.
Why did the Nawab of Ayodhya invite the Marathas?
Answer:
The Nawab invited the Marathas to subdue the Rohillas.

Question 3.
Who helped the wounded Maratha soldiers in the Panipat battle?
Answer:
Surajmal Jat, Queen Kishori helped the wounded Maratha soldiers in the Panipat battle.

Question 4.
When did the third battle of Panipat start?
Answer:
The Marathas attacked Abdali on 14th January, 1761 and the third battle of Panipat started.

Question 5.
What conditions were laid in the treaty signed between the Emperor and the Marathas in April 1752?
Answer:
According to this treaty, the Marathas agreed to protect the Mughal Empire from enemies like the Rohillas, Jats, Rajputs and Afghans, etc. In return, the Marathas got cash and the rights to collect Chauthai from a few regions of North (Punjab, Multan, Rajputana, Sindh and Rohilkhand).

Question 6.
With whom did Nanasaheb campaign against Abdali?
Answer:
Jayappa Shinde, Madhavrao Holkar along with Nanasaheb campaigned against Abdali.

Question 7.
Why did Hyder Ali attack Marathas when they were defeated at Panipat and they had become weak?
Answer:
Hyder Ali thought that the Marathas were defeated at Panipat and they had become weak and so he attacked them.

Question 8.
In which battle did the Marathas defeat Hyder Ali?
Answer:
In the battle at Moti Talav, near Srirangapattan

Question 9.
From where did the Pathans migrate and settle?
Answer:
The Pathans had migrated from Afghanistan and they settled near Ayodhya at the foot of the Himalayas.

Question 10.
How did the history of Maratha describe Madhavrao?
Answer:
Madhavrao is described as an honest, hardworking, determined and a caring administrator for the common people.

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
The battle of Panipat.
Answer:

• Sadashivraobhau captured Delhi.
• The third battle of Panipat started.
• The Marathas attacked Abdali on 14th January, 1761.
• A bullet hit Vishwasrao and he fell dead.
• When Sadashivraobhau heard this, he attacked the enemy in madness, and disappeared from the battlefield.
• The Maratha soldiers lost courage.
• Abdali with the reserve contingent attacked the Marathas.
• The Marathas got defeated.

Complete the following family tree of Peshwa:

Question 1.

Answer:

1. Balaji alias Nanasaheb
2. Raghunathrao
3. Madhavrao (Peshwa)
4. Sawai Madhavrao (Peshwa)

Question 2.
Find the name of people in the lesson in following grid:
Answer:

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 1 Introduction to Our Constitution Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 1 Introduction to Our Constitution

Class 7 Civics Chapter 1 Introduction to Our Constitution Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Explain the following concepts:

Question 1.
Provisions in the Constitution
Answer:
It is the basic or fundamental law that is stated directly in the Constitution. Therefore, the rules and provisions in the Constitution are the basic or fundamental law of the land. The government is bound to carry out the administration of the country as per the provisions of the Constitution.

Question 2.
Constitution Day
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly enacted the Constitution and adopted it on 26th November, 1949. Therefore, 26th November is observed as ‘Constitution Day’ in India.

2. Discuss:

Question 1.
A Constituent Assembly was established.
Answer:
(i) The process of the making of the Indian Constitution started in 1946.

(ii) The leaders of the freedom movement insisted that independent India will be governed not by the laws made by the British, but by laws made by Indians themselves.

(iii) A Committee was established to prepare the Constitution of Independent India and it came to be known as Constituent Assembly.

Question 2.
Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar is called the ‘Architect of the Indian Constitution’.
Answer:
(i) The draft of the Constitution was prepared by Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar and presented to the Constituent Assembly after an in-depth contemplation and study of the Constitution of different countries of the world.

(ii) It was discussed Article by Article. Many amendments were suggested by different members.

(iii) Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar would present the draft, answer the various questions raised on them and make changes in the draft as per the suggestions of the Constituent Assembly in order to make every provision of the Constitution flawless.

(iv) Due to his contribution towards the making of the Constitution, Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar is called the ‘Architect of the Indian Constitution’.

Question 3.
What is included in the administration of a country?
Answer:
(i) The Government has to make laws relating to several subjects such as defending the boundaries, protecting the people from external aggression, eradication of poverty, creating employment, education and health services, encouragement to commerce and industries, protection of the weaker sections, making policies for the progress of women, children and the tribal people, etc.

(ii) In short, governments in modem times have to take decisions related to different issues right from space research to public cleanliness. This is included in the administration of a country

3. Choose the right option:

Question 1.
The Constitution of this country is primarily unwritten
(a) America
(b) India
(c) England
(d) None of these
Answer:
England

Question 2.
Who was the President of the Constituent Assembly
(a) Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Durgabai Deshmukh
(d) B.B. Rai
Answer:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Question 3.
Who among these was not a member of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Moulana Azad I
(c) RajkumariAmritKaur
(d) Hansaben Mehta I
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi

Question 4.
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(c) Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar
(d) J.B. Kripalani
Answer:
Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar

4. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
On what subjects does the Government have to make laws?
Answer:
Government has to make laws relating to several subjects:

• Defending the boundaries.
• Protecting the people from external aggression.
• Eradication of poverty.
• Creating employment, education and health services, encouragement to commerce and industries.
• Protection of the weaker section, making policies for the progress of women, children and the tribal people.

Question 2.
Why do we celebrate 26th January as Republic Day?
Answer:

• Our country began to be governed according to the provisions of the Constitution from 26th January, 1950.
• The Indian Republic came into existence from this day.
• Therefore, 26th January is celebrated as Republic Day.

Question 3.
What are the advantages of running the government as per the provisions of the Constitution?
Answer:
There are several advantages of governing a country with the help of rules or provisions included in a Constitution:

(i) The Government has to function within a set of rules. This reduces the possibility of the misuse of the power and authority they have been given.

(ii) A Constitution includes the rights and freedom of the citizens. The Government cannot take away these rights. Therefore, people’s rights and freedoms are safeguarded.

(iii) Running a country as per the provisions of the Constitution is the same as establishing the rule of law, so there is no scope for the misuse of power or high-handed administration.

(iv) If a country is run as per the Constitution, the faith that the common people have in the government increases. They then become more keen on participating in the activities of the government. Democracy is strengthened due to the increased participation of the people.

(v) The Constitution presents some political ideals before the country. The nation is also bound to act in that direction. It creates an atmosphere conducive to attain world peace and security, and preservation of human rights.

(vi) Since the Constitution also includes the list of citizens’ duties, it fixes the responsibility of the citizens as well.

Activities

1. Several committees were established for the effective functioning of the Constituent Assembly. Find out more information about them and discuss the role of different committees.
2. Prepare a report on how you celebrated Constitution Day in your school.
3. Make a collection of the photos of the members of the Constituent Assembly.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 1 Introduction to Our Constitution InText Questions and Answers

In-text questions.

Question 1.
Do you wish to ask the questions that puzzled Sameer and Vandana?
Answer:
Yes, I wish to ask such questions.

Question 2.
Where can we find all the rules according to which the administration of the country is carried out?
Answer:
The rules according to which the administration of the country is carried out are found mentioned in a country’s constitution.

Question 3.
Who makes those rules?
Answer:
These rules are made by the Constituent Assembly which consist of the representatives of the states and provinces and the leaders of that country.

Question 4.
Is it binding on us to follow them?
Answer:
Yes. All the rules mentioned in the Constitution are binding on every citizen of the country.

Let’s find out:

Find out some information about the Constitution of any one country of your choice with the help of the following points.

Question 1.
Name of the country
Answer:
India

Question 2.
Year of the making of the Constitution:
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly enacted the Constitution and adopted it on 26th November 1949. However the country began to be actually governed according to the provisions of the Constitution only from 26th January 1950.

Question 3.
Two features of the Constitution:
Answer:
(a) The lengthiest Constitution in the world: The Indian Constitution is the lengthiest and the most detailed of all the written Constitutions of the world containing 449 articles in 25 parts, 12 schedules, 5 appendices and 101 Amendments.

(b) Parliamentary form of Government: The constitution of India establishes a parliamentary form of a government both at the Centre and the State. The essence of the parliamentary government is its responsibility to the Legislature. The President is the constitutional head of the State but the real executive power is vested in the council of ministers whose head is the Prime Minister.

Activity:

Question 1.
Several committees were established for the effective functioning of the constituent Assembly. Find out more information about them and discuss the role of different committees.
Answer:

1. Committee on the Rules of Procedure: Rajendra Prasad
2. Steering Committee : Rajendra Prasad
3. Finance and Staff Committee: Rajendra Prasad
4. Credential Committee: Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
5. House Committee: B. Pratibha Sitaramayya
6. Order of Business Committee: K.M. Munsi
7. Adhoc Committee on the National Flag: Rajendra Prasad
8. Committee on the Functions of the Constituent Assembly: G.V. Mavalankar
9. States Committee: Jawaharlal Nehru
10. Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas:Vallabhbhai Patel
11. Minorities Sub-Committee: H. C. Mookherjee
12. Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee: J. B. Kripalani
13. North-East Frontier Tribal Areas and Assam Excluded & Partially Excluded Areas Sub¬Committee: Gopinath Bardoloi
14. Excluded and Partially Excluded Areas (Other than those in Assam) Sub-Committee: A.V. Thakkar
15. Union Powers Committee: Jawaharlal Nehru
16. Union Constitution Committee: Jawaharlal Nehru
17. Drafting Committee: B.R. Ambedkar

Class 7 Civics Chapter 1 Introduction to Our Constitution Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
The administration of our village or city is carried out in accordance with _______. (will of the majority, rules, orders of the Collector)
Answer:
rules

Question 2.
The book in which all the provisions regarding the administration of the country are mentioned together in a systematic way is called a ______ . (Law book, Guide, Constitution)
Answer:
Constitution

Question 3.
Democracy is _____ due to increased participation of the people. (strengthened, maintained, weakened)
Answer:
strengthened

Question 4.
The process of the making of the Indian Constitution started in the year _____. (1952,1947,1946)
Answer:
1946

Question 5.
A committee which was established to prepare the Constitution of independent India was the _______ (Drafting Committee, StandingCommittee, Constituent Assembly)
Answer:
Constituent Assembly

Question 6.
There were a total of ______ members in the Constituent Assembly. (298, 299, 289)
Answer:
299

Question 7.
_____ was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee. (Durgabai Deshmukh, J.B. Kripalani, Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar)
Answer:
Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar

Question 8.
Dr Babasaheb Ambedkar is called the ______ of the Indian Constitution’. (Architect, Visionary, Inspiration)
Answer:
Architect

Question 11
_____is observed as ‘Constitution Day’. (26th November, 26th January, 15th August)
Answer:
26th November

Question 10.
26th January is celebrated as ______ Day. (Independence, Republic, Constitution)
Answer:
Republic

Question 11.
Our Constitution is a/an _________ document of the provision related to the administration of the country. (written, oral, inspirational)
Answer:
written

Match the following:

Question 1.

(1) 15th August	(a) Constitution Day
(2) 26th November	(b) Republic Day
(3) 26th January	(c) Independence Day
(4) 26th January 1950	(d) Country began to be governed according to the provisions of the Constitution

Answer:
1 – c
2 – a
3 – b
4 – d

Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
Why do we follow norms and rules?
Answer:
We follow norms and rules in order that the activities in the family, our school, our village or city are carried out smoothly.

Question 2.
How is the administration of our country carried out?
Answer:
The administration of our country is carried out through a system of rules.

Question 3.
Explain the term ‘Constitution’.
Answer:
The book in which all the provisions related to the administration of the country are mentioned together in a systemic way is called Constitution.

Question 4.
What are the basic or fundamental law of the land?
Answer:
The rules and provisions in the Constitution are the basic or fundamental law of the land.

Question 5.
How were decisions made in the Constituent Assembly?
Answer:
Decisions in the Constituent Assembly were made on the basis of debate and discussion.

Question 6.
What is governance?
Answer:
Government in modem times have to take decisions related to different issues right from space research to public cleanliness. This is governance.

Name the following:

Question 1.
Name the well-known members of the constituent assembly.
Answer:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad, Sarojini Naidu, J. B. Kriplani, Rajkumari Amrit Kaur, Durgabai Deshmukh, Hansaben Mehta and others.

Question 2.
The President of the Constituent Assembly.
Answer:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

Question 3.
The States in pre-independence period where the local princes carried out the administration.
Answer:
Princely states.

Give reasons:

Question 1.
We celebrate 26th January as Republic Day.
Answer:
(i) Our country began to be governed according to the provisions of the Constitution from 26th January, 1950.

(ii) The Indian Republic came into existence from this day. Therefore, 26th January is celebrated as Republic Day.

Question 2.
Nature of the Constitutions of different countries is different.
Answer:

• There are differences of history, social structures, culture, traditions, etc., between the countries.
• Similarly, their needs and objectives also might be different.
• Each country tries to create a Constitution that is not only suited to its needs and objectives, but also is in tune with its distinct nature.

Explain in detail:

Question 1.
If the government does not follow the Constitution while making laws, the Judiciary can declare those laws null and void or unconstitutional. Explain.
Answer:

• The Government is established by the representatives elected by the people.
• It is bound to carry out the administration of the country as per the provisions of the Constitution.
• The rules and provisions in the Constitution are the basic or fundamental law of the land.
• While making laws, the government is bound to follow the Constitution.
• If it does not do so, then the Judiciary can declare those laws null and void or unconstitutional.

Question 2.
How long did it take to write the Constitution?
OR
Why is it the lengthiest Constitution in the world?
Answer:
(i) It took 2 years, 11 months and 17 days to ! complete the writing of the Constitution.

(ii) There were 22 parts, 395 Articles and 8 Schedules in the original Constitution, thus making it the lengthiest Constitution in the world.

Question 3.
Write about the wide range of issues in the Constitution which were contributed by Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar.
Answer:
Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar’s contribution was in a wide range of issues like water conservation, foreign policy, national security, journalism, economics, social justice, etc.

Question 4.
We are proud of our Constitution.
Answer:
(i) Decisions in the Constituent Assembly were made on the basis of debate and discussion. A respect for opposing view points and the acceptance of the appropriate suggestions were a characteristic of the working of the Constituent Assembly.

(ii) It took 2 years, 11 months and 17 days to complete the writing of the Constitution.

(iii) There were 22 parts, 395 Articles and 8 schedules in the original Constitution