Class 11

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Biology Textbook Solutions Chapter 4 Kingdom Animalia Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Biology Solutions Chapter 4 Kingdom Animalia

1. Choose correct option

Question (A)
Which of the following belongs to a minor phylum?
(a) Comb jelly
(b) Jelly fish
(c) Herdmania
(d) Salpa
Answer:
(a) Comb jelly

Question (B)
Select the animal having venous heart.
(a) Crocodile
(b) Salamander
(c) Rohu
(d) Toad
Answer:
(c) Rohu

Question (C)
In Ascaris, _______ .
(a) mesoglea is present
(b) endoderm is a discontinuous layer
(c) mesoderm is present in patches
(d) body cavity is absent
Answer:
(c) mesoderm is present in patches

Question (D)
Which of the following is INCORRECT in case of birds?
(a) Presence of teeth
(b) Presence of scales
(c) Nucleated RBCs
(d) Hollow bones
Answer:
(a) Presence of teeth

Question (E)
Chitinous exoskeleton is a characteristic of ________ .
(a) Dentalium
(b) Antedon
(c) Millipede
(d) Sea urchin
Answer:
(c) Millipede

2. Answer the following questions.

Question (A)
Reptiles are known for having three chambered heart. Which animal shows a near four chambered condition in reptiles?
Answer:
Crocodiles have a four chambered heart.

Question (B)
The circulatory system has evolved from open to closed type in Animal Kingdom. Which Phylum can be called first to represent closed circulation?
Answer:
Phylum Annelida is the first phylum to represent closed circulation.

Question (C)
Pinna is part of external ear and it is found in mammals. Do Aves and Reptiles show external ear in any form?
Answer:
No, Aves and Reptiles do not show external ear in any form. They possess tympanum which represents the ear.

Question (D)
Fish and frog can respire in water. Can they respire through their skin? If yes, why do they have gills?
Answer:
1. Yes, fishes and frogs can respire through their skin.
2. The larval stage of frog i. e. tadpole respires through gills. During metamorphosis, tadpoles lose their gills and develop lungs.
3. Frogs do not have scales and breathe through their skin underwater.
4. Fishes respire primarily via gills. The body of fishes is covered with scales which limits cutaneous respiration in them.

Question (E)
Birds need to keep their body light to help in flying. Hence, they show presence of some organs only on one side. How their skeleton helps in reducing their weight?
Answer:

1. In birds, the forelimbs are modified into wings for flying.
2. They possess stream-lined body to reduce resistance during flight.
3. Bones are hollow or pneumatic to reduce body weight.
4. In order to reduce body weight, urinary bladder is absent. Also, females possess only left ovary and oviduct.
5. Body is covered by feathers to facilitate flying.

Question (F)
Cnidarians and Ctenophorans are both diploblastic. Which other character do they have in common, which is not found in other phyla?
Answer:
Cnidarians and ctenophorans show tissue level of body organization. They have blind sac body plan and radially symmetrical body.

Question (G)
Crab and Snail both have a protective covering. Is it made up of the same material?
Answer:
No, the protective covering is not made up of same material in crab and snail. The protective covering of crabs is made up of chitin and that of snails is made up of calcium carbonate.

Question (H)
Sponge and sea star show calcareous protective material. Do they belong to the same Phylum?
Answer:
No, they do not belong to same phylum. Sponges belong to phylum Porifera and sea star belongs to phylum Echinodermata.
1. Adult echinoderms are radially symmetrical but larval forms are bilaterally symmetrical.
2. Larvae of echinoderms are free-swimming.

Question (I)
Fish and snake both have scales. How do these scales differ from each other?
Answer:
Fishes have dermal scales covering the body surface whereas snakes have epidermal scales or scutes.

Question (J)
Lower Phyla like Arthropods and Cnidarians show metamorphosis. Is it also found in any class of Phylum Chordata?
Answer:
Yes, it is also found in class Amphibia of phylum Chordata.

Question 3.
Draw neat labelled diagram.
A. Sycon
B. Aurelia
C. Amphioxus
D. Catla
E. Balanoglossus
F. Scolidon
Answer:
A. Sycon

B. Aurelia

C. Amphioxus

D. Catla

E. Balanoglossus

F. Scolidon

Question 4.
Match the following.

Phylum	Characters
1. Annelida	(a) Tube feet
2. Mollusca	(b) Ostia
3. Ctenophora	(c) Radula
4. Porifera	(d) Parapodia
5. Echinodermata	(e) Comb plates

Answer:

Phylum	Characters
1. Annelida	(d) Parapodia
2. Mollusca	(c) Radula
3. Ctenophora	(e) Comb plates
4. Porifera	(b) Ostia
5. Echinodermata	(a) Tube feet

5. Identify the animals given in pictures and write features of its phylum/class.

Question 1.

Answer:
The organism in the given picture is Comb jelly (Red midwater Comb jelly) and it belongs to phylum Ctenophora.

Question 2.

Answer:
The organism in the given picture is Eel and it belongs to phylum Chordata.

Question 3.

Answer:
The given organism in the given picture is Dolphin and it belongs to class Mammalia.

Question 4.

Answer:
The given organism is Snake and it belongs to class Reptilia

Question 5.

Answer:
The given organism is Sea urchin and belongs to phylum Echinodermata.

Question 6.

Answer:
The given organism is flying lizard and belongs to class Reptilia.

Question 7.

Answer:
The organism is Herdmania and belongs to Phylum Chordata (Subphylum Urochordata).

Question 8.

Answer:
The organism in the given picture is Nautilus and it belongs to phylum Mollusca.

Question 9.

Answer:
The organism in the given picture is Amphioxus and it belongs to Phylum Chordata (Subphylum Cephalochordata).

6. Observe and identify body symmetry of given animals.

Question 1.
Observe and identify body symmetry of given animals.

Answer:
Fig i. represents asymmetry
Fig ii. represents radial symmetry
Fig iii. represents bilateral symmetry

Practical/Project:

Question 1.
Study different animals in kingdom Animalia and prepare the chart with detail scientific information.
Answer:
Phylum Porifera (Pori = Pores: feron = bearing): Members of the phylum Porifera are also called sponges. Characteristic features of the phylum:

1. Habitat: They are aquatic, mostly marine but few species are found in fresh water.
2. Forms: They are sedentary animals (attached to substratum or rock).
3. Body shape: They have asymmetrical body. Body of these animals consists of many cells with minimal
   division of labour among cells. Hence, their body is considered as a colony of different types of cells.
4. Body surface: Their body bears minute pores called ‘ostia’ through which water enters the spongocoel (body cavity). Water leaves the body through a large opening called ‘osculum’. Beating of flagella creates water current.
5. Circulation: Water is circulated in the body through the ‘canal system’. When the water enters the body of poriferans, cells absorb the food, exchange respiratory gases and release excretory products.
6. Digestive system: The body cavity of sponges (spongocoel) is lined by unique type of flagellated cells called choanocytes or collar cells for digestion.
7. Endoskeleton: The body of sponges consists of calcareous / siliceous spicules and proteinaceous ‘spongin fibres’.
8. Reproduction: Sponges reproduce asexually as well as sexually. Asexual reproduction takes place by fragmentation and gemmule formation. Sexual reproduction is by formation of gametes. Fertilization is internal and development is indirect through larval stage.
9. Sponges have great power of regeneration.
   e.g. Scypha, Euspongia (Bath sponge), Euplectella (Venus’ flower basket).

Characteristics of members belonging to phylum Cnidaria:

1. Habitat: They are aquatic, mostly marine and few of them are fresh – water forms.
2. Forms: They are sessile or free swimming.
3. Cnidoblasts: Presence of cnidoblasts or stinging cells are present on the tentacles for anchorage, offence and defence.
4. Body Symmetry: They have radially symmetrical body.
5. Germ layer: They are diploblastic.
6. Body cavity: Cnidarians have a central cavity called coelenteron or gastrovascular cavity, which helps in digestion and circulation. They have blind-sac body plan i.e., single pore opening to the exterior in the digestive system.
7. Body form: Members of this phylum exhibit two body forms. The cylindrical form, known as polyp e.g. Hydra and the umbrella – like form (.Aurelia – jelly fish) is known as medusa.
8. Digestion: They have extracellular and intracellular digestion.
9. Reproduction: Cnidarians reproduce asexually and sexually.

Asexual reproduction takes place by budding and regeneration. Sexual reproduction takes place gamete formation. They exhibit metagenesis i.e. alternation of polypoid generation with medusoid generation. Polyps produce medusae asexually and medusae produce polyps sexually, e.g. Obelia
e.g. Hydra, Aurelia (Jellyfish), Physalia (Portuguese man-of-war), Adamsia (Sea anemone), Diploria (Brain coral), Gorgonia (sea fan).

The members of this phylum are commonly known as comb jellies and sea walnuts. They are also known as acnidarians as they lack cnidoblasts. The phylum is considered as one of the minor phyla as it is represented by very few members.

Salient features of phylum Ctenophora:

1. Habitat: They are exclusively marine.
2. Forms: They are free swimming animals.
3. Germ layers: Members of this phylum are diploblastic.
4. Body Symmetry: They are radially symmetrical.
5. Body plan: The animals of this phylum show blind-sac body plan.
6. Body organization: They show tissue level organization.
7. Locomotion: It is earned out by eight rows of ciliated comb plates.
8. Bioluminescence: It is the characteristic feature of the members of this phylum.
9. Digestion: It is extracellular and intracellular.
10. Reproduction: Reproduction is sexual with indirect development.
11. Colloblasts: These sticky cells are used to capture prey, e.g. Pleurobrachia, Ctenoplana

11th Biology Digest Chapter 4 Kingdom Animalia Intext Questions and Answers

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 29)

(i) What is the basis for classification?
Answer:
Grades of organization, body symmetry, body cavity, germ layers and segmentation form the basis for classification.

(ii) Who proposed Five kingdom classification system?
Answer:
Robert Whittaker proposed the five kingdom system of classification.

(iii) What is the need and importance of classification?
Answer:
Need and importance for classification:
a. Classification facilitates the identification of animals with great accuracy.
b. The study of animals becomes convenient.
c. It helps in understanding the relationship of animals with other living organisms.
d. It helps to understand the habitat of each animal along with its role in nature.
e. By studying few animals from a group, we can gain a better understanding about the entire group.
f. It helps in understanding different adaptations shown by animals.
g. It gives an idea about evolution of animals.

Observe and discuss. (Textbook Page No. 29)

Discuss the criteria of classification.
Answer:
1. The given diagrams represents the number of germ layers and body symmetry used as criteria for animal classification.
2. Number of germ layers:
(a) When an organism shows only two germ layers, they are called diploblastic animals. In this case, the outer ectoderm is separated from the inner endoderm by a non-living substance called mesoglea.
(b) When an organism shows three germinal layers, they are called triploblastic animals. The three layers are namely – outer ectoderm, middle mesoderm and inner endoderm.
3. Body symmetry:
Body symmetry implies to the similarity in shape, size and number of parts on the opposite sides of a median line when body is divided into two halves by an imaginary line along different plane. Animals may be asymmetrical, radially symmetrical or bilaterally symmetrical.
(a) Asymmetrical animals:
An animal is said to be asymmetrical when its body cannot be divided into two identical halves in any plane.
(b) Radially symmetrical animals:
In certain animals, body can be cut or divided into two similar halves in a number of planes wherein, all the cuts (planes) pass through the centre. This type of symmetry is called radial symmetry.
(c) Bilaterally symmetrical animals:
In this type, the body of the animal can be bisected or divided in two equal or identical halves by a single median or vertical plane.

Internet my friend. (Textbook Page No. 30)

Which are the larval stages of Porifera.
Answer:
Larval stages of Porifera:
Parenchymula – Flagellate larvae of calcinean sponges
Amphiblastula – Free swimming larval stage of Sycon and many other calcareous sponges. Rhagon— Larval stage which give rise to the leuconoid condition in demospongiae.
[Students are expected to find more information about the larval stages of Porifera on internet.]

Find out. (Textbook Page No. 31)

Information about coral reefs and sea fan.
Answer:
Coral reefs:

1. A coral reef is an underwater ecosystem characterized by reef building corals.
2. Coral reefs constitute 25% of all marine species on the planet.
3. They belong to phylum Cnidaria.
4. There are three main types of coral reefs – fringing, barrier and atoll. Coral reefs provide ecosystem services for tourism, fisheries and shoreline protection.
5. They cannot survive in high temperatures, thus due to climate change there is a sharp decline in their population.

Sea fan or Gorgonia:

1. It is a soft coral composed of numerous polyps – cylindrical, sessile (attached) forms that grow together in a flat, fan-like pattern.
2. It belongs to phylum Cnidaria.
3. It does not produce calcium carbonate skeletons.
[Students can find out more information about coral reefs and sea fan using internet ]

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 32)

(i) State the parasitic adaptations in Liver fluke and Ascaris.
Answer:
Parasitic adaptations in Liver fluke:
a. Presence of hooks and suckers
b. Body covered with cuticle
c. Lacks digestive system
d. They are hermaphrodites

Parasitic adaptations in Ascaris:
a. Presence of muscular pharynx for sucking the food.
b. Body covered by tough, thick and resistant cuticle.
c. Secretes enzymes against the enzymes secreted by the host.
d. Respiration is anaerobic.
e. Reproductive system is highly developed.

(ii) Give example of free living platyhelminth.
Answer:
Planaria

Find out. (Textbook Page No. 33)

What are the merits and demerits of hermaphroditism?
Answer:
Hermaphroditism is the condition in which an organism possesses reproductive organs of both the sexes.

Merits of hermaphroditism:
a. Assured fertilization which reduces the risk of a species to become extinct due to unavailability of mating partner.
b. Energy required for searching out mating partner is conserved.
c. Frequency of mating is maximized.

Demerits of hermaphroditism:
a. More energy is required to maintain both the reproductive systems.
b. Limited gene diversity.
[Source: http://floydbiology. blogspot. com/2012/06/httpmattc-thinks. html]
[Students are expected to find more information using the internet.]

Why are leeches used in Ayurveda?
Answer:
a. Leeches are used in blood purification therapy to treat many diseases as they suck impure blood from the affected site of the patient’s body.
b. The anticoagulant – hirudin present in saliva of leech, inhibits the coagulation of blood and makes blood thinner. This dissolves the clots found in vessels and facilitates the blood supply.

What is the role of earthworms in agriculture? What is vermicompost?
Answer:
Role of earthworms in agriculture:
a. Earthworms loosen the soil by burrowing deep into it, thus they help to aerate the soil.
b. This continuous digging of soil also helps the water to reach the roots quickly.
c. Earthworms can decompose the organic matter from the soil and convert it into rich manure.
d. This helps in increasing the fertility of soil which ultimately increases the crop production.
e. Earthworm castings are rich in nutrients which act as natural fertilizer.
Vermicompost:
Vermicompost is the product of vermicomposting. It is organic manure produced as vermicast by earthworm feeding on biological waste material and plant residues.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 34)

(i) Explain the term metameric segmentation.
Answer:
In some animals, body consists of many segments arranged along the length of the body. When the external segmentation coincides with the internal segmentation, it is called as metameric segmentation and the phenomenon is called metamerism.

(ii) Give characteristics of Arthropoda.
Answer:
Arthropoda (Arthros: Joint, Podos: leg): Arthropoda forms the largest phylum of kingdom Animalia. Characteristics of Arthropoda:
a. Habitat: Arthropods are omnipresent.
b. Forms: Solitary or colonial, most of them are free-living. Barnacles are sedentary. Few are parasitic and sanguivorous, (e.g. Female mosquito, bed bug.)
c. Body symmetry: Body is bilaterally symmetrical.
d. Germ layers: They are triploblastic.
e. Body cavity: Arthropods are eucoelomates.
f. Body plan: They show tube within tube body plan.
g. Level of body organization: They show organ system level of organization.
h. Special features: The members of this phylum have jointed appendages. Hence, they are known as arthropods. Some insects like honey bee, ants, termites, etc. exhibit polymorphism.
i. Exoskeleton: Body is covered by a tough, non – living chitinous exoskeleton. As the exoskeleton does not allow body growth, arthropods shed off their exoskeleton periodically during growth. This process is called moulting or ecdysis.
j. Body division: Body is divided into head, thorax and abdomen.
k. Segmentation: Body shows metameric segmentation.
l. Digestion: Digestive system is complete and divided into foregut, midgut and hindgut.
m. Circulation: Circulatory system is of open type wherein, blood flows through body cavity called haemocoel.
n. Respiration: Respiration occurs through respiratory organs like gills, trachea, book lungs or book
gills.
o. Excretion: Excretion takes place by green glands, Malpighian tubules or coxal glands.
p. Nervous system: Nervous system consists of nerve ring and double, ventral ganglionated nerve cord.
q. Sense organs:Arthropods have well developed sense organs in the form of antennae, simple or compound eye and various receptors.
r. Sexual reproduction: Sexes are generally separate in arthropods with distinct sexual dimorphism.
s. Significance:
Beneficial arthropods: Some arthropods are of economic importance. For example, Honey bees (Apis) are important for their honey and wax, silk worms for the production of silk. Lobsters, prawns, crabs are edible. Harmful arthropods: Some arthropods are harmful and act as vectors to spread various diseases, e.g., Mosquitoes. Locusta (locust) is a gregarious pest. Limulus (King crab) is a living fossil.
Other examples: Cockroach (Periplaneta), butterfly, scorpion (Hottentotta) and millipede (Archispirostreptus) prawn.

(iii) Enlist the harmful Arthropods.
Answer:
Significance:
Beneficial arthropods: Some arthropods are of economic importance. For example, Honey bees (Apis) are important for their honey and wax, silkworms for the production of silk. Lobsters, prawns, crabs are edible. Harmful arthropods: Some arthropods are harmful and act as vectors to spread various diseases, e.g., Mosquitoes. Locusta (locust) is a gregarious pest. Limulus (King crab) is a living fossil.
Other examples: Cockroach (Periplaneta), butterfly, scorpion (Hottentotta) and millipede (Archispirostreptus) prawn.

Find out. (Textbook Page No. 34)

(i) Why is phylum Arthropoda considered as most successful phylum?
Answer:
Phylum Arthropoda is considered as most successful phylum because of the following reasons:
a. Phylum Arthropoda is the largest phylum of kingdom Animalia. It includes various forms like lobsters, prawns, crabs, insects, millipedes, locust, honeybees, etc.
b. They are omnipresent (present everywhere). Arthropods show great variety of adaptations as their habitat varies from terrestrial to aquatic habitat.
c. Several others factors also contribute to the success of the phylum which includes:
1. The exoskeleton of arthropods is made up of tough chitinous exoskeleton. This enables them to survive on lands in almost all environment and is a great defense against predators.
2. They possess jointed appendages which allow complex movements.
3. They exhibit moulting or eedysis.
4. They have metamerically segmented body helping in movement around diverse environments.

(ii) What do we mean by parthenogenesis?
Answer:
Development of an egg into a complete individual without fertilization is known parthenogenesis. It is found in many non-vertebrates such as bees, rotifers and even some lizards and birds (turkey).

(iii) What do we mean by living fossil?
Answer:
A member of a living animal or plant species that is almost identical to species known from the fossil record (not the recent fossil record), i.e. they have changed very little over a long period.
[Source:https://www. encyclopedia, com/earth-and-environment/ecology-and- environmentalism/environmental-studies/living-fossil]

(iv) How the bees produce honey?
Answer:
a. Bees produce honey using the nectar of flowering plants. A bee sucks the nectar and stores it in a honey sac until it returns to the hive.
b. The nectar is then transferred to worker bees in the hive who suck the nectar from the honey sac through their proboscis. This nectar contains 70% water and 20% honey. Honeybees get rid of excess water by swallowing and regurgitating the nectar again and again. They also fan their wings over filled cells of honeycomb.

When most of the water has evaporated from the honeycomb, the bee seals the comb with a secretion of liquid from its abdomen which eventually hardens into beeswax. This is how the honey bees use nectar to produce a thick, sticky and sweet honey.

(v) What will happen if arthropods do not moult?
Answer:
a. Moulting or eedysis is a periodic shedding of the outer cuticle layer of body in arthropods.
b. The outer layer of body of arthropods is formed of tough, non-living chitinous substance.
c. If arthropods do not moult, they cannot grow and mature into adult forms

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 34)

Why do Molluscs have shell?
Answer:
Molluscs are soft-bodied animals. Thus, the calcareous shell provides supports and protects the organisms from predators.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 36)

Give salient features of phylum Echinodermata.
Answer:
Salient features of phylum Echinodermata (Echinus – spines, derma – skin)

1. Habitat: These are exclusively marine.
2. Forms: Members of this phylum are solitary, sedentary or free-living and gregarious, benthic.
3. Body symmetry: These animals are radially symmetrical with pentamerous symmetry.
4. Shape: Members of Echinodermata are spherical, elongated or star-shaped.
5. Body: The endoskeleton is made up of calcareous ossicles. Spines are formed on the body. Hence, they are known as echinoderms. The body has two sides oral and aboral and lacks definite divisions. Mouth is ventrally present on oral surface and anus on aboral surface.
6. Water vascular system: Presence of water vascular system is the peculiar character of echinoderms. The madrepOrite is the opening of water vascular system through which water enters. Water vascular system is useful in locomotion, food capturing, respiration.
7. Digestion: Digestive system is complete.
8. Respiration: Peristomial gills, papillae, respiratory tree, etc. are used for respiration.
9. Circulatory and excretory systems: Absent in echinoderms.
10. Nervous system: Nervous system is simple with a nerve ring around the mouth and radial nerves in arms.
11. Reproduction and development: Sexes are separate (sometimes bisexual). Fertilization is external.
12. Development is indirect, i.e. through larval stages. They show high power of regeneration.

e.g. Sea lily (Antedon), Sea star (Asterias), Sea cucumber (Cucumaria), Brittle star (Ophiothrix), Sea urchin (Echinus).

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 36)

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 36)
Answer:
1. Hemiehordata was earlier considered as sub phylum of Chordata because the buccal diverticulum was considered as notochord. It is now placed as a separate phylum under Non-Chordata.
2. It possesses certain characteristics of both Chordates and Non-chordates.
3. Absence of notochord worm-like body, heart located on the dorsal side are the Non-chordate like characteristics seen in Hemiehordata.
4. Presence of nerve chord, pharyngeal gill slits are some of the Chordate-like characters seen in Hemiehordata. Hence, Hemiehordata is considered as a connecting link between Non-chordata and Chordata.

Find out. (Textbook Page No. 36)

Why Balanoglossus is considered as connecting link between Non-chordates and chordates?
Answer:
Balanoglossus belongs to phylum Hemiehordata. For Explanation:

1. Hemiehordata was earlier considered as sub phylum of Chordata because the buccal diverticulum was considered as notochord. It is now placed as a separate phylum under Non-Chordata.
2. It possesses certain characteristics of both Chordates and Non-chordates.
3. Absence of notochord worm-like body, heart located on the dorsal side are the Non-chordate like characteristics seen in Hemiehordata.
4. Presence of nerve chord, pharyngeal gill slits are some of the Chordate-like characters seen in Hemiehordata. Hence, Hemiehordata is considered as a connecting link between Non-chordata and Chordata.

Observe and discuss. (Textbook Page No. 36)

Compare and contrast between Non-Chordates and Chordates.

Answer:

Non-chordates	enoraates
1. Notochord is absent.	Notochord present at least in the early embryonic life.
2. Nerve cord is ventral, paired and ganglionated.	Nerve cord is single, dorsal and non-ganglionated.
3. The heart, if present is dorsal.	The heart is ventral in position.
4. Pharyngeal gill slits are absent.	Pharyngeal gill slits are present at least in embryonic stage.
5. Post-anal tail is absent.	Post-anal tail is present at least in embryonic stage.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 37)

Herdmania is called a Chordate. Explain.
Answer:
1. Herdmania belongs to phylum Urochordata.
2. It is called a chordate as it shows the following features:
a. Presence of notochord at least in early embryonic life. (In Herdmania, notochord is present in the tail of the larval forms).
b. Presence of hollow, dorsal nerve chord, running throughout the length of the body.
c. Presence of pharyngeal gill slits.
d. Presence of post-anal tail.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 37)

Give characteristics of Petromyzon. Comment on its mode of nutrition.
Answer:
Characteristic features of class Cyclostomata (Cyclos: Circular, stoma-mouth) Lat/Grk

1. Members of class Cyclostomata are jaw-less and eel like organisms.
2. Their skin is devoid of scales, soft and smooth, containing unicellular mucus glands.
3. Median fms are present but paired fins are absent.
4. They are ectoparasites on fishes.
5. They have sucking circular mouth, without jaws.
6. Cranium and vertebral column are made up of cartilage.
7. Their digestive system lacks stomach.
8. Respiration occurs by 6 – 15 pairs of gill slits. Gills slits are without operculum.
9. Heart is two chambered with one auricle and one ventricle.
10. Gonad is single, large and without gonoduct.
11. Fertilization is external. They are anadromous as they migrate for spawning to fresh – water from marine habitat.
12. After spawning, they die within few days. Larvae metamorphosize and migrate to ocean.
    e.g Petromyzon (Lamprey), Myxine (Hagfish).

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 38)

(i) What is the lateral line system?
Answer:
a. Lateral line system is the system with mechanoreceptors called neuromasts, for the detection of watei current.
b. These neuromasts are arranged in an interconnected network along the head and body.
c. Lateral line system also known as lateralis system.

(ii) Why Piscian heart is called a venous heart?
Answer:
a. Pisces have two-chambered heart. They have single and closed circulation.
b. Heart of Pisces receives blood only from veins and thus always shows presence of deoxygenated blood which it pumps directly to the gills for oxygenation.
Thus, the heart of Pisces is called a venous heart.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 40)

Amphibians do not have exoskeleton. Give reason.
Answer:
1. Amphibians live in both water and on land.
2. They perform cutaneous respiration (i. e. gaseous exchange across the skin or outer integument.) under water and when on land, they respire through lungs.
Thus, to facilitate cutaneous respiration, amphibians do not have exoskeleton.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 40)

Why are amphibians and reptilians called poikilotherms?
Answer:
Amphibians and reptilians are called poikilotherms as they cannot maintain a constant body temperature. Their body temperature changes according to the change in surrounding temperature.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 41)

Give adaptations in Aves for flying.
Answer:

1. In birds, the forelimbs are modified into wings for flying.
2. They possess stream-lined body to reduce resistance during flight.
3. Bones are hollow or pneumatic to reduce body weight.
4. In order to reduce body weight, urinary bladder is absent. Also, females possess only left ovary and oviduct.
5. Body is covered by feathers to facilitate flying.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 41)

(i) Aves and mammals are homeotherms. Give reason.
Answer:
a. Aves and mammals can generate heat to maintain their body temperature.
b. They keep their body temperature constant, irrespective of fluctuations in environmental temperature. Thus, Aves and mammals are homeotherms.

(ii) How mammals differ from other groups of animals?
Answer:
Features of class Mammalia (mammae: breasts, nipple):

1. Special feature: Presence of mammary glands (milk-producing glands) for the nourishment of young ones. Mammary glands are modified sweat glands.
2. Habitat: Mammals are omnipresent (present everywhere). These are mostly terrestrial, some are aquatic and few are aerial and arboreal (living on trees).
3. Locomotion: Limbs are the organs of locomotion and are modified for walking, climbing, burrowing, swimming, etc.
4. Body division: Body is differentiated into head, neck, trunk and tail. They have external ear (pinna).
5. Body temperature: Mammals are homeotherms or warm-blooded animals.
6. Exoskeleton: It is in the form of hair, fur, nails, hooves, horns, etc.
7. Skin: Skin is glandular and has sweat glands and sebaceous (oil) glands.
8. Mouth cavity: Mammals show heterodont dentition (various types of teeth like incisors, canines, premolars and molars).
9. Circulation: Heart is ventral in position, four chambered with two auricles and two ventricles. RBCs are biconcave and enucleated (except camel). Blood is red in colour.
10. Respiration: Respiration takes place by lungs.
11. Nervous system: Brain is highly developed. Cerebrum shows a transverse band called corpus callosum.
12. Reproduction and development: Only few mammals are oviparous, e.g. Duck billed platypus. Some have pouches for development of immature young ones. These are called marsupials, e.g. Kangaroo. Most of the mammals are placental and viviparous.

Do yourself. (Textbook Page No. 41)

Observe different animals in your surrounding, write detailed classification and write down the characteristics of animals in following format.
Answer:

Maharashtra State Board Std 11th Commerce Book Keeping & Accountancy Textbook Solutions Digest | Class 11 Accounts Solutions

Bookkeeping and Accountancy 11th Solutions | Accounts Class 11 Solutions

• Chapter 1 Introduction to Book Keeping and Accountancy
• Chapter 2 Meaning and Fundamentals of Double Entry Book-Keeping
• Chapter 3 Journal
• Chapter 4 Ledger
• Chapter 5 Subsidiary Books
• Chapter 6 Bank Reconciliation Statement
• Chapter 7 Depreciation
• Chapter 8 Rectification of Errors
• Chapter 9 Final Accounts of a Proprietary Concern
• Chapter 10 Single Entry System

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Textbook Solutions

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Solutions Chapter 12 Correspondence with Statutory Authorities Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Solutions Chapter 12 Correspondence with Statutory Authorities

1A. Select the correct answer from the options given below and rewrite the statements.

Question 1.
_____________ is the main authority to regulate the administration of Companies Act, 2013 in India.
(a) MCA
(b) Company Secretary
(c) Board of Directors
Answer:
(a) MCA

Question 2.
The headquarters of MCA is at _____________
(a) Mumbai
(b) New Delhi
(c) Pune
Answer:
(b) New Delhi

Question 3.
To administer the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013 is the objective of _____________
(a) MCA
(b) ROC
(c) Directors
Answer:
(a) MCA

Question 4.
_____________ is responsible for registering companies.
(a) ROC
(b) SEBI
(c) Auditors
Answer:
(a) ROC

Question 5.
The Certificate of Incorporation is issued by _____________
(a) ROC
(b) MCA
(c) NCLT
Answer:
(a) ROC

Question 6.
_____________ can strike off or remove the name of a company from the Register of Companies.
(a) MCA
(b) ROC
(c) SEBI
Answer:
(b) ROC

Question 7.
Central Government exercises administrative control over ROCs through the _____________
(a) MCA
(b) SEBI
(c) Regional Directors
Answer:
(c) Regional Directors

Question 8.
_____________ is the quasi-judicial body set up by the Central Government to grant certain approvals and decide disputes under the provisions of the Companies Act.
(a) MCA
(b) ROC
(c) NCLT
Answer:
(c) NCLT

Question 9.
_____________ can hear appeals against the orders issued by NCLT.
(a) NCLAT
(b) SEBI
(c) MCA
Answer:
(a) NCLAT

Question 10.
An appeal against the order of NCLAT can be filed in the _____________
(a) MCA
(b) SEBI
(c) Supreme Court
Answer:
(c) Supreme Court

Question 11.
_____________ was established as a statutory body to regulate the securities market in India.
(a) NCLT
(b) MCA
(c) SEBI
Answer:
(c) SEBI

Question 12.
_____________ regulates the functioning of Stock Exchange in India.
(a) SEBI
(b) MCA
(c) ROC
Answer:
(a) SEBI

1B. Match the pairs.

Question 1.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(a) Administration of Companies Act, 2013	(1) SEBI
(b) ROC	(2) Hears appeals against orders of NCLT
(c) NCLAT	(3) NCLT
(d) Regulator of Securities Market	(4) Incorporation of companies
(e) Quasi-judicial body	(5) MCA
	(6) Board of directors
	(7) Companies Act 2013
	(8) Regional Director
	(9) Chennai
	(10) Liquidator

Answer:

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(a) Administration of Companies Act, 2013	(5) MCA
(b) ROC	(4) Incorporation of companies
(c) NCLAT	(2) Hears appeals against orders of NCLT
(d) Regulator of Securities Market	(1) SEBI
(e) Quasi-judicial body	(3) NCLT

1C. Write a word or a term or a phrase that can substitute each of the following statements.

Question 1.
The main authority is concerned with the administration of the Companies Act.
Answer:
MCA

Question 2.
The organization is responsible for administering the Companies Act and regulating professional bodies like ICAI, ICSI, etc.
Answer:
MCA

Question 3.
The authority which issues Certificate of Incorporation to company.
Answer:
ROC

Question 4.
Every company has to apply for incorporation to this authority situated in the state where its head office is to be located.
Answer:
ROC

Question 5.
The authority that handles corporate civil disputes in India.
Answer:
NCLT

Question 6.
An appeal against the orders of NCLT is heard by this authority.
Answer:
NCLAT

Question 7.
Regulator of the securities market in India.
Answer:
SEBI

Question 8.
An institution that regulates the functioning of stock exchanges and intermediaries in the securities market.
Answer:
SEBI

1D. State whether the following statements are True or False.

Question 1.
MCA regulates the functioning of the corporate sector as well as administers the Companies Act.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
MCA has no supervisory authority over professional bodies like ICSI, ICAI, etc.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
ROC is concerned with the registration of companies.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
On payment of fees, ROC allows the public to inspect certain documents filed with it.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
NCLT has jurisdiction over proceedings on matters of disputes arising under the Companies Act.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
NCLAT can hear appeals against the order of NCLT.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
NCLAT may confirm, modify or reject the orders passed by the NCLT.
Answer:
True

Question 8.
SEBI protects the interest of investors in the securities market.
Answer:
True

Question 9.
ROC is the regulator of the securities market.
Answer:
False

1E. Complete the sentences.

Question 1.
Administration of Companies Act and other laws related to corporate world is the responsibility of _____________
Answer:
MCA (Ministry of Corporate Affairs)

Question 2.
Registration of companies is done by _____________
Answer:
ROC (Registrar of Companies)

Question 3.
The authority which handles corporate civil disputes is called as _____________
Answer:
NCLT (National Company Law Tribunal)

Question 4.
The authority which hears appeals against the orders of NCLT is called as _____________
Answer:
NCLAT (National Company Law Appellate Tribunal)

1F. Select the correct option from the bracket.

Question 1.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(1) Regulator of Securities Market	……………………….
(2) MCA	……………………….
(3) ……………………	Hears appeals against orders of NCLT

(NCLAT, Administers Companies Act, SEBI)
Answer:

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(1) Regulator of Securities Market	SEBI
(2) MCA	Administers Companies Act
(3) NCLAT	Hears appeals against orders of NCLT

1G. Answer in one sentence.

Question 1.
Name the authority which administers the Companies Act and Partnership Act.
Answer:
MCA (Ministry of Corporate Affairs).

Question 2.
Name the authority attached to the High Court which helps in the winding up of companies.
Answer:
The authority attached to the High Court which helps in the winding up of Companies is the Official Liquidator.

1H. Correct the underlined word and rewrite the following sentences.

Question 1.
ROC supervises and controls the operations of stock exchanges in India.
Answer:
SEBI supervises and controls the operation of stock exchanges in India.

Question 2.
An appeal can be made against the order issued by NCLT to NCLAT within 90 days.
Answer:
An appeal can be made against the order issued by NCLT to NCLAT within 45 days.

2. Explain the following terms/concepts.

Question 1.
Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA)
Answer:

• The MCA is primarily concerned with the administration of the Companies Act, 2013.
• The MCA is responsible to prevent practices from having an adverse effect on competition, to promote and sustain competition in markets.
• MCA supervises certain professional bodies like the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India. (ICAI), Institute of Company Secretaries of India (ICSI), Institute of Cost Accountants of India.
• It works with the help of Regional Directors, ROC, and Official Liquidator.

Question 2.
Registrar of Companies (ROC)
Answer:
The Registrar of Companies (ROC) is an office under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA) which deals with the administration of Companies and Limited Liability Partnerships in India.

• At present 22 Registrar of Companies is operating in all major states.
• States like Tamilnadu and Maharashtra have more than one ROC.
• ROC is a full-time field officer who has wide powers and responsibilities in administering the Companies Act.
• ROC has to examine various documents filed with it by the companies in compliance with the Companies Act, 2013.
• The ROC has to take decisions on documents filed with it and reply within 30 days from the date of filing the documents.

Question 3.
National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)
Answer:

• The Central Government has constituted National Company Law Tribunal in June 2016.
• It is a quasi-judicial body, which grants approvals and handles Corporate Civil Disputes.
• The Tribunal operates through 15 ‘Benches’ consisting of 2 members i.e. a judicial member and a technical member.
• The Tribunal has to dispose of every application or petition within 3 months of receiving it.
• An appeal against the order of NCLT can be made to National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT).

Question 4.
National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT)
Answer:
National Company Law Appellate Tribunal was constituted for hearing appeals against the orders of the National Company Law Tribunal.

• NCLAT is also the Appellate Tribunal for hearing appeals against the order passed by the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India.
• It is headed by a chairperson and has a maximum of 11 members comprising of judicial and technical members.
• An appeal can be made against the order issued by NCLT to NCLAT within 45 days.
• An appeal can be made against the orders of NCLAT to Supreme Court within 60 days.

Question 5.
Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
Answer:

• SEBI was established in 1992 as a statutory body to regulate the Securities Market in India.
• Its head office is in Mumbai.
• It supervises and controls the operations of Stock Exchanges, Companies issuing securities, and other intermediaries like Underwriters, Merchant Bankers, Brokers, etc.
• It protects and safeguards the interest of the investors in the security market.
• The main objective is to regulate the functioning of securities markets and stock exchanges.
• It develops a code of conduct for fair practices by intermediaries.

3. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
State the powers of ROC.
Answer:
The Registrar of Companies (ROC) is an office under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA) which deals with the administration of Companies and Limited Liability Partnerships in India. At present 22 Registrar of Companies is operating in all the major states. States like Tamilnadu and Maharashtra have more than one ROC. ROC is a full-time field officer who has wide powers and responsibility in administering the Companies Act.

Following are the powers of ROC:

• To extend the time of the Annual General Meeting other than the first AGM by a period not more than 3 months.
• To inspect or call for books of account, other books, and papers.
• To seek in writing any information or explanation with regard to any document furnished to ROC.
• Seek the Special Court to issue an order for seizure of books and papers of the company, if the ROC feels that such records may be destroyed, altered, or falsified.
• To strike off the name of a company from the Registrar of Companies.

Question 2.
State the powers of NCLT.
Answer:
Meaning of NCLT:
The Central Government has constituted National Company Law Tribunal in June 2016. The NCLT is a quasi-judicial body, which grants approvals and handles Corporate Civil disputes.

Powers of NCLT:

• To hear and decide all proceedings related to compromise, arrangement, and reconstruction of a company.
• To hear and decide all winding up petitions on the ground of inability to pay its debts and on other grounds.
• To hear and decide petition for an extension of time for repayment of deposits.
• To hear and decide cases pertaining to oppression and mismanagement of a company.
• To call for holding AGM or EOGM of a company.
• To direct a company not to dispose of funds of a company and to freeze the assets of a company for being used against the interest of the company.
• To hear and decide grievances of rejection in transferring shares and securities.

Question 3.
What are the objectives of MCA?
Answer:
The MCA is primarily concerned with the administration of the Companies Act, 2013.
It frames the rules and regulations for regulating the functioning of the corporate sector in accordance with the law.

Objectives of MCA:

• To administer the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013, and other allied laws.
• To quickly identify non-compliance with the Companies Act.
• To encourage companies to improve Corporate Governance and adopt responsible business practices.
• To promote fair competition.
• To make available to the public, corporate data.
• To offer various services to the stakeholders.

4. Justify the following statements.

Question 1.
The MCA was set up by Central Government to fulfill certain objectives.
Answer:
The MCA is primarily concerned with the administration of the Companies Act, 2013.
It frames the rules and regulations for regulating the functioning of the corporate sector in accordance with the law.

Objectives of MCA:

• To administer the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013, and other allied laws.
• To quickly identify non-compliance with the Companies Act.
• To encourage companies to improve Corporate Governance and adopt responsible business practices.
• To promote fair competition.
• To make available to the public, corporate data.
• To offer various services to the stakeholders.

Question 2.
The Companies Act, 2013 has given certain Powers to ROC.
Answer:
The Registrar of Companies (ROC) is an office under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA) which deals with the administration of Companies and Limited Liability Partnerships in India. At present 22 Registrar of Companies is operating in all the major states. States like Tamilnadu and Maharashtra have more than one ROC. ROC is a full-time field officer who has wide powers and responsibility in administering the Companies Act.

Following are the powers of ROC:

• To extend the time of the Annual General Meeting other than the first AGM by a period not more than 3 months.
• To inspect or call for books of account, other books, and papers.
• To seek in writing any information or explanation with regard to any document furnished to ROC.
• Seek the Special Court to issue an order for seizure of books and papers of the company, if the ROC feels that such records may be destroyed, altered or falsified.
• To strike off the name of a company from the Registrar of Companies.

Question 3.
The Central Government has empowered NCLT with certain powers.
Answer:
Meaning of NCLT:
The Central Government has constituted National Company Law Tribunal in June 2016. The NCLT is a quasi-judicial body, which grants approvals and handles Corporate Civil disputes.

Powers of NCLT:

• To hear and decide all proceedings related to compromise, arrangement, and reconstruction of a company.
• To hear and decide all winding up petitions on the ground of inability to pay its debts and on other grounds.
• To hear and decide petition for an extension of time for repayment of deposits.
• To hear and decide cases pertaining to oppression and mismanagement of a company.
• To call for holding AGM or EOGM of a company.
• To direct a company not to dispose of funds of a company and to freeze the assets of a company for being used against the interest of the company.
• To hear and decide grievances of rejection in transferring shares and securities.

5. Attempt the following.

Question 1.
Write a letter to ROC seeking an extension of time to hold the AGM.
Answer:

STARTRACK LIMITED Registered Office: Galaxy House Rainbow Township, Mira Road, Mumbai – 400609 CIN: L13471 MH 2012 PLC 000222 Phone: 022-22135649, 91-9910190332 Website: www.startracklimited.com Email: startrack@limited.com Date: 30th July 2019. Ref No: ROC/AGM – 99. The Registrar of Companies Churchgate, Mumbai – 400019. Sub: Extension of time for holding 6th Annual General Meeting. Dear Sir, As per the Companies Act, 2013, our Company must hold its 6th Annual General Meeting on or before 30th September 2019, for the financial year ending on 31st March 2019 We are extremely sorry to inform, that due to most of our directors are on travel abroad during that period, we will not be able to hold the Annual General Meeting before 30th September 2019. We, therefore, request you to grant us an extension period of two months for holding the said AGM i.e. up to 30th November 2019. We will be highly obliged if you grant us the permission to extend the said meeting. Thanking you, Yours faithfully, for STAR TRACK LIMITED. Sign Company Secretary Encl: Copy of Annual Report 2017-18.

Question 2.
Write a letter to MCA with regard to ‘Ticket Raising’.
Answer:

STARTRACK LIMITED Registered Office: Galaxy House Rainbow Township, Mira Road, Mumbai – 400609 CIN: L13471 MH 2012 PLC 000222 Phone: 022-22135649, 91-9910190332 Website: www.startracklimited.com Email: startrack@limited.com Date: 1st April 2019. Ref No: MCA/ST – 19 The Manager (Web-service Dept) Vaibhav Apartment, Vaibhav Nagar, New Delhi – 110003 Sub: Difficulty in downloading e-form. Dear Sir, This is to inform you that company is intending to download e-form (Form SH-7) to intimate the ROC about the alteration made in the share capital of our company. However, we are not able to download the form due to some technical error, and the message that pops up on pressing the ‘ENTER’ button is “The file is damaged and cannot be repaired”. In spite of our repeated effort, we are not able to download the form. So we earnestly request you to look into the matter at your earliest. Also, let us know the next step to resolve the above matter. Thanking you, Yours faithfully, for STAR TRACK LIMITED. Sign Company Secretary Encl: Copy of message as appearing on the website.

Question 3.
Write a reply to a complaint by the Investor.
Answer:

STARTRACK LIMITED Registered Office: Galaxy House Rainbow Township, Mira Road, Mumbai – 400609 CIN: L13471 MH 2012 PLC 000222 Phone: 022-22124745, 91-9920380555 Website: www.startracklimited.com Email: startrack@limited.com Date: 2nd June 2019. Ref No: IC/ 219. Ms.Vaishali Rane, Birla House, Bhagwati Road, Kandivli (W). Mumbai – 400018. Sub: Non-Receipt of Annual Report. Dear Sir, We are in receipt of your letter dated 20th May 2019 regarding the non-receipt of the Annual Report. As per the Companies Act, 2019, we have sent by post to all the members, the notice of 8th AGM along with the Annual Report well in advance, as per the address provided by you in our Register of Members. It is however unfortunate to know that you have not received the Notice and the Annual report. We are once again sending you the same to the address mentioned in your letter. Yours faithfully, for STAR TRACK LIMITED Sign Company Secretary Encl: Annual Report 2018-19 CC to: SEBI

Question 4.
Write a letter to NCLT seeking an extension of time to repay Public Deposits.
Answer:

STARTRACK LIMITED Registered Office: Galaxy House Rainbow Township, Mira Road, Mumbai – 400609 CIN: L13471 MH 2012 PLC 000222 Phone: 022-22135649, 91-9910190332 Website: www.startracklimited.com Email: startrack@limited.com Date: 30th July 2019. Ref No: NCLT/99 The National Company Law Tribunal Board. ‘C’ wing, 25th Floor, Priyadarshini Bhavan, M.G. Road, New Delhi – 110004. Sub: Extension of time to repay Pubic Deposit. Sir, The company had accepted Public Deposits worth 20 lacs on 1st April 2016 for a period of two years. The Deposits are to be repaid on or before 31st March 2018. However, as the company is passing through financial problems, we are is unable to repay deposits on the above-mentioned date. The board held a meeting on 29th December 2017 and passed a resolution for seeking an extension from NCLT for a period of three months, to repay deposits. Therefore, we request you to grant us an extension for three months to repay it. Copy of the petition is attached in two sets. We assure you that the company will pay the deposits on or before 30th June 2019. Yours faithfully, for STAR TRACK LIMITED Sign Company Secretary Encl: Certified copy of Board Resolution. Petition for Extension of time. Challan for fees paid.

 

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Solutions Chapter 11 Correspondence with Banks Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Solutions Chapter 11 Correspondence with Banks

1A. Select the correct answer from the options given below and rewrite the statements.

Question 1.
A company usually opens _____________ account in a bank.
(a) Current
(b) Saving
(c) Recurring
Answer:
(a) Current

Question 2.
Bank is a _____________ institution.
(a) financial
(b) social
(c) cultural
Answer:
(a) financial

Question 3.
The appointment of banker is usually made by the _____________
(a) Board of Directors
(b) Secretary
(c) Chairman
Answer:
(a) Board of Directors

Question 4.
Resolution for opening Bank Account is passed in the _____________ meeting.
(a) Board
(b) Statutory
(c) Annual General
Answer:
(a) Board

Question 5.
Bank provides overdraft facility to _____________ account holder.
(a) Current
(b) Saving
(c) Fixed Deposit
Answer:
(a) Current

Question 6.
_____________ is used for depositing cash into a bank account.
(a) Pay-in-slip
(b) Withdrawal slip
(c) Cheque
Answer:
(a) Pay-in-slip

Question 7.
Borrowing/Accepting and lending money are considered as _____________ functions of bank.
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Agency
Answer:
(a) Primary

Question 8.
Withdrawals are not permitted from the _____________ deposit account.
(a) Fixed
(b) Current
(c) Savings
Answer:
(a) Fixed

Question 9.
_____________ account is suitable to salaried people.
(a) Savings
(b) Current
(c) Fixed
Answer:
(a) Savings

Question 10.
Generally Interest is not paid on _____________ deposit account.
(a) Current
(b) Saving
(c) Fixed
Answer:
(a) Current

Question 11.
A deposit which is kept for fixed period in bank is called _____________ deposit.
(a) Fixed
(b) Current
(c) Recurring
Answer:
(a) Fixed

1B. Match the pairs.

Question 1.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(a) Lost cheque	(1) Board of Directors
(b) Appointment of Banker	(2) Higher rate of interest
(c) Cash credit	(3) Used for depositing cash and cheque
(d) Fixed Deposit Account	(4) Stop Payment
(e) Savings Account	(5) Restrictions on withdrawals
(f) Pay-in-slip	(6) Separate Account
(g) Overdraft facility	(7) Current Account
	(8) Recurring Account
	(9) Shareholders
	(10) No interest is paid
	(11) Used for withdrawing amount from the account
	(12) Long term credit facility
	(13) Certain restrictions on withdrawals
	(14) Dealing in foreign exchange

Answer:

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(a) Lost cheque	(4) Stop Payment
(b) Appointment of Banker	(1) Board of Directors
(c) Cash credit	(6) Separate Account
(d) Fixed Deposit Account	(2) Higher rate of interest
(e) Savings Account	(5) Restrictions on withdrawals
(f) Pay-in-slip	(3) Used for depositing cash and cheque
(g) Overdraft facility	(7) Current Account

1C. Write a word or a term or a phrase that can substitute each of the following statements.

Question 1.
A slip is used for depositing cash and cheque in the Bank account.
Answer:
Pay-in-slip

Question 2.
Permission to withdraw excess amount from Current Account.
Answer:
Overdraft

Question 3.
Separate loan account under which the short-term loan facility is given by the bank to the business.
Answer:
Cash credit

Question 4.
The short-term credit facility is given by the bank to the current account holder.
Answer:
Overdraft

Question 5.
The account is generally opened by the business organization.
Answer:
Current Account

Question 6.
The request of Secretary to the bank not to make the payment of the cheque.
Answer:
Stop payment request

Question 7.
The type of account for which a higher rate of interest is paid to bank depositors.
Answer:
Fixed Deposit Account

Question 8.
The slip is used for withdrawing money from Savings Account.
Answer:
Withdrawal Slip

Question 9.
Negotiable Instrument which can be discounted with the bank.
Answer:
Bill of exchange

1D. State whether the following statements are True or False.

Question 1.
Joint Stock Company opens Current Account.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Generally, no interest is paid by the bank on the Current Account.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
In cash credit, the customer’s account is credited by the bank with the sanctioned amount.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Board resolution is not required to open the Current Account with the bank.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
The bank account of the company is operated by shareholders.
Answer:
False

Question 6.
Overdraft facility is granted to Savings account holders.
Answer:
False

Question 7.
Bank correspondence should be brief and to the point.
Answer:
True

Question 8.
It is necessary to instruct the bank to stop the payment of a cheque that is lost.
Answer:
True

Question 9.
A bank overdraft facility is a long-term facility.
Answer:
False

Question 10.
Banks grant long-term loans only.
Answer:
False

1E. Find the odd one.

Question 1.
Saving Deposit, Recurring Deposit, Cash Credit. Fixed Deposit
Answer:
Cash Credit

Question 2.
Overdraft, Fixed Deposit, Discounting of Bills, Cash Credit
Answer:
Fixed Deposit

1F. Complete the sentences.

Question 1.
A financial institution which receives deposits and lends money is called as _____________
Answer:
Bank

Question 2.
Accepting deposits and lending money are the primary functions of _____________
Answer:
Commercial Bank/Bank

Question 3.
A facility under which a customer can overdraw money from his account is called as _____________
Answer:
Overdraft facility

Question 4.
Overdraft facility is given to _____________
Answer:
Current Account Holder

1G. Select the correct option from the bracket.

Question 1.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(1) Overdraft	…………………………
(2) Primary Function	………………………..
(3) International Trade Transactions	………………………..
(4) ………………………	Current Account

(Accepting Deposits, Current Account, Letter of Credit, Businessman)
Answer:

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(1) Overdraft	Current Account
(2) Primary Function	Accepting Deposits
(3) International Trade Transactions	Letter of Credit
(4) Businessman	Current Account

1H. Answer in one sentence.

Question 1.
What is a Letter of Credit?
Answer:
A letter of credit is a payment method generally used for international trade transactions. Letter of credit is issued by a bank on behalf of its client, promising to pay a certain amount of money to the seller, in case the buyer fails to pay it.

Question 2.
Which facility is given to the Current Account holder?
Answer:
Overdraft facility is given to Current Account Holder by the Bank.

Question 3.
What do you mean by stop payment of cheque?
Answer:
When a cheque is issued by the company, there is a possibility of misplacement of the cheque or loss in transit. Then it is necessary to inform the bank to stop payment of such cheque.

1I. Correct the underlined word and rewrite the following sentences.

Question 1.
Accepting deposits is the secondary function of Banks.
Answer:
Accepting deposits is the primary function of Banks.

Question 2.
Businessman opens Fixed Deposit Account.
Answer:
Businessman opens Current Account.

Question 3.
Under cash credit facility businessman/account holder can overdraw from his account.
Answer:
Under an overdraft facility, a businessman/account holder can overdraw from his account.

2. Explain the following terms/concepts.

Question 1.
Bank
Answer:
A bank is a financial institution, in which people deposit their idle or surplus cash, and those who need funds borrow from banks.

Question 2.
Demand Deposits
Answer:
The deposits which are repayable on demand are called Demand Deposits.

Question 3.
Time Deposits
Answer:
The deposits which are not repayable on demand are called Time Deposits.

Question 4.
Savings Deposits
Answer:
To encourage saving habit among the people, the bank allows depositors to open a savings account. There are restrictions on the frequency and amount of withdrawals.

Question 5.
Current Deposits
Answer:
This account is normally opened by businessmen, firms, or companies. There is no limit on the amount or number of withdrawals.

Question 6.
Recurring Deposits
Answer:
The account which encourages the customers to make regular savings and to deposit a fixed sum of money for a specific period of time is called Recurring Deposits.

Question 7.
Fixed Deposits
Answer:
Fixed Deposits are the deposits received for a fixed period. The rate of interest is high for fixed deposits. The longer the period of deposit, the higher is the rate of interest.

Question 8.
Loans
Answer:
A loan granted for a specific time period against personal security, gold or silver, and other moveable or immovable assets is called a term loan.

Question 9.
Advances
Answer:
Advances is a credit facility provided by the bank to its customers. It differs from loans in the sense that loans may be granted for a longer period, while advances are for a shorter period.

Question 10.
Cash Credit
Answer:
Under a cash credit facility, a bank allows the borrower to withdraw amounts up to the specified limit. Such credits are allowed against the security of stock of raw material, finished goods, etc.

Question 11.
Overdraft
Answer:
It is a facility where the bank allows its customers to overdraw an amount up to a particular limit. Such facility is allowed against collateral securities like shares, FDR, LIC Policy, etc.

Question 12.
Discounting of Bill
Answer:
It is a short-term finance facility provided by the bank to its customers by allowing discounting of bills and making payment of bills before their due date.

Question 13.
Letter of Credit
Answer:
A letter of credit is a payment method generally used for international trade transactions. A letter of credit is issued by a bank on behalf of its client, promising to pay a certain amount of money to the seller in case the buyer fails to pay it.

Question 14.
Stop payments of cheque
Answer:
When a cheque is sent by the Company, there is a possibility of misplacement of cheque or loss in transit. In that case, it is necessary to inform the bank to stop the payment of such cheques.

3. Distinguish between the following.

Question 1.
Current Account and Savings Account.
Answer:

Basis	Current Account	Savings Account
1. Meaning	It is a type of bank account that is generally opened by the businessman to carry out their business activities.	It is a type of bank account which is opened by salaried and household people with an aim of saving their part of the income and earn interest.
2. Withdrawals	There are no restrictions on the number of withdrawals. They can withdraw money by cheque.	There are restrictions over the number of withdrawals. They can withdraw money either by cheque or by withdrawal slip.
3. Facilities	Such account holder gets the facilities of Passbook, Cheque Book, Statement of Account and Pay-in-Slip Book.	Such account holders get the facilities of Passbook, Cheque Book, and Pay-in-Slip Book.
4. Rate of Interest	Generally, no interest is allowed on the Current Account. If it is allowed it is a very nominal rate.	The rate of interest on the Saving Account is higher than the Current Account but less than fixed deposits.
5. Overdraft facility	Overdraft facility is allowed to Current Account holders.	Overdraft facility is not allowed to Saving Account holder.
6. Suitability	It is suitable for traders, business firms, and institutions.	It is suitable for salary earners, households, and fixed income groups.

Question 2.
Loan and Overdraft
Answer:

Basis	Loan	Overdraft
1. Meaning	Amount granted for a specific period of time, against personal security, gold or silver, and other movable or immovable assets is called a loan.	Overdraft is a credit facility granted by the bank to Current account holders. Under an overdraft facility, the bank allows its customers to overdraw an amount up to a particular limit.
2. Eligibility	Savings account, Fixed, Recurring, and Current account holders are eligible for the loan facilities.	Only Current account holders are eligible for an overdraft facility.
3. Duration	The loan is a long period facility.	Overdraft is a short period facility.
4. Purpose	The purpose is to meet long-term requirements.	The purpose is to meet short-term working capital requirements.
5. Repayment	The amount of the loan may be repaid in installments or in a lump sum on its due date.	The amount of overdraft is adjusted against the balance of Deposits in the Current account.
6. Security	It is provided against personal security, gold or silver, and other movable or immovable assets.	It is provided against collateral securities like shares, FDR, LIC Policy, etc.

Question 3.
Fixed Deposit Account and Recurring Deposit Account.
Answer:

Basis	Fixed Deposit Account	Recurring Deposit Account
1. Meaning	Fixed Deposits are the deposits received for a fixed period of time.	A Recurring Deposit account is that account where depositors regularly deposit a fixed amount for a specific period of time.
2. Facilities	The bank gives a Fixed Deposit Receipt to the Fixed Deposit holders.	The bank gives a Pass Book and Pay-in-Slip book to Recurring Deposit holders.
3. Rate of Interest	The rate of interest allowed is higher. The longer the period of deposit, the higher will be the rate of interest.	The rate of interest is less than Fixed Deposit Account.
4. Suitability	It is suitable for those people having surplus income in hand.	It is suitable for fixed-income groups and lower-income groups.

4. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
What are the points to be kept in mind by a Secretary while corresponding with Banks?
Answer:
The following precautions must be taken by the secretary while corresponding with banks:

• Prompt reply: For any correspondence with the bank, the reply must be sent without delay is the responsibility of a secretary.
• Brevity/Conciseness: Secretary should provide maximum information in minimum words. A letter should not be lengthy. Unnecessary details, irrelevant information or explanation, lengthy paragraphs should be avoided.
• Courtesy: The letter to the bank should show empathy, respect, and mutual understanding. It is helpful for getting favourable responses and built up goodwill for the organization.
• Accuracy: While corresponding with Bank ‘Accuracy’ and ‘Perfectness’ are very important. Whatever information or data provided must be accurate. No haphazard remarks or statements are to be made.
• Clarity: The secretary must provide true, factual updates and clear information about his organization to the banker. Clarity is required to avoid misunderstandings with bankers.

Question 2.
Under what circumstances will a secretary correspond with the Banks?
Answer:
The following are the circumstances under which a secretary has to correspond with the banks:
(i) Letter for opening a Current Account with the Bank:
The decision of opening a Current account is taken in the Board meeting by passing a resolution. The Board instructs the secretary for opening a Current account. The Secretary has to write a letter to the Bank accordingly and enclose the necessary documents.

(ii) Letter requesting a bank to stop payment of cheque:
When cheques are sent by Companies, there are possibilities of misplacement of cheques or loss in transit. Thus, it is necessary to inform the bank to stop the payment of such cheques.

(iii) Letter requesting a Bank for granting an overdraft facility:
Certain credit facilities are provided by the Bank to their customers. The Bank allows a Current Account holder to withdraw excess amount than the available balance. Secretary has to correspond with the bank to prevail this facility.

(iv) Letter requesting bank to issue a letter of credit:
A letter of credit is a payment method generally used for international trade transactions. Letter of credit is issued by Bank on behalf of its client promising to pay a certain amount of money to the seller in case the buyer fails to pay it. Secretary has to correspond with the bank to obtain this letter of credit.

Question 3.
State the agency functions of Banks.
Answer:
Agency functions of banks are part of secondary functions.
Following are the agency functions of the Bank:

• Bank collects the cheques and Bill of Exchange on behalf of the customers or account holders.
• Bank collects dividends, interest, and salary and credits the account holder’s account.
• Bank makes payment of rent, insurance premium, electricity bill, etc.
• Bank act as a Depository Participant for purchase and sale of securities.
• Transfer of money.
• Fulfill standing instructions of depositors.
• The bank acts as a trustee, an executor of the will, and an attorney for the account holder.
• The bank acts as a Banker to the issue, Lead Manager, etc. for the companies.

Question 4.
State the utility functions of Banks.
Answer:
Commercial Bank provides general utility services to their customers or account holders to attract customers.
Utility functions of Banks are as follows:

• Provide locker facility to customer utility function of banks are as follows.
• Provide a letter of credit facility to account holders for international business transactions.
• Helps to deal in Foreign Exchange.
• Provide Credit cards, Debit cards, and A.T.M. facilities.
• To assist in the purchase and sale of securities.
• Provide traveler’s cheque to customers.

Question 5.
Explain the different types of Deposits.
Answer:
The Bank accepts two types of deposits from the people.
(i) Demand Deposits:
Demand Deposits are deposits, where money is repaid by the bank on the demand made by the depositors or customers of the bank.

Such deposit accounts are:
(a) Savings Deposits:
As the name indicate this account is opened and operated by that person who have regular and fixed income e.g. salary. In order to ‘save’ something out of current income, this account is opened.
Features of this account are:

• It is mainly for saving purposes.
• Money can be withdrawn on demand.
• Minimum balance must be maintained.

(b) Current Deposits:
This account is opened by the businessman, firm, company, etc. for business purposes. There is no limit on the number of withdrawals. Generally, interest is not payable on this account. Overdraft facilities are also allowed to these depositors.

(ii) Time Deposits:
The deposits which are not repayable on demand are called ‘Time Deposits’. These deposits are payable after a specific period of time.

• Fixed Deposits: In this deposit account, a certain sum is kept deposited for a fixed period. A higher rate of interest is paid on Fixed Deposit.
• Recurring Deposits: In this deposit account, the customer deposit’s fixed amount on regular basis for a specific period. The money is deposited periodically. The rate of interest is more than Saving Deposits.

5. Justify the following statements.

Question 1.
The secretary has to correspond with the Banks under certain circumstances.
Answer:
Following are the circumstance under which a secretary has to enter into correspondence with banks:

• Letter for opening a Current account with Bank.
• Letter requesting a bank to stop payment of the cheque.
• Letter requesting a bank for granting overdraft facility.
• Letter requesting a bank to issue a letter of credit.
• Letter to a bank enquiring about new banking facilities.
• Letter to the bank for a long-term loan.
• Thus, the secretary has to correspond with the Banks under certain circumstances.

Question 2.
The secretary should observe certain precautions while corresponding with the Banks.
Answer:
The following precautions must be taken by the secretary while corresponding with the banks:

• Secretary should give a prompt reply.
• Secretary should take care that the letter should not be lengthy.
• Unnecessary details should be avoided.
• Not to use any harsh or rude words while corresponding with the banker.
• Provide true factual updates and clear information about his organization to the bankers.
• Thus, the secretary should observe certain precautions while corresponding with the Banks.

Question 3.
The primary functions of Commercial Banks include-Accepting deposits and Lending funds.
Answer:
The main object of a commercial bank is to accept deposits and lending money to customers or account holders:

• To encourage the people who have surplus funds.
• To encourage the saving habit among the people.
• To give support to businessmen for opening a current account.
• To encourage people to make regular savings.
• To lend loans and advances through various modes i.e. short-term loan, medium-term loan, long term loan, overdraft facility, cash credit facility, and discounting of the bill of exchange, etc.
• Thus, the primary functions of Commercial Banks include-Accepting deposits and Lending funds.

Question 4.
The Bank accepts two types of deposits from the public i.e. Demand and Time Deposits.
Answer:

• The basic aim of the bank is to pool the excess money to the bank and develop the habit of saving amount people.
• Bank accepts deposits in two forms i.e. Demand Deposits and Time deposits.
• Demand Deposits include – Current Deposits and Savings Deposits.
• Time Deposits includes – Fixed Deposits and Recurring Deposits
• Thus, the Bank accepts two types of deposits from the public i.e. Demand and Time Deposits.

Question 5.
There is a difference between Loans and Advances given by the Bank.
Answer:

• Bank lends money in two ways – i.e. Loans and Advance.
• The loan is granted for a specific period of time against personnel security, gold or silver, and other movable or immovable properties.
• Advances is a credit facility provided by the bank to its customers against collateral securities like – shares, Government shares, F.D.R., L.I.C. Policy, Stock of raw materials, or finished goods.
• Loans are granted for a longer period while Advances are granted for a shorter period.
• Loans may be short-term, medium-term, or long-term while advances are in form of overdraft, cash credit, and discounting of bills.
• Thus, there is a difference between Loans and Advances given by the Bank.

Question 6.
Overdraft facility is given only to current depositors.
Answer:
Overdraft is a credit facility allowed to current account holders:

• Under an overdraft facility, the bank allows, customers, to withdraw an amount, up to a particular limit.
• The collateral securities are usually accepted for an overdraft facility.
• The rate of interest charged by commercial banks for overdraft is low.
• Overdraft facility is given only to existing current depositors because they have good relations with the Bank.
• Thus, an overdraft facility is given only to current depositors.

6. Attempt the following.

Question 1.
Write a letter to the bank for opening a Current Account.
Answer:

PRAGAT KRUSHI SEVA COMPANY LTD. Registered office: Milind Sally Manjul, Nashik Pune Highway, Sangamner CIN: H353558 MH 2019 PLO 227244 Phone: 02425 – 223019 Fax: 02425 – 227230 Website: www.pragatksltd.com Email: milinadkulkarni@gmail.com Date: 10th March 2019. Ref No. BlbRbl212019 The Bank Manager, IDBI Bank, New Nagar Road, Jantar Raja Maidan, Sangamner. Sub: Opening of Current Account. Dear Sir, The Board of Directors of a company have passed a resolution on 3rd March 2019 to open a Current Account in your bank in the name of the company i.e. “PRAGAT KRUSHI SEVA COMPANY LTD.” and to appoint you as the company’s banker. Please find enclosed herewith the following documents for the purpose of opening the Current Account of our company. Account opening form duly filled, signed and dated. Certified copy of Memorandum of Association. Certified copy of Articles of Associations. Certified copy of Incorporation Certificate. Certified copy of Board resolution regarding opening a Current Account. Specimen signature of two directors Mr. Maithily Kulkarni and Mr. Ajit Godse and the company secretary Certified copy of the list of present Directors of the company. Duly filled up Pay-in-slip along with ₹ 5,000 (Rupees Five thousand only) in cash as initial deposit. Certified copies of PAN and TAN. Thanking you, Yours Faithfully, for PRAGAT KRUSHI SEVA CO. LTD. (Sign) Company Secretary. Encl: As above

Question 2.
Write a letter to the bank to stop the payment of the cheque.
Answer:

AVANI GLASS LIMITED COMPANY Registered Office: Janata Raja Maidan, Vidya Nagar, Sangamner. CIN: B45453 MH 1992 PCL 123272 Phone: 02425 – 227244 Website: www.avaniglass.com Fax: 02425 – 222340 Email: renukrushna@gmail.com Date: 15th March 2019 Ref. No. B/PC/1/19-20 The Bank Manager, New Nagar Road, Sangamner. Sub: Stop Payment of Cheque No 303592 Ref: Our Account No 30357090414   Dear Sir, It is to bring to your notice, to stop payment of the Cheque no. 303592 dated 10th March 2019 of ₹ 75,000 (Rupee Seventy Five Thousand) issued by the company from Current Account no. 30357090414 in favour of Mr. Krushna Chaudhari, Nashik. The said cheque is reported to be lost by the party. So we kindly request you to stop the payment of the said cheque. We highly regret the inconvenience caused to you and wishing your kind co-operation in the above matter. Thanking you, Yours Faithfully, for AVANI GLASS LIMITED COMPANY (Sign) Company Secretary.

Question 3.
Letter requesting a bank to issue a Letter of Credit.
Answer:

B.K. INDUSTRIES LTD. Registered Office: 240, Apeksh. F.C. Road, Pune 4 CIN: B40418 MH 2010PIL 373078 Phone: 020 – 3070901 Fax: 020 – 3145402 Website: www.BKundu.com Email: unvitkrusha@gmail.com Date: 25th May 2019 Ref. No. BP/23/19-20 The Bank Manager, Bank of Maharastra, F.C. Road, Pune – 4. Sub: Issue of Letter of Credit. Ref: Our Current Account No 020304147911 Dear Sir, We are pleased to inform you that, we want to import printing machine from America. As per the quotation received from Mark Industries, America we have to place an order along with a letter of credit. We, therefore, request you to issue a letter of credit in favor of the said company USD 4,50,0000. This letter may be issued on the basis of the credit balance in our current account and as per the prevailing exchange rate. Kindly issue the letter of credit and oblige. This will enable us to place an order at an early date. Thanking you, Yours Faithfully for B.K. INDUSTRIES LTD. (Sign) Company Secretary.

Question 4.
Write a letter requesting the bank to grant an overdraft facility.
Answer:

JAI MATA GLASS AGENCIES LTD. Registered Office: 285, M.G. Road, Dwarka. Nashik. Phone: 0253 – 27304580 Fax: 0253 – 283048800 Website: jaymata.com Email: jaymata@gmail.com Date: 10th January, 2019 Ref. No. BK/7/20-19 The Manager, RDBI Bank Dwarka, Nashik. Sub: Request for overdraft facility Ref: Account No. 00303540451 Dear Sir, The Board of Directors in their meeting held on 2nd January 2019 has decided to request you to grant our company an overdraft facility up to ₹ 10 lakhs for a period of 5 months from March 2019 to July 2019. We are the manufacturer of Tuffen glass and we have a large export order for which we need to have working capital to fulfill our daily needs. We request you to accept our security of Fixed Deposit worth ₹ 10 lakhs with your bank. We would also like to bring to your notice that we are being your customer for the last 10 years. Expecting your early reply in favor of our overdraft facility. Thanking you, Yours Faithfully, for JAI MATA GLASS AGENCIES LTD. (Sign) Company Secretary

Activity (Textbook Page No. 168)

Visit a Bank and collect the form of opening a bank account and find out. The detail to be filled in and Documents needed to open an account.
Answer:
Yesterday, I visited the IDBI Bank of India, Sangamer Branch.
I collected the account opening form from Mr. Abhay Kulkarni Bank Officer.
The following are the details to be filled in in the Account opening form.

1. Branch Name
2. Date of opening account
3. Branch Address
4. Scheme Codes
5. Account Number
6. Type of Account
7. Full name in Capital Letter
8. Date of Birth
9. Occupation
10. PAN
11. Name of Guardian
12. Relationship with minor
13. Operating instruction
14. Facilities required
15. Statement of Account through
16. Other information
17. Declaration, if any
18. Specimen signature
19. Signature

Document required for opening a Bank Account.

1. Certified copy of Articles of Association and Memorandum of Association.
2. Certified copy of Board Resolution regarding the opening of a Current Account.
3. Specimen signature of Directors and Secretary.
4. List of Directors
5. Certificate of Incorporation.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Solutions Chapter 10 Correspondence with Directors Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Solutions Chapter 10 Correspondence with Directors

1A. Select the correct answer from the options given below and rewrite the statements.

Question 1.
Representatives of shareholders are ____________
(a) directors
(b) employees
(c) servants
Answer:
(a) directors

Question 2.
The notice of the meeting of the Board of Directors must be accompanied by ____________
(a) agenda
(b) minutes
(c) resolution
Answer:
(a) agenda

Question 3.
____________ looks after the management of a company.
(a) Board of Directors
(b) Auditor
(c) Company Secretary
Answer:
(a) Board of Directors

Question 4.
The Directors take decisions at ____________ meeting.
(a) Annual General
(b) Board
(c) Statutory
Answer:
(b) Board

Question 5.
According to Section 167(1)(b) of the Companies Act 2013, if a director absents himself from all the meetings of the Board, for a period of ____________ months or more, with or without the leave of the Board, he shall be deemed to have vacated his office.
(a) 12
(b) 10
(c) 9
Answer:
(a) 12

Question 6.
Every company except OPC and the small company shall hold minimum ____________ Board Meetings in each year.
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 5
Answer:
(a) 4

Question 7.
The gap between two consecutive Board Meetings should not be more than ____________ days.
(a) 120
(b) 110
(c) 130
Answer:
(a) 120

1B. Match the pairs.

Question 1.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(a) Directors	(1) At least 2 Directors
(b) Absenteeism of Director in Board Meetings	(2) At least 3 Directors
(c) Public Company	(3) Disqualification of director
(d) Private Company	(4) Representatives of shareholders
(e) Notice of a Routine Board Meeting	(5) 21 clear days
	(6) 7 days
	(7) 70 days
	(8) Representative of the public
	(9) At least 20 directors
	(10) At least 30 directors

Answer:

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(a) Directors	(4) Representatives of shareholders
(b) Absenteeism of Director in Board Meetings	(3) Disqualification of director
(c) Public Company	(2) At least 3 Directors
(d) Private Company	(1) At least 2 Directors
(e) Notice of a Routine Board Meeting	(6) 7 days

1C. Write a word or a term or a phrase that can substitute each of the following statements.

Question 1.
Elected body of representatives of shareholders.
Answer:
Board of Directors

Question 2.
An employee of a company who provides guidance and advice to the Board of Directors about business matters.
Answer:
Company Secretary

Question 3.
A meeting of all the directors of a company.
Answer:
Board Meeting

Question 4.
A written invitation was given to the Director to attend the meeting.
Answer:
Notice of Board Meeting

1D. State whether the following statements are True or False.

Question 1.
A director can be removed before the expiry of his term.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Directors act as trustees of the company.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
A director can remain absent for any number of Board Meetings.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Directors act as agents and trustees of the company.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Company Secretary need not attend the board meetings.
Answer:
False

Question 6.
Director can take decisions individually.
Answer:
False

1E. Complete the sentences.

Question 1.
The elected representatives of the shareholders are called as ____________
Answer:
Board of Directors

Question 2.
The meeting of all Directors is called as ____________
Answer:
Board Meeting

Question 3.
The notice period for Board Meeting shall not be less than ____________
Answer:
7 days

1F. Select the correct option from the bracket.

Question 1.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(1) Notice of Board Meeting	………………………..
(2) …………………..	Meeting of all directors
(3) Duty of Directors	………………………….

(Board Meeting, Not less than 7 days, Disclosure of personal interest)
Answer:

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(1) Notice of Board Meeting	Not less than 7 days
(2) Board Meeting	Meeting of all directors
(3) Duty of Directors	Disclosure of personal interest

1G. Answer in one sentence.

Question 1.
When does a Director vacate his office due to absenteeism at Board Meeting?
Answer:
When the director is absent for all meetings of the Board held during a period of twelve months, with or without the leave of absence from the board, he shall be deemed to have vacated his office.

Question 2.
Can a Director who was absent at the Board Meeting get a copy of the minutes of that Board Meeting?
Answer:
If the director is absent for a board meeting he has the right to get a copy of the minutes of that Board Meeting.

1H. Correct the underlined word and rewrite the following sentences.

Question 1.
Secretary is an elected representative of the shareholders.
Answer:
Director is an elected representative of the shareholders.

Question 2.
Secretary is responsible for the decision-making and framing policies of a company.
Answer:
Director is responsible for the decision-making and framing policies of a company.

2. Explain the following terms/concepts.

Question 1.
Director
Answer:
Director is any person occupying a position by whatever name called, Directors are authorized by shareholders to conduct the activities of the company. Director prepares policies to achieve the aims of the company.

Question 2.
Board of Directors
Answer:
Directors are elected representatives of shareholders. Directors are responsible for decision making, policy framing, and determination of plans for achieving the target set. They have to exercise proper control, direction, and supervision. Directors exercise their powers and authorities collectively as a “Board”.

Question 3.
Conciseness
Answer:
Business letters to directors must be brief and to the point. Unnecessary details, irrelevant matters must not be written, conciseness refers to ‘briefness’. It is said that ‘brevity is the soul of correspondence’.

Question 4.
Politeness
Answer:
While corresponding with Directors, simple words and language must be used. A letter must show empathy, respect, and mutual understanding. It helps to create goodwill. Unnecessary big terms, long sentences should be avoided. Secretary should not use any harsh words while corresponding with directors.

Question 5.
Initiative
Answer:
The secretary must take utmost care while corresponding with directors. He should take the lead to make arrangements for the board meetings. Secretary also helps the directors in conducting meetings.

Question 6.
Notice and Agenda of board meeting
Answer:
The notice of the Board meeting is a document that is sent to all directors of the company. All types of companies are required to give notice of at least 7 days along with agenda before the actual day of the meeting. Notice of Board meetings is generally sent by hand delivery or by post or by electronic means.

3. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
What are the points to be considered by a secretary while corresponding with the directors?
Answer:
Following are the points or precautions to be taken by the secretary while corresponding with Directors.

• Initiative: The secretary must take utmost care while corresponding with directors. He should take the lead to make arrangements for the board meetings. Secretary also helps the directors in conducting meetings.
• Accuracy: In correspondence with directors “accuracy” or perfectness is very much important. Whatever information, action, data, or reply is to be given, must be given accurately. Secretary should provide correct, accurate, and perfect information.
• Promptness: Every letter must be dealt with promptly, whatever might be the subject matter. Prompt replies always create a good impression about your organization, delays in correspondence may prove to be costly in a later stage.
• Brevity: The letter acts as a representative of the organization. Hence, the secretary should always provide all information in a compact manner. A letter should not be lengthy. Secretary should provide maximum information in minimum words.
• Politeness: In correspondence with directors simple and words and language must be used. Unnecessary use of big terms, long sentences should be avoided. Secretary should not use any harsh words.

Question 2.
Under what circumstances will a secretary correspond with a director?
Answer:
Following are the circumstances when a company secretary corresponds with a Director:

• Sending Notice and Agenda of routine Board Meeting.
• Requesting a director to disclose his interest in a particular contract.
• Forwarding the minutes of the meeting to the directors who were absent from the meeting.
• Intimation to the director about the provisions regarding absenteeism at board meetings.

4. Justify the following statements.

Question 1.
Directors exercise their powers and authorities collectively as a Board.
Answer:

• The Directors occupy a very important position in the company’s management.
• They are elected representatives of the shareholders.
• Directors are responsible for decision making, policy framing, and determination of plans for achieving the target set.
• They have to exercise proper control, direction, and supervision.
• Directors exercise their powers and authorities collectively as a “Board”.

Question 2.
The Secretary should take certain precautions while corresponding with Directors.
Answer:

• The company secretary is an executive officer of a Joint Stock Company.
• The decisions taken by the board of directors are implemented by the secretary.
• The secretary acts as a link between the directors and other management personnel.
• The secretary provides assistance to the directors and guidance to the directors.
• Directors occupy key positions and are superiors, so the communication with them should be cautious and tactful.

Question 3.
The Board of Directors is the elected representative of the shareholders.
Answer:

• A Joint Stock Company is a business organization with a wide scope of business activity.
• Though shareholders of the company are the part of owners as well as the members of the Joint Stock Company, they cannot participate in the management and day-to-day functioning of the company since they are scattered over a large geographical area.
• So, as such the shareholders during the Annual General Meeting elect the directors to act as their representatives and carry on the business activities of the company.

Question 4.
The Secretary has to correspond with Directors on important occasions.
Answer:

• The company secretary is an executive officer of a joint-stock company.
• The decisions taken by the board of directors are implemented by the secretary.
• The secretary acts as a link between the directors.
• The secretary is said to be the ears, eyes, hands, and mouthpiece of the Board.
• So under the following circumstances, the secretary writes letters to Directors:
  • Sending Notice and Agenda of the routine Board meeting.
  • Requesting directors to disclose their interest in a particular contract.
  • Forwarding the minutes of the meeting to the directors, who were absent for the meeting.
  • Intimating the director, the provisions regarding absenteeism at consecutive board meetings.

5. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Draft the notice and agenda of routine board meetings.
Answer:

INFORT TECHNOLOGY LIMITED Registered Office: 12, Swaraj Excellency, British Library Lane, F.C. Road, Pune-411004 CIN: BOO160MH20375JLB400180 Phone:020-21173428 Fax: 020-32194237 Website: www.inforttechnology.com. E-mail: infort@technology.com. Date: 25th March 2019 Ref. No.: D/MR/13/19-20 The Director, Mr. Anvit Gaurav Gaikwad, Vastushodh, Building 42, Flat No. 107, Urbangram, Kirkutwadi, Pune. Sub: Notice of the Board Meeting dated 28th April 2019. Dear Sir, I wish to inform you that the monthly Board meeting will be held on 28th April 2019 at 10.00 a.m. at the registered office of the company to transact the following business. AGENDA To confirm the minutes of the last meeting. To confirm the applications of shares. To consider the financial position of the company. To decide the date of the next board meeting. To discuss any other matter with the permission of the Chairman. You are requested to be present at the meeting. Thanking you, Yours faithfully, for Infort Technology Ltd. Sign Company Secretary

Question 2.
Write a letter to the director requesting him to disclose his personal interest in a contract.
Answer:

CHAUDHARI KANCHWALA LIMITED Registered Office: S.N.1960, Kolhar Ghoti Highway, Sangamner Akole Road, Mangalapur. CIN: B40408MH2019ABC1205 Phone: 02425-227244 Fax: 02425-221974 Website: www.chaudharikanchwala.com. E-mail: chaudhari60@gmail.com Date: 1st January 2019 Ref. No.: D/CK/23/19-20 The Director, Mrs. Rajshri Atul Chaudhari, Janata Raja Madian, Vidyanagar, Sangamner. Sub: Disclosure of personal interest. Dear Madam, I wish to inform you that the meeting of the Board of Directors of the company will be held on 21st January 2019. The Board decided to appoint Public Relations Officer for developing relations with customers and wholesalers. As per information received from a reliable source, Mr. Vinayak Nehulkar your relative has applied for the post of PRO. I wish to know whether the said information is true or false. In this case, if you have a personal interest in his appointment, kindly disclose your nature of interest as per Section 184 of the Companies Act, 2013. Kindly revert as early as possible. Thanking you, Yours faithfully, for Shri Chaudhari Kanchwala Ltd. Sign Company Secretary

Question 3.
Write a letter to the director who was absent for a Board Meeting to inform him about the proceeding of the meeting.
Answer:

PRABHAT OPTICAL COMPANY LTD. Registered Office: Yuga Tower, Nashik-Pune Road, Ganesh Nagar, Sangamner. Phone: 02425-222697 Fax: 02425-232697 Website: www.prabhatoptical.com. E-mail: ritivinayak@gmail.com. Date: 20th May 2019. Ref. No.: D/LB/16/19-20 The Director, Mr. Vijay Kodur, Tajane Mala, Navine Nagar Road, Sangamner – 422605. Sub: Information about the proceedings of the meeting. Dear Sir, Please find enclosed herewith a copy of the minutes of the Board Meeting held on 1st May 2019 for your information and record. I invite your attention to paragraph No.25 of the minutes. A proposal to establish a branch office in Mumbai was moved by Mr. Laxman Gadekar. It was seconded by Mr. Atul Chaudhari. After a detailed discussion, the chairman finally concluded the meeting by accepting the proposal. The motion was passed with an 80% majority. The other items on the agenda being of routine nature require no explanation. Thanking you, Yours faithfully, for Prabhat Opticals Company Ltd. Sign Company Secretary Encl.:- Copy of Minutes

Question 4.
Write a letter to the director reminding him about the provision relating to absenteeism at the Board Meeting.
Answer:

SURESH CABLES NETWORK COMPANY LIMITED Registered Office: Shubham Heights, Old Mumbai Agra Road, Ghoti. CIN: H25301MH1999ABC14708 Phone: 042530 Fax: 312240 Website: www.sureshcnc.com E-mail: sureshcable@gmail.com. Date: 13th December 2019. Ref. No.: D/CB/17/19-20 The Director, Mrs. Archana Sumit Pawar, Juna Adgaon Naka, Chavan Nagar, Tapovan Road, Nashik. Sub: Information about absenteeism in the board meeting. Dear Madam, This is to bring to your attention the fact that you have remained absent for two consecutive board meetings held on 15th October 2018 and 17th November 2018. The chairman has not received any intimation from you regarding your absence from these board meetings. You are requested to note that Section 167(1)(b) of the Companies Act, 2013 provides that a director has to vacate his office if such absence is with or without the chairman’s permission. The next board meeting of the company is to be conducted on 13th January 2019. Please make it convenient to attend this meeting or intimate the cause of absence to avoid disqualification under Section 167(l)(b). The notice and agenda of the Board Meeting have been already forwarded to you. Thanking you, Yours faithfully, for Suresh Cable Network Company Ltd. Sign Company Secretary

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Solutions Chapter 10 Correspondence with Directors Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Solutions Chapter 9 Business Communication Skills of a Secretary Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Solutions Chapter 9 Business Communication Skills of a Secretary

1A. Select the correct answer from the options given below and rewrite the statements.

Question 1.
Business communication is concerned with ____________ activities.
(a) economic
(b) business
(c) social
Answer:
(b) business

Question 2.
Written communication is a ____________ record.
(a) permanent
(b) temporary
(c) unauthorised
Answer:
(a) permanent

Question 3.
E-mail is ____________ mode of communication.
(a) fastest
(b) slowest
(c) costliest
Answer:
(a) fastest

Question 4.
A unique internet address of website is known as ____________
(a) World Wide Web
(b) Uniform Resource Locater
(c) .com
Answer:
(b) Uniform Resource Locater

Question 5.
____________ is an organised statement of facts.
(a) Report
(b) Notice
(c) Heading
Answer:
(a) Report

Question 6.
There should be proper ____________ between words, lines and between paragraphs.
(a) margin
(b) typing
(c) spacing
Answer:
(c) spacing

Question 7.
____________ refers to use of minimum words.
(a) Courtesy
(b) Conciseness
(c) Correctness
Answer:
(b) Conciseness

Question 8.
A letter without ____________ is invalid.
(a) ‘You’ attitude
(b) signature
(c) clarity
Answer:
(b) signature

1B. Match the pairs.

Question 1.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(a) Twitter	(1) Hearing and understanding
(b) Consideration	(2) Personable
(c) Active listening	(3) Harsh, rude words
(d) Body language	(4) Social Media
(e) Courtesy	(5) Non-verbal communication
	(6) Blog
	(7) ‘You’ attitude
	(8) Empathy
	(9) SMS
	(10) Politeness

Answer:

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(a) Twitter	(4) Social Media
(b) Consideration	(7) ‘You’ attitude
(c) Active listening	(1) Hearing and understanding
(d) Body language	(5) Non-verbal communication
(e) Courtesy	(10) Politeness

1C. Write a word or a term or a phrase that can substitute each of the following statements.

Question 1.
Process of communication, conveying a message in spoken form.
Answer:
Verbal communication

Question 2.
A set of interconnected web pages located on a single web domain.
Answer:
Website

Question 3.
Part of a business letter that introduces the sender to the receiver.
Answer:
Heading

Question 4.
A written summary of the business transacted at the meeting.
Answer:
Minutes

Question 5.
Part of a letter that contains the name and address of the sender.
Answer:
Heading or Letterhead

Question 6.
Audio-Visual means of electronic communication.
Answer:
Video conference

1D. State whether the following statements are True or False.

Question 1.
Notice is a written summary of business transacted at a meeting.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Written communication provides permanent records.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Active listening is essential for effective communication.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
The inside address gives the name and address of the sender.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
A letter without a date is incomplete and invalid.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
The reference number shows the purpose of the letter.
Answer:
False

Question 7.
Coherence refers to the logical arrangement of the contents of a letter.
Answer:
True

Question 8.
A letter should have minimum folds.
Answer:
True

1E. Find the odd one.

Question 1.
Paper, Margin, Typing, Courtesy
Answer:
Courtesy

Question 2.
Clarity, Courtesy, Spacing, Correctness
Answer:
Spacing

Question 3.
Date, Inside Address, Conciseness, Subject
Answer:
Conciseness

1F. Complete the sentences.

Question 1.
When communication is done through Reports, Letters, Circulars, etc it is called as ____________
Answer:
written communication

Question 2.
Proper arrangement of different parts of business letter is called as ____________
Answer:
layout

Question 3.
The part of the letter which contains the name and address of the receiver of the letter is called as ____________
Answer:
inside address

1G. Select the correct option from the bracket.

Question 1.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(1) You Attitude	…………………………
(2) Conciseness	………………………..
(3) ………………….	Complete information
(4) …………………	Polite language

(Minimum words, Completeness, Courtesy, Consideration)
Answer:

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(1) You Attitude	Consideration
(2) Conciseness	Minimum words
(3) Completeness	Complete Information
(4) Courtesy	Polite language

1H. Answer in one sentence.

Question 1.
Name the type of communication in which words are not used.
Answer:
Non-verbal communication is the type of communication in which words are not used.

Question 2.
Name the type of communication in which communication is done in spoken form.
Answer:
Verbal communication is the type of communication in which communication is done in spoken form.

Question 3.
Name the type of communication which can be re-read.
Answer:
Written communication is the type of communication that can be re-read.

1I. Correct the underlined word and rewrite the following sentences.

Question 1.
Consideration means the letter should be in a logical sequence.
Answer:
Coherence means the letter should be in a logical sequence.

Question 2.
Completeness means the use of minimum words.
Answer:
Conciseness means the use of minimum words.

Question 3.
Complimentary close contains greetings to the reader of the letter.
Answer:
Salutation contains greetings to the reader of the letter.

1J. Arrange in proper order.

Question 1.
(a) Heading
(b) Complimentary close
(c) Subject
Answer:
(a) Heading
(b) Subject
(c) Complimentary close

Question 2.
(a) Enclosure
(b) Body of letter
(c) Date
Answer:
(a) Date
(b) Body of letter
(c) Enclosure

2. Explain the following terms/concepts.

Question 1.
Communication
Answer:

• Communication is derived from the Latin term ‘communis’ that means ‘common’- ‘Shared by all’.
• Communication is an exchange of facts, ideas, opinions, or emotions by two or more persons.
• Communication is a two-way process where the thoughts feelings and opinion is transmitted.
• Effective communication is when a message is conveyed by the sender and received by the receiver exactly the same it was intended.
• It is giving or exchanging information, signals, or messages by talk, gestures, or writing.

Question 2.
Business Communication
Answer:

• Business communication is the branch of general communication especially concerned with business activities.
• It is a process through which information, facts, ideas, orders, decisions, etc. are exchanged between the person associated with the business.
• The success of the business enterprise depends largely upon good communication.
• Ineffective communication may cause loss of money and even goodwill of a business.
• Thus, business communication relating to trade, law, management, finance, etc. of a business enterprise is termed as business communication.

Question 3.
Written Communication
Answer:

• The exchange of information or ideas in a written form is known as written communication.
• Written communication includes reports, letters, circulars, etc.
• Written communication is the most important and the most effective mode of business communication.
• The words written should convey specific meaning and should not confuse the reader.
• Letters, memos, notices, circulars, reports, minutes are some common types of written communication.

Question 4.
Business Correspondence
Answer:

• Communication through the exchange of letters is known as correspondence.
• A businessman who writes letters in his day-to-day transactions is called business correspondence.
• Business correspondence is a written communication between two parties.
• Business correspondence takes place because the place of production and place of consumption is not the same.

Question 5.
Report
Answer:

• A report is an organized statement of facts or opinions leading to some conclusion with or without some recommendations.
• It is a systematic presentation of facts on a specific topic.
• Some reports are made as per the Companies Act and some are prepared as per the requirement of the company.
• A report may be prepared by an individual or by a committee.

Question 6.
Minutes
Answer:

• It is a written summary of the business transacted at the meeting.
• It is a concise and accurate official record of the discussion and decision at company meetings.
• It can be used for future reference.
• Minutes is the official record of the meeting so it is necessary to draft minutes in a proper format.
• Minutes should be prepared by the secretary within 15 days of a meeting.
• It is always written in the past tense.
• Minutes are prepared by the secretary, confirmed by a member, signed by a chairman, and countersigned by the secretary.

3. Study the following case/situation and express your opinion.

1. Mr. Rahul is the secretary who has been asked by the Managing Director to inform a director about a decision taken in a board meeting in which he was absent. Which aspect of essentials of a good business letter he follows:
(Clarity, conciseness, coherence, courtesy, completeness, correctness)

Question (a).
When he is giving the required information in a very short and brief manner?
Answer:
Clarity and conciseness

Question (b).
When he is using courteous words so as to be polite?
Answer:
Courtesy

Question (c).
When he is giving the entire information about the meeting in a proper manner?
Answer:
Coherence, completeness, and correctness.

4. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
Explain any four essentials of effective communication.
Answer:

• Communication is an exchange of facts, ideas, opinions, or emotions by two or more persons.
• Effective communication is when a message is conveyed by the sender and received by the receiver exactly the same it was intended.
• Being able to communicate effectively is an essential skill.

The following are the essentials skills for effective communication:
(a) Listening:

• One of the most important aspects of business communication is being a good listener.
• Effective communication requires active listening.
• Active listening involves hearing and understanding a person.

(b) Body language:

• Body language is an important communication tool.
• Body language should convey words.
• Tone, hand gestures, and ensuring eye contact are involved in body language.

(c) Clear and concise:

• The message should be conveyed by using as few words as possible, whether in person or through telephone, or e-mail.
• The message should be clear concise and direct.
• Excessive words should be avoided.
• Thought should be given to the message before being conveyed in order to avoid confusion.

(d) Confident:

• For effective communication, confidence is needed.
• Making eye contact but having a friendly tone always shows confidence.

Question 2.
State any four essentials of a good business letter.
Answer:

• A business letter is a type of written communication written by the secretary.
• Good letter writing is important for maintaining the image of the business.
• It helps in understanding the objective of the content and helps to make the correct decision.

A business letter should possess the following qualities:
(a) Clarity:

• The message of the letter must be clear.
• Simple and common words are to be used.
• Technical and short forms should be avoided.
• Names and figures should be correct and clear.

(b) Conciseness:

• The letter should be brief.
• Minimum words are to be used.
• Unnecessary and irrelevant information should be avoided.
• A brief letter saves time for the reader.

(c) Completeness:

• A letter must give complete information to the reader.
• The letter should cover all possible facts related to the subject matter.
• An incomplete letter does not achieve the desired results.

(d) Courtesy:

• Courtesy means the language of the letter must be polite and kind.
• A courteous letter gets a favorable response from the reader.
• Harsh, rude words, insulting remarks must be avoided.

5. Justify the following statements.

Question 1.
Written communication is very useful to the organization.
Answer:

• The exchange of information or ideas in a written form is known as written communication.
• Written communication is the most important and effective mode of business communication.
• It provides us with records, references, etc. on which important decisions are taken.
• It provides legal defense to the organization through records, letters, instructions, etc.
• It provides uniformity of policy and procedures and builds proper guidelines for the working of the organization.
• It builds an image of the company.
• It leads to accuracy and dependability.
• Responsibility can be easily assigned through written communication.
• It is permanent in nature.
• Thus, written communication is very useful for the organization.

Question 2.
Social media network is very useful to the business.
Answer:

• Social media are online interactive groups created using advanced mobile and web-based technologies.
• From the business point of view, it provides a great opportunity to interact with the public and communicate about their product and services.
• It helps in developing loyalties.
• It builds a strong relationships with the audience and consumers.
• Social networking makes relationships more personal.
• Business can be promoted more effectively through advertising.
• Thus, social media network is very useful to the business.

Question 3.
Listening is the most important aspect of effective communication.
Answer:

• The most important aspect of effective communication is being a good listener.
• Effective communication requires active listening.
• Active listening involves hearing and understanding what a person is saying to you.
• Without the ability to listen effectively, messages are generally misunderstood.
• Good listening skills can lead to better customer satisfaction.
• It can increase productivity with fewer mistakes.
• Increased sharing of information will lead to more creative and innovative work.
• Thus listening is the most important aspect of communication.

6. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
State the merits of written communication.
Answer:

• When the exchange of information or ideas is in a written form is known as written communication.
• Written communication includes reports, letters, circulars, etc.
• Written communication is the most important and the most effective of any mode of business communication.
• The words written should contain specific meaning and should not confuse the reader.
• Letter, memos, notices, circulars, minutes are some common types of written communication.

The following are the merits of written communication:
(a) Accurate and precise:

• Written communication is drafted with great care.
• The communicator has to be accurate and factual as it is open to verification.
• Therefore written communication focuses greater on accuracy and precision.

(b) Re-read many times:

• The receiver of written communication can read the message any time again in the future.
• He can re-read it till it is properly understood by him.

(c) Permanent record:
Written communication becomes a permanent record of the organization and can prove very useful for future reference.

(d) Documentary evidence:
Written communication is acceptable as legal documents and as legal evidence also.

(e) Wide access:
Written communication is the best channel of communication for conveying information to people living in different places.

(f) No need for personal contact:

• It is not necessary for both parties to be available at the time of communication.
• Messages can be sent to the concerned person who can read when receives and gets spare time.

(g) Completeness:

• Written messages are prepared with perfect knowledge related to the matter.
• So there is completeness in the message.

(h) Economical:

• This method is economical when the receiver is far away from the business place.
• E-mails are the most popular method of written communication.

Question 2.
Explain different parts of a business letter.
Answer:

• A business letter is a type of written communication written by a secretary.
• Good letter writing is important for maintaining the image of the business.
• The business letters are written with the objective of understanding and take the correct decisions.

The following are the different parts of the business letter:
(a) Heading:

• The heading contains the name, address, telephone number, email id, website CIN of the company.
• It is that part of the business letter which introduces the sender to the receiver.

Eg. TATA MOTORS LTD. 176, S.B. Road. MIDC, Pune – 411015 CIN – L28920MH1945PLC004520 Telephone – (022)4756823 Email – tatamotors@gmail.com Website – www.tatamotor.com

(b) Date:

• The date is written on the right-hand side of the letter just below the heading.
• The date includes the date, month, and year.
• A letter without a date is incomplete.
• The date is very important as the letter acts as legal evidence.
• Eg. British style – 1st April 2019
  American style – April 1st, 2019

(c) Reference number:

• It is written on the left-hand side below the heading.
• The reference number is given to have a quick reference to the matter concerned.
• The outgoing letter is given a reference number.

(d) Inside address:

• It contains the name, address of the receiver of the letter.
• It is written on the left-hand side of the letter.
• For names, Mr, Shri, Mrs, or Smt are used and for firms, Messrs is used.

(e) Subject:

• The reader gets the idea of the matter of the letter without reading the letter completely.
• It helps to send it to the concerned section.
• It is written in brief as the subject.

(f) Salutation:

• Salutation is a greeting from the writer.
• It creates a favorable impression on the reader’s mind.
• It appears on the left margin below the inside address.

(g) Body of the letter:

• It is the most important part of the business letter.
• It contains the actual message for the receiver of the letter.
• The message should be divided into paragraphs. The first paragraph, Main paragraph, Closing paragraph.

(h) Complimentary close:

• This is the concluding part of the letter.
• It is written below the body of the letter on the right-hand side.
• It shows the polite end of the letter.
• It should match salutation.

(i) Signature:

• It is the final part of the letter.
• A letter without a signature is incomplete and invalid.
• Below the signature, the name and his or her designation are written.
• The person who signs is responsible for the matter written in the letter.

(j) Enclosure:

• It includes documents, cheques, etc. which are attached with the letter.
• It is shown by word enclosure which is written on the left-hand side.

Activity (Textbook Page No. 144)

How can a company use Twitter and Blogs to reach out to outsiders?
Answer:

• Twitter is considered to be an effective tool to grow your business and its brand name.
• Twitter uses attractive hashtags that attract the attention of the targeted audience or customers.
• It is an excellent platform to approach and get connected to new audiences gaining their positive opinions.
• The cost of Twitter is very nominal, so small business organizations can use its benefits easily.
• Twitter helps to connect a huge number of new customers as well as keep connected to old customers.
• It also helps to build the brand name and recognition with the help of advertisements.
• It helps to create a customer support channel and recognition who tweets positively as well as negatively about your product. Thus company or firm can improve its brand name.
• Similarly, blogging also helps businesses to compete with competitors in the market.
• Blogging helps to post in detail the qualities of your product which reaches a number of customers.
• Needed customers can easily approach your business or profession by viewing your blog.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Biology Textbook Solutions Chapter 15 Excretion and Osmoregulation Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Biology Solutions Chapter 15 Excretion and Osmoregulation

1. Choose correct option

Question (A).
Which one of the following organisms would spend maximum energy in production of nitrogenous waste?
a. Polar bear
b. Flamingo
c. Frog
d. Shark
Answer:
b. Flamingo

Question (B).
In human beings, uric acid is formed due to metabolism of __________.
a. amino acids
b. fatty acids
c. creatinine
d. nucleic acids
Answer:
d. nucleic acids

Question (C).
Visceral layer : Podocytes :: PCT : _______
a. Cilliated cells
b. Squamous cells
c. Columnar cells
d. Cells with brush border
Answer:
d. Cells with brush border

Question (D).
Deproteinised plasma is found in __________.
a. Bowman’s capsule
b. Descending limb
c. Glomerular capillaries
d. Ascending limb
Answer:
a. Bowman’s capsule, b. Descending limb, d. Ascending limb

Question (E).
Specific gravity of urine would _______ if level of ADH increases.
a. remain unaffected
b. increases
c. decreases
d. stabilise
Answer:
b. increases

Question (F).
What is micturition?
a. Urination
b. Urine formation
c. Uremia
d. Urolithiasis
Answer:
a. Urination

Question (G).
Which one of the following organisms excrete waste through nephridia?
a. Cockroach
b. Earthworm
c. Crab
d. Liver Fluke
Answer:
c. Crab

Question (H).
Person suffering from kidney stone is advised not to have tomatoes as it has _______.
a. seeds
b. lycopene
c. oxalic acid
d. sour taste
Answer:
c. oxalic acid

Question (I).
Tubular secretion does not take place in ________.
a. DCT
b. PCT
c. collecting duct
d. Henle’s loop
Answer:
b. PCT

Question (J).
The minor calyx ____________.
a. collects urine
b. connects pelvis to ureter
c. is present in the cortex
d. receives column of Bertini
Answer:
a. collects urine

Question (K).
Which one of the followings is not a part of human kidney?
a. Malpighian body
b. Malpighian tubule
c. Glomerulus
d. Loop of Henle
Answer:
b. Malpighian tubule

Question (L).
The yellow colour of the urine is due to presence of ___________
a. uric acid
b. cholesterol
c. urochrome
d. urea
Answer:
c. urochrome

Question (M).
Hypotonic filtrate is formed in _______
a. PCT
b. DCT
c. LoH
d. CT
Answer:
a. PCT

Question (N).
In reptiles, uric acid is stored in _____
a. cloaca
b. fat bodies
c. liver
d. anus
Answer:
a. cloaca

Question (O).
The part of nephron which absorbs glucose and amino acid is______
a. collecting tubule
b. proximal tubule
c. Henle’s loop
d. DCT
Answer:
b. proximal tubule

Question (P).
Bowman’s capsule is located in kidney in the ________
a. cortex
b. medulla
c. pelvis
d. pyramids
Answer:
a. cortex

Question (Q).
The snakes living in desert are mainly__________
a. aminotelic
b. ureotelic
c. ammonotelic
d. uricotelic
Answer:
d. uricotelic

Question (R).
Urea is a product of breakdown of ___________
a. fatty acids
b. amino acids
c. glucose
d. fats
Answer:
b. amino acids

Question (S).
Volume of the urine is regulated by__________
a. aldosterone
b. ADH
c. both a and b
d. none
Answer:

Question 2.
Answer the following questions

Question (A).
Doctors say Mr. Shaikh is suffering from urolithiasis. How it could be explained in simple words?
Answer:
Urolithiasis is the condition of having calculi in the urinary tract (which also includes the kidneys), which may pass into urinary bladder.

Question (B).
Anitaji needs to micturate several times and feels very thirsty. This is an indication of change in permeability of certain part of nephron. Which is this part?
Answer:

1. Need to micturate several times (polyuria) and feeling very thirsty (polydipsia) is a symptom of diabetes insipidus (imbalance of fluids in the body).
2. ADH prevents diuresis and due to absence of ADH, large amount of dilute urine is excreted.
3. ADH stimulates reabsorption of water from last part of DCT and entire collecting duct by increasing the permeability of cells.
4. If the permeability of these cells changes, it will result in increase in urine volume (frequent micturition) and increase in the osmolarity of blood. An imbalance in volume and osmolarity of body fluids increases thirst.

[Note: Water is reabsorbed by osmosis in PCT, DCT and descending limb of loop of Henle)

Question (C).
Effective filtration pressure was calculated to be 20 mm Hg; where glomerular hydrostatic pressure was 70 mm of Hg. Which other pressure is affecting the filtration process? How much is it?
Answer:
The other pressure affecting the filtration process is osmotic pressure of blood and filtrate hydrostatic pressure. Commonly effective filtration pressure (EFP) is represented as;
EFP = Glomerular Hydrostatic pressure in glomerulus – (Osmotic pressure of blood + Filtrate Hydrostatic pressure)
If EFP = 20 mmHg and Glomerular Hydrostatic pressure = 70 mmHg
20 = 70 – (Osmotic pressure of blood + Filtrate hydrostatic pressure)
∴ (Osmotic pressure of blood + Filtrate hydrostatic pressure) = 70-20
Then (Osmotic pressure of blood + Filtrate Hydrostatic pressure) = 50 mmHg .

[Note: Given values are insufficient to calculate the exact osmotic pressure of blood and filtrate hydrostatic pressure. The sum of the two values can be calculated to be 50 mmHg ]

Question (D).
Name any one guanotelic organism.
Answer:
Spiders, scorpions and penguins are guanotelic organisms as they excrete guanine.

Question (E).
Why are kidneys called ‘retroperitoneal’?
Answer:
Kidneys are located in abdomen. Kidneys are not surrounded by peritoneum instead they are located posterior to it. Thus, kidneys are called retroperitoneal.

Question (F).
State role of liver in urea production.
Answer:

1. Ammonia formed during the breakdown of amino acids is converted into urea in the liver of ureotelic animals.
2. This conversion takes place by the help of the ornithine / urea cycle.
3. 3 ATP molecules are used to produce one molecule of urea using the ornithine/ urea cycle. Since, the liver contains carrier molecules and enzymes necessary for urea cycle, it plays a major role in urea production.

Question (G).
Why do we get bad breath after eating garlic or raw onion?
Answer:

1. Raw onion and garlic contain volatile sulphur-containing compounds.
2. Sulphur-containing compounds have a distinctive odour which remain in the mouth after consumption of onion and garlic.
3. Also, volatile compounds (like certain sulphur containing compounds) in foodstuffs are generally excreted through the lungs and may result in bad breath.

3. Answer the following questions

Question (A).
John has two options as treatment for his renal problem : Dialysis or kidney transplants. Which option should he choose? Why?
Answer:

1. If John has two options of dialysis and kidney transplant, readily available he must opt for kidney transplant.
2. A kidney transplant, if successful, can improve the quality of life of a patient and reduce the risk of death.
3. The patient would not have to endure frequent dialysis procedures. Repeated visits for dialysis takes time and may not allow the patient to perform normal activities or go to office regularly.
4. Dialysis is regarded as a holding measure until kidney transplant can be performed or a supportive measure in those for whom a transplant would be inappropriate. However, dialysis cannot replace all the functions of a normal kidney such as production of hormones like erythropoietin, calcitriol and renin. Hence, if John has an option of kidney transplant, he must opt for it.

Question (B).
Amphibian tadpole can afford to be ammonotelic. Justify.
Answer:

1. Tadpole (larval stage of life cycle of amphibian) is aquatic. They are ammonotelic as they excrete nitrogenous waste in the form of ammonia.
2. Ammonia is very toxic and requires large amount of water for its elimination.
3. It is readily soluble in water and diffuses across the body surface and into the surrounding water.
4. Also, the water lost during excretion can be made up through the surrounding water in ammonotelic organisms.

Hence, amphibian tadpole can afford to be ammonotelic.

Question (C).
Birds are uricotelic in nature. Give reason.
Answer:

1. Birds are capable of converting ammonia into uric acid by ‘inosinic acid pathway’ in their liver.
2. Uric acid is least toxic and hence, it can be retained in the body for some time.
3. It is least soluble water hence, negligible amount of water is required for its elimination.
4. This mode of excretion can also help reduce body weight (an adaptation for flight) and those animals which
   need to conserve more water follow uricotelism.

Hence, in order to conserve water as an adaptation for flight, birds are uricotelic in nature.

Question 4.
Write the explanation in your word

Question (A).
Nitya has been admitted to hospital after heavy blood loss. Till proper treatment could be given; how did Nitya’s body must have tackled the situation?
Answer:

1. Heavy blood loss is called haemorrhage. In case of haemorrhage or severe dehydration, the osmoreceptors stimulate Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion.
2. ADH is important in regulating water balance through the kidneys. For detailed mechanism of reabsorption by ADH:

Regulating water reabsorption through ADH:
Hypothalamus in the midbrain has special receptors called osmoreceptors which can detect change in osmolarity (measure of total number of dissolved particles per liter of solution) of blood.

If osmolarity of blood increases due to water loss from the body (after eating namkeen or due to sweating), osmoreceptors trigger release of Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) from neurohypophysis (posterior pituitary). ADH stimulates reabsorption of water from last part of DCT and entire collecting duct by increasing the permeability of cells.

This leads to reduction in urine volume and decrease in osmolarity of blood.

Once the osmolarity of blood comes to normal, activity of osmoreceptor cells decreases leading to decrease in ADH secretion. This is called negative feedback.
In case of hemorrhage or severe dehydration too, osmoreceptors stimulate ADH secretion. ADH is important in regulating water balance through kidneys.

In absence of ADH, diuresis (dilution of urine) takes place and person tends to excrete large amount of dilute urine. This condition called as diabetes insipidus.

[Note: Hypothalamus is a part of forebrain]

Another regulatory mechanism that must have been activated is RAAS. For detailed mechanism of electrolyte reabsorption:

Electrolyte reabsorption through RAAS:
Another regulatory mechanism is RAAS (Renin Angiotensin Aldosterone System) by Juxta Glomerular Apparatus (JGA).

Whenever blood supply (due to change in blood pressure or blood volume) to afferent arteriole decreases (e.g. low BP/dehydration), JGA cells release Renin. Renin converts angiotensinogen secreted by hepatocytes in liver to Angiotensin I. ‘Angiotensin-converting enzyme’ further modifies Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II, the active form of hormone. It stimulates adrenal cortex to release another hormone called aldosterone that stimulates DCT and collecting ducts to reabsorb more Na⁺ and water, thereby increasing blood volume and pressure.

Question 5.
Complete the diagram / chart with correct labels / information. Write the conceptual details regarding it

Question (A).

Answer:

The composition of urine depends upon food and fluid consumed by an individual. There are two ways in which it the composition is regulated. They are as follows:

i. Regulating water reabsorption through ADH
ii. Electrolyte reabsorption though RAAS
iii. Atrial Natriuretic Peptide

i. Regulating water reabsorption through ADH:
Hypothalamus in the midbrain has special receptors called osmoreceptors which can detect change in osmolarity (measure of total number of dissolved particles per liter of solution) of blood.

If osmolarity of blood increases due to water loss from the body (after eating namkeen or due to sweating), osmoreceptors trigger release of Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) from neurohypophysis (posterior pituitary). ADH stimulates reabsorption of water from last part of DCT and entire collecting duct by increasing the permeability of cells.
This leads to reduction in urine volume and decrease in osmolarity of blood.

Once the osmolarity of blood comes to normal, activity of osmoreceptor cells decreases leading to decrease in ADH secretion. This is called negative feedback.
In case of hemorrhage or severe dehydration too, osmoreceptors stimulate ADH secretion. ADH is important in regulating water balance through kidneys.

In absence of ADH, diuresis (dilution of urine) takes place and person tends to excrete large amount of dilute urine. This condition called as diabetes insipidus.

[Note: Hypothalamus is a part of forebrain]

ii. Electrolyte reabsorption through RAAS:
Another regulatory mechanism is RAAS (Renin Angiotensin Aldosterone System) by Juxta Glomerular Apparatus (JGA).

Whenever blood supply (due to change in blood pressure or blood volume) to afferent arteriole decreases (e.g. low BP/dehydration), JGA cells release Renin. Renin converts angiotensinogen secreted by hepatocytes in liver to Angiotensin I. ‘Angiotensin converting enzyme’ further modifies Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II, the active form of hormone. It stimulates adrenal cortex to release another hormone called aldosterone that stimulates DCT and collecting ducts to reabsorb more Na⁺ and water, thereby increasing blood volume and pressure.

iii. Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP): A large increase in blood volume and pressure stimulates atrial wall to produce atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP). ANP inhibits Na⁺ and Cl^– reabsorption from collecting ducts inhibits release of renin, reduces aldosterone and ADH release too. This leads to a condition called Natriuresis (increased excretion of Na⁺ in urine) and diuresis.

Question (B).

Answer:

1. Nephrons are structural and functional units of kidney.
2. Each nephron consists of a 4 – 6 cm long, thin-walled tube called the renal tubule and a bunch of capillaries known as the glomerulus.
3. The wall of the renal tubule is made up of a single layer of epithelial cells.
4. Its proximal end is wide, blind, cup-like and is called as Bowman’s capsule, whereas the distal end is open.
5. The nephron is divisible into Ilowman’s capsule, neck, proximal convoluted tubule (PCT), Loop of Henle (LoH), distal convoluted tubule (DCT) and collecting tubule (CT).
6. The glomerulus is present in the cup-like cavity of Bowman’s capsule and both are collectively known as renal corpuscle or Malpighian body.

Question (C)

Answer:
Nephron is the structural and functional unit of kidney.
Structure of nephron:
A nephron (uriniferous tubule) is a thin walled, coiled duct, lined by a single layer of epithelial cells. Each nephron is divided into two main parts:

i. Malpighian body
ii. Renal tubule

i. Malpighian body: Each Malpighian body is about 200pm in diameter and consists of a Bowman’s capsule and glomerulus.

a. Glomerulus:
Glomerulus is a bunch of fine blood capillaries located in the cavity of Bowman’s capsule.
A small terminal branch of the renal artery, called as afferent arteriole enters the cup cavity (Bowman capsule) and undergoes extensive fine branching to form network of several capillaries. This bunch is called as glomerulus.
The capillary wall is fenestrated (perforated).

All capillaries reunite and form an efferent arteriole that leaves the cup cavity.
The diameter of the afferent arteriole is greater than the efferent arteriole. This creates a high hydrostatic pressure essential for ultrafiltration, in the glomerulus.

b. Bowman’s capsule:
It is a cup-like structure having double walls composed of squamous epithelium.
The outer wall is called as parietal wall and the inner wall is called as visceral wall.
The parietal wall is thin consisting of simple squamous epithelium.
There is a space called as capsular space / urinary space in between two walls.
Visceral wall consists of special type of squamous cells called podocytes having a foot-like pedicel. These podocytes are in close contact with the walls of capillaries of glomerulus.
There are small slits called as filtration slits in between adjacent podocytes.

ii. Renal tubule:

a. Neck:
The Bowman’s capsule continues into the neck. The wall of neck is made up of ciliated epithelium. The lumen of the neck is called the urinary pole. The neck leads to proximal convoluted tubule.

b. Proximal Convoluted Tubule :
This is highly coiled part of nephron which is lined by cuboidal cells with brush border (microvilli) and surrounded by peritubular capillaries. Selective reabsorption occurs in PCT. Due to convolutions (coiling), filtrate flows slowly and remains in the PCT for longer duration, ensuring that maximum amount of useful molecules are reabsorbed.

c. Loop of Henle :
This is ‘U’ shaped tube consisting of descending and ascending limb.
The descending limb is thin walled and permeable to water and lined with simple squamous epithelium.
The ascending limb is thick walled and impermeable to water and is lined with simple cuboidal epithelium.
The LoH is surrounded by capillaries called vasa recta.
Its function is to operate counter current system – a mechanism for osmoregulation.
The ascending limb of Henle’s loop leads to DCT.

d. Distal convoluted tubule:
This is another coiled part of the nephron.
Its wall consists of simple cuboidal epithelium.
DCT performs tubular secretion / augmentation / active secretion in which, wastes are taken up from surrounding capillaries and secreted into passing urine.
DCT helps in water reabsorption and regulation of pH of body fluids.

e. Collecting tubule:
This is a short, straight part of the DCT which reabsorbs water and secretes protons.
The collecting tubule opens into the collecting duct.

Question (D).

Answer:

The composition of urine depends upon food and fluid consumed by an individual. There are two ways in which it the composition is regulated. They are as follows:

i. Regulating water reabsorption through ADH
ii. Electrolyte reabsorption though RAAS
iii. Atrial Natriuretic Peptide

i. Regulating water reabsorption through ADH:
Hypothalamus in the midbrain has special receptors called osmoreceptors which can detect change in osmolarity (measure of total number of dissolved particles per liter of solution) of blood.

If osmolarity of blood increases due to water loss from the body (after eating namkeen or due to sweating), osmoreceptors trigger release of Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) from neurohypophysis (posterior pituitary). ADH stimulates reabsorption of water from last part of DCT and entire collecting duct by increasing the permeability of cells.
This leads to reduction in urine volume and decrease in osmolarity of blood.

Once the osmolarity of blood comes to normal, activity of osmoreceptor cells decreases leading to decrease in ADH secretion. This is called negative feedback.
In case of hemorrhage or severe dehydration too, osmoreceptors stimulate ADH secretion. ADH is important in regulating water balance through kidneys.

In absence of ADH, diuresis (dilution of urine) takes place and person tends to excrete large amount of dilute urine. This condition called as diabetes insipidus.

[Note: Hypothalamus is a part of forebrain]

ii. Electrolyte reabsorption through RAAS:
Another regulatory mechanism is RAAS (Renin Angiotensin Aldosterone System) by Juxta Glomerular Apparatus (JGA).
Whenever blood supply (due to change in blood pressure or blood volume) to afferent arteriole decreases (e.g. low BP/dehydration), JGA cells release Renin. Renin converts angiotensinogen secreted by hepatocytes in liver to Angiotensin I. ‘Angiotensin-converting enzyme’ further modifies Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II, the active form of hormone. It stimulates adrenal cortex to release another hormone called aldosterone that stimulates DCT and collecting ducts to reabsorb more Na⁺ and water, thereby increasing blood volume and pressure.

iii. Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP): A large increase in blood volume and pressure stimulates atrial wall to produce atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP). ANP inhibits Na⁺ and Cl^– reabsorption from collecting ducts inhibits release of renin, reduces aldosterone and ADH release too. This leads to a condition called Natriuresis (increased excretion of Na⁺ in urine) and diuresis.

Question (E).

Answer:

1. When renal function of a person falls below 5 – 7 %, accumulation of harmful substances in blood begins. In such a condition the person has to go for artificial means of filtration of blood i.e. haemodialysis.
2. In haemodialysis, a dialysis machine is used to filter blood. The blood is filtered outside the body using a dialysis unit.
3. In this procedure, the patients’ blood is removed; generally from the radial artery and passed through a cellophane tube that acts as a semipermeable membrane.
4. The tube is immersed in a fluid called dialysate which is isosmotic to normal blood plasma. Hence, only excess salts if present in plasma pass through the cellophane tube into the dialysate.
5. Waste substances being absent in the dialysate, move from blood into the dialyzing fluid.
6. Filtered blood is returned to vein.
7. In this process it is essential that anticoagulant like heparin is added to the blood while it passing through the tube and before resending it into the circulation, adequate amount of anti-heparin is mixed.
8. Also, the blood has to move slowly through the tube and hence the process is slow.

Question 6.
Prove that mammalian urine contains urea.
Answer:

1. Urea is a nitrogenous waste formed by breakdown of protein (deamination of amino acids).
2. During this process, amino groups are removed from the amino acids present in the proteins and converted to highly toxic ammonia. The ammonia is finally converted to area through ornithine cycle. Thus, the urea formed is passed to kidneys and excreted out of the body through urine.
3. Reabsorption of urea (proximal tubule, collecting ducts) and active secretion of urea (Henle loop) leads to a urea circulation (urea recycling) between the lumen of the nephron and renal medulla, which is an important element of the renal urine concentration.
4. About 54 g of urea is filtered per day in the glomerular capsule, of which approximately 30 g is excreted in the urine and 24 g is reabsorbed into blood (assuming GFR is 180 litres/day).
5. Urinalysis can help detect the amount of urea in urine (Urine urea nitrogen test, urease test, etc.).

Practical / Project :

Visit to a nearby hospital or pathological laboratory and collect detailed information about different blood and urine tests.
Answer:
Testing the urine is known as urinalysis. It generally has three parts:

1. Visual examination: Check sample colour and clearness.
2. Dipstick examination: Checks for abnormal amounts of glucose, protein, etc.
3. Microscopic examination: Check for presence of RBCs. WBCs, bacteria, crystals, etc.
4. Apart from routine urine examination, specific tests may also be done. They are as follows:
   • BUN (Blood Urea Nitrogen) Test: It measures the amount of nitrogen in blood and evaluates kidney function.
   • Urease Test/ Urea Nitrogen Test: It is done to check the amount of urea in urine sample.
   • Urine albumin to creatine ratio (UACR) test: Estimates the amount of albumin in urine.

[Students are expected to collect more information and perform the given activity on their own]

12th Biology Digest Chapter 15 Excretion and Osmoregulation Intext Questions and Answers

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 174)

Question 1.
Why are various waste products produced in the body of an organism?
Answer:
Metabolism produces a variety of by-products, some of which need to be eliminated. Such by-produçts are called metabolic waste products.

Question 2.
How are these waste eliminated?
Answer:
Depending on the type of waste product, they are eliminated through various organs of the body:

The various excretory products produced by the human body are as follows:

1. Fluids such as water; gaseous wastes like CO₂ nitrogenous wastes like ammonia, urea and uric acid, creatinine; minerals; salts of sodium, potassium. calcium, etc. if present in body in excess are excreted through urine, faeces and sweat.
2. Pigments formed due to breakdown of haemoglobin like bilirubin (excreted through faeces) and urochrome (eliminated through urine).
3. The pigments present in consumed foodstuffs like beet root or excess of vitamins, hormones and drugs.
4. Volatile substances present in spices (eliminated through lungs).

Have you ever observed? (Textbook Page No. 174)

Question 1.
When does urine appear deeply coloured?
Answer:
Urine can appear deeply coloured due to various reasons:

• Severe dehydration resulting in production of concentrated urine.
• Consumption of foodstuff like beet root, which contain coloured pigments.
• Some medications can also cause the urine to appear deeply coloured.

Think about it. (Textbook Page No. 174)

Question 1.
Do organisms differ in type of metabolic wastes they produce?
Answer:
Yes, organisms differ in the type of metabolic wastes they produce. Some organisms excrete ammonia while some excrete urea or uric acid as metabolic wastes.

Question 2.
Do environment or evolution have any effect on type of waste produced by an organism?
Answer:

• The theory of evolution proposes that life started in an aquatic environment.
• Aquatic organisms are generally ammonotelic. It is believed that the urea cycle evolved to adapt to a changing environment when terrestrial life forms evolved.
• Arid conditions probably led to the evolution of the uric acid pathway as a means of conserving water.
• However, the correlation between evolution and type of waste production is uncertain.

Question 3.
How do thermoregulation and food habits affect saste production?
Answer:

1. To generate heat. endotherms convert the food that they eat into energy through a process called metabolism. Hence, they consume more tì.od in order to meet their energy requirements.
2. Also, carnivorous diet contains more proteins than herbivores.
3. Consumption of high protein or more food containing proteins can result in production of large amount of nitrogenous waste
4. These animals would also require more energy to eliminate the high levels oF nitrogenous wastes which build up when animal protein is digested.

Use your brain power. (Textbookpage No. 175)

Question 1.
Why ammonia is highly toxic?
Answer:

1. Ammonia is basic in nature and its retention in the body would disturb the pH of the body.
2. An increase in pH would disturb all enzyme catalysed reactions in the body and also make the plasma membrane unstable.

Hence, ammonia is highly toxic to the body.

Find out. (Textbook page No. 175)

You will study about a type of arthritis called gouty arthritis caused due to accumulation of uric acid in joints. Where does uric acid come from in case of ureotelic human beings?
Answer:

1. Uric acid produced as a waste product during the normal breakdown of nucleic acids (purines) and certain naturally occurring substances found in foods such as mushrooms. Mackerel, dried beans. etc.
2. This uric acid is generally excreted out along with urine.
3. If uric acid is produced in excess or not excreted, it accumulates in joints causing gouty arthritis.

Think about it. (Textbook Page No.175)

Endotherms consume more food in order to meet energy requirements. Also, carnivorous diet contains more proteins than herbivorous. Does it affect excretion of nitrogenous waste?
Answer:

1. To generate heat, endotherms convert the food that they eat into energy through a process called metabolism. Hence, they consume more food in order to meet their energy requirements.
2. Also, carnivorous diet contains more proteins than herbivores.
3. Consumption of high protein or more food containing proteins can result in production of large amount of nitrogenous waste.
4. These animals would also require more energy to eliminate the high levels of nitrogenous wastes which build up when animal protein is digested.

Observe and Discuss (Textbook Page No. 176)

Question 1.
These are blood reports of patients undergoing investigations for kidney function. What is creatinine? What is your observation and opinion about the findings? Why is it used as an index of kidney function?


Answer:
i. Creatinine:

• Plasma creatinine is produced from catabolism of creatinine phosphate during skeletal muscle contraction.
• It provides a ready source of high energy phosphate.

ii. Observations and Opinion:
Report A indicates a value of creatinine which is higher than the normal range. This would indicate impaired kidney function.
Report B indicates high fasting blood sugar and detection of sugar in the blood is known as glucosuria. High fasting blood sugar (>126 mg/dL) is usually indicative of diabetes.

iii. Creatinine used as an index of kidney function:

• Normally blood creatinine levels remain steady because the rate of production matches his excretion in urine.
• Hence, plasma creatinine is used as an index of kidney function and its level above normal is an indication of poor renal function.

Think about it. (Textbook Page No. 176)

Question 1.
During summer, we tend to produce less urine, is it so?
Answer:

1. Generally, excess water containing wastes is lost from the body in the time of urine. sweat and faeces.
2. During summer when the surrounding temperature is high. we also lose a considerable amount of water in the form of sweat.

Thus, the kidneys retain water for maintaining the concentration of body fluids and reduce the amount of water lost through urine.

Question 2.
Marine birds like Albatross spend their life on the sea. That means the water the, drink is salty. how do they manage osnioregulation then?
Answer:

1. Marine birds like Albatross have special glands called salt glands near their nostrils.
2. These glands are capable of secreting salts by active transport and help to manage osmotic balance,

[Note: The salt glands in Albatross are located in or on the skull in the area of eyes.]

Question 3.
like ectothermic and endothermic animals, do organisms differ in the way they maintain salt balance?
Answer:
Yes, organisms differ in the way they maintain salt balance.

1. Animals can be either isosmotic to the surrounding (osmoconformers or control the internal environment independent of external environment (osmoregulators).
2. Marine organisms are mostly osmoconfòrmers because their body fluids and external environment are isosmotic in nature while fresh water forms and terrestrial organisms are osmoregulators,
3. Generally, most organisms can tolerate only a narrow range of salt concentrations. Such organism are known as stenohaline organisms.
4. Organisms which are capable of handling a wide change in salinity are called euryhaline organisms.e.g. Barnacles, clams etc.

Find out. (Textbook Page No 176)

Question 1.
How do freshwater fishes and marine fishes carry out osmoregulation?
Answer:
Osmoregulation is the process of maintaining an internal concentration of salt and water in the body of fishes.

i. Freshwater fishes:
The salt concentration inside the body of freshwater fishes is higher than their surrounding water. Due to this, water enters the body due to osmosis.
If the flow of water into the body is not regulated. fishes would swell and get bigger.
To compensate this, the kidneys produce a large amount of urine,
Excretion of large amounts of urine regulates the level of water in the body hut results in the loss of salts.
Thus, in order to maintain a sufficient salt level, special cells in the gills (chloride cells) take tip ions from
the water, which are then directly transported into the blood.

ii. Marine fishes:
Since the salt content in blood of marine fishes is much lower than that of seawater, they constantly tend to lose water and build up salt.
To replace the water loss, they continually need to drink seawater.
Since their small kidney can only excrete a relatively small amount of urine, salt is additionally excreted through gills, where chloride cells work in reverse as in freshwater fishes.

Make a table. (Textbook Page No. 178)

Question 1.
The details of modes of excretion of nitrogenous wastes.
Answer:
The three main modes of excretion in animals are as follows:

i. Ammonotelism
ii. Ureotelism
iii. Uricotelism

i. Ammonotelism:

1. Elimination of nitrogenous wastes in the form of ammonia is called as ammonotelism.
2. Ammonia is basic in nature and hence it can disturb the pH of the body, if not eliminated immediately.
3. Any change in pH would disturb all enzyme catalyzed reactions in the body and would also make the plasma membrane unstable.
4. Ammonia is readily soluble in water and needs large quantity of water to dilute and reduce its toxicity.
5. This is however an energy saving mechanism of excretion and hence all animals that have plenty of water available for dilution of ammonia, excrete nitrogenous wastes in the form of ammonia.
6. Animals that follow this mode of excretion are known as ammonotelic animals.
7. 1 gm ammonia needs about 300 – 500 ml of water for elimination.
8. Ammonotelic animals excrete ammonia through general body surface (skin), gills and kidneys.
   e.g. Ammonotelism is found in aquatic invertebrates, bony fishes, and aquatic / larval amphibians. Animals without excretory system (Protozoa) are also ammonotelic.

ii. Ureotelism:

1. Elimination of nitrogenous wastes in the form of urea is called as ureotelism.
2. Urea is comparatively less toxic and less water-soluble than ammonia. Hence, it can be concentrated to some extent in body.
3. The body requires less water for elimination.
4. Since it is less toxic and less water soluble, ureotelism is suitable for animals that need to conserve water to some extent. Hence, ureotelism is common in terrestrial animals, as they have to conserve water.
5. It takes about 50 ml H₂O for removal of 1 gm NH₂ in form of urea.
6. Ureotelic animals generally convert ammonia to urea in the liver by operating ornithine / urea cycle in which 3 ATP molecules are used to produce one molecule of urea.
   e.g. Mammals, cartilaginous fishes (sharks and rays), many aquatic reptiles, most of the adult amphibians, etc. are ureotelic.

iii. Uricotelism:

1. Elimination of nitrogenous wastes in the form of uric acid is called as uricotelism.
2. Uric acid is least toxic and hence, it can be retained in the body for some time in concentrated form.
3. It is least soluble in water. Hence there is minimum (about 5 – 10 ml for 1 gm) or no need of water for its elimination.
4. Those animals which need to conserve more water follow uricotelism. However, these animals need to spend more energy.
5. Ammonia is converted into uric acid by ‘inosinic acid pathway’ in the liver of birds, e.g. Birds, some insects, many reptiles, land snails, are uricotelic.

No.	Ureotelism	Uricotelism
i.	It is the elimination of nitrogenous waste in the form of urea.	It is the elimination of nitrogenous waste in the form of uric acid.
ii.	Excretion of urea requires less (moderate ) amount of water.	Excretion of uric acid requires negligible amount of water.
iii.	Removal of 1 gm of urea requires 50 ml of water.	Removal of 1 gm of uric acid requires 5 – 10 ml of
iv.	rea is less toxic.	Uric acid is least toxic.
e.g.	It is generally seen in terrestrial animals. Mammals, cartilaginous fishes (sharks and rays), many aquatic reptiles, most adult amphibians, etc.	It is seen in birds, some insects, many reptiles, land snails, etc.

No.	Ammonotelism	Uricotelism
i.	It is the elimination of nitrogenous waste in the form of ammonia.	It is the elimination of nitrogenous waste in the form of uric acid.
ii.	Excretion of ammonia requires plenty of water.	Excretion of uric acid requires negligible amount of water.
iii.	Removal of 1 gm of ammonia requires 300 – 500 ml of water.	Removal of 1 gm of uric acid requires 10ml of water.
iv.	Ammonia is very toxic.	Uric acid is less toxic.
e.g.	It is found in aquatic invertebrates, bony fishes and aquatic/ larval amphibians, etc.	It is seen in birds, some insects, many reptiles, land snails, etc.

[Students can Refer these and make a chart on their own.]

Use your brain power. (Textbook Page No. 178)

Question 1.
Creatinine is considered as index of kidney function. Give reason.
Answer:

1. Plasma creatinine is produced from catabolism of creatinine phosphate during skeletal muscle contraction.
2. It provides a ready source of high energy phosphate.
3. Normally blood creatinine levels remain steady because the rate of production matches its excretion in urine.
4. Hence, plasma creatinine is used as an index of kidney function and its level above normal is an indication of poor renal function.

[Note: Plasma creatinine is a waste product produced by muscles from the breakdown of a compound called ‘creatine phosphate ’.]

Make a table. (Textbook Page No. 178)

Question 1.
The excretory organs found in various animal phyla.
Answer:

Sr. No.	Animal Phyla	Excretory organs
i.	Porifera	Lack excretory organ instead rely on water transport system/ Canal system
ii.	Coelenterata	Lack specialised excretory organs. Excretion takes place through simple diffusion or through the mouth.
iii.	Ctenophora	Lack specialised excretory organs
iv.	Platyhelminthes	Protonephridia or Flame cells
v.	Aschelminthes	Excretory tube and pore
vi.	Annelida	Nephridia
vii.	Arthropoda	Malpighian tubules
viii.	Mollusca	Organ of Bojanus
ix.	Echinodermata	Lack specialized excretory organs, waste materials directly diffuse into water or are excreted through tube feet
x.	Hemichordata	Proboscis gland
xi.	Chordata	Kidney

Observe and complete. (Textbook Page No. 178)

Question 1.
Label the diagram and complete following paragraphs.

i. Kidney: A pair of ____ shaped kidneys are present on either side of the ____ from 12^th thoracic to 3^rd lumbar vertebra. Kidneys are present behind ___. Hence are called retroperitoneal. Dimensions of
each kidney are 10 × ____ × ____ cms. Average weight is ___ g in males and 135 g in ____. Outer surface is ___ and inner is concave. Notch on the inner concave surface is called ___. Renal artery enters and renal vein as well as ureter leave the kidney through hilus. Each kidney has almost 1 million functional units called ___.

ii. Ureters: A pair of ureters arise from ___ of each kidney. Each ureter is a long muscular tube 25 – 30 cm in length. Ureters open into ___ by separate openings, which are not guarded by valves. They pass obliquely through the wall of urinary bladder. This helps in prevention of ___ of urine due to compression of ureters while bladder is filled.

iii. Urinary bladder: It is a median ___ sac. A hollow muscular organ, the bladder is situated in pelvic cavity posterior to pubic symphysis. At the base of the ___ there is a small inverted triangular area called trigone. At the apex of this triangle is opening of urethra. At the two points of the base of the triangle are openings of ureters. Urinary bladder is covered externally by peritoneum. Inner to peritoneum is muscular layer. It is formed by detrusor muscles which consist of three layers of smooth muscles. Longitudinal – circular – longitudinal respectively. Innermost layer is made up of transitional ___. It helps bladder to stretch.

iv. Urethra: It is a ___ structure arising from urinary bladder and opening to the exterior of the body.
There are ___ urethral sphincters between urinary bladder and urethra.
a. Internal sphincter: Made up of ___ muscles, involuntary in nature.
b. External sphincter: Made up of ___ muscles, voluntary in nature.
Answer:

i. Kidney: A pair of bean shaped kidneys are present on either side of the backbone from 12^th thoracic to 3^rd lumbar vertebra. Kidneys are present behind peritoneum. Hence are called retroperitoneal. Dimensions of each kidney are 10 × 5 × 4 cms. Average weight is 150 g in males and 135 g in females. Outer surface is convex and inner is concave. Notch on the inner concave surface is called hilum. Renal artery enters and renal vein as well as ureter leave the kidney through hilus. Each kidney has almost 1 million functional units called nephron.

ii. Ureters: A pair of ureters arise from hilum of each kidney. Each ureter is a long muscular tube 25 – 30 cm in length. Ureters open into urinary bladder by separate openings, which are not guarded by valves. They pass obliquely through the wall of urinary bladder. This helps in prevention of backward flow of urine due to compression of ureters while bladder is filled.

iii. Urinary bladder: It is a median pear-shaped sac. A hollow muscular organ, the bladder is situated in pelvic cavity posterior to pubic symphysis. At the base of the urinary bladder there is a small inverted triangular area called trigone. At the apex of this triangle is opening of urethra. At the two points of the base of the triangle are openings of ureters. Urinary bladder is covered externally by peritoneum. Inner to peritoneum is muscular layer. It is formed by detrusor muscles which consist of three layers of smooth muscles. Longitudinal – circular – longitudinal respectively. Innermost layer is made up of transitional epithelial tissue. It helps bladder to stretch.

iv. Urethra: It is a fibromuscular tube-like structure arising from urinary bladder and opening to the exterior of the body. There are two urethral sphincters between urinary bladder and urethra.
a. Internal sphincter: Made up of detrusor muscles, involuntary in nature.
b. External sphincter: Made up of striated muscles, voluntary in nature.
If this valve is not functioning properly during inflammation of bladder, it can lead to kidney infection.

Internet is my friend. (Textbook Page No. 179)

Question 1.
Find out what is floating kidney.
Answer:

1. Floating kidney or nephroptosis, is an inferior displacement or dropping of the kidney.
2. This condition occurs when the kidney slips from its normal position because it is not held securely in place by the adjacent organs or its fat covering.
3. It generally develops in extremely thin people whose adipose capsule or renal fascia is deficient.
4. It may result in twisting of the ureter and cause blockage of urine flow. The resulting backup of urine would put pressure on the kidney and damage the tissues.
5. Twisting of the ureter may also cause pain and discomfort.
6. This condition is more common in females than males and happens commonly among one in four people.
7. Weakening of the fibrous bands that hold the kidney in place can predispose to floating kidney.

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 179)

Question 1.
Observe the figure carefully and label various regions of L.S. of kidney.

Answer:

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No.182)

Question 1.
Why are kidneys called ‘retroperitoneal’?
Answer:
Kidneys are located in abdomen. Kidneys are not surrounded by peritoneum instead they are located posterior to it. Thus, kidneys are called retroperitoneal.

Question 2.
Why urinary tract infections are more common in females than males?
Answer:

• The urethra in women (4 cm) is much shorter than that of males (20 cm).
• This allows easy passage of bacteria into the urinary bladder.

Hence, urinary tract infections are more common in females than males.

Question 3.
What is nephron? Which are its main parts? Why are they important?
Answer:
Nephron is the structural and functional unit of kidney.
Structure of nephron:
A nephron (uriniferous tubule) is a thin walled, coiled duct, lined by a single layer of epithelial cells. Each nephron is divided into two main parts:

i. Malpighian body
ii. Renal tubule

i. Malpighian body: Each Malpighian body is about 200pm in diameter and consists of a Bowman’s capsule and glomerulus.

a. Glomerulus:
Glomerulus is a bunch of fine blood capillaries located in the cavity of Bowman’s capsule.
A small terminal branch of the renal artery, called as afferent arteriole enters the cup cavity (Bowman capsule) and undergoes extensive fine branching to form network of several capillaries. This bunch is called as glomerulus.
The capillary wall is fenestrated (perforated).

All capillaries reunite and form an efferent arteriole that leaves the cup cavity.
The diameter of the afferent arteriole is greater than the efferent arteriole. This creates a high hydrostatic pressure essential for ultrafiltration, in the glomerulus.

b. Bowman’s capsule:
It is a cup-like structure having double walls composed of squamous epithelium.
The outer wall is called as parietal wall and the inner wall is called as visceral wall.
The parietal wall is thin consisting of simple squamous epithelium.
There is a space called as capsular space / urinary space in between two walls.
Visceral wall consists of special type of squamous cells called podocytes having a foot-like pedicel. These podocytes are in close contact with the walls of capillaries of glomerulus.
There are small slits called as filtration slits in between adjacent podocytes.

ii. Renal tubule:

a. Neck:
The Bowman’s capsule continues into the neck. The wall of neck is made up of ciliated epithelium. The lumen of the neck is called the urinary pole. The neck leads to proximal convoluted tubule.

b. Proximal Convoluted Tubule :
This is highly coiled part of nephron which is lined by cuboidal cells with brush border (microvilli) and surrounded by peritubular capillaries. Selective reabsorption occurs in PCT. Due to convolutions (coiling), filtrate flows slowly and remains in the PCT for longer duration, ensuring that maximum amount of useful molecules are reabsorbed.

c. Loop of Henle :
This is ‘U’ shaped tube consisting of descending and ascending limb.
The descending limb is thin walled and permeable to water and lined with simple squamous epithelium.
The ascending limb is thick walled and impermeable to water and is lined with simple cuboidal epithelium.
The LoH is surrounded by capillaries called vasa recta.
Its function is to operate counter current system – a mechanism for osmoregulation.
The ascending limb of Henle’s loop leads to DCT.

d. Distal convoluted tubule:
This is another coiled part of the nephron.
Its wall consists of simple cuboidal epithelium.
DCT performs tubular secretion / augmentation / active secretion in which, wastes are taken up from surrounding capillaries and secreted into passing urine.
DCT helps in water reabsorption and regulation of pH of body fluids.

e. Collecting tubule:
This is a short, straight part of the DCT which reabsorbs water and secretes protons.
The collecting tubule opens into the collecting duct.

Think about ¡t. (Textbook Page No. 182)

Question 1.
How much blood ¡s supplied to kidney?
Answer:
Around 600 ml of blood passes through each kidney per minute.

Do this. (Textbook Page No. 183)

Question 1.
Check blood reports of patients and comment about possibility of glucosuria.
Answer:
Glucosuria is the presence of glucose sugar in urine. High glucose in urine is usually indicative of diabetes mellitus.

Condition	Glucose range in urine
Normal	0 to 15 mg/dL (0 to 0.8 mmol/L)
Prediabetes	100 to 125 mg/dL (5.6 to 6.9 mmol/L)
Diabetes	126 mg/dL (7 mmol/L)

[Students can get access to sample reports on the internet and refer the above table to comment on blood reports of patients on their own.]

Use your brain power. (Textbook Page No. 185)

Question 1.
In which regions of nephron the filtrate will he isotonic to blood?
Answer:
Filtrate leasing the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) is isotonic to the blood plasma.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 185)

Question 1.
Explain the process of urine formation in details.
Answer:
Process of urine formation is completed in three steps, namely;

i. Ultrafiltration/ Glomerular filtration,
ii. Selective reabsorption,
iii. Tubular secretion / Augmentation

i. Ultrafiltration / Glomerular filtration :
Diameter of afferent arteriole is greater than the efferent arteriole. The diameter of capillaries is still smaller than both arterioles. Due to the difference in diameter, blood flows with greater pressure through the glomerulus. This is called as glomerular hydrostatic pressure (GHP) and normally, it is about 55 mmHg. GIIP is opposed by osmotic pressure of blood (normally, about 30 mm Hg) and capsular pressure (normally, about 15 mm Hg).

Hence net / effective filtration pressure (EFP) is 10 mm Hg.
EFP = Hydrostatic pressure in glomerulus – (Osmotic pressure of blood + Filtrate Hydrostatic pressure)
= 55 – (30 + 15)
= 10 mm Hg

Under the effect of high pressure, the thin walls of the capillary become permeable to major components of blood (except blood cells and macromolecules like protein).
Thus, plasma except proteins oozes out through wall of capillaries.
About 600 ml blood passes through each kidney per minute.

The blood (plasma) flowing through kidney (glomeruli) is filtered as glomerular filtrate, at a rate of 125 ml / min. (180 L/d).
Glomerular filtrate / deproteinized plasma / primary urine is alkaline, contains urea, amino acids, glucose, pigments, and inorganic ions.
Glomerular filtrate passes through filtration slits into capsular space and then reaches the proximal convoluted tubule.

ii. Selective reabsorption :
Selective reabsorption occurs in proximal convoluted tubule (PCT). It is highly coiled so that glomerular filtrate passes through it very slowly. Columnar cells of PCT are provided with microvilli due to which absorptive area increases enormously.
This makes the process of reabsorption very effective.
These cells perform active (ATP mediated) and passive (simple diffusion) reabsorption.

Substances with considerable importance (high threshold) like – glucose, amino acids, vitamin C, Ca⁺⁺, K⁺, Na⁺, Cl^– are absorbed actively, against the concentration gradient. Low threshold substances like water, sulphates, nitrates, etc., are absorbed passively.
In this way, about 99% of glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed in PCT and DCT.

iii. Tubular secretion / Augmentation :
Finally filtrate reaches the distal convoluted tubule via loop of Henle. Peritubular capillaries surround DCT. Cells of distal convoluted tubule and collecting tubule actively absorb the wastes like creatinine and ions like K⁺, H⁺ from peritubular capillaries and secrete them into the lumen of DCT and CT, thereby augmenting the concentration of urine and changing its pH from alkaline to acidic.
Secretion of H⁺ ions in DCT and CT is an important homeostatic mechanism for pH regulation of blood. Tubular secretion is the only process of excretion in marine bony fishes and desert amphibians.

Question 2.
How does counter current mechanism help concentration of urine?
Answer:
Under the conditions like low water intake or high water loss due to sweating, humans can produce concentrated urine. This urine can be concentrated around four times i.e. 1200 mOsm/L than the blood (300 mOsm/L). Hence, a mechanism called countercurrent mechanism is operated in the human kidneys. The countercurrent mechanism operating in the Limbs of Henle’s loop of juxtamedullary nephrons and vasa recta is as follows:

1. It involves the passage of fluid from descending to ascending limb of Henle’s loop.
2. This mechanism is called countercurrent mechanism, since the flow of tubular fluid is in opposite direction through both limbs.
3. In case of the vasa recta, blood flows from ascending to descending parts of itself.
4. Wall of descending limb is thin and permeable to water, hence, water diffuses from tubular fluid into tissue fluid due to which, tubular fluid becomes concentrated.
5. The ascending limb is thick and impermeable to water. Its cells can reabsorb Na⁺ and Cl^– from tubular fluid and release into tissue fluid.
6. Due to this, tissue fluid around descending limb becomes concentrated. This makes more water to move out from descending limb into tissue fluid by osmosis.
7. Thus, as tubular fluid passes down through descending limb, its osmolarity (concentration) increases gradually due to water loss and on the other hand, progressively decreases due to Na⁺ and Cl^– secretion as it flows up through ascending limb.
8. Whenever retention of water is necessary, the pituitary secretes ADH. ADH makes the cells in the wall of collecting ducts permeable to water.
9. Due to this, water moves from tubular fluid into tissue fluid, making the urine concentrated.
10. Cells in the wall of deep medullar part of collecting ducts are permeable to urea. As concentrated urine flows through it, urea diffuses from urine into tissue fluid and from tissue fluid into the tubular fluid flowing through thin ascending limb of Henle’s loop.
11. This urea cannot pass out from tubular fluid while flowing through thick segment of ascending limb, DCT and cortical portion of collecting duct due to impermeability for it in these regions.
12. However, while flowing through collecting duct, water reabsorption is operated under the influence of ADII. Due to this, urea concentration increases in the tubular fluid and same urea again diffuses into tissue fluid in deep medullar region.
13.  Thus, same urea is transferred between segments of renal tubule and tissue fluid of inner medulla. This is called urea recycling; operated for more and more water reabsorption from tubular fluid and thereby excreting small volumes of concentrated urine.
14. Osmotic gradient is essential in the renal medulla for water reabsorption by counter current multiplier system.
15. This osmotic gradient is maintained by vasa recta by operating counter current exchange system.
16. Vasa recta also have descending and ascending limbs. Blood that enters the descending limb of the vasa recta has normal osmolarity of about 300 mOsm/L.
17.  As it flows down in the region of renal medulla where tissue fluid becomes increasingly concentrated, Na⁺, Cl^– and urea molecules diffuse from tissue fluid into blood and water diffuse from blood into tissue fluid.
18. Due to this, blood becomes more concentrated which now flows through ascending part of vasa recta. This part runs through such region of medulla where tissue fluid is less concentrated.
19. Due to this, Na⁺, Cl^– and urea molecules diffuse from blood to tissue fluid and water from tissue fluid to blood. This mechanism helps to maintain the osmotic gradient.
    

Try this. (Textbook Page No. 185)

Question 1.
Read the given urine report and prepare a note on composition of normal urine.

Answer:
The composition of normal urine is as follows:

1. A volume of 1 – 2 litres of urine in 24 hours is normal. This volume can however vary considerably as it depends on fluid intake, physical activity, temperature, etc.
2. The colour of normal urine is generally pale yellow due to urochrome (pigment produced by breakdown of bile). The colour of urine may vary slightly due to urochrome concentration and diet.
3. The appearance of urine is generally clear and transparent.
4. Any form of deposits (sediments/ crystals) is generally absent in normal urine.
5. The pH of normal urine is acidic and is generally around 6.0 (Range: 4.6 to 8.0). The pH varies considerably with the diet of a person.
6. The specific gravity of urine is an average of 1.02 ( Range : 1.001 to 1.035).
7. Albumin, sugar, bile salts bile pigments, ketone bodies and casts are absent in normal urine.
8. Occult blood is generally not seen in normal urine.

Think (Textbook Page No. 185)

Question 1.
What would happen if ADH secretion decreases due to any reason?
Answer:
In absence of ADH, diuresis (dilution of urine) takes place and person tends to excrete large amount of dilute urine. This condition called as diabetes insipidus. Frequent excretion of large amount of dilute urine may cause a person to feel thirsty.

Think and appreciate. (Textbook Page No. 185)

Question 1.
How do kidneys bring about homeostasis? Is there any role of neuro endocrine system in it?
Answer:
The composition of urine depends upon food and fluid consumed by an individual. There are two ways in which it the composition is regulated. They are as follows:

i. Regulating water reabsorption through ADH
ii. Electrolyte reabsorption though RAAS
iii. Atrial Natriuretic Peptide

i. Regulating water reabsorption through ADH:
Hypothalamus in the midbrain has special receptors called osmoreceptors which can detect change in osmolarity (measure of total number of dissolved particles per liter of solution) of blood.
If osmolarity of blood increases due to water loss from the body (after eating namkeen or due to sweating), osmoreceptors trigger release of Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) from neurohypophysis (posterior pituitary). ADH stimulates reabsorption of water from last part of DCT and entire collecting duct by increasing the permeability of cells.

This leads to reduction in urine volume and decrease in osmolarity of blood.
Once the osmolarity of blood comes to normal, activity of osmoreceptor cells decreases leading to decrease in ADH secretion. This is called negative feedback.
In case of hemorrhage or severe dehydration too, osmoreceptors stimulate ADH secretion. ADH is important in regulating water balance through kidneys.

In absence of ADH, diuresis (dilution of urine) takes place and person tends to excrete large amount of dilute urine. This condition called as diabetes insipidus.
[Note: Hypothalamus is a part of forebrain]

ii. Electrolyte reabsorption through RAAS:
Another regulatory mechanism is RAAS (Renin Angiotensin Aldosterone System) by Juxta Glomerular Apparatus (JGA).
Whenever blood supply (due to change in blood pressure or blood volume) to afferent arteriole decreases (e.g. low BP/dehydration), JGA cells release Renin. Renin converts angiotensinogen secreted by hepatocytes in liver to Angiotensin I. ‘Angiotensin converting enzyme’ further modifies Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II, the active form of hormone. It stimulates adrenal cortex to release another hormone called aldosterone that stimulates DCT and collecting ducts to reabsorb more Na and water, thereby increasing blood volume and pressure.

iii. Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP): A large increase in blood volume and pressure stimulates atrial wall to produce atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP). ANP inhibits Na⁺ and Cl^– reabsorption from collecting ducts inhibits release of renin, reduces aldosterone and ADH release too. This leads to a condition called Natriuresis (increased excretion of Na⁺ in urine) and diuresis.

No. Both ADH and RAAS are essential for homeostasis.

1. Only ADH can lower blood Na⁺ concentration by way of water reabsorption in DCI and collecting duct. whereas RAAS stimulates Na⁺ reabsorption and maintains osmolarity of body fluid.
2. Action of ADH and RAAS leads to increase in blood volume and osmolarity.
3. For mechanism of Atrial natriuretic peptide:

Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP): A large increase in blood volume and pressure stimulates atrial wall to produce atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP). ANP inhibits Na⁺ and Cl^– reabsorption from collecting ducts inhibits release of renin, reduces aldosterone and ADH release too. This leads to a condition called Natriuresis (increased excretion of Na⁺ in urine) and diuresis.

ADH is produced by the hypothalamus and is stored and released by the posterior pituitary or the neurohypophysis in response to appropriate trigger. Hence, there is a role of the neuroendocrine system in homeostasis.

Use your brain power. (Textbook Page No. 186)

Question 1.
Can we use this knowledge in treatment of high blood pressure? Why high BP medicines are many a times diuretics?
Answer:

1. Yes, the knowledge of homoeostasis is used in the treatment of high blood pressure.
2. Some commonly used theories for treatment of high blood pressure are as follows:
   • Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs) are used as medications to treat high blood pressure. These medications block the action of angiotensin II by preventing angiotensin II from binding to angiotensin II receptors on the muscles surrounding blood vessels. As a result, blood vessels enlarge (dilate), and blood pressure is reduced.
   • Another method is the use of ‘Angiotensin converting enzyme’ ACE blockers. These inhibitors inhibit activity of ACE and therefore decrease the production of angiotensin II. As a result, these medications cause the blood vessels to enlarge or dilate, and this reduces blood pressure.
3. Vasodilation reduces arterial pressure. Reduced angiotensin II leads to natriuresis (increased excretion of Na⁺ in urine) and diuresis, thereby reducing blood pressure.
4. Too much salt can cause extra fluid to build up in the blood vessels, raising blood pressure. Diuretics are substances that slow renal absorption of water and thereby cause diuresis (elevated urine flow rate) which in turn reduces blood volume and blood pressure by flushing out salt and extra fluid. Hence, high BP medicines are many a times diuretics.

Can you tell? (Textbook page no. 186)
How do skin and lungs help in excretion?
OR
Can you tell? (Textbook page no. 187)
Explain role of lungs and skin in excretion.
Answer:
Yes, various organs other than the kidney participate in excretion. They are as follows:

i. Skin:

Skin acts as an accessory excretory organ. The skin of many organisms is thin and permeable. It helps in diffusion of waste products like ammonia.
Human skin however is thick and impermeable. It shows presence of two types of glands namely, sweat glands and sebaceous glands.

• Sweat glands are distributed all over the skin. They are abundant in the palm and facial regions.
  These simple, unbranched, coiled, tubular glands open on the surface of the skin through an opening called sweat pore. Sweat is primarily produced for thermoregulation but it also excretes substances like water, NaCl, lactic acid and urea.
• Sebaceous glands are present at the neck of hair follicles. They secrete oily substance called sebum.
  It forms a lubricating layer on skin making it softer. It protects skin from infection and injury.

ii. Lungs:

Lungs are the accessory excretory organs. They help in excretion of volatile substances like CO₂ and water vapour produced during cellular respiration. Along with CO₂, lungs also remove excess of H₂O in the form of vapours during expiration. They also excrete volatile substances present in spices and other food stuff.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 187)

Question 1.
When does kidney produce renin? Where is it produced in kidney?
Answer:
Kidney produces renin whenever blood supply (due to change in blood pressure or blood volume) to afferent arteriole decreases (e.g. low BP/dehydration).
The juxtaglomerular Apparatus (JGA) cells secrete renin.

Question 2.
Explain how electrolyte balance of blood plasma maintained.
Answer:
The composition of urine depends upon food and fluid consumed by an individual. There are two ways in which it the composition is regulated. They are as follows:

i. Regulating water reabsorption through ADH
ii. Electrolyte reabsorption though RAAS
iii. Atrial Natriuretic Peptide

i. Regulating water reabsorption through ADH:
Hypothalamus in the midbrain has special receptors called osmoreceptors which can detect change in osmolarity (measure of total number of dissolved particles per liter of solution) of blood.

If osmolarity of blood increases due to water loss from the body (after eating namkeen or due to sweating), osmoreceptors trigger release of Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) from neurohypophysis (posterior pituitary). ADH stimulates reabsorption of water from last part of DCT and entire collecting duct by increasing the permeability of cells.

This leads to reduction in urine volume and decrease in osmolarity of blood.
Once the osmolarity of blood comes to normal, activity of osmoreceptor cells decreases leading to decrease in ADH secretion. This is called negative feedback.
In case of hemorrhage or severe dehydration too, osmoreceptors stimulate ADH secretion. ADH is important in regulating water balance through kidneys.

In absence of ADH, diuresis (dilution of urine) takes place and person tends to excrete large amount of dilute urine. This condition called as diabetes insipidus.
[Note: Hypothalamus is a part of forebrain]

ii. Electrolyte reabsorption through RAAS:
Another regulatory mechanism is RAAS (Renin Angiotensin Aldosterone System) by Juxta Glomerular Apparatus (JGA).

Whenever blood supply (due to change in blood pressure or blood volume) to afferent arteriole decreases (e.g. low BP/dehydration), JGA cells release Renin. Renin converts angiotensinogen secreted by hepatocytes in liver to Angiotensin I. ‘Angiotensin converting enzyme’ further modifies Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II, the active form of hormone. It stimulates adrenal cortex to release another hormone called aldosterone that stimulates DCT and collecting ducts to reabsorb more Na and water, thereby increasing blood volume and pressure.

iii. Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP): A large increase in blood volume and pressure stimulates atrial wall to produce atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP). ANP inhibits Na⁺ and Cl^– reabsorption from collecting ducts inhibits release of renin, reduces aldosterone and ADH release too. This leads to a condition called Natriuresis (increased excretion of Na⁺ in urine) and diuresis.

No. Both ADH and RAAS are essential for homeostasis.

1. Only ADH can lower blood Na⁺ concentration by way of water reabsorption in DCI and collecting duct. whereas RAAS stimulates Na⁺ reabsorption and maintains osmolarity of body fluid.
2. Action of ADH and RAAS leads to increase in blood volume and osmolarity.
3. For mechanism of Atrial natriuretic peptide:

Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP): A large increase in blood volume and pressure stimulates atrial wall to produce atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP). ANP inhibits Na⁺ and Cl^– reabsorption from collecting ducts inhibits release of renin, reduces aldosterone and ADH release too. This leads to a condition called Natriuresis (increased excretion of Na⁺ in urine) and diuresis.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 187)

Question 1.
What is the composition of sweat?
Answer:
Sweat is composed of water, NaCl, lactic acid and urea.

Internet my friend. (Textbook Page No. 189)

Question 1.
Treatments other than surgical removal of kidney stone like Lithotripsy. (Breaking down of kidney stones using shock waves).
Answer:
a. Cystoscopy and ureteroscopy:
During cystoscopy, the doctor uses a cystoscope to look inside the urethra and bladder to find a stone in the urethra or bladder.
During ureteroscopy, the doctor uses a ureteroscope, which is longer and thinner than a cystoscope, to see detailed images of the lining of the ureters and kidneys.

The doctor inserts the cystoscope or ureteroscope through the urethra to see the rest of the urinary tract. Once the stone is found, the doctor can remove it or break it into smaller pieces.
The doctor performs these procedures in the hospital with anesthesia.

b. Percutaneous nephrolithotomy:
The doctor uses a thin viewing tool, called a nephroscope, to locate and remove the kidney stone.
The doctor inserts the tool directly into your kidney through a small cut made in your back.
For larger kidney stones, the doctor also may use a laser to break the kidney stones into small pieces. The doctor performs percutaneous nephrolithotomy in a hospital with anesthesia.

c. Generally for smaller stones doctors recommend drinking lots of water, consuming pain relievers and consuming medicines like alpha blocker to relax the ureter muscles, and help pass the kidney stones more quickly and with less pain

[Students are expected to find more information using the internet.]

Question 2.
Dietary restrictions suggested for kidney patients.
Dietary restrictions for kidney patients include the following:

1. Drinking large amounts of water.
2. Reduce consumption of oxalate rich food like rhubarb, beets, okra, spinach, Swiss chard, sweet potatoes, nuts, tea, chocolate and soy products.
3. Follow a diet low in salt and animal protein.
4. Reduce consumption of calcium supplements (if any) but consume appropriate amount of calcium in food.

[Students are expected to find more information using the internet.]

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Biology Textbook Solutions Chapter 3 Kingdom Plantae Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Kingdom Plantae

1. Choose the correct option.

Question (A)
Which is the dominant phase in Pteridophytes?
(a) Capsule
(b) Gametophyte
(c) Sporophyte
(d) Embryo
Answer:
(c) Sporophyte

Question (B)
The tallest living gymnosperm among the following is
(a) Sequoia sempervirens
(b) Taxodium mucronatum
(c) Zamia pygmaea
(d) Ginkgo biloba
Answer:
(a) Sequoia sempervirens

Question (C)
In Bryophytes
(a) sporophyte and gametophyte generation are independent
(b) sporophyte is partially dependent upon gametophyte
(c) gametophyte is dependent upon sporophyte
(d) inconspicuous gametophyte
Answer:
(b) sporophyte is partially dependent upon gametophyte

Question (D)
A characteristic of Angiosperm is
(a) Collateral vascular bundles
(b) Radial vascular bundles
(c) Seed formation
(d) Double fertilization
Answer:
(d) Double fertilization

Question (E)
Angiosperms differ from gymnosperms in having
(a) Vessels in wood
(b) Mode of nutrition
(c) Siphonogamy
(d) Enclosed seed
Answer:
Both (a) Monocotyledons and (d) Enclosed seed

Question 2.
How you place the pea, jowar and fern at its proper systematic position? Draw a flow chart.
Answer:

Question 3.
Complete the following table.

Groups of algae	Chlorophyceae	Phaeophyccac	Rhodophyceae
1. Stored food	Starch
2. Cell wall	—	Cellulose and algin
3. Major pigments	—		Chl-a, d and phycoerythrin

Answer:

Groups of algae	Chlorophyceae	Phaeophyccac	Rhodophyceae
1. Stored food	Starch	Mannitol, laminarin	Floridean starch
2. Cell wall	Cellulose	Cellulose and algin	Cellulose, pectin
3. Major pigments	Chl-a, b	Chl-a, c, fucoxanthin	Chl-a, d and phycoerythrin

Question 4.
Differentiate between Dicotyledonae and Monocotyledonae based on the following characters:
a. Type of roots
b. Venation in the leaves
c. Symmetry of flower
Answer:

Characters	Dicotyledonae	Monocotyledonae
1. Type of roots	Taproots	Fibrous roots
2. Venation in the leaves	Reticulate venation	Parallel venation
3. Symmetry of flower	Tetramerous or Pentamerous symmetry	Trimerous symmetry

Characters Dicotyledonae Monocotyledonae
1. Type of roots Tap roots Fibrous roots
2. V enation in the leaves Reticulate venation Parallel venation
3. Symmetry of flower Tetramerous or Pentamerous symmetry Trimerous symmetry

5. Answer the following questions.

Question (A)
We observe that land becomes barren soon after monsoon. But in the next monsoon it flourishes again with varieties we observed in season earlier. How you think it takes place?
Answer:

1. After monsoon, plants like mosses (bryophytes), ferns (pteridophytes), small herbaceous plants, etc become dry, due to which land becomes barren.
2. However, spores of bryophytes, pteridophytes and seeds of herbaceous plants, grass remain in barren land.
3. During next monsoon, these spores and seeds germinate due to availability of water and other favourable conditions.
4. Bryophytes and pteridophytes require water for reproduction. Hence they flourish during monsoon season.
5. Along with bryophytes and pteridophytes varieties of higher plants like grasses, some seasonal herbs or shrubs grow on barren land during monsoon due to favourable conditions.

Question (B)
Fern is a vascular plant. Yet it is not considered a Phanerogams. Why?
Answer:

1. Fern belongs to sub-kingdom Cryptogamae.
2. Cryptogams produce spores but do not produce seeds.
3. Also, in cryptogams the sex organs are concealed.
4. Phanerogams are seed producing plants and their sex organs are visible.
5. Hence, fern is a vascular plant. Yet it is not considered a Phanerogams.

Question (C)
Chlamydomonas is microscopic whereas Sargassum is macroscopic; both are algae. Which characters of these plants includes them in one group?
Answer:

1.  Both Chlamydomonas and Sargassum belong to division Thallophyta.
2. Members of Thallophyta range from unicellular (e.g. Chlamydomonas) to multicellular (e.g. Sargassum).
3. Both are aquatic plants containing photosynthetic pigments.
4. In both Chlamydomonas and Sargassum plant body is not differentiated into root, stem and leaves.
5. The stored food is mainly in the form of starch and its other forms.
6. Cell wall is made up of cellulose and other components. Due to these characters, both Chlamydomonas and Sargassum are included in one group i.e. Thallophyta.

Question 6.
Girth of a maize plant does not increase over a period of time. Justify.
Answer:

1. Maize plant belongs to class monocotyledonae.
2. In monocotyledonous plants, vascular bundles are closed type.
3. Thus, cambium is absent between xylem and phloem, due to which secondary growth does not occur in these plants.
4. Increase in girth of a stem occurs by secondary growth. Thus, girth of a maize plant does not increase over a period of time.

Question 7.
Radha observed a plant in rainy season on the compound wall of her school. The plant did not have true roots but root like structures were present. Vascular tissue was absent. To which group the plant may belong?
Answer:
The plant observed by Radha belongs may belong to division Bryophyta, as it shows root like structures i.e. rhizoids and absence of vascular tissue.

8. Draw neat labelled diagrams

Question 1.
Draw neat and labelled diagram of:
(A) Spirogyra
(B) Chlamydomonas
Answer:

Question (C)
Draw neat and labelled diagram of Funaria.
Answer:

Question (D)
Draw neat and labelled diagram of Nephrolepis.
Answer:

[Note: Frond: Fern leaf, originating from rhizome. It consists of blade and petiole, Blade: Main part of the frond which is rich in chlorophyll]

Question (E)
Draw neat and labelled diagram of Haplontic and Haplo-diplontic life cycle.
Answer:

Question 9.
Identify the plant groups on the basis of following features:
A. Seed producing plants
B. Spore producing plants
C. Plant body undifferentiated into root, stem and leaves
D. Plant needs water for fertilization
E. First vascular plants
Answer:
1. Phanerogams (Angiospermae and Gymnospermae)
2. Cryptogams (Thallophyta, Bryophyta and Pteridophyta)
3. Thallophyta, Bryophyta
4. Thallophyta, Bryophyta, Pteridophyta
5. Pteridophytes

Practical/Project:

Question 1.
Study the Nephrolepis plant in detail.
Answer:

1. Nephrolepis belongs to division pteridophyta.
2. They grow abundantly in cool, shady, moist places.
3. Roots are adventitious (fibrous) growing from the underground stem.
4. Leaves are well developed on the stem (Rhizome).
5. They show presence of well-developed conducting system for transportation of water and food.
6. They reproduce asexually by spores produced within sporangia, which are present in sori. These sori are located along the posterior surface of leaflets.
7. These plants have neither fruits nor flowers.
8. Some ferms are used as food, medicine or as ornamental plants.

Question 2.
Study the coralloid roots, scale leaf and megasporophyll of Cycas in detail.
Answer:
1. Coralloid roots of Cycas:
Coralloid roots of Cycas show association with blue green algae for nitrogen fixation.
Coralloid roots are coral-like, dichotomously branched and fleshy. They grow upward toward the surface of the soil. These roots arise from the lateral branches of normal roots.
2. Scale leaf of Cycas:
In Cycas leaves are dimorphic i.e. foliage leaves and scale leaves. Scale leaves are minute, membranous and brown. These are non- photosynthetic and provide protection to the stem apex.
3. Megasporophyll of Cycas:
Megasporophylls are usually arranged in compact structures called female cones or female strobili. Megasporophyll contains megasporangia (ovule) which produce megaspores.
[Students are expected to collect more information about coralloid roots, scale leaf and megasporophyll of Cycas.]

Question 10.
Observe the following diagram. Correct it and write the information in your words.

Answer:

1. The given figure indicates alternation of generation.
2. The life cycle of a plant includes two generations, sporophytic (diploid = 2n) and gametophytic (haploid = n)
3. Some special diploid cells of sporophyte divide by meiosis to produce haploid cells.
4. These haploid cells divide mitotically to produce gametophyte.
5. On maturation, gametophyte produces male and female gametes which fuse during fertilization and produce diploid zygote.
6. Diploid zygote divides by mitosis and forms diploid sporophyte.

11th Biology Digest Chapter 3 Kingdom Plantae Intext Questions and Answers

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 19)

Why do we call plants as producers on land?
Answer:
Plants can prepare their own food by the process of photosynthesis. Hence, they are called as producers on land.

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 19)

What are differences between sub-kingdoms cryptogamae and Phanerogamae?
Answer:

Cryptogamae	Phanerogamae
1. Plants belonging to this sub-kingdom are non­flowering.	Plants belonging to this sub-kingdom are flowering.
2. Sex organs are concealed.	Sex organs are visible.
3. These plants do not produce seeds.	These plants produce fruits and seeds.
4. An ovule is not formed.	An ovule is formed.
5. It is further divided into three divisions, viz.	It is further divided into two divisions, viz.
6. Thallophyta, Bryophyta and Pteridophyta.	Gymnospermae and Angiospermae.

Observe and Discuss (Textbook Page No. 19)

Collect different water samples of fresh water. Mount them on a glass slide and observe under a compound microscope. Try to identify the organisms which are visible under it.
Answer:
Micro-organisms like Paramoecium, Amoeba, blue-green algae, unicellular algae, filamentous algae can be observed under compound microscope.
[Students are expected to observe different water samples of fresh water under compound microscope and identify the organisms.]

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 21)

Give salient features of algae.
Answer:
Algae belongs to division Thallophyta.
Salient features of algae:
1. Habitat: Algae are mostly aquatic, few grow on other plants as epiphytes and some grow symbiotically. Some algae are epizoic i.e. growing or living non-parasitically on the exterior of living organisms.
Aquatic algae grow in marine or fresh water. Most of them are free-living while some are symbiotic.

2. Structure: Plant body is thalloid i.e. undifferentiated into root, stem and leaves. They may be small, unicellular, microscopic like Cblorella (non-motile), Chlamydomonas (motile). They can be multicellular, unbranched, filamentous like Spirogyra or branched and filamentous like Chara. Sargassum is a huge macroscopic sea weed which measures more than 60 meters in length.

3. Cell wall: The algal cell wall contains either polysaccharides like cellulose / glucose or a variety of proteins or both.
Reserve food material: Reserve food is in the form of starch and its other forms.

4. Photosynthetic pigments: Photosynthetic pigments like chlorophyll – a, chlorophyll – b, chlorophyll – c, chlorophyll – d, carotenes, xanthophylls, phycobilins are found in algae.

5. Reproduction: Reproduction takes place by vegetative, asexual and sexual method.

6. Life cycle: The life cycle shows phenomenon of alternation of generation, dominant haploid and reduced diploid phases.

Internet my friend (Textbook Page No. 20)

Write different pigments found in algae.
Answer:
Various types of photosynthetic pigments are found in algae.
1. Chlorophyll-a (Essential photosynthetic pigment) is present in all groups of algae.
2. The accessory pigments are chlorophyll-b, chlorophyll-c, chlorophyll-d, carotenes, xanthophylls and phycobilins. Phycobilins are of two types, i.e. phycocyanin and phycoerythrin.
[Students are expected to collect more information about pigments found in algae from internet.]

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 21)

Name the accessory pigments of algae.
Answer:
The accessory pigments are chlorophyll-b, chlorophyll-c, chlorophyll-d, carotenes, xanthophylls and phycobilins. Phycobilins are of two types, i.e. phycocyanin and phycoerythrin.
[Students are expected to collect more information about pigments found in algae from internet.]

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 21)

Differentiate between Chlorophyceae and Phaeophyceae.
Answer:

Chlorophyceae (Green algae)	Phaeophyceae (Brown algae)
1. Photosynthetic pigments are chlorophyll-a, chlorophyll-b.	Photosynthetic pigments are chlorophyll-a, chlorophyll-c and fucoxanthin.
2. Reserve food is in the form of starch.	Reserve food is mannitol and laminarin.
3. e.g. Chlorella, Chlamydomonas, Spirogyra, Chara, I Volvox, Ulothrix	Ectocarpus, Sargassum, Fucus, Laminaria, etc.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No.21)

Enlist examples of Chlorophyceae and Rhodophvceae.
Answer:
1. Examples of Chlorophyceae:
Chlorella, Chlamydomonas, Spirogyra, Char a, Volvox, Ulothrix, etc.
2. Examples of Rhodophyceae:
Chondrus, Batrachospermum, Porphyra, Gelidium, Gracillaria, Polysiphonia, etc.

Internet my friend (Textbook Page No. 21)

Different forms of green, red, brown and blue green algae.
Answer:
1. Forms of green algae:
Unicellular motile: e.g. Chlamydomonas Unicellular non-motile: E.g. Chlorella Colonial forms: e.g. Volvox Filamentous branched: e.g. Cladophora, Chara Filamentous unbranched: e.g. Ulothrix, Spirogyra

2. Forms of red algae:
The red thalli of most of the red algae are multicellular, macroscopic, e.g. Gracilaria, Gelidium, Porphyra, Polysiphonia, etc. .

3. Forms of brown algae:
Simple, branched and filamentous: Sargassum, Fucus, Ectocarpus Profusely branched: Laminaria, Dictyota, Kelps (Seaweed)

4. Forms of blue-green algae:
Unicellular, colonial or filamentous, freshwater or marine water or terrestrial algae.
[Note: Blue-green algae are cyanobacteria which are photosynthetic autotrophs.]
[Students are expected to collect more information from internet.]

Internet my friend (Textbook Page No. 20)
Enlist the forms of filamentous algae.
Answer: The forms of filamentous algae:
1. Filamentous branched: e.g. Cladophora, Chara, Ectocarpus, Dictyota, etc.
2. Filamentous unbranched: e.g. Ulothrix, Spirogyra, etc.

Internet my friend (Textbook Page No. 21)

Economic importance of algae.
Answer:
(a) Many species of algae are used as food. For e.g. Chlorella (rich in cell proteins hence used as food supplement, even by space travelers), Sargassum, Laminaria, Porphyra, etc.
(b) Alginic acid is produced commercially from Kelps.
(c) Hydrocolloids like algin and carrageen are obtained from brown algae and red algae respectively.
(d) ‘Agar’ which is used as solidifying agent in tissue culture is obtained from red algae like Gelidium and Gracilaria.
(e) Brown algae like sea weeds are used a fodder for sheep, goat, etc.
[Students are expected to collect more information about the economic importance of algae.]
(f) Role of algae in environment.
Answer:
(a) Being photosynthetic, algae help in increasing the level of dissolved oxygen in their immediate environment.
(b) Algae are primary producers of energy rich compounds which forms the basis of food cycles in aquatic animals.
[Students are expected to find out more information about the role of algae in environment on internet.]

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 19)

Differentiate between Thallophytes and Bryophytes.
Answer:

Thallophytes	Bryophytes
1. Mostly aquatic in habitat.	Mostly terrestrial, occurs on moist and shady places.
2. Thallus may be unicellular or multicellular.	Thallus is multicellular.
3. Motile and non-motile forms are present.	Non-motile forms present, except male gametes.
4. Rhizoids are absent.	Rhizoids are present.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 23)

Why Bryophyta are called amphibians of Plant Kingdom?
Answer:
Members of Bryophyta are mostly terrestrial plants which depend on water for fertilization and completion of their life cycle. Hence, they are called ‘amphibians of Plant Kingdom’.

Observe and Discuss (Textbook Page No. 21)

You may have seen Funaria plant in rainy season. Why is it called amphibious plant?
Answer:
Funaria belongs to division Bryophyta.
It is a terrestrial plant but requires water for fertilization and completion of its life cycle. Hence, it is called as an amphibious plant.

Observe and Discuss (Textbook Page No. 23)

You may have seen the various plants which do not bear flowers, fruits and seeds but they have well developed root, stem and leaves. Discuss.
Answer:
1. The plants which do not bear flowers, fruits and seeds, but have true roots, stem and leaves belong to division Pteridophyta.
2. These plants are cryptogams as they do not produce seeds and flowers.
3. They have primitive conducting system.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 23)

Pteridophytes are also known as vascular Cryptogams – Justify.
Answer:
1. The reproductive organs of pteridophytes are hidden.
2. Pteridophytes do not produce flowers, fruits and seeds. They reproduce asexually by forming spores and sexually by forming gametes, hence they belong to Cryptogamae.
3. These plants possess a primitive conducting system. Thus, conduction of water and food occurs through vascular tissue.
Hence, Pteridophytes are also known as vascular Cryptogams.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 23)

Give one example of aquatic and xerophytic Pteridophytes.
Answer:
Habitat: Pteridophytes grow in moist and shady places, e.g. Ferns, Horsetail. Some are aquatic (Azolla, Marsilea), xerophytic (Equisetum) and epiphytic (Lycopodium).

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 19)

Give any two examples of Pteridophyta.
Answer:
Nephrolepis, Selaginella, Azolla, Marsilea, Equisetum, Lycopodium, Psilotum, Dryopteris, Pteris, Adiantum.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 25)

Give general characters of Gymnosperms and Angiosperms.
Answer:
1. General characters of Gymnosperms:
(a) Types: Most of the gymnosperms are evergreen, shrubs or woody trees.
(b) Vascular tissues: They are vascular plants having xylem with tracheids and phloem with sieve cells.
(c) Flower: These are primitive group of flowering plants producing naked seeds.
(d) Body: The plant body is sporophyte. It is differentiated into root, stem and leaves.
(e) Roots: The root system is tap root type. In some gymnosperms, the roots form symbiotic association with other life forms. Coralloid roots of Cycas show association with blue green algae and roots of Pinus show association with endophytic fungi called mycorrhizae.
(f) Stem: In gymnosperms, stem is mostly erect, aerial, solid and cylindrical. Secondary growth is seen in Gymnosperms due to the presence of cambium. In Cycas it is usually unbranched, while in conifers it is branched, (e.g. Pinus, Cedrus).
(g) Leaves: The leaves are dimorphic. The foliage leaves are green, simple needle like or pinnately compound, whereas scale leaves are small, membranous and brown.
(h) Spores: Spores are produced by microsporophyll (Male) and megasporophyll (Female).

(ii) General characters of angiosperms:
(a) Habitat: Angiosperms is a group of highly evolved plants, primarily adapted to terrestrial habitat.
(b) Alternation of generations: Angiosperms show heteromorphic alternation of generation in which the sporophyte is diploid, dominant, autotrophic and independent. The gametophytes (male or female) are haploid, reduced and concealed.
(c) Spores and Sporophylls: Angiosperms are heterosporous. Microspores (commonly called pollens) are formed in microsporangia (or anthers). They develop in highly specialized microsporophyll or stamens while megaspores are formed in megasporangia (or ovules) borne on highly specialized megasporophyll called carpel.
(d) Flower: Besides the essential whorls of microsporophylls (androecium) and megasporophylls (gynoecium), there are accessory whorls namely, calyx (sepals) and corolla (petals) arranged together to form flowers.

Observe and Discuss (Textbook Page No. 23)

Observe all garden plants like Cycas, Thuja, Pinus, Sunflower, Canna and compare them. Note similarities and dissimilarities among them.
Answer:
1. When we observe garden plants like Cycas, Thuja, Pinus, Sunflower, Canna, following similarities can be observed:
Plant body is divided into root, stem and leaves.
2. When we observe garden plants like Cycas, Thuja, Pinus, Sunflower, Canna, following dissimilarities can be observed:
(a) In Cycas, Thuja and Pinus seeds are not enclosed within a fruit, whereas in Sunflower and Canna seeds are enclosed within a fruit.
(b) Plants like Cycas, Thuja, Pinus show cones bearing microsporophylls and megasporophylls, whereas sunflower and Canna plant bear flowers.
(c) In Cycas, Thuja and Pinus green, simple needle like or pinnately compound foliage leaves and brown, membranous scaly leaves can be observed, whereas in Sunflower, Canna green foliage leaves can be observed.

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 24)

What are the salient features of angiosperms?
Answer:
(ii) General characters of angiosperms:
(a) Habitat: Angiosperms is a group of highly evolved plants, primarily adapted to terrestrial habitat.
(b) Alternation of generations: Angiosperms show heteromorphic alternation of generation in which the sporophyte is diploid, dominant, autotrophic and independent. The gametophytes (male or female) are haploid, reduced and concealed.
(c) Spores and Sporophylls: Angiosperms are heterosporous. Microspores (commonly called pollens) are formed in microsporangia (or anthers). They develop in highly specialized microsporophyll or stamens while megaspores are formed in megasporangia (or ovules) borne on highly specialized megasporophyll called carpel.
(d) Flower: Besides the essential whorls of microsporophylls (androecium) and megasporophylls (gynoecium), there are accessory whorls namely, calyx (sepals) and corolla (petals) arranged together to form flowers.

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 24)

What is double fertilization?
Answer:
(a) Double fertilization is a characteristic feature of angiosperms.
(b) In this process one male gamete fuses with egg cell and another male gamete fuses with secondary nucleus, to form an embryo and endosperm respectively.

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 24)

Explain in brief the two classes of Angiosperms? Draw and label one example of each class.
Answer:
Two classes of Angiosperms are Dicotyledonae and Monocotyledonae.
а. Dicotyledonae:

1. These plants have two cotyledons in their embryo.
2. They have a tap root system and the stem is branched.
3. Leaves show reticulate venation.
4. Flowers show tetramerous or pentamerous symmetry.
5. Vascular bundles are conjoint, collateral and open type.
6. Cambium is present between xylem and phloem for secondary growth.
7. In dicots, secondary growth is commonly found. e. g. Helianthus annuus (Sunflower)

b. Monocotyledonae:

1. These plants have single cotyledon in their embryo.
2. They have adventitious root system and stem is rarely branched.
3. Leaves generally have sheathing leaf base and parallel venation.
4. Flowers show trimerous symmetry.
5. The vascular bundles are conjoint, collateral and closed type.
6. Cambium is absent between xylem and phloem.
7. In Monocots, except few plants secondary growth is absent, e.g. Zea mays (Maize)

Try This (Textbook Page No. 24)

Study the leaves of Hibiscus, Peepal, Canna, Grass and Tulsi. Classify them as Monocot and Dicot.
Answer:

Monocot leaves	Dicot leaves
Canna. Grass (Parallel venation)	Hibiscus, Peepal, Tulsi (Reticulate venation)

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 25)

(i) Distinguish between Dicotyledonae and Monocotyledonae.
Answer:
Spores and Sporophylls: Angiosperms are heterosporous. Microspores (commonly called pollens) are formed in microsporangia (or anthers). They develop in highly specialized microsporophyll or stamens while megaspores are formed in megasporangia (or ovules) borne on highly specialized megasporophyll called carpel.

(ii) Why do Dicots show secondary growth while Monocots don’t?
Answer:
(a) In dicots, vascular bundles are conjoint, collateral and open type. Cambium is present between xylem and phloem for secondary growth.
(b) Whereas in monocots, vascular bundles are conjoint, collateral and closed type. Thus, due to absence of cambium, secondary growth does not occur in majority of monocots.

Observe and Discuss (Textbook Page No. 23)

Which differences did you notice between Gymnosperms and Angiosperms?
Answer:

Gymnosperms	Angiosperms
1. In gymnosperms, the seeds arc naked.	In angiosperms, the seeds are enclosed within the fruit.
2. Plants are evergreen, shrubs or woody trees.	Plants are annual, biennial or perennial herbs, shrubs or trees, either woody or herbaceous.
3. Xylem is made up of tracheids only.	Xylem is made up of vessels and tracheids.
4. Phloem is with sieve cells only.	Phloem is with sieve tubes and companion cells.
5. Usually two types of leaves are present, i.e. green foliage leaves and scale leaves.	Leaves are of usually one type only, such as green foliage leaves.
6. Double fertilization absent.	Double fertilization occurs.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 26)

What is alternation of generations?
Answer:
The sporophytic and gametophytic generations generally occur alternately in the life cycle of a plant. This phenomenon is called alternation of generations.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 26)

Which phase is dominant in the life cycle of Bryophyta and Pteridophyta?
Answer:
In the life cycle of Bryophyta, gametophyte is the dominant phase whereas in the life cycle of Pteridophyta, sporophyte is the dominant phase.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Biology Textbook Solutions Chapter 14 Human Nutrition Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Biology Solutions Chapter 14 Human Nutrition

1. Choose correct option

Question A.
Acinar cells are present in ……………..
a. liver
b. pancreas
c. gastric glands
d. intestinal glands
Answer:
b. pancreas

Question B.
Which type of teeth are maximum in number in human buccal cavity?
a. Incisors
b. Canines
c. Premolars
d. Molars
Answer:
d. Molars

Question C.
Select odd one out on the basis of digestive functions of tongue.
a. Taste
b. Swallowing
c. Talking
d. Mixing of saliva in food
Answer:
c. Talking

Question D.
Complete the analogy:
Ptyalin: Amylase : : Pepsin : …………….. .
a. Lipase
b. Galactose
c. Proenzyme
d. Protease
Answer:
d. Protease

2. Answer the following questions

Question A.
For the school athletic meet, Shriya was advised to consume either Glucon-D or fruit juice but no sugarcane juice. Why it must be so?
Answer:
Sugarcane juice contain disaccharides. Disaccharides take time to digest i.e. breaking into monosaccharides, Glucon — D and fruit juices contain monosaccharide. Therefore, for instant supply of energy during athletic meet Glucon – D or fruit juices are preferred and not sugarcane.

Question B.
Alcoholic people may suffer from liver disorder. Do you agree? Explain your answer.
Answer:

1. Liver disorder in alcoholic people may occur after years of heavy drinking.
2. Most of the alcohol in the body is broken down in the liver by an enzyme called alcohol dehydrogenase, which transforms ethanol into a toxic compound called acetaldehyde (CH₃CHO).
3. ver consumption of alcohol leads to cirrhosis (distorted or scarred liver) and eventually to liver failure.
   Therefore, alcoholic people may suffer from liver disorder.

Question C.
Digestive action of pepsin comes to a stop when food reaches small intestine. Justify.
Answer:
Pepsin acts in acidic medium thus it is active in stomach. There is alkaline condition in the small intestine. pH of small intestine is very high for pepsin to work. Therefore, pepsin gets denatured in the small intestine.

Question D.
Small intestine is very long and coiled. Even if we jump and run, why it does not get twisted? What can happen if it gets twisted?
Answer:

1. Mesentery is a tissue that is located in the abdomen. It attaches the small intestine to the wall of the abdomen and keeps it in place and therefore it does not get twisted while running and jumping.
2. If small intestine gets twisted, the affected spot may block the food, liquid passing through it. It may sometimes cut off the blood flow if the twist is very severe. If this happens the surrounding tissue may die and can cause serious problems.

3. Write down the explanation

Question A.
Digestive enzymes are secreted at appropriate time in our body. How does it happen?
Answer:

1. The digestive enzymes and juices are produced in sequential manner and at a proper time.
2. These secretions are under neurohormonal control.
3. Sight, smell and even thought of food trigger saliva secretion.
4. Tenth cranial nerve stimulates secretion of gastric juice in stomach.
5. Even the hormone gastrin brings about the same effect.

B. Explain the structure of tooth. Explain why human dentition is considered as thecodont, diphydont and heterodont.
Answer:

1. Structure of tooth:
   • A tooth consists of the portion that projects above the gum called crown and the root that is made up of two or three projections which are embedded in gum.
   • A short neck connects the crown with the root.
   • The crown is covered by the hardest substance of the body called enamel which is made up of calcium phosphate and calcium carbonate.
   • Basic shape of tooth is derived from dentin which is a calcified connective tissue.
   • The dentin encloses the pulp cavity. It is filled with connective tissue pulp. It contains blood vessels and nerves.
   • Pulp cavity has extension in the root of the tooth called root canal.
   • The dentin of the root of tooth is covered by cementurn which is a bone like substance that attaches the root to the surrounding socket in the gum.
2. Human dentition is described as thecodont, diphyodont and heterodont.
3. It is called the codont type because each tooth is fixed in a separate socket present in the jaw bones by gomphosis type of joint.
4. It is called diphyodont type because we get only two sets of teeth, milk teeth and permanent teeth.
5. It is called heterodont type because humans have four different type of teeth like incisors, canines, premolars and molars.
   

Question C.
Explain heterocrine nature of pancreas with the help of histological structure.
Answer:
Pancreas:

1. Pancreas is a leaf shaped heterocrine gland present in the gap formed by bend of duodenum under the stomach.
2. Exocrine part of pancreas is made up of acini, the acinar cells secrete alkaline pancreatic juice that contains various digestive enzymes.
3. Pancreatic juice is collected and carried to duodenum by pancreatic duct.
4. The common bile duct joins pancreatic duct to form hepato-pancreatic duct. It opens into duodenum.
5. Opening of hepato-pancreatic duct is guarded by sphincter of Oddi.
6. Endocrine part of pancreas is made up of islets of Langerhans situated between the acini.
7. It contains three types of cells a-cells which secrete glucagon, P-cells which secretes insulin and 5 cells secrete somatostatin hormone.
8. Glucagon and insulin together control the blood-sugar level.
9. Somatostatin hormone inhibits glucagon and insulin secretion.

4. Write short note on

Question A.
Position and function of salivary glands.
Answer:
Salivary Glands:

• There are three pairs of salivary glands which open in buccal cavity.
• Parotid glands are present in front of the ear.
• The submandibular glands are present below the lower jaw.
• The glands present below the tongue are called sublingual.
• Salivary glands are made up of two types of cells.
• Serous cells secrete a fluid containing digestive enzyme called salivary amylase.
• Mucous cells produce mucus that lubricates food and helps swallowing.

Question B.
Jaundice
Answer:

1. Jaundice is a disorder characterized by yellowness of conjunctiva of eyes and skin and whitish stool.
2. It is a sign of abnormal bilirubin metabolism and excretion.
3. Jaundice develops if excessive break down of red blood cells takes place along with increased bilirubin level than the liver can handle or there is obstruction in the flow of bile from liver to duodenum.
4. Bilirubin produced from breakdown of haemoglobin is either water soluble or fat soluble.
5. Fat soluble bilirubin is toxic to brain cells.
6. There is no specific treatment to jaundice.
7. Supportive care, proper rest are the treatments given to the patient.
   [Note: Treatment ofjaundice will depend on the underlying cause of it. For example, hepatitis-induced jaundice would require treatment which includes antiviral or steroid medications ]

Question 5.
Observe the diagram. This is histological structure of stomach. Identify and comment on significance of the layer marked by arrow.

Answer:
The layer marked in the diagram represents glandular epithelium of mucosa.
Significance of the glandular epiihelium of mucosa:
Goblet cells of the epithelial layer of a mucous membrane secrete mucus which lubricates the lumen of the alimentary canal. This helps in movement of food through the gastrointestinal tract.

Question 6.
Find out pH maxima for salivary amylase, trypsin, nucleotidase and pepsin and place on the given pH scale

Answer:
Salivary amylase = 6.8
Trypsin = 8
Nucleotidase = 7.5
Pepsin = 2

Question 7.
Write the name of a protein deficiency disorder and write symptoms of it.
Answer:

1. Kwashiorkor is a protein deficiency disorder.
2. This protein deficiency disorder is found generally in children between one to three years of age.
3. Children suffering from Kwashiorkor are underweight and show stunted growth, poor brain development, loss of appetite, anaemia, protruding belly, slender legs, bulging eye, oedema of lower legs and face, change in skin and hair colour.

Question 8.
Observe the diagram given below label the A, B, C, D, E and write the function of A, C in detail.

Answer:
A- Bile duct, B- Stomach, C- Common hepatic duct, D- Pancreas, E- Gall Riadder

Functions: Bile duct: It carries hile from the gall bladder and empties it into the tipper part of the small intestine. Common hepatic duct: It drains bile from the liver. It helps in transportation of waste from liver and helps in digestion by releasing bile.
[Note: Labels (A) and (O) have been modified for the better understanding of the students]

Practical / Project : Here are the events in the process of digestion. Fill in the blanks and complete the flow chart.

Answer:

11th Biology Digest Chapter 14 Human Nutrition Intext Questions and Answers

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 161)

Question 1.
What is nutrition?
Answer:

1. Nutrition is the sum of the processes by which an organism consumes and utilizes food substances,
2. WHO defines nutrition as the intake of food, considered in relation to the body’s dietary needs.
3. The term nutrition includes the process like ingestion, digestion, absorption, assimilation and egestion.

Question 2.
Enlist life processes that provide us energy to perform different activities.
Answer:
The life processes which are essential and provide us energy are nutrition and respiration.

Think about it (Textbook Page No. 161)

Question 1.
Our diet includes all necessary nutrients. Still we need to digest it. Why is it so?
Answer:

1. Digestion is a very important process of converting complex, noil-diffusible and non-absorbable food substances into simple, diffusible and assimilable substances.
2. Our diet includes all necessary nutrients, which are in the form of complex substances like carbohydrates, proteins, fats and vitamins.
3. These complex substances are converted into simple, diffusible and assimilable substances through the process of digestion.
   Hence, there is a need for digestion of food.

Human Digestive System (Textbook Page No. 161)

Question 1.
Label the diagram
Answer:

Do you know? (Textbook Page No. 162)

Question 1.
Who controls the deglutition?
Answer:
The process of swallowing is called deglutition. Medulla oblongata controls the deglutition.

Question 2.
Is deglutition voluntary or involuntary?
Answer:

• Deglutition consists of three phases: oral phase, pharyngeal phase and oesophagal phase.
• The oral phase is voluntary whereas the pharyngeal and oesophagal phases are involuntary.
  [Source: Goya!, R. K., & Mashimo, H. (2006,.). Physio!o’ of oral, pharyngeal, and esophageal motility. GI Motility online.]

Use your brain power (Textbook Page No. 165)

Question 1.
Draw a neat labelled diagram of human alimentary canal and associated glands in situ.
Answer:

Question 2.
Write a note on human dentition.
Answer:

1. Human dentition is described as thecodont, diphyodont and heterodont.
2. It is called thecodont type because each tooth is fixed in a separate socket present in the jaw bones by gomphosis type of joint.
3. It is called diphyodont type because we get only two sets of teeth, milk teeth and permanent teeth.
4. It is called heterodont type because humans have four different type of teeth like incisors, canines, premolars and molars.

Question 3.
Muscularis layer in stomach is thicker than that in intestine. Why is it so?
Answer:
Muscularis layer in stomach is thicker than that of intestine because food is churned and gastric juices are mixed in the stomach whereas in intestine only absorption takes place.

Question 4.
Liver is a vital organ. Justify.
Answer:

1. Kupffer cells of liver destroy toxic substances, dead and worn-out blood cells and microorganisms.
2. Bile juice secreted by liver emulsifies fats and makes food alkaline.’
3. Liver stores excess of glucose in the form of glycogen.
4. Deamination of excess amino acids to ammonia and its further conversion to urea takes place in liver.
5. Synthesis of vitamins A, D, K and BI2 takes place in liver.
6. It also produces blood proteins like prothrombin and fibrinogen.
7. During early development, it acts as haemopoietic organ.
   Therefore, liver is a vital organ.

Internet my friend: (Textbook Page No. 171)

Question 1.
Collect the different videos of functioning of digestive system,
Answer:
[Note: Students can scan the adjacent Q.R code to get conceptual clarity with the aid of a relevant video.]

Find out (Textbook Page No. 162)

Question 1.
What will be the dental formula of a three years old child?
Answer:
The dental formula of a three-year-old child will be: I \(\frac{2}{2}\), C \(\frac{1}{1}\), M \(\frac{2}{2}\) = \(\frac{2,1,2}{2,1,2}\)
i. e. 5 × 2 = 10 teeth in each jaw = 20 teeth.
As a child has 20 teeth by the age of three.

Question 2.
What is dental caries and dental plaque? How can one avoid it?
Answer:

• Dental caries are tooth decay or cavities caused by acids secreted by bacteria. Dental caries may be yellow or black in color.
• Dental plaques also known as tooth plaque is a soft, sticky film which forms on the teeth regularly. It is colourless to pale yellow in colour.
• Tooth decay and dental plaque can be prevented by brushing teeth twice a day with a fluoride containing tooth paste.
• Rinsing mouth thoroughly with a mouth wash and use of dental floss or interdental cleaners to clean teeth daily can help to avoid dental caries and dental plaque.

Internet my friend (Textbook Page No. 162)

Question 1.
Find out the role of orthodontist and dental technician.
Answer:
a. Orthodontics is a specialization in dental profession. Orthodontist straightens the crooked teeth, locates problem in patients’ teeth and their overall oral development. They might use X-rays, plaster molds or dental appliances like retainers and space maintainers to correct the problems,

b. Dental technicians are the ones which improves patients’ appearance, ability to chew and speech. They make dentures, crowns, bridges and dental braces.

Question 2.
What is a root canal treatment?
Answer:

• Root canal treatment is also known as endodontic treatment.
• It is a dental treatment of removing infection from inside of a tooth.
• Root canal is hollow section of tooth which contains the nerve tissue, blood vessels and other cells, this is also known as pulps.
• Crown and root are a part of tooth. Crown is present above the gum while root is embedded in the gum.
  e. Pulp which is present inside the root canal nourishes the tooth and provides moisture to the surrounding material.
• The nerves present inside the pulp sense hot cold temperatures as pain.
• First step of a root canal treatment is removal of dead pulp tissues by making a hole on the surface of tooth.
• In second step, the dentist cleans and decontaminates the area and fills the hollow area with adhesive cement in order to seal the canal completely.
• The tooth is dead after the therapy and the patient no longer feel any pain but the tooth becomes more fragile than ever.
• The last step of root canal is adding a crown or filling. Until the crown or filling is complete, patient is not supposed to chew or bite using that tooth. After the crown or filling patient can use that tooth as before.

Find out (Textbook Page No. 163)

Question 1.
You must have heard about appendicitis. It is inflammation of appendix. Find more information about this disorder.
Answer:

1.  Appendicitis is a condition where there is inflammation of appendix.
2. Appendix is a vestigial organ. It is a linger shaped pouch that projects from colon on the lower right side of the abdomen.
3. Appendicitis pain is very severe. It initially starts from the navel and then moves.
4. It occurs in the people of age group between 10 to 30.
5. Surgical removal is the standard treatment for appendicitis.
6. Symptoms: Nausea and vomiting, loss of appetite, low grade fever, constipation, abdominal bloating, severe pain in the right side of the abdomen.
7. Appendicitis is caused when there is blockage in the lining of the appendix that results in infection. The bacteria multiply rapidly and causes inflammation and it is then filled with pus.
8. If not treated properly appendix can rupture which can lead to further complications.
   [Students can use above answer for reference and find more information about appendicitis.]

Question 2.
What is heartburn? Why do we take antacids to control it?
Answer:
Heart burn is a problem created when stomach contents (acid) are forced back up to oesophagus. It causes a burning pain in lower chest.

Antacids are bases and help to treat heartburn by neutralizing the stomach acid. The key ingredients of antacids are calcium carbonate, magnesium hydroxide, aluminium hydroxide or sodium bicarbonate.

Activity (Textbook Page No. 163)

Make a model of human digestive system in a group.
Answer:
[Students are expected to perform this activity on their own.]

Always Remember (Textbook Page No. 166)

Question 1.
Food remains for a very short time in mouth but action of salivary amylase continues for further IS to 30 minutes till gastric juice mixes with food in the stomach. Why do you think it stops after the food gets mixed with gastric juice?
Answer:

1. The gastric juices are mixed with food in the stomach.
2. The pH of the stomach is 1.0-2.0 which is very acidic. Such high level of acidity leads to denaturation of salivary amylase’s protein structure.
3. On the other hand, pH 6.8 is required for salivary amylase to carry out the activity which is not found in stomach. Thus, activity of salivary amylase is stopped when food is mixed with gastric juice.

Internet my friend (Textbook Page No. 167)

Question 1.
How are bile pigments formed?
Answer:

1. When old and worn out red blood cells are destroyed by macrophages in liver, the globin portion of hemoglobin is split off and heme is converted to biliverdin.
2. Most of this biliverdin is converted to bilirubin, which gives bile its major pigmentation.
   [Source http://www.biologydiscussion.com/human-physiology/digestive-system/bile-pigments/bile-pigments-origin-and-formation-digestive-juice-human-biology/81803]

Think about it (Textbook Page No. 167)

Question 1.
How can I keep my pancreas healthy? Can a person live without pancreas?
Answer:

1. Pancreas can be kept healthy by:
   • Eating proper balanced and low-fat diet, with plenty of whole grains, fruits and vegetables.
   • Regular exercise and maintaining a healthy weight.
   • Limiting alcohol consumption and avoid smoking.
   • Adequate intake of water.
   • Regular checkups.
2. The pancreas is a gland that secretes digestive enzymes and insulin which is needed for a person to survive.
3. Without pancreas the person will develop diabetes and will have to take insulin for the rest of the life.
4. Without pancreas the body’s ability to absorb nutrients also decreases.
   Hence, though a person can survive without pancreas he may have to remain dependent on the medicines for survival.

Do it yourself? (Textbook Page No. 167)

Question 1.
You have studied the representation of enzymatic actions in the form of reactions.
Write the reactions of pancreatic enzymes.
Answer:

Do it yourself (Textbook Page No. 168)

Question 1.
Observe the following reactions and explain in words.

Answer:

1. Maltase acts on maltose to form glucose.
2. Sucrase acts on sucrose to form glucose and fructose.
3. Lactase acts on lactose to form glucose and galactose.
4. Dipeptidase acts on dipeptides to form amino acids.
5. Emulsified fats are converted into fatty acids and glycerol by lipase.

Use your brain power (Textbook Page No. 168)

Question 1.
Make a flow chart for digestion of carbohydrate.
Answer:

Question 2.
What is a proenzyme? Enlist various proenzymes involved in process of digestion and state their function.
Answer:
Proenzymes are synthesized in cells as an inactive precursor that undergo some modification before becoming catalytically active.
The various proenzymes involved in process of digestion are as follows:

• Pepsinogen: Pepsinogen when converted into its active form pepsin acts on proteins to form peptones and proteoses.
• Trypsinogen: Trypsinogen when converted to it active form trypsin converts proteins, proteoses and peptones to polypeptides.
• Chymotrypsinogen: Chymotrypsinogen when converted to active form chymotrypsin it converts polypeptides to dipeptides.

Question 3.
Differentiate between Chyme and Chyle.
Answer:

No.	Chyme	Chyle
a.	Chyme is a semi-fluid acidic mass of partially digested food.	Chyle is an alkaline slurry which contains various nutrients ready for absorption.
b.	Chyme leaves stomach and enters the small intestine.	Chyle leaves small intestine and enters large intestine.

Question 4.
Digestion of fats take place only after the food reaches small intestine. Give reason.
Answer:
Digestion of fats takes place in small intestine because the presence of fats in small intestine stimulates the release of pancreatic lipase from pancreas and bile from liver. Pancreatic lipases hydrolyze fat molecules into fatty acids and monoglycerides and bile brings about emulsification of fats. Therefore, digestion of fats occur when food reaches small intestine.

Observe and Discuss (Textbook Page No. 169)

Question 1.
Action of digestive juice in your group.
Answer:

Digestive juices	Action
Saliva	Saliva contains salivary amylase which breaks down starch into maltose.
Gastric juice	HC1 breaks converts inactive pepsinogen into its active form pepsin. Pepsin then breakdown proteins into peptones and proteoses.
Pancreatic juice	Pancreatic amylase acts on glycogen and starch and converts those into disaccharides. Enterokinase converts trypsinogen into trypsin (active form). Trypsin converts proteins, proteoses, peptones to polypeptides. Chymotrypsin converts polypeptides to dipeptides. Nucleases digest nucleic acids to pentose sugar.
Intestinal enzymes	Maltase converts maltose to glucose. Sucrase converts sucrose to glucose and fructose. Lactase converts lactose to glucose and galactose. Dipeptidases converts dipeptides to amino acids. Lipase converts emulsified fats into fatty acids and monoglycerides.
Bile juice	It brings about emulsification of fats.

Can you recall? (Textbook Page no. 170)

Question 1.
What is balanced diet?
Answer:
Balanced diet is a diet which contains proper amount of carbohydrates, fats, vitamins, proteins and minerals to maintain a good health.

Question 2.
Explain the terms undernourished, over-nourished and malnourished in details.
Answer:

• Undernourished: When supply of nutrients is less than the minimum amount of nutrients or food required for good health is called undernourished.
• Over-nourished: The intake of nutrients is excessive. In over-nourished the amount of nutrients exceeds the amount required for normal growth.
• Malnourished: Malnourished is a condition where a person’s diet does not contain right amount of nutrients.

Do you know? (Textbook Page No. 170)

Question 1.
What is gross calorific value?
Answer:
The amount of heat liberated by complete combustion of lg food in a bomb calorimeter is termed as gross calorific (gross energy) value.

Question 2.
What is physiological value?
Answer:
The actual energy produced by 1 g food is its physiological value.

Question 3.
Name the following
Energy content of food in animals is expressed in terms of?
Answer:
Heat Energy

Question 4.
Complete the following table representing Gross calorific value and physiological value of food component.

Food Component	Gross calorific value (Kcal/g)	Physiological value (Kcal/g)
Fats	(A)	9.0
(B)	5.65	4.0
Carbohydrates	(C)	(D)

Answer:

Food Component	Gross calorific value (Kcal/g)	Physiological value (Kcal/g)
Fats	9.45	9.0
Proteins	5.65	4.0
Carbohydrates	4.1	4.0

Find out (Textbook Page No. 171)

Question 1.
Find out the status of nialnutrition among children in Maharashtra and efforts taken by the government to overcome the situation. Search for various NGOs working in this field.
Answer:
93,783 children have been diagnosed with severe acute malnutrition and 5.7 lakh with moderate acute malnutrition in Maharashtra.
Steps taken by government to overcome malnutrition:

1. Promotion of infant and young child feeding practices.
2. Management of malnutrition at community and facility level by trained service providers.
3. Treatment of children with severe acute malnutrition at special units called the Nutrition Rehabilitation Centres (NRCs), set up at public health facilities.
4. A special program to combat micronutrient deficiencies of Vitamin A, Iron and Folic acid.
5. The initiatives like Mother and Child protection card, village health and nutrition days, are taken by the government for addressing the nutrition concerns in children, pregnant women and lactating mothers.

Various NCOs working in this field:

1. Akshay Patra
2. Fight Hunger Foundation,
3. Feeding India,
4. No Hungry child
   [Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=l 13725; https://yourstory.com/2016/10/world- food-day-ngosj
   [Note: Students can use above answer as reference and find more information from the internet.]

Question 2.
Are jaundice and hepatitis same disorders?
Answer:
Jaundice and Hepatitis are two different disorders.

Jaundice: Jaundice occurs when the rate of bilirubin production exceeds the rate of its elimination. It causes yellowing of skin and eyes.

Hepatitis: It is a disease where there is inflammation of liver. It may be caused because of infection, over alcohol consumption, immune system disorder etc.

Do you know (Textbook Page No. 171)

Question 1.
Alcoholism causes different disorders of liver like steatosis (fatty liver), alcoholic hepatitis, fibrosis and cirrhosis. Collect more information on these disorders and try to increase awareness against alcoholism in society. Collect information about NGOs working against alcoholism.
Answer:
Steatosis (fatty liver): Steatosis is accumulation of fat in the liver. Treatment can help but it cannot be cured. Major risk factors are obesity and Diabetes type II, it is also associated with excessive alcohol consumption. Fatigue, weight loss and abdominal pain are some symptoms. It is a benign condition but in very smaller number of patients it can lead to liver failure. Treatment involves diet and exercise to reduce obesity.

Alcoholic hepatitis: Alcoholic Hepatitis is liver inflammation caused by excessive consumption of alcohol. It occurs in people who drink heavily for many years. Symptoms like yellowing of skin and eye, accumulation of fluid in stomach which leads to increase in stomach size. Treatments like completely stopping of alcohol consumption, hydration and nutrition care are carried out. Administration of steroid drugs reduces liver inflammation.

Fibrosis: There is significant scarring of liver tissue in this condition. Fibrosis itself does not cause any symptoms. Diagnosis includes doctor’s evaluation, blood tests and imaging tests, liver biopsy. Treatments include stopping the consumption of alcohol. There are no such effective drugs for curing of fibrosis.

Cirrhosis: It is a chronic liver damage caused due to various reasons which leads to irreversible scarring of liver and liver failure. Causes of cirrhosis are chronic alcohol abuse and hepatitis. Patients may experience fatigue, weakness and weight loss. In later stages, patients may develop jaundice, abdominal swelling and gastrointestinal bleeding. In advanced stage, a liver transplant is required.

NGOs working against alcoholism:

1. Muktangan Rehabilitation Centre
2. Anmol Jeevan Foundation
3. Sankalp Rehabilitation Trust
4. Kripa Foundation
5. Harmony Foundation
6. Hands for you Rehab Centre

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Solutions Chapter 8 Company Meetings – II Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Secretarial Practice Solutions Chapter 8 Company Meetings – II

1A. Select the correct answer from the options given below and rewrite the statements.

Question 1.
The secretary has to prepare ____________ before the meeting.
(a) resolution
(b) notice
(c) minutes
Answer:
(b) notice

Question 2.
General Meeting must have a notice of at least ____________ clear days.
(a) 7
(b) 21
(c) 14
Answer:
(b) 21

Question 3.
The gap between two annual general meetings should not be more than months.
(a) 15
(b) 18
(c) 24
Answer:
(a) 15

Question 4.
Auditor is appointed in ____________
(a) Annual General Meeting
(b) Creditors Meeting
(c) Extra ordinary General Meeting
Answer:
(a) Annual General Meeting

Question 5.
The business transacted in extra ordinary general meeting is ____________ business.
(a) Ordinary
(b) Routine
(c) Special
Answer:
(c) Special

Question 6.
An extraordinary general meeting is held ____________
(a) once in a year
(b) once in the life time
(c) under special circumstances
Answer:
(c) under special circumstances

Question 7.
Writing the minutes of meeting is the duty of the ____________
(a) Chairman
(b) Director
(c) Secretary
Answer:
(c) Secretary

Question 8.
New Directors in place of retiring Directors are appointed in the ____________
(a) Class Meeting
(b) Annual General Meeting
(c) Creditors Meeting
Answer:
(b) Annual General Meeting

Question 9.
Before the Annual General Meeting is held the Secretary has to compile ____________
(a) Auditor’s Report
(b) Committee Report
(c) Annual Report
Answer:
(c) Annual Report

Question 10.
The Secretary has to draft the minutes of the meeting within ____________ days of the meeting.
(a) Fifteen
(b) Sixty
(c) Forty
Answer:
(a) Fifteen

1B. Match the pairs.

Question 1.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(a) Board Meeting	(1) Once in the year
(b) Auditor	(2) Minimum 4 meetings in a year
(c) Annual General Meeting	(3) Prepare at any time
(d) Extraordinary General Meeting	(4) Auditor’s Report
(e) Minutes of Meeting	(5) Prepared before the meeting
	(6) Prepared after the meeting
	(7) Under special circumstance
	(8) Prepared during the meeting
	(9) Once in Six months
	(10) Meeting of creditors

Answer:

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(a) Board Meeting	(2) Minimum 4 meetings in a year
(b) Auditor	(4) Auditor’s Report
(c) Annual General Meeting	(1) Once in the year
(d) Extraordinary General Meeting	(7) Under special circumstance
(e) Minutes of Meeting	(6) Prepared after the meeting

1C. Write a word or a term or a phrase that can substitute each of the following statements.

Question 1.
A meeting of shareholders which is held once a year.
Answer:
Annual General Meeting

Question 2.
A meeting of shareholders is held between two annual general meetings.
Answer:
Extra Ordinary General Meeting

Question 3.
A Report which is prepared before Annual General Meeting.
Answer:
Annual Report

Question 4.
A meeting of the shareholders is held under special circumstances.
Answer:
Extra Ordinary General Meeting

Question 5.
A meeting of the preference shareholders of a company.
Answer:
Class Meeting

1D. State whether the following statements are True or False.

Question 1.
Only special business is transacted at Annual General Meeting.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Annual Report is prepared by members.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Extraordinary General Meeting is called for a special and urgent purpose.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
A member has a right to attend a Board meeting.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
A class meeting is the meeting of a particular class of shareholders.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
Director cannot appoint a proxy to attend and vote at the board meetings.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
21 clear days notice should be given in case of Board Meeting.
Answer:
False

Question 8.
Secretary has to arrange to take down the notes of the proceedings of the meeting.
Answer:
True

1E. Find the odd one.

Question 1.
Annual General Meeting, Extra Ordinary General Meeting, Board Meeting.
Answer:
Board Meeting

Question 2.
Annual General Meeting, Committee Meeting, Class Meeting.
Answer:
Committee Meeting

1F. Complete the sentences.

Question 1.
The meeting which is held once in every financial year is called as ____________
Answer:
Annual General Meeting

Question 2.
The meeting held to discuss and decide any special or urgent matters is called as ____________
Answer:
Extra-ordinary General Meeting

Question 3.
Meeting of all Directors is called as ____________
Answer:
Board Meeting

Question 4.
The Authority to convene the Annual General Meeting is with the ____________
Answer:
Board of Directors

1G. Select the correct option from the bracket.

Question 1.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(1) Interval between two Annual General Meetings	…………………….
(2) First Board Meeting	…………………….
(3) ……………………….	21 clear days
(4) ……………………….	Alteration in Memorandum of Association

(Notice of General Meeting, Extraordinary General Meeting, Not more than 15 months, within 30 days of company’s Incorporation)
Answer:

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(1) Interval between two Annual General Meeting	Not more than 15 months
(2) First Board Meeting	within 30 days of companies Incorporations
(3) Notice of General Meeting	21 clear days
(4) Extraordinary General meeting	Alteration in Memorandum of Association

1H. Answer in one sentence.

Question 1.
Who can attend Board Meetings?
Answer:
Board of Directors attends Board Meetings.

Question 2.
When can an Adjourned Annual General meeting be held?
Answer:
Adjourned Annual General Meeting will be held on the same day, same place and same time in the next week.

Question 3.
Why is Extra-Ordinary General Meeting held?
Answer:
Extra Ordinary General Meeting is held under special circumstances to discuss urgent and important matters.

Question 4.
When should the first Annual General Meeting be held?
Answer:
The first Annual General Meeting must be held within nine (9) months of the closing of the first financial year of the company.

Question 5.
What should be the interval between two Annual General Meetings?
Answer:
The time interval between two Annual General Meetings should not be more than 15 months.

Question 6.
What should be the gap between two Board Meetings?
Answer:
The gap between the two Board Meetings should not be more than 120 days.

1I. Correct the underlined word and rewrite the following sentences.

Question 1.
Minimum four Committee Meetings must be held in a year.
Answer:
Minimum four Directors Meetings must be held in a year.

Question 2.
Creditors Meeting must be held once a year.
Answer:
Annual General Meeting must be held once a year.

Question 3.
Extra Ordinary Meeting must be held every year.
Answer:
Annual General Meeting must be held every year.

Question 4.
The Meeting of all Directors is called Annual General Meeting.
Answer:
The Meeting of all Directors is Called Director’s Meeting.

2. Explain the following terms/concepts.

Question 1.
Committee Meeting
Answer:
The Board of Directors may from the committee and delegate some of its powers to them. This committee should consist of only directors. The delegation of such powers to committees is to be authorized by Articles of Association and should be subject to the provisions of the Companies Act. A meeting of Allotment Committee, Transfer Committee, etc are examples of Committee Meeting.

Question 2.
Virtual Meeting
Answer:
If there is any urgency to call Board Meeting and practically not possible for Directors to attend the meeting in a short notice, so with the help of technology, a virtual meeting can be held. The meetings are recorded and active participation of Directors is also possible through video conferencing. Certain special and confidential matters cannot be dealt with through video conferencing as per the directions of the Central Government.

Question 3.
Creditor’s Meeting
Answer:
Creditors of the company include Debenture holders, Depositors, Banks, and others. The meeting of creditors is called when the company proposes to make a scheme for an arrangement with its creditors.
E.g. In the case of winding up of the company, a meeting of creditors and of contributors is held to ascertain the total amount due by the company and also to appoint a liquidator to wind up the affairs of the company.

3. Study the following case/situation and express your opinion.

1. Platinum Limited Company was incorporated on 1st January 2018. Advice the Board of Directors on the following matters.

Question (a).
Within what period should the company hold its 1st Annual General Meeting?
Answer:
First Annual General Meeting must be held within Nine (9) months of the closing of its financial year.

Question (b).
At which place should the Annual General Meeting be held?
Answer:
Annual General Meeting should be held at the registered office or at some other place within the city or village which the registered office of the company is situated.

Question (c).
How many days in advance should the notice and agenda be sent to members?
Answer:
Notice and Agenda should be sent 21 clear days before the Annual General Meeting.

2. XYZ Ltd held its Annual General Meeting on 11th May 2018. On 1st June Mr. X, a Director of the company was arrested for a financial scam. Hence the shareholders of the company want to remove him.

Question (a).
Can the company call for the next Annual General Meeting to be held immediately to remove the Director?
Answer:
No, the company cannot call the next Annual General Meeting immediately to remove the director.

Question (b).
Which meeting of members should the company hold to discuss the removal of the Director?
Answer:
Extra Ordinary General Meeting should be called to discuss removal of the director.

Question (c).
What type of resolution will be passed in this meeting for the removal of the Director?
Answer:
A resolution requiring special notice (section 115) will be passed in the meeting for the removal of the director.

4. Distinguish between the following.

Question 1.
Shareholders’ Meeting and Board Meeting.
Answer:

Basis	Shareholder’s Meeting (Annual General Meeting)	Board Meeting (Director’s Meeting)
1. Meaning	It is the meeting of all the members or shareholders of the company.	It is the meeting of all the Directors of the company.
2. Number of times	Annual General Meeting is held once every year. Extra Ordinary General Meeting is held to discuss urgent and important matters. It is called in between two Annual General Meetings.	Minimum 4 meetings to be held in a year and the gap between two meetings should not be more than 120 days.
3. Quorum	Quorum in case of Public Company is as follows: No. of Shareholders Quorum Up to 1000 5 members 1000-5000 15 members More than 5000 30 members In the case of the private company, 2 members present in person shall be the quorum.	The quorum for the Board Meeting is a minimum of 2 Directors or 1/3rd of its total Directors whichever is higher.
4. Proxy	Members can appoint a proxy to attend and vote at the meeting on their behalf.	Directors cannot appoint a proxy to attend and vote at the meeting.
5. Notice	Notice of shareholder’s meeting must be sent to all the members at least 21 clear days before the meeting.	Notice of Board Meeting must be sent to every Director at least 7 days before the meeting.
6. Purpose	The purpose of this meeting is to take approvals from shareholders on the Annual Report, Appointment of Auditor, etc.	The purpose of this meeting is to discuss policy matters, future planning, etc.

Question 2.
Annual General Meeting and Extra-ordinary General Meeting
Answer:

Points	Annual General Meeting	Extraordinary General Meeting
1. Meaning	It is a meeting of shareholders held once in a year as per the provisions of Section 96 of the Companies Act, 2013.	It is a meeting of shareholders held under special conditions to discuss urgent and important matters as per the provisions of Section 100 of the Companies Act, 2013.
2. Purpose	The purpose is to give information about the progress made by the company during the year.	The purpose is to discuss urgent and important matters that cannot be postponed till next Annual General Meeting.
3. Number of times	The first Annual General Meeting is held within 9 months of the completion of the financial year and the subsequent Annual General Meeting is held within 6 months of the completion of the financial year.	Extraordinary General Meeting is held anytime between two Annual General Meetings.
4. Authority	Annual General Meeting is normally called by the Board of Directors and can be called by the Central Government under special circumstances.	Extra-ordinary General Meeting can be called by: Board of Directors Board of Directors on the requisition of members The National Company Law Tribunal
5. Business transacted	To approve annual accounts To approve Auditors and Director’s Report To appoint Auditors, Directors, etc. To declare a dividend.	To alter Articles of Association. To alter Memorandum of Association. Removal of Director. Voluntary winding up of a company.
6. Penalty	In case of default in holding Annual General Meeting, every officer concerned is punishable with a fine upto ₹ 1,00,000 and fine of ₹ 5,000 per day till default continues.	If the directors fail to hold this meeting on requisition, the requisionist themselves can hold it and recover the expenses from defaulting directors.

5. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
List the duties of a Secretary after the Annual General Meeting.
Answer:
Duties of a Secretary after Annual General Meeting:

• Drafting Minutes: The secretary drafts the minutes of the meeting on the basis of the notes taken down during the proceedings of the meeting.
• Implementation of decisions: The secretary instructs the concerned department for implementing the decisions taken at the meeting.
• Dispatch Dividend Warrants: The secretary has to make an arrangement to dispatch dividend warrants to the shareholders.
• Filing Resolutions: The secretary has to file an Annual Report with the Registrar. In case of a special resolution, the secretary has to file the special resolution with the Registrar within 30 days of passing that resolution.
• Information to Absent Members: The secretary sends the information of the proceedings of the meeting to the absent members.

Question 2.
State the objectives of the Annual General Meeting.
Answer:
Purpose or objectives of Annual General Meeting: The main objective of holding an Annual General Meeting is to provide an opportunity to members to discuss the functioning of the company.

• To review the progress and performance of the company.
• To approve annual accounts, director’s report, and auditor’s report.
• To appoint auditors and fix their remuneration.
• To declare a dividend.
• To elect new directors in place of retiring Directors To transact special business, if any like-
  • business of the company taken over by the Government.
  • the company did not function well through the year, etc.

Question 3.
State any four legal provisions regarding Board Meeting.
Answer:
Legal Provisions relating to Board Meeting:
(i) Authority to Convene:
The chairman of the Board is the proper authority to call the Board Meeting.

(ii) Number of Board Meetings:

• First Board Meeting shall be held within 30 days of the date of its incorporation.
• Subsequently, there should be four meetings in a year.
• The gap between the two meetings should not be more than 120 days.
• At least one Board meeting should be held in 6 months in case of one person company, small company and dormant company.
• The gap between two meetings should not be more than 90 days in the case of one person company, a small company, and a dormant company.

(iii) Notice [Section 173(3)]:

• The notice of every Board Meeting must be given to every director at least 7 days before the meeting at his registered address along with an agenda of the meeting.
• It can also be sent by post or by hand delivery or by E-mail.
• If a company fails to send notice within a given time, then every officer in default shall be liable to a penalty of Rs. 25,000.

(iv) Quorum (Section – 174):

• The quorum for the Board Meeting is 1/3rd of the total number of directors or two directors whichever is higher.
• Any fraction should be rounded to one.
• Interested directors (personal interest in any matter) are not included in the quorum.

Question 4.
What are Class Meetings?
Answer:
Class Meetings (Section 48):

• When the meeting of a particular class of shareholders takes place such as a preference shareholders meeting, it is known as a class meeting.
• Such a meeting may be called for an alteration in the right and privileges of that particular class of shareholders.
• It can also be called for the purpose of conversion of one class of shares into another.
• The class meeting is not held regularly.

Question 5.
What is the purpose of conducting an Extra-ordinary General Meeting?
Answer:
Purpose or Objectives of Extra-Ordinary General Meeting:
The main purpose behind calling this meeting is to make shareholders aware of the happenings in the company or to seek their approval on some urgent and important matters of the company.

• Alteration in the Memorandum of Association.
• Alteration in Articles of Association.
• Reduction of Share Capital.
• Removal of a Director before the expiry of his term.
• Removal of an Auditor before the expiry of his term.
• Voluntary winding up of the company.

6. Justify the following statements.

Question 1.
Annual General Meeting is adjourned in absence of a quorum.
Answer:

• Quorum is a minimum number of members to be present for a valid Meeting.
• As per the Companies Act, 2013, the quorum for the Annual General Meeting of a public company is as follows:

No. of Shareholders	Quorum
Up to 1000	5 Members
1000 – 5000	15 Members
More than 5000	30 Members

• For a private company minimum of 2 members should be present
• If the meeting is conducted without a quorum, it is considered invalid.
• In the absence of a quorum, Annual General Meeting is adjourned.
• Adjourned Meeting will be convened on the same day, same time, and the same place in the next week.

Question 2.
A notice of the meeting must be sent to all members in case of the General Meeting.
Answer:

• The Board of Directors is the authority to convene general meetings.
• The notice must be given 21 clear days before the meeting to all those who are entitled to receive it.
• The notice must be sent to all the members at their registered address in India.
• Notice can be sent by registered post, if requested by the member, charges for the same is to be paid in advance.
• Notice is also given in all leading newspapers.
• Notice is accompanied by agenda and also Annual report, Auditor report, Annual accounts, etc. in case of Annual General Meeting.

Question 3.
Extra Ordinary General Meeting is called under special circumstances.
Answer:

1. Extraordinary General Meeting is held in between two Annual General Meetings.
2. It is held when the matter is of utmost importance and it cannot be postponed till the next Annual General Meeting.
3. It can be called to make shareholders aware of the happenings in the company.
4. It can also be called to seek their approval on important and urgent matters.
5. Important and urgent matters can be:
   • Alteration in Memorandum of Association
   • Alteration in Articles of Association
   • Reduction in share capital
   • Removal of a director or auditor
   • Voluntary winding up of a company, etc.

Question 4.
Board of Directors can exercise their powers collectively through the Board Meeting.
Answer:

1. Directors collectively are called as Board of Directors.
2. The Board of Directors has to meet frequently with reference to the day-to-day working of the company.
3. All important decisions can be taken by the Board of Directors in the Board Meeting collectively.
4. Powers which can be exercised at Board Meeting are:
   • The power to fill casual vacancies in the Board.
   • To recommend the rate of dividend.
   • The power to appoint managing Director, Manager, etc.
   • To sanction a contract.
   • To give loans or invest in shares of other companies.

Question 5.
The Quorum for the Annual General Meeting of a public company depends upon the number of shareholders.
Answer:

• Quorum is a minimum number of members to be present for a valid meeting.
• As per the Companies Act, 2013, the quorum for the Annual General Meeting of a public company are as follows:

No. of Shareholders	Quorum
Up to 1000	5 Members
1000 – 5000	15 Members
More than 5000	30 Members

• • If the number of shareholders is up to 1000, then the required quorum is 5 members.
  • If the number of shareholders is more than 1000 and up to 5000, then the required quorum is 15 members.
  • If the number of shareholders exceeds 5000 then the quorum is 30 members for a public company.
• In the absence of a quorum, if the meeting is conducted or a resolution is passed, it is considered illegal and invalid.
• In the absence of a quorum, the meeting is adjourned to the same day, same place, and same time in the next week.

Question 6.
When a company is in financial difficulty it may call a meeting of creditors.
Answer:

• Creditors of the company include Debenture holders, Depositors, Banks, financial institutions, etc.
• When a company is in a financial crisis, it seeks the help of creditors.
• The company can request creditors to alter the rate of interest, to alter the terms of security, etc.
• Meeting of creditors can be called to compromise in a dispute with them.
• Creditors and contributors can provide financial help to the company to safeguard them and also to protect them to avoid winding up of a company.

Question 7.
As per the Companies Act, every company has to hold the Annual General Meeting.
Answer:

• Every company other than one person company must hold an Annual General Meeting once a year.
• Annual General Meeting is held to review the working of the company during the previous financial year and take an effective decision for the next year.
• It is mainly called to approve Annual Report, Auditor Report, Annual Accounts, to declare a dividend, to elect Directors, Auditors and to transact special business, if any.
• First AGM shall be held within 9 months of the closing of the first financial year of the company.
• The time interval between two Annual General Meetings should not be more than 15 months.
• If the default is made in holding AGM then the company and every officer of the company in default are punishable with a fine which may extend up to ₹ 1,00,000 and up to ₹ 5,000 per day till default continues.

7. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Explain the functions of a secretary related to the Annual General Meeting.
Answer:
Functions (duties) of secretary related with Annual General Meeting:
Secretary has to perform many functions related to all types of meetings like Board Meeting, Annual General Meeting, etc. He has to perform all duties in compliance with the provisions of the Act. Secretary has to perform functions before, during, and after the meeting.

Functions of a secretary related to Annual General Meeting are as follows:
Functions Before the Annual General Meeting:
(i) Preparation of Accounts and Reports:
The secretary has to ensure that the Annual Accounts, Annual Report, and Auditor Report are prepared for consideration and approval.

(ii) Board Meeting:
Board Meeting is called to transact the following business:

• To adopt Annual Accounts duly audited.
• To adopt Director’s Report
• To consider the rate of dividend
• To fix the day, date, time, and place of the Annual General Meeting.

(iii) Notice:
The secretary has to send 21 clear days’ notice of a meeting to members and auditors before the meeting along with the auditor report, annual report, annual accounts, agenda, etc. The secretary has to arrange for publishing the notice of the meeting in leading newspapers.

(iv) Chairman Speech:
The secretary has to assist the chairman in drafting his speech to be delivered at the meeting.

(v) Preliminary Arrangement:
The secretary has to make arrangements such as booking of hall, refreshments, Register of Members, Members Attendance Book, etc.

Functions During the Annual General Meeting:
(i) Attendance:
The secretary has to get signatures of members present at the meeting in ‘Members Attendance Book.’

(ii) Quorum:
The secretary should see that the required quorum is present at the meeting and informs the chairman of the meeting.

(iii) Reading of Reports:
The secretary has to read the notice, Director’s Report, and Auditor’s Report as directed by the Chairman.

(iv) Notice of Proceedings:
The secretary should take down the notes of the proceedings of the meeting. He has to draft the minutes on the basis of these notes.

(v) Assist Chairman:
The secretary has to assist the chairman during the meeting. He should provide information, documents, etc as and when needed.

(vi) Conduct of Poll:
Secretary makes arrangements for conducting the poll if it is demanded by the members.

Functions After the Annual General Meeting:
(i) Drafting Minutes:
The secretary drafts the minutes of the meeting on the basis of the notes taken down during the proceedings of the meeting.

(ii) Implementation of decisions:
The secretary instructs the concerned department for implementing the decisions taken at the meeting.

(iii) Dispatch Dividend Warrants:
The secretary has to make an arrangement to dispatch dividend warrants to the shareholders.

(iv) Filing Resolutions:
The secretary has to file the Annual Report with the Registrar. In case of a special resolution, the secretary has to file the special resolution with the Registrar within 30 days of passing that resolution.

(v) Information to Absent Members :
The secretary sends the information of the proceedings of the meeting to the absent members.

Question 2.
Explain the different types of General Meetings of a company.
Answer:
General Meetings are meetings of Equity shareholders of the company. There are two types of General Meetings:

• Annual General Meeting
• Extraordinary General Meeting.

1. Annual General Meeting (Section 96):
Every Company other than One Person Company must hold Annual General Meeting once in a year.
Purpose or Objective of Annual General Meeting:

• To review the progress and performance of the company.
• To approve annual accounts, director’s report, and auditor’s report.
• To appoint auditors and fix their remuneration.
• To declare a dividend.
• To elect new directors in place of retiring directors.
• To transact special business, if any.

Legal Provisions relating to Annual General Meeting:
(i) Time Limit:

• The time interval between two Annual General Meetings should not be more than 15 months.
• Extension of time for holding the Annual General Meeting may be given by the Registrar to the company for a period not more than three months, except for the first Annual General Meeting.
• One person company is exempted from the provision of Annual General Meeting.

(ii) Authority to Convene Annual General Meeting:
The Board of Directors is the proper authority to convene the Annual General Meeting.

(iii) Notice:
The notice must be given to all those who are entitled to receive it, at least 21 clear days in advance of the meeting. It is sent to the members at their registered address by post or through electronic mode like Email, etc.

(iv) Time, Day, and Place of Annual General Meeting:
Annual General Meeting shall be called during business hours between 9 am to 6 pm on any day other than National holidays. It can be held at the registered office or at some other place within the city or village in which the registered office of the company is situated.

(v) Quorum:
According to the Companies Act, 2013, the quorum for the Annual General Meeting of a public company is as follows:

No. of Shareholders	Quorum
Upto 1000	5 Members
1000 – 5000	15 Members
More than 5000	30 Members

For a private company minimum of two members should be present in person.

(vi) Adjournment:
In the absence of a quorum, Annual General Meeting stands adjourned. It will be convened on the same day, same time and the same place in the next week.

(vii) Default:
If the default is made in holding the Annual General Meeting as per the provisions of the Act or as per the instructions of the Central Government, the company and every officer of the company who is in default are punishable with a fine which may extend up to ₹ 1,00,000/-. If the default continues fine may extend up to ₹ 5,000 per day till the default continues.

2. Extra-Ordinary General Meeting (Section – 100):
Meaning:
It is a meeting which is called in between two Annual General Meetings under special circumstances, which cannot be postponed till the next Annual General Meeting. The matters discussed under this meeting is of utmost importance and urgent by nature.

Purpose or Objectives of Extra-Ordinary General Meeting:
The main purpose behind calling this meeting is to make shareholders aware of the happenings in the company or to seek their approval on some urgent and important matters of the company.

• Alteration in the Memorandum of Association.
• Alteration in Articles of Association.
• Reduction of Share Capital of the company.
• Removal of a Director before the expiry of his term.
• Removal of an Auditor before the expiry of his term.
• Voluntary winding up of the company.

Legal Provisions relating to Extra Ordinary General Meeting:
(i) Time for holding a meeting:
Extra Ordinary General Meeting is held between two Annual General Meetings under special circumstances. It can be held at any time as per the requirements of the company.

(ii) Authority to Convene:

• The Board of Directors has the right to call an Extra-Ordinary General Meeting by sending a proper notice to the shareholders.
• Extra-Ordinary General Meeting can be called by the members holding at least 1/10th of the paid-up capital or 1/10th of voting power in the company. Board must call Extra-Ordinary General Meeting within 45 days of receiving the requisition from the members.
• If the Board fails to call such a meeting then the requisitionists themselves call this meeting within 3 months from the date of deposit of the requisition. The company shall pay all the expenses incurred for holding such meetings by the requisitionist.
• National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) can order such meetings on its own or at the request of a director or any members having voting rights.

(iii) Notice:
The notice must be given to all those who are entitled to receive it, at least 21 clear days in advance of the meeting. It is sent to the members at their registered address by post or through electronic mode like Email, etc.

(iv) Quorum:
According to the Companies Act, 2013, the quorum for the Annual General Meeting of a public company is as follows:

No. of Shareholders	Quorum
Up to 1000	5 Members
1000 – 5000	15 Members
More than 5000	30 Members

For a private company minimum of two members should be present in person.

Question 3.
Explain the different types of Director’s Meetings.
Answer:
Director’s meeting:
Directors collectively are called as Board of Directors. They meet regularly to discuss and decide upon company matters, implementation of plans and review the progress made by the company.

(i) Board Meeting (Section 173):
It is a meeting of the Board of Directors. The Board of Directors has to meet frequently with reference to day to day working of the company. The Board of Directors can exercise their powers collectively through the Board Meeting.

Legal Provisions relating to Board Meeting:
(a) Authority to Convene:
The chairman of the Board is the proper authority to call the Board Meeting.

(b) Number of Board Meetings:

• First Board Meeting shall be held within 30 days of the date of its incorporation.
• Subsequently, there should be four meetings in a year.
• The gap between the two meetings should not be more than 120 days.
• At least one Board meeting should be held in 6 months in case of one person company, small company, and dormant company.
• The gap between two meetings should not be more than 90 days in the case of one person company.

(c) Virtual Meeting/Video Conferencing:
If there is any urgency to call Board Meeting and practically not possible for Directors to attend the meeting in a short notice, so with the help of technology, a virtual meeting can be held. The meetings are recorded and active participation of Directors is also possible through video conferencing. Certain special and confidential matters cannot be dealt with through video conferencing as per the directions of the Central Government.

(d) Notice [Section 173(3)]:
The notice of every Board Meeting must be given to every director at least 7 days before the meeting at his registered address along with an agenda of the meeting.
It can also be sent by post or by hand delivery or by E-mail.
If a company fails to send notice within a given time, then every officer in default shall be liable to a penalty of Rs. 25,000.

(e) Quorum (Section – 174)

• The quorum for the Board Meeting is 1/3rd of the total number of directors or two directors whichever is higher.
  Any fraction should be rounded to one.
• Interested directors (personal interest in any matter) are not included in the quorum.

(f) Adjournment:
The meeting of the Board of directors can be adjourned in the absence of a quorum.
The adjourned meeting can be held on the same day, same time and the same place in the next week.

(ii) Committee Meeting:

• The Board of Directors may from the committee and delegate some of its powers to them.
• This committee should consist of only directors. The delegation of such powers to committees is to be authorized by Articles of Association and should be subject to the provisions of the Companies Act.
• A meeting of Allotment Committee, Transfer Committee, etc are examples of Committee Meeting.

Activity 1 (Textbook Page No. 123)

Visit the website of any public company and study its Annual Report/Director’s Report.
Answer:
[Note: Students should do this activity by themselves with the help of the internet.]

Activity 2 (Textbook Page No. 127)

Enlist the functions of a Secretary related to an Extra-Ordinary Meeting.
Answer:
Functions of Secretary Relating to Extra Ordinary General Meeting:
(i) Before the Meeting:

• Time of Holding: To decide the date, time, place, and agenda for holding the meeting in consultation with the chairman of the company and to convene the Board Meeting for finalization of these things by passing a resolution to that effect.
• Drafting of Resolution: To draft the proposed resolution and explanatory statements and to get them approved by the board.
• Notice: To draft the notice of the meeting and arrange to get the same printed together with the explanatory statements, proxy forms, and admission cards. To send the notice with agenda to all the members, at least 21 days before the meeting.
• Public Notice: The notice is also published in the leading newspapers for the information of the general public.
• Notice to Stock Authorities: If the shares are listed on the stock exchange, a notice of the meeting is sent to stock exchange authorities too.
• Proxy: To verify proxy forms received and enter them in the proxy register.
• Preparing Documents: The important documents, records, Books, etc. are kept ready for reference during the meeting.

(ii) During the Meeting:

• Checking: To check the admission card of the members.
• Attendance: To take attendance of members.
• Ascertaining Quorum: To ascertain the quorum.
• Reading Notice: To read the notice convening meeting.
• Assist Chairman: To assist the chairman, by providing necessary information, records documents.
• Notes of Proceedings: To make notes of the proceedings of the meeting.

(iii) After the Meeting:

• Drafting Minutes: To draft the minutes of the meeting and enter the same in the Minute Book.
• Signed by the Chairman: To get Minutes signed by the chairman of the meeting.
• Filing of Resolution: To file the certified copy of the resolution passed at the meeting, to the Registrar of Companies.
• Sending Intimation: To send intimation to the concerned persons.
• Implementations: To carry out decisions taken at the meeting.