Class 10 – Page 13 – Maharashtra Board Solutions

Environmental management Class 10 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

January 6, 2025January 5, 2025 by Bhagya

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 4 Environmental management Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 10 Science Part 2 Chapter 3 Environmental management Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Class 10 Science Part 2 Chapter 3 Environmental managementQuestion Answer Maharashtra Board

Question 1.
Reorganize the following food chain. Describe the ecosystem to which it belongs.
Grasshopper – Snake – Paddy field – Eagle – Frog.
Answer:

Correct food chain: Paddy field → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Eagle.
Such food chain is seen in the terrestrial ecosystem. There are many biotic factors in the terrestrial ecosystem, such as insects, birds, mammals etc.
The above example mentions about paddy field, so it must be in vicinity of coastal lands. There is water logging in the paddy fields. Therefore, it offers a habitat to the frogs.
In the above example, paddy fields are producers in the ecosystem. The primary consumer is grasshopper. Secondary consumer is frog, tertiary consumer is snake and the apex consumer is eagle. On every trophic level the bacteria, fungi and some scavenging worms can act as the decomposers.
In this ecosystem. the solar energy is transferred from the paddy crops to eagle in a step wise food
chain.

Question 2.
Explain the statement – ‘We have got this Earth planet on lease from our future generations and not as an ancestral property from our ancestors.’
Answer:

The earth was inhabited by older generations before us. We have replaced them.
But during their life time, they have created hazardous impact on the earth. The industrialization, the quest for more and more natural resources, wars fought, the construction activities such as dams, roads and bridges, extensive deforestation, etc. were their thoughtless activities.
All these activities were for development of mankind. But most of them have destroyed the delicate balance between the producers and different levels of consumers.
Due to ever increasing population of human beings there is shortage of food, clothing and shelter. To procure these basic needs, we have exploited many natural resources causing destruction of the earth’s natural ecosystem.
Now it is our turn to protect the earth as on the same planet the next generations have to survive. We have to hand over the ecosystems of the earth which are in perfect balance to the new generations.
The future generations need a good quality of air, water and land along with all other living organisms.
Due to problems like climate change, global warming, pollution, droughts, etc. the environment is impacted, thus in order to keep sustainability of earth, we have to remember that the earth has not been obtained only as ancestral property but we have to save it for future generations.

Question 3.
Write short notes.
a. Environmental conservation.
Answer:
Due to natural and man-made causes, there are many environmental problems on the earth. These problems affect the existence of various living organisms. In order to save these organisms and maintain the environmental balance, there is need for environmental conservation. If this is not done then there will not be any quality of life for the resident humans. For environmental conservation, the Government has formulated acts and rules. UN has established UNEP for the conservation programs.

The people’s participation in the conservation movement is essential. From school age, the environmental values are inculcated in the young minds. Conservation of environment is the social responsibility of everyone. Judicial use of natural resources conservation also way of environmental conservation.

b. Chipko Movement of Bishnoi.
Answer:
Chipko Movement of Bishnoi or Bishnoi Andolan:
Khejarli or Khejadli is a village in Rajasthan, where Bishnoi community is located. The name of the town is derived from Khejri trees.

The first event of Chipko Movement took place in Khejadli village in 1730 AD. In this village 363 Bishnois, led by Amrita Devi sacrificed their lives for protecting the trees of Khejri trees, which trees are considered as sacred by Bishnoi.

Amrita Devi said, “if a tree is saved even at the cost of one’s head, it’s worth it”. She was killed with the axes that were brought to chop off the trees. The three young daughters Asu, Ratna and Bhagubai also sacrificed their lives for trees.

83 Bishnoi villages came together and villagers sacrificed their lives after hearing about Amrita Devi’s sacrifice. Three hundred and sixty-three Bishnois were killed as they opposed the king. After realizing the mistake, the king ordered stoppage of the felling of trees. Honouring the courage of the Bishnoi community, the ruler of Jodhpur, Maharaja Abhay Singh, apologized. He issued a royal decree to protect trees and wild life.

Chipko movement of 20th century in Uttar Pradesh also followed the same pattern of embracing the trees and saving them from cutting.

c. Biodiversity.
Answer:
Biodiversity means the diverse life forms that inhabit any area. Biodiversity is seen due to variety of life forms and different ecosystems that lodge these organisms. In nature there is biodiversity on the three different levels, viz. genetic diversity, species diversity and ecosystem diversity. This means that there is diversity in the individuals belonging to the same specips due to genetic reasons, there is diversity among the different species of organisms and there is also a diversity in the ecosystems that are present in any region.

Due to development of mankind, the biodiversity is threatened. There are special efforts taken to restore the lost and threatened biodiversity. Some of these are establishing sanctuaries, National Parks, biodiversity hotspots and reserves etc. Certain endangered species are protected by carrying out conservation projects.

d. Sacred Groves.
Answer:
Sacred grove is the green patch of the forest which is conserved by local people in the name of God. It does not belong to forest department. It is like a sanctuary that is conserved by the common people and tribals in the area. It is rich in the biodiversity.

It is conserved as there is a faith that God or deity reside in the sacred grove. Hence in local language, they are known as Deorai. Due to this reason, people do not fell the trees. Also hunting of any wild life is not done here. More than 13000 sacred groves have been reported in India. Most of these are in Western Ghats in Maharashtra, Karnataka and Kerala. Also, in remaining parts of India sacred groves are reported. Role of sacred grove is tremendous in conserving the biodiversity.

e. Disaster and its management.
Answer:

To save human life from disasters. To help them for moving away from the place of disasters by rapid action.
To supply essential commodities to the affected people. This helps to reduce the gravity of disaster. People are given grains, water and clothes and other basic necessities under this objective.
To bring back the conditions of affected people to normalcy.
To rehabilitate the affected and displaced victims.
To think and execute the protective measures in order to develop capability to face the disasters in
future.

Question 4.
How will you justify that overcoming the pollution is a powerful way of environmental management?
(OR)
“Solving the problem of pollution is an effective way of environmental management.” Justify the statement.
Answer:
1. Pollution is created only due to human activities. Air, water, soil, noise, radiation, thermal, light, plastic are different types of pollution.
2. All types of pollution affect environment and particularly threatening the survival of living organisms.
3. Pollution must be controlled in order to have good quality of the environment. E.g. When plastic is thrown anywhere, it causes pollution of the land, it clogs the rain water drains, it affects feeding of the animals. Plastic pollution can be completely stopped by us through proper management of plastic waste. By recycling or reusing, we can overcome the plastic pollution. This would be a powerful way of environmental management.
4. Similarly, when we reduce pollution of different types, we automatically help to regain the environmental health.

Question 5.
Which projects will you run in relation to environmental conservatioh? How?
(OR)
Write six strategies implemented by you for conservation of the environment.
Answer:
Initially, assessment of the environmental problems will be done. The nature and severity of these problems will be understood by detailed study of the same. Then the projects can be undertaken to combat these problems.

1. Tree plantation is one such easier project that can be undertaken to conserve environment. The further nurturing of the tree will also be our responsibility. While selecting the tree, the local and sturdy varieties will be selected. Such trees can survive in polluted environment too and even under the pressure of urbanization.

2. Solid waste management is another very important project that should be undertaken by every society, colony or school. Segregation of waste into dry and wet types and then its proper disposal will be taught to all the people in the neighbouring area.

3. To ban the plastic and make people aware about harmful effects of plastic is another very significant project.

4. Fossil fuels are non-renewable and polluting. Therefore, their use should be reduced as far as possible. Therefore, using bicycle, or walking down for shorter distances or using public transport systems are the better alternatives. The awareness drive about these facts will be taken up as a project.

5. To take care of stray animals, provide shelter, feeding endangered birds like sparrows and allowing them to survive with our support is also one of the essential act to conserve other species.

6. Attempts will be made for bringing awareness among minds of everyone. Such small acts can bring about major shift in the attitude of the people. This will certainly help in the environmental conservation.

Question 6.
Answer the following:
a. Write the factors affecting environment.
Answer:

The biotic and abiotic- factors affect the environment. Among abiotic factors, the physical and chemical factors can alter the conditions of the environment.
Abiotic factors are either natural or man-made.
The various interrelationships between different living organisms can also affect environment.
The natural disasters such as earthquake, forest fires, cyclones, cloud bursting, drought, etc. change the environment.
The human activities such as deforestation, urbanisation, constructions etc. cause permanent damage to the ecosystems. Due to man-made impact, there can be large scale changes in the environment.

b. Human beings have important place in environment.
Answer:

Man came last on the earth during evolution of animals. But due to his intelligence, imagination, critical thinking and memory, he made progress in all fields.
By virtue of these qualities he became the supreme.
All the natural resources on the earth were very rapidly exploited by man.
Under the pretext of technology and. development he made degradation of almost all¬natural ecosystems.
He never obeys the rules of nature.
Phenomena like pollution, urbanization, industrialization and deforestation are exclusively his creations.
Hunting and poaching other animals were his contribution to the extinction of many other animals.
Except man no other organism on the earth can change the ecosystems in such a drastic way. Therefore, it is rightly said that human beings have important place in environment.

c. Write the types and examples of biodiversity.
Answer:
Biodiversity is documented on the following three levels, viz. genetic diversity, species diversity and ecosystem diversity.
1. Genetic Diversity: Diversity seen among the organisms of same species due to genetic differences is called genetic diversity. E.g. The individual human beings are different from each other. No two animals or plants are exactly alike.

2. Species Diversity: The difference between the different species is the species diversity, e.g. All the species of plants, animals and microbes which are seen in any natural environment.

3. Ecosystem Diversity: In one region there may be different ecosystems, such diversity in the ecosystems is called ecosystem diversity. Ecosystems are natural or artificial. Every region shows different types of ecosystems such as aquatic, terrestrial, desert or forest ecosystems. Each ecosystem has its own habitats with resident flora and fauna.

d. How the biodiversity can be conserved?
Answer:
Biodiversity can be conserved by the following ways:

Protection of the rare species of plants and animals.
Creating habitats for the animals and plants by establishing National Parkland Sanctuaries.
Declaration of bioreserves, the areas which are protected through conservation.
Conservation projects for protecting special species.
Conservation of all flora and fauna.
Strict observance of the acts and rules.
Use of traditional knowledge and maintaining record of traditional knowledge.

e. What do we learn from the story of Jadav Molai Payeng? (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Answer:
Jadav Molai Payeng is a common man who was just a simple forest worker. But he has conscience about plants and tree plantations. He single-handedly planted thousands of trees. He converted a barren patch of land into forest which is spread over 1360 acres. For these plantations he continuously worked.

He has shown that a single determined person, can establish a new forest! We understand the values of
hard work, sincerity and devotion to the nature through the story of Jadav Molai Payeng. Even a common man can contribute a lot for the conservation and protection of the environment by learning the story of Payeng.

f. Write the names of biodiversity hot spots.
Answer:

In entire world, 34 highly sensitive biodiversity spots are reported.
These hotspots occupied 15.7% area of the Earth.
However, currently about 86% of the sensitive areas are already destroyed.
Now about 2.3% area of the Earth still has such sensitive biodiversity spots.
There are 1,50,000 plant species which are about 50% of the species in the world.
In India, out of 135 species of animals, 85 species are found in the jungles of eastern region.
There are about 1,500 endemic plant species in Western Ghats.
About 50,000 plants species out of the total plants in the world are said to be endemic.

g. Which are the reasons for endangering the many species of plants and animals? How can we save those diversity?
Answer:

The animals and plants species are endangered majorly due to man-made causes.
Some natural disasters like earthquakes, climate change, forest fires, drought and cyclones also affect the living organisms due to lack of food and water.
In man-made causes, hunting and poaching are the main reasons.
Also animal-human conflicts occur due to invasion of human settlements into the habitats of wild animals.
Construction of dams, roads, and colonies destroy the habitats of wild life.
Industrialization, urbanization and population explosion of humans are putting severe pressure on all the existing biodiversity.
In order to save and protect the biodiversity, many scientists and naturalists come together. A stretch of land is protected by declaring it as the sanctuary or a national park by the Government. Even the locals can protect it as a sacred grove.
Various acts and rules have been formulated to protect the organisms. The violators of such rules are punished accordingly.

Question 7.
What are the meanings of the following symbols? Write your role accordingly. (July ’19; Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
(OR)
What do these symbols indicate? Explain your opinion about those symbols.

Answer:
1. The first symbol is for giving the message, “Reduce, reuse and recycle”. This is important mantra for the utilization of natural resources.
The second symbol gives the message about ‘Save water’.
The third symbol advocates the use of solar energy.

2. These symbols inculcate the importance of being eco-friendly. The first symbol is essential to maintain the natural resources by reusing and recycling them. As far as possible, one should reduce the excessive use of resources by preventing consumerism.

3. Water problems persist in many major cities and villages. In villages it results in drought like conditions. It also reflects into loss of agricultural produce. Therefore, the message about saving water or to make judicious use of water should be spread far and wide.

4. The solar energy is the renewable energy option which is very easily available in country like India. By using solar energy, we can replace the polluting and exhaustible fuels. Thereby, pollution will also be reduced.

Due to such symbols, important messages about environment conservation reach, us and we can change ourselves into more eeofriendly persons.

Project: (Do it your self)

Project 1.
Make a presentation on pollution of Gangci and Yamuna Rivers and effects of air pollution on Taimuhal.

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 36)

Question 1.
What is ecosystem? Which are its different components?
Answer:
In any environment, there are biotic and abiotic components. There are interactions among these components. All such interactions make an ecosystem.

The different components in the ecosystem are as follows:
Abiotic components : Air, water, soil, sunlight, temperature, humidity, etc.
Biotic components: All the types of living organisms, like bacteria, fungi, plants and animals.

Question 2.
Which are the types of consumers? What are the criteria for their classification?
Answer:
Primary consumers, secondary consumers, tertiary consumers or apex consumers are the different types of consumers. These types are according to the trophic level to which they belong.

Question 3.
What may be the relationship between lake and birds on tree?
Answer:
The birds on the tree depend on the aquatic organisms in the lake for their feeding. Birds stay on the trees which are in the vicinity of the lake, so that it is easier for them to capture fishes, frogs, etc. They must also be using the same lake water for drinking.

Question 4.
What is difference between food chain and food web?
Answer:
In every ecosystem, there are always interactions between producers, consumers and decomposers. This sequence of feeding interactions is called food chain. In every food chain there are links between four to five trophic levels constituting the producers, primary consumers, secondary consumers, tertiary consumers, etc. The links of food chain are in linear sequence. But food web is a complex network of many small food chains. In fact, food web is the collection of many small food chains. Thus, when many food chains are interwoven, they form food web.

Think and Answer! (Text Book Page No. 36)

Question 1.
Write the name and category of each of the component shown in picture.
Answer:
By utilizing the solar energy, the green plants perform photosynthesis. Thus, they are producers of the food chain. This food is consumed by the grasshopper. Thus, it is primary consumer. Frog is secondary consumer as its diet consists of insects like grasshopper. Snake is tertiary consumer as it feeds on frogs, while the hawk is apex consumer as it can kill the snake and feed on it. Last picture in the food chain is of fungi which are acting as decomposers. Few bacteria are shown in the picture, act on all the levels and bring about decomposition.

Question 2.
What is necessary to convert this picture into food web? Why?
Answer:
If this food chain has to be converted into a food web, there should be interactions between the different components. Any living organism can be prey to different predators. Moreover, a predator can also be a prey for other. Frog eats different insects. The same frog can be either eaten by snake or by hawk.

Use your brain power. (Text Book Page No. 40)

Question 1.
Why is it said that pollution control is important?
Answer:
The quantity of pollutants and severity of their effects on the ecosystem have to be taken into consideration constantly. The different methods of pollution control have to be used for checking the hazardous effects of pollution on the living organisms. Especially the impact of pollution on health of human beings is assessed from time to time.

The young children and senior citizens are affected to greater extent by the pollution. If the air and water required for the survival of the people is affected, then exercising the pollution control is to be done immediately. Thus, it is said that pollution control is important.

Enlist and discuss (Text Book Page No. 43)

Question 1.
Find the meaning of given symbols in relation to environment conservation. Make a list of other such symbols.
A.
Answer:
This symbol tells us to keep our wastes carefully. The garbage should not be strewn anywhere. But it should be properly managed. Waste if managed properly can be a wealth.
B.
Answer:
This symbol tells us to save electricity. If electricity is carefully used, we can save our natural resources. This message is given through this picture.
C.
Answer:
Use of bicycle means use of green energy. By riding on a bicycle we save on fuel and use our own muscular energy. It is the best eeofriendly, non polluting vehicle.

Observe and fill the information: (Text Book Page No. 8)

Question 1.
Observe the environment around you. Complete the following flow chart.

Answer:

Complete the Chart: (Text Book Page No. 39)

Question 1.
We have studied the air pollution, water pollution and soil pollution in detail in earlier classes. Based on that, complete the following chart.

Answer:

Complete the Chart: (Text Book Page No. 40)

Question 1.
Now a day, we are observing the environmental degradation everywhere. Complete the flow chart given besides with the help of environment.

Answer:

(Text Book Page No. 43)

Question 1.
Where are such sacred groves in Maharashtra? Make a list and visit with your teachers.
Answer:
Sacred groves: Sacred groves form an important landscape feature in the deforested hill ranges of the Western Ghats. The felling of timber and the killing of animals in sacred groves is not allowed by the locals. It is considered as taboo.

In Maharashtra, sacred groves are found in tribal as well as non-tribal areas. The sacred groves in the western part are called Devrai or Devrahati, which means the abode of the gods. In eastern parts it is called Devegudi by the madiya tribal people.

In Maharashtra 2820 Devrais have been documented. Maruti, Vaghoba, Vira, Bhiroba, Khandoba and Shirkai are some deities to which sacred groves are dedicated.

In the sacred groves, the most commonly found plant species are Portia tree, Casuarina, Silk cotton tree, Indian laurel, Indian Elm, Bead tree, Indian butter tree, Turmeric and Japanese ginger. In Maharashtra, sacred groves are maximum in district of Sindhudurg, (More than 1500 out of total 2820) followed by Ratnagiri, then Pune and in district of Satara.

Choose the correct alternative and write that alphabet against the sub-question number:

Question 1.
Paddy fields are frequently attacked by
(a) goats
(b) birds
(c) grasshoppers
(d) monkeys
Answer:
(c) grasshoppers

Question 2.
Basic functional unit to study the ecology is termed as ……………
(a) environment
(b) niche
(c) ecosystem
(d) food chain
Answer:
(c) ecosystem

Question 3.
As per ……….. trading of rare animals has been completely banned.
(a) clause 48A
(b) clause 49B
(c) clause 49A
(d) all the above
Answer:
(c) clause 49A

Question 4.
(4) The jungle in Kokilamukh of Jorhat district of Assam is well known as ………….
(a) Molai jungle
(b) Rhino jungle
(c) Rhino forest
(d) Payang jungle
Answer:
(a) Molai jungle

Question 5.
Maintaining record of ………. knowledge is very necessary.
(a) modern
(b) mythical
(c) vedic
(d) traditional
Answer:
(d) traditional

Question 6.
………… is world’s largest organization engaged in environmental activities.
(a) Greenpeace
(b) Hariyali
(c) B. N. H. S.
(d) I. I. T.
Answer:
(a) Greenpeace

Question 7.
……….. sanctuary of West Bengal is reserved for tigers.
(a) Gir
(b) Sunderban
(c) Molai
(d) Corbett
Answer:
(b) Sunderban

Question 8.
World Biodiversity Day is celebrated on ……… every year.
(a) 22nd April
(b) 5th June
(c) 16th September
(d) 22nd May
Answer:
(d) 22nd May

Question 9.
Out of the total plant species in the entire world, 50,000 are ……………
(a) extinct
(b) endangered
(c) endemic
(d) rare
Answer:
(c) endemic

Question 10.
Giant squirrel is an ………… species.
(a) indeterminate
(b) rare
(c) endemic
(d) endangered
Answer:
(a) indeterminate

Question 11.
In a food chain, autotrophic plants are present at the ……….. level. (March 2019)
(a) tertiary nutrition
(b) secondary nutrition
(c) producer
(d) apex
Answer:
(c) producer

Question 12.
……….. from Manas sanctuary in Assam is under threat. (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
(a) one horned rhino
(b) Lion
(c) Musk deer
(d) Giant squirrel/Shekru
Answer:
(a) one horned rhino

Write whether the following statements are true or false, giving suitable explanation for the same:

Question 1.
Only abiotic factors play very important role in the ecosystem.
Answer:
False. (Both abiotic and biotic factors play very important role in the ecosystem. Only abiotic factors will not decide the working of an ecosystem.)

Question 2.
Paddy fields are frequently attacked by frogs.
Answer:
False. (Paddy fields are frequently attacked by grasshoppers. Frogs feed on grasshoppers and control the population of these insects that cause destruction of the crops.)

Question 3.
Environmental pollution is necessary and acceptable change in the surrounding environment.
Answer:
False. (Environmental pollution is never acceptable. It is always harmful to the entire ecosystem and thus never necessary.)

Question 4.
X-rays and radiations from atomic energy plants are natural radiations.
Answer:
False. (X-rays are not present in natural radiations. Infra-red and ultra-violet rays are present in natural radiations.)

Question 5.
The person breaching the Environmental Conservation Act is entitled for either one year imprisonment or fine up to ₹ 5 lakh.
Answer:
False. (The person breaching the Environmental conservation Act is fined upto ₹ 1 lakh. He is also entitled to imprisonment for five years.)

Question 6.
Many people come together to establish arnew forest but a single person, if determined can destroy the entire forest!
Answer:
False. (When anything constructive has to be done even a single man can start such action. In case of ‘Molai jungle’, this statement holds true. But when destructive actions are done, many people come together and cause damage.)

Question 7.
There are clusters of thick forests only in Western Ghats of India.
Answer:
False. (Entire India is rich in biodiversity. Just not in Western Ghats but in entire India one can observe the clusters of thick forests and this is mainly due to suitable tropical climate.)

Question 8.
86 highly sensitive biodiversity spots are reported all over the world.
Answer:
False. (As per the latest information and available data, there are 34 highly sensitive biodiversity spots.)

Question 9.
Flow of nutrients in an ecosystem is unidirectional.
Answer:
False. (Flow of energy in an ecosystem is unidirectional. Flow of nutrients is cyclic.)

Match the columns:

Question 1.

Column I	Column II
(1) Physical, chemical and biological factors together form	(a) Biodiversity
(2) The science of interactions between biotic and abiotic factors	(b) Ecosystem
	(c) Ecology
	(d) Environment

Answer:
(1) Physical, chemical and biological factors together form – Environment.
(2) The science of interactions between biotic and abiotic factors – Ecology.

Question 2.

Column I	Column II
(1) Basic functional unit in the environment	(a) Biodiversity
(2) Different types of living organisms	(b) Ecosystem
	(c) Ecology
	(d) Environment

Answer:
(1) Basic functional unit in the environment – Ecosystem.
(2) Different types of living organisms – Biodiversity.

Question 3.

Rules/Act	Year
(1) Sound Pollution (Control and Prevention) Rule	(a) 1980
(2) Biomedical Waste (Management and Handling) Rule	(b) 2011
	(c) 1998
	(d) 2000

Answer:
(1) Sound Pollution (Control and Prevention) Rule – 2000.
(2) Biomedical Waste (Management and Handling) Rule – 1998.

Question 4.

Rules/Act	Year
(1) Forest Conservation Act	(a) 1980
(2) Environmental Conservation Act	(b) 1986
	(c) 2011
	(d) 2000

Answer:
(1) Forest Conservation Act – 1980.
(2) Environmental Conservation Act – 1986.

Question 5.

Species	Examples
(1) Endangered	(a) Red panda, Musk deer.
(2) Rare	(b) Tiger, Lion.
	(c) Lion tailed monkey, lesser florican.
	(d) Monkey, squirrel

Answer:
(1) Endangered Species – Lion tailed monkey, lesser florican.
(2) Rare Species – Red panda, Musk deer.

Question 6.

Species	Examples
(1) Vulnerable	(a) Giant squirrel (Shekhru)
(2) Indeterminate	(b) Red panda, Musk deer
	(c) Tiger, Lion
	(d) Lesser florican, sparrow

Answer:
(1) Vulnerable Species – Tiger, Lion.
(2) Indeterminate Species – Giant squirrel (Shekhru).

Find the odd one out:

Question 1.
Ash, Carbon dioxide, Lead, Asbestos
Answer:
Carbon dioxide. (All others are solid particulate pollutants.)

Question 2.
Manas sanctuary, Sunderbans sanctuary, The Western Ghats, Tadoba National Park
Answer:
Tadoba National Park. (All others are endangered heritage places of India.)

Question 3.
Lion tailed monkey, White rats, Musk deer, Tiger
Answer:
White rats. (All others are species that are threatened.)

Question 4.
Conservation, Regulation, Pollution, Prohibition
Answer:
Pollution. (All others are ways of environmental protection.)

Question 5.
IPCC, UNEP, IUCN, BNHS
Answer:
BNHS. (All others are international organizations. BNHS is Bombay Natural History Society.)

Find the correlation:

Question 1.
Rare species : Musk deer : : ………… : Lesser florican.
Answer:
Endangered species

Question 2.
Red panda : Rare species : : Giant Squirrel : …………
Answer:
Indeterminate species

Question 3.
Nitrogen, Oxygen : Gaseous cycle : : Soil and Rocks : …………
Answer:
Sedimentary cycle

Question 4.
Manas : One horned Rhino : : Gir : ………..
Answer:
Asiatic lion

Question 5.
Mumbai : Bombay Natural History Society : : TehriGarhwal : ………….
Answer:
Chipko centre.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
Answer the following questions:
If frog population in paddy field declines all of a sudden,
(a) What will be the effect on paddy crop?
Answer:
If the population of frog declines, then there will be rise in the population of grasshoppers. The paddy fields will hence be infested with insect pests.

(b) Number of which consumers will decline and which will increase?
Answer:
The food chain if altered, results in imbalance in the ecosystem. ‘Paddy → Grasshoppers → Frog → Snake’, this food chain is natural. When by any reason there is dec1ine in the number of frogs, thus secondary consumer will also decline. Due to this decline, snake which is at tertiary consumer level will also decline. Theprimary consumers i.e. grasshoppers will increase as there is now no check on their population. Due to increase in their population the paddy production will be reduced. Due to reduced number of snakes, rats and other rodents from neighbouring areas would also rise, which are also secondary consumers.

(c) Name the Indian states where paddy is cultivated on a large scale.
Answer:
West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Punjab, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Assam and Maharashtra.

Question 2.
What is radioactive pollution? What are its effects?
Answer:
(1) The radiations emitted either through the natural sources or through man-made sources cause radioactive pollution.
(2) The natural radiations is in the form of ultra violet and infrared radiations.
(3) Artificial or man-made radiations are X-rays and radiations from atomic energy plants.
(4) All radiations are highly hazardous for the living organisms. The impact of radiation is also for a very long time.
(5) It has brought about major accidental mishaps at Chernobyl, Windscale, qpd Three Miles Island. These disasters have affected thousands of people.
(6) Some other effects of radiations are as follows – (i) Due to higher radiations of X-rays, cancerous ulceration occurs, (ii) Radiations destroy the body tissues, (iii) Radiations cause mutations and thus genetic changes occur, (iv) There is adverse effect on the vision.

Question 3.
Give one word for “The forest conserved in the name of God.” (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Answer:
Deorai.

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
Certain scavenging caterpillars, termites and insects found in the dung are important.
Answer:

Scavenging caterpillars and insects are decomposers. They seem to be Worthless due to filthy surrounding in which they thrive.
But they carry out most important task of decomposition of complex organic substances into simple inorganic elements.
This recycling is possible only due to decomposers.
If they are not present, there will be huge accumulation of garbage. Therefore, these living organisms are important.

Question 2.
Destroying trees is to destroy everything.
Answer:

When a single huge tree is felled many living organisms which are dependent on it, are exterminated.
Many insects, fungi, birds, etc. lose their habitat.
Trees take up carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and release oxygen. These natural cycles are also hindered due to loss of trees.
Due to trees there is shade, cooler atmosphere and increase in the rainfall. When such trees are destroyed all the components in the ecosystem are destroyed too.

Question 3.
There is no definite information about indeterminate species.
Answer:

Indeterminate species do not have substantial information about them.
The organisms belonging to such species appear to be endangered due to their some behavioural habits.
They are shy and do not come in open so that they can be observed keenly.
For example, animals like Giant squirrel also do not provide such information.

Question 4.
Tigers from Sunderbans and Rhinos from Manas are under threat.
Answer:

Manas is in the area-of Assam where there are many dams and Indiscriminate use of water.
This area is also flood affected. Therefore, rhinos are under threat.
In Sunderbans, there are also problems such as deforestation, dams, excessive fishing, and dug out trenches.
All of these cause dangers to the tiger population.

Question 5.
There are clusters of thick forests in the Western Ghats of India.
Answer:

There are many sacred groves in the region of Western Ghats of India.
These forests are not conserved by Government Forest Departments but are cared for by the local people, in the name of God.
Due to such faith in the people, the forests are conserved like sanctuaries.
Such many clusters are in Western Ghats of Maharashtra.

Question 6.
We can see biodiversity on three levels.
Answer:

There is biodiversity in the living organisms belonging to the same genus.
This diversity is due to different heredity pattern. This is called genetic biodiversity.
The organisms occupying the same area and belonging to the same species also show diversity due to different species. This is species biodiversity.
The organisms occupying different ecosystems also show differences, which is called ecosystem biodiversity. Therefore, we observe biodiversity on three different levels.

Questions based on diagrams:

Question 1.
What is shown in the picture? Write name and trophic level of each component.

Answer:
In this picture, food chain having rive trophic levels is shown.
(1) Trophic level 1 = Producers : Green plant.
(2) Trophic level 2 = Primary consumer (Herbivore): Grasshopper.
(3) Trophic level 3 = Secondary consumer (Carnivore): Bird.
(4) Trophic level 4 = Tertiary consumer (Carnivore) : Snake.
(5) Trophic level 5 = Top or Apex consumer (Carnivore) : Owl.

Question 2.
Explain the meaning of following symbols A and B and C.
A.

Answer:
The symbol show types of green energy such as solar energy and wind energy. It also expresses that people
should use such sources of energy for their use.

B.

Answer:
This symbol is giving the message “Save water”. Sustainable use of water is necessary for our future.

C.

answer:
The symbols of WWF and BNHS are shown here. BNHS stands for Bombay Natural History Society. This institute works for the conservation and documentation of flora and fauna.

WWF means World Wild Life Fund. Also known as World Wide Life Fund. This International Institute is looking after the welfare of wildlife through different conservation projects. WWF symbol shows Panda while BNHS symbol has Giant Hornbill.

Question 3.
(a) Identify the following symbols and state their significance: (March 2019)

Answer:
(i) This symbol is giving the message “Save water”. Sustainable use of water is necessary for our future.
(ii) Use of bicycle means use of green energy. By riding on a bicycle we save on fuel and use our own muscular energy. It is the best ecofriendly, non polluting vehicle.

(b) How can biodiversity be conserved?
Answer:
Biodiversity can be conserved by the following ways:

Protection of the rare species of plants and animals.
Creating habitats for the animals and plants by establishing National Park and Sanctuaries.
Declaration of bio reserves, the areas which are protected through conservation.
Conservation projects for protecting special species.
Conservation of all flora and fauna.
Strict observance of the acts and rules.
Use of traditional knowledge and maintaining record of traditional knowledge.

Activity based questions:

Question 1.
Questions based on the charts.
Complete the flow chart: (July 2019)

Answer:

Question 2.
Collect more information about locations of these hotspots present in the world. (Textbook page no. 44)
Answer:
Students should collect this information.

Question 3.
Where are such sacred groves in Maharashtra? Make a list and visit with your teachers. (Textbook page no. 43)
Answer:
Sacred groves: Sacred groves form an important landscape feature in the deforested hill ranges of the Western Ghats. The felling of timber and the killing of animals in sacred groves is not allowed by the locals. It is considered as taboo.

In Maharashtra 2820 Devrais have been documented. Maruti, Vaghoba, Vira, Bhiroba, Khandoba and Shirkai are some deities to which sacred groves are dedicated.

Projects: (Do it your self)

Project 1.
Let’s Discuss: (Text Book Page No. 41)
Collect the information about Chipko Movement and discuss between two groups of your class about its importance in present situation.

Project 2.
Collect more information on the organization of Greenpeace. (Text Book Page No. 43)
Answer:
Students are expected to write this answer to this question.

Project 3.
There should be positive attitude of human being towards the environment for welfare of entire living world. For this purpose, following roles are important. You can be a conservator, organizer, guide, plant-friend, etc. Describe about the role you wish to perform and your plans for that role. (Text Book Page No. 42)

Project 4.
Survey the plants and animals in your area. Maintain a record about their characteristics. (Text Book Page No. 45)
Answer:
Students can conduct such surveys with the help of elders.

Project 5.
Internet is my friend! (Collect the information Textbook page no. 41)
(1) Sound Pollution (Control and Prevention) Rule, 2000.
(2) Biomedical Waste (Management and Handling) Rule, 1998.
(3) E-waste (Management and Handling) Rule, 2011.

10th Std Science Part 2 Questions And Answers:

Disaster Management Class 10 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

January 6, 2025January 5, 2025 by Bhagya

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 10 Disaster Management Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 10 Science Part 2 Chapter 10 Disaster Management Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Class 10 Science Part 2 Chapter 10 Disaster Management Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Question 1.
Complete the table.

Answer:

Question 2.
Write notes.
a. Disaster Management Authority.
Answer:
Disaster Management Authority is the body that works at the level of government from national level to village level. This work is basically about management of any disaster and tackling the problems of the affected people. At National level there is National Disaster Management Authority for which the Prime Minister is the chairman. For every state there is State Disaster Management Authority, where the chief minister of every state is the chairman. Under the state level, there are district level units where district collector is responsible for disaster management and implementation of rehabilitation schemes. Below district level authority there are Taluka and then Village Disaster Management Committees.

The Tahsildar is the chairman for Taluka level while the Sarpanch of the village is responsible for management of disasters at village level. Collector of each district helps in planning, coordinating and controlling the implementation of rehabilitation programme and also gives essential instructions and reviews the entire system.

b. Nature of disaster management.
Answer:
Disaster management involves either prevention of disasters (Pre-disaster management) or creating preparedness to face them (Post-disaster management). The action plans are prepared for managing disasters. This is done after studying the different aspects such as preventive measures, rehabilitation and reconstruction plans. The disasters are tackled by executing action plans in the following steps: Preparation, redemption, preparedness, action during actual disaster, response, resurgence and restoration. At every level there are other voluntary organizations and Government meteorological institutions for their help.

c. Mock drill.
Answer:

Mock drill is the practice to check whether there is preparedness for dealing with the sudden attack of disaster.
For this purpose, virtual or apparent situations that simulate the disaster are created.
The reaction time for any type of disaster is checked by such activity. In the presence of trained personnel, the execution of the rescue plans are observed.
People also understand their responsibilities at the time of actual disaster.
The experts also check execution of plan designed for disaster redressal.
By such mock drills, the efficacy of the system can be understood. In future, when actual calamity strikes, there is already preparation for disaster redressal. Therefore, mock drill is useful.

d. Disaster Management Act, 2005.
Answer:
Government of India has made Disaster Management Act in 2005. The affected people are given all necessary help as per this act. With the humanitarian view, people are rehabilitated and helped them to come back to normalcy after the disaster.

As per this Act, National Disaster Response Force has been established. This force consists of 12 divisions in entire India which are attached with Indian Army. The headquarter is located in Delhi, but the action is taken all over the country with the help of army. As per the Act, in Maharashtra National Disaster Response Force is in action through State Reserve Polioe Force. The personnel of this force are trained accordingly, and they take part in the rescue work during different disasters.

Question 3.
Answer the following questions.
a. Explain the role of district disaster control unit after occurrence of any disaster.
Answer:
(1) District control unit looks after the ; disaster management of the district.
(2) It is immediately formed either after the impact of disaster or if warning is given about some upcoming disaster.

District-wise Disaster Control Unit performs following role:

The review of various aspects of disasters is done.
Through the disaster control unit there is continuous contact established with various agencies like army, air force, navy, telecommunication department, paramilitary forces, etc. for obtaining help.
The unit also coordinates with various voluntary organizations for their help in disaster management.

b. Give the reasons for increase in human disasters after the World War-II.
Answer:

After Second World War, the feelings of peace and brotherhood among the global citizens were lost. The geographic, religious, racial and ethnic differences sprang up tremendously.
Atrocities that Nazi has performed made deep impact on the minds of people. Terrorism, abduction, robberies and social unrest increased in almost all the countries.
The financial losses had incurred in the World War II. The misuse of science and technology was done to retrieve these deficits.
At the end of World War II, the atomic bombs were dropped in Japan. This has created health problems in the entire world.
Social inequality, economic disparity, racial and religious differences were some adversaries that created unrest in the country.
Later, the neighbouring nations kept on fighting. The geographical boundaries were changed. People always had feelings of insecurity. The terrorism flourished. All such instances gave rise to man-made disasters.

c. What are the objectives of disaster management?
(OR)
State any four objectives of disaster management. (March ’19)
Answer:
Objectives of disaster management:

To save human life from disasters. To help them for moving away from the place of disasters by rapid action.
To supply essential commodities to the affected people. This helps to reduce the gravity of disaster. People are given grains, water and clothes and other basic necessities under this objective.
To bring back the conditions of affected people to normalcy.
To rehabilitate the affected and displaced victims.
To think and execute the protective measures in order to develop capability to face the disasters in future.

d. Why is it essential to get the training of first aid? (July ’19)
Answer:
When there is a disaster, we need to immediately help the victim. Till the medical help arrives, one should be in position to treat the injured and save his or her life. In such cases; knowing first- aid is essential. Such kind of a need may arise in case of our parents, our siblings at home or with friends in school. Those who are injured should be treated at once. If we know about techniques of first aid, we can save such person before the medical help arrives. Therefore, it is essential to get the training of the first aid.

e. Which different methods are used for transportation of patients? Why?
Answer:
For the transportation of patients following methods are used:

Cradle method: This method is used for children and persons with less weight.
Carrying piggy back: This method is useful in carrying the unconscious persons.
Human crutch method: If one leg of the person is injured, then the victim is supported with minimum load on the other leg. This is called human crutch method.
Pulling or lifting method: For carrying an unconscious person for a short distance this method is used.
Carrying on four-hand chair: This method is used when the support is needed for a part below waist region.
Carrying on two-hand chair: Patients that cannot use their hands but can hold their body upright, are carried by such method.
Stretcher: By making temporary stretcher in case of emergency, the unconscious patient can be moved. Such temporary stretchers are made by using bamboos, blanket, etc.

Question 4.
On the basis of the structure of disaster management authority, form the same for your school.
Answer:

Question 5.
Write down the reasons, effects and remedial measures taken for any two disasters experienced by you.
Answer:
Students are expected to write the answer based on their own experiences.

Question 6.
Which different aspects of disaster management would you check for your school? Why?
Answer:
For the pre-disaster management at school following aspects would be inspected.

Are the telephones 6f the school working properly?
Is there a first-aid box in each class?
Are there any basic medicines in the school?
Is the team ready for rescue of smaller children from lower classes?
Has monitor or prefect participated in a mock drill? Does he/she know about first aid?
Is the contact of parent representative available in emergency situations?
Is the Medical Officer/Doctor present on the school campus?
Is there enough drinking water and some dry snacks available in the school?
Are the staircases and corridors suitable for quick evacuation of the children?

Question 7.
Identify the type of disaster.
a. Terrorism.
Answer:
Man-made, intentional.
Due to the activities of terrorism, many innocent lives are lost. Many are seriously injured. Some become crippled for their entire life. Buildings, monuments, vehicles everything is completely destroyed. There is rift between different religions or sects. The peaceful atmosphere is disturbed. The entire society is under the constant fear of insecurity.

b. Soil erosion.
Answer:
Natural, geophysical, geological.
When the upper fertile layer of soil is lost, it becomes barren. The trees are uprooted. The fertility of the area is lost. The land becomes unsuitable for cultivation or farming. Due to wind, flowing water or grazing animals the naturally occurring soil erosion becomes hazardous for the environment.

c. Hepatitis.
Answer:
Natural, biological, animal-origin.
Hepatitis is a viral disease which spreads through the contaminated food and water. The outburst of epidemic of hepatitis is difficult to control. As in big cities the quality of road side food is often consumed, the spread of hepatitis is. fast. People suffer due to hepatitis.

d. Forest fire.
Answer:
Natural, biological, plant-origin.
Due to heat and wind, the dry grass and the shrubs catch fire in the forests, resulting in forest fires. Such rapidly spreading forest fire can finish the biodiversity within a very short span of time. It is difficult to extinguish the naturally lit forest fires. Many trees and other vegetation, animals and birds along with their habitats are destroyed due to forest fire. The smoke emanating causes the air pollution.

e. Famine.
Answer:
Natural, climatic.
Due to famine there is severe water scarcity. In absence of water, the fields and farms become barren as the crops cannot grow without water. There is shortage of food grains. The cattle dies due to want of water and grass. Local people have to migrate in search of food, water and shelter.

f. Theft.
Answer:
Man-made, intentional.
Theft causes economic loss for the one whose money or valuables are looted. The person who suffers the loss also undergo mental and emotional shock. Sometimes the thief may also cause physical harm. It may cost on life too.

Question 8.
Some symbols are given below. Explain those symbols. Which disasters may occur if those symbols are ignored?

Answer:
The above signs are warning symbols which should never be ignored.
The meaning of each is given below. They are giving warnings about explosive, inflammable, oxidizing, compressed gas, corrosive, toxic, irritant, environmentally hazardous and health hazard.

(1) Explosive: Some materials are explosive. While handling such materials care should be taken. We should not take anything that would cause fire leading to explosion. If explosion occurs, there would be a major disaster causing great loss of life and property. Thus if this sign is seen, great care has to be taken.

(2) Inflammable: Similar to explosive substances, the inflammable materials can also catch fire easily. Therefore, to warn people such sign is given on materials that can cause hazard by burning.

(3) Oxidizing: Some chemical substances are oxidizing. They carry out chemical reactions with a rapid speed. E.g. If potassium permanganate falls on the cloth, it starts the reaction on its C-C bonds. Due to such property of carrying out reactions, the cloths may catch fire. Therefore, oxidizing substances should be handled with care.

(4) Compressed: Compressed substances are filled under pressure in some container. If mishandled, they can come out of the container by bursting it open. This can cause some injuries.

(5) Corrosive: The corrosive substances are very reactive. The mere touch of corrosive substances can cause destruction of skin, eyes, respiratory passages, digestive organs, etc. rapidly. Just touching or smelling of such substances can cause major injury and thus warning sign of corrosive substance should never be ignored.

(6) Toxic: To taste a toxic substance or even to smell it, can lead to death. The packing of these substances are therefore marked as dangerous. They should be avoided as far as possible.

(7) Irritant: When skin or any delicate part of the body comes in contact with the irritant substance, it can cause harmful reaction. Especially, eyes, nasal mucosa and skin are affected by contact with corrosive substances.

(8) Environmentally hazardous: Many sub¬stances cause harm to the environment due to their toxicity. Air, water or soil can be polluted due to such pollutants. When environment is affected, ultimately these hazardous effects come back to human species. Therefore, such substances should be carefully used. Their use should be judicious and controlled.

(9) Health hazard: The substances that can cause hazard to our health should always be distanced from us. Such substances should not be kept in proximity. As far as possible they should be kept away and handled with great care if needed for any work. Materials marked with health hazard can cause severe toxicity.

Question 9.
Explain that why is it said like that?
a. Mock drill is useful.
Answer:

Mock drill is the practice to check whether there is preparedness for dealing with the sudden attack of disaster.
For this purpose, virtual or apparent situations that simulate the disaster are created.
The reaction time for any type of disaster is checked by such activity. In the presence of trained personnel, the execution of the rescue plans are observed.
People also understand their responsibilities at the time of actual disaster.
The experts also check execution of plan designed for disaster redressal.
By such mock drills, the efficacy of the system can be understood. In future, when actual calamity strikes, there is already preparation for disaster redressal. Therefore, mock drill is useful.

b. Effective disaster management makes us well prepared for future.
Answer:

Disaster can strike any time. The sudden disasters can be man-made with some bad intentions or may be accidental.
When natural calamity strikes suddenly with a huge impact, large scale devastation of property and general environment degradation occurs along with substantial mortality of people and animals.
Therefore, it is most appropriate to have the preparedness to reduce the impact of any future disasters.
We cannot control the onset of the natural disaster, but we can definitely reduce the harsh effects of the disaster by following disaster management plan.

Question 10.
Complete the following chart.

Answer:

Question 11.
Following are the pictures of some disasters. How will be your pre and post-disaster management in case you face any of those disasters?

Answer:
In the pictures given, following disasters are shown:
(1) Two groups of children are fighting with each other.
(2) There is gas leakage from the LPG cylinder.
(3) There is heavy downpour due to cloud bursting which has led to waterlogging in the town.
(4) There is cyclone causing a tornado. (Commonly called a twister)

Projects:

Project 1.
Demonstrate the activities shown on page no. 106 of Std. IX Science and Technology textbook in front of the students of other classes. Make a video clip and send it to others.

Project 2.
Form a group of students from your school to demonstrate the mock drill and demonstrate it in the school

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 109)

Question 1.
What is disaster?
Answer:
Disaster is the incidence that occurs suddenly causing heavy damage to life and property. The disaster can be man-made or due to natural reason.

Question 2.
Which disasters have you experienced in your area?
Answer:
On September 2019, there was a heavy downpour in Pune. This disaster has been experienced recently.
On 26th November 2008 there was attack at several places by the Pakistani terrorists. The stories about the deaths and damage caused by this disaster were seen in films and learnt about this from our elders.

Question 3.
What are the effects of that disaster on local and surrounding conditions?
Answer:
Due to a heavy downpour in Pune, there was waterlogging in all the shallow areas. All the transport systems collapsed on that day. Large trees fell down injuring the people. The water logging caused condition like floods. Schools, colleges and offices were shut down. People were caught in troublesome situation.

On 26th November 2008 many innocent people lost their lives. There was tremendous damage caused to some of the important places like Taj Palace Hotel and Chabad house.

Use your brain power: (Text Book Page No. 111)

Question 1.
Depending upon information given on page 111, explain the various effects of the disaster of railway accident.
Answer:
The effects of disastrous railway accident:
The effect will be dependent upon the nature of the accident that has occurred. Whether, it is a collapse of bridge or due to derailment of the train, or due to collision of two moving trains, whether it is due to failure in signaling system, due to land slide or due to obstacle in the tunnel, that has to be understood. The impact of such railway accident will be dependent on the way that accident has occurred. Based on this impact the effects will take place.

(1) Environmental	The entire surroundings will show destruction.
(2) Administrative/ Managerial	The railway department will have stress and the time table will collapse. The regular use of tracks will hamper, resulting into delay in railway traffic.
(3) Political	Ministry of railways is considered to be responsible for the accident. Sometimes the Railway Minister resigns.
(4) Medical	The passengers commuting in the train die or suffer from serious injuries.
(5) Economic	The railways suffer huge financial loss.
(6) Social	The railway traffic is disturbed. Passengers are troubled as they get held up at some place.

Observe/Discuss:
Let’s Discuss: (Text Book Page No. 110)
Question 1.
observe the images on textbook page no. 110. whether the places of disasters are known to you? Discuss the emfects of these disasters on public lire. How people could lave been saved from these disasters? Discuss with your friends in the classroom.
Answer:
Students should discuss the disasters given in the pictures by themselves after collecting the information.

Observe: (Text Book Page No. 114)

Question 1.
Observe the disaster cycle given below and explain each aspect of the disaster of earthquake.
Answer:
The main aspects of disaster cycle to tackle disaster of earthquake are as follows:
(1) Preparation : With the help of seismograph, the warning about forthcoming earthquake can be obtained these days. The intensity of the earthquake is also predicted with the help of technology. If the estimate of the Richter scale is on the higher sides, there would be more preparatory measures taken to tackle the forthcoming problem of earthquake.

(2) Redemption: Once this information is obtained the possible impact of the earthquake on the houses, buildings, people can be studied by the geological experts. The meetings of the Disaster Management Authority will be organized for same.

(3) Preparedness: What the general public should do and what action the reserved forces should take, will be decided in case of actual incidence of the earthquake. The schemes and plans will be made ready in this direction.

(4) Impact of Earthquake: In case of disaster of earthquake, people will be helped to safety. The trapped people will be rescued. First aid and other necessary help will be provided. The data about the losses and the intensity of this disaster will be noted and reported for the further process.

(5) Response: In this phase the response of the people as well as the action of Government can be well studied. The response should be quick and positive. The maximum lives and property should be saved by such responses. The disaster of earthquake should be managed with positivity and through help given to the sufferers.

(6) Resurgence: Earthquakes can destroy the entire households or even entire community. Such homeless people should be given the place to stay. Resurgence is important phase for the national welfare. If the citizens of India are cared for, the nation too will progress.

(7) Restoration: The earthquake victims should be settled by providing them with new settlements. Sometimes, entire village is to be settled. E.g. In Latur or Kutch, there twas very large scale devastation. But Government of India as well as some NGOs helped to reconstruct the houses. In such earthquake-prone areas, houses are built in specific pattern to withstand any possible future calamities.

Observe: (Text Book Page No. 117)

Question 1.
Give the reference of following pictures and explain importance of each of those in disaster management. Which are other such activities ?

Answer:
The actions shown in the above pictures are as follows:
(a) The patient is made to lie on the stretcher. He must be unconscious and injured to greater extent, so that he cannot move by himself.
(b) The patient is helped by giving artificial respiration. Probably the victim is suffocated and needs oxygen supply.
(c) and (d) The patient is being picked up. Most probably the patient is unconscious.
The unconscious person who cannot move by himself is carried by these two methods. In method ‘c’, the weight of the patient is less and hence he can be lifted as shown in the picture. In picture ‘d’ the victim has to be lifted in other way, may be due to his greater body weight.
(e) The patient is carried on the back as in ‘carrying piggy back’ position. He too is unconscious and needs to be shifted for medical treatment.
(f) The patient in this picture is carried by ‘human crutch method’. When victim’s one leg is injured, he cannot walk without support. Hence, he needs to be carried in such a way.

In all the above methods, the injured person at the time of disaster is transported to hospital or dispensary for further medical help. The primary first-aid is given to the victim. Now the volunteer is taking him for further treatment. Such rescue activities depend upon the type of disaster and the extent of the injury. Hence the methods will be of different nature.

Let’s Think: (Text Book Page No. 111)

Question 1.
What will be the effect on yourself and surrounding, if any accident-like disaster occurs during the sports on playground or in school?
Answer:
When in school, there is an accident, first of all we get scared. But with caring help of the teacher, we will give the first aid to the injured friends by using first aid kit. If the injury is serious, we will take him to the medical centre of the school. While playing or during sports event, children flock around and make unnecessary crowding. In case of such accident, first of all the crowd will have to be dispersed. If there is major disaster, one should not fumble but manage the disaster in a wise way with the help of teachers.

Let’s Think: (Text Book Page No. 112)

Question 1.
Explain the nature and scope of the disaster of flood with the help of six points given on text book page no. 112.
Answer:
The nature and the scope of the disaster of flood can be described according to the six points:
(1) Pre-disaster phase: Due to Indian Meteorological Department the warning predictions are received before any climatic disaster strikes. If the scope of the flood is predicted to be high, then the people who may be affected by the calamity are relocated to a safer area.

(2) Warning phase: In the warning phase the Government warns the general public about the forthcoming disaster of floods through mass media like radio, television, newspapers, etc. In recent times, even the cellphone messages are sent to people for warning them. The people living in coastal areas will be worst affected and hence such people are given greater care and they are immediately made to leave their houses. They are taken to the safe places.

(3) Emergency phase: When the flood waters actually start rising up, the low-lying areas are submerged. Houses, roads and shops everything goes under water. The rescue operations are carried out by army men from National Disaster Rescue Force. They take every possible effort to rescue the trapped people. The emergency continues till the water does not recede. Later after the water starts receding, people who had been taken to places on heights, start coming back. During this phase, search, rescue operations, medical treatment, and first aid are all the aspects on which the attention is focussed.

(4) Rehabilitation phase: The people affected due to floods are given emotional and financial support. The fields, farms, houses or cattle-shed are under water. Such people are given transient accommodations. Many cattle and other animals die by drowning. Their rotting carcasses have to be disposed as soon as possible because the decaying process spreads epidemics of diseases. People are given vaccinations to protect them from diseases of such kind. Special care of young children and senior citizens is taken during this period. Supply of food and drinking water is also very important task during this time.

(5) Recovery phase: During recovery phase, the life comes gradually back to normalcy. The removal of dead, decaying material and the debris is the first priority. The water connections and electricity is restored back. Various NGOs or Government organizations provide help of various kind to the affected people. This help is to be distributed to those who are in real need. This work is also done by Disaster Management Department.

(6) Reconstruction phase: The houses and building that collapse due to floods are built back. Agricultural activities start again. Roads and water supply is once again normalized. Schools and colleges start once again. Thus, the once flood affected area comes back to routine functioning again.

Let’s Think: (Text Book Page No. 117)

Question 1.
Following are some pictures of disasters. Which precautions would you take during those disasters?

Answer:
The pictures shown above are showing earthquake, fire and snake bite respectively.
In the above disasters, the initial precautions to be taken are as follows:
(1) Earthquake: In case of earthquake, one should immediately come out of house and stand in the open ground. If this is not possible, one has to go below table or any other cover. During collapse of the building, there should not be a head injury. This precaution is basically for prevention of dangerous injuries and saving our life. Switch off the power supply. If in journey, stay inside the vehicle.

(2) Fire: First and foremost is to save ourselves from fire. Then one can help others in rescue operations. Help others to extinguish fire. Call the fire department for immediate action.

(3) Snake bite: Many a times the biting snake can be non-venomous too. But the victim is psychologically affected too. The tourniquet should be tied in the region above the snake bite. The rope, piece of cloth or even handkerchief can be used for this purpose, so that the venom, if any should not rise and reach vital organs. The wound should be made near the bite-wound so that the blood will ooze out and some venom can automatically flow out. Though these are first-aid measures, the victim should be rushed to a qualified doctor for an injection of antivenin.

Choose the correct alternative and write its alphabet against the sub-question number:

Question 1.
Disasters definitely affect the ………… of the nation.
(a) people
(b) economy
(c) security
(d) employment
Answer:
(b) economy

Question 2.
If local ………… is not strong enough, citizens become confused.
(a) leadership
(b) women
(c) politicians
(d) cattle
Answer:
(a) leadership

Question 3.
…………… problems arise diming the disaster.
(a) Local
(b) Global
(c) Administrative
(d) Private
Answer:
(c) Administrative

Question 4.
Stinking pollution caused due to decomposing corpses of humans and other animal is ………… disaster.
(a) environmental
(b) health
(c) necessary
(d) effective
Answer:
(a) environmental

Question 5.
After the subsidence of any type of disaster, rehabilitation work is started in ………… phase.
(a) later
(b) transitional
(c) terminal
(d) ultimate
Answer:
(b) transitional

Question 6.
…………. phase is highly complicated phase.
(a) Reconstruction
(b) Recycling
(c) Reuse
(d) Redevelopment
Answer:
(a) Reconstruction

Question 7.
There had been a huge ……….. in the village Malin, Tal. Ambegaon in 2014.
(a) earthquake
(b) storm
(c) landslide
(d) change
Answer:
(c) landslide

Question 8.
The atomic energy plant at Chernobyl was used only for generating ………….
(a) electricity
(b) solar power
(c) atomic energy
(d) agriculture
Answer:
(a) electricity

Question 9.
Supply of essential ………….. to the affected people can reduce the effect of the disaster.
(a) food
(b) water
(c) commodities
(d) money
Answer:
(c) commodities

Question 10.
Keeping …………. ready is a practice to check the preparedness of facing the disaster.
(a) First aid
(b) Mock drill
(c) Ambulance
(d) Fire brigade
Answer:
(b) Mock drill

Question 11.
Which of the following is man-made disaster. (March, July ’19)
(a) Earthquake
(b) Flood
(c) Meteor
(d) Leakage of toxic gases
Answer:
(d) Leakage of toxic gases

Question 12.
What should be done if gas cylinder at your house catches fire?
(a) Water should be sprinkled
(b) Sand, soil should be put on it
(c) Cylinder should be covered with wet blanket
(d) one should run away
Answer:
(c) Cylinder should be covered with wet blanket

Which type of disaster is described in the following statements:

Question 1.
On 26th July 2005, entire suburban Mumbai was waterlogged.
Answer:
Cloudbursting and severe downpour

Question 2.
Elephants in the Bandipur forest started running helter and skelter due to smoke.
Answer:
Forest fires

Question 3.
Many innocent people died in the bomb blast that occurred on 11th July 2006 in local trains.
Answer:
Bomb explosion-Terrorism

Question 4.
In Kutch, suddenly many school children were buried under the rubble.
Answer:
Earthquake

Question 5.
Because of lack of crops, people from Vidarbha are migrating to other regions.
Answer:
Dry famine

Question 6.
The huge waves in Chennai engulfed many human lives in December 2004.
Answer:
Tsunami.

Find the correlation:

Question 1.
Earthquake in recent times : Gujarat, Latur : : Devastating floods in 2018 : ………….
Answer:
Earthquake in recent times : Gujarat, Latur : : Devastating floods in 2018 : Kerala/Assam

Question 2.
Toxic gas leakage: Accidental disaster : : war : …………..
Answer:
Toxic gas leakage: Accidental disaster : : war : Intentional

Question 3.
Sun spots : Atmospheric type of disaster : : Salinization : …………..
Answer:
Sun spots : Atmospheric type of disaster : : Salinization : Geological type of disaster

Question 4.
Pre-disaster management : Preparation and warning : : Post-disaster management : ………..
Answer:
Pre-disaster management : Preparation and warning : : Post-disaster management : Resurgence and restoration.

Match the columns:

Question 1.

Column A: Disaster	Column B: Type
(1) Earthquake and volcano	(a) Animal origin
(2) Snowfall and snowstorms	(b) Geological
	(c) Climatic
	(d) Terrorism

Answer:
(1) Earthquake and volcano – Geological.
(2) Snowfall and snowstorms – Climatic.

Question 2.

Column A: Disaster	Column B: Type
(1) Aquatic weeds	(a) Animal origin
(2) Attack by locusts (insects)	(b) Plant origin
	(c) Geological
	(d) Climatic

Answer:
(1) Aquatic weeds – Plant origin
(2) Attack by locusts (insects) – Animal origin.

Question 3.

Column A: Disaster	Column B: Type
(1) Atomic tests	(a) Intentional
(2) Terrorism	(b) Unintentional
	(c) Geological
	(d) Animal origin

Answer:
(1) Atomic tests – Unintentional
(2) Terrorism – Intentional.

Question 4.

Column A: Effect	Column B: Effect
(1) Contamination of water	(a) Economical
(2) Collapsing of transport system	(b) Environmental
	(c) Administrative
	(d) Geological

Answer:
(1) Contamination of water – Environmental
(2) Collapsing of transport system – Administrative.

Question 5.

Column A: Effect	Column B: Problem
(1) Spread of epidemics	(a) Economical
(2) Shortage of funds	(b) Administrative
	(c) Medical
	(d) Physical

Answer:
(1) Spread of epidemics – Medical
(2) Shortage of funds – Economical.

Question 6.

Column A: Effect	Column B: Problem
(1) Rift due to religions	(a) Economical
(2) Citizens getting confused	(b) Social
	(c) Political
	(d) Environmental

Answer:
(1) Rift due to religions – Social
(2) Citizens getting confused – Political.

Identify the type of disaster and describe the effects of the same in brief:

Question 1.
Accident at Chernobyl.
Answer:
Man-made, unintentional. At Chernobyl in Russia there was the atomic energy plant, where disastrous accident took place. The radiations emitted through the reactors caused tremendous radiation pollution. These hazardous effects are even seen today.

Give reasons:

Question 1.
When there are riots, the cities, towns or villages show signs of tense atmosphere.
Answer:

During riots, there is financial loss for all the rioting groups.
The belongings, houses, shops, etc. are destroyed or damaged.
Property is looted. There is no guarantee of safety and security for anyone.
Women and children suffer the most as they are easily victimized. Therefore, when there are riots, the cities, towns or villages show signs of tense atmosphere.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
which are the disaters that make Impact for longer duration? Give examples.
Answer:
Those disasters that make the impact for long duration and those disasters, whose after-elfbcts are either severe are long term disasters. Their severity increases with thme. Such disasters are famine, various problems of growth of crop, strikes of workers, rising levels of oceans, desertification, etc.

Question 2.
What types of disaster are the following? Explain their impacts.
(a) Floods (b) War. (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Answer:
(a) Flood is geophysical climatic disaster.
(b) War is man-made intentional disaster.

Impact of flood : The low-lying and the coastal areas are seen to be submerged. The entire region is waterlogged.
Impact of war: Tremendous destruction causing loss. Many lives are lost. The costs of all the items rise due to war conditions. Entire nation faces insecurity.

Question 3.
Explain in brief the sensitive issues of general public about disaster.
(OR)
Which are the three aspects of disaster tjiat are important for common citizens?
Answer:
The phase of emergency, transitional phase and reconstruction phase are the three phases of disaster that are important for common citizens.

(1) Phase of emergency: If timely and rapid action is taken during this phase, maximum lives can be saved. Search and rescue operations, medical help, first aid, restoring communication services, removing the people from affected area are done during this phase. The gravity of disaster can be estimated during this phase.

(2) Transitional Phase: The disaster subsides and then the work of transitional phase starts. The main concern is rehabilitation work for the affected and displaced people. This work includes clearing of debris, restoring water supply, repairing roads, etc. to bring normalcy in public life. Help from different voluntary and Government institute is taken to offer the monetary provision and essential commodities to affected victims. Permanent means of livelihood is given to the people to reduce their mental and emotional stress. The victims are truly rehabilitated.

(3) Reconstruction Phase: Reconstruction phase is a highly complicated phase which actually overlaps with transition stage. Help is offered to people to reconstruct their buildings. Other facilities like roads and water supply are restored. Farming practices are restarted. It is a very gradual phase that makes the victims to completely rehabilitate.

Question 4.
What are the objectives of mock drill?
Answer:
Objectives of Mock Drill:

To evaluate the response of the people to the disaster.
To improve the coordination between various departments of disaster control.
To identify one’s own abilities if disaster approaches.
To improve the ability to quick response to disaster and taking rapid action.
To check the competency of the planned actions.
To identify the possible errors and risks while dealing with disasters.

Question 5.
Write down the names of international organizations that work for disaster management.
Answer:
Following international organizations work for disaster management.

United Nations Disaster Relief Organization
United Nations Centre for Human Settlements
Asian Disaster Reduction Centre.
Asian Disaster Preparedness Centre.
World Health Organization.
United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization.

Question 6.
The building in which you are residing ( has caught fire on the ground floor. What necessary rescue steps will you take? (July ’19)
Answer:

We shall call out for help.
We shall immediately call fire brigade.
We shall try to extinguish fire with the help of other people.
We will give first aid to people who are injured, fill the medical help arrives.
We will cover our nose and mouth with moist cloth to prevent suffocation.

Write short notes:

Question 1.
Pre-disaster management.
Answer:
The management measures taken before onset of a disaster is called pre-disaster management.
In pre-disaster management, complete preparation and planning to face any type of disaster is done. For this purpose, following steps are taken.

Identifying the areas where the disaster can strike. Such disaster-prone areas are to be thoroughly studied.
Through predictive intensity maps and hazard maps, the information is collected about the intensity of disaster and probable sites of disasters respectively.
Special training for disaster management is given to the concerned people.
The mass awareness is created about disaster management through training programmes, mass media and internet, etc.

Question 2.
Post-disaster management.
Answer:
The management measures taken after the striking of a disaster is called post-disaster management.
Following steps are taken during post-disaster management:

Helping the victims of disasters by giving all possible help needed for their survival.
Local people are trained to take part in the disaster management so that affected people can be saved rapidly.
Establishing the help centres that could provide all the necessary help. Such centres will be different in case of different disasters.
Collection and categorization of the material received from control centre for helping the victims. Distributing the same and reviewing the measures continuously.
Disaster rescue programmes are mainly focused.

Some symbols are given below. Explain those symbols. Which disasters may occur if those symbols are ignored?

Question 1.
Write what the signs indicate:

Answer:

Figure A indicates inflammable substances. They can catch fire if they come in contact with oxygen-rich air.
Figure B indicates corrosive substances which can cause damage to tissues of skin, eyes and other delicate organs etc.
Both the symbols are warning signs for people to keep away or handle carefully such substances.

Question 2.
What does the symbols below indicate? Write in brief. (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)

Answer:
(1) Symbol ‘A’ indicates Irritant. When skin or any delicate part of the body comes in contact with the irritant substance, it can cause harmful reaction. Especially, eyes, nasal mucosa and skin are affected by contact with corrosive substances.
(2) Symbol ‘B’ indicates toxic substance. To taste a toxic substance or even to smell it, can lead to death. The packing of these substances are therefore marked as dangerous. They should be avoided as far as possible.

Complete the paragraph by choosing the appropriate words given in the brackets:

(Capability, Rehabilitation, Commodities, Human, objectives, normalcy, amusements)
The ………. of disaster management comprise of the following aspects …………. life is saved from the disasters. People are helped to move away from the place of disasters. They are given essential ……….. by the government so that the gravity of disaster is reduced. The disaster conditions are brought back to ………… of the affected and displaced victims is done. Moreover, protective measures for future are also planned to develop ………… among the people to face any possible disasters in future.
Answer:
The objectives of disaster management, comprise of the following aspects. Human life is saved from the disasters. People are helped to move away from the place of disasters. They are given essential commodities by the government so that the gravity of disaster is reduced. The disaster conditions are brought back to normalcy. Rehabilitation of the affected and displaced victims is done. Moreover, protective measures for future are also planned to develop capability among the people to face any possible disasters in future.

Paragraph based questions:

1. Read the paragraph and answer the questions given below:
Disasters can be properly classified into three categories, viz. natural disasters, technological disasters and man-made disasters. The forces that cause natural disasters cannot be controlled. Moreover, they are becoming more frequent in the current years due to phenomena of climate change. On and off incidences of cyclones, cloud bursting, floods, etc. am creating havoc in the lives of people. Technological disasters are due to improper and callous behaviour at the different processes carried out in technical establishments. Man-made disasters are conflicts arising due to different religions, regions and-terrorism.

Questions and Answers:

Question 1.
What are three broad areas of disasters?
Answer:
Natural disasters, technological disasters and manmade disasters are three broad areas of disasters.

Question 2.
Which disasters cannot be controlled? Why?
Answer:
Natural disasters cannot be controlled as they are due to natural phenomena beyond the human power to stop them.

Question 3.
Which type of disasters were very common in Western Maharashtra in recent times? Why?
Answer:
Cloud bursting and floods were very common in Western Maharashtra caused due to climate change.

Question 4.
Give any one example of technological disaster that shook the entire India.
Answer:
Bhopal gas tragedy that occurred in 1984 was a worst disaster that shook the entire India.

Question 5.
Which types of disasters can be controlled in order to lead happy, peaceful and secured life? How?
Answer:
We have to control manmade disasters such as wars, riots, terrorism, etc. by having peaceful negotiations, respect for each human being and feeling of brotherhood among all.

Questions based on tables and charts:

Question 1.
Complete the chart: (Text Book Page No. 111)
Different problems occur with disasters. In the concept map different effects are mentioned. Read it and fill the blank places.
Answer:
(Answers are given directly in bold.)

Question 2.
Complete the chart: (Text Book Page No. 117)
Complete the chart as per the objectives of the first aidr:t
Answer:
(Answers are given directly in bold.)

Activity based questions:

Question 1.
Observe the images ‘A’ and ‘B’ and answer the following questions.

(i) Which disasters are shown in the images ?
Answer:
Image A is showing damage due to earthquake. Image B is showing house on fire.

(ii) Which primary precautions will you take in case of disaster shown in ‘A’?
Answer:
In the above disasters, the initial precautions to be taken are as follows :
Earthquake: In case of earthquake, one should immediately come out of house and stand in the open ground. If this is not possible, one has to go below table or any other cover. During collapse of the building, there should not be a head injury. This precaution is basically for prevention of dangerous injuries and saving our life. Switch off the power supply. If in journey, stay inside the vehicle.

(iii) Which type of first-aid is offered to the injured people in disaster ‘B’?
Answer:
First aid given to burn victim:

The person who is injured by fire should be dotised with cold water on his/her body. This will extinguish fire and give some relief caused due to inflammation. Do not break the blisters. Give water to drink.
Cover the burnt part by wet and moist cloth. Wash the wounds with antiseptic solution.
If the person is severely burnt, transfer him/her immediately to hospital.

Question 2.
Correct the following diagram:

Answer:

Projects:

Project 1.
Can you tell? ( Textbook page no. 118)
Whether there had been mock drill by fire fighters under the disaster management scheme in your school? Which techniques did you see during the drill?

Project 2.
Try this: (Textbook page no. 115)
Which factors will you consider while designing the pre-disaster management plan for your school/home? Prepare a survey report with the help of your teacher.

Project 3.
Get information:
(1) Visit the district collector or Taluka Tehasildar office and collect the information about disaster management. (Textbook page no. 115)
(2) Meet the medical officer/doctor from your village and collect information about providing the first aid. (Textbook page no. 118)

Project 4.
Internet is my friend:
(1) Search for the video clips of disasters. Discuss in your class about effects of disasters and remedies over it. (Textbook page no. 110)
(2) Find out more about the activities of international organizations that work for disaster management.
(Textbook page no. 116)
1. United Nations Disaster Relief Organization.
2. United Nations Centre for Human Settlements.
3. Asian Disaster Reduction Centre.
4. Asian Disaster Preparedness Centre.
5. World Health Organization.
6. United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization.

10th Std Science Part 2 Questions And Answers:

Periodic Classification of Elements Class 10 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

January 6, 2025January 5, 2025 by Bhagya

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 2 Periodic Classification of Elements Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 10 Science Part 1 Chapter 2 Periodic Classification of Elements Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Class 10 Science Part 1 Chapter 2 Periodic Classification of Elements Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Periodic Classification Of Elements Question 1.
Rearrange the columns 2 and 3 so as to match with the column 1.

Column 1	Column 2	Column 3
i. Triad	a. Lightest and negatively charged particle in all the atoms	1. Mendeleev
ii. Octave	b. Concentrated mass and positive charge	2. Thomson
iii. Atomic number	c. Average of the first and the third atomic mass	3. Newlands
iv. Period	d. Properties of the eighth element similar to the first	4. Rutherford
v. Nucleus	e. Positive charge on the nucleus	5. Dobereiner
vi. Electron	f. Sequential change in molecular formulae	6. Moseley

Answer:

Column 1	Column 2	Column 3
i. Triad	Average of the first and the third atomic mass	Dobereiner
ii. Octave	Properties of the eighth element similar to the first	Newlands
iii. Atomic number	Positive charge on the nucleus	Moseley
iv. Period	Sequential change in molecular formulae	Mendeleev
v. Nucleus	Concentrated mass and positive charge	Rutherford
vi. Electron	Lightest and negatively charged particle in all the atoms	Thomson

Periodic Classification Of Elements Class 10 Maharashtra Board Question 2.
Choose the correct option and rewrite the statement:
(a) The number of electrons in the outermost shell of alkali metals is…….
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 7
Answer:
(a) 1

(b) Alkaline earth metals have valency 2. This means that their position in the modern periodic table is in…….
(a) Group 2
(b) Group 16
(c) Period 2
(d) d-block
Answer:
(a) Group 2

(c) Molecular formula of the chloride of an element X is XCl. This compound is a solid having high melting point. which of the following elements be present in the same group as X.
(a) Na
(b) Mg
(c) Al
(d) Si
Answer:
(a) Na

(d) In which block of the modem periodic table are the nonmetals found?
(a) s-block
(b) p-block
(c) d-block
(d) f-block
Answer:
(b) p-block

Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Periodic Classification Of Elements Notes Question 3.
An element has its electron configuration as 2, 8, 2. Now answer the following questions.
a. What is the atomic number of this element?
Answer:
The atomic number of this element is 12.

b. What is the group of this element?
Answer:
The group of this element is 2.

c. To which period does this element belong?
Answer:
This element belongs to period 3.

d. With which of the following elements would this element resemble? (Atomic numbers are given in the brackets)
N(7), Be(4), Ar(18), Cl(17)
Answer:
This element resembles Be(4).

Class 10 Science 1 Chapter 2 Periodic Classification Of Elements Question 4.
Write down the electronic configuration of the following elements from the given atomic numbers. Answer the following question with explanation.

a. ₃Li, ₁₄Si, ₂He, ₁₁Na, ₁₅P which of these elements belong to be period 3?
Answer:

Elements	Electronic configuration
(i) ₃Li	2,1
(ii) ₁₄Si	2, 8,4
(iii) ₂He	2
(iv) ₁₁Na	2, 8, 1
(v) ₁₅P	2, 8, 5

Elements belong to the 3rd period: ₁₄Si, ₁₁Na and ₁₅P.

b. ₁H, ₇N, ₂₀Ca, ₁₆S, ₄Be, ₁₈Ar. Which of these elements belong to the second group?
Answer:

Elements	Electronic configuration
(i) ₁H	1
(ii) ₇N	2, 5
(iii) ₂₀Ca	2, 8, 8, 2
(iv) ₁₆S	2, 8, 6
(v) ₄Be	2, 2
(iv) ₁₈Ar	2, 8, 8

Elements belongs to the 2nd group: ₄Be and ₂₀Ca.

c. ₇N, ₆C, ₈O, ₅B, ₁₃Al Which is the most electronegative element among these?
Answer:

Elements	Electronic configuration
(i) ₇N	2,5
(ii) ₆C	2,4
(iii) ₈0	2,6
(iv) ₅B	2,3
(v) ₁₃A1	2, 8,3

Among these, ₈O is the most electronegative element.

d. ₄Be, ₆C, ₈O, ₅B, ₁₃Al Which is the most electropositive element among these?
Answer:

Elements	Electronic configuration
(i) ₄Be	2, 2
(ii) ₆C	2, 4
(iii) ₈O	2, 6
(iv) B	2, 3
(v) ₁₁Al	2, 8, 3

Among these, ₁₃Al is the most electropositive element.

e. ₁₁Na, ₁₅P, ₁₇Cl, ₁₄Si, ₁₂Mg which of these has largest atoms?
Answer:

Elements	Electronic configuration
(i) ₁₁Na	2, 8, 1
(ii) ₁₅P	2, 8, 3
(iii) ₁₇Cl	2, 8, 7
(iv) ₁₄Si	2, 8, 4
(v) ₁₂Mg	2, 8, 2

₁₁Na has the largest atomic size.

f. ₁₉K, ₃li, ₁₁Na, ₄Be Which of these atoms has smallest atomic radius?
Answer:

Elements	Electronic configuration
(i) ₁₉K	2, 8, 8, 1
(ii) ₃Li	2, 1
(iii) ₁₁Na	2, 8, 1
(iv) ₄Be	2, 2

₄Be has smallest atomic radius.

g. ₁₃Al, ₁₄Si, ₁₁Na, ₁₂Mg, ₁₆S Which of the above elements has the highest metallic character?
Answer:

Elements	Electronic configuration
(i) ₁₃Al	2, 8, 3
(ii) ₁₄Si	2, 8, 4
(iii) ₁₁Na	2, 8, 1
(iv) ₁₂Mg	2, 8, 2
(v) ₁₆S	2, 8, 6

₁₁Na has the highest metallic character.

h. ₆C, ₃Li, ₉F, ₇N, ₈O Which of the above elements has the highest nonmetallic character?
Answer:

Elements	Electronic configuration
(i) ₆C	2, 4
(ii) ₃Li	2, 1
(iii) ₉F	2, 7
(iv) ₇N	2, 5
(v) ₈O	2, 6

₉F has the highest non metallic character.

Science 1 Chapter 2 Class 10 Maharashtra Board Question 5.
write the name and symbol of the element from the description.
a. The atom having the smallest size.
Answer:
Helium(He).

b. The atom having the smallest atomic mass.
Answer:
Hydrogen(H₂).

c. The most electronegative atom.
Answer:
Fluorine(F₂).

d. The noble gas with the smallest atomic radius.
Answer:
Helium(He).

e. The most reactive nonmetal.
Answer:
Fluorine(F₂).

Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Periodic Classification Of Elements Question 6.
Write short notes.
a. Mendeleev’s periodic law.
Answer:
when the elements are arranged in the order of their increasing atomic masses, Mendeleev found that the elements with similar physical and chemical properties repeat after a definite interval. On the basis of these finding Mendeleev stated the periodic law. The physical and chemical properties of elements are a periodic function of their atomic masses.

b. Structure of the modern periodic table.
Answer:
(1) In the modern periodic table, the elements are arranged in the order of their increasing atomic number. In the modern periodic table there are seven horizontal rows called periods and eighteen vertical columns (1 to 18) called groups. The arrangement or the periods and groups results into formation of boxes. Atomic numbers are serially indicated in the upper part of these boxes.

(2) Each box represents the place for one element. Apart from these seven rows, there are two rows of elements placed separately at the bottom of the periodic table. They are lanthanides and actinides series. There are 118 boxes in the periodic table including the two series that means there are 118 places for elements in the modern periodic table.

The formation of a few elements was established experimentally very recently and thereby the modern periodic table is now completely filled with 118 elements.

(3) On the basis of the electronic configuration, the elements in the modern periodic table are divided into four blocks, viz. s-block, p-block, d-block and f-block. The s-block constitute groups 1 and 2. The groups 13 to 18 constitute the p-block. Groups 3 to 12 constitute the d-block, while the lanthanide and actinide series at the bottom form the f-block. The d-bloclçelements are called transition elements.

A zig-zag line shown in the p-block of the periodic table. This zig-zag line shows the three traditional types of elements, i.e. metals, nonmetals and metalloids. The metalloid elements lie along the border of zig-zag line. All the metals lie on the left side of the zig-zag line while all the nonmetals lie on the right side.

c. Position of isotopes in the Mendeleev’s and the modern periodic table.
Answer:
Isotopes were discovered long time after Mendeleev put forth the periodic table. A challenge was posed in placing isotopes in Mendeleev’s periodic table, as isotopes have the same chemical properties but different atomic masses. Isotopes do not find separate places in this table.

Moseley found out that atomic number is a fundamental property of an element rather than its atomic mass. The atomic number of any element is increased by one unit (number) from the atomic number or subsequent element. In the modern periodic table, the elements are arranged in the order of their increasing atomic numbers, that time the problem or discrepancy in the pairs or isotopes of elements observed in Mendeleev’s periodic table was solved. The isotopes or ₁₇Cl³⁵ and ₁₇Cl³⁷ were placed in the same group as both have the same atomic number.

Periodic Classification Of Elements Class 10 State Board Question 7.
Write scientific reasons.
a. Atomic radius goes on decreasing while going from left to right in a period.
Answer:
(1) In a period while going from left to right, atomic radius goes on decreasing and the atomic number increases one by one, that means positive charge on the nucleus increases by one unit at a time.

(2) However, the additional electron is added to the same outermost shell. Due to the increased nuclear charge the electrons are pulled towards the nucleus to a greater extent, as a result the size of atom decreases i.e., atomic radius decreases.

b. Metallic character goes on decreasing while going from left to right in a period.
Answer:
(1) Metals have a tendency to lose the valence electrons to form cations. This tendency of an element is called the metallic character of the element.

(2) while going from left to right within a period the outermost shell remains the same and electrons are added to the same shell. However, the positive charge on the nucleus goes on Increasing while the atomic radius goes on decreasing and thus the effective nuclear charge goes on increasing. As a result of this the tendency of atom to lose electrons decreases, i.e., electropositivity decreases. Thus, metallic character goes on decreasing within a period from left to right.

c. Atomic radius goes on increasing down a group.
Answer:
The size of an atom is indicated by its radius. while going down a group a new shell is added. Therefore, the distance between the outermost electron and the nucleus goes on increasing. These electrons experience lesser pull from the nucleus. Thus, atomic radius goes on increasing down a group.

d. Elements belonging to the same group have the same valency.
Answer:
(1) The valency of an element is determined by the number of valence electron in the outermost shell of an atom of an element.

(2) All the elements in a group have the same number of valence electrons. Therefore, elements in the same group should have the same valency. For example, the elements of group I contain only one valence electron: the valency of elements of group I is one. Similarly for group II, the valency is two.

e. The third period contains only eight elements even through the electron capacity of the third shell is 18.
Answer:
(1) In the modern periodic table, there are seven horizontal rows called periods. In a periods elements are arranged in an increasing order of their atomic numbers. The third row contains 8 elements and the electron capacity of the third shell is 18.

(2) In the third period, while moving from left to right, atomic number increases, number of electrons increases in the shell. The number of elements present in 3^rd period is decided on the basis of electronic configuration and octet rule.

Atomic number	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18
Elements	Na	Mg	Al	Si	P	S	Cl	Ar

Argon (Ar) is the last element of the third period and has a capacity of maximum 18 electrons. Its octet of electrons is completed and as argon belongs to zero group, the third shell contains 18 electrons.

Periodic Classification Of Elements Exercise Question 8.
Write the names from the description.
a. The period with electrons in the shells, K, L and M.
Answer:
Third period.

b. The group with valency zero.
Answer:
Group 18.

c. The family of nonmetals having valency one.
Answer:
Halogen family.

d. The family of metals having valency one.
Answer:
Group 1.

e. The family of metals having valency two.
Answer:
Group 2.

f. The metalloids in the second and third periods.
Answer:
Boron, Silicon.

g. Nonmetals in the third period.
Answer:
Phosphorous, sulfur and chlorine and argon.

h. Two elements having valency 4.
Answer:
Carbon, silicon.

Project:
Do it your self.
1. Find out the applications of all the inert gases, prepare a chart and display it in the class.
2. Find out the properties and uses of group 1 and group 2 elements.
3. Find out the properties and uses of period 2 and period 3 elements.

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 16)

Science 1 Chapter 2 Periodic Classification Of Elements Question 1.
What are the types of matter?
Answer:
The types of matter are solid, liquid, gas and plasma.

Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Periodic Classification Of Elements Exercise Question 2.
what are the types of elements?
Answer:
The types of elements are metals, nonmetals and metalloids.

Periodic Classification Of Elements Class 10 Solutions Question 3.
What are the smallest particles of matter called?
Answer:
The smallest particles are called atoms.

Periodic Classification Of Elements Question 4.
what is the difference between the molecules of elements and compounds?
Answer:

Elements contain only one kind of atoms in the free state or combined state.
An element cannot be decomposed into simple substances by any chemical reaction or simple physical process, e.g. copper, iron, oxygen.
A compound is produced by a chemical reaction of two or more elements.
The constituents of a compound can be separated by a chemical process, e.g. salt, water and sugar.

Can you tell? (Text Book Page No.16)

Identify Dobereiner’s triads from the following groups of elements having similar chemical properties:
(i) Mg (24.3), Ca (40.1), Sr (87.6)
(ii) S (32.1), Se (79.0), Te (127.6)
(iii) Be (9.0), Mg (24.3), Ca (40.1)
Answer:
Dobereiner’s triads
(i) S (32.1), Se (79.0), Te (127.6)
(ii) Be (9.0), Mg (24.3), Ca (40.1)

Use your brain power! (Text Book Page No. 20)

Class 10 Periodic Classification Of Elements Solutions Question 1.
write the molecular formulae of oxides of the following elements by referring to the Mendeleev’s periodic table. Na, Si, C, Rb, P, Ba, Cl, Sn.
Answer:

Elements	Oxides of Elements
Na	Na₂O Sodium oxide
Si	SiO₂ Silicon oxide
C	CO₂ Carbon dioxide
Rb	Rb₂O Rubidium oxide(yellow solid)
P	P₂O₅ Phosphorous pentaoxide
Ba	BaO Barium oxide
Cl	Cl₂O Chlorine monoxide
Sn	SnO₂ Tin oxide(stannic oxide)

Periodic Classification Of Elements Class 10 Question 2.
Write the molecular formulae of the compounds of the following elements with hydrogen by referring to the Mendeleev’s periodic table. C, S, Br, AS, F, O, N, Cl.
Answer:

Elements	Compounds (with hydrogen)
C	CH₄ Methane
S	H₂S Hydrogen sulphide
Br	HBr Hydrogen bromide
As	AsH₃ Arsine
F	HF Hydrogen fluoride
O	H₂O Water
N	NH₃ Ammonia
Cl	HCl Hydrogen chloride

Can you tell? (Text Book Page No. 22)

Periodic Classification Of Elements Class 10 Question And Answers Question 1.
Go through the modern periodic table and write the names one below the other of the elements of group 1.
Answer:

Periodic Classification Of Elements Class 10 Short Notes Question 2.
Write the electronic configuration of first four elements in this group.
Answer:

Elements	Electronic configuration
Hydrogen	1
Lithium	2, 1
Sodium	2, 8, 1
Potassium	2, 8, 8, 1

Periodic Classification Of Elements Solutions Question 3.
Which similarity do you find in their configuration?
Answer:
The similarity is observed in valence electrons of these elements. The valence electron in these elements is one.

10th Science Part 1 Chapter 2 Periodic Classification Of Elements Question 4.
How many valence electrons are there in each of these elements?
Answer:
There is one valence electron in all these elements.

Can you tell? (Text Book Page No. 23)

Question 1.
On going through the modern periodic table it is seen that the elements Li, Be, B, C, N, O, F and Ne belong to the period-2. write down electronic configuration of all or them.
Answer:

Elements	Electronic configuration
Li	2, 1
Be	2, 2
B	2, 3
C	2, 4
N	2, 5
O	2, 6
F	2, 7
Ne	2, 8

Question 2.
Is the number of valence electrons same for all these elements?
Answer:
The number of valence electrons is different for all these elements.

Question 3.
Is the number of shells the same in these?
Answer:
The number of shells is the same.

Can you tell? (Text Book Page No. 24)

Question 1.
The elements in the third period, namely, Na, Mg, Al, Si, P, S, Cl and Ar have electrons in the three shells, K, L, M. Write down the electronic configuration of these elements.
Answer:

Elements	K Shell	L Shell	M Shell	Electronic configuration
Na	2	8	1	2, 8, 1
Mg	2	8	2	2, 8, 2
Al	2	8	3	2, 8, 3
Si	2	8	4	2, 8, 4
P	2	8	5	2, 8, 5
S	2	8	6	2, 8, 6
Cl	2	8	7	2, 8, 7
Ar	2	8	8	2, 8, 8

(Think about it) (Text Book Page No.19)

Question 1.
There are some vacant places in Mendeleev’s periodic table. In some of these places, the atomic masses are seen to be predicted. Enlist three of these predicted atomic masses along with their group and period.
Answer:

Atomic mass	Group	Period
44	III	4
72	IV	5
100	VII	6

Question 2.
Due to uncertainty in the names of some of the elements, a question mark is indicated before the symbol in the Mendeleev’s period table. What are such symbols?
Answer:
Symbols : Yt, Di, Ce, Er, La.

Use your brain power! (Text Book Page No. 19)

Question 1.
Chlorine has two isotopes, viz. cl-35 and Cl-37. Their atomic masses are 35 and 37 respectively. Their chemical properties are same. where should these be placed in Mendeleev’s periodic table? In different places or in the same place?
Answer:
The arrangement of elements is done on the basis of atomic mass. Since the atomic masses of chlorine (isotopes) are different i.e. 35 and 37, they should be kept in different places in Mendeleev’s periodic table.

Use your brain power! (Text Book Page No.21)

Question 1.
How is the problem regarding the position of cobalt (₅₉CO) and nickel (₅₉Ni) in Mendeleev’s periodic table resolved in modern periodic table?
Answer:
Mendeleev arranged the elements in their increasing order of atomic masses. But some elements with higher atomic masses are placed before those having lower atomic masses, e.g. cobalt (CO) with atomic mass 58.93 is placed before nickel (Ni) having atomic mass 58.71. Moderm periodic table was prepared on the basis of the atomic number of elements. The atomic number of CO is 27 and that of Ni is 28. So nickel is placed after cobalt.

Question 2.
How thd the position of ${ }_{17}^{35} \mathrm{Cl}$ get fixed in the modern periodic table?
Answer:
In Mendeleev’s periodic table, the difference between atomic masses of two consecutive elements is not the same ³⁵Cl and ³⁵Cl. Moseley found out the atomic number of the elements. The atomic number of any element is increased by one unit (number) from the atomic number of subsequent element.

Isotopes ${ }_{17}^{35} \mathrm{Cl}$ and ${ }_{17}^{37} \mathrm{Cl}$ occupy the same position in the modern periodic table. Both isotopes have the same atomic number.

In the modern periodic table, the elements are arranged in the order of their increasing atomic numbers, that the problem of discrepancy in the pairs of isotopes elements observed in Mendeleev’s periodic table was solved. The isotopes of ${ }_{17}^{35} \mathrm{Cl}$ and ${ }_{17}^{37} \mathrm{Cl}$ were placed in the same group as both have the same atomic number.

Question 3.
Can there be an element with atomie mass 53 or 54 in between the two elements, chromium ${ }_{24}^{52} \mathrm{Cr}$ and manganese ${ }_{25}^{55} \mathrm{Mn}$?
Answer:
In Mendeleev’s periodic table, the difference between atomic masses of two consecutive elements is not the same (⁵²Cr and ⁵⁵Mn). Moseley found out the atomic number of the elements. The atomic number of any element is increased by one unit (number) from the atomic number of subsequent element. ${ }_{24}^{52} \mathrm{Cr} \rightarrow{ }_{25}^{55} \mathrm{Mn}$ that means in between two elements (Cr aind Mn), element with mass 53 or 54 do not exist.

Question 4.
what do you think? Should hydrogen be placed in the group 17 of halogens or group 1 of alkali metals in the modern periodic table?
Answer:
(1) Hydrogen is placed in group 1 and in group 17 as it resembles alkali metals as well as halogens. Thus, no fixed position was given to hydrogen in Mendeleev’s periodic table.

(2) On the other hand, hydrogen easily donates the electron and forms a stable cation (H⁺), but it does not easily form a stable anion (H^–), hydride ion. Hence, it is better placed in group 1 rather than in group 17 in the modern periodic table.

Use your brain power! (Text Book Page No. 24)

Question 1.
The elements in the second period : Li, Be, B, C, N, O, F and Ne have electrons in the two shells K and L. Write down the electronic configuration of these elements.
Answer:

Element	Electronic configuration
Element	K shell	L shell
Li	2	1
Be	2	2
B	2	3
C	2	4
N	2	5
O	2	6
F	2	7
Ne	2	8 Octet complete

Question 2.
The elements in the third period: Na, Mg, Al, Si, P, S, Cl and Ar have electrons in the third shell K, L and M. write down the electronic configuration of these elements.
Answer:

Elements	K Shell	L Shell	M Shell	Electronic configuration
Na	2	8	1	2, 8, 1
Mg	2	8	2	2, 8, 2
Al	2	8	3	2, 8, 3
Si	2	8	4	2, 8, 4
P	2	8	5	2, 8, 5
S	2	8	6	2, 8, 6
Cl	2	8	7	2, 8, 7
Ar	2	8	8	2, 8, 8

Think about it (Text Book Page No. 24)

Question 1.
what is the relationship between the electronic configuration of an element and its valency?
Answer:
The valency of an element is determined by the number of electrons in the outermost shell.

Question 2.
The atomic number or beryllium is 4. while that of oxygen is 8. Write down the electronic configuration of the two and deduce the valency from the same.
Answer:

Element	Atomic number	Electronic configuration	Valency
Beryllium	4	2, 2	2
Oxygen	8	2, 6	2

Question 3.
The table given below is based on modern periodic table. write in it the electronic configuration of the first 20 elements below the symbol and write the valency (as shown in a separate box)
Answer:
Group

Question 4.
what is the periodic trend in the variation of valency while going from left to right within a period? Explain your answer with reference to period 2 and period 3.
Answer:

(1) In a period, change in valency of an element varies electronic configuration. The number of valence electrons is different in these elements. However, the number of shells is the same.
(2) In a period, while going from left to right, the atomic number increases by one at a time and the number of valence electrons also increases by one at a time.
(3) In periods 2 and 3, while going from left to right, valency varies.

Elements	Li	Be	B	C	N	O	F	Ne
Valancy	1	2	3	4	3	2	1	0

Elements	Na	Mg	Al	Si	P	S	Cl	Ar
Valancy	1	2	3	4	3	2	1	0

Question 5.
What is the periodic trend in the variation of valency while going down a group?
Explain your answer with reference to the group 1, group 2 and group 18.
Answer:

(1) The valency of an element is determined by the number of valence electron in the outermost shell of an atom of an element.

(2) All the elements in a group have the same number of valence elements. Therefore, elements in the same group should have the same valency. For example, the elements of group 1 (H, Li, Na, K etc.) contain only one valence electron. the valency of elements of group 1 is one. Similarly for group 2, (Be, Mg, Ca) contain two valence electrons, the valency of elements of group 2 is two.

(3) The elements of group 18 1 (Ne, Ar) contain 8 electrons (exception, Helium contain 2 electrons). Since the octet is completed their valency is zero.

Use your brain power! (Text Book Page No. 25)

Element	K	Na	Rb	Cs	Li
Atomic radius (pm)	231	186	244	264	152

Question 1.
By referring to the modern periodic table find out the groups to which above the elements belong.
Answer:
The above elements belong to group 1.

Question 2.
Arrange the above elements vertically downwards in an increasing order of atomic radii.
Answer:
The above elements arranged vertically downward in an increasing order or atomic radii:

Li	Na	K	Rb	Cs
152	186	231	244	262

Question 3.
Does this arrangement match with the pattern of the group 1 of the modern periodic table?
Answer:
This arrangement match with the pattern of the group 1 of the modern periodic table in an increasing order of atomic radii.

Question 4.
Which of the above elements have the biggest and the smallest atom?
Answer:
The biggest atom : Cs
The smallest atom : Li

Question 5.
What is the periodic trend observed in the variation of atomic radii down a group?
Answer:
while going down a group, atomic number increases, atomic radius increases. Therefore atomic size gradually increases.

Use your brain power! (Text Book Page No. 26)

Question 1.
Look at the elements of third period. Classify them Into metals and nonmetals.
Answer:
Third row: Na, Mg, Al, Si, P, S, Cl, Ar
Metals: Na, Mg, Al
Nonmetals: P, S, Cl, Ar

Question 2.
On which side of the period are the metals? Left or right?
Answer:
Left side of the period are the metals.

Question 3.
On which side of the period did you find the nonmetals?
Answer:
Right side of the period are the nonmetals.

(Use your brain power !) (Text Book Page No. 27)

Question 1.
What is the cause of non-metallic character of elements?
Answer:
The tendency of an element to form anion or electronegativity is the nonmetallic character of element.

Question 2.
what is the expected trend in the variation of nonmetallic character of elements from left to right in a period?
Answer:
In a period, as the atomic number increases from left to right, electronegativity increases, non-metallic character increases. This is due to a decrease in the atomic size.

Question 3.
What would be the expected trend in the variation of nonmetallic character of elements down a group?
Answer:
In a group as the atomic number increases, electropositivity increases while electronegativity decreases, nonmetallic character decreases.

Full in the blanks:

Question 1.
Using Dobereiner’s law of triads, find the missing number.

Answer:
Using Dobereiner’s law or triads, the missing number is

Question 2.
In the Mendeleev’s periodic table, properties of elements are periodic function of their ……..
Answer:
In the Mendeleev’s periodic table, properties of elements are periodic function of their atomic masses.

Question 3.
The vertical columns in the Mendeleev’s periodic table are called …….
Answer:
The vertical columns in the Mendeleev’s periodic table are called groups.

Question 4.
Eka-aluminium is called ……..
Answer:
Eka-aluminium is called gallium

Question 5.
Zero group elements are called ……..
Answer:
Zero group elements are called noble gases.

Question 6.
In the modern periodic table, the elements are the periodic functions of ……..
Answer:
In the modern periodic table, the elements are the periodic functions of atomic numbers.

Question 7.
The d-block elements are called ……..
Answer:
The d-block elements are called transition elements.

Question 8.
The group …….. contains the members of the halogen family.
Answer:
The group 17 halogen the members of the halogen family.

Question 9.
…….. is the distance between the nucleus of the atom and its outermost shell.
Answer:
Atomic radius is the distance between the nucleus of the atom and its outermost shell.

Question 10.
The number of electrons in an atom is equal to the same of ……..
Answer:
The number of electrons in an atom is equal to the same of atomic number.

Question 11.
Henry Moseley shows that the atomic number (Z) of an element corresponds to the positive charge on the nucleus or the number of ………
Answer:
Henry Moseley showed that the atomic number (Z) of an element corresponds to the positive charge on the nucleus or the number of protons.

Question 12.
The ……. block contains the group 1 and 2.
Answer:
The s-block contains the group 1 and 2.

Question 13.
The elements are arranged in such a way that …… are on left side of zig-zag line and …….. on the right side.
Answer:
The elements are arranged in such a way that metals are on left side or zig-zag line and nonmetals on the right side.

Choose the correct option and rewrite the statement:

Question 1.
which of the following ti-lads does not follow Dobereirier’s law of triads?
(a) Li, Na, K
(b) Ca, Sr, Ba
(c) Be, Mg, Ca
(d) Cu, Ag, Au
Answer:
(d) Cu, Ag, Au

Question 2.
During Newlands time …….. elements were known.
(a) 56
(b) 65
(c) 63
(d) 36
Answer:
(a) 56

Question 3.
Halogens belong to group …….. in the modern periodic table.
(a) 15
(b) 16
(c) 17
(d) 18
Answer:
(c) 17

Question 4.
Noble gases belong to group …….. in modern periodic table.
(a) 15
(b) 16
(c) 17
(d) 18
Answer:
(d) 18

Question 5.
The law of octaves was given by ……..
(a) Dobereiner
(b) Newlands
(c) Mendeleev
(d) Moseley
Answer:
(b) Newlands

Question 6.
Eka-boron was subsequently named as ……..
(a) gallium
(b)germanium
(C) scandium
(d) molybdenum
Answer:
(C) scandium

Question 7.
The halogen which is liquid at room temperature is ……… (Practice 4ctivity Sheet — 3)
(a) fluorine
(b) astatine
(C) bromine
(d) iodine
Answer:
(C) bromine

Question 8.
……… is used in balloons and in scuba diving.
(a) Helium
(b) Oxygen
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Ozone
Answer:
(a) Helium

State whether the following statements are True or False. Rewrite the correct statement:

Question 1.
Newlands was the first to classify elements having similar chemical properties into groups
of three.
Answer:
False. (Dobereiner was the first to classify elements having similar chemical properties into groups of three.)

Question 2.
Dobereiner named the group of elements having similar properties as Triads.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Dobereiner stated the law of octet.
Answer:
False. (Doberemer stated the law of triads.)

Question 4.
Newlands stated the law of triads.
Answer:
False. (Newlands stated the law of octaves.)

Question 5.
Eka-aluminium was later named as germanium.
Answer:
False. (Eka-aluminium was later named as gallium.)

Question 6.
Mendeleev’s periodic table is more useful because it gives information about known and unknown elements.
Answer:
True.

Question 7.
Mendeleev arranged elements in the increasing order of their atomic masses.
Answer:
True.

Question 8.
Mendeleev was the first who successfully classified all known elements.
Answer:
True.

Question 9.
In the modern periodic table, properties of the elements are a periodic function of their atomic numbers.
Answer:
True.

Question 10.
The d-block elements are called transition elements.
Answer:
True.

Question 11.
There are 7 periods in the long form of the periodic table.
Answer:
True.

Question 12.
Elements are classified on the basis of their atomic numbers.
Answer:
False. (Elements are classified on the basis of their electronic configuration.)

Question 13.
The chemical properties of the elements in the same group show similarity.
Answer:
True.

Question 14.
Lanthanides and actinides are also called the d-block elements.
Answer:
False. (Lanthanides and actinides are also called the f-block elements.)

Question 15.
All the elements of a group have the same number of valence electrons.
Answer:
True.

Question 16.
In a period, atomic sizes increases from left to right.
Answer:
False. (In a period, atomic size decreases from left to right.)

Question 17.
In a period, the metallic character increases from left to right.
Answer:
False. (In a period. the metallic character decreases from left to right.)

Question 18.
In a group, the metallic character decreases from top to bottom.
Answer:
False. (In a group, the metallic character increases from top to bottom.)

Question 19.
The zig-zag line separates the metals from nonmetals in the periodic table i.e. metals are on the left side and nonmetals are on the right side.
Answer:
True.

By observing the correlation in the first pair, complete the second pair:

Question 1.
Dobereiner : Triad : : Newlands law :………
Answer:
Octaves

Question 2.
Mendeleev’s periodic table : Atomic mass :: Modern periodic table :……..
Answer:
Atomic number

Question 3.
Group-1 : Alkali metals: :…….: Halogens.
Answer:
Group 17

Question 4.
Solid : Iodine : : …….. : Bromine.
Answer:
Liquid

Question 5.
Chlorine : 2, 8, 7 :: Fluorine : ……..
Answer:
2, 7

Question 6.
Horizontal row Periods : :…….: Groups.
Answer:
Vertical columns

Find the odd one out and give reasons:

Question 1.
Newlands, Moseley, Dobereiner, Mendeleev.
Answer:
Moseley. (Moseley brought out the importance of atomic number, while the other tried to classify the elements on the basis or atomic mass.)

Question 2.
Fluorine, Sulphur. Bromine, Iodine.
Answer:
Sulfur. (Others are halogens.)

Question 3.
Sodium, Aluminium, Chlorine, Carbon.
Answer:
Carbon. (Carbon belongs to the second row, while the others belong to the third row.)

Question 4.
Nitrogen, Neon, Argon, Helium.
Answer:
Nitrogen. (The others are inert gases.)

Match the columns:

Question 1.

Column I	Column II
(1) Modern periodic table	(a) Group 17
(2) Vertical columns	(b) Period 2
(3) Halogen	(c) Atomic number
(4) Smallest period	(d) Group
	(e) Period 3

Answer:
(1) Modern periodic table – Atomic number
(2) Vertical columns Group
(3) Halogen – Group 17
(4) Smallest period – Period 2.

Question 2.

Column I	Column II
(1) Dobereiner	(a) Atomic number
(2) New lands	(b) Triads
(3) Moseley	(c) Atomic mass
(4) Mendeleev	(d) Octaves
	(e) Sodium

Answer:
(1) Dobereiner – Triads
(2) Newlands – Octaves
(3) Moseley – Atomic number
(4) Mendeleev – Atomic mass.

Question 3.

Column I	Column II
(1) Eka-silicon	(a) Scandium
(2) Eka-boron	(b) Gallium
(3) Eka-aluminum	(c) Germanium
	(d) Cesium

Answer:
(1) Eka-silicon – Germanium
(2) Eka-boron – Scandium
(3) Eka-aluminium – Gallium.

Question 4.

Column I	Column II
(1) Noble gas	(a) 18 elements
(2) First period	(b) Eight elements
(3 ) Second period	(c) Two elements
(4) 3^rd period	(d) Helium
	(e) Six electrons in the last orbit

Answer:
(1) Noble gas – Helium
(2) First period – Two elements
(3) Second period – Eight elements
(4) 3^rd period – 18 elements.

Question 5.

Column I	Column II
(1) s-block elements	(a) Lanthanides and actinides
(2) p-block elements	(b) Groups 1, 2
(3) d-block elements	(c) Groups IIIA to VIIA and zero group
(4) f-block elements	(d) Groups 3 to 12
	(e) Zero group elements
	(f) Groups 13 to 18

Answer:
(1) s-block elements – Groups 1, 2
(2) p-block elements – Groups 13 to 18
(3) d-block elements – Groups 3 to 12
(4) f-block elements – Lanthanides and actinides.

Question 6.

Column I	Column II
(1) Helium	(a) Alkali metal
(2) Horizontal row	(b) Alkaline earth metal
(3) Group I	(c) Period
(4) Group II	(d) Zero group
	(e) Metalloid

Answer:
(1) Helium – Zero group
(2) Horizontal row – Period
(3) Group I – Alkali metal
(4) Group II – Alkaline earth metal.

Write the names from the description:

Question 1.
The period with electrons In the shells K, L and M.
Answer:
Third period.

Question 2.
The group with valency zero.
Answer:
Group 18.

Question 3.
The family of nonmetals having valency One.
Answer:
Halogen family.

Question 4.
The family of metals having valency two.
Answer:
Group 2.

Question 5.
The metalloids in the second and third period.
Answer:
Boron, silicon.

Question 6.
The family of metals having valency one.
Answer:
Group 1.

Question 7.
Nonmetals In the third period.
Answer:
Phosphorus, sulfur and chlorine, and argon.

Question 8.
Two elements having valency 4.
Answer:
Carbon. silicon.

Question 9.
First three noble gases.
Answer:
Helium, neon, and argon.

Name the following:

Question 1.
Horizontal rows In modern periodic table.
Answer:
Periods.

Question 2.
Two elements having a single electron in their outermost shell.
Answer:
Hydrogen, sodium.

Question 3.
Three elements with filled outermost shell.
Answer:

Helium
Neon
Argon.

Question 4.
Three elements having 7 electrons in their outermost shell.
Answer:

Fluorine
Chlorine
Bromine.

Question 5.
An alkali metal in period 2.
Answer:
Lithium.

Question 6.
An alkaline earth metal in period 3.
Answer:
Magnesium.

Question 7.
Halogen in period 3.
Answer:
Chlorine.

Question 8.
Three nonmetallic elements in period 2.
Answer:

Nitrogen
Oxygen
Fluorine.

Question 9.
The element with electronic configuration (2, 7).
Answer:
Fluorine.

Question 10.
The elements in periods 2 and 3 having stable electronic configuration.
Answer:

Neon
Argon.

Question 11.
The three metals in the third period of the modern periodic table.
Answer:

Sodium
Magnesium
Aluminum.

Answer the following questions: (Practice Activity Sheet – 3)
An element has its electron configuration as 2,8,8,2.

Question 1.
What is the atomic number of this element?
Answer:
The atomic number of this element is 20.

Question 2.
what is the group of this element?
Answer:
The group of this element is 2.

Question 3.
To which period does this element belong?
Answer:
The element belongs to period 4.

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question 1.
In Dobereiner’s triad containing L, Na, K, if atomic masses of 1ithium and potassium are 6.9 and 39.1, then what will be the atomic mass of sodium? (Practice Activity Sheet – 3) (March 2019)
Answer:
The atomic mass of sodium is the average of the atomic masses or Li and K i.e., $\frac{6.9+39.1}{2}$ = 23.

Question 2.
who was the first scientist to prepare the periodic table?
Answer:
Mendeleev was the first scientist to prepare the periodic table.

Question 3.
State the number of groups and periods in the modern periodic table.
Answer:
There are 18 groups and 7 periods in the modern periodic table.

Question 4.
How many elements are there in the second and the third periods of the periodic table?
Answer:
There are eight elements in the second and the third periods of the periodic table.

Question 5.
State the number of elements in the shortest period.
Answer:
There are two elements in the shortest (first period) period.

Question 6.
State the number of elements in the modern periodic table.
Answer:
There are 118 elements in the modern periodic table.

Question 7.
which column is known as the zero group in the modern periodic table?
Answer:
The last column, i.e. 18th column on the right side of the modern periodic table is known as the zero group in the modern periodic table.

Question 8.
which group elements have seven electrons in the outermost shell?
Answer:
Group 17 elements have seven electrons in the outermost shell.

Question 9.
How many electrons are there in the outermost shell of group 2 elements?
Answer:
There are 2 electrons in the outermost shell of group 2 elements.

Question 10.
How many electrons are there in the outermost shell of group 18 elements?
Answer:
There are 8 electrons mn the outermost shell or group 18 elements, except He, which has 2 electrons.

Question 11.
which block or the modern periodic table separates metals and nonmetals with the help of zig-zag line?
Answer:
p-block of the modern periodic table separates metals and nonmetals with the help of zig-zag line.

Question 12.
Name an alkali metal in the second period.
Answer:
Lithium is an alkali metal in the second period.

Question 13.
Name the halogen in the second period.
Answer:
Fluorine is the halogen in the second period.

Question 14.
Name a metalloid in the third period.
Answer:
Silicon is a metalloid in the third period.

Question 15.
Name the group to which sodium and lithium belong.
Answer:
Sodium and 1ithium belong to group IA or the periodic table.

Question 16.
Name the group to which magnesium and calcium belong.
Answer:
Magnesium and calcium belong to group IIA of the periodic table.

Question 17.
Name the group to which the most reactive metals belong.
Answer:
The most reactive metals belong to group IA.

Question 18.
Name the element having one shell and one valence electron.
Answer:
Hydrogen has one shell and one valence electron.

Question 19.
How many valence electrons are there in the outermost shell of silicon?
Answer:
There are four valence electrons present in the outermost shell of silicon.

Question 20.
State the electronic configuration of nitrogen and phosphorus.
Answer:
Electronic configuration of nitrogen (N) : 2, 5.
Electronic configuration of phosphorus (P) : 2, 8, 5.

Question 21.
write the electronic configuration: ₁₃Al (Practice Activity Sheet – 1)
Answer:
Electronic configuration of ₁₃Al : 2, 8, 3

Question 22.
Name the group containing highly reactive nonmetals only.
Answer:
Group 17 contains highly reactive non-metals, namely, fluorine, chlorine, bromine, and iodine.

Question 23.
Name the last three elements of the second period in increasing order of atomic number.
Answer:
The last three elements of the second period in increasing order of atomic number are oxygen, fluorine, and neon.

Question 24.
Name the three nonmetals in the second period of the modern periodic table.
Answer:
The three nonmetals in the second period of the modern periodic table are nitrogen, oxygen, and fluorine.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
State Doberelner’s law of triads giving one example.
Answer:
Dobereiner made groups of three elements each, having similar chemical properties and called them triads. He arranged the three elements in a triad in an increasing order of atomic mass and showed that the atomic mass of the middle element was approximately equal to the mean or the atomic masses of the other two elements.
Examples : Lithium (Li), Sodiun (Na), Potassium (K) form Dobereiner’s triad.

Question 2.
Give a suitable illustration of Dobereiner’s law of triads.
Answer:
(1) Lithium, sodium, and potassium form Doberemer’s triad. They show similar chemical properties. Their atomic masses are as follows:

Element	Li	Na	K
Atomic mass	6.9	23	39.1

According to Dobereiner’s law or triads, the atomic mass of the middle element is approximately the arithmetic mean of the atomic masses of the other two elements.
$\frac{6.9+39.1}{2}$ which is approximately the 23.0 atomic mass of sodium.
Thus. the atomic mass of sodium (23) is the average of the atomic masses or lithium (6.9) and potassium 39.1.

(2) Another triad of elements: Calcium (40.1), strontium (87.6) and barium (137.3).

Question 3.
(A, B, C) is a Dobereiner’s triad. complete the following chart and give reason for the answer:

Element	A	B	C
Atomic mass	10.08	12.01	…

Answer:

Element	A	B	C
Atomic mass	10.08	12.01	13.94

Let the atomic mass of C be x. As (A, B, C) is a Dobereiner’s triad, $\frac{x+10.08}{2}$ = 12.01
∴ x = 24.02 – 10.08 = 13.94
∴ atomic mass of C = 13.94.

Question 4.
From the following set of the elements and their atomic masses obtain Dobereiner’s triad:

Element	Br	K	I	Cl
Atomic mass	35.5	79.9	126.9	35.5

Answer:
Among the given four elements, the three elements in the increasing order of atomic masses and having similar properties are

Element	Br	K	I
Atomic mass	35.5	79.9	126.9

Hence, the above three elements represent Dobereiner’s triad.

Question 5.
State the limitations of Dobereiner’s law of triads.
Answer:

During Dobereiner’s period, all elements were not known and also atomic mass was not known accurately.
Dobereiner discovered few triads among all the elements.
He could not classify aul known elements into triads.

Question 6.
State Newlands’ law of octaves.
Answer:
When the elements are arranged in an increasing order of their atomic masses, the properties of the eighth element are similar to those of the first.
It is found that Na is the eighth element from Li and both of them have similar properties.

Question 7.
Illustrate Newlands’ law of octaves with a suitable example.
Answer:
(1) Newlands’ law of octaves states that when the elements are arranged in the order of their increasing atomic masses, every eighth element has properties similar to those of the first.

(2) Illustration: If the first 21 elements, except inert gases, are arranged in the order of their increasing atomic masses we have octaves as given below:

H	Li	Be	B	C	N	O
F	Na	Mg	Al	Si	P	S
Cl	K	Ca	Cr	Ti	Mn	Fe

It is found that Na is the eighth element from Li and both of them have similar properties. Similarly, the elements, in the following pairs show similar properties: C and Si, Na and K, Mg and Ca, F and Cl.

Question 8.
Explain the limitations of Newlands’ law of octaves.
Answer:
(1) Newlands’ law of octaves i.e. applicable to only the first few elements i.e., only up to calcium out of total 56 elements known at that time.

(2) Newlands placed two elements each in some boxes to accommodate all known elements e.g. CO and Ni, Ce and La. He placed some elements with different properties under the same note in the octave. For example, Co and Ni under the note Do along with halogens, while Fe having similarity with CO and Ni away from them along with the nonmetals O and S under the note Ti.

(3) Newland’s octaves did not have provision to accommodate the newly discovered elements.

Question 9.
Describe the merits of Mendeleev’s periodic table. (March 2019)
Answer:
(1) To give the proper place in the periodic table, atomic masses of some elements were revised in accordance with their properties. For example, the previously determined atomic mass or beryllium, 14.09, was changed to the correct value 9.4, and beryllium was placed before boron.

(2) Mendeleev had kept some vacant places in the periodic table for elements that were yet to be discovered. Three of these unknown elements were given the names eka-boron, eka-aluminum and eka-silicon from the known neighbors and their atomic masses were indicated as 44, 68 and 72, respectively. Their properties were also predicted.

Later on, these elements were discovered subsequently and were named as scandium (SC), gallium (Ga) and germanium (Ge) respectively. The properties of these elements matched well with those predicted by Mendeleev. Due to this success all were convinced about the importance of Mendeleev’s periodic table.

(3) There was no place reserved for noble gases in Mendeleev’s original periodic table. when noble gases such as helium, neon and argon were discovered, Mendeleev created the ‘zero group’ without disturbing the original periodic table in which the noble gases were placed very well.

Question 10.
What are the demerits of Mendeleev’s periodic table?
Answer:
(1) The elements cobalt (CO) and nickel (Ni) have the same whole number atomic mass. As a remit there was an ambiguity regarding their sequence in Mendeleev’s periddic table.

(2) Isotopes were discovered long time after Mendeleev put forth the periodic table. A challenge was posed in placing isotopes in Mendeleev’s periodic table as isotopes have the same chemical properties but different atomic masses.

(3) The rise in atomic mass does not appear to be uniform when elements are arranged in an increasing order of atomic masses. It was not possible, therefore, to predict how many elements could be discovered between two heavy elements.

(4) Position of hydrogen: Hydrogen shows similarity with halogens (group VII). For example, the molecular formula of hydrogen is H₂ while the molecular formulae of fluorine and chlorine are F₂ and Cl₂, respectively. In the same way, there is a similarity in the chemical properties of hydrogen and alkali metals (group I). There is a similarity in the molecular formulae of the compounds of hydrogen alkali metals (Na, K, etc.) formed with chlorine and oxygen. On considering the above properties it is difficult to decide the correct position of hydrogen whether it is in the group of alkali metals (group I) or in the group of halogens (group VII).

Compounds Of H	Compounds Of Na
HCl	NaCl
H₂O	Na₂O
H₂S	Na₂S

Similarly in hydrogen and alkali metals.

Element (Molecular formula)	Compounds with metals	Compounds with non-metals
H₂	NaH	CH₄
Cl₂	NaCl	CCl₄

Question 11.
write a short note on: Moseley’s contribution and the modern periodic table.
Answer:
The English scientist Henry Moseley demonstrated, with the help of the experiments done using X-ray tube, that the atomic number (Z) of an element corresponds to the positive charge on the nucleus or the number of the protons in the nucleus of the atom or that element. He suggested that ‘atomic number’ is more. fundamental property of an element rather than its atomic mass. On the basis of this research, elements were arranged in the order of their increasing atomic numbers in a more systematic way. Accordingly, the statement of the modern periodic law was stated.

Question 12.
State the modern periodic law.
Answer:
The chemical and physical properties of elements are a periodic function of their atomic numbers.

Question 13.
what is meant by modern periodic table?
Answer:
The classification of elements resulting from an arrangement of the elements in an increasing order of their atomic numbers (Z) is the modern periodic table.

Question 14.
write the answers to the questions with reference to the structure of the periodic table.

(a) Which points are considered for the modern periodic table?
(b) How are blocks indicated?
(c) Which elements are present near the zig-zag line?
(d) Draw the electronic configuration of the second-row elements of first group in the periodic table.
(e) In a periodic table while going from left to right atomic radius decreases. Explain. (Practice Activity Sheet – 1)
Answer:
(a) In the modern periodic table, the elements are arranged in the order of their increasing atomic number. In the modern periodic table there are seven horizontal rows called periods and eighteen vertical columns (1to 18) called groups. The arrangement of the periods and groups results into formation of boxes. Atomic numbers are serially indicated in the upper part of these boxes.

(b) On the basis of the electronic configuration, the elements in the modern periodic table are divided into four blocks, viz. s-block, p-block and f-clock, The s-block constitutes the groups 1 and 2. Groups 13 to 18 constitute the p-block. Groups 3 to 12 constitute the d-block, while the lanthanide and actinide series at the bottom form the f-block. The d-block elements are called transition elements. A zig-zag line is shown in the p-block of the periodic table.

(c) The zig-zag line shows the three traditional types of elements, i.e. metals, nonmetals and metalloids. The metalloid elements lie along the border of the zig-zag line. All the metals lie on the left side of the zig-zag line while all the nonmetals lie on the right side.

(d) The electronic configuration of the second row elements of the first group in the periodic table is shown below:

(e) (1) In a period while going from left to right, atomic radius goes on decreasing and the atomic number goes on increasing one by one. It means the positive charge on the nucleus increases by one unit at a time.

(2) However, the additional electron gets added to the same outermost shell. Due to the increased nuclear charge the electrons are pulled towards the nucleus to a greater extent. As a result, the size of the atom decreases i.e. the atomic radius decreases.

Question 15.
Observe the figure and answer the following questions.

(a) Identify the block shown by box A and write an electronic configuration of any one element of this block.
(b) Identify the block of element denoted by letter B and write its period number. (Practice Activity Sheer – 3)
Answer:
(a) The block shown by box A is the s-block.
Electronic configuration of Mg: 2, 8, 2.

(b) The block of element denoted by letter B is the d-block and its period number is 4.

Question 16.
Give two examples of metalloids.
Answer:
Metalloids: Boron (B) and Silicon (Si).

Question 17.
write a short note on the zig-zag line in the modern periodic table.
Answer:

A zig-zag line is shown in the p-block of the periodic table.
The zig-zag 1ine shows the three traditional types of elements is metals, nonmetals and metalloids.
The metalloid elements lie along the border or this zig-zag line.
All the metals lie on the left side of the zig-zag line.
All the nonmetal’s lie on the right side of the zig-zag line.

Question 18.
Classify the following elements into group 1, 16 and 17 :
Chlorine, Hydrogen, Oxygen: Bromine.
Answer:
Group 1 : Hydrogen.
Group 16 : Oxygen.
Group 17 : Chlorine and Bromine.

Question 19.
Classify the following elements into Alkali metals, Halogens, Alkaline earth metals:
(Cl^– Br^– I^–), (Ca, Sr, Mg), (Li, Na, K).
Answer:
Alkali metals : (Li, Na, K)
Halogens : (Cl^– Br^– I^–).
Alkaline earth metals : (Ca, Sr, Mg).

Question 20.
Classify the following elements into Metals, Nonmetals, Metalloids :
(P, C, N), (Ca, Fe, Al), (Si, Ge, Sn), (K. Mg, Na).
Answer:
Metals : (Ca, Fe, Al), (K, Mg, Na).
Nonrnetals : (P, C, N).
Metalloids : (Si, Ge, Sn).

Question 21.
Identiry the electronic configuration of the Inert gas elements, third row elements, seventeen group elements, second group elements:
(i) (2, 8, 2), (ii) (2, 8, 8), (iii) (2, 8, 1), (iv) (2, 7), (v) (2, 2), (vi) (2, 8), (vii) (2, 8, 7).
Answer:
Inert gas elements : (2, 8, 8), (2, 8).
Third row elements : (2, 8, 2), (2, 8, 7), (2, 8, 8).
Second group elements : (2, 8, 2), (2, 2).
Seventeen group elements : (2, 7), (2, 8, 7).

[Note: (1) The outermost shell of all noble gases contain 8 electrons (except He). (2) Atoms or all 3^rd row elements contain 3 shells. Out of which first shell contains 2 and 2^nd shell contains 8 electrons. (3) The elements of group 17 contains 7 electrons in the outermost shell. (4) The elements or group 2 contains 2 electrons in the outermost shell.]

Question 22.
Define : (i) Group (ii) Period.
Answer:
(i) Group : The vertical column of elements in the periodic table or elements is called a group.
(ii) Period : The horizontal row bf the elements in the periodic able of the elements is called a period.

Question 23.
write the numbers of vertical columns (groups) and horizontal rows (periods) in the long form of the periodic table.
Answer:
There are 18 vertical columns or groups and seven horizontal rows or periods of the elements in the long form of the periodic table.

Question 24.
Depending on electronic configuration the properties of the elements vary in different groups. Explain why?
Answer:
(1) There are 18 vertical columns in the modern periodic table and are called groups. These groups are 1 and 2, 13 to 18 and 3 to 12.

(2) The number of valence electrons in all these elements from the group 1, i.e., the family of alkali metals, is the same. Similarly, the elements from any other group, the number of their valence electrons to be the same. For example, the elements beryllium (Be), magnesium (Mg) and calcium (Ca) belong to the group 2, i.e. the family of alkaline earth metals. There are two electrons in their outermost shell the number of valence electrons are 2.

Similarly, there are seven electrons in the outermost shell of the elements such as fluorine (F) and chlorine (Cl) from the group 17, i.e. the family of halogens the number of valence electron is 1. As a result, all elements belonging to the same group have the same valence electrons and show similar chemical properties.

(3) while going from top to bottom within any group, one electronic shell is added at a time. Atomic radius and atomic size increases and hence shows gradation of properties of the elements down the group. From this, the electronic configuration of the outermost shell is characteristic of a particular group.

Question 25.
Depending on electronic configuration the properties of elements vary in different periods. Explain why?
Answer:
(1) In the modern periodic table, there are seven horizontal rows called periods.

(2) In a period, change in valency of an elements varies electronic configuration.

(3) The number of valence electrons is different in these elements. However, the number of shells is the same. In a period, while going from left to right, the atomic number increases by one at a time and the number of valence electrons also increases by one at a time. In a period, there is gradation in properties of elements.

(4) The elements with the same number of shells occupied by electrons belong to the same period. The elements in the second period, namely, Li, Be, B, C, N, O, F and Ne have electrons in the two shells, K and L. The elements in the third period, namely, Na, Mg, Al, Si, P, S, Cl, and Ar have electrons in the three shell6: K, L and M.

(5) The chemical reactivity of an element is determined by the number of valence electrons in it and the shell number of the valence shell. In a period, while going from left to right, the atomic number increases by one at a time as a result atomic radius gradually decreases. Hence, atomic size decreases.

Question 26.
What is meant by periodic trends in the modern periodic table?
Answer:
when the properties of elements in a period or a group of the modern periodic table are compared, certain regularity is observed in their variations. it is called the periodic trends in the modern periodic table. The periodic trends are observed in properties of elements, namely, valency, atomic size and metallic-nonmetallic character.

Question 27.
What is meant by valency?
Answer:
The valency of an element is determined the number of electrons present in the outermost shell of its atoms, i.e. valence electrons.

Question 28.
Define atomic size. How does it vary in a period and a group?
Answer:
(1) The distance between the centre of the atom and the outermost shell of the atom is called the atomic radius. The size of an atom is indicated by its radius. Atomic radius is expressed in unit picometre (pm). (1 pm = 10^-12 m). The size or atom depends on number of shells, more the number of shells larger is the atomic size.

(2) In a group, while going down a group the atomic size goes on increasing because while going down a group newer shells are successively added. This increases the distance between the outermost electron and the nucleus. Hence, the nuclear attraction on these electrons goes on decreasing. Thus in a group atomic size increases.

(3) while going from left to right within a period, atomic radius goes on decreasing and the atomic number goes on increasing one by one. The positive charge on the nucleus increases by one unit at a time. However, the additional electron gets added to the same outermost shell. Due to the increased nuclear charge, the electrons are pulled towards the nucleus to a greater extent, as a result, the size of the atom decreases.

Question 29.
Discuss the trends in the variation of metallic and nonmetallic properties In a period and in a group.
Answer:
(1) Metals have a tendency to loose the valence electrons to form cations having a stable noble gas configuration. This tendency of an element is called electropositivity is the metallic character of that element.

(2) Nonmetals have a tendency to accept the valence electrons to form anions having a stable noble gas configuration. This tendency of an element is called electronegativity is the nonmetallic character of that element.

(3) In a group, while going down a group a new shell is added, resulting in an increase in the distance between the nucleus and the valence electrons. This results in lowering the effective nuclear charge and thereby lowering the attractive force on the valence electrons. As a result of this the tendency of the atom to lose electrons increases.

Also, the penultimate shell becomes the outermost shell on losing valence electrons. The penultimate shell is a complete octet. Therefore, the resulting cation attains special stability. The metallic character of an atom is its tendency to lose electrons. Therefore, the following trend is observed: The metallic character of elements increases while going down the group.

(4) while going from left to right within a period the outermost shell remains the same. However, the positive charge on the nucleus goes on increasing while the atomic radius goes on decreasing and thus the effective nuclear charge goes on increasing. Therefore, valence electrons are held with greater attractive force. This is called electronegativity. As a result of this the tendency of atom to lose valence electrons decreases within a period from left to right, i.e., electronegativity increases. Thus, non-metallic character of elements increases within a period from left to right.

Question 30.
Name the elements, group, formulae and physical state belonging to the halogen family.
Answer:

Group	Elements	Formula	Physical state
17	Fluorine	F₂	Gas
	Chlorine	Cl₂	Gas
	Bromine	Br₂	Liquid
	Iodine	I₂	Solid

Question 31.
Considering the elements of period 3 in the moderm periodic table, answer the following questions:
(a) Name the ‘element’ in which all the shells are completely filled with electrons.Answer:
Answer:
The element in which all the shells are completely filled with electrons is argon. (2, 8, 8).

(b) Name the element which has one electron in the outermost shell.
Answer:
The element which has one electron in the outermost shell is sodium (2, 8, 1).

(c) State the most electronegative element in this period.
Answer:
The most electronegative element in this perod is chlorine (cl).

Question 32.
The atomic number of aluminium is 13. With the help of diagram, write the electronic configuration and valency.

Answer:
The electronic configuration aluminium = 2, 8, 3
The valency of aluminium = 3

Question 33.
Observe the following diagram and answer the following questions:

(i) Identify elements X and Y.
Answer:
An element X is Sodium (Na).
An element Y is Lithium (Li).

(ii) Do these elements belong to the same group? Explain.
Answer:
Yes, these elements belong to the same group as they have the same number of valence electrons.

(iii) which element is more electropositive in nature? Why?
Answer:
Element X is more electropositive than Y. This is because while going down the group, electropositivity increases with increase in atomic size.

Taking into consideration the period of the elements given below, answer the following questions: (March 2019)

Element	O	B	C	N	Be	Li
Atomic radius (pm)	66	68	77	74	111	152

Question 1.
Arrange the above elements in decreasing order of their atomic radii.
Answer:
The above elements are arranged in decreasing order of their atomic radii:

Li	Be	B	C	N	O
152	111	88	77	74	66

Question 2.
State the period to which the above elements belong.
Answer:
The above elements belong to period 2.

Question 3.
why this arrangement of elements is similar to the above period of the modern periodic table?
Answer:
As we move from left to right within a period, the atomic number increases one by one means the position charge on the nucleus increases by one unit at a time, but the electrons are added to the same orbit thereby increasing the pull towards the nucleus which decreases the size of the atom.

Question 4.
Which of the above elements have the biggest and the smallest atom?
Answer:
The biggest atom: Lithium (Li)
The smallest atom: Oxygen (O)

Question 5.
What is the periodic trend observed in the variation of atomic radius while going from left to right within a period?
Answer:
while going from left to right in a period, the atomic number increases, atomic radius decreases. Therefore, atomic size gradually decreases.

Write scientific reasons:

Question 1.
Zero group elements (inert gases) are called noble gases.
Answer:
(1) In the atoms of the inert gas elements (zero group elements), all the electronic shells, including the outermost shell, are completely filled.

(2) The electronic configuration is stable, and these elements do not lose or accept electrons. These elements do not take part in chemical reactions. These elements are gases. Hence, they are called noble gases.

Question 2.
while going down the second group, the reactivity of the alkaline earth metals increases.
Answer:
The reaction of alkaline earth metal with water is M + 2H₂O → M(OH)₂ + H₂. while going down the second group as Be → Mg → Ca → Sr → Ba, the gradation in this chemical property or the alkaline earth metals is seen. while going down the second group the reactivity of the alkaline earth metals goes on increasing thereby the ease with which this reaction takes place also goes on increasing.

Thus, Beryllium (Be) does not react with water. Mg (Magnesium) reacts with steam. whereas calcium (Ca), strontium (Sr) and barimm (Ba) reacts with water at room temperature with increasing rates.

Question 3.
Fluorine is the most reactive among the halogens.
Answer:

Fluorine has the electronic configuration (2, 7).
It requires only one electron to complete the octet.
The atomic size of fluorine is the smallest among the halogens. Hence, the nuclear attraction on the outermost electrons is maximum. Hence, fluorine is the most reactive among the halogens.

Question 4.
Sodium is more metallic than aluminium.
Answer:

Metals give electrons. Sodium has electronic configuration (2, 8, 1). It has only one electron in the outermost shell.
It can easily give a single electron in the outermost shell. Hence, Sodium is a strong metal.
Aluminium has an electronic configuration (2,8,3). It has three electrons in the outermost shell.
Donation of three electrons is more difficult than the donation of one electron. Hence, sodium is more metallic than aluminium.

Distinguish between the following:

Question .1
Mendaleev’s periodic table and Modern periodic table.
Answer:
Mendaleev’s periodic table:

In this table, the elements are arranged in the order of their increasing atomic weights
In this table, the position of an element is based on its properties and atomic weight.
There are 8 groups in this table.
In this table, some elements having similar properties are found in different groups, while those having different properties are sometimes found in the same group.
Isotopes do not find separate places in this table.

Modern periodic table:

In this table, the elements are arranged in the order of their increasing atomic number.
In this table, the position of an element, is based on its electronic configuration.
There are 18 groups in this table.
In this table, the elements belonging to the same group show similar chemical properties.
Isotopes of an element can be placed at the same place as their atomic number is the same.

Question 2.
Groups and periods
Answer:
Groups:

The vertical columns of elements in the modern periodic table are called groups.
The group number indicates the number of electrons in the outermost shell of an atom of an element belonging to that group.
The elements in the same group show similar chemical properties

periods:

The horizontal row of elements in the modern periodic table are called periods.
The period number indicates the number of electronic shells present in an atom of an element belonging to that period.
The elements in the same period do not show similar properties, but their chemical properties gradually change from left to right in a period.

Question 3.
s-block elements and p-block elements
Answer:
s-block elements:

The groups IA (1) and IIA (2) elements together with hydrogen constitute the s-block.
They have one or two electrons in the outermost shell.
The elements of the s-block, except hydrogen, are all metals.

p-block elements :

The group III A (13) – VII A (17) and the zero group (18) elements constitute the p-block.
They have three to eight electrons in the outermost shell.
The elements of the p-block include a few metals, all metalloids and all nonmetals.

10th Std Science Part 1 Questions And Answers:

Std 10 English Poem World Heritage 4.3 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

December 21, 2024December 20, 2024 by Prasanna

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 4.3 World Heritage Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 10 English Chapter 4.3 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

World Heritage Poem 10th Std Question Answer

Question 1.
Pair up with your partner and answer the following questions.
(a) Do you like to travel?
(b) Where have you traveled?
(c) Have you heard about the wonders of the world?
(d) Have you heard about UNESCO?
(e) What does UNESCO stand for?
(f) What is meant by Heritage?
(g) Do you know of any Heritage building in your own city?
Answer:
(a) yes, no, sometimes, etc.
(b) Discuss the places, the mode of travel, the sights, etc.
(c) Yes, I have.
(d) Yes, I have, but not much.
(e) UNESCO stands for United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization.
(f) Heritage is something that is valued and preserved because of its historical/cultural/natural importance
(g) Students can find out the heritage buildings in their own towns/cities.

Question 2.
Your teacher will explain the ‘Heritage Cycle’.
→ By understanding (cultural heritage) people value it.
→ By valuing it people want to care for it.
→ By caring for it, it will help people enjoy it.
→ From enjoying it, comes a thirst to understand.
→ By understanding it …………………
Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 4.3 World Heritage 1

Question 3.
Do you know the difference between :
(a) World Heritage
(b) Cultural Heritage
Refer to a dictionary/encyclopedia/reference book/the internet to get the detailed meaning.
Answer:
(a) World heritage means a global heritage that belongs to everyone.
(b) Cultural heritage is the legacy of physical artifacts and intangible attributes of society that are inherited from past generations, maintained in the present and preserved for the benefit of futurft generations. Cultural heritage includes tangible culture (such as buildings, monuments, landscapes, books, works of art, and artifacts), intangible culture (such as folklore, traditions, language, and knowledge), and natural heritage (including culturally significant landscapes, etc.)

Question 4.
With the help of your partner complete the information in the table.

Tourist spot	Favourite	Why?
Park
Mountain
Beach
Sea
Forest
Countryside/Rural site

Question 5.
Heritage Sites – Rank these with your partner. Put the best at the top.

Great Barrier Reef
Mount Fuji
Grand Canyon
The Pyramids
Panda Sanctuaries
Machu Picchu
Vatican City
Great Wall of China

World Heritage Class 10 English Workshop Questions and Answers Maharashtra Board

Question 1.
Answer the following questions.
(a) What do heritage sites in the world include?
Answer:
A World Heritage Site should have significant cultural or natural importance to humanity.

(b) What kind of sites are protected and maintained by the International World Heritage Programme?
Answer:
Sites which have significant cultural or natural importance to humanity are protected and maintained by the International World Heritage Programme. They may include forests, lakes, monuments, buildings and cities. They can also be a combination of cultural and natural areas.

(c) How many world Heritage sites were there around the world?
Answer:
World Heritage Sites include forests, lakes, monuments, buildings and cities. They cari also be a combination of cultural and natural areas.

(d) What is the role of World Heritage Committees?
Answer:
World Heritage Sites are those that are significant culturally and naturally. People are interested in seeing such sites and learning the history behind them; hence they are a major tourist attraction, and they draw tourists to a country, boosting the country’s revenue.

(e) What is the texture of World Heritage Committee?
Answer:
The tenure of the World Heritage Committee is six years.

(f) What are our duties towards preservation/conservation of any historical site?
Answer:
We should see that the historical sites are not in any danger due to pollution, tourism, uncontrolled urbanization, etc. Whenever we visit the site we must maintain the cleanliness and purity of the place. We must obey whatever orders and guidelines are put in place by the authorities. We should motivate others to do so too.

(g) Why should we preserve the World Heritage Sites?
Answer:
World Heritage Sites promote tourism. They are a part of the culture of the world, a part of the past. It is essential to preserve the past in order to learn from it. Natural beauty too should be preserved so that everyone today and in future can enjoy it. Hence, we should preserve World Heritage Sites.

(h) What is the role of World Heritage Sites in developing tourism in any country?
Answer:
World Heritage Sites are those that are significant culturally and naturally. People are interested in seeing such sites and learning the history behind them; hence they are a major tourist attraction, and they draw tourists to a country, boosting the country’s revenue.

Question 2.
Complete the following.

Year	Establishment	Role
1954	…………………………………………………	…………………………………………………
1959	…………………………………………………	…………………………………………………
1965	…………………………………………………	…………………………………………………
1968	…………………………………………………	…………………………………………………
1972	…………………………………………………	…………………………………………………

Answer:

Year	Establishment	Role
1954	Egypt starts plans to build Aswan High Dam	Started the momentum for the protection of cultural and natural heritage sites around the world.
1959	International campaign by UNESCO to protect temples and artifacts likely to be destroyed by Aswan High Dam; a draft convention initiated for the same	Protection of natural and cultural sites around the world
1965	A White House Conference in the US called for a World Heritage Trust’.	To protect not only the historic and cultural sites but also the significant natural and scenic sites around the world.
1968	The International Union for Conservation of Nature	Development of goals similar to those of the White House Conference
1972	Convention concerning the protection of World Cultural and Natural Heritage adopted by UNESCO’s General Conference.	To protect not only Are histone and cultural sites but also the significant natural and scenic sites around the world.

Question 3.
Complete the following by giving reasons why World Heritage Sites are in danger.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 4.3 World Heritage 2
Answer:

Question 4.
Choose the correct alternative and complete the given sentences.
(a) Mount Huangshan is situated in …………………………. .
(i) Japan
(ii) China
(iii) Philippines
Answer:
(ii) China

(b) The famous dam situated in Egypt on River Nile is …………………………. .
(i) Buzwaa High Dam
(ii) Rizwa High Dam
(iii) Aswan High Dam
Answer:
(iii) Aswan High Dam

(c) The conference based on Human Environment was held at …………………………. .
(i) Athens, Greece
(ii) Mascow, Russia
(iii) Stockholm, Sweden
Answer:
(iii) Stockholm, Sweden

(d) The highest number of world Heritage Sites are located in …………………………. .
(i) France
(ii) Italy
(iii) Germany
Answer:
(ii) Italy

(e) …………………………. can delete/exclude a site from World Heritage list.
(i) World Heritage Committee
(ii) World Peace Committee
(iii) World Health Committee.
Answer:
(i) World Heritage Committee

(f) The tenure of World Heritage Committee is …………………………. years.
(i) Four
(ii) Five
(iii) Six.
Answer:
(iii) Six.

Question 5.
Match the pairs to define different roles of the World Heritage Sites.

	A		B
(i)	Identify cultural and natural sites	a	green, local based, stable and decent jobs.
(ii)	Identify sites of	b	of outstanding universal value across countries.
(iii)	Identify sites that represent	c	preserve outstanding sites and natural resources.
(iv)	UNESCO seeks to	d	tourism.
(v)	World Heritage Sites should have	e	an asset for economic development and investment.
(vi)	World Heritage Sites should	f	protect these sites.
(vii)	World Heritage Sites serve as	g	best examples of world’s cultural and/or natural heritage.
(viii)	World Heritage Sites should ensure	h	special importance for everyone.
(ix)	It should at large develop	i	relevant development plan policies.

Answer:

‘A’	‘B’
(1) Identify cultural and natural sites	(a) green, local based, stable and decent.
(2) Identify sites of	(b) of outstanding universal values across countries.
(3) Identify sites that represent	(c) preserve outstanding sites and natural resources.
(4) UNESCO seeks to	(d) tourism.
(5) World Heritage Sites should have	(e) an asset for economic development and investment.
(6) World Heritage should	(f) protect these sites.
(7) World Heritage Sites serve as	(g) best examples of world’s cultural and or natural heritage.
(8) World Heritage Site should ensure	(h) special importance for everyone.
(9) It should at large develop	(i) relevant development plan policies.

Question 6.
Look at the words and their meanings. Choose the correct alternative.
(a) determine :
(i) think over
(ii) decide
(iii) ask for
(iv) look over
Answer:
(ii) decide

(b) monument :
(i) statue
(ii) pillar
(iii) memorial
(iv) fort
Answer:
(iii) memorial

(d) disaster:
(i) problem
(ii) incident
(iii) calamity
(iv) accident
Answer:
(iii) calamity

Question 7.
Find from the text minimum 8 words related to cultural heritage and make a word register. Arrange them in alphabetical order.
Cultural heritage: Abu Simbel Temples, artifacts, buildings, cilles, Histqric Center of Vienna, Machu Picchu, monuments, Mount Huangshan, Sydney Opera House.

Question 8.
Complete the following information from the text.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 4.3 World Heritage 3
Answer:
(a) Preservation of any historical site (Duties):
(i) International World Heritage Programme
(ii) UNESCO World Heritage Committee.

(b) Preserving World Heritage Sites (Reasons) :
(i) They have significant cultural and natira Importance to humanity.
(ii) They promote tourism.

Question 9.
Write a report on any tourist place/historical place/World Heritage Site you recently visited using the points given below.
(i) Title
(ii) Place/Location
(iii) Background/History
(iv) Features/Specialities
(v) Security policies
(vi) Sign boards and discipline
(vii) Overall scenario.
Answer:
Ajanta – A Masterpiece In Rock
– Rani Iyer
Mumbai, 12 February: The Ajanta Caves, situated in the Deccan in Maharashtra and about 110 km from Aurangabad, are a UNESCO World Heritage Site. A visit to the place reveals a large slice of history.

These rock – cut cave temples and monasteries of Buddhists date back to around 2nd century BCE. Since they were in the jungles, cut into a mountainside, the external world did not know about them for a long time. They were discovered only in the 19th century, The caves include paintings and rock – cut sculptures described as among the finest surviving examples of ancient Indian art. The paintings are expressive and present emotion through gesture, pose and form, According to UNESCO, these are masterpieces of Buddhist religious art that influenced the Indian art I that followed.

Two new visitor centers provide extensive information about the heritage site using audiovisual media. Local staff is employed for security purposes. Though photography is allowed at certain places, with fees for the use of a camera, use of tripods and flash is prohibited. Signboards and brochures/leaflets provide information about the care to be taken to preserve this UNESCO protected heritage site. “The caves are now being looked after by a private company under the Indian government’s ‘Adopt a Heritage Site’ program,” said a senior official.

Question 10.
(A) Use ‘not only but also’ in the following sentences.
(a) UNESCO and the International Council on monuments initiated a draft convention to create an international organisation responsible for protecting cultural heritage.
(b) The state parties are responsible for identifying and nominating new sites.
(c) Opera House in Australia and the Historic Center of Vienna in Austria are cultural sites of World Heritage.
(d) World Heritage Sites can also be a combination of both cultural and natural areas.
Answer:
(a) Not only UNESCO but also the International Council on Monuments and Sites initiated a draft convention to create an international organization responsible for protecting cultural heritage.
(b) The State Parties are responsible for not only identifying but also nominating new sites.
(c) Not only the Opera House in Australia but also the Historic Center of Vienna in Austria are cultural sites of World Heritage.
(d) World Heritage Sites can be a combination of not only cultural but also natural areas.

(B) Rewrite the following sentences replacing ‘as soon as’ by ‘No sooner than’
(Note : The phrase, ‘No sooner’ must always be followed by an auxiliary (helping verb).)
For example : As soon as he came, they all gave an applause.
No sooner did he come, than they all gave an applause.

(a) As soon as the Bill is passed, it will become an Act.
(b) As soon as the thief escaped, the family informed the police.
(c) As soon as you have finished, you can submit your answer- papers.
(d) As soon as they can manage, they should change their house.
(e) As soon as the bell rings, the School Assembly will start.
Answer:
(a) No sooner is the Bill passed, than it will become an Act.
(b) No sooner did the thief escape, than the family informed the police.
(c) No sooner do you finish, than you can submit your answer papers.
(d) No sooner can they manage, than they should change their house.
(e) No sooner does the bell ring, than the School Assembly will start.

Question 11.
Identify whether the following sentences are Simple (One Subject + One Predicate or Complex (One Main Clause + One or more Dependent Clauses) or Compound (Combination of 2 or more Independent/ Co-ordinate Clauses).
(1) They vary in type but they include forests, monuments etc.
(2) The mountain is significant because of its characteristics.
(3) To protect the temples and artefacts, UNESCO launched an international campaign.
(4) If the site meets with this criteria, it can be inscribed on the World Heritage List.
(5) There are 890 World Heritage Sites that are located in 148 countries.
(6) The project cost about US $ 80 million and $ 40 million came from 50 different countries.
Answer:
(1) Compound
(2) Simple
(3) Simple
(4) Complex
(5) Complex
(6) Compound

Question 12.
Following are the ways to preserve ‘World Heritage Sites.’ Transfer these points into a small paragraph. Suggest a title.

Practical conservation of posterity
Human/animal trespassing to be prohibited
Monitored/controlled/restricted access
Threat of local administrative negligence to be removed

Answer:
Ways to Preserve World Heritage Sites
World Heritage Sites need to be preserved for posterity. The future generations must know about their history and culture. For this purpose, steps have to be taken to preserve these sites. First and foremost, trespassing by either humans or animals should be strictly prohibited. Access to these sites for tourists, vendors, officials and the general public should be restricted or monitored carefully. Another important step is to keep a check on the local administration of the site, so that negligence in the performance of the duties at this level is ruled out.

Question 13.
Read the points given in column ‘A’ specifying Dos towards prevention of any historical site. Write Don’ts in column ‘B’ specifying things that should not be done.

	Dos	Don’ts
(i)	Obey rules and regulations.
(ii)	Maintain discipline and order.
(iii)	Maintain cleanliness.
(iv)	Use dustbins and garbage bags.
(v)	Observe silence.
(vi)	Maintain environmental safety.
(vii)	Protect our country’s heritage.

Answer:

Dos	Don’ts
1. Obey rules and regulations.	1. Don’t dirty the surroundings.
2. Maintain discipline and order.	2. Don’t write on the walls/trees.
3. Maintain cleanliness.	3. Don’t pluck flowers/ destroy plants.
4. Use dustbins and garbage bags.	4. Don’t smoke/ drink alcohol.
5. Observe silence.	5. Don’t play loud music or make a loud noise.
6. Maintain environmental safety.	6. Don’t defecate in the open.
7. Protect our country’s heritage.	7. Don’t trespass.

Question 14.
Complete the following flow chart by choosing the option given below to show how any site of any country can become a World Heritage Site.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 4.3 World Heritage 4
Options :
1. Inclusion of the name of site from tentative list to the nomination file.
2. Name of the site is inscribed on the World Heritage List after meeting the criteria.
3. Inclusion of the name of site for the nomination in a tentative list after an inventory in country or State.
4. Decision of the World Heritage Committee after review of the nominated file.
5. A review of the included file by the advisory bodies.
Answer:
Step 1 : Inclusion of the name of the site for nomination in a tentative list after inventory in country or state.
Step 2 : Inclusion of the name of site from tentative list to the nomination file.
Step 3 : A review of the included file by the advisory bodies.
Step 4 : Decision of the World Heritage Committee after review of the nominated file.
Step 5 : Name of the site inscribed on the World Heritage List after meeting the criteria.

Question 15.
Projects :
(a) Make a list of sites from our State which are included in the World Heritage Sites. Try to visit one of them. Write the importance of this World Heritage Site. Also write your impression of it in your notebook.

(b) Write a ‘tourism leaflet’ on any one of the following :
(i) Your home town
(ii) A historical place
(iii) A place of natural beauty
(iv) A place of pilgrimage

→ Make use of the following points :
(i) How to reach there?
(ii) Accommodation facilities
(iii) What to see and visit?/Attractions of the place
(iv) Places of interest nearby
(v) Best time to visit
(vi) Shopping Attractions
Add your own points.
Answer:
MATHERAN: ‘UNSPOILT NATURE’
(1) How to get there:
(a) By train: From Mumbai or Pune to Neral Junction.. From Neral to Matheran by narrow – gauge train that depart at fixed times.
(b) By road: Shared taxis or minibuses from Neral to MTDC Holiday Camp. Cars and other vehicles not allowed beyond a certain point.
(2) Accommodation facilities: Plenty of hotels offering full or half board. MTDC Tourist Camp provides dorm – beds at affordable rates. The ‘camp’ is near the Dasturi car park. You can eat at one of the many thali joints along MG Road.
(3) Best Time of the year to visit: All the year round except the rainy season.
(4) What to see: Viewpoints such as Porcupine, Louisa and Echo have the finest views. On a clear day, one can see Mumbai lying afar from ‘Hart Point’; perpendicular cliffs plunge into steep ravines; monkeys and squirrels.
(5) Shopping Attractions: Locally made chappals, home – made chocolates and chikkis, caps and other items for campers; walking sticks.
(6) Special features: Greenery, nature at its best, trekking, horse riding; good for a day’s group picnic.

(c) Vocabulary Extension – Choose several words from the text. Use a dictionary or internet to build up more associations/collocations of each word.
Answer:
(1) Associations:

(2) Collocations:

(d) World Heritage Sites – Make a poster about World Heritage Sites, specifying some details and specialties about each of them.

(e) Letter – Write a letter to an expert on the environment. Ask him/her five questions about your concern/doubts about World Heritage sites. Give him/her three ideas on how to protect them.
Answer:
Amit Awte
102, Riddhi Vihar
R.N. Road
Aurangabad – 431 001,
12th November, 2020

To
Mr. Avinash Ranade
‘Nisarg’
Shastri Marg
Aurangabad – 431 002.
Sub: Protection of World Heritage Sites

Sir
It was with great interest that I read in our local newspaper about your interest in the protection of World Heritage Sites. I would like to ask you a few questions which have haunted me for some time.

They are:
(1) Does India have enough experts to restore the damage done to our sites by nature/visitors etc.?
(2) Is there enough security to protect the sites from vandalism?
(3) Can there be a restriction on the number of visitors to the sites?
(4) Are the funds allocated to the preservation of the sites by the World Heritage Committee sufficient?
(5) Is there enough information about the sites on tourist websites/ Internet?

I would like to give some suggestions. Can we not impose a limit on the number of tourists visiting these places? We can also have sessions on how to maintain cleanliness and prevent vandalism. Stiff fines must be imposed on all those who break the rules.

I hope to receive a reply from you, as I am also very concerned about the preservation of our heritage sites.

Yours faithfully,
Amit Awte

(f) Article – Write an article for a magazine about the World Heritage sites at risk. Include imaginary interviews with people who are trying to save them. Read your article in front of your class.

Question 16.
The project of dismantling and moving the temples in the valley to higher ground cost $80 million.
(i) $40 million
(ii) $50 million
(iii) $80 million.
Answer:
(iii) $80 million.

Question 17.
Complete the following: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
(1) A World Heritage Site should have significant …………………
(2) World Heritage Sites include ……………………..
(3) They can also be a ……………………..
(4) The convention concerning the protection of Cultural Natural Herttage was adopted by ……………………
Answer:
(1) cultural or natural importance to humanity.
(2) combination of cultural and natural areas.
(3) forests, lakes, monuments, buildings and cities.
(4) UNESCO’s General Conference on November 16, 1972.

Question 18.
(a) UNESCO launched an international campaign in 1959.
Answer:
In 1954, Egypt started plans to build the Aswan High Dam. The initial plans for the dam’s construction would have flooded the valley containing the Abu Simbel Temples and scores of ancient Egyptian artifacts. To protect the temples and artifacts, UNESCO launched an international campaign in 1959, that called for the dismantling and movement of the temples to higher ground.

(b) A White House Conference in the United States called for a ‘World Heritage Trust’.
Answer:
A White House Conference in the United States called for a World Heritage Trust’ to protect the world’s historic and cultural sites as well as the significant natural and scenic sites.

Question 19.
Pick out 4 adjectives from the passage ending with the suffix ‘ – al’.
Answer:
1. educational,
2. cultural,
3. natural,
4. historical.

Question 20.
The World Heritage Committee meets once a year.
(i) once a year
(ii) twice a year
(iii) three times a year
Answer:
(i) once a year

Question 21.
A nominated site has to be first included in a Tentative List.
(i) World Heritage List
(ii) Nomination File
(iii) Tentative List
Answer:
(iii) Tentative List

Question 22.
Explain what the World Heritage Committee is responsible for.
Answer:
The World Heritage Committee is the main group responsible for establishing which sites will be listed as UNESCO World Heritage Sites.

Question 23.
Who makes recommendations to the World Heritage Committee?
Answer:
The recommendations to the World Heritage Committee are made by two Advisory Bodies, the International Council on Monuments and Sites and the World Conservation Union.

Question 24.
(1) Choose the correct noun forms from those given in the brackets:
(1) inscribed (inscription/inscribtion)
(2) responsible (responsive/responsibility)
(3) nominated (nominative/nomination)
(4) included (inclusion/inclution)
Answer:
(1) inscription
(2) responsibility
(3) nomination
(4) inclusion.

Question 25.
Complete the following by choosing the correct nouns from the box:
Bodies Parties List File
(1) Tentative ……………….
(2) Nomination ……………….
(3) Advisory ……………….
(4) State ……………….
Answer:
(1) Tentative List
(2) Nomination File
(3) Advisory Bodies
(4) State Parties.

Question 26.
World Heritage Committee can delete/exclude a site from the World Heritage List
(a) World Heritage Committee
(b) World Peace Committee
(c) World Health Committee
Answer:
(a) World Heritage Committee

Question 27.
There are 890 World Heritage Sites around the World.
(a) 689
(b) 890
(c) 36
Answer:
(b) 890

Question 28.
36 – sites have been included from India.
(a) 176
(b) 44
(c) 36
Answer:
(c) 36

Question 29.
Match the places with the countries:

‘A’	‘B’
(1) Sydney Opera House	(a) Vienna
(2) Historic Center	(b) Peru
(3) Grand Canyon National Park	(c) Australia
(4) Machu Pichhu	(d) United States

Answer:

‘A’	‘B’
(1) Sydney Opera House	(c) Australia
(2) Historic Center	(a) Vienna
(3) Grand Canyon National Park	(d) United States
(4) Machu Pichhu	(b) Peru

Question 30.
Complete the following:
(1) Peru’s Machu Picchu is an example of a ………………….
(2) The World Heritage Committee can choose to delete a site from the list if ……………….
Answer:
(1) mixed site, both cultural as well as natural.
(2) the site loses the characteristics which allowed for it to originally be included on the World Heritage List.

Question 31.
Explain the role of the World Heritage Committee.
Answer:
The World Heritage Committee allocates resources from the World Heritage Fund to a World Heritage Site which is in danger due to any reason or in need of protection or restoration. If a site loses the characteristics which allowed for it to originally be included on the World Heritage List, the World Heritage Committee can choose to delete the site from the list.

Question 32.
Choose the correct meanings:
(a) allocate:
(i) allow
(ii) distribute
(iii) catch
(iv) understand
Answer:
(b) distribute

Question 33.
Fill in the blanks with the correct words from the passage: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
(a) Many small towns of the previous century have become crowded cities now due to rapid ………………..
(b) We should be well – prepared for …………….. problems like global warming.
Answer:
(a) urbanization.
(b) environmental

Question 34.
(1) Pick out a gerund from the lesson and use – it in your own sentence.
(2) Find out five hidden words from the given word: international
(3) Use the following phrase in your own sentence: a corhbination of
(4) Spot the error/errors and rewrite the correct sentence: The State Parties is then responsible for identifying and nominating new sites.
(5) Identify the type of sentence: Get out of my way.
(6) Punctuate: if however a site loses the characteristics which allowed for it to be originally included on the world heritage list the world heritage committee can choose to delete the site from the list.
(7) From the following verbs, pick out the verb which forms its present and past participle by doubling the last letter. run, lose, trip, quit
(8) Arrange the following words in alphabetical order: Sydney, Vienna, Austria, Peru, Australia, Egypt, China
Answer:
(1) protecting: We should think of various ways of protecting our environment.
(2) internatIonal : natIonal, nation, train, trail, trial.
(3) The rainbow is a combination of seven colours.
(4) The State Parties are then responsible for identifying and nominating new sites.
(5) Imperative sentence.
(6) If however, a site loses the characteristics which allowed for it to be originally included on the World Heritage List, the World Heritage Committee can choose to delete the site from the list.
(7) trip : tripped, trIpping.
(8) Australia, Austria, China, Egypt, Peru, Sydney, Vienna

Question 35.
(1) Use the following word and its homophone in two separate sentences : rain
(2) UNESCO launched an International campaign In 1959. (Rewrite beginning ‘An lnternattonal…..)
(3) DIfferent plans are put Into place. (Rewrite using the future perfect tense of the verb.)
Answer:
(1) (i) There was light rain yesterday evening near my house.
(ii) In the past, a cõuntry progressed dutlng the reign of good kings.
(2) An international campaign was launched by UNESCO in 1959.
(3) Different plans will have been put into place.

Question 36.
(1) Italy has the highest number of World Heritage Sites. (Rewrite using the comparative form.)
(2) The World Heritage Committee meets once a year to review these recommendations. (Rewrite as a compound sentence.)
Answer:
(1) Italy has a higher number of World Heritage Sites than any other country.
(2) The World Heritage Committee meets once a year and (it) reviews these recommendations.

Read More:

Std 10 English Poem All the World’s a Stage 1.4 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

December 21, 2024December 20, 2024 by Prasanna

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 1.4 All the World’s a Stage Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 10 English Chapter 1.4 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

All the World’s a Stage Poem 10th Std Question Answer

Question 1.
Pair work

Talk to your friend about all the things related to ‘Seven.’
For example Seven wonders of the world.
Pair up with your partner and name those given below all of the under :

(a) The seven wonders of the world
………………………………………………………
(b) The seven continents
………………………………………………………
(c) The seven colours of the rainbow
………………………………………………………
(d) The seven notes of the music
………………………………………………………
(e) The seven seas of the world
………………………………………………………
Answer:
(a) The Seven wonders of the world : The Great Wall of China, Christ the Redeemer Statue, Machu Picchu, Chichen Itza, The Roman Colosseum, The Taj Mahal and Petra.
(b) The Seven continents : Asia, Europe, Australia, Africa, North America, South America, Antarctica.
(c) The Seven colours of the rainbow : violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange, red
(d) The Seven notes of the musical scale : sa-re-ga-ma-pa-da-ni./doh-re-me-fa-so-la-ti
(e) The Seven seas of the world : Arctic Ocean, Antarctic Ocean, North Atlantic Ocean, South Atlantic Ocean, Indian Ocean, North Pacific Ocean, South Pacific Ocean.

Question 2.
Life is often compared to many things. Write down 7 things that life can be compared to and justify the comparison. For example,
(a) Life is a keyboard, because if you press the right keys you have typed a good destiny.
(b) ………………………………………………………
(c) ………………………………………………………
(d) ………………………………………………………
(e) ………………………………………………………
(f) ………………………………………………………
(g) ………………………………………………………
Answer:
(a) Life is a keyboard; if you press the right keys, you have typed out a good destiny.
(b) Life is a river-always flowing.
(c) Life is like a seed; it will never grow unless planted, nourished and nurtured.
(d) Life is like an elevator, with lots of ups and downs. ‘
(e) Life is like an onion. You peel off layer after layer. Sometimes it makes you weep.
(f) Life is like a jigsaw puzzle. You have all the pieces, but you have to put them together correctly.
(g) Life is like a jack-in-the-box. You never know : when you are going to get a box on your chin.

Question 3.
Match the approximate ages with the stages.

No.	Age-group		Stages
1	Birth to 2 years	a	teenage/adolescence
2	3 years to 12 years	b	old age/second childhood
3	13 years to 17 years	c	middle-age
4	18 years to about 44 years	d	babyhood/infancy
5	About 45 years to 60 years	e	senior citizen/elderly person
6	65 years up to 75 to 80 years	f	adulthood
7	Above 80 years	g	childhood

Answer:

No.	Age-group	Stages
(1)	Birth to 2 years	(d) babyhood/infancy
(2)	3 years to 12 years	(g) childhood
(3)	13 years to 17 years	(a) teenage/adolescence
(4)	18 years to about 44 years	(f) adulthood
(5)	About 45 years to 60 years	(c) middle-age
(6)	65 years up to 75 to 80 years	(e) senior citizen/ elderly person
(7)	Above 80 years	(b) old age/second childhood

Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Kumarbharati Unit 1.4 Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the words in given clouds. Match them with what they signify.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 1.4 All the World’s a Stage 1
Answer:
(1) Stage – Life
(2) Characters – Roles played by human beings
(3) Script – Story of life
(4) Dialogues – Conversation
(5) Entry – Birth
(6) Exit – Death

Question 2.
Read the poem carefully and complete the following table.

Ages of Man	Role	Qualities/Actions
1		1. 2.
2		1. 2.
3		1. 2.
4		1. 2.
5		1. 2.
6		1. 2.
7		1. 2.

Answer:

First	infant	(1) frightened (2) crying, puking
Second	schoolboy	(1) unhappy (2) whining, creeping unwillingly to school
Third	lover	(1) woeful (2) sighing, singing sad ballads
Fourth	soldier	(1) jealous in honor, ambitious (2) quarreling, facing danger

Question 3.
Write down in your own words the differences between the following stages of a man’s life.
2nd stage and 4th stage …………………………………
……………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………

3rd stage and 5th stage …………………………………
……………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………

1 st stage and 7th (last) stage …………………………………
……………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………
Answer:
2nd stage and 4th stage:
The second stage is that of a school boy, complaining and crying. He goes to school early in the morning, with a well-scrubbed, shining face. He carries his school bag and creeps slowly, like a snail, unwillingly to school.

‘Full of strange oaths and bearded like the pard, Jealous in honour, sudden and quick in quarrel.’

3rd stage and 5th stage:
The third stage is that of a lover, who is’ breathless and sighing with passion. He sings sad Songs dedicated to the beauty of his lover.

The fifth stage is that of , a mature middle-aged man with a round belly. He is stern and formal and full of wisdom. He is full of wise sayings and gives modern examples.

1 st stage and 7th (last) stage:
The first stage is that of an infant, crying weakly and throwing up in his nurse’s arms. He is unaware of what is happening around him.The baby, at this stage, is without teeth, without vision, without taste and without anything.

The last stage of all, which ends one’s eventful life, is when man becomes senile and enters his second childhood. He is again unaware of what is happening around him. This final stage is when he is once more without teeth, without vision, without taste and without anything.

Question 4.
Pick out lines that contain Imagery (a picture created in the mind by using words) of the following people.
(a) School boy …………………………………
(2nd stage) …………………………………
(b) Soldier …………………………………
(4th stage) …………………………………
(c) Judge …………………………………
(5th stage) …………………………………
(d) Senior citizen …………………………………
(6th stage) …………………………………
Answer:
(a) a snail
‘The whining schoolboy, with his satchel and shining morning face, creeping like a snail unwillingly to school.’

(b) acts like the pard
‘Full of strange oaths and bearded like the pard, Jealous in honour, sudden and quick in quarrel.’

(d) His youthful hose, well-saved, a world too wide
For his shrunk shank

Question 5.
You will notice that there is no Rhyme-scheme in the poem. It appears similar to the poem 1.1 ‘Where the Mind is Without Fear by Tagore.

However Tagore’s poem has no steady rhythm/meter either it is called Free Verse. Shakespeare uses lines with a steady rhythm of 5 beats in each. It is termed as Blank Verse. (No rhyme-scheme but uniformity in rhythm) Copy the lines from “Ánd all the men and women merely players” to “sudden and quick in quarrel”. Put a stress mark on each of the syllables stressed in the lines as for example, And all the men and women merely players;
Answer:
The poem is written in free verse without any rhyme scheme or consistent metre. There are many figures of speech e.g. Repetition. Metaphor, Alliteration, etc. An Important figure of speech is Personification. ‘Where tireless striving stretches its arms towards perfection’. Here, we can actually visualize ‘tireless striv1ng stretching Its arms to reach its goal.

The poem is a prayer to God. Tagore addresses God as ‘my Father’ and asks Him to awaken his country Into a heaven of freedom, where there is total freedom of good thoughts, good words and good actions. He wishes for a country where people would be free from fear, where knowledge would be free to all individuals and people from all castes and religions would be united.

Question 6.
Think and write on your own.
(a) What is the theme/central idea of this poem?
(b) Which two stages of man, described by Shakespeare sound humorous? Say why.
(c) The last (7th) stage of life sounds very sad and miserable. How can you make old age also cheerful and happy?
Answer:
(a) The theme of this poem is the cycle of life.
It tells us how one starts out an infant, helpless and unaware of the surroundings, and ends the same way, i without being aware of what is happening around one.

(b) The second and third stages are humorous. One can just imagine the school boy, complaining and whining, creeping to school slowly with a well-scrubbed and shining face. The third stage, where the lover sighs loudly and sings sad poems and songs, is also humorous.

(c) We can make the last stage joyful by preparing for it beforehand. We know that most of us will reach this stage before our final exit. Hence, we must maintain good health, and keep good relations with our family and the people around us. We must save enough money to get us through this stage without any stress on ourselves or others.

Question 7.
(A) The poem is entirely metaphorical. Pick out the comparisons from the poem.
(a) world …………………………………
(b) actors …………………………………
(c) birth and death …………………………………
(d) school boy …………………………………
(e) the lover’s sigh …………………………………
(f) spotted leopard …………………………………
(g) last stage (old age) …………………………………
Answer:
(a) stage
(b) –
(c) entrances and exits
(d) a snail
(e) a furnace
(f) bearded soldier

(B) Pick out from the poem two examples of each.
(a) Simile
(1) …………………………………
(2) …………………………………
Answer:
Simile. Two dissimilar objects are compared using the word ‘like’.

(b) Onomatopoeia
(1) …………………………………
(2) …………………………………

(d) Metaphor
(1) …………………………………
(2) …………………………………

(e) Inversion
(1) …………………………………
(2) …………………………………

(f) Transferred Epithet
(1) …………………………………
(2) …………………………………
Answer:

(a) Simile	(1) Creeping like a snail (2) Soldier bearded like the pard
(b) Onomatopoeia	(1) And then the whining schoolboy (2) Sighing like a furnace
(c) Alliteration	(1) They have -their exits and their entrances (2) His youthful hose, well- saved, a world too wide
(d) Metaphor	(1) They have their exits and their entrances (2) men and women merely players
(e) Inversion	(1) His acts being seven ages. (2) With eyes severe and beard of formal cut
(f) Transferred Epithet	(1) with a woeful ballad (2) Into the lean and slippered pantaloon

Question 8.
Read the summary of the play ‘As You Like It’ by William Shakespeare using the Internet. Find out which character has narrated the above poem and on what occasion. Also, make a list of all the characters of the play.
Answer:
The character who has narrated the above poem in the play ‘As You Like It’ by William Shakespeare is Jacques. He narrates it in Act II, Scene VII.

Some of the other characters in the play are Celia, Rosalind, Orlando, Oliver, Duke Senior, Duke Frederick, Touchstone, etc.

Question 9.
Read the poem again and write an appreciation of the poem in a paragraph format. (Refer to page no. 5)
Answer:
Point Format
(for understanding)
The title of the poem : All the World’s a Stage’
The poet : WIlliam Shakespeare
Rhyme scheme : blank verse I.e. no rhyme scheme, but there is a steady rhythm of five beats In each line.
Figures of speech : Metaphor, Simile, Alliteration, Repetition. etc.
Theme/Central idea : The theme of the poem Is the cycle of life.

Paragraph Format
The poem ‘All the World’s a Stage’ is by William Shakespeare. It is taken from Shakespeare’s play ‘As you like It’. It is a monologue by one of the characters in the play.

The poem is written in blank verse i.e. there is no rhyme scheme, but there Is a steady rhythm of five beats i.e. iambic pentameter in each line. There are many figures of speech, like Simile. Alliteration and Repetition. but the one that stands out Is Metaphor. In the lines ‘All the world’s a stage, And all men and women are merely players’, there is an implied comparison between two different things.

In this poem, Shakespeare compares life to a stage. He has divided life Into seven stages. each having its own varied qualities and features. The theme of the poem is the cycle of life. It tells us how one starts out as an Infant, helpless. without understanding. and ends the same way, without being aware of what Is happening around one.

Question 10.
Complete the following diagram:
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 1.4 All the World’s a Stage 2

Question 11.
Match the following :

A	B
(1) Infant	(a) acts like the pard
(2) School boy	(b) mewling and puking
(3) Lover	(c) whining,
(4) Soldier ‘	(d) sighing like furnace

Answer:

(1) Infant	(b) mewling arjd puking
(2) School boy	(c) whining
(3) Lover	(d) sighing like furnace
(4) Soldier	(a) acts like the pard

Question 12.
Complete the following : (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
Answer:
(1) ‘Exits’ and ‘entrances’ refer to deaths and births.
(2) Reputation is like a bubble because one does useless things for one’s reputation, which can burst like a bubble in one instant.

Question 13.
Name and explain the poetic devices used in the following lines:
(a) Soldier bearded like the pard
Answer:
Simile. Two dissimilar objects are compared using the word ‘like’,

(b) Sighing like a furnace
Answer:
Simile. Two dissimilar objects are compared using the word ‘like’.

(d) They have their exits and their entrances
Answer:
Alliteration. Repetition of the sound of ‘t’ and ‘e’.
Metaphor. Implicit comparison between two different things.

(f) With a woeful ballad
Answer:
Alliteration. Repetition of the sound of ‘w’.
Transferred Epithet. It is not the ballad that is woeful but the lover.

Question 14.
Complete the following diagram :
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 1.4 All the World’s a Stage 3

Question 15.
Write if the following statements are True or False :
Answer:

Man in the fifth stage of life is full of wisdom. (True)
Man in the sixth stage has a fair, round belly. (False)
The last few lines are full of melancholy. (True)
In the last stage, man is unaware of his surroundings. (True)

Question 16.
Write down in your own words the differences between the following stages of a man’s life :
(a) 5th and 6th stage :
Answer:
The fifth stage is that of a mature middle-aged man with a round belly. He is stern and formal and full of wisdom. He is full of wise sayings and gives modern examples.

In the sixth stage, man has become old, with thin legs in slippers and loose pants. He has spectacles on his nose and a pouch by his side. The close-fitting stockings, which he had saved from his younger days, are now too big for his thin legs, which have shrunk with age. His loud voice, which was once manly, has now become childish and shrill. There are whistling sounds when he talks.

Question 17.
Complete the following table based on the extract. (The answers are given directly.)
Answer:

Stages of Man	Role	qualities/Actions
Fifth	adult man	(1) fat, serious and wise (2) giving advice
Sixth	middle-aged man	(1) thin and shrunken (2) talking in a shrill-voice
Seventh	very old man	(1) senile, child-like (2) oblivious to his surroundings

Question 18.
The poem is entirely metaphorical. Pick out the comparison from the extract: last stage (old age)
Answer:
last scene

Question 19.
Name and explain the figures of speech used in the following lines :
(a) His youthful hose, well-saved, a world too wide
Answer:
Alliteration. Repetition of the sound of ‘w’.

(b) For his shrunk shank
Answer:
Alliteration. Repetition of the sound of ‘s’.

(d) Sans teeth, sans eyes, sans taste, sans everything.
Answer:
Repetition. The word ‘sans’ is repeated for emphasis.

Read More:

Std 10 English Poem The Concert 3.6 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

December 21, 2024December 20, 2024 by Prasanna

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 3.6 The Concert Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 10 English Chapter 3.6 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

The Concert Poem 10th Std Question Answer

Question 1.
Pair up with your partner and ask and answer the following questions.
(a) Do you like music?
(b) What does a concert mean?
(c) Have you ever attended any live concert?
(d) Have you seen a concert on Television?
(e) Whose concert would you love to attend?
Answer:
(a) Yes, I do.
(b) A concert is a musical programme where musicians and classical singers come together to play different pieces of music.
(c) Yes, I have.
(d) Yes, I have.
(e) I would love to attend the concert of A. R. Rahman.

Question 2.
Look at the web diagram given below and study the traits of a good concert organizer.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 3.6 The Concert 1
Answer:

The Concert Class 10 English Workshop Questions and Answers Maharashtra Board

Question 1.
Who said to whom?
(a) “We mustn’t miss the chance.”
(b) “This is not the last time they are going to play.”
(c) “A walk in the park might make you feel better.”
(d) “Tomorrow morning we perform for the boy- Yes?”
Answer:

Statement	Who	To Whom
(a) “We mustn’t miss the chance.’’	The boy	To his sister and mother
(b) “This is not the last time they are going to play.”	the mother	to anant
(c) “A walk in the park will make you feel better.”	Aunt Sushila	to smita
(d) “Tomorrow morning we perform for the boy- Yes?”	Ustad Sahib	to Pandit Ravi Shankar.

Question 2.
Read the following sentences and write which emotions are revealed from these sentences.
(a) Pandit Ravi Shankar is playing tomorrow at the Shanmukhananda auditorium.
(b) It’s the chance of a lifetime.
(c) Will you come to Aunt Sushila’s house and play for him?
(d) Did you…did you hear him?
(e) Is it…It’s not possible?
Answer:
(a) excitement
(b) anticipation, joy, excitement
(c) This sentence expresses the emotion of a sincere plea or entreaty. Smita is practically begging Pandit Ravi Shankar to consider her request.
(d) This sentence expresses the boy’s innermost curiosity, and his desire to confirm if his sister had indeed heard the performances of the musicians whom he so longed to hear.
(e) This sentence expresses the emotion of complete surprise and disbelief. Something the neighbours had thought absolutely impossible was indeed a reality.

Question 3.
Read the text carefully, you will find some words describing a particular specialty of the individuals/personalities in the text. Explain the meaning of the following words given in the table with reference to the particular personality mentioned in the text.

Speciality	Personality	Explanation
Maestro Pandit Ustad Moustachioed	………………….. Ravi Shankar ………………….. …………………..	………………….. ………………….. ………………….. a person having a large or bushy mustache.

Answer:

Specialty	Personality	Explanation
Ustad	Allah Rakha	title for an expert tabla player
Moustachioed	Name unknown	someone who sports ’ a prominent bushy mustache
Maestro	Pandit Ravi Shankar	a distinguished performer of classical music
Pandit	Ravi Shankar	a talented musician (used as a respectful title or form of address)

Question 4.
Describe the condition of Smita when she was going towards the stage. Read the text again and complete the boxes given below. One is done for you.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 3.6 The Concert 3
Answer:

Question 5.
The whole story revolves around Anant. Write a short paragraph on Anant. Take help of the following points to develop the paragraph.
1. Health
2. Disease
3. Early interests
4. Intense desire/wish
5. Fulfillment of desire/wish.
Answer:
Anant was a fifteen-year-old boy, living in a village named Gaganpur with his sister and parents. Very active in his school days, he was a good athlete, the best table-tennis player, could play the sitar very well and had even been composing his own tunes. Suddenly, he was struck with cancer and came to Mumbai for treatment. Then one day, his sister read in the newspaper that Pandit Ravi Shankar would be performing at the Shanmukhananda auditorium.

It was his earnest desire to watch the performance, but due to his sickness, his mother forbade him. Finally, his sister, in a very daring move, went to the concert and after the concert had ended, went backstage and requested Pandit Ravi Shankar to come to their home and play for her brother. The great generous maestro along with Ustad Allah Rakha agreed and did exactly that. As the beautiful soulful music wafted around the room where Anant lay, Anant breathed his last.

Question 6.
The story has three important characters- Anant, Smita and Aunt Sushila. Go through the story again and complete the following table that highlights their special traits of character. You can put X mark if that trait is not mentioned in the text.

Special traits	Smita	Anant	Aunt Sushila
Strength Weaknesses Dreams Motivation

Answer:

Special traits	Smita	Anant	Aunt Sushila
Strength	daring	courage	concern, generosity
Weakness	given to emotion	physical health	X
Dreams	that her brother would get cured	that he would hear Pandit Ravi Shankar play	X
Motivation	love for her brother	love for music	love for the children

Question 7.
The two contradictory pictures are depicted in the story. Discuss in pairs and describe them in your words in front of the class.
Answer:
The brother and sister seem excited about Pandit Ravi Shankar’s upcoming performance. The girl expresses excitement and the boy’s eyes are shining. The mother, however, is more worried about the physical condition of her son, who is on oxygen and apparently out of breath. The mother’s voice breaks when she speaks and her lips utter unbidden prayers. These are the contradictory images presented in this passage.

Question 8.
The text has a big collection of Indian words in it. Using words from another language in a write up is called Code-mixing. Make a list of all the Indian words in table A and their meanings in table B. One is done for you.

‘A’ Indian word	‘B’ Meaning
1. Raga	(a) piece of Indian classical music based on one of the six basic musical modes.
2.	(b)
3.	(c)
4.	(d)
5.	(e)
6.	(f)

Answer:

‘A’ (Indian word)	‘B’ (Meaning)
1. Raga	(a) piece of Indian classical music based on one of the six basic musical modes.
2. Pandit	(b) a talented musician (used’as a respectful title or form of address)
3. sitar	(c) a large, long-necked Indian lute with movable frets, played with a wire pick
4. Ustad	(d) a highly skilled musician
5. Pandit	(e) address for a talented classical musician
6. divan	(f) a long low sofa without a back or arms

Question 9.
(A) Choose the appropriate Adverb or Adjective form to fill in the gaps.
(1) She spoke in an …………………….. tone. (excited / excitedly)
(2) Smita accepted the suggestion …………………….. (grateful / gratefully)
(3) They gave him whatever made him …………………….. (happy/ happily)
(4) He ran very …………………….. (fast / fastly)
(5) He would become a …………………….. sitarist some day. (great / greatly)
(6) Life went out of him …………………….. (gentle / gently)
Answer:
(1) excited
(2) softly
(3) happy
(4) fast
(5) great
(6) gently

(B) Rewrite in Indirect speech
1. “Please”, she begged him, “Please come”.
……………………………………………………………………

2. He said, “What shall we do, Ustad Sahib?”
……………………………………………………………………

3. Her brother said, “Enjoy yourself”. He added, “Lucky you!”
……………………………………………………………………

4. ‘Yes’ Panditji replied. “It’s settled then. Tomorrow morning we shall perform, for the boy.”
……………………………………………………………………
Answer:
(1) She begged him repeatedly to come.
(2) He asked the Ustad Sahib what they should do.
(3) Her brother told her to enjoy herself and then added that she was indeed lucky.
(4) The Panditji replied in the affirmative and added that the matter was then settled. He further added that they would perform for the boy the following morning.

Question 10.
The text mentions names of stalwarts like Pandit Ravi Shankar and Ustad Allah Rakha. Both have earned world wide name and fame for their outstanding contribution to the field of music. Form groups of 5 students each and write a brief note on other stalwarts in this (music) field. You can take help of your school library or search the relevant information on the internet.
Take help of the following points.
1. Name :
2. Field : Music
3. Specialisation : Tabla/Sitar/Violin etc.
4. Guru :
5. Early life :
6. Education :
7. Early success :
8. Contribution to the field and world :
9. Awards:
10. Any special incident that has occurred in his/her life :
Answer:
Pandit Hariprasad Chaurasia
Hariprasad Chaurasia is an Indian classical flutist. He plays the bansuri, an Indian bamboo flute in the Hindustani classical tradition.

His Guru was Bholanath Prasanna of Varanasi. He studied with him for eight years. In 1957, he joined the All India Radio, Cuttack, Odisha. He worked as composer and performer. Much later, he received guidance from the reclusive Annapurna Devi, daughter of Baba Allaudin Khan. Legend has it that she agreed to teach him only if he played with the left hand. True or not, up till today, Hariprasad plays the bansuri with the left hand.

Apart from classical music, Hariprasad has collaborated with Shivkumar Sharma, the santoor exponent forming an association called Shiv-Hari. He has collaborated with world musicians, including the fusion group Shakti, in experimental cross-cultural performances.

He is at present the artistic director of the World Music Department at the Rotterdam Music Conservatory in the Netherlands. In 2006, he founded the Vrindavan Gurukul in Mumbai and in 2010, the Vrindavan Gurukul in Bhubaneshwar. Both of these institutes are schools dedicated to training students in bansuri in the Guru-shishya tradition.

He has collaborated with several western musicians, including John McLaughlin, Jan Garbarek, and Ken Lauber, and has composed music for Indian films.

Chaurasia also played on The Beatles’ 1968 B-side ‘The Inner Light’, which was written by George Harrison.

Question 11.
Imagine you are the monitor of your class. You are assigned the task to invite a classical singer as a chief guest for the Annual Day Programme. Write a letter of invitation to a famous classical singer. Take help of the following points.
Write in short –
1. About your school.
2. About the Annual Day Programme
3. Interest and love of students for music.
4. Motivation.
Answer:
Dilip Rane
Sulochana Devi High School
Mahatma Phule Chowk
Dhule – 424 001,
Date: 20 November, 2020

Shri Gangadin Murkathe
Govardhan Society
Videhi Nagar
Dhule – 424 003.

Subject: Invitation as Chief Guest for the Sulochana Devi High School Annual Function

Dear Sir,
As monitor of Std. X A, Sulochana Devi High School, it is my privilege to invite you to our School Annual Day Function on 15th January, 2021 as Chief Guest.

It will be an evening filled with song and dance, and the first person we thought of was you, as you are an eminent classical singer in your own right. Most of us know about you and have heard your songs either on DVD or on FM.

Our students are highly interested in the classical genre and many are under training at various local i classes. Your presence will serve as motivation for our budding talent and give us pointers as to future careers in music.

Please confirm your presence; for us it will be an honour.

Yours truly,
Dilip Rane,
Monitor (Std. X A)

Question 12.
Write who said to whom:
Answer:

statements	Who	To whom
(a) You’ll wake him up.	The mother	To her daughter
(a) “The chance of a lifetime.”	Anant	to his mother
(c) “Your father will take you.”	Smita’s mother	to Smita

Question 13.
Complete the following web:
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 3.6 The Concert 5

Question 14.
Why was Smita excited?
Answer:
Smita was excited because she read in the newspaper that Pandit Ravi Shankar was to play the next day at the Shanmukhananda auditorium.

Question 15.
What was the chance of a lifetime for Anant?
Answer:
To be able to hear and see Pandit Ravi Shankar perform was the chance of a lifetime for Anant.

Question 16.
Give reasons: Smita became nervous.
Answer:
Smita became nervous because she remembered that her brother was very ill and that the doctors had given up hope. The truth that Anant was going to die frightened her.

Question 17.
Write from the passage antonyms for the following words:
(a) bored
(b) forget
(c) worse
(d) worst
Answer:
(a) bored x excited
(b) forgot x remembered
(c) worse X better
(d) worst X best

Question 18.
(1) Choose the appropriate Adverb or Adjective form to fill in the gaps:
(b) I wished the noise would stop. It seemed to go on ……………, (endless, endlessly)
Answer:
(b) endlessly

Question 19.
Add question tags:
(a) You know he needs all the sleep and rest he can get.
(b) You’ll wake him up.
(c) His eyes were shining.
(d) We mustn’t miss the chance.
Answer:
(a) You know he needs all the sleep and rest he can get, don’t you?
(b) You’ll wake him up, won’t you?
(c) His eyes were shining, weren’t they?
(d) We mustn’t miss the chance, must we?

Question 20.
The boy on the bed was not asleep: (Rewrite without ‘not’.)
Answer:
The boy on the bed was awake.

Question 21.
How would you feel and react if you came to know that someone closely known to you was suffering from cancer?
Answer:
If I came to know that someone closely known to me was suffering from cancer, I would feel very bad. I would visit the person, spend time, make the person happy in every way possible and most of all pray to God, to relieve the person from suffering.

Question 22.
Say whether the following are True or False: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
Answer:
(a) In Bombay, the family stayed with their aunt.
(b) The doctors told the family directly that Anant did not have many days to live.
(c) The family voiced their fears to Anant.
(d) Anant was well enough to take part in the forthcoming table tennis tournament.
Answer:
True
False
False
False

Question 23.
Why was everyone from the family trying to keep Anant happy?
Answer:
Everyone from the family was trying to keep Anant happy because they knew he did not have many days to live. They did not wish to voice their fears but rather wanted him to be surrounded by whatever made him happy.

Question 24.
Why was Smita not ready to go for the concert?
Answer:
Smita was not ready to go for the concert because she and her brother, Anant, had always done things together.

Question 25.
Write from the passage phrases that mean:
(a) participate
(b) feeling that something good will happen
(c) express their worries
(d) a rare opportunity
Answer:
(a) take part In
(b) high hopes
(c) voice their fears
(d) a chance of a
(e) lifetime.

Question 26.
Match the columns:

A	B
(a) choked (b) roasted (c) Yogic (d) daring	(i) exercises (ii) thought (iii) gram (iv) voice

Answer:

A	B
(a) choked (b) roasted (c) Yogic (d) daring	(iv) voice (iii) gram (i) exercises (ii) thought

Question 27.
Complete the sentence with proper option: Smita accepted the suggestion (grateful/gratefully)
Answer:
Smita accepted the suggestion gratefully.

Question 28.
Frame Yes-No questions to get the sentences as the answer:
(a) There’s no harm in trying it.
(b) It would be nice to go to the concert.
Answer:
(a) Is there any harm in trying it?
(b) Wouldn’t it be nice to go to the concert?

Question 29.
*Two contradictory pictures are depicted in the story.
Answer:
On the one hand, the family is aware that Anant does not have many days to live. They are worried. They have fears but they suppress them. Instead they laugh and smile and talk. They surround Anant with whatever makes him happy. They fulfil his every need and give him whatever he asks for.

Question 30.
(1) Complete the following flow-chart:
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 3.6 The Concert 6

Question 31.
Write whether the following statements are True or False:
(a) Smita dreamt that she was at the concert.
(b) Anant had said, ‘The chance of a lifetime’ the previous evening.
(c) At the end of the concert, the artistes stood and clapped for the audience.
(d) A man with a long moustache was one of the artistes.
Answer:
(a) False
(b) True
(c) False
(d) False

Question 32.
(1) Arrange the following sentences chronologically according to their occurrence in the passage:
(a) The first notes came over the air.
(b) The audience gave the artistes a standing ovation.
(c) The audience gave the great master a thundering welcome.
(d) The ragas unfolded.
Answer:
(c) The audience gave the great master a thundering welcome.
(a) The first notes came over the air.
(d) The ragas unfolded.
(b) The audience gave the artistes a standing ovation.

Question 33.
How did Smita enjoy the concert?
Answer:
Smita felt as if the gates of a land of enchantment and wonder were opening. She listened spellbound to the unfolding ragas.

Question 34.
Give one example of code-mixing (Indian word) from the passage and explain its meaning.
Answer:
raga – a musical mode in Indian classical music

Question 35.
Pick the odd man out from the following based on the passage and give reasons:
(a) sitting, thundering, unfolding, twinkling
(b) slow, boring, plaintive, twinkling
Answer:
(a) sitting (verb – all the others are adjectives)
(b) boring (describes the noun ‘speech’ – all the others describe the ‘ragas’)

Question 36.
Underline the adverbs:
(a) The curtain came down.
(b) The plan remained firmly in her mind.
(c) The plan she had decided on the evening before remained firmly in her mind.
Answer:
(a) The curtain came down.
(b) The plan remained firmly in her mind.
(c) The plan she had decided on the evening before remained firmly in her mind.

Question 37.
Have you ever attended any concert? How was your experience there?
Answer:
Yes, I have attended a concert in which A. R. Rahman was the main performer. When I heard the first few notes being sung, I was thrilled. Never before had I heard such music or singing. I felt as if I were transported to a wonderland where only music reigned. Every beat, every note filled me with delight. I began wondering if I were in heaven!

Question 38.
Who said this to whom?
“Tomorrow morning we perform for the boy – Yes?”
Answer:
Ustad Sahib said this to Pandit Ravi Shankar.

Question 39.
Write whether the following statements are True or False:
(1) When Smita returned home, Anant was awake.
(2) Both Ravi Shankar and Ustad Allah Rakha came to Aunt Sushila’s house.
(3) Anant’s room was on the ground floor.
(4) Anant survived the sickness.
Answer:
(1) True
(2) True
(3) False
(4) False

Question 40.
What was Smita’s plan?
Answer:
It was Smita’s plan to plead with Pandit Ravi Shankar to come to her aunt’s house and play the sitar for her brother, Anant, who was suffering from cancer.

Question 41.
Why were the neighbours surprised?
Answer:
The neighbours were surprised to see the two great musicians Pandit Ravi Shankar and Ustad Allah Rakha, getting out of a taxi which pulled up outside their block.

Question 42.
Give one word for each of the following:
(a) a soft compressed lump – …………………..
(b) twist or turn the body with quick – …………………..
(c) an expert at music – …………………..
(d) unseen backstage area on the sides of a stage – …………………..
Answer:
(a) wad
(b) wriggle movements
(c) wizard
(d) wings

Question 43.
(1) State the tense of the underlined verbs in the sentences:
(a) A small crowd had gathered
(b) Her knees felt weak.
(c) “Will you come to Aunt Sushila’s house?”
(d) “Its settled then.”
Answer:
(a) Past Perfect
(b) Simple Past
(c) Simple Future
(d) Simple Present.

Question 44.
Choose the appropriate Adverb or Adjective form to fill in the gaps.
(a) Smita spoke ………………. to Anant. (excited/excitedly)
Answer:
(a) excitedly

Question 45.
Music can calm the mind. Share your views.
Answer:
This is very true. Music has the profound effect of calming the mind, filling the soul of the listener with peace and transporting the devotee to a state of mind that is almost heaven.

Question 46.
(1) Pick out the gerund and use it in a sentence: She had been so excited at seeing the announcement.
(2) Arrange the words in alphabetical order: wooden, word, would, wonder
(3) Make a meaningful sentence by using the phrase: catch the attention of
(4) Write two smaller words hidden in the given word: table-tennis
(5) Identify the kind of sentence: Lucky you!
(6) Spot the errors and correct the sentence: Her knees were felt weak and her tongue being dry.
(7) Write the past participle forms of the given verbs: (1) die (2) stay
(8) Punctuate the sentence: did you hear him he whispered
Answer:
(1) Gerund: seeing Sentence: Seeing is believing.
(2) wonder, wooden, word, would
(3) Sentence: One of the girls in the dance caught the attention of the chief guest.
(4) tablet, table (tennis, able)
(5) Exclamatory Sentence
(6) Her knees felt weak and her tongue was dry.
(7) (1) died (2) stayed
(8) “Did you hear him?” he whispered.

Question 47.
(a) Write sentences using the word ‘rest’ with two different meanings.
(b) Rewrite the sentences beginning with the underlined word: The audience gave the artistes a standing ovation.
(c) Write a word register of 8 words for the word ‘concert’.
Answer:
(a) (1) Those who have finished may leave. The rest will please stay back, (the remaining ones)
(2) You may rest in the afternoon, (stop work in order to relax, sleep or gather strength)
(b) The artistes were given a standing ovation (by the audience).
(c) concert: programme, stage, audience, music, dance, box office, venue, band, (performance, recital, show, gig)

Question 48.
(1) State the kind of sentence and pick out the clause, if any: They knew then that the boy had not many days to live.
(2) Use the two given words in one meaningful sentence: cured, sitar
Answer:
(1) Kind of sentence: Complex Clause: that the boy had not many days to live – Noun clause
(2) The doctor told him that after he was cured he could play the sitar.

Read More:

Std 10 English Poem Connecting 2.3 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

December 21, 2024December 20, 2024 by Prasanna

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 2.3 Connecting the Dots Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 10 English Chapter 2.3 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Connecting Fear Poem 10th Std Question Answer

Question 1.
(A) Connect the dots to get what means a lot to you.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 2.3 Connecting the Dots 1
The word is ……………………………… .
Answer:

The word is SUN

(B) With your benchmark, use the letters given above to make a word register of ‘computers’. Set a time -limit of 5 minutes and compare your list with that of other classmates.
Answer:
AI, adobe, android, arithmetic, binary, browser, byte, bit, download, document, data, database, disk, format, http, hardware, homepage, java, keyboard, key, Microsoft, malware, memory, network, netscape, program, reboot, spam, spreadsheet, software, virus, web, windows, update, zip.

Question 2.
You are quite familiar with computers, especially the personal computer. Form pairs and make a list of famous computer manufacturing companies. One is given to you.
(a) Apple
(b) ……………………….
(c) ……………………….
(d) ……………………….
(e) ……………………….
(f) ……………………….
Answer:
(a) Apple
(b) Samsung
(c) IBM
(d) Lenovo
(e) Foxconn
(f) HP Inc.

Question 3.
Complete the web by filling the various benefits of computers.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 2.3 Connecting the Dots 2
Answer:

Question 4.
(A) Expand the following into their full forms.
(a) that’s
(b) didn’t
(c) here’s
(d) can’t
(e) I’ve
Answer:
(a) that’s – that is
(b) didn’t – did not
(c) here’s – here is
(d) can’t – cannot
(e) I’ve – I have

(B) Write the shortened forms of the following.
(a) You have ……………………….
(b) I would ……………………….
(c) It is ……………………….
(d) You are ……………………….
(e) He will ……………………….
(f) I had ……………………….
(g) will not ……………………….
(h) shall not ……………………….
(i) are not ……………………….
(j) need not ……………………….
(k) must not ……………………….
(l) ought not ……………………….
Answer:
(a) you have – you’ve
(b) I would – I’d
(c) it is – it’s
(d) you are – you’re
(e) he will – he’ll
(f) I had – rd
(g) will not – won’t
(h) shall not – shan’t
(i) arc not – aren’t
(j) need not – needn’t
(k) must not – mustn’t
(l) ought not – oughtn’t

Connecting the Dots Class 10 English Workshop Questions and Answers Maharashtra Board

Question 1.
(A) Rearrange the incidents in the life of Steve Jobs in chronological order.
(a) Steve Jobs started Next.
(b) Jobs underwent a surgery.
(c) Jobs learned about serif and sans serif type faces.
(d) Jobs returned to Apple Inc.
(e) Jobs married Laurene.
(f) Jobs was diagnosed with cancer.
(g) Jobs dropped out of Reed College.
Answer:
(a) Jobs started Next.
(b) Jobs underwent surgery.
(c) Jobs learned about serif and san serif typefaces.
(d) Jobs returned to Apple Inc.
(e) Jobs married Laurene.
(f) Jobs was diagnosed with cancer.
(g) Jobs dropped out of Reed College.

(B) Read the third story again. Complete the flow-chart given below.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 2.3 Connecting the Dots 3
Answer:

Question 2.
Read the lesson. Refer to a dictionary and match the words in column ‘A’ with their meanings in column ‘B’.

No	‘A’		‘B’
(a)	diagnosis	(i)	the power believed to control events
(b)	devastating	(ii)	complete list of items especially in a special order and description.
(c)	intuition	(iii)	act of identifying the nature of a problem or illness.
(d)	calligraphy	(iv)	power of understanding situations or people’s feelings before hand.
(e)	destiny	(v)	causing great destruction
(f)	catalogue	(vi)	beautiful handwriting done with a special pen or brush.

Answer:

No	‘A’		‘B’
(a)	diagnosis	(iii)	act of identifying the nature of a problem or illness.
(b)	devastating	(v)	causing great destruction
(c)	intuition	(iv)	power of understanding situations or people’s feelings before hand.
(d)	calligraphy	(vi)	beautiful handwriting done with a special pen or brush.
(e)	destiny	(a)	the power believed to control events
(f)	catalogue	(ii)	complete list of items especially in a special order and description.

Question 3.
Go through all the three stories. Identify some qualities of Steve Jobs and complete the web chart.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 2.3 Connecting the Dots 4
Answer:

Question 4.
Complete the following table.
‘The Three Stories in the Life of Steve Jobs’

	About	Setbacks	Reactions	Achievements and benefits
First story
Second story
Third story

Answer:

	About	Setbacks	Reactions	Achievements and benefits
First story	College days	no boarding and lodging	managed with friends and at a temple	learnt calligraphy
Second story	starting ’Apple’	fired from the company	started a new company ‘Next’	most creative period; renaissance’ of ‘Apple’
Third story	death	diagnosed with cancer	surgery, cure	learnt not to waste time living someone else’s life

Question 5.
Say HOW?
→ the calligraphy classes helped Steve Jobs after 10 years.
Answer:
10 years later when Steve Jobs was designing the first Macintosh computer, he recalled what he had learned in the calligraphy classes about serif and san serif typefaces as well as other elements that go into great typography. He designed all this into the Macintosh computer.

→ You can connect dots.
Answer:
We can’t connect dots by looking forward; we can only connect them looking backwards. We have to trust that the dots will somehow connect in our destiny.

→ Jobs reacted later on, after the shock of being fired from Apple.
Answer:
After he overcame the shock of being fired from Apple, Jobs felt the lightness of being a beginner again. He felt free to enter one of the most creative periods of his life. He started two companies – Next and Pixar.

→ Jobs was cured of a rare cancer.
Answer:
Jobs was diagnosed with a very rare form of pancreatic cancer. It was curable by surgery. Jobs had the surgery and he was cured.

→ Jobs acquired the famous words ‘Stay Hungry. Stay Foolish’
Answer:
When Jobs was young, he used to read an amazing publication called The Whole Earth Catalogue’. In the final issue was a photograph of an early morning country road beneath which were the words ‘Stay Hungry, Stay Foolish’. Steve acquired these words from the magazine.

Question 6.
Besides those given at the end of the talk by Steve Jobs, pick out other pieces of advice that Jobs gives in his speech.
Answer:
(a) Learn to connect the dots.
(b) Learn whatever you can whenever you can.
(c) We can learn even from negative experiences.
(d) Have trust that somehow the dots will connect in your future.
(e) Have trust in your gut. destiny, life, karma, whatever …
(f) Love what you do.
(g) Keep looking for what you love and don’t ever settle for less.
(h) Even under the most devastating circumstances, you can start all over again.
(i) Don’t lose faith.
(j) Your time is limited, so don’t waste it lining someone else’s life.

Question 7.
(A) Use the following idioms/phrases in sentences of your own.
(a) drop in …………………..
(b) drop out …………………..
(c) stumble on …………………..
(d) look backwards …………………..
(e) look forward …………………..
(f) let (someone) down …………………..
(g) sign off …………………..
(h) begin anew …………………..
Answer:
(a) Though I am not a member of the club, I often play tennis there as a drop in.
(b) I decided to drop out of karate classes as it was taking too much of my time.
(c) While surfing the net, he stumbled into a portal that showed only horror movies.
(d) After his terrible experience in his native place, he went to the city and never looked backwards.
(e) He tried to forget his terrible experience in his native place and looked forward.
(f) He placed great trust in his secretary, and she never let him down.
(g) I would like to sign off by telling you a short story with a beautiful message.
(h) It is never too late to forget past mistakes and begin anew.

(B) Fill in the gaps in choosing the appropriate idioms.
(drown out, hits in the head with a brick, get one’s affairs in order, connect the dots, begin to dawn, stay hungry)
(a) The wealthy landlord made a will before he could die.
(b) Those who aspire for success should always to learn more.
(c) If you you will realise that crime ultimately leads to poverty.
(d) The siren of the ambulance all other traffic noise.
(e) When the father learned about his son’s misdeeds, it
(f) On reading exactly same essays in both answer sheets, it the examiner, that the students had cheated during exams.
Answer:
(a) Getting his affairs in order
(b) Stay hungry
(c) Connect the dots
(d) Drowned out
(e) It hit him on the head with a brick.
(f) Began to dawn on

Question 8.
(A) Name the Tense of the Verbs underlined to include Time (Past/Present/Future) and Aspect (Simple/Continuous/Perfect/Perfect Continuous)
(1) I slept on the floor
(2) We were designing the first Macintosh computer
(3) It had made all the difference
(4) I am fine, now
(5) I have been facing death
(6) I shall be telling you three stories
Answer:
(1) Time – Past; Aspect – Simple.
(2) Time – Past Tense; Aspect – Progressive (continuous).
(3) Time – Past tense Aspect – Perfect
(4) Time – Present; Aspect – Simple.
(5) Time – Present; Aspect – Perfect.
(6) Time – Future; Aspect – Progressive (continuous).

(B) Change the Tense as instructed.
(1) I got fired. (Future Perfect)
(2) Life hits you in the head. (Present Perfect Continuous)
(3) The dots will somehow connect. (Past Perfect)
(4) I started a company. (Present Continuous)
(5) My doctor advised me. (Past Perfect Continuous)
Answer:
(1) Jobs got fired.
(2) Life hits you in the head.
(3) The dots had somehow connected.
(4) I started a company.
(5) My doctor had been advising me.

Question 9.
Read the News item and write an application for a suitable job in the same company. Attach a seperate CV/Resume.
May 19, 2016
Apple Opens Development Office in Hyderabad
(A) The new office in Hyderabad will focus on development of maps, Apple products, like iPhone, iPad, Mac. etc. This will create upto 4000 jobs
Answer:

Answer:
Ratan Shah
11 Salsa Apts.
Hafeczpeth
Hyderabad
Telangana – 500 049.
27th May, 2020

The HR Manager
Apple Development Office
18-23, Rd Number 2
Financial District
Nanakram Guda
Hydcrabad
Telangana — 500 032.

Subject : Application for post of Systems Analyst ‘
Sir,
I read the news item in the Times of India’ dated May 20, which stated that Apple has opened a Development office in Hyderabad, which is likely to create up to 4000 jobs. I am interested in applying for the post of Systems Analyst.

I have a bachelor’s degree In Computer Information Systems (CIS) and 6 months experience in Cornputronic& Ltd. as Systems Analyst. I am well-versed in analyzing, designing and implementing Information Systems. I wish to further my prospects and hence am applying to your company.

I do hope that you will give me the opportunity to prove my mettle.

Yours truly,
Ratan Shah

Attachments: CV, photocopies of Academic and Professional Certificates
Resume:
Name: Ratan Shah
Age: 24 years
Educational Qualification: B.Com (1st class); B.Computer Science (CIS)
Experience: 6 months experience in Computronics Ltd. as Systems Analyst
Marital Status: Single
Special Interests: Chess, Football, Cycling
Contact information: Address as above
Mobile no.: 097

(B) Imagine you are already working as an Engineer in Apple Development Office, Hyderabad. Write an application for 2 weeks leave to the HR Manager as you have to undergo an urgent surgery.
Answer:
Ms. Sara Kanchwala
11 Salsa Apts.
Hafeezpeth
Hyderabad
Telangana 500 049.
3 September, 2020

The HR Manager,
Apple Development Office
18-23, Rd. Number 2
Financial District
Nanakram Guda
Hyderabad
Telangana – 500 032.

Subject : ApplicatIon’ for leave of absence due to Imminent surgery (4th September to 17th September)

Dear Sir,
I had a bad fall a couple of days back and tore a ligament ‘In my knee. The pain is Intense and my doctor has advised me that immediate surgery is necessary.

Please grant me 2 weeks medical leave as the doctor has advised a fortnight’s complete bed rest post-op. Thanking you in advance,

I remain,
Yours truly,
Sara Kanchwala

Question 10.
Prepare a speech on the title “The Will to Win” to be delivered before the class during a competition.
Hints –

Title
Introduction
Objective and Illustrations
Specific examples
Purpose of the title.
Sources/Resourses for implementation.
Usefulness/Benefits
Conclusion.

Answer:
The Will to Win

Friends,
The topic before us today is The Will to Win’. This title brings to my mind the story of the hare and the tortoise. When the hare challenged the tortoise to a race, the tortoise knew very well that its speed was in no way comparable to that of the hare. Yet this little animal agreed to the race. And why, may I ask you? Only because it had the will to win. Come what may, the tortoise had to prove to the hare that it could win if it wanted to. And finally it won!

This, in fact, is the driving force behind all great ventures and achievements. The Will to Win!

I remember the time when I went to Std. V. My father had been transferred from Agra to Bhusaval. A subject that I had trouble mastering was the language Marathi. Needless to say in the first term I flunked very badly. But I was a student who usually scored high marks in all subjects. This failure was devastating.

However, I did not let it faze me. I took great interest in class lessons. Read my Marathi textbook over and over. Made friends who spoke fluently in Marathi and ventured speaking to them. At first they poked fun at me. But within a month I had picked up the basic structure of the language and began writing answers to questions on my own. Believe it or not, at the end of the term I topped the class in Marathi. ; Today I can speak in the language as if it is my mother tongue.

Friends, my message to you today is that you can do anything. All you require is the will. If you have the will, the skill will follow. So set your goals, define your objectives and I wish all of you the very best in ; whatever you decide to do in life.

Be sure of one thing: If you have the will, You Will Win!

Thank you.

Question 11.
Project :
Collect more information about Steve Jobs with the help of Internet. Complete it with images into a file.

Question 12.
Do you remember doing some activities in your childhood that you didn’t like it. Form pairs and make a list of all those activities. Do you think, any one of these activities have helped you in solving your problems? Share your experience with the class.

chopping vegetables:
cleaning the home; sweeping and dusting
hanging out clothes to dry
looking after my little brother
helping dad to repair the bicycle

Answer:
Once while driving home from school, the chain of my bicycle got dislodged and I almost fell off. There was no bicycle repair shop nearby and no passers-by were able to help me. Since I had experience helping dad to repair his bicycle, somehow I managed to get the chain fixed and wobbled back home. My hands were black and dirty with grease and oil, but at least I didn’t have to walk back home, pushing my bicycle along.

Question 13.
Write True or False for these statements: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
Answer:
(1) Steve Jobs slept in his dorm room. False
(2) Steve took his required courses as a registered student of Reed College. False
(3) During Steve’s College days, one had to pay 5 cents deposit for a Coke bdttle. True
(4) Steve ha’d comfortable college experiences. False

Question 14.
What basic course in Reed College helped while designing the Mac?
Answer:
The basic course of calligraphy in Reed College helped while designing the Mac.

Question 15.
Arrange the following incidents in Steve Jobs’ life in proper sequence based on this passage:
(a) Jobs stayed as a drop-in for 18 months.
(b) Jobs used to sleep on the floor in his friend’s house.
Answer:
(a) Jobs stayed as a drop-in for 18 months.
(b) Jobs used to sleep on the floor in his friend’s house.

Question 16.
Complete the following: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
(1) Steve’s first story is about connecting the dots.
(2) Steve got one good meal every Sunday night at the Hare Krishna temple.
Answer:
Connecting the dots.
Hare Krishna temple.

Question 17.
What did Steve Jobs do for two years after he joined Reed College?
Answer:
After joining Reed College, for two years Steve would stop taking the required classes that didn’t interest him. Instead he began dropping in on the ones that looked interesting.

Question 18.
List the hardships that Steve faced.
Answer:

Steve didn’t have a dorm room and so had to sleep on the floor in friends’ rooms.
Steve returned Coke bottles for the 5 cent deposits to buy food with.
Steve would walk seven miles across town every Sunday night to get one good meal a week at the Hare Krishna temple.

Question 19.
Write from the passage a phrase that means ‘Apart from this, I have nothing more to tell.’
Answer:
That’s it.

Question 20.
Choose the correct contextual meaning of the phrase: connecting the dots.
(a) making a pattern with the help of dots
(b) associating one previous idea with other ideas that follow
(c) joining dots in a puzzle to get the correct picture
(d) understanding a procedure
Answer:
(b) associating one previous idea with other ideas that follow

Question 21.
Match the words in column A with their meanings in column B:

A		B
(i)	intuition	(a)	a set of characters like letters, symbols, etc. in one design
(ii)	calligraphy	(b)	the style and appearance of printed matter
(iii)	typography	(c)	power of understanding the feelings of people
(iv)	typeface	(d)	beautiful handwriting done with a special pen or brush

Answer:

(i)	intuition	(c)	power of understanding the feelings of people
(ii)	calligraphy	(d)	beautiful handwriting done with a special pen or brush
(iii)	ypography	(b)	the style and appearance of printed matter
(iv)	typeface	(a)	a set of characters like letters, symbols, etc. in one design

Question 22.
It was one of the best decisions I ever made. (Rewrite using ‘better than’.)
Answer:
It was better than most other decisions I ever made.

Question 23.
Personal Response: What impression of Steve Jobs do you get from this passage?
Answer:
In this passage, it appears that Steve Jobs is a student who goes by his impulses. He has a thirst for knowledge, but prefers subjects that he finds interesting and avoids those that he finds uninteresting, even though he has enrolled for them. He is ready to face all kinds of hardships in order to study what he wants to. Steve Jobs had a natural curiosity and intuition. He also had an instinct about what makes something really great and the habit of storing it away in his mind for future use.

Question 24.
Fill in the blanks: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
(1) Steve designed the Macintosh computer.
(2) Windows copied the Macintosh computer.
(3) It was impossible to connect the dots looking forward when Steve was in college.
(4) You can only connect the dots looking backward.
Answer:
(1) Macintosh
(2) Windows
(3) forward
(4) backward

Question 25.
Complete the following: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
(1) The Mac ‘computer which he designed would not have had multiple typefaces or proportionally spaced fonts.
(2) Since Windows just copied Mac, it was likely no personal computer would have had them.
Answer:
(1) not have had multiple typefaces or proportionally spaced fonts.
(2) no personal computer would have had them.

Question 26.
Complete the following: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
Words connected with typography from the passage are: typeface and font.
Answer:
typeface and font.

Question 27.
Match the words /phrases in column A with their meanings in column B:

(A)		(B)
(i)	gut	(a)	Macintosh computer.
(ii)	destiny	(b)	having several parts.
(iii)	Mac	(c)	the power believed to control events.
(iv)	multiple	(d)	courage and determination.

Answer:

A		B
(i)	gut	(d)	courage and determination
(ii)	destiny	(c)	the power believed to control events
(iii)	Mac	(a)	Macintosh computer
(iv)	multiple	(b)	having several parts

Question 28.
It was impossible to connect the dots looking forward. (Pick out the verbs and say if they are finite or non-finite.)
Answer:
was – finite; to connect, looking – non-finites

Question 29.
It was very clear. (Rewrite as an exclamatory sentence.)
Answer:
How clear it was!

Question 30.
Mac would never have had multiple typefaces. (Rewrite as an interrogative sentence.)
Answer:
Would Mac ever have had multiple typefaces?

Question 31.
Personal Response: Write about something which you learned in the past and which has helped you in the present.
Answer:
When I was in Std. V, mother enrol led me for dancing classes, I had to stop when I reached Std. IX. However, now whenever I need a break or I am feeling stressed, I put on some music and dance. That gives me relief from stress.

Question 32.
Name the following: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
Answer:
(1) The world’s most successful animation studio. Pixar
(2) The company that Steve Jobs took five years to establish. Next
(3) The company that bought Next. Apple
(4) Steve Jobs’ wife. Laurene

Question 33.
What setback did Jobs suffer when he was thirty?
Answer:
When Jobs was thirty, he was fired from the company which he himself had started. This was devastating and a major setback in his life.

Question 34.
Match the words/phrases in column A with their meanings in column B:

A		B
(i)	renaissance	(a)	causing great destruction
(ii)	to start over	(b)	lost one’s job
(iii)	fired	(c)	revival
(iv)	devastating	(d)	to begin again

Answer:

A		B
(i)	renaissance	(c)	revival
(ii)	to start over	(d)	to begin again
(iii)	fired	(b)	lost one’s job
(iv)	devastating	(a)	causing great destruction

Question 35.
Fill in the blanks choosing the appropriate idioms: (at the heart of, hit him on the head with brick, begin to dawn, lose faith)
(1) Even if you don’t succeed at first, don’t lose faith in yourself.
(2) It is corruption in high places that lies at the heart of the non-development of this locality.
Answer:
(1) Lose faith
(2) At the heart of

Question 36.
Personal Response: What does this second story of Jobs convey to you?
Answer:
The second story of Jobs – about love and loss – conveys to us that even if our efforts result in complete disaster, we should continue believing in ourselves. It tells us that we should love our work. If we haven’t yet found it, we should keep on searching. We should never accept less than what we aim for in life.

Question 37.
Which quality of Steve Jobs impresses you the most? How would you apply it in your life?
Answer:
I admire Steve’s quality of not giving up even after facing a terribly shocking loss. It inspires me never to be disheartened by failure, but to always keep trying. Even if one loses everything, one has to have the courage to start all over again.

Question 38.
Arrange the following incidents in Steve Jobs’ life in proper sequence based on this passage:
(a) Jobs was advised to get his affairs in order.
(b) Jobs was cured of a rare form of cancer.
Answer:
(a) Jobs was advised to get his affairs in order.
(b) Jobs was cured of a rare form of cancer.

Question 39.
Fill in the blanks: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
(1) Steve’s third story is about death.
(2) The doctor describes the last stage of cancer as the ‘prepare to die’ stage.
(3) Steve ‘says that you should follow your heart and intuition.
(4) We should not waste time.
Answer:
(1) death
(2) ‘prepare to die’
(3) heart and intuition.
(4) time.

Question 40.
What does Jobs warn you about life and dogma?
Answer:
Jobs warns us not be trapped by dogma. Dogma is living with the results of other people’s thinking. The overpowering influence of other’s opinions should not drown out our own inner voice.

Question 41.
How does Jobs close his address to the graduate students?
Answer:
Steve Jobs closes his address to the graduate students by telling them about an amazing publication called The Whole Earth Catalogue’. In the final issue on the back cover there was a photograph of an early morning country road. Beneath it were the words ‘Stay Hungry, Stay Foolish’. Jobs wishes the students the same words as his farewell message to them.

Question 42.
Write from the passage four medical words / phrases / terms.
Answer:
pancreatic cancer, diagnosis, biopsy, surgery

Question 43.
Match the words in column ‘A’ with their meanings in column ‘B’:

A		B
(a)	diagnosis	(1)	a set of beliefs held by an organisation which others are expected to accept without argument.
(b)	catalogue	(2)	act of identifying the nature of a problem or illness.
(c)	dogma	(3)	in a new or different way.
(d)	anew	(4)	complete list of items especially in a special order and description.

Answer:

A		B
(a)	diagnosis	(2)	act of identifying the nature of a problem or illness.
(b)	catalogue	(4)	complete list, of items especially in a special order and description.
(c)	dogma	(1)	a set of beliefs held by an organisation which others are expected to accept without argument
(d)	anew	(3)	in a new or different way.

Question 44.
Choose correct question tags for the sentences and rewrite: wasn’t it? isn’t it? aren’t I? will you?
(a) Don’t be trapped by dogma.
(b) It was their farewell message.
(c) Your time is limited.
(d) I’m fine now.
Answer:
(a) Don’t be trapped by dogma, will you?
(b) It was their farewell message, wasn’t it?
(c) Your time is limited, isn’t it?
(d) I’m fine now, aren’t I?

Question 45.
Don’t waste it. (Rewrite without ‘don’t’.)
Answer:
Avoid wasting it.

Question 46.
Personal Response: “Your time is limited. So don’t waste it living someone else’s life.” What are your views about these statements?
Answer:
These are the conclusions that Steve Jobs came to when he discovered that he was suffering from pancreatic cancer. Coming face to face with death, he realized how very little time we have on earth to realize our true potential. Most of our lives are spent following the dictates of others. By this statement, Steve Jobs means that we should spend every moment of our lives trying to discover our own potential and determine our own purpose and path in life.

Question 47.
(1) Pick out the compound words from the given words: dropping, calligraphy, backwards, graduate, photograph
(2) Pick out the gerund and use it in your own sentence: I could begin dropping in on the ones that looked interesting.
(3) Punctuate the sentence: heres one ekample reed college offered perhaps the best calligraphy instruction in the country
(4) Spot the error and rewrite the correct sentence: At the calligraphy class, I learn about what make great typography great.
(5) Identify the type of sentence: Don’t settle.
(6) Find out two hidden words of at least 4 letters each from the word ‘devastating’.
(7) Form present participles in which the last letter is doubled: drop, quit
(8) Arrange these words in alphabetical order: friend, follow, found, freed.
Answer:
(1) backwards = back + wards; photograph = photo + graph
(2) Gerund: dropping Sentence: Stop dropping in here without any warning.
(3) Here’s one example: Reed College offered perhaps the best calligraphy instruction in the country.
(4) At the calligraphy class, I learned about what makes great typography great.
(5) Imperative Sentence in the Negative.
(6) devastating-vast, taste (gate, stain.)
(7) dropping, quitting
(8) follow, found, freed, friend

Question 48.
(1) Write the homophone for the word ‘story’ and frame a sentence.
(2) Rewrite the sentence using the past perfect continuous tense: We were designing the first Macintosh computer.
(3) Rewrite beginning with underlined part: The heaviness of being successful was replaced by the lightness of being a beginner again.
(4) Write a word register for the word: ‘doctor’ (4 words).
Answer:
(1) Homophones: story – storey Sentence: I live in a seven-storys building.
(2) We had been designing the first Macintosh computer.
(3) The lightness of being a beginner again replaced the heaviness of being successful.
(4) physician, surgeon, medico, healer, practitioner. (MD, medic, scientist, specialist)

Question 49.
(1) Use the word,‘trust’ in sentences as a noun as well as a verb.
(2) Underline the modal auxiliary and state its function: I had to take a calligraphy class.
Answer:
(1) (a) I have great trust in my teacher, (noun)
(b) Trust in God. (verb)
(2) I had to take a calligraphy class, (necessity/ obligation/compulsion)

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Std 10 English Poem A Thing of Beauty is a Joy For Ever 4.1 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

December 21, 2024December 20, 2024 by Prasanna

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 4.1 A Thing of Beauty is a Joy For Ever Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 10 English Chapter 4.1 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

A Thing of Beauty is a Joy For Ever Poem 10th Std Question Answer

A Thing Of Beauty Is A Joy Forever Question 1.
(A) Fill in the Acrostic with names of things related to Nature.
B …………………..
E …………………..
A …………………..
U …………………..
T …………………..
Y …………………..
Answer:
Birds
Earth
Animals
Uranus
Trees
Yam

(B) Make a list of 10 words related to the word ‘joy’, for example, happiness.
1. …………………..
2. …………………..
3. …………………..
4. …………………..
5. …………………..
6. …………………..
7. …………………..
8. …………………..
9. …………………..
10. ………………….
Answer:
happiness,
pleasure,
ecstasy,
delight,
rapture,
jubilation,
elation,
exultation,
glee,
euphoria.

A Thing Of Beauty Important Questions Question 2.
Recollect a picnic or a trip to a spot of natural beauty (a hill station/ a beach/forest area etc.) when you were younger.
Write four beautiful unforgettable scenes that left a deep impact on you.
(1) …………………………………………………………
(2) …………………………………………………………
(3) …………………………………………………………
(4) …………………………………………………………
Answer:
(1) The setting sun disappearing behind the hills.
(2) The river shining deep down in the valley.
(3) The early morning mist.
(4) The rain water trickling down from the leaves.

A Thing Of Beauty Is A Joy Forever Poem Question 3.
‘Meter’ in poetry is a pattern of stressed and unstressed syllables in lines of a poem. It gives rhythm to the poem.

Read the poem below aloud and with any colored pen/ pencil put stress-marks ( ‘ ) on those syllables that are stressed in the words of the poetic lines.

THE steadfast coursing of the stars,
The waves that ripple to the shore,
The vigorous trees which year by year
Spread upwards more and more ;
The jewel forming in the mine,
The snow that falls so soft and light,
The rising and the setting sun,
The growing glooms of night,
All natural things both live and move
In natural peace that is their own ;
Only in our disordered life
Almost is she unknown.

A Thing Of Beauty Extract Questions Question 4.
Consonance and Assonance
Consonance : Repetition of consonant sounds within a word, phrase or a short sentence.
For example : pitter-patter/ chuckle-fickle/ sick-duck/ Betty bought some bitter butter
Answer:
Consonance: (Repetition of consonant sounds within a word, phrase or a short sentences)
(1) The steadfast coursing of the stars
(2) The waves that ripple to the shore
(3) The snow that falls so soft and light
(4) The rising and the setting sun
(5) All natural things both live and move.

Assonance : Repetition of vowel sounds within a word/ phrase/ sentence.
For example : Jack had a bag.
Men sell metal- kettle.
Let the engineer steer without fear.
Answer:
Assonance: (Repetition of vowel sounds within a word/phrase/sentence.)
(1) The vigorous trees which year by year
(2) Spread upwards more and more
(3) Theewel forming in the mine
(4) Only in our disordered life.

Thing of Beauty is a Joy For Ever Class 10 English Workshop Questions and Answers Maharashtra Board

A Thing Of Beauty Question Answer Question 1.
Read the poem and fill in the table.

Sr. No.	Expressions of Beauty (joy)	Expressions of sorrow
1
2
3
4
5
6

Answer:

Expressions of Beauty (Joy)	Expressions of Sorrow
1. A bower quiet for us	1. Spite of despondence
2. Are we wreathing a flowery band	2. Of the inhuman dearth of noble natures
3. Sproutingashadyboon	3. Of the gloomy days
4. Daffodils with the green world they live in	4. Of all the unhealthy and o’er-darkened ways
5. Clear rills that for themselves a cooling covert make	5. Our dark spirits
6. Mid forest brake, rich with a sprinkling ‘ of fair musk-rose blooms	–

A Thing Of Beauty Is Joy Forever Question 2.
Answer in your own words.
(a) What is the impact of a beautiful thing on us?
(b) What does a thing of beauty keep in store, for us?
(c) Who are the mighty dead? Why are they attributed with ‘grandeur’?
(d) How does the memory of a beautiful visual scene become a joy forever?
Answer:
(a) A beautiful thing gives us happiness, relaxation and peace. It inspires us and makes us love life despite troubles and sufferings.
(b) A thing of beauty provides shelter and comfort in many ways. It is like a shady place under a tree where we can rest. It helps all living creatures to sleep peacefully, have good dreams and also good health.
(c) The memory of a beautiful visual scene leaves a lasting impression on us. It is a permanent source of joy and inspiration to five our lives despite the trials and tribulations. The pleasure and happiness given by it never fades away but keeps on increasing.
(d) The mighty dead are the brave men who have sacrificed their lives for a purpose. They Eire an inspiration to all of us because of their innumerable sacrifices. They are attributed with grandeur because of their noble deeds.

A Thing Of Beauty Is A Joy Forever Question And Answer Question 3.
Pick out and rewrite 5 lines that contain Imagery.
For example :
(a) we are wreathing a flowery band…
(b) …………………………………………
(c) …………………………………………
(d) …………………………………………
(e) …………………………………………
Answer:
(a) we are wreathing a flowery band
(b) trees old and young, sprouting a shady boon
(c) and such are daffodils with the green world they live in
(d) and clear rills that for themselves a cooling covert make
(e) the mid forest brake, rich with a sprinkling of fair musk-rose blooms

Thing Of Beauty Question Answers Question 4.
Choose the correct Figure of speech that occurs in the following lines. Justify your choice.
(a) ………………….. but still we keep a bower quiet for us
(i) Simile
(ii) Irony
(iii) Metaphor
Answer:
(iii) Metaphor

(b) Some shape of beauty moves away the pall …………………..
(i) Personification
(ii) Alliteration
(iii) Hyperbole
Answer:
(ii) Alliteration

(d) Trees old and young, sprouting a shady boon.
(i) Exclamation
(ii) Personification
(iii) Antithesis
Answer:
(iii) Antithesis

The Thing Of Beauty Is A Joy Forever Question 5.
From the poem pick out words that we do not use often in modern times. They should match the meanings given below.
(a) gift …………………..
(b) the next day …………………..
(c) a protective spot ………………….. (for animals)
(d) a cool shady spot ………………….. under tall trees.
(e) ferns …………………..
(f) edge …………………..
(g) depression …………………..
(h) cover for the dead …………………..
(i) streams …………………..
(j) poetry …………………..
Answer:
(a) gift – boon
(b) the next day – morrow
(c) a protective spot for animals – covert
(d) a cool shady spot bower under tall trees
(e) ferns – brake
(f) edge – brink
(g) depression – despondence
(h) cover for the dead – pall
(i) streams-rills
(j) poetry – poesy

A Thing Of Beauty Is A Joy For Ever Question 6.
Copy the first 8 lines and mark the stressed syllables using a coloured pen.

A Thing Of Beauty Is A Joy Question 7.
Read the poem and write-
(a) The rhyme scheme of the following lines.
Lines 1 to 8 …………………..
Last stanza …………………..
Answer:
Rhyme scheme of lines 1 – 8: aabb, ccdd
Rhyme scheme of the last stanza: aabbc.

(b) (i) The number of stressed syllables (Rhythm) in the line.
A thing of beauty is a joy forever. ………………….
Answer:
A thing of beauty is a joy forever. The title of the poem

(ii) Does the poem retain a steady rhythm throughout?
Answer:
Yes.

(c) Give four examples of each. Pick the lines from the poem.
(i) Consonance:
(1) ………………….
(2) ………………….
(3) ………………….
(4) ………………….
Answer:
(1) A flowery band to bind us to the earth
(2) For simple sheep; and such are the daffodils
(3) With the green world they live in; and clear rills.
(4) All lovely tales that we have heard or read

(ii) Assonance :
(1) ………………….
(2) ………………….
(3) ………………….
(4) ………………….
Answer:
(1) A thing of beauty is joy forever
(2) Pass into nothingness, but still will keep
(3) And such too is the grandeur of the dooms
(4) That whether there be shine or gloom o’ercast

I Think Of Beauty Is A Joy Forever Question 8.
Go through the poem again and write in your notebook an appreciation of the poem in the paragraph format. (Refer to page no. 5 )
Answer:
Point Format
(for understandig)
The title of the poem : ‘A Thing of Beauty Is a Joy Forever’
The poet : John Keats
Rhyme schenie: aabb; rhyming couplets
Figures of speech : EpIgram, Metaphor, Antithesis, etc.
Theme/Central idea: Beautiful things give unending pleasure and can change our lives.

Paragraph Format
The poem ‘A Thing of Beauty is aoy Forever’ byohn Keats is taken from a longer poem ‘Endymion’ based on Greek Mythology.

The rhyme scheme of the poem is aabb; that is, the poem is written in rhyming couplets. There Eire many figures of speech, like Metaphor, Antithesis, etc. but the one that stands out is Epigram. The line A thing of beauty is aoy forever’, is a pithy saying expressing the idea of beauty in a clever way.

The important thing that the poet tells us is that beautiful things last forever and give us immense i happiness. They give unending pleasure and can change our lives.

Question 9.
Project :
Collect from various sources proverbs or maxims related to the ‘beauty of nature.’ Make a chart/ poster with the same. Decorate it with images, drawings, pictures, and put it up by turns in your class.

Question 10.
List the things of beauty mentioned in the extract.
Answer:
The things of beauty include a quiet bower, the heavenly bodies like the sun and the moon, the old and young trees that provide cool shelter to sheep, daffodils with greenery around them, clear streams that make cool thickets for themselves and ferns with musk-roses scattered in between.

Question 11.
List the things that cause suffering and pain.
Answer:
The things that cause suffering and pain are despondence and despair, shortage of noble people, hot season, gloomy days and the unhealthy and darkened ways of life (trials and difficulties of life).

Question 12.
Choose the correct figures of speech that occur in the following lines.ustify your choice.
(1) ….but still we keep a bower quiet for us….
(a) Simile (b) Irony (c) Metaphor
Answer:
Metaphor – bower stands for rest and peace

Question 13.
Some shape of beauty moves away the pall
(a) Personification (b) Alliteration (c) Hyperbole
Answer:
Alliteration – Repetition of the sound of the letter ‘s’.
Personification – beauty is given the human quality of moving away the pall. *

Question 14.
A thing of beauty is aoy forever….
(a) Epigram (b) Antithesis (c) Climax
Answer:
Epigram – the sentence is a short, pithy statement.

Question 15.
Trees old and young, sprouting a shady boon.
(a) Exclamation (b) Personification (c) Antithesis
Answer:
Antithesis – the use of opposite words, old and young, in the same line.

Question 16.
The number of stressed syllables in the line: A thing of beauty is joy forever;
Answer:
5

Question 17.
List the things of beauty mentioned in the extract.
Answer:
The things of beauty mentioned in the extract are: lovely tales of valour, endless fountains, immortal drink, trees that whisper, passionate poetry and cheering light.

Question 18.
Fill in the web with what passion poesy can do to you:
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 4.1 A Thing of Beauty is a Joy For Ever 1

Question 19.
List the things which express sorrow from the extract:
Answer:
(i) dooms
(ii) glooms o’ercast/clouds of gloom
(iii) die (iv) dead.

Question 20.
Pick out and write the lines that contain imagery.
Answer:
(i) grandeur of the dooms ;
(ii) An endless fountain of immortal drink ;
(iii) Pouring onto us from the heaven’s brink
(iv) trees that whisper around a temple

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Std 10 English Poem The Luncheon 4.2 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

December 21, 2024December 20, 2024 by Prasanna

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 4.2 The Luncheon Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 10 English Chapter 4.2 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

The Luncheon Poem 10th Std Question Answer

The Luncheon Questions And Answers Class 10 Question 1.
Talk with your partner and discuss the following questions:
(a) Have you ever been invited to lunch, at any hotel, by your friend?
(b) What was the occasion?
(c) Did you enjoy the lunch? Why?
Answer:
(a) Have you ever been invited for a lunch to any hotel by your friend? (You can think of the name of the hotel, what you ate there, what you saw there, etc.)
(b) What was the occasion? (Was it for a birthday, a celebration of some sort, a get-together, etc.)
(c) Did you enjoy the lunch? Why? (Was the food good/bad, was the service good/ bad, was the place clean/unclean/noisy, etc.)

The Luncheon Questions And Answers Question 2.
Discuss in pairs:
People with foibles are often not conscious of them. Do you agree or disagree? Why?
Answer:
I agree with this. My grandmother has a foible that we all know about, but she is not conscious of it. When the house is untidy, she gets irritated. She will tuck in the edge of her sari and walk about the house, muttering to herself. She is not even aware of this peculiar behavior.

The Luncheon English Workshop Question 3.
As you know, every country has its own currency. Find out the currency of at least 6 countries along with their current exchange rate in India, with the help of the internet. One is done for you.
For example, Switzerland: franc; 1 franc = 66.73 INR

Country	Currency	Exchange Rate in Indian Currency

Answer:

Country	Currency	Exchange Rate in Indian Currency
1. Switzerland	franc	1 franc = 66.73 INR
2. United States of America	Dollar	1 dollar = 72.04 rupees
3. Afghanistan	Afghani	1 Afghani= 0.9532 rupees
4. Japan	Yen	1 Yen =0.6422 rupees
5. Indonesia	Rupiah	1 Rupiah= 0.005 rupees
6. Malaysia	Malaysian ringgit	1 Malaysian ringgit= 17.412 rupees

The Luncheon Class 10 English Workshop Questions and Answers Maharashtra Board

1. Choose the correct option from the bracket and fill in the blanks given below.
(addressed, luncheon, generously, unwise, insist)
(a) The chief guest …………………… the students.
(b) The crow was …………………… to sing.
(c) I invited my relatives to ……………………
(d) Parents always …………………… on children to be allrounders.
(e) The king decided to donate his wealth among his subjects ……………………
Answer:
(a) addressed
(b) unwise
(c) luncheon
(d) insist
(e) generously

Question 2.
Go through the story again and find out various instances which create humour in ‘The Luncheon’. Complete the table by picking up various humorous instances and the particular line from the story. One is done for you.

Humorous Instance	Line from the story
The woman is a voracious eater	‘‘Follow my example, and never eat more than one thing for luncheon.’’

Answer:

Humorous instance	Line from the passage
1. The author ordered a single mutton chop.	(i) “I see you’re in the habit of eating a heavy luncheon.” (ii) “Why don’t you follow my example and eat just one thing?”
2. The woman wanted to eat asparagus.	(i) “I couldn’t possibly eat anything more unless they had some of those giant asparagus. I should be sorry to leave Paris without eating some of them.” (ii) “I’m not in the least hungry, but if you insist, I don’t mind having some asparagus.”
3. The writer was afraid that he would not have enough money to pay the bill.	I would put my hand in my pocket and with a dramatic cry. start-up and say that it had been picked.

Question 3.
Who said these words/sentences? Under what circumstances?

Words/Sentences	Who said?	Under what circumstances?
1. I never eat anything for luncheon. 2. It’s many years since we first met. 3. Are you still hungry? 4. I don’t believe in overloading my stomach. 5. I’ll eat nothing for dinner tonight.

Answer:

Words/Sentences	Who said?	Under what circumstances?
1. I never eat anything for luncheon.	Guest	When the writer was startled on seeing the prices on the menu.
2. It’s many years since we first met.	The Guest	When she met the writer at a play and called him over during the interval to talk to him.
3. Are you still hungry?	Author	When the guest said that one should get up from a meal feeling that one could eat a little more, and she had already eaten quite a lot.
4. I don’t believe in overloading my stomach.	Guest	When the writer ordered a mutton chop for himself.
5. I’ll eat nothing for dinner tonight.	Author	When the luncheon was over and they were leaving the hotel, he knew that he had the whole month before him and he did not have any money for food. That was when he said the words.

Question 4.
Answer in your own words.
(a) Although the author was not a vindictive man, he was very happy to see her weigh twenty one stone and had finally had his revenge. What makes him say this? Explain.
Answer:
Twenty years earlier, the writer was earning barely enough money to make both ends meet. The lady wanted him to give her a luncheon at Foyot’s, an expensive restaurant. The writer thought that he could stand her a modest luncheon. The lady reassured him by saying that ‘she never ate anything for luncheon’. However, she ended by eating about six different items, some of which were very expensive yet she insisted till the end that she never ate more than one thing for luncheon and advised him against ‘filling his stomach with a lot of meat’ when all he had eaten was one small mutton chop – the cheapest item on the menu. The writer was finally left with a whole month before him and no money in his pocket. He could not forget this incident, and when he met her twenty years later, she had become very fat and weighed twenty-one stone. This made the writer feel that though he was not a vindictive man, he had got his revenge.

(b) There are quite a few places where the author uses the expressions ‘My heart sank, panic seized’ etc. What was the reason for this ? Explain.
Answer:
The writer was living in a tiny apartment in Paris and earning barely enough money to make both ends meet. The lady wanted him to give her a little luncheon at Foyot’s, an expensive restaurant. When they met, she ordered some of the most expensive dishes available. The writer was terribly worried about whether he had enough money to pay the bill. Hence, he has used the expressions ‘my heart sank’, ‘panic seized me’, etc.

(c) What are the instances which create humour in “The Luncheon”?
Answer:
The instances in the story that create humour are:
(i) when the writer sees the woman at Foyot’s.
(ii) when she orders dish after dish, after first saying that she eats nothing for luncheon, and then stretching the irony she insists that she ate only one thing for luncheon,
(iii) when she tells the writer, who is eating only a mutton chop – the cheapest item on the menu – that he should not overload his stomach,
(iv) when she says that the writer has insisted on her eating asparagus,
(v) when the writer imagines what he would do while paying the bill,
(vi) when the writer says that he would not eat anything for dinner that night,
(vii) when the writer tells us the woman’s weight, when he sees her aghin after twenty years.

(d) Describe the use of irony and humour in “The Luncheon”.
Answer:
In this story, the writer uses humour and irony to depict the character of the woman. The narrator takes the woman to an expensive restaurant called Foyot’s. He is startled when he sees the high prices on the menu, but relieved when his guest tells him, “I never eat anything for luncheon,” and “I never eat more than one thing.” After stating this, ironically, the woman eats some of the most expensive things available, like salmon and caviar, while the poor author only eats a mutton chop. Looking at it, she takes him to task for eating a ‘heavy’ luncheon, and tells him that he should follow her example and never eat more than one thing for luncheon. She said that she would eat the asparagus because the writer ‘insists’, when it was she who had asked for them. In the end, when she repeats once again that he should follow her example and never eat more than one thing for luncheon, the writer retorts that he would do better than that— he would not eat anything for dinner that night!

Question 5.
Pick out the words and phrases in the story that indicate that the author was not financially well off. One is done for you.

Words	not afford	–
Phrases	beyond my means	–

Answer:

Words	not afford	modest, cheapest, borrow, mean.
Phrases	beyond my means	earning barely enough money, manage well enough, prices were a great deal higher, horribly expensive, ten francs short, what they cost, inadequate tip, not a penny in my pocket, eat nothing for dinner.

Question 6.
After reading the story, put the following events into correct order:
(a) She gave me her last kind advice how to improve my eating habits.
(b) I met her in the theatre after many years and I could hardly recognize her.
(c) Twenty years ago, I lived in Paris and earned just enough money to get by.
(d) I was really scared what could happen when I would pay the bill.
(e) “I never eat anything for luncheon.”
(f) I ordered a mutton chop for myself.
(g) She had read a book of mine.
(h) She ordered asparagus.
(i) She suggested him to invite her to a famous and expensive restaurant.
(j) I didn’t have dinner for the rest of the month.
Answer:
(c) Twenty years ago, I lived in Paris and earned just enough money to get by.
(b) I met her in the theatre after many years and I could hardly recognize her.
(g) She had read a book of mine.
(i) I invited her to a famous and expensive restaurant.
(e) “I never eat anything for luncheon.”
(f) I ordered a mutton chop for myself.
(h) She ordered asparagus.
(d) I was really scared what could happen when I would pay the bill.
(a) She gave me her last kind advice on how to improve my eating habits.
(j) I didn’t have dinner for the rest of the month.

Question 7.
The irony is the expression of meaning through the use of language signifying the opposite. Describe the use of irony in ‘The Luncheon’. Pick the sentences from the story that are examples of irony. Fill in the table ‘A’ the general direct meaning while in table ‘B’ its hidden meaning or the opposite meaning intended by the speaker. One is done for you.

Sentence	Direct meaning	Hidden meaning
If I cut out coffee for the next two days,	to stop drinking coffee	to stop spending money in order to save money for some purpose.

Answer:

Sentence	Direct Meaning	Irony (Hidden meaning)
(1) I never eat more than one thing.	I am careful and do not eat much; I eat only one thing.	She goes on to eat six expensive items during the luncheon.
(2) I don’t believe in overloading my stomach.	I do not eat much, but in limited quantities.	She has a hearty and expensive meal.
(3) If you insist, I don’t mind ‘ having some asparagus.	I am eating asparagus because you are forcing me to.	The writer had certainly not insisted; she had asked for it.
(4) I’m not in the least hungry.	I am not at all hungry and cannot eat anything.	She thrusts the asparagus down her throat in large mouthfuls.
(5) One thing I thoroughly believe in—one should get up from a meal feeling one could eat a little more.	One should always leave space in the stomach for more food.	She has had a hearty meal and was probably very full.
(6) I have a cup of coffee in the morning and then dinner, but I never eat more than one thing for luncheon. I’ve just had a snack.	I am a very light eater; I hardly eat anything during the day.	She has had six different items for luncheon.
(7) You’ve filled your stomach with a lot of meat.	You have eaten a lot.	The writer had just one little miserable mutton chop.
(8) I’ll eat nothing for dinner tonight.	I won’t have anything for dinner tonight.	The writer had no money left.

Question 8.
Fill in the blank a word or a phrase given in the brackets in their appropriate forms. (startle, catch sight of, overload, water, pass)
1. “I never …………………… my stomach”, she said.
2. I was …………………… when the menu was brought.
3. The author …………………… the guest at the play.
4. I had seen asparagus in the shops, my mouth often …………………… at the sight of them.
5. The author’s guest was …………………… through Paris.
Answer:
1. overload
2. startled
3. caught sight of
4. watering
5. passing

Question 9.
Use appropriate articles.
1. I have just had …………………… snack.
2. I have …………………… cup of coffee in the morning.
3. I want just …………………… ice cream and coffee.
4. Author and his guest gave …………………… order and then waited for asparagus to be cooked.
Answer:
a
a
an
The

Question 10.
Classify the following words in the given table appropriately. (modest, luncheon, generously, rank, restaurant, appearance, large, expensive, watch, coffee, brought, afford, practical, apartment, moment, brightly, started, thoroughly)

Noun	Verb	Adjective	Adverb

Answer:

Noun	Verb	Adjective	Adverb
luncheon, restaurant, appearance, watch, coffee, apartment, moment	brought, afford, started, sank	modest, large, expensive, practical,	generously, brightly, thoroughly

Question 11.
Study the different uses of ‘could’. Identify what it indicates.
(a) Lack of rain could cause draught. (possibility/condition)
(b) Abhi could perform well in his school days. (suggestion/past ability)
(c) Instead of playing computer games you could play real games with friends. (past ability/suggestion)
(d) Could I use your computer for surfing net? (possibility/request)
(e) We could go on an excursion, if we didn’t have exam. (suggestion/condition)
Answer:
(1) could – possibility
(2) could – past ability
(3) could – suggestion
(4) could – request
(5) could – condition

Question 12.
Fill in the gaps with appropriate Prepositions to make the passage meaningful.
I waited …………………… the airport …………………… Atlanta. My old school-mate was going to arrive …………………… New Airlines …………………… Mumbai, …………………… 21st March …………………… the year 2018. We had not met …………………… 40 years …………………… 1978. She was going to stay …………………… a week …………………… me …………………… Atlanta …………………… 21st …………………… 27th March, 2018.

My joy knew no bounds, when I saw her …………………… 40 years. …………………… home, I introduced her …………………… my family. Then I took her …………………… a big mall …………………… shopping. It was just …………………… my house. We went …………………… the street and climbed …………………… using the elevator, …………………… the staircase.

Answer:
I waited at the airport in Atlanta. My old school-mate was going to arrive by New Airlines from Mumbai, on the 21st of March in the year 2018. We had not met for 40 years, since 1978. She was going to stay for a week with me in Atlanta, from the 21st to 27lh of March, 2018.

My joy knew no bounds when I saw her after 40 years. At home, I introduced her to my family. Then I took her to a big mall for shopping. It was just near my house. We went across the street and climbed up using the elevator near the staircase.

Question 13.
On the occasion of Diwali, write a letter to your friend to invite him/her to celebrate the festival in an innovative way. Use the following hints. time and place special dish is prepared – other friends have also invited post-lunch fun programs, innovative activity
Answer:
Manju Mhatre
8-B, Tulsi Angan
Garodia Nagar
Ghatkopar
Mumbai – 400 077
21st October, 2020

Dear Diya,
Hi there! How are you? You seem to have forgotten me completely afteroining college! Well, I haven’t, and I am writing this letter for a special reason.

This is an invitation for lunch at my place on 4 November on the occasion of Diwali. This will be a sort of house-warming too-you can see from the address above that I have shifted to a new place.

I have also called our other badminton friends—Divya, Rajni, Shubha and Kirti. My Mom has promised to I prepare traditional Diwali dishes, which I am sure ! you will enjoy. And after that—well, that’s going to be i a surprise! But I am sure all of us will enjoy this too.

So do come. Come at about 12.30. Be prepared to be here till 5. Bye.

Your friend,
Manju

Question 14.
Further reading:
(a) “The Phantom Luncheon” by Saki.
(b) “The Ant and the Grasshopper” by William Somerset Maugham.

Form 4 groups of the class. Every group will visit the school’s library or use the internet to read both the creations of Saki and W. S. Maugham. After reading them, every group will summarise both the creations and later read out in the class.

Question 15.
Choose the correct options from the bracket and fill in the blanks: (younger, eighty, twenty, interval)
(1) 1 went over during the interval and sat down beside her.
(2) None of us are getting any younger.
(3) It was twenty years ago.
(4) I had eighty francs to last me the rest of the month.
Answer:
(1) interval
(2) younger
(3) twenty
(4) eighty

Question 16.
Complete the following:
(1) The profession of the narrator: a writer.
(2) The lady was free on the following Thursday.
(3) At the time when the writer met the lady, he was living in a tiny apartment in Paris.
(4) The lady wanted to meet the narrator to have a chat with him.
Answer:
(1) a writer
(2) on the following Thursday
(3) tiny apartment in Paris
(4) have a chat with him

Question 17.
Where and when did they decide to have luncheon?
Answer:
They decided to have a little luncheon at Foyot’s restaurant on the following Thursday.

Question 18.
Choose the correct options from the brackets and fill in the blanks: (pass, caught sight of, overload, modest, addressed, luncheon, interval)
(1) The film was so boring that we went home during the interval.
(2) Though it was a modest apartment, it was extremely clean.
Answer:
(1) interval
(2) modest

Question 19.
Find out the ‘Synonyms’ from the passage for the words:
(1) A set of rooms:
(2) Acknowledged:
(3) Handle:
(4) Directed a remark:
Answer:
(1) Apartment
(2) Recognized
(3) Manage
(4) Addressed

Question 20.
Rewrite the following sentence using the antonym of the underlined word: We’re none of us getting any younger.
Answer:
We’re all of us getting older.

Question 21.
Rewrite the following sentence using ‘except’: The only free moment she had was on the following Thursday.
Answer:
She had no free moment except on the following Thursday.

Question 22.
I hardly think about it. (Begin the sentence with ‘How …!)
Answer:
How little I think about it!

Question 23.
She had read a book of mine. (Begin the sentence with ‘Hadn’t …?)
Answer:
Hadn’t she read a book of mine?

Question 24.
If you were in the place of the narrator, how would you have reacted in the given situation?
Answer:
If I were in the place of the narrator, I would have bluntly told the lady that I was a struggling writer and could not afford to give her a luncheon at Foyot’s. I would have suggested some cheaper restaurant that I could afford. I would not try to show off, or spend more than I can afford,ust to impress someone.

Question 25.
They decided to have luncheon at Foyot’s restaurant at half-past twelve on a Thursday.
Answer:
Foyot’s restaurant at half-past twelve on a Thursday.

Question 26.
The writer ‘was startled when the menu was brought because ………………
Answer:
The prices were a great deal higher than what he had thought.

Question 27.
What do you think the woman reassured the narrator about?
Answer:
The woman realized that the narrator was startled when he saw the prices on the menu. So she indirectly reassured him that he would not have to spend much, for she never ate anything for luncheon.

Question 28.
‘I never eat anything for luncheon’. Explain the irony in this line.
Answer:
The irony is that after informing the author that she never ate anything for luncheon, the lady immediately wanted salmon and caviar, some of the most expensive items available.

Question 29.
From the sentences given below pick out the sentence that indicates that the lady was doing exactly the opposite of what she was saying.
(1) ‘I think you’re unwise to eat meat.”
(2) ‘‘I don’t believe in overloading my stomach.”
Answer:
“I don’t believe in overloading my stomach.”

Question 30.
Choose the correct options from the brackets and fill in the blanks: (pass, startled, overload, imposing, afford, generously, reassured, unwise)
(1) I was …………… when I saw that I remembered all that I had revised.
(2) The monument was really very ………………… .
(3) You cannot ………… to waste time with friends during exams. (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Answer:
(1) reassured
(2) imposing
(3) afford

Question 31.
Change the voice of the following sentences:
(1) She reassured me.
(2) I ordered it for my guest.
Answer:
(1) I was reassured by her.
(2) It was ordered for my guest, (by me)

Question 32.
“You’re unwise to eat meat,” she said. (Rewrite in indirect speech)
Answer:
She told him that he was unwise to eat meat.

Question 33.
Are you careful in your eating habits?
Answer:
My mother sees that I eat healthily, and I like I fruits and salads. However, when I am with friends and we go out, I eatunk food. I know it is important to eat healthy food and I take good care to do so.

Question 34.
Name the food items mentioned in the passage
Answer:
The food items mentioned in the passage are:
(1) caviar,
(2) mutton chops,
(3) salmon,
(4) asparagus

Question 35.
Explain what the use of the word ‘sank’ suggests about the narrator’s feelings.:
Answer:
The use of the word ‘sank’ suggests that the narrator was getting unhappy and worried about his guest’s desire to eat expensive food.

Question 36.
From the sentences given below, pick out the sentence that indicates that the lady was doing the exact opposite of what she was saying: (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
(1) “I see that you’re in the habit of eating a heavy luncheon.”
(2) “Why don’t you follow my example andust: eat one thing.”
Answer:
“Why don’t you follow my example andust eat one thing.”

Question 37.
Choose the correct options from the brackets and fill in the blanks: (pass, quite seriously, water, gaily, insist, mortifying, dramatic)
(1) The ……………… turn of events shocked all of us.
(2) It was ……………. to apologise to the bully.
(3) My mother waved ………………… to me as she went for the hike.
(4) The author’s guest took him ………………. to task.
Answer:
(1) dramatic
(2) mortifying
(3) gaily
(4) quite seriously

Question 38.
Fill in the blanks with the words from the brackets: (Board’s Model Activity Sheet) (task, menu, wondered)
(1) The ……………… to rescue the flood victims was very difficult.
(2) I was thinking about buying a new vehicle and …………………. if we had the money.
(3) The restaurant …………………. seemed to be tempting.
Answer:
(1) task
(2) wondered
(3) menu

Question 39.
She ate the caviar and she ate the salmon. (Begin the sentence with not only … but also and rewrite the sentence.)
Answer:
Not only did she eat the caviar but she also ate the salmon.

Question 40.
Rewrite the following sentence as an affirmative sentence: I couldn’t possibly eat anything more unless they had some of those giant asparagus.
Answer:
I could possibly eat something more only if they had some of those giant asparagus.

Question 41.
Which food do you prefer to eat-home food or restaurant food. Why?
Answer:
My mother cooks very tasty food and hence I prefer to eat home food. It is also always fresh. Restaurant food is generally oily, spicy and often prepared under unhygienic conditions. All this is unhealthy. I believe that health is wealthhence I prefer home food.

Question 42.
Complete the web: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 4.2 The Luncheon 1

Question 43.
‘Thera a terrible thing happened.’ Describe the narrator’s emotions at this point in the story. Why does he mot express this emotion?
Answer:
At this point in the story, the writer had given up ail hopes that he could pay the bill. He was resigned to his fate. He had mentally decided on different methods to save his reputation. He does not express this emotion because the lady had already eaten a lot of expensive food: the damage was already done. Besides, he did not want to look mean in her eyes.

Question 44.
Match the columns:

‘A’	‘B’
(1) head	(a) peaches
(2) terrible	(b) mouthfuls
(3) huge	(c) waiter
(4) large	(d) thing

Answer:

‘A’	‘B’
(1) head	(c) waiter
(2) terrible	(d) thing
(3) huge	(a) peaches
(4) large	(b) mouthfuls

Question 45.
Complete the table:

Positive	Comparative	Superlative

Answer:

Positive	Comparative	Superlative
(1) hungry	hungrier	hungriest
(2) terrible	more terrible	most terrible

Question 46.
Rewrite the following in reported speech: “Are you still hungry?” I asked faintly.
Answer:
I asked her faintly whether she was still hungry.

Question 47.
Pick out the modal auxiliaries from the following sentence and write what they indicate: “One should always get up from a meal feeling one could eat a little more.”
Answer:
Should – indicates advice. Could – indicates ability.

Question 48.
‘I was past caring now’. Explain why, in your view, the narrator feels this way.
Answer:
The writer had been worried from the beginning that he would not be able to pay the bill. To add to that, his guest had ordered some of the most expensive items on the menu. He had now given up all hopes of being able to pay the bill. Hence, he says that he was past caring now.

Question 49.
Write if the following statements are True or False:
(1) The writer thought that the lady was mean.
(2) The writer’s tip was rather inadequate.
(3) The lady was now like a stone.
(4) The writer planned to have a heavy dinner.
Answer:
False
True
False
False

Question 50.
Complete the reasons:
(a) The writer planned to ‘eat nothing’ for dinner that night because….
Answer:
The writer had no money left after paying for the luncheon. He also wanted to make his luncheon guest aware of how much she had made him spend. Hence, he said that he planned to ‘eat nothing’ for dinner that night.

(b) The lady thought that the writer was mean because
Answer:
The writer had only three francs left to tip the waiter. His guest did not know this, and seeing this inadequate sum, thought he was mean.

Question 51.
Complete the table by picking the various humorous instances and the particular lines from the passage.

Humorous instance	Line from the passage

Answer:

Humorous instance	Line from the passage
1. The woman is a voracious eater.	“Follow my example, and never eat more than one thing for luncheon.” *
2. The writer had no money for dinner.	“I’ll do better than that,” I retorted, “I’ll eat nothing for dinner tonight.”
3. The woman had become very fat.	Today she weighs twenty- one stone.

Question 52.
Fill in the blanks with one word from the passage for the following: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
(1) Something that is not enough: ………………….
(2) A man who is revengeful: ………………….
(3) A person who fills his or her writings with humour: ………………….
(4) A person who is stingy and does not like to spend money: ………………….
Answer:
(1) inadequate.
(2) a vindictive man.
(3) a humorist.
(4) a mean person.

Question 53.
Pick out the verbs from the following sentences and write their tense:
(1) I’ have just had a snack and I shall enjoy a peach.
(2) The bill came and when 1 paid it I found that I had only enough for a quite inadequate tip.
Answer:
(1) have had – present perfect tenseshall enjoy – simple future tense.
(2) came, paid, found, had – simple past tense.

Question 54.
Do you think that the lady never ‘ate more than one thing for luncheon’ on a regular basis?
Answer:
No, I’m sure she ate a large luncheon every day, but fooled herself into thinking that she was eating only one thing. She seems to be a foolish and thick-skinned woman who believes whatever is convenient to her.

Question 55.
(1) Pick out an infinitive from the lesson and use it in your own sentence.
(2) Punctuate: humorist she cried gailyumping into a cab youre quite a humorist
(3) Find out five hidden words from the given word: satisfaction
(4) Use the following phrase in your own sentence: the only free moment
(5) Spot the errors and rewrite the correct sentence: She have read a book of mine and have written to me about it.
(6) Identify the type of sentence: How time does fly!
(7) Write the correct verb + present/past participles from the following:
(1) attract
(2) write
(3) pass
(4) bear
(5) eat
(6) meet
(8) Arrange the following in alphabetical order: table, tumbler, tablespoon, teaspoon
Answer:
(1) to eat: I was hungry, and I knew it was time to eat.
(2) “Humorist!” she cried gaily,umping into a cab. “You’re quite a humorist!”
(3) satisfaction: fiction, fission, faint, stint, satin
(4) the only free moment: The Principal was so busy that the only free moment she had was during lunch.
(5) She had read a book of mine and had written to me about it.
(6) Exclamatory sentence
(7) (1) attract-atractting
(2) write-written
(3) pass-passing
(4) bear-bearring
(5) eat-eatten
(6) meet-meeted
(8) table, tablespoon, teaspoon, tumbler

Question 56.
Use the following word and its homograph in two separate sentences : mine
Answer:
(i) I knew that the book was mine,
(ii) Three people entered the coal mine to inspect it.

Question 57.
‘I’m not in the least hungry,” my guest sighed, “but if you insist, I don’t mind having some asparagus.” (Rewrite in reported speech.)
Answer:
My guest told me with a sigh that she was not in the least hungry, but that if I insisted, she wouldn’t mind having some asparagus.

Question 58.
Word Register: Complete the web showing the things that the woman ate or drank throughout the luncheon.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 4.2 The Luncheon 2
Answer:

Question 59.
Why don’t you follow my example? (Change the voice beginning Why ….)
Answer:
Why isn’t my example followed (by you)?

Question 60.
Use the following word as a verb and a noun in two separate sentences: mind
(2) I chose the cheapest dish on the menu. (Rewrite in the positive and comparative forms.)
Answer:
(1)

“Mind your language, young man,” said the shopkeeper angrily, (verb)
I knew that I had to keep all the instructions in my mind, (noun)

(2) I chose the dish that was cheaper than all the other dishes on the menu, (comparative)
No other dish on the menu was as cheap as the one I chose, (positive)

Read More:

Std 10 English Poem Night of the Scorpion 3.1 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

December 21, 2024December 20, 2024 by Prasanna

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 3.1 Night of the Scorpion Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 10 English Chapter 3.1 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Night of the Scorpion Poem 10th Std Question Answer

Night Of The Scorpion Poem Questions And Answers Question 1.
Get into pairs and discuss the following with your partners and complete the table.
Many people are superstitious. This means that they have belief for which they have no logical reason.
An example of superstition is that – walking under a ladder brings bad luck.
In pairs, list any superstitions that you know of.

Superstition	What it implies
(1) Smashing a mirror (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7)	Brings seven years of bad luck.

Answer:

Superstition	What it implies
(1) Walking under a ladder	Brings bad luck.
(2) Smashing a mirror	Brings seven years of bad luck.
(3) A black cat crossing your path	A bad omen.
(4) Twitching of the eye	Brings bad luck.
(5) Sweeping your house after sunset	Goddess Lakshmi will walk out.
(6) Going near a peepal tree at night	The ghosts will kill you.
(7) Putting a black dot on your child’s face	Will ward off the evil eye.

Night Of The Scorpion Questions And Answers Question 2.
Brainstorm what you know about Scorpions. Use the points given below.
The Night Of The Scorpion Questions And Answers
Answer:

Night of the Scorpion Class 10 English Workshop Questions and Answers Maharashtra Board

Night Of The Scorpion Question 1.
After reading the poem, complete the following. What happens? There are three main parts of the poem. Do you know what they are about? The first one is done for you.

Lines	What is happening?
1-7	The scorpion comes into the home to escape the rain and stings the poet’s mother.
8-33
34-48

Answer:

Lines	What is happening
1-17	The scorpion comes into the house to escape the rain and stings the poet’s mother. It then braves the rain again. The peasants come when they hear the news and search for the scorpion. They click their tongues to show their disappointment. They say that with eveiy movement the scorpion makes, the poison moves in the victim’s blood.
18-33	The villagers sympathize with the mother and offer consolation in various ways. They sit round the floor with the mother in the centre. More neighbours came in to help, with more candles and more lanterns.
34-48	The father is desperate and though he is a rationalist, he tries all sorts of things to cure the mother. He calls a holy man to perform rites and even poured paraffin on the bitten toe and set fire to it. After twenty hours the scorpion loses Its sting. All that the mother says Is that she is thankful to God that the scorpion picked her and spared her children.

Night Of Scorpion Question Answers Question 2.
Complete the following tables.
(A)

Background/setting of the poem
Type	Evidence (Quote lines from the poem)
Rural/Urban	……………………………………….

Answer:

Background/setting of the poem

Type

Evidence (Quote lines from the poem)

Rural

(1) ‘The peasants came like swarms of flies’.
(2) ‘and buzzed,the name of God a hundred times’.
(3) To paralyse the evil one’.
(4) ‘With candles and with lanterns’
(5) ‘on‘the mud-baked walls’
(6) ‘His poison moved in Mother’s blood, they said.’
(7) They sat around on the floor with my mother in the centre’
(8) More candles, more lanterns’.
(9) groaning on a mat
(10) trying every curse and blessing, powder, mixture, herb and hybrid
(11) I watched the holy man perform his rites

(B)

Scorpion
Many images of the scorpion contrast in the opening lines of the poem. Find examples of each and add them to the columns below.
Timid	Dangerous
(1) hides …………………. (2) …………………. back	(i) Diabolic …………………. (ii) ………………….

Answer:

Scorpion
Timid	Dangerous
(1) Hides beneath a sack of rice	(1) Diabolic tail
(2) Is afraid of the people and goes back	(2) The Evil One
	(3) His poison moved in Mother’s blood

(C)

Imagery
Look at the description of the village peasants. What does the imagery suggest about them?
The Images	What images suggest
They came like swarms of flies.
They buzzed the name of God.
They threw giant scorpion shadows on the mud-baked walls.
They clicked their tongues.

Answer:

Imagery
The images	what the images suggest
1) They came swarms of flies.	(1) They came it very large numbers, a huge crowd of people moving towards the house, like a swarm of flies.
(2) They buzzed the name of God.	(2) They kept repeating the name of God softly and continuously, like the buzzing of bees.
(3) They threw giant scorpion shadows on the mud-baked walls.	(3) The lanterns they carried threw shadows on the walls, which looked like huge scorpion shadows to the frightened villagers.
(4) They clicked their tongues.	(4) They made sorrowful and frightening sounds with their tongues.

Night Of The Scorpion Question Answers Question 3.
Choose the correct alternative.

1. The child is afraid but admires …………………………
(a) the initiative of the peasants.
(b) his father trying every way to cure.
(c) the bravery of his mother.
Answer:
(c) the bravery of his mother

2. His father and the villagers panic and hastily suggest ………………………….
(a) to take her to the hospital.
(b) ayurvedic treatment.
(c) religious remedies to help.
Answer:
(c) religious remedies to help

3. The poet seems to see the villagers as impractical and almost irritating which suggests that …………………………
(a) the poet is critical of caste
(b) the poet is critical of religion
(c) the poet is critical of tradition.
Answer:
(c) the poet is critical of tradition

4. This is a ………………………… poem as it tells a story.
(a) reflective
(b) imaginative
(c) narrative
Answer:
(c) narrative

5. Using the first person gives the feeling that it is told from …………………………
(a) personal experience
(b) public experience
(c) private experience
Answer:
(a) personal experience

6. ‘The scorpion picked on me. And spared my children’ depicts …………………………
(a) mother’s bravery
(b) mother’s endurance
(c) selfless and unconditional love of mother.
Answer:
(c) selfless and unconditional love of a mother

7. The poem does not have a rhyme scheme, which means the poem is a perfect example of a …………………………
(a) Ballad
(b) Sonnet
(c) Free verse
Answer:
(c) free verse

8. The poem is titled ‘Night of the Scorpion’, for, the major part of the poem, …………………………
(a) the mother remains triumphant at the end.
(b) the scorpion is the victor.
(c) the father succeeds in curing the mother.
Answer:
(b) the scorpion is the victor

9. The peasants chant the name of God to …………………………
(a) nullify the stinging experience
(b) praise God.
(c) appease God.
Answer:
(a) nullify the stinging experience

10. The click of tongues reflects their ………………………… to the predicament.
(a) individual response
(b) collective response
(c) group response
Answer:
(b) collective response

Night Of The Scorpion Questions Question 4.
From the poem provide evidence for the following :

Stages	Evidence (lines from the poem)
(a) the attempts by the peasants to help alleviate the mother’s pain. (b) the action of these same peasants to kill the scorpion (c) the reaction of the rational father. (d) the various superstitions versus the ‘scientific’ (e) evil versus good.

Answer:

Stages	Evidence (lines from the extract)
(a) the attempts by the peasants to help alleviate the mother’s pain.	(1) The peasants came like swarms of flies’ (2) ‘and buzzed the name of God a hundred times to paralyse the Evil One.’ (3) ‘With candles and with lanterns’
(b) the action of these same peasants to kill the scorpion.	(1) ‘they searched for him’ (2) ‘they clicked their tongues’
(c) evil versus good	‘and buzzed the name of God a hundred times to paralyse the Evil One.’ ‘

Night Of Scorpion Question Answers Question 5.
Read the poem and complete the table showing the qualities of the father and mother giving sufficient evidences from the poem.

Qualities
Father	Mother

Answer:

Qualities
Father	Mother
sceptic, rationalist, loving, desperate	patient, long-suffering, brave, self-sacrificing, selfless
Lines as evidence: My father, sceptic, rationalist, Trying every curse and blessing, Powder, mixture, herb and hybrid. He even poured a little paraffin Upon the bitten toe and put a match to it. I watched the holy man perform his rites to tame the poison with an incantation.	Lines as evidence : My mother twisted through and through, groaning on a mat. My mother only said Thank God the scorpion picked on me and spared my children.

Night Of The Scorpion Question Answers Question 6.
(A) Match the Figures of Speech with the correct definition.

Poetic Devices
Figure	Definition
(1) Metaphor (2) Alliteration (3) Onomatopoeia (4) Simile	(a) The use of the same sound at the beginning of words (b) An implied comparison. (c) A comparison between two different things, especially a phrase, containing the words ‘like’ or ‘as’ (d) A word which resembles the sound it represents.

Answer:

Poetic Devices
Figure	Definition
(1) Metaphor (2) Alliteration (3) Onomatopoeia (4) Simile	(b) An implied comparison. (a) The use of the same sound at the beginning of words (d) A word which resembles the sound it represents. (c) A comparison between two different things, especially a phrase, containing the words ‘like’ or ‘as’

(B) Find examples from the poem that contain :
Similie : …………………………
Metaphor : …………………………
Onomatopoeia : …………………………
Answer:
Similie: A comparison between two different things, especially a phrase, containing the words ‘like’ or ‘as’
Metaphor: An implied comparison.
Onomatopoeia: A word which resembles the sound it represents.

Question 7.
Expand the flow chart in writing a paragraph in your own words.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions 3.1 Night of the Scorpion 3
Answer:
The poet’s mother is bitten by a scorpion and is in great agony. She fights the venom of the scorpion with the help of her husband and the villagers. She is unable to say anything, but only groans in pain. Finally, the poison is tamed after twenty hours. In the end, the mother thanks God that she has survived the ordeal, and that the scorpion had picked on her and spared her children.

Question 8.
The poet has used various kinds of imagery to create an image which appeal to our senses. Pick out various kinds of imagery and complete the table.

Visual imagery appealing to eyes	Tactile imagery (sense of touch)	Sound imagery	Internal sensations, feelings and emotions
(1) Scropion crawling beneath a sack of rice	(1) …………………………… …………………………… ……………………………	(1) buzzed the name of God	(1) fear
(2)	(2) Father pouring paraffin on the toe	(2) …………………………… …………………………… ……………………………	(2) ……………………………

Answer:

Visual imagery appealing to eyas	Tactile imagery (Sense of touch)	Sound imagery	Internal sensations, feelings and emotions
(1) Scorpion crawling beneath a sack of rice	(1) I watched the flame feeding on my mother	(1) buzzed the name of God	(1) fear
(2) With Candles and lanterns throwing giant scorpion shadows on the mud-baked walls.	(2) Father pouring paraffin on the toe	(2) They clicked their tongues	(2) pain

Question 9.
Write an appreciation of the poem in a paragraph format.
Answer:
Point Format
(for understanding)
The title of the poem : Night of the Scorpion’
The poet: Nissirn Ezekiel
Rhyme scheme : written In frcc verse without any rhyme scheme or mctrc
Figures of speech : Onomatopoeia, Metaphor, Alliteraüon, Sim Ile, Antithesis, etc.
Theme/Central idea : The poet depicts the selflessness and unconditional love of a mother who stung by a scorpion.

Paragraph Format
Thc poem ‘Night of the Scorpion’ is written by Nissim Ezekiel. The poem is written in free verse without any rhyme scheme or metre. There are many figures of speech e.g. Onomatopoeia like ‘and buzzed the name of God a hundred times’. Here, we feel we can actually hear the buzzing of the prayers of the many peasants. The other figures of speech are Metaphor. Alliteration. Simile. Antithesis, etc.

The theme of the poem is the sense of sacrifice shown by a devoted mother. Even as she suffers the pangs of a scorpion-bite, she thanks God for sparing her children from such an ordeal.

Question 10
Project
Prepare a Presentation (on paper or on a PC) as a piece of reference to other students. Make use of the following points.
(1) Title page
(2) Introduction of the poet
(3) The Complete poem (All 48 lines)
(4) Learning objectives
Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions 3.1 Night of the Scorpion 4
(5) Style of writing
(6) Scorpion lines (1-7)
(7) The peasants
(8) The poet’s father
(10) The poet’s mother
(11) Vocabulary
(12) Credits (positive aspects)

Question 11.
Complete the following: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
(1) The scorpion was forced to take shelter in the poet’s house to …………………
(2) In line no. 3, the word ‘him’ refers to …………………
(3) To ‘paralyse the Evil One’ in stanza 3 means ………………….
(4) ‘They’ in stanza 4 refers to ………………….
Answer:
(1) escape the heavy rain.
(2) the scorpion.
(3) to stop the activity of the devil, the scorpion.
(4) the peasants M10 had come to help.

Question 12.
Explain why the poem begins with the poet \ remembering the night.
Answer:
The poem begins with the poet remembering | the night because the whole incident that is narrated in the poem was very memorable and took place in the night. It created a strong impression on the poet.

Question 13.
Write the reactions of the people when they knew that the mother was stung by a scorpion.
Answer:
When the people knew that the poet’s mother was stung by a scorpion:
(i) The peasants came in swarms to help.
(ii) They buzzed the name of God a hundred times.
(iii) They searched for the scorpion with candles and lanterns.
(iv) They clicked their tongues because he was not found.

Question 14.
Pick out an example of Simile from the extract.
Answer:
The peasants came like swarms of flies. The peasants are compared directly to swarms of flies, with the use of the word like’.

Question 15.
Pick out an example of Metaphor from the extract.
Answer:
to paralyse the Evil One’. The scorpion is Implicitly compared to the devil.

Question 16.
Pick out examples of Onomatopoeia from the extract.
Answer:
(1) ‘and buzzed the name of God’
The word ‘buzzed’ indicates sound.

(2) ‘They clicked their tongues.’
The word ‘clicked’ indicates sound.

Question 17.
Pick out examples of Alliteration from the extract.
Answer:
(1) Parting with his poison-flash
Repetition of the sound of the letter ‘p’.

(2) of diabolic tail in the dark room
Repetition of the sound of the letter ‘d’.

(3) throwing giant scorpion shadows.
Repetition of the sound of the letter ‘s’.

Question 18.
Pick out an example of Antithesis from the extract:
Answer:
‘they searched for him: he was not found’ Words having opposite or contradictory meanings are used in the same line.

Question 19.
Write down the rhyming words from the stanzas for the following:
(i) fight
(ii) clash
Answer:
(i) fight-night
(ii) clash-flash.

Question 20.
Complete the following: The peasants consoled the mother, saying:
(1) the poison will burn away ………………………
(2) her suffering will decrease …………………….
(3) the evil in this world will be …………………………
(4) the poison will purify her …………………………..
Answer:
(1) the sins of her previous birth
(2) the misfortunes of her next birth
(3) diminished by her pain.
(4) flesh of desire and her spirit of ambition.

Question 21.
(a) Pick out examples of Alliteration from the extract:
Answer:
(1) ‘May he sit still, they said’.
Repetition of the sound of the letter ‘s’.

(2) ‘May the poison purify your flesh’
Repetition of the sound of the letter ‘p’.

(b) Pick out an example of Antithesis from the extract:
Answer:
‘May the sum of all evil balanced in this unreal world against the sum of good’ Words having opposite meanings are placed close for contrast.

(c) Pick out an example of Repetition from the extract:
Answer:
‘More candles, more lanterns, more. neighbours’ Repetition of the word ‘more’ for emphasis.

Question 22.
Complete the following: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
(1) The mother found relief …………………….
(2) All through the ordeal, the poet’s mother ………………..
Answer:
(1) after twenty hours.
(2) twisted and groaned in pain.

Question 23.
(1) Pick out an example of Onomatopoeia from the extract.
Answer:
‘groaning on a mat’ The word ‘groaning’ indicates sound.

Question 24.
Pick out examples of Alliteration from the extract.
Answer:
(1) ‘powder, mixture, herb and hybrid’
Repetition of the sound of the letter ‘h’.

(2) ‘He even poured a little paraffin’
Repetition of the sound of the letter ‘p’.

(3) ‘I watched the flame feeding on my mother’
Repetition of the sound of the letter ‘f.

Question 25.
Pick out an example of Antithesis from the extract:
Answer:
‘trying every curse and blessing’ Words having opposite meanings are placed close for contrast.

Question 26.
Pick out an example of Personification from the extract:
Answer:
‘I watched the flame feeding on my mother’ The flame is given the human quality of feeding.

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