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Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Biology Important Questions Chapter 1 Reproduction in Lower and Higher Plants Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Biology Important Questions Chapter 1 Reproduction in Lower and Higher Plants

Multiple-choice questions

Question 1.
In grafting, the rooted plant is used as a ………………
(a) scion
(b) stock
(c) stem
(d) root
Answer:
(b) stock

Question 2.
The method of propagation by root cutting is practised in ………………
(a) Rose
(b) Bougainvillea
(c) Sansevieria
(d) Blackberry
Answer:
(d) Blackberry

Question 3.
Monothecous anther has ……………… pollen sacs.
(a) single
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four
Answer:
(b) two

Question 4.
In wall of mature anther, ……………… shows fibrous thickenings.
(a) epidermis
(b) endothecium
(c) middle layer
(d) tapetum
Answer:
(b) endothecium

Question 5.
Intine consists of ………………
(a) cellulose and pectin
(b) cellulose and chitin
(c) cellulose and starch
(d) cellulose and sporopollenin
Answer:
(a) cellulose and pectin

Question 6.
The stalk of the ovule that attaches to placenta is ……………… which is attached at to the body of ovule.
(a) chalaza, hilum
(b) hilum, funiculus
(c) funiculus, hilum
(d) micropyle, hilum
Answer:
(c) funiculus, hilum

Question 7.
……………… is multicellular structure embedded in nucellus.
(a) Micropyle
(b) Chalaza
(c) Embryo sac
(d) Endothecium
Answer:
(c) Embryo sac

Question 8.
The transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma is called ………………
(a) pollination
(b) fertilization
(c) transpiration
(d) viability
Answer:
(a) pollination

Question 9.
This condition is not favourable for autogamy in flowers.
(a) Bisexuality
(b) Homogamy
(c) Cleistogamy
(d) Herkogamy
Answer:
(d) Herkogamy

Question 10.
From the following, mechanism of pollination by abiotic agent is ………………
(a) Ornithophily
(b) Anemophily
(c) Entomophily
(d) Chiropterophily
Answer:
(b) Anemophily

Question 11.
In which type of flowers, the pollen grains are ribbon like without exine?
(a) Anemophilous
(b) Epihydrophilous
(c) Hypohydrophilous
(d) Entomophilous
Answer:
(c) Hypohydrophilous

Question 12.
Which flower exhibits turn pipe mechanism of pollination?
(a) Salvia
(b) Zostera
(c) Oestrum
(d) Callistemon
Answer:
(a) Salvia

Question 13.
The phenomenon of pollen grains of other flowers germinate rapidly on stigma than the pollen grains of same flower is ………………
(a) Protoandry
(b) Protogyny
(c) Prepotency
(d) Pollination
Answer:
(c) Prepotency

Question 14.
Inhibition of germination of pollen on stigma of same flower is ………………
(a) self-sterility
(b) self-pollination
(c) self compatibility
(d) selfing
Answer:
(a) self-sterility

Question 15.
The stigma provides ……………… for germination of pollen on it.
(a) oxygen
(b) water
(c) pectin
(d) malic acid
Answer:
(b) water

Question 16.
For successful artificial hybridization, these processes are essential.
(a) Disbudding and Bagging
(b) Budding and Bagging
(c) Emasculation and Budding
(d) Emasculation and Bagging
Answer:
(d) Emasculation and Bagging

Question 17.
Continued self-pollination results in ………………
(a) Hybrid vigour
(b) Genetic variability at greater extent
(c) Inbreeding depression
(d) Introduction of desired traits
Answer:
(c) Inbreeding depression

Question 18.
Heterostyly : Primula flowers : : Herkogamy: ?
(a) Gloriosa
(b) Calotropis
(c) Thea
(d) Salvia
Answer:
(b) Calotropis

Question 19.
The substance having key role in recognition and compatibility of pollen in pollen – pistil interaction is ………………
(a) special proteins
(b) special lipids
(c) pollenkitt
(d) sucrose
Answer:
(a) special proteins

Question 20.
This is NOT a type but variation in endosperm.
(a) Cellular
(b) Helobial
(c) Nuclear
(d) Mosaic
Answer:
(d) Mosaic

Question 21.
In monocot embryo, the single cotyledon is ……………… shaped and it is called ………………
(a) oval, scutellum
(b) shield, scutellum
(c) angle, coleoptile
(d) angle, coleorhiza
Answer:
(b) shield, scutellum

Question 22.
Endospermic seed : Maize : : Non-endospermic seed : ?
(a) Castor
(b) Coconut
(c) Wheat
(d) Bean
Answer:
(d) Bean

Question 23.
The integuments of fertilized ovule form the ………………
(a) seed
(b) seed coat
(c) hilum
(d) perisperm
Answer:
(b) seed coat

Question 24.
When diploid sporophytic cell forms diploid gametophyte without meiosis, it is phenomenon of ………………
(a) apogamy
(b) apocarpy
(c) apospory
(d) apoptosis
Answer:
(c) apospory

Question 25.
Which chemical substance is responsible for fruit development by Parthenocarpy?
(a) Malic acid
(b) Sucrose
(c) Boric acid
(d) Indole acetic acid
Answer:
(d) Indole acetic acid

Question 26.
Citrus seeds : Polyembryony : : Papaya fruits : ?
(a) Diplospory
(b) Apogamy
(c) Parthenocarpy
(d) Apospory
Answer:
(c) Parthenocarpy

Question 27.
Who discovered the phenomenon of double fertilization?
(a) Noll
(b) Maheshwari
(c) Leeuwenhoek
(d) Nawaschin
Answer:
(d) Nawaschin

Question 28.
When embryo development takes place the first cell of the suspensor which is towards micropylar end functions as ………………
(a) hypophysis
(b) haustorium
(c) scutellum
(d) plumule
Answer:
(b) haustorium

Question 29.
Point out the odd one.
(a) Coleoptile
(b) Coleorhiza
(c) Scutellum
(d) Perisperm
Answer:
(d) perisperm

Question 30.
Select the plant having both chasmogamous and cleistogamous flowers.
(a) Viola
(b) Primula
(c) Thea
(d) Fritillaria
Answer:
(a) Viola

Question 31.
Identify the mismatched pair.
(a) Cellular endosperm – Balsam
(b) Nuclear endosperm – Wheat
(c) Helobial endosperm – Asphodelus
(d) Mosaic endosperm – Coconut
Answer:
(d) Mosaic endosperm – Coconut

Question 32.
Up to which stage embryo development is similar in dicots and monocots?
(a) Proembryo
(b) Quadrant
(c) Octant
(d) Heart-shaped
Answer:
(c) Octant

Question 33.
The cross pollination within the same species is also called ………………
(a) hybridization
(b) xenogamy
(c) allogamy
(d) autogamy
Answer:
(b) xenogamy

Question 34.
In a recently fertilized ovule, the haploid, diploid and triploid conditions are respectively seen in ………………
(a) endosperm, nucellus, egg
(b) egg, nucellus, endosperm
(c) antipodals, oospore, primary endosperm nucleus
(d) polar nuclei, secondary nucleus, endosperm
Answer:
(c) antipodals, oospore, primary endosperm nucleus

Question 35.
In sunflower, self-pollination is avoided by ………………
(a) protogyny
(b) unisexuality
(c) self-sterility
(d) protandry
Answer:
(d) protandry

Question 36.
A versatile anther is an adaptation for ……………… type of pollination.
(a) anemophilous
(b) entomophilous
(c) hydrophilous
(d) ornithophilous
Answer:
(a) anemophilous

Question 37.
The endosperm cells in an angiospermic plant has 18 chromosomes, the number of chromosomes in its root cells will be ………………
(a) 12
(b) 6
(c) 18
(d) 24
Answer:
(a) 12

Question 38.
In porogamy, the pollen tube enters into the ovule through ………………
(a) micropyle
(b) integuments
(c) chalaza
(d) funicle
Answer:
(a) micropyle

Question 39.
Which of the following is not floral adaptation for entomophily?
(a) Large flowers
(b) Bright coloured flowers
(c) Sweet scented flowers
(d) Small inconspicuous flowers
Answer:
(d) small inconspicuous flower

Question 40.
Pollination through water is called ………………
(a) zoophily
(b) hydrophily
(c) anemophily
(d) entomophily
Answer:
(b) hydrophily

Question 41.
The types of pollination exhibited by Vallisneria and Zea mays respectively are ………………
(a) anemophily and hydrophily
(b) entomophily and hydrophily
(c) hydrophily and anemophily
(d) hydrophily and entomophily
Answer:
(c) hydrophily and anemophily

Question 42.
The union of male gamete with the female gamete is called ………………
(a) autogamy
(b) allogamy
(c) fertilization
(d) pollination
Answer:
(c) fertilization

Question 43.
The secondary nucleus is formed by the fusion of ………………
(a) two polar nuclei
(b) three nuclei
(c) two synergids
(d) two antipodal cells
Answer:
(a) two polar nuclei

Question 44.
A group of three cells situated at the base of the embryo sac are called ………………
(a) tube
(b) generative
(c) synergid
(d) antipodal
Answer:
(d) antipodal

Question 45.
The female gametophyte in angiosperms is a ……………… nucleated structure.
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 8
Answer:
(d) 8

Question 46.
In artificial hybridization, pollen grains are pollinated by ………………
(a) wind
(b) insect
(c) birds
(d) hand
Answer:
(d) hand

Question 47.
Which of the following does not occur in the embryo sac of angiosperms?
(a) egg apparatus
(b) secondary nucleus
(c) antipodal cells
(d) raphe
Answer:
(d) raphe

Question 48.
To produce 500 pollen grains, how many microspore mother cells are required ?
(a) 500
(b) 125
(c) 250
(d) 1000
Answer:
(b) 125

Question 49.
How many meiotic divisions are required for the formation of 100 seeds ?
(a) 25
(b) 50
(c) 100
(d) 125
Answer:
(b) 50

Question 50.
During fertilization, male gametes are carried by pollen tube. This is called ………………
(a) syngamy
(b) siphonogamy
(c) mesogamy
(d) polygamy
Answer:
(b) siphonogamy

Question 51.
In bisexual flowers, maturation of gynoecium before androecium is known as ………………
(a) protandry
(b) protogyny
(c) gynandry
(d) dicliny
Answer:
(b) protogyny

Question 52.
……………… is formed in angiosperms by triple fusion.
(a) Testa
(b) Integument
(c) Endosperm
(d) Suspensor
Answer:
(c) Endosperm

Question 53.
The minimum number of meiotic divisions required to produce 120 viable seeds in pea plant is ………………
(a) 150
(b) 60
(c) 120
(d) 90
Answer:
(a) 150

Question 54.
Ornithophily is effected by ………………
(a) snails
(b) insects
(c) bats
(d) birds
Answer:
(d) birds

Question 55.
Synergids are ………………
(a) haploid
(b) triploid
(c) diploid
(d) tetraploid
Answer:
(a) haploid

Question 56.
Egg apparatus consists of ………………
(a) egg and antipodals
(b) egg and polar nuclei
(c) egg and synergids
(d) egg and secondary nucleus
Answer:
(c) egg and synergids

Question 57.
Embryo sac is ………………
(a) microgametophyte
(b) microsporangium
(c) megagame tophyte
(d) megasporangium
Answer:
(c) megagametophyte

Question 58.
If the number of chromosomes in an endosperm cell is 27, what will be the chromosome number in the definitive nucleus?
(a) 9
(b) 18
(c) 27
(d) 36
Answer:
(b) 18

Question 59.
How many meiotic divisions will be needed to produce 44 female gametophytes in angiosperms?
(a) 11
(b) 22
(c) 44
(d) 66
Answer:
(c) 44

Question 60.
Endosperm of angiosperm is ………………
(a) haploid
(b) diploid
(c) triploid
(d) tetraploid
Answer:
(c) triploid

Match the columns

Question 1.

(1) Column A (Asexual)	Column B (Examples)
(1) Spore formation	(a) Spirogyra
(2) Conidia formation	(b) Yeast
(3) Fragmentation	(c) Chlamydomonas
(4) Budding	(d) Penicillium

Answer:

(1) Column A (Asexual)	Column B (Examples)
(1) Spore formation	(c) Chlamydomonas
(2) Conidia formation	(d) Penicillium
(3) Fragmentation	(a) Spirogyra
(4) Budding	(b) Yeast

Question 2.

Column A (Artificial Vegetative Propagation)	Column B (Examples)
(1) Leaf cutting	(a) Blackberry
(2) Stem cutting	(b) Apple
(3) Grafting	(c) Bougainvillea
(4) Root cutting	(d) Sansevieria

Answer:

Column A (Artificial Vegetative Propagation)	Column B (Examples)
(1) Leaf cutting	(d) Sansevieria
(2) Stem cutting	(c) Bougainvillea
(3) Grafting	(b) Apple
(4) Root cutting	(a) Blackberry

Question 3.

Column A (Part of Anatropous ovule)	Column B (Terminology)
(1) Opening at the apex	(a) Hilum
(2) Stalk of the ovule	(b) Integument
(3) Protective covering	(c) Micropyle
(4) Place of attachment of body and stalk	(d) Funiculus

Answer:

Column A (Part of Anatropous ovule)	Column B (Terminology)
(1) Opening at the apex	(c) Micropyle
(2) Stalk of the ovule	(d) Funiculus
(3) Protective covering	(b) Integument
(4) Place of attachment of body and stalk	(a) Hilum

Question 4.

Column A (Adaptation)	Column B (Type of pollination)
(1) Sticky, spiny pollen grains non-fragrant flowers	(a) Anemophily
(2) Feathery stigma and versatile anther	(b) Chiropterophily
(3) Presence of nectar glands and sweet smell	(c) Ornithophily
(4) Dull coloured flowers with strong fragrance	(d) Entomophily

Answer:

Column A (Adaptation)	Column B (Type of pollination)
(1) Sticky, spiny pollen grains non-fragrant flowers	(c) Ornithophily
(2) Feathery stigma and versatile anther	(a) Anemophily
(3) Presence of nectar glands and sweet smell	(d) Entomophily
(4) Dull coloured flowers with strong fragrance	(b) Chiropterophily

Question 5.

Column A (Mechanism)	Column B (Type of pollination)
(1) Geitonogamy	(a) Thea
(2) Herkogamy	(b) Gloriosa
(3) Self-sterility	(c) Cucurbita
(4) Protogyny	(d) Calotropis

Answer:

Column A (Mechanism)	Column B (Type of pollination)
(1) Geitonogamy	(c) Cucurbita
(2) Herkogamy	(d) Calotropis
(3) Self-sterility	(a) Thea
(4) Protogyny	(b) Gloriosa

Question 6.

Column A	Column B
(1) Nutritive tissue of embryo	(a) Perisperm
(2) Remnants of nucellus in seed	(b) Cotyledon
(3) Nutritive tissue of developing microspores	(c) Endosperm
(4) First photosynthetic organ of embryo	(d) Tapetum

Answer:

Column A	Column B
(1) Nutritive tissue of embryo	(c) Endosperm
(2) Remnants of nucellus in seed	(a) Perisperm
(3) Nutritive tissue of developing microspores	(d) Tapetum
(4) First photosynthetic organ of embryo	(b) Cotyledon

Very short answer questions

Question 1.
What is budding in plants?
Answer:
Budding in plants is an artificial method of propagation in which a single bud is joined or grafted on the stock plant.

Question 2.
What is the function of flower?
Answer:
Flower is a specialized reproductive structure which produces haploid gametes and ensures that act of fertilization will take place.

Question 3.
Enlist the wall layers of mature anther.
Answer:
Epidermis, endothecium, middle layer and tapetum are observed from outside to inside.

Question 4.
What is the peculiarity of angiospermic gametophytes ?
Answer:
The gametophytes are reduced and develop within the flower.

Question 5.
Enlist the layers of sporoderm and their composition.
Answer:
Outer layer exine is composed of sporopollenin and inner layer intine composed of cellulose and pectin.

Question 6.
What is endosporous development of embryo sac?
Answer:
The development of female gametophyte occurs within the megaspore itself.

Question 7.
Enlist the chief agents responsible for pollination process of plants.
Answer:
Abiotic agents – wind, water and Biotic agents – insects, birds, bats.

Question 8.
Describe the characters of pollens of anemophilous flowers.
Answer:
The pollen grains are produced in large number from versatile anthers and are dry, light in weight for their easy dispersal.

Question 9.
What is hay fever?
Answer:
It is the allergic symptoms observed in people who are sensitive to pollen grains mainly of anemophilous plants.

Question 10.
Enlist the different types of pollination observed in aquatic plants.
Answer:
Aquatic plants have hypohydrophilous, epihydrophilous, anemophilous as well as entomophilous type of pollination.

Question 11.
What is the main role of pistil in pollen- pistil interaction?
Answer:
As pollen grain is deposited on stigma, pistil has the ability to recognise and accept the compatible pollen of same species for further germination.

Question 12.
What type is the endosperm of coconut?
Answer:
Coconut has free nuclear vacuolated endosperm in the centre with multicellular endosperm in the outer part.

Question 13.
What is the origin of embryos in adventive polyembryony ?
Answer:
The embryos develop from diploid cells of nucellus and integuments.

Question 14.
What is vegetative propagation ?
Answer:
The reproduction which occurs with the help of vegetative organs like root, stem, leaf or bud is called vegetative reproduction or vegetative propagation.

Question 15.
What is grafting ?
Answer:
Grafting is an artificial method of vegetative propagation in which the parts of two different plants are combined in such a way that they unite with each other and continue their growth as one plant.

Question 16.
What is triple fusion?
Answer:
The process involving the fusion of a male gamete with the diploid secondary nucleus to form a triploid primary endosperm nucleus is called triple fusion.

Question 17.
What is syngamy ?
Answer:
The fusion of male gamete with the egg or oosphere to form diploid zygote or oospore is called syngamy.

Question 18.
What are the two major modes of reproduction in angiosperms ?
Answer:
The two major modes of reproduction in angiosperms are asexual reproduction and sexual reproduction.

Question 19.
What is the main feature of asexual reproduction ?
Answer:
The main feature of asexual reproduction is that it is uniparental and the offspring produced are genetically identical to the parents.

Question 20.
What is sexual reproduction ?
Answer:
The method of reproduction which involves the formation and fusion of gametes is called sexual reproduction.

Question 21.
Name the initial cells of the male and female gametophytes.
Answer:
The haploid microspores (n) and megaspores (n) are the initial cells of the male and female gametophytes.

Question 22.
At which stage, the pollen grains are liberated in the most angiosperms ?
Answer:
The pollen grains are liberated at 2-celled stage in most angiosperms.

Question 23.
What is an anatropous ovule ?
Answer:
The ovule which has a downwardly directed micropyle is called an anatropous ovule.

Question 24.
Give the scientific term used for water pollinated flowers.
Answer:
The scientific term used for water pollinated flowers is hydrophilous.

Question 25.
Give one example each of dicot endospermic seed and non-endospermic seed.
Answer:

1. Endospermic seed : Castor
2. Non-endospermic seed : Bean.

Question 26.
What is dichogamy?
Answer:
Maturation of anther and stigma at different times is called dichogamy.

Question 27.
How is diploid condition restored in angiosperms ?
Answer:
In angiosperms, the diploid condition is restored by the fusion of two haploid gametes.

Question 28.
What is egg apparatus ?
Answer:
The egg apparatus is a three-celled structure lying at the micropylar end of the embryo sac.

Question 29.
Why are some seeds of citrus referred to as polyembryonic?
Answer:
When the seeds of citrus germinate, we notice development of multiple seedling. This is due to adventive embryos formed in the seeds in addition to zygotic embryo.

Give definition/meaning of the following terms

Question 1.
Reproduction
Answer:
Reproduction is the process by which offspring is produced which resembles the parents.

Question 2.
Clones
Answer:
Morphologically and genetically identical individuals are called clones.

Question 3.
Scion
Answer:
The part of the stem containing more than one bud which is joined onto a rooted plant.

Question 4.
Stock
Answer:
Stock is a rooted plant on which part of the stem (scion) is joined in grafting.

Question 5.
Microsporogenesis
Answer:
The process in which each microspore mother cell divides meiotically to form tetrad of haploid microspores (pollen grains).

Question 6.
Pollen viability
Answer:
It is the ability of pollen grains to germinate and develop into male gametophyte.

Question 7.
Pollination
Answer:
Pollination is the transfer of pollen grains from anther to the stigma of flower.

Question 8.
Autogamy
Answer:
Autogamy is a type of pollination in which bisexual flower is pollinated by its own pollen grains.

Question 9.
Dioecism
Answer:
Dioecism is condition in which the plant bears either male or female flower and it is also called unisexuality.

Question 10.
Double fertilization
Answer:
The process of fertilization where both the male gametes participate in the complex fertilization mechanism seen in angiosperms is called double fertilization.

Question 11.
Embryogenesis
Answer:
The process of development of zygote into an embryo is called embryogenesis.

Question 12.
Dormancy
Answer:
Structural or physiological adaptive mechanism for survival is called dormancy.

Question 13.
Polyembryony
Answer:
The condition in which there is development of more than one embryo inside the seed is called polyembryony.

Give significance / importance of the following

Question 1.
Reproduction
Answer:
Reproduction is an essential process that leads to continuation of species. It also maintains the continuity of life.

Question 2.
Asexual reproduction
Answer:
The fusion of sex cells is not involved in this process thus it results in the production of genetically identical progeny from a single parent.

Question 3.
Vegetative Reproduction/Propagation
Answer:
The plants reproduce asexually from their vegetative plant parts and thus new plants formed are genetically similar to their parents.

Question 4.
Sexual reproduction
Answer:
It involves fusion of two compatible gametes and thus it results in production of genetically dissimilar offspring. Variations are set in, which are important from point of view of survival and evolution of species.

Question 5.
Exine
Answer:
Outer thick layer of pollen grain which is made up of complex non- biodegradable sporopollenin that is resistant to chemicals.

Question 6.
Germ pores
Answer:
These are thin areas in the exine, through which developing pollen tube emerges out during pollen germination.

Question 7.
Pollen viability
Answer:
The functional viability of pollen grain to form male gametophyte. It can germinate in favourable environmental conditions of suitable temperature and humidity.

Question 8.
Synergid/Filiform apparatus
Answer:
It is present in egg apparatus of embryo sac (female gametophyte) which directs the pollen tube towards the egg cell due to chemicals secreted.

Question 9.
Pollination
Answer:
Non-motile pollen grains are transferred on stigma of flower with some external abiotic or biotic agents.

Question 10.
Autogamy/Self-pollination
Answer:
In a bisexual flower, when it is pollinated by its own pollen grain the offspring formed are genetically identical to their parents.

Question 11.
Xenogamy/Cross pollination/Outbreeding
Answer:
When cross pollination takes place then that generates genetically, varied offspring.

Question 12.
Heterostyly/Heteroanthy (Heteromorphy)
Answer:
When in some flowers; stigmas and anthers are placed at different levels then it prevents self-pollination by preventing pollens to reach the stigma.

Question 13.
Double fertilization
Answer:

1. It ensures seed formation with food storage for embryo developed from fertilized egg.
2. Diploid zygote develops into embryo which further forms a new plant.
3. Triploid PEN forms endosperm which is nutritive tissue for embryo.
4. Restoration of diploid condition by syngamy.

Question 14.
Endosperm
Answer:
It is nutritive tissue of embryo developed in post-fertilization changes which also triggers the growth of embryo in proper manner.

Question 15.
Seed formation
Answer:
Seeds are important propagating units of plant and their dispersal helps in distribution of species.

Question 16.
Fruit formation
Answer:
Nourishment to the developing seeds and protection of the immature seeds is role of fruit formation.

Question 17.
Apomixis
Answer:
When embryo(s) are formed through asexual method of reproduction without gamete formation, genetically identical plants can be produced rapidly and effectively by apomixis.

Question 18.
Parthenocarpy
Answer:
Development of fruit without the process of fertilization results in formation of seedless fruit.

Question 19.
Polyembryony
Answer:
As there is development of more than one embryo in the seed it increases the chances of survival of new plants.

Name the following

Question 1.
Condition in flower when androecium matures before that of gynoecium.
Answer:
Protandry

Question 2.
Method of asexual reproduction in sponges.
Answer:
Gemmule formation

Question 3.
Method in which small amount of plant tissue is carefully grown.
Answer:
Tissue culture.

Question 4.
Recent or Modern method of vegetative reproduction of plants form plant tissue.
Answer:
Micropropagation.

Question 5.
Most common type of ovule in angiosperms.
Answer:
Anatropous

Question 6.
A diploid nucleus in central cell of embryo sac in plants.
Answer:
Secondary nucleus or definitive nucleus

Question 7.
A condition of flowers where its sex organs are exposed.
Answer:
Chasmogamy.

Question 8.
Components necessary to induce germination of pollen in synthetic medium.
Answer:
Sucrose and boric acid.

Question 9.
The plant material in which double fertilization was discovered.
Answer:
Liliaceae plants like Lilium and Fritillaria.

Question 10.
A condition in which pollen tube enters the ovule through micropyle, through chalaza or through integuments.
Answer:
Porogamy, chalazogamy and mesogamy respectively.

Question 11.
Non-motile male gametes are carried through hollow tube when pollen grain germinate.
Answer:
Siphonogamy

Question 12.
Layers of seed coat.
Answer:
Outer testa and inner tegmen

Question 13.
A state of metabolic arrest that helps in survival of organism In adverse conditions.
Answer:
Dormancy.

Question 14.
Name the nuclei taking part in triple fusion.
Answer:
The nucleus of male gamete and the secondary nucleus formed by fusion of two polar nucleI.

Question 15.
What do you call the kernel that you eat in tender coconut?
Answer:
Coconut meat (kopra)

Distinguish between

Question 1.
Asexual Reproduction – Sexual Reproduction
Answer:

Asexual Reproduction	Sexual Reproduction
1. Fusion of sex cells or two compatible gametes is not involved.	1. Fusion of sex cells or two compatible gametes is involved.
2. It results in production of genetically identical progeny.	2. It results in production of genetically dissimilar offspring.
3. Offspring inherit genes of the parent.	3. Offspring have combination genes from both the parents through their gametes.
4. Variations are not observed in progeny.	4. Variations due to recombination are observed which are useful for survival and evolution of species.

Question 2.
Autogamy (Self-pollination) – Xenogamy (cross pollination)
Answer:

Autogamy (Self-pollination)	Xenogamy (Cross pollination)
1. In self-pollination, bisexual flower is pollinated by its own pollen grains.	1. In cross pollination the pollen grains from the anther are carried to the stigma of another flower of same species.
2. Self-pollination does not depend upon external agents for pollination.	2. Cross pollination does depend upon external agents for pollination.
3. Self-pollination is economical as there is no wastage of pollen grains.	3. Cross pollination is not economical as there is wastage of pollen grains during transfer.
4. Offspring are genetically similar to their parents; E.g. Pea	4. Offspring are genetically varied due to recombination. E.g. Food and fibre crops – Maize, Rice.

Question 3.
Hypohydrophily – Epihydrophily
Answer:

Hypohydrophily	Epihydrophily
1. Pollination takes place below the surface of water.	1. Pollination takes place on the surface of water.
2. Pollen grains are heavier and they sink in water.	2. Pollen grains float on the water surface.
3. Pollens are long, ribbon like without exine.	3. Pollens have specific gravity equal to water.
4. E.g. Zostera (sea grass)	4. E.g. Vallisneria

Give scientific reasons

Question 1.
The development of embryo sac is described as monosporic.
Answer:

1. Embryo sac develops inside the nucellus of ovule from megaspore.
2. Megaspore mother cell is diploid structure which undergoes meiosis.
3. After meiosis, tetrad of haploid cells are produced.
4. The upper three megaspores degenerate and the lower one of the tetrad is functional.
5. The entire embryo sac is developed by elongation and then three mitotic divisions of this single megaspore take place hence the development is described as monosporic.

Question 2.
Pollination is prerequisite for fertilization in plants.
Answer:

1. Fertilization is fusion of male and female gametes.
2. Pollination is transfer of pollen grains which carry non-motile male gametes.
3. Pollen grains are transferred from anther to stigma of flower where they germinate.
4. Both male and female gametes are non- motile and they are produced at two different sites.
5. Therefore the pollination process is necessary for act of fertilization in plants.

Question 3.
Dichogamy favours cross pollination.
Answer:

1. Maturation of anther (stamen) and stigma (carpel) at different times is called dichogamy.
2. Dichogamy is of two types, viz, protandry and protogyny.
3. Maturity of anthers before that of gynoecium is protandry and maturity of carpel before maturity of pollen grains is protogyny.
4. As this forms barrier for self-pollination, dichogamy favours cross pollination.

Question 4.
Fertilization in angiosperms is double fertilization.
Answer:

1. In angiosperms, pollen tube carries two non-motile male gametes.
2. Pollen tube enters the embryo sac in synergids and the contents are relased.
3. Out of the two male gametes produced by the male gametophyte, one unites with female gamete i.e syngamy and the other with the secondary nucleus i.e. triple fusion.
4. Since both the male gametes take part in fertilization which takes place twice, it is called double fertilization.

Question 5.
Castor seed is endospermic or albuminous.
Answer:

1. Endosperm, that is developed after fertilization is a nutritive tissue for developing embryo.
2. Endosperm stores food material.
3. In some seeds this reserved food is partially utilized by embryo for development, E.g; Castor.
4. The endosperm remains in the seed and it is utilized further during seed germination. Hence the seed is endospermic or albuminous.

Question 6.
Parthenocarpic fruits are without seeds.
Answer:

1. In parthenocarpy, fruit is developed without fertilization.
2. When fertilization takes place ovules in the ovary are transformed into seeds.
3. In parthenocarpy, for fruit development chemical stimulus from placental tissue transforms or stimulates ovary into fruit but it is seedless.

Question 7.
Nucellar polyembryony is significant in horticulture.
Answer:

1. Polyembryony is a phenomenon where we get many embryos in the seed.
2. Polyembryony increases chances of survival of plants as there are multiple seedlings formed.
3. Nucellar embryos are formed from diploid parental tissue.
4. Thus genetically uniform type of seedlings are obtained which are similar to parents.

Write the short notes on the following

Question 1.
Vegetative reproduction.
Answer:

1. It is asexual method of reproduction.
2. Plants reproduce through their vegetative plant parts.
3. New plants produced are genetically identical to their parents.
4. It is very useful in agriculture and horticulture.
5. Artificial methods like cutting and grafting are useful for propagation of desired varieties as per human needs.

Question 2.
Grafting.
Answer:

1. It is type of artificial vegetative propagation.
2. In this method two different plants are joined together.
3. The part of stem containing one or more buds is scion which is joined on a rooted plant stock.
4. They grow as one plant, e.g. Apple, Pear, Mango.
5. When a single bud is grafted on a stock plant it is known as bud grafting or budding, e.g. Rose.

Question 3.
Pollen Viability.
Answer:

1. It is a functional ability of pollen grain to form male gametophyte by its germination.
2. Viable pollen grains germinate on stigmatic surface,
3. Environmental factors mainly temperature and humidity influence its germination.
4. Viability is low up to 30 minutes in plants like rice and wheat.
5. Duration of viability is up to months in some plants of family Leguminosae, Rosaceae and Solanaceae.

Question 4.
Seed Dormancy.
Answer:

1. It is a state of metabolic arrest which helps in survival of organism in unfavourable environmental conditions.
2. Structure or physiological adaptive measures of seed that are helpful in adverse conditions is called dormancy.
3. Seeds are dispersed during their dormancy.
4. When dormancy period of seeds is completed then only the viable seed germinate.

Question 5.
Parthenocarpy.
Answer:

1. It is a condition in which fruit is developed without event of fertilization.
2. It is a natural process observed on Pineapple and Banana.
3. A chemical stimulus in the form of auxin (IAA) is given by placental tissues of unfertilized ovary.
4. Due to the stimulus, enlargement of ovary takes place to form a fruit.
5. Parthenocarpic fruits are without seeds.

Question 6.
Polyembryony.
Answer:

1. It is a condition when more than one embryos are developed inside the seed.
2. It was first noticed in Citrus by Leeuwenhoek.
3. When embryos develop from diploid cells of nucellus or integuments, it is described as adventive polyembryony.
4. When zygote divides into small units which develop into embryos then it is called cleavage polyembryony.
5. It results in multiple seedlings and is of significance in horticulture.

Question 7.
Anemophily.
Answer:

1. The transfer of pollen grains through wind is called anemophily.
2. Plants that are pollinated by wind are called anemophilous plants.
3. Anemophilous plants bear small and inconspicuous flowers without any bright colours, fragrance and nectar.
4. Flowers are produced in large numbers.
5. Stamens are long with versatile anthers.
6. Stigma is feathery, exposed to receive the pollen grains coming along with the wind, e.g. Grasses, maize, Jowar and Palms.

Question 8.
Hydrophily.
Answer:

1. The transfer of pollen grains with the help of water is called hydrophily.
2. Plants that are pollinated by water are called hydrophilous plants.
3. Hydrophilous plants possess small, inconspicuous unisexual flowers.
4. Flowers lack fragrance, nectar and bright colour.
5. Pollen grains and other floral parts are protected from getting wet.
6. Stigma is long and sticky, e.g. Zostera, Vallisneria, etc.

Question 9.
Omithophily.
Answer:

1. The transfer of pollen grains through birds is called ornithophily.
2. Bird pollinated plants are called ornithophilous plants.
3. Ornithophilous plants bear large and showy flowers.
4. Flowers brightly coloured to attract birds for pollination.
5. Ornithophilous flowers lack fragrance as birds have poor sense of smell.
6. Pollen grains are sticky and spiny e.g. Callistemon, Bignonia, Bombax, Butea, etc.

Question 10.
Dichogamy.
Answer:

1. When stamens and carpels mature at different times in a bisexual flower, the condition is known as dichogamy.
2. Owing to dichogamy self-pollination is avoided and cross pollination is favoured.
3. Dichogamy is of two types, viz., protandry and protogyny.
4. Protandry is seen in sunflower in which pollen grains are released much before stigma becomes receptive.
5. In protogyny, stigma becomes ready to receive the pollen grains before the anthers mature. It is seen in plants like Gloriosa.

Question 11.
Embryo sac.
Answer:

1. Egg apparatus is a three celled structure lying at the micropylar end of the embryo sac.
2. The egg apparatus consists of a median egg cell called oosphere and two lateral cells called synergids.
3. The embryo sac also consists of three antipodal cells or antipodals towards the chalazal end which degenerate after fertilization.
4. In the centre, the embryo sac consists of a large central cell consisting of two haploid polar nuclei.
5. The polar nuclei at a later stage fuse with each other forming a diploid secondary nucleus.
6. The secondary nucleus develops into endosperm.

Question 12.
Entomophily.
Answer:

1. Pollination with the help of insects is called entomophily.
2. The insect pollinated flowers are called J entomophilous flowers.
3. Entomophilous flowers show the following adaptations:
4. Flowers are large and attractive.
5. Flowers are brightly coloured with i pleasant smell.
6. Flowers produce nectar which is food for the insects.
7. Pollen grains are spiny and sticky for easy adherance to the rough and sticky stigma.
8. Entomophily is seen in plants like rose, Jasmine, Oestrum, Salvia, etc.

Question 13.
Endosperm.
Answer:

1. Endosperm is a nutritive tissue. It nourishes the developing embryo.
2. The endosperm develops from the primary endosperm nucleus (PEN).
3. The endosperm is a post fertilization tissue.
4. There are two types of seeds depending upon the presence or absence of endosperm, viz., endospermic and non-endospermic.
5. Castor, coconut, maize, etc. are endospermic seeds, while bean, pea, gram, etc. are non-endospermic seeds.

Question 14.
Triple fusion.
Answer:

1. Triple fusion is also called second fertilization.
2. Out of the two male gametes in angiosperms, the first one fuses with the egg to form the zygote, while the second one fuses with the secondary nucleus to form primary endosperm nucleus. This is called triple fusion. Since each of the polar nuclei is a sister nucleus of the egg, it is called second fertilization.
3. First fusion involves the fusion of a male gamete with the egg; the second fusion involves the fusion of two polar nuclei to form the secondary nucleus and the third fusion involves the fusion of the other male gamete with the secondary nucleus.

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is asexual reperoduction? Describe fragmentation.
Answer:

1. Production of offspring without involving fusion of two compatible gametes or sex cells is called asexual reproduction.
2. Fragmentation : It is a type of asexual reproduction observed in lower plants, e.g. algae.
3. Multicellular organisms break into small pieces called fragments which develop into new plant.
4. These fragments are formed due to different reasons like accidental breakdown, death and decay of cells, etc.

Question 2.
Explain about artificial methods of vegetative reproduction.
Answer:

1. Vegetative propagation is a kind of asexual reproduction which occurs with the help of vegetative plant parts.
2. Cutting and grafting are two methods used to propagate desired varieties of plants.
3. Cutting – small pieces of plant parts having one or more buds are selected for propagation, e.g, Stem cutting – Rose, Root Cutting – Blackberry and Leaf cutting – Sansevieria.
4. Grafting – In this method two plant parts are joined ogether (Stock – rooted plant and Scion-attached plant and they continue their growth as one plant.
5. When a single bud is grafted on stock plant it is called as bud grafting, e.g. Rose, Apple, Pear.

Question 3.
What do bananas and figs have in common?
Answer:
Banana and fig, both are edible, soft, pulpy sweet fruits which are rich source of potassium. They are grown commercially.
[Note : Banana is a true fruit, simple fleshy berry, developing from single ovary. It may contain tiny seeds in pulp. Banana is parthenocarpic fruit which is developed by parthenocarpy.

Fig is a composite fruit syconus, developing from hypanthodium inflorescence. It is 5 pollinated by insect. We come across tiny seeds inside pulp. It is a false fruit. Receptacle is edible part which encloses tiny female flowers?]

Question 4.
Describe the T.S. of anther.
OR
Sketch and label the T.S. of undehisced anther.
Answer:

1. Internally it shows four chambers called microsporangia or pollen sacs.
2. The anther consists of two main parts, viz., anther wall and microsporangium or pollen sac.
3. The wall of the anther can be differentiated into four layers, viz., epidermis, endothecium, middle layers and tapetum.
4. The epidermis is the outermost layer of the anther wall. It is made up of flattened cells which are protective in function.
5. The endothecium lies internal to the epidermis. It is made up of a single layer of cells. The cells of endothecium show fibrous thickenings on radial walls.
6. Internal to the endothecium, lie 1 to 3 layers of parenchymatous cells forming middle layers of the anther wall. The cells of middle layers degenerate at maturity during the formation of microspores.
7. The tapetum is the innermost nutritive layer of the wall of the anther, consisting of a single layer of cell surrounding the sporogenous tissue.

Question 5.
Describe the structure of a mature anatropous ovule or a typical angiospermic.
Answer:

1. The ovule which has a bent axis and downwardly directed micropyle is called anatropous ovule.
   It is the most common type of ovule in angiosperms.
2. The matured anatropous ovule consists of two parts, viz., the stalk and the body. The stalk of the ovule is called the funicle or funiculus. The funicle attaches the ovule with the placenta.
3. The point at which the funicle is attached to the body of the ovule is called hilum.
4. Nucellus : It is made up of diploid parenchymatous cells.
   The basal part of the nucellus is called chalaza.
   The protective coverings of the nucellus are called integuments.
5. Micropyle : The integuments do not completely cover the nucellus. They leave a small opening called micropyle at the tip.
6. Embryo sac : In a mature ovule, the nucellus shows an oval-shaped structure towards its micropylar end called embryo sac or female gametophyte.

Question 6.
Why do some plants have both chasmogamous and cleistogemous plants flowers?
Answer:

1. When flowers open, their sex organs are exposed for further process of fertilization then it is chasmogamous condition.
2. Pollinating agents can easily transfer pollen grains in such flowers for self as well as cross pollination.
3. When flowers are closed, they are self pollinated in bud conditions then this condition is cleistogamy.
4. When some plants have both of these types of flowers it ensures pollination and fertilization leading to seed setting. When seeds are formed then perpetuation of species is achieved as new plants will germinate from it.

Question 7.
What is pollination ? What are its two types ?
Answer:
1. Pollination : The transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma is called pollination.

2. Types of pollination : Pollination is of two types, viz., self-pollination and cross pollination.
(i) Self-pollination (Autogamy) : The transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of the same flower or a different flower possessing the sam genetic make-up is called self-pollination.

(ii) Cross pollination (Allogamy) : The transfer of pollen grains from the anther of a flower to the stigma of another flower borne by a different plant possessing dissimilar genetic make-up is called cross pollination.

Question 8.
What are the different types of cross pollination based on the abiotic pollinating agents?
Answer:
Based on the abiotic pollinating agents, pollination can be either anemophily or hydrophily.
(1) Anemophily : Pollination with the help of wind is called anemophily. The wind pollinated plants are called anemophilous plants. Anemophily is seen in plants like grasses, maize, wheat, rice, palms, etc.

(2) Hydrophily : Pollination effected through the agency of water is called hydrophily. Water pollinated plants are called hydrophilous plants. Hydrophily is of two types viz., hypohydrophily and epihydrophily. Plants such a zostera, Vallisneria, etc. are hydrophilous plants.

Question 9.
What are different types of cross pollination based on the biotic pollinating agents?
Answer:
Cross pollination through biotic agents are entomophily, ornithophily and chiropterophily.
(1) Entomophily : Pollination effected through insects is called entomophily. Insect pollinated plants are called entomophilous. Entomophily is seen in plants like Hibiscus, Rose, Salvia, Oestrum, Jasmine, etc.

(2) Ornithophily : Pollination effected through the agency of birds is called ornithophily. Bird pollinated plants are called ornithophilous plants.
Ornithophily is seen in plants like Callistemon, Bombax, Butea, etc.

(3) Chiropterophily : Pollination effected through bats is called chiropterophily. Bat pollinated plants are called chiropterophilous plants. Chiropterophily is seen in plants like Anthocephalous (Kadamb tree), Adansonia (Baobab tree), Kigellia (Sausage tree).

Question 10.
Give the floral adaptations for chiropterophily.
Answer:

1. The pollination that occurs with the help of bats is called chiropterophily.
2. In chiropterous plants the flowers are large and stout enough in such a way that bats can hold onto the flowers.
3. Chiropterous flowers are nocturnal, i.e., they open during the night time only.
4. Flowers emit rotten fruits like fermenting fruity odours which attract bats.
5. Flowers produce copious nectar.
6. Flowers possess large number of stamens which produce large amount of edible pollen grains.
7. Anthocephalus, Kigellia and Adansonia are chiropterous flowers.

Chart or Table based guestions

I. Complete the following charts

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

II. Complete the following tables

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.
Complete the table-Related to outbreeding devices.

Type	Description	Example
1. ————	Unisexual flowers/Monoecious or dioecious plants	Papaya, Maize
2. ————	Mechanical device to prevent Self-Pollination – Natural physical barrier	—————-
3. Prepotency	——————–	Apple
4. Heteromorphy	——————–	Primula
5. Protandry	Androecium matures earlier than gynoecium	—————-

Answer:

Type	Description	Example
1. Unisexuality	Unisexual flowers/Monoecious or dioecious plants	Papaya, Maize
2. Herkogamy	Mechanical device to prevent Self-Pollination – Natural physical barrier	Calotropis
3. Prepotency	Pollens of other flower germinate rapidly rather than from same	Apple
4. Heteromorphy	Presence of different forms of flowers with respect to Stigma and anthers	Primula
5. Protandry	Androecium matures earlier than gynoecium	Sunflower disc florets

Question 3.

Hypohydrophily	Epihydrophily
1. Porogamy	————–
2. ————–	Entry of pollen tube in Ovule piercing integuments
3. —————	Entry of pollen tube in Ovule through Chalaza

Answer:

Hypohydrophily	Epihydrophily
1. Porogamy	Entry of pollen tube into Ovule through micropyle
2. Mesogamy	Entry of pollen tube in Ovule piercing integuments
3. Chalazogamy	Entry of pollen tube in Ovule through Chalaza

Diagram based questions

Question 1.
T. S. of anther.
Answer:

Question 2.
Development of male gametophyte
Answer:

Question 3.
Development of female gametophyte
Answer:

Question 4.
Double fertilization
Answer:

Question 5.
Maize Seed.
Answer:

Question 6.
Entry of pollen tube into Ovule – Porogamy
Answer:

Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Describe the types of reproduction in lower plants (i) Budding and (ii) Sporulation. Illustrate your answer with suitable diagrams.
Answer:
(i) Budding:

1. It is a type of asexual reproduction.
2. It is of very common occurrence in unicellular organism yeast.
3. It is observed in favourable condition.
4. Mother cell produces small outgrowth which is known as bud.
5. Buds maybe one or more and on separation, they grow as new individual.

(ii) Spore formation/Sporulation:

1. It is a tpe of asexual reproduction.
2. It is of very common occurrence in lower plants.
3. It occurs by production of motile zoospores that are formed in sporangia.
4. Flagellated zoospores when liberated can grow independently into new individuals.
5. Biflagellate zoospores are formed in algae Chlamydomonas.

Question 2.
Describe the structure of a mature pollen grain.
OR
Sketch and label pollen grain.
Answer:

1. A typical angiospermic pollen grain (mature) is a unicellular, uninucleate, spherical or oval haploid structure.
2. The pollen grain is also called microspore.
3. It is covered and protected by a double layered wall called sporoderm.

1. The outer layer of the wall is thick. It is known as exine. The inner layer of the wall is thin. It is known as intine.
2. The exine is made up of a complex substance called sporopollenin. The sporopollenin protects the pollen grain from physical and biological decomposition.
3. The exine is spiny in insect pollinated plants, with sculptured pattern or smooth in wind pollinated plants.
4. The exine is not continuous throughout. It is interrupted, very thin at one or more places by small pores called germ pores.
5. The intine which is composed of cellulose and pectin encloses the protoplasm with a single haploid nucleus.

Question 3.
Describe the development of female gametophyte in angiosperms.
OR
What is megasporogenesis ? Give an account of development of the female gametophyte.
OR
With a neat diagram explain the 7-celled, 8-nucleate nature of the female gametophyte.
Answer:
1. Megasporogenesis : The process by which . the diploid megaspore mother cell of nucellus undergoes meiosis to form a tetrad of haploid megaspores is known as megasporogenesis.

2. Development of female gametophyte:
(i) The diploid megaspore mother cell undergoes meiosis to form a linear tetrad consisting of four-haploid megaspores. Generally, the chalazal megaspore becomes the functional megaspore. The other three megaspores degenerate.

(ii) The chalazal megaspore (fertile megaspore) is the first cell of the female gametophyte. It undergoes enlargement and develops into the female gametophyte. The haploid nucellus of chalazal megaspore undergoes three successive free nuclear mitotic divisions to produce eight nuclei. Of these, the first mitotic division results in the formation of two nuclei.

(iii) Both these nuclei undergo two successive mitotic divisions resulting in the formation of four nuclei at both the poles. In the meantime, one nucleus from each pole called polar nucleus moves towards the centre of the embryo sac and fuse to form a diploid nucleus called secondary nucleus.

(iv) The three nuclei at the micropylar end are organised to form a three-celled structure called egg apparatus, while the other three nuclei at the chalazal end reorganise to form three antipodal cells. The egg apparatus consists of a central cell called egg cell or female gamete which is flanked by two lateral cells called synergids.

(v) The female gametophyte consists of an egg apparatus, a secondary nucleus and three antipodal cells, A7 celled 8 nucleated structure.

Question 4.
What are the three types of endosperm? Describe them briefly.
Answer:
There are three types of endosperm, viz., nuclear, cellular and helobial.
(i) Nuclear endosperm:

1. Nuclear endosperm is the most common type of endosperm.
2. During the formation of nuclear endosperm, the primary endosperm nucleus (PEN) undergoes free nuclear division forming a large number of triploid nuclei which remain freely suspended in the common cytoplasm of central cell.
3. A central vacuole pushes the nuclei towards periphery.
4. Later on wall formation takes place around these nuclei to form a cellular mass.
5. It is seen in plants like maize, sunflower, wheat, coconut, etc.

(ii) Cellular endosperm:

1. In this type of endosperm, the triploid primary endosperm nucleus undergoes nuclear divisions followed by cytokinesis.
2. Owing to this, the development of endosperm occurs in cellular form.
3. It is less common and seen in dicot plants like Datura, Petunia, Balsam, Adoxa.

(iii) Helobial endosperm:

1. In helobial type of endosperm, the first division of the primary endosperm nucleus is followed by the formation of cell wall.
2. Owing to this, the central cell is divided into a large micropylar cell and a small chalazal cell.
3. In both micropylar and chalazal chamber, the further development of the endosperm is of nuclear type.
4. Walls develop between nuclei in micropylar chamber.
5. This type of embryo development is seen in plants belonging to order Helobiales of Monocots. e.g. Asphodehis.

Question 5.
What is apomixis? Explain the categories of apomixis.
Answer:
(i) Apomixis : The phenomenon of formation of embryo(s) by asexual methods without formation of gametes and fertilization is termed as apomixis.

(ii) There are three main categories of apomixis.

1. Recurrent
2. Non-recurrent and
3. Adventive embryony.

1. Recurrent apomixis : In this diploid sporophytic cell, archesporial cell or nucellus form embryos, When diploid megaspore mother cell forms embryo sac it is known as diplospory. It is also called apospory.

2. Non-recurrent apomixis : Haploid embryo sac is formed but the embryos arise either from egg cell or any other haploid cell. It is also known as apogamy.

3. Adventive Embryony : In this in addition to normal zygotic embryo, additional embryos develop from nucellus or integuments. It results in polyembryony.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th OCM Important Questions Chapter 7 Business Environment Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Commerce OCM Important Questions Chapter 7 Business Environment

Select the correct option and rewrite the sentence

Question 1.
……………….. indicates the importance of the business environment.
(a) Identifying opportunities and threats
(b) Identifying firm’s strength and weakness
(c) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)

Question 2.
……………….. is an example of the social environment.
(a) Gross Domestic Product
(b) Consumer Protection, Act
(c) Customs and beliefs
Answer:
(c) Customs and beliefs

Question 3.
Liberalisation means ………………..
(a) reduced government controls and restrictions
(b) integration of economies
(c) policy of planned disinvestment
Answer:
(a) reduced government controls and restrictions

Question 4.
……………….. explains the impact of Government policy changes on business and industry.
(a) More demanding customers
(b) License system
(c) More industries for public sector
Answer:
(a) More demanding customers

Question 5.
……………….. environment consist of the methods and techniques adopted for production.
(a) Legal
(b) Political
(c) Technological
Answer:
(c) Technological

Question 6.
The policies decided by shareholders, managers, labour unions and the employees are known as ………………..
(a) Internal environment factors
(b) External environment factors
(c) International factors
Answer:
(a) Internal environment factors

Question 7.
……………….. is very powerful because powers such as policy making, law making, budget approving, etc. are in its hands.
(a) Government
(b) Judiciary
(c) Legislature
Answer:
(c) Legislature

Question 8.
……………….. economy is known as free market economy.
(a) Socialist
(b) Capitalist
(c) Mixed
Answer:
(b) Capitalist

Question 9.
……………….. does not involve an equal division of existing wealth among the people.
(a) Capitalist Economy
(b) Socialist Economy
(c) Mixed Economy
Answer:
(b) Socialist Economy

Question 10.
Globalisation includes ………………..
(a) Minimising high import tariffs
(b) Introduction of selective competition in the reserved area
(c) Reduction in physical restrictions on import and import duties.
Answer:
(a) Minimising high import tariffs

Question 11.
Changes in the fiscal policy of the Government is an aspect of ……………….. environment.
(a) Political
(b) Social
(c) Economic
Answer:
(c) Economic

Question 12.
Changes in the judicial system is an aspect of ……………….. environment.
(a) Economic
(b) Social
(c) Legal
Answer:
(c) Legal

Question 13.
Privatisation implies reduction in the role of ……………….. sector.
(a) Public
(b) Private
(c) Joint
Answer:
(a) Public

Question 14.
Level of literacy is an aspect of ……………….. environment.
(a) Economic
(b) Social
(c) Political
Answer:
(b) Social

Question 15.
Changes in the ruling government is an aspect of ……………….. environment.
(a) Economic
(b) Social
(c) Political
Answer:
(c) Political

Match the pairs

Question 1.

Part A	Part B
(a) Globalisation	(1) Reduced role of Public sector
(b) Privatisation	(2) Digital India
(c) Liberalisation	(3) Competition Act, 2002
(d) Technological Environment	(4) Mining of coal
(e) Natural Environment	(5) Integration of world economies
	(6) Increased role of public sector
	(7) Exercising controls
	(8) Occupation of people
	(9) Differentiation of economies
	(10) Removing unnecessary controls

Answer:

Part A	Part B
(a) Globalisation	(5) Integration of world economies
(b) Privatisation	(1) Reduced role of Public sector
(c) Liberalisation	(10) Removing unnecessary controls
(d) Technological Environment	(2) Digital India
(e) Natural Environment	(4) Mining of coal

Question 2.

Part A	Part B
(a) Internal Environment	(1) Stability and peace in the country
(b) Social Environment	(2) Value System
(c) Political Environment	(3) Monetary Policy
(d) Economic Environment	(4) Indian Contract Act, 1872 (2017)
(e) Legal Environment	(5) Customs and Traditions
	(6) Digital India

Answer:

Part A	Part B
(a) Internal Environment	(2) Value System
(b) Social Environment	(5) Customs and Traditions
(c) Political Environment	(1) Stability and peace in the country
(d) Economic Environment	(3) Monetary Policy
(e) Legal Environment	(4) Indian Contract Act, 1872 (2017)

Question 3.

Part A	Part B
(a) Privatisation	(1) Management
(b) Internal Environment	(2) National economy
(c) Liberalisation	(3) Values and demographic trends
(d) Political Environment	(4) Disinvestment
(e) Globalisation	(5) Delicensing
(f) Legal Environment	(6) World Economy
(g) Social Environment	(7) National Income Distribution
(h) Economic Environment	(8) Judicial System

Answer:

Part A	Part B
(a) Privatisation	(4) Disinvestment
(b) Internal Environment	(1) Management
(c) Liberalisation	(5) Delicensing
(d) Political Environment	(2) National economy
(e) Globalisation	(6) World Economy
(f) Legal Environment	(8) Judicial System
(g) Social Environment	(3) Values and demographic trends
(h) Economic Environment	(7) National Income Distribution

Write a word or a term or a phrase which can substitute each of the following statements

Question 1.
Controllable factor of the business environment
Answer:
Internal environment

Question 2.
The environment of business that includes economic condition, policies and system, basic philosophy, national income, money supply, trade cycle economic development.
Answer:
Economic environment

Question 3.
The environment of business that includes stability and peace in the country, specific attitudes of selected representative.
Answer:
Political environment

Question 4.
The environment of business which consist of factors such as climate, minerals, soil, landforms, rivers and oceans etc.
Answer:
Natural environment

Question 5.
The environment of business which consist of the methods and techniques adopted for production.
Answer:
Technological environment

Question 6.
The environment of business which regulates and controls within the legal framework of a country.
Answer:
Legal environment

Question 7.
The process of eliminating unnecessary controls and restrictions for smooth functioning of business.
Answer:
liberalization

Question 8.
The process of integration of national economy with world through cross country information, ideas, technologies, goods, services and people.
Answer:
Globalization

Question 9.
The process of reducing the involvement of state or public sectors by involving of private sector in economic activities.
Answer:
Privatization.

State whether the following statements are True or False

Question 1.
Internal factors of business environment are uncontrollable factors.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Business and Environment are independent.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Social Environment is not important for business.
Answer:
False

Question 11.
Business Environment consists of internal as well as external factors.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
All business from are affected by the government and its policies.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Liberalization of Indian economy resulted into easy entry of foreign business in India.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
Privatisation is an effective tool for restriction and reforming the public sector.
Answer:
True

Find the odd word out

Question 1.
Legislature, Government Shareholders.
Answer:
Shareholders

Question 2.
Social, Employees, Legal.
Answer:
Employees

Question 3.
Judiciary, Social values, Traditions.
Answer:
Judiciary

Question 4.
Value system, Human Resources, Marketing Resources.
Answer:
Marketing Resources

Question 5.
Liberalization, Socialization, Globalization.
Answer:
Socialization,

Question 6.
Technological, Weather, Climate.
Answer:
Technological

Question 7.
Social aspects, Economical aspect, Traditions.
Answer:
Economical aspect

Question 8.
Capitalist Economy, Mixed Economy, Indian Economy.
Answer:
Indian Economy

Question 9.
Indian Contract Act 1872, Indian Partnership Act 1932, Industrial Dispute Act 1947.
Answer:
Indian Partnership Act, 1932

Question 10.
Natural Environment, Economic Environment, Political Environment.
Answer:
Natural Environment.

Complete the sentence

Question 1.
The business environment constitute threats to the firm and offers ………………… for potential market.
Answer:
opportunities

Question 2.
Every society develops its own ………………… which means how the members of that society between and interact with each other.
Answer:
culture

Question 3.
Indian political system comprises of three vital institution like …………………, ………………… and Judiciary.
Answer:
Legislature, Government

Question 4.
………………… changes are fast and to keep pace with it, business should be ever alert.
Answer:
Technological

Question 5.
All nation would be interdependent in the ………………… economy.
Answer:
Global.

Select the correct option

Question 1.
Which analysis will enable managers to deal with business challenges?
(Environmental / Data / Political)
Answer:
Environmental

Question 2.
Which factor of Business Environment are regarded as uncontrollable?
(Internal / External)
Answer:
External

Question 3.
Trade and commerce between two nations are dependent on which factors?
(Social / Geographic / Technological)
Answer:
Geographic

Question 4.
Which is the most powerful institution in the Indian Political system?
(Legislature / Government / Judiciary)
Answer:
Legislature

Question 5.
In which economic system factors of productions are organized .managed and oriented by government?
(Capitalist / Socialist / Mixed)
Answer:
Socialist

Question 6.
Which economic system is followed in India?
(Capitalist / Socialist / Mixed)
Answer:
Mixed

Question 7.
Which of the following has created on economically interdependent international environment?
(Liberalisation / Privatisation / Globalisation)
Answer:
Globalisation

Correct the underline word and rewrite the following sentence

Question 1.
Internal factors of Business Environment are uncontrollable.
Answer:
External factors of Business Environment are uncontrollable.

Question 2.
External factor of business are controllable.
Answer:
Internal factor of business are controllable.

Question 3.
Vision, mission and objectives of business are related to External factors.
Answer:
Vision, mission and objectives of business are related to Internal factors.

Question 4.
Social trends and social values are part of economic environment.
Answer:
Social trends and social values are part of social environment.

Question 5.
Factors like climate, minerals, soil, river, etc. are elements of political environment.
Answer:
Factors like climate, minerals, soil, river, etc. are elements of natural environment.

Question 6.
Socialist Economy is also known as free market economy.
Answer:
Capitalist Economy is also known as free market economy.

Question 7.
GST is part of political environment.
Answer:
GST is part of legal environment.

Question 8.
Privatisation has resulted into easy of foreign business in India.
Answer:
Liberalisation has resulted into easy of foreign business in India.

Question 9.
Globalisation is an effective tool for restricting and reforming the public sector.
Answer:
Privatisation is an effective tool for restricting and reforming the public sector.

Question 10.
Liberalisation means integration of natural economy with world economic.
Answer:
Globalisation means integration of natural economy with world economic.

Study the following case/situation and express your opinion.

1. Just after declaration of Lok Sabha 2014 result, the Bombay Stock Exchange Sensex rose by 1000 points in a day.

Question 1.
Identify the environmental factor which led to this rise giving reason.
Answer:
Rise in stock market index (sensex) is economic environment. But it has done due to political environment (Lok Sabha Election Results)

Question 2.
Explain any two other dimensions of the environment.
Answer:
Two other dimensions of the environment are (a) Legal environment and (b) Technological environment

2. Government of India is seriously thinking to allow oil marketing under public sector, by fixing their own price for petroleum products.

Question 1.
Name the economic reform related to this decision.
Answer:
Privatization is the economic reform related to this decision.

Question 2.
Name other two reforms recommended in new economic policy.
Answer:
The other two reforms recommended in new Economic policy are Liberalization and Globalization.

3. Today it is common to see computerized information Kiosks and Internet / Word Wide Web multimedia pages highlighting the virtues of products.

Question 1.
Name the dimension of business environment highlighted in this statement.
Answer:
Technological environment

4. An advertisement of baby product giving information to the potential buyers that “Mother Milk is the best”.

Question 1.
Name the component of business environment.
Answer:
Legal Environment.

5. Zero Defect Zero Effect(ZED) is a slogan coined by the PM of India, with reference to the Make in India initiative launched by the government. The Zed model aims to make India the manufacturer of the world and present the products in the global market.

Before the. initiative was launched, the limits of Foreign Direct Investment(FDI) in various sector had been released. The application for licenses was made available Online and various other norms and production were also considered by the government.

Question 1.
From the above, identify the major components of New Economic Policy of 1991.
Answer:
Liberalization and Globalization.

Question 2.
In the light of the above discussion explain the component of NEP 1991.
Answer:

1. Liberalization : It refers to the process of eliminating unnecessary controls and restrictions for smooth functioning of business.
2. Privatization : It refers to reduce the involvement of state or public sectors by involving of private sector in economic activities.
3. Globalization : It refers to integration of national economy and societies through cross country flows of information, ideas, technologies, goods, services, capital, finance and people.

6. It is interesting to know that the menu items of multinational food chains are customized to suit the general palates of the local people in the region. When it started business in India in the year 1996, the company went through a complete location strategy. Me Donald’s changed its product menu to accommodate the vegetable burger given the large population. It priced the products by close to 15%. Also, the Mc-Aloo Tikki burger ‘is not available anywhere but in the Indian outlets of Me Donalds.

Question 1.
Identify the relevant feature of business environment discussed in the case above.
Answer:
Relativity is the feature of business environment discusses in the case above.

Question 2.
State the other features of business environment.
Answer:

1. The features of business environment are:
2. Determining opportunities and threats
3. Identifying firm’s strength and weakness
4. Continuous learning
5. Image Building
6. Meeting Competition
7. Giving Direction for growth

7. Ultra paint company which is manufacturing paints has been enjoying a prominent market position as it manufactured best quality paints, made timely payment of taxes to government. It assembled various inputs like finance, machines, raw material, etc. from its environment. But since last year it has been dumping its untreated possessions waste on the river bank which has created many health problems for the people. As a result, the court passed an order to seal the manufacturing unit of the company.

Question 1.
State the importance of business environment highlighted in the above case.
Answer:
Business environment helps in tapping useful resources.

Question 2.
Identify any two dimension of business environment mentioned in the above case and comment.
Answer:

1. Social environment : “It has been dumping untreated possession of waste on river bank problems” for people. This shows that it is at the cost of human life as their life is affected.
2. Legal Environment : “The court passed on order to seal the company”. It shows that through court interference the company was sealed.

Question 3.
State any two values which have been overlooked by the company.
Answer:
Company overlooked Environment protection, concern for human life, respect for law and order and social responsibility.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th OCM Important Questions Chapter 8 Introduction to Management Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Commerce OCM Important Questions Chapter 8 Introduction to Management

Select the correct option and rewrite the sentences

Question 1.
Management is a …………………. process.
(a) stable
(b) continuous
(c) one time
Answer:
(b) continuous

Question 2.
Formulating the plan is the main function of …………………. level management.
(a) top
(b) middle
(c) lower
Answer:
(a) top

Question 3.
Important, decisions in the business are made by ………………….
(a) management
(b) administration
(c) organisation.
Answer:
(b) administration

Question 4.
Management is a profession because it has ………………….
(a) specialised knowledge
(b) training facilities
(c) code of conduct.
Answer:
(a) specialised knowledge

Question 5.
According to views expressed by different management authorities, management and administration are ………………….
(a) synonymous
(b) different
(c) synonymous and different.
Answer:
(c) synonymous and different.

Question 6.
Management is an …………………. to co-ordinate groun efforts attaining the cherished goals of the business.
(a) activity
(b) process
(c) objective.
Answer:
(a) activity

Question 7.
…………………. is the basic and motivating factor of management.
(a) Human element
(b) Capital
(c) Direction.
Answer:
(a) Human element

Question 8.
Top management does …………………. and …………………. function.
(a) supervisory
(b) operative
(c) determination and administration.
Answer:
(c) determination and administration.

Question 9.
Management is a …………………. activity.
(a) group
(b) individual
(c) social.
Answer:
(a) group

Question 10.
Management is a …………………. science.
(a) social
(b) physical
(c) natural.
Answer:
(a) social

Question 11.
There are …………………. levels of management in a organisation.
(a) two
(b) four
(c) three.
Answer:
(c) three.

Question 12.
Management means to ………………….
(a) order
(b) co-ordinate
(c) help.
Answer:
(b) co-ordinate

Question 13.
Management motivates the emplovees to ………………….
(a) work hard
(b) take initiative
(c) earn more.
Answer:
(a) work hard

Question 14.
Management ensures the optimum use of ………………..
(a) blackmoney
(b) resources
(c) international market.
Answer:
(b) resources

Match the pairs

Question 1.

Part A	Part B
(a) Management	(1) Administration function
(b) Policy Making	(2) Human knowledge
(c) Thinking Function	(3) Top level management
(d) Doing Function	(4) Lower level management
(e) Top level management	(5) Middle level management
	(6) Management function
	(7) Knowledge of Administration
	(8) Board of Directors

Answer:

Part A	Part B
(a) Management	(2) Human knowledge
(b) Policy Making	(3) Top level management
(c) Thinking Function	(1) Administration function
(d) Doing Function	(6) Management function
(e) Top level management	(8) Board of Directors

Question 2.

Part A	Part B
(a) Management	(1) Regular practice
(b) Management as an Art	(2) Can be seen
(c) Top Level Management	(3) Administration
(d) Management as a Profession	(4) Universal in nature
(e) Lower Level Management	(5) Code of conduct
	(6) Evaluate performance
	(7) Foreman
	(8) Selective
	(9) Directing subordinates to complete task
	(10) Cause effect relationship

Answer:

Part A	Part B
(a) Management	(4) Universal in nature
(b) Management as an Art	(1) Regular practice
(c) Top Level Management	(6) Evaluate performance
(d) Management as a Profession	(5) Code of conduct
(e) Lower Level Management	(7) Foreman

Question 3.

Part A	Part B
(a) Systematic Body of knowledge	(1) Top level management
(b) Lower level management	(2) Management as an art.
(c) Management as universal process	(3) Board of Directors.
(d) Management as profession	(4) Practice oriented
(e) Direction and control.	(5) Service motive
	(6) Technical skills
	(7) Applicable to all organization.
	(8) Management as a science.
	(9) Applicable to business organization

Answer:

Part A	Part B
(a) Systematic Body of knowledge	(8) Management as a science.
(b) Lower level management	(6) Technical skills
(c) Management as universal process	(7) Applicable to all organization.
(d) Management as profession	(5) Service motive
(e) Direction and control.	(1) Top level management

Give one word / phrase / term

Question 1.
The activity which aims at achieving a definite goal.
Answer:
Management

Question 2.
Level of management requiring analytical or conceptual skill.
Answer:
Top level management

Question 3.
Another name for lower level management.
Answer:
Supervisory or Operational level

Question 4.
Level of management requiring human skills.
Answer:
Middle level management

Question 5.
Level of management which performs administrative functions.
Answer:
Top level management

Question 6.
Level of management that takes policy decision.
Answer:
Top level management

Question 7.
The highest level of management in the hierarchy.
Answer:
Top level management

Question 8.
The level which executes the policy.
Answer:
Middle level management

Question 9.
The level of management which requires few people.
Answer:
Top level management

Question 10.
The level of management which requires large number of persons.
Answer:
Lower level management

Question 11.
Levels of management which consists of supervisors and foremen.
Answer:
Lower level management

Question 12.
Level of management which consists of departmental managers.
Answer:
Middle level management

Question 13.
Level of management which consists of chairman and board of directors.
Answer:
Top level management

Question 14.
State the level of management in which Class-I executives are involved.
Answer:
Top level management

Question 15.
The art of directing and inspiring people.
Answer:
Management

Question 16.
The application of skill and knowledge to bring the desired result.
Answer:
Management as an art

Question 17.
Level of management that evaluates the performance of various departments.
Answer:
Top level management.

State True or False

Question 1.
There are no separate levels of management in an organization.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Management aims at achieving goals for its organization.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Management is an universal process.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Management aims at achieving goals for its organization.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Management is a profession.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
Management is a continuous process.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
Management aims at achieving business objectives.
Answer:
True

Question 8.
Objective of management is to obtain minimum output and maximum input.
Answer:
False

Question 9.
Management has to maintain good relations with all.
Answer:
True

Question 10.
Management is a perfect art.
Answer:
False

Question 11.
Management is neither a pure science nor a fine art.
Answer:
True

Question 12.
Profession do not have any ethics or code of conduct.
Answer:
False

Question 13.
Board of Directors are the part of lower management.
Answer:
False

Question 14.
The top level management is administrative in nature.
Answer:
True

Question 15.
The managers receive orders and instructions from lower level of management.
Answer:
False

Question 16.
Middle level management interprets and communicates the policies to top level management.
Answer:
False

Question 17.
Management is an art, a science and a profession.
Answer:
True

Question 18.
We cannot make any changes in the field of management.
Answer:
False

Question 19.
The professional manager does not need special knowledge and skill.
Answer:
False

Question 20.
Management is required to conduct business as well as non-business activity.
Answer:
True

Question 21.
Management helps in using the resources properly.
Answer:
True

Question 22.
Management is required even for a very small business.
Answer:
True

Question 23.
Management is an art only.
Answer:
False

Question 24.
Management cannot be considered as a business.
Answer:
True

Question 25.
Top level management performs the function of planning.
Answer:
True

Question 26.
Lower level management is engaged in the policy making.
Answer:
False

Question 27.
Levels of management are done according to the size of the organization.
Answer:
True

Find the odd one

Question 1.
Characteristics of Management Goal-oriented, Group Activity, Tangible, Continuous process.
Answer:
Tangible.

Complete the sentences

Question 1.
Administration is the involvement of ………………. management.
Answer:
Top

Question 2.
………………. deals with setting, seeking and reaching objectives.
Answer:
Management

Question 3.
Management has ………………. objectives.
Answer:
pre-determined

Question 4.
Supervisor level of management is directly linked to the ………………. functions of the firm.
Answer:
Routine

Question 5.
Lower level management is also known as ………………. management.
Answer:
Supervisory

Question 6.
………………. is an art of getting things done through others.
Answer:
Management

Question 7.
Generally there are ………………. levels of management in the organisation.
Answer:
Three

Question 8.
Management is ………………. oriented.
Answer:
Goal

Question 9.
Management is a ………………. science.
Answer:
Social

Question 10.
At the ………………. level of management, personnel are few.
Answer:
Top

Question 11.
Management means to ……………….
Answer:
Co-ordinate

Question 12.
Management has to satisfy unlimited want through limited ……………….
Answer:
Means

Question 13.
Management is an ………………. of getting work done through others.
Answer:
Art

Question 14.
Management is co-ordination of ………………. and physical resources.
Answer:
Human

Question 15.
A professional charges ………………. for his services.
Answer:
Fees

Question 16.
Management is done to achieve ……………….
Answer:
Goal/objective

Question 17.
Management is getting things done through ……………….
Answer:
Others

Question 18.
The word management is derived from Italian word ……………….
Answer:
Maneggiare

Question 19.
Implementation of policies is the function of ………………. level management.
Answer:
Lower

Question 20.
Every profession has a ………………. of conduct.
Answer:
Code

Question 21.
Management is derived from ………………. words.
Answer:
Two Latin.

Select the correct option

Question 1.
(Levels of Management, Lower Level Management, Management, Code of conduct, Board of Directors).

Part A	Part B
(1) Continuous Process	—————
(2) —————	Top Level Management
(3) Top, Middle, Lower	—————
(4) Profession	—————
(5) ————-	Lower Level Management

Answer:

Part A	Part B
(1) Continuous Process	Management
(2) Board of Directors	Top Level Management
(3) Top, Middle, Lower	Levels of Management
(4) Profession	Code of conduct
(5) Supervisory Level	Lower Level Management

Answer in one sentence

Question 1.
What is Italian word for ‘manage’.
Answer:
Italian word for ‘manage’ is ‘maneggiare’ meaning to handle.

Question 2.
Name the executive related to top level management.
Answer:
Executives related to top level management are – Board of Directors, President, Chief Executive Officer, Directors, etc.

Question 3.
Name the executives related to middle level management.
Answer:
Executives related to middle level management are Finance manger, Production manager, Sales manager, etc.

Correct the underlined word and rewrite the following sentences

Question 1.
Management is tangible in nature.
Answer:
Management is intangible in nature.

Question 2.
Management is one time process.
Answer:
Management is continuous process.

Question 3.
Administration is an art of getting things done through others.
Answer:
Management is an art of getting things done through others.

Question 4.
Management is static in character.
Answer:
Management is dynamic in character.

Question 5.
Top Level Management decides short term objectives of the organization.
Answer:
Top Level Management decides long term objectives of the organization.

Question 6.
Finance Manager is an example of lower level management.
Answer:
Superintendent is an example of lower level management.

Question 7.
Drawing, Cycling is a science.
Answer:
Drawing, Cycling is an art.

Study the following case/situation and express your opinion

1. Shankar Patil is an advocate and he is running his profession in a very good manner. His younger brother Prashant Patil has done very beautiful and artistic decoration of his brother’s office with seating arrangement and symbol of Justice as his hobby. Vishwas Patil, older brother of Shankar Patil is a science graduate and doing farming in best way. He exports the farm production.

On the basis of above information:
Question 1.
Identify the source of income of Shankar Patil.
Answer:
Shankar Patil is a lawyer by profession. He is practicing as a Lawyer / an advocate. He render his services to his clients and against that charges fee from them. So, ‘fee’ is the income source of Shankar Patil.

Question 2.
What is the qualification of Prashant Patil as a decorator?
Answer:
Prashant Patil may be or may not be a professional interior decorator. His hobby is decorating the office / houses. He may be an artist and an art does not require any formal education.

Question 3.
Mention two features of profession.
Answer:
Following are the features of profession:
1. Formal Education : Profession needs formal education. Today managers are qualified with management diploma or degrees. They take formal training from management schools which help them to work with perfection.

2. Restricted Entry : The entry in any profession is restricted. It needs a formal education. For example- Lawyer, Doctor, Interior designs, Architect, Chartered Accountant, etc. Such compulsion is not there for becoming a manager.

Justify the following statements

Question 1.
Management is an universal process.
Answer:

1. Management is applicable to all organization whether religious, social or cultural, educational or governmental or non-governmental.
2. All kind of organization have accepted management, as it is required everywhere.
3. Every activity which has to be performed by a group of persons requires effective planning, organizing, co-ordinating, and controlling.
4. Thus, management is an universal process.

Question 2.
There are levels of management in an organization.
Answer:

1. There are three levels of management in an organization.
2. The top level which consists of chairman, board of directors, etc takes care of formulating the board policies of the organization.
3. The middle level does the work of implementing and executing the orders to the lower level.
4. The lower level management does the actual and execution and operating activities.
5. All the three levels are important and they are dependent on each other.
6. Thus, all three levels are required for effective operation of the organization.

Question 3.
Management is a profession.
Answer:

1. It is a specialized body of knowledge and managers are required to have professional skill and training
   to be efficient.
2. It has certain ethical standards.
3. Its motive is service oriented.
4. It requires training which is formal.
5. Thus, Management is considered as a profession.

Question 4.
Management is neither a pure science nor a fine art.
Answer:

1. Management is said to be both an art and a science, as science teaches one to know and art teaches what to do.
2. Management is a science as it is a body of knowledge and generalisation that represents the truth and facts, but it is not a pure science like Physics, Chemistry and Biology.
3. Management is an art of applying the knowledge, but not pure fine arts like painting, dancing, etc.
4. Thus, Management is neither a pure science nor a fine art.

Question 5.
Profession has ethics or code of conduct.
Answer:

1. Profession is well-defined as an occupation which requires specialized skills and ethical standards.
2. Professional managers have to follow code of conduct and ethical standards laid down by the All India Management in India.
3. If they do not follow the code of conduct they can be derecognised and disqualified from the profession.
4. Thus, Profession has ethics and code of conduct.

Question 6.
Management is an art, a science and a profession.
Answer:

1. Management is an art because every manager has to apply his skills, intelligence, creativity for the efficient execution of management activities.
2. It is considered a science because it adopts the cause and effect relationship.
3. It has a scientific approach but deals in human behaviour, therefore called social science.
4. Management is also considered a profession because it is a specialized body of knowledge and managers are required to have professional skills and training to be efficient.
5. Thus, Management is an art, a science, and a profession.

Attempt the following

Question 1.
State the functions of lower-level management.
Answer:
The functions of lower-level management are as follows:

1. Planning day to day working.
2. Acting as a link between the middle level of management and workers.
3. Carrying out the instructions given by the middle-level management.
4. Delegating duties to workers, inspecting and supervising their work.
5. Attending to the problems of workers and making arrangements for their training and development.
6. To maintain discipline and good human relations among the workers.
7. Image building of the enterprise before workers and creating a sense of belongingness.
8. Ensuring the safety of workers, machines, tools, etc.
9. Making arrangements of materials and tools and preventing the misuse and wastage of such material.
10. Providing feedback information about the worker’s problems to the higher authorities.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th OCM Important Questions Chapter 5 Forms of Business Organisation – II Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Commerce OCM Important Questions Chapter 5 Forms of Business Organisation – II

Select the correct option and rewrite the sentence

Question 1.
Multinational corporations have a network of subsidiaries in ………………
(a) several countries
(b) home countries
(c) state only
Answer:
(a) several countries

Question 2.
A multinational corporation operates in ………………..
(a) only one country
(b) developed countries
(c) all over the world
Answer:
(c) all over the world.

Question 3.
A multinational corporation is also known as ……………….
(a) global corporation
(b) regional corporation
(c) national corporation
Answer:
(a) global corporation

Question 4.
Government company is registered under …………………
(a) Special legislation
(b) Companies Act, 2013
(c) Banking Act 1949
Answer:
(b) Companies Act, 2013

Question 5.
Private sector enterprise is owned, managed and controlled by the …………………
(a) Individuals
(b) Government
(c) Board of directors
Answer:
(a) Individuals

Question 6.
Public sector enterprise is owned, managed and controlled by …………………
(a) individuals
(b) Government
(c) Board of Directors
Answer:
(b) Government

Question 7.
Private Enterprises invest their funds in …………………
(a) areas of social benefit
(b) areas where return is maximum
(c) any area
Answer:
(b) areas where return is maximum

Question 8.
Atleast ………………… of the capital of Government company is held by the Government.
(a) 51%
(b) 71%
(c) 50%
Answer:
(a) 51%

Question 9.
Public enterprises are financed by …………………
(a) Government
(b) private businessmen
(c) political leaders
Answer:
(a) Government

Question 10.
The nature and power of a statutory corporation is defined in …………………
(a) Indian Companies Act, 2013
(b) Special Statute
(c) Prospectus
Answer:
(b) Special Statute

Question 11.
……………….. is formed by a Special Act of Parliament.
(a) Private Enterprise
(b) Government Company
(c) Statutory Corporation
Answer:
(c) Statutory Corporation

Question 12.
Public enterprises are generally not runned on …………………
(a) service motive
(b) commercial lines
(c) profit motive
Answer:
(c) profit motive

Question 13.
………………… is an example of Public Corporation.
(a) Post and Telegraph
(b) LIC
(c) BHEL
Answer:
(b) LIC

Question 14.
………………… is an example of departmental undertaking.
(a) LIC
(b) Reliance
(c) Post and Telegraph
Answer:
(c) Post and Telegraph

Question 15.
………………… is the oldest form of Public Sector Organisation.
(a) MNC
(b) Government Company
(c) Departmental Undertaking
Answer:
(c) Departmental Undertaking

Question 16.
Departmental organisations are accountable to ………………… for all their actions.
(a) Government
(b) Ministry
(c) Public
Answer:
(b) Ministry

Question 17.
The technological gap between the developed and developing countries is bridged by the …………………
(a) MNC
(b) Government Company
(c) Private enterprises
Answer:
(a) MNC

Match the pairs

Question 1.

Part A	Part B
(a) Departmental Organisation	(1) Private sector
(b) Statutory Company	(2) Operates globally
(c) Multinational Corporation	(3) Profit oriented
(d) Public sector Organisation	(4) Objective based agreement
(e) Government Company	(5) Service oriented
	(6) Established by passing a special act
	(7) 51% paid up capital by Government
	(8) Sole trading
	(9) Owned by government
	(10) Temporary partnership

Answer:

Part A	Part B
(a) Departmental Organisation	(9) Owned by government
(b) Statutory Company	(6) Established by passing a special act
(c) Multinational Corporation	(2) Operates globally
(d) Public sector Organisation	(5) Service oriented
(e) Government Company	(7) 51% paid up capital by Government

Question 2.

Part A	Part B
(a) Railways	(1) Statutory Corporation
(b) Government Company	(2) Decentralisation of control
(c) Multinational Company	(3) Not answerable to the Legislature
(d) Unit Trust of India	(4) National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC)
(e) Statutory Corporation	(5) Departmental organisation
	(6) Centralised control of their branches
	(7) Answerable to the Legislature
	(8) Bajaj Electricals Pvt. Ltd.
	(9) Owned by private individuals

Answer:

Part A	Part B
(a) Railways	(5) Departmental organisation
(b) Government Company	(4) National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC)
(c) Multinational Company	(6) Centralised control of their branches
(d) Unit Trust of India	(1) Statutory Corporation
(e) Statutory Corporation	(7) Answerable to the Legislature

Give one word / phrase / term

Question 1.
A company which is incorporated in one country and has business units in several countries.
Answer:
Multinational Corporation

Question 2.
A company where 51% of paid up capital is held by the Central or State government.
Answer:
Government company

Question 3.
Autonomous corporate body created by Special Act of Parliament.
Answer:
Statutory Corporation.

State True or False

Question 1.
Public enterprises are owned, managed and controlled by public.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Multinational companies have branches throughout the world.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Public enterprises have public accountability.
Answer:
True

Question 14.
Departmental organisations have right to borrow funds from outside.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
The main aim of private sector is to render services to the public.
Answer:
False

Question 6.
Government Company is registered under special legislation.
Answer:
False

Question 7.
Statutory Corporations need not follow the Companies Act, 2013.
Answer:
True

Question 8.
Government Companies enjoy legal status.
Answer:
True

Question 9.
Government interference is more in public sector enterprises.
Answer:
True

Question 10.
Multinational Companies help the host companies.
Answer:
True

Find the odd word out

Question 1.
National Thermal Power Corporations, Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited, Hindustan Machine Tools, LIC.
Answer:
LIC

Question 2.
Bata India, RBI, Infosys, Tata Motors.
Answer:
RBI

Question 3.
Sole Trading Concern, Joint Hindu Family Firm, Statutory Corporation, Joint Stock Company.
Answer:
Statutory Corporation

Question 4.
Unit Trust of India, Shipping Corporation of India, Indian Space Research Organisation, Yes Bank.
Answer:
Yes Bank

Question 5.
Samsung, IBM, Amazon, Patanjali.
Answer:
Patanjali

Question 6.
National Tiger conservation Authority, Securities and Exchange Board of India, State Bank of India, Indian Post and Telegraphs.
Answer:
SBI

Question 7.
Flipkart, Google, HP, Canara Bank.
Answer:
Canara Bank

Question 8.
Oriental Bank, Vijaya Bank, Andhra Bank, HDFC Bank.
Answer:
HDFC Bank

Question 9.
MTNL, BSNL, Vodofone, Air India.
Answer:
Air India

Question 10.
Air India, Indian Airlines, Spicejet.
Answer:
Spicejet

Question 11.
Tata, Reliance, Airtel, BSNL.
Answer:
BSNL

Question 12.
Coca Cola India, Hindustan Unilever, IBM, SAIL.
Answer:
SAIL

Question 13.
Railways, Post and Telegraph, Defence, RBI.
Answer:
RBI.

Complete the sentences

Question 1.
The main aim of private sector enterprises is to earn …………………
Answer:
profit

Question 2.
The main aim of public sector enterprises is to render …………………
Answer:
service

Question 3.
A government company may be a private limited company or a …………………
Answer:
public limited company

Question 4.
A company formed by passing a special act in the parliament or legislature is ………………… company.
Answer:
statutory

Question 5.
MNCs have the need of ………………… capital.
Answer:
huge

Question 6.
Profit maximization is the ultimate goal of ………………… sector.
Answer:
private

Question 7.
Departmental organisations are accountable to ………………… for all their actions.
Answer:
ministry (Parliament)

Question 8.
Departmental undertakings are a source of revenue to ………………… treasury.
Answer:
Government

Question 9.
Reserve Bank of India is an example of …………………
Answer:
Statutory Corporation

Question 10.
A company which is incorporated in one country and has business units in several countries is called …………………
Answer:
Multinational-Corporation

Question 11.
Post and Telegraph is an example of …………………
Answer:
Departmental Undertaking.

Select the correct option

Question 1.
(Multinational Corporation, Private Sector Organisations, Departmental Organisations, Statutory Corporation, Government Company)

Part A	Part B
(1) 51% paid up capital held by Central Government	…………………
(2) ………………..	Autonomous Corporate Body
(3) Owned by Private individuals	…………………
(4) ………………..	Operates Globally
(5) ……………….	Controlled by Concerned Ministry

Answer:

Part A	Part B
(1) 51% paid up capital held by Central Government	Government Company
(2) Statutory Corporation	Autonomous Corporate Body
(3) Owned by Private individuals	Private Sector Organisation
(4) Multinational Corporation	Operates Globally
(5) Departmental Organisations	Controlled by Concerned Ministry

Question 2.
(Statutory Corporation, Government Company, Multinational Corporation, Departmental Organisation)

Part A	Part B
(1) BATA India	………………….
(2) ………………….	Post Office, Railways, etc.
(3) Reserve Bank of India	…………………
(4) ………………….	BHEL

Answer:

Part A	Part B
(1) BATA India	Multinational Corporation
(2) Departmental Organisation	Post Office, Railways, etc.
(3) Reserve Bank of India	Statutory Corporation
(4) Government Company	BHEL

Correct the underlined word and rewrite the following sentences

Question 1.
Multinational Corporation is relatively free from Red tapism.
Answer:
Statutory Corporation is relatively free from Red tapism.

Question 2.
Infosvs is an example of Government Company.
Answer:
HMT is an example of Government Company.

Question 3.
Private Sector aims at providing services to customers.
Answer:
Private Sector aims at profit maximisation.

Question 4.
Private sector is owned by Government.
Answer:
Private sector is owned by individuals.

Question 5.
Defence Industry is an example of Statutory Corporation.
Answer:
Reserve Bank of India is an example of Statutory Corporation.

Question 6.
Departmental Organisation is financed by shareholders.
Answer:
Departmental Organisation is financed by annual budget.

Question 7.
Departmental Organisation has separate Legal entity.
Answer:
Government Company has separate Legal entity.

Question 8.
MNC operates at national level.
Answer:
MNC operates at global level.

Justify the following statements

Question 1.
Departmental organisations do not have right to borrow funds from outside.
Ans:

1. Department organisations is financed by annual appropriation from the treasury and its revenue also goes into Treasury.
2. This enterprise cannot borrow money from the public as enterprise is financed by the government and hence the government controls its affairs. Hence, answerable for its performance to the Parliament.
3. Government consent is required to borrow from public, if need arises.
4. Thus, Departmental organisations have no right to borrow funds from outside.

Question 2.
Statutory Corporations need not follow the Companies Act, 2013.
Ans:

1. Statutory corporation is formed or created by passing a Special Act in Parliament or State legislature.
2. The Act or Special Statute which is passed in the Parliament defines it powers, objectives, aims, duties, functions, rules and regulations governing its employees and its relationship with the Government department.
3. Statutory Corporation prepare its own budgets and recruits employees on the terms and conditions determined by its Board of Directors.
4. As Statutory Corporation is regulated as per the provisions made in Special Act of Parliament or State Legislature, it need not follow the provisions and directives given as per the Indian Companies Act, 2013. They need not have a Memorandum of Association or Articles as they have to strictly follow the Special statute.
5. Thus, Statutory corporation need not follow the Companies Act.

Question 3.
Government Companies enjoy legal status.
Answer:

1. Government Company is one in which not less than 51% of the share capital is held by the Central Government or State Government or part by Centre and part by State.
2. Government Companies are registered under Indian Companies Act, 2013 and its working is as per the Act and hence has distinct legal entity apart from the government,
3. Being a company registered under 2013 Act, it has all features like common seal, limited liability, stability, etc. It can enter into contracts and acquire property in its own name.
4. Thus, Government Company enjoys legal status or management is in the hands of Board of Directors and ownership is with Government.

Question 4.
Government interference is more in public sector enterprises.
Answer:

1. Public enterprises are accountable to the public and Government as the money is financed by the annual budget.
2. Public sector is welfare oriented and not profit oriented as public sector carries out work which is essential in the larger interest of public like making roads, bridges, flyovers, etc.
3. Various Parliamentary committees are set up to scrutinise the working of public enterprises and the reports are tabled before the Parliament.
4. The PSE’s do not enjoy financial autonomy, operational or administrative autonomy.
5. Thus, more government interference in public sector enterprises.

Question 5.
Multinational Companies help the host companies.
Answer:

1. MNC’s offer growth opportunities for domestic firms. They help domestic producers to enter the global markets through their international network of production and marketing.
2. MNC’s provide ready markets for raw materials or semi-finished goods produced by the local producers in the host countries.
3. The entry of MNC’s in the domestic market tends to break the monopoly of the selected few domestic companies. Due to this consumers in the host countries are benefited.
4. MNC’s help host countries by providing new sophisticated technology.
5. Thus, due to their global presence and superior marketing skills, MNC’s are in a position to help the host companies.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th OCM Important Questions Chapter 4 Forms of Business Organisation – I Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Commerce OCM Important Questions Chapter 4 Forms of Business Organisation – I

Select the Correct option and rewrite the sentence

Question 1.
A sole trading concern is a ………………. form of organization.
(a) private sector
(b) public sector
(c) none of these
Answer:
(a) private sector

Question 2.
A sole trading concern has ………………. liability.
(a) limited
(b) unlimited
(c) restricted
Answer:
(b) unlimited

Question 3.
Indian Partnership Act was passed in the year ………………..
(a) 1923
(b) 1956
(c) 1932
Answer:
(c) 1932

Question 4.
Minimum number of persons to start a public limited company is ……………..
(a) 2
(b) 7
(c) 10
Answer:
(b) 7

Question 5.
The minimum number of directors in a private company is ……………….
(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 5
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 6.
Business organisation which is controlled by Hindu Succession Act is known as …………….
(a) Joint Stock Company
(b) Partnership Firm
(c) Joint Hindu Family Firm
Answer:
(c) Joint Hindu Family Firm

Question 7.
Limited managerial skill is the ……………… of Joint Hindu family business.
(a) feature
(b) limitation
(c) advantage
Answer:
(b) limitation

Question 8.
The Karta in Joint Hindu Family business has ……………… liability.
(a) unlimited
(b) limited
(c) joint
Answer:
(a) unlimited

Question 9.
The maximum number of partners for a firm carrying on banking business is ………………..
(a) Ten
(b) Twenty
(c) Seven
Answer:
(a) Ten

Question 10.
In partnership firm the liability of partners is …………….
(a) limited
(b) unlimited
(c) none of above
Answer:
(b) unlimited

Question 11.
In a partnership firm every partner is the principal as well as the ……………….
(a) agent
(b) karta
(c) partner
Answer:
(a) agent

Question 12.
In a co-operative society the principle followed is ………………
(a) one share one vote
(b) one man one vote
(c) no vote
Answer:
(b) one man one vote

Question 13.
From the point of continuity ………………… business organisation is the most suitable.
(a) company
(b) partnership
(c) sole proprietorship
Answer:
(a) company

Question 14.
A sole trading concern is ……………….. form of business organisation.
(a) latest
(b) oldest
(c) recent
Answer:
(b) oldest

Question 15.
Members of a partnership firm are individually known as ………………..
(a) partner
(b) agent
(c) co-parcener
Answer:
(a) partner

Question 16.
Joint Hindu Family business exists in …………….. only.
(a) India
(b) England
(c) all the countries
Answer:
(a) India

Question 17.
The Karta is ………………. liable for business debts.
(a) not
(b) jointly
(c) personally
Answer:
(c) personally

Question 18.
Management of a Co-operative Society is ………………….
(a) personal
(b) joint
(c) democratic
Answer:
(c) democratic

Question 19.
Rules for working of a Co-operative Society are called …………………
(a) Bye-laws
(b) Articles of Association
(c) Memorandum
Answer:
(a) Bye-laws

Question 20.
The nature …………………. of organisation is service oriented.
(a) Sole Trader
(b) Joint Stock Company
(c) Co-operative Society
Answer:
(c) Co-operative Society

Match the pairs

Question 1.

Group A	Group B
(a) Registration of a Company	(1) International Market
(b) Sole Trading Concern	(2) Minimum no. of members is 10
(c) Co-operative society	(3) Voluntary
(d) Joint Hindu Family Firm	(4) Partners
(e) Active partners	(5) Local market
	(6) Co-parceners
	(7) Compulsory
	(8) Minimum no. of member is 5
	(9) Who lends his name
	(10) Takes active part in business

Answer:

Group A	Group B
(a) Registration of a Company	(7) Compulsory
(b) Sole Trading Concern	(5) Local market
(c) Co-operative society	(2) Minimum no. of members is 10
(d) Joint Hindu Family Firm	(6) Co-parceners
(e) Active partners	(10) Takes active part in business

Question 2.

Group A	Group B
(a) Indian Companies Act	(1) 1912
(b) Indian Co-operative Society’s Act	(2) Joint Hindu Family Firm
(c) The Hindu Succession Act	(3) Sole Trading Concern
(d) Indian Partnership Act	(4) 1907
(e) No Separate Act	(5) 1923
	(6) 1947
	(7) 2013
	(8) 1956
	(9) 1932
	(10) 1958

Answer:

Group A	Group B
(a) Indian Companies Act	(7) 2013
(b) Indian Co-operative Society’s Act	(1) 1912
(c) The Hindu Succession Act	(8) 1956
(d) Indian Partnership Act	(9) 1932
(e) No Separate Act	(3) Sole Trading Concern

Give one word/phrase/term.

Question 1.
Persons who enter into partnership business.
Answer:
Partners

Question 2.
The rules and regulations laid down by the managing committee of a co-operative society.
Answer:
Bye-laws

Question 3.
The commercial organization which ensures maximum secrecy.
Answer:
Sole trading concern

Question 4.
Kind of partnership formed under the Indian Partnership Act.
Answer:
General Partnership

Question 5.
Another name for a sleeping partner.
Answer:
Dormant partner

Question 6.
Name the kind of company in which there is non-transferability of shares.
Answer:
Private Limited Company

Question 7.
The business organization which has minimum ten members.
Answer:
Co-operative organization

Question 8.
The type of commercial organization established for providing services to its members.
Answer:
Co-operative organization

Question 9.
The rules and regulations laid down by the managing committee of a co-operative organization.
Answer:
Bye-laws

Question 10.
An artificial person created by law.
Answer:
Joint Stock Company

Question 11.
The seniormost family member of Joint Hindu Family Firm.
Answer:
Karta

Question 12.
The members of the Joint Hindu Family firm.
Answer:
Co-parceners

Question 13.
A partner in partnership firm who takes active participation in day to day work.
Answer:
Active partner

Question 14.
A business organization with a single owner.
Answer:
Sole Trading Concern

Question 15.
A partnership agreement in writing.
Answer:
Partnership Deed

Question 16.
The members of the Joint Hindu Family Firm.
Answer:
Co-parceners

Question 17.
The principle of the co-operative societies.
Answer:
Each of all, all for each

Question 18.
An organization which enjoys a separate legal existence.
Answer:
Joint Stock Company

Question 19.
A symbol of a company’s incorporate existence substitutes for its signature.
Answer:
Common seal

Question 20.
A company which need not obtain Trading Certificate.
Answer:
Private Limited Company

Question 21.
A company which can start business after obtaining Certificate of Incorporation.
Answer:
Private Limited Company.

State True or False

Question 1.
The members of the Joint Hindu Family Firm are called partners.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
The principle of one member one vote is followed in a Joint Stock Company.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
A public limited company can start business after getting the Certificate of Incorporation.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
There is no limit for membership in Joint Hindu Family Business.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
The liability of a Karta in a Joint Hindu Family Firm is limited.
Answer:
False

Question 6.
The maximum number of members in Joint Hindu Family is 20.
Answer:
False

Question 7.
Company form of organization has developed before industrial revolution.
Answer:
False

Question 8.
Shareholders can manage the business.
Answer:
False

Question 9.
The ownership and management are not separate in Joint Stock Company.
Answer:
False

Question 10.
The main purpose of a co-operative organization is to earn profit.
Answer:
False

Find the odd one

Question 1.
Sole Trading Concern, Partnership Firm, Joint Stock Company, Co-operative Society.
Answer:
Co-operative Society

Question 2.
Sleeping partner, Quasi partner, Co-parcener, Sub-partner.
Answer:
Co-parcener

Question 3.
Partnership at will, Partnership for a particular period, Limited Liability Partnership, Partnership for a particular venture.
Answer:
Limited Liability Partnership

Question 4.
Nominal partner, Active partner, Dormant partner, Minor as a partner.
Answer:
Minor as a partner

Question 5.
Grocery shop, Beauty parlour, Gift shop, Reliance Ltd.
Answer:
Reliance Ltd.

Question 6.
Hindustan Petroleum, Amul India, Mahindra & Mahindra, Renault India.
Answer:
Amul India

Question 7.
Karta, Partnership Deed, Co-parceners, Hindu Law.
Answer:
Partnership Deed

Question 8.
One Share One Vote, Service motive, Common seal, Perpetual succession.
Answer:
Service motive

Question 9.
One man show, Sole trader, Co-parceners, Single ownership.
Answer:
Co-parceners

Question 10.
Joint management, Principal agent relationship, Separate legal entity, Joint ownership.
Answer:
Separate legal entity

Question 11.
Partnership at will, Partnership for particular period, Partnership for particular venture, Limited Liability Partnership.
Answer:
Limited Liability Partnership

Question 12.
Mitakshara, Shareholders, Dayabhaga, Karta.
Answer:
Shareholder

Question 13.
One Member One Vote, Open membership, Prospectus, Service motive.
Answer:
Prospectus

Complete the sentences

Question 1.
The address of registered office of a company is mentioned in the …………………
Answer:
Memorandum of Association

Question 2.
A Sole Trading concern is best suitable for ……………………
Answer:
self employment

Question 3.
A Joint Stock company enjoys continuous and ………………… life.
Answer:
stable.

Complete the following table

Question 1.
(Consumer co-operatives, Partnership for a fixed period, Sole trading concern, Karta, Secret partner.)

Group A	Group B
(i) Apana Bazar	…………………
(ii) …………………	takes utmost care of business in a Joint Hindu Family Firm
(iii) Partnership formed for 6 months	…………………
(iv) …………………	is not known to third parties in a partnership.
(v) No sharing of profits and risks is a feature of	…………………

Answer:

Group A	Group B
(i) Apana Bazar	Consumer Co-operatives
(ii) Karta	takes utmost care of business in a Joint Hindu Family Firm
(iii) Partnership formed for 6 months	Partnership for a fixed period
(iv) Secret partner	is not known to third parties in a partnership.
(v) No sharing of profits and risks is a feature of	Sole Trading Concern

Question 2.
(Sole trading concern, Joint Hindu Family Business, Minimum 2 directors, Partnership Firm, Co-operative Societies.)

Group A	Group B
(i) Private Company	…………………
(ii) …………………	Beauty parlour
(iii) Principal-Agent relationship	…………………
(iv) Tax Concession	…………………
(v)  …………………	Partition of business

Answer:

Group A	Group B
(i) Private Company	Minimum 2 directors
(ii)  Sole Trading Concern	Beauty parlour
(iii) Principal-Agent relationship	Partnership Firm
(iv) Tax Concession	Co-operative Societies
(v)  Joint Hindu Family Business	Partition of business

Question 3.
(Partnership Firm, Sole Trading Concern, Partnership firm, Co-operative Societies, Private company.)

Group A	Group B
(i) …………………	Minimum 7 members
(ii) …………………	Minimum paid up capital Rs 1,00,000
(iii) Owned and controlled by one person	…………………
(iv) Registration Compulsory in Maharashtra	…………………
(v)  …………………	Democratic Management

Answer:

Group A	Group B
(i) Public Company	Minimum 7 members
(ii) Private Company	Minimum paid up capital Rs 1,00,000
(iii) Owned and controlled by one person	Sole Trading Concern
(iv) Registration Compulsory in Maharashtra	Partnership firm
(v)  Co-operative societies	Democratic Management

Answer in one sentences

Question 1.
What is the meaning of unlimited liability?
Answer:
Unlimited liability means if a businessman becomes insolvent and if his business assets are insufficient to pay off his business liabilities, he will have to use his private property in order to pay off his business debts.

Question 2.
Who has unlimited liability in the Joint Hindu Family Firm?
Answer:
The Karta has unlimited liability in the Joint Hindu Family Firm.

Question 3.
Who are the Board of Directors of a Company?
Answer:
Elected representatives of the shareholders are called the Board of Directors.

Question 4.
What are the members of the Joint Hindu Family called?
Answer:
The members of the Joint Hindu Family are called as Co-parceners.

Question 5.
What are Co-operating farming societies?
Answer:
Co-operative farming societies are the voluntary associations of small farmers who come together to obtain the benefits of large scale farming.

Question 6.
What are marketing co-operatives?
Answer:
Marketing co-operatives are the voluntary associations of independent producers who are willing to sell their products output at a remunerative prices.

Question 7.
What are credit co-operatives?
Answer:
Credit co-operatives are the co-operative societies which are formed by the poor people to provide financial help and to develop the habit of savings among the members.

Question 8.
What is partnership deed?
Answer:
Partnership deed is an agreement in writing which includes terms and conditions of partnership firm.

Question 9.
Who is dormant partner?
Answer:
A dormant partner is a partner in a partnership firm who contribute capital, shares profit and contributes to the losses of the firm, but does not take active participation in the working of the firm.

Correct the underlined word and rewrite the following sentences.

Question 1.
The partnership business has less capital as compared to Sole Trading concern.
Answer:
The partnership business has more capital as compared to Sole Trading concern.

Question 2.
Joint Hindu Family Business exists outside India.
Answer:
Joint Hindu Family Business exists only in India.

Question 3.
The liability of the co-parceners is unlimited in a Joint Hindu Family firm.
Answer:
The liability of the co-parceners is limited in a Joint Hindu Family firm.

Question 4.
Co-operative society is a compulsory association of individuals to provide services to its members.
Answer:
Co-operative society is a voluntary association of individuals to provide services to its members.

Question 5.
Formation of a Joint Stock company is easy.
Answer:
Formation of a Joint Stock company is complicated.

Question 6.
There is more scope for expansion in a Co-operative society.
Answer:
There is less scope for expansion in a Co-operative society.

Question 7.
In a Public company, there are minimum 2 fTwol Director’s.
Answer:
In a Public company, there are minimum 3 (Three) Director’s.

Question 8.
The registration of a Sole Trading concern is compulsory.
Answer:
The registration of a sole trading concern is not compulsory.

Explain the following terms/concepts

Question 1.
Active Partner.
Answer:

1. A partner who takes active participation in day-to-day working of the firm, is called as active partner.
2. He is also called as ordinary/general/ actual/ working partner.
3. He acts as a manager, organizer, advisor and controller of the firm.

Question 2.
Dormant Partner
Answer:

1. A partner who does not take active participation in day-to-day working of the firm, is called as dormant partner or sleeping partner.
2. He contributes to the capital of the firm and also shares profit or loss of the business firm.
3. He is liable for the debts of the firm.
4. He cannot find the business firm or third party by his acts.

Question 3.
Unlimited Liability
Answer:

1. It means that there is no distinction made between personal property and business property of a person. It further means that if business assets are not sufficient to pay off liabilities of a business than personal property of a person holding business will be attached to business property.
2. Sole trader in case of sole trading concern, partners in case of partnership firm, Karta in case of Joint Hindu Family Business, has unlimited liabilities.

Question 4.
Principal – Agent Relationship
Answer:

1. This term is related to partnership firm of organizations.
2. In partnership firm all partners are the joint owners of the business and all takes part in the management of the business.
3. Hence, every partner acts in dual role in partnership firm i.e.
   (a) When within the firm they act as ‘Principal’ and
   (b) When they deal with outsiders they act as an ‘Agent’.

Question 5.
Producer’s Co-operatives
Answer:

1. They are voluntary associations of small producers and artisans, who come together to face the competition and increase the productions.
2. Producers Co-operatives are of 2 types – (a) Industrial Service Co-operatives and (b) Manufacturing Co-operatives.
3. Such co-operatives sells the output of members in the market and then profits are distributed among the members.
4. They provide raw materials, implements tools, technical guidance to members on easy terms.

Question 6.
Housing Co-operatives
Answer:

1. Housing Co-operatives are owned by the residents.
2. Such societies purchases the land, develops it, constructs houses, etc. and allot them to members.
3. They arrange loans from Government and Non-Government sources.

Question 7.
Common Seal
Answer:

1. A company being an artificial person cannot sign on its own.
2. So, the law requires, every company to have its seal, bearing its name on it.
3. Common seal is a symbol of company’s incorporate existence. It is like a signature of the company.
4. It has to be affixed on all the important documents of the company.
5. It has to be witnessed by a Company Secretary and minimum 2 directors.

Study the following case/situation and express your opinion

1. Mr. Jumbo a Chartered Accountant by profession and Mrs. Timbo, an Architect by profession running a firm namely ‘Buildsheet’ in Nagpur.

Question 1.
Identify business in above example.
Answer:
Partnership firm

Question 2.
Comment on it?
Answer:
It is a voluntary association of two persons with a common objective in mind.

Question 3.
Which two professions are mentioned here?
Answer:
A Chartered Accountant and an Architect.

2. Ram and Rahim have formed a Joint Stock company to produce and sell toys with a paid up capital of Rs 2,00,000.

Question 1.
Name the type of company.
Answer:
Private Limited Company.

Question 2.
List two features of the company.
Answer:
(a) Minimum 2 members are required to form a private company.
(b) Minimum paid up capital required is Rs 1,00,000.

3. Rahul is the only owner of his restaurant. All the assets belongs to him.

Question 1.
Name the type of business organisation.
Answer:
Sole Trading Concern.

Question 2.
State two features.
Answer:
(a) Single ownership
(b) No separate entity

4. Ajit Brothers is a firm formed for the specific purpose of constructing a bridge.

Question 1.
Name this type of business.
Answer:
Partnership for a particular venture or particular partnership.

Question 2.
When does this business dissolve?
Answer:
This business will dissolve on the completion of the venture i.e. after completing the bridge.

5. Employees Union of Hindustan Mills start a retail shop to provide cloth at reasonable price to its members.

Question 1.
Identify the form of business organisation.
Answer:
The type of organisation is Co-operative society.

Question 2.
State two features of the organisation.
Answer:
(a) Voluntary membership
(b) Service motive

6. Teachers of different colleges in Mumbai form an association to buy land and construct flats for them.

Question 1.
Name the form of business organisation.
Answer:
Co-operative Society

Question 2.
Is the association of members voluntary or compulsory.
Answer:
The association is voluntary, as it is one of the features of the Co-operative Society.

7. Mr. Shyam is a shareholder of Coal India Limited. He is in need of money. He transfers his shares to another person.

Question 1.
Name the kind of company.
Answer:
Public Limited Company

Question 2.
Can he transfer his shares.
Answer:
Yes, he can transfer his shares to anyone as it is one of the main features of a Public Limited Company.

8. If the business is a sole trading concern with a capital of Rs 25,000, but the debts are amounting to Rs 50,000.

Question 1.
Is the entrepreneur liable to pay his creditors.
Answer:
Yes, he has to pay to his creditors.

Question 2.
Give reasons.
Answer:
A sole trading concern has unlimited liability therefore, he has to pay his creditors by selling off his private property.

9. Amul – the taste of India started 65 years ago in 1946 in Anand.

Question 1.
Name the type of business organisation.
Answer:
Co-operative Society

Question 2.
What was the mission for starting AMUL.
Answer:
AMUL was started with a mission to stop the exploitation of farmers by middlemen.

Distinguish between the following

Question 1.
Joint Hindu Family Firm and Sole Trading Concern.
Answer:

	Joint Hindu Family	Sole Trading Concern
Meaning	In Joint Hindu Family Firm, the Joint Hindu Family conducts business according to Hindu Laws.	Sole Trading Concern is owned and controlled by one person.
Formation	Joint Hindu Family Firm comes into existence by operation of Hindu Law.	Sole Trading Concern can be formed easily. It is started as soon as the owner decides.
Number of Members	Membership of the firm depends upon the birth and death in the family. There is no limit on membership.	Sole Trading Concern is owned by a single person.
Sharing of Profits/Losses	The profits and losses shared between Karta and Co-parceners.	The sole trader alone enjoys all the profits of business. He alone bears the losses of business.
Liability	Karta has unlimited liability. The liability of Co-parceners is limited.	The sole trader has unlimited liability.
Act	Joint Hindu Family Firm follows the Hindu Succession Act, 1956.	There is no special legislation governing the sole trading concern.
Stability	Comparatively more stability because if Karta dies, the next seniormost family member can take over the business.	There is no stability as life of the organization depends upon the survival of the sole trader.
Capital	More finance is available with the firm. Therefore, there is more capital.	Sole trader has limited funds. Therefore, the concern has limited capital.
Ownership	Assets and property of business is jointly owned by family members.	Assets and properties of business are owned by the sole trader.
Efforts and Rewards	There is no direct relation between efforts and rewards.	There is a direct relation between efforts and rewards.

Question 2.
Partnership Firm and Joint Stock Company.
Answer:

	Partnership Firm	Joint Stock Company
Meaning	Partnership firm is controlled by two or more persons called as partners.	Joint Stock Company is an incorporated voluntary association created by law, having an independent legal status, owned by shareholders and managed by Directors.
Act	Partnership firm is governed by Indian Partnership Act, 1932.	Joint Stock Companies are governed by Indian Companies Act, 2013.
Membership	Minimum two partners and Maximum 50 partners.	Private company- Minimum – 2 Maximum – 200Public company- Minimum – 7 Maximum – No limit
Liability	The liability of partners is unlimited, joint and several.	The liability of shareholders is limited. Up to the unpaid amount of shares held by them.
Ownership & Management	Partners are owners and managers of the firm.	Joint Stock Company is owned by shareholders of the company and managed by Board of Directors.
Formation	The formation is simple and less costly. Only an oral or written agreement is needed between partners.	Formation of a Joint Stock Company is. difficult, costly and time-consuming.
Stability	A partnership firm does not enjoy a stable life. Life of the firm is affected by death, insolvency or lunacy of even one partner.	Joint Stock Company has a long and stable life. It has perpetual succession. Life of the company is not affected by death, insolvency or lunacy of any member or Director.
Registration	Registration of a partnership firm is optional. It is compulsory in the State of Maharashtra.	Registration of a Joint Stock Company is compulsory.
Legal Status	A partnership firm has no legal status that is distinct from its members.	A Joint Stock Company has a separate legal status.
Transfer of Shares	A partner can transfer his share only with the consent of other partners.	Shares of a public company are freely transferable.
Authority of Members	A partner has implied authority. He is an agent of the firm.	A shareholder has no implied authority.
Winding up	A partnership firm can be easily dissolved. There are not much legal formalities for winding up the firm.	A Joint Stock Company can be dissolved only by the court. A proper procedure has to be followed for dissolving the company.

Question 3.
Sole Trading Concern and Joint Stock Company.
Answer:

	Sole Trading Concern	Joint Stock Company
Meaning	Sole proprietorship is owned, managed and controlled by one person.	Joint Stock Company is an incorporated association created by law, having an independent legal status, owned by shareholders and managed by board of directors.
Formation	Sole trading concern can be formed easily. It is started as soon as the owner decides.	Formation of a Joint Stock Company is difficult, costly and time-consuming. There are many legal formalities needed to form a joint stock company.
Liability	The sole trader has unlimited liability.	Shareholders have limited liability. It depends upon unpaid value of shares.
Numbers of Member	Sole trading concern is owned by a single person.	The minimum number of persons needed to start a private company is two and maximum is fifty. Minimum number of public company is seven and maximum is unlimited.
Registration	Sole trading concern need not be registered.	Joint Stock Company has to be compulsorily registered.
Act	There is no Act for a Sole Trading Concern.	Companies have to follow Indian Companies Act, 2013.
Legal Status	A Sole Trading Concern does not have a legal status.	Joint Stock Company has a legal status.
Secrecy	It is possible to have maximum business secrecy in a Sole Trading Concern.	Business Secrecy cannot be maintained’. Books of accounts have to be kept open for inspection to shareholders.
Capital	As there is only one owner, less capital is available for business.	Capital is collected from shareholders in the form of shares. Huge capital can be collected for business.
Stability	A Sole Trading Concern does not have a stable life. Life of the sole trader and his concern are one and the same.	The company enjoys a long stable life.

Answer in brief

Question 1.
State any four merits of Sole Trading Concern.
Answer:
1. Easy Formation : A sole trading concern can be easily formed. Not much legal formalities are needed to start a sole trading concern. A person who is competent to enter into contract can start a sole trading concern.

2. Prompt Decision Making: A sole trader can take all decisions by himself. There is no external interference. As he can take quick decisions, prompt actions is also possible. This Organisation is suitable for business where quick decisions have to be taken. Ex. Share Trading.

3. Flexibility : The sole trader can make changes in business easily. He can expand or curtail business activity, whenever needed. He is the only person to take decisions in business. There is a lot of flexibility in sole trading concern.

4. Minimum Government Regulations : Sole trading concern need not follow any Special Act. There are not much legal formalities needed for forming and closing a sole trading concern. Only the general law of the country has to be followed. It states that a person doing sole trading business:

• must be a major (above 18 years)
• must be of sound mind
• must not be disqualified by any law to do business.

Question 2.
Explain any four demerits of Sole Trading Concern.
Answer:
1. Limited Capital : The sole trader is the only owner of business. He alone contributes capital for business. Capital is in the form of savings and borrowings from friends and relatives. In his individual capacity he cannot raise loans from banks to a large extent. The growth and expansion of business is affected because of limited capital. This is disadvantage to business.

2. Limited Managerial Ability : There is only one person to manage business. Inspite of his knowledge, the sole trader is not able to manage business efficiently. The sole trader may not be an expert in all fields like finance, advertising, management etc. Therefore, management ability is limited.

3. Unlimited Liability : The liability of the sole trader is unlimited. There is no difference between personal property and business property of sole trader. But unlimited liability prevents further expansion. He does not take risk in business. He is overcautious in taking decision which affects progress of business.

4. No Stability : A sole trading concern does not have a continuous existence. It does not have a stable life. Life of the organisation depends upon the life of the sole trader. In case the sole trader dies, becomes insolvent or insane the business has to be closed down.

Question 3.
What are the features of Joint Hindu Family Business ? (Any 4)
Answer:
1. Formation : Joint Hindu Family Business is created by operation of Hindu Law. There is no agreement between members. Each member becomes the co-parcener in the family business by birth.

2. Membership : Joint Hindu Family business has two types of partners.
(a) Karta : The seniormost male member of the family.
(b) Co-parceners (Copartners) : Other family members.
There is no limit on maximum number of members. In the state of Maharashtra, even girls born in the family become co-parceners of the firm. The number of members keep on changing depending on birth and death in the family.

3. Joint Ownership : The property of the firm is jointly owned by three generations of the family. Karta is the custodian of the joint property. All family members own the assets of business.

4. Sharing of Profits / Losses : Ratio of sharing of profits or losses of Karta and co-parceners is not given in the Hindu Act. The ratio of profit sharing keeps on changing depending on birth and death in the family.

Question 4.
Give any four demerits of Joint Hindu Family Business.
Answer:
(i) Limited Resources : Business is done by the joint family. So capital brought in by the family is limited. The capacity to raise funds is also limited as liability of co-parceners is limited. This affects growth and expansion of business.

(ii) Limited Managerial Ability : The management of business is totally taken care of by Karta. So the entire business depends upon the ability of the Karta. He does not even consult co-parceners for decision making. The Karta may not be an expert in all areas of business. Due to inadequate funds it is not possible to hire experts. Therefore, Joint Hindu Family Firm faces the disadvantage of limited managerial ability.

(iii) Unlimited Liability : The liability of Karta is unlimited. His decision making process becomes very slow. He is too cautious and unwilling to take risk in business. As there is no difference between personal property and business property of Karta he is afraid to take bold decisions. This affects the progress of business.

(iv) Limited Expansion : Even if Karta takes a lot of interest in business, the firm has the disadvantage of limited growth. Two reasons i.e., limited capital and limited managerial ability results in limited growth of business.

Question 5.
State any four merits of partnership firm.
Answer:
(i) Easy Formation : It is easy to form a partnership firm. Only an agreement is needed to start the firm. The agreement between partners may be an oral or written one. A written agreement is always preferred to avoid disputes in future. Not many legal formalities are needed for forming or closing business. Even the procedure for registration is simple.

(ii) Large Capital: Many partners come together to start a firm. Partners have joint responsibility to collect capital for the firm. As number of persons are more than sole trading concern, large capital can be collected. If business has to be expanded more capital has to be collected.

(iii) Business Secrecy : More secrecy can be maintained in business. Books of accounts need not be published. There is no legal requirement to publish annual report. Information is not leaked out to competitors, which is an advantage to the firm. If partners want they can keep secrets to themselves.

(iv) Rational Decisions : Decisions are taken collectively by partners. Two heads are always better than one.. Partners discuss can take decisions, which are always balanced. Partners have unlimited liability therefore they are careful in taking decisions.

Justify the following statements

Question 1.
There is no limit for membership in Joint Hindu Family Business.
Answer:

1. Joint Hindu Family Firm is jointly owned by all family members.
2. When a Hindu Joint Family does business and passes it on from one generation to another it is called a Joint Hindu Family business.
3. There are two types of members in Joint Hindu Family Firm – Karta and Co-parceners.
4. The membership of Joint Hindu Family Firm is unlimited.
5. Membership is not limited because it depends upon the death and birth in the family. All the persons born in the family become a member of the family by birth.
6. A person becomes a member even by adoption into the family.
7. Thus, there is no maximum limit for membership in a Joint Hindu Family Business.

Question 2.
The membership of a co-operative society is voluntary.
Answer:

1. Co-operative society is a voluntary association of persons formed for the purpose of promoting the interest of its members.
2. There is open membership i.e., membership is open to all. No difference is made on language, religion, caste etc. A person becomes a member by purchasing shares of the organization.
3. There is complete freedom about becoming or not becoming the member of the organization.
4. A person can join on his own free will. There is no compulsion for becoming a member.
5. He can leave the organization by giving due notice as and when he desires.
6. The opportunity of becoming a member is given to all which means co-operative organization is a voluntary organization.
7. Thus, the membership of a co-operative society is voluntary.

Question 3.
In partnership, the liability of every partner of the firm is unlimited.
Answer:

1. Partnership is an association of persons competent to enter into contracts. The aim is to carry lawful business.
2. All partnerships in India follow the Indian Partnership Act of 1932.
3. Accordingly the liability of every partner is unlimited.
4. Partners have joint and several liability. It means each partner is individually liable and jointly liable for the debts of the firm.
5. There is no difference between personal property and business property of the partners. In case business assets are not sufficient to pay debts, the personal property of each and every partner can be used.
6. If one partner is declared insolvent, his liability has to be borne by solvent partners.
7. Thus, in partnership, the liability of every partner of the firm is unlimited.

Question 4.
The owner of the sole proprietorship is the sole decision maker of his business.
Answer:

1. A sole trader does business alone.
2. He invests his own capital, skill and intelligence in the management of business.
3. A sole trader is the only manager of business. So he is the sole decision maker of his business.
4. He is not answerable to anyone and need not consult anyone for doing business.
5. There is no external interference.
6. Therefore, he can take quick decisions and prompt actions and take advantage of profit – oriented situations. Thus, sole trader is the only decision maker and therefore has complete control on business.

Question 5.
Sole Trading Concern is easiest to form.
Answer:

1. Sole trading concern is owned by only one person.
2. A very Simple process is needed to start a sole trading concern.
3. There is no complicated legal formalities to start a sole trading concern, as in the case of joint stock company.
4. A licence from appropriate authority is needed.
5. Only the general law of the country has to be followed for starting business.
6. A person must be of sound mind, a major and must not be disqualified by any law to do business.
7. Thus, sole trading concern is the easiest form of organization to be started.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th OCM Important Questions Chapter 6 Institutes Supporting Business Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Commerce OCM Important Questions Chapter 6 Institutes Supporting Business

Select the correct option and rewrite the sentence

Question 1.
SIDBI has its head office at …………………
(a) Bihar
(b) Mumbai
(c) Lucknow
Answer:
(c) Lucknow

Question 2.
Dr. Muhammad Yunus from ………………… is known as ‘Father of Micro finance.
(a) Afghanistan
(b) Bangladesh
(c) India
Answer:
(b) Bangladesh

Question 3.
The World Bank Group has set ………………… goals to be achieved by 2030.
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
Answer:
(c) 2

Question 4.
………………… is the lifeblood of a business.
(a) Finance
(b) Raw materials
(c) Labour
Answer:
(a) Finance

Question 5.
KVIC has its head office at …………………
(a) Mumbai
(b) Kolkata
(c) Delhi
Answer:
(a) Mumbai

Question 6.
………………… portal was launched by SIDBI.
(a) Maza-Mitra
(b) Aamcha Mitra
(c) Udyami Mitra
Answer:
(c) Udyami Mitra

Question 7.
………………… work as knowledge partner for State and Central Government.
(a) Udyami Mirta
(b) Start-up Mitra
(c) Wake-up Mitra
Answer:
(b) Start-up Mitra

Question 8.
………………… provides credit for rural development.
(a) SIDBI
(b) NABARD
(c) RRBs.
Answer:
(b) NABARD

Match the pairs

Question 1.

Part A	Part B
(i) NABARD	(a) Heart of business
(ii) Finance	(b) Advisor and mentor to MSMEs
(iii) SIDBI	(c) Life blood of business
(iv) MUDRA	(d) March 17, 2016
(v) Startup Mitra	(e) Recommendations to RBI
	(f) Funding the unfunded enterprises
	(g) March 17, 2014
	(h) Recommendation to Commercial Banks

Answer:

Part A	Part B
(i) NABARD	(e) Recommendations to RBI
(ii) Finance	(c) Life blood of business
(iii) SIDBI	(b) Advisor and mentor to MSMEs
(iv) MUDRA	(f) Funding the unfunded enterprises
(v) Startup Mitra	(d) March 17, 2016

Question 2.

Part A	Part B
(i) SIDBI	(a) Maza Mitra
(ii) Green, Blue and White Revolution	(b) RRB’s
(iii) Khadi	(c) Symbol of dependence
(iv) Women’s Self Help Group	(d) NABARD
(v) World Bank	(e) Washington D.C.
	(f) Udyami Mitra
	(g) Symbol of self reliance
	(h) Great Britain
	(i) Mahila Bachat Gat

Answer:

Part A	Part B
(i) SIDBI	(f) Udyami Mitra
(ii) Green, Blue and White Revolution	(d) NABARD
(iii) Khadi	(g) Symbol of self reliance
(iv) Women’s Self Help Group	(i) Mahila Bachat Gat
(v) World Bank	(e) Washington D.C.

Give one word/phrase/term

Question 1.
Symbol and spirit of self reliance in pre-independence India.
Answer:
Khadi

Question 2.
Head office of KVIC.
Answer:
Mumbai

Question 3.
A statutory body formed to provide livelihood to artisans in villages of India.
Answer:
Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC)

Question 4.
A document signed by KVIC with National Institute of Design (NID).
Answer:
Memorandum of Understanding (MoU)

Question 5.
Economist of Bangladesh who jointly won Nobel Peace Prize.
Answer:
Dr. Muhammad Yunus

Question 6.
A refined model of Bangladesh model to eradicate poverty and empower women.
Answer:
Indian Self Help Group Model

Question 7.
A portal to improve accessibility of credit and handholding services to MSMEs.
Answer:
Udyami Mitra.

State True or False

Question 1.
SIDBI has set a goal to end extreme poverty by 2030.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
The World Bank has set a goal to promote shared prospering by fostering the income growth.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Success of business depends on optimum utilization of capital.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
SIDBI provide debt financing to government.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Dr. Ashfak Yunus founded the Grameen Bank in India.
Answer:
False

Question 6.
Body of Governors is the supreme policy making body of the World Bank.
Answer:
True

Find the odd word out

Question 1.
Features of KVIC-
Rural Development; Employment Generation; Entrepreneurship Development; Mutual Trust.
Answer:
Mutual Trust

Question 2.
Institutes supporting business-
SIDBI; IDBI; NABARD; KVIC.
Answer:
IDBI

Question 3.
Features of SIDBI-
Sustainable Development; Services to MSMEs; Recommendations to RBI; Digital Initiatives.
Answer:
Recommendations to RBI

Question 4.
Terms related to SIDBI-
SIDBI startup mitra; Aamcha Mitra; Udyami Mitra; Micro Finance.
Answer:
Aamcha Mitra

Question 5.
Terms related to NABARD-
Apex Rural Bank; Recommendations to RBI; Green, Blue and White Revolution; Empowerment of women.
Answer:
Empowerment of women.

Question 6.
Woman’s Self Help Groups-
Urban Bank; Mahila Bachat Gat; Dr. Muhammad Yunus; Grameen Bank.
Answer:
Urban Bank.

Select the correct option

(Provides credit to rural development, Women Empowerment, Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA), KVIC, SIDBI)

Part A	Part B
(i) World Bank	————-
(ii) —————	Achievement of National Goals
(iii) NABARD	——————-
(iv) Self Help Group (SHG)	—————–
(v) —————	Promote Khadi and Village Industries

Answer:

Part A	Part B
(i) World Bank	Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIF)
(ii) SIDBI	Achievement of National Goals
(iii) NABARD	Provided credit to rural development
(iv) Self Help Group (SHG)	Women Empowerment
(v) KVIC	Promote Khadi and Village Industries

Answer in one sentence

Question 1.
Why do firm need finance ?
Answer:
Firms need finance to start business, to run business effectively and to expand business.

Question 2.
Name the institutes supporting business.
Answer:
The institutes supporting business are – SIDBI, NABARD, KVIC, Women’s Self Help Group and World Bank.

Question 3.
Where is the head office of SIDBI?
Answer:
The head office of SIDBI is at Lucknow.

Question 4.
Who resolves the financial and non-financial hurdles of MSMEs ?
Answer:
SIDBI resolves the financial and non-financial hurdles of MSMEs.

Question 5.
Who are the focused domains for SIDBI?
Answer:
Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME’s ) are the focused domains for SIDBI.

Question 6.
Who helds the present ownership of SIDBI ?
Answer:
The present ownership of SIDBI is held by 34 public sector institutes, through its 15 regional offices and 84 branches.

Question 7.
Who acts as an advisor and mentor for MSMEs ?
Answer:
SDIBI act as an advisor and mentor for MSMEs.

Question 8.
Name the associates and subsidiaries of SIDBI.
Answer:
The associates and subsidiaries of SIDBI are – SVCL, CGTMSE, SMERA, ISTSL, ISARC and MUDRA.

Question 9.
What is the aim of ‘MUDRA’?
Answer:
The main aim of ‘MUDRA’ an associate of SIDBI is “funding the unfunded” micro enterprises in the country.

Question 10.
What are the different forms of finance offered by SIDBI?
Answer:
The different forms of finance offered by SIDBI are – direct finance, indirect finance and micro finance.

Question 11.
Name the two digital initiatives launched by SIDBI.
Answer:
The two digital initiatives launched by SIDBI are – SIDBI start-up Mitra and Udyami Mitra.

Question 12.
Who monitors the flow of rural credit in India?
Answer:
NABARD monitors the flow of rural credit in India.

Question 13.
What is the objective of KVIC?
Answer:
The objective of KVIC is to utilise the available raw materials and human skills to generate non-farm employment opportunities in the rural areas of India.

Question 14.
Who is the supreme policy making body of World Bank?
Answer:
Board of Governors is the supreme policy making body of World Bank.

Question 15.
What are the goals of World Bank to be achieved by, 2030?
Answer:
The two goals of World Bank to be achieved by 2030 is to end extreme poverty and promote shared prosperity.

Correct the Underlined word and rewrite the following sentences

Question 1.
SIDBI provides refinance to Banking Companies only.
Answer:
SIDBI provides refinance to Banking and Non-Banking Financial Comnanies.

Question 2.
KVIC works as an advisor and mentor to MSMEs.
Answer:
SIDBI works as an advisor and mentor to MSMEs.

Question 3.
NABARD is working toward sustainable development of MSMEs in India.
Answer:
SIDBI is working toward sustainable development of MSMEs in India.

Question 4.
Udvami Mitra works as knowledge partner for State and Central Government.
Answer:
SIDBI Startup Mitra works as knowledge partner for State and Central Government.

Question 5.
SIDBI Startup Mitra was launched to improve accessibility of credit services to MSMEs.
Answer:
Udvami Mitra was launched to improve accessibility of credit services to MSMEs.

Question 6.
The apex institution for agricultural finance is SIDBI.
Answer:
The apex institution for agricultural finance is NABARD.

Question 7.
NABARD monitors the flow of Urban Credit in India.
Answer:
NABARD monitors the flow of Rural Credit in India.

Question 8.
World Bank provides recommendation to RBI on issue of licences to Co-operative Bank.
Answer:
NABARD provides recommendation to RBI on issue of licences to Co-operative Bank.

Question 9.
KVIC has its head office at Kolkata.
Answer:
KVIC has its head office at Mumbai.

Question 10.
Khadi Gramudvog works for planning, promotion and production of Khadi.
Answer:
KVIC works for planning, promotion and production of Khadi.

Question 11.
The social objective of KVIC is producing saleable articles.
Answer:
The economic objective of KVIC is producing saleable articles.

Question 12.
The wider objectives of KVIC is creating dependence amongst the poor.
Answer:
The wider objectives of KVIC is creating self-reliance amongst the poor.

Question 13.
KVIC signed Memorandum of Association with National Institute of design.
Answer:
KVIC signed Memorandum of Understanding with National Institute of design.

Question 14.
KVIC promote conventional energy for sustainable development.
Answer:
KVIC promote non-conventional energy for sustainable development.

Question 15.
“Helping Yourself” and ‘Unity is Strength’ is the principle of SHG.
Answer:
“Helping each other” and ‘Unity is Strength’ is the principle of SHG.

Question 16.
SHG – Bank Linkage programme was initiated by SIDBI since 1992.
Answer:
SHG – Bank Linkage programme was initiated by NABARD since 1992.

Question 17.
State Bank of India accepted SHG strategy as an alternative credit model.
Answer:
Reserve Bank of India accepted SHG strategy as an alternative credit model.

Question 18.
SHG is an involuntary association.
Answer:
SHG is a voluntary association.

Explain the following terms/concepts

Question 1.
SIDBI
Answer:

1. Small Industrial Development Bank of India (SIDBI) was established on 2nd April, 1990.
2. At present, the ownership of SIDBI is held by 34 public sector institutes.
3. Main focus of SIDBI is to resolve the financial and non-financial hurdles of MSMEs.
4. SIDBI helps for technological upgradation and modernisation of existing MSMEs.

Question 2.
SIDBI Startup Mitra
Answer:

1. It is a digital initiative set up by SIDBI.
2. It tries to bring all stakeholders, investors, new entrepreneurs, banks, mentors, etc on one platform.
3. It helps in financing and development of new entrepreneurs.
4. It also acts as a knowledge partner for State and Central Government.

Question 3.
NABARD
Answer:

1. It came into existence on 12th July, 1982 under the special Act of Parliament It is counted as an apex institution for agricultural finance.
2. The main objective of NABARD is to provide and regulate credit and other facilities for the promotion of agriculture, small scale industries, cottage and village industries, etc.
3. It provides refinancing facilities to State Co-operative Bank (SCBs), Land Development Bank (LDBs), Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) and other approved financial institutions.

Answer in brief

Question 1.
Explain the Digital initiative steps of SDBI.
Answer:
The digital initiative steps of the SDBI are as follows:
SIDBI Startup Mitra and Udyami Mitra:
(a) SIDBI Startup Mitra:
It brings together all stakeholders, start-up entrepreneurs, incubators, investors, industry bodies, mentors and advisors and banks at one platform. It helps in financing and development of new entrepreneurs. It also works as knowledge partner for State and Central Government.

(b) Udyami Mitra:
This is the portal launched by SIDBI to improve accessibility of credit and handholding services to MSME’s. Under this portal entrepreneurs can apply for loan without physically visiting any bank branches. The entrepreneurs can select and apply for preferred banks, they can select suitable branch, track their application status an avail multiple loan benefits.

Question 2.
Explain the role of NABARD in national development.
Answer:
Role of NABARD in national development:

1. NABARD is an apex bank providing credit facilities to institute working in agricultural finance.
2. It provides storage facilities for agricultural commodities by promoting development of warehousing facilities.
3. It also promote the export of agricultural commodities.
4. It plays an important role in sustainable development of the country through Green, Blue and White revolution.
5. It refinances commercial and co-operative banks during natural calamities like drought, crop failure, etc. so that farmers can recover from the difficult period.

Question 3.
How does KVIC help in marketing and promotion?
Answer:
Role of KVIC in marketing and promotion:

1. KVIC holds exhibitions, seminars and lectures in college and universities to spread the knowledge of KVIC products.
2. It also launches a marketing development plan to generate interest, awareness and attraction amongst the masses.
3. It takes all effort to improve the quality, packaging and marketing of a product.
4. Government also supports KVIC, so that its product becomes competitive.

Question 4.
Explain the formation of Womens SHGs.
Answer:
Formation of Women’s SHG’s.

1. It is an informal group of homogeneous individuals generally formed by a NGO or by team of government.
2. It is recognized by the Government, hence it does not require any registration under any Act.
3. They have their well defined rules and bye-laws to run the group.
4. Regular meetings of this groups are held and records are properly maintained.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th OCM Important Questions Chapter 3 Small Scale Industry and Business Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Commerce OCM Important Questions Chapter 3 Small Scale Industry and Business

Select the Correct option and rewrite the sentence

Question 1.
Small Scale Industries play an important role in ……………. countries.
(a) developed
(b) developing
(c) advanced
Answer:
(b) developing

Question 2.
Traditionally a small scale industries are those using power with less than ……………… employees.
(a) 20
(b) 30
(c) 50
Answer:
(c) 50

Question 3.
……………….. is second largest industry which creates huge employment.
(a) SSI
(b) Reliance Ltd.
(c) Indian Railways
Answer:
(a) SSI

Question 4.
……………….. of people from rural to urban is reduced by small scale industries.
(a) Immigrations
(b) Migrations
(c) Re-migrations
Answer:
(b) Migrations

Question 5.
Small Scale Industries are ……………….. in operation.
(a) rigid
(b) flexible
(c) static
Answer:
(b) flexible

Question 6.
Small Scale Industries uses ……………….. technology.
(a) outdated
(b) advanced
(c) future
Answer:
(a) outdated

Question 7.
………………. resources are used by SSI.
(a) Foreign
(b) City
(c) Domestic
Answer:
(c) Domestic

Match the pairs

Question 1.

Group A	Group B
(a) Small Manufacturing Sector	(1) Investment more than Rs 2 crores but does not exceed Rs 5 crores
(b) Modern Small Scale Industries	(2) SSI
(c) Large Employment	(3) Capital problem
(d) High absenteeism	(4) Investment does not exceed Rs 25 lakhs
(e) Medium Services Sector	(5) Electric Appliances
	(6) Labour problem
	(7) Investment does not exceed Rs 10 lakhs
	(8) Sericulture
	(9) L&T

Answer:

Group A	Group B
(a) Small Manufacturing Sector	(4) Investment does not exceed Rs 25 lakhs
(b) Modern Small Scale Industries	(5) Electric Appliances
(c) Large Employment	(2) SSI
(d) High absenteeism	(6) Labour problem
(e) Medium Services Sector	(1) Investment more than Rs 2 crores but does not exceed Rs 5 crores

Give one word/phrase/term

Question 1.
Tiruppur a city located in state of Tamil Nadu is famous for which export.
Answer:
Textile export

Question 2.
Industries which requires low gestation period.
Answer:
Small Scale Industries

Question 3.
Part of rural industry based on agricultural products.
Answer:
Agro based industries

Question 4.
Moving of people from one place to another in search of job.
Answer:
Migration

Question 5.
Regular interruption of electricity.
Answer:
Load shedding

Question 6.
Life blood of the enterprise.
Answer:
Finance

Question 7.
Assessment of a project.
Answer:
Project Appraisal

Question 8.
Procedure of recruitment, training and placement.
Answer:
Staffing.

State True or False

Question 1.
Small Scale Industries increases import of raw materials from foreign countries.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Tiruppur contribute to export textiles and earn valuable foreign exchange for India.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Japan became major economic power because of many small entrepreneurs after second world war.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Nearly 60% of the industrial exports are contributed by SSI.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Small Scale Industries lead to inequalities of income, wealth and power.
Answer:
False

Question 6.
Small Scale Industries are more flexible.
Answer:
True

Find the odd one

Question 1.
Manufacturing Sector, Services Sector, Construction Sector
Answer:
Construction Sector

Question 2.
Does not exceed ?10 lakhs, Does not exceed Rs 25 lakhs, Does not exceed Rs 2 crores.
Answer:
Does not exceed Rs 25 lakhs

Question 3.
Job opportunities, Regional Balance, Increases Migration
Answer:
Increases Migration

Question 4.
Labour Problem, Marketing problem, Problem of transport, Domestic problem
Answer:
Domestic problem

Question 5.
Selection of product, Selection of place, Selection of House
Answer:
Selection of House.

Complete the sentences

Question 1.
Problem of is reduced or minimized by SSI.
Answer:
migration

Question 2.
Gestation period is low for industries.
Answer:
Small Scale

Question 3.
means the assessment of a project.
Answer:
Project appraisal

Question 4.
SSI provides raw material, semi finished goods to
Answer:
Large Scale

Question 5.
place from Tamil Nadu export textiles.
Answer:
Tiruppur

Question 6.
method of production is used by SSI.
Answer:
Old and outdated.

Select the correct option

(Modern Small Scale Industries, Challenges before Small Scale Industries, Traditional Small Scale Industries, Importance of Small Scale Industries)

Group A	Group B
(1) Hand loom, Handicraft, Coir, Sericulture	——————-
(2) —————–	Bicycles parts, sewing machines, Blades, Razor, Electric Appliances, Spare parts
(3) Job opportunities, Regional balance, Reduce migration, Maximum use of Natural Resources	——————-
(4) ————–	Load-shedding, voltage fluctuation.

Answer:

Group A	Group B
(1) Hand loom, Handicraft, Coir, Sericulture	Traditional Small Scale Industries
(2) Modern Small Scale Industries	Bicycles parts, sewing machines, Blades, Razor, Electric Appliances, Spare parts
(3) Job opportunities, Regional balance, Reduce migration, Maximum use of Natural Resources	Importance of Small Scale Industries
(4) Challenges before Small Scale Industries	Load-shedding, voltage fluctuation.

Answer in one sentences

Question 1.
What are the challenges before Small Scale industries?
Answer:
Old and outdated technology, finance, marketing, load shedding, voltage fluctuation, sickness, etc. are the challenges before Small Scale Industries.

Question 2.
What are the sectors of business classification as per SSI?
Answer:
There are two sectors of business as per SSI i.e.

1. Manufacturing sector
2. Services sector.

Question 3.
What is the classification of Small Scale Industries?
Answer:
Small Scale Industries are classified into two i.e. Traditional Small Scale Industries and Modern Small Scale Industries.

Correct the underlined word and rewrite the following sentences.

Question 1.
SSI is first largest industry which creates huge employment.
Answer:
SSI is second largest industry which creates huge employment.

Question 2.
Migration of people from rural to urban can be increase due to SSI.
Answer:
Migration of people from rural to urban can be reduced due to SSI.

Question 3.
Many Small Scale Industries provide finished goods to large scale industries.
Answer:
Many Small Scale Industries provide semi finished goods to large scale industries.

Question 4.
India is facing labour scarcity problem.
Answer:
India is facing labour problem.

Question 5.
Nearly 60% of industrial exports are contributed by SSI.
Answer:
Nearly 40% of industrial exports are contributed by SSI.

Study the following case/situation and express your opinion.

1. Mr. Rahim is keenly interested in starting Small Scale business. But he is worried about the challenges before Small Scale business. Guide him about the solutions to face these challenges.

Question 1.
Guidelines to start a small scale business:
Answer:
1. Method of Production : It is said that small scale industries use old methods of production Mr. Rahim can improve the method of production by using new technology. He can purchase the new technology at affordable rate and give training to the workers so that they can improve the skills and in turn increase the production.

2. Finance : Rahim can get information about various schemes given by government to raise finance. He can also compare the rate of interest of various financial institutes and take loan at a lower rate of interest.

3. Raw Material : Rahim can start business in area near by to the availability of raw material so that he can save the cost of transportation of raw material. If the cost of raw material decreases he will not have to compromise on the quantity and quality of raw material.

4. Labour Problem : Rahim can give training to the workers so that they can increase the productivity. Skilled workers can work more efficiently. Rahim should also provide with job security so that workers do not leave the job and experienced workers can increase productivity.

5. Marketing Problem : Rahim should have thorough study of need of the customer in the market. He should have all market updates so that he can make changes according to the requirement of customers. He can do market survey with use of latest technology i.e. Internet and WhatsApp. He can make use of these technology for advertising of his product also.

6. Transportation : As stated in point no. (c) Rahim can start business in area nearby to the availability of raw material so that he can save the cost of transportation of raw material. He can also keep the cost of the product less and then add the cost of transportation afterwards so that cost of his product will look less.

7. Sickness : Rahim will have to take care of the credit system which he is going to follow. It is advisable that he sells the goods on cash basis and not on credit basis. If he gives it on credit he should be good at follow up. While purchasing raw material he can take it on credit basis so that he gets adequate working capital to use. If he gets sufficient working capital he can produce goods on time and the industry will not become sick.

8. Globalisation : Rahim is to be aware about the various competitive products and other similar products which are there in the market. He will have to be updated with the latest things and latest prices and make changes in his small unit regularly as and when required.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Geography Important Questions Chapter 7 Region and Regional Development Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Geography Important Questions Chapter 7 Region and Regional Development

Choose the correct option by identifying the correct correlation in the sentences.

Question 1.
Formal region …………….
(a) USA
(b) TV signal areas
(c) Wireless
(d) Wi-Fi hotspot
Answer:
(a) USA

Question 2.
Functional region …………….
(a) Rice producing area
(b) Desert area
(c) Iron and steel producing areas
(d) Wireless
Answer:
(d) Wireless

Question 3.
In rural areas much of the land is used for …………….
(a) housing
(b) agriculture
(c) market
(d) transport
Answer:
(b) agriculture

Question 4.
Important indicator of development is …………….
(a) Per capita income
(b) Out migration
(c) Slow growth of population
(d) Dependency ratio
Answer:
(a) Per capita income

Question 5.
Functional region is …………….
(a) Canada
(b) Africa
(c) Europe
(d) Pune metropolitan region
Answer:
(d) Pune metropolitan region

Question 6.
Formal region …………….
(a) Mumbai Metropolitan region
(b) Delhi Metropolitan region
(c) West Bengal
(d) Nagpur Metropolitan region
Answer:
(c) West Bengal

Identify the correct correlation.

A : Assertion, R : Reasoning
Question 1.
A – A functional region may be heterogeneous in nature.
R – It may involve more than one type of physical or political region.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
A – Cities can be considered as a functional region.
R – Buses move people from the suburb to the city central area.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.

Question 3.
A – There are many indicators of development like quality and quantity of population, education, poverty, etc.
R – But only one indictor can decide the development of region.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation A.
Answer:
(a) Only A is correct.

Question 4.
A – Population and development are closely interrelated.
R – Population influences development and in turn, is influenced by development.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.

Identify the incorrect factor.

Question 1.
In urban areas much of the land is used for
(a) Housing
(b) Commercial
(c) Mining
(d) Industries
Answer:
(c) Mining

Question 2.
Factors responsible for regional development
(a) Physical factors
(b) Economic factors
(c) Environment factors
(d) Push and pull factors
Answer:
(d) Push and pull factors

Question 3.
Factors responsible for imbalanced development
(a) Accessibility
(b) Altitude
(c) Migration
(d) Relief
Answer:
(c) Migration

Question 4.
A region may not be well developed if
(a) Landlocked
(c) Lack of natural harbour
(b) High mountain ranges
(d) Favourable climate
Answer:
(d) Favourable climate

Question 5.
Functional region
(a) Wi-Fi hotspots
(b) TV signal area
(c) Assam
(d) Wireless
Answer:
(c) Assam

Question 6.
Formal regions
(a) West Bengal
(b) Rice producing area
(c) A city
(d) Africa
Answer:
(c) A city

Complete the Chain

Question 1.

A	B	C
(1) Amazon	(1) River	(1) Physical
(2) Khandesh	(2) Administrative	(2) Political
(3) Bengali speaking	(3) Language	(3) Linguistics

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Amazon	(1) Language	(1) Linguistics
(2) Khandesh	(2) River	(2) Physical
(3) Bengali speaking	(3) Administrative	(3) Political

Question 2.

A	B	C
(1) Ganga Basin	(1) Island	(1) Tourism
(2) Japan	(2) Beautiful scenery	(2) Agriculture and industries
(3) Indonesia	(3) Fertile soil	(3) Trade and import resources

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Ganga Basin	(1) Fertile soil	(1) Agriculture and industries
(2) Japan	(2) Island	(2) Trade and import resources
(3) Indonesia	(3) Beautiful scenery	(3) Tourism

Question 3.

A	B	C
(1) Later stage of Demographic Transition Theory	(1) Higher population	(1) Higher amount of capital resources consumed
(2) Population pyramid	(2) Pull factor	(2) Lower per capita income
(3) Migration	(3) Low growth of population	(3) Greater development less spent on population
(4) Indicator of economic development	(4) High dependency ratio	(4) Good employment opportunities

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Later stage of Demographic Transition Theory	(1) Low growth of population	(1) Greater development less spent on population
(2) Population pyramid	(2) High dependency ratio	(2) Higher amount of capital resources consumed
(3) Migration	(3) Pull factor	(3) Good employment opportunities
(4) Indicator of economic development	(4) Higher population	(4) Lower per capita income

Give geographical reasons.

Question 1.
Population and development are closely interrelated.
Answer:

• The economic development in any country/region depends upon the quantity and quality of its people.
• Higher the numbers of people lower the per capita income, which indicates low development in the country/region.
• Lesser number of people in the country/region lead to shortage of skilled labour and limited development. Higher number of populations is good for the development of the country/region.
• The quality of people includes age structure, sex ratio, occupational structure, literacy rate, etc. If these aspects of the population are favourable, then there is development in the country/ region.
• Age group of people in the country also affects the development. If there are more people in the working age group then there is more economic development.
• Migration also affects the economic development of the region/country. If people migrate to any region it indicates employment opportunities and economic development.
• However, too much migration may create pressure of population on available resources and labour thus, adversely affecting the development of the country/region.

Write short notes on.

Question 1.
Causes of regional imbalances in India.
Answer:
India faces imbalanced regional development due to uncertainty in the development of states or districts.

The main factors affecting regional development of any region are physical factors like climate, soil, location, relief, geology of the country, forest, etc.

Some regions have favourable relief, climate, fertile soil or favourable geographical location or ample natural resources. Such regions develop faster. For example, the northern plains of India are well developed due to plain relief, fertile soil and moderate climate. Coastal cities like Mumbai, Chennai are well developed due to development of ports and harbours.

Some regions have unfavourable relief or climate. Therefore, development is limited. For example, the north-eastern states of India have less development due to hilly relief, heavy rainfall, frequent flooding and inaccessibility.

The human factors like market demand, transportation, power supply, banking and insurance facilities, communication facilities, technological development, skilled labour, etc., contributes to the development of a region. For example, due to unfavourable human factors, the Himalayan region is less developed. Thus, there is regional imbalance in India.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Geography Important Questions Chapter 5 Secondary Economic Activities Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Geography Important Questions Chapter 5 Secondary Economic Activities

Choose the correct option by identifying the correct correlation in the sentences.

Question 1.
Secondary activities include
(a) Processing
(b) Commercial farming
(c) Horticulture
(d) Mining
Answer:
(a) Processing

Question 2.
Economic factor deciding location of industry
(a) Labour
(b) Transport
(c) Market
(d) Agglomeration
Answer:
(c) Market

Question 3.
Industry in which semi-skilled labour is essential
(a) Food processing
(b) Electronic
(c) Construction
(d) Chemical
Answer:
(c) Construction

Question 4.
Industry having split location
(a) Food processing
(b) Automobile
(c) Iron and steel
(d) Jute textile
Answer:
(b) Automobile

Question 5.
In India, which of the following industries have portal location?
(a) Iron and steel
(b) Oil refineries
(c) Food processing
(d) Dairy
Answer:
(b) Oil refineries

Identify the correct correlation.

Question 1.
A – Cottage industry is the most basic industry.
R – Some of the products of this industry have great demand abroad.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
A – Public sector industries are owned by the state.
R – Marketing of goods is through private agencies.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(a) Only A is correct.

Question 3.
A – Tata Iron and Steel Industry is the basic industry.
R – Finished product of this industry is the raw material in many industries.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.

Identify the incorrect factor.

Question 1.
Physical factors of location of industries,
(a) Climate
(b) Market
(c) Water
(d) Physiography
Answer:
(b) Market

Question 2.
Physical factors of location of industries,
(a) Transport
(b) Labour
(c) Land
(d) Capital
Answer:
(d) Capital

Question 3.
Physical factors of location of industries,
(a) Land
(b) Labour
(c) SEZs
(d) Water
Answer:
(c) SEZs

Question 4.
Industrial regions in the United States of America.
(a) New England
(b) England
(c) New York
(d) Mid-Atlantic
Answer:
(b) England

Question 5.
Industrial regions in Japan.
(a) Tokyo
(b) Kobe
(c) Kimberly
(d) Kawasaki
Answer:
(c) Kimberly

Question 6.
Industrial regions in Africa.
(a) Congo
(b) Ghana
(c) Angela
(d) Zambia
Answer:
(c) Angela

Question 7.
Important industries in New Zealand.
(a) Meat products
(b) Dairy products
(c) Canned fruits
(d) Oil refining
Answer:
(d) Oil refining

Question 8.
Agro-based industries
(a) Cotton textile
(b) Sugar
(c) Food processing
(d) Steel industry
Answer:
(d) Steel industry

Question 9.
Proposed economic corridors
(a) DMIC
(b) ADKIC
(c) BMC
(d) BMIC
Answer:
(c) BMC

Complete the Chain

Question 1.

A	B	C
(1) Co-operative sector	(1) Owned by private individual	(1) ONGC
(2) MNCs	(2) Only one state	(2) AMUL
(3) Private sector	(3) More than one country	(3) BHEL
(4) Public sector	(4) Group of people set up	(4) TISCO

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Co-operative sector	(1) Group of people set up	(1) AMUL
(2) MNCs	(2) More than one country	(2) ONGC
(3) Private sector	(3) Owned by private individual	(3) TISCO
(4) Public sector	(4) Only one state	(4) BHEL

Question 2.

A	B	C
(1) Household industry	(1) Material produced by industry used as raw material by other industries	(1) Iron and Steel industry
(2) Heavy industry	(2) Goods produced for direct consumption	(2) Electronic industry
(3) Light industry	(3) Manufacture parts and components	(3) Iron sheets
(4) Ancillary industry	(4) Use local raw material	(4) Potters

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Household industry	(1) Use local raw material	(1) Potters
(2) Heavy industry	(2) Material produced by industry used as raw material by other industries	(2) Iron and Steel industry
(3) Light industry	(3) Goods produced for direct consumption	(3) Electronic industry
(4) Ancillary industry	(4) Manufacture parts and components	(4) Iron sheets

Complete the following as per instructions.

Question 1.
Arrange the industrial regions of USA from North to South.
New York, Mid-Atlantic, New England, Eastern Texas.
Answer:
New England, New York, Mid-Atlantic, Eastern Texas.

Question 2.
Arrange the industrial regions of Australia from East to West.
Adelaide, Melbourne, Sydney, Perth
Answer:
Sydney, Melbourne, Adelaide, Perth.

Question 3.
Arrange the industrial regions of Japan from North to South. Tokyo, Osaka, Yokohama, Nagoya.
Answer:
Tokyo, Yokohama, Nagoya, Osaka.

Give geographical reasons.

Question 1.
What factors are responsible for non-development of industries in Central Australia?
Answer:

• Central part of Australia is covered by the Great Australian desert.
• Since it is a desert, physical factors like climate, water, raw materials, labour and transport facilities are not suitable for the development of industries.
• Because of these adverse physical conditions, the density of population is extremely low and therefore there are limited markets. Also, due to these unfavourable economic factors also industries are not developed in central Australia.

Differentiate between.

Question 1.
Public Sector Industries and Private Sector Industries.
Answer:

Public Sector Industries	Private Sector Industries
(i) Public sector industries are owned by the state.	(i) Private sector industries are owned by a private individual or in partnership.
(ii) Government investment and marketing of goods.	(ii) Individuals or partners make investment and profit or loss is shared equally.
(iii) Bharat Heavy Electrical Limited (BHEL) is a public sector industry.	(iii) Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO) is a private sector industry.

Question 2.
Large scale industries and Cottage or Household industries
Answer:

Large scale industries	Cottage or Household industries
(i) These industries require huge amount of capital for machinery and infrastructure.	(i) These industries need limited capital, since machinery and infrastructure.
(ii) Goods are produced to sell in the regional or national market.	(ii) Goods are produced for the sale in the local market.
(iii) For example, cotton textile industry or iron and steel industry.	(iii) For example, weavers, blacksmith, sculpture, carpenter etc.
(iv) These industries require skilled labour since all products are handmade.	(iv) These industries require machinery than skilled labour.

Answer the following Questions by using given map.

1. Name the industrial region of India.
2. Name the industrial region of north China.
3. Name the industrial region of Russia
4. Name the industrial region on North-East part of USA.
5. Name the industrial region on South-Western coast of Australia.
6. Name the industrial region of South Japan.
7. Name the industrial region of South America.
8. Name the industrial region of South China.
9. Name the industrial region of Europe.

Answer:

1. The industrial region of India is Chota Nagpur region.
2. The industrial region of North China is East coast industrial region (Beijing).
3. The industrial region of Russia is Moscow-Tula region.
4. The industrial region of North-East part of USA is New England industrial region.
5. The industrial region on South-Western coast of Australia is Perth industrial region.
6. The industrial region of South Japan is Osaka-Kobe-Kyoto industrial region.
7. The industrial region of South America is South-East Brazil industrial region.
8. The industrial region of South China is Lower Yangtze industrial region.
9. The industrial region of Europe is Great Britain industrial region.

Write short notes on.

Question 1.
Classification of industries based on the source of raw material.
Answer:
Based on the source of raw material, industries are classified as follows:
Agro-based industries : The industries which use agricultural produce as raw material and process them into finished products are called agro-based industries. For example, fruit processing industries which produce jam, jelly, sherbet, fruit canning, etc., locate near fruit growing areas.

Mineral-based industries : These industries use minerals as raw material and after processing produce finished products. For example, petrochemical industries use mineral oil as raw material and produce petrol, diesel, lubricants, kerosene, paraffin wax etc.

Forest-based industries : These industries use forest products such as wood, tendu leaves, rubber, turpentine, grass, etc., as raw material and after processing produce finished products. For example, paper industries use wood and make paper, rubber industries use natural rubber to make rubber products, scented oil is made from various grass varieties.

Marine-based industries : These industries use marine resource as raw material and after processing produce finished products. For example, fish canning, fish oil making industries use fish as raw material. Other marine-based industries are industries producing decorative articles/ purses, by using sea shells as raw material or decorative articles of corals.

Pastoral-based industries: These industries use animal product such as milk, meat or body parts of animals such as bones, horns, wool, skin etc. For example, dairy industries use milk, woollen textile mills use wool, or leather industries use skin of animals as raw material.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Geography Important Questions Chapter 8 Geography: Nature and Scope Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Geography Important Questions Chapter 8 Geography: Nature and Scope

Choose the correct option by identifying the correct correlation in the sentences.

Question 1.
………………. is not included in atmosphere.
(a) Weather
(b) Climate
(c) Precipitation
(d) River
Answer:
(d) River

Question 2.
……………….. is not included in hydrosphere.
(a) Mountain
(b) Ocean
(c) Sea
(d) Lake
Answer:
(a) Mountain

Question 3.
……………….. is not included in lithosphere.
(a) Relief
(b) Drainage
(c) Weather
(d) Slope
Answer:
(c) Weather

Question 4.
…………………. is not included in Human Geography.
(a) GIS
(b) Social Geography
(c) Behavioural Geography
(d) Economic Geography
Answer:
(a) GIS

Question 5.
……………… is not included in Human Geography.
(a) Historical Geography
(b) Statistics
(c) Political Geography
(d) Population Geography
Answer:
(b) Statistics

Question 6.
…………………. is not included in geographical techniques.
(a) Statistics
(b) Cartography
(c) Remote sensing
(d) GIS
Answer:
(a) Statistics

Question 7.
………………… is not included in biosphere.
(a) Food chain
(b) Ecosystem
(c) Macro-organisms
(d) Lakes
Answer:
(d) Lakes

Identify the correct correlation.

A : Assertion, R : Reasoning
Question 1.
A – The Earth is dynamic in nature.
R – The geographical phenomena are not static but dynamic.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation A.

Question 2.
A – Geography is dynamic in nature.
R – Geography is a study of space and time.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.

Question 3.
A – Skills of geographers have enriched the subject as newer branches of geography.
R – Skills acquired by geographers enable them to make observations and describe various elements on the earth.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.

Question 4.
A – Geography is an integrating and inter disciplinary discipline.
R – Many branches of geography have developed from mainstreams of disciplines.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.

Identify the incorrect factor.

Question 1.
The main branches of geography are
(a) Physical geography
(b) Economic geography
(c) Pedology
(d) Human geography
Answer:
(c) Pedology

Question 2.
The main branches of Physical geography are
(a) Geomorphology
(b) Climatology
(c) Biogeography
(d) Remote sensing
Answer:
(d) Remote sensing

Question 3.
The cartographic techniques include
(a) Geology
(b) GPS
(c) Cartography
(d) GIS
Answer:
(a) Geology

Question 4.
The subjects related to Human geography are
(a) History
(b) Social geography
(c) Political science
(d) Psychology
Answer:
(b) Social geography

Question 5.
The subjects related to Human geography are
(a) Demography
(b) Sociology
(c) Historical geography
(d) Economics
Answer:
(c) Historical geography

Question 6.
The branches of Human geography are
(a) Economics
(b) Population geography
(c) Behavioural geography
(d) Historical geography
Answer:
(a) Economics

Question 7.
The cartographic techniques include
(a) Computer science
(b) Cartography
(c) Quantification methods in geography
(d) GIS
Answer:
(a) Computer science

Question 8.
The branches of Human geography are
(a) Political geography
(b) Social geography
(c) Psychology
(d) Economic geography
Answer:
(c) Psychology

Question 9.
The subjects related to Physical geography are
(a) Biogeography
(b) Geology
(c) Meteorology
(d) Biology
Answer:
(a) Biogeography

Complete the Chain

Question 1.

A	B	C
(1) Physical Geography	(1) Computer science	(1) GIS
(2) Human Geography	(2) Pedology	(2) Geography of Soils
(3) Geomorphology	(3) Psychology	(3) Behavioural Geography

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Physical Geography	(1) Pedology	(1) Geography of Soils
(2) Human Geography	(2) Psychology	(2) Behavioural Geography
(3) Geomorphology	(3) Computer science	(3) GIS

Question 2.

A	B	C
(1) Geographic Techniques	(1) Geology	(1) Population Geography
(2) Human Geography	(2) Engineering	(2) Geomorphology
(3) Physical Geography	(3) Demography	(3) Remote Sensing

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Geographic Techniques	(1) Engineering	(1) Remote Sensing
(2) Human Geography	(2) Demography	(2) Population Geography
(3) Physical Geography	(3) Geology	(3) Geomorphology

Question 3.

A	B	C
(1) Human Geography	(1) Meteorology	(1) Political Geography
(2) Physical Geography	(2) Geodesy	(2) Cartography
(3) Geographic Techniques	(3) Political Science	(3) Climatology

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Human Geography	(1) Political Science	(1) Political Geography
(2) Physical Geography	(2) Meteorology	(2) Climatology
(3) Geographic Techniques	(3) Geodesy	(3) Cartography

Give geographical reasons.

Question 1.
Geography offers vast scope for career.
Answer:

• Due to the dynamic nature of geography, various advanced statistical techniques and computer programs are used to study and explain the geographical phenomenon.
• Presently, because of global warming, natural disasters occur in various areas of the world. However, different techniques are being used to study the intensity of disasters or provide warnings before a disaster. Hence, disaster management is now a new field for career.
• Geographers have a wide scope to work as climate analyst, water conservation, water and air pollution monitoring, environmental conservation, environmental education/awareness, etc., because of the increasing air and water pollution and environmental degradation.
• Maps are essential in geography. Nowadays, maps are not made manually but with the help of GIS software. Thus, there is a wide scope for career in cartography.
• Population study of a country goes on continuously; therefore, many job opportunities as surveyor, census officer or data collector.
• Research is also going on in various branches for geography; therefore, there are career opportunities as researcher or research analyst.
• There are also career opportunities in book writing, teaching, journalism, freelancing preparing maps and diagrams for textbooks, data scientist, tour guide, report writing, urban planner, travel blogger, data scientists, etc.
  Thus, geography offers vast scope for career.