Class 11 – Page 5 – Maharashtra Board Solutions

11th Biology Chapter 7 Exercise Cell Division Solutions Maharashtra Board

January 7, 2025January 6, 2025 by Bhagya

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Biology Textbook Solutions Chapter 7 Cell Division Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Cell Division Class 11 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Class 11 Biology Chapter 7 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Biology Class 11 Chapter 7 Exercise Solutions

1. Choose correct option

Question (A)
The connecting link between Meiosis – I and Meiosis – II is ……….. .
(a) interphase – I
(b) interphase – II
(c) interkinesis – III
(d) anaphase – IV
Answer:
(c) interkinesis – III

Question (B)
Synapsis is pairing of ………………. .
(a) any two chromosomes
(b) non – homologous chromosomes
(c) sister chromatids
(d) homologous chromosomes
Answer:
(d) homologous chromosomes

Question (C)
Spindle apparatus is formed during which stage of mitosis?
(a) Prophase
(b) Metaphase
(c) Anaphase
(d) Telophase
Answer:
(b) S-phase

Question (D)
Chromosome number of a cell is almost doubled up during _______ .
(a) G₁ – phase
(b) S – phase
(c) G₂-phase
(d) G₀-phase
[Note: Due to DNA replication the DNA content of cell doubles during S-phase. But the number of chromosomes remain the same.]
Answer:
(b) S – phase

Question (E)
How many meiotic divisions are necessary for formation of 80 sperms?
(a) 80
(b) 40
(c) 20
(d) 10
Answer:
(c) 20

Question (F)
How many chromatids are present in anaphase – I of meiosis – I of a diploid cell having 20 chromosomes?
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 20
(d) 40
Answer:
(d) 40

Question (G)
In which of the following phase of mitosis chromosomes are arranged at equatorial plane?
(a) Prophase
(b) Metaphase
(c) Anaphase
(d) Telophase
Answer:
(b) Metaphase

Question (H)
Find incorrect statement.
(a) Condensation of chromatin material occurs in prophase.
(b) Daughter chromatids are formed in anaphase.
(c) Daughter nuclei are formed at metaphase.
(d) Nuclear membrane reappears in telophase.
Answer:
(c) Daughter nuclei are formed at metaphase.

Question (I)
Histone proteins are synthesized during
(a) G₁ phase
(b) S – phase
(c) G₂ – phase
(d) Interphase
Answer:
(b) S – phase

2. Answer the following questions

Question (A)
While observing a slide, student observed many cells with nuclei. But some of the nuclei were bigger as compared to others but their nuclear membrane was not so clear. Teacher inferred it as one of the phase in the cell division. Which phase may be inferred by teacher?
Answer:
Prophase.

Question (B)
Students prepared a slide of onion root tip. There were many cells seen under microscope. There was a cell seen under microscope. There was a cell with two groups of chromosomes at opposite ends of the cell. This cell is in which phase of mitosis?
Answer:
Anaphase.

Question (C)
Students were shown some slides of cancerous cells. Teacher made a comment as if there would have been a control at one of its cell cycle phase, there wouldn’t have been a condition like this. Which phase the teacher was referring to?
Answer:
The phase teacher was referring would be G_i phase.

Question (D)
Some Mendelian crossing experimental results were shown to the students. Teacher informed that there are two genes located on the same chromosome. He enquired if they will be ever separated from each other?
Answer:

Genes are located on chromosomes at specific distance and position.
The greater this distance, the greater the chance that a crossover can occur between the genes and the greater the chances of recombination.
The chances of recombination are less between the genes that are placed closed to each other on the chromosome.
Therefore, due to recombination the two genes located on the same chromosome have possibility of separating from each other.

Question (E)
Students were observing a film on Paramoecium. It underwent a process of reproduction. Teacher said it is due to cell division. But students objected and said that there was no disappearance of nuclear membrane and no spindle formation, how can it be cell division? Can you clarify?
Answer:

Paramoecium is a unicellular organism. The division in Paramoecium occurs by amitosis.
It is the simplest mode of cell division.
In amitosis, nucleus elongates and a constriction appears. This constriction deepens and divides the nucleus in two daughter nuclei followed by the division of cytoplasm.

Question (F)
Is the meiosis responsible for evolution? Justify your answer.
Answer:

Meiosis ensures that organisms produced by sexual reproduction contain correct number of chromosomes.
Meiosis exhibits genetic variation by the process of recombination.
Variations increase further after union of gametes during fertilization creating offspring with unique characteristics. Thus, it creates diversity of life and is responsible for evolution.

Question (G)
Why mitosis and meiosis – II are called as homotypic division?
Answer:
1. In mitosis, the chromosome number and genetic material of daughter cells remain same as that of the parent cell.
2. In meiosis – II, two haploid cells formed during first meiotic division divide further into four haploid cells. This division is identical to mitosis. The daughter cells formed in second meiotic division are similar to their parent cells with respect to the chromosome number formed in meiosis -1. Hence mitosis and meiosis – II are called homotypic division.

Question (H)
Write the significance of mitosis.
Answer:

As mitosis is equational division, the chromosome number is maintained constant.
It ensures equal distribution of the nuclear and the cytoplasmic content between the daughter cells, both quantitatively and qualitatively. Therefore, the process of mitosis also maintains the nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio.
The DNA is also equally distributed.
It helps in growth and development of organisms.
Old and worn-out cells are replaced through mitosis.
It helps in the asexual reproduction of organisms and vegetative propagation in plants.

Question (I)
Enlist the different stages of prophase – I.
Answer:
1. Prophase -I:
It is the most complicated and longest phase of meiotic division.
It is further divided into five sub-phases viz. leptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene and diakinesis.

a. Leptotene:
The volume of the nucleus increases.
The chromosomes become long distinct and coiled.
They orient themselves in a specific fonn known as bouquet stage. This is characterized with the ends of chromosomes converged towards the side of nucleus where the centrosome lies. j Lep
The centriole duplicates into two and migrates to opposite poles. [Note: Centrioles divide during Gj phase of interphase.]

b. Zygotene:
Pairing of non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes takes place by formation of synaptonemal complex. This pairing is called synapsis.
Each pair consists of a maternal chromosome and a paternal chromosome. Chromosomal pairs are called bivalents or tetrads.

c. Pachytene:
Each individual chromosome begins to split longitudinally into two similar chromatids. Therefore, each bivalent now appears as a tetrad consisting of four chromatids.
The homologous chromosomes begin to separate but they do not separate completely and remain attached to one or more points. These points are called chiasmata (Appear like a cross-X).
Chromatids break at these points and broken segments are exchanged between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes resulting in recombination.

d. Diplotene:
The chiasma becomes clearly visible in diplotene due to beginning of repulsion between synapsed homologous chromosomes. This is known as desynapsis. Synaptonemal complex also starts to disappear.

e. Diakinesis:
The chiasmata begin to move along the length of chromosomes from the centromere towards the ends of chromosomes. The displacement of chiasmata is termed as terminalization.
The terminal chiasmata exist till the metaphase.
The nucleolus and nuclear membrane completely disappear and spindle fibres begin to appear.

3. Draw labelled diagrams and write explanation

Question (A)
With the help of suitable diagram, describe the cell cycle.
Answer:
1. Series of events occurring in the life of a cell is called cell cycle. Interphase and M – phase are the two phases of cell cycle.
2. Interphase: It is the stage between two successive cell divisions. It is the longest phase of a cell cycle during which the cell is highly active and prepares itself for cell division.
The interphase is subdivided into three sub-phases as G₁ – phase, S-phase and G₂-phase.
a. G₁ – phase (First gap period/First Gap Phase):
It begins immediately after cell division.
RNA (mRNA, rRNA and tRNA) synthesis, protein synthesis and synthesis of membranes take place during this phase.
b. S – phase (Synthesis phase):
In this phase DNA is synthesized (replicated), so that amount of DNA per cell doubles.
Synthesis of histone proteins takes place in this phase.
c. G₂ – phase (Second growth phase/Second Gap Phase):
Metabolic activities essential for cell division occur during this phase.
Various proteins which are necessary for the cell division are also synthesized in this phase.
Apart from this, RNA synthesis also occurs during this phase.
In animal cells, a daughter pair of centrioles appears near the pre-existing pair.

Question (B)
Distinguish between mitosis and meiosis.
Answer:

Mitosis	Meiosis
(a) It occurs in somatic cells and stem cells.	It occurs in germ cells.
(b) In this nucleus divides only once.	In this nucleus divides twice (Meiosis I and Meiosis II)
(c) In these two daughter cells are formed.	In these four daughter cells are formed.
(d) Daughter cells formed by mitotic division are diploid (2n).	Daughter cells formed by meiotic division are haploid (n)•
(e) In mitosis, crossing over does not take place.	In meiosis, crossing over takes place.
(f) Mitosis plays an important role in growth, repair, healing and development.	Meiosis is important for formation of haploid gametes and spores.

Question (C)
Draw labelled diagrams and write explanation Draw the diagram of metaphase.
Answer:
Metaphase:
a. Chromosomes are completely condensed and appear short.
b. Centromere and sister chromatids become very prominent.
c. All the chromosomes are arranged at equatorial plane of cell. This is called metaphase plate.
d. Mitotic spindle is fully formed in this phase.
e. Centromere of each chromosome divides horizontally into two, each being associated with a chromatid. [Note: The centromeres divide at the beginning of anaphase so that the two chromatids of each chromosome become separated from each other.
Source: Cell Division, Donald B. McMillan, Richard J. Harris, in An Atlas of Comparative Vertebrate Histology, 2018.]

Question 4.
Match the following column – A with column – B

Column I (Phases)	Column II (Their events)
1. Leptotene	(a) Crossing over
2. Zygotene	(b) Desynapsis
3. Pachytene	(c) Synapsis
4. Diplotene	(d) Bouquet stage

Answer:

Column I (Phases)	Column II (Their events)
1. Leptotene	(d) Bouquet stage
2. Zygotene	(c) Synapsis
3. Pachytene	(a) Crossing over
4. Diplotene	(b) Desynapsis

Question 5.
Is the given figure correct? Why?

Answer:
1. The given figure is incorrect as the spindle fibres are not attached to centromere of the chromosomes.
2. During metaphase, chromosomes are attached to spindle fibres with the help of centromeres.

Question 6.
If an onion has 16 chromosomes in its leaf cell, how many chromosomes will be there in its root cell and pollen grain.
Answer:
1. The chromosomes in root cell will be 16 as root cell is a diploid cell.
2. The chromosomes in pollen grain will be 8 as pollen grain is a haploid cell.

7. Identify the following phases of mitosis and label the ‘A’ and ‘B’ given in diagrams.

Question (i)

Answer:
The diagram shown is of Metaphase.
A: Chromosomes arranged on metaphase plate

Question (ii)

Answer:
The diagram shown is of Anaphase.
B: Chromatids moving to opposite poles.

Practical / Project:

Question 1.
Fix the onion root tips at different durations of the day starting from 6am up to 9am at the intervals of half an hour. Prepare the slide of each fixed root tip and analyse the relation between time and phase of mitosis.
Answer:
Mitotic division is an equational division in which one parent cell give rise to two daughter cells with equal number of chromosomes in daughter cells and mother cell. It has four sub phases: prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase.

Mitosis is affected by temperature and time. Mitotic index is high in morning so the mitosis is observed clearly in the morning. (Mitotic index is defined as the ratio between the number of cells in a population undergoing mitosis to the total number of cells in a population. )
[Note: Students catt use above information for reference and perform this activity on their own.]

11th Biology Digest Chapter 7 Cell Division Intext Questions and Answers

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 76)

How do your wounds heal?
Answer:
a. A wound is an injury to living tissue.
b. Healing of wound take place by mitosis.
c. Repetitive mitotic divisions near the site of injury results in healing of wound.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 79)

What is cell cycle?
Answer:

Sequential events occurring in the life of a cell is called cell cycle.
Interphase and M – phase are the two phases of cell cycle.
Cell undergoes growth or rest during interphase and divides during M – phase.

Discuss with teacher (Textbook Page No. 76)

Some cells do not have gap phase in their cell cycle whereas some cells spend maximum part of their life in gap phase. Search for such cells. Some cells are said to be in G₀ phase. What is this G₀ phase?
Answer:

G₀ is the phase of the cell cycle in eukaryotes in which many cell types stop dividing. It is also called a quiescent stage.
If cells are deprived of appropriate growth factors, they stop at the Gi checkpoint of the cell cycle. Their growth and division are arrested and they remain in G₀ phase.
Mature neurons and muscle cells remain in G₀ phase.

Question 5.
Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 79)
Answer:
1. Series of events occurring in the life of a cell is called cell cycle. Interphase and M – phase are the two phases of cell cycle.
2. Interphase: It is the stage between two successive cell divisions. It is the longest phase of a cell cycle during which the cell is highly active and prepares itself for cell division.
The interphase is subdivided into three sub-phases as G₁ – phase, S-phase and G₂-phase.
a. G₁ – phase (First gap period/First Gap Phase):
It begins immediately after cell division.
RNA (mRNA, rRNA and tRNA) synthesis, protein synthesis and synthesis of membranes take place during this phase.
b. S – phase (Synthesis phase):
In this phase DNA is synthesized (replicated), so that amount of DNA per cell doubles.
Synthesis of histone proteins takes place in this phase.
c. G₂ – phase (Second growth phase/Second Gap Phase):

Metabolic activities essential for cell division occur during this phase.
Various proteins which are necessary for the cell division are also synthesized in this phase.
Apart from this, RNA synthesis also occurs during this phase.
In animal cells, a daughter pair of centrioles appears near the pre-existing pair.

Internet my friend (Textbook Page No. 77)

What is Karyogram or Karyotype?
Answer:
1. A karyotype is a representation of condensed chromosomes arranged in pairs.
2. Analysis of the karyotype of a particular individual indicates whether the individual has a normal set of chromosomes or whether there are abnormalities in number or appearance of individual chromosomes.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 79)

Which are the steps of mitosis?
Answer:
Steps in mitosis are Karyokinesis and Cytokinesis. Karyokinesis includes four stages – Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase and Telophase.

Internet my friend (Textbook Page No. 79)

How the life span of a cell is decided?
Answer:

Life span of different cells vary greatly.
Life span of a cell is decided by its growth rate, metabolic activities and cell size.
The life span of a cell can be analysed in laboratory by applying carbon-14 technique to DNA.
This method is commonly used in archaeology and paleontology to find the age of fossils. Same can be applied to determine the life span of a cell.

Do yourself (Textbook Page No. 80)

Write down the explanation of prophase I in your own words.
Answer:
1. Prophase -I:
It is the most complicated and longest phas0e of meiotic division.
It is further divided into five sub-phases viz. leptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene and diakinesis.

a. Leptotene:

The volume of the nucleus increases.
The chromosomes become long distinct and coiled.
They orient themselves in a specific fonn known as bouquet stage. This is characterized with the ends of chromosomes converged towards the side of nucleus where the centrosome lies.
The centriole duplicates into two and migrates to opposite poles. [Note: Centrioles divide during G_j phase of interphase.]

b. Zygotene:

Pairing of non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes takes place by formation of synaptonemal complex. This pairing is called synapsis.
Each pair consists of a maternal chromosome and a paternal chromosome. Chromosomal pairs are called bivalents or tetrads.

c. Pachytene:

Each individual chromosome begins to split longitudinally into two similar chromatids. Therefore, each bivalent now appears as a tetrad consisting of four chromatids.
The homologous chromosomes begin to separate but they do not separate completely and remain attached to one or more points.
These points are called chiasmata (Appear like a cross-X).
Chromatids break at these points and broken segments are exchanged between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes resulting in recombination.

e. Diakinesis:

The chiasmata begin to move along the length of chromosomes from the centromere towards the ends of chromosomes. The displacement of chiasmata is termed as terminalization.
The terminal chiasmata exist till the metaphase.
The nucleolus and nuclear membrane completely disappear and spindle fibres begin to appear.

Curiosity Box: (Textbook Page No. 81)

(i) What is exact structure of synaptonemal complex?
Answer:
Synaptonemal complexes are zipper like structures assembled between homologous chromosomes during the prophase of first meiotic division.
[Source: ncbi.nlm. nih.gov/pubmed/8743892]

(ii) What is structure of chiasma?
Answer:
Chiasma is a X-shaped point of attachment between two non-sister chromatids of a homologous chromosomes.

(iii) Which type of proteins are involved in formation of spindle fibres?
Answer:
Spindle fibres are formed from microtubules with many accessory proteins.

(iv) Why and how spindle fibres elongate and some contract?
Answer:
a. Spindle fibres elongate for assembly of chromosomes at equatorial plane of the cell during metaphase and spindle fibres contract for pulling chromosomes towards opposite poles during anaphase.
b. The spindle fibres elongate (polymerize) by incorporating subunits of the protein tubulin and contract

(v) What is the role of centrioles in formation of spindle apparatus?
Answer:
Centriole plays an important role in cell division. Centrioles help organize microtubule assembly and forms spindle apparatus that separate the chromosomes during cell division.

Curiosity box (Textbook Page No. 81)

What would have happened in absence of meiosis?
Answer:

Gametes are produced by the process of meiosis which are essential for sexual reproduction.
Diploid organisms have two set of chromosomes (one paternal and one maternal).
For a diploid organism to undergo sexual reproduction it needs to create gametes that contain only one set of chromosomes so the number of chromosomes remains same in the next generation.
In absence of meiosis, the chromosome number of parents and their offsprings will differ in every generation; hence no species will hold its characters.
Also, there will be no crossing over of homologous chromosomes. Thus, there will be no variations with respect to the changing environment in progeny to maintain their existence, which may lead to extinction of species.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 82)

(i) What is the difference between mitosis and meiosis?
Answer:

Mitosis	Meiosis
(a) It occurs in somatic cells and stem cells.	It occurs in germ cells.
(b) In this nucleus divides only once.	In this nucleus divides twice (Meiosis I and Meiosis II)
(c) In these two daughter cells are formed.	In these four daughter cells are formed.
(d) Daughter cells formed by mitotic division are diploid (2n).	Daughter cells formed by meiotic division are haploid (n) •
(e) In mitosis, crossing over does not take place.	In meiosis, crossing over takes place.
(f) Mitosis plays an important role in growth, repair, healing and development.	Meiosis is important for formation of haploid gametes and spores.

(ii) What is difference between meiosis – I and meiosis – II?
Answer:

Meiosis I	Meiosis II
(a) Diploid cell is divided into two haploid cells.	Two haploid cells formed in meiosis I divides further into four haploid cells.
(b) This division is called heterotypic division.	This division is called homotypic (equational) division.
(c) It consists of prophase – I, metaphase – I, anaphase -1, telophase -1 and cytokinesis.	It consists of prophase – II, metaphase – II, anaphase – II, telophase – II and cytokinesis.
(d) Number of chromosomes is reduced to half, i.e. from diploid to haploid state.	In meiosis II number of chromosomes remain the same.
(e) It is complicated and long duration division.	It is simple and short duration division.
(f) Telophase I results into 2 daughter cells.	Telophase II results in 4 daughter cells.

(iii) Elaborate the process of recombination.
Answer:
a. Recombination is exchange of genetic material between paternal and maternal chromosomes during gamete formation.
b. The points where crossing over takes place is known as chiasmata.
c. Chromatids acquire new combinations of alleles by physically exchanging segments in crossing-over.
d. The exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes involves accurate breakage and joining of DNA molecules through a complex mechanism.
e. It is catalyzed by enzymes.

Do Yourself (Textbook Page No. 82)

Prepare a concept map on cell division in following box.
Answer:
Refer Quick Review

Internet My Friend (Textbook Page No. 82)

Different types of proteins like cyclins, maturation promoting factor (MPF), cyclosomes, enzymes like cyclin dependent kinases (CDK) play important role in control of cell cycle. Collect more information about these proteins and enzymes from internet, prepare a power-point presentation and present it in the class.
Answer:

The regulation of the cell cycle involves an internal control system consisting of proteins called cyclins and enzymes called cyclin-dependent kinases.
A Cdk is a protein kinase. When the kinase of the Cdk is activated upon binding to a cyclin, it phosphorylates target proteins in the cell, regulating their activities.
Those proteins play important roles in initiating or regulating significant events of the cell cycle, such as DNA replication, mitosis, and cytokinesis.
Maturation Promoting Factor (MPF) triggers the cell’s passage into the mitotic phase.
[Note: Students are expected to perform the above activity by their own with the help of information provided in the answer.]

11th Std Biology Questions And Answers:

11th Biology Chapter 2 Exercise Systematics of Living Organisms Solutions Maharashtra Board

January 7, 2025January 6, 2025 by Bhagya

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Biology Textbook Solutions Chapter 2 Systematics of Living Organisms Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Systematics of Living Organisms Class 11 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Class 11 Biology Chapter 2 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Biology Class 11 Chapter 2 Exercise Solutions

1. Choose correct option.

Question (A)
Which of the following shows single stranded RNA and lacks protein coat?
(a) Bacteriophage
(b) Plant virus
(c) Viroid
(d) Animal virus
Answer:
(c) Viroid

Question (B)
Causative agent of red tide is ________ .
(a) Dinoflagellate
(b) Euglenoid
(c) Chrysophyte
(d) Lichen
Answer:
(A) Dinoflagellate

Question (C)
Select odd one out for Heterotrophic bacteria.
(a) Nitrogen fixing bacteria
(b) Lactobacilli
(c) Methanogens
(d) Cyanobacteria
Answer:
(c) Methanogens or (d) Cyanobacteria

Question (D)
Paramoecium: Ciliated Protist :: Plasmodium: _______ .
(a) Amoeboid protozoan
(b) Ciliophora
(c) Flagellate protozoan
(d) Sporozoan
Answer:
(d) Sporozoan

2. Answer the following

Question (A)
What are the salient features of Monera?
Answer:
Salient features of Kingdom Monera:

Size: The organisms included in this kingdom are microscopic, unicellular and prokaryotic.
Occurrence: These are omnipresent. They are found in all types of environment which are not generally inhabited by other living beings.
Nucleus: These organisms do not have well-defined nucleus. DNA exists as a simple double-stranded circular single chromosome called as nucleoid. Apart from the nucleoid they often show presence of extrachromosomal DNA which is small circular called plasmids.
Cell wall: Cell wall is made up of peptidoglycan (also called murein) which is a polymer of sugars and amino acids.
Membrane-bound cell organelles: Membrane-bound cell organelles like mitochondria, chloroplast, endoplasmic reticulum are absent. Ribosomes are present, which are smaller in size (70S) than in eukaryotic cells.
Nutrition: Majority are heterotrophic, parasitic or saprophytic in nutrition. Few are autotrophic that can be either photoautotrophs or chemoautotrophs.
Reproduction: The mode of reproduction is asexual or with the help of binary fission or budding. Very rarely, sexual reproduction occurs by conjugation method.
Examples:
Archaebacteria: e.g. Methanobacillus, Thiobacillus, etc.
Eubacteria: e.g. Chlorobium, Chromatium, and Cyanobacteria e.g. Nostoc, Azotobacter, etc.

Question (B)
What will be the shape of a bacillus and coccus type of bacteria?
Answer:
The shape of bacillus type of bacteria is rod-shaped and coccus is spherical.

Question (C)
Why is binomial nomenclature important?
Answer:
Binomial nomenclature is important because:

The binomials are simple, meaningful and precise.
They are standard since they do not change from place to place.
These names avoid confusion and uncertainty created by local or vernacular names. The organisms are known by the same name throughout the world.
The binomials are easy to understand and remember.
It indicates phylogeny (evolutionary history) of organisms.
It helps to understand inter-relationship between organisms.

3. Write short notes

Question (A)
Write a note on useful and harmful bacteria.
Answer:
(i) Useful bacteria:
Most of the bacteria act as a decomposer. They breakdown large molecules in simple molecules or minerals. Examples of some useful bacteria:
Lactobacillus’. It helps in curdling of milk.
Azotobacter. It helps to fix nitrogen for plants.
Streptomyces: It is used in antibiotic production such as streptomycin.
Methanogens: These are used for production of methane (biogas) gas from dung.
Pseudomonas spp. and Alcanovorax borkumensis: These bacteria have the ability to destroy the pyridines and other chemicals. Hence, used to clear the oil spills.

(ii)Harmful bacteria:
This includes disease causing bacteria. They cause various diseases like typhoid, cholera, tuberculosis, tetanus, etc. Examples of some harmful bacteria:
Salmonella typhi: It is a causative organism of typhoid.
Vibrio cholerae: It causes cholera.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis’. It causes tuberculosis.
Clostridium tetani: It causes tetanus.
Clostridium spp.: It causes food poisoning.
Many forms of mycoplasma are pathogenic.
Agrobacterium , Erwinia, etc are the pathogenic bacteria causing plant diseases.
Animals and pets also suffer from bacterial infections caused by Brucella, Pastrurella, etc.

Question (B)
Write short note on five kingdom system.
Answer:
Five kingdom system of classification was proposed by R.H. Whittaker in 1969. This system shows the phylogenetic relationship between the organisms.
The five kingdoms are:

Kingdom Monera
Kingdom Protista
Kingdom Plantae
Kingdom Fungi
Kingdom Animalia

Question (C)
Write short note on useful fungi.
Answer:
Economic importances of fungi are as follows:
1. Role of fungi in medicine:
(a) Antibiotic penicillin is obtained from Penicillium.
(b) Drugs like cyclosporine, immunosuppressant drugs, precursors of steroid hormones, etc are isolated from fungi.

2. Role of fungi in industries:
(a) Yeast is used in bread making. It causes dough to rise and make the bread light and spongy. It is also used in breweries or wine making industries. Sugars present in grapes are fermented by using yeast. This results in production of alcohol which is used for making wine.
(b) Lichen is a symbiotic association of algae and fungi are used in preparation of litmus paper which is used as acid-base indicator.

3. Role of fungi in food:
(a) Fungi like mushrooms are consumed as a food. These are rich source of protein.
(b) Fungi genus Penicillium helps in ripening of cheese.

4. Role of fungi as biocontrol agents:
(a) Fungi help to control growth of weeds.
(b) Pathogenic fungi like Fusarium sp., Phytophthorapalmivora, Alternaria crassa, etc act as mycoherbicides.

Question 4.
Complete tree diagram in detail.

Answer:

5. Draw neat labelled diagrams

Question (A)
Draw neat and labelled diagram of Paramoecium.
Answer:
Characteristics:

It belongs to kingdom Protista. It is further classified as animal like protist.
It lacks cell wall.
It shows heterotrophic and holozoic nutrition.
It is a ciliated protozoan where locomotion is due to cilia.
It has gullet (a cavity) which opens on the cell surface.

Quesiton (B)
Draw neat and labelled diagram of Euglena.
Answer:
Characteristics:
It belongs to kingdom Protista. It is further classified into euglenoids.

1. Dinoflagellates:

They are aquatic (mostly marine) and autotrophic (photosynthetic).
They have wide range of photosynthetic pigments which can be yellow, green, brown, blue and red.
The cell wall is made up of cellulosic stiff plates.
A pair of flagella is present, hence they are motile.
They are responsible for famous ‘red tide’. E.g. Gonyaulax. It makes sea appear red.

2. Euglenoids:

They lack cell wall but have a tough covering of proteinaceous pellicle.
Pellicle covering provides flexibility and contractibility to Euglena.
They possess two flagella, one short and other long.
They behave as heterotrophs in absence of light but possess pigments, similar to that of higher plants, for photosynthesis.

Question (C)
Draw a neat labelled diagram of TMV.
Answer:

Question 6.
Complete chart and explain in your word.

Answer:

Depending upon the host, viruses are classified into three types as:
1. Plant virus
2. Animal virus
3. Bacterial virus (Bacteriophage)

1. Plant virus:
(a) Generally, they are rod shaped or cylindrical with helical symmetry.
(b) Majority of plant viruses have RNA as their genetic material. (Exception: Cauliflower Mosaic Virus has double stranded DNA as genetic material)
(c) Plant viruses cause disease in plants, e.g. Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV).

2. Animal virus:
(a) Generally, they are polyhedral in shape with radial symmetry.
(b) They have either DNA or RNA as genetic material.
(c) It causes disease to majority of animals including human beings, e.g. Influenza virus.

3. Bacteriophage:
(a) They have tadpole-like shape.
(b) They infect bacteria and hence are called as bacteriophage.
(c) Bacteriophages were discovered by Twort.
(d) Bacteriophages have double stranded DNA as the genetic material.
(e) Its body consists of head, collar and tail.

Question 7.
Identify the following diagram, label it and write detail information in your words.

Answer:
The given figure represents Bacteriophage.

Question 8.
The scientific name of sunflower is given below. Identify the correctly written name.
(A) Helianthus annus
(B) Helianthus Annus
(C) Helianthus annuus L.
(D) Helianthus annuus l.
Answer:
The correctly written scientific name of sunflower is Helianthus annuus L.

Question 9.
Match the following.

Kingdom	Examples
1. Monera	a. Riccia
2. Protista	b. Cyanobacteria
3. Plantae	c. Rhizopus
4. Fungi	d. Diatoms

Answer:

Kingdom	Examples
1. Monera	b. Cyanobacteria
2. Protista	d. Diatoms
3. Plantae	a. Riccia
4. Fungi	c. Rhizopus

Question 10.
Complete the following.
1. Plant-like Protista – [ ]
2. [ ] – Entamoeba

Practical /Project:

Question 1.
Make a group of students. Observe living organisms in your school/college campus and try to write their characters with respect to habit, habitat, mode of nutrition, growth- determinate or indeterminate, type of reproduction – vegetative reproduction, asexual reproduction, sexual reproduction. With the help of similarity and dissimilarity, try to classify organisms into different categories. Similar work should implement for animal group.
Answer:
The common living organisms observed near school/college are:
1. Plants
Habit: Herb, shrub, tree, etc.
Habitat: Terrestrial or aquatic
Mode of nutrition: Autotrophic
Growth: Indeterminate
Types of reproduction: Vegetative, asexual and sexual reproduction.

2. Animal e.g. dog, cats, cow, etc.
Habitat: Terrestrial
Mode of nutrition: Heterotrophs
Growth: Determinate
Types of reproduction: Only sexual reproduction

3. Birds e.g. Crow, sparrow, etc.
Habitat: Aviary (shows diverse habitat)
Mode of nutrition: Heterotrophs Growth: Determinate
Types of reproduction: Only sexual reproduction
[Note: Students are expected to collect more information about characteristics of living organisms and classify them into different categories]

Question 2.
Find out types of lichens and its economic importance.
Answer:
Types of lichens are:
1. Based on fungal components:
(a) Ascolichens:
In this category, the fungal partner belongs to Ascomycetes group of fungi.
(b) Basidiolichens:
Here, the fungal partner belongs to Basidiomycetes group of fungi.
(c) Deuterolichens:
In this category, the fungal partner belongs to Deuteromycetes group of fungi.

2. Based on their forms:
(a) Crustose lichen:
These lichens show crust-like growth.
These lichens grow on rocks and bark of the trees,
e. g. Graphis, Lecanora, Haematomma, etc.
(b) Foliose lichen:
These lichens grow on trees in the hilly regions.
The thallus is like a dry forked leaf,
e. g. Parmelia, Collema, Peltigera
(c) Fruticose lichen:
These lichens are seen on the branches of trees hanging down.
They are cylindrical, well branched and pendulous, with hair-like outgrowths,
e. g. Usnea, Cladonia, Alectoria, etc.

3. Economic importance of lichens:

(a) Lichen as food and fodder:
Many species of lichens are used as food by animals including man. Lichens contain a substance lichenin which is similar to carbohydrate making them edible. Parmelia is used in curry powder in India. Lichens like Cladonia, Citraria, Evernia, Parmelia are used as fodder as they form a favourite food for reindeers and cattles.

(b) Lichens in medicine:
Lichens contain usnic acid due to which they are used in medicines. Usnea and Cladonia species are used as an antibiotic against Gram positive bacteria.
Species like Lobaria, Citraria are useful in respiratory disease like T.B., Peltigera is useful in hydrophobia, Parmelia is used in treatment of epilepsy, whereas Usnea is used in urinary disease. Some lichens are also used in medicine due to their anticarcinogenic property.

(c) Industrial use of lichens:
1. Lichens are used in various dyes for colouring fabrics.
2. Species like Rocella and Lasallia are used in preparation of litmus paper which is acid-base indicator.
3. In Sweden and Russia, lichens are used for production of alcohol.
4. Orcein is a biological stain obtained from Orchrolechia androgyna and O. tortaria.
5. Some lichens are also used in tanning process in leather industry.
6. Evernia and Ramalina are the sources of essential oils which are used in preparation of soaps and other cosmetics.

(d) Other uses of lichens:
1. Lichens are used in cosmetics.
2. Some lichens like Everniaprunastri also known as oakmoss is used in making perfumes.
3. Lichen is also used as a preservative for beer.

11th Biology Digest Chapter 2 Systematics of Living Organisms Intext Questions and Answers

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 7)

Enlist uses of taxonomy?
Answer:
Uses of taxonomy are as follows:

It is used to assign each organism an appropriate place in a systematic framework of classification.
It is used to group animals and plants by their characteristics and relationships.
It is used to classify organisms based upon their similarities and differences.
It is used for nomenclature of an organism. Assigning a name to an organism is essential for its identification without confusion throughout the scientific world.
It is used to serve as an instrument for identification of an organisms. A newly isolated organism can be placed to its nearest relative or can be identified as a new organism with unknown characteristics.
It becomes easier to understand the evolutionary trends in different groups of organisms.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 7)

Which characters of organisms are visible characters?
Answer:
The visible characters of organisms include habit, colour, mode of respiration, growth, reproduction, etc.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 7)

What is evolution?
Answer:

It is believed that the life originated on earth in its very simple form.
Constant struggle of the early living beings gave rise to more and more perfect forms of life.
This struggle and progress are evolution which led to formation of diverse life forms.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 7)

What is DNA barcoding?
Answer:
DNA barcoding is a new method for identification of any species based on its DNA sequence, which is obtained from a tiny tissue sample of the organism under study.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 7)

Name the recent approaches in taxonomy.
Answer:
The recent approaches in taxonomy includes:

Morphological Approach
Embryological Approach
Ecological Approach
Behavioral Approach / Ethological Approach
Genetical Approach / Cytological Approach
Biochemical Approch
Numerical Taxonomy

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 9)

Make a flow chart showing taxonomic hierarchy.
Answer:
Kingdom → Sub-kingdom → Division / Phylum → Class → Cohort / Order → Family Genus → Species

Do Yourself (Textbook Page No. 16)

Complete the table (given on textbook Page No.16) through collecting information about sunflower, tiger with characteristic features.
(i) Sunflower:

Category	Taxon	Characteristics
Kingdom	Plantae	Autotrophic, photosynthetic, cell wall present.
Sub-kingdom	Phanerogamae	Seed producing plants, reproductive structures are visible.
Division	Angiospermae	Seeds are enclosed within the fruit.
Class	Dicotyledonae	Two cotyledons, tap root system, reticulate venation, pentamerous symmetry of flower, vascular bundle open.
Order	Asterales	Capitulum inflorescence, showing ray florets and disc florets.
Family	Asteraceae	Aster family
Genus	Helianthus	–
Species	annuus	–

(ii) Tiger:

Category	Taxon	Characteristics
Kingdom	Animalia	Multicellular eukaryotes, cell wall absent, heterotrophic nutrition.
Phylum	Chordata	Notochord present
Class	Mammalia	Presence of mammary gland
Order	Carnivora	Carnivorous in nature
Family	Felidae	Cat-like mammals
Genus	Panthera	Large cats
Species	tigris	–

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 9)

Why horse and ass are considered to be two different species or animals?
Answer:
1. Species is a group of organisms that can interbreed under natural conditions to produce fertile offsprings.
2. Horse and ass (donkey) are considered to be two different species or animals, because they cannot interbreed under natural condition to produce fertile offspring.

Internet my friend: (Textbook Page No. 9)

(i) Collect the information about most recent system of classification of living organisms and Kingdom System of Classification, e.g. Search for APG system of classification for Plants.
Answer:
[Note: Students are expected to collect more information about most recent system of classification of living organisms and Kingdom System of Classification from internet on their own.]

(ii) Collect the information about classification systems for all types of organisms.
Answer:
[Note: Students are expected to collect more information about classification systems for all types of organisms from internet on their own.]

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 6)

What is Five Kingdom system of classification?
Answer:
Five kingdom system of classification was proposed by R.H. Whittaker in 1969. This system shows the phylogenetic relationship between the organisms.
The five kingdoms are:

Kingdom Monera
Kingdom Protista
Kingdom Plantae
Kingdom Fungi
Kingdom Animalia

Can you tell (Textbook Page No. 14)

Classify fungi into their types.
Answer:
Fungi are classified into four types on the basis of their structure, mode of spore formation and fruiting bodies as follows:
1. Phycomycetes:
Members of this class are commonly called as algal fungi.
These are consisting of aseptate coenocytic hyphae.
They grow well in moist and damp places on decaying organic matter as well as in aquatic habitats or as parasites on plants.
e.g. Mucor, Rhizopus (bread mold), Albugo (parasitic fungus on mustard).

2. Ascomycetes:
These are commonly called as sac fungi.
These are multicellular. Rarely they are unicellular (e.g. Yeast).
Hyphae are branched and septate.
They can be decomposers, parasites or coprophilous (grow on dung).
Some varieties of this class are consumed as delicacies such as morels and truffles.
Neurospora is useful in genetic and biochemical assays.
e.g. Aspergillus, Penicillium, Neurospora, Claviceps, Saccharomyces (unicellular ascomycetes).

3. Basidiomycetes:
These are commonly called as club fungi.
They have branched septate hyphae.
e.g. Agaricus (mushrooms), Ganoderma (bracket fungi), Ustilago (smuts), Puccinia (rusts), etc.

4. Deuteromycetes:
It is a group of fungi which are known to reproduce only asexually.
They are commonly called imperfect fungi.
They are mainly decomposers, while few are parasitic, e.g. Alternaria.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 14)

Write a note on economic importance of fungi.
Answer:
Economic importances of fungi are as follows:
1. Role of fungi in medicine:
(a) Antibiotic penicillin is obtained from Penicillium.
(b) Drugs like cyclosporine, immunosuppressant drugs, precursors of steroid hormones, etc are isolated from fungi.

3. Role of fungi in food:
(a) Fungi like mushrooms are consumed as a food. These are rich source of protein.
(b) Fungi genus Penicillium helps in ripening of cheese.

4. Role of fungi as biocontrol agents:
(a) Fungi help to control growth of weeds.
(b) Pathogenic fungi like Fusarium sp., Phytophthorapalmivora, Alternaria crassa, etc act as mycoherbicides.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 14)

Why are fungi considered as heterotrophic organisms?
Answer:
In fungi, chloroplast is absent, thus they cannot synthesize their own food by photosynthesis. Fungi decompose the organic matter by breaking down with the help of enzymes from which they absorb nutrients. Thus, exhibiting heterotrophic mode of nutrition.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 14)

What are coenocytic hyphae?
Answer:
1. In filamentous fungi, body consists of mycelium which is formed by a network of hyphae.
2. When these hyphae are non-septate, multinucleated, they are known as coenocytic hyphae.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 14)

(i) How are fungi different from plants?
Answer:
Fungi are different from plants because:
(a) They lack chloroplast hence, do not perform photosynthesis and are heterotrophic in nutrition. Whereas plants are autotrophic and prepare their own food by photosynthesis.
(b) They are separated from Plantae based on their saprophytic mode of nutrition.
(c) Fungi are decomposers of ecosystem whereas plants are producers of ecosystem.
(d) In fungi, cell wall is made up of fungal cellulose or chitin. Whereas in plants, cell wall is made up of cellulose and pectic compounds.

(ii) Have you seen any diseased plant in your farm?
Answer:
Yes, I have seen some diseased plants in our farm.
There are different pathogens like fungi, bacteria, viruses that cause diseases in plants.
The common plant diseases are:
(a) Leaf rust disease: It is caused by fungus Puccinia triticina. It is the most common rust disease of wheat.
(b) Blight disease in rice: It is caused by harmful bacteria Xanthomonas oryzae. It causes wilting of seedlings and yellowing and drying of leaves.
(c) Early blight of potato: It is caused by fungi Alternaria solani. It causes ‘bulls eye’ patterned leaf spots and tuber blight on potato.
(d) Crown gall disease: It is caused by Agrobacterium tumefaciens. This pathogen infects the plant and forms rough surfaced galls on stem and roots.
[Students are expected to write their observations about diseased plants found informs]

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 14)

Complete the following table:
Answer:

Plantae	Animalia
1. Autotrophic mode of nutrition.	Heterotrophic mode of nutrition.
2. They do not show locomotion.	They show locomotion.
3. Cell wall is present.	Cell wall is absent.
4. Chloroplast present.	Chloroplast absent.
5. They do not possess nervous system.	They possess well developed nervous system, i
6. Reproduction can be both sexual and asexual.	Mainly shows sexual reproduction.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 15)

Why are viruses called infectious nucleoproteins?
Answer:
1. Viruses are acellular, highly infectious and ultramicroscopic.
2. Viruses possess their own genetic material in the form of either DNA or RNA, but never both. The genetic material in viruses is covered by a protein coat (capsid), hence called nucleoprotein.
3. They do not show any activity outside the body of host but once they enter their specific host cell, they start multiplying within the living host cells.
4. Viruses lack their own metabolic machinery, they make use of the cellular machinery of the host i.e. ribosome for the synthesis of protein during their reproduction and therefore, they cause severe infection. Thus, they are called infectious nucleoproteins.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 15)

Describe genetic material in plant and animal viruses as well as in bacteriophages.
Answer:
The genetic material in different viruses is as given below:
1. Plant virus: (b) Majority of plant viruses have RNA as their genetic material. (Exception: Cauliflower Mosaic Virus has double-stranded DNA as genetic material)
2. Animal virus: (b) They have either DNA or RNA as genetic material.
3. Bacteriophage: (d) Bacteriophages have double-stranded DNA as the genetic material.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 15)

Differentiate between viruses and viroids.
Answer:

Viruses	Viroids
1. They have high molecular weight.	They have low molecular weight.
2. They are larger in size.	They are smaller in size.
3. They can infect plant, animals and bacteria.	They mainly infect plants.
4. The genetic material can be ss-RNA, ds-RNA or DNA.	The genetic material is single stranded circular RNA.
5. Protein coat is present.	Protein coat is absent.
6. mosaic disease is a plant disease caused by viruses.	Tomato chloric dwarf is a plant disease caused by viroids.

Internet my friend. (Textbook Page No. 15)

In modern medicine, certain infectious neurological diseases were found to be transmitted by abnormally folded proteins. These proteins are called prions. The word prion comes from ‘proteinaceous infectious particle’, e.g. mad cow disease in cattle, Jacob’s disease in human.
Find more information about prions.
Answer:
Prions:
1. A prion is a misfolded form of a protein generally present in brain cells.
2. When the prion gets into a cell containing the normal form of the protein, the prion somehow converts normal protein molecules to the misfolded prion versions.
3. Several prions then aggregate into a complex that can convert other normal proteins to prions.
4. Prions can be transmitted through blood, surgical instruments and contaminated food.
5. Diseases caused by prions are Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy in cattles, Kuru and Creutzfeldt – Jakob disease in humans.
[Note: Students are expected to search for more information about Prions on internet]

11th Std Biology Questions And Answers:

11th Biology Chapter 11 Exercise Study of Animal Type: Cockroach Solutions Maharashtra Board

January 7, 2025January 6, 2025 by Bhagya

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Biology Textbook Solutions Chapter 11 Study of Animal Type: Cockroach Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Study of Animal Type: Cockroach Class 11 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Class 11 Biology Chapter 11 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Biology Class 11 Chapter 11 Exercise Solutions

Question (A)
Chemical nature of chitin is ____________ .
(A) protein
(B) carbohydrate
(C) lipid
(D) glycoprotein
Answer:
(B) carbohydrate & (D) glycoprotein

Question (B)
Cockroach has ___________ type of mouthparts.
(A) sponging
(B) chewing and biting
(C) piercing and sucking
(D) lapping
Answer:
(B) chewing and biting

Question (C)
Spiracle is a part of ________ system of cockroach.
(A) circulatory
(B) respiration
(C) reproductive
(D) nervous
Answer:
(B) respiration

Question (D)
________ is a part of digestive system.
(A) Trachea
(B) Hypopharynx
(C) Haemocyte
(D) Seminal vesicle
Answer:
(B) Hypopharynx

Question (E)
_________ is also called as brain of cockroach.
(A) Supra-oesophageal ganglion
(B) Sub-oesophageal ganglion
(C) Hypo-cerebral ganglion
(D) Thoracic ganglion
Answer:
(A) Supra-oesophageal ganglion

2. Answer the following questions

Question (A)
Describe the digestive system of cockroach.
OR
With the help of neat and labelled diagram, describe the digestive system of cockroach.
Answer:
1. Digestive system of cockroach consists of mouthparts, alimentary canal and salivary glands.
2. Mouthparts: Pre-oral cavity present in front of the mouth receives food. It is bounded by chewing and biting type of mouth parts.
These are movable, segmented appendages that help in ingestion of food. The mouthparts of cockroach comprises of:
(a) Labrum: It forms the upper lip. It is a single flap-like movable part which covers the mouth from upper side. It forms an anterior wall of pre¬oral cavity.
Function: It is useful in holding the food during feeding.

(b) Mandibles: These are two dark, hard, chitinous structures with serrated median margins.They are true jaws present on either side, behind the labrum.
Function: They perform co-ordinated side-wise movements with the help of adductor and abductor muscles to cut and crush the food.

(c) Maxillae: These are the accesssory jaws. They are also called as first pair of maxillae. These are situated on the either side of mouth behind the mandibles. Each maxilla consists of sclerites like cardo, stipes, galea, lacinia and maxillary palps.
Functions: Maxillae hold food, help mandibles for mastication. They are also used for cleaning the antennae and front legs. Maxillary palps act as tactile organs.

(d) Labium: It forms the lower lip. Labium is also known as second maxilla which covers the pre-oral cavity from the ventral side. It is firmly attached to the posterior part of head. It has three jointed labial palps which are sensory in function.
Function: It is useful in pushing the chewed food in the pre-oral cavity. It prevents the loss of food falling from the mandibles, while chewing.

(e) Hypopharynx: Hypopharynx is also known as lingua. It is a somewhat cylindrical single structure, located in front of the labium and between first maxillae. The salivary duct opens at the base of hypopharynx. Hypopharynx bears comb-like plates called super-lingua on either side. Hypopharynx is present at the centre of the mouth.
Function: It is useful in the process of feeding and mixing saliva with food.

3. Alimentary canal: It is long a (6 – 7cm) tube of different diameters with two openings.

4. The alimentary canal is divisible into three parts: foregut, midgut and hindgut
(a) Foregut or stomodaeum: It consists of pharynx, oesophagus, crop and gizzard.
1. Pharynx: It is very short, narrow but muscular tube that opens into oesophagus.
Function: Conduction of food into the oesophagus.
2. Oesophagus: It is slightly long and narrow tube which opens into crop.
3. Crop: Crop is a large, pear shaped and sac- like organ.
Function: It temporarily stores the food and then sends it to gizzard.
4. Gizzard: Gizzard or proventricuius is a small spherical organ. It is provided internally with a circlet of six chitinous teeth and backwardly directed bristles.The foregut ends with gizzard.
Function: The chitinous teeth present in gizzard are responsible for crushing the food and the bristles help to filter the food.

(b) Midgut or mesenteron: It consists of stomach and hepatic caeca.
1. Ventriculus or stomach: It is straight, short and narrow. Stomach is lined by glandular epithelium which secretes digestive enzymes.
Function: It is mainly responsible for digestion and absorption.
2. Hepatic caeca: These are thin, transparent, short, blind (closed) and hollow tubules.
Function: They secrete digestive enzymes.

(c) Hindgut or proctodaeum : It consists of ileum, colon and rectum.
1 Ileum: It is short and narrow part of hindgut. Malpighian tubules open in the anterior lumen of ileum, near the junction of midgut and hindgut. Posterior region of ileum contains sphincter.
Ileum directs the nitrogenous wastes and undigested food towards colon.
2. Colon: It is a longer and wider part of the hindgut. It directs waste material towards the rectum. It reabsorbs water from wastes as per the need.
3. Rectum: It is oval or spindle-shaped, terminal part of the hindgut. It contains six rectal pads along the internal surface for absorption of water. Rectum opens into anus. Anus is present on the ventral side of the 10th segment. It is the last or posterior opening of the digestive system. The undigested food is released out of the body through anus.

5. Salivary glands:
a. Cockroach has a pair of salivary glands which secrete saliva.
b. Each salivary gland has two glandular lobes and a receptacle or reservoir.
c. The glandular lobes consists of several irregular-shaped white coloured lobules which secrete saliva.
d. Each gland has a salivary duct.
Both the ducts unite to form a common salivary duct.
e. Receptacle of each salivary gland is thin-walled, elongated, sac-like structure. Each receptacle has a duct. These ducts unite to form common reservoir duct.
f. Common salivary duct and common reservoir duct unite together to form a common efferent salivary duct. The efferent salivary duct opens at the base of tongue or hypopharynx.

Question (B)
Give an account on tracheal system of cockroach.
Answer:
1. Cockroach has an internal respiratory system of air tubes called tracheal system by which the air is brought into the body and is in contact with every part of the body. It allows the exchange of gases directly between the air and tissues without the need of blood.
These air tubes of internal respiratory system begin at the opening on body surface called spiracles.

2. Spiracles: They are paired respiratory openings. Spiracles are present on the ventro-lateral side of the body, in pleural membrane. Cockroaches have two pairs of thoracic and eight pairs of abdominal spiracles.The spiracles open into a series of air sacs from which arise the tubes called trachea. The spiracles let the air into and out of trachea.

3. Trachea: The trachea form a definite pattern of branching tubes arranged transversely as well as longitudinally. They are about 1mm thick and have spiral or annular thickening of chitin. The inner lining of chitin prevents the trachea from collapsing. Each trachea further branches into smaller tubes called tracheoles.

4. Tracheoles: These are fine intracellular tubes that penetrate deep into tissues. They are thin and not lined by chitin. They end blindly in the cells. Each tracheole at the blind end is filled with a watery fluid through which exchange of gases takes place. The content of this fluid keeps changing. At high muscular activity, part of fluid part is drawn into the tissues to enable more and rapid oxygen intake.

Question (C)
Describe the nervous system of cockroach.
Answer:
Nervous system in cockroach:
Nervous system of cockroach is ventral, solid and ganglionated. It consists of central nervous system (CNS), peripheral nervous system (PNS) and autonomous nervous system (ANS).
Central nervous system (CNS): Central nerv ous system consists of nerve ring and ventral nerve cord.
1. Nerve ring consists of:
a. a pair of supra-oesophageal ganglia
b. a pair of circum-oesophageal connectives
c. a pair of sub-oesophageal ganglia
(a) Supra-oesophageal ganglia or cerebral ganglia: A pair of supra-oesophageal ganglia is collectively known as the brain. Brain is present in head, above the oesophagus and between antennal bases. Each supra-oesophageal ganglion is formed by the fusion of three small ganglia – protocerebram, deutocerebrum and tritocerebrum.
(b) Circum-oesophageal connectives: Supra-oesophageal ganglia are connected to sub-oesophageal ganglion by a pair of lateral nerves called as circum-oesophageal connectives. Connectives arise from supra-oesophagial ganglia.
(c) Sub-oesophageal ganglia: It is a bilobed and present below the oesophagus, in head. It is also formed by the fusion of three pairs of ganglia.

2. Ventral nerve cord:
a. It arises from the sub-oesophageal ganglion. It is present along mid-ventral position, in perineural sinus.
b. It is double ventral nerve cord and consists of nine segmental, paired ganglia.
c. First three pairs of segmental ganglia are large and known as thoracic ganglia. The other six pairs of segmental ganglia are in abdomen (abdominal ganglia).
d. 6th abdominal ganglion is the largest and it is present in 7th abdominal segment.
e. There is no ganglion in 6th segment.

Peripheral nervous system (PNS):

The peripheral nervous system comprises of nerves that arise from various ganglia of CNS.
Six pairs of nerves arise from the supra-oesophageal ganglia.They supply to the eyes, antenna and labrum.
Nerves arising from the sub-oesophageal ganglion supply to the mandibles, maxillae and labium.
Nerves arising from the thoracic ganglia supply to the wings, legs and internal thoracic organs.
Nerves from abdominal ganglia go to the abdominal organs of respective abdominal segments.
Autonomic nervous system (ANS): It consists of four ganglia and a retrocerebral complex.

The ganglia are as follows:

Frontal ganglion: It is present above the pharynx and in front of brain.
Hypocerebral ganglion: It is present on the anterior region of oesophagus.
Ingluvial ganglion: It is present on crop. It is also called as visceral ganglion.
Ventricular ganglion: It is present on gizzard.

Question (D)
With the help of neat labelled diagram, describe female reproductive system of cockroach.
Answer:

Female reproductive system of cockroach consists a pair of ovaries, a pair of oviducts, vagina, spermatheca and accessory glands.
Ovaries are primary reproductive organs. They are paired and lie lateral in position in 2nd – 6lh abdominal segments. Each ovary is formed of a group of 8 ovarian tubules or ovarioles, containing a chain of developing ova. All ovarioles of an ovary open in lateral oviduct of respective side.
The lateral oviducts unite to form a common oviduct or vagina.
Common oviduct or vagina opens into the Bursa copulatrix (genital chamber), the female organ of copulation.
Spermatheca, is a sperm storing structure present in the 6th segment opens into genital chamber. It receives the sperms during copulation and store them for fertilization.
Collaterial glands are accessory paired glands that open in genital chamber.
Female gonapophyses consists of six chitinous plates surrounding the genital pore.
In males, genital pouch or genital chamber lies at the hind end of abdomen which is bounded dorsally by 9th and 10th terga and ventrally b; male genital pore and gonapophysis.

Question (E)
Draw a labelled diagram of digestive system of a cockroach.
Answer:
1. Digestive system of cockroach consists of mouthparts, alimentary canal and salivary glands.
2. Mouthparts: Pre-oral cavity present in front of the mouth receives food. It is bounded by chewing and biting type of mouth parts.
These are movable, segmented appendages that help in ingestion of food. The mouthparts of cockroach comprises of:
(a) Labrum: It forms the upper lip. It is a single flap-like movable part which covers the mouth from upper side. It forms an anterior wall of pre¬oral cavity.
Function: It is useful in holding the food during feeding.
(b) Mandibles: These are two dark, hard, chitinous structures with serrated median margins.They are true jaws present on either side, behind the labrum.
Function: They perform co-ordinated side-wise movements with the help of adductor and abductor muscles to cut and crush the food.
(c) Maxillae: These are the accesssory jaws. They are also called as first pair of maxillae. These are situated on the either side of mouth behind the mandibles. Each maxilla consists of sclerites like cardo, stipes, galea, lacinia and maxillary palps.
Functions: Maxillae hold food, help mandibles for mastication. They are also used for cleaning the antennae and front legs. Maxillary palps act as tactile organs.
(d) Labium: It forms the lower lip. Labium is also known as second maxilla which covers the pre-oral cavity from the ventral side. It is firmly attached to the posterior part of head. It has three jointed labial palps which are sensory in function.
Function: It is useful in pushing the chewed food in the pre-oral cavity. It prevents the loss of food falling from the mandibles, while chewing.
(e) Hypopharynx: Hypopharynx is also known as lingua. It is a somewhat cylindrical single structure, located in front of the labium and between first maxillae. The salivary duct opens at the base of hypopharynx. Hypopharynx bears comb-like plates called super-lingua on either side. Hypopharynx is present at the centre of the mouth.
Function: It is useful in the process of feeding and mixing saliva with food,

3. Alimentary canal: It is long a (6 – 7cm) tube of different diameters with two openings.

4. The alimentary canal is into three parts: foregut, midgut and hindgut
(a) Foregut or stomodaeum: It consists of pharynx, oesophagus, crop and gizzard.
1. Pharynx: It is very short, narrow but muscular tube that opens into oesophagus.
Function: Conduction of food into the oesophagus.
2. Oesophagus: It is slightly long and narrow tube which opens into crop.
3. Crop: Crop is a large, pear shaped and sac- like organ.
Function: It temporarily stores the food and then sends it to gizzard.
4. Gizzard: Gizzard or proventricuius is a small spherical organ. It is provided internally with a circlet of six chitinous teeth and backwardly directed bristles.The foregut ends with gizzard.
Function: The chitinous teeth present in gizzard are responsible for crushing the food and the bristles help to filter the food.

Question (F)
A student observed that the cockroaches are killed for dissection by simply putting them in soap water. He inquired whether soap is so poisonous. Teacher said it is due to its peculiar respiratory system. How?
Answer:
Cockroaches when put in soap solution, the solution enters into their body through the small respiratory openings called spiracles. The spiracles lead to trachea which further branches into smaller tubes called tracheoles. Each of these tracheoles has body fluid which acts as a stationary medium for diffusion. The soap solution rapidly diffuses through the entire respiratory system which may result in suffocation and eventually lead to the death of cockroach.

Question (G)
Describe the circulatory system of cockroach.
Answer:

1. Haemolymph: Haemolymph is colourless as it is without any pigment. It consists of plasma and seven types of blood cells/haemocytes. Plasma consists of water with some dissolved organic and inorganic solutes. It is rich in nutrients and nitrogenous wastes like uric acid.Cockroach has open circulatory system. It consists of colourless blood (haemolymph), a dorsal blood vessel (heart and dorsal aorta) and haemocoel.

2. Haemocoel: The body cavity of cockroach (haemocoel) can be divided into three sinuses due to two diaphragms i.e. dorsal and ventral diaphragm. These diaphragms are thin, fibromuscular septa (sing.septum)
which remain attached to terga along lateral sides at intermittent points.
(a) Dorsal diaphragm: It has 12 pairs (10 abdominal and 2 thoracic) of fan-like alary muscles. Alary muscles are triangular with pointed end attached to terga at lateral side and broad end lies between the heart and dorsal diaphragm.
(b) Ventral diaphragm: It is flat and present just above the ventral nerve cord. Laterally, it is attached to sterna at intermittent points.
(e) Sinuses: The coelom of cockroach is divided into three sinuses – pericardial sinus, perivisceral sinus and perineural sinus.

1. Pericardial sinus: It is dorsal, very small and contains dorsal vessel.
2. Perivisceral sinus: It is middle and largest sinus. It contains fat bodies and almost all major visceral organs of alimentary canal and reproductive system.
3. Perineural sinus: It is ventral, small and contains ventral nerve cord. It is continuous into legs. All the three sinuses communicate with each other through the pores present between two successive points of attachments of diaphragms.
4. Dorsal blood vessel: This is present in pericardial sinus, just below the tergum. It is divisible into posterior heart and anterior aorta (dorsal aorta/cephalic vessel).
(a) Heart: It is about 2.5 cm long, narrow, muscular tube that is open anteriorly and closed posteriorly. It starts from 9th abdominal segment and extends anteriorly upto 1st thoracic segment. Heart of cockroach is 13 chambered, out of which 10 chambers are in abdominal region and 3 chambers are in thoracic region. Each chamber has a pair of vertical slit-like incurrent aperture or opening called ostium (plural: ostia). Ostia are present along lateral side in the posterior region of first 12 chambers. Each ostium has lip-like valves that allow the flow of blood from sinus to heart only.
(b) Anterior aorta: Heart is continued by a short, thin-walled vessel called dorsal aorta. It lies in head region and opens in haemocoel.

3. Answer the following questions

Question (A)
How will you identify male or female cockroach?
Answer:
Male and female cockroach can be identified with the help of following differences:

Male cockroach	Female cockroach
1. Abdomen is relatively long and narrow.	Abdomen is short and broad.
2. 7th tergum covers 8,h tergum.	7th tergum covers 8th and 9th terga.
3. Antennae are longer in size.	Antennae are shorter in size.
4. Anal styles are present.	Anal styles are absent.
5. Brood pouch is absent.	Brood pouch is present.
6. All 9 sterna visible.	Only 7 sterna visible.

Question (B)
Write a note on: Gizzard of cockroach.
Answer:
Gizzard: Gizzard or proventricuius is a small spherical organ. It is provided internally with a circlet of six chitinous teeth and backwardly directed bristles.The foregut ends with gizzard.
Function: The chitinous teeth present in gizzard are responsible for crushing the food and the bristles help to filter the food.

Question (C)
Give the systematic position of cockroach.
Answer:
Systematic position of cockroach:

Classi	fication	Reasons
Kingdom	Animalia	Cell wall absent, heterotrophic nutrition.
Phylum	Arthropoda	They have jointed appendages. Body is chitinous and segmented.
Class	Insecta	They possess two pairs of wings and three pairs of walking legs.
Genus	Periplaneta	Straight wings and nocturnal.
Species	americana	Originated in the continent of America.

Question (D)
What would have happened if cockroach did not have gizzard?
Answer:
1. The gizzard in cockroach is a spherical organ which has chitinous teeth and bristles.
2. The chitinous teeth present in gizzard are responsible for crushing the food and the bristles help to filter the food.
3. If the cockroach did not have gizzard, the food will not be crushed into small particles and unfiltered food will enter the hindgut. Thus, digestion will be affected in the absence of gizzard.

Question (E)
What is the functional difference between eyes of cockroach and human being?
Answer:
1. Cockroaches have compound eyes whereas humans have simple eyes.
2. Eyes of cockroach possess several ommatidia that collectively form an image and help them to detect even the slightest movement of its predator. They provide mosaic or hazy vision.
3. Human eyes contain single lens and a clear image is formed on the retina. Humans have binocular vision which provides an improved perception of depth and gives a three-dimensional image of their surroundings.

Question (F)
What is the functional difference between respiratory systems of cockroach and human being?
Answer:
The functional difference between the respiratory systems of cockroach and human being is that in respiratory system of cockroach transport of gases does not occur via. blood whereas in human respiratory system transport of gases takes place via blood. In cockroach, the circulatory system has no role in respiratory process whereas in humans, circulatory system plays an important in respiratory process.

4. Explain the following in short.

Question (A)
What are anal cerci?
Answer:
1. Anal cerci are a pair of appendages at the end of the abdomen that arise from the 10th segment of the body of both male and female cockroach.
2. They are sensitive to wind movements and detect vibrations.

Question (B)
What is ganglion?
Answer:
1. Ganglion is a group of nerve cell bodies.
2. It represents the brain in advanced invertebrates.

Question (C)
Write a short note on hypopharynx.
Answer:
Hypopharynx: Hypopharynx is also known as lingua. It is a somewhat cylindrical single structure, located in front of the labium and between first maxillae. The salivary duct opens at the base of hypopharynx. Hypopharynx bears comb-like plates called super-lingua on either side. Hypopharynx is present at the centre of the mouth.
Function: It is useful in the process of feeding and mixing saliva with food.

Question (D)
What is mesentron?
Answer:
Midgut or mesenteron: It consists of stomach and hepatic caeca.
1. Ventriculus or stomach: It is straight, short and narrow. Stomach is lined by glandular epithelium which secretes digestive enzymes.
Function: It is mainly responsible for digestion and absorption.
2. Hepatic caeca: These are thin, transparent, short, blind (closed) and hollow tubules.
Function: They secrete digestive enzymes.

Question (E)
Location of tergum.
Answer:
1. Tergum is a chitinous plate located in the abdomen of cockroach.
2. The abdomen is elongated and made up of ten segments. Each segment has a dorsal tergum and ventral sternum. Tergum is jointed to the sternum laterally by a soft cuticle called pleura.

Question (F)
What is ootheca?
Answer:
1. The secretion of collaterial glands forms a capsule around them is called as ootheca or egg case.
2. It is about 8 mm long and ranges from dark reddish to blackish brown.
3. Ootheca contains 14 to 16 fertilized eggs in two rows.
4. They are dropped or glued to a suitable surface, like a crack or crevice with good humidity near a food source.
5. A female cockroach on an average, produces 9 to 10 oothecae during its lifespan.

Question (G)
How many chambers are present in heart of a cockroach?
Answer:
13 chambers are present in heart of a cockroach, out of which 10 chambers are in abdominal region and 3 are in thoracic region.

Practical/Project:

Question 1.
Visit to nearest sericulture farm and study the life cycle of silk worm.
Answer:

The life cycle of the silk moth consists of four stages namely, egg, larva, pupa and adult.
Thousands of eggs deposited by female moths are incubated artificially to reduce the incubation period.
Larvae hatching out of eggs are released on mulberry plants to obtain nourishment from mulberry leaves.
After feeding for 3 – 4 weeks, larvae move to branches of mulberry plant.
The silk thread is formed from the secretion of salivary glands of larvae.
Larvae spin this thread around themselves forming a cocoon, which may be spherical in shape.
Ten days before the pupa turns into an adult, all the cocoons are transferred into boiling water.
Due to the boiling water, the pupa dies in the cocoon and silk fibres become loose.
These fibres are then unwound, processed and reeled.
Different kinds of fabric are woven from silk threads.

[The life cycle of silkworm is given for reference. Students are expected to visit the nearest sericulture farm and attempt this activity on their own.]

11th Biology Digest Chapter 11 Study of Animal Type: Cockroach Intext Questions and Answers

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 127)

How many different types of animals are present around us?
Answer:
Animals on earth show great diversity. The different types of animals present around us are;
a. Unicellular and multicellular
b. Prokaryotic and eukaryotic
c. Vertebrates and invertebrates
d. Unisexual and hermaphrodite
e. Aquatic, terrestrial, amphibian, reptilian, aerial, etc.

Can a person do a complete detailed study of each of those animals?
Answer:
Yes, a person can do a complete detailed study of each of those animals. Classification of animals based on characteristics into various groups has made it easier to study them.

Which phylum is most diverse and populous?
Answer:
Phylum Arthropoda is most diverse and populous.

Curiosity box: (Textbook Page No. 127)

Why do insects need moulting?
Answer:
a. Insects undergo metamorphosis (change of form or structure in an individual after hatching or birth). Each time an insect enters the next growth stage it has to molt.
b. Moulting is the process in which formation of new chitinous exoskeleton and subsequent shedding of the old one occurs.
c. The insects need moulting as their exoskeleton is rigid unlike the skin and does not allow the body to grow.

What is the difference between simple and compound eyes?
Answer:

Simple eyes	Compound eyes
1. Simple eyes contain single lens and several sensory cells.	Compound eyes contain several lenses (around 2000) called ommatidia (sing. Ommatidium).
2. Single lens collect light and focuses onto retina to form a single image	Each ommatidium forms an image of an object thereby forming several images of an ob ject.
3. Simple eye does not form a complex image but can detect movement of the object.	Compound eye forms a complex image of an object 1 and detects even a slightest movement of the object.

Use your brainpower. (Textbook Page No. 131)

Why do body cavity of cockroach is called as haemocoel?
Answer:
The body cavity of cockroach is known as haemocoel as it is filled with haemolymph (blood). Cockroaches have open type of circulation thus; the body cavity is filled with haemolymph.

Internet my friend. (Textbook Page No. 136)

Collect the information about techniques and objectives of rearing the cockroaches in countries like China and make a Powerpoint presentation including video clips.
Answer:
1. Cockroach rearing industry is a booming industry in China. Cockroaches are reared in more than hundred farms in China. A giant farm in China produces around 6 billion cockroaches.
2. It is believed that cockroaches can be used to prepare a medicine that can prevent stomach cancer. They are also used to treat compost waste.
[Students can search on internet for more information about the techniques and objectives of rearing the cockroaches]

11th Std Biology Questions And Answers:

11th Biology Chapter 14 Exercise Human Nutrition Solutions Maharashtra Board

January 7, 2025January 6, 2025 by Prasanna

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Biology Textbook Solutions Chapter 14 Human Nutrition Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Human Nutrition Class 11 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Class 11 Biology Chapter 14 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Biology Class 11 Chapter 14 Exercise Solutions

1. Choose correct option

Question A.
Acinar cells are present in ……………..
a. liver
b. pancreas
c. gastric glands
d. intestinal glands
Answer:
b. pancreas

Question B.
Which type of teeth are maximum in number in human buccal cavity?
a. Incisors
b. Canines
c. Premolars
d. Molars
Answer:
d. Molars

Question C.
Select odd one out on the basis of digestive functions of tongue.
a. Taste
b. Swallowing
c. Talking
d. Mixing of saliva in food
Answer:
c. Talking

Question D.
Complete the analogy:
Ptyalin: Amylase : : Pepsin : …………….. .
a. Lipase
b. Galactose
c. Proenzyme
d. Protease
Answer:
d. Protease

2. Answer the following questions

Question A.
For the school athletic meet, Shriya was advised to consume either Glucon-D or fruit juice but no sugarcane juice. Why it must be so?
Answer:
Sugarcane juice contain disaccharides. Disaccharides take time to digest i.e. breaking into monosaccharides, Glucon — D and fruit juices contain monosaccharide. Therefore, for instant supply of energy during athletic meet Glucon – D or fruit juices are preferred and not sugarcane.

Question B.
Alcoholic people may suffer from liver disorder. Do you agree? Explain your answer.
Answer:

Liver disorder in alcoholic people may occur after years of heavy drinking.
Most of the alcohol in the body is broken down in the liver by an enzyme called alcohol dehydrogenase, which transforms ethanol into a toxic compound called acetaldehyde (CH₃CHO).
ver consumption of alcohol leads to cirrhosis (distorted or scarred liver) and eventually to liver failure.
Therefore, alcoholic people may suffer from liver disorder.

Question C.
Digestive action of pepsin comes to a stop when food reaches small intestine. Justify.
Answer:
Pepsin acts in acidic medium thus it is active in stomach. There is alkaline condition in the small intestine. pH of small intestine is very high for pepsin to work. Therefore, pepsin gets denatured in the small intestine.

Question D.
Small intestine is very long and coiled. Even if we jump and run, why it does not get twisted? What can happen if it gets twisted?
Answer:

Mesentery is a tissue that is located in the abdomen. It attaches the small intestine to the wall of the abdomen and keeps it in place and therefore it does not get twisted while running and jumping.
If small intestine gets twisted, the affected spot may block the food, liquid passing through it. It may sometimes cut off the blood flow if the twist is very severe. If this happens the surrounding tissue may die and can cause serious problems.

3. Write down the explanation

Question A.
Digestive enzymes are secreted at appropriate time in our body. How does it happen?
Answer:

The digestive enzymes and juices are produced in sequential manner and at a proper time.
These secretions are under neurohormonal control.
Sight, smell and even thought of food trigger saliva secretion.
Tenth cranial nerve stimulates secretion of gastric juice in stomach.
Even the hormone gastrin brings about the same effect.

B. Explain the structure of tooth. Explain why human dentition is considered as thecodont, diphydont and heterodont.
Answer:

Structure of tooth:
- A tooth consists of the portion that projects above the gum called crown and the root that is made up of two or three projections which are embedded in gum.
- A short neck connects the crown with the root.
- The crown is covered by the hardest substance of the body called enamel which is made up of calcium phosphate and calcium carbonate.
- Basic shape of tooth is derived from dentin which is a calcified connective tissue.
- The dentin encloses the pulp cavity. It is filled with connective tissue pulp. It contains blood vessels and nerves.
- Pulp cavity has extension in the root of the tooth called root canal.
- The dentin of the root of tooth is covered by cementurn which is a bone like substance that attaches the root to the surrounding socket in the gum.
Human dentition is described as thecodont, diphyodont and heterodont.
It is called the codont type because each tooth is fixed in a separate socket present in the jaw bones by gomphosis type of joint.
It is called diphyodont type because we get only two sets of teeth, milk teeth and permanent teeth.
It is called heterodont type because humans have four different type of teeth like incisors, canines, premolars and molars.

Question C.
Explain heterocrine nature of pancreas with the help of histological structure.
Answer:
Pancreas:

Pancreas is a leaf shaped heterocrine gland present in the gap formed by bend of duodenum under the stomach.
Exocrine part of pancreas is made up of acini, the acinar cells secrete alkaline pancreatic juice that contains various digestive enzymes.
Pancreatic juice is collected and carried to duodenum by pancreatic duct.
The common bile duct joins pancreatic duct to form hepato-pancreatic duct. It opens into duodenum.
Opening of hepato-pancreatic duct is guarded by sphincter of Oddi.
Endocrine part of pancreas is made up of islets of Langerhans situated between the acini.
It contains three types of cells a-cells which secrete glucagon, P-cells which secretes insulin and 5 cells secrete somatostatin hormone.
Glucagon and insulin together control the blood-sugar level.
Somatostatin hormone inhibits glucagon and insulin secretion.

4. Write short note on

Question A.
Position and function of salivary glands.
Answer:
Salivary Glands:

There are three pairs of salivary glands which open in buccal cavity.
Parotid glands are present in front of the ear.
The submandibular glands are present below the lower jaw.
The glands present below the tongue are called sublingual.
Salivary glands are made up of two types of cells.
Serous cells secrete a fluid containing digestive enzyme called salivary amylase.
Mucous cells produce mucus that lubricates food and helps swallowing.

Question B.
Jaundice
Answer:

Jaundice is a disorder characterized by yellowness of conjunctiva of eyes and skin and whitish stool.
It is a sign of abnormal bilirubin metabolism and excretion.
Jaundice develops if excessive break down of red blood cells takes place along with increased bilirubin level than the liver can handle or there is obstruction in the flow of bile from liver to duodenum.
Bilirubin produced from breakdown of haemoglobin is either water soluble or fat soluble.
Fat soluble bilirubin is toxic to brain cells.
There is no specific treatment to jaundice.
Supportive care, proper rest are the treatments given to the patient.
[Note: Treatment ofjaundice will depend on the underlying cause of it. For example, hepatitis-induced jaundice would require treatment which includes antiviral or steroid medications ]

Question 5.
Observe the diagram. This is histological structure of stomach. Identify and comment on significance of the layer marked by arrow.

Answer:
The layer marked in the diagram represents glandular epithelium of mucosa.
Significance of the glandular epiihelium of mucosa:
Goblet cells of the epithelial layer of a mucous membrane secrete mucus which lubricates the lumen of the alimentary canal. This helps in movement of food through the gastrointestinal tract.

Question 6.
Find out pH maxima for salivary amylase, trypsin, nucleotidase and pepsin and place on the given pH scale

Answer:
Salivary amylase = 6.8
Trypsin = 8
Nucleotidase = 7.5
Pepsin = 2

Question 7.
Write the name of a protein deficiency disorder and write symptoms of it.
Answer:

Kwashiorkor is a protein deficiency disorder.
This protein deficiency disorder is found generally in children between one to three years of age.
Children suffering from Kwashiorkor are underweight and show stunted growth, poor brain development, loss of appetite, anaemia, protruding belly, slender legs, bulging eye, oedema of lower legs and face, change in skin and hair colour.

Question 8.
Observe the diagram given below label the A, B, C, D, E and write the function of A, C in detail.

Answer:
A- Bile duct, B- Stomach, C- Common hepatic duct, D- Pancreas, E- Gall Riadder

Functions: Bile duct: It carries hile from the gall bladder and empties it into the tipper part of the small intestine. Common hepatic duct: It drains bile from the liver. It helps in transportation of waste from liver and helps in digestion by releasing bile.
[Note: Labels (A) and (O) have been modified for the better understanding of the students]

Practical / Project : Here are the events in the process of digestion. Fill in the blanks and complete the flow chart.

Answer:

11th Biology Digest Chapter 14 Human Nutrition Intext Questions and Answers

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 161)

Question 1.
What is nutrition?
Answer:

Nutrition is the sum of the processes by which an organism consumes and utilizes food substances,
WHO defines nutrition as the intake of food, considered in relation to the body’s dietary needs.
The term nutrition includes the process like ingestion, digestion, absorption, assimilation and egestion.

Question 2.
Enlist life processes that provide us energy to perform different activities.
Answer:
The life processes which are essential and provide us energy are nutrition and respiration.

Think about it (Textbook Page No. 161)

Question 1.
Our diet includes all necessary nutrients. Still we need to digest it. Why is it so?
Answer:

Digestion is a very important process of converting complex, noil-diffusible and non-absorbable food substances into simple, diffusible and assimilable substances.
Our diet includes all necessary nutrients, which are in the form of complex substances like carbohydrates, proteins, fats and vitamins.
These complex substances are converted into simple, diffusible and assimilable substances through the process of digestion.
Hence, there is a need for digestion of food.

Human Digestive System (Textbook Page No. 161)

Question 1.
Label the diagram
Answer:

Do you know? (Textbook Page No. 162)

Question 1.
Who controls the deglutition?
Answer:
The process of swallowing is called deglutition. Medulla oblongata controls the deglutition.

Question 2.
Is deglutition voluntary or involuntary?
Answer:

Deglutition consists of three phases: oral phase, pharyngeal phase and oesophagal phase.
The oral phase is voluntary whereas the pharyngeal and oesophagal phases are involuntary.
[Source: Goya!, R. K., & Mashimo, H. (2006,.). Physio!o’ of oral, pharyngeal, and esophageal motility. GI Motility online.]

Use your brain power (Textbook Page No. 165)

Question 1.
Draw a neat labelled diagram of human alimentary canal and associated glands in situ.
Answer:

Question 2.
Write a note on human dentition.
Answer:

Human dentition is described as thecodont, diphyodont and heterodont.
It is called thecodont type because each tooth is fixed in a separate socket present in the jaw bones by gomphosis type of joint.
It is called diphyodont type because we get only two sets of teeth, milk teeth and permanent teeth.
It is called heterodont type because humans have four different type of teeth like incisors, canines, premolars and molars.

Question 3.
Muscularis layer in stomach is thicker than that in intestine. Why is it so?
Answer:
Muscularis layer in stomach is thicker than that of intestine because food is churned and gastric juices are mixed in the stomach whereas in intestine only absorption takes place.

Question 4.
Liver is a vital organ. Justify.
Answer:

Kupffer cells of liver destroy toxic substances, dead and worn-out blood cells and microorganisms.
Bile juice secreted by liver emulsifies fats and makes food alkaline.’
Liver stores excess of glucose in the form of glycogen.
Deamination of excess amino acids to ammonia and its further conversion to urea takes place in liver.
Synthesis of vitamins A, D, K and BI2 takes place in liver.
It also produces blood proteins like prothrombin and fibrinogen.
During early development, it acts as haemopoietic organ.
Therefore, liver is a vital organ.

Internet my friend: (Textbook Page No. 171)

Question 1.
Collect the different videos of functioning of digestive system,
Answer:
[Note: Students can scan the adjacent Q.R code to get conceptual clarity with the aid of a relevant video.]

Find out (Textbook Page No. 162)

Question 1.
What will be the dental formula of a three years old child?
Answer:
The dental formula of a three-year-old child will be: I \(\frac{2}{2}\), C \(\frac{1}{1}\), M \(\frac{2}{2}\) = \(\frac{2,1,2}{2,1,2}\)
i. e. 5 × 2 = 10 teeth in each jaw = 20 teeth.
As a child has 20 teeth by the age of three.

Question 2.
What is dental caries and dental plaque? How can one avoid it?
Answer:

Dental caries are tooth decay or cavities caused by acids secreted by bacteria. Dental caries may be yellow or black in color.
Dental plaques also known as tooth plaque is a soft, sticky film which forms on the teeth regularly. It is colourless to pale yellow in colour.
Tooth decay and dental plaque can be prevented by brushing teeth twice a day with a fluoride containing tooth paste.
Rinsing mouth thoroughly with a mouth wash and use of dental floss or interdental cleaners to clean teeth daily can help to avoid dental caries and dental plaque.

Internet my friend (Textbook Page No. 162)

Question 1.
Find out the role of orthodontist and dental technician.
Answer:
a. Orthodontics is a specialization in dental profession. Orthodontist straightens the crooked teeth, locates problem in patients’ teeth and their overall oral development. They might use X-rays, plaster molds or dental appliances like retainers and space maintainers to correct the problems,

b. Dental technicians are the ones which improves patients’ appearance, ability to chew and speech. They make dentures, crowns, bridges and dental braces.

Question 2.
What is a root canal treatment?
Answer:

Root canal treatment is also known as endodontic treatment.
It is a dental treatment of removing infection from inside of a tooth.
Root canal is hollow section of tooth which contains the nerve tissue, blood vessels and other cells, this is also known as pulps.
Crown and root are a part of tooth. Crown is present above the gum while root is embedded in the gum.
e. Pulp which is present inside the root canal nourishes the tooth and provides moisture to the surrounding material.
The nerves present inside the pulp sense hot cold temperatures as pain.
First step of a root canal treatment is removal of dead pulp tissues by making a hole on the surface of tooth.
In second step, the dentist cleans and decontaminates the area and fills the hollow area with adhesive cement in order to seal the canal completely.
The tooth is dead after the therapy and the patient no longer feel any pain but the tooth becomes more fragile than ever.
The last step of root canal is adding a crown or filling. Until the crown or filling is complete, patient is not supposed to chew or bite using that tooth. After the crown or filling patient can use that tooth as before.

Find out (Textbook Page No. 163)

Question 1.
You must have heard about appendicitis. It is inflammation of appendix. Find more information about this disorder.
Answer:

Appendicitis is a condition where there is inflammation of appendix.
Appendix is a vestigial organ. It is a linger shaped pouch that projects from colon on the lower right side of the abdomen.
Appendicitis pain is very severe. It initially starts from the navel and then moves.
It occurs in the people of age group between 10 to 30.
Surgical removal is the standard treatment for appendicitis.
Symptoms: Nausea and vomiting, loss of appetite, low grade fever, constipation, abdominal bloating, severe pain in the right side of the abdomen.
Appendicitis is caused when there is blockage in the lining of the appendix that results in infection. The bacteria multiply rapidly and causes inflammation and it is then filled with pus.
If not treated properly appendix can rupture which can lead to further complications.
[Students can use above answer for reference and find more information about appendicitis.]

Question 2.
What is heartburn? Why do we take antacids to control it?
Answer:
Heart burn is a problem created when stomach contents (acid) are forced back up to oesophagus. It causes a burning pain in lower chest.

Antacids are bases and help to treat heartburn by neutralizing the stomach acid. The key ingredients of antacids are calcium carbonate, magnesium hydroxide, aluminium hydroxide or sodium bicarbonate.

Activity (Textbook Page No. 163)

Make a model of human digestive system in a group.
Answer:
[Students are expected to perform this activity on their own.]

Always Remember (Textbook Page No. 166)

Question 1.
Food remains for a very short time in mouth but action of salivary amylase continues for further IS to 30 minutes till gastric juice mixes with food in the stomach. Why do you think it stops after the food gets mixed with gastric juice?
Answer:

The gastric juices are mixed with food in the stomach.
The pH of the stomach is 1.0-2.0 which is very acidic. Such high level of acidity leads to denaturation of salivary amylase’s protein structure.
On the other hand, pH 6.8 is required for salivary amylase to carry out the activity which is not found in stomach. Thus, activity of salivary amylase is stopped when food is mixed with gastric juice.

Internet my friend (Textbook Page No. 167)

Question 1.
How are bile pigments formed?
Answer:

When old and worn out red blood cells are destroyed by macrophages in liver, the globin portion of hemoglobin is split off and heme is converted to biliverdin.
Most of this biliverdin is converted to bilirubin, which gives bile its major pigmentation.
[Source http://www.biologydiscussion.com/human-physiology/digestive-system/bile-pigments/bile-pigments-origin-and-formation-digestive-juice-human-biology/81803]

Think about it (Textbook Page No. 167)

Question 1.
How can I keep my pancreas healthy? Can a person live without pancreas?
Answer:

Pancreas can be kept healthy by:
- Eating proper balanced and low-fat diet, with plenty of whole grains, fruits and vegetables.
- Regular exercise and maintaining a healthy weight.
- Limiting alcohol consumption and avoid smoking.
- Adequate intake of water.
- Regular checkups.
The pancreas is a gland that secretes digestive enzymes and insulin which is needed for a person to survive.
Without pancreas the person will develop diabetes and will have to take insulin for the rest of the life.
Without pancreas the body’s ability to absorb nutrients also decreases.
Hence, though a person can survive without pancreas he may have to remain dependent on the medicines for survival.

Do it yourself? (Textbook Page No. 167)

Question 1.
You have studied the representation of enzymatic actions in the form of reactions.
Write the reactions of pancreatic enzymes.
Answer:

Do it yourself (Textbook Page No. 168)

Question 1.
Observe the following reactions and explain in words.

Answer:

Maltase acts on maltose to form glucose.
Sucrase acts on sucrose to form glucose and fructose.
Lactase acts on lactose to form glucose and galactose.
Dipeptidase acts on dipeptides to form amino acids.
Emulsified fats are converted into fatty acids and glycerol by lipase.

Use your brain power (Textbook Page No. 168)

Question 1.
Make a flow chart for digestion of carbohydrate.
Answer:

Question 2.
What is a proenzyme? Enlist various proenzymes involved in process of digestion and state their function.
Answer:
Proenzymes are synthesized in cells as an inactive precursor that undergo some modification before becoming catalytically active.
The various proenzymes involved in process of digestion are as follows:

Pepsinogen: Pepsinogen when converted into its active form pepsin acts on proteins to form peptones and proteoses.
Trypsinogen: Trypsinogen when converted to it active form trypsin converts proteins, proteoses and peptones to polypeptides.
Chymotrypsinogen: Chymotrypsinogen when converted to active form chymotrypsin it converts polypeptides to dipeptides.

Question 3.
Differentiate between Chyme and Chyle.
Answer:

No.	Chyme	Chyle
a.	Chyme is a semi-fluid acidic mass of partially digested food.	Chyle is an alkaline slurry which contains various nutrients ready for absorption.
b.	Chyme leaves stomach and enters the small intestine.	Chyle leaves small intestine and enters large intestine.

Question 4.
Digestion of fats take place only after the food reaches small intestine. Give reason.
Answer:
Digestion of fats takes place in small intestine because the presence of fats in small intestine stimulates the release of pancreatic lipase from pancreas and bile from liver. Pancreatic lipases hydrolyze fat molecules into fatty acids and monoglycerides and bile brings about emulsification of fats. Therefore, digestion of fats occur when food reaches small intestine.

Observe and Discuss (Textbook Page No. 169)

Question 1.
Action of digestive juice in your group.
Answer:

Digestive juices	Action
Saliva	Saliva contains salivary amylase which breaks down starch into maltose.
Gastric juice	HC1 breaks converts inactive pepsinogen into its active form pepsin. Pepsin then breakdown proteins into peptones and proteoses.
Pancreatic juice	Pancreatic amylase acts on glycogen and starch and converts those into disaccharides. Enterokinase converts trypsinogen into trypsin (active form). Trypsin converts proteins, proteoses, peptones to polypeptides. Chymotrypsin converts polypeptides to dipeptides. Nucleases digest nucleic acids to pentose sugar.
Intestinal enzymes	Maltase converts maltose to glucose. Sucrase converts sucrose to glucose and fructose. Lactase converts lactose to glucose and galactose. Dipeptidases converts dipeptides to amino acids. Lipase converts emulsified fats into fatty acids and monoglycerides.
Bile juice	It brings about emulsification of fats.

Can you recall? (Textbook Page no. 170)

Question 1.
What is balanced diet?
Answer:
Balanced diet is a diet which contains proper amount of carbohydrates, fats, vitamins, proteins and minerals to maintain a good health.

Question 2.
Explain the terms undernourished, over-nourished and malnourished in details.
Answer:

Undernourished: When supply of nutrients is less than the minimum amount of nutrients or food required for good health is called undernourished.
Over-nourished: The intake of nutrients is excessive. In over-nourished the amount of nutrients exceeds the amount required for normal growth.
Malnourished: Malnourished is a condition where a person’s diet does not contain right amount of nutrients.

Do you know? (Textbook Page No. 170)

Question 1.
What is gross calorific value?
Answer:
The amount of heat liberated by complete combustion of lg food in a bomb calorimeter is termed as gross calorific (gross energy) value.

Question 2.
What is physiological value?
Answer:
The actual energy produced by 1 g food is its physiological value.

Question 3.
Name the following
Energy content of food in animals is expressed in terms of?
Answer:
Heat Energy

Question 4.
Complete the following table representing Gross calorific value and physiological value of food component.

Food Component	Gross calorific value (Kcal/g)	Physiological value (Kcal/g)
Fats	(A)	9.0
(B)	5.65	4.0
Carbohydrates	(C)	(D)

Answer:

Food Component	Gross calorific value (Kcal/g)	Physiological value (Kcal/g)
Fats	9.45	9.0
Proteins	5.65	4.0
Carbohydrates	4.1	4.0

Find out (Textbook Page No. 171)

Question 1.
Find out the status of nialnutrition among children in Maharashtra and efforts taken by the government to overcome the situation. Search for various NGOs working in this field.
Answer:
93,783 children have been diagnosed with severe acute malnutrition and 5.7 lakh with moderate acute malnutrition in Maharashtra.
Steps taken by government to overcome malnutrition:

Promotion of infant and young child feeding practices.
Management of malnutrition at community and facility level by trained service providers.
Treatment of children with severe acute malnutrition at special units called the Nutrition Rehabilitation Centres (NRCs), set up at public health facilities.
A special program to combat micronutrient deficiencies of Vitamin A, Iron and Folic acid.
The initiatives like Mother and Child protection card, village health and nutrition days, are taken by the government for addressing the nutrition concerns in children, pregnant women and lactating mothers.

Various NCOs working in this field:

Akshay Patra
Fight Hunger Foundation,
Feeding India,
No Hungry child
[Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=l 13725; https://yourstory.com/2016/10/world- food-day-ngosj
[Note: Students can use above answer as reference and find more information from the internet.]

Question 2.
Are jaundice and hepatitis same disorders?
Answer:
Jaundice and Hepatitis are two different disorders.

Jaundice: Jaundice occurs when the rate of bilirubin production exceeds the rate of its elimination. It causes yellowing of skin and eyes.

Hepatitis: It is a disease where there is inflammation of liver. It may be caused because of infection, over alcohol consumption, immune system disorder etc.

Do you know (Textbook Page No. 171)

Question 1.
Alcoholism causes different disorders of liver like steatosis (fatty liver), alcoholic hepatitis, fibrosis and cirrhosis. Collect more information on these disorders and try to increase awareness against alcoholism in society. Collect information about NGOs working against alcoholism.
Answer:
Steatosis (fatty liver): Steatosis is accumulation of fat in the liver. Treatment can help but it cannot be cured. Major risk factors are obesity and Diabetes type II, it is also associated with excessive alcohol consumption. Fatigue, weight loss and abdominal pain are some symptoms. It is a benign condition but in very smaller number of patients it can lead to liver failure. Treatment involves diet and exercise to reduce obesity.

Alcoholic hepatitis: Alcoholic Hepatitis is liver inflammation caused by excessive consumption of alcohol. It occurs in people who drink heavily for many years. Symptoms like yellowing of skin and eye, accumulation of fluid in stomach which leads to increase in stomach size. Treatments like completely stopping of alcohol consumption, hydration and nutrition care are carried out. Administration of steroid drugs reduces liver inflammation.

Fibrosis: There is significant scarring of liver tissue in this condition. Fibrosis itself does not cause any symptoms. Diagnosis includes doctor’s evaluation, blood tests and imaging tests, liver biopsy. Treatments include stopping the consumption of alcohol. There are no such effective drugs for curing of fibrosis.

Cirrhosis: It is a chronic liver damage caused due to various reasons which leads to irreversible scarring of liver and liver failure. Causes of cirrhosis are chronic alcohol abuse and hepatitis. Patients may experience fatigue, weakness and weight loss. In later stages, patients may develop jaundice, abdominal swelling and gastrointestinal bleeding. In advanced stage, a liver transplant is required.

NGOs working against alcoholism:

Muktangan Rehabilitation Centre
Anmol Jeevan Foundation
Sankalp Rehabilitation Trust
Kripa Foundation
Harmony Foundation
Hands for you Rehab Centre

11th Std Biology Questions And Answers:

11th Physics Chapter 12 Exercise Magnetism Solutions Maharashtra Board

January 7, 2025January 6, 2025 by Prasanna

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Physics Textbook Solutions Chapter 12 Magnetism Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Magnetism Class 12 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Class 11 Physics Chapter 12 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Physics Class 11 Chapter 12 Exercise Solutions

1. Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
Let r be the distance of a point on the axis of a bar magnet from its center. The magnetic field at r is always proportional to
(A) \(\frac {1}{r^2}\)
(B) \(\frac {1}{r^3}\)
(C) \(\frac {1}{r}\)
(D) Not necessarily \(\frac {1}{r^3}\) at all points
Answer:
(B) \(\frac {1}{r^3}\)

Question 2.
Magnetic meridian is the plane
(A) perpendicular to the magnetic axis of Earth
(B) perpendicular to geographic axis of Earth
(C) passing through the magnetic axis of Earth
(D) passing through the geographic axis
Answer:
(C) passing through the magnetic axis of Earth

Question 3.
The horizontal and vertical component of magnetic field of Earth are same at some place on the surface of Earth. The magnetic dip angle at this place will be
(A) 30°
(B) 45°
(C) 0°
(D) 90°
Answer:
(B) 45°

Question 4.
Inside a bar magnet, the magnetic field lines
(A) are not present
(B) are parallel to the cross sectional area of the magnet
(C) are in the direction from N pole to S pole
(D) are in the direction from S pole to N pole
Answer:
(D) are in the direction from S pole to N pole

Question 5.
A place where the vertical components of Earth’s magnetic field is zero has the angle of dip equal to
(A) 0°
(B) 45°
(C) 60°
(D) 90°
Answer:
(A) 0°

Question 6.
A place where the horizontal component of Earth’s magnetic field is zero lies at
(A) geographic equator
(B) geomagnetic equator
(C) one of the geographic poles
(D) one of the geomagnetic poles
Answer:
(D) one of the geomagnetic poles

Question 7.
A magnetic needle kept nonparallel to the magnetic field in a nonuniform magnetic field experiences
(A) a force but not a torque
(B) a torque but not a force
(C) both a force and a torque
(D) neither force nor a torque
Answer:
(C) both a force and a torque

2. Answer the following questions in brief.

Question 1.
What happens if a bar magnet is cut into two pieces transverse to its length/ along its length?
Answer:
i. When a magnet is cut into two pieces, then each piece behaves like an independent magnet.

ii. When a bar magnet is cut transverse to its length, the two pieces generated will behave as independent magnets of reduced magnetic length. However, the pole strength of all the four poles formed will be same as that of the original bar magnet. Thus, the new dipole moment of the smaller magnets will be,

iii. When the bar magnet is cut along its length, the two pieces generated will behave like an independent magnet with reduced pole strength. However, the magnetic length of both the new magnets will be same as that of the original bar magnet. Thus, the new dipole moment of the smaller magnets will be,

Question 2.
What could be the equation for Gauss’ law of magnetism, if a monopole of pole strength p is enclosed by a surface?
Answer:
i. According to Gauss’ law of electrostatics, the net electric flux through any Gaussian surface is proportional to net charge enclosed in it. The equation is given as,
ø_E = ∫\(\vec{E}\) . \(\vec{dS}\) = \(\frac {q}{ε_0}\)

ii. Similarly, if a monopole of a magnet of pole strength p exists, the Gauss’ law of magnetism in S.I. units will be given as,
ø_E = ∫\(\vec{B}\) . \(\vec{dS}\) = µ₀P

3. Answer the following questions in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the Gauss’ law for magnetic fields.
Answer:
i. Analogous to the Gauss’ law for electric field, the Gauss’ law for magnetism states that, the net magnetic flux (ø_B) through a closed Gaussian surface is zero. ø_B = ∫\(\vec{B}\) . \(\vec{dS}\) = 0

ii. Consider a bar magnet, a current carrying solenoid and an electric dipole. The magnetic field lines of these three are as shown in figures.

iii. The areas (P) and (Q) are the cross – sections of three dimensional closed Gaussian surfaces. The Gaussian surface (P) does not include poles while the Gaussian surface (Q) includes N-pole of bar magnet, solenoid and the positive charge in case of electric dipole.

iv. The number of lines of force entering the surface (P) is equal to the number of lines of force leaving the surface. This can be observed in all the three cases.

v. However, Gaussian surface (Q) of bar magnet, enclose north pole. As, even thin slice of a bar magnet will have both north and south poles associated with it, the number of lines of Force entering surface (Q) are equal to the number of lines of force leaving the surface.

vi. For an electric dipole, the field lines begin from positive charge and end on negative charge. For a closed surface (Q), there is a net outward flux since it does include a net (positive) charge.

vii. Thus, according to the Gauss’ law of electrostatics ø_E = ∫\(\vec{E}\) . \(\vec{dS}\) = \(\frac {q}{ε_0}\), where q is the positive charge enclosed.

viii. The situation is entirely different from magnetic lines of force. Gauss’ law of magnetism can be written as ø_B = ∫\(\vec{B}\) . \(\vec{dS}\) = 0
From this, one can conclude that for electrostatics, an isolated electric charge exists but an isolated magnetic pole does not exist.

Question 2.
What is a geographic meridian? How does the declination vary with latitude? Where is it minimum?
Answer:
A plane perpendicular to the surface of the Earth (vertical plane) and passing through geographic axis is geographic meridian.

i. Angle between the geographic and the magnetic meridian at a place is called magnetic declination (a).
ii. Magnetic declination varies with location and over time. As one moves away from the true north the declination changes depending on the latitude as well as longitude of the place. By convention, declination is positive when magnetic north is east of true north, and negative when it is to the west. The declination is small in India. It is 0° 58′ west at Mumbai and 0° 41′ east at Delhi.

Question 3.
Define the angle of dip. What happens to angle of dip as we move towards magnetic pole from magnetic equator?
Answer:
Angle made by the direction of resultant magnetic field with the horizontal at a place is inclination or angle of dip (ø) at the place.
At the magnetic pole value of ø = 90° and it goes on decreasing when we move towards equator such that at equator value of (ø) = 0°.

4. Solve the following problems.

Question 1.
A magnetic pole of bar magnet with pole strength of 100 Am is 20 cm away from the centre of a bar magnet. Bar magnet has pole strength of 200 Am and has a length 5 cm. If the magnetic pole is on the axis of the bar magnet, find the force on the magnetic pole.
Answer:
Given that, (q_m)₁ = 200 Am
and (2l) = 5 cm = 5 × 10^-2 m
∴ m = 200 × 5 × 10^-2 = 10 Am²
For a bar magnet, magnetic dipole moment is,
m = q_m (21)
For a point on the axis of a bar magnet at distance, r = 20 cm = 0.2 m,
B_a = \(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \times \frac{2 m}{r^{3}}\)
= 10^-7 × \(\frac{2 \times 10}{(0.2)^{3}}\)
= 0.25 × 10^-3
= 2.5 × 10^-4 Wb/m²
The force acting on the pole will be given by,
F = q_m B_a = 100 × 2.5 × 10^-4
= 2.5 × 10^-2 N

Question 2.
A magnet makes an angle of 45° with the horizontal in a plane making an angle of 30° with the magnetic meridian. Find the true value of the dip angle at the place.
Answer:
Let true value of dip be ø. When the magnet is kept 45° aligned with declination 30°, the horizontal component of Earth’s magnetic field.
B’_H = B_H cos 30° Whereas, vertical component remains unchanged.
∴ For apparent dip of 45°,
tan 45° = \(\frac{\mathrm{B}_{\mathrm{V}}^{\prime}}{\mathrm{B}_{\mathrm{H}}^{\prime}}=\frac{\mathrm{B}_{\mathrm{V}}}{\mathrm{B}_{\mathrm{H}} \cos 30^{\circ}}=\frac{\mathrm{B}_{\mathrm{v}}}{\mathrm{B}_{\mathrm{H}}} \times \frac{1}{\cos 30^{\circ}}\)
But, real value of dip is,
tan ø = \(\frac {B_V}{B_H}\)
∴ tan 45° = \(\frac {tan ø}{cos 30°}\)
∴ tan ø = tan 45° × cos 30°
= 1 × \(\frac {√3}{2}\)
∴ ø = tan^-1 (0.866)

Question 3.
Two small and similar bar magnets have magnetic dipole moment of 1.0 Am² each. They are kept in a plane in such a way that their axes are perpendicular to each other. A line drawn through the axis of one magnet passes through the centre of other magnet. If the distance between their centres is 2 m, find the magnitude of magnetic field at the midpoint of the line joining their centres.
Answer:
Let P be the midpoint of the line joining the centres of two bar magnets. As shown in figure, P is at the axis of one bar magnet and at the equator of another bar magnet. Thus, the magnetic field on the axis of the first bar magnet at distance of 1 m from the centre will be,

B_a = \(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \frac{2 m}{r^{3}}\)
= 10^-7 × \(\frac {2×1.0}{(1)^3}\)
= 2 × 10^-7 Wb/m²
Magnetic field on the equator of second bar magnet will be,
B_eq = \(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \frac{m}{r^{3}}\)
= 10^-7 × \(\frac {1.0}{(1)^3}\)
= 1 × 10^-7 Wb/m²
The net magnetic field at P,
B_net = \(\sqrt {B_a^2+B_{eq}^2}\)
= \(\sqrt {(2×10^{-7})^2+(1×10^{-7})^2}\)
= \(\sqrt {(10^{-7})^2×(4+1)}\)
= √5 × 10^-7 Wb/m²

Question 4.
A circular magnet is made with its north pole at the centre, separated from the surrounding circular south pole by an air gap. Draw the magnetic field lines in the gap. Draw a diagram to illustrate the magnetic lines of force between the south poles of two such magnets.
Answer:
i. For a circular magnet:

Question 5.
Two bar magnets are placed on a horizontal surface. Draw magnetic lines around them. Mark the position of any neutral points (points where there is no resultant magnetic field) on your diagram.
Answer:
The magnetic lines of force between two magnets will depend on their relative positions. Considering the magnets to be placed one besides the other as shown in figure, the magnetic lines of force will be as shown.

11th Physics Digest Chapter 12 Magnetism Intext Questions and Answers

Can you recall? (Textbook page no. 221)

Question 1.
What are the magnetic lines of force?
Answer:
The magnetic field around a magnet is shown by lines going from one end of the magnet to the other. These lines are named as magnetic lines of force.

Question 2.
What are the rules concerning the lines of force?
Answer:
i. Magnetic lines of force originate from the north pole and end at the south pole.
ii. The magnetic lines of force of a magnet or a solenoid form closed loops. This is in contrast to the case of an electric dipole, where the electric lines of force originate from the positive charge and end on the negative charge.
iii. The direction of the net magnetic field \(\vec {B}\) at a point is given by the tangent to the magnetic line of force at that point.
iv. The number of lines of force crossing per unit area decides the magnitude of magnetic field \(\vec {B}\)
v. The magnetic lines of force do not intersect. This is because had they intersected, the direction of magnetic field would not be unique at that point.

Question 3.
What is a bar magnet?
Answer:
Bar magnet is a magnet in the shape of bar having two poles of equal and opposite pole strengths separated by certain distance (2l).

Question 4.
If you freely hang a bar magnet horizontally, in which direction will it become stable?
Answer:
A bar magnet suspended freely in air always aligns itself along geographic N-S direction.

Try this (Textbook page no. 221)

You can take a bar magnet and a small compass needle. Place the bar magnet at a fixed position on a paper and place the needle at various positions. Noting the orientation of the needle, the magnetic field direction at various locations can be traced.
Answer:
When a small compass needle is kept at any position near a bar magnet, the needle always aligns itself in the direction parallel to the direction of magnetic lines of force.

Hence, by placing it at different positions, A, B, C, D,… as shown in the figure, the direction of magnetic lines of force can be traced. The direction of magnetic field will be a tangent at that point.

Internet my friend: (Text book page no. 227)

https://www.ngdc.noaa.gov
[Students are expected to visit above mentioned link and collect more information about Geomagnetism.]

11th Std Physics Questions And Answers:

11th Chemistry Chapter 5 Exercise Chemical Bonding Solutions Maharashtra Board

January 7, 2025January 6, 2025 by Bhagya

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Chemistry Textbook Solutions Chapter 5 Chemical Bonding Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Chemical Bonding Class 11 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 5 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Chemistry Class 11 Chapter 5 Exercise Solutions

1. Select and write the most appropriate alternatives from the given choices.

Question A.
Which molecule is linear?
a. SO₃
b. CO₂
c. H₂S
d. Cl₂O
Answer:
b. CO₂

Question B.
When the following bond types are listed in decreasing order of strength (strongest first). Which is the correct order ?
a. covalent > hydrogen > van der waals
b. covalent > vander waal’s > hydrogen
c. hydrogen > covalent > vander waal’s
d. vander waal’s > hydrogen > covalent.
Answer:
a. covalent > hydrogen > van der waals

Question C.
Valence Shell Electron Pair repulsion (VSEPR) theory is used to predict which of the following :
a. Energy levels in an atom
b. the shapes of molecules and ions.
c. the electrone getivities of elements.
d. the type of bonding in compounds.
Answer:
b. the shapes of molecules and ions.

Question D.
Which of the following is true for CO₂?

	C=O bond	CO₂ molecule
A	polar	non-polar
B	non-polar	polar
C	polar	polar
D	non-polar	non-polar

Answer:

	C=O bond	CO₂ molecule
A	polar	non-polar

Question E.
Which O₂ molecule is pargmagnetic. It is explained on the basis of :
a. Hybridisation
b. VBT
c. MOT
d. VSEPR
Answer:
c. MOT

Question F.
The angle between two covalent bonds is minimum in:
a CH₄
b. C₂H₂
c. NH₃
d. H₂O
Answer:
d. H₂O

2. Draw

Question A.
Lewis dot diagrams for the folowing
a. Hydrogen (H₂)
b. Water (H₂O)
c. Carbon dioxide (CO₂)
d. Methane (CH₄)
e. Lithium Fluoride (LiF)
Answer:

[Note: H atom in H₂ and Li atom in LiF attain the configuration of helium (a duplet of electrons).]

Question B.
Diagram for bonding in ethene with sp² Hybridisation.
Answer:

Question C.
Lewis electron dot structures of
a. HF
b. C₂H₆
c. C₂H₄
d. CF₃Cl
e. SO₂
Answer:

Question D.
Draw orbital diagrams of
a. Fluorine molecule
b. Hydrogen fluoride molecule
Answer:
a.

b.

3. Answer the following questions

Question A.
Distinguish between sigma and pi bond.
Answer:

σ (sigma) bond	π (pi) bond
1. It is formed when atomic orbitals overlap along internuclear axis.	1. It is formed when atomic orbitals overlap side-ways (laterally).
2. Electron density is high along the axis of the molecule (i.e., internuclear axis).	2. Electron density is zero along the axis of the molecule (i.e., internuclear axis).
3. In the formation of sigma bond, the extent of overlap is greater, hence, more energy is released.	3. In the formation of pi bond, the extent of overlap is less, hence, less energy is released.
4. It is a strong bond.	4. It is a weak bond.
5. Formation of sigma bonds involves s-s, s-p, p-p overlap and overlap between hybrid orbitals.	5. Formation of pi bonds involves p-p or d-d overlap. The overlap between hybrid orbitals is not involved.

Question B.
Display electron distribution around the oxygen atom in water molecule and state shape of the molecule, also write H-O-H bond angle.
Answer:
Electron distribution around oxygen atom in water molecule:
Shape of water molecule: Angular or V shaped H-O-H bond angle = 104°35′

Question C.
State octet rule. Explain its inadequecies with respect to
a. Incomplete octet
b. Expanded octet
Answer:
Statement: During the formation of chemical bond, atom loses, gains or shares electrons so that its outermost orbit (valence shell) contains eight electrons. Therefore, the atom attains the nearest inert gas electronic configuration.

a. Molecules with incomplete octet: e.g. BF₃, BeCl₂, LiCl
In these covalent molecules, the atoms B, Be and Li have less than eight electrons in their valence shell but these molecules are stable.
Li in LiCl has only two electrons, Be in BeCl₂ has four electrons while B in BF₃ has six electrons in the valence shell.

b. Molecules with expanded octet: Some molecules like SF₆, PCl₅, H₂SO₄ have more than eight electrons around the central atom.

Question D.
Explain in brief with one example:
a. Ionic bond
b. covalent bond
c. co-ordinate bond
Answer:
a. Formation of calcium chloride (CaCl₂):
i. The electronic configurations of calcium and chlorine are:
Na (Z = 11): 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 4s² or (2, 8, 8, 2)
Cl (Z = 17): 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁵ or (2, 8, 7)
ii. Calcium has two electrons in its valence shell. It has tendency to lose two electrons to acquire the electronic configuration of the nearest inert gas, argon (2, 8, 8).
iii. Chlorine has seven electrons in its valence shell. It has tendency to gain one electron and thereby acquire the electronic configuration of the nearest inert gas, argon (2, 8, 8).
iv. During the combination of calcium and chlorine atoms, the calcium atom transfers its valence electrons to two chlorine atoms.
v. Calcium atom changes into Ca²⁺ ion while the two chlorine atoms change into two Cl^– ions. These ions are held together by strong electrostatic force of attraction.
vi. The formation of ionic bond(s) between Ca and Cl can be shown as follows:

b. Formation of Cl₂ molecule:
i. The electronic configuration of Cl atom is [Ne] 3s² 3p⁵.
ii. It needs one more electron to complete its valence shell.
iii. When two chlorine atoms approach each other at a certain internuclear distance, they share their valence electrons. In the process, both the atoms attain the valence shell of octet of nearest noble gas, argon.
iv. The shared pair of electrons belongs equally to both the chlorine atoms. The two atoms are said to be linked by a single covalent bond and a Cl₂ molecule is formed.

c. co-ordinate bond:
i. A coordinate bond is a type of covalent bond where both of the electrons that form the bond originate from the same atom
ii. An atom with a lone pair of electrons (non-bonding pair of electrons) is capable of forming a coordinate bond.
iii. For example, reaction of ammonia with boron trifluoride: Before the reaction, nitrogen (N) in ammonia has eight valence electrons, including a lone pair of electrons. Boron (B) in boron trifluoride has only six valence electrons, so it is two electrons short of an octet. The two unpaired electrons form a bond between nitrogen and boron, resulting in complete octets for both atoms. A coordinate bond is represented by an arrow. The direction of the arrow indicates that the electrons are moving from nitrogen to boron. Thus, ammonia forms a coordinate bond with boron trifluoride.

iv. Once formed, a coordinate covalent bond is the same as any other covalent bond.

Question E.
Give reasons for need of Hybridisation.
Answer:
The concept of hybridization was introduced because the valence bond theory failed to explain the following points:
i. Valencies of certain elements:
The maximum number of covalent bonds which an atom can form equals the number of unpaired electrons present in its valence shell. However, valence bond theory failed to explain how beryllium, boron and carbon forms two, three and four covalent bonds respectively.
a. Beryllium: The electronic configuration of beryllium is 1s² 2s². The expected valency is zero (as there is no unpaired electron) but the observed valency is 2 as in BeCl₂.
b. Boron: The electronic configuration of boron is 1s² 2s² \(2 \mathrm{p}_{\mathrm{x}}^{1}\). The valency is expected to be 1 but it is 3 as in BF₃.
c. Carbon: The electronic configuration of carbon is 1s² 2s² \(2 \mathrm{p}_{\mathrm{x}}^{1}\) \(2 \mathrm{p}_{\mathrm{y}}^{1}\) . The valency is expected to be 2, but observed valency is 4 as in CH₄.

ii. The shapes and geometry of certain molecules:
The valence bond theory cannot explain shapes, geometries and bond angles in certain molecules,
e.g. a. Tetrahedral shape of methane molecule.
b. Bond angles in molecules like NH₃ (107°18′) and H₂O (104°35′).
However, the valency of the above elements and the observe structural properties of the above molecules can be explained by the concept of hybridization. These are the reasons for need of the concept of hybridization.

Question F.
Explain geometry of methane molecule on the basis of Hybridisation.
Answer:
Formation of methane (CH₄) molecule on the basis of sp³ hybridization:
i. Methane molecule (CH₄) has one carbon atom and four hydrogen atoms.
ii. The ground state electronic configuration of C (Z = 6) is 1s² \(2 \mathrm{p}_{\mathrm{x}}^{1}\) \(2 \mathrm{p}_{\mathrm{y}}^{1}\) \(2 \mathrm{p}_{\mathrm{z}}^{1}\);
Electronic configuration of carbon:

iii. In order to form four equivalent bonds with hydrogen, the 2s and 2p orbitals of C-atom undergo sp³hybridization.
iv. One electron from the 2s orbital of carbon atom is excited to the 2pz orbital. Then the four orbitals 2s, px, py and pz mix and recast to form four new sp³ hybrid orbitals having same shape and equal energy. They are maximum apart and have tetrahedral geometry with H-C-H bond angle of 109°28′. Each hybrid orbital contains one unpaired electron.
v. Each of these sp³ hybrid orbitals with one electron overlap axially with the 1s orbital of hydrogen atom to form one C-H sigma bond. Thus, in CH₄ molecule, there are four C-H bonds formed by the sp³-s overlap.
Diagram:

Question G.
In Ammonia molecule the bond angle is 107°18 and in water molecule it is 104°35′, although in both the central atoms are sp³ hybridized Explain.
Answer:
i. The ammonia molecule has sp³ hybridization. The expected bond angle is 109°28′. But the actual bond angle is 107°28′. It is due to the following reasons.

One lone pair and three bond pairs are present in ammonia molecule.
The strength of lone pair-bond pair repulsion is much higher than that of bond pair-bond pair repulsion.
Due to these repulsions, there is a small decrease in bond angle (~2°) from 109°28′ to 107°18′.

ii. The water molecule has sp³ hybridization. The expected bond angle is 109°28′. But the actual bond angle is 104°35′. It is due to the following reasons.

Two lone pairs and two bond pairs are present in water molecule.
The decreasing order of the repulsion is Lone pair-Lone pair > Lone pair-Bond pair > Bond pair-Bond pair.
Due to these repulsions, there is a small decrease in bond angle (~5°) from 109°28′ to 104°35′.

Question H.
Give reasons for:
a. Sigma (σ) bond is stronger than Pi (π) bond.
b. HF is a polar molecule
c. Carbon is a tetravalent in nature.
Answer:
a. i. The strength of the bond depends on the extent of overlap of the orbitals. Greater the overlap, stronger is the bond.
ii. A sigma bond is formed by the coaxial overlap of the atomic orbitals which are oriented along the internuclear axis, hence the extent of overlap is maximum.
iii. A pi bond is formed by the lateral overlap of the atomic orbitals which are oriented perpendicular to the internuclear axis, hence the extent of orbital overlapping in side wise manner is less.
Hence, sigma bond is stronger than pi bond.

b. i. When a covalent bond is formed between two atoms of different elements that have different electronegativities, the shared electron pair does not remain at the centre. The electron pair is pulled towards the more electronegative atom resulting in the separation of charges.
ii. In H-F, fluorine is more electronegative than hydrogen. Therefore, the shared electron pair is pulled towards fluorine and fluorine acquires partial -ve charge and simultaneously hydrogen acquires partial +ve charge. This gives rise to dipole and H-F bond becomes polar. Hence, H-F is a polar molecule.

c. The electronic configuration of carbon is:
1s² 2s² 2p_x¹ 2p_y¹
One electron from ‘2s’ orbital is promoted to the empty ‘2p’ orbital.
Thus, in excited state, carbon has four half-filled orbitals.

Hence, carbon can form 4 bonds and is tetravalent in nature.

Question I.
Which type of hybridization is present in ammonia molecule? Write the geometry and bond angle present in ammonia.
Answer:
The type of hybridization present in ammonia (NH₃) molecule is sp³.
Geometry of ammonia molecule is pyramidal or distorted tetrahedral.
Bond angle in ammonia molecule is 107°18′.

Question J.
Identify the type of orbital overlap present in
a. H₂
b. F₂
c. H-F molecule.
Explain diagramatically.
Answer:
i. s-s σ overlap:
a. The overlap between two half-filled s orbitals of two different atoms containing unpaired electrons with opposite spins is called s-s overlap.
e.g. Formation of H₂ molecule by s-s overlap:
Hydrogen atom (Z = 1) has electronic configuration: 1s¹. The 1s¹ orbitais of two hydrogen atoms overlap along the internuclear axis to form a σ bond between the atoms in H₂ molecule.
b. Diagram:

ii. p-p σ overlap:
a. This type of overlap takes place when two p orbitals from different atoms overlap along the internuclear axis.
e.g. Formation of F₂ molecule by p-p overlap:
Fluorine atom (Z = 9) has electronic configuration 1s² 2s² \(2 \mathrm{p}_{\mathrm{x}}^{2}\) \(2 \mathrm{p}_{\mathrm{y}}^{2}\) \(2 \mathrm{p}_{\mathrm{z}}^{2}\).
During the formation of F₂ molecule, half-filled 2p_z orbital of one F atom overlaps with similar half-filled 2p_z orbital containing electron with opposite spin of another F atom axially and a p-p σ bond is formed.
b. Diagram:

iii. s-p σ overlap:
a. In this type of overlap one half filled s orbital of one atom and one half filled p orbital of another orbital overlap along the internuclear axis.
e.g. Formation of HF molecule by s-p overlap:
Hydrogen atom (Z = 1) has electronic configuration: 1s¹ and fluorine atom (Z = 9) has electronic configuration 1s² 2s² \(2 \mathrm{p}_{\mathrm{x}}^{2}\) \(2 \mathrm{p}_{\mathrm{y}}^{2}\) \(2 \mathrm{p}_{\mathrm{z}}^{2}\). During the formation of HF molecule, half-filled Is orbital of hydrogen atom overlaps coaxially with half-filled 2p_z orbital of fluorine atom with opposite electron spin and an s-p σ bond is formed.
b. Diagram:

Question K.
F-Be-F is a liner molecule but H-O-H is angular. Explain.
Answer:
i. In the BeF₂ molecule, the central beryllium atom undergoes sp hybridization giving rise to two sp hybridized orbitals placed diagonally opposite with an angle of 180°. Thus, F-Be-F is a linear molecule.

ii. In the H₂O molecule, the central oxygen atom undergoes sp³ hybridization giving rise to four sp³ hybridized orbitals directed towards four comers of a tetrahedron. There are two lone pairs of electrons in two of the sp³ hybrid orbitals of oxygen. The lone pair-lone pair repulsion distorts the structure. Hence, H-O-H is angular or V-shaped.

Question L.
BF₃ molecule is planar but NH₃ pyramidal. Explain.
Answer:
i. In the BF₃ molecule, the central boron atom undergoes sp² hybridization giving rise to three sp² hybridized orbitals directed towards three comers of an equilateral triangle. Thus, the geometry is trigonal planar.

ii. In the NH₃ molecule, the central nitrogen atom undergoes sp³ hybridization giving rise to four sp³ hybridized orbitals directed towards four comers of a tetrahedron. The expected geometry of NH₃ molecule is regular tetrahedral with bond angle 109°28′. There is one lone pair of electrons in one of the sp³ hybrid orbitals of nitrogen. The lone pair-bond pair repulsion distorts the bond angle. Hence, the structure of NH₃ is distorted and it has pyramidal geometry.

Question M.
In case of bond formation in Acetylene molecule :
a. How many covalend bonds are formed ?
b. State number of sigma and pi bonds formed.
c. Name the type of Hybridisation.
Answer:
a. In acetylene molecule, there are five covalent bonds.
b. In acetylene molecule, there are three sigma bonds and two pi bonds.
c. In acetylene molecule, each carbon atom undergoes sp hybridization.

Question N.
Define :
a. Bond Enthalpy
b. Bond Length
Answer:
a. Bond Enthalpy:
Bond enthalpy is defined as the amount of energy required to break one mole of a bond of one type, present between two atoms in a gaseous state.

b. Bond Length:
Bond length is defined as the equilibrium distance between the nuclei of two covalently bonded atoms in a molecule.

Question O.
Predict the shape and bond angles in the following molecules:
a. CF₄
b. NF₃
c. HCN
d. H₂S
Answer:
a. CF₄: There are four bond pairs on the central atom. Hence, shape of CF₄ is tetrahedral and F-C-F bond angle is 109° 28′.
b. NF₃: There are three bond pairs and one lone pair on the central atom. Hence, shape of NF₃ is trigonal pyramidal and F-N-F bond angle is less than 109° 28′.
c. HCN: There are two bond pairs on the central atom. Hence, shape of HCN is linear and H-C-N bond angle is 180°.
d. H₂S: There are two bond pairs and two lone pairs on the central atom. Hence, shape of H₂S is bent or V-shaped and H-S-H bond angle is slightly less than 109° 28′.

4. Using data from the Table, answer the following :

a. What happens to the bond length when unsaturation increases?
b. Which is the most stable compound?
c. Indicate the relation between bond strength and Bond enthalpy.
d. Comment on overall relation between Bond length, Bond Enthalpy and Bond strength and stability.
Answer:
a. When unsaturation increases, the bond length decreases.
b. The stable compound is ethyne (C₂H₂).
c. Bond strength ∝ Bond enthalpy
Larger the bond enthalpy, stronger is the bond.
d. As bond length decreases, bond enthalpy, bond strength and stability increase.

5. Complete the flow chart

Answer:

6. Complete the following Table

Answer:

7. Answer in one sentence:

Question A.
Indicate the factor on which stalility of ionic compound is measured?
Answer:
The stability of an ionic compound is measured by the amount of energy released during lattice formation.

Question B.
Arrange the following compounds on the basis of lattice energies in decreasing (descending) order: BeF₂, AlCl₃, LiCl, CaCl₂, NaCl.
Answer:
AlCl₃ > BeF₂ > CaCl₂ > LiCl > NaCl

Question C.
Give the total number of electrons around sulphur (S) in SF₆ compound.
Answer:
The total number of electrons around sulphur (S) in SF₆ is 12.

Question D.
Covalant bond is directional in nature. Justify.
Answer:
Covalent bond is formed by the overlap of two half-filled atomic orbitals. The atomic orbitals are oriented in specific directions in space (except s-orbital which is spherical). Hence, covalent bond is directional in nature.

Question E.
What are the interacting forces present during formation of a molecule of a compound ?
Answer:
a. Forces of attraction: The nucleus of one atom attracts the electrons of the other atom and vice-versa.
b. Forces of repulsion: The electron of one atom repels the electron of the other atom and vice-versa (as electrons are negatively charged). There is repulsion between the two nuclei (as the nuclei are positively charged).

Question F.
Give the type of overlap by which pi (π) bond is formed.
Answer:
The type of overlap by which pi (π) bond is formed is p-p lateral overlap.

Question G .
Mention the steps involved in Hybridization.
Answer:
The steps involved in hybridization are:

formation of the excited state and
mixing and recasting of orbitals.

Question H.
Write the formula to calculate bond order of molecule.
Answer:
Bond order of a molecule = \(\frac{\mathrm{N}_{\mathrm{b}}-\mathrm{N}_{\mathrm{a}}}{2}\)
where, N_b is the number of electrons present in bonding MOs and N_a is the number of electrons present in antibonding MOs.

Question I.
Why is O₂ molecule paramagnetic?
Answer:
The electronic configuration of O₂ molecule is (σ1s)² (σ*1s)² (σ2s)² (σ*2s)² (σ2p_z)² (π2p_x)² (π2p_y)² (π*2p_x)¹ (π*2p_y)¹
Since the oxygen molecule contains two unpaired electrons, it is paramagnetic.

Question J.
What do you mean by formal charge ? Explain its significance with the help of suitable example.
Answer:
Formal charge is the charge assigned to an atom in a molecule, assuming that all electrons are shared equally between atoms, regardless of their relative electronegativities.

Structure (I):

Structure (II):

Structure (III):

While determining the best Lewis structure per molecule, the structure is chosen such that the formal charge is as close to zero as possible. The structure having the lowest formal charge has the lowest energy.

In structure (I), the formal charge on each atom is 0 while in structures (II) and (III) formal charge on carbon is 0 while oxygens have formal charge -1 or +1. Hence, the possible structure with the lowest energy will be structure (I). Thus, formal charges help in the selection of the lowest energy structure from a number of possible Lewis structures for a given species.

11th Chemistry Digest Chapter 5 Chemical Bonding Intext Questions and Answers

(Textbook Page No. 55)

Question 1.
Why are atoms held together in chemical compounds?
Answer:
Atoms are held together in chemical compounds due to chemical bonds.

Question 2.
How are chemical bonds formed between two atoms?
Answer:
There are two ways of formation of chemical bonds:

by loss and gain of electrons
by sharing a pair of electrons between the two atoms.

In either process of formation of chemical bond, each atom attains a stable noble gas electronic configuration.

Question 3.
Which electrons are involved in the formation of chemical bonds?
Answer:
The electrons present in the outermost shell of an atom are involved in the formation of a chemical bond.

Internet my friend (Textbook Page No. 55)

Question 1.
Search more atoms, which complete their octet during chemical combinations.
Answer:
In compounds like KCl, MgCl₂, CaO, NaF, etc, the constituent atoms complete their octet by lose or gain of electrons.
e.g. K → K⁺ + e^–
Cl + e^– → Cl^–
K⁺ + Cl^– → KCl
[Note: Students are expected to search more atoms on their own.]

Use your brainpower. (Textbook Page No. 60)

Question 1.
Which atom in \(\mathrm{NH}_{4}^{+}\) will have formal charge +1?
Answer:
In \(\mathrm{NH}_{4}^{+}\), nitrogen atom (N) will have formal charge of+1.

Use your brainpower. (Textbook Page No. 61)

Question 1.
How many electrons will be around I in the compound IF₇?
Answer:
Lewis structure of IF₇ is:

In IF₇, iodine (I) atom will be surrounded by 14 electrons.

Question 2.
Why is H₂ stable even though it never satisfies the octet rule?
Answer:
The valence shell configuration of hydrogen atom is 1s¹. Two hydrogen atoms approach each other and share their valence electrons. By having two electrons in its valence shell, H atom attains the nearest noble gas configuration of He. H₂ molecule attains stability due to duplet formation. Hence, H₂ is stable even though it never satisfies the octet rule.

(Textbook Page No. 64)

Question 1.
Lowering of energy takes during bond formation. How does this happen?
Answer:
i. When two combining atoms approach each other to form a covalent bond, the following interacting forces come into play.

Forces of attraction: The nucleus of one atom attracts the electrons of the other atom and vice-versa.
Forces of repulsion: The electron of one atom repels the electron of the other atom and vice-versa (as electrons are negatively charged). There is repulsion between the two nuclei (as the nuclei are positively charged).

ii. The balance between attractive and repulsive forces decide whether the bond will be formed or not.
iii. When the magnitude of attractive forces is more than the magnitude of repulsive forces, the energy of the system decreases and a covalent bond is formed.
iv. When the magnitude of repulsive forces becomes more than that of attraction, the total energy of the system increases and a covalent bond is not formed.
Hence, lowering of energy takes during bond formation.

Can you tell? (TextBook Page No. 76)

Question 1.
Which molecules are polar?
H-I, H-O-H, H-Br, Br₂, N₂, I₂, NH₃
Answer:
i. H-I: Polar
ii. H-O-H: Polar
iii. H-Br: Polar
iv. Br₂: Nonpolar
v. N₂: Nonpolar
vi. I₂: Nonpolar
vii. NH₃: Polar

11th Std Chemistry Questions And Answers:

11th Biology Chapter 9 Exercise Morphology of Flowering Plants Solutions Maharashtra Board

January 7, 2025January 6, 2025 by Bhagya

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Biology Textbook Solutions Chapter 9 Morphology of Flowering Plants Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Morphology of Flowering Plants Class 11 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Class 11 Biology Chapter 9 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Biology Class 11 Chapter 9 Exercise Solutions

1. Choose correct option

Question (A)
Which one of the following will grow better in moist and shady region?
(a) Opuntia
(b) Orchid
(c) Mangrove
(d) Lotus
Answer:
(b) Orchid

Question (B)
A particular plant had a pair of leaves at each node arranged in one plane. What is the arrangement called?
(a) Alternate phyllotaxy
(b) Decussate phyllotaxy
(c) Superposed phyllotaxy
(d) Whorled phyllotaxy
Answer:
(c) Superposed phyllotaxy

Question (C)
In a particular flower the insertion of floral whorls was in such a manner, so the ovary was below other three whorls, but its stigma was taller than other three whorls. What will you call such flower?
(a) Hypogynous
(b) Perigynous
(c) Inferior ovary
(d) Half superior – half inferior
Answer:
(c) Inferior ovary

Question (D)
Beet and Arum both store food for perennation.
Are the examples for two different types?
(a) Beet is a stem but Arum is a root
(b) Beet is a root but Arum is a stem
(c) Beet is a stem but Arum is a leaf
(d) Beet is a stem but Arum is an inflorescence
Answer:
(b) Beet is a root but Arum is a stem

2. Answer the following questions

Question (A)
Two of the vegetables we consume are nothing but leaf bases. Which are they?
Answer:
Onion, Garlic

Question (B)
Opuntia has spines but Carissa has thorns. What is the difference?
Answer:

In Opuntia, stem is modified into leaf like photosynthetic organ known as phylloclade.
Spines growing on phylloclade of Opuntia are leaves, modified to reduce the loss of water through transpiration.
Thoms in Carissa are modified apical buds. They provide protection against browsing animals.
Thus, spines in Opuntia and thorns in Carissa have different origin and function.

Question (C)
Teacher described Hibiscus as solitary Cyme. What it means?
Answer:
1. In Cymose inflorescence, growth of peduncle is finite and it terminates into flower.
2. In Hibiscus, flower is borne singly at the tip of peduncle. Hence, teacher described Hibiscus as solitary cyme.

3. Write notes on

Question (A)
Fusiform root.
Answer:
Fusiform root:
1. Fusiform root is the modification of tap root for food storage.
2. Fusiform root:
The fusiform root is swollen in the middle and tapering towards both ends forming spindle shaped structure, e.g. Radish (Raphanus sativus)

Question (B)
Racemose inflorescence.
Answer:
Racemose inflorescence

Question (C)
Fasciculated tuberous root.
Answer:
Fasciculated tuberous root:
1. Fasciculated tuberous roots are modification of adventitious roots for storage of food.
2. Fasciculated tuberous roots do not develop any definite shape like modified tap roots.
3. a. A cluster of roots arising from one point which becomes thick and fleshy due to storage of food is known as fasciculated tuberous root.
b. These clusters are seen at the base of the stem, e.g. Dahlia, Asparagus, etc.

Question (D)
Region of cell maturation.
Answer:
Region of maturation/region of differentiation:
a. It is the uppermost major part of the root.
b. The cells of this region are quite impermeable to water due to thick wall.
c. The cells show differentiation and form different types of tissues.
d. This region helps in fixation of plant and conduction of absorbed substances.
e. Development of lateral roots also takes place from this region.

Question (E)
Rhizome.
Answer:
Rhizome:

Rhizome is a modification of underground stem for storage of food.
It is prostrate, dorsiventrally thickened and brownish in colour.
It grows either horizontally or obliquely beneath the soil.
Rhizome shows nodes and intemodes. It bears terminal and axillary buds at nodes.
Terminal bud under favourable conditions produces aerial shoot which degenerates at the end of favourable condition.
Growth of rhizome takes place with lateral buds, such growth is known as sympodial growth, e.g. Ginger (Zingiber officinale), Turmeric {Curcuma domestica), Canna etc.
In plants where rhizomes grow obliquely, terminal bud brings about growth of rhizomes. This is known as monopodial growth, e.g. Nymphea, Nelumbo (Lotus), Pteris (Fern) etc.
Rhizomes perform functions like storage of food, vegetative propagation and perennation.

Question (F)
Stolon.
Answer:
Stolons:
1. The slender lateral branch arising from the base of main axis is known as stolon.
2. In some plants it is above ground (wild strawberry).
3. Primarily stolon shows upward growth in the form of ordinary branch, but when it bends and touches the ground terminal bud grows into new shoot and develops adventitious roots.
e.g. Wild Strawberry, Jasmine, Mentha, etc. [Any one example]

Question (G)
Leaf venation.
Answer:
Leaf venation:

Arrangement of veins and veinlets in leaf lamina is known as venation.
Veins are responsible for conduction of water and minerals as well as food.
The structural framework of the lamina is developed by veins.
There are two types of leaf venation: parallel venation which is found in monocot leaves and reticulate venation which is found in dicot leaves.

Question (H)
Cymose inflorescence.
Answer:
Cymose inflorescence.

Question (I)
Perianth.
Answer:
Perianth (P):
a. Many times, calyx and corolla remain undifferentiated. Such member is known as tepal.
b. The whorl of tepals is known as Perianth.
c. It protects other floral whorls.
d. If all the tepals are free the condition is called as polyphyllous and if they are fused the condition is called as gamophyllous.
e. Sepaloid perianth shows green tepals, while petaloid perianth shows brightly coloured tepals. e.g. Lily, Amaranthus, Celosia, etc.
f. Petaloid tepal helps in pollination and sepaloid tepals can perform photosynthesis.

Question (J)
Write a short note on vexillary aestivation.
Answer:
Vexillary: Corolla is butterfly shaped and consists of five petals. Outermost and largest is known as standard or vexillum, two lateral petals are wings and two smaller fused forming boat shaped structures keel. e.g. Pisum sativum

Question (K)
Write a short note on axile placentation.
Answer:
Axile placentation: Placentation: The mode of arrangement of ovules on the placenta within the ovary is called placentation.
Axile: Ovules are placed on the central axis of a multilocular ovary, e.g. China rose, Cotton, etc.

Question 4.
Identify the following figures and write down the types of leaves arrangement.

Answer:
1. The given figures represent phyllotaxy. It is the arrangement of leaves on the stem and branches in a specific manner.
2. Figure ‘a’ and ‘b’ represents, alternate phyllotaxy. In this type of phyllotaxy, single leaf arises from each node of a stem. e.g. Mango
3. Figure ‘c’ represents opposite decussate phyllotaxy. In this type of phyllotaxy, a pair of leaf arise from each node and the consecutive pair at right angle to the previous one. e.g. Calotropis.

5. Students were on the excursion to a botanical garden. They noted following observation. Will you be able to help them in understanding those conditions?

Question (A)
A wiry outgrowth was seen on a plant arising from in between the leaf and stem.
Answer:
A wiry outgrowth on a plant arising from in between the leaf and stem can be an axillary stem tendril. Stem tendrils:
a. Tendrils are thin, wiry, photosynthetic, leafless coiled structures.
b. They give additional support to developing plant.
c. Tendrils have adhesive glands for fixation.

Question (B)
There was a green plant with flat stem, but no leaves. The entire plant was covered by soft spines.
Answer:
Student must have observed phylloclade, which is a modification of stem.
Phylloclade:
a. Modification of stem into leaf like photosynthetic organ is known as phylloclade.
b. Being stem it possesses nodes and internodes.
c. It is thick, fleshy and succulent, contains mucilage for retaining water e.g. Opuntia, Casuarina (Cylindrical shaped phylloclade) and Muehlenbeckia (ribbon like phylloclade).

Question (C)
Many oblique roots were given out from the lower nodes, apparently for extra support.
Answer:
a. Students must have observed adventitious roots in monocotyledonous plants like maize, sugarcane, wheat, etc.
b. Adventitious roots develop from any part of a plant other than radicle.
c. In such plants, adventitious roots arise from the lower node of a stem and provide extra support to the plant. These roots are also called as stilt roots.

Question (D)
Many plants in the marshy region had upwardly growing roots. They could be better seen during low tide.
Answer:
a. Plants growing in marshy region (halophytes) produce upwardly growing roots called as
pneumatophores or respiratory roots.
b. The main root system of these plants does not get sufficient air for respiration as soil is water logged.
c. Due to this, mineral absorption of plant also gets affected.
d. To overcome this problem underground roots, develop special roots which are negatively geotropic; growing vertically upward.
e. These roots are conical projections present around main trunk of plant.
f. Respiratory roots show presence of lenticels which helps in gaseous exchange.

Question (E)
A plant had leaves with long leaf apex, which was curling around a support.
Answer:
a. Students must have observed leaf tip tendril.
b. In some weak stems, leaf apex modifies into thin, green, wiry, coiled structure called as leaf tendril.
c. Such leaf tendrils, help in climbing by curling around a support.

Question (F)
A plant was found growing on other plant. Teacher said it is not a parasite. It exhibited two types of roots.
Answer:
a. Student must have observed an epiphytic plants like Dendrobium, Vanda growing on other plant.
b. The two types of roots exhibited by this plant must be clinging roots and epiphytic roots.
c. Clinging roots:
1. Clinging roots are tiny roots develop along intemodes, show disc at tips.
2. It exudes sticky substance which enables plant to get attached to the substratum without damaging it.

d. Epiphytic roots:
1. Epiphytic plants like Vanda, Dendrobium grow on branches of trees in dense rain forests and are unable to obtain moisture from soil.
2. Such plants produce epiphytic roots which hang in the air.
3. The roots are provided with a spongy membranous absorbent covering of the velamen tissue.
4. The cells of velamen tissue are hygroscopic and have porous walls, thus they can absorb moisture from air.
5. Epiphytic roots can be silvery white or green and are without root cap.

Question (G)
While having lunch onion slices were served to them. Teacher asked which part of the plant are you eating?
Answer:
a. The edible part of an onion is fleshy leaves.
b. Onion is a bulb, in which stem is highly reduced, discoid and possesses adventitious roots at the base.
c. This stem bears a whorl of fleshy leaves which store food material.
d. The scale leaves or fleshy leaves are arranged in concentric manner over the stem. Some outer scale leaves become thin and dry. Thus, it is also called as tunicated or layered bulb.

Question (H)
Students observed large leaves of coconut and small leaves of Mimosa. Teacher asked it what way they are similar?
Answer:
a. Both large leaves of coconut and small leaves of Mimosa show pinnately compound leaves.
b. In both plants, leaf lamina is divided into number of leaflets.
c. Leaflets are present laterally on a common axis called rachis, which represents the midrib of the leaf.

Question (I)
Teacher showed them Marigold flower and said it is not one flower. What the teacher meant?
Answer:
a. Marigold flower is an inflorescence in which flowers are produced in a definite manner on a peduncle.
b. In Marigold, racemose type of inflorescence can be observed.
c. In this, peduncle condenses to form a flat rounded structure called receptacle.
d. Opening of flower centripetal i.e. younger flowers are towards the centre and open later, while older flowers towards the periphery and open first.

Question (J)
Students cut open a Papaya fruit and found all the seeds attached to the sides. Teacher inquired about the possible placentation of Papaya ovary.
Answer:
a. In Papaya, seeds are attached to the sides of a fruit. Thus, parietal placentation is possible in papaya ovary,
b. In parietal placentation, ovules are placed on the inner wall of unil unilocular ovary of multicarpellary, syncarpus gynoecium.

Question 6.
Match the following.

Answer:
(i-c-1), (ii-e-3), (iii-a-4), (iv-b-5), (v-d-2)
[Note: Another example of palmately compound leaf (Bifoliate) is Balanites roxburghii.]

Question 7.
Observe the following figures and label the different parts.

Answer:

8. Differentiate with diagrammatic representation.

Question (A)
Differentiate with diagrammatic representation: Racemose and cymose inflorescence.
Answer:

Question (B)
Differentiate with diagrammatic representation: Reticulate and parallel venation
Answer:

Question (C)
Differentiate with diagrammatic representation: Taproot and Adventitious roots
Answer:

Practical / Project:

Question 1.
Collect different leaves from nearby region and observe variation in margin, leaf base, apex etc.
[Note: Students can scan the given Q.R code to study the different le
af margin, leaf base and apex.]

Question 2.
Find out and make a note of economically important plant from family Fabaceae, Solanaceae and Liliaceae.
Answer:
1. Economically important plant from family Fabaceae:
Family Fabaceae includes many pulses like gram, arhar, moong, soybean; edible oil seeds like soybean, groundnut; dye (lndigofera); fibres which can be obtained from Sun hemp, Sesbania trifolium which can be used as fodder; some plants are ornamental like lupin, sweet pea; some medicinal plants like muliathi.

2. Economically important plant from family Solanaceae:
Family Solanaceae includes many plants which are good source of food e.g. tomato, brinjal, potato; Spice e.g. chilli; Medicine e.g. belladonna, ashwagandha; Ornamental plants like Petunia.

3. Economically important plant from family Liliaceae:
Family Liliaceae includes many ornamental plants like tulip, Gloriosa, Medicinal plants like Aloe vera. Asparagus and source of colchicine, e.g. Colchicum autumnale.

Question 3.
Collect different leaves from garden and observe their veins and classify it.

11th Biology Digest Chapter 9 Morphology of Flowering Plants Intext Questions and Answers

Use your brainpower. (Textbook Page No. 102)

Why underground stem is different from roots?
Answer:
Underground stems are modified to perform different functions like storage of food, perennation and vegetative propagation. However, they differ from root in having nodes and intemodes.

Use your brainpower. (Textbook Page No. 104)

Why the stem has to perform photosynthesis in xerophytes?
Answer:
1. Xerophytes are the plants which grow in regions with scanty or no rainfall like desert.
2. In Xerophytes, leaves get modified into spines or get reduced in size to check the loss of water due to transpiration.
3. As the leaves are modified into spines, the stem becomes green in colour to do the function of photosynthesis.

Internet My Friend. (Textbook Page No. 106)

Collect information of types of leaf venation.
Answer:
1. Figure ‘R’ shows types of reticulate venation. WTien the veins and veinlets form a network, it is called
reticulate venation.
On the basis of number of mid-veins, reticulate venation is of two types:
a. Pinnate or unicostate: It is with single midrib e.g. Peepal, Mango.
b. Palmate or multicostate: It is with two or more prominent veins. It is further divided into convergent or divergent.
1. Multicostate convergent reticulate: Many prominent veins appear from the base of leaf lamina and converged in a curved manner towards the leaf apex. e.g. Zizyphus
2. Multicostate divergent reticulate: Prominent veins arise from the single point at the base of leaf lamina
and then diverge from one another towards the leaf margin, e.g. Cucurbita

2. Figure ‘P’ shows types of parallel venation. When veins run almost parallel to one another it is called parallel venation. It is of two types:
a. Unicostate: In this, lamina has single prominent mid vein from which many lateral parallel veins arise at regular intervals, e.g. Banana
b. Multicostate: In this, two or more mid veins run parallel to each other. It is further divided into convergent or divergent.

1. Multicostate convergent parallel:
Many prominent veins arise from the leaf base and then converge at leaf apex. e.g. Grasses
2. Multicostate divergent parallel:
Many prominent veins arise from the leaf base and then diverge towards margin, e.g. Borassus flabellifer (Toddy palm)

Observe and Discuss. (Textbook Page No. 112)

Observe and Discuss.
Answer:
1. Figure ‘a’ shows fruit of tomato.

It is a simple fruit as it develops from a single flower with bicarpellary syncarpous gynoecium.
It is a berry, because it has fleshy endocarp and many seeds.

2. Figure ‘b’ shows fruit of Custard apple.

It is an aggregate fruit, because it develops from a single flower with polycarpellary, apocarpous gynoecium.
Here, the ovary of each carpel gives rise to a part of the fruit called fruitlet. Hence, it is called an aggregation of fruitlets.
Custard apple can be further described as Etaerio of berries.

3. Figure ‘c’ shows fruit of pineapple.

It is a composite fruit, because it develops from a complete inflorescence.
Pineapple can be further described as Sorosis, as it develops from catkin type of inflorescence.

4. Figure ‘d’ shows fruit of milkweed.

It is a simple dehiscent dry fruit.
It has many seeds. When pericarp becomes dry and thin, it breaks open by one ventral suture.

Activity. (Textbook Page No. 113)

Study the family Liliaceae, prepare a table of following characteristics.
Answer:

Symmetry of flower	Actinomorphic
Bisexual/ Unisexual	Bisexual
Calyx	Absent
Corolla	Absent
Androecium	Stamens six, arranged in two whorls of 3 each, epiphyllous
Gynoecium	Tricarpellary, syncarpous, trilocular ovary with many ovules
Aestivation	Valvate
a. Calyx	Absent
b. Corolla	Absent
Placentation	Axile
Position of ovary	Superior ovary
Types of fruit	Capsule, rarely berry

11th Std Biology Questions And Answers:

11th Physics Chapter 13 Exercise Electromagnetic Waves and Communication System Solutions Maharashtra Board

January 7, 2025January 6, 2025 by Prasanna

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Physics Textbook Solutions Chapter 13 Electromagnetic Waves and Communication System Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Electromagnetic Waves and Communication System Class 13 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Class 11 Physics Chapter 13 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Physics Class 11 Chapter 13 Exercise Solutions

1. Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
The EM wave emitted by the Sun and responsible for heating the Earth’s atmosphere due to green house effect is
(A) Infra-red radiation
(B) X ray
(C) Microwave
(D) Visible light
Answer:
(A) Infra-red radiation

Question 2.
Earth’s atmosphere is richest in
(A) UV
(B) IR
(C) X-ray
(D) Microwaves
Answer:
(B) IR

Question 3.
How does the frequency of a beam of ultraviolet light change when it travels from air into glass?
(A) depends on the values of p and e
(B) increases
(C) decreases
(D) remains same
Answer:
(D) remains same

Question 4.
The direction of EM wave is given by
(A) \(\bar{E}\) × \(\bar{B}\)
(B) \(\bar{E}\).\(\bar{B}\)
(C) along \(\bar{E}\)
(D) along \(\bar{B}\)
Answer:
(A) \(\bar{E}\) × \(\bar{B}\)

Question 5.
The maximum distance upto which TV transmission from a TV tower of height h can be received is proportional to
(A) h½
(B) h
(C) h^3/2
(D) h²
Answer:
(A) h½

Question 6.
The waves used by artificial satellites for communication purposes are
(A) Microwave
(B) AM radio waves
(C) FM radio waves
(D) X-rays
Answer:
(A) Microwave

Question 7.
If a TV telecast is to cover a radius of 640 km, what should be the height of transmitting antenna?
(A) 32000 m
(B) 53000 m
(C) 42000 m
(D) 55000 m
Answer:
(A) 32000 m

2. Answer briefly.

Question 1.
State two characteristics of an EM wave.
Answer:
i. The electric and magnetic fields, \(\vec{E}\) and \(\vec{B}\) are always perpendicular to each other and also to the direction of propagation of the EM wave. Thus, the EM waves are transverse waves.

ii. The cross product (\(\vec{E}\) × \(\vec{B}\)) gives the direction in which the EM wave travels. (\(\vec{E}\) × \(\vec{B}\)) also gives the energy carried by EM wave.

Question 2.
Why are microwaves used in radar?
Answer:
Microwaves are used in radar systems for identifying the location of distant objects like ships, aeroplanes etc.

Question 3.
What are EM waves?
Answer:
Waves that are caused by the acceleration of charged particles and consist of electric and magnetic fields vibrating sinusoidally at right angles to each other and to the direction of propagation are called EM waves or EM radiation.

Question 4.
How are EM waves produced?
Answer:

According to quantum theory, an electron, while orbiting around the nucleus in a stable orbit does not emit EM radiation even though it undergoes acceleration.
It will emit an EM radiation only when it falls from an orbit of higher energy to one of lower energy.
EM waves (such as X-rays) are produced when fast moving electrons hit a target of high atomic number (such as molybdenum, copper, etc.).
An electric charge at rest has an electric field in the region around it but has no magnetic field.
When the charge moves, it produces both electric and magnetic fields.
If the charge moves with a constant velocity, the magnetic field will not change with time and hence, it cannot produce an EM wave.
But if the charge is accelerated, both the magnetic and electric fields change with space and time and an EM wave is produced.
Thus, an oscillating charge emits an EM wave which has the same frequency as that of the oscillation of the charge.

Question 5.
Can we produce a pure electric or magnetic wave in space? Why?
Answer:
No.
In vacuum, an electric field cannot directly induce another electric field so a “pure” electric field wave cannot exist and same can be said for a “pure” magnetic wave.

Question 6.
Does an ordinary electric lamp emit EM waves?
Answer:
Yes, ordinary electric lamp emits EM waves.

Question 7.
Why light waves travel in vacuum whereas sound wave cannot?
Answer:
Light waves are electromagnetic waves which can travel in vacuum whereas sound waves travel due to the vibration of particles of medium. Without any particles present (like in a vacuum) no vibrations can be produced. Hence, the sound wave cannot travel through the vacuum.

Question 8.
What are ultraviolet rays? Give two uses.
Answer:
Production:

Ultraviolet rays can be produced by the mercury vapour lamp, electric spark and carbon arc lamp.
They can also be obtained by striking electrical discharge in hydrogen and xenon gas tubes.
The Sun is the most important natural source of ultraviolet rays, most of which are absorbed by the ozone layer in the Earth’s atmosphere.

Uses:

Ultraviolet rays destroy germs and bacteria and hence they are used for sterilizing surgical instruments and for purification of water.
Used in burglar alarms and security systems.
Used to distinguish real and fake gems.

Question 9.
What are radio waves? Give its two uses.
Answer:

Radio waves are produced by accelerated motion of charges in a conducting wire. The frequency of waves produced by the circuit depends upon the magnitudes of the inductance and the capacitance.
Thus, by choosing suitable values of the inductance and the capacitance, radio waves of desired frequency can be produced.

Uses:

Radio waves are used for wireless communication purpose.
They are used for radio broadcasting and transmission of TV signals.
Cellular phones use radio waves to transmit voice communication in the ultra high frequency (UHF) band.

Question 10.
Name the most harmful radiation entering the Earth’s atmosphere from the outer space.
Answer:
Ultraviolet radiation.

Question 11.
Give reasons for the following:
i. Long distance radio broadcast uses short wave bands.
ii. Satellites are used for long distance TV transmission.
Answer:
i. Long distance radio broadcast uses short wave bands because electromagnetic waves only in the frequency range of short wave bands only are reflected by the ionosphere.

ii. a. It is necessary to use satellites for long distance TV transmissions because television signals are of high frequencies and high energies. Thus, these signals are not reflected by the ionosphere.
b. Hence, satellites are helpful in long distance TV transmission.

Question 12.
Name the three basic units of any communication system.
Answer:
Three basic (essential) elements of every communication system are transmitter, communication channel and receiver.

Question 13.
What is a carrier wave?
Answer:
The high frequency waves on which the signals to be transmitted are superimposed are called carrier waves.

Question 14.
Why high frequency carrier waves are used for transmission of audio signals?
Answer:
An audio signal has low frequency (<20 kHz) and low frequency signals cannot be transmitted over large distances. Because of this, a high frequency carrier waves are used for transmission.

Question 15.
What is modulation?
Answer:
The signals in communication system (e.g. music, speech etc.) are low frequency signals and cannot be transmitted over large distances. In order to transmit the signal to large distances, it is superimposed on a high frequency wave (called carrier wave). This process is called modulation.

Question 16.
What is meant by amplitude modulation?
Answer:
When the amplitude of carrier wave is varied in accordance with the modulating signal, the process is called amplitude modulation.

Question 17.
What is meant by noise?
Answer:

A random unwanted signal is called noise.
The source generating the noise may be located inside or outside the system.
Efforts should be made to minimize the noise level in a communication system.

Question 18.
What is meant by bandwidth?
Answer:
The bandwidth of an electronic circuit is the range of frequencies over which it operates efficiently.

Question 19.
What is demodulation?
Answer:
The process of regaining signal from a modulated wave is called demodulation. This is the reverse process of modulation.

Question 20.
What type of modulation is required for television broadcast?
Answer:
Amplitude modulation is required for television broadcast.

Question 21.
How does the effective power radiated by an antenna vary with wavelength?
Answer:

To transmit a signal, an antenna or an aerial is needed.
Power radiated from a linear antenna of length l is, P ∝ (\(\frac {l}{λ}\))²
where, λ is the wavelength of the signal.

Question 22.
Why should broadcasting programs use different frequencies?
Answer:
If broadcasting programs run on same frequency, then the information carried by these waves will get mixed up with each other. Hence, different broadcasting programs should run on different frequencies.

Question 23.
Explain the necessity of a carrier wave in communication.
Answer:

Without a carrier wave, the input signals could be carried by very low frequency electromagnetic waves but it will need quite a bit of amplification in order to transmit those very low frequencies.
The input signals themselves do not have much power and need a fairly large antenna in order to transmit the information.
Hence, it is necessary to impose the input signal on carrier wave as it requires less power in order to transmit the information.

Question 24.
Why does amplitude modulation give noisy reception?
Answer:
i. In amplitude modulation, carrier is varied in accordance with the message signal.

ii. The higher the amplitude, the greater is magnitude of the signal. So even if due to any reason, the magnitude of the signal changes, it will lead to variation in the amplitude of the signal. So its easy for noise to disturb the amplitude modulated signal.

Question 25.
Explain why is modulation needed.
Answer:
Modulation helps in avoiding mixing up of signals from different transmitters as different carrier wave frequencies can be allotted to different transmitters. Without the use of these waves, the audio signals, if transmitted directly by different transmitters, would get mixed up.

3. Solve the numerical problem.

Question 1.
Calculate the frequency in MHz of a radio wave of wavelength 250 m. Remember that the speed of all EM waves in vacuum is 3.0 × 10⁸ m/s.
Answer:
Given: λ = 250 m, c = 3 × 10⁸ m/s
To find: Frequency (v)
Formula: c = v⁸
Calculation: From formula,
v = \(\frac {c}{λ}\) = \(\frac {3×10^8}{250}\) = 1.2 × 10⁶ Hz
= 1.2 MHz

Question 2.
Calculate the wavelength in nm of an X-ray wave of frequency 2.0 × 10¹⁸ Hz.
Solution:
Given: c = 3 × 10⁸, v = 2 × 10¹⁸ Hz
To find: Wavelength (λ)
Formula: c = vλ
Calculation. From formula,
λ = \(\frac {c}{v}\) = \(\frac {3×10^8}{2×10^{18}}\) = 1.5 × 10^-10
= 0.15 nm

Question 3.
The speed of light is 3 × 10⁸ m/s. Calculate the frequency of red light of wavelength of 6.5 × 10^-7 m.
Answer:
Given: c = 3 × 10⁸ m/s, λ = 6.5 × 10^-7 m
To find: Frequency (v)
Formula: c = vλ
Calculation: From formula,
v = \(\frac {c}{λ}\) = \(\frac {3×10^8}{6.5×10^{-7}}\) = 4.6 × 10¹⁴ Hz

Question 4.
Calculate the wavelength of a microwave of frequency 8.0 GHz.
Answer:
Given: v = 8 GHz = 8 × 10⁹ Hz,
c = 3 × 10⁸ m/s
To find: Wavelength (λ)
Formula: c = vλ
Calculation: From formula,
λ = \(\frac {c}{λ}\) = \(\frac {3×10^8}{8×10^9}\) = 3.75 × 10^-2
= 3.75 cm

Question 5.
In a EM wave the electric field oscillates sinusoidally at a frequency of 2 × 10¹⁰ What is the wavelength of the wave?
Answer:
Given: v = 2 × 10¹⁰ Hz, c = 3 × 10⁸ m
To find: Wavelength (λ)
Formula: c = vλ
Calculation: From formula,
λ = \(\frac {c}{λ}\) = \(\frac {3×10^8}{2×10^{10}}\) = 1.5 × 10^-2

Question 6.
The amplitude of the magnetic field part of a harmonic EM wave in vacuum is B0 = 5 X 10-7 T. What is the amplitude of the electric field part of the wave?
Answer:
Given: B₀ = 5 × 10^-7 T, c = 3 × 10⁸
To find: Amplitude of electric field (E₀)
Formula: c = \(\frac {E_0}{B_0}\)
Calculation /From formula,
E₀ = c × B₀
= 3 × 10⁸ × 5 × 10^-7
= 150 V/m

Question 7.
A TV tower has a height of 200 m. How much population is covered by TV transmission if the average population density around the tower is 1000/km²? (Radius of the Earth = 6.4 × 10⁶ m)
Answer:
Given: h = 200 m,
Population density (n)
= 1000/km² = 1000 × 10^-6/m² = 10^-3/m²
R = 6.4 ×10⁶ m
To find: Population covered
Formulae: i. A = πd² = π(\(\sqrt{2Rh}\))² = 2πRh
ii. Population covered = nA
Calculation /From formula (i),
A = 2πRh
= 2 × 3.142 × 6.4 × 10⁶ × 200
≈ 8 × 10⁹ m²
From formula (ii),
Population covered = nA
= 10^-3 × 8 × 10⁹
= 8 × 10⁶

Question 8.
Height of a TV tower is 600 m at a given place. Calculate its coverage range if the radius of the Earth is 6400 km. What should be the height to get the double coverage area?
Answer:
Given: h = 600 m, R = 6.4 × 10⁶ m
To find: Range (d)
Height to get the double coverage (h’)
Formula: d = \(\sqrt{2hR}\)
Calculation: From formula,
d = \(\sqrt{2×600×6.4×10^6}\) = 87.6 × 10³ = 87.6 km
Now, for A’ = 2A
π(d’)² = 2 (πd²)
∴ (d’)² = 2d²
From formula,
h’ = \(\frac{(d’)^2}{2R}\)
= \(\frac{2d^2}{2R}\)
= 2 × h ……….. (∵ h = \(\frac{d^2}{2R}\))
= 2 × 600
=1200 m

Question 9.
A transmitting antenna at the top of a tower has a height 32 m and that of the receiving antenna is 50 m. What is the maximum distance between them for satisfactory communication in line of sight mode? Given radius of Earth is 6.4 × 10⁶ m.
Answer:
Given: h_t = 32 m, h_r = 50 m, R = 6.4 × 10⁶ m
To find: Maximum distance or range (d)
Formula: d = \(\sqrt{2Rh}\)
Calculation: From formula,
d_t = \(\sqrt{2Rh_t}\) = \(\sqrt{2×6.4×10^6×32}\)
= 20.238 × 10³ m
= 20.238 km
d_r = \(\sqrt{2Rh_t}\)
= \(\sqrt{2×6.4×10^6×50}\)
= 25.298 × 10³ m
= 25.298 km
Now, d = d_t + d_r
= 20.238 + 25.298
= 45.536 km

11th Physics Digest Chapter 13 Electromagnetic Waves and Communication System Intext Questions and Answers

Can you recall? (Textbookpage no. 229)

Question 1.
i. What is a wave?
Answer:
Wave is an oscillatory disturbance which travels through a medium without change in its form.

ii. What is the difference between longitudinal and transverse waves?
Answer:
a. Transverse wave: A wave in which particles of the medium vibrate in a direction perpendicular to the direction of propagation of wave is called transverse wave.
b. Longitudinal wave: A wave in which particles of the medium vibrate in a direction parallel to the direction of propagation of wave is called longitudinal wave.

iii. What are electric and magnetic fields and what are their sources?
Answer:
a. Electric field is the force experienced by a test charge in presence of the given charge at the given distance from it.
b. A magnetic field is produced around a magnet or around a current carrying conductor.

iv. By which mechanism heat is lost by hot bodies?
Answer:
Hot bodies lose the heat in the form of radiation.

Question 2.
What are Lenz’s law, Ampere’s law and Faraday’s law?
Answer:
Lenz’s law:
Whereas, Lenz’s law states that, the direction of the induced emf is such that the change is opposed.

Ampere’s law:
Ampere’s law describes the relation between the induced magnetic field associated with a loop and the current flowing through the loop.

Faraday’s law:
Faraday’s law states that, time varying magnetic field induces an electromotive force (emf) and an electric field.

Internet my friend. (Tpxtboakpage no. 240)

https//www.iiap.res.in/centers/iao
[Students are expected to visit the above mentioned website and collect more information about different EM wave propagations used by astronomical observatories.]

11th Std Physics Questions And Answers:

11th Chemistry Chapter 8 Exercise Elements of Group 1 and 2 Solutions Maharashtra Board

January 7, 2025January 6, 2025 by Bhagya

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Chemistry Textbook Solutions Chapter 8 Elements of Group 1 and 2 Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Elements of Group 1 and 2 Class 11 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 8 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Chemistry Class 11 Chapter 8 Exercise Solutions

1. Explain the following

Question A.
Hydrogen shows similarity with alkali metals as well as halogens.
Answer:

Electronic configuration of hydrogen is 1s¹ which is similar to the outer electronic configuration of alkali metals of group 1 i.e., ns¹.
However, 1s¹ also resembles the outer electronic configuration of group 17 elements i.e., ns² np⁵.
By adding one electron to H, it will attain electronic configuration of the inert gas He which is 1s² and by adding one electron to ns² np⁵ we get ns²np⁶ which is the outer electronic configuration of the remaining inert gases.
Therefore, some chemical properties of hydrogen are similar to those of alkali metals while some resemble halogens.

Hence, hydrogen shows similarity with alkali metals as well as halogens.

Question B.
Standard reduction potential of alkali metals have high negative values.
Answer:

The general outer electronic configuration of alkali metals is ns¹.
They readily lose one valence shell electron to achieve stable noble gas configuration and hence, they are highly electropositive and are good reducing agents.

Hence, standard reduction potentials of alkali metals have high negative values.

Question C.
Alkaline earth metals have low values of electronegativity; which decrease down the group.
Answer:

Electronegativity represents attractive force exerted by the nucleus on shared electrons.
The general outer electronic configuration of alkaline earth metals is ns². They readily lose their two valence shell electrons to achieve stable noble gas configuration. They are electropositive and hence, they have low values of electronegativity.

Question D.
Sodium dissolves in liquid ammonia to form a solution which shows electrical conductivity.
Answer:
i. Sodium dissolves in liquid ammonia giving deep blue coloured solutions which is electrically conducting in nature.
Na + (x + y) NH₃ → [Na(NH₃)_x]+ + [e(NH₃)_y]^–
ii. Due to formation of ions, the solution shows electrical conductivity.

Question E.
BeCl₂ is covalent while MgCl₂ is ionic.
Answer:

Be²⁺ ion has very small ionic size and therefore, it has very high charge density.
Due to this, it has high tendency to distort the electron cloud around the negatively charged chloride ion (Cl^–) which is larger in size.
This results in partial covalent character of the bond in BeCl₂.
Mg²⁺ ion has very less tendency to distort the electron cloud of Cl^– due to the bigger size of Mg²⁺ as compared to Be²⁺.

Hence, BeCl₂ is covalent while MgCl₂ is ionic.

Question F.
Lithium floats an water while sodium floats and catches fire when put in water.
Answer:

When lithium and sodium react with water, hydrogen gas is released. Due to these hydrogen gas bubbles, lithium and sodium floats on water.
eg. 2Na + 2H₂O → 2Na⁺ + 2OH^– + H₂↑
The reactivity of group 1 metals increases with increasing atomic radius and lowering of ionization enthalpy down the group.
Thus, sodium having lower ionization enthalpy, is more reactive than lithium.
Hence, lithium reacts slowly while sodium reacts vigorously with water.
Since the reaction of sodium with water is highly exothermic, it catches fire when put in water.

2. Write balanced chemical equations for the following.

Question A.
CO₂ is passed into concentrated solution of NaCl, which is saturated with NH₃.
Answer:

Question B.
A 50% solution of sulphuric acid is subjected to electrolyte oxidation and the product is hydrolysed.
Answer:

Question C.
Magnesium is heated in air.
Answer:

Question D.
Beryllium oxide is treated separately with aqueous HCl and aqueous NaOH solutions.
Answer:
Beryllium oxide (BeO) is an amphoteric oxide and thus, it reacts with both acid (HCl) as well as base (NaOH) to give the corresponding products.
i. \(\mathrm{BeO}+\underset{(\text { Acid })}{2 \mathrm{HCl}} \longrightarrow \mathrm{BeCl}_{2}+\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}\)
ii. \(\mathrm{BeO}+\underset{(\text { Base })}{2 \mathrm{NaOH}} \longrightarrow \mathrm{Na}_{2} \mathrm{BeO}_{2}+\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}\)

3. Answer the following questions

Question A.
Describe the diagonal relationship between Li and Mg with the help of two illustrative properties.
Answer:
a. The relative placement of these elements with similar properties in the periodic table is across a diagonal and is called diagonal relationship.
b. Lithium is placed in the group 1 and period 2 of the modem periodic table. It resembles with magnesium which is placed in the group 2 and period 3.

ii. Li and Mg show similarities in many of their properties.
e. g.
a. Reaction with oxygen:
1. Group 1 elements except lithium, react with oxygen present in the air to form oxides (M₂O) as well as peroxides (M₂O₂) and superoxides (MO₂) on further reaction with excess of oxygen.
2. This anomalous behaviour of lithium is due to its resemblance with magnesium as a result of diagonal relationship.
3. As group 2 elements form monoxides i.e., oxides, lithium also form monoxides.

b. Reaction with nitrogen:
1. All the group 1 elements react only with oxygen present in the air to form oxides while group 2 elements react with both nitrogen and oxygen present in the air forming corresponding oxides and nitrides.
2. However, lithium reacts with oxygen as well as nitrogen present in the air due to its resemblance with magnesium.

Question B.
Describe the industrial production of dihydrogen from steam. Also write the chemical reaction involved.
Answer:
Three stages are involved in the industrial production of dihydrogen from steam.
i. Stage 1:
a. Reaction of steam on hydrocarbon or coke (C) at 1270 K temperature in presence of nickel catalyst gives water-gas which is a mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen.
1. Reaction of steam with hydrocarbon:

2. Reaction of steam with coke or carbon (C):

b. Sawdust, scrapwood, etc. can also be used in place of carbon.

ii. Stage 2:
Water-gas shift reaction: When carbon monoxide in the water-gas reacts with steam in the presence of iron chromate (FeCrO₄) as catalyst, it gets transformed into carbon dioxide. This is called water-gas shift reaction.

iii. Stage 3: In the last stage, carbon dioxide is removed by scrubbing with sodium arsenite solution.

Question C.
A water sample, which did not give lather with soap, was found to contain Ca(HCO₃)₂ and Mg(HCO₃)₂. Which chemical will make this water give lather with soap? Explain with the help of chemical reactions.
Answer:

Soap does not lather in hard water due to presence of the soluble salts of calcium and magnesium in it. So, the given water sample is hard water.
Hardness of hard water can be removed by removal of these calcium and magnesium salts.
Sodium carbonate is used to make hard water soft as it precipitates out the soluble calcium and magnesium salts in hard water as carbonates. Thus, it will make water give lather with soap.
e.g. Ca(HCO₃)_2(aq) + Na₂CO_3(aq) → CaCO_3(s) + 2NaHCO_3(aq)

Question D.
Name the isotopes of hydrogen. Write their atomic composition schematically and explain which of these is radioactive ?
Answer:
i. Hydrogen has three isotopes i.e., hydrogen \(\left({ }_{1}^{1} \mathrm{H}\right)\), deuterium \(\left({ }_{1}^{2} \mathrm{H}\right)\) and tritium \(\left({ }_{1}^{3} \mathrm{H}\right)\) with mass numbers 1, 2 and 3 respectively.
ii. They all contain one proton and one electron but different number of neutrons in the nucleus.
iii. Atomic composition of isotopes of hydrogen:

iv. Tritium is a radioactive nuclide with half-life period 12.4 years and emits low energy β^– particles.
v. Schematic representation of isotopes of hydrogen is as follows:

4. Name the following

Question A.
Alkali metal with smallest atom.
Answer:
Lithium (Li)

Question B.
The most abundant element in the universe.
Answer:
Hydrogen (H)

Question C.
Radioactive alkali metal.
Answer:
Francium (Fr)

Question D.
Ions having high concentration in cell sap.
Answer:
Potassium ions (K⁺)

Question E.
A compound having hydrogen, aluminium and lithium as its constituent elements.
Answer:
Lithium aluminium hydride (LiAlH₄)

5. Choose the correct option.

Question A.
The unstable isotope of hydrogen is …..
a. H-1
b. H-2
c. H-3
d. H-4
Answer:
c. H-3

Question B.
Identify the odd one.
a. Rb
b. Ra
c. Sr
d. Be
Answer:
a. Rb

Question C.
Which of the following is Lewis acid ?
a. BaCl₂
b. KCl
c. BeCl₂
d. LiCl
Answer:
c. BeCl₂

Question D.
What happens when crystalline Na₂CO₃ is heated ?
a. releases CO₂
b. loses H₂O
c. decomposes into NaHCO₃
d. colour changes.
Answer:
b. loses H₂O

Activity :

1. Collect the information of preparation of dihydrogen and make a chart.
2. Find out the s block elements compounds importance/uses.
Answer:
1.

2. Uses of s-block elements:
Group 1 elements (alkali metals):
a. Lithium: Lithium is widely used in batteries.
b. Sodium:

Liquid sodium metal is used as a coolant in fast breeder nuclear reactors.
Sodium is also used as an important reagent in the Wurtz reaction.
It is used in the manufacture of sodium vapour lamp.

c. Potassium:

Potassium has a vital role in biological system.
Potassium chloride (KCl) is used as a fertilizer.
Potassium hydroxide (KOH) is used in the manufacture of soft soaps and also as an excellent absorbent of carbon dioxide.
Potassium superoxide (KO₂) is used as a source of oxygen.

d. Caesium: Caesium is used in devising photoelectric cells.

Group 2 elements (alkaline earth metals):
a. Magnesium: Magnesium hydroxide [Mg(OH)₂] in its suspension form is used as an antacid.
b. Calcium: Compounds of calcium such as limestone and gypsum are used as constituents of cement and mortar.
c. Barium: BaSO₄ being insoluble in H₂O and opaque to X-rays is used as ‘barium meal’ to scan the X-ray of human digestive system.
[Note: Students are expected to collect additional information about preparation of dihydrogen and uses of s-block elements on their own.]

11th Chemistry Digest Chapter 8 Elements of Group 1 and 2 Intext Questions and Answers

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 110)

Question 1.
Which is the first element in the periodic table?
Answer:
Hydrogen is the first element in the periodic table.

Question 2.
What are isotopes?
Answer:
Many elements exist naturally as a mixture of two or more types of atoms or nuclides. These individual nuclides are called isotopes of that element. Isotopes of an element have the same atomic number (number of protons) but different atomic mass numbers due to different number of neutrons in their nuclei.

Question 3.
Write the formulae of the compounds of hydrogen formed with sodium and chlorine.
Answer:
Hydrogen combines with sodium to form sodium hydride (NaH) while it reacts with chlorine to form hydrogen chloride (HCl).

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 110)

Question 1.
In which group should hydrogen be placed? In group 1 or group 17? Why?
Answer:

Hydrogen contains one valence electron in its valence shell and thus, its valency is one. Therefore, hydrogen resembles alkali metals (group 1 elements) as they also contain one electron in their valence shell (alkali metals tend to lose their valence electron).
However, hydrogen also shows similarity with halogens (group 17 elements) as their valency is also one because halogens tend to accept one electron in their valence shell.
Due to this unique behaviour, it is difficult to assign any definite position to hydrogen in the modem periodic table.

Just think! (Textbook Page No. 112)

Question 1.
\(2 \mathrm{Na}_{(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{H}_{2(\mathrm{~g})} \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} 2 \mathrm{NaH}_{(\mathrm{s})}\)
In the above chemical reaction which element does undergo oxidation and which does undergo reduction?
Answer:
i. Redox reaction can be described as electron transfer as shown below:
2Na_(s) + H_2(g) → 2Na⁺ + 2H^–
ii. Charge development suggests that each sodium atom loses one electron to form Na⁺ and each hydrogen atom gains one electron to form H. This can be represented as follows:

iii. Na is oxidised to NaH by loss of electrons while the elemental hydrogen is reduced to NaH by gain of electrons.

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 113)

Question i.
What is the name of the family of reactive metals having valency one?
Answer:
The family of reactive metals having valency one is known as alkali metals (group 1).

Question ii.
What is the name of the family of reactive metals having valency two?
Answer:
The family of reactive metals having valency two is known as alkaline earth metals (group 2).

11th Std Chemistry Questions And Answers:

11th Physics Chapter 3 Exercise Motion in a Plane Solutions Maharashtra Board

January 7, 2025January 6, 2025 by Prasanna

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Physics Textbook Solutions Chapter 3 Motion in a Plane Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Motion in a Plane Class 11 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Class 11 Physics Chapter 3 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Physics Class 11 Chapter 3 Exercise Solutions

1. Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
An object thrown from a moving bus is on example of __________
(A) Uniform circular motion
(B) Rectilinear motion
(C) Projectile motion
(D) Motion in one dimension
Answer:
(C) Projectile motion

Question 2.
For a particle having a uniform circular motion, which of the following is constant ____________.
(A) Speed
(B) Acceleration
(C) Velocity
(D) Displacement
Answer:
(A) Speed

Question 3.
The bob of a conical pendulum undergoes ___________
(A) Rectilinear motion in horizontal plane
(B) Uniform motion in a horizontal circle
(C) Uniform motion in a vertical circle
(D) Rectilinear motion in vertical circle
Answer:
(B) Uniform motion in a horizontal circle

Question 4.
For uniform acceleration in rectilinear motion which of the following is not correct?
(A) Velocity-time graph is linear
(B) Acceleration is the slope of velocity time graph
(C) The area under the velocity-time graph equals displacement
(D) Velocity-time graph is nonlinear
Answer:
(D) Velocity-time graph is nonlinear

Question 5.
If three particles A, B and C are having velocities \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{v}}_{A}\), \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{v}}_{B}\) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{v}}_{C}\) which of the following formula gives the relative velocity of A with respect to B
(A) \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{v}}_{A}\) + \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{v}}_{B}\)
(B) \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{v}}_{A}\) – \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{v}}_{C}\) + \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{v}}_{B}\)
(C) \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{v}}_{A}\) – \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{v}}_{B}\)
(D) \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{v}}_{C}\) – \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{v}}_{A}\)
Answer:
(C) \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{v}}_{A}\) – \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{v}}_{B}\)

2. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Separate the following in groups of scalar and vectors: velocity, speed, displacement, work done, force, power, energy, acceleration, electric charge, angular velocity.
Answer:
Scalars
Speed, work done, power, energy, electric charge.

Vectors
Velocity, displacement, force, acceleration, angular velocity (pseudo vector).

Question 2.
Define average velocity and instantaneous velocity. When are they same?
Answer:
Average velocity:

Average velocity (\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{v}}_{\mathrm{av}}\)) of an object is the displacement (\(\Delta \overrightarrow{\mathrm{x}}\)) of the object during the time interval (∆t) over which average velocity is being calculated, divided by that time interval.
Average velocity = (\(\frac{\text { Displacement }}{\text { Time interval }}\))
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{av}}}=\frac{\overrightarrow{\mathrm{x}}_{2}-\overrightarrow{\mathrm{x}}_{1}}{\mathrm{t}_{2}-\mathrm{t}_{1}}=\frac{\Delta \overrightarrow{\mathrm{x}}}{\Delta \mathrm{t}}\)
Average velocity is a vector quantity.
Its SI unit is m/s and dimensions are [M⁰L¹T^-1]
For example, if the positions of an object are x +4 m and x = +6 m at times t = O and t = 1 minute respectively, the magnitude of its average velocity during that time is V_av = (6 – 4)1(1 – 0) = 2 m per minute and its direction will be along the positive X-axis.
∴ \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{v}}_{\mathrm{av}}\) = 2 i m/min
Where, i = unit vector along X-axis.

Instantaneous velocity:

The instantaneous velocity (\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{V}}\)) is the limiting value of ¡he average velocity of the object over a small time interval (∆t) around t when the value of lime interval goes to zero.
It is the velocity of an object at a given instant of time.
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{v}}=\lim _{\Delta t \rightarrow 0} \frac{\Delta \overrightarrow{\mathrm{x}}}{\Delta \mathrm{t}}=\frac{\mathrm{d} \overrightarrow{\mathrm{x}}}{\mathrm{dt}}\)
where \(\frac{\mathrm{d} \overrightarrow{\mathrm{x}}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) derivative of \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{x}}\) with respect to t.

In case of uniform rectilinear motion, i.e., when an object is moving with constant velocity along a straight line, the average and instantaneous velocity remain same.

Question 3.
Define free fall.
Answer:
The motion of any object under the influence of gravity alone is called as free fall.

Question 4.
If the motion of an object is described by x = f(t) write formulae for instantaneous velocity and acceleration.
Answer:

Instantaneous velocity of an object is given as,
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{v}}=\lim _{\Delta t \rightarrow 0} \frac{\Delta \overrightarrow{\mathrm{x}}}{\Delta \mathrm{t}}=\frac{\mathrm{d} \overrightarrow{\mathrm{x}}}{\mathrm{dt}}\)
Motion of the object is given as, x = f(t)
The derivative f ‘(f) represents the rate of change of the position f (t) at time t, which is the instantaneous velocity of the object.
∴ \(\vec{v}=\frac{\mathrm{d} \overrightarrow{\mathrm{x}}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) = f'(t)
Acceleration is defined as the rate of change of velocity with respect to time.
The second derivative of the position function f “(t) represents the rate of change of velocity i.e., acceleration.
∴ \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{a}}=\frac{\Delta \overrightarrow{\mathrm{v}}}{\Delta \mathrm{t}}=\frac{\mathrm{d}^{2} \mathrm{x}}{\mathrm{dt}^{2}}\) = f”(t)

Question 5.
Derive equations of motion for a particle moving in a plane and show that the motion can be resolved in two independent motions in mutually perpendicular directions.
Answer:

Consider an object moving in an x-y plane. Let the initial velocity of the object be \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{u}}\) at t = 0 and its velocity at time t be \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{v}}\).
As the acceleration is constant, the average acceleration and the instantaneous acceleration will be equal.

This is the first equation of motion in vector form.
Let the displacement of the object from time t
= 0 to t be \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{s}}\)
For constant acceleration, \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{v}}_{\mathrm{av}}=\frac{\overrightarrow{\mathrm{v}}+\overrightarrow{\mathrm{u}}}{2}\)

This is the second equation of motion in vector form.
Equations (1) and (2) can be resolved into their x and y components so as to get corresponding scalar equations as follows.
v_x = u_x + a_xt ………….. (3)
v_y = u_y + a_y t …………… (4)
s_x = u_xt + \(\frac{1}{2}\) a_xt² ………….. (5)
s_y = u_yt + \(\frac{1}{2}\) a_yt² ………..(6)
It can be seen that equations (3) and (5) involve only the x components of displacement, velocity and acceleration while equations (4) and (6) involve only the y components of these quantities.
Thus, the motion along the x direction of the object is completely controlled by the x components of velocity and acceleration while that along the y direction is completely controlled by the y components of these quantities.
This shows that the two sets of equations are independent of each other and can be solved independently.

Question 6.
Derive equations of motion graphically for a particle having uniform acceleration, moving along a straight line.
Answer:

Consider an object starting from position x = 0 at time t = 0. Let the velocity at time (t = 0) and t be u and v respectively.
The slope of line PQ gives the acceleration. Thus
∴ a = \(\frac{\mathrm{v}-\mathrm{u}}{\mathrm{t}-0}=\frac{\mathrm{v}-\mathbf{u}}{\mathrm{t}}\)
∴ v = u + at …………… (1)
This is the first equation of motion.
The area under the curve in velocity-time graph gives the displacement of the object.
∴ s = area of the quadrilateral OPQS = area of rectangle OPRS + area of triangle PQR.
= ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) (v – u) t
But, from equation (1)
at = v – u
∴ s = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at²
This is the second equation of motion,
The velocity is increasing linearly with time as acceleration is constant. The displacement is given as,

∴ s = (v² – u²) / (2a)
∴ v² – u² = 2as
This is the third equation of motion.

Question 7.
Derive the formula for the range and maximum height achieved by a projectile thrown from the origin with initial velocity \(\vec{u}\) at an angel θ to the horizontal.
Answer:
Expression for range:

Consider a body projected with velocity \(\vec{u}\), at an angle θ of projection from point O in the co-ordinate system of the XY- plane, as shown in figure.
The initial velocity \(\vec{u}\) can be resolved into two rectangular components:

u_x = u cos θ (Horizontal component)
u_y = u sin θ (Vertical component)
The horizontal component remains constant throughout the motion due to the absence of any force acting in that direction, while the vertical component changes according to
v_y = u_y + a_yt
with a_y = -g and u_y = u sinθ
Thus, the components of velocity of the projectile at time t are given by,
v_x = u_x = u cos θ
v_y = u_x – gt = usin θ – gt
Similarly, the components of displacements of the projectile in the horizontal and vertical directions at time t are given by,
s = (u cosθ) t
s_y = (usinθ)t – \(\frac{1}{2}\) gt²
At the highest point, the time of ascent of the projectile is given as,
t_A = \(\frac{u \sin \theta}{g}\) …………..(2)
The total time in air i.e., time of flight is given as, T = 2t_A = \(\frac{2u \sin \theta}{g}\) …… (3)
The total horizontal distance travelled by the particle in this time T is given as,
R = u_x ∙ T
R = u cos θ ∙ (2t_A)
R = u cos θ ∙ \(\frac{2 \mathrm{u} \sin \theta}{\mathrm{g}}\) ……………[From (3)]
R = \(\frac{u^{2}(2 \sin \theta \cdot \cos \theta)}{g}\)
R = \(\frac{\mathrm{u}^{2} \sin 2 \theta}{\mathrm{g}}\) ………..[∵ sin 2θ = 2sin∙cosθ]
This is required expression for horizontal range of the projectile.

Expression for maximum height of a projectile:
The maximum height H reached by the projectile is the distance travelled along the vertical (y) direction in time t_A.

Substituting s_y = H and t = t_a in equation (1),
we have,
H = (u sin θ)t_A – \(\frac{1}{2}\) gt_A²

This equation represents maximum height of projectile.

Question 8.
Show that the path of a projectile is a parabola.
Answer:

Consider a body projected with velocity initial velocity \(\vec{u}\) , at an angle θ of projection from point O in the co-ordinate system of the XY-plane. as shown in figure.
The initial velocity \(\vec{u}\) can be resolved into two rectangular components:
u_x = u cos θ (Horizontal component)
u_y = u sin θ (Vertical component)
The horizontal component remains constant throughout the motion due to the absence of any force acting in that direction, while the vertical component changes according to,
v_y = u_y + a_y t
with a_y, = -g and u_y = u sinθ
Thus, the components of velocity of the projectile at time t are given by,
v_x = u_x = u cosθ
v_y = u_y – gt = u sinθ – gt
Similarly, the components of displacements of the projectile in the horizontal and vertical directions at time t are given by,
s_x = (u cosθ)t …………..(1)
s_y = (u sinθ)t – \(\frac{1}{2}\) gt² ………………. (2)
As the projectile starts from x = O, we can use
s_x = x and s_y = y.
Substituting s_x = x in equation (1),
x = (u cosθ) t
∴ t = \(\frac{\mathrm{X}}{(\mathrm{u} \cos \theta)}\) …………….. (3)
Substituting, s_y in equation (2),
y = (u sinθ)t – \(\frac{1}{2}\) gt² …………… (4)
Substituting equation (3) in equation (4), we have,
y = u sin θ (\(\frac{\mathrm{X}}{(\mathrm{u} \cos \theta)}\)) – \(\frac{1}{2}\) (\(\frac{\mathrm{X}}{(\mathrm{u} \cos \theta)}\))² g
∴ y = x (tan θ) – (\(\frac{g}{2 u^{2} \cos ^{2} \theta}\))x² ………………. (5)
Equation (5) represents the path of the projectile.
If we put tan θ = A and g/2u²cos²θ = B then equation (5) can be written as y = Ax – Bx² where A and B are constants. This is equation of parabola. Hence, path of projectile is a parabola.

Question 9.
What is a conical pendulum? Show that its time period is given by 2π \(\sqrt{\frac{l \cos \theta}{g}}\), where l is the length of the string, θ is the angle that the string makes with the vertical and g is the acceleration due to gravity.
Answer:
A simple pendulum, Ch i given such a motion that the bob describes a horizontal circle and the string making a constant angle with the vertical describes a cone, is called a conical pendulum.

Consider a bob of mass m tied to one end of a string of length ‘P and other end is fixed to rigid support.
Let the bob be displaced from its mean position and whirled around a horizontal circle of radius ‘r’ with constant angular velocity ω, then the bob performs U.C.M.
During the motion, string is inclined to the vertical at an angle θ as shown in the figure above.
In the displaced position, there are two forces acting on the bob.
- The weight mg acting vertically downwards.
- The tension T acting upward along the string.
The tension (T) acting in the string can be resolved into two components:
- T cosθ acting vertically upwards.
- T sinθ acting horizontally towards centre of the circle.
Since, there is no net force, vertical component T cosθ balances the weight and horizontal component T sinθ provides the necessary centripetal force.
∴ T cos θ = mg ……………. (1)
T sin θ = \(\frac{\mathrm{mv}^{2}}{\mathrm{r}}\) = mrω² ……….. (2)
Dividing equation (2) by (1),
tan θ = \(\frac{\mathrm{v}^{2}}{\mathrm{rg}}\) ……….. (3)
Therefore, the angle made by the string with the vertical is θ = tan^-1 (\(\frac{\mathrm{v}^{2}}{\mathrm{rg}}\))
Since we know v = \(\frac{2 \pi \mathrm{r}}{\mathrm{T}}\)

where l is length of the pendulum and h is the vertical distance of the horizontal circle from the fixed point O.

Question 10.
Define angular velocity. Show that the centripetal force on a particle undergoing uniform circular motion is -mω²\(\vec{r}\).
Answer:
Angular velocity of a particle is the rate of change of angular displacement.

Expression for centripetal force on a particle undergoing uniform circular motion:
i) Suppose a particle is performing U.C.M in anticlockwise direction.
The co-ordinate axes are chosen as shown in the figure.
Let,
A = initial position of the particle which lies on positive X-axis
P = instantaneous position after time t
θ = angle made by radius vector
ω = constant angular speed
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{r}}\) = instantaneous position vector at time t

ii) From the figure,
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{r}}=\hat{\mathrm{i}} \mathrm{x}+\hat{\mathrm{j}} \mathrm{y}\)
where, \(\hat{\mathrm{i}}\) and \(\hat{\mathrm{j}}\) are unit vectors along X-axis and Y-axis respectively.

Negative sign shows that direction of acceleration is opposite to the direction of position vector. Equation (3) is the centripetal acceleration.
vii) Magnitude of centripetal acceleration is given by a = ω²r

viii) The force providing this acceleration should also be along the same direction, hence centripetal.
∴ \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}\) = m\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{a}}\) = -mω²\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{r}}\)
This is the expression for the centripetal force on a particle undergoing uniform circular motion.

ix) Magnitude of F = mω²r = \(\frac{\mathrm{mv}^{2}}{\mathrm{r}}\) = mωv

[Note: The definition of angular velocity is not mentioned in this chapter but is in Ch.2 Mathematical Methods.]

3. Solve the following problems.

Question 1.
An aeroplane has a run of 500 m to take off from the runway. It starts from rest and moves with constant acceleration to cover the runway in 30 sec. What is the velocity of the aeroplane at the take off ?
Answer:
Given: Length of runway (s) = 500 m, t = 30 s
To find: Velocity (y)
Formulae. i) s = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at²
ii) v = u + at
Calculation: As the plane was initially at rest, u = 0
From formula (1),
500 = 0 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) × a × (30)²
∴ 500 = 450 a
∴ a = \(\frac{10}{9}\) m/s²
From formula (ii),
v = 0 + \(\frac{10}{9}\) × 30
∴ v = \(\frac{100}{3}\) m/s = (\(\frac{100}{3} \times \frac{18}{5}\)) km/hr
∴ v = 120 km/hr
The velocity of the aeroplane at the take off is 120 km/hr.

Question 2.
A car moving along a straight road with a speed of 120 km/hr, is brought to rest by applying brakes. The car covers a distance of 100 m before it stops. Calculate
(i) the average retardation of the car
(ii) time taken by the car to come to rest.
Answer:
Given: u = 120 kmh^-1 = 120 × \(\frac{5}{18}\) = \(\frac{100}{3}\) ms^-1
s = 100 m, v = 0
To find: i) Average retardation of the car (a)
ii) Time taken by car (t)

Formulae: i) v² – u² = 2as
ii) v = u + at
Calculation: From formula (i),

i) Average retardation of the car is \(\frac{50}{9}\) ms² (in magnitude).
ii) Time taken by the car to come to rest is 6 s.

Question 3.
A car travels at a speed of 50 km/hr for 30 minutes, at 30 km/hr for next 15 minutes and then 70 km/hr for next 45 minutes. What is the average speed of the car?
Answer:
Given: v₁ = 50 km/hr. t₁ = 30 minutes = 0.5 hr,
v₂ = 30 km/hr, t₂ = 15 minutes = 0.25 hr,
v₃ = 70 km/hr, t₃ = 45 minutes 0.75 hr
To find: Average speed of car (v_av)
Formula v_av = \(\frac{\text { total path length }}{\text { total time interval }}\)
Calculation:
Path length,
x₁ = v₁ × t₁ = 50 × 0.5 = 25km
x₂ = v₂ × t₂ = 30 × 0.25 = 7.5 km
x₃ = v₃ × t₃ = 70 × 0.75 = 52.5 km
From formula,
v_av = \(\frac{x_{1}+x_{2}+x_{3}}{t_{1}+t_{2}+t_{3}}\)
∴ v_av = \(\frac{25+7.5+52.5}{0.5+0.25+0.75}=\frac{85}{1.5}\)
∴ v_av = 56.66 km/hr

Question 4.
A velocity-time graph is shown in the adjoining figure.

Determine:

initial speed of the car
maximum speed attained by the car
part of the graph showing zero acceleration
part of the graph showing constant retardation
distance travelled by the car in first 6 sec.

Answer:

Initial speed is at origin i.e. 0 m/s.
Maximum speed attained by car, v_max = speed from A to B = 20 m/s.
The part of the graph which shows zero acceleration is between t = 3 s and t = 6 s i.e., AB. This is because, during AB there is no change in velocity.
The graph shows constant retardation from t = 6 s to t = 8 s i.e., BC.
Distance travelled by car in first 6 s
= Area of OABDO
= A(△OAE) + A(rect. ABDE)
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 3 × 20 + 3 × 20
= 30 + 60
∴ Distance travelled by car in first 6 s = 90 m

Question 5.
A man throws a ball to maximum horizontal distance of 80 meters. Calculate the maximum height reached.
Answer:
Given: R = 80m
To find: Maximum height reached (H_max)
Formula: R_max = 4H_max
Calculation: From formula,
∴ H_max = \(\frac{\mathrm{R}_{\max }}{4}=\frac{80}{4}\) = 20 m
The maximum height reached by the ball is 20m.

Question 6.
A particle is projected with speed v₀ at angle θ to the horizontal on an inclined surface making an angle Φ (Φ < θ) to the horizontal. Find the range of the projectile along the inclined surface.
Answer:

i) The equation of trajectory of projectile is given by,
y(tan θ)x – (\(\frac{\mathrm{g}}{2 \mathrm{u}^{2} \cos ^{2} \theta}\))x² …………..(1)

ii) In this case to find R substitute,
y = R sinΦ ………….. (2)
x = R cosΦ ………….. (3)

iii) From equations (1), (2) and (3),
we have,

Question 7.
A metro train runs from station A to B to C. It takes 4 minutes in travelling from station A to station B. The train halts at station B for 20 s. Then it starts from station B and reaches station C in next 3 minutes. At the start, the train accelerates for 10 sec to reach the constant speed of 72 km/hr. The train moving at the constant speed is brought to rest in 10 sec. at next station.
(i) Plot the velocity- time graph for the train travelling from the station A to B to C.
(ii) Calculate the distance between the stations A, B and C.
Answer:

The metro train travels from station A to station B in 4 minutes = 240 s.
The trains halts at station B for 20 s.
The train travels from station B’ to station C in 3 minutes= 180 s.
∴ Total time taken by the metro train in travelling from station A to B to C
= 240 + 20 + 180 = 440 s.
At start, the train accelerates for 10 seconds to reach a constant speed of 72 km/hr = 20 m/s.
The train moving is brought to rest in 10 s at next station.
The velocity-time graph for the train travelling from station A to B to C is as follows:
Distance travelled by the train from station A to station B
= Area of PQRS
= A ( △PQQ’) A (☐QRR’) + A(SRR’)
= (\(\frac{1}{2}\) × 10 × 20 + (220 × 20) + (\(\frac{1}{2}\) 10 × 20)
= 100 + 4400 + 100
= 4600m = 4.6km

Distance travelled by the train from station B’ to station C
= Area of EFGD
= A(△EFF’) + A(☐F’FGG’) + A(△DGG’)
= (\(\frac{1}{2}\) × 10 × 20) × (160 × 20) + (\(\frac{1}{2}\) × 10 × 20)
= 100 + 3200 + 100
= 3400m = 3.4km

Question 8.
A train is moving eastward at 10 m/sec. A waiter is walking eastward at 1.2m/sec; and a fly is flying toward the north across the waiter’s tray at 2 m/s. What is the velocity of the fly relative to Earth.
Answer:
Given

Question 9.
A car moves in a circle at the constant speed of 50 m/s and completes one revolution in 40 s. Determine the magnitude of acceleration of the car.
Answer:
Given: v = 50 m/s, t = 40 s, s = 2πr
To find: acceleration (a)
Formulae: i) v = \(\frac{\mathrm{s}}{\mathrm{t}}\)
ii) a = \(\frac{\mathrm{v}^{2}}{\mathrm{r}}\)
Calculation: From formula (i),
50 = \(\frac{2 \pi \mathrm{r}}{40}\)
∴ r = \(\frac{50 \times 40}{2 \pi}\)
∴ r = \(\frac{1000}{\pi}\) cm
From formula (ii),
a = \(\frac{v^{2}}{r}=\frac{50^{2}}{1000 / \pi}\)
∴ a = \(\frac{5 \pi}{2}\) = 7.85 m/s²
The magnitude of acceleration of the car is 7.85 m/s.

Alternate method:
Given: v = 50 m/s, t = 40 s,
To find: acceleration (a)
Formula: a = rω² = vω
Calculation: From formula,
a = vω
= v(\(\frac{2 \pi}{\mathrm{t}}\))
= 50(\(\frac{2 \times 3.142}{40}\))
= \(\frac{5}{2}\) × 3.142
∴ a = 7.85m/s²

Question 10.
A particle moves in a circle with constant speed of 15 m/s. The radius of the circle is 2 m. Determine the centripetal acceleration of the particle.
Answer:
Given: v = 15 m/s, r = 2m
To find: Centripetal acceleration (a)
Formula: a = \(\frac{\mathrm{v}^{2}}{\mathrm{r}}\)
Calculation: From formula,
a = \(\frac{(15)^{2}}{2}=\frac{225}{2}\)
∴ a = 112.5m/s²
The centripetal acceleration of the particle is 112.5 m/s².

Question 11.
A projectile is thrown at an angle of 30° to the horizontal. What should be the range of initial velocity (u) so that its range will be between 40m and 50 m? Assume g = 10 m s^-2.
Answer:
Given: 40 ≤ R ≤ 50, θ = 300, g = 10 m/s²
To find: Range of initial velocity (u)
Formula: R = \(\frac{\mathrm{u}^{2} \sin (2 \theta)}{\mathrm{g}}\)
Calculation: From formula,
The range of initial velocity,

∴ 21.49m/s ≤ u ≤ 24.03m/s
The range of initial velocity should be between 21.49 m/s ≤ u ≤ 24.03 m/s.

11th Physics Digest Chapter 3 Motion in a Plane Intext Questions and Answers

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 30)

Question 1.
What ¡s meant by motion?
Answer:
The change ¡n the position of an object with respect to its surroundings is called motion.

Question 2.
What Is rectilinear motion?
Answer:
Motion in which an object travels along a straight line is called rectilinear motion.

Question 3.
What is the difference between displacement and distance travelled?
Answer:

Displacement is the shortest distance between the initial and final points of movement.
Distance is the actual path followed by a body between the points in which it moves.

Question 4.
What is the difference between uniform and non-uniform motion?
Answer:

A body is said to have uniform motion if it covers equal distances in equal intervals of time.
A body is said to have non-uniform motion if it covers unequal distances in equal intervals of time.

Internet my friend (Textbook Page No. 44)

i. hyperphysics.phy-astr.gsu.eduJhbase/mot.html#motcon
ii. www .college-physics.comlbook/mechanics
[Students are expected to visit the above mentioned webs ires and collect more information.]

11th Std Physics Questions And Answers: