Applied History Question Answer Class 10 History Chapter 3 Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 3 Applied History Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 10 History Chapter 3 Question Answer Applied History Maharashtra Board

Class 10 History Chapter 3 Applied History Question Answer Maharashtra Board

History Class 10 Chapter 3 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Question 1.
(a) Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the statement.
(1) The earliest museum in the world was discovered in the excavations at the city of ……………..………. .
(a) Delhi
(b) Harappa
(c) Ur
(d) Kolkata
Answer:
(c) Ur

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(2) The National Archives of India is in ……………..………. .
(a) New Delhi
(b) Kolkata
(c) Mumbai
(d) Chennai
Answer:
(a) New Delhi

(b) Identify and write the wrong pair in the following set.
(1) Kootiyattam- Sanskrit theatre, Kerala
(2) Ramman- Dance form in West Bengal
(3) Ramlila- Traditional Performance of the Ramayana in Uttar Pradesh
(4) Kalbelia- Folk songs and dances of Rajasthan.
Answer:
(2) Wrong pair: Ramman – Dance form in West Bengal

Question 2.
Explain the following concepts :
(1) Applied History
Answer:

  •  When one subject is applied to different fields and conclusions are derived, it is known as application of that subject.
  • When objectives of History are applied to other subjects; new conclusions are obtained.
  • This is known as ‘Applied History’. It is also known as Public History.
  • We get insights of the events that took place in the past through history.
  • Applied History is concerned with application of knowledge of history to provide guidance in finding solutions.
  • Contemporary social issues and include them in social planning.
  • Thus Applied History’ is a field of study concerned with the application of history for the benefit of people in contemporary and future times.

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(2) Archives
Answer:

  •  A place where historical documents are preserved is called an ‘Archive’.
  • Many old documents, official records, old films, records of treaties are kept at this place.
  • We get references of original documents because of Archives.
  • A study of historical events of a particular period is possible.
  • We come to know about language, script used in a particular period/era.
  • The National Archives of India is in Delhi. It is the largest Archive in Asia.
  • Every state in India maintains its archives independently.

Question 3.
Complete the following concept chart.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 3 Applied History 1
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 3 Applied History 2

Question 4.
Explain the following statements with reasons.
(1) It is essential to study the history of technology.
Answer:

  • Man acquired different skills at various stages in his evolution process.
  • From mxking stone tools to developing new techniques of agriculture production, he learnt many skills and entered in the age of science.
  • Agricultural production, commodity production, architecture, engineering, etc.
  • underwent several changes. Production increased manifold bcause of technology.
  • Hence, it is necessary to know the history of technology in order to understand the development in mechanisation and mutual dependence between science and technology.

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(2) The list of world Heritage Sites is announced by UNESCO.
Answer:

  • Cultural heritage is a form of human creation. It is a cultural treasure that has been inherited from our ancestors.
  • We feel connected to it and hence preserve and conserve it.
  • This heritage is our asset that binds us to our past and hence we should preserve it for the benefit of future generations.
  • In order to save this heritage, UNESCO has announced some directives.
  • On the basis of those directives, list of sites, and traditions are declared as ‘World Heritage’.
  • It has helped us in promoting these sites as tourist places.

Question 5.
Write elaborate answers
(1) How is the method of history useful in the research of
(a) Science
(b) Arts
(c) Management Studies
Answer:
Each field has its own history of building’ knowledge. The direction of development in every field is dependent on the stcrte of available knowledge in that field. The method of history has proved valuable in the research of various fields.

(a) Science: Scientific discoveries /invenfions take place because of humdn efforts to satisfy needs and curiosity. These efforts are based on scientific knowledge that already existed. Knowledge of the history of science helps in understanding the reasons, chronology and factors that facilitated a scientific invention/discovery. Knowledge of history of science helps in every field.

(b) Art: Development of any style of art lies in their expression through intellectual, emotional and cultural traditions. While studying any art form we have to understand the history of its traditions, the key to the expressions in it, and emotional temperament of the artist. Prevalent art style in the given period can be understood with the help of cultural history.

(c) Management Studies: All components like means of production, human resources, processes of production, the chain of market and sales, etc. are interrelated and require management.

Different social and economic institutions are involved in these industrial and commercial processes. Knowledge of similar functional systems of the past is essential to bring about changes, improvements and make the management smooth and efficient. It becomes necessary to know its history.

(2) How can we correlate applied history with our present?
Answer:
History gives us knowledge about the events that happened in past. Applied history helps us in understanding how the knowledge can be put to use for our benefit as well as for the benefit of future generations. Applied history is correlated with our present in the following ways:

(1) Knowledge of our past helps us in deciding our course of action in present. The.heritage of our ancestors exists in tangible and intangible- form. We have the curiosity to know more about our part because they represent the creative thoughts and traditions of that period.

(2) With the help of applied history we can not only come to know about the heritage but also conserve and preserve it.

(3) We can be better equipped to face social challenges in the present because the knowledge of history can provide guidance in finding solutions to contemporary social issues and incorporate them in the ’social planning.

(4) The direction of future development is S decided when we rightly analyse our present with our knowledge of the past acquired through applied history.

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(3) Suggest at least 10 solutions for the preservation of the sources of history.
Answer:
There are three types of sources which are used to study history. They are written, oral and material sources. These sources are preserved in different ways. According to me, the following measures should be taken to preserve the sources:

  1. A regular repair and maintenance work of forts, memorials and palaces should be carried out. Timely action should be taken to avoid vandalisation of historic and public places.
  2. Historical coins, weapons should be handled with precaution and utmost care. They should be kept in a safe place to avoid the possibility of theft.
  3. Social awareness regarding the conservation and preservation of our cultural and natural heritage should be created. People will develop affinity towards the heritage and feel connected.
  4. Variations in environment and climatic conditions pose a threat to monumental structures. Humidity, dampness, moulds and pollution cause irrevocable damage to manuscripts, rare artefacts, statues, coins, etc.
  5. To protect them, special arrangements have to be made like rooms with controlled temperature or sanitising and detoxing the rooms.
  6. Oral literature like owis, folk songs should be compiled and written down.
  7. Public training programmes should be conducted for understanding the importance of history.
  8. Experts from different fields should be involved in preservation and conservation projects. S Stringent laws should be enacted to protect the monuments.
  9. Above all, people’s participation in conservation and preservation process is paramount.

(4) What objectives can be fulfilled through the heritage projects.
Answer:
The following objectives can be fulfilled through the heritage projects:

  • Preservation, conservation and development of heritage sites can be done without any change in its original state/ structure.
  • The local social structure and psychology of the local people, challenges they face in the present situations and their expectations can be surveyed.
  • In the process of completing the project of conservation, preservation and development of a heritage site due precaution should be taken to avoid hurting the sentiments of the local people.
  • Participation of the local people in the proposed project can be facilitated.
  • In order to engage and employ the local skills in a creative way and create better opportunities of livelihood, it becomes easier to design systematic plans.

Project
Show the Indian heritage sites on the map of India.
Answer:

Memory Map
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 3 Applied History 3

Question 6.
Complete the sentences by choosing the correct option:
(a) ……………………… Institute of Art, Design and Technology at Bengaluru has an independent department named ‘Centre for Public History’.
(a) Pitch
(b) INTACH
(c) Shrushti
(d) AIMS
Answer:
(c) Shrushti

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(b) ……………………… is the mother of science and all other branches of knowledge.
(a) Philosophy
(b) History
(c) Technology
(d) Mythology
Answer:
(a) Philosophy

(c) In order to preserve and conserve cultural and natural heritage for the benefit of future generations ……………………… has given directives.
(a) UNICEF
(b) UN
(c) UNESCO
(d) INTACH
Answer:
(c) UNESCO

(d) The ……………………… in the Satara District of the Western Ghats is included in the list of World Natural Heritage.
(a) Balaghat Mountain
(b) Melghat
(c) Masai Plateau
(d) Kas Plateau
Answer:
(d) Kas Plateau

(e) The main office of the National Film Archives of India is situated at ……………………… .
(a) Delhi
(b) Mumbai
(c) Pune
(d) Nagpur
Answer:
(c) Pune

(f) Excavations at the city of ‘Ur’ in Mesopotamia were conducted by ……………………… .
(a) Nathaniel Wallick
(b) Ennigaldi
(c) Leonard Wolley
(d) Sir John Marshall
Answer:
(c) Leonard Wolley.

Question 7.
Identify the wrong pair in the following, and write it:

(1) Kootiyattam (a) Sanskrit theatre, Kerala
(2) Ramman (b) Dance form in West Bengal
(3) Ramlila (c) Traditional performance of Ramayana in Uttar Pradesh
(4) Kalbelia (d) Folk songs and dances of Rajasthan

Answer:
Wrong pair: Ramman – Dance form in West Bengal

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(2)

Cultural Heritage Place
(1) Red Fort (a) Udaipur
(2) Jantar Mantar (b) Jaipur
(3) Brihadeeshvara Temple (c) Thanjavur
(4) Capital Complex (d) Chandigarh

Answer:
Wrong pair: Red Fort – Udaipur

Question 8.
Complete the graphical presentation:
(1)

Answer:

(2)

Answer:

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(3)

Answer:

Question 9.
Explain the following concept:
(a) Natural Heritage:
Answer:

  • In Cultural heritage what we inherit is man-made but Natural heritage is bestowed upon us by Nature.
  • The concept of natural heritage gives importance to the thought of biodiversity.
  • The following things are included in natural heritage:
    • Fauna
    • Flora
    • Ecology required for sustaining animal and plant life, flora and fauna of a particular region.
    • Geomorphic characteristics, sanctuaries, mountain ranges, river valleys, lakes and dams are all part of natural heritage.

Question 10.
Write short notes:
(a) Importance of Applied History:
Answer:

  • Applied History is a field of study which helps us understand our ancient heritage.
  • We realise the importance of preserving our heritage.
  • The process of preservation and conservation of tangible and intangible heritage sites generate employment opportunities.
  • The study of Applied History help us to get a better understanding of the present and can provide guidance for the future.

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(b) Preservation of cultural heritage of India:
Answer:
Conservation and preservation of India’s cultural heritage is done at different levels:

  1. Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) is an important body of Indian government which mainly does the work of conservation and preservation along with State Departments of Archaeology.
  2. INTACH (Indiqn National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage) is actively working in this field.
  3. Local self-government bodies, social institutions all over India, people who have love for history are seen involved in the work of preservation of our heritage.
  4. The work of conservation and preservation of cultural and natural heritage requires participation of experts from various fields as well as local people.

(c) Indian Museum:
Answer:

  • The Indian Museum at Kolkata is the oldest museum and one of the important heritage sites of India.
  • Nathaniel Wallich, a Danish botanist, founded the museum in 1814 C.E. He was also its first curator.
  • The museum has three main departments Arts, Archaeology and Anthropology.
  • Other affiliated departments are conservation, publication, photography, exhibition- presentation, model-making, training, library and security.

(d) National Film Archives:
Answer:

  • The main office of the National Rim Archives of India is located at Pune and was established in 1964.
  • It functions as the Media Unit of the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting of the Indian Government.
  • It was established with the view of three objectives. They are:
    • To search and obtain the rare Indian films and preserve our heritage for the benefit of future generations.
    • To categorise important aspects of films, create documentation and do research.
    • To establish a centre for dissemination of ‘films culture’.

Question 11.
Explain the following statements giving reasons:
(a) It is essential to study the history of philosophy.
Answer:

  • With the passage of time, many schools of thought came into existence with different ideologies.
  • These ideologies had their effect on people and society as a whole.
  • What led to the origin of various ideologies, the intellectual tradition giving rise to those ideologies and their historical development needs to be researched.
  • To know about the progress of those ideologies, their development and expansion or downfall we need to have knowledge of the history of philosophy.

(b) It is important to know the history of Industry and Commerce.
Answer:

  • With the growth of industry and trade, the field of mutual social transactions also expand.
  • It promoted development of the network of cultural interactions.
  • As the nature of market and commerce changed sp did the nature of human relationships and the social organisation.
  • This series of changes is influenced by prevalent culture, social structure and economic system.
  • All this is an integral part of the industrial and commercial management.

Therefore, it becomes important to know the history of Industry and Commerce.

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(c) It is necessary to preserve and conserve our natural and cultural heritage.
Answer:

  • The visible and invisible relics of the past exist in the present.
  • They represent the thought and traditions of our ancestors.
  • We nurture some kind of curiosity and attraction towards them.
  • The history of our heritage links us with our origin.

Therefore, it becomes necessary to preserve and conserve for our future benefit as well as for the benefit of future generations.

Question 12.
Answer the following in 25-30 words:
(a) Explain the concept of ‘Public History’.
Answer:

  • Public History also known as ‘Applied History’ is a field of study concerned with the application of history for the benefit of people in the contemporary and future life.
  • It provides solutions to the contemporary social issues and incorporate them in social planning.
  • It helps to overcome misgivings about history and makes history meaningful in everyday life connecting people to history.

(b) What is the role of UNESCO in the context of heritage sites?
Answer:
The role of UNESCO, the global agency of United Nations, is as follows:

  • For preservation and conservation of natural and cultural heritage which is in a ruined state because of years of neglect, UNESCO has announced some directive principles.
  • The organisation announces list which includes the names of sites and traditions which meet the criteria.
  • On the basis of those directives it declares a list of site and traditions of world heritage.

(c) Find out the cultural heritage sites located in Maharashtra and write their names.
Answer:
The following places in Maharashtra are included in the list of cultural heritage sites declared by UNESCO:

  • Ajanta Caves
  • Verul (Ellora) Caves and Kailas Temple
  • Elephanta Caves
  • Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Terminus, Mumbai.

Many forts like the Raigad, Devgiri, Janjira and Sindhudurg are part of the cultural heritage Of Maharashtra though they are not included in the list.

(d) What are the misgivings about history among the people?
Answer:
There are many misgivings about history among the people:

  • History is a subject only for historians and students who pursue higher studies in history.
  • It has no relevance or applicability in our day-to-day life.
  • History is nothing but piece of information about the battles fought by kings and politics.
  • History cannot be connected to an economically productive field.

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(e) Where can we trace the roots of philosophy?
Answer:

  • Ancient people all over the world tried to speculate the relationship between the universe and human existence.
  • This gave rise to various myths about origin of this world, universal order, human life.
  • Imagination about gods and goddesses, rituals to please them and philosophical explanation of rituals.
  • Thus, the roots of philosophy can be traced in these speculations and ponderings of mythological stories.

(f) What are the opportunities created by affiliated professional fields of Applied History?
Answer:
Affiliated fields of Applied History which include museums, archives, tourism ‘and hospitality, entertainment, mass media, etc. needs the following professionals:

  • Experts like Historians, Archaeologists, Sociologists, legal experts, etc. are assigned new projects.
  • Officers like Managers, Secretaries and Directors are taken into service.
  • Technicians like engineers, architects, skilled photographers, laboratory assistants, archive management professionals are hired.
  • Tourist guides, boarding and lodging, food services, entertainment and related business get a wide scope for flourishing.

(g) What are the main objectives of ‘National Film Archives’?
Answer:
The main objectives of ‘National Rim Archives’ are as follows:

  • To research and obtain the rare Indian films.
  • To preserve such films for the benefit of future generations.
  • To categorise the important aspects of films to create documentation, catalogue them -and carry out research in the field.
  • To establish a centre for dissemination of films culture.

(h) How can we increase people’s participation in the field of applied history?
Answer:

  • The field of applied history includes museums, archives, collection and maintenance of artefacts.
  • Tourism creates interest in history.
  • Awareness is created among people to preserve ancient monuments and sites in their vicinity.
  • This realisation increases people’s participation in the field of applied history.

(i) Write information on World Heritage sites in Maharashtra.
Answer:
Maharashtra is endowed with many natural and historical sites. Among them the prominent ones are Ajanta caves, Verul caves, Gharapuri/Elephanta caves and Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Terminus Railway Station at Mumbai.

Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Terminus is finest example of Indo-Gothic architecture emerged in India during British rule. It stands witness to the British empire, freedom struggle and transformation of our country into a modern nation. It needs conservation as it a architectural marvel which stood the test of times recently when there was a terror attack on Mumbai city.

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(j) What is the role of Applied History?
Answer:
The role of Applied History is as follows:

  • In public training programmes for understanding the importance of history.
  • Using knowledge of history, to create awareness regarding the conservation and preservation of our cultural and natural heritage.
  • To facilitate participation of people in various projects and programmes related to applied history even in their capacity as tourists.
  • To enhance professional skills of people and to develop industrial commercial field.
  • To carry out preparatory work and plan for effective implementation of heritage projects.

Question 13.
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions given below:
(a) Who built this museum?
Answer:
This museum was built by Ennigaldi, the princess of Mesopotamia.

(b) Where was the earliest museum in the world discovered? Who discovered it?
Answer:
The earliest museum in the world was discovered in the city of ‘Ur’ in Mesopotamia. It was discovered by Leonard Woolley.

(c) What is a noteworthy feature of this museum?
Answer:
A noteworthy feature of this museum is the clay tablets inscribed with the descriptions of exhibited artefacts.

Question 14.
Write elaborate answers: OR Answer in detail:
(a) Who does the work of conservation and preservation of the cultural heritage of Indian?
Answer:
The preservation and conservation of Indian cultural heritage is done at various stages:

  • The work of preservation and conservation primarily falls under jurisdiction of the Archaeological Survey of India.
  • In addition, INTACH (Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage) is also actively working .in this field.
  • Experts from various fields and local people too participate in the work of conservation and preservation of natural and cultural heritage.

Question 15.
Observe the picture and write information about it:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 3 Applied History 5
Answer:

  • This picture is of the largest Indian rock-cut ancient Hindu temple located in the Ellora cave.
  • This famous rock-cut Shiva temple was constructed during the reign of Rashtrakuta king Krishna I.
  • It is regarded as a marvel of architecture.
  • It bears an eloquent testimony to the high level skill attained by India in the arts of sculpture and architecture under the Rashtrakuta patronage.
  • A sculpture of an elephant and a pillar can be seen in the picture.
  • The famous rock cut temple in Maharashtra was declared as a world heritage site by UNESCO in 1983.

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Brain Teaser

Hints:
Across:
(1) Queen’s stepwell at Patan
(2) Dancing, singing, drumming ritual of Manipur
(3) Religious festival and ritual theatre of Garhwal
(4) Archaeological site of Nalanda University
(5) World famous monument at Agra
(6) Famous city built by emperor Akbar marking his victory
(7) Sanskrit Theatre: Kerala

Down:
(1) The traditional performance of Ramayan in Uttar Pradesh
(2) Ellora caves also known as caves
(3) Observatory at Jaipur, Rajasthan
(4) Group of monuments at (place) in Karnataka
(5) Archaeological park at Pavagadh
(6) Folk songs and dances of Rajasthan
(7) A ritual theatre of Kerala
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 3 Applied History 6

10th Std History Questions And Answers:

Social and Political Movements Question Answer Class 10 Political Science Chapter 4 Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 Social and Political Movements Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 10 Political Science Chapter 4 Question Answer Social and Political Movements Maharashtra Board

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 Social and Political Movements

Political Science Class 10 Chapter 4 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Question 1.
Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the sentences.
(1) ………………………….. is the main demand of farmers movement.
(a) Right to cultivate on the forest land
(b) To get the right price for agricultural product
(c) Protection of consumers
(d) Building of dams
Answer:
(b) To get the right price for agricultural products

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(2) To increase agricultural production and become self-sufficient with regard to food grains ………………………….. was initiated.
(a) Water revolution
(b) Green revolution
(c) Industrial revolution
(d) White revolution
Answer:
(b) Green revolution

Question 2.
Explain the concepts.
(1) Tribal movement
Answer:

  • Tribal community was always dependent on forest wealth for their living.
  • The British had prohibited the tribals from making use of forest wealth to earn their livelihõod
  • Kolam, Gond, Santhal, Koli, Bhilla, Munda Tribals of different parts of India revolted against the British.
  • Even after independence their problem to earn a livelihood is not solved. Their right on the forest land, to gather forest products and to cultivate on forest land is not yet recognised.

Therefore, for these demands, Tribal Movement is active in many parts.

(2) Labour movement
Answer:

  • Industries in public and private sector like textile mills, railway companies started in India in the latter part of the nineteenth century.
  • Due to industrialisction, a large number’ of labour force came into existence.
  • Thiš led to lot of labour issues. In 1920, All India Trade Union. Congress was established to solve their problems.
  • Many unions were formed after independence. The Trade Union Movement was very effective from 1960 tifi 1980s.
  • After 1980s trade union movement lost its momentum and slowly disintegrated. Globalization gave a final blow to the movement.

Question 3.
Answer the following questions in brief.
(1) Explain the activities/role/functions of environmental movement.
Answer:
(i) Role : The environment movement rias played a key role in –

  • Creating public awareness about the importance of balance in environment through television, newspapers, and other mediums.
  • Opposing developmental projects with environmental concerns.

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(ii) Functions : The function of the environment movement is to make efforts silently or rigorously to protect natural areas through afforestation, recycling or pollution control. Forest department and the pollution board are actively involved and extend support by making stringent laws to book the culprits.

(iii) Activities : Different activities are conducted to promote the environment movement:

  • Environmental degradation has become a serious issue not only in India but also in the world.
  • The issues of degradation was discussed at. Rio-de-Janeiro, Paris and Kyoto Conferences.
  • Even in India many movements are active for conservation of the environment like the Chipko movement, Appiko movement ana Vanmahatsov.

(2) Explain the nature of farmers movement in India.
Answer:

  1. The Indian farmers organised themselves in pre-independence era to fight against the anti-agricultural policies of the colonial British rulers.
  2. The farmers were inspired by the thoughts of Mahatma Phule, Justice Ranade and Mahatma Gandhi. They organised satyagraha against revenue collection in Bardoli and Champaranya.
  3. Farmers’ movement slowed down because of tenancy laws under land reforms. Green revolution failed to improve conditions of the poor farmers.
  4. Farmers’ movement gained momentum with demands like, appropriate price for agricultural products, debt relief and debt cancellation after recommendations from Swaminathan Commission.

(3) For which reforms were the women’s movement in the pre-independence period fighting?
Answer:
In the pre-independence period women’s movement were working for the following reforms :

  • Eliminating injustice against women.
  • To put an end to the exploitation of women and help them lead a respectful and dignified life.
  • They should be able to participate actively in social life.
  • To end the practices like Sati, child marriage, polygamy and bring about reforms such as widow remarriage and women’s education.

Question 4.
State wheather the following statements are true or false. Give reasons for your answer.
(1) Movements are important in a democracy.
Answer:
The above statement is True.

  • People organise themselves and start a movement to solve social issues.
  • Leaders and activists provide all the information regarding those issues to the government.
  • The government takes, notice of the problems because of the movement.
  • Some movements aim at opposing some policies of the government and certain decisions. This is the most recognised method of protest in democracy.

Hence, movements have great importance in democracy

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(2) Movements do not need a strong leadership.
Answer:
The above statement is False.

  • The success of any movement depends on leadership. The movement remains active because of the strong leader.
  • The decisions regarding the objective of the movement, programme of action, strategy of agitation are decided and taken by the leader.
  • Firm leadership has a wide reach. They can get public support making the movement very effective. So, the need of a strong leadership is utmost essential.

(3) Consumer movement came into existence.
Answer:
The above statement is True.

  • The consumers faced different problems because of changing economy and social system.
  • Adulteration increased the cost of products and faulty weights and measures are some of the problems faced by the consumers.
  • To protect the consumers from such frauds the Consumer Protection Act was passed in 1986.
  • The Consumer Protection movement was started to create awareness among the consumers about their rights and their safety.

Project
(1) Collect the news in the newspapers about various activities of social movements.
(2) Write a report on movements in your area which are working to resolve general problems.
(3) Prepare a format of a complaint you will submit under consumer protection act if you are cheated in purchase of vegetables or grains
Answer:

Memory Map
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 Social and Political Movements 1

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Question 5.
Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the sentences :
(a) In …………………., movements have more importance.
(a) socialist rule
(b) dictatorship
(c) democracy
(d) communist rule
Answer:
(c) democracy

(b) In democracy, Right to …………………. is considered an important right.
(a) rehabilitate
(b) pursue questions
(c) behave with control and responsibility
(d) protest
Answer:
(d) protest

(c) is the objective of Green Revolution.
(a) To stop degradation of environment
(b) Protection of the forests
(c) Increase in agricultural output
(d) To stop the felling of trees.
Answer:
(c) Increase in agricultural output.

(d) The trade union movement in India has background of ………………… .
(a) freedom struggle
(b) globalisation
(c) prestigious past
(d) industrialisation
Answer:
(d) industrialisation

(e) In 1899, …………………. workers called for a strike.
(a) railway
(b) mill
(c) handloom
(d) rice mill
Answer:
(a) railway

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(f) Dr. Rajendrasinh Rana had brought about …………………. in Rajasthan.
(a) White Revolution
(b) Water Revolution
(c) Green Revolution
(d) Consumer Revolution
Answer:
(b) Water Revolution

(g) Dr. Rajendrasinh Rana is known as the …………………. of India.
(a) Farmer man
(b) environment affectionate
(c) Man of the Millennium
(d) Waterman
Answer:
(d) Waterman

(h) Tribals in Bihar revolted against the British under the leadership of ………………… .
(a) Rajendrasinh Rana
(b) Birsa Munda
(c) Umaji Naik
(d) Kajarsingh
Answer:
(b) Birsa Munda.

(i) Swadeshi movement is an important …………………. movement.
(a) political
(b) social
(c) economic
(d) cultural
Answer:
(c) economic

(j) …………………. is one of the problems faced by consumers.
(a) Cancellation
(b) Malnutrition
(c) Adulteration
(d) Transportation
Answer:
(c) Adulteration

(k) The main demand of the farmer’s movement was to accept suggestions of the …………………. Commission.
(a) Sunderlal Bahuguna
(b) Verghese Kurien
(c) Swaminathan
(d) Kothari
Answer:
(c) Swaminathan

(l) In 1986, …………………. Act came into force.
(a) Consumer Protection
(b) Women Empowerment
(c) Child Marriage
(d) Environment Protection
Answer:
(a) Consumer Protection

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(m) The post-1980 movements are called ………………… .
(a) New
(b) Neo-social
(c) Broad
(d) Globalisation
Answer:
(b) Neo-social

(n) …………………. was established in 1920.
(a) Farmer’s Organization
(b) Bhartiya Kisan Union
(c) All India Trade Union Congress
(d) All India Kisan Sabha
Answer:
(d) All India Trade Union Congress.

Question 6.
Explain the following statements by giving reasons :
(a) Political parties can concentrate on one particular issue.
Answer:
The above statement is False.

  • Political parties contest elections to solve problems of common people.
  • Parties have to take into consideration all matters from public cleanliness to roads to space research. They have to have a national perspective and take decisions.
  • Political parties should have programmes for the development of all the sections of society like youth, senior citizens, businessmen, women, farmers and labourers.
  • This – means that political parties cannot concentrate on just one particular issue.

(b) People’s active participation is expected in the movement.
Answer:
The above statement is True.

  • A. movement is started to solve issues of public interest.
  • People offer support to the movements which are related to their cause or a particular issue.
  • Deciding upon the issues of the people a programme is decided and a group is formed.

(c) Dr. Rajendrasinh Rana is called the Waterman of India.
Answer:
The above statement is True.

  • Dr. Rajendrashinh Rana built thousands of ‘Johads’ in Rajasthan.
  • He revived many rivers in the desert region of Rajasthan.
  • He formed an organisation – “Tarun Bharat Sangh” which built eleven thousand Johads to harvest water. .
  • He started a campaign for Water conservation, revival of rivers, forest conservation and wildlife conservation.
  • He worked continuously for this cause for 31 years building 11 thousand johads bringing about water revolution in Rajasthan. Therefore, is called the Waterman of India.

Question 7.
Explain the concept :
(a) Movement:
Answer:

  1. When people organise themselves to resolve a certain issue it is called a movement.
  2. Movements increase the participation of people in social life.
  3. Movements are for public welfare and to solve issues. The aim of any movement is not only to pressurize the government but also to oppose its decision or policies.
  4. A movement is started for different reasons like religious, social, cúltural, protection of the environment, ill practices and traditions.

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(b) Public Interest Litigation:
Answer:

  1. A litigation is filed if an individual or group feels that fundamental rights which are enshrined in the Constitution are undermined by the government.
  2. To safeguard human rights, citizens can file a litigation in High Court or Supreme Court. Such a litigation is known as Public Interest Litigation.
  3. Public Interest Litigation is filed for problems such as pollution, government avoiding public works and for social problems such as violence, discrimination and ostracising someone.
  4. It is the most effective way of seeking justice.

(c) Environment Movement :
Answer:

  • Different activities are conducted to promote the environment movement in India.
  • Environment degradation has become a serious issue not only in India but also all over the world.
  • The issues of degradation were discussed at Rio-de-Janeiro, Paris and Kyoto Conferences.
  • Even in India many movements are active for conservation of the environment like the Chipko movement, Appika movement and Vanmahatsov.

Question 8.
(A) Complete the graphical representation :

(1)
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 Social and Political Movements 2
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 Social and Political Movements 3

(2)
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 Social and Political Movements 4
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 Social and Political Movements 5

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(3)
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 Social and Political Movements 6
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 Social and Political Movements 7

(4)
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 Social and Political Movements 8
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 Social and Political Movements 9

(B) Explain the events in Trade Union Movement:

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 Social and Political Movements 10
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 Social and Political Movements 11

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Question 9.
Answer the following questions in brief:
(a) Explain the features of a movement.
Answer:

  • A movement is a collective action which has active participation or support of the people.
  • People take up a particular issue and organise themselves.
  • A movement requires strong leadership. A strong leader makes the movement effective.
  • If people feel connected to the issue, then they extend their support to the movement.

(b) What are the demands of Trade Union Movement?
Answer:
The Trade Uniin Movement makes demands regarding following issues :

  • Contract labour and unstable employment..
  • financial insecurity and unfavourable conditions at workplace.
  • Unlimited working hours and health hazards.
  • No protection of labour laws.

(c) How did the objectives of women’s movement change after independence?
Answer:

  1. In the pre-independence era the aim of the women’s movement was to put an end to the unjust practices against women and end their exploitation.
  2. After independence, the aim of their movement changed because they realised that though the Constitution had given equal rights both to men and women in practice they were never considered equal.
  3. The objective of the women’s movement was to achieve freedom in real sense, i.e. they should be treated as human beings and should get equal rights and to live a dignified life.

(d) Which issues were taken up by the women’s movement after independence?
Answer:
Many issues were taken up by the women’s movement for welfare of the women after independence. Some are:

  • Health and education of women
  • financial independence
  • Social security
  • To be treated as human beings and have a status and prestige.

(e) Which issues are handled through movements?
Answer:
Movements arise out of public issues, which could be social, political, economic and religious.

  1. To protect the rights of the citizens like voting, freedom and for similar issues, political movements are organised.
  2. financial security, minimum wages, employment, insistence on an indigenous product are the reasons for economic movement.
  3. Social and religious movements are organized to eliminate ill practices like untouchability, entry of women in temples,’ discrimination and social issues.
  4. Movements are organised to raise voice against injustice done to a particular region, language and for issues like cleanliness, environment and movements for development like Green revolution and White resolution.

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(f) Which movements started in India are actively working for rehabilitation of the displaced and to secure their livelihood?
Answer:
People who got displaced started this movement for different reasons. Some movements lasted for short time while some lasted long.

  • “Narmada Bachao Andolan” was a popular movement.
  • People living in Maharashtra and Gujarat continued it for 28 years.
  • People in the Sindhudurg district who got displaced due to the Talamba dam started movement for rehabilitation. It lasted for 32 years.
  • Farmers who got displaced because of Pune-Nagpur highway or for the planned Purandar airport launched movements on a large scale. Such movements are going on all over India.

(g) Name the policies started by the government for the welfare of farmers and landless labourers?
Answer:
The government has started the following policies for the welfare of the farmers and landless labourers :

  • National agriculture policy
  • Crop insurance scheme (FASAL Bima Yojana)
  • Jalyukt Shivar
  • Indira Gandhi Niradhar (old), landless, destitute women farm labour scheme.
  • Neem Coated Urea.
  • Name the policies started by the government for the welfare of farmers and landless labourers.

(h) Name the movements started by Mahatma Gandhi, Mahatma Phule, Sant Gadge Maharaj and Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar.
Answer:

  • Mahatma Phule laid the foundation of the movement for education of women and social equality.
  • To stop the practice of widow tonsure he called for a strike of barbers in Mumbai.
  • Mahatma Gandhi adopted the technique of satyagraha and started the movement for farmers in Champaranya and Kheda.
  • He also started the Non-cooperation Movement and Civil Disobedience Movement..
  • Sant Gadge Maharaj started the cleanliness campaign.
  • Dr. Babashaeb Ambedkar launched satyagraha to allow untouchables to use water from a public tank in Mahad..
  • He also led the movement in Nashik for Dalits so that they could get entry into the Kalaram temple.

(i) All movements have ideologies. (Discuss : Textbook page 92)
Answer:

  • Even though movements are launched for social welfare there is always an ideology behind every movement.
  • The scope of movements against child marriage or dowry prohibition is not limited to oppose the social evil practice but have wider aim of social reformation.
  • The movements started against female foeticide ‘Beti Bachao Beti Padhav’, violence against women and to empower women had objectives to achieve equal social status for women and their protection.
  • Movements like cleanliness campaign, Chipko Andolan, Save Trees aim not only at environment protection but also aim at saving humanity.
  • These movements have faith in democratic values like equality and brotherhood and humanity. This shows all movements have ideologies.
  • Generally the movements are devoted to one particular issue but have an ideology behind them.
  • For example movements against child marriage, dowry believe in values of democracy, women empowerment and social equality.
  • Sometimes some movements gradually get transformed into political parties.

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Question 10.
Give your opinion :
(a) Do you think, if all the movements co-ordinate with each other, the result will be more effective?
Answer:

  • Our society has witnessed many movements from pre-independence times.
  • If all these movements co-ordinate with each other they will be definitely, effective.
  • With each other’s cooperation they can work together to find the root cause of the problem and also find a solution.
  • The manpower will not get divided. The work will get divided and that would save time and energy to a great extent.
  • The movement will be more effective.

(a) On which issues does the ‘Sons of the Soil’ movement in India insist? (Discuss : Textbook page 93)
Answer:
People migrate for various reasons within the country. They create lot of problems in their newly adopted homeland which give rise to the ‘Sons of the Soil’ movement. The main reasons for the movement are :

  • Sons of the Soil, i.e. local people lose out on employment opportunities.
  • They are deprived of their jobs.
  • Their land is confiscated.
  • Housing becomes expensive.
  • The migrants pose a threat to the language and culture of local people.
  • Sons of the Soil lose economic monopoly as well as political influence.

10th Std Political Science Questions And Answers:

Heritage Management Question Answer Class 10 History Chapter 9 Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 9 Heritage Management Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 10 History Chapter 9 Question Answer Heritage Management Maharashtra Board

Class 10 History Chapter 9 Heritage Management Question Answer Maharashtra Board

History Class 10 Chapter 9 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Question 1.
(A) Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the statement.
(1) Lovre Museum has in its collection the much-acclaimed painting of …………..…….. by Leonardo da Vinci.
(a) Napoleon
(b) Mona Lisa
(c) Hans Sloan
(d) George II
Answer:
(b) Mona Lisa

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(2) …………..…….. at Kolkata is the first museum in India.
(a) Government Museum
(b) National Museum
(c) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Vastusangrahalay
(d) Indian Museum
Answer:
(d) Indian Museum

(B) Identify and write the wrong pair in the following set.
(1) Maharaja Sayajirao University – Delhi
(2) Banaras Hindu University – Varanasi
(3) Aligarh Muslim University – Aligarh
(4) Jivaji University – Gwalior
Answer:
(1) Wrong Pair: Maharaja Sayajirao University – Delhi

Question 2.
Explain the following statements with reasons.
(1) Archives and libraries publish research journals, informative pamphlets, leaflets, posters, etc.
Answer:

  • Libraries preserve and conserve old’ books and artefacts discovered during excavation.
  • If these documents and artefacts are not exhibited then they are kept in archives.
  • All the historical sources are our assets and they should reach the people.
  • Libraries not only preserve these documents but also carry out research, to know the authenticity.

In order to make the historical events, personalities, and historical research known to the people, archives and libraries publish research journals, informative pamphlets and leaflets.

(2) Only trained persons, who are duly qualified can take up the tasks involved in the work of conservation and preservation.
Answer:

  1. While conducting historical research, one has to do the different tasks carefully like collecting sources, preserving, exhibiting, etc.
  2. The skill required for every task is different. The procedure followed for each task is different as well as the preliminary preparations.
  3. It is essential to know about precautions to be taken.
  4. Hence only trained persons who are duly qualified can take up the tasks involved in the work of conservation and preservation.

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Question 3.
Write notes:
(1) Sthalakosh
Answer:

  • History does not shape itself in oblivion. It takes place at some place.
  • Geographic information is essential to study history.
  • Chakradhar Swami, of Mahanubav sect, visited many villages and details of those villages were noted by Muni Vyas.
  • Siddheshwarshastri Chitrav wrote Prachin Bharatiya Sthalkosh. It gives us information on various places mentioned in Vedic literature, Kautiliya’s Arthashastra, Panini’s Grammar, Ramayana.
  • Mahabharata and also in Buddhist Jain Greek, Chinese and Persian literature.
  • Sthalakosh gives us information on ancient cities and history of those cities. It serves as an important written source of history.

(2) Vishwakosh
Answer:

  • The first Chief Minister of Maharashtra, Shri Yashwantrao Chavan, established the ‘Maharashtra Rajya Sahitya Samskruti Mandal.
  • The objective of making Vishwakosh was to develop and enhance Marathi language and literature.
  • Tarkteerth Lakshmanshastri Joshi was appointed as the chief editor. 20 volumes of Vishwakosh are published till date.
  • Marathi Vishwakosh contains knowledge about all possible subjects which exist in the world. It has important entries about history.

(3) Samdnya Kosh
Answer:

  1. While studying any subject we come across many new words. If their exact meaning is not understood, it can create a lot of confusion.
  2. Terms in history like colonialism, imperialism, liberalisation, globalisation, socialism, communism need explanation and clarity. In order to avoid such confusions, this kosh is prepared.
  3. In Samdnya Kosh, all subject related concepts are collected and explained. Information on what led to the development of concepts is provided.
  4. Samdnya Kosh is very helpful for research students, teachers of history as well as common people.

(4) Saraswati Mahal Granthalay
Answer:

  • The Saraswati Mahal Granthalay was built in 16-17th century in Tanjavur, Tamil Nadu during the reign of Nayak Dynasty.
  • In 1675, Maharaj Vyankojiraje Bhosale conquered ‘ Thanjavur and established his independent rule. He and his successors contributed to the expansion of this library. ‘
  • Sarfojiraje Bhosale contributed the most in expanding and enriching the library. Because of his contribution, to honour him, the library was renamed as ‘The Thanjavur Maharaj Sarfoji’s Saraswati Mahal Library’.

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Question 4.
Give elaborate answers to the following.
(1) Why is library management important?
Answer:
Library is not just about a collection of books but managing it is equally important.

  • Readers can easily get the books they want if the library is properly organised.
  • The location of the book should be easily traced. It saves the time and efforts of readers as well as the librarian.
  • Preservation and conservation of books is done effectively with proper management. It prolongs life of books and causes less damage.
  • If the management is well acquainted, they will have good collection that will make available good quality books to reader.
  • Instead of collecting books on one subject there should be variety in the collection so as to cater of different readers who are very selective in their choices.
  • Facilities like proper catalogues, indexes, computerised systems and modern facilities are provided by effective management of library.
  • If the management is creative it will organise exhibitions, advertise, have seasonal offers for vacations, conduct competitions to increase membership.

(2) Which tasks are important in archives management?
Answer:
The following tasks are important in archives’ management:

  • Important documents to be preserved and care should be taken that document with important contents are preserved in their original condition. Confidentiality of important papers should be maintained.
  • To classify the documents by preparing indexes and to create accurate systems of retrieval of documents.
  • Documents from the archives are supposed to be very reliable.
  • Therefore, it is important to safeguard the papers from humidity, fungus and other environmental factors.
  • It is important to remain updated with latest technology in archive management.
  • Computerise/Digitalse all systems. To make use of information technology in managing libraries and archives.
  • To establish regional and local archives*.
  • To preserve national, cultural and historical heritage.
  • To create a hasslefree system.

Question 5.
Complete the following Concept chart.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 9 Heritage Management 1
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 9 Heritage Management 2

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Project
Obtain information about the important libraries in Maharashtra. Visit the library in your vicinity and learn about its functioning.

Question 6.
Complete the sentences by choosing the correct option:
(a) Documents and artefacts which are not exhibited are kept in …………………… .
(a) Museum
(b) Library
(c) Archives
(d) Government office
Answer:
(c) Archives

(b) ……………………. was the 16th century artist who worked under the patronage of French King Francis I.
(a) Leonardo-da-Vinci
(b) Michaelangelo
(c) Raphael
(d) Dante
Answer:
(a) Leonardo-da-Vinci

(c) The collection in ……………………. increased to a great extent because of the antiquities brought by Napoleon Bonaparte.
(a) National Museum of Natural History
(b) British Museum
(c) Louvre Museum
(d) The Calico Museum
Answer:
(c) Louvre Museum.

(d) ……………………., a natural scientist handed over about 71 thousand objects in his collection to the British Museum.
(a) Sir Hans Sloan
(b) King George II
(c) Napoleon Bonaparte
(d) King Francis I
Answer:
(a) Sir Hans Sloan

(e) The Museum of Natural History which 8 houses more than 12 crore specimens of fossils is in ……………………. .
(a) England
(b) France
(c) Switzerland
(d) USA.
Answer:
(d) USA

(f) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Vastu-sangrahalay was built to commemorate the visit of ……………………. .
(a) King George I
(b) Queen Elizabeth
(c) Prince Charles
(d) Prince of Wales
Answer:
(c) Prince of Wales

(g) The building of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Vastusangrahalay is built in ……………………. style.
(a) Mughal
(b) Indo-Greek
(c) Indo-Gothic
(d) Indo-Persian
Answer:
(c) Indo-Gothic

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(h) ……………………. is given status of Grade I heritage building in Mumbai.
(a) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Railway Terminus
(b) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Vastusangrahalay
(c) Reserve Bank of India
(d) Jehangir Art Gallery
Answer:
(b) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Vastusangrahalay.

(i) The Royal Library of Ashurbanipal, the ……………………….. Emperor in Mesopotamia is one of the earliest libraries in the world.
(a) Hispanic
(b) Assyrian
(c) Mongol
(d) Akkadian
Answer:
(b) Assyrian

(j) The ……………………….. in Thanjavur, Tamil Nadu was built in 16th-17th century during the times of Nayak dynasty.
(a) Vyankojiraje Bhosale
(b) Sarfojiraje Bhosale
(c) Saraswati Mahal Granthalay
(d) Vidya Niketan
Answer:
(c) Saraswati Mahal Granthalay

(k) The first official archives of India, the ……………………….. was established in 1891 C.E. in Kolkata.
(a) National Archive
(b) Federal Record of Nation
(c) Archive National
(d) Imperial Record Department
Answer:
(d) Imperial Record Department

(l) There are about five crore Modi documents related to Maratha history in the Pune branch which are referred as ………………………. .
(a) Peshwa Daftar
(b) Bhosale Daftar
(c) British Daftar
(d) Maratha Daftar
Answer:
(a) Peshwa Daftar

(m) ……………………….. prepared during the reign of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj is considered as an important encyclopaedia.
(a) Bharatiya Vyavahar Kosh
(b) Rajavyavaharkosh
(c) Vyavaharik Kosh
(d) Bharatiya Prachin Charitrakosh
Answer:
(b) Rajavyavaharkosh.

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Question 7.
Identify the wrong pair in the following and write it:
(1)

(1) Maharaj Sayajirao University Delhi
(2) Banaras Hindu University Varanasi
(3) Aligarh Muslim University Aligarh
(4) Jivaji University Gwalior

Answer:
Wrong Pair: Maharaj Sayajirao University – Delhi.

(2)

(1) Sangeetshastrakar va Kalavant Yancha Itiha£ Lakshman Dattatray Joshi
(2) Krantikarakancha Charitrakosh S. R. Date
(3) Svantantryasainik Charitrakosh N. R. Phatak
(4) Bharatvarshiya Prachin Aitihasik Kosh Shridhar Vyankatesh Ketkar

Answer:
Wrong Pair: Bharatvarshiya Prachin Aitihasik Kosh – Shridhar Vyankatesh Ketkar

(3)

(1) Bharatvarshiya Charitrakosh Siddeshwar Shastri Chitral
(2) Marathi Vishwakosh Raghunath Bhaskar Godbole
(3) Bharatiya Samskruti Kosh Pandit Mahadevshastri Joshi
(4) Maharashtriya Dnyankosh Shridhar Vyankatesh Ketkar

Answer:
Wrong Pair: Marathi Vishwakosh – Raghunath Bhaskar Godbole

(4)

(1) Sthanapothi Muni Vyas
(2) Index of Marathi Periodicals S. G. Date
(3) First Encyclopaedia of Natural History Denis Diderot
(4) Asiatic Society of Bengal First museum in India

Answer:
Wrong Pair: First Encyclopaedia of Natural History – Denis Diderot

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Question 8.
Complete the following concept chart:
(1)
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 9 Heritage Management 3
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 9 Heritage Management 4

(2)
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 9 Heritage Management 5
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 9 Heritage Management 7
(3)
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 9 Heritage Management 8
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 9 Heritage Management 9

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Question 9.
Explain the concept :

(a) Archives:
Answer:

  1. An archive is a place where documents with important content in their original conditions are preserved in a scientific manner.
  2. Artefacts and documents which are not exhibited in museums or libraries but have historical importance are kept in archives.
  3. Archives provide documents to the § government, research students and local public when required. Technically, the management of archives is akin to library management.
  4. The documents in the archives are preserved in their original condition and hence no changes can be made to it. Documents from archives are very reliable.

(b) Encyclopaedia:
Answer:

  1. Encyclopaedia can be defined as a systematic compilation of words with meaning, information or knowledge on various topics.
  2. A specific method is adopted to compile the information or to organise the available knowledge. g
  3. Accuracy, meticulousness, objectivity, standardised format of presentation and updated information are the special features of good encyclopaedia.
  4. The objective of making an encyclopaedia is to make the available knowledge easily accessible to the readers.

(c) Dictionaries:
Answer:

  • A type of encyclopaedia giving word meaning arranged in alphabetical order is a Dictionary.
  • Dictionaries help the readers to know meaning of the words and enrich their vocabulary.
  • Dictionaries have word meanings, synonyms and etymology.
  • Dictionaries are of various type like comprehensive dictionaries, dictionaries of terminology, etymology, thesaurus and dictionaries of idioms and proverbs.

(d) Comprehensive Encyclopaedia (Vishwakosh):
Answer:

  • Comprehensive Encyclopaedia (Vishwakosh) means a book which has information on all subjects known, i.e. all subjects under the sun.
  • Vishwakosh is an important medium” of documenting and disseminating information.
  • The information is included in encyclopaedia after thorough research and study.
  • (a) There are two types of encydopaedias – one that includes all subjects like ‘Encyclopaedia Britannica’, Maharashtriya Dnyankosh, Marathi Vishvakosh.
    (b) The other type of encyclopaedia includes comprehensive information on one chosen subject, e.g. Bharatiya Samskruti Kosh, ‘Vyayam Dnyankosh1.

(e) Index:
Answer:

  • Index means a list.
  • Index is at the end of a book which includes alphabetical lists of individuals, subjects, key words, reference books, etc.
  • As the list is in alphabetical order, the reader finds it easy to access required information.
  • The index of Marathi periodicals prepared by S. G. Date and index of ‘Marathyancha Itihasachi Sadhane1 is well-known.

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(f) Charitrakosh (Encyclopaedia of Biographies):
Answer:

  1. Charitrakosh contained biographies of individuals who lived in a particular period and their work which inspired and motivated all the people in the society.
  2. Charitrakosh enables the researcher and scholars to know about the historic period, with regard to social structure and social life.
  3. Bharatvarshiya Prachin Aitihasik Kosh written by Raghunath Bhaskar Godbole is the earliest encyclopaedia of this kind.

(g) Bharatiya Samskruti Kosh:
Answer:

  • It contains the description of Indian history, geography, religions, sects, culture, traditions, beliefs, ethnic and lingual groups residing in our country.
  • Bharatiya Samskruti Kosh throws light on, people living in a particular region, festivals and their culture.
  • Mahadevshastri Joshi edited and published 10 volumes of this Kosh.
  • Chakradhar Swami, of Mahanubav sect, visited many villages and details of those villages were noted by Muni Vyas.

Question 10.
Write short notes:
(a) Louvre Museum:
Answer:

  • The Louvre Museum in Paris was established in the 18th century.
  • It has antiquities collected by the royal family of France.
  • The world famous painting of Mona Lisa by Leonardo-Da-Vinci is kept in this museum.
  • The antiquities brought back by Napoleon Bonaparte on his return from conquests are exhibited in this museum.
  • Presently, the museum has more than 3 lakh and 80 thousand artefacts.

(b) British Museum:
Answer:

  • The British Museum was established in the 18th century in London.
  • It has a collection of 71 thousand objects given by natural scientist Sir Hans Sloan to King George. II.
  • Several books, pictures, specimens of preserved plants are included in it.
  • The ancient objects and artefacts which the Britishers have collected from their colonies are exhibited in this museum.
  • At present, it has about 80 lakh objects in its collection.

(c) National Museum of Natural History:
Answer:

  • The National Museum of Natural History was established in Washington DC in 1846.
  • The Smithsonian Institute managed the museum from its inception. This is a museum of natural history.
  • Remains of animals, plants, organisms and thousands of specimens of fossils are kept in it.
  • It also has human fossils, minerals, rocks, shells, artefacts. All together it has a collection of more than 12 crore (120 million).

(d) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Vastusangrahalay:
Answer:

  1. Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Vastusangrahalay was built to commemorate the visit of Prince of Wales to India. Some influential residents in Mumbai decided to establish a museum in 1904.
  2. The foundation of the building was laid on 2nd November 1905 and the construction was completed in 1922. The museum was named as ‘Prince of Wales of Western India’. In 1998 C.E. it was renamed as ‘Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Vastusangrahalay.’
  3. The museum building is constructed in Indo-Gothic style and has been awarded the status of Grade I heritage building.
  4. The museum has about 50 thousand antiquities which are divided into three categories, viz.. Arts, Archaeology and Natural History.

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(e) Bharatvarshiya Prachin Aitihasik Kosh:
Answer:

  • Raghunath Bhaskar Godbole wrote Bharatvarshiya Prachin Aitihasik Kosh.
  • It is the first dictionary of Biography in Indian regional language.
  • We get information on Manu and many ancient personalities from Mahabharat.
  • We come to know about legendary people who lived in Bharatvarsha and were renowned.
  • Information about their women, their sons, religions, lands, capitals, mountains and rivers.
  • Which flowed in their land their entire history is given in this encyclopaedia.

(f) Bharatiya Samskruti Kosh:
Answer:

  • Pandit Mahadevshastri Joshi edited and published 10 volumes of Bharatiya Samskruti Kosh.
  • He wrote about Indian history, geography, about people speaking different languages and how they created history.
  • Detailed information on culture of India and festivals, geography, traditions, ideas, is taken into consideration.

Therefore these koshs are useful for readers and research scholars.

Question 11.
Explain the following statements with reasons:

(a) Encyclopaedias should be created in as many languages as possible.
Answer:
Encyclopaedias symbolise the richness and vast gamut of words a language has.

  • It fulfils the curiosity of readers and solves the confusion of a layman.
  • Encyclopaedias inspire to carry out more research as one gets information, knowledge and references.
  • Encyclopaedias provide complete information and knowledge to researchers and students which enriches their previous knowledge.
  • Encyclopaedias represent intellectual and cultural development of a society.
  • Many languages in India and the world are rich and resourceful and hence encyclopaedias should be created in as many languages as possible to raise intellectual level of society.

(b) Encyclopaedia and history are related.
Answer:

  • Encyclopaedias contain information about personalities, events and ancient cultures.
  • In order to gather information it is essential to take the help of history,
  • The common factors between an encyclopaedia and history are objectivity and authenticity.
  • Research scholars of history need to refer to encyclopaedias to find information on events, personalities, concept, places, etc. as encyclopaedias are created with the help of history. Hence encyclopaedia and history are related.

(c) Improved versions of Encyclopaedia or supplements to original editions need to be published.
Answer:

  1. Encyclopaedia is a systematic compilation of information or knowledge on various topics ranging from people, places and events to concepts, word meanings, etc.
  2. With the passage of time the spectrum of knowledge has widened.
  3. With the advent of new technology new words are added. Latest or updated information, knowledge, concepts enrich the language.
  4. The references of the past events change in context of the new research. If all these changes are not incorporated in the encyclopaedias, they will become outdated.

Therefore, encyclopaedia or supplements to original editions need to be published.

Question 12.
Answer the following questions in 25-30 words:
(a) What are the ways to preserve and conserve oral resources?
Answer:

  • Folk songs ancl folk tales are collected and compiled.
  • Collected material is classified. It is interpreted and analysed after compilation.
  • The result of research conducted is then published.

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(b) What steps are taken to preserve written sources?
Answer:
Written sources have great importance in the writing of history. To preserve written sources we need –

  • To collect old books, historical books, pictures, photographs, copper plates, manuscripts and official records and edit them.
  • To decide upon the historical values of collected documents.
  • To exhibit the selected documents.
  • To publish edited documents and research reports.
  • To complete necessary chemical and mechanical process of cleaning for conserving and preserving the documents.

(c) What methods should be followed while studying material source?
Answer:
The following methods should be followed by research scholars while studying material source:

  • To collect the artefacts and classify them according to their historical date and type and prepare indexes.
  • To arrange exhibitions of selected artefacts or their replicas.
  • To write and publish research articles about artefacts.
  • To complete required mechanical and chemical processes of cleaning for conservation and preservation of the collected documents.

(d) Write about the earliest libraries in the world.
Answer:
Libraries were established in different parts of the world in ancient times:

  • The Royal Library of Ashurbanipal is the earliest library dating back to the 7th century B.C.E. in Mesopotamia. The library was owned by the Assyrian emperor.
  • A library was discovered at Alexandria in Egypt which was built in 4th century C.E.
  • The library at Takshashila university in 5th century B.C.E. – 5th century C.E. as it was a noted centre of learning.

(e) Write about format of Encyclopaedias.
Answer:
Format of Encyclopaedias:

  • Encyclopaedias are made according to selected subjects; therefore encyclopaedias are classified according to the subjects.
  • Encyclopaedias are framed according to alphabetical order or as per the order of topics.
  • They provide the exact meaning of words and give information on concepts.
  • The type of order is kept according to the convenience of the readers. An index is provided at the end of the encyclopaedia for this purpose.

(f) Write about Encyclopaedic Literature.
Answer:

  • It appears similar to an encyclopaedia but differs in composition.
  • Information and scholarly articles on all possible aspects of a subject is covered.
  • Experts are called to write on different topics which are compiled to create encyclopaedia
  • ‘Maharashtra Jeevan’ Volume I and II; ‘Shahar Pune’ Volume I and II; Yearbook like Manorama, etc. are the examples of Encyclpaedic Literature.

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(g) Give information on early encyclopaedias made in the west.
Answer:

  • The process of making encyclopaedias started in before 1st century C.E. in the west. Pliny wrote the first encyclopaedia on natural history between 23 C.E.-79 C.E.
  • In the 8th and 9th century, encyclopaedias were written in England, France and in Arab countries.
  • French Philosopher Denis Diderot wrote Encyclopaedia in the 18th century C.E.
  • The important milestone in this process was ‘Encyclopaedia Britannica’ published in 1767 C.E.
  • Wikipedia is considered equivalent to encyclopaedia. The information given in this encyclopaedia is highly reliable and updated.

(h) Write about ancient Indian encyclopaedias.
Answer:

  • In the 7th century C.E., Nighantu, a dictionary (information on ancient medicine) in Sanskrit language was written. Dictionaries like Dhatupath were written.
  • In tjie medieval times, encyclopaedic text was composed by Mahanubhav sect.
  • Amarsimha wrote a thesaurus in Sanskrit ‘Amarkosha’.
  • Raghunath Pandit prepared Rajavyavaharkosh as directed by Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj.

Question 13.
Read the following passage and answer the following questions:
(a) Which factors influence Encyclopaedia?
Answer:
The influence of national policies, ethical values and ideals, philosophy and traditions is seen in an encyclopaedia.

(b) What is the common factor between history and encyclopaedia?
Answer:
History and encyclopaedia both are objective.

(c) Explain the statement: Encyclopaedias are looked upon as outstanding achievements of a society.
Answer:

  • The knowledge in all the spheres of society is made accessible to everyone is the major reason behind making an encyclopaedia.
  • What inspires people to create encyclopaedias is the instinct to gain knowledge and spread it.
  • Encyclopaedias reflect the collective intellect and creativity of society.
  • One develops a sense of pride after knowing about nation’s progress through it.

Hence encyclopaedias are looked upon as outstanding achievements of a society.

Question 14.
Give elaborate answers to the following: (3 marks each)

(a) What kind of training is required to study written sources?
Answer:
While studying and handling written sources the following training is required:

  • The students should have knowledge of scripts like Brahmi, Modi, Persian and their development.
  • They should know ways to obtain information about the social organisations and traditions.
  • They should know about the literature and writing style in past societies.
  • They should have basic knowledge about administrative systems, dynasties and cultures of the past.
  • They should study prevalent schools of painting and sculpture.
  • They should be able to collect information on types of paper, know about ink and colour of ancient document and ways to handle.
  • They should be well acquainted with properties of stones and metals used for inscriptions.
  • Articles published earlier on case study should be read.
  • They should know the chemicals and equipment used in various processes of cleaning and preserving the documents.
  • Modern know-how of approaches of managing exhibitions in museums, galleries and information technology.

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(b) What kind of training is required to study material sources?
Answer:
Student should have following knowledge to study material resource:

  • They should have basic knowledge of archaeological method and theory.
  • They should be acquainted with the history of ancient civilisations.
  • They should have knowledge of various techniques of excavation.
  • Stones, minerals and clay used to make artefacts and their characteristics to be studied.
  • They should be well-acquainted with the sources of the material used and their chemical properties.
  • They should also know about various styles of making artefacts and development in their making process.
  • They should have the knowledge and skills of making replicas of artefacts and fossils.
  • They should read research papers previously published on his case study.
  • They should acquire information about the approaches of arranging exhibitions and administrations.
  • They should know about the equipment and chemicals necessary for the cleaning of artefacts.
  • They should be able to write research reports and articles.

(c) Write information about museums in India.
Answer:

  • ‘Indian Museum’ established by the Asiatic Society of Bengal in Kolkata was the first museum in India in 1814.
  • The ‘Government Museum’ established in Chennai in 1851 C.E. was the second museum in India. The National Museum was established in Delhi in 1949.
  • The foundation of the Prince of Wales Museum was laid in Mumbai in 1905. Its construction was completed in 1922. It was renamed as Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Vastusangrahalay in 1998 C.E.
  • At present, there are many museums in various states of India.
  • Many museums are connected to libraries and archives. Some are connected to Universities.
  • Such museums offer courses in Museology also.

(d) Give information on “National Archives of India.
Answer:

  • The first official archive of India was established m Kolkata in 1891 C.E. as the ‘Imperial Record Department’.
  • It was moved to Delhi in 1911 C.E.
  • In 1998 C.E. it was made accessible to the public by the then President of India K.R. Narayanan.
  • It was renamed as ‘National Archive’ (National Archive of India). Archives come under the Ministry of Culture of the Indian Government.
  • This archive has papers, maps, books and micro films preserved in chronological order since 1748.
  • Records in English, Arabic, Hindi, Persian, Sanskrit, Devanagari and Modi languages are preserved.
  • Papers kept in archives are classified into public, oriental, manuscripts and private papers.
  • The National Archives of India is the largest in Asia and technologically advanced.

(e) Explain the statement: A nation should have museums and libraries.
Answer:
Museums and libraries mirror the history of the country and that is the reason they are very valuable for a nation.

  • Museums and Libraries make it easy for the research scholar to write history.
  • Historical events and life stories of important people reach the masses.
  • People get an idea about past social, political and cultural conditions.
  • A visit to museums increases one’s interest.
  • A change in a prejudiced view about history is seen.
  • Information on animals, microorganisms, birds and elements of nature.
  • Museums contribute to the process of gaining and dissemination of knowledge.
  • Ancient historical sources are preserved.
  • Tourism is promoted.
  • It creates opportunities for employment.

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Hence it can be said that it is important for a nation to have museums and libraries as they both are symbols of nation’s progress and glory.

Memory Map
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 9 Heritage Management 9

10th Std History Questions And Answers:

Historiography Indian Tradition Question Answer Class 10 History Chapter 2 Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 2 Historiography Indian Tradition Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 10 History Chapter 2 Question Answer Historiography Indian Tradition Maharashtra Board

Class 10 History Chapter 2 Historiography Indian Tradition Question Answer Maharashtra Board

History Class 10 Chapter 2 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Question 1.
(A) Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the statement.
(1) …………………..…….. was the first Director-General of the Archaeological Survey of India.
(a) Alexander Cunningham
(b) William Jones
(c) John Marshall
(d) Friedrich Max Muller
Answer:
(a) Sir Alexander Cunningham

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(2) …………………..…….. translated the Sanskrit text of ‘Hitopadesh’ in the German language.
(a) James Mill
(b) Friedrich Max Muller
(c) Mountstuart Elphinstone
(d) Sir John Marshall
Answer:
(b) Friedrich Max Muller

(B) Identify and write the wrong pair in the following set.
(1) ‘Who were the Shudras’ – subaltern History
(2) ‘Stri-Purush Tulana’ – Feminist writing
(3) ‘The Indian War of Independence 1857’ – Marxist History
(4) Grant Duff – Colonial History.
Answer:
(1) Right Pair: ‘Who were the Shudras’ – subaltern History
(2) Right Pair: ‘Stri-Purush Tulana’ – Feminist writing
(3) Wrong Pair: ‘The Indian War of Independence 1857’ – Marxist History
(4) Right Pair: Grant Duff – Colonial History.

Question 2.
Explain the following with its reason.
(1) Writing of the regional history received a momentum.
Answer:

  • Indian historians trained in the British educational system showed an inclination to restore the self-esteem of Indians They started writing Nationalistic historiography.
  • Historians from the different regions of India criticised the prejudiced history of India written by the British officers.
  • Their attention was drawn towards geographic conditions and history of different regions of India.
  • The nationalistic historiography helped in triggering the independence movement.
  • It provided a momentum to the writing of regional histories for e.g.
  • Nationalistic writings in Maharashtra were inspired by Vishnu Shastri Chiplunkar.

Hence, writing of the regional history received momentum.

(2) Bakhar is an important type of historical documents.
Answer:

  • Bakhars are important source of history like coins, inscriptions, texts, copper plates and travelogues.
  • Bakhars contain eulogies of the heroes, historic events, stories of lives of great men and description of battles.
  • It portrays a picture of prevalent society, religions and economic life.
  • Bakhars are of various types which contain biographies of kings, dynastic history, description of events, sects, autobiographies, mythologies, administration of kings, etc.
  • These descriptions are helpful for writing historiography.
  • Among well-known Marathi. Bakhars ‘Sabhasad Bakhar’ written by Krishnaji Anant Sabhasad requires a special mention Bhausahebanchi Bakhar and Panipatachi Bakhar describe the ‘Battle of Panipat’.

Hence, Bakhars are important type of historical document.

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Question 3.
Write detailed Answers the following questions in detail.
(1) What is Marxist History?
Answer:

  1. In the post-independence era, new trends emerged in writing Indian historiography. Marxist historiography is prominent among them.
  2. Historiography which is based on ideas of Karl Marx is known as Marxist Historiography. In Marxist Historiography, more importance was given to class struggles.
  3. Marxist Historiography reflects concerns for means and modes of production as well as the industrial relations. These became centre of writings of the Marxist historians.
  4. How every social event affects the life of people was analysed and it became the theme of Marxist historians Marxist historians studied the transitions that took place in the caste system.
  5. Notable Indian historians who adopted Marxist ideologies were Damodar Kosambi, Comrade Shripad Dange, Sharad Patil and Ram Sharan Sharma.
  6. Their writings reflected Marxist ideology. Comrade Dange was the founder member of the Indian Communist Party

(2) What is the contribution of Itihasacharya V.K. Rajwade to historiography?
Answer:

  1. V.K. Rajwade is well-known for his writings in Marathi on subjects like history, linguistics, etymology and grammar. His contributions are as follows:
  2. He compiled and edited 22 volumes of Marathyanchya Itihasachi Sadhane.
  3. He stated that history is the all-inclusive image of the past societies.
  4. V. K. Rajwade was of the view that history does not include only the stories of political images, conspiracies and Wars for seizing power.
  5. He was of the firm opinion that we should write our own history and insisted that history . should be written only using the authentic sources.
  6. He was of the opinion that description of any human event in historiography should have balanced combination of three factors namely – Time, Space and Personalities.

Question 4.
(a) Complete the following chart.

Historian Name of the Book
James Mill ‘The History of British India’
James Grant Duff ……………………………………………
…………………………………………… ‘The History of India’
S.A. Dange ……………………………………………
…………………………………………… ‘Who were the Shudras’

Answer:

Historian Name of the Book
James Mill The History of British India
James Grant Duff A History of Mahrattas
Mountstuart Elphinstone The History of India
S. A. Dange Primitive Communism to Slavery
Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar Who Were the Shudras

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(b) Complete the following concept chart.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 2 Historiography Indian Tradition 1
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 2 Historiography Indian Tradition 2

Question 5.
Explain the following concepts.
(1) Orientalist historiography.
Answer:

  1. In the later part of the eighteenth century many European scholars felt curious to know about civilisations and countries of the East.
  2. These scholars who studied the Indian Civilization had respect and admiration for it. They were known as ‘Orientalists’.
  3. They studied similarities between Sanskrit and some of the European languages, focussing more on Vedic traditions and Sanskrit literature.
  4. It resulted in the notion that an ancient language could be the mother of all Indo-European languages.
  5. Notable Orientalist scholars are Friedrich Max Muller and William Jones.

(2) Nationalistic historiography.
Answer:

  1. English education started in India in the nineteenth century. The Indian historians who were trained in English education system realised the glory of their past.
  2. They showed an inclination to restore the pride in the ancient glory of India and the self-esteem of the Indian readers.
  3. They laid the foundation of Nationalistic writing. Nationalistic writings in Maharashtra were inspired by ‘Vishnushastri Chiplunkar’.
  4. Nationalistic historians opposed the prejudiced history written by the British officers.
  5. Mahadev Govind Ranade, Vinayak Damodar Savarkar, Ramesh Chandra Majumdar are renowned Nationalistic historians.
  6. Nationalistic historiography inspired freedom struggle against the Britishers and gave momentum to write about regional history. While glorifying the past, at times they are blamed for ignoring to critically analyse the truth.

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(3) Subaltern history.
Answer:

  • History of deprived classes or communities who were deprived of all rights is known as subaltern history.
  • The seeds of subaltern history can be traced in the Marxist history. Italian historian Antonio Gramsci has special importance in writing the subaltern history.
  • He presented the idea that history should be written starting from the bottommost ranks of people in the society.
  • Ranjit Guha, an Indian historian, has given prominence to subaltern history and played a major role in establishing it as an important academic school of historiography.
  • Similar thoughts were expressed by Mahatma Phule and Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar which can be found in their writings.

Project
Prepare an illustrated manuscript with the help of the internet giving more information about the historians mentioned in this lesson.
Answer:

Memory Map
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 2 Historiography Indian Tradition 3

Question 6.
Complete the sentences by choosing a correct option:
(a) The first written document found in India was inscribed during the rule of Emperor ……………….. .
(a) Akbar
(b) Harshavardhan
(c) Ashoka Maurya
(d) Aurangzeb
Answer:
(c) Ashoka Maurya

(b) Banabhatta wrote King Harsha’s biography titled ………………… in the 7th century CE.
(a) Meghdoot
(b) Rajtarangini
(c) Rasratnakar
(d) Harshacharit
Answer:
(d) Harshacharit

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(c) In the 12th century C.E., ………………… wrote a book ‘Rajtarangini’ about history of Kashmir.
(a) Banabhatta
(b) Kalhana
(c) Ziquddin Barani
(d) Patanjali
Answer:
(b) Kalhana.

(d) The historians in the courts of Muslim rulers were influenced by ………………… historiography.
(a) Greek and Roman
(b) Arabic and Persian
(c) English and French
(d) Arabic and Urdu
Answer:
(b) Arabic and Persian

(e) We get information about the rule of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj from ……………….. .
(a) Bhausahebanchi Bakhar
(b) Panipatachi Bakhar
(c) Sabhasad Bakhar
(d) Holkaranchi Bakhar
Answer:
(c) Sabhasad Bakhar

(f) ‘Bhausahebanchi Bakhar’ describes Battle of ……………….. .
(a) Raigad
(b) Panipat
(c) Plassey
(d) Vasai
Answer:
(b) Panipat

(g) The first book written by a British historian on Indian history is ……………….. .
(a) The History of India
(b) The History of Maharaj
(c) The History of British India
(d) The Sacred Books of the East
Answer:
(c) The History of British India

(h) Nilkanth Janardan Kirtane and V.K. Rajwade exposed the limitations in writings of ……………….. .
(a) Friedrich Max Muller
(b) Colonel Todd
(c) Grant Duff
(d) William Wilson Hunter
Answer:
(c) Grant Duff

(i) …………………, an Indian historian played a major role in establishing subaltern history as an important academic school of historiography.
(a) Comrade Sharad Patil
(b) Ranjit Guha
(c) Dharmanand Kosambi
(d) Ram Sharan Sharma
Answer:
(b) Ranjit Guha.

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(j) The writings of British officials on India display strong influence of ……………….. .
(a) Marxism
(b) Colonalism
(c) Feminism
(d) Capitalism
Answer:
(b) Colonalism

(k) The Nationalistic Historiography in Maharashtra was inspired by works of ……………….. .
(a) Vinayak Damotfar Savarkar
(b) Ramkrishna Gopal Bhandarkar
(c) Vishnushastri Chiplunkar
(d) Justice Mahadev Govind Ranade
Answer:
(c) Vishnushastri Chiplunkar

(l) The two volumes written by ……………….. on Indian history show impartial treatment of the subject.
(a) Colonel Todd
(b) William Wilson Hunter
(c) Grant Duff
(d) James Mill
Answer:
(b) William Wilson Hunter

(m) ‘Primitive Communism to Slavery’, represents ……………….. the historiography.
(a) Colonial
(b) Orientalist
(c) Nationalistic
(d) Marxist
Answer:
(d) Marxist

(n) ‘Stripurush Tulana’ was written by ……………….. is acknowledged as first feminist book in India.
(a) Meera Kosambi
(b) Dr. Sharmila Rege
(c) Tarabai Shinde
(d) Pandita Ramabai
Answer:
(c) Tarabai Shinde.

Question 7.
Identify the wrong pair and write it:
(1)

Name of the Book Types of Historiography
(1) Who were the (a) Subaltern history
Shudras (July ’19)
(2) Stripurush Tulana (b) Feminist writing
(3) The Indian War of Independence (c) Marxist History
(4) Grant Duff (d) Colonial History

Answer:
Wrong pair: The Indian War of Independence – Marxist History.

(2)

Name of the Book Historian
(1) The Rise of the Maratha Power (a) Justice Mahadev Govind Ranade
(2) Marathyanchya Itihasachi Sadhane (b) Vishnushastri Chiplunkar
(3) Maratha Riyasat (c) Govind Sakharam Sardesai
(4) Gulamgiri (d) Mahatma Phule

Answer:
Wrong pair: Marathyanchya Itihasachi Sadhane- Vishnushastri Chiplunkar.

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(3)

Work Scholars
(1)  Bharat Itihas Samshodhak Manda (a)   V. K. Rajwade
(2)  Asiatic Society (b)   Sir William Jones
(3)  Inspiration for Nationalistic historiography (c)  Vishnushastri Chiplunkar
(4)  Discovery of Harappan Civilization (d)  James Mill

Answer:
Wrong pair: Discovery of Harappan CIvilization – James Mill.

(4)

Historiography Historian
(1) Nationalistic Historiography (a) V. D. Savarkar
(2) Marxist Historiography (b) Damodar Kosambi
(3) Subaltern Historiography (c) Ramchandra Guha
(4) Feminist Historiography (d) Sharmila Rege

Answer:
Wrong pair: Subaltern Historiography – Bamchandra Guha.

Question 8.
Do as directed:
(1)

Answer:

(2)

Answer:

(3) Prepare a flow chart on Literary work of Max Muller:
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 2 Historiography Indian Tradition 8

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Question 9.
Explain the concepts:
(a) Colonial Historiography:
Answer:

  • The history written by British officers and Christian missionaries in support of British rule and colonialism is known as Colonial historiography.
  • It reflected their prejudiced mindset about Indian culture. They ridiculed the Indian culture as being primitive.
  • Their writings justified the colonial British rule.
  • The distinct example of colonial historiography is ‘Cambridge History of India’ in five volumes published during 1922-1937.

Question 10.
Write short notes:
(a) Alexander Cunningham:
Answer:

  • British rulers started archaeological exploration and research in India in the 20th century.
  • They established the Archaeological Survey of India and appointed Sir Alexander Cunningham as its first Director General.
  • He mainly chose the sites mentioned in the Buddhist texts for excavations.
  • Many other ancient sites were excavated under his supervision.

(b) James Mill:
Answer:

  • James Mill, a‘British historian, had written the monumental book ‘The History of British India’. He published it in three volumes in 1817.
  • The book is important as it was the first book written by a British officer on Indian history.
  • The book: lacks objective perspective and is prejudiced about various aspects of the Indian culture.

(c) Grant Duff:
Answer:

  • Grant Duff, a British officer, wrote the book ‘A History of Mahrattas’, in three volumes.
  • His name stands out among the British officers who wrote about Maratha history.
  • The tendency of the British historians to condemn Indian culture and history is found in Grant Duff’s writing.
  • Historians Nilkanth Janardan Kirtane and Vishwanath Kashinath Rajwade exposed the limitations of Grant Duff’s writings.

(d) Indian Feminist Historiography:
Answer:

  1. Tarabai Shinde, Pandita Ramabai and Dr. Rukhamabai were feminist historians before independence.
  2. They wrote about employment of women, their right to political equality, treatment meted out to women at their workplace and gender discrimination.
  3. A lot of literature is available unfolding the viewpoint of Dalit women on problems like social class, caste, etc. In the post-independence era.
  4. Dr. Sharmila Rege included her essays on the autobiographies of Dalit women in her book, ‘Writing Caste, Writing Gender: Reading Dalit Women’s Testimonies.’
  5. Meera Kosambi’s book, ‘Crossing Thresholds: Feminist Essays in Social History’ contains essays on the life stories of women like Pandita Ramabai and Dr. Rukhamabai, the first practising lady Doctor of India.

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Question 11.
Explain the following with reasons:
(a) The history of Indian civilization dates back to 3rd millennium BCE.
Answer:

  • Indian civilisation is among the various ancient civilisations in the world.
  • Excavations at Harappa took place in 1920 under the supervision of Sir John Marshall, then Director General of Archaeological Survey of India (ASI). This led to the discovery of Harappan Civilization.
  • This discovery prqved helpful to trace the antiquity of Indian history which dates back 3rd millennium BCE or earlier.

(b) It became necessary to rethink of women’s position in history.
Answer:

  • For a considerable period of time, mainly male scholars were involved in the writing of Indian history.
  • It was obvious that the perspective was male-dominated.
  • The work of the women historians was neglected for long. So it became important to highlight this fact.
  • It was a huge challenge in front of the women: historians to compile the work and do research which would prove to be a medium to put forth their status in society.

Hence, it became necessary to rethink about the position of women in history.

(c) Govind Sakharam Sardesai was addressed as ‘Riyasatkar’.
Answer:

  • Govind Sakharam Sardesai had a momentous achievement to his credit by publishing ‘Maratha Riyasat’.
  • He published several volumes of Maratha history.
  • His work became so popular that people began to address him as ‘Riyasatkar’.

Question 12.
Answer the following in 25-30 words:
(a) Which things are included in the description by Emperor Babur in bis autobiography?
Answer:
Babur, the founder of the Mughal empire, in his autobiography entitled Tuzuk-i-Babari describes:

  • The battles fought by him.
  • Recordings of minute observations of various regions and cities visited by him noting minute observations.
  • Observation of the local customs, economy, fauna and flora of the region travelled by him.

(b) What is the contribution of Swatantryaveer Savarkar to nationalistic historiography?
Answer:

  1. The writings of Swatantryaveer Savarkar were infused with nationalistic ideas. He looked at the revolt of 1857 as the First War of Independence and wrote the ‘book ‘The Indian War of Independence, 1857’.
  2. His book gave inspiration to Nationalistic historiography which helped in triggering independence movement of the Indian people against the British. Even the writing of regional history got momentum.
  3. The attention of historians was drawn towards the history and geographic conditions and variations in the South Indian region.

(c) Write about the contribution of Banabhatta in writing historiographies.
Answer:

  • It was considered an important step in the Indian historiography to write biographies of kings and dynastic histories.
  • Banabhatta wrote Harshacharit, King Harsha’s biography, in the 7th century C.E.
  • It portrays a realistic picture of the social, economic, political, religious and cultural life during the period when King Harsha ruled.

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(d) Write information on ‘Rajtarangini’.
Answer:

  • Rajtarangini was written by Kalhana in the 12th century C.E. It traces the history of Kashmir.
  • These eight books contain records of dynasties which ruled Kashmir, local traditions, coins, remains of monuments and inscriptions. Kalhana wrote the text after critically examining the various sources.
  • The book is a good example to show how scientific technique is applied in writing history.

(e) Write about historiography in the post-independence period.
Answer:

  • In the post-independence period, along with dynastic history, cultural, social and economic histories were also written.
  • New schools of thought like Marxist, Subaltern and Feminist History were included in historiography.
  • The scholars in this era began to feel the need of writing histories of various communities, sciences, economic systems, political ideologies, cultural aspects, etc.
  • They presented the new schools of ideologies. These changes increased the scope of writing historiography.

(f) What are the objectives of writing history according to Ziauddin Barani?
Answer:

  • Ziauddin Barani explained the ’ objectives of historiography. According to him, the duty of a historian does not end with recording the ruler’s valour and welfare policies.
  • He should also write about the ruler’s failings and incorrect policies.
  • He further adds that a historian should also take into account the impact of the teachings of the wise, the learned and the saints on the cultural life of people.

Thus, Ziauddin Barani holds important place as he expanded the scope of historiography.

(g) What are the salient features of writings of historians in the courts of Mughal emperors?
Answer:
The salient features of writings of historians in the courts of Mughal emperors are:

  • Historians praised the Mughal emperors in their writings.
  • Their loyalty towards the rulers is exhibited.
  • The custom of adding suitable poetic quotes was introduced. The historians started to include beautiful pictures as well.

(h) Write about the importance of Tarabai Shinde in writing feminist historiography. *
Answer:

  • Tarabai Shinde has a prominent place among the feminist historians who wrote about women in the nineteenth century, i.e. pre-independence era.
  • She wrote a book Stripurush Tulana which was published in 1882. It is acknowledged as the first feminist book published in India.
  • Her writings attacked the male-dominated social system and the caste system.

Question 13.
Read the given passage and answer the questions given below:
(a) Complete the graphical presentation:

Answer:

(b) What was considered more important by the historians in the Mughal Court?
Answer:
Praising the Mughal emperor and exhibition of loyalty was considered more 8 important by the historians in the Mughal Court.

(c) Why is Abbul Fazl’s writing considered realistic?
Answer:

  • Abul Fazl’s Akbarnama reflects his critical viewpoint.
  • He collected authentic historical documents for this book.
  • He scrutinized these documents to affirm their reliability. Therefore, his method is looked upon as devoid of bias and hence realistic.

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Question 14.
Write detailed answers to the following questions:
(a) Write information about historiography in the ancient period of India.
Answer:

  • In the ancient period, stories of great deeds of ancestors, mythological lore, memories of social transitions were preserved through oral traditions.
  • The art of writing was mastered by Indians as early as 3rd millennium B.C.E. But Harappan script is not deciphered yet.
  • The earliest written documents found in India were in the form of inscriptions that are as old as 3rd century B.C.E. during the period of Emperor Ashok. His edicts are inscribed on natural rocks and stone pillars.
  • Inscriptions started to occur on coins, metal images and sculptures and also on copper plates from the 1st century B.C.E.
  • Epics like Ramayana, Mahabharat, Puranas, Jain and Buddhist texts are important sources of ancient Indian literature.
  • Historical accounts by Indian authors and travelogues by foreign travellers are also important sources of history.

(b) Explain the works of Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar and Mahatma Phule in Subaltern History.
Answer:

  • History of the deprived classes expressed in folklore was known as ‘Subaltern History’.
  • Similar thoughts were expressed by Mahatma Jotirao Phule and Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar.
  • Mahatma Phule unfolded the history of the Shudratishudra communities in his book ‘Gulamgiri’.
  • He drew attention to show how women, Shudras and Atishudras were exploited under the name of religion.
  • Dr. Ambedkar focused on the idea that in spite of having a significant role in shaping the cultural and political aspects of India, the role of Dalits was not duly acknowledged in colonial and nationalistic historiography.
  • Injustice done to the Dalits was mostly written by him. ‘Who Were the Shudras’ and ‘The Untouchables’ are his books which can be cited as examples of subaltern history.

Question 15.
Observe the given picture and answer the question given below:

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(a) Write a short note on Copper-plate inscriptions.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 2 Historiography Indian Tradition 11
Answer:

  • The copper-plate shown in the picture was found at Sohagaura in Gorakhpur district in Uttar Pradesh.
  • It is supposed to be from the Mauryan period and the inscription on it is in Brahmi script.
  • Many symbols are inscribed on it ‘Tree-in-railing’ and ‘Mountain’ at the beginning of inscription occur on punch marked coins.
  • A structure created on four pillars is indicative of a granary.
  • The inscriptions have a record of royal order that the grains stored in the granary should be distributed carefully.
  • This order is suggestive of precautionary measures taken during famine.

10th Std History Questions And Answers:

Historiography Development In The West Question Answer Class 10 History Chapter 1 Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 1 Historiography Development in the West Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 10 History Chapter 1 Question Answer Historiography Development In The West Maharashtra Board

Class 10 History Chapter 1 Historiography Development In The West Question Answer Maharashtra Board

History Class 10 Chapter 1 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Question 1.
(A) Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the statement.
(1) It may be said that …….. was the founder of modern historiography.
(a) Voltaire
(b) Rene Descartes
(c) Leopold Ranke
(d) Karl Marx
Answer:
(a) Voltaire

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(2) ………… wrote the book entitled ‘Archaeology of Knowledge’.
(a) Karl Marx
(b) Michel Foucault
(c) Lucien Febvre
(d) Voltaire
Answer:
(b) Michel Foucault

(B) Identify and write the wrong pair in the following set.
(1) Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel – ‘Reason in History’
(2) Leopold von Ranké – ‘The theory and Practice of History’
(3) Herodotus – ‘The Histories’
(4) Karl Marx – ‘Discourse on the Method’
Answer:
(1) Right pair: Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel – ‘Reason in History’
(2) Right pair: Leopold von Ranké – ‘The theory and Practice of History’
(3) Right pair: Herodotus – ‘The Histories’
(4) Wrong pair: Karl Marx – Discourse on the Method.

Question 2.
Explain the following concepts.
(1) Dialectics
Answer:

  • In order to understand the true nature of an event, one needs to know its opposite for e.g. True — False, Good — Bad, etc.
  • A German philosopher, Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel had put forward this method of analysis of history.
  • A theory called ‘Thesis’ is proposed at the beginning. It is followed by another theory called Antithesis’ which is, contrary to ‘Thesis’.
  • After a thorough logical discussion of both new thesis is proposed having gist of both (Thesis and Antithesis).
  • This process of orriving at a new thesis is called Synthesis.
  • This method of analysis of history which is based on opposites is known as ‘Dialectics’.

(2) Annales School
Answer:

  • At the dawn of the twentieth century, the writing ¿f history got a new direction.
  • Along with political events, kings, great leaders, the study of climate, local people, agriculture, trade, technology, means of communication, social divisions and their collective psychology of a group was also considered important in the study of history.
  • This new school of thought is known as Annales School. Annales School was started by French historians.

Question 3.
Explain the following with its reason.
(1) Historical research was driven to focus in depth on various aspects of women’s life.
Answer:

  • Initially, there was a lot of dominance of male perspective on historical writing. Simone de Beauvoir, a French scholar, insisted on inclusion of women perspective in historiography.
  • She emphasised on the inclusion of women in the process of writing history.
  • She insisted on rethinking of the male dominated perspective of history.
  • Because of her efforts historical research was driven to focus in depth on various aspects of women’s lives their employment, their role in trade unions, institution working for their cause, and their family life.

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(2) Foucault called his method, ‘the archaeology of knowledge’.
Answer:

  • According to Michel Foucault, the prevailing method of arranging historical events in a chronological order was not right.
  • He threw light on the fact that archaeology does not strive to reach the ultimate historical truth.
  • It attempts to explain various transitions in the past.
  • Foucault gave more importance for explaining the transitions in history. Hence, his method is called ‘the archaeology of knowledge’.

Question 4.
Complete the concept chart.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 1 Working of the Constitution 12
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 1 Working of the Constitution 7

Question 5.
Answer the following in detail.
(1) Explain Karl Marx’s ‘Class Theory’.

Answer:
In the latter part of nineteenth century, German thinker, Karl Marx put forward ‘Class Theory’ in his book ‘Das Kapital’.

According to him:

  1. History i not about abstract ideas but living people. The fullillment of basic needs of people depends on the nature of prevalent means of production and the ownership.
  2. All the different strata of the society do not get equal access to these means of production which causes the division of the society into classes. It rešults into class struggle.
  3. The class which owns means of production $ economically exploits the rest of the classes. Human history, according to him, is the history of class struggle.

(2) What are the four characteristics of modern historiography?
Answer:
The following are the four characteristics of modern historiography:

  1. Its method is based on scientific principles and begins with formation of relevant questions.
  2. These questions are anthropocentric i.e. they are about ancient human societies and their deeds in that period of time. No interrelation between the divine and human needs is suggested.
  3. Answers to these questions are supported by reliable evidence and they are presented in a logical order.
  4. History presents a graph of man’s progress with the help of his deeds in the past.

(3) What is feminist historiography?
Answer:

  • Feminist historiography means writing history with women perspective. There was a lot of dominance of male perspective on historical writing.
  • Simone de Beauvoir, a French scholar, insisted on rethinking on the male dominated perspective and including the women’s perspective in historiography.
  • The idea of feminist historiography was accepted.
  • Because of her efforts various aspects of women’s lives like their employment, their role in trade unions and their family life became part of historiography.

(4) Explain Leopold von Ranké’s perspective of history?
Answer:
Leopold’s view on ways to write history throws light on his perspective of history:

  1. He spoke about the critical method of historical research. He gave importance to information gathered through original documents.
  2. He also stated that all types of original documents related to the historical event should be examined in detail and with great care.
  3. He believed that with this method it was possible to reach the historical truth. He was critical of imagination in narration of history.

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Historiography : Development In The West Questions And Answers Pdf Project
Obtain detailed information on your favourite subject and write its history. For example :
– History of Pen
– History of Printing technology
– History of Computers
Answer:

Memory Map
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 1 Working of the Constitution 4
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 1 Working of the Constitution 5

Question 6.
Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the sentences:

(a) A scholar who writes critical historical narratives is known as ………………………… .
(a) an archaeologist
(b) a historian
(c) a social scientist
(d) a language expert
Answer:
(b) a historian

(b) The earliest inscription in the world is displayed at Louvre museum in ………………………… .
(a) England
(b) France
(c) Germany
(d) Portugal
Answer:
(b) France

(c) The tradition of recording historical events can be traced back to ………………………… civilization in Mesopotamia.
(a) Sumer
(b) Egyptian
(c) Arab
(d) Mohenjodaro
Answer:
(a) Sumer

(d) The tradition of modern historiography has its roots in the writings of ………………….. historiAnswer:
(a) Roman
(b) Greek
(c) German
(d) French
Answer:
(b) Greek

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(e) ………………….., a Greek historian of the fifth century B.C.E., had used the term ‘History’ for the first time for his book entitled, ‘The Histories’.
(a) Leopold Ranke
(b) Georg Hegel
(c) Michel Foucault
(d) Herodotus
Answer:
(d) Herodotus

(f) In 1737 C.E., the ………………….. university in Germany had an independent department for history.
(a) Oxford
(b) Cambridge
(c) Gottingen
(d) Stanford
Answer:
(c) Gottingen

(g) Historiography of the nineteenth century was greatly influenced by the thoughts of …………………..
(a) Karl Marx
(b) Voltaire
(c) Georg Hegel
(d) Leopold von Ranke
Answer:
(d) Leopold von Ranke

(h) A new school of historiography arose in France known as ………………….. school.
(a) Translation
(b) Annales
(c) Nationalism
(d) Communist
Answer:
(b) Annales

(i) The method of analysis which is based on opposites is known as …………………. .
(a) Numismatics
(b) Arithmetic
(c) Polynomial
(d) Dialectics
Answer:
(d) Dialectics

(j) ………………….. considered subjects like psychological disorders, science of medicine, prison administration for historical analysis.
(a) Michel Foucault
(b) Leopold Ranke
(c) Karl Marx
(d) Voltaire
Answer:
(a) Michel Foucault

(k) After 1990, ………………….. were considered as an independent social class.
(a) labourers
(b) women
(c) men
(d) farmers
Answer:
(b) women

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(l) According to ………………….., historical realities should be presented in a logical manner.
(a) Georg Hegel
(b) Voltaire
(c) Simone de Beauvoir
(d) Herodotus
Answer:
(a) Georg Hegel

(m) According to ………………….., one should never accept anything as the truth till all the doubts are solved.
(a) Rene Descartes
(b) Karl Marx
(c) Voltaire
(d) Herodotus
Answer:
(a) Rene Descartes.

Question 7.
Identify the wrong pair in the following and write it:
(1)

Thinker Book
(1) Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel (a) Reason in History
(2) Leopold von Ranke (b) The Theory and Practice of History
(3) Herodotus (c) The Histories
(4) Karl Marx (d) Discourse on the Method

Answer:
Wrong pair: Karl Marx – Discourse on the Method.

(2)

Historian Country
(1) Herodotus Greece
(2) Simone de Beauvoir Germany
(3) Michel Foucault France
(4) Rene Descartes France

Answer:
Wrong pair: Simone de Beauvoir Germany.

(3)

Thoughts/Opinion Historian
(1) All aspects of human life is important in the historiography Voltaire
(2) He criticized imaginative narration. Leopold von Ranke
(3) History is not about abstract ideas but about living people. Rene Descartes
(4) Emphasized the rethinking of the male-dominated perspective of history. Simone de Beauvoir

Answer:
Wrong pair: History is not about abstract ideas but about living people – René Descartes.

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Question 8.
Complete the concept chart

Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 1 Working of the Constitution 8
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 1 Working of the Constitution 9

Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 1 Working of the Constitution 10
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 1 Working of the Constitution 11

Question 9.
Prepare a flow chart on the given topic:
Stages of historiography
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 1 Working of the Constitution 12

Question 10.
Write short notes:

(1) Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel:
Answer:

  • Georg Hegel was a German philosopher.
  • He was of the view that the historical realities should be presented in a logical manner. According to him, Timelme was indicative of progress.
  • He believed that presentation of history is bound to change as time passes because new evidence surfaces.
  • His philosophy convinced many scholars that historical methods were not of lesser quality, though they differed from the scientific method.
  • His lectures and articles are published in a book called ‘Encyclopaedia of Philosophical Sciences’.
  • His book ‘Reason in History’ is well known. He devised a method of analysis based on opposites known as Dialectics’.

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(2) Karl Marx:
Answer:

  1. Karl Marx was a German thinker in the nineteenth century. He wrote the world famous treatise Das Kapital’. According to him, history was not about abstract ideas but about living people.
  2. He believed that human relationships are shaped by the fundamental needs of people and the ownership of prevalent ineczns of production to meet those needs.
  3. He stated that unequal accessibility to the means of production creates à division in socièty leading to class struggle. His theory of class struggle is considered significant all over the world.
  4. According to Marx, human history is the history of class struggle because the class which owns the means of production economically exploits the rest of the classes.

(3) Michel Foucault:
Answer:

  • Michel Foucault was a twentieth century historian from France.
  • He wrote the book ‘Archaeology of Knowledge’.
  • In this book, he insisted that the prevailing practice of arranging historical events in a chronological order is not right.
  • He gave importance to explaining the transitions that took place in history.
  • He acknowledged the role of subjects such as science of medicine, psychological disorders, prison.
  • Administration in historical analysis. This was not acknowledged by earlier historiAnswer:

(4) Leopold von Ranke:
Answer:

  1. Leopold von Ranke, a German philosopher, laid emphasis on utmost importance of information gathered through original documents.
  2. In order to reach historical truth, it was necessary to examine all documents related to historical event. He critcised the imaginative narration of history.
  3. Collection of his articles are published in two books, entitled ‘The Theory and Practice of History’ and ‘The Secret of World History’.
  4. Ranke had great influence on historiography of nineteenth century.

Question 11.
Give reasons:
(a) In historical research, it may not be possible to use the method of experiments and observation.
Answer:

  1. In physical and natural sciences, experiment and observation method is used to establish laws that remain true irrespective of the time and space.
  2. These laws can be tested and proved again and again.
  3. In historical research, the events had already taken place in the past and we were not present in the historical time and space.
  4. Moreover, these events cannot be recreated in the present time and space. Hence, experiment and observation method may not be used in historical research.

(b) Historiography in the 18th century gave importance to objectivity in history.
Answer:

  • A remarkable progress was achieved in the fields of Philosophy and Science till the eighteenth century in Europe.
  • It was believed that by applying scientific methods it was possible to study social and historical truths.
  • In the later period, history and historiography witnessed a lot of philosophical discussion.
  • This eliminated the imaginative and divine context in history and gave importance to objectivity.

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Question 12.
Answer the following in 25-30 words:
(a) What is Historiography?
Answer:

  1. The writing of critical historical narrative is called Historiography. A person who writes it is known as ‘Historian’. The following steps are helpful in writing historical narrative:
  2. Information related to history is collected and analyzed.
  3. The various sources are critically examined to understand the references regarding time and space in the given information as well as the conceptual framework used.
  4. After examining the references of historical information, relevant questions related to these historical references are framed and hypotheseis are formulated.
  5. In short, writing of critical historical narrative by following this method is known as historiography.

(b) What did Rene Descartes insist upon?
Answer:
French Philosopher Rene Descartes insisted on the following in writing historiography:

  1. ‘Never to accept anything as true till all grounds of doubt are excluded’.
  2. Hence, the reliability of a source like historical documents should be verified by critically examining them while writing history.

(c) Why is Voltaire said to be the founder of modern historiography?
Answer:
Voltaire, a french scholar, opined that it was important to consider the following aspects while writing history:

  1. objective truth and chronology of events;
  2. prevalent social traditions, agriculture, trade and economic system. It was because of his view that all aspects of human life was considered for history writing. Therefore, he is said to be the founder of modern historiography.

(d) What are the objectives of writing history?
Answer:
History is researched and written down with following objectives:

  • To analyse the events in the past.
  • To verify information about the historical events and their interconnections.
  • To study in detail and remove imaginative element and bring forth the truth.
  • To put the past events in chronological order.

(e) What progress was achieved in historiography in the eighteenth century?
Answer:
The following progress was achieved in historiography in the eighteenth century:

  • Scientific methods were applied to study social and historical truths.
  • Philosophical discourses revolving around divine phenomena were given less importance.
  • Philosophical discussions focused more on the objectivity in history and historiography.
  • Since the universities got an independent department of history, they became centres of historical studies.

Question 13.
Head the given passage carefully and answer the questions given below:
(a) Who is called a Historian?
Answer:
A scholar who writes critical historical narratives is called a Historian.

(b) Complete the concept chart.
Factors which determined historian’s
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 1 Working of the Constitution 1
Answer:
Factors which determined historian’s
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 1 Working of the Constitution 2

(c) How did the people in ancient societies preserve the events in the past?
Answer:
The ancient people preserved the events in the past so that they can pass them to the next generation. They used various means to do this:

  • Narrating the stories of valour of ancestors to the next generation.
  • Stories of their life preserved through cave paintings.
  • Adopting story telling technique.
  • Singing songs and ballads to impress events upon the minds of the new generation.

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Question 14.
Answer the following questions in detail:
(a) Which experts do we need in order to prove the reliability of historical documents?
Answer:
The following experts are required to prove the reliability of historical documents:

  • Language expert who can decipher the language and meaning of the document or the script on the inscription.
  • One who can recognise the type of paper used and the period in which it was used.
  • One who can understand the lettering style and the writing style of the author.
  • Expert who has knowledge of different seals, i.e. stamps of authority used by the rulers.
  • Historian who can interpret and do a comparative study of the references given in the document.

(b) Write Hegel’s view on history.
Answer:

  • Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel was a German philosopher.
  • He was of the view that the historical realities should be presented in a logical manner.
  • He believed that presentation of history is bound to change as time passes because new evidence surfaces.
  • He proposed a method of analysis based on opposites known as ‘Dialectics’.
  • Hegel’s philosophy convinced many scholars that historical methods were not of lesser quality, though they differed from scientific methods.
  • His lectures and articles are published in a book called ‘Encyclopaedia of Philosophical Sciences’. His book ‘Reason in History’ is well known.

Question 15.
Observe the inscription in the picture and write information it:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 1 Working of the Constitution 13
Answer:

  1. A fragment of the earliest inscription is shown in the above picture. It dates back to 4500 BCE.
  2. It is displayed at the Louvre museum in France.
  3. The inscriptions have names of Sumerian kings and stories of battles fought by them.
  4. It shows a forward marching file of soldiers holding shields and spears. The General is in the front.
    Brain Teaser
    Hints:
    Down:

    • He used the word ‘History’ for the first time
    • He wrote the book ‘Discourse on the Method’
    • Presented Theory of ‘Dialectics’
    • He called his method ‘Archaeology of Knowledge’

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Across:

  • founder of modern historiography
  • Criticised imaginative narration of history. Articles published in ‘The Secret of World History’
  • Her writings helped in establishing the fundamentals of feminism
  • He wrote ‘Das Kapital’
    Maharashtra Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 1 Working of the Constitution 14

10th Std History Questions And Answers:

Political Parties Question Answer Class 10 Political Science Chapter 3 Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 3 Political Parties Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 10 Political Science Chapter 3 Question Answer Political Parties Maharashtra Board

Class 10 Political Science Chapter 3 Political Parties Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Political Science Class 10 Chapter 3 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Question 1.
Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the sentences.
(1) When people come together and participate in electoral process, to acquire political power, such organisations are called ………………………….. .
(a) Government
(b) Society
(c) Political parties
(d) Social organisations
Answer:
(c) Political parties

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(2) National Conference is a party in ………………………….. this region.
(a) Odisha
(b) Assam
(c) Bihar
(d) Jammu and Kashmir
Answer:
(d) Jammu and Kashmir

(3) Justice Party- a non-Brahmin movement was transformed into ………………………….. Political Party.
(a) Assam Gan Parishad
(b) Shivsena
(c) Dravid Munnetra Kazhagam
(d) Jammu and Kashmir National Conference
Answer:
(c) Dravid Munnetra Kazhagam

Question 2.
State whether the following statements are true or false. Give reasons for your answer.
(1) Political parties act as a link between government and people.
Answer:
The above statement is True.

  • The political parties convey the demands and complaints of the people to the government.
  • Information about various government policies and schemes are conveyed to the people by the political parties.
  • People’s reaction to the policies and their expectations are conveyed to the government too by the parties. In this way, political parties act as a link between government and the people.

(2) Political parties are social organisations.
Answer:
The above statement is True.

  • People who have similar views come together voluntarily and form a party, so it can be said that political parties are an integral part of our society.
  • The political parties try to solve the problems of the people.
  • Some political parties represent the role of a particular community in society, its ideology and work to achieve it. Hence it can be said that political parties are social organizations.

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(3) Coalition politics leads to instability.
Answer:
The above statement is False.

  • As no single party got majority after the elections held in 1989, coalition government came to power at the centre and many states.
  • Parties had to set aside their policies and programmes and concentrate on a common agenda to run the government.
  • Both Congress Party and the Bharatiya Janata Party made an experiment of establishing a coalition government.
  • The National Democratic Alliance formed by BJP and its partners and the Democratic Front government formed by Congress and its partners ruled at the centre and state level effectively.

Therefore, the belief that the coalition government brings instability was proved wrong.

(4) Shiromani Akali Dal is a national party.
Answer:
The above statement is False.
The Election Commission of India recognises a political party as National or Regional party on the basis of specific criteria namely:

  • The number of seats secured in Parliament and Legislative Assembly or percentage of votes secured.
  • Shiromani Akali Dal does not meet the criteria listed above.
  • As its influence is limited to the state of Punjab and not in any other state.
  • The Election Commission has given recognition to it as regional party.

Question 3.
Explain the following concepts.
(1) Regionalism
Answer:

  • India is a vast country with great physical diversity. People belonging to different regions have their own language, culture and traditions.
  • Along with the physical diversity, we find diversity in literature, education, history and movements.
  • Each one feels an affinity for his language, traditions and history of social reforms. This gives rise to linguistic identity.
  • This affinity towards all the above-mentioned aspects develops into identity consciousness and gives rise to excessive regional pride.
  • People start giving preference only to the development of their language and region.
  • This is known as Regionalism.

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(2) National Parties
Answer:
A party which functions at the national level is known as National Party.

  1. The Election Commission has laid certain criteria for a party to get recognised as a Political party. The political party should secure at least f 6% valid votes in four or more states in the earlier Lok Sabha. OR
  2. State Assembly elections and minimum four members should be elected in the Lok Sabha from any state or states in the earlier elections. OR
  3. The candidates of a party should be elected from a minimum three states or should be elected from a minimum 2% constituencies of the total Lok Sabha constituencies. OR
  4. It is important to get recognition as a state party in at least four states.

Question 4.
Answer the following questions in brief.
(1) What are the major characteristics of political parties?
Answer:
The main features of political parties are as follows:

  • Political parties aim at securing power by contesting elections.
  • Every political party has some ideology.
  • Every party has an agenda. It is based on the party’s ideology.
  • The party that gets majority seats in election forms the government and the one that does not secure the majority act as opposition parties.
  • Political parties are a link between the people and the government and work to gain the support of the people.

(2) What changes have taken place in the nature of political parties in India?
Answer:
The following changes were seen in the party system in India:

  • Indian- National Congress was the only dominant party in states and at the centre after independence.
  • All other parties came together and formed a coalition in 1977 and defeated the Congress.
  • For the first time in history, the two-party system got importance over one-party system.
  • The one-party system came to an end after the 1989 elections.
  • Regional parties got importance and the coalition government was formed at the centre and in the states.

Project
(1) In a map of Maharashtra, point out the Loksabha constituency that includes the names of your parents.
(2) In a map of India, point out the places where national political parties have their influence.
Answer:

Memory Map
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 3 Political Parties 1

Maharashtra Board Solutions

Question 5.
Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the sentences:
(a) The party which fails to secure majority is known as ………………………. party.
(a) Ruling
(b) Opposition
(c) Independent
(c) Coalition
Answer:
(b) Opposition

(b) ‘Bharatiya Janata Party’ which was formed in 1980 after a split with ………………………. a component of Janata Party.
(a) Jan Sangh
(b) Lok Dal
(c) Independent party
(b) Janata Dal
Answer:
(a) Jan Sangh.

(c) Social support received by a political party is called ………………………. .
(a) Democracy
(b) People’s rule
(c) Mass base
(d) Public relation
Answer:
(c) Mass base

(d) Promotion of the Marathi language is the objective of the ………………………. .
(a) Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam
(b) Shiromani Akali Dal
(c) Shiv Sena
(d) Assam Gana Parishad
Answer:
(c) Shiv Sena

(e) There are ………………………. recognised parties in India.
(a) five
(b) seven
(c) nine
(d) six
Answer:
(b) seven

(f) The main objective of the political party is to capture ………………………. and retain it.
(a) publicity
(b) victory
(c) power
(d) information
Answer:
(c) power

Maharashtra Board Solutions

(g) The ideology of the Communist Party of India is based on ………………………. Philosophy.
(a) Capitalist
(b) Marxist
(c) Democracy
(d) Imperialist
Answer:
(b) Marxist

(h) Shiromani Akali Dal is a prominent regional party in ………………………. state.
(a) Odisha
(b) Assam
(c) Punjab
(d) Jammu and Kashmir
Answer:
(c) Punjab

Question 6.
State whether the following statements are true or false. Give reasons for your answer:

(a) Political parties do not need support of the people.
Answer:
The above statement is False.

  • To secure power is the main aim of political parties.
  • Political parties have to implement various policies and programmes for the welfare of people and to gain the support of the people.
  • The party which solves the issues related to the welfare of the people get support.
  • Without the support of the people they can never get a mandate.

Hence, all political parties require support of the people.

(b) The Communist Party of India was split.
Answer:
The above statement is True.

  • The Communist Party of- India was established in 1925. The Communist Parties follow Marxist ideology.
  • In 1962, due to differences in the leadership a rift was created in the party.
  • The main reason for the split was about which political line to follow.

(c) Sometimes the sentiments of regionalism gets strengthened in the country.
Answer:
The above statement is True.

  1. A country like India has diversity of government language, region and culture. This diversity creates affinity towards a region.
  2. This affinity gives rise to excessive regional S pride and initiating movements to save it. The significance of such movements is claimed to be for preserving culture.
  3. Asserting to be rightful claimant of material resources, job opportunities and development of the region these movements strengthen the regional pride.
  4. Thus, this excessive regional pride turns morbid taking the form of regionalism.

Maharashtra Board Solutions

(d) Regional parties have no influence on National Politics.
Answer:
The above statement is False.

  • No single party got majority in the elections to Lok Sabha held in 1989.
  • The national parties formed coalition government at the centre taking help of regional parties.
  • As regional parties share power at the centre they have influence on national politics.

Question 7.
Explain the concept:
(a) Regional Parties:
Answer:

  1. The groups having a proud feeling about the different identity of their region and who compete to capture power to bring about regional development are ‘Regional Parties’.
  2. The influence of such parties are limited to their region. They give importance to regional problems. Development of one’s own region is the prime objective of these parties.
  3. Sometimes they demand for independent state or autonomy. They influence the national politics because of their dominance in the region.
  4. They have passed through various phases, from separatism to autonomy and have then merged with mainstream national politics.

(b) Political Party:
Answer:

  1. A Political Party is a kind of social organisation of like-minded people. The main aim of any political party is to contest election and secure power.
  2. The stand taken by various political parties on issues becomes their political ideology.
  3. In democracy, political parties are at the centre of all political activities. They are a link that connects common people, democracy, representation and elections.
  4. The party that secures a majority becomes the ruling party and the rest are known as the. opposition.

Question 8.
Write short note:
(a) Party System:
Answer:

  1. If one party remains in power in a country for a long period and no other party has any kind of influence the party system it is called ‘One- Party System’.
  2. When there are two equally strong parties which alternatively come to power. It is called ‘Two-Party System’.
  3. In a country where many political parties exist and compete with each other to capture power and have more or less influence in different states is called ‘Multi-Party System’.
  4. Democracy develops in Multi-Party System.

(b) Indian National Congress:
Answer:

  • The Indian National Congress was established in 1885.
  • The party represented the hopes and aspirations of Indians and led the freedom struggle.
  • Groups having diverse ideologies became part of the Congress to fight for freedom.
  • It believes in democratic socialism, social equality and international peace.
  • After independence, the Congress Party was a dominant party for almost four decades and ruled at the centre and in the states.

Maharashtra Board Solutions

(c) Communist Party of India:
Answer:

  • The Communist Party of India was established in 1925. The Communist Party follows the Marxist ideology.
  • The party aims at working to protect the interests of workers and labourers.
  • The main objective of this party is to oppose capitalism and protect the interests of workers.
  • The party split due to ideological differences in 1964. Those who walked out of the party formed Communist Party (Marxist).

(d) Nationalist Congress Party:
Answer:

  • Nationalist Congress Party (NCP) is the splinter or breakaway party from the Congress Party.
  • It considers the values like democracy, equality and secularism important.
  • It became part of United Progressive Alliance (UPA) and came to power in Maharashtra.
  • It was in power in Maharashtra from 1999 to 2014 and at the centre from 2004 to 2014.

(e) Trinamool Congress:
Answer:

  • All India Trinamool Congress was established in 1998.
  • The Election Commission of India gave it recognition in 2016.
  • Democracy, Secularism and protection of the weaker sections of the society are some of the policies of the party.
  • Presently (April 2019), this party is in power in the state of West Bengal.

(f) Shiv Sena:
Answer:

  1. The Shiv Sena was founded in 1966.
  2. The main objective of the party was to fight for the cause of Marathi-speaking people and preservation of Marathi language.
  3. They resisted the people from other regions.
  4. In 1995, it became the ruling party with BJP in Maharashtra and its strategic tie-up with BJP helped it to enter national politics.
  5. It was in power at the centre with BJP from 1998 to 2004. Again it has shared power with the BJP at the centre and state since 2014.

(g) Shiromani Akali Dal:
Answer:

  • Shiromani Akali Dal was formed in 1920.
  • It is a dominating party in Punjab.
  • It gives preference to nurture religious and for the regional pride.
  • The party has retained power in Punjab for many years.

(h) Dravid Munnetra Kazhagam:
Answer:

  • Justice party, a non-Brahmin movement, started in 1920. In 1944, it transformed into a political party called Dravid Kazhagam.
  • In 1949, a group within the party got split and formed Dravid Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK).
  • The party works for the protection of Tamil identity.
  • This party implemented many policies for welfare of the people and therefore has support from all the sections of society.
  • Another group separated from it in 1972 and formed All India Dravid Munnetra Kazhagham.
  • It remained in power for a long time in Tamil Nadu and for sometime at the centre.

Maharashtra Board Solutions

Question 9.
Do as directed
(a) Complete the concept map:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 3 Political Parties 2
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 3 Political Parties 3

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 3 Political Parties 4
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 3 Political Parties 5

Maharashtra Board Solutions

(3)
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 3 Political Parties 6
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 3 Political Parties 7

(b) Complete the Time-line writing the name of the party or the year of establishment:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 3 Political Parties 8
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 3 Political Parties 9

Question 10.
Answer the following questions in brief:

(a) What is called “mass base”?
Answer:

  • Every political party is formed with some ideology.
  • Political parties take a certain stand towards public issues.
  • Their ideology and their stand towards public issues are conveyed to the people through various programmes.
  • If the people agree with their role and ideology, they get the support of the people.
  • Such social support received by a political – party is called ‘mass base’.

(b) Write about the policies of Indian National Congress.
Answer:
The policies of the Indian National: Congress are as follows:

  • Equal rights for the minorities and weaker sections of society.
  • Secularism, all-round development and social welfare are its objectives.
  • Introduction of socialist democracy.
  • Belief in values like international peace and social equality.

Maharashtra Board Solutions

(c) Explain the role of Bharatiya Janata Party.
Answer:
Bharatiya Janata Party was formed in 1980 with the following objectives:

  • To preserve Indian culture and traditions.
  • To create a strong and rich India.
  • To give importance to economic reforms for development of India.

(d) Write about the policies of Communist Party of India (Marxist).
Answer:
Communist Party of India (Marxist) was formed in 1964 with the following objectives:

  • The party advocates socialism, secularism and democracy.
  • The main policy of the party is to work for the welfare of farmers, landless labourers and workers.
  • The party opposes imperialism.

(e) Why was Bahujan Samaj Party formed?
Answer:
The Bahujan Samaj Party was formed in 1984 to achieve the following objectives:

  • To bring socialist ideology into practice.
  • To secure power for ‘majority’ comprising of scheduled castes, scheduled tribes and other backward classes.
  • To give power in the hands of ‘majority’.

(f) What do the regional parties give preference for?
Answer:
The regional parties give preference to the following issues:

  • Importance should be given to regional issues and bring about development.
  • Regional issues should be handled* at regional level.
  • The power rests in the hands of regional people. ‘
  • People living in that region should get preference in administration and jobs. .

(g) What changes are seen in the nature and role of regional parties?
Answer:
The role of regional parties changed over period of time. The changes are as follows:

  • After independence, regional identity gave rise to separatists movements and demands were put up by regional parties for separate state.
  • They wanted to break away from the Indian union and form a separate state.
  • The demands of the regional parties changed gradually and these parties started asking for autonomy.
  • In the later period, for the development of their region and people the parties demanded representation of their people in the state and central government.
  • Regional parties in the north eastern region also started demanding more autonomy after split up.
  • The journey of the regional parties began with a split up and then a demand for autonomy going on to share power in federation and then entry into mainstream national politics.

Maharashtra Board Solutions

(h) What are the objectives of Assam Gana Parishad?
Answer:
Assam Gana Parishad was formed in 1985 with the following objectives:

  • To preserve the uniqueness of Assam’s culture, language and social identity.
  • To make efforts for economical development of Assam.
  • To resolve problems of displaced people.

(i) What are the criteria for a regional party to get recognition?
Answer:

  • In the last general .elections to the State Assembly, the party should not secure less than 6% of the total number of valid votes polled.
  • At least 2 members to be elected to the Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha).
  • 3% seats of the total seats of Legislative Assembly or at least 3 seats in Legislative Assembly.

(j) What work is done by political parties?
Answer:
The following work is done by political parties:

  • To propagate policies and programmes of the party and contest elections.
  • They implement various policies when they come to power.
  • If they fail to secure power, they act as opposition party and try to gain support of the people.
  • They communicate the demands and complaints of the people to the government and the policies and programmes of the government to the people.

Question 11.
Give your opinion:

(a) Imagine you are opposition party leader and you have observed that the ruling party has not done good work in the field of health. What will you do as a leader of opposition?
Answer:
As opposition leader, I will do the following to make the government realise its negligence in the health field:

  • I will question the government in Parliament and point out their shortcomings and ask about the prolonged projects.
  • I will create awareness among the people by writing articles in newspapers.
  • I will give interviews,on radio and television and criticize the government.
  • I will organise rallies and meetings to sensitize among the people.

(b) Think and write
What has to be done to bring partyless democracy in modern times?
Answer:

  • The recognition of all the parties should be cancelled. ‘
  • People should be given the right to make decisions.
  • In order to improve the decision-making power, people should be educated on political issues.
  • To improve the moral character of the people who want to take the leadership.
  • To initiate direct democracy and prepare the people for the same.
  • Stress should be given for decentralization.
  • Mahatma Gandhi, Vinoba Bhave and Jayprakash Narayan put forth the idea of partyless democracy.
  • What has to be done to bring such democracy in modern times?

Maharashtra Board Solutions

Question 12.
What do you understand by the following news in newspapers? Explain in brief.

(a) Opposition parties held a meeting in Mumbai to resist the Ruling party. Will take up the issue of farmers?
Answer:

  • The ruling party did not undertake any work for the welfare of farmers. Therefore all the opposition parties decided to trap the government on this issue.
  • The opposition parties have kept aside their differences and come together for this cause.
  • It is the duty of the opposition party to question the negligence of the government.
  • This news makes us aware of the line of action taken by the opposition.
  • Opposition parties held a meeting in Mumbai to resist the Ruling party. Will take up the issue of farmers?
  • Ruling party organised ‘Samvad Yatra’ in rural areas.

(b) Ruling party has organised ‘Samvad Yatra’ in rural areas.
Answer:

  • Political parties adopt different ways to popularise their party and influence the people.
  • As the means of communication are limited in rural areas they organise the Yatra.
  • It shows the efforts of the government to understand problems of people in rural areas.
  • It is essential to have dialogue with people to know their problems and opinions.
  • As the initiative is taken by the government, people will develop faith in government.
  • The news conveys to us that the ruling party is carrying out its duties properly.
  • The faith in government becomes profound when people feel that government is sensitive towards them.

10th Std Political Science Questions And Answers:

12th Biology Chapter 8 Exercise Respiration and Circulation Solutions Maharashtra Board

Class 12 Biology Chapter 8

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Biology Textbook Solutions Chapter 8 Respiration and Circulation Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Respiration and Circulation Class 12 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Class 12 Biology Chapter 8 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Biology Class 12 Chapter 8 Exercise Solutions

1. Multiple choice questions

Question 1.
The muscular structure that separates the thoracic and abdominal cavity is …………………..
(a) pleura
(b) diaphragm
(c) trachea
(d) epithelium
Answer:
(b) diaphragm

Question 2.
What is the minimum number of plasma membrane that oxygen has to diffuse across to pass from air in the alveolus to haemoglobin inside a R.B.C.?
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) five
Answer:
(a) two

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Respiration and Circulation

Question 3.
…………………. is a sound producing organ.
(a) Larynx
(b) Pharynx
(c) Tonsils
(d) Trachea
Answer:
(a) Larynx

Question 4.
The maximum volume of gas that is inhaled during breathing in addition to T.V. is …………………..
(a) residual volume
(b) IRV
(c) GRV.
(d) vital capacity
Answer:
(b) IRV

Question 5.
………………….. muscles contract when the external intercostals muscles contract.
(a) Internal abdominal
(b) Jaw
(c) Muscles in bronchial walls
(d) Diaphragm
Answer:
(d) Diaphragm

Question 6.
Movement of cytoplasm in unicellular organisms is called …………………..
(a) diffusion
(b) cyclosis
(c) circulation
(d) thrombosis
Answer:
(b) cyclosis

Question 7.
Which of the following animals do not have closed circulation?
(a) Earthworm
(b) Rabbit
(c) Butterfly
(d) Shark
Answer:
(c) Butterfly

Question 8.
Diapedesis is performed by …………………..
(a) erythrocytes
(b) thrombocytes
(c) adipocytes
(d) leucocytes
Answer:
(d) leucocytes

Question 9.
Pacemaker of heart is …………………..
(a) SA node
(b) AV node
(c) His bundle
(d) Purkinje fibers
Answer:
(a) SA node

Question 10.
Which of the following is without nucleus?
(a) Red blood corpuscle
(b) Neutrophil
(c) Basophil
(d) Lymphocyte
Answer:
(a) Red blood corpuscle

Question 11.
Cockroach shows which kind of circulatory system?
(a) Open
(b) Closed
(c) Lymphatic
(d) Double
Answer:
(a) Open

Question 12.
Diapedesis can be seen in …………………..
(a) RBC
(b) WBC
(c) Platelet
(d) neuron
Answer:
(b) WBC

Question 13.
Opening of inferior vena cava is guarded by …………………..
(a) bicuspid valve
(b) tricuspid valve
(c) Eustachian valve
(d) Thebesian valve
Answer:
(c) Eustachian valve

Question 14.
…………………. wave in ECG represent atrial depolarization.
(a) P
(b) QRS complex
(c) Q
(d) T
Answer:
(a) P

Question 15.
The fluid seen in the intercellular spaces in Human is …………………..
(a) blood
(b) lymph
(c) interstitial fluid
(d) water
Answer:
(b) lymph

2. Match the columns

Question 1.
Respiratory surface Organism

Respiratory surface Organism
(1) Plasma membrane (a) Insect
(2) Lungs (b) Salamander
(3) External gills (c) Bird
(4) Internal gills (d) Amoeba
(5) Trachea (e) Fish

Answer:

Respiratory surface Organism
(1) Plasma membrane (d) Amoeba
(2) Lungs (c) Bird
(3) External gills (b) Salamander
(4) Internal gills (e) Fish
(5) Trachea (a) Insect

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Respiration and Circulation

3. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Why does trachea have ‘C’-shaped rings of cartilage?
Answer:
Trachea is supported by ‘C’-shaped rings of J cartilage which prevent it from collapsing and always keep it open.

Question 2.
Why is respiration in insect called direct respiration?
Answer:
Respiration in insect is called direct because tracheal tubes exchange O2 and CO2 directly with the haemocoel which then exchange them with tissues.

Question 3.
Why is gas exchange very rapid at alveolar level?
OR
Why does gas exchange in the alveolar region very rapid?
Answer:
Gas exchange is very rapid at alveolar level because numerous alveoli (about 700 millions) in the lungs provide large surface area for gaseous exchange.

Question 4.
Name the organ which prevents the entry of food into the trachea while eating.
Answer:
Epiglottis prevents the entry of food into trachea while eating.

4. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Why is it advantageous to breathe through the nose than through the mouth?
Answer:
Breathing through nose is better than breathing through the mouth because of the following reasons:

  1. The nostrils are smaller than the mouth so air exhaled through the nose creates a backflow of air into the lungs.
  2. As we exhale more slowly through the nose than we do through the mouth, the lungs have more time to extract oxygen from the air that we have already taken in.
  3. The hairs inside nostrils filter any dust particles and microbes in the air and it only lets the clean air pass through.
  4. The air gets warm and humidified in nostrils as it passes into our bodies.
  5. Moreover breathing through the mouth can dry the oral cavity and lead to bad breath, gum disease and tooth decay.

Question 2.
Identity the incorrect statement and correct it.
(a) A respiratory surface area should have a. large surface area.
(b) A respiratory surface area should be kept dry.
(c) A respiratory surface area should be thin, may be 1 mm or less.
Answer:
Statement (a) and statement (c) are correct whereas statement (b) is incorrect. A respiratory surface area should be kept moist, is the correct statement.

Question 3.
Given below are the characteristics of some modified respiratory movement. Identify them.
a. Spasmodic contraction of muscles of expiration and forceful expulsion of air through nose and mouth.
Answer:
Sneezing

b. An inspiration followed by many short convulsive expiration accompanied by facial expression.
Answer:
Laughing, Crying.

Question 4.
Blood plasma.
Answer:

  1. Plasma is a straw coloured, slightly alkaline viscous fluid part of the blood, having 90-92% water and 8-10% soluble proteins.
  2. Serum albumin, serum globulin, heparin, fibrinogen and prothrombin are the plasma proteins which form 7% of the plasma.
  3. Glucose, amino acids, fatty acids and glycerol are the nutrients dissolved in plasma.
  4. Nitrogenous wastes (urea, uric acid, . ammonia and creatinine) and respiratory gases (oxygen and carbon dioxide) is present in plasma.
  5. Enzymes and hormones too are transported Ada plasma.
  6. Inorganic minerals are also present in plasma such as bicarbonates, chlorides, phosphates and sulphates of sodium, potassium, calcium and magnesium.

Question 5.
Blood clotting/Coagulation of blood.
OR
Explain blood clotting in short.
Answer:

  1. The process of converting the liquid blood into a semisolid form is called blood clotting or coagulation.
  2. The process of clotting may be initiated by contact of blood with any foreign surface (intrinsic process) or with damaged tissue (extrinsic process).
  3. Intrinsic and extrinsic processes involve interaction of various substances called clotting factors by a step wise or cascade mechanism.
  4. There are in all twelve clotting factors numbered as I to XII (factor VI is not in active use).
  5. Interaction of these factors in a cascade manner leads to formation of enzyme, Thromboplastin which helps in the formation of enzyme prothrombinase.
  6. Prothrombinase inactivates heparin and also converts inactive prothrombin into active thrombin.
  7. Thrombin converts soluble blood protein- fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin. Fibrin forms a mesh in which platelets and other blood cells are trapped to form the clot.
  8. These reactions occur in 2 to 8 minutes. Therefore, clotting time is said to be 2 to 8 minutes.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Respiration and Circulation

Question 6.
Describe pericardium.
Answer:

  1. Pericardium is the double layered peritoneum that encloses the heart. It consists of two layers, viz. fibrous pericardium and serous pericardium.
  2. Fibrous pericardium is the outer layer having tough, inelastic fibrous connective tissue whereas serous pericardium is the v inner double layered membrane. It has in turn an outer parietal layer and inner visceral layer.
  3. Parietal layer of serous pericardium lies on the inner side of fibrous pericardium.
  4. Visceral layer also known as epicardium adheres to heart and thus forms outer covering over the heart.
  5. There is a pericardial fluid in the pericardial space which is present in between the parietal and visceral layers of serous pericardium.

Question 7.
Describe valves in the human heart.
Answer:
Human heart has following main valves:

  1. Tricuspid valve : Tricuspid valve is present between the right atrium and right ventricle. It has three cusps or flaps. It prevents the backflow of blood into right atrium.
  2. Bicuspid valve : Bicuspid valve, also called mitral valve is present between the left atrium and left ventricle. It has two flaps. It prevents the backflow of blood in left atrium. Both tricuspid and bicuspid valves are attached to papillary muscles with tendinous chords or chordate tendinae to prevent valves from turning back into atria at the time of systole.
  3. Semilunar valve : These are present at the opening of pulmonary artery and systemic aorta. They prevent the back flow of blood when ventricles undergo systole.
  4. Thebesian valve : Thebesian valve is present at the opening of coronary sinus.
  5. Eustachian valve : Eustachian valve is present at the opening of inferior vena cava.

Question 8.
What is the role of papillary muscles and chordae tendinae in human heart?
Answer:

  1. Papillary muscles are large and well- developed muscular ridges present along the inner surface of the ventricles.
  2. Bicuspid and tricuspid valves are attached to papillary muscles of ventricles by chordae tendinae.
  3. Chordae tendinae are inelastic fibres present in the lumen of ventricles.
  4. The chordae tendinae prevent the valves from turning back into the atria during the contraction of ventricles and regulate the opening and closing of bicuspid and tricuspid valves.

Question 9.
Explain in brief the factors affecting blood pressure.
Answer:

  1. Cardiac output : Normal cardiac output is 5 lit/min. Increase in cardiac output increases systolic pressure.
  2. Peripheral resistance : Peripheral resistance depends upon the diameter of blood vessels. Decrease in diameter of arterioles and capillaries under the effect of vasopressin cause increase in peripheral resistance and thereby increase in blood pressure.
  3. Blood volume : Loss of blood in accidents decreases blood volume and thus cause decrease in blood pressure.
  4. Viscosity of blood : Blood pressure is directly proportional to viscosity of blood.
  5. Age : Blood pressure increases with age due to increase in inelasticity of blood vessels.
  6. Venous return : Amount of blood brought to the heart via the veins per unit time is called the venous return and it is directly proportional to blood pressure.
  7. Length and diameter of blood vessels : Blood pressure is directly proportional to the total length of the blood vessel. Blood pressure can also be affected by vasoconstriction or vasodilation.
  8. Gender : Females have slightly lower BP than males of her age before menopause. However, the risk of high B. P increases in the females after menopause sets in.

5. Give Scientific Reason

Question 1.
Closed circulation is more efficient than open circulation.
Answer:

  1. Closed circulation considerably enhances the speed, precision and efficiency of circulation.
  2. The blood flows more rapidly, it takes less time to circulate through the closed system and return to the heart.
  3. This fastens the supply and removed of materials to and from the tissues by the blood as compared to open circulation.
  4. In open circulation, there are no blood vessels such as arteries or veins, to pump the blood.
  5. Therefore, the blood pressure is very low.
  6. Organisms with an open circulatory system typically have a relatively high volume of hemolymph and low blood pressure. Closed circulation is thus more efficient than open circulation.

Question 2.
Human heart is called as myogenic and autorhythmic?
Answer:

  1. The heart shows auto rhythmicity because the impulse for its rhythmic movement develops inside the heart. Such heart is called myogenic.
  2. Some of the cardiac muscle fibres become auto rhythmic (self-excitable) and start generating impulse during development.
  3. These autorhythmic fibres perform two important function, viz. acting as a pacemaker and setting the rhythm for heart.
  4. They also form conducting system for conduction of nerve impulses throughout the heart muscles.

Question 3.
In human heart, the blood flows only in one direction.
Answer:

  1. In veins there are valves, which prevent the back flow of the blood.
  2. In arteries, blood flows with unidirectional pressure.
  3. Hence the circulation takes place only in one direction.

Question 4.
Arteries are thicker than veins.
Answer:

  1. Arteries have relatively thick walls to enable them to withstand the high pressure of blood ejected from the heart.
  2. Arteries expand when the pressure increases as the heart pushes blood out but then recoil (shrink) Wn the pressure decreases when the heart relaxes between heartbeats.
  3. This expansion and recoiling occurs to maintain a smooth blood flow.
  4. Veins, on the other hand, have thinner walls and larger lumen veins have no need for thick walls as then need not have to withstand high pressure like arteries.
  5. Moreover, as veins transport relatively low pressure blood, they are commonly equipped with valves to promote the unidirectional flow of blood towards the heart.

Question 5.
Left ventricle is thick than all other chambers of heart.
OR
Left ventricle has thicker wall than the right ventricle.
Answer:

  1. Left ventricle pumps oxygenated blood to all parts of the body. Therefore, there is greater pressure from the blood in left ventricle.
  2. Right ventricle sends deoxygenated blood to lungs for oxygenation. This does not put more pressure and lungs are in vicinity of the heart.
  3. Due to these functional differences between the two ventricles, left ventricle has thicker wall than that of the right ventricle.

6. Distinguish Between

Question 1.
Open circulation and Closed circulation
Answer:

Open circulation Closed circulation
1. In open circulation, blood flows through large open spaces and channels called lacunae and haemocoels among the tissues. 1. In closed circulation, blood flows through a network of blood vessels all over the body.
2. Tissues are in direct contact with the blood. 2. Blood does not come in direct contact with tissue.
3. Blood flows with low pressure and usually does not contain any respiratory pigment like haemoglobin. 3. Blood flows with high pressure and contains respiratory pigment like haemoglobin.
4. Exchange of material takes place directly between blood and cells or tissues of the body. 4. Exchange of material takes place between blood and body tissues through an intermediate fluid called lymph.
5. Volume of blood flowing through a tissue cannot be controlled as blood flows out in open space. 5. Volume of blood can be regulated by the contraction and relaxation of the smooth muscles of the blood vessels.
6. Open circulatory system is found in arthropods and some molluscs. 6. Closed circulatory system is found in annelids, echinoderms and all vertebrates.

Question 2.
Arteries and veins.
Answer:

Arteries Veins
1. The blood vessels that arise from the heart and carry blood away from heart are called arteries. 1. The blood vessels that bring blood to the heart are called veins.
2. Arteries are thick walled blood vessels, situated in deep layers in the body. 2. Veins cure thin walled blood vessels, situated superficially in the body.
3. Arteries do not have valves. 3. Veins have valves.
4. Tunica adventitia, the outermost layer of arteries is thick and elastic. 4. Tunica externa, the outermost layer of veins is thin.
5. Tunica media is very thick and contain elastic fibres. 5. Tunica media is thin layer and contain involuntary muscle fibres.
6. The lumen of arteries is small. 6. The lumen of the veins is very spacious.
7. With the exception of pulmonary arteries, all other arteries carry oxygenated blood. 7. With the exception of pulmonary veins, all other veins carry deoxygenated blood.
8. Blood in the arteries show high blood pressure. 8. Blood in the veins show lesser blood pressure.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Respiration and Circulation

Question 3.
Blood and Lymph.
Answer:

Blood Lymph
1. Contains blood plasma with proteins and all three types of blood cells namely RBCs, WBCs and blood platelets. 1. Contains blood plasma without blood proteins, RBCs and platelets and contains lymphocytes.
2. Red in colour due to presence of RBCs. 2. Light yellow in colour and does not contain RBCs.
3. Carries oxygen in the body. 3. Does not carry oxygen.
4. The flow of blood in blood vessels is fast. 4. The flow of lymph in lymph capillaries is slow.
5. Lymphocytes are present. 5. Lymphocytes are present, more in number than those present in the blood.

Question 4.
Blood capillary and Lymph capillary.
Answer:

Blood capillary Lymph capillary
1. Reddish, easy to observe. 1. Colourless, difficult to observe.
2. Joined to arterioles at one end and to venules at another end. 2. Blind (closed at the tip).
3. Narrower than lymph capillaries. 3. Wider than blood capillaries.
4. Wall consists of normal endothelium and basement membrane. 4. Wall consists of thin endothelium and poorly developed basement membrane.
5. Contains red blood. 5. Contains colourless lymph.
6. Have relatively high pressure. 6. Have relatively low pressure.

Question 5.
Intrinsic and Extrinsic process of clotting.
Answer:

Intrinsic process Extrinsic process
1. The intrinsic pathway requires only clotting factors found within the blood itself – in particular, clotting factor XII (Hageman factor) from the platelets. 1. The extrinsic pathway is initiated by factors external to the blood, in the tissues adjacent to damaged blood vessel – in particular, it is initiated by clotting factor III, thromoboplastin from the damaged tissues.
2. It is a longer, multistep process and it takes a little longer for the blood to clot by this mechanism. 2. It involves fewer chemical reaction steps and produce a clot a little more quickly than the intrinsic pathway.

7. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Smita was working in a garage with the doors closed and automobiles engine running. After some time she felt breathless and fainted. What would be the reason? How can she be treated
OR
While working with the car engine in a closed garage, John suddenly felt dizzy and fainted what is the possible reason?
Answer:

  1. As Smita and John were working with the car engine running in a closed garage, they must be suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning.
  2. Carbon monoxide (CO) is a highly toxic gas produced when fuels burn incompletely from automobile engines.
  3. Because of strong affinity of haemoglobin with carbon monoxide, it readily combines with carbon monoxide to from a stable compound, carboxyhaemoglobin. Thus, less haemoglobin is available for oxygen transport depriving the cells of oxygen.
  4. Exposure to carbon monoxide can usually leads to throbbing headache, drowsiness, breathlessness and often person gets fainted. In extreme cases carbon monoxide poisoning usually leads to unconsciousness, convulsions, cardiovascular failure, coma and eventually death.

The breathless persons can be treated by following method:

  1. Oxygen treatment : The best way to treat carbon monoxide poisoning is to breathe in pure oxygen (high-dose oxygen treatment)
  2. Oxygen chamber : Doctor may temporarily place her in a pressurized oxygen chamber (also known as a hyperbaric oxygen chamber)

Question 2.
Shreyas went to a garden on a wintry morning. When he came back, he found it difficult to breath and stated wheezing. What could be the possible condition and how can he be treated?
Answer:
(1) It indicates that Shreyas might be suffering from allergic reactions. He may have come in contact with allergens such as pollen, dust, pet dander or other environmental substances on his way in the garden. Or Shreyas may be already a patient of Asthma and his symptoms may have aggrevated due to wintry climate.

(2) If a person is allergic to a substance, such as pollen, his immune system reacts to the substance as if it was foreign and harmful, and tries to destroy it.

(3) The body reacts to these allergens by making and releasing substances known as IgE antibodies. These IgE antibodies attach to most cells in the body which release histamine. Histamine is the main substance responsible for pollen allergy symptoms such as difficulty in breathing, wheezing, sneezing, itchy throat, etc.

(4) Treatment : There are several drugs to treat the allergic reactions:

  • Antihistamines such as cetirizine or diphenhydramine.
  • Decongestants, such as pseudoephedrine or oxymetazoline.
  • Medications that combine an antihistamine and decongestant such as Actifed and Claritin-D.

Question 3.
Why can you feel a pulse when you keep a finger on the wrist or neck but not when you keep them on a vein?
Answer:
(1) When the heart contracts, it creates pressure that pushes blood out of heart. This pressure acts like a wave. This “wave” of pressure is the pulse you feel. But this pressure is not constant.

(2) When the heart pumps the blood out of it at the time of systole, there is maximum pressure in the arteries. This pressure weakens considerably when it reaches capillaries, and so the veins which are away from the heart are under less pressure. Due to low pressure veins have valves to prevent backflow of blood.

(3) The pressure in the arteries can be felt every time the heart beats, especially in arteries which come to surface of the body like that of the wrist and neck but not in veins.

(4) The pressure in veins is always weaker than in arteries, resulting in a weaker pulse to the point that it is undetectable by touch
alone.

(5) Owing to this, when we keep finger on the arteries of wrist or neck, we feel a pulse but not when we keep it on a vein.

Question 4.
A man’s pulse rate is 68 and cardiac output is 5500 cm3. Find the stroke volume.
Answer:
Cardiac output is the volume of blood pumped out per min for a normal adult human being it is calculated as follows:
Cardiac output = Heart rate × Stroke volume
Given : Cardiac output = 5500 cm³
Pulse rate = Heart rate = 68
By using these values stroke volume of is calculated as follows:
∴ Cardiac output = Heart rate × Stroke volume
∴ Stroke volume = Cardiac output/Heart rate
= 5500/68
= Approx. 80. ∴ Stroke volume is 80 ml.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Respiration and Circulation

Question 5.
Which blood vessel leaving from the heart will have the maximum content of oxygen and why?
Answer:

  1. The Aorta leaving the heart from left ventricle carry the maximum content of oxygen.
  2. Deoxygenated blood becomes oxygenated in the pulmonary capillaries surrounding the alveoli of lungs. The oxygenated blood from lungs is collected by the four pulmonary veins.
  3. These pulmonary veins carry that oxygenated blood to left atrium of heart. During atrial systole that blood is carried to left ventricle.
  4. Left ventricle then pumps that oxygenated blood to Aorta during ventricular systole. Therefore, aorta has the maximum content of oxygen.

Question 6.
If the duration of the atrial ‘systole is 0.1 second and that of complete diastole is 0.4 second, then how does one cardiac cycle complete in 0.8 second?
Answer:

  1. The time duration required to complete one cardiac cycle is 0.8 second.
  2. Cardiac cycle is divided into three important phases, viz, atrial systole, ventricular systole and joint diastole.
  3. Atrial systole in normal condition lasts for 0.1 second, ventricular systole follows atrial systole and lasts for 0.3 second whereas joint diastole or complete diastole lasts for about 0.4 second.
  4. In this way one cardiac cycle is completed in 0.8 second.

Question 7.
How is blood kept moving in the large veins of the legs?
Answer:
1. When heart undergoes systole, it pushes the blood with pressure in aorta. This pressure moves the entire circulation of the blood throughout the body. Aorta gives rise to dorsal aorta after supplying to upper parts of body. Then it divides into two arteries which enter two legs. The blood is forced to move in the legs due to blood pressure and also aided by gravity.

2. In addition, the muscles in legs help transport blood back to our heart. As the muscles of our body contract and relax to move our limbs, they squeeze the blood in veins and the blood is then pushed towards the heart.

3. The veins in legs also have valves to keep this process going and prevent blood from flowing back down towards the feet.

4. In this way blood is kept moving in the large veins of the legs.

Question 8.
Describe histological structure of artery, vein and capillary.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Respiration and Circulation 1
Answer:
Histological structure of artery and vein.

  1. Artery is a thick walled blood vessel that carries oxygenated blood. (Exception is pulmonary artery which carries deoxygenated blood from heart to lungs for oxygenation.)
  2. All the arteries arise from heart and carry blood away from the heart.
  3. Each artery is made up of three layers, viz. tunica externa, tunica media and tunica interna.
  4. Tunica externa or adventitia is the thickest layer of all. It is the outermost coat made up of connective tissue with elastic and collagen fibres.
  5. Tunica media is the middle coat made up of smooth muscle fibres and elastic fibres. It withstands high blood pressure during ventricular systole. It is also thick.
  6. Tunica interna or intima is the innermost coat made of endothelium and elastic layer.

Histology of Capillaries:

  1. Capillaries are the smallest and thinnest blood vessels. Capillaries are formed by the division and re-division of the arterioles.
  2. The wall of the capillary is made up of endothelium or squamous epithelium.
  3. The capillary wall is permeable to water and dissolved substances.
  4. Exchange of respiratory gases, nutrients, excretory products, etc. takes place through the capillary wall.
  5. Capillaries unite to form venules.

Question 9.
What is blood pressure? How is it measured? Explain factors affecting blood pressure.
Answer:
1. Blood pressure:

  1. The pressure exerted by blood on the wall of the blood vessels is called blood pressure. Pressure exerted by blood on the wall of arterial wall is arterial blood pressure. Blood pressure is described in two terms viz. systolic blood pressure and diastolic blood pressure.
  2. Systolic blood pressure is the pressure exerted on arterial wall during ventricular contraction (systole). For a normal healthy adult the average value is 120 mmHg.
  3. Diastolic blood pressure is the pressure on arterial wall during ventricular relaxation (diastole). For a normal healthy adult it is 80 mmHg.
  4. B. E = SP/DP = 120/80 mmHg. Blood pressure is normally written as 120/80 mmHg. Difference between systolic and diastolic pressure is called pulse pressure normally, it is 40 mmHg.

2. Measurement of blood pressure:

  1. Blood pressure is measured with the help of an instrument called sphygmomanometer.
  2. The instrument consists of inflatable rubber bag cuff covered by a cotton cloth. It is connected with the help of tubes to a mercury manometer on one side and a rubber bulb on the other side.
  3. During measurement, the person is asked to lie in a sleeping position. The instrument is placed at the level of heart and the cuff is tightly wrapped around upper arm.
  4. The cuff is inflated till the brachial artery is blocked due to external pressure. Then pressure in the cuff is slowly lowered till the first pulsatile sound is produced. At this moment, pressure indicated in manometer is systolic pressure. Sounds heard during this measurement of blood pressure are called as Korotkoff sounds.
  5. Pressure in the cuff is further lowered till any pulsatile sound cannot be heard due to smooth blood flow. At this moment, pressure indicated in manometer is diastolic pressure an optimal blood pressure (normal) level reads 120/80 mmHg.

3. Factors affecting blood pressure:

  1. Cardiac output : Normal cardiac output is 5 lit/min. Increase in cardiac output increases systolic pressure.
  2. Peripheral resistance : Peripheral resistance depends upon the diameter of blood vessels. Decrease in diameter of arterioles and capillaries under the effect of vasopressin cause increase in peripheral resistance and thereby increase in blood pressure.
  3. Blood volume : Loss of blood in accidents decreases blood volume and thus cause decrease in blood pressure.
  4. Viscosity of blood : Blood pressure is directly proportional to viscosity of blood.
  5. Age : Blood pressure increases with age due to increase in inelasticity of blood vessels.
  6. Venous return : Amount of blood brought to the heart via the veins per unit time is called the venous return and it is directly proportional to blood pressure.
  7. Length and diameter of blood vessels : Blood pressure is directly proportional to the total length of the blood vessel. Blood pressure can also be affected by vasoconstriction or vasodilation.
  8. Gender : Females have slightly lower BP than males of her age before menopause. However, the risk of high B. P increases in the females after menopause sets in.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Respiration and Circulation

Question 10.
Describe human blood and give its functions.
Answer:
Blood Composition:

  1. Blood is a red coloured fluid connective tissue derived from embryonic mesoderm.
  2. It has two components – the fluid plasma (55%) and the formed elements i.e. blood cells (44%).
  3. Plasma is a straw coloured, slightly alkaline and viscous fluid having 90% water and 10% solutes such as proteins, nutrients, nitrogenous wastes, salts, hormones, etc.
  4. Blood corpuscles are of three types, viz. erythrocytes (RBCs), white blood corpuscles (WBCs) and thrombocytes (platelets).
    Maharashtra Board Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Respiration and Circulation 2

(5) Red blood corpuscles or Erythrocytes:

  1. Erythrocytes or red blood corpuscles. They are circular, biconcave, enucleated cells.
  2. The RBC size : 7 pm in diameter and 2.5 pm in thickness.
  3. The RBC count : 5.1 to 5.8 million RBCs/ cu mm of blood in an adult male and 4.3 to 5.2 million/cu mm in an adult female.
  4. The average life span of RBC : 120 days.
  5. RBCs are formed by the process of erythropoiesis. In foetus, RBC formation takes place in liver and spleen whereas in adults it occurs in red bone marrow.
  6. The old and worn out RBCs are destroyed in liver and spleen.
  7. Polycythemia is an increase in number of RBCs while erythrocytopenia is decrease in their (RBCs) number.

Functions of RBCs:

  1. Transport of oxygen from lungs to tissues and carbon dioxide from tissues to lungs with the help of haemoglobin.
  2. Maintenance of blood pH as haemoglobin acts as a buffer.
  3. Maintenance of the viscosity of blood.

(6) White blood corpuscles / Leucocytes:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Respiration and Circulation 3
1. Leucocytes or White Blood Corpuscles (WBCs) are colourless, nucleated, amoeboid and phagocytic cells.

2. Their size ranges between 8 to 15 pm. Total WBC count is 5000 to 9000 WBCs/cu mm of blood. The average life span of a WBC is about 3 to 4 days.

3. They are formed by leucopoiesis in red bone marrow, spleen, lymph nodes, tonsils, thymus and Payer’s patches, whereas the dead WBCs are destroyed by phagocytosis in blood, liver and lymph nodes.

4. Leucocytes are mainly divided into two types, viz., granulocytes and agranulocytes.

5. Granulocytes : Granulocytes are cells with granular cytoplasm and lobed nucleus. Based on their staining properties and shape of nucleus, they are of three types, viz. neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils.

(I) Neutrophils:

  1. In neutrophils, the cytoplasmic granules take up neutral stains.
  2. Their nucleus is three to five lobed.
  3. It may undergo changes in structure hence they are called polymorphonuclear leucocytes or polymorphs.
  4. Neutrophils are about 70% of total WBCs.
  5. They are phagocytic in function and engulf microorganisms.

(II) Eosinophils or acidophils:

  1. Cytoplasmic granules of eosinophils take up acidic dyes such as eosin. They have bilobed nucleus.
  2. Eosinophils are about 3% of total WBCs.
  3. They are non-phagocytic in nature.
  4. Their number increases (i.e. eosinophilia) during allergic conditions.
  5. They have antihistamine property.

(III) Basophils:

  1. The cytoplasmic granules of basophils take up basic stains such as methylene blue.
  2. They have twisted nucleus.
  3. In size, they are smallest and constitute about 0.5% of total WBCs.
  4. They too are non-phagocytic.
  5. Their function is to release heparin which acts as an anticoagulant and histamine that is involved in inflammatory and allergic reaction.

6. Agranulocytes : There are two types of agranulocytes, viz. monocytes and lymphocytes. Agranulocytes do not show cytoplasmic granules and their nucleus is not lobed. They are of two types, viz. lymphocytes and monocytes.
(I) Lymphocytes:

  1. Agranulocytes with a large round nucleus are called lymphocyte.
  2. They are about 30% of total WBCs.
  3. Agranulocytes are responsible for immune response of the body by producing antibodies.

(II) Monocytes:

  1. Largest of all WBCs having large kidney shaped nucleus are monocytes. They are about 5% of total WBCs.
  2. They are phagocytic in function.
  3. They can differentiate into macrophages for engulfing microorganisms and removing cell debris. Hence they are also called scavengers.
  4. At the site of infections they are seen in more enlarged form.

(7) Thrombocytes/Platelets:

  1. Thrombocytes or platelets are non- nucleated, round and biconvex blood corpuscles.
  2. They are smallest corpuscles measuring about 2.5 to 5 mm in diameter with a count of about 2.5 lakhs/cu mm of blood.
  3. Their life span is about 5 to 10 days.
  4. Thrombocytes are formed from megakaryocytes of bone marrow. They break from these cells as fragments during the process of thrombopoiesis.
  5. Thrombocytosis is the increase in platelet count while thrombocytopenia is decrease in platelet count.
  6. Thrombocytes possess thromboplastin which helps in clotting of blood.
  7. Therefore, at the site of injury platelets aggregate and form a platelet plug. Here they release thromboplastin due to which further blood clotting reactions take place.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Respiration and Circulation

(8) Functions of blood:

  1. Transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide
  2. Transport of food
  3. Transport of waste product
  4. Transport of hormones
  5. Maintenance of pH
  6. Water balance
  7. Transport of heat
  8. Defence against infection
  9. Temperature regulation
  10. Blood clotting/coagulation
  11. Helps in healing

12th Std Biology Questions And Answers:

12th Biology Chapter 9 Exercise Control and Co-ordination Solutions Maharashtra Board

Class 12 Biology Chapter 9

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Biology Textbook Solutions Chapter 9 Control and Co-ordination Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Control and Co-ordination Class 12 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Class 12 Biology Chapter 9 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Biology Class 12 Chapter 9 Exercise Solutions

1. Multiple choice questions

Question 1.
The nervous system of mammals uses both electrical and chemical means to send signals via neurons. Which part of the neuron receives impulse?
(a) Axon
(b) Dendron
(c) Nodes of Ranvier
(d) Neurilemma
Answer:
(b) Dendron

Question 2.
……………. is a neurotransmitter.
(a) ADH
(b) Acetyl CoA
(c) Acetyl choline
(d) Inositol
Answer:
(c) Acetyl choline

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 9 Control and Co-ordination

Question 3.
The supporting cells that produce myelin sheath in the PNS are …………….
(a) Oligodendrocytes
(b) Satellite cells
(c) Astrocytes
(d) Schwann cells
Answer:
(d) Schwann cells

Question 4.
A collection of neuron cell bodies located outside the CNS is called …………….
(a) tract
(b) nucleus
(c) nerve
(d) ganglion
Answer:
(d) ganglion

Question 5.
Receptors for protein hormones are located …………….
(a) in cytoplasm
(b) on cell surface
(c) in nucleus
(d) on Golgi complex
Answer:
(b) on cell surface

Question 6.
If parathyroid gland of man Eire removed, the specific result will be …………….
(a) onset of aging
(b) disturbance of Ca++
(c) onset of myxoedema
(d) elevation of blood pressure
Answer:
(b) disturbance of Ca++

Question 7.
Hormone thyroxine, adrenaline and non¬adrenaline are formed from ……………
(a) Glycine
(b) Arginine
(c) Ornithine
(d) Tyrosine
Answer:
(d) Tyrosine

Question 8.
Pheromones are chemical messengers produced by animals and released outside the body. The odour of these substance affects …………….
(a) skin colour
(b) excretion
(c) digestion
(d) behaviour
Answer:
(d) behaviour

Question 9.
Which one of the following is a set of discrete endocrine gland?
(a) Salivary glands, thyroid, adrenal, ovary
(b) Adrenal, testis, ovary, liver
(c) Pituitary, thyroid, adrenal, thymus
(d) Pituitary, pancreas, adrenal, thymus
Answer:
(c) Pituitary, thyroid, adrenal, thymus

Question 10.
After ovulation, Graafian follicle changes into …………….
(a) corpus luteum
(b) corpus albicans
(c) corpus spongiosum
(d) corpus callosum
Answer:
(a) corpus luteum

Question 11.
Which one of the following pairs correctly matches a hormone with a disease resulting from its deficiency?
(a) Parathyroid hormone – Diabetes insipidus
(b) Luteinising hormone – Diabetes mellitus
(c) Insulin – Hyperglycaemia
(d) Thyroxine – Tetany
Answer:
(c) Insulin – Hyperglycaemia

Question 12.
……………. is in direct contact of brain in humans.
(a) Cranium
(b) Dura mater
(c) Arachnoid
(d) Pia mater
Answer:
(d) Pia mater

2. Very very short answer questions.

Question 1.
What is the function of red nucleus?
Answer:
Red nucleus plays an important role in controlling posture and muscle tone, modifying some motor activities and motor coordination.

Question 2.
What is the importance of corpora quadrigemina?
Answer:
Corpora quadrigemina consists of 4 solid rounded structures, viz. superior and inferior colliculi. Superior colliculi control visual reflexes while inferior colliculi control auditory reflexes.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 9 Control and Co-ordination

Question 3.
What does the cerebellum of brain control?
Answer:
Cerebellum of brain is an important centre which maintains equilibrium of body, posture, balancing orientation, moderation of voluntary movements and maintenance of muscle tone.

Question 4.
Name the three ear ossicles.
Answer:
Malleus [hammer], incus [anvil] and stapes [stirrup].

Question 5.
Name the anti abortion hormone.
Answer:
Progesterone.

Question 6.
Name an organ which acts as temporary endocrine gland.
Answer:
Placenta. Corpus luteum in ovary.

Question 7.
Name the type of hormones which bind to the DNA and alter the gene expression.
Answer:
Steroid hormones.

Question 8.
What is the cause of abnormal elongation of long bones of arms and legs and of lower jaw.
Answer:
Hypersecretion of growth hormones in adults causes abnormal elongation of long bones of arms and legs and of lower jaw i.e. acromegaly.

Question 9.
Name the hormone secreted by the pineal gland.
Answer:
Melatonin.

Question 10.
Which endocrine gland plays important, role in improving immunity?
Answer:
The endocrine gland, thymus plays an important role in improving immunity.

3. Match the organism with the type of nervous system found in them.

Column A Column B
(1) Neurons (a) Earthworm
(2) Ladder type (b) Hydra
(3) Ganglion (c) Flatworm
(4) Nerve net (d) Human

Answer:

Column A Column B
(1) Neurons (d) Human
(2) Ladder type (c) Flatworm
(3) Ganglion (a) Earthworm
(4) Nerve net (b) Hydra

4. Very short answer questions.

Question 1.
Describe the endocrine role of islets of Langerhans.
OR
Islets of Langerhans.
Answer:
Endocrine cells of pancreas form groups of cells called Islets of Langerhans. There are four kinds of cells in islets of Langerhans which secrete hormones.

  1. Alpha (α) cells : They are 20% and secrete glucagon. Glucagon is a hyperglycemic hormone. It stimulates liver for glucogenolysis and increases the blood glucose level.
  2. Beta (β) cells : They are 70% and secrete insulin. Insulin is a hypoglycemic hormone. It stimulates liver and muscles for glycogenesis. This lowers blood glucose level.
  3. Delta (δ) cells : They are 5% and secrete somatostatin. Somatostatin inhibits the secretion of glucagon and insulin. It also decreases the gastric secretions, motility and absorption in digestive tract. In general it is a growth inhibiting factor.
  4. PP cells or F cells : They form 5%. They secrete pancreatic polypeptide (PP) which inhibits the release of pancreatic juice.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 9 Control and Co-ordination

Question 2.
Mention the function of testosterone?
Answer:
Testosterone is a steroid sex hormone secreted by testes and cortex of adrenal glands. It controls the secondary sexual characters in males.

Question 3.
Give symptoms of the disease caused by hyposecretion of ADH.
Answer:
Polydipsia, i.e. frequent thirst and polyuria, i.e. frequent urination are the symptoms of the disease caused by hyposecretion of ADH.

5. Short answer questions

Question 1.
Rakesh got hurt on his head when he fell down from his motorbike. Which inner membranes must have protected his brain? What other roles do they have to play
Answer:

  1. When Rakesh fell down from his motorbike, the inner membranes that protected his brain were meninges, viz. dura mater, arachnoid membrane and pia mater. Morevover, CSF must have also acted as a shock absorber.
  2. Dura mater : It is the outer tough membrane protective in function.
  3. Arachnoid membrane : It is the middle web-like membrane which communicates with fluids of upper sub dural space and lower sub arachnoid space.
  4. Pia mater : It is the innermost highly vascularised nutritive membrane in close contact with brain and spinal cord.

Question 2.
Injury to medulla oblongata may prove fatal.
OR
Injury to medulla oblongata causes sudden death. Explain.
Answer:

  1. Medulla oblongata is the region of the brain that controls all the involuntary activities.
  2. Vital activities such as heartbeats, respiration, vasomotor activities, peristalsis, etc. are under the control of medulla oblongata.
  3. When medulla oblongata is injured, all these vital functions are instantly stopped.
  4. Therefore, injury to medulla oblongata causes sudden death.

Question 3.
Distinguish between the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system on the basis of the effect they have on:
Heartbeat andUrinary Bladder.
Answer:

Sympathetic Nervous System Parasympathetic Nervous System
(1) Heartbeat Increases Decreases
(2) Urinary bladder Relaxes and stores urine Contracts causing micturition

Question 4.
While holding a tea cup Mr. Kothari’s hands rattle. Which disorder he may be suffering from and what is the reason for this?
Answer:

  1. This condition is due to Parkinson’s disease.
  2. It is due to degeneration of dopamine- producing neurons in the CNS.
  3. 80% of the patients develop this condition along with stiffness, difficulty in walking, balance and coordination.

Question 5.
List the properties of the nerve fibres.
Answer:

  1. Excitability / irritability
  2. Conductivity
  3. Stimulus
  4. Summation
  5. All or none
  6. Refractory period
  7. Synaptic delay
  8. Synaptic fatigue
  9. Velocity.

Question 6.
How does tongue detect the sensation of taste?
Answer:

  1. The surface of tongue is with gustatoreceptors.
  2. These receptors are sensitive to the chemicals [sweet, salt, sour, bitter and umami (savory)] present in the food.
  3. The receptor cells get stimulated, generate the impulse which is given to the sensory neuron.

Question 7.
State the site of production and function of Secretin, Gastrin and Cholecystokinin.
Answer:

Hormone Site of production Functions
1. Secretin Duodenal mucosa Stimulates secretion of pancreatic juice and bile from pancreas and liver respectively.
2. Gastrin Gastric mucosa Stimulates gastric glands to secrete gastric juice.
3. Cholecystokinin Duodenal mucosa Stimulates pancreas and gall bladder to release pancreatic enzymes and bile respectively.

Question 8.
An adult patient suffers from low heart rate, low metabolic rate and low body temperature. He also lacks alertness, intelligence and initiative. What can be this disease? What can be its cause and cure ?
Answer:

  1. The above symptoms indicate that the person is suffering from Myxoedema.
  2. Myxoedema is condition caused due to hypothyroidism.
  3. Hypothyroidism causes deficiency of thyroid hormones like T3 and T4 (thyroxine). This results in low BMR.
  4. This condition can be cured by giving injections of thyroxine or tablets containing hormone preparation.

Question 9.
Where is the pituitary gland located? Enlist the hormones secreted by anterior pituitary.
Answer:
The pituitary gland is attached to hypothalamus on the ventral surface of brain. It is lodged in a bony depression called sella turcica of sphenoid bone.
For names of hormones:

  1. GH : [Growth Hormone/STH : Somatotropic Hormone]
  2. TSH/TTH – [Thyroid Stimulating Hormone/ Thyrotropic Hormone]
  3. ACTH – [adrenocorticotropic hormone]
  4. PRL – [prolactin]

Gonadotropins-

  1. FSH [follicle stimulating hormone]
  2. LH/ICSH – [leutinizing hormone/ interstitial cells stimulating hormone]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 9 Control and Co-ordination

Question 10.
Explain how the adrenal medulla and sympathetic nervous system function as a closely integrated system.
Answer:

  1. Adrenal medulla originates from embryonic neuro – ectoderm.
  2. It consists of rounded group of large granular cells called chromaffin cells. They are modified post-ganglionic cells of sympathetic nervous system which have lost normal processes and acquired glandular function.
  3. These cells are connected with pre-ganglionic fibres of sympathetic nervous system.
  4. Hence adrenal medulla is an extension of sympathetic nervous system.
  5. Thus adrenal medulla and sympathetic nervous system functions as a closely integrated system.

Question 11.
Name the secretion of alpha, beta and delta cells of islets of Langerhans. Explain their role.
Answer:

Pancreatic islet cells Secretion Functions
1. Alpha cells Glucagon Stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver
2. Beta cells Insulin Stimulates glycogenesis in the liver and muscles
3. Delta cells Somatostatin Inhibits the secretion of glucagon and insulin. It also decreases the gastric secretions, motility and absorption in digestive tract.

Question 12.
Which are the two types of goitre? What are their causes?
Answer:
(1) Goitre is the enlargement of thyroid gland. It is easily visible at the base of neck when a person is suffering from it.

(2) Goitre is of two types.

  1. Simple goitre : It is also called endemic goitre. This is due to iodine deficiency in the food. This causes iodine deficit in blood. In an attempt to take more iodine from blood, the blood supply to the gland increases. This results in swelling on the thyroid.
  2. Exophthalmic goitre : It is also called toxic goitre. This is due to hyperactive thyroid gland. This can happen if there is overstimulation of thyroid due to excess of ACTH. This disorder is also called Grave’s disease or hyperthyroidism.

Question 13.
Name the ovarian hormone and give their functions.
Answer:

Hormone Functions
Oestrogen It is responsible for secondary sexual characters in female.
Progesterone Essential for thickening of uterine endometrium, thus preparing the uterus for implantation of fertilized ovum. It is responsible for development of mammary glands during pregnancy. It inhibits uterine contractions during pregnancy.
Relaxin It relaxes the cervix of the pregnant female and ligaments of pelvic girdle during parturition.
Inhibin It inhibits the FSH and GnRH production.

6. Answer the following.

Complete the table.

Location Cell type Function
PNS ————- Produce myelin sheath.
PNS Satellite cells ————-
———— Oligodendrocytes Form myelin sheath around central axon.
CNS ———— Pathogens are destroyed by phagocytosis. (Phagocytose)
CNS ———— Form the epithelial lining of brain cavities and central canal.

Answer:

Location Cell type Function
PNS Schwann cells Produce myelin sheath.
PNS Satellite cells Supply nutrients to surrounding neurons, protect and cushion nearby neurons.
CNS Oligodendrocytes Form myelin sheath around central axon.
CNS Microglia Pathogens are destroyed by phagocytosis. (Phagocytose)
CNS Ependyma Form the epithelial lining of brain cavities and central canal.

7. Long answer questions.

Question 1.
Explain the process of conduction of nerve impulses up to development of action potential.
Answer:

  1. The origin and maintenance of resting potential depends on the original state of no stimulation.
  2. Any stimulus or disturbance to the membrane will make the membrane permeable to Na+ ions. This causes rapid influx of Na+ ions.
  3. The voltage gated Na+/K+ channels are unique. They can change the potential difference of the membrane as per the stimulus received and also the gates operate separately and are self closing.
  4. During resting potential, both gates are closed and resting potential is maintained.
  5. However during depolarization, the Na+ channels open but not the K+ channels. This causes Na+ to rush into the axon and bring about a depolarisation. This condition is called action potential.
  6. Extra cellular fluid (ECF) becomes electronegative with respect to the inner membrane which becomes electropositive.

Question 2.
Draw the neat labelled diagrams.
a. Human ear.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 9 Control and Co-ordination 1

b. Sectional view of human eye.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 9 Control and Co-ordination 2

c. Draw the neat labelled diagram of sagittal section or L.S. of human brain
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 9 Control and Co-ordination 3

d. Draw the neat labelled diagram of Multipolar Neuron.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 9 Control and Co-ordination 4

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 9 Control and Co-ordination

Question 3.
Answer the questions after observing the diagram given below.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 9 Control and Co-ordination 5
a. What do the synaptic vesicles contain?
Answer:
Synaptic vesicles contain a neurotransmitter – acetyl choline.

b. What process is used to release the neurotransmitter ?
Answer:
Exocytosis.

c. What should be the reason for the next impulse to be conducted?
Answer:
Removal of neurotransmitter by the action of acetyl cholinesterase.

d. Will the impulse be carried by post synaptic membrane even if one pre-synaptic neuron is there?
Answer:
As far as impulse is transmitted by pre-synaptic neuron, it will be received by post-synaptic neuron.

e. Can you name the channel responsible for their transmission?
Answer:
Ca++ channel

Question 4.
Explain the Reflex Pathway with the help of a neat labelled diagram.
OR
With the help of a neat and labelled diagram, describe reflex arc.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 9 Control and Co-ordination 6
I. Reflex action : Reflex action Is defined as a quick, automatic involuntary and often unconscious action brought about when the receptors are stimulated by external or internal stimuli.

II. Reflex arc : Reflex actions are controlled by CNS. Reflex arc is the structural or functional unit of reflex action. Simple reflex arc is formed of the following five components.
(1) Receptor organ : The sensory part that receives the stimulus is called receptor organ. It can be any sense organ that receives the stimulus and converts it into the impulse, e.g. skin, eye, ear, tongue, nasal epithelium, etc.

(2) Sensory neuron or afferent neuron:
Sensory part carrying impulse from receptor organ to CNS is called sensory neuron. Its cyton is located in dorsal root ganglion. Its dendron is long and connected to receptor while the axon enters in the grey matter of spinal cord to form a synapse.

(3) Association, adjustor or intermediate neuron : It is present in the grey matter of spinal cord. Receiving impulse from sensory neuron, interpreting it and generating motor impulse are done by association neuron.
(4) Motor neuron (effector) : The cyton of motor neuron is present in the ventral horn of grey matter and axon travels through ventral root. It conducts motor impulse from spinal cord to effector organ.

(5) Effector organ : Effector organ is a specialized part of the body which is excited by receiving the motor impulse. It gives proper response to the stimulus, e.g. muscles or glands. The path of reflex action is followed by the unidirectional impulse. It originates in the receptor organ and ends in effector organ through CNS.

Question 5.
Krishna was going to school and on the way he saw a major bus accident. His heartbeat increased and hands and feet become cold. Name the part of the nervous system that had a role to play in this reaction.
Answer:

  1. The symptoms observed in Krishna were due to sympathetic nervous system. Emergency conditions trigger sympathetic nervous system to stimulate adrenal medulla.
  2. The cells of adrenal medulla secrete catecholamines like adrenaline and nor¬adrenaline.
  3. These hormones have direct effect on the pacemaker of the heart which causes increase in the heart rate and other associated symptoms.
  4. This is a typical fright reaction caused by intervention of sympathetic nervous system.

Question 6.
What will be the effect of thyroid gland atrophy on the human body?
Answer:

  1. Atrophy means degeneration. Atrophy of thyroid gland will result in deficient secretion of thyroid hormones leading to hypothyroidism. Deficiency of thyroid hormones [T3 and T4] and thyrocalcitonin will cause following effects on the body.
  2. Decrease in BMR i.e. basal metabolic rate, decrease in the blood pressure, heart beat, body temperature, etc.
  3. Occurrence of myxoedema in which there is abnormal deposition of fats under the skin giving puffy appearance in adults.
  4. Irregularities in menstrual cycle in case of female patients.
  5. Hair become brittle and fall.
  6. Calcium metabolism also disturbs due to lack of thyrocalcitonin.

Question 7.
Write the names of hormones and the glands secreting them for the regulation of following functions
(a) Growth of thyroid and secretion of thyroxine.
Answer:
TSH by adenohypophysis.

(b) Helps in relaxing pubic ligaments to facilitate easy birth of young ones.
Answer:
Relaxin by degenerating corpus luteum of the ovary.

(c) Stimulate intestinal glands to secrete intestinal juice.
Answer:
Secretin by duodenal mucosa.

(d) Controls calcium level in the blood.
Answer:
Calcitonin [hypocalcemic hormone] by thyroid and parathormone [ hypercalcemic hormone] by parathyroid glands.

(e) Controls tubular absorption of water in kidneys.
Answer:
ADH by hypothalamus.

(f) Urinary elimination of water.
Answer:
Atrial natriuretic factor by atria of heart.

(g) Sodium and potassium ion metabolism.
Answer:
Aldosterone by adrenal cortex.

(h) Basal Metabolic rate.
Answer:
T3 and T4 by thyroid gland.

(I) Uterine contraction.
Answer:
Oxytocin by hypothalamus.

(j) Heartbeat and blood pressure.
Answer:
Adrenaline, non-adrenaline [stimulation] and acetylcholine [inhibition] by adrenal medulla.

(k) Secretion of growth hormone.
Answer:
GHRF by hypothalamus.

(l) Maturation of Graafian follicle.
Answer:
FSH by anterior pituitary.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 9 Control and Co-ordination

Question 8.
Explain the role of hypothalamus and pituitary as a coordinated unit in maintaining homeostasis.
Answer:

  1. Homeostasis is maintenance of constant internal environment of the body.
  2. When certain hormones from any endocrine glands are secreted in excess quantity, the : inhibiting factors from hypothalamus, automatically exert negative feedback and stop the production of stimulating hormones from pituitary.
  3. Similarly, if any hormone is in deficit, then j the concerned gland is given message through releasing factor. This way the hormone production remains in a balanced state or homeostasis.
  4. E.g. If thyroxine from thyroid gland is secreted in excess, the secretion of TSH from pituitary is stopped by stopping the production of TRF from hypothalamus.
  5. Though most of the endocrine glands are under the influence of pituitary gland, it is in turn controlled by hypothalamus.
  6. Hypothalamus secretes releasing factors and inhibiting factors and hence regulate the secretions of pituitary (hypophysis).
  7. There is negative feedback mechanism in controlling the secretions of the endocrine glands.
  8. Hypothalamus forms the hypothalamo- hypophyseal axis through which transportation of neurohormones take place.

Following are the releasing and inhibiting factors produced by hypothalamus:

  1. Somatotropin/GHRF : It stimulates release of growth hormone.
  2. Somatostatin/GHRIF : It inhibits the release of growth hormone.
  3. Adrenocorticotropin Releasing Hormone / CRF : It stimulates the release of ACTH by the anterior pituitary gland.
  4. Thyrotropin Releasing Hormone /TRF : It stimulates the release of TSH by anterior pituitary gland.
  5. Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone (GnRH) : It stimulates pituitary to secrete gonadotropins.
  6. Prolactin Inhibiting Hormone (Prolactostatin) : It inhibits prolactin released by anterior pituitary gland.
  7. Gastrin Releasing Peptide (GRP).
  8. Gastric Inhibitory Polypeptide (GIP).

Question 9.
What is adenohypophysis ? Name the hormones secreted by it.
Answer:

  1. Adenohypophysis is the large anterior lobe of pituitary gland.
  2. It is derived from embryonic ectoderm in the form of Rathke’s pouch which is a small outgrowth from the roof of embryonic stomodaeum.
  3. It is made up of epitheloid secretory cells.

It secretes following hormones:

  1. GH : [Growth Hormone/STH : Somatotropic Hormone]
  2. TSH/TTH – [Thyroid Stimulating Hormone/ Thyrotropic Hormone]
  3. ACTH – [adrenocorticotropic hormone]
  4. PRL – [prolactin]

Gonadotropins-

  1. FSH [follicle stimulating hormone]
  2. LH/ICSH – [leutinizing hormone/ interstitial cells stimulating hormone]

Question 10.
Describe, in brief, an account of disorders of adrenal gland.
Answer:
(1) Disorders of adrenal cortical secretions are caused due to hyposecretion and hypersecretion of adrenal corcoid hormones.

(2) Hyposecretion of corticosteroids causes Addison’s disease.

(3) The symptoms of Addison’s disease are low blood sugar, low body temperature, feeble heart action, low BR acidosis, low Na+ and K+ concentration in plasma, excessive loss of Na+ and water in urine, impaired kidney functioning and kidney failure, etc. it leads to weight loss, general weakness, nausea, vomiting and diarrhoea.

(4) Hypersecretion of corticoids causes Cushing’s disease.

(5) The symptoms of Cushing’s disease are high blood sugar level, glucosuria, alkalosis, enhancement of total quantity of electrolytes in extracellular fluid, polydipsia, increased BR muscle paralysis, obesity, wasting of limb muscles, etc.

Question 11.
Explain action of steroid hormones and proteinous hormones.
OR
Explain the mode of action of steroid hormones.
Answer:
The hormones always act on their target organs or tissues to induce their effects. The target tissues have specific binding sites or receptor sites which contain hormone receptors.
I. Steroid hormones:

  1. The steroid hormones are lipid soluble and can easily cross the lipoproteinous plasma membrane.
  2. The hormone receptors for steroid hormones are present in cytoplasm or in nucleus.
  3. Hormone-receptor complex formed in cytoplasm enters the nucleus and regulate the gene expression or chromosome function.
  4. In some cases the receptors are present inside the nucleus where hormone receptor complex is formed.
  5. These complexes interact with the genome to evoke biochemical changes that result in physiological and developmental functions.

II. Protein hormones:

  1. The hormone receptors for protein hormones are present on the cell membrane (i.e. membrane bound receptors).
  2. When the hormone binds to its receptor, it forms hormone-receptor complex. Each receptor is specific to a specific hormone.
  3. The hormones which interact with membrane bound receptors normally do not enter the target cell but generate second messengers. Such as cyclic AMP Ca++ or IP (Inositol triphosphate), etc.
  4. This leads to certain biochemical changes : in the target tissue.
  5. Thus, the tissue metabolism and consequently the physiological functions are regulated by hormones.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 9 Control and Co-ordination

Question 12.
Describe in brief an account of disorders of the thyroid.
OR
What are the functional disorders of thyroid gland? Describe in brief.
Answer:
Disorders of thyroid gland are of three types, viz. hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism and simple goitre.
(1) Hypothyroidism : Hypothyroidism is deficient secretion of thyroxine. This hyposecretion causes two types of disorders, viz. cretinism in children and myoxedema in adults.
(i) Cretinism : Hyposecretion of thyroxine in childhood causes cretinism. The symptoms of cretinism are retardation of physical and mental growth.

(ii) Myxoedema : Deficiency of thyroxine in adults causes this disorder. It is also referred to as Gull’s disease. Symptoms are thickening and puffiness of the skin and subcutaneous tissue particularly of face and extremities. Patients with low BMR. It also causes mental dullness, loss of memory, slow action.

(2) Hyperthyroidism : Excessive secretion of thyroxine causes exophthalmic goitre or Grave’s disease. There is slight enlargement of thyroid gland. It increases BMR, heart rate, pulse rate and BE Reduction in body weight due to rapid oxidation, nervousness, irritability. Peculiar symptom is exophthalmos, i.e. bulging of eyeballs with staring look and less blinking. This is caused by deposition of fats behind the eye balls in eye sockets. There is muscular weakness and loss of weight.

(3) Simple goitre (Iodine deficiency goitre) : Simple goitre occurs due to deficiency of iodine in diet or drinking water. Simple goitre causes enlargement of thyroid gland. Thyroid gland in an attempt to get more iodine from the blood, swells due to increased blood supply. Prevention of goitre can be done by administering iodized table salt. It is also called endemic goitre as it is common in hilly areas.

12th Std Biology Questions And Answers:

12th Biology Chapter 2 Exercise Reproduction in Lower and Higher Animals Solutions Maharashtra Board

Class 12 Biology Chapter 2

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Biology Textbook Solutions Chapter 2 Reproduction in Lower and Higher Animals Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Reproduction in Lower and Higher Animals Class 12 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Class 12 Biology Chapter 2 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Biology Class 12 Chapter 2 Exercise Solutions

1. Multiple choice questions

Question 1.
The number of nuclei present in a zygote is ……………….
(a) two
(b) one
(c) four
(d) eight
Answer:
(b) one

Question 2.
Which of these is the male reproductive organ in human?
(a) Sperm
(b) Seminal fluid
(c) Testes
(d) Ovary
Answer:
(c) Testes

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 2 Reproduction in Lower and Higher Animals

Question 3.
Attachment of embryo to the wall of the uterus is known as ……………….
(a) fertilization
(b) gestation
(c) cleavage
(d) implantation
Answer:
(d) implantation

Question 4.
Rupturing of follicles and discharge of ova is known as ……………….
(a) capacitation
(b) gestation
(c) ovulation
(d) copulation
Answer:
(c) ovulation

Question 5.
In human females, the fertilized egg gets implanted in uterus ……………….
(a) after about 7 days of fertilization
(b) after about 30 days of fertilization
(c) after about two months of fertilization
(d) after about 3 weeks of fertilization
Answer:
(a) after about 7 days of fertilization

Question 6.
Test tube baby technique is called ……………….
(a) In vivo fertilization
(b) In situ fertilization
(c) In Vitro Fertilization
(d) Artificial Insemination
Answer:
(c) In Vitro Fertilization

Question 7.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Biology Important Questions Chapter 2 Reproduction in Lower and Higher Animals 1
The given figure shows a human sperm. Various parts of it are labelled as A, B, C, and D. Which labelled part represents acrosome?
(a) B.
(b) C
(c) D
(d) A
Answer:
(d) A

Question 8.
Presence of beard in boys is a ……………….
(a) primary sex organ
(b) secondary sexual character
(c) secondary sex organ
(d) primary sexual character
Answer:
(b) secondary sexual character

2. Very short answer questions

Question 1.
What is the difference between a foetus and an embryo?
Answer:
Embryo is a growing egg after fertilization until the main parts of the body and the internal organs have started to take shape while foetus is a stage which has the appearance of a fully developed offspring.

Question 2.
Outline the path of sperm up to the urethra.
Answer:
The path of sperm up to the urethra in male is as follows :
Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Vas deferens → Ejaculatory ducts Urethra.

Question 3.
Which glands contribute fluids to the semen?
Answer:
The glands which contribute fluids to the semen are seminal vesicles, prostate gland.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 2 Reproduction in Lower and Higher Animals

Question 4.
Name the endocrine glands involved in maintaining the sexual characteristics of males.
Answer:
Interstitial cells of Leydig which lie in between the seminiferous tubules are involved in maintaining the sexual characteristics of male by secreting the male hormone androgen or testosterone. Adenohypophysis also regulates this secretion from the testis.

Question 5.
Where does fertilization and implantation occur?
Answer:
Fertilization of ovum takes place in the ampulla region of fallopian tube whereas implantation occur in the endometrium of uterus.

Question 6.
Enlist the external genital organs in female.
Answer:
The external genital organs in female include the following parts such as vestibule, labia minora, clitoris, labia majora and mons Veneris.

Question 8.
What is the difference between embryo and zygote?
Answer:
Zygote is the unicellular diploid structure formed as a result of fusion of sperm and ovum whereas embryo is a multicellular structure formed from zygote in the uterus 3 weeks after fertilization.

3. Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
The primary sex organ in human male is ……………….
Answer:
testis

Question 2.
The ……………… is also called the womb.
Answer:
uterus

Question 3.
Sperm fertilizes ovum in the ……………….. of fallopian tube.
Answer:
ampulla

Question 4.
The disc like structure which helps in the transfer of substances to and from the foetus’s body is called ………………..
Answer:
placenta

Question 5.
Gonorrhoea is caused by ……………….. bacteria.
Answer:
Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Question 6.
The hormone produced by the testis is ……………………
Answer:
testosterone / androgen.

4. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Budding in Hydra.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Biology Important Questions Chapter 2 Reproduction in Lower and Higher Animals 2

  1. Budding is a type of asexual reproduction method seen in Hydra.
  2. Budding takes place during favourable period.
  3. Towards the basal end of the body, small outgrowth is produced which is called a bud.
  4. It grows and forms tentacles and gradually forms a new individual.
  5. The young Hydra after complete development detaches from the parent and becomes an independent new organism.

Question 2.
Explain the different methods of reproduction occurring in sponges.
Answer:

  1. Sponges reproduce both asexually and sexually and they also possess the power of regeneration. Their sexual reproduction is similar to higher animals even though their body organization is primitive type.
  2. Asexual reproduction in sponges takes place by regeneration, budding and gemmule formation.
  3. In sponges, during unfavourable period, gemmule is produced. It is an internal bud.
  4. Archaeocytes which are dormant cells are seen in the aggregation in gemmule. These cells are capable of developing into a new organism.
  5. Amoebocytes are other cells which secrete thick resistant layer of secretion which is coated around archaeocytes.
  6. When favourable conditions of water and temperature return back, the gemmules can develop into new individuals by hatching, e.g. Spongilla.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 2 Reproduction in Lower and Higher Animals

Question 3.
IVF.
Answer:

  1. In laboratory under sterile conditions, oocyte and sperms are placed in a test tube or glass plate to form a zygote. This process is called In Vitro Fertilization.
  2. The zygote with 8 blastomeres is then transferred into the fallopian tube for further development.
  3. IVF technique is used when childless couple wants to have a baby, but there are issues of sterility.
  4. IVF is also called test tube baby technique.

Question 4.
Comment on any two mechanical contraceptive methods.
Answer:
Two mechanical contraceptive methods are as follows:
A. Condom or Nirodh:

  1. It is a protective barrier in the form of thin rubber sheath which is used by male partner during the sexual coitus. It covers the penis and does not allow semen to flow during copulation.
  2. Thus the entry of ejaculated semen into the female reproductive tract is obstructed. This can prevent conception. It is a simple and effective method and has no side effects.
  3. “Nirodh” is a condom, most widely used in India as a contraceptive by males.
  4. Condom also protects both the partners against sexually transmitted diseases such as AIDS and others.

B. Diaphragm, cervical caps and vaults:

  1. Diaphragm and cervical caps are to be used by females as mechanical contraceptive measures.
  2. They are made up of rubber. They are fitted on the cervix in vagina so that they prevent the entry of sperms into the uterus.
  3. They are kept at least six hours after sexual intercourse in order to inhibit sperms from entering female genital tract.

Question 5.
Tubectomy.
Answer:

  1. The permanent birth control method in women, is called tubectomy.
  2. It is a surgical method, also called sterilization.
  3. In tubectomy, a small part of the fallopian tube is tied and cut.
  4. Tubectomy blocks transport of oocytes and also blocks sperms, thus preventing fertilization from reaching the oocyte.

Question 6.
Give the name of causal organism of Syphilis and write on its symptoms.
Answer:
1. Syphilis is a sexually transmitted veneral disease caused by a Spirochaete bacterium Treponema pallidum.

2. The site of infection is the mucous membrane in genital, rectal and oral region.

3. Symptoms of syphilis:

  • Primary lesion known as chancre at the site of infection.
  • They are seen on the external genitalia in males and inside the vagina in females.
  • Skin rashes accompanied by fever, inflammed joints and loss of hair.
  • Paralysis
  • Degenerative changes in the heart and brain.

Question 7.
What is colostrum?
Answer:

  1. The fluid secreted by the mammary glands soon after childbirth is called colostrum.
  2. Colostrum is the sticky and yellow fluid. It contains proteins, lactose and mother’s antibodies, e.g. IgA.
  3. The fat content in colostrum is low.
  4. The antibodies present in colostrum helps in developing resistance for the newborn baby at a time when its own immune response is not fully developed.

5. Answer the Following Questions

Question 1.
Describe the phases of menstrual cycle and their hormonal control.
Answer:
Menstrual cycle (Ovarian cycle):
i. Menstrual cycle involves a series of cyclic, changes in the ovary and uterus. The cyclic events are regulated by gonadotropins from pituitary and the hormones from ovary.
ii. The cyclic events in woman are repeated within approximately 28 days.
iii. Menstrual cycle is divided into following phases, viz.

  1. Menstrual phase (Day 1-5)
  2. Follicular phase in ovary that coincides with proliferative phase in uterus. Post menstrual phase (Day 5-14)
  3. Ovulatory phase (Day 14-15)
  4. Luteal phase in ovary which coincides with secretory phase in uterus (Day 16 to 28).

1. Menstrual Phase:

  • Menstrual phase occurs in the absence of fertilization.
  • During menstruation, uterine endometrium is sloughed off. Level of progesterone and estrogen decrease during this phase resulting into release of prostaglandins which cause this rupture.
  • Blood about 45-100 ml, tissue fluid, mucus, endometrial lining and unfertilized oocyte and other cellular debris is discharged through vagina as a menstrual flow. The endometrial lining becomes about 1 mm thin.
  • Fibrinolysin does not allow blood to clot during this period.
  • Pituitary starts secreting FSH, which further makes many primordial follicles to develop into primary and few of them into secondary follicles.

2. Proliferative phase/Follicular phase/Post menstrual phase:

  • During this phase in the ovary the follicles develop while in uterus the endometrium starts proliferating. 6 to 12 secondary follicles start developing but usually only one of them becomes Graafian follicle due to action of FSH.
  • Developing secondary follicles secrete the hormone estrogen.
  • Estrogen brings about regeneration of endometrium. Further proliferation of endometrium causes formation of endothelial cells, endometrial or uterine glands and network of blood vessels. Endometrium’s thickness becomes 3-5 mm.

(3) Ovulatory phase:

  • Ovulation occurs in this phase. Mature Graafian follicle ruptures and secondary oocyte is released into the pelvic region of abdomen.
  • Ovulation occurs due to surging quantity of LH from pituitary.

(4) Luteal phase/Secretary phase :
(i) Since the empty Graafian follicle converts itself into corpus luteum under the influence of LH, this phase is called luteal phase in ovary. At the same time, the uterine endometrium thickens and becomes more secretory and hence it is called secretory phase in uterus.

(ii) Corpus luteum secretes progesterone, some amount of estrogens and inhibin. These hormones stimulate the growth of endometrial glands which later start uterine secretions.

(iii) Endometrium becomes more vascularized becomes 8-10 mm. in thickness. These changes are the preparation for the implantation of the ovum if fertilization occurs.

(iv) In absence of fertilization, corpus luteum can survive for only two weeks and then degenerate into a non-secretory white scar called corpus albicans.

(v) If ovum is fertilized, woman becomes pregnant and hormone hCG (human Chorionic Gonadotropin) is secreted by chorionic membrane of embryo which keeps corpus luteum active till the formation of placenta.

Question 2.
Explain the steps of parturition.
Answer:
Parturition involves the following three steps:
1. Dilation stage:

  • Dilation stage means dilating the birth canal or passage though which baby is pushed out. In the beginning uterine contractions start from top and baby is moved to cervix. Due to compression of blood vessels and movements of flexible joints in pelvic girdle, mother experiences labour pains.
  • Oxytocin is secreted later in more amount causing severe uterine contractions. This pushes baby in a head down position and closer to cervix.
  • Cervix and vagina both are dilated.
  • This stage lasts for about 12 hours.
  • At the end, amniotic sac ruptures and amniotic fluid is passed out.

2. Expulsion stage:

  • During second stage of about 20 to 60 minutes, the uterine and abdominal contractions become stronger.
  • Foetus moves out with head down position through cervix and vagina.
  • The umbilical cord which connects the baby to placenta is tied and cut off close to the baby’s navel.

3. After birth or placental stage : In the last stage of 10 to 45 minutes, once the baby is out then the placenta is also separated from uterine wall and is expelled out as “after birth”. This is accompanied by severe contractions of the uterus.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 2 Reproduction in Lower and Higher Animals

Question 3.
Explain the histological structure of testis.
Answer:
Histological structure of testis:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Biology Important Questions Chapter 2 Reproduction in Lower and Higher Animals 3

  1. The external covering of testis is a fibrous connective tissue called tunica albuginea.
  2. Then there is an incomplete peritoneal covering called tunica vaginalis.
  3. Interior to this there is a covering called tunica vascularis formed by capillaries.
  4. The testis is composed of many seminiferous tubules that are lined by cuboidal germinal epithelial cells.
  5. In the seminiferous tubules various stages of developing sperms are seen as spermatogenesis takes place here. These stages are spermatogonia, primary and secondary spermatocytes, spermatids and sperms.
  6. Large, pyramidal sub tentacular cells, nurse cells or Sertoli cells are present between germinal epithelium. Sperm bundles remain attached to Sertoli cells with their heads.
  7. Seminiferous tubules form sperms whereas Sertoli cells provide nourishment to the sperms till maturation.
  8. In between the seminiferous tubules there are interstitial cells of Leydig which are endocrine in nature. They secrete testosterone.

Question 4.
Describe the structure of blastocyst or blastulation
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Biology Important Questions Chapter 2 Reproduction in Lower and Higher Animals 4

  1. The outer layer of cells of the morula is called trophoblast or trophoectoderm. This layer absorbs the nutritive fluid secreted by uterine endometrial membrane.
  2. As more and more fluid is absorbed by trophoblast cells, the cells become flat and a cavity called blastocyst cavity or blastocoel or segmentation cavity is formed.
  3. This causes trophoblast cells to get separated from inner cell mass except at one side.
  4. The trophoblast cells in contact with embryonal knob are known as cells of Rauber. As the quantity of fluid increases, the morula enlarges rapidly and assumes the shape of a cyst. This stage is called blastocyst.
  5. The side of the blastocyst to which embryonal knob is attached is known as the embryonic or animal pole and the opposite side as abembryonic pole.
  6. The trophoblast produces extra embryonic membranes and does not participate in the formation of embryo proper.
  7. Zona pellucida disappears allowing the blastula to increase in size and volume. The blastocyst stage is reached in about five days after fertilization.
  8. Blastocyst depends on mother for nutrition which it obtained through placenta.

Question 5.
Explain the histological structure of ovary in human.
Answer:
Histological structure of ovary:
(1) Each ovary is a compact structure differentiated into a central part called medulla and the outer part called cortex.

(2) The cortex is covered externally by a layer of germinal epithelium while the medulla contains the stroma or loose connective tissue with blood vessels, lymph vessels and nerve fibres.

(3) Different stages of developing ovarian follicles are seen in the cortex. Each primordial follicle has at its centre a large primary oocyte (2n) surrounded by a single layer of flat follicular cells, then gradually it matures.

(4) In the ovary during each menstrual cycle there is a maturation of primordial follicles into multilayered primary, secondary and Graafian follicles.

(5) Every Graafian follicle has three layers, viz. theca externa, theca interna and membrana granulosa which are from outer to inner side. A space called antrum filled with liquor folliculi is present inside the follicle. There is a small hillock of cells called cumulus oophours or discus proligerus over which the ovum is lodged. The ovum in turn is covered by vitelline membrane, zona pellucida and corona radiata from inner side to outer surface.

(6) Ovarian cortex also shows corpus luteum, or yellow body formed from empty Graafian follicle after ovulation. Corpus luteum is converted into corpus albicans or white body in case of absence of conception.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Biology Important Questions Chapter 2 Reproduction in Lower and Higher Animals 5

Question 6.
Describe the various methods of birth control to avoid pregnancy.
Answer:
Birth control/Contraceptive methods are of two main types, viz. temporary and permanent.
A. Temporary methods:
(1) Natural method/Safe period/Rhythm method : A week before and a week after menstrual bleeding is considered the safe period for sexual intercourse. It is based on the fact that ovulation occurs on the 14th day of menstrual cycle.

(2) Coitus Interruptus or withdrawal : In this method, the male partner withdraws his penis from the vagina before ejaculation, so as to avoid insemination. This method also has some drawbacks, as the pre-ejaculation fluid may contain sperms and this can cause fertilization.

(3) Lactational amenorrhoea (absence of menstruation) : This method is based on the fact that ovulation does not occur during the period of intense lactation following parturition so chances of conception are almost negligible. However, this method also has high chances of failure.

(4) Chemical means (spermicides) : In this method chemicals like foam, tablets, jellies and creams are introduced into the vagina before sexual intercourse, they adhere to the mucous membrane, immobilize and kill the sperms.

(5) Mechanical means/Barrier methods:
(i) Condom : It is a thin rubber sheath that is used to cover the penis of the male. Condom should be used before starting coital activity. It also prevents STDs and AIDS.

(ii) Diaphragm, cervical caps and vaults : These devices made of rubber are inserted into the female reproductive tract to cover the cervix diming copulation. They prevent conception by blocking the entry of sperms through the cervix.

(iii) Intra-uterine devices (IUDs) : These are plastic or metal objects placed in the uterus by a doctor. These include Lippes loop, copper releasing IUDs (Cu-T, Cu 7, multiload 375) and hormone releasing IUDs (LNG-20, progestasert). They prevent fertilization of the egg or implantation of the embryo.

(6) Physiological (Oral) Devices : Birth control pills (oral contraceptive pills) check ovulation as they inhibit the secretion of follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) that are necessary for ovulation. The pill ‘Saheli’ is taken weekly.

(7) Other contraceptives : The birth control implant is similar to that of pills in their mode of action. It is implanted under the skin of the upper arm of the female.

B. Permanent methods surgical operations : In men surgical operation is called vasectomy and in women it is called tubectomy. This method blocks gamete transport and prevent pregnancy.

Question 7.
What are the goals of RCH programmes?
Answer:
Goals of RCH programmes are as follows:

  1. Various aspects related to reproduction are made aware to general public.
  2. Facilities are provided to people to understand and build up reproductive health.
  3. Support is given for building up a reproductively healthy society.
  4. Three critical health indicators, i.e. reducing total infertility rate, infant mortality rate and maternal mortality rate are well looked after.

Question 8.
What is parturition? Which hormones are involved in parturition?
Answer:

  1. Parturition is the act of expelling out the mature foetus from the uterus of mother via the vagina.
  2. When the foetus is fully mature, it starts secreting ACTH (Adreno Cortico Trophic Hormone) from its pituitary.
  3. ACTH stimulates adrenal glands of foetus to produce corticosteroids.
  4. These corticosteroids diffuse from foetal blood to mother’s blood across the placenta. Corticosteroids accumulate in mother’s blood that results in decreased amount of progesterone. Corticosteroids also increase secretion of prostaglandins.
  5. Simultaneously estrogen levels rise bringing about initation of contractions of uterine muscular wall.
  6. Reduced progesterone level and increased estrogen level cause secretion of oxytocin from mother’s pituitary. This causes greater stimulation of myometrium of uterus.
  7. Prostaglandins cause increased forceful contraction of uterus which expels the foetus out of the uterus.
  8. Hormone relaxin secreted by the placenta makes the pubic ligaments and sacroiliac joints of the mother loosen. This causes widening of birth canal which facilitates the normal birth of the baby.

Question 9.
What are the functions of male accessory glands?
OR
Write a brief account of accessory sex glands associated with human male reproductive system.
Answer:
Seminal Vesicles, prostate gland and Cowper’s glands are associated with human male reproductive system.
(i) Seminal Vesicles:

  1. Seminal vesicles occur in pair present on the posterior side of urinary bladder. Its secretion consists about 60% of the total volume of the semen. The secretion is an alkaline seminal fluid containing fructose, fibrinogen and prostaglandins.
  2. Fructose helps in the movement of sperms by providing energy to them.
  3. Semen is coagulated in bolus by fibrinogen. This helps in faster movements of sperms in vagina after insemination.
  4. Reverse peristalsis in vagina and uterus for faster movement of sperms towards the egg in the female body is elided by prostaglandins.

(ii) Prostate gland:

  1. It is a single gland located under the urinary bladder. It has about 20 to 30 separate lobes which open separately into the urethra.
  2. Prostatic fluid secreted by this gland is milky white and slightly acidic. It forms 30 % of the semen and is secreted in urethra.
  3. Its contents are citric acid, acid phosphatase and various other enzymes.
  4. The sperms are protected from the acidic environment of vagina by acid phosphatase.

(iii) Cowper’s glands (Bulbo-urethral glands):

  1. Cowper’s glands occur in pair on either side of urethra. They are small and pea shaped.
  2. Cowper’s glands secrete an alkaline, viscous, mucous-like fluid. It helps as lubricant during copulation.

Question 10.
What is capacitation? Give its importance.
Answer:

  1. Capacitation is the process by which the sperms are made capable to swim up to the fallopian tubes. This process takes place in 5-6 hours.
  2. 50% of ejaculated sperms die due to unfavourable vaginal and uterine conditions.
  3. The remaining sperms are capacitated with the help of prostaglandin and vestibular secretions of female tract. It involves the changes in the membrane covering the acrosome.
  4. Due to capacitation, acrosome membrane becomes thin, Calcium ions enters the sperm and their tail begin to show rapid whiplash movements.
  5. Sperms become extra active and then they ascend upwards to reach fallopian tubes.
  6. After capacitation the sperms swim through the vagina and uterus and reach ampulla of fallopian tube within 5 minutes.

Long answer questions

Question 1.
Explain the following parts of male reproductive system along with labelled diagram showing these parts – Testis, vasa deferentia, epididymis, seminal vesicle, prostate gland and penis.
OR
With the help of a neat, labelled diagram, describe the human male reproductive system.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Biology Important Questions Chapter 2 Reproduction in Lower and Higher Animals 6
(i) Testis, the male gonad, the accessory ducts and glands along with external genitalia form the male reproductive system.

(ii) Testes:

  1. Testes are male gonads with dimensions of about 4.5. cm length, 2.5 cm width and 3 cm thickness.
  2. There are about 200 to 300 lobules in each testis in which there are seminiferous tubules that form rete testis.
  3. Testes produce sperms and secrete male sex hormone, androgen or testosterone.

(iii) Accessory ducts : Rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis, vas deferens, ejaculatory duct and urethra together form the accessory ducts of male reproductive system.
1. Vasa efferentia : Vasa efferentia are 12-20 fine tubules. They arise from rete testis and end into the epididymis. The sperms from the testis are carried by these ducts to the epididymis.

2. Epididymis : Epididymis are long and coiled tubes having three parts, viz. caput, corpus and cauda epididymis. They are located on the posterior border of each testis. The sperms undergo maturation in epididymis.

3. Vasa deferentia:

  • Vasa deferentia are a pair of 40 cm long tubular structures that arise from cauda epididymis.
  • Each vas deferens enters the abdominal cavity through the inguinal canal and then ascends in the form of spermatic cord.
  • Vas deferens of each side is joined by the duct from seminal vesicle to form ejaculatory duct.

4. Ejaculatory duct : About 2 cm long pair of ducts formed by joining of vas deferens and a duct of seminal vesicle are the ejaculatory ducts. Both ejaculatory ducts open into urethra near the prostate gland. Seminal fluid containing spermatozoa are carried by ejaculatory duct to the urethra.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 2 Reproduction in Lower and Higher Animals

5. Urethra : The male urethra provides a common passage for the urine and semen hence is also called urinogenital duct.

(iv) Accessory glands : Associated with male reproductive system are : (a) Seminal vesicles (b) Prostate gland and (c) Cowper’s or Bulbourethral glands. Every accessory gland has secretion which helps in functions of reproductive system.

(v) External genitalia : External genitalia consists of penis and scrotum.
1. Penis:

  • Penis is the copulatory organ used for insemination or deposition of sperms in female genital tract.
  • It is cylindrical, erectile and pendulous organ through which passes the urethra.
  • It contains three columns of erectile tissues which has abundant blood sinuses.
  • The tip is called glans penis while the retractible fold of skin on penis is called prepuce.

2. Scrotum : The scrotum is a pouch of pigmented skin arising from lower abdominal wall. It protects testes within it. Scrotum acts as thermoregulator. Testis are suspended in scrotum by spermatic cord.

Question 2.
Describe female reproductive system of human
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Biology Important Questions Chapter 2 Reproduction in Lower and Higher Animals 7
The female reproductive system consists of internal organs and external genitalia.

Internal organs are pair of ovaries and pair of fallopian ducts or oviducts, single median uterus and vagina. External genitalia is called vulva. There are a pair of vestibular glands in external genitalia. Mammary glands or breasts are also associated with reproductive system of female.

(1) Ovaries:

  • Ovaries are situated in the abdomen in upper lateral part of the pelvis near the kidneys. Their dimensions are about 3 cm in length, 1.5 cm in breadth and 1.0 cm thick. They are solid, oval or almond shaped organs.
  • Ovaries produce ova and they are also endocrine in nature as they produce estrogen, progesterone, relaxin, activin and inhibin.
  • Ovarian hormones bring about secondary sexual characters. They also control menstrual cycle, pregnancy and parturition.

(2) Fallopian tubes/oviducts:
(i) Fallopian tubes lie horizontally over peritoneal cavity. These are about 10 to 12 cm long, narrow, muscular structure lined by ciliated epithelium.
(ii) They transport the ovum after ovulation from the ovary to the uterus.
(iii) Fallopian tube can be subdivided into the following three parts:

  • The infundibulum which bears a number of finger-like processes called fimbriae at its free border.
  • Infundibulum is funnel-shaped having ostium which receives ova released from the ovary.
  • The second part is the ampulla where the fertilization takes place.
  • The last part is short cornua or isthmus which opens into the uterus.

(3) Uterus/Womb:
(i) Uterus is a pear-shaped, highly muscular, thick walled, hollow organ measuring about 8 cm in length, 5 cm in width and 2 cm in thickness.

(ii) Uterus has the following three parts : Fundus, Body or corpus and Cervix.

(iii) The cervix communicates above with the body of the uterus by an aperture, the internal os and with vagina below by an opening the external os.

(iv) Uterus has three-layered wall. These layers are:

  • Perimetrium : An outer serous layer.
  • Myometrium : The middle thick muscular layer of smooth muscles.
  • Endometrium : The inner highly vascular mucosa that has many uterine glands.

(v) Uterus receives the ovum from fallopian tube. It develops placenta during pregnancy for the nourishment of foetus. At the time of parturition, it expels the young one at birth.

(4) Vagina:

  • Vagina is a highly distensible fibro-muscular tube that lies between the cervix and the vestibule.
  • It is about 7 to 9 cm in length and is internally lined by stratified and non- keratinised epithelium. The vaginal wall has inner mucous lining.
  • Vagina acts as a birth canal as well as copulatory passage. It also allows passage of menstrual flow.
  • Vagina opens into vestibule by vaginal orifice which may be covered with hymen which is also a mucous membrane.

(5) External genitalia or vulva or pudendum : The external genitalia consists of five parts; viz. labia majora, labia minora, mons veneris, clitoris and vestibule.

(6) A pair of vestibular glands / Bartholin’s glands : These glands open into the vestibule and release a lubricating fluid.

(7) A pair of mammary glands/breasts : These are the accessory organs of female reproductive system for production and release of milk after parturition.

Question 3.
Describe the process of fertilization.
Answer:
(1) Fertilization is the process of fusion of the haploid male and female gametes which results in the formation of a diploid zygote (2n).

(2) In human beings fertilization is internal. Sperms deposited in vagina, swim across the uterus and fertilize the ovum in ampulla of the fallopian tube.

(3) Fertilization involves the following events:
(i) Insemination : Discharge of semen into the vagina at the time of copulation is called insemination.

(ii) Movement of sperm towards egg : Sperms reaching the vagina undergo capacitation process for 5-6 hours. During capacitation acrosomal membrane of sperm becomes thin and Ca++ enters the sperm making it extra active. Sperms reach up to the ampulla by swimming aided with contraction of uterus and fallopian tubes. These contractions are stimulated by oxytocin of female. By capacitation sperm can reach ampulla within 5 minutes, they remain 5 viable for 24 to 48 hours, whereas ovum remains viable for 24 hours.

(iii) Entry of sperm into the egg : Though many sperms reach the ampulla, only a single sperm fertilizes the ovum. The acrosome of sperm after coming in contact with the ovum, releases lysins; hyaluronidase and corona penetrating enzymes. Due to these enzymes cells of corona radiata are separated and dissolved. The sperm head then passes through zona pellucida of egg. The zona pellucida has glycoprotein fertilizin receptor proteins. These bind to specific acid protein-antifertilizin of sperm. This makes sperm and ovum to come together. Fertilizin-Antifertilizin interaction is species- specific.

(iv) Acrosome reaction : When the sperm head comes in contact with the zona pellucida, its acrosome covering ruptures to release lytic enzymes, acrosin or zona lysin. These enzymes dissolve plasma membrane of egg so that the sperm nucleus and the centrioles enter the egg, while other parts remain outside. Now the vitelline membrane of egg changes into fertilization membrane which prevents any further entry of other sperms into the egg, thus polyspermy is prevented.

(v) Activation of ovum : After the entry of sperm head into ovum, it gets activated to resume and complete its meiosis-II. With this it gives out the second polar body. The germinal vesicle organises into female pronucleus. At this stage, it is true ovum.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Biology Important Questions Chapter 2 Reproduction in Lower and Higher Animals 8

(vi) Fusion of egg and sperm : The coverings of male and female pronuclei degenerate results in the formation of a synkaryon by a process called syngamy or karyogamy. The zygote is thus formed.

Question 4.
Explain the process by which zygote divides and redivides to form the morula.
Answer:
(1) Cleavage is a rapid mitotic division to form a blastula. These divisions takes place immediately after fertilization. The cells formed by cleavage are called blastomeres.

(2) The type of cleavage in human is holoblastic, i.e. the whole zygote gets divided, radial and indeterminate, i.e. fate of each blastomere is not predetermined.

(3) Cleavage show faster synthesis of DNA and high consumption of oxygen.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 2 Reproduction in Lower and Higher Animals

(4) Since there is no growth phase between the cleavages, the size of blastomeres will be reduced with every successive cleavage.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Biology Important Questions Chapter 2 Reproduction in Lower and Higher Animals 9

(5) The cleavages occur as follows:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Biology Important Questions Chapter 2 Reproduction in Lower and Higher Animals 10

(6) Successive divisions produce a solid ball of cells called morula of 16 cells. It consists of an outer layer of smaller clearer cells and an inner mass of larger cells.

(7) Morula reaches the uterus about 4-6 days after fertilization.

12th Std Biology Questions And Answers:

12th Biology Chapter 14 Exercise Ecosystems and Energy Flow Solutions Maharashtra Board

Class 12 Biology Chapter 14

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Biology Textbook Solutions Chapter 14 Ecosystems and Energy Flow Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Ecosystems and Energy Flow Class 12 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Class 12 Biology Chapter 14 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Biology Class 12 Chapter 14 Exercise Solutions

1. Multiple choice questions

Question 1.
Which one of the following has the largest population in a food chain?
(a) Producers
(b) Primary consumers
(c) Secondary consumers
(d) Decomposers
Answer:
(a) Producers

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 14 Ecosystems and Energy Flow

Question 2.
The second trophic level in a lake is ……………………
(a) Phytoplankton
(b) Zooplankton
(c) Benthos
(d) Fishes
Answer:
(b) Zooplankton

Question 3.
Secondary consumers are …………………….
(a) Herbivores
(b) Producers
(c) Carnivores
(d) Autotrophs
Answer:
(c) Carnivores

Question 4.
What is the % of photosynthetically active radiation in the incident solar radiation?
(a) 100%
(b) 50%
(c) 1-5%
(d) 2-10%
Answer:
(b) 50%

Question 5.
Give the term used to express a community in its final stage of succession?
(a) End community
(b) Final community
(c) Climax community
(d) Dark community
Answer:
(c) Climax community

Question 6.
After landslide which of the following type of succession occurs?
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) Climax
Answer:
(a) Primary

Question 7.
Which of the following is most often a limiting factor of the primary productivity in any ecosystem?
(a) Carbon
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Phosphorus
(d) Sulphur
Answer:
(c) Phosphorus

2. Very short answer question.

Question 1.
Give an example of ecosystem which shows inverted pyramid of numbers.
Answer:
Number of insects dependent on a single tree, is an example of ecosystem having inverted pyramid of numbers.

Question 2.
Give an example of ecosystem which shows inverted pyramid of biomass.
Answer:
Oceanic ecosystem has inverted pyramid of biomass.

Question 3.
Which mineral acts as limiting factor for productivity in an aquatic ecosystem?
Answer:
Phosphorus acts as limiting factor for productivity in an aquatic ecosystem.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 14 Ecosystems and Energy Flow

Question 4.
Name the reservoir and sink of carbon in carbon cycle.
Answer:
Atmosphere is the reservoir of carbon cycle, while fossil fuels embedded in ocean and oceanic waters are the sink of carbon in carbon cycle.

3. Short answer questions.

Question 1.
Upright and inverted pyramid of biomass.
Answer:

Upright pyramid Inverted pyramid
1. In upright pyramid, the number and biomass of the organisms which are at first trophic level of producers is high. 1. In inverted pyramid, the number and biomass of organisms at first trophic levels of producers is lowest.
2. The biomass goes on decreasing at each trophic level. 2. The biomass foes on increasing at each trophic level.
3. The base of the pyramid is always in large number of producers. 3. The base of pyramid is always in small numbers of producers.
4. Pyramid is always upright. 4. Pyramid is always inverted.

Question 2.
Food chain and Food web.
Answer:

Food chain Food web
1. Food chain is the linear sequence of organisms for feeding purpose. 1. Food web is interconnections between many small food chains.
2. In food chain the flow of energy is through a single straight pathway from the lower trophic level to the higher trophic level. 2. In food web, the energy flow is interconnected through numerous food chains in the ecosystem.
3. In a food chain, members present at higher trophic level feeds on only single type of organisms. 3. In a food web, one organism can feed on multiple types of organisms.
4. Energy flow can be easily calculated in food chain. 4. Energy flow is difficult to calculate in a food web.
5. In food chain there is increased instability due to increasing number of separate and confined food chains. 5. In food web there is increased stability due to the presence of the complex food chains.
6. The whole food chain gets affected even if one group of an organism is disturbed. 6. The food web does not get disturbed by the removal of one group of organisms.
7. Member of higher trophic level depends or feed upon the single type of organisms of the lower trophic level. 7. The members of higher trophic level depend or feed upon many different types of the organism of the lower trophic level.
8. Food chain consists of only 4-6 trophic levels of different species. 8. Food web contains numerous trophic levels and also of different populations of species.
9. Competition is seen in members of same trophic level. 9. Competition is seen in members of same as well as different trophic levels.
10. Food chains are of two types:

1. Grazing food chain 2. Detritus food chain.

10. In food web there are no types.

4. Long answer questions

Question 1.
Define ecological pyramids and describe with examples, pyramids of number and biomass.
Answer:
1. Ecological Pyramids : Ecological Pyramids are the representation of relationships between different components of ecosystem at successive trophic levels.

2. Pyramid of numbers:

  • Pyramid of numbers is the diagrammatic representation which shows the relationship between producers, herbivores and carnivores at successive trophic levels in terms of their numbers.
  • As we go up the trophic levels, the interdependent organisms keep on reducing in their numbers.
  • For example, the number of grasses are more than the number of herbivores which eat them. The number of herbivores such as rabbits would be lesser than grass but greater than the carnivores that are dependent upon the population of rabbits.
  • Thus, the producers would be more than primary consumers and primary consumers would be more than secondary consumers. The top level consumers would be least in their numbers. This pyramid shows upright nature.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 14 Ecosystems and Energy Flow

3. Pyramid of biomass:
(1) Pyramid of biomass are constructed by taking into consideration the different biomass in every successive trophic level.
(2) Pyramid of biomass in seas in inverted as the biomass of fishes is more than the biomass of phytoplankton.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 14 Ecosystems and Energy Flow 1

Question 2.
What is primary productivity? Give brief description of factors that affect primary productivity.
Answer:
(1) Primary Productivity : The rate of generation of biomass in an ecosystem which is expressed in units of mass per unit surface (or volume) per unit time, for instance grams per square metre per day (g/m²/day) is called primary productivity.

(2) Primary productivity is described as gross primary productivity (GPP) and net primary productivity (NPP).

(3) The rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis is called gross primary productivity of an ecosystem. Of this the amount of energy lost through respiration of plants is called respiratory losses.

(4) Gross primary productivity minus respiratory losses gives the net primary productivity (NPP).

(5) Net primary productivity is the available biomass for the consumption to heterotrophs (herbivores, carnivores and decomposers).

(6) Factors affecting primary productivity: Gross primary productivity (GPP) depends on the following factors:

  • Plant species inhabiting a particular area.
  • Variety of environmental factors such as temperature, sunlight, salinity, oxygen and carbon dioxide content, etc.
  • Availability of nutrients and
  • Photosynthetic capacity of plants.

Question 3.
Define decomposition and describe the processes and products of decomposition.
Answer:

  1. Decomposition is the process carried out by the decomposer organisms.
  2. Most of the bacteria, actinomycetes and fungi are decomposers. They convert the dead and decaying organic matter into simpler compounds. These simpler inorganic substances return back to the environment.
  3. Decomposition takes place through detritus food chain. It starts from the dead organic matter. Detritus eating organisms called detritivores like earthworm, etc. breakdown the detritus into smaller fragments. Therefore, this first step of decomposition is called fragmentation.
  4. Water soluble inorganic nutrients seep into the soil after fragmentation. These nutrients get precipitated as salts. Therefore, this second step of decomposition is called leaching.
  5. The third step of decomposition is called catabolism. In this step, fungal and bacterial enzymes degrade the detritus into simple inorganic substances.
  6. The partially decomposed organic matter is called humus which is formed by the process of humification. Humus is a dark coloured amorphous substance which is the reservoir of nutrients.
  7. Humus too undergoes decomposition by bacterial action at a very slow rate and ultimately releases inorganic matter. This process is therefore called mineralization.
  8. Decomposition requires oxygen in greater amount. The rate of decomposition is dependent upon the temperature and the humidity of the environment.

Question 4.
Write important features of a sedimentary cycle in an ecosystem.
Answer:

  1. Reservoir of sedimentary cycles is earth’s crust.
  2. The nutrients such as phosphorus which show sedimentary cycle, moves through hydrosphere, lithosphere and biosphere.
  3. There is no respiratory release of nutrients into the atmosphere which show sedimentary cycle.
  4. Natural reservoir of such nutrients are usually in the form of rocks. The rocks upon weathering release such nutrients into circulation.
  5. Sedimentary cycles are very slow in their reactions.

Question 5.
Describe carbon cycle and add a note on the impact of human activities on carbon cycle.
Answer:
I. Carbon cycle:
(1) The entire carbon cycle has following basic processes viz. Photosynthesis, Respiration, Decomposition, Sedimentation and Combustion.

(2) Carbon is an important element as it forms 49% of the dry weight of all organisms. 71% of global carbon is present in the oceans. Therefore, ocean is the major reservoir of carbon. Carbon is also present in all fossil fuels. This is long term storage places or sinks for carbon which is in the form of coal, natural gas, etc.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 14 Ecosystems and Energy Flow

(3) Respiration and photosynthesis are the two events that keep the carbon in cyclic circulation. During respiration, oxygen is used for combustion of carbohydrates as a result of which carbon dioxide and water are formed with the release of energy. The process of photosynthesis utilizes carbon dioxide and water vapour liberating oxygen and producing carbohydrates at the same time.

(4) Solar energy is stored in the carbon-carbon bonds of carbohydrates during photosynthesis whereas respiration releases the same stored energy.

(5) The main reservoirs for carbon dioxide are in the oceans and in rocks. Carbon dioxide is highly soluble in water and forms mild carbonic acid upon dissolving. This dissolved carbon dioxide precipitate as a solid rock or limestone which is calcium carbonate. This reaction in the seas is aided by corals and algae which in turn builds the coral reefs made up of limestone.

(6) Carbon moves through food chains. Autotrophic green plants on land and in water take up carbon dioxide and manufacture carbohydrates by the process of photosynthesis. The carbon stored in plants has three different fates, viz. liberation into atmosphere, consumption by animals upon feeding, storage in the plant till the plant dies.

(7) Animals get their carbon requirement through their food. When autotrophs are consumed, the heterotrophs obtain carbon. Carbon in animals also has three fates, viz. release back into the atmosphere in the process of respiration, release of stored carbon from the body by the action of decomposers or conversion into fossil fuels if buried intact.

(8) Fossil fuels such as coal, oil, natural gas, etc. can be mined and burned for energy purposes. This burning releases carbon dioxide back into the atmosphere.

(9) Carbon from limestone can also be released if pushed to the surfaces and slowly weathered away. Subducting and volcanic eruptions can also release the stored carbon from sediments.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 14 Ecosystems and Energy Flow 2

II. Impact of human activities on carbon cycle:
(1) Excessive burning of fossils fuels for power plants, industrial processes and vehicular traffic, adds excessive carbon dioxide into atmosphere. When fossil fuels burn to run factories, power plants, motor vehicles, most of the carbon quickly enters the atmosphere as carbon dioxide gas.

(2) Each year, 5.5 billion tonnes of carbon is released through combustion of fossil fuels. Of this massive amount, 3.3 billion tonnes stays in the atmosphere.

(3) Rapid deforestation also increases carbon dioxide. Since plants absorb carbon dioxide for their photosynthesis, they always reduce the concentration of CO2. But deforestation upsets this balance.

(4) Massive burning of fossil fuel for energy and transport, have significantly increased the rate of release of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere which is causing global warming and resultant climate change.

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