Maharashtra Board 12th OCM Important Questions Chapter 2 Functions of Management

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th OCM Important Questions Chapter 2 Functions of Management Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Commerce OCM Important Questions Chapter 2 Functions of Management

Select the correct options and rewrite the sentences

Question 1.
Planning is …………… function.
(a) advanced
(b) basic
(c) end
Answer:
(b) basic

Maharashtra Board 12th OCM Important Questions Chapter 2 Functions of Management

Question 2.
Division of work is involved in ……………… function.
(a) Planning
(b) Organising
(c) Directing
Answer:
(b) Organising

Question 3.
Directing is initiated at ……………….. level.
(a) Top
(b) Middle
(c) Lower
Answer:
(a) Top

Question 4.
Staffing function is a ……………… activity.
(a) basic
(b) continuous
(c) neutral
Answer:
(b) continuous

Question 5.
A process to establish harmony among different activities to achieve desired results is called ………………..
(a) Controlling
(b) Co-ordinating
(c) Co-operation
Answer:
(b) Co-ordinating

Question 6.
Unification, integration and synchronization of the efforts of group members so as to achieve common goals is a ……………… function.
(a) Planning
(b) Organising
(c) Co-ordinating
Answer:
(c) Co-ordinating

Question 7.
Staffing is concerned with ……………….
(a) physical factor
(b) financial factor
(c) human factor
Answer:
(c) human factor

Question 8.
Controlling measures the ……………… of actual performance from the standard performance.
(a) action
(b) deviation
(c) objective
Answer:
(b) deviation

Question 9.
Directing is a responsibility of ……………… at all levels.
(a) Manager
(b) Worker
(c) People
Answer:
(a) Manager

Maharashtra Board 12th OCM Important Questions Chapter 2 Functions of Management

Question 10.
Physical, financial and human resources to develop productive relationship is a ………………. function.
(a) Organising
(b) Directing
(c) Staffing
Answer:
(a) Organising

Match the pairs

Question 1.

Group A Group B
(A) Planning (1) Individual Taste
(B) Organising (2) Goodwill
(C) Staffing (3) Bridges the gap between where we are now and where we want to go
(D) Co-ordinating (4) All the people are employed
(E) Controlling (5) Not directly related to Human Beings
(6) Identify and Grouping the work to be performed
(7) Corrective Action taking
(8) Right People at Right Jobs
(9) Taking action against employees
(10) Aims only at Organisational Goals

Answer:

Group A Group B
(A) Planning (3) Bridges the gap between where we are now and where we want to go
(B) Organising (6) Identify and Grouping the work to be performed
(C) Staffing (8) Right People at Right Jobs
(D) Co-ordinating (2) Goodwill
(E) Controlling (7) Corrective Action taking

Question 2.

Group A Group B
(A) Planning (1) Unimportant management function
(B) Organising (2) Increases productivity
(C) Staffing (3) Goal-oriented /Basic function
(D) Co-ordinating (4) Manager
(E) Controlling (5) Departmentalisation
(6) Following orders
(7) Human Resource Development
(8) Worker
(9) Chain of action
(10) Deviations in performance

Answer:

Group A Group B
(A) Planning (3) Goal-oriented /Basic function
(B) Organising (5) Departmentalisation
(C) Staffing (7) Human Resource Development
(D) Co-ordinating (9) Chain of action
(E) Controlling (10) Deviations in performance

Give one word/phrase/term for the following statements

Question 1.
One of the functions of management is considered as a base for all functions.
Answer:
Planning function

Maharashtra Board 12th OCM Important Questions Chapter 2 Functions of Management

Question 2.
The function of management, which identifies and divides the work of the organisation.
Answer:
Organising function

Question 3.
A process where standards are set, actual performance is measured and corrective action is taken.
Answer:
Controlling function

Question 4.
An end function where the performance is evaluated in accordance with plan.
Answer:
Controlling function

Question 5.
An orderly arrangement of group efforts to provide unity of action to achieve common goals.
Answer:
Co-ordinating function

Question 6.
A process of taking steps to bring actual results and desired results closer together.
Answer:
Controlling function

Question 7.
A function which provides instructions from top level management to the lower level.
Answer:
Directing function.

Complete the sentences

Question 1.
A few philosophers called ………………. as ‘Life spark of an Enterprise’.
Answer:
Directing

Question 2.
……………….. is an integral part of direction function.
Answer:
Supervision

Question 3.
……………….. is a hidden force that binds all other functions of management.
Answer:
Co-ordination.

Maharashtra Board 12th OCM Important Questions Chapter 2 Functions of Management

Explain the following terms/concepts

Question 1.
Co-ordination
Answer:
Co-ordination is the integration and synchronisation of the efforts of a group of employees so as to provide unity of action for organisational goals. It is a hidden force which binds all other functions of management. Different activities of different departments are integrated and harmonised in achieving desired goal of an organisation. Thus, co-ordination between different functions and all levels of employee is the heart of success of an organisation.

Question 2.
Controlling
Answer:
Controlling is the process of bringing about conformity of performance with actual planned action. It helps is taking timely corrective measures to bring the actual and desired results close to each other. Controlling helps in formatting future plan also. It is required in all types of organisation and at all levels of management.

Distinguish between

Question 1.
Planning and Staffing
Answer:

Planning Staffing
1. Meaning Planning refers to a process of deciding in advance what to do, where to do, how to do, when to do and who is to do it. Staffing is a process of recruitment through which competent employees are selected, properly trained, effectively developed, suitably rewarded.
2. Objective The objective of planning is to set the goals and choose the means to achieve those goals. The objective of the staffing is to obtain the most competent and efficient staff to improve the overall performance.
3. Area of function Planning involves setting objectives, identifying alternative courses of actions and selecting best plain for the organisation. Staffing involves selection, recruitment, training, development, promotion, transfer, etc. of employees
4. Factors In planning function, internal as well as external factors are considered to set the targets. In staffing function, only internal factors such as human factor, finance, workload, etc. are considered.
5. Resources Planning is related to those resources which are required for achieving the targets. Staffing is related to human resources only.
6. Levels of management Usually, overall planning for the entire organization is done by the top-level management. Usually, the function of staffing is undertaken by the middle-level management.

 

Maharashtra Board 12th OCM Important Questions Chapter 1 Principles of Management

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th OCM Important Questions Chapter 1 Principles of Management Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Commerce OCM Important Questions Chapter 1 Principles of Management

Select the correct options and rewrite the sentences

Question 1.
The technique of study of ………………. concentrates on the body movements of the worker.
(a) Motion
(b) Time
(c) Organization
Answer:
(a) Motion

Maharashtra Board 12th OCM Important Questions Chapter 1 Principles of Management

Question 2.
14 principles of management are developed by ………………
(a) F. W. Taylor
(b) Henry Fayol
(c) Peter Drucker
Answer:
(b) Henry Fayol

Question 3.
Management principles influence ……………..
(a) human behaviour
(b) organization
(c) government
Answer:
(a) human behaviour

Question 4.
Management principles are …………….. in nature.
(a) constant
(b) universal
(c) limited
Answer:
(b) universal

Question 5.
Management principles establish ……………….. relationship.
(a) social
(b) legal
(c) cause and effect
Answer:
(c) cause and effect

Question 6.
‘One-plan-one head’ is stated in ……………….
(a) Principle of Direction
(b) Principle of Unity of Command
(c) Scalar Chain
Answer:
(a) Principle of Direction

Question 7.
Principle that focuses on complete change in the attitude of the employees is known as the Principles of …………………
(a) Attitude Change
(b) Scientific Management
(c) Mental Revolution
Answer:
(c) Mental Revolution

Match the pairs

Question 1.

Group A Group B
(A) Division of work (1) Direct communication
(B) Authority (2) Adhering to rules
(C) Fair  remuneration (3) Specialisation
(D) Discipline (4) Long chain of communication
(E) Gang Plank (5) Right wages to the employees
(6) Responsibility
(7) No confidence in management policies
(8) Allotting work to any employee
(9) Exploitation of workers
(10) Misuse of power

Answer:

Group A Group B
(A) Division of work (3) Specialisation
(B) Authority (6) Responsibility
(C) Fair  remuneration (5) Right wages to the employees
(D) Discipline (2) Adhering to rules
(E) Gang Plank (1) Direct communication

Maharashtra Board 12th OCM Important Questions Chapter 1 Principles of Management

Give one word/phrase/term for the following statements

Question 1.
Father of Scientific Management.
Answer:
Fredrick Winslow Taylor

Question 2.
The principle of management which says unity is strength.
Answer:
Principle of Esprit de corps

Question 3.
The principle of management explaining about fair payment to workers.
Answer:
Principle of Remuneration

Question 4.
The statements which disclose fundamental truth of management.
Answer:
Principle of Management

Question 5.
Principle of management which states that there should be balance between the authority and responsibility.
Answer:
Principle of Authority and Responsibility

Question 6.
Principle of management which states that every employee should receive orders and instructions from one boss only.
Answer:
Principle of Unity of Command.

State whether the following statements are True or False

Question 1.
Management principles are applicable to all types of organisation.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Employees can be motivated by following the principle of fair remuneration.
Answer:
True

Maharashtra Board 12th OCM Important Questions Chapter 1 Principles of Management

Question 3.
The goal of organisation must not be sacrificed for individual goal.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
F. W. Taylor recommended total six foremen to control the various aspects of production.
Answer:
False.

Find the odd one

Question 1.
Principle of Unity of Direction, Principle of Centralisation, Principle of Order, Time Study.
Answer:
Time Study

Question 2.
Standardisation of tools and equipment, Science – not rule of thumb, Mental Revolution, Division of Responsibility.
Answer:
Standardisation of tools and equipment

Question 3.
Scientific task setting, Scientific selection and training. Principle of Stability of Tenure, Differential Piece – Rate Wage Plan.
Answer:
Principle of stability of tenure

Justify the following statements

Question 1.
Principles of management improve the efficiency of employees.
Answer:
(1) Principles of management if used and applied by the organisation in right direction, they help to improve understanding and the overall efficiency of the employees. Principles of management advocate planned activities and : systematic organisation of men, materials, methods, machinery, etc. which in turn help to improve and increase the efficiency of employees.

(2) Principles of management guide the managers about handling the human resource, reducing the wastage, co-ordinating the activities of different departments, etc. This helps to improve the productivity in the organisation and consequently efficiency of employees. Principles of management also help to develop the objective approach.

(3) Application and use of principles of management leads to specialisation, increased productivity and efficiency. It boosts the morale of employees. These principles help to co-ordinate and control various activities of the organisation and also motivate the employees to perform more efficiently and effectively.

(4) Principle of fair remuneration indicates the management to pay adequate wages and other incentives to the employees. This goes a long way to increase the morale of employees who in turn would put their best efforts to perform their duties more efficiently. Principles of management also help to understand social responsibilities and to carry out research and development activities to improve the efficiency of employees.

Maharashtra Board 12th OCM Important Questions Chapter 1 Principles of Management

Question 2.
Principles of management are applicable to all types of organisations.
Answer:
(1) Principles of management are the statements of fundamental truth which act as guidelines for managerial decision-making and actions. They establish cause and effect relationship. They are evolved through observation, analysis and experiments.

(2) However, managers can suitably modify the principles of management keeping in mind the requirements of the organisation.

(3) Principles of management are also helpful in achieving and attaining social and cultural goals. They are also directed to maximising profit without ignoring social values.

(4) Thus, Principles of management are universal in nature. They are applicable to all types of organisations irrespective of the type, size or nature of the organisations.

Attempt the following

Question 1.
Explain the significance of management principles.
Answer:
The significance of management principles is explained as follows:
(1) Provides useful insight to manager : The study of management principles helps the manager to understand the organisation, its situations and problems. They act as guidelines to find out the ‘ solutions to the problems and handle the situation accordingly. The use and application of these principles help the manager to know the manner in which they should act in different situations, Timely guidance provided by the management principles reduces the wastage of resources and help to achieve goals in exact manner.

(2) Helpful in efficient utilisation of resources : The two resources used in the organisations Eire classified as physiCEd resources such as materials, machine, money, etc. and human resources i.e. manpower. The main function of management is to mEiintain proper balance between these resources by putting them to optimum use and control the wastage of resources. It uses different techniques Emd management principles and maintains discipline and healthy working environment. This helps to establish cordial relation between management and employees. This in turn increases the efficiency level of employees.

(3) Scientific decisions : Scientific decisions in relation to business organisation implies systematic and balanced decision. Management principles train and help the manager to tackle the situation tactfully instead of using trial and error method. Managers get an idea to analyse the situation systematically, to search alternative options and their results with the use of management principles.

(4) Understanding social responsibility: A business is a part of society. It makes use of the resources of the society and therefore, it has to perform some social responsibilities. Management principles guide the managers to understand and perform social responsibilities so that management can focus on providing quality products at reasonable prices, avoiding unfair trade practices and artificial monopolistic situations in the market, fair remuneration to employees, a healthy working environment, standard tools, and equipment, etc.

(5) Encourage Research and Development: Principles of management are evolutionary in nature and have evolved with the passage of time. They have undergone certain changes on account of changes in the business world. They are modified and developed over the years to suit the current trends. They stress scientific study, research, and development in the organization. Research and Development always work to find out new techniques in the field of production, marketing, finance, human resources, etc.

(6) Helps to coordinate and control: Principles of management serve as guidelines for better coordination and control. These principles help the managers in this challenge to coordinate the activities of different departments. Managers can easily exercise control over the performance of their employees. The proper use of these principles helps to achieve the given target easily.

Maharashtra Board 12th OCM Important Questions Chapter 1 Principles of Management

(7) Develops objective approach: By using various principles of management, the manager can develop an objective approach. The manager can find out and identify opportunities, root causes of the problems and can provide appropriate solutions on it in the right direction. This approach also helps to build confidence in the minds of the managers.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 4 Issue of Debentures

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 4 Issue of Debentures Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 4 Issue of Debentures

1A. Select the correct answer from the options given below and rewrite the statements.

Question 1.
A company raises debt capital through the issue of ___________
(a) equity shares
(b) preference shares
(c) debentures
Answer:
(c) debenture

Question 2.
Debenture holder is ___________ of the company.
(a) Owner
(b) debtor
(c) creditor
Answer:
(c) creditor

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 4 Issue of Debentures

Question 3.
Debenture holders get income in the form of ___________
(a) Dividend
(b) Interest
(c) Bonus
Answer:
(b) Interest

Question 4.
Power to issue debentures rests with ___________
(a) Chairman
(b) Secretary
(c) Board of Directors
Answer:
(c) Board of Directors

Question 5.
The word ‘Debenture’ is derived from the Latin word ___________
(a) Debere
(b) Debenture
(c) Debire
Answer:
(a) Debere

Question 6.
Debenture cannot be redeemed ___________
(a) at par
(b) at premium
(c) at discount
Answer:
(c) at discount

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 4 Issue of Debentures

Question 7.
The company has to obtain the consent of ___________ if the issue of debentures exceeds ₹ 1.
(a) SEBI
(b) Registrar
(c) National Stock Exchange
Answer:
(a) SEBI

Question 8.
Debenture certificate must be issued within ___________ months of allotment.
(a) 3
(b) 6
(c) 9
Answer:
(b) 6 months

Question 9.
The ___________ is an advertisement for the issue of debentures.
(a) memorandum of association
(b) articles of association
(c) prospectus
Answer:
(c) prospectus

Question 10.
Debenture holders is entitled to receive ___________ certificate from the company.
(a) Share
(b) Debenture
(c) Dividend
Answer:
(b) Debenture

Question 11.
Fully convertible debentures are converted into ___________ shares on maturity.
(a) equity
(b) deferred
(c) bonus
Answer:
(a) Equity

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 4 Issue of Debentures

Question 12.
A return of allotment is filed with the Registrar within ___________ days of allotment.
(a) 30
(b) 60
(c) 90
Answer:
(a) 30

Question 13.
The ___________ can direct the company to repay the principal amount of debenture with interest.
(a) Company Law Board
(b) Registrar
(c) Shareholders
Answer:
(a) Company Law Board

Question 14.
In order to redeem old debentures the company issues ___________
(a) assets
(b) public deposits
(c) fresh debenture
Answer:
(c) fresh debenture

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 4 Issue of Debentures

1B. Match the pairs.

Question 1.

Group ‘A’ Group ‘B’
(1) Debenture Trustees (a) No voting rights
(2) Debenture (b) ICRA
(3) Convertible debenture (c) Security about Repayment
(4) Secured debenture (d) CARE
(5) Debenture holder (e) Equity Shares
(f) Borrowed capital
(g) Protect Debenture holders

Answer:

Group ‘A’ Group ‘B’
(1) Debenture Trustees (g) Protect Debenture holders
(2) Debenture (f) Borrowed capital
(3) Convertible debenture (e) Equity Shares
(4) Secured debenture (c) Security about Repayment
(5) Debenture holder (a) No voting rights

Question 2.

Group ‘A’ Group ‘B’
(1) Charge on Asset (a) Credit Rating
(2) Redeemable debenture (b) Secured debenture
(3) Board of Directors (c) 90 days
(4) CRISIL (d) Power to issue debenture
(5) Debenture Certificate (e) Unsecured Debenture
(f) Repaid on maturity
(g) 6 months

Answer:

Group ‘A’ Group ‘B’
(1) Charge on Asset (b) Secured debenture
(2) Redeemable debenture (f) Repaid on maturity
(3) Board of Directors (d) Power to issue debenture
(4) CRISIL (a) Credit Rating
(5) Debenture Certificate (g) 6 months

Question 3.

Group ‘A’ Group ‘B’
(1) Board of Directors (a) Within 6 months after allotment
(2) Debentures (b) No voting right
(3) Debenture holder (c) Application of debentures
(4) CARE (d) Interest
(5) Debenture Certificate (e) Voting right
(f) Within 120 days after allotment
(g) Credit rating agency
(h) Dividend
(i) SEBI
(j) Creditors

Answer:

Group ‘A’ Group ‘B’
(1) Board of Directors (c) Application of debentures
(2) Debentures (d) Interest
(3) Debenture holder (b) No voting right
(4) CARE (g) Credit rating agency
(5) Debenture Certificate (a) Within 6 months after allotment

Question 4.

Group ‘A’ Group ‘B’
(1) Trust Deed (a) Owner
(2) Debenture Certificate (b) Deed for debenture holders
(3) Secured Debenture (c) Charge on company’s assets
(4) Redemption by annual installment (d) Creditors of the company
(5) Debenture holders (e) Signature of two directors
(f) Two coupons
(g) Deed for depositors
(h) No charge on the company’s assets
(i) CARE
(j) Credit rating

Answer:

Group ‘A’ Group ‘B’
(1) Trust Deed (b) Deed for debenture holders
(2) Debenture Certificate (e) Signature of two directors
(3) Secured Debenture (c) Charge on company’s assets
(4) Redemption by annual installment (f) Two coupons
(5) Debenture holders (d) Creditors of the company

1C. Write a word or a term or a phrase that can substitute each of the following statements.

Question 1.
The provision dealing with the issue of debenture.
Answer:
Section 71 of the companies Act 2013

Question 2.
Name of the capital controller in India.
Answer:
SEBI

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 4 Issue of Debentures

Question 3.
Debenture converted in equity shares.
Answer:
Convertible Debenture

Question 4.
Redemption time of secured debenture.
Answer:
10 years

Question 5.
The authority which listing the debentures.
Answer:
Stock Exchange

Question 6.
Application received more than the issue.
Answer:
Over Subscription

Question 7.
Authority consulted by Debenture Trustee.
Answer:
NCLT

Question 8.
The agency provides a credit rating of the security.
Answer:
Credit Rating Agency

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 4 Issue of Debentures

Question 9.
Register of Entries of the debenture.
Answer:
Register of debenture

Question 10.
Meeting conducted in an emergency.
Answer:
Extraordinary General Meeting.

1D. State whether the following statements are true or false.

Question 1.
Debenture holders are the creditors of the company.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Board has no power to issue debenture.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Debenture helps to raise borrowed capital.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Debenture holders enjoy normal voting rights.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
The debenture is permanent capital.
Answer:
False

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 4 Issue of Debentures

Question 6.
A debenture trustee is a link between the company and Debenture holders.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
Appointment of the underwriter is compulsory.
Answer:
False

Question 8.
Listing of debenture is compulsory.
Answer:
True

Question 9.
SEBI has contracted over the security market.
Answer:
True

Question 10.
The allotment procedure should be completed within 60 days.
Answer:
True

Question 11.
A debenture Trust deed is a legal Agreement.
Answer:
True

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 4 Issue of Debentures

1E. Find the odd one.

Question 1.
SEBI, NCLT, SBI
Answer:
SBI

Question 2.
25%, 15%, 10%
Answer:
10%

Question 3.
CARE, CRISIL, SEBI
Answer:
SEBI

Question 4.
Credit Rating Agency Stock Exchange, SBI
Answer:
SBI

Question 5.
SEBI, NCLT, CRISIL
Answer:
CRISIL

Question 6.
Debenture Certificate Trust Deed, share certificate
Answer:
Share Certificate

1F. Complete the sentences.

Question 1.
Debenture holder has no ___________ rights.
Answer:
Voting

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 4 Issue of Debentures

Question 2.
CRISIL is responsible to ___________ of securities.
Answer:
Credit Rating

Question 3.
Company enters into ___________ with underwriter.
Answer:
Underwriting Agreement

Question 4.
___________ is needed to increase borrowing power.
Answer:
Special Resolution

Question 5.
If borrowing power of board is to be increased ___________ must be held.
Answer:
Extra Ordinary General Meeting

1G. Select the correct option from the bracket.

Question 1.

Group ’A’ Group ’B’
(1) Board of Directors (a) …………………….
(2) ……………………. (b) Interest
(3) Debenture holders (c) ……………………..
(4) …………………….. (d) Credit Rating Agency
(5) Debenture certificate (e) ………………………..

(Debenture, Application of debenture, No Voting Rights, 6 months, CARE)
Answer:

Group ’A’ Group ’B’
(1) Board of Directors (a) Application of debenture
(2) Debenture (b) Interest
(3) Debenture holders (c) No Voting Rights
(4) CARE (d) Credit Rating Agency
(5) Debenture certificate (e) 6 months

1H. Answer in one sentence.

Question 1.
Who creates a charge over assets?
Answer:
Debenture Trustee can create a charge over asset.

Question 2.
When is the permission of SEBI required?
Answer:
When borrowing capital exceeds 1 crore, consent of SEBI is required.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 4 Issue of Debentures

1I. Correct the underlined word and rewrite the following sentences.

Question 1.
Debenture holders get fluctuating interest.
Answer:
Debenture holders get Fixed interest.

Question 2.
Convertible debenture holders can be converted into preference shares.
Answer:
Convertible debenture holders can be converted into Equity Shares.

Question 3.
Shareholders have the power to issue debenture.
Answer:
The Board of directors has the power to issue debenture.

Question 4.
A debenture Trust deed is an illegal document.
Answer:
A debenture Trust deed is a legal document.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 4 Issue of Debentures

Question 5.
Debenture certificate issued by the company within 3 months.
Answer:
Debenture certificate issued by the company within 6 months.

Question 6.
Debenture holders are the owners of the company.
Answer:
Debenture holders are the creditor of the company.

Question 7.
Debentures generate owned capital for the company.
Answer:
Debentures generate borrowed capital for the company.

1J. Arrange in proper order.

Question 1.
(a) Offer letter
(b) Debenture Trust Deed
(c) Written Consent
Answer:
(a) Offer letter
(b) Written Consent
(c) Debenture Trust Deed

Question 2.
(a) Allotments of debenture
(b) Return with ROC
(c) Debenture Certificate
Answer:
(a) Allotments of debenture
(b) Debenture Certificate
(c) Return with ROC

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 4 Issue of Debentures

Question 3.
(a) Issue of prospectus
(b) Return with ROC
(c) Underwriting Agreement
Answer:
(a) Issue of prospectus
(b) Underwriting Agreement
(c) Return with ROC

Question 4.
(a) Board meeting
(b) Open Separate Bank Account
(c) Extra-Ordinary General Meeting
Answer:
(a) Board meeting
(b) Extra-Ordinary General Meeting
(c) Open Separate Bank Account

Question 5.
(a) Receiving Application Money
(b) Allotment of debenture
(c) Open Bank Account
Answer:
(a) Receiving Application Money
(b) Open Bank Account
(c) Allotment of debenture

Question 6.
(a) Preparation and consent to the prospectus
(b) Filing with ROC
(c) Special Resolution Passed
Answer:
(a) Special Resolution Passed
(b) Preparation and consent to the prospectus
(c) Filing with ROC

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 4 Issue of Debentures

Question 7.
(a) Debenture Certificate
(b) Entries in Register
(c) Underwriting contract
Answer:
(a) Underwriting contract
(b) Debenture Certificate
(c) Entries in Register

2. Explain the following terms/concepts.

Question 1.
Debenture
Answer:
The company raises capital by borrowing money from the public or its members. It is a proof of loan taken by the company. A person who purchases debenture is called a debenture holder. Interest is paid to the debenture holders.

Question 2.
Debenture Redemption Reserve
Answer:
Debenture Redemption Reserve is useful for the redemption of the debenture. It is created out of the profit of the company which has maintained a 25% minimum of the value of outstanding debenture in DRR.

Question 3.
Minimum Subscription
Answer:
Minimum subscription is a term that is used to represent the amount of the issue which has to be subscribed or else the shares can’t be issued if it is not being subscribed.

Question 4.
Underwriting
Answer:
An underwriting contract is a contract between an underwriter and the issuer of securities. It is helpful to issuer companies when securities are not being subscribed by the public. Here, underwriters guarantee the sale of issued stock at the agreed price.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 4 Issue of Debentures

Question 5.
Credit Rating
Answer:
It is an estimation of the ability of a person or organization to fulfill their financial requirement, commitments, based on previous dealings. Credit Rating Agencies are responsible for credit rating.

Question 6.
Secured debenture
Answer:
Secured debentures are bonds that are issued with collateral. Here, a charge is created against the assets of the company. If a company is in default, assets can be realized to recover the dues.

3. Study the following case/situation and express your opinion.

1. ABC Limited is going to redeem its 1000 debentures of ₹ 100 each. Please advise them on the following:

Question (a).
Which fund should be created by the company to redeem debentures?
Answer:
The company should create a Debenture Redemption Reserve to redeem debentures.

Question (b).
Can debenture trustees consult NCLT if the company is at default?
Answer:
If the company is at default regarding repayment of debentures, then Debenture trustees can consult the NCLT.

Question (c).
What will be the change in the register of debenture holders?
Answer:
If debentures are redeemed, their entries will be cancelled from requisite.

2. Zeal Co. Ltd. is going to issue 2000 debentures. Please advise them on the following:

Question (a).
Does the company have to list the debentures on the stock exchange?
Answer:
Yes, the company has to list the debentures on the stock exchange.

Question (b).
Should the company get a credit rating for issuing debentures?
Answer:
Yes, the company should get a credit rating for issuing debenture and from SEBI.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 4 Issue of Debentures

Question (c).
Can the company show a credit rating in the prospectus?
Answer:
Yes, the credit rating should be mentioned in the prospectus/offer letter/letter of offer.

4. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
Define Debenture and State its meaning.
Answer:
Definitions of Debenture:

  • According to Section 82 of Companies Act, “Debenture to any member of the company is a movable property, transferable in the manner provided by the Articles of Association:
  • According to the Oxford dictionary “Debenture is a certificate issued by a company act now leading that it has borrowed money on which interest is being paid”.

Meaning:

  • The word ‘Debenture’ is derived from the Latin word ‘Debere’- which means to owe something to someone.
  • It is a proof of loan taken by the company on certain terms and conditions.
  • It can be issued by public or private companies to raise borrowed capital.
  • A person who purchases it is called a debenture holder and he is a creditor of a company.
  • It can be issued at par, premium, and discount.
  • The Board of Directors has the power to issue debentures.
  • Debenture holders get a fixed rate of interest on their investments.

Question 2.
State the provisions as per Companies (Share Capital and Debenture) Rules, 2014 (i.e. Rule 18).
Answer:
If a company issued secured debenture, then it has to follow Rule 18 of Companies Rules, 2014. The provisions are as follows:
(i) Tenure of secured debenture:
All secured debentures should be redeemed within 10 years from the date of its issue. Infrastructure companies, Companies permitted by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, Central Government, or RBI can issue debentures beyond the period of 10 years but not exceeding 30 years.

(ii) Create charge on assets:
Secured debentures create charges on assets. The value of the charge should be adequate to cover the entire value of debentures issued and the interest to be paid on it.

(iii) Debenture Trustee:
Before issuing a prospectus, the company has to appoint a Debenture Trustee. The company should execute the trust deed within 60 days from allotment of a debenture or before issuing the prospectus/offer letter. The Rules and Regulations of Trust Deed decide the role of debenture trustees.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 4 Issue of Debentures

(iv) Debenture Redemption Reserve:
The company has to create a Debenture Redemption Reserve to redeem debentures. The company should maintain at least 25% of the value of outstanding debentures in the DRR account. Money from this account is used for the redemption of the debenture. Every year on or before 31st March, the company has to invest or deposit a sum of not less than 15% in the DRR account for the maturing debentures in the next year.

Question 3.
What are/Explain the requirement of SEBI for the issue of debentures?
Answer:
Following are the requirements as per SEBI for the issue of debentures in the market:
(i) Condition of minimum subscription: Regulation 12 of SEBI Regulation Act 2008 is responsible to regulate the minimum subscription collected by the company. As per SEBI, the minimum subscription for public issues is 75% of the issue price. If the minimum subscription is not received, then it should be refunded within 12 days from the date of closure of the issue.

(ii) Over Subscription:
Oversubscription means a situation where a company has more buyers than the shares to fulfill the client’s order. The company can retain oversubscription on up to a maximum of 100% of the issue price or any lower unit as specified by the prospectus.

(iii) Underwriting:
A company may enter into an underwriting agreement with underwriters for its public issue of debentures. The appointment of underwriters must be mentioned in the prospectus/offer letter/letter of offer.

(iv) Credit Rating:
As per SEBI, the company making public issue, or right issue of convertible debenture must obtain a credit rating from one or more credit rating agencies. The rating must be mentioned in the offer letter/prospectus. In India, ICRA, CRISIS, CARE are famous or recognized credit rating agencies for the corporate sector.

Question 4.
Who are Debenture Trustees?
OR
Explain the role of Debenture Trustees.
OR
Write a note on Debenture Trustees.
Answer:

  • Debenture holders are the creditors of the company and they cannot participate in the routine affairs of the management of the company. So, in order to protect the interest of debentures, the company appointed debenture trustees.
  • Debenture trustees are the institutions that protect the interest of debenture holders.
  • Debenture Trustees create a charge on assets of the company on behalf of debenture holders. They are the custodian of assets on which charge has been created.
  • In order to appoint debenture trustees, the company has to execute the debenture trust deed within 3 months, and the offer letter should be issued within 60 days after the allotment.
  • The prospectus or offer letter must mention the names of debenture trustees.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 4 Issue of Debentures

5. Justify the following statements.

Question 1.
The company can list its debentures on Stock Exchange.
Answer:

  • A company can issue secured as well as unsecured debentures.
  • Debentures are issued to the general public.
  • The company can issue debentures to its members through public offers or offer through private placement.
  • The company gets its debentures rate from one or more credit rating agencies which attract the general public or members of the company.
  • Thus, it is rightly said that a company can list its debentures on Stock Exchange.

Question 2.
Debenture holders do not enjoy any voting rights.
Answer:

  • The company borrows a large amount of money by issuing debentures.
  • Debentures are considered to be the long-term loan that is repaid after a long period.
  • Debenture holders are the creditors of the company.
  • The company has to pay interest to the debenture holders even if the company makes a loss in the current year.
  • Thus, it is rightly said that debenture holders do not enjoy any voting rights.

Question 3.
Debenture Redemption Reserve Account is used for the redemption of debentures.
Answer:

  • Debenture Redemption Reserve is created from the profits earned by the company.
  • The company has to maintain at least 25% of the value for the outstanding debentures in the DRR account.
  • Similarly, every year on or before 31st March, the company has to invest or deposit a sum of not less than 15% in the DRR account for the maturing debentures in the next year.
  • Thus, it is rightly said that Debenture Redemption Reserve Account is used for the redemption of debentures.

Question 4.
Members, as well as debenture holders, can inspect the debenture trust deed.
Answer:

  • The company enters into the contract with the debenture trustees which is called as ‘Debenture Trust Deed”.
  • It is a legal instrument conveying the assets of a company of the trustees.
  • The deed includes the rights of debenture holders and the duties and powers of debenture trustees.
  • It contains terms and conditions agreed between the company and debenture trustee.
  • Thus, it is rightly said that members, as well as debenture holders, can inspect the debenture trust deed.

6. Attempt the following.

Question 1.
Explain the regulations governing the issue of different types of debentures.
Answer:
A company has to comply with the provisions while issuing different types of debentures. Depending upon the type of debenture, the company has to fulfill the following provisions/regulations:
(i) Companies Act, 2013: Sec. 71 of Companies Act, 2013 contains provisions for the issue of debentures.

(ii) Company Rules 2014 (Share Capital and Debentures), Rule 18: Rule 18 of Companies (Share Capital and Debentures) Rules, 2014 contains provisions for the issue of the secured debenture.

(iii) SEBI Regulations, 2008: SEBI Regulations, 2008 covers the provisions related to the issue and listing of debentures that are not convertible, either wholly or partly into equity shares. It is applicable to only those debentures which are issued through public offer, private placement. Disclosure requirements are to be followed the same as the public issue of equity shares.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 4 Issue of Debentures

(iv) SEBI Regulations, 2009: SEBI Regulations, 2009 (Issue of Capital and Disclosure Requirement) covers provisions for issue of debentures and listing of debentures that are convertible, rather partially, fully, or optionally into listed or unlisted equity shares. It also has to follow the same disclosure norms as applicable to equity shares.

(v) SEBI Regulations, 2015: SEBI Regulations, 2015 (Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements) covers provisions for the listed company issuing non-convertible debentures, perpetual debt instruments, etc. It includes various listing conditions which a company has to comply with.

(vi) RBI Guidelines: RBI Guidelines are formed for the banks which raise capital by issuing non-equity instruments.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 3 Issue of Shares

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 3 Issue of Shares Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 3 Issue of Shares

1A. Select the correct answer from the options given below and rewrite the statements.

Question 1.
____________ of company must have provision regarding issue of bonus shares.
(a) Memorandum of Association
(b) Articles of Association
(c) Prospectus
Answer:
(b) Articles of Association

Question 2.
If a share of ₹ 100 is issued at ₹ 100, it is said to be issued at ____________
(a) Par
(b) Premium
(c) Discount
Answer:
(a) Par

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 3 Issue of Shares

Question 3.
If a share ₹ 100 is issued at ₹ 90, it is said to be issued at ____________
(a) Par
(b) Discount
(c) Premium
Answer:
(b) discount

Question 4.
____________ means placing the shares privately without inviting the public for subscription.
(a) Private placement
(b) Public placement
(c) Transfer
Answer:
(a) Private placement

Question 5.
A share certificate must be signed by at least ____________ directors.
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
Answer:
(a) two

Question 6.
Letter of regret is accompanied by ____________
(a) refund order
(b) Call Letter
(c) Dividend warrant
Answer:
(a) refund order

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 3 Issue of Shares

1B. Match the pairs.

Question 1.

Group ‘A’ Group ‘B’
(1) Share certificate (a) Capitalization of profit
(2) Bonus shares (b) Transfer of shares due to operation of law
(3) Under subscription (c) Bearer document
(4) Transfer of shares (d) More applications than expected
(5) Private placement (e) Sale or gift of shares to another person
(f) Private company collecting capital privately
(g) Right Issue
(h) Registered document
(i) Public company collecting capital privately
(j) Fewer applications than expected

Answer:

Group ‘A’ Group ‘B’
(1) Share certificate (h) Registered document
(2) Bonus shares (a) Capitalization of profit
(3) Under subscription (j) Fewer applications than expected
(4) Transfer of shares (e) Sale or gift of shares to another person
(5) Private placement (i) Public company collecting capital privately

Question 2.

Group ‘A’ Group ‘B’
(1) Right issue (a) Shares allotted to the Board of Directors
(2) IPO (b) Negotiable instrument
(3) Share Warrant (c) Secondary market
(4) Bonus issue (d) Application letter
(5) Regret Letter (e) Partial issue
(f) Shares allotted to existing shareholders
(g) Non-negotiable instrument
(h) Shares issued at free of cost
(i) Refund order
(j) Primary market

Answer:

Group ‘A’ Group ‘B’
(1) Right issue (f) Shares allotted to existing shareholders
(2) IPO (j) Primary market
(3) Share Warrant (b) Negotiable instrument
(4) Bonus issue (h) Shares issued at free of cost
(5) Regret Letter (i) Refund order

Question 3.

Group ‘A’ Group ‘B’
(1) Employees Stock Option (a) Board of Directors
(2) Oversubscription (b) Conversion of shares to stock
(3) Allotment of shares (c) Control over stock exchanges
(4) Transmission of shares (d) Shares issued at more than face value
(5) Issue at par (e) More capital
(f) Transmission of ownership shares due to the operation of law
(g) Less capital
(h) Shares issued at face value
(i) Employees participation in business
(j) Refund of money

Answer:

Group ‘A’ Group ‘B’
(1) Employees Stock Option (i) Employees participation in business
(2) Oversubscription (e) More capital
(3) Allotment of shares (a) Board of Directors
(4) Transmission of shares (f) Transmission of ownership shares due to the operation of law
(5) Issue at par (h) Shares issued at face value

1C. Write a word or a term or a phrase that can substitute each of the following statements.

Question 1.
A letter that informs the applicant that shares are allotted to him.
Answer:
Letter of Allotment

Question 2.
A letter that informs the applicant that shares are not allotted to him.
Answer:
Letter of Regret

Question 3.
Passing ownership of shares from Shareholders to another person voluntarily.
Answer:
Transfer of shares

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 3 Issue of Shares

Question 4.
A document that is an invitation to the general public to subscribe for shares of the company.
Answer:
Prospectus

Question 5.
Money paid along with the application of shares.
Answer:
Application money

Question 6.
The authority has the right to make calls on shares.
Answer:
Board of Directors

Question 7.
Giving shares to share applicant or specific person with whom the company has entered into the contract.
Answer:
Allotment of shares

1D. Find the odd one.

Question 1.
IPO, FPO, ESES.
Answer:
ESES

Question 2.
ESOS, ESPS, Bonus Shares, Sweat Equity.
Answer:
Bonus Shares

1E. Correct the underlined word/s and rewrite the following sentences.

Question 1.
Rights shares are offered to existing employees of a company.
Answer:
Rights shares are offered to existing shareholders of a company.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 3 Issue of Shares

Question 2.
Letter of Regret should be sent to applicants whom shares are allocated.
Answer:
Letter of Allotment should be sent to applicants whom shares are allocated.

Question 3.
Transfer of Shares is done by operation of law.
Answer:
Transmission of shares is done by operation of law.

2. Explain the following terms/concepts.

Question 1.
Fixed Price Method
Answer:

  • In an initial public offering (IPO), if the shares are offered at a fixed price such issue is known as the Fixed Price issue.
  • In this method, the company mentions the quantity and the price at which shares are offered.

Question 2.
SARS
Answer:

  • It is a method for companies to offer their employees a bonus compensation if the company performs well financially.
  • The company allows a specified number of ‘Stock Appreciation Righf Units that are linked to the value of the Company’s shares on the date of allotment.

3. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
What is Transfer of Shares?
Answer:

  • Transfer of shares means the transfer of ownership of the shares from one person to another against consideration.
  • Transfer of shares is effected by removing the name of the existing shareholders (transferor) from the register of members and inserting the name of the new member (transferee).
  • Transfer of shares is a voluntary process of transferring shares by a member of a company.
  • A member may transfer the shares for consideration or give them away as a gift.
  • In the case of public companies, shares are freely transferable subject to the provisions of the Articles of Association.
  • In the case of private companies, there are restrictions on the free transfer of shares.
  • A member has to apply to the company for the transfer of shares by filling the ‘Instrument of Transfer’ and submit the share certificate along with the required transfer fees.
  • A member who is transferring the shares is called a Transferor and to whom the shares are to be transferred is called Transferor.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 3 Issue of Shares

4. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Explain briefly the different offering shares to Existing Employees.
Answer:
A company can raise funds by offering shares to its existing employees as follows:

  • Employees Stock Option Scheme (ESOS)
  • Employee Stock Purchase Scheme (ESPS)
  • Stock Appreciation Rights Scheme (EARS)
  • Sweat Equity Shares

(i) Employees Stock Option Scheme (ESOS):
An employee stock option plan is an employee benefits scheme under which the company encourages its employees to acquire ownership in the form of shares. Under this scheme, permanent employees, Directors or Officers of the Company or its holding company or subsidiary company- are offered the benefit or right to purchase the equity shares of the company at a future date at a predetermined price. Generally, these shares are issued at discount. The shares are offered at a price lesser than their market price.

Following are the provisions related to ESOS:

  • A company may offer the shares directly to the employees or through an Employee Welfare Trust.
  • The shares are offered at a price lesser than their market price.
  • There is a minimum vesting period of one year.
  • The company specifies the lock-in period. It is a minimum of one year between the grant of option and vesting.
  • Shares issued under this scheme enjoy dividends or voting rights only after buying by employees.
  • The company has to get the approval of shareholders through a special resolution to issue ESOS.
  • An employee can neither transfer his option to any other person nor pledge/mortgage the shares issued under ESOS.
  • The company has to set up a compensation committee to administer ESOS
  • The company has to fulfill the provision of SEBI (Share Based Employee Benefits) Regulations, 2014.

(ii) Employee Stock Purchase Scheme:
An employee stock purchase scheme is a company-run programme in which participating employees can purchase companies equity shares at a discounted price which they can buy at a future date. The company deducts a certain amount from the salary of the employee towards the payment for the shares.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 3 Issue of Shares

Provisions:

  • A different number of shares can be offered to different categories of employees.
  • Shares issued through ESPS – should be listed on a recognized stock exchange.
  • If ESPS is not a part of a public issue then it will have a one-year lock-in period from the date of allotment.
  • The company has to fulfill the provisions of SEBI.
  • The company has to get the approval of the shareholders by passing a special resolution to offer ESPS.

(iii) Stock Appreciation Rights Scheme:

  • It is a method for companies to offer their employees a bonus compensation if the company performs well financially.
  • The company allows a specified number of ‘Stock Appreciation Right’ Units that are linked to the value of the Company’s shares on the date of allotment. On the future date, the employee is paid the appreciation value in cash or through Equity Shares.
  • There is no lock-in period for SARS. To issue SARS company has to get the approval of shareholders by a special resolution.

(iv) Sweat Equity Shares:
These are shares issued by a company to its directors or employees at a discount or for consideration other than cash. It is one of the modes of making share-based payments to employees. It is issued in recognition of their valuable contribution in the prosperity of the company.

Sweat Equity Shares rank “Pari Passu” (equal footing) with other equity shares. These shares have a lock-in period of three years. The company has to get the approval of shareholders by passing a special resolution to issue Sweat Equity Shares.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 2 Sources of Corporate Finance

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 2 Sources of Corporate Finance Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 2 Sources of Corporate Finance

1A. Select the correct answer from the options given below and rewrite the statements.

Question 1.
____________ is considered as Supreme controlling factor in business.
(a) Finance
(b) Material
(c) Machinery
Answer:
(a) Finance

Question 2.
A Company with share capital must issue ____________ shares.
(a) preference
(b) equity
(c) right
Answer:
(b) Equity

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 2 Sources of Corporate Finance

Question 3.
A person who purchases shares of a company is known as ____________
(a) Bondholder
(b) Shareholder
(c) creditor
Answer:
(b) Shareholder

Question 4.
A ____________ is indivisible unit of share capital.
(a) Debenture
(b) Share
(c) Bond
Answer:
(b) Share

Question 5.
A shareholder is entitled to receive ____________ as return on investment.
(a) Dividend
(b) Interest
(c) Discount
Answer:
(a) Dividend

Question 6.
____________ shares bear ultimate risk associated with ownership
(a) equity
(b) preference
(c) deferred
Answer:
(a) Equity

Question 7.
The control of the company is vested in ____________ shareholders.
(a) preference
(b) equity
(c) deferred
Answer:
(b) Equity

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 2 Sources of Corporate Finance

Question 8.
Bonus shares are issued as free gift to ____________ shareholder.
(a) equity
(b) deferred
(c) preference
Answer:
(a) Equity

Question 9.
Debentures are issued to raise ____________ capital.
(a) owned
(b) borrowed
(c) internal
Answer:
(b) Borrowed

Question 10.
Debentures are secured through ____________
(a) agreement
(b) trust deed
(c) contract
Answer:
(b) Trust Deed

Question 11.
Overdraft facility is allowed to ____________ account holder.
(a) savings
(b) current
(c) fixed
Answer:
(b) Current

Question 12.
Small retailers rely on ____________ credit from their suppliers.
(a) cash
(b) trade
(c) bank
Answer:
(b) Trade

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 2 Sources of Corporate Finance

Question 13.
____________ is the Depository receipt traded in countries other than USA.
(a) GDR
(b) ADR
(c) Fixed Deposit
Answer:
(a) GDR

1B. Match the pairs.

Question 1.

Group ‘A’ Group ‘B’
(1) Debenture holder (a) Owners of the company
(2) Retained profit (b) Capitalisation of profit
(3) Public deposit (c) Savings account holder
(4) Overdraft facility (d) Creditor of the company
(5) Equity shares (e) Maximum 3 years
(f) Maximum 5 years
(g) Current account holder
(h) Ploughing back of profit
(i) Permanent capital
(j) Temporary capital

Answer:

Group ‘A’ Group ‘B’
(1) Debenture holder (d) Creditor of the company
(2) Retained profit (h) Ploughing back of profit
(3) Public deposit (e) Maximum 3 years
(4) Overdraft facility (g) Current account holder
(5) Equity shares (i) Permanent capital

1C. Write a word or a term or a phrase that can substitute each of the following statements.

Question 1.
The type of shareholders who can participate in the management of the company.
Answer:
Equity shareholders

Question 2.
Name the shareholder who attends a particular meeting when his interest is affected.
Answer:
Preference shareholder

Question 3.
Shareholders who are residual claimants against assets and income.
Answer:
Equity share

Question 4.
The type of shares which can be redeemed after a certain period of time.
Answer:
Redeemable preference shares

Question 5.
Debentures that can be redeemed after a particular date.
Answer:
Redeemable debentures

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 2 Sources of Corporate Finance

Question 6.
Debentures can be converted into equity shares after a specific period.
Answer:
Convertible debentures

Question 7.
A definite promise in writing from the buyer for paying a certain amount on a specific date.
Answer:
Bill of exchange

1D. State whether the following statements are true or false.

Question 1.
Preference shareholders do not enjoy normal voting rights.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Equity shareholders are real owners and controllers of the company.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Retained earnings is a difficult and costly method of raising capital.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Debenture holders get a fixed rate of dividend.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Debentures are secured with some property of the company.
Answer:
True

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 2 Sources of Corporate Finance

Question 6.
Public deposits are a good source of long-term financing.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
A private company can collect deposits from the general public.
Answer:
False

Question 8.
Providing loans to businesses is the primary function of banks.
Answer:
True

Question 9.
Financial institutions play an important role in financing industrial firms.
Answer:
True

1E. Find the odd one.

Question 1.
An equity share, Preference share, Bond
Answer:
Bond

Question 2.
Debenture, Bond, Preference share
Answer:
Preference share

Question 3.
Public deposits, Debentures, Retained earning
Answer:
Retained earnings

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 2 Sources of Corporate Finance

Question 4.
ADR, GDR, Fixed Deposit
Answer:
Fixed Deposit

Question 5.
6, 24, 36
Answer:
24

Question 6.
Bonds, Debentures, Shares
Answer:
Shares

1F. Complete the sentences.

Question 1.
The value of share which is determined by demand and supply forces in the share market is ____________
Answer:
Market value

Question 2.
The shares which have a preferential right over equity shares in respect of dividend and return of capital are ____________
Answer:
Preference shares

Question 3.
____________ preference shares which are redeemed after a certain period of time.
Answer:
Redeemable Preference Shares

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 2 Sources of Corporate Finance

Question 4.
____________ is the value of share which is written on the share certificate and mentioned in the Memorandum of Association.
Answer:
Face value

1G. Select the correct option from the bracket.

Question 1.

Group ‘A’ Group ‘B’
(1) Debentures (a) …………………….
(2) …………………… (b) Public deposit
(3) Bondholder (c) ……………………..
(4) ………………….. (d) Equity share capital
(5) Depository Receipt traded in the USA (e) ……………………..

(Maximum 36 months, Trust Deed, ADR, Creditor, Permanent Capital)
Answer:

Group ‘A’ Group ‘B’
(1) Debentures (a) Trust Deed
(2) Maximum 36 months (b) Public deposit
(3) Bondholder (c) Creditor
(4) Permanent capital (d) Equity share capital
(5) Depository Receipt traded in the USA (e) ADR

1H. Answer in one sentence.

Question 1.
Who can accept the deposit?
Answer:
A public company having a net worth of not less than 100 crore rupees or a turnover of not less than 500 crore rupees; has obtained the prior consent of shareholders and resolution filed with Registrar before inviting deposits can accept deposits.

Question 2.
What are the minimum and maximum periods of deposits that can be accepted by the general public?
Answer:
Minimum 6 months and maximum 36 months is the period for accepting deposits from the general public.

Question 3.
Who is given overdraft facility?
Answer:
A current account holder of a bank is given an overdraft facility.

1I. Correct the underlined word/s and rewrite the following sentences.

Question 1.
Bondholders are owners of the company.
Answer:
Bondholders are creditors of the company.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 2 Sources of Corporate Finance

Question 2.
Private companies can collect deposits from the public.
Answer:
Private companies cannot collect deposits from the public.

1J. Arrange in proper order.

Question 1.
Equity Shares, Preference Share, Debenture.
Answer:
Debentures, Preference shares, Equity Shares

Question 2.
Forecasting, Board Meeting, Issue of Securities
Answer:
Forecasting, Board Meeting, Issue of Securities

Question 3.
Call loans, debentures, short term loans
Answer:
Call Loans, Short term loans, Debentures

2 Explain the following terms/concepts.

Question 1.
Public Deposits
Answer:

  • Public deposits are unsecured deposits invited by public limited company’s to finance working capital needs.
  • Prior consent from shareholders must be with the passing of the special resolution and a copy of the same to be filed with the Registrar.

Question 2.
Bonds
Answer:

  • A bond is a debt security and a formal contract to repay borrowed money with interest.
  • A bondholder is a lender to the institution hence, the creditor.

Question 3.
Discounting of the bill of exchange
Answer:

  • Discounting of a bill of exchange is a facility in which the holder of the bill can convert the bill to cash by discounting (giving as security) the bill with the bank before the date of maturity.
  • The bank charges its commission (discounting charges) and pays the balance to the holder.
  • It is an advance/short-term loan given to the holder of the bill.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 2 Sources of Corporate Finance

3. Study the following case/situation and express your opinion.

1. There are 2 companies namely company A and company B with the same financial positions and in the same line (producing the same type of products) willing to issue debentures to more than 500 people. Company A is issuing 12% redeemable debentures to be redeemed after 5 years and Company B is issuing 12% convertible debentures which will be converted after 5 years. As an investor.

Question (a).
Which company would one like to invest in?
Answer:
As an investor one would like to invest in Company B.

Question (b).
Is it worth investing or going for convertible or redeemable? Why?
Answer:
‘It is wise and worth investing in 12% Convertible debentures as for 5 years both companies are going to give same returns but after 5 years Company B gives conversion facility due to which creditor becomes a member and can enjoy all rights of membership.

Question (c).
Is there any party to be appointed to look into the safety of debenture holders?
Answer:
As the number of persons to whom the debentures are to be issued is more than 500, there has to be a party known as Debenture Trustee to be appointed who will look into the safety of Debenture holders.

2. A public limited company wants to invite depositor from the public at large as it neither wants to dilute its shareholdings nor at present want to use its reserves.

Question (a).
Does it require prior approval from shareholders?
Answer:
Yes, prior approval from shareholders is a must.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 2 Sources of Corporate Finance

Question (b).
What type of resolution does the company need to pass?
Answer:
The company needs to pass a special resolution for allowing to invite and accept deposits.

Question (c).
Is it necessary to file the resolution with the Registrar?
Answer:
Yes, a copy of the special resolution passed in the general meeting has to be filed before inviting the deposits.

3. A Company has an export order which is to be completed by June 15. It feels it may fall short of funds (₹ 5,00,000) as all its investments are likely to mature after July 15.

Question (a).
Does it cancel the export order?
Answer:
No, it need not cancel the order as it can approach a bank in which it has its current account for providing the funds.

Question (b).
What financial arrangements are to be made if it has to complete the order?
Answer:
It can enter into or avail overdraft facility for the required term period so that in case it falls short of funds, it can overdraw the required amount.

Question (c).
What is the amount of interest it has to pay?
Answer:
It will have to pay interest on excess amount overdrawn and for the term, it has used this extra amount.

4. A trader has drawn a bill of exchange for ₹ 50,000 on the sales made to a trader. The bill is drawn on the 1st of March 2020 for a period of 4 months. It is already a month from the date of the drawing.

Question (a).
Is there any source of finance available to him?
Answer:
Yes, a bill of exchange can act as a security and on the basis of the security, finance can be available to the trader.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 2 Sources of Corporate Finance

Question (b).
Can he in present situation avail any facilities?
Answer:
Yes even though a month has been completed, discounting facility with the bank is available.

Question (c).
How will the charges be calculated?
Answer:
Discounting charges will be calculated on the bill amount for 3 months at the prevailing rate decided by the bank.

4. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
What are the different sources of finance?
Answer:
(i) A business organisation requires finance

  • for various purposes
  • at different stages
  • for different term/period

(ii) The nature and size of the business determine the actual requirement of funds.

(iii) The company collects huge funds through different sources depending on the time period the funds are needed.

The various sources of finance available to the business may be as follows.
(a) External Sources: When capital is raised from outsiders/ outside the firm.

  • Used for collecting initial capital

The important external sources are:

  • Issue of shares
  • Issue of debentures/bonds
  • Public deposits
  • A loan from financial institutions
  • Bank Credit

(b) Internal Sources:

  • The capital is made available from within the organisation.
  • This is developed after a few years of profitable working of the firm.
  • The important internal source of finance is retained profit also known as ‘ploughing back of profit.’
  • The undistributed profit of the firm is re-invested in the business.

The external sources and internal sources can be further classified depending upon the financial requirements as:
(a) Long-term source: A business requires long-term finance for meeting fixed capital needs i.e. for a long duration.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 2 Sources of Corporate Finance

The main sources of long term finance may be:

  • Owned capital
  • Debt capital

(b) Short-term source: The short-term funds are required for meeting short-term requirements i.e. working capital requirement. The short term funds are arranged by means of

  • Public deposits
  • Bank credit
  • Trade credit
  • Loans from Directors
  • Advance from customers
  • Native money lenders
  • Government assistance

Question 2.
Describe different types of equity shares.
Answer:
The equity shares can be of two types:
(i) Equity share (with normal) with voting rights

  • The voting right of such equity holders is in proportion to his shareholdings.

(ii) Equity shares with differential voting right

  • Such equity shareholders shall have varying rights regarding dividend voting or otherwise in accordance with Rule 4 of Companies Act (Share Capital and Debenture) Rules 2014.
  • A company can thus, issue shares with limited voting rights or no voting rights.
  • They may be entitled to an extra rate of dividend.

Question 3.
What are retained earnings? What are the determinants of retained earnings?
Answer:

  • A part of the profit is retained by the company in the form of the reserve fund.
  • It is sum total of those profits, accumulated over the years and are reinvested in the business rather than distributed as dividends.
  • The process of accumulating corporate profits and their utilization in business is called ‘self-financing or ploughing back of profit.
  • It is the simple and cheapest method of raising finance by established companies.

Determinants of retained profits.
(i) Total earning of the company:

  • The company can save and retain some part of the profit, if there is ample profit ‘Larger the earnings, larger the savings.’
  • It is subject to the attitude of top management to determine the part of retained earnings.

(ii) Taxation policy:

  • The taxation policy of the government is an important determinant of corporate savings.
  • If the taxes rates charged/levied are high, a company cannot save much in the form of reserves.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 2 Sources of Corporate Finance

(iii) Dividend policy:

  • The policy of the Board of Directors as regards to the distribution of profit is another determinant.
  • A conservative dividend policy helps to have a good accumulation of profit.
  • The conservative policy affects the shareholders as they get dividends at a low rate.

(iv) Government Control:

  • A Government is a regulatory body of the economic system of the country.
  • Its policies, rules, and regulations compel the companies to work in that direction.
  • A Company has to formulate its dividend policy in accordance with the rules and regulations formed by the government.

(v) Expenditure policy of the company:

  • The expenditure of the company is classified as capital expenditure and revenue expenditure.
  • More and more expenditure of the company towards various projects and needs will be responsible to lesser saving and lesser retain earning.

Question 4.
List out the Financial Institutions in India.
Answer:

  • The Government has established special financial institutions for providing industrial finance.
  • These institutions provide medium and long-term finance.
  • They provide assistance to new companies as well as ongoing companies in the form of term loans, subscribing for shares and debentures, underwriting securities, and guaranteeing loans raised by cost.

(i) Development Banks:
They provide risk capital for economic development projects on a non-commercial basis. They play a crucial role in providing credit in the form of high-risk loans, equity positions, and risk guarantee instruments.
They include:

  • Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI)
  • Industrial Finance Corporation of India Ltd. (IFCI)
  • Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India Ltd. (ICICI)
  • Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)
  • Industrial Reconstruction Bank of India (IRBI)

(ii) Financial Institutions:
They are institutions engaged in business dealing with financial and monetary transactions such as deposits, loans, investments, and currency exchange.
They include:

  • Risk Capital and Technology Finance Company Ltd. (RCTC)
  • Technology Development and Information Company of India Limited (TDICI)
  • Tourism Finance Corporation of India Limited (TFCI)

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 2 Sources of Corporate Finance

(iii) Investment Institutions:
Institutional investors are organisations that pool together on behalf of others and invest those funds in a variety of different financial instruments and asset classes.

They may be investment funds like Mutual funds, ETFs, (Exchange Traded Funds) Insurance Funds, Pension plans as well as investment banks and hedge Funds (alternative investment designed to protect investment portfolios from market uncertainty) They include:

  • Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC)
  • Unit Trust of India (UTI)
  • General Insurance Corporation of India (GIC)

(iv) State Level Institutions:

  • They are financial agencies at the state level for the development of medium and small-scale industries. They include:
  • State Financial Corporations (SFC)
  • State Industrial Development Corporation (SIDC)

Question 5.
Explain the need/Importance/Significance of Institutional Financing.
Answer:
Financial Institutions provide debt capital to business enterprises and their need and importance may be as follows:
(i) To develop a sound capital market:

  • Financial Institutions help in developing a sound financial capital market.
  • They help in promoting and financing business enterprises either by underwriting issues or by subscribing to shares.

(ii) To mobilize financial resources:

  • Financial, institutions mobilize the scattered savings, merge them and provide the same to industries.
  • Capital is reluctantly provided to new ventures.
  • Financial Corporations have become important for the economic development of economically backward countries that fail to mobilize financial resources for development.

(iii) Capital Formation:

  • The rate of capital formation is very low in developing countries due to low per capita income and a lack of sufficient savings.
  • The gap between saving and investment is filled by financial institutions.

(iv) Planned Economy:

  • Financial institutions play an important role in the planned economic development of the country.
  • The projects of national importance are taken up by them.
  • Scarce finance resources are utilized at the optimum level.
  • Certain basic industries like iron and steel, cement, etc. are developed by the government through these institutions.

(v) Financing Small Business:

  • Special Corporations like SIDBI have been established for financing small-scale industries.
  • The problems related to small business are of different nature which is tackled by such setup corporations.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 2 Sources of Corporate Finance

(vi) Foreign Exchange Need:

  • Foreign exchange requirement is also one of the needs of such institutions.
  • They provide long-term loans in foreign curries.

(vii) Government taxation policy:

  • Business enterprises depend more on debt capital as investment/amount paid against debt is tax-deductible expenditure.
  • Financial institutions provide such debts to business organisations.

(viii) Rate of Interest:

  • The corporations charge a uniform rate of interest, irrespective of the amount of loan in relation to the total cost.
  • This also has become the reason for heavy borrowing from such institutions.

5. Justify the following statements.

Question 1.
Public Companies can accept deposits from the public.
Answer:

  • Public companies having a net worth of not less than ₹ 100 crores or a turnover of fewer than ₹ 500 crores can accept deposits from the general public.
  • A meeting has to be convened to get the approval of shareholders.
  • After consent, a special resolution has to pass and the same has to be filed with the Registrar.
  • Advertisements in newspapers have to be given to let people know regarding the acceptance of deposits.
  • Deposits thus can be accepted for a minimum period of 6 months and a maximum period of 36 months or 3 years.
  • Thus, it is rightly said, that public companies can accept deposits from the public.

6. Attempt the following questions.

Question 1.
Explain any five features of equity shares?
Answer:
Features of equity shares:
(i) Permanent Capital:

  • Equity shares are irredeemable shares. It is permanent capital.
  • The amount received from equity shares is not refunded by the company during its lifetime.
  • Equity shares become redeemable/refundable only in the event of the winding-up of the company or the company decides to buy back shares.
  • Equity shareholders provide long-term and permanent capital to the company.

(ii) Fluctuating dividend:

  • Equity shares do not have a fixed rate of dividend.
  • The rate of dividend depends upon the amount of profit earned by the company.
  • If a company earns more profit, the dividend is paid at a higher rate.
  • If there is insufficient profit, the Board of Directors may postpone the payment of dividends.
  • The shareholders cannot compel them to declare and pay the dividend.
  • The dividend is thus, always uncertain and fluctuating.
  • The income of equity shares is uncertain and irregular.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 2 Sources of Corporate Finance

(iii) Controlling power:

  • The control of a company vests in the hands of equity shareholders.
  • They are often described as real masters of the company as they enjoy exclusive voting rights.
  • Equity shareholders may exercise their voting right by proxies, without attending the meeting in person.
  • The Act provides the right to cast vote in proportion to the number of shareholdings.
  • They participate in the management of the company.
  • They elect their representatives called the Board of Directors for management of the company.

(iv) Market value:

  • Market value fluctuates according to the demand and supply of shares.
  • The demand and supply of equity shares depend on profits earned and dividends declared.
  • When a company earns huge profits, the market value of shares increases.
  • When it incurs loss the market value of shares decreases.
  • There are frequent fluctuations in the market value of shares in comparison to other securities.
  • Equity shares are more appealing to speculators.

(v) Capital Appreciation:

  • Share capital appreciation takes place when the market value of a sharp increase in the share market.
  • The profitability and prosperity of the company enhance the reputation of the company in the share market and thus, facilitates appreciation of the market value of equity shares.

Question 2.
Explain any four types of preference shares?
Answer:
(i) Cumulative Preference Shares:

  • Cumulative preference shares are those shares on which dividend accumulates until it is fully paid.
  • That is, if the dividend is not paid in one or more years due to inadequate profit, then such unpaid dividend gets accumulated and is carried forward till next year.
  • The accumulated dividend is paid when the company performs well.
  • The arrears of dividends are paid before making payment to equity shareholders.
  • The preference shares are always cumulative unless otherwise stated in Articles of Association.

(ii) Participating Preference Shares:

  • The holders of these shares are entitled to participate in surplus profit besides preferential dividends.
  • They participate in the high-profit condition of the company.
  • Surplus profit here means excess profit that remains after making payment of dividends to equity shareholders.
  • Such surplus profit up to a certain limit is distributed to preference shareholders.

(iii) Non-Convertible Preference Shares:

  • These shares are not converted into equity shares.
  • They will remain as preference shares forever till paid back.

(iv) Irredeemable Preference Shares:

  • Shares which are not redeemable are payable only on winding up of the company and are called irredeemable preference shares.
  • As per section 55(1) of the Companies Act 2013, the company cannot issue irredeemable preference shares in India.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 2 Sources of Corporate Finance

Question 3.
Explain features of debentures.
Answer:
Features of Debenture:
(i) Written Promise:
A debenture is a written promise by a company that it owes a specified sum of money to the holder of the debenture.

(ii) Priority of Payment:
Debenture holders have a priority in repayment of their capital over other claimants of the company. The amounts of debentures are settled before shareholders.

(iii) Assurance of repayment:

  • Debenture constitutes a long-term debt.
  • They carry an assurance of repayment on the due date.

(iv) Terms of issue and redemption of Debenture:

  • Debenture can be issued at par, premium, and even at discount.
  • Its redemption takes place only at par and premium.

(v) Interest:

  • A fixed-rate of interest is agreed upon and is paid periodically.
  • The rate of interest that a company pays/offers, depends upon the market conditions and nature of the business.
  • Payment of interest is a liability of a company. It has to be paid whether the company makes a profit or not.

(vi) Status of Debenture holder:

  • The debenture holder is a creditor of the company.
  • Debenture being loan taken by the company interest is payable on it at fixed internal and fixed-rate till redeemed/paid.
  • They cannot participate in the management of the company.

(vii) No Voting Right:

  • According to sec. 71(2) of Companies Act 2013, no company shall issue debenture carrying voting rights.
  • Debenture holders do not have the right to vote in the general meetings of the company.

(viii) Security:

  • Debenture can be secured with some property of the company by fixed or floating charge.
  • Debenture holders can sell of charged property of the company and recover their money if the company is not in a position to make payment of interest or repayment of capital.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 2 Sources of Corporate Finance

Question 4.
Explain the features of bonds.
Answer:
(i) Nature of finance:

  • It is debt or loan finance.
  • It provides long-term finance 5 years, 10 years, 25 years, 50 years.

(ii) Status of investor:

  • The bondholders are creditors.
  • They are non-owners and hence, not entitled to participate in the general meetings.
  • The bondholder has no right to vote.

(iii) Return on bonds:

  • The bondholders get a fixed rate of interest.
  • It is payable on maturity or at a regular interval.
  • Interest is paid to the bondholder at a fixed rate.

(iv) Repayment:

  • A bond is a formal contract to repay borrowed money.
  • Bonds have a specific maturity date, on which the principal amount is repaid.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 1 Introduction to Corporate Finance

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 1 Introduction to Corporate Finance Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 1 Introduction to Corporate Finance

1A. Select the correct answer from the options given below and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
__________ said that money is an arm or leg – use it or lose it.
(a) Henry Hoagland
(b) Henry Ford
(c) Henry Fayol
Answer:
(a) Henry Hoagland

Question 2.
Investing decision is also called as __________
(a) corporate finance
(b) capital requirement
(c) capital budgeting
Answer:
(c) capital budgeting

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 1 Introduction to Corporate Finance

Question 3.
Manufacturing industries have to invest __________ amount of funds to acquire fixed assets.
(a) huge
(b) less
(c) minimal
Answer:
(a) huge

Question 4.
Equity Share Capital carry __________ rate of dividend.
(a) fluctuating
(b) fixed
(c) economical
Answer:
(a) fluctuating

Question 5.
Preference Share Capital carry __________ rate of dividend.
(a) fluctuating
(b) fixed
(c) economical
Answer:
(b) fixed

Question 6.
Retained earnings is __________ source of financing.
(a) external
(b) internal
(c) capital
Answer:
(b) internal

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 1 Introduction to Corporate Finance

Question 7.
__________ is acknowledgement of loans raised by company.
(a) Share Capital
(b) Corporate Finance
(c) Debentures
Answer:
(c) Debentures

1B. Match the pairs.

Question 1.

Group ‘A’ Group ‘B’
(1) Finance (a) Fixed rate of dividend
(2) Equity Share Capital (b) Acknowledgment
(3) Preference Share Capital (c) Fluctuating rate of dividend
(4) Retained Earnings (d) Term Loan
(5) Borrowed Capital (e) Financing Decision
(f) Money and Money Management
(g) Ploughing back of profits
(h) Investing Decision
(i) Day-to-day transactions
(j) Raising and Utilisation of finance

Answer:

Group ‘A’ Group ‘B’
(1) Finance (f) Money and Money Management
(2) Equity Share Capital (c) Fluctuating rate of dividend
(3) Preference Share Capital (a) Fixed rate of dividend
(4) Retained Earnings (g) Ploughing back of profits
(5) Borrowed Capital (d) Term Loan

1C. Write a word or a term or a phrase that can substitute each of the following statements.

Question 1.
The firms are concerned with buying and selling without altering the physical form of goods.
Answer:
Merchandising firms

Question 2.
Indirect cost or expenses required to run a business.
Answer:
Overheads

Question 3.
They maintain small working capital because of continuous cash flow from customers.
Answer:
Public utility firms

Question 4.
Firms dealing with these products require a huge amount of working capital.
Answer:
Luxurious product firms

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 1 Introduction to Corporate Finance

Question 5.
A contract by which one person grants possession of some of his property like land, building, machinery to another for a certain period of time.
Answer:
Lease

1D. State whether the following statements are true or false.

Question 1.
A Firm needs less working capital with a longer period of the production cycle.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
If the manufacturing cycle is long a firm requires less working capital.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Capital structure is a security mix.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
A short manufacturing cycle requires less working capital.
Answer:
True

1E. Find the odd one.

Question 1.
Railways, Reliance, Tata power.
Answer:
Reliance

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 1 Introduction to Corporate Finance

Question 2.
Debenture, Term Loans, Retained earnings.
Answer:
Retained earnings

1F. Complete the sentences.

Question 1.
The proportion of different sources of funds raised by a firm for long term finance is called __________
Answer:
capital structure

Question 2.
The acquisition and use of capital by business corporations is dealt by __________
Answer:
corporate finances

Question 3.
To decide upon the ratio of different types of capital means to decide __________
Answer:
capital structure

Question 4.
__________ bear ultimate risk associated with ownership.
Answer:
Equity shareholders

1H. Answer in one sentence.

Question 1.
What has retained earnings?
Answer:
Retained earnings are an internal source of financing. It is nothing but ploughing back of profit.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 1 Introduction to Corporate Finance

Question 2.
What are term loans?
Answer:
Term loans are borrowed capital, that carries a fixed rate of interest and is usually provided by banks and other financial institutions.

1I. Correct the underlined word and rewrite the following sentences.

Question 1.
Working Capital refers to the investment in current liabilities.
Answer:
Working Capital refers to the investment in current assets.

2. Explain the following terms/concepts.

Question 1.
Equity Share Capital
Answer:
It is the basic source of business finance that carries no preference regarding the rate of dividend, i.e. its fluctuating, and repayment of capital during winding up. They bear the ultimate risk with ownership and have a residual claim during winding up.

Question 2.
Preference Share Capital
Answer:
Preference Shares Carry preferential right as to payment of dividend and have priority over equity shares for return of capital during liquidation (winding up). These shares carry dividends at a fixed rate.

Question 3.
Debenture
Answer:
It is borrowed capital, an acknowledgment of a loan raised by the company. The company has to pay interest on debentures at an agreed rate.

3. Study the following case/situation and express your opinion.

1. Pilatus company manufactures sophisticated airplanes whereas whitewood company produces plastic items, stationery products, packed food items, etc., and is labour intensive.

Question (a).
Determine their amount and composition of capital requirement.
Answer:
Pilatus company being a manufacturer of sophisticated products like aeroplanes it will need more fixed capital. Firms that make use of sophisticated products, technology require a huge investment in fixed assets.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 1 Introduction to Corporate Finance

Question (b).
Whitewood company being labour intensive, will it need more of working capital?
Answer:
Companies that are labour intensive which do not make use of the latest technology may require less investment in plant and machinery, fixed assets. They require more working capital to pay salaries and other related expenses.

Question (c).
Does the type of product manufactured and technology used, determine fixed capital or
working capital requirement.
Answer:
Yes, the type of product and technology used to determine fixed capital. Firms manufacturing sophisticated items like aeroplanes definitely require more fixed capital compared to those companies who produce plastic items, stationery products, etc.

2. Peach line is an online seller of apparel and Caramel is a manufacturing firm manufacturing tableware and exclusive dinnerware. What are their capital needs?

Question (a).
Being an online seller, will it need more or less working capital.
Answer:
Online sellers may require a limited amount of employees and inventory and therefore it may require a lower amount of working capital.

Question (b).
Caramel being a manufacturer of tableware will it need more fixed capital?
Answer:
Caramel being a manufacturing firm of tableware may require more working capital as it has to pay wages to several employees and also make payments to suppliers, maintenance of machines, rent, and other overheads.

Question (c).
Does the nature of business determine the working capital requirement?
Answer:
Yes. Peach line an online seller is selling routine consumption products like apparel would need relatively less working capital compared to Caramel, dealing in luxurious tableware products, it requires huge working capital as the sale of such items are not frequent.

4. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
Write a short note on Capital Requirements.
Answer:
Capital Requirement is the funds required to start or run the business.
The following points are to be taken into consideration:
(i) Draft a financial plan:
While drafting the financial plan, the present and future requirements of the business should be taken into consideration. A comparison of an estimated and past financial plans will help the business in future financial requirements.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 1 Introduction to Corporate Finance

(ii) Volume of capital required:
The capital required to run the business may be small or big according to the nature and size of the business. The capital required may be of the following type:

(iii) Fixed Capital:
The capital required to purchase the assets of the company is called Fixed Capital. It is the permanent capital of the business as it stays for a longer period of time. The sources of fixed capital are shares, debentures, bonds or long-term loans, etc.

(iv) Working Capital:
Working Capital is the circulating capital of the business. It stays for a short period of time. Cash is the most reliable source for all business firms when working capital is required. It helps to meet the unexpected expenses of the business.

Question 2.
Write a short note on Working Capital.
Answer:
There are two concepts related to working capital:

  • Gross Working Capital – The sum total of all current assets of a business concern is termed as Gross Working Capital.
  • Net Working Capital = Current Assets – Current Liabilities.
  • It is the fund that is needed to run the day-to-day operations.
  • It is used to purchase raw materials, payment of wages and expenses, and payment of dividends and interest to the investors.
  • Working Capital enhances liquidity, solvency, creditworthiness, and reputation of the enterprise.
  • Working Capital is needed for the efficient use of fixed assets.
  • Working capital provides necessary funds to meet unforeseen contingencies and thus helps the enterprise run successfully during a crisis.
  • It is also called “Circulating Capital”.

5. Justify the following statements.

Question 1.
Corporate finance deals with the raising and using of finance by a business corporation.
Answer:

  • Business organisations require finance to start or expand their business.
  • The finance manager should ensure the finance required by the firm.
  • The right sources of fund should be identified that has minimum cost.
  • The funds raised must be utilized effectively.
  • Thus, it is rightly said that corporate finance deals with the raising and using of finance by a business corporation.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 1 Introduction to Corporate Finance

Question 2.
Working Capital is also called circulating capital.
Answer:

  • Working capital is required by the business to carry out day-to-day transactions.
  • Working capital helps the firm to maintain sufficient stock of raw material stock and finished goods.
  • Working capital can be funded with short-term loans, deposits, trade credit, etc.
  • It also helps the business to meet unexpected expenses. Thus, it is rightly said that Working Capital is also called circulating capital.

6. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
What is Fixed Capital? Discuss the factors determining fixed capital requirements.
Answer:
Fixed capital is the capital that is used for buying fixed assets. Fixed Capital or Fixed assets stay in the business for a longer period of time. These assets are not meant for resale. It stays in the business almost permanently.
e.g. Capital used for purchasing land and building, furniture, plant, and machinery, etc.

Factors determining fixed capital requirements are:
(i) Nature of business:
The nature of business certainly plays a role in determining fixed capital requirements. They need to invest a huge amount of money in fixed assets.
e.g. Rail, road, and other public utility services have large fixed investments.

(ii) Size of business:
The size of a business also affects fixed capital needs. A general rule applies that the bigger the business, the higher the need for fixed capital. The size of the firm, either in terms of its assets or sales, affects the need for fixed capital.

(iii) Scope of business:
Some business firms that manufacture the entire range of their production would require a huge investment in fixed capital. However, those companies that are labour intensive and who do not use the latest technology may require less fixed capital and vice versa.

(iv) Extent of lease or rent:
Companies who take their assets on a lease basis or on a rental basis will require less amount of funds for fixed assets. On the other side, firms which purchase assets will naturally require more fixed capital in the initial stages.

(v) Arrangement of sub-contract:
If the business wants to sub-contract some processes of production to others, limited assets are required to carry out the production. It would minimize the fixed capital requirement of the business.

(vi) Acquisition of old assets:
If old equipment and plants are available at low prices, then it would reduce the need for investment in fixed assets.

(vii) Acquisition of assets on concessional rate:
With the view to foster industrial growth at the regional level, the government may provide land and building materials at concessional rates. Plants and equipment may also be made available on an installment basis. Such facilities will reduce the requirement of fixed assets.

(viii) International Conditions:
This factor is very significant particularly in large organizations carrying business at an international level. For example, companies expecting war, may decide to invest large funds to expand fixed assets before there is a shortage of materials.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Secretarial Practice Important Questions Chapter 1 Introduction to Corporate Finance

(ix) Trend in the economy:
Economic trends also influence fixed capital requirements. During the recession, companies do not undertake expansion projects, therefore the company may not require much of fixed capital. But in anticipation of a bright future company would require additional fixed capital for expansion and modernization.

(x) Population trend:
When the population is increasing at a high rate, certain manufacturers find this as an opportunity to expand the business. For example, the Automobile industry, electronic goods manufacturing industry, ready-made garments, etc. which asks for a huge amount of fixed capital.

(xi) Consumer preference:
Industries providing goods and services which are in good demand will require a large amount of fixed capital e.g.: Mobile phone manufactures as well as mobile network providers.

(xii) Competition:
This factor is a prime element in fixed capital requirement decisions. If one competitor shifts to automation, the other companies in the same line of activity usually follow that competitor.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices

Question 1.
What is a PN-junction diode? What is a depletion region? What is barrier potential in a PN-junction?
Answer:
PN-junction diode: A two-terminal semiconductor device consisting of a PN-junction is called a PN- junction diode.
Depletion region: The neighbourhood of the junction between a p-type layer and an n-type layer within a single semiconducting crystal is depleted of free (or mobile) charge carriers. This is called the depletion region or depletion layer.

Barrier potential: The electric potential difference across the PN-junction is called the potential barrier or barrier potential.

[Note: Under the open-circuit condition (no applied potential difference), the width of the depletion region and the height of the potential barrier have their equilibrium values. The width of the depletion region in an unbiased pn-junction diode ranges from 0.5 pm to 1 pm and depends on the dopant concentrations. The barrier potential is about 0.3 V for Ge junction diode and about 0.7 V for Si junction diode.]

Question 2.
Explain the forward bias and reverse bias conditions of a diode.
Answer:
Forward-biased state : When the positive terminal of a cell is connected to the p side of the junction and the negative terminal to the n side, the diode is said to be forward biased. When forward biased, the depletion region narrows and, consequently, the potential barrier is lowered. This causes the majority charge carriers of each region to cross into the other region. This way the diode conducts when forward biased; the total current across the junction is called the forward current and is due to both electron and hole currents. Because of the narrowing of the depletion region, a forward-biased junction diode has a very low resistance and acts as a closed switch.

Reverse-biased state : A pn-junction diode is said to be reverse biased when the positive terminal of a cell or battery is connected to the n side of the junction, and the negative terminal to the p side. When reverse biased, the depletion region widens and the potential barrier is increased, the majority charge carrier concentration in each region decreases against the equilibrium values and the reverse-biased junction diode has a high resistance. The diffusion current across the junction becomes zero. Thus, the diode does not conduct when reverse biased and is said to be in a quiescent or non-conducting state, i.e., it acts as an open switch (almost).

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices

Question 3.
What is rectification? What is a rectifier? How does a pn-junction diode act as a rectifier?
Answer:

  1. The process of converting an alternating voltage (or current) to a direct voltage (or current) is called rectification.
    A circuit or device that is used to convert an alternating voltage (or current) to a direct voltage (or current) is called a rectifier. A rectifier produces a unidirectional but pulsating voltage from an alternating voltage.
  2. When an alternating voltage is applied across a pn-junction diode, the diode is forward-biased and reverse-biased during alternate half cycles.
  3. During the half cycle when the diode is forward- – biased, it conducts. Therefore, there is a current through it from the p-region to the n-region.
  4. During the next half cycle, it is reverse-biased and does not conduct. Therefore, current passes only in one direction through the circuit. This way, a pn-junction diode acts as a rectifier.

Question 4.
Explain the need for rectification/rectifiers.
Answer:
Nowadays electrical energy is generated, transmitted and distributed in the form of alternating voltage because it is simpler and more economical than direct current transmission and distribution. Another important reason for the widespread use of alternating voltage in preference to direct voltage is the fact that alternating voltage can be conveniently changed in magnitude by means of a transformer.

However, most electrical and electronic systems need a dc voltage to work. Since the transmitted voltage is very high and alternating, we need to reduce the ac line voltage and then convert it to a relatively constant dc output voltage. The power-line voltage is sequentially stepped down at the distribution substations. At the consumer end, the ac voltage is rectified using junction diodes to dc voltage.

Question 5.
Draw a neat block diagram of a dc power supply and state the function of each part.
OR
With the help of a block diagram, explain the scheme of a power supply for obtaining dc output voltage from ac line voltage.
Answer:
A consumer electronic system called a dc power supply produces a fairly constant dc voltage from ac supply voltage. Below figure shows a functional block diagram of the circuits within a power supply.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 1
Block diagram of dc power supply with waveforms at each stage

The ac supply voltage is usually stepped-down by a transformer and its secondary voltage is converted to a pulsating dc by a diode rectifier. By the superposition theorem, this rectifier output can be looked upon as having two different components : a dc voltage (the average value) and an ac voltage (the fluctuating part). The filter circuit smooths out the pulsating dc. It blocks almost all of the ac component and almost all of the dc component is passed on to the load resistor. Figure shows the filtered output for a rectified full-wave dc. The only deviation from a perfect dc voltage is the small ac load voltage called ripple. A well-designed filter circuit minimizes the ripple. In this way, we get an almost perfect dc voltage, one that is almost constant, like the voltage out of a battery.

The regulation of a power supply is its ability to hold the output steady under conditions of changing input or changing load. As power supplies are loaded, the output voltage tends to drop to a lower value. Nowadays, an integrated circuit (IC) voltage regulator is connected between a filter and the load resistor, especially in low-voltage power supplies. This device not only reduces the ripple, it also holds the output voltage constant under varying load and ac input voltage.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices

Question 6.
Distinguish between a half-wave rectifier and full-wave rectifier.
Answer:

Half-wave rectifier Full-wave rectifier
1. A device or a circuit which rectifies only one-half of each cycle of an alternat­ing voltage is called a half-wave rectifier. 1. A device or a circuit which rectifies both halves of each cycle of an alternat­ing voltage is called a full-wave rectifier.
2. A half-wave rectifier cir­cuit uses a single diode which conducts for only one-half of each cycle. 2. A full-wave rectifier cir­cuit uses at least two diodes which conduct alternately for consecu­tive halves of each cycle.

Question 7.
State any two advantages of a full-wave rectifier.
Answer:

  1. A full-wave rectifier rectifies both halves of each cycle of the ac input.
  2. Efficiency of a full-wave rectifier is twice that of a half-wave rectifier.
  3. The ripple in a full-wave rectifier is less than that in a half-wave rectifier.
    Ripple factors for a full-wave and half-wave rectifiers are respectively, 0.482 and 1.21.

Question 8.
Explain ripple in the output of a rectifier. What is ripple factor?
Answer:
The output of a rectifier is a pulsating dc. By the superposition theorem, this rectifier output can be looked upon as having two different components : a dc and an ac. The direct current is the average value of the pulsating current, averaged over each half cycle of the ac input. The ac component in the output is called the ripple. Ripple is undesirable in most electronic circuits and devices.

The ratio of the root-mean-square value of the ac component to the average value of the dc component in the filtered rectifier output is known as the ripple factor.
Ripple factor = \(\frac{(r m s \text { value of ac component })}{\text { (average value of dc component) }}\)
Percentage ripple = ripple factor × 100%
This factor mainly decides the effectiveness of a filter circuit in a power supply, i.e., smaller the value of this factor, lesser is the ac component in comparison to the dc component. Hence, more effective is the filter.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices

Question 10.
Explain the action of a capacitive filter with necessary diagrams.
Answer:
Consider a simple capacitive filter added to a full-wave rectifier circuit, Fig. 16.6(a). A capacitor is a charge storage device that it can deliver later to a load.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 2
(a) Capacitive filter at the output of a full-wave rectifier (b) Waveform of filtered output
In the first quarter cycle, the capacitor charges as the rectifier output peaks. Later, as the rectifier output drops off during the second quarter cycle, the capacitor discharges and delivers the load current. The voltage across the capacitor, and the load, decreases up to a point B when the next voltage peak recharges the capacitor again. To be effective, a filter capacitor should be only slightly discharged between peaks. This will mean a small voltage change across the load and, thus, small ripple. As shown in Fig. (b), the capacitor supplies all the load current from A to B; from B to C, the rectifier supplies the current to the load and the capacitor.

The discharging time constant of a filter capacitor has to be long as compared to the time between the voltage peaks. For the same capacitor used with a half-wave rectifier, the capacitor will have twice the time to discharge, and the ripple will be greater. Thus, full-wave rectifiers are used when a low ripple factor is desired.

Question 11.
What is regulation in a dc power supply ? OR Explain unregulated power supply and regulated power supply.
Answer:
Voltage regulation is am important factor of a power supply. Regulation is its ability to hold the dc output steady under conditions of changing ac input or changing load. The output voltage under no-load condition (no current drawn from the supply) tends to drop to a lower value when load current is drawn from the supply (under load). The amount the dc voltage changes between the no-load and full-load conditions is described by a factor called voltage regulation.
Voltage regulation = \(\frac{\text { no-load voltage }-\text { full-load voltage }}{\text { full-load voltage }}\)

Question 12.
What is a regulated power supply?
Answer:
A dc power supply whose preset output voltage remains constant irrespective of variations in the line voltage or load current is called a regulated power supply.

Question 13.
What is a unregulated power supply ?
Answer:
A dc power supply whose output changes when a load is connected across it is called unregulated power supply.

Question 14.
Name any four common special-purpose diodes.
Answer:
Special-purpose diodes :

  1. Zener diode
  2. light emitting diode (LED)
  3. photodiode
  4. solar cell.

Question 15.
What is meant by breakdown of a pn-junction? Name two important mechanisms of junction breakdown.
Answer:
In a reverse-biased pn-junction, the depletion region is wider and the potential barrier is higher over equilibrium values. The majority charge carrier concentration in each region decreases from the equilibrium values and the diffusion current across the junction is zero. Only a very very small current flows due to the motion of minority charge carriers. Thus, the principal characteristic of a pn-junction diode is that it rectifies, i.e., it conducts significantly in one direction only.

When a sufficiently large reverse voltage is applied to a pn-junction, there is an abrupt strong increase in the reverse current and its rectifying properties are lost. This is known as junction breakdown. The absolute value VB of the voltage at which the phenomenon occurs is called breakdown voltage. The breakdown process is not inherently destructive and is reversible.

Two important breakdown mechanisms are the Zener breakdown (due to tunneling effect) and avalanche breakdown (due to avalanche multipli-cation).

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices

Question 16.
Explain Zener breakdown.
Answer:
In a reverse-biased pn-junction, the depletion region is wider and the potential barrier is higher over equilibrium values. The electric field in the depletion region is from the n- to the p-region. When a sufficiently large reverse voltage is applied to a pn-junction, the junction breaks down and conducts a very large current. Of the two important breakdown mechanisms, Zener breakdown takes place in heavily doped diodes.

Usually, the energy that an electron can gain from even a strong field is very small. However, the depletion region is very narrow in a heavily doped diode. Because of this, the electric field across the depletion region is intense enough to break the covalent bonds between neighbouring silicon atoms and pull electrons out of their orbits. This results in conduction electrons and holes. In the energy band diagram representation, this corresponds to the transition of an electron from the valence band to the conduction band and become available for conduction.

The current increases with increase in applied voltage, but without further increase in voltage across the diode. This process, in which an electron of energy less than the barrier height penetrates through the energy bandgap, is called tunneling (a quantum mechanical effect). The creation of electrons in the conduction band and holes in the valence band by tunneling effect in a reverse- biased pn-junction diode is called the Zener effect.

[Notes : (1) Tunneling occurs only if the electric field is very high. The typical field for silicon and gallium arsenide is > 106 V / cm. To achieve such a high field, the doping concentrations for both p- and w-regions must be quite high (>1018 cm-3). (2) Zener breakdown or Zener effect is named in honour of Clarence M. Zener (1905-93), US physicist, who explained the breakdown mechanism. (3) Avalanche breakdown occurs in diodes with a doping concentration of ≅ 1017 cm-3 or less. The carriers gain enough kinetic energy to generate electron-hole pairs by the avalanche process when the value of reverse | V | becomes large. An electron in the conduction band can gain kinetic energy before it collides with a valence electron. The high-energy electron in the conduction band can transfer some of its kinetic energy to the valence electron to make an upward transition to the conduction band. An electron-hole pair is generated. All such electrons and holes accelerate in the high field of the depletion region and, in turn, generate other electron-hole pairs in a like manner. This process is called the avalanche process.]

Question 17. What is a Zener diode?
Answer:
A Zener diode is a heavily doped pn-junction diode operated in its breakdown region. Zener breakdown occurs when the breakdown voltage is less than about 6 V while avalanche breakdown occurs in lightly doped diodes and for breakdown voltage greater than 6 V. However, the Zener effect was discovered before the avalanche effect, so all diodes used in the breakdown region came to be known as Zener diodes.

Question 18.
Explain the use of a resistor in series with a Zener diode.
Answer:
The I-V characteristics in the breakdown region of a Zener diode is almost vertical. That is, the current IZ can rapidly increase at constant VZ. To prevent damage due to excessive heating, the Zener current should not exceed the rated maximum current, IZM. Hence, a current-limiting resistor Rs is connected in series with the diode.

IZ and the power dissipated in the Zener diode will be large for IL = 0 (no-load condition) or when IL is less than the rated maximum (when Rs is small and RL is large). The current-limiting resistor Rs is so chosen that the Zener current does not exceed the rated maximum reverse current, IZM when there is no load or when the load is very high.

The rated maximum power of a Zener diode is
PZM = IZM = VZ
At no-load condition, the current through Rs is Z = IZM and the voltage drop across it is V – VZ, where V is the unregulated source voltage. The diode current will be maximum when V is maxi-mum at Vmax and I = IZM. Then, the minimum value of the series resistance should be
Rs, min = \(\frac{V_{\max }-V_{Z}}{I_{Z M}}\)

A Zener diode is operated in the breakdown region. There is a minimum Zener current, IZ(min), that places the desired operating point in the breakdown region. There is a maximum Zener current, IZM, at which the power dissipation drives the junction temperature to the maximum allowed. Beyond that current the diode can be damaged. Hence, the supply voltage must be greater than Vz and the current-limiting resistor must limit the diode current to less than the rated maximum, IZM.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices

Question 19.
State any two applications of a Zener diode.
Answer:
Applications of a Zener diode :

  1. Voltage regulator
  2. Fixed reference voltage in biasing transistors
  3. Peak clipper in a wave shaping circuit
  4. Meter protection from voltage fluctuations.

Question 20.
Solve the following :
(1) A Zener diode has a Zener voltage of 2.4 V and a 500 mW power rating. What should be the maxi-mum current through the diode if you design conservatively with a safety factor of 2?
Solution:
Data : Vz = 2.4 V, PZM = 500 mW A conservative design includes a safety factor to keep the power dissipation well below the rated maximum power. Thus, with a safety factor of 2, the operating power of the Zener diode is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 3

(2) A 10 V regulated power supply uses a Zener diode of 500 mW power rating with an input voltage of 15 V dc and a current limiting resistor of 500 Ω. If a load of 1 kΩ is connected across the diode, is the diode in the breakdown region?
Solution:
Data: V = 15V, VZ = 10V, Rs = 500 Ω, RL =1000 Ω
The supply current,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 4
∴ The diode current, IZ = I – IL = 0
Thus, the Zener diode is at the threshold of break down and there will not be any regulation.

(3) A 10 V regulated power supply is designed using a Zener diode of 500 mW power rating with an input voltage of 15 V dc. A load of 1 kΩ is to be connected across the diode. Calculate (a) the rated maximum current through the diode (b) the mini mum value of the series resistance.
Solution:
Data: V = 15V, VZ = 10 V, PZM = 500 mW,
RL = 1000 Ω, Rs = 200 Ω
The rated maximum Zener current,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 5

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices

(4) In the above problem, calculate the load current. If a series resistance of 200 Ω is used, what is the Zener current ?
Solution:
Data : V = 15 V, VZ = 10 V, PZM = 500 mW, RL = 1000 Ω, Rs = 200 Ω
The current through Rs is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 6
∴ The zener current,
IZ = Is – IL = 25 – 10 = 15 mA

(5) A Zener regulator has an input voltage that may vary from 15 V to 20 V while the load current may vary from 5 mA to 20 mA. If the Zener voltage is 12 V, calculate the maximum series resistance.
Solution:
Data : Vlow = 15 V, Vhigh = 20 V, VZ = 12 V,
IL, min = 5mA, IL, max = 20mA
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 7

Question 21.
What is a photodiode?
Answer:
A photodiode is a special purpose reverse-biased pn-junction diode that generates charge carriers in response to photons and high energy particles, and passes a photocurrent in the external circuit proportional to the intensity of the incident radiation. The term photodiode usually means a sensor that accurately detects changes in light level. Hence, it is sometimes called a photodetector or photosensor which operates as a photoelectric converter.

Question 22.
Explain the I-V characteristics of a photodiode.
Answer:
When a Si photodiode is operated in the dark (zero illumination), the current versus voltage characteristics observed are similar to the curve of a rectifier diode as shown by curve (1) in figure. This dark current in Si photodiodes range from 5 pA to 10 nA.

When light is incident on the photodiode, the curve shifts to (2) and increasing the incident illuminance (light level) shifts this characteristic curve still further to (3) in parallel. The magnitude of the reverse voltage has nearly no influence on the photocurrent and only a weak influence on the dark current. The normal reverse currents are in tens to hundreds of microampere range.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 8
The I-V characteristics of a photodiode showing dark current and photocurrent for increasing illuminance

The almost equal spacing between the curves for the same increment in luminous flux reveals that the reverse current and luminous flux are almost linearly related. The photocurrent of the Si photo-diode is extremely linear with respect to the il-luminance. Since the total reverse current is the sum of the photocurrent and the dark current, the sensitivity of a photodiode is increased by minimizing the dark current.

Question 23.
Explain saturation current of a photodiode with a neat labelled diagram.
Answer:
When a reverse-biased photodiode is illuminated, the reverse current at a constant reverse voltage is directly proportional to the illuminance. The de-pendence of the photocurrent on the illuminance is very linear over six or more orders of illuminance, e.g., in the range from a few nanowatts to tens of milliwatts with an active area of a few mm2. But after a certain value of reverse current, the current does not increase further with increasing light intensity. This constant value is called the satura-tion current of the photodiode.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 9

Question 24.
What is (i) dark current (ii) dark resistance of a photodiode?
Answer:
(i) Dark current: The current associated with a photo-diode with an applied reverse bias during operation in the dark (zero illumination) due to background radiation and thermally excited minority saturation current. It is of the order of picoamperes to nanoamperes. Larger active areas or increase in temperature and reverse bias result in higher dark current.

(ii) Dark resistance : The ratio of maximum withstandable reverse voltage to the dark current of a photo-diode is called dark resistance of that diode.
Dark resistance, Rd = \(\frac{\text { (maximum reverse voltage) }}{(\text { dark current })}\)

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices

Question 25.
State any four advantages of a photodiode.
Answer:
Advantages of a photodiode :

  1. Quick response to light.
  2. High operational speed.
  3. Excellent linear response over a wide dynamic range.
  4. Low cost.
  5. Wide spectral response.
  6. Compact, lightweight, mechanically rugged and long life.

Question 26.
State any two disadvantages of a photodiode.
Answer:
Disadvantages of a photodiode :

  1. Poor temperature stability : Reverse current is temperature dependent.
  2. Reverse current for low illumination is small and requires amplification.

Question 27.
State any two applications of photodiodes.
Answer:
Applications of photodiodes :

  1. A reverse-biased photodiode conducts only when illuminated, assuming that the dark current is essentially zero. Due to its quick response to radi-ation and high operational speed, photodiodes are used in high-speed counting or switching applications.
  2. Extensively used in an fibreoptic communication system.
  3. As photosensors/photodetectors for detection of UV radiations and accurate measurement of illumination. Avalanche photodiodes have increased responsivity and can be used as photomultipliers, especially for low illumination.
  4. In burglar alarm systems as normally closed switch until exposure to radiation is interrupted. When interrupted, the reverse current drops to the dark current level and sounds the alarm.
  5. In an optocoupler, a photodiode is combined with a light-emitting diode to couple an input signal to the output circuit. The key advantage of an optocoupler is the electrical isolation between the input and output circuits, especially in high voltage applications. With an optocoupler, the only contact between the input and the output is a beam of light.

Question 28.
Name two types of solar energy devices.
Answer:
Two major types of devices converting solar energy in usable form are

  1. photothermal devices, which convert the solar energy into heat energy
  2. photovoltaic devices, which convert solar energy into electrical energy.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices

Question 29.
What is a solar cell ? State the principle of its working.
Answer:
A solar cell is an unbiased pn-junction that converts the energy of sunlight directly into electricity with a high conversion efficiency.

Principle : A solar cell works on the photovoltaic effect in which an emf is produced between the two layers of a pn-junction as a result of irradiation.

Question 30.
Describe the output characteristics of a solar cell with a neat labelled graph.
Answer:
Output characteristic of a solar cell : The output characteristic, I-V curve, of a solar cell exposed to sunlight is plotted by varying the load resistance (Rr) from zero to infinity and measuring the corresponding current and voltage.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 10
The short-circuit condition occurs when RL = 0 so that V = 0. The current in this case is referred to as the short-circuit current ISC. The open-circuit condition occurs when RL = ∞. The net current in this case is zero and the voltage produced is called as the open-circuit voltage VOC. Increasing the lightsensing area or light intensity per single solar cell produces a proportionate increase in ISC. VOC is independent of these parameters.

The operating point of a solar cell module is the point (Vp, Ip) on the I-V curve which delivers maximum power to the load. For this, Vp/ Ip must be equal to RL.
[Note : The photocurrent in a solar cell is always in the reverse-bias direction so that the I-V graph is in the fourth quadrant.]

Question 31.
State the material selection criteria for solar cells.
Answer:
Criteria for materials to be used in solar cells :

  1. Band gap energy must be between 1 eV and 1.8 eV. (The best band gap of a solar cell is in the region of 1.5 eV.)
  2. It must have high optical absorption.
  3. It must have high electrical conductivity.
  4. The raw material must be available in abundance and the cost of the material must be low.

Question 32.
Name the common materials for solar cells.
Answer:
Optimized band gap for solar cells is close to 1.5 eV. Some of the common materials for solar cells are

  1. silicon (Si), EG = 1.12 eV – currently the most popular material but has low absorption coefficient and high temperature dependence,
  2. gallium arsenide (GaAs), EG = 1.42 eV -by far the most widely used, especially for high end applications like satellites. Its absorption coefficient is about ten times better than silicon and doesn’t have the same temperature dependence.
  3. copper-indium diselenide (CIS), EG = 1.01 eV – has the highest optical absorption, but gallium is introduced in the lattice to raise the band gap energy closer to the solar ideal. This resulted in the popular copper-indium-gallium diselenide (Culn- GaSe2 or CIGS) material for photovoltaic cell. By variation of Ga fraction, a band gap of around 1.48 eV has been achieved.
  4. cadmium telluride (CdTe), EG = 1.44 eV-made from the II-VI group elements.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices

[Notes : (1) By far the most widely used III-V solar cell is gallium arsenide (GaAs). Other III-V semiconductors-indium phosphide (InP), gallium antimonide (GaSb), aluminium gallium arsenide (AlGaAs), indium gallium phosphide (InGaP), and indium gallium arsenide (InGaAs)-exchange group III elements to make different band gap energies. III-V semiconductors offer a great host of advantages over silicon as a material for photovoltaics. However, the biggest drawback is cost. (2) The theoretical limit on the thermodynamic efficiency of single-junction solar cells is ~ 30%. Hence, today’s most efficient technology for the generation of electricity from solar radiation is the use of multi-junction solar cells made of III-V compound semiconductors. Efficiencies up to 39% have al-ready been reported under concentrated sunlight. These solar cells have initially been developed for powering satellites in space and are now starting to explore the terrestrial energy market through the use of photovoltaic concentrator systems. A triple-junction solar cell, Ga0.35In0.65P/Ga0.83In0.17As/Ge, has been demonstrated by a conversion efficiency of 41.1% at 454 kW/m2]

Question 33.
State any four uses of solar cells.
Answer:
Uses of solar cells :

  1. A solar cell array consisting of a set of solar cells is used during daylight hours to power an electrical equipment as well as to recharge batteries which can then be used during night.
  2. Solar cell arrays provide electrical power to equipment on a satellite as well as at remote places on the Earth where electric power lines are absent.
  3. Large-scale solar power generation systems linked with commercial power grid.
  4. Independent power supply systems for radar detectors, monitoring systems, radio relay stations, roadlights and roadsigns.
  5. Indoor uses include consumer products like, calculators, clocks, digital thermometers, etc. (They use very low levels of power and work under lowbrightness long-wavelength light from incandescent lamps, etc.)

Question 34.
What is a light-emitting diode (LED) ?
Answer:
A light-emitting diode (LED) is a forward-biased pn-junction diode formed from compound semiconductor materials such as gallium arsenide (GaAs) in which light emission can take place from direct radiative recombination of excess electron-hole pairs. A photon is emitted when an electron in the conduction band recombines with a hole in the valence band.

In infrared emitting LEDs, the encapsulating plastic lens may be impregnated or coated with phosphorus. Then, phosphorescence of the phos-phorus gives off visible light.

[Note: In an ordinary pn-junction diode, energy released in electron-hole recombination process is absorbed in the crystal structure as heat.]

Question 35.
Describe with a neat diagram the construction of an LED.
Answer:
Construction : A light-emitting diode is a forward- biased pn-junction diode formed from compound semiconductor materials. As shown in Fig. 16.14(a), the top metal contact to the n-layer (say) is provided with a window for the emitted light to escape. The diode chip is encapsulated in a transparent plastic lens. The cathode and anode leads from the metal contacts to the n-and p-layers, respectively, are provided for external connections, shown in figure.
The negative electrode (cathode) is identified by a notch or flat spot on the plastic body, or the cathode lead is shorter than the anode.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 11

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices

Question 36.
Draw the I-V forward characteristics of an LED and explain it.
Answer:
Explanation : The forward characteristic of an LED is similar to an ordinary junction diode. The diode starts conducting only after the forward-bias voltage overcomes the barrier potential. Thereafter the current increases exponentially beyond the knee region.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 12
The threshold voltage is about 1.2 V for a standard red LED to about 3.6 V for a blue LED. However, these values depend on the manufacturer because of the different dopant concentrations used for the different wavelength ranges.

The intensity of the emitted light is directly propotional to the forward current. An LED is operated with a typical forward current of 20 mA- about 5 mA for a simple LED indicator to about 30 mA where a high intensity of light is needed. The LED forward current must be limited to a specified safe value using a series resistance.

The peak inverse voltage (PIV) or breakdown voltage of an LED is low, typically 5 V.

Question 37.
State any four advantages of an LED over common light sources.
Answer:
Advantages of an LED as a light source over common light sources :

  1. Energy efficiency : An LED is small in size, requires low operating voltage and power and is extremely energy efficient, consuming up to 90% less power than incandescent bulbs. LED’s are now capable of outputting 135 lumens/watt.
  2. Life and ruggedness : Being a solid state device, an LED is more rugged than bulbs with filament and has a typical life of 50000 hours or more.
  3. Fast switching : An LED is very fast, i.e., its switching (on / off) time is less than 1 ns.
  4. Brightness and colour control: The intensity of the emitted light can be varied continuously. The colour of the emitted light also can be controlled.
  5. Small size : Because of their small size, they can be used to produce self-luminous, static or running, seven-segment alphanumeric displays.
  6. Environmentally friendly : An LED being a semi-conductor device, does not contain hazardous substances like mercury (as in sodium and mercury vapour lamps).
  7. Operationally cheap : Since LEDs use only a fraction of the energy of an incandescent light bulb there is a dramatic decrease in power costs.

Question 38.
State any four disadvantages of an LED.
Answer:
Disadvantages of an LED light source :
(1) Blue light hazard : There is a photobiological con-cern that bright blue LEDs and cool-white LEDs are capable of exceeding safe limits.

(2) Light quality : Most cool-white LEDs have spectral output significantly different from the Sun or an incandescent bulb-peak output being at 460 nm rather than peak retinal sensitivity of 550 nm. This can cause the colour of objects to be perceived differently under cool-white LED illumination than sunlight or incandescent bulbs.

(3) Temperature dependence : An LED luminaire can overheat in high ambient temperatures and effective cooling methods using heat sinks are essential for high-power LEDs. (Although the thermal power involved is not very large, it is released within a very small volume and area.) This is especially important for automotive, medical and military applications where the light unit must operate over a large range of temperatures and yet have a low failure rate.

(4) High initial cost: LEDs are currently more expen-sive-price per lumen-in initial capital cost, than most conventional lighting technologies.

(5) Voltage sensitivity : LEDs must be operated with the voltage above the threshold and the current below the rated maximum. This requires current- limiting resistors or current-regulated power supplies.

(6) Blue light pollution : Cool-white LEDs emit pro-portionally more blue light than conventional out-door light sources such as high-pressure sodium lamps. Due to Rayleigh scattering, these LEDs can cause more light pollution than other light sources.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices

Question 39.
State any four applications of LEDs.
Answer:
Applications of LEDs :

  1. An LED is commonly used as an On/Off indicator lamp on electrical equipment.
  2. LEDs are used in self-luminous seven-segment alphanumeric displays of calculators and digital clocks and meters, signages, etc.
  3. Because of their low power consumption, LEDs are now commonly used in traffic signals, handheld torches, LED TV sets, domestic and decorative illumination and various indicator lamps in light motor vehicles and two-wheelers.
  4. Under certain conditions, the essentially monochromatic light emitted by an LED is also coherent. Such diode lasers have found applications in optical fibre communications, CD players, CDROM drives, laser printers, bar code scanners, laser pointers, etc.

Question 40.
What is a junction transistor?
Answer:
A junction transistor consists of two back-to-back pn-junctions forming a sandwich structure in which a thin layer of n-type or p-type semiconductor is sandwiched between two layers of opposite type semiconductor.

The three terminals of a transistor connected to its three layers are known as the emitter (E), base (B) and collector (C). One pn-junction is between the emitter and the base while the other pn-junction is between the collector and the base.

The electric current is transported by both type of carriers, electrons and holes; for this reason the device is called a bipolar junction transistor (BJT).

There are two types of junction transistors : (i) pnp transistor (ii) npn transistor.

[Note : The point-contact transistor was invented in 1947 by US physicists John Bardeen (1908-91), Walter Brattain (1902-87) and William Shockley (1910-89). A month later Shockley invented the junction transistor.]

Question 41.
Draw the circuit symbols of (i) a pnp transistor (ii) an npn transistor.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 13
The arrow on the emitter shows the direction of current when the base-emitter junction is forward- biased. If the arrow points in (Points iN), it indicates the transistor is a pnp. On the other hand, if the arrow points out, the transistor is an npn (Not Pointing iN).

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices

Question 42.
How is a junction transistor formed? Draw schematic diagrams showing the structure of the two types of BJTs.
Answer:
A bipolar junction transistor has three separately doped regions and two pn-junctions. A pnp transistor is formed by starting with a p-type substrate. An zz-type region is grown by thermally diffusing do-nor impurities into this substrate. A very heavily doped p+ region is then diffused into the n-type region. The heavily doped p + -region is called the emitter, symbol E in below figure.The narrow central n-region, with lightly doped concentration, is called the base (symbol B). The width of the base is small compared with the minority carrier diffusion length. The moderately doped p-region is called the collector (symbol C). The doping concentration in each region is assumed to be uniform.

The npn transistor is the complementary structure to the pnp transistor : A narrow p region grown into an n type substrate, by thermally diffusing acceptor impurities, forms the base. The heavily doped n + region diffused into the base forms the emitter.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 14

Question 43.
Draw diagrams showing the two-diode analogues of npn and pnp transistors.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 15
[Important note : The diode equivalents are pretty much useless except for biasing a transistor or testing with a ‘digital multimeter (DMM). The transistor action of a BJT, as explained in Question 55 is substantially different from that of two independent back-to-back pn-junctions.]

Question 46.
Explain the working of an npn transistor with a neatly labelled circuit diagram.
OR
Explain the action of a junction transistor with a neatly labelled circuit diagram.
Answer:
For normal operation of a junction transistor, the emitter-base junction is always forward biased and the collector-base junction is always reverse biased. Below figure shows the biasing of the junctions for an npn transistor connected as an amplifier with the common-base configuration, that is, the base lead is common to the input and output circuits. The emitter-base junction is forward biased by the battery VBB while the collector-base junction is reverse biased by the battery VCC. VBB should be greater than the emitter-base barrier potential (the threshold voltage). The arrows of the various currents indicate the direction of current under normal operating conditions (also called the active mode).
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 16
Since the emitter-base junction is forward biased, majority carriers electrons in the n+ emitter are injected into the base and holes (majority carriers in the p-type base) are injected from the base into the emitter. Under the ideal-diode condition, these two current components constitute the total emitter current IE.

The emitter is a very heavily doped n-type region. Hence, the current between emitter E and base B is almost entirely electron current from E into B across the forward-biased emitter junction.

The p-type base is narrow and the hole density in the base is very low. Therefore, virtually all the injected electrons (more than 95%) diffuse right across the base to the collector junction without recombining with holes. Since the collector junction is reverse biased, the electrons on reaching the collector junction are quickly swept by the strong electric field there into the n-type collector region, where they constitute the collector current IC.

In practice, about 1% to 5% of the holes from the emitter recombine with holes in the base layer and cause a small current IB in the base lead. Therefore,
IE = IB + IC ≈ IC
Therefore, carriers injected from a nearby emitter junction can result in a large current flow in a reverse-biased collector junction. This is the transistor action, and it can be realized only when the two junctions are physically close enough to interact as described.

If a pnp transistor is used, the battery connections must be reversed to give the correct bias. The conduction process is similar but takes place instead by migration of holes from emitter to collector. A few of these holes recombine with electrons in the base.

[Notes : (1) If, the two junctions are so far apart that all the injected electrons are recombined in the base before reaching the base-collector junction, then the transistor action is lost and the p-n-p structure becomes merely two diodes connected back to back. (2) Use of double-subscripted voltage notation in transistor circuits : same subscripts (viz., Vm and Vcc) represent the voltage of a biasing battery; different subscripts (viz, VBB and VCC) are used to indicate voltage between two points. Single subscripts (as in Fig. 16.19) are used for a node voltage, that is, the voltage between the subscripted point and ground.]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices

Question 47.
What are the different transistor configurations in a circuit? Show them schematically.
Answer:
There are three configurations in which a transistor may be connected in a circuit:
(a) Common-emitter (CE) : The emitter terminal is common to the input and output circuits.
(b) Common-base (CB) : The base terminal is common to the input and output circuits.
(c) Common-collector (CC) : The collector terminal is common to the input and output circuits.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 17
[Notes : (1) CE: Produces the highest current and power gain of all the three bipolar transistor configurations the reason why it is the most commonly used configuration for transistor based amplifiers. The emitter is grounded and the input signal applied between the base and emitter. The input impedance is small due to the forward biasing of the EB-junction. The output taken from between the collector and emitter, as well as the outputimpedance, are large due to the reverse biased CB-junction. However, its voltage gain is much lower. – (2) CB : The base terminal is grounded, the input signal is applied between the base and emitter terminals while the output signal is taken from between the base and collector terminals. Though its high frequency response is good for single stage amplifier circuits, it is not very common due to its low current gain characteristics and low input impedance. (3) CC : Very useful for impedance matching applications because of the very large ratio of input impedance to output impedance. The collector is grounded and the input signal is directly given to the base. The output is taken across the load resistor in series with the emitter. Hence, the current through the load resistor is the emitter current and the current gain of the configuration is approximately equal to the β value of the transistor.]

Question 48.
State the relation between the dc common-base current ratio (αdc) and the dc common-emitter current ratio (βdc).
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 18

Question 49.
Draw a neat labelled circuit diagram to study the characteristics of a transistor in common- emitter configuration.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 19

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices

Question 50.
Explain with necessary graphs (1) input (base) (2) output (collector) characteristics of a transistor in common-emitter configuration.
Answer:
Common-emitter characteristics :
(1) Input or base characteristics : This is a set of curves of base current IB against base to emitter voltage VBE for different constant collector to emitter voltages VCE shown in figure.

Keeping collector voltage VCE constant, base voltage is gradually increased from zero. Initially, IB is zero till VBE is less than the threshold voltage for the forward-biased base-emitter junction, 0.7 V for silicon and 0.3 V for germanium. For VBE greater than the threshold voltage, IB increases steeply.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 20
For a constant collector voltage VCE, the dynamic input resistance (ri) is defined as the ratio of the differential change in the base-to-emitter voltage (∆VBE) to the corresponding change in the base current (∆ICE).
ri = (\(\frac{\Delta V_{\mathrm{BE}}}{\Delta I_{\mathrm{B}}}\))VCE = constant

(2) Output or collector characteristics : This is a set of curves of collector current IC against collector-to- emitter voltage VCE for different constant base currents IB, shown in figure.

(i) For VBE less than the threshold voltage for the junction, IB = 0 and IC = 0, i.e., there is no current through the transistor. Both the junctions are reverse biased and the transistor acts like an open switch. Then the transistor is said to be switched Fully-OFF or in the cut-off region or OFF-mode.

(ii) The base current is set to a suitable value by varying the base-to-emitter voltage VBE to a value greater than the threshold voltage. Then, the collector-to-emitter voltage VCE is varied and the variation of IC is plotted against VCE. For very small values of VCE, ideally zero, IC is maximum, equal to VCC/ RL. Both the junctions are forward biased and the transistor acts like a closed switch. The transistor is said to be switched Fully-ON, or in the saturation region or ON-mode.

(iii) But for values of VCE above about the threshold voltage, IC is constant and VCE has relatively little effect on it. In this region, called as the active region, IC is determined almost entirely by IB. In this region, the common-emitter current gain β is large.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 21
For a constant base current IB, the dynamic output resistance (r0) is defined as the ratio of the differential change in the collector-to-emitter voltage (∆VCE) to the corresponding change in the collector current (∆IC).
r0 = \(\left(\frac{\Delta V_{\mathrm{CE}}}{\Delta I_{\mathrm{C}}}\right)_{I_{\mathrm{B}}=\text { constant }}\)

Question 51.
What is an amplifier? Explain the use of a transistor as an amplifier.
OR
Draw a neat circuit diagram of a transistor CE- amplifier and explain its working.
Answer:
A device that increases the amplitude of voltage, current or power of a weak alternating signal, by drawing energy from a separate source other than the signal, is called an amplifier.

Principle : The collector current can be controlled by a small change in the base current.

Electric circuit: Consider the use of a npn transistor as an amplifier in the widely used common- emitter (CE) configuration in which the emitter is common to the input and output circuits, shown in figure. The emitter-base junction is forward biased by the battery VBB while the collector-base junction is reverse biased by the battery VCC.

The voltage Vi to be amplified, called the signal voltage, is applied between the base and the emitter.

Working : The collector characteristics shows that in the active region, the collector current Ic is determined almost entirely by the base current IB, and collector potential Vc has relatively little effect on it.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 22
An npn transistor amplifier in CE configuration

For Vi = 0, applying Kirchhoff’s loop law to the output and input loops, we get respectively,
VCC – ICRL – VCE = 0 ……………. (1)
and PBB – IBRB – VBE = 0 …………… (2)
The applied signal voltage causes small changes ∆VBE in the emitter-base p.d. thereby producing variations ∆VBE in the base current.
∆VBE = ri∆IB …………. (3)
where ri is the dynamic input resistance.
BBB + Vi = IBRB + VBE + ∆IB(RB + ri)
∴ Vi = ∆IB(RB + ri) = ri∆IB

The variations in ∆IB cause proportionately larger variations ∆IC in the collector current because ∆IC = βac ∆IB, where the ac common-emitter current gain (βac) is always greater than 50. For normal operating voltages, βac is almost the same as βdc. From EQuestion(l), since VCC is constant,
∆VCC = ∆ICRL + ∆VCE = 0
The time-varying collector current produces a time-varying output voltage P0 across the load resistance RL.
V0 = ∆VCE = – ∆ICRL = – [βac∆IBRL

Thus, V0 > Vi, so that the circuit produces a voltage gain. The amplifier’s voltage gain (Av) is defined as the ratio of the output voltage to the input voltage.
Av = \(\frac{V_{\mathrm{o}}}{V_{\mathrm{i}}}=-\frac{\beta_{\mathrm{ac}} R_{\mathrm{L}}}{r_{\mathrm{i}}}\)

The minus sign indicates that the output voltage is 180° out of phase with the input voltage.
[ Note : Amplifiers use emitter bias by moving the resistor from the base circuit to the emitter circuit. This important change keeps the operating point of the transistor fixed and immune to changes in current gain. The base supply voltage is now applied directly to the base.]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices

Question 52.
Solve the following :
(1) The diagram shows a CE circuit using a silicon transistor. Calculate the (a) base current (b) collector current. [VBB = 2V, VCC = 10V, RB = 100 kΩ, RL = 1 kΩ, [βdc = 200]
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 23
Solution:
Data : VBB = 2 V, VCC = 10 V, RB = 100 kΩ, RL = 1 kΩ,
βdc = 200.
Since it is a silicon transistor, the emitter-base
barrier potential, VBE = 0.7 V.
The voltage across the base resistor is
VBB – VBE = 2 – 0.7 = 1.3 V
Therefore, the base current,
IB = \(\frac{V_{\mathrm{BB}}-V_{\mathrm{BE}}}{R_{\mathrm{B}}}=\frac{1.3}{10^{5}}\) = 1.3 × 10-5 = 13 μA
The collector current,
IC = βIB = 200 × 1.3 × 10-5 = 2.6 × 10-3 A = 2.6mA

(2) In the above problem, calculate the collector- emitter voltage (VCE).
Solution:
The collector-emitter voltage,
VCE = VCC – ICRL = 10 – (2.6 × 10-3)(103) = 2.6V

Question 53.
What is meant by an analog signal and an analog electronic circuit?
Answer:
An analog signal consists of a continuously varying voltage or current. An analog electronic circuit takes an analog signal as input and outputs a signal that varies continuously according to the input signal.

Question 54.
What is meant by a digital signal?
Answer:
A digital signal consists of a sequence of electrical pulses whose waveform is approximately regular, with the potential switching alternately between two values. The lower value of the potential is labelled as LOW or 0 and the higher value as HIGH or 1.

With just two bits of information, 1 or 0 (HIGH or LOW), digital circuits use binary system. A sequence of 1s and 0s is encoded to represent numerals, letters of the alphabet, punctuation marks and instructions.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 24

[ Note : The meaning of a voltage being high or low at a particular location within a circuit can signify a number of things. For example, it may represent the on or off state of a switch or saturated transistor. It may represent one bit of a number, or whether an event has occurred, or whether some action should be taken. The high and low states can be represented as true and false statements, which are used in Boolean logic. When positive-true logic is used high = true, while high = false when negative-true logic is used.]

Question 55.
What is a digital circuit?
Answer:
An electronic circuit that processes only digital signals is called a digital circuit. There are only two voltage states present at any point within a digital circuit. These voltage states are either high or low.

The branch of electronics which deals with digital circuits is called digital electronics.

[Note : Digital circuits can store and process bits of information needed to make complex logical decisions. Digital electronics incorporate logical decision-making processes into a circuit.]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices

Question 56.
What are the three ways of representing a logic gate?
Answer:
A logic gate can be represented by its logic symbol, Boolean expression and the truth table.

Question 57.
How many rows are there in the truth table of a 3-input gate?
Answer:
Each of the 3 inputs can take 2 values (0 and 1).
Hence, the number of rows in the truth table of a 3-input gate = 2 × 2 × 2 = 23 = 8.

Question 58.
Name the common logic gates.
Answer:
The five common logic gates are the AND, OR, NOT, NAND and NOR gates.

Of these the AND, OR and NOT gates which respectively perform the logical AND, logical OR and logical NOT operations are called the basic logic gates. These three gates form the basis for other types of logical gates. The NAND and NOR are called the universal logic gates because any gate can be implemented by the combination of NAND and NOR gates.

Question 59.
Define the following logic gates :
(1) AND
(2) OR
(3) NOT.
Give the logic symbol, Boolean expression and truth table of each. (1 mark each )
Answer:
(1) The AND gate : It is a circuit with two or more inputs and one output in which the output signal is HIGH if and only if all the inputs are HIGH simultaneously.
The AND operation represents a logical multiplication.

Below figure shows the 2-input AND gate logic symbol and the Boolean expression and the truth table for the AND function.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 25

(2) The OR gate : It is a circuit with two or more inputs and one output in which the output signal is HIGH if any one or more of the inputs is HIGH.
The OR operation represents a logical addition.

Below figure shows the 2-input OR gate logic symbol, and the Boolean expression and the truth table for the OR function.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 26

(3) The NOT gate or INVERTER : It is a circuit with one input whose output is HIGH if the input is LOW and vice versa.
The NOT operation outputs an inverted version of the input. Hence, a NOT gate is also known as an INVERTER.

The small invert bubble on the output side of the inverter logic symbol, Fig. 16.30 and the over bar (__) in the Boolean expression represent the invert function.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 27

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices

Question 60.
A gate generates a HIGH output when at least one of its inputs is HIGH. Which is this gate?
Answer:
It is an OR gate.

Question 61.
How will a 2-input AND gate work when both its input terminals are shorted? Give the circuit symbol and truth table.
Answer:
When both the input terminals of a 2-input AND gate are shorted, i.e., the same signal X goes to both inputs, the output is Y = X ∙ X which will give 1 if X = 1, and 0 if X = 0; hence Y = X ∙ X = X.
Circuit symbol:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 28
Truth table :
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 29
[Note : The OR operation gives exactly the same result. The laws Y = X ∙ X = X and Y = X + X = X are called idem potent laws.]

Question 62.
Write the Boolean expression and give the circuit symbol for a 3-input AND gate.
Answer:
Consider an AND gate with 3-inputs, A, B and C. Boolean expression : Y = A ∙ B ∙ C
Circuit symbol: Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 30

Question 63.
If only 2-input OR gates are available, draw the circuit to implement the Boolean expression Y = A + B + C.
Answer:
Implementation of Y = A + B + C using two-input OR gates :
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 31

Question 64.
Define the logic gates (1) NAND (2) NOR.
Give the logic symbol, Boolean expression and truth table of each.
How are the above gates realized from the basic gates?
Answer:
(1) The NAND gate : It is a circuit with two or more inputs and one output, whose output is HIGH if any one or more of the inputs is LOW; the output is LOW if all the inputs are HIGH.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 32
The NAND gate is a combination of an AND gate followed by a NOT gate so that the truth table of the NAND function is obtained by inverting the outputs of the AND gate.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 33

(2) The NOR gate: It is a circuit with two or more inputs and one output, in which the output is HIGH if and only if all the inputs are LOW.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 34
The NOR gate is realized by connecting the output of OR gate to the input of a NOT gate, so that the truth table of the NOR function is obtained by inverting the outputs of the OR gate.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 35

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices

Question 65.
How will a NAND gate work when all its input terminals are shorted?
Answer:
A NOT gate.

Question 66.
Define the XOR (Exclusive OR) logic gate. Give its logic symbol, Boolean expression and truth table. How is the XOR gate realized from the basic gates?
Answer:
The XOR (Exclusive OR) gate : It is a circuit with only two inputs and one output in which the output signal is HIGH if and only if the inputs are different from each other.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 36

Question 67.
Prepare the truth tables for the following logic circuits. Write the Boolean expression for the output and name (or identify) the output function in each case.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 37
OR
Draw the logic diagram and write the truth table for the Boolean equations
(1) Y = \(\overline{\mathrm{A}+\mathrm{B}}\)
(2) Y = \(\overline{\mathrm{A} \cdot \mathrm{B}}\)
(3) \(\overline{\mathrm{A}}+\overline{\mathrm{B}}=\overline{\mathrm{A} \cdot \mathrm{B}}\)
(4) \(\overline{\mathrm{A}} \cdot \overline{\mathrm{B}}=\overline{\mathrm{A}+\mathrm{B}}\)
Answer:
(1)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 38
The same signal X is fed to both the inputs of the 2-input NOR gate.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 39
The truth table shows that the output is HIGH if the input is LOW and vice versa. Therefore, the circuit functions as a NOT gate or INVERTER.
∴ Boolean expression for the output logic is Y = \(\overline{\mathrm{A}+\mathrm{B}}=\overline{\mathrm{X}}\)

(2)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 40
The same signal X is fed to both the inputs of the 2-input NAND gate.
Truth table :
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 41
The truth table shows that the output is HIGH if the input is LOW and vice versa. Therefore, the circuit functions as a NOT gate or INVERTER.
∴ Boolean expression for the output logic is Y = \(\overline{\mathrm{A} \cdot \mathrm{B}}=\overline{\mathrm{X}}\)

(3)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 42
Each input of the 2-input OR gate is fed through a NOT gate, i.e., the inputs to the OR gate are \(\overline{\mathrm{A}}\) and \(\overline{\mathrm{B}}\).
Truth table:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 43
The truth table shows that the output is HIGH if any one of the inputs is LOW; the output is LOW if all the inputs are HIGH. Therefore, the circuit functions as a NAND gate.
∴ Boolean expression for the output logic is Y = latex]\overline{\mathrm{A}}+\overline{\mathrm{B}}=\overline{\mathrm{A} \cdot \mathrm{B}}[/latex]

(4)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 44
Inverted inputs \(\overline{\mathrm{A}}\) and \(\overline{\mathrm{B}}\) are fed to the 2-input AND gate.
Truth table :
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 45
The truth table shows that the output is HIGH if and only if all the inputs are LOW. Therefore, the circuit functions as a NOR gate.
∴ Boolean expression for the output logic is Y = \(\overline{\mathrm{A}} \cdot \overline{\mathrm{B}}=\overline{\mathrm{A}+\mathrm{B}}\)

Question 68.
What is the equivalent logic gate for the following logic circuit?
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 46
Answer:
The given logic circuit (combination of logic gates) is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 47
i. e., the output is HIGH if and only if both the inputs are LOW, which is obtained by a NOR gate.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices

Question 69.
Write the truth table for the Boolean equation Y = \(\overline{\mathrm{A}}\) – B + A – \(\overline{\mathrm{B}}\).
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 48

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
An electronic circuit which converts alternating voltage into unidirectional pulsating voltage is called
(A) a transistor
(B) a rectifier
(C) an oscillator
(D) a transformer.
Answer:
(B) a rectifier

Question 2.
A pn junction exhibits rectifying property because of
(A) the potential barrier across the pn junction
(B) the difference in the doping concentrations in the p- and n-layers
(C) the avalanche breakdown when reverse biased
(D) the Zener breakdown when reverse biased.
Answer:
(A) the potential barrier across the pn junction

Question 3.
The stepped down output of a transformer, with turns ratio 5 : 1, is fed to an ideal diode D and load resistance RL. The peak load voltage is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 49
(A) 22 V
(B) 31 V
(C) 44 V
(D) 62 V
Answer:
(D) 62 V

Question 4.
In the given circuit, the peak value of the ac source voltage is 10 V, and the diode has a negligible forward resistance and infinite reverse resistance. During the negative half cycle of the source voltage, the peak voltage across the diode is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 50
(A) – 10 V
(B) 0
(C) 5 V
(D) 10 V
Answer:
(A) – 10 V

Question 5.
A full-wave rectifier uses a grounded centre tap on the secondary winding of a transformer and a 60 Hz source voltage across the primary winding. The output frequency of the full-wave rectifier is
(A) 30 Hz
(B) 60 Hz
(C) 120 Hz
(D) 240 Hz.
Answer:
(C) 120 Hz

Question 6.
Avalanche breakdown in a Zener diode takes place due to
(A) thermal energy
(B) light energy
(C) magnetic field
(D) accelerated minority charge carriers.
Answer:
(D) accelerated minority charge carriers.

Question 7.
A Zener diode is used as a
(A) half wave regulator
(B) half wave rectifier
(C) simple voltage regulator
(D) voltage amplifier.
Answer:
(C) simple voltage regulator

Question 8.
The current through the Zener diode in the following circuit is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 51
(A) 5 mA
(B) 10 mA
(C) 15 mA
(D) 30 mA.
Answer:
(A) 5 mA

Question 9.
In operation, a photodiode is
(A) unbiased
(B) always forward-biased
(C) always reverse-biased
(D) either forward-or reverse-biased.
Answer:
(C) always reverse-biased

Question 10.
The photocurrent in a photodiode is a few
(A) nanoamperes
(B) microamperes
(C) milliamperes
(D) amperes.
Answer:
(B) microamperes

Question 11.
A photodiode is used in
(A) a brake indicator
(B) an optocoupler
(C) a regulated power supply
(D) a logic gate.
Answer:
(B) an optocoupler

Question 12.
When the load resistance across a solar cell is zero, the current in the external circuit passed by the solar cell is called
(A) the open-circuit current
(B) the reverse saturation current
(C) the short-circuit current
(D) the photocurrent.
Answer:
(C) the short-circuit current

Question 13.
Which of the following is the correct circuit symbol for an LED ?
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 52
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 54

Question 14.
The colour of light emitted by an LED depends upon
(A) its forward bias
(B) its reverse bias
(C) the band gap of the material of the semiconductor
(D) its size.
Answer:
(C) the band gap of the material of the semiconductor

Question 15.
The centre terminal of a junction transistor is called
(A) the emitter
(B) the opposite semiconductor
(C) the collector
(D) the base.
Answer:
(D) the base.

Question 16.
A transistor acts as a ‘closed switch’ when it is in
(A) the cutoff region
(B) the active region
(C) the breakdown region
(D) the saturation region.
Answer:
(D) the saturation region.

Question 17.
A junction transistor acts as
(A) a rectifier
(B) an amplifier
(C) the oscillator
(D) a voltage regulator.
Answer:
(B) an amplifier

Question 18.
When an npn junction transistor is used as an amplifier in CE-mode,
(A) the central p-type region is common to both input and output circuits
(B) the emitter terminal is common to both input and output circuits
(C) the emitter junction is reverse biased while the collector junction is forward biased
(D) the signal voltage is applied between the two n regions.
Answer:
(B) the emitter terminal is common to both input and output circuits

Question 19.
When a pnp transistor is operated in saturation region, then its
(A) the base-emitter junction is forward biased and base-collector junction is reverse biased
(B) both the base-emitter and base-collector junctions are reverse biased
(C) both the base-emitter and base-collector junctions are forward biased
(D) the base-emitter junction is reverse biased and base-collector junction is forward biased.
Answer:
(C) both the base-emitter and base-collector junctions are forward biased

Question 20.
Which logic gate corresponds to the logical equation, Y = \(\overline{\mathrm{A}+\mathrm{B}}\) ?
(A) NAND
(B) NOR
(C) AND
(D) OR
Answer:
(B) NOR

Question 21.
The output of a NAND gate is HIGH if
(A) any one or more of the inputs is LOW
(B) all the inputs are HIGH
(C) only all the inputs are simultaneously LOW
(D) only if an inverter is connected at its output.
Answer:
(A) any one or more of the inputs is LOW

Question 22.
The output of NOR gate is HIGH, when
(A) all inputs are HIGH
(B) all inputs are LOW
(C) only one of its inputs is HIGH
(D) only one of its inputs is LOW.
Answer:
(B) all inputs are LOW

Question 23.
Which logic gate corresponds to the truth table
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 16 Semiconductor Devices 53
(A) AND
(B) NOR
(C) OR
(D) NAND
Answer:
(B) NOR

Question 24.
The logic gate which produces LOW output when any one of the input is HIGH and produces HIGH output only when all of its inputs are LOW is called
(A) an AND gate
(B) an OR gate
(C) a NOR gate
(D) a NAND gate.
Answer:
(C) a NOR gate

Question 25.
The Boolean expression for an Exclusive OR gate is
(A) A + B
(B) A ⊕ B
(C) \(\overline{\mathrm{A}+\mathrm{B}}\)
(D) A ∙ B
Answer:
(B) A ⊕ B

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei

Question 1.
What was Dalton’s atomic theory of chemistry?
Answer:
John Dalton (1766-1844), British meteorologist, in his atomic theory of chemistry (1808-1810) proposed the following postulates :
(1) Matter consists of very small indivisible particles called atoms.
(2) Each element consists of a characteristic kind of identical atoms. There are consequently as many different kinds of atoms as there are elements.
(3) When different elements combine to form a compound, the smallest unit of the compound consists of a definite number of atoms of each element. These ‘compound atoms’ are now called molecules.
(4) In chemical reactions, atoms are neither created nor destroyed, but only rearranged.

Question 2.
Explain Thomson’s model of the atom. What are its drawbacks?
Answer:
The first model of the atom with a sub-structure was put forward in 1898 by Sir J.J. Thomson (1856-1940), a British physicist. According to this model, an atom consists of a sphere with a uniform distribution of positive charge and electrons embedded in it such that the atom is electrically neutral and stable.

Drawbacks : This model, known as the plumpudding model, failed to account for the observed scattering of α-particles and spectra of various elements.
[Note : It can be shown that the Thomson atom cannot be stable.]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei

Question 3.
Who suggested the famous a-particle scattering experiment? Why?
Answer:
Sir Ernest Rutherford (1871-1937), New Zealand- British physicist, following his pioneering work on radioactivity and properties of a-particles, had noted that a narrow stream of α-particles gets somewhat broadened or scattered on passing through a thin metal foil or mica sheet. Since most of the α-particles remained undeviated, this suggested that atoms could not be solid spheres as proposed in Thomson’s model and kinetic theory of gases. To probe into the effects of the distribution of an atom’s mass and charge on the a-particles, he suggested his collaborator Geiger and the latter’s student Marsden to see if any α-particles are scattered through a large angle.

Question 4.
With the help of a neat labelled diagram, describe the Geiger-Marsden experiment.
Answer:
The Geiger-Marsden a-scattering (or gold foil) experiment (1908) : Geiger and Marsden made a stream of a-particles strike a very thin gold foil about 40 jum thick. Their apparatus is shown schematically in figure.

Apparatus: A radium compound, an intense source of a-particles, was placed in the lead enclosure B, provided with a small hole. The stream of α-particles was collimated by lead bricks. The number of particles scattered through each angle θ were counted by a rotatable detector. The detector consisted of a small zinc sulphide screen S at the focus of a low power microscope M. Each incidence produced a scintillation-a momentary pinpoint of fluorescence. These scintillations were observed and counted using the microscope.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 1
Geiger-Marsden experiment of scattering of a-particles by a gold foil

Observations: Most of the α-particles passed through the foil almost undeviated, with less than 0.2% deflected by more than 1°. Still smaller fractions were found to be deflected by 90° or more, sometimes almost straight back towards the source.

Rutherford quantitatively accounted for the distribution of small and large angle scattering by considering each scattering to be a single collision of an a-particle with a positive ‘central charge’ Ne concentrated at a point. Since the probability of an a-particle coming very close to such a point charge was small, this explained the very small number of a-particles deflecting through large angles.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 2
Scattering of a-particles by a gold foil

[Notes : (1) Hans Wilhelm Geiger (1882-1945), German physicist and Sir Ernest Marsden (1889-1970), English-New Zealand physicist. (2) In 1908 and 1909, they conducted a series of a-scattering experiments with gold and silver foils of different thicknesses and a thick platinum plate. Rutherford reported (in 1911) that “about 1 in 20000 were turned through 90° on passing through a gold foil about 40 nm thick.” The number ‘1 in 8000’ was reported (in 1909) by Geiger and Marsden for reflection off a thick platinum plate ‘at large angle.]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei

Question 5.
Explain Rutherford’s model of the atom.
Answer:
Rutherford’s model of the nuclear atom (1911) :
(1) An atom has a very small nucleus which contains all the positive charge and almost all the mass of the atom.
(2) The nuclear size (radius about 10-14 m) is very small compared to the atomic size (radius about 10-10m), about 10000 times smaller.
(3) Electrons revolve in circular orbits around the nucleus. The electrostatic force (Coulomb force) of attraction between the positively charged nucleus and the negatively charged electron is the centripetal force required for the orbital motion of the electron.
(4) Since an atom as a whole is electrically neutral, the positive charge on the nucleus must be equal to the total negative charge of all the orbiting electrons.
As this model resembles the solar system, it is known as the planetary atom model.

Question 6.
Solve the following :
(1) An a-particle having a kinetic energy of 8 MeV is projected directly toward the nucleus of an atom of \(\begin{gathered}
208 \\
82
\end{gathered}\)Pb. Find the distance of closest approach.
(e = 1.6 × 10-19 C, ε0 = 8.85 × 10-12 C2/N∙m2)
Solution :
Data : e = 1.6 × 10-19 C, Z(Pb) = 82, ε0 = 8.85 × 10-12 C2/N∙m2, (KE)α = 8 MeV
If d is the distance of closest approach, we must have, by the principle of conservation of energy, initial kinetic energy of the a-particle = potential energy of the a-particle when it is at the distance d from the centre of the nucleus of
\(\begin{gathered}
208 \\
82
\end{gathered}\) Pb.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 3

(2) An α-particle projected directly toward the nucleus of an atom of \(\begin{gathered}
208 \\
82
\end{gathered}\)Pb comes to rest momentarily at the surface of the nucleus. Find the initial kinetic energy and speed of the α-particle.
[m(α) = 6.68 × 10-27 kg, r1(α) = 1.8 × 10-15 m, r2(Pb) = 7.11 × -15 m, e = 1.6 × 10-19 C, \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}}\) = 9 × 109 N-m2/C2]
Solution:
For reference, see the solved problem (1) above.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 4
This is the initial speed of the α-particle.
[Note : 3.564 × 107 m/s is about 12% of the speed of light in vacuum.]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei

Question 7.
What is the emission spectrum of a substance? Explain in brief.
Answer:
The emission spectrum of a substance is the distribution of electromagnetic radiations emitted by the substance when it is heated, or bombarded by electrons, or ions or photons. The distribution is arranged in order of increasing (or decreasing) frequency (or wavelength) and is characteristic of the substance unless the temperature of the substance is very high when the distribution is continuous. The spectrum may be a line spectrum or band spectrum. The intensities corresponding to different frequencies are different.
[Note : The absorption spectrum is formed by absorption of electromagnetic radiation when the substance is exposed to radiation of all frequencies.]

Question 8.
State and explain the formula that gives wavelengths of lines in the hydrogen spectrum.
Answer:
Formula : \(\frac{1}{\lambda}=R\left[\frac{1}{n^{2}}-\frac{1}{m^{2}}\right]\), where λ is the wavelength of a line in the hydrogen spectrum, R is a constant, now called the Rydberg constant, and n and m are integers with n = 1,2,3,… and m = n + 1, n + 2, n + 3,
For a fixed value of n, λ decreases as m increases and has minimum value as m → ∞ λ = \(\frac{n^{2}}{R}\) as
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 5
Lyman, Balmer and Paschen series in the hydrogen spectrum (For reference only)
[Note : A line spectrum is atomic in origin. It is a signature of the element, i.e., we can determine the elements present in a mixture of elements by studying the line spectrum of the mixture.]

Question 9.
State the equations corresponding to Bohr’s atomic model.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 6
Here, me is the mass of the electron, e is the electron charge, Z is the atomic number of the atom, rn is the radius of the nth stable orbit, vn is the speed of the electron in the nth orbit and ε0 is the absolute premittivity of free space. In hydrogen, Z = 1.
me vn rn = n\(\frac{h}{2 \pi}\) …………… (2)
[Angular momentum of the electron]

where n ( = 1, 2, 3, …) is the positive integer, called the principal quantum number, and h is Planck’s constant, n denotes the number of the orbit.
Em – En = hv …………. (3)

Here, Em is the energy of the electron in the mth orbit, En is the energy of the electron in the nth orbit (m > n), hv is the energy of the photon emitted and v is the frequency of the electromagnetic radiation emitted.
[Note : Niels Bohr (1885-1962), Danish theoretical physicist, made significant contribution to atomic and
nuclear physics.]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei

Question 10.
What is the minimum angular momentum of the electron in an hydrogen atom?
Answer:
\(\frac{h}{2 \pi}\).

Question 11.
Which physical quantity of an atomic electron has the dimensions same as that of h?
Ans.
Angular momentum.

Question 12.
What is meant by a stationary orbit?
Answer:
In the Bohr model of the hydrogen atom, a stationary orbit refers to any of the discrete allowed orbits such that the electron does not radiate energy while it is in such orbits.

Question 13.
Derive an expression for the linear speed of an electron in a Bohr orbit. Hence, show that it is inversely proportional to the principal quantum number.
Answer:
Consider an electron revolving in the nth Bohr orbit around the nucleus of an atom with the atomic number Z. Let m and – e be the mass and charge of the electron, r the radius of the orbit and v the linear speed of the electron.

According to Bohr’s first postulate, centripetal force on the electron = electrostatic force of attraction exerted on the electron by the nucleus.
∴ \(\frac{m v^{2}}{r}=\frac{Z e^{2}}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0} r^{2}}\) ………….. (1)
where ε0 is the permittivity of free space.
∴mv2 = \(\frac{Z e^{2}}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0} r}\) ………….. (2)
According to Bohr’s second postulate, the orbital angular momentum of the electron is quantized :
mvr = \(\frac{n h}{2 \pi}\) ………… (3)
where h is Planck’s constant and n is the principal quantum number which takes integral values 1, 2, 3, …, etc.
∴ r = \(\frac{n h}{2 \pi m v}\)
Substituting this expression for r in Eqn (2), we get,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 7
as Z, e, ε0 and h are constants.
[Note : In this topic, unless stated otherwise, m = me, r = rn, and v = vn.]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei

Question 14.
What is the angular momentum of the electron in the third Bohr orbit in the hydrogen atom ?
[\(\frac{h}{2 \pi}\) = 1.055 × 10-34 kg∙m2/s
Answer:
Angular momentum, L = mvr = \(\frac{nh}{2 \pi}\)
For n = 3, L = 3(\(\frac{h}{2 \pi}\)) = 3 (1.055 × 10-34)
= 3.165 × 10-34 kg∙m2/s

Question 15.
Derive an expression for the radius of the nth Bohr orbit in an atom. Hence, show that the radius of the orbit is directly proportional to the square of the principal quantum number.
Answer:
Consider an electron revolving in the nth orbit around the nucleus of an atom with the atomic number Z. Let m and – e be the mass and charge of the electron, r the radius of the orbit and v the linear speed of the electron.

According to Bohr’s first postulate, centripetal force on the electron = electrostatic force of attraction exerted on the electron by the nucleus.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 8
where h is Planck’s constant and n is the principal quantum number which takes integral values 1, 2, 3, …… etc.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 9
Since, ε0, h, Z, in and e are constants, it follows that r ∝ n2, i.e., the radius of a Bohr orbit of the electron in an atom is directly proportional to the square of the principal quantum number.

Question 16.
The radius of the first Bohr orbit in the hydro gen atom is 0.5315 Å. What is the radius of the second Bohr orbit in the hydrogen atom?
Ans.
In the usual notation,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 10
∴ r2 = 4r1 = 4 × 0.5315 = 2.125 Å is the required radius.
[Note : r1 is also denoted by a0.]

Question 17. Show that the angular speed of an electron in the nth Bohr model is ω = \(\frac{\pi m e^{4}}{2 \varepsilon_{0}^{2} h^{3} n^{3}}\) and the corresponding frequency of the revolution of the electron is f = \(\) .
Answer:
The radius of the nth Bohr orbit is
r = \(\frac{\varepsilon_{0} h^{2} n^{2}}{\pi m Z e^{2}}\) ………….. (1)
and the linear speed of an electron in this orbit is
v = \(\frac{Z e^{2}}{2 \varepsilon_{0} n h}\) ………….. (2)
where ε0 ≡ permittivity of free space, h ≡ Planck’s constant, n ≡ principal quantum number, m ≡ electron mass, e ≡ electronic charge and Z ≡ atomic number of the atom.

Since angular speed ω = \(\frac{v}{r}\), then from Eqs. (1) and (2) we get,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 11
which gives the required expression for the angular speed of an electron in the nth Bohr orbit.
From Equestion (3), the frequency of revolution of the electron,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 12

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei

Question 18.
The angular speed of an electron in the first orbit in H-atom is 4.105 × 1016 rad/s. Find the angular speed of the electron in the second orbit.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 13
= 5.131 × 1015 rad/s This is the required quantity.

Question 19.
The frequency of revolution of the electron in the second Bohr orbit in the hydrogen atom is 8.158 × 1014 Hz. What is the frequency of revolution of the electron in the fourth Bohr orbit in the hydrogen atom ?
Ans.
In the usual notation,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 14

Question 20.
Show that the energy of the electron in the nth stationary orbit in the hydrogen atom is
En = -Rch/n2.
Answer:
The energy of the electron in the nth stationary orbit in the hydrogen atom is
En = \(-\frac{m e^{4}}{8 \varepsilon_{0}^{2} h^{2} n^{2}}\)
and the Rydberg constant is
R = \(\frac{m e^{4}}{8 \varepsilon_{0}^{2} h^{3} c}\)
where m = mass of electron, e = electronic charge, h = Planck’s constant, c = speed of light in free space and i, = permittivity of free space.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 15

Question 21.
State the limitations of Bohr’s atomic model.
Answer:
Limitations of Bohr’s atomic model:

  1. The model cannot explain the relative intensities of spectral lines even in the hydrogen spectrum.
  2. The model cannot explain the atomic spectra of many-electron atoms of higher elements.
  3. The model cannot account for the Zeeman effect and Stark effect (fine structure of spectral lines as revealed in the presence of strong magnetic field and electric field, respectively).

[Note : In 1896, Pieter Zeeman (1865-1943), Dutch physicist, discovered the splitting of spectral lines by magnetic field. In 1913, Johannes Stark (1874-1957), German physicist, discovered the splitting of spectral lines by electric field.]

Question 22.
Draw a neat, labelled energy level diagram for the hydrogen atom. Hence explain the different series of spectral lines for hydrogen.
Answer:
According to Bohr’s model of the hydrogen atom, an atom exists most of the time in one of a number of stable and discrete energy states. The various states arranged in order of increasing energy constitute the energy level diagram of the atom, as shown in below figure for the hydrogen atom. Here, the higher (less negative) energies are at the top while the lower (more negative) energies are toward the bottom.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 16
According to Bohr’s theory, electromagnetic radiation of a particular wavelength is emitted when there is a transition of the electron from a higher energy state to a lower energy state. Let the quantum number n = m represent a higher energy state and n = n represent a lower energy state (m > n). The formation of the different series of spectral lines is explained from the energy level diagram.

(1) Lyman series : This series in the far UV region of the spectrum arises due to the transitions of the electron to n = 1 from m = 2, 3, 4, …, etc. The wavelengths (λ) of the spectral lines in this series are given by
\(\frac{1}{\lambda}=R\left(\frac{1}{1^{2}}-\frac{1}{m^{2}}\right)\) (m = 2, 3, 4, ……….,∞)
where R is the Rydberg constant.

(2) Balmer series : This series in the visible region of the spectrum arises due to the transitions to n = 2 from m = 3, 4, 5, …, etc. The wavelengths (λ) of the spectral lines in this series are given by
\(\frac{1}{\lambda}=R\left(\frac{1}{2^{2}}-\frac{1}{m^{2}}\right)\) (m = 3, 4, 5, …. ∞)

(3) Paschen, Brackett and Pfiind series : These three series in the infrared region of the spectrum arise due to the transitions to n = 3, 4 and 5, respectively from m=n + 1, n + 2, etc. The wavelengths (λ) of the lines are given by
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 17
In each series, the smallest quantum of radiation (smallest frequency, longest wavelength) arises from the transition from m = n +1 to n, and the largest quantum (highest frequency, shortest wavelength — short wavelength limit or series limit) is for the transition from m = ∞ to n.
[Notes :
(1) The lines in the Lyman and Balmer series, beginning with the longest wavelength, are labelled with the Greek letters α, β, γ, δ, ε, …. Thus, the lines in the Lyman series are called Lα, Lβ, Lγ, Lδ … lines while those in the Balmer series are called Hα, Hβ, Hγ, Hδ, … lines. Thus, the Lα, line has a wavelength λ, where
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 18

(2) The first four prominent hydrogen lines (Hα, Hβ, Hγ, Hδ) lie in the visible region and were discovered in the solar spectrum by Anders Angstrom (the first three in 1862 and the fourth in 1871); he also measured their wavelengths to high accuracy.

Johann Jakob Balmer (1825 – 98), Swiss mathema-tician, discovered in 1884 that their wavelengths fitted
the relation λ = \(\frac{B m^{2}}{m^{2}-4}\), where m has integral values 3, 4, 5 and 6 for successive lines and B here is a constant equal to 3645.6 Å. This is Balmer’s formula; originally empirical, it pointed to the need to find an explanation. This led through Rydberg’s work to Bohr’s theory.

(3) Lyman series was discovered between 1906-14, Paschen series in 1908, Brackett series in 1922 and Pfiind series in 1924. A sixth, and the last of the named series in the hydrogen spectrum, is the Humphreys series which results from transitions to n = 6 from m = 7, 8, 9, … etc. The Paschen series lies in the near-infrared region while Pfiind and Humphreys series lie in the far-infrared region.

Further series are unnamed but follow the same pattern. Their lines are increasingly faint showing that they correspond to increasingly rare atomic events.]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei

Question 23.
Obtain the expressions for longest and shortest wavelengths of spectral lines in ultraviolet region for hydrogen atom.
Answer:
For hydrogen,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 19
where R is the Rydberg constant, and m and n are the principal quantum numbers of the initial and final energy states. The Lyman series in the far UV region of the spectrum arises due to the transitions of the electron to n = 1 from,m = 2, 3,4, …, etc.
For the longest wavelength λ in the Lyman series, m = 2.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 20

Question 24.
How many spectral series are possible in the hydrogen spectrum?
Answer:
Infinite. The last (sixth) of the named series in the hydrogen spectrum is the Humphreys series which results from transitions to nf = 6 from ni = 7, 8, 9, … etc. in the far-infrared region. Further series are unnamed but follow the same pattern. Their lines are increasingly faint showing that they correspond to increasingly rare atomic events.
[Note : There are infinite number of lines in each series. The spacing between adjacent lines decreases with decreasing wavelength, converging to the so-called series limit or short-wavelength limit.]

Question 25.
The energy of the electron in the first Bohr orbit in the hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV. What is its energy in the second and third Bohr orbit?
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 21

Question 26.
The potential energy of the electron in the first Bohr orbit in the hydrogen atom is -27.2 eV. What is its kinetic energy and binding energy in the same orbit?
Answer:
Kinetic energy = –\(\frac{\text { potential energy }}{2}=-\frac{27.2}{2}\)
= 13.6 eV and
binding energy = – total energy – (potential energy + kinetic energy)
= – (-27.2 + 13.6) = 13.6 eV

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei

Question 27.
Obtain the ratio of the longest wavelength of spectral line in the Paschen series to the longest wavelength of spectral line in the Brackett series.
Answer:
The Bohr formula for the wave number of a spectral line in the hydrogen spectrum is
\(\bar{v}=\frac{1}{\lambda}=R\left(\frac{1}{n^{2}}-\frac{1}{m^{2}}\right)\)
where is the wavelength of the emitted radiation when the electron jumps from a higher energy state of principal quantum number m to a lower energy state of principal quantum number n. R is the Rydberg constant.

The Paschen series and Brackett series of spectral lines arise due to the transitions to n = 3 and m = 4, respectively. The longest wavelength lines (λ and λBx) in these series arise due to the transitions from m =4 and m = 5, respectively.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 22

Question 28.
Obtain the ratio of the wavelength of the Hα line to the wavelength of the Hγ. line in the Balmer series.
Ans.
The Bohr formula for the wave number of a spectral line in the hydrogen spectrum is
\(\bar{v}=\frac{1}{\lambda}=R\left(\frac{1}{n^{2}}-\frac{1}{m^{2}}\right)\)
where λ is the wavelength of the emitted radiation when the electron jumps from a higher energy state of principal quantum number m to a lower energy state of principal quantum number n. R is the Rydberg constant.

The Balmer series of spectral lines arises due to the transitions to n = 2. The Hα and Hγ lines in this series arise due to the transitions from m = 3 and 5, respectively.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 23

Question 29.
On the basis of the de Broglie hypothesis, obtain Bohr’s condition of quantization of angular momentum.
Answer:
By the de Broglie equation, the wavelength associated with an electron having momentum p = mv is
λ = \(\frac{h}{p}=\frac{h}{m v}\) ……….. (1)
In a hydrogen atom in its ground state, the de Broglie wavelength associated with the electron is the same as the circumference of the first Bohr orbit. Therefore, the electron orbit in a hydrogen atom in its ground state corresponds to one complete electron wave joined on itself.

Thus, a stationary orbit can be intepreted as one which can accommodate an integral number of de Broglie wavelength so that the associated matter wave will be in phase with itself and constructive interference will allow a standing wave along the orbit.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 24
Therefore, for a stationary Bohr orbit of circumference 2πr,
2πr = nλ
where n is a positive integer.
∴ 2πr = \(\frac{n h}{m v}\) …………. [From Eqn (1)]
∴ Angular momentum, L = mvr = n(\(\frac{h}{2 \pi}\))
which is just the Bohr condition of angular momentum quantization for stable or allowed orbits.

30. Solve the following :
Data: e = 1.6 × 10-19 C, me = 9.1 × 10-31 kg, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s, c = 3 × 108 m/s. I eV = 1.6 × 10-19 J, ε0 = 8.85 × 10-12 F/m, R = 1.097 × 107 m 1, 1/4πε0 = 9 × 109 N∙m2/C2

Question 1.
The radius of the first orbit of the electron in a hydrogen atom is 0.53 Å. Find the centripetal force acting on the electron.
Solution:
Data : r = 5.3 × 10-11 m
The centripetal force on the electron = the electrostatic force between the proton and electron
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 25

Question 2.
Calculate the angular momentum of the electron in the third Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom.
Solution:
Data: n = 3
The angular momentum, L = \(\frac{n h}{2 \pi}\)
= \(\frac{3\left(6.63 \times 10^{-34}\right)}{2(3.142)}\) = 3.165 × 10-34 kg.m2/s

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei

Question 3.
Calculate the potential energy of the electron in the second Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom in electron volt. The radius of the Bohr orbit is 2.12 Å.
Answer:
Data : r = 2.12 × 10-10 m
The potential energy of the electron
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 26

Question 4.
Calculate the radius of the first Bohr orbit in the hydrogen atom. [ε0 = 8.85 × 10-12 C2/N∙m2 e = 1.6 × 10-19 C, m(electron) = 9.1 × 10-31 kg, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s]
Solution:
Data : ε0 = 8.85 × 10-12 C2/N∙m2 e = 1.6 × 10-19 C,
h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s, m = 9.1 × 10-31 kg
The radius of a Bohr orbit,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 27
This is the radius of the third Bohr orbit in a hydrogen atom.

Question 5.
Find the ratio of the diameter of the first Bohr orbit to that of the fourth Bohr orbit in a hydrogen atom.
Solution:
The radius of a Bohr orbit,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 28

Question 6.
Calculate the frequency of revolution of the electron in the second Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom. The radius of the orbit is 2.14 Å and the speed of the electron in the orbit is 1.09 × 106 m/s.
Solution:
Data: r = 2.14Å = 2.14 × 10-10 m, v = 1.09 × 106 m/s
v = ωr = (2πf)r
∴ The frequency of revolution of the electron in the second Bohr orbit,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 29

Question 7.
The speed of the electron in the first Bohr orbit (in H atom) of radius 0.5 Å is 2.3 × 106 m/s. Calculate the period of revolution of the electron in this orbit.
Solution:
Data: r = 0.5 Å = 5 × 1011 m, v = 2.3 x 106 m/s
Period of revolution of the electron,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 30

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei

Question 8.
The energy of the electron in the ground state of the hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV. Find its KE and PE in the same state.
Solution:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 31

Question 9.
An electron is orbiting in the 3rd Bohr orbit in H atom. Calculate the corresponding ionization energy, if the ground state energy is – 13.6 eV.
Solution:
Data : E1 = -13.6 eV, n1 = 1, n3 = 3, E = 0 eV
The energy of the electron in the nth Bohr orbit,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 32

Question 10.
Find the energy of the electron in the fifth Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom. [Energy of the electron in the first Bohr orbit -13.6 eVI
Solution:
Data : E1 = -13.6 eV
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 33

Question 11.
Calculate the energy of the electron in the ground state of the hydrogen atom. Express it in joule and in eV.
[melectron = 9.11 × 10-31 kg, e = 1.6 × 10-19 C, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s, ε0 = 8.85 × 10-12 C2/N∙m2]
(3 marks)
Solution:
Data: m = 9.11 × 10-31 kg, e = 1.6 × 10-19 C, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s, ε0 = 8.85 × 10-12 C2/N∙m2
The energy of electron in nth Bohr orbit is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 34

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei

Question 12.
The energy of the electron in an excited hydrogen atom is – 0.85 eV. Find the corresponding angular momentum of the electron.
[h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s, π = 3.142, E1 = -13.6 eV]
Solution :
Data : En = – 0.85 eV, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙ s, π = 3.142, E1 = -13.6 eV
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 35

Question 13.
A photon of energy 12.75 eV is absorbed by an electron in the ground state of a hydrogen atom and raises it to an excited state. Find the quantum number of this state.
Solution:
Data : hv = 12.75 eV
The energy of the electron in the ground state of the hydrogen atom, E1 = -13.6 eV
On absorbing a photon of energy hv = 12.75 eV,
its final energy state is
E1 = Ei + hv = – 13.6.+ 12.75 = -0.85 eV
En = \(-\frac{13.6}{n^{2}}\) eV
∴ Ef = -0.85 = \(-\frac{13.6}{n^{2}}\)
∴ n = \(\sqrt{\frac{13.6}{0.85}}\) = 4
∴ The principal quantum number of the final state of the electron = 4

Question 14.
Determine the linear momentum of the electron in the second Bohr orbit in a hydrogen atom. Hence determine the linear momentum in the third Bohr orbit.
Solution:
The linear speed of the electron in the nth Bohr orbit,
vn = \(\frac{e^{2}}{2 \varepsilon_{0} n h}\)
∴ The linear momentum of the electron in the second orbit,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 36

Question 15.
A quantum of monochromatic radiation of wavelength λ is incident on an hydrogen atom that takes it from the ground state to the n = 3 state. Find λ and the frequency of the radiation.
[E1 = -13.6 eV, E3 = -1.51 eV]
Solution :
Data : ni = 3, nf = 1, E1 = -13.6 eV, E3 = 1.51 eV, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s, e = 1.602 × 10-19 C, c = 3 × 108 m/s
The energy of the incident radiation,
hv = E3 – E1
∴ The frequency of the incident radiation,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 37

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei

Question 16.
A hydrogen atom undergoes a transition from a state with n = 4 to a state with n = 1. Calculate the change in the angular momentum of the electron and the wavelength of the emitted radiation.
[h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s, R = 1.097 × 107 m-1]
Solution :
Data : h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s, R = 1.097 × 107 m-1
(i) The angular momentum of the electron in the nth orbit of the hydrogen atom is
Ln = \(\frac{n h}{2 \pi}\)
The change in the angular momentum when the electron jumps from the 4th orbit to the 1st orbit is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 38

Question 17.
Find the Rydberg constant given the energy of the electron in the second orbit in hydrogen atom is -3.4 eV.
Solution:
Data: E2 = -3.4 eV = -3.4 × 1.6 × 10-19 J, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s, c = 3 × 108 m/s
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 39

Question 18.
Find the energy of the electron in eV in the third Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom.
[R = 1.097 × 107 m -1, c = 3 × 108 m/s, h = 6.63 × 10-19 J∙s, e = 1.6 × 10-19 C]
Solution:
Data : n = 3, R = 1.097 × 107 m -1, c = 3 × 108 m/s, h = 6.63 × 10-19 J∙s, e = 1.6 × 10-19 C
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 40

Question 19.
Calculate the wavelength of the first two lines of the Balmer series in the hydrogen spectrum.
Solution :
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 41
∴ The wavelength of the second Balmer line,
λ = \(\frac{16}{3.291}\) × 10-7 = 4.862 × 10-7 m = 4862 Å

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei

Question 20.
The wavelength of H line of the Balmer series is 4860Å. Calculate the wavelength of the Balmer Hx line.
Solution:
Data : λβ = 4860 Å
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 42

Question 21.
The short wavelength limit of the Lyman series is 911.3 Å. Compute the short wavelength limit of the Balmer series.
Solution:
Data : λ∞L = 911.3 Å
The wavelengths of the lines in the Lyman series are given by
\(\frac{1}{\lambda}=R\left(\frac{1}{1^{2}}-\frac{1}{m^{2}}\right)\) (m = 2, 3, 4, ……..)
For the shortest wavelength line, m = ∞. Therefore, the short wavelength limit of the Lyman series is given by
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 43

Question 22.
The second member of the Balmer series for the hydrogen atom has wavelength 4860 Å. Calculate Rydberg’s constant.
Solution:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 44

Question 23.
Find the shortest wavelength of the Paschen series, given that the longest wavelength of the Balmer series in the hydrogen spectrum is 6563 Å.
Solution:
Let λ and λP∞ be the wavelength of the first line, i.e., the longest wavelength line, of the Balmer series and the shortest wavelength of the Paschen series, respectively.
Data : λ = 6560 Å
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 45

Question 24.
Find the longest wavelength in the Paschen series. [R = 1.097 × 107 m-1]
Solution:
Data: R = 1.097 × 107 m-1
\(\frac{1}{\lambda}=R\left(\frac{1}{n^{2}}-\frac{1}{m^{2}}\right)\)
For the longest wavelength line in the Paschen series, m = 4 and n = 3.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 46

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei

Question 25.
Find the ratio of the longest to shortest wavelengths in the Paschen series.
Solution:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 47

Question 26.
Find the ratio of the longest wavelength in the Paschen series to the shortest wavelength in the Balmer series.
Solution:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 77

Question 27.
Compute the shortest and the longest wavelength in the Lyman series of hydrogen atom.
Solution:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 49

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei

Question 28.
The wavelength of the first line of the Balmer series is 6563 Å. Calculate the wavelength of the first line of (i) the Lyman series (ii) the Paschen series.
Solution:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 50
∴ The wavelength of the first line of the Lyman series,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 51

Question 31.
Name the constituents of an atomic nucleus. What is a nucleon?
Answer:
The constituents of an atomic nucleus are (1) the proton, a positively charged particle (2) the neutron, a neutral (uncharged) particle. The term nucleon (nuclear constituent) refers to a proton as well as a neutron.

[Note : The electron was discovered by J. J. Thomson in 1897. The proton was discovered by Ernest Rutherford in 1919. The neutron was discovered in 1932 by James Chadwick (1891-1974), British physicist. The existence of the neutron and the deuteron was predicted by Rutherford in 1920. The proton has a mass about 1836 times that of the electron, but the magnitude of the electric charge is the same for both. The mass of the neutron is slightly more than that of the proton.]

Question 32.
Define (i) atomic number (ii) mass number. Give their symbols.
Answer:

  1. The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom of an element is called the atomic number of the element. It is also known as the proton number.
    It is denoted by Z.
  2. The number of nucleons (protons and neutrons) in the nucleus of an atom is called the mass number or the atomic mass number. It is denoted by A.

[Notes : (i) The number of neutrons in the nucleus of an atom is known as the neutron number, denoted by N. It is usually greater than Z, with the exceptions of helium (2 protons, 2 neutrons) and hydrogen (1 proton, no neutron) (ii) A = Z + N.]

Question 33.
Write the atomic symbol for an element giving the atomic number and mass number. Give two examples. Which of the two numbers is characteristic of the element? Why?
Answer:
An atom is represented as \(\frac{A}{Z}\)X, where X is the chemical symbol for the element, Z is the atomic number and A is the mass number.
Examples : Fluorine, \(\begin{aligned}
&19 \\
&9
\end{aligned}\)F; Phosphorus, \(\begin{aligned}
&31 \\
&15
\end{aligned}\)P; Gold, \(\begin{aligned}
&197 \\
&79
\end{aligned}\)Au.

The atomic number of an element, which is the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom of the element, is characteristic of the element. It equals the number of electrons in the atom and hence determines the chemical properties of the element and its place in the modern periodic table.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei

Question 34.
What are isotopes? Give an example.
Answer:
Atoms of an element having the same atomic number (Z) but different mass numbers (A) are called the isotopes of that element.

Isotopes of an element have different neutron numbers but the same chemical properties.

Example : Hydrogen has three isotopes, namely, hydrogen \( (\begin{aligned}
&1 \\
&1
\end{aligned}\) H), deuterium \( (\begin{aligned}
&2 \\
&1
\end{aligned}\) D) and tritium \( (\begin{aligned}
&3 \\
&1
\end{aligned}\) T). Deuterium and tritium have one and two neutrons in their nuclei, respectively, in addition to the single proton (Z = 1).

Question 35.
What are isobars? Give an example.
Answer:
Atoms of different elements that have the same mass number (A) but different atomic numbers (Z) are called isobars.

Although isobars have the same mass number, they are different elements because the chemical nature of an element is determined by its atomic number. Isobars have different neutron numbers.

Example : \(\begin{array}{r}
13 \\
6
\end{array}\)C and \(\begin{array}{r}
13 \\
7
\end{array}\)N are isobars. They have
the same mass number, A (viz., 13), but their different proton numbers, Z (6 and 7) make them different elements.

Question 36.
What are isotones? Give an example.
Answer:
Atoms of different elements that have the same neutron number (N) but different atomic numbers (Z) are called isotones.

Although isotones have the same neutron number, they are different elements because the chemical nature of an element is determined by its atomic number.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 52

Question 37.
What is unified atomic mass unit? Express it in J/c2 and MeV/c2.
Answer:
The unified atomic mass unit is an accepted but non-SI unit of mass. It is defined to be equal to \(\frac{1}{12}\) of the mass of a free atom of the isotope of carbon with mass number 12 which is at rest and in its ground state. It is denoted by u.

Its value in SI unit is obtained experimentally. 1 u = 1.660538782 (83) × 10-27 kg, with the standard uncertainty in the last two digits given in v parenthesis.
Taking, 1 u = 1.660538782 × 10-27 kg
c = 2.99792458 × 108 m/s,
e = 1.602176462 × 10-19 C and
using the relation E = me2 { ≡ m ≡ E / c2),
we get, 1 u = 1.49241783 × 10-10 J/c2
≅ 1.492 × 10-10 J/c2
and 1 u = 931.494042 MeV / c2
≅ 931.5 MeV/c2

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei

Question 38.
How is the nuclear size determined ? State the relation between nuclear size (radius) and mass number.
Answer:
The nuclear size is determined from particle scattering experiments using fast electrons or neutrons. The de Broglie wavelength of the bombarding electrons or neutrons should be less than the radius of the nucleus under study.

It is found that the volume of a nucleus is directly proportional to the mass number A, i.e., to the number of nucleons in the nucleus. For many purposes, nuclei may be assumed to be spherical.
Thus, a nucleus of radius R has a volume \(\frac{4}{3}\) πR3
∴ R3 ∝ A or R ∝ A\(\frac{1}{3}\)
∴ R = R0A\(\frac{1}{3}\)
where R0 ≈ 1.2 × 10-15 m = 1.2 fm.
∴ R ≈ 1.2 AA\(\frac{1}{3}\) fm

[Note : A nucleus does not have a sharp boundary. Also, electron scattering and neutron scattering yield slightly different values of R0. Hence, the relation above is only representative of effective nuclear size. 1 femtometre or 1 fm = 10-15 m; an earlier non-SI unit of the same value called fermi, in honour of Enrico Fermi (1901-54), Italian-US nuclear physicist, is no longer accepted in SI.]

Question 39.
Nuclear density is essentially the same for all nuclei. Justify.
Given 1 u = 1.66 × 10-27 kg and R0 ≈ 1.2 fm, estimate the nuclear density.
Answer:
Relative atomic mass rounded to the nearest integral value equals the atomic mass number A. Thus, ignoring the masses of the atomic electrons and binding energies, nuclear mass expressed in unified atomic mass unit = A u. Also, it is experimentally found that the volume of a nucleus is directly proportional to the mass number A. As both nuclear mass and volume are proportional to the mass number, nuclear density is essentially the same for all nuclei.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 53
The order of nuclear density is 1017 kg/m3.

[Note : Some stars, with masses between 1.4\(M_{\odot}\) and 3\(M_{\odot}\), where \(M_{\odot}\) denotes the mass of our Sun, undergo supernova at the end of their active life and collapse into neutron stars of densities comparable with nuclear v density.]

Question 40.
Define mass defect and state an expression for it.
Answer:
The difference between the sum of the masses of all the individual nucleons in a nucleus and the mass of the nucleus is known as the mass defect.

Mass defect, ∆m = (Zmp + Nmn) – M where mp is the proton mass, mn is the neutron mass, M is the mass of the nucleus, Z is the atomic number and N = A – Z is the neutron number.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei

Question 41.
Explain the term nuclear binding energy and express it in terms of mass defect. What is binding energy per nucleon? Write the expression for it.
Answer:
In the atomic nucleus, the protons and the neutrons are bound together by a strong, short range and charge independent, attractive force called the nuclear force. It is necessary to supply energy to break the nucleus. The minimum energy required to separate a nucleus into its free constituents, i.e., protons and neutrons, is known as the nuclear binding energy. It is the mass energy of the nucleons minus the mass energy of the nucleus.

The mass defect of a nucleus, of mass M, mass number A, proton number Z and neutron number N = A – Z, is
∆m = (Zmp + Nmn) – M
where, mp is the proton mass and mn is the neutron mass. Then, from Einstein’s mass-energy relation,
nuclear binding energy = ∆mc2
= [(Zmp -(- Nmn) – M] c2 (in joule)
= [(Zmp + Nmn) – M] \(\frac{c^{2}}{e}\) (in eV)

where c is the speed of light in free space and e is the elementary charge. In calculations using the above equations, mp is replaced by mH (mass of hydrogen atom). M is taken to be the atomic mass and not nuclear mass because the electron masses cancel out and the difference in electronic binding energies can be ignored as these are 106 times smaller than the nuclear binding energy.
∴ Nuclear binding energy
≅ [(ZmH + Nmn) – Matom] c2 (in joule)
The minimum energy required on the average to separate a nucleon from a given nucleus is called the binding energy per nucleon for that nucleus. It is the nuclear binding energy for a nucleus divided by its mass number.
∴ Binding energy per nucleon = \(\frac{\Delta m c^{2}}{A}\)
= [(Zmp + Nmn) – M] \(\frac{c^{2}}{A}\)
≅ [(ZmH + Nmn) – Matom] \(\frac{c^{2}}{A}\)

Question 42.
What is the significance of binding energy per nucleon?
Answer:
The greater the binding energy per nucleon in a nucleus, the greater is the minimum energy needed to remove a nucleon from the nucleus. Thus, binding energy per nucleon indicates the stability of a nucleus.

[Note : The binding energy per nucleon is high when both Z and N are even numbers, and such nuclei are most common. Nuclei with both Z and N odd are very rare.]

Question 43.
What are stable nuclei? What decides nuclear stability? What are the properties of nuclear force?
Answer:
Those nuclei which for certain combinations of neutrons and protons do not spontaneously disintegrate are called stable nuclei. There are two aspects that decide the stability of a nucleus. Firstly, the existence of nuclear energy levels implies certain configurations to achieve potential energy minimum, and secondly, the balance of forces.

Just like energy levels in atoms, nuclear energy levels are filled in sequence obeying the exclusion principle. Thus, there is a tendency for N to equal Z, or to have both even Z and even N.
Properties of the nuclear force :
(1) The nucleons in a nucleus are held .together by the attractive strong nuclear force. This force is much stronger than gravitational force and electromagnetic force.

(2) Nucleons interact strongly only with their nearest neighbours because the nuclear force has an extremely short range. Gravitational force and electromagnetic force are long range forces. They tend to zero only when the separation between two particles tends to infinity.

(3) Inside a nucleus, this force appears to be the same between two protons, a proton and a neutron, and two neutrons. However, between two protons there is also Coulomb repulsion which has a much longer range and, therefore, has appreciable magnitude throughout the entire nucleus. In nuclei having 2 ≤ Z ≤ 83, with neutrons present, the nuclear force is strong enough to overcome the Coulomb repulsion.

For light nuclei (A < 20), N ≥ Z, but is never smaller (except in \(\begin{aligned} &1 \\ &1 \end{aligned}\)H and \(\begin{aligned} &3 \\ &2 \end{aligned}\)H). However, with more than about 10 protons, an excess of neutrons is required to form a stable nucleus; for high atomic numbers, N/Z = 1.6. For Z > 83, even an excess of neutrons cannot prevent spontaneous disintegration and there are no stable nuclei.
[Note : The strength of the nuclear force is evident from the nuclear binding energy.]

Question 44.
Draw a neat labelled graph showing the variation of binding energy per nucleon as a function of mass number. What can we infer from the
graph?
Answer:
Figure shows the plot of the binding energy per nucleon (BE/A, in MeV per nucleon) against mass number A.

From Figure, we can draw the following inferences :
(1) The greater the binding energy per nucleon, the more stable is the nucleus because greater is the minimum energy needed to remove a nucleon. Thus, the nuclei appearing high on the plot are more tightly bound.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 54

(2) BE/A has a maximum value of about 8.8 MeV per nucleon at A = 56 (56Fe nuclide) and then decreases to 7.6 MeV per nucleon at A = 238 (238U nuclide). Thus, the iron nuclide 56Fe has the maximum binding energy per nucleon and is the most stable nuclide. Also, the peak at A = 4 shows that the 4He nucleus (α particle) has higher binding energy per nucleon compared to its neighbours in the periodic table and is exceptionally stable.

(3) The increase in BE /A as A decreases from 240 to 60 shows that if a heavy nucleus splits into two medium-sized fragments, each of the new nuclei will have more BE / A than the original nucleus. The binding energy difference, which can be very large, will then be released. The process of splitting a heavy nucleus is called nuclear fission. The energy released in a fission of 235U nucleus is about 200 MeV.

(4) Joining together, or fusing, two very light nuclei to form a single nucleus will also lead to larger BE/A in the new heavier nucleus. Again, the binding energy difference will be released. This process,which is called nuclear fusion, is also a very effective way of obtaining energy.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei

45. Solve the following :
Question 1.
Find the nuclear radii of 206Pb and 208Pb.
Solution:
Data : R0 = 1.2 × 10-15 m
Nuclear radius, R=R0A\(\frac{1}{3}\)
(i) For 206Pb, A = 206
∴ R = (1.2 × 10-15) (206)\(\frac{1}{3}\)
= 1.2 × 10-15 × 5.906
= 7.087 × 10-15 m = 7.087 fm

(ii) For 208 Pb, A = 208
∴ R = (1.2 × 10-15)(208)\(\frac{1}{3}\)
= 1.2 × 10-15 × 5.925
= 7.11 × 10-15 m = 7.11 fm

Question 2.
Given the atomic mass of the isotope of iron 56Fe is 55.93 u, find its nuclear density.
Solution :
Data : A = 56, m = 55.93 u = 55.93 × 1.66 × 10-27 kg, R0 = 1.2 × 10-15 m .
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 55

Question 3.
Given the nuclear radius of 16O is 3.024 fm, find that of 235U.
Solution:
Data : A1 = 16 and R1 = 3.024 fm (for 16O),
A2 = 235 (for 235U)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 56

Question 4.
The mass defect of He nucleus is 0.0304 u. Calculate its binding energy.
Solution:
Data: ∆m = 0.0304 u, 1 u = 931.5 \(\frac{\mathrm{MeV}}{c^{2}}\)
The binding energy of He nucleus
= ∆mc2
= 0.0304 × 931.5
= 28.32 MeV

Question 5.
Calculate the mass defect and binding energy of \(\begin{aligned}
&59 \\
&27
\end{aligned}\) Co which has a nucleus of mass 58.933 u. [Take mp = 1.0078 u, mn = 1.0087 u]
Solution:
Data: mp = 1.0078 u, mn = 1.0087 u, mCo = 58.933 u,
1 u = 931.5 \(\frac{\mathrm{MeV}}{c^{2}}\)
For \(\begin{aligned}
&59 \\
&27
\end{aligned}\)Co, A = 59, Z = 27
∴ N = A – Z = 59 – 27 = 32
The mass defect,
∆m=(Zmp + Nn) – mCo
= (27 × 1.0078 + 32 × 1.0087) – 58.933
= (27.2106 + 32.2784) – 58.933
= 59.4890 – 58.933 = 0.556 u
∴ The binding energy
= ∆mc2
= 0.556 uc2 × 931.5 \(\frac{\mathrm{MeV}}{uc^{2}}\) = 517.8 MeV

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei

Question 6.
Find the mass energy of a particle of mass 1 u in joule and electronvolt.
Solution:
Data : m = 1 u = 1.66 × 10-27 kg, c = 3 × 108 m/s,
1 eV = 1.602 × 10-19 J
The mass energy,
E = mc2
= (1.66 × 10-27) (3 × 108)8
= 1.66 × 9 × 10-11 n
= 1.494 × 10-10 J
= \(\frac{1.494 \times 10^{-10}}{1.602 \times 10^{-19}}\) eV
= 9.326 × 108 eV or 932.6 MeV
[Note : The answer differs from the accepted value of about 931.5 MeV because of the rounding off errors in the data used.]

Question 7.
Find the mass energy of a proton at rest in MeV. [mp = 1.673 × 10-27kg]
Solution:
Data : mp = 1.673 × 10-27 kg, c = 3 × 108 m/s,
1 eV = 1.602 × 10-19 J
∴ 1 MeV = 106 × 1.602 × 10-19 J = 1.602 × 10-13 J
The mass energy of a proton at rest,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 57

Question 8.
Find the mass energy of a particle of mass 1 g in joule.
Solution:
Data : m = 1 g = 1 × 10-3 kg, c = 3 × 108 m/s,
1 eV = 1.602 × 10-19 J
The mass energy,
E = mc2
= (1 × 10-3)(3 × 108)2
= 9 × 1013 J

Question 46.
What is radioactivity? OR Define radioactivity.
Answer:
Radioactivity is the phenomenon in which unstable nuclei of an element spontaneously distintegrate into nuclei of another element by emitting a or β particles accompanied by γ-rays. Such transformation is known as radioactive transformation or radioactive decay.

Question 47.
Who discovered radioactivity? Give a brief account of the first observation of radioactivity.
Answer:
Antoine Henri Becquerel (1852-1908), French physicist, discovered radioactivity in 1896.

He had kept photographic plates wrapped in a thick black paper in a drawer of his desk. Later, he also kept uranium salts near the photographic plates. After some days he developed the photographic plates and was surprised to find that they were fogged although he had protected them from light. Becquerel concluded that uranium salts must be emitting some invisible rays which affected the photographic plates. In this way, radioactivity was discovered by Becquerel.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei

Question 48.
What is a radioactive element? Give two examples of radioactive elements.
Answer:
The element which exhibits the property of radioactivity, i.e., spontaneous disintegration of unstable nuclei of the element by emission of α or β particles accompanied by γ-rays is called a radioactive element. Examples : Uranium, thorium, polonium, radium, actinium.

Question 49.
Name the three radioactive decay processes. State the nature of particle/radiation emitted in each process. What is meant by the Q value or Q factor of the decay?
Answer:
The processes by which a radioactive element can decay are :
(1) α-decay, by emission of an α-particle (\(\begin{aligned}
&4 \\
&2
\end{aligned}\) He nucleus),
(2) β-decay, by emission of an electron (\(\begin{aligned}
&0 \\
&-1
\end{aligned}\)e) or a positron \(\begin{aligned}
&0 \\
&1
\end{aligned}\)e), and

(3) γ-decay, by emitting electromagnetic radiations (γ-rays) of very short wavelength of about 10-12 m to 10-14 m.

In a radioactive decay, the difference in the energy equivalent of the mass of the parent atom and that of the sum of the masses of the products is called the Q value or Q factor of the decay. It is also called disintegration energy.

Question 50.
State the observations which lead to the conclusion that radioactivity is a nuclear phenomenon.
Answer:
The rate of disintegration of a radioactive material is not affected by changes in physical and chemical conditions such as (1) temperature and pressure (2) action of electric and magnetic fields (3) chemical composition of the material. The above changes affect the orbital electrons, but not the nucleus. Therefore, we conclude that radioactivity is a nuclear phenomenon.

Question 51.
State the nature and properties of a-particles.
Answer:
Nature of α-particles :
(1) An alpha particle is a helium nucleus, i.e., a doubly ionized helium atom. It consists of two protons and two neutrons.
(2) Mass of the α-particle ≅ 4u
Charge on the α-particle = 2 × charge on the proton
Properties of α-particles :
(1) Of the three types of radioactive radiations, α- particles have the maximum ionizing power. It is about 100 times that of β-particles and 104 times that of γ-rays.

(2) They have the least penetrating power, about 100 times less than that of β-particles and 104 times less than that of γ-rays. They can pass through very thin sheets of paper but are scattered by metal foils and mica. Since α-particles produce intense ionization in a medium, they lose their kinetic energy quickly. As a result, they do not penetrate more than a few centimetres (about 2.7 cm to 8.6 cm) in air under normal conditions.

(3) They are deflected by electric and magnetic fields since they are charged particles. Their deflection is less than that of β-particles in the same field.

(4) They affect photographic plates.
(5) They cause fluorescence in fluorescent materials such as zinc sulphide.
(6) They emerge from the nuclei with tremendous speeds in the range of \(\frac{1}{100}\)th to \(\frac{1}{10}\)th of the speed of light in free space.
(7) They destroy living cells.
[Note : α-rays and β-rays were discovered by Henri BecquereL]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei

Question 52.
State the nature and properties of β-particles.
Answer:
Nature of β-particles : A β-particle is an electron or a positron.
Properties of β-particles :

  1. β-particles have a moderate ionizing power. It is about 100 times less than that of α-particles, but 100 times more than that of γ-rays.
  2. They have a moderate penetrating power. It is about 100 times more than that of α-particles, but 100 times less than that of γ-rays.
  3. They are deflected by electric and magnetic fields. Their deflection is more than the deflection of α-particles in the same field but in the opposite direction.
  4. They affect photographic plates.
  5. They cause fluorescence in a fluorescent material such as zinc sulphide.
  6. Their energies and speeds are very high. Their speed is of the order of 108 m/s. Some β-particles have speeds of the order of 0.99 c, where c is the speed of light in free space.
  7. They cause more biological damage than α-particles, because they have more penetrating power.

[Note : When a nucleus emits an electron, one of its neutrons changes to a proton; the electron is accompanied by a neutral and almost massless particle called antineutrino \(\bar{v}_{\mathrm{e}}\) with which the electron shares its energy and momentum. Hence, β-particles are emitted with speeds ranging from about 0 to 0.99 c.

The properties of a positron are identical to those of an electron except that it carries a positive charge of the same magnitude as an electron. A positron emission in a β+ decay is accompanied by a neutrino ve. A positron is an anti-particle of an electron, and an antineutrino is an antiparticle of neutrino.

The existence of a small neutral particle, emitted simultaneously with the electron in β-decay, was proposed in 1931 by Wolfgang Pauli (1900 -1958), Austrian-US theoretical physicist. It was confirmed experimentally in 1956 by Frederic Reines and Clyde Lorrain Cowan, Jr., US physicists. This neutral particle, that appears in β+ -decay, was called the neu-trino. It travels with a speed very close to that of light in free space. The existence of positron (in 1928) and other antiparticles was predicted by Paul Adrien Maurice Dirac (1902 – 84), British theoretical physicist. All these predictions were eventually confirmed experimentally; the positron was discovered in 1932 by Carl David Anderson, US physicist.]

Question 53.
State the nature and properties of γ-rays.
Answer:
Nature of γ-rays :

  1. γ-rays are electromagnetic waves of very short wavelength (about 10-12 m to 10-14 m).
  2. They are uncharged.

Properties of γ-rays :

  1. γ-rays produce feeble ionization. Their ionizing power is 104 times less than that of a-particles and 100 times less than that of β-particles.
  2. They have the maximum penetrating power. It is about 100 times that of β-particles and 104 times that of α-particles.
  3. They are not deflected by electric and magnetic fields as they are uncharged.
  4. They affect photographic plates.
  5. They cause fluorescence in a fluorescent material such as zinc sulphide.
  6. Their speed in free space is 3 × 108 m/s( the same as that of light waves and X-rays in free space).
  7. γ-rays can be diffracted by crystals. In recent times, γ-ray diffraction has emerged as a powerful tool in structural and defect studies of crystals.
  8. They destroy living cells and tissues and are used for destroying cancer cells.

[Note : γ-rays (not established clearly in Berquerel’s work) were discovered in 1900 by Paul Villard (1860-1934), French physicist.]

Question 54.
(a) What is α-decay? What is the consequence of an α-decay on a radioactive element? What is the Q value or Q factor in this case ?
Q = [mU – mTh – mα]c2
(b) What is β-decay ? What is the consequence of a β-decay on a radioactive element? What is the Q value or Q factor in this case ?
Answer:
(a) A radioactive transformation in which an a-particle is emitted is called α-decay.
In an α-decay, the atomic number of the nucleus decreases by 2 and the mass number decreases by 4.
Example : \({ }_{92}^{38} \mathrm{U} \rightarrow{ }_{90}^{234} \mathrm{Th}+{ }_{2}^{4} \alpha\)
Q = [mU – mTh – mα]c2

(b) A radioactive transformation in which a β-particle is emitted is called β-decay.
In a β -decay, the atomic number of the nucleus increases by 1 and the mass number remains unchanged.
Example : \({ }_{90}^{23} \mathrm{Th} \rightarrow{ }_{91}^{234} \mathrm{~Pa}+{ }_{-1}^{0} e+\bar{v}_{\mathrm{e}}\)
where \(\bar{v}_{\mathrm{e}}\) is the antineutrino emitted to conserve the momentum, energy and spin.
Q = [mTh – mPa – me]c2
In a β+-decay, the atomic number of the nucleus decreases by 1 and the mass number remains unchanged.
Example : \({ }_{15}^{30} \mathrm{P} \rightarrow{ }_{14}^{30} \mathrm{Si}+{ }_{+1}^{0} e+v_{\mathrm{e}}\)
where ve is the neutrino emitted to conserve the momentum, energy and spin.
Q = [mP – mSi – me]c2
[Note : The term fi particle refers to the electron (or positron) emitted by a nucleus.]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei

Question 55.
Why are α- and β-particle emissions often accompanied by γ-rays?
Answer:
A given nucleus does not emit α- and βparticles simultaneously. However, on emission of α or β-particles, most nuclei are left in an excited state. A nucleus in an excited state emits a γ-ray photon in a transition to the lower energy state. Hence, α- and β-particle emissions are often accompanied by γ-rays.

Question 56.
State the law of radioactive decay and express it in the exponential form.
OR
State the law of radioactive decay. Hence derive the relation N = N0e-λt, where the symbols have their usual meanings.
OR
Show that the number of nuclei of a radioactive material decreases exponentially with time.
Answer:
Law of radioactive decay : At any instant, the rate of radioactive distintegration is directly proportional to the number of nuclei of the radioactive element present at that instant.

Derivation : Let N0 be the number of nuclei present at time t = 0, and N the number of nuclei present at time t.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 58
where λ is a constant of proportionality called the radioactive decay constant or the distintegration constant. It is a constant for a particular radioactive element. The minus sign indicates that N decreases as t increases.
Integrating Eqn (1),
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 59
This is the exponential form of the law of radioactive decay. It shows that the number of nuclei present decreases exponentially with time.
[Note : This equation is also written in the form
N(t) = N0e-λt]

Question 57.
If the number of nuclei of a radioactive substance becomes \(\frac{1}{e}\) times the initial number in 10 days, what is the decay constant of the substance ?
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 60

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei

Question 58.
What is meant by the activity of a sample of radioactive element? State the expression for it and also the units.
Answer:
The rate of disintegration of a sample of a radioactive element is called its activity. Let A denote the activity at time t and A0 the initial activity. Then,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 61
The SI unit of activity is called the becquerel (Bq) in honour of Henri Becquerel. 1 Bq = 1 disintegration per second.

The earlier unit, the curie (Ci) was based on the activity of 1 gram of 226Ra. 1 Ci = 3.7 × 1010 Bqn It was named after Marie Curie, Polish-bom French chemist.
[Note : Eqn (1) is also written in the form A (t) = A0e-λt]

Question 59.
Define half-life a radioactive element and obtain the relation between half-life and decay constant.
Answer:
The half-life of a radioactive element is defined as the average time interval during which half of the initial number of nuclei of the element disintegrate.

Let N0 be the number of nuclei of a radioactive element present at time t = 0 and N, the number of nuclei present at time t. From the law of radioactive decay,
N = N0e-λt
where λ is the decay constant of the element.
If T is the half-life of the element, then, N = \(\frac{N_{0}}{2}\) when t = T.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 62
This is the relation between the half-life and the decay constant of a radioactive element.

[Note : Radioactive decay law is statistical in nature and applicable only when the number of nuclei in the sample under consideration is very large. λ gives the probability that a nucleus of the element will decay in one second. We cannot know the exact number of nuclei that would decay in a given time interval. Hence, the use of the term average in the definition of half-time.]

Question 60.
What is meant by average life or mean life of a radioactive species ? How is it related to the half-life?
Answer:
Let N0 = number of nuclei present at time t = 0 and λ = decay constant of a radioactive species.
| dN | = | λNdt |. ∴ The number of nuclei decaying between time tand t + dt is λN0e-λtdt. The life time of these nuclei is t. The average life or mean life of a radioactive species is denoted by t and is, by definition,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 63

Question 61.
Define decay constant or distintegration constant of a radioactive element. If λ is the decay constant of a radioactive element, show that about 37% of the original nuclei remains undecayed after a time interval of λ-1.
Answer:
The decay constant or disintegration constant of a radioactive element is defined as the ratio of the disintegration rate at an instant to the number of undecayed nuclei of the element present at that instant.

Let N0 be the number of nuclei of a radioactive element present at time t = 0 and N, the number of undecayed nuclei at time t. From the radioactive law,
N = N0e-λt
where λ is the decay constant. At t = λ-1, the fraction of undecayed nuclei is
\(\frac{N}{N_{0}}\) = e-λ × λ-1 = e-1 = \(\frac{1}{e}\)
Since e ≅ 2.718,
\(\frac{N}{N_{0}}=\frac{1}{2.718}\) = 0.3679
Therefore, about 36.79% ≈ 37% of the original nuclei remains undecayed after a time λ-1. Since λ is the probability that a nucleus of the element will decay in one second, λ-1 gives the mean-life or the mean life time τ of the radioactive element measured in second; τ = λ-1.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei

Question 62.
Show graphically how the number of nuclei (N) of a radioactive element varies with time (t).
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 64

Question 63.
The half-life of a radioactive material is 4 days. Find the time required for 1/4 of the initial number of radioactive nuclei of the element to remain undisintegrated.
Answer:
For t = nT, N = N0/ 2n. In this case, n = 2.
∴ f = 2T = 2 × 4 = 8 days is the required time.

Question 64.
A radioactive sample with half-life 2 days has initial activity 32 μCi. What will be its activity after 8 days?
Answer:
Here, t = 8d and T = 2d
∴ t =4T
For t = nT, N = N0/ 2n and activity ∝ N
∴ A = A0/24 = A0/16 = 32 /16
= 2 μCi is the required activity.

Question 65.
In successive radioactive decay if the decrease in mass number is 32 and the decrease in atomic number is 8, how many (i) α particles (ii) β particles are emitted in the process ?
Answer:

  1. Number of α-particles emitted = 32/4 = 8
  2. Number of β-particles emitted = 16 – 8 = 8.

66. Solve the following :
Question 1.
The decay constant of a radioactive substance is 4.33 × 10-4 per year. Calculate its half-life and average life.
Solution:
Data : λ = 4.33 × 10-4 per year
The half-life period of the radioactive substance.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 65

Question 2.
The half-life of \(\begin{array}{r}
226 \\
88
\end{array}\)Ra is 1620 y. Find its decay constant in SI unit.
Solution:
Data: T = 1620 y = 1620 × 365 × 8.64 × 104 s
= 5.109 × 1010 s
The decay constant of \(\begin{array}{r}
226 \\
88
\end{array}\)Ra is
λ = \(\frac{0.693}{T}=\frac{0.693}{5.109 \times 10^{10}}\) = 1.356 × 10-11 s-1

Question 3.
The half-life of \(\begin{array}{r}
210 \\
84
\end{array}\)Po is 138 d. Find the time required for 75% of the initial number of radio active nuclei of \(\begin{array}{r}
210 \\
84
\end{array}\)Po to disintegrate.
Solution:
Data: T = 138 d, = \(\frac{N}{N_{0}}=\frac{1}{4}\) (since only 25% of the
initial number of nuclei remains undisintegrated)
In one half-life (t = T), \(\frac{N}{N_{0}}=\frac{1}{2}\). In two half-lives (t = 2T), \(\frac{N}{N_{0}}=\frac{1}{4}\)
∴ The time for 75% of \(\begin{array}{r}
210 \\
84
\end{array}\)Po nuclei to disintegrate is 2T = 2 × 138 = 276 d.

Question 4.
Protactinium \(\begin{array}{r}
233 \\
91
\end{array}\)Pa decays to \(\frac{1}{5}\)th of its initial quantity in 62.7 days. Calculate its decay constant, mean-life and half-life.
Solution:
Data : \(\frac{N}{N_{0}}=\frac{1}{5}\), t = 62.7d
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 66

Question 5.
The half-life of \(\begin{array}{r}
210 \\
82
\end{array}\)Pb is 2.2.3 y. How long will it take for its activity to reduce to 30% of the initial activity?
Solution:
Data : T = 22.3 y, A = 0.3 A0
By the radioactive decay law,
N = N0e-λt
∴ λN = λN0e-λt
∴ λ = A0e-λt
where A0 = AN0 is the initial activity and A = λN is the activity at time t.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 67
∴It will take 38.75 y for the activity of \(\begin{array}{r}
210 \\
82
\end{array}\)Pb to reduce to 30% of the initial activity.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei

Question 6.
Radioactive sodium \(\begin{aligned}
&24 \\
&11
\end{aligned}\)Na has half-life of 15 h. Find its decay constant and mean-life. How much of 10 g of \(\begin{aligned}
&24 \\
&11
\end{aligned}\)Na will be left after 24 h?
Answer:
Data : T = 15 h, m0 = 10 g, t = 24 h
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 68
since mass of a sample is directly proportional to the number of atoms or nuclei present.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 69

Question 7.
Thorium \(\begin{gathered}
232 \\
90
\end{gathered}\)Th disintegrates into lead \(\begin{gathered}
200 \\
82
\end{gathered}\)Pb. Find the number of α and β particles emitted in the disintegration.
Solution:
An α-particle is a helium nucleus with mass number 4 and atomic number 2. In an α-decay, the mass number of the disintegrating nucleus decreases by 4 and its atomic number decreases by 2.

A β-particle is an electron with mass number 0 and atomic number – 1. In a β-decay, the mass number of the disintegrating nucleus remains unchanged and its atomic number increases by 1.

Let x α-particles and y ß-particles be emitted in the disintegration of \(\begin{gathered}
232 \\
90
\end{gathered}\)Th into \(\begin{gathered}
200 \\
82
\end{gathered}\)Pb.
\({ }_{90}^{232} \mathrm{Th} \stackrel{x \alpha+y \beta^{-}}{\longrightarrow}{ }_{82}^{200} \mathrm{~Pb}\)
∴ 232 – 4x – 0(y) = 200
∴ 4x = 232 – 200 = 32
∴ x = 8
Also, 90 – 2x + 1(y) = 82
∴ 90 – 2(8) + y = 82
∴ y = 82 + 16 – 90 = 8
∴ 8 α-particles and 8 ß-particles are emitted in the decay series of 232Th to 200Pb.

Question 67.
What is nuclear energy?
Answer:
Energy released in a nuclear reaction such as a spontaneous or induced nuclear fission, or nuclear fusion, or in interaction of two nuclei, is called nuclear energy.

[Note : It is far greater from that released in a chemical reaction.]

Question 68.
What is a nuclear reaction? Give one example.
Answer:
A reaction between the nucleus of an atom and a bombarding particle leading to the production of a new nucleus and, in general, the ejection of one or more particles is known as a nuclear reaction.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 70

Question 69.
What are the quantities conserved in a nuclear reaction?
Answer:
The total momentum, energy, spin, charge and number of nucleons are conserved in a nuclear reaction.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei

Question 70.
What is fission? Who discovered nuclear fission?
Answer:
Nuclear fission is a nuclear reaction in which a heavy nucleus of an atom, such as that of uranium, splits into two or more fragments of comparable size, either spontaneously or as a result of bombardment of a neutron on the nucleus (induced fission). It is followed by emission of two or three neutrons.

The mass of the original nucleus is more than the sum of the masses of the fragments. This mass difference is released as energy, which can be enormous as in the fission of 235U.

Nuclear fission was discovered by Lise Meitner, Otto Frisch, Otto Hahn and Fritz Strassmann in 1938.

[Notes : (1) Lise Meitner (1878-1968), Austrian- Swedish physicist and radiochemist. Otto Frisch (1904-79), Austrian-British physicist and Meitner’s nephew. Otto Hahn (1879-1968), German radiochemist. Friedrich Wilhelm “Fritz” Strassman (1902-1980), German chemist. (2) In 1934, Enrico Fermi bombarded uranium with neutrons to produce nuclear reactions leading to formation of transuranic elements (Z > 92). In the process, he had carried out nuclear fission, but he misinterpreted the results. The experiments and analysis carried out by Meitner, Hahn and Strassman, and the theoretical work by Meitner and Frisch led to the discovery of fission in 1938-39.

Frisch named the phenomenon fission. Fermi, for his work in the area of nuclear science, was awarded the 1938 Nobel Prize for physics. Hahn was awarded the 1944 Nobel Prize for chemistry; it was not shared by Meitner as her important role in the discovery of fission came to light much later. (3) The most abundant urnanium isotope 238U (abundance 99.28%) can be fissioned by neutrons with high kinetic energy (called fast neutrons), at least 1.3 MeV. 235U (abundance 0.72%) can be fissioned by thermal (or low energy) neutrons having kinetic energy about 0.025 eV. Some types of nuclear reactors require the natural uranium to be enriched to increase its 235U content to about 3%.]

Question 71.
What are the products of the fission of uranium 235 by thermal neutrons?
Answer:
The products of the fission of 235U by thermal neutrons are not unique. A variety of fission fragments are produced with mass number A ranging from about 72 to about 138, subject to the conservation of mass-energy, momentum, number of protons (Z) and number of neutrons (N). A few typical fission equations are
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 71

Question 72.
What is nuclear fusion? Give one example with an equation.
Answer:
A type of nuclear reaction in which lighter atomic nuclei (of low atomic number) fuse to form a heavier nucleus (of higher atomic number) with the’ release of enormous amount of energy is called nuclear fusion.

Very high temperatures, of about 107 K to 108 K, are required to carry out nuclear fusion. Hence, such a reaction is also called a thermonuclear reaction.

Example : The D-T reaction, being used in experimental fusion reactors, fuses a deuteron and a triton nuclei at temperatures of about 108 K.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 72
(2) The value of the energy released in the fusion of two deuteron nuclei and the temperature at which the reaction occurs mentioned in the textbook are probably misprints.]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei

Question 73.
Give one area of application of (i) nuclear fission (ii) nuclear fusion.
Answer:
(i) Nuclear fission is used in (1) a nuclear reactor as very efficient and the least-polluting source of energy to generate electricity (2) atomic bombs.

(ii) Nuclear fusion is used in (experimental) fusion reactors to generate electricity without the hazards of radioactive radiations and radioactive pollution which happens with fission reactors. Nuclear fusion reactions in the interior of stars are the source of their energy output and the means of synthesis of higher elements like carbon, nitrogen and silicon from hydrogen and helium.

Question 74.
Explain the basic exothermic reaction in stars.
Answer:
The fusion of hydrogen nuclei into helium nuclei results in release of energy. It is the basic exothermic reaction in stars.
(1) The proton-proton cycle :
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 73
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 74
The total energy released is 24.7 MeV.

Question 75.
What is a nuclear reactor?
Answer:
A nuclear reactor is a device in which a nuclear fission chain reaction is used in a controlled manner (i) to produce energy in form of heat which is then converted into electricity or (ii) to produce radioisotopes or (iii) to produce new nuclides using a suitable fissionable material such as uranium or plutonium.
In a uranium reactor, \(\begin{gathered}
235 \\
92
\end{gathered}\)U is bombarded by slow neutrons to produce \(\begin{gathered}
235 \\
92
\end{gathered}\)U which undergoes fission.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei

Question 76.
What is a chain reaction? How is it produced?
Answer:
A chain reaction is a self-multiplying process in which neutrons ejected in a nuclear fission strike neighbouring nuclei of fissionable material and cause more fissions.
A fission of \(\begin{gathered}
235 \\
92
\end{gathered}\)U nucleus by a thermal neutron leads to ejection of two or three neutrons (2.7 neutrons on an average) having high kinetic energy of about 2 MeV. The kinetic energy of at least one of these neutrons is lowered to about 0.025 eV by a suitable moderator and the neutron is used to cause further fission. The process continues and hence it is called a chain reaction.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 75

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
The linear momentum of an electron in a Bohr orbit of an H-atom (principal quantum number n) is proportional to
(A) \(\frac{1}{n^{2}}\)
(B) \(\frac{1}{n}\)
(C) n
(D) n2.
Answer:
(B) \(\frac{1}{n}\)

Question 2.
The angular momenta of the electron in successive Bohr orbits differ by
(A) \(\frac{n h}{2 \pi}\)
(B) h
(C) \(\frac{h}{2 \pi}\)
(D) (n – 1)\(\frac{h}{2 \pi}\)
Answer:
(C) \(\frac{h}{2 \pi}\)

Question 3.
The angular momentum of the electron in the second Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom is l. Its angular moementum in the third Bohr orbit is
(A) \(\frac{2}{3}\) l
(B) \(\frac{3}{2}\) l
(C) 3l
(D) \(\frac{4}{3}\) l.
Answer:
(B) \(\frac{3}{2}\) l

Question 4.
The time taken by an electron moving with a speed of 2.18 × 106 m/s to complete one revolution in the first orbit (radius 0.53 A) of hydrogen atom is
(A) 1.527 × 10-15 s
(B) 1.527 × 10-16 s
(C) 1.527 × 10-17 s
(D) 1.527 × 10-18 s.
Answer:
(B) 1.527 × 10-16 s

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei

Question 5.
If the electron in a hydrogen atom is raised to one of its excited energy states, the electron’s
(A) potential energy increases and kinetic energy decreases
(B) potential energy decreases and kinetic energy increases
(C) potential energy increases with no change in kinetic energy
(D) potential energy decreases but kinetic energy remains constant.
Answer:
(A) potential energy increases and kinetic energy decreases

Question 6.
The potential energy of the electron in a hydrogen atom in its ground state is
(A) – 6.8 eV
(B) – 13.6 eV
(C) – 27.2 eV
(D) 13.6 eV.
Answer:
(C) – 27.2 eV

Question 7.
The kinetic energy of the orbital electron in a hydrogen atom in the excited state corresponding to n = 2 is
(A) 3.4 eV
(B) 6.8 eV
(C) 13.6 eV
(D) 27.2 eV.
Answer:
(A) 3.4 eV

Question 8.
The ratio of the kinetic energy of an electron in a Bohr orbit to its total energy in the same orbit is
(A) -1
(B) 2
(C) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
(D) -0.5.
Answer:
(A) -1

Question 9.
The energy of an electron in the nth Bohr orbit is proportional to
(A) n2
(B) n
(C) \(\frac{1}{n}\)
(D) \(\frac{1}{n^{2}}\)
Answer:
(D) \(\frac{1}{n^{2}}\)

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei

Question 10.
The radius of the first Bohr orbit is 0.53 Å and that of nth orbit is 212 Å. The value of n is
(A) 2
(B) 12
(C) 20
(D) 400.
Answer:
(C) 20

Question 11.
The radius and the energy of the first Bohr orbit in a hydrogen atom are r1 and E1. If the orbital electron makes a transition to a orbit of radius 4rv the energy of the electron changes to
(A) \(\frac{E_{1}}{4}\)
(B) \(\frac{E_{1}}{2}\)
(C) 2E1
(D) 4E1
Answer:
(A) \(\frac{E_{1}}{4}\)

Question 12.
A hydrogen atom in its ground state is excited to the state of energy E3 by an electron colliding with it. The minimum energy that the colliding electron must have is
(A) 10.2 eV
(B) 12.09 eV
(C) 12.5 eV
(D) 13.6 eV.
Answer:
(B) 12.09 eV

Question 13.
The energy of the electron in a hydrogen atom is raised from a state of energy E2 to that of energy E4. In the process, its
(A) energy doubles
(B) angular momentum doubles
(C) velocity doubles
(D) linear momentum doubles.
Answer:
(B) angular momentum doubles

Question 14.
Given that R is the Rydberg constant for hydrogen, the Hα line in the hydrogen spectrum has a wavelength
(A) \(\frac{1}{6 R}\)
(B) 6R
(C) \(\frac{5 R}{36}\)
(D) \(\frac{36}{5 R}\)
Answer:
(D) \(\frac{36}{5 R}\)

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei

Question 15.
When the electron in a hydrogen atom jumps from the second orbit to the first orbit, the wavelength of the emitted rediation is λ. When the electron jumps from the third orbit to the first orbit, the wavelength of the emitted radiation would be
(A) \(\frac{27}{32}\) λ
(B) \(\frac{32}{27}\) λ
(C) \(\frac{2}{3}\) λ
(D) \(\frac{3}{2}\) λ.
Answer:
(A) \(\frac{27}{32}\) λ

Question 16.
In hydrogen atom, the Balmer series is obtained when the electron jumps from
(A) a higher orbit to the first orbit
(B) the first orbit to a higher orbit
(C) a higher orbit to the second orbit
(D) the second orbit to a higher orbit.
Answer:
(C) a higher orbit to the second orbit

Question 17.
The nuclei having the same number of protons but different number of neutrons are called
(A) isobars
(B) α-particles
(C) isotopes
(D) γ-particles.
Answer:
(C) isotopes

Question 18.
The nuclear volume of \(\begin{aligned}
&8 \\
&4
\end{aligned}\) Be is ………. that of \(\begin{aligned}
&1 \\
&1
\end{aligned}\) H.
(A) equal to
(B) two times
(C) four times
(D) eight times.
Answer:
(D) eight times.

Question 19.
The nuclear radius of the tungsten nuclide 74W is twice that of the sodium nuclide \(\begin{aligned}
&23 \\
&11
\end{aligned}\) Na. The neutron number of the tungsten nuclide is
(A) 82
(B) 100
(C) 110
(D) 184.
Answer:
(C) 110

Question 20.
When a β-particle is emitted by a nucleus, its mass number
(A) decreases
(B) remains the same
(C) increases
(D) may decrease or increase.
Answer:
(B) remains the same

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei

Question 21.
When an α-particle is emitted by a nucleus, its mass number
(A) increases by 4
(B) decreases by 4
(C) increases by 2
(D) decreases by 2.
Answer:
(B) decreases by 4

Question 22.
When a γ-ray photon is emitted by an unstable nucleus,
(A) Z increases
(B) Z decreases
(C) A increases
(D) Z and A remain the same.
Answer:
(D) Z and A remain the same.

Question 23.
In a radioactive transformation, a change in the mass number occurs with
(A) α- or β-decay
(B) β-decay
(C) γ-decay
(D) α-decay.
Answer:
(D) α-decay.

Question 24.
The half-life of radium is 1600 y. How much of 1 μg of radium will remain undistintegrated after 8000 y?
(A) \(\frac{1}{8}\) μg
(B) \(\frac{1}{16}\) μg
(C) \(\frac{1}{32}\) μg
(D) \(\frac{1}{64}\) μg.
Answer:
(C) \(\frac{1}{32}\) μg

Question 25.
In one mean lifetime of a radioactive element, the fraction of the nuclei that has disintegrated is [e is the base of natral logarithm.]
(A) \(\frac{1}{e}\)
(B) 1 – \(\frac{1}{e}\)
(C) e
(D) e – 1.
Answer:
(B) 1 – \(\frac{1}{e}\)

Question 26.
The decay constant of a radioactive element is λ After a time 2λ-1 of the original number of radioactive nuclei about ……………….. remains undecayed.
(A) 37%
(B) 27%
(C) 25%
(D) 13.7%
Answer:
(D) 13.7%

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei

Question 27.
Complete the following fission reaction :
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 15 Structure of Atoms and Nuclei 76
Answer:
(D) \({ }_{35}^{85} \mathrm{Br}+3{ }_{0}^{1} \mathrm{n}\)

Question 28.
The energy generated in the stars is because of
(A) radioactivity
(B) nuclear fission
(C) nuclear fusion
(D) photoelectric phenomenon.
Answer:
(C) nuclear fusion

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 1.
Explain Planck’s idea of quantization of energy.
Answer:
Max Planck, in 1900, put forward the idea of quantization of energy to explain the blackbody radiation spectrum. He proposed that atoms behave as tiny oscillators and emit electromagnetic radiation, not continuously but as little packets of energy called quanta. He assumed that the energy associated with a quantum of radiation (now called a photon) is proportional to the frequency v of the oscillator. Thus, E = nhv, where n = 1, 2, 3, 4, … etc., and h is a universal constant, now called Planck’s constant. For n = 1, E = hv. A quantum of radiation is emitted when there is a transition from a higher quantized level of energy of an oscillator to lower quantized level.

[Note : Historically, various terms have been used to denote a particle of light; quantum of electromagnetic radiation ≡ photon ≡ packet of energy ≡ atom of energy ≡ quantum of radiation ≡ bundle of energy. Interaction between two charged particles involves exchange of photons. The photon has zero rest mass, no charge, unit spin and travels in free space at a speed of 2.99792458 × 108 m/s exact by definition. There is no conservation law for photons, i.e., they can be produced / absorbed.]

Question 2.
What was Hertz’s observation regarding emission of electrons from a metal surface?
Answer:
During his experiments on electromagnetic waves in 1887, Heinrich Rudolph Hertz (1857-94), Ger-man physicist, noticed that electric sparks occurred more readily when one of the electrodes of his spark-gap transmitter was exposed to ultraviolet radiation. This discovery was called the Hertz effect and is now known as the photoelectric effect.

Although Hertz did not follow up his discovery, others quickly established that the cause of the sparking ease was due to emission of negatively charged particles from the electrode irradiated. These particles were identified as electrons after the discovery of the electron in 1897.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 3.
Draw a neat labelled diagram to illustrate photoelectric effect.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 1
[Note : Positive metal ions and atoms are not shown in the figure.]

Question 4.
What were the investigations of Hallwachs and Lenard regarding photoelectric effect?
Answer:
Wilhelm Hallwachs (1859-1922), German physicist, found that a metal plate irradiated with ultraviolet radiation lost its charge more rapidly when the plate is negatively charged than when it is neutral or positive.

Investigations of photoelectric effect by Phillipp Lenard (1862-1947), German physicist, showed that

  1. electron emission occurs only with radiations below a critical wavelength, i.e., above a critical frequency.
  2. kinetic energy of the emitted electrons increases as wavelength decreases i.e., frequency increases but is independent of the intensity of radiation which determines the rate of emission of electrons (the number of electrons emitted per unit time).

Question 5.
What is a photosensitive surface?
Answer:
The surface which emits electrons when illuminated by electromagnetic radiation of appropriate frequency is called photosensitive surface.
[Note : The material that exhibits photoelectric effect is called photosensitive material.]

Question 6.
Why are alkali metals most suitable as photo-sensitive surfaces?
Answer:
The alkali metals e.g., caesium, potassium and sodium emit photoelectrons even when visible radiation (light) is incident on them. Hence, they are most suitable as photosensitive surfaces.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 7.
With a neat diagram, describe the apparatus to study the characteristics of photoelectric effect.
Answer:
Apparatus : A photoelectric cell G consists of the emitting electrode E (emitter) of the material being studied and the collecting electrode C (collector). The electrodes are sealed in an evacuated glass envelope provided with quartz window W that allows the passage of UV radiation and visible light. Monochromatic light of variable frequency from a suitable source S (such as a carbon arc) passes through a pair of polarizers P (permitting a change in the intensity of radiation) and falls on the emitter.

The electric circuit, as shown in below figure, allows the collector potential to be varied from positive through zero to negative with respect to the emitter, and permits the measurement of potential difference and current between the electrodes. When the collector is made negative, the voltmeter is connected in reverse.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 2
[ Note : The radiation coming out of a filter is not truly monochromatic, it lies in the wavelength range between λ and λ + ∆λ that depends on the source and the filter. ]

Question 8.
In the experiment to study photoelectric effect, describe the effects of the frequency and intensity of the incident radiation on the photoelectric current, for a given emitter material and potential difference across the photoelectric cell.
Answer:
The emitter of the photoelectric cell is irradiated with monochromatic light whose frequency and intensity can be varied continuously and measured. Initially, the collector is made positive with respect to the emitter, so that photoelectrons ejected move quickly from the emitter to the collector. About 10 V is sufficient to do this. The photoelectric current as a function of intensity and frequency of incident radiation is studied.

(1) Effect of frequency : Keeping the light intensity and the accelerating potential difference V constant, the frequency of the incident radiation is varied from that of far-UV to red. It is found that for every material (usually, a metal) irradiated there is a limiting frequency below which no photoelectrons are emitted irrespective of the intensity of the radiation. This frequency, v0, called the threshold frequency or cut-off frequency, is a characteristic of the material irradiated.

The graph of photoelectric current against frequency is shown in below figure; A and B represent two different metals. The photoelectric current is not the same in the two cases, because the intensity of light is different for different frequencies.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 3
(2) Effect of intensity : With an emitter of a given material, the light intensity is varied by keeping the frequency v (≥ v0) of the light and the accelerating potential difference V constant. It is found that the rate of electron emission, as indicated by the photoelectric current, is proportional to the light intensity. The graph of photoelectric current against light intensity is a straight line through (0, 0), below figure; if we vary either the frequency of the light or the material irradiated, only the slope of the line changes. No electrons are emitted in the absence of incident radiation.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 4
[Note : The dark current, i.e., the current observed in the absence of light, is extremely low. Hence, it is ignored.]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 9.
In the experiment to study photoelectric effect, describe the variation of the photoelectric current as a function of the potential difference across the photoelectric cell, for incident radiation of (1) a given frequency above the threshold but different intensities (2) a given intensity but different frequencies above the threshold.
Answer:
(1) The potential difference (p.d.) across the photo-electric cell is varied keeping both the frequency v (≥ threshold frequency v0) and the intensity of the light constant. Starting with the collector at about 10 V positive, we reduce this potential to zero and then run it negative.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 5
When the p.d. across the tube is 10 V or more, all the emitted electrons are accelerated and travel across the tube, constituting the saturation current for a given light intensity; an increase in the potential of the collector does not cause an increase in current. As the collector potential is reduced from positive values through zero to negative values, the tube current reduces because of the applied retarding potential. In this case, some electrons stop and turn back before they can reach the collector. Eventually the potential difference is large enough to stop the current completely. This is called the stopping potential or cut-off potential VQ. The product of the stopping potential and electronic charge, V0e, is equal to the maximum kinetic energy that an electron can have at the time of emission.
V0e = KEmax \(\frac{1}{2}\)v2max

In above figure, I1 and I2 are two intensities of the incident radiation for the same frequency v ( > v0); I2 = 2I0. Doubling the intensity of light doubles the current at each potential, as in I2, but V0 is independent of I.

(2) The above experiment is repeated with different light frequencies for a given emitter material and light intensity. It is found that the stopping potential increases linearly with the frequency in below figure. Therefore, when photoejection occurs for frequencies above v0, the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons increases linearly with the frequency of the radiation.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 6
[Note : It was shown by Hughes that the stopping potential depends linearly on the frequency of incident radiation. Lawrence and Beams established that the time interval between arrival of a photon on a metal surface and emission of an electron is less than 3 × 10-9 sc.]

Question 10.
What is the effect of the intensity of incident radiation on the stopping potential in photo-electric emission?
Answer:
V0 is independent of intensity.

Question 11.
In the experiment to study photoelectric effect, discuss the effect and significance of extremely weak radiation of frequency greater than the threshold frequency for the emitter material.
Answer:
The emitter of the photoelectric cell is irradiated with monochromatic light whose frequency is greater than the threshold frequency for the emitter material. The collector is kept at 10 V positive with respect to the emitter, so that photoelectrons ejected move quickly from the emitter to the collector.

The light is made extremely dim (i.e., the intensity is extremely weak). In this case, the number of ‘ photoelectrons emitted per unit time is very small (and special techniques are required to detect them); but, however few, they are emitted almost instantaneously and with the same maximum kinetic energy as for bright light of the same frequency.

According to the wave theory of light, wave trains of pulsating electromagnetic field spread out from the source. Dim light corresponds to waves of small amplitudes and small energy. If dim light spreads over a surface, conservation of energy requires that the electrons must store energy over long periods of time, which can be several hours, before gathering enough energy to become free of the metal. The fact that photoelectrons appear immediately, within about 10-9 s, can be explained only by assuming that the light energy is not spread over the surface uniformly as required by the wave theory, but falls on the surface in concentrated bundles.

Question 12.
Define (1) threshold frequency (2) threshold wavelength (3) stopping potential.
Answer:
(1) The threshold frequency for a given metal surface is the characteristic minimum frequency of the incident radiation below which no photoelectrons are emitted from that metal surface (whatever may be the intensity of incident light).

(2) The threshold wavelength for a given metal surface is the characteristic maximum wavelength of the incident radiation above which no photoelectrons are emitted from that metal surface (whatever may be the intensity of incident light).

(3) The stopping potential is the value of the retarding potential difference that is just sufficient to stop the most energetic photoelectrons emitted from reaching the collector so that the photoelectric current in a photocell reduces to zero.

[Note : The threshold wavelength λ0 = c/v0, where c is the speed of light in free space and v0 is the threshold frequency for the metal.]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 13.
State the characteristics of photoelectric effect.
Answer:
Characteristics of photoelectric effect:
(1) For every metal surface there is a limiting frequency of incident radiation below which no photoelectrons are emitted from that metal surface. This frequency, called the threshold frequency, is characteristic of the metal irradiated.

(2) The time rate of emission of photoelectrons in-creases in direct proportion to the intensity, of incident radiation.

(3) The photoelectrons have different speeds at the time of emission ranging from zero to a certain maximum value, which is characteristic for a given metal for a given frequency of the incident radiation. The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons at the time of emission is independent of the intensity but increases linearly with the frequency of the incident radiation.

(4) For incident radiation of frequency greater than or equal to the threshold frequency for a given metal surface, photoelectric emission from the surface is almost instantaneous, even under extremely weak irradiation.

Question 14.
Can we get photoemission with an intense beam of radio waves ? Is photoemission possible at all frequencies ?
Answer:
The frequency of the incident radiation and not its intensity is the criterion for photoelectric effect. The lowest frequency of electromagnetic waves that can cause photoemission is about 4.6 × 1014 Hz (for the alkali metal caesium). Since radio waves have frequencies 1 GHz or lower, they cannot cause photoemission.

Only alkali metals are photosensitive to visible light; other metals are photosensitive only to far ultraviolet radiations.

Question 15.
Explain how wave theory of light fails to explain the characteristics of photoelectric effect.
OR
Explain the failure of wave theory of light to account for the observations from experiments on photoelectric effect.
Answer:
According to the wave theory of light, electromagnetic waves carry the energy stored in oscillating electric and magnetic fields. When enough energy is absorbed by an electron in a substance, it should be liberated as a photoelectron. Frequency of light does not come into picture in this case. Hence, there should not be any threshold frequency for emission of electrons. But it is found that there exists threshold frequency and it depends on the metal.

Experimentally, the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons increases linearly with the frequency of light. This cannot be accounted by the wave theory of light.

If a source of light is weak or far away from a metal surface, emission of an electron will not be almost instantaneous. The electron may have to wait for several hours/days for absorption of enough energy from the incident light as by the wave theory of light, energy is spread over the wavefront. But experimentally, for an appropriate frequency of incident light, photoelectric effect is almost instantaneous.

Only one observation, photoelectric current ∝ intensity of incident light can be accounted by the wave theory of light.

Question 16.
Give Einstein’s explanation of the photoelectric effect.
Answer:
Max Planck put forward the quantum theory in 1900 to explain blackbody spectrum. In the theory, he proposed that the electromagnetic radiation emitted by the body consists of discrete concentrated bundles of energy, each equal to hv, where h is a universal constant (now called Planck’s constant) and v is the frequency of the radiation.

Einstein put forth (1905) that these energy quanta, called light quanta/later called photons, interact with matter much like a particle. When a photon collides with an electron in an atom, the electron absorbs whole of the photon energy hv in a single collision or nothing. The electron uses this energy (1) to liberate itself from the atom, (2) to overcome the potential energy barrier at the surface thus liberating itself from the metal, and (3) retains the remaining part as its kinetic energy. Different electrons need different energies in the first two processes. There are some electrons which use minimum energy in the two processes, and hence come out of the metal with maximum kinetic energy. The minimum energy required, in the form of electromagnetic radiation, to free an electron from a metal is called the photoelectric work function Φ of that metal. Thus, for the most energetic photoelectrons at the time of emission,
maximum kinetic energy of the electron = photon energy – photoelectric work function
∴ \(\frac{1}{2}\)\(m v_{\max }^{2}\) = hv – Φ ∴ hv = Φ + \(\frac{1}{2}\)\(m v_{\max }^{2}\)
The above equation is called Einstein’s photo-electric equation.

Light interacts with matter as concentrated bundles of energy rather than energy spread over a Huygens type wavefront. Even under weak irradiation, an electron absorbs a photon’s energy in a single collision. But the rate of incident photons in dim light being less, the chances of such absorption diminish and consequently the photoelectric current diminishes. However, a photoelectron is emitted as soon as a photon is absorbed.

[Note : Albert Einstein (1879-1955), German-Swiss- US theoretical physicist, gave his photoelectric equation in 1905. In the period 1912-1916, Robert Andrews Millikan (1868 -1953), US physicist, was the first to obtain the precise experimental data from which the straight-line graphs, like the one shown in Fig. 14.6, were plotted for various metals. Einstein’s theoretically predicted equation-clearly having the right form for a straight-line graph-was thus verified.]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 17.
Define photoelectric work function of a metal.
Answer:
The photoelectric work function of a metal is defined as the minimum photon energy that ejects an electron from the metal.
It is equal to hv0, where h is Planck’s constant and v0 is the threshold frequency for the metal.

Question 18.
Write Einstein’s photoelectric equation and explain its various tends. How does the equation explain the various features of the photoelectric effect?
Answer:
Einstein’s photoelectric equation :
hv = Φ + \(\frac{1}{2}\)\(m v_{\max }^{2}\) ………… (1)
where h ≡ Planck’s constant, v ≡ frequency of the electromagnetic radiation, hv ≡ energy of the photon incident on a metal surface, Φ ≡ photo-electric work function, i.e., the minimum energy of light quantum required to liberate an electron from the metal surface, vmax and – \(\frac{1}{2}\)\(m v_{\max }^{2}\) ≡ the maximum speed and maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons at the time of emission. Φ = hv0, where v0 is the threshold frequency for the metal.

Explanation of the characteristics of photoelectric effect:
(1) From the above equation we find that for photoejection, hv ≥ Φ. That is, hvmin = hv0 must be equal to Φ. Hence, photoelectric effect is observed only if hv ≥ hv0, i.e., v ≥ v0. This shows the existence of a threshold frequency v0 for which photoelectrons are just liberated from a metal surface (with zero kinetic energy). Since different metals differ in electronic configuration, the work function hv0 and, therefore, frequency v0 are different and characteristic of different metals.

(2) In this particle model of light,’ intensity of incident radiation’ stands for the number of photons incident on a metal per unit surface area per unit time. As the number of photons incident on a metal per unit surface area per unit time increases, there is a greater likelihood of a photon being absorbed by any electron. Therefore, the time rate of photoejection and hence photoelectric current increases linearly with the intensity of the incident radiation (v ≥ v0).

(3) From Eq. (1), \(\frac{1}{2}\)\(m v_{\max }^{2}\), = hv – Φ= h(v – v0)
This shows that the maximum kinetic energy in-creases linearly with the frequency v of the incident photon (v ≥ v0) and does not depend on the time rate at which photons are incident on a metal surface.

(4) As the incident energy is concentrated in the form of a photon, and not spread over a wavefront, it is expected that an electron is emitted from the metal surface as soon as a photon (v ≥ v0) is absorbed. This is in agreement with the experimental observation.

[ Note : The frequency v that appears in the formula E = hv is the frequency of the oscillating electric field / magnetic field in the electromagnetic wave. ]

Question 19.
Obtain the dimensions of Planck’s constant.
Answer:
The energy of a photon of frequency v is E = hv, where h is the Planck’s, constant.
∴ [h] = \(\frac{[E]}{[v]}=\frac{\mathrm{ML}^{2} \mathrm{~T}^{-2}}{\mathrm{~T}^{-1}}\) = ML2T-1

Question 20.
Is the kinetic energy of all photoelectrons the same when emitted from a certain metal ? Explain.
Answer:
No. Explanation : Depending upon the position and state of an electron in a metal when it absorbs an incident photon, a photoelectron can have kinetic energy ranging from 0 to a certain maximum value equal to the photon energy minus the work function of the metal. Hence, the emitted photoelectrons have this range of kinetic energies.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 21.
In photoelectric effect, what does the stopping potential depend upon ?
Answer:
In photoelectric effect, the stopping potential depends upon the energy of the incident photon and the work function for the metal irradiated (or upon the frequency/wavelength of the incident radiation and the threshold frequency/wavelength for the metal irradiated).

Question 22.
What does the maximum kinetic energy (or the maximum speed) of a photoelectron depend on?
Answer:
The maximum kinetic energy (or the maximum speed) of a photoelectron depends upon the energy of the incident photon and the work function for the metal irradiated (or upon the frequency /wavelength of the incident radiation and the threshold frequency/wavelength for the metal irradiated).

Question 23.
In photoelectric effect, if a graph of stopping potential versus frequency of the incident radiation is plotted, what does the intercept on the frequency axis (v corresponding to Vo = 0) represent?
Answer:
The intercept on the frequency axis (v corresponding to Vo = 0) represents the threshold frequency for the metal.

Question 24.
State the equation that relates the threshold wavelength (λo), the wavelength of incident radiation (λ) and the maximum speed of a photo-electron (vmax).
Answer:
\(\frac{h c}{\lambda}=\frac{h c}{\lambda_{0}}+\frac{1}{2} m v_{\max }^{2}\) is the required equation, where h is Planck’s constant, c is the speed of light in vacuum (free space) and m is the mass of the electron.

Question 25.
What is the energy of a photon (quantum of radiation) of frequency 6 × 1014 Hz?
[h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s]
Answer:
hv = (6.63 × 10-34)(6 × 1014)
= 3.978 × 10-19 J is the energy of the photon.

Question 26.
If the total energy of a radiation of frequency 1014 Hz is 6.63 J, calculate the number of photons in the radiation.
Answer:
E = nhv, where hv is the energy of a photon in a radiation of frequency v and n is the number of photons in the radiation.
∴ n = \(\frac{E}{h v}=\frac{6.63}{\left(6.63 \times 10^{-34}\right)\left(10^{14}\right)}\) = 1020

Question 27.
If in a photoelectric experiment, the stopping potential is 1.5 volts, what is the maximum kinetic energy of a photoelectron ? [e = 1.6 × 10-19 C]
Answer:
\(\frac{1}{2}\)\(m v_{\max }^{2}\) = Vse = ( 1.5)(1.6 × 10-19)
= 2.4 × 10-19 J is the required kinetic energy.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 28.
What is the photoelectric work function for a metal if the threshold wavelength for the metal is 3.315 × 10-7 m?
[h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s, c = 3 × 108 m/s]
Answer:
Photoelectric work function for the metal =
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 7

Question 29.
Explain the utilization of energy absorbed by an electron in a metal during its collision with a photon.
Answer:
When a photon collides with an atomic electron inside an emitter metal, the electron absorbs whole of the photon energy in a single shot or nothing. The electron uses the absorbed energy (1) to liberate itself from the atom, (2) to overcome the potential energy barrier at the surface thus liberating itself from the metal, and (3) retains the remaining part as its kinetic energy.

30. Solve the following :
(h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s, c = 3 × 108 m/s, e = 1.6 × 10-19 J, m (electron) = 9.1 × 10-31 kg)

Question 1.
Find the energy of a photon if
(i) the frequency of radiation is 100 MHz
(ii) the wavelength of radiation is 10000 Å.
Solution:
Data : h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s, v = 100 MHz = 100 × 106 Hz, λ = 10000 Å = 106 m, c = 3 × 108 m/s
(i) The energy of a photon, E = hv
= (6.63 × 10-34)(100 × 106) = 6.63 × 10-26 J

(ii) The energy of a photon, E = \(\frac{h c}{\lambda}\)
= \(\frac{\left(6.63 \times 10^{-34}\right)\left(3 \times 10^{8}\right)}{10^{-6}}\) = 1.989 × 10-19 J

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 2.
A monochromatic source emits light of wavelength 6000 Å. If the power of the source is 10 W, find the number of photons emitted by it per second assuming that 1% of electric energy is converted into light.
Solution:
Data : λ = 6000 Å = 6 × 10-7 m ,h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s, c = 3 × 108 m/s, electric energy converted into light per second = \(\frac{1}{100}\) × 10W = 0.1J/s
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 8

Question 3.
Radiation of intensity 4 × 10-5 W/m2 is incident uniformly on a metal surface with work function 2.4 eV and area 1 cm2. Assume that the radius of a metal atom is 2.4 Å and photoelectrons are ejected only from the surface of the metal. On the basis of the wave theory of light, how long will it take for an electron to be ejected from the metal surface ? (Assume one free electron/metal atom.)
Solution:
Data : Power/area = 4 × 10-5 W/m2, Φ = 2.4 eV = 2.4 × 1.6 × 10-19 J = 3.84 × 10-19 J, A = 1 cm2 = 10-4 m2, r = 2.4 Å = 2.4 × 10-10 m
Number of metal atoms on the surface = \(\frac{A}{\pi r^{2}}\)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 9
For a single free electron, radiant energy incident per unit time
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 10
Ignoring reflection/scattering of light, time needed to absorb energy equal to 3.84 × 10-19 J is
\(\frac{3.84 \times 10^{-19} \mathrm{~J}}{7.24 \times 10^{-24} \mathrm{~J} / \mathrm{s}}\) = 5.304 × 104 s = 53040s
= 14 hours 44 minutes.

Question 4.
The energy of a photon is 2 eV. Find its frequency and wavelength.
Solution:
Data : E = 2 eV = 2 × 1.6 × 10-19 J, c = 3 × 108 m/s, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s
(i) Frequency,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 11
= 6.217 × 10-7 = 6.217 × 10-7 × 1010 Å
= 6217 Å = 621.7 nm

Question 5.
Find the wave number of a photon having an energy of 2.072 eV. [Given : e, c, h]
Solution:
Data : e = 1.6 × 10-19 C, c = 3 × 108 m / s, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s,
E = 2.072 eV = 2.072 × 1.6 × 10-19 J
E = hv = \(\frac{h c}{\lambda}\)
Wave number, \(\frac{1}{\lambda}=\frac{E}{h c}\)
= \(\frac{2.072 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}{\left(6.63 \times 10^{-34}\right)\left(3 \times 10^{8}\right)}\) = 1.666 × 106 m-1

Question 6.
Calculate the energy of a photon, in joule and eV, in a light of wavelength 5000 Å.
Solution :
Data : λ = 5000 Å = 5000 × 10-10 m = 5 × 10-7 m, c = 3 × 108 m/s, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s
Energy of a photon, E = hv = \(\frac{h c}{\lambda}\)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 12

Question 7.
The photoelectric work function for a metal surface is 2.3 eV. 1f the light of wavelength 6800 Å is incident on the surface of the metal, find the threshold frequency and the incident frequency. Will there be an emission of photoelectrons or not? [Given : c, h]
Solution:
Data: c = 3 × 108 m/s, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J.s, Φ = 2.3 eV = 2.3 × 1.6 × 10-19 J, λ = 6800 Å = 6.8 × 10-7 m
(i) Threshold frequency (v0) : Φ = hv0
∴ v0 = \(\frac{\phi}{h}=\frac{2.3 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}\) = 5.550 × 1014 Hz

(ii) Incident frequency (v) : c = vλ
∴ v = \(\frac{c}{\lambda}=\frac{3 \times 10^{8}}{6.8 \times 10^{-7}}\) = 4.412 × 1014 Hz

(iii) Thus, v <v0
As the frequency of the incident orange light is less than the threshold frequency there will be no emission of photoelectrons.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 8.
If the work function of a metal is 3 eV, calculate the threshold wavelength of that metal. [Given : c, h, 1 eV = 1.6 × 10-19 J]
Solution:
Data : Φ = 3 eV, c = 3 × 108 m/s, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J.s, 1 eV = 1.6 × 10-19 J
∴ Φ = 3 × 1.6 × 10-19 J
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 13

Question 9.
The photoelectric work function of copper is 4.7 eV. What are the threshold frequency and wavelength for photoemission from a copper surface? [1 eV = 1.6 × 10-19 J]
Solution :
Data : Φ = 4.7 eV, 1 eV = 1.6 × 10-19 J, c = 3 × 108 m/s, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J.s
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 14

Question 10.
The work functions for potassium and caesium are 2.25 eV and 2.14 eV respectively. Will the photoelectric effect occur for either of these elements
(i) with incident light of wavelength 5650 Å
(ii) with light of wavelength 5180 Å?
Solution:
Data : Φ (potassium) = 2.25 eV,
Φ (caesium) = 2.14 eV, λ1 = 5650 Å = 5.650 × 10-7 m, λ2 = 5180 Å = 5.180 × 10-7 m, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J.s, c = 3 × 108 m/s
Φ (potassium) = 2.25 eV
= 2.25 × 1.6 × 10-19 J =3.6 × 10-19 J
Φ (caesium) = 2.14 eV = 2.14 × 1.6 × 10-19 J
= 3.424 × 10-19 J
Photon energy, E = \(\frac{h c}{\lambda}\)

(i) For λ1 = 5650 Å
E1 = \(\frac{h c}{\lambda_{1}}=\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^{8}}{5.650 \times 10^{-7}}\)
= 3.52 × 10-19 J
This is greater than Φ (caesium), but less than Φ (potassium). Hence, photoelectric effect will occur in case of caesium, but not in case of potassium.

(ii) For λ2 = 5180 Å
E2 = \(\frac{h c}{\lambda_{2}}=\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^{8}}{5.180 \times 10^{-7}}\)
= 3.84 × 10-19 J
This is greater than 0 for potassium and for caesium. Hence, photoelectric effect will occur in both the cases.

Question 11.
Photoemission just occurs from a lead surface when radiation of wavelength 3000 Å is incident on it. Find the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons when the surface is irradiated by UV radiation of wavelength 2500 Å.
Solution:
Data : λ0 = 3000 Å = 3 × 10-7 m, λ = 2500 Å = 2.5 × 10-7 m, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s,c = 3 × 108 m/s
According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation, the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 15

Question 12.
The photoelectric work function for a metal is 4.2 eV. If the stopping potential is 3 V, find the threshold wavelength and the maximum kinetic energy of emitted electrons. [Given : c, h, e]
Solution :
Data : e = 1.6 × 10-19 C, c = 3 × 108 m/s, Φ = 4.2 eV = 4.2 × 1.6 × 10-19 J = 6.72 × 10-19 J, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s, v0 = 3 V
(i) Threshold wavelength.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 16
= 2.960 × 10-7 m or 2960 Å

(ii) Maximum kinetic energy of emitted electrons,
KEmax = eV0 = (1.6 × 10-19)(3) = 4.8 × 10-19 J

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 13.
Radiation of wavelength 2 × 10-7 m is incident on the cathode of a photocell. The current in the photocell is reduced to zero by a stopping potential of 2 V. Find the threshold wavelength for the cathode.
Solution:
Data : λ = 2 × 10-19 m, V0 = 2 V, e = 1.6 × 10-19 C, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s, c = 3 × 108 m/s
According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 17
∴ The threshold wavelength, λ0 = 2.948 × 10-7 m

Question 14.
The photoelectric current in a photoelectric cell can be reduced to zero by a stopping potential of 1.8 volts. Monochromatic light of wavelength 2200 Å is incident on the cathode. Find the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons in joule. [Charge on the electron = 1.6 × 10-19 C]
Solution:
Data: V0 = 1.8 V, e = 1.6 × 10-7 C .
The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons,
KEmax = eV0
= (1.6 × 10-19) (1.8) = 2.88 × 10-19 J

Question 15.
The photoelectric work function of a metal is 3 eV. Find the maximum kinetic energy and maximum speed of photoelectrons when radiation of wavelength 4000 Å is incident on the metal surface.
Solution:
Data : Φ = 3 eV = 3 × 1.6 × 10-19 J, c = 3 × 108 m / s, λ = 4000 Å = 4000 × 10-10 m, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s, m = 9.1 × 10-31 kg
(i) According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation, the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 18
= 1.725 × 10-20 J

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 19
= 1.947 × 105 m/s

Question 16.
The work function of tungsten is 4.50 eV. Calculate the speed of the fastest electron ejected from tungsten surface when light whose photon energy is 5.80eV shines on the surface.
Solution:
Data : Φ = 4.50 eV = 4.50 × 1.6 × 10-19 J = 7.2 × 10-19 J,
hv = 5.80eV = 5.80 × 1.6 × 10-19 J = 9.28 × 10-19 J,
m = 9.1 × 10-31 kg
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 20
This is the speed of the fastest electron ejected.

Question 17.
If the work function for a certain metal is 1.8 eV,
(i) what is the stopping potential for electrons ejected from the metal when light of 4000 Å shines on the metal
(ii) what is the maximum speed of the ejected electrons?
Solution:
Data: Φ = 1.8eV, λ = 4000 Å = 4 × 10-7 m,
h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s, c = 3 × 108 m/s,
m = 9.1 × 10-31 kg, e = 1.6 × 10-19 C
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 21
This is the maximum speed of the ejected electrons.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 18.
The work function of caesium is 2.14 eV. Find
(i) the threshold frequency for caesium
(ii) the wavelength of the incident light if photocurrent is brought to zero by a stopping potential of 0.60 V.
Solution:
Data : Φ = 2.14eV = 2.14 × 1.6 × 10-19 J = 3.424 × 10-19 J, VO = 0.60 V,h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s, c = 3 × 108 m/s, e = 1.6 × 10-19C
(i) Φ = hv0
∴ The threshold frequency, v0 = \(\frac{\phi}{h}\)
= \(\frac{3.424 \times 10^{-19}}{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}\) = 5.164 × 1014 Hz

(ii) VOe = 0.6 × 1.6 × 10-19 = 0.96 × 10-19 J
\(\frac{h c}{\lambda}\) – Φ = VOe ∴ \(\frac{h c}{\lambda}\) = Φ + VOe
∴ λ = \(\frac{h c}{\phi+V_{\mathrm{O}} e}\)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 22
This is the required wavelength of the incident light.

Question 19.
The threshold wavelength for photoemission from silver is 3800 Å. Calculate the maximum kinetic energy in eV of photoelectrons emitted when ultraviolet radiation of wavelength 2600 Å falls on it. Also calculate the corresponding stop-ping potential. [1 eV = 1.6 × 10-19 J]
Solution:
Data : λ0 = 3800 A = 3.8 × 10-7 m,
λ = 2600 Å = 2.6 × 10-7 m, c = 3 × 108 m/s, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s, 1 eV = 1.6 × 10-19 J
(i) According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation, the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 23

Question 20.
When a surface is irradiated with light of wavelength 4950 Å, a photocurrent appears. The current vanishes if a retarding potential greater than 0.6 V is applied across the phototube. When a different source of light is used, it is found that the critical retarding potential is 1.1 V. Find the work function of the emitting surface and the wavelength of light from the second source.
Solution :
Data : λ1 = 4.95 × 10-7 m, VO1 = 0.6 V, VO2 = 1.1 V, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s, c = 3 × 108 m/s, e = 1.6 × 10-19 C
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 24
∴ The wavelength of light from the second source,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 25

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 21.
The work function for the surface of aluminium is 4.2 eV. What potential difference will be required to stop the most energetic electrons emitted by light of wavelength 2000 Å? What should be the wavelength of the incident light for which the stopping potential is zero?
Solution:
Data: Φ = 4.2eV, λ1 = 2 × 10-7 m,VO2 = 0,
h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s, c = 3 × 108 m/s, e = 1.6 × 10-19 C
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 26

Question 22.
Radiation of wavelength 3000 Å falls on a metal surface having work function 2.3 eV. Calculate the maximum speed of ejected electrons.
Solution:
Data : λ = 3000 Å = 3 × 10-7 m, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s, Φ = 2.3 eV = 2.3 × 1.6 × 10-19 J, c = 3 × 108 m/s, m = 9.1 × 10-31 kg
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 27

Question 23.
If the total energy of radiation of frequency 1014 Hz is 6.63 J, calculate the number of photons in the radiation. [Planck’s constant = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s]
Solution:
Data: v = 1014 Hz, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s
The energy of a photon in a radiation of frequency v is hv.
∴ E = nhv,
so that the number of photons in the radiation is
n = \(\frac{E}{h v}\)
= \(\frac{6.63}{\left(6.63 \times 10^{-34}\right)\left(10^{14}\right)}\) = 1020

Question 31.
Explain wave-particle duality of electromagnetic radiation.
Answer:
A particle is an object with a definite position in space at a given instant and having mass (or momentum), while a wave is a periodically repeated pattern in space and time, generally described by its velocity of propagation, wavelength and amplitude. It is a characteristic of a wave that it is not localized, i.e., it is spread over a region. Thus, these two concepts are contradictory and classical physics treats particles and waves as separate.

Under suitable circumstances, light and all other types of electromagnetic radiation exhibit typical ‘ wave phenomena like polarization, interference and diffraction. On the other hand, radiation exhibits a particle-like nature when it interacts with matter, as in the photoelectric effect and the Compton effect (scattering of X-rays by electrons in matter). It is emitted or absorbed only in terms of quanta of energy. This is the concept of photon : a particle with energy E = hv, where v is the frequency of the radiation and Planck’s constant h connects v and E, respectively the wave and particle aspects.

We see, therefore, that radiation exhibits a dual character. The synthesis of these two contradictory descriptions is called wave-particle duality of electromagnetic radiation.
[Notes : (1) Arthur Holly Compton (1892-1962), US physicist, discovered the effect, now known as the Compton effect, in 1923. (2) Planck’s constant h is also called the elementary quantum of action. Like e and c, it is one of the fundamental constants of nature.]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 32.
What is Compton effect? State the formula for the Compton shift and obtain its maximum value.
Answer:
When a high energy X-ray photon or γ-ray photon is scattered by an electron that is (almost) free, the photon loses energy and the electron gains energy shown in figure. This effect was discovered by A.H. Compton in 1923. It is now known as the Compton effect. This effect exhibits particle nature of electro-magnetic radiation.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 28
If X is the wavelength of the incident photon, λ is the wavelength of the scattered photon, θ is the angle through which the photon is scattered, m0 is the rest mass of an electron, c is the speed of light in free space and h is Plank’s constant, then, the wavelength shift, called the Compton shift is given by
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 29
[Note : In a collision between a low energy photon and a high energy electron, scattering results in loss in the energy of the electron and gain in the energy of the photon. This effect is known as the inverse Compton effect.]

Question 33.
What is the implication of Einstein’s interpretation of the photoelectric effect?
OR
What is the significance of the photoelectric effect?
Answer:
The phenomena of interference and polarization exhibit the wave nature of light, and James Clerk Maxwell (1831 – 79), British physicist, had established by 1865 that light is, and propagates as, an electromagnetic wave.

In his interpretation of the photoelectric effect in 1905, Einstein proposed that electromagnetic radiation behaves as a series of small packets or quanta of energy, later called photons. If the frequency of radiation is v, each photon has energy hv and momentum hv/c, where c is the speed of light in free space. Einstein’s photoelectric equation was verified experimentally by Robert Andrews Millikan (1868-1953), US physicist, in 1916.

A very strong additional evidence in support of the quantum theory of radiation was the discovery (in 1923) and explanation of the inelastic scattering of X-rays or γ-rays by electrons in matter by Arthur Holly Compton (1892-1962), US physicist. This inelastic scattering in which a photon transfers part of its energy to an electron is known as the Compton effect. It is similar to the Raman effect. The Compton effect shows particle nature of electro-magnetic radiation.

Since energy and momentum are considered in classical physics as characteristic properties of particles, the photoelectric effect and Compton effect exhibit the particle nature of radiation. But, to describe the photon energy, the quantum theory needs the frequency of the radiation, which is necessarily an attribute associated with a wave in classical physics. Thus, radiation exhibits the dual, seemingly contradictory, characters of particle and wave. In an experiment, we need to use only one of the descriptions, not both at the same time.

[Note : The momentum p and energy £ of a photon are related by the equation, p = E/c, where c is the speed of light in free space.]

Question 34.
Give a brief summary of the quantum theory of radiation.
OR
What is the photon picture of electromagnetic radiation?
Answer:
Quantum theory of radiation (The photon picture of electromagnetic radiation) :
(1) In its interaction with matter, electromagnetic radiation behaves as particles or quanta of energy. A quantum of energy is called a photon.

(2) If the frequency of radiation is v, irrespective of the intensity of radiation, each photon has energy hv and momentum hv/c, where c is the speed of light in free space.

(3) Intensity of radiation corresponds to the number of photons incident per unit time per unit surface area.

(4) Photons are electrically neutral and have zero rest mass.

(5) A photonRarticle collision (such as a photon-electron collision) obeys (he principles of conservation of energy arid momentum. However, in such a collision, an incident photon may be absorbed and/or a new photon may be created, so that the number of photons may not be conserved. For example, a γ-ray photon of energy greater than 1.02 MeV can produce an electron-positron pair in the presence of a heavy nucleus such as lead. In this case, the photon disappears and two particles (electron and positron) are produced. The total energy and momentum are conserved.

[Note: Photons have unit spin. Photons are influenced by gravitational field. A gravitational field can change the path and/or frequency/wavelength of a photon. Even after more than a century of its introduction, the concept of photon is not fully understood.]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 35.
What is the momentum of a photon of energy 3 × 10-19 J? [c = 3 × 108 m/s]
Answer:
Momentum of a photon = \(\frac{E}{c}=\frac{3 \times 10^{-19}}{3 \times 10^{8}}\)
= 10-27 kg∙m/s .

Question 36.
What is the momentum of a photon of wave length 3.315 × 10-7 m? [h = 6.63 × 10-34J∙s]
Answer:
Momentum of a photon \(\frac{h}{\lambda}=\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}{3.315 \times 10^{-7}}\)
= 2 × 10-27 kg∙m/s .

37. Solve the following :

Question 1.
Find the momentum of a photon if the wavelength of the radiation is 6630 Å.
Solution:
Data : λ = 6.63 × 10-7 m, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s
Energy of a photon, E = hv
c = λv
The momentum of a photon,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 30

Question 2.
Find the momentum of a photon of energy 3 eV.
Solution :
Data : e = 1.602 × 10-19 C,
E = 3 eV = 3 × 1.6 × 10-19 J, c = 3 × 108 m/s
The momentum of the photon,
p = \(\frac{E}{c}=\frac{3 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}{3 \times 10^{8}}\) = 1.6 × 10-27 kg∙m/s

Question 3.
Find the energy of a photon with momentum 2 × 10-27 kg∙m/s.
Solution :
Data : p = 2 × 10-27 kg∙m/s
The energy of the photon,
E = pc = (2 × 10-27)(3 × 108) = 6 × 10-19 J
= \(\frac{6 \times 10^{-19}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\) eV = 3.75 eV

Question 38.
What is a photocell or photoelectric cell?
Describe its construction and working with a neat labelled diagram.
Answer:
A photocell or photoelectric cell is a device in which light energy is converted into electrical energy by photoelectric effect.

Construction : One form of the photoelectric cell shown in figure consists of a highly evacuated or gas-filled glass tube, an emitter (cathode) and a collector (anode). The light enters through a quartz window W and falls on the semicylindrical cathode C coated with a photosensitive metal. The anode is in the form of a straight wire of platinum or nickel, coaxial with the cathode.

If the cell is required to respond to the visible part of the spectrum, the cathode is coated with potassium or rubidium and the quartz window is replaced by glass. If the UV radiation only is to be used, cadmium is used as the sensitive surface. The cell is either highly evacuated (for accurate photometry) or filled with an inert gas at low pressure (if a larger current is desired).
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 31
Working : A photocell is connected in series with a battery and a variable resistance. The collector is kept at a positive potential with respect to the emitter. When UV radiation or visible light of frequency greater than the threshold frequency for the emitter surface is incident on the emitter, the ejected photoelectrons are focused by the cylindrical emitter (cathode) towards the collector (anode).

The photoelectrons collected by the collector constitute a photocurrent which may be measured by a microammeter in series with the photocell, as in an exposure meter or lux meter. Otherwise, the photocurrent is used to operate a relay circuit as in an alarm, or to drive the coils of a speaker as in reading an optical sound track in a cine film. The photocurrent becomes zero when the incident light is cut off.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 39.
State any four applications of a photoelectric cell.
OR
Explain any two applications of photoelectric effect.
Answer:
Applications of a photoelectric cell :
(1) In an exposure meter used for photography: A photographic film must be exposed to correct amount of light which, for a given film speed and lens aperture, depends on the exposure time. An exposure meter consists of a photocell, battery and microammeter connected in series. When the meter is directed towards an object, light reflected by the object enters the photocell and the photocurrent is directly proportional to the intensity of this light.
Usually, the microammeter scale is calibrated to read the exposure time directly.

(2) As a lux meter : A lux meter is used to measure the illumination and is similar in working to an exposure meter, except that the scale is calibrated to read the illumination in lux.

(3) In a burglar alarm as a ‘normally closed’ light- activated switch : It consists of a photocell, battery, relay system and a small directed light source. The radiation from the source falls on the photocell. If the light beam is interrupted by an intruder, the photoelectric current stops. This activates the relay system which sets off an alarm.

(4) In an optical reader of sound track in a cine film : The sound track of a cine film is recorded on one side of the positive film that is run in a cinema hall. The track consists of a dark wavy patch modulated by the recorded sound. Light from the projector lamp also passes through the sound track and falls on a photocell behind. The photocurrent is proportional to the transmitted light intensity and changes according to the recorded sound wave. The photocurrent is amplified and is used to drive the loudspeaker.

(5) A photocell can be used to switch on or off street lights.

Question 40.
Name any two instruments in which photo-electric effect is used.
Answer:
Exposure meter used in photography and lux meter.

Question 41.
State the de Broglie hypothesis and the de Broglie equation.
Answer:
De Broglie hypothesis : Louis de Broglie (1892-1987), French physicist, proposed (in 1924) that the wave-particle duality may not be unique to light but a universal characteristic of nature, so that a particle of matter in motion also has a wave or periodicity associated with it which becomes evident when the magnitude of Planck’s constant h cannot be ignored.

De Broglie equation : A particle of mass m moving with a speed v should under suitable experimental conditions exhibit the characteristics of a wave of wavelength
λ = \(\frac{h}{m v}=\frac{h}{p}\)
where p = mv = momentum of the particle.
The relation λ = h/p is called the de Broglie equation, and the wavelength λ associated with a particle momentum is called its de Broglie wavelength. The corresponding waves are termed as matter waves or de Broglie waves or Schrodinger waves.

[Note: This hypothesis was revolutionary at that time and accepted by others because Einstein supported it. Erwin Schrodinger (1887-1961), Austrian physicist, formulated a wave equation for matter waves.]

Question 42.
Explain the concept of de Broglie waves or matter waves.
Answer:
According to de Broglie, a particle of mass m moving with a speed v should, under suitable experimental conditions, exhibit the characteristics of a wave of wavelength
λ = \(\frac{h}{m v}=\frac{h}{p}\) … ………. (1)
where p = mv ≡ momentum of the particle and h is Planck’s constant.

This dual character of matter contained in Eq. (1) is usually referred to as the wave nature of matter or matter waves. They are a set of waves that represent the behaviour of particles under appropriate conditions. It does not, however, mean that the particles themselves are oscillating in space.

Interpretation of matter waves by Max Born (1882-1970), German bom British physicist, is that they are waves of probability, since the square of their amplitude at a given point is linked to the likelihood of finding the particle there. Hence, the wavelength λ may be regarded as a measure of the degree to which the energy is localized. If λ is exceedingly small, the energy is very localized and the particle character of the object is dominant. On the other hand, if λ is very large, the energy is distributed over a large volume; under these circumstances, the wave behaviour is dominant.

The wave nature of material particles such as the electron, neutron and helium atom has been established experimentally beyond doubt.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 43.
Derive an expression for the de Broglie wavelength associated with an electron accelerated from rest through a potential difference V. Consider the nonrelativistic case.
Answer:
Consider an electron accelerated from rest through a potential difference V. Let v be the final speed of the electron. We consider the nonrelativistic case, v << c, where c is the speed of light in free space. The kinetic energy acquired by the electron is
\(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2 = \(\frac{1}{2m}\) (mv)2 = eV ………. (1)
where e and m are the electronic charge and mass (nonrelativistic).

Therefore, the electron momentum,
p = mv = \(\sqrt{2 m e V}\) ………… (2)
The de Broglie wavelength associated with the electron is
λ = \(\frac{h}{p}\) ………….. (3)
where h is Planck’s constant.
From Eqs. (2) and (3),
λ = \(\frac{h}{\sqrt{2 m e V}}\)
Equation (4) gives the required expression.
[Note : Substituting the values of h = 6.63 × 10-34 J-s, m = 9.1 × 10-31 kg, e = 1.6 × 10-19 C in Eq. (4), we obtain λ = \(\sqrt{150 / V}\) × 10-10 m = \(\sqrt{150 / V}\) Å = \(12.25 / \sqrt{V}\) Å, where V is in volt. Therefore, electrons accelerated from rest through 150 volts have a de Broglie wavelength of 1 Å. This corresponds to the X-ray region of the electromagnetic spectrum.]

Question 44.
Derive an expression for the de Broglie wavelength.
Answer:
For the particle-like aspects of electromagnetic radiation, we consider radiation to consist of particles whose motion is governed by the wave propagation properties of certain associated waves.

To determine the wavelength of such waves, consider a beam of electromagnetic radiation of frequency v whose quanta have energy E.
E = hv
where h is the Planck constant.
For a quantum of radiation of momentum p, by Einstein’s theory,
E = pc
where c is the speed of propagation of the radiation in free space.
∴ pc = hv
∴ p\(\frac{c}{v}\) = h
The wavelength X of the associated wave governing the motion of the quanta is given by the relation
λ = c/v.
∴ pλ = h ∴ λ = \(\frac{h}{p}\)
V ’
This is the required expression.

Question 45.
What is the de Broglie wavelength associated with a particle having momentum 10-26 kg∙m/s? [h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s]
Answer:
The de Broglie wavelength associated with the particle,
λ = \(\frac{h}{p}=\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}{10^{-26}}\) = 6.63 × 10-8 m

Question 46.
With a neat labelled diagram, describe the Davisson and Germer experiment in support of the concept of matter waves.
Answer:
Davisson and Germer experiment (1927) :
The experimental arrangement, as shown in below figure, consists of an electron gun, a crystal holder and an electron detector enclosed in a vacuum chamber. In the electron gun, electrons emitted by a heated metallic filament (cathode) are accelerated by a potential difference V between the cathode and the anode, and emerge through a small hole in the anode. The electron gun directs a narrow collimated beam of electrons at a nickel crystal. Scattered electrons are detected by a movable detector.

The angle Φ between the incident and scattered beams is the scattering angle. Polar graphs of the number of scattered electrons as a function of angle Φ are plotted for different values of the accelerating voltage.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 32
It is found that the electrons are scattered at a certain angle more than at others. Also, the number of scattered electrons in this direction is maximum for a certain kinetic energy of the incident electrons.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 33
The detector registered a maximum at a scattering angle Φ = 50° for V = 54 V from figure. This electron diffraction can be understood only on the basis of de Broglie’s matter wave model. The de Broglie wavelength of the electrons accelerated from rest through a p.d. of 54 V is λ = \(\sqrt{150 / 54}\) Å = 1.67 Å
The wavelength calculated from the diffraction effect is 1.65 Å, nearly 1.67 Å.
[ Note : Clinton Joseph Davisson (1881 -1958), US physicist. Lester Halbert Germer (1896-1971), US physicist.]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

47. Solve the following

Question 1.
(2) Find the momentum of the electron having de Brogue wavelength of 0.5 Å.
Solution:
Data: λ = 0.5Å = 5 × 10-11 m, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s
The momentum of the electron, .
p = \(\frac{h}{\lambda}=\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}{5 \times 10^{-11}}\) = 1.326 × 10-23 kg∙m/s

Question 2.
A cracker of mass M at rest explodes in two parts of masses m1 and m2 with non-zero velocities. Find the ratio of the de Broglie wavelengths of the two particles.
Solution:
The cracker has zero momentum before explosion. By the principle of conservation of momentum, after the explosion,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 34

Question 3.
Calculate the de Brogue wavelength of a proton if it is moving with the speed of 2 × 105 m/s. [mp = 1.673 × 10-27 kg]
Solution:
Data: mp = 1673 × 10-27 kg, v = 2 × 105 m/s, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s
De Brogue wavelength, λ = \(\frac{h}{p}=\frac{h}{m v}\)
∴ λ = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}{\left(1.673 \times 10^{-27}\right)\left(2 \times 10^{5}\right)}\)
= 1.981 × 10-12 m

Question 4.
Calculate the de Brogue wavelength of an electron moving with \(\frac{1}{300}\) of the speed of light in vacuum. [Take m (electron) = 9.11 × 10-28 g]
Solution:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 35

Question 5.
Find the de Broglie wavelength of a dust particle of radius 1 μm and density 2.5 g/cm3 drifting at 2.2 m/s. (Take π = 3.14)
Solution:
Data : r = 1 μm = 10-6 m, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s, ρ = 2.5 g/cm3 = 2.5 × 103 kg/m3, v = 2.2 m/s,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 36

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 6.
Find the de Broglie wavelength associated with a car (mass = 1000 kg) moving at 20 m/s.
Solution:
Data : m = 1000 kg, v = 20 m/s,h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s
The de Broglie wavelength,
λ = \(\frac{h}{p}=\frac{h}{m v}=\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}{(1000)(20)}\) = 3.315 × 10-38 m

Question 7.
What is the de Broglie wavelength of an electron accelerated from rest through 25000 volts ?
Solution:
Data: V = 25 × 103 V, e = 1.6 × 10-19 C, me = 9.11 × 10-31 kg, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s
Kinetic energy of the electron,
E = eV
=(1.6 × 10-19)(25 × 103 V)
=4 × 10-15 j
The momentum of the electron,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 37
I Note : Here, the kinetic energy of the electron, 25 keV, is far less than the electron’s rest mass energy (m0c2) which is about 0.51 MeV. Hence, it is a nonrelativistic case.]

Question 8.
Find the de Broglie wavelength of a proton accelerated from rest by a potential difference of 50 V. [mp = 1.673 × 10-27 kg]
Solution:
Data : mp = 1.673 × 10-27 kg, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s, KE = 50 eV = 50 × 1.6 × 10-19 J = 8 × 10-18 J
The kinetic energy of the proton,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 38
= 4.053 × 10-12 m = 0.04053 A

Question 9.
A moving electron and a photon have the same de Brogue wavelength. Show that the electron possesses more energy than that carried by the photon.
Solution:
The de Brogue wavelength, λ = \(\frac{h}{p}\)
If an electron and a photon have the same de Brogue wavelength, they must have the same momentum, p.
For the photon, Ep = hv = \(\frac{h c}{\lambda}=\left(\frac{h}{\lambda}\right) c\) = pc … (1)
For the electron, mass m = \(\frac{m_{0}}{\sqrt{1-v^{2} / c^{2}}}\)
where m0 is the rest mass of the electron and y is its speed.
∴ \(m^{2}\left(\frac{c^{2}-v^{2}}{c^{2}}\right)=m_{0}^{2}\)
∴ m2c4 – m2v2c2 = \(m_{0}^{2} c^{4}\)
∴ (m2c4 = (m0c2)2 + p2c2 (where p = mv)
∴ \(E_{\mathrm{e}}^{2}\) = (m0c2)2 + p2c2
where Ee = mc2 = m0c2 + K is the total energy of the electron, m0c2 being he rest mass energy and K, the kinetic energy.
∴ Ee = \(\sqrt{\left(m_{0} c^{2}\right)^{2}+p^{2} c^{2}}\) …………. (2)
From Eqs. (1) and (2), we have Ee > Ep.
[Note : The result m = \(\frac{m_{0}}{\sqrt{1-v^{2} / c^{2}}}\) was obtained by Einstein in 1905.]

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
The energy of a photon of wavelength λ is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 39
Answer:
(D) \(\frac{h c}{\lambda}\)

Question 2.
The number of photoelectrons emitted
(A) varies inversely with the frequency of radiation
(B) varies directly with the frequency of radiation
(C) varies inversely with the intensity of radiation
(D) varies directly with the intensity of radiation.
Answer:
(D) varies directly with the intensity of radiation.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 3.
A metal emits no electrons if the incident light energy falls below certain threshold. For photo-emission, you would decrease
(A) the intensity of light
(B) the frequency of light
(C) the wavelength of light
(D) the collector potential.
Answer:
(C) the wavelength of light

Question 4.
When light of wavelength 5000 Å falls on a metal surface whose photoelectric work function is 1.9 eV, the kinetic energy of the most energetic photoelectrons is
(A) 0.59 eV
(B) 1.39 eV
(C)1.59eV
(D)2.59eV.
Answer:
(A) 0.59 eV

Question 5.
The threshold wavelengths for photoemission of two metals A and B are 300 nm and 600 nm, respectively. The ratio ΦAB of their photoelectric work functions is
(A) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
(B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
(C) 2
(D) 4.
Answer:
(C) 2

Question 6.
The photoelectric threshold wavelength of a certain metal is 3315 Å. Its work function is
(A) 6 × 10-19 J
(B) 7.286 × 10-19 J
(C) 9 × 10-19 J
(D) 9.945 × 10-19 J.
Answer:
(A) 6 × 10-19 J

Question 7.
The photoelectric work function of a certain metal is 2.5 eV. If the metal is separately irradiated with photons of energy 3 eV and 4.5 eV, the ratio of the respective stopping potentials is
(A) 1
(B) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
(C) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
(D) \(\frac{1}{5}\)
Answer:
(B) \(\frac{2}{3}\)

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 8.
Sodium and copper have photoelectric work functions 2.3 eV and 4.7 eV, respectively. The ratio λ0NaoCu 0f the threshold wavelengths for photoemission is about
(A) 1 : 4
(B) 1 : 2
(C) 2 : 1
(D) 4 : 1.
Answer:
(C) 2 : 1

Question 9.
When light of wavelength A falls on the cathode of a photocell, the kinetic energy of the most energetic photoelectrons emitted is £. If light of wavelength λ/2 is used, what can be said about the new value E’?
(A) E’ = E/2
(B) E’ = E
(C) E’ = 2E
(D) E’ > 2E.
Answer:
(D) E’ > 2E.

Question 10.
Electrons are ejected from a metallic surface when light with a wavelength of 6250 Å is used. If light of wavelength 4500 Å is used instead,
(A) there may not be any photoemission
(B) the photoelectric current will increase
(C) the stopping potential will increase
(D) the stopping potential will decrease.
Answer:
(C) the stopping potential will increase

Question 11.
UV radiation of energy 6.2 eV falls on molybdenum surface whose photoelectric work function is 4.2 eV. The kinetic energy of the fastest photoelectrons is
(A) 3.2 × 10-19 J
(B) 3.52 × 10-19 J
(C) 6.72 × 10-19 J
(D) 9.92 × 10-19 J.
Answer:
(A) 3.2 × 10-19 J

Question 12.
In a photocell, increasing the intensity of light increases
(A) the stopping potential
(B) the photoelectric current
(C) the energy of the incident photons
(D) the maximum kinetic energy of the photo-electrons.
Answer:
(B) the photoelectric current

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 13.
In a photocell, doubling the intensity of the incident light (v > v0) doubles the
(A) stopping potential
(B) threshold frequency
(C) saturation current
(D) threshold wavelength.
Answer:
(C) saturation current

Question 14.
In the usual notation, the momentum of a photon is
(A) hvc
(B) \(\frac{h v}{c}\)
(C) \(\frac{h \lambda}{c}\)
(D) hλc.
Answer:
(B) \(\frac{h v}{c}\)

Question 15.
The momentum of a photon with λ = 3315 Å is
(A) 2 × 10-27 kg∙m/s
(B) 5 × 10-27 kg∙m/s
(C) 2 × 10-41 kg∙m/s
(D) 5 × 10-41 kg∙m/s.
Answer:
(A) 2 × 10-27 kg∙m/s

Question 16.
Let p and E denote the linear momentum and energy of emitted photon, respectively. If the wavelength of incident radiation is increased,
(A) both p and E decrease
(B) p increases and E decreases
(C) p decreases and E increases
(D) both p and E decrease.
Answer:
(C) p decreases and E increases

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 17.
When radiations of wavelength λ1 and λ2 are incident on a certain photosensitive material, the energies of electron ejected are E1 and E2 respectively, such that E1 > E2. Then, Planck’s constant h is [c = speed of light]
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 40
Answer:
(C) \(\frac{\left(E_{1}-E_{2}\right) \lambda_{1} \cdot \lambda_{2}}{c\left(\lambda_{2}-\lambda_{1}\right)}\)

Question 18.
If the frequency of incident light falling on a photosensitive material is doubled, then the kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectron will be
(A) the same as its initial value
(B) two times its initial value
(C) more than two times its initial value
(D) less than two times its initial value.
Answer:
(C) more than two times its initial value

Question 19.
The kinetic energy of emitted photoelectrons is independent of
(A) the frequency of incident radiation
(B) the intensity of incident radiation
(C) the wavelength of incident radiation
(D) the collector plate potential.
Answer:
(B) the intensity of incident radiation

Question 20.
In a photon-electron collision
(A) only total energy is conserved
(B) only total momentum is conserved
(C) both total energy and total momentum are conserved
(D) both total momentum and total energy are not conserved.
Answer:
(C) both total energy and total momentum are conserved

Question 21.
The de Broglie equation for the wavelength of matter waves is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 41
Answer:
(A) λ = \(\frac{h}{p}\)

Question 22.
The momentum associated with a photon is given by
(A) hv
(B) \(\frac{h v}{c}\)
(C) hE
(D) hλ
Answer:
(B) \(\frac{h v}{c}\)

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 23.
The momentum of a photon of de Broglie wave-length 5000 Å is [h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s]
(A) 1.326 × 10-28 kg∙m/s
(B) 7.54 × 10-28 kg∙m/s
(C) 1.326 × 10-27 kg∙m/s
(D) 7.54 × 10-27 kg∙m/s.
Answer:
(C) 1.326 × 10-27 kg∙m/s

Question 24.
The de Broglie wavelength of a 100-m sprinter of mass 66 kg running at a speed of 10 m/s is about
[h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s]
(A) 10-34 m
(B) 10-33 m
(C) 10-32 m
(D) 10-31 m.
Answer:
(C) 10-32 m

Question 25.
Which of the following particles moving with the same speed has the longest de Broglie wavelength?
(A) Proton
(B) Neutron
(C) α-particle
(D) β-particle
Answer:
(D) β-particle

Question 26.
If p and E are respectively the momentum and energy of a photon, the speed of the photon is given by
(A) p∙E
(B) E/p
(C) (E/p)2
(D) \(\sqrt{E / p}\)
Answer:
(B) E/p

Question 27.
If the kinetic energy of a free electron is doubled, its de Broglie wavelength
(A) decreases by a factor of 2
(B) increases by a factor of 2
(C) decreases by a factor of \(\sqrt {2}\)
(D) increases by a factor of \(\sqrt {2}\).
Answer:
(C) decreases by a factor of \(\sqrt {2}\)

Question 28.
The de Broglie wavelength of an a-particle accelerated from rest through a potential difference V is λ. In order to have the same de Broglie wavelength, a proton must be accelerated from rest through a potential difference of .
(A) V
(B) 2V
(C) 4V
(D) 8V.
Answer:
(D) 8V.

Question 29.
If a photon has the same wavelength as the de Broglie wavelength of an electron, they have the same
(A) velocity
(B) energy
(C) momentum
(D) angular momentum.
Answer:
(C) momentum

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 14 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 35.
The de Broglie wavelength of a grain of sand, of mass 1 mg, blown by a wind at the speed of 20 m/s is [h = 6.63 × 10-34 J∙s]
(A) 33.15 × 10-36m
(B) 33.15 × 10-33 m
(C) 33.15 × 10-30 m
(D) 33.15 × 10-30 m.
Answer:
(C) 33.15 × 10-30 m

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits

Question 1.
Write an expression for an alternating emf that varies sinusoidally with time. Show graphically variation of emf with time.
Answer:
An alternating emf that varies sinusoidally with time is given by e = e0 sin ωt, where e0 is the maximum value of the emf, called the peak value, and co is the angular frequency of the emf.
ω = 2πf = \(\frac{2 \pi}{T}\), where f is the frequency of the emf, expressed in Hz, and T is the periodic time of the emf, expressed in second.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 1
Using these data, we can plot e versus t
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 2

Question 2.
An alternating emf is given by e = 2.20 sin ωt (in volt). What will be its value at time t = \(\frac{T}{12}\)?
Answer:
e = 220 sin[latex]\frac{2 \pi}{T}\left(\frac{T}{12}\right)[/latex]= 220 sin(\(\frac{\pi}{6}\))
= 220 \(\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)\) = 110 v.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits

Question 3.
What is the average or mean value of an alternating emf? Obtain the expression for it. (2 marks)
Answer:
The average or mean value of an alternating emf is defined as its average value over half cycle (because the average value over one cycle is zero) and is given as
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 3

Question 4.
If the peak value of an alternating emf is 10 V, what is its mean value over half cycle?
Answer:
eav = 0.6365 e0 = 0.6365(10) = 6.365 V
Note: In general, when e = e0 sin ωt, the correspond ing current is j = i sin (ωt + α), where α is the phase difference between emf e and current j. ¿z may be positive or negative or zero.

i0 is the peak value of the current and iav (over half cycle)
= \(\frac{2}{\pi}\) i0 = 0.6365 i0].

Question 5.
What is the rms value of an alternating current? Find the relation between the rms value and peak value of an alternating current that varies sinusoidaily with time.
Answer:
The root mean square (rms) value of an alternating current i is, by definition,
irms = \(\left[\frac{\int_{0}^{I} i^{2} d t}{T}\right]^{\frac{1}{2}}\), where T is the periodic time, i.e., time for one cycle.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 4
[Note: irms is also called the effective value or virtual value of the alternating current. In one cycle, the heat produced in a resistor by i = i0 sin ωt is the same as that produced by a direct current (dc) equal to irms]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits

Question 6.
What is the relation between i,, (over half cycle) and irms?
Answer:
iav (over half cycle) = \(\frac{2}{\pi}\) i0, and irms = \(\frac{i_{0}}{\sqrt{2}}\)
∴ iav (over half cycle) = \(\left(\frac{2}{\pi}\right)\left(\sqrt{2} i_{\mathrm{rms}}\right)=\frac{2 \sqrt{2}}{\pi} i_{\mathrm{rms}}\)

Question 7.
If irms = 3.142 A, what is iav (over half cycle)?
Answer:
iav (over half cycle) = \(\frac{2 \sqrt{2}}{\pi}\) irms
= \(\frac{(2)(1.414)}{3.142}\)(3.142) = 2.828 A
[Note: iav (over half cycle) < irms]

Question 8.
For e = e0 sin ωt, what is
(i) eav (over half cycle)
(ii) rrms
Answer:
For e = e0 sin ωt, eav (over half cycle) = \(\frac{2}{\pi}\) e0 and erms = \(\frac{e_{0}}{\sqrt{2}}\)

9. Solve the following:
Question 1.
An alternating emf is given by e = 220 sin 314.2 t (in volt). Find its
(i) peak value
(ii) rms value
(iii) average value over half cycle
(iv) frequency
(iv) period
(vi) value at \(\frac{T}{4}\) .
Solution:
Data: e = 220 sin314.2t (in volt), t = \(\frac{T}{4}\)
(i) Comparing the given equation with e = e0 sin ωt, we get, peak value, e0 = 220V.

(ii) erms = e0/\(\sqrt{2}\) = 155.6 V

(iii) eav (over half cycle) = \(\frac{2}{\pi}\)e0 = \(\frac{2(220)}{3.142}\) = 140V

(iv) ω = 2πf= 314.2 ∴ The frequency,
f = \(\frac{\omega}{2 \pi}=\frac{314.2}{2(3.142)}\) = 50 Hz

(v) The period, T = \(=\frac{1}{f}=\frac{1}{50}\) = 0.02 same

(vi) e = 220 sin(\(\frac{2 \pi}{T} \cdot \frac{T}{4}\)) = 220 sin \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) = 220 v

Question 2.
The peak value of AC through a resistor of 10 Ω is 10 mA. What is the voltage across the resistor at time
Solution:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 5
This is the required voltage.

Question 3.
The peak value of AC through a resistor of 100 Ω is 2A If the frequency of AC is 50Hz, find the heat produced in the resistor in one cycle.
Solution:
Data: R = 100 Ω, i0 = 2A, f = 50 Hz
H = \(\frac{R i_{0}^{2}}{2 f}=\frac{100(2)^{2}}{2(50)}\) = 4 J
This is the required quantity.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits

Question 10.
What is a phasor?
Answer:
A phasor is a rotating vector that represents a quantity varying sinusoidally with time.

Question 11.
What is a phasor diagram ? Illustrate it with an example.
Answer:
A diagram that represents a phasor is called phasor diagram. Consider an alternating emf e = e0 sin ωt. The phasor representing it is inclined to the horizontal axis at an angle cot and rotates in an anticlockwise direction as shown in below figure.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 6
The length (OP) of the arrow \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OP}}\) represents the peak value (maximum value), e0, of the emf.
For e = e0 sin ωt, the projection of \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OP}}\) on the y-axis gives the instantaneous value of the emf.

In above figure, OR = e0 sin ωt.
For e = 0 sin ωt, the projection of \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OP}}\) on the x-axis gives the instantaneous value of the emf.
In above figure, OQ = e0 sin ωt.
Phasor diagrams are useful in adding harmonically varying quantities.

Question 12.
An alternating emf e = e0 sin ωt is applied to a resistor of resistance R. Write the expression for the current through the resistor. Show the variation of emf and current with ωt. Draw a phasor diagram to show emf and current.
Answer:
Below figure shows an alternating emf e = e0 sin ωt applied to a resistor of resistance R.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 7
e0 is the peak value and co is the angular frequency of the emf. The instantaneous current through the resistor is i = i0 sin ωt, where i0 is the peak value of the current.
Here, i and e are always in phase.
For ωt = 0, sin ωt = 0,e = 0,i = 0;
for ωt = π/2, sin ωt = 1, e = e0, i = i0;
for ωt = π, sin ωt = 0, e = 0, i = 0;
for ωt = 3π/2, sin ωt = -1, e= – e0, i= -i0;
for ωt = 2π, sin ωt = 0, e = 0, i = 0.
Below figure shows variation of e and i with cot.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 8
Below figure shows phasors of e and i
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 9
Variation of e and i with time t for a purely resistive AC circuit

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits

Question 13.
If the peak value of the alternating emf applied to a resistor of 100Ω is 100 V, what is the rms current through the resistor?
Answer:
The rms current through the resistor,
irms = \(\frac{i_{0}}{\sqrt{2}}=\frac{e_{0}}{R \sqrt{2}}=\frac{100}{100 \sqrt{2}}\) = 0.7071 A

Question 14.
An alternating emf e = e0 sin ωt is applied to a pure inductor of inductance L. Show variation of the emf and current with ωt.
Answer:
Here, e = e0 sin ωt and i = i0 sin (ωt – π/2), where i0 = e0/ωL.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 10
[Note : A pure inductor ≡ an ideal inductor.]

Question 15.
Draw a Phasor diagram showing e and i in the case of a purely inductive circuit.
Answer:
In this case, e = e0 sin ωt and i = i0 sin (ωt – \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)),
where i0 = \(\frac{e_{0}}{\omega L}\) and L is the inductance of the inductor. In this case, the current j lags behind the emf e by a phase angle of \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) rad.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 11

Question 16.
Explain the term inductive reactance. Show graphically variation of inductive reactance with the frequency of the applied alternating emf.
Answer:
When an alternating emf e = e0 sin ωt is applied to a pure inductor of inductance L, the current in the
circuit is i = i0 sin (ωt – \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)), where i0 = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\), where i0 = \(\frac{e_{0}}{\omega L}\) In the case of a pure resistor of resistance R, i = i0 sin ωt for e = e0 sin ωt, and i0 = \(\frac{e_{0}}{R}\)

Comparison of Eqs. i0 = \(\frac{e_{0}}{\omega L}\) and i0 = \(\frac{e_{0}}{R}\) shows that ωL is the resistance offered by the inductor to the applied alternating emf. It is called the reactance. It increases linearly with the frequency because ωL = 2πfL. This is illustrated in the following figure. ωL is denoted by XL.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 12
[Note : Reactance has the same dimensions and unit as resistance.]

Question 17.
What is the reactance of a pure inductor with inductance 10H if the frequency of the applied alternating emf is 50 Hz?
Answer:
The reactance of the inductor,
XL = ωL = 2πfL = 2(3.142)(50)(10) = 3142 Ω
[Note : In a DC circuit, f = 0 ∴ XL = 2πfL = 0.]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits

Question 18.
How does a pure inductor behave when the frequency of the applied alternating emf is
(i) very high
(ii) very low?
Answer:
Inductive reactance = 2πfL.
(i) If the frequency (f) of the applied emf is very high, the inductive reactance (for reasonable value of inductance L) will be very high. Hence, the current through the inductor will be very low (for reasonable value of peak emf). Hence, it will practically block AC.

(ii) For very low f, 2πfL is low and hence the inductor will behave as a good conductor.

Question 19.
The capacitance of an ideal capacitor is 2 μF. What is its reactance if the frequency of the applied alternating emf is 1000 Hz?
Answer:
The reactance of the capacitor =
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 13

Question 20.
How does a pure (an ideal) capacitor behave when the frequency of the applied alternating emf is very low?
Answer:
Capacitive reactance = \(\frac{1}{2 \pi f C}\)
If the frequency (f) of the applied emf is very low, the capacitive reactance (for reasonable value of capacitance C) will be very high and hence the current through the circuit will be very low (for reasonable value of peak emf).

Question 21.
What will be the current through an ideal capacitor if it is connected across a 2 V battery ?
Answer:
In a DC circuit, the frequency (f) of the applied emf is zero.
∴ Capacitive reactance, \(\frac{1}{2 \pi f C}\) = ∞
∴ The current through the capacitor will be zero.
(Note : The capacitor blocks DC and acts as an open circuit while it passes AC of high frequency.]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits

Question 22.
An alternating emf is applied to an LR circuit. Assuming the expression for the current, obtain the expressions for the applied emf and the effective resistance of the circuit. Assume the inductor and resistor to be ideal. Draw the phasor diagram showing the emf and current.
Answer:
Below figure shows a source of alternating emf (e), key K, ideal inductor of inductance L and ideal resistor of resistance R connected to form a closed series circuit. Ignoring the resistance of the source andthekey,wehave,e = Ri + L\(\frac{d i}{d t}\) …………… (1)
where Ri is the potential difference across R and L\(\frac{d i}{d t}\) is the potential difference across L.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 14
where e0 = Zi0 is the peak value of the applied emf.
Z = \(\frac{e_{0}}{i_{0}}=\sqrt{R^{2}+\omega^{2} L^{2}}\) is the effective resistance of the circuit. It is called the impedance. Here, the emf leads the current by phase angle Φ.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 15

Question 23.
(a) What is the impedance of an LR circuit if R = 40 Ω and XL = 30 Ω ?
(b) What is the peak current if the peak emf is 10 V, R = 0 and XL = 30 Ω?
Ans.
(a) The impedance, Z = \(\sqrt{R^{2}+X_{\mathrm{L}}^{2}}\)
= \(\sqrt{1600+900}=\sqrt{2500}\) = 50 Ω.
(b) i0 = \(\frac{e_{0}}{X_{\mathrm{L}}}=\frac{10}{30}=\frac{1}{3}\) A = 0.3333 A.

Question 24.
An alternating emf is applied to a CR circuit. Obtain an expression for the phase difference between the emf and the current. Also obtain the expression for the effective resistance of the cir-cuit. Assume the capacitor and resistor to be ideal. Draw the phasor diagram showing the emf and current.
Answer:
Below figure shows a source of alternating emf (e), key K, ideal capacitor of capacitance C and ideal resistor of resistance R to form a closed series circuit. Ignoring the resistance of the source and the key, we have,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 16
where C is the time independent constant of integration which must be zero as j oscillates about zero when e oscillates about zero.
∴ e = R i0 sin ωt – \(\frac{i_{0}}{\omega C}\) cos ωt
Let Z = \(\sqrt{R^{2}+\frac{1}{\omega^{2} C^{2}}}\), R = Z cos and \(\frac{1}{\omega C}\) = Z sin Φ
∴ e = i0Z (cos Φ sin ωt – sin Φ cos ωt)
= Zi0 (sin ωt cos Φ – cos ωt sin Φ)
= Zi0 sin (ωt – Φ) = e0 sin (ωt – Φ), where e0 = Zi0 is the peak emf. Here, the emf lags behind the current by phase angle Φ.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 17

Question 25.
(a) What is the impedance of a CR circuit if R = 30 Ω and XC = 40 Ω?
(b) What is the peak current if the peak emf is 10 V, R = 0 and XC = 40 Ω ?
Ans.
(a) The impedance, Z = \(\sqrt{R^{2}+X_{\mathrm{C}}^{2}}=\sqrt{900+1600}\)
= \(\sqrt{2500}\) = 50
(b) The peak current i0 = \(\frac{e_{0}}{X_{C}}=\frac{10}{40}\) = 0.25 A.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits

Question 26.
What is meant by the term impedance? State the formula for it in the case of an LCR series circuit.
Answer:
In an AC circuit containing resistance and inductance and / or capacitance, the effective resistance offered by the circuit to the flow of current is called impedance. It is denoted by Z.
For an LCR series circuit,
Z = \(\sqrt{R^{2}+\left(\omega L-\frac{1}{\omega C}\right)^{2}}\) where
ω = 2πf is the angular frequency and f is the frequency of AC.
[Note: Here, in the absence of a capacitor.
Z = \(\sqrt{R^{2}+\omega^{2} L^{2}}\), and in the absence of an inductor,
Z = \(\sqrt{R^{2}+\frac{1}{\omega^{2} C^{2}}}\)].

Question 27.
Draw the impedance triangle for a series LCR AC circuit and write the expressions for the im-pedance and the phase difference between the emf and the current.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 18

28. Solve the following :
Question 1.
An alternating emf e = 40 sin (120 πt) (in volt) is applied across a 100 Ω resistor. Calculate the rms current through the resistor and the frequency of the applied emf.
Solution:
Data : e = 40 sin (120 πt) V, R = 100 Ω
The equation of a sinusoidally alternating emf is e = e0 sin ωt
where e0 is the peak value of the emf.
Comparing the given expression with this, we get, e0 = 40 V
∴ The rms current,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 19
Comparing e = 40 sin (120 πt) with
e = e0 sin ωt, we get,
ω = 2πf= 120 π
∴ f = 60 Hz
This is the frequency of the applied emf.

Question 2.
In problem (1) above, what is the period of the AC?
Solution:
The period of the AC,
T = \(\frac{1}{f}=\frac{1}{60}\) s ≈ 0.01667 s

Question 3.
An alternating emf of frequency 50 Hz is applied a series combination of an inductor (L = 2 H) and a resistor (R = 100 Ω). What is the impedance of the circuit?
Solution:
Data : f = 50 Hz, L = 0.2 H, R = 100 Ω
The inductive reactance, XL = 2πfL
= 2(3.142)(50)(0.2) = 62.84 Ω
The impedance of the circuit, Z = \(\sqrt{R^{2}+X_{\mathrm{L}}^{2}}\)
= \(\sqrt{(100)^{2}+(62.84)^{2}}=\sqrt{10000+3949}=\sqrt{13949}\)
= 118.1 Ω

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits

Question 4.
An alternating emf is applied to a series combination of an inductor and a resistor (R = 100 Ω). If the impedance of the circuit is 100\(\sqrt {2}\) Ω, what is the phase difference between the emf and the current?
Solution:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 20
This is the phase difference between the emf and the current.

Question 5.
When 100 V dc is applied across a coil, a current of 1 A flows through it. When 100 V ac of frequency 50 Hz is applied to the same coil, only 0.5 A current flows through it. Calculate the resistance, impedance and self-inductance of the coil.
Solution:
Data : Vdc = 100 V, Idc = 1 A, Vrms = 100 V,
f = 50 Hz, Irms = 0.5 A
(i) The resistance of the coil,
R = \(\frac{V_{\mathrm{dc}}}{I_{\mathrm{dc}}}=\frac{100}{1}\) = 100 Ω

(ii) The impedance of the coil,
Z = \(\frac{V_{\mathrm{rms}}}{I_{\mathrm{rms}}}=\frac{100}{0.5}\) = 200 Ω
Z2 = R2 + X2L
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 21

Question 6.
A 20 µF capacitor is connected in series with a 25 Ω resistor and a source of alternating emf, 240 V (peak)/50 Hz. Calculate the capacitive reactance, circuit impedance and the maximum current in the circuit.
Solution:
Data : C = 20 µF = 20 × 10-6 F, k = 25 Ω, e0 = 240 V, f = 50 Hz
(i) Capacitive reactance,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 22

Question 7.
A 25 µF capacitor, 0.1 H inductor and 25 Ω resistor are connected in series with an ac source of emf e = 220 sin 314t volt. What is the expression for the instantaneous value of the current?
Solution:
Data : C = 25 µF = 25 × 10-6 F, L = 0.1 H,
R = 25 Ω, e = 220 sin 314t volt
The equation of a sinusoidally alternating emf is e = e0 sin ωt, where e0 is the peak emf. Comparing the given expression with this, we get,
e0 = 220 V, ω = 314 rad/s
∴ Inductive reactance,
XL = ωL = 314 × 0.1 = 31.4 Ω and capacitive reactance,
XC = \(\frac{1}{\omega C}=\frac{1}{314 \times 25 \times 10^{-6}}\) = 127.4 Ω
∴ The reactance of the circuit,
|XL – XC| = 96 Ω (capacitive, ∵ XC > XL)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 23
∴ Φ = – 75°24′
i. e., the applied emf lags behind the current by 75°24′.
The instantaneous value of the current is i = i0 sin (ωt + Φ)
∴ i = 1.569 sin (314 f + 75°24′) ampere

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits

Question 8.
An alternating emf of peak value 110 V and frequency 50 Hz is connected across an LCR series circuit with R = 100 Ω, L = 10 mH and C = 25 µF. Calculate the inductive reactance, capacitive reactance and impedance of the circuit.
Solution:
Data : e0 = 110 V, f = 50 Hz, R = 100 Ω,
L = 10 mH = 10 × 10-3 H, C = 25 µF = 25 × 10-6 F
(i) Inductive reactance,
XL = ωL = 2πfL
= 2 × 3.142 × 50 × 10 × 10-3 = 3.142 Ω

(ii) Capacitive reactance,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 24

Question 29.
An alternating emf with rms value 100 V is applied to a pure resistor of resistance 100 Ω. What is the power consumed over one cycle ?
Answer:
The power consumed over one cycle = erms irms
= erms \(\left(\frac{e_{\mathrm{rms}}}{R}\right)\) = (100) \(\left(\frac{100}{100}\right)\) = 100 W.

Question 30.
An alternating emf is applied to a pure resistor of 400 Ω. If the power consumed over one cycle is 100 W, what is the rms current through the resistor?
Answer:
Pav = R (irms)2
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 25

Question 31.
An alternating emf with erms = 100 V is applied to a series LR circuit with R = 100 Ω and Z = 200 Ω What is the average power consumed over one cycle?
Answer:
The average power consumed over one cycle
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 26

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits

Question 32.
An alternating emf with erms = 60 V is applied to a series CR circuit with R = 100 \(\sqrt {3}\) Ω and capacitive reactance 100 V 3Q. What is the average power consumed over one cycle ?
Answer:
The average power consumed over one cycle
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 27

Question 33.
State the expression for the average power consumed over one cycle in the case of a series LCR AC circuit. What happens if the circuit is purely
(i) resistive
(ii) inductive
(iii) capacitive?
Answer:
Average power consumed over one cycle in the case of a series LCR AC circuit,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 28

Question 34.
In the case of a series LCR AC circuit, what is the power factor if
(i) the resistance is far greater than the reactance
(ii) the resistance is far less than the reactance?
Answer:
Power factor, cos Φ = \(\frac{R}{\sqrt{R^{2}+\left(X_{\mathrm{L}}-X_{\mathrm{C}}\right)^{2}}}\)
(i) For R >> (XL – XC), cos Φ ≅ 1
(ii) For R >> (XL – Xe), cos Φ ≅ zero.

35. Solve the following.
Question 1.
An alternating emf e = 200 sin ωt (in volt) is connected to a 1000 Ω resistor. Calculate the rms current through the resistor and the average power dissipated in it in one cycle.
Solution:
Data: e = 200 sin ωt V, R = 1000 Ω
The equation of a sinusoidally alternating emf is e = e0 sin ωt, where e0 is the peak value of the emf.
Comparing the given expression with this, we get
∴ Peak current, i0 = \(\frac{e_{0}}{R}=\frac{200}{1000}\) = 0.2 A
∴ rms current, irms = \(\frac{i_{0}}{\sqrt{2}}=\frac{0.2}{\sqrt{2}}\) = 0.1414 A
The average power dissipated in the resistor in one cycle,
Pav = erms irms = \(\frac{e_{0} i_{0}}{2}=\frac{200 \times 0.2}{2}\) = 20 W

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits

Question 2.
A circuit has a resistance and a reactance, each equal to 100 Ω Find its power factor. If the rms value of the applied voltage is 200 V, what is the average power consumed by the circuit?
Solution:
Data : R = 100 Ω, X = 100 Ω, Vrms = 200 V
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 29
∴ The average power, P = erms irms cos Φ
= 200 × 1.415 × 0.7071 = 200 W

Question 3.
A dc ammeter and an ac hot-wire ammeter are connected to a circuit in series. When a direct current is passed through the circuit, the dc ammeter shows 6A. When a pure alternating current is passed, the ac ammeter shows 8 A. What will be the reading of each ammeter if the direct and alternating currents pass simultaneously through the circuit?
Solution:
Data: idc = 6 A, irms(ac) = 8A
A dc ammeter measures the average value of a current passing through it. Since the average value of an alternating current over one cycle is zero, when the direct and alternating currents are siniultaneously passed, the dc ammeter will read 6 A which is the dc part.

An ac hot-wire ammeter measures the effective value of a current using the heating effect of an electric current. When the direct and alternating currents are simultaneously passed through the ac ammeter, the average power dissipated is
Pav = i2dcR + i2rms = i2eff R
where R is the resistance of the heating element of the ac ammeter.
∴ ieff = \(\sqrt{i_{\mathrm{dc}}^{2}+i_{\mathrm{rms}}^{2}}\)
= \(\sqrt{(6)^{2}+(8)^{2}}\) = 10 A
Thus, the ac ammeter will read 10 A.

Question 4.
An alternating emf e = 100 sin [2π(1000) t] (in volt) is applied to a series LCR circuit with resistance 300 Ω, inductance 0.1 H and capacitance 1 µF. Find the power factor and the average power consumed over one cycle.
Solution:
Data: e = 100 sin[2π (1000)t] (in volt), R = 300 Ω L = 0.1H, C = 1 µF = 1 × 10-6 F
Comparing e = e0 sin 2πft with the given equation,
we get e0 = 100 V, f = 1000 Hz
∴ XL = 2πfL = 2(3.142)(1000)(0.1) = 628.4 Ω
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 30
= 4.835 W

Question 5.
An ac circuit with a 10 Ω resistor, 0.1 H inductor and 50 µF capacitor is connected across a 200 V/50 Hz supply. Compute
(i) the power factor
(ii) the average power dissipated in the circuit.
Solution:
Data : R = 10 Ω, L = 0.1 H, erms = 200 V, C = 50 µF = 50 × 10-6 F, f = 50 Hz
(i) XL = ωL = (2πf)L
= 2 × 3.142 × 50 × 0.1
= 31.42 Ω
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 31
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 32
[Note: An alternating emf is usually specified by giving its rms value.]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits

Question 36.
How are oscillations produced using an inductor and a capacitor?
Answer:
Consider a charged capacitor of capacitance C, with an initial charge q0, connected to an ideal inductor of inductance L through a key K. We assume that the circuit does not include any resistance or a source of emf. At first, the energy stored in the electric field in the dielectric medium between the plates of the capacitor is UE = \(\frac{1}{2} \frac{q_{o}^{2}}{C^{\prime}}\), while the energy stored in the magnetic field in the inductor is zero.

When the key is closed, the capacitor begins to discharge through the inductor and there is a clockwise current in the circuit, as shown in below figure (a). Let q and i are the instantaneous values of charge on the capacitor and current in the circuit, respectively.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 33
As q decreases, i increases : i = – dq/dt. Thus, the energy UB = \(\frac{1}{2}\) Li2 stored in the magnetic field of the inductor increases from zero. Since the circuit is free of resistance, energy is not dissipated in the form of heat, so that the decrease in the energy stored in the capacitor appears as the increase in energy stored in the inductor. As the current reaches its maximum value i(y the capacitor is fully discharged and all the energy is stored in the inductor, from figure (b).

Although q = 0 at this instant, dq/dt is nonzero. The current in the inductor then continues to transfer charge from the top plate of the capacitor to its bottom plate, as in from figure (c). The electric field in the capacitor builds up again, but now in the opposite sense, as energy flows back into it from the inductor. Eventually, all the energy of the magnetic field of the inductor is transferred back into the electric field of the capacitor, which is now fully charged, from figure (d).

The capacitor then begins to discharge with an anticlockwise current until the energy is completely back with the inductor. The magnetic field in the inductor is in the opposite sense and becomes maximum when the current reaches its maximum minimum value – i0. Subsequently, the current in the inductor charges the capacitor once again until the capacitor is fully charged and back to its original condition.

In the absence of an energy dissipative resistance (ideal condition), this cycle continues indefinitely. When the magnitude of the current is maximum, the energy is stored completely in the magnetic field. When the energy is stored entirely in the electric field, the current is zero. The current varies sinusoidally with time between i0 and – i0. The frequency of this electrical oscillation in the LC circuit is determined by the values of L and C.

[Notes : (1) Electrical oscillations in an LC circuit are analogous to the oscillations of an ideal mechanical oscillator. An LC circuit with resistance is analogous to a damped mechanical oscillator, while one with a source of alternating emf is analogous to a forced mechanical oscillator. (2) With suitable choices of L and C, it is possible to obtain frequencies ranging from 10 Hz to 10 GHz. (3) In practice, LC oscillations are damped because an inductor has some resistance (R) and hence Joule heat (izRt) is developed in it. The amplitude of oscillations goes on decreasing with time and becomes zero eventually. Also, part of energy stored in the inductor and capacitor is radiated in the form of electromagnetic waves. Working of radio and TV transmitters is based on such radiation.]

Question 37.
Explain electrical resonance in an LCR series circuit. Deduce the expression for the resonant frequency of the circuit.
Answer:
Suppose a sinusoidally alternating emf e, of peak value e0 and frequency f, is applied to a circuit containing an inductor of inductance L, a resistor of resistance R and a capacitor of capacitance C, all in series, from figure (a) The inductive reactance, XL, and the capacitive reactance, XC, are
XL = ωL and XC = \(\frac{1}{\omega C}\)
where ω = 2πf.
The rms values irms and erms of current and emf are proportional to one another.
irms = \(\frac{e_{\mathrm{rms}}}{\mathrm{Z}}\)
where Z = \(\sqrt{R^{2}+\left(X_{\mathrm{L}}-X_{\mathrm{C}}\right)^{2}}\) = the impedance of the circuit.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 34
The impedance Z drops to a minimum at the frequency fr for which the inductive and capacitive reactances are equal (and opposite, in a phasor diagram); i.e., when
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 35
At this frequency, Z = R and the phase angle Φ = 0, i.e., the combination behaves like a pure
resistance, and the current and emf are in phase. If R is small, the loss is small. Then, the current may be very large. At any other frequency, the impedance is greater than R. If a mixture of frequencies is applied to the circuit, the current only builds up to a large value for frequencies near the one to which the circuit is ‘tuned’, as given by Eq. (5). The resonance curve, from figure (b), shows the variation of the rms current with frequency. This is an example of electrical resonance. Equations (3) or (4) give the resonance condition and fris called the resonant frequency of the LCR series circuit.

At the resonant frequency, the potential differences across the capacitor and inductor are equal in magnitude but in exact antiphase; the current is in quadrature, i.e., 900 out of phase with them. The energy stored in the electric field of the capacitor changes periodically as the square of the potential difference across it; while the energy stored in the magnetic field of the inductor changes periodically as the square of the current. At moments when the potential difference across the capacitor is a maximum and the current through the inductor zero, there is then a maximum of energy stored in the electric field of the capacitor. At moments the potential difference across the capacitor is zero and the current through the inductor a maximum, there is then a maximum of energy stored in the magnetic field of the inductor.

At resonance, the total energy stored in the L-C system is constant, and is simply passed back and forth between the electric and magnetic fields. When the resonant current is first building up, this energy is drawn from the ac supply. After that, the supply only needs to make up the energy lost as heat in the resistor.

Question 38.
State the characteristics of a series LCR AC resonance circuit.
Answer:
Characteristics of a series LCR AC resonance circuit:

  1. Resonance occurs when inductive reactance (XL = 2πfL) equals capacitive reactance j (XC = \(\frac{1}{2 \pi f C}\)). Resonant frequency, fr = \(\frac{1}{2 \pi \sqrt{L C}}\).
  2. Impedance is minimum and the circuit is purely resistive.
  3. Current is maximum.
  4. Frequencies, other than the resonant frequency (fr) are rejected. Only fr is accepted. Hence, it is called the acceptor circuit.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits

Question 39.
In LCR series circuit, what is the condition for current resonance ?
Answer:
In LCR series circuit, the condition for current resonance is ωL = \(\frac{1}{\omega C}\) or f = \(\frac{1}{2 \pi \sqrt{L C}},\), where L is the inductance, C is the capacitance and / is the frequency of the applied alternating emf.

Question 40.
In LCR series circuit, what is the
(i) reactance and
(ii) impedance at current resonance?
Answer:
In LCR series circuit, at current resonance,

  1. reactance is zero and
  2. impedance equals resistance R.

Question 41.
A series LCR circuit has resistance 5 Ω and reactance, for a certain frequency, is 10\(\sqrt {2}\) Ω, what is the impedance of the circuit?
Answer:
Z = \(\sqrt{R^{2}+\left(X_{\mathrm{L}}-X_{\mathrm{C}}\right)^{2}}=\sqrt{(5)^{2}+(10 \sqrt{2})^{2}}\)
= \(\sqrt{25+200}=\sqrt{225}\) = 15 Ω is the impedance of the circuit.

Question 42.
In LCR series circuit, what is the
(i) power factor and
(ii) phase difference between the emf and current, at resonance.
Answer:
At resonance,

  1. the power factor is 1 and
  2. the phase difference between the emf and current is zero.

Question 43.
What is an acceptor circuit ? State its use.
Answer:
An acceptor circuit is a series LCR resonant circuit used in communications and broadcasting to selec-tively pass a current for a signal of only the desired frequency.

The resonance curve of a series LCR resonant circuit with a small resistance exhibits a very sharp peak at a certain frequency called the resonant frequency fr. For an alternating signal of this frequency, the impedance of the circuit is minimum, equal to R, and the current is maximum. That is, the circuit has a selective property as it prefers to pass a signal of frequency fr and reject those of other frequencies.

Use : An acceptor circuit is used in a radio or television receiver to accept the signal of a desired broadcasting station or channel from all the signals that arrive concurrently at its antenna. Tuning a receiver means adjusting the acceptor circuit to be resonant at a desired frequency.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits

Question 44.
Explain electrical resonance in an LC parallel circuit. Deduce the expression for the resonant frequency of the circuit.
Answer:
Consider a capacitor of capacitance C, and an inductor of large self-inductance L and negligible resistance, connected in parallel across a source of sinusoidally alternating emf from below figure. Let the instantaneous value of the applied emf be
e = e0 sin ωt
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 36
Let iL and iC be the instantaneous currents through the inductor and capacitor respectively.
As the current in the inductor lags behind the emf in phase by π/2 radian,
iL = \(\frac{e_{0}}{X_{\mathrm{L}}} \sin \left(\omega t-\frac{\pi}{2}\right)=-\frac{e_{0}}{X_{\mathrm{L}}} \cos \omega t\)
where XL is the inductive reactance.
As the current in the capacitor leads the emf by a phase angle of π/2 radian,
iC = \(\frac{e_{0}}{X_{C}}\) sin (ωt + π/2) = \(\frac{e_{0}}{X_{C}}\) cos ωt
where XC is the capacitive reactance.
The instantaneous current drawn from the source is
i = iL + iC = e0 \(\left(\frac{1}{X_{\mathrm{C}}}-\frac{1}{X_{\mathrm{L}}}\right)\) cos ωt
If XL = XC, i = 0. Thus, no current is drawn from the source if XL = XC. In such a case, alternating current goes on circulating in the LC loop, though no current is supplied by the source. This condition is called parallel resonance and the frequency of ac at which it occurs is called the resonant frequency (fr).
The condition for resonance is
XL = XC
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 37
In practice, every inductor possesses some resistance and hence even at resonance, some current is drawn from the source. Also, the resonant frequency is different from that for zero resistence.

The resonance curve shows the variation of current (i) and impedance with the frequency of the ac supply, from figure (b). At resonance the current supplied by the source is minimum and the impedance of the circuit is maximum.

Question 45.
State the characteristics of a parallel LC AC resonance circuit.
Answer:
Characteristics of a parallel LC AC resonance circuit:

  1. Resonance occurs when inductive reactance (XL = 2πfL) equals capacitive reactance (XC = \(\frac{1}{2 \pi f C}\))
    Resonant frequency, fr = \(\frac{1}{2 \pi \sqrt{L C}}\)
  2. Impedance is maximum.
  3. Current is minimum.
  4. The circuit rejects fr but allows the current to flow for other frequencies. Hence, it is called a rejector circuit.

Question 46.
What is a rejector circuit? State its use.
Answer:
A rejector circuit is a parallel LC resonant circuit used in communications and broadcasting as well as filter circuits to selectively reject a signal of a certain frequency.

The resonance curve of a parallel resonant circuit with a finite resistance of its inductor windings exhibits a sharp minimum at a certain frequency called the resonant frequency fr. For an alternating signal of this frequency, the impedance of the circuit is maximum and the current is minimum. That is, the circuit has a selective property to reject a signal of frequency fr while passing those of other frequencies.

Use : A rejector circuit is used at the output stage of a radiowave transmitter.

Question 47.
Distinguish between an acceptor circuit and a rejector circuit. (Any two points)
Answer:

Acceptor circuit Rejector circuit
1. An acceptor circuit is a 1. series LCR resonant circuit. 1. A rejector circuit is a parallel LC resonant circuit.
2. For such a circuit with a 2. small resistance, the reson­ance curve has a sharp peak at the resonant frequency, i.e., at this frequency, the impedance is minimum so that the current is maxi­mum. 2. With a small resistance of its inductor windings, the res­onance curve has a sharp minimum at the resonant frequency, i.e., at this fre­quency, the impedance is maximum so that the cur­rent is minimum.
3. It selectively passes a signal 3. of frequency equal to the resonant frequency. 3. It selectively rejects a signal of frequency equal to the resonant frequency.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits

Question 48.
In an LC parallel circuit, under what condition, does the impedance become maximum?
Answer:
In an LC parallel circuit, the Impedance becomes maximum when ωL = \(\frac{1}{\omega C}\) or f = \(\frac{1}{2 \pi \sqrt{L C}^{\prime}}\) where f is the frequency 0f the applied alternating emf, L is the inductance and C is the capacitance.

Question 49.
Explain the terme sharpness of resonance and Q factor (quality factor).
Answer:
In a series LCR Ac circuit, the amplitude of the current, i.e., the peak value of the current, is
i0 = \(\frac{e_{0}}{\sqrt{R^{2}+\left(\omega L-\frac{1}{\omega C}\right)^{2}}}\)
If the angular frequency, n changed. at resonance.
ωrL = \(\frac{1}{\omega_{\mathrm{r}} C}\) giving ωr = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{L C}}\)
For ω different from ωr, the amplitude of i is less than the maximum value of i0. which is \(\frac{e_{0}}{R}\).

Contider the value of ω for which i0 = \(\frac{\left(i_{0}\right)_{\max }}{\sqrt{2}}\)
= \(\frac{e_{0}}{R \sqrt{2}}\) that the power dissipated by the circuit is half the maximum power. This ω is called the half power angular frequency. There are two such values of ω on either side of ωr as shown in below figure.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 38
circuit. \(\frac{\omega_{\mathrm{r}}}{2 \Delta \omega}\) is a measure of the sharpness of resonance If It is high, resonance is sharp; if it is low, resonance is not sharp.

The sharpness of resonance Is measured by a coefficient called the quality or Q fader of the cicuit.

The Q factor of a series LCR resonant circuit is defined as the ratio of the resonant angular frequency to the diference in two angular frequencies taken on both sides of the angular resonant ‘frequency such that at each angular frequency the current amplitude becomes \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\) times the value at resonant frequency.
∴ Q = \(\frac{\omega_{\mathrm{r}}}{\omega_{2}-\omega_{1}}=\frac{\omega_{\mathrm{r}}}{2 \Delta \omega}=\frac{\text { resonant frequency }}{\text { bandwidth }}\)

Q-factor is a dimensionless quantity. The larger the Q-factor, the smaller is the bandwidth i.e., the sharper is the peak in the current It means the series resonant circuit is more selective in this case. from figure shows that the lower angular frequency side of the resonance curve is dominated by the capacitive reactance, the higher angular frequency side is dominated by the inductive reactance and resonance occurs ¡n the middle. This follows from the formulae, XL = ωL and XC = \(\frac{1}{\omega C}\). The higher the ω, the greater ¡s XL and smaller is XC. At ω = ωr, XL = XC.

Question 50.
What Is the natural frequency of LC circuit with inductance 1H and capacitance µF?
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 39

Question 51.
What is a choke coil? What is it used for? Explain.
Answer:
A choke coil is an inductor of high inductance. It consists of a large number of turns of thick insulated copper wire wound closely over a soft iron laminated cure- Average power consumed by it over one cycle is Pav = rrms irms cos Φ, where the power factor cos Φ = \(\frac{R}{\sqrt{R^{2}+\omega^{2} L^{2}}}\)

For ωL >> R. cos Φ is very low implying power consumption is reduced. The energy loss due to hysteresis in iron core is reduced by using a soft Iron core.

In an AC circuit a choke coil is used instead of a resistor to reduce power consumption In case of a pure resistor Pav is high as it is erms irms.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits

Question 52.
What is the approximate value of the power factor of a choke coil with R = 10 Ω and reactance = 100Ω ?
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 40

53. Solve the following 
Question 1.
A coil of resistance S D and self-inductance 0.2 H is connected in series with a variable capacitor across a 30 V(rms) 50 Hz supply. At what capacitance will resonance occur? Find the corresponding current.
Solution:
Data: R = 5 Ω. L = 0.2 H, erms = 30 V. f = 50 Hz
Let C be the capacitance of the capacitor at resonance.
(i) At resonance,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 41

Question 2.
An ac circuit consists of a resistor of 5 0 and an inductor of 10 mH connected In series with a 50 V
(peak)/50 Hz supply. What capacitance should be connected in series with the circuit to obtain maximum current? What will be the maximum current?
Solution:
Data: R = 50 Ω, L = 10 mH = 10 × 10-3 H, e0 = 50 V, f = 50 Hz
(i) Maximum current is obtained at resonance.
The condition for resonance is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 42

(ii) At resonance, Z = R
∴ Maximum current,
i0 = \(\frac{e_{0}}{Z}=\frac{e_{0}}{R}=\frac{50}{5}\) = 10 A

Question 3.
An LCR series combination has R = 10 Ω, L = 1 mH and C = 2 µF. Determine (i) the resonant frequency (ii) the current in the circuit (iii) voltages across L and C, when an alternating voltage of rms value 10 mV operating at the resonant frequency is applied to the series combination.
Solution:
Data : R = 10 Ω, L = 1 mH = 10-3 H, C = 2 × 10-6 F, erms = 10 mV = 10-2 V
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 43

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits

Question 4.
In a parallel resonant circuit, the inductance of the coil is 3 mH and resonant frequency is 1000 kHz. What is the capacitance of the capacitor in the circuit?
Solution:
Data : L = 3 mH = 3 × 10-3 Hz, fr = 1000 kHz = 1000 × 103 = 106 Hz
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 44
= 8.441 × 10-12 F or 8.441 pF

Question 5.
An ac circuit consists of an inductor of inductance 125 mH connected in parallel with a capacitor of capacity 50 µF. Determine the resonant frequency.
Solution :
Data : L = 125 mH = 0.125 H, C = 50 µF = 50 × 10-6 F
Resonant frequency,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 45
= 63.65 Hz

Question 6.
An ac voltage of rms value 1V is applied to a parallel combination of inductor L = 10mH and capacitor C = 4 µF. Calculate the resonant frequency and the current through each branch at resonance.
Solution:
Data : erms = 1 V, L = 10 mH = 10-2H, C = 4 µF = 4 × 10-6 F
(i) Resonant frequency,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 46
= 795.7 Hz

(ii) At resonance, the currents through the inductor and capacitor are in exact antiphase but equal in magnitude : iL = iC.
∴ iC = \(\frac{e_{\mathrm{rms}}}{X_{\mathrm{C}}}\) = (2πfrC) erms
= (2 × 3.142 × 795.7 × 4 × 10-6)(1) = 0.02A

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
The motor of an electric fan has a self inductance of 10 H, and is connected to a 50-Hz ac supply in series with a capacitor. If maximum power transfer occurs when XL = XC, the capacitance of the capacitor is
(A) 0.5 µF
(B) 1 µF
(C) 10 µF
(D) 100 µF.
Answer:
(B) 1 µF

Question 2.
The reactance of a coil is 157 Ω. On connecting the coil across a source of frequency 100 Hz, the current lags behind the emf by 45°. The inductance of the coil is
(A) 0.25 H
(B) 0.5 H
(C) 4 H
(D) 314 H.
Answer:
(A) 0.25 H

Question 3.
In a series LCR circuit, the power factor at resonance is
(A) zero
(B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
(C) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
(D) 1.
Answer:
(D) 1.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits

Question 4.
The current in an LC circuit at resonance is called
(A) the displacement current
(B) the idle current
(C) the wattless current
(D) the apparent current.
Answer:
(C) the wattless current

Question 5.
In a series LCR circuit at resonance, the applied emf and current are
(A) out of phase
(B) in phase
(C) differ in phase by \(\frac{\pi}{4}\) radian
(D) differ in phase by \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) radian.
Answer:
(B) in phase

Question 6.
In a series LCR circuit, R = 3 Ω, XL = 8 Ω and XC = 4 Ω. The impedance of the circuit is
(A) 3 Ω
(B) 7 Ω
(C) 5 Ω
(D) 25 Ω
Answer:
(C) 5 Ω

Question 7.
A sinusoidal emf of peak value 150\(\sqrt {2}\) V is applied to a series LCR circuit in which R = 3 Ω and Z = 5 Ω. The rms current in the circuit is
(A) 30 A
(B) 30\(\sqrt {2}\) A
(C) 50 A
(D) 50\(\sqrt {2}\) A.
Answer:
(A) 30 A

Question 8.
In a series LCR circuit, R = 3 Ω, Z = 5 Ω, irms = 40 A and power factor = 0.6. The average power dissipated in the circuit is
(A) 2880 W
(B) 4800 W
(C) 8000 W
(D) 9600 W.
Answer:
(A) 2880 W

Question 9.
A parallel LC resonant circuit is used as
(A) a filter circuit
(B) a tuning circuit in a television receiver
(C) a transformer
(D) a rectifier.
Answer:
(A) a filter circuit

Question 10.
A senes LCR resonant circuit is used as
(A) a potential divider
(B) a tuning circuit in a television receiver
(C) a source of wattless current
(D) a radiowave trasmitter.
Answer:
(B) a tuning circuit in a television receiver

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits

Question 11.
If AC voltage is applied to a pure capacitor. then voltage acrose the capacitor .
(A) leads the current by phase angle (\(\frac{\pi}{2}\)) rad
(B) leads the current by phase angle π rad
(C) lags behind the current by phase angle (\(\frac{\pi}{2}\)) rad
(D) lags behind the current by phase angle π rad.
Answer:
(C) lags behind the current by phase angle (\(\frac{\pi}{2}\)) rad

Question 12.
In a series LCR circuit at resonance, the phase difference between the current and emf of the source is
(A) π rad
(B) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) rad
(C) \(\frac{\pi}{4}\) rad
(D) zero rad.
Answer:
(D) zero rad.

Question 13.
For e = e0 sin ωt, (average) over one cycle is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 47
Answer:
(D) \(\frac{2}{\pi} e_{0}\)

Question 14.
For i = i0 sin ωt. irms/iav is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 48
Answer:
(A) \(\frac{\pi}{2 \sqrt{2}}\)

Question 15.
If i = 10sin(314t) [in ampere). iav =
(A) 6.365 A
(B) 10/\(\sqrt{2}\) A
(C) 10/π A
(D) 5A.
Answer:
(A) 6.365 A

Question 16.
If e = 10 sin(400t) [in volt]. erms =
(A) \(\frac{10}{\pi}\) V
(B) \(\frac{10 \sqrt{2}}{\pi}\) V
(C) 5V
(D) 7.07V
Answer:
(D) 7.07V

Question 17.
In a purely resistive circuit, the heat produced by a sinusoidally varying AC over a complete cycle is given by H =
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 49
Answer:
(C) \(R\left(i_{\mathrm{rms}}\right)^{2} \cdot \frac{2 \pi}{\omega}\)

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits

Question 18.
In a purely inductive AC circuit, i0 =
(A) \(\frac{e_{0}}{L}\)
(B) \(\frac{e_{0}}{\omega L}\)
(C) \(\frac{e_{0}}{f L}\)
(D) ωLe0.
Answer:
(B) \(\frac{e_{0}}{\omega L}\)

Question 19.
In a purely capacitive AC circuit, i0 =
(A) e0/C
(B) ωCe0
(C) e0/ωC
(D),fCe0.
Answer:
(B) ωCe0

Question 20.
The impedance of a series LCR circuit is
(A) R + (XL – XC)
(B) R + (XC – XL)
(C) \(\sqrt{R^{2}+\left(X_{\mathrm{L}}-X_{\mathrm{C}}\right)^{2}}\)
(D) \(\sqrt{R^{2}+X_{\mathrm{L}}^{2}-X_{\mathrm{C}}^{2}}\)
Answer:
(C) \(\sqrt{R^{2}+\left(X_{\mathrm{L}}-X_{\mathrm{C}}\right)^{2}}\)

Question 21.
In a purely inductive circuit, Pav =
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 50
Answer:
(C) Zero

Question 22.
In a series LCR AC circuit, power factor is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 51
Answer:
(D) \(\frac{R}{Z}\)

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits

Question 23.
The Q factor of an LCR series resonant circuit is
(A) resonant frequency/bandwidth
(B) bandwidth / resonant frequency
(C) ωr/(ω1 + ω2)
(D) (ω1 + ω2)/ ωr
Answer:
(A) resonant frequency/bandwidth

Question 24.
The power factor for a choke coil is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 AC Circuits 52
Answer:
(A) \(\frac{R}{\sqrt{R^{2}+\omega^{2} L^{2}}}\)

Question 25.
The power factor for a purely resistive AC circuit is
(A) 0.5
(B) 1
(C) \(\frac{1}{\pi}\)
(D) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
Answer:
(B) 1