Important Questions

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Economics Important Questions Chapter 10 Foreign Trade of India Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Economics Important Questions Chapter 10 Foreign Trade of India

1. A. Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
Before independence, India was exporting raw materials to –
(a) USA (b) Japan
(c) England (Britain)
(d) None of these
Options :
(1) a and b
(2) c and a
(3) d
(4) only c
Answer:
(4) only c

Question 2.
Internal trade also known as –
(a) Domestic trade
(b) Home trade
(c) External trade
(d) all of these
Options :
(1) a, b and c
(2) b and c
(3) a and b
(4) only d
Answer:
(3) a and b

Question 3.
International or External trade takes place between –
(a) two or more districts
(b) two or more states
(c) two or more countries
(d) none of these
Options :
(1) a and b
(2) a and c
(3) a, b and c
(4) only c
Answer:
(4) only c

Question 4.
Most important commodity in India’s import is –
(a) Petroleum, oil and lubricants
(b) Food grains .
(c) Engineering goods
(d) Readymade garments
Options :
(1) a and b
(2) b and c
(3) only a
(4) c and d
Answer:
(3) only a

Question 5.
According to Walter Krause definition of Balance of Payment, value of exchange of goods and services is considered among –
(a) the citizens and businessmen
(b) the firms
(c) the government
(d) none of these
Options :
(1) a, b and c
(2) b and c
(3) c and d
(4) only a
Answer:
(1) a, b and c

Question 6.
Trade surplus means –
(a) Export value > Import value
(b) Export value < Import value
(c) Export value = Import value
(d) All of these
Options :
(1) only a
(2) b and c
(3) only b
(4) only d
Answer:
(1) only a

Question 7.
Balance of trade includes –
(a) the value of imports of visible and invisible goods
(b) the value of imports of only visible goods
(c) the value of imports and exports of visible and invisible goods
(d) the value of exports of visible and invisible goods.
Options :
(1) a and d
(2) only b
(3) only c
(4) All of these
Answer:
(3) only c

Question 8.
International trade is important because –
(a) it helps in optimal utilisation of resources
(b) it brings stability in price level
(c) it helps to earn foreign exchange
(d) it encourages investment
Options :
(1) a and b
(2) b and c
(3) a and c
(4) all of these
Answer:
(4) all of these

Question 9.
The share of India’s foreign trade in Gross National Income during 2016-17 was –
(a) 25%
(b) 17.55
(c) 48.8 %
(d) None of these
Options :
(1) only a
(2) only b
(3) only c
(4) only d
Answer:
(3) only c

Question 9.
In recent years India’s leading trading partners are –
(a) USA, Germany, Japan, UK
(b) Britain
(c) Nepal, Sri Lanka, UK
(d) None of these
Options :
(1) only a
(2) b and c
(3) a and c
(4) only d
Answer:
(1) only a

Question 10.
Which of the following is not a benefit of international trade –
(a) provides multiple choices of imported goods
(b) leads to division of labour
(c) high wage levels for all domestic workers
(d) can earn reputation and goodwill in the international market
Options :
(1) a and d
(2) only c
(3) a, c and d
(4) a, b and d
Answer:
(2) only c

Question 11.
There is a change in the composition of India’s exports from –
(a) primary products to manufactured products
(b) manufactured products to primary products
(c) manufactured products to software
(d) All of these Options:
(1) a and b
(2) only a
(3) a, b and e
(4) only d
Answer:
(2) only a

(B) Complete the Correlation

(1) Internal trade : Home trade :: …………. : Foreign trade
Answer:
International trade

(2) Trade surplus: …………. :: Trade deficit: Export > Import
Answer:
Export > Import

(3) …………. : jute, cotton :: Manufactured goods: readymade garments
Answer:
Primary goods

(4) OECD : Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development :: …………. : Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries
Answer:
OPEC

(5) Import goods : …………. :: Export goods : Engineering goods
Answer:
Gold

(6) Trade within the country : Internal trade :: Trade between two or more countries : …………..
Answer:
External trade

(7) Highest share in export: Engineering goods :: Highest share in import: ………….
Answer:
Petroleum

(8) Old ports : Mumbai, Kolkata and Chennai:: …………. : Kandla, Cochin, Vishakhapatnam
Answer:
New ports

(9) International trade : External trade :: Domestic trade : …………. :
Answer:
Internal trade

(10) Foreign trade before independence : …………. :: Foreign trade after independence : USA
Answer:
Britain / England

(11) Machinery : Capital goods :: Motor vehicles : ………….
Answer:
Consumer goods

(C) Give economic terms.

(1) To purchase goods and services by one country from another country.
Answer:
Import trade

(2) To sale goods and services by one country to another country.
Answer:
Export trade

(3) To purchase goods and services from one country and then selling them to another country after processing.
Answer:
Entrepot trade

(4) Exchange of goods and services.
Answer:
Trade

(5) Export value is greater than the import value.
Answer:
Trade surplus

(6) Import value is greater than the export value.
Answer:
Trade deficit

(7) The trade is by sea.
Answer:
Oceanic trade

(8) This leads division of labour and specialization.
Answer:
Foreign trade

(9) We can see or touch these goods.
Answer:
Visible / tangible goods

(10) We can’t see or touch these goods.
Answer:
Invisible / intangible goods

(D) Find the odd word out.

(1) Internal trade, Domestic trade, Foreign trade, Home trade.
Answer:
Foreign trade

(2) International trade, Internal trade, External trade, Foreign trade.
Answer:
Internal trade

(3) Types of foreign trade :
Import trade, Export trade, National trade, Entrepot trade.
Answer:
National trade

(4) Need of Foreign trade :
To earn foreign exchange, To earn rupees, To encourage investment,To stabilize price ; level
Answer:
To earn rupees

(5) Important features of India’s foreign trade :
Change in the composition of exports, ; Change in composition of imports, Change in composition of internal trade
Answer:
Change in composition of internal trade

(6) Trade relation with neighbouring countries :
Nepal, Afghanistan, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, England
Answer:
England

(7) New ports for foreign trade :
Mumbai, Kandla, Cochin, Vishakhapatnam ;
Answer:
Mumbai

(8) Major imported goods :
Gold, Fertilizers, Gems and Jewellery, Petroleum
Answer:
Gems and jewellery

(9) Major exported goods :
Iron and Steel, ‘ Engineering goods, Chemicals, Textiles and readymade garments
Answer:
Iron and steel

(10) Useful concept in foreign trade :
Balance of payment, Balance of trade, Balance budget
Answer:
Balance budget

(11) Organisation related to foreign trade : OECD, OPEC, EGEPC, NABARD
Answer:
NABARD

(12) Manufactured products :
Gems and jewellery, Electronic goods, s Computer hardware and software, Food grains
Answer:
Food grains

(13) Primary products :
Jute and cotton, Readymade garments, Oil seeds, Mineral products
Answer:
Readymade garments

(14) Visible goods :
Gold, Petroleum, Fertilizers, Communication
Answer:
Communication

(15) Invisible goods (service):
Banking, Communication, Engineering goods, Transport
Answer:
Engineering goods

(16) Cloth, Machinery, Technology, Fertilizers
Answer:
Cloth

(E) Complete the sentences.

(1) During the British rule …………………. industries suffered set back.
Answer:
handicraft

(2) In the post World War II, …………………. trade is considered as an investment.
Answer:
Foreign trade

(3) Buying and selling of goods and services within the boundaries of a nation are known as ………………….
Answer:
Internal trade

(4) Internal trade is also known as ………………….
Answer:
Domestic / Home trade

(5) The trade between Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, etc, is known as ………………….
Answer:
Internal trade

(6) International trade is also known as ………………….
Answer:
Foreign / External trade

(7) Trade which consists of transaction between residents of different countries is called ………………….
Answer:
International trade

(8) …………………. is a remarkable factor in expanding the market and encouraging the production of goods.
Answer:
Foreign trade

(9) …………………. helps to earn goodwill and reputation in the international market.
Answer:
Export trade

(10) After independence, there was change in the composition of imports from consumer goods to ………………….
Answer:
capital goods

(11) Share of …………………. trade-in-India is around 68%.
Answer:
Oceanic trade

(12) Goods such as cloth, motor vehicles, electrical goods, etc, are known as ………………….
Answer:
consumer goods

(13) Goods and services that are made in one country but purchased and consumed in another country is called ………………….
Answer:
export

(F) Choose the wrong pair ; (1 mark each)

I.

Group‘A	Group ‘B’
1. Internal trade	Between two or more countries
2. Oceanic trade	Trade by sea
3. Export trade	Sale of goods by one country to another country

Answer:
Wrong pair : Internal trade – Between two or more countries

II.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. Primary goods	Jute, cotton, tea
2. Invisible goods	Cloth, medicine, car
3. Capital goods	Machinery, technology, steel

Answer:
Wrong pair : Invisible goods – Cloth, medicine, car

III.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. Encourage investment	Foreign trade
2. To earn foreign exchange	Internal trade
3. International trade	Multiple choices of imported goods

Answer:Wrong pair : To earn foreign exchange Internal trade

(G) Assertion and Reasoning:

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Trade is an engine of growth of an economy.
Reasoning (R) : It plays an important role for economic development.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A).
(ii) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct reason for (A).
(iii) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(iv) (A) and (R) both are false.
Answer:
(i) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A).

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : International trade consists of transaction between residents of different countries.
Reasoning (R): This is given by Wasserman and Hultman
(i) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A).
(ii) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct reason for (A).
(iii) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(iv) (A) and (R) both are false.
Answer:
(ii) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct reason for (A).

Question 3.
Assertion (A) : During the British rule foreign trade did not permit industrialisation in India.
Reasoning (R) : India was a supplier of raw material to the England and importer of manufactured goods.
(i) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A).
(ii) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct reason for (A).
(iii) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(iv) (A) and (R) both are false.
Answer:
(i) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A).

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Buying and selling of goods and services across the boundaries of a nation are known as internal trade. Reasoning (R) : Goods produced in
Maharashtra are sold to West Bengal then it is known as international trade.
(i) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A).
(ii) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct reason for (A).
(iii) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(iv) (A) and (R) both are false.
(iv) (A) and (R) both are false.

Question 5.
Assertion (A) : Due to specialization resources are channelized for the production of only those goods which would give highest ( return.
Reasoning (R): There is rational allocation and specialization.
(i) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A).
(ii) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct reason for (A).
(iii)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(iv)(A) and (R) both are false.
Answer:
(i) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A).

Question 6.
Assertion (A) : An increase in total investment leads to development of an economy. .
Reasoning (R) : Foreign trade creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the domestic markets.
(i) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A).
(ii) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct reason for (A).
(iii) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(iv) (A) and (R) both are false.
Answer:
(i) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A).

Question 7.
Assertion (A) : Balance of payments is a summary statement of all the transaction between the residents of one country and the rest of the world.
Reasoning (R): This is given by Samuelson.
(i)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct reason for (A).
(ii) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct reason for (A).
(iii) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(iv)(A) and (R) both are false.
Answer:
(iii) (A) is true but (R) is false.

Question 8.
Assertion (A) : Balance of trade is the difference between the value of countries export and import for a given period. Reasoning (R) : Balance of trade is also referred to as international trade balance.
(i)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A).
(ii) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct reason for (A).
(iii)(A) is true but (R) is false.
(iv)(A) and (R) both are false.
Answer:
(iii) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(H) Choose the right group of pairs :

I.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. Balance of Trade	(a)International trade balance
2. OPEC	(b) Oil and Petrol Export Commission
3. Trade	(c) Buying and selling of goods and services
4. Invisible goods	(d) Banking, insurance
5. WTO	(e) World Trade Organisation

II.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. OPEC	(a) Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries
2. Trade deficit	(b) Value of export < Value of import
3. Internal trade	(c) Trade within the country
4. India’s imported goods	(d) Petroleum, Gold, fertilizer
5. Entrepot Trade	(e) Re-export

Answer:
II group is correct.

2.[A] Identify and explain the concept from given illustrations.

Question 1.
Antwerp city of Belgium imports raw diamonds and exports finished diamonds to other countries.
Answer:
Concept: Entrepot Trade
Explanation : It means purchase of goods and services from one country and selling them to another country after processing.

Question 2.
The country ‘A’ value of import was $200 billion and value of export was $150 billion.
Answer:
Concept: Trade deficit
Explanation : When value of import is greater than value of export it is called as trade deficit.

Question 3.
The country ‘X’ value of export was $500 billion and value of import was $200 billion.
Answer:
Concept: Trade Surplus
Explanation : When value of export is greater than value of import it is called as trade surplus.

Question 4.
Kashmir sold its apples to the other parts of country.
Answer:
Concept: Internal trade
Explanation : This trade is also known as home or domestic trade. It means buying and selling of goods and services within the country.

Question 5.
India is selling its spices to USA, China, Vietnam, etc.
Answer:
Concept: Export Trade
Explanation : It means selling of goods and services by one country to another country. It helps to earn foreign exchange.

Question 6.
India based Tata Consultancy Services (TCS) is selling their software and services to the USA.
Answer:
Concept: Export trade
Explanation : It means selling of goods and services by one country to another country. It helps to earn foreign exchange.

(B) Distinguish between

Question 1.
Import trade and Export trade.
Answer:
Import trade:

1. It means to purchase of goods and services by one country from another country.
2. E.g. India imports petroleum from Iraq, Kuwait
3. It is inflow of goods and services.

Export trade:

1. It means to the sale goods and services by one country to another country.
2. E.g. India exports tea, rice, jute to China, Hong Kong, etc.
3. It is outflow of goods and services.

Question 2.
Export trade and Entrepot trade.
Answer:
Export trade:

1. Export trade means sale of goods by one country to another country.
2. E.g. India selling its spices to USA, China, etc.

Entrepot trade:

1. Entrepot trade means purchase of goods and services from one country and selling them to another country.
2. E.g. Antwerp city of Belgium importing raw diamonds and exporting finished diamonds to other countries.

Question 3.
Trade surplus and Trade deficit.
Answer:
Trade surplus:

1. When country’s exports are more than its imports, it is called as trade surplus.
2. Generally, it is considered as a positive development.

Trade deficit:

1. When country’s import are more than its exports, it is called as trade deficit.
2. Generally, it is considered as a negative development.

3. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Explain the concepts of Balance of Trade.
Answer:
Balance of trade is the important concept of foreign trade. Balance of trade is the difference between the values of country’s exports and imports for a given period.
Balance of trade can be positive or negative.

(i) Trade surplus : When country’s value of export is more than its value of import, it is called trade surplus. It is also known as positive balance of trade.

(ii) Trade Deficit : When country’s value of import is more than its value of export, it is called as trade deficit. It is also known as negative balance of trade.

The formula for calculating balance of trade is as follows :
BOT = Total value of Exports – Total value of Imports.

4. State with reasons whether you agree or disagree with the following statements :

Question 1.
During British rule, indigenous handicraft suffered a severe blow.
Answer:
Yes, I do agree with this statement.

1. During the British rule India was exporting raw materials to England and was importing final goods from England.
2. Indian handicraft was unable to face competition with imported goods from England.
3. An imported goods were cheaper as compared to handicraft goods.
4. The demand for machine made cheap commodity had raised in Indian market.
5. That’s why Indian handicraft industries suffered during the British rule.

Question 2.
Trade is an engine of growth for an economy.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.

• Trade permits a more efficient allocation of national resources.
• Foreign trade provide foreign exchange which can be used to import modern machinery and technology from advanced countries.
• Foreign trade encourages producers to produce more goods for export.
• It leads to an increase in total investment in an economy.
• Thus, we can say, trade is an engine to growth for an economy.

Question 3.
Foreign trade leads to division of labour and specialisation at world level.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.

• Some countries have abundant natural resources.
• These countries should export raw material and import finished goods from countries which are advanced in skilled man power,
• Under specialisation specific work is given to the workers within a production process.
• Specialisation can increase the productivity of a firm or economy.
• Eg. Incase of car manufacturing company, some workers will design the cars, some workers will work on different section of assembly line, some workers will work on testing cars, some workers will work on marketing of cars.

Question 4.
Foreign trade is not playing an important role for economic development.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with this statement.

• It helps to earn foreign exchange which can be used for productive purpose.
• It leads to an increase in a total investment in an economy.
• It helps to control the changes in the price level.
• It helps to maximum allocation and utlisation of resources at international level.
• Due to availability of imported goods, it helps to improve standard of living of the people in the country.
• During the natural calamities, foreign trade enables a country to import food grains and medicines from other countries to help the affected people.
• It promotes world peace by bringing countries closer.

Question 5.
During the pre and post independence period, India’s composition of import and export is the same.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with this statement.

• Prior to independence, India used to export primary products like Jute, Cotton, Tea, Oil-Seeds etc.
• In the recent time India is exporting manufactured product like readymade garments, gems and jewellery, computer hardware and software, etc.
• Prior to independence India used to import consumer goods like medicines, cloth, motor vehicles, electrical goods, etc.
• In the recent time, India is importing capital goods like advanced technology and machinery, chemicals, fertilizers, steel, etc.

Question 6.
India is importing only petroleum from other countries.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with this statement. India is importing many commodities like :

• Electronic goods : In the total import of country, share of electronic goods in 10.9% in the year 2016-17.
• Pearls and Gems : In the total import, share of peals and gems was 6.2% in the year 2016-17.
• Edible oils : India also imports edible oil from Malaysia and Indonesia and its share is 2.8% in the year 2016-17.
• Gold : There was growing demand for gold in the Indian market. In the year 2018-19, the value of gold imported was upto $32.8 billion.
• Fertilizers : India is importing fertilizers from China, US, Iraq, Russia. In the year 2016-17, the share of fertilizers was 1.3% in the total import of country.

Question 7.
India is exporting many commodities goods.
Answer:
Yes, I do agree with this statement. India exports many commodities like :

• Engineering goods : It has the large share in the export of India. The share of engineering goods was 25% in the total exports in 2017-18.
• Petroleum products : India turned as a net exporter of petroleum refinery products.
  India’s export of petroleum product was 20.1% in 2013-14.
• Chemicals and chemical product :
  India is exporting chemicals and chemical products to many countries from last few years. In the year 2014-15 the share of chemicals was 10.4% in total exports of the country.
• Gems and Jewellery : It is one of the major contributor which helps to earn foreign exchange. According to DGCI Kolkata, the value of Gems and Jewellery export was $38.96 billion in 2018-19.

5. Study the following table, chart, graph, passage and answer the questions.

1. India’s Merchandise Trade (US $ Billion)

Question 1.
In the above bar diagram during which year export was maximum and how much was it?
The export was maximum in the year 2018¬19. It was $331billion.

Question 2.
In which year import was maximum and how much was it?
In the year 2018-19 import was maximum and it was $507.4 billion.

Question 3.
In which year import was least and how much was it?
In the year 2015-16 import was least and it was $381 billion.

Question 4.
Find out the trade deficit in the year 2017-18?
Trade deficit = Export – Import = 303.5 – 465.6
= $162.1 billion.

Question 5.
How much is the export increase in the year 2018-19 as compared to 2014-15?
Answer:
In the year 2018-19 export has increased by $20.7 billion as compared to 2014-15.

Question 6.
How much is the import increase in the year 2018-19 as compared to 2017-18?
Answer:
In the year 2018-19 imports has increased by $41.8 billion as compared to 2017-18.

Question 7.
Express your views on India’s merchandise trade.
Answer:
In the above bar diagram, India’s import is always greater then its export. India should take measures to reduce the imports. The Government of India should encourage the industries those are exporting goods by providing them various facilities such as availability of raw materials at cheaper rate, credit at low interest, etc.

(2) Share of top Five Commodities in India’s Export 2018-19

Question 1.
Name the second largest exported commodity in the year 2018-19.
Petroleum products are second largest exported commodity in the year 2018-19.

Question 2.
How much is the share of drug formulations, biologicals (chemical products) in total export of India.
Answer:
The share of chemical products is 4.37% in the total export of India.

Question 3.
Which commodity has least share in the total export of India and how much was it?
Answer:
Iron and Steel has least share and it is 2.96%.

Question 4.
Give your opinion on India’s export.
Answer:
India should focus on above five commodities to increase their export. The government of India should provide credit at low rate of interest, easy availability of raw materials required by above industries, as it will help to produce more goods.

3. Table A : Trade data for period 2009 – 10 to 2017 – 18

Question 1.
In which year export growth was least and how much?
Answer:
In the year 2015-16, export growth was least and it was -9.49%.

Question 2.
In which year import growth was maximum and how much?
Answer:
In the year 2011-12, import growth was maximum and it was 39.32%.

Question 3.
During which year trade balance was minimum?
Answer:
In the year 2009-10 trade balance was minimum.

Question 4.
Which concept of Balance of Trade is applicable here?
Answer:
The concept of trade deficit is applicable here, because in the above data every year India’s imports are more than its exports.

Question 5.
How much was India’s export value in the year 2017-18?
Answer:
In the year 2017-18 India’s export value was ? 19,56,515 crores.

Question 6.
Give your opinion on India’s foreign trade.
Answer:
Above data shows that every year India’s trade balance is deficit. It means imports are more than exports. The Government should formulate such policies that increases our export and reduces our imports.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 History Important Questions Chapter 3 India and European Colonialism Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th History Important Questions Chapter 3 India and European Colonialism

1A. Choose the correct alternative and rewrite the statement.

Question 1.
The ____________ established the East India Company in December 1600.
(a) British
(b) French
(c) Dutch
(d) Portuguese
Answer:
(a) British

Question 2.
The Cartaz was a ____________ which the Indian rulers had to get from the Portuguese.
(a) passbook
(b) license
(c) diary
(d) notebook
Answer:
(b) license

Question 3.
The main building of the British factory carried the ____________
(a) Union Jack
(b) American flag
(c) Indian flag
(d) Dutch flag
Answer:
(a) Union Jack

Question 4.
The fort named at Chennai was ‘Fort ____________’.
(a) St. Peter
(b) St. George
(c) St. Francis
(d) St. Xavier
Answer:
(b) St. George

Question 5.
____________was appointed as the Governor of Bombay.
(a) Abraham Shipman
(b) George Oxenden
(c) Jean Baptiste Colbert
(d) Charles II
Answer:
(a) Abraham Shipman

Question 6.
The Dutch established their first colony at ____________
(a) Surat
(b) Machilipatnam
(c) Bombay
(d) Chandranagar
Answer:
(b) Machilipatnam

Question 7.
The wars fought between the British and the French are known as ‘___________’.
(a) Bombay wars
(b) Madras wars
(c) Carnatic wars
(d) Calcutta wars
Answer:
(c) Carnatic Wars

Question 8.
The Dutch established their first factory at ____________
(a) Pondicherry
(b) Pulicat
(c) Port Nova
(d) Petapuli
Answer:
(d) Petapuli

1B. Find the incorrect pair from group ‘B’ and write the corrected one.

Question 1.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(a) Vasco da Gama	Seafarer
(b) Abraham Shipman	Governor of Bombay
(c) George Oxenden	Governor of Surat
(d) Jean Baptiste Colbert	Italian finance minister

Answer:
Jean Baptiste Colbert – French finance minister

2A. Write the names of historical places/persons/events.

Question 1.
License which the Indian rulers had to get from the Portuguese-
Answer:
Cartaz

Question 2.
Indian king who built his own navy-
Answer:
Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj

Question 3.
The company was established by the British in 1600-
Answer:
The East India company

Question 4.
The staff of factories was called-
Answer:
Factors

Question 5.
Flag of the British-
Answer:
Union Jack

Question 6.
Commander-in-chief of Mumbai-
Answer:
George Oxenden

Question 7.
The company formed by several Dutch companies-
Answer:
United East India

Question 8.
Port city mentioned in ‘Periplus’ of Erythrean sea-
Answer:
Machilipatnam (Mosalia)

Question 9.
Mughal emperor who granted permission to the French to open a factory in Surat-
Answer:
Aurangzeb

Question 10.
The main center of French operations-
Answer:
Pondicherry (Puducherry)

2B. Choose the correct reason from those given below and complete the sentence.

Question 1.
The Indian rulers had to get Cartaz (license) from the Portuguese ____________
(a) for sailing on the Indian Ocean
(b) for carrying on a trade
(c) for enjoyment
(d) for conducting naval exercises
Answer:
(a) for sailing on the Indian Ocean

Question 2.
The British built factories in India because ____________
(a) they wanted to store machines
(b) they wanted to store goods bought at low prices
(c) they wanted to employ Indians in these factories
(d) they wanted to accommodate the staff at these factories
Answer:
(b) they wanted to store goods bought at low prices

Question 3.
Charles II leased Mumbai to the East India Company because ____________
(a) the East India company wanted Mumbai
(b) Mumbai was too far away to administer
(c) the expenditure for its maintenance exceeded the income earned from it
(d) the East India Company was a rich company
Answer:
(c) the expenditure for its maintenance exceeded the income earned from it

Question 4.
A British mint was established in Mumbai because ____________
(a) Mumbai was an ideal place for setting up a mint
(b) the British could keep an eye on the mint
(c) the British had competition from other European powers
(d) this encouraged merchants and artisans to come and settle down in Mumbai
Answer:
(d) this encouraged merchants and artisans to come and settle down in Mumbai

3. Complete the following concept map.

Question 1.

Office Holders	Office Holders
Vice-rei and Capitaon-i-Jaral	…………………………
……………………………	Archbishop
Chancellor	…………………………
……………………………	Captain

Answer:

Office Holders	Office Holders
Vice-rei and Capitaon-i-Jaral	Viceroy and General of the army
Arcebispo	Archbishop
Chancellor	Judge
Capitaon	Captain

Question 2.

Answer:

4A. Write short notes.

Question 1.
Cartaz
Answer:
The Cartaz was a license issued by the Portuguese to the Indian rulers for sailing on the Indian Ocean when they established firm control on the Indian Ocean. It usually carried details like the name of the vessel (ship), the name of the captain of the ship, port of departure and arrival, the list of weaponry on the ship loaded for the purpose of self-defense, etc.

Question 2.
Portuguese Trade
Answer:
The king of Calicut wrote to the King of Portugal in a letter sent with Vasco da Gama “Our state is rich in spices like cloves, ginger, black pepper, and precious stones. We expect you to pay us in gold, silver, corals in exchange for our spices and precious stones”. Vasco da Gama sold the commodities in Portugal, which he carried from India. He could earn a huge amount of money in that trade which was sixty times more than the money he spent for his return journey to Portugal.

Question 3.
Factory
Answer:
The British established factories in India. For this, they used to acquire large plots of land. These plots were used to build warehouses, residential quarters, and offices. The main building of the factory carried the ‘Union Jack’. The staff of these factories was called ‘Factors’. The meals provided to the staff included bread, meat, rice, Khichadi of pulses and rice, pickles, etc. The company had created beautiful gardens for the benefit of the staff at Surat, Karwar, Machilipatnam, Petapuli, Chennai, and Mumbai.

Question 4.
Machilipatnam
Answer:
The Dutch established their first colony at Machilipatnam. This port city came into existence in the 3rd century B.C.E. It is also mentioned in ‘Periplus’ of the Erythrean Sea as ‘Mosalia’.

4B. Explain the following statements with reasons.

Question 1.
The British built ‘Factories’ in India.
Answer:
The British used to acquire large plots of land for their factories. These plots were used to build warehouses, residential quarters, and offices. The British needed a permanent place to store the goods at low prices. It was required of them to stay in India for a period of 9 to 13 months to carry out trading transactions. Hence they decided to build ‘Factories’ or ‘emporiums’ in India. The staff of these factories was called ‘factors’.

Question 2.
The ‘Carnatic Wars’ were fought between the British and the French.
Answer:
Pondicherry which was the main center of French operations was ruled by the Nawab of Karnataka. The members of the Nawab family were fighting amongst themselves for the throne. The British and the French started intervening in the matter which resulted in three battles between the British and the French from 1744 to 1763 C.E. known as the ‘Carnatic Wars’.

5. State your opinion.

Question 1.
Charles II leased Mumbai to the East India Company.
Answer:
Charles II had received the islands of Mumbai as a gift from the King of Portugal on his engagement to Princess Braganza of Portugal. He found it difficult to maintain the islands as the expenditure incurred on its maintenance exceeded the income earned from it. So, he leased it to the East India Company.

Question 2.
In 1602, several Dutch companies got together to form ‘United East India’.
Answer:
The Dutch government issued a license to the company to conduct trading with the eastern countries. The same license permitted them to appoint staff, establish factories, build forts, engage in battles against the eastern countries, and also sign treaties with them. Accordingly, the company appointed a Governor-General to take care of Indian affairs.

6. Answer the following questions in detail.

Question 1.
What rights were ‘the French East India Company’ given by the French King Louis XIV?
Answer:
The French East India Company was established in 1664 by Jean Baptiste Colbert. The company was given the authority to trade with eastern countries to maintain army and navy and also exemption from taxes. The company was also given the authority to enter war or treaty with the eastern rulers. In 1666, the company sent a contingent to the court of Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb and obtained permission to establish a factory in Surat.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 History Important Questions Chapter 7 Decolonisation to Political Integration of India Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th History Important Questions Chapter 7 Decolonisation to Political Integration of India

1A. Choose the correct alternative and rewrite the statement.

Question 1.
Decolonisation is the process of ending the colonial rule and handing over __________ to local people by colonialists.
(a) The political and administrative power
(b) The political and social power
(c) The social and cultural power
(d) The social and economical power
Answer:
(a) The political and administrative power

Question 2.
__________ handled the situation with great skill and tact.
(a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(b) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad
(c) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Dr. T.B. Kunha
Answer:
(a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Question 3.
In February 1948, __________ merged in India.
(a) Junagadh
(b) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(c) Hyderabad
(d) Kashmir
Answer:
(a) Junagadh

Question 4.
In __________ people wanted to merge in India and the Nawab wanted to merge in Pakistan.
(a) Saurashtra
(b) Kashmir
(c) Hyderabad
(d) Rajasthan
Answer:
(a) Saurashtra

Question 5.
The __________ passed a resolution in favour of Hyderabad’s merger in India.
(a) Hyderabad State Congress
(b) Marathwada Parishad
(c) Karnataka Parishad
(d) Andhra Parishad
Answer:
(a) Hyderabad State Congress

Question 6.
17th September 1948 the day of Hyderabad’s freedom is celebrated as the __________
(a) Marathwada Liberation Day
(b) Hyderabad Liberation Day
(c) Marathwada Labour Day
(d) Hyderabad Day
Answer:
(a) Marathwada Liberation Day

Question 7.
__________ was started by the Indian Army in Goa to free from the Portuguese.
(a) Operation Vijay
(b) Operation Thunder
(c) Operation Blue Star
(d) Operation Anti-Portuguese
Answer:
(a) Operation Vijay

Question 8.
According to __________ Jammu and Kashmir got special status.
(a) Article 370
(b) Article 470
(c) Article 315
(d) Article 365
Answer:
(a) Article 370

Question 9.
In 1939, posters with __________ slogans were posted all over Goa.
(a) Quit Goa
(b) Quit Portuguese
(c) Quit India
(d) Non-Cooperation Movement
Answer:
(a) Quit Goa

1B. Find the incorrect pair from group ‘B’ and write the corrected one.

Question 1.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(a) Hyderabad’s Organisation	Hyderabad State Congress
(b) Goa’s Organisation	Goa Congress Committee
(c) Puducherry Leader	Dr. T.B. Kunha
(d) Kashmir’s King	King Hari Singh

Answer:
Puducherry Leader – Subbayya

Question 2.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(a) Junagadh merged in India	February 1948
(b) Hyderabad merged in India	September 1948
(c) Dadra and Nagar Haveli merged in India	August 1955
(d) Goa became part of India	December 1961

Answer:
Dadra and Nagar Haveli merged in India – August 1954

Question 3.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(a) Sardar Patel	1st Prime Minister
(b) Swami Ramanand Tirth	Hyderabad Freedom Struggle
(c) Francis Mascarenhas	United Goan Front
(d) Keshavrao Jedhe	Goa Vimochan Sahayak Samiti

Answer:
Sardar Patel – Deputy Prime Minister

Question 4.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(a) Junagadh	February 1948 merged in India
(b) Hyderabad	September 1948 merged in India
(c) Dadra and Nagar Haveli	In 1961 Union Territory
(d) Jammu and Kashmir	Article 470

Answer:
Jammu and Kashmir – Article 370

2A. Write the names of historical places/persons/events.

Question 1.
Languages were spoken in Hyderabad –
Answer:
Telugu, Kannada, and Marathi

Question 2.
Various organisations in Hyderabad –
Answer:
Andhra Parishad, Maharashtra Parishad, and Karnataka Parishad

Question 3.
Head of the Razakar Organisation –
Answer:
Kasim Razvi

Question 4.
Name of the mission planned by the Indian Army in Goa –
Answer:
Operation Vijay

Question 5.
People of Puducherry got united under the leadership of –
Answer:
Subbayya

Question 6.
Name of the regions controlled by the French –
Answer:
Puducherry, Karaikal, Maho, Yanam, and Chandranagar

2B. Choose the correct reason from those given below and complete the sentence.

Question 1.
Junagadh merged in India because __________
(a) Nawab wanted to merge in Pakistan
(b) People of Junagadh wanted to merge in India
(c) People of Junagadh opposed Nawab’s decision
(d) All of above
Answer:
(d) All of above

Question 2.
Nizam had opposed the resolution passed by Hyderabad State Congress because __________
(a) He was willing to join Pakistan
(b) Fear of losing his hold over Hyderabad
(c) people were in favour of India
(d) All of above
Answer:
(d) All of above

Question 3.
Pakistan attacked on Kashmir because __________
(a) Pakistan wanted to capture Kashmir
(b) King Hari Singh wanted to join India
(c) People of Kashmir wanted to join India
(d) King Hari Singh neither wanted to join Pakistan nor India
Answer:
(a) Pakistan wanted to capture Kashmir

3A. Observe the map on textbook page 61 and answer the questions based on it.

Question 1.
Name the countries located at the northeast border of India.
Answer:
China, Nepal, Bhutan, and East Pakistan.

Question 2.
What is the theme of the map?
Answer:
Independent India, 15th August 1947.

Question 3.
Name of the island located nearby India.
Answer:
Andaman and Nicobar island.

Question 4.
Name of the regions located on the western coast of India.
Answer:
Diu, Daman, Mumbai, Goa, and Mahe.

Question 5.
Name of the regions located on the eastern coast of India.
Answer:
Kolkata, Yanam, Chennai, Puducherry, and Karaikal.

3B. Complete the following concept map.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

4A. Write short notes.

Question 1.
Junagadh
Answer:

• Junagadh was located in Gujarat.
• Nawab of Junagadh was planning to merge the state into Pakistan, but the people of Junagadh were in favour of India.
• After getting the people against him, he flew to Pakistan, in February 1948 Junagadh became part of Independent India.

Question 2.
Kashmir merged in India
Answer:

• After declaring British Policy regarding princely states, King Hari Sigh of Kashmir neither wanted to join Pakistan nor India.
• But Pakistan wanted to capture Kashmir.
• Soon Pakistan attacked Kashmir, King Hari Singh sought help from Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru.
• Indian army had already started recapturing parts of the land which had been captured by the Pakistani army.
• Meanwhile, UNO intervened in this matter and Pakistan and India had to stop the war. But by this decision, some parts of Kashmir remained occupied by Pakistan.
• Later on, King Hari Singh was ready to merge in India. Special provisions were passed and through this Kashmir got special status under Article 370.

Question 3.
Dadra and Nagar Haveli
Answer:

• Dadra and Nagar Haveli is located in Gujarat, near the Damanganga river, it was under the control of the Portuguese.
• Like other regions of India, the people of Dadra and Nagar Haveli also got freedom from the Portuguese.
• Many organisations like the United Front of Goans and Azad Gomantak Dal came together to fight against the Portuguese reign.
• These organisations and their branches started capturing the area under it. Many police stations and administration offices were attacked.
• The Portuguese army was called to control people. At the same time, the Government of India appointed Governor and signed the agreement.
• According to this treaty, Dadra and Nagar Haveli merged in India on 2nd August 1954 and in 1961, got status of ‘Union Territories.’

Question 4.
Puducherry
Answer:

• Similar to Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Puducherry was under French rule.
• Most of the east coast of India regions like Puducherry, Karaikal, Mahe, Yanam, and Chandrangar in West Bengal were under French rule as well.
• People and many political parties under the leadership of V. Subbayya came together to get rid of the French.
• It was a serious matter for the Government of India; hence they demanded that French Government return the Indian regions. In 1948, an agreement was signed by both governments for Puducherry
• In 1949, Chandranagar was merged in India.
• In 1954, the French government passed the draft, according to it all French ruling regions will merge in India. And in 1963 Puducherry was declared a ‘Union Territory’.

Question 5.
Goa
Answer:

• Goa was under Portuguese control. In 1928 ‘Goa Congress Committee was formed and it became the branch of the Indian National Congress.
• ‘Quit Goa’ slogans were posted all over Goa.
• Dr. Kunha played an important role in Goa. Dr. Lohia got arrested in Civil Disobedience Movement.
• Dr. Kunha was also arrested. After his release from jail, he started a newspaper namely ‘Azad Goa’ and ‘Swatantra Goa’.
• One of the groups of activists unfurled the Indian flag at the fort of Panaji.
• Many eminent people participated in Goa Liberation Movement. Mohan Ranade systematically began anti-Portuguese propaganda in Goa. He was arrested and kept in jail till 1972.
• ‘Maratha’, a newspaper, was trying to get support from Maharashtra for Goa. Soon Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru sent the Indian army to Goa for the mission called “Operation Vijay”.
• Within 48 hours Portuguese surrendered and Goa became a part of the Indian Republic. And 450 years rule of foreign power came to an end.

4B. Explain the following statements with reasons.

Question 1.
Kashmir got special Status under Article 370.
Answer:

• From the beginning, Kashmir received special attention from all.
• After British policy for the princely states, Kashmir King Hari Singh decided not to be a part of Pakistan and also not to be a part of India.
• However, when Pakistan Pakistan attacked Kashmir, King Hari Singh asked India to help and he consented to merge Kashmir in India and officially submitted an agreement.
• Indian Army was sent to save Kashmir.
• Later on, the constitution of Jammu and Kashmir was drafted and it became part of India and got special status under ‘Article 370.’

Question 2.
‘Operation Vijay’ was planned in Goa.
Answer:

• Goa was under Portuguese control. In 1928 ‘Goa Congress Committee was formed and it became the branch of the Indian National Congress.
• ‘Quit Goa’ slogans were posted all over Goa.
• Dr. Kunha played an important role in Goa. Dr. Lohia got arrested in Civil Disobedience Movement.
• Dr. Kunha was also arrested. After his release from jail, he started a newspaper namely ‘Azad Goa’ and ‘Swatantra Goa’.
• One of the groups of activists unfurled the Indian flag at the fort of Panaji.
• Many eminent people participated in Goa Liberation Movement. Mohan Ranade systematically began anti-Portuguese propaganda in Goa. He was arrested and kept in jail till 1972.
• ‘Maratha’, a newspaper, was trying to get support from Maharashtra for Goa. Soon Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru sent the Indian army to Goa for the mission called “Operation Vijay”.
• Within 48 hours Portuguese surrendered and Goa became a part of the Indian Republic. And 450 years rule of foreign power came to an end.

Question 3.
Dadra and Nagar Haveli were declared Union territories.
Answer:

• Dadra and Nagar Haveli is located in Gujarat, near the Damanganga river, it was under the control of the Portuguese.
• Like other regions of India, the people of Dadra and Nagar Haveli also got freedom from the Portuguese.
• Many organisations like the United Front of Goans and Azad Gomantak Dal came together to fight against the Portuguese reign.
• These organisations and their branches started capturing the area under it. Many police stations and administration offices were attacked.
• The Portuguese army was called to control people. At the same time, the Government of India appointed Governor and signed the agreement.
• According to this treaty, Dadra and Nagar Haveli merged in India on 2nd August 1954 and in 1961, got status of ‘Union Territories.’

5. State your opinion.

Question 1.
‘Operation Polo’ was started in Hyderabad.
Answer:

• Swami Ramanand Tirth with loyal workers was leading a political organization to free Hyderabad from the Nizam.
• Hyderabad State Congress passed a resolution that Hyderabad will merge in India and this was not liked by Nizam, he was willing to join Pakistan.
• People of Hyderabad however, wanted to merge with India. Kasim Razvi formed the ‘Razakar’ organisation against people who were fighting for democracy.
• In the end Indian Government launched a police campaign against Nizam, called ‘Operation Polo’.

Question 2.
The Indian Army was sent for Kashmir’s Protection.
Answer:

• Kashmir King Hari Singh decided not to be a part of Pakistan and also not to be a part of India.
• However, when Pakistan attacked Kashmir, King Hari Singh asked India to help and he consented to merge Kashmir in India and officially submitted an agreement.
• Indian Army was sent to save Kashmir.

Question 3.
Dadra and Nagar Haveli got status of Union Territory.
Answer:

• Dadra and Nagar Haveli is located in Gujarat, near the Damanganga river, it was under the control of the Portuguese.
• Like other regions of India, the people of Dadra and Nagar Haveli also got freedom from the Portuguese.
• Many organisations like the United Front of Goans and Azad Gomantak Dal came together to fight against the Portuguese reign.
• These organisations and their branches started capturing the area under it. Many police stations and administration offices were attacked.
• The Portuguese army was called to control people. At the same time, the Government of India appointed Governor and signed the agreement.
• According to this treaty, Dadra and Nagar Haveli merged in India on 2nd August 1954 and in 1961, got status of ‘Union Territories.’

Question 4.
Contribution of Dr. Lohia and Dr. T.B. Kunha in Goa’s Freedom Struggle.
Answer:

• Dr. Ram Manohar Lohia started a movement called Civil Disobedience.
• Dr. Lohia and Dr. T.B. Kunha were arrested and sent to jail.
• Dr. Kunha was sent to Portugal for 8 years imprisonment.
• After returning to India he started the newspapers, ‘Azad Goa’ and ‘Swatantra Goa’.
• Both these leaders have contributed a lot to the freedom of Goa.

6. Answer the following questions in detail.

Question 1.
(a) Hyderabad Freedom Struggle
(b) The Kashmir Issue
(c) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(d) Goa
(e) Puducherry
Answer:
(a) Hyderabad Freedom Struggle:
Hyderabad was under Nizam rule, it was one of the largest amongst princely states along with Telugu, Kannada, and Marathi regional sections. Various organisations were formed to fight against Nizam’s policy for their people.

• Nizam’s decision: Nizam was ruler and wanted to merge Hyderabad into Pakistan. The people of Hyderabad wanted democracy. It was not about one regional section. He put restrictions on the Civil and Political rights of his subjects to a great extent.
• Organisations: To fight against the suppressive policy of Nizam people of the state started various organisations namely Andhra Parishad in Telangana, Maharashtra Parishad in Marathwada, and Karnataka Parishad in Karnataka. Swami Ramananda Tirth formed an organisation with loyal workers called Hyderabad State Congress and gave direction for freedom.
• Operation Polo: People of Hyderabad wanted to merge in India. Kasim Razvi formed a ‘Razakar’ organisation against people. In the end, the Indian Government launched a police campaign against Nizam, called ‘Operation Polo’. In 1948 Nizam surrendered and Hyderabad merged in India.

(b) The Kashmir Issue:
From the beginning, Kashmir is special attention for all. After British policy for the princely states, Kashmir king Hari Singh decided not to be a part of Pakistan and also not be a part of India.

But Pakistan attacked Kashmir and King Hari Singh asked India to help and he consented to merge Kashmir in India and officially submitted an agreement. Indian Army was sent to save Kashmir. Later on, the constitution of Jammu and Kashmir was drafted and it became part of India and got special status under article 370.’

The intervention of UNO: In 1948, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru took this matter to UNO. It became an international issue. Even UNO could not persuade Pakistan to withdraw their troops from the territory of Kashmir occupied by them. However, then the National Conference Party decided on a plebiscite to solve the issue and to accede Kashmir to India.

(c) Dadra and Nagar Haveli:

• Dadra and Nagar Haveli is located in Gujarat, near the Damanganga river, it was under the control of the Portuguese.
• Like other regions of India, the people of Dadra and Nagar Haveli also got freedom from the Portuguese.
• Many organisations like the United Front of Goans and Azad Gomantak Dal came together to fight against the Portuguese reign.
• These organisations and their branches started capturing the area under it. Many police stations and administration offices were attacked.
• The Portuguese army was called to control people. At the same time, the Government of India appointed Governor and signed the agreement.
• According to this treaty, Dadra and Nagar Haveli merged in India on 2nd August 1954 and in 1961, got status of ‘Union Territories.’

(d) Goa:

• Goa was under Portuguese control. In 1928 ‘Goa Congress Committee was formed and it became the branch of the Indian National Congress.
• ‘Quit Goa’ slogans were posted all over Goa.
• Dr. Kunha played an important role in Goa. Dr. Lohia got arrested in Civil Disobedience Movement.
• Dr. Kunha was also arrested. After his release from jail, he started a newspaper namely ‘Azad Goa’ and ‘Swatantra Goa’.
• One of the groups of activists unfurled the Indian flag at the fort of Panaji.
• Many eminent people participated in Goa Liberation Movement. Mohan Ranade systematically began anti-Portuguese propaganda in Goa. He was arrested and kept in jail till 1972.
• ‘Maratha’, a newspaper, was trying to get support from Maharashtra for Goa. Soon Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru sent the Indian army to Goa for the mission called “Operation Vijay”.
• Within 48 hours Portuguese surrendered and Goa became a part of the Indian Republic. And 450 years rule of foreign power came to an end.

(e) Puducherry:

• Similar to Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Puducherry was under French rule.
• Most of the east coast of India regions like Puducherry, Karaikal, Mahe, Yanam, and Chandrangar in West Bengal were under French rule as well.
• People and many political parties under the leadership of V. Subbayya came together to get rid of the French.
• It was a serious matter for the Government of India; hence they demanded that French Government return the Indian regions. In 1948, an agreement was signed by both governments for Puducherry
• In 1949, Chandranagar was merged in India.
• In 1954, the French government passed the draft, according to it all French ruling regions will merge in India. And in 1963 Puducherry was declared a ‘Union Territory’.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Economics Important Questions Chapter 3B Elasticity of Demand Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Economics Important Questions Chapter 3B Elasticity of Demand

1.[A] Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
When the percentage change in quantity demanded is less than the percentage change in price, the demand curve is ……………..
(a) flatter
(b) steeper
(c) rectangular
(d) vertical
Answer:
(b) steeper

Question 2.
When changes in price does not affect demand at all, it is called as ……………..
(a) unitary elastic
(b) perfectly inelastic
(c) relatively elastic
(d) perfectly elastic
Answer:
(b) perfectly inelastic

Question 3.
When slight change in price brings infinite change in demand, then ……………..
(a) Ed = 0
(b) Ed = ∞
(c) Ed <1 (d) Ed > 1
Answer:
(b) Ed = ∞

Question 4.
When percentage change in quantity demanded is equal to changes in price, the demand curve is …………
(a) steeper
(b) flatter
(c) rectangular hyperbola
(d) vertical
Answer:
(c) rectangular hyperbola

Question 5.
Demand for salt is …………….
(a) elastic
(b) inelastic
(c) perfectly elastic
(d) perfectly inelastic
Answer:
(d) perfectly inelastic

Question 6.
Demand for Medicine is ……………
(a) elastic
(b) inelastic
(c) relatively elastic
(d) relatively inelastic
Answer:
(d) relatively inelastic

Question 7.
Demand for cosmetics is ……………..
(a) relatively elastic
(b) relatively inelastic
(c) perfectly elastic
(d) perfectly inelastic
Answer:
(a) relatively elastic

Question 8.
Demand for air conditions is ………….
(a) elastic
(b) inelastic
(c) vertical
(d) horizontal
Answer:
(a) elastic

Question 9.
Demand for essential commodities in life is …………..
(a) elastic demand
(b) relatively inelastic
(c) perfectly elastic
(d) perfectly inelastic
Answer:
(b) relatively inelastic

Question 10.
Demand for school uniform is……………..
(a) relatively elastic
(b) relatively inelastic
(c) perfectly elastic
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) relatively inelastic

Question 11.
Demand for not habituated goods is ………….. demand.
(a) relatively inelastic
(b) perfectly inelastic
(c) perfectly elastic
(d) relatively inelastic
Answer:
(c) perfectly elastic

Question 12.
Specific uses of a commodity demand is …………………..
(a) relatively elastic
(b) relatively inelastic
(c) perfectly elastic
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) relatively inelastic

Question 13.
In case of inferior goods the income elasticity of demand is ………………..
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) infinite
(d) zero
Answer:
(b) negative

Question 14.
In case of necessary goods the income elasticity of demand is ………………..
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) infinite
(d) zero
Answer:
(d) zero

Question 15.
In case of substitute goods the cross elasticity of demand is ………………..
(a) negative
(b) positive
(c) zero
(d) infinite
Answer:
(b) positive

(B) Complete the Correlation . (1 mark each)

(1) Demand for pins : Inelastic :: Demand for perfume : ……………….
(2) Demand for specialised labour : ………………. :: Demand for luxury goods : Relatively Elastic
(3) The demand for durable goods : ………………. :: Demand for perishable goods : inelastic
(4) Normal goods the income elasticity of demand is : Positive :: Complementary goods the cross elasticity of demand is : ……………….
(5) After devaluation exports become : ………………. :: Devaluation succeeds when exports have elastic demand
(6) Demand for luxury goods : Elastic :: Demand for food grain : ……………….
(7) Rectangular hyperbola curve : Ed = 1 :: Steeper demand curve : ……………….
(8) Total outlay remains same : Ed = 1 :: Total outlay increases : ……………….
(9) Total outlay decreases : Ed < 1:: Total outlay remains same : ……………….
Answer:

1. Elastic
2. Inelastic
3. Relatively elastic
4. Negative
5. Cheaper
6. inelastic
7. Ed < 1
8. Ed > 1
9. Ed = 1

(C) Give economic terms.

1. Elasticity resulting from changes in price does not affect demand at all.
2. Product of price and quantity demanded.
3. Elasticity resulting from changes in demand is more than change in price.
4. Elasticity of demand is measured with the following formula:
   \(\frac { Lower segment of demand curve below a given point }{ Upper segment of demand curve above a given point }\)
5. A fall in the price of mobile handsets may lead to rise in the demand for sim cards.

Answer:

1. Perfectly inelastic
2. Total Expenditure
3. Relatively elastic
4. Point I Geometric method
5. Complementary goods

[D] Find the odd word out.

1. Types of price elasticity of demand:
   Perfectly elastic demand, Perfectly inelastic demand, Relatively inelastic demand, Cross elasticity of demand.
2. Types of elasticity of demand:
   Total outlay, Cross elasticity, Income elasticity, Price elasticity.
3. Methods of measuring price elasticity of demand:
   Ratio method, Geometric method, Total outlay method, Unitary elastic demand.
4. Types of Income Elasticity of demand:
   Positive, Negative, Cross, Zero
5. Examples of Substitute Goods:
   Coca-cola, Pepsi, Thumsup, Fanta
6. Examples of Complementary Goods:
   Tea – Sugar, Car – Petrol, Tea – Coffee

Answers:

1. Cross elasticity of demand
2. Total outlay
3. Unitary elastic demand
4. Cross
5. Fanta
6. Tea – Coffee

(E) Complete the following statements.

(1) Price multiplied by quantity = …………………
(2) Demand for luxuries is ………………… demand.
(3) The life saving medicines have ………………… demand.
(4) A unitary elastic demand curve is a …………………
(5) The demand for necessaries is …………………
(6) The demand for durable goods tends to be …………………
(7) Degree of responsiveness of a change in quantity demanded to a change in the income is called as …………………
(8) Normal goods for which demand increases with increases in income …………………
(9) Inferior goods for which demand decreases with increase in income of consumer …………………
(10) Necessary goods for which demand remain constant with increase in income of the consumer …………………
(11) explained the concept of elasticity ………………… of demand.
(12) Demand for perishable goods is …………………
Answers:

1. Total outlay
2. elastic
3. inelastic
4. rectangular hyperbola
5. inelastic
6. elastic
7. income elasticity
8. positive income elasticity
9. negative income elasticity
10. zero income elasticity
11. Prof. Alfred Marshall
12. inelastic

(F) Choose the wrong pair

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. Car and petrol	Complementary goods
2. Point method	Geometric method
3. Necessaries	Inelastic demand
4. Unitary elastic	Steeper curve

Answer:
Wrong pair : Unitary elastic – Steeper curve

II.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. Inelastic demand	Steep slope of demand curve
2. BMW Car	Inelastic demand
3. Income elasticity	Responsiveness of quantity demanded of a commodity to change in income
4. Elastic demand	Flatter slope of demand curve

Answer:
Wrong pair: BMW Car – Inelastic demand

(G) Assertion and Reasoning

Question 1.
Assertion (A) Degree of Price Elasticity is less than one in case of relatively inelastic demand.
Reasoning (R) – Change in demand is less than the change in price.
(i) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(ii) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(i) (A) is true but (R) is false.

Question 2.
Assertion (A) – Substitute goods have positive elasticity.
Reasoning (R) – Increase in price of tea leads to increase in demand of coffee.
(i) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(ii) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 3.
Assertion (A) – Cross elasticity of non – related goods is more than one.
Reasoning (R) – Tea and books are the examples of non-related goods.
(i) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(ii) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(ii) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Question 4.
Assertion (A) – Perfectly Elastic demand is infinite.
Reasoning (R) – 10 % fall in price leads to 200% increase in demand.
(i) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(ii) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 5.
Assertion (A) – Unitary elastic demand has rectangular hyberbola curve.
Reasoning (R) – 50% decrease in price, brings 50% increase in demand of a commodity.
(i) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(ii) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
(iii) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)’.

(H) Choose the correct pair

I.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. Salt	(a) Demand  curve parallel to ‘X’ axis
2. Income elasticity	(b) Flatter in shape
3. Perfectly elastic demand	(c) Related goods
4. Relatively elastic demand	(d) Inelastic demand
5. Cross elasticity	(e) Change in demand due to change in income

Answer:
(1) – (d), (2) – (e), (3) – (a), (4) – (b), (5)-(c).

II.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. Essential commodities	(a) flatter in shape
2. Unitary elastic demand	(b) change in income
3. Elasticity of demand	(c) Ed = 1
4. Relatively elastic demand	(d) Prof. Alfred Marshall
5. Income Elasticity	(e) Inelastic demand

Answer:
(1) – (e), (2) – (c), (3) – (d), (4) – (a), (5)-(b).

2. (B) Distinguish between :

Question 1.
Income Elasticity and Cross Elasticity.
Answer:
Income Elasticity:

1. Income elasticity of demand is the proportionate change in quantity demanded of a commodity to a given change in the consumer’s income.
2. Income Elasticity of demand are of three types –
   • Positive Income Elasticity is found in case of Normal Goods.
   • Negative Income Elasticity for inferior goods cheap bread, rice, etc.
   • Zero Income Elasticity.

Cross Elasticity:

1. Cross Elasticity of demand is the proportionate change in the quantity demanded of a commodity to a given change in the price of substitute or complementary goods.
2. Cross Elasticity of demand are of three types –
   • Positive Cross Elasticity is found in case of substitute goods like tea and coffee.
   • Negative Cross Elasticity is seen in case of Complementary Goods.
   • Zero Cross Elasticity in case of unrelated goods like cup and book.

Question 2.
Positive Income Elasticity and Negative Income Elasticity.
Answer:
Positive Income Elasticity

1. When a change in income brings about change in demand in the same direction the Income Elasticity of demand is positive.
2. When income rises demand also rises and fall in income brings a fall in demand.
3. In case of normal goods, the Income Elasticity is positive.
4. The slope of  Income Curve is positive. It slopes upward indicating that as income rises the demand also rises
   

Negative Income Elasticity:

1. When a change in income of the consumer brings about a change in demand of the commodity in the opposite direction then Income Elasticity is negative.
2. When income increases the demand decreases and when income decreases demand increases.
3. In case of inferior goods, the Income Elasticity is negative.
4. The slope of the Income Curve is negative. It slopes downward indicating that as income increases, demand decreases.
   

Question 3.
Perfectly Inelastic Demand and Perfectly Elastic Demand.
Answer:
Perfectly Inelastic Demand:

1. When a change in price brings no change in quantity demanded, then demand is said to be Perfectly Inelastic demand.
2. The numerical co-efficient is zero (e = 0).
3. The demand curve is vertical straight line parallel to Y-axis.
   

Perfectly Elastic Demand:

1. When a small change in price brings infinite change in the quantity demanded, then demand is said to be Perfectly Elastic demand.
2. The numerical co-efficient is infinity (e = ∞).
3. The demand curve is a horizontal straight line parallel to X-axis.
   

Question 6.
Price Elasticity and Income Elasticity.
Answer:
Price Elasticity:

1. Price Elasticity of demand refers to the degree of responsiveness of quantity demanded of a commodity to given change in price.
2. Symbolically:
   
3. There is inverse relation between price and demand.
4. Price Elasticity of demand are of five type :
   1. Relatively elastic demand
   2. Relatively inelastic demand
   3. Unitary elastic demand
   4. Perfectly elastic demand
   5. erfectly inelastic demand

Income Elasticity:

1. Income elasticity of demand refers, to the degree of responsiveness of quantity demanded of the commodity to a given change in income.
2. Symbolically :
   
3. There is direct relation between Income and demand.
4. Income elasticity of demand are of three types:
   • Positive Income elasticity
   • Negative Income elasticity
   • Zero Income elasticity

Question 7.
Perfectly Inelastic Demand and Relatively Inelastic Demand.
Answer:
Perfectly Inelastic Demand:

1. When a change in price brings no change in quantity demanded then, demand is said to be Perfectly Inelastic demand.
2. The numerical co-efficient is zero (e = 0).
3. The slope of the demand curve is straight line parallel to Y-axis.
   
4. Example : life saving drugs, salt, etc

Relatively Inelastic Demand:

1. When percentage change in quantity demanded is less than percentage change in price then, demand is said to be Relatively Inelastic demand.
2. The numerical co-efficient is less than one (e < 1).
3. The slope of the demand curve is steeper.
   
4. Example: food grains

Question 8.
Perfectly Elastic Demand and Relatively Elastic Demand.
Answer:
Perfectly Elastic Demand:

1. When with a small change in price brings infinite change in the quantity then it is said to be Perfectly Elastic demand.
2. The numerical co-efficient is infinity (e = ∞).
3. The demand curve is a horizontal straight line parallel to X-axis.
   

Relatively Elastic Demand :

1. When percentage change in quantity demanded is greater than the percentage change in price demand then it is said to be Relatively Elastic demand.
2. The numerical co-efficient is greater than one (e > 1)
3. The demand curve slope is flatter.
   

Question 9.
Percentage Method and Total Outlay Method.
Answer:
Percentage Method:

1. According to this method elasticity of demand is equal to the ratio of percentage change in the quantity demanded to percentage change in the price.
2. (1) If the result in one, the Elasticity is unitary.
   (2) If the result is > 1 the demand is relatively elastic and
   (3) If the result is < 1 then demand is relatively Inelastic.

Total Outlay Method:

1. Under this method Elasticity is measured by observing the changes in outlay in response to change in price.
2. Elasticity of demand is measured by the kind of changes in total expenditure.
   • When with increase or decrease in price, the outlay remain constant the elasticity is equal to one.
   • If outlay and price are inversely related then demand is relatively elastic.
   • If outlay and price are directly related then demand is relatively Inelastic.

3. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Explain the concept of Elasticity of Demand?
Answer:
The concept of Price Elasticity was developed by great neo-classical economist Dr. Alfred Marshall in the year 1890.

According to Dr. Alfred Marshall, “The elasticity or responsiveness of demand in a market is great or small, according to the amount demanded which increases much or little for a given fall in price, and diminishes much or little for a given rise in price. ”
Elasticity of demand in fact refers to the degree of responsiveness of the quantity demanded of a commodity to change in the variable on which demand depends.

Question 2.
Which are the types of Elasticity of Demand.
Answer:
Types of Elasticity of Demand :

1. Price Elasticity of Demand
2. Income Elasticity of Demand
3. Cross Elasticity of Demand

1. Price Elasticity of Demand : It is a ratio of proportionate change in the quantity demanded of a commodity to a given proportionate change in its price.
ed = \(\frac { Percentage change in Quantity Demanded }{ Percentage change in Price }\)
There are 5 types of Price Elasticity of demand i.e.

1. Perfectly Elastic demand (Ed = ∞)
2. Perfectly Inelastic demand (Ed = 0)
3. Unitary Elastic demand (Ed = 1)
4. Relatively Elastic demand (Ed > 1)
5. Relatively Inelastic demand (Ed < 1)

2. Income Elasticity of demand : It refers to the degree of responsiveness of a change in the quantity demanded to a change in the income only, other factors including price remaining unchanged.
\(\frac { Percentage change in Quantity Demanded }{ Percentage change in Income }\)
There are 3 types of Income elasticity i.e.:

1. Positive Income elasticity
2. Negative Income elasticity
3. Zero Income elasticity

3. Cross Elasticity of Demand :
It refers to a change in quantity demanded of one commodity due to a change in the price of other commodity i.e. complementary goods or substitute goods.
\(\frac { of commodity ‘X’ }{ Percentage change in Price of commodity ‘Y’ }\)

Cross elasticity of demand are of 3 types i.e.

1. Positive Cross elasticity
2. Negative Cross elasticity
3. Zero Cross elasticity

Question 3.
Explain any two types of price elasticity of demand.
Answer:
Types of price elasticity of demand :
(a) Perfectly Elastic Demand (Ed = ∞) :

When a change in price leads to infinite change in quantity demanded of a commodity it is called as perfectly elastic demand. It is an extreme case, which is very rare. It is a theoretical concept not found in real life.

In the diagram demand curve ‘DD’ is horizontal straight line parallel to X-axis,

(b) Perfectly Inelastic Demand (Ed = 0) : When a change in price has no effect on the quantity demanded of that commodity then it is called Perfectly Inelastic Demand. The demand does not respond to the change in price at all. For instance, if price changes by 10% and the demand does not change at all then e = 0.

In this case the numerical coefficient value is zero. It is also extreme case which rarely exists. Salt and life saving medicine are a ) few example of Perfectly Inelastic Demand as they are absolute necessity. The demand ) curve ‘DD’ is a vertical straight line parallel to Y-axis.

Question 4.
Explain the types of Income Elasticity.
Answer:
(a) Positive Income Elasticity (Normal goods)
(b) Negative Income Elasticity (Inferior goods
(c) Zero Income Elasticity

(a) Positive Income Elasticity : In case of normal goods the income elasticity of demand is positive. When a change in income brings about a change in demand in same direction then income elasticity is positive. There is a direct relationship between income and quantity demanded. Normal goods which include necessities, comforts and luxuries have positive Income Elasticity.

(b) Negative Income Elasticity : Inferior goods have a negative income elasticity. As income increases the demand for inferior goods fall. There is an inverse relation between income and quantity demanded of inferior commodity. Inferior goods are substituted by superior goods.

(c) Zero Income Elasticity : When change in income does not have any effect on the demand for a commodity then the income elasticity is Zero – for E.g. goods like salt, pins etc.

Question 5.
Explain the types of Cross Elasticity of Demand.
Answer:
(a) Positive Cross Elasticity (Substitutes)
(b) Negative Cross Elasticity (Complementary)
(c) Zero Cross Elasticity (Unrelated goods)

(a) Positive Cross Elasticity : Positive cross elasticity of demand takes place in the case of substitute such as tea and coffee, pepsi and coke. If the price of coffee rises it will lead to an increase in the demand for tea. Similarly a fall in price of coffee will cause a decrease in demand for tea. Thus price and demand move in the same direction in case of substitute.

(b) Negative Cross Elasticity : Negative cross elasticity takes place in the case of complementary goods. It takes place when a change in the price of (petrol) one complementary good brings about a change in demand for (car) another commodity in the opposite direction. For e.g. a rise in petrol prices may lead to fall in demand for car and vice-versa.

(c) Zero Cross Elasticity: Zero cross elasticity of demand takes place in case of unrelated goods. For instance a rise or fall in price of car may not affect the demand for books.

Question 6.
Explain the importance of the concept of Elasticity of Demand.
Or
Give the significance of Price elasticity of demand.
Answer:
Importance of Concept of Elasticity of Demand:
1. To a Producer : It helps the producer to decide the price for his product. If the demand for his product is relatively inelastic, he will fix higher price and vice versa.

2. To Government : In order to raise additional revenue by means of new taxes like excise duties on commodities Govt, has to keep in mind the elasticity of demand for a commodity. So a high tax can be imposed on commodities like petrol or cigarettes, the demand for which is relatively inelastic.

3. In International Trade : If the foreign demand for exportable products of a country is relatively elastic, its export will rise much after a slight reduction in their prices. But if foreign demand is relatively inelastic, the exporters can raise their prices without much fall in exports.

4. Trade Union : Knowledge of elasticity of demand can help the trade union in wage bargaining. They can ask the employees { to pay higher wages to the workers by changing the price policy of their product. If the demand for the product produced by them is inelastic then the trade unionist may suggest the employer to raise the price, so as to earn higher profit. Which then can be used to pay higher wages.

5. Public Utility Services : It is the Government who takes the decision to distribute certain essential goods and services, which have inelastic demand. For eg. Indian Railways, bank service, water supply, etc. If such services are left to private sector they will exploit the consumers by charging high prices.

6. Devaluation : Devaluation measure is adopted by the government to promote exports and correct deficit in the balance of payment. Devaluation makes our goods cheaper in the foreign market. However, devaluation is successful only if exports have elastic demand.

7. Factor Pricing: It is helpful in determining the prices of various factors of production like rent for land, wages or salary for labour, interest for capital, etc.

4. State with reasons whether you agtae or disagree with the following statements;

Question 1.
Various factors influence elasticity of demand.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.

• Nature of Commodity : By nature, commodities are classified as necessaries, comforts and luxuries. Normally demand for necessaries like food grains are relatively inelastic and for comforts and luxuries like diamond, perfumes, etc is relatively elastic.
• Availability of Substitutes : The larger the number of substitutes available for a commodity, the greater would be the elasticity. Demand for products like soap, soft drinks, detergents, tooth paste, etc. have many substitute so demand is elastic, ‘However, salt, garlic, onions have no substitute so demand is inelastic.
• Durability of the Commodity : The demand for durable goods like T.V., car, fridge, etc is relatively inelastic in the short run and elastic in the long run. Whereas the demand for perishable goods is relatively inelastic.
• Uses of Commodity : Single use commodities have less elastic demand and multi-use goods like coal, electricity, sugar, etc. have relatively elastic demand.
• Range of Price : The demand for commodities which are highly priced and will have a inelastic demand like AC, car, etc. Even very low priced goods have inelastic demand.
• Consumer’s Income : Generally if income is very high, the demand for over allcommodities tends to be relatively inelastic. The demand pattern of the rich people is rarely affected even when there is significant price change.

Question 2.
The price elasticity of demand depends only on the nature of commodity.
Answer:

• Nature of Commodity : By nature, commodities are classified as necessaries, comforts and luxuries. Normally demand for necessaries like food grains are relatively inelastic and for comforts and luxuries like diamond, perfumes, etc is relatively elastic.
• Availability of Substitutes : The larger the number of substitutes available for a commodity, the greater would be the elasticity. Demand for products like soap, soft drinks, detergents, tooth paste, etc. have many substitute so demand is elastic, ‘However, salt, garlic, onions have no substitute so demand is inelastic.
• Durability of the Commodity : The demand for durable goods like T.V., car, fridge, etc is relatively inelastic in the short run and elastic in the long run. Whereas the demand for perishable goods is relatively inelastic.
• Uses of Commodity : Single use commodities have less elastic demand and multi-use goods like coal, electricity, sugar, etc. have relatively elastic demand.
• Range of Price : The demand for commodities which are highly priced and will have a inelastic demand like AC, car, etc. Even very low priced goods have inelastic demand.
• Consumer’s Income : Generally if income is very high, the demand for over allcommodities tends to be relatively inelastic. The demand pattern of the rich people is rarely affected even when there is significant price change.

Question 3.
The Income Elasticity of Demand is only positive.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with this statement, s Income Elasticity of demand is not only positive but can also be negative or zero.

• Negative Income Elasticity : Inferior goods have a negative income elasticity. As income increases the demand for inferior goods fall. There is an inverse relation s between income and quantity demanded of inferior commodity. Inferior goods are substituted by superior goods.
• Zero Income Elasticity : When change in income does not have any effect on the demand for a commodity then the income elasticity is Zero – for E.g. goods like salt, pins etc.

Question 4.
Elasticity of Demand cannot be measured.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with this statement,
Elasticity of demand can be measured in 3 methods i.e. Percentage method, Point method or Total Outlay method.

(i) Percentage Method : This method is also known as Arithmetic Method. In this method we compare the percentage of change in demand with percentage of change in price. When we divide the percentage of change in demand by the percentage of change in price, we get Elasticity of demand.

By applying the above formula we can calculate and find the type of elasticity. If the result is one, then elasticity is unitary, if it is more than one, then it is relatively elastic and if it is less than one, it is relatively inelastic.
Ed = \(\frac { Percentage change in Quantity demanded }{ Percentage change in Price }\)

(ii) Point Method : In this method we can find elasticity of demand at a point on a given demand curve by using the following formula –
Ed = \(\frac { Lower segment of the demand curve }{ Upper segment of the demand curve }\)

(iii) Total Outlay Method : According to this method, elasticity of demand is measured on the basis of expenditure incurred by consumer when the price of a commodity changes.
Total outlay can be calculated by multiplying the price with the quantity demanded i.e. Total Outlay = Price x Quantity Demanded

5. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
What is Elasticity of demand? Explain the types of Elasticity of Demand.
Answer:

The concept of Price Elasticity was developed by great neo-classical economist Dr. Alfred Marshall in the year 1890.

According to Dr. Alfred Marshall, “The elasticity or responsiveness of demand in a market is great or small, according to the amount demanded which increases much or little for a given fall in price, and diminishes much or little for a given rise in price. ”
Elasticity of demand in fact refers to the degree of responsiveness of the quantity demanded of a commodity to change in the variable on which demand depends.

Types of Elasticity of Demand :

1. Price Elasticity of Demand
2. Income Elasticity of Demand
3. Cross Elasticity of Demand

1. Price Elasticity of Demand : It is a ratio of proportionate change in the quantity demanded of a commodity to a given proportionate change in its price.
ed = \(\frac { Percentage change in Quantity Demanded }{ Percentage change in Price }\)
There are 5 types of Price Elasticity of demand i.e.

1. Perfectly Elastic demand (Ed = ∞)
2. Perfectly Inelastic demand (Ed = 0)
3. Unitary Elastic demand (Ed = 1)
4. Relatively Elastic demand (Ed > 1)
5. Relatively Inelastic demand (Ed < 1)

2. Income Elasticity of demand : It refers to the degree of responsiveness of a change in the quantity demanded to a change in the income only, other factors including price remaining unchanged.
\(\frac { Percentage change in Quantity Demanded }{ Percentage change in Income }\)
There are 3 types of Income elasticity i.e.:

1. Positive Income elasticity
2. Negative Income elasticity
3. Zero Income elasticity

3. Cross Elasticity of Demand :
It refers to a change in quantity demanded of one commodity due to a change in the price of other commodity i.e. complementary goods or substitute goods.
Percentage change in Quantity demanded
\(\frac { of commodity ‘X’ }{ Percentage change in Price of commodity ‘Y’ }\)

Cross elasticity of demand are of 3 types i.e.

1. Positive Cross elasticity
2. Negative Cross elasticity
3. Zero Cross elasticity

Question 2.
What is Price Elasticity of Demand? Explain the types of Price Elasticity of Demand?
Answer:
(A) Price Elasticity of Demand :
Price Elasticity of demand refers to the degree of responsiveness of quantity demanded of a commodity to the change in its price, other factors remaining constant. According to Marshall Price Elasticity of Demand (Ed) is the ratio of proportionate change in quantity demanded of a commodity to a \ given proportionate change in its price.

∆ (delta) = Stands for change
∆Q = Change in Quantity demanded (New Qty. – Old Qty. demanded)
AP = Change in Price (New price – Old price)
P & Q = Original Price and Original Quantity Demanded

Using this formula price Elasticity of demand can be calculated for any set of data of demand and price. The value obtained may range from zero to infinity. Since quantity demanded has a negative relationship with price, the elasticity of demand so obtained will have negative sign, we ignore the negative sign altogether.

(B) Types of price elasticity of demand :
Answer:
Types of price elasticity of demand :
(a) Perfectly Elastic Demand (Ed = ∞) :
When a change in price leads to infinite change in quantity demanded of a commodity it is called as perfectly elastic demand. It is an extreme case, which is very rare. It is a theoretical concept not found in real life.

In the diagram demand curve ‘DD’ is horizontal straight line parallel to X-axis,

(b) Perfectly Inelastic Demand (Ed = 0) : When a change in price has no effect on the quantity demanded of that commodity then it is called Perfectly Inelastic Demand. The demand does not respond to the change in price at all. For instance, if price changes by 10% and the demand does not change at all then e = 0.

In this case the numerical coefficient value is zero. It is also extreme case which rarely exists. Salt and life saving medicine are a ) few example of Perfectly Inelastic Demand as they are absolute necessity. The demand ) curve ‘DD’ is a vertical straight line parallel to Y-axis.

(c) Relatively Elastic Demand (Ed > 1):
When the proportionate or percentage change in the quantity demanded of a commodity is greater than proportionate or percentage change in its price then, demand is said to the relatively elastic.
Here the amount demanded of a commodity rises much after a slight fall in its price. For instance a 5% fall in price will bring a 10% rise in demand for that commodity.

The numerical coefficient value is greater than one and lies between 1 and ∞.

Example : Luxury goods BMW Car, air – conditioners, LED TV etc. will have relatively elastic demand. In the diagram the demand curve DD has a flatter slope. It slopes gradually.

(d) Relatively Inelastic Demand (Ed < 1):
When the proportionate or percentage change in quantity demanded of a commodity is less than proportionate or percentage change in its price then demand is said to be relatively inelastic. Here the degree of responsiveness of demand is very little to a given change in its price. For instance, if price falls by 10% then quantity demanded may rise by say 5%.

The numerical coefficient value is less than one and lies between 0 and 1.
Example : The demand for necessary goods like wheat, rice, sugar etc. is said to be relatively inelastic as the demand is less responsive to a given change in price. In the diagram the demand curve DD has a rapid and steep slope.

(e) Unitary Elastic Demand (Ed = 1) :
When proportionate or percentage change in quantity demanded is exactly equal to proportionate or percentage change in price, then demand is said to be unitary elastic. For instance a 10% fall in price of a commodity leads to 10% rise in demand of that commodity.

In this case the demand curve slopes downwards uniformly. This demand curve is called a rectangular hyperbola as shown in the figure. The unity elasticity of demand is a dividing line to distinguish between relatively elastic demand and relatively inelastic demand.

Question 3.
Explain the different method of measuring Price Elasticity of Demand.
Answer:
(A) Percentage Method or Ratio Method : This method is also known as Arithmetic Method. In this method} we compare the percentage of change in demand with percentage of change in price. When we divide the percentage of change in demand by the percentage of change in price, we get Elasticity of demand.

ΔQ = Change in demand (Original – new ( quantity)
ΔP = Change in price (Original – new price)
Q = Original quantity
P = Original price
By applying the above formula we can ( calculate and find the type of elasticity. If the ) result is one, then elasticity is unitary. If it

[ ΔQ (Change in Qty) = (10 -14) = -4, Original Qty = 10, ΔP (Change in price) = (6 – 8) = -2, Original price = 8 ]
= \(\frac{-4}{-2} \times \frac{8}{10}=\frac{8}{5}\)
= 1.6 (e > 1)
So the commodity has Relatively Elastic Demand e > 1.
If the Answer was < 1 then it would have been relatively inelastic.

(B) Total Outlay Method : This method was introduced by Dr. Alfred Marshall. The limitation of this method is that in this method unlike ratio method, the exact numerical value of the elasticity of demand cannot be determined. According, to this method, the elasticity of demand is measured on the basis of expenditure incurred by consumer when the price of a commodity changes.

Total outlay or total expenditure can be calculated by multiplying the price with the quantity demanded (Price x Quantity demand = Total Expenditure). Depending upon the kind of change in total outlay, whether it increases, or decreases, or remain constant with the change in price we will be able to decide the type of elasticity. This can be explained with the following example:-

(1) If the total outlay remains the same with a rise or fall in price then the demand is said to be unitary (e = 1) elastic.
(2) If the total outlay decreases with a rise in price and increases with a fall in price, the elasticity of demand is greater than one or Relatively Elastic e > 1.
(3) If the total outlay increases with a rise in price and decreases with a fall in price, then elasticity is less than one or relatively inelastic, e < 1.

(C) Point Method : In this method given by Prof. Marshall we will be able to find out elasticity at a point on a given demand curve.
To find out elasticity at any given point ‘P on a linear demand curve DD (Straight Line) extend the demand curve towards Y axis and X axis to meet at point A and B respectively as shown in the diagram. Then measure the distance of segment PA and segment PB. Then divide the distance of lower segment PB by upper segment PA.
Point Elasticity of demand = \(\frac { Lower segment of the demand curve }{ Upper segment of the demand curve }\)

Suppose the distance of lower segment PB is 6 cm and upper segment PA is 4 cm.
\(\frac{6}{4}=\frac{\mathrm{PB}}{\mathrm{PA}}\) = 1.5
Then Elasticity at point “P” is 1.5 which is e > 1. So demand is Relatively Elastic. On a given linear demand curve elasticity of demand at different point is different as shown in the diagram.
Now to find elasticity of demand on a non-linear demand curve on a given point “P” as shown in the diagram. First draw a tangent line AB to meet Y and X axis at Point A and B. Then divide the
PB
lower Seg PB by the upper Seg PA i.e. \(\frac{\mathrm{PB}}{\mathrm{PA}}\)

Suppose distance PA’is 8 cm and PB is 4 cm, then ED = \(\frac{4}{8}\) = 0.5 i.e. e < 1. It is a case of Relatively Inelastic demand.

Question 4.
Explain Ratio method and Geometric method of measuring price elasticity of demand.
Answer:
(A) Percentage Method or Ratio Method : This method is also known as Arithmetic Method. In this method} we compare the percentage of change in demand with percentage of change in price. When we divide the percentage of change in demand by the percentage of change in price, we get Elasticity of demand.

ΔQ = Change in demand (Original – new ( quantity)
ΔP = Change in price (Original – new price)
Q = Original quantity
P = Original price
By applying the above formula we can ( calculate and find the type of elasticity. If the ) result is one, then elasticity is unitary. If it

[ ΔQ (Change in Qty) = (10 -14) = -4, Original Qty = 10, ΔP (Change in price) = (6 – 8) = -2, Original price = 8 ]
= \(\frac{-4}{-2} \times \frac{8}{10}=\frac{8}{5}\)
= 1.6 (e > 1)
So the commodity has Relatively Elastic Demand e > 1.
If the Answer was < 1 then it would have been relatively inelastic.

(C) Point Method : In this method given by Prof. Marshall we will be able to find out elasticity at a point on a given demand curve.
To find out elasticity at any given point ‘P on a linear demand curve DD (Straight Line) extend the demand curve towards Y axis and X axis to meet at point A and B respectively as shown in the diagram. Then measure the distance of segment PA and segment PB. Then divide the distance of lower segment PB by upper segment PA.
Point Elasticity of demand = \(\frac { Lower segment of the demand curve }{ Upper segment of the demand curve }\)

Suppose the distance of lower segment PB is 6 cm and upper segment PA is 4 cm.
\(\frac{6}{4}=\frac{\mathrm{PB}}{\mathrm{PA}}\) = 1.5
Then Elasticity at point “P” is 1.5 which is e > 1. So demand is Relatively Elastic. On a given linear demand curve elasticity of demand at different point is different as shown in the diagram.
Now to find elasticity of demand on a non-linear demand curve on a given point “P” as shown in the diagram. First draw a tangent line AB to meet Y and X axis at Point A and B. Then divide the
PB
lower Seg PB by the upper Seg PA i.e. \(\frac{\mathrm{PB}}{\mathrm{PA}}\)

Suppose distance PA’is 8 cm and PB is 4 cm, then ED = \(\frac{4}{8}\) = 0.5 i.e. e < 1. It is a case of Relatively Inelastic demand.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 6 Psychological Disorders Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Psychology Important Questions Chapter 6 Psychological Disorders

Choose the correct option and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
A persistent but disproportionate and irrational fear of a specific object or situation is called ……………….
(a) anxiety
(b) mania
(c) phobia
Answer:
(c) phobia

Question 2.
A cluster of symptoms is called as ……………….
(a) therapy
(b) maladjustment
(c) syndrome
Answer:
(c) syndrome

Question 3.
Bipolar disorder is also called ……………… disorder.
(a) manic-depressive
(b) schizophrenia
(c) PTSD
Answer:
(a) manic-depressive

Question 4.
The DSM-5 comprises of …………….. broad categories of mental disorders along with subcategories.
(a) 19
(b) 11
(c) 22
Answer:
(c) 22

Question 5.
Ashok experiences feelings of unhappiness but has no apparent mental illness. According to Illness Wellness Continuum Model, he will be in Quadrant ……………..
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 6.
Mr. X tries to stop his drug usage. He experiences tremors, muscle pains, etc. This indicates, ……………. symptoms.
(a) withdrawal
(b) recovery
(c) negative
Answer:
(a) withdrawal

State whether the following statements are true or false.

Question 1.
Illness and absence of illness are distinct categories.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Individual distress and impairment are criteria for psychological disorders.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Imbalance in neurotransmitters may cause bipolar disorders.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Extremely traumatic events may lead to the onset of Acute Stress Disorder.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Most schizophrenics suffer from delusions and hallucinations.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
Generally, negative symptoms of schizophrenia improve much with proper treatment.
Answer:
False

Question 7.
The same therapy can be applied with equal success to all persons who exhibit similar symptoms.
Answer:
False

Answer the following in one sentence each.

Question 1.
What is the literal meaning of word ‘schizophrenia’.
Answer:
The word ‘schizophrenia’ is derived from the Greek words ‘schizein’ (to split) and ‘phren’ (mind). Thus, the literal meaning of the word ‘schizophrenia’ is split mind.

Question 2.
What is meant by delusion?
Answer:
Delusion refers to false belief held by the individual which cannot be shaken off in spite of clear evidence that is contrary to it.

Question 3.
What are the two states of bipolar disorder?
Answer:
The two states of bipolar disorder are mania state and depression state.

Question 4.
When is the person diagnosed with PTSD?
Answer:
The person is said to be diagnosed with PTSD when the symptoms of Acute Stress Disorder (ASD) continue for more than one month with the same intensity.

Question 5.
What are addictive disorders?
Answer:
Addictive disorders refer to the physical and psychological inability to stop consuming some substance or indulging in some activity although it is harmful.

Question 6.
What is psychotherapy?
Answer:
Psychotherapy refers to the systematic attempt by a mental health professional to assist a person to overcome some psychological disorders.

Question 7.
What is the suggestible stage of PTSD?
Answer:
Suggestible stage of PTSD refers to a person who may seek guidance from others and may either accept these suggestions unquestioningly or may get extra sensitive.

Explain the following concepts.

Question 1.
Delusions
Answer:
Delusions is a false belief that is strongly held by an individual in spite of the presence of contrary evidence, Delusions are a symptom of mental disorders. Commonly noticed delusions are delusion of grandeur, delusions of persecution, delusion of influence or control, delusion of reference, etc.

Answer the following questions Briefly.

Question 1.
Explain Acute Stress Disorder.
Answer:
If a person (aged 6 years and above) has experienced extremely stressful situations like death of a loved one, serious disease or injury, sexual abuse, natural disasters, etc., then he/she may experience ASD.
The symptoms of ASD include-

1. emotional numbness and instability
2. nightmares and sleep disturbances
3. insomnia, lack of concentration, irritability and guilt feelings
4. depression

Question 2.
What are the red flags in identifying psychological disorders?
Answer:
Signs that help to identify individuals who require expert (professional) help in mental health are called ‘red flags’.
Symptoms, if present, in any person should satisfy three requirements-

1. it should be present for a considerably long period of time
2. symptom has become more severe than before
3. it has created problems in the person’s life.

Question 3.
What is Generalized Anxiety Disorder?
Answer:
Anxiety refers to a condition in which a person feels uneasy for a long time for no obvious reasons. The main anxiety disorders include Generalized Anxiety Disorder, Phobia, Panic attacks etc.

In Generalized Anxiety Disorder the person frequently experiences anxiety more intensely so that it starts interfering with the ability to perform daily tasks. Symptoms include irritability, headaches, insomnia, dizziness, breathlessness, etc.

Write short notes on the following.

Question 1.
Identification and treatment of psychological disorders.
Answer:
Signs that help to identify individuals who require expert (professional) help in mental health are called ‘red flags’. Symptoms, if present, in any person should satisfy three requirements

1. it should be present for a considerably long period of time
2. symptom has become more severe than before
3. it has created problems in the person’s life.

The signals indicating a need for professional help are:

1. inability to concentrate or to sleep well.
2. severe confusion and memory loss.
3. intense and uncontrollable negative feelings.
4. self-neglect or even self-harm.
5. loss of interest in friends/ family/ activities.
6. odd statement or strange use of words.

Treatment strategies range form pharmacotherapy (administering drugs) to psychotherapy such as Rational Emotive Behaviour Therapy, Interpersonal Therapy, Group/Family Therapy, etc. Mental health professionals are qualified to decide the plan of treatment.

Answer the following questions in 150 – 200 words.

Question 1.
Discuss the red flags indicating the need for psychological help.
Answer:
Signs that help to identify individuals who require expert (professional) help in mental health are called ‘red flags’.
Symptoms, if present, in any person should satisfy three requirements

1. it should be present for a considerably long period of time
2. symptom has become more severe than before
3. it has created problems in the person’s life.

Signals indicating need for professional help-

1. Inability to concentrate
2. Inability to sleep well
3. Various physical complaints
4. Uncontrollable and frequent bad thoughts
5. Too intense uncontrollable negative feelings (fear, anger, sadness, worry, etc.)
6. Severe confusion
7. Memory loss
8. Loss of interest in activities and friends
9. Odd or irrational statements or strange use of words or way of speaking
10. Self-harm
11. Signs of self-neglect

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Sociology Important Questions Chapter 2 Segments of Indian Society Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Sociology Important Questions Chapter 2 Segments of Indian Society

1A. Complete the following statements by choosing the correct alternative given in the brackets and rewrite it.

Question 1.
_____________ community comprises of non-agricultural sectors like industries and services. (Rural, Tribal, Urban)
Answer:
Urban

Question 2.
_____________ people marked by a distinct culture living in relative isolation. (Rural, Tribal, Urban)
Answer:
Tribal

Question 3.
The _____________ God is a prominent deity in the pantheon of gods in sacred groves in Maharashtra. (Tiger, Sun, Nature)
Answer:
Tiger

Question 4.
The term ‘____________’ is an umbrella term for a heterogeneous set of ethnic and tribal population of India. (adivasi, harijan, girijan)
Answer:
Adivasi

Question 5.
The occupations of _____________ community fall into the primary categories such as hunting, gathering, and agriculture. (rural, tribal, urban)
Answer:
tribal

Question 6.
_____________ labour is banned by Indian Law. (Bonded, Organised, Regular)
Answer:
Bonded

Question 7.
Article _____________ Prohibits discrimination against any citizen on the grounds of sex, religion, race, caste etc. (15, 14, 13)
Answer:
15

Question 8.
_____________ creates a cosmopolitan and tolerant approach. (Heterogeneity, Homogeneity, Alienation)
Answer:
Heterogeneity

Question 9.
Marketisation is an essential feature of _____________ centres today. (rural, tribal, urban)
Answer:
urban

Question 10.
Individualism has led to the increase in _____________ families. (nuclear, joint, traditional)
Answer:
joint

Question 11.
The _____________ refers to a community of people claiming descent from a common ancestor. (tribe, local, herd)
Answer:
tribe

Question 12.
_____________ community is one that is agrarian in nature. (Rural, Tribal, Urban)
Answer:
Rural

Question 13.
According to the 2011 census _____________ of Indian population lives in the rural areas. (68.84%, 70%, 65%)
Answer:
68.84%

Question 14.
The internal community issues are managed by the tribal through _____________ (law, judiciary, tribal panchayat)
Answer:
tribal panchayat

Question 15.
_____________ refers to a number of families who are related in blood and who trace their descent from a real or imagined person, object, or being. (Group, Family, Clans)
Answer:
Clan

Question 16.
Most tribes in India are divided into _____________ clans and lineages. (endogamous, exogamous, ritual)
Answer:
exogamous

Question 17.
After Independence, the Community Development Programme (CDP) was started in _____________ (1952, 1949, 1962)
Answer:
1952

Question 18.
_____________ is a situation in which too many people live in too little space. (Overcrowding, Beggary, Urban sprawl)
Answer:
Overcrowding

Question 19.
In Mumbai, beggary has been criminalised under the Bombay Prevention of Begging Act, _____________ (1940, 1959, 1905)
Answer:
1959

Question 20.
Urban society is _____________ in nature. (homogeneous, heterogeneous, informal)
Answer:
heterogeneous

Question 21.
About one-sixth of tribal population of India is found in the _____________ zone. (Western, Central, Southern)
Answer:
Southern

Question 22.
The tribal custom of worshipping a tree or any animal as the founding ancestor is known as _____________ (Animism, Naturism, Totemism)
Answer:
Totemism

1B. Correct the incorrect pair and rewrite it.

Question 1.
(a) Animism – Robert Marett
(b) Totemism – James Frazer
(c) Manaism – Robert Marett
(d) Naturism – Max Mueller
Answer:
(a) Animism – Edward Tylor

Question 2.
(a) Garo, Khasi, Jaintia – Himalayan region
(b) Gond, Santhal, Munda – Middle India Region
(c) Bhil, Katkari, Warli – Western Indian region
(d) Toda, Kota, Irula – The island region
Answer:
(d) Toda, Kota, Irula – South India region

Question 3.
(a) Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM) – Urban development
(b) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana – Rural development
(c) Village Grain Banks – Tribal development
(d) Panchsheel – Rural development
Answer:
(d) Panchsheel – Tribal development

Question 4.
(a) Worshipping the soul or ancestors – Manamism
(b) Worshipping any non-living body like stone or wood – Animatism
(c) Worshipping a tree or any animal as a founding ancestor – Totemism
(d) Worshipping elements of nature like a river, sun, forest – Naturism
Answer:
(a) Worshipping the soul or ancestors – Animism

1C. Identify the appropriate term from the given options in the box and rewrite it against the given statement.

Question 1.
The custom of worshipping the soul or ancestors.
Answer:
Animism

Question 2.
Shifting cultivation.
Answer:
Jhum

Question 3.
Tribal development guidelines were created by the first Prime Minister, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru.
Answer:
Panchseel

Question 4.
Confers equal rights and opportunities to all.
Answer:
Article 14

Question 5.
A three-tier system of democratic functioning in villages.
Answer:
Panchayati Raj

Question 6.
Family is the unit of social responsibility.
Answer:
Familism

Question 7.
The inter-dependence among caste groups.
Answer:
Balutedari system

Question 8.
The root cause of urban problems.
Answer:
Urban sprawl

Question 9.
In mining areas, slums are known as Barack.
Answer:
Ghobara

Question 10.
Tribal people look upon this as the primordial source of all energy.
Answer:
Sun

1D. Correct underlined words and complete the statement.

Question 1.
The custom of worshipping elements of nature like a river stream, Sun, etc, is totemism.
Answer:
The custom of worshipping elements of nature like a river stream, Sun, etc, is naturism.

Question 2.
Urban economic activities are based on rudimentary technology.
Answer:
Tribal economic activities are based on rudimentary technology.

Question 3.
Article 330 states the Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Legislative.
Answer:
Article 332 states the Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Legislative.

Question 4.
The rural way of life revolves around an egalitarian value system.
Answer:
The rural way of life revolves around a traditional value system.

Question 5.
The population of the world is largely urban.
Answer:
The population of the world is largely rural.

Question 6.
The relationship is informal, personal, and inclusive in urban communities.
Answer:
The relationship is informal, personal, and inclusive in rural communities.

Question 7.
Education, law and legislation, police, and court are informal means of social control.
Answer:
Education, law and legislation, police, and court are formal means of social control.

2. Write short notes.

Question 1.
Characteristics of the rural community.
Answer:
The rural community has the following characteristics:
Community living in villages: The villages largely satisfy the needs of their residents.
They have a sense of togetherness. The development of villages is influenced considerably by the local needs.

Small size: It means that villages are comparatively smaller in size and population density. In the Indian context, a community with a population of about 5000 is designated as a “village”.

The dominance of agriculture: Agriculture is the major occupation in villages. However, it is not to be viewed as the only source of income but also as a way of life that needs to be ascertained. Almost 40% of our national income is obtained through agriculture and more than 60 % of the people still depend on agriculture. It was associated with various crafts like pottery, carpentry, smithy, basket-weaving, etc.

Primary relations: The impact of primary relations is still significant in Indian villages. The relationship is informal, personal, and inclusive. Community spirit prevails over individual interests. The ‘we feeling helps to build social cohesiveness.

Social homogeneity: Homogeneity is an underlying thread due to similarities in the ways of thinking, behaving, dressing, acting, and living. There is a tendency to conform to traditions and customs. Group feeling and mutual cooperation are evident among village dwellers. They cooperate with each other in times of exigencies.

Question 2.
Characteristics of Tribes.
Answer:
The basic characteristics of tribal communities in India:
Geographical isolation: They have usually a well-demarcated geographical territory. They live in clusters (called ‘padas’), which are generally located in remote forests and hilly areas. Today, however, many tribal people have migrated to rural villages and cities and in the course of time, they have mixed with non-tribal populations.

Economic life: They are engaged in varied occupations such as hunting, fishing, and food gathering of forest produce, basket making, weaving, iron-smith, etc. Besides, they also practice simple agriculture and shifting cultivation. Their economic activities are based on rudimentary technology, usually resulting in low productivity. They have a low level of literacy and poor health. In addition, their economic and infrastructural and marketing facilities are poor. Some tribes still depend on the barter system. These are among the few causes that leave them economically backward, at bare subsistence level, still leading a hand-to-mouth existence.

Sense of identity: Tribal folk nurture a sense of exclusive identity, which strongly binds them together as a community. This sense of identity is characterized by an awareness of territorial boundaries. The very existence of a tribe depends upon its sense of identity. Each tribe has a common name (e.g., Warli, Irula, Gond, Naga, Khasi) which adds to their sense of cohesion and solidarity.

Endogamous group: Tribal people generally do not marry outside their tribe. Marriage within the tribe is the usual norm. Marriage among tribals is based on the rule of tribal endogamy. It is viewed as a contract and usually, there are no taboos on divorce and remarriage. Recently, the increased mobility among the tribals has changed this condition and now, inter-tribal marriages are not uncommon.

Question 3.
Efforts towards Urban Development.
Answer:
Urbanization can be positively viewed as an engine of economic growth and an agent of socio-political transformation. But this is not sufficient, due to the high cost of living and partly and because of the growing economic disparity in urban areas. The rich are becoming richer and the poor are becoming poorer. Several steps have been initiated to meet the challenges posed by the urban crisis but with little or no success.

National Commission on Urbanisation (NCU) has, in its policy proposal of 1988, stressed the need for:

• The evolution of a spatial pattern of economic development and hierarchies of human settlements.
• Optimum distribution of population between rural and urban settlements and among towns and cities of various sizes.
• Distribution of economic activities in small and medium-sized growth centers.
• Dispersal of economic activities through the establishment of counter-magnets in the region.
• Provision of optimum levels of services in urban and rural areas.

The other major development programmes include:

• Urban Basic Services for the Poor (UBSP).
• Environmental Improvement of Urban Slums (EIUS) programme.
• Integrated Development of Small and Medium Towns (IDSMT).
• Various housing and infrastructure financing schemes e.g. Housing and Urban Development Corporation (HUDCO).
• Mega-Cities Project.
• Integrated Urban Poverty Eradication Programme (IUPEP).

Recent urban development programmes in India

• Smart Cities Mission.
• Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) Project.
• Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Urban) or Housing for All by 2022 Mission.
• Heritage City Development and Augmentation Yojana (HRIDAY).
• Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission.
• Urban transportation.
• Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM).

Question 4.
Efforts towards Tribal Development.
Answer:
‘Panchsheel’ Philosophy of Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
Since Indian Independence, particularly with the inception of Five-Year Plans, the concern for tribal development has always been high on the government’s agenda. The first Prime Minister, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru created long-term guidelines in this regard. This is evident from his views, on should take place at the cost of tribal development termed as ‘Panchsheel’.

Summary of ‘Panchsheel’

• People should develop along lines of their own genius and we should avoid imposing anything on them.
• Tribal rights to land and forests should be protected.
• We should try to train and build up a team of their own people to do the work of administration and development.
• We should not over-administer these areas with a multiplicity of schemes. We should rather work together and not in rivalry with our own social and cultural institutions.
• We should judge the results not by statistics or the amount of money spent on them, but by the quality of human life that is evolved.

A number of special schemes and programmes have evolved.in keeping with these broad Guidelines and the provisions of the Constitution.

Tribal Development Efforts after Independence
After Independence, the Government of India has taken various efforts for Tribal Development. The government made available, funding of Tribal Development Programmes i.e., State Plan.
Special Central Assistance, Sectorial Programmes of Central Ministries/Department, and Institutional Finance.

3. Write differences.

Question 1.
Tribal Community and Rural Community.
Answer:

Tribal Community	Rural Community
(i) Size: The tribal population of Indian comes to constitutes about 8.6 percent of the total population.	(i) Size: The rural population of India constitutes about 68.84 percent of the total population.
(ii) Occupation: They are engaged in varied occupations such as hunting, fishing, and food gathering of forest produce, basket making, weaving, iron-smith, etc.	(ii) Occupation: Agriculture is the major occupation in villages. It is also associated with various crafts like pottery, carpentry, smithy, basket-weaving, etc.
(iii) Technology: Tribal communities make use of our moded techniques and rudimentary technology like a bow, arrow, spear, etc.	(iii) Technology: Rural community makes use of plough, animal power, fertilizers, pesticides, etc.
(iv) Nature of Social Control: Customs, traditions, religion, magic, tribal chief have effective social control over the members of the tribal community.	(iv) Nature of Social Control: In rural community caste council and village panchayat have effective social control.
(v) Cultural Background: They have independent traditions with respect to social customs, folklore, ecology, and a belief system. Each tribe has its own dialect.	(v) Cultural Background: There is social homogeneity in the rural community since their social and cultural background is the same.

Question 2.
Rural Community and Urban Community.
Answer:

Rural Community	Urban Community
(i) Size: The rural population constitutes about 68.84 percent of the total population.	(i) Size: The urban population constitutes about 31% percent of the total population.
(ii) Density: Villages are comparatively smaller in size and population density.	(ii) Density: An urban area is a human settlement with a high population density.
(iii) Occupation: Agriculture is the major occupation in villages. It was associated with various crafts like pottery, carpentry, smithy, basket-weaving, etc.	(iii) Occupation: The occupation in urban areas is mainly non-agricultural, i.e., based on manufacturing, trade, and commerce, professional and governance, services, etc.
(iv) Homogeneity/Heterogeneity: Rural areas are homogeneous in nature due to similarities in the ways of thinking, behaving, dressing, acting, and living.	(iv) Homogeneity/Heterogeneity: Urban areas are heterogeneous in nature, people belonging to diverse groups such as class, occupation, caste, language, and religion, etc., all reside in the same territory.
(v) Status of Women: In rural communities status of women is very low due to the impact of the patriarchal system of the family.	(v) Status of Women: The status of women is higher due to factors such as the spread of education, employment opportunities, etc.
(vi) Nature of Relations: The impact of primary relations is significant, in Indian villages. The relationship is informal, face to face Personal, and inclusive.	(vi) Nature of Relations: The impact of secondary relations is significant in urban areas characterized by formal interactions, and impersonal relationships.

4. Explain the following concepts with examples.

Question 1.
Rural Development Programme
Answer:
Rural Development programme: Rural social change has been among the most important subjects of study in the ‘developing countries since the 1950s, partly because major national efforts in these countries have been directed towards economic development and such efforts have been located in predominantly agrarian social settings. We see changes in rural communities due to the efforts of the Government.

After Independence, the Community Development Programme (CDP) was started in 1952. It was an initiative meant for the all-around development of villages. The aim of CDP was to facilitate villages. The aim of CDP was to facilitate involvement and participation of the village community for its own welfare later on in 1957, Panchayati Raj (Local Self Government) was started. The Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP) replaced the CDP in 1979.

Examples: Some important recent schemes for Rural Development launched by the Government of India are Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana, Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana, Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY)/ National Rural Livelihood Mission, Prime Minister Rural Development Fellows Scheme, Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS), Sampoorna Grameen Rozgar Yojana (SGRY), Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA).

Question 2.
Scheduled Tribe
Answer:

• Article 366 (25) of the Constitution of India refers to ‘Scheduled Tribes’ as those communities which are protected under a schedule, according to Article 342 of the Constitution.
• As per this, Scheduled Tribes are groups or communities that have been declared by the President of India, as possessing the following characteristics:
  • Primitive traits
  • Geographic isolation
  • Distinct culture
  • Shy of contact with the larger community
  • Economic backwardness
• Scheduled Tribes’ can also be ascertained by the fact that they live apart in hills in isolation.
• Example – Schedule Tribes in Island region Andamanese, Jarawas Nicobarese Onges

5A. Complete the concept map.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Question 4.

Answer:

Question 5.

Answer:

Question 6.

Answer:

5B. State whether the following statements are True or False with reasons.

Question 1.
Urban society is characterized by Informal social control and Primary relations.
Answer:
This statement is False.

• Urban society is characterized by formal social control and secondary relations.
• In urban areas, interaction among people is largely based on anonymity and secondary contact.
• It is not personal nor face-to-face; rather cities are characterized by formal interactions and impersonal relationships that tend to become time-bound and based on vested interests.
• Cultural diversity, formal communication, friends’ circle are hallmarks of cities. For instance, people spend their leisure time at multiplexes, gardens, hotels, social clubs, and markets. Formal means of social control such as formal education, law, and legislation, police, and court are needed, in addition to informal means for regulating the behaviour of people.
• The traditional authority vested in figures such as family elders, religious leaders, and teachers has decreased greatly.

Question 2.
There are a large number of villages which suffer from major problems.
Answer:
This statement is True.
There are a large number of villages that suffer from major problems such as poverty, unemployment, illiteracy, indebtedness, superstition, and the like. Problems faced by the rural community are as follows:

Poverty: Poverty is a socio-economic phenomenon in which a section of rural society is not able to fulfill even its basic necessities of life. A vast majority of the rural population works in villages under the shadow of poverty, unemployment as well as pitiable economic conditions. Large portions of the rural poor are small and marginal farmers, agricultural laborers, and rural artisans.

Illiteracy: High illiteracy rates among children as well as adults continue even to this day because of inadequate budgetary provisions for rural education. The quality of education in rural areas is a matter of grave concern despite various programmes and provisions.

Traditionalism, conservatism, and superstitions: Rural India to date can be called a conservative society because it still holds on to traditional mindsets and beliefs. Conformity to traditional customs, religion, and ways of life is still rampant. There is usually a reluctance to change their way of life and outlook which have encouraged a fatalistic attitude.

Farmers’ suicides: A large percentage of farmers who take their own lives are financially indebted. Undoubtedly, there has been little positive impact of economic reforms in the agricultural sector in India

Question 2.
A majority of tribal people live below the poverty line.
Answer:
This statement is True.
A majority of tribal people live below the poverty line. The tribes practice simple occupations based on primitive technology. Most of the occupations fall into the primary categories such as hunting, gathering, and agriculture. There is no profit nor surplus making in such an economy.

Hence their per capita income is very low, far less compared to the national average. Most of them live in abject poverty and are steeped in debt. Local moneylenders and zamindars, take advantage of this situation and exploit the tribals. In order to repay the debts, they often have to mortgage or sell their land.

Though Bonded labour is banned by Indian Law, it still prevails in some tribal areas. Bonded labour is considered to be a serious problem, which started due to rampant poverty and lack of stable income among the tribals. In fact, land alienation, indebtedness, bonded labour, and poverty are problems that exist hand-in-hand.

Question 3.
The rapid growth of the urban population has put heavy pressure on public utilities and other social evils are rising.
Answer:
This statement is True.
Although India is one of the less urbanized countries of the world this country is, facing a serious crisis of urban growth at present. Poverty, unemployment, and under-employment among rural immigrants, beggars, theft, burglary and other social evils are on the rise.

The following urban problems are on rising:
Urban Sprawl: Urban sprawl or real expansion of the cities, both in population and geographical area, of rapidly growing cities is the root cause of urban problems. In most cities, the economic base is incapable of dealing with the problems created by their excessive size. Massive immigration from rural areas as well as from small towns into big cities has taken place almost consistently; thereby adding to the size of cities. The urban sprawl is taking place at the cost of valuable agricultural land.

Overcrowding: Overcrowding is a situation in which too many people live in too little space. Overcrowding is a logical consequence of over-population in urban areas. It is naturally expected that cities having a large size of population squeezed in a small space will suffer from] r overcrowding. This is well exhibited by almost all the big cities of India.

Beggary: For a majority of the urban poor, beggary has become a way of life, due to sheer lack of education and skill to find employability. Many people are pushed into beggary, due to reasons that range from abject poverty to beggary as a profession. There are organized gangs of beggars which are known to operate in big cities. Also, there are instances of children who are sold into beggary by their parents or are kidnapped and then coerced into begging by maiming them. In Mumbai, beggary has been criminalized under the Bombay Prevention of Begging Act, 1959.

6. Give your personal response.

Question 1.
Discuss, ‘The tribes have their own social problems.
Answer:
The tribes have their own social problems. They are traditional and bound by customs. Due to lack of education and development, they are superstitious and believe in outmoded and meaningless practices which can be harmful at times.

Child marriage, infanticide, homicide, animal sacrifice, exchange of wives, black magic, and other detrimental practices are still prevalent among them. They believe in supernatural powers and have a keen desire to maintain these practices. They don’t want to change their significant tribal character and hence it’s said that “tribes are the tribesmen first, the tribesmen last, and the tribesmen all the time.”

7. Answer the following question in detail. (about 150-200 words)

Question 1.
Though the urban community is in an advanced stage of development, it is not free from any problems. Using examples of your own, explain the major urban problems. Also, discuss any two recent urban development programmes in India.
Answer:
The rapid growth of the urban population, both natural and through migration, has put heavy pressure on public utilities like housing, sanitation, transport, water, electricity, health, education, and so on.

The following urban problems are highlighted:
Transport: With traffic congestion, almost all cities and towns of India are suffering from acute transportation problems. Today, we have reached a stage where practically no city in India gets sufficient water to meet the needs of the city-dwellers. In big cities like Mumbai, water is resourced from the rivers and lakes in Thane and Palghar, thereby causing hardship in the lives of those people.

Sewerage problems: Urban areas in India are almost invariably plagued with insufficient and inefficient sewage facilities. Insufficient resources faced by municipalities and the unauthorized growth of cities are two major causes of this. Most cities do not have proper arrangements for treating the sewerage waste and it is drained into nearby rivers.

Trash disposal: Huge quantities of garbage generated by our cities pose serious health hazards. Most cities do not have proper arrangements for garbage disposal and the existing landfills are full to the brim, which becomes hotbeds of disease and innumerable poisons into the environment. Also, a poisonous liquid called leachate is emitted, which contaminates groundwater.

Urban crime: Due to overcrowding poverty, unemployment many people in urban areas commit several types of crimes like thefts, robbery, cybercrime, gambling adulteration, corruption etc. Some criminals reach high political positions by using their money and muscle power.
Not only do the poor, deprived and slum dwellers take to crime; people from well-to-do families also resort to crime in order to make a fast wealth and to meet cravings for a lavish life.

Pollution: The intensity of air, water, and noise pollution has increased in the cities due to various factories and vehicles. Due to polluted air people suffer from various diseases like lung cancer, asthma, headache, etc., due to the polluted water, people suffer from various water-borne diseases.

Educational problems: Cities suffer from various educational problems like inadequate educational facilities, educational discrimination, costly education, indiscipline among the students.

Recent urban development programmes in India
(i) Swatch Bharat Abhiyan ( SBA ) or Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM) is a nationwide campaign in India for the period 2014 to 2019 that aims to clean up the streets, roads, and infrastructure of India’s cities, towns, urban and rural areas.to accelerate the efforts to achieve universal sanitation coverage and to put the focus on sanitation. The Prime Minister of India had launched the Swachh Bharat Mission on 2nd October 2014.

(ii) National Smart Cities Mission is an urban renewal program by the Government of India with the mission to develop smart cities across the country, making them citizen-friendly and sustainable The Union Ministry of Urban Development is responsible for implementing the mission in collaboration with the state governments of the respective cities. The mission initially included 100 cities, with the deadline for completion of the projects set between 2019 and 2023.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Political Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Key Concepts and Issues Since 1991: Humanitarian Issues Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Political Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Key Concepts and Issues Since 1991: Humanitarian Issues

Complete the following statements by selecting the appropriate option.

Question 1.
The Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit (1992) focused on
(a) Environment and development
(b) Nuclear non-proliferation
(c) International trade
(d) Gender issues
Answer:
(a) Environment and development

Question 2.
The 2002 Earth Summit recognised as the most important goal at all level.
(a) poverty
(b) socio-economic develop
(c) sustainable development
(d) gender issues
Answer:
(c) sustainable development

Question 3.
The 2030 Agenda for sustainable Development was adopted in the year
(a) 2015
(b) 2002
(c) 1992
(d) 2019
Answer:
(a) 2015

Question 4.
The Second UN Decade for poverty eradication was in
(a) 1997-2006
(b) 1971-1980
(c) 2008-2017
(d) 1992-2003
Answer:
(c) 2008-2017

Question 5.
The Revolution aimed to make India self-sufficient in food grains.
(a) Import substitution
(b) Green
(c) White
(d) Infrastructural
Answer:
(b) Green

Question 6.
The is a scheme introduced in 1978-79 to create opportunities for self-employment in
the rural sector.
(a) MGNREGA
(b) JRY
(c) IRDP
(d) KVY
Answer:
(c) IRDP

Complete the following sentences by selecting the appropriate reason.

Question 1.
Green Revolution was introduced in India in the 1960’s to ………………
(a) make India self sufficient in food grains.
(b) generate employment and tackle poverty.
(c) to combine economic growth with social justice.
Answer:
(a) make India self sufficient in food grain

Question 2.
The Department of Women and Child Development was set up as a separate Ministry in 2006 to …………..
(a) facilitate health and education programmes for women.
(b) provided political representation to women
(c) empower women to live with dignity and contribute as equal partners in development.
Answer:
(c) make India self sufficient in food grains.

State the appropriate concept for the given statements.

Question 1.
Introduction of high yielding variety of seeds and irrigation methods.
Answer:
Green Revolution

Question 2.
Think tank of the Government of India, providing both directional and policy inputs.
Answer:
NITI Aayog

Question 3.
The responsible interaction with the environment to avoid depletion or degradation of natural resources.
Answer:
Sustainable development

Question 4.
Deprivation of common necessities that determine the quality of life.
Answer:
Poverty

Question 5.
A view that free market economy promotes development.
Answer:
Capitalism

Question 6.
Blueprint for prosperity for people and planet adopted by the UN in 2015.
Answer:
2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development

Question 7.
Agency set up in 1950 to formulate a plan for effective and balanced utilisation of India’s resources.
Answer:
Planning Commission

Question 8.
India’s policy towards poverty and development.
Answer:
Growth with Social Justice and Equity

Question 9.
The process by which oppressed persons gain control over their own lives.
Answer:
Empowerment

Question 10.
Socially constructed characteristics of women and men such as behaviour, norms, roles and relationships.
Answer:
Gender

Find the odd word.

Question 2.
Pollution, Deforestation, Poverty, Water Scarcity.
Answer:
Poverty (not a direct environment concern)

Question 2.
Brundtland Commission, Rio+20 Summit, Johannesburg Earth Summit, United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
Answer:
UNDP (not a commission/ summit associated with sustainable development)

Expand the following abbreviations.

(1) UNCED
(2) ECOSOC
(3) UNDP
(4) IRDP
(5) JGSY
(6) MPI
Answer:
(1) UNCED – United Nations Conference on Environment and Development
(2) ECOSOC – Economic and Social Council of the UN.
(3) UNDP – United Nations Development Programme
(4) IRDP – Integrated Rural Development Programme
(5) JGSY – Jawahar Gram Samridhi Yojana
(6) MPI – Multidimensional Poverty Index

Complete the concept maps.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

State whether the following statements are true or false with reason.

Question 1.
Rio Earth Summit (1992) was a landmark in environment issues.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit (1992) sought to raise public awareness on the need to integrate environment and development.
2. It’s objective was to create a partnership between developing and more industrialized nations to ensure a healthy future for the planet.

Question 2.
The perception of poverty has undergone a change in recent times.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. The traditional perception of poverty focused on the deprivation of the basic necessities of life such as food, shelter, etc.
2. The new perception of poverty as expressed by the ECOSOC, considers poverty as lack of basic capacity to participate effectively in society.
3. It is perceived as a denial of choices, opportunities and human dignity.

Question 3.
The 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development (2015) is a significant document.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. The 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development (2015) adopted by the UN, provides a blueprint for prosperity of the people and planet for now and in the future
2. It mentions seventeen Sustainable Development Goals for action by all countries in a global partnership for e.g., No Poverty, Climate action, Gender equality, etc.

Question 4.
The economic reforms initiated in India after 1991 had far-reaching implications.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. After 1991, India introduced the policies of economic liberalisation and privatisation of the public sector and brought an increase in economic and industrial growth rate.
2. These reforms changed the role of the State to focus more on social development such as in heath care, sanitation, education, etc.

Explain the correlation between the following.

Question 1.
Department of Women and Child Development – Women’s empowerment.
Answer:
The Department of Women and Child Development, Government of India came into existence as separate ministry in 2006. Before this, it was a department under HRD ministry: The Department of Women and Child Development was constituted with the intention of addressing gaps in State action for women and children and to create gender equitable and child-centered legislations, policies and programmes.

It aims to achieve the empowerment of women i.e., to live in dignity and to contribute as equal partners in development in an environment free from discrimination, injustice and violence. The Ministry has prepared the National Policy for the Empowerment of Women (2001). The Draft of the National Policy for women (2016) aims at women’s empowerment by following a socially inclusive rights-based approach.

Express your opinion of the following.

Question 1.
There is a need to protect the environment.
Answer:
I agree with this statement.
The environment refers to all living and non-living things that make up our surroundings. Many environmental problems result due to unplanned management, human activities and technological development that interfere with the environment. Protection of environment refers to conservation and preservation of environment by reducing pollution, soil erosion, global warming, deforestation etc.

Main environmental concerns hence are climate change, water scarcity, pollution, loss of biodiversity, etc. Environmental degradation and depletion of resources will result in spread of pests and vector diseases, extinction of species, natural disasters like floods; acid rain, melting of glaciers, etc. Life on this earth cannot exist unless we restore environmental balance.

Question 2.
Poor political representation of women is a major concern.
Answer:
I agree with this statement.
Poor political representation of women is a significant gender concern in India. The first Lok Sabha had only 24 women of total 489 members i.e., 5%, and the 17th Lok Sabha (2019) has 78 women (14%). This is the highest representation of women in Lok Sabha till date. The Women’s Reservation Bill which proposes to reserve 33% of all seats in Lok Sabha and in State Assemblies for women is pending in the Lok Sabha. This bill was first introduced in Parliament in 1996, by the United Front government of Prime Minister H.D. Deve Gowda.

As per the bill, seats will be reserved for women on a rotational basis. The UPA-I government (2004-2009) again introduced the bill in May 2008 and it was passed in May 2010 by the Rajya Sabha. Currently, the bill is still pending in Lok Sabha. However, there exists 33% reservation for women in rural and urban local bodies (as per 73rd and 74th Amendment Acts).

Answer the following question in 80 to 100 words.

Question 1.
What is the Green Revolution?
Answer:
Green Revolution refers to a large increase in crop production that is achieved by the use of high yielding crop varieties, pesticides, artificial fertilizers, machines and better management of agricultural resources. Norman Borlaug, an agricultural scientist of USA is considered as ‘Father of the Green Revolution’ for which he was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize (1970). In India, M.S. Swaminathan is credited with introducing the Green Revolution in 1965 especially in Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh.

This was necessitated due to famine and acute food shortages due to low productivity in food production. Green Revolution was mainly in wheat, maize and gram production. During it’s early years, the Green Revolution yielded great economic prosperity leading to significant increases in agricultural output and farmers incomes. However, this did not benefit marginal farmers who could not afford expensive inputs.

Question 2.
What is empowerment? Suggest measures for empowerment of women.
Answer:
Empowerment refers to the process by which oppressed or marginalized sections of the population become stronger, especially in controlling their own life and claiming their own rights. This may happen socially, economically, politically or nationally. The approach to women’s issues has progressed from ‘welfare’ to ‘development’ to ‘empowerment’.

Some of the measures for empowerment of women include-

1. Political empowerment – giving women better representation in legislative bodies and in the decision making process.
2. Economic empowerment – such as strengthening women’s access to property inheritance and land rights, skill training, work opportunities, micro-credit, increased right to economic resources and power.
3. Social empowerment – through literacy/education, training and raising awareness, freedom from domestic violence, access to information, health services and sanitation.

In India, schemes to empower women include Beti Bachao Beti Padhao Yojana (2015), Support to Training and Employment Programme for Women (STEP), Mahila Shakti Kendras (2017) etc.

Question 3.
Describe international efforts to deal with environmental concerns.
Answer:
There have been many international efforts to deal with environmental concerns as well as about the relationship between economic development and environmental degradation.
1. UN Conference on Human Environment (Stockholm, 1972) The purpose was to encourage and provide guidelines for protection of the environment.

2. World Commission on Environment and Development (1983) also called Brundtland commission put forward the concept of sustainable growth.

3. Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit (1992) sought to raise public awareness on the need to integrate environment and development and to create a partnership between developing and more industrialized nations to ensure a healthy future for the planet.

4. Earth Summit at Johannesburg (2002) recognized sustainable development as the most important goal for institutions at the national, regional and international levels

5. UN Conference on sustainable development (Rio-2012) is also called Rio Earth Summit or Rio+20. Environmental sustainability is defined as responsible interaction with the environment to avoid depletion or degradation of natural resources and allow for long¬term environmental quality. It’s goal is to conserve natural resources, to reduce pollution, to develop alternate sources of power, etc.

Question 4.
Elaborate on the aspects of development in India.
Answer:
The purpose of development is to ensure welfare of the people and is associated with economic growth. The traditional approaches to development focus on the predominant role of the State in promoting economic growth (Socialist) or role of free market economy (Capitalist). Since the 1990s, the alternative view of development that focuses on both material and non-material aspects has become acceptable. The focus today is development based on equity, participation, empowerment and sustainability.

1. Modernisation of the economy – During the Nehruvian period, the focus was on land reforms, irrigation and large-scale industrialisation to provide employment and increase productivity.
2. Self – reliance – This included ‘import substitution’ strategy to develop indigenous industry.
3. Socialist pattern of society – It was based on promotion of the Welfare State, employment generation and importance ,to the public sector. The Planning Commission (March 1950 to 31st December 2014) was created to chalk out Five Year Plans for development.

“Growth with Social Justice and Equity’ has been India’s policy towards poverty and development. Its development strategy has evolved over the years. In the early stages, government played a dominant role through the public sector.

Question 5.
Describe the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development adopted in 2015 by the UN.
Answer:
In 2015, the United Nations adopted the ‘2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development. It provides a blueprint for peace and prosperity for people and the planet for now and into the future. The Agenda mentions 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) for action by all developed and developing countries in a global partnership.

The Sustainable Development Goals are:

1. No Poverty
2. Zero hunger
3. Good health and well being
4. Quality
5. Gender equality
6. Clean water and sanitation
7. Affordable and clean energy
8. Decent work and economic growth
9. Industry, innovation and infrastructure
10. Reduced inequalities
11. Sustainable cities and communities
12. Responsible consumption and production
13. Climate action
14. Life below water
15. Life on land
16. Peace, justice and strong institutions
17. Partnership goals

Answer the following question with reference to the given points.

Question 1.
Explain condition of women in India.
(a) Economic inequality
(b) Trafficking and exploitation
(c) Literacy rate
(d) Political representation
Answer:
All over the world, women have to face serious problems such as discrimination and violence, under representation in economic and political decision-making, inequalities in education, health care, landholdings and workplaces and even in human rights.

Some of the important gender issues:
(a) Economic inequality – Participation of women in the labour market is about 28% only. There is also income inequality due to wide gender wage gaps as well as inequality of opportunities to women e.g., unequal access to education and finance. In many countries, women are either not encouraged to work or employed in the informal sector. Women continue to be underrepresented in high-level, highly paid positions and experience gender discrimination and sexual harassment in the workplace. Women experience high levels of poverty, unemployment and other economic hardships.

(b) Trafficking and exploitation – Women are often exploited and denied basic rights. They are trafficked for purpose of sexual and economic exploitation particularly prostitution, ‘sold’ as brides, subjected to sexual crimes, forced labour, street begging, etc. Trafficking in women means that they are deceived or forced/sold, physically confined, abused with no access to protection or health care.

(c) Literacy rate – low literacy among women is acute in India. As per 2011 census report, female literacy rate is only 65.46% while for males it is 82.14%. The reasons for the low female literacy are-

1. traditional patriarchal notions that do not consider female education as economically advantageous
2. Schools in rural areas are not easily accessible and travel may not safe or easy.
3. Benefits of schemes like R.T.E have not reached many rural females.
4. Social evils like child marriage, female foeticide, dowry, etc.

(d) Political Representation – Poor political representation of women is a significant gender concern in India. The First Lok Sabha had only 24 women of total 489 members i.e., 5% and the 17th Lok Sabha (2019) has 78 women (14%). This is the highest representation of women in Lok Sabha till date. The Women’s Reservation Bill which proposes to reserve 33% of all seats in Lok Sabha and in State Assemblies for women is pending in the Lok Sabha. However, there exists 33% reservation for women in rural and urban local bodies.

Question 2.
Describe the following poverty alleviation programmes in India.
(a) Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP)
(b) Jawahar Gram Samridhi Yojana (JGSY)
(c) Pradhan Mantri Gramin Awaas Yojana (PMGAY)
(d) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act. (MGNREGA)
(e) Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana.
Answer:
The poverty alleviation programmes in India have been designed for both rural areas and urban areas. Most of the programmes are designed to target the rural poverty as prevalence of poverty is high in rural areas.
(a) Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP) – It was first introduced in 1978¬79. The main objective of IRDP is to create sustainable opportunities for self-employment in the rural sector.

(b) Jawahar Gram Samridhi Yojana (JGSY) – It is the revised version of the Jawahar Rozgar Yojana (JRY). It was started in 1999. The main aim of this programme was development infrastructure like roads to connect the villages to different areas and other social, education (schools) and infrastructure like hospitals in the rural areas.

(c) Pradhan Mantri Gramin Awaas Yojana – It was started in 1985. This scheme aimed at creating housing for everyone.

(d) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act. (MGNREGA) – It was launched in 2005. It provides 100 days assured employment every year to every rural household.

(e) Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana – It was started in 2014. According to this yojana, each Member of Parliament will take the responsibility of developing three villages by 2019. The idea is to make India’s villages to be fully developed with physical and institutional infrastructure.

Question 3.
Discuss the following humanitarian issues.
(a) Environmental degradation
(b) Poverty
(c) Gender issues
Answer:
Humanitarian issues refer to concerns about issues affecting human welfare with the aim of alleviation of sufferings. Examples of humanitarian issues include natural disasters, famine, epidemics, armed conflicts, poverty, inequalities and injustice, environmental problems, etc.

(a) Environmental degradation – Indiscriminate exploitation of natural resources had resulted in environmental depletion and degradation. This results in significant environmental concerns such as deforestation, soil erosion,loss of biodiversity, climate change, endangerment of species, water scarcity, acid rain, pollution, spread of diseases etc. The relationship between economic development and environmental degradation has been considered at various international conferences like Rio Earth Summit, etc.

Environmental degradation has serious consequences for humans, animals, plants as well as the ecological balance. The causes of degradation include resource depletion due to overuse, landfills and illegal dumping, waste production, overpopulation and consumption behaviour, etc.

(b) Poverty – The traditional perception of poverty is where people are unable to provide for their basic necessities of life. It is the deprivation of common necessities that determine the quality of life including food, clothing, shelter and safe drinking water. The alternative view of poverty focuses on both material and non-material aspects i.e., focus on community ties, values and availability of common resources, participatory decision making and political and economic decentralisation.

The purpose of development is to ensure welfare of the people and is associated with economic growth. The traditional approaches to development focus on the predominant role of the State in promoting economic growth (socialist) or role of free market economy (capitalist). Since the 1990s, the alternate view of development that focuses on both material and non material aspects has become acceptable. The focus today is development based on equity, participation, empowerment and sustainability.

(c) Gender issues – There is a distinct link between poverty and unsatisfactory conditions of women. In most parts of the world women are poor due to cultural norms, unequal power equations between men and women. In the 1970s, women empowerment came to be accepted as an important philosophy to bring about gender justice. The UN ‘Decade for Women’ began in 1976 to-

1. link women’s issues with developmental issues
2. promote equal rights and opportunities for women across the globe.

Question 4.
Discuss the vision of the development process in India.
(a) Modernisation of the economy
(b) Self-reliance
(c) Socialist pattern of society
Answer:
The purpose of development is to ensure welfare of the people and is associated with economic growth. The traditional approaches to development focus on the predominant role of the State in promoting economic growth (Socialist) or role of free market economy (Capitalist). Since the 1990s, the alternative view of development that focuses on both material and non material aspects has become acceptable. The focus today is development based on equity, participation, empowerment and sustainability. India’s vision of development had three aspects:

(a) Modernisation of the economy – This implied industrialization to provide employment to a growing labour force and to increase productivity During the Nehruvian period, the focus was on large scale industrialization and factory production. Land reforms and irrigation were looked at as the means to achieve agricultural growth and productivity.

(b) Self-reliance – This included ‘import substitution’ strategy to develop indigenous industry. Aid taken from Soviet Union, France, etc. was utilised mainly in the public sector and for infrastructure.

(c) Socialist pattern of society – The approach of planning for development was based on promotion of the welfare State, employment generation and importance to the public sector. The Planning Commission (March 1950 31st December 2014) was created to chalk out Five Year Plans for development.

“Growth with Social Justice and Equity” has been India’s policy towards poverty and development. Its development strategy has evolved over the years. In the early stages, government played a dominant role through the public sector.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 5 Emotions Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Psychology Important Questions Chapter 5 Emotions

Choose the correct option and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
According to the theory, we experience physiological arousal and feelings simultaneously and independently.
(a) James-Lange
(b) Cannon-Bard
(c) Schachter-Singer
Answer:
(b) Cannon-Bard

Question 2.
According to Ekman, there are basic emotions.
(a) 2
(b) 5
(c) 6
Answer:
(c) 6

Question 3.
is an emotion that is in response to some threat.
(a) Sadness
(b) Fear
(c) Disgust
Answer:
(b) Fear

Question 4.
Plutchik’s model explains that there are primary emotions.
(a) 8
(b) 6
(c) 12
Answer:
(b) 6

Question 5.
is not a primary/ basic emotion according to Plutchik.
(a) Trust
(b) Anticipation
(c) Jealousy
Answer:
(c) Jealousy

Question 6.
Emotions are controlled by the ……………….. in the brain.
(a) cerebral cortex
(b) limbic system
(c) RAS
Answer:
(b) limbic system

Question 7.
Aniket shows creativity and has meaningful relationships. He has …………. emotional well-being.
(a) high
(b) low
(c) moderate
Answer:
(a) high

State whether the following statements are true or false.

Question 1.
“I feel sad because I cry”, This is the premise of the Schachter – Singer theory.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Pride and guilt are considered as higher cognitive emotions.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
The fight or flight reaction is a reaction to sadness.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Low serotonin levels are associated with clinical depression.
Answer:
True

Answer the following in one sentence each.

Question 1.
What is the premise of the facial feedback hypothesis?
Answer:
According to the facial feedback hypothesis, our facial expressions provide feedback to our brain about our emotions.

Question 2.
What are complex emotions?
Answer:
Complex emotions are emotions which result form the combination of basic emotions for e.g., surprise and sadness lead to disappointment.

Question 3.
According to Ekman, which are the basic emotions?
Answer:
According to Ekman, there are six basic (universal) types of emotions, i.e., happiness, sadness, anger, fear, surprise, disgust.

Question 4.
When does a person experience disgust?
Answer:
A person usually experiences disgust as a response to some unwanted stimulus.

Question 5.
According to Plutchik, how do emotions result?
Answer:
According to Plutchik, emotions result due to evolving over a period of time for increasing our chances of survival.

Question 6.
Why is Plutchik’s model important?
Answer:
Plutchik’s model is important from the perspective of emotional literacy, i.e., understanding emotional levels, complexity and change as well as appropriate emotional labelling.

Question 7.
What does emotional well-being mean?
Answer:
Emotional well-being means managing both positive and negative emotions, so that we can lead a healthy and productive life.

Question 8.
What does anger management mean?
Answer:
Anger management is an intervention programme to prevent anger from turning into a habit or obstacle by creating awareness of and responsibility for our emotions.

Explain the concepts in 25 – 30 words each.

Question 1.
Emotions
Answer:
The word emotion is derived from the latin word ‘emovere’, which means to stir up or to move. An emotion refers to an involuntary, aroused state of an organism involving physical, cognitive and behavioural components. It is described as a combination of bodily arousal, e.g., increased heartrate, thoughts and feelings, i.e. emotional tone and expressive behaviour i.e. facial expression.

Question 2.
Emotional well-being.
Answer:
Emotional well-being means managing our emotions, both positive and negative ones, so that we can lead a healthy and productive life. Persons who have high emotional well-being experience benefits such as-

1. better able to deal with stress
2. better self-regulation
3. increased productivity in tasks undertaken
4. increased creativity and openness to new experiences
5. life satisfaction due to meaningful activities and relationship.

Question 3.
Emotional Abuse.
Answer:
Emotional abuse is any kind of abuse that is emotional rather than physical in nature. It occurs when one person subjects or exposes another person to intentionally harmful behaviour that may result in anxiety, depression and psychological trauma in the victim.
The types of emotional abuse may be-

1. verbal abuse such as blaming, insulting, labeling, threatening, swearing, etc.
2. nonverbal abuse such as ignoring, rejection, bullying, spying, etc.

Question 4.
Anger Management.
Answer:
Anger management is an intervention programme to prevent anger from turning into a habit or obstacle. It enables the person to create awareness of and responsibility for his/her emotions. Anger management involves two aspects (i) managing one’s own anger (ii) learning to respond effectively to anger in others. The three R’s in anger management are Relax, Reassess and Respond.

Answer the following questions in 35 – 40 words each.

Question 1.
What are the techniques to deal with emotional abuse?
Answer:
Emotional abuse is any kind of abuse that is emotional rather than physical in nature. It occurs when one person subjects or exposes another person to intentionally harmful behaviour that may result in anxiety, depression and psychological trauma for the victim.
The techniques to deal with emotional abuse-

1. Accept that emotional abuse is not because of you, i.e., don’t justify the actions of the abuser.
2. Respond assertively to the abuser but seek distance from him/her.
3. Give yourself time to heal.
4. Prioritize your self-care, eating right, exercise, etc.
5. Mobilise support from family and friends. If needed, seek professional help.

Question 2.
What are the benefits of emotional well-being?
Answer:
Emotional well-being means managing our emotions, both positive and negative ones, so that we can lead a healthy and productive life. Persons who have high emotional well-being experience benefits such as-

1. better able to deal with stress
2. better self-regulation
3. increased productivity in tasks undertaken
4. increased creativity and openness to new experiences
5. life satisfaction due to meaningful activities and relationship.

Write short notes on the following in 50 – 60 words each.

Question 1
Characteristics of emotions
Answer:
The word emotion is derived from the latin word ‘emovere’, which means to stir up or to move. An emotion refers to an involuntary, aroused state of an organism involving physical, cognitive and behavioural components. It is described as a combination of bodily arousal, e.g., increased heartrate, thoughts and feelings, i.e. emotional tone and expressive behaviour i.e. facial expression.
Some characteristics of emotions are-

1. Emotions may be positive, e.g., joy or negative, e.g., anger.
2. Emotions may occur for a brief period or may be long lasting.
3. Emotions may be important for our survival, e.g., fear or for our psychological well-being, e.g., love.
4. Emotions differ in intensity in expression for e.g., annoyance-anger-rage.
5. Complex emotions (higher cognitive level emotions) result from the combination of basic emotions, for e.g., surprise and sadness lead to disappointment.
6. According to Ekman, there are six basic (universal) types of emotions, i.e., happiness, sadness, anger, fear, surprise, disgust.

Question 2.
Physiological changes during emotions.
Answer:
Physiological changes refer to automatic reactions that take place in our body in response to some stimulus, for e.g., if you saw a snake, the brain at the cognitive level perceived the stimulus as dangerous. This leads to physiological arousal such as dilated pupils, increased heart rate, increased pulse rate, sweating. At the emotional level you experience fear. The Autonomic Nervous System and Glandular system signal the pituitary gland which activates the adrenal glands to secrete the cortisol hormone. This triggers “the fight or flight” response. At the behavioural level there is an action plan such as running away or calling for help, etc.

Answer the following questions 80 – 100 words each.

Question 1.
Theories of emotions.
Points:
(i) James-Lange theory
(ii) Cannon-Bard theory
(iii) Schachter-Singer theory
Answer:
The word emotion is derived from the latin word ‘emovere’, which means to stir up or to move. An emotion refers to an involuntary, aroused state of an organism involving physical, cognitive and behavioural components. It is described as a combination of bodily arousal, e.g., increased heartrate, thoughts and feelings, i.e. emotional tone and expressive behaviour, i.e., facial expression.
The main theories of emotions are-
(i) James-Lange theory – It was one of the earliest theories to explain emotion. According to William James and Carl Lange, physiological arousal instigates the experience of emotion. It proposes that each specific emotion is attached to a different pattern of physiological arousal. For e.g., we feel sad because we cry. The sequence of events in emotional experience is Emotion Stimulus – Physiological Response Pattern → Affective Experience.

(ii) Cannon-Bard theory – According to Walter Cannon and Philip Bard, we may experience the same physiological arousal but emotions can be different, for e.g., we don’t cry only when we are sad but we also cry when we are angry or extremely happy. We experience physiological arousal and feelings at the same time and independently. For e.g., seeing a man with a gun prompts the feeling of fear as well as a racing heartbeat.

(iii) Schachter and Singer’s Two Factor theory – According to Stanley Schachter and Jerome Singer, emotion is based on two factors, i.e., physiological arousal and cognitive label, for e.g., an environmental stimuli (growling dog) elicits a physiological response (increased heart rate). We cognitively label this response (fear).

Question 2.
Emotional well-being.
Points:
(i) Meaning
(ii) Aspects
(iii) Benefits
Answer:
The word emotion is derived from the latin word ‘emovere’, which means to stir up or to move. An emotion refers to an involuntary, aroused state of an organism involving physical, cognitive and behavioural components. It is described as a combination of bodily arousal, e.g., increased heart rate, thoughts and feelings, i.e. emotional tone and expressive behaviour i.e. facial expression.

(i) Meaning – Emotional well-being means managing our emotions, both positive and negative ones, so that we can lead a healthy and productive life. Emotional well-being is not easily observable. It can be guaged on the basis of how a person rationally handles a situation involving some stressors or leading to negative emotions. Emotional well-being refers to understanding and managing one’s emotions without getting overwhelmed by negative emotions but instead encouraging positive emotions.

(ii) Aspects – The aspects of emotional well-being are at three levels viz. physical, emotional and social.

1. Physical level, i.e., well balanced diet, exercise.
2. Emotional level, i.e., practise mindfulness, raising levels of motivation and optimism.
3. Social level, i.e., engaging in prosocial behaviour, meaningful relationships.

(iii) Benefits – Persons who have high emotional well-being experience benefits such as-

1. Coping with stress – It helps to deal with stress using healthy methods such as exercise, social support, etc.
2. Better self-regulation – It enables the person to label how they feel and accept negative emotions life fear, anger, etc.
3. Increases productivity in tasks undertaken – The ability to focus is enhanced, the person feels positive and energized.
4. Increases creativity – The person indulges in divergent thinking, shows curiosity is open to new experiences.
5. Life satisfaction – The individual is able to have meaningful interactions and relationships, show empathy, altruism and engage in activities like volunteer work.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 History Important Questions Chapter 6 Indian Struggle against Colonialism Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th History Important Questions Chapter 6 Indian Struggle against Colonialism

1A. Choose the correct alternative and rewrite the statement.

Question 1.
The British East India Company took charge of Khandesh in the year _________
(a) 1816
(b) 1817
(c) 1818
(d) 1819
Answer:
(c) 1818

Question 2.
_________ blocked all supplies coming to the Bhils.
(a) Captain Robinson
(b) Captain Taylor
(c) Captain Evans
(d) Captain Briggs
Answer:
(d) Captain Briggs

Question 3.
In Satara district the Ramoshi community revolted under the leadership of _________
(a) Chitur Singh
(b) Umaji Naik
(c) Santaji Naik
(d) Hansaji Naik
Answer:
(a) Chitur Singh

Question 4.
_________ seized the government treasury at Bhamburde.
(a) Bhujba
(b) Santaji Naik
(c) Yesaji
(d) Umaji Naik
Answer:
(d) Umaji Naik

Question 5.
In Kolhapur state, the keeper of forts was called _________
(a) Gadkari
(b) Ramoshi
(c) Kamgar
(d) Kadam
Answer:
(a) Gadkari

Question 6.
_________ adopted the policy of Doctrine of Lapse.
(a) Lord Wellesley
(b) Lord Dalhousie
(c) Lord Ripon
(d) Lord Lytton
Answer:
(b) Lord Dalhousie

Question 7.
_________ was reinstated as the ruling emperor of India.
(a) Aurangzeb
(b) Shahjahan
(c) Bahadur Shah
(d) Bakht Khan
Answer:
(c) Bahadur Shah

Question 8.
_________ was the queen of Jhansi.
(a) Saraswatibai
(b) Lakshmibai
(c) Radhabai
(d) Parvatibai
Answer:
(b) Lakshmibai

Question 9.
The Madras Mahajan Sabha was established in _________
(a) 1884
(b) 1885
(c) 1886
(d) 1887
Answer:
(a) 1884

Question 10.
_________ was the founder of the Indian National Congress.
(a) Dadabhai Nowrojee
(b) Allan Octavian Hume
(c) Mrs. Annie Besant
(d) George Thompson
Answer:
(b) Allan Octavian Hume

Question 11.
_________ published a poem called ‘Shivajiche Udgar’.
(a) Mahratta
(b) Darpan
(c) Kesari
(d) Young India
Answer:
(c) Kesari

Question 12.
Shyamji Krishna Verma founded _________ in London.
(a) India House
(b) Burma House
(c) Male House
(d) London House
Answer:
(a) India House

1B. Find the incorrect pair from group ‘B’ and write the corrected one.

Question 1.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(a) Dwarakanath Tagore	Land Holder’s Association
(b) William Adams	British India Society
(c) Surendranath Banerjee	Indian Association
(d) George Thompson	Madras Native

Answer:
George Thompson – Bengal British India Society

Question 2.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(a) Mitra Mela	Vinayak Damodar Savarkar
(b) Anusheelan Samiti	Rasbihari Bose
(c) Gadar	Lala Hardayal
(d) Hindustan Republican Association	Ashfaqulla

Answer:
Anusheelan Samiti – Aurohindo Cohosh

Question 3.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(a) Champaranya Satyagraha	1917
(b) Rowlatt Act	1918
(c) Non-Co-operation Movement	1920
(d) Dandi March	1930

Answer:
Rowlatt Act – 1919

Question 4.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(a) Sucheta Kripalani	Dadi
(b) Aruna Asaf Ali	Kusum
(c) Ram Manohar Lohia	Doctor
(d) S.M. Joshi	Imam Ali

Answer:
Aruna Asaf Ali – Kadam

2A. Write the names of historical places/persons/events.

Question 1.
The state took over by the British from the Bhosale of Nagpur in 1803 –
Answer:
Odisha

Question 2.
Keeper of forts –
Answer:
Gadkari

Question 3.
The British Commander-in-Chief who defeated Tatya Tope –
Answer:
Sir Colin Campbell

Question 4.
A proclamation issued by Queen Victoria –
Answer:
Queen’s Proclamation

Question 5.
Venue of the first session of the Indian National Congress –
Answer:
Mumbai

Question 6.
Founder of the Indian National Congress –
Answer:
Allan Octavian Hume

Question 7.
Year in which the Vernacular Press Act was implemented –
Answer:
1878

Question 8.
Partition of Bengal was planned by –
Answer:
Lord Curzon

Question 9.
The policy of Lokmanya Tilak was known as –
Answer:
Responsive Co-operation

Question 10.
Author of ‘1857 – The First War of Independence –
Answer:
Vinayak Damodar Savarkar

Question 11.
Indian spinning wheel –
Answer:
Charkha

Question 12.
The mantra is given by Gandhiji –
Answer:
Do or Die

Question 13.
Pseudonym took by Achyutrao Patwardhan –
Answer:
Kusum

Question 14.
The Constitution of India was implemented on –
Answer:
26th January 1950

2B. Choose the correct reason from those given below and complete the sentence.

Question 1.
The Sawantwadi aristocracy got together and revolted against the British because _________
(a) they were angered by the British policies
(b) the British were interfering in their internal affairs
(c) the British had taken over their territories
(d) the Sawantwadi aristocracy wanted to be free
Answer:
(a) they were angered by the British policies

Question 2.
The freedom struggle of1857 was the result of mounting pressures because of _________
(a) increasing discontent of Indian soldiers in the British army
(b) political and social reasons
(c) religious and economic reasons
(d) All of the above reasons
Answer:
(d) All of the above reasons

Question 3.
The Doctrine of Lapse was adopted by Lord Dalhousie because _________
(a) the British wanted to annex all the princely states which did not have a rightful heir
(b) the British wanted money from all the princely states
(c) the British did not like the princes
(d) the British considered themselves superior
Answer:
(a) the British wanted to annex all the princely states which did not have a rightful heir

Question 4.
In 1839, William Adams established ‘British India Society’ in London _________
(a) to acquaint the British citizens in England with the culture of India
(b) to acquaint the British citizens in England with the conditions in British India
(c) to acquaint the British citizens in England with the clothes of India
(d) to acquaint the British citizens in England with the diet of India
Answer:
(b) to acquaint the British citizens in England with the conditions in British India

Question 5.
Gandhiji led the Salt Satyagraha in Gujarat because _________
(a) salt was very expensive
(b) salt that was sold in the market was of poor quality
(c) the British government had levied a heavy tax on salt, an essential commodity in daily life
(d) the British government had stopped the sale of salt
Answer:
(c) the British government had levied a heavy tax on salt, an essential commodity in daily life

3A. Observe the map on textbook page 44 and answer the questions based on it.

Question 1.
Name some territories that were under British control.
Answer:
Nagpur, Satara, Jabalpur, Jhansi, Karachi etc.

Question 2.
Name some important centers of freedom struggle.
Answer:
Aurangabad, Kolhapur, Delhi, Agra etc.

Question 3.
Name the islands that lie in the Bay of Bengal.
Answer:
Andaman and Nicobar Islands lie in the Bay of Bengal.

Question 4.
Where are the Lakshadweep Islands located?
Answer:
The Lakshadweep Islands are located in the Arabian Sea.

3B. Complete the following concept map.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Leaders	Assumed Pseudonyms
1. Sucheta Kriplani	………………………………..
2. ……………………………..	Kusum
3. Ram Manohar Lohia	………………………………..
4. …………………………….	Sushila, Satya
5. Baba Raghavdas	……………………………….
6. ……………………………	Kadam
7. S.M. Joshi	……………………………….

Answer:

Leaders	Assumed Pseudonyms
1. Sucheta Kriplani	Dadi/Bahanji
2. Achyutrao Patwardhan	Kusum
3. Ram Manohar Lohia	Doctor
4. Sadique Ali	Sushila, Satya
5. Baba Raghavdas	Didi
6. Aruna Asaf Ali	Kadam
7. S.M. Joshi	Imam Ali

Question 3.

Answer:

Question 4.

Answer:

4A. Write short notes.

Question 1.
Sedition Law.
Answer:

• On 25th November 1870, James Stephen added section 124(A) to the Indian Penal Code. It is known as ‘Sedition Law’.
• This law declared that any act leading to insurgencies such as using provocative words, writing, signs, or similar things against the British rule was a crime punishable with a fine or imprisonment or death sentence.
• ‘Bangvasi’, a weekly magazine was the first one to be charged for treason and tried under this law.

Question 2.
Vernacular Press Act of 1878.
Answer:

• On 14th March 1878, the Vernacular Press Act was implemented.
• This act was concerned with writing and printing articles that would lead to insurgence against the British Government or the creation of hatred among people on the basis of race, caste, and creed.
• By applying this law, the British Government had confiscated 210 Marathi books. Lokmanya Tilak, Shivrampant Paranjape, and Ganesh Damodar Savarkar were put under trial for sedition.
• ‘1857-The first war of Independence’ written by Swatantryaveer Savarkar was one of the confiscated books.

4B. Explain the following statements with reasons.

Question 1.
There was discontent among the soldiers in the Indian army which resulted in the freedom struggle of 1857.
Answer:
The freedom struggle of 1857 took place for the following reasons:

• The increasing discontent in the army was not just due to mounting pressures but also due to political, social, religious, and economic reasons.
• The treatment given to Indian soldiers and the restrictions imposed on them was the root cause of their discontent.
• The soldiers felt hurt because of many reasons such as cuts in their allowances, being compelled to cross the sea, frequent humiliation during the daily parade, partiality ruling large in matters of transfers, being left out during promotions, etc.

Question 2.
The Doctrine of Lapse was adopted by Lord Dalhousie.
Answer:
This policy was adopted by Lord Dalhousie.

• According to this policy, an adopted son (Dattak) was not allowed to succeed a deceased ruler of a princely state unless there was a pre-approval to such succession by the British Government.
• By implementing this policy, Lord Dalhousie annexed the states of Satara, Sambalpur, Jaitpur, Udaipur, Jhansi, and Nagpur.
• This policy created a lot of discontent among the rulers of princely states who were subjected to this policy.
• Annexation of the princely states put the soldiers in the army out of jobs.
• Along with annexing the states the British Government also seized inherited landholdings which had made a large number of Indians unhappy.

Question 3.
The ‘Queen’s Proclamation’ was announced after the revolt of 1857.
Answer:
Queen Victoria of England issued a charter known as the ‘Queen’s Proclamation’ on 1st November 1858. The following were the main provisions of the charter:

• Lord Canning was appointed as the first viceroy and Governor-General of India.
• The Indian princes were assured that their territories would not be annexed and they were given the right to adopt sons. Thus, the Doctrine of Lapse was withdrawn.
• The Indian princes were further assured that all the treaties which they had entered into with the East India Company would be honoured by the Crown.
• She further declared that all Indians were her subjects and no one would be discriminated on the basis of race, creed, caste and birthplace, employment on the basis of qualification and skills, no interference in religious matters, fulfillment of the agreements with the rulers of the princely states, etc.

Question 4.
The war of 1857 had a deep impact on Indian society.
Answer:
The following were the effects of the revolt of 1857:

• Provincial and communal loyalties were gradually replaced by a feeling of being united as a nation and national loyalty.
• It dawned on the Indian people that they cannot win in armed combat with the British and a need was felt to find more innovative methods to counter the British rule.
• Becoming aware of the united Indian people during the 1857 revolt, the British adopted a policy of ‘Divide and Rule.

Question 5.
The freedom struggle of 1857 was the result of mounting pressures.
Answer:
The freedom struggle of 1857 was the result of mounting pressures because of:

• Increasing discontent of Indian soldiers in the British army.
• Political social religious and economic reasons.
• Lord Dalhousie’s ‘Doctrine of Lapse’ on the civil front.
• Introduction of new land revenue systems like ‘Kayamdhara or Zamindari’ (permanent settlement) ‘Ryotwari’ and ‘Mahalwari’.
• Religious conversions of the British and British policies with regard to Indian customs and traditions contributed to the increasing discontent among the Indian people.

Question 6.
The differences between the Moderates and Extremists reached their climax in the Surat session in 1907.
Answer:
The Surat session in 1907 witnessed the split of the moderates and the extremists because the moderates wanted to avoid the resolution of ‘Swadeshi’ and ‘Boycott’. The Extremists wanted to stop these attempts of the moderates. This increased the tension during the session. Reconciliation became impossible ultimately the Indian National Congress split into two groups.

Question 7.
The Indian movements against British imperialism took many forms, one of them being the armed revolution.
Answer:
The armed revolution was one of the forms of Indian movements against the British. The main objective of the armed revolutionaries was to weaken the government administration to dispel the fear of the government in people’s minds and thus to uproot the British rule in India.

Question 8.
Parallel governments (Pratisarkar) were established in some parts of India.
Answer:
In 1942, in some parts of India, people were successful in uprooting British Governance. In Midnapur District (Bengal), Balia(U.P), and Bhagalpur, Purnia (Bihar) near Azamgarh the British officers were forced to leave their offices people took charge of the governance at these places. Krantisinha Nana Patil a revolutionist established Pratisarkar (Parallel government) in the Satara district of Maharashtra. He established ‘People’s Government’.

5. State your opinion.

Question 1.
The policy of Lokmanya Tilak is known as ‘Responsive Co-operation’.
Answer:

• The First World War had put the British in a difficult situation.
• Lokmanya Tilak proposed that it was the right time for Indians to take advantage of the situation resulted because of the war and ask for independence.
• The Governor of Bombay called a meeting of Indian leaders for help.
• Lokmanya Tilak in very clear terms told the British that the Indian soldiers would be sent to fight if only, the British Government promise ‘Swaraj’.
• This policy of Lokmanya Tilak is known as ‘Responsive Co-operation’.

6. Answer the following questions in detail.

Question 1.
Write a note on the land revenue system introduced in British India.
Answer:

• The British tried to introduce new land revenue systems like ‘Kayamdhara or Zamindari’ (permanent settlement), ‘Ryotwari’, and ‘Mahalwari’.
• These revenue systems were formed without any concern for the Indian tradition of revenue systems, the Indian cropping cycle, and the Indian climate.
• The new revenue systems introduced by the British made the common farmer penniless while making the Government and the landlords rich.
• Earlier, the farmer could pay land tax by way of food grains and other commodities but now he had to pay in hard cash.
• The farmer had to pay tax despite a good or bad harvest. Moreover, the farmer was driven to a dire condition if there was a famine.
• The farmer was thus caught between the Government and money lenders.

Question 2.
Write a note on the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association.
Answer:

• Bhagat Singh, Chandrashekhar Azad, Raj Guru, and Sukhdev established the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association in 1928 in Delhi.
• Their goal was to free India from British exploitation.
• They wanted to rip off the British system that exploited the farmers and labourers.
• Their organization had an independent department known as the ‘Hindustan Socialist Republican Army’ for collecting arms and executing their plans.
• Chandrashekhar Azad was the chief of that organisation.
• The members of this organisation had completed several adventurous tasks for instance Bhagat Singh and Rajguru avenged the death of Lala Lajpat Rai, Saunders was killed to teach a lesson to British officers.

Question 3.
Discuss the differences between the Moderates and Extremists.
Answer:
The moderates and extremists differed on the following grounds.

• The Extremist’s wing of thinkers insisted that independence should be the natural priority. An independent nation could provide the right set-up for social reformation on the other hand the moderates thought that without social reformation independence was incomplete. They did not mind appealing to the British Government to help in the task of social reforms.
• Gopal Ganesh Agarkar was at the helm of those who insisted on the priority of social reforms. He emphasized reforming oneself. Lokmanya Tilak, leader of the extremists wanted that the home being taken over by others should be recovered first, then only we can reform it.
• Pherozeshah Mehta, Gopal Krishna Gokhale were the leaders of the moderates. They felt that the British Government will not disappoint them if they could, convince the government about their grievances with necessary proofs Lokmanya Tilak on the other hand felt that the British Government will not yield to applications requests and speeches.
• The differences between Moderates and Extremists reached their climax in the Surat session of the Indian National Congress in 1907.
• The Moderates wanted to avoid the resolutions of ‘Swadeshi and Boycott’ while the extremists wanted to stop these attempts of the moderates.
• This increased the tension during the session. Reconciliation became impossible ultimately the Indian National Congress (INC) split into two groups.

7. Answer the following question with the help of the given points.

Question 1.
Discuss Gandhiji’s role in the following:
(a) Champaranya Satyagraha
(b) Rowlatt Act
(c) Non-Co-operation Movement
(d) Salt Satyagraha
(e) Quit India Movement
Answer:
(a) Champaranya Satyagraha (1917):

• After returning to India Gandhiji took up issues of farmers in Champaranya, Bihar in 1917.
• The British plant owners were pressing the farmers to cultivate only indigo. Not only that, they used to buy indigo at very low rates from the farmers.
• Gandhiji decided to protest against this exploitation and to relieve the farmers from their misery by doing satyagraha Gandhiji was successful in his efforts and the British banned the compulsion of cultivating indigo.

(b) Rowlatt Act (1919):

• The British Government formed a committee to suppress the national movement that was spreading rapidly.
• Sir Sydney Rowlatt, the British officer was the president of the committee.
• An act was passed in 1919 known as the Rowlatt Act by which the British Government had the authority to imprison any Indian without a warrant and to put them under trial without any inquiry.
• Mahatma Gandhiji decided to protest against this act through satyagraha.
• He appealed to all people to go for a mass protest on 6th April 1919 by closing down all daily transactions.

(c) Non Co-operation Movement (1920):

• In 1920, in the Nagpur session of the Indian National Congress, a resolution was passed to start the ‘Non-Co-operation Movement’ all over India.
• Mahatma Gandhiji was asked to lead the movement. It was decided to boycott all schools, colleges, legislative bodies, courts, government offices, and imported goods.
• Indian people responded to this call in a commendable way. Students participated in large numbers. Several lawyers stopped their practice and participated in the movement.
• Among them were C. R. Das, Motilal Nehru, M.R. Jaikar, and many other prominent figures.
• In many places clothes were publicly burnt. The farmers gave a tremendous response to Mahatma Gandhi’s appeal of Non-Co-operation. The working class also participated.
• A nationwide series of public strikes were started.
• ‘Charkha’ became the symbol of ‘Swarajya’ and ‘Swadeshi’ became a household term in India.

(d) Salt Satyagraha (1930):

• The British had levied a heavy tax on salt, an essential commodity in daily life. Mahatma Gandhi declared satyagraha to protest against this tax.
• On 12th March 1930, he began a march from his Sabarmati Ashram to Dandi on the Gujarat seacoast against this unjust tax.
• On 6th April on the sea coast at Dandi, he broke the British law of salt with a token act of collecting a handful of salt from there.

(e) Quit India Movement:

• On 8th August 1942, a resolution was passed in the INC session for the British to ‘Quit India’ and it was approved with a great majority. Under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi, this movement took shape.
• This was the last important step in the struggle for India’s freedom. As a result, all the leaders clapped into jails.
• This agitation took a violent form and the British government perpetrated human atrocities on the people.
• But an awakening had taken place and the people were not prepared to remain under the British on any account.
• Mahatma Gandhi gave the mantra ‘Do or Die. His words created a new spirit among the Indians.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 History Important Questions Chapter 10 Cold War Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th History Important Questions Chapter 10 Cold War

1A. Choose the correct alternative and rewrite the statement.

Question 1.
Walter Lippman was the first to use the term __________
(a) Hot War
(b) Warm War
(c) Cold War
(d) World War
Answer:
(c) Cold War

Question 2.
The term __________ was used by Sir Winston Churchill, the prime minister of England for the divisive line between Eastern European nations and Western European nations.
(a) Steel Curtain
(b) Copper Curtain
(c) Bronze Curtain
(d) Iron Curtain
Answer:
(d) Iron Curtain

Question 3.
After the Second World War was over, America had a __________ plan for the post-war reconstruction of Europe.
(a) Marshall
(b) Eisenhower
(c) Washington
(d) Nixon
Answer:
(a) Marshall

Question 4.
In 1961, __________ built the ‘Berlin Wall’.
(a) Germany
(b) Soviet Russia
(c) America
(d) Great Britain
Answer:
(b) Soviet Russia

Question 5.
__________ means Restructuring.
(a) Glasnost
(b) Duma
(c) Perestroika
(d) Glavlit
Answer:
(c) Perestroika

Question 6.
The __________ Conference inl973 was an attempt to end the Vietnam War.
(a) Moscow
(b) Bonn
(c) Berlin
(d) Paris
Answer:
(d) Paris

Question 7.
The ‘three-way defence pact’ treaty in the Pacific region is known as __________
(a) ANZUS Treaty
(b) NATO Treaty
(c) SEATO Treaty
(d) CENTO Treaty
Answer:
(a) ANZUS Treaty

Question 8.
SAARC was officially established at __________
(a) New Delhi
(b) Dhaka
(c) Colombo
(d) Kathmandu
Answer:
(b) Dhaka

1B. Find the incorrect pair from group ‘B’ and write the corrected one.

Question 1.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(a) NATO	London
(b) SEATO	Thailand
(c) CENTO	Turkey
(d) SAARC	Dhaka

Answer:
NATO – Paris

Question 2.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
(a) Sir Winston Churchill	France
(b) Premier Stalin	Russia
(c) Mr. Eisenhower	America
(d) Ayatollah Khomeini	Iran

Answer:
Sir Winston Churchill – England

2A. Write the names of historical places/persons/events.

Question 1.
The wall was built by Soviet Russia in 1961 –
Answer:
Berlin Wall

Question 2.
Venue of the conference held in 1978 to resolve the strife between Israel and Arabs –
Answer:
Camp David

Question 3.
The meaning of ‘Openness’ in Russian means –
Answer:
Glasnost

Question 4.
Perestroika means –
Answer:
Restructuring

Question 5.
Capital of Germany –
Answer:
Berlin

Question 6.
The Germans called the ‘Berlin Wall’ –
Answer:
‘Wall of Shame’

Question 7.
The ‘Southeast Asia Collective Defence Treaty is also known as –
Answer:
Manila Pact

Question 8.
The full form of SAARC is –
Answer:
South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation.

2B. Choose the correct reason from those given below and complete the sentence.

Question 1.
The Western European nations under the influence of America adopted __________
(a) capitalist ideology and dictatorship
(b) capitalist ideology and democratic system
(c) communist ideology and democratic system
(d) communist ideology and dictatorship
Answer:
(b) capitalist ideology and democratic system

Question 2.
Europe was divided after the Second World War on the basis of __________
(a) only military concerns
(b) only political concerns
(c) political, economic, and military concerns
(d) only economic concerns
Answer:
(c) political, economic, and military concerns

3B. Complete the following concept map.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

4A. Write short notes.

Question 1.
ANZUS Treaty.
Answer:

• The word ‘ANZUS’ stands for Australia(A), New Zealand (NZ), and the United States of America (US).
• These nations signed a treaty on 1st September 1951. This treaty was signed for their collective security and therefore is commonly known as ANZUS Treaty.
• These nations are in the Pacific region.
• Hence, this treaty is also described as a ‘three-way defense pact’.
• This was the first of its kind.
• This treaty had one more objective to protect the countries in the Pacific Ocean from communist China.

Question 2.
Criteria of Non-Aligned Movement.
Answer:

• Criteria for Non-Alignment (Adopted at Belgrade, 1961)
• The country should have adopted an independent policy based on the co-existence of states with different political and social systems.
• Support national independence movements.
• It should not be a member of a multi-lateral alliance concluded in the context of the Cold War.
• It should not be a member of a bilateral military alliance or a regional defense pact in the context of great power conflicts.
• It should not concede military bases to foreign powers in the context of great power rivalry.

Question 3.
Challenges before SAARC.
Answer:
SAARC is laden with many difficult issues to tackle such as

• The economic disparity among the member nations.
• Expenditure allotment for defense.
• Inadequate infrastructure.
• Underdevelopment of agricultural sector.
• Rising terrorism.
• Population explosion.
• Insufficient trade.
• Divergent political systems.
• Religious-lingual diversity etc.

5. State your opinion.

Question 1.
The Warsaw Pact was signed.
Answer:

• To oppose American policies and to strengthen communist nations, Soviet Russia brought together seven communist countries in eastern and central Europe known as ‘Eastern Bloc’ and signed a treaty commonly known as Warsaw Pact.
• Along with Soviet Russia, Albania, Bulgaria, Czechoslovakia, East Germany, Hungary, Poland, and Romania signed this treaty.
• Albania withdrew from it in 1968.

6. Answer the following questions in detail.

Question 1.
Write a note on the aftermath of the ‘Cold War’.
Answer:

• During the period of the Cold War there were many factors that threatened the very future of mankind.
• These included political misunderstandings among nations, world’s nations splitting into two distinct groups, priorities to secret political moves and treaties, absence of priority to the process of disarmament, use of science for producing destructive weapons, neglect of basic and important issues like food, clothing, and housing, etc.
• Both the USA and Soviet Russia had to pay very heavily for their strategy of letting the situation of the Cold War prevail over a prolonged period.
• The consequence of the dissolution of Soviet Russia left the USA as the only superpower in the world.

Question 2.
Discuss Mikhail Gorbachev’s era.
Answer:

• Mikhail Gorbachev became the General Secretary of the Communist Party of Soviet Russia and the Premier of Soviet Russia in 1985.
• His period saw the end of the Cold War.
• He introduced important reforms in Soviet Russia through his policies known as ‘Perestroika’ (Restructuring) and Glasnost (Openness).
• During his time the economy had grown weaker.
• Gorbachev tried to normalize it by restructuring the political and economic systems of Soviet Russia.
• He attempted to democratize the political system by way of open elections and to end the authoritarian rule of the communist party.
• He decentralized the economic machinery of the state.
• Authors, journalists, and intellectuals were given more freedom of expression.
• However, Gorbachev could not stop the integration of his own country.
• Soviet Russia disintegrated during his period.

7. Answer the following question with the help of the given points.

Question 1.
(a) NATO
(b) ANZUS
(c) SEATO
(d) Warsaw Pact
Answer:
(a) NATO was an alliance created to protect 29 of the European countries from the expansionist policy of Soviet Russia. Its members included Norway, France, Italy, Denmark, Great Britain, America, Netherland, Portugal, Turkey, West Germany, Greece, Belgium, Canada, Iceland, Luxembourg, and Spain.
A few of the important terms included in the NATO alliance are as follows:

• An attack on any of the member countries of the alliance would be treated as an attack on all member countries; all of the member countries will try to maintain peace and security; any of the mutual issues among the member countries shall be resolved through discussions.
• The headquarters of NATO are in Paris.
• America had a significant influence in the decision-making process of NATO. To counter America’s influential position in NATO, Soviet Russia brought together the communist countries in Europe and a treaty commonly known as the ‘Warsaw Pact’.

(b) ANZUS Treaty:

• The word ‘ANZUS’ stands for Australia(A), New Zealand (NZ), and the United States of America(US).
• These nations signed a treaty on 1st September 1951. This treaty was signed for their collective security and therefore is commonly known as ANZUS Treaty.
• These nations are in the Pacific region.
• Hence, this treaty is also described as a ‘three-way defense pact’.
• This was the first of its kind.
• This treaty had one more objective to protect the countries in the Pacific Ocean from communist China.

(c) SEATO:

• (Southeast Asia Treaty Organisation) England, America, France, Australia, New Zealand, Pakistan, Thailand, and the Philippines came together and signed a treaty on 8th September 1954 in Manila (Philippines) to ensure the collective defense of the countries in South East Asia. This treaty is also known as the Southeast Asia Collective Defence Treaty or Manila Pact.
• The pact was mainly intended to stop the spread of communism in South East Asia. It was decided that if any of the nations included in the pact was attacked then other nations signing the pact would collectively stand up against it and in times of peace, they would extend help for the social and the economic development of each other. However, this treaty had a number of flaws. Although it was named as the treaty of the South East Asian countries, only three countries from Asia namely Thailand, the Philippines, and Pakistan were included in it. The western power did not have any deep understanding of the problems of the Asian countries.
• The headquarters of SEATO was located in Thailand. In 1973, Pakistan withdrew from it. In 1975 France stopped providing monetary help to this organization.
• On 30th June 1977, this Organisation was officially dissolved.

(d) Warsaw Pact:

• To oppose American policies and to strengthen communist nations, Soviet Russia brought together seven communist countries in eastern and central Europe known as ‘Eastern Bloc’ and signed a treaty commonly known as Warsaw Pact.
• Along with Soviet Russia, Albania, Bulgaria, Czechoslovakia, East Germany, Hungary, Poland, and Romania signed this treaty.
• Albania withdrew from it in 1968.