Bhagya

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 8 Civil Disobedience Movement Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 8 Civil Disobedience Movement

Class 8 History Chapter 8 Civil Disobedience Movement Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options :

(Mahatma Gandhi, Khuda-i-Khidmatgar, [ Ramsay Mac Donald, Sarojini Naidu)

Question 1.
……………. organised the Round Table Conference in London.
Answer:
Ramsay Mac Donald

Question 2.
Khan Abdul Gafar Khan established the organisation named …………….
Answer:
Khuda-i-Khidmatgar

Question 3.
……………. led the Dharasana Satyagraha.
Answer:
Sarojini Naidu

Question 4.
In the Second Round Table Conference ……………. participated as a representative of Indian National Congress.
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi.

2. Explain the following statements with reasons :

Question 1.
Chandrasing Thakur was court martialled and severely punished.
Answer:

1. Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan began Satyagraha at Peshawar on 23rd April, 1930. His organisation Khuda-i Khidmatgar led the satyagraha.
2. They kept Peshawar town in their control for a week.
3. The British government ordered Garhwal regiment to fire on the satyagrahis.
4. Chandrasing Thakur an officer of the Garhwal Regiment refused to fire on the satyagrahis.

Therefore, he was court-martialled and severely punished.

Question 2.
The Government declared Martial Law at Solapur.
Answer:

1. After the Salt Satyagraha many movements which were integral of Civil Disobedience Movement started.
2. The mill workers in Solapur observed hartal and organised a huge procession on 6th May 1930.
3. The District Collector ordered firing on procession. Many volunteers including Shankar Shivdare died in the firing.
4. People got enraged and attacked railway stations, police stations, courts, municipal buildings, etc.

Therefore, Martial law was imposed in Solapur by the government.

Question 3.
The deliberation in the First Round Table Conference proved to be meaningless.
Answer:

1. The Civil Disobedience Movement intensified in India in 1930.
2. The British Prime Minister, Ramsay Mac Donald organised Round Table Conference at London to discuss constitutional issues related to India.
3. The representatives of many political parties and princely states participated in the conference. Indian National Congress did not participate in it.
4. Without the participation of the Congress which was a body that represented the country deliberations were meaningless.

Thus, the deliberation in the First Round Table Conference proved to be meaningless.

Question 4.
Gandhiji began fast unto death in the Yerwada jail.
Answer:

1. The Communal Award declared by the British Prime Minister Ramsay Mac Donald provided separate electorates for the Dalits.
2. This division of the society on the basis of caste was not acceptable to Gandhiji.
3. Therefore, to protest against the Award, Gandhiji began fast unto death in the Yerawada jail.

3. Answer the following questions in 25 to 30 words :

Question 1.
Why did Gandhiji decide to break the Salt Act to begin the Satyagraha?
Answer:
1. Before launching the Civil Disobedience Movement Gandhiji demanded cancellation of salt tax and end the monopoly of the British government to manufacture it.
2. Being an important ingredient in the food of the common people, it was unjust to impose a tax on salt.
3. Gandhiji decided to launch the Salt Satyagraha by a violation of the Salt Act, which was symbolic in breaking all unjust and oppressive laws of the British.

Question 2.
Why did the Indian National Congress withdraw the Civil Disobedience Movement?
Answer:
1. After the failure of the First Round Table Conference, Prime Minister Ramsay Mac Donald hoped that Indian National Congress would participate in the Second Round Table Conference.
2. In order to create a conducive atmosphere Gandhiji and other political leaders were released from jail.
3. A pact was signed after discussion between Gandhiji and Viceroy Irwin.
4. According to the pact, the British Government gave an assurance of providing Responsible Government in the proposed constitution of India.
5. So, the congress agreed to suspend the Civil Disobedience Movement and participate in the Second Round Table Conference.

4. Complete the following timeline of Civil Disobedience Movement:

Question 1.

Answer:

Do you Know?

Features of the Civil Disobedience Movement :
1. All the movements, till now, were limited only to urban areas. But this movement became a nationwide movement. People from rural areas registered their participation. Women also took part in large numbers. Kasturba Gandhi, Kamladevi Chattopadhyay, Ayantikaba I Gokha le, Lilavati Munshi, Hansaben Mehta led the satyagraha.

2. This movement was based on complete nonviolence. The British Government was trying to greatly suppress the movement, but the people protested unarmed. Due to this, the Indian people became fearless.

project:

Question 1.
Gather additional information along with photographs about the work of the following personalities in the Civil Disobedience Movement and exhibit it in the class. (a) Sarojini Naidu (b) Khan Abdul Gafar Khan (c) Babu Genu Said.

Question 2.
The plot on an outline map of India, the places mentioned in the chapter where the Civil Disobedience Movement took place.

Class 8 History Chapter 8 Civil Disobedience Movement Additional Important Questions and Answers

Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options :

Question 1.
After the resolution of Complete Independence was passed in Lahore session, Gandhiji decided to launch ……………. Movement.
(a) Home Rule
(b) Non-co-operation
(c) Quit India
(d) Civil Disobedience
Answer:
(d) Civil Disobedience

Question 2.
During Civil Disobedience Movement, government imposed Martial law in ……………. .
(a) Peshawar
(b) Solapur
(c) Pune
(d) Mumbai
Answer:
(b) Solapur

Question 3.
Gandhiji withdrew the Civil Disobedience Movement in ……………. .
(a) April 1934
(b) March 1930
(c) November 1932
(d) May 1933
Answer:
(a) April 1934

Question 4.
Gandhiji broke the Salt Act at ……………. .
(a) Dandi
(b) Peshawar
(c) Dharasana
(d) Yerwada
Answer:
(a) Dandi

Question 5.
The British government gave orders to regiment in Peshawar to ……………. open fire on the satyagrahis.
(a) Garhwal
(b) Sikh
(c) Maratha
(d) Rajput
Answer:
(a) Garhwal

Name the following :

Question 1.
Follower of Gandhiji known as Frontier Gandhi.
Answer:
Khan Abdul Gafar Khan

Question 2.
Volunteer who died in firing at Solapur satyagraha.
Answer:
Shankar Shivdare

Question 3.
Laid down his life in front of the truck boycotting foreign goods in Mumbai.
Answer:
Babu Genu Said

Question 4.
Attended the Second Round Table Conference as representative of Dalits.
Answer:
Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar.

Answer the following questions in one sentence :

Question 1.
What was the objective of Gandhiji in starting the Civil Disobedience?
Answer:
The objective of Gandhiji was to break the oppressive and unjust laws of the British Government through peace and Satyagraha.

Question 2.
From which place and when did the Dandi March start?
Answer:
The Dandi March started from Sabarmati Ashram in Ahmedabad on 12 March, 1930.

Question 3.
Name the leaders present at the First Round Table Conference.
Answer:
Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar, Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru, Barrister Jinnah were the leaders present at the First Round Table Conference.

Question 4.
Which issues were discussed in the First Round Table Conference?
Answer:
The issues like Responsible Government at centre and establishment of Federal State in India were discussed.

Question 5.
What decision was made in the Poona Pact?
Answer:
According to the Poona Pact, separate electorates for the Dalits was cancelled and a provision for reserved seats was made.

Do as Directed :

Complete the graphical presentation :

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Write short notes :

Question 1.
Gandhi-Irwin Pact :
Answer:
1. On the appeal of the Prime Minister, the Viceroy released Gandhiji and other political leaders from prison.
2. In this conducive atmosphere, a pact was signed between Gandhiji and Viceroy Irwin. It is known as Gandhi-Irwin Pact.

• According to the pact, the British Government gave an assurance of providing Responsible Government in the proposed constitution of India.
• Congress decided to withdraw the Civil Disobedience Movement.
• Agreed to participate in the Second Round Table Conference.

Question 2.
Second Round Table Conference :
Answer:

1. The Second Round Table Conference was held in 1931.
2. Gandhiji participated as the sole representative of the Indian National Congress.
3. Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar represented the Dalits. The representatives of the various castes and communities, political parties and the princely states also participated.
4. The issues of minority representation and nature of proposed federal constitution were discussed.
5. Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar demanded separate electorates for the Dalits.
6. Gandhiji tried to bring unanimity but he was unsuccessful. ‘
7. So, he was disappointed and returned to India.

Question 3.
Poona Pact :
Answer:

1. After the Second Round Table Conference, the British Prime Minister Ramsay Mac Donald declared Communal Awards.
2. Communal Awards granted separate electorates to the Dalits as demanded by Dr. Ambedkar.
3. Gandhiji was against the division on the basis of caste. He started fast unto death in Yerwada jail.
4. The leaders of Indian National Congress requested Dr. Ambedkar to reconsider his demand in the interest of the nation.
5. So, Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar signed the. Poona Pact with Gandhiji in 1932.
6. It provided reserved seats instead of separate electorates for the Dalits.

Question 4.
The Round Table Conference :
Answer:

1. The British Prime Minister, Ramsay Mac Donald wanted to discuss constitutional issues related to India.
2. For this purpose, he organised Three Round Table Conferences at London between 1930 and 1932.
3. Representatives of various communities, castes, political parties and princely states attended the conferences.
4. Gandhiji attended the Second Round Table Conference as the representative of Indian National Congress.
5. As no important decision was taken in them, all these conferences proved to be futile.

Answer the following questions in 25 to 30 words :

Question 1.
Write about the sacrifice of Babu Genu.
Answer:

1. There was agitation against foreign goods in Mumbai.
2. Babu Genu Said, a mill worker, was at the forefront in this Satyagraha.
3. He threw himself in front of a truck carrying foreign goods in order to stop it.
4. He did not budge even after the police threatened him.
5. In the end, he was crushed under the truck.
6. His martyrdom was a source of inspiration for the national movement.

Question 2.
Write features of Civil Disobedience Movement.
Answer:
The Civil Disobedience Movement launched in 1930 had the following features :

1. All the movements launched till then were limited to urban areas.
2. But this movement became nationwide as the people from rural areas also participated.
3. Women participated in large numbers in the movement and even led it at many places.
4. The movement was based on non-violence. People faced the suppressive measures of the government unarmed and fearlessly.

Question 3.
What suppressive measures were adopted by the British government after the Second Round Table Conference?
Answer:

1. Gandhiji resumed the Civil Disobedience Movement after he failed and returned from the Second Round Table Conference.
2. The government responded by resorting to inhuman oppressive measures.
3. Civic rights were strangled.
4. The Indian National Congress and associated institutions were declared illegal.
5. Restrictions were imposed on national newspapers and literature.

Explain the following statements with reasons :

Question 1.
Gandhiji was arrested on 4th May 1930.
Answer:

1. Gandhiji started Salt Satyagraha on 6th April 1930 at Dandi by breaking the Salt act.
2. With this the Civil Disobedience Movement started all over India.
3. In spite of suppressive measures undertaken by the British Government, they could not suppress the movement.

The British government found itself in a difficult situation. So, Gandhiji was arrested on 4th May 1930.

Question 2.
Gandhiji returned disappointed from the Second Round Table Conference.
Answer:

1. The British Government raised the issue of representation of the minorities and the nature of the federal constitution.
2. There were differences of opinion among the representatives.
3. Moreover, the efforts of Gandhiji to arrive at a consensus did not succeed.
4. This disappointed Gandhiji and he returned from the Second Round Table Conference.

Read the passage and answer the questions given below:

Passage:
The satyagraha at …………….
………………… Malavan and Shiroda.

Question 1.
Who led the Dharasana Satyagraha?
Answer:
Sarojini Naidu led the Dharasana Satyagraha in Gujarat.

Question 2.
At which places in Maharashtra did Salt Satyagraha take place?
Answer:
The Salt Satyagraha in Maharashtra took place at Wadala, Malvan and Shiroda.

Question 3.
Give a brief account of the Dharasana Satyagraha.
Answer:

1. The leadership of salt satyagraha was taken over by Sarojini Naidu at Dharasana in Gujarat after the arrest of Gandhiji.
2. The police lathi-charged the batches of the satyagrahis who came forward to break the Salt Act.
3. They silently tolerated the blows of the lathis.
4. The injured were provided medical aid and another batch of satyagrahis would replace them.
5. This chain of satyagrahis continued endlessly at Dharasana.

Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Explain the extensive nature of Civil Disobedience Movement.
Answer:

1. After the resolution of complete independence was passed, Mahatma Gandhi decided to launch the Civil Disobedience Movement.
2. he Salt Satyagraha was launched on 6th April 1930 at Dandi. It was a symbolic act by Gandhiji.
3. The main objective was to break all unjust and oppressive laws of the British through peace and Satyagraha.
4. Salt Satyagraha took place at Dharasana in Gujarat and at Wadala, Malvan and Shiroda in Maharashtra.
5. The mill workers were on the forefront in the Solapur Satyagraha.
6. The forest Satyagraha was undertaken at Bilashi, Sangamner, Kalavan, Chirner and Pusad by tribals in Maharashtra.
7. In the Northwest Frontier Province, the Satyagraha was organised under the leadership of Khan Abdul Gafar Khan.
8. The satyagrahis in Mumbai obstructed the trucks loaded with foreign goods.
9. Women also participated in large numbers.
10. This movement reached urban as well as the rural areas, thus making it a national movement.

Question 2.
Write information of Dandi March.
Answer:

1. Gandhiji decided to launch Civil Disobedience Movement to cancel unjust tax on salt and to end the monopoly of the British Government to manufacture of salt.
2. Salt, an important ingredient in the food of common people, was chosen by Gandhiji.
3. On 12th March 1930 he set out from Sabarmati ashram with his 7 followers.
4. Gandhiji delivered speeches in the villages on his way to Dandi.
5. Due to Gandhiji’s speech the message of Civil Disobedience spread everywhere and a favorable atmosphere was created.
6. He appealed to the people to join the movement fearlessly.
7. Covering a distance of 35 km, Gandhiji reached Dandi, a seashore, on 5th April 1930.
8. On 6th April, he broke the salt act by picking up the salt lying on the seashore.
9. With this, the Civil Disobedience Movement started all over the country.

Question 3.
Do you feel Gandhiji’s Civil Disobedience technique can be used in present times?
Answer:

1. Gandhiji opposed the unjust and oppressive laws of the British and broke them through peace and Satyagraha.
2. I strongly feel India needs such ways in present times. Political parties and organisations call for strike or start a movement against decisions of government.
3. They resort to unconstitutional acts such as stopping the vehicles, vandalising public property, setting objects on fire and starting riots.
4. They destroy property of the nation by involving in all this anti-social activities. Innocent people get killed.
5. It brings development to a halt, creates a divide in society.
6. The feeling of unity, co-operation and tolerance remains no more. Society becomes unsafe.
7. Therefore, I feel that even today the nation requires technique of Civil Disobedience.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
On the basis of the information given in the chapter, figures and maps, complete the table below:

S.No	Type of forest	Characteristics	Regions in India	Regions in Brazil
1	Tropical Forests	Broad-leaved evergreen trees.
2	Semi arid thorny vegetation	1. 2.
3	Savannah	Scanty bushes and shrub like trees and rain resistant grass.
4	Tropical semi-deciduous	Mixed type vegetation.
5	Grasslands	Grassland region like the Pampas of Argentina.

Answer:

S. No.	Type of forest	Characteristics	Regions in India	Regions in Brazil
(1)	Tropical Forests	Broad-leaved evergreen trees.	Andaman and Nicobar Islands, the Western Ghats. Some parts of North East India.	Amazon Basin, Guyana Highlands.
(2)	Semi arid thorny vegetation	(a)     Thorny and shrub type vegetation. (b)   Leaves are small in size. Leaves are modified into thorns to minimise evaporation.	Gujarat, Rajasthan, Parts of Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.	North-Eastern part of Brazil.
(3)	Savannah	Scanty bushes and shrub like trees and rain resistant grass.		Brazilian Highland.
(4)	Tropical semi-deciduous	Mixed type vegetation.	Central India and South India.	Parana Basin and South Eastern part of Brazil.
(5)	Grasslands	Grassland region like the Pampas of Argentina.	Foothills of Shiwalik hills and Assam.	Southern Brazil.

2. Identify the odd man out:

Question a.
Forest type of Brazil ______.
(a) Thorny bush type vegetation
(b) Evergreen forests
(c) The Himalayan Forests
(d) Deciduous forests
Answer:
(c) The Himalayan Forests

Question b.
With reference to India
(a) Mangrove forests
(b) Mediterranean forests
(c) Thorny bush-type vegetation
(d) Equatorial forests
Answer:
(b) Mediterranean forests

Question c.
With reference to Fauna of Brazil.
(a) Anaconda
(b) Tamairin
(c) Red Panda
(d) Lion
Answer:
(c) Red Panda

Question d.
With reference to flora in India.
(a Deodar
(b) Anjan
(c) Orchid
(d) Banyan
Answer:
(c) Orchid

3. Match the Column:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
Evergreen Forests	(a) Sundari trees
Deciduous forests	(b) Pine
Coastal forests	(c) Pau Brasil
Himalayan forests	(d) Khejari
Thorny and bush type vegetation	(e) Teak
	(f) Orchid

Answer:
1 – c
2 – e
3 – a
4 – b
5 – d

4. Answer in short:

Question a.
Differentiate between the forest types of Brazil and India.
Answer:

Forest type of Brazil	Forest type of India
1. The northern part of Brazil lies in the equatorial region. It receives ample sunshine and heavy rainfall. So dense evergreen forests are seen here.	1. The location of India is far away from the Equator. Heavy rainfall occurs only in the Western Ghats and North Eastern hilly areas. So evergreen forests are seen in these regions.
2. The Highland region of Brazil receives low rainfall. So tropical grasslands are seen in this region.	2. The Peninsula region of India receives rainfall between 1000 mm to 2000 mm, so they are covered by deciduous forests.
3. As there are no tall and long extending mountains in Brazil, Himalayan type forests are not found here.	3. Owing to presence of Himalayas, Himalayan type forests are found in North and North-East of India that are classified on the basis of altitude.
4. Thorny shrubs are found to the North Eastern part of Brazilian Highlands which is also considered to be a Drought Quadrilateral.	4. Thorny shrubs are found in India receiving less than 500 mm of rainfall. It is majorly found in Gujarat, Rajasthan and rain shadow regions of the Western Ghats.

Question b.
Correlate wildlife and natural vegetation in India and Brazil.
Answer:
(i) Depending upon favourable geographical conditions, we find a variety of natural vegetation in India and Brazil. Also depending upon the vegetation we find a variety of wildlife in different regions.

(ii) Grasslands of Brazil like the Savannah and the deciduous forest of India have a large number of herbivores and carnivores.

(iii) The dense evergreen forests of India in the west, north east India and the Amazon Basin of Brazil are a home to a large variety of birds, insects, reptiles along with the herbivores and the carnivores.

(iv) Coastal forests and swampy areas of Pantanal and Sunderbans have mangroves, a variety of birds, fishes and reptiles like crocodiles, alligators and the anacondas in Brazil.

(v) Vegetation provides food and shelter to wildlife but if vegetation is limited like in the Thar desert or the Caatinga it will also limit the variety of animals species.

Question c.
What environmental issues are faced by Brazil and India?
Answer:

• Degradation of environment is happening in Brazil due to illegal smuggling of wild animals, slash and burn agriculture (roca), deforestation, pollution, etc.
• Due to these problems, many endemic species are on the verge of extinction.
• India too faces environmental issues such as poaching, pollution and the fast spreading deforestation.
• Many species of wildlife are on the verge of extinction in India.

Question d.
What are the major causes of degradation of forest in Brazil and India?
Answer:
(i) Forests are being cut down as more area is required to expand the cities. Hence rapid urbanisation is one of the reasons for degradation of forest.

(ii) To ensure continuous food supply to meet the needs of the ever increasing population, more and more area needs to be brought under agriculture. For the expansion of agricultural land, forest areas are being cut down.

(iii) In both India and Brazil, forests are being cut down for firewood and for other domestic needs.

(iv) Slash and Burn agriculture which is also known as Roca in Brazil and Jhum in India is responsible for deforestation.

(v) Apart from all the above reasons, forest fire, pollution, overgrazing, etc. are also responsible for the degradation of forests.

Question e.
Why does the deciduous type vegetation occupy most of India?
Answer:

• Vegetation in a region is affected by the climate and rainfall of the region.
• In dia lies in the tropical zone and it has a monsoon type climate throughout the year.
• Also, a major portion of India receives seasonal rainfall between 1000-2000 mm.
• Deciduous forests thrive well in this condition and these forests shed their leaves during the hot and dry summer so that water is not lost due to evaporation.
• Teak, bamboo, banyan, peepal, etc. are the trees found in deciduous forest of India.

5. Give geographical reasons:

Question a.
The northern part of Brazil is covered with dense forests.
Answer:

• The northern part of Brazil lies in the equatorial region.
• It receives ample sunlight and about 2000 mm of rainfall throughout the year.
• In this region, the growth of vegetation is very rapid.
• So, the northern part of Brazil is covered with dense and evergreen forests.

Question b.
Vegetation is scarce in the high altitude of the Himalayas.
Answer:

• As the altitude increases, the temperature decreases.
• The climate is very cold in the high altitudes. In Jammu and Kashmir and parts of Himalayas temperature drops to -40fiC.
• Also this region is snow-covered for most part of the year.
• Very few species of plants can survive in such extreme conditions. Only seasonally flowering trees are found at higher altitudes.
• Hence, vegetation is scarce in the high altitude of the Himalayas.

Question c.
A wide variety of insect species is found in Brazil.
Answer:

• Insects are mostly found in forests, grasslands and swampy lands.
• Many insects eat leaves, grass and nectar from the plant.
• The evergreen rainforests are seen in the northern parts of Brazil. The grasslands are found in the central parts and Paraguay-Parana river basin. Similarly, swampy lands are found in Pantanal region in Brazil. .
• Therefore, a wide variety of insect’s species is found in Brazil.

Question d.
Wild life in India is decreasing day by day.
Answer:
(i) Wildlife in India is decreasing day by day because of rapidly occurring deforestation, poaching, pollution.

(ii) Expansion of cities to accommodate the growing population is leading to cutting down of the valuable forest which leads to the loss of the habitat of wildlife.

(iii) Also the problem of pollution has become severe due to urbanisation. Various types of pollution have threatened the lives of many of the species.

(iv) Poaching of wildlife species have also led to the loss of wildlife in India.

(v) Agricultural practices like shifting cultivation has also reduced the forest cover leading to loss of wildlife habitat.

Question e.
Like India, there is a need for conservation of forests in Brazil too.
Answer:
(i) Like India, Brazil is facing the problem of degradation of environment due to deforestation, pollution, slash and burn agriculture, illegal smuggling of wild animals, etc.

(ii) Trees are being cut down to obtain wood, leading to large scale deforestation in both countries.

(iii) Also the problem of pollution has become severe due to urbanisation. Various types of pollution have threatened the lives of many of the species.

(iv) Agricultural practices like slash and burn agriculture (roca) has reduced the forest cover in Brazil.

(v) Like India, the problem of illegal smuggling of animals has affected Brazil too.

(vi) Hence there is a need for conservation of forests in both Brazil and India.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Intext Questions and Answers

Observe the images given below and discuss on the basis of the following points and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Can you tell the names of the plants/trees shown in the image?
Answer:
Coffee, cactus, rubber.

Question 2.
Where have you seen these plants before?
Answer:
Brazil.

Question 3.
Name the fauna shown in the image.
Answer:
Rufous bellied thrush, leopard, green anaconda.

Question 4.
Where have you seen them before?
Answer:
On the internet and in movies.

Question 5.
In which country do you find a greater diversity of vegetation? What is the reason behind it?
Answer:
Brazil has a greater diversity of vegetation because of the variation in climatic conditions.

Colours Of Both

Question 1.
In which country do equatorial forests occupy a greater area? What could be the reason behind it?
Answer:
Equatorial forests occupy a greater area in Brazil. This is because the Equator passes through northern part of Brazil. Hence, the climate is generally hot throughout the year. Moreover, this region receives heavy rainfall throughout the year.

Question 2.
Which type of forests found in India are not found in Brazil?
Answer:
Himalayan forests are found in India and not in Brazil.

Question 3.
Which type of forests found in Brazil are found in India too?
Answer:
Evergreen forests, deciduous forests, and thorny shrub type vegetation are found in both Brazil and India.

Question 4.
In which country a greater diversity of vegetation is found? What is the reason behind it?
Answer:
Brazil has a greater diversity of vegetation because of the equatorial climate, ample sunlight, heavy rainfall, and vast forest expanse.

Question 5.
Considering the climate and vegetation types, in which country will forest-based occupations flourish?
Answer:
Forest-based occupations will flourish more in Brazil.

Activity

Question 1.
Correlate geographical conditions and the flora and fauna there? (India)
Answer:
Depending upon favourable geographical conditions, we find a variety of flora and fauna in India.

(i) In the snow-capped regions of Himalayas where precipitation occurs in the form of snow, we find alpine vegetation. Animals like snow leopards and yaks are found who can sustain the extreme cold of the Himalayas.

(ii) The evergreen forest in the Western Ghats have hot and humid conditions with a temperature of 28°C and annual rainfall more than 2000mm. In such are as animals like lions, tigers, elephants, and a variety of birds are seen.

(iii) The coastal forest are home to many turtles, crocodiles, and gavials, etc. One-horned rhinoceroses are found in the swampy, marshy lands of Assam. Mangrove vegetation is found in the saline waters.

(iv) In areas where the climate is hot and dry and the rainfall is low, thorny scrub vegetation is found. Animals like wild ass and camels are common here.

(v) In the regions of medium rainfall. We find deciduous forest, wide variety of animals and birds.

Question 2.
Do you know some other animals too ?
Answer:
Four-horned antelope, black buck, Tibetan yak, giant squirrel (shekaru).

Use your Brain:

Question 1.
Find out in which parts of India agricultural practices like the ‘Roca’ is found? By what names are they called?
Answer:

Slash and Burn Farming in India
Name	Regions
Jhumming	Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Nagaland
Pamlou	Manipur
Dipa	Bastar (Chhattisgarh) and Andaman & Nicobar Islands
Bewar or Dahiya	Madhya Pradesh
Podu or Penda	Andhra Pradesh
Pama Dabi or Koman or Bringa	Odisha
Kumara	Western Ghats
Valre or Waltre	South Eastern Rajasthan
Khi	Himalayan belt
Kuruwa	Jharkhand

Answer the following questions on the basis of map given:

Question 1.
How many mm of rainfall does Tropical forests have?
Answer:
Tropical forests receives rainfall of 1600 mm.

Question 2.
How much rainfall does equatorial forests receive?
Answer:
Equatorial forests receive 2000 mm of rainfall.

Question 3.
Name the types of forests shown in figure.
Answer:
Tropical forests, Equatorial forests, Deciduous forests and Temperate forests are shown in the above figure.

Question 4.
Where are tropical and equatorial forests found in Brazil?
Answer:Tropical and equatorial forests are found in Guyana Highlands and Amazon basin respectively.

Question 5.
Where are deciduous forests and temperate forests found in Brazil?
Answer:
Deciduous forests and Temperate forests are found in Parana Basin and Brazilian Highlands respectively.

Question 6.
What kind of wildlife is seen in Brazilian Highlands?
Answer:
Reptiles and grassland animals are seen in Brazilian Highlands.

Question 1.
Which forests are found in western snow¬capped regions?
Answer:
Himalayan Forests are found in western snow-capped regions.

Question 2.
On which coast do you mainly find the coastal vegetation?
Answer:
The coastal vegetation is mainly found along the Eastern Coast.

Question 3.
Which type of forests occupy maximum area in India ? Why?
Answer:
Deciduous forests are found in the regions receiving rainfall between 1000 mm to 2000 mm Since most of India has rainfall in that range, deciduous forests dominate the Indian subcontinent.

Question 4.
Where do you find thorny and shrub vegetation in India and why?
Answer:
Semi arid areas of Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Uttar Pradesh Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and Haryana are the places where thorny and shrub vegetation are found. The thorny forests are found in these regions as the rainfall is less than 500 mm.

Question 1.
Name the species shown on the map.
Answer:
Some of the major species shown on the map are condor, golden lion tamarin, anaconda, crocodile, sword fish, flamingoes, macaw, parrots, rufous bellied thrush.

Question 2.
In which regions are these animals found? Why are their habitats found in these forests?
Answer:

• The dense equatorial forest region is home to golden lion tamarin, condor, anaconda, etc. This is because these forest lie near the Amazon River and receive rainfall throughout the year.
• Swampy lands of Pantanal is home to anacondas and crocodiles because these conditions are favourable for their habitation.
• Sword fish thrives near the South Atlantic Coast due to the extensive continental shelf.

Question 3.
Classify the forest regions in Brazil with reference to their extent.
Answer:

• Equatorial forests are found in the northern part of Brazil and it covers an extensive area.
• Tropical Grasslands (Savanna) is the next major forest type occupying central part of Brazil.
• Hot deciduous forests occupy the southern Brazil whereas swampy lands of Pantanal occupy a small part of Brazil in the south west.
• Thorny shrubs occupy the north western part of Brazil owing to low rainfall whereas Temperate Grasslands (Pampas) occupy south Brazil.

Mark the following on the map of India with the given information:
Question 1.

1. Bengal Tiger
2. Lion
3. Great Indian Bustard
4. Gangetic Dolphin
5. Olive Ridley turtles
6. Swamp deers
7. One-horned rhinos
8. Nilgiri Tahr goat
9. Gharials

Answer:

Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
In Brazil, _____ varies due to physiography.
(a) soil
(b) rainfall
(c) agriculture
(d) mineral availability
Answer:
(b) rainfall

Question 2.
In most parts of the _____ region, it rains throughout the year.
(a) temperate
(b) tropical
(c) grasslands
(d) equatorial
Answer:
(d) equatorial

Question 3.
As one moves away from the Equator, _______ decreases.
(a) altitude
(b) forest
(c) rainfall
(d) snowfall
Answer:
(c) rainfall

Question 4.
The _______ forests are found where there is rainfall throughout the year.
(a) tropical
(b) thorny
(c) evergreen
(d) temperate
Answer:
(c) evergreen

Question 5.
Brazil has the/a ______ number of vegetation species in the world.
(a) moderate
(b) largest
(c) low
(d) smallest
Answer:
(b) largest

Question 6.
The rainforests are rightly called the _______.
(a) lungs of the world’
(b) ’limbs of the world’
(c) ’heart of the world’
(d) ’veins of the world’
Answer:
(a) lungs of the world’

Question 7.
Highest biodiversity is found in _____ forests.
(a) thorny
(b) deciduous
(c) evergreen
(d) coastal
Answer:
(c) evergreen

Question 8.
In regions receiving rainfall between 1000 mm to 2000 mm in India, ______ forests are found.
(a) thorny
(b) evergreen
(c) deciduous
(d) tropical
Answer:
(c) deciduous

Question 9.
In regions receiving less than 500 mm of rainfall that experience dry summers for a long time in India, ______ and shrub like vegetation are found.
(a) equatorial
(b) evergreen
(c) grasslands
(d) thorny
Answer:
(d) thorny

Question 10.
In _____ areas, coastal type of vegetation is found.
(a) peninsular
(b) mountainous
(c) rocky
(d) swampy
Answer:
(d) swampy

Question 11.
Coastal type of vegetation is called ____ in India.
(a) Bangar
(b) Sunderbans
(c) Pantanal
(d) Terai
Answer:
(b) Sunderbans

Question 12.
The wood found in Sunderbans is _____ light and durable.
(a) dry
(b) fragile
(c) oily
(d) soft
Answer:
(c) oily

Question 13.
In areas located in the ____ altitude of Himalayas, seasonly flowering trees are found.
(a) highest
(b) lowest
(c) plains
(d) medium
Answer:
(a) highest

Question 14.
In regions with medium altitude of Himalayas, ______ trees are found.
(a) rubber
(b) evergreen
(c) rose wood
(d) coniferous
Answer:
(d) coniferous

Question 15.
At foothills of the Himalayas _____ forests are found.
(a) mixed
(b) teak –
(c) coniferous
(d) pine
Answer:
(a) mixed

Question 16.
The proportion of ________ trees is higher at the foothills of the Himalayas.
(a) sal
(b) deodar
(c) rosewood
(d) pine
Answer:
(a) sal

Question 17.
Teak is mainly found in the _______ type of forest.
(a) Coastal
(b) Thorny and bush
(c) Coniferous
(d) Deciduous
Answer:
(d) Deciduous

Question 18.
A greater diversity of wildlife is found in ________ than any other country in the
world.
(a) India
(b) Russia
(c) Australia
(d) Brazil
Answer:
(d) Brazil

Question 19.
In the swampy areas of Pantanal, _______ are found.
(a) cobras
(b) vipers
(c) huge anacondas
(d) Indian pythons
Answer:
(c) huge anacondas

Question 20.
Among fish varieties, ______ is found in seas of Brazil
(a) mackerel
(b) king fish
(c) sword fish
(d) pink dolphins
Answer:
(c) sword fish

Question 21.
In Brazilian rivers, pink dolphins and ______ are found.
(a) gold fish
(b) piranhas
(c) king fish
(d) mackrels
Answer:
(b) piranhas

Question 22.
One of the major bird species found in Brazil includes _______.
(a) ostrich
(b) flamingoes
(c) kiwi
(d) duck
Answer:
(b) flamingoes

Question 23.
Slash and bum agriculture is also called ______ in Brazil.
(a) kumri
(b) roka (roca)
(c) dry farming
(d) bewar
Answer:
(b) roka (roca)

Question 24.
Hot and humid forests are a home for _______
(a) tiger
(b) elephants
(c) dogs
(d) leopard
Answer:
(b) elephants

Question 25.
One horned rhinoceroses are found in swampy and marshy lands of ______.
(a) Assam
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Telangana
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(a) Assam

Question 26.
Indian bisons, deers, monkeys are found in the _____ region.
(a) Himalayan
(b) Western Ghats
(c) Peninsular
(d) Deccan
Answer:
(c) Peninsular

Question 27.
The only country where both lions and tigers are found is ______.
(a) Brazil
(b) India
(c) Australia
(d) America
Answer:
(b) India

Question 28.
______ which are huge in size fly high in the Brazilian sky.
(a) Macaws
(b) Kingfishers
(c) Condors
(d) Pheasants
Answer:
(c) Condors

Match the Column:

Question 1.

Column ’A’	Column ‘B’
1. Evergreen Forests	(a) Major portion of Madhya Pradesh
2. Deciduous forests	(b) Arunachal Pradesh
3. Thorny shrubs	(c) Sundarbans
4. Himalayan forests	(d) Western Ghats
5. Coastal forests	(e) Gujarat
	(f) Cold desert in Jammu and Kashmir
	(g) Hot desert in Rajasthan

Answer:
1 – d
2 – a
3 – e
4 – b
5 – c

Question 2.

Column ’A’	Column ‘B’
1. Equatorial forests	(a) Caatinga
2. Grasslands	(b) Pantanal
3. Swampy Lands	(c) Pampas
4. Hot deciduous forests	(d) Amazon river basin
5. Thorny shrubs	(e) Escarpment
	(f) Savanna
	(g) Parana basin

Answer:
1 – d
2 – c
3 – b
4 – e
5 – a

Identify the odd man out:

Question 1.
With reference to Fauna in India.
(a) Anaconda
(b) Elephants
(c) Lion
(d) Tiger
Answer:
(a) Anaconda

Question 2.
With reference to Flora of Brazil.
(a) Pau Brazil
(b) Rubber
(c) Mahogany
(d) Deodar
Answer:
(d) Deodar

Question 3.
With reference to Himalayan Forests.
(a) Seasonal flowering plants
(b) Orchids
(c) Pine
(d) Mixed Forests
Answer:
(b) Orchids

Question 4.
With reference to birds found in Brazil.
(a) Condors
(b) Flamingoes
(c) Macaws
(d) Peacocks
Answer:
(d) Peacocks

Question 5.
With reference to birds found in India.
(a) Peacock
(b) Kingfisher
(c) Duck
(d) Condors.
Answer:
(d) Condors.

Question 6.
With reference to protection of wildlife, Government of India has setup.
(a) Museums
(b) Biosphere reserves
(c) National Parks
(d) Wildlife sanctuaries
Answer:
(a) Museums

Answer the following questions in one sentence:

Question 1.
Where does it rain throughout the year?
Answer:
It rains throughout the year, in most parts of the equatorial region.

Question 2.
As one moves away from the Equator, does the rainfall increase?
Answer:
No, the rainfall decreases as one moves away from the Equator.

Question 3.
Where are evergreen forests found?
Answer:
Evergreen forests are found in the area where it rains throughout the year.

Question 4.
What effect does rainfall have on vegetation?
Answer:
As the rainfall decreases, the density of the vegetation also decreases.

Question 5.
What kind of vegetation is found in places of less rainfall?
Answer:
Various types of grass, short shrubs and thorny vegetation is found in places of less rainfall.

Question 6.
Where are the largest number of vegetation species found in the world?
Answer:
Brazil has the largest number of vegetation species in the world.

Question 7.
What kind of trees are found in Brazil?
Answer:
Trees like Pau Brasil, rubber, mahogany, rosewood and a variety of orchids are found in Brazil.

Question 8.
Why are the evergreen forests called the ‘lungs of the world’?
Answer:
Evergreen forests are called the lungs of the world because they release large amount of oxygen in the environment which helps to reduce the carbon dioxide levels.

Question 9.
Describe the leaves of trees found in evergreen forests.
Answer:
The leaves of trees found in evergreen forests are broad and green.

Question 10.
What quality of wood is found in evergreen forests?
Answer:
The wood found in evergreen forests is hard, heavy and durable.

Question 11.
In which regions are deciduous forests found?
Answer:
Deciduous forests are found in the regions receiving an average amount of rainfall ranging between 1000mm to 2000mm in India.

Question 12.
Which trees are found in deciduous forests?
Answer:
Trees like teak, bamboo, banyan, peepal, etc. are found in deciduous forest.

Question 13.
Which regions experience dry summers for a long time in India?
Answer:
Regions that receive less than 500 mm of rainfall experience dry summers for a long time in India.

Question 14.
Which kind of vegetation is found in regions receiving less than 500 mm of rainfall?
Answer:
Thorny or shrub like vegetation is found in regions receiving less than 500 mm of rainfall.

Question 15.
How are the leaves of trees in the region where there is less than 500 mm of rainfall?
Answer:
The leaves of trees are small in the region where there is less than 500 mm of rainfall.

Question 16.
Where is coastal vegetation found?
Answer:
Coastal vegetation is found in swampy areas, estuaries and lagoons near coastal areas.

Question 17.
What is coastal vegetation called in India?
Answer:
Coastal vegetation is called mangroves or Sunderbans in India.

Question 18.
How is the wood of trees found in coastal vegetation?
Answer:
The wood of trees found in coastal vegetation is oily, light and durable.

Question 19.
How many types of forests are there in the Himalayas?
Answer:
There are three types of forests in the Himalayas based on their altitude.

Question 20.
Which kind of trees are found in regions of high altitude in the Himalayas?
Answer:
Seasonally flowering trees are found in regions of high altitude.

Question 21.
Which type of trees are found in regions with medium altitude in the Himalayas?
Answer:
In regions with medium altitude, coniferous trees like pine, deodar and fir are found.

Question 22.
Where are mixed forests found in India?
Answer:
Mixed forest are found at the foothills of the Himalayas.

Question 23.
Where is greater diversity in wildlife found in the world?
Answer:
A greater diversity in wildlife is found in Brazil than any other country in the world.

Question 24.
Which animal is found in the swampy areas of the Pantanal?
Answer:
Huge anacondas are found in the swampy areas of Pantanal.

Question 25.
Which are the other animals found in Brazil?
Answer:
Animals like guinea pigs, crocodiles, alligators, monkeys, pumas, leopards, etc. are found in Brazil.

Question 26.
Which is the main variety of fish found in the Brazilian sea?
Answer:
Sword fish is mainly found in the Brazilian sea.

Question 27.
Which varieties of fish are found in the rivers of Brazil?
Answer:
Piranhas are found in the rivers of Brazil.

Question 28.
What kind of birds are seen in the Brazilian sky?
Answer:
Condors, parrots, macaws, and flamingoes are found in the Brazilian skies.

Question 29.
Why is degradation of environment happening in Brazil?
Answer:
Degradation of environment is happening in Brazil due to illegal smuggling of wild animals, slash and bum agriculture (roka), deforestation, and pollution.

Question 30.
Where are elephants found in India?
Answer:
Elephants are found in hot and humid forests of India.

Question 31.
Where are one homed rhinoceroses found?
Answer:
One homed rhinoceroses are found in the swampy and marshy lands of Assam.

Question 32.
Which animals are found in the arid lands of India?
Answer:
Wild ass and camels are found in the arid lands of India.

Question 33.
Which animal is found in the snow capped regions of Himalayas?
Answer:
Snow leopards are found in the snow capped regions of the Himalayas.

Question 34.
Which animals are found in the peninsular region of India?
Answer:
Indian Bisons, deer, antelopes, and monkeys are found in the Peninsular region of India.

Question 35.
Which is the only country where both lions and tigers are found?
Answer:
India is the only country where both lions and tigers are found.

Question 36.
Where are turtles, crocodiles and gharials found in India?
Answer:
Turtles, crocodiles and gharials are found in rivers, estuaries, and coastal areas of India.

Question 37.
Which birds are found in the forests and wetlands of India?
Answer:
Birds like peacocks, Indian bustard, kingfishers, peasants, ducks, parakeet, cranes, and pigeons are found in the forests and wetlands of India.

Question 38.
What measures are taken by the Government of India for the protection of wildlife and forests of India?
Answer:
The Government of India has set up a number of national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, bird sanctuaries, and biosphere reserves for the protection of wildlife and forests in India.

Question 39.
Name some plants found in regions having less than 500 mm of rainfall in India.
Answer:
Catechu, acacia, khejri and a variety of cactus like aloevera and agave are found in regions having less than 500 mm of rainfall in India.

Name the following:

Question 1.
The region where it rains throughout the year.
Answer:
Equatorial region.

Question 2.
The forests which are found where it rains throughout the year.
Answer:
Evergreen forests.

Question 3.
Kind of vegetation found in places of less rainfall.
Answer:
Grass, short shrubs, thorny vegetation.

Question 4.
Country where the largest number of vegetation species in the world is located.
Answer:
Brazil.

Question 5.
The types of trees found in Brazil.
Answer:
Pau Brasil, rubber, mahogany, rosewood and variety of orchids.

Question 6.
Other name for rain forests.
Answer:
‘The lungs of the world.’

Question 7.
Trees found in deciduous forests.
Answer:
Teak, bamboo, banyan, peepal.

Question 8.
Type of vegetation found in regions having less than 500 mm of rainfall.
Answer:
Thorny and shrub-like.

Question 9.
Plants found in regions having less than 500 mm of rainfall.
Answer:
Catechu, acacia, khejri and varieties of cactus.

Question 10.
Kind of vegetation found in swampy areas.
Answer:
Coastal type.

Question 11.
Another name of coastal type of vegetation in India.
Answer:
Mangroves or sunderbans.

Question 12.
Kind of trees found in forests located on higher altitudes in the Himalayas.
Answer:
Seasonally flowering trees.

Question 13.
Kind of trees which have grown in forests located on medium altitudes in Himalayas. Coniferous trees like Pine, Deodar and Fir.
Answer:
Region where mixed forests are found in Himalayas.

Question 14.
Foothills of Himalayas.
Answer:
Animal found in the swampy areas of Pantanal.

Question 15.
Huge anacondas.
Answer:
Any two varieties of animals found in Brazil. Guinea pigs and crocodiles.

Question 16.
Kind of fishes found in seas of Brazil.
Answer:
Sword fish.

Question 17.
Fish varieties found in the rivers of Brazil.
Answer:
Pink dolphins and Piranhas.

Question 18.
Any two species of birds found in Brazil.
Answer:
Condors and macaws.

Question 19.
Causes for degradation of environment.
Answer:
Illegal smuggling of wild animals, roka, deforestation and pollution

Question 20.
Region where elephants are found in India.
Answer:
Hot and humid forests.

Question 21.
Animal which is found in the swampy and marshy lands of Assam.
Answer:
One horned rhinoceroses.

Question 22.
Animals which are found in arid lands of India.
Answer:
Wild ass and camels.

Question 23.
Animals which are found in the snowcapped mountain of Himalayas.
Answer:
Yaks and snow leopards.

Question 24.
Animals found in the Peninsular region of India.
Answer:
Indian bisons, deer, antelopes and monkeys.

Question 25.
Country where both lion and tigers are found.
Answer:
India.

Question 26.
Animals found in rivers, estuaries and coastal areas of India.
Answer:
Turtles, crocodiles and garials.

Question 27.
Measures taken by the Government of India to protect wildlife.
Answer:
Setting up of National parks, bird sanctuaries, wildlife sanctuaries and biosphere reserves.

Question 28.
National animal of India.
Answer:
Tiger.

Mark the following on the map of India with the given information:

1. Evergreen forests
2. Deciduous forest
3. Thorny shrubs
4. Himalayan Forests
5. Coastal Forests

Answer:

Mark the following on the map of Brazil with the given information:

1. Equatorial forests
2. Tropical grasslands
3. Swampy lands
4. Hot deciduous forest
5. Caatinga
6. Temperate grasslands

Answer:

Equatorial Forests Tropical Grasslands:Savanna Swampy Lands Hot Deciduous Forest Thorny Shrubs/Caatinga Temperate Grasslands:Pampas

Question 1.
Show the habitats of tigers in India with their names on a map.
Answer:

Question 2.
Why is their habitat found in these regions?
Answer:
Tiger’s habitats are found in these regions because here there are various types of forest areas with different types of herbivorous animals.

Answer the Questions Briefly:

Question 1.
Thorny and shrub-like vegetation is found in regions where there is less or no rainfall.
Answer:

• The regions where there is less or no rainfall have a hot and dry climate.
• The soils in these regions are also rocky and dry.
• Water evaporation in leaves is more since the surface area of exposure is more than that of thorns
• Hence, thorny and shrub-like vegetation is found in regions where there is less or no rainfall to conserve water.

Question 2.
The evergreen rainforests in Brazil are rightly called the ‘Lungs of the world’.
Answer:

• The northern Part of Brazil has dense evergreen forests. .
• These forests release a large amount of oxygen in the environment.
• This helps to reduce carbon dioxide levels.
• Therefore, these rainforests are rightly called the Tungs of the world’.

Question 3.
The largest variety of flora is found in Brazil.
Answer:

• The flora of any region depends upon the amount of rainfall and its physiography.
• Brazil has equatorial forests in high rainfall areas, tropical grasslands and deciduous forests in moderate rainfall areas.
• Western part of Brazil has swampy lands, whereas low rainfall regions have thorny shrubs.
• Temperate grasslands are found in temperate regions.
• Thus, the largest variety of flora is found in Brazil.

Question 4.
Suggest measures for the conservation of wildlife and forest in India?
Answer:
Measures for the conservation of wildlife and forest in India are as follows:

• Restricting wildlife trading and hunting.
• Declaring more national parks and sanctuaries.
• Giving more importance to the protection of endangered animals.
• Controlling felling of trees.
• Implementing afforestation and social forestry programmes.

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Brazilian Vegetation:
Answer:
(i) In Brazil, rainfall varies due to physiography. In most parts of the Equatorial region, it rains throughout the year.
(ii) As one moves away from the equator, the number of rainy days as well as amount of rainfall reduces.
(iii) This affects the life cycle of the vegetation too.
(iv) Evergreen forests are found in the areas where it rains throughout the year.
(v) In regions which receive rainfall only during certain seasons, the density of the vegetation reduces.
(vi) Instead of forests, various types of grass, short shrubs,,thorny vegetation, etc. are found.
(vii) Brazil has the largest number of vegetation species in the world.
(viii) This includes evergreen vegetation, semi-evergreen, arid, etc.
(ix) One finds trees like Pau Brasil, rubber, mahogany, rosewood and a variety of orchids.

Question 2.
wildlife of Brazil:
Answer:
(i) A greater diversity in wildlife is found in Brazil compared to any other country in the world.
(ii) In the swampy areas of the Pantanal, huge anacondas are found.
Animals, such as guinea pigs, crocodiles,
alligators, monkeys, pumas, leopards, etc. are found.
(iv) Among the fish varieties, mainly swordfish are found in the seas, while pink dolphins and piranhas are found in the rivers .
(v) Condors which are huge in size and fly high in the sky, various types of parrots, macaws, and flamingoes are the major birds found here.
(vi) Millions of insect varieties are also found here.

Question 3.
The wildlife of India:
Answer:
(i) India is also a mega-diverse country in terms of wildlife. There are many species of wildlife in Irdia.
(ii) Elephants are found in hot and humid forests. One-horned rhinoceroses are found in swampy and marshy lands of Assam.
(iii) Wild ass and camels are found in arid lands. Snow leopards and yaks are found in the snow-capped regions of the Himalayas.
(iv) Indian Bisons, deer, antelopes, and monkeys are found in the Peninsular region.
(v) India is the only country in the world where both tigers and lions are found.
(vi) Rivers, estuaries and coastal areas are homes to many turtles, crocodiles, and gavials (gharials).
(vii) The forests and wetlands are the shelters of variety of birds like peacocks, Indian bustard, kingfishers, pheasants, ducks, parakeets, cranes, and pigeons.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 11 Struggle for Equality Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 11 Struggle for Equality

Class 8 History Chapter 11 Struggle for Equality Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Rewrite the statements by- choosing the appropriate options:
(Lala Lajpat Rai, Sane Guruji, Dr. Rakhmabai Janardan Save, Deenbandhu Mitra, Babasaheb Bole)

Question 1.
…………….. founded the Red Cross Society at Rajkot.
Answer:
Dr. Rakhmabai Janardan Save

Question 2.
…………….. was the president of mill workers union at Ammalner.
Answer:
Sane Guruji

Question 3.
The president of the first session of AITUC was ……………..
Answer:
Lala Lajpat Rai

2. Write short notes:

Question 1.
Social Work of Maharshi Vitthal Ramji Shinde :
Answer:

1. The goal of Maharshi Vitthal Ramji Shinde was to make the Dalits self respectful, well educated and engaged in work.
2. He worked to destroy the delusive ideas regarding Dalits in the minds of the upper caste.
3. He founded the ‘Depressed Classes Mission’ for the progress of Dalits in 1906.
4. To achieve this, he started Marathi schools and work schools in parts of Parel, Deonar in Mumbai.
5. He actively took part in various movement which were related to the welfare of the Dalits like Satyagraha for entry in Parvati temple at Pune, Shetkari Parishad of Dalits and Federal Electorates.

Question 2.
Reforms of Rajarshi Shahu Maharaj in the state of Kolhapur :
Answer:

1. Rajarshi Shahu Maharaj worked for abolishing of caste discrimination.
2. He made revolutionary declaration for reservation in the state of Kolhapur.
3. He made law for free and compulsory primary education.
4. He worked to remove restrictions on inter dining, intermarriage and change of occupation in the caste system.
5. He passed the Act of inter-caste marriage and made it legal in state.
6. He abolished ‘Balutedari System’, by publishing a declaration in the Government Gazette of the state of Kolhapur on 22 February, 1918.
7. This allowed people to practice any occupation and freed them from type of social slavery.

3. Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
The Government decided to crush down the Communist movement.
Answer:

1. The Communist Party was formed in India in 1925.
2. The young communist leaders started building militant organisations of workers and peasants.
3. The British government started feeling the danger of Communist movement and hence decide to crush it.

Question 2.
Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar started newspapers like ‘Muknayak’, ‘Bahishkrut Bharat’, etc.
Answer:

1. Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar wanted to establish a society based on principles of Liberty, Equality and Fraternity.
2. He intended to carry out movement to establish self-respect and social equality for Dalits.
3. It was necessary to create awakening in society in this respect and to voice their grief.
4. The newspaper was an integral part of Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar’s movement.
5. Hence, he started many newspapers so that his ideas and thoughts reach the society.

Question 3.
There aroused a need of a nationwide workers union.
Answer:

1. In the later half of the 19th century, textile mills, railway companies and such other industries were started in India.
2. The workers group were not aroused on large scale.
3. As there were no unions, the workers were not organised.
4. After the First World War, there was rise of worker class in India due to industrialisation.

Therefore, a necessity was felt for a nationwide worker union.

4. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
Why was the struggle for equality important in the making of Modern India?
Answer:

1. India achieved freedom because of freedom struggle.
2. The scope of this struggle was not limited to achieve political freedom but emancipation of man from all types of bondages.
3. Therefore in the course of this struggle, there was opposition to feudalism, social inequality and economic exploitation.
4. The principle of equality was given equal importance.
5. Various groups such as farmers, workers, women and Dalits came forward and started movements in order to get justice and bring about reforms.

This proves that the struggle for equality has great significance in the making of Modern India.

Question 2.
Write about the work of Sane Guruji in eastern Khandesh.
Answer:

1. In 1938, due to heavy rains crops were destroyed in eastern Khandesh.
2. He organised the farmers who were in miserable state.
3. Sane Guruji organised meetings and processions at many places in eastern Khandesh to have land revenue waived for the farmers.
4. He took out marches on the Collector office.
5. He tried to create a strong centre of workers union at Dhule-Ammalner.

Question 3.
How was the struggle built up by the workers decisive for the national movement?
Answer:

1. The beginning of the 19th century witnessed the emergence of working-class due to industrialisation. They made efforts to solve their problems.
2. During the anti-partition movement, workers carried out strikes from time to time to pressurise the British government.
3. The tea plantation workers in Assam launched an agitation against their wretched condition.
4. During the anti-partition movement, workers carried out strikes from time to time in support of Swadeshi.
5. In 1928, the Mill Workers Union went on strike for six months. Many such strikes were organised by the Railway workers, jute mill workers, etc.

Question 4.
Discuss the nature of reform movement related to women.
Answer:

1. Women had a secondary position in the Indian social system.
2. They were subjected to many injustices because of evil practices.
3. In the 20th century, many reforms were initiated for the betterment of women.
4. The reform movement was led by women and institutions formed by them.
5. They fought for issues such as the right to inheritance, right to vote through the medium of these institutions.
6. The involvement of women went on increasing. They played an active role in the national movement and in the revolutionary movement.
7. Due to the reform movement, women were included in the Provincial Ministries.

Do you Know?

Narayan Meghaji Lokhande:

The native place of Narayan Meghaji Lokhande was Kanhesar near Saswad in Pune district.

1. He formed the mill workers un ion known as ‘Bombay Mill Hands Association’ in 1890.
2. This workers union is believed to be the beginning of organised movement in India.
3. He was also the chairman of Mumbai branch of Satyashodhak Samaj founded by Mahatma Phule.
4. Due to his efforts, from 10 June 1890, the workers started getting weekly holiday on Sunday.

Dr. Anandibai Joshi:

1. She was the first Indian Female Doctor.
2. The death of her 10 days old son inspired her to study medicine and acquired M. D. degree in 1886.
3. She died of tuberculosis on February 1887 at Pune.

Project:

Question 1.
Read the biography of Dr. Anandibai Joshi.

Question 2.
Read the biography of Rajarshi Shahu Maharaj.

Class 8 History Chapter 11 Struggle for Equality Additional Important Questions and Answers

Rewrite the statements by- choosing the appropriate options :

Question 1.
……………. got a bill passed in the Bombay Provincial Assembly for the public water reservoirs to be opened to the untouchable.
Answer:
Babasaheb Bole

Question 2.
Neel Darpan written by …………….. brought to notice of the society wretched conditions of the peasants.
Answer:
Deenbandhu Mitra.

Name the following:

Question 1.
Through the magazine ‘Somavanshiya Mitra’ raised voice regarding issues of Muralis and Jogtins.
Answer:
Shivram Janbci Kamble

Question 2.
Chairman of Mumbai branch of Satyashodhak Samaj.
Answer:
Narayan Meghaji Lokhande

Question 3.
Movement of eradication of untouchability in Tamil Nadu
Answer:
Perriyar Ramaswamy

Question 4.
Active in international Communist Movement.
Answer:
Manavendranath Roy

Question 5.
Baba Ramachandra.
Answer:
Baba Ramchandra.

Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options:

Question 1.
…………….. was the president of ‘Akhil Bharatiya Kisan Sabha’
(a) Sane Guruji
(b) Swami Sahajananda Saraswati
(c) Maharshi Vitthal Ramji Shinde
(d) Manavendranath Roy
Answer:
(b) Swami Sahajananda Saraswati

Question 2.
The session of the Congress was held in the rural part of …………… in Maharashtra.
(a) Nagpur
(b) Baramati
(c) Faizpur
(d) Miraj
Answer:
(c) Faizpur

Question 3.
……………… went on fast unto death to open the doors of Vitthal temple at Pandharpur for the Dalits,
(a) Sane Guruji
(b) Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar
(c) Karmaveer Dadasaheb Gaikwad
(d) Babasaheb Bole
Answer:
(a) Sane Guruji

Question 4.
Due to efforts of …………….., the workers started getting weekly holiday on Sunday from 10 June, 1890.
(a) Shripad Amrut Dange
(b) Shashipad Banerjee
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai
(d) Narayan Meghaji Lokhande
Answer:
(d) Narayan Meghaji Lokhande

Question 5.
In 1881, …………….. wrote an article on Marx.
(a) Dr. Rammanohar Lohia
(b) Lokmanya Tilak
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Shripad Amrut Dange
Answer:
(b) Lokmanya Tilak

Question 6.
Condemned untouchability through his book ‘Vital Vidhwansan’
(a) Gopal Baba Walangkar
(b) Shivram Janba Kamble
(c) Thakkar Bappa
(d) Appasaheb Patwardhan
Answer:
(a) Gopal Baba Walangkar

Question 7.
Karmaveer Dadasaheb Gaikwad led Satyagraha for entry of Dalits in
(a) Kalaram temple
(b) Vitthal temple
(c) Parvati temple
(d) Bhavani temple
Answer:
(a) Kalaram temple

Question 8.
…………….. passed the Act of inter-caste marriage and gave it a legal acceptance in the state of Kolhapur.
(a) Mahatma Jyotirao Phule
(b) Rajarshi Shahu Maharaj
(c) Rajaram Maharaj
(d) Maharshi Vitthal Ramji Shinde
Answer:
(b) Rajarshi Shahu Maharaj

Answer the following questions in one sentence:

Question 1.
State the significance of ‘Neel Darpan’
Answer:
Deenbandhu Mitra in his play ‘Neel Darpan’ brought to the notice of the society the wretched conditions of the peasants who were forced to cultivate indigo.

Question 2.
What was the important work done by ‘Akhil Bharatiya Kisan Sabha’?
Answer:
The Akhil Bharatiya Kisan Sabha’ presented a declaration of peasants’ rights to the Indian National Congress.

Question 3.
What message did Lala Lajpat Rai give to the workers in the first session of AITUC?
Answer:
At the first session of AITUC Lala Lajpat Rai asked the workers to actively participate in the national movement.

Question 4.
Why did Dr. Ambedkar and his followers embrace Buddhism?
Answer:
Dr. Ambedkar and his followers embraced Buddhism as it advocated humanity and equality. ‘

Question 5.
Which institutions were founded by Pandita Ramabai?
Answer:
Pandita Ramabai had founded the ‘Arya Mahila Samaj’ and ‘Sharda Sadan’.

Question 6.
What message did Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar give his followers?
Answer:
Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar gave the inspirational message,’Be Educated, Be Organised and Be Agitated’ to his followers.

Do as Directed:

Complete the Concept Map:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Complete the following table:

Question 1.

Founder	Organisation/ Institution
1. Maharshi Vitthal Ramji Shinde	…………………………………………
2. ……………………………….	Akhil Bharatiya Kisan Sabha
3. Ramabai Ranade	…………………………………………
4. ………………………………..	Independent Labour Party

Answer:

Founder	Organisation/ Institution
1. Maharshi Vitthal Ramji Shinde	Depressed Classes Mission
2. Prof. N.G. Ranga	Akhil Bharatiya Kisan Sabha
3. Ramabai Ranade	Seva Sadan institution
4. Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar	Independent Labour Party

Write short notes:

Question 1.
The Meerut Conspiracy Case:
Answer:

1. The young communist leaders built militant organisations of workers and peasants.
2. The growing influence of Communism on Indian youth became a matter of concern for the British and they felt it was a danger.
3. The communist leaders Shripad Amrut Dange, Muzaffar Ahmed, Keshav Neelkanth Joglekar, etc. were arrested.
4. They were falsely charged with planning of a conspiracy to overthrow the British rule.
5. The trial took place at Meerut. So it was called as ‘Meerut Conspiracy Case’.
6. They were given different punishments.

Question 2.
Work of Rakhmabai Janardan Save:
Answer:

1. Dr. Rakhmabai Janardhan Save was the first practicing woman doctor in India.
2. She delivered lectures on health related issues of women.
3. She opened a branch of Red Cross Society at Rajkot.

Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
Narayan Meghaji Lokhande is described as ‘Father of Indian Workers Movement’.
Answer:

1. Industrialisation of India had started during the second half of the 19th century.
2. Shashipad Banerjee and Narayan Meghaji Lokhande organised workers at local level and made efforts to solve their problems.
3. Narayan Meghaji Lokhande formed the mill workers union known as ‘Bombay Mill Hands Association’ in 1890.
4. Due to his efforts, the workers started getting weekly holiday on Sunday from 10 June, 1890.
5. This was the beginning of organised movement in India.

Thus, his contribution to the working-class movement was so valuable that he is described as ‘Father of Indian Workers Movement’.

Question 2.
The Congress Socialist Party was formed in 1934.
Answer:

1. Many young activists of the Indian National Congress believed that the society should be built on the principles of economic and social equality.
2. Due to this, there was spread of socialist ideas and thoughts.
3. They believed that to protect interests of the people it was necessary to overthrow the British rule.
4. So, they decided to set up a Socialist Party within the Congress fold while they were in Nashik jail. Accordingly, the Congress Socialist Party was formed in 1934.

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
Write about the work of Rajarshi Shahu Maharaj for abolition of caste distinction.
Answer:
The following work was done by Rajarshi Shahu Maharaj in his state of Kolhapur for abolition of caste distinction:

1. He made revolutionary declaration for reservation in state of Kolhapur.
2. There were three restrictions in the caste system: inter dining, inter marriage and change of occupation.
3. Shahu Maharaj ate food from the hands of Dalit people and overthrew the restriction on inter dining.
4. He passed the Act of inter caste marriage and gave it a legal acceptance in his state.
5. He abolished ‘Balutedari System’ on 22 February, 1918 and granted permission to practice any occupation by anyone.

Question 2.
Explain the objectives of Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar in launching the Dalit movement.
Answer:
The objectives of Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar in launching the Dalit movement 5 is as follows:

1. Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar aimed at building a society on the principles of Liberty, Equality and Fraternity.
2. He was of the view that unless the caste system is completely uprooted, the x injustice to the Dalits and inequality would x not end.
3. According to him, social equality is the right of Dalits.
4. He intended to carry out the movement based on self-respect.

Question 3.
Write about the work done by Mahatma Gandhi for eradication of untouchability.
Answer:

1. Mahatma Gandhi took up the issue of eradication of untouchability in his hands and put it up on the platform of Indian National Congress.
2. When in Yerwada jail, he debated with rigid Hindu Pandits stating that the religious texts of the Hindus do not support untouchability.
3. He gave inspiration to Harijan Sevak Sangh.
4. Many took inspiration from him and dedicated themselves to the work for 8 eradication of untouchability.

Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Give a brief account of the peasant’s movement during the pre-independence movement.
Answer:

1. The economic policies of the British protected the landlords and the moneylenders and adversely affected the farmers. The peasants revolted against the injustice in different parts of India.
2. The peasants in Bengal formed union and revolted against the compulsion to cultivate indigo.
3. The peasants in Maharashtra revolted in 1875 against the atrocities of the landlords and moneylenders.
4. In 1918, ‘Kisan Sabha’ was formed by the farmers in Uttar Pradesh.
5. The Mopla peasants in Kerala rose in great revolt.
6. With the initiative of Prof N.G. Ranga Akhil Bharatiya Kisan Sabha’ was established.
7. It presented a declaration of peasants rights to the Indian National Congress.
8. Thousands of peasants attended the session of Indian National Congress which was held in rural part of Faizpur.
9. In 1938, due to heavy rains crops were destroyed in eastern Khandesh. Sane Guruji organised the farmers who were in a miserable state and took out procession.
10. The peasants participated in large numbers in the revolutionary period of 1942.

Question 2.
Write information about the workers’ movement in the pre-independence movement.
Answer:

1. The beginning of the 19th century witnessed the emergence of the working-class due to industrialisation. They made efforts to solve their problems.
2. Shashipad Banerjee and Narayan Meghaji Lokhande organised workers at local level and made efforts to solve their problems.
3. Narayan Meghaji Lokhande described as ‘Father of Indian Workers Movement’ formed ‘Bombay Mill Hands Association’ in 1890. This was the beginning of organised movement in India.
4. The workers on the tea plantations in Assam launched an agitation against their wretched conditions.
5. In 1899, the workers of the Great Indian Peninsular Railway (GIP) called for a strike for their demands.
6. During the anti-partition movement, workers carried out strikes from time to time in support of Swadeshi.
7. In 1920, ‘All India Trade Union Congress’ (AITUC) was established.
8. In 1928, the Mumbai Mill workers went on strike for six months.
9. Many such strikes were carried out: by the railway workers, jute mill workers, etc.

Question 3.
Write about the development in the Dalit movement.
Answer:

1. The Dalit movement was launched to remove the injustice done to Dalits due to Indian social structure.
2. Mahatma Phule and Narayan Guru brought about awakening among the people regarding social inequality.
3. Gopal Baba Walangkar condemned untouchability through his book ‘Vital Vidhwansan’.
4. Periyar Ramaswamy started a movement for the eradication of untouchability in Tamil Nadu.
5. Maharshi Vitthal Ramji Shinde founded the ‘Depressed Classes Mission’ for the progress of the Dalits.
6. Rajarshi Shahu Maharaj worked to remove restrictions on inter dining, intermarriage and change of occupation.
7. Mahatma Gandhi presented the issue of untouchability before the Indian National Congress.
8. Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar dedicated his entire life for the Dalit movement and gave it broader perspective.

Question 4.
What work was done for development of workers and Dalits by Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar?
Answer:
The following work was done by Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar for the development of workers and Dalits:

1. He founded the ‘Bahishkrut Hitkarni Sabha’ to establish social equality.
2. He led the Chavdar Lake Satyagraha in Mahad to make the water reservoir accessible to Dalits.
3. He burnt ‘Manusmriti’ that advocated social inequality.
4. In 1930, he started Satyagraha for the entry of Dalits in the Kalaram temple at Nashik.
5. He started periodicals such as ‘Muknayak’, ‘Bahishkrut Bharat’, Janata’, ‘Samata’ etc. to voice the grievances of the Dalits.
6. He established ‘All India Scheduled Caste Federation’ to put forth issues of the Dalits in effective manner.
7. He established ‘Independent Labour Party’ to oppose the laws that went against the interest of the workers.
8. Through the Constitution of India he made a significant contribution to the creation of a social structure based on equality in Modern India.

Question 5.
Identify the given incident depicted in the picture and write information on it.
image
Answer:

1. This picture is of the Satyagraha carried out by Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar and his followers at Chavdar Lake in Mahad.
2. Though the bill regarding opening of public water reservoirs to the Dalits was passed they were denied access.
3. He believed that social equality was the right of Dalits.
4. Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar and his 8 followers went to Chavdar lake and started a Satyagraha to make the lake water accessible to Dalits.

Question 6.
Why do you feel the structure of the society should be based on equality?
Answer:

1. I believe that it is the right of every human being to have society based on equality.
2. Due to inequality, rights of some groups are denied. They do not get opportunities for their development.
3. They face injustice in several forms. They do not get self-respect.
4. Farmers, workers, women and Dalits suffer due to inequality. So, it is important to have structure of the society based on equality.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 7 Non-co-operation Movement Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 7 Non-co-operation Movement

Class 8 History Chapter 7 Non-co-operation Movement Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options :

Question 1.
Gandhiji began his career from the country of …………. .
(a) India
(b) England
(c) South Africa
(d) Myanmar
Answer:
(c) South Africa

Question 2.
The farmers started the no-tax movement in the district of ………….
(a) Gorakhpur
(b) Kheda
(c) Solapur
(d) Amravati
Answer:
(b) Kheda

Question 3.
As a protest to Jallianwala Baug massacre, Rabindranath Tagore returned the title of ………… bestowed upon him by the British government.
(a) Lord
(b) Sir
(c) Raobahadur
(d) Raosaheb
Answer:
(b) Sir

2. Answer the following questions in one sentence :

Question 1.
Which restriction were put up on the Blacks in South Africa according to the declaration of 1906?
Answer:
In 1906, the government declared that the Blacks in South Africa should compulsorily carry an identity card. This was the restriction imposed on their freedom.

Question 2.
Where did Gandhiji launch the first Satyagraha in India?
Answer:
The first Satyagraha in India was launched by Gandhiji at Champaran at Bihar in 1917.

Question 3.
Which officer gave orders of firing in the Jallianwala Baug?
Answer:
General Dyer gave orders of firing in the Jallianwala Baug.

3. Answer the following questions in 25-30 words :

Question 1.
Explain the philosophy of Satyagraha.
Answer:

1. Satyagraha, a novel technique, means insistence of truth.
2. The aim of Satyagraha was to make the unjust person aware of truth and justice and also to transform his views.
3. A Satyagrahi should never use violence and untruth meAnswer:

Question 2.
Why was the Swaraj Party formed?
Answer:
1. The members of the Indian National Congress like Motilal Nehru and Chittaranjan Das put an idea to contest elections and enter the Legislative Assembly and Provincial Legislative Council to obstruct the working of the government and oppose the unjust policies.
2. Therefore, they formed the Swaraj Party in 1922.

4. Explain the following statements with reasons :

Question 1.
Rowlatt Act was opposed by the people of India.
Answer:

1. The Rowlatt Act was enacted to suppress the growing discontent among the Indians and suggest measures about it.
2. This Act authorised the government to arrest any Indian and imprison him without trial or warrant.
3. There was no provision for appeal against the punishment given under the Act.
4. Due to such unjust provisions in the Rowlatt Act it was opposed by the people of India and called ‘Black Act’.

Question 2.
Gandhiji suspended the Non-co-operation Movement.
Answer:

1. In February, 1922 the police opened fire on a peaceful procession at Chauri-Chaura in Gorakhpur district of Uttar Pradesh.
2. In retaliation to this, the enraged mob set fire the police station in Chauri- Chaura.
3. Twenty-two policemen including one officer were killed in this incident.
4. Gandhiji was hurt by this incident. So he decided to suspend the Non-co-operation Movement on 12 February, 1922.

Question 3.
The Indians boycotted the Simon Commission.
Answer:

1. The reforms introduced by Montague Chelmsford Act of 1919 was unsatisfactory.
2. It created discontent among IndiAnswer: The British Government appointed the Simon Commission under the chairmanship of Sir John Simon in 1927.’
3. There was not a single Indian member on the commission. In protest of this, the Congress boycotted the Simon Commission.

Question 4.
Khilafat movement was started in India.
Answer:

1. The ruler of Turkey was regarded as the Khalifa or religious head of the Muslims all over the world.
2. To get the support of Indian Muslims, in the First World War, the British gave false assurance of not harming the Khalifa’s empire after the war.
3. But they did not keep their word. It caused resentment among the Indian Muslims. So, they started the Khilafat Movement.

Do you Know?
Mulshi Satyagraha (1920-1924):
Muishi Pethcz was a small viilage,with hilly terrain, approximately 40-45 kms away from Pune. The Tata Company decided to set up hydro-electricity project in this part. It was given permission by the British government. The dam would have displaced 52 villages and 11000 people. There was no consent taken from the people nor was there any programme for their rehabilitation. The farmers started their struggle against a mighty power and influential capitalists. Senapa’ti Pandurcing Mahadev Bapat led the struggle. People started caffing him Senapati Bapat. In spite of resisting it for four years, they were unsuccessful. The Satyagraha became inspirational not only in India but all over the world wherever the issue of rehabilitation came up.

Project:

Trace out the pledge of independence that was taken on 26th January 1930 and read it aloud collectively in the classroom.

Class 8 History Chapter 7 Non-co-operation Movement Additional Important Questions and Answers

Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options :

Question 1.
The period between 1920-1947 in the Indian national movement is known as ………….
(a) Moderate Phase
(b) Extremist Phase
(c) Revolutionary Period
(d) Gandhian Era
Answer:
(d) Gandhian Era

Question 2.
…………. suggested Gandhiji to tour the entire nation when he returned from South Africa.
(a) Dadabhai Nowrojee
(b) Surendranath Banerjee
(c) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(d) Lokmanya Tilak
Answer:
(c) Gopal Krishna Gokhale

Question 3.
After the death of Lokmanya Tilak in 1920, the reins of freedom movement went into the hands of ………….
(a) Lala Lajpat Rai
(b) Subash Chandra Bose
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
(c) Mahatma Gandhi

Question 4.
…………. Commission was appointed to enquire about Jallianwala Baug massacre.
(a) Hunter
(b) Simon
(c) Minto
(d) Rowlatt
Answer:
(a) Hunter

Question 5.
The Resolution of Non-co-operation Movement was put forth by Chittaranjan Das in ………. session of Indian National Congress.
(a) Lahore
(b) Nagpur
(c) Mumbai
(d) Amritsar
Answer:
(b) Nagpur

Question 6.
An officer named attacked Lalaji with a lathi at Lahore.
(a) Dyer
(b) Hunter
(c) Odwire
(d) Saunders
Answer:
(d) Saunders

Question 7.
……………., Secretary of State, criticised that Indians were incapable of drafting a constitution.
(a) Morley
(b) Minto
(c) Berkenhead
(d) Montague
Answer:
(c) Berkenhead

Identify the wrong pair and correct it:

Work – Leader

(1) President of the Lahore session of
Congress – Motilal Nehru

(2) Demonstrated against Simon
commission at Lahore – Lala Lajpat Rai

(3) Held satyagraha
in South Africa – Mahatma Gandhi

(4) Led the Mulshi
Satyagraha – Senapati Bapat
Answer:
Wrong pair : President of the Lahore session of Congress
– Motilal Nehru.
Corrected pair : President of the Lahore session of Congress
– Jawaharlal Nehru.

Name the following:

Question 1.
Leaders in other countries who were influenced by Satyagraha technique of Mahatma Gandhi.
(1) …………………………………….
(2) …………………………………….
Answer:
(1) Martin Luther King in USA
(2) Nelson Mandela in South Africa

Question 2.
Young Congress leaders who demanded Poorna Swaraj.
(1) …………………………………….
(2) …………………………………….
Answer:
(1) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(2) Subash Chandra Bose

Question 3.
Eminent lawyers who boycotted court by giving up their practice
(1) …………………………………….
(2) …………………………………….
Answer:
(1) Pandit Motilal Nehru
(2) Chittaranjan Das.

Complete the graphical presentation :

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Answer the following questions in one sentence :

Question 1.
Which principles gave a new direction to the freedom movement?
Answer:
The principles of truth and non-violence gave new direction to the freedom movement.

Question 2.
How was the constructive programme beneficial?
Answer:
Due to the constructive programme, the national movement became more comprehensive in rural areas.

Question 3.
How did Lala Lajpat Rai react after he was attacked by the British officer?
Answer:
Lala Lajpat Rai said that Every blow on my body will prove a nail in the coffin of the British Empire, when he was attacked by the British officer.

Write short note :

Question 1.
Gandhiji’s work in South Africa :
Answer:

1. In 1893, Gandhiji went to South Africa for some legal work where he began his political work.
2. Many Indians had settled in South Africa for the purpose of trade and business.
3. They were treated as criminals and humiliating treatment was given to them.
4. Many restrictions were imposed on their freedom like it was compulsory for them to carry an identity card.
5. Gandhiji adopted the path of Satyagraha and gained justice for them.

Question 2.
Champaran Satyagraha :
Answer:

1. The farmers in Champaran region in Bihar were forced to cultivate indigo.
2. The cultivators suffered as they received a fixed amount as price from the plantation owners.
3. In 1917, Gandhiji went to Champaran and organized the farmers.
4. He launched agitation by adopting the technique of Satyagraha.
5. The farmers were given justice and thus Gandhiji was successful in his first satyagraha in India.

Question 3.
Work of Swaraj Party :
Answer:

1. The leaders of the Swaraj Party put up an idea of contesting elections and obstructing the work of the government.
2. They severely opposed unjust policies of the government.
3. They demanded that a Responsible Government should be given to India.
4. They demanded for Round Table Conference.
5. They made a resolution in Assembly which demanded the release of political leaders taken as prisoners.
6. Many resolutions were passed in the Central Legislative Assembly but were rejected by the government.

Question 4.
Nehru Report :
Answer:
1. Berkenhead, the Secretary of State of India, criticised that Indian leaders were incapable of drafting a unanimously accepted constitution for India.
2. This challenge was taken up by all party committee under the chairmanship of Pandit Motilal Nehru.
3. The proposals of the Nehru Report were :

• implement Adult Franchise system in India,
• establish self government colonies of India, and
• division of provinces on linguistic division.

Explain the following statements with reasons :

Question 1.
No-tax campaign in Kheda district was successful.
Answer:

1. Due to continuous famines the crops had failed in Kheda district of Gujarat.
2. But the farmers were forced to pay land tax by the government.
3. Gandhiji suggested to the farmers that they should refuse to pay tax.
4. The farmers started the campaign to scrap the tax in 1918.
5. The tax was suspended by the British Government which made the movement successful.

Question 2.
The movement started by Mill workers at Ahmedabad was successful.
Answer:

1. During the First World War the inflation was very high.
2. The mill workers demanded for rise in salary which was refused by the mill owners.
3. Gandhiji advised the workers to go on hunger strike.
4. In the end, the mill owners had to back off and the salary of workers was increased.

Question 3.
The British government passed the Rowlatt Act in 1919.
Answer:

1. Indians extended help to the British government in the First World War.
2. The Indians expected that after the war is over there will be a system of governance for taking decision for the well-being of the IndiAnswer:
3. Moreover, the rising prices, increased taxes led to growing unrest among the Indians.
4. To suppress this discontent and suggest measures about it Rowlatt Act was passed in 1919.

Answer the following questions in 25-30 words :

Question 1.
Why was the Hunter Commission appointed?
Answer:

1. General Dyer ordered an unrestrained firing on the unarmed people who gathered for a meeting on 13th April 1919, at Jallianwala Baug.
2. About 400 people were killed and injured. The injured did not receive any medical help.
3. There was nationwide protest against this act.
4. Rabindranath Tagore gave up the title of Sir given by the British government.
5. The Indians demanded an enquiry against this massacre. So the British government appointed Hunter commission.

Question 2.
Why did Gandhiji support the Khilafat movement?
Answer:

1. Indian Muslims started a movement to support Khalifa known as the Khilafat Movement.
2. Gandhiji felt that if Hindus and Muslims unitedly start a national movement then the government can be brought to its senses.
3. Therefore, Gandhiji supported the Khilafat movement.
4. The Khilafat committee accepted Gandhiji’s proposal and extended support to the Non-co-operation movement.

Question 3.
How was Simon Commission opposed in India?
Answer:

1. The Indian National Congress boycotted the Simon Commission because there was not a single Indian in it.
2. In 1928, when the commission arrived in India, people strongly protested against it shouting ‘Simon go back’.
3. The police lathi charged the demonstrators. Lala Lajpat Rai himself led the demonstrators in Lahore.
4. He was injured in lathi charge and succumbed to his injuries.

Question 4.
Why was Gandhiji sent to six years of imprisonment?
Answer:

1. Gandhiji was arrested in March 1922 for writing three anti-national articles in ‘Young India’.
2. His trial was conducted in a special court set up in Ahmedabad.
3. The charges were levied against him. He was imprisoned for six years.

Read the passage and answer the questions given below :

Question 1.
What was the pledge taken by Indians on 26th January 1930?
Answer:
On 26th January 1930, people all over the country took the pledge for carrying out of freedom movement with non-violent means for attainment of independence of India.

Question 2.
Why was the demand of Poorna Swaraj passed in Lahore session?
Answer:
1. The objective of Dominion Status was not acceptable to Pandit Nehru, Subash Chandra Bose and other young leaders.
2. Due to their influence, the resolution of demanding complete independence i.e. ‘Poorna Swaraj’ was passed in the Lahore session.

Question 3
Why was the Lahore session historic?
Answer:

1. The Indian National Congress gave up the objective of Dominion Status.
2. A resolution of complete independence was passed and it became the objective of the national movement.
3. A resolution was passed to observe 26th January as the Independence Day.

Answer the following in detail :

Question 1.
Give an account of the Jallianwala Baug Massacre.
Answer:
Points :
(a) Preceding events
(b) Massacre
(c) Reactions

(a) Preceding events :

1. The British government resorted to suppressive measures as the protest was more intense in Punjab province.
2. Amritsar became the centre of this movement.
3. Gandhiji was prohibited from entering the province of Punjab.
4. General Dyer had banned public meetings in Amritsar.
5. Dr. Satyapal and Dr. Kitchelu were arrested for their involvement in Amritsar Hartal case.

(b) Massacre :

1. Despite the ban, a public meeting was held at Jallianwala Baug in Amritsar on 13th April 1919 on the occasion of Baisakhi.
2. General Dyer deployed troops around the single gate that led to the ground. .
3. Without giving any warning, he ordered unrestrained firing on the unarmed people who had assembled for the meeting.
4. 1660 rounds were fired. The firing continued until the ammunition was over.
5. About 400 men and women were killed.
6. Curfew was announced after the firing which made it impossible for medical help to reach.

(c) Reactions :

1. Military law was imposed in entire Punjab. Many were imprisoned.
2. This led to discontent among the IndiAnswer:
3. Rabindranath Tagore gave away the title of ‘Sir’ given by the British.
4. As Indians demanded the enquiry, the British government appointed the Hunter Commission.

Question 2.
Give an account of the Non-co-operation.
Answer:

1. According to Gandhiji, the British rule lasted in India only because of the co-operation extended by the IndiAnswer:
2. If the Indians withdraw this co-operation and adopt complete non co-operation then the British government will collapse.
3. With this intention, Gandhiji devised and executed Non-co-operation Movement.
4. The Indian National Congress passed the resolution of Non-co-operation Movement at its Nagpur session in 1920.
5. The reins of the movement was given in the hands of Gandhiji.
6. According to this resolution there would be : (i) Boycott of government offices and courts, (ii) Boycott of government schools and colleges, (iii) Boycott of foreign goods and clothes.
7. Boycott and bonfire of foreign clothes was seen at several places and demonstration in front of shops selling such goods.
8. Motilal Nehru, Chittaranjan Das, etc. boycotted court by giving up their practice.
9. Schools and colleges imparting national education were started.
10. Elections were boycotted.
11. The movement spread from the planters in Assam to rail workers in Bengal.

Question 3.
Do you feel that the nation still needs the constructive programme started by Mahatma Gandhi? Why?
Answer:

• Gandhiji implemented the constructive programme along with Non¬co-operation Movement.
• It included Hindu-Muslim unity, prohibition of alcohol, removal of untouchability, etc.
• In spite of completion of 70 years of independence, these problems still exist.
• Communal and religious riots take place. It causes great loss of life and property.

Therefore it is necessary to implement constructive programme in present times.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 10 Armed Revolutionary Movement Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 10 Armed Revolutionary Movement

Class 8 History Chapter 10 Armed Revolutionary Movement Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options:
(Pandit Shyamji Krishna Varma, Mitramela, Ramsingh Kuka, Anant Laxman Kanhere, Birsa Munda)

Question 1.
Swatantryaveer Savarkar started a secret organization of revolutionaries named …………. .
Answer:
Mitramela

Question 2.
In Punjab, ………………. organised an uprising against the Government.
Answer:
Ramsinh Kuka

Question 3.
……………… founded the India House.
Answer:
Pandit Shyamji Krishna Varma

2. Complete the following table:

Question 1.

Answer:

Revolutionary	Organisation
1. Swatantryaveer Savarkar	Abhinav Bharat
2. Barindrakumar Ghosh	Anushilan Samiti
3. Chandrashekhar Azad	Hindustan Socialist Republican Army
4. Lala Hardayal	Gadar

3. Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
Chafekar brothers killed Rand.
Answer:

1. The Plague epidemic broke out in 1897 in Pune.
2. Commissioner Rand was appointed to manage the Plague epidemic.
3. In course of curtailing the epidemic, he resorted to tyranny and force.

As a revenge, the Chafekar brothers Damodar and Balkrishna shot him dead on 22 June, 1897.

Question 2.
Khudiram Bose was hanged to death.
Answer:

1. Anushilan Samiti worked with the objective to overthrow the British rule with armed rebellion.
2. Prafulla Chaki and Khudiram Bose were the members of Anushilan Samiti.
3. They planned to kill a judge named Kingsford.
4. They threw a bomb at a vehicle, assuming it to be of Kingsford but the vehicle was not the one carrying him.
5. However, two English women were killed in this attack Khudiram Bose was caught by the police and was hanged.

Question 3.
Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutta threw bombs in the Central Legislative Assembly.
Answer:

1. The Government had introduced two bills in the Central Legislature.
2. The Bills curtailed civil rights of the people.
3. To protest against these bills, Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutta threw bombs in the Central Legislative Assembly.

4. Answer the following in brief:

Question 1.
Write a detail description of the attack on Chittagong Armoury.
Answer:

1. Surya Sen drew a plan to attack the armoury at Chittagong.
2. He and his associates raided two government armouries on the 18th April, 1930.
3. They seized arms and ammunition from the two armouries.
4. He took revolutionaries like Anant Singh, Ganesh Ghosh, Kalpana Datta and Pritilata Waddedar with him.
5. They cut off the telephone and telegraph connections and succeeded in paralysing the communication.

Question 2.
Give information about the work of India House.
Answer:

1. India House, founded by Pandit Shyamji Krishna Verma in London, was the centre of revolutionary activities outside India.
2. It provided assistance to the revolutionaries staying abroad.
3. It gave scholarships to the Indian students studying in England.
4. Swatantryaveer Savarkar received such scholarship.

Do you Know?

Literary and Social work of Swatantryaveer Savarkar:

1. In his autobiography, ‘Majhi Janmathep’ he wrote about his experience of the terrible days in Andaman.
2. After 10 years, he was taken to Ratnagiri and detained there.
3. There Savarkar started many social movements such as removal of caste differences, removal of untouchability, common dining, purification of language, etc.
4. In 1938, he presided over the Marathi Sahitya Sammelan at Mumbai.
5. He wrote two books one The Indian War of Independence 1857′ and other biography of Joseph Mazzini, an Italian revolutionary.

Project:

Question 1.
Watch a movie or drama based on the life of revolutionaries and enact your favourite incident in the class.

Question 2.
Prepare a manual based on the saga of revolutionaries.

Class 8 History Chapter 10 Armed Revolutionary Movement Additional Important Questions and Answers

Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options:

Question 1.
A youth named ………….. killed Jackson, the collector of Nashik.
Answer:
Anant Laxman Kanhere

Question 2.
Munda tribe in Bihar revolted under the leadership of ………….. .
Answer:
Birsa Munda.

Name the following:

Question 1.
Killed Rand
1. …………………………
2. …………………………
Answer:
1. Balkrishna Chafekar
2. Damodar Chafekar

Question 2.
Planned to kill Judge Kingsford and threw bomb on his vehicle
1. …………………………
2. …………………………
Answer:
1. Khudiram Bose
2. Prafulla Chaki

Question 3.
Leaders of Gadar organization
1. …………………………
2. …………………………
Answer:
1. Bhai Parmanand
2. Dr. Pandurang Sadashiv Khankhoje

Question 4.
Threw bomb in Central Legislative Assembly
1. …………………………
2. …………………………
Answer:
1. Bhagat Singh ?
2. Batukeshwar Dutta

Question 5.
Killed the District Judge
1. …………………………
2. …………………………
Answer:
1. Shanti Ghosh
2. Suniti Choudhary.

Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options:

Question 1.
Vasudev Balwant Phadke took the training of arms from ………….. .
(a) Damodar Chafekar
(b) Vastad Lahuji Salve
(c) Swatantryaveer Savarkar
(d) Babarao Savarkar
Answer:
(b) Vastad Lahuji Salve

Question 2.
Anushilan Samiti’ received counsel and guidance from ……………. .
(a) Aurobindo Ghosh
(b) Barindrakumar Ghosh
(c) Khudiram Bose
(d) Rash Behari Bose
Answer:
(a) Aurobindo Ghosh

Question 3.
……………. raised the issue of India’s independence at the World Socialist Conference.
(a) Pritilata Waddedar
(b) Kalpana Dutta
(c) Madam Cama
(d) Shanti Ghosh
Answer:
(c) Madam Cama

Question 4.
……………. , a young girl shot dead the Governor during the convocation ceremony of Kolkata University.
(a) Shanti Ghosh
(b) Pritilata Waddedar
(c) Suniti Choudhary
(d) Bina Das
Answer:
(d) Bina Das

Question 5.
……………. died in an encounter with police at Alfred Park in Allahabad.
(a) Bhagat Singh
(b) Chandrashekhar Azad
(c) Madanlal Dhingra
(d) Khudiram Bose
Answer:
(b) Chandrashekhar Azad

Question 6.
In his autobiography, ……………. wrote about his experience of the terrible days in Andaman jail.
(a) Bhagat Singh
(b) Vasudev Balwant Phadke
(c) Swatantryaveer Savarkar
(d) Baba Savarkar
Answer:
(c) Swatantryaveer Savarkar

Question 7.
The Anushilan Samiti had a bomb manufacturing unit at ……………. .
(a) Kolkata
(b) Dhaka
(c) Maniktala
(d) Chittagong
Answer:
(c) Maniktala

Question 8.
The young men of Hindustan Socialist Republic were influenced by ……………. ideology.
(a) capitalistic
(b) imperialistic
(c) religious
(d) socialist
Answer:
(d) socialist

Question 9.
After the British traced the plan of revolt by Gadar Organisation ……………. escaped to Japan and continued his revolutionary work.
(a) Vishnu Shastri Pingle
(b) Khudiram Bose
(c) Rash Behari Bose
(d) Chandrashekhar Azad
Answer:
(c) Rash Behari Bose

Question 10.
……………. was the chief of revolutionary group in Bengal.
(a) Anant Singh
(b) Ganesh Ghosh
(c) Rash Behari Bose
(d) Surya Sen
Answer:
(d) Surya Sen

Identify the wrong pair, correct it and rewrite:

1. Threw bomb on Lord Hardinge – Khudiram Bose
2. Killed British officer Ash – Vanchhi Iyyer
3. Assassinated Curzon Wylie – Bhagat Singh
4. Killed Dyer in London – Sardar Udham Singh
Answer:
Wrong pair:
Assassinated Curzon Wylie – Bhagat Singh

Corrected pair:
Assassinated Curzon Wylie – Madanlal Dhingra.

Answer the following in one sentence each:

Question 1.
Who spread the network of revolutionary work outside Bengal?
Answer:
Rash Behari Bose and Sachindranath Sanyal spread the network of revolutionary organisation outside Bengal.

Question 2.
What was the objective in establishing India House?
Answer:
The revolutionary work in India received assistance from India House in London and Indian youth were given scholarships for higher education in England.

Question 3.
Who prepared anti-British plans with the help of German Foreign ministry?
Answer:
Veerendra Nath Chattopadhyay, Bhupen Dutta and Hardayal prepared anti-British plans with the help of German foreign ministry.

Question 4.
Who established Provincial Government of free India in Kabul?
Answer:
Mahendra Pratap, Barkatullah and Obaidullah Sindhi established Provincial Government of free India in Kabul.

Question 5.
What work was entrusted to a separate wing of ‘Hindustan Socialist Republican Army’?
Answer:
The work of gathering arms and execution of programmes was entrusted to a separate wing of Hindustan Socialist Republican Army.

Question 6.
How was the death of Lala Lajpat Rai avenged?
Answer:
Bhagat Singh and Rajguru fired bullets and killed officer Saunders to avenge death of Lala Lajpat Rai.

Do as Directed:

Complete the graphical presentation:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Write short notes:

Question 1.
Vasudev Balwant Phadke:
Answer:

1. Vasudev Baiwant Phadke gave an armed struggle against the British in Maharashtra.
2. He was of the opinion that there should be armed struggle to fight against the British.
3. Vastad Lahuji Salve gave him training of arms.
4. He organized Ramoshis and led armed struggle in Maharashtra, but was unsuccessful.
5. He was sent to Eden Jail by the British Government where he died in 1883.

Question 2.
Literary and Social work of Swatantryaveer Savarkar:
Answer:

1. When Swatantryaveer Savarkar was detained in the Ratnagiri jail, he started many social movements such as removal of caste differences, removal of untouchability, common dining, purification of language, etc.
2. in his autobiography, ‘Majhi Janmathep’ he wrote about his experiences of the terrible days in Andaman where he spent ten years.
3. He wrote the book ‘The Indian War of Independence 1857’ in which he stated 1857 rebellion as the first war of independence.
4. He wrote an inspiring biography of Joseph Mazzini.
5. Savarkar was a great writer, social worker and revolutionary.

Question 3.
Kakori Conspiracy:
Answer:

1. After Gandhiji suspended Civil Disobedience, many youngsters like Chandrashekhar Azad, Ram Prasad Bismil, Yogesh Chatterjee, Sachindra Nath f Sanyal got diverted to revolutionary ways.
2. On 9th August, 1925 they looted the Government treasury that was on a train near Kakori railway station in Uttar Pradesh.
3. However, due to the immediate action of the government the revolutionaries were arrested and put on trial.
4. Ashfaqulla Khan, Ram Prasad Bismil, Roshan Singh, Rajendra Lahiri were hanged.
5. Chandrashekhar Azad managed to escape.

Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
Swatantryaveer Savarkar was sentenced to fifty years of rigorous imprisonment.
Answer:

1. On knowing the activities of Abhinav Bharat, the government arrested Babarao Savarkar and sentenced to life imprisonment.
2. Anant Laxman Kanhere killed Jackson, collector of Nashik in retaliation.
3. The government linked Abhinav Bharat and Savarkar with his murder.
4. He was arrested and put on trial. So, the court sentenced him to fifty years of rigorous imprisonment.

Question 2.
Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev and Rajguru were hanged.
Answer:

1. Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutta threw a bomb in Central Legislative Assembly.
2. The British Government started arresting the revolutionaries. They immediately raided the centres of ‘Hindustan Socialist Republican Army’ and got clues related to the killing of Saunders.
3. Bhagat Singh, Rajguru and Sukhdev were tried under the charge of sedition.
4. They were hanged in the Lahore jail on 23 March 1931.

Question 3.
Madanlal Dhingra was hanged to death.
Answer:

1. India House was an important centre which provided assistance to Indian revolutionaries staying abroad.
2. Madanlal Dhingra was a youth associated with India House.
3. He killed Curzon Wylie, a British Officer, therefore he was hanged to death.

Answer the following in brief:

Question 1.
State the aims and objectives of the ‘Hindustan Socialist Republican Association.
Answer:

1. The main objective of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association was to free India from British exploitation.
2. It also aimed at overthrowing the unjust socio-economic order which exploited the farmers and workers.
3. It aimed at creation of a society based on social justice and equality.

Question 2..
Explain the work of Madam Cama.
Answer:
1. Madam Cama was related with the revolutionary work of India House.
2. She raised the issue of India’s independence at the World Socialist Conference held at Stuttgart in Germany.
3. She unfurled the flag of India at this conference.

Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Explain the contribution of Swatantryaveer Savarkar in the armed revolutionary movement.
Answer:

1. Swatantryaveer Savarkar founded ‘Mitramela’ in 1900 at Nashik and renamed it as ‘Abhinav Bharat’ in 1904.
2. He went to England for higher studies, despatched revolutionary literature, guns to the members of Abhinav Bharat in India.
3. The government linked murder of Jackson to Swatantryaveer Savarkar and arrested him.
4. He was put under trial. The court ordered rigorous punishment for 50 years in Andaman jail.
5. His contribution is great in the armed revolution of India.

Question 2.
Give a brief account of the ‘Anushilan Samiti’.
Answer:

1. After the partition of Bengal, the outrage against the British became more severe.
2. In Bengal, a revolutionary organisation called ‘Anushilan Samiti’ was active.
3. This organisation received counsel and guidance from Aurobindo Ghosh.
4. Barindrakumar Ghosh was chief of this organisation.
5. In 1908, members of Anushilan Samiti, Prafulla Chaki and Khudiram Bose made an unsuccessful attempt to kill a judge Kingsford.
6. During the investigation, police got information about the work of Anushilan Samiti.
7. So, the government started arresting members of Anushilan Samiti.
8. The government was unsuccessful in linking Aurobindo Ghosh to the manufacturing of bombs.
9. Other members were sentenced to jail for longer period.

Question 3.
Write about the activities of Gadar Organisation.
Answer:

1. The Indians settled in America and Canada established the Gadar Organisation.
2. The word Gadar means revolt. The objective of the organisation was to revolt against the British and free India from British rule.
3. Lala Hardayal, Bhai Parmanand, Dr. Pandurang Sadashiv Khankhoje were the important revolutionaries of the organisation.
4. Gadar’ Journal, the mouthpiece of the organisation voiced the evil effects of the British rule on India and published the news regarding the heroic deeds of the Indian revolutionaries.
5. It conveyed the message of patriotism and armed rebellion to the Indian people.
6. During the British rule, the Gadar Organisation decided to take advantage of the discontent against the British rule.
7. It incited the Indian soldiers to revolt against the government.
8. Rash Behari Bose and Vishnu Ganesh Pingle were entrusted the responsibility to lead the revolt.
9. However, the plan could not materialise due to treachery.
10. Pingle was arrested and hanged.
11. Rash Behari Bose managed to escape to Japan.

Question 4.
What difference have you noted between the Moderates, Extremists and Revolutionary.
Answer:
The struggle against the British was fought in three ways. The difference in the way is as follows:

1. The moderates advocated peaceful and constitutional means. They believed in appeals and petitions. They tried to disrupt the working of the government from within. After their demands were met, they would put forth new demands. Thus, they believed in constitutional methods.

2. The approach of extremists was severe. They were of the opinion that if lakhs of people take part in the freedom movement and challenge the British government only then success could be achieved.

3. Revolutionary wanted to fight the British in armed way. According to them, there should be armed struggle against the British. They adopted methods like killing the British officers, raiding the government treasury, disrupting transport and communication, etc.
All the three ways are different but had one objective of achieving Independence for India.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 6 Beginning of Freedom Movement Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 6 Beginning of Freedom Movement

Class 8 History Chapter 6 Beginning of Freedom Movement Textbook Questions and Answers

1. (A) Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options:

Question 1.
The Servants of India Society was founded by
(a) Ganesh Vasudev Joshi
(b) Bhau Daji Lad
(c) M. G. Ranade
(d) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
Answer:
(d) Gopal Krishna Gokhale

Question 2.
The first session of Indian National Congress was held at
(a) Pune
(b) Mumbai
(c) Kolkata
(d) Lucknow
Answer:
(b) Mumbai

Question 3.
wrote Geeta Rahasya.
(a) Lokmanya Tilak
(b) Dadabhai Nowrojee
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai
(d) Bipinchandra Pal
Answer:
(a) Lokmanya Tilak

B. Write the Names :

Question 1.
Moderate leaders
(i) ……… (ii) ………
Answer:
(i) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(ii) Ferozshah Mehta

Question 2.
Extremist leaders
(i) ……. (ii)………..
Answer:
(i) Lokmanya Tilak
(ii) Lala Lajpat Rai

2. Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
In the struggle for Independence, a sense of identity was awakened among the Indians.
Answer:

1. Western education familiarised the educated Indians with modern values such as liberty, equality, democracy and nationalism.
2. The Asiatic Society at Bengal edited and published hundreds of manuscripts in Sanskrit, Persian and other Indian languages.
3. The realization that India had a rich ancient heritage aroused the feeling of national pride. This gave a sense of identity to Indians.

Question 2.
Two groups were formed in the Congress.
Answer:
1. Though at a slow pace, the contribution of Indian National Congress was consistent in the initial stage. But the extremists felt to intensify the freedom struggle.
2. Moderates and Extremists were unanimous about the objectives of Congress. But they had differences regarding the methods/ways to achieve it.
3. The moderates insisted on constitutional measures whereas extremists wanted to adopt severe methods.
4. The tension between these groups increased during the Surat session in 1907.
This led to the formation of two groups within the Congress.

Question 3.
Lord Curzon decided to partition Bengal.
Answer:
1. Bengal was a large province. So under the pretext of administrative convenience, the province of Bengal was partitioned by Lord Curzon.
2. Accordingly, the Muslim-majority East Bengal and the Hindu-Majority West Bengal were created in 1905.
3. The real motive was to create a divide between the Hindus and the Muslims and thereby weaken the nationalist movement. The British used the Policy of ‘Divide and Rule’.

3. Write short notes:

Question 1.
Objectives of the Indian National Congress :
Answer:
The Indian National Congress was established in 1885 with the following objectives:

1. To bring together the people of India on a common platform.
2. To create a feeling of unity among them, irrespective of religion, race, language, geographical territories.
3. To provide opportunities to understand one another’s problems and views.
4. To increase the feeling of unity among the people.
5. To take measures for the upliftment of the country.

Question 2.
Anti Partition Movement :
Answer:

1. With the motive to create a divide between the Hindus and the Muslims, Lord Curzon divided the province of Bengal in the Muslim-majority East Bengal and the Hindu-majority West Bengal in 1905.
2. The day of partition, 16th October was observed as the ‘National Mourning Day’.
3. All over India, protest meetings were organised to condemn the decision of the government.
4. Singing of Vande Mataram and Raksha-bandhan programmes were arranged to mark the protest.
5. Government-run schools and colleges were boycotted in large number by the students.
6. Sensing the intensity and severity of dissatisfaction the British annulled the Partition of Bengal.

Question 3.
Four Point Programme of the Indian National Congress :
Answer:
In the session of 1906 of the Indian National Congress, the four-point programme was unanimously accepted.

1. Swadeshi: To make use of capital, resources, manpower in our country so that it becomes self-sufficient.
2. Boycott: It was decided to boycott foreign goods as a first step, and boycott of foreign rule be the next step. It would be an attack on the roots of British imperialism.
3. Swaraj: The final objective is to attain freedom.
4. National Education: To impart education which will create pride for the nation among people.

4. Explain the background behind the establishment of Indian National Congress with the help of following points:
1. Centralisation of administration
2. Economic exploitation
3. Western education
4. Study of Ancient Indian History
5. Role of newspapers
Answer:
The background behind the establishment of the Indian National Congress in 1885:

1. Centralisation of administration :

1. The uniform policies, identical reforms and equality before law brought the nation under one roof.
2. The network of roads and railways brought the people of India together.
3. It developed the feeling of unity among Indians.

2. Economic exploitation :

1. The economic exploitation of India through the imperialistic policies led to the drain of the Indian wealth to England.
2. Industries declined and the farmers became bankrupt.
3. Imposition of taxes on middle class and the exploitation of worker class by the capitalist led to growth of discontent.

3. Western education :

1. Western education familiarised the educated Indians with modern values and principles such as liberty, equality and democracy.
2. They accepted principles like rationalism, humanity and nationalism.
3. They realised that they can carry out work of the country by following them.

4. Study of Ancient Indian History :

1. The manuscripts in Sanskrit, Persian and many other languages were examined and research was published.
2. Many western Scholars started to study Indian culture.
3. The realisation that India had a rich ancient heritage aroused the feeling of national pride among Indians.

5. Role of newspapers :

1. Newspapers in English and vernacular languages carried articles criticising the policies of the government.
2. It led to social and political awakening.

Do you Know?

Project:

Collect additional information about the leaders of the early phase of Indian National Congress with the help of the internet.

Class 8 History Chapter 6 Beginning of Freedom Movement Additional Important Questions and Answers

Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options:

Question 1.
…………. newspaper was a mouthpiece of extremist ideology in Bengal.
(a) Dnyanoday
(b) Dnyanprakash
(c) Amrit Bazar Patrika
(d) Kesari
Answer:
(c) Amrit Bazar Patrika

Question 2.
………….. declared to give responsible political system to India.
(a) Montague
(b) Morley
(c) Dalhousie
(d) Chelmsford
Answer:
(a) Montague

Question 3.
A committee under the leadership of met …………… Governor-General Lord Minto.
(a) Sir Sayyad Ahmad Khan
(b) Abdul Latif
(c) Baddrudin Tayyabji
(d) Aga Khan
Answer:
(d) Aga Khan

Question 4.
The Home Rule Movement was launched in …………. against Colonialism.
(a) South Africa
(b) Ireland
(c) Scotland
(d) Switzerland
Answer:
(b) Ireland

Question 5.
…………… was established in 1906.
(a) The Indian National Congress
(b) Moderate Party
(c) Extremist Party
(d) The Muslim League
Answer:
(d) The Muslim League

Identify the wrong pair and correct it:

(1) The first President of Indian National Congress
– Wyomesh Chandra Banerjee
(2) Assassinated Rand
– The Chapekhar Brothers
(3) He pronounced the word Swaraj for the first time
– Lokmanya Tilak
(4) The British officer who took initiative in forming the Indian National Congress.
– Allen Octavian Hume
Answer:
Wrong Pair: He pronounced the word Swaraj for the first time.
– Lokmanya Tilak
Corrected pair: He pronounced the word Swaraj for the first time
– Dadabhai Nowrojee.

Write the Names:

Question 1.
They studied ancient Indian culture
(i) ……… (ii) …….
Answer:
(i) Dr. Bhau Daji Lad
(ii) Dr. R.G. Bhandarkar

Question 2.
Leaders of Home Rule Movement
(i)……… (ii) ……
Answer:
(i) Dr. Annie Besant
(ii) Lokmanya Tilak.

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question 1.
Which institute was established to study ancient Indian culture?
Answer:
The Asiatic Society was established in Bengal to study ancient Indian culture.

Question 2.
Which were the mediums initially used by the extremist leaders to create political awakening?
Answer:
The extremist leaders initially used the mediums of newspapers, national education and national festivals.

Question 3.
What was the objective of the extremist leaders in founding the educational institutions?
Answer:
The extremist leaders established educational institutions for creating a generation which will have concern for their own language and tradition.

Question 4.
Who led the Anti Partition Movement?
Answer:
Surendranath Banerjee, Anand Mohan Bose, Rabindranath Tagore and such other leaders led the Anti-Partition Movement.

Question 5.
How did Tilak criticise the Montague-Chelmsford Act?
Answer:
Lokmanya Tilak criticised the Moptague-Chelmsford Act in the following words, “This is neither Swaraj nor its foundation.”

Question 6.
What did Lokmanya Tilak firmly state?
Answer: Lokmanya firmly stated that “Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it.”

Complete the graphical presentation:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Explain the Concept :

Question 1.
Moderates :
Answer:

1. The Moderates were the leaders who wanted to carry out nationalistic movement within the constitutional methods and peaceful meAnswer:
2. The leaders were realistic and highly educated and had faith in the justice of the British.
3. They had hope that if they place their demands in constitutional manner the British will give justice to their demands.
4. They were aware that a strong foundation needs to be built through organised work.
5. The philosophy and principles of western thinkers like liberalism, freedom, equality, fraternity influenced them.

Question 2.
Extremists :
Answer:

1. The leaders of the Indian National Congress who advocated intensification of the struggle to attain freedom were known as Extremists.
2. Moderates and Extremists were unanimous about the objectives of Congress. The Extremists had no faith in the constitutional methods of the Moderates.
3. According to Extremists, freedom will be attained only if lakhs of people participated in the freedom movement and challenge the British government.

Write short notes :

Question 1.
First session of Indian National Congress :
Answer:

1. The founding session of the Indian National Congress took place on 28th December, 1885 at Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit school in Mumbai.
2. It was presided by Wyomesh Chandra Banerjee, a renowned lawyer from Kolkata.
3. It was attended by seventy-two delegates from different provinces of India.
4. Allen Oct avian Hume took the initiative in establishing of the Indian National Congress.
5. Increase in the number of Indians in the administration, reduction in military expenditure were the demands placed before the British government.

Question 2.
Servants of India Society :
Answer:
1. Gopal Krishna Gokhale founded the Servants of India Society in 1905.
2. Its main objectives were :

• to create love for the county.
• teach them sacrifice of self-interest.
• no differentiation on the basis of caste and religion.
• to create social harmony.
• to spread education.

Question 3.
The Lucknow Pact :
Answer:

1. An attempt was made under the leadership of Lokmanya Tilak to resolve differences in the Indian National Congress at its Lucknow session in 1916.
2. In the same year, there was an agreement between Indian National Congress and the Muslim League, known as the Lucknow Pact.
3. According to this Pact, Indian National Congress agreed to separate electorate for Muslims.
4. In return, the Muslim League agreed to support the Indian National Congress in its work for getting political rights to India.

Question 4.
Home Rule Movement :
Answer:

1. Home rule means self-rule or self-government.
2. It was modelled after the Home Rule Movement in Ireland.
3. It was led by Dr. Annie Besant and Lokmanya Tilak.
4. They made extensive tours in different parts of the country so that the demand of self-government could reach the common people.

Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
A feeling of nationalism developed among the IndiAnswer:
Answer:

1. The British established a centralised administration in India and applied uniform policies all over the country.
2. They also laid down the principle of equality before law.
3. They introduced the modern means of transport and communication.
4. It benefited Indians as well. This made possible for the people living in different parts of India to establish contact with one another. This factors developed a feeling of nationalism among the Indians.

Question 2.
Lokmanya was imprisoned in 1897.
Answer:

1. In 1897, hundreds of people died in Pune due to the epidemic of Plague.
2. An officer name Rand was appointed to bring the epidemic under control.
3. He started a search campaign to find Plague patients and adopted oppressive measures.
4. To avenge this cruel and oppressive treatment meted out to people, the Chapekar brothers assassinated him.
5. An unsuccessful attempt was made by the government to connect Lokmanya Tilak with this conspiracy.
6. When they failed in their attempt, they imprisoned him with revenge.

Question 3.
The National Congress split at its Surat session in 1907.
Answer:

1. The differences between the moderates and the extremists reached a climax in 1907.
2. The moderates wanted to keep aside the resolution of Swadeshi and Boycott which was thwarted by the extremists.
3. Some moderate leaders blamed the extremist leaders for trying to capture the Indian National Congress.
4. It became impossible to arrive at a compromise between both the groups. As a result the Indian National Congress split at its Surat session in 1907.

Question 4.
The charge of sedition was put on Lokmanya Tilak.
Answer:

1. There was wide protest against the partition of Bengal throughout the country.
2. With a view to restrain the anti¬partition movements government resorted to many suppressive measures.
3. Strict action was taken against extremists leaders which caused severe reactions in Bengal.
4. The revolutionaries adopted means of firing and bomb blasts which was advocated by Lokmanya Tilak through his newspaper Kesari.

Therefore, the charge of sedition was put on Lokmanya Tilak by the British government for which he was sent to Mandalay jail for 6 years.

Question 5.
The government passed the Morley- Minto Act.
Answer:
1. The economic policies of the British increased poverty in India.
2. It created dissatisfaction in the minds of the people against British rule.
3. The oppressive measures adopted by Lord Curzon to suppress the protest of partition of Bengal, exclusion of educated Indians in government services and the unjust treatment towards Indians in Africa all this added to the dissatisfaction among the IndiAnswer:
4. Morley-Minto reforms were passed by the British government as a temporary remedy to calm discontent among the IndiAnswer:

Question 6.
The Montague-Chelmsford Act disappointed the people of India.
Answer:
The Montague-Chelmsford Act disappointed the people of India, because

1. The British Government had declared its intention to gradually grant the right to self-rule and responsible government in 1917.
2. In 1919, the British Parliament passed an act to bring constitutional reforms in India.
3. According to the Act, less important departments were transferred to Indian ministers and important departments like Finance, Home affairs and Revenue was kept with the Governor.
4. Thus, it belied the hope that the Act would lay foundation of responsible government in India and disappointed the people.

Answer the following questions in 25-30 words:

Question 1.
What realisation led to the emergence of a political organisation on all India level?
Answer:

1. English educated Indians were instrumental to bring about Renaissance.
2. They launched reform movements in social, political, religious, economic and cultural field in different parts of the country.
3. The political organisations in different parts of the country formed during various movements felt the need to create a political organisation on an all India level having common goal.
4. It was necessary to bring together groups and people who had political awareness.
5. It was necessary to draw attention of the people towards questions of the nation. This led to the emergence of a political organization on all India level.

Question 2.
State the impact of imperialistic policy of the British on India.
Answer:

1. The economic exploitation of India through the imperialistic policies led to the drain of the Indian wealth to England.
2. The compulsion to grow cash crops, burden of land taxes and recurring famines made conditions of farmers miserable. All these broke the backbone of the Indian agriculture.
3. With the decline of traditional industries, there was increase in unemployment.
4. The workers were exploited by the capitalists.
5. The middle class suffered due to imposition of various new taxes.
   This was the impact of the British imperialist policy which led to discontent among the IndiAnswer:

Question 3.
State the impact of western education?
Answer:

1. Due to spread of western education, new ideas like Justice, Liberty, Equality, Democracy, etc. were introduced to the IndiAnswer:
2. The young Indians imbibed the values like rationalism, humanity, nationalism and scientific attitude.
3. They developed a feeling that they could carry out the work of the country.
4. English became the new medium of communication.

Question 4.
What message did Dadabhai Nowrojee give at the session of Congress in 1906?
Answer:
At the session of the Indian National Congress in 1906, Dadabhai Nowrojee pronounced the word ‘Swaraj’ for the first time. He gave the message

1. to remain united.
2. try sincerely and fulfill the aim of Swaraj so that those who are poor, hungry and having diseases could be saved,
3. India to get respectable position among the developed countries.

Question 5.
Write about the process of formation of Muslim League.
Answer:

1. The British got very disturbed by the overwhelming public response to the Indian National Congress in the anti-partition movement.
2. They once again resorted to the policy of ‘Divide and rule’.
3. Many British officers suggested that a separate political organisation was necessary to safeguard the interests of the Muslims.
4. Due to motivation of British government, under the leadership of Aga Khan a committee of upper-class Muslims met Governor-General Lord Minto.
5. Thus, encouraged by Lord Minto and other British officers, the Muslim League was formed in 1906.

Question 6.
What were the provisions of Morley- Minto Act?
Answer:
1. The Morley-Minto Act of 1909 provided for increase of the number of Indian members in the legislatures and the inclusion of some elected Indian members.
2. It created separate electorates for the Indian Muslims.

Question 7.
What is Responsive Cooperation?
Answer:
1. India had to face the brunt of First World War which led to growing dissatisfaction among people.
2. To curb their dissatisfaction and get cooperation, Montague, the Secretary of State for India, declared in 1917 that Britain would gradually grant the right to self-rule and a responsible government to India. ,
3. Lokmanya Tilak declared that if the British Government showed sympathy and a considerate attitude to the demands of the people then the people of India would cooperate with the government. This is called ‘Responsive Cooperation’.

Write answer in details :

Question 1.
Give a brief account of the work of Extremist leaders in India’s freedom struggle.
Answer:

1. Extremist leaders Lokmanya Tilak, Bipin Chandra Pal, Lala Lajpat Rai advocated intensification of the struggle since the British did not respond to the petitions and appeals.
2. ) Initially, they used the mediums of newspapers, national festivals and national education to bring about political awakening.
3. They formed educational institutions to sow the seeds of nationalism in society and to create a generation which will show concern about their language and tradition.
4. Lokmanya Tilak severely criticised the suppressive policies or the British through the newspapers like ‘Kesari’ and ‘Maratha’.
5. Lokmanya Tilak started Ganesh Utsav and Shiv Jayanti to bring people together.
6. The leaders did not adopt the means of armed revolution but insisted on extensive agitations.
7. Swaraj, Swadeshi, National Education and Boycott was the four-point ‘ programme accepted.
8. The Moderates laid the foundation of freedom struggle and the Extremists carried it forward.

Question 3.
Which measures were taken by the : British government to suppress the Anti-Partition Movement?
Answer:
The British government adopted following measures to suppress the anti-partition movement:

1. The public meetings were banned.
2. Strict punishment was given to those who broke the law.
3. Even school children were beaten up.
4. Many restrictions were imposed on the newspapers.
5. The British confiscated many printing/presses on false ground of criticising the ; government.
6. Writers and editors were imprisoned.
7. Strict actions were taken against many extremist leaders.
8. Lokmanya Tilak was sent to Mandalay jail at Myanmar for 6 years on the charge of sedition.
9. Bipin Chandra Pal was sent to jail and Lala Lajpat Rai was deported out of Punjab.

Identify the picture and write about his contribution to the freedom struggle.

Answer:

1. The Above picture is of Lokmanya Tilak.
2. He started the newspapers Kesari and Maratha.
3. He started festivals like Ganesh Utsav and Shiv Jayanti for people to come together and get inspiration from contribution of national personalities.
4. The bomb attacks by the revolutionary was advocated through newspaper Kesari and Maratha.
5. Due to this, he was charged with sedition and put in Mandalay jail for 6 years.
6. When he was in Mandalay prison he wrote Geetarahasya which advocated philosophy of Karmayoga and stressed upon the people to always remain in action.
7. An attempt was made under his leadership to resolve differences between two groups in the Indian National Congress in its session of 1916.
8. He started the Home Rule Movement along with Dr. Annie Besant.
9. He travelled in different parts of India so that the demand for self government reach the common man.
10. He firmly declared, ‘Swaraj is my birth right and I shall have it.’
11. He criticised the Montague Chelmsford Reform Act when it failed to fulfill the demand of responsible government.

Question 4.
Do you feel the four-fold programme implemented by Indian National Congress needs to be implemented even today? Why?
Answer:
In the pre-independence period, Indian National Congress implemented the four-fold programme of Swaraj, Swadeshi, Boycott and National education. The programme needs to be implemented today but with slight changes.

1. Swaraj: Today we have political freedom but we lack good Governance. Common man, farmer, women and the backward classes still suffer.

2. Swadeshi: In the world of Globalisation, goods from other countries have entered Indian markets. It is necessary for the Indian industries to implement programme of Swadeshi to sustain.

3. Boycott: It is not possible to boycott foreign goods but we should insist on indigenous goods wherever possible.

4. National education: Schools in India impart education catering to different needs and ideologies but they fall short to create national pride and imparting character training.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Climate Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Climate

Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 Climate Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write names of the States/Regions in appropriate columns.
Bihar, Tocantins, Pernambuco, Alagoas, Eastern Maharashtra, Western part of Rajasthan, Gujarat, Rio Grande Do Norte, Paraiba, Western Ghats, Eastern Himalayas, Western Andhra Pradesh, Roroima, Amazonas, West Bengal, Rio Grande Do Sul, Santa Catarina, Goa
Answer:

States/Regions	India	Brazil
High rainfall	Western Ghats, Eastern Himalayas, Goa	Tocantins, Rio Grande Do Sul, Roraima
Moderate rainfall	Bihar, Eastern Maharashtra West Bengal	Santa Catarina, Amazonas, Alagoas
Low rainfall	Western part of Rajasthan, Gujarat, Western Andhra Pradesh	Pernambuco, Paraiba, Rio Grande Do Norte, Alagoas

2. State whether right or wrong. Rewrite the wrong sentences

Question a.
The fact that Brazil lies on the equator affects its climate in a big way.
Answer:
Right.

Question b.
India and Brazil have the same seasons at the same time.
Answer:
Wrong – India and Brazil have different seasons at the same time.

Question c.
India faces tropical cyclones frequently.
Answer:
Right.

Question d.
Brazil gets a lot of rainfall because of the southwest monsoon winds.
Answer:
Wrong – Brazil gets rainfall from South-East Trade Winds and North-East Trade Winds.

3. Give geographical reasons:

Question a.
The north-eastern part of Brazilian Highlands receives very less rainfall.
Answer:
(i) Brazil gets rainfall from the South-East Trade Winds and the North-East Trade Winds.
(ii) Parts of the Brazilian Highlands extend upto the northern coast.
(iii) The Escarpments act as an obstruction to the winds blowing from the sea and cause orographic type of rainfall in the coastal region.
(iv) Beyond the Highlands, the effect of these winds gets reduced. As a result, the rainfall is minimal.
(v) Thus the North Eastern part of Brazilian highlands receives less rainfall. This rain shadow region is also called the ‘Drought Quadrilateral’.

Question b.
Snowfall doesn’t always occur in Brazil.
Answer:
(i) Because of the vast latitudinal extent of Brazil, it experiences a wide range of climatic variations. Near the Equator it is hot, while tropical type of climate is found near the Tropic of Capricorn.

(ii) Considering the temperatures in Brazil, the northern part of Brazil is hot while the temperatures in the southern part are comparatively lower.

(iii) It generally snows in those areas lying in the temperate or polar regions or in the mountainous regions of very high altitude.

(iv) Snowfall does occur but is only confined to higher elevations in the southern states of Rio Grande Do Sul, Parana and Santa Catarina.

(v) Most part of the country lies in the tropical zone which experiences a hot and humid climate.

So snowfall doesn’t always occur in Brazil and is considered a rare phenomenon.

Question c.
Convectional type of rainfall is not prominent in India.
Answer:
(i) Convectional rains are a feature of the equatorial regions and the equator passes through the northern part of Brazil.
(ii) Due to the intense heat here the air expands and rises upwards. As the air goes upwards it cools down, condensation occurs and clouds are formed. This leads to convectional rains every day.
(iii) As such conditions do not exist in India, convection rainfall is not prominent here.

Question d.
Tropical cyclones occur rarely in Brazil.
Answer:
(i) In the coastal regions of Brazil near the Equator, differences in temperatures are negligible.
(ii) The winds move in the vertical direction in this equatorial region.
(iii) Similarly, the convergence zone of the trade winds is weak here. As a result, cyclones are not formed.
(iv) As a result tropical cyclones occur rarely in Brazil.

Question e.
There is not much difference in the range of temperature in Manaus.
Answer:
(i) Manaus is located to the north of Brazil and close to the Equator.
(ii) This region receives perpendicular rays of the sun throughout the year.
(iii) It also receives convectional type of rainfall every day.
(iv) So the climate is hot and humid throughout the year.
(v) As, there is not much difference in the maximum and minimum temperatures there is not much difference in the range of temperature in Manaus.

Question f.
India receives precipitation from the North East Monsoon Winds too.
Answer:
(i) In the winter season, India is influenced by the North East Monsoon Winds.
(ii) These winds bring cool breeze to the country.
(iii) While blowing over Bay of Bengal the North East Monsoon Winds pick up moisture and give rain to the eastern coast of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu in India.
So, it is said that India receives precipitation from the North East Monsoon Winds too.

4. Answer the following questions:

Question a.
Describe in brief the changes occurring in the climatic conditions of India while going from south to north.
Answer:
(i) India’s Climate is of monsoon type. But there is diversity in climatic conditions of India due to the latitudinal location and altitude of the place.

(ii) As the Tropic of Cancer passes through middle of India, it divides the country into tropical region and sub tropical region.

(iii) The tropical region receives nearly vertical rays of the Sun and the temperature increases as we move towards the south.

(iv) In the sub tropical region of the north, summers are very hot and winters are very cool and dry.

(v) The Himalayas lie in the northern part of India. They protects us from the cold winds that blow from the north, obstructs the South West Monsoon Winds which results in orographic rainfall in its southern slopes.

(vi) In major parts of India precipitation is in the form of rainfall, but in the Himalayas it is in the form of snowfall.

Question b.
Explain the importance of the Himalayas and the Indian Ocean with respect to the climate of India.
Answer:
(i) The Indian Ocean and the Himalayan ranges exert a great influence on the climate of India and the origin of monsoons.

(ii) Because of high temperatures in summers, a low pressure area develops in the Punjab Plains and the Thar Desert of Rajasthan.

(iii) At the same time a high pressure region develops over the Indian Ocean.

(iv) This attracts winds and they start blowing from the Indian Ocean towards the mainland India.

(v) These are moisture-laden winds which bring rainfall to India.

(vi) These winds move towards the Himalayas and due to the natural obstruction of the Himalayas, orographic rain occurs.

(vii) Later these winds retreat from the Himalayas and move from the north-east towards the Indian Ocean and brings rain to some parts of the Peninsula.

(viii) Also the severe cold winds blowing from the north are obstructed by the Himalayas and it saves India from severe winters.

Question c.
Discuss the factors affecting the climate of Brazil.
Answer:
(i) Brazil experiences wide range of climatic variations due to its vast latitudinal extent, proximity to the Equator, presence of the Atlantic Ocean and the Great Escarpment.

(ii) The northern part of Brazil near the Equator is hot, while temperate type of climate is found near the Tropic of Capricorn.

(iii) Brazil gets rainfall from the South-East Trade Winds and the North-East Trade Winds blowing from the Atlantic Ocean.

(iv) Convectional rainfall occurs in places near the equator. Whereas, the Escarpment act as an obstruction to the winds blowing from the sea and cause orographic type of rainfall in the coastal region.

(v) Beyond the Highlands the effects of these winds gets reduced, as a result the rainfall is minimal. This region is a rain-shadow region and is called ‘The Drought Quadrilateral.’

(vi) The Equator passes through the northern part of Brazil so the temperature here is high. Average temperature of Amazon valley is 25°-28°C. Climate is cooler in the highlands. While the temperatures in the southern part are comparatively lower.

(vii) In the coastal regions near the Equator in Brazil, differences in temperatures are negligible. Because of the proximity to the sea, the coast experiences mild and humid climate.

(viii) The winds move in the vertical direction in this region. Similarly, the convergence zone of the trade winds is weak here. So the tropical cyclones are a rare phenomena here.

Question d.
Compare the climates of brazil and India?
Answer:

Climate of India	Climate of Brazil
(i) India has a monsoon type of climate.	(i) Brazil has a tropical climate to the north and temperate climate to the south.
(ii) The southern part of India lies in the tropical region so the temperature is high in the south and comparatively low in the north, i.e., the temperature decreases from south to north.	(ii) The northern part of Brazil lies in the tropical region so the temperature is high in the north and comparatively low in the south, i.e., the temperature decreases from north to south.
(iii) India receives rain from the South West and the North East Monsoon Winds.	(iii) Brazil receives rain from the South East and North East Trade Winds.
(iv) India receives orographic rainfall.	(iv) Brazil receives convectional and orographic type of rainfall.
(v) The western part of Rajasthan, Gujarat and eastern side of the Western Ghats receive less rain.	(v) The north eastern part of the Brazilian highlands is a rain shadow region.
(vi)     Tropical cyclones are a frequent phenomena.	(vi) Tropical cyclones are a rare phenomena

Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 Climate Intext Questions and Answers

Observe the given map below and answer the following questions

Question 1.
Considering the isotherms of Brazil, what is the average range of temperature in Brazil?
Answer:
Considering the isotherms of Brazil, the average range of temperature of Brazil is 10°C (28°C-18°C).

Question 2.
In which area does it rain more?
Answer:
It rains more in the northern and central part of Brazil. E.g., Amazon Valley.

Question 3.
From which directions are winds blowing towards Brazil?
Answer:
The winds are blowing from North East and South East directions.

Question 4.
What could be the reason behind that?
Answer:
These are permanent trade winds which blow from high pressure belt to the equatorial low pressure belt. Brazil being in the tropical zone, a low pressure area is created and wind start blowing from the ocean to the land.

Question 5.
What could be the obstruction in the way of these winds?
The Escarpment acts as obstruction in the way of the South East Trade Winds coming from the sea.

Question 6.
Which type of rainfall will occur because of these winds?
Answer:
Orographic rainfall will occur because of these winds.

Question 7.
Correlate these winds and rainfall.
Answer:
The escarpments act as an obstruction to the winds blowing from the sea and cause an orographic type of rainfall in the coastal region. Beyond the Highlands, the effect of these winds gets reduced. As a result, the rainfall is minimal.

Question 8.
In which part of Brazil are the average temperatures low?
Answer:
The average temperatures are low in the southern part of Brazil.

Question 9.
Identify the rain-shadow area in Brazil. Describe its climatic characteristics.
Answer:
The north-eastern part of the Brazilian highlands is a rain shadow region. Beyond the highlands, the effect of the South East Trade Winds gets reduced and the rainfall is minimal. Also, the temperature here is quite high. This rain shadow region is referred to as the ’Drought Quadrilateral’.

Question 10.
In which region do you find a higher temperature?
Answer:
The northern part of Brazil has higher temperature.

Question 11.
Considering the latitudinal extent of Brazil, where will you find a temperate climate in Brazil?
Answer:
The southern part of Brazil lying below 23 V4°S latitude (Tropic of Capricorn) experiences temperate climate.

Question 12.
Describe the winds blowing between 0° to 5° N and S zones.
Answer:
The winds blowing between 0° to 5° N and S zones move in the vertical direction leading to convectional type of rain. The North East and South East Trade winds are very weak in this region.

Question 13.
Which method has been used to show distribution in this map?
Answer:
The Isopleth method has been used to show distribution in this map.

Observe the given map and answer the following questions

Question 1.
Which region gets more than 4000mm of rainfall?
Answer:
Western Ghats, Western Coasts of India and the northeastern region comprising of Mawsynram, Cherrapunji and parts of Assam and Arunachal Pradesh gets more than 4000 mm of rainfall.

Question 2.
Identify the regions with maximum and minimum temperatures?
Answer:
Central and North Western parts of Peninsular Plateau and islands have high temperature. Hilly regions of north, northeast and south India have low temperature.

Question 3.
In which direction is the temperature increasing?
Answer:
The temperature is increasing towards the south.

Question 4.
Identify the direction of the winds shown. What are they known as?
Answer:
The winds shown are blowing from the south west to north east direction. These winds are called Southwest Monsoon Winds.

Question 5.
Which winds are responsible for the rainfall in India ?
Answer:
South-West Monsoon Winds are responsible for rainfall in India.

Question 6.
Some part of Rajasthan is under desert? What could be the reason for it?
Answer:
The South West Monsoon Winds blow parallel to the Aravallis. As these moisture laden winds are not obstructed by the Aravallis it rains less here. Hence, Rajasthan is under desert.

Question 7.
Draw the main parallel latitude passing through India which affects its climate.
Answer:
Students are expected to draw the Tropic of Cancer.

Question 8.
In which part of Peninsular India is semi-arid climatic conditions found and why?
Answer:
(i) The part of peninsular India which has semi-arid climatic conditions are central part of Peninsula Plateau comprising parts of Central Maharashtra, Western Andhra Pradesh, Eastern Karnataka and Western Tamil Nadu. These regions lie on the leeward side of the Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats. It rains less here and a rain shadow region is formed.
(ii) Some parts of Gujarat and Rajasthan are also semi-arid as the Aravallis lie parallel and do not obstruct the South-west Monsoon winds.

Give geographical reasons:

Question 1.
Shillong gets less than 1000 mm of rainfall annually, whereas Cherrapunji/Mawsynram which is nearby get’s over 11000 mm, of rainfall annually.
Answer:
(i) Cherrapunji/Mawsynram lies in the higher altitude on the windward side of the Khasi Hills and receives rainfall from the South West Monsoon Winds.
(ii) While Shillong lies in the lower altitude on the leeward side of the Khasi Hills, so it receives less rainfall being in the rain shadow area.

Observe the pictures given below and write brief description about them.

Question 1.

Answer:
Both the figures shows the traffic congestion during heavy rains. Due to lack of proper drainage and heavy downpour the water gets accumulated disturbing the commuting system.

Question 2.


Answer:
Both the figures show the drought affected regions of India and Brazil respectively. Due to scarce amount of rainfall received in these regions the land has became dry and cannot be cultivated.

Question 3.

Answer:
figure shows snow fall during winter season in the northern parts of India.

Question 4.

Answer:
figure shows heavy rainfall in the Brazilian rainforest region.

Question 5.

Answer:
figure shows the trees being cut down to bring land under cultivation. Deforestation is a major issue in Brazil.

Question 6.

Answer:
figure shows a well from which water is used for domestic purpose.

Question 7.

Answer:
figure shows paddy fanning in India. The farmers are planting paddy. The water logged fields are shown.

Study the graphs given below and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
In which month is the highest temperature found in all the four cities?
Answer:
The highest temperature is found in the month of January.

Question 2.
In which month does it rain the most in the given cities?
Answer:
It rains the most in the month of march.

Question 3.
When does Brazil have its rainy season?
Answer:
Brazil has its rainy season from December to march.

Question 4.
Which city has the maximum range of temperature? How much is it?
Answer:
Porto Alegre has the maximum range of temperature. It is 20°C (30° C -10° C).

Question 5.
What type of climate will be found in Rio de Janeiro?
Answer:
Rio de Janeiro has mild & humid climate.

Question 1.
What difference do you find in the rainy seasons of Chennai and other cities of India? Why?

Rainy Season of Chennai	Rainy Seasons of Other Indian Cities
(i) Chennai mainly receives rain from October to December.	Other cities of India receive rainfall from June to September.
(ii) Chennai receives rainfall from North East Monsoon Winds.	The other cities receive rainfall mainly from South-West Monsoon Winds.

Question 2.
What similarities do you see in the temperature curves of Delhi and Kolkata?
Answer:
The following similarities can be seen in the temperature curves of Delhi and Kolkata:

• The temperature rises from January to March.
• From March till June high temperatures are experienced.
• The temperature drops till July and remain stable in August and September.
• Thereafter the temperatures decreases.

Question 3.
Calculate the average range of minimum and maximum temperatures of all the four cities.

Cities	Average range of minimum and maximum temperatures
Delhi	34°C (41°-7°)
Kolkata	28°C (37°-9°)
Mumbai	17°C (34° -17°)
Chennai	18°C (39° – 21°)

Question 4.
In which city is the range minimum? What can you infer about its climate?
Answer:
The range is minimum in Mumbai due to its proximity to the sea.

Question 5.
In which city is the range maximum? What can you infer from this about its climate?
Answer:
The range is maximum in Delhi. It indicates that Delhi has an extreme climate.

Question 6.
Based on the temperature and rainfall of Mumbai, comment upon its climate.
Answer:
Mumbai has an equable climate, with less variation in summer and winter temperature.

Question 7.
Classify the cites as cities with equable and extreme climates.
Answer:
Equable climates – Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata. Extreme climate – Delhi.

Give it a try

Question 1.
Considering the various factors affecting Brazil’s climate, complete the table.
Answer:

Regions	Climatic characteristics
(1) Amazon Valley	The climate is generally hot and humid. It receives around 2000mm of rainfall. The average range of temperature here is 25°C – 28°C.
(2) Highlands	Hot and dry climate, low rainfall.
(3) Pantanal	Warm and humid.
(4) North Coastal region	Hot and humid climate. Rainfall between 1000 to 1200 mm.
(5) South Coastal region	Mild and humid climate.
(6) Southernmost region of Brazil	Hot summers, cool winters and snowfall.

Question 2.
In which part of India are crops grown in a year? How is this related to the rainfall over there?
Answer:
(i) Coastal areas of Tamil Nadu in India grow rice three times a year.
(ii) This crop is taken during the retreating monsoon season.
While blowing over Bay of Bengal, the North East Monsoon winds pick up moisture and give rain to eastern coast of Tamil Nadu.

Use your brain power!

Question 1.
Group the months into seasons for a whole year according to the charts given.

Seasons	India	Brazil
Summer	March to May	December to March
Winter	December to February	June to September

Answer:

Colours of Both!

Question 1.
Considering the location extent and climatic conditions of both the countries, write months according to the seasons.
Answer:

Seasons	India	Brazil
Summer	March to May	December to March
Winter	December to February	June to September

Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 Climate Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
The climate found near the Equatorial region is
(a) hot
(b) dry
(c) humid
(d) cold
Answer:
(a) hot

Question 2.
The climate found near the Tropic of Capricorn is
(a) tropical
(b) hot
(c) temperate
(d) tundra
Answer:
(c) temperate

Question 3.
Brazil gets rainfall from
(a) North-West and South-West trade winds
(b) Westerly winds
(c) South-West and North-East
(d) North-East and South-East trade winds
Answer:
(d) North-East and South-East trade winds

Question 4.
The act as an obstruction to the winds blowing from the sea in Brazil.
(a) Himalayas
(b) Escarpments
(c) Andes
(d) Western Ghats
Answer:
(b) Escarpments

Question 5.
The coastal region of Brazil receives a type of rainfall.
(a) orographic
(b) cyclonic
(c) convectional
(d) frontal
Answer:
(a) orographic

Question 6.
Since the convergence of trade winds are weak near the equator, are not formed.
(a) clouds
(b) ocean currents
(c) cyclones
(d) tides
Answer:
(c) cyclones

Question 7.
The average temperature in the Amazon valley is
(a) 15°-20°C
(b) 13°-15°C
(c) 30°-32°C
(d) 25°-28°C
Answer:
(d) 25°-28°C

Question 8.
The Amazon valley receives around mm of rainfall
(a) 2000
(b) 1800
(c) 1500
(d) 1000-1200
Answer:
(a) 2000

Question 9.
India’s climate is of type.
(a) humid
(b) monsoon
(c) equatorial
(d) cold
Answer:
(b) monsoon

Question 10.
The diversity in the climatic conditions of India is due to the location and altitude of the place.
(a) longitudinal
(b) latitudinal
(c) equatorial
(d) tropical
Answer:
(b) latitudinal

Question 11.
The Ocean and the Himalayan ranges exert a great influence on the climate of India.
(a) Atlantic
(b) Arctic
(c) Pacific
(d) Indian
Answer:
(d) Indian

Question 12.
Orographic type of rainfall occurs in India because of the natural obstruction of
(a) Himalayas
(b) Escarpments
(c) Highlands
(d) Satpuda
Answer:
(a) Himalayas

Question 13.
As the passes through the middle of India, it is considered to be a tropical region.
(a) Tropic of Capricorn
(b) Equator
(c) Tropic of Cancer
(d) 60°S latitude
Answer:
(c) Tropic of Cancer

Question 14.
Most part of Brazil lies in the zone.
(а) polar
(b) tropical
(c) sub-tropical
(d) temperate
Answer:
(b) tropical

Match the columns:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Wettest places in the world	(a) Tamil Nadu
(2) Driest place in India	(b) Cherrapunji and Mawsynram
(3) Rainshadow region in Brazil	(c) Jaisalmer, Rajasthan
(4) Climate of India	(d)    Drought Quadrilateral (e)    Monsoon type (f)     Dry type

Answer:
1 – b
2 – c
3 – d
4 – e

Answer in one sentence each.

Question 1.
Which natural disasters does India face frequently?
Answer:
India frequently faces natural disasters like erratic rainfall, droughts, cyclones, floods, etc.

Question 2.
Why does Brazil experience wide climatic variations?
Answer:
Brazil has vast latitudinal extent because of which it experiences wide climatic variations.

Question 3.
Which winds bring rainfall to Brazil?
Answer:
Brazil receives rainfall from the South East and North-East Trade Winds.

Question 4.
What acts as an obstruction to the winds blowing from sea in Brazil?
Answer:
The Escarpments act as an obstruction to the winds blowing from the sea in Brazil.

Question 5.
Which region is called the Drought Quadrilateral’?
Answer:
The northern part of Brazil beyond the Highlands is called ‘Drought Quadrilateral’.

Question 6.
Where is the difference in temperature negligible in Brazil?
Answer:
In Brazil the difference in temperature is negligible in the coastal regions near the equator.

Question 7.
In which zone does most of Brazil and India lie?
Answer: Most part of Brazil and India lies in the Tropical zone.

Question 8.
Which important latitude passes through the northern part of Brazil?
Answer:
The equator passes through the northern part of Brazil.

Question 9.
What is the average temperature in Amazon valley?
Answer:
The average temperature in Amazon valley is 25°-28°C.

Question 10.
Which part of Brazil has cooler climate?
Answer:
The climate is cooler in the Highlands.

Question 11.
Why do the Brazilian coasts experience mild and humid climate?
Answer:
The Brazilian coasts experience mild and humid- climate because of its proximity to sea.

Question 12.
Which type of climate is found in India?
Answer:
Monsoon type of climate is found in India.

Question 13.
Which important latitude passes through the middle of India?
Answer:
The Tropic of Cancer passes through the middle of India.

Question 14.
What diversifies the climatic conditions of India?
Answer:
The diversity in the climatic conditions of India are due to the latitudinal location and altitude of India.

Question 15.
What exerts a great influence on the climate of India and the origins of the monsoon?
Answer:
The Indian Ocean and the Himalayan ranges exert a great influence on the climate of India and the origin of monsoons.

Question 16.
In India, what obstructs the cold winds blowing from the North?
Answer:
In India, the Himalayas obstruct the cold winds blowing from the north.

Question 17.
What brings more rain in the coastal regions of India?
Answer:
The obstruction caused by the Eastern and Western Ghats brings more rain in the coastal regions of India.

Question 18.
Find out more about the different ways of classification of the seasons. For example, what is summer?
Answer:
The hot weather season is called summer. The season where the rain begins is called the monsoon. The cold weather season is called winter.

Name the following:

Question 1.
The two places in India which are considered as the wettest places in the world.
Answer:
Cherrapunji and Mawsynram.

Question 2.
Years in which Brazil has experienced snowfall.
Answer:
1879,1957and 1985.

Question 3.
The driest part of India.
Answer:
Jaisalmer, Rajasthan.

Question 4.
The state in India which receives maximum rainfall during the retreating monsoon season.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu.

Question 5.
Temperature in Kargil in winter.
Answer:
-48°C.

Question 6.
Temperature in Ganganagar, Rajasthan in the month of June.
Answer:
50°C.

Question 7.
The hills responsible for heavy rainfall in Cherrapunji and Mawsynram.
Answer:
Garo, Khasi and Jaintia Hills.

Question 8.
The winds which provide rainfall to the Tamil Nadu coast.
Answer:
North East Monsoon winds.
Question 9.
The state to receive rain foremost in India.
Answer:
Kerala.

Question 10.
The four seasons of India as per Indian meteorological department.
Answer:
The hot weather season (Summer), the season

Are the sentences right ot wrong? Rewrite the wrong ones.

Question 1.
Brazil experiences wide climatic variation due to its vast longitudinal extent.
Answer:
Wrong – Brazil experiences wide climatic variation due to its vast latitudinal extent.

Question 2.
The winds move in the vertical direction in northern Brazil.
Answer:
Right.

Question 3.
The rainfall reduces on the windward side of the Great Escarpment.
Answer:
Wrong – The rainfall increases on the windward side of the Great Escarpment.

Mark the following on the map with the given information and make an index.

Question 1.
Outline Map of Brazil.

1. Winds bringing rainfall to Brazil or North East and South East Trade winds.
2. Drought Quadrilateral or Rainshadow region in Brazil.

Answer:

Question 2.
Outline Map of India.

1. Southwest Monsoon winds or winds bringing rainfall to most parts of India.
2. Northeast monsoon winds.
3. Kargil or place recording lowest temperature in India.
4. Cherrapunji and Mawsynram.
5. Coromandel coast or the coast receiving rainfall from North East monsoon winds.
6. Jaisalmer or place recording lowest rainfall in India.
7. Rain shadow region of Deccan plateau.
8. Region of low rainfall.
9. Heavy rainfall region along the western coast.

Answer:

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 9 Last Phase of Struggle for Independence Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 9 Last Phase of Struggle for Independence

Class 8 History Chapter 9 Last Phase of Struggle for Independence Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options :
(Andaman and Nicobar, August Kranti, Vinoba Bhave, Sane Guruji, Indian National Congress)

Question 1.
……………….. was the first satyagrahi of individual satyagraha.
Answer:
Vinoba Bhave

Question 2.
The nation wide movement of 1942 is also called ……….. .
Answer:
August Kranti

Question 3.
In November 1943, Japan conquered ………. islands and handed them over to Azad Hind Government.
Answer:
Andaman and Nicobar

2. Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
In November 1939, provincial ministers of Indian National Congress gave their resignations.
Answer:

1. Viceroy Lord Linlithgo declared in 1939 that India had joined the Second World War on the side of England, without consulting the Indian leaders.
2. England claimed that it was fighting to save democracy in Europe.
3. Thereupon, the Congress claimed that if that claim is true then England should grant Independence to India immediately. ’
4. So the provincial ministries of the Indian National Congress resigned in November 1939 as England did not accept this demand.

Question 2.
The Indian National Army had to lay down their arms.
Answer:

1. The Indian National Army fought against the British in adverse circumstances under the leadership of Subhash Chandra Bose.
2. The Imphal Campaign of Indian National Army remained incomplete as the Japanese stopped helping the Indian National Army.
3. In the same period, Japan accepted defeat in the Second World War.
4. On 18 August 1945, Subhash Chandra Bose died in a plane crash.

Under these circumstances, the soldiers of the Indian National Army had to lay down their arms.

Question 3.
The Parallel Government became a source of inspiration to the people.
Answer:
1. During the Quit India Movement, parallel governments were established in many parts of India.
2. It rendered great service by doing work like :

• Opposition to money lenders
• Prohibition of liquor
• Spread of literacy

3. Opposition to caste distinctions, etc. Due to this, the Parallel Government became a source of inspiration for the public.

3. Complete the following table.

Question 1.

Answer:

Organisation	Founder
Forward Bloc	Subhash Chandra Bose
Indian Independence League	Rash Behari Bose
Toofan Sena	Krantiagrani G.D. alias Bapu Lad

4. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
Why did the British Prime Minister send Sir Stafford Cripps to India?
Answer:

1. During the Second World War, England sided with America against Japan.
2. As England was ruling India, there was possibility of Japan attacking India.
3. The Japanese forces came closer to the eastern border of India.
4. It was necessary to have co-operation of India to resist Japanese invasion.

Therefore, the British Prime Minister, Winston Churchill sent Sir Stafford Cripps to India in March 1942.

Question 2.
What kind of reaction was seen during the spread of news of arrest of main leaders of the Indian National Congress?
Answer:

1. Quit India Resolution moved by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, was passed on 8th August with an overwhelming majority.
2. On the same night, the leaders of the Indian National Congress were arrested.
3. The news of these arrest aroused strong resentment.
4. The angry people took out processions, tried to take control of government offices and attacked jails, police stations and railway stations.
5. School children took out processions and shouted slogan “Vande Mataram”.
6. Even though the police resorted to lathi charge and firing, the people were not afraid. The young and old showed determination and courage.

Question 3.
What appeal did Mahatma Gandhi make in the Quit India session of Indian National Congress?
Answer:
Gandhiji made the following appeal to the people of India during the Quit India session of Indian National Congress at Mumbai:

1. Everyone of you, should from this moment onwards, consider yourself a free man or woman.
2. Everyone should behave like a citizen of free India.
3. Either we shall free India or die in the attempt.
4. Through the appeal he stated that Indians should be ready to make a sacrifice with the feeling of ‘Do or Die’.

Do you Know?

Inspirational account of brave children:

1. Under the leadership of Shirishkumar, school children carried out procession holding the tricolour at Nandurbar in Maharashtra.
2. The slogan of Vande Mcrtaram was given.
3. In the police firing, along with Shirishkumar, Dhansukhlal, Shashidhar, Ghanashyam, Laldas became martyrs.

Let us Know….:

Individual Satyagraha:

1. As the British government was constantly neglecting the demands, the Indian National Congress decided to start anti war propaganda.
2. Instead of a collective movement every person should individually disobey the law. This is called Individual Satyagraha.
3. Acharya Vinoba Bhave was the first individual Satyagrahi.
4. After him, nearly 25,000 Satyagrahis participated in individual Satyagraha and were imprisoned.

Project:

Question 1.
Prepare a timeline of the events of the struggle of Indian National Army.

Question 2.
With the help of internet collect the pictures of Quit India Movement of 1942 and organise an exhibition on occasion of a national day.

Class 8 History Chapter 9 Last Phase of Struggle for Independence Additional Important Questions and Answers

1. Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options :

Question 1.
Provincial Ministers of …………… resigned in November, 1939.
Answer:
Indian National Congress

Question 2.
Songs of ……………. inspiration during the movement.
Answer:
Sane Guruji

Identify the wrong pair :

Organisation – Founder
1. Azad Dasta – Bhai Kotwal
2. Lai Sena – General Awari
3. Azad Radio – Aruna Asaf Ali
4. Azad Hind Government – Subhash Chandra Bose
Answer:
Wrong pair: Azad Radio
– Aruna Asaf Ali

Corrected pair: Azad Radio
– Usha Mehta.

Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options :

Question 1.
In 1937 elections, the Indian National Congress gained a majority in ……………
provinces and came to power.
(a) seven
(b) two
(c) eight
(d) three
Answer:
(c) eight

Question 2.
Parallel government was formed by …………… in Satara.
(a) Krantisinh Nana Patil
(b) N.G. Gore
(c) Rashtrasant Tukdoji Maharaj
(d) S.M. Joshi
Answer:
(a) Krantisinh Nana Patil

Question 3.
Netaji founded the …………… in 1943 in Singapore.
(a) Free India Centre
(b) Azad Hind Sena
(c) Parallel Government
(d) Azad Hind Government
Answer:
(d) Azad Hind Government

Question 4.
…………… tried to destroy the railway along with his campaigners in Sindh.
(a) Khudiram Bose
(b) Ashfaqulla Khan
(c) Hemu Kalani
(d) Maganlal Bagdi
Answer:
(c) Hemu Kalani

Question 5.
…………… had formed the Azad Hind Sena with the help of Captain Mohan Singh.
(a) Rash Behari Bose
(b) Subash Chandra Bose
(c) Anand Mohan Bose
(d) S.M. Gore
Answer:
(a) Rash Behari Bose

Name the following:

Question 1.
Viceroy who announced India’s involvement in Second World War.
Answer:
Lord Linlithgo

Question 2.
President of Mumbai session of Indian National Congress.
Answer:
Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

Question 3.
Leader who put forth Quit India Movement resolution at the Mumbai session of the Congress.
Answer:
Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 4.
The outburst of Navy and Air Force on this British warship.
Answer:
Talwar

Question 5.
His songs inspired the National Movement.
Answer:
Rashtrasant Tukdcji Maharaj.

Answer the following in one sentence each:

Question 1.
State the resolution passed by the Congress Working Committee in the Wardha session.
Answer:
The Congress Working Committee at its Wardha session passed the resolution that

• the British rule in India should be ended immediately and
• India be given independence.

Question 2.
What was the warning given by the Congress Working Committee in the Wardha session?
Answer:
The Congress Working Committee had given the warning that if the demand for complete independence was not met, it would launch a non-violent movement for the freedom of India.

Question 3.
Why did the British Government imprison Subhash Chandra Bose?
Answer:
The British Government imprisoned Subhash Chandra Bose because through his speeches he made appeal to the people of India to revolt against the British rule.

Question 4.
What did the British Government realise after the Navy and Air Force revolted?
Answer:
After the revolt of Navy and Air Force, the British Government realised that their rule in India was about to end.

Do as Directed:

Complete the graphical presentation:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Question 4.

Answer:

Prepare a Timeline of the events of the struggle of Azad Hind Sena:

Question 1.

Answer:

Write short notes :

Question 1.
Provincial Cabinets :
Answer:

1. According to the Act of 1935, working of the British administered provinces were transferred to the elected representatives.
2. Although not satisfied with the act. Congress contested elections to the Provincial Legislatures of eleven provinces in 1937.
3. Indian National Congress gained a majority in eight provinces.
4. Congress ministries did a lot of useful work for the benefit of the people.
5. As the British government refused their demand of Independence the Congress ministries resigned in November 1939.

Question 2.
Individual Satyagraha :
Answer:

1. As the British government was constantly neglecting the demands the Indian National Congress decided to start anti-war propaganda.
2. Instead of a collective movement they decided every person should individually disobey the law. This is known as Individual Satyagraha.
3. Acharya Vinoba Bhave was the first Individual Satyagrahi.
4. After him nearly 25,000 satyagrahis participated in individual satyagraha and were imprisoned.

Question 3.
Rash Behari Bose :
Answer:

1. Rash Behari Bose was living in Japan since 1915.
2. He had established the ‘Indian Independence League’ by organizing the Indian patriots living in the South East Asia.
3. Japan conquered the territories of South-East Asia controlled by the British.
4. Rash Behari Bose, with the help of Captain Mohan Singh, formed the Indian

National Army or Azad Hind Sena from the Indian prisoners of war captured by Japan.

Question 4.
Revolt of Indian Navy and Air Force :
Answer:

1. Inspired by the heroics of the Indian National Army, the soldiers on the British warship ‘Talwar’ revolted on 8th February 1946.
2. They hoisted the tricolour flag on the ship and raised slogans against the British Government.
3. The exchange of fire between the rebels and the British army took place.
4. The workers and common people extended their support.
5. To support this uprising, the Air Force from Delhi, Lahore, Karachi, Ambala, Meerut went on strike.
6. The naval soldiers laid down their arms after the mediation by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
What work did the Azad Radio Centre do during the 1942 underground movement?
Answer:
During the 1942 underground movement Vitthal Zaveri, Usha Mehta and her companions established a secret transmission centre, ‘Azad Radio’.
The work done:

• News of agitations in the country were broadcast on it.
• Patriotic songs were sung.
• Patriotic speeches were telecast.

This gave inspiration to the agitators during the Quit India Movement.

Question 2.
Explain the significance of the Quit India Movement.
Answer:
1. On 8th August 1942, in the Mumbai session, the Indian National Congress gave the order of ‘Quit India’ to the British government. This was the beginning of a nationwide agitation.
2. To fulfill the objective of independence, lakhs of Indians sacrificed their lives in this movement.
3. The number of people who participated were so large that even all prisons in the country were not enough to contain them.
4. The movement shook the foundation of British rule in India.

Question 3.
State the impact of the events from 1942 to 1946 on the British rule.
Answer:
Many important events took place between 1942 to 1946. The following effects were seen on the British rule :

1. It shook the foundation of British rule in India.
2. The Quit India agitation manifested the strong anti-British feeling of the Indian people.
3. The Army, Navy and Air Force considered to be backbone of the British power revolted against it.
4. The British rulers realised that now their rule will not last long in India.

Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
The plan of federation mentioned in 1935 Act did not materialise.
Answer:

1. The Act of 1935 provided for the formation of a federation of the British administered provinces and the Indian princely states.
2. The working of the British administered provinces were transferred to the Indian representatives.
3. On joining the federation, the princely states would lose their autonomy.
4. So, the proposal of federation did not materialise as the rulers of the princely states refused to join the federation.

Question 2.
The Cripps proposal was rejected.
Answer:

1. The Indian National Congress rejected the Cripps’ proposal because there was no clear mention of the grant of complete independence to India.
2. The Muslim League rejected the Cripps’ proposal as it had no mention of creation of Pakistan.

Question 3.
Subhash Chandra Bose resigned from the office of Congress President.
Answer:
1. Subhash Chandra Bose became the President of Indian National Congress twice.
2. He became the President of Congress when Second World War had commenced. He was of the opinion that as England was engaged in war, the Congress should intensify the agitation by taking advantage of this situation.
3. If needed, India should seek the help of the enemies of England.
4. Other senior leaders of the Congress did not agree with this view.
As a result, Subhash Chandra Bose resigned from the office of the Congress President.

Question 4.
The British government suspended the punishment of INA officers.
Answer:

1. After surrender of the soldiers of the Indian National Army, the British government charged them with treason.
2. Expert lawyers like Pandit Nehru, Bhulabhai Desai and Tej Bahadur Sapre defended the INA officers.
3. But the military tribunal held them guilty and sentenced them to life imprisonment.
4. There was severe unrest in the minds of the Indian people against the British Government.

So, they had to suspend the punishment given by the military tribunal.

Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Write about the Session of Indian National Congress held in Mumbai in August 1942.
Answer:

1. On 14th July, 1942 the Congress Working Committee passed the Quit India Resolution at Wardha.
2. It warned the British government of launch of a non-violent struggle for India’s independence.
3. With this background, Quit India Session of the Indian National Congress began at Gowalia Tank (Kranti Maidan) in Mumbai on 7th August, 1942.
4. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad presided over this session.
5. The resolution passed at Wardha § session was finally approved in the Mumbai session.
6. On 8th August, Quit India Resolution, moved by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru was passed with an overwhelming majority.
7. Congress decided to launch a nationwide non-violent movement under the leadership of Gandhiji.
8. Gandhiji gave inspiring message of ‘Do or Die’ to the people and appealed them to be ready to sacrifice for the nation.

Question 2.
Give detailed information about Underground Movement.
Answer:

1. At the end of 1942, the young socialist leaders started the Underground Movement.
2. S. M. Joshi, Dr. Ram Manohar Lohia, Jayprakash Narayan were among the many leaders who led the movement.
3. Aruna Asaf Ali, Usha Mehta, Sucheta Kriplani were the women leaders who led the movement.
4. The activists disrupted transport and communication by breakdown of railway routes, cutting telephone lines, blowing up 8 bridges, etc.
5. Hemu Kalani tried to destroy railway carrying British troops and supply, in Sindh province.
6. Groups like Azad Dasta of Bhai Kotwal in Karjat and Lai Sena of General Awari in Nagpur made the government helpless and witless for months.
7. Usha Mehta and Vitthal Zaveri started a secret transmission centre of Azad Radio in Mumbai.
8. Many such centres operated at Kolkata, Delhi and Pune.
9. Krantisinh Nana Patil formed parallel government in Satara.
10. Parallel governments were formed in Midnapore in Bengal, Ballia and Azamgrah in Uttar Pradesh and Purnia in Bihar.
11. Krantiagrani GD (Bapu Lad) established ‘Toofan sena’ at Kundal.

Question 3.
Identify the given picture and write information about the work done by him.

Answer:
The given picture is of Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose.

1. Subhash Chandra Bose became the President of Indian National Congress twice.
2. He was of the view to intensify the agitation and seek help from the enemies of England during the Second World War.
3. He had difference of opinion with other senior leaders on these points.
4. Therefore, he resigned from the office of the Congress President and formed a party, ‘Forward Bloc’.
5. Subhash Chandra Bose was imprisoned by the British because he made an appeal to the people of India to revolt against the British.
6. He was interned in his house by the British but he managed to escape in disguise and reached Germany in April 1941.
7. He founded the ‘Free India Centre’ in Germany.
8. He made an appeal to the people of India to join in the armed struggle for the independence of India from Berlin radio station.
9. On the invitation of Rash Behari Bose, he went to Japan and led the Indian National Army.
10. He formed the Azad Hind Government in Singapore in 1943.
11. Under his leadership, Azad Hind Army captured the Aarakan province in Myanmar and posts on the eastern border of Assam.
12. Netaji appealed to the people of India : ‘You give me blood and I will give you independence’.
13. On 18 August, 1945 Netaji died in a plane crash.

Question 4.
How do you find the contribution of Shirishkumar to be inspirational?
Answer:

1. Under the leadership of Shirishkumar, the school children took out a procession holding the tricolour flag at Nandurbar.
2. ‘Vande Mataram’ was the slogan given to them.
3. The police fired on them. In the firing Shirishkumar and many other children became martyrs.
4. His sacrifice gives inspiration to us to do work for the society and country.
5. Gaining independence is no more our objective but to keep the environment clean, to maintain unity among people, and collectively solve the problems is our responsibility.
6. As all this is equally challenging we get inspiration from courage and determination of Shirishkumar.
7. Shirishkumar inspires us to do our work fearlessly without being a victim of injustice and oppression.
8. He also inspires us to make sacrifice, have faith in work and determination. 1

 

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Question 1.
Choose the correct option from the bracket and explain the statement giving reasons :
(Oxidation, displacement, electrolysis, reduction, zinc, copper, double diplacement, decomposition)

a. To prevent rusting, a laver of ……… metal is applied on iron sheets.
Answer:
To prevent rusting, a layer of zinc metal is applied on iron sheets.
The rusting of iron is an oxidation process. Due to corrosion of an iron a deposit of reddish substance (Fe₂O₃.H₂O) is formed on it. This substance is called rust. To prevent corrosion, a layer of zinc metal (galvanisation) is applied on iron sheets.

b. The conversion or ferrous sulphate to ferric sulphate is …….. reaction.
Answer:
The conversion of ferrous sulphate to ferric sulphate is an oxidation reaction.
When ferric ion is formed. from ferrous ion, the positive charge is increased by one unit. while this happens the rerrous ion loses one electron. A process in which a metal or its ion loses one or more electrons is called an oxidation.
2FeSO₄ → Fe₂(SO₄)₃
Fe₂ + SO₄^2- → 2Fe³⁺ + SO₄^2-

c. When electric current is passed through acidulated water …….. of water takes place.
Answer:
when electric current is passed through acidulated water decomposition of water takes place. In this reaction. hydrogen and oxygen gas are formed.

This decomposition takes place with the help of an electric current, it is also called electrolytic decomposition.

d. Addition of an aqueous solution of ZnSO₄ to an aqueous solution of BaCl₂ is an example of ……… reaction.
Answer:
Addition of an aqueous solution of ZnSO₄ to an aqueous solution or BaCl₂ is an example or double displacement reaction.

Barium chloride reacts with zinc sulphate to form a white precipitate of barium sulphate. white precipitate is formed by exchange of ions Ba⁺⁺ and SO₄^— between the reactants.

Question 2.
a. What is the reaction called when oxidation and reduction take place simultaneously? Explain with one example.
Answer:
The reaction which involves simultaneous oxidation and reduction is called an oxidation-reduction or redox reaction.
In a redox reaction, one reactant gets oxidised while the other gets reduced during a reaction.
Redox reaction = Reduction + Oxidation

In redox reaction, the reductant is oxidized by the oxidant and the oxidant is reduced by the
reductant.
Example:CuO_(s) + H_2(g) → Cu_(s) + H₂O
In this reaction, oxygen is removed from copper oxide therefore it is a reduction of CuO, while hydrogen accepts oxygen to form water that means oxidation of hydrogen takes place. Thus oxidation and reduction reactions occur simultaneously.

Other examples of redox reactions:

b. How can the rate of the chemical reaction, namely, decomposition of hydrogen peroxide be increased?
Answer:
At room temperature, the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen takes place slowly. However, the same reaction occurs at a faster rate on adding manganese dioxide (MnO₂),
powder in it.

c. Explain the term reactant product giving examples.
Answer:

1. The substance which undergoes bond breaking while taking part in a chemical reaction is called reactant.
2. The substance formed as a result of a chemical reaction by formation of new bonds is called product.
3. Example: In a chemical reaction, the formation of carbon dioxide gas takes place by combustion of coal in air. In this reaction, coal (carbon) and oxygen (from air) are the reactants while carbon dioxide is the product.

d. Explain the types of reactions with reference to oxygen and hydrogen. Illustrate with examples.
Answer:
With reference to oxygen and hydrogen, there are two types of reaction

1. Oxidation reaction
2. Reduction reaction.

1. Oxidation reaction:
Examples:
(1) When carbon burns in air, it forms carbon dioxide. In this reaction carbon accepts oxygen, therefore, this is an oxidation reaction.
C_(s) + O_2(g) → CO_2(g)

(2) When sodium reacts with ethyl alcohol, sodium ethoxide and hydrogen gas is formed. In this reaction, hydrogen is removed from ethyl alcohol, therefore this is an oxidation reaction.

(3) Acidified potassium dichromate (K₂Cr₂O₇ / H₂SO₄) oxidises ethly alcohol to acetic acid.

2. Reduction reaction:
Examples:
(1) When hydrogen gas is passed over black copper oxide a reddish coloured layer of copper is
formed.
In this reaction an oxygen atom removed from CuO to form copper, hence, this is reduction.

(2) when hydrogen gas is passed over red hot coke, methane is obtained.
Here, hydrogen is added to coke (carbon). Hence, this is reduction.

e. Explain the similarity and difference in two events, namely adding NaOH to water and adding CaO to water.
Answer:
Similarity : Both NaOH and CaO, when dissolved separately in water, solid NaOH dissolves releasing heat, resulting in rise in temperature. This reaction is exothermic reaction. When solid CaO dissolves in water, Ca(OH)₂ is formed, large amount of heat is evolved. This reaction is also exothermic reaction. Both reactions are combination reactions and single product is obtained.
NaOH_(s) + H₂O → NaOH_(aq) + Heat
CaO_(s) + H₂O → Ca(OH)_2(aq) + Heat
Difference:

1. Aqueous solution of NaOH is considered as a strong alkali.
2. Aqueous solution of Ca(OH)₂ is considered as a weak alkali.

Question 3.
Explain the following terms with examples.
a. Endothermic reaction
Answer:
Endothermic reaction: The reaction in which heat is absorbed is called an endothermic
reaction.
when KNO_3(s) dissolves in water, there is absorption of heat during the reaction and the temperature of the solution falls.
KNO_2(s) + H₂O_(l) + Heat → KNO_3(aq)

b. Combination reaction
Answer:
When two or more reactants combine in a reaction to form a single product, it is called a combination reaction.
Examples:
1. The ammonia gas reacts with hydrogen chloride gas to form the salt in gaseous state, immediately it condenses at room temperature and gets transformed into the solid state.

2. Magnesium burns in air to form white powder of magnesium oxide as a single product.

3. Iron reacts with sulphur to form iron sulphide.

c. Balanced equation
Answer:
In a chemical reaction, the number of atoms of the elements in the reactants is same as the number or atoms of those elements in the product, such an equation is called a balanced equation.
Example: AgNO₃ + NaCl → AgCl + NaNO₃
In the above reaction, the number of atoms of the elements in the reactants is same as the number of atoms of elements in the products.

d. Displacement reaction
Answer:
The reaction in which the place of the ion of a less reactive element in a compound is taken by another more reactive element by the formation of its own ions is called displacement reaction.

When zinc granules are added to the blue coloured copper sulphate solution, the zinc ions formed from zinc atoms take the place of Cu²⁺ ions in CuSO₄, and copper atoms, formed from Cu²⁺ ions comes out i.e. the more reactive zinc displaces the less reactive Cu from copper sulphate.

4. Give scientific reason:
a. When the gas formed on heating lime stone is passed through freshly prepared lime water, the lime water turns milky.
Answer:
when lime stone is heated, calcium oxide and carbon dioxide are formed. This carbon dioxide gas is passed through freshly prepared lime water, insoluble calcium carbonate and water are formed. In this reaction, lime water turns milky.

b. It takes time for pieces of Shahabud tile to disappear in HCl, but its powder disappears rapidly.
Answer:
The rate of a reaction depends upon the size of the particles of the reactants taking part in the reaction. The smaller the size of the reactants particles, the more is their total surface area and the faster is the rate of reaction.

In the reaction of dil. HCl with pieces of Shahabad tile, CO₂ effervescence is formed amid the tile disappears slowly. On the other hand. CO₂ effervescence forms at faster rate with Shahabad tile powder and it disappears rapidly.

c. While preparing dilute sulphuric acid from concentrated sulphuric acid in the laboratory, the concentrated sulphuric acid is added slowly to water with constant stirring.
Answer:
(1) The preparation of dilute sulphuric acid falls in the category of extreme exothermic process.

(2) During the preparation of dilute sulphuric acid. large amount of water is taken in a glass container which is surrounded by ice. Cool it for twenty minutes, Now small quantity of conc. H₂SO₄ is added slowly with stirring. Therefore, only a small amount of heat is liberated at a time. In this way dilute sulphuric acid is prepared.

(3) On the other hand, in the process of dilution or conc. sulphuric acid with water, very large amount of heat is liberated. As a result, water gets evaported instantaneously, if it is poured in to conc. H₂SO₄ which may cause an accident.

d. It is recommended to use air tight container for storing oil for long time.
Answer:

1. If edible oil is allowed to stand for a long time, it undergoes air oxidation, it becomes rancid and its smell and taste changes.
2. Rancidity in the rood stuff cooked in oil or ghee is prevented by using antioxidants. The process of oxidation reaction of food stuff can also be slowed down by storing it in air tight container.

Question 5.
Observe the following picture a write down the chemical reaction with explanation.

Answer:
The rusting of iron is an oxidation process. The rust on iron does not form by a simple reaction between oxygen and iron surface. The rust is formed by an electrochemical reaction. Fe oxidises to Fe₂O₃. H₂O on one part of iron surface while oxygen gets reduced to H₂O on another part or surface, Different regions on the surface of iron become anode and cathode.
(1) Fe is oxidised to Fe²⁺ in the anode region.
Fe_(s) → Fe²⁺ _(aq) + 2e^–
(2) O₂ is reduced to form water in the cathode region.
O_2(g) + 4H⁺ _(aq) + 4e— → 2H₂O_(l)

When Fe²⁺ ions migrate from the anode region they react with water and futher get oxidised to form Fe³⁺ ions.
A reddish coloured hydrated oxide is formed from Fe³⁺ ions. It is called rust. It collects on the
surface.
2Fe³⁺ _(aq) + 4H₂O_(l) → Fe₂O₃. H₂O_(s) + 6H⁺ _(aq)…
Because of various components in the atmosphere, oxidation of metals takes place, consequently resulting in their damage. This is called ‘corrosion’. Iron rusts and a reddish coloured layer is formed on it. This is corrosion of iron.

Question 6.
Identify from the following reactions the reactants that undergo oxidation and reduction.
a. Fe + S → FeS
Answer:
Fe + S → FeS
In this reaction, Iron (Fe) undergoes oxidation
and sulphur. (S) undergoes reduction.

b. 2Ag₂O → 4Ag + O₂↑
Answer:
2Ag₂O → 4Ag + O₂↑
In this reaction, reduction of Ag₂O takes place.

c. 2Mg + O₂ → 2MgO
Answer:
2Mg + O₂ → 2MgO
In this reaction, oxidation of Mg takes place.

d. NiO + H₂ → Ni + H₂O
Answer:
NiO + H₂ → Ni + H₂O
In this reaction, reduction of NiO takes place and oxidation of H₂ takes place.

Question 7.
Balance the following equation stepwise.
a. H₂S₂O_7(l) + H₂O_(l) → H₂SO_4(l)
Answer:
Step 1: Rewrite the given equation as it is
H₂S₂O7_(l) + H₂O_(l) → H₂SO_4(l)
Step 2: write the number or atoms of each element in the unbalanced equation on both sides of equations.

Element	Number of atoms in reactant (left side)	Number of atoms in products (right side)
H	4	2
S	2	1
O	8	4

Step 3: To equalise the number of hydrogen atoms, sulphur atoms and oxygen atoms we use 2 as the coemficient or factor in the product.

Element	Number of atoms in reactant (left side)	Number of atoms in products (right side)
H	4	2 × 2
S	2	1 × 2
O	8	4 × 2
Total	14	14

Now the equation becomes H₂S₂O₇ + H₂O → 2H₂SO₄
Now, count the atoms of each element on both sides of the equation. The number of atoms on both sides are equal. Hence, the balanced equation is
H₂S₂O₇ + H₂O → 2H₂SO₄
Now indicate the physical states of the reactants and products.
H₂S₂O_7(l) + H₂O_(l) → 2H₂SO_4(l)

b. SO_2(g) + H₂S_(aq) → S_(s) + H₂O_(l)
Answer:
Step 1:
Rewrite the given equation as it is
SO_2(g) + H₂S_(aq) → S_(s) + H₂O_(l)

Step 2:
Write the number of atoms of each element in the unbalanced equation on both sides of equations.

Element	Number of atoms in reactants (left side)	Number of atoms in products (right side)
S	2	1
O	2	1
H	2	2

The number of hydrogen atoms on both sides of the equation is same, therefore, equalise the number of sulphur atoms and oxygen atoms.

Step 3: To balance the number of sulphur atoms:

Number of atoms of sulphur	In reactants		In products
	S2O	H2S	(S)
Initially	1	1	1
To balance	1	1	1 × 2

To equalise the number of sulphur atoms, we use 2 as the factor in the product, now the equation becomes
SO₂ + H₂S → 2S + H₂O

Step 4:
To equalise the number of oxygen atoms in the unbalanced equation.

Number of atoms of oxygen	In reactants (SO2)	In products H2O
Initially	2	1
To balance	2	1 × 2

To equalise the number of sulphur atoms, we use 2 as the factor in the product i.e. H₂O, now the unbalanced equation becomes
SO₂ + H₂S → 2S + 2H₂O

Step 5:
To equalise the number of hydrogen atoms in unbalanced equation:

Number of atoms of hydrogen	In reactants (H2S)	In products (H2O)
Initially	2	4
To balance	2 × 2	4

To equalise the number of hydrogen atoms we use 2 as the factor in the reactant i.e, H₂S, now the unbalanced equation become
SO₂ + 2H₂S → 2S + 2H₂O
Now, count the atoms of each element on both sides of the equation, there are less number of sulphur atoms in the product. Now equalise the sulphur atoms, the balanced equation becomes,
SO₂ + 2H₂S → 3S + 2H₂O
Now indicate the physical states of reactants and products.
SO_2(g) + 2H₂S_(aq) → 3S_(s) + 2H₂O_(l)

c. Ag_(s) + HCl_(l) → AgCl ↓ + H₂ ↑
Answer:
Step 1:
Rewrite the given equation as it is
Ag_(s) + HCl_(l) → AgCl ↓ + H₂ ↑

Step 2:
write the number of atoms or each element in the unbalanced equation on both sides of equations.

Element	Number of atoms in reactants (left side)	Number of atoms in products (right side)
Ag	1	1
H	1	2
Cl	1	1

The number of silver and chlorine atoms on both sides of the equation are same, therefore, equalise the number of hydrogen atoms.

Step 3:
To balance the number of hydrogen atoms.

Number of atoms of hydrogen	In reactants HCl	In products H2
Initially	1	2
To balance	1 × 2	2

To equalise the number of hydrogen atoms, we use 2 as the factor in the product HCl, now the unbalanced equation become
Ag_(s) + 2HCl → AgCl + H₂

Step 4:
To balance the number of chlorine atoms:

Number of atoms of chlorine	In reactants (2HCl)	In products (AgCl)
Initially	2	1
To balance	2	2 ×1

To equalise the number of chlorine atoms, we use 2 as the factor in the product AgCl. now the unbalanced equation becomes
Ag + 2HCl → 2AgCl + H₂
Now count the atoms of each element on both sides of the equation, there are less number of silver atoms in the reactant. Now equalise the silver atoms, the balanced equation becomes
2Ag + 2HCl → 2AgCl + H₂
Now indicate the physical states of the reactunts and products
2Ag_(s) + 2HCl_(l) → 2AgCl ↓ + H₂ ↑

d. H₂SO_4(aq) + NaOH_(aq) → Na₂SO_4(aq) + H₂O_(l)
Answer:
Step 1:
Rewrite the given equation as it is
H₂SO_4(aq) + NaOH_(aq) → Na₂SO_4(aq) + H₂O_(l)

Step 2:
write the number of atoms of each element in the unbalanced equation on both sides of the equation.

Element	Number of atoms in reactants	Number of atoms in products
Na	1	2
S	1	1
O	5	5
H	3	2

The number of oxygen atoms involved in different compounds on both sides (reactants and products) are equal. Therefore, balance the number of atoms of the second element, sodium.

Step 3:
To balance the number of sodium atoms:

Number of atoms of sodium	In reactants	In products
To begin with	1 (in NaOH)	2 (in Na2SO4)
To balance	1 × 2	2

To equalise the number of sodium atoms, we use 2 as the factor of NaOH in the reactants. Now, the partly balanced equation becomes as follows
H₂SO₄ + 2NaOH → Na₂SO₄ + H₂O

Step 4:
Now, balance the number of hydrogen atoms:

Number of atoms of hydrogen	In reactants	In products
To begin with	(in H2SO4) 2 (in NaOH)	2 (in H2O)
To balance	4	2 × 2

To equalise the number of hydrogen atoms, we use 2 as the factor or H₂O in the products. The equation then becomes
H₂SO₄ + 2NaOH → Na₂SO₄ + H₂O
Now, count the atoms of each element on both sides of the equation. The number of atoms on both sides are equal. Hence, the balanced equation is
H₂SO₄ + 2NaOH → Na₂SO₄ + 2H₂O
Now indicate the physical states of the reactants and the products.
H₂SO_4(aq) + 2NaOH_(aq) → Na₂SO_4(aq) + 2H₂O_(l)

Question 8.
Identify the endothermic and exothermic reaction.
a. HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H₂O + heat
Answer:
Exothermic reaction.

b. \(2 \mathrm{KClO}_{3}(\mathrm{s}) \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} 2 \mathrm{KCl}(\mathrm{s})+3 \mathrm{O}_{2} \uparrow\)
Answer:
Exothermic reaction.

c. CaO + H₂O → Ca(OH)₂ + heat
Answer:
Exothermic reaction.

d. \(\mathrm{CaCO}_{3}(\mathrm{s}) \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{CaO}(\mathrm{s})+\mathrm{CO}_{2} \uparrow\)
Answer:
Exothermic reaction.

Question 9.
Match the column in the following table:

Reactants	products	Type of chemical reaction
BaCl2(aq) + ZnSO4(aq)	H2CO3(aq)	Displacement
2 AgCl(s)	FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s)	Combination
CuSO4(aq) + Fe(s)	BaSO4↓ + ZnCl2(aq)	Decomposition
H2O(l) + CO2(g)	2Ag(s) + Cl2(g)	Double displacement

Answer:

Reactants	products	Type of chemical reaction
BaCl2(aq) + ZnSO4(aq)	BaSO4↓ + ZnCl2(aq)	Double displacement
2 AgCl(s)	2Ag(s) + Cl2(g)	Decomposition
CuSO4(aq) + Fe(s)	FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s)	Displacement
H2O(l) + CO2(g)	H2CO3(aq)	Combination

Project:
Do it your self:
1. Prepare aqueous solutions or various solid salts available in the laboratory. Observe what happens when aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide is added to these. Prepare a chart of double displacement reactions based on these observation.

2. Observe and note the physical and chemical changes experienced in various incidents in your day to day 1ife.

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No.16)

Question 1.
what are the types of molecules of elements and compounds?
Answer:
Elements are divided into three classes i.e. metals, nonmetals and metalloids. When two or more elements combine chemically in a fixed proportion by weight, a compound is formed. The properties of a compound are altogether different from those of the constitutional elements.

Question 2.
what is meant by valency of element?
Answer:
The number of electrons that an atom of an element gives away or takes up while forming an ionic bond, is called the valency or that element.

Question 3.
What is the requirement for writing molecular formulae of different compounds?
How are the molecular formulae of the compounds written?
Answer:
while writing the molecular formulae of different compounds, the symbol of the radicals and their valence should be known.
The number of the ions is written as subscript on the right of the symbol or the ion. By cross multiplication of valenceies chemical formula is obtained.

Find out (Text Book Page No. 44)
Question1.
How are the blackened silver utensils and patinated (greenish) brass utensils cleaned?
Answer:
The blackened silver utensils and patinated (greenish) brass utensils are cleaned using baking soda, vinegar and lemon mix.

Use your brain power! (Text Book Page No. 35)

Question 1.
write down the physical states of reactants and products in the reaction
SO₂ + 2H₂S → 3S + 2H₂O
Answer:
Reactants : SO_2(g), 2H₂S_(g)
Products : 3S_(s), 2H₂O_(l).

Question 2.
write down the physical states of reactants and products in the reaction
2Ag + 2HCl → 2AgCl + H₂
Answer:
Reactants: 2Ag_(s), 2HCl_(l)
Products: 2AgCl ↓, H₂ ↑

Question 3.
Identify the reactants and products of the following equation.

Answer:
Reactants: vegetable oil, H₂(g)
Product: Vanaspathi ghee

Use your brain power! (Text Book Page No. 42)

Question 1.
Which is the oxidant used for purification of drinking water?
Answer:
The chlorine based oxidants are used in the purification of drinking water.

Question 2.
Why is potassium permanganate used during cleaning water tanks?
Answer:
Potassium permanganate is an oxidising agent. It oxidises dissolved iron, manganese and hydrogen sulphide into solid particles that are filtered out of the water tank. It is used to control iron bacteria growth in tank.

Can you tell? (Text Book Page No. 43)

Question 1.
what is the type of this reaction, in which Vanaspathi ghee is formed from vegetable oil?
Answer:

In the preparation of vanaspathi ghee from vegetable oil hydrogen gas is used. This process is known as hydrogenation. This is reduction reaction.

Find out (Text Book page No. 33)

What are the other uses of silver nitrate in every day life?
Answer:
Silver nitrate is used in the voters-ink. It is used as reactant in the laboratory. Silver nitrate is used to prevent infection in wounds and skin burns.

Use your brain power! (Text Book Page No. 35)

Question 1.
N_2(g) + H_2(g) ⇌ NH_3(g)
Answer:
Step 1:
Rewrite the given equation as it is
N_2(g) + H_2(g) ⇌ NH_3(g)

Step 2:
Write the number of atoms of each element in the unbalanced equation on both sides of equations

Element	Number of atoms in reactants	Number of atoms in products
N	2	1
H	2	3

Step 3:
In the given equation. NH₃ is a compound and it contains hydrogen element. On the left hand side there are two H atoms and on the right side 3H atoms. Equalise H atoms on both sides.

Hydrogen atoms	In reactants	In products
Initially	2	3
To balance	3 × 2	2 × 3

To equalise the number of hydrogen atoms, we use 3 as the factor in the reactant and 2 as the factor in the products. Now the equation becomes
N₂ + 3H₂ → 2NH₃
Now, count the atoms of each element on both sides of the equation. The number of atoms on both sides are equal. Hence, the balanced equation is
N₂ + 3H₂ → 2NH₃
Now indicate the physical states of the reactants and products
N_2(g) + 3H_2(g) ⇌ 2NH_3(g)

Question 2.
Calcium chloride + Sulphuric acid → Calcium sulphate + Hydrogen chloride.
Answer:
Step 1:
Write the chemical equation from the given word equation.
CaCl₂ + H₂SO₄ → CaSO₄ + HCl

Step 2:
Write the number of atoms of each element in the unbalanced on both sides of equation.

Element	Number of atoms in reactants	Number of atoms in products
Ca	1	1
Cl	2	1
H	2	1
S	1	1
O	4	4

Step 3:
In the given equation H₂SO₄ is a compound and it contains hygrogen element. On the left hand side there are two hydrogen atoms and on the right side one hydrogen atom. Equalise H atoms on both sides.

Hydrogen atoms	In reactants (H2SO4)	In products (HCl)
Initially	2	1
To balance	2	2  × 1

To equalise the number of hydrogen atoms we use 2 as the factor in the product so that the number of H atoms on both sides are equal. Therefore, the equation becomes
CaCl₂ + H₂SO₄ → CaSO₄ + 2 HCl
Now, count the atoms of each element on both sides of the equation. The number of atoms on both sides are equal hence, the balanced equation is
CaCl₂ + H₂SO₄ → CaSO₄ + 2 HCl
Now, indicate the physical state of the reactants and products.
CaCl_2(s) + H₂SO_4(l) → CaSO_4(s) + HCl_(l)

Can you tell? (Text Book Page No. 39)

Take into account the time required for following processes. Classify them into two groups and give titles to the groups.
(1) Cooking gas starts burning on ignition.
(2) Iron article undergoes rusting.
(3) Erosion of rocks takes place to form soil.
(4) Alcohol is formed on mixing yeast in glucose solution under proper condition.
(5) Effervescence is formed on adding baking soda into a test tube containing dilute acid.
(6) A white precipitate is formed on adding dilute sulphuric acid to barium chloride solution.
Answer:
The above processes are classified into two groups (a) slow speed reactions (b) fast speed reactions.
Slow speed reactions: (2), (3) and (4).
Fast speed reactions: (1),(5) and (6).

Use your brain power! (Text Book Page No. 43)

Question 1.
Some more examples of redox reaction are as follows. Identify the reductants and oxidants from them.
(1) 2H₂S + SO₂ → 3S↓ + 2H₂O
(2) MnO₂ + 4HCl → MnCl₂ + 2H₂O + Cl₂↑
Answer:
Oxidants: SO₂, MnO₂
Reductants: H₂S, HCl

Question 2.
If oxidation means losing electrons, what is meant by reduction.
Answer:
Reduction means gaining one or more electrons.

Question 3.
Write the reaction of formation of Fe²⁺ by reduction Fe³⁺ by making use of the symbol (e^–).
Answer:
Fe³⁺ + e^– → Fe²⁺ (reduction)

Think about it (Text Book Page No. 43)

Question 1.
The luster of the surface of the aluminium utensils in the house is lost after a few days. Why does this happen?
Answer:
The aluminium utensils when kept in the house for a few days, oxidation of aluminium takes place, a thin laver aluminium oxide (Al₂O₃) is deposited on the surface. Hence, aluminium utensils lose their lustre in a few days.

Question 3.
How many products are formed in each of the above reactions?
Answer:
A single product is formed in each of the above reaction.

Use your brain power! (Text Book Page No. 39)

Question 1.
What is the difference in the process of dissolution and a chemical reaction.
Answer:
In the process of dissolution, new substance is not necessarily formed. Whereas in a chemical reaction a new substance is definitely formed.

Question 2.
Does a new substance form when a solute dissolves in a solvent?
Answer:
It is not necessary that a new substance is always formed.

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Organic waste is decomposed by micro-organism and as a result manure and……..are formed.
Answer:
Organic waste is decomposed by micro-organism and as a result manure and bio gas are formed.

Question 2.
……….is formed on mixing yeast in glucose solution under proper condition.
Answer:
Alcohol is formed on mixing yeast in glucose solution under proper condition.

Question 3.
The chemical reaction during which H_2(g) is lost is termed as………
Answer:
The chemical reaction during which H_2(g) s lost is termed as oxidation.

Question 4.
Corrosion can be prevented by using………
Answer:
Corrosion can be prevented by using antirust solution.

Question 5.
The chemical reactions in which heat is liberated are called………..reactions.
Answer:
The chemical reactions in which heat is liberated are called exothermic reactions.

Question 6.
The chemical formula of rust is………
Answer:
The chemical formula of rust is Fe₂O₃.H₂O.

Question 7.
A reaction in which heat is absorbed is called………reaction.
Answer:
A reaction in which heat is absorbed is called endothermic reaction.

Question 8.
The process of rusting or iron is………process.
Answer:
The process of rusting of iron is oxidation process.

Question 9.
when oil and fats are oxidised or even allowed to stand in air for a long time, they become ……….
Answer:
when oil and fats are oxidised or even allowed to stand in air for a long time, they become rancid.

Question 10.
……… are used to prevent oxidation of food.
Answer:
Antioxidants are used to prevent oxidation of food.

Question 11.
Carbon dioxide is passed through water. The reaction is a………reaction.
Answer:
Carbon dioxide is passed through water. The reaction is a combination reaction.

Question 12.
Calcium carbonate is heated. The reaction is a………..reaction.
Answer:
Calcium carbonate is heated. The reaction is a decomposition reaction.

Question 13.
Zinc strip is dipped in a CuSO₄ solution. The reaction is a……….reaction.
Answer:
Zinc strip is dipped in a CuSO₄ solution. The reaction is a displacement reaction.

Question 14.
Silver nitrate solution is added to NaCl solution. The reaction is a……….reaction.
Answer:
Silver nitrate solution is added to NaCl solution. The reaction is a double displacement reaction.

Question 15.
The slow process of decay or destruction of a metal due to effect of air, moisture and acids on it is known as……….
Answer:
The slow process of decay or destruction of a metal due to effect of air, moisture and acids on it is known as corrosion.

Rewrite the following statements by selecting the correct options:

Question 1.
The reaction of iron nail with copper sulphate solution is………reaction. (March 2019)
(a) double displacement
(b) displacement
(c) combination
(d) decomposition
Answer:
(b) displacement

Question 2.
Reddish brown deposit formed on iron nails kept in a solution of copper sulphate is
(a) Cu₂O
(b) Cu
(c) CuO
(d) CuS
Answer:
(b) Cu

Question 3.
The reaction CuSO_4(aq) + Zn_(s) → ZnSO_4(aq) + Cu_(s) is a……..reaction.
(a) displacement
(b) double displacement
(c) decomposition
(d) combination
Answer:
(a) displacement

Question 4.
………is a combination reaction.
(a) Cu + H₂SO₄ → CuSO₄ + H₂
(b) H₂ + Cl₂ → 2HCl
(c) \(2 \mathrm{HgO} \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} 2 \mathrm{Hg}+\mathrm{O}_{2}\)
(d) \(\mathrm{CaCO}_{3} \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{CaO}+\mathrm{CO}_{2}\)
Answer:
(b) H₂ + Cl₂ → 2HCl

Question 5.
………..a decomposition reaction.
(a) \(\mathrm{CaCO}_{3} \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{CaO}+\mathrm{CO}_{2}\)
(b) H₂O + CO₂ → H₂CO₃
(c) CaS + 2HCl → CaCl₂ + H₂S
(d) 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O
Answer:
(a) \(\mathrm{CaCO}_{3} \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{CaO}+\mathrm{CO}_{2}\)

Question 6.
In a chemical equation the……….are written on the left hand side.
(a) products
(b) reactants
(c) catalysts
(d) elements
Answer:
(b) reactants

Question 7.
The Δ sign written above the arrow indicates………..of the reaction.
(a) reactant
(b) product
(c) heat
(d) direction of the reaction
Answer:
(c) heat

Question 8.
The reaction KNO_3(S) + H₂O_(l) + Heat → KNO_3(aq) is a/an……….reaction.
(a) exothermic
(b) endothermic
(c) oxidation
(d) reduction
Answer:
(b) endothermic

Question 9.
The reaction NaOH_(S) + H₂O_(l) → NaOH_(aq) is a/an……..reaction.
(a) exothermic
(b) endothermic
(c) oxidation
(d) reduction
Answer:
(a) exothermic

Question 10.
A solution of Al₂(SO₄)₃ in water is……….
(a) blue
(b) pink
(c) green
(d) colourless
Answer:
(d) colourless

Question 11.
Carbon dioxide………..
(a) turns lime water milky
(b) is odourless
(c) is colourless
(d) All the three (a), (b) and (c) are correct
Answer:
(d) All the three (a), (b) and (c) are correct

Question 12.
……….is the correct set up to pass CO₂ through lime water.

Answer:
Correct set up D.

Question 13.
when……..is passed through fresh lime water, it turns milky.
(a) H₂
(b) CO
(c) CO₂
(d) SO₂
Answer:
(c) CO₂

Question 14.
Magnesium reacts with con. HCl to form………..salt.
(a) copper chloride
(b) ferrous chloride
(c) calcium chloride
(d) magnesium chloride
Answer:
(d) magnesium chloride

Question 15.
Zinc reacts with hydrochloric acid. The reaction is a reaction.
(a) combination
(b) decomposition
(c) displacement
(d) double decomposition
Answer:
(c) displacement

Question 16.
In a double displacement reaction,………… (Practice Activity Sheet – 1)
(a) ions remain at rest
(b) ions get liberated
(c) ions are exchanged
(d) ions are not created
Answer:
(c) ions are exchanged

State whether the following statements are True or False:

Question 1.
Rusting of iron is a fast reaction.
Answer:
False. (Rusting of iron is a slow reaction.)

Question 2.
Milk is set into curd is a chemical change.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
The reaction between salt and water is an example of exothermic reaction.
Answer:
False. (The reaction between salt and water is an example of endothermic reaction.)

Question 4.
The speed of a chemical reaction depends on the catalyst used in the chemical reaction.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
The simple form of representation of a chemical reaction in words is known as word reaction.
Answer:
True.

Question 6.
Nascent oxygen is always denoted by showing the symbol of oxygen.
Answer:
False. (Nascent oxygen is always denoted by showing symbol of oxygen [0] in square brackets.)

Question 7.
Antioxidants are used to prevent oxidation or food containing fats and oils.
Answer:
True.

Question 8.
When oils and fats are allowed to stand for a long time, they become rancid.
Answer:
True.

Question 9.
The chemical formula of rust is Fe₃O₄ .xH₂O.
Answer:
False. (The chemical formula or rust is Fe₂O₃ .xH₂O.)

Question 10.
Glucose combines with oxygen in our body and provides energy. The reaction is an endothermic reaction.
Answer:
False. (Glucose combines with oxygen in our body and provides energy. The reaction is an exothermic reaction.)

Question 11.
Chemical reactions in which reactants gain oxygen are reduction reactions.
Answer:
False. (Chemical reactions in which reactants gain oxygen are oxidation reactions.)

Question 12.
CuSO_4(aq) + Znl_(s) → ZnlSO_4(aq) + Cu_(s) is an example of decomposition reaction.
Answer:
False. (It is an example of displacement reaction.)

Question 13.
The chemical reactions in which heat is liberated are called endothermic reactions.
Answer:
False. (The chemical reactions in which heat is liberated are called exothermic reactions.)

Question 14.
The product or insoluble solid in chemical reaction is indicated by an arrow pointing upwards.
Answer:
False. (The product or insoluble solid in chemical reaction is indicated by an arrow ↑ pointing downwards.)

Question 15.
The rate of a reaction increases on increasing the temperature.
Answer:
True.

Question 16.
The digestion of food is a chemical decomposition process.
Answer:
True.

Question 17.
The reaction between sodium hydroxide and hydrochloric acid is a slow reaction.
Answer:
False (The reaction between sodium hydroxide and hydrochloric acid is a fast reaction.)

Question 18.
When calcium carbonate is heated, it decomposes into calcium oxide and oxygen gas.
Answer:
False (when calcium carbonate is heated. it decomposes into calcium oxide and carbon dioxide gas.

Question 19.
The rate of a chemical reaction changes in presence of catalyst.
Answer:
True.

Question 20.
Chlorines is an oxidant.
Answer:
True.

Taking into consideration the relationship in the first pair, complete the second pair. (OR) Complete the following:

Question 1.
2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O Combination reaction :: 2HgO → 2Hg + O₂ :……….
Answer:
Decomposition reaction

Question 2.
NH₃ + HCl → NH₄Cl : Combination reaction :: Fe + CuSO₄ → FeSO₄ + Cu :……..
Answer:
Displacement reaction

Question 3.
2C₂H₅OH + 2Na → 2C₂H₅ONa + H₂ : Oxidation :: CuO + H₂ → Cu + H₂O :……….
Answer:
Reduction

Question 4.
CuCl₂ + 2KI → CuI₂ + 2KCl : Double displacement :: Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂ :……….
Answer:
Displacement reaction

Question 5.

Answer:
Combination reaction

Question 6.
CuI₂ : Brown :: AgCl :……….
Answer:
White.

Match the column in the following table:

Question 1.

Reactants	products	Type of chemical reaction
Fe + S	NaCl + H2O	Oxidation
CuSO4 + Zn	2CuO	Neutralization
2Cu + O2	ZnSO4 + Cu	Displacement
HCl + NaOH	FeS	Combination

Answer:

Reactants	products	Type of chemical reaction
Fe + S	FeS	Combination
CuSO4 + Zn	ZnSO4 + Cu	Displacement
2Cu + O2	2CuO	Oxidation
HCl + NaOH	NaCl + H2O	Neutralization

Rewrite the second column so as to match the item from first column or Match the following:

Question 1.

Column I	Column II
1. Reduction	(a) Type of a chemical reaction
2. Oxidation	(b) Combination with hydrogen
3. Double displacement	(c) Losing hydrogen
4. Displacement	(d) Exchange of ions

Answer:
(1) Reduction – Combination with hydrogen
(2) Oxidation – Losing hydrogen
(3) Double displacement – Exchange of ions
(4) Displacement – Type of chemical reaction.

Question 2.

Column I	Column II
1. Oils and fats are allowed to stand in air for a long time	(a) Slow  reaction
2. NaOH dissolves in water	(b) Rancid
3. Zinc is added to CuSO4 solution	(c) Exothermic reaction
4. Rusting of water	(d) Colourless Solution

Answer:
(1) Oils and fats are allowed to stand in air for a long time – Rancid
(2) NaOH dissolves in water – Exothermic reaction
(3) Zinc is added to CuSO₂ solution – Colourless solution
(4) Rusting of iron – Slow reaction.

Question 3.

Answer:
(1) Combination reaction – 2Cu +O₄ → 2CuO
(2) Double displacement reaction – AgNO₃ + NaCl → AgCl ↓ + NaNO₃
(3) Decomposition reaction – \(\mathrm{C}_{12} \mathrm{H}_{22} \mathrm{O}_{11(\mathrm{s})} \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} 12 \mathrm{C}_{(\mathrm{s})}+11 \mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}_{(\mathrm{g})}\)
(4) Displacement reaction – Zn+ 2HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂ ↑

Classify each of the following reactions as combination, decomposition, displacement or double displacement reactions:

Answer:
Combination reaction

Answer:
Decomposition reaction

Answer:
Displacement reaction

Answer:
double displacement reaction

Answer:
Combination reaction

Answer:
double displacement reaction

Name the following:

Question 1.
The product formed in the thermal decomposition of sugar.
Answer:
Carbon is formed in the thermal decomposition of sugar.

Question 2.
The gas evolved when sorghum metal reacts with ethanol.
Answer:
Hydrogen (H₂) gas is evolved when sodium metal reacts with ethanol.

Question 3.
The precipitate formed when barium sulphide reacts with zinc sulphate.
Answer:
When barium sulphide reacts with zinc sulphide, a precipitate of barium sulphate is formed.
\(\mathrm{BaS}+\mathrm{ZnSO}_{4} \longrightarrow \underset{\text { precipitate }}{\mathrm{BaSO}_{4}}+\mathrm{ZnS}\)

Question 4.
The reducing agent used for the reduction of copper oxide.
Answer:
Hydrogen is used for the reduction of copper oxide.

Question 5.
The catalyst used to accelerate the rate of decomposition of hydrogen peroxide.
Answer:
Manganese dioxide (MnO₂) is used as a catalyst to accelerate the rate of decomposition of hydrogen peroxide.

Question 6.
which oxidising agent is used to oxidise ferrous sulphate.
Answer:
Potassium permanganate (KMnO₄) is used as an oxidising agent to oxidise ferrous sulphate.

Question 7.
The product formed in the oxidation of ethyl alcohol.
Answer:
Acetic acid is formed in the oxidation of ethyl alcohol.

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question 1.
what is meant by a chemical equation?
Answer:
The simple representation or a chemical reaction in a condensed form with the help of chemical formulae is called a chemical equation.

Question 2.
what is meant by a word equation?
Answer:
The simple form or representation or a chemical reaction in words is known as word equation.

Question 3.
what happens in a combination reaction?
Answer:
A single compound (product) is formed from two or more substances during a combination reaction.

Question 4.
what happens in a displacement reaction?
Answer:
In a displacement reaction. a more reactive element displaces another element, having less reactivity, from its compound.

Question 5.
what happens in a decomposition reaction?
Answer:
A single substance is broken down and two or more substances are formed during a decomposition reaction.

Question 6.
what happens in a double displacement reaction?
Answer:
A precipitate is formed by exchange of ions between the reactants during a double displacement reaction.

Question 7.
IdentIry the type of following reaction:
\(\mathrm{C}_{12} \mathrm{H}_{22} \mathrm{O}_{11} \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} 12 \mathrm{C}+11 \mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}\) (Practice Activity Sheet – 2)
Answer:
The above reaction is a decomposition reaction.

Question 8.
what happens in an endothermic reaction?
Answer:
In an endothermic reaction, the reactants absorb heat to form products.

Question 9.
State the use of antioxidants in food containing fats and oils.
Answer:
Antioxidants are used to prevent oxidation of food containing fats and oils.

Question 10.
What are edible oils?
Answer:
Edible oils are compounds of alcohols and organic acids (carboxylic acids). The compounds formed are known as esters of carboxylic acids.

Question 11.
Is rancidity a phenomenon of oxidation or reduction?
Answer:
Rancidity is a phenomenon of oxidation.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What do you understand by a physical change?
OR
Define physical change.
Answer:
The change in which only the physical state of a substance is changed; no new substance is formed. This change is temporary. During this change the composition of the substance does not change.

Question 2.
Explain giving two examples or physical change.
Answer:
(1) Conversion of ice into water is a physical change. On heating, ice melts into water. when the water is cooled, it freezes into ice. Thus, we get ice from water by a simple method and no new substance is formed. Hence, conversion of ice into water is a physical change.

(2) Magnetization of iron nail is a physical change. An iron nail magnetized by induction loses its magnetism as soon as it is detached from the magnet which induces magnetism in it. An iron nail magnetized by some other methods can also be demagnetized by simple means such as hammering or heating it. Thus, the magnetization of an iron nail can be easily reversed to get original nail. Hence, it is a physical change.

Question 3.
what do you understand by a chemical change?
OR
Define Chemical change.
Answer:
The change in which a substance or substances are converted into a new substance or substances, possessing properties altogether different from the original ones, is called a chemcial change. During this change, the original substance cannot be recovered by any simple means. This change is permanent.

Question 4.
Explain giving two examples of chemical change.
Answer:
(1) When carbon is burnt, carbon dioxide is formed. In this process carbon combines with oxygen, therefore carbon and oxygen are reactants, while curbon dioxide is a product. This change is permanent.
\(\mathrm{C}_{(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{O}_{2(\mathrm{g})} \stackrel{\text { Heat }}{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{CO}_{2(\mathrm{g})}\)

(2) When a magnesium wire is burnt in air, a white powder of magnesium oxide is formed. We cannot obtain magnesium from magnesium oxide by simple methods. Properties of magnesium oxide are altogether different from those of magnesium. A new substance MgO is formed in the reaction. Hence, this change is a chemical change.
\(\begin{array}{c}
2 \mathrm{Mg} \\
\text { Magnesium }
\end{array}+\mathrm{O}_{2} \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} \begin{array}{c}
2 \mathrm{MgO} \\
\text { Magnesium oxide }
\end{array}\)

Question 5.
What is meant by a chemical reaction?
Answer:
A process in which some substances undergo bond breaking and are transformed into new substances by formation of new bonds is called a chemical reaction.

Question 6.
What is the importance of a chemical equation?
Answer:

1. Reactants are converted into products.
2. Mass is conserved.
3. Atoms are conserved.
4. The properties and compositions of the products of a chemical reaction are different from those of its reactants.
5. Generally, energy is either absorbed or evolved.

Question 7.
What are the conventions used in writing a chemical equation?
Answer:
Conventions used in writing a chemical equation:
(1) The reactants are written on the left hand side (LHS), while the products are written on the right hand side (RHS).

(2) Whenever there are two or more reactants, a plus sign (+) is written between each two of them. Similarly, if there are two or more products, a plus sign is written between each two of them.

(3) Reactant side and product side are connected with an arrow (→) pointing from reactants to products. The arrow represents the direction of the reaction. Heat is to be given from outside to the reaction, it is indicated by the sign Δ written above the arrow.

(4) The conditions like temperature, pressure, catalyst, etc., are mentioned above the arrow (→) pointing towards the product side.

(5) The physical states of the reactants and products are also mentioned in a chemical equation. The notations g, l, s, and aq are written in brackets as a subscript along with the symbols / formulae of reactants and products. The symbols g, l, s, and aq stand for gaseous, 1iquid. solid and aqueous respectively.

If the product is gaseous, instead of (g) it can be indicated by an arrow ↑ pointing upwards. If the product formed is insoluble solid, then instead of (s) it can be indicated by an arrow ↓ pointing downwards.

(6) Special information or names of reactants/products are written below their formulae.

Write the balanced equations for the following reactions:

Question 1.
Ba(OH)₂ + HBr → BaBr₂ + H₂O
Answer:
Step 1:
Rewrite the given equation as it is
Ba(OH)₂ + HBr → BaBr₂ + H₂O

Step 2:
write the number of atoms of each element in the unbalanced equation on both sides of the equation.

Element	Number of atoms in reactants	Number of atoms in products
Ba	1	1
Br	1	2
O	2	1
H	3	2

Step 3:
To balance the number of oxygen atoms:

Number of atoms of oxygen	In reactants	In products
To begin with	2 [in Ba(OH)2]	1 (in H2O)
To balance	2	1 × 2

To equalise the number of oxygen atoms, we use 2 as the coefficient of H₂O in the product.
Now, the partly balanced equation become as follows
Ba(OH)₂ + HBr → BaBr₂ + 2H₂O

Step 4:
Now, balance the number of hydrogen atoms.
In the partly balanced equation:

Number of atoms of hydrogen	In reactants	In products
To begin with	2 [in Ba(OH)2] 1 (in HBr)	4 (in 2H2O)
To balance	1 × 2 + 2	4

To equalise the number of hydrogen atoms, we use 2 as the coefficient of HBr in the reactants. Now, the equation becomes
Ba(OH)₂ + 2HBr → BaBr₂ + 2H₂O
Now, count the atoms or each element on both sides of the equation. The number of atoms on both
sides are equal. Hence, the balanced equation is
Ba(OH)₂ + 2HBr → BaBr₂ +2H₂O
Now indicate the physical states of the reactants and products.
Ba(OH)_2(aq) + 2HBr_(aq) → BaBr_2(aq) +2H₂O_(l)

Question 2.
KCN + H₂SO₄ → K₂SO₄ + HCN
Answer:
Step 1:
Rewrite the given equation as it is
KCN + H₂SO₄ → K₂SO₄ + HCN

Step 2:
Write the number of atoms of each element or group in the unbalanced equation on both sides of the equation.

Element	Number of atoms in reactants	Number of atoms in products
K	1	2
CN (group)	1	1
O	4	4
H	2	1
S	1	1

The number of oxygen atoms involved in different compounds on both sides (reactants and products) are equal. Therefore, balance the number of atoms of the second element, potassium.

Step 3:
To balance K atoms:

Number of atoms of Potassium	In reactants	In products
To begin with	2 (KCN)	2 (in K2SO4)
To balance	1 × 2	2

To equalise the number of potassium atoms, we use 2 as the coefficient of KCN in the reactants.
Now, the partly balanced equation becomes
2KCN + H₂SO₄ → K₂SO₄ + 2HCN
Now, count the atoms of each element on both sides of the equation. The number of atoms on both sides are equal. Hence, the balanced equation is
2KCN + H₂SO₄ → KgSO₄ + 2HCN
Now indicate the physical states of the reactants and the products.
2KCN_(aq) + H₂SO_4(aq) → K₂SO_4(aq) + 2HCN_(g)

Question 3.
CH₄ + O₂ → 4CO₂ + H₂O
Answer:
Step 1:
Rewrite the given equation as it is
CH₄ + O₂ → 4CO₂ + H₂O

Step 2:
Write the number of atoms of each element in the unbalanced equation on both sides of the equation.

Element	Number of atoms in reactants	Number of atoms in products
C	1	1
O	2	3
H	4	2

Step 3:
To balance the number of oxygen atoms:

Number of atoms of oxygen	In reactants	In products
To begin with	2 (in O2)	1 (in H2O) 2 (in CO2)
To balance	2 × 2	1 × 2 + 2

To equalise the number of oxygen atoms, we use 2 as the coefficient of O₂ in the reactants and 2 as the coefficient of H₂O in the product.
Now, the partly balanced equation becomes
CH₄ + 2O₂ → CO₂ + 2H₂O
Now, count the atoms of each element on both sides of the equation. The number of atoms on both sides are equal. Hence, the balanced equation is,
CH₄ + 2O₂ → CO₂ + 2H₂O
Now, indicate the physical states of the reactants and the products.
CH_4(g) + 2O_2(g) → CO_2(g) + 2H₂O_(l)

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
what are the different types of chemical reaction?
Answer:
Types of chemical reaction

1. Combination reaction
2. Decomposition reaction
3. Displacement reaction
4. Double displacement reaction.

Question 2.
What is meant by a combination reaction?
OR
Define: combination reaction.
Answer:
When two or more reactants combine in a reaction to form a single product, it is called a combination reaction.

Question 3.
Give two examples of combination reaction.
Answer:
Examples of combination reaction :
(1) The ammonia gas reacts with hydrogen chloride gas to form the salt in gaseous state, immediately it condenses at room temperature and gets transformed into the solid state.

(2) Magnesium burns in air to form white powder of magnesium oxide as a single product.

(3) Iron reacts with sulphur to form iron sulphide.

Question 4.
What Is meant by a decomposition reaction?
Answer:
The chemical reaction in which two or more products are formed from a single reactant is called decomposition reaction.

Question 5.
what is meant by a thermal decomposition?
Answer:
The reaction in which a compound is decomposed by heating it to a high temperature is called thermal decomposition.

Question 6.
What is meant by a electrolytic decomposition?
Answer:
The reaction in which a compound is decomposed by passing an electric current through its solution or molten mass is called an electrolytic decomposition.

Question 7.
Give two examples of thermal decomposition.
Answer:
(1) At high temperature, calcium carbonate decomposes into calcium oxide and carbon dioxide.

(2) At high temperature sugar decomposes into black mass of carbon and water vapour.

Question 8.
Give an example of electrolytic decomposition.
Answer:
When an electric current is passed through acidified water, it is electrolysed giving hydrogen
and oxygen.

Question 9.
Study the following reaction and answer the questions asked.

(a) State the type of reaction.
(b) Define this reaction. (Practice Activity Sheet – 1)
Answer:
(a) The type of reaction is electrolytic decomposition reaction.
(b) The reaction in which a compound is decomposed by passing an electric current through its solution or molten mass is called an electrolytic decomposition.

Question 10.
what is meant by a displacement reaction?
Answer:
The reaction in which the place of the ion of a less reactive element in a compound is taken by another more reactive element by formation of its own ions, is called displacement reaction.

Question 11.
Give an example of displacement reaction.
Answer:
when zinc granules are added to the blue coloured copper sulphate solution, the zinc ions formed from zinc atoms take the place or Cu²⁺ ions in CuSO₄, and copper atoms, formed from Cu²⁺ ions comes out i.e. the more reactive zinc displaces the less reactive Cu from copper sulphate.

Question 12.
Observe the reaction and answer the following questions.
CuSO_4(aq) + Fe_(s) → FeSO_4(aq) + Cu_(s)
(a) Identify and write the type of chemical reaction.
(b) write the definition of above reaction. (Practice Activity Sheet – 3)
Answer:
(a) When iron powder is added to the blue coloured copper sulphate solution, the iron ions formed from iron atoms take the place or Cu²⁺ ions in CuSO₄, and copper atoms, formed from Cu²⁺ ions comes out i.e. the more reactive iron displaces the less reactive Cu from copper sulphate. Therefore this reaction is a displacement reaction.

(b) The reaction in which the place of the ion of a less reactive element in a compound is taken by another more reactive element by formation of its own ions, is called displacement reaction.

Question 13.
what is meant by a double displacement reaction?
Answer:
The reaction in which the ions in the reactants are exchanged to form a precipitate is called double displacement reaction.

Question 14.
Give two examples of double displacement reaction.
Answer:
(1) Solutions of sodium chloride and silver nitrate react with each other forming a precipitate of silver chloride and a solution of sodium nitrate.

White precipitate of AgCl is formed by exchange of ions Ag⁺ and Cl^– between the reactants.

(2) Barium suiphide reacts with zinc sulphate to form zinc sulphide and a white precipitate of barium sulphate.

white precipitate is formed by exchange of ions Ba⁺⁺ and SO₄^— between the reactants.

Question 15.
Write down what you understand from the following chemical reaction:
AgNO_3(aq) + NaCl_(aq) → AgCl ↓ + NaNO_3(aq)
Answer:
(i) The above reaction is a double displacement reaction.
(ii) AgNO₃ and NaCl are the reactants while AgCl and NaNO₃ are the products.
(iii) The reactants and the product NaNO₃ are in aqueous state. The product AgCl is formed in the form of precipitate.

Question 16.
Study the following chemical reaction and answer the questions given below:
AgNO_3(aq) + NaCl_(aq) → AgCl_(s)↓ + NaNO_3(aq)
(i) Identiry and write the type of chemical reaction.
(ii) write the definition of above type of chemical reaction.
(iii) Write the names of reactants and products of above reaction. (March 2019)
Answer:
(i) The type of chemical reaction: Double displacement reaction.
(ii) The reaction in which the ions in the reactants are exchanged to form a precipitate is called double displacement reaction.
(iii)

1. The above reaction is a double displacement reaction.
2. AgNO₃ and NaCl are the reactants while AgCl and NaNO₃ are the products.
3. The reactants and the product NaNO₃ are in aqueous state. The product AgCl is formed in the form of precipitate.

Question 17.
When sodium chromate solution is mixed with barium sulphate solution, a precipitate is formed.
(i) What is the colour of the precipitate formed?
(ii) Name the precipitate.
(iii) What is the type of chemical reaction?
Answer:
(i) The colour of the precipitate is yellow.
(ii) The yellow precipitate formed is barium chromate.
(iii) The type of chemical reaction is double displacement.

Question 18.
Explain the term Exothermic reaction.
Answer:
Exothermic reaction : The process in which heat is given out is called an exothermic reaction.
When NaOH_(s) dissolves in water, there is evolution of heat leading to a rise in temperature.
NOH_(s) + H₃O_(l) → NaOH_(aq) + Heat

Question 19.
State whether the following reactions are exothermic or endothermic:
(i) 3CaO. Al₂O_3(s) + 6H₂O_(l) → 3CaO. Al₂O₃. 6H₂O_(s) + Heat
Answer:
Exothermic reaction

(ii) 2CaSO₄. H₂O + 3H₂O → 2CaSO₄. 2H₂O + Heat
Answer:
Exothermic reaction

(iii) KNO_3(aq) + H₂O_(l) + Heat → KNO_3(aq)
Answer:
Endothermic reaction

(iv) NaOH_(s) + H₂O_(l) → NaOH_(aq) + Heat
Answer:
Exothermic reaction

(v) Transformation of ice into water.
Answer:
Endothermic reaction

(vi) Water turns into ice.
Answer:
Exothermic reaction

(vii) Cooking of food.
Answer:
Endothermic reaction

(viii) Burning candle.
Answer:
Exothermic reaction

Question 20.
What do you mean by slow speed reaction?
OR
Define: Slow speed reaction.
Answer:
The reaction which requires long time for completion i.e. occurs slowly is called slow speed reaction.

Question 21.
What do you mean by fast speed reaction?
OR
Define: Fast speed reaction.
Answer:
The reaction which is completed in short time i.e. occurs rapidly is called fast speed reaction.

Question 22.
Give two examples of slow speed reactions.
Answer:
(1) On heating potassium chlorate (KClO₃) it decomposes slowly into potassium chloride and oxygen gas.

This reaction requires long time for completion, therefore it is slow speed reaction.

(2) Rusting of iron is a slow speed reaction. In this reaction iron reacts with oxygen from air to form iron oxide.

Question 23.
Give two examples of fast speed reactions.
Answer:
(1) The reaction between sodium hydroxide (NaOH) and hydrochloric acid (HCl) is a neutralization reaction and it is fast speed reaction.
NaOH_2(aq) + HCl_(aq) → NaCl_(aq) + H₂O_(l)
This neutralizaton reaction is completed in short time, therefore it is fast speed reaction.

(2) Aqueous solution of sodium chloride reacts with silver nitrate solution to form white precipitate of silver chloride (NaCl) and sodium nitrate.
NaCl_(aq) + AgNO_3(aq) → NaNO_3(aq) + AgCl ↓
This reaction is completed in short time, therefore it is fast reaction.

Question 24.
Write a short note on slow speed and fast speed reactions.
Answer:
Slow speed reaction:
The reaction which requires long time for completion i.e. occurs slowly is called slow speed reaction.
Examples:
(1) On heating potassium chlorate (KClO₃) it decomposes slowly into potassium chloride and oxygen gas.

This reaction requires long time for completion, therefore it is slow speed reaction.

(2) Rusting of iron is a slow speed reaction. In this reaction iron reacts with oxygen from air to form iron oxide.

This reaction requires long time for completion.

Fast speed reaction:
The reaction which is completed in short time i.e., occurs rapidly is called fast speed reaction.
Examples:
(1) The reaction between sodium hydroxide (NaOH) and hydrochloric acid (HCl) is a neutralization reaction and it is fast speed reaction.
NaOH_(aq) + HCl_(aq) → NaCl_(aq) + H₂O_(l)
This neutralizaton reaction is completed in short time, therefore it is fast speed reaction.

(2) Aqueous solution of sodium chloride reacts with silver nitrate solution to form white precipitate of silver chloride (NaCl) and sodium nitrate.

This reaction is completed in short time, therefore it is fast reaction.

Question 25.
State the factors which affect the speed (or rate) of a reaction.
Answer:
The factors which affect the rate of a reaction are

1. Nature of the reactants.
2. Size of the particles of the reactants.
3. Concentration of the reactants.
4. Temperature of the reaction.
5. Catalyst.

Question 26.
How does the rate of reaction depend on the nature of the reactants? Illustrate with suitable example.
Answer:
(1) when the reactant combines with two or more other reactants then the rate of a chemical reaction depends on the nature of the reactants.

(2) Both Al and Zn reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid, H₂ gas is liberated and water soluble salts of these metals are formed. However, aluminium metal reacts faster with dil. HCl as compared to zinc metal.

(3) Al is more reactive than Zn. Therefore, the rate of reaction of Al with hydrochloric acid is higher than that of Zn. Hence, the nature of the reactant affect the rate of a reaction.

Question 27.
How does the rate of a reaction depend on the size of the particles of reactants?
Answer:
(1) In the reaction of dil. HCl and Shahabad tile, CO₂ effervescence is formed slowly. On the other hand, C₂ effervescence forms at faster speed with the powder of Shahabad tile.

(2) The above observation indicates that the rate of a reaction depends upon the size of the particles of the reactants taking part in the reaction. Smaller the size of the reactant particles taking part in a reaction faster will be the rate of reaètion.

Question 28.
How does the rate of a reaction depend upon the concentration of the reactants? Give suitable example.
Answer:
(1) A chemical reaction takes place due to collisions of the reactant molecules. Higher the concentrations of the reactants more will be the frequency of collisions and faster wifi be the rate of the reaction.

(2) In the reaction of dil. HCl and CaCO₃, CaCO₃ disappears slowly and CO₂ also liberates slowly. On the other hand the reaction with concentrated HCl takes place rapidly and CaCO₃ disappears fast.

(3) Concentrated acid reacts faster than dilute acid, that means the rate of a reaction is proportional to the concentration of reactants.

Slow reaction:
CaCO₃ + dli.2HCl → CaCl₂ + CO₂ + H₂O
Fast reaction:

Question 29.
How does the rate of a reaction depend upon the temperature of reactants? Give suitable example.
Answer:
(i) (1) When the temperature of the reactants is increased, the reactant molecules start moving with more velocity and their kinetic energy increases. As a result, the number collisions increases. Hence, the rate of chemical reaction increases.

(2) Lime stone on heating decomposes to give CO₂, which turns 1ime water milky. On the other hand, the lime water does not turn milky before heating the lime stone: because of the zero rate of reaction. The above observation indicates that the rate of a reaction increases on increasing the temperature.

(ii) Solid CaCO₃ does not decompose at room temperature when heated, it decomposes to give CaO and CO₂ that means the rise in temperature increases the rate of reaction. CaCO₃ room temperature No chemical reaction.

Question 30.
How does the rate if a reaction depend upon the catalyst? Give suitable example.
Answer:
(1) The substance in whose presence the rate of a chemical reaction changes, without causing any chemical change to it is called a catalyst.

(2) On heating potassium chlorate (KClO₃) decomposes into potassium chloride and oxygen slowly.
\(2 \mathrm{KClO}_{3} \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} 2 \mathrm{KCl}+3 \mathrm{O}_{2}\)
The rate of the above reaction neither increases by reducing the particle size nor by increasing the reaction temperature. However in the presence of manganese dioxide, KClO₃ decomposes at a comparatively lower temperature and oxygen is produced more briskly. No chemical change takes place in MnO₂ in this reaction. It acts as catalyst.

Question 31.
State the Importance of rate in a chemical reaction.
Answer:

1. The use of strong acid and strong base in a chemical reaction increases the rate of reaction.
2. In a chemical reaction, if the smaller size of the reactant particles, the concentrated solution, high temperature and use of catalyst increases the rate of chemical reaction.
3. The rate of chemical reaction is important with respect to environment.
4. If the rate of chemimal reaction is fast it is profitable for the chemical factories.
5. The ozone layer in the earth’s atmosphere protects the life of earth from the ultraviolet radiation of the sun. The process of depletion or maintenance of this layer depends upon the rate of production or destruction of ozone molecules.

Question 32.
Define Oxidation reaction.
Answer:
Oxidation: The chemical reaction in which a reactant combines with oxygen or loses hydrogen to form the product is called oxidation reaction.

Question 33.
Give examples of oxidation.
Answer:
(1) when carbon burns in air, it forms carbon dioxide. In this reaction carbon accepts oxygen, therefore, this is an oxidation reaction.
C_(s) + O_2(g) → CO_2(g)

(2) when sodium reacts with ethyl alcohol, sodium ethoxide and hydrogen gas is formed. In this reaction, hydrogen is removed from ethyl alcohol, therefore this is an oxidation reaction.

(3) Acidified potassium dichromate: (K₂Cr₂O₇/H₂SO₄) oxidises ethly alcohol to acetic acid.

Question 34.
What do you mean by oxidant? Explain with suitable example.
Answer:
The chemical substances which bring about an oxidation reaction by making oxygen available are called oxidants or oxidizing agents.

1. In the combustion of carbon, oxygen is an oxidant.
2. In the oxidation of ethly alcohol, potassium dichromate is used as oxidant.

Question 35.
Name the various oxidants. How nascent oxygen is liberated from these oxidants?
Answer:
K₂Cr₂O₇/H₂SO₄, KMnO₄/H₂SO₄ are the commonly used chemical oxidants. Hydrogen peroxide (H₂O₂) is used as a mild oxidant. Ozone (O₃) is also a chemical oxidant. Nascent oxygen is generated by chemical oxidants and it is used for the oxidation reaction.
O₃ → O₂ + [O].
H₂O₂ → H₂O + [O]
K₂Cr₂O₇ + 4H₂SO₄ → K₂SO₄ + Cr₂(SO₄)₃ + 4H₂O + 3[O]
2KMnO₄ + 3H₂SO₄ → K₂SO₄ + 2MnSO₄ + 3H₂O + 5[O]
Nascent oxygen is a state prior to the formation of the O₂ molecule. It is the reactive form of oxygen and is represented by the symbol as [O]

Question 36.
Acidified potassium permanganate (KMnO₄) is a chemical oxidant and explain, how acidified potassium permanganate oxidise ferrous sulphate (FeSO₄). Accordingly write a new definition of oxidation and reduction.
Answer:
Acidified KMnO4 oxidises ferrous sulphate (FeSO₄) to ferric sulphate Fe₂(SO₄)₃ and in addition to above K₂SO₄ and MnSO₄ by-products are formed.
2KMnO₄ + 10 FeSO₄ → 8H₂SO₄ → K₂SO₄ + 2MnSO₄ + 5Fe₂(SO₄)₃ + 8H₂O
2FeSO₄ → Fe₂(SO₄)₃
Ionic reaction :
2Fe₂ + 2SO₄²⁺ → 2Fe³⁺ + 3SO₂^2-
Net Ionic equation Fe²⁺ → Fe³⁺ + e^–
When ferric ion is formed from ferrous ion the positive change is increased by one unit. While this happens the rerrous ion loses one electron.

When metal or its ion loses electron, it is called an oxidation and gain of electron is called reduction.

Question 37.
Define reduction reaction.
Answer:
The chemical reaction in which a reactant gains hydrogen and loses oxygen to form the product is called the reduction reaction.

Question 38.
Give two examples of reduction.
Answer:
(1) When hydrogen gas is passed over black copper oxide a reddish coloured layer of copper is formed.
In this reaction an oxygen atom removed from CuO to form copper, hence, this is reduction.

(2) When hydrogen gas is passed over red hot coke, methane is obtained.
Here, hydrogen is added to coke (carbon). Hence, this is reduction.

Question 39.
What do you mean by reductant? Explain with suitable example.
Answer:
The chemical substances which bring about reduction by making hydrogen available are called reductant. In the preparation of methane from carbon, hydrogen is a reductant.

Question 40.
What are redox reactions? Identify the substances that are oxidised and the substances that are reduced in the following reactions:
(1) 2H₂S_2(g) + SO_2(g) → 3S_(s) + 2H₂O_(l)
(2) CuO_(s) + H_2(g) → CU_(s) + H₂O_(l)

Answer:
When oxidation and reduction take place simultaneously in a given chemical reaction, it is known as a redox reaction.
(1)

H₂S is oxidised and SO₂ is reduced.

(2)

CuO is reduced and H₂ is oxidised.

(3)

(1) Oxidation: H₂S, H₂O and HCl.
(2) Reduction: SO₂, CuO and MnO₂

Question 41.
Observe the following reaction and answer the questions given below:
BaSO₄ + 4C → BaS + 4CO
(1) what type of reaction is it? Justify.
(2) Give one more example.
Answer:
(1) This is a redox reaction. In this reaction the reduction of BaSO4 and oxidation of carbon take place simultaneously.

(2) Example
CuO+H₂ → Cu + H₂O
2H₂S + SO₂ → 3S + 2H₂O

Question 42.
What is corrosion?
Answer:
The slow process of decay or oxidation of metals due to various components of atmosphere is known as corrosion.
Iron rusts and a reddish coloured layer is collected on it. This is corrosion of iron.

Question 43.
How does rusting of iron occur?
Answer:
Iron when exposed to moist air forms a reddish layer of hydrated ferric oxide.

Question 44.
How can corrosion be prevented?
Answer:

1. Corrosion damages buildings, bridges, automobiles, ships, iron railings and other articles made of iron.
2. It can be prevented by using an anti-rust solution, coating the surface by a paint, processes like galvanising and electroplating with other metals.

Question 45.
What is corrosion? Do gold ornaments corrode? Justify.
Answer:
The slow process of decay or oxidation or metal due to the effect of air, moisture and acids on
it is known as corrosion.
(1) Gold is a noble metal. There is no effect or moist air or action of acid on it at any temperature.
(2) Pure gold is a very soft metal. it breaks and gets bent easily. Hence, in gold ornaments, gold is alloyed with other metals 1ike copper or silver in appropriate proportion to make it hard and resistant to corrosion. Hence gold ornaments do not get corroded.

Question 46.
Complete the process of iron rusting by filling the blanks. Suggest a way to prohibit the process.
The iron rust is formed due to reaction. Different regions on iron surface become anode and cathode.
Reaction on anode region:
Fe_(s) → Fe²⁺ _(aq) + 2e^–
Reaction on cathode region:
O_2(g) + 4H⁺ _(aq) +………→ 2H₂O_(l)
when Fe²⁺ ions migrate from anode region they react with……..to fomm Fe³⁺ ions.
A reddish coloured hytirated oxide is formed from……….ions. It is called rust.
2Fe³⁺ _(aq) + 4H₂O_(l) → +………+ 6H⁺ _(aq)
A way to prevent rusting………..
(Practice Activity Sheer – 2)
Answer:
The iron rust is formed due to electrochemical reaction. Different regions on iron surface become unode and cathode.
Reaction on anode region:
Fe_(s) → Fe²⁺ _(aq) + 2e^–
Reaction on cathode region:
O_2(g) + 4H⁺ _(aq) + 4e^– → 2H₂O_(l)
when Fe²⁺ ions migrate from anode region they react with water to form Fe³⁺ ions.
A reddish coloured hydrated oxide is formed from Fe³⁺ ions. It is called rust.
2Fe³⁺ (aq) + 4H₂O_(l) → + Fe₂O₃. H₂O_(s) + 6H⁺_(aq)
A way to prevent rusting by colouring with acrylic paints, Zn plating, galvanizing, anodizing, alloying, etc.

Question 17.
Deifne: Rancidity.
Answer:
When oil or fat or left over cooking oil for making food stuff undergoes oxidation ir stored for a long time and it is found to have foul odour called rancidity.

Distinguish between the following:

Question 1.
Combination reaction and Decomposition reaction.

Combination reaction	Decomposition reaction
1. In a combination re­action, two or more reactants take part in the chemical reaction.	1. In a decomposition reaction there is only one reactant in the chemical reaction.
1. In the combination reaction, only one product is formed.	2. In a decomposition reaction, two or more products are formed.

Question 2.
Oxidation and reduction
Answer:

Oxidation	Reduction
1. The chemical reaction in which reactants gain oxygen or lose hydrogen is called oxidation.	1. The chemical reaction in which reactants gain hydrogen or lose oxygen is called reduction.
2. A reducing agent undergoes oxidation.	2. An oxidising agent undergoes reduction.

Question 3.
Exothermic and Endothermic reaction.
Answer:

Exothermic reaction	Endothermic reaction
1. The reaction in which heat is evolved is called an exothermic reaction.	1. The reaction in which heat is absorbed is called an endothermic reaction.
2. The evolution of heat leads to a rise in the temperature of the solution.	2. The absorption of heat leads to a fall in the temperature of the solution.

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
Grills of doors and windows are always painted before they are used.
Answer:

• Grills of doors and windows are made from iron. Iron has a tendency to undergo corrosion.
• Paint does not allow air or moisture to come in contact with iron surface.
  Therefore, to prevent rusting of iron. grills of doors and windows are always painted before they are used.

Question 2.
Physical states of reactants and products are mentioned while writing a chemical equation.
Answer:
(1) while writing a chemical equation, gaseous, 1iquid and solid states are symbolised as (g), (l) and (s) respectively.

(2) This is done to make it more informative and to emphasise that those reactions occur in that manner only under those conditions. Hence, physical states of reactants and products are mentioned while writing a chemical equation.

Question 3.
Iron articles rust readily whereas steel which is also mainly made of iron does not undergo corrosion.
Answer:
(1) Iron articles rust readily as iron reacts with oxygen and moisture of air to convert into its hydroxide and oxide (Fe₂O₃. x H₂O), while steel is an alloy of iron, carbon and chromium.

(2) The properties of an alloy are different from the properties of its constituents. The added metals increase its resistance to corrosion. It is more durable and clean.

Question 4.
Concentrated hydrochloric acid reacts more vigorously with calcium carbonate than dilute hydrochloric acid.
Answer:

1. The rate of a reaction increases with the concentration of the reactant.
2. As concentrated hydrochloric acid contains more number of HCl molecules than those in an equal volume of dilute HCl, concentrated HCl reacts more vigorously with calcium carbonate.

Question 5.
Zinc powder reacts much faster with dil. H₂SO₄ than does granulated zinc of the Same mass.
Answer:
(1) In a reaction. the rate of the reaction depends upon the particle size of the solid reactant as the reaction takes place on the surface only. Smaller the particles are, the more will be their total surface area and faster will be the rate of the reaction.
(2) Hence, zinc powder reacts much faster with dil. H₂SO₄ than does granulated zinc.

Question 6.
When copper articles exposed to air for a long time, gets corroded.
Answer:
Copper oxidises to form black coloured laver of copper oxide. when copper oxide combines with carbon dioxide from air, copper loses its lustre due to formation of greenish layer of copper carbonate on its surface. Thus, copper articles exposed to air for a long time get corroded.

Question 7.
When silver vessels exposed to air turns blackish after sometime.
Answer:
On exposure to air, silver vessels turns blackish after sometime. This is because of the layer of silver sulphide (Ag₂S) formed by the reaction or silver with hydrogen suphide in air.

Explain the following reactions giving their balanced chemical equations:

Question 1.
Calcium carbonate (Lime stone) is heated.
Answer:
When calcium carbonate (Lime stone) is heated at high temperature it decomposes to form quicklime and carbon dioxide gas.

Question 2.
Copper reacts with dil. nitric acid.
Answer:
When copper reacts with dil. nitric acid, nitric oxide gas is formed.

Question 3.
Copper reacts with conc. nitric acid.
Answer:
When copper reacts with conc. nitric acid, reddish coloured poisonous nitrogen dioxide gas is formed.

Question 4.
Ammonia gas reacts with hydrogen chloride gas.
Answer:
When ammonia gas reacts with hydrogen chloride gas, it forms the salt ammonium chloride in gaseous state, but immediately it got transformed into the solid state.

Question 5.
Magnesium strip is burnt in air.
Answer:
When magnesium strip is burnt in air, a white powder of magnesium oxide is formed.

Question 6.
Calcium oxide is mixed with water.
Answer:
When calcium oxide (slaked lime) is mixed with water, calcium hydroxide is formed with evolution of large amount of heat.

Question 7.
Sugar is heated.
Answer:
When sugar is heated, it decomposes to form carbon (black substance).

Question 8.
Electric current is passed through acidulated water.
Answer:
When an electric current is passed through acidulated water, it decomposes into hydrogen and
oxygen gas.

Question 9.
Zinc powder is added to copper sulphate solution.
Answer:
When zinc powder is added to copper sulphate solution, more reactive zinc displaces less reactive copper from copper sulphate solution. The colourless zinc sulphate is formed with evolution of heat.

Question 10.
Iron powder is added to copper sulphate solution.
Answer:
When iron powder is added to copper sulphate solution, more reactive iron displaces less reactive copper from copper sulphate. The colourless ferrous sulphate solution is formed with evolution of heat.

Question 11.
Lead is added to copper sulphate solution.
Answer:
When lead is added to copper sulphate solution, more reactive lead displaces less reactive copper from copper sulphate. The colourless lead sulphate solution is formed with evolution of heat.

Question 12.
Potassium chromate solution is added to barium sulphate solution.
Answer:
When potassium chromate solution is added to barium sulphate solution, yellow precipitate of barium chromate is formed.

Question 13.
Calcium chloride solution is added to sodium carbonate solution.
Answer:
When calcium chloride solution is added to sodium carbonate solution, white precipitate of calcium carbonate is formed.

Question 14.
Sodium chloride solution is mixed with silver nitrate solution.
Answer:
When sodium chloride solution is mixed with silver nitrate solution, white precipitate or silver chloride is formed.

Question 15.
Dilute sulphuric acid is added to barium chloride solution.
Answer:
When dilute sulphuric acid is added to barium chloride solution, white precipitate of barium sulphate is rormed.

Question 16.
Calcium carbonate (Lime stone) is treated with dil. hydrochloric acid.
Answer:
When calcium carbonate (lime stone) is treated with dil. hydrochloric acid, carbon dioxide gas is formed.

Question 17.
Aluminium is treated with dil. hydrochloric acid.
Answer:
When aluminium is treated with dilute hydrochloric acid, hydrogen gas is liberated.

Question 18.
Magnesium is treated with hydrochloric acid.
Answer:
When magnesium is treated with hydrochloric acid, hydrogen gas is liberated.

Question 19.
Hydrogen peroxide is decomposed in the presence of manganese dioxide (MnO₂).
Answer:
When hvdrogen peroxide is decomposed in the presence of manganese dioxide (MnO₂), water and oxygen are formed.

Question 20.
Ethyl alcohol is treated with acidified potassium dlchromate.
Answer:
When ethly alcohol is treated with acidified potassium dichromate, acetic acid is formed. This is oxidation reaction.

Question 21.
Hydrogen gas is passed over black copper oxide.
Answer:
When hydrogen gas is passed over black copper oxide, a reddish coloured layer of copper is formed.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 5 Social and Religious Reforms Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 5 Social and Religious Reforms

Class 8 History Chapter 5 Social and Religious Reforms Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options:
(Sir Sayyad Ahmad Khan, Maharshi Dhondo Karve, Abdul Latif, Swami Vivekananda, Maharshi Vitthal Ramji Shinde)

Question 1.
………….. established the Ramkrishna Mission.
Answer:
Swami Vivekananda

Question 2.
The Anglo-Mohammedan Oriental College was established by………….. .
Answer:
Sir Sayyad Ahmad Khan

Question 3.
The Depressed Classes Mission was founded by ……………. .
Answer:
Maharshi Vitthal Ramji Shinde

2. Complete the following table:

Question 1.

Answer:

3. Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
The social and religious reform movement began in India.
Answer:

1. With the spread of English education in India, there was spread of new ideas, new thoughts, new philosophy.
2. Indians got introduced to western thoughts and culture.
3. They wanted to create a society based on principles of Humanity, Equality and Fraternity.
4. They realised that the flaws like superstitions, casteism, old customs, class system and lack of critical outlook is responsible for the backwardness of India.
5. This association was responsible for social and religious reform in India.

Question 2.
Mahatma Phule conducted a strike of Barbers.
Answer:

1. There was a custom of Keshavapan, i.e. shaving head of widows in India.
2. In order to oppose this unjust custom, Mahatma Phule conducted a strike of Barbers.

4. Write short note:

Question 1.
Ramkrishna Mission :
Answer:

1. Swami Vivekananda, a close disciple of Ramkrishna Paramhansa, founded the Ramkrishna Mission in 1897.
2. The mission carried out social work like providing help to famine-stricken people, patients and gave medical help to the poor and worked for female education.
3. It taught people service to humanity is a true religion and worked towards spiritual progress of the people.

Question 2.
Reforms for women by Savitribai Phule:
Answer:

1. Savitribai Phule, wife of Mahatma Phule, advocated women’s education along with him.
2. She supported her husband in his efforts to start first school for girls at Bhide Wada in Pune.
3. She continued her work in the field of education though she faced severe criticism from the society.
4. She put great efforts in women reform movement which resulted in putting an end to many unjust practices.

Do you know?

Renaissance in other fields/areas :

Sr. No.	Field/ Area	Changes/Progress
1.	Literature	1) Stories and novels dealt with the themes related with social reforms. Writing by women authors. 2) Newspapers and magazines became the carriers of social reform and political awakening.
2.	Art	1) Music became people-oriented. 2) Traditional Indian style of painting was combined with western techniques.
3.	Science	1) Writing of books on science emphasized scientific outlook. 2) People realised the importance of experimentation and scientific outlook for progress.

Project:

Question 1.
Organise an essay competition on the topic ‘Education of women’.

Question 2.
Collect the paragraphs of social reformers.

Class 8 History Chapter 5 Social and Religious Reforms Additional Important Questions and Answers

Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options:
(Sir Sayyad Ahmad Khan, Maharshi Dhondo Karve, Abdul Latif, Swami Vivekananda, Maharshi Vitthal Ramji Shinde)

Question 1.
Through the efforts of ……….. first women’s university was set up in the 20th century.
Answer:
Maharshi Dhondo Karve

Question 2.
………….. established The Mohammedan Literary Society in Bengal.
Answer:
Abdul Latif.

Name the following :

Question 1.
He founded Hindu College at Kolkata.
Answer:
Raja Rammohan Roy

Question 2.
First president of Prarthana Samaj.
Answer:
Dr. Atmaram Pandurang Tarkhadkar

Question 3.
‘Go Back to the Vedas’ was the slogan of this Institution.
Answer:
Arya Samaj

Question 4.
He represented Hinduism at the Parliament of Religions at Chicago in 1893.
Answer:
Swami Vivekananda.

Identify the wrong pair:

Answer:
Wrong pair: Dr. Keshav Baliram
Hedgewar – Founded Hindu Mahasabha
Corrected pair: Dr. Keshav Baliram
Hedgewar – founded Rashtriya
Swayam- Sevak Sangh.

Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options:

Question 1.
Raja Rammohan Roy helped Governor General ……… to pass the Sati Prohibition Act.
(a) Lord Wellesley
(b) Lord Bentinck
(c) Robert Clive
(d) Lord Cornwallis
Answer:
Lord Bentinck

Question 2.
Gopal Ganesh Agarkar gave his staunch opinion about child marriage, law of consent in his newspaper ………… .
(a) Maratha
(b) Darpan
(c) Sudharak
(d) Dnyanoday
Answer:
Sudharak

Question 3.
……….. started the Nursing Course for Women through Seva Sadan Institute.
(a) Tarabai Shinde
(b) Ramabai Ranade
(c) Savitribai Phule
(d) Pandita Ramabai
Answer:
Ramabai Ranade

Question 4.
………… continued tradition of reformation in Sikh religion.
(a) Singh Sabha
(b) Akali movement
(c) Arya Samaj
(d) Prarthana Samaj
Answer:
Akali movement

Question 5.
Lokhitwadi advocated gender equality through his writings in ………… .
(a) Sudharak
(b) Kesari
(c) Shatpatre
(d) Darpan
Answer:
(c) Shatpatre

Do as Directed:

Complete the concept map:
Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

2. Complete the timeline:

Answer:

Answer the following in one sentence each :

Question 1.
What message was given by Swami Vivekanand to the Indian youth?
Answer:
‘Arise, Awake and stop not till the goal is achieved’ was the message given by Swami Vivekanand to the Indian youth.

Question 2.
Write about the work of Singh Sabha.
Answer:
The Singh Sabha worked to achieve reforms, to spread education among the Sikh community and bring in modernisation among them

Question 3.
What were the principles of Prarthana Samaj?
Answer:
The opposition to idol worship, monotheism and opposition to rituals were the principles of Prarthana Samaj.

Question 4.
Which social reformers worked for the cause of widow remarriage?
Answer:
Pandit Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar, Vishnushastri Pandit and Vireshlingam Pantalu worked for the cause of widow remarriage.

Question 5.
Who started ‘Anath Balikashram’?
Answer:
Maharshi Dhondo Keshav Karve started Anath Balikashram, an orphanage for girls, to give education to all women so that they become independent.

Question 6.
Who received the Nobel Prize and in which field?
Answer:
Rabindranath Tagore received Nobel in the field of literature and C. V. Raman for Science.

Question 7.
What was The Mohammedan Anglo Oriental College later known as?
Answer:
The Mohammedan Anglo Oriental College was later known as the Aligarh Muslim University.

Write short note:

Question 1.
Prarthana Samaj :
Answer:
(1) Paramhansa Sabha was dissolved and some of its members formed Prarthana Samaj.
(2) Dr. Atmaram Pandurang was its first President.
(3) They opposed idol worship, monotheism and advocated prayers and devotional songs instead of rituals in place of worship of God.
(4) The important contribution of Prarthana Samaj in reforming the society was that it started orphanages, women’s education institutes, night schools for workers and society for Dalits.
(5) The prestige of Prarthana Samaj rose immensely due to the enrollment of young graduates from Mumbai University.
(6) Justice Ranade, Dr. R. G. Bhandarkar carried the work of Prarthana Samaj forward.

Question 2.
Sir Sayyad Ahmed Khan :
Answer:

1.  Sir Sayyad Ahmad Khan worked for the cause of Muslims.
2. He believed that the Muslims would not make progress without acquiring western education and science.
3. He founded ‘The Mohammedan Anglo Oriental College’ which later became Aligarh Muslim University.

Answer the following in 25 to 30 words:

Question 1.
Write about the contribution of Maharshi Vitthal Ramji Shinde.
Answer:

1. Maharshi Vitthal Ramji Shinde was member of Prarthana Samaj, contributed in reforming society.
2. He started the ‘Depressed Class Mission’.
3. He tried to solve problems in society through this mission.
4. He organised conference against the practice of Devdasi in Mumbai.

Question 2.
Write about the efforts taken to unite Hindu Society.
Answer:

1. Hindu Mahasabha was formed in 1915 to achieve respectful position of Hindu community and protect it.
2. Pandit Madan Mohan Malviya founded the ‘Banaras Hindu University’.
3. Dr. Keshav Baliram Hedgewar established Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh in 1925 at Nagpur to set up a disciplinary and virtuous organisation of Hindu youth.
4. Patit Pawan Temple built by V. D. Savarkar at Ratnagiri was open to all castes of Hindu religion. He also organized common dining programmes.

Question 3.
Give a brief account of the work of women social reformers for the emancipation of women.
Answer:
The women reformers contributed in the following way to improve the condition of women :

1. Savitribai Phule faced severe criticism of society but continued her work in the field of education.
2. Tarabai Shinde wrote the book ‘Stri Purush Tulana’ in which she fiercely put her views about the rights of women.
3. Pandita Ramabai founded the Sharada Sadan and took care of disabled women and children.
4. Ramabai Ranade founded the Seva Sadan Institute. She started the Nursing course for women as well as demanded the right to vote for them.

Question 4.
State the outcome of women reform movement.
Answer:

1. The women’s reforms movement resulted in putting an end to many unjust practices in the society.
2. They voiced their problems and made efforts to find solution to them.
3. The women got opportunities to prove their capabilities in different fields.
4. Women started expressing their ideas, thoughts through writing.
5. Their performance flourished in every sphere of life due to education.

Question 5.
What changes came about in the field of Science, Art and Literature during Indian Renaissance?
Answer:
The following changes were seen in the field of Science, Art and Literature during Indian Renaissance :
(A) Science :

1. C. V. Raman received the Nobel Prize in Science.
2. Many books were written on science which emphasized scientific outlook.
3. People realised the importance of experimentation and scientific outlook for progress of the country.

(B) Art :

1. Music became more popular and people-oriented.
2. A new school of painting combining traditional Indian style of painting with the western techniques emerged.

(C) Literature :

1. Rabindranath Tagore received the Nobel Prize in literature.
2. Stories and novels gave inspiration in gaining independence and expressed thoughts on social reforms.
3. Women took to writing.
4. New magazines and newspapers became sources of inspiration and political awakening.

Write short note :

Question 1.
The condition of women was miserable in the beginning of nineteenth century.
Answer:
The condition of women during the British period was very miserable in India, because :

1. They had no right to education.
2. There was no equality between men and women.
3. Women were victims of child marriage, dowry system, sati, Keshavapan, opposition to widow remarriage.

Answer the following in detail :

Question 1.
Write briefly about Indian Renaissance.
Answer:
1. The modern educated Indians realised that the unhealthy social conditions and customs like casteism, superstitions, old customs, class system and lack of critical outlook had arrested the progress of India.
2. Rise in the spread of new ideas, new thoughts, new philosophy marked the beginning of modern age.
3. It was necessary to eradicate the flaws and undesirable tendencies in order to create a new society based on principles of Humanity, Equality and Fraternity.
4. They started finding new ways for development of society and country. Educated thinkers started social awareness through writings.
5. This intellectual awakening in the contemporary society in India is called the Indian Renaissance.

Question 2.
Give a brief account of the work of social reformers for the betterment of women.
Answer:

1. Raja Rammohan Roy launched agitations against practice of Sati.
2. It led to the enactment of the Sati Prohibition Act in 1829.
3. He advocated widow remarriage and female education and opposed Purdah system.
4. Gopal Hari Deshmukh (Lokhitwadi) criticized the unjust social customs related to women and advocated equality of men and women through his writings in ‘Shatapatre’.
5. Mahatma Phule gave importance to 2 girl’s education. He started first school for i girls at Bhide Wada in Pune.
6. Through his writings Babasaheb Ambedkar exposed injustice inflicted on women.
7. Mahatma Gandhi advocated education for women.
8. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar, Vishnushastri Pandit and Vireshlingam Pantalu strove for the recognition of the right to remarriage for the widows.
9. Gopal Ganesh Agarkar gave his staunch opinion about child marriage and j law of consent in his newspaper ‘Sudharak’.
10. Maharshi Vitthal Ramji Shinde organised a conference to oppose practice of Devdasi.
11. Maharshi Dhondo Keshav Karve founded the Anath Balikashram for orphan girls and later the first Women’s University.

Question 3.
What would have happened if social reformers had not taken initiative for women education?
Answer:
We have seen many social reformers in the last 100-150 years. They not only insisted on women education but also took efforts to make it reality.
If they had not taken efforts towards women education then:

1. Women would have still remained illiterate and would have easily fallen prey to superstitions.
2. They would have to carry burden of age old customs and traditions.
3. Illiterate women could not contribute to the development of family, society and nation.
4. Today they work hand in hand with their male counterparts because they are educated.

Question 4.
What changes have been made in the life of women due to education?
Answer:
Education has brought lot of changes in the life of women.

1. Women started taking jobs, doing business which made them financially independent.
2. They are working and competing along with men in every field.
3. Educated women freed themselves from the clutches of superstitions.
4. Educated women have become strong enough to face the injustice of society.
5. The principle of equality is put into practice because of their education.
6. As woman got educated she contributed for development of her family and country.

Question 5.
Do you still feel there is need to make efforts for women’s education? If yes, then what efforts need to be made?
Answer:

1. I feel we still need to make efforts on girls’ education because among illiterates and less educated the number of women is more.
2. The number of illiterate girls in rural and tribal areas is more.
3. It is important to explain importance of girls’ education. Reforms are still required.
4. To make people understand the benefit of girls’ education, documentaries and advertisements should be made.
5. We need to take help of modern technology to achieve it.