Class 9

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 10 Changing Life 2 Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 10 Changing Life 2

Class 9 History Chapter 10 Changing Life 2 Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Choose the proper option and rewrite the completed sentences:

Question 1.
India won the cricket world cup under the captainship of ______.
(a) Sunil Gavaskar
(b) Kapil Dev
(c) Sayyad Kirmani
(d) Sandip Patil
Answer:
(b) Kapil Dev

Question 2.
The _____ language is gaining importance in India due to the process of globalisation.
(a) Punjabi
(b) French
(c) English
(d) Hindi
Answer:
(c) English

2. Complete the information in the following table:

Question 1.

(1)	Important languages in India	…………
(2)	Players who have won medals at the Olympic games	……………
(3)	Childrens’ movies that you have seen	……………
(4)	Names of channels telecasting various news bulletins	……………..

Answer:

(1)	Important languages in India	Marathi, Hindi, Gujarati
(2)	Players who have won medals at the Olympic games	Karnam Malleswari, Abhinav Bindra, P.V. Sindhu
(3)	Childrens’ movies that you have seen	The Lion King, Minions, Finding Nemo etc.
(4)	Names of channels telecasting various news bulletins	DD News, CNN, ABP News

3. Give reasons for the following statements:

Question 1.
Cricket began to be played all over India, to a greater or smaller extent.
Answer:
Cricket began to be played all over India, to a greater or smaller extent because:-

• In 1983, the Indian team won the World Cup for cricket, under the captainship of Kapil Dev. It was a historic victory.
• Cricket instantly won great popularity across the country.
• In the same year, Sunil Gavaskar broke the earlier record of maximum centuries in test cricket.
• In 1985, India won the ‘Benson and Hedges’ World Championship of cricket. As a result, cricket came to be played in all States to a lesser or greater extent, but at the cost of indigenous Indian games.

Question 2.
The economy of movies is changing.
Answer:
(i) Movies in foreign languages are now translated. Even during the screening of English movies, a short Hindi translation now appears on the screen as sub-titles.

(ii) Hindi movies now compete with ‘global’ movies as they have reached every nook and comer of the world. We see a reflection of politics, social events, industry and technology in the movies.

(iii) Movies which were 3-4 hours long are now of only one or one and a half hours. Moreover, the concept of one screen and one cinema hall has given way to multiplexes.

(iv) The days of a movie running for 100 weeks in one cinema hall are over. Now one movie runs in thousands of cinema halls in India and abroad simultaneously.

(v) This development has changed the economy of movies. Production of movies has attained the status of industry.

(vi) The industry now employs crores of people. The movie industry in regional languages is also thriving.
Therefore the economy of movies is changing.

4. Answer the following questions in 25-30 words:

Question 1.
Why is it necessary to keep alive the dialects of Indian languages?
Answer:
(i) Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannad, Kashmiri, Malayalam, Marathi, Odiya, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu, Konkani,
Manipuri, Nepali and Sindhi are the official languages in India.
(ii) These Indian languages also have dialects, but their number is now on the decline.
(iii) Timely steps should be taken to nurture them, otherwise we will lose an important part of our heritage.
(iv) Nevertheless, Hindi, which has reached everywhere through the medium of Hindi movies, has served to unite the country by language.

Question 2.
Elaborate upon the changing scope of newspapers.
Answer:
(i) During early post-independence period, the newspapers were expected to not only give the news of daily events, but also give impetus to industry and commerce by printing advertisements.

(ii) Earlier, newspapers were black and white. With the changing times, colour printing became common.

(iii) Earlier, newspapers were thought to be the mouthpieces of the taluka or district. Now they have to face tough competition from the State level newspaper chains. But on the whole, newspapers are now becoming more active.

(iv) Their scope has enlarged to include raising funds for drought affected and flood affected people, helping meritorious students from lower income groups to go for higher education and organizing or sponsoring cultural programmes. This is how newspapers have now become an inseparable part of our lives.

Question 3.
What changes have taken place in the medium of television?
Answer:
(i) Television came to India during the post-independence period. Earlier it was black and white. Now it is coloured. Earlier it was limited to some selected programmes and fixed time-slots.

(ii) Gradually its scope was enlarged to include educational programmes, news bulletins, detailed reporting of the tours of the President and the Prime Minister.

(iii) During the telelcast of Ramayana and Mahabharat, a majority of the people used to sit glued to the television set. These serials proved the popularity of this medium. Then in 1991, CNN channel showed to the entire world a live visual reporting of the Iraq war.

(iv) In 1998, STAR (Satellite Television Asia Region) a private media house entered India, and the uninteresting, monotonous and propagandist news telecasts of the early period underwent a sea change.

(v) The language, the technique of presentation, studios equipped with the latest technology and the use of OB (outdoor broadcasting) vans have expanded the scope of Indian T.V. channels still further, and brought in transparency and variety. Now, every nook and corner of the country is connected.

Class 9 History Chapter 10 Changing Life 2 Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
_____ won the national championship of billiards for teenagers at the age of 15.
(a) Milkha Singh
(b) Rafael Nadal
(c) Geet Sethi
(d) Prakash Padukone
Answer:
(c) Geet Sethi

Question 2.
In________ STAR (Satellite Television Asia Region) a private media house entered India.
(a) 1995
(b) 1996
(c) 1997
(d) 1998
Answer:
(d) 1998

Question 3.
In 1991, _______ showed to the entire world a live visual reporting of the Iraq War.
(a) CNN
(b) CNBC
(c) HBO
(d) NDTV
Answer:
(a) CNN

Question 4.
The Kohima Radio station had to make its broadcast in __________ languages which included English, Hindi and Naga dialects.
(a) 28
(b) 26
(c) 24
(d) 25
Answer:
(d) 25

Identify and write the wrong pair in the following sets:

Question 1.
(1) Karnam Malleshwari – Weight lifting
(ii) Sunil Gavaskar – Ace Indian Cricketer
(iii) CNN – Iraq War
(iv) Star Television – Sponsoring cultural programmes
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Star Television – Sponsoring cultural programmes

Question 2.
(i) Kapil Dev -1983 World Cup
(ii) Geet Sethi – Benson and Hedges
(iii) Karnam Malleshwari – First woman to win a medal at Olympics
(iv) Sunil Gavaskar – Maximum centuries in test cricket
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Geet Sethi – Benson and Hedges

Question 3.
(i) India won Cricket World Cup – 1983
(ii) Karnam Malleshwari won a medal at Olympics – 2000 ’
(iii) Live telecast of Iraq War -1991
(iv) Star T.V. entered India -1992
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Star T.V. entered India -1992

Do as directed:

Question 1.
Complete the following concept:

Answer:

Explain the statements with reason.

Question 1.
Hindi Movies have reached every nook and corner of the world.
Answer:
(i) In the field of entertainment, the place of Hindi movies is incomparable.
(ii) Now movies reflect contemporary themes. Film shooting locales have moved abroad.
(iii) So, viewers can now see many different places in foreign countries. Movies in foreign languages are now translated.
(iv) During the screening of English movies, a short Hindi translation now appears on the screen as sub-titles.
(v) Hindi movies now compete with ‘global’ movies as they have reached every nook and corner of the world.

Read the following passage and answer the questions:

Sports: During the pre-independence period, only a few selected games were known to people in general. Some sports persons changed this situation. This enhanced the status of both – the sports, and the sportspersons. For example, Geet Sethi achieved , global excellence in snooker, a variation of billiards. He won the national championship of billiards for teenagers at the age of 15. Later, he went on to win national and international championships. At the , global level, he won the amateur billiards competition thrice, and the professional one five times. His success made the game popular, and newspapers began to report news about billiards. Thus he made a new field available to rising sportspersons in India, It was in 1983, that the Indian team won the World , Cup for cricket, under the captainship of Kapil Dev. It was a historic victory. Cricket instantly won great , popularity across the country. In the same year, ‘Sunil Gavaskar broke the earlier record of maximum centuries in test cricket. In 1985, India won the ‘Benson and Hedges’ World Championship of cricket. As a , result, cricket came to be played in all States to a lesser or greater extent, but at the cost of indigenous Indian games. A few movies were also produced around the , theme of cricket. Live telecasts of the full five days or , one day of the matches also became available.
India had been participating in Asiad and Olympic of year 2000, Karnam Malleshwari won a medal for, weight-lifting. She was the first Indian woman to win , a medal at the Olympics. India’s representation began to rise in various Olympic games such as hockey, badminton, tennis, swimming, weightlifting and archery.

Question 1.
Which two cricket tournaments mentioned in the passage records a victory for India?
Answer:
World Cup 1983 and Benson and Hedges -1985 are the two tournaments mentioned in the passage that recorded victory for India.

Question 2.
Who was the first Indian woman to win a medal at the Olympics? Which sport did she represent?
Answer:
Karnam Malleshwari was the first Indian Women to win a medal for India at Olympic. She represented India in Women’s Weight Lifting.

Question 3.
Why do you think cricket has overshadowed other indigenous Indian Games?
Answer:
Cricket was introduced in India by the British. In the post independence period this game was mostly played by the elite. In times to come, cricket gained glamour and popularity across the nation gradually giving a setback to other indigenous games in India. Since cricketers received more professional coaching, funding and infrastructural facilities as compared to players of other games, it became inevitable that other games in India were overshadowed.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
Do you think English has threatened our indigenous languages? How?
Answer:
(i) Hindi, which has reached everywhere through the medium of Hindi movies, has served to unite the country by language.
(ii) However, English language has been gaining ground in India due to the process of globalisation which began after 1990.
(iii) English opens the doors to multiple job opportunities. Moreover, Indians are at the forefront in learning English.
(iv) However, it is necessary to ensure that this process does not endanger the very existence of regional languages.

Question 2.
Explain the contribution of Geet Sethi and Kamam Malleswari to the field of sports.
Answer:
(i) Geet Sethi:

• Geet Sethi achieved global excellence in snooker, a variation of billiards.
• He won the national championship of billiards for teenagers at the age of 15.
• Later, he went on to win national and international championships.
• At the global level, he won the amateur billiards competition thrice, and the professional one five times.
• His success made the game popular, and newspapers began to report news about billiards.

(ii) Karnam Malleswari: At the Olympics of the year 2000, Karnam Malleswari won a medal for weightlifting. She was the first Indian woman to win a medal at the Olympics.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 5 Education Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 5 Education

Class 9 History Chapter 5 Education Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Choose the right option and rewrite the sentence:

Question 1.
The Scientist who developed the Param – 8000 supercomputer _________.
(a) Dr Vijay Bhatkar
(b) Dr R. H. Dave
(c) P. Parthasarathy
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Dr. Vijay Bhatkar

Question 2.
The magazine Jeevan Shikshan is published by _______.
(a) Balbharati
(b) University Education Commission
(c) MSCERT
(d) NCERT
Answer:
(c) MSCERT

Question 3.
The educational institution called IIT is famous for educational in the area of _______.
(a) Agriculture
(b) Medicine
(c) Skilled managers
(d) Engineering
Answer:
(d) Engineering

2. Do as directed.

Question 1.
Complete the table below with details about individuals in the education field and their work.

Individual	Work
First education minister of India	Maulana Abul Kalam Azad.
—————–	Chairman of the University Education Commission
Prof Sayyad Rauf	…………..
……………………..	Kosbad Project

Answer:

Individual	Work
First education minister of India	Maulana Abul Kalam Azad.
Dr. Sarvapalli Radhakrishna	Chairman of the University Education Commission
Prof Sayyad Rauf	Preparation of common state-wide curriculum for Std. I to VII for Maharashtra.
Anutai Wagh	Kosbad Project

Question 2.
Obtain information about the National Council of Educational Research and Training, from the internet, and present it in the form of a timeline.
Answer:

1st September 1961	The National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) was established in Delhi.
27th January 1967	The Maharashtra State Bureau of Textbook Production and Curriculum Research (Balbharati) was established in Pune.
1986	The National Policy on Education was adopted.
1988	The ‘Primary Education Curriculum was prepared.
1995	The Competency-based primary education curriculum.
1975	India met with success in its attempt to use a satellite for the purpose of education.
1970	The United Nations declared the year 1970 as the International Education Year. A seminar was organised in New Delhi and led to the establishment of an open university.
1974	The government appointed a committee under the chairmanship of P. Parthasarathy

3. Explain the following statements giving reasons for your answer:

Question 1.
The District Primary Education Programme was undertaken.
Answer:
(i) In 1994, the District Primary Education Programme (DPEP) was started with the objective of universalisation of primary education. It was implemented in seven States including Maharashtra.

(ii) The plan envisaged 100% attendance in primary schools, arresting student drop-out, education for girls and for the physically handicapped.

(iii) It included programmes such as research on and evaluation of primary education, alternative education, creating societal awareness, etc.

Question 2.
The NCERT was established.
Answer:
(i) National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) was established in Delhi on the 1st of September 1961.

(ii) Its main objective is to help the Central Government in matters of school education in the context of a comprehensive policy and in implementing educational schemes. The NCERT was given the responsibility of educational research and development, training, extension, educational programmes, restructuring of school curriculum and textbooks.

(iii) It has played a central role in designing school curricula and textbooks with the cooperation of the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE).

(iv) It provides guidance and cooperation in the area of primary and secondary education to the state governments.

(v) It has been involved in designing workbooks and handbooks for teachers, in teacher training, in developing teaching-learning techniques and conducting talent search examinations at the national level.

Question 3.
The farmers were benefited by the Indian Agricultural Research Institute.
Answer:
(i) The Indian Agricultural Research Institute was given the status of a University in 1958 and work began in departments such as the development of the agriculture sector, research, well-equipped laboratories, soil science, agricultural sciences, economic botany and other departments.

(ii) Research also began on wheat, pulses, oilseeds, vegetables and many other problems.

(iii) Its most significant achievement is the fundamental research it has conducted on the methods of taking multiple crops in a year, which has been of great benefit to farmers.

4. Write notes:

Question 1.
Indira Gandhi National Open University
Answer:
(i) Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU) was established with the objective that the stream of education should make
its way into every average household of the country.

(ii) The United Nations had declared 1970 as the International Education Year. In the same year, a seminar was organised in New Delhi on the subject of Open University by the Government of India Departments of Education and Social Welfare, Information and Broadcasting, University Grants Commission along with UNESCO. The idea of establishing an open university evolved in this seminar.

(iii) In 1974, the government appointed a committee under the chairmanship of P. Parthasarathy and the Open University took shape on 20 September, 1985 in accordance with its recommendations and suggestions. It was named after Prime Minister Indira Gandhi. Those who are unable to get a college education in the formal way are given concessions in eligibility criteria, age and other conditions for admission to this university.

(iv) In 1990, the IGNOU started an audio-visual distance education programme through Akashvani and Doordarshan. It conducted more than one thousand curricula of various branches.
It provides facilities for education through 58 training centres in the country and 41 centres in foreign countries.

Question 2.
Kothari Commission
Answer:
(i)In 1964 a Commission was appointed under the Chairmanship of Dr D. S. Kothari. Dr J. P. Naik made valuable contributions to the work of this Commission.

(ii)The Commission also recommended the 10+2+3 pattern for secondary, higher secondary and university education. This system was implemented from 1972.

(iii)The Commission also suggested a uniform national system of education, the inclusion of the mother tongue, Hindi and English in education, as well as continuing education, adult education, education by correspondence and open universities to make education trickle down to the lowest rungs of society.

(iv)It also recommended increased provision in the government’s budget for expenditure on education of neglected sections like the scheduled castes and tribes. Maharashtra government adopted the 10+2+3 pattern in 1972 and conducted the first Std X Board exam in 1975.

Question 3.
Bhabha Atomic Research Centre
Answer:
(i) Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) has conducted valuable research in the fields of nuclear physics, solid state physics, spectroscopy, chemical and life sciences.

(ii) It also started a school to train scientists for setting up nuclear reactors.

Question 4.
Balbharati
Answer:
(i) The Maharashtra State Bureau of Textbook Production and Curriculum Research (Balbharati) was established in Pune on 27 January 1967.

(ii) Balbharati prepares textbooks for school children. Textbooks are made in eight languages, namely, Marathi, Hindi, English, Urdu, Kannad, Sindhi, Gujarati and Telugu. ‘Kishor’, a monthly magazine for children, is also published by Balbharati.

5. Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
Which programmes were included in the Operation Blackboard scheme?
Answer:
(i) The government made funds available to help improve the standard of the schools and to fulfil minimum educational needs such as at least two proper classrooms, toilets, one of the two teachers to be female, a blackboard, maps, laboratory apparatus, a small library, a playground, sports equipment, etc. This scheme helped the primary education system to gain some momentum.

(ii) In 1994, this scheme was expanded and provision was made for one additional classroom and for appointing one more teacher in schools with an enrolment of more than 100 students, with priority given to girls’ schools, schools with a majority of scheduled caste and tribe students and schools in rural areas.

(iii) It was also made binding upon the State government to appoint female teachers to fifty per cent of the posts in schools.

Question 2.
What role do agriculture schools/colleges play in the development of agriculture?
Answer:
(i) The Indian Agricultural Research Institute was given the status of a University in 1958 and work began in departments such as the development of the agriculture sector, research, well-equipped laboratories, soil science, agricultural sciences, economic botany and other departments. Research also began on wheat, pulses, oilseeds, vegetables and many other problems.

(ii) Its most significant achievement is the fundamental research it has conducted on the methods of taking multiple crops in a year, which has been of great benefit to farmers.

Question 3.
Describe with examples of the progress that India has made in the field of medicine.
Answer:
(i) The Indian Council for Medical Research (ICMR) was established for conducting research in the medical field. It was given the responsibility of cooperating with universities, medical colleges, government and non-government research institutes and giving them guidance and financial support for research activities.

(ii) Twenty-six centres were started in different parts of the country for research on various diseases. Their research has made it possible to control tuberculosis and leprosy.

(iii) The All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) was established to give further impetus to advanced education and research in medicine.

(iv) It was given the responsibility of undergraduate and postgraduate courses in medicine. Colleges for undergraduate and postgraduate education in most branches of medicine, good research facilities and well- equipped hospitals are the significant features of this institute.

(v) The institute also provides medical treatment to the common people at nominal rates. It has established special colleges for training in nursing, and super-speciality centres for treatment of disorders of the heart, brain and eyes.

(vi) For further development of the medical field, the Medical Council of India was restructured in 1958 and was entrusted with the task of determining criteria for quality of medical education, its supervision and inspection.

(vii) These institutes have the responsibility of conducting research on various diseases, developing tests and standardisation of medicines.

Question 4.
Write a note on the curricular and co-curricular activities conducted in your school.
Answer:
(i) Languages – Our school motivates us to participate in theatres or plays organised on works of Shakespeare and Munshi Premchand. We also take part in elocution and poetry recitation competitions to enhance public speaking. Our school makes every child read the newspaper headlines from Marathi and English dailies in the auditorium turn wise.

(ii) Maths and Science – Scientific experiments mentioned in our textbook are practically performed by each of us under the supervision of our teachers. On Sundays, our Math teachers take special classes on Vedic Maths. Our school has also organised trips to Nehru Planetarium and ‘Jantar Mantar’ to give us an understanding of the astronomical aspects of science. Every year our school conducts Homi Bhabha scholarship exam. A display of the best 25 science projects is done in the school hall.

(iii) Social Studies – Field studies are taken up to explain to us the topography of Indian landscapes. The school library holds a large number of book and documentaries over world history trips to museums and historical places.

Class 9 History Chapter 5 Education Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
In 1995, the _____ scheme was started to provide proper nourishment for the students.
(a) free ration
(b) foodgrain subsidy
(c) mid-day meal
(d) medical-check up
Answer:
(c) mid-day meal

Question 2.
_______was the first education minister of Independent India.
(a) Vallabhbhai Patel
(b) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad
(c) Sachchidanand Sinha
(d) J.B.Kriplani
Answer:
(b) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad

Question 3.
_____ recommended increased provision in government’s budget for expenditure on education of neglected sections like the SC/ST.
(a) University Education Commission
(b) Mudaliar Commission
(c) National Council of Educational Research and Training
(d) Kothari Commission
Answer:
(d) Kothari Commission

Question 4.
_______, a scientist with ISRO played an important role in providing satellite education.
(a) K. Kasturirangan
(b) Eknath Chitnis
(c) A. S. Kirankumar
(d) G. Madhavan Nair
Answer:
(b) Eknath Chitnis

Question 5.
In 1990 _____ started an audio-visual distance education programme through Akashwani and Doordarshan.
(a) ISRO
(b) NCERT
(c) IGNOU
(d) CSIR
Answer:
(c) IGNOU

Question 6.
The National Institute for Research in Mathematical and Physical Sciences’ in ______ was established in 1962.
(a) Chandigarh
(b) Kerala
(c) Karnataka
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(d) Tamil Nadu

Question 7.
India’s first IIT was setup at _______ at West Bengal in 1951.
(a) Kharagpur
(b) Midnapore
(c) Hooghly
(d) Howrah
Answer:
(a) Kharagpur

Identify and write the wrong pair in the following sets:

Question 1.
(1) TCS – obtained an American contract for software production.
(2) FTII – Systematic training in all aspects of film-making.
(3) C-DAC – developed Param – 8000
(4) IIM – imparting training in industrial design.
Answer:
Wrong Pair : IIM – imparting training in industrial design.

Question 2.
(1) The Advanced Centre for Treatment Research and Education in Cancer – Branch of Tata Memorial Centre
(2) AIIMS – advanced education and research in medicine.
(3) DPEP – Charts showing learning competencies upto Std.V
(4) National Policy on Education 1986 – Common core curriculum was framed for all states.
Answer:
Wrong Pair : DPEP – Charts showing learning competencies upto Std.

Question 3.
(1) National Institute of Design – Ahmedabad
(2) Maharashtra State Board of Secondary and Higher Secondary Education – Pune
(3) The National Institute for Research in the Mathematical and Physical Science – Delhi
(4) Indian Institute of Technology – West Bengal
Answer:
Wrong Pair: The National Institute for Research in the Mathematical and Physical Science – Delhi

Question 4.
(1) J.P. Naik – Kothari Commission
(2) P. Parthasarthy – Committee on Open University
(3) Sayyad Rauf – Drafted common state wide curriculum
(4) Dr. Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan – Director of NCERT.
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Dr. Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan Director of NCERT.

Question 5.
(1) Dave Committee – minimum levels of learning.
(2) The Art Department – designing workbooks and hand books.
(3) Kosbad project – Education of Adivasis
(4) Council of Scientific and Industrial Research – Promote scientific research.
Answer:
Wrong Pair : The Art Department – designing workbooks and hand books.

Question 6.
(1) MSCERT – Jeevan Shikshan
(2) Balbharati – Kishor
(3) The Maharashtra State Board of Secondary and Higher Secondary Education – Countrywide classroom.
(4) SITE – Satellite Education.
Answer:
Wrong Pair : The Maharashtra State Board of Secondary and Higher Secondary Education – Countrywide classroom

Question 7.
(1) Tarabai Modak – Kuranshalas
(2) Anutai Wagh – Kosbad Projects
(3) Eknath Chitnis – Education Minister
(4) R. H. Dave – Competency based Primary Education Curriculum.
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Eknath Chitnis – Education Minister

Complete the concept maps:

Question 1.
Objectives of Education:
Answer:

Question 2.
Central Council for Research in Indian Medicine and Homeopathy:
Answer:

Question 3.
Departments of the Indian Agricultural Research Institute:
Answer:

Question 4.
Role of Dave Committee:
Answer:

Question 5.
Features of the IIT
Answer:

Question 6.
IIMs in India
Answer:

Question 7.
Concept map of basic responsibilities of NCERT
Answer:

Write short notes:

Question 1.
AIIMS
Answer:
(i) The All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) was established to give further impetus to advanced education and research in medicine.

(ii) It was given the responsibility of undergraduate and post-graduate courses in medicine.

(iii) Colleges for undergraduate and postgraduate education in most branches of medicine, good research facilities and well-equipped hospitals are the significant features of this institute.

(iv) The institute also provides medical treatment to the common people at nominal rates.

(v) It has established special colleges for training in nursing, and super-speciality centres for treatment of disorders of the heart, brain and eyes.

(vi) For further development of the medical field, the Medical Council of India was restructured in 1958 and was entrusted with the task of determining criteria for quality of medical education, its supervision and inspection.

Question 2.
Achievements of CSIR
Answer:
(i) In the post-independence period in 1950, the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) was established with the objective to promote scientific research in the country and to take the benefits of the research to all the people.

(ii) The achievements of the CSIR include making the ink used for marking voters’ fingers during elections, medicines for malaria, elephantiasis and tuberculosis, water purification technology, reduction in the time required for bamboo production.

(iii) It also used DNA fingerprinting for the first time in India, conducted a genetic study of the Adivasis of the Andamans and proved that those tribes are 60,000 years old and developed the earthquake early warning system.

(iv) It has also played an important role in the use of neem as a pesticide, use of turmeric for healing wounds and in the case of the patents for varieties of rice.

(v) The CSIR has prepared a digital encyclopedia of Indian traditional knowledge and made it available in eight international languages.

Question 3.
NCERT
Answer:
(i) National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) was established in Delhi on the 1st of September 1961.

(ii) Its main objective is to help the Central Government in matters of school education in the context of a comprehensive policy and in implementing educational schemes. The NCERT was given the responsibility of educational research and development, training, extension, educational programmes, restructuring of school curriculum and textbooks.

(iii) It has played a central role in designing school curricula and textbooks with the cooperation of the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE). ’

(iv) It provides guidance and cooperation in the area of primary and secondary education to the state governments.

(v) It has been involved in designing workbooks and handbooks for teachers, in teacher training, in developing teaching-learning techniques and conducting talent search examinations at the national level.

Read the passage and answer the questions and answer the questions based on it.

Passage I

National Council of Educational Research and Training. This body was established in Delhi on the 1st of September 1961. Its main objective is to help the Central Government in matters of school education in the context of a comprehensive policy and in implementing educational schemes. The NCERT was given the responsibility of educational research and development, training, extension, educational programmes, restructuring of school curriculum and textbooks. It has played a central role in designing school curricula and textbooks with the cooperation of the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE). It provides guidance and cooperation in the area of primary and secondary education to the state governments. It has been involved in designing workbooks and handbooks for teachers, in teacher training, in developing teaching-learning techniques and conducting talent search examinations at the national level.
SCERTs were established in all States on the lines of the NCERT. The Maharashtra State Council of Educational ‘Research and Training was established in Pune, This institute performs various functions such as , improving the standard of primary education, in service training of teachers, training in the areas of syllabii and evaluation, vocational guidance for students after Std X and Std XII exams and other , educational functions This institute is known as the , academic authority. It brings out a periodical called Jeevan Sikshan. ‘

Question 1.
What was the main objective behind establishment of NCERT?
Answer:
The main objective behind establishment of NCERT is to help the central government in matters of school education in the context of a comprehensive policy and in implementing educational schemes.

Question 2.
SCERT was established only in Maharashtra State on the lines of the NCERT. Identify True or False.
Answer:
False.

Question 3.
State 4 research institutes in India.
Answer:
Following are the 4 research institutes in India:

• Council of Scientific & Industrial Research.
• Bhabha Atomic Research Centre.
• Indian Council of Medical Research.
• Indian Agricultural Research Institute.

Passage II

National Policy on Education 1986: According to this policy, certain changes of a fundamental nature were brought about in primary, secondary and higher , secondary education in keeping with the changing needs of society. Under this policy, a common core curriculum was framed for all States. The expectation , is that, by this means, all students in India will get equal educational opportunity. There is scope in the national curriculum for individual States to bring in flexibility in accordance with their cultural, geographical and historical needs.
The ‘Primary Education Curriculum 1988’ was prepared on the basis of the plan of action designed at the national level for the effective implementation of the National Policy on Education 1986. The competency based primary Education curriculum 1995: Even as the Primary Education Curriculum , 1988 was being implemented, a Committee was formed at the national level with Dr. R. H. Dave as its Chairman, to determine minimum levels of learning, The Dave as Committee developed charts of minimum , levels of learning in language, mathematics and environmental studies up to Std V. The charts showed the sequence of learning of the competencies meant for each class.
Use of a satellite: In 1975, India met with success in its attempt to use a satellite for the purpose of education, Eknath Chitnis, a scientist with ISRO, played an , important role in it.
SITE (Satellite Instructional Television Experiment) , was undertaken for educational purposes under the leadership of the Space Applications Centre at Ahmedabad. The concept of satellite education came , out of this experiment. America had helped India in , this programme. The programme helped to make provisionsforagoodstandardofeducationinruralareas.

Question 1.
What was done to implement the National Policy on Education 1986?
Answer:
For the effective implementation of National Policy on Education 1986, the Primary Education Curriculum 1988 was prepared on the basis of the action plan formulated at the National level.

Question 2.
How did the Dave committee determine the minimum levels of learning?
Answer:
To determine the minimum levels of learning the Dave committee developed charts in language, mathematics and environmental studies upto Std. V. Sequential learning competencies were depicted on these charts to set standards through levels of learning.

Question 3.
Who is your favourite educationist? State his/ her educational ideas which impacted the society.
Answer:
(i) My favourite educationist are Rabindranath Tagore, Dr. Annie Besant and Dr. Sarvapalli Radha Krishnan.

(ii) They all enlightened the society with their educational ideas and deeds. Dr. Annie Besant in particular was iconic.

(iii) Her ideas of education were imbibed with political freedom, women’s liberation and universal brotherhood. Her teachings of ‘Home Rule’ and ‘theosophy’ impacted our society during British Rule. She taught these ideas through political lectures to motivate the youth.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
What does the District Primary Education Programme envisage?
Answer:
(i) In 1994, the District Primary Education Programme (DPEP) was started with the objective of universalisation of primary education. It was implemented in seven States including Maharashtra.

(ii) The plan envisaged 100% attendance in primary schools, arresting student drop-out, education for girls and for the physically handicapped.

(iii) It included programmes such as research on and evaluation of primary education, alternative education, creating societal awareness, etc.

Question 2.
State the contribution of Tarabai Modak in educating adivasis.
Answer:
(i) Tarabai Modak began work in the field of education in Bordi and Kosbad.
(ii) She started Anganwadis for Adivasi children.
(iii) She worked hard to bring in the Teaming by doing’ method, to start kuranshalas (meadow schools) and to spread vocational technical education.

Question 3.
What purpose did the Kosbad Project serve?
Answer:
(i) Anutai Wagh established an institution at Kosbad for the progress of Adivasis in Thane district.
(ii) It is known as the Kosbad Project.
(iii) She started creches, nurseries, primary schools, adult education classes, balsevika training schools, etc. for the education of Adivasis.

Question 4.
What was proposed by the Mudaliar Commission?
Answer:
(i) In 1952-53, the Mudaliar Commission was appointed.
(ii) At that time, the pattern of education consisted of 11 + 4 years for the first degree or of 11 + 1 + 3 years.
(iii) The Commission studied secondary education, the nature of the curriculum, medium of instruction, teaching methodology and made certain recommendations.
(iv) This Commission proposed the concept of Higher Secondary Education. However, it was found difficult to implement it all over the country.

Question 5.
State the recommendation of Kothari Commission.
Answer:
(i) The Kothari Commission recommended the 10+2+3 pattern for secondary, higher secondary and university education. This system was implemented from 1972.

(ii) The Commission also suggested a uniform national system of education, the inclusion of the mother tongue, Hindi and English in education, as well as continuing education, adult education, education by correspondence and open universities to make education trickle down to the lowest rungs of society.

(iii) It also recommended increased provision in the government’s budget for expenditure on education of neglected sections like the scheduled castes and tribes.

Question 6.
What do you know about the Education Board of your state?
Answer:
(i) The Maharashtra State Board of Secondary and Higher Secondary Education was established on the 1st of January 1966 at Pune.
(ii) This Board conducts the school leaving examinations of Std. X and Std. XII.
(iii) It also publishes a periodical called ‘Shikshan Sankraman’.

Question 7.
State the functions of MSCERT.
Answer:
(i) The Maharashtra State Council of Educational Research and Training was established in Pune.
(ii) This institute performs various functions such as improving the standard of primary education,
in-service training of teachers, training in the areas of syllabi and evaluation, vocational guidance for students after Std X and Std XII exams and other educational functions.

Question 8.
How did the concept of satellite education evolve in India?
Answer:
(i) SITE (Satellite Instructional Television Experiment) was undertaken for educational purposes under the leadership of the Space Applications Centre at Ahmedabad.
(ii) The concept of satellite education came out of this experiment. America had helped India in this programme.
(iii) The programme helped to make provisions for a good standard of education in rural areas.

Question 9.
Discuss the responsibilities of Indian Council for Medical Research.
Answer:
(i) Indian Council for Medical Research (ICMR) was established for conducting research in the medical field.
(ii) It was given the responsibility of cooperating with universities, medical colleges, government and non-government research institutes and giving them guidance and financial support for research activities.

Question 10.
Which institute works for advanced research in cancer?
Answer:
The Advanced Centre for Treatment, Research and Education in Cancer is a branch of the Tata Memorial Centre. It functions as the national centre for treatment, research and education in relation to cancer.

Observe the pictures/personality and write relevant information:

Question 1.

Answer:
(i) Kothari Commission recommended the 10+2+3 pattern for secondary, higher secondary and university education.
(ii) The objectives of Education were :

• Modernisation of Education.
• Social and national integration.
• Nurture of social, moral, spiritual values.
• Education and Productivity.
• Securing and strengthening of democracy.

(iii) The following are the other recommendations made by the Kothari commission:

• A uniform national system of education
• inclusion of mother tongue (along with Hindi and English)
• Continuing education
• Adult education
• Education by correspondence
• Open Universities.

Question 2.

Answer:
(1) The open university was established with the objective that the stream of education should make its way into every average household of the country.

(2) In 1974, the government appointed a committee under the chairmanship of P. Parthasarthy and open university took shape on 20th September 1985 in accordance with its recommendations and suggestions.
It was named after Prime Minister – Indira Gandhi.

(3) In 1990, IGNOU started an audio-visual distance education programme through Akashwani and Doordarshan.

(4) It provides facilities for education through 58 centres in the country and 41 centres in foreign countries.

Question 3.

Answer:
(1) CSIR was established with the objective to promote scientific research in the country and to take the benefits of the research to all the people.

(2) CSIR conducted research in fields like:

• Physics, chemistry, pharmaceuticals, food processing and mining

(3) The achievements of CSIR include:

• Making the ink used for marking voter’s fingers during elections
• Medicines for malaria, elephantiasis and tuberculosis
• water purifying technology
• DNA fingerprinting for the first time in India.

(4) CSIR has prepared a digital encylopoedia of Indian traditional knowledge and made it available in eight international languages.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Trade Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Trade

Class 9 Geography Chapter 9 Trade Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Classify the trade taking place between the following regions:

(1) Maharashtra and Punjab
(2) India and Japan
(3) Lasalgaon and Pune
(4) China and Canada
(5) India and European Union
Answer:
(1) Internal trade
(2) International trade
(3) Internal trade
(4) International trade
(5) International trade

2. Write the correct word- Import or Export for the following :

(1) India buys crude oil from the Middle-East Asian countries.
(2) Wheat is sent to Asian countries from Canada.
(3) Japan sends machine parts to APEC countries.
Answer:
(1) Import
(2) Export
(3) Export

3. Correct and rewrite the wrong statements:

(A) India is a self-sufficient country.
Answer:
India is not a self-sufficient country as it depends on other countries for crude oil, machinery, etc.

(B) The place where there is excess production does not have demand for those products.
Answer:
The place where there is excess production more creates ‘supply’ for those products.

(C) International trade processes are easier than local trade.
Answer:
International trade processes are relatively more difficult than local trade.

4. Identify and write the type of trade:

(A) Srushti brought sugar from the grocery shop.
Answer:
Retail Trade.

(B) The traders from Surat bought cotton from the farmers of Maharashtra.
Answer:
Wholesale Trade.

(C) Sameer has exported pomegranates from his farms to Australia.
Answer:
International Trade.

(D) Sadabhau bought 10 sacks of wheat and 5 sacks of rice from Market Yard for selling in his own shop.
Answer:
Wholesale Trade.

5. Write answers in short:

(A) Create a flowchart showing the types of trade
Answer:
Trade refers to buying and selling for fulfilling each other’s needs.
Trade is divided into two categories:

• On the basis of the quantity of goods.
• On the basis of the extent of trade region.
  

(B) Explain the difference in types of balances of trade.
Answer:
The difference between the import and export values of a country in a specific period is called balance of trade.
The different types of balance of trade are:

• Unfavourable Balance of Trade: When the value of imports is more than the value of exports, it is called ‘Unfavourable Balance of Trade.’
  
• Favourable Balance of Trade: When the value of exports is more than the value of imports, it is called ‘Favourable Balance of Trade.’
• Balanced Balance of Trade: When the value of exports and imports is almost the same, it is called ‘Balanced Balance of Trade.’
  

(C) State the objectives of WTO.
Answer:
WTO stands for World Trade Organisation. The main objectives of WTO are:

• To provide platform for negotiations in international trade.
• To handle the differences related to trade.
• To monitor the trade policies of member states.
• To provide a technological assistance and training to developing countries.

(D) What is the difference between the OPEC and APEC in terms of their functions?
Answer:

OPEC	APEC
(i) OPEC stands for Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries.	APEC stands for Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC).
(ii) OPEC is the organisation of oil-producing and exporting countries.	APEC is the regional organisation of the countries in the Asia Pacific region.
(iii) It keeps control over the international trade of crude oil.	It promotes free trade and economic cooperation among the member countries.
(iv) It keeps control on the rates of crude oil production among member states.	It promotes regional and technical cooperation among members.

(E) Write the functions of the important trade organisations in Asia.
Answer:
Important trade organisations in Asia are:
Association of South East Asian Nations (ASEAN)

• To expand social and cultural harmony along with economic growth in South East Asia.
• To promote regional peace.
• To promote tax waivers for trade growth in member states.

Asia Pacific Economic Co-operation (APEC)

• To promote free trade and economic co¬operation in the Asia-Pacific Ocean region.
• To promote regional and technical co-operation among members.

(F) What is the importance of marketing from farmers ‘point of view’?
Answer:
Marketing involves price of a commodity, its sales promotion, its advertising and its proper distribution.

• In the traditional marketing system, the farmers used to sell their products in the local market at whatever price available. This is because the fruits and vegetables are perishable, so the farmers used to incur losses,
• However, the modem farmers have acquired skills in marketing. They are aware of the trends in the market.
• They produce food grains and fruits as per the international standards.
• They undertake grading and packaging of their products. The presentation of any product has become indispensable now.
• They advertise the quality of their product and keep the same for sale, along with samples, in the mall.
• These commercial-minded farmers contact the supermarkets and exporters through the internet.
• As a result, their products are sold at a higher price in the malls. They also fetch a good price from exports.
• Thus marketing is as important as the cultivation of crops. By following modem marketing techniques, the income of the farmers can increase and that can improve their standard of living.

6. In the following table, export-import of some countries in the year 2014-15 is given in million U.S. dollars. Make a compound bar graph of the given statistical information. Read the bar diagram carefully and comment upon the balance of payments of the respective countries.

Country	Export	Import
China	2143	1960
India	272	380
Brazil	190	241
USA	1510	2380

Answer:

• China has a balance of trade.
• India, USA and Brazil have an unfavourable balance of trade.
• The volume of international trade of China and the USA is maximum.
• International trade of India and Brazil is insignificant.
• International trade is dominated by China and the USA.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 9 Trade Intext Questions and Answers

Make friends with maps!

Find out the names of the member-states of the following organisation with the help of internet. Show these member nations on the outline map given in the figure using different colour for each organisation.
(1) OPEC member – countries
(2) SAARC member – countries
Answer:

(1) OPEC member- countries
Republic of Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, Venezuela, Qatar, Libya, The United Arab Emirates, Algeria, Nigeria, Ecuador, Gabon, Angola, Equatorial Guinea (2017).

(2) SAARC countries
Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Maldives, Pakistan, Sri Lanka.

Can you tell?

With a lot of hard work Dhondiba used to grow best varieties of vegetables and other agricultural commodities. But his products could not fetch a good price. His college-going son, saw this situation and he first packed the commodities nicely after cleaning them neatly. Then he contacted the supermarket in the town. Looking at the quality of his product, they advertised the farm product and kept it for sale in the mall. Today, Dhondiba’s commodities are being sold for higher prices than before.

Question 1.
Why did Dhondiba’s commodities start getting higher prices?
Answer:
For any commodity to be accepted in the market and fetch a better price, it should have an appropriate presentation. The price of the commodity is determined by its quality, its grading and how it is presented before the customer. Dhondiba’s son who was educated, realized this and took the necessary actions in time which helped Dhondiba to fetch better price.

Question 2.
What did Dhondiba’s son do for that?
Answer:
Dhondiba’s college-going son realised that the agricultural commodities sold by his father lacked proper presentation and marketing. So he adopted modem marketing practices like cleaned the commodities well and packed them nicely. He then got in touch with the supermarket in the town. The supermarket was impressed with the quality of Dhondiba’s products, they advertised the farm product and kept it for sale in the mall. Dhondiba’s commodities were in great demand and sold at higher prices than before.

Question 3.
What measures would you suggest to the farmers near you so that then commodities can fetch a good price?
Answer:
Some of the measures that we can suggest to the farmers so that then commodities can fetch a better price are:

• Clean their vegetables, fruits well.
• Grade the commodities.
• Pack them nicely.
• Advertise their farm products.
• Sell it in the market.

Give it a try.

Obtain information regarding the bilateral trade between India and Japan for any financial year and the value of the export and import of major goods. Write two paragraphs on it.
Answer:
India’s Trade with Japan (April 2016-Jan 2017)

Exports	₹ 20,000 Cr
Imports	₹ 55,000 Cr
Trade Balance	₹ 35,000 Cr

This shows that India has an Unfavourable Balance of Trade with Japan, in which the value of Imports is more than the value of Exports.

India’s major exports to Japan
Petroleum products, Iron ore, Fish Meat (including lobsters, crabs, shrimps etc) Motor parts, Insecticides, Fungicides, Turbo-jets, Gas turbines etc.

India’s major imports from Japan
Iron and Steel Products, Transport Equipments, Plastic, Machinery items like Drilling Platforms, Floating Cranes, Printing machinery etc.

Think about it.

Question 1.
What will happen if there is only one currency used in the whole world?
Answer:
The European Union is an example, which has one common currency ‘Euro’.
Advantages of having one common currency. If the whole world has one common currency, international trade will become much easier and move will increase international trade also. Disadvantages of having one common currency.

If all the countries adopt one common currency, there will be one uniform policy. No country will be able to have their own monetary and fiscal policy.

Find out.

You get products from other places. Similarly, find out where the special products/items made in your village/city are sent?
Answer:
I live in Mumbai.
Special products exported from Mumbai and where they are sent:
Cotton textiles – China, USA
Commercial vehicles – Mexico, South Africa

Try this.

(I) Obtain the following information.

Question 1.
Make a list of commodities which you use daily.
Answer:
Toothpaste, powder, tea, hair oil, biscuits, food grains.

Question 2.
Who uses these commodities?
Answer:
We as consumers use these commodities.

Question 3.
Write the sources of supplies of these commodities.
Answer:
Producers are the source of supplies.

Question 4.
From where do you buy these commodities?
Answer:
Retail Shop.

Question 5.
What do you call the act of buying and selling?
Answer:
Trade.

Question 6.
What does the shopkeeper take in lieu of the commodity?
Answer:
The shopkeeper takes money (currency) in lieu of the commodity.

(II) A list of few goods you regularly use at home, is given here. Write the names of the product, the producer company’s name and the source of information in front of it.

Goods that Name of the you use	Name of the company	Source of information
Colgate Toothpaste	Palmolive	T.V. advertisement
Coffee Nescafe	Nestle	T.V. advertisement
Bathing Soap Lux	Unilever	T.V. advertisement
Hair Oil Parachute	Marica India	T.V. advertisement
Biscuits Parle G	Parle Products	T.V. advertisement

 Choice may vary from consumer to consumer.

(F) Use your brain power! (Textbook Page no. 70) Suppose you are a trader and you want to sell your product in other states of the country and also in other parts of the world

Question 1.
Which of these is an easier way of doing trade?
Answer:
To sell the product in other states of the country, domestic or internal trade is easier. To sell the product in other parts of the world, international trade, i.e. export trade is done

Question 2.
Which trade can bring some limitations?
Answer:
International trade.

Question 3.
Look for reasons behind them
Answer:
Factors like economy of the country, government policis, markets, laws, judicial system, currency, language and political relation between the two trading countries can bring limitations in international trade.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 9 Trade Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the statements choosing a colored option from the bracket:

Question 1.
…………………. refers to buying and selling goods and services to fulfill each other’s needs.
(a) Trade
(b) Business
(c) Labelling
(d) Branding
Answer:
(a) Trade

Question 2.
When there is buying and selling of goods it is called ………………….. trade.
(a) invisible
(b) visible
(c) impossible
(d) possible
Answer:
(b) visible

Question 3.
Buying and selling in large quantities is called ………………….. trade.
(a) wholesale
(b) retail
(c) invisible
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) wholesale

Question 4.
………………….. trade refers to buying and selling in small quantities.
(a) Invisible
(b) Retail
(c) Wholesale
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Retail

Question 5.
………………….. trade means buying goods and services from another country
(a) Export
(b) Retail
(c) Wholesale
(d) Import
Answer:
(d) Import

Question 6.
When the value of imports is more than the value of exports it is called ………………….. balance of trade.
(a) favourable
(b) unfavorable
(c) balanced
(d) possible
Answer:
(b) unfavorable

Question 7.
………………….. was formed to control the international trade of crude oil.
(a) OPEC
(b) APEC
(c) ASEAN
(d) WTO
Answer:
(a) OPEC

Question 8.
BRICS stands for …………………. .
(a) Brazil, Russia, Indonesia, China and Sudan
(b) Belgium, Rome, India, China and South Africa
(c) Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa
Answer:
(b) Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa

Question 9.
………………….. was formed to establish an integrated market2 in member nations in Europe.
(a) EU
(b) ASEAN
(c) BRICS
(d) OPEC
Answer:
(a) EU

Question 10.
………………….. trade means the exchange of goods and services of one country with other countries.
(a) Retail
(b) Wholesale
(c) International
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) International

Match the following:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) WTO	(a) Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa.
(2) BRICS	(b) World Trade Organisation.
(3) Favourable balance of trade	(c) Value of exports is more than value of imports.

Answer:
(1 – b),
(2 – a),
(3 – c)

Question 2.

International organisations	Headquarters
(1) EU (2) WTO (3) SAARC	(a)  Kathmandu (Nepal) (b) Jakarta (Indonesia) (c)  Geneva (Switzerland) (d)  Brussels (Belgium)

Answer:
(1 – d),
(2 – c),
(3 – a)

Question 3.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) OPEC	(a) Expanding social and cultural harmony in South East Asia.
(2) APEC	(b) Controlling international trade of crude oil.
(3) ASEAN	(c) Free trade in Asia- Pacific Ocean region.
	(d) When value of imports is more than the value of exports.

Answer:
(1 – b),
(2 – c),
(3 -a)

Write answers in one sentence each:

Question 1.
What do you mean by trade?
Answer:
Trade refers to buying and selling of goods and services to fulfil each other’s needs.

Question 2.
What is visible trade3?
Answer:
When there is buying and selling of goods it is known as visible trade.

Question 3.
What is invisible trade4?
Answer:
When there is exchange of services, it is known as invisible trade.

Question 4.
Who conducts wholesale trade?
Answer:
Wholesale trade is conducted by wholesalers.

Question 5.
What do you mean by domestic trade?
Answer:
Domestic or internal trade is the trade that takes place within the geographical boundaries of one country. For eg. Trade between Maharashtra and Gujarat.

Question 6.
What is international trade?
Answer:
International trade means buying and selling of goods and services between two or more countries. For example, trade between USA and India.

Question 7.
What do you mean by import trade?
Answer:
Import trade means buying goods and services from another country. For eg. India imports crude oil from Kuwait.

Question 8.
What is export trade?
Answer:
When country sells its goods and services to another country, it is called export trade. For eg. India exports rice to USA.

Question 9.
What is balance of trade?
Answer:
The difference between the import and export values of a country in a specific period is called balance of trade.

Question 10.
What do you mean by unfavourable balance of trade?
Answer:
When the value of imports is more than the value of exports it is called unfavourable balance of trade.

Question 11.
What is favourable balance of trade?
Answer:
When the value of exports is more than the value of imports it is called favourable balance of trade.

Question 12.
What is balanced balance of trade?
Answer:
When the value of exports and imports is almost same, it is called balanced balance of trade.

Question 13.
What is WTO?
Answer:
WTO stands for World Trade Organisation.

Question 14.
What does EU stand for?
Answer:
EU stands for European Union which comprises of 28 European countries.

Question 15.
What does OPEC stand for?
Answer:
OPEC stands for Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries.

Question 16.
Give extended form of.
(i) SAARC
(ii) ASEAN
(iii) APEC
(iv) BRICS
Answer:
(i) SAARC – South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation.
(ii) ASEAN – Association of South-East Asian Nations.
(iii) APEC – Asia-Pacific Economic Co-operation.
(iv) BRICS – Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa.

Some economic organisations of the world

Give Reason

Question 1.
Some international economic organisations were set up
Answer:
Some international economic organisations were set up:

• To smoothen the process of trade between countries of different economic status.
• To facilitate the growth of international trade.

Question 2.
The Consumer Protection Act been enacted
Answer:

1. The Consumer Protection Act has been enacted to protect the consumers from fraudulent traders supplying sub-standard products.
2. Many advertisements make exaggerated statements to cheat the consumers and these advertisements use incorrect information.
3. The Consumer Protection Act empowers consumers with their rights and duties. Consumers have right to complain and seek redressal.

Explain the following:

Question 1.
What do you mean by wholesale trade?
Answer:

• In wholesale trade, the traders buy goods on a large scale from industrialists, farmers, etc. For eg. the orchard owners of mangoes or oranges sell their entire production to wholesale traders.
• The wholesalers in turn sell these commodities to the retail traders.

Question 2.
What is retail trade?
Answer:

• The process of buying in small quantities from wholesalers and selling in small quantities to the consumers is called retail trade.
• For eg. the shopkeepers selling food grains, vegetable vendors in markets.

Question 3.
What is marketing?
Answer:

• An invisible flow develops when a product goes from producer1 to consumer.
• The commercial functions involved in this flow are collectively called marketing.

Answer in brief :

Question 1.
Explain the importance of trade.
Answer:
The importance of trade are:

• Trade is an important economic activity.
• The economic life of people is dependent on each other.
• No region or country is self-sufficient.
• Trade between two regions is necessary to fulfill the needs of the people.
• As each region has different geographical conditions, each region produces specific commodities.

Question 2.
What is barter trade?
Answer:

• In ancient and medieval periods, trade was done through barter system.
• Barter trade means exchange of commodities for commodities without using money, is a medium.
• For eg. grains in exchange of work done or salt exchanged for oil.
• But it created the problem of estimating the price of a commodity correctly. As a result, currency started being used.

Question 3.
Mention the functions of the European Union.
Answer:
The main functions of the European Union are:

• Establishing an integrated market in member nations amongst Europe.
• Free flow of goods, services and capital in Europe.
• Custom duties have been cancelled on exchange of goods within members.
• Common ‘Euro’ currency for the member countries.

Question 4.
Which factors influence trade?
Answer:
The factors which influence trade are:

• Factors like the economy of the country, government policies, markets, laws, judicial systems, currency, language, etc. influence trade.
• Political relations between two countries also influence trade between them.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 4 Economic Development Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 4 Economic Development

Class 9 History Chapter 4 Economic Development Textbook Questions and Answers

1.A Choose right option and write the sentence:

Question 1.
On 19th July, 1969 ______ major banks in India were nationalised.
(a) 12
(b) 14
(c) 16
(d) 18
Answer:
(b) 14

Question 2.
_________ declared a 20 – point programme.
(a) Pandit Nehru
(b) Lai Bahadur Shastri
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) P.V. Narasimha Rao
Answer:
(c) Indira Gandhi

B. Identify the wrong pair and rewrite the corrected one:

Question 1.
(1) Kawasajee Dawar – Iron and Steel factory.
(2) Dr. Datta Samant – Leadership of mill workers.
(3) N. M. Lokhande – Holiday for mill workers.
(4) Narayan Surve – Depiction of lives of workers through poems.
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Kawasajee Dawar – Iron and Steel factory.

2.A Complete the following chart:

Question 1.

Five Year Plan	Duration	Purposes
First	……………….	Agriculture and Social Development
Second	1956 -1961	Industrialisation
Third	………………	Elimination of inequality, increasing opportunities for employment, increase in national income.
………….	1969 -1974	Scientific research, health and family planning.
Fifth	…………….	…………………..

Answer:

Five Year Plan	Duration	Purposes
First	1951 -1956	Agriculture and Social Development
Second	1956 -1961	Industrialisation
Third	1961 -1966	Elimination of inequality, increasing opportunities for employment, increase in national income.
Fourth	1969 -1974	Scientific research, health and family planning.
Fifth	1974 -1979	Making India economically self-sufficient by alleviating poverty.

B. Explain the concepts:

Question 1.
Mixed Economy
Answer:
(i) In a capitalist system, the means of production are privately owned. In a socialist economy, the means of production are owned by the State in the name of the society.
(ii) A mixed economy works both in the private and the public sector.
(iii) In order to achieve economic development of modem India, we gave preference to a model of ‘mixed economy’. We can see three parts in this kind of economy:

(a) Public Sector: The industries in this sector are completely under the control and management of the government. For example, production of defence equipment.

(b) Private Sector: The industries in this sector are owned by private industrialists. Of course, the government supervises and controls them too. For example, consumer goods.

(c) Joint Sector: In this sector, some industries are owned by private industrialists, while some are run under government management.

(iv) For mixed economy to run smoothly there is a need for co-ordination between the private sector and the public sector.
(v) This system aims at maximisation of production and popular participation on a large scale.
(vi) An effort has been made in this system to bring together the good aspects of both the capitalist and the socialist systems.
(vii) A mixed economy cannot ignore the profit motive, entrepreneurship, discipline, time bound planning, etc.

Question 2.
20 – Point Programme
Answer:
20-Point Programme: Prime Minister Indira Gandhi announced the 20-Point Programme on 1st July 1975 and resolved to make efforts towards rapidly becoming a developed nation. The main provisions of the 20 point programme are as follows:

• Land ceiling for cities and agricultural land, equal division of wealth, minimum wages for workers, increase in water conservation schemes.
• Workers’ participation in industry, national training scheme, freeing bonded labour.
• Prevention of tax evasion, economic crimes and smuggling.
• Regulation of prices of basic necessities, improvement in the public distribution system.
• Improvement in the textile industry by developing handloom sector, waiving loans for weaker sections, housing, communication facilities, making educational equipment available to schools.

3.A Give reasons.

Question 1.
Independent India opted for mixed economy.
Answer:
(i) Our Prime Minister Pandit Nehru adopted the middle path rather than taking recourse to any extremes. Some countries had adopted Capitalism, while some had adopted Socialism. Each type of economy had its own advantages.

(ii) In a capitalist system, the means of production are privately owned. In a socialist economy, the means of production are owned by the State in the name of the society.

(iii) A mixed economy works both in the private and the public sector. In order to achieve economic development of modem India, we gave preference to a model of ‘mixed economy’.

Question 2.
Banks were nationalised in 1969.
Answer:
(i) During the tenure of Prime Ministers Pandit Nehru and Lai Bahadur Shastri, banking was a monopoly of the private sector.

(ii) These banks represented different industrial groups. The Directors of these banks were working towards developing industrial sector and increasing its profit.

(iii) In order to stop this, the government nationalised the ‘Imperial Bank’ in 1955 and it got converted into State Bank of India.

(iv) This Bank opened several branches all over the country in a short while and played a major role in development.

(v) India had adopted a mixed economy after independence. Nationalisation of banks was essential to cover the deficits if they occurred while implementing different schemes.

(vi) Also the profit of these banks would come into the government treasury once they were nationalised. Prime Minister Indira Gandhi nationalised 14 banks on 19th July, 1969.

Question 3.
Mill workers went on strike.
Answer:
(i) During the Diwali of 1981, the workers expected to get a bonus of 20%.
(ii) The Rashtriya Mill Mazdoor Sangh, which was negotiating with the employers, agreed upon 8 to 17% bonus without taking the workers into confidence.
(iii) The cut in the bonus proved to be the cause of unrest. Some workers went to Dr. Datta Samant.
(iv) They asked him to accept their leadership. Workers of 65 mills came together and Dr. Datta Samant led the strike. On 18th January 1982, two and a half lakh workers went on strike.

B. Answer the following questions in 25 to 30 words.

Question 1.
Which programmes were started in the Eighth Five Year Plan?
Answer:
Following programmes were started in the Eighth Five Year Plan:

• Pradhanmantri Rozgar Yojana
• Mahila Samriddhi Yojana
• Rashtriya Samajik, Arthik Sahayya Yojana
• Midday Meal Scheme
• Indira Mahila Scheme
• Ganga Kalyan Scheme

Question 2.
Which heavy industries were set up under the Second Five Year Plan?
OR
Which projects were started in the Second Five Year Plan?
Answer:
(i) Iron and steel industries at Durgapur, Bhilai and Rourkela; Chemical fertilisers plant at Sindri; rail engine factory at Chittaranjan; factory of railway bogies at Perambur, Ship building factory at Vishakhapattanam and other heavy industries were set up in the Public Sector.

(ii) Huge dams like Bhakra-Nangal, Damodar, etc. were built to make water available for agriculture.

Class 9 History Chapter 4 Economic Development Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
India removed the import restriction on several commodities for _____ countries.
(a) BRICS
(b) SAARC
(c) Third – World
(d) Middle – East countries
Answer:
SAARC

Question 2.
The efforts of _____ resulted in the weekly Sunday holiday for mill workers from 1st January 1882.
(a) Mahatma Jyotirao Phule
(b) Sane Guruji
(c) Babu Jagjeevan Ram
(d) Narayan Meghaji Lokhande
Answer:
Narayan Meghaji Lokhande

Question 3.
During the tenure of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi ,________ a group in the Congress Party, made a demand for nationalisation of commercial banks.
(a) Congress Socialist Party
(b) Congress Forum for Socialist Action
(c) Congress wing of Socialist Propaganda
(d) Agency of Socialist Congress
Answer:
Congress Forum for Socialist Action

Question 4.
In 1995, India became a member of _______.
(a) World Trade Organisation
(b) International Monetary Fund
(c) GATT
(d) SAARC
Answer:
World Trade Organisation

Question 5.
In order to overcome drought and food shortages ______ undertook the experiment of Green Revolution.
(a) Chaudhary Charansingh
(b) Gulzarilal Nanda
(c) H D Deve Gowda
(d) Lal Bahadur Shastri
Answer:
Lal Bahadur Shastri

Question 6.
During the tenure of Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao, _______ was our Finance Minister.
(a) John Mathai
(b) Yashwant Sinha
(c) P. Chidambaram
(d) Dr. Manmohan Singh
Answer:
Dr. Manmohan Singh

Question 7.
The first textile mill was started in Mumbai on 11th July, 1851 by _______.
(a) Pirojsha Burjorji Godrej
(b) Jamsedji Nusserwanji Tata
(c) Kawasjee Dawar
(d) Azim Hashim Premji
Answer:
Kawasjee Dawar

Question 8.
The new government of Janata Party ended the fifth Five Year plan by March 1978 and started the _______ from April 1978.
(a) Development Plan
(b) Enrolling Plan
(c) Rolling Plan
(d) Redemption Plan
Answer:
Rolling Plan

Question 9.
Manmohan Singh signed the agreement with the WTO and launched the policy of privatisation, ______ and globalisation.
(a) Liberalisation
(b) Industrialisation
(c) Maximisation
(d) Profitisation
Answer:
Liberalisation

Question 10.
On 18th January 1982, two and a half lakh workers went on a strike under the leadership of _________.
(a) Dhondo Keshav Karve
(b) Baba Amte
(c) Dr. Datta Samant
(d) Anna Hazare
Answer:
Dr. Datta Samant

Question 11.
The _______ plan is a reflection of the liberalisation and free market policy adopted in 1991.
(a) Seventh
(b) Eighth
(c) Fifth
(d) Sixth
Answer:
Eighth

Question 12.
The government nationalised the ‘Imperial Bank’ in 1955 and it got converted into ______
(a) Syndicate Bank
(b) Bank of India
(c) State Bank of India
(d) Reserve Bank of India
Answer:
State Bank of India

Question 13.
The term ‘Girangaon’ means ________.
(a) Town of hills
(b) Town of mills
(c) Group of industries
(d) Cottage industries
Answer:
Town of mills

Identify and write the wrong pair in the following sets:

Question 1.
(1) Public Sector – Controlled and managed by government
(2) Mixed Economy – Coordination in private and public sector
(3) 20 point programme – Nationalisation of 13 textile mills.
(4) Increased oil prices – Invasion of Kuwait by Iraq.
Answer:
Wrong Pair : 20 point programme Nationalisation of 13 textile mills.

Question 2.
(1) Congress Forum for Socialist Action – demanded nationalisation of banks.
(2) Rashtriya Mill Mazdoor Sangh – negotiations with the employer.
(3) Imperial Bank – converted in State Bank of India.
(4) National Stock Exchange – existed before WTO.
Answer:
Wrong Pair : National Stock Exchange – existed before WTO.

Question 3.
(1) SAPTA – Preferential trade
(2) SAARC – removal of import restrictions by India
(3) SEBI – established in 1998
(4) WTO – regulate global trade
Answer:
Wrong Pair : SEBI – established in 1998

Question 4.
(1) Barrister A.R.Antulay – leader of Rashtriya Mill Mazdoor Sangh
(2) Dr. Manmohan Singh – Finance Minister
(3) Indira Gandhi – nationalised 14 banks
(4) V.P. Singh – waived off loans of the farmers
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Barrister A.R.Antulay – leader of Rashtriya Mill Mazdoor Sangh

Question 5.
(1) Babasaheb Bhonsale – Chief Minster of Maharashtra
(2) Namdev Dhasal – Marathi Poet
(3) Shahir Sable – Programmes of public education
(4) Chandrashekhar – Associate of Mahatma Jyotirao Phule.
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Chandrashekhar – Associate of Mahatma Jyotirao Phule.

Complete the concept maps and flow charts of various programmes and schemes introduced:

Question 1.
Answer:

SECOND FIVE YEAR PLAN (1956-1961)
Iron and Steel industries	Durgapur, Bhilai, Rourkela
Chemical Fertilisers Plant	Sindri
Rail Engine Factory	Chittaranjan
Factory of railway bogies	Perambur
Ship building Factory	Vishakhapattanam

Question 2.
Answer:

Question 3.
Answer:

Question 4.
Answer:

Question 5.
Answer:

Question 6.
Answer:

Question 7.
Answer:

Give Reasons:

Question 1.
India established the Planning Commission to deal with economic repercussions of British colonialism,
Answer:
(i) The colonial power had exploited India economically. The country faced severe problems like poverty, unemployment, population growth, low standards of living, low productivity of agriculture and industries and backwardness in the fields of knowledge, science and technology. Planning was essential to solve these problems.

(ii) India established the Planning Commission in 1950 with Prime Minister Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru as its Chairman.

(iii) It formulated India’s five year plans that included rural and agricultural development, : balanced industrialisation, provision for a minimum standard of living and economic development consistent with democratic ideals.

(iv) It focused on people’s participation and individual development in the formulation and implementation of the five year plans.

Read the passage and answer the questions.

Passage I

Issues of workers: The first textile mill was started in Mumbai on 11th July, 1851 by Kawasjee Dawar. Eventually, mills started in Dadar, Parel, Bhaykhala, Shivdi, Prabhadevi and Worli. This part came to be i known as Girangaon or ‘town of mills’. In the 1980s, the increasing unrest among workers was due to the economic conditions in other sectors. In some industries the wages of the workers were increasing. They were also getting more amounts as bonus. They were getting more facilities than the textile mill workers.
In the Diwali of 1981, the workers expected to get a bonus of 20%. The Rashtriya Mill Mazdoor Sangh, which was negotiating with the employers, agreed upon 8 to 17% bonus without taking the workers into confidence. The cut in the bonus proved to be the cause of unrest. Some workers went to Dr. Datta Samant. They asked him to accept their leadership, Workers of 65 mills came together and Dr. Datta Samant led the strike. On 18th January 1982, two and a half lakh workers went on strike. Girangaon mills stopped running making it seem like Mumbai’s heart topped throbbing.
The Chief Minister of Maharashtra, Barrister A. R. , Antulay set up a committee to solve this issue. Later Babasaheb Bhosale became the Chief Minister of Maharashtra State. He insisted that as per law, he would talk only with the Rashtriya Mill Mazdoor Sangha. Dr. Datta Samant demanded that the law be revoked. In the beginning, the striking workers received help from their native villages. It was also , not very difficult for them to help each other. They set up departmental committees and distributed food grains, assistance in the form of funds, etc. The left parties had supported the strike. As the strike , dragged on, efforts were made to split the striking workers’ ranks. Even as the strike completed 6 months, the central government completely ignored it. The workers started a Jail Bharo Agitation’. In , September 1982, one and a half lakh workers took a march on the Legislative Assembly of Maharashtra State. It didn’t help at all. The strike completed a year. This was the first strike to have gone on for a year. In this period, about one and a half lakh workers became unemployed. As polyester had come into greater demand than cotton cloth, the sale of mill , cloth had already got affected. The mills moved from Mumbai to Surat in Gujarat. The Central government nationalised 13 textile mills. Appointment of i arbitrators did not help to resolve the issue.

Question 1.
Name the worker’s union mentioned in the passage. Why were the workers agitated with it?
Answer:
(i) The worker’s organisation mentioned in the passage is Rashtriya Mill Mazdoor Sangh.
(ii) The workers were agitated because they received less bonus and facilities in their textile mills, whereas economic conditions in the other sectors of the economy were far better.
(iii) The Rashtriya Mill Mazdoor Sangh that negotiated with the employers, settled at 8 to 17% of bonus as against the expectation of 20% by the workers.
(iv) The cut in the bonus led to the workers agitation.

Question 2.
State the contribution of Dr. Datta Samant in raising workers issues in Maharashtra?
Answer:
(i) Dr. Datta Samant was the leader of two and a half lakh workers who went on strike.
(ii) He demanded that the law be revoked which had empowered Rashtriya Mill Mazdoor Sangh alone to talk on behalf of the workers.

Question 3.
What is mixed economy?
Answer:
(i) In a capitalist system, the means of production are privately owned. In a socialist economy, the means of production are owned by the State in the name of the society.
(ii) A mixed economy works both in the private and the public sector.
(iii) In order to achieve economic development of modem India, we gave preference to a model of ‘mixed economy’.

Passage II

General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) existed at the international level before the World Trade Organisation came into being. It regulated commerce. In India there were opposed, extreme views about the World Trade Organisation. Yet India decided to take its membership. The provisions of the World Trade Organisation are regarding grants, import-export, foreign investment, agriculture, technology and services. The sectors of electricity, water transportation, education and health rapidly commercialised since India became a member of the World Trade Organisation. As per the various reports of the World Trade Organisation, India has made a considerable improvement in different areas like reduction in the below poverty line (BPL) population, decline in infant mortality, availability of facilities regarding drinking water and waste water management. India signed the South Asian Preferential Trade Agreement (SAPTA) along the lines of the World Trade Organisation. India removed the import restrictions on several commodities for SAARC countries. India also gave discounts on import duties. India opened up the insurance sector to private and foreign investment.

Question 1.
Study the passage and give the full forms of GATT and SAPTA.
Answer:
GATT – General Agreement on Tariff and Trade.
SAPTA – South Asian Preferential Trade Agreement.

Question 2.
Explain, in your own words, the economic policy of “Make in India”.
Answer:
’Make in India’ is an economic policy as well as an organised progamme of the Government of India to encourage and promote various companies and enterprises to start manufacturing and producing goods in India. The aim of this initiative is to generate employment, enhance the skill of Indians and also to attract foreign investment.

Question 3.
What do the provisions of the WTO cater to?
Answer:
The provisions of the WTO cater to grants, import -export, foreign investment, agriculture, technology and services.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
What is the fundamental principle of the Five Year Plans? Which economic goals are set forth by the Government?
Answer:
Fundamental principle of planning: A general principle of planning is the proportionate distribution of the resources of a country and the appropriate use of the human resources to fulfill the needs of the people.
Goals of Plans:
The general goals of the economic planning of India are as follows:

• Increase in the national income.
• Bringing about rapid industrialisation by focusing on the basic industries.
• Bringing about an increase in agricultural production so that the country becomes self-sufficient in foodgrain production.
• Use the human resources in the country optimally by availing increasing employment opportunities.
• Remove inequality in earnings and wealth.
• Maintain stable prices of commodities.
• Controlling the growth of population through family planning.
• Improve the standard of living by eradicating poverty.
• Develop social services.
• Make the economy self-sufficient.

Question 2.
Describe the prolonged agitation of the mill workers under Dr. Datta Samant.
Answer:
(i) In the beginning, the striking workers received help from their native villages. It was also not very difficult for them to help each other.

(ii) They set up departmental committees and distributed food grains, assistance in the form of funds, etc

(iii) The left parties had supported the strike. As the strike dragged on, efforts were made to split the striking workers’ ranks.

(iv) Even as the strike completed 6 months, the central government completely ignored it. The workers started a ‘Jail Bharo Agitation’.

(v) In September 1982, one and a half lakh workers took a march on the Legislative Assembly of Maharashtra State.

(vi) It didn’t help at all. The strike completed a year. This was the first strike to have gone on for a year.

(vii) In this period, about one and a half lakh workers became unemployed.

(viii) As polyester had come into greater demand than cotton cloth, the sale of mill cloth got affected. The mills moved from Mumbai to Surat in Gujarat.

(ix) The Central government nationalised 13 textile mills. Appointment of arbitrators did not help to resolve the issue.

Question 3.
Which enterprises came under government due to the lack of capital investment?
Answer:
(i) The industries like defence, scientific research, education, roads, railways, waterways, sea port and airport development require huge capital investment but the returns in these areas are delayed.
(ii) Not many private industrialists are keen to invest in these areas. In such a situation, the government has to take the initiative.

Question 4.
State the Industrial policy of 1973.
Answer:
(i) The industrial policy of 1973 increased the speed of development.
(ii) Priority was given in this policy to control the influence of heavy industries, industrial families and foreign industries and remove the imbalance in regional development.
(iii) The government focused on the development of small scale industries and cottage industries.

Question 5.
What were the aims of the ‘Third Five Year Plan’?
Answer:
(i) This plan was aimed at bringing about a balance in industries and agriculture.
(ii) The other goals of the plan included increase in national income, heavy industries, development in transport and mineral industry, alleviation of poverty and to expand the opportunities for employment.

Question 6.
What was the background for . the nationalisation of banks?
Answer:
(i) India had adopted a mixed economy after independence.
(ii) Nationalisation of banks was essential to cover the deficits if they occurred while implementing different schemes.
(iii) Also the profits of these banks would come into the government treasury once they are nationalised.

Question 7.
State the cultural contributions of the working class.
Answer:
(i) The working class has contributed culturally as well through folk theatre, folk art and literature. Anna Bhau Sathe, Shahir Amar Sheikh, Shahir Sable were popular for their programmes aimed at public education.
(ii) Poets like Narayan Surve, Namdev Dhasal, etc., portrayed the real life of the workers through their poems.

Question 8.
Who took responsibility to bring the Indian economy in sync with the global mainstream?
Answer:
(i) The year 1991 is very important in the history of modem India. After the 10th General elections, P. V. Narasimha Rao became the Prime Minister of India.

(ii) With Dr. Manmohan Singh as Finance Minister, he adopted the new economic policy of linking India’s economy with the global economy.

(iii) For this, fundamental changes were brought about in the Indian economy. Indian economy was brought in tune with the global mainstream.

Question 9.
Which corrective measures were taken by Manmohan Singh to relieve the crisis of the Indian economy?
Answer:
(i) Dr. Singh undertook many corrective measures. The situation began to change.
(ii) He removed the restrictions on foreign investments.
(iii) He restricted the licence system to 18 industries. In view of the increasing losses in the public sector industries, he opened up the public sector for investment by private industries.
(iv) In order to bring the share market under control, he established the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) in 1992.
(v) National Stock Exchange was computerised. He gave priority to remove the spectre of recession.

Question 10.
State the impact of corrective measures taken by Dr. Manmohan Singh on the economy of our country.
Answer:
(i) Foreign Investment in India grew during the first tenure of Dr. Manmohan Singh as Finance Minister.
(ii) India could recover the gold mortgaged with the Bank of England.
(iii) The government got the support of the capitalist class as well as the middle class.
(iv) As the government opened up the telecom sector, mobile phone services started all over the country.
(v) Dr. Manmohan Singh signed the agreement with the World Trade Organisation and launched the policy of “privatisation, liberalisation and globalisation.”

Question 11.
What were the objectives of the WTO?
Answer:
(i) In 1995, India became a member of the World Trade Organisation (WTO).
(ii) The organisation had the following objectives: to free trade between countries, to put an end to all those discriminatory laws, restrictions, rules and policies that are hurdles in the way of international free trade and to regulate global trade with the help of a formal multi – party mechanism.

Question 12.
Do you agree that membership with the WTO has ushered in changes in the economic sector of our country? State the reason for your answer.
Answer:
(i) Yes, of course. The provisions of the World Trade Organisation have included grants, import-export, foreign investment, agriculture, technology and services.

(ii) The sectors of electricity, water transportation, education and health have been rapidly commercialised since India became a member of the World Trade Organisation.

Question 13.
State the improvements which have occurred in our economy as per the reports of WTO.
Answer:
As per the various reports of the World Trade Organisation, India has made considerable improvement in different areas like reduction in the below poverty line (BPL) population, decline in infant mortality, availability of facilities regarding drinking water and waste water management.

Question 14.
Which economic challenges were faced by the Government of Prime Minister Chandra Shekhar?
Answer:
(i) During the tenure of Chandra Shekhar the rate of inflation was 17%.
(ii) Economic growth rate had decreased by 1.1%. India had foreign exchange reserves only enough to last for imports for a week.
(iii) It had become difficult to pay back its loan and the interest on it.
(iv) In May 1991, the government had tried to control the situation by selling some of its gold reserves and by mortgaging some.

Question 15.
Which economic liabilities were incurred by V. P. Singh government?
Answer:
(i) The V. P. Singh government had incurred a liability of over 10 thousand crore rupees on the economy by waiving off the loans of all the farmers.
(ii) The proportion of internal loans of central and state government together to the Gross Domestic Product was 55%.
(iii) In 1980-81 foreign loan was 2350 crore dollars. It increased to 8380 crore dollars in 1990-91.
(iv) At this time, India had foreign exchange reserves of only 100 crore dollars.
(v) This also had the background of the increased oil prices due to the invasion of Kuwait by Iraq.
(vi) It became difficult for India to raise a loan. Even the non-resident Indians started withdrawing their deposits in foreign currency from India.

Identify the picture and give relevant information.

Question 1.

Answer:
(i) Nationalisation of banks was essential to cover the deficits if they occurred while implementing different schemes and profit of these banks came under the government treasury.

(ii) Also the profit of these banks would come into the government treasury once they were nationalised. Prime Minister Indira Gandhi nationalised 14 banks on 19th July, 1969.

Question 2.

Answer:
(i) P. V. Narasimha Rao and Manmohan Singh.
(ii) They removed the restrictions on foreign investments.
(iii) Restricted the license system to 18 industries.
(iv) Opened up the public sector for investment by private industries.
(v) Established the SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) in 1992 to regulate and bring share market under control.
(vi) Foreign investment in India grew.
(vii) India could recover the gold mortgaged with the Bank of England.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Introduction to Economics Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Introduction to Economics

Class 9 Geography Chapter 8 Introduction to Economics Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Explain the types of economies by filling correct information in the place of questions in the circle.

Answer:

2. Give an explanation:

Question 1.
The economy begins at home.
Answer:

• Household finance is related to income and expenditure.
• Every household has unlimited expenditure and the income earned is limited.
• The household has to make a choice regarding how it has to spend its limited resources.
• Management of this limited income to meet the unlimited expenses is Economics.
• As we manage the finance of our family, similarly the villages/cities, states, countries and the whole world needs to have economic management. So we say Economy begins at home.

Question 2.
India’s economy is of mixed type.
Answer:

• Mixed economy is a combination of Capitalism and Socialism.
• India is said to be a Mixed economy because there is a co-existence of both public and the private sectors.
• The private sector undertakes production for the profit motive, whereas the state tries to achieve social welfare.
• India, therefore, tries to achieve a balance between maximum social welfare for its citizens on one hand and profit on the other. Therefore, India’s economy is of Mixed type.

Question 3.
On the basis of economies, we can divide countries into three groups.
Answer:
The activities related to the production, distribution and consumption of goods and services in a specific region is called economy. On the basis of economies, countries are divided into three groups. Capitalist Economy, Socialist Economy and Mixed Economy.

1. Capitalistic Economy is a kind of economy in which the means of production is in the hands of the private sector, e.g. Germany, Japan, the U.S.A.
2. Socialist Economy is a kind of economy in which the means of production belongs to the society i.e. the government’s control, e.g. China, Russia.
3. Mixed Economy is a kind of economy in which there is a co-existence of both private and public sectors, e.g. India, Sweden, the U.K.

3. Write the following questions in one line:

Question 1.
To which economic factor is the management of individual or family finances related?
Answer:
Management of individual or family finances is related to the economic factor of ‘income and expenditure.

Question 2.
From which Greek word is the term ‘Economics’ derived?
Answer:
The word ‘Economics’ is derived from the Greek word ‘Oikonomia’ which means family management.

Question 3.
In a capitalistic economy, to whom does the ownership and management of means of production belong?
Answer:
In a Capitalistic Economy, the ownership and management of means of production belong to the private sector.

Question 4.
What do you mean by globalisation?
Answer:
Globalisation means aligning the country’s economy with the world economy.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 8 Introduction to Economics Intext Questions and Answers

Can you tell?
Suppose this is your expenditure this month and your monthly income is? 20,000. To strike a balance between your income and your expenditure, decide that will be your preferences for expenditure.

Rewrite the table according to your preferences and discuss in class.

Sr.No.	—	Estimated Expenditure (₹)
1.	Daily food	6,000
2.	Buying two sets of Uniform	2,000
3.	School Stationery	500
4.	Medical expenditure	450
5.	Recreation	500
6.	Mobile Bill	1,000
7.	Vegetables, Fruits, etc.	1,000
8.	Public transport (bus, railway, rick-shaw, etc.)	2,600
9.	Electricity Bill	1,500
10.	Tourism	4,000
11.	Bank Installment	3,000
	Total Expenditure	22,550

Answer:
Income And Expenditure Statement

• Preferences have been rearranged to their urgency.
• Most urgent wants are placed on the top. Least urgent wants are placed at the bottom.
• Expenses have been cut down wherever possible.
• Money spent on tourism is nil.
• Mobile bill has been reduced to? 500 from? 1000.
• And Savings equals? 3000.

Can you do it?

Question 1.
Suppose you are the finance minister of an agrarian country. Giving priority to the overall development of the country, make a five-point program.
Answer:
As a Finance Minister of an Agrarian country like India, I would focus on transforming India in five areas:

• Modernization of agriculture, encouragement to export-oriented agro-processing industries.
• Education, skill-building, and healthcare.
• Information and communication technology.
• Infrastructure development for rural industrialization.
• Spirit of Entrepreneurship.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 8 Introduction to Economics Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the statements choosing the correct option:

Question 1.
The term economics’ is derived from Greek word
(a) oikomonia
(b) oikonomica
(c) oikonomia
(d) oikonomics
Answer:
(c) oikonomia

Question 2.
China and Russia have adopted type of economy.
(a) Socialistic
(b) Capitalistic
(c) Mixed
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Socialistic

Question 3.
The main motive of a economy is to earn profit.
(a) Mixed
(b) Capitalistic
(c) Simple
(d) Socialistic
Answer:
(b) Capitalistic

Question 4.
The main aim of Socialistic economy is to achieve
(a) social welfare
(b) profit
(c) injustice
(d) tolerance
Answer:
(a) social welfare

Question 5.
Germany is an example of a country which has adopted economy.
(a) Simple
(b) Socialistic
(c) Mixed
(d) Capitalistic
Answer:
(d) Capitalistic

Question 6.
Adam Smith has defined economics as the
(a) science of knowledge
(b) science of wealth
(c) science of peace
(d) science of needs
Answer:
(b) science of wealth

Question 7.
means making the country’s economy aligned with world economy.
(a) Liberalisation
(b) Privatisation
(c) Globalisation
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Globalisation

Question 8.
Economics is an important science.
(a) social
(b) political
(c) physical
(d) alternative
Answer:
(a) social

Question 9.
One of the main functions of the economy is to the production cost
(a) maximize
(b) inflate
(c) increase
(d) minimize
Answer:
(d) minimize

Question 10.
An economy strives to create a balance between resources and needs.
(a) unlimited, limited
(b) limited, unlimited
(c) plentiful, limited
(d) limited, scarce
Answer:
(b) limited, unlimited

Question 11.
is known as the Father of Economics.
(a) Lionel Robbins
(b) Prof. Samuelson
(c) Amartya Sen
(d) Adam Smith
Answer:
(d) Adam Smith

Question 12.
Economics is a science which studies human behaviour as a relationship between and scarce which have alternative uses.
(a) means, ends
(b) people, resources
(c) money, land
(d) ends, means
Answer:
(d) ends, means

Question 13.
We understand from economics, how to use, money, land and effectively.
(a) minerals, factory
(b) time, labour
(c) food grains, machines
(d) people, power
Answer:
(b) time, labour

Question 14.
On a global level, there are types of economies.
(a) four
(b) two
(c) three
(d) five
Answer:
(c) three

Question 15.
economy is a borderless economy.
(a) State
(b) Town
(c) Village
(d) World
Answer:
(d) World

Question 16.
In Globalisation, there is trade and all restrictions on are set aside.
(a) restricted, economy
(b) free, investments
(c) no, activity
(d) zero, labour
Answer:
(b) free, investments

Match the column

Group A	Group B
(1) Capitalist economy	(a) India
(2) Socialist economy	(b) USA
(3) Mixed economy	(c) Russia

Answer:
(1 – b),
(2 – c),
(3 – a)

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question 1.
Define Economics.
Answer:
According to Lionel Robbins, “Economics is a science which studies human behaviour as a relationship between ends and scarce means which have alternative uses”.

Question 2.
What is an Economy?
Answer:
The activities related to the production, distribution and consumption of goods and services in a specific region is called an economy.

Question 3.
What is a Capitalistic Economy?
Answer:
The economy in which the ownership and management of the means of production is in the hands of private individuals is called as a Capitalistic Economy.

Question 4.
What is the main aim of a Capitalistic Economy?
Answer:
The main aim of a Capitalistic Economy is to earn maximum profit.

Question 5.
Which countries have adopted Capitalistic Economy?
Answer:
Germany, Japan and USA are the examples of countries which have adopted Capitalistic economy.

Question 6.
What do you mean by Socialistic economy?
Answer:
The economy in which the means of production belong to the society as a whole i.e. the government’s control is known as a Socialistic economy.

Question 7.
What is the main aim of a Socialistic economy?
Answer:
The main aim of a Socialistic economy is to achieve social welfare.

Question 8.
Name Adam Smith’s book and year of publication.
Answer:
Adam Smith’s book is titled ‘Wealth of Nations/ and was published in 1776.

Question 9.
What are the types of economy at the global level?
Answer:
Capitalist, Socialist and Mixed Economy are the types of economy at the global level

Question 10.
Which economist is known as Father of Economics?
Answer:
Adam Smith is known as Father of Economics.

Question 11.
How does Adam Smith describe Economics in his ‘Wealth of Nations’?
Answer:
In the book ‘Wealth of Nations’ Adam Smith describes Economics as ‘the science of wealth’.

Question 12.
What is the World Economy?
Answer:
World Economy is a borderless economy in which natural resources, profit, services, capital, labour and technology flow freely across the countries.

Distinguish between Capitalist Economy and Socialist Economy.
Answer:

Capitalist Economy	Socialist Economy
(i) Ownership and management of means of production is in the hands of the private individuals. (ii) To earn maximum profit is the main aim of the Capitalist Economy. (iii) The USA, Germany and Japan have Capitalist Economy.	The means of production belong to the society as a whole and are under the control of the government. To achieve social welfare is the main aim of the Socialist Economy. Russia and China have Socialist Economy.

Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the functions of an economy.
Answer:
Every country has a different economy. But the main functions of an economy are similar. Some of the main functions of an economy are:

• Deciding the product and quantity of its production.
• Deciding for whom will the goods be produced.
• Minimising the production costs as much as possible.
• Distributing national income1 according to social and economic justice2.
• Making appropriate provisions3 for the economic needs of the future.

Question 2.
Explain the importance of Economics.
Answer:
Economics is an important Social Science Subject.

• We use Economics on a large scale in agriculture, trade, finance, administration, law and in our daily life.
• Economics holds a paramount4 importance in the overall social development of humans.

Question 3.
Name the factors affecting an economy.
Answer:
The factors affecting an economy are:

• Geographical area and natural resources.
• Population
• Occupations
• Political Sovereignty

Question 4.
Write a description of Economics given by Lionel Robbins.
Answer:

• According to Lionel Robbins, “Economics is a science which studies human behaviour as a relationship between ends and scarce means which have alternative uses”.
• Since human wants are unlimited their priority is determined.
• The satisfaction of the basic needs are given priority.
• A scarce resource like land can be used either for agriculture or industries or development of infrastructure.
• In this way, Economics studies human behaviour related to unlimited wants with limited resources that have alternative uses.

Question 5.
Explain the nature of the Capitalist Economy.
Answer:

• The ownership and control of means of production is in the hands of the private individuals in the Capitalist Economy.
• There is no control of the government over economic activities in their ‘Free Market Economy’.
• The objective of economic activities is to earn maximum profit.
• The capitalist economy exists in Germany, Japan and the USA.

Question 6.
Explain the nature of the Socialist Economy.
Answer:

• There is no private ownership of the means of production as these belong to the society as a whole.
• There is total control of the State over the economy.
• The objective of the economic activities is the fulfilment of social needs (social welfare).
• Socialist economy exists in Russia and China.

Question 7.
What are the main features (components) of the economy?
Answer:

1. The economy is a system related to the production, distribution and consumption of goods and services in a specific region.
2. The main features of an economy are :
   • Well defined geographical area.
   • Population, i.e. the people living within that geographical area and undertaking various economic activities.
   • Natural resources to undertake economic activities.
   • Political sovereignty that exercises control over the economy.

Question 8.
Explain the nature of globalisation.
Answer:

• Globalisation means aligning the economy of the country with the world economy.
• There is free trade and all restrictions on (foreign) investments are set aside.
• There is free flow of natural resources, profit, services, capital, labour and technology across the world.
• The aim is to establish a borderless economy.
• The recent economic policies of the government are leading the economy towards globalisation.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 3 India’s Internal Challenges Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 3 India’s Internal Challenges

Class 9 History Chapter 3 India’s Internal Challenges Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Write briefly.

Question 1.
Which demands were put forward through the ‘Anandpur Sahib Resolution’ by the Akali Dal?
OR
Which demands were raised by the Akali Dal through the ‘Anandpur Sahib Resolution’?
Answer:
In 1973, the Akali Dal passed the ‘Aanandpur Sahib Resolution’. The following demands were made in this resolution:
(i) Chandigarh should be made part of Punjab.
(ii) The Punjabi speaking parts in other states should be included in the state of Punjab,
(iii) Recruitment of people from Punjab in the Indian army should be increased.
(iv) More autonomy should be given to the state of Punjab.

Question 2.
What can we do to end communalism?
Answer:
(i) It is necessary that we all counter communalism with all our strength. For this, we should mix with people of different religions. We should accept the good practices and ideas of each other.

(ii) We should be able to look at and understand our economic and social problems rationally. We should not mix these matters with religion.

(iii) We should look for the economic, political or historical reasons that are responsible for disrupting religious harmony. This is the only way to put an end to communalism and strengthen national unity.

Question 3.
How does regionalism gain strength/become strong?
Answer:
(i) Regionalism thrives on regional imbalance in development. In the post-independence period, some states achieved more progress, while some states remained backward.

(ii) As a result, the states that develop economically can also achieve progress in other areas like education, health and culture.

(iii) The states which have not developed in this manner remain backward in education and civic amenities. The opportunities of development available to people in developed states are not possible for people in backward states.

(iv) They are troubled by problems of education, backwardness, unemployment, poverty, etc. They begin to think that they are being cheated; they are being kept away from the benefits of development. Because of this, the understanding between states is broken.

(v) The people of developed states begin to believe that they are superior due to their superior history and culture and hence they have developed that much. Then they begin to look down upon the people of underdeveloped regions.

(vi) They are not willing to share the benefits of ‘ development with the backward states.

(vii) On the other hand, the people from backward areas need to arouse their regional identity to organise themselves. For this, they try to unnecessarily glorify local traditions.

2. Explain the following concepts in your own words:

Question 1.
Communalism
Answer:
(i) Communalism is a serious threat to the unity of our country. It emerges out of narrow religious pride.

(ii) Fanaticism is the base of communalism. It makes one oblivious to national interest. Fanaticism makes the perspective of looking at events and people prejudiced.

(iii) Some people begin to think of economic and social questions in the framework of their own religion. They hold the idea that government is partial towards their religion.

(iv) If anybody speaks about their religion or insults their religious symbols knowingly or unknowingly, riots break out because of this kind of thinking. Hundreds of innocent people are killed. Public peace is destroyed.

Question 2.
Regionalism
Answer:
(i) Regionalism refers an over-adherence to the language, culture, socio-political structures and economic growth of one’s own region or territory which leads to disregard for people of other regions.

(ii) It is grounded in the uneven industrial and infrastructural development of various regions of the same nation. For example, states like Maharashtra, Gujarat, Punjab and Tamil Nadu are well developed economically and industrially, whereas states like Odisha, Bihar, Assam, have remained undeveloped economically and industrially.

(iii) The disparity in availability of education, employment and other civic amenities between developed and backward regions of the country leads to regionalism.

(iv) The people of economically backward states often feel neglected and deprived, whereas the people of developed states might become narrow-minded and refuse to share the benefits of their development.

3. Give reasons:

Question 1.
It became necessary to carry out Operation Blue Star.
Answer:
(i) In 1980, the movement for ‘Independent Khalistan’ took root in Punjab.

(ii) During that period, the leader of the Akali Dal was Sant Harcharan Singh Longowal. He used to direct his activists from the Golden Temple to stage protests.

(iii) On the other side of the Golden Temple, armed followers started gathering around the staunch Khalistan supporter Sant Jamail Singh Bhindranwale. During that period, terrorist activities had begun.

(iv) Bhindranwale was arrested in 1981, accused of the murder of newspaper editor, Lala Jagatnarayan. After this incident, the situation worsened.

(v) Due to these developments, President’s rule was imposed in Punjab in 1983.

(vi) Bhindranwale went to stay at a religious place called Akal Takht.

(vii) Bhindranwale’s followers captured the Golden Temple and built a barricade of sand bags over there. The area looked like a fort.

(viii) This greatly disturbed peace in Punjab. It was a major challenge to Indian democracy.

Question 2.
We should fight communalism with all our strength.
Answer:
(i) It is necessary that we all counter religious communalism with all our strength.
(ii) For this to become a reality, we should mix with people of different religions. We should accept the good practices and ideas of each other.
(iii) We should be able to look at and understand our economic and social problems rationally. We should not mix these issues with religion.
(iv) We should look for the economic, political or historical reasons that are responsible for disrupting religious harmony.
(v) This is the only way to put an end to communalism and to strengthen national unity.

4. Write the full forms:

Question 1.
NEFA
Answer:
North East Frontier Agency
Question 2.
MNF
Answer:
Mizo National Front

Question 3.
NNC
Answer:
Naga National Council

Class 9 History Chapter 3 India’s Internal Challenges Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
Akali Dal was the major political party of _______, which came to power in 1977.
(a) Haryana
(b) Punjab
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Gujarat
Answer:
Punjab

Question 2.
Akali Dal demanded ‘Holy City’ status for _______.
(a) Jalandhar
(b) Bhatinda
(c) Chandigarh
(d) Amritsar
Answer:
Amritsar

Question 3.
During the movement for ‘Independent Khalistan’ ______ was the leader of Akali Dal.
(a) Sant Jamail Singh Bhindranwale
(b) Sant Harcharan Singh
(c) Major General Shahbeg Singh
(d) Major General Kuldeep Singh Brar
Answer:
Sant Harcharan Singh

Question 4.
On the morning of 3rd June 1984, mission _____ started.
(a) Operation Blue Star
(b) Operation Black Thunder
(c) Operation Vijay
(d) Operation Smiling Buddha
Answer:
Operation Blue Star

Question 5.
The north-east consists of ____ states.
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 5
Answer:
8

Question 6.
In 1954, NEFA comprised of the territories on the ______ border and tribal areas towards the north of Assam.
(a) Indo-Pak
(b) Sino-Indian
(c) Indo-Nepalese
(d) Indo-Bhutanese
Answer:
Sino-Indian

Question 7.
In 1965, the responsibility of administering the north-east regions of India was given to _______.
(a) Defence Ministry
(b) Ministry of External Affairs
(c) President of India
(d) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
Ministry of External Affairs

Question 8.
When India became independent, the government gave administrative autonomy to the districts of ______ majority areas of Lushai Hills.
(a) Naga
(b) Ahom
(c) Mizo
(d) Assamese
Answer:
Mizo

Question 9.
In 1961, Laldenga established the _______.
(a) All Assam Students Union
(b) Asom Gana Sangram Parishad
(c) Mizo National Front
(d) Naga National Council
Answer:
Mizo National Front

Question 10.
The Naga Tribe in north-east India was known to be a _____ tribe.
(a) nomadic
(b) pastoral
(c) martial
(d) ethnic
Answer:
martial

Question 11.
Naga National Council was led by ________.
(a) Prafullakumar Mohanto
(b) Laldenga
(c) Vizar Angami
(d) Angami Zapu Fizo
Answer:
Angami Zapu Fizo

Question 12.
The intense agitation of 1983 in Assam was staged over the question of _____.
(a) Exploitation by the landlords
(b) Bengali migrants from Bangladesh
(c) Autonomy in Assam
(d) Naxalites
Answer:
Bengali migrants from Bangladesh

Question 13.
On 20th February 1987, _______ got the status of a constituent state.
(a) Manipur
(b) Nagaland
(c) Assam
(d) Arunachal Pradesh
Answer:
Arunachal Pradesh

Question 14.
The Naxalite movement started at Naxalbari in ______ district.
(a) Darjeeling
(b) Hojai
(c) Bishnupur
(d)Tuensang
Answer:
Darjeeling

Question 15.
The Naxalites established an organisation called _____.
(a) North-east Frontier Agency
(b) People’s Liberation Guerilla Army
(c) Mizo National Front
(d) Naga National Council
Answer:
People’s Liberation Guerilla Army

Identify and write the wrong pair in the following sets:

Question 1.
(1) Greater Mizoram – Mizo National Front
(2) Aanandpur Sahib Resolution – Akali Dal
(3) Action Committees – Communalism
(4) Operation Blue Star – Kuldeep Singh Brar
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Action Committees – Communalism

Question 2.
(1) Laldenga – Chief Minister of Mizoram
(2) Lala Jagatnarayan – Naxalite
(3) Prafullakumar Mahanta-Assam Ganaparishad
(4) Jamail Singh Bhindranwale – Independent Khalistan
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Lala Jagatnarayan – Naxalite

Question 3.
(1) 1973 – Anandpur Sahib Resolution
(2) 1954 – NEFA became Arunachal Pradesh
(3) 1972 – Mizo areas got the status of Union Territory
(4) 1961 – Mizo National Front was established
Answer:
Wrong Pair: 1954 – NEFA became Arunachal Pradesh

Write the full form of the following acronyms:

Question 1.
PLGA
Answer:
People’s Liberation Guerilla Army

Do as directed

Question 1.
Complete the table using the information of Naxalite areas of activity provided in the chapter:
Answer:

(1)	East Godavari	Andhra Pradesh
(2)	Adilabad, Bastar Rajnandangaon and Sukma	Chhattisgarh
(3)	Balaghat and Mandala	Madhya Pradesh
(4)	Gadchiroli, Bhandara, parts of Chandrapur	Maharashtra
(5)	Koraput	Odisha
(6)	Parts of Vishakhapatnam and Karimnagar	Telangana

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Military action was taken to suppress the skirmishes of Naga activists.
Answer:
(i) In 1946, some’ educated Naga youth established an organisation called Naga National Council (NNC).
(ii) Later they made a demand for an independent state of Nagaland. They were led by Angami Zapu Fizo.
(iii) In 1954, the Naga National Council announced the establishment of an independent federation of Nagaland.
(iv) In 1955, skirmishes took place between local Nagas and the soldiers of the Assam Rifles. Military action was therefore taken to suppress the skirmishes (clashes).

Question 2.
The Naxalites established an organisation called PLGA.
Answer:
(i) The Naxalite Movement originated from Darjeeling, West Bengal, to raise a voice against the exploitation of farmers by the landlords and to confiscate the lands of the landlords and distribute it amongst the tenants.

(ii) Later, the Naxalites took to terrorism and started a parallel system by rejecting democracy, thereby threatening the internal security of India.

(iii) The movement was mainly located in West Bengal.

(iv) Later, the movement spread to East Godavari in Andhra Pradesh and parts of Vishakhapattanam, Karimnagar in Telangana, Adilabad, Bastar, Rajnandangaon and Sukma in Chhattisgarh, Gadchiroli, Bhandara and parts of Chandrapur in Maharashtra, Balaghat and Mandala in Madhya Pradesh and Koraput in Odisha.

(v) In order to maintain their influence, the Naxalites established an organisation called People’s Liberation Guerilla Army (PLGA). This conflict is still going on.

Question 3.
Fanaticism is the base of communalism.
Answer:
(i) Communalism is a serious threat to the unity of our country. Communalism emerges out of narrow religious pride.
(ii) But when this pride becomes excessive, then it turns into bigotry.
(iii) Each one then begins to consider their religion superior and others’ inferior. This leads to religious fanaticism which is the base of communalism.

Question 4.
Regionalism thrives on regional imbalance in development.
Answer:
(i) In the post-independence period, some states achieved more progress, while some states remained backward.
(ii) States that develop economically can also achieve progress in other areas like education, health and culture.
(iii) The states which have not developed in this manner remain backward in education and civic amenities.
(iv) They are harassed by problems of education, backwardness, unemployment and poverty, etc.
(v) They begin to think that they are being cheated; they are being kept away from the benefits of development.
(vi) Because of this, the understanding between states is broken. This in turn, has a negative impact on national unity.

Question 5.
Skirmishes took place between local Nagas and the soldiers of Assam Rifles.
Answer:
(i) In 1946, some educated Naga youth established an organisation called Naga National Council (NNC).
(ii) Later, they made a demand for an independent State of Nagaland. They were led by Angami Zapu Fizo.
(iii) In 1954, the Naga National Council announced the establishment of an independent federation of Nagaland. In 1955, skirmishes happened between local Nagas and the soldiers of the Assam Rifles.

Question 6.
Naxalite movements are a threat to internal insecurity.
Answer:
(i) The movement had the objectives of establishing Action Committees to raise a voice against the exploitation of the farmers by the landlords and confiscate the land of the landlords and distribute it among the tenants.

(ii) Later, the movement strayed away from its objectives. It took recourse to terrorism to prevent any government schemes and welfare policies from reaching the common people.

(iii) The Naxalites started a parallel system by rejecting the democratic system. This made Naxalism a serious challenge to India’s internal security.

Answer the following:

Question 1.
Which event prompted the arrest of Jamailsingh Bhindranwale?
Answer:
Bhindranwale was arrested in 1981, accused of the murder of newspaper editor, Lala Jagatnarayan. After this incident, the situation in Punjab worsened.

Question 2.
Name the constituent states of the north-east of India.
Answer:
North-east India consists of the eight states of Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim and Tripura.

Question 3.
What made the Mizo leaders demand autonomy for their province?
Answer:
(i) When India became independent, the government gave administrative autonomy to the districts of Mizo majority areas of the Lushai hills.
(ii) When the States Reorganisation Commission was appointed in 1954, the expectations of the people in this area grew. That is when the Mizo leaders started demanding an autonomous ‘Mizo’ province.

Question 4.
What do you mean by ‘Operation Black Thunder’?
Answer:
In 1986, an operation has to be conducted against terrorists in the Golden Temple. It was called ‘Operation Black Thunder’.

Question 5.
What was the objective of Naxalite Action Committees?
Answer:
The Naxalite movement had the objective of establishing Action Committees to raise a voice against the exploitation of the farmers by the landlords and to confiscate the lands of the landlords and distribute them among the tenants.

Read the following passages and answer the questions:

Passage: I

Mizoram : The tribes in north-east India have an ancient history. When India became independent, the government gave administrative autonomy to the districts of Mizo majority areas of the Lushai hills, When the States Reorganisation Commission was i ! appointed in 1954, the expectations of the people in this area grew.Mizo leaders started demanding an autonomous ‘Mizo’ province. In 1959 the territory of Mizoram experienced severe drought. During this famine, Mizo , leader Laldenga served the common people a lot. In 1961, Laldenga established an organisation called Mizo National Front (MNF). He asked for ‘Greater Mizoram’, an independent nation carved out of Tripura, Manipur and Mizo majority areas from the Lushai hills.
In March 1966, Mizo National Front announced the emergence of Independent Mizoram. Prime Minister , Indira Gandhi handled the situation firmly and suppressed the rebellion. When the situation calmed down in 1972, the Mizo majority area was given the status of a Union Territory. In 1985, Prime Minister , Rajiv Gandhi had an agreement with the Mizo National Front and Mizoram was given the status of a full-fledged State. Laldenga became the Chief Minister of the State.

Question 1.
Which areas in north-east eventually formed the state of Mizoram?
Answer:
Mizo majority areas of Lushai Hills formed the State of Mizoram.

Question 2.
Name the leading party of Mizoram.
Answer:
Mizo National Front.

Question 3.
Which operation was carried in 1986 against the terrorists in the Golden Temple?
Answer:
Operation ‘Black Thunder’

Passage: II

Nagaland: The Naga tribe in northeast India is known as a martial tribe. The Naga tribe had settled in Eastern Himalayas, the Naga hills, border areas of Assam and Myanmar. In 1946, some educated Naga youth established an organisation called Naga National Council (NNC). Later they made a demand for an independent State of Nagaland. They were led by Angami Zapu’Fizo. In 1954, the Naga National Council announced the establishment of an independent ,federation of Nagaland. In 1955, skirmishes happened between local Nagas and the soldiers of the Assam Rifles. Military action was taken to suppress the , skirmishes. Several rounds of discussions took place between the Central Government and the Naga National Council. Central Government decided , to give the Naga majority territory the status of a Union Territory. Nagaland was made a fullfledged State on 1st December 1963 by putting together the Naga majority territory and part of Tuensang.

Question 1.
Who was the leader of Naga National Council?
Answer:
Angami Zapu Fizo.

Question 2.
Which areas does Nagaland comprise of?
Answer:
Tribes residing in the eastern Himalayas, Naga Hills and on the border areas of Assam and Myanmar emerged as Nagaland. A part of Tuensang was also added to it later.

Question 3.
Which territory in the North-East eventually formed the state of Nagaland?
Answer:
Nagaland was made a fullfledged State on 1st December 1963 by putting together the Naga majority territory and part of Tuensang.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
President’s rule was imposed in Punjab in 1983. Why?
Answer:
(i) In 1980, the movement for ‘Independent Khalistari took root in Punjab.

(ii) During that period, the leader of the Akali Dal was Sant Harcharan Singh Longowal. He used to direct his activists from the Golden Temple to stage protests.

(iii) On the other side of the Golden Temple, armed followers started gathering around the staunch Khalistan supporter Sant Jamail Singh Bhindranwale. During that period, terrorist activities had begun.

(iv) Bhindranwale was arrested in 1981, accused of the murder of newspaper editor, Lala Jagatnarayan.

(v) After this incident, the situation worsened. Due to these developments, President’s rule was imposed in Punjab in 1983.

Question 2.
Which states does north-east India comprise of and in what respects are they different from each other?
Answer:
(i) North-east India consists of the eight states of Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim and Tripura.
(ii) International borders of India touch each of the states to varying extents.
(iii) These states are different with respect to ethnicity, language and cultural diversity.

Question 3.
State the role of Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru in the assimilation of the north-eastern states into the mainstream of the country.
Answer:
(i) The first Prime Minister of independent India took the lead in bringing the tribes living in these areas into the mainstream of the country.

(ii) In 1954, he formed the North-East Frontier Agency (NEFA) area, comprising of the territories on the Sino-Indian border and the tribal areas towards the north of Assam.

(iii) Nehru took the position of bringing about the development of hundreds of tribes in these parts while preserving their culture.

Question 4.
State the constitutional measures taken by the government to assimilate north-east India into the mainstream.
Answer:
(i) Special provisions have been made with respect to these areas in the VI Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
(ii) In 1965, the responsibility of administering this area was given to the Ministry of External Affairs.
(iii) The Northeastern Council Act of 1971 was supposed to advise the Central Government regarding aspects of common interest in economic and social spheres, inter-state transport, electricity, flood control, etc.

Question 5.
What is the role of Mizo leader, Laldenga in emergence of independent Mizoram?
Answer:
(i) In 1959 the territory of Mizoram experienced severe drought. During this famine, Mizo leader Laldenga served the common people a lot.

(ii) In 1961, Laldenga established an organisation called Mizo National Front (MNF).

(iii) He asked for’ Greater Mizoram’, an independent nation carved out of Tripura, Manipur and Mizo majority areas from the Lushai hills.

(iv) In March 1966, Mizo National Front announced the emergence of Independent Mizoram.

(v) In 1985, Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi had an agreement with the Mizo National Front and Mizoram was given the status of a full-fledged state. Laldenga became the Chief Minister of the State.

Question 6.
Describe the establishment of democracy and peace in Assam.
Answer:
(i) In 1985, Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi, Central Home Minister Shankarrao Chavan and Assamese leader Prafullakumar Mohanto signed an Accord.

(ii) It was dedded to that the Bangladeshi dtizens who had infiltrated in Assam would be sent back to their original places.

(iii) In 1986, elections were held for Assam Legislative Assembly and Prafullakumar Mohanto, of the Asom Ganaparishad became the new Chief Minister. Due to this democratic process, it became possible to establish peace in Assam.

Question 7.
What are the features of religious fanaticism?
Answer:
(i) People of different religions don’t trust each other. They become suspidous of each other.

(ii) Compatriots following different religions are looked at as enemies. Even commensality or coming together on festivals becomes rare.

(iii) The perspective of looking at events and people is prejudiced. Some people begin to think of economic and sodal questions from within the framework of their own religion.

(iv) Some people might think that since they belong to a particular religion, they have no influence in politics. They begin to believe that they are being treated unjustly. They hold the idea that the government is against their religion.

Question 8.
Regionalism can affect developed as well as undeveloped states. Justify the statement.
Answer:
(i) The people of developed states begin to believe that they are superior due to their superior history and culture.

(ii) They then begin to look down upon people of underdeveloped regions. They are not willing to share the benefits of development with backward states.

(iii) On the other hand, the people from backward areas arouse their regional identity to organise themselves. For this, they try to unnecessarily glorify local traditions and culture to prove their uniqueness.

Question 9.
What do you mean by ‘Operation Blue Star’?
Answer:
(i) Operation Blue Star was a military action of getting the terrorists out of the Golden temple. This operation was entrusted to Major General Kuldeep Singh Brar.

(ii) On the morning of 3rd June 1984, the mission ‘Operation Blue Star’ started. The Operation ended on 6th June.

Question 10.
Which events from the Golden Temple in 1980 disturbed the peace in Punjab?
Answer:
(i) In 1980, the movement for ‘Independent Khalistan’ took root in Punjab. During that period, the leader of the Akali Dal was Sant Harcharan Singh Longowal. He used to direct his activists from the Golden Temple to stage protests.

(ii) On the other side of the Golden Temple, armed followers started gathering around the staunch Khalistan supporter Sant Jarnail Singh Bhindranwale. During that period, terrorist activities had begun.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 7 Science and Technology Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 7 Science and Technology

Class 9 History Chapter 7 Science and Technology Textbook Questions and Answers

1.A Choose the right option and rewrite the sentence:

Question 1.
_______ was named as the first Chairman of Atomic Energy Commission.
(a) Dr Homi Bhabha
(b) Dr Homi Sethna
(c) Dr A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(d) Dr Raja Ramanna
Answer:
(a) Dr Homi Bhabha

Question 2.
________ was the first completely indigenous communication satellite made by ISRO.
(a) Aryabhatta
(b) Insat 1 B
(c) Rohini-75
(d) APPLE
Answer:
(d) APPLE

B. Identify the wrong pair:

Question 1.
(1) Prithvi – Surface-to-Surface ballistic missile
(2) Agni – Surface-to-Sea ballistic missile
(3) Akash – Surface-to-Air missile
(4) Nag – anti-tank missile
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Agni – Surface-to-Sea ballistic missile

2A. Prepare a timeline of the progress of India in science and technology:

Question .1

Answer:

B. Explain the following concepts:

Question 1.
Space research
Answer:
(i) In 1961, Indian National Committee for Space Research (NCSR) launched India’s first research rocket from Thumba Equatorial Launch Centre in Thumba in the State of Kerala.
(ii) In 1969, our indigenously built rocket Rohini-75 was successfully launched.
(iii) The next stage was the successful launch of the first Indian satellite Aryabhatta in 1975 with help from the Soviet Union.
(iv) This success proved that Indian scientists can indigenously build and launch a satellite. Indian scientists were confident that they could acquire the technology for sending a message from the Earth Station and to assess the working of the satellite.

Question 2.
Telex service
Answer:
(i) The department of telecommunications under the Ministry of Communications started the telex service in 1963 to transmit typed messages from one part of the country to another rapidly.
(ii) In 1969, the telex service started in Devanagari script in Delhi.
(iii) Later, it spread all over the country.
(iv) This service began to be used in different fields. With the rise of internet after 1990, the significance of this service reduced.

3. Explain the following with reasons:

Question 1.
Pandit Nehru established the Atomic Energy Commission.
Answer:
(i) India’s first Prime Minister Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru wanted to nurture a scientific temper and bring about the nation’s progress.
(ii) From this perspective, he set up the Indian Atomic Energy Commission on 10th August, 1948.
(iii) Dr Homi Bhabha was appointed as the first Chairman of the Commission.
(iv) The objectives of the commission were to produce electricity from atomic energy, increase the yield of food grains and make them last longer, set up the technology for achieving this and develop nanotechnology.

Question 2.
India decided to conduct nuclear tests.
Answer:
(i) India successfully performed her first nuclear test at Pokharan in Rajasthan on 18th May, 1974 in consonance with the policy of using nuclear energy for peaceful purposes and for self sufficiency.

(ii) The reason why India took this decision was China’s nuclear capability and Pakistan’s desperate efforts to acquire nuclear weapons with China’s help.

(iii) Dr Homi Sethna, the chairman of the Indian Atomic Energy Commission and Dr Raja Ramanna, Director of the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre played a major role in conducting this nuclear test.

(iv) Prime Minister Indira Gandhi took the decision of carrying out a ‘nuclear explosion’. Pokharan was chosen on the basis of the required criteria for the location of the nuclear tests : far away from human settlement and no ground water reserves.

Question 3.
USA imposed economic sanctions on India.
Answer:
(i) On 11th May 1998, India carried out its second nuclear test to prove its nuclear preparedness.
(ii) Three tests were done on this day.
(iii) One of them was of the hydrogen bomb.
(iv) Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee assured that there would be no first use of nuclear weapons by India. But the USA imposed economic sanctions on India immediately.

4. Write the answers in 25 to 30 words:

Question 1.
Write about Pokharan nuclear test.
Answer:
(i) India successfully performed her first nuclear test at Pokharan in Rajasthan on 18th May, 1974 in consonance with the policy of using nuclear energy for peaceful purposes and for self-sufficiency.

(ii) The reason why India took this decision was China’s nuclear capability and Pakistan’s desperate efforts to acquire nuclear weapons with China’s help.

(iii) Dr Homi Sethna, the chairman of the Indian Atomic Energy Commission and Dr Raja Ramanna, Director of the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre played a major role in conducting this nuclear test.

(iv) Prime Minister Indira Gandhi took the decision of carrying out a ‘nuclear explosion’. Pokharan was chosen on the basis of the required criteria for the location of the nuclear tests: far away from human settlement and no groundwater reserve.

Question 2.
For which sector was Bhaskar-1 satellite expected to be useful?
Answer:
(i) India launched remote sensing experimental satellite Bhaskar-1 from the Soviet Union in 1979 in order to observe various things on the surface of the Earth by remote sensing technology.

(ii) This remote sensing technology would be useful for India’s development by regarding water bodies, mineral deposits and forecasting weather.

(iii) The photographs taken with the help of this technology about the bowels of the Earth, environment and forests were important.

(iv) Another area in which the information from this satellite was useful was Oceanography

5. Write in brief:

Question 1.
Which of the everyday services are influenced by satellite technology?
Answer:
(i) Bhaskar-1: India launched remote sensing experimental satellite Bhaskar-1 from the Soviet Union in 1979 in order to observe various things on the surface of the Earth by remote sensing technology. This remote sensing technology would be useful for India’s development by regarding water bodies, mineral deposits and forecasting weather. The photographs taken with the help of this technology about the bowels of the Earth, environment and forests were important. Another area in which the information from this satellite was useful was Oceanography. In 1981, ‘Bhaskar-2’ was launched from Soviet Union.

(ii) (if APPLE (Ariane Passenger Payload Experiment): The first completely indigenously built satellite by ISRO in India, APPLE was launched on 19th June, 1981 from the French Guiana. ‘APPLE’ was beneficial in the field of education. The objective of providing emergency telecommunication services was successful.

(iii) Indian National Satellite (INSAT): In August 1983, the satellite INSAT 1-B was launched in space. Because of this satellite, a major revolution came about in the areas of telecommunication, television, radio, weather forecasting and space research in India. Due to INSAT, 207 Akashwani or Radio stations could be connected to each other. This mechanism was also useful for search and rescue of people caught in some disaster like a shipwreck or an air plane crash, for forecasting weather, to look for and follow cyclones or storms, in the fields of telemedicine and educational institutions. The tele-medicine service enabled the population from remote areas to get advice and treatment from expert doctors. Public Primary Health Centers in villages have been connected with super speciality hospitals through INSAT.

(iv) Satellite Communication Centre: In order to establish satellite communication with the help of an artificial satellite, a domestic satellite communication Earth station was established in 1967, at Jodhpur Tekra near Ahmedabad. This made it easy to train scientists and technicians in setting up and running an Earth Station within the country. In 1970, a centre was established at Aarvi near Pune, equipped for international telecommunication service. The technology adopted by railways has a big role in the history of modern India.

Question 2.
Why is Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam called as the ‘Missile Man’?
Answer:
(i) In 1958, Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) was established under the Department of Defence of the government of India. The objective of this organisation was to make India self-sufficient with respect to means, equipment and weapons required for defence. After 1983, this organisation developed several missiles under the leadership of Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam. Dr Kalam has made a great contribution in the production of missiles. Dr Kalam is known as the father of India’s missile programme. He is also referred to as the ‘Missile Man’ of India.

(ii) Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP) was conceived by and carried out under the leadership of Dr A.P.J. Abdul Kalam. Defence Research and Development organisation (DRDO) undertook the task of building the missiles.

Question 3.
How can one have computerized reservation done for railway travel?
Answer:
(i) There is a site called IRCTC for online railway bookings. On it’s site, sign up option is given through which Login Id and Password is created for IRCTC account. One must login with this ID and password for booking railway ticket. A captcha image needs to be filled to ensure the account is not being misused.

(ii) To the left of the page on the site, a column is given to enter the destination and boarding point, along with the date on which the journey is supposed to be made. After filling this, the list of trains along with their numbers, berth system, schedules is shown. The Quota, i.e. general, ladies, senior citizen needs to be filled here.

(iii) Here, if the ladies quota is selected, the berth is booked in the compartment reserved exclusively for ladies. If senior citizen quota is selected, exemption in travel fees is given.

(iv) After this, berth preferences i.e. sleeper, second seating is to be selected to book the tickets. Upon which, a new window opens for filling the details like name of the passenger, age, etc. A captcha image needs to be filled again to confirm booking.

(v) The gateway to online payment opens up which is done through Debit Card or Internet Banking, whichever is easier for the person booking it. A message of confirmation and email is received to the person booking it for his/her detail.

Question 4.
Write the key features of the Konkan Railway.
Answer:
(i) The Konkan Railway started in 1998.

(ii) There are several records of technology to the credit of Konkan Railway which stretches over the four states of Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka and Kerala over a distance of 760 kilometres.

(iii) There are 12 tunnels on this track. The 6.5 km tunnel at Karbude is the longest tunnel. There are 179 big and 1819 small bridges on this track.

(iv) Out of these, the 2065.8 m long bridge on River Sharavati near Honnawar is the biggest, i.e. The 64 m tall bridge on River Panval near Ratnagiri is India’s tallest bridge.

(v) For avoiding accidents on tracks that are prone to landslides, there are sensors fitted to the railway engines.

Class 9 History Chapter 7 Science and Technology Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
The Indian Atomic Energy Commission was set up on_______.
(a) 10th Aug, 1958
(b) 10th Aug, 1948
(c) 10th Aug, 1968
(d) 19th Aug, 1858
Answer:
(b) 10th Aug, 1948

Question 2.
In 1956, the Department of Atomic Energy set up _______, a nuclear reactor functioning on atomic energy.
(a) Syrus
(b) Zarlina
(c) Poornima
(d) Apsara
Answer:
(d) Apsara

Question 3.
India successfully performed her first nuclear test at ______.
(a) Pokhran
(b) Jaipur
(c) Delhi
(d) Haryana
Answer:
(a) Pokhran

Question 4.
Prime Minister _________ assured that there would be no first use of nuclear weapons by India.
(a) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) VP Singh
Answer:
(b) Atal Bihari Vajpayee

Question 5.
The first digit of the pincode indicates the ______.
(a) State
(b) Region
(c) Nation
(d) District
Answer:
(b) Region

Question 6.
Agni had a range of ________ km.
(a) 800
(b) 600
(c) 700
(d) 500
Answer:
(c) 700

Question 7.
In 1981, ‘Bhaskar-2’ was launched from _______ .
(a) Soviet Union
(b) Japan
(c) China
(d) America
Answer:
(a) Soviet Union

Question 8.
_____a surface to surface ballistic missile was given to the Army.
(a) Prithvi -1
(b) Prithvi – 2
(c) Prithvi – 3
(d) Agni
Answer:
(a) Prithvi -1

Question 9.
APPLE’ was beneficial in the field of _______.
(a) Military
(b) Education
(c) Health
(d) Technology
Answer:
(b) Education

Question 10.
In _________ the telecommunication department was restructured.
(a) 1991
(b) 2000
(c) 2002
(d) 1880
Answer:
(b) 2000

Question 11.
Konkan railway started in the year _______.
(a) 1888
(b) 1988
(c) 1998
(d) 1994
Answer:
(c) 1998

Question 12.
On,________ the mobile phone service started in India.
(a) 23rd Aug, 1994
(b) 22nd Aug, 1994
(c) 24th Aug, 1994
(d) 21st Aug, 1994
Answer:
(b) 22nd Aug, 1994

Question 13.
In 1970, a domestic satellite communication earth centre was established at Aarvi near _______, equipped for international telecommunication service.
(a) Mumbai
(b) Pune
(c) Nagpur
(d) Nashik
Answer:
(b) Pune

Identify and write the wrong pair from the following sets:

Question 1.
(1) Dr. Homi Sethna – Chairman of DRDO
(2) Dr. Raja Ramanna – Director of BARC
(3) Sam Pitroda – Spearheaded telecommunication
(4) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam – Conceived and Carried out IGMDP
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Dr. Homi Sethna – Chairman of DRDO

Question 2.
(1) First diesel engine – Diesel Locomotive Works at Varanasi
(2) India’s tallest bridge – at Karbude
(3) Completely Indian made nuclear reactor – Dhruva at Trombay
(4) India’s first research rocket – Thumba Equatorial Launch Centre at Kerala.
Answer:
Wrong Pair : India’s tallest bridge – at Karbude

Question 3.
(1) Indigenously built rocket – Rohini 75
(2) First Indian Satellite – Aryabhatta
(3) Headquarters of ISRO – Sriharikota
(4) Reactor research Centre – Kalpakkam
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Headquarters of ISRO – Sriharikota

Question 4.
(1) NPCIL – setup in 1987
(2) Bhaskar – 2 – launched in 1981
(3) ONGC – established in 1998
(4) Tarapur power station – Setup in 1969
Answer:
Wrong Pair : ONGC – established in 1998

Question 5.
(1) Post and Telegraph Department started the 6 digit pincode system – 15th August 1972
(2) Indian Atomic Energy Commission was setup – 10th August 1948
(3) Indian Space Research Organisation was established – 15th August 1959
(4) First Nuclear test at Pokhran – 18th May 1974
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Indian Space Research Organisation was established – 15th August 1959

Question 6.
(1) Domestic Satellite Communication Earth Centre – Jodhpur Tekra
(2) Space station to launch satellites – Sriharikota
(3) Mineral Oil Deposit – Digboi in Assam
(4) Factories manufacturing Heavy Water – Chittaranjan in Bardwan
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Factories manufacturing Heavy Water – Chittaranjan in Bardwan

Question 7.
(1) Satellite built by ISRO – APPLE
(2) Satellite to connect super speciality hospitals – INSAT
(3) Remote sensing experimental satellite – Bhaskar -1
(4) First Indian Satellite – Rohini – 75
Answer:
Wrong Pair : First Indian Satellite – Rohini – 75

Question 8.
(1) INSAT, 1-B was launched – August 1983
(2) APPLE was launched – June 1981
(3) Mobile services started – August 1994
(4) Second Nuclear test – June 1998
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Second Nuclear test – June 1998

Question 9.
(1) Telex services started in Devanagari Script -1969
(2) India successfully tested missile Agni -1989
(3) Computerised reservation started in Delhi -1986
(4) Satellite Communication Centre established at Aarvi, Pune -1970
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Computerised reservation started in Delhi -1986

Write short notes:

Question 1.
Pincode
Answer:
(i) From 15 August 1972, the Post and Telegraph Department started the six digit pincode system in the country.
(ii) The Postal Index Code was intended to bring efficiency in distributing the mail. In this system, the country was divided into nine regions.
(iii) The first digit of the Pincode indicates the region, the second digit indicates the Sub¬region, the third digit shows the main disbursement district, while the remaining three digits show the location of the local post office.
(iv) For Maharashtra, 40, 41, 42, 43, 44 are the first two digits. In 1986, the speed post service was started to send postage rapidly.

Question 2.
Akash and Nag missiles
Answer:
(i) In 1990, the missile Akash was developed to fire from land into air.
(ii) This missile has a capacity to carry 720 kilogram explosives at supersonic speed and a range of 30 kilometres.
(iii) The missile ‘Nag’ was made in order to destroy the tanks of the enemy.
(iv) It is of the ‘fire and forget’ type. India has militarily become secure due to the production of missiles.

Question 3.
Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL)
Answer:
(i) In 2000, the telecommunication department was restructured.
(ii) The responsibility to make policy decisions was retained with the Telecom Department.
(iii) Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited was established to actually provide the services to consumers.
(iv) Along with the telephone service, cellular phone, internet, broadband services were also made available.

Question 4.
Dhruva Nuclear Reactor
Answer:
(i) In 1985, a completely Indian made nuclear reactor called Dhruva was started at Trombay near Mumbai.
(ii) The Dhruva nuclear reactor uses uranium as fuel.
(iii) At this center, 350 radioactive substances are produced. They are used in industry, agriculture and medicine.

Question 5.
Nuclear Power Corporation of India Ltd. (NPCIL)
Answer:
(i) This Company was set up in 1987 to generate electricity from atomic energy.

(ii) The objective of the company is to master and develop the technology to generate safe, cheap and environmentally profitable power and make the country self-sufficient.

Question 6.
DRDO was established.
Answer:
(i) In 1958, Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) was established under the Department of Defence of the Government of India.

(ii) The objective of this organisation was to make India self-sufficient with respect to means, equipment and weapons required for defence.

(iii) After 1983, this organisation developed several missiles under the leadership of Dr A.P.J. Abdul Kalam. Dr Kalam has made a great contribution in the production of missiles.

(iv) Dr Kalam is known as the Father of India’s Missile Programme. He is also referred to as the ‘Missile Man’ of India.

Read the passage and answer the questions:

Passage I

Space research: In 1961, Indian National Committee for Space Research (NCSR) launched India’s first , research rocket from Thumba Equatorial Launch Center in Thumba in the State of Kerala. In 1969, our indigenously built rocket Rohini-75 was successfully launched. The next stage was the successful launch , of the first Indian satellite Aryabhatta in 1975 with ‘ help from the Soviet Union. This success proved that Indian scientists can indigenously build and launch satellite. Indian scientists were confident that they , could acquire the technology for sending a message from the Earth Station and to assess the working of the satellite.
Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) : After , the success of the basic programme in space research and rocket related project, Indian Space Research Organisation was established on 15th August 1969 in order to carry out further space research. ‘ The headquarters of ISRO are at Bengaluru. ISRO activated the space station at Sriharikota in Andhra Pradesh for launching our satellites in space.

Bhaskar-1: India launched remote sensing ,experimental satellite Bhaskar-1 from the Soviet Union in 1979 in order to observe various things on the surface of the earth by remote sensing technology, This remote sensing technology would be useful for India’s development by regarding water bodies, mineral deposits and forecasting weather. The photographs taken with the help of this technology about the bowels of the earth, environment and forests were important. Another area in which the information from this satellite was useful was oceanography. In 1981, ‘Bhaskar-2’ was launched from Soviet Union.

Question 1.
What does the passage deal with?
Answer:
The passage deals with India’s success in space research.

Question 2.
Complete the following
Answer:

Question 3.
State the benefits of remote sensing technology.
Answer:
Following are the benefits of Remote Sensing Technology:

• Useful for India’s development by regarding water bodies mineral deposits and forecasting weather.
• Important information can be gathered about bowels of earth, environment and forests through the photograph.
• Useful information about Oceanography can be assessed.

Passage II

Oil and Natural Gas Commission (ONGC) : In 1956, the Oil and Natural Gas Commission was established to search for the deposits of mineral oil and natural gas and to increase their production. After Digboi in Assam, mineral oil deposits were found in Ankleshwar , area in Gujarat. Later, mineral oil and natural gas deposits were found in the gulf of Khambhat in Gujarat. In 1974, the Oil and Natural Gas Commission , started digging an oil well in ‘Bombay High’ area , with the help of Russian scientists by a drillship called ‘Sagar Samrat’. From 1975, mineral oil and natural gas began to be extracted from there. Later, more than 8500 oil wells and 33 natural gas wells dug eventually in this area began to contribute , 38% of the total mineral oil production in the country and met 14% of the country’s demand for crude oil.

Railways and Technology : The technology adopted by railways has a big role in the history of modem India. In order to bring efficiency, accuracy and coordination in the reservation system in rail travel, computerised reservation system was started for the first time in Delhi in 1984. In the same year, the Metro was started in Kolkata. In this way India has been making progress in the fields of science and technology. New inventions have been made. India is an important 21st century nation, which has always used technology for establishing peace in the world. India is making all these advancements in order to be the foremost among nations in the 21st century. In the next chapter, we shall learn about the progress India , has made in the fields of commerce and trade.

Question 1.
State the odd man out – and state the reason Digboi, Kohima, Ankleshwar, Bombay High
Answer:
Kohima – Because the other three locations of Digboi, Ankleshwar and Bombay High have notable reserves of natural gas and mineral oil
deposits.

Question 2.
Complete the following – Konkan Railway chart:
Answer:

Established	1998
States Covered	Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka Kerala.
Longest Tunnel	6.5 km long tunnel at Karbude
Tallest Bridge	64 mt. tall bridge on River Panvel near Ratnagiri

Question 3.
Do you think we can rely on our mineral oil deposits for time to come? Justify your answer.
Answer:
Mineral Oil Deposits are fast depleting due to it’s indiscriminate consumption by industries. Such natural resources of energy should be spared through fuel conservation schemes and greater use of inexhaustible sources of energy such as – Tidal, Solar or Wind energy.
Since mineral oil deposits are not renewable source of energy, it is advisable not to rely on it for time to come or we may face energy crisis.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
Write a note on the Indian Atomic Energy Commission.
Answer:
(i) In India’s first Prime Minister Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru wanted to nurture a scientific temper and bring about the nation’s progress. From this perspective, he set up the Indian Atomic Energy Commission on 10th August 1948. Dr. Homi Bhabha was appointed as the first Chairman of the Commission. The objectives of the commission were to produce electricity from atomic energy, increase the yield of food grains and make them last longer, set up the technology for achieving this and develop nanotechnology. In 1956, the Department of Atomic Energy set up ‘Apsara’, a nuclear reactor functioning on atomic energy.

(ii) In 1969, an atomic power station was set up at Tarapur. A Reactor Research Centre was set up at Kalpakkam in Tamil Nadu to successfully use Thorium for generating atomic power. The role of reactors is important in developing atomic power.

(iii) Factories manufacturing the heavy water needed for the generation of atomic power were set up at Vadodara, Talcher, Tutikorin, Kota, etc. An institution called Heavy Water Projects was set up to carry out research on manufacturing heavy water within the country. It was later renamed ‘Heavy Water Board’.

Question 2.
Write about ISD.
Answer:
(i) In 1972, Overseas Communication Service was established in Mumbai for the Management of International Telecommunication Service.

(ii) In 1976, the International Subscriber Dialled Telephone Service started to connect Mumbai and London directly on the phone.

(iii) Alongside the telephone service, services like telex, teleprinter and radio images started. In 1986, Videsh Sanchar Nigam Limited (VSNL) took a big leap in this field. Before that, Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Limited (MTNL) was a public sector company for giving telephone service in big cities.

(iv) In the 1990s, Videsh Sanchar Nigam Limited held the distinction of being the main internet service provider in India. The contribution of Sam Pitroda in this field is significant.

Question 3.
Write about Oil and Natural Gas Commission.
Answer:
(i) In 1956, the Oil and Natural Gas Commission was established to search for the deposits of mineral oil and natural gas and to increase their production.

(ii) After Digboi in Assam, mineral oil deposits were found in Ankleshwar area in Gujarat. Later, mineral oil and natural gas deposits were found in the gulf of Khambhat in Gujarat.

(iii) In 1974, the Oil and Natural Gas Commission started digging an oil well in ‘Bombay High’ area with the help of Russian scientists by a drillship called ‘Sagar Samrat’.

(iv) From 1975, mineral oil and natural gas began to be extracted from there.

(v) Later, more than 8500 oil wells and 33 natural gas wells dug eventually in this area began to contribute 38% of the total mineral oil production in the country and met 14% of the country’s demand for crude oil.

Observe the picture and write relevant information:

Question 1.

Answer:
Bhaskar 1 was a remote sensing experimental satellite launched by India.
Remote Sensing Technology would be useful for India’s development by regarding water bodies, mineral deposite and forecasting weather.
The photographs taken with the help of this technology about the bowels of the earth environment and forest were important. Bhaskar -1 was launched in 1979 and Bhaskar 2 was launched in 1981 from Soviet Union.

Question 2.

Answer:
Indian Atomic Energy Commission:
India’s first Prime Minister Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru wanted to nurture a scientific temper and bring about the nation’s progress. From this persepective, he set up the Indian Atomic Energy Commission on 10th August 1948. Dr. Homi Bhabha was appointed as the first Chairman of the Commission. The objectives of the Commission were to produce electricity from atomic energy, increase the yield of food grains and make them last longer, set up the technology for achieving this and develop nanotechnology.

Question 3.

Answer:
In 1958, Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) was established under the Department of Defence of the government of India. The objective of this organisation was to make India self-sufficient with respect to means, equipment and weapons required for defence. After 1983, this organisation developed several missiles under the leadership of Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam. Dr. Kalam has made a great contribution in the production of missiles. Dr. Kalam is known as the ‘Father of India’s missile programme’. He is also referred to as the ‘Missile Man’ of India.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 6 Empowerment of Women and Other Weaker Sections Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 6 Empowerment of Women and Other Weaker Sections

Class 9 History Chapter 6 Empowerment of Women and Other Weaker Sections Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Complete the statements by choosing the proper option:

Question 1.
In 1992, a movement against drinking alcohol was started in _________.
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Gujarat
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Uttarakhand
Answer:
(c) Andhra Pradesh

Question 2.
In 1975, the government of India formed the Committee on the status of women under chairmanship of ______.
(a) Dr Phulrenu Guha
(b) Uma Bharati
(c) Vasundhara Raje
(d) Pramila Dandavate
Answer:
(a) Dr Phulrenu Guha

2.B Identify the wrong pair and rewrite the corrected one:

Question 1.
(i) Saudamini Rao – Stree-Mukti Andolan Samiti
(ii) Vidya Bal – Nari Samata Manch
(iii) Pramila Dandavate – Mahila Dakshata Samiti
(iv) Jyoti Mhapsekar – Committee on the Status of Women
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Jyoti Mhapsekar – Committee on the Status of Women

3. Make a concept chart:

Question 1.
Laws related to women:
Answer:

4. Explain the concepts:

Question 1.
Alimony
Answer:
(i) A fixed amount paid to a married woman for her upkeep by the husband who has divorced her, is called alimony.
(ii) The law enacted in 1952, recognizes women’s right to alimony and their share in the father’s property. Her right to Sreedharan was recognized.

Question 2.
Minority
Answer:
(i) In any society, a group of people of a particular religion, language or race who are few in number are termed as a minority.
(ii) As there are various religions, sects, and languages in our country, we see great cultural diversity. There is variation in cultural traditions, too.

5. Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
The evolution of the women’s liberation movement.
Answer:
(i) The United Nations had declared 1975 as the International Women’s Year.

(ii) In 1975, the government of India constituted the Committee on the Status of Women and appointed Dr Phulrenu Guha as its Chairman.

(iii) A comprehensive survey was conducted on several issues such as the social position of women, their status, the consequences of the constitutional provisions made for women as also education of women and its percentage, their progress due to education, difficulties faced by working women, the position of women with respect to work /livelihood, their wages , the female-male ratio, birth and mortality rate and the role of women.

(iv) Taking into consideration this entire background, a State-wide conference for women was held in 1975 organised by the Stree-mukti Sangharsha Samiti. Women from all walks of life / regions participated in it.

(v) The Samiti published its manifesto in 1978. The policy of a struggle against discrimination on the basis of gender, caste and vama was adopted.

(vi) In 1977, groups like the Streemukti Andolan Samiti established by Soudamini Rao in Pune, Bayaja a fortnightly, as also Stree Uvach, Maitrin and Stree Anyayavirodhi Manch in Aurangabad, Mahila Dakshata Samiti in Kolhapur, Mahila Hakka in Nashik and Nari Prabodhan Manch in Latur were formed.

(vii) Anti-dowry protection committees were formed all over Maharashtra. A conference to protest against oppression of women was organised in Dhule city.

Question 2.
The Prohibition of Dowry (Amendment) Act was enacted in 1984.
Answer:
(i) Even after the enactment of the anti-dowry law, incidents like ‘Woman bums to death as sari pallu catches fire while cooking’ and ‘Woman slips into well while washing clothes, drowns and dies’ continued to be reported.
(ii) Investigations still revealed dowry to be the most frequent cause of such deaths.
(iii) The role of the police, the administration and judiciary were highlighted. This created greater awareness.
(iv) As a result, the Dowry Prohibition (Amendment) Act came into force in 1984.

Question 3.
The practice of untouchability was banned by law.
Answer:
(i) In the post-independence period, our Constitution adopted the values of freedom, equality, fraternity and social justice.
(ii) In accordance with this, the practice of untouchability was banned by law.
(iii) Untouchability was removed by the 17th paragraph of the Constitution and this class was included in the Scheduled Castes.

Question 4.
The Constitution gives cultural and educational rights to minorities.
Answer:
(i) In any society, a group of people of a particular religion, language or race who are few in number are termed a minority.

(ii) As there are various religions, sects and languages in our country, we see great cultural diversity. There is variation in cultural traditions, too.

(iii) In order to preserve their cultural traditions and develop their own language, the Constitution gives the citizens certain educational and cultural rights.

(iv) Minorities have the right to protect and conserve their language, culture and traditions.

(v) For this purpose they have the right to set up separate educational institutions.

6. Answer the following questions in 25 to 30 words:

Question 1.
Describe the Chipko movement.
Answer:
(i) The show of constructive woman power was seen during the Chipko movement in 1973.
(ii) Trees from the forests in the foothills of the Himalayas were to be cut down for commercial purposes.
(iii) Chandiprasad Bhat and Sunderlal Bahuguna had started a movement to prevent this.
(iv) Women followed the strategy of holding hands and encircling each tree.
(v) As their method consisted of protecting the tree by embracing it, the movement came to be known as the Chipko movement.
(vi) Women took part in it in large numbers. Women had a big role to play in the agricultural economy of this region.
(vii) Gaura Devi was the activist who created this awareness among the women with the help of Sudesha Devi and Bachani Devi.

Question 2.
Write a note on the Protection of Human Rights Act.
Answer:
(i) In 1993, the Protection of Human Rights Act law was enacted to prevent injustice to men and women.
(ii) The National Human Rights Commission was also formed for this purpose.
(iii) In some States, the State Human Rights Commission was also formed on the same lines.
(iv) This law which deals with collective oppression, the social conditions of divorced women, women and secure work places, played an effective role in mitigating injustices to women.

7. Answer the following question in detail:

Question 1.
Explain with examples how the united strength of women can bring about constructive changes in various fields.
Answer:
(i) Women, who have to face the brunt of scarcity of supplies and rising prices, gave a show of their strength as an organised entity in 1972.

(ii) Under the leadership of the socialist leader Mrinal Gore, women in Mumbai participated in a demonstration which came to be known as the laatne morcha (the rolling pin demonstration).

(iii) Commodities like oil, ghee, rava, maida, would become scarce just as Diwali was near at hand. Kerosene had become very expensive.

(iv) Women came together brandishing their rolling pins and took part in the demonstration.

(v) This movement met with success and the public got a glimpse of the united power of women.

(vi) Another show of constructive woman power was seen during the Chipko movement in 1973. Gaura Devi was the activist who created awareness among the women with the help of Sudesha Devi and Bachani Devi.

(vii) In 1992, three youths of Dubuganta village of Nellore district in Andhra Pradesh drowned in a lake, in a state of inebriation, and died.

(viii) At this instance, the women of the village came together and forced the closure of arrack shops.

(ix) The movement spread to the entire State and the government had to adopt a strict policy against the sale of alcohol.

(x) On 4th September 1987, Roop Kanwar, a married woman, committed sati. She did not do this of her own free will; she was coerced into doing so. Committing sati, glorifying the practice of sati were all illegal acts.

(xi) The women activists and journalists, Meena Menon, Geeta Seshu, Sujata Anandan, Anu Joseph and Kalpana Sharma investigated the case. In 1998, the government passed the Sati (Prevention) Act with very stringent provisions.

Class 9 History Chapter 6 Empowerment of Women and Other Weaker Sections Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
Under the leadership of the socialist leader ______ women in Mumbai participated in a demonstration which came to be known as the Laatne Morcha.
(a) GauraDevi
(b) Dr Phulrenu Guha
(c) Meena Menon
(d) Mrinal Gore
Answer:
(d) Mrinal Gore

Question 2.
Vinoba Bhave made use of women power in the _____.
(a) Bhoodan Movement
(b) Chipko Movement
(c) Laatne Morcha
(d) Anti-liquor movement
Answer:
(a) Bhoodan Movement

Question 3.
Women activists associated with the Chipko movement ________.
(a) Sucheta Kripalani, Nandini Satpathy and Jayalalitha
(b) Dr Phulrenu Guha, Uma Bharati and Vasundhara Raje
(c) Gaura Devi, Sudesha Devi and Bachani Devi
(d) Dr Phulrenu Guha, Meena Menon and Mrinal Gore
Answer:
(c) Gaura Devi, Sudesha Devi and Bachani Devi

Question 4.
The Chipko movement was started by ______.
(a) Chandiprasad Bhat and Sunderlal Bahuguna
(b) Sudesha Devi and Bachani Devi
(c) Vinoba Bhave and Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Meena Menon and Mrinal Gore
Answer:
(a) Chandiprasad Bhat and Sunderlal Bahuguna

Question 5.
The United Nations had declared as _____ the International Women’s Year.
(a) 1992
(b) 2000
(c) 1975
(d) 1988
Answer:
(c) 1975

Question 6.
A collection of songs called Streemuktichi Lalkari, a street play called Mulgi Jhaali Ho are written by ______.
(a) Vidya Bal
(b) Pramila Dandavate
(c) Sujata Anandan
(d) Jyoti Mhapsekar
Answer:
(d) Jyoti Mhapsekar

Question 7.
A State-wide conference for women was held in 1975 organised by the _______.
(a) Samajwadi Mahila Sabha.
(b) Stree-mukti Sangharsha Samiti.
(c) Nari Prabodhan Manch.
(d) Stree Anyayavirodhi Manch.
Answer:
(b) Stree-mukti Sangharsha Samiti.

Question 8.
Census is conducted in India every _______.
(a) 5 years
(b) 10 years
(c) 15 years
(d) 20 years
Answer:
(b) 10 years

Identify and write the wrong pair in the following sets:

Question 1.
(i) Vinoba Bhave – Bhoodan Movement
(ii) Chandiprasad Bhat and Sunderlal Bahuguna – Chipko movement
(iii) Dr Phulrenu Guha – Laatne Morcha
(iv) Shah Bano Begum – Right to alimony
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Dr Phulrenu Guha – Laatne Morcha

Question 2.
(i) Stree Anyayavirodhi Manch – Aurangabad
(ii) Mahila Dakshata Samiti – Pune
(iii) Mahila Hakka – Nashik
(iv) Nari Prabodhan Manch – Latur
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Mahila Dakshata Samiti – Pune

Question 3.
(i) Stree-mukti Andolan Samiti – Soudamini Rao
(ii) Mahila Dakshata Samiti – Phulrenu Guha
(iii) Milun Saryajani – Vidya Bal
(iv) Laatne Morcha – Mrinal Gore
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Mahila Dakshata Samiti – Phulrenu Guha

Question 4.
(i) Streemuktichi Lalkari – Collection of songs
(ii) Mulgi Jhaali Ho – Periodical
(iii) Bayaja – fortmighty
(iv) Sitama Katha – Story
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Mulgi Jhaali Ho – Periodical

Do as directed
Make a concept chart:

Question 1.
Roop Kanwar Sati Case.
Answer:

Question 2.
List at least five Women Chief Ministers in India:
Answer:

• Sucheta Kriplani (Uttar Pradesh)
• Nandini Satpathy (Odisha)
• Jayalalitha (Tamil Nadu)
• Mayawati (Uttar Pradesh)
• Vasundhara Raje (Rajasthan)
• Mamata Banerjee (West Bengal)
• Rabdi Devi (Bihar)
• Anandiben Patel (Gujarat)
• Sheila Dixit (Delhi)
• Mehbooba Mufti Sayeed (Jammu & Kashmir)
• Uma Bharati (Madhya Pradesh)
• Rajendra Kaur Bhattal (Punjab)
• Sushma Swaraj (Delhi)
• Shashikala Kakodkar (Goa)
• Sayeeda Anwar Taimur (Assam)
• Janaki Ramachandran (Tamil Nadu), are all women who have led their States as Chief Ministers.

Complete the following chart:

Question 1.

Women	Contribution
Dr. Phulrenu Guha	………………….
………………	Streemukti Andolan Samiti
Vidya Bal	………………..
………………..	Mahila Dakshata Samiti

Answer:

Women	Contribution
Dr. Phulrenu Guha	Chairman Committee on Status for Women
Soudamini Rao	Streemukti Andolan Samiti
Vidya Bal	Nari Samata Manch
Pramila Dandavate	Mahila Dakshata Samiti

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
International Women’s Day
Answer:
(i) A demonstration was held in New York on 8 March 1857.

(ii) It was the first demonstration by working women and its demands were for fewer working hours, proper remuneration, provision of creches, etc.

(iii) On 8 March 1909 women went on strike for the very same demands. That is why, this day was declared as the Women’s Struggle Day at the Women’s Socialist International, a conference held in Denmark.

(iv) The year 1975 was observed as the International Women’s Year and in 1977, 8 March was declared as International Women’s Day by a resolution passed in the General Assembly of the United Nations.

(v) The three aspects of this programme were peace, development and equality between men and women.

Question 2.
Family Courts
Answer:
(i) Family courts were established to resolve conflicts arising out of differences within marriage and domestic problems as well as issues such as alimony, single parenthood, separation, care of children and ownership which are all related to the family situation.
(ii) These family courts give priority to mutual understanding over witnesses and evidence and to counsellors over lawyers.
(iii) Emphasis is on resolving issues quickly but justly.

Question 3.
Reservation for Women
Answer:
(i) The 73rd and 74th amendments to the Constitution provide for reservation of one-third of the seats for women in Gram Panchayats, Panchayat Samitis, Zilla Parishads, municipalities and municipal corporations as well as for the posts of Sarpanch, Chairman and Mayor.
(ii) Maharashtra and 15 other states have reserved 50% seats for women.
(iii) This provision provides women the opportunity to participate in the business of the community.

Question 4.
Scheduled Tribes
Answer:
(i) The Scheduled Tribes or Adivasis who live in remote parts of the country face several difficulties.

(ii) As they have lived far away from the progress made in modem times, they are economically and socially backward.

(iii) Even though their conditions have seen some improvement in recent times, they do not have any means of livelihood other than agriculture and forest produce.

(iv) Modem farming implements have not yet reached them. Hence, their income from agriculture is very small. Besides, their fields are on hillsides and not fertile.

(v) They are malnourished due to insufficient and poor quality of diet.

(vi) Adivasis in remote areas find it difficult to get medical attention in time. For all these reasons, there is a need to give special protection to Adivasis.

(vii) In the Indian Constitution, Adivasis have been enumerated as Scheduled Tribes. They are given representation in law boards, education, government service, etc.

Question 5.
8th March was declared as International Women’s Day.
Answer:
(i) A demonstration was held in New York on 8 March, 1857. It was the first demonstration by working women and its demands were for fewer working hours, proper remuneration, provision of creches, etc.

(ii) On 8 March 1909 women went on strike for the very same demands. That is why, this day was declared as the Women’s Struggle Day at the Women’s Socialist International, a conference held in Denmark.

(iii) The year 1975 was observed as the International Women’s Year and in 1977, 8 March was declared as International Women’s Day by a resolution passed in the General Assembly of the United Nations.

Question 6.
The ‘Muslim Women’s Act’ (Protection of rights on divorce) was passed by Parliament.
Answer:
(i) A fixed amount paid to a married woman for her upkeep by the husband who has divorced her, is called alimony.

(ii) In the case of Mohammad Ahmed Khan vs Shah Bano Begum, the Supreme Court gave the verdict that Shah Bano Begum had the right to alimony.

(iii) However, religious organisations protested vociferously against the verdict.

(iv) As a result, the ‘Muslim Women’s Act’ (Protection of rights on divorce) was passed by Parliament.

Question 7.
In 1998, the government passed the Sati (Prevention) Act with very stringent provisions.
Answer:
(i) On 4th September 1987, Roop Kanwar, a married woman, committed sati. She did not do this of her own free will; she was coerced into doing so.

(ii) Committing Sati, glorifying the practice of Sati were all illegal acts.

(iii) The women activists and journalists, Meena Menon, Geeta Seshu, Sujata Anandan, Anu Joseph and Kalpana Sharma investigated the case.

(iv) So in 1998, the government passed the Sati (Prevention) Act with very stringent provisions.

Read the passage and answer the questions:

Passage I

International Women’s year: The United Nations ! had declared 1975 as the International Women’s Year. The three aspects of this programme were peace, development and equality between men and women. In 1975, the government of India constituted the Committee on the Status of Women and appointed Dr Phulrenu Guha as its Chairman. A comprehensive survey was conducted of several issues such as the social position of women, their status, the consequences of the constitutional provisions made for Women as also education of women and its percentage, their progress due to education, difficulties faced by working women, the position of women with respect to work/livelihood, their wages (relative to men’s wages), the female-male ratio, birth and mortality rates and the role of women.
Taking into consideration this entire background, State-wide conference for women was held in 1975 organised by the stree-mukti Sangharsha Samiti. Women from all walks of life/regions participated in it. The Samiti published its manifesto in 1978. The Samiti published its manifesto discrimination on the basis of gender, caste and vama was adopted.
This gave rise to a collection of songs called Streemuktichi Lalkari, a street play called Mulgi Jhali Ho by Jyoti Mhapsekar and a periodical called Prerak Lalkari which became their mouthpiece and other such programmes. In 1977, groups like the Streemukti Andolan Samiti established by Soudamini Rao in Pune, Bayaja a fortnightly, as also Stree Uvach, Maitrin and Stree Anyayavirodhi Manch in Aurangabad, Mahila Dakshata Samiti in Kolhapur, Mahila Hakka in Nashik and Nari Prabodhan Manch in Latur were formed. Anti-dowry protection committees were formed all over Maharashtra. A conference to protest against oppression of women was organised in Dhule City.

Question 1.
Prepare a time line of the highlights mentioned in the passages.
Ans:
Timeline of the Highlights of the passage

• 1975 – UN declared International Women’s Day Committee on the Status of women was appointed.
• 1975 – Stree Mukti Sangharsha Samiti was organised.
• 1978 – Stree Mukti Sangharsha Samiti published a Manifesto
• 1977 – Stree Mukti Andolan Samiti was established by Soudamini Rao.

Question 2.
State the issues on which a survey was conducted by the committee on the status of women.
Ans:
The Committee on Status of Women appointed under the chairmanship of Dr. Phulrenu Guha made a comprehensive survey over several issues:

• Social position of women and their status.
• Consequences of the constitutional provision made for women.
• Education of women and it’s a percentage.
• Their progress due to education.
• Difficulties faced by working women with respect to work, livelihood, and wages.
• Female – male ratio.
• Birth and mortality rates.
• Role of women.

Question 3.
Name any two women who according to you managed to break the norms of the Indian Society and came up as icons of woman power.
Ans:
(i) Mrinal Gore
(ii) Gaura Devi

Passage II

Vidya Bal’s periodicals, Nari Samata Manch, and Milun Saryajani, as also the work ofthe Samajwadi Mahila Sabha and the Krantikari Mahila Sanghatana were of great help in dealling with women’s issues. The Employment Guarantee Scheme in Maharashtra also helped to empower women. Pramila Dandavate established the Mahila Dakshata Samiti in Delhi in 1976. Branches of the Samiti came up in the States of Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and Punjab. The Communist Party established the Akhil Bharatiya Janavadi Mahila Sanghatana in 1980. Efforts were made to start branches of this Organisation in all parts of India. The Sanghatana started a struggle against issues like dowry, female foeticide, domestic abuse, Research on women’s issues was undertaken at various levels. Women’s Studies Centres were started at the first women’s university, Mumbai and at Tata Institute of Social Sciences, Mumbai, Savitribai Phule Pune University and Shivaji University, Kolhapur. These Centres played an important role in critical analysis and in developing a vision on women’s issues.

Question 1.
State the role of Pramila Dandavate and Vidhya Bal in women’s upliftment.
Answer:
(i) Pramila Dandavate established Mahila Dakshata Samiti in Delhi in 1976.
(ii) Vidya Bal published periodicals like ’Nari Samata Manch’ and ‘Milun Saryajani’.

Question 2.
Where are the women’s study centers located in Maharashtra?
Answer:
Women study centers are located at:

• Shrimati Nathibai Damodar Thakersey Women’s University – Mumbai.
• Tata Institute of Social Sciences – Mumbai.
• Savitribai Phule University – Pune
• Shivaji University – Kolhapur.

Question 3.
Do you think International Beauty Pageants can help in creating awareness about women’s issues? why?
Answer:
Yes, International Beauty Pageants can help in creating global awareness on women’s issues world wide.
The participants in these events come from different cultures and backgrounds, they speak on many subjects affecting women which is covered by international media. Concerns pertaining to women’s political rights have been brought to the notice of the world through these pageants.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
Explain, in detail, the Anti-liquor movement.
Answer:
(i) In 1992, in Andhra Pradesh, a movement was started against the drinking of alcohol. It received a good response in other States too.

(ii) When the head of the household dies an untimely death due to addiction to alcohol, the family faces a serious crisis which affects women the most.

(iii) Due to alcoholism, they have to deal with extreme sorrow and poverty. This movement got the support of the anti-arrack movement in Andhra Pradesh.

(iv) As a result of a government policy, arrack (a locally produced alcohol) dealers set up shop in every town and village.The poor labouring people began to get addicted to alcohol.

(v) At the same time, a literacy programme was being run in the villages of the State. The Sitama Katha (Sita’s story) was narrated as a part of this programme.

(vi) It was a story about Sita who creates awareness among the people of a village and gets alcohol to be banned from the village.

(vii) In 1992, three youths of Dubuganta village of Nellore district in Andhra Pradesh drowned in a lake, in a state of inebriation, and died.

(viii) At this instance, the women of the village came together and forced the closure of arrack shops.

(ix) The report of this news in the local newspapers had its effect on many other villages.

(x) The movement spread to the entire State and the government had to adopt a strict policy against the sale of alcohol.

Question 2.
Explain the term ‘Nomadic’ and ‘De-notified’ Tribes.
Answer:
(i) Castes and tribes that move from place to place for a livelihood, are included under Nomadic Tribes.
(ii) They live by rearing animals and engaging in some other occupations.
(iii) The British had declared some of them as criminal tribes.
(iv) In the Law of 1871 to curb crimes, some of the main groups were mentioned as criminal tribes and their occupations and movements were banned.
(v) This unjust law was repealed in the post¬independence period.
(vi) And the curbs on these tribes were lifted. They were included under De-notified Tribes.
(vii) Special efforts are made by the government for the purpose of their social and economic development.
(viii) These tribes have been given representation in educational institutions and the government sector.

Question 3.
What do you mean by Scheduled Castes?
Answer:
(i) In the post-independence period, our Constitution adopted the values of freedom, equality, fraternity and social justice.
(ii) In accordance with this, the practice of untouchability was banned by law.
(iii) Untouchability was removed by the 17th paragraph of the Constitution and this class was included in the Scheduled Castes.
(iv) In view of the educational and social backwardness of these castes, they were given reservations in education as well as jobs to facilitate their development.

Question 4.
Write a note on the manifestation of woman power.
Answer:
(i) Women, who have to face the brunt of scarcity of supplies and rising prices, gave a show of their strength as an organised entity in 1972.
(ii) Under the leadership of the socialist leader Mrinal Gore, women in Mumbai participated in a demonstration which came to be known as the laatne morcha (the rolling pin demonstration).
(iii) Commodities like oil, ghee, rava, maida, would become scarce just as Diwali was near at hand. Kerosene would become very expensive.
(iv) Women came together brandishing their rolling pins and took part in the demonstration.
(v) This movement met with success and the public got a glimpse of the united power of women.

Observe the pictures and write relevant information about them:

Question 1.

Answer:
(i) A show of constructive women power was seen during the Chipko Movement in 1973. The trees from the forests in the foothills of Himalayas were to be cut down for commercial purposes.
(ii) The important leaders of the Chipko Movement were: Chandiprasad Bhat, Sunderlal Bahuguna, Gaura Devi, Sudesha Devi and Bachani Devi.

Question 2.

Answer:
(i) In 1992, in Andhra Pradesh a movement was started against the drinking of alcohol.
(ii) In 1992, three youths of Dubuganta village of Nellore district in Andhra Pradesh drowned in lake, in a state of inebriation and died. At this instance, the women of the village came together and forced the closure of arrack shops.
(iii) Arrack is a locally produced alcohol. As a result of a government policy arrack dealers set up shop in every town and village.

Question 3.

Answer:
(i) In 1998, the govt passed the Sati (Prevention) Act with very stringent provisions.
(ii) On 4th Sept. 1987, Roop Kanwar a married woman, committed sati. She did not do this of her own free will, she was coerced into doing so.
The women activists and journalists, Meena Menon, Geeta Seshu, Sujata Anandan, Anu Joseph and Kalpana Sharma investigated the case.

Question 4.

Answer:
(i) The Dowry Prohibition Act of 1961 made both giving and taking of dowry a cognizable criminal offence.
(ii) Even after the enactment of the anti-dowry law investigations still revealed dowry to be the most frequent cause of deaths. This created greater awareness. Thus, Dowry Prohibition (Amendment) Act came into force in 1984.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Precipitation Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Precipitation

Class 9 Geography Chapter 5 Precipitation Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Identify the precipitation type with the help of the description given:

(a) It is the main source of the water that you use. Sometimes it is torrential and sometimes continuous. Most of the agriculture in India is dependent on it.
(b) It seems as if water droplets are floating in the atmosphere. In London, one cannot see the Sun till the afternoon during winters because of this phenomenon.
(c) It never precipitates like this in equatorial areas. Precipitation in the solid form sometimes causes damage to the crops.
(d) A white cotton-like layer spreads on the earth’s surface. Because of this form of precipitation, the State of Jammu and Kashmir has to change its capital in winters. In Maharashtra, it does not precipitate like this.
Answer:
(a) rainfall
(b) fog
(c) hail
(d) snow

2. Look at the following pictures and identify the correct rainfall type.

Answer:
Convectional rainfall

Answer:
Orographic rainfall

Answer:
Cyclonic rainfall

3. Look at the figures above and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
In fig B, on which side of the mountain is it raining more?
Answer:
The windward side is receiving more rainfall.

Question 2.
Shade the rain shadow region in fig B and name it.
Answer:
Students to show the leeward side in the picture.

Question 3.
What is the difference between A and C?
Answer:
In figure 5.4 i.e. convectional rainfall the hot air rises upwards and then the air cools and begins to condense and due to continuous condensation rainfall occurs. Here rainfall is accompanied by lightning and thunder.

In figure 5.6 , i.e. cyclonic rainfall, air from surrounding regions comes towards the centre of the cyclone and starts moving upwards. As it rises, the temperature of the air reduces, condensation occurs and rainfall takes place.

Question 4.
Stormy winds and floods are associated with which rainfall type?
Answer:
Stormy winds and floods are associated with Cyclonic rainfall.

Question 5.
What type of rainfall occurs in Singapore?
Answer:
Cyclonic rainfall occurs in Singapore.

4. Identify the odd man out:

Question 1.
Orographic rainfall, acid rain, cyclonic rainfall, convectional rainfall
Answer:
Acid rain

Question 2.
Snowfall, rainfall, hailstones, dew
Answer:
Dew

Question 3.
Thermometer, rain gauge, anemometer, measuring jar
Answer:
Measuring jar

5. Answer in brief:

Question 1.
In what ways does precipitation occur on the earth?
Answer:
Precipitation means water falls in the solid or liquid state from the clouds to the earth surface. Snow, hailstorms, rainfall are the major forms of precipitation.

(i) Snow:
Answer:

• When the temperature in the atmosphere falls below the freezing point the water vapour directly turns into snowflakes. This is called sublimation.
• Hence the vapour in the form of gas transform into solid snow. Precipitation in the form of solid particles is known as snowfall.
• As snow is in the solid form. It does not run like water and layers of the snow get deposited on the top of the others and when the snow melts the region gets fresh water.

(ii) Hail:

• When there is lot of heat on the earth’s surface, the upward air flow blows at a greater speed. Because of this upward flow, the temperature of air reduces and the condensation of the water vapour takes place, and dark clouds are formed.
• Because of the upward movement of the air, these water droplets go at higher altitude and solidify forming hailstones.
• As the hailstones are heavy, they fall toward the earth’s surface because of gravity. The crops may get destroyed and loss of life and property may occur.
• Hailstones occurs in summer in India, Africa and in some parts of south east Asia.

(iii) Rainfall:

• We get water generally in the form of rainfall. The temperature of the air with water vapour reduces when it goes higher and condensation of the vapour occurs.
• Clouds formed with the condensed water droplets and dust particles accumulate.
• As these water droplets increase in the size, they cannot float in the air anymore because of their weight. They come down as rainfall
• The different types of rainfall are: Convectional rainfall, Orographic rainfall and Cyclonic rainfall.

(iv) Fog, dew and frost:

• When the condensation or solidification of the water vapour in the atmosphere occurs near the earth’s surface, it leads to the formation of fog, dew and frost.

Question 2.
Comment on the rainfall occurring in the rain shadow area.
Answer:

• The winds coming from lakes or seas are moisture-laden and they are obstructed by the high mountain ranges coming in their way
• They start going upwards along the slope of the moutains. The temperature of these winds drop and condensation occurs and rainfall takes place.
• This rainfall takes place because of the obstruction of the mountains which results in the condensation of water vapour.
• The windward side of the mountain gets more rain; the amount of vapour in the air reduces after crossing the mountain and the moisture-holding capacity of the air increases.
• The leeward side of the mountain gets lesser rainfall as compared to windward side.
• Thus, the leeward side area is identified as rain shadow area as it recieves meagre rainfall.

Question 3.
Which type of rainfall occurs in most of the world? Why?
Answer:

• Orographic rainfall occurs in most parts of the world.
• Convectional rainfall is regional in nature.
• There is a certainty in the convectional rainfall occurring in the equatorial areas.
• Comparatively, the orographic and cyclonic rainfall is less certain.
• And therefore, such areas are prone to very heavy rainfall, floods or droughts frequently.

Question 4.
If condensation occurs closer to the earth’s surface, what types of forms become visible?
Answer:
If condensation and solidification of the water vapour in the atmosphere closer to the earth surface are visible, they are in the form of fog, dew or frost.

(i) Fog:

• The temperature of the layers of the air near the surface of the earth reduces. As the temperature reduces, water vapour condenses.
• In this process the water vapour turns into microscopic water particles and float in the air.
• When the density of these droplets in the air increases it leads to the formation of fog

(ii) Dew:

• When moisture-laden air near the earth surface comes in contact with very cold objects condensation of water vapour takes place.
• They turn into very small water droplets and stick to the surface of cold objects, e.g. eg: leaves and this is called dew.

(iii) Frost:

• When the temperature of the air reaches less then 0 degree Celcius the water droplet stuck to the surface of the cold objects and freezes.
• This frozen water droplet is called as frost.

Question 5.
What precautions should be taken while measuring rainfall?
Answer:

• Rainfall is an important source of water on planet earth and rainfall is formed because of changes in the temperature of the air with water vapour.
• The instrument that is used to measure rainfall is called rain gauge.
• The funnel i.e. used for measuring rain has a specific diameter and the rain falling in this funnel is collected in bottle fitted in the gauge.
• The collected water is then measured with the help of measuring jar. In the areas of heavy rainfall, the reading of the rain with rain gauge should be taken every three hours. The measuring jar reads rain in millimetres
• The gauge has to be kept on open ground on 30cm high flat-mount.
• So that the rain water is collected without any obstruction.

6. Distinguish between

Question 1.
Dew and frost
Answer:

	Dew		Frost
(i)	When moisture-laden air near the earth’s surface comes into contact with very cold objects, condensation of vapour takes place into small water droplets called dew.	(i)	If the temperature of the air is less then CPC, the water droplets stuck to the surface of cold objects, freezes forming frost.
(ii)	Water vapour condenses and forms droplets of water.	(ii)	Water droplets stuck to cold surface turns to frozen water droplets.
(iii)	Dew sticks to the cold object but does not freeze.	(iii)	It sticks to the cold object and freeze.

Question 2.
Snow and hail
Answer:

	Snow		Hail
(i)	Precipitation in the form of solid particles of snow is known as snow fall.	(i)	Precipitation in the form of frozen water droplets falling rapidly to the ground is know as hail.
(ii)	The fall of temperature in the atmosphere below the freezing point causes snow fall	(ii)	Extreme heat on the surface of the earth initiates the process of hail formation.
(iii)	Heavy accumulation of snow can collapse the transportation and communication system of the area.	(iii)	It destroys crops and causes loss of life an

Class 9 Geography Chapter 5 Precipitation Intext Questions and Answers

Can you tell?

Question 1.
The blade of grass look like this in winter mornings. From where does the water on the blades of grass come?

Answer:

1. The blade of grass looks like this in winter mornings because of dew. These are small water droplets.
2. The dew is formed in winter because moisture-laden air near the earth surface comes in contact with cold objects due to which condensation of vapour takes place, turning into small water droplets.

Question 2.
Snow is found everywhere in the winters in Kashmir.
Answer:
Snow is found everywhere in winters of Kashmir because Kashmir is located at a higher altitude where the temperature falls below freezing point. Hence water vapour directly turn into snowflakes leading to snowfall.

Question 3.
Why isn’t snow found in our surroundings?
Answer:
Because we have a moderate temperature and we are closer to the sea, snow is not found in our surroundings.

Question 4.
Generally, it rains between June and September in our region.
Answer:
We get rainfall between June and September, in our region when the moisture-laden south-west monsoon winds are obstructed by the Western Ghats leading to orographic rainfall.

Question 5.
How do the rain droplets form?
Answer:
Clouds form when condensed water droplets and dust particles accumulate forming large rain droplets.

Question 6.
In London, there is a fog like this till the afternoon in the winters.
Answer:
In London there is fog till the afternoon in winters because London is far away from equator and it has temperate oceanic climate and they have cool summers.

Question 7.
We do not have fog until afternoons in summers.
Answer:
We do not have fog until afternoons in summer because we are near to equator and we have tropical climate and hot summers.

Question 8.
Sometimes hailstones destroy the standing crops in the field.
Answer:
Hailstones are solid and heavy in nature and they hit the earth due to gravity and this is the reason they destroy the crops in the field.

Question 9.
Why don’t we get hailstones frequently?
Answer:
For the formation of hailstones the following 2 conditions are required:

• Intense heating which results in upwards air flow.
• The decrease in air temperature at higher layers of the atmosphere.
• As India is a tropical country, we do not find cooler air at higher levels because of the intense heating of land.

Think about it.

Question 1.
We use a raincoat or umbrella to protect ourselves from rainfall. What will you use to protect yourself from severe hailstorms?
Answer:
If a person is outside without any coverage, he needs to seek shelter immediately, making sure to protect his head from hailstones.

Question 2.
Because of the conventional processes, convectional rainfall occurs in the afternoon in equational areas. But why doesn’t it rain in afternoons in the oceanic areas of the equatorial belt?
Answer:
One of the necessary conditions of convectional rainfall is intense heating of surface which causes air to expand and rise. Since land heats up faster than water, it rains only on the land in the equatorial regions and not in the oceanic areas.

Question 3.
Why are the areas of high rainfall situated in tropical areas?
Answer:

• Tropical areas receive direct rays of the Sun almost throughout the year. Hence the rate of evaporation1 is high here.
• The tropical region receives convectional rainfall throughout the year and also orographic rainfall is experienced here.
• Thus areas of high rainfall are situated in the tropical area.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 5 Precipitation Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the statements choosing the correct option from the bracket:

Question 1.
……………. part of the earth’s surface is full of water.
(a) 30.7%
(b) 4.09%
(c) 60.5%
(d) 70.8%
Answer:
(d) 70.8%

Question 2.
When the temperature in the atmosphere falls below the freezing point and the water vapour directly turns into snowflakes, the process is called as ……………..
(a) sublimation²
(b) frostbite³
(c) carbonation
(d) convection
Answer:
(a) sublimation

Question 3.
In areas located at higher altitudes and high latitudes, where the temperatures are below 0°C get precipitation in the form of ………….
(a) dew
(b) rain
(c) snow
(d) hail
Answer:
(c) snow

Question 4.
Because of ………………. crops may get destroyed and loss of life and property may occur.
(a) dew
(b) rain
(c) snow
(d) hail
Answer:
(d) hail

Question 5.
Hails do not occur in ……………… areas.
(a) temperate
(b) equatorial
(c) landlocked
(d) mountainous
Answer:
(b) equatorial

Question 6.
In equatorial areas, …………. type of rainfall occurs almost daily in the afternoons.
(a) frontal
(b) convectional
(c) cyclonic
(d) orographic
Answer:
(b) convectional

Question 7.
…………… rainfall occurs because of obstruction from high mountain ranges.
(a) Frontal
(b) Convectional
(c) Cyclonic
(d) Orographic
Answer:
(d) orographic

Question 8.
Cyclonic rainfall occurs more in …………… zones.
(a) temperate
(b) equatorial
(c) torrid
(d) polar
Answer:
(a) temperate

Question 9.
…………… rainfall occurs in most of the parts in the world.
(a) Frontal
(b) Convectional
(c) Orographic
(d) Cyclonic
Answer:
(c) orographic

Question 10.
Snowfall can also be measured with the help of ……………
(a) hygrometer
(b) rain gauge
(c) barometer
(d) anemometer
Answer:
(b) rain gauge

Question 11.
A layer of ice is equivalent to 10mm of rainfall.
(a) 10mm
(b) 50mm
(c) 100mm
(c) 120mm
Answer:
(c) 120mm

Question 12.
When moisture-laden air near the earth’s surface comes in contact of very cold objects and form water droplets which stick to the surface of the cold objects is formed.
(a) dew
(b) frost
(c) hail
(d) fog
Answer:
(a) dew

Question 13.
If the temperature of the air reaches less than 0°C, the water droplets stuck to the surfaces of cold objects freeze and form
(a) dew
(b) frost
(c) hail
(d) fog
Answer:
(b) frost

Question 14.
If precipitation does not take place, then conditions of arise.
(a) floods
(b) hail
(c) snowstorm
(d) drought
Answer:
(d) drought

Question 15.
Visibility reduces because of
(a) floods
(b) drought
(c) fog
(d) dew
Answer:
(c) fog

Match the column:

Question 1.

Column A	Column B
(1) Snowflakes	(a) upward air flow
(2) Hailstones	(b) sublimation
(3) Dew	(c) microscopic water particles floating in the air
(4) Fog	(d) condensation4 on cold objects

Answer:
(1 – b),
(2 – a),
(3 – d),
(4 – c)

Question 2.

Column A	Column B
(1) Orographic rainfall (2) Convectional Rainfall (3) Cyclonic Rainfall	(a) Daily in equatorial areas (b) More in temperate zones (c) Mountain barrier

Answer:
(1 – c),
(2 – a),
(3 – b)

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
What percentage of the earth’s surface is covered with water?
Answer:
70.8% of the earth’s surface is covered with water.

Question 2.
Why do we see different forms of condensation?
Answer:
Different forms of condensation are seen due to changes in atmospheric conditions.

Question 3.
What is precipitation?
Answer:
When water falls in the solid or liquid state from the clouds to the ground, it is called as precipitation.

Question 4.
Name the major forms of precipitation.
Answer:
Snow, hailstones and rainfall are the major forms of precipitation.

Question 5.
Explain the process of sublimation.
Answer:
When the temperature in the atmosphere falls below the freezing point, water vapour directly turns into snowflakes this process is called sublimation.

Question 6.
In India, hails occur in which season?
Answer:
Hails occur in summer reason in India.

Question 7.
Why don’t hails occur in cold zones?
Answer:
Hails do not occur in cold zones because of lack of upward flow.

Question 8.
Why don’t hails occur in equatorial areas?
Answer:
Hails do not occur in equatorial areas because of the heat in the atmosphere.

Question 9.
Which type of rainfall occurs because of obstruction of mountain?
Answer:
Orographic rainfall occurs because of obstruction of mountains.

Question 10.
Convectional rainfall is mainly experienced in which region?
Answer:
Convectional rainfall is mainly experienced in equatorial region.

Question 11.
What is a Cyclone?
Answer:
Cyclone is a specific air formation when the pressure at an area is less than the surrounding regions.

Question 12.
What is acid rain?
Answer:
Precipitation of water with dissolved acids is called acid rain.

Study the rainfall map of the world given below and answer the following question:

Question 1.
Which region experiences more rainfall?
Answer:
The tropical region experiences more rainfall.

Question 2.
What is the reason for low rainfall in the Central Peninsular India?
Answer:
The Central Peninsular India falls on the leeward side of the Western Ghats and hence a rain shadow region is formed here.

Question 3.
Why does the eastern part of Central African continent gets less rainfall than the western part despite its location close to the equator?
Answer:

• Eastern part of the African Continent is a rain shadow region of westerly monsoon winds whereas the western part lies on the windward side and gets more rain.
• The eastern part of Africa also comes under the influence of the North east trade winds but still receive less rains as they are dry winds originating from the land.

Question 4.
Why does the amount of high rainfall in the western part of the European continent reduce in the eastern part?
Answer:
There are many mountain ranges in the western part of Europe. These obstruct the rain-bearing clouds coming from the west and therefore the amount of rainfall received is high in the west and it reduces towards the east.

Question 5.
Why is rainfall more only in the eastern coast of Australia?
Answer:
The eastern part of Australia is a mountainous region. The winds blowing from the Pacific Ocean are obstructed by these mountains resulting in orographic rainfall towards the east and the formation of a rain shadow zone towards the west.

Observe the horizontal profile of Maharashtra in the following figure and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What type of rainfall occurs in Maharashtra?
Answer:
Orographic rainfall occurs in Maharashtra.

Question 2.
Where will the rain shadow area lie in Maharashtra?
Answer:
The rain shadow area lies to the Leeward side of Sahyadri hills (Maharashtra plateau).

Question 3.
Think about the figure and estimate the rainfall of your district.
Answer:
The answer may vary.

Give reasons:

Question 1.
Crops may get destroyed due to hailstones.
Answer:

• As hailstones are heavy they fall towards the earth’s surface, but because of the frequent upward flow of air, they are repeatedly taken upwards.
• Here, a new layer of snow encapsulates the hail. This happens quite a few times.
• Hence, concentric layers are formed while the hail grows in size.
• These big heavy hailstones fall rapidly to the ground because of gravity. This type of precipitation is called as hail.
• Hence due to hail, crops may get destroyed.

Question 2.
There is a difference between ice and snow.
Answer:

• In areas located at higher altitudes and high- latitudes, where the temperatures are below 0°C get precipitation in the form of snow.
• Snow is friable and opaque. This snow accumulates in the form of layers on top of each other.
• Because of the pressure from the upper layers, the lower layers of the snow become homogeneous, massive and transparent.
• Massive transparent snow formed in such a way is called ice.

Thus, there is a difference between ice and snow.

Question 3.
In equatorial areas, convectional rainfall occurs almost daily in the afternoons.
Answer:

• In equatorial areas, the surface gets heated because of the sun’s heat and the air near it also gets heated.
• As it gets heated, it spreads and becomes lighter and moves upwards. It cools down when it goes upward. The moisture-holding capacity of cold air is less.
• Consequently, condensation of the water vapour occurs and rainfall occurs in equatorial areas.
• Thus in equatorial areas, convectional rainfall occurs almost daily in the afternoons.

Question 4.
A rain shadow area is formed on the leeward side of the Western Ghats.
Answer:

• Winds coming from Arabian sea are moisture-laden. They are obstructed by the Western Ghats coming in their way.
• According to the slope of the Western Ghats, the moisture-laden winds start going upwards.
• The temperature of these winds drop and condensation occurs and rainfall takes place. Thus, because of the obstruction of the Western Ghats, orographic rainfall occurs.
• The windward side of the mountains gets more rain; amount of vapour in the air reduces after crossing the mountain and the water vapour carrying capacity of the air increases.
• The leeward side of the mountain gets lesser rainfall and hence a rain-shadow area is formed here.

Question 5.
Snowfall is not experienced in Maharashtra.
Answer:

• Solid snow particles are formed in regions where the temperature falls below the freezing point leading to the process of sublimation.
• In the sublimation process, the water vapour directly turns into snowflakes.
• In Maharashtra, during winters the temperature never falls below the freezing point.
• Hence snowflakes are never formed in the atmosphere.
• Thus snowfall is not experienced in Maharashtra.

Question 6.
Hailstones do not occur frequently.
Answer:

• Strong vertical movements of air with very high difference in temperature are an ideal condition for the formation of hailstones.
• Presence of moisture is also necessary in the air.
• Such conditions do not exist frequently.
• Hence hailstones are not experienced frequently.

Question 7.
Dew and frost occur on a large scale in winters.
Answer:

• During winters when moisture-laden air near the earth’s surface comes in contact very cold objects, condensation of the vapour takes place.
• They turn into very small water droplets. These water droplets get stick to the surface of the cold objects. This is called dew.
• If the temperature of the air is less than 0°C, the water droplets stuck to the surfaces of cold objects freeze.
• This frozen water droplet is called frost.
• Thus dew and frost occur on a large scale in winters.

Draw diagram of Rain Gauge:
Answer:

Question 6.
Explain the effects of precipitation.
Answer:

• The main source of potable water available on the earth is precipitation.
• As extreme rainfall is destructive so is the absence of rainfall.
• Floods may occur because of heavy rainfall and causes loss to life and property.
• If precipitation does not take place then conditions of drought arise. It causes a shortage of food and food may have to be imported and farmers’ conditions becomes grave.
• The economy of an agrarian1 country like India is dependent on agriculture. The agriculture in India to a large extent is dependent on monsoons. Hence rainfall in India is important to the whole country.
• A good rainfall at the right time increases crop production while untimely rain can damage the crope.
• Acid rains which is a combination of harmful gases and rainwater is harmful to the living organisms as well as non-living objects.

Explain:

Question 1.
Snowfall
Answer:

• When the temperature in the atmosphere falls below the freezing point, the water vapour directly turns into snowflakes. This is called sublimation.
• Here, the vapour in the form of gas transforms into solid snow.
• Precipitation in the form of solid particles is known as snowfall.
• In high latitudinal and temperate regions, snowfall occurs at the mean sea level while in tropical areas, snowfall occurs at places located higher than the snowline altitude.

Question 2.
Formation of hailstones.
Answer:

• When there is a lot of heat on the earth’s surface, the upward air flow blows at a great speed.
• Because of this upward flow, the temperature of the air reduces and the condensation of the water vapour takes place.
• Dark clouds are formed. Because of the upward movement of air, these water droplets go at a higher altitude.
• Here, solidification of these droplets occur and hailstones are formed.

Question 3.
Cyclonic rainfall
Answer:

• Cyclone is the specific air formation when the pressure at an area is less than the surrounding regions.
• Air from the surrounding region comes toward the center of the cyclone and starts moving upwards.
• As it rises, the temperature of the air reduces, condensation occurs and rainfall takes place.
• It rains in areas over which the cyclone passes. Cyclonic rainfall occurs more in temperate zones and its area is also quite extensive.
• Comparatively, cyclonic rainfall occurring in tropical regions is limited in extent and is stormy in nature.

Question 4.
Rain Gauge.
Answer:

• The instrument that is used to measure rainfall is called rain gauge.
• The funnel that is used for measuring rain has a specific diameter. The rain falling in this funnel is collected in a bottle fitted in the gauge.
• The collected water is then measured with the help of measuring jar. The measuring jar reads in millimetres.
• In areas of heavy rainfall, the reading of the rain is taken every three hours.
• The gauge is kept on open ground on a 30cm flat-mount. Hence, the rainwater is collected without any obstruction.

Question 5
Fog, dew and frost
Answer:
(i) Fog:

• The temperature of the layers of the air near the surface of the earth reduces. As temperature reduces, water vapour condenses.
• In this process, vapour turns into microscopic water particles and float in the air.
• When the density of these droplets in the air increases, fog occurs.

(ii) Dew:

• When moisture-laden air near the earth’s surface comes in contact with very cold objects, condensation of the vapour takes place. They turn into very small water droplets.
• These water droplets get stick to the surface of the cold objects. This is called dew.

(iii) Frost:

• If the temperature of the air reaches less than 0°C, the water droplets stuck to the surfaces of cold objects and freeze.
• This frozen water droplet is called frost.

Question 6.
Acid Rain
Answer:

• Because of air pollution in industrial areas, various gases get mixed in the air.
• Different adds are created when the water vapour in the air reacts chemically with these gases. For example, nitric add, sulphuric add, etc.
• Acids dissolved in rainwater fall with the rain j during precipitation. Such a type of rain which has acids dissolved in it is called acid rain.
• Such type of rainfall is harmful to the living organisms and the non-living objects.

Question 7.
Convectional Rainfall
Answer:

1. In equatorial areas, the surface gets heated because of the sun’s heat and the air near it also gets heated. As it gets heated, it spreads and becomes lighter and moves upwards.
2. It cools down when it goes upward & as the j moisture-holding capacity of cold air is less, condensation and rainfall occurs.
3. This type of rainfall is called as Convectional! Rainfall.
4. In equatorial areas, such a type of rainfall occurs almost daily in the afternoons. Rainfall is accompanied by lightning and thunder.
5. The Congo basin of the Africa and the Amazon basin in the South America experience convectional rainfall.
6. Such a rainfall has a very limited area on the earth.

Question 8.
Orographic rainfall
Answer:

• Winds coming from lakes or seas are moisture-laden. They are obstructed by the high mountain ranges coming in their way.
• They start going upwards along the slope of the mountains.
• The temperature of these winds drop and condensation occurs and rainfall takes place. Thus because of the obstruction of the mountains, this type of rainfall occurs.
• The windward side of the mountains gets; more rain; the amount of vapour in the air reduces after crossing the mountain and the moisture-holding capacity of the air increases.
• The leeward side of the mountain gets lesser rainfall and hence this area is identified as rain- shadow area.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Exogenetic Movements Part 2, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Exogenetic Movements Part 2

Class 9 Geography Chapter 4 Exogenetic Movements Part 2 Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Rewrite the correct statement:

Question 1.
The temperature range helps the wind in its work.
Answer:
Correct.

Question 2.
River’s work is more prominent than other agents of erosion in desert regions.
Answer:
Incorrect. Work of wind is more prominent in desert regions than other agents of erosion.

Question 3.
The work of groundwater is effective in the area with soft rocks.
Answer:
Correct.

2. Correct and rewrite the incorrect statements:

Question 1.
The ice on the lateral side of the glacier moves faster than the ice at the base.
Answer:
Incorrect. The ice on the base of the glacier moves faster than the ice on the lateral side.

Question 2.
The depositional work by rivers happens because of gentle slope, reduced speed and transported sediments.
Answer:
Correct.

Question 3.
A river flows at a faster speed than the glacier.
Answer:
Correct.

Question 4.
The speed of the glacier is more on both the banks than in the middle.
Answer:
Correct.

3. Identify the wrong pair

Question 1.
Deposition – V-shaped valley
Answer:
Wrong pair.
Correct pair is – Erosion – V-shaped valley

Question 2.
Transport – Ripple Marks
Answer:
Transport – Ripple Marks

Question 3.
Erosion – Mushroom Rocks
Answer:
Erosion – Mushroom Rocks

4. Identify and name the landforms in the following diagrams :

Answer:
(i) V-shaped valley
(ii) Gorge (Canyon)
(iii) Delta

5. Complete the following table by classifying the landforms according to their agents of erosion.
(waterfall, delta, cirque, arête, barchans, moraine, pothole, mushroom rock, sinkholes, beach, pillars, lagoons)
Rivers Wind Glacier Sea Waves Groundwater
Answer:

Rivers	Wind	Glacier	Sea waves	Ground Water
Waterfall	Barchans	Cirque	Beach	Sinkholes
Delta	Mushroom rock	Aretes	Lagoons	Pillars
Pothole		Moraine

6. Answer the following questions in brief.

Question 1.
List the landforms that are a result of the erosional work of the rivers.
Answer:
Gorges (canyons), V-shaped valleys and waterfalls are the result of the erosional work of the rivers.
(i) ‘V’ Shaped Valley:

• A ‘V shaped valley is formed due to the erosional work of a river.
• Over a period of time, the amount of load in the flow starts increasing.
• More and more energy of the river gets consumed in transporting the material.
• As a result, there is less erosion of the bed. The erosion along the banks and the slopes of the valley increases.
• Hence, the slopes recedes and the valley with near-vertical sides becomes wider, resembling the letter ‘V’.

(ii) Gorge:

• A gorge is found in the upper course of the river.
• It is a deep and narrow valley with steep sides.
• In mountainous areas, the river flows with great speed. Therefore, the bed of the river gets eroded more than its banks, giving rise to a gorge that has a steep banks and a narrow bed.

(iii) Waterfall:

• Waterfalls are formed as a result of the erosional work of a river.
• Water flowing over a hilly region cascades down a cliff, forming a waterfall.
• In the areas, where the hard and soft rocks are next to each other, the soft rocks are eroded faster than the hard ones. A difference in the height along the river bed leads to the formation of a waterfall.

Question 2.
Which agent is responsible for the formation of stalactites and stalagmites and where are they formed?
Answer:

• The work of groundwater is responsible for the formation of stalactites and stalagmites.
• In areas of limestone, the alkaline water seeps through the roof of the limestone caves.
• When this water evaporates, minerals get deposited at the bottom and at the top of the limestone caves.
• This leads to formation of stalactites and stalagmites.

Question 3.
List the landforms that are produced by the depositional work of the sea waves
Answer:
The landforms like beaches, sand bar, lagoons are formed due to depositional work of the sea waves.
(i) Beach:

• Large amount of sediments come from the landward side in areas between two adjoining headlands.
• Moreover, as these areas are shallow, the velocity of the waves decreases.
• As a result, the sediments that come from the land, as well as those coming from the deep sea, get deposited in this area.
• Predominantly fine sand gets settled along the coast.
• Such sandy deposits along the coasts are called beaches.

(ii) Lagoon:

• The brackish water separated from the seawater by sand bars and lying in the areas between the coast and bars is called a lagoon.
• As the waters are separated from the open sea, large waves are not generated.
• These lagoons run parallel to the sea coast.

(iii) Sand bars:

• Sand gets deposited along the sides of the headlands.
• The deposition extends parallel to the coast from one headland to the next.
• Over a period of time, these deposits extend over long distances forming bars that protrude into the water at some distance away from the beach.
• These are known as ‘sand bars’, Sometimes, the eroded material from the’ beach, gives rise to the sand bars.

Question 4.
Name the types of moraines.
Answer:
The glaciers carry sediments with them. These sediments are called moraines. Depending ond the location of the deposits, moraines can be divided into 4 types: ground moraines, lateral moraines, medial moraines and terminal moraines.

• The material deposited at the base of a glacier is called ground moraine.
• The material deposited along the banks of a glacier is called Lateral moraine.
• After the confluence of two glaciers, the moraine deposited in the central part of the glacier is known as medial moraine. It is formed out of . the side moraine of the inner banks of the two glaciers.
• At the end where a glacier turns into a stream, huge quantity of moraine is deposited. The stream of water is unable to carry the moraine further. As the deposited moraine is at the terminal part of a glacier, it is called terminal moraine.

7. Observe the following picture carefully. Identify the landforms formed by different agents of erosion. Number them with a pencil here and write their names in the sequence in your notebook.

(i)

Answer:
Depositional work of river

(ii)

Answer:
Depositional work of river

(iii)

Answer:
Erosional work of river

(iv)

Answer:
Depositional work of river

(2) Some pictures of the landforms formed by glaciers3 are given below. Write the function because of which they have been formed.

(i)

Answer:
Erosional work of glacier

(ii)

Answer:
Erosional work of glacier

(iii)

Answer:
Depositional work of glacier

(iv)

Answer:
Depositional work of glacier

(v)

Answer:
Erosional work of glacier

(vi)

Answer:
Erosional work of glacier

(vii)

Answer:
Depositional work of glacier

(3) Some pictures of the Iandforms produced by the work of the winds are given below. See the pictures and write in the box whether they have been formed by erosion or deposition.

(i)

Answer:
Erosional work of wind

(ii)

Answer:
Depositional work of wind

(iii)

Answer:
Depositional work of wind

(iv)

Answer:
Depositional work of wind

(v)

Answer:
Erosional work of wind

(vi)

Answer:
Erosional work of wind

(4) Some pictures of the landforms produced by the work of the sea waves are given below. See the pictures and write in the box whether they have been formed by erosion or deposition.

With the help of internet, obtain information regarding the places along the Konkan coast where you will find the landforms formed by sea waves.

(i)

Answer:
Erosional work of sea waves.

(ii)

Answer:
Depositional work of sea waves

(iii)

Answer:
Erosional work of sea waves.

(iv)

Answer:
Erosional work of sea waves.

(v)

Answer:
Erosional work of sea waves.

(vi)

Answer:
Depositional work of sea waves.

(vii)

Answer:
Depositional work of sea waves.

(5) See the pictures of the landforms produced by the work of groundwater. Write in the box below them whether they are formed through the work of erosion or deposition.

(i)

Answer:
Erosional work of ground water

(ii)

Answer:
Depositional work of ground water

Class 9 Geography Chapter 4 Exogenetic Movements Part 2 Intext Questions and Answers

Draw a diagram showing landforms at the sea coast:
Answer:

Can You Tell?

Question 1.
How will you differentiate between a rill, gully, stream and a river?
Answer:
The smallest natural flow of rain water is a rill. Many rills come together to form a gully. Many gullies come together and form a stream. Many streams come together and form a river. Thus we can see that rills, gullies, streams nad rivers are the various forms of flowing water in increasing order of their size.

Question 2.
What is a river?
Answer:
Running water flows naturally in a direction according to gravity along the slope, making its own way. This is called a flow of water when many such flows of water come together a river is formed.

Question 3.
Where can you see the work by glaciers in India?
Answer:
Glaciers can be seen in the Himalayan region in India.

Question 4.
In which natural region can you see the work of glaciers at the sea level?
Answer:
We can see the work of glacier at sea level in the Polar regions (Antarctica).

Question 5.
Where will you find the landforms formed by sea waves along the Konkan coast?
Answer:
Along the Konkan coast, landforms formed by sea waves can be found at Harihareshwar, Bhagwatibandar, Shrivardhan, Ratnagiri and Sindhudurg.

Think about it.

Question 1.
There are many creeks found in the coastal areas of Konkan but no delta, why?
Answer:
The Konkan coast has an indented (broken) coastline. Hence many creeks are found here. Many small seasonal rivers originate in the steep western side of the Western Ghats. As the rivers flow through the steep slopes their velocity increases. So, there is very little erosion done by them. Due to the narrow width of the Konkan coast, the rivers cover a short distance and drain in the Arabian sea. Thus they do not form estuaries rather than deltas.

Question 2.
Can you see a glacier moving just as you can observe the movement of river water?
Answer:
No

Question 3.
Ramu has to dig a well in his farm. But he is in a dilemma as to which season should he dig it so that there is water supply for a longer time. What will you suggest to Ramu?
Answer:
Ramu should dig a well during the summer season. A deep well can be dug during the summer season. This will ensure water supply not only during the monsoon and winter season but also during the next summer season.

Question 4.
Which agent has more kinetic energy of all-wind, river or glacier?
Answer:
Glacier is the agent of erosion which has the most kinetic energy of all. The glacier is a mixture of heavy soil and rock particles which are flowing. Thus it has both weight and movement.

Find out.

Question 1.
Is there any lake found near the meanders of the river? Obtain information about them.
Answer:

• Ox-Bow lakes are usually found near the meanders of a river.
• Wherever the river changes its direction, erosion takes place along the outer banks.
• If these conditions occur again and again, the river develops a zigzag path.
• Such a zigzag path is called a meandering path (course) and each loop along the path is called meander.
• When the turns in the course become acute, the limbs of a turn come very close.
• During flood, as the force of water increases, the river skips the meandering path and follows a straight path.
• The abandoned portion of the loop develops into a lake that is called an ‘ox-bow’ lake.

Question 2.
Where will you find mushroom rocks in the Deccan Plateau?
Answer:
Mushroom rocks can be found in the Hyderabad.

Question 3.
Can you find the work of wind near coastal areas? What landforms will be formed there?
Answer:
Yes, Ripple marks and sand mounds can be seen on the sand in the coastal regions.

Question 4.
Where are limestone caves, stalactites and stalagmites found in Maharashtra?
Answer:
Limestone caves, stalactites and stalagmites are found in Kanhur caves in the Ahmednagar district of Maharashtra.

Question 5.
Why are the landforms formed in limestone called Karst?
Answer:
A karst is an area of land formation created by eroding and dissolving portions of limestone or other soluble rock layers above or below the ground. According to the prevalent interpretation, the term is derived from the German name for the Karst region, a limestone plateau above the city of Trieste in the northern Adriatic.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 4 Exogenetic Movements Part 2 Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the statements by choosing the correct options.

Question 1.
The sediments are deposited at the foothills of the mountains in a triangular area forming an/a ………….. .
(a) alluvial fan
(b) yardang
(c) delta
(d) V-shaped valley
Answer:
(a) alluvial fan

Question 2.
The sediments carried by the glacier2 are called ………….. .
(a) sediments
(b) silt
(c) moraines
(d) alluvium
Answer:
(c) moraines

Question 3.
The erosional, transportation and depositional work of wind is more prominent in ………….. .
(a) polar regions
(b) deserts
(c) temperate regions
(d) grasslands
Answer:
(b) deserts

Question 4.
When many flows of water come together a …………… is formed.
(a) gorge
(b) river
(c) glacier
(d) canyon
Answer:
(b) river

Question 5.
The water which percolates through the porous rocks on the non-porous layer of rock is termed as ………….. .
(a) glacier
(b) flood leeves
(c) ground water
(d) surface water
Answer:
(c) ground water

Question 6.
…………… is formed due to depositional work of river.
(a) Delta
(b) Gorge
(c) V-shaped valley
(d) Canyon
Answer:
(a) Delta

Question 7.
In regions, where the temperatures are generally below freezing points, precipitation is in the form of ………….. .
(a) rainfall
(b) hail
(c) snowfall
(d) frost
Answer:
(c) snowfall

Question 8.
The erosional work of glacier forms ………….. .
(a) drumlins
(b) eskers
(c) cirques
(d) yardangs
Answer:
(c) cirques

Question 9.
The Jacobshavn Glacier in …………… is one of the fastest moving glaciers in the world.
(a) Finland
(b) Greenland
(c) Antarctica
(d) Himalayas
Answer:
(b) Greenland

Question 10.
The depositional work of ground water forms ………….. .
(a) limestone caves
(b) lagoons
(c) ripple marks
(d) seifs
Answer:
(a) limestone caves

Question 11.
Stalactites grow ………….. .
(a) downwards
(b) upwards
(c) sidewards
(d) fast
Answer:
(a) downwards

Question 12.
The ground water levels sink down in …………… season.
(a) summer
(b) winter
(c) rainy
(d) spring
Answer:
(a) summer

Question 13.
…………… is formed as a result of the depositional work of the sea waves.
(a) Sea cliff
(b) Lagoon
(c) Wave-cut platform
(d) Sea cave
Answer:
(b) Lagoon

Question 14.
The landforms developed in limestone areas are also called as …………… landforms.
(a) lime
(b) sinkhole
(c) krast
(d) coastal
Answer:
(c) krast

Match the Columns:

(1) River

Column A’		Column B’
(1)	Erosion	(a)	Ox-bow lake
(2)	Deposition	(b)	Meanders
		(c)	Yardangs

Answer:
(1 – b),
(2-a)

(2) Glacier

Column ‘A’		Column ‘B’
(1)	Erosion	(a)	Seif
(2)	Deposition	(b)	Eskers
		(c)	Cirque

Answer:
(1 – c),
(2 – b)

(3) Wind

Column ‘A’		Column B’
(1)	Erosion	(a)	Sand dunes
(2)	Deposition	(b)	Mushroom Rock
		(c)	Lagoon

Answer:
(1 – b),
(2 – a)

(4)

Column ‘A’		Column B’
(1)	Ground water	(a)	Delta region
(2)	Sea waves	(b)	Lagoon
		(c)	Sink holes

Answer:
(1 – c),
(2 – b)

(5)

Column ‘A’		Column B’
(1)	Stalactites & stalagmites	(a)	wind
(2)	Sand bar	(b)	ground water
		(c)	sea waves

Answer:
(1 – b),
(2 – c)

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
Name the agents of erosion.
Answer:
The agents of erosion are wind, rivers, glaciers, sea waves and ground water.

Question 2.
What factors does the work of a river depend on?
Answer:
The works of river depends on the nature of rock, the slope of land, velocity of the flow and the volume of water.

Question 3.
What are the important phases of a river’s work?
Answer:
The important phases of a river’s work are erosion, transportation and deposition.

Question 4.
What factors does the work of glaciers depend on?
Answer:
The work of glacier depends on the thickness of the accumulated ice, the temperature, and the slope of the land.

Question 5.
Which landforms are created due to the processes of erosion by the river?
Answer:
Landforms like gorges, V-shaped valleys, potholes and waterfalls are created due to the processes of erosion by the river.

Question 6.
Which landforms are formed mainly due to the transportational and depositional work of a river?
Answer:
Due to the transportational and depositional work of a river, meanders, ox-bow lakes, flood levees, flood plains and delta regions are formed.

Question 7.
Which landforms are created as a result of the erosional work of a glacier?
Answer:
The landforms such as a cirque, arete and matterhorn, U-shaped valley, hanging valleys, etc. are created as a result of the erosional work of a glacier.

Question 8.
Name the landforms formed by the depositional work of glaciers.
Answer:
The landforms formed by the depositional work of glaciers are drumlins, eskers etc.

Question 9.
Name the types of moraine.
Answer:
Ground moraine, lateral moraine, medial moraine and terminal moraine are the different types of moraine.

Question 10.
Which landforms are created as a result of the erosional work of the wind?
Answer:
The landforms like mushroom rocks, deflation hollows, yardangs etc. are created as a result of the erosional work of the wind.

Question 11.
Which landforms are created as a result of the transportation and depositional work of the wind?
Answer:
Sand dunes, barchans, seif, ripple marks, and loess plains are created as a result of transportation and depositional work of the wind.

Question 12.
Which landforms are produced as a result of the erosional work of sea waves?
Answer:
The landforms like sea cliffs, sea caves, wave-cut platforms, sea arches and sea stacks are produced as a result of the erosional work of sea waves.

Question 13.
Mention the landforms created due to the transportation and depositional work of sea waves.
Answer:
Beaches, sand bars and lagoons are created due to the transportation and depositional work of sea waves.

Fill the map with the given information and make a legend.

(1) Konkan Coast where work of sea waves can be seen
(2) Region in India where work of glaciers can be seen
(3) Desert region in India where work of wind can be seen
Answer:

Give geographical reasons:

Question 1.
Like the river, a glacier too carries out the work of erosion, transportation and deposition.
Answer:

• In regions, where the temperatures are generally below freezing points, precipitation is in the form of snowfall.
• Layers of snow accumulate on the earth’s surface because of snowfall.
• The heavy weight of these overlying layers makes the snow move along the slope.
• At the base of the layer, the snow starts melting because of the friction and the pressure from above. Glacier starts moving slowly along the slope.
• Thus like the river, a glacier too carries out the work of erosion, transportation and deposition.

Question 2.
Specific landforms are formed due to deposition by wind in arid and semi arid regions.
Answer:

• Sand particles that blow with the winds are of different shapes and sizes.?
• Those particles which are very fine are carried to larger distances while the larger ones get transported to shorter distances only.
• These sand particles get deposited in deserts and semi-arid climates.
• As a result, specific landforms are formed.
• Sand dunes, barchans, seifs, ripple marks, loess plains, etc. are formed by deposition by wind.

Question 3.
The work of sea waves cause different landforms.
Answer:

• In coastal areas, the sea waves carry out erosional, depositional and transportational work.
• Winds and tides cause the movements of sea water. As a result, waves come to the coast.
• Because of their hitting the rocks at the coasts, erosion of the rocks occurs.
• The landforms like wave cut platforms, sea caves, sea arches, sea cliffs, etc. are formed because of the erosional work of the waves.
• The landforms like beaches, sand bar, lagoons are formed due to depositional work of the sea waves.

Question 4.
In the desert, the work of wind is effective.
Answer:

• The work of wind is predominantly found in the hot desert and semi-arid regions.
• Hot deserts are found close to the Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn.
• The average annual rainfall in the hot deserts is 250 mm or even less. Therefore, the vegetal cover is negligible.
• As there are no obstacles due to lack of vegetal cover, the work of wind is effective in the desert.

Question 5.
Glaciers have a low velocity.
Answer:

• In the high altitude areas and the areas of high elevation, the ice slides down the slope. Such a sliding mass of ice is called a glacier.
• As the ice moving in a glacier is in the solid state, its velocity is very low.
• The thickness of the accumulated ice, the temperature and the slope of the land are the factors that determine the velocity of the glacier.

Question 6.
The ground water level changes according to seasons.
Answer:

• The upper level of the stored ground water is called ground water level.
• It varies according to the slope of the land, porosity and compactness of the rocks and the rainfall in the region.
• Ground water level also changes according to season.
• In the rainy season, it is closer to the ground surface whereas during summer, it drops down deeper.

Identify the land forms made by waves and write their names in the given picture.

Answer:

• Wave-cut platform
• Lagoon
• Beach
• Sea cave
• Sea arch
• Sea stack
• Sea cliff

Write the name of the landforms with which the following diagrams are associated. Colour the eroded and the remaining part, if any, in the given diagrams.

Answer:
(a) Mushroom Rock
(b) Sand Dune (Barchan)
(c) Yardangs
(d) Seif (Sand Mounds)

Identify the landforms formed by groundwater in the given diagram.

Answer:
Stalactite and Stalagmite cave.

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
List the agents responsible for new landforms. i
Answer:
The agents – running water (river), glaciers, wind, sea waves and groundwater, – do the work of erosion, transportation and deposition. Because of these agents, the earth’s surface keeps undergoing changes and new landforms are formed.
(i) Running water (river):

• The river beds, as well as the banks of a river, are eroded due to the speedy flowing stream of water. The load that a river carries also erodes the banks and the bed of the river.
• The rocks, stones, sand, etc. collide with one another and break into fragments
• Different landforms like gorge, V-shaped valley, pothole and waterfall are formed due to the erosional work of a river.

(ii) Glaciers:

• As a glacier is nothing but a solid mass of ice, its velocity is very low. Nevertheless, the mass of water in the solid form is quite high. Therefore, glaciers cause a considerable amount of erosion.
• The glaciers erode the ice-clad base of the mountain slopes and the snow-clad sides of the mountains to a large extent.
• The Cirque, Arete and horn, U-Shaped valley and hanging valley are the landforms formed by the erosional work of a glacier.

(iii) Wind:

• The wind carries sand and pebbles.
• When they strike and scratch the rocks, the elevated and basal parts of the rocks get eroded.
• Due to the erosional processes of the wind, deflation hollows, mushroom rocks and yardangs3 are formed.

(iv) Sea waves:

• The basal portions of the headlands get severely eroded due to the continuous attack of sea waves. This leads to the erosion of the rocks on a large scale.
• Rocky coasts are formed where the headlands get severely eroded.
• Landforms such as sea cliffs, sea caves, wave- cut platforms, sea arches and sea stacks are formed due to the erosional work of sea waves.

(v) Groundwater:

• Soluble minerals in the rocks dissolve in water and they move along with the ground water. This process is called erosion by ground water.
• The work of ground water is predominant in the region where rock like limestone is found on a large scale.
• Limestone dissolves in carbonic acid. Carbonic acid is formed due to the presence of carbon? dioxide in ground water. This acid dissolves carbonates like limestone. Thus, chemical weathering takes place.
• The landforms like sinkholes and caves are the result of the erosional work of groundwater.

Question 2.
List the landforms that are produced due to deposition of sediments by rivers.
Answer:
Landforms like flood levees, flood plains, deltas are formed because of deposition of sediments,

1. Flood levees: When in flood, the river deposits ; the coarser material on the banks which in duecourse rises parallel to the banks of the river. These are called ‘flood levees’.
2. Flood plains: The finer silt deposited away from the banks during the flood form plains on ! either side of the river. They are called ‘flood plains’.
3. Delta: The continuous deposition leads to the formation of a plain in the shape of a triangle called delta. Extensive deltas have been formed ! at the mouth of rivers Ganga, Godavari, Kaveri.

Question 3.
Write in detail about the erosional and depositional work of wind.
Answer:
(i) Erosional work of winds:

• Wind carries small sand particles, small pebbles, etc. along with it.
• These particles cause erosion along rocks coming in the way due to friction.
• This leads to formation of mushroom rocks, deflation hollows, yardangs, etc.

(ii) Depositional work of winds:

• Sand particles that blow with the winds are of different shapes and sizes.
• Those particles which are very fine are carried to larger distances while the larger ones get transported to shorter distances only.
• These sand particles get deposited in deserts and semi-arid climates. As a result, specific landforms are formed.
• Sand dunes, barchans, seifs, ripple marks, loessplains, etc. are formed by deposition by wind.

Question 4.
Write in detail about the erosional and depositional work of sea waves.
Answer:
(i) Erosional work of sea waves:

• When the waves break at the coast, they bring with them water, transported stones, pebbles,sand particles, etc. This leads to the erosion of the coast.
• Because of the chemical and hydraulic action of the sea wave too, the erosion occurs. The landforms like wavecut platforms, sea caves, sea arches, sea cliffs, etc. are formed because of the erosional work of the waves.

(ii) Depositional work of sea waves:

• The eroded materials accumulate at the sea bed. Because of tides, they keep on moving towards the coast and away from the coast.
• They become fine because of attrition and hitting towards each other.
• Deposition of such materials occurs at the places where the effect of waves is less. The landforms like beaches, sand bar, lagoons are formed due to the depositional work of the sea waves.

Explain:

Question 1.
Erosional work of rivers
Answer:

• The rivers originate at a much higher altitude from the sea level.
• Here, the river flows at a great speed and therefore, its power to erode is great.
• The riverbed and the river banks get eroded because of the speedy flow of the river, sand particles, pebbles. Also, various tributaries join the main river.
• All these lead to the formation of gorges (canyons), V-shaped valleys and waterfalls.

Question 2.
Transportation and deposition by rivers
Answer:

• A river flows down the slope from a hilly region.
• At the foothills, the change in the slope causes deposition of coarse sediments.
• As these are deposited in a triangular shape, they form an alluvial fan. As the steepness of the slope decreases and the transport capacity of the river reduces, it starts flowing slowly.
• It bends (meanders) often in its way in an effort to cross even small obstacles.
• By the time the river reaches the sea, its riverbed becomes very wide and its speed becomes very slow.
• The sediments of the river get deposited in its bed and on its banks. The factors that determine the deposition of sediments are thelength of the rivers, volume of water, amountof sediments, and the slope of the river and the earth’s surface.
• Thus, landforms like flood levees, flood plains,deltas are formed because of deposition of sediments.

Question 3.
Erosion work by glaciers
Answer:

• Though the velocity of glaciers is less, the mass of the ice is more and hence the glacier erodes its own banks and its bed on a large scale.
• The erosional work of glaciers produces landforms like cirques, aretes, horns, U-shaped valleys, hanging valleys and roche moutonnees (or sheepbacks).

Question 4.
Transportation and deposition by glaciers
Answer:

• The glaciers carry sediments with them. These sediments are called moraines.
• Depending on the location of the deposits, moraines can be divided into 4 types: ground moraines, lateral moraines, medial moraines and terminal moraines.
• The depositional work of glacier produces landforms like drumlins, eskers, etc.

Question 5.
Erosional and depositional work of wind
Answer:

• Erosional work of wind: Wind carries smallsand particles, small pebbles, etc. along with I it. These particles cause erosion along rockscoming in the way due to friction.
• This leads to formation of mushroom rocks, deflation hollows, yardangs, etc.
• Depositional work of winds: Sand particles that blow with the winds are of different shapes and sizes.
• Those particles which are very fine are carried to larger distances while the larger ones get transported to shorter distances only.
• These sand particles get deposited in deserts ; and semi-arid climates. As a result, specific landforms are formed.
• Sand dunes, barchans, seifs, ripple marks, loess plains, etc. are formed by deposition by wind.

Question 6.
Erosional work of sea waves
Answer:

• When the waves break at the coast, they bring with them water, transported stones, pebbles, sand particles, etc.
• This leads to the erosion of the coast. Because of the chemical and hydraulic action of the sea wave too, the erosion occurs.
• The landforms like wave cut platforms, sea caves, sea arches, sea cliffs, etc. are formed because of the erosional work of the waves.

Question 7.
Depositional work of sea waves
Answer:

• The eroded materials accumulate at the sea bed.
• Because of tides, they keep on moving towards the coast and away from the coast.
• They become fine because of attrition and hitting towards each other. Deposition of such materials occurs at the places where the effect of waves is less.
• The landforms like beaches, sand bar, lagoons are formed due to depositional work.

Question 8.
Work of groundwater and landforms
Answer:

• The rainwater seeps below the earth’s surface through porous rocks or the cracks in the rocks.
• This water accumulates at the non-porous layer of the rock. This accumulated water is called groundwater.
• The soluble minerals in the water get dissolved and flow with the groundwater. This is the erosional work of the groundwater.
• When the groundwater evaporates or the volume of soluble minerals is more than the solubility of the groundwater, the deposition of dissolved materials starts.
• Landforms like sinkholes, limestone caves, stalactites and stalagmites are formed.
• Thus, the groundwater carries out the erosion, transportation and depositional work.

Question 9.
Groundwater table
Answer:

• The upper surface of the water accumulated below the ground is called the ground water table.
• Factors like seasons, porosity of rocks, amount of rainfall, etc. affect the level of water table.
• The water table is closer to the ground during rainy seasons while it is deeper in the summers.?