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Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Solutions Chapter 9 Economic Policy of India Since 1991 Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Solutions Chapter 9 Economic Policy of India Since 1991

1. Complete the following statements by choosing the correct alternative:

Question 1.
After Independence, India had adopted ____________
(a) Socialism
(b) Capitalism
(c) Mixed Economy
(d) Communism
Answer:
(c) Mixed economy

Question 2.
The new economic policy approved foreign technology in ____________
(a) Cottage industries
(b) Small scale industries
(c) Micro enterprises
(d) High priority industries
Answer:
(d) High priority industries

Question 3.
At present, the number of industries reserved for public sector has been reduced to ____________
(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 2
Answer:
(d) 2

2. Assertion and Reasoning questions:

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Delicensing of industries was an important step taken under liberalization.
Reasoning (R): Unwanted controls and restrictions led to economic stagnation prior to 1991.
(a) (A) is TRUE but (R) is FALSE
(b) (A) is FALSE but (R) is TRUE
(c) (A) and (R) both are TRUE and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(d) (A) and (R) both are TRUE but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Answer:
(c) (A) and (R) both are TRUE and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Question 2.
Assertion (A): In 1990-91, India faced an acute shortage of foreign exchange reserves.
Reasoning (R): Import quotas and tariffs led to an increase in imports.
(a) (A) is TRUE but (R) is FALSE
(b) (A) is FALSE but (R) is TRUE
(c) (A) and (R) both are TRUE and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(d) (A) and (R) both are TRUE but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Answer:
(a) (A) is TRUE but (R) is FALSE

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Post liberalization, the sale of domestic goods has increased.
Reasoning (R): The demand for imported goods had increased due to liberal policy.
(a) (A) is TRUE but (R) is FALSE
(b) (A) is FALSE but (R) is TRUE
(c) (A) and (R) both are TRUE and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(d) (A) and (R) both are TRUE but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Answer:
(b) (A) is FALSE but (R) is TRUE

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Due to Globalisation, a country cannot achieve self-sufficiency in food production.
Reasoning (R): Globalisation has created a revolution in the IT sector.
(a) (A) is TRUE but (R) is FALSE
(b) (A) is FALSE but (R) is TRUE
(c) (A) and (R) both are TRUE and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(d) (A) and (R) both are TRUE but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Answer:
(d) (A) and (R) both are TRUE but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

3. Find the odd word out:

Question 1.
New Economic Policy – Liberalization, Privatization, Demonetization, Globalisation
Answer:
Demonetization

Question 2.
Industries requiring compulsory licensing – defense equipment, agro-based industries, cigarettes, industrial explosives
Answer:
agro-based industries

Question 3.
Navratna status companies – SPCL, IOC, ONGC, HPCL
Answer:
SPCL

Question 4.
Liberalization dealt with the following – MRTP, FERA, SEBI, NTPC
Answer:
NTPC

4. Identify and explain the concepts from the given illustrations:

Question 1.
Vehicles manufactured by various automobile companies are now available in India.
Answer:
Globalization.
Globalization means the interaction of the domestic economy with the rest of the world with regard to foreign investment, trade, production, and financial matters.

Question 2.
Government equity in some public sector enterprises is sold to the private sector.
Answer:
Disinvestment.
A disinvestment is an act of selling shares of sick public sector units to the private sector.
Eg. Disinvestment of Maruti, ITDC hotels, VSNL, etc.

Question 3.
Foreign investments are encouraged on a large scale in the industrial sector of India.
Answer:
Foreign Direct Investment (FDI).
FDI was approved under the Industrial Policy of 1991, to encourage investment in high-priority industries which require high investment and technology.

5. State with reasons whether you agree or disagree with the following statements:

Question 1.
Liberalization has permitted the use of foreign technology.
Answer:

• Yes, I do agree with the statement.
• Liberalization has encouraged foreign technology.
• Foreign technology is allowed in high-priority industries.
• Foreign technology helps to reduce the cost and make the industries competitive.

Question 2.
The government has given private enterprises free access to the public sector.
Answer:
Yes, I do agree with the statement.

• 17 industries were reserved for the public sector under the Industrial Policy of 1956.
• But in NEP – 1991, the number of public sector industries reduced from 17 to 2.
• Railway transport and atomic energy are reserved for the public sector.
• The involvement of the private sector in economic activities has increased after NEP.

Question 3.
Government has a monopoly in the insurance sector.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with the statement.

• The insurance sector was a monopoly of the Government till 1991.
• In 1991IRDA (Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act) was introduced.
• The IRDA has given licenses to many private companies to start insurance businesses in India.
• Due to the entry of private companies, the monopoly of government has come to an end.

Question 4.
The creation of the National Renewal Board (NRB) was done to remove poverty.
Answer:
Yes, I do agree with the statement.

• Under the public sector, some units were closed due to loss.
• The workers of these units had to face the problem of unemployment and poverty.
• To solve this problem, the government has been formed. National Renewal Board (NRB).
• NRB provides compensation to retrenched workers which help to reduce poverty in the country.

Question 5.
Indian Oil Corporation is one of the public sector units among ‘Navratnas’.
Answer:
Yes, I do agree with the statement.

• Navratnas are the Public Sector Units (PSUs).
• In 1997-98, Nine PSUs were selected for Navratna status.
• These PSUs were selected on the basis of their performance.
• These Navratnas were given full financial and managerial autonomy.

6. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Explain the features of the New Economic Policy of 1991.
Answer:
The process of the new economic policy started in 1985 and got momentum in 1991.

Features of Economic Policy, 1991:

• Delicensing: The new industrial policy abolished all industrial licensing, except 18 specified industries related to security and strategic concerns and social reasons.
• Abolition of MRTP Act: No prior approval of the MRTP commission is now required for setting up industrial units by the large business houses.
• Encouragement to Small Scale Industries (SSI): The investment limit of the SSI has been increased up to 5 crores which will help to upgrade their machinery.
• Encouraging Foreign Investment: Many industrial units were open to foreign investment under the 1991 policy. The limit was raised to 51% and 100% in some industries and 100% in mining, pollution control equipment, electricity generation projects, ports, etc.
• Reducing the role of the Public Sector: The number of industries reserved for the public sector was reduced from 17 to 2, it includes railways and atomic energy.
• Trade Liberalisation: Relaxation is given to importers by abolishing import licensing controls. The permission for external credit and set up of Special Economic Zones (SEZ) to promote export. To promote agricultural export Agro Export Zones (AEZ) were introduced.
• Reforms in Insurance Sectors: The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act (IRDA) has given licenses to many private companies to start insurance businesses which ended the monopoly of government e.g. Max Life, Bajaj, Allianz, Aegon, etc.
• Reforms in Financial Sector: The NEP has allowed private banks and foreign banks to do hanking business in the financial sector.

Question 2.
Explain the measures undertaken for Globalisation.
Answer:
Globalization means the interaction of the domestic economy with the rest of the world with regard to foreign investment, trade, production, and financial matters.

Measures were taken for Globalisation:

• Removal of quantitative restrictions: To make the Indian economy attractive to foreign investors, the government has reduced custom duties and tariffs imposed on imports and exports.
• Encouragement to foreign capital: To India, foreign investment has wider scope since 1991. Foreign capital is allowed in India without any restrictions.
• Convertibility of Rupee: It means Indian currency can be converted into the currency of other countries.
• Foreign collaboration: To take the benefit of advanced technology, Indian companies are allowed to enter into foreign collaboration e.g. Maruti-Suzuki, Hero-Honda, etc.
• Long-term trade policy: The trade policy was introduced for a longer duration to promote foreign trade.
• Encouragement to export: Many incentives have been given to industries through EXIM policy. SEZ and AEZ are created to encourage export.

7. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions:

The Indian ice cream industry is one of the fastest-growing segments of the dairy and food processing sector. India has a low per capita consumption of ice cream of 400 ml whereas in the USA it is 22,000 ml and in China, it is 3000ml.

The per capita consumption of ice cream is low in India because it is a country filled with traditional sweets of more than 100 varieties. In developed countries, people have either pastries or ice-creams for dessert. In the era of globalization, the mindset of the people is fast changing. This is because multi-national companies have set up a number of ice-cream parlors, with a lot more varieties and flavours that attract the younger lot. Besides this, there are better delivery systems.

The ice-cream sector has great potential for growth in the country due to improvement in the cold chain infrastructure, increasing disposable income, and changing the lifestyle of the people. However, it is taxed higher with 18 percent GST while other dairy products in the same basket such as butter and cheese are taxed at 12 percent.

The ice-cream industry has generated revenue of more than $1.5 billion in 2016-17. With the employment of 15 lakh people directly or indirectly, it is also considered one of the largest employers of the dairy and food processing industry.

Question 1.
Identify the reason for the low per capita consumption of ice cream in India.
Answer:
In India, traditional sweets are available, which are having more than 100 varieties.

Question 2.
Explain the impact of globalisation on the Indian ice-cream industry.
Answer:
Due to globalisation, multinational companies have set up a number of ice-cream parlours with a lot of varieties and flavours. It helps to attract the younger generation of today.

Question 3.
Find out the factors that could lead to the growth of the ice-cream industry in India.
Answer:
In India Ice-cream industry has wider scope because there is an improvement in cold chain infrastructure, increase in disposable income, and changing lifestyle of the people.

Question 4.
Express your views about the implications of higher GST on the ice-cream industry in India.
Answer:
The ice-cream sector is indirectly dependent on the primary sector. If the demand for ice cream increased then the income of cattle owners will grow. 18% GST on ice cream is high because ice cream is made from milk which is good for health as compared to tobacco, pan masala. Same GST (18%) is imposed on tobacco and pan masala but it is injurious to health and finally, the burden of GST will transfer to customers.

11th Economics Digest Chapter 9 Economic Policy of India Since 1991 Intext Questions and Answers

Find out: (Textbook Page No. 58)

Names of five Private Banks and Foreign Banks.
Answer:

• Private Banks – ICICI Bank, Axis Bank, Kotak Mahindra Bank, Yes Bank, HDFC Bank.
• Foreign Banks – Standard Chartered Bank, DBS Bank, Doha Bank, Bank of America, Royal Bank of Scotland.

Find out: (Textbook Page No. 60)

Names of companies coming under Maharatna and Miniratna status.
Answer:
Maharatna

• Coal India Ltd.
• Gas Authority of India (GAIL)
• Indian Oil Corporation Ltd (IOCL)
• Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Ltd. (MTNL)

Miniratna

• Airports Authority of India
• Bharat Earth Movers Ltd.
• Bharat Dynamics Ltd.
• Mazagon Dock Ltd.
• State Trading Corporation of India

Stimulate your memory: (Textbook Page No. 61)

What is Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR)? How does it help society?
Answer:

• CSR means whatever a company does to give back to the community in which it has a presence.
• It is the company’s effort to improve society and the environment in some way.
• It helps society by providing education, healthcare, disaster relief measures, economic empowerment, planting trees, maintaining parks, etc.
• E.g. Mahindra & Mahindra constructed 4340 toilets in 104 districts of India, especially for girls in Government schools in 2013-14.

Activity-Based Questions

Observe the chart and answer the following question.

Question 1.
What is globalisation?
Answer:
Globalisation is a process of integrating the domestic economy with the rest of the world with regard to foreign investment, trade, production, and financial matters.

Question 2.
Explain the concept of disinvestment.
Answer:
Disinvestment is a process of selling shares of sick Public Sector Units (PSUs) to the private sector, so as to increase the production activities of that units and to achieve efficiency in the allocation of resources, improvement in management, etc.
E.g. Disinvestment of Maruti, ITDC hotels. IPCL. VSNL, etc.

Question 3.
Write the full form of FERA, SEZ, AEZ.
Answer:

• FERA – Foreign Exchange Regulation Act
• SEZ – Special Economic Zones
• AEZ – Agro Export Zones

Question 4.
Why NRB is created?
Answer:
National Renewal Board was created to look after the retrenched workers who become unemployed due to the closure of loss-making Public Sector Units (PSUs). Through this Board, the government took the responsibility of providing compensations to the retrenched workers and also to take care of those seeking voluntary retirement

Question 5.
By what was FERA replaced and why?
Answer:
FERA was replaced by FEMA to encourage international trade and to bring flexibility in the laws relating to foreign exchange.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Solutions Chapter 8 Poverty in India Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Solutions Chapter 8 Poverty in India

1. Assertion and Reasoning questions:

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Poverty level declines with a rise in agricultural output.
Reasoning (R): Agricultural incomes have declined due to wide fluctuations in climatic conditions.
(i) (A) is true, but (R) is False.
(ii) (A) is false, but (R) is True.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Urban poverty is attributed mainly to spillover effects of migration among the rural poor.
Reasoning (R): Poor rural infrastructure, lack of alternative jobs results in forced migration.
(i) (A) is true, but (R) is False.
(ii) (A) is false, but (R) is True.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Relative poverty is found in all the countries of the world.
Reasoning (R): Differences in the levels of income is the only criteria for judging relative poverty,
(i) (A) is true, but (R) is False.
(ii) (A) is false, but (R) is True.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(i) (A) is true, but (R) is False.

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Poverty is not just a lack of money but also a lack of capabilities.
Reasoning (R): Lack of freedom to satisfy hunger, lack of health care facilities, denial of political freedom leads to poverty.
(i) (A) is true, but (R) is False.
(ii) (A) is false, but (R) is True.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 5.
Assertion (A): Food security, credit facilities guarantee social protection to the poor.
Reasoning (R): Leakages in the administrative system perpetuate poverty.
(i) (A) is true, but (R) is False.
(ii) (A) is false, but (R) is True.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

2. Find the odd word out:

Question 1.
Colours of Ration card – White, Green, Saffron, Yellow
Answer:
Green

Question 2.
High Poverty ratio – Chhatisgarh, Jharkhand, Bihar, Kerala
Answer:
Kerala

Question 3.
Calories – 2400, 1800, 2100, 2250
Answer:
1800

3. Give economic terms:

Question 1.
Denial of opportunities to certain sections of the people in the society.
Answer:
Social exclusion

Question 2.
Concept of poverty that covers material and non-material dimensions.
Answer:
Multidimensional poverty

Question 3.
Poverty is judged on the basis of relative standards of livings of the people.
Answer:
Relative poverty

Question 4.
Poverty can be completely eradicated.
Answer:
Absolute poverty

Question 5.
Threshold expenditure is needed to satisfy basic human needs at socially acceptable levels.
Answer:
Task Force on Eliminating Poverty

4. Identify and explain the concepts from the given illustration:

Question 1.
Baban’s daughter had to be hospitalized due to weakness caused by undernourishment or lack of minimum calorie requirement in the intake of food.
Answer:
Absolute poverty.
The absence of minimum income to satisfy the desired level of the calorie intake of food is called absolute poverty. Absolute poverty is generally found in developing countries like India. The situation of undernourishment can be overcome by taking the minimum required calorie food intake as per the standard set by the planning commission.

Question 2.
Dhanajirao is a wealthy landlord, but his annual income is relatively less in comparison to entrepreneur Raobahadur.
Answer:
Relative poverty.
Relative poverty can be judged by comparing the standards of living of different sections of the people. Relative poverty is found in all the countries of the world. It cannot be completely eradicated.

Question 3.
Urmi’s family live in a situation whereby they are not able to fulfill even the basic needs of life such as food, clothing, and shelter.
Answer:
Absolute poverty.
This is the case of absolute poverty where people have less income in which they cannot buy basic needs for living. Such poverty is generally found in developing countries like India. It can be eradicated by applying effective measures by the Government.

Question 4.
Sanjay’s family receives food grains on the basis of yellow ration cards through the public distribution system.
Answer:
Absolute poverty.
In absolute poverty, people are very poor and have very little income. Ration card is one of the measures to eradicate poverty by giving food-grains through ration shop at a subsidized rate.

Question 5.
In certain parts of the state, starvation-related death has been observed whereas in certain areas gross wastage of food has been reported.
Answer:
Relative poverty.
This is an example of differences between two different sections of people in terms of consumption and level of income. Such differences create relative poverty. It is found in all the countries of the world. It cannot be eradicated completely.

5. State with reasons whether you agree or disagree with the following statement:

Question 1.
Population control is the only measure to eradicate poverty.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with the statement.
Policy measures undertaken for the eradication of poverty are as follows:

• Agriculture: Providing minimum support prices for selected crops and providing cheaper credit facilities to farmers are the measures taken to ensure stable agricultural income to farmers.
• Rural works: New employment is created for labours of rural areas by way of construction of roads, irrigation projects, etc.
• Rural industrialization: To increase the income of people living in rural areas, employment is created by promoting small-scale and cottage industries.
• Minimum wages: In 1948, the Minimum Wages Act was passed to provide fair wages to laborers and workers of industrial and agricultural areas.

Besides these, there are many other causes like:

• Public distribution system
• Nationalization of banks
• Progressive tax measures
• Free Education
• Affordable housing
• Health Facilities
• Skill development and self-employment.

Question 2.
Relative poverty is universal by nature.
OR
Relative poverty is found in all countries.
OR
Relative poverty is found in the richest of the rich countries.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with the statement.

• Differences in income earned by people in relative poverty.
• If one person earns less than the other, he is said to be poorer than the other.
• So, this difference in the earnings of people will be found in all the countries of the world.
• This is found because of differences in talents, education, abilities, skills, etc. of different people, and this cannot be removed from any country.
• So, relative poverty is a universal phenomenon.

Question 3.
Regional imbalance is the only cause of poverty.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with the statement.
The causes of poverty besides regional imbalance are as follows:

• Population explosion: Due to the increase in population, poverty is growing rapidly.
• Slow economic growth: There is slow industrial and agricultural growth due to which the economy is growing slowly.
• Unemployment and Underemployment: Unemployment is the major factor of increased poverty.
• Economic inequalities: There are inequalities in the distribution of income, assets, consumption expenditure, which in fact have increased poverty.

Besides these, there are many other causes like:

• Inaccessibility to infrastructural facility
• Inflation in the country
• The vicious circle of poverty
• Other factors – like gender discrimination, corruption, natural disasters, etc.

6. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Assess the various measures undertaken to eradicate poverty.
Answer:
Policy measures undertaken for the eradication of poverty are as follows:

• Control of population: There are various population policies and family welfare programmes introduced to control the growth of the population.
• Agriculture: Providing minimum support prices for selected crops and providing cheaper credit facilities to farmers are the measures taken to ensure stable agricultural income to farmers.
• Rural works: New employment is created for labours of the rural areas by way of construction of roads, irrigation projects, etc.
• Rural industrialization: To increase the income of people living in rural areas, employment is created by promoting small-scale and cottage industries.
• Minimum wages: In 1948, the Minimum Wages Act was passed to provide fair wages to labourers and workers of industrial and agricultural areas.
• Public distribution system: Under the public distribution system food grains are made available to poor people at highly subsidized rates through ration shops.
• Nationalization of banks: Nationalization of banks was undertaken to provide loans to poor people at lower interest rates.
• Progressive tax measures: Progressive income tax system has been introduced to reduce inequalities in the distribution of income.
• Education: Primary education is made free as well as education for girls is provided at no cost to increase the enrollment ratio.
• Affordable housing: Affordable housing facilities are provided to the rural and urban poor through the Slum Rehabilitation programme.
• Health Facilities: Government hospitals, primary health centers have been established to provide medical facilities to poor people.
• Skill development and self-employment: Skill-based training is provided for skill development which inspires people towards self-employment.

11th Economics Digest Chapter 8 Poverty in India Intext Questions and Answers

Can you tell: (Textbook Page No. 51)

Express your opinion on the following:

Questions 1.
There is a thick line of rural-urban economic divide in India.
Answer:
Yes, there is a thick line of rural-urban economic divide in India because of around 65% population lives in a rural area but do not have proper road access for vehicles, lack of health facilities, lack of employment opportunities, lack of technology, a rural economy based on subsistence strategies, the population is spread thinly, due to slow economic growth people migrating from rural to the urban area, etc.

In an urban economy around 35% population lives with good road access, many health facilities, employment opportunities, advanced technology, the thick density of population, high economic growth rate, etc.

Question 2.
There is an equitable distribution of income and wealth in the country.
Answer:
No, there is an unequal distribution of income and wealth in the country, that’s why India has adopted a progressive taxation policy. The government formulated many welfare policies to raise the income of poor income groups.

Question 3.
All the citizens have equal access to education, health, energy, and drinking water.
Answer:
No, there is unequal access to education, healthy drinking water.
In urban areas, people can afford all the amenities. There are many educational institutions 24 hours availability of electricity, many health centers with modern equipment and technology, clean drinking water, etc.

Question 4.
There is no hunger, starvation, or malnutrition in the country.
Answer:
No, I don’t agree with the statement.
In India a large number of people especially women and children are not able to get food.
14.8% (195.9 million people are undernourished, 51.4% of women age between 15 to 49 years) are anemic, 38.4% of the children aged under five are too short for their age, 21% children have weight too low for their height and there is high child mortality rate prevailing in India.

Question 5.
There is a lack of sanitation facilities in the country.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with the statement.
In rural areas, most of the people (300 to 522 million) still practice open defecation.
In addition to considerable Indian homes having no toilets, access to water supply and drainage facilities is also another serious problem.

Question 6.
The poverty ratio is uniform across all the states.
Answer:
In India poverty is different from state to state.
In India first ten poorest states or high poverty ratio is in Chhatisgarh (93%), Jharkhand (36.96%), Manipur (36.89%), Arunachal Pradesh (34.67%), Bihar (33.74%), Odisha (32.59%), Assam (31.98%), Madhya Pradesh (31.65%), Uttar Pradesh (29.43%), Karnataka (20.91%) and poverty ratio is lowest in Maharashtra, Gujarat, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, etc.

Note: The above data is according to the 2016 report.

Find out: (Textbook Page No. 51)

Prepare a list of 5 countries in the world having absolute poverty with reference to the latest World Bank Report.
Answer:
All the developing countries will face absolute poverty for e.g. India, China, Pakistan, Nepal, Bhutan, etc.

Can you tell: (Textbook Page No. 52)

Place the following individuals as per their income into the High-income group, Upper Middle-income group, Middle-income group, Low-income group.

1. Contract labourer
2. Salesman in a shop
3. CEO of a Multinational Company
4. Executive in a Company

Answer:

Income groups	Individuals
(i) High Income	CEO of a Multinational Company
(ii) Upper Middle Income	Executive in a company
(iii) Middle Income	Salesman in a shop
(iv) Low Income	Contract labour

Find out: (Textbook Pg. No. 52)

Information about the informal sector and list a few activities related to it as per your observation.
Answer:
Informal Sector:
The informal sector is called as ‘unorganized sector’. It consists of unlicensed establishments that do not pay taxes to the government and does not obey the law prescribed by the law.

Activities of the informal sector are not counted in the country’s GNP as they are not disclosed by the owners of such organizations.

Examples:

• Selling things from home or offices or garage, etc.
• Paying a person for removing grass or snow from your garden or doorsteps.
• Paying labourer for removing the upgrowth of trees outside the building wall.
• Paying your office boy for the watering plant in your absence.
• Black marketing, hoarding, smuggling, etc.
• Paying under the table for getting some work done.
• Farmers, beggars, daily wage earners, etc.

Try this: (Textbook Page No. 52)

Question 1.
Given the number of members in your family prepare a list of food items and non-food items purchased monthly.
Answer:

Food Items	Non Food Items
(a) Cereals	(a) Petrol or fuel
(b) Pulses	(b) Medicines
(c) Milk and Milk products	(c) Entertainment
(d) Vegetables	(d) Footwears
(e) Fruits	(e) Clothing
(f) Spices	(f) Bedding
(g) Meat/Mutton	(g) Electric material
(h) Edible oil	(h) Electronic Gadgets
(i) Sweet Dish	(i) Scooter
(j) Processed food	(j) Toiletries

Question 2.
Calculate the total monthly consumption expenditure of your family’s consumption basket as per the current prevailing prices.
Answer:
Note: Students should do this activity by themselves with the help of their family head.

Question 3.
What is the per capita monthly expenditure?
Answer:
Per capita income is the average income per head of population in one year.
Per capita monthly expenditure of an individual family can be calculated by using the following formula.
Per Capita monthly expenditure = \(\frac{\text { Total Income of a family }}{\text { No. of members in a family }}\)
Note: Students can do further calculations with the help of their family head.

Find out: (Textbook Page No. 53)

From the above data on poverty ratios, find out Q₃ and P₁₀ and name the states as per the derived partition values.

Answer:
Arranging the data in ascending order;
7.1, 8.1, 8.3, 9.2, 10.4, 11.2, 11.3, 11.3, 14.7, 16.6, 17.4, 19.9, 20.9, 29.4, 31.7, 31.9, 32.6, 33.7, 36.9, 39.9
Here, n = 20
Q₃ = 3 \(\left(\frac{n+1}{4}\right)^{\text {th }}\) observation
= 3 \(\left(\frac{20+1}{4}\right)^{\text {th }}\)
= 3(5.25)th observation
= 15.75th observation + 0.75 (16th observation – 15th observation)
= 31.7 + 0.75 (31.9 – 31.7)
= 31.7 + 0.75(0.2)
= 31.7 + 0.15
∴ Q₃ = 31.85

P₁₀ = \(10\left(\frac{n+1}{100}\right)^{t h}\) observation
= \(10\left(\frac{20+1}{100}\right)^{t h}\) observation
= 2.1th observation
= 2nd observation + 0.1(3rd observation – 2nd observation)
= 8.1 + 0.1 (8.3 – 8.1)
= 8.1+ 0.1 (0.2)
= 8.1 + 0.02
∴ P₁₀ = 8.12
Q₃ lies between 31.7 and 31.9 (i.e.) Madhya Pradesh and Assam
P₁₀ lies between 8.1 and 8.3 (i.e.) Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand.

You should know: (Textbook Page No. 54)

What are the effects of Poverty?
Answer:
Economic effects of poverty:

• Low national income: As a substantial number of people are poor, their income, saving, and investment are inadequate. This results in low capital formation.
• Adverse effect on production: Since the capital for modernization is not available, the farmers continue with the outdated methods. Similarly, the industry does not have funds for modernization.
• Misallocation of resources: To help the poor, the government spends a huge amount on welfare activities. This restricts the allocation of resources for productive activities.
• Low standard of living: Due to low per capita income and low per capita consumption, people are forced to live in slums. This is reflected in the low standard of living.
• Malnutrition and starvation: Poor people can not afford a balanced diet due to low income. They do not get the minimum calories from their diet.

You should know: (Textbook Page No. 54)

The UN Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) were adopted by the international community in September 2015 to comprehensively cover social, economic, and environmental dimensions. The SDGs constitute a universal agreement to end poverty in all its forms and dimensions. There are 17 SDGs that have 169 targets to be achieved by 2030. India played an important role in shaping SDGs.

India is one of the signatories of the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals, is committed to the eradication of poverty by 2030 (SDGl).

Read the above passage and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What do SDGs stand for?
Answer:
SDGs stands for Sustainable Development Goals.

Question 2.
What are the objectives of SDGs?
Answer:
SDGs were adopted by the international community to cover social economic and environmental dimensions. It makes an attempt to end poverty throughout the world.

Question 3.
What is India’s goal to eradicate poverty in relation to SDG?
Answer:
India’s goal is to eradicate poverty from the country by the year 2030.

Question 4.
How many SDGs are prevailing at present?
Answer:
There are 17 SDGs prevailing having 169 targets that are to be achieved by 2030.

Try this: (Textbook Page No. 55)

To ensure food security, the Government of Maharashtra has introduced Tri Colour Family Ration Card. Find out the income criteria of each ration card on the basis of information provided by the Food, Civil Supplies, and Consumer Protection Dept., GoM.

Answer:

Type of Ration Card	Income Criteria
White	Rs. 1,00,000 and above
Saffron	Rs. 15,000 to Rs. 1,00,000
Yellow	People Below the poverty line

Try this: (Textbook Page No. 55)

Correlate the following Poverty Alleviation Programmes with the given points:

Food security, wage employment, self-employment, education, health, sanitation, financial inclusion, housing.

Answer:

• Employment Guarantee Scheme (EGS): Wage employment
• Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgaar Yojana (SGSY): Self-employment
• Jan Dhan Yojana (JDY): Financial inclusion
• Swachch Bharat Mission (SBM): Sanitation
• Sarva Shiksha Abhiyaan (SSA): Education
• Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY): Food security
• Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS): Wage employment
• Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana (PMAY): Housing
• National Health Mission (NHM): Health

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Solutions Chapter 7 Unemployment in India Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Solutions Chapter 7 Unemployment in India

1. Find the odd word out:

Question 1.
Urban unemployment – Educated unemployment, Industrial unemployment, Disguised unemployment, Technological unemployment.
Answer:
Disguised unemployment

Question 2.
States with high rates of unemployment – Goa, Punjab, Maharashtra, Tripura.
Answer:
Maharashtra

Question 3.
Employment Guarantee Scheme 1972, Jawahar Rozgar Yojana 1989, Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana 1999, Development of Tourism.
Answer:
Development of tourism

2. Identify and explain the concepts from the given illustrations:

Question 1.
Hussain Shaikh employed seven workers less than the usual number of workers on his farm, in spite of this, output remained the same.
Answer:
Disguised unemployment.
Disguised unemployment is a situation in which more people are doing work than actually required. Thus, even after employing fewer workers than the usual number, the output of Hussain Shaikh remained the same.

Question 2.
The use of new technology in the printing industry has led to unemployment among several workers.
Answer:
Technological unemployment.
Technological unemployment arises due to changes in technology. Modern technology is capital intensive requiring less labour. Thus, the use of new technology displaces few workers from their jobs.

Question 3.
Satish has completed his post-graduation and is desperately expecting a job.
Answer:
Educated unemployment.
Educated unemployment is due to an imbalance between job opportunities and the number of educated youth, preference for white-collar jobs, lack of available skills, etc. Due to the above imbalances, Satish could not get a job easily.

Question 4.
In certain agricultural areas of Maharashtra, only Kharif crops are grown, therefore, employment is available till the month of October.
Answer:
Seasonal unemployment.
Seasonal unemployment is due to slack season or off-season. Kharif crops have a particular season. Thus, for the rest of the period, farmers remain unemployed leading to seasonal unemployment. Such kind of unemployment is also found in the case of tourism, marriage bands, sugar factories, etc.

3. Complete the correlation:

Question 1.
Seasonal unemployment : Tourist guides : : __________ : Graduates
Answer:
Educated unemployment

Question 2.
__________ : Disguised unemployment : : Urban unemployment : Industrial unemployment
Answer:
Rural unemployment

Question 3.
Frictional unemployment : Shortage of raw materials : : __________ : Fluctuations in business activity
Answer:
Cyclical unemployment

Question 4.
MGNREGS : Guaranteed wage employment : : TRYSEM : __________
Answer:
self-employed

Question 5.
__________ : Waste of resources : : Social effect : Loss of human dignity
Answer:
Economic effect

4. Observe the following charts and answer the questions.

Question 1.
Production does not increase if an additional worker is employed and production does not decrease if a worker is reduced from the work. Mention the type of unemployment.
Answer:
Disguised unemployment

Question 2.
A worker is thrown out of a job because of computerization. Name this type of unemployment?
Answer:
Technological unemployment

Question 3.
Sharad was forced to return back to India from the USA due to depression in the IT sector.
Answer:
Cyclical unemployment

Question 4.
In spite of being a graduate, Vasant is sitting idle at home.
Answer:
Educated unemployment

Question 5.
Give examples of structural unemployment.
Answer:
Examples: horse cart replaced by auto-rickshaw; computerized typing replaced manual typists; small traders replaced by malls and online shopping.

5. Find out Q₁ and Q₃ using unemployment rates as numerical data:

Answer:

6. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Explain the types of Industrial unemployment in India.
Answer:
Types of Industrial unemployment:
(i) Technological unemployment:
Due to the introduction of new machines or new technology, when some workers are removed from their jobs due to lack of proper training. E.g. computerization, the introduction of robotic technology, etc.

(ii) Frictional unemployment:
When due to the breakdown of machines, shortage of raw materials, strikes, power failure, etc. some workers are removed from the jobs, there is said to be frictional unemployment. This is temporary in nature.

(iii) Cyclical unemployment:
During an economic recession, there is a slowdown of economic activities due to a fall in overall demand. Therefore, factory owners remove some workers from their jobs to cut down the cost such unemployment caused due to depression (trade cycle) is called cyclical unemployment.

(iv) Structural unemployment:
It takes place due to structural changes in the economy i.e when due to change in the complete business set up, some workers are removed from their jobs, there is said to be structural unemployment. E.g. introduction of power looms instead of handlooms. It is long-term in nature.

Question 2.
Explain the causes of unemployment in India.
Answer:
Causes of Unemployment:
(i) Jobless growth:
Since independence, the rate of economic growth is less than the growth rate of the population. This leads to widespread unemployment in India.

(ii) Increase in labour force:
Due to the increase in medical facilities since independence, there is a considerable fall in the death rate without a corresponding fall in the birth rate. This led to an increase in the labour force which in turn led to unemployment in India.

(iii) Excessive use of machinery:
Industries as well as agricultural producers are undergoing modernization and have started using more machines and less labour. This means the Indian economy is moving towards capital intensive technique leaving behind labour intensive technique, which led to large scale unemployment.

(iv) Lack of skill development programmes:
Though educational institutions are increasing, no proper training is given to youngsters to work. Development of vocational skill courses is comparatively less in number in India. Hence, there is a lack of skilled manpower required by the industry in India.

(v) Expectations towards employment:
Educated people have high expectations about the salary and they want ‘white-collar jobs’ which are not available in plenty. They prefer to remain unemployed rather than accepting a lower salary. This also causes unemployment.

(vi) Seasonal nature of agriculture:
Due to the seasonal nature of agriculture in India, labourers are employed only for a few months a year and for the rest of the year, they remain jobless. This leads to seasonal unemployment in the country.

(vii) Migration of rural population:
Agriculture being seasonal, there are no alternative jobs available in the off-season or slack season. So the labour migrates to urban areas leading to urban unemployment in the country.

Question 3.
Explain the measures taken by the government to reduce unemployment.
Answer:
The measures taken by the government of India to reduce unemployment are as follows:
General measures to reduce unemployment:

• Development of agricultural sector
• Provision for an alternative occupation
• Development of infrastructure
• Reforms in the educational system
• Development of tourism
• Use of labor-intensive techniques
• Development of information technology and communication
• Provision for vocational training and skill development facilities
• Rural industrialization
• Motivation for self-employment.

Specific measures are undertaken by the government to generate employment opportunities:
Employment Guarantee Scheme (EGS): This Scheme was introduced on 28th March 1972. This scheme was introduced by Maharashtra Government in 1972-73. Under this scheme, work is provided to the registered job-seekers in rural areas within 15 days from the date of registration. This scheme was for unskilled manual labors above 18 years.

Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY): This scheme was launched in April 1999 after restructuring the Integrated Rural Developmental Programmer (IRDP) and allied schemes. It’s the only self-employment scheme for the rural poor in India.

Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojana (SJSRY): This scheme was launched in December 1997, It provides gainful employment to the urban unemployed and underemployed. It includes self-employment, women self-employment programme, skill training for employment programme, for this scheme Central Government shares 75% of the cost and State Government shares 25% of the cost.

Pradhan Mantri Rozgar Yojana (PMRY): This scheme is being implemented since 1993 to create and provide sustainable self-employment opportunities to more than one million educated unemployed youth.

Training Rural Youth for Self-employment (TRYSEM): It was initiated in 1979 with the objective of tackling the unemployment problem among rural youth. It aimed at training about 2 lakh rural youth every year to enable them to become self-employed.

Besides the above measures, there are many other specific measures undertaken by the government. They can be named as:

• Jawahar Rozgar Yojana (JRY)
• Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS)
• Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana 2014
• National Policy for Skill Development and Entrepreneurship – 2015
• Startup India Initiative
• Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana – (2016-20)

11th Economics Digest Chapter 7 Unemployment in India Intext Questions and Answers

Do you know? (Textbook Page No. 46)

State-wise unemployment rates in India (2015-16)

Answer:

Ranks	State	No. of people	Cumulative Frequency (Less than)
1.	Tripura	197	197
2.	Sikkim	181	378
3.	Kerala	125	503
4.	Himachal Pradesh	106	609
5.	Assam	96	705
6.	Arunachal Pradesh	89	794
7.	Nagaland	85	879
8.	Jharkhand	77	956
9.	Uttar Pradesh	74	1030
10.	Jammu and Kashmir	72	1102
11.	Rajasthan	71	1173
12	Uttarakhand	70	1243
13.	Goa	61	1304
14.	Punjab	60	1364
15.	Bihar	60	1424
16.	Manipur	57	1481
17.	Odisha	50	1531
18.	West Bengal	49	1580
19.	Meghalaya	48	1628
20.	Haryana	47	1675
21.	Madhya Pradesh	43	1718
22.	Tamilnadu	42	1760
23.	Andhra Pradesh	39	1799
24.	Mizoram	30	1829
25.	Telangana	28	1857
26.	Maharashtra	21	1878
27.	Chhattisgarh	19	1897
28.	Karnataka	15	1912
29.	Gujarat	09	1921
		n = 1921

Here, n = 1921
for Q₂ = \(2\left(\frac{n+1}{4}\right)^{t h}\) observation
= \(2\left(\frac{1921+1}{4}\right)^{\text {th }}\) observation
= 2(480.5)
= 961st observation, 961st observation lies in cf 1030.
∴ Q₂ = 9
Hence, Rank 9 is represented by Uttar Pradesh.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Solutions Chapter 6 Population in India Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Solutions Chapter 6 Population in India

1. Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
Stages of the theory of demographic transition.
(a) High birth rate and high death rate
(b) High birth rate and low death rate
(c) Low birth rate and low death rate
(d) Economic development
Options:
(1) a and b
(2) a and c
(3) a, b and c
(4) a, b, c, and d
Answer:
(3) a, b and c

Question 2.
Incorrect reasons for the population explosion in India
(a) Illiteracy
(b) Universalization of Marriage
(c) Joint family system
(d) Upliftment in lifestyle
Options:
(1) a and b
(2) c and d
(3) a, b and c
(4) d
Answer:
(4) d

Question 3.
Remedies undertook to check population explosion
(a) To provide employment
(b) To improve women’s quality of life
(c) National Population Policy
(d) Disaster management
Options:
(1) d
(2) a and c
(3) c and d
(4) a, b and c
Answer:
(4) a, b and c

Question 4.
Choose the correct pair:

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. Year of Great Divide	(a) Stable population till 2045
2. A. J. Coale and E. M. Hoover	(b) 1921
3. Social Reforms	(c) Demographic Transition
4. National Population Policy, 2000	(d) Spread of education

Options:
(1) 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b
(2) 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a
(3) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d
(4) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
Answer:
(2) 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a

2. Give economic terms:

Question 1.
An increase in population is faster than economic growth and development.
Answer:
Population explosion

Question 2.
Difference between birth rate and death rate.
Answer:
Survival rate

Question 3.
The balance between natural resources and population growth.
Answer:
Optimum population

Question 4.
Programme introduced to reduce the birth rate in 1952.
Answer:
Family Planning Programme

3. Identify and explain the concepts from the given illustrations:

Question 1.
There were 40 births per 1000 in-country ‘A’ during a year.
Answer:
Birth Rate.
Birth rate means the number of births occurring per thousand of the living population during a year. It is also called the fertility rate.

Question 2.
In Mumbai city, public transport service is largely affected due to the growing population.
Answer:
High Density of Population.
The number of people living per square kilometer is known as the density of population.
In India, it is 382 people per square kilometer as per the 2011 Census which is very high.

Question 3.
In-country ‘B’ there are 15 deaths taking place per 1000 during a year.
Answer:
Death Rate.
Death rate means the number of deaths occurring per thousand of the living population during a year.
It is also called the mortality rate.

Question 4.
For a certain period of time, China had adopted the policy of ‘One child per family.
Answer:
Population policy.
China’s ‘One Child Policy’ was part of a birth planning program designed to control the size of its population.

4. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Explain the causes of the high birth rate.
Answer:
The causes of the high birth rate are as follows:
(i) Illiteracy:
A large proportion of the population in India is illiterate which means they are bound to be traditional, superstitious, ignorant, and irrational. So they have more children.

(ii) Universalization of Marriage:
In India, Marriage is considered a religious and social obligation. In spite of the spread of education, the attitude of people towards marriage remains unchanged.

(iii) Age of Marriage:
In India the average age for marriage is low. Hence, the childbearing period is long which is responsible for the high birth rate.

(iv) Preference for the male child:
Many parents don’t accept family planning till they have a son or desired number of sons. This is known as son meta-preference.

Question 2.
Explain the causes of a low death rate.
Answer:
The causes of the low death rate are as follows:
(i) Improvement in medical and health facilities:
Due to advanced medical and health facilities epidemics like the plague, cholera, malaria, smallpox, measles, TB, etc. have been controlled or eradicated. The invention of sulpha drugs, penicillin, antibiotics has helped to reduce the death rate among people. The number of hospitals, doctors, and nurses also have increased. This has reduced the death rate.

(ii) Decline in Maternal Mortality Rate:
There is a fall in the death rate among women after delivery because of the easy availability of doctors, nurses, medicines, and transport facilities.

(iii) Fall in infant mortality rate:
Due to an improvement in medical facilities and public health measures infant mortality has declined.

(iv) Increase in literacy:
The spread of education especially among women has helped them to take better care of their children. This has reduced the death rate.

Question 3.
Explain the role of human resources in economic development.
Answer:
Role of human resource in economic development:

• Economic growth is only a means and human development is the end i.e. the objective of economic growth and development is to improve human conditions and enlarge people’s choices.
• Human development increases political stability by reducing civil disturbances in society.
• Human development leads to an increase in human productivity i.e., investment in nutrition, health, and education results in higher productivity.
• Human development helps to control population growth, through increasing literacy specially in women.
• Human resource development contributes to improvement in life expectancy and literacy rate. This further improves the quality of life.
• Human resource development helps to bring about research and development. It motivates research in various educational institutions.

5. State with reasons whether you agree or disagree with the following statements:

Question 1.
India is experiencing Population Explosion.
Answer:
Yes, I do agree with the statement.

• India is going through a population explosion because in the post-independence period, the death rate has been falling rapidly and the birth rate is falling slowly and still remains very high. So, the survival rate is high.
• India is the second-largest country in the world.
• Between 1951 to 1971 population increased from 36.1 crores to 54.8 i.e. the population has increased more than 3 times in 2011 to 121.02 crores during these three decades. The annual population growth rate was more than 2%.
• That is why India is experiencing a population explosion.

Question 2.
The death rate is falling rapidly in India.
Answer:
Yes, I do agree with the statement.

• There has been improvement in medical and health facilities, the decline in maternal mortality rate, fall in infant mortality rate, increase in literacy rate, etc.
• Through public health measures, a better quality of food is available.
• The government has taken several steps to control natural calamities.
• This helps to mitigate all types of disasters thereby reducing the loss of lives.
• Hence, the death rate in India is falling rapidly.

Question 3.
Optimum population contributes to the economic development of a country.
Answer:
Yes, I do agree with the statement.

• Optimum population means there is a balance between population growth and the availability of natural resources.
• If the population grows faster then there will be a shortage of food supply, low employment opportunities, etc., and pressure will be there on the economic growth of the country.
• It will create social and economic imbalances in the economy.
• Whereas optimum population will lead to balance in social and economic growth resulting in faster growth of the country.
• Thus, an optimum population contributes to the economic development of a country.

Question 4.
Human resources play an important role in economic development.
Answer:
Yes, I do agree with the statement.

• The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) has introduced the concept of ‘Human Development’ in 1990.
• Human resource development occurs through the provision of educational facilities, increase in literacy rate, especially among women tends to reduce birth rate and infant mortality rate. This contributes to population control.
• HRD contributes to improvement in life expectancy and literacy rate. This further improves the quality of life.
• Human development leads to an increase in human productivity, i.e. investment in nutrition, health, and education which results in higher productivity.
• Hence, human resources play an important role in economic development.

Question 5.
The birth rate is declining due to changes in the standard of living.
Answer:
Yes, I do agree with the statement.

• According to the 2011 Census, the birth rate in India is 20.9 which is low as compared to the 2001 Census.
• There are certain factors responsible for the declining birth rate.
  • Awareness about health facilities.
  • Joint Family System is now shaped into a nuclear family system.
  • The cost of education is increased per child.
  • Under the family planning programme, contraceptive pills are available.
• Due to all these reasons, the birth rate is declining in India.

6. Solve the following:

Question 1.
Find out Q3 from the given data.

Answer:
Arranging the data in ascending order:
36.1, 43.9, 54.8, 68.3, 84.6, 102.7, 121.02
Here, n = 7
Q3 = \(\frac{3(n+1)^{\text {th }}}{4}\) observation
Q3 = \(\frac{3(7+1)^{\mathrm{th}}}{4}\) observation
Q3 = 6th observation
Q3 = 102.7

Question 2.
Draw a population growth curve from the given data.

Answer:

11th Economics Digest Chapter 6 Population in India Intext Questions and Answers

Try this: (Textbook Page No. 38)

Based on the given table 6.2, explain how demographic transition theory is applicable to India.

Answer:
Both birth rate and death rate falling from 1901 to till 2011 due to that India is facing high growth of population explosion. Hence we can say India is experiencing the second stage of demographic transition.

Can you tell: (Textbook Page No. 38)

Observe Fig. 6.3 and draw inferences from it.

Answer:
Inferences drawn from the figure are as follows:

• In 1961 Birth rate and the Death rate was high as compared to the year 2011. Hence, there was less population in the year 1961.
• As the year passes by, the death rate is declining and the birth rate is inclining due to proper medication facilities, improvement in education facilities, etc.
• This all led to a population explosion in India. The year 2011 is a case of overpopulation.

Find out: (Textbook Page No. 39)

Legal age of marriage for males and females in different countries?
Answer:

Countries	Male	Female
1. India	21	18
2. U.S.A	18	16-17
3. Afghanistan	18	16
4. Argentina	18	18
5. Australia	18	18
6. Bangladesh	21	18
7. Bhutan	18	18
8. China	22	20
9. Cuba	18	16
10. Egypt	21	21
11. Germany	18	18
12. Indonesia	19	16
13. Japan	20	20
14. Kuwait	17	15
15. Singapore	21	21
16. Thailand	17	17

Note: Students may further refer to the internet for more information on the legal age of marriage.

Do you know: (Textbook Page No. 41)

Question 1.
What do you mean by Population Education?
Answer:
According to UNESCO – “Population Education is an educational programme which provides for a study of population situation of the family, the community, nation, and world with the purpose of developing in the students rational and responsible attitude and behaviour towards the situation”.

Question 2.
When does demographic dividend occur?
Answer:
Demographic dividend occurs when the proportion of working people to the total population is high.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Solutions Chapter 5 Rural Development in India Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Solutions Chapter 5 Rural Development in India

1. Complete the following Statements:

Question 1.
Rural credit system assumes importance because _____________
(a) it leads to an increase in rural income.
(b) savings are inadequate to finance farming and other economic activities.
(c) it leads to the overall development of the rural areas.
(d) it leads to a reduction in rural inequality.
Answer:
(b) savings are inadequate to finance farming and other economic activities.

Question 2.
Productive loans are economically justified because _____________
(a) they are related to agricultural production
(b) they are used for personal consumption
(c) they help in the eradication of poverty
(d) they improve the quality of life of the people
Answer:
(a) they are related to agricultural production

Question 3.
Small farmers are unable to access rural credit provided by banks due to _____________
(a) presence of money lenders
(b) no branches in rural areas
(c) high transaction costs
(d) preference is given to large farmers
Answer:
(c) high transaction costs

Question 4.
The rights of socially disadvantaged groups can be safeguarded through _____________
(a) empowerment of women
(b) proper enforcement of law and order
(c) infrastructural development
(d) improvement in quality of life
Answer:
(b) proper enforcement of law and order

Question 5.
The quality of life of the rural people can be improved by _____________
(a) providing safe drinking water, health, and hygiene facilities
(b) effective implementation of land reforms
(c) providing subsidized credit facilities
(d) reducing rural inequality
Answer:
(a) providing safe drinking water, health, and hygiene facilities

2. Choose the wrong pair:

Question (i).

A. Agricultural Credit	B. Requirement
1. Short-term	(a) Purchase of fertilizers
2. Medium-term	(b) To meet expenditure on marriages
3. Long-term	(c) To buy a tractor

Answer:
Wrong Pair: Medium-term – To meet expenditure on marriages

Question (ii).

A. Rural Occupational Structure	B. Activity
1. Agricultural sector	(a) Banking and Insurance
2. Industrial sector	(b) Processing of raw materials
3. Service sector	(c) Computer-related service

Answer:
Wrong Pair: Agricultural sector – Banking and Insurance

3. Assertion and Reasoning questions:

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Indian economy is predominantly rural economy
Reasoning (R): As per the 2011 census, the country’s rural population is almost 83.25 crore (68.8% of the total population)
Options:
(i) (A) is true but (R) is False
(ii) (A) is false but (R) is True
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Answer:
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Literacy is a powerful instrument of socio-economic change.
Reasoning (R): Empowerment of women helps to reduce gender disparity.
Options:
(i) (A) is true, but (R) is False
(ii) (A) is false, but (R) is True
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Answer:
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Agricultural credit is mostly for unproductive purposes.
Reasoning (R): Agricultural credit is an important prerequisite for agricultural growth.
Options:
(i) (A) is true, but (R) is False
(ii) (A) is false, but (R) is True
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Answer:
(ii) (A) is false, but (R) is True

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Non-institutional finance forms an important part of rural credit.
Reasoning (R): Small farmers are unable to access bank credit because of borrowers’ unfriendly products. Options:
(i) (A) is true, but (R) is False
(ii) (A) is false, but (R) is True
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of A
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of A
Answer:
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

4. Identify and explain the concepts from the given illustrations:

Question 1.
Kusumatai knowingly set up her business enterprise in the rural area so that people living there could be gainfully employed.
Answer:
Rural Development.
Rural development is a strategy designed to improve the economic and social life of a specific group of people i.e rural poor. It involves extending the benefits of development to the poor staying in rural areas.

Question 2.
Raoji purchased a new tractor for his farm by taking a loan.
Answer:
Long Term Loan.
A long-term loan is taken for a period of more than 5 years. It is generally taken for buying tractors, making permanent improvements on the land, etc.

Question 3.
Subsidized credit is provided by banks to small farmers for the purchase of High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds.
Answer:
Short Term Loan.
A short-term loan is taken for a period not exceeding two years. It is taken to meet short-term requirements like buying fertilizers, buying HYV seeds, etc.

Question 4.
Damaji borrows a loan from a credit society established in the village this season rather than taking it from a moneylender.
Answer:
Institutional Source of Credit.
It includes commercial banks, Regional Rural Banks (RRB’s), Rural Co-operative Credit Institutions, etc.
They provide loans to farmers for agricultural productive activities at a lower rate of interest.

Question 5.
Ramraoji takes a loan from the bank for a period of ten years subject to terms and conditions for the purpose of irrigated farming.
Answer:
Long Term Loan.
A long-term loan is taken for a period of more than 5 years and is generally taken to buy a tractor or making permanent improvements on the land.

5. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below:

Rural development is one of the thrust areas of administration. As Mahatma Gandhi rightly said, “India lives in villages and the development of the nation cannot be achieved without the development of the villages”. The need of the hour is the convergence of all development interventions, at the grass-root level which can be possible through effective governance at the village level. The movement towards decentralization of the National and State governments through the Panchayati Raj system needs to be strengthened through lessons learned from the ‘successful stories of Model villages’ around India. Though India is progressing in the right direction in reducing education inequalities and increasing literacy levels, there is still a lot that needs to be done. An understanding of social issues is important for effective planning and policy development. Self-governance ensures that Indian citizens, even the previously marginalized, can participate in decision-making.

Questions 1.
Explain in short Mahatma Gandhi’s views on rural development.
Answer:
According to Mahatma Gandhi, “India lives in villages and the development of the nation cannot be achieved without the development of the villages.”
It means rural development is necessary for the development of the nation.

Question 2.
Highlight the role of the government in achieving rural development.
Answer:
The role of the government in achieving rural development is very important. It needs the convergence of all development interventions at the grass-root level which can be possible through effective governance at the village level.

Question 3.
What measures have been suggested to achieve rural development?
Answer:
Following measures are suggested to achieve rural development:

• The movement towards decentralization of the national & state governments through the Panchayat Raj system needs to be strengthened.
• An understanding of social issues is important for effective planning and policy development.
• Self-governance, which ensures that Indian citizens even previously marginalized, can participate in decision-making.

Question 4.
Express your idea of a ‘Model Village’.
Answer:
India is a country of villages.
My idea of a model village is as follows:

• There should be a good system of sanitation and the provision of safe drinking water.
• There must be good educational facilities so as to improve the literacy rate.
• There must be gender equality and women must be empowered & encouraged to participate in Community Development Programme.
• There should be proper enforcement of law & order
• There should be the development of infrastructure.
• A village should have financial institutions to provide credit at a reasonable rate of interest.
• A model village must have all possible provisions for all-around rural development.

11th Economics Digest Chapter 5 Rural Development in India Intext Questions and Answers

Find out: (Textbook Page No. 34)

Information about the latest achievements of NABARD.
Answer:
NABARD plays a pivotal role in reducing regional inequality and help small farmers, marginal farmers, and weaker sections of society.

Achievements:
(i) Refinance – short term loans:
In the year 2017-18, NABARD sanctioned short-term credit limits of ₹ 55,000 crores for seasonal agricultural operations to financial institutions.

(ii) Refinance – long term loans:
In the year 2017-18, refinance of ₹ 65,240 crores has been provided to financial institutions to carry forward a wide gamut of activities comprising of farm and non-farm activities.

(iii) Rural Infrastructure development fund:
NABARD disbursed ₹ 24,993 crores in RIDF which has now contributed substantially to the rural infrastructure funding.

(iv) Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana – Grameen (PMAY-G):
NABARD released ₹ 7,329.43 crores in 2017-18 to the National Rural Infrastructure Development Agency (NRIDA). Financial assistance was further provided by PMAY-G that planned to provide houses with basic amenities to houseless households by 2022.

(iv) Food Processing Fund:
To promote the food processing industry the Government of India instituted a special fund in NABARD in the year 2014-15. However, as of 31st March 2018, 11 Mega Food Park Projects, one integrated Food Park Project and three Food Processing Units have been sanctioned.

(v) Watershed Development:
Watershed Development programmes in 27 states have been sanctioned as of 31st March 2018.

(vi) Tribal Development:
712 projects have been sanctioned covering ₹ 5.21 lakh tribal families. ₹ 2,121 crores have been provided for their development.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Solutions Chapter 4 The Economy of Maharashtra Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Solutions Chapter 4 The Economy of Maharashtra

1. Give economic terms:

Question 1.
Investments did by foreign companies in our country.
Answer:
Liberalisation

Question 2.
Programme for development of the small, medium, and micro industries.
Answer:
MSICDP

Question 3.
The basic requirement for facilitating the production and distribution of goods and services for economic development.
Answer:
Social infrastructure

Question 4.
A movement that promotes values of self-help democracy and equality.
Answer:
Co-operative movement

2. Find the odd word out:

Question 1.
Agricultural Indebtedness, dry farming, lack of capital, engineering
Answer:
Engineering

Question 2.
Tourism, Banking, Automobile Production, Insurance
Answer:
Automobile Production

Question 3.
Pune, Hyderabad, Nasik, Nagpur
Answer:
Hyderabad

Question 4.
MTDC, MAITRI, SEZ, MIDC
Answer:
MTDC

Question 5.
Primary education, Hospitality, Higher education, Skill-based education.
Answer:
Hospitality

3. Identify and explain the concepts from the given illustrations:

Question 1.
To facilitate research in robotic technology, Japan has invested ₹ 1000 crores in India.
Answer:
Liberalisation – Foreign Direct Investment (FDI).
Due to the Liberalisation Act of 1991, foreign direct investment became easy in the Indian Industrial Sector. This led Japan to invest ₹ 1000 crores in India.
The FDI inflow in Maharashtra till September 2017 was ₹ 6,11,760 crores.

Question 2.
Prajakta and her family visited the beaches during her eight-day Diwali vacation.
Answer:
Tourism.
It is a business of providing and arranging holidays and the tourism department focuses to attract more and more tourists to Maharashtra to earn revenue for the state. To promote tourism, the government formulated Maharashtra Tourism Policy, 2016.

Question 3.
Pravin from Latur works as a technician in the films division at Mumbai city.
Answer:
Entertainment Industry.
The Entertainment Sector of Maharashtra generates employment opportunities for a large number of people. Thus, Pravin came to Mumbai and worked as a technician in the film division.

Question 4.
Rani Gond from Chandrapur works as a hostess with the Mumbai-Goa cruise ship.
Answer:
Hospitality.
It means friendly and generous receptions and entertainment of guests, visitors, or strangers. Hospitality is a broader industry than other industries and has grown rapidly in Maharashtra due to the development of the tourism business in Maharashtra.

4. Distinguish between:

Question 1.
Economic Infrastructure and Social Infrastructure.
Answer:

Economic Infrastructure	Social Infrastructure
(i) Economic Infrastructure is the basic facilities of production and distribution of goods and services for economic development.	(i) Social infrastructure is the basic facilities to improve the quality of human life.
(ii) It includes telecommunication, electricity, transportation, energy, etc.	(ii) It includes health, education, and housing.

Question 2.
The agriculture sector and Service sector.
Answer:

Agricultural Sector	Service Sector
(i) Agricultural sector is known as the primary sector. It includes the production of raw materials and basic foods.	(i) The service sector is known as the tertiary sector. They mainly provide services to the general population and to the business.
(ii) E.g. farming, fishing, hunting, mining, etc.	(ii) E.g. restaurants, tourism, banking, insurance, etc.

Question 3.
Tourism and Hospitality.
Answer:

Tourism	Hospitality
(i) Tourism refers to the business of providing and arranging holidays and services to the people who are visiting a place.	(i) Hospitality refers to the relationship between a guest and host, wherein the host receives the guest with goodwill.
(ii) It includes activities such as sightseeing and camping.	(ii) It includes reception, entertainment of guests, visitors, etc.

Question 4.
Education and Health Services.
Answer:

Education	Health Services
(i) Education is about teaching, learning skills, and knowledge. It also means helping people to learn and think about what they learn.	(i) Health services refer to medical professionals, organizations, and ancillary health care workers who provide medical care to those in need.
(ii) Education refers to a profession where people are educated for their personal development.	(ii) Health refers to mental health, physical health, etc.

5. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Explain the role of Co-operative movement in Maharashtra.
Answer:
Following is the role of the Co-operative movement in Maharashtra:

• Co-operative movements have been vastly successful in the overall improvement of the quality of life in rural areas.
• The co-operative movement has improved the lives of the people and has made a significant contribution to the economy of Maharashtra.
• Due to cooperative movement, Maharashtra is considered as the land of opportunities, as it is one of the most developed states, not only economical but also in terms of infrastructure.
• There are some other roles of co-operative movements such as agro-processing industry, agro-marketing, sugar co-operatives, fisheries Co-operative societies, Co-operative dairy societies, textiles, housing societies, etc.

Question 2.
Explain in detail the measures taken by the government for the agricultural development of Maharashtra.
Answer:
Following are the measures are taken by the government for the agriculture development of Maharashtra:

• Availability and distribution of quality seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, water sources by dams, well, turbines, etc.
• Establishment of Centre of Excellence to transfer technologies, creating awareness about agricultural information.
• Use of renewable energy in agriculture and allied activities.
• Creation of water resources for round the year cultivation.
• The Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchai Yojana(PMKSY) is another scheme to expand the cultivated areas with assured irrigation and reduce wastage of water.
• National Agriculture Market (NAM) has been introduced to promote reform of the agricultural marketing sector.

Question 3.
Explain the major problems in the industrial sector of Maharashtra.
Answer:
Major problems in the industrial sector are as follows:

• On the government level, the decision-making system is so poor that it results in huge cost escalation, increasing interest burden, and higher burden on consumers.
• India’s population is very high but there is a shortage of trained, well-educated, energetic, and experienced people.
• The technology used in industries is outdated and it affects production.
• Lack of infrastructures like transportation, communication, sewage, water, and electric system available at a high cost, results in an increase in production cost.
• Due to a lack of motivation for new entrepreneurs, self-motivation will help to achieve the entrepreneurial goals.
• Regional imbalances exist in all sectors of the economy. Especially, it is found more in the industrial sector.

Question 4.
Explain the measures taken to develop social infrastructure in Maharashtra.
Answer:
Measures taken to develop social infrastructure in Maharashtra are as follows:

(i) Education:

• Right to Education (RTE) to children in the age group of 6-14 years.
• Free and compulsory education under the program Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA).
• Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA) was launched in 2009 to improve access and quality secondary education.
• Efforts are taken to expand opportunities in higher education.
• Other measures like inclusive education, girl’s education, adult literacy, and tribal education were also taken by the government.

(ii) Health Services:
Various programmes like National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) and National Urban Health Mission – (NUHM) were undertaken to strengthen the health system in rural and urban areas created 3 tier health infrastructure to provide comprehensive health services.

(iii) Tourism:

• Formulated Maharashtra Tourism Policy, 2016.
• Organises different events like the Ellora festival, Elephanta festival, etc.
• Launched the scheme of ‘Mahabhraman’.

(iv) Hospitality:
Provides services through, Airlines, Mumbai-Goa cruise ships, fancier trains (Deccan Odyssey), restaurants, etc.

(v) Entertainment:
Generated employment opportunities by producing a large number of films.

6. Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:

The government of India has launched an ambitious programme of ‘Bharatnet’ for rural India by keeping in mind today’s modern era. More than one lakh rural (Grampanchayat) areas have been connected under Bharatnet’s high-speed broadband scheme. Maharashtra has become the best-performing state. East Uttar Pradesh, Chattisgarh, Rajasthan, and Jharkhand have also been placed among the best performing states in the first phase of the Bharatnet broadband connection scheme.

Question 1.
Why did the Government of India launch the Bharatnet project?
Answer:
The Government of India launched the ambitious programme of Bharatnet especially for rural India to get connected under Bharatnet’s high-speed broadband scheme.

Question 2.
How many Gram panchayats have received Internet services?
Answer:
More than one lakh Gram panchayats have received internet services.

Question 3.
Which states have been placed as the best performing states in the first phase of Bharatnet?
Answer:
Maharashtra, East Uttar Pradesh, Chattisgarh, Rajasthan, and Jharkhand have been placed as the best-performing state in the first phase of Bharatnet.

Question 4.
‘Internet has brought the world closer’ – Express your views on it.
Answer:
Yes, Communication has become very simple through e-mails. People can get connected online through the internet which can see each other living in another corner of the world. Through the internet, we can get each and every piece of information required for studies, research, business, etc. Messaging apps are the fastest way of communication that can be connected through the internet which also saves cost.

11th Economics Digest Chapter 4 The Economy of Maharashtra Intext Questions and Answers

Find out: (Textbook Page No. 26)

Names of any five enterprises from each category producing the following goods in Maharashtra: chemicals, food processing, textiles, automobiles, I.T., and pharmaceuticals.
Answer:
Companies or Enterprises producing the following goods in Maharashtra:

Chemical	Food Processing	Textiles	Automobiles	I.T.	Pharmaceutical
1. Core Chemical Mumbai Pvt. Ltd. (Mumbai)	1. Malpani Food Industries (Pune)	1. Tuni Textile Mills Ltd. Mumbai)	1. Force Motors (Pune)	1. Computer World (Pune)	1. Aarey Drugs and Pharmaceuticals Pvt. Ltd. (Boisar)
2. Dai Ichi Karkaria Ltd. (Mumbai)	2. Protein Food Industries (Hadapsar, Pune)	2. Bafna Textile Mumbai)	2. Maruti Udyog Ltd. Mumbai)	2. Wizertech Informatics Pvt. Ltd. Mumbai)	2. Aditya Air Products Pvt. Ltd. (Nagpur)
3. Molychem (Mumbai)	3. Vista Processed Foods Pvt. Ltd. (Navi Mumbai)	3. Baba Weaving Mills (Solapur)	3. Volvo India Pvt. Ltd Mumbai)	3. Marvell India Pvt. Ltd. (Pune)	3. Allwin Medical Pvt. Ltd. (Raigad)
4. Hindustan Organic Chemical (Rasayani)	4. Forstal Frozen Foods Pvt Ltd. (Navi Mumbai)	4. Aruna Fabrics (Kolhapur)	4. DSK Toyota DSK Motors Ltd. (Pune)	4. Ideal Computer and Softwares (Mumbai)	4. Ambica Diagnostics (Aurangabad)
5. Sanika Chemicals Pvt Ltd (Mahad)	5. Tastel Fine Food Pvt Ltd. (Mumbai)	5. Navjeevan Mills Pvt Ltd. Mumbai)	5. Arihant Auto Industries (Nashik)	5. Lotus Info System (Mumbai)	5. Cellulose Pharma Chem (Nashik)

[Source: Internet]

Try this: (Textbook Page No. 27)

Classify the services into services for business and services for final consumers.
[Fintech, IT/ITES, Startups, Cloud Computing, Electric Vehicles, Defence, Tourism and Private Universities]
Answer:

Services for Business	Services for Final Consumers
1. Fintech	(a) Electric Vehicles
2. IT/ITES	(b) Defence
3. Startups	(c) Tourism
4. Cloud Computing	(d) Private Universities
5. Defence

Think about it: (Textbook Page No. 25)

What will happen if the farmers sell their farm produce without the middlemen?
Answer:

• Middleman charge commission and make a profit by taking goods from farmers and selling them to the general public.
• If the middleman is removed then farmers will get more price for their produce as well as consumers will also get products at a lesser price.
• Sometimes middlemen create an artificial shortage of products which increases the price, thus this artificial shortage can be cut down by abolishing middlemen.
• Farmer can get right to fix price for their own product after adding sufficient profit margin which will help them to grow in future.

Find out: (Textbook Page No. 28)

Symbols of the following:
(i) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA)
(ii) Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA)
(iii) Adult Literacy Mission (ALM)
Answer:

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Solutions Chapter 3 Partition Values Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Solutions Chapter 3 Partition Values

1. Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
Statements that do not apply to Quartiles.
(a) First arrange the values in ascending or descending order.
(b) Observation can be divided into 4 parts.
(c) They are represented as Q₁, Q₂, and Q₃
(d) Q₂ is also known as the median.
Options:
(1) a
(2) b and c
(3) a, b and c
(4) None of these
Answer:
(4) None of these

Question 2.
D₇ from the given data.
Data – 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12
Options:
(1) 7
(2) 9
(3) 10
(4) 12
Answer:
(1) 7

Question 3.
Statements related to partition values that are correct.
(a) Exact divisions of percentiles into 100 parts gives 99 points
(b) Deciles have total of 9 parts
(c) Quartiles are shown by Q₁, Q₂, and Q₃
(d) Symbolically, Percentiles and Deciles are shown by P and D
Options:
(1) a and c
(2) a and b
(3) a, b and c
(4) a, c and d
Answer:
(4) a, c and d

2. Identify the correct pairs from the given options:

Options:
(1) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a
(2) 1-c, 2-a, 3-b
(3) 1-c, 2-b, 3-a
(4) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c
Answer:
Correct Pair: (2) 1-c, 2-a, 3-b

3. Give economic terms:

Question 1.
Procedure for dividing the data into equal parts.
Answer:
Partitioning

Question 2.
The value that divides the series into ten equal parts.
Answer:
Deciles

Question 3.
The value that divides the whole set of observations into four equal parts.
Answer:
Quartiles

4. Solve the following:

Question 1.
Calculate Q₁, D₄, and P₂₆ for the following data.
18, 24, 45, 29, 4, 7, 28, 49, 16, 26, 25, 12, 10, 9, 8
Answer:
Q₁ = 9, D₄ = 13.6, P₂₆ = 9.16

Question 2.
Calculate Q₃, D₅, and P₃₅ for the given data.

Answer:
Q₃ = ₹ 5 Lakhs, D₅ = ₹ 4 Lakhs, P₃₅ = ₹ 4 Lakhs

Question 3.
Find out P₅₀ for the following data:

Answer:
P₅₀ = ₹ 68 Wages

Question 4.
Calculate Q₃ for the following data:

Answer:
Q₃ = ₹ 56.09 Lakhs

Question 5.
Calculate D₇ for the following data.

Answer:
D₇ = ₹ 52.1875

Question 6.
Calculate P₁₅ for the following data.

Answer:
P₁₅ = ₹ 20 lakhs

5. State with reasons whether you agree or disagree with the following statements:

Question 1.
Partition values have application only in theory but not in practice.
OR
Partition values are not useful in economics.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with the statement.

• Partition values like quartiles are useful to economists to know the final information related to income, sales, stock data, etc.
• Also, deciles and percentiles help economists to measure in the detail the poverty line, inequality of income, household, wealth, etc.
• Hence, partition values are useful in Economics.

Question 2.
Average can misinterpret the representative value.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with the statement.

• Average is not based on all observations because it is a positional average and their values are affected by sampling fluctuations.
• Averages give more importance to larger values and less to smaller values.
• Thus, such data can misinterpret the representative value.

Question 3.
Median is also known as the second quartile.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with the statement.

• Median is the middlemost value in the arranged data.
• It is the value that divides the series into two equal parts, so that the number of items above it, is equal to the number of items below it.
• It is not affected by extreme values.
• Median = n/2 and Q₂ = 2 (n/4) i.e n/2.
• Therefore, the Median is equal to the second quartile.

6. Answer the following questions on the basis of the given table:

Question 1.
Write the formula of Q₁ and Q₃.
Answer:
Q₁ = size of \(\left(\frac{n+1}{4}\right)^{\text {th }}\) Observation
Q₃ = size of 3 \(\left(\frac{n+1}{4}\right)^{\text {th }}\) Observation

Question 2.
Find out the cumulative frequency of the last value in the above data.
Answer:
Cumulative frequency = 38.

Question 3.
Find out the value of ‘n’ in the above data.
Answer:
n = 38

Question 4.
Find out the median of the above data?
Answer:
Median = 30.

11th Economics Digest Chapter 3 Partition Values Intext Questions and Answers

Do you know? (Text Book Page No. 14)

Statistics Day: Prof. Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis, an Indian Statistician was instrumental in formulating India’s strategy for industrialization in the Second Five Year Plan (1956-61) which later came to be known as Mahalanobis Model.

Mahalanobis devised a measure of comparison between two data sets that are known as the Mahalanobis distance. He also devised a statistical method called ‘fractile graphical analysis’ which could be used to compare the socio-economic conditions of different groups of people. In recognition of the notable contributions made by P. C. Mahalanobis in the field of economic planning and statistical development, the Government of India has designated the 29th of June every year, coinciding with his birth anniversary as ‘Statistics Day’, in the category of Special day to be celebrated at the national level.

Question 1.
Who formulated India’s strategy for industrialization?
Answer:
Prof. Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis, an Indian Statistician formulated India’s strategy for industrialization.

Question 2.
What is the Mahalanobis distance?
Answer:
A measure of comparison between two data sets is called Mahalanobis distance.

Question 3.
What is fractile graphical analysis?
Answer:
Fractile graphical analysis is a statistical method that can be used to compare the socio-economic; conditions of different groups of people. This method was devised by Prof. P.C. Mahalanobis.

Question 4.
When and why is ‘Statistics Day’ celebrate?
Answer:
Statistics Day is celebrated on 29th June every year in recognition of the notable contributions made by Prof. P.C. Mahalanobis in the field of economic planning and statistical development.

Question 5.
What is the Mahalanobis model?
Answer:
Mahalanobis model is India’s strategy for industrialization in the second five-year plan (1956-61), which was formulated by Prof. P.C. Mahalanobis.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Solutions Chapter 2 Money Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Economics Solutions Chapter 2 Money

1. Complete the correlation:

Question 1.
Primary function of money : Medium of exchange : : ___________ : Transfer of value
Answer:
Secondary function of money

Question 2.
___________ : Basis of credit : : Secondary functions of money : Standard of deferred payments.
Answer:
Contingent function of money

Question 3.
Commodity money : Shells : : ___________ : Credit card
Answer:
Plastic money

Question 4.
Divisibility : Smaller denomination : : ___________ : Easy to carry from one place to another.
Answer:
Portability

Question 5.
Barter system : Goods : : Modern economy : ___________
Answer:
Money

2. Give economic terms:

Question 1.
The act of exchanging goods for goods – ___________
Answer:
Barter System

Question 2.
Provision for making payments in future – ___________
Answer:
Deferred payment

Question 3.
System that makes use of currency for facilitating payments – ___________
Answer:
Digital system

Question 4.
Credit instrument through which bank deposits are transferable – ___________
Answer:
Cheque/Demand Draft

Question 5.
Monetary value stored and transferred electronically by means of computer hard drive or servers – ___________
Answer:
E-money

Question 6.
Money not accounted for in the bank and not disclosed to the government – ___________
Answer:
Black money

3. Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
Arrange in order of evolution of money.
(a) Metallic money
(b) Animal money
(c) Metallic coins
(d) Commodity money
Options:
1) a, b, c, d
2) b, d, a, c
3) d, c, a, b
4) c, a, b, d
Answer:
2) b, d, a, c

Question 2.
Arrange in order of Evolution of money.
(a) Plastic money
(b) Electronic money
(c) Paper money
(d) Credit money
Options:
1) b, d, a, c
2) a, b, c, d
3) d, c, b, a
4) c, d, a, b
Answer:
4) c, d, a, b

4. Identify and explain the concepts from the given illustrations:

Question 1.
Vasantsheth provides coal from his shop to farmers in exchange for foodgrains.
Answer:
Barter System.
The barter system refers to the exchange of goods against goods. In the above case, it is a barter exchange as Vasantsheth exchanges coal against food grains.

Question 2.
Babanrao deposits his money in a nationalized bank.
Answer:
Bank Money.
Bank money or credit money refers to cash deposits saved by people. It can be withdrawn or transferred or demanded by means of cheque, draft, etc. In the above case, it is bank money, because Mr. Babanrao deposits his cash into the bank as deposits.

Question 3.
Charu used her debit card to purchase a shirt for her younger brother.
Answer:
Plastic Money.
Plastic money is optional money in the form of Debit cards and Credit cards. In the above case, Charu purchases a shirt with a debit card. Hence, she is using a form of Plastic money.

Question 4.
Malathi purchased a house through an agent. The agent accepted the commission amount in cash but did not issue a receipt to her.
Answer:
Black money.
Money that is received in cash but not accounted for and on which tax is not paid to Government is called Black Money. In the above case, the agent did not issue a receipt to Malathi, hence it will be a case of Black money.

Question 5.
To prevent misuse/fraudulent use of the national currency, a note ban is imposed on its use at certain times.
Answer:
Demonetization.
Demonetization is a tool to control black money in a country. A note ban is a case of demonetization.

5. State with reasons whether you agree or disagree with the following statements:

Question 1.
There are no difficulties in the barter system.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with the statement.
A barter system is a process of exchange under which people exchange goods and services produced by them with goods and services produced by others. With the progress of civilization, human wants to be multiplied and the barter system of exchange became obsolete. This was because of various inherent limitations. They are as follows:

• Lack of double coincidence of wants: Barter exchange cannot take place unless there is a double coincidence of wants. Under Barter System wants may not always coincide.
• Lack of common measure of value: In the Barter System, there was no common measuring unit of account, so it was difficult to calculate the value of goods to be exchanged.
• The problem of storage: There was the problem of storage under Barter exchange because most of the commodities exchanged were agricultural in nature. Such as rice, wheat, etc. which were perishable.
• The problem of divisibility: There was the problem of divisibility when it was a bulky commodity. E.g. exchange of rice and wheat with the horse was difficult.
• The problem of making deferred payments: Future payment was not possible in the Barter exchange. Borrowing and lending were difficult.

Question 2.
There are many good qualities found in modern currency.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with the statement.
There are many good qualities found in a modern currency like:

• General Acceptability: It must be generally accepted as a medium of exchange.
• Stability: The purchasing power of money should be stable because money serves as a store of value.
• Cognizability: It must be easily recognizable or identifiable. For E.g. Notes of different denominations must be of different sizes, colours, etc. so that they can be easily identified.
• Durability: Money should be durable also i.e. its value should not fluctuate too much.
• Divisibility: Money should be divisible into units of smaller denominations.
• Portability: It should be easy to handle and carry from one place to another.
• Homogeneity: Money of the same denomination should be identical in shape, size, colour, etc.

Question 3.
Many tasks are accomplished with money.
Answer:
Yes, I do agree with the statement.
Money performs a number of functions in today’s economy. They are as follows:

• Medium of Exchange: It serves as a medium of exchange, i.e. any commodity can be purchased or sold for money.
• The measure of Value: Money helps to compare the price of commodities in the modern economy, which was not possible during the Barter period. Value of commodity can be expressed in different currencies like Rupee in India, Dollar in the U.S.A., etc.
• Standard of deferred payment: Deferred payment means making payment at a future date. This was not possible in a barter economy, because taking loans was easy, but its repayment was difficult as the loan was in form of grains, cattle, etc.
• Store of value: Money made possible the habit of saving for the future. Saving was not possible during the barter economy as commodities started deteriorating after a certain period of time. But with the invention of money, now it can be saved for a longer period.
• Transfer of value: Transfer of money from one person to another and from one place to another place, became possible due to the invention of money.
• Contingent Functions: Besides the above functions of money, there are other functions of money, like
  • it helps to measure National Income.
  • it forms the basis of credit.
  • it imparts liquidity to wealth.
  • it helps to estimate macroeconomic variables.

Question 4.
Money can be sent anywhere through electronic means.
Answer:
Yes, I do agree with the statement.

• With the invention of new technologies, like mobile phones, tablets, smart cards, computers, etc, money can be sent anywhere nationally or globally.
• E-money is a monetary value that is stored and transferred as and when desired through various means.
• It is the safest mode of transfer as it is backed and monitored by the Central Bank.
• It is also called a digital wallet.
• Hence, money can be sent anywhere through electronic means.

6. Answer the following questions on the basis of the following information:

Ganesh travelled to the mall by bus. He gave the conductor ₹ 10 coins for the ticket. He purchased many commodities from the mall. At the billing counter, he gave his credit card for payment but the billing clerk informed him that only debit cards were accepted. Since Ganesh had forgotten his debit card at home, he offered to make payment by cash.

Question 1.
Identify the types of money used in the information.
Answer:
Types of money used in the above information are:

• Plastic money – Credit card and Debit card
• Paper money
• Token coin.

Question 2.
Explain any two of them.
Answer:
(a) Paper money: It is a substitute for metallic money. It consists of paper currency which is issued by the Central Bank of the country. Currency notes of higher denominations are issued by the Central Bank i.e. Reserve Bank of India.

(b) Bank money: It is also called Credit money. It refers to deposits that are in the form of cash saved by the people. Such money can be withdrawn or transferred with the help of instruments like cheques, drafts, etc.

Class 11 Economics Chapter 2 Money Intext Questions and Answers

Find out: [Textbook Page No. 11]

Recent changes introduced by the banks for the safe use of plastic money.
Answer:
Various changes and instructions are given by the banks for the safe use of plastic money:

• Do not save the 16 digit card number using multiple payment gateways.
• On the backside of the card, there is 3 digit number which is an added security feature that protects our card from making fraudulent transactions.
• For safe usage, a One Time Password (OTP) is provided by the bank on a client’s personal registered number (mobile number) to use for each transaction.
• Banks are instructed by RBI to move to chip and pin-based cards and avoid the use of magnetic stripe cards. The chip and pin-based cards create a unique token, every time the card is used. This provides a higher level of security than the magnetic strip.

You Should Know: [Textbook Page No. 11]

Explain the terms legal tender money and non-legal tender money.
Answer:
(i) Legal Tender Money: It is the money that is backed by law and refusal to accept this is punishable by law. It is issued by the Central Bank of the country.
E.g.: Currency note of any denominations like ₹ 5, ₹ 10, ₹ 50, ₹ 100, ₹ 200, ₹ 500, and ₹ 2000.

(ii) Non-Legal Tender Money: It is the money that is generally used by people in final payment but there is no legal compulsion to accept (i.e. no one can force to accept it). It is issued by commercial banks.
E.g. cheques, drafts, bill of exchange, etc.

Find out: [Textbook Page No. 11]

List the various modes of digital transactions.
Answer:
Various modes of digital transactions are Debit cards, Credit cards, Mobile wallets, Internet banking, Digital Payment App (Google pay, Paytm, etc), UPI (United Payments Interface), Mobile Banking, Bank prepaid card, etc.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 10 The World Since 1945 – II Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 10 The World Since 1945 – II

1A. Choose the correct alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
The __________ Missile Crisis took place in 1962. (American, Cuban, Russian, Chinese)
Answer:
Cuban

Question 2.
In 1978, the United States held a conference at __________ to resolve the Arab-Israel dispute. (Camp David, Helsinki, Paris, Geneva)
Answer:
Camp David

1B. Identify the incorrect pair in every set, correct it and rewrite.

Question 1.
(a) Iran – Ayatollah Khomeini
(b) Afghanistan – Babrak Karmal
(c) Soviet Union – Richard Nixon
Answer:
(c) USA – Richard Nixon

1C. State the appropriate concept for the given statement.

Question 1.
Prohibiting ships from entering the port of a country.
Answer:
Naval Blockade

Question 2.
Reconstruction of the political and economic system was established in the Soviet Union.
Answer:
Perestroika

2A. Complete the concept map.

Question 1.

Answer:

2B. Observe the given map and answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Map of East Europe today.

Question i.
Name any 4 countries formed after the disintegration of the Soviet Union.
Answer:
Russia, Ukraine, Belarus, Armenia, Georgia Latvia, Estonia, Moldova, Lithuania, Azerbaijan.

Question ii.
Name two neighbouring countries of Hungary.
Answer:
Austria, Croatia, Serbia, Romania, Slovakia.

3. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
Non-aligned countries put forth the demand for NAFTA.
Answer:
This statement is False.

• North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA) was set up as a ‘trade bloc’ in January 1994.
• It was signed between the USA, Canada, and Mexico to encourage free trade between the three North American Nations (trilateral trade bloc).

Question 2.
Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru was the founder of ASEAN.
Answer:
This statement is False.

• Association of South-East Asian Nations was established in 1967 by the Bangkok declaration.
• Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru was one of the founders of the Non-Aligned Movement in 1961 at Belgrade.

4. Explain the co-relation between the following.

Question 1.
Cold War and Non-aligned movement.
Answer:
The Cold War began after the end of the Second World War in 1945. It refers to a period of intense ideological hostility, build-up of armaments, the establishment of military alliances e.g., NATO, WARSAW Pact, etc., and even proxy wars such as in Korea and Vietnam. There were many efforts from 1945 – 1991 on the part of both superpowers to bring about detente i.e., reduction of hostilities and tensions e.g., Moscow Summit (1972). However, for most of this period, the world was divided into the Capitalist bloc (led by the USA and including England, France, etc.) and Communist bloc (led by USSR and including East European nations).

There were a number of newly independent countries as well as some other Third World countries who did not want to join the military alliances of any power bloc. Through the initiative of Jawaharlal Nehru (India) and Marshall Tito (Yugoslavia), the NAM was formally established in 1961 at Belgrade. Other member countries included Ghana, Egypt, Sri Lanka. Indonesia, etc. Non-alignment is based on two main principles:

• independent understanding of world affairs
• peace approach.

It does not mean political neutrality or passivity but active participation in world affairs without joining any power bloc or military alliance.

5. Answer the following.

Question 1.
Explain the term – New Cold War.
Answer:
Two events that occurred in 1979 change the course of detente.

• Islamic Revolution in Iran under leader Ayatollah Khomeini overthrew the rule of M.R. Shah Pahlavi. The new government withdrew from the CENTO alliance.
• The Soviet Union invaded Afghanistan in 1979 and installed Babrak Karmal as the President. The insurgent groups in Afghanistan (mujahideen) fought against this government (1979 – 1989). The new Cold War refers to the end of the period of detente and return of tensions between the USA and the USSR.

Question 2.
What is a trade bloc?
Answer:
A trade bloc is created when a group of nations makes special agreements regarding their economic relationships with each other. The agreements generally focus on the relaxation or even elimination of trade barriers. The most common types of trade barriers are tariffs (taxes on imports) and quotas (limits on the quantities of various imports).

6. Express your opinion on the following.

Question 1.
India played an important role in the Cold War.
Answer:
India was a non-aligned member during the cold war. It means India was neither on the side of the USA nor the Soviet Union. This was for official purposes, which enabled us to avoid giving away our land or resources to the Soviets or Americans (which they could use as a military base and eventually also make India their vassal). Having said that, unofficially India fully supported the Soviet Union.

Soviet Union protected India from the onslaught of the USA, during the India Pakistan war of 1971. The indo-soviet pact during 1971 was spearheaded by PM Indira Gandhi. Further, India cooperated and collaborated greatly with the Soviet Union in the fields of defense, manufacturing industries, medicine, nuclear energy, science among others, however, India was never a direct party to the cold war standoff between the USA and the Soviet Union.

7. Answer the following in detail with reference to the given points.

Question 1.
Elaborate on the period of Detente.
(a) Meaning
(b) Initiatives are taken by superpowers to reduce tensions
Answer:
(a) Meaning of detente: Detente refers to efforts to bring about a reduction in tensions between the USA and the USSR. This was an attempt by the two ‘superpowers’ themselves. The Cuban Missile Crises brought in a realization of a possible nuclear confrontation and the need to deescalate the tensions.

(b) Initiatives taken by the superpowers to reduce tensions: After the Cuban Missile Crisis, both the USA and USSR made several efforts at reducing bilateral tensions (detente).
This included:

• a hotline was set up between the main leaders of the two nations
• the signing of agreements such as NNPT, LTBT to reduce nuclear weapons
• 1972, Moscow Summit between President Nixon (USA) and Brezhnev (USSR).

Other initiatives were-

• Conference at Paris (1973) to bring the Vietnam crisis to an end.
• Helsinki conference on security in Europe (1975) was attended by 35 nations including the USA and USSR. It aimed to reduce the tensions between eastern and western European countries.
• The first joint US-Soviet space flight was the Apollo-Soyuz Test Project (1975)
• The USA held a conference at Camp David in 1978 to resolve the long-pending Arab-Israel dispute. The ‘Framework for Peace in the Middle East was signed between President Carter (USA) President Sadat (Egypt) and Prime Minister Begin (Israel).

Find out! (Text Book Page No. 86)

Can you find out some of the summit meetings that have taken place between leaders of India and Pakistan in recent years? Who were the leaders who participated and when and where did the meetings take place?
Answer:

• The Delhi Pact (Liaquat-Nehru Pact) was signed on 8th April 1950 as a bilateral treaty between India and Pakistan. It was signed in New Delhi by the then Indian, Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru and Pakistan, Prime Minister Liaquat Ali Khan.
• Tashkent Declaration (10th January 1966) was a peace agreement after the 1965 Indo-Pakistan war signed between Mohammed Ayub Khan (President of Pakistan) and Lai Bahadur Shastri (Prime Minister of India) in Tashkent.
• Shimla Agreement was signed on 2nd September 1972 after the 1971 Indo-Pakistan war. Signatories were Indian Prime Minister Mrs. Indira Gandhi and Pakistan Prime Minister Zulfikar Ali Bhutto.
• The non-Nuclear Aggression Agreement was signed on 21st December 1988 in is Islamabad by Rajiv Gandhi (Prime Minister of India) and Benazir Bhutto (Prime Minister of Pakistan).
• Lahore Agreement – Signed on 21st February 1999. Signatories were Shri. Atal Bihari Vajpayee (India) and Nawaz Sharif (Pakistan).
• Agra Agreement (2001). The Negotiators were Shri. Vajpayee and Pervez Musharaf (Pakistan) but negotiators broke down.

Activity (Text Book Page No. 92)

Make a list of all summit meetings of SAARC.
Answer:

Summit year	Place
1st – 1985	Dhaka (Bangladesh)
2nd – 1986	Bangalore (India)
3rd – 1987	Kathmandu (Nepal)
4th – 1988	Islamabad (Pakistan)
5th – 1990	Male (Maldives)
6th – 1991	Colombo (Sri Lanka)
7th – 1993	Dhaka (Bangladesh)
8th – 1995	New Delhi (India)
9th – 1997	Male (Maldives)
10th – 1998	Colombo (Sri Lanka)
11th – 2002	Kathmandu (Nepal)
12th – 2004	Islamabad (Pakistan)
13th – 2005	Dhaka (Bangladesh)
14th – 2007	New Delhi (India)
15th – 2008	Colombo (Sri Lanka)
16th – 2010	Thimphu (Bhutan)
17th – 2011	Addu City (Maldives)
18th – 2014	Kathmandu (Nepal)
19th – 2016	Islamabad (Pakistan) (event canceled)

 

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 9 The World Since 1945 – I Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 9 The World Since 1945 – I

1A. Choose the correct alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
In 1949, China became a communist country under the leadership of ___________ (Khrushchev, Mao Zedong, Joseph Stalin, Ho Chi Minh)
Answer:
Mao Zedong

Question 2.
The principle of peaceful co-existence was put forth by ___________ (Eisenhower, Joseph Stalin, Khrushchev, Jawaharlal Nehru)
Answer:
Khrushchev

1B. State the appropriate concept for the given statement.

Question 1.
Period of the dominance of European powers.
Answer:
Eurocentric

Question 2.
The conflict between America and the Soviet Union.
Answer:
Cold War

1C. Find the odd word in the given set.

Question 1.
Hungary, Romania, Bulgaria, France.
Answer:
France (not from the soviet bloc)

Question 2.
Italy, Poland, Spain, Greece.
Answer:
Poland (Not from the capitalist bloc nations)

2A. Complete the concept maps.

Question 1.

Answer:

2B. Observe the given map and answer the following questions.

See a map of the Division of Europe after World War II.

Question i.
Name two East European countries under influence of the Soviet Union.
Answer:
Poland, Hungary, Czechoslovakia, Bulgaria, Romania.

Question 2.
Name two West European countries under the influence of the United States.
Answer:
France, Spain, Italy, Belgium, England.

3. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
After the Bolshevik Revolution, Soviet Russia became a capitalist nation.
Answer:
This statement is False.

• After the 1917 Bolshevik Revolution. Vladimir Lenin established Socialism based on Marxist doctrine in Russia.
• Thus, Russia became the first communist nation in the world. The USA is an example of a capitalist nation.

Question 2.
The Bandung Conference brought Cold War in Asia.
Answer:
This statement is False.

• In 1955, the Bandung conference had 24 participating countries and sought to broad base the concept of regionalism to Asia and Africa.
• The Bandung conference tried to bring cooperation and stability to the regions.

4. Answer the following.

Question 1.
Explain the term regionalism.
Answer:
Regional organisations are created by countries from a particular geographic region. They form groups to promote their national interest in a cooperative manner. They try to establish their independent identity. This process of regional level cooperation is also called regionalism.

While geographic linkages are important, sometimes some functional issues become the basis of regional cooperation. These can be in areas like transport and communication, energy, health, etc.

The process of regionalism usually begins with a political dialogue amongst the participants. Such a dialogue may lead to the creation of an organisation. Organisations like the European Union (EU), Association of South-East Asian Nations (ASEAN), or South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) are examples of such regional groupings.

Question 2.
Discuss the role of the United Nations (UNO).
Answer:
The UNO was established in 1945. Its main functions include to
(i) Maintain International Peace and Security: The United Nations came into being with one main purpose i.e., the maintenance of international peace and security. The UN does this by working to prevent conflict, helping parties in conflict to make peace, peacekeeping activities, and creating the conditions to allow peace to hold and flourish.

(ii) Protect Human Rights: The promotion and protection of human rights is a key purpose and guiding principle of the UN. On 10th December 1948, the Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted.

(iii) Deliver Humanitarian Aid: One of the purposes of the United Nations is “to achieve international cooperation in solving international problems of an economic, social, cultural or humanitarian character.” The international community relies on the UN to coordinate humanitarian relief operations in times of natural and man-made disasters.

(iv) Promote Sustainable Development: The global understanding of development has changed over the years. The UN seeks to promote sustainable development, that is, a development that promotes prosperity and economic opportunity, greater social well-being, and protection of the environment.

(v) Uphold International Law: The development of and respect for international law has been a key part of the work of the UNO. This work is carried out in many ways – by courts, tribunals, multilateral treaties, and by the Security Council and ICJ.

5. Answer the following in detail with reference to the given points.

Question 1.
Elaborate on the dimensions of the Cold War.
(a) political
(b) ideological
(c) economic
(d) security
Answer:
The hostile relations between the USA and its’ allies and the USSR and its allies along with ideological conflict between them is called the ‘Cold War’ or Bipolarity. Its dimensions are
(a) Political dimension: was the aspect of the struggle for political influence over the areas under the control of the two countries. Areas under Soviet influence included East Germany, Poland, Czechoslovakia, Hungary, Romania, Bulgaria, and Albania. Areas under the United States’ influence included Netherlands, Denmark, Belgium, West Germany, France, Italy, Spain, Greece, and United Kingdom. Finland was forced to opt for neutrality to ensure that both the United States and the Soviet Union did not clash in the region.

(b) Ideological dimension: Eastern Europe adopted Socialist ideology under the influence of the Soviet Union and followed a Socialist form of government. Western Europe adopted capitalist ideology under the leadership of the United States. These countries had democratic governments.

(c) Economic dimension: East European countries with socialist governments followed the socialist economic system. This meant that the government or the public sector would play a dominant role in the economic system. West European countries that followed the democratic system of government had a capitalist form of economy. Here the private sector played a dominant role in the economic system.

(d) Security dimension: Military alliances were created in Europe to protect these countries. The North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO) was created in 1949 as a military alliance to defend West European countries and the United States from the threat of invasion from the Soviet Union and East Europe. Warsaw Pact was created in 1955 to defend East European countries and the Soviet Union from the threat from Western Europe and the United States.