Class 11 – Page 4 – Maharashtra Board Solutions

11th Biology Chapter 13 Exercise Respiration and Energy Transfer Solutions Maharashtra Board

January 7, 2025January 6, 2025 by Bhagya

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Biology Textbook Solutions Chapter 13 Respiration and Energy Transfer Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Respiration and Energy Transfer Class 13 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Class 11 Biology Chapter 13 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Biology Class 11 Chapter 13 Exercise Solutions

1. Choose Correct option

Question (A)
The reactions of the TCA cycle occur in
(A) ribosomes
(B) grana
(C) mitochondria
(D) endoplasmic reticulum
Answer:
(C) mitochondria

Question (B)
In eukaryotes the complete oxidation of a molecule of glucose results in the net gain of
(A) 2 molecules of ATP
(B) 36 molecules of ATP
(C) 4 molecules of ATP
(D) 38 molecules of ATP
Answer:
(D) 38 molecules of ATP

Question (C)
Which step of Krebs cycle operates substrate-level phosphorylation?
(A) ∝-ketoglutarate → succinyl CoA.
(B) Succinyl CoA → succinate
(C) Succinate → fumarate
(D) Fumarate → malate
Answer:
(B) Succinyl CoA → succinate

2. Fill in the blanks with suitable words.

Question 1.
A. Acetyl CoA is formed from __________ and co-enzyme A.
B. In the prokaryotes ________ molecules of ATP are formed per molecule of glucose oxidised.
C. Glycolysis takes place in ________ .
D. F₁ – F₀ particles participate in the synthesis of _________ .
E. During glycolysis _________ molecules of NADH⁺H⁺ are formed.
Answer:
A. pyruvic acid
B. 2/38
C. cytoplasm
D. ATP
E. 2
[Note: ii. In prokaryotes, during anaerobic respiration 2 ATPs are formed per glucose and 38 ATPs are formed during aerobic respiration.]

3. Answer the following questions

Question (A)
When and where does anaerobic respiration occur in man and yeast?
Answer:
1. In absence of oxygen, anaerobic respiration takes place in skeletal muscles of man during vigorous exercise.
2. Anaerobic respiration occurs in the cytoplasm of the yeast cell.

Question (B)
Why is less energy produced during anaerobic respiration than in aerobic respiration?
Answer:
Anaerobic respiration produces less energy because:

Incomplete breakdown of respiratory substrate takes place.
Some of the products of anaerobic respiration can be oxidised further to release energy which shows that anaerobic respiration does not liberate the whole energy contained in the respiratory substrate.
NADH₂ does not produce ATP, as electron transport is absent.
Only 2 ATP molecules are generated from one molecule of glucose during anaerobic respiration.

Question (C)
Which is the site for ETS in mitochondrial respiration?
Answer:
The inner mitochondrial membrane is the site for ETS in mitochondrial respiration.

Question (D)
Which compound is the terminal electron acceptor in aerobic respiration?
Answer:
Molecular oxygen is the terminal electron acceptor in aerobic respiration.

Question (E)
What is RQ.? What is its value for fats?
Answer:
1. Respiratory quotient (R.Q.) or respiratory ratio is the ratio of volume of CO₂ released to the volume of O₂ consumed in respiration.
2. R.Q. = Volume of CO₂ released / Volume of O₂ consumed

Question (F)
What are respiratory substrates? Name the most common respiratory substrate.
Answer:
Respiratory substrates are the molecules that are oxidized during respiration to release energy which can be used for ATP synthesis. Carbohydrates, fats and proteins are the common respiratory substrate. Glucose is the most common respiratory substrate.

Question (G)
Write explanatory notes on:

Question (i)
Glycolysis
Answer:
Glycolysis is a process where glucose is broken down into two molecules of pyruvic acid, hence called glycolysis (glucose-breaking). It is common to both aerobic and anaerobic respiration. It occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell. It involves ten steps.
Glycolysis consists of two major phases:
1. Preparatory phase (1-5 steps).
2. Payoff phase (6-10 steps).
1. Preparatory phase:
a. In this phase, glucose is phosphorylated twice by using two ATP molecules and a molecule of fructose 1,6-bisphosphate is formed.
b. It is then cleaved into two molecules of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate and dihydroxy acetone phosphate. These two molecules are 3-carbon carbohydrates (trioses) and are isomers of each other.
c. Dihydroxy acetone phosphate is isomerised to second molecule of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate.
d. Therefore, two molecules of glyceraldehyde-3- phosphate are formed.
e. Preparatory phase of glycolysis ends.

2. Payoff phase:
a. In this phase, both molecules of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate are converted to two molecules of 1,3- bisphoglycerate by oxidation and phosphorylation. Here, the phosphorylation is brought about by inorganic phosphate instead of ATP.
b. Both molecules of 1, 3-bisphosphoglycerate are converted into two molecules of pyruvic acid through series of reactions accompanied with release of energy. This released energy is used to produce ATP (4 molecules) by substrate-level phosphorylation.

Question (ii)
Write explanatory notes on: Fermentation by yeast
Answer:
Alcoholic fermentation is a type of anaerobic respiration where the pyruvate is decarboxylated to acetaldehyde. The acetaldehyde is then reduced by NADH+H⁺ to ethanol and Carbon dioxide. Since ethanol is produced during the process, it is termed alcoholic fermentation.

Question (iii)
Write explanatory notes on: Electron transport chain
Answer:

NADH₂ and FADH₂ produced during glycolysis, connecting link reaction and Krebs cycle are oxidized with the help of various electron carriers and enzymes.
These carriers and enzymes are arranged on inner mitochondrial membrane in the form of various complexes as complex I, II, III, VI and V.
NADH+H⁺ is oxidised by NADH dehydrogenase (complex I) and it’s electrons are transferred to ubiquinone (coenzyme Q-CoQ) present on inner membrane of mitochondria. Reduced ubiquinone is called as ubiqunol.
FADH₂ is oxidised by complex II (Succinate dehydrogenase) and these electrons are also transferred to CoQ.
During oxidation of NADH+H⁺ and FADH₂ , electrons and protons are released but only electrons are canned forward whereas protons are released into outer chamber of mitochondria (intermembrane space).
Ubiquinol is oxidised by complex-III (Cytochrome bcl complex) and it’s electrons are transferred to cytochrome C. Cytochrome C is a small, iron-containing protein, loosely associated with inner membrane. It acts as a mobile electron carrier, transferring the electrons between complex III and IV.
Cytochrome C is oxidised by complex IV or cytochrome C oxidase consisting of cytochrome a and a₃. Electrons are transferred by this complex to the molecular oxygen. This is terminal oxidation.
Reduced molecular oxygen reacts with protons to form water molecule called as metabolic water.
Protons necessary for this are channelled from outer chamber of mitochondria into inner chamber by F₀ part of oxysome (complex V) present in inner mitochondrial membrane.
This proton channelling by F₀ is coupled to catalytic site of F₁ which catalyses the synthesis of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate. This is oxidative phosphorylation.
As transfer of protons is accompanied with synthesis of ATP, this process is named as ‘Chemiosmosis’ by Peter Mitchell.

Significance of ETS:

Major amount of energy is generated through ETS or terminal oxidation in the form of ATP molecules.
Per glucose molecule 38 ATP molecules are formed, out of which 34 ATP molecules are produced through ETS.
Oxidized coenzymes such as NAD and FAD are regenerated from their reduced forms (NADH+H⁺ and FADH₂) for recycling.
In this process, energy is released in a controlled and stepwise manner to prevent any damage to the cell.
ETS produces water molecules.

Question (H)
How are glycolysis, TCA cycle and electron transport chain-linked? Explain.
Answer:
Glycolysis, TCA cycle and electron transport chain are linked in the following manner:

The coenzymes are initially present in the form of NAD⁺ and FAD⁺ which latter get reduced to NADH+H⁺ and FADH+H⁺ by accepting the hydrogen from organic substrate during glycolysis, link reaction and Krebs cycle.
During glycolysis, glucose is oxidised to two molecules of pyruvic acid with net gain 2 molecules of NADH+H⁺.
This pyruvic acid undergoes link reaction to form two molecules of acetyl CoA and two molecules of NADH+H⁺.
Acetyl CoA, thus formed enters into the Krebs cycle and it gets completely oxidised to C0₂ and H₂0; with a net gain of 6 NADH+H+ and 2 FADH+H⁺ are formed.
During ETS, reduced coenzymes are reoxidized to NAD⁺ and FAD⁺ with a net gain of 34 ATPs. The ATPs thus formed are used during glycolysis.
The oxidized NAD⁺ and FAD⁺ will again accept the hydrogen from organic substrate. Thus, reduced coenzymes are converted back to their oxidized forms by dehydrogenation to keep the process going.

Question (I)
How would you demonstrate that yeast can respire both aerobically and anaerobically?
Answer:
Respiration in yeast can be demonstrated with the help of an experiment.
Anaerobic respiration in yeast:

A pinch of dry baker’s yeast suspended in water containing 10ml of 10% glucose in a test tube (test tube A).
The surface of the liquid is covered with oil to prevent entry of air and the test tube is closed tightly with rubber stopper to prevent leakage.
One end of a short-bent glass tube is inserted through it to reach the air inside the tube.
Other end of the glass tube is connected by a polyethylene or rubber tubing to another bent glass tube fitted into a stopper.
The open end of the glass tube (delivery tube) is dipped into lime water containing in a test tube
(Tube B).
Stoppers of both the tubes are fitted tightly to prevent leakage of gases. First test tube is placed in warm water (37° C-38° C) in a beaker.
Lime water gradually turns milky, indicating the evolution of carbon dioxide from the yeast preparation.
Level of the lime water in the delivery tube does not rise, showing that there is no decline in volume of gas in test tube A and consequently no utilization of oxygen by yeast. Preparation is stored for a day or two.
When we open the stopper of tube A we will notice a smell of alcohol indicating the formation of ethanol.
From this activity it may be inferred that yeast respires anaerobically to ferment glucose to ethanol and carbon dioxide.

Aerobic respiration in yeast: Experiment explained can be carried out for demonstrating aerobic respiration in yeast.

If the level of the lime water in the test tube B rises, indicating intake of oxygen, hence the level of volume of gas rises.
The preparation tube is stored for a day or two, if no smell of alcohol is noticed it indicates that the yeast respires aerobically.

Question (J)
What is the advantage of step wise energy release in respiration?
Answer:
In ETS energy is released in step wise manner to prevent damage of cells.

A stepwise release of the chemical bond energy facilitates the utilization of a relatively higher proportion of that energy in ATP synthesis.
Activities of enzymes for the different steps may be enhanced or inhibited by specific compounds. This provides a means of controlling the rate of the pathway and the energy output according to need of the cell.
The same pathway may be utilized for forming intermediates used in the synthesis of other biomolecules like amino acids.

Question (K)
Explain ETS.
Answer:

NADH₂ and FADH₂ produced during glycolysis, connecting link reaction and Krebs cycle are oxidized with the help of various electron carriers and enzymes.
These carriers and enzymes are arranged on inner mitochondrial membrane in the form of various complexes as complex I, II, III, VI and V.
NADH+H⁺ is oxidised by NADH dehydrogenase (complex I) and it’s electrons are transferred to ubiquinone (coenzyme Q-CoQ) present on inner membrane of mitochondria. Reduced ubiquinone is called as ubiqunol.
FADH₂ is oxidised by complex II (Succinate dehydrogenase) and these electrons are also transferred to CoQ.
During oxidation of NADH+H⁺ and FADH₂ , electrons and protons are released but only electrons are canned forward whereas protons are released into outer chamber of mitochondria (intermembrane space).
Ubiquinol is oxidised by complex-III (Cytochrome bcl complex) and it’s electrons are transferred to cytochrome C. Cytochrome C is a small, iron-containing protein, loosely associated with inner membrane. It acts as a mobile electron carrier, transferring the electrons between complex III and IV.
Cytochrome C is oxidised by complex IV or cytochrome C oxidase consisting of cytochrome a and a₃. Electrons are transferred by this complex to the molecular oxygen. This is terminal oxidation.
Reduced molecular oxygen reacts with protons to form water molecule called as metabolic water.
Protons necessary for this are channelled from outer chamber of mitochondria into inner chamber by F₀ part of oxysome (complex V) present in inner mitochondrial membrane.
This proton channelling by F₀ is coupled to catalytic site of F₁ which catalyses the synthesis of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate. This is oxidative phosphorylation.
As transfer of protons is accompanied with synthesis of ATP, this process is named as ‘Chemiosmosis’ by Peter Mitchell.

Question (L)
Discuss “The respiratory pathway is an amphibolic pathway”.
OR
Question (M)
Why is Krebs cycle referred as amphibolic pathway?
Answer:

Respiration is considered as a catabolic process; however, it is not entirely correct in case of Krebs cycle.
Many reactions of Krebs cycle involve oxidation of acetyl CoA to release energy and C02.
However, the breakdown of respiratory substrates provides intermediates like a-ketoglutarate, oxaloacetate are used as precursors for synthesis of fatty acids, glutamic acid and aspartic acid respectively.
Thus, as the same respiratory process acts as catabolic as well as anabolic pathway for synthesis of various intermediate metabolic products, it is called amphibolic pathway.

Question (N)
The common pathway for both aerobic and anaerobic respiration is
(A) Krebs cycle
(B) Glycolysis
(C) ETS
(D) Terminal oxidation
Answer:
(B) Glycolysis

4. Compare

Question (A)
Photosynthesis and respiration.
Answer:

Photosynthesis	Respiration
(a) It takes place in the cells containing chlomplasts.	It takes place in all living cells of higher organisms.
(b) It occurs in chloroplast.	It occurs in cytoplasm and mitochondria.
(c) It is an energc trapping process.	It is an energy releasing process.
(d) It is an anabolic process.	It is a catabolic process.
(e) This process requires C0₂ and FLO.	This process requires sugar and 0₂.
(f) Light is necessary for photosynthesis.	Light is not necessary for aerobic respiration.
(g) End products are carbohydrates and oxygen.	End products can be C0₂ and H₂0 or ethanol or lactic acid and energy.

Question (B)
Aerobic respiration and Anaerobic respiration
Answer:

Aerobic respiration	Anaerobic respiration
(a) It takes place in higher organisms.	It takes place in lower organisms.
(b) It takes place in cytoplasm and mitochondria.	It takes place in cytoplasm.
(c) It involves the participation of free molecular oxygen.	It does not involve participation of free molecular oxygen.
(d) Oxidation of food is complete.	Oxidation of food is incomplete.
(e) It produces C0₂ and H₂0.	It produces C0₂ and C₂H₅OH.
(f) It releases more energy, i.e. 38 ATP.	It releases less energy, i.e. 2 ATP.
(g) Overall equation: C₆H₁₂0₆ + 60₂ → 6C0₂ + 6H₂0 + Energy	Overall equation: C₆H₁₂0₆ → 2C₂H₅ OH + 2C0₂ + Energy

5. Differentiate between

Question (A)
Respiration and combustion.
Answer:

Respiration	Combustion
(a) It is a biochemical and stepwise process.	It is physiochemical and spontaneous process.
(b) It occurs inside the cells.	It is a non-cellular process.
(c) Energy is released in steps.	Large amount of energy is released at a time.
(d) No light is produced in respiration.	Light may be produced in combustion.
(e) It is controlled by enzymes.	It is not controlled by enzymes.
(f) A number of intermediates are produced.	No intermediates are produced.

Question (B)
Distinguish between Glycolysis and Krebs cycle.
Answer:

Glycolysis/EMP pathway	Krebs cycle/TCA cycle/ Citric acid cycle
1. Glycolysis is common in both aerobic and anaerobic respiration.	Krebs cycle occurs only in aerobic respiration.
2. It takes place in the cytoplasm.	It takes place in the mitochondria.
3. C0₂ is not released.	C0₂ is released.
4. Total amount of energy produced = 8 ATP.	Total amount of energy produced = 24 ATP.
5. It is linear pathway.	It is cyclic pathway.
6. Pyruvic acid is the end product.	C0₂ and H₂Q are the end products.

Question (C)
Aerobic respiration and fermentation.
Answer:

Aerobic respiration	Fermentation
1. It takes place in higher organisms.	It takes place in both higher and lower organisms.
2. It takes place in cytoplasm and mitochondria	It takes place in cytoplasm.
3. It involves the participation of free molecular oxygen.	It does not involve participation of free molecular oxygen.
4. It involves many steps – glycolysis, link reaction, Krebs cycle and ETS.	It involves only glycolysis, decarboxylation and reduction, (alcoholic fermentation)
5. Oxidation of food is complete.	Oxidation of food is incomplete.
6. It produces C0₂ and H₂0.	It produces either ethanol or lactic acid and C0₂ depending upon the type of fermentation.
7. It releases more energy, i.e. 38 ATP.	It releases less energy, i.e. 2 ATP.

Question 6.
Identify the cycle given below. Correct it and fill in the blanks and write description of it in your own
Answer:

Krebs cycle or citric acid cycle is the second phase of aerobic respiration which takes place in the matrix of the mitochondria.
The acetyl CoA formed during the link reaction undergoes aerobic oxidation.
This cycle serves a common oxidative pathway for carbohydrates, fats and proteins.
In mitochondria pyruvic acid is decarboxylated and the remaining 2-carbon fragment is combined with a molecule of coenzyme A to form acetyl-CoA.
This reaction is an oxidative decarboxylation process and produces H⁺ ions and electrons along with carbon dioxide. During the process NAD⁺ is reduced to NADH+H⁺.
P-oxidation of fatty acids also produces acetyl-CoA as the end product.
Acetyl-CoA from both sources is condensed with oxaloacetic acid to form citric acid. Citric acid is oxidized step-wise by mitochondrial enzymes, releasing carbon dioxide.
Regeneration of oxaloacetic acid occurs to complete the cycle.
There are four steps of oxidation in this cycle, catalyzed by dehydrogenases (oxidoreductases) using NAD⁺ or FAD⁺ as the coenzyme.
The coenzymes are consequently reduced to NADH+H⁺ and FADH₂ respectively. These transfer their electrons to the mitochondrial respiratory chain to get reoxidised.
One molecule of GTP (ATP) is also generated for every molecule of citric acid oxidized.

Practical / Project:

Question 1.
Make Powerpoint Presentation on Glycolysis, Krebs Cycle and Conduct the group discussion on it in classroom.
[Note: Students are expected to perform above activity on their own.]

11th Biology Digest Chapter 13 Respiration and Energy Transfer Intext Questions and Answers

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 151)

(i) Which nutrients are used for energy production?
Answer:
Nutrients like carbohydrates, fats and proteins are used for energy production.

(ii) Why do organisms take up oxygen and release carbon dioxide?
Answer:
a. At cellular level, organisms require energy to carry out different metabolic activities.
b. The energy is made available by oxidizing/breaking the food.
Therefore, oxygen is required by aerobic organisms for breaking the food and carbon dioxide is released as a byproduct of oxidation.

Use your brainpower (Textbook Page No. 152)

Why is glycolysis considered as biochemical proof of evolution?
Answer:

Glycolysis does not require oxygen. Hence it might have been used by earlier organisms for energy production, as there was no free oxygen in atmosphere of primitive earth.
Glycolysis is the first metabolic pathway, an ancient pathway which is common to both aerobic and anaerobic organisms.
All cells have glycolysis in their metabolic pathway.
Upto pyruvate the pathway is similar to all aerobic and anaerobic organisms. Later, the fate of pyruvic acid can be either C0₂ or ethanol or lactic acid depending upon the type of organism.
Hence it is considered as a biochemical proof of evolution.

Use your brainpower (Textbook Page No. 152)

(i) What is role of Mg⁺⁺, Zn⁺⁺ in various steps of glycolysis?
Answer:
a. Mg⁺⁺ and Zn⁺⁺ are the cofactors that are tightly bound to enzymes and helps the enzymes to perform their functions.
b. They regulate the activity of the most important enzymes like Hexokinase, Phosphoffuctokinase, Triose phosphate dehydrogenase, Phosphoglycerate kinase, Enolase, Pyruvate kinase.

(ii) Why some reactions of glycolysis are reversible and some irreversible?
Answer:
Irreversible chemical reactions:
Some chemical reactions can occur in only one direction i.e. these reactions are irreversible reactions. The reactants can change to the products, but the products cannot change back to the reactants.

Reversible chemical reactions:

Some chemical reactions can occur in both directions i.e. these reactions are reversible reactions. In this case the reactants change to the products and the products can change back to the reactants, atleast under specific conditions.
Out of ten, four are irreversible reactions which involves the enzyme kinase that is required for phosphorylation reactions, these reactions involve large negative energy AG, hence the reactions are irreversible.
Other reversible reactions do not involve high negative energy hence are reversible.

Use your brainpower (Textbook Page No. 152)

Why do athletes like sprinters have higher proportion of white muscle fibers?
Answer:
1. The white muscle fibres produce energy in a very short period of time that is required for fast and severe work. Thus, the energy becomes immediately available to the athletes.
2. On the other hand, the red muscle produce energy over a prolonged period of time, hence athletes have higher proportion of white muscle fibers.

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 151)

Which steps are involved in aerobic respiration?
Answer:
It involves glycolysis, acetyl CoA formation (connecting link reaction), Krebs cycle, electron transfer chain reaction and terminal oxidation.

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 151)

What is aerobic and anaerobic respiration?
Answer:
For anaerobic respiration: Anaerobic respiration is the cellular respiration that does not involve the atmospheric oxygen. It is also called as fermentation. It involves glycolysis where the product of glycolysis i.e. pyruvate is converted to either lactic acid or ethanol and for aerobic respiration.
1. Aerobic respiration occurs in the presence of free molecular oxygen during oxidation of glucose.
2. In this type of respiration, the glucose is completely oxidized to C0₂ and H₂0 with release of large amount of energy. It involves glycolysis, acetyl CoA formation (connecting link reaction), Krebs cycle, electron transfer chain reaction and terminal oxidation.

Use your brainpower (Textbook Page No. 157)

Do the plants breath like animals? If yes, how and why?
Answer:

Yes, plants breath like animals because they also require energy to carry out different metabolic activities. Hence, plants take up oxygen required for respiration and they also give out C0₂.
Plants take care of their gas exchange needs. The stomata and lenticels are important for this purpose.
Leaves are well adapted for gaseous exchange during photosynthesis.
Large amount of gases is exchanged. In plants, each living cell is located quite close to the surface of the plants.

Internet my friend (Textbook Page No. 155)

What is effect of carbon monoxide poisoning on cytochromes?
Answer:

At sub-cellular level, carbon monoxide is toxic for mitochondria.
It alters the mitochondrial respiratory chain at the cytochrome c oxidase level (complex IV of the mitochondrial respiratory chain) and causes inhibition of ETS.
This inhibition leads to the development of symptoms observed in acute CO poisoning, and in some diseases related to smoking.
These symptoms include headache, nausea, vomiting, dizziness, weakness, difficulty in concentration or confusion, visual changes, syncope, seizures, abdominal pain and muscle cramping.

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 151)

Which is most preferred nutrient among carbohydrate, protein and fat for energy production? Why?
Answer:

The preferred nutrient is carbohydrate because it quickly supplies energy as compared to other nutrients.
Carbohydrates are easy to digest as compared to fats.
The RQ of carbohydrate is 1. Hence allows complete oxidation of food. Thus, the preferred nutrient is carbohydrate.

Internet my friend (Textbook Page No. 158)

Calculate the RQ for different respiratory substrates using appropriate formula.
Answer:
The RQ for different respiratory substrates are:
1. Carbohydrates (R.Q. is 1)
When carbohydrates are used as substrate, equal volumes of C0₂ and 0₂ are released and consumed respectively, thus its R.Q. is 1.
C₆ H₁₂ O₆ + 6O₂ → 6 C0₂ + 6H₂0
R.Q. = 6C0₂ / 60₂ = 1.0

2. Fats (R.Q. is less than 1)
Substrates like fats are poorer in oxygen than carbohydrates. Thus, more oxygen is utilized for its complete oxidation.
2(C₅₁ H₉₈ O₆) + 145O₂ → 102CO₂ + 98H₂O + Energy
R.Q. = C0₂/ 0₂ = 102 / 145 = 0.7

3. Protein respiration (R.Q. is less than 1)

When proteins serve as respiratory substrate, they are first degraded to amino acids.
Then, amino acids are converted into various intermediates of carbohydrates.
However, amino acids have low proportion of O₂ as compared to carbohydrates.
Thus, they require more O₂ during their complete oxidation and value of R.Q. becomes less than 1.
In case of proteins, the R.Q. is approximately 0.9.

11th Std Biology Questions And Answers:

11th Chemistry Chapter 10 Exercise States of Matter Solutions Maharashtra Board

January 7, 2025January 6, 2025 by Bhagya

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Chemistry Textbook Solutions Chapter 10 States of Matter Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

States of Matter Class 11 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 10 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Chemistry Class 11 Chapter 10 Exercise Solutions

1. Select and write the most appropriate alternatives from the given choices.

Question A.
The unit of viscosity is
a. dynes
b. newton
c. gram
d. poise
Answer:
d. poise

Question B.
Which of the following is true for 2 moles of an ideal gas ?
a. PV = nRT
b. PV = RT
c. PV = 2RT
d. PV = T
Answer:
c. PV = 2RT

Question C.
Intermolecular forces in liquid are
a. greater than gases
b. less than solids
c. both a and b
d. greater than solids
Answer:
c. both a and b

Question D.
Interactive forces are ………. in ideal gas.
a. nil
b. small
c. large
d. same as that of real gases
Answer:
a. nil

Question E.
At constant temperature the pressure of 22.4 dm³ volume of an ideal gas was increased from 10⁵ kPa to 210 kPa, New volume could be-
a. 44.8 dm³
b. 11.2 dm³
c. 22.4 dm³
d. 5.6 dm³
Answer:
b. 11.2 dm³

2. Answer in one sentence.

Question A.
Name the term used for mixing of different gases by random molecular motion and ferquent collision.
Answer:
The mixing of different gases by random molecular motion and frequent collision is called diffusion.

Question B.
The pressure that each individual gas would exert if it were alone in the container, what do we call it as ?
Answer:
The pressure that each individual gas would exert if it were alone in the container is called as partial pressure.

Question C.
When a gas is heated the particles move more quickly. What is the change in volume of a heated gas if the pressure is kept constant ?
Answer:
The volume of the gas increases on heating if pressure is kept constant.

Question D.
A bubble of methane gas rises from the bottom of the North sea. What will happen to the size of the bubble as it rises to the surface ?
Answer:
According to Boyle’s law, the size of the bubble of methane gas increases as it rises to the surface.

Question E.
Convert the following temperatures from degree celcius to kelvin.
a. -15° C
b. 25° C
c. -197° C
d. 273° C
Answer:
a. T(K) = t°C +273.15
∴ T(K) = -15 °C + 273.15 = 258.15 K
b. T(K) = t°C +273.15
∴ T(K) = 25 °C + 273.15 = 298.15 K
c. T(K) = t°C + 273.15
∴ T(K) = -197 °C + 273.15 = 76.15 K
d. T(K) = t°C + 273.15
∴ T(K) = 273 °C + 273.15 = 546.15 K

Question F.
Convert the following pressure values into Pascals.
a. 10 atmosphere
b. 1 kPa.
c. 107000 Nm^-2
d. 1 atmosphere
Answer:
a. 10 atmosphere:
1 atm = 101325 Pa
∴ 10 atm = 1013250 Pa
= 1.01325 × 10⁶ Pa

b. 1 kPa:
1 kPa = 1000 Pa

c. 107000 N m^-2:
1 N m^-2 = 1 Pa
∴ 107000 Nm^-2 = 107000 Pa
= 1.07 × 10⁵ Pa

d. 1 atmosphere:
1 atm = 101325 Pa
= 1.01325 × 10⁵ Pa

Question G.
Convert:
a. Exactly 1.5 atm to pascals
b. 89 kPa to newton per square metre (N m^-2)
c. 101.325 kPa to bar
d. -100 °C to Kelvin
e. 0.124 torr to standard atmosphere
Answer:
a. Exactly 1.5 atm to pascals:
1 atm = 101325 Pa
∴ 1.5 atm = 1.5 × 101325
= 151987.5 Pa

b. 89 kPa to newton per square metre (N m^-2):
1 Pa = 1 N m^-2 and 1 Pa = 10^-3 kPa
∴ 10^-3 kPa = 1 N m^-2
∴ 89 kPa = \(\frac{1 \times 89}{10^{-3}}\) N m^-2 = 89000 N m^-2

c. 101.325 kPa to bar:
1 bar = 1.0 × 10⁵ Pa
= 1.0 × 10² k Pa
∴ 100 kPa = 1 bar
∴ 101.325 kPa = \(\frac{1 \times 101.325}{100}\)
= 1.01325 bar

d. -100 °C to Kelvin:
T(K) = t °C + 273.15
∴ T(K) = (- 100 °C) + 273.15 = 173.15 K

e. 0.124 torr to standard atmosphere:
1 atm = 760 torr
∴ 1 torr = \(\frac {1}{760}\)atm
∴ 0.124 torr = 0.124 × \(\frac {1}{760}\)
= 1.632 × 10^-4 atm

Question H.
If density of a gas is measured at constant temperature and pressure then which of the following statement is correct ?
a. Density is directly proportional to molar mass of the gas.
b. Greater the density greater is the molar mass of the gas.
c. If density, temperature and pressure is given ideal gas equation can be used to find molar mass.
d. All the above statements are correct.
Answer:
d. All the above statements are correct.

Question I.
Observe the following conversions.

Which of the above reactions is in accordance with the priciple of stoichiometry ?
Answer:
Both the reactions are in accordance with the principle of stoichiometry.
In the first reaction, both the reactants are completely consumed to form product according to reaction stoichiometry.
1 mol hydrogen + 1 mol chlorine → 2 mol hydrogen chloride
In the second reaction, chlorine is the limiting reagent and it is completely consumed to form hydrogen chloride. Excess hydrogen remains unreacted at the end of the reaction. This reaction also follows principle of stoichiometry.
2 mol hydrogen + 1 mol chlorine → 2 mol hydrogen chloride + 1 mol hydrogen

Question J.
Hot air balloons float in air because of the low density of the air inside the balloon. Explain this with the help of an appropriate gas law.

Answer:
The working of hot air balloon can be explained with the help of Charles’ law. According to Charles’ law, at constant pressure, the volume of a fixed amount of a gas varies directly with the temperature. This means that as the temperature increases, the air inside the balloon expands and occupies more volume. Thus, hot air inside the balloon is less dense than the surrounding cold air. This causes the hot air balloon to float in air.

3. Answer the following questions.

Question A.
Identify the gas laws from the following diagrams.

Answer:
a. Boyle’s law
b. Charles’ law
c. Avogadro’s law [Note: Assuming, T constant]

Question B.
Consider a sample of a gas in a cylinder with a movable piston.

Show digramatically the changes in the position of piston, if
a. Pressure is increased from 1.0 bar to 2.0 bar at constant temperature.
b. Temperature is decreased from 300 K to 150 K at constant pressure
c. Temperature is decreased from 400 K to 300 K and pressure is decreased from 4 bar to 3 bar.
Answer:

Thus, the volume of the gas remains the same.
Hence, there will be no change in the position of the piston.

Question D.
List the characteristic physical properties of the gases.
Answer:
Characteristic physical properties of the gases:

Gases are lighter than solids and liquids (i.e., possess lower density).
Gases do not possess a fixed volume and shape. They occupy entire space available and take the shape of the container.
Gas molecules are widely separated and are in continuous, random motion. Therefore, gases exert pressure equally in all directions due to collision of gas molecules, on the walls of the container.
In case of gases, intermolecular forces are weakest.
Gases possess the property of diffusion, which is a spontaneous homogeneous inter mixing of two or more gases.
Gases are highly compressible.

Question E.
Define the terms:
a. Polarizability
b. Hydrogen bond
c. Aqueous tension
d. Dipole moment
Answer:
a. Polarizability is defined as the ability of an atom or a molecule to form momentary dipoles, that means, the ability of the atom or molecule to become polar by redistributing its electrons.

b. The electrostatic force of attraction between positively polarised hydrogen atom of one molecule and a highly electronegative atom (which may be negatively charged) of other molecule is called as hydrogen bond.

c. The pressure exerted by saturated water vapour is called aqueous tension.

d. Dipole moment (p) is the product of the magnitude of the charge (Q) and the distance between the centres of positive and negative charge (r). It is designated by a Greek Letter (p) and its unit is Debye (D).

Question F.
Would it be easier to drink water with a straw on the top of the Mount Everest or at the base ? Explain.
Answer:
When you drink through a straw, the pressure inside the straw reduces (as the air is withdraw by mouth) and the liquid is pushed up to your mouth by atmospheric pressure. Thus, drinking with a straw makes use of pressure difference to force the liquid into your mouth. So, if the pressure difference is less it will be difficult to drink through a straw. On the top of the Mount Everest, atmospheric pressure is very low. Hence, it will be difficult to drink water with a straw on the top of Mount Everest as compared to at the base.

Question G.
Identify type of the intermolecular forces in the following compounds.
a. CH₃ – OH
b. CH₂ = CH₂
c. CHCl₃
d. CH₂Cl₂
Answer:
a. Hydrogen bonding (dipole-dipole attraction) and London dispersion forces
b. London dispersion forces
c. Dipole-dipole interactions and London dispersion forces
d. Dipole-dipole interactions and London dispersion forces

Question H.
Name the types of intermolecular forces present in Ar, Cl₂, CCl₄ and HNO₃.
Answer:
a. Ar: London dispersion forces
b. Cl₂: London dispersion forces
c. CCl₄: London dispersion forces
d. HNO₃: Flydrogen bonding (dipole-dipole attraction) and London dispersion forces.

Question I.
Match the pairs of the following :

	A		B
a.	Boyle’s law	i.	At constant pressure and volume
b.	Charles’ law	ii.	At constant temperature
		iii.	At constant pressure

Answer:
a – ii,
b – iii

Question J.
Write the statement for :
(a) Boyle’s law
(b) Charles’ law
Answer:
a. Statement of Boyle’s law: For a fixed mass (number of moles ‘n’) of a gas at constant temperature, the pressure (P) of the gas is inversely proportional to the volume (V) of the gas.
OR
At constant temperature, the pressure of fixed amount (number of moles) of a gas varies inversely with its volume.

b. Statement for Charles’ law:
‘At constant pressure, the volume of a fixed mass of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature in Kelvin.

Question K.
Differentiate between Real gas and Ideal gas.
Answer:
Ideal gas:

Strictly obeys Boyle’s and Charles’ law.
\(\frac{\mathrm{PV}}{\mathrm{nRT}}\) = 1
Molecules are perfectly elastic.
No attraction or repulsion between the gas molecules i.e. collision without loss of kinetic energy (K.E.)
Actual volume of the gas molecules is negligible as compared to total volume of the gas.
Ideal gases cannot be liquified even at low temperature but continues to obey Charles’ law and finally occupies zero volume at 0 K.
Practically, ideal gas does not exist.

Real gas:

Shows deviation from Boyle’s and Charles’ law at high pressure and temperature, i.e. obeys Boyle’s law and Charles’ law at low pressure and high temperature. \(\frac{\mathrm{PV}}{\mathrm{nRT}}\) ≠ 1
Molecules are not perfectly elastic.
Intermolecular attraction is present, hence collision takes place with loss of kinetic energy.
Actual volume of individual gas molecule is significant at high pressure and low- temperature.
Real gases undergo liquefaction at low’ temperature when cooled and compressed.
Gases that exist in nature like H₂, O₂, CO₂, N₂, He, etc. are real gases.

4. Answer the following questions

Question A.
State and write mathematical expression for Dalton’s law of partial pressure and explain it with suitable example.
Answer:
i. Statement: The total pressure of a mixture of two or more non-reactive gases is the sum of the partial pressures of the individual gases in the mixture.
ii. Explanation:
Dalton’s law can be mathematically expressed as:
P_Total = P₁ + P₂ + P₃ …(at constant T and V)
where, P_Total is the total pressure of the mixture and P₁, P₂, P₃, … are the partial pressures of individual gases 1, 2, 3, … in the mixture.
For example, consider two non-reactive gases A and B. On mixing the two gases, pressure exerted by individual gas A in the mixture of both the gases is called partial pressure of gas A (say P₁). Likewise, partial pressure of gas B is P₂. According to Dalton’s law, total pressure of the mixture of gas A and B at constant T and V will be given as:
P_Total = P₁ + P₂

iii. Schematic illustration of Dalton’s law of partial pressures:

Question B.
Derive an Ideal gas equation. Mention the terms involved in it. Also write how it is utilised to obtain combined gas law.
Answer:
According to Boyle’s law,
V ∝ \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{P}}\) (at constant T and n) ……….(1)
According to Charles’ law,
V ∝ T (at constant P and n) ……(2)
According to Avogadro’s law,
V ∝ n (at constant P and T) ……(3)
Combining relations (1), (2) and (3), we get
V ∝ \(\frac{\mathrm{nT}}{\mathrm{P}}\)
Converting this proportionality into an equation by introducing a constant of proportionality (‘R’ known as gas constant), we get
∴ V = \(\frac{\mathrm{nRT}}{\mathrm{P}}\)
On rearranging the above equation, we get
PV = nRT
where,
P = Pressure of gas,
V = Volume of gas,
n = number of moles of gas,
R = Gas constant,
T = Absolute temperature of gas.
This is the ideal gas equation or equation of state.
[Note: In the ideal gas equation, R is called gas constant or universal gas constant, whose value is same for all the gases. In this equation, if three variables are known, fourth can be calculated. The equation describes the state of an ideal gas. Hence, it is also called as equation of state.]

The ideal gas equation is written as PV = nRT …(1)
On rearranging equation (1), we get,

The ideal gas equation used in this form is called combined gas law.

Question C.
With the help of graph answer the following –

At constant temperature,
a. Graph shows relation between pressure and volume. Represent the relation mathematically.
b. Identify the law.
c. Write the statement of law.
Answer:
a. P ∝ \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{~V}}\)
b. The graph represents Boyle’s law as it gives relation between pressure and volume at constant temperature.
c. Statement of Boyle’s law: For a fixed mass (number of moles ‘n’) of a gas at constant temperature, the pressure (P) of the gas is inversely proportional to the volume (V) of the gas.
OR
At constant temperature, the pressure of fixed amount (number of moles) of a gas varies inversely with its volume.

Question D.
Write Postulates of kinetic theory of gases.
Answer:
Postulates of kinetic theory of gases:

Gases consist of tiny particles (molecules or atoms).
On an average, gas molecules remain far apart from each other. Therefore, the actual volume of the gas molecules is negligible as compared to the volume of the container. Hence, gases are highly compressible.
The attractive forces between the gas molecules are negligible at ordinary temperature and pressure. As a result, gas expands to occupy entire volume of the container.
Gas molecules are in constant random motion and move in all possible directions in straight lines. They collide with each other and with the walls of the container.
Pressure of the gas is due to the collision of gas molecules with the walls of the container.
The collisions of the gas molecules are perfectly elastic in nature, which means that the total energy of the gaseous particle remains unchanged after collision.
The different gas molecules move with different velocities at any instant and hence have different kinetic energies. However, the average kinetic energy of the gas molecules is directly proportional to the absolute temperature.

Question E.
Write a short note on
a. Vapour pressure.
b. Surface tension
c. Viscosity.
Answer:
a. Vapour pressure:

Molecules of liquid have tendency to escape from its surface to form vapour above it. This called evaporation.
When a liquid is placed in a closed container, the liquid undergoes evaporation and vapours formed undergo condensation.
At equilibrium, the rate of evaporation and rate of condensation are equal.
The pressure exerted by the vapour in equilibrium with the liquid is known as saturated vapour pressure or simply vapour pressure.
Vapour pressure is measured by means of a manometer.
The most common unit for vapour pressure is torr. 1 torr = 1 mm Hg.

[Note: i. The vapour pressure of water is also called aqueous tension.
ii. Water has a vapour pressure of approximately 20 torr at room temperature.]

b. Surface tension:

The particles in the bulk of liquid are uniformly attracted in all directions and the net force acting on the molecules present inside the bulk is zero.
But the molecules at the surface experience a net attractive force towards the interior of the liquid, or the forces acting on the molecules on the surface are imbalanced.
Therefore, liquids have tendency to minimize their surface area and the surface acts as a stretched membrane.
The force acting per unit length perpendicular to the line drawn on the surface of liquid is called surface tension.
Unit: Surface tension is measured in SI unit, N m^-1 and is denoted by Greek letter ‘γ’

c. Viscosity:
i. Liquids (fluids) have tendency to flow.
ii. Viscosity measures the magnitude of internal friction in a liquid or fluid to flow as measured by the force per unit area resisting uniform flow.
iii. Different layers of a liquid flow with different velocity. This called laminar flow. Here, the layers of molecules in the immediate contact of the fixed surface remains stationary. The subsequent layers slip over one another. Strong intermolecular forces obstruct the layers from slipping over one another, resulting in a friction between the layers.
iv. Viscosity is defined as the force of friction between the successive layers of a flowing liquid. It is also the resistance to the flow of a liquid.
v. When a liquid flow through a tube, the central layer has the highest velocity, whereas the layer along the inner wall in the tube remains stationary. This is a result of the viscosity of a liquid. Hence, a velocity gradient exists across the cross-section of the tube.

vi. Viscosity is expressed in terms of coefficient of viscosity, ‘η’ (Eta). The SI unit of viscosity coefficient is N s m^-2 (newton second per square meter). In CGS system, the unit (η) is measured in poise.
1 poise = 1 g cm^-1 s^-1 = 10^-1 kg m^-1 s^-1

5. Solve the following

Question A.
A balloon is inflated with helium gas at room temperature of 25 °C and at 1 bar pressure when its initial volume is 2.27L and allowed to rise in air. As it rises in the air external pressure decreases and the volume of the gas increases till finally it bursts when external pressure is 0.3bar. What is the limit at which volume of the balloon can stay inflated ?
Answer:
Given: P₁ = Initial pressure = 1 bar
V₁ = Initial volume = 2.27 L
P₂ = Final pressure = 0.3 bar
To find: V₂ = Final volume
Formula: P₁V₁ = P₂V₂ (at constant n and T)
Calculation: According to Boyle’s law,
P₁V₁ = P₂V₂ (at constant n and T)
∴ V₂ = \(\frac{P_{1} V_{1}}{P_{2}}=\frac{1 \times 2.27}{0.3}\) = 7.566667 L ≈ 7.567 L
Ans: The balloon can stay inflated below the volume of 7.567 L.

Question B.
A syringe has a volume of 10.0 cm³ at pressure 1 atm. If you plug the end so that no gas can escape and push the plunger down, what must be the final volume to change the pressure to 3.5 atm?

Answer:
Given: P₁ = Initial pressure = 1 atm
V₁ = Initial volume = 10.0 cm³
P₂ = Final pressure = 3.5 atm
To find: V₂ = Final volume
Formula: P₁V₁ = P₂V₂ (at constant n and T)
Calculation: According to Boyle’s law,
P₁V₁ = P₂V₂ (at constant n and T)
∴ V₂ = \(\frac{\mathrm{P}_{1} \mathrm{~V}_{1}}{\mathrm{P}_{2}}=\frac{1 \times 10.0}{3.5}\)
= 2.857 L
Ans: The final volume of the gas in the syringe is 2.857 L.

Question C.
The volume of a given mass of a gas at 0°C is 2 dm³. Calculate the new volume of the gas at constant pressure when
a. The temperature is increased by 10°C.
b.The temperature is decreased by 10°C.
Answer:
Given: T₁ = Initial temperature = 0 °C = 0 + 273.15 = 273.15 K,
V₁ = Initial volume = 2 dm³
a. T₂ = Final temperature = 273.15 K + 10 = 283.15 K
b. T₂ = Final temperature = 273.15 K – 10 = 263.15 K
To find: V₂ = Final volume in both the cases
Formula: \(\frac{\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{l}}}{\mathrm{T}_{1}}=\frac{\mathrm{V}_{2}}{\mathrm{~T}_{2}}\) (at constant n and P)
Calculation: According to Charles’ law,

Ans: The new volume of a given mass of gas is:
a. 2.073 dm³
b. 1.927 dm³

Question D.
A hot air balloon has a volume of 2800 m³ at 99 °C. What is the volume if the air cools to 80 °C?

Answer:
Given: V₁ = Initial volume = 2800 m³, T₁ = Initial temperature = 99 °C = 99 + 273.15 = 372.15 K,
T₂ = Final temperature = 80 °C = 80 + 273.15 K = 353.15 K
To find: V₂ = Final volume
Formula: = \(\frac{\mathrm{V}_{1}}{\mathrm{~T}_{1}}=\frac{\mathrm{V}_{2}}{\mathrm{~T}_{2}}\) (at constant n and P)
Calculation: According to Charles’ law,
\(\frac{\mathrm{V}_{1}}{\mathrm{~T}_{1}}=\frac{\mathrm{V}_{2}}{\mathrm{~T}_{2}}\) (at constant n and P)
∴ \(\mathrm{V}_{2}=\frac{\mathrm{V}_{1} \mathrm{~T}_{2}}{\mathrm{~T}_{1}}=\frac{2800 \times 353.15}{372.15}=\mathbf{2 6 5 7 \mathrm { m } ^ { 3 }}\)
Ans: The volume of the balloon when the air cools to 80 °C is 2657 m³.

Question E.
At 0 °C, a gas occupies 22.4 liters. How nuch hot must be the gas in celsius and in kelvin to reach volume of 25.0 literes?
Answer:
V₁ = Initial volume of the gas = 22.4 L,
T₁ = Initial temperature = 0 + 273.15 = 273.15 K,
V₂ = Final volume = 25.0 L
To find: T₂ = Final temperature in Celsius and in Kelvin

Ans: The temperature of the gas must be 31.7 °C or 304.9 K.

Question F.
A 20 L container holds 0.650 mol of He gas at 37 °C at a pressure of 628.3 bar. What will be new pressure inside the container if the volume is reduced to 12 L. The temperature is increased to 177 °C and 1.25 mol of additional He gas was added to it?
Answer:
Given: V₁ = Initial volume = 20 L, n₁ = Initial number of moles = 0.650 mol
P₁ = Initial pressure = 628.3 bar
T₁ = Initial temperature = 37 °C = 37 + 273.15 K = 310.15 K
n₂ = Final number of moles = 0.650 + 1.25 = 1.90 mol, V₂ = Final volume = 12 L
T₂ = Final temperature = 177 °C = 177 + 273.15 K = 450.15 K, R = 0.0821 L atm K^-1 mol^-1
To find: P₂ = Final pressure
Formula: PV = nRT
Calculation: According to ideal gas equation,
P₂V₂ = n₂RT₂.
∴ \(\mathrm{P}_{2}=\frac{\mathrm{n}_{2} \mathrm{RT}_{2}}{\mathrm{~V}_{2}}=\frac{1.90 \times 0.0821 \times 450.15}{12}=\mathbf{5 . 8 5 2} \mathrm{atm}\)
Ans: The final pressure of the gas is 5.852 atm.
[Note: In the above numerical, converting the pressure value to different units, we get: 5.852 atm = 4447.52 torr = 5.928 bar]

Question G.
Nitrogen gas is filled in a container of volume 2.32 L at 32 °C and 4.7 atm pressure. Calculate the number of moles of the gas.
Answer:
Given: V = 2.32 L, P = 4.7 atm, T = 32 °C = 32 + 273.15 K = 305.15 K
R = 0.0821 L atm K^-1 mol^-1
To find: n = number of moles of gas
Formula: PV = nRT
Calculation: According to ideal gas equation,
PV = nRT
∴ \(\mathrm{n}=\frac{\mathrm{PV}}{\mathrm{RT}}=\frac{4.7 \times 2.32}{0.0821 \times 305.15}=\mathbf{0 . 4 3 5} \mathrm{moles}\)
Ans: Number of moles of N₂ gas in the given volume is 0.435 moles.

Question H.
At 25 °C and 760 mm of Hg pressure a gas occupies 600 mL volume. What will be its pressure at the height where temperature is 10 °C and volume of the gas 640 mL ?
Answer:
Given: V₁ = Initial volume = 600 mL, V₂ = Final volume = 640 mL
P₁ = Initial pressure = 760 mm Hg
T₁ = Initial temperature = 25 °C = 25 + 273.15 K = 298.15 K
T₂ = Final temperature = 10 °C = 10 + 273.15 K = 283.15 K
P₂ = Final pressure
Formula: \(\frac{\mathrm{P}_{1} \mathrm{~V}_{1}}{\mathrm{~T}_{1}}=\frac{\mathrm{P}_{2} \mathrm{~V}_{2}}{\mathrm{~T}_{2}}\)
Calculation: According to combined gas law.

Ans: The final pressure of a gas is 676.654 mm Hg.

Question I.
A neon-dioxygen mixture contains 70.6 g dioxygen and 167.5g neon. If pressure of the mixture of the gases in the cylinder is 25 bar. What is the partial pressure of dioxygen and neon in the mixture?
Answer:
Given: m_O₂ = 70.6 g, m_Ne = 167.5 g,
P_Total = 25 bar
To find: Partial pressure of each gas
Formula: P₁ = x₁ × P_Total
Calculation: Determine number of moles (n) of each gas using formula: n = \(\frac{\mathrm{m}}{\mathrm{M}}\)

Ans: The partial pressure of dioxygen and neon are 5.2 bar and 19.8 bar respectively.

Question J.
Calculate the pressure in atm of 1.0 mole of helium in a 2.0 dm³ container at 20.0 °C.
Answer:
Given: n = number of moles = 1.0 mol, V = volume = 2.0 dm³
T = Temperature = 20.0 °C = 20.0 + 273.15 K = 293.15 K
R = 0.0821 L atm K^-1 mol^-1
To find: Pressure (P)
Formula: PV = nRT
Calculation: According to ideal gas equation,

Ans: The pressure of the given helium gas is 12.03 atm.

Question K.
Calculate the volume of 1 mole of a gas at exactly 20 °C at a pressure of 101.35 kPa.
Answer:
Given: n = number of moles = 1 mol, P = pressure = 101.35 kPa = 1.00025 atm ≈ 1 atm
T = Temperature = 20 °C = 20 + 273.15 K = 293.15 K
R = 0.0821 dm³ atm K^-1 mol^-1
To find: Volume (V)
Formula: PV = nRT
Calculation: According to ideal gas equation,
PV = nRT

Ans: The volume of the given gas is 24.07 dm³.

Question L.
Calculate the number of molecules of methane in 0.50 m³ of the gas at a pressure of 2.0 × 10² kPa and a temperature of exactly 300 K.
Answer:
V = 0.5 m³, P = 2.0 × 10² kPa = 2.0 × 10⁵ Pa
T = 300 K, R = 8.314 J K^-1 mol^-1
To find: Number of molecules of methane gas
Formula: PV = nRT
Calculation: According to ideal gas equation,
n = \(\frac{\mathrm{PV}}{\mathrm{RT}}=\frac{2.0 \times 10^{5} \times 0.5}{8.314 \times 300}=40 \mathrm{~mol}\)
Number of molecules = n × NA = 40 × 6.022 × 10²³ = 2.4088 × 10²³ ≈ 2.409 × 10²⁵
Ans: The number of molecules of methane gas present is 2.409 × 10²⁵ molecules.

11th Chemistry Digest Chapter 10 States of Matter Intext Questions and Answers

Do you know? (Textbook Page No. 140)

Question 1.
Consider three compounds: H₂S, H₂Se and H₂O. Identify which has the highest boiling point. Justify.
Answer:
Among the three compounds H₂O, H₂S and H₂Se, the first one, H₂O has the smallest molecular mass. But it has the highest B.P. of 100 °C. B.P. of H₂S is -60 °C and of H₂Se is -41.25 °C. The extraordinary high B.P. of H₂O is due to very strong hydrogen bonding even though it has the lowest molecular mass.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 140)

Question i.
What are the various components present in the atmosphere?
Answer:
Various components present in the atmosphere are as follows:
a. Nitrogen (78%)
b. Oxygen (21%)
c. Carbon dioxide and other gases (0.03%)
d. Inert gases (mainly argon) (0.97%)
e. Traces of water vapour

Question ii.
Name five elements and five compounds those exist as gases at room temperature.
Answer:
Five elements and five compounds that exist as gases at room temperature are as follows:

No.	Elements
a.	Nitrogen
b.	Oxygen
c.	Hydrogen
d.	Chlorine
e.	Argon

No.	Compounds
a.	Carbon dioxide
b.	Carbon monoxide
c.	Nitrogen dioxide
d.	Sulphur dioxide
e.	Methane

Just think. (Textbook Page No. 140)

Question 1.
What is air?
Answer:

Air is a mixture of various gases.
One cannot see air but can feel the cool breeze.
The composition of air by volume is around 78 percent N₂, 21 percent O₂ and 1 percent other gases including CO₂.

Use your brainpower. (Textbook Page No. 141)

Question 1.
Find the unit in which car-tyre pressure is measured.
Answer:
Car-tyre pressure is measured in the units of pounds per square inch (psi) or Newton per metre square (N m^-2).

Do you know? (Textbook Page No. 142)

Question 1.
How does a bicycle pump work?
Answer:
A bicycle pump works on Boyle’s law. Pushing a bicycle pump squashes the same number of particles into a smaller volume. This squashing means particles hit the walls of the pump more often, increasing the pressure. The increased pressure of a gas can be felt on palm by pushing in the piston of a bicycle pump.

Internet my friend (Textbook Page No. 143)

Question 1.
i. Watch Boyle’s law experiment.
ii. Find applications of Boyle’s law.
iii. Try to study how Boyle’s law helps in ‘scuba-diving’ i.e., importance of Boyle’s law in scuba diving an exhilarating sport.
Answer:
i. Students can refer to ‘Boyle’s law experiment’ on YouTube channel of ‘Socratica’.
ii. a. Syringes: When the plunger of a syringe is pulled back out, it causes the volume of the gas inside it to increase due to the reduction of pressure. This creates a vacuum in the syringe, which is constantly trying to adjust the pressure back to normal. However, since the only substance available, such as the blood or medication, is on the other side of the needle, this liquid is sucked into the vacuum, increasing the pressure and decreasing the volume of the gas. When we push the plunger back down, the pressure again increases, lowering the volume inside the syringe, and pushing the fluid out.

b. Respiration: Boyle’s law is essential for the human breathing process. When person breathes in, his/her lung volume increases and the pressure within decreases. Since air always moves from areas of high pressure to areas of low pressure, air is drawn into the lungs. The opposite happens when person exhales. Since the lung volume decreases, the pressure within increases, forcing the air out of the lungs

c. Storage of Gases: Many industries store gases under high pressure. This allows the gas to be stored at a low volume, saving plenty of storage space.
[Note: Students are expected to search more on the internet about various other applications of Boyle’s law on their own.]

iii. Importance of Boyle’s law in scuba diving:
a. Boyle’s law affects scuba diving in many ways.
b. It explains the role of pressure in the aquatic environment.
c. As divers descend, the water pressure surrounding them increases, causing air in their body and equipment to have a smaller volume. As the divers ascend, water pressure decreases, causing their body and equipment to expand to acquire a greater volume.
d. Furthermore, it is crucial that scuba divers never attempt to hold their breath when immersed in water.
e. According to Boyle’s law, if divers attempt this when they ascend to a body of water of less pressure, then the air that is trapped in their lungs will over-expand and rupture. This is known as Pulmonary Barotrauma. Thus, it is important for scuba divers to exhale as they ascend because the external pressure increases.
f. Also, if a diver returns to the surface too quickly, dissolved gases in the blood expand and form bubbles, which can get stuck in capillaries and organs (causing the ‘bends’).
[Note: Students are expected to collect additional information their own.]

Just think. (Textbook Page No. 144)

Question i.
Why does bicycle tyre burst during summer?
Answer:

According to Charles’ law, at constant pressure, the volume of a fixed amount of a gas varies directly with the temperature. This means that as the temperature increases, the volume also increases.
During summer, the temperature of the surrounding air is high. Due to the high temperature, the air inside the tyre gets heated. This will increase the volume of the tyres and it will burst.

Question ii.
Why do the hot air balloons fly high?
Answer:

According to Charles’ law, at constant pressure, gases expand on heating and become less dense. Thus, hot air is less dense than cold air.
In a hot air balloon, the air inside it is heated by a burner. Upon heating, the air inside the balloon expands and becomes lighter (less dense) than the cooler air on the outside. This causes the hot air balloon to fly high in air.

Just think. (Textbook Page No. 145)

Question 1.
i. List out various real-life examples of Charles’ law.
ii. Refer and watch Charles’ law experiments.
Answer:
i. Few real-life examples of Charles’ law:
a. Helium balloon: If we fill a helium balloon in a warm or hot room, and then take it into a cold room, it shrinks up and will look like it has lost some of the air inside it. This shows that gases expand on heating and contract on cooling.
b. A bottle of deodorant: If we expose a bottle of deodorant to sunlight and high temperatures, the air molecules inside the bottle will expand which can lead to the bursting of the deodorant bottle. This is another example of Charles’ law.
c. Basketball: You may have noticed that a basketball has less responsive bounce during winter than in summer. This yet another example of Charles’ law. When a basketball is inflated, the air pressure inside it is set to a fixed value. As the temperature falls, the volume of the gas inside the ball also decreases proportionally.
[Note: Students are expected to collect additional real-life examples on their own,]

ii. pi [Note: Students can scan the adjacent QR code to visualize Charles’ law with the aid of a relevant video.]

Use your brainpower. (Textbook Page No. 146)

Question 1.
Why does the pressure in the automobile tyres change during hot summer or winter season?
Answer:

According to Gay-Lussac’s law, at constant volume, pressure of a fixed amount of a gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature.
During hot summer, the temperature of automobile tyre increases faster. Consequently, the air inside the tyre gets heated and the gas molecules starts moving faster.
As the volume of the tyre remains constant, the pressure inside it increases.
During winter, the temperature of automobile tyre decreases. Consequently, the air inside the tyre gets cooled and the gas molecules starts moving much slower and the pressure inside the tyre decreases.

Just think. (Textbook Page No. 149)

Question 1.
Do all pure gases and mixtures of gases obey the gas laws?
Answer:
Yes, the gas laws are also applicable to the mixtures of gases. The measurable properties of mixture of the gases such as pressure, temperature, volume and amount of gaseous mixture are all related by an ideal gas law.

Just think. (Textbook Page No. 150)

Question 1.
Where is Dalton’s law applicable?
Answer:
Air is gaseous mixture of different gases. Dalton’s law is useful for the study of various phenomena in air, for example, air pollution.

Just think. (Textbook Page No. 155)

Question 1.
What makes the oil rise through the wick in an oil lamp?
Answer:
In an oil lamp, oil rises through the wick due to the capillary action. Such a capillary rise of oil is due to surface tension of oil. The wick acts as a capillary tube. When the wick is placed in oil, the attractive forces between the oil and the inner wall of capillary (wick) pull the oil up through the wick.

11th Std Chemistry Questions And Answers:

11th Chemistry Chapter 12 Exercise Chemical Equilibrium Solutions Maharashtra Board

January 7, 2025January 6, 2025 by Bhagya

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Chemistry Textbook Solutions Chapter 12 Chemical Equilibrium Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Chemical Equilibrium Class 11 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 12 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Chemistry Class 11 Chapter 12 Exercise Solutions

1. Choose the correct option

Question A.
The equlilibrium , H₂O_(l) ⇌ H⁺_(aq) + OH^–_(aq) is
a. dynamic
b. static
c. physical
d. mechanical
Answer:
a. dynamic

Question B.
For the equlibrium, A ⇌ 2B + Heat, the number of ‘A’ molecules increases if
a. volume is increased
b. temperature is increased
c. catalyst is added
d. concerntration of B is decreased
Answer:
b. temperature is increased

Question C.
For the equilibrium Cl_2(g) + 2NO_(g) ⇌ 2NOCl_(g) the concerntration of NOCl will increase if the equlibrium is disturbed by ………..
a. adding Cl₂
b. removing NO
c. adding NOCl
d. removal of Cl₂
Answer:
a. adding Cl₂

Question D.
The relation between K_c and K_p for the reaction A_(g) + B_(g) ⇌ 2C_(g) + D_(g) is
a. K_c = K_p/RT
b. K_p = Kc²
c. K_c = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\mathrm{Kp}}}\)
d. K_p/K_c = 1
Answer:
a. K_c = K_p/RT

Question E.
When volume of the equilibrium reaction C_(s) + H₂O_(g) ⇌ CO_(g) + H_2(g) is increased at constant temperature the equilibrium will
a. shift from left to right
b. shift from right to left
c. be unaltered
d. can not be predicted
Answer:
a. shift from left to right

2. Answer the following

Question A.
State Law of Mass action.
Answer:
Law of mass action: The law of mass action states that the rate of a chemical reaction at each instant is proportional to the product of concentrations of all the reactants.

Question B.
Write an expression for equilibrium constant with respect to concerntration.
Answer:
For a reversible chemical reaction at equilibrium, aA + bB ⇌ cD + dD
Equilibrium constant (K_c) = \(\frac{[C]^{\mathrm{c}}[\mathrm{D}]^{\mathrm{d}}}{[\mathrm{A}]^{\mathrm{a}}[\mathrm{B}]^{\mathrm{b}}}\)

Question C.
Derive mathematically value of K_p for A_(g) + B_(g) ⇌ C_(g) + D_(g).
Answer:
When the concentrations of reactants and products in gaseous reactions are expressed in terms of their partial pressure, then the equilibrium constant is represented as K_p.
∴ For the reaction,
A_(g)+ B_(g) ⇌ C_(g) + D_(g)
the equilibrium constant (K_C) can be expressed using partial pressure as: K_p = \(\frac{P_{C} \times P_{D}}{P_{A} \times P_{B}}\)
Where P_A, P_B, P_C and P_D are equilibrium partial pressures of A, B, C and D respectively.

Question D.
Write expressions of K_C for following chemical reactions
i. 2SO_2(g) + O_2(g) ⇌ 2SO_3(g)
ii. N₂O_4(g) ⇌ 2NO_2(g)
Answer:
i. 2SO_2(g) + O_2(g) ⇌ 2SO_3(g)
K_c = \(\frac{\left[\mathrm{SO}_{3}\right]^{2}}{\left[\mathrm{SO}_{2}\right]^{2}\left[\mathrm{O}_{2}\right]}\)

ii. N₂O_4(g) ⇌ 2NO_2(g)
K_c = \(\frac{\left[\mathrm{NO}_{2}\right]^{2}}{\left[\mathrm{~N}_{2} \mathrm{O}_{4}\right]}\)

Question E.
Mention various applications of equilibrium constant.
Answer:
Various applications of equilibrium constant:

Prediction of the direction of the reaction
To know the extent of the reaction
To calculate equilibrium concentrations
Link between chemical equilibrium and chemical kinetics

Question F.
How does the change of pressure affect the value of equilibrium constant ?
Answer:
The change of pressure does not affect the value of equilibrium constant.

Question J.
Differentiate irreversible and reversible reaction.
Answer:
Irreversible reaction:

Products are not converted back to reactants.
Reaction stops completely and almost goes to completion.
It can be carried out in an open or closed vessel.
It takes place only in one direction. It is represented by →
e.g. C_(s) + O_2(g) → CO_2(g)

Reversible reaction:

Products arc converted back to reactants.
Reaction appears to have stopped but does not undergo completion.
It is generally carried out in a closed vessel.
It takes place in both directions. It is represented by ⇌
e.g. N_2(g) + O_2(g) ⇌ 2NO_(g)

Question K.
Write suitable conditions of concentration, temperature and pressure used during manufacture of ammonia by Haber process.
Answer:
i. Concentration: Addition of H₂ or N₂ both favours forward reaction. This increases the yield of NH₃.
ii. Temperature: The formation NH₃ is exothermic. Hence, low temperature should favour the formation of NH₃. However, at low temperatures, the rate of reaction is small. At high temperatures, the reaction occurs rapidly but decomposition of NH₃ occurs. Hence, optimum temperature of about 773 K is used.
iii. Pressure: The forward reaction is favoured with high pressure as it proceeds with decrease in number of moles. At high pressure, the catalyst becomes inefficient. Therefore, optimum pressure needs to be used. The optimum pressure is about 250 atm.

Question L.
Relate the terms reversible reactions and dynamic equilibrium.
Answer:

Reversible reactions are the reactions which do not go to completion and occur in both the directions simultaneously.
If such a reaction is allowed to take place for a long time, so that the concentrations of the reactants and products do not vary with time, then the reaction will attain equilibrium.
Since, both the forward and backward reactions continue to take place in opposite directions in the same speed, the equilibrium achieved is dynamic in nature.

Thus, if the reaction is not reversible then it cannot attain dynamic equilibrium.

Question M.
For the equilibrium.
\(\mathrm{BaSO}_{4(\mathrm{~s})} \rightleftharpoons \mathrm{Ba}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{2+}+\mathrm{SO}_{4(\mathrm{aq})}^{2-}\)
state the effect of
a. Addition of Ba²⁺ ion.
b. Removal of SO₄^2- ion
c. Addition of BaSO_4(s)
on the equilibrium.
Answer:
a. Addition of Ba²⁺ ion will favour the reverse reaction, (that is, equilibrium shifts from right to left). This increases the amount of BaSO₄.
b. Removal of \(\mathrm{SO}_{4}^{2-}\) ion will favour the forward reaction, (that is, equilibrium shifts from left to right). This decreases the amount of BaSO₄.
c. Addition of BaSO_4(s) will not affect the equilibrium as the equilibrium constant expression does not include pure solids.

3. Explain :

Question A.
Dynamic nature of chemical equilibrium with suitable example.
Answer:
Dynamic nature of chemical equilibrium:
i. Consider a chemical reaction: A ⇌ B.
K_c = [B]/[A]
At equilibrium, the ratio of concentration of the product to that of the concentration of the reactant is constant and this is equal to K_c.

ii. At this stage reaction takes place in both the directions with same speed although the reaction appears to have stopped. Thus, the chemical equilibrium is dynamic in nature. Dynamic means moving and at a microscopic level, the system is in motion.

iii. For example, in the reaction between H₂ and I₂ to form HI, the colour of the reaction mixture becomes constant because the concentrations of H₂, I₂ and HI become constant at equilibrium.
H₂ + I₂ ⇌ 2HI
Thus, when equilibrium is reached, the reaction appears to have stopped. However, this is not the case. The reaction is still going on in the forward and backward direction but the rate of forward reaction is equal to the rate of backward reaction. Hence, chemical equilibrium is dynamic in nature and not static.

Question B.
Relation between K_c and K_p.
Answer:
Consider a general reversible reaction:
aA_(g) + bB_(g) ⇌ cC_(g) + dD_(g)
The equilibrium constant (K_p) in terms of partial pressure is given by equation:
K_p = \(\frac{\left(P_{C}\right)^{c}\left(P_{D}\right)^{d}}{\left(P_{A}\right)^{a}\left(P_{B}\right)^{b}}\) …………(1)
For a mixture of ideal gases, the partial pressure of each component is directly proportional to its concentration at constant temperature.
For component A,
P_AV = n_ART
P_A = \(\frac{\mathrm{n}_{\mathrm{A}}}{\mathrm{V}}\) × RT
\(\frac{\mathrm{n}_{\mathrm{A}}}{\mathrm{V}}\) is molar concentration of A in mol dm^-3 V
∴ P_A = [A]RT where, [A] = \(\frac{\mathrm{n}_{\mathrm{A}}}{\mathrm{V}}\)
Similarly, for other components, P_B = [B]RT, P_C = [C]RT, P_D = [D]RT
Now substituting equations for P_A, P_B, P_C, P_D in equation (1), we get

where Δn = (number of moles of gaseous products) – (number of moles of gaseous reactants) in the balanced chemical equation.
R = 0.08206 L atm K^-1 mol^-1
[Note: While calculating the value of K_p, pressure should be expressed in bar, because standard state of pressure is 1 bar. 1 pascal (Pa) = 1 N m^-2 and 1 bar = 10⁵ Pa]

Question C.
State and explain Le Chatelier’s principle with reference to
1. change in temperature
2. change in concerntration.
Answer:
Statement: When a system at equilibrium is subjected to a change in any of the factors determining the equilibrium conditions of a system, system will respond in such a way as to minimize the effect of change.

1. Change in temperature:

Consider the equilibrium reaction,
PCl_5(g) ⇌ PCl_3(g) + Cl_2(g) + 92.5 kJ
The forward reaction is exothermic. According to Le Chatelier’s principle an increase in temperature shifts the position of equilibrium to the left.
The reverse reaction is endothermic. An endothermic reaction consumes heat. Therefore, the equilibrium must shift in the reverse direction to use up the added heat (heat energy converted to chemical energy).
Thus, an increase in temperature favours formation of PCl₅ while a decrease in temperature favours decomposition of PCl₅.

2. Change in concentration:

Consider reversible reaction representing production of ammonia (NH3).
N_2(g) + 3H_2(g) ⇌ 2NH_3(g) + Heat
According to Le Chatelier’s principle, when H₂ or N₂ is added to equilibrium, the effect of addition of H₂ or N₂ or is reduced by shifting the equilibrium from left to right so that the added N₂ or H₂ is consumed.
The forward reaction occurs to a large extent than the reverse reaction until the new equilibrium is established. As a result, the yield of NH₃ is increases.
In general, if the concentration of one of the species in equilibrium mixture is increased, the position of equilibrium shifts in the opposite so as to reduce the concentration of this species. However, the equilibrium constant remains unchanged.

Question D.
a. Reversible reaction
b. Rate of reaction
Answer:
a. Reversible reaction:
i. Reactions which do not go to completion and occur in both the directions simultaneously are called reversible reactions.
ii. Reversible reactions proceed in both directions. The direction from reactants to products is the forward reaction, whereas the opposite reaction from products to reactants is called the reverse or backward reaction.
iii. A reversible reaction is denoted by drawing in between the reactants and product a double arrow, one pointing in the forward direction and other in the reverse direction (⇌ or ⇄).
ii. At high temperature in an open container, the CO₂ gas formed will escape away. Therefore, it is not possible to obtain back
e.g. a. H_2(g) + I_2(g) ⇌ 2HI_(g)
b. CH₃COOH_(aq) + H₂O_(l) ⇌ CH₃COO^–_(aq) + H₃O⁺_(aq)

b. Rate of reaction:
Rate of a chemical reaction:
i. The rate of a chemical reaction can be determined by measuring the extent to which the concentration of a reactant decreases in the given time interval, or extent to which the concentration of a product increases in the given time interval.
ii. Mathematically, the rate of reaction is expressed as:
Rate = \(-\frac{\mathrm{d}[\text { Reactant }]}{\mathrm{dT}}=\frac{\mathrm{d}[\text { Product }]}{\mathrm{dT}}\)
where, d[reactant] and d[product] are the small decrease or increase in concentration during the small time interval dT.

Question E.
What is the effect of adding chloride on the position of the equilibrium ?
AgCl_(s) ⇌ Ag⁺_(aq) + Cl^–_(aq)
Answer:
Addition of Cl ion will favour the reverse reaction, (that is, equilibrium shift from right to left) This increases the amount of AgCl.

11th Chemistry Digest Chapter 12 Chemical Equilibrium Intext Questions and Answers

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 174)

Question 1.
What are the types of the following changes?
Natural waterfall, spreading of smoke from burning incense stick, diffusion of fragrance of flowers.
Answer: Natural waterfall, spreading of smoke from burning incense stick and diffusion of fragrance of flowers are irreversible physical changes.

Try this. (Textbook Page No. 174)

Question 1.
Dissolve 4 g cobalt chloride in 40 mL water. It forms a reddish pink solution. Add 60 mL concentrated HCl to this. It will turn blue. Take 5 mL of this solution in a test tube and place it in a beaker containing ice water mixture. The colour of solution will become pink. Place the same test tube in a beaker containing water at 90 °C. The colour of the solution turns blue.
Answer:
Inference: The colour change of the solution from pink to blue is caused by the chemical reaction. On changing the temperature, the direction of the reaction reverses. This indicates that the chemical reaction is reversible. This activity is an example of a reversible chemical reaction.
The reaction can be written as:

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 174)

Question 1.
What does violet colour of the solution in the activity mentioned in Q.2 indicate?
Answer:
In the reaction, the reactant \(\mathrm{Co}\left(\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}\right)_{6}^{2+}\) is pink in colour and the product \(\mathrm{CoCl}_{4}^{2-}\) is blue in colour. When the solution contains both the reactant and product, the resulting solution will appear violet. This indicates that the reaction has attained equilibrium (that is, the reaction proceeds in both the direction with equal rates and is a reversible reaction).

(Textbook Page No. 174)

Question 1.
Calcium earbonate when heated strongly, decomposes to form calcium oxide and carbon dioxide.
i. If this reaction is carried out in a closed container, what will we observe?
ii. Consider this reaction occurring in an open system or container, what will happen? Can we obtain back calcium carbonate?
Answer:
At high temperature in a closed container, we will find that after certain time, some calcium carbonate is present. If we continue the experiment over a longer period of time at the same temperature, the concentrations of calcium carbonate, calcium oxide and carbon dioxide remain unchanged. The reaction thus appears to have stopped and the system has attained the equilibrium. Actually, the reaction does not stop but proceeds in both the directions with equal rates. In other words, calcium carbonate decomposes to give calcium oxide and carbon dioxide at a particular rate. Exactly at the same rate the calcium oxide and carbon dioxide recombine and form calcium carbonate. Thus, in closed container, reversible reaction occurs.

ii. At high temperature in an open container, the CO₂ gas formed will escape away. Therefore, it is not possible to obtain back calcium carbonate. Thus, in an open container, irreversible reaction occurs.
\(\mathrm{CaCO}_{3(\mathrm{~s})} \stackrel{\text { Heat }}{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{CaO}_{(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{CO}_{2(\mathrm{~g})}\)

Internet my friend (Textbook Page No. 175)

Question 1.
i. Equilibrium existing in the formation of oxyhaemoglobin in human body
ii. Refrigeration system in equilibrium
Answer:
i. Equilibrium existing in the formation of oxyhaemoglobin in human body:
Oxygen is transported in the body with the assistance of red blood cells. The red blood cells contain a pigment called haemoglobin. Each haemoglobin molecule binds four oxygen molecules to form oxyhaemoglobin. Thus, the oxygen molecules are carried to individual cells in the body tissue where they are released.

The binding of oxygen to haemoglobin is a reversible reaction.
Hb + 4O₂ ⇌ Hb.4O₂
When the oxygen concentration is high (in the lungs), haemoglobin and oxygen combine to form oxyhaemoglobin and the reaction achieves equilibrium. But, when the oxygen concentration is low (in the body tissue), the reverse reaction occurs, that is, oxyhaemoglobin dissociates to haemoglobin and oxygen.
Thus, an equilibrium exists in the formation of oxyhaemoglobin in the human body.

ii. Refrigeration system in equilibrium:
a. Refrigeration system works on the principle of thermal equilibrium i.e., when a cold body comes in contact with a hot body then the heat flows from hot body to cold body until both the bodies attain the same temperature.
b. In the same way, a liquid (called as refrigerant) passes through the various compartments in the refrigerator and eventually lowers the temperature inside the refrigerator. This cycle is briefly described below:
Refrigerant flows through the compressor, which raises the pressure of the refrigerant. Next, the refrigerant flows through the condenser, where it condenses from vapor form to liquid form, giving off heat in the process. The heat given off is what j makes the condenser “hot to the touch.” After the condenser, the refrigerant goes through the expansion valve, where it experiences a pressure drop. Finally, the refrigerant goes to the evaporator. The refrigerant draws heat from the evaporator which causes the refrigerant to vaporize. The evaporator draws heat from the region that is to be cooled. The vaporized refrigerant goes back to the compressor to restart the cycle. In each of the heat transfer process, equilibrium is achieved (that is, heat given off is equivalent to the cooling achieved.)

[Note: Students are expected to collect additional information about equilibrium existing in the formation of oxyhaemoglobin in human body’ and ‘refrigeration system in equilibrium on their own.]

Try this. (Textbook Page No. 176)

Question 1.
i. Place some iodine crystals in a closed vessel. Observe the change in colour intensity in it.
ii. What do you see in the flask after some time?
Answer:
i. The vessel gets slowly filled up with violet coloured vapour of iodine. After a certain time, the intensity of violet colour becomes stable.
ii. After sometime, both solid iodine and iodine vapour are present in the closed vessel. Iodine crystals will be seen deposited near the mouth of the flask and violet coloured vapour will be filled in the entire flask. It means solid iodine sublimes to give iodine vapour and the iodine vapour condenses to form solid iodine. The stable intensity of the colour indicates a state of equilibrium between solid and vapour iodine.

Try this. (Textbook Page No. 176)

Question 1.
i. Dissolve a given amount of sugar in minimum amount of water at room temperature.
ii. Increase the temperature and dissolve more amount of sugar in the same amount of water to make a thick sugar syrup solution.
iii. Cool the syrup to the room temperature.
Answer:
Observation: Sugar crystals separate out.
Inference: The sugar syrup solution prepared is a saturated solution. Therefore, additional amount of sugar cannot be dissolved in it at room temperature.
In a saturated solution, there exists dynamic equilibrium between the solute molecules in the solid state and in dissolved state.
Sugar_(aq) ⇌ Sugar_(s)
The rate of dissolution of sugar = The rate of crystallization of sugar.
However, when it is heated, additional amount of sugar can be dissolved in it. But when such a thick sugar syrup is cooled again to room temperature, sugar crystals separate out.

Do you know? (Textbook Page No. 177)

Question 1.
What is a saturated solution?
Answer:
A saturated solution is the solution when additional solute cannot be dissolved in it at the given temperature. The concentration of solute in a saturated solution depends on temperature.

Observe and discuss. (Textbook Page No. 177)

Question 1.
Colourless N₂O₄ taken in a closed flask is converted to NO₂ (a reddish brown gas).

Answer:
Observation: Initially, the colourless gas (N₂O₄) turns to reddish brown (NO₂) gas. After sometime, the colour becomes lighter indicating the formation of N₂O₄ from NO₂.
Inference: This indicates that the reaction is reversible. In such reaction, the reactants combine to form the products and the products combine to give the reactants. As soon as the forward reaction produces any NO₂, the reverse reaction begins and NO₂, starts combining back to N₂O₄. At equilibrium, the concentrations of N₂O₄ and NO₂remain unchanged and do not vary with time, because the rate of formation of NO₂ is equal to the rate of formation of N₂O₄.

[Note: For any reversible reaction in a closed system whenever the opposing reactions (forward and reaction) are occurring at different rates, the forward reaction will gradually become slower and the reverse reaction will become faster. Finally, the rates become equal and equilibrium is established.]

Discuss (Textbook Page No. 177)

i. Consider the following dissociation reaction:

The reaction is carried out in a closed vessel starting with hydrogen iodide.
ii. Now, let us start with hydrogen and iodine vapour in a closed container at a certain temperature.
H_2(g) + I_2(g) ⇌ 2HI_(g)
Answer:
i. Starting with hydrogen iodide:
Observations:
a. At first, there is an increase in the intensity of violet colour.
b. After certain time, the increase in the intensity of violet colour stops.
c. When contents in a closed vessel are analyzed at this stage, it is observed that reaction mixture contains the hydrogen iodide, hydrogen and iodine with their concentrations being constant over time.
Inference:
The rate of decomposition of HI becomes equal to the rate of combination of H₂ and I₂. At equilibrium, no net change is observed and both reactions continue to occur at equal rates.
Thus, the reaction represents chemical equilibrium.

ii. Starting with hydrogen and iodine:
Observations:
a. At first, there is a decrease in the intensity of violet colour.
b. After certain time, the decrease in the intensity of violet colour stops.
c. When contents in a closed vessel are analyzed at this stage, it is observed that reaction mixture contains hydrogen, iodine and hydrogen iodide with their concentrations being constant over time.
Inference:
The rate of combination of H₂ and I₂ becomes equal to the rate of decomposition of HI. The reaction attains chemical equilibrium.

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 180)

Question 1.
Write ideal gas equation with significance of each term involved in it.
Answer:
Ideal gas equation is PV = nRT.
where, P = Pressure of the gas
V = Volume of the gas
n = Number of moles of the gas
R = universal gas constant
T = Absolute temperature of the gas

Just think. (Textbook page no. 181)

Question 1.
Two processes, which are taking place in opposite directions are in equilibrium. How to write equilibrium constant expersions for heterogeneous equilibrium?
Answer:
Equilibrium in a system having more than one phase is called heterogeneous equilibrium.
If ethanol is placed in a conical flask, liquid-vapour equilibrium is established.
C₂H₅OH_(l) ⇌ C₂H₅OH_(g)
For a given temperature,
K_c = \(\frac{\left[\mathrm{C}_{2} \mathrm{H}_{5} \mathrm{OH}_{(g)}\right]}{\left[\mathrm{C}_{2} \mathrm{H}_{5} \mathrm{OH}_{(l)}\right]}\)
But [C₂H₅OH_(l)] = 1
∴ K_c = [C₂H₅OH_(g)]
Thus, at any given temperature, density is constant irrespective of the amount of liquid, and the term in the denominator is also constant.
ii. similarly, consider I_2(g) ⇌ I_2(g)
K_c = [I₂(g)]
iii. Thus, the expression for equilibrium constant does not contain the concentration of pure solids and pure liquids. That is because for any pure liquid and solid, the concentration is simply its density and this will not change no matter how much solid or liquid is used. Hence, the expression for heterogeneous equilibrium only uses the concentration of gases and dissolved substances (aq.). Solids are pure substances with unchanging concentrations and thus equilibria including solids are simplified.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 183)

Question 1.
Comment on the extent to which the forward reaction will proceed, from the magnitude of the equilibrium constant for the following reactions:
i. H_2(g) + I_2(g) ⇌ 2HI_(g), K_c = 20 at 550 K
ii. H_2(g) + Cl_2(g) ⇌ 2HCl_(g), K_c = 1018 at 550 K
Answer:
i. For the reaction, K_c = 20 at 550 K
If the value of K_c is the range of 10^-3 to 10³, the forward and reverse proceed to equal extents.
Hence, the given reaction will form appreciable concentrations of both reactants and the product at equilibrium.

ii. For the reaction, K_c = 10¹⁸ at 550 K
If the value of K_c >>> 10³, forward reaction is favoured.
Hence, the given reaction will proceed in the forward direction and will nearly go to completion.

Use your brain power (Textbook Page No. 183)

Question 1.
The value of Kc for the dissociation reaction:
H_2(g) ⇌ 2H_(g) is 1.2 × 10^-42 at 500 K.
Does the equilibrium mixture contain mainly hydrogen molecules or hydrogen atoms?
Answer:
When the value of K_c is very low (that is, K_c < 10^-3), then at equilibrium, only a small fraction of the reactants is converted into products.
For the given reaction, K_c <<< 10³ at 500 K.
Hence, the equilibrium mixture contains mainly hydrogen molecules.

Internet my friend (Textbook Page No. 183)

Question 1.
Collect information about chemical equilibrium.
Answer:
https://www.chemguide.co.uk/physical/equilibria/introduction.html
[Note: Students can use the above link as reference and collect information about chemical equilibrium.]

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 188)

i. If NH₃ is added to the equilibrium system (Haber process), in which direction will the equilibrium shift to consume added NH₃ to reduce the effect of stress?
ii. In this process, out of the reactions (reverse and forward reaction), which reaction will occur to a greater extent?
iii. What will be the effect on yield of NH₃?
Answer:
i. If NH₃ is added to the equilibrium system, the equilibrium will shift from right to left to consume added NH₃ to reduce the effect of stress.
ii. If NH₃ is added to the equilibrium system, then reverse reaction will occur to greater extent.
iii. If NH₃ is added to the equilibrium system, the equilibrium will shift in reverse direction and the yield of NH₃ will decrease.

Internet my friend (Textbook Page No. 188)

i. Collect information about Haber process in chemical equilibrium.
ii. Youtube.Freescienceslessons: The Haber process
Answer:
i. https://www.chemguide.co.uk/physical/equilibria/haber.html
[Note: Students can use the above link as reference and collect information about chemical equilibrium involved in Haber process.]
ii. Students are expected to refer ‘The Haber process ’ on YouTube channel ‘Freescienceslessons’

11th Std Chemistry Questions And Answers:

11th Chemistry Chapter 4 Exercise Structure of Atom Solutions Maharashtra Board

January 7, 2025January 6, 2025 by Bhagya

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Chemistry Textbook Solutions Chapter 4 Structure of Atom Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Structure of Atom Class 11 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 4 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Chemistry Class 11 Chapter 4 Exercise Solutions

1. Choose correct option.

Question A.
The energy difference between the shells goes on ……….. when moved away from the nucleus.
a. Increasing
b. decreasing
c. equalizing
d. static
Answer:
b. decreasing

Question B.
The value of Plank’s constant is
a. 6.626× 10^-34 Js
b. 6.023× 10^-24 Js
c. 1.667 × 10^-28 Js
d. 6.626× 10^-28 Js
Answer:
a. 6.626× 10^-34 Js

Question C.
p-orbitals are ……. in shape.
a. spherical
b. dumb bell
c. double dumb bell
d. diagonal
Answer:
b. dumbbell

Question D.
“No two electrons in the same atoms can have identical set of four quantum numbers”. This statement is known as
a. Pauli’s exclusion principle
b. Hund’s rule
c. Aufbau rule
d. Heisenberg uncertainty principle
Answer:
a. Pauli’s exclusion principle

Question E.
Principal Quantum number describes
a. shape of orbital
b. size of the orbital
c. spin of electron
d. orientation of in the orbital electron cloud
Answer:
b. size of the orbital

2. Make the pairs:

	A		B
a.	Neutrons	i.	six electrons
b.	p-orbital	ii.	-1.6 × 10^-19 C
c.	charge on electron	iii.	Ultraviolet region
d.	Lyman series	iv.	Chadwick

Answer:
a – iv,
b – i,
c – ii,
d – iii

3. Complete the following information about the isotopes in the chart given below :

(Hint: Refer to Periodic Table if required)
Answer:

4. Match the following :

Answer:
a – iv,
b – iii,
c – ii,
d – i

5. Answer in one sentence :

Question A.
If an element ‘X’ has mass number 11 and it has 6 neutrons, then write its representation.
Answer:
The representation of the given element is \({ }_{5}^{11} \mathrm{X}\).

Question B.
Name the element that shows simplest emission spectrum.
Answer:
The element that shows simplest emission spectrum is hydrogen.

Question C.
State Heisenberg uncertainty principle.
Answer:
Heisenberg uncertainty principle states that “It is impossible to determine simultaneously, the exact position and exact momentum (or velocity) of an electron”.

Question D.
Give the names of quantum numbers.
Answer:
The four quantum numbers are: principal quantum number (n), azimuthal or subsidiary quantum number (l), magnetic quantum number (m_l) and electron spin quantum number (m_s).

Question E.
Identify from the following the isoelectronic species:
Ne, O^2-, Na⁺ OR Ar, Cl^2-, K⁺
Answer:
Atoms and ions having the same number of electrons are isoelectronic.

Species	No. of electrons
Ne	10
O^2-	8 + 2 = 10
Na⁺	11 – 1 = 10
Ar	18
Cl^2-	17 + 2 = 19
K⁺	19 – 1 = 18

Hence, Ne, O^2-, Na⁺ are isoelectronic species.

6. Answer the following questions.

Question A.
Differentiate between Isotopes and Isobars.
Answer:

No.	Isotopes	Isobars
i.	Isotopes are atoms of same element.	Isobars are atoms of different elements.
ii.	They have same atomic number but different atomic mass number.	They have same atomic mass number but different atomic numbers.
iii.	They have same number of protons but different number of neutrons.	They have different number of protons and neutrons.
iv.	They have same number of electrons.	They have different number of electrons.
V.	They occupy same position in the modem periodic table.	They occupy different positions in the modem periodic table.
vi.	They have similar chemical properties.	They have different chemical properties.
e.g.	\({ }_{6}^{12} \mathrm{C}\) and \({ }_{6}^{14} \mathrm{C}\)	\({ }_{6}^{14} \mathrm{C}\) and \({ }_{7}^{14} \mathrm{~N}\)

Question B.
Define the terms:
i. Isotones
ii. Isoelectronic species
iii. Electronic configuration
Answer:
i. Isotones: Isotones are defined as the atoms of different elements having same number of neutrons in their nuclei. e.g. \({ }_{5}^{11} \mathrm{B}\) and \({ }_{6}^{12} \mathrm{C}\) having 6 neutrons each are isotones.

ii. Isoelectronic species:
soelectronic species are defined as atoms and ions having the same number of electrons.
e. g. Ar, Ca²⁺ and K⁺ containing 18 electrons each.

iii. Electronic configuration:
Electronic configuration of an atom is defined as the distribution of its electrons in orbitals.

Question C.
State and explain Pauli’s exclusion principle.
Answer:
Pauli’s exclusion principle:
i. Statement: “No two electrons in an atom can have the same set of four quantum numbers”. OR “Only two electrons can occupy the same orbital and they must have opposite spins. ”
ii. The capacity of an orbital to accommodate electrons is decided by Pauli’s exclusion principle.
iii. According to this principle, for an electron belonging to the same orbital, the spin quantum number must be different since the other three quantum numbers are the same.
iv. The spin quantum number can have two values: +\(\frac {1}{2}\) and –\(\frac {1}{2}\).
v. Example, consider helium (He) atom with electronic configuration 1 s².
For the two electrons in Is orbital, the four quantum numbers are as follows:
Electron number Quantum number Set of values of quantum numbers

Thus, in an atom, any two electrons can have the same three quantum numbers, but the fourth quantum number must be different.
vi. This leads to the conclusion that an orbital can accommodate maximum of two electrons and if it has two electrons, they must have opposite spin.

Question D.
State Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity with suitable example.
Answer:
Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity:
i. Statement: “Pairing of electrons in the orbitals belonging to the same subshell does not occur unless each orbital belonging to that subshell has got one electron each.”
ii. Example, according to Hund’s rule, each of the three-degenerate p-orbitals must get one electron of parallel spin before any one of them receives the second electron of opposite spin. Therefore, the configuration of four electrons occupying p-orbitals is represented as

iii. As a result of Hund’s rule, the atom with fully filled and half-filled set of degenerate orbitals has extra stability.

Question E.
Write the drawbacks of Rutherford’s model of an atom.
Answer:
Drawbacks of Rutherford’s model of an atom:
i. Rutherford’s model of an atom resembles the solar system with the nucleus playing the role of the massive sun and the electrons are lighter planets. Thus, according to this model, electrons having negative charge revolve in various orbits around the nucleus. However, the electrons revolving about the nucleus in fixed orbits pose a problem. Such orbital motion is an accelerated motion accompanied by a continuous change in the velocity of electron as noticed from the continuously changing direction. According to Maxwell’s theory of electromagnetic radiation, accelerated charged particles would emit electromagnetic radiation. Hence, an electron revolving around the nucleus should continuously emit radiation and lose equivalent energy. As a result, the orbit would shrink continuously and the electron would come closer to the nucleus by following a spiral path. It would ultimately fall into the nucleus. Thus, Rutherford’s model has an intrinsic instability of atom. However, real atoms are stable.

ii. Rutherford’s model of an atom does not describe the distribution of electrons around the nucleus and their energies.

Question F.
Write postulates of Bohr’s Theory of hydrogen atom.
Answer:
Postulates of Bohr’s theory of hydrogen atom:
i. The electron in the hydrogen atom can move around the nucleus in one of the many possible circular paths of fixed radius and energy. These paths are called orbits, stationary states or allowed energy states. These orbits are arranged concentrically around the nucleus in an increasing order of energy.

ii. The energy of an electron in the orbit does not change with time. However, the electron will move from a lower stationary state to a higher stationary state if and when the required amount of energy is absorbed by the electron. Energy is emitted when electron moves from a higher stationary state to a lower stationary state. The energy change does not take place in a continuous manner.

iii. The frequency of radiation absorbed or emitted when transition occurs between two stationary states that differ in energy by ΔE is given by the following expression:
ν = \(\frac{\Delta E}{h}=\frac{E_{2}-E_{1}}{h}\) ………….(1)
Where E₁ and E₂ are the energies of the lower and higher allowed energy states respectively. This expression is commonly known as Bohr’s frequency rule.

iv. The angular momeñtum of an electron in a given stationary state can be expressed as mvr = n × h/2π
where, n 1,2, 3
Thus, an electron can move only in those orbits for which its angular momentum is integral multiple of h/2π.
Thus, only certain fixed orbits are allowed.

Question G.
Mention demerits of Bohr’s Atomic model.
Answer:
Demerits of Bohr’s atomic model:

Bohr’s atomic model (theory) failed to account for finer details of the atomic spectrum of hydrogen as observed in sophisticated spectroscopic experiments.
Bohr’s atomic model (theory) was unable to explain the spectrum of atoms other than hydrogen.
Bohr’s atomic model (theory) could not explain the splitting of spectral lines in the presence of a magnetic field (Zeeman effect) or electric field (Stark effect).
Bohr’s atomic model (theory) failed to explain the ability of atoms to form molecules by chemical bonds.

Question H.
State the order of filling atomic orbitals following Aufbau principle.
Answer:
Aufbau principle:
i. Aufbau principle gives the sequence in which various orbitals are filled with electrons.
ii. In the ground state of an atom, the orbitals are filled with electrons based on increasing order of energies of orbitals, Pauli’s exclusion principle and Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity.
iii. Increasing order of energies of orbitals:

Orbitals are filled in order of increasing value of (n + l)
In cases where the two orbitals have same value of (n + l), the orbital with lower value of n is filled first.

iv. The increasing order of energy of different orbitals in a multi-electron atom is:
1s < 2s < 2p < 3s < 3p < 4s < 3d < 4p < 5s < 4d < 5p < 6s < 4f < 5d < 6p < 7s and so on.

Question I.
Explain the anomalous behavior of copper and chromium.
Answer:
i. Copper:

Copper (Cu) has atomic number 29.
Its expected electronic configuration is 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 4s² 3d⁹.
The 3d orbital is neither half-filled nor fully filled. Hence, it has less stability.
Due to interelectronic repulsion forces, one 4s electron enters into 3d orbital. This makes 3d orbital completely filled and 4s orbital half-filled which gives extra stability and the electronic configuration of Cu becomes, 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 4s¹ 3d¹⁰.

ii. Chromium:

Chromium (Cr) has atomic number 24.
Its expected electronic configuration is 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 4s²3d⁴.
The 3d orbital is less stable as it is not half-filled.
Due to inter electronic repulsion forces, one 4s electron enters into 3d orbital. This makes 4s and 3d orbitals half-filled which gives extra stability and the electronic configuration of Cr becomes, 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 4s¹ 3d⁵.

Question J.
Write orbital notations for electrons in orbitals with the following quantum numbers.
a. n = 2, l =1
b. n = 4, l = 2
c. n = 3, l = 2
Answer:
i. 2p
ii. 4d
iii. 3d

Question K.
Write electronic configurations of Fe, Fe²⁺, Fe³⁺
Answer:

Species	Orbital notation
Fe	1s²2s² 2p⁶3s² 3p⁶ 4s² 3d⁶ OR [Ar] 4s²3d⁶
Fe²⁺	Is² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 3d⁶ OR [Ar] 3d⁶
Fe³⁺	1s² 2s² 2p⁶3s²3p⁶3d⁵OR [Ar] 3d⁵

Question L.
Write condensed orbital notation of electonic configuration of the following elements:
a. Lithium (Z = 3)
b. Carbon (Z=6)
c. Oxygen (Z = 8)
d. Silicon (Z = 14)
e. Chlorine (Z = 17)
f. Calcium (Z = 20)
Answer:

No.	Element	Condensed orbital notation
i.	Lithium (Z = 3)	[He] 2s¹
ii.	Carbon (Z = 6)	[He] 2s² 2p²
iii.	Oxygen (Z = 8)	[He] 2s² 2p⁴
iv.	Silicon (Z = 14)	[Ne] 3s² 3p²
v.	Chlorine (Z = 17)	[Ne] 3s² 3p⁵
vi.	Calcium (Z = 20)	[Ar] 4s²

Question M.
Draw shapes of 2s and 2p orbitals.
Answer:
2s orbital:

2p orbital:

Question N.
Explain in brief, the significance of azimuthal quantum number.
Answer:
Azimuthal quantum number (l):

Azimuthal quantum number is also known as subsidiary quantum number and is represented by letter l.
It represents the subshell to which the electron belongs. It also defines the shape of the orbital that is occupied by the electron.
Its value depends upon the value of principal quantum number ‘n’. It can have only positive values between 0 and (n – 1).
Atomic orbitals with the same value of ‘n’ but different values of ‘l’ constitute a subshell belonging to the shell for the given ‘n’ The azimuthal quantum number gives the number of subshells in a principal shell. The subshells have l to be 0, 1, 2,3 … which are represented by symbols s, p, d, f, … respectively.

Question O.
If n = 3, what are the quantum number l and m_l?
Answer:
: For a given n, l = 0 to (n – 1) and for given l, m_l = -l……, 0…….. + l
Therefore, the possible values of l and m_l for n = 3 are:

Question P.
The electronic configuration of oxygen is written as 1s² 2s² 2p_x² 2p_y¹ 2p_z¹ and not as 1s² 2s² 2p_x² 2p_y² 2p_z⁰. Explain.
Answer:

According to Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity “Pairing of electrons in the orbitals belonging to the same subshell does not occur unless each orbital belonging to that subshell has got one electron each.”
Oxygen has 8 electrons. The first two electrons will pair up in the Is orbital, the next two electrons will pair up in the 2s orbital and this leaves 4 electrons, which must be placed in the 2p orbitals.
Each of the three degenerate p-orbitals must get one electron of parallel spin before any one of them receives the second electron of opposite spin. Therefore, two p orbitals have one electron each and one p-orbital will have two electrons.

Thus, the electronic configuration of oxygen is written as 1s² 2s² 2p_x² 2p_y¹ 2p_z¹ and not as 1s² 2s² 2p_x² 2p_y² 2p_z⁰.

Question Q.
Write note on ‘Principal Quantum number.
Answer:
Principal quantum number (n):
i. Principal quantum number indicates the principal shell or main energy level to which the electron belongs.
ii. It is denoted by ‘n’ and is a positive integer with values 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, ….
iii. A set of atomic orbitals with given value of ‘n’ constitutes a single shell. These shells are also represented by the letters K, L, M, N, etc.
iv. With increase of ‘n’, the number of allowed orbitals in that shell increases and is given by n².
v. The allowed orbitals in the first four shells are given below:

vi. As the value of ‘n’ increases, the distance of the shell from the nucleus increases and the size of the shell increases. Its energy also goes on increasing.

Question R.
Using concept of quantum numbers, calculate the maximum numbers of electrons present in the ‘M’ shell. Give their distribution in shells, subshells and orbitals.
Answer:
i. Each main shell contains a maximum of 2n² electrons.
For ‘M’ shell, n = 3.
Therefore, the maximum numbers of electrons present in the ‘M’ shell = 2 × (3)² = 18.

ii. The distribution of these electrons in shells, subshells and orbitals can be given as follows:

Note: Orbital distribution in the first four shells:

Question S.
Indicate the number of unpaired electrons in :
a. Si (Z = 14)
b. Cr (Z = 24)
Answer:
i. . Si (Z = 14): 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p²
Orbital diagram:

Number of unpaired electrons = 2

ii. Cr (Z = 24): 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 4s¹ 3d⁵
Orbital diagram:

Number of unpaired electrons = 6

Question T.
An atom of an element contains 29 electrons and 35 neutrons. Deduce-
a. the number of protons
b. the electronic configuration of that element.
Answer:
a. In an atom, number of protons is equal to number of electrons.
The given atom contains 29 electrons.
∴ Number of protons = 29

b. The electronic configuration of an atom of an element containing 29 electrons is:
1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 4s¹ 3d¹⁰
[Note: Given element is copper (Cu) with Z = 29]

11th Chemistry Digest Chapter 4 Structure of Atom Intext Questions and Answers

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 35)

Question i.
What is the smallest unit of matter?
Answer:
The smallest unit of matter is atom.

Question ii.
What is the difference between molecules of an element and those of a compound?
Answer:
The molecules of an element are made of atoms of same element while the molecules of a compound are made of atoms of different elements.

Question iii.
Does an atom have any internal structure or is it indivisible?
Answer:
Yes, an atom has internal structure. Different subatomic particles such as protons, electrons and neutrons constitute an atom. So, it is divisible.

Question iv.
Which particle was identified by J. J. Thomson in the cathode ray tube experiment?
Answer:
Electron was identified by J.J. Thomson in the cathode ray tube experiment.

Question v.
Which part of an atom was discovered by Ernest Rutherford from the experiment of scattering of α-particles by gold foil?
Answer:
Nucleus of an atom was discovered by Ernest Rutherford from the experiment of scattering of α-particles by gold foil.

Just Think (Textbook Page No. 41)

Question 1.
What does the negative sign of electron energy convey?
Answer:
Negative sign for the energy of an electron in any orbit in a hydrogen atom indicates that the energy of the electron in the atom is lower than the energy of a free electron at rest. A free electron at rest is an electron that is infinitely far away from the nucleus and is assigned the energy value of zero.

As the electron gets close to the nucleus, value of ‘n’ decreases and E_n becomes large in absolute value and more negative. The negative sign corresponds to attractive forces between electron and nucleus.

Internet my friend (Textbook Page No. 44)

Question 1.
Collect information about structure of atom.
Answer:
Students can use links given below as reference and collect information about structure of atom on their own.
https://www.livescience.com/65427-fundamental-elementary-particles.html http://www.chemistryexplained.com/Ar-Bo/Atomic-Structure.html
https://www.thoughtco.com/basic-model-of-the-atom-603799

11th Std Chemistry Questions And Answers:

11th Chemistry Chapter 7 Exercise Modern Periodic Table Solutions Maharashtra Board

January 7, 2025January 6, 2025 by Bhagya

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Chemistry Textbook Solutions Chapter 7 Modern Periodic Table Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Modern Periodic Table Class 11 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 7 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Chemistry Class 11 Chapter 7 Exercise Solutions

1. Explain the following

Question A.
The elements Li, B, Be and N have the electronegativities 1.0, 2.0, 1.5 and 3.0, respectively on the Pauling scale.
Answer:

Li, B, Be and N belong to same period.
As we move across a period from left to right in the periodic table, the effective nuclear charge increases steadily and therefore, electronegativity increases.

Hence, the elements Li, B, Be and N have the electronegativities 1.0, 2.0, 1.5 and 3.0, respectively on the Pauling scale.

Question B.
The atomic radii of Cl, I and Br are 99, 133 and 114 pm, respectively.
Answer:

Cl, I and Br belong to group 17 (halogen group) in the periodic table.
As we move down the group from top to bottom in the periodic table, a new shell gets added in the atom of the elements.
As a result, the effective nuclear charge decreases due to increase in the atomic size as well as increased shielding effect.
Therefore, the valence electrons experience less attractive force from the nucleus and are held less tightly resulting in the increased atomic radius.
Thus, their atomic radii increases in the following order down the group.
Cl (99 pm) < Br (114 pm) < I (133 pm)

Hence, the atomic radii of Cl, I and Br are 99, 133 and 114 pm, respectively.

Question C.
The ionic radii of F^– and Na⁺ are 133 and 98 pm, respectively.
Answer:

F^– and Na⁺ are isoelectronic ions as they both have 10 electrons.
However, the nuclear charge on F^– is +9 while that of Na⁺ is +11.
In isoelectronic species, larger nuclear charge exerts greater attraction on the electrons and thus, the radius of that isoelectronic species becomes smaller.

Thus, F^– has larger ionic radii (133 pm) than Na⁺ (98 pm).

Question D.
₁₃Al is a metal, ₁₄Si is a metalloid and ₁₅P is a nonmetal.
Answer:

Electronic configuration of Al is [Ne] 3s²3p¹, ₁₄Si is [Ne] 3s² 3p² and that of ₁₅P is [Ne] 3s² 3p³.
Metals are characterized by the ability to form compounds by loss of valence electrons.
‘Al’ has 3 valence electrons, thus shows tendency to lose 3 valence electrons to complete its octet. Hence, Al is a metal.
Nonmetals are characterized by the ability to form compounds by gain of valence electrons in valence shell.
‘P’ has 5 valence electrons thus, shows tendency to gain 3 electrons to complete its octet. Hence, ‘P’ is a nonmetal.
Si has four valence electrons, thus it can either lose/gain electrons to complete its octet. Hence, behaves as a metalloid.

Question E.
Cu forms coloured salts while Zn forms colourless salts.
Answer:

Electronic configuration of ₂₉CU is [Ar] 3d¹⁰4s¹ while that of Zn is [Ar] 3d¹⁰4s².
Electronic configuration of Cu in its +1 oxidation state is [Ar] 3d¹⁰ while that in +2 oxidation state is [Ar] 3d⁹.
Therefore, Cu contains partially filled d orbitals in +2 oxidation state and thus, Cu²⁺ salts are coloured.
However, Zn has completely filled d orbital which is highly stable and hence, it does not form coloured ions.

Hence, Cu forms coloured salts while Zn forms colourless salts.

2. Write the outer electronic configuration of the following using orbital notation method. Justify.
A. Ge (belongs to period 4 and group 14)
B. Po (belongs to period 6 and group 16)
C. Cu (belongs to period 4 and group 11)
Answer:
A. a. Ge belongs to period 4. Therefore, n = 4.
b. Group 14 indicates that the element belongs to the p-block of the modem periodic table.
c. The general outer electronic configuration of group 14 elements is ns² np².
d. Thus, the outer electronic configuration of Ge is 4s² 4p².

B. a. Po belongs to period 6. Therefore, n = 6.
b. Group 16 indicates that the element belongs to the p-block of the modem periodic table.
c. The general outer electronic configuration of group 16 elements is ns² np⁴.
d. Thus, the outer electronic configuration of Po is 6s² 6p⁴.

C. a. Cu belongs to period 4. Therefore, n = 4.
b. Group 11 indicates that the element belongs to the d-block of the modem periodic table.
c. The general outer electronic configuration of the d-block elements is ns^0-2(n-1)d^1-10.
d. The expected configuration of Cu is 4s²3d⁹. However, the observed configuration of Cu is 4s¹3d¹⁰. This is due to the extra stability associated with completely filled d-subshell. Thus, the outer electronic configuration of Cu is 4s¹3d¹⁰.

3. Answer the following

Question A.
La belongs to group 3 while Hg belongs to group 12 and both belong to period 6 of the periodic table. Write down the general outer electronic configuration of the ten elements from La to Hg together using orbital notation method.
Answer:
i. La and Hg both belongs to period 6. Therefore, n = 6.
ii. Elements of group 3 to group 12 belong to the d-block of the modem periodic table.
iii. The general outer electronic configuration of the d-block elements is ns^0-2 (n -1 )^1-10.
iv. Therefore, the outer electronic configuration of all ten elements from La to Hg is as given in the table below.

[Note: There are 14 elements between La and Hf which are called lanthanides. Therefore, after La, electrons are filled in 4f subshell of lanthanide elements. Once all the 14 elements of lanthanide series are filled, next electron enters 5d subshell of Hf. Hence, the outer electronic configurations of Hf to Hg often include completely filled 4f subshell. For example, the electronic configuration of Hf ‘5d²6s²’ can also be written as ‘4f¹⁴5d²6s²’.]

Question B.
Ionization enthalpy of Li is 520 kJ mol^-1 while that of F is 1681 kJ mol^-1. Explain.
Answer:

Both Li and F belong to period 2.
Across a period, the screening effect is the same while the effective nuclear charge increases.
As a result, the outer electron is held more tightly and therefore, the ionization enthalpy increases across a period.
Hence, F will have higher ionization enthalpy than Li.

Thus, ionization enthalpy of Li is 520 kJ mol^-1 while that of F is 1681 kJ mol^-1.

Question C.
Explain the screening effect with a suitable example.
Answer:
i. In a multi-electron atom, the electrons in the inner shells tend to prevent the attractive influence of the nucleus from reaching the outermost electron.
ii. Thus, they act as a screen or shield between the nuclear attraction and outermost or valence electrons. This effect of the inner electrons on the outer electrons is known as screening effect or shielding effect.
iii. Across a period, screening effect due to inner electrons remains the same as electrons are added to the same shell.
iv. Down the group, screening effect due to inner electrons increases as a new valence shell is added.
e.g. Potassium (19K) has electronic configuration 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁶4s¹.
K has 4 shells and thus, the valence shell electrons are effectively shielded by the electrons present in the inner three shells. As a result of this, valence shell electron (4s¹) in K experiences much less effective nuclear charge and can be easily removed.

Question D.
Why the second ionization enthalpy is greater than the first ionization enthalpy ?
Answer:
The second ionization enthalpy (Δ_iH₂) is greater than the first ionization enthalpy (Δ_iH₁) as it involves removal of electron from the positively charged species.

Question E.
Why the elements belonging to the same group do have similar chemical properties ?
Answer:

Chemical properties of elements depend upon their valency.
Elements belonging to the same group have the same valency.

Hence, the elements belonging to the same group show similar chemical properties.

Question F.
Explain : electronegativity and electron gain enthalpy. Which of the two can be measured experimentally?
Answer:
i. The ability of a covalently bonded atom to attract the shared electrons toward itself is called electronegativity (EN). Electronegativity cannot be measured experimentally. However, various numerical scales to express electronegativity were developed by many scientists. Pauling scale of electronegativity is the one used most widely.

ii. Electron gain enthalpy is a quantitative measure of the ease with which an atom adds an electron forming the anion and is expressed in kJ mol^-1. Thus, it is an experimentally measurable quantity.

4. Choose the correct option

Question A.
Consider the elements B, Al, Mg and K predict the correct order of metallic character :
a. B > Al > Mg > K
b. Al > Mg > B > K
c. Mg > Al > K > B
d. K > Mg > Al > B
Answer:
d. K > Mg > Al > B

Question B.
In modern periodic table, the period number indicates the :
a. atomic number
b. atomic mass
c. principal quantum number
d. azimuthal quantum number
Answer:
c. principal quantum number

Question C.
The lanthanides are placed in the periodic table at
a. left hand side
b. right hand side
c. middle
d. bottom
Answer:
d. bottom

Question D.
If the valence shell electronic configuration is ns²np⁵, the element will belong to
a. alkali metals
b. halogens
c. alkaline earth metals
d. actinides
Answer:
b. halogens

Question E.
In which group of elements of the modern periodic table are halogen placed ?
a. 17
b. 6
c. 4
d. 2
Answer:
a. 17

Question F.
Which of the atomic number represent the s-block elements ?
a. 7, 15
b. 3, 12
c. 6, 14
d. 9, 17
Answer:
b. 3, 12

Question G.
Which of the following pairs is NOT isoelectronic ?
a. Na⁺ and Na
b. Mg²⁺ and Ne
c. Al³⁺ and B³⁺
d. P3^– and N^3-
Answer:
b. Mg²⁺ and Ne

Question H.
Which of the following pair of elements has similar properties ?
a. 13, 31
b. 11, 20
c. 12, 10
d. 21, 33
Answer:
a. 13, 31

5. Answer the following questions

Question A.
The electronic configuration of some elements are given below:
a. 1s²
b. 1s²2s²2p⁶
In which group and period of the periodic table they are placed ?
Answer:
a. 1s²
Here n = 1. Therefore, the element belongs to the 1st period.
The outer electronic configuration 1s² corresponds to the maximum capacity of 1s, the complete duplet. Therefore, the element is placed at the end of the 1st period in the group 18 of inert gases in the modem periodic table,

b. 1s²2s²2p⁶
Here n = 2. Therefore, the element belongs to the 2nd period.
The outer electronic configuration 2s²2p⁶ corresponds to complete octet. Therefore, the element is placed in the 2nd period of group 18 in the modem periodic table.

Question B.
For each of the following pairs, indicate which of the two species is of large size :
a. Fe²⁺ or Fe³⁺
b. Mg²⁺ or Ca²⁺
Answer:
a. Fe²⁺ has a larger size than Fe³⁺.
b. Ca²⁺ has a larger size than Mg²⁺.

Question C.
Select the smaller ion form each of the following pairs:
a. K⁺, Li⁺
b. N^3-, F^–
Answer:
i. Li⁺ has smaller ionic radius than K⁺
ii. F^– has smaller ionic radius than N^3-.

Question D.
With the help of diagram answer the questions given below:

a. Which atom should have smaller ionization enthalpy, oxygen or sulfur?
b. The lithium forms +1 ions while berylium forms +2 ions ?
Answer:
Sulfur should have smaller ionization energy than oxygen.
a. Lithium has electronic configuration 1s²2s¹ while that of beryllium is 1s²2s².
b. Li can achieve a noble gas configuration by losing one electron while Be can do so by losing two electrons. Hence, lithium forms +1 ions while beryllium forms +2 ions.

Question E.
Define : a. Ionic radius
b. Electronegativity
Answer:
a. Ionic radius: Ionic radius is defined as the distance of valence shell of electrons from the centre of the nucleus in an ion.

b. Electronegativity: The ability of a covalently bonded atom to attract the shared electrons toward itself is called electronegativity (EN).

Question F.
Compare chemical properties of metals and non-metals.
Answer:
i. Metals (like alkali metals) react vigorously with oxygen to form oxides which reacts with water to form strong bases.
e. g. Sodium (Na) reacts with oxygen to form Na₂O which produces NaOH on reaction with water.

ii. Nonmetals (like halogens) react with oxygen to form oxides which on reaction with water form strong acids.
e.g. Chlorine reacts with oxygen to form Cl₂O₇ which produces HClO₄ on reaction with water.

Question G.
What are the valence electrons ? For s-block and p-block elements show that number of valence electrons is equal to its group number.
Answer:

Electrons present in the outermost shell of the atom of an element are called valence electrons.
3Li is an s-block element and its electronic configuration is 1s²2s¹. Since it has one valence electron, it is placed in group 1.
Therefore, for s-block elements, group number = number of valence electrons.
However, for p-block elements, group number = 18 – number of electrons required to attain complete octet.
7N is a p-block element and its electronic configuration is 1s²2s²2p³. Since it has five electrons in its valence shell, it is short of three electrons to complete its octet.
Therefore, its group number = 18 – 3 = 15.

Question H.
Define ionization enthalpy. Name the factors on which ionisation enthalpy depends? How does it vary down the group and across a period?
Answer:
i. The energy required to remove an electron from the isolated gaseous atom in its ground state is called ionization enthalpy (Δ_iH).
Ionization enthalpy is the quantitative measure of tendency of an element to lose electron and expressed in kJ mol^-1.

ii. Ionization energy depends on the following factors

Size (radius) of an atom
Nuclear charge
The shielding or screening effect of inner electrons
Nature of electronic configuration

iii. Variation of ionization energy down the group: On moving down the group, the ionization enthalpy decreases. This is because electron is to be removed from the larger valence shell. Screening due to core electrons goes on increasing and the effective nuclear charge decreases down the group. As a result, the removal of the outer electron becomes easier down the group.

iv. Variation of ionization energy across a period: The screening effect is the same while the effective nuclear charge increases across a period. As a result, the outer electron is held more tightly and hence, the ionization enthalpy increases across a period. Therefore, the alkali metal shows the lowest first ionization enthalpy while the inert gas shows the highest first ionization enthalpy across a period.

Note: First ionization enthalpy values of elements of group 1.

Note: First ionization enthalpy values of elements of period 2.

Question I.
How the atomic size vary in a group and across a period? Explain with suitable example.
Answer:
i. Variation in atomic size down the group:
a. As we move down the group from top to bottom in the periodic table, the atomic size increases with the increase in atomic number.
b. This is because, as the atomic number increases, nuclear charge increases but simultaneously the number of shells in the atoms also increases.
c. Asa result, the effective nuclear charge decreases due to increase in the size of the atom and shielding effect increases down the group. Thus, the valence electrons experience less attractive force from nucleus and are held less tightly.
d. Hence, the atomic size increases in a group from top to bottom.

e. g.

In group 1, as we move from top to bottom i.e., from Li to Cs, a new shell gets added in the atom of the elements and the electrons are added in this new shell.
As a result of this, the effective nuclear charge goes on decreasing and screening effect goes on increasing down a group.
Therefore, the atomic size is the largest for Cs and is the smallest for Li in group 1.

[Note: Atomic radii of Li and Cs are 152 pm and 262 pm respectively.]

ii. Variation in atomic size across a period:
a. As we move across a period from left to right in the periodic table, the atomic size of an element decreases with the increase in atomic number.
b. This is because, as the atomic number increases, nuclear charge increases gradually but addition of electrons takes place in the same shell.
c. Therefore, as we move across a period, the effective nuclear charge increases but screening effect caused by the core electrons remains the same.
d. As a result of this, attraction between the nucleus and the valence electrons increases. Therefore, valence electrons are more tightly bound and hence, the atomic radius goes on decreasing along a period resulting in decrease in atomic size.

e. g.

In the second period, as we move from left towards right i.e., from Li to F, the electrons are added in the second shell of all the elements in second period (except noble gas Ne).
As a result of this, the effective nuclear charge goes on increasing from Li to F, however, screening effect remains the same.
Therefore, the atomic size is the largest for Li (alkali metal) and is the smallest for F (halogen).

[Note: Atomic radii of Li and F are 152 pm and 64 pm respectively.]

Question J.
Give reasons.
a. Alkali metals have low ionization energies.
b. Inert gases have exceptionally high ionization energies.
c. Fluorine has less electron affinity than chlorine.
d. Noble gases possess relatively large atomic size.
Answer:
a. i. Across a period, the screening effect is the same while the effective nuclear charge increases.
ii. As a result, the outer electron is held more tightly and hence, the ionization enthalpy increases across a period.
iii. Since the alkali metals are present in the group 1 of the modem periodic table, they have low ionization energies.

b. i. Across a period, the screening effect is the same and the effective nuclear charge increases.
ii. As a result, the outer electron is held more tightly and hence, the ionization enthalpy increases across a period.
iii. Inert gases are present on the extreme right of the periodic table i.e., in group 18. Also, inert gases have stable electronic configurations i.e., complete octet or duplet. Due to this, they are extremely stable and it is very difficult to remove electrons from their valence shell.
Hence, inert gases have exceptionally high ionization potential.

c. The less electron affinity of fluorine is due to its smaller size. Adding an electron to the 2p orbital in fluorine leads to a greater repulsion than adding an electron to the larger 3p orbital of chlorine.
Hence, fluorine has less electron affinity than chlorine.

d. i. Noble gases have completely filled valence shell i.e., complete octet (except He with complete duplet).
ii. Since their valence shell contains eight electrons, they experience greater electronic repulsion and this results in increased atomic size (atomic radii) of the noble gas elements.
Hence, noble gases possess

Question K.
Consider the oxides Li₂O, CO₂, B₂O₃.
a. Which oxide would you expect to be the most basic?
b. Which oxide would be the most acidic?
c. Give the formula of an amphoteric oxide.
Answer:
a. Li₂O is the most basic oxide.
b. CO₂ is the most acidic oxide.
c. Formula of an amphoteric oxide: Al₂O₃.
[Note: Both B₂O₃ and CO₂ are acidic oxides. But CO₂ is more acidic oxide as compared to B₂O₃. Hence, CO₂ is most acidic oxide amongst the given.]

Activity :

Question 1.
Prepare a wall mounting chart of the modern periodic table.
Answer:
Students can scan the adjacent Q.R. Code to visualise the modern periodic table and are expected to prepare the chart on their own.

11th Chemistry Digest Chapter 7 Modern Periodic Table Intext Questions and Answers

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 93)

Question 1.
What was the basis of classification of elements before the knowledge of electronic structure of atom?
Answer:
Elements were classified on the basis of their physical properties before the knowledge of electronic structure of atom.

Question 2.
Name the scientists who made the classification of elements in the nineteenth century.
Answer:
Dmitri Mendeleev, John Newlands and Johann Doberiener were the scientists who made the classification of elements based on their atomic mass in the nineteenth century.

Question 3.
What is Mendeleev’s periodic law?
Answer:
Mendeleev’s periodic law: “The physical and chemical properties of elements are the periodic function of their atomic masses

Question 4.
How many elements are discovered until now?
Answer:
Including manmade elements, total 118 elements are discovered until now.

Question 5.
How many horizontal rows and vertical columns are present in the modern periodic table?
Answer:
The modem periodic table consists of seven horizontal rows called periods numbered from 1 to 7 and eighteen vertical columns called groups numbered from 1 to 18.

Just think. (Textbook Page No. 93)

Question 1.
How many days pass between two successive full moon nights?
Answer:
29.5 days i.e., approximately 30 days pass between two successive full moon nights.

Question 2.
What type of motion does a pendulum exhibit?
Answer:
A pendulum exhibits periodic motion since it traces the same path after regular interval of time.

Question 3.
Give some other examples of periodic events.
Answer:
Following are some other examples of periodic events:

Motion of earth around the sun.
Rotation of earth around its own axis.
Day and night.

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 95)

Question i.
What does the principal quantum number ‘n’ and azimuthal quantum number ‘l’ of an electron belonging to an atom represent?
Answer:
The principal quantum number ‘n’ represents the outermost or valence shell of an element (which corresponds to period number) while azimuthal quantum number ‘l’ constitutes a subshell belonging to the shell for the given ‘n’.

Question ii.
Which principle is followed in the distribution of electrons in an atom?
Answer:
The distribution of electrons in an atom is according to the following three principles:

Aufbau principle
Pauli’s exclusion principle
Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity

[Note: According to aufbau principle, electrons are filled in the subshells in the increasing order of their energies which follows the following order: s < p < d < f.]

11th Std Chemistry Questions And Answers:

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Chemistry Solutions Chapter 1 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry

January 7, 2025January 6, 2025 by Bhagya

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Chemistry Textbook Solutions Chapter 1 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 1 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry

1. Choose the most correct option.

Question A.
A sample of pure water, whatever the source always contains …………. by mass of oxygen and 11.1 % by mass of hydrogen.
a. 88.9
b. 18
c. 80
d. 16
Answer:
a. 88.9

Question B.
Which of the following compounds can NOT demonstrate the law of multiple proportions ?
a. NO, NO₂
b. CO, CO₂
c. H₂O, H₂O₂
d. Na₂S, NaF
Answer:
d. Na₂S, NaF

Question C.
Which of the following temperature will read the same value on celsius and Fahrenheit scales.
a. – 40°
b. + 40°
c. – 80°
d. – 20°
Answer:
a. – 40°

Question D.
SI unit of the quantity electric current is
a. Volt
b. Ampere
c. Candela
d. Newton
Answer:
b. Ampere

Question E.
In the reaction N₂ + 3H₂ → 2NH₃, the ratio by volume of N₂, H₂ and NH₃ is 1 : 3 : 2 This illustrates the law of
a. definite proportion
b. reciprocal proportion
c. multiple proportion
d. gaseous volumes
Answer:
d. gaseous volumes

Question F.
Which of the following has maximum number of molecules ?
a. 7 g N₂
b. 2 g H₂
c. 8 g O₂
d. 20 g NO₂
Answer:
b. 2 g H₂

Question G.
How many g of H₂O are present in 0.25 mol of it ?
a. 4.5
b. 18
c. 0.25
d. 5.4
Answer:
a. 4.5

Question H.
The number of molecules in 22.4 cm³ of nitrogen gas at STP is
a. 6.022 × 10²⁰
b. 6.022 × 10²³
c. 22.4 × 10²⁰
d. 22.4 × 10²³
Answer:
a. 6.022 × 10²⁰

Question I.
Which of the following has the largest number of atoms ?
a. 1g Au_(s)
b. 1g Na_(s)
c. 1g Li_(s)
d. 1g Cl_2(g)
Answer:
c. 1g Li_(s)

2. Answer the following questions.

Question A.
State and explain Avogadro’s law.
Answer:
i. In the year 1811, Avogadro made a distinction between atoms and molecules and thereby proposed Avogadro’s law.

ii. Avogadro proposed that, “Equal volumes of all gases at the same temperature and pressure contain equal number of molecules”.
e.g. Hydrogen gas combines with oxygen gas to produce water vapour as follows:

According to Avogadro’s law, if 1 volume contains n molecules, then 2n molecules of hydrogen combine with n molecules of oxygen to give 2n molecules of water, i.e., 2 molecules of hydrogen gas combine with 1 molecule of oxygen to give 2 molecules of water vapour as represented below:

Question B.
Point out the difference between 12 g of carbon and 12 u of carbon.
Answer:
12 g of carbon is the molar mass of carbon while 12 u of carbon is the mass of one carbon atom.

Question C.
How many grams does an atom of hydrogen weigh ?
Answer:
The mass of a hydrogen atom is 1.6736 × 10^-24 g.

Question D.
Calculate the molecular mass of the following in u.
a. NH₃
b. CH₃COOH
c. C₂H₅OH
Answer:
i. Molecular mass of NH₃ = (1 × Average atomic mass of N) + (3 × Average atomic mass of H)
= (1 × 14.0 u) +(3 × 1.0 u)
= 17 u

ii. Molecular mass of CH₃COOH = (2 × Average atomic mass of C) + (4 × Average atomic mass of H) + (2 × Average atomic mass of O)
= (2 × 12.0 u) + (4 × 1.0 u) + (2 × 16.0 u)
= 60 u

iii. Molecular mass of C₂H₅OH = (2 × Average atomic mass of C) + (6 × Average atomic mass of H) + (1 × Average atomic mass of O)
= (2 × 12.0 u) + (6 × 1.0 u) + (1 × 16.0 u)
= 46 u
Ans: i. The molecular mass of NH₃ = 17 u
ii. The molecular mass of CH₃COOH = 60 u
iii. The molecular mass of C₂H₅OH = 46 u

Question E.
How many particles are present in 1 mole of a substance ?
Answer:
The number of particles in one mole is 6.0221367 × 10²³.

Question F.
What is the SI unit of amount of a substance ?
Answer:
The SI unit for the amount of a substance is mole (mol).

Question G.
What is meant by molar volume of a gas ?
Answer:
The volume occupied by one mole of a gas at standard temperature (0 °C) and pressure (1 atm) (STP) is called as molar volume of a gas. The molar volume of a gas at STP is 22.4 dm³.

Question H.
State and explain the law of conservation of mass.
Answer:
Law of conservation of mass:

The law of conservation of mass states that, “Mass can neither be created nor destroyed” during chemical combination of matter.
Antoine Lavoisier who is often referred to as the father of modem chemistry performed careful experimental studies for various combustion reactions, namely burning of phosphorus and mercury in the presence of air.
Both his experiments resulted in increased weight of products.
After several experiments, in burning of phosphorus, he found that the weight gained by the phosphoms was exactly the same as the weight lost by the air. Hence, total mass of reactants = total mass of products.
When hydrogen gas bums and combines with oxygen to form water, the mass of the water formed is equal to the mass of the hydrogen and oxygen consumed. Thus, this is in accordance with the law of conservation of mass.

Question I.
State the law of multiple proportions.
Answer:
The law states that, “When two elements A and B form more than one compounds, the masses of element B that combine with a given mass of A are always in the ratio of small whole numbers”.

3. Give one example of each

Question A.
Homogeneous mixture
Answer:
Homogeneous mixture: Solution (An aqueous solution of sugar)

Question B.
Heterogeneous mixture
Answer:
Heterogeneous mixture: Suspension (of sand in water)

Question C.
Element
Answer:
Element: Gold

Question D.
Compound
Answer:
Compound: Distilled water.

4. Solve problems :

Question A.
What is the ratio of molecules in 1 mole of NH₃ and 1 mole of HNO₃.
Answer:
One mole of any substance contains particles equal to 6.022 × 10²³.
1 mole of NH₃ = 6.022 × 10²³ molecules of NH₃
I mole of HNO₃ = 6.022 × 10²³ molecules of HNO₃
∴ Ratio = \(\frac{6.022 \times 10^{23}}{6.022 \times 10^{23}}\) = 1 : 1
Ans: The ratio of molecules is = 1 : 1.

Question B.
Calculate number of moles of hydrogen in 0.448 litre of hydrogen gas at STP.
Answer:
Given: Volume of hydrogen at STP = 0.448 L
To find: Number of moles of hydrogen

Molar volume of a gas = 22.4 dm³ mol^-1 = 22.4 L at STP

Ans: Number of moles of hydrogen = 0.02 mol

Question C.
The mass of an atom of hydrogen is 1.008 u. What is the mass of 18 atoms of hydrogen.
Answer:
Mass of 1 atom of hydrogen = 1.008 u
∴ Mass of 18 atoms of hydrogen = 18 × 1.008 u = 18.144 u
Ans: The mass of 18 atoms of hydrogen = 18.144 u

Question D.
Calculate the number of atom in each of the following (Given : Atomic mass of I = 127 u).
a. 254 u of iodine (I)
b. 254 g of iodine (I)
Answer:
a. 254 u of iodine (I) = x atoms
Atomic mass of iodine (I) = 127 u
∴ Mass of one iodine atom = 127 u
∴ x = \(\frac{254 \mathrm{u}}{127 \mathrm{u}}\) = 2 atoms

b. 254 g of iodine (I)
Atomic mass of iodine = 127 u
∴ Molar mass of iodine = 127 g mol^-1
Now,

Now,
Number of atoms = Number of moles × Avogadro’s constant
= 2 mol × 6.022 × 10²³ atoms/mol
= 12.044 × 10²³ atoms
= 1.2044 × 10²⁴ atoms
Ans. i.Number of iodine atoms in 254 u = 2 atoms
ii. Number of iodine atoms in 254 g = 1.2044 × 10²⁴ atoms

Question E.
A student used a carbon pencil to write his homework. The mass of this was found to be 5 mg. With the help of this calculate.
a. The number of moles of carbon in his homework writing.
b. The number of carbon atoms in 12 mg of his homework writting.
Answer:
a. 5 mg carbon = 5 × 10^-3 g carbon
Atomic mass of carbon = 12 u
∴ Molar mass of carbon 12 g mol^-1

b. 12 mg carbon = 12 × 10^-3 g carbon

Number of atoms = Number of moles × Avogadro’s constant
Number of atoms of carbon = 1 × 10^-3 mol × 6.022 × 10²³ atoms/mol
= 6.022 × 10²⁰ atoms
Ans: Number of moles of carbon in his homework writing = 4.167 × 10^-4mol
Number of atoms of carbon in 12 mg homework writing = 6.022 × 10²⁰ atoms

Question F.
Arjun purchased 250 g of glucose (C₆H₁₂O₆) for Rs 40. Find the cost of glucose per mole.
Answer:
Given: Mass of urea = 250 g, cost for 250 g glucose = Rs 40, molecular formula of glucose = C₆H₁₂O₆
To find: Cost per mole of glucose
Calculation: Molecular formula of glucose is (C₆H₁₂O₆).
Molecular mass of glucose
= (6 × Average atomic mass of C) + (12 × Average atomic mass of H) + (6 × Average atomic mass of O)
= (6 × 12 u) + (12 × 1 u) + (6 × 16 u)
=180 u
∴ Molar mass of glucose = 180 g mol^-1

Now,
\(\frac {250}{180}\) mol of glucose cost = Rs 40
1 mol glucose cost = x
∴ x = \(\frac{40 \times 180}{250}\) = Rs 28.8/mol of glucose
Ans. The cost of glucose per mole is Rs 28.8.

[ Calculation using log table:
\(\frac{40 \times 180}{250}\)
= Antilog₁₀ [log₁₀(40) + log₁₀(180) + log₁₀(250)]
= Antilog₁₀[1.6021 + 2.2553 – 2.3979]
= Antilog₁₀[1.4595] = 28.80 ]

Question G.
The natural isotopic abundance of ¹⁰B is 19.60% and ¹¹B is 80.40 %. The exact isotopic masses are 10.13 and 11.009 respectively. Calculate the average atomic mass of boron.
Answer:
Average atomic mass of Boron(B)

Ans. Average atomic mass of boron = 10.84 u

Question H.
Convert the following degree Celsius temperature to degree Fahrenheit.
a. 40 °C
b. 30 °C
Answer:
a. Given: Temperature in degree Celsius =40°C
To find: Temperature in degree Fahrenheit
Formula: °F = \(\frac {9}{5}\) (°C) + 32
Calculation: Substituting 40 °C in the formula,
°F = \(\frac {9}{5}\) (°C)+32
= \(\frac {9}{5}\) (40) + 32
= 72 + 32
= 104 °F

b. Given: Temperature in degree Celsius = 30 °C
To find: Temperature in degree Fahrenheit
Formula: °F = \(\frac {9}{5}\) (°C) + 32
Calculation: Substituting 30 °C in the formula,
°F = \(\frac {9}{5}\)(°C) + 32
= \(\frac {9}{5}\)(30) + 32
= 54 + 32
= 86 °F
Ans: i. The temperature 40 °C corresponds to 104 °F.
ii. The temperature 30 °C corresponds to 86 °F.

Question I.
Calculate the number of moles and molecules of acetic acid present in 22 g of it.
Answer:
Given: Mass of acetic acid = 22 g
To find: The number of moles and molecules of acetic acid
Formulae: Number of moles = \(\frac{\text { Mass of a substance }}{\text { Molar mass of a substance }}\)
ii. Number of molecules = Number of moles × Avogadro’s constant
Calculator: Mass of acetic acid = 22 g
Molecular mass of acetic acid, CH₃COOH
= (2 × Average atomic mass of C) + (4 × Average atomic mass of H) + (2 × Average atomic mass of O)
= (2 × 12 u) + (4 × 1 u) + (2 × 16 u) = 60 u
∴ Molar mass of acetic acid = 60 g mol^-1

Now,
Number of molecules of acetic acid = Number of moles × Avogadro’s constant
= 0.367 mol × 6.022 × 10²³ molecules/mol
= 2.210 × 10²³ molecules
Ans: Number of moles = 0.367 mol
Number of molecules of acetic acid = 2.210 × 10²³ molecules

Question J.
24 g of carbon reacts with some oxygen to make 88 grams of carbon dioxide. Find out how much oxygen must have been used.
Answer:
Given: Mass of carbon (reactant) = 24 g, mass of carbon dioxide (product) = 88 g
To find: Mass of oxygen (reactant)
Calculation: 12 g of carbon combine with 32 g oxygen to form 44 g of carbon dioxide as follows:

Hence, (2 × 12 = 24 g) of carbon will combine with (2 × 32 = 64 g) of oxygen to give (2 × 44 = 88 g) carbon dioxide.
Ans: Mass of oxygen used = 64 g

Question K.
Calculate number of atoms is each of the following. (Average atomic mass : N = 14 u, S = 32 u)
a. 0.4 mole of nitrogen
b. 1.6 g of sulfur
Answer:
a. 0.4 mole of nitrogen (N)
Number of atoms of N = Number of moles × Avogadro’s constant
= 0.4 mol × 6.022 × 10²³ atoms/mol
= 2.4088 × 10²³ atoms of N

b. 1.6 g of Sulphur (S)
Molar mass of sulphur = 32 g mol^-1

Number of atoms of S = Number of moles × Avogadro’s constant
= 0.05 mol × 6.022 × 10²³ atoms/mol
= 0.3011 × 10²³ atoms
= 3.011 × 10²² atoms of S
Ans: a. Number of nitrogen atoms in 0.4 mole = 2.4088 × 10²³ atoms of N
b. Number of sulphur atoms in 1.6 g = 3.011 × 10²² atoms of S

Question L.
2.0 g of a metal burnt in oxygen gave 3.2 g of its oxide. 1.42 g of the same metal heated in steam gave 2.27 of its oxide. Which law is verified by these data ?
Answer:
Here, metal oxide is obtained by two different methods; reactions of metal with oxygen and reaction of metal with water vapour (steam).
In first reaction (reaction with oxygen),
The mass of oxygen in metal oxide = 3.2 – 2.0 = 1.2 g
% of oxygen = \(\frac{1.2}{3.2}\) × 100 = 37.5%
% of metal = \(\frac{2.0}{3.2}\) × 100 = 62.5%
In second reaction (reaction with steam),
The mass of oxygen in metal oxide = 2.27 – 1.42 = 0.85 g
% of oxygen = \(\frac{0.85}{2.27}\) × 100 = 37.44 ≈ 37.5%
% of metal = \(\frac{1.42}{2.27}\) × 100 = 62.56 ≈ 62.5%
Therefore, irrespective of the source, the given compound contains same elements in the same proportion. The law of definite proportions states that “A given compound always contains exactly the same proportion of elements by weight”. Hence, the law of definite proportions is verified by these data.
Ans: The law of definite proportions is verified by given data.

Question M.
In two moles of acetaldehyde (CH₃CHO) calculate the following
a. Number of moles of carbon
b. Number of moles of hydrogen
c. Number of moles of oxygen
d. Number of molecules of acetaldehyde
Answer:
Molecular formula of acetaldehyde: C₂H₄O
Moles of acetaldehyde = 2 mol
a. Number of moles of carbon atoms = Moles of acetaldehyde × Number of carbon atoms
= 2 × 2
= 4 moles of carbon atoms

b. Number of moles of hydrogen atoms = Moles of acetaldehyde × Number of hydrogen atoms
= 2 × 4
= 8 moles of hydrogen atoms

c. Number of moles of oxygen atoms = Moles of acetaldehyde × Number of oxygen atoms
= 2 × 1
= 2 moles of oxygen atoms

d. Number of molecules of acetaldehyde = Moles of acetaldehyde × Avogadro number
= 2 mol × 6.022 × 10²³ molecules/mol
= 12.044 × 10²³ molecules of acetaldehyde
Ans: i. Number of moles of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen are 4, 8, 2 respectively,
ii. Number of molecules of acetaldehyde = 12.044 × 10²³

Question N.
Calculate the number of moles of magnesium oxide, MgO in
i. 80 g and
ii. 10 g of the compound.
(Average atomic masses of Mg = 24 and O = 16)
Answer:
Given: i. Mass of MgO = 80 g
ii. Mass of MgO = 10 g
To find: Number of moles of MgO
Formulae: Number of moles (n) = \(\frac{\text { Mass of a substance }}{\text { Molar mass of a substance }}\)
Calculation: i. Molecular mass of MgO = (1 × Average atomic mass of Mg) + (1 × Average atomic mass of O)
= (1 × 24u) + (1 × 16 u)
= 40 u
∴ Molar mass of MgO = 40 g mol^-1
Mass of MgO = 80 g
Number of moles (n) = \(\frac{\text { Mass of a substance }}{\text { Molar mass of a substance }}\)
= \(\frac{80 \mathrm{~g}}{40 \mathrm{~g} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}}\)
= 2 mol

ii. Mass of MgO = 10 g, Molar mass of MgO = 40 g mol^-1
Number of moles (n) = \(\frac{\text { Mass of a substance }}{\text { Molar mass of a substance }}\)
= \(\frac{10 \mathrm{~g}}{40 \mathrm{~g} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}}\)
= 0.25 mol
Ans: i. The number of moles in 80 g of magnesium oxide, MgO = 2 mol
ii. The number of moles in 10 g of magnesium oxide, MgO = 0.25 mol

Question O.
What is volume of carbon dioxide, CO₂ occupying by i. 5 moles and ii. 0.5 mole of CO₂ gas measured at STP.
Answer:
Given: i. Number of moles of CO₂ = 5 mol
ii. Number of moles of CO₂ = 0.5 mol
To find: Volume at STP
Formula: Number of moies of a gas (n) = \(\frac{\text { Volume of a gas at STP }}{\text { Molar volume of a gas }}\)
Calculation: Molar volume of a gas 22.4 dm³ mol^-1 at STP.
Number of moles of a gas (n) = \(\frac{\text { Volume of a gas at STP }}{\text { Molar volume of a gas }}\)
∴ i. Volume of the gas at STP = Number of moles of a gas (n) × Molar volume of a gas
= 5mol × 22.4 dm³ mol^-1 = 112 dm³
ii. Volume of the gas at STP Number of moles of a gas (n) × Molar volume of a gas
= 0.5 mol × 22.4 dm³ mol^-1 = 11.2 dm³
Ans: i. Volume of 5 mol of CO₂ = 112 dm³
ii. Volume of 0.5 mol of CO₂ = 11.2 dm³

Question P.
Calculate the mass of potassium chlorate required to liberate 6.72 dm³ of oxygen at STP. Molar mass of KClO₃ is 122.5 g mol^-1.
Answer:
The molecular formula of potassium chlorate is KClO₃.
Required chemical equation:

2 moles of KClO₃ = 2 × 122.5 = 245 g
3 moles of O₂ at STP occupy = (3 × 22.4 dm³) = 67.2 dm³
Thus, 245 g of potassium chlorate will liberate 67.2 dm³ of oxygen gas.
Let ‘x’ gram of KClO₃ liberate 6.72 dm³ of oxygen gas at S.T.P.
∴ x = \(\frac{245 \times 6.72}{67.2}\) = 24.5 g
Ans: Mass of potassium chlorate required = 24.5 g

Question Q.
Calculate the number of atoms of hydrogen present in 5.6 g of urea, (NH₂)₂CO. Also calculate the number of atoms of N, C and O.
Answer:
Given: Mass of urea = 5.6 g
To find: The number of atoms of hydrogen, nitrogen, carbon and oxygen
Calculation: Molecular formula of urea: (NH₂)₂CO
Molar mass of urea = 60 g mol^-1

∴ Moles of urea = 0.0933 mol
Number of atoms = Number of moles × Avogadro’s constant
Now, 1 molecule of urea has total 8 atoms, out of which 4 atoms are of H, 2 atoms are of N, 1 of C and 1 of O.
∴ Number of H atoms in 5.6 g of urea = (4 × 0.0933) mol × 6.022 × 10²³ atoms/mol
= 2.247 × 10²³ atoms of hydrogen
∴ Number of N atoms in 5.6 g of urea = (2 × 0.0933) mol × 6.022 × 10²³ atoms/mol
= 1.124 × 10²³ atoms of nitrogen
∴ Number of C atoms in 5.6 g of urea = (1 × 0.0933) mol × 6.022 × 10²³ atoms/mol
= 0.562 × 10²³ atoms of carbon
∴ Number of O atoms in 5.6 g of urea = (1 × 0.0933) mol × 6.022 × 10²³ atoms/mol
= 0.562 × 10²³ atoms of oxygen
Ans: 5.6 g of urea contain 2.247 × 10²³ atoms of H, 1.124 × 10²³ atoms of N, 0.562 × 10²³ atoms of C and 0.562 × 10²³ atoms of O.

Question R.
Calculate the mass of sulfur dioxide produced by burning 16 g of sulfur in excess of oxygen in contact process. (Average atomic mass : S = 32 u, O = 16 u)
Answer:
Given: Mass of sulphur (reactant) = 16 g
To find: Mass of sulphur dioxide (product)
Calculation: 32 g of sulphur combine with 32 g oxygen to form 64 g of sulphur dioxide as follows:

Hence, (0.5 × 32 = 16 g) of sulphur will combine with (0.5 × 32 = 16 g) of oxygen to give (0.5 × 64 = 32 g) sulphur dioxide.
Ans: Mass of sulphur dioxide produced = 32 g

5. Explain

Question A.
The need of the term average atomic mass.
Answer:

Several naturally occurring elements exist as a mixture of two or more isotopes.
Isotopes have different atomic masses.
The atomic mass of such an element is the average of atomic masses of its isotopes.
For this purpose, the atomic masses of isotopes and their relative percentage abundances are considered.

Hence, the term average atomic mass is needed to express atomic mass of elements containing mixture of two or more isotopes.

Question B.
Molar mass.
Answer:
i. The mass of one mole of a substance (element/compound) in grams is called its molar mass.
ii. The molar mass of any element in grams is numerically equal to atomic mass of that element in u.
e.g.

Element	Atomic mass (u)	Molar mass (g mol^-1)
H	1.0	1 0
C	12.0	12.0
O	16.0	16.0

iii. Similarly, molar mass of polyatomic molecule, in grams is numerically equal to its molecular mass or formula mass in u.
e.g.

Polyatomic substance	Molecular/formula mass (u)	Molar mass (g mol^-1)
O₂	32.0	32.0
H₂O	18.0	18.0
NaCl	58.5	58.5

Question C.
Mole concept.
Answer:

Even a small amount of any substance contains very large number of atoms or molecules. Therefore, a quantitative adjective ‘mole’ is used to express the large number of sub-microscopic entities like atoms, molecules, ions, electrons, etc. present in a substance.
Thus, one mole is the amount of a substance that contains as many entities or particles as there are atoms in exactly 12 g (or 0.012 kg) of the carbon -12 isotope.
One mole is the amount of substance which contains 6.0221367 × 10²³ particles/entities.

Question D.
Formula mass with an example.
Answer:

The formula mass of a substance is the sum of atomic masses of the atoms present in the formula.
In substances such as sodium chloride, positive (sodium), and negative (chloride) entities are arranged in a three-dimensional structure in a way that one sodium (Na⁺) ion is surrounded by six chlorides (Cl^–) ions, all at the same distance from it and vice versa. Thus, sodium chloride does not contain discrete molecules as the constituent units.
Therefore, NaCl is just the formula that is used to represent sodium chloride though it is not a molecule.
In such compounds, the formula (i.e., NaCl) is used to calculate the formula mass instead of molecular mass.

e.g. Formula mass of sodium chloride = atomic mass of sodium + atomic mass of chlorine
= 23.0 u + 35.5 u = 58.5 u

Question E.
Molar volume of gas.
Answer:
i. It is more convenient to measure the volume rather than mass of the gas.
ii. It is found from Avogadro law that one mole of any gas occupies a volume of 22.4 dm³ at standard temperature (0 °C) and pressure (1 atm) (STP).
iii. The volume of 22.4 dm³ at STP is known as molar volume of a gas.
iv. The relationship between number of moles and molar volume can be expressed as follows:

[Note: IUPAC has recently changed the standard pressure to 1 bar. Under these new STP conditions the molar volume of a gas is 22.71 L mol^-1]

Question F.
Types of matter (on the basis of chemical composition).
Answer:
Matter on the basis of chemical composition can be classified as follows:
i. Pure substances: They always have a definite chemical composition. They always have the same properties regardless of their origin.
e.g. Pure metal, distilled water, etc.

They are of two types:
a. Elements: They are pure substances, which cannot be broken down into simpler substances by ordinary chemical changes.
Elements are further classified into three types:
1. Metals:

They have a lustre (a shiny appearance).
They conduct heat and electricity.
They can be drawn into wire (ductile).
They can be hammered into thin sheets (malleable).
e.g. Gold, silver, copper, iron. Mercury is a liquid metal at room temperature.

2. Nonmetals:

They have no lustre, (except diamond, iodine)
They are poor conductors of heat and electricity, (except graphite)
They cannot be hammered into sheets or drawn into wire, because they are brittle. e.g. Iodine

3. Metalloids: Some elements have properties that are intermediate between metals and nonmetals and are called metalloids or semimetals.
e.g. Arsenic, silicon and germanium.
b. Compounds: They are the pure substances which are made up of two or more elements in fixed proportion.
e.g. Water, ammonia, methane, etc.

ii. Mixtures: They have no definite chemical composition and hence no definite properties. They can be separated by physical methods.
e.g. Paint (mixture of oils, pigment, additive), concrete (a mixture of sand, cement, water), etc.

Mixtures are of two types:

Homogeneous mixture: In homogeneous mixture, constituents remain uniformly mixed throughout its bulk.
e.g. Solution, in which solute and solvent molecules are uniformly mixed throughout its bulk.
Heterogeneous mixture: In heterogeneous mixture, constituents are not uniformly mixed throughout its bulk.
e.g. Suspension, which contains insoluble solid in a liquid.

11th Chemistry Digest Chapter 1 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry Intext Questions and Answers

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 1)

Question 1.
Which are mixtures and pure substances from the following?
i. Sea water
ii. Gasoline
iii. Skin
iv. A rusty nail
v. A page of textbook
vi. Diamond
Answer:

No.	Material	Pure substance or mixture
i.	Seawater	Mixture
ii.	Gasoline	Mixture
iii.	Skin	Mixture
iv.	A rusty nail	Mixture
V.	A page of textbook	Mixture
vi.	Diamond	Pure substance

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 2)

Question 1.
Classify the following as element and compound.
i. Mercuric oxide
ii. Helium gas
iii. Water
iv. Table salt
v. Iodine
vi. Mercury
vii. Oxygen
viii. Nitrogen
Answer:

No.	Material	Element or compound
i.	Mercuric oxide	Compound
ii.	Helium gas	Element
iii.	Water	Compound
iv.	Table salt	Compound
V.	Iodine	Element
vi.	Mercury	Element
vii.	Oxygen	Element
viii.	Nitrogen	Element

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 6)

Question 1.
If 10 volumes of dihydrogen gas react with 5 volumes of dioxygen gas, how many volumes of water vapour would be produced?
Answer:

If 10 volumes of dihydrogen gas react with 5 volumes of dioxygen gas, then 10 volumes of water vapour would be produced.

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 6)

Question 1.
What is an atom and molecule? What is the order of magnitude of mass of one atom? What are isotopes?
Answer:

The smallest indivisible particle of an element is called an atom.
A molecule is an aggregate of two or more atoms of definite composition which are held together by chemical bonds.
Every atom of an element has definite mass. The order of magnitude of mass of one atom is 10^-27 kg.
Isotopes are the atoms of the same element having same atomic number but different mass number.

Try this (Textbook Page No. 8)

Question 1.
Find the formula mass of CaSO₄, if atomic mass of Ca = 40.1 u, S =32.1 u and O = 16.0 u.
Solution:
Formula mass of CaSO₄
= Average atomic mass of Ca + Average atomic mass of S + Average atomic mass of four O
= (40.1) + 32.1 + (4 × 16.0) = 136.2 u
Ans: Formula mass of CaSO₄ = 136.2 u

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 8)

Question 1.
i. One dozen means how many items?
ii. One gross means how many items?
Answer:
i. One dozen means 12 items.
ii. One gross means 144 items.

Try this (Textbook Page No. 10)

Question 1.
Calculate the volume in dm³ occupied by 60.0 g of ethane at STP.
Solution:
Given: Mass of ethane at STP = 60.0 g
To find: Volume of ethane
Formulae:

Calculation: Molar volume of a gas = 22.4 dm³ mol^-1 at STP
Molecular mass of ethane = 30 g mol^-1

∴ Volume of the gas at STP = Number of moles of a gas (n) × Molar volume of a gas
= 2 mol × 22.4 dm³ mol^-1 = 44.8 dm³
Ans: Volume of ethane = 44.8 dm³

Activity :

Activity 1.
Collect information of various scientists and prepare charts of their contribution in chemistry.
Answer:

Scientists		Contributions
Joseph Louis Gay-Lussac (1778 – 1850) (French chemist and physicist)	i.	Formulated the gas law.
	ii.	Collected samples of air at different heights and recorded temperatures and moisture contents.
	iii.	Discovered that the composition of atmosphere does not change with increasing altitude.
Amedeo Avogadro (1776 – 1856) (Italian scholar)	i.	Published article in French journal on determining the relative masses of elementary particles of bodies and proportions by which they enter combinations.
Amedeo Avogadro (1776 – 1856) (Italian scholar)	ii.	Published a research paper titled “New considerations on the theory of proportions and on determination of the masses of atoms.”

11th Std Chemistry Questions And Answers:

11th Physics Chapter 14 Exercise Semiconductors Solutions Maharashtra Board

January 7, 2025January 6, 2025 by Prasanna

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Physics Textbook Solutions Chapter 14 Semiconductors Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Semiconductors Class 11 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Class 11 Physics Chapter 14 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Physics Class 11 Chapter 14 Exercise Solutions

1. Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
Electric conduction through a semiconductor is due to:
(A) Electrons
(B) holes
(C) none of these
(D) both electrons and holes
Answer:
(D) both electrons and holes

Question 2.
The energy levels of holes are:
(A) in the valence band
(B) in the conduction band
(C) in the band gap but close to valence band
(D) in the band gap but close to conduction band
Answer:
(C) in the band gap but close to valence band

Question 3.
Current through a reverse biased p-n junction, increases abruptly at:
(A) Breakdown voltage
(B) 0.0 V
(C) 0.3V
(D) 0.7V
Answer:
(A) Breakdown voltage

Question 4.
A reverse biased diode, is equivalent to:
(A) an off switch
(B) an on switch
(C) a low resistance
(D) none of the above
Answer:
(A) an off switch

Question 5.
The potential barrier in p-n diode is due to:
(A) depletion of positive charges near the junction
(B) accumulation of positive charges near the junction
(C) depletion of negative charges near the junction,
(D) accumulation of positive and negative charges near the junction
Answer:
(D) accumulation of positive and negative charges near the junction

2. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
What is the importance of energy gap in a semiconductor?
Answer:

The gap between the bottom of the conduction band and the top of the valence band is called the energy gap or the band gap.
This band gap is present only in semiconductors and insulators.
Magnitude of the band gap plays a very important role in the electronic properties of a solid.
Band gap in semiconductors is of the order of 1 eV.
If electrons in valence band of a semiconductor are provided with energy more than band gap energy (in the form of thermal energy or electrical energy), then the electrons get excited and occupy energy levels in conduction band. These electrons can easily take part in conduction.

Question 2.
Which element would you use as an impurity to make germanium an n-type semiconductor?
Answer:
Germanium can be made an n-type semiconductor by doping it with pentavalent impurity, like phosphorus (P), arsenic (As) or antimony (Sb).

Question 3.
What causes a larger current through a p-n junction diode when forward biased?
Answer:
In case of forward bias the width of the depletion region decreases and the p-n junction offers a low resistance path allowing a high current to flow across the junction.

Question 4.
On which factors does the electrical conductivity of a pure semiconductor depend at a given temperature?
Answer:
For pure semiconductor, the number density of free electrons and number density of holes is equal. Thus, at a given temperature, the conductivity of pure semiconductor depends on the number density of charge carriers in the semiconductor.

Question 5.
Why is the conductivity of a n-type semiconductor greater than that of p-type semiconductor even when both of these have same level of doping?
Answer:

In a p-type semiconductor, holes are majority charge carriers.
When a p-type semiconductor is connected to terminals of a battery, holes, which are not actual charges, behave like a positive charge and get attracted towards the negative terminal of the battery.
During transportation of hole, there is an indirect movement of electrons.
The drift speed of these electrons is less than that in the n-type semiconductors. Mobility of the holes is also less than that of the electrons.
As, electrical conductivity depends on the mobility of charge carriers, the conductivity of a n-type semiconductor is greater than that of p-type semiconductor even when both of these have same level of doping.

3. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Explain how solids are classified on the basis of band theory of solids.
Answer:
i. The solids can be classified into conductors, insulators and semiconductors depending on the distribution of electron energies in each atom.

ii. As an outcome of the small distances between atoms, the resulting interaction amongst electrons and the Pauli’s exclusion principle, energy bands are formed in the solids.

iii. In metals, conduction band and valence band overlap. However, in a semiconductor or an insulator, there is gap between the bottom of the conduction band and the top of the valence band. This is called the energy gap or the band gap.

iv. For metals, the valence band and the conduction band overlap and there is no band gap as shown in figure (b). Therefore, electrons can easily gain electrical energy when an external electric field is applied and are easily available for conduction.

v. In case of semiconductors, the band gap is fairly small, of the order of 1 eV or less as shown in figure (c). Hence, with application of external electric field, electrons get excited and occupy energy levels in conduction band. These can take part in conduction easily.

vi. Insulators, on the contrary, have a wide gap between valence band and conduction band of the order of 5 eV (for diamond) as shown in figure (d). Therefore, electrons find it very difficult to gain sufficient energy to occupy energy levels in conduction band.

vii. Thus, an energy band gap plays an important role in classifying solids into conductors, insulators and semiconductors based on band theory of solids.

Question 2.
Distinguish between intrinsic semiconductors and extrinsic semiconductors
Answer:

Intrinsic semiconductors	Extrinsic semiconductors
1. A pure semiconductor is known as intrinsic semiconductors.	The semiconductor, resulting
2. Their conductivity is low	Their conductivity is high even at room temperature.
3. Its electrical conductivity is a function of temperature alone.	Its electrical conductivity depends upon the temperature as well as on the quantity of impurity atoms doped in the structure.
4. The number density of holes (n_h) is same as the number density of free electron (n_e) (n_h = n_e).	The number density of free electrons and number density of holes are unequal.

Question 3.
Explain the importance of the depletion region in a p-n junction diode.
Answer:
i. The region across the p-n junction where there are no charges is called the depletion layer or the depletion region.

ii. During diffusion of charge carriers across the junction, electrons migrate from the n-side to the p-side of the junction. At the same time, holes are transported from p-side to n-side of the junction.

iii. As a result, in the p-type region near the junction there are negatively charged acceptor ions, and in the n-type region near the junction there are positively charged donor ions.

iv. The potential barrier thus developed, prevents continuous flow of charges across the junction. A state of electrostatic equilibrium is thus reached across the junction.

v. Free charge carriers cannot be present in a region where there is a potential barrier. This creates the depletion region.

vi. In absence of depletion region, all the majority charge carriers from n-region (i.e., electron) will get transferred to the p-region and will get combined with the holes present in that region. This will result in the decreased efficiency of p-n junction.

vii. Hence, formation of depletion layer across the junction is important to limit the number of majority carriers crossing the junction.

Question 4.
Explain the I-V characteristic of a forward biased junction diode.
Answer:

Figure given below shows the I-V characteristic of a forward biased diode.
When connected in forward bias mode, initially, the current through diode is very low and then there is a sudden rise in the current.
The point at which current rises sharply is shown as the ‘knee’ point on the I-V characteristic curve.
The corresponding voltage is called the knee voltage. It is about 0.7 V for silicon and 0.3 V for germanium.
A diode effectively becomes a short circuit above this knee point and can conduct a very large current.
To limit current flowing through the diode, resistors are used in series with the diode.
If the current through a diode exceeds the specified value, the diode can heat up due to the Joule’s heating and this may result in its physical damage.

Question 5.
Discuss the effect of external voltage on the width of depletion region of a p-n junction.
Answer:

A p-n junction can be connected to an external voltage supply in two possible ways.
A p-n junction is said to be connected in a forward bias when the p-region connected to the positive terminal and the n-region is connected to the negative terminal of an external voltage source.
In forward bias connection, the external voltage effectively opposes the built-in potential of the junction. The width of depletion region is thus reduced.
The second possibility of connecting p-n junction is in reverse biased electric circuit.
In reverse bias connection, the p-region is connected to the negative terminal and the n-region is connected to the positive terminal of the external voltage source. This external voltage effectively adds to the built-in potential of the junction. The width of potential barrier is thus increased

11th Physics Digest Chapter 14 Semiconductors Intext Questions and Answers

Internet my friend (Textbookpage no. 256)

i. https://www.electronics-tutorials.ws/diode
ii. https://www.hitachi-hightech.com
iii. https://nptel.ac.in/courses
iv. https://physics.info/semiconductors
v. http://hyperphysics.phy- astr.gsu.edu/hbase/Solids/semcn.html

[Students are expected to visit above mentioned links and collect more information regarding semiconductors.]

11th Std Physics Questions And Answers:

11th Physics Chapter 8 Exercise Sound Solutions Maharashtra Board

January 7, 2025January 6, 2025 by Prasanna

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Physics Textbook Solutions Chapter 8 Sound Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Sound Class 11 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Class 11 Physics Chapter 8 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Physics Class 11 Chapter 8 Exercise Solutions

1. Choose the correct alternatives

Question 1.
A sound carried by air from a sitar to a listener is a wave of following type.
(A) Longitudinal stationary
(B)Transverse progressive
(C) Transverse stationary
(D) Longitudinal progressive
Answer:
(D) Longitudinal progressive

Question 2.
When sound waves travel from air to water, which of these remains constant ?
(A) Velocity
(B) Frequency
(C) Wavelength
(D) All of above
Answer:
(B) Frequency

Question 3.
The Laplace’s correction in the expression for velocity of sound given by Newton is needed because sound waves
(A) are longitudinal
(B) propagate isothermally
(C) propagate adiabatically
(D) are of long wavelength
Answer:
(C) propagate adiabatically

Question 4.
Speed of sound is maximum in
(A) air
(B) water
(C) vacuum
(D) solid
Answer:
(D) solid

Question 5.
The walls of the hall built for music concerns should
(A) amplify sound
(B) Reflect sound
(C) transmit sound
(D) Absorb sound
Answer:
(D) Absorb sound

2. Answer briefly.

Question 1.
Wave motion is doubly periodic. Explain.
Answer:
i. A wave particle repeats its motion after a definite interval of time at every location, making it periodic in time.
ii. Similarly, at any given instant, the form of a wave repeats itself at equal distances making it periodic in space.
iii. Thus, wave motion is a doubly periodic phenomenon, i.e., periodic in time as well as periodic in space.

Question 2.
What is Doppler effect?
Answer:
The apparent change in the frequency of sound heard by a listener, due to relative motion between the source of sound and the listener is called Doppler effect in sound.

Question 3.
Describe a transverse wave.
Answer:
Transverse wave:
A wave in which particles of the medium vibrate in a direction perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave is called transverse wave.
Example: Ripples on the surface of water, light waves.

Characteristics of transverse waves:

All the particles of medium in the path of wave vibrate in a direction perpendicular to the direction of propagation of wave with same period and amplitude.
When transverse wave passes through the medium, the medium is divided into alternate crests i.e., regions of positive displacements and troughs i.e., regions of negative displacement, that are periodic in time.
A crest and an adjacent trough form one cycle of a transverse wave. The distance between any two successive crests or troughs is called wavelength ‘λ’ of the wave.
Crests and troughs advance in the medium and are responsible for transfer of energy.
Transverse waves can travel only through solids and not through liquids and gases. Electromagnetic waves are transverse waves, but they do not require material medium for propagation.
When transverse waves advance through a medium, there is no change of pressure and density at any point of the medium, but the shape changes periodically.
Transverse wave can be polarised.
Medium conveying a transverse wave must possess elasticity of shape, i.e., modulus of rigidity.

Question 4.
Define a longitudinal wave.
Answer:
A wave in which particles of medium vibrate in a direction parallel to the direction of propagation of the wave is called longitudinal wave. Example: Sound waves.

Question 5.
State Newton’s formula for velocity of sound.
Answer:
Newton’s formula for velocity of sound:
i. Sound wave travels through a medium in the form of compression and rarefaction. At compression, the density of medium is greater while at rarefaction density is smaller. This is possible only in elastic medium.

ii. Thus, the velocity of sound depends upon density and elasticity of medium. It is given by
v = \(\sqrt{\frac {E}{ρ}}\) ….(1)
Where, E is the modulus of elasticity of medium and ρ is density of medium.

Assumptions:
1. Newton assumed that during propagation of sound wave in air, average temperature of the medium remains constant. Hence, propagation of sound wave in air is an isothermal process and isothermal elasticity should be considered.

2. The volume elasticity of air determined under isothermal change is called isothermal bulk modulus.

Calculations:
1. For a gas or air, the isothermal elasticity E is equal to the atmospheric pressure P.
Substituting this value in equation (1), the velocity of sound in air or a gas is given by
v = \(\sqrt{\frac {P}{ρ}}\) ….(∵ E = P)
This is the Newton’s formula for velocity of sound in air.

2. But atmospheric pressure is given by,
P = hdg
∴ v = \(\sqrt{\frac {hdg}{ρ}\) ….(2)

3. At N.T.P., h = 0.76 m of mercury, density of mercury d = 13600 kg/m³ and acceleration due to gravity, g = 9.8 m/s², density of air ρ = 1.293 kg/m³

4. From equation (2) we have velocity of sound,
v = \(\sqrt{\frac {0.76×13600×9.8}{1.293}}\) = 279.9 m/s at N.T.P

Question 6.
What is the effect of pressure on velocity of sound?
Answer:
Effect of pressure:
i. Let v be the velocity of sound in air when the pressure is P and density is ρ.

ii. Using Laplace’s formula, we can write,
v = \(\sqrt{\frac {γP}{ρ}}\) ….(1)

iii. If V be the volume of a gas having mass M then, ρ = \(\frac {M}{V}\)

iv. Substituting ρ in equation (1), we get,
v = \(\sqrt{\frac {γPV}{M}}\) ….(2)

v. But according to Boyle’s law,
PV = constant (at constant temperature)
Also, M and γ are constant.
∴ v = constant

vi. Hence, the velocity of sound does not depend upon the change in pressure, as long as the temperature remains constant.

vii. For a gaseous medium, PV= nRT.
Substituting in equation (2), we get,
v = \(\sqrt{\frac {γnRT}{M}}\)

viii. Thus, even for a gaseous medium obeying ideal gas equation, the velocity of sound does not depend upon the change in pressure, as long as the temperature remains constant.

Question 7.
What is the effect of humidity of air on velocity of sound?
Answer:
Effect of humidity:
i. Let v_m and v_d be the velocities of sound in moist air and dry air respectively.

ii. Humid air contains a large proportion of water vapour. Density of water vapour at 0 °C is 0.81 kg/m³ while that of dry air at 0°C is 1.29 kg/m³. So, the density ρ_m of moist air is less than the density ρ_d of dry air i.e., ρ_m < ρ_d.

iii. Thus \(\frac {v_m}{v_d}\) > 1
∴ v_m > v_d

iv. Hence, sound travels faster in moist air than in dry air. It means that velocity of sound increases with increase in moistness (humidity) of air.

Question 8.
What do you mean by an echo?
Answer:
An echo is the repetition of the original sound because of reflection from some rigid surface at a distance from the source of sound.

Question 9.
State any two applications of acoustics.
Answer:
Application of acoustics in nature:
i. Bats apply the principle of acoustics to locate objects. They emit short ultrasonic pulses of frequency 30 kHz to 150 kHz. The resulting echoes give them information about location of the obstacle. This helps the bats to fly in even in total darkness of caves.

ii. Dolphins navigate underwater with the help of an analogous system. They emit subsonic frequencies which can be about 100 Hz. They can sense an object about 1.4 m or larger.

Medical applications of acoustics:
i. High pressure and high amplitude shock waves are used to split kidney stones into smaller pieces without invasive surgery. A reflector or acoustic lens is used to focus a produced shock wave so that as much of its energy as possible converges on the stone. The resulting stresses in the stone causes the stone to break into small pieces which can then be removed easily.

ii. Ultrasonic imaging uses reflection of ultrasonic waves from regions in the interior of body. It is used for prenatal (before the birth) examination, detection of anomalous conditions like tumour etc. and the study of heart valve action.

iii. Ultrasound at a very high-power level, destroys selective pathological tissues which is helpful in treatment of arthritis and certain type of cancer.

Underwater applications of acoustics:
i. SONAR (Sound Navigational Ranging) is a technique for locating objects underwater by transmitting a pulse of ultrasonic sound and detecting the reflected pulse.
ii. The time delay between transmission of a pulse and the reception of reflected pulse indicates the depth of the object.
iii. Motion and position of submerged objects like submarine can be measured with the help of this system.

Applications of acoustics in environmental and geological studies:
i. Acoustic principle has important application to environmental problems like noise control. The quiet mass transit vehicle is designed by studying the generation and propagation of sound in the motor’s wheels and supporting structures.

Reflected and refracted elastic waves passing through the Earth’s interior can be measured by applying the principles of acoustics. This is useful in studying the properties of the Earth.

Principles of acoustics are applied to detect local anomalies like oil deposits etc. making it useful for geological studies.

Question 10.
Define amplitude and wavelength of a wave.
Answer:
i. Amplitude (A): The largest displacement of a particle of a medium through which the wave is propagating, from its rest position, is called amplitude of that wave.
SI unit: (m)

ii. Wavelength (λ): The distance between two successive particles which are in the same state of vibration is called wavelength of the wave.
SI unit: (m)

Question 11.
Draw a wave and indicate points which are (i) in phase (ii) out of phase (iii) have a phase difference of π/2.
Answer:

i. In phase point: A and F; B and H; C and I; D and J
ii. Out of phase points: A and B, B and D, FI and J, E and F,
iii. Point having phase difference of π/2: A and B; B and C; D; D and F; F and H; H and I; J and I

Question 12.
Define the relation between velocity, wavelength and frequency of wave.
Answer:
i. A wave covers a distance equal to the wavelength (λ) during one period (T).
Therefore, the magnitude of the velocity (v) is given by,
Magnitude of velocity = \(\frac {Distance covered}{Corresponding time}\)

ii. v = \(\frac {22}{7}\) i.e., v = λ × (\(\frac {1}{T}\)) …………….. (1)

iii. But reciprocal of the period is equal to the frequency (n) of the waves.
∴ \(\frac {1}{T}\) = n …………… (2)

iv. From equations (1) and (2), we get
v = nλ
i.e., wave velocity = frequency × wavelength.

Question 13.
State and explain principle of superposition of waves.
Answer:
Principle:
As waves don’t repulse each other, they overlap in the same region of the space without affecting each other. When two waves overlap, their displacements add vectorially.

Explanation:
i. Consider two waves travelling through a medium arriving at a point simultaneously.

ii. Let each wave produce its own displacement at that point independent of the others. This displacement can be given as,
y₁ = displacement due to first wave.
y₂ = displacement due to second wave.

iii. Then according to superposition of waves, the resultant displacement at that point is equal to the vector sum of the displacements due to all the waves.
∴\(\vec{y}\) = \(\vec{y_1}\) + \(\vec{y_2}\)

Question 14.
State the expression for apparent frequency when source of sound and listener are
i) moving towards each other
ii) moving away from each other
Answer:
i. Let,
n = actual frequency of the source.
n₀ = apparent frequency of the source,
v = velocity of sound in air.
v_s = velocity of the source.
v_l = velocity of the listener.

ii. Apparent frequency heard by the listener is given by,
n = n₀(\(\frac {v±v_L}{v±v_s}\))
Where upper signs (+ ve in numerator and -ve in denominator) indicate that source and observer move towards each other. Lower signs (-ve in numerator and +ve in denominator) indicate that source and listener move away from each other.

iii. If source and listener are moving towards each other, then apparent frequency is given by,
n = n₀(\(\frac {v+v_L}{v-v_s}\)) i.e., apparent frequency increases.

iv. If source and listener are moving away from each other, then apparent frequency is given by,
n = n₀(\(\frac {v-v_L}{v+v_s}\)) i.e., apparent frequency decreases.

Question 15.
State the expression for apparent frequency when source is stationary and listener is
1) moving towards the source
2) moving away from the source
Answer:
Let,
n = actual frequency of the source.
n₀ = apparent frequency of the source,
v = velocity of sound in air.
v_s = velocity of the source.
v_l = velocity of the listener.

i. If listener is moving towards source then apparent frequency is given by,
n = n₀(\(\frac {v+v_L}{v}\)) i.e., apparent frequency increases.

ii. If listener is receding away from source then apparent frequency is given by,
n = n₀(\(\frac {v-v_L}{v}\)) i.e., apparent frequency decreases.

Question 16.
State the expression for apparent frequency when listener is stationary and source is.

(i) moving towards the listener
(ii) moving away from the listener
Answer:
Let,
n = actual frequency of the source.
n₀ = apparent frequency of the source,
v = velocity of sound in air.
v_s = velocity of the source.
v_l = velocity of the listener.

i. If source is moving towards observer then apparent frequency is given by,
n = n₀(\(\frac {v}{v-v_s}\)) i.e., apparent frequency increases.

ii. If source is receding away from observer then apparent frequency is given by,
n = n₀(\(\frac {v}{v+v_s}\)) i.e., apparent frequency decreases.

Question 17.
Explain what is meant by phase of a wave.
Answer:

i. The state of oscillation of a particle is called the phase of the particle.

ii. The displacement, direction of velocity and oscillation number of the particle describe the phase of the particle at a place.

iii. Particles r and t (q and u or v and s) have same displacements but the directions of their velocities are opposite.

iv. Particles having same magnitude of displacements and same direction of velocity are said to be in phase during their respective oscillations. Example: particles v and p.

v. Separation between two particles which are in phase is wavelength (λ).

vi. The two successive particles differ by ‘1’ in their oscillation number i.e., if particle v is at its n^th oscillation, particle p will be at its (n + 1)^th oscillation as the wave is travelling along + X direction.

vii. In the given graph, if the disturbance (energy) has just reached the particle w, the phase angle corresponding to particle is 0°. At this instant, particle v has completed quarter oscillation and reached its positive maximum (sin θ = +1). The phase angle θ of this particle v is \(\frac {π^c}{2}\) = 90° at this instant.

viii. Phase angles of particles u and q are π^c (180°) and 2rcc (360°) respectively.

ix. Particle p has completed one oscillation and is at its positive maximum during its second oscillation.
∴ phase angle = 2π^c + \(\frac {π^c}{2}\)
= \(\frac {5π^c}{2}\)

x. v and p are the successive particles in the same state (same displacement and same direction of velocity) during their respective oscillations. Phase angle between these two differs by 2π^c.

Question 18.
Define progressive wave. State any four properties.
Answer:
i. Waves in which a disturbance created at one place travels to distant points and keeps travelling unless stopped by an external force are known as travelling or progressive waves.
Properties of progressive waves are:
Amplitude, wavelength, period, double periodicity, frequency and velocity.

Question 19.
Distinguish between traverse waves and longitudinal waves.
Answer:

Longitudinal wave	Transverse wave
1. The particles of the medium vibrate along the direction of propagation of the wave.	1. The particles of the medium vibrate perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave.
2. Alternate compressions and rarefactions are formed.	2. Alternate crests and troughs are formed.
3. Periodic compressions and rarefactions, in space and time, produce periodic pressure and density variations in the medium.	There are no pressure and density, variations in the medium.
4. For propagation of a longitudinal wave, the medium must be able to resist changes in volume.	For propagation of a transverse wave, the medium must be able to resist shear or change in shape.
5. It can propagate through any material medium (solid, liquid or gas).	It can propagate only through solids.
6. These waves cannot be polarised.	These waves can be polarised.
7. eg.: Sound waves	eg.: Light waves

Question 20.
Explain Newtons formula for velocity of sound. What is its limitation?
Answer:
Newton’s formula for velocity of sound:
i. Sound wave travels through a medium in the form of compression and rarefaction. At compression, the density of medium is greater while at rarefaction density is smaller. This is possible only in elastic medium.

2. The volume elasticity of air determined under isothermal change is called isothermal bulk modulus.

2. But atmospheric pressure is given by,
P = hdg
∴ v = \(\sqrt{\frac {hdg}{ρ}}\) ….(2)

3. At N.T.P., h = 0.76 m of mercury, density of mercury d = 13600 kg/m³ and acceleration due to gravity, g = 9.8 m/s², density of air ρ = 1.293 kg/m³

4. From equation (2) we have velocity of sound,
v = \(\sqrt{\frac {0.76×13600×9.8}{1.293}}\) = 279.9 m/s at N.T.P

Limitations:
1. Experimentally, it is found that the velocity of sound in air at N. T. P is 332 m/s. Thus, there is considerable difference between the value predicted by Newton’s formula and the experimental value.

2. Experimental value is 16% greater than the value given by the formula. Newton failed to provide a satisfactory explanation for the difference.

3. Solve the following problems.

Question 1.
A certain sound wave in air has a speed 340 m/s and wavelength 1.7 m for this wave, calculate
(i) the frequency
(ii) the period.
Answer:
Given: v = 340 m/s, λ = 1.7 m
To find: frequency (n), period (T)
Formulae:
i. n = \(\frac {v}{λ}\)
ii. T = \(\frac {1}{n}\)
Calculation: From formula, (i)
n = \(\frac {340}{1.7}\)
∴ n = 200 Hz
From formula, (ii)
T = \(\frac {1}{n}\) = \(\frac {1}{2×10^2}\)
= 5 × 10^-3
…….. (using reciprocal Table)
∴ T = 0.005 s

Question 2.
A tuning fork of frequency 170 Hz produces sound waves of wavelength 2m. Calculate speed of sound.
Answer:
Given: n = 170 Hz, λ = 2 m
To find: velocity of sound (v)
Formula: v = nλ
Calculation: From formula,
v = 170 × 2
∴ v = 340 m/s

Question 3.
An echo-sounder in a fishing boat receives an echo from a shoal of fish 0.45s after it was sent. If the speed of sound in water is 1500 m/s, how deep is the shoal?
Answer:
Given: t = 0.45 s, v = 1500 m/s,
To Find: depth (d)
Formula: speed (v) = \(\frac {distance}{time}\)
Calculation:
For an echo distance travelled by the sound wave = 2 × (distance between echo sounder and shoal) (d)
v = \(\frac {2 × d}{t}\)
∴ d = \(\frac {1500 × 0.45}{2}\) = 337.5 m

Question 4.
A girl stands 170 m away from a high wall and claps her hands at a steady rateso that each clap coincides with the echo of the one before.
a) If she makes 60 claps in 1 minute, what value should be the speed of sound in air?
b) Now, she moves to another location and finds that she should now make 45 claps in 1 minute to coincide with successive echoes. Calculate her distance for the new position from the wall.
Answer:
i. When the girl makes 60 claps in 1 minute, the value of speed of is 340 m/s.

ii. The girl is at a distance of 226.67 m from the wall when she produces 45 claps per minute.
[Note: The answer given above is calculated in accordance with textual method considering the given data]

Question 5.
Sound wave A has period 0.015 s, sound wave B has period 0.025. Which sound has greater frequency?
Answer:
Given: T_A = 0.015 s, T_B = 0.025 s
To find: greater frequency (n)
Formula: n = \(\frac {1}{T}\)
Calculation: From formula,
n_A = \(\frac {1}{T_A}\) = \(\frac {1}{0.025}\) = \(\frac {1}{2.5 ×10^{-2}}\)
∴ n_A = 66.67
…. (using reciprocal table)
n_B = \(\frac {1}{T_B}\) = \(\frac {1}{0.025}\) = \(\frac {1}{2.5 ×10^{-2}}\)
∴ n_B = 40 Hz
…. (using reciprocal table)
∴ n_A > n_B

Question 6.
At what temperature will the speed of sound in air be 1.75 times its speed at N.T.P?
Answer:
Given:
v_air = 1.75 V_S.T.P = \(\frac {7}{4}\) v_S.T.P
T_S.T.P = 273 K
To find: temperature T_air
Formula: v ∝ √T
Calculation: From formula,

Question 7.
A man standing between 2 parallel eliffs fires a gun. He hearns two echos one after 3 seconds and other after 5 seconds. The separation between the two cliffs is 1360 m, what is the speed of sound?
Answer:
distance (s) = 1360 m,
time for first echo = 3 s,
time for second echo = 5 s
To Find : speed of sound (v)
Formula : speed = \(\frac {distence}{time}\)
Calculation:
Time for first echo = 3 s
∴ time taken by sound to travel given distance t₁
= \(\frac {3}{2}\) = 1.5 s
Time for second echo = 5 s
∴ time taken by sound to travel given distance t₂
= \(\frac {5}{2}\) = 2.5 s
∴Total time taken by sound to travel given distance, T = 1.5 + 2.5 = 4 s
From formula,
v = \(\frac {1360}{4}\)
∴v = 340 m/s

Question 8.
If the velocity of sound in air at a given place on two different days of a given week are in the ratio of 1 : 1.1. Assuming the temperatures on the two days to be same what quantitative conclusion can your draw about the condition on the two days?
Answer:
Let v₁ and v₂ be the velocity of sound on day 1 and day 2 respectively.
\(\frac {v_1}{v_2}\) = \(\frac {1}{1.1}\)
We know, v ∝ \(\frac {1}{√ρ}\)
Let ρ₁ and ρ₂ be the density of air on day 1 and day 2 respectively.
∴ \(\sqrt{\frac {ρ_2}{ρ_1}}\) = \(\frac {1}{1.1}\)
∴ \(\frac {ρ_2}{ρ_1}\) = (\(\frac {1}{1.1}\))²
∴ ρ₁ = 1.1² ρ₂ = 1.21 ρ²
From above equation, we can conclude,
ρ₁ > ρ₂
∴ v₂ > v₁ i.e., the velocity of sound is greater on the second day than on the first day.
We know, speed of sound in moist air (v_m) is greater than speed of sound in dry air (v_d).
∴ We can conclude, air is moist on second day and dry on the first day.

Question 9.
A police car travels towards a stationary observer at a speed of 15 m/s. The siren on the car emits a sound of frequency 250 Hz. Calculate the recorded frequency. The speed of sound is 340 m/s.
Answer:
Given: v_s = 15 m/s, n0 = 250 Hz, v = 340 m/s
To find: Frequency (n)
Formula: n = n₀(\(\frac {v}{v-v_s}\))
Calculation: As the source approaches listener, apparent frequency is given by,
n = 250 (\(\frac {340}{340-15}\)) = \(\frac {3400}{13}\)
∴ n = 261.54 Hz

Question 10.
The sound emitted from the siren of an ambulance has frequency of 1500 Hz. The speed of sound is 340 m/s. Calculate the difference in frequencies heard by a stationary observer if the ambulance initially travels towards and then away from the observer at a speed of 30 m/s.
Answer:
Given: v_s = 30 m/s, n₀ = 1500 Hz, v = 340 m/s
To find: Difference in apparent frequencies (n_A – n’_A)
Formulae:
i. When the ambulance moves towards he stationary observer then n_A = n₀(\(\frac {v}{v-v_s}\))

ii. When the ambulance moves away from the stationary observer then, n’_A = n₀(\(\frac {v}{v+v_s}\))

Calculation:
From formula (i), icon’ 340
n_A = 1500(\(\frac {340}{340-30}\))
∴ n_A = 1645 Hz
From (ii)
n’_A = 1500(\(\frac {340}{340+30}\))
∴ n_A = 1378 Hz
Difference between n_A and n’_A
= n_A – n’_A = 1645 – 1378 = 267 Hz

11th Physics Digest Chapter 8 Sound Intext Questions and Answers

Can you recall? (Textbook page no. 142)

i. What type of wave is a sound wave?
ii. Can sound travel in vacuum?
iii. What are reverberation and echo?
iv. What is meant by pitch of a sound?
Answer:
i. Sound wave is a longitudinal wave.

ii. Sound cannot travel in vacuum.

iii. a. Reverberation is the phenomenon in which sound waves are reflected multiple times causing a single sound to be heard more than once.
b. An echo is the repetition of the original sound because of reflection by some surface.

iv. The characteristic of sound which is determined by the value of frequency is called as the pitch of the sound.

Activity (Textbook page no. 144)

i. Using axes of displacement and distance, sketch two waves A and B such that A has twice the wavelength and half the amplitude of B.
ii. Determine the wavelength and amplitude of each of the two waves P and Q shown in figure below.

Answer:

Wave	Wavelength (λ)	Amplitude (A)
A	4 m	2 m
B	2 m	4 m

Wave	Wavelength (λ)	Amplitude (A)
P	6 units	3 units
Q	4 units	2 units

11th Std Physics Questions And Answers:

11th Chemistry Chapter 3 Exercise Basic Analytical Techniques Solutions Maharashtra Board

January 7, 2025January 6, 2025 by Bhagya

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Chemistry Textbook Solutions Chapter 3 Basic Analytical Techniques Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Basic Analytical Techniques Class 11 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 3 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Chemistry Class 11 Chapter 3 Exercise Solutions

1. Choose the correct option

Question A.
Which of the following methods can be used to seperate two compounds with different solubilities in the same solvent?
a. Fractional crystallization
b. Crystallization
c. Distillation
d. Solvent extraction
Answer:
a. Fractional crystallization

Question B.
Which of the following techniques is used for seperation of glycerol from soap in soap industry ?
a. Distillation under reduced pressure
b. Fractional distillation
c. Filtration
d. Crystallization
Answer:
a. Distillation under reduced pressure

Question C.
Which technique is widely used in industry to seperate components of mixture and also to purify them ?
a. Steam distillation
b. Chromatography
c. Solvent extraction
d. Filtration
Answer:
b. Chromatography

Question D.
A mixture of acetone and benzene can be seperated by the following method :
a. Simple distillation
b. Fractional distillation
c. Distillation under reduced pressure
d. Sublimation
Answer:
b. Fractional distillation

Question E.
Colourless components on chromatogram can not be observed by the following :
a. Using UV light
b. Using iodine chamber
c. Using the spraying reagent
d. Using infrared light
Answer:
d. Using infrared light

2. Answer the following

Question A.
Which of the following techniques is used for purification of solid organic compounds?
a. Crystallisation
b. Distillation
Answer:
Solid (crude/impure) organic compounds can be purified by crystallization.

Question B.
What do you understand by the terms
a. residue
b. filtrate.
Answer:
a. Residue: In the process of filtration, the insoluble (undissolved) impurities which remain on the filter paper are called residue.

b. Filtrate: In the process of filtration, the liquid which pass through the filter paper and collected in the beaker is called filtrate.

Question C.
Why is a condenser used in distillation process?
Answer:
In the process of distillation, a liquid is converted into its vapour and the vapour is then condensed back to liquid on cooling. The condenser has a jacket with two outlets through which water is circulated. Hence, to provide efficient cooling, a condenser is used.

Question D.
Why is paper moistened before filtration?
Answer:
Before filtration, filter paper is moistened with appropriate solvent to ensure that it sticks to the funnel and does not let the air to pass through the leaks.

Question E.
What is the stationary phase in Paper Chromatography?
Answer:
Paper chromatography is a type of partition chromatography in which a special quality paper, namely Whatman paper 1 is used. The water trapped in the fibres of the paper acts as stationary phase.

Question F.
What will happen if the upper outlet of the condenser is connected to the tap instead of the lower outlet?
Answer:

If water enters through upper outlet of condenser, the water will quickly flow down under the influence of gravity. This allows only a small section of the condenser to be cooled enough.
If water enters through lower outlet of condenser, the entire condenser will be filled with water before it leaves out providing maximum cooling to the condenser. This results in maximum recovery of purified liquid.

Hence, water must be allowed to enter through lower outlet of condenser during distillation process.

Question G.
Give names of two materials used as stationary phase in chromatography.
Answer:

Alumina
Silica gel

Question H.
Which properties of solvents are useful for solvent extraction?
Answer:

Organic compound must be more soluble in the organic solvent, than in water.
Solvent should be immiscible with water and be able to form two distinct layers.

Question I.
Why should spotting of mixture be done above the level of mobile phase ?
Answer:

If spotting of a mixture is done at the level of mobile phase, then solvent will come in contact with the sample spot.
Sample spot will dissolve in the mobile phase and its components will move all over the plate resulting in no distinct separation.

Hence, spotting of mixture should be done above the level of mobile phase.

Question J.
Define : a. Stationary phase b. Saturated solution
Answer:
a. Stationary phase:
Stationary phase is a solid or a liquid supported on a solid which remains fixed in a place and on which different solutes are adsorbed to a different extent.

b. Saturated solution:
A saturated solution is a solution which cannot dissolve additional quantity of a solute.

Question K.
What is the difference between simple distillation and fractional distillation?
Answer:

No.	Simple distillation	Fractional distillation
i.	If in a mixture the difference in boiling points of two liquids is appreciable/large, they are separated from each other using the simple distillation.	If in a mixture the difference in boiling points of two liquids is not appreciable/large, they are separated from each other using the fractional distillation.
ii.	Simple distillation assembly is used.	fractionating column is fitted in distillation assembly.
e.g.	Mixture of acetone (b.p. 329 K) and water (b.p. 373 K) can be separated by this method.	Mixture of acetone (b.p. 329 K) and methanol (b.p. 337.7 K) can be separated by this method.

Question L.
Define a. Solvent extraction
b. Distillation.
Answer:
a. Solvent extraction:
Solvent extraction is a method used to separate an organic compound present in an aqueous solution, by shaking it with a suitable organic solvent in which the compound is more soluble than water.

b. Distillation:
The process in which liquid is converted into its vapour phase at its boiling point and the vapour is then condensed back to liquid on cooling is known as distillation.

Question M.
List the properties of solvents which make them suitable for crystallization.
Answer:
The solvent to be used for crystallization should have following properties:

The compound to be crystallized should be least or sparingly soluble in the solvent at room temperature but highly soluble at high temperature.
Solvent should not react chemically with the compound to be purified.
Solvent should be volatile so that it can be removed easily.

Question N.
Name the different types of Chromatography and explain the principles underlying them.
Answer:
Depending on the nature of the stationary phase i.e., whether it is a solid or a liquid, chromatography is classified into adsorption chromatography and partition chromatography.
i. Adsorption chromatography: This technique is based on the principle of differential adsorption. Different solutes are adsorbed on an adsorbent to different extent.

Adsorption chromatography is further classified into two types:

Column chromatography
Thin-layer chromatography

ii. Partition chromatography: This technique is based on continuous differential partitioning of components of a mixture between stationary and mobile phases. For example, paper chromatography

Question O.
Why do we see bands separating in column chromatography?
Answer:

In column chromatography, the solutes get adsorbed on the stationary phase and depending on the degree to which they are adsorbed, they get separated from each other.
The component which is readily adsorbed are retained on the column and others move down the column to various distances forming distinct bands.

Hence, we see bands separating in column chromatography.

Question P.
How do you visualize colourless compounds after separation in TLC and Paper Chromatography?
Answer:
i. Thin-layer chromatography (TLC): If components are colourless but have the property of fluorescence then they can be visualized under UV light, or the plate can be kept in a chamber containing a few iodine crystals. The iodine vapours are adsorbed by the components and the spots appear brown. Also, spraying agent like ninhydrin can also be used (for amino acids).

ii. Paper Chromatography: The spots of the separated colourless components may be observed either under ultra-violet light or by the use of an appropriate spraying agent.

Question Q.
Compare TLC and Paper Chromatography techniques.
Answer:

Chromatography technique	TLC	Paper chromatography
Principle	It is based on the principle of differential adsorption. Different solutes are adsorbed on an adsorbent to different extent.	It is based on continuous differential partitioning of components of a mixture between stationary and mobile phases.
Stationary phase	Solid (adsorbent like silica gel or alumina over a glass plate)	Liquid (water trapped in the fibres of a Paper)
Mobile phase	Liquid (single solvent/mixture of solvents)	Liquid (single solvent/mixture of solvents)
Visualization of components of a mixture	Similar to TLC the coloured components are visible as coloured spots and the colourless components are observed under UV light or using a spraying agent.

3. Label the diagram and explain the process in your words.

Answer:
When filtration is carried out using a vacuum pump it is called filtration under suction. It is a faster and more efficient technique than simple filtration. The diagram is as follows:

ii. Procedure:

The assembly for filtration under suction consists of a thick wall conical flask with a sidearm (Buchner flask).
The flask is connected to a safety bottle by rubber tube through the side arm.
Buchner funnel (a special porcelain funnel with a porous circular bottom) is fitted on the conical flask with the help of a rubber cork.
A circular filter paper of correct size is placed on the circular porous bottom of the Buchner funnel and the funnel is placed on the flask.
Filter paper is moistened with a few drops of water or solvent.
Suction is created by starting the pump and filtration is carried out.

iii. Crystals are collected on the filter paper and filtrate in the flask.

11th Std Chemistry Questions And Answers:

11th Biology Chapter 4 Exercise Kingdom Animalia Solutions Maharashtra Board

January 7, 2025January 6, 2025 by Bhagya

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Biology Textbook Solutions Chapter 4 Kingdom Animalia Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Kingdom Animalia Class 11 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Class 11 Biology Chapter 4 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Biology Class 11 Chapter 4 Exercise Solutions

1. Choose correct option

Question (A)
Which of the following belongs to a minor phylum?
(a) Comb jelly
(b) Jelly fish
(c) Herdmania
(d) Salpa
Answer:
(a) Comb jelly

Question (B)
Select the animal having venous heart.
(a) Crocodile
(b) Salamander
(c) Rohu
(d) Toad
Answer:
(c) Rohu

Question (C)
In Ascaris, _______ .
(a) mesoglea is present
(b) endoderm is a discontinuous layer
(c) mesoderm is present in patches
(d) body cavity is absent
Answer:
(c) mesoderm is present in patches

Question (D)
Which of the following is INCORRECT in case of birds?
(a) Presence of teeth
(b) Presence of scales
(c) Nucleated RBCs
(d) Hollow bones
Answer:
(a) Presence of teeth

Question (E)
Chitinous exoskeleton is a characteristic of ________ .
(a) Dentalium
(b) Antedon
(c) Millipede
(d) Sea urchin
Answer:
(c) Millipede

2. Answer the following questions.

Question (A)
Reptiles are known for having three chambered heart. Which animal shows a near four chambered condition in reptiles?
Answer:
Crocodiles have a four chambered heart.

Question (B)
The circulatory system has evolved from open to closed type in Animal Kingdom. Which Phylum can be called first to represent closed circulation?
Answer:
Phylum Annelida is the first phylum to represent closed circulation.

Question (C)
Pinna is part of external ear and it is found in mammals. Do Aves and Reptiles show external ear in any form?
Answer:
No, Aves and Reptiles do not show external ear in any form. They possess tympanum which represents the ear.

Question (D)
Fish and frog can respire in water. Can they respire through their skin? If yes, why do they have gills?
Answer:
1. Yes, fishes and frogs can respire through their skin.
2. The larval stage of frog i. e. tadpole respires through gills. During metamorphosis, tadpoles lose their gills and develop lungs.
3. Frogs do not have scales and breathe through their skin underwater.
4. Fishes respire primarily via gills. The body of fishes is covered with scales which limits cutaneous respiration in them.

Question (E)
Birds need to keep their body light to help in flying. Hence, they show presence of some organs only on one side. How their skeleton helps in reducing their weight?
Answer:

In birds, the forelimbs are modified into wings for flying.
They possess stream-lined body to reduce resistance during flight.
Bones are hollow or pneumatic to reduce body weight.
In order to reduce body weight, urinary bladder is absent. Also, females possess only left ovary and oviduct.
Body is covered by feathers to facilitate flying.

Question (F)
Cnidarians and Ctenophorans are both diploblastic. Which other character do they have in common, which is not found in other phyla?
Answer:
Cnidarians and ctenophorans show tissue level of body organization. They have blind sac body plan and radially symmetrical body.

Question (G)
Crab and Snail both have a protective covering. Is it made up of the same material?
Answer:
No, the protective covering is not made up of same material in crab and snail. The protective covering of crabs is made up of chitin and that of snails is made up of calcium carbonate.

Question (H)
Sponge and sea star show calcareous protective material. Do they belong to the same Phylum?
Answer:
No, they do not belong to same phylum. Sponges belong to phylum Porifera and sea star belongs to phylum Echinodermata.
1. Adult echinoderms are radially symmetrical but larval forms are bilaterally symmetrical.
2. Larvae of echinoderms are free-swimming.

Question (I)
Fish and snake both have scales. How do these scales differ from each other?
Answer:
Fishes have dermal scales covering the body surface whereas snakes have epidermal scales or scutes.

Question (J)
Lower Phyla like Arthropods and Cnidarians show metamorphosis. Is it also found in any class of Phylum Chordata?
Answer:
Yes, it is also found in class Amphibia of phylum Chordata.

Question 3.
Draw neat labelled diagram.
A. Sycon
B. Aurelia
C. Amphioxus
D. Catla
E. Balanoglossus
F. Scolidon
Answer:
A. Sycon

B. Aurelia

C. Amphioxus

D. Catla

E. Balanoglossus

F. Scolidon

Question 4.
Match the following.

Phylum	Characters
1. Annelida	(a) Tube feet
2. Mollusca	(b) Ostia
3. Ctenophora	(c) Radula
4. Porifera	(d) Parapodia
5. Echinodermata	(e) Comb plates

Answer:

Phylum	Characters
1. Annelida	(d) Parapodia
2. Mollusca	(c) Radula
3. Ctenophora	(e) Comb plates
4. Porifera	(b) Ostia
5. Echinodermata	(a) Tube feet

5. Identify the animals given in pictures and write features of its phylum/class.

Question 1.

Answer:
The organism in the given picture is Comb jelly (Red midwater Comb jelly) and it belongs to phylum Ctenophora.

Question 2.

Answer:
The organism in the given picture is Eel and it belongs to phylum Chordata.

Question 3.

Answer:
The given organism in the given picture is Dolphin and it belongs to class Mammalia.

Question 4.

Answer:
The given organism is Snake and it belongs to class Reptilia

Question 5.

Answer:
The given organism is Sea urchin and belongs to phylum Echinodermata.

Question 6.

Answer:
The given organism is flying lizard and belongs to class Reptilia.

Question 7.

Answer:
The organism is Herdmania and belongs to Phylum Chordata (Subphylum Urochordata).

Question 8.

Answer:
The organism in the given picture is Nautilus and it belongs to phylum Mollusca.

Question 9.

Answer:
The organism in the given picture is Amphioxus and it belongs to Phylum Chordata (Subphylum Cephalochordata).

6. Observe and identify body symmetry of given animals.

Question 1.
Observe and identify body symmetry of given animals.

Answer:
Fig i. represents asymmetry
Fig ii. represents radial symmetry
Fig iii. represents bilateral symmetry

Practical/Project:

Question 1.
Study different animals in kingdom Animalia and prepare the chart with detail scientific information.
Answer:
Phylum Porifera (Pori = Pores: feron = bearing): Members of the phylum Porifera are also called sponges. Characteristic features of the phylum:

Habitat: They are aquatic, mostly marine but few species are found in fresh water.
Forms: They are sedentary animals (attached to substratum or rock).
Body shape: They have asymmetrical body. Body of these animals consists of many cells with minimal
division of labour among cells. Hence, their body is considered as a colony of different types of cells.
Body surface: Their body bears minute pores called ‘ostia’ through which water enters the spongocoel (body cavity). Water leaves the body through a large opening called ‘osculum’. Beating of flagella creates water current.
Circulation: Water is circulated in the body through the ‘canal system’. When the water enters the body of poriferans, cells absorb the food, exchange respiratory gases and release excretory products.
Digestive system: The body cavity of sponges (spongocoel) is lined by unique type of flagellated cells called choanocytes or collar cells for digestion.
Endoskeleton: The body of sponges consists of calcareous / siliceous spicules and proteinaceous ‘spongin fibres’.
Reproduction: Sponges reproduce asexually as well as sexually. Asexual reproduction takes place by fragmentation and gemmule formation. Sexual reproduction is by formation of gametes. Fertilization is internal and development is indirect through larval stage.
Sponges have great power of regeneration.
e.g. Scypha, Euspongia (Bath sponge), Euplectella (Venus’ flower basket).

Characteristics of members belonging to phylum Cnidaria:

Habitat: They are aquatic, mostly marine and few of them are fresh – water forms.
Forms: They are sessile or free swimming.
Cnidoblasts: Presence of cnidoblasts or stinging cells are present on the tentacles for anchorage, offence and defence.
Body Symmetry: They have radially symmetrical body.
Germ layer: They are diploblastic.
Body cavity: Cnidarians have a central cavity called coelenteron or gastrovascular cavity, which helps in digestion and circulation. They have blind-sac body plan i.e., single pore opening to the exterior in the digestive system.
Body form: Members of this phylum exhibit two body forms. The cylindrical form, known as polyp e.g. Hydra and the umbrella – like form (.Aurelia – jelly fish) is known as medusa.
Digestion: They have extracellular and intracellular digestion.
Reproduction: Cnidarians reproduce asexually and sexually.

Asexual reproduction takes place by budding and regeneration. Sexual reproduction takes place gamete formation. They exhibit metagenesis i.e. alternation of polypoid generation with medusoid generation. Polyps produce medusae asexually and medusae produce polyps sexually, e.g. Obelia
e.g. Hydra, Aurelia (Jellyfish), Physalia (Portuguese man-of-war), Adamsia (Sea anemone), Diploria (Brain coral), Gorgonia (sea fan).

The members of this phylum are commonly known as comb jellies and sea walnuts. They are also known as acnidarians as they lack cnidoblasts. The phylum is considered as one of the minor phyla as it is represented by very few members.

Salient features of phylum Ctenophora:

Habitat: They are exclusively marine.
Forms: They are free swimming animals.
Germ layers: Members of this phylum are diploblastic.
Body Symmetry: They are radially symmetrical.
Body plan: The animals of this phylum show blind-sac body plan.
Body organization: They show tissue level organization.
Locomotion: It is earned out by eight rows of ciliated comb plates.
Bioluminescence: It is the characteristic feature of the members of this phylum.
Digestion: It is extracellular and intracellular.
Reproduction: Reproduction is sexual with indirect development.
Colloblasts: These sticky cells are used to capture prey, e.g. Pleurobrachia, Ctenoplana

11th Biology Digest Chapter 4 Kingdom Animalia Intext Questions and Answers

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 29)

(i) What is the basis for classification?
Answer:
Grades of organization, body symmetry, body cavity, germ layers and segmentation form the basis for classification.

(ii) Who proposed Five kingdom classification system?
Answer:
Robert Whittaker proposed the five kingdom system of classification.

(iii) What is the need and importance of classification?
Answer:
Need and importance for classification:
a. Classification facilitates the identification of animals with great accuracy.
b. The study of animals becomes convenient.
c. It helps in understanding the relationship of animals with other living organisms.
d. It helps to understand the habitat of each animal along with its role in nature.
e. By studying few animals from a group, we can gain a better understanding about the entire group.
f. It helps in understanding different adaptations shown by animals.
g. It gives an idea about evolution of animals.

Observe and discuss. (Textbook Page No. 29)

Discuss the criteria of classification.
Answer:
1. The given diagrams represents the number of germ layers and body symmetry used as criteria for animal classification.
2. Number of germ layers:
(a) When an organism shows only two germ layers, they are called diploblastic animals. In this case, the outer ectoderm is separated from the inner endoderm by a non-living substance called mesoglea.
(b) When an organism shows three germinal layers, they are called triploblastic animals. The three layers are namely – outer ectoderm, middle mesoderm and inner endoderm.
3. Body symmetry:
Body symmetry implies to the similarity in shape, size and number of parts on the opposite sides of a median line when body is divided into two halves by an imaginary line along different plane. Animals may be asymmetrical, radially symmetrical or bilaterally symmetrical.
(a) Asymmetrical animals:
An animal is said to be asymmetrical when its body cannot be divided into two identical halves in any plane.
(b) Radially symmetrical animals:
In certain animals, body can be cut or divided into two similar halves in a number of planes wherein, all the cuts (planes) pass through the centre. This type of symmetry is called radial symmetry.
(c) Bilaterally symmetrical animals:
In this type, the body of the animal can be bisected or divided in two equal or identical halves by a single median or vertical plane.

Internet my friend. (Textbook Page No. 30)

Which are the larval stages of Porifera.
Answer:
Larval stages of Porifera:
Parenchymula – Flagellate larvae of calcinean sponges
Amphiblastula – Free swimming larval stage of Sycon and many other calcareous sponges. Rhagon— Larval stage which give rise to the leuconoid condition in demospongiae.
[Students are expected to find more information about the larval stages of Porifera on internet.]

Find out. (Textbook Page No. 31)

Information about coral reefs and sea fan.
Answer:
Coral reefs:

A coral reef is an underwater ecosystem characterized by reef building corals.
Coral reefs constitute 25% of all marine species on the planet.
They belong to phylum Cnidaria.
There are three main types of coral reefs – fringing, barrier and atoll. Coral reefs provide ecosystem services for tourism, fisheries and shoreline protection.
They cannot survive in high temperatures, thus due to climate change there is a sharp decline in their population.

Sea fan or Gorgonia:

1. It is a soft coral composed of numerous polyps – cylindrical, sessile (attached) forms that grow together in a flat, fan-like pattern.
2. It belongs to phylum Cnidaria.
3. It does not produce calcium carbonate skeletons.
[Students can find out more information about coral reefs and sea fan using internet ]

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 32)

(i) State the parasitic adaptations in Liver fluke and Ascaris.
Answer:
Parasitic adaptations in Liver fluke:
a. Presence of hooks and suckers
b. Body covered with cuticle
c. Lacks digestive system
d. They are hermaphrodites

Parasitic adaptations in Ascaris:
a. Presence of muscular pharynx for sucking the food.
b. Body covered by tough, thick and resistant cuticle.
c. Secretes enzymes against the enzymes secreted by the host.
d. Respiration is anaerobic.
e. Reproductive system is highly developed.

(ii) Give example of free living platyhelminth.
Answer:
Planaria

Find out. (Textbook Page No. 33)

What are the merits and demerits of hermaphroditism?
Answer:
Hermaphroditism is the condition in which an organism possesses reproductive organs of both the sexes.

Merits of hermaphroditism:
a. Assured fertilization which reduces the risk of a species to become extinct due to unavailability of mating partner.
b. Energy required for searching out mating partner is conserved.
c. Frequency of mating is maximized.

Demerits of hermaphroditism:
a. More energy is required to maintain both the reproductive systems.
b. Limited gene diversity.
[Source: http://floydbiology. blogspot. com/2012/06/httpmattc-thinks. html]
[Students are expected to find more information using the internet.]

Why are leeches used in Ayurveda?
Answer:
a. Leeches are used in blood purification therapy to treat many diseases as they suck impure blood from the affected site of the patient’s body.
b. The anticoagulant – hirudin present in saliva of leech, inhibits the coagulation of blood and makes blood thinner. This dissolves the clots found in vessels and facilitates the blood supply.

What is the role of earthworms in agriculture? What is vermicompost?
Answer:
Role of earthworms in agriculture:
a. Earthworms loosen the soil by burrowing deep into it, thus they help to aerate the soil.
b. This continuous digging of soil also helps the water to reach the roots quickly.
c. Earthworms can decompose the organic matter from the soil and convert it into rich manure.
d. This helps in increasing the fertility of soil which ultimately increases the crop production.
e. Earthworm castings are rich in nutrients which act as natural fertilizer.
Vermicompost:
Vermicompost is the product of vermicomposting. It is organic manure produced as vermicast by earthworm feeding on biological waste material and plant residues.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 34)

(i) Explain the term metameric segmentation.
Answer:
In some animals, body consists of many segments arranged along the length of the body. When the external segmentation coincides with the internal segmentation, it is called as metameric segmentation and the phenomenon is called metamerism.

(ii) Give characteristics of Arthropoda.
Answer:
Arthropoda (Arthros: Joint, Podos: leg): Arthropoda forms the largest phylum of kingdom Animalia. Characteristics of Arthropoda:
a. Habitat: Arthropods are omnipresent.
b. Forms: Solitary or colonial, most of them are free-living. Barnacles are sedentary. Few are parasitic and sanguivorous, (e.g. Female mosquito, bed bug.)
c. Body symmetry: Body is bilaterally symmetrical.
d. Germ layers: They are triploblastic.
e. Body cavity: Arthropods are eucoelomates.
f. Body plan: They show tube within tube body plan.
g. Level of body organization: They show organ system level of organization.
h. Special features: The members of this phylum have jointed appendages. Hence, they are known as arthropods. Some insects like honey bee, ants, termites, etc. exhibit polymorphism.
i. Exoskeleton: Body is covered by a tough, non – living chitinous exoskeleton. As the exoskeleton does not allow body growth, arthropods shed off their exoskeleton periodically during growth. This process is called moulting or ecdysis.
j. Body division: Body is divided into head, thorax and abdomen.
k. Segmentation: Body shows metameric segmentation.
l. Digestion: Digestive system is complete and divided into foregut, midgut and hindgut.
m. Circulation: Circulatory system is of open type wherein, blood flows through body cavity called haemocoel.
n. Respiration: Respiration occurs through respiratory organs like gills, trachea, book lungs or book
gills.
o. Excretion: Excretion takes place by green glands, Malpighian tubules or coxal glands.
p. Nervous system: Nervous system consists of nerve ring and double, ventral ganglionated nerve cord.
q. Sense organs:Arthropods have well developed sense organs in the form of antennae, simple or compound eye and various receptors.
r. Sexual reproduction: Sexes are generally separate in arthropods with distinct sexual dimorphism.
s. Significance:
Beneficial arthropods: Some arthropods are of economic importance. For example, Honey bees (Apis) are important for their honey and wax, silk worms for the production of silk. Lobsters, prawns, crabs are edible. Harmful arthropods: Some arthropods are harmful and act as vectors to spread various diseases, e.g., Mosquitoes. Locusta (locust) is a gregarious pest. Limulus (King crab) is a living fossil.
Other examples: Cockroach (Periplaneta), butterfly, scorpion (Hottentotta) and millipede (Archispirostreptus) prawn.

(iii) Enlist the harmful Arthropods.
Answer:
Significance:
Beneficial arthropods: Some arthropods are of economic importance. For example, Honey bees (Apis) are important for their honey and wax, silkworms for the production of silk. Lobsters, prawns, crabs are edible. Harmful arthropods: Some arthropods are harmful and act as vectors to spread various diseases, e.g., Mosquitoes. Locusta (locust) is a gregarious pest. Limulus (King crab) is a living fossil.
Other examples: Cockroach (Periplaneta), butterfly, scorpion (Hottentotta) and millipede (Archispirostreptus) prawn.

Find out. (Textbook Page No. 34)

(i) Why is phylum Arthropoda considered as most successful phylum?
Answer:
Phylum Arthropoda is considered as most successful phylum because of the following reasons:
a. Phylum Arthropoda is the largest phylum of kingdom Animalia. It includes various forms like lobsters, prawns, crabs, insects, millipedes, locust, honeybees, etc.
b. They are omnipresent (present everywhere). Arthropods show great variety of adaptations as their habitat varies from terrestrial to aquatic habitat.
c. Several others factors also contribute to the success of the phylum which includes:
1. The exoskeleton of arthropods is made up of tough chitinous exoskeleton. This enables them to survive on lands in almost all environment and is a great defense against predators.
2. They possess jointed appendages which allow complex movements.
3. They exhibit moulting or eedysis.
4. They have metamerically segmented body helping in movement around diverse environments.

(ii) What do we mean by parthenogenesis?
Answer:
Development of an egg into a complete individual without fertilization is known parthenogenesis. It is found in many non-vertebrates such as bees, rotifers and even some lizards and birds (turkey).

(iii) What do we mean by living fossil?
Answer:
A member of a living animal or plant species that is almost identical to species known from the fossil record (not the recent fossil record), i.e. they have changed very little over a long period.
[Source:https://www. encyclopedia, com/earth-and-environment/ecology-and- environmentalism/environmental-studies/living-fossil]

(iv) How the bees produce honey?
Answer:
a. Bees produce honey using the nectar of flowering plants. A bee sucks the nectar and stores it in a honey sac until it returns to the hive.
b. The nectar is then transferred to worker bees in the hive who suck the nectar from the honey sac through their proboscis. This nectar contains 70% water and 20% honey. Honeybees get rid of excess water by swallowing and regurgitating the nectar again and again. They also fan their wings over filled cells of honeycomb.

When most of the water has evaporated from the honeycomb, the bee seals the comb with a secretion of liquid from its abdomen which eventually hardens into beeswax. This is how the honey bees use nectar to produce a thick, sticky and sweet honey.

(v) What will happen if arthropods do not moult?
Answer:
a. Moulting or eedysis is a periodic shedding of the outer cuticle layer of body in arthropods.
b. The outer layer of body of arthropods is formed of tough, non-living chitinous substance.
c. If arthropods do not moult, they cannot grow and mature into adult forms

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 34)

Why do Molluscs have shell?
Answer:
Molluscs are soft-bodied animals. Thus, the calcareous shell provides supports and protects the organisms from predators.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 36)

Give salient features of phylum Echinodermata.
Answer:
Salient features of phylum Echinodermata (Echinus – spines, derma – skin)

Habitat: These are exclusively marine.
Forms: Members of this phylum are solitary, sedentary or free-living and gregarious, benthic.
Body symmetry: These animals are radially symmetrical with pentamerous symmetry.
Shape: Members of Echinodermata are spherical, elongated or star-shaped.
Body: The endoskeleton is made up of calcareous ossicles. Spines are formed on the body. Hence, they are known as echinoderms. The body has two sides oral and aboral and lacks definite divisions. Mouth is ventrally present on oral surface and anus on aboral surface.
Water vascular system: Presence of water vascular system is the peculiar character of echinoderms. The madrepOrite is the opening of water vascular system through which water enters. Water vascular system is useful in locomotion, food capturing, respiration.
Digestion: Digestive system is complete.
Respiration: Peristomial gills, papillae, respiratory tree, etc. are used for respiration.
Circulatory and excretory systems: Absent in echinoderms.
Nervous system: Nervous system is simple with a nerve ring around the mouth and radial nerves in arms.
Reproduction and development: Sexes are separate (sometimes bisexual). Fertilization is external.
Development is indirect, i.e. through larval stages. They show high power of regeneration.

e.g. Sea lily (Antedon), Sea star (Asterias), Sea cucumber (Cucumaria), Brittle star (Ophiothrix), Sea urchin (Echinus).

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 36)

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 36)
Answer:
1. Hemiehordata was earlier considered as sub phylum of Chordata because the buccal diverticulum was considered as notochord. It is now placed as a separate phylum under Non-Chordata.
2. It possesses certain characteristics of both Chordates and Non-chordates.
3. Absence of notochord worm-like body, heart located on the dorsal side are the Non-chordate like characteristics seen in Hemiehordata.
4. Presence of nerve chord, pharyngeal gill slits are some of the Chordate-like characters seen in Hemiehordata. Hence, Hemiehordata is considered as a connecting link between Non-chordata and Chordata.

Find out. (Textbook Page No. 36)

Why Balanoglossus is considered as connecting link between Non-chordates and chordates?
Answer:
Balanoglossus belongs to phylum Hemiehordata. For Explanation:

Hemiehordata was earlier considered as sub phylum of Chordata because the buccal diverticulum was considered as notochord. It is now placed as a separate phylum under Non-Chordata.
It possesses certain characteristics of both Chordates and Non-chordates.
Absence of notochord worm-like body, heart located on the dorsal side are the Non-chordate like characteristics seen in Hemiehordata.
Presence of nerve chord, pharyngeal gill slits are some of the Chordate-like characters seen in Hemiehordata. Hence, Hemiehordata is considered as a connecting link between Non-chordata and Chordata.

Observe and discuss. (Textbook Page No. 36)

Compare and contrast between Non-Chordates and Chordates.

Answer:

Non-chordates	enoraates
1. Notochord is absent.	Notochord present at least in the early embryonic life.
2. Nerve cord is ventral, paired and ganglionated.	Nerve cord is single, dorsal and non-ganglionated.
3. The heart, if present is dorsal.	The heart is ventral in position.
4. Pharyngeal gill slits are absent.	Pharyngeal gill slits are present at least in embryonic stage.
5. Post-anal tail is absent.	Post-anal tail is present at least in embryonic stage.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 37)

Herdmania is called a Chordate. Explain.
Answer:
1. Herdmania belongs to phylum Urochordata.
2. It is called a chordate as it shows the following features:
a. Presence of notochord at least in early embryonic life. (In Herdmania, notochord is present in the tail of the larval forms).
b. Presence of hollow, dorsal nerve chord, running throughout the length of the body.
c. Presence of pharyngeal gill slits.
d. Presence of post-anal tail.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 37)

Give characteristics of Petromyzon. Comment on its mode of nutrition.
Answer:
Characteristic features of class Cyclostomata (Cyclos: Circular, stoma-mouth) Lat/Grk

Members of class Cyclostomata are jaw-less and eel like organisms.
Their skin is devoid of scales, soft and smooth, containing unicellular mucus glands.
Median fms are present but paired fins are absent.
They are ectoparasites on fishes.
They have sucking circular mouth, without jaws.
Cranium and vertebral column are made up of cartilage.
Their digestive system lacks stomach.
Respiration occurs by 6 – 15 pairs of gill slits. Gills slits are without operculum.
Heart is two chambered with one auricle and one ventricle.
Gonad is single, large and without gonoduct.
Fertilization is external. They are anadromous as they migrate for spawning to fresh – water from marine habitat.
After spawning, they die within few days. Larvae metamorphosize and migrate to ocean.
e.g Petromyzon (Lamprey), Myxine (Hagfish).

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 38)

(i) What is the lateral line system?
Answer:
a. Lateral line system is the system with mechanoreceptors called neuromasts, for the detection of watei current.
b. These neuromasts are arranged in an interconnected network along the head and body.
c. Lateral line system also known as lateralis system.

(ii) Why Piscian heart is called a venous heart?
Answer:
a. Pisces have two-chambered heart. They have single and closed circulation.
b. Heart of Pisces receives blood only from veins and thus always shows presence of deoxygenated blood which it pumps directly to the gills for oxygenation.
Thus, the heart of Pisces is called a venous heart.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 40)

Amphibians do not have exoskeleton. Give reason.
Answer:
1. Amphibians live in both water and on land.
2. They perform cutaneous respiration (i. e. gaseous exchange across the skin or outer integument.) under water and when on land, they respire through lungs.
Thus, to facilitate cutaneous respiration, amphibians do not have exoskeleton.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 40)

Why are amphibians and reptilians called poikilotherms?
Answer:
Amphibians and reptilians are called poikilotherms as they cannot maintain a constant body temperature. Their body temperature changes according to the change in surrounding temperature.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 41)

Give adaptations in Aves for flying.
Answer:

In birds, the forelimbs are modified into wings for flying.
They possess stream-lined body to reduce resistance during flight.
Bones are hollow or pneumatic to reduce body weight.
In order to reduce body weight, urinary bladder is absent. Also, females possess only left ovary and oviduct.
Body is covered by feathers to facilitate flying.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 41)

(i) Aves and mammals are homeotherms. Give reason.
Answer:
a. Aves and mammals can generate heat to maintain their body temperature.
b. They keep their body temperature constant, irrespective of fluctuations in environmental temperature. Thus, Aves and mammals are homeotherms.

(ii) How mammals differ from other groups of animals?
Answer:
Features of class Mammalia (mammae: breasts, nipple):

Special feature: Presence of mammary glands (milk-producing glands) for the nourishment of young ones. Mammary glands are modified sweat glands.
Habitat: Mammals are omnipresent (present everywhere). These are mostly terrestrial, some are aquatic and few are aerial and arboreal (living on trees).
Locomotion: Limbs are the organs of locomotion and are modified for walking, climbing, burrowing, swimming, etc.
Body division: Body is differentiated into head, neck, trunk and tail. They have external ear (pinna).
Body temperature: Mammals are homeotherms or warm-blooded animals.
Exoskeleton: It is in the form of hair, fur, nails, hooves, horns, etc.
Skin: Skin is glandular and has sweat glands and sebaceous (oil) glands.
Mouth cavity: Mammals show heterodont dentition (various types of teeth like incisors, canines, premolars and molars).
Circulation: Heart is ventral in position, four chambered with two auricles and two ventricles. RBCs are biconcave and enucleated (except camel). Blood is red in colour.
Respiration: Respiration takes place by lungs.
Nervous system: Brain is highly developed. Cerebrum shows a transverse band called corpus callosum.
Reproduction and development: Only few mammals are oviparous, e.g. Duck billed platypus. Some have pouches for development of immature young ones. These are called marsupials, e.g. Kangaroo. Most of the mammals are placental and viviparous.

Do yourself. (Textbook Page No. 41)

Observe different animals in your surrounding, write detailed classification and write down the characteristics of animals in following format.
Answer:

11th Std Biology Questions And Answers: