Class 10

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Location and Extent Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Location and Extent

Class 10 Geography Chapter 2 Location and Extent Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Are the sentences right or wrong. ? Rewrite the wrong ones

Question a.
Brazil is mainly located in the Southern Hemisphere.
Answer:
Right

Question b.
Tropic of Capricorn passes through the middle of India.
Answer:
Wrong. Tropic of Cancer passes through the middle of India.

Question c.
The longitudinal extent of Brazil is less than India.
Answer:
Wrong. The longitudinal extent of Brazil is more than India.

Question d.
Equator passes through the northern part of Brazil.
Answer:
Right

Question e.
Brazil has a coastline along the Pacific Ocean.
Answer:
Wrong. Brazil has a coastline along the Atlantic. Ocean.

Question f.
Pakistan is a neighbouring country to the south east of India.
Answer:
Wrong. Pakistan is neighbouring a country to the north west of India.

Question g.
The southern part of India is called Peninsula.
Answer:
Right.

2. Answer in brief:

Question a.
What problems did Brazil and India face after independence?
Answer:
(i) India was under the British rule for almost one- and-a-half centuries and it got its independence in the year 1947.
(ii) It faced several problems like three wars, famine situations in various parts and similar issues after independence.
(iii) Brazil gained its independence in 1822 after more than three centuries of Portuguese rule.
(iv) From 1930 to 1985, for more than a half century, it was under a populist military government and it faced global financial difficulties in the late 20th century.
Thus, both India and Brazil faced many problems post-independence.

Question b.
How are Brazil and India different from each other in terms of location?
Answer:
(i) India is located in the northern hemisphere of the earth whereas some part of Brazil lies in the northern hemisphere and most of it lies in the southern hemisphere.
(ii) India entirely lies in the eastern hemisphere whereas, Brazil lies in the western hemisphere.
(iii) India lies in the continent of Asia whereas Brazil lies in the continent of South America.
(iv) India lies in the southern part of the continent of Asia whereas Brazil lies in the northern part of South American continent.

Question c.
Describe the latitudinal and longitudinal extent of India and Brazil.
Answer:
(i) The extent of the mainland India is 8°4’N to 37°6’N latitudes and between 68°7’E to 97°25’E longitudes.
(ii) Indira Point is the southernmost tip of India.
(iii) It is located on 6°45’N parallel.
(iv) The extent of the mainland Brazil is 5°15’N to 33°45′ S latitudes and between to 34°47’W to 73°48’W longitude.

Select the correct option

Question a.
India’s southernmost point is known as __________.
(a) Lakshadweep
(b) Kanyakumari
(c) Indira Point
(d) Port Blair
Answer:
(c) Indira Point

Question b.
These two countries in South America do not share their border with Brazil?
(a) Chile – Ecuador
(b) Argentina – Bolivia
(c) Columbia – French Guiana
(d) Surinam – Uruguay
Answer:
(a) Chile – Ecuador

Question c.
Both the countries have _________ type of government.
Military
(b) Republic
Communist
(d) Presidential
Answer:
(b) Republic

Question d.
Which of the following shapes show the coastal part of Brazil correctly?

Answer:

Question e.
Which of the following shapes show the coastal part of India Correctly?

Answer:

Question f.
Considering hemisphere, which shape correctly represents the hemisphere in which India lies?

Answer:

Question g.
Considering the hemisphere, which correctly represents the hemisphere in which Brazil mainly lies?

Answer:

Class 10 Geography Chapter 2 Location and Extent Intext Questions and Answers

Colours of both
Answer the following questions with respect to the countries that you have studied.

Question 1.
Out of the countries that you have coloured, which country is larger in size?
Answer:
Brazil is larger in size.

Question 2.
Which country has a larger latitudinal extent?
Answer:
Brazil has a larger latitudinal extent.

Question 3.
How do the locations of Brazil and India differ in terms of their positions in their respective continents?
Answer:
Brazil lies in the northern part of the continent of South America, whereas India lies in the southern part of the continent of Asia.

Question 4.
How many states does each of the two countries have?
Answer:
Brazil has 26 states and one federal district. India has 28 states and 8 union territories.

Question 5.
Obtain information regarding the emblems of both the countries, i.e. India and Brazil.
Answer:
India:
The national emblem of India is an adaptation of the Lion capital of Ashoka at Sarnath. The emblem has three lions visible, the fourth being hidden from the view. The four lions symbolise power, courage, confidence and pride. At the bottom is a horse and a bull, and its centre is a wheel (Dharma Chakra). Forming an integral part of the emblem is the motto inscribed in Devanagari Script: Satyameva Jayate (Truth Alone Triumphs)

Brazil:
The national emblem of Brazil is coat of arms shows the Southern cross in a blue circle. The ring of 27 stars around it represents Brazil’s 26 states and the Federal District. The whole is placed on a star and surrounded by coffee (at the left) and tobacco (at the right), which are the important crops in Brazil. The blue ribbon contains the official name of Brazil (Republica Federativa Do Brazil – Federative Republic of Brazil) in the first line. In the second, the date of the federative republic’s establishment (November 15, 1889) is written.

Give it a try.

Question 1.
The imperial power which ruled Brazil also ruled a part of India. Find out when that part of India achieved independence?
Answer:
Answer: In India, Goa, Diu and Daman, Dadra and Nagar Haveli were under Portuguese rule. These regions got independence on 19th December 1961.

Match the column:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1)      Dance form of Brazil (2)      Capital of India (3)      Capital of Brazil (4)      Coffee pot of world	(a)     Brazil (b)     Samba (c)     New Delhi (d)     Brasilia (e)     Bangladesh (f)     Myanmar

Answer:
1 – b
2 – c
3 – d
4 – a

Question 2.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Country to the south of Brazil	(a) China
(2) Sea to the west of India	(b) Uruguay
(3) Second largest populated country	(c) Arabian sea
(4) Coffee pot of the world Imperial power ruled Brazil	(d) India
	(e) Portuguese
	(f) Japan

Answer:
1 – b
2 – c
3 – d
4 – e

Answer the following questions in one sentence:

Question 1.
Which is the second largest populated country in the world?
Answer:
India is the second-largest populated country in the world.

Question 2.
Which country is called the ‘coffee pot’ of the world’?
Answer:
Brazil is called the coffee pot of the world.

Question 3.
Which dance form is famous in Brazil?
Answer:
Samba is the famous dance form of Brazil.

Question 4.
Name the capital of India?
Answer:
The capital of India is New Delhi.

Question 5.
When did India gain Independence?
Answer:
India got independence on 15th August 1947.

Question 6.
When did Brazil gain independence?
Answer:
Brazil gained its independence on 7th September 1822.

Question 7.
Which countries are located to the north of Brazil?
Answer:
Venezuela, Guyana, Suriname and French Guiana are situated to the north of Brazil

Question 8.
Which countries are located to the west of Brazil?
Answer:
Colombia, Peru, Bolivia, Paraguay and Argentina are situated to the west of Brazil.

Question 9.
Which country is situated to the south of Brazil?
Answer:
Uruguay is situated to the south of Brazil.

Question 10.
Which ocean lies to the east of Brazil?
Answer:
The North and South Atlantic Ocean lies to the east of Brazil.

Question 11.
Which countries are situated to the east of India?
Answer:
Myanmar and Bangladesh are situated to the east of India.

Question 12.
Which countries are situated to the north of India?
Answer:
China, Bhutan and Nepal are situated to the north of India.

Question 13.
Which sea lies to the west of India?
Answer:
Arabian sea lies to the west of India.

Question 14.
Which countries lie to the south of India?
Answer:
Srilanka, Maldives and Indonesia lie to the south of India.

Question 15.
What is the location of the southernmost tip of India?
Answer:
The location of the southernmost tip of India (Indira Point) is 6°45′ N parallel.

Question 16.
According to the equator, in which hemisphere is Brazil located?
Answer:
Some part of Brazil lies in the northern hemisphere, while most of it lies in the southern hemisphere.

Question 17.
In which hemispheres is India located?
Answer:
India is located in the northern and eastern hemispheres.

Question 18.
What type of government does Brazil have today?
Answer:
Today, Brazil has Federal Presidential Republic type of government.

Question 19.
What type of government does India have today?
Answer:
Today, India has Federal Parliamentary Republic type of government.

Question 20.
Where does the name Brazil come from?
Answer:
The name Brazil comes from ‘Pau Brasil’, a local wooded tree.

Question 21.
Who established the early settlement in Brazil?
Answer:
The Portuguese settlers established the early settlement in Brazil.

Question 22.
Distinguish between: Location of India and Brazil
Answer:

India	Brazil
(i) India is located at 8°4’N to 37°6’N latitude and between 68°7’E to 97°25’E longitudes.	(i) Brazil is located at 5°15’N to 33°45’S latitudes and between 34°47’W to 73°48’W.
(ii) It is located in the northern and eastern hemispheres.	(ii) Some part of Brazil lies in the northern hemisphere, while most of it lies in the southern hemisphere. Brazil also lies in the western hemisphere.
(iii) India is located in the southern part of the Asian continent.	(iii) Brazil is located in the northern part of South American continent.

Question 23.
Find the difference between the post-independence characteristics of India and Brazil.
Answer:

Brazil	India
(i) Brazil gained its independence in 1822. From 1930 to 1985, for more than half a century, it was under a populist military government. Presently, Brazil has Federal Presidential Republic type of government	(i) India got its independence in the year 1947. It has Federal Parliamentary Republic type of government.
(ii) The proportion of older people that is non – working population is high.	(ii) The proportion of youth, i.e. working population is high.
(iii )It has overcome global financial difficulties in the late 20th century	(iii) It has faced several problems like three wars, famine situations in various parts and similar issues after independence.
(iv) Sex ratio and literacy rate is high in Brazil.	(iv) Sex ratio and literacy rate is low in India.

Observe the map and answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Identify the countries and water bodies around India and complete the following table.


To the North
To the East
To the South
To the West
Answer:

No.	Directions	Neighbouring Countries/ Oceans
(1)	North	China, Bhutan, Nepal
(2)	South	Indian Ocean, Sri Lanka, Maldives, Indonesia
(3)	East	Myanmar, Bangladesh, Bay of Bengal
(4)	West	Arabian Sea, Pakistan, Afghanistan

Question 2.
Identify Brazil’s neighbouring countries and oceans. Complete the following table.


(a) To the North
(b) To the South
(c) To the East
(d) To the West
Answer:

No.	Directions	Neighbouring Countries	Oceans
(1)	North	Venezuela, Guyana, Suriname, French Guiana	North Atlantic Ocean
(2)	South	Uruguay	South Atlantic Ocean
(3)	East		South Atlantic Ocean
(4)	West	Peru, Bolivia, Paraguay, Colombia, Argentina

Question 3.
Show the following on an outline of the world map.
(a) Name all the continents and oceans of the world.
(b) Colour Brazil and India using different colours and name them.
(c) Draw equator on the map and write its value in degrees.
(d) Show the symbol for direction.
Answer:

Give geographical reasons:

Question 1.
Brazil is called the ‘coffee pot of the world’.
Answer:
(i) Brazil ranks first in the world in the terms of production of coffee.
(ii) It produces nearly 40% of the total coffee production in the world.
(iii) It is the largest exporter of coffee.
Therefore, Brazil is called the ‘coffee pot of the world’.

Question 2.
Brazil is known as the country having third longest land border.
Answer:
(i) Brazil has the world’s third longest land border, after China and Russia.
(ii) It shares its boundaries with all South American countries, except Chile and Ecuador, totalling 16,885 Kilometers.
(iii) Brazil has borders with 10 different countries, which are Argentina, Bolivia, Colombia, French Guiana, Guyana, Paraguay, Peru, Suriname, Uruguay and Venezuela.
(iv) Hence, Brazil is called the country having third longest land borders.

Question 3.
India is looked upon as a young country.
Answer:
(i) The proportion of youth in India’s population is high.
(ii) This forms a major part of the working population.
(iii) According to 2011 census the percentage of working population is more than 50 %.
(iv) Hence, India is looked upon as a young country.

Question 4.
India’s economic development has paced up. OR India is considered as a major global market.
Answer:
(i) Despite facing several problems after independence, today India is a major developing country of the world.
(ii) It is because of various reforms from time to time, that India’s economic development has paced up.
(iii) So, it is considered to be a global market.

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
What problems did Brazil and India face after independence?
Answer:
(i) India was under the British rule for almost one-and-a-half centuries and it got its independence in the year 1947.
(ii) It faced several problems like three wars, famine situations in various parts and similar issues after independence.
(iii) Brazil gained its independence in 1822 after more than three centuries of Portuguese rule.
(iv) From 1930 to 1985, for more than a half century, it was under a populist military government and it faced global financial difficulties in the late 20th century.
Thus, both India and Brazil faced many problems post-independence.

Question 2.
How are Brazil and India different from each other in terms of location?
Answer:
(i) India is located in the northern hemisphere of the earth whereas some part of Brazil lies in the northern hemisphere and most of it lies in the southern hemisphere.
(ii) India entirely lies in the eastern hemisphere whereas, Brazil lies in the western hemisphere.
(iii) India lies in the continent of Asia whereas Brazil lies in the continent of South America.
(iv) India lies in the southern part of the continent of Asia whereas Brazil lies in the northern part of South American continent.

Question 3.
Describe the latitudinal and longitudinal extent of India and Brazil.
Answer:
(i) The extent of the mainland India is 8°4’N to 37°6’N latitudes and between 68°7’E to 97°25’E longitudes.
(ii) Indira Point is the southernmost tip of India.
(iii) It is located on 6°45’N parallel.
(iv) The extent of the mainland Brazil is 5°15’N to 33°45′ S latitudes and between to 34°47’W to 73°48’W longitude.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 2 Location and Extent Additional Important Questions and Answers

Name the following:
Question 1.
The second-largest populated country in the world.
Answer:
India

Question 2.
The country is famous for its spices in the world.
Answer:
India

Question 3.
The country is known as the ‘coffee pot’ of the world.
Answer:
Brazil

Question 4.
The famous dance form of Brazil.
Answer:
Samba

Question 5.
Hemispheres in which India is located.
Answer:
Northern and eastern hemispheres.

Question 6.
A continent in which India is located.
Answer:
Asia

Question 7.
The latitudinal extent of India.
Answer:
8°4’N to 37°6’N

Question 8.
The longitudinal extent of India.
Answer:
68°7’E to 97°25’E

Question 8.
Foreign power which ruled Brazil for more than three centuries.
Answer:
Portuguese.

Question 9.
Independence day of Brazil.
Answer:
7th September 1822.

Question 10.
Type of Government in Brazil from 1930 to 1985.
Answer:
Populist Military Government.

Question 11.
The latitudinal extent of Brazil.
Answer:
5°15’N to 33°45’S.

Question 12.
The longitudinal extent of Brazil.
Answer:
34°47’W to 73°48’W

Choose the correct option and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
The second largest populated country in the world is _________.
(a) China
(b) Brazil
(c) India
(d) Russia
Answer:
(c) India

Question 2.
Brazil is famous for ________ type of dance form.
(a) Salsa
(b) Samba
(c) Ballet
(d) Tango
Answer:
(b) Samba

Question 3.
The country known as the ‘coffee pot’ of the world is _______.
(a) Brazil
(b) India
(c) China
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(a) Brazil

Question 4.
India is located in the ________ part of the Asian continent.
(a) southern
(b) northern
(c) northeastern
(d) western
Answer:
(a) southern

Question 5.
Brazil gained independence in _______.
(a) 1890
(b) 1980
(c) 1822
(d) 1820
Answer:
(c) 1822

Question 6.
Capital of Brazil is _______.
(a) Kabul
(b) Kaula Lumpur
(c) Brasilia
(d) Monaco
Answer:
(c) Brasilia

Question 7.
Capital of India is _____.
(a) Patna
(b) New Delhi
(c) Dispur
(d) Chandigarh
Answer:
(b) New Delhi

Question 8.
India was under ___ rule for almost one and a half-century.
(a) Portuguese
(b) African
(c) Russian
(d) British
Answer:
(d) British

Question 9.
For more than a half-century, Brazil was under a _____ government.
(a) Populist military
(b) Monarchy
(c) Constitutional government
(d) Dictatorial
(a) Populist military

Question 10.
Most part of the of mainland Brazil lies in the ______ hemisphere.
(a) northern
(b) southern
(c) eastern
(d) northwestern
Answer:
(b) southern

Question 11.
Brazil was ruled by ______ imperial power which also ruled a part of India.
(a) Portuguese
(b) British
(c) Indonesia
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(a) Portuguese

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations

Class 10 Geography Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the blank with appropriate word.

Question a.
India’s per capita income is less than Brazil due to _______.
(a) low national income
(b) massive population
(c) big family size
(d) low foodgrain production
Answer:
(b) massive population

Question b.
The economy of Brazil is mainly dependent on ______ the activities.
(a) primary
(b) secondary
(c) tertiary
(d) quaternary
Answer:
(c) tertiary

Question c.
The economics of India and Brazil are of the _____ type
(a) undeveloped
(b) developed
(c) developing
(d) highly developed
Answer:
(c) developing

2. Answer the following questions:

Question a.
Why has mining not developed in the western part of Brazil?
Answer:
(i) Most of the western part of Brazil is covered by the thick dense equatorial rainforests of the Amazon Basin.
(ii) Inaccessibility, poor transport links, unfavourable climate, heavy rainfall are the main barriers for mining in this part.
(iii) Moreover, lack of knowledge of potential reserves of resources is the other factor which has led to limitations in mining in the western part of Brazil.
(iv) Therefore, mining is not developed in the western part of Brazil.

Question b.
What are the similarities and differences in the fishing activities in Brazil and India.
Answer:
Similarities:

• In Brazil and India fishing activity is developed near the coastal areas.
• In both the countries, marine fishing is well- developed.

Differences:

• In India, fresh water fishing is practised, whereas in Brazil due to unfavourable conditions, fresh water fishing is not developed.
• The meeting of the warm Brazil current and the cold Falkland current, off the coast of South-East Brazil makes it a good fishing ground. In India such currents do not come together but due to other favourable conditions fishing has been developed.
• Major fishes of Brazil are swordfish, shrimp, lobsters and sardines.
• Major fishes of India are mackerel, bombay duck, prawns, horse mackerels, clupeids, silver bellies and sardines.

3. Give reasons:

Question a.
Per capita land availability is more in Brazil as compared to India.
Answer:

• India occupies 2.4% land area of the world and supports 17.5% of the world’s total population.
• Brazil occupies 5.6% of land area of the world and supports only 2.75% of the world’s total population.
• Average density of population in India is about 382 persons per sq. km. while average density of population in Brazil is around 23 persons per sq. km.
• Thus Brazil’s population is lesser than India, but it occupies a larger land area than India.
• So, the per capita land availability is more in Brazil as compared to India.

Question b.
There is mixed economy in Brazil and India.
Answer:

• In a mixed economy there is a co-existence of public sector and private sector.
• In Brazil, sectors like health, banking, telecommunications, railways and airways are owned and managed by both public and private sectors.
• In India railways is largely a public sector whereas all the other sectors are owned and managed by both private and public sectors.
• So it is said that there is a mixed economy in Brazil and India.

4. Study the following graph and analyse in short.

Answer:
(i) This is a compound bar graph showing the contribution of primary, secondary and tertiary sectors to the national income of India and Brazil.
(ii) It also shows the percentage of population engaged in these sectors.
(iii) The contribution of primary, secondary and tertiary sector to India’s national income is about 17%, 26% and 57% respectively.
(iv) Whereas the contribution of primary, secondary and tertiary sector to Brazil’s national income is about 5%, 28% and 67% respectively.
(v) The population engaged in primary, secondary and tertiary sector of India is about 49% 24% and 27% respectively.
(vi) The population engaged in primary, secondary and tertiary sector of Brazil is about 10%, 19% and 71% respectively.
(vii) Thus it is understood clearly from the graph that Brazil is not an agrarian economy like India.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations Intext Questions and Answers

Give It a Try

Read the following graph and answer the following questions:
Gross National Incomes (GNI) from 1960 to 2016 (in million US. $)

Question 1.
Which country’s national income was the highest in 2016 and how much was it?
Answer:
USA’s national income was highest in 2016. It was approx. U.S. $ 18000 million.

Question 2.
Comparing India and Brazil, which country had a higher national income in 1980?
Answer:
Brazil had a higher national income in 1980, as compared to India.

Question 3.
Comparing India and Brazil, which country had a higher national income in 2016?
Answer:
Comparing India and Brazil, India had a higher national income.in 2016.

Question 4.
Tell the difference between the GNP of Brazil and India in 2016.
Answer:
The difference between the GNP of Brazil and India in 2016 is approximately US $ 300 million. (India : $ 2000 million – Brazil: $ 1700 million)

Question 5.
Name the developing and developed economies based on the graph?
Answer:
India and Brazil are developing economies and the USA is a developed economy.

Question 6.
Calculate the difference between the national incomes of developed and developing countries , in 2016.
Answer:
The difference between the national incomes of developed and developing countries in 2016 was nearly U.S. $ 16500 million.
(US: $18500 million – India, Brazil: $ 2000 million)

Try this

Question 1.
A table regarding the ownership of various sectors in both the countries is given. Like Brazil, fill the details regarding India and complete the table.
Answer:

S.No	India	Sector	Brazil
(1)	Private and Public both	Banking	Private and public both
(2)	Largely Public	Railways	Private and public both
(3)	Largely Private Little Public	Airways	Private and public both
(4)	Private and Public both	Electricity production	Largely public
(5)	Private and Public both	Iron and Steel Industry	Largely public
(6)	Private and Public both	Health	Private and public both
(7)	Largely Private and Public	Education	Largely public, little private
(8)	Largely Private and little Public	Telecomm­ unications	Private and public both

Let’s Recall

Question 1.
Classify the following activities by ticking ( ✓ ) in the respective column
Answer:

S.No	Activities	Primary	Secondary	Tertiary
(1)	Television Broadcasting			✓
(2)	Bee-keeping	✓
(3)	Coir and Rope making	✓
(4)	Jaggery – making		✓
(5)	Producing blades of the plough		✓
(6)	Construction		✓
(7)	Extracting Iron Ore	✓
(8)	Automobile Production		✓
(9)	Rice Production	✓
(10)	Teaching			✓
(11)	Driving buses			✓
(12)	Providing lodging and boarding facilities			✓

Question 2.
Name the warm and cold ocean currents near the Brazilian coast.
Answer:
Warm ocean current: Brazil current Cold ocean current: Falkland current

Question 3.
Read the following table and answer the following questions.

Export, Import and Balance of Trade (Value in US $)
	India		Brazil
Year	Exports	Imports	Exports	Imports
2009-10	178751.4	288372.9	152994.7	127647.3
2010-11	251136	369770	197356.4	180458.8
2011-12	304623.53	489181.3	256038.7	226243.4
2012-13	214099.8,	361271.9	242579.8	223749.1

Question (1).
What is balance of trade?
Answer:
Balance of trade is the difference between the value of a nation’s exports and imports for a certain period.

Question (2).
Tell the types of balance of trades.
Answer:
There are three types of balance of trade they are as follows:

• Unfavourable balance of trade: The value of imports is more than the value of exports.
• Favourable balance of trade: The value of exports is more than the value of imports.
•  Balanced trade: The value of exports and imports is almost the same.

Question (3).
In which country do export exceed the imports in all the years?
Answer:
In Brazil, export exceeds the import in all the years.

Question (4).
Brazil’s balance of trade belongs to which type?
Answer:
Brazil has a ‘favourable balance of trade’ or ‘surplus trade’.

Question (5).
India’s balance of trade belongs to which type?
Answer:
India has an ‘unfavourable balance of trade’ or ’trade deficit’.

Question 4.
With the help of the pie chart given in Fig. , mention what is the contribution of secondary activities in Brazil’s GDP is.

Answer:
The secondary activities contribute 27.5% in Brazil’s GDP.

Activity:

Question 1.
Look at the pie-charts carefully and answer the following questions:

Question (1).
Which country has a higher percentage of population engaged in primary activities?
Answer:
India has a higher percentage of population engaged in primary activities (48.8%).

Question (2).
In which country is the contribution of tertiary sector greater in the GDP?
Answer:
The contribution of tertiary sector is greater in Brazil’s GDP (67%).

Question (3).
In which country is the share of secondary activities more in the GDP?
Answer:
The contribution of secondary activities is more in Brazil’s GDP (27.5%).

Question (4).
Can we say that Brazil is an agrarian economy like India? Give reasons.
Answer:
(i) Brazil is not an agrarian economy like India.
(ii) This is because 71% of its population is engaged in the tertiary sector and it contributes 67% in GDP.

Question 2.
Use the following table and make a polyline graph with the help of computer

Country Name/Year	1960	1980	2000	2016
Brazil	240	2010	3060	8840
India	90	280	450	1680
USA	3250	14230	37470	56280

Answer:

Question 3.
Observe the map of Mining and answer the following questions:

Question (1)
Prepare a table of mining products and regions of production in Brazil.
Answer:

Mining products	Regions of production in Brazil
Manganese	North, east
Bauxite	Coastal region
Iron-Ore	Central, south-east
Coal	South

Question (2)
In which part of Brazil has mining activity not developed? What could be the reasons?
Answer:
Mining activity has not developed in the western part of Brazil.

Question (3)
Considering the availability of resources, where has the development of industries occurred?
Answer:
Considering the availability of resources development has occurred mainly in the coastal regions of north-east and south-east of Brazil.

Question 4.
Observe the map of Fishing and answer the following questions:

Question (1)
Can you give two reasons for concentration of fishing near the south-eastern coast of Brazil?
Answer:
Fishing is done on a large scale near the south-eastern coast of Brazil as it is the region where the warm Brazil current and the cold Falkland current meet making the conditions favourable for it to develop as a good fishing ground.

Question (2)
Inland fishing is not developed in Brazil though there are large number of rivers in Brazil. Can you think of a reason?
Answer:
(i) The Amazon River Basin is very vast with a dense growth of equatorial forests, making it largely inaccessible.
(ii) The methods of inland fishing followed are quite traditional and primitive.
These are some of the reasons why inland fishing is not developed in Brazil, though there are large number of rivers.

Question 5.
Observe the logos given and answer the questions.

Question (1)
Identify the industries with which they are associated.
Answer:
(i) Oil and Natural Gas Corporation – Oil and natural gas exploration and production .
(ii) Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Ltd. (RINL) – Steel production.
(iii) Aarey – Dairy and dairy products.
(iv) Chittaranjan Locomotive Works (CLW) – Electric locomotive manufacturing.
(v) Maharashtra Agro Industries Development Corporation (Limited) MAIDC – Production of pesticides, fertilizers, animal feed, agro-engineering (introducing new kinds of farm implements, sale and repair of tractors, harvesters etc.) and processing food (like jams, jellies and sauces).
(vi) Khadi and Village industries Commission
(KVIC)-Establishment and development of khadi and village Industries in rural areas.
(vii) Central Silk Board (CSB) – Silk production.
(viii) Rashtriya Chemical and Fertilizers Ltd. (RCF) Chemical and fertilizer production

Question (2)
Which raw material is used for these industries. Classify them accordingly.
Answer:

Classification	Industries	Raw materials
Agro-based industries	Maharashtra Agro-industries Development Corporation Ltd.	Seeds, raw materials required for the production of pesticides, fertilisers
	Khadiand Village Industries Commission	Cotton, silk and wool
Animal product – based industries	Aarey	Milk
	Central Silk . Board (CSB)	Silk
Minerals and metal-based industries	Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Limited (ONGC)	Crude oil and natural gas
	Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Ltd. (RINL)	Iron ore and coal
	Chittaranjan Locomotive Works (CLW)	Iron and steel and aluminium
	Rashtriya Chemical and Fertilizers Ltd. (RCF)	Chemicals and different minerals

Question (3)
From which part of India do they get these raw materials? Discuss and write.
Answer:
(i) Iron ore, coal, limestone etc.: Chhota Nagpur plateau area of Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Bengal, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Karnataka, Goa, Maharashtra etc.
(ii) Natural Gas: Krishna-Godavari Basin.
Mumbai High, in Arabian Sea.
(iii) Mineral Oil: Mumbai High in Arabian sea, Digboi in Assam, Ankleshwar in Gujarat.
(iv) Milk: Bihar, Tamil Nadu, Haryana, Maharashtra, Punjab, Gujarat etc.
(v) Cotton: Gujarat, Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh.
(vi) Silk: Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, West Bengal, Jammu and Kashmir.

Think about It

Question 1.
Which type of occupations gives a boost to the development of a country’s economy?
Answer:
Secondary and tertiary occupations give a boost to the development of a country’s economy.

Make Friends With Maps

Look at the map given in Fig. The major primary occupations in Brazil are shown here. Discuss the following points and write your observations.

Question 1.
In which part of Brazil is coffee mainly produced?
Answer:
Coffee is mainly produced in the South and South-east part of Brazil.

Question 2.
Which food crops are mainly produced in Brazil?
Answer:
Rice, soyabean and corn are the food crops mainly produced in Brazil.

Question 3.
Can you relate the production of these crops with the climate there?
Answer:

• Brazil has a wide range of climatic variation.
• Rice requires hot and humid climate with heavy rainfall. So it is grown in the coastal region.
• Corn grows well in the central parts of Brazil, because the climate there is hot and dry.

Question 4.
Where are the rubber plantations concentrated?
Answer:
The rubber plantations are concentrated in the north western part in the Amazon River Basin area.

Question 5.
Complete the table.
Answer:

Types of crops	Crops	Areas of Prodution
Food crops	Corn / Maize	Central
	Rice	coastal region
Cash crops	Coffee	South east
	Sugarcane	Central, East
	Cocoa	East
	Rubber	North
	Soyabean	South
Fruits and Vegetables	Bananas	coastal region.
	Oranges	East, Central

Note : Areas of the production Each one has a different area. Difficult to point out one area for all the varieties of cash crops, food crops and rice.

Use Your Brain Power

Question 1.
If Rajasthan does not have a coastal area, then how does it produce salt?
Answer:
(i) Rajasthan does not have a coastline, but it still produces salt because of the Sambhar Lake, which is India’s largest inland salt lake.
(ii) Salt is produced on a large scale here due to high proportion of salt in Sambhar Lake and high rate evaporation.

Colours Of Both

Question 1.
Indo-Brazil ties: Answer the following.

Question (1)
What does BRICS stand for?
Answer:
BRICS stands for Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa.

Question (2)
When was it established?
Answer:
BRIC was established in June 2006. South Africa was inducted in 2010. Then it became BRICS.

Question (3)
What are the objectives of this bloc?
Answer:
The main objectives of BRICS are:

• To achieve regional development.
• To act as a bridge between developed and developing countries by providing financial assistance and support in various infrastructure projects.

Question (4)
The countries of which continent are not a member of this bloc?
Answer:
The countries of North America and Australia are not a member of this bloc.

Question (5)
In which continents do the member countries lie?
Answer:
The member countries lie in the continents of Europe, South America, Africa and Asia.

Question 2.
Study the graphs and answer the following questions on

Question (1)
In which years did the value of exports to Brazil exceed the imports from Brazil?
Answer:
In the years 2008, 2010, 2011, 2013, 2014 and 2015 the value of exports to Brazil have exceeded the imports from Brazil.

Question (2)
In which year was trade with Brazil the most favourable of all?
Answer:
Trade with Brazil was most favourable in the year 2013.

Question (3)
Comment upon the Balance of Trade in the year 2013.
Answer:
(i) The value of Balance of Trade between India and Brazil was maximum in the year 2013.
(ii) Also, the Balance of Trade was in India’s favour.

Question (4)
From which year the value of exports to Brazil have exeeded the value of import from Brazil?
Answer:
From 2010 to 2015 (except 2012).

Question (5)
Write a note on the trade between Brazil and India.
Answer:
(i) Trade between India and Brazil has not been consistent.
(ii) Most of the time the trade has been favourable for India, with exports more than imports.
(iii) In 2015, India-Brazil trade has shown a downfall with both imports and exports at an all-time low.

Question (6)
In which year was the value of exports to Brazil the maximum?
Answer:
The value of exports to Brazil was the maximum in 2014.

Give It A Try

Question 1.
The following images are related to agricultural activities. Identify and write whether they are practised in Brazil or India.


Answer:
(i) In the first image, coffee plantation is seen. It is found mainly in Brazil. In India, coffee plantation are seen in the South Indian states of Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.

(ii) The second image is of the Tea plantation. It is mainly found in India, in Assam, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Kerala.

(iii) In the third image, shifting agriculture is seen. It is also called ‘Slash and Burn’ agriculture. In this method, the land under forests is cleared by cutting and burning. On this patch of land, subsistence type of agriculture is practised for the next few years.

Once this patch of land loses fertility; another patch of land is brought under shifting cultivation. It is mainly practiced in Brazil and in some parts of India.

In the fourth image, paddy cultivation is seen and it is mainly practiced in India where there is heavy sufficient and irrigation rainfall.

Try This

Question 1.
Show the distribution of crops like wheat, jowar, rice, cotton, sugarcane, tea, jute, coffee and rubber, apple in the outline map of India using symbols. Name the map.
Answer:

Find Out

Question 1.
Obtain information regarding pisciculture in India with the help of internet and reference books and write a note.
Answer:

• Breeding, rearing and transplantation of fish by artificial means is called pisciculture. It is also called fish farming.
• Fishes are raised in tanks or enclosures for commercial reasons.
• Pisciculture in India is increasing rapidly due to the increasing demand for fish and fish products.
• Indian climate is suitable for practising pisciculture. Wide variety of fish species are raised in the fish farms, e.g. salmon, carp, catfish.
• Due to availability of abundant labour and water sources like lakes, ponds, rivers, etc, pisciculture has become easier.
• Employment opportunities are created due to pisciculture.
• Banks offer loans for those interested in this business.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
India has a/an ________ national income as Compared to Brazil.
(a) higher
(b) lower
(c) equal
(d) very low
Answer:
(a) higher

Question 2.
In Brazil, ______ is the main occupation of the people living in the highlands and coastal areas.
(a) agriculture
(b) mining
(c) animal rearing
(d) sericulture
Answer:
(a) agriculture

Question 3.
The main cereal crops grown in Brazil are ______ and maize.
(a) wheat
(b) barley
(c) oat
(d) rice
Answer:
(d) rice

Question 4.
Production of maize is largely concentrated in the _____ part of Brazil.
(a) western
(b) northern
(c) southern
(d) central
Answer:
(d) central

Question 5.
Brazil is the largest exporter of coffee and ______ in the world.
(a) rubber
(b) cocoa
(c) soyabean
(d) maize
Answer:
(c) soyabean

Question 6.
The major states growing coffee are _______ and Sao Paulo.
(a) Rio de Janeiro
(b) Minas Gerais
(c) Para
(d) Parana
Answer:
(b) Minas Gerais

Question 7.
Coffee farms are called _____ in Brazil
(a) para
(b) fazendas
(c) Cerrado
(d) Savannah
Answer:
(b) fazendas

Question 8.
Cattle, sheep and goats are reared in the _____ of the South of Brazil.
(a) Amazon Basin
(b) Parana River basin
(c) Savannah grasslands
(d) Coastal areas
Answer:
(c) Savannah grasslands

Question 9.
The eastern part of Brazil is rich in various types of _____.
(a) crops
(b) animals
(c) minerals
(d) forests
Answer:
(c) minerals

Question 10.
Inaccessibility, lack of knowledge of ________ potential reserves, dense forests are factors which have led to limitation in in the interior parts of Brazil.
(a) agriculture
(b) mining
(c) agro- forestry
(d) fishing
Answer:
(b) mining

Question 11.
Due to the increasing demand in the country, mining has developed well in the ______ region of Brazil.
(a) coastal
(b) highland
(c) mountainous
(d) equatorial forest
Answer:
(b) highland

Question 12.
Brazil has a sea coast of around 7,400 km and excellent fishing grounds off the ____ coast.
(a) South Atlantic
(b) North Atlantic
(c) South Pacific
(d) North Pacific
Answer:
(a) South Atlantic

Question 13.
The meeting of the warm Brazil current and the cold Falkland current off the coast of South-east Brazil make it a good ______.
(a) fishing ground
(b) offshore oil rig
(c) ocean transport route
(d) fishermen’s settlement
Answer:
(a) fishing ground

Question 14.
Traditionally, in Brazil, fishing has been carried on by small groups of individual fishermen using _____ techniques and equipment.
(a) scientific
(b) modern
(c) primitive
(d) latest
Answer:
(c) primitive

Question 15.
The fish resources of the _____ river are not exploited much and fishing only takes place on a small scale.
(a) Parana
(b) Sao Francisco
(c) Paraguay
(d) Amazon
Answer:
(d) Amazon

Question 16.
Around 60% of land in India is under ________.
(a) cultivation
(b) industries
(c) forestry
(d) mining
Answer:
(a) cultivation

Question 17.
Indian agriculture is mainly _______ type.
(a) commercial
(b) mechanized
(c) subsistence
(d) extensive
Answer:
(c) subsistence

Question 18.
In the coastal areas of India, ______ forms an important part of the diet of many people.
(a) wheat
(b) fish
(c) lobsters
(d) millets
Answer:
(b) fish

Question 19.
Horse mackerels, clupeids and silver bellies are important varieties of ________
(a) crops
(b) fish
(c) millets
(d) cereals
Answer:
(b) fish

Question 20.
Among the freshwater varieties of fish, _______ is a major one.
(a) Sardines
(b) Mackerel
(c) Bombay Duck
(d) Silver Bellies Carp (Chopda)
Answer:
(d) Silver Bellies Carp (Chopda)

Question 21.
In India, the _____ plateau is a big store house of minerals.
(a) Malwa
(b) Bundelkhand
(c) Baghelkhand
(d) Chhota Nagpur
Answer:
(d) Chhota Nagpur

Question 22.
Coal is mined in ____ in Chhattisgarh and in eastern Maharashtra.
(a) Korba
(b) Cuddapah
(c) Digboi
(d) Kalol
Answer:
(a) Korba

Question 23.
Mineral oil wells are found in _____ in Assam.
(a) Korba
(b) Koyali
(c) Digboi
(d) Kalol
Answer:
(c) Digboi

Question 24.
Reserves of mineral oil and natural gas have been discovered at the mouth of the river _______.
(a) Krishna
(b) Kaveri
(c) Godavari
(d) Mahanadi
Answer:
(c) Godavari

Question 25.
Stones like marble are found in Rajasthan and Cuddapah in ______.
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer:
(a) Andhra Pradesh

Question 26.
Traditionally, the poorest part of Brazil is the ______.
(a) north-east
(b) south
(c) north-west
(d) central
Answer:
(a) north-east

Question 27.
The north-eastern part of the Indian Peninsula has a very high concentration of _____ industries.
(a) chemical
(b) metallurgical
(c) canning
(d) fruit processing
Answer:
(b) metallurgical

Question 28.
The coastal belt of _______ has a heavy concentration of coir, copra and fish canning industries.
(a) Kerala
(b) Goa
(c) Karnataka
(d) Maharashtra
Answer:
(a) Kerala

Question 29.
Many refineries are situated close to the petroleum producing areas whereas Mathura and _______ refineries are in the interior, away from the oil producing areas.
(a) Digboi
(b) Bongaigaon
(c) Barauni
(d) Koyali
Answer:
(c) Barauni

Question 30.
Among the minerals, Brazil mainly exports _____.
(a) coal
(b) gold
(c) iron ore
(d) manganese
Answer:
(c) iron ore

Question 31.
The main trading partner of Brazil among the Gulf countries is _______.
(a) Bahrain
(b) Saudi Arabia
(c) Kuwait
(d) Iran
Answer:
(b) Saudi Arabia

Question 32.
India’s major trading partners from the continent of Europe are the UK and _______.
(a) Italy
(b) France
(c) Germany
(d) Greece
Answer:
(c) Germany

Match the columns:

Question 1.

S.No	Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1)	Rice and maize	(a) Commercial crops of Brazil
(2)	Tea and mangoes	(b) Cereal crops of Brazil
(3)	Cotton and jute	(c) India’s imports
(4)	Coffee, cocoa, rubber,soyabean	(d)      India’s exports (e)      India’s cash crops

Answer:
1 – b
2 – d
3 – e

Question 2.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Kachchh	(a) Kerala
(2) Coromandal coast	(b) North east India
(3) Malabar coast	(c) Near Maharashtra
(4) Mumbai High	(d) South east India (e) Western coast

Answer:
1 – e
2 – d
3 – a
4 – c

Question 3.

Column ‘A’	Column ’B’	Column ‘C’
(1) Coal	(a) Digboi	(i) Andhra Pradesh
(2) Mineral oil well	(b) Coastal belt	(ii) Chhattisgarh
(3) Stones	(c) Korba	(iii) Kaveri
(4) Mineral oil and Natural gas	(d) River mouth	(iv) Assam
(5) Coir and copra	(e) Cuddapah	(v) Godavari
	(f) Estuary	(vi) Kerala

Answer:
1 – c – ii
2 – a – iv
3 – e – i
4 – d – v
5 – b – vi

Question 4.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Coir, copra and fish canning	(a) Mathura
(2) Salt	(b) Gujarat
(3) Oil refineries	(c) Kerala
(4) Stones	(d) Barauni
	(e) Andhra Pradesh

Answer:
1 – c
2 – b
3 – d
4 – e

Answer the following in one sentence:

Question 1.
Which currency is mainly used for international trade?
Answer:
US dollar is the currency which is mainly used for international trade.

Question 2.
Name the sectors of Brazil in which Indian companies have invested money.
Answer:
Information technology, pharmaceuticals, energy, agro-business, mining, engineering, automobiles, etc. are the sectors of Brazil in which Indian companies have invested money.

Question 3.
Name the sectors of India in which Brazilian companies have invested money.
Answer:
Automobiles, information technology, mining, energy, bio-fuel, footwear, etc. are the sectors of India in which Brazilian companies have invested capital.

Question 4.
Which type of occupations give a boost to the development of a country’s economy ?
Answer:
Tertiary occupation give a boost to the development of a country’s economy.

Name the following:

Question 1.
Factors making it possible for growing a variety of crops in Brazil.
Answer:
Favourable climate and topography.

Question 2.
The main cereal crops of Brazil.
Answer:
Rice and maize

Question 3.
The production of this cereal crop is largely concentrated in the central part of Brazil.
Answer:
Maize.

Question 4.
The major commercial crops of Brazil.
Answer:
Coffee, cocoa, rubber, soyabean and sugarcane.

Question 5.
The largest exporter of coffee and soyabean in the world.
Answer:
Brazil.

Question 6.
The major coffee-growing states of Brazil.
Answer:
Minas Gerais and Sao Paulo.

Question 7.
Fruits are grown in Brazil.
Answer:
Bananas, pineapples, oranges and other citrus fruits.

Question 8.
The region in Brazil where cattle, sheep and goats are reared.
Answer:
Savannah grasslands in the south.

Question 9.
Two factors that have led to limitations in mining in the interior parts of Brazil.
Answer:

• Inaccessibility due to dense forests
• Lack of knowledge of potential reserves of resources.

Question 10.
The warm current in the eastern coast of Brazil.
Answer:
Brazil current.

Question 11.
The cold current off the south-eastern coast of Brazil.
Answer:
Falkland current.

Question 12.
The main catches of the fishermen in Brazil.
Answer:
Swordfish, shrimp, lobsters, sardines, etc.

Question 13.
Major food crops produced in India.
Answer:
Rice, wheat, maize, sorghum and millets.

Question 14.
Crops grown in plantation in India.
Answer:
Tea, coffee and rubber.

Question 15.
Major cash crops grown in India.
Answer:
Sugarcane, cotton and jute.

Question 16.
Main type of Indian agriculture.
Answer:
Subsistence.

Question 17.
Maj or fish varieties found in the western coastal region of India.
Answer:
Sardines, mackerel, bombay duck and prawns.

Question 18.
The important varieties of fish on the eastern coast of India.
Answer:
Horse mackerels, clupeids and silver bellied carp.

Question 19.
The major freshwater fish variety in India.
Answer:
Silver bellied carp (chopda).

Question 20.
Places where coal is mined in India.
Answer:
Korba in Chhattisgarh and in Eastern Maharashtra

Question 21.
Places where mineral oil wells are found in India.
Answer:
(i) Digboi in Assam
(ii) Mumbai High in the Arabian Sea near Maharashtra
(iii) Kalol and Koyali in Gujarat.

Question 22.
The name of the river mouth, where reserves of mineral oil and natural gas have been discovered.
Answer:
River Godavari.

Question 23.
The state where stones like marble are found.
Answer:
Rajasthan.

Question 24.
The place/state where stones like Cuddapah are found.
Answer:
Cuddappah in Andhra Pradesh.

Question 25.
The states in which fish forms an important part of the diet of many people living in the coastal areas in India.
Answer:
Kerala, West Bengal, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Goa and Maharashtra.

Question 26.
States of India where metallic minerals are found.
Answer: Jharkhand, Odisha, adjoining Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh, parts of Rajasthan, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.

Question 27.
The agro-based industries in India which are heavily concentrated in the raw material- producing areas.
Answer:
Cotton, jute and sugar.

Question 28.
The forest-based industries in India.
Answer:
Paper, plywood, matches, resins and lac.

Question 29.
Industries found in the coastal belt of Kerala in India.
Answer:
Coir, copra and fish canning.

Question 30.
Refineries in India situated close to the petroleum-producing areas.
Answer:
Koyali, Digboi, Noonmati and Bongaigaon.

Question 31.
Refineries in India located away from the coast and oil-producing areas.
Answer:
Mathura and Barauni.

Question 32.
Major salt-producing states in India.
Answer:
Gujarat, Rajasthan and Tamil Nadu.

Question 33.
Brazil’s export items.
Answer:
Iron ore, coffee, cocoa, cotton, sugar, tobacco, oranges and bananas.

Question 34.
Brazil’s import items.
Answer:
Machinery, chemical products, fertilizers, wheat, heavy vehicles, mineral oil and lubricants.

Question 35.
Major trading partners of Brazil.
Answer:
Germany, the USA, Canada, Italy and Argentina, Saudi Arabia.

Question 36.
India’s export items.
Answer:
Tea, coffee, mangoes, spices, leather & leather goods, iron ore, cotton and silk textiles etc.

Question 37.
India’s import items.
Answer:
Petroleum, machines, pearls and precious stones, gold and silver, paper, medicines, etc.

Question 38.
India’s major trading partners.
Answer:
The USA, The UK, Germany, Japan, China, Russia, etc.

Distinguish between:

Question 1.
The Indian companies’ investment in Brazil and Brazil’s investment in India.
Answer:

Indian investment in Brazil	Brazilian investment in India
(i) Indian companies have invested a lot of capital in Brazil. (ii) e.g. IT, pharmaceuticals, energy, agri-business, mining, engineering and auto sectors.	(i) Brazilian companies investment in India is smaller.(ii)  e.g. automobiles, IT, mining, energy, biofuels, footwear sectors in India.

Question 2.
Brazil-International Trade and India-International Trade
Answer:

Brazil-International Trade	India-International Trade
(i) Major exports of Brazil are iron-ore, coffee, cocoa, cotton, sugar, tobacco, oranges and bananas. (ii) Major imports of Brazil are machinery, chemical products, fertilizers, wheat, heavy vehicles, mineral oil and lubricants. (iii) Major trading partners of Brazil are Germany, the USA, Canada, Italy, Argentina, India and Saudi Arabia.	(i) Major exports of India are tea, coffee, mangoes, spices, leather and leather goods, iron ore, cotton and silk textiles. (ii) Major imports of India are petroleum, machines, pearls, precious stones, gold and silver, paper, medicines, etc. (iii) Major trading partners of India are the USA, the UK, Germany, Japan, China, Russia, etc.

Question 3.
US Economy and India-Brazil Economies.
Answer:

US Economy	India-Brazil Economy
(i) The US economy is a developed economy. (ii) National income and per capita income of US is far ahead of Brazil and India. (iii) The US has the strength of many patents, modern technology and mechanical strength.	(i) India and Brazil are developing economies. (ii) National income and per capita income of India and Brazil is low. (iii)India and Brazil have just about started progressing in the fields of technology, education and industry.

Mark the following on the outline map:

Question 1.
On the given Political map of Brazil, show the following details (Draw index).

1. Major coffee producing areas of Brazil.
2. The cold and warm ocean current near the Brazilian coast.
3. Important fishing areas in the Northern coast.
4. Important fishing areas in the Eastern coast.

Answer:

Question 2.
Indicate the following on a map of India.

1. The plateau region rich in minerals.
2. Region where coal is mined.
3. State where marble is found.
4. Cudappah stones are found in this state.
5. The state whose coastal belt has a concentration of coir, copra and fish canning industries.
6. Major salt producing state.

Answer:

Question 3.
Locate the following regions on the map of India.

1. Mineral oil wells.
2. Oil refineries close to petroleum producing areas.
3. Oil refineries in the interiors.
4. The mouth of the river where reserves of mineral oil and natural gas have been discovered.

Answer:

Give Geographical Reasons:

Question 1.
Unlike Brazil, India’s agriculture contributes more towards the GDP.
Answer:

• Around 60% of land in India is under cultivation.
• Agriculture has been a long standing activity here with a large chunk of population engaged in it.
• The enormous expanse of level plains, rich soils, high percentage of cultivable land, wide climatic variety, long growing season, etc. provide a strong base for agriculture in India.
• So, unlike Brazil, India’s agriculture contributes more towards the GDP.

Question 2.
Fishing plays an important role in the economy of India.
Answer:

• India has a coastline of about 7500 km.
• India is one of the largest producer of fish, both marine and inland.
• Marine fishing accounts for about 40% of the total annual fish production and the remaining 60% is by freshwater fishing.
• Fisheries help in augmenting food supply, generating employment, raising nutritional level and earning foreign exchange.
• Fish forms an important part of the diet of many people living in all the coastal states.
• Thus, fishing plays a significant role in the economy of the country.

Question 3.
The distribution of industries in India is highly uneven.
Answer:
The distribution of industries is India in highly uneven due to the following reasons:

• Uneven distribution of the necessary raw materials and power resources.
• There is concentration of enterprises, financial resources and other necessary conditions in large towns.

Question 4.
The North Eastern part of the Indian Peninsula has a high concentration of heavy metallurgical industries.
Answer:
The north eastern part of the Indian Peninsula has a high concentration of heavy metallurgical industries because:

• Chattisgarh, Odisha, Jharkhand, West Bengal are rich in minerals.
• Large quantities of coal deposits, an important raw material in metallurgical industries is available.
• There are availability of refractory materials, cheap power from the Damodar Valley Corporation and a number of thermal power projects.
• There is availability of cheap labour in and around this region.

Question 5.
USA is a developed country.
Answer:
The United States is a developed country because:

• This country has less but a well-educated population.
• It has the strength of many patents, modern technology and mechanical strength.
• USA has a very high national income and per capita income.

Question 6.
Brazil is a good fishing ground.
Answer:
Brazil is a good fishing ground because :

• Brazil has a sea coast of around 7400 km and excellent fishing grounds off the South Atlantic coast.
• The meeting of the warm Brazil current and the cold Falkland current off the coast of South-East Brazil makes it a good fishing ground.

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Mining in India:
Answer:
(i) The Chhota Nagpur plateau in India is a big storehouse of different minerals. Mining is the main occupation of the people.
(ii) Coal is mined in Korba in Chattisgarh and in Eastern Maharashtra.
(iii) Mineral oil wells are found in Digboi in
Assam, Mumbai High in the Arabian Sea near Maharashtra, Kalol, Koyali in Gujarat.
(iv) Stones like marble are found in Rajasthan and Cuddapah in Andhra Pradesh.

Question 2.
Industries in Brazil:
Answer:
(i) Major industries of Brazil are iron and steel, automobile assembling, petroleum processing, chemical production and cement making.
(ii) Technologically based industries have been the most dynamic in recent years.
(iii) Food-processing industries, cotton textiles, silk and woollen industries have developed well.
(iv) Most large industries are concentrated in the south and south-east of Brazil.

Question 3.
Agro-based and forest-based industries in India.
Answer:
(i) Agro-based industries: The agro-based industries including cotton, jute and sugar are heavily concentrated in the raw material producing areas.
(ii) Forest-based industries: The forest based industries including paper, plywood, matches, resins and lac are increasingly finding mostly found in the forest areas of various states.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements

Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Human Settlements Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Tick (✓) the correct options:

Question a.
The concentration of settlements is related to following major factors
(a) Proximity to the Sea
(b) Plain region
(c) Availability of water
(d) Climate
Answer:
(c) Availability of water

Question b.
In North-eastern part of Brazil, which types of settlements are found
(a) Nucleated
(b) Linear
(c) Dispersed
(d) Star-shaped
Answer:
(c) Dispersed

Question c.
Where do you find dispersed settlements in India?
(i) Near the rivers
(ii) Near the transport routes
(iii) Hilly areas
(iv) Industrial regions
Answer:
(iii) Hilly areas

Question d.
Concentrated settlements are found in Narmada Valley
(i) Forested land
(ii) Cultivable land
(iii) Undulating topography
(iv) Industries
Answer:
(ii) Cultivable land

Question e.
Which state has the least urbanisation in Brazil?
(i) Para
(ii) Amapa
(iii) Espirito Santo
(iv) Parana
Answer:
(i) Para

2. Give geographical reasons:

Question a.
Availability of water is a major factor affecting settlements.
Answer:
(i) Water is a major factor affecting settlements because water is required for survival of living beings, for purposes like drinking, cooking, agriculture, industries, etc.
(ii) Due to availability of water, agriculture and industries flourish, generating employment opportunities and leading to development of settlements.
(iii) Shortage of water will hamper the growth of agriculture and industries which lead to less development of settlements.

Question b.
In Brazil, majority of population is found in the eastern coastal areas.
Answer:
(i) Although the coastal climate is hot and humid, and flat land is limited due to rugged topography, the eastern coast of Brazil has a good water supply and a large range of natural resources.
(ii) The region has rich fertile soil which is most suitable for coffee cultivation..
(iii) The region is rich in minerals like iron ore and has a steady power supply.
(iv) An excellent transportation facility is also available here.
(v) Due to these factors, agriculture, industries and trade flourish and settlements increase.
So, majority of Brazil’s population is found in the eastern coastal areas.

Question c.
Urbanisation is increasing rapidly in India.
Answer:
(i) In India, there has been growing industrialisation, leading to availability of jobs in urban areas.
(ii) Urban areas have better facilities and amenities like water supply, electricity, health, education, etc.
(iii) There is increasing migration of people from rural areas to urban areas.
(iv) The urban population is increasing due to the expansion of urban centres and emergence of new towns.
So, urbanisation is increasing rapidly in India.

Question d.
Settlements are sparse in north-eastern Brazil.
Answer:
(i) The north east of Brazil is a Highland.
(ii) As this region lies in a rain shadow region it suffers from droughts.
(iii) Due to scanty rainfall and unavailability of resources, agriculture and industries are not well developed.
(iv) Transport facilities are also very poor here. Therefore, settlements are sparse in north – eastern Brazil.

Question e.
Except Delhi and Chandigarh, urbanisation is low in other parts of India.
Answer:
(i) Delhi and Chandigarh are union territories lying in the flat Northern Plains of India.
(ii) Delhi is the capital of India and has an ancient history of urbanisation while Chandigarh is one of the most well-planned cities.
(iii) Both Delhi and Chandigarh have good water supply due to river Yamuna and the Bhakra Canal.
(iv) As compared to the other cities in North India, both the cities have well-developed infrastructure, good transport links and other amenities.
(v) Fast developing industries and commercial centres in these places, offer high employment opportunities leading to urbanisation.
Hence, except Delhi and Chandigarh, urbanisation is low in other parts of India.

3. Answer in short:

Question a.
Write a comparative note on urbanisation in Brazil and India.
Answer:
(i) Rate of urbanisation in higher in Brazil than in India.
(ii) Growth of urbanisation in India has been slow.
E.g. From 18% in 1961 to 31.2% in 2011.
(iii) Growth of urbanisation in Brazil has been rapid.
E.g. From 47.1% in 1960 to 84.6% in 2010.
(iv) Urbanisation has been more in the southern part than in the Northern part of India.
(v) Urbanisation in Brazil has been more in the coastal states of south and southeast than the states in the interior of the west and north.
(vi) India’s rate of urbanisation has increased continously in a fluctuating rate.
(vii) Brazil’s is rate of urbanisation has increased but in a diminishing rate.

Question b.
Differentiate between the human settlements in the Ganga river basin and the Amazon river basin.
Answer:

S.No	Human settlements in the Ganga river basin	Human settlements in the Amazon river basin
(i)	Nucleated settlements are found in Ganga river basin.	(i) Dispersed settlements are found in Amazon river basin.
(ii)	Flat land, availibality of water, fertile soil,favourable climate is suitable for human settlement.	(ii) Unfavourable        climate,      heavy      rainfall, inaccessibility makes the Amazon river basin unsuitable for human settlement.
(iii)	The above conditions along with a good transport network has helped to flourish agriculture and other industries.	(iii) Due to dense evergreen forests and poor transport facility there are restrictions on the use of natural resources, which have affected economic development.

Question c.
Why do human settlements grow in specific locations only?
Answer:
Human settlements depend on various factors like climate, availability of water, slope of the land, level of development.
In India, nucleated human settlements are found in the Ganga River Basin because of flat fertile plains, abundance of water, favourable climate and growth of agriculture and industries. Dispersed settlements are found in Himalayan slopes, eastern and southern Rajasthan because of uneven topography, unfavourable climate and lack of development.

In Brazil, nucleated settlements are found in Sao Paulo and southern coast of Brazil, due to nearness to the ocean, fertile soil, availability of natural minerals like iron ore, steady power supply and good transportation system. Dispersed settlements are found in Northern Brazil due to the inaccessible forests in Amazon river basin, unhealthy climate, limitations on use of natural resources drought region and poor transport connectivity.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Human Settlements Intext Questions and Answers

Geographical Explanation

Study the two types of settlement patterns in India given in figure (a) and (b) Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Identify the type of settlements?
Answer:
Fig a. Settlement Type is: Nucleated and in Fig. b. Settlement Type is: Linear and Dispersed settlement.

Question 2.
Which one is a nucleated settlement? Why?
Answer:
Fig. a. Shows the image of a Nucleated settlement, because it is a cultivated land and has a centrally located water body.

Question 3.
Which one is a dispersed settlement? What could be the reason behind it?
Answer:
In Fig. b. dispersed settlement is observed due to unsuitable topography.

Question 4.
Can you guess in which regions are these settlements located in India?
Answer:
Settlement in Fig. a. is located in the north Indian plain, it might be the river Ganga Basin and settlement in the Fig. b. is located in hilly terrain covered with forest and also a road passing through leads to a dispersed settlement.

Think About It

Question 1.
Tell whether settlements shown in images (a) and (b) are urban or rural.


Answer:
The image shown in (a) is urban and The image shown in (b) is rural

Lets Recall

Question 1.
Some amenities and facilities are given here. Tick (✓) in the relevant column and complete the table on the basis of their presence in urban and rural areas or both.
Answer:

S.No	Amentity	Available in Villages	Available in Cities
(1)	Petrol Pump	✓	✓
(2)	Theatre		✓
(3)	Weekly Market	✓
(4)	Primary Health Centre	✓
(5)	Police Outpost	✓	✓
(6)	Art Gallery		✓
(7)	Gram Panchayat	✓
(8)	Agricultural Produce Market Committee (APMC)	✓
(9)	Primary School	✓	✓
(10)	Senior School		✓
(11)	College		✓
(12)	Shop	✓	✓
(13)	Multi-speciality Hospital		✓
(14)	Metro station		✓
(15)	Bus station	✓	✓
(16)	University		✓

Try This.

Question 1.
In the figure (a) and (b), you can see images of two settlements in Brazil. One is from the Amazon river basin in Brazil while the other belongs to the coastal area. Observe the settlement patterns carefully and name the types of settlement patterns. Write a comment on their density and types.


Answer:
(1) Fig. (a)
Type settlement pattern: Dispersed settlements as they are lying in the dense forested areas of the Amazon Basin.
Density of Population: Sparse.
(2) Fig. (b)
Type settlement pattern: Nucleated settlements as they are lying in the dense forested areas of the Amazon Basin.
Density of Population: Dense.

Can You Tell

Read the graph below and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What was the percentage of urbanisation in 1961?
Answer:
The percentage of urbanisation in 1961 was 18%.

Question 2.
In which decade was urbanisation the highest?
Answer:
Highest urbanisation took place in the decade 1971 -1981.

Question 3.
In which decade was the growth of urbanisation lowest?
Answer:
The growth of urbanisation was lowest in the decade 1961-1971.

Question 4.
What was the growth in the percentage of urbanisation between 1961 and 1971?
Answer:
The growth in the percentage of urbanisation between 1961 and 1971 was of 0.20%

Question 5.
What was the growth in the percentage of urbanisation between 1991 and 2011?
Answer:
The growth in the percentage of urbanisation between 1991 and 2011 was of 5.5%.

Question 6.
What inference can you draw regarding India’s urbanisation after reading the graph?
Answer:
After reading the graph, we can say that urbanisation in India is slowly but continuously rising.

Try This

Look at the table. It shows the growth and share of urban population in total population of Brazil. Draw a line graph from this table. Examine the graph carefully and answer the following questions:
Brazil Percentage of urban population (1960 to 2010)

Answer:

Question 1.
What is the interval of the data?
Answer:
The interval of the data is 10 years.

Question 2.
In which period did urbanisation occur rapidly?
Answer:
Urbanisation occured rapidly in the period 1960 – 1970.

Question 3.
Write five sentences analysing the graph.
Answer:
(i) The graph shows the percentage of urbanisation in Brazil from 1960 to 2010.
(ii) The interval of the data is 10 years.
(iii) Clearly there has been a rapid urbanisation in Brazil.
(iv) The highest urbanisation is seen between 1960 to 1970, when urbanisation grew from 47.1% to 56.8%, a growth of 9.7%.
(v) Urbanisation occurred slowly during the decade from 2000 to 2010, at a growth of 3.1%.

Give It a Try

Question 1.
Prepare a choropleth map showing urban population using the data given in the table below.

S.No.	Urban population percentage category	States /UTs falling in the category
(1)	0-20	Himachal Pradesh, Bihar, Assam and Odisha
(2)	21-40	Meghalaya, Uttar Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Rajasthan, Sikkim, Tripura, Jammu and Kashmir, Nagaland, Manipur, Uttarakhand, West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh, Haryana, A and N Islands, Punjab, Karnataka and M. P.
(3)	41-60	Gujarat, Maharashtra, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Mizoram
(4)	61-80	Goa, Puducherry, Daman and Diu, Lakshadweep
(5)	81 -100	Chandigarh, NCT of Delhi

Answer:

Colours Of Both

Question 1.
Compare the line graph shown in figure and the one drawn by you for Brazil. Write five lines on the changes that have occurred in urbanisation in both the countries, with time.

Answer:
(i) After comparing the graphs of India and Brazil, it is clear that urbanisation in Brazil has been much more rapid as compared to India.

(ii) Urbanisation in Brazil grew from 47.1% in 1960¬70 to 84.6% in 2000-2010. Whereas urbanisation in India grew from 18% in 1961-70 to 31.2% in 2001-2011.

(iii) But Brazil’s rate of urbanisation is showing signs of decline, whereas India’s rate of urbanisation is showing a slow and consistent growth.

(iv) For e.g. the rate of urbanisation in Brazil has decreased from 9.7% in 1960-1970 to 3.1% in 2000¬2010. Whereas the rate of urbanisation in India has increased from 0.2% in 1961-1971 to 3.4% in 2001-2011.

(v) Both Brazil and India are developing countries, but Brazil shows very high urbanisation as compared to India.

Question 2.
Make a short note on the comparison between the settlement patterns in India and Brazil on the basis of the following points:
(i) Location
(ii) Pattern
(iii) Types
(iv) Density
Answer:
India settlement pattern

• Location : Nucleated settlements are found throughout the plateau region of Narmada Valley, paddy lands in Bihar, U.P, Vindhyan Plateau and several other cultivated parts of India.
• Pattern : Nucleated settlements
• Types: Urban
•  Density : High population density

• Location : Dispersed settlements are found in tribal parts covering central part of India, eastern and southern Rajasthan, Himalayan slopes and land with dissected and uneven topography.
• Pattern : Dispersed settlements
• Types: Rural
• Density : Low population density.

Brazilian settlement pattern

• Location: The Southern and South Eastern parts of Brazil – Areas where there is good water supply, a large range of natural resources, rich soil, large supply of natural minerals, steady energy supply, a good transport system, etc.
• Pattern : Nucleated settlement
• Types: Urban
• Density : High population density.

• Location : Brazilian Highlands, Central part, Amazon Basin region : regions with dense forests, unfavourable climate, poor transport limits, limitations on the use and exploitation of natural resources, etc.
• Pattern : Dispersed settlements
• Type : Rural
• Density: Low population density

Give It a Try

Question 1.
“Observe the two satellite images given below. Describe the settlements with respect to physiography, Considering the physiography, where could these settllements be located? Find out their settlement pattern and limitations with respect to their future growth.
Answer:
(i) Location : Both satellite images show human settlements in a mountainous region. One settlement is along mountain slope, while the other is on top of a mountain.
(ii) Pattern : Dispersed settlements.
(iii) Future growth : Further growth for human settlements seems difficult. This is mainly because of the hilly terrain and forested land along the mountain slope.

Study the choropleth map of Brazil showing the Statewise urban population of Brazil and answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Which state (region) in Brazil is the most urbanised?
Answer:
The states of Sao Paulo, Rio de Janeiro, Goias, Espirito Santo in the southeastern part of Brazil and the port Manaus in the north are the most urbanised.

Question 2.
Which state (region) in the least urbanised?
Answer:
The states of Para, Maranhao and Piaui in northern part of Brazil are the least urbanised states.

Use Your Brain Power

Question 1.
Which factors have affected urbanisation in Brazil?
Answer:
(i) In Brazil, rapid urbanisation has taken place in South and South East Coastal regions.
(ii) Being in proximity to the Atlantic Ocean have benefitted these regions immensely in the form of mild climatic conditions.
(iii) Availability of water, fertile soil, natural minerals such as iron ore, good transport system and steady electric supply have positively impacted urbanisation in these parts.
(iv) To the north of the Brazilian Highlands is the rain shadow region of ‘Drought Quadrilateral’ with sparse settlements.

Colours Of Both

Question 1.
Write a paragraph on the settlement pattern, urban and rural settlement and urbanisation in India and Brazil.
Answer:

India settlement pattern

• Location : Nucleated settlements are found throughout the plateau region of Narmada Valley, paddy lands in Bihar, U.P, Vindhyan Plateau and several other cultivated parts of India.
• Pattern : Nucleated settlements
• Types: Urban
•  Density : High population density

• Location : Dispersed settlements are found in tribal parts covering central part of India, eastern and southern Rajasthan, Himalayan slopes and land with dissected and uneven topography.
• Pattern : Dispersed settlements
• Types: Rural
• Density : Low population density.

Brazilian settlement pattern

• Location: The Southern and South Eastern parts of Brazil – Areas where there is good water supply, a large range of natural resources, rich soil, large supply of natural minerals, steady energy supply, a good transport system, etc.
• Pattern : Nucleated settlement
• Types: Urban
• Density : High population density.

• Location : Brazilian Highlands, Central part, Amazon Basin region : regions with dense forests, unfavourable climate, poor transport limits, limitations on the use and exploitation of natural resources, etc.
• Pattern : Dispersed settlements
• Type : Rural
• Density: Low population density

Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Human Settlements Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option and rewrite the statements.

Question 1.
_______ settlements are found in tribal parts covering central part of India.
(a) Nucleated
(b) Linear
(c) Dispersed
(d) Circular
Answer:
(c) Dispersed

Question 2.
The earlier settlements in Brazil were formed by settlers from _______ mainly in coastal areas.
(a) Africa
(b) Asia
(c) Europe
(d) Australia
Answer:
(c) Europe

Question 3.
Sao paulo has _________ settlements.
(a) isolated
(b) nucleated
(c) scattered
(d) dispersed
Answer:
(b) nucleated

Question 4.
Rural areas of Brazil such as the north east highlands suffer from _____ which make it difficult for practising agriculture.
(a) high rainfall
(b) extreme cold
(c) extreme droughts
(d) extreme heat
Answer:
(c) extreme droughts

Question 5.
Settlements become _____ as we go to the central part of Brazil.
(a) sparse
(b) dense
(c) nucleated
(d) triangular
Answer:
(a) sparse

Question 6.
The growth of urbanisation in India has been ________.
(a) quick
(b) moderate
(c) slow
(d) rapid
Answer:
(c) slow

Question 7.
In India, urbanisation has been more in the _______ part.
(a) Western
(b) Eastern
(c) Northern
(d) Southern
Answer:
(d) Southern

Question 8.
Goa is the most urbanised state in India with _______ urban population.
(a) 92%
(b) 52%
(c) 62%
(d) 82%
Answer:
(c) 62%

Question 9.
_____ is more than 80% urban.
(a) Goa
(b) Gujarat
(c) Delhi
(d) Puducherry
Answer:
(c) Delhi

Question 10.
Today, about ______ of Brazil’s population lives in urban area.
(a) 96%
(b) 66%
(c) 86%
(d) 76%
Answer:
(c) 86%

Question 11.
Looking at the growth in a few parts of the country, the government is promoting “Go _______ ” policy which reduces pressure on other densely populated areas.
(a) East
(b) North
(c) South
(d) West
Answer:
(d) West

Question 12.
Urbanisation has occurred more in the _______ states, in Brazil.
(a) inland
(b) coastal
(c) central
(d) north-western
(b) coastal

Question 13.
_________ is a port on the confluence of the Negro and the Amazon rivers, where urbanisation has occurred.
(a) Alagoas
(b) Parana
(c) Manaus
(d) Ceara
(c) Manaus

Find out the correct group :

Question 1.
States of Brazil in having 91% to 100% urban population.
(a) Sao Paulo, Goias, Espirito Santo and Tocantins.
(b) Espirito Santo, Rio De Janeiro, Para and Goias.
(c) Espirito Santo, Goias, Sao Paulo, Rio De Janeiro.
(d) Sao Paulo, Amapa, Santa Catarina, and Rondonia.
Answer:
(c) Espirito Santo, Goias, Sao Paulo and Rio De Janeiro.

Question 2.
States of India having less than 20% of Urbanization.
(a) Meghalaya, Uttar Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh and Rajasthan. .
(b) Lakshadweep, Daman and Diu, Puducherry and Nagaland.
(c) Tamil Nadu, Mizoram, Gujarat and Maharashtra.
(d) Odisha, Assam, Bihar and Himachal Pradesh.
Answer:
(d) Odisha, Assam, Bihar, Himachal Pradesh.

Question 3.
Nucleated settlements in India.
(a) Vindhyan plateau, Plateau region of Narmada valley, Paddy lands in Bihar and Uttar Pradesh.
(b) Rajasthan, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, and Punjab.
(c) Himalayan slopes, East Rajasthan, Tribal part of Madhya Pradesh and Nagaland.
(d) Vindhyan plateau, Paddy lands in Uttar Pradesh, Land with dissected topography and Bihar.
Answer:
(a) Vindhyan plateau, Plateau region of Narmada valley, Paddy lands in Bihar and Uttar Pradesh.

Question 4.
Dispersed settlements in India.
(a) West coast, West Rajasthan, Paddy lands of Punjab and Mizoram.
(b) Land with dissected topography, South Rajasthan, Vindhya plateau and Uttar Pradesh.
(c) Tribal part of Madhya Pradesh, Himalayan slopes, West and South Rajasthan and Land with the uneven topography.
(d) Himalayan slopes, Narmada Valley, West Rajasthan and South India.
Answer:
(c) Tribal part of Madhya Pradesh, Himalayan slopes, West and South Rajasthan and Land with the uneven topography.

Question 5.
States of India having urbanization between 41% to 60%.
(a) Chandigarh, Daman and Diu, Gujarat and Uttar Pradesh.
(b) Maharashtra, Kerala, Gujarat and Mizoram.
(c) Jharkhand, Karnataka, Maharashtra and Goa.
(d) Andhra Pradesh, West Bengal and Uttarakhand, Assam.
Answer:
(b) Maharashtra, Kerala, Gujarat, Mizoram.

Question 1.
Match the columns:

Column ‘A’		Column ‘B’
(1)	Most urbanised state in India	(a)	Sao Paulo
(2)	Most urbanised state in Brazil	(b)	Goa
(3)	Least urbanised state in India	(c)	Mato Grosso
(4)	Least urbanised	(d)	Himachal Pradesh
	state in Brazil	(e)	Delhi
		(f)	Para

Answer:
1 – b
2 – a
3 – d
4 – f

Are the sentences right or wrong?

Question 1.
India does not have a great tradition of urbanisation.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 2.
The earlier settlements in Brazil were formed by the settlers from America.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 3.
North-East Highlands of Brazil suffer from extreme drought.
Answer:
Right.

Question 4.
The growth of urbanisation in India has been very fast, reaching 86% in 2011.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 5.
In underdeveloped countries, the rate of urbanisation is low.
Answer:
Right.

Give geographical reasons:

Question 1.
Sao Paulo area has nucleated settlements.
Answer:
(i) Sao Paulo is situated in South East coast of Brazil.
(ii) The region has a good water supply.
(iii) It an extensive area under rich fertile soil which is ideal for growing coffee.
(iv) It has a large supply of natural minerals, such as iron ore.
(v) It also has a steady energy supply.
(vi) This region has a good transport system too.
So, Sao Paulo area has nucleated settlements.

Question 2.
The Brazilian government is promoting ‘Go West’ policy.
Answer:
(i) Brazil is one of the few developing countries which is highly urbanised.
(ii) But urbanisation in Brazil is confined to South and South East.
(iii) For e.g. States like Sao Paulo, Goias, Minas Gerais, Rio De Janeiro have very high urban population.
(iv) Western Brazil continues to remain least urbanised, which is creating regional imbalance.
(v) In order to reduce regional imbalance, the Brazil Government is promoting ‘Go-West Policy’.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Population Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Population

Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Population Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Are the following sentences right or wrong? Correct the wrong ones.

Question a.
Literacy rate is higher in Brazil than India.
Answer:
Right.

Question b.
In Brazil, people prefer living in the south east as compared to the north east.
Answer:
Right.

Question c.
The life expectancy of Indians is decreasing.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question d.
The north-western part of India is densely populated.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question e.
The western part of Brazil is densely populated.
Answer:
Wrong

2. Answer the following questions as per the instructions:

Question a.
Arrange the following states of India in descending order of their population. Himachal Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh.
Answer:
Descending order: Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh.

Question b.
Arrange the states of Brazil in ascending order of their population: Amazonas, Rio de Janeiro,
Alagoas, Sao Paulo, Parana.
Answer:
States of Brazil: Alagoas, Amazonas, Parana, Rio de Janeiro, Sao Paulo.

Question c.
Classify the factors affecting the distribution of population into favourable and unfavourable.
Answer:

Favourable Factors	Unfavourable Factors
(1) Nearness to Sea	Lack of roads
(2) Temperate Climate	Lack of Industries
(3) New cities and towns	Tropical moist forests
(4) Minerals	Semi arid climate
(5) Cultivable land

3. Answer the following questions:

Question a.
Explain the similarities and differences between the population distribution in Brazil and India.
Answer:
(a) Similarities in population distribution in Brazil and India:

• In Brazil as well as in India, population is very unevenly distributed.
• Inaccessible dense forests and absence of facilities are the barriers to human settlements.
• North, north west and north east of both the countries are the regions of low population.
• Population is concentrated in flat fertile regions which have abundant water resources, transport facilities, mild climate and development of agriculture industries and trade in the plain region.
• Coastal regions are densely populated in Brazil and in India.

(b) Differences between population distribution in Brazil and India.

• The average density of population in India is 382 persons per sq.km, and that of Brazil is about 23 persons per sq.km.
• Though the area of both the countries is occupied by vast river basins, the distribution of population is extremely opposite in both the river basins.
• The Amazon River Basin is sparsely populated while the Ganga River Basin is densely populated.

Question b.
Giving examples, correlated to, climate and population distribution
Answer:
Climate and population distribution are closely interreleted. Temperature and rainfall, the two elements of climate greatly influence the population concentration.

(i) Dense population is found in regions with mild climate and moderate rainfall.
E.g. the coastal plains of Brazil, the northern plain as well as the coastal plains of India

(ii) Places with heavy rainfall, inaccessibility and dense forests have low population.
E.g. the interiors of the Amazon Basin in Brazil, north eastern states in India.

(iii) The snow covered regions due to extremely cold climatic conditions have less population.
E.g. the northernmost part of Jammu & Kashmir.

(iv) In certain regions, due to less rainfall and extreme climatic conditions population is sparse.
E.g. Thar desert of Rajasthan and the Drought Quadrilateral region of Brazil.

4. Give geographical reasons:

Question a.
Population is an important resource.
Answer:

• The qualitative aspects of a population are important for a nation’s economic and social progress.
• Natural resources of any country gets utilised properly because of the population.
• Economic growth and development will be slow if population resource is not utilised properly.
• Thus an optimum and quality population can bring about a country’s development.

Question b.
Brazil’s population density is very less.
Answer:

• Brazil is the fifth largest country in the world with respect to area and has a population of about 19 crores (Census 2010).
• It occupies 5.6% of world’s total land area and accounts for only 2.78% of the world’s total population.
• Thus Brazil occupies more percent of world’s land and less percent of world’s total population. Therefore,
• the density of population is very less in Brazil, i.e. around 23 persons per sq.km.

Question c.
India’s population density is high.
Answer:

• India is the second most populous country in the world, with a population of about 121 crores (Census 2011).
• India occupies only 2.41% of the land area of the world, but supports 17.5% of the world’s population.
• Thus India has less percent of world’s land and supports high percent of world’s population.
• Hence, India’s average population density is high i.e. 382 persons per sq. km.

Question d.
The density of population is sparse in the Amazon Basin.
Answer:

• The interior part of the Amazon Basin has a very unfavourable hot and humid climate.
• It receives heavy rainfall of nearly 2000 mm and has dense inaccessible forests.
• Transportation, agricultute and industries are not well developed here.
• All these factors are barriers to the development of human settlements.
• So, the density of population is sparse in the Amazon Basin.

Question e.
Population density is high in the Ganga plains.
Answer:

• Ganga plains are fertile low lying plains formed due to the deposition work of River Ganga and its tributaries.
• Mild climate, moderate rainfall and fertile soil have led to the development of agriculture and industries.
• This region also has a dense network of roadways and railways.
• So, the population density is high in the Ganga Plains.

5. Observe the following diagram and answer the following questions:

Question 5A.
Compare and classify the population densities shown in the figure ‘a’ and ‘b’ representing 1 sq. km. of area.
Answer:
In the fig. (a) density of population is 7 persons per sq. km. The region is sparsely populated.
In the fig. (b), the density of population is 18 persons per sq. km. The region is densely populated.

Question 5B.
If in figure B one sign = 100, then what will be the sex ratio?
Answer:
One symbol = 100 persons
There are 10 female symbols.
Number of females = 100 x 10
= 1000
There are 8 male symbols
Number of males = 100 x 8
= 800

Males	800	1000
Females	1000	?

Number of females = \(\frac { 1000 X 1000 }{ 800 }\)
= 1250
Sex Ratio is 1250 females per 1000 males.

Question 6.
Comment upon the population density of fig (b).
(i) fig (b) shows the population density of India as per 2011.
(ii) The density of population is divided into four categories. They are:
(a) Less than 100 persons per sq.km. .
(b) 101-250 persons per sq.km.
(c) 251-500 persons per sq.km.
(d) more than 500 persons per sq.km.
Answer:

S.No.	Population Density (per sq.km.)	Name of the States / Union Territories
(1)	less than 100	Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim.
(2)	101 to 250	Meghalaya, Manipur, Nagaland, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chattisgarh.
(3)	251 to 500	Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Odisha, Jharkhand, Assam, Tripura.
(4)	more than 501	West Bengal, Bihar, Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh,Kerala and Tamil Nadu, Delhi, Chandigarh, Puducherry, Diu, Daman, Dadra Nagar, Haveli, Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Population Intext Questions and Answers

Study the maps and answer the following questions

Question 1.
States with the highest population density.
Answer:
West Bengal, Bihar, Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.

Question 2.
On the basis of maps given above, classify the distribution population in India in the following table.
Answer:

S.No.	Population Density (per sq.km.)	Name of the States / Union Territories
(1)	less than 100	Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim.
(2)	101 to 250	Meghalaya, Manipur, Nagaland, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chattisgarh.
(3)	251 to 500	Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Odisha, Jharkhand, Assam, Tripura.
(4)	more than 501	West Bengal, Bihar, Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala and Tamil Nadu, Delhi, Chandigarh, Puducherry, Diu, Daman, Dadra Nagar, Haveli, Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Question 3.
States with lowest population density.
Answer:
Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand and Mizoram.

Question 4.
Correlate the climate and physiography of India with its population distribution and write a note on it.
Answer:
(i) Climate and population distribution are closely inter-related.

(ii) Temperature and rainfall are the two elements of climate which greatly influence the population distribution.

(iii) Dense population is found in regions with mild climate and moderate rainfall.
E.g. the northern plain as well as the coastal plains of India

(iv) Places with heavy rainfall, inaccessibility and dense forests have low population.
E.g. northeastern states in India.

(v) The snow-covered regions due to extremely cold climatic conditions have less population.
E.g. the northernmost part of Jammu and Kashmir.

(vi) In certain regions, due to less rainfall and extreme climatic conditions population is sparse.
E.g. Westernmost part of India in the Thar desert, Rajasthan.

Question 1.
In which area is population greatly concentrated?
Answer:
Population is greatly concentrated in the south eastern part of Brazil.

Question 2.
In which area is the distribution of population sparse?
Answer:
The Amazon Basin in the nothern part and the central and western parts of Brazil have sparse distribution of population.

Question 3.
Prepare a note on factors responsible for the uneven distribution of population based on the study of Brazil you have made so far.
Answer:
The distribution of population in Brazil is uneven:

• There is sparse population in the Amazon Basin due to hot and humid climate, heavy rainfall, dense forests, inaccessibility.
• The population is low in the swampy areas of Pantanal.
• Low population is found in the central and western part of Brazil due to lack of minerals, low rainfall, hot and dry climatic conditions.
• The distribution of population is moderate in Brazilian Highlands.
• High population is found in the coastal regions and the southern part of Brazil. This is due to flat fertile land and abundant availability of minerals due to which agriculture, industries and trade have developed.

Question 4.
Identify the type of map showing distribution fig. (a) of textbook.
Answer:
The type of map showing distribution of population is a dot map.

Question 5.
On the basis of the map (b), classify the distribution of population in Brazil in the following table.:

S. No.	Population Density	Names of the places
(1)	Less than 50	Acre, Amazonas, Roraima, Rondonia, Para, Amapa, Mata Grasso, Mato Grasso Do Sul, Goias, Tocantins, Maranhao, Piaui, Bahia, Minas Gerais, Rio Gande Do Sul
(2)	51 -100	Paraiba, Pamambuco, Parana, Santa Catarina, Sergipe, Rio Grande Do Norte, Ceara
(3)	101 -150	Alagoas
(4)	151 – 300	Sao Paulo
(5)	More than 300	Rio de Janerio, Brasilia

USE YOUR BRAIN POWER

Question 1.
Calculate the population density of the area shown in 1 sq.km, of square in ‘a’ and ‘b’ each

Answer:
(a) In fig. (a) there are 16
Each = 80 people
Total number of people = 16 x 80 = 1280
Fig. (a) has a population density of 1280 people per sq. km.

(b) In fig. (b) there are 23
Each = 80 people
Total number of people = 23 x 80 = 1840
Fig. (b) has a population density of 1840 people per sq. km.

GIVE IT A TRY

Question 1.
What could be the reasons of lower sex ratio in any region?
Answer:
With reference to both the countries, the characteristics of population are prominently notable.

• The sex ratio of Brazil has been more than 1000 since decades.
• Considering the sex ratio of Brazil, the number of women have considerably increaesed than men since 2001.
• In India men outnumber women.
• In India we see fluctuations in the sex ratio since few decades. There has been a slight increase in the sex ratio after 1991.

Question 2.
Write a similar conversation using the graph

Answer:
A: What do these graphs show?

B: These graphs show the literacy rate of India and Brazil.

A: What do you mean by literacy rate?

B: It means the total percentage of the population of an area at a particular time aged seven years or above ‘ who can read and write with understanding.

A: It means that, as on today’s date, the literacy rate of our country is 72.2%.

B: But, Brazil had an even higher literacy rate decades back in 1981, i.e. 74.6% and it has touched 92.6 as of today (2018), which is quite commendable.

A: Yes, definitely But, we have also seen a steady growth in the literacy rate of the country, especially, during the period between 1991 and 2011.

B: Still, though we are growing, we are way behind Brazil today with 72.2% because they have a much higher literacy percentage of 92.6.

A: What measures can be adopted to increase the literacy rate of our country?

B: We can make people aware of the need and importance of education, help in teaching them, introducing various literacy campaigns by making use of free calls, free sms services, etc.

Question 3.
Study the indices of density maps of both the countries. What difference do you find? What conclusions can you draw?

Answer:
(i) India’s density of population is proportionately catered while Brazil’s density of population is concentrated only on the eastern coast.
(ii) After studying the indices of the density maps of both the countries, we can conclude that India’s population density is much higher than that of Brazil.
(iii) The lowest value on the map of India indicates less than 100 whereas on the Brazil map it is less than 50.
(iv) Places in Brazil which are highest in density is grouped in the category of more than 300 people’ per sq. km. whereas in India it is more than 500 persons per sq. km.

Question 4.
Considering the above discussion, what should be done so that our manpower is utilized properly, sex ratio improves and population growth is controlled? Write two to three sentences on each.
Answer:
(i) Measures to utilise man power properly:

• Good education, health and training facilities are the basic requirements to improve human resources.
• The focus of education should not just be to chum out jobseekers but also to chum out job creators.
• The young population should be encouraged to be entrepreneurs.

(ii) Measures to improve sex ratio:

• Build an environment to save and protect the girl child.
• Ban sex determination test.

(iii) Measures to control population growth:

• Family planning measures to be encouraged through media.
• Spread of education among illiterate masses, especially about the benefits of having a small family.
• Child marriage should be strictly prohibited.

TRY THIS

Age and Sex Pyramid:

Question 1.
What is this figure called? What is it always known as?
Answer:
The figure is called the Age-Sex Pyramid. It is also known as Population Pyramid.

Question 2.
What does the graph depict?
Answer:
The graph depicts the percentage of male and female population of various age groups in Brazil & India for the year 2016.

Question 3.
In which country is the proportion of adults more?
Answer:
The proportion of adults is comparatively more in India.

Question 4.
‘This country’s population is getting slowly older’. Which country is being referred to? Why?
Answer:
‘This country’s population is getting slowly older – The country being referred to is Brazil. As compared to India, a larger percentage of Brazil’s population falls in the above 60 years age group. So it is said that Brazil’s population is getting slowly older.

Question 5.
In which country are the number of children comparatively more?
Answer:
The proportion of children is comparatively more in India.

Question 6.
While comparing the age-sex pyramids, which pyramid has a broader base?
Answer:
While comparing the age-sex pyramids, India’s pyramid has a broader base.

USE YOUR BRAIN POWER

Question 1.
Is there a relationship between increase in life expectancy and growth of population ? How?
Answer:
(i) Yes, there is a relationship between increase in life expectancy and growth of population.
(ii) Increased life expectancy means there are more people who live longer, which means healthier and better quality of life.
(iii) This kind of population generally prefers fewer children which leads to decreased birth rates.

Question 2.
If the proportion of dependent age groups increases in the composition of population, how will it affect the economy of a country?
Ans.
(i) If the proportion of dependent age groups increases in the composition of population, it will have an adverse effect on the economy of a country.
(ii) The reason is if the working population is less, the economic activities will reduce and will have a direct impact on the economic growth and development of that nation.
(iii) The production will decrease in comparison to consumption leading to inflation also the per capita income and GDP will decrease.
(iv) Export will reduce and imports will increase.
(v) The proportion of the working population will increase, slowing down the pace of development.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Population Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
The ______ aspects of a population are important for a nation’s economic and social progress.
(a) quantitative
(b) qualitative
(c) measurable
(d) calculable
Answer:
(b) qualitative

Question 2.
India is the ________ most populous country in the world.
(a) second
(b) fifth
(c) seventh
(d) sixth
Answer:
(a) second

Question 3.
Due to farming, industries and trade, the proportion of the population got in _____ a few places.
(a) distributed
(b) sparse
(c) concentrated
(d) equal
Answer:
(c) concentrated

Question 4.
In mountainous / hilly regions, dry desert areas and densely forested areas, population density is __________ because of inaccessibility, absence of facilities and tough life.
(a) high
(b) very high
(c) sparse
(d) moderate
Answer:
(c) sparse

Question 5.
Brazil is the _______ populated country in the continent of South America.
(a) second most
(b) third most
(c) fifth most
(d) most
Answer:
(d) most

Question 6.
With a population of around 19 crores, according to Census 2010, Brazil ranks _______ in the world.
(a) 3rd
(b) 5th
(c) 7th
(d) 9th
Answer:
(b) 5th

Question 7.
With respect to area, Brazil stands _______ in the world.
(a) 3rd
(b) 5th
(c) 7th
(d) 9th
Answer:
(b) 5th

Question 8.
A majority of Brazilians have concentrated within 300 kilometers of the ________.
(a) Guyana highlands
(b) Amazon river,
(c) Eastern coastal areas
(d) Pantanal wetlands
Answer:
(c) Eastern coastal areas

Question 9.
The interior of the Amazon basin is ____ populated.
(a) densely
(b) moderately
(c) highly
(d) very sparsely
Answer:
(d) very sparsely

Question 10.
The central and western parts of Brazil is ______ populated.
(a) densely
(b) sparsely
(c) moderately
(d) less
Answer:
(d) less

Question 11.
The density of population in the _______ of Brazil is moderate.
(a) Amazon Basin
(b) coastal lowlands
(c) highlands
(d) forested areas
Answer:
(c) highlands

Question 12.
In India, there has been a _______ in the sex ratio, after 1991.
(a) decrease
(b) slight increase
(c) consistency
(d) steep increase
Answer:
(b) slight increase

Question 13.
The proportion of _______ in India is more.
(a) middle-aged people
(b) old people
(c) children
(d) youth
Answer:
(d) youth

Question 14.
The rate of population growth is now ______ in India.
(a) increasing
(b) declining
(c) stable
(d) stagnant
Answer:
(b) declining

Question 15.
It is observed that Brazil’s population may not increase in the next ______ decades.
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) five
Answer:
(a) two

Question 16.
The eastern coastal areas of Brazil are also called the coastal ________.
(a) lowlands
(b) highlands
(c) ravines
(d) badlands
Answer:
(a) lowlands

Question 17.
In most of the developing countries life expectancy is still less, but with socio economic development it is ________.
(a) decreasing
(b) increasing
(c) gradually declining
(d) steeply increasing
Answer:
(b) increasing

Match the columns:

S.No	Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1)	Coastal lowlands	(a) sparsely populated
(2)	Amazon Basin interior	(b) moderately populated
(3)	Highlands	(c) densely populated (within 300 kms. of the area)

Answer:
1 – c
2 – a
3 – b

Answer the following questions in one or two sentence.

Question 1.
According to Census 2011, what is India’s population and how much is its average population density?
Answer:
According to Census 2011 India’s population is around 121 crores, and its average population density is 382 persons per sq. km.

Question 2.
What percentage of the total land area of the world is occupied by India and Brazil?
Answer:
India occupies only 2.41% of the land area of the world, whereas Brazil occupies 5.6% of the world’s total land area.

Question 3.
What is the difference in the percentage of the world population supported by India and Brazil?
Answer:
India supports 17.5% of the world’s population, whereas Brazil supports 2.78% of the world’s total population. The difference is 14.72% (India has a large population than Brazil)

Question 4.
According to Census 2010, what is the total population of Brazil and what is its average population density?
Answer:
According to Census 2010, Brazil’s total population is around 19 crores and its average population density is 23 persons per sq. km.

Question 5.
What is sex ratio?
Answer:
Sex ratio means, the number of females per 1000 males in a region.

Question 6.
What is a population pyramid?
Answer:
A population pyramid, also called age-sex pyramid, is a graphical illustration that shows the age and sek/gender related aspects of various age groups in a population.

Question 7.
How is the population pyramid useful? OR State the uses of a population pyramid.
Answer:

• The population pyramid is used to study the age and sex related aspects of a region’s population
• We can know the number/percentage of various age groups of males and females in a country.
• It also helps us to know the proportion of children, youth and old people in a country.

Question 8.
What is life expectancy?
Answer:
Life expectancy means the average number of years, a person born in a country is expected to live.

Question 9.
Which factors lead to an increase in average life expectancy?
Answer:
Improvement in medical facilities, progress in the medical field and access to nutritious food lead to an increase in average life expectancy.

Name the following:

Question 1.
Indian cities that are densely populated.
Answer:
Delhi, Kolkata, Mumbai, Pune, Bengaluru, Chennai.

Question 2.
Factors that play an important role in the distribution of population.
Answer:
Physiography and climate.

Question 3.
Factors due to which human settlements have been established for many centuries.
Answer:
Fertile land, plain land and availability of water.

Question 4.
Factors due to which population got concentrated in a few places, in India.
Answer:
Farming, industries and trade.

Question 5.
Areas which have sparse population density in India.
Answer:
Mountainous / hilly regions, dry desert areas, dense forest areas.

Question 6.
Factors due to which population density is sparse in a few areas.
Answer:
Inaccessibility, absence of facilities and tough life.

Question 7.
The most populated country in South American.
Answer:
Brazil.

Question 8.
Brazil’s rank in the world with regard to population as well as land area.
Answer:
Fifth.

Question 9.
The part of Brazil has the maximum concentration of population
Answer:
Eastern coastal areas or coastal lowlands.

Question 10.
The part of Brazil that is sparsely populated.
Answer:
Amazon River Basin.

Question 11.
The region of Brazil that is moderately populated.
Answer:
The Highlands.

Question 12.
The parts of Brazil that are less populated.
Answer:
Central, western and interior of Amazon basin.

Question 13.
Out of Brazil and India, the country where men outnumber women.
Answer:
India.

Question 14.
Increase in this factor is an indicator of development of that society.
Answer:
Life expectancy, Sex Ratio and Literacy Rate.

Question 15.
The development of this aspect of an economy leads to an increase in average life expectancy.
Answer:
Socio-economic development.

Are the following sentences right or wrong?

Question 1.
India is the fifth most populous country in the world.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 2.
India’s average population density is 832 persons per sq. km. as per the 2011 Census.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 3.
Brazil is the second-most populous country in the World.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 4.
Brazil ranks fifth in the world with respect to area.
Answer:
Right.

Question 5.
The total population of Brazil is around 91 crores.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 6.
In Brazil and India, population is evenly distributed.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 7.
The central and western part of Brazil are less populated.
Answer:
Right.

Question 8.
The sex ratio of Brazil has been less than 1000 since centuries.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 9.
It is observed that in Brazil, the rate of population growth is increasing.
Answer:
Wrong.

Fill the map with the given information:

Question 1.
On a map of India, show the following.

1. Largest state areawise.
2. Smallest state areawise.
3. State with highest population.
4. State with lowest population.
5. State having highest density of population.
6. State having lowest density of population.
7. State having highest sex ratio.
8. State having lowest sex ratio.
9. State having highest literacy rate.
10. State having lowest literacy rate.

Answer:

Question 2.
On a map of Brazil, show the following.

1. Largest state areawise.
2. Smallest state areawise.
3. State with highest population.
4. State with lowest population.
5. State having highest density of population,
6. State having lowest density of population.

Answer:

Give geographical reasons:

Question 1.
In India, population is very unevenly distributed.
Answer:
(i) In India, population is very unevenly distributed.
(ii) Physiography and climate play an important role in the distribution of population.
(iii) Due to fertile land, plain land and availability of water, human settlements have been established in some parts for many centuries.
(iv) Due to farming, industries and trade, the . proportion of the population has become concentrated in a few places.
(v) For example, the Northern Plains of the country, Delhi, Kolkata, Mumbai, Pune, Bengaluru, Chennai, etc.
(vi) On the contrary, in mountainous / hilly regions, dry desert areas, dense forest areas, density is sparse because of inaccessibility, absence of facilities and tough life.

Question 2.
The distribution of population is very uneven in Brazil.
Answer:
(i) The distribution of population is very uneven in Brazil. .
(ii) A majority of the Brazilians are concentrated within 300 kilometers of the eastern coastal areas also called the coastal lowlands because agriculture and industries are well developed here.
(iii) In the interior of the Amazon Basin population is very sparse due to.
(iv) Unfavourable climate, heavy rainfall,
inaccessibility and dense forests which are the barriers to development of human settlements here.
(v) The central and western part of Brazil is less moderate.

Question 3.
The average life expectancy in India is increasing.
Answer:
(i) Earlier the average life expectancy in India was low due to, lack of medical facilities which lead to high incidence of diseases and epidemics like chicken pox, malaria, cholera, etc.
(ii) Today with improvement in access to medical facilities and improvement in technology, diseases and epidemics are controlled.
(iii) Also today people in India have an improved standard of living, they eat nutritious food and there is awareness of good health.
All this has led to increase in average life expectancy in India.

Question 4.
In north-eastern India, sparse distribution of population is found.
Answer:
(i) North East India comprises of dense forests and uneven topography.
(ii) There exist unfavourable climatic conditions in this part.
(iii) There is less development of transport, communication and industries here.
So, in north-eastern India, sparse distribution of population is found.

Question 5.
In India, number of men outnumber women. Is this condition found in all the states of India?
Answer:
In India, men outnumber women, on an average. But in Kerala women outnumber men. Sex Ratio of Kerala is 1084 females per 1000 males (2011 Census).

Question 6.
Explain the reasons of low sex ratio in India.
Answer:
Some of the reasons for lower sex ratio in any region are:

• Illiteracy: Narrow mindedness and lack of education leads to gender bias in the society.
• Preference for a male child : There is preference of a boy child over a girl child. Nutrition to girls is ignored.
• Poverty: Povertystruck families do not prefer a girl child as they consider female child a burden due to practices like dowry prevalent in the society.
• Female foeticide and female infanticide: Female foeticide and female infanticide are on the rise due to the wrong use of modem technology.
• Maternity deaths: Higher maternity deaths have lowered the sex ratio.

Question 7.
Explain – The growth rate of population in India is decreasing but population is increasing.
Answer:
(i) Growth rate of population is calculated on the basis of difference between birth rate and death rate.
(ii) Earlier the difference between birth rate and death rate was high, so the growth rate was high.
(iii) Today the growth rate is decreasing because the difference between birth rate and death rate is not as high as it was earlier.
So it is said that in India the growth rate of population is decreasing, but the population is increasing.

Question 8.
Explain the uneven distribution of population in India.
Answer:
(i) Dense population is found in regions with mild climate and moderate rainfall. E.g. the northern plain as well as the coastal plains of India
(ii) Places with heavy rainfall, inaccessibility and dense forests have low population. E.g. north eastern states in India.
(iii) The snow covered regions due to extremely cold climatic conditions have less population. E.g. the northernmost part of Jammu & Kashmir.
(iv) In certain regions, due to less rainfall and extreme climatic conditions population is sparse. E.g. westernmost part of India in the Thar desert, Rajasthan.
(v) Moderate population is found in the plateau regions of Narmada valley.

Try this

Population growth rate graphs :
Look at the graphs in Fig. indicating the population growth rate of Brazil and India and answer the following questions.

Question 1.
What is the common feature in both the graphs?
Answer:
Both the graphs are indicating a downward trend in population growth rate of Brazil and India.

Question 2.
What is India’s growth rate of population in 2011?
Answer:
India’s population growth rate in 2011 is 1.5%.

Question 3.
In which two decades has the population growth rate of India remained almost stable?
Answer:
The population growth rate of India has remained almost stable during the two decades 1971 to 1981 and 1981 to 1991.

Question 4.
From which time period has Brazil seen a sharp decline in the population growth rate?
Answer:
From 1980-1990, Brazil has seen a sharp decline in the population growth rate.

Question 5.
What is the main point of difference between the two graphs?
Answer:
(i) In the first decade between 1961-1971 the growth rate in India showed an upward trend whereas Brazil has a downward trend throughout.
(ii) Also the decline in Brazil is more sharp but India’s decline in the growth rate is marginal.

Question 6.
What is the interesting feature of Brazil’s growth rate of population?
Answer:
The interesting feature of Brazil’s population growth rate is that it is about to touch 0.0 and then will begin its negative growth rate i.e. the population will start decreasing.

Observe the figure carefully and answer the following questions given below.

Question 1.
What is the class interval of the data?
Answer:
The class interval of the data is 10 years.

Question 2.
In which decade was India’s life expectancy the highest?
Answer:
Highest life expectancy in India was in the decade of 1960-1970.

Question 3.
In which year has the difference in the life expectancy between Brazil and India been the maximum? By how much?
Answer:
In the year I960, the difference between the life expectancy of Brazil and India has been the maximum by 13 years. (54 – 51)

Question 4.
Has the difference in life expectancy been increasing or decreasing?
Answer:
During the past 36 years, i.e. from 1980 onwards, the difference between the life expectancy of Brazil and India has remained constant. It has been 7 to 8 years.

Question 5.
What is the similarity between both the graphs?
Answer:
Both India and Brazil have experienced an increase in the life expectancy. Both the graphs indicate an upward trend continuously.

Question 6.
Is the increase in life expectancy a positive or a negative indicator of an economy? Why?
Answer:
The increase in life expectancy is a positive indicator for any economy because longer the people’s average age, longer is their contribution towards the growth of an economy.

Based on the figure, observe carefully and answer the questions given below.

Question 1.
What do the graphs indicate?
Answer:
The graphs indicate the literacy rate of India and Brazil (in percentage).

Question 2.
What is this general conclusion that you can come to, after observing both the graphs?
Answer:
On observing both the graphs, we can conclude that Brazil is and has always been way ahead of India with regard to literacy rate.

Question 3.
Which country has higher literacy rate?
Answer:
Brazil has a higher literacy rate.

Question 4.
What was the literacy rate of Brazil in 2011?
Answer:
Brazil had a literacy rate of 91.4% in 2011.

Question 5.
What is the difference in the literacy rate of Brazil and India in 2016?
Answer:
Literacy rate of Brazil and India had a difference of 20.4% (92.6 – 72.2) in 2016.

Question 6.
What is the difference in the literacy rate of India between the years 2001 and 2011?
Answer:
The difference in the literacy rate of India is 8.3% (69.3 – 61) between the years 2001 and 2011.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 1.4 All the World’s a Stage Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 1.4 All the World’s a Stage

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 1.4 Warming Up Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Pair work

• Talk to your friend about all the things related to ‘Seven.’
  For example Seven wonders of the world.
• Pair up with your partner and name those given below all of the under :

(a) The seven wonders of the world
………………………………………………………
(b) The seven continents
………………………………………………………
(c) The seven colours of the rainbow
………………………………………………………
(d) The seven notes of the music
………………………………………………………
(e) The seven seas of the world
………………………………………………………
Answer:
(a) The Seven wonders of the world : The Great Wall of China, Christ the Redeemer Statue, Machu Picchu, Chichen Itza, The Roman Colosseum, The Taj Mahal and Petra.
(b) The Seven continents : Asia, Europe, Australia, Africa, North America, South America, Antarctica.
(c) The Seven colours of the rainbow : violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange, red
(d) The Seven notes of the musical scale : sa-re-ga-ma-pa-da-ni./doh-re-me-fa-so-la-ti
(e) The Seven seas of the world : Arctic Ocean, Antarctic Ocean, North Atlantic Ocean, South Atlantic Ocean, Indian Ocean, North Pacific Ocean, South Pacific Ocean.

Question 2.
Life is often compared to many things. Write down 7 things that life can be compared to and justify the comparison. For example,
(a) Life is a keyboard, because if you press the right keys you have typed a good destiny.
(b) ………………………………………………………
(c) ………………………………………………………
(d) ………………………………………………………
(e) ………………………………………………………
(f) ………………………………………………………
(g) ………………………………………………………
Answer:
(a) Life is a keyboard; if you press the right keys, you have typed out a good destiny.
(b) Life is a river-always flowing.
(c) Life is like a seed; it will never grow unless planted, nourished and nurtured.
(d) Life is like an elevator, with lots of ups and downs. ‘
(e) Life is like an onion. You peel off layer after layer. Sometimes it makes you weep.
(f) Life is like a jigsaw puzzle. You have all the pieces, but you have to put them together correctly.
(g) Life is like a jack-in-the-box. You never know : when you are going to get a box on your chin.

Question 3.
Match the approximate ages with the stages.

No.	Age-group			Stages
1	Birth to 2 years		a	teenage/adolescence
2	3 years to 12 years		b	old age/second childhood
3	13 years to 17 years		c	middle-age
4	18 years to about 44 years		d	babyhood/infancy
5	About 45 years to 60 years		e	senior citizen/elderly person
6	65 years up to 75 to 80 years		f	adulthood
7	Above 80 years		g	childhood

Answer:

No.	Age-group	Stages
(1)	Birth to 2 years	(d) babyhood/infancy
(2)	3 years to 12 years	(g) childhood
(3)	13 years to 17 years	(a) teenage/adolescence
(4)	18 years to about 44 years	(f) adulthood
(5)	About 45 years to 60 years	(c) middle-age
(6)	65 years up to 75 to 80 years	(e) senior citizen/ elderly person
(7)	Above 80 years	(b) old age/second childhood

Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Kumarbharati Unit 1.4 Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the words in given clouds. Match them with what they signify.

Answer:
(1) Stage – Life
(2) Characters – Roles played by human beings
(3) Script – Story of life
(4) Dialogues – Conversation
(5) Entry – Birth
(6) Exit – Death

Question 2.
Read the poem carefully and complete the following table.

Ages of Man	Role	Qualities/Actions
1		1. 2.
2		1. 2.
3		1. 2.
4		1. 2.
5		1. 2.
6		1. 2.
7		1. 2.

Answer:

First	infant	(1)   frightened (2)   crying, puking
Second	schoolboy	(1)   unhappy (2)   whining, creeping unwillingly to school
Third	lover	(1)   woeful (2)   sighing, singing sad ballads
Fourth	soldier	(1)  jealous in honor, ambitious (2)   quarreling, facing danger

Question 3.
Write down in your own words the differences between the following stages of a man’s life.
2nd stage and 4th stage …………………………………
……………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………

3rd stage and 5th stage …………………………………
……………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………

1 st stage and 7th (last) stage …………………………………
……………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………
Answer:
2nd stage and 4th stage:
The second stage is that of a school boy, complaining and crying. He goes to school early in the morning, with a well-scrubbed, shining face. He carries his school bag and creeps slowly, like a snail, unwillingly to school.

‘Full of strange oaths and bearded like the pard, Jealous in honour, sudden and quick in quarrel.’

3rd stage and 5th stage:
The third stage is that of a lover, who is’ breathless and sighing with passion. He sings sad Songs dedicated to the beauty of his lover.

The fifth stage is that of , a mature middle-aged man with a round belly. He is stern and formal and full of wisdom. He is full of wise sayings and gives modern examples.

1 st stage and 7th (last) stage:
The first stage is that of an infant, crying weakly and throwing up in his nurse’s arms. He is unaware of what is happening around him.The baby, at this stage, is without teeth, without vision, without taste and without anything.

The last stage of all, which ends one’s eventful life, is when man becomes senile and enters his second childhood. He is again unaware of what is happening around him. This final stage is when he is once more without teeth, without vision, without taste and without anything.

Question 4.
Pick out lines that contain Imagery (a picture created in the mind by using words) of the following people.
(a) School boy …………………………………
(2nd stage) …………………………………
(b) Soldier …………………………………
(4th stage) …………………………………
(c) Judge …………………………………
(5th stage) …………………………………
(d) Senior citizen …………………………………
(6th stage) …………………………………
Answer:
(a) a snail
‘The whining schoolboy, with his satchel and shining morning face, creeping like a snail unwillingly to school.’

(b) acts like the pard
‘Full of strange oaths and bearded like the pard, Jealous in honour, sudden and quick in quarrel.’

(c) In fair round belly with good capon lined
With eyes “severe and beard of formal cut

(d) His youthful hose, well-saved, a world too wide
For his shrunk shank

Question 5.
You will notice that there is no Rhyme-scheme in the poem. It appears similar to the poem 1.1 ‘Where the Mind is Without Fear by Tagore.

However Tagore’s poem has no steady rhythm/meter either it is called Free Verse. Shakespeare uses lines with a steady rhythm of 5 beats in each. It is termed as Blank Verse. (No rhyme-scheme but uniformity in rhythm) Copy the lines from “Ánd all the men and women merely players” to “sudden and quick in quarrel”. Put a stress mark on each of the syllables stressed in the lines as for example, And all the men and women merely players;
Answer:
The poem is written in free verse without any rhyme scheme or consistent metre. There are many figures of speech e.g. Repetition. Metaphor, Alliteration, etc. An Important figure of speech is Personification. ‘Where tireless striving stretches its arms towards perfection’. Here, we can actually visualize ‘tireless striv1ng stretching Its arms to reach its goal.

The poem is a prayer to God. Tagore addresses God as ‘my Father’ and asks Him to awaken his country Into a heaven of freedom, where there is total freedom of good thoughts, good words and good actions. He wishes for a country where people would be free from fear, where knowledge would be free to all individuals and people from all castes and religions would be united.

Question 6.
Think and write on your own.
(a) What is the theme/central idea of this poem?
(b) Which two stages of man, described by Shakespeare sound humorous? Say why.
(c) The last (7th) stage of life sounds very sad and miserable. How can you make old age also cheerful and happy?
Answer:
(a) The theme of this poem is the cycle of life.
It tells us how one starts out an infant, helpless and unaware of the surroundings, and ends the same way, i without being aware of what is happening around one.

(b) The second and third stages are humorous. One can just imagine the school boy, complaining and whining, creeping to school slowly with a well-scrubbed and shining face. The third stage, where the lover sighs loudly and sings sad poems and songs, is also humorous.

(c) We can make the last stage joyful by preparing for it beforehand. We know that most of us will reach this stage before our final exit. Hence, we must maintain good health, and keep good relations with our family and the people around us. We must save enough money to get us through this stage without any stress on ourselves or others.

Question 7.
(A) The poem is entirely metaphorical. Pick out the comparisons from the poem.
(a) world …………………………………
(b) actors …………………………………
(c) birth and death …………………………………
(d) school boy …………………………………
(e) the lover’s sigh …………………………………
(f) spotted leopard …………………………………
(g) last stage (old age) …………………………………
Answer:
(a) stage
(b) –
(c) entrances and exits
(d) a snail
(e) a furnace
(f) bearded soldier

(B) Pick out from the poem two examples of each.
(a) Simile
(1) …………………………………
(2) …………………………………
Answer:
Simile. Two dissimilar objects are compared using the word ‘like’.

(b) Onomatopoeia
(1) …………………………………
(2) …………………………………

(c) Alliteration
(1) …………………………………
(2) …………………………………

(d) Metaphor
(1) …………………………………
(2) …………………………………

(e) Inversion
(1) …………………………………
(2) …………………………………

(f) Transferred Epithet
(1) …………………………………
(2) …………………………………
Answer:

(a) Simile	(1)   Creeping like a snail (2)   Soldier bearded like the pard
(b) Onomatopoeia	(1)   And then the whining schoolboy (2)   Sighing like a furnace
(c) Alliteration	(1) They have -their exits and their entrances (2) His youthful hose, well- saved, a world too wide
(d) Metaphor	(1)   They have their exits and their entrances (2)   men and women merely players
(e) Inversion	(1)   His acts being seven ages. (2)   With eyes severe and beard of formal cut
(f) Transferred Epithet	(1)   with a woeful ballad (2)   Into the lean and slippered pantaloon

Question 8.
Read the summary of the play ‘As You Like It’ by William Shakespeare using the Internet. Find out which character has narrated the above poem and on what occasion. Also, make a list of all the characters of the play.
Answer:
The character who has narrated the above poem in the play ‘As You Like It’ by William Shakespeare is Jacques. He narrates it in Act II, Scene VII.

Some of the other characters in the play are Celia, Rosalind, Orlando, Oliver, Duke Senior, Duke Frederick, Touchstone, etc.

Question 9.
Read the poem again and write an appreciation of the poem in a paragraph format. (Refer to page no. 5)
Answer:
Point Format
(for understanding)
The title of the poem : All the World’s a Stage’
The poet : WIlliam Shakespeare
Rhyme scheme : blank verse I.e. no rhyme scheme, but there is a steady rhythm of five beats In each line.
Figures of speech : Metaphor, Simile, Alliteration, Repetition. etc.
Theme/Central idea : The theme of the poem Is the cycle of life.

Paragraph Format
The poem ‘All the World’s a Stage’ is by William Shakespeare. It is taken from Shakespeare’s play ‘As you like It’. It is a monologue by one of the characters in the play.

The poem is written in blank verse i.e. there is no rhyme scheme, but there Is a steady rhythm of five beats i.e. iambic pentameter in each line. There are many figures of speech, like Simile. Alliteration and Repetition. but the one that stands out Is Metaphor. In the lines ‘All the world’s a stage, And all men and women are merely players’, there is an implied comparison between two different things.

In this poem, Shakespeare compares life to a stage. He has divided life Into seven stages. each having its own varied qualities and features. The theme of the poem is the cycle of life. It tells us how one starts out as an Infant, helpless. without understanding. and ends the same way, without being aware of what Is happening around one.

Question 10.
Complete the following diagram:
Answer:

Question 11.
Match the following :

A	B
(1) Infant	(a) acts like the pard
(2) School boy	(b) mewling and puking
(3) Lover	(c) whining,
(4) Soldier ‘	(d) sighing like furnace

Answer:

(1) Infant	(b) mewling arjd puking
(2) School boy	(c) whining
(3) Lover	(d) sighing like furnace
(4) Soldier	(a) acts like the pard

Question 12.
Complete the following : (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
Answer:
(1) ‘Exits’ and ‘entrances’ refer to deaths and births.
(2) Reputation is like a bubble because one does useless things for one’s reputation, which can burst like a bubble in one instant.

Question 13.
Name and explain the poetic devices used in the following lines:
(a) Soldier bearded like the pard
Answer:
Simile. Two dissimilar objects are compared using the word ‘like’,

(b) Sighing like a furnace
Answer:
Simile. Two dissimilar objects are compared using the word ‘like’.

(c) men and women merely players
Answer:
Metaphor. Implicit comparison between two different things.

(d) They have their exits and their entrances
Answer:
Alliteration. Repetition of the sound of ‘t’ and ‘e’.
Metaphor. Implicit comparison between two different things.

(f) With a woeful ballad
Answer:
Alliteration. Repetition of the sound of ‘w’.
Transferred Epithet. It is not the ballad that is woeful but the lover.

Question 14.
Complete the following diagram :
Answer:

Question 15.
Write if the following statements are True or False :
Answer:

• Man in the fifth stage of life is full of wisdom. (True)
• Man in the sixth stage has a fair, round belly. (False)
• The last few lines are full of melancholy. (True)
• In the last stage, man is unaware of his surroundings. (True)

Question 16.
Write down in your own words the differences between the following stages of a man’s life :
(a) 5th and 6th stage :
Answer:
The fifth stage is that of a mature middle-aged man with a round belly. He is stern and formal and full of wisdom. He is full of wise sayings and gives modern examples.

In the sixth stage, man has become old, with thin legs in slippers and loose pants. He has spectacles on his nose and a pouch by his side. The close-fitting stockings, which he had saved from his younger days, are now too big for his thin legs, which have shrunk with age. His loud voice, which was once manly, has now become childish and shrill. There are whistling sounds when he talks.

Question 17.
Complete the following table based on the extract. (The answers are given directly.)
Answer:

Stages of Man	Role	qualities/Actions
Fifth	adult man	(1)   fat, serious and wise (2)   giving advice
Sixth	middle-aged man	(1)   thin and shrunken (2)   talking in a shrill-voice
Seventh	very old man	(1)   senile, child-like (2)   oblivious to his surroundings

Question 18.
The poem is entirely metaphorical. Pick out the comparison from the extract: last stage (old age)
Answer:
last scene

Question 19.
Name and explain the figures of speech used in the following lines :
(a) His youthful hose, well-saved, a world too wide
Answer:
Alliteration. Repetition of the sound of ‘w’.

(b) For his shrunk shank
Answer:
Alliteration. Repetition of the sound of ‘s’.

(c) Turning again towards childish treble
Answer:
Alliteration. Repetition of the sound of ‘t’.

(d) Sans teeth, sans eyes, sans taste, sans everything.
Answer:
Repetition. The word ‘sans’ is repeated for emphasis.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
On the basis of the information given in the chapter, figures and maps, complete the table below:

S.No	Type of forest	Characteristics	Regions in India	Regions in Brazil
1	Tropical Forests	Broad-leaved evergreen trees.
2	Semi arid thorny vegetation	1. 2.
3	Savannah	Scanty bushes and shrub like trees and rain resistant grass.
4	Tropical semi-deciduous	Mixed type vegetation.
5	Grasslands	Grassland region like the Pampas of Argentina.

Answer:

S. No.	Type of forest	Characteristics	Regions in India	Regions in Brazil
(1)	Tropical Forests	Broad-leaved evergreen trees.	Andaman and Nicobar Islands, the Western Ghats. Some parts of North East India.	Amazon Basin, Guyana Highlands.
(2)	Semi arid thorny vegetation	(a)     Thorny and shrub type vegetation. (b)   Leaves are small in size. Leaves are modified into thorns to minimise evaporation.	Gujarat, Rajasthan, Parts of Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.	North-Eastern part of Brazil.
(3)	Savannah	Scanty bushes and shrub like trees and rain resistant grass.		Brazilian Highland.
(4)	Tropical semi-deciduous	Mixed type vegetation.	Central India and South India.	Parana Basin and South Eastern part of Brazil.
(5)	Grasslands	Grassland region like the Pampas of Argentina.	Foothills of Shiwalik hills and Assam.	Southern Brazil.

2. Identify the odd man out:

Question a.
Forest type of Brazil ______.
(a) Thorny bush type vegetation
(b) Evergreen forests
(c) The Himalayan Forests
(d) Deciduous forests
Answer:
(c) The Himalayan Forests

Question b.
With reference to India
(a) Mangrove forests
(b) Mediterranean forests
(c) Thorny bush-type vegetation
(d) Equatorial forests
Answer:
(b) Mediterranean forests

Question c.
With reference to Fauna of Brazil.
(a) Anaconda
(b) Tamairin
(c) Red Panda
(d) Lion
Answer:
(c) Red Panda

Question d.
With reference to flora in India.
(a Deodar
(b) Anjan
(c) Orchid
(d) Banyan
Answer:
(c) Orchid

3. Match the Column:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
Evergreen Forests	(a) Sundari trees
Deciduous forests	(b) Pine
Coastal forests	(c) Pau Brasil
Himalayan forests	(d) Khejari
Thorny and bush type vegetation	(e) Teak
	(f) Orchid

Answer:
1 – c
2 – e
3 – a
4 – b
5 – d

4. Answer in short:

Question a.
Differentiate between the forest types of Brazil and India.
Answer:

Forest type of Brazil	Forest type of India
1. The northern part of Brazil lies in the equatorial region. It receives ample sunshine and heavy rainfall. So dense evergreen forests are seen here.	1. The location of India is far away from the Equator. Heavy rainfall occurs only in the Western Ghats and North Eastern hilly areas. So evergreen forests are seen in these regions.
2. The Highland region of Brazil receives low rainfall. So tropical grasslands are seen in this region.	2. The Peninsula region of India receives rainfall between 1000 mm to 2000 mm, so they are covered by deciduous forests.
3. As there are no tall and long extending mountains in Brazil, Himalayan type forests are not found here.	3. Owing to presence of Himalayas, Himalayan type forests are found in North and North-East of India that are classified on the basis of altitude.
4. Thorny shrubs are found to the North Eastern part of Brazilian Highlands which is also considered to be a Drought Quadrilateral.	4. Thorny shrubs are found in India receiving less than 500 mm of rainfall. It is majorly found in Gujarat, Rajasthan and rain shadow regions of the Western Ghats.

Question b.
Correlate wildlife and natural vegetation in India and Brazil.
Answer:
(i) Depending upon favourable geographical conditions, we find a variety of natural vegetation in India and Brazil. Also depending upon the vegetation we find a variety of wildlife in different regions.

(ii) Grasslands of Brazil like the Savannah and the deciduous forest of India have a large number of herbivores and carnivores.

(iii) The dense evergreen forests of India in the west, north east India and the Amazon Basin of Brazil are a home to a large variety of birds, insects, reptiles along with the herbivores and the carnivores.

(iv) Coastal forests and swampy areas of Pantanal and Sunderbans have mangroves, a variety of birds, fishes and reptiles like crocodiles, alligators and the anacondas in Brazil.

(v) Vegetation provides food and shelter to wildlife but if vegetation is limited like in the Thar desert or the Caatinga it will also limit the variety of animals species.

Question c.
What environmental issues are faced by Brazil and India?
Answer:

• Degradation of environment is happening in Brazil due to illegal smuggling of wild animals, slash and burn agriculture (roca), deforestation, pollution, etc.
• Due to these problems, many endemic species are on the verge of extinction.
• India too faces environmental issues such as poaching, pollution and the fast spreading deforestation.
• Many species of wildlife are on the verge of extinction in India.

Question d.
What are the major causes of degradation of forest in Brazil and India?
Answer:
(i) Forests are being cut down as more area is required to expand the cities. Hence rapid urbanisation is one of the reasons for degradation of forest.

(ii) To ensure continuous food supply to meet the needs of the ever increasing population, more and more area needs to be brought under agriculture. For the expansion of agricultural land, forest areas are being cut down.

(iii) In both India and Brazil, forests are being cut down for firewood and for other domestic needs.

(iv) Slash and Burn agriculture which is also known as Roca in Brazil and Jhum in India is responsible for deforestation.

(v) Apart from all the above reasons, forest fire, pollution, overgrazing, etc. are also responsible for the degradation of forests.

Question e.
Why does the deciduous type vegetation occupy most of India?
Answer:

• Vegetation in a region is affected by the climate and rainfall of the region.
• In dia lies in the tropical zone and it has a monsoon type climate throughout the year.
• Also, a major portion of India receives seasonal rainfall between 1000-2000 mm.
• Deciduous forests thrive well in this condition and these forests shed their leaves during the hot and dry summer so that water is not lost due to evaporation.
• Teak, bamboo, banyan, peepal, etc. are the trees found in deciduous forest of India.

5. Give geographical reasons:

Question a.
The northern part of Brazil is covered with dense forests.
Answer:

• The northern part of Brazil lies in the equatorial region.
• It receives ample sunlight and about 2000 mm of rainfall throughout the year.
• In this region, the growth of vegetation is very rapid.
• So, the northern part of Brazil is covered with dense and evergreen forests.

Question b.
Vegetation is scarce in the high altitude of the Himalayas.
Answer:

• As the altitude increases, the temperature decreases.
• The climate is very cold in the high altitudes. In Jammu and Kashmir and parts of Himalayas temperature drops to -40fiC.
• Also this region is snow-covered for most part of the year.
• Very few species of plants can survive in such extreme conditions. Only seasonally flowering trees are found at higher altitudes.
• Hence, vegetation is scarce in the high altitude of the Himalayas.

Question c.
A wide variety of insect species is found in Brazil.
Answer:

• Insects are mostly found in forests, grasslands and swampy lands.
• Many insects eat leaves, grass and nectar from the plant.
• The evergreen rainforests are seen in the northern parts of Brazil. The grasslands are found in the central parts and Paraguay-Parana river basin. Similarly, swampy lands are found in Pantanal region in Brazil. .
• Therefore, a wide variety of insect’s species is found in Brazil.

Question d.
Wild life in India is decreasing day by day.
Answer:
(i) Wildlife in India is decreasing day by day because of rapidly occurring deforestation, poaching, pollution.

(ii) Expansion of cities to accommodate the growing population is leading to cutting down of the valuable forest which leads to the loss of the habitat of wildlife.

(iii) Also the problem of pollution has become severe due to urbanisation. Various types of pollution have threatened the lives of many of the species.

(iv) Poaching of wildlife species have also led to the loss of wildlife in India.

(v) Agricultural practices like shifting cultivation has also reduced the forest cover leading to loss of wildlife habitat.

Question e.
Like India, there is a need for conservation of forests in Brazil too.
Answer:
(i) Like India, Brazil is facing the problem of degradation of environment due to deforestation, pollution, slash and burn agriculture, illegal smuggling of wild animals, etc.

(ii) Trees are being cut down to obtain wood, leading to large scale deforestation in both countries.

(iii) Also the problem of pollution has become severe due to urbanisation. Various types of pollution have threatened the lives of many of the species.

(iv) Agricultural practices like slash and burn agriculture (roca) has reduced the forest cover in Brazil.

(v) Like India, the problem of illegal smuggling of animals has affected Brazil too.

(vi) Hence there is a need for conservation of forests in both Brazil and India.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Intext Questions and Answers

Observe the images given below and discuss on the basis of the following points and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Can you tell the names of the plants/trees shown in the image?
Answer:
Coffee, cactus, rubber.

Question 2.
Where have you seen these plants before?
Answer:
Brazil.

Question 3.
Name the fauna shown in the image.
Answer:
Rufous bellied thrush, leopard, green anaconda.

Question 4.
Where have you seen them before?
Answer:
On the internet and in movies.

Question 5.
In which country do you find a greater diversity of vegetation? What is the reason behind it?
Answer:
Brazil has a greater diversity of vegetation because of the variation in climatic conditions.

Colours Of Both

Question 1.
In which country do equatorial forests occupy a greater area? What could be the reason behind it?
Answer:
Equatorial forests occupy a greater area in Brazil. This is because the Equator passes through northern part of Brazil. Hence, the climate is generally hot throughout the year. Moreover, this region receives heavy rainfall throughout the year.

Question 2.
Which type of forests found in India are not found in Brazil?
Answer:
Himalayan forests are found in India and not in Brazil.

Question 3.
Which type of forests found in Brazil are found in India too?
Answer:
Evergreen forests, deciduous forests, and thorny shrub type vegetation are found in both Brazil and India.

Question 4.
In which country a greater diversity of vegetation is found? What is the reason behind it?
Answer:
Brazil has a greater diversity of vegetation because of the equatorial climate, ample sunlight, heavy rainfall, and vast forest expanse.

Question 5.
Considering the climate and vegetation types, in which country will forest-based occupations flourish?
Answer:
Forest-based occupations will flourish more in Brazil.

Activity

Question 1.
Correlate geographical conditions and the flora and fauna there? (India)
Answer:
Depending upon favourable geographical conditions, we find a variety of flora and fauna in India.

(i) In the snow-capped regions of Himalayas where precipitation occurs in the form of snow, we find alpine vegetation. Animals like snow leopards and yaks are found who can sustain the extreme cold of the Himalayas.

(ii) The evergreen forest in the Western Ghats have hot and humid conditions with a temperature of 28°C and annual rainfall more than 2000mm. In such are as animals like lions, tigers, elephants, and a variety of birds are seen.

(iii) The coastal forest are home to many turtles, crocodiles, and gavials, etc. One-horned rhinoceroses are found in the swampy, marshy lands of Assam. Mangrove vegetation is found in the saline waters.

(iv) In areas where the climate is hot and dry and the rainfall is low, thorny scrub vegetation is found. Animals like wild ass and camels are common here.

(v) In the regions of medium rainfall. We find deciduous forest, wide variety of animals and birds.

Question 2.
Do you know some other animals too ?
Answer:
Four-horned antelope, black buck, Tibetan yak, giant squirrel (shekaru).

Use your Brain:

Question 1.
Find out in which parts of India agricultural practices like the ‘Roca’ is found? By what names are they called?
Answer:

Slash and Burn Farming in India
Name	Regions
Jhumming	Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Nagaland
Pamlou	Manipur
Dipa	Bastar (Chhattisgarh) and Andaman & Nicobar Islands
Bewar or Dahiya	Madhya Pradesh
Podu or Penda	Andhra Pradesh
Pama Dabi or Koman or Bringa	Odisha
Kumara	Western Ghats
Valre or Waltre	South Eastern Rajasthan
Khi	Himalayan belt
Kuruwa	Jharkhand

Answer the following questions on the basis of map given:

Question 1.
How many mm of rainfall does Tropical forests have?
Answer:
Tropical forests receives rainfall of 1600 mm.

Question 2.
How much rainfall does equatorial forests receive?
Answer:
Equatorial forests receive 2000 mm of rainfall.

Question 3.
Name the types of forests shown in figure.
Answer:
Tropical forests, Equatorial forests, Deciduous forests and Temperate forests are shown in the above figure.

Question 4.
Where are tropical and equatorial forests found in Brazil?
Answer:Tropical and equatorial forests are found in Guyana Highlands and Amazon basin respectively.

Question 5.
Where are deciduous forests and temperate forests found in Brazil?
Answer:
Deciduous forests and Temperate forests are found in Parana Basin and Brazilian Highlands respectively.

Question 6.
What kind of wildlife is seen in Brazilian Highlands?
Answer:
Reptiles and grassland animals are seen in Brazilian Highlands.

Question 1.
Which forests are found in western snow¬capped regions?
Answer:
Himalayan Forests are found in western snow-capped regions.

Question 2.
On which coast do you mainly find the coastal vegetation?
Answer:
The coastal vegetation is mainly found along the Eastern Coast.

Question 3.
Which type of forests occupy maximum area in India ? Why?
Answer:
Deciduous forests are found in the regions receiving rainfall between 1000 mm to 2000 mm Since most of India has rainfall in that range, deciduous forests dominate the Indian subcontinent.

Question 4.
Where do you find thorny and shrub vegetation in India and why?
Answer:
Semi arid areas of Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Uttar Pradesh Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and Haryana are the places where thorny and shrub vegetation are found. The thorny forests are found in these regions as the rainfall is less than 500 mm.

Question 1.
Name the species shown on the map.
Answer:
Some of the major species shown on the map are condor, golden lion tamarin, anaconda, crocodile, sword fish, flamingoes, macaw, parrots, rufous bellied thrush.

Question 2.
In which regions are these animals found? Why are their habitats found in these forests?
Answer:

• The dense equatorial forest region is home to golden lion tamarin, condor, anaconda, etc. This is because these forest lie near the Amazon River and receive rainfall throughout the year.
• Swampy lands of Pantanal is home to anacondas and crocodiles because these conditions are favourable for their habitation.
• Sword fish thrives near the South Atlantic Coast due to the extensive continental shelf.

Question 3.
Classify the forest regions in Brazil with reference to their extent.
Answer:

• Equatorial forests are found in the northern part of Brazil and it covers an extensive area.
• Tropical Grasslands (Savanna) is the next major forest type occupying central part of Brazil.
• Hot deciduous forests occupy the southern Brazil whereas swampy lands of Pantanal occupy a small part of Brazil in the south west.
• Thorny shrubs occupy the north western part of Brazil owing to low rainfall whereas Temperate Grasslands (Pampas) occupy south Brazil.

Mark the following on the map of India with the given information:
Question 1.

1. Bengal Tiger
2. Lion
3. Great Indian Bustard
4. Gangetic Dolphin
5. Olive Ridley turtles
6. Swamp deers
7. One-horned rhinos
8. Nilgiri Tahr goat
9. Gharials

Answer:

Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
In Brazil, _____ varies due to physiography.
(a) soil
(b) rainfall
(c) agriculture
(d) mineral availability
Answer:
(b) rainfall

Question 2.
In most parts of the _____ region, it rains throughout the year.
(a) temperate
(b) tropical
(c) grasslands
(d) equatorial
Answer:
(d) equatorial

Question 3.
As one moves away from the Equator, _______ decreases.
(a) altitude
(b) forest
(c) rainfall
(d) snowfall
Answer:
(c) rainfall

Question 4.
The _______ forests are found where there is rainfall throughout the year.
(a) tropical
(b) thorny
(c) evergreen
(d) temperate
Answer:
(c) evergreen

Question 5.
Brazil has the/a ______ number of vegetation species in the world.
(a) moderate
(b) largest
(c) low
(d) smallest
Answer:
(b) largest

Question 6.
The rainforests are rightly called the _______.
(a) lungs of the world’
(b) ’limbs of the world’
(c) ’heart of the world’
(d) ’veins of the world’
Answer:
(a) lungs of the world’

Question 7.
Highest biodiversity is found in _____ forests.
(a) thorny
(b) deciduous
(c) evergreen
(d) coastal
Answer:
(c) evergreen

Question 8.
In regions receiving rainfall between 1000 mm to 2000 mm in India, ______ forests are found.
(a) thorny
(b) evergreen
(c) deciduous
(d) tropical
Answer:
(c) deciduous

Question 9.
In regions receiving less than 500 mm of rainfall that experience dry summers for a long time in India, ______ and shrub like vegetation are found.
(a) equatorial
(b) evergreen
(c) grasslands
(d) thorny
Answer:
(d) thorny

Question 10.
In _____ areas, coastal type of vegetation is found.
(a) peninsular
(b) mountainous
(c) rocky
(d) swampy
Answer:
(d) swampy

Question 11.
Coastal type of vegetation is called ____ in India.
(a) Bangar
(b) Sunderbans
(c) Pantanal
(d) Terai
Answer:
(b) Sunderbans

Question 12.
The wood found in Sunderbans is _____ light and durable.
(a) dry
(b) fragile
(c) oily
(d) soft
Answer:
(c) oily

Question 13.
In areas located in the ____ altitude of Himalayas, seasonly flowering trees are found.
(a) highest
(b) lowest
(c) plains
(d) medium
Answer:
(a) highest

Question 14.
In regions with medium altitude of Himalayas, ______ trees are found.
(a) rubber
(b) evergreen
(c) rose wood
(d) coniferous
Answer:
(d) coniferous

Question 15.
At foothills of the Himalayas _____ forests are found.
(a) mixed
(b) teak –
(c) coniferous
(d) pine
Answer:
(a) mixed

Question 16.
The proportion of ________ trees is higher at the foothills of the Himalayas.
(a) sal
(b) deodar
(c) rosewood
(d) pine
Answer:
(a) sal

Question 17.
Teak is mainly found in the _______ type of forest.
(a) Coastal
(b) Thorny and bush
(c) Coniferous
(d) Deciduous
Answer:
(d) Deciduous

Question 18.
A greater diversity of wildlife is found in ________ than any other country in the
world.
(a) India
(b) Russia
(c) Australia
(d) Brazil
Answer:
(d) Brazil

Question 19.
In the swampy areas of Pantanal, _______ are found.
(a) cobras
(b) vipers
(c) huge anacondas
(d) Indian pythons
Answer:
(c) huge anacondas

Question 20.
Among fish varieties, ______ is found in seas of Brazil
(a) mackerel
(b) king fish
(c) sword fish
(d) pink dolphins
Answer:
(c) sword fish

Question 21.
In Brazilian rivers, pink dolphins and ______ are found.
(a) gold fish
(b) piranhas
(c) king fish
(d) mackrels
Answer:
(b) piranhas

Question 22.
One of the major bird species found in Brazil includes _______.
(a) ostrich
(b) flamingoes
(c) kiwi
(d) duck
Answer:
(b) flamingoes

Question 23.
Slash and bum agriculture is also called ______ in Brazil.
(a) kumri
(b) roka (roca)
(c) dry farming
(d) bewar
Answer:
(b) roka (roca)

Question 24.
Hot and humid forests are a home for _______
(a) tiger
(b) elephants
(c) dogs
(d) leopard
Answer:
(b) elephants

Question 25.
One horned rhinoceroses are found in swampy and marshy lands of ______.
(a) Assam
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Telangana
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(a) Assam

Question 26.
Indian bisons, deers, monkeys are found in the _____ region.
(a) Himalayan
(b) Western Ghats
(c) Peninsular
(d) Deccan
Answer:
(c) Peninsular

Question 27.
The only country where both lions and tigers are found is ______.
(a) Brazil
(b) India
(c) Australia
(d) America
Answer:
(b) India

Question 28.
______ which are huge in size fly high in the Brazilian sky.
(a) Macaws
(b) Kingfishers
(c) Condors
(d) Pheasants
Answer:
(c) Condors

Match the Column:

Question 1.

Column ’A’	Column ‘B’
1. Evergreen Forests	(a) Major portion of Madhya Pradesh
2. Deciduous forests	(b) Arunachal Pradesh
3. Thorny shrubs	(c) Sundarbans
4. Himalayan forests	(d) Western Ghats
5. Coastal forests	(e) Gujarat
	(f) Cold desert in Jammu and Kashmir
	(g) Hot desert in Rajasthan

Answer:
1 – d
2 – a
3 – e
4 – b
5 – c

Question 2.

Column ’A’	Column ‘B’
1. Equatorial forests	(a) Caatinga
2. Grasslands	(b) Pantanal
3. Swampy Lands	(c) Pampas
4. Hot deciduous forests	(d) Amazon river basin
5. Thorny shrubs	(e) Escarpment
	(f) Savanna
	(g) Parana basin

Answer:
1 – d
2 – c
3 – b
4 – e
5 – a

Identify the odd man out:

Question 1.
With reference to Fauna in India.
(a) Anaconda
(b) Elephants
(c) Lion
(d) Tiger
Answer:
(a) Anaconda

Question 2.
With reference to Flora of Brazil.
(a) Pau Brazil
(b) Rubber
(c) Mahogany
(d) Deodar
Answer:
(d) Deodar

Question 3.
With reference to Himalayan Forests.
(a) Seasonal flowering plants
(b) Orchids
(c) Pine
(d) Mixed Forests
Answer:
(b) Orchids

Question 4.
With reference to birds found in Brazil.
(a) Condors
(b) Flamingoes
(c) Macaws
(d) Peacocks
Answer:
(d) Peacocks

Question 5.
With reference to birds found in India.
(a) Peacock
(b) Kingfisher
(c) Duck
(d) Condors.
Answer:
(d) Condors.

Question 6.
With reference to protection of wildlife, Government of India has setup.
(a) Museums
(b) Biosphere reserves
(c) National Parks
(d) Wildlife sanctuaries
Answer:
(a) Museums

Answer the following questions in one sentence:

Question 1.
Where does it rain throughout the year?
Answer:
It rains throughout the year, in most parts of the equatorial region.

Question 2.
As one moves away from the Equator, does the rainfall increase?
Answer:
No, the rainfall decreases as one moves away from the Equator.

Question 3.
Where are evergreen forests found?
Answer:
Evergreen forests are found in the area where it rains throughout the year.

Question 4.
What effect does rainfall have on vegetation?
Answer:
As the rainfall decreases, the density of the vegetation also decreases.

Question 5.
What kind of vegetation is found in places of less rainfall?
Answer:
Various types of grass, short shrubs and thorny vegetation is found in places of less rainfall.

Question 6.
Where are the largest number of vegetation species found in the world?
Answer:
Brazil has the largest number of vegetation species in the world.

Question 7.
What kind of trees are found in Brazil?
Answer:
Trees like Pau Brasil, rubber, mahogany, rosewood and a variety of orchids are found in Brazil.

Question 8.
Why are the evergreen forests called the ‘lungs of the world’?
Answer:
Evergreen forests are called the lungs of the world because they release large amount of oxygen in the environment which helps to reduce the carbon dioxide levels.

Question 9.
Describe the leaves of trees found in evergreen forests.
Answer:
The leaves of trees found in evergreen forests are broad and green.

Question 10.
What quality of wood is found in evergreen forests?
Answer:
The wood found in evergreen forests is hard, heavy and durable.

Question 11.
In which regions are deciduous forests found?
Answer:
Deciduous forests are found in the regions receiving an average amount of rainfall ranging between 1000mm to 2000mm in India.

Question 12.
Which trees are found in deciduous forests?
Answer:
Trees like teak, bamboo, banyan, peepal, etc. are found in deciduous forest.

Question 13.
Which regions experience dry summers for a long time in India?
Answer:
Regions that receive less than 500 mm of rainfall experience dry summers for a long time in India.

Question 14.
Which kind of vegetation is found in regions receiving less than 500 mm of rainfall?
Answer:
Thorny or shrub like vegetation is found in regions receiving less than 500 mm of rainfall.

Question 15.
How are the leaves of trees in the region where there is less than 500 mm of rainfall?
Answer:
The leaves of trees are small in the region where there is less than 500 mm of rainfall.

Question 16.
Where is coastal vegetation found?
Answer:
Coastal vegetation is found in swampy areas, estuaries and lagoons near coastal areas.

Question 17.
What is coastal vegetation called in India?
Answer:
Coastal vegetation is called mangroves or Sunderbans in India.

Question 18.
How is the wood of trees found in coastal vegetation?
Answer:
The wood of trees found in coastal vegetation is oily, light and durable.

Question 19.
How many types of forests are there in the Himalayas?
Answer:
There are three types of forests in the Himalayas based on their altitude.

Question 20.
Which kind of trees are found in regions of high altitude in the Himalayas?
Answer:
Seasonally flowering trees are found in regions of high altitude.

Question 21.
Which type of trees are found in regions with medium altitude in the Himalayas?
Answer:
In regions with medium altitude, coniferous trees like pine, deodar and fir are found.

Question 22.
Where are mixed forests found in India?
Answer:
Mixed forest are found at the foothills of the Himalayas.

Question 23.
Where is greater diversity in wildlife found in the world?
Answer:
A greater diversity in wildlife is found in Brazil than any other country in the world.

Question 24.
Which animal is found in the swampy areas of the Pantanal?
Answer:
Huge anacondas are found in the swampy areas of Pantanal.

Question 25.
Which are the other animals found in Brazil?
Answer:
Animals like guinea pigs, crocodiles, alligators, monkeys, pumas, leopards, etc. are found in Brazil.

Question 26.
Which is the main variety of fish found in the Brazilian sea?
Answer:
Sword fish is mainly found in the Brazilian sea.

Question 27.
Which varieties of fish are found in the rivers of Brazil?
Answer:
Piranhas are found in the rivers of Brazil.

Question 28.
What kind of birds are seen in the Brazilian sky?
Answer:
Condors, parrots, macaws, and flamingoes are found in the Brazilian skies.

Question 29.
Why is degradation of environment happening in Brazil?
Answer:
Degradation of environment is happening in Brazil due to illegal smuggling of wild animals, slash and bum agriculture (roka), deforestation, and pollution.

Question 30.
Where are elephants found in India?
Answer:
Elephants are found in hot and humid forests of India.

Question 31.
Where are one homed rhinoceroses found?
Answer:
One homed rhinoceroses are found in the swampy and marshy lands of Assam.

Question 32.
Which animals are found in the arid lands of India?
Answer:
Wild ass and camels are found in the arid lands of India.

Question 33.
Which animal is found in the snow capped regions of Himalayas?
Answer:
Snow leopards are found in the snow capped regions of the Himalayas.

Question 34.
Which animals are found in the peninsular region of India?
Answer:
Indian Bisons, deer, antelopes, and monkeys are found in the Peninsular region of India.

Question 35.
Which is the only country where both lions and tigers are found?
Answer:
India is the only country where both lions and tigers are found.

Question 36.
Where are turtles, crocodiles and gharials found in India?
Answer:
Turtles, crocodiles and gharials are found in rivers, estuaries, and coastal areas of India.

Question 37.
Which birds are found in the forests and wetlands of India?
Answer:
Birds like peacocks, Indian bustard, kingfishers, peasants, ducks, parakeet, cranes, and pigeons are found in the forests and wetlands of India.

Question 38.
What measures are taken by the Government of India for the protection of wildlife and forests of India?
Answer:
The Government of India has set up a number of national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, bird sanctuaries, and biosphere reserves for the protection of wildlife and forests in India.

Question 39.
Name some plants found in regions having less than 500 mm of rainfall in India.
Answer:
Catechu, acacia, khejri and a variety of cactus like aloevera and agave are found in regions having less than 500 mm of rainfall in India.

Name the following:

Question 1.
The region where it rains throughout the year.
Answer:
Equatorial region.

Question 2.
The forests which are found where it rains throughout the year.
Answer:
Evergreen forests.

Question 3.
Kind of vegetation found in places of less rainfall.
Answer:
Grass, short shrubs, thorny vegetation.

Question 4.
Country where the largest number of vegetation species in the world is located.
Answer:
Brazil.

Question 5.
The types of trees found in Brazil.
Answer:
Pau Brasil, rubber, mahogany, rosewood and variety of orchids.

Question 6.
Other name for rain forests.
Answer:
‘The lungs of the world.’

Question 7.
Trees found in deciduous forests.
Answer:
Teak, bamboo, banyan, peepal.

Question 8.
Type of vegetation found in regions having less than 500 mm of rainfall.
Answer:
Thorny and shrub-like.

Question 9.
Plants found in regions having less than 500 mm of rainfall.
Answer:
Catechu, acacia, khejri and varieties of cactus.

Question 10.
Kind of vegetation found in swampy areas.
Answer:
Coastal type.

Question 11.
Another name of coastal type of vegetation in India.
Answer:
Mangroves or sunderbans.

Question 12.
Kind of trees found in forests located on higher altitudes in the Himalayas.
Answer:
Seasonally flowering trees.

Question 13.
Kind of trees which have grown in forests located on medium altitudes in Himalayas. Coniferous trees like Pine, Deodar and Fir.
Answer:
Region where mixed forests are found in Himalayas.

Question 14.
Foothills of Himalayas.
Answer:
Animal found in the swampy areas of Pantanal.

Question 15.
Huge anacondas.
Answer:
Any two varieties of animals found in Brazil. Guinea pigs and crocodiles.

Question 16.
Kind of fishes found in seas of Brazil.
Answer:
Sword fish.

Question 17.
Fish varieties found in the rivers of Brazil.
Answer:
Pink dolphins and Piranhas.

Question 18.
Any two species of birds found in Brazil.
Answer:
Condors and macaws.

Question 19.
Causes for degradation of environment.
Answer:
Illegal smuggling of wild animals, roka, deforestation and pollution

Question 20.
Region where elephants are found in India.
Answer:
Hot and humid forests.

Question 21.
Animal which is found in the swampy and marshy lands of Assam.
Answer:
One horned rhinoceroses.

Question 22.
Animals which are found in arid lands of India.
Answer:
Wild ass and camels.

Question 23.
Animals which are found in the snowcapped mountain of Himalayas.
Answer:
Yaks and snow leopards.

Question 24.
Animals found in the Peninsular region of India.
Answer:
Indian bisons, deer, antelopes and monkeys.

Question 25.
Country where both lion and tigers are found.
Answer:
India.

Question 26.
Animals found in rivers, estuaries and coastal areas of India.
Answer:
Turtles, crocodiles and garials.

Question 27.
Measures taken by the Government of India to protect wildlife.
Answer:
Setting up of National parks, bird sanctuaries, wildlife sanctuaries and biosphere reserves.

Question 28.
National animal of India.
Answer:
Tiger.

Mark the following on the map of India with the given information:

1. Evergreen forests
2. Deciduous forest
3. Thorny shrubs
4. Himalayan Forests
5. Coastal Forests

Answer:

Mark the following on the map of Brazil with the given information:

1. Equatorial forests
2. Tropical grasslands
3. Swampy lands
4. Hot deciduous forest
5. Caatinga
6. Temperate grasslands

Answer:

Equatorial Forests Tropical Grasslands:Savanna Swampy Lands Hot Deciduous Forest Thorny Shrubs/Caatinga Temperate Grasslands:Pampas

Question 1.
Show the habitats of tigers in India with their names on a map.
Answer:

Question 2.
Why is their habitat found in these regions?
Answer:
Tiger’s habitats are found in these regions because here there are various types of forest areas with different types of herbivorous animals.

Answer the Questions Briefly:

Question 1.
Thorny and shrub-like vegetation is found in regions where there is less or no rainfall.
Answer:

• The regions where there is less or no rainfall have a hot and dry climate.
• The soils in these regions are also rocky and dry.
• Water evaporation in leaves is more since the surface area of exposure is more than that of thorns
• Hence, thorny and shrub-like vegetation is found in regions where there is less or no rainfall to conserve water.

Question 2.
The evergreen rainforests in Brazil are rightly called the ‘Lungs of the world’.
Answer:

• The northern Part of Brazil has dense evergreen forests. .
• These forests release a large amount of oxygen in the environment.
• This helps to reduce carbon dioxide levels.
• Therefore, these rainforests are rightly called the Tungs of the world’.

Question 3.
The largest variety of flora is found in Brazil.
Answer:

• The flora of any region depends upon the amount of rainfall and its physiography.
• Brazil has equatorial forests in high rainfall areas, tropical grasslands and deciduous forests in moderate rainfall areas.
• Western part of Brazil has swampy lands, whereas low rainfall regions have thorny shrubs.
• Temperate grasslands are found in temperate regions.
• Thus, the largest variety of flora is found in Brazil.

Question 4.
Suggest measures for the conservation of wildlife and forest in India?
Answer:
Measures for the conservation of wildlife and forest in India are as follows:

• Restricting wildlife trading and hunting.
• Declaring more national parks and sanctuaries.
• Giving more importance to the protection of endangered animals.
• Controlling felling of trees.
• Implementing afforestation and social forestry programmes.

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Brazilian Vegetation:
Answer:
(i) In Brazil, rainfall varies due to physiography. In most parts of the Equatorial region, it rains throughout the year.
(ii) As one moves away from the equator, the number of rainy days as well as amount of rainfall reduces.
(iii) This affects the life cycle of the vegetation too.
(iv) Evergreen forests are found in the areas where it rains throughout the year.
(v) In regions which receive rainfall only during certain seasons, the density of the vegetation reduces.
(vi) Instead of forests, various types of grass, short shrubs,,thorny vegetation, etc. are found.
(vii) Brazil has the largest number of vegetation species in the world.
(viii) This includes evergreen vegetation, semi-evergreen, arid, etc.
(ix) One finds trees like Pau Brasil, rubber, mahogany, rosewood and a variety of orchids.

Question 2.
wildlife of Brazil:
Answer:
(i) A greater diversity in wildlife is found in Brazil compared to any other country in the world.
(ii) In the swampy areas of the Pantanal, huge anacondas are found.
Animals, such as guinea pigs, crocodiles,
alligators, monkeys, pumas, leopards, etc. are found.
(iv) Among the fish varieties, mainly swordfish are found in the seas, while pink dolphins and piranhas are found in the rivers .
(v) Condors which are huge in size and fly high in the sky, various types of parrots, macaws, and flamingoes are the major birds found here.
(vi) Millions of insect varieties are also found here.

Question 3.
The wildlife of India:
Answer:
(i) India is also a mega-diverse country in terms of wildlife. There are many species of wildlife in Irdia.
(ii) Elephants are found in hot and humid forests. One-horned rhinoceroses are found in swampy and marshy lands of Assam.
(iii) Wild ass and camels are found in arid lands. Snow leopards and yaks are found in the snow-capped regions of the Himalayas.
(iv) Indian Bisons, deer, antelopes, and monkeys are found in the Peninsular region.
(v) India is the only country in the world where both tigers and lions are found.
(vi) Rivers, estuaries and coastal areas are homes to many turtles, crocodiles, and gavials (gharials).
(vii) The forests and wetlands are the shelters of variety of birds like peacocks, Indian bustard, kingfishers, pheasants, ducks, parakeets, cranes, and pigeons.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Climate Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Climate

Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 Climate Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write names of the States/Regions in appropriate columns.
Bihar, Tocantins, Pernambuco, Alagoas, Eastern Maharashtra, Western part of Rajasthan, Gujarat, Rio Grande Do Norte, Paraiba, Western Ghats, Eastern Himalayas, Western Andhra Pradesh, Roroima, Amazonas, West Bengal, Rio Grande Do Sul, Santa Catarina, Goa
Answer:

States/Regions	India	Brazil
High rainfall	Western Ghats, Eastern Himalayas, Goa	Tocantins, Rio Grande Do Sul, Roraima
Moderate rainfall	Bihar, Eastern Maharashtra West Bengal	Santa Catarina, Amazonas, Alagoas
Low rainfall	Western part of Rajasthan, Gujarat, Western Andhra Pradesh	Pernambuco, Paraiba, Rio Grande Do Norte, Alagoas

2. State whether right or wrong. Rewrite the wrong sentences

Question a.
The fact that Brazil lies on the equator affects its climate in a big way.
Answer:
Right.

Question b.
India and Brazil have the same seasons at the same time.
Answer:
Wrong – India and Brazil have different seasons at the same time.

Question c.
India faces tropical cyclones frequently.
Answer:
Right.

Question d.
Brazil gets a lot of rainfall because of the southwest monsoon winds.
Answer:
Wrong – Brazil gets rainfall from South-East Trade Winds and North-East Trade Winds.

3. Give geographical reasons:

Question a.
The north-eastern part of Brazilian Highlands receives very less rainfall.
Answer:
(i) Brazil gets rainfall from the South-East Trade Winds and the North-East Trade Winds.
(ii) Parts of the Brazilian Highlands extend upto the northern coast.
(iii) The Escarpments act as an obstruction to the winds blowing from the sea and cause orographic type of rainfall in the coastal region.
(iv) Beyond the Highlands, the effect of these winds gets reduced. As a result, the rainfall is minimal.
(v) Thus the North Eastern part of Brazilian highlands receives less rainfall. This rain shadow region is also called the ‘Drought Quadrilateral’.

Question b.
Snowfall doesn’t always occur in Brazil.
Answer:
(i) Because of the vast latitudinal extent of Brazil, it experiences a wide range of climatic variations. Near the Equator it is hot, while tropical type of climate is found near the Tropic of Capricorn.

(ii) Considering the temperatures in Brazil, the northern part of Brazil is hot while the temperatures in the southern part are comparatively lower.

(iii) It generally snows in those areas lying in the temperate or polar regions or in the mountainous regions of very high altitude.

(iv) Snowfall does occur but is only confined to higher elevations in the southern states of Rio Grande Do Sul, Parana and Santa Catarina.

(v) Most part of the country lies in the tropical zone which experiences a hot and humid climate.

So snowfall doesn’t always occur in Brazil and is considered a rare phenomenon.

Question c.
Convectional type of rainfall is not prominent in India.
Answer:
(i) Convectional rains are a feature of the equatorial regions and the equator passes through the northern part of Brazil.
(ii) Due to the intense heat here the air expands and rises upwards. As the air goes upwards it cools down, condensation occurs and clouds are formed. This leads to convectional rains every day.
(iii) As such conditions do not exist in India, convection rainfall is not prominent here.

Question d.
Tropical cyclones occur rarely in Brazil.
Answer:
(i) In the coastal regions of Brazil near the Equator, differences in temperatures are negligible.
(ii) The winds move in the vertical direction in this equatorial region.
(iii) Similarly, the convergence zone of the trade winds is weak here. As a result, cyclones are not formed.
(iv) As a result tropical cyclones occur rarely in Brazil.

Question e.
There is not much difference in the range of temperature in Manaus.
Answer:
(i) Manaus is located to the north of Brazil and close to the Equator.
(ii) This region receives perpendicular rays of the sun throughout the year.
(iii) It also receives convectional type of rainfall every day.
(iv) So the climate is hot and humid throughout the year.
(v) As, there is not much difference in the maximum and minimum temperatures there is not much difference in the range of temperature in Manaus.

Question f.
India receives precipitation from the North East Monsoon Winds too.
Answer:
(i) In the winter season, India is influenced by the North East Monsoon Winds.
(ii) These winds bring cool breeze to the country.
(iii) While blowing over Bay of Bengal the North East Monsoon Winds pick up moisture and give rain to the eastern coast of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu in India.
So, it is said that India receives precipitation from the North East Monsoon Winds too.

4. Answer the following questions:

Question a.
Describe in brief the changes occurring in the climatic conditions of India while going from south to north.
Answer:
(i) India’s Climate is of monsoon type. But there is diversity in climatic conditions of India due to the latitudinal location and altitude of the place.

(ii) As the Tropic of Cancer passes through middle of India, it divides the country into tropical region and sub tropical region.

(iii) The tropical region receives nearly vertical rays of the Sun and the temperature increases as we move towards the south.

(iv) In the sub tropical region of the north, summers are very hot and winters are very cool and dry.

(v) The Himalayas lie in the northern part of India. They protects us from the cold winds that blow from the north, obstructs the South West Monsoon Winds which results in orographic rainfall in its southern slopes.

(vi) In major parts of India precipitation is in the form of rainfall, but in the Himalayas it is in the form of snowfall.

Question b.
Explain the importance of the Himalayas and the Indian Ocean with respect to the climate of India.
Answer:
(i) The Indian Ocean and the Himalayan ranges exert a great influence on the climate of India and the origin of monsoons.

(ii) Because of high temperatures in summers, a low pressure area develops in the Punjab Plains and the Thar Desert of Rajasthan.

(iii) At the same time a high pressure region develops over the Indian Ocean.

(iv) This attracts winds and they start blowing from the Indian Ocean towards the mainland India.

(v) These are moisture-laden winds which bring rainfall to India.

(vi) These winds move towards the Himalayas and due to the natural obstruction of the Himalayas, orographic rain occurs.

(vii) Later these winds retreat from the Himalayas and move from the north-east towards the Indian Ocean and brings rain to some parts of the Peninsula.

(viii) Also the severe cold winds blowing from the north are obstructed by the Himalayas and it saves India from severe winters.

Question c.
Discuss the factors affecting the climate of Brazil.
Answer:
(i) Brazil experiences wide range of climatic variations due to its vast latitudinal extent, proximity to the Equator, presence of the Atlantic Ocean and the Great Escarpment.

(ii) The northern part of Brazil near the Equator is hot, while temperate type of climate is found near the Tropic of Capricorn.

(iii) Brazil gets rainfall from the South-East Trade Winds and the North-East Trade Winds blowing from the Atlantic Ocean.

(iv) Convectional rainfall occurs in places near the equator. Whereas, the Escarpment act as an obstruction to the winds blowing from the sea and cause orographic type of rainfall in the coastal region.

(v) Beyond the Highlands the effects of these winds gets reduced, as a result the rainfall is minimal. This region is a rain-shadow region and is called ‘The Drought Quadrilateral.’

(vi) The Equator passes through the northern part of Brazil so the temperature here is high. Average temperature of Amazon valley is 25°-28°C. Climate is cooler in the highlands. While the temperatures in the southern part are comparatively lower.

(vii) In the coastal regions near the Equator in Brazil, differences in temperatures are negligible. Because of the proximity to the sea, the coast experiences mild and humid climate.

(viii) The winds move in the vertical direction in this region. Similarly, the convergence zone of the trade winds is weak here. So the tropical cyclones are a rare phenomena here.

Question d.
Compare the climates of brazil and India?
Answer:

Climate of India	Climate of Brazil
(i) India has a monsoon type of climate.	(i) Brazil has a tropical climate to the north and temperate climate to the south.
(ii) The southern part of India lies in the tropical region so the temperature is high in the south and comparatively low in the north, i.e., the temperature decreases from south to north.	(ii) The northern part of Brazil lies in the tropical region so the temperature is high in the north and comparatively low in the south, i.e., the temperature decreases from north to south.
(iii) India receives rain from the South West and the North East Monsoon Winds.	(iii) Brazil receives rain from the South East and North East Trade Winds.
(iv) India receives orographic rainfall.	(iv) Brazil receives convectional and orographic type of rainfall.
(v) The western part of Rajasthan, Gujarat and eastern side of the Western Ghats receive less rain.	(v) The north eastern part of the Brazilian highlands is a rain shadow region.
(vi)     Tropical cyclones are a frequent phenomena.	(vi) Tropical cyclones are a rare phenomena

Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 Climate Intext Questions and Answers

Observe the given map below and answer the following questions

Question 1.
Considering the isotherms of Brazil, what is the average range of temperature in Brazil?
Answer:
Considering the isotherms of Brazil, the average range of temperature of Brazil is 10°C (28°C-18°C).

Question 2.
In which area does it rain more?
Answer:
It rains more in the northern and central part of Brazil. E.g., Amazon Valley.

Question 3.
From which directions are winds blowing towards Brazil?
Answer:
The winds are blowing from North East and South East directions.

Question 4.
What could be the reason behind that?
Answer:
These are permanent trade winds which blow from high pressure belt to the equatorial low pressure belt. Brazil being in the tropical zone, a low pressure area is created and wind start blowing from the ocean to the land.

Question 5.
What could be the obstruction in the way of these winds?
The Escarpment acts as obstruction in the way of the South East Trade Winds coming from the sea.

Question 6.
Which type of rainfall will occur because of these winds?
Answer:
Orographic rainfall will occur because of these winds.

Question 7.
Correlate these winds and rainfall.
Answer:
The escarpments act as an obstruction to the winds blowing from the sea and cause an orographic type of rainfall in the coastal region. Beyond the Highlands, the effect of these winds gets reduced. As a result, the rainfall is minimal.

Question 8.
In which part of Brazil are the average temperatures low?
Answer:
The average temperatures are low in the southern part of Brazil.

Question 9.
Identify the rain-shadow area in Brazil. Describe its climatic characteristics.
Answer:
The north-eastern part of the Brazilian highlands is a rain shadow region. Beyond the highlands, the effect of the South East Trade Winds gets reduced and the rainfall is minimal. Also, the temperature here is quite high. This rain shadow region is referred to as the ’Drought Quadrilateral’.

Question 10.
In which region do you find a higher temperature?
Answer:
The northern part of Brazil has higher temperature.

Question 11.
Considering the latitudinal extent of Brazil, where will you find a temperate climate in Brazil?
Answer:
The southern part of Brazil lying below 23 V4°S latitude (Tropic of Capricorn) experiences temperate climate.

Question 12.
Describe the winds blowing between 0° to 5° N and S zones.
Answer:
The winds blowing between 0° to 5° N and S zones move in the vertical direction leading to convectional type of rain. The North East and South East Trade winds are very weak in this region.

Question 13.
Which method has been used to show distribution in this map?
Answer:
The Isopleth method has been used to show distribution in this map.

Observe the given map and answer the following questions

Question 1.
Which region gets more than 4000mm of rainfall?
Answer:
Western Ghats, Western Coasts of India and the northeastern region comprising of Mawsynram, Cherrapunji and parts of Assam and Arunachal Pradesh gets more than 4000 mm of rainfall.

Question 2.
Identify the regions with maximum and minimum temperatures?
Answer:
Central and North Western parts of Peninsular Plateau and islands have high temperature. Hilly regions of north, northeast and south India have low temperature.

Question 3.
In which direction is the temperature increasing?
Answer:
The temperature is increasing towards the south.

Question 4.
Identify the direction of the winds shown. What are they known as?
Answer:
The winds shown are blowing from the south west to north east direction. These winds are called Southwest Monsoon Winds.

Question 5.
Which winds are responsible for the rainfall in India ?
Answer:
South-West Monsoon Winds are responsible for rainfall in India.

Question 6.
Some part of Rajasthan is under desert? What could be the reason for it?
Answer:
The South West Monsoon Winds blow parallel to the Aravallis. As these moisture laden winds are not obstructed by the Aravallis it rains less here. Hence, Rajasthan is under desert.

Question 7.
Draw the main parallel latitude passing through India which affects its climate.
Answer:
Students are expected to draw the Tropic of Cancer.

Question 8.
In which part of Peninsular India is semi-arid climatic conditions found and why?
Answer:
(i) The part of peninsular India which has semi-arid climatic conditions are central part of Peninsula Plateau comprising parts of Central Maharashtra, Western Andhra Pradesh, Eastern Karnataka and Western Tamil Nadu. These regions lie on the leeward side of the Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats. It rains less here and a rain shadow region is formed.
(ii) Some parts of Gujarat and Rajasthan are also semi-arid as the Aravallis lie parallel and do not obstruct the South-west Monsoon winds.

Give geographical reasons:

Question 1.
Shillong gets less than 1000 mm of rainfall annually, whereas Cherrapunji/Mawsynram which is nearby get’s over 11000 mm, of rainfall annually.
Answer:
(i) Cherrapunji/Mawsynram lies in the higher altitude on the windward side of the Khasi Hills and receives rainfall from the South West Monsoon Winds.
(ii) While Shillong lies in the lower altitude on the leeward side of the Khasi Hills, so it receives less rainfall being in the rain shadow area.

Observe the pictures given below and write brief description about them.

Question 1.

Answer:
Both the figures shows the traffic congestion during heavy rains. Due to lack of proper drainage and heavy downpour the water gets accumulated disturbing the commuting system.

Question 2.


Answer:
Both the figures show the drought affected regions of India and Brazil respectively. Due to scarce amount of rainfall received in these regions the land has became dry and cannot be cultivated.

Question 3.

Answer:
figure shows snow fall during winter season in the northern parts of India.

Question 4.

Answer:
figure shows heavy rainfall in the Brazilian rainforest region.

Question 5.

Answer:
figure shows the trees being cut down to bring land under cultivation. Deforestation is a major issue in Brazil.

Question 6.

Answer:
figure shows a well from which water is used for domestic purpose.

Question 7.

Answer:
figure shows paddy fanning in India. The farmers are planting paddy. The water logged fields are shown.

Study the graphs given below and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
In which month is the highest temperature found in all the four cities?
Answer:
The highest temperature is found in the month of January.

Question 2.
In which month does it rain the most in the given cities?
Answer:
It rains the most in the month of march.

Question 3.
When does Brazil have its rainy season?
Answer:
Brazil has its rainy season from December to march.

Question 4.
Which city has the maximum range of temperature? How much is it?
Answer:
Porto Alegre has the maximum range of temperature. It is 20°C (30° C -10° C).

Question 5.
What type of climate will be found in Rio de Janeiro?
Answer:
Rio de Janeiro has mild & humid climate.

Question 1.
What difference do you find in the rainy seasons of Chennai and other cities of India? Why?

Rainy Season of Chennai	Rainy Seasons of Other Indian Cities
(i) Chennai mainly receives rain from October to December.	Other cities of India receive rainfall from June to September.
(ii) Chennai receives rainfall from North East Monsoon Winds.	The other cities receive rainfall mainly from South-West Monsoon Winds.

Question 2.
What similarities do you see in the temperature curves of Delhi and Kolkata?
Answer:
The following similarities can be seen in the temperature curves of Delhi and Kolkata:

• The temperature rises from January to March.
• From March till June high temperatures are experienced.
• The temperature drops till July and remain stable in August and September.
• Thereafter the temperatures decreases.

Question 3.
Calculate the average range of minimum and maximum temperatures of all the four cities.

Cities	Average range of minimum and maximum temperatures
Delhi	34°C (41°-7°)
Kolkata	28°C (37°-9°)
Mumbai	17°C (34° -17°)
Chennai	18°C (39° – 21°)

Question 4.
In which city is the range minimum? What can you infer about its climate?
Answer:
The range is minimum in Mumbai due to its proximity to the sea.

Question 5.
In which city is the range maximum? What can you infer from this about its climate?
Answer:
The range is maximum in Delhi. It indicates that Delhi has an extreme climate.

Question 6.
Based on the temperature and rainfall of Mumbai, comment upon its climate.
Answer:
Mumbai has an equable climate, with less variation in summer and winter temperature.

Question 7.
Classify the cites as cities with equable and extreme climates.
Answer:
Equable climates – Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata. Extreme climate – Delhi.

Give it a try

Question 1.
Considering the various factors affecting Brazil’s climate, complete the table.
Answer:

Regions	Climatic characteristics
(1) Amazon Valley	The climate is generally hot and humid. It receives around 2000mm of rainfall. The average range of temperature here is 25°C – 28°C.
(2) Highlands	Hot and dry climate, low rainfall.
(3) Pantanal	Warm and humid.
(4) North Coastal region	Hot and humid climate. Rainfall between 1000 to 1200 mm.
(5) South Coastal region	Mild and humid climate.
(6) Southernmost region of Brazil	Hot summers, cool winters and snowfall.

Question 2.
In which part of India are crops grown in a year? How is this related to the rainfall over there?
Answer:
(i) Coastal areas of Tamil Nadu in India grow rice three times a year.
(ii) This crop is taken during the retreating monsoon season.
While blowing over Bay of Bengal, the North East Monsoon winds pick up moisture and give rain to eastern coast of Tamil Nadu.

Use your brain power!

Question 1.
Group the months into seasons for a whole year according to the charts given.

Seasons	India	Brazil
Summer	March to May	December to March
Winter	December to February	June to September

Answer:

Colours of Both!

Question 1.
Considering the location extent and climatic conditions of both the countries, write months according to the seasons.
Answer:

Seasons	India	Brazil
Summer	March to May	December to March
Winter	December to February	June to September

Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 Climate Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
The climate found near the Equatorial region is
(a) hot
(b) dry
(c) humid
(d) cold
Answer:
(a) hot

Question 2.
The climate found near the Tropic of Capricorn is
(a) tropical
(b) hot
(c) temperate
(d) tundra
Answer:
(c) temperate

Question 3.
Brazil gets rainfall from
(a) North-West and South-West trade winds
(b) Westerly winds
(c) South-West and North-East
(d) North-East and South-East trade winds
Answer:
(d) North-East and South-East trade winds

Question 4.
The act as an obstruction to the winds blowing from the sea in Brazil.
(a) Himalayas
(b) Escarpments
(c) Andes
(d) Western Ghats
Answer:
(b) Escarpments

Question 5.
The coastal region of Brazil receives a type of rainfall.
(a) orographic
(b) cyclonic
(c) convectional
(d) frontal
Answer:
(a) orographic

Question 6.
Since the convergence of trade winds are weak near the equator, are not formed.
(a) clouds
(b) ocean currents
(c) cyclones
(d) tides
Answer:
(c) cyclones

Question 7.
The average temperature in the Amazon valley is
(a) 15°-20°C
(b) 13°-15°C
(c) 30°-32°C
(d) 25°-28°C
Answer:
(d) 25°-28°C

Question 8.
The Amazon valley receives around mm of rainfall
(a) 2000
(b) 1800
(c) 1500
(d) 1000-1200
Answer:
(a) 2000

Question 9.
India’s climate is of type.
(a) humid
(b) monsoon
(c) equatorial
(d) cold
Answer:
(b) monsoon

Question 10.
The diversity in the climatic conditions of India is due to the location and altitude of the place.
(a) longitudinal
(b) latitudinal
(c) equatorial
(d) tropical
Answer:
(b) latitudinal

Question 11.
The Ocean and the Himalayan ranges exert a great influence on the climate of India.
(a) Atlantic
(b) Arctic
(c) Pacific
(d) Indian
Answer:
(d) Indian

Question 12.
Orographic type of rainfall occurs in India because of the natural obstruction of
(a) Himalayas
(b) Escarpments
(c) Highlands
(d) Satpuda
Answer:
(a) Himalayas

Question 13.
As the passes through the middle of India, it is considered to be a tropical region.
(a) Tropic of Capricorn
(b) Equator
(c) Tropic of Cancer
(d) 60°S latitude
Answer:
(c) Tropic of Cancer

Question 14.
Most part of Brazil lies in the zone.
(а) polar
(b) tropical
(c) sub-tropical
(d) temperate
Answer:
(b) tropical

Match the columns:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Wettest places in the world	(a) Tamil Nadu
(2) Driest place in India	(b) Cherrapunji and Mawsynram
(3) Rainshadow region in Brazil	(c) Jaisalmer, Rajasthan
(4) Climate of India	(d)    Drought Quadrilateral (e)    Monsoon type (f)     Dry type

Answer:
1 – b
2 – c
3 – d
4 – e

Answer in one sentence each.

Question 1.
Which natural disasters does India face frequently?
Answer:
India frequently faces natural disasters like erratic rainfall, droughts, cyclones, floods, etc.

Question 2.
Why does Brazil experience wide climatic variations?
Answer:
Brazil has vast latitudinal extent because of which it experiences wide climatic variations.

Question 3.
Which winds bring rainfall to Brazil?
Answer:
Brazil receives rainfall from the South East and North-East Trade Winds.

Question 4.
What acts as an obstruction to the winds blowing from sea in Brazil?
Answer:
The Escarpments act as an obstruction to the winds blowing from the sea in Brazil.

Question 5.
Which region is called the Drought Quadrilateral’?
Answer:
The northern part of Brazil beyond the Highlands is called ‘Drought Quadrilateral’.

Question 6.
Where is the difference in temperature negligible in Brazil?
Answer:
In Brazil the difference in temperature is negligible in the coastal regions near the equator.

Question 7.
In which zone does most of Brazil and India lie?
Answer: Most part of Brazil and India lies in the Tropical zone.

Question 8.
Which important latitude passes through the northern part of Brazil?
Answer:
The equator passes through the northern part of Brazil.

Question 9.
What is the average temperature in Amazon valley?
Answer:
The average temperature in Amazon valley is 25°-28°C.

Question 10.
Which part of Brazil has cooler climate?
Answer:
The climate is cooler in the Highlands.

Question 11.
Why do the Brazilian coasts experience mild and humid climate?
Answer:
The Brazilian coasts experience mild and humid- climate because of its proximity to sea.

Question 12.
Which type of climate is found in India?
Answer:
Monsoon type of climate is found in India.

Question 13.
Which important latitude passes through the middle of India?
Answer:
The Tropic of Cancer passes through the middle of India.

Question 14.
What diversifies the climatic conditions of India?
Answer:
The diversity in the climatic conditions of India are due to the latitudinal location and altitude of India.

Question 15.
What exerts a great influence on the climate of India and the origins of the monsoon?
Answer:
The Indian Ocean and the Himalayan ranges exert a great influence on the climate of India and the origin of monsoons.

Question 16.
In India, what obstructs the cold winds blowing from the North?
Answer:
In India, the Himalayas obstruct the cold winds blowing from the north.

Question 17.
What brings more rain in the coastal regions of India?
Answer:
The obstruction caused by the Eastern and Western Ghats brings more rain in the coastal regions of India.

Question 18.
Find out more about the different ways of classification of the seasons. For example, what is summer?
Answer:
The hot weather season is called summer. The season where the rain begins is called the monsoon. The cold weather season is called winter.

Name the following:

Question 1.
The two places in India which are considered as the wettest places in the world.
Answer:
Cherrapunji and Mawsynram.

Question 2.
Years in which Brazil has experienced snowfall.
Answer:
1879,1957and 1985.

Question 3.
The driest part of India.
Answer:
Jaisalmer, Rajasthan.

Question 4.
The state in India which receives maximum rainfall during the retreating monsoon season.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu.

Question 5.
Temperature in Kargil in winter.
Answer:
-48°C.

Question 6.
Temperature in Ganganagar, Rajasthan in the month of June.
Answer:
50°C.

Question 7.
The hills responsible for heavy rainfall in Cherrapunji and Mawsynram.
Answer:
Garo, Khasi and Jaintia Hills.

Question 8.
The winds which provide rainfall to the Tamil Nadu coast.
Answer:
North East Monsoon winds.
Question 9.
The state to receive rain foremost in India.
Answer:
Kerala.

Question 10.
The four seasons of India as per Indian meteorological department.
Answer:
The hot weather season (Summer), the season

Are the sentences right ot wrong? Rewrite the wrong ones.

Question 1.
Brazil experiences wide climatic variation due to its vast longitudinal extent.
Answer:
Wrong – Brazil experiences wide climatic variation due to its vast latitudinal extent.

Question 2.
The winds move in the vertical direction in northern Brazil.
Answer:
Right.

Question 3.
The rainfall reduces on the windward side of the Great Escarpment.
Answer:
Wrong – The rainfall increases on the windward side of the Great Escarpment.

Mark the following on the map with the given information and make an index.

Question 1.
Outline Map of Brazil.

1. Winds bringing rainfall to Brazil or North East and South East Trade winds.
2. Drought Quadrilateral or Rainshadow region in Brazil.

Answer:

Question 2.
Outline Map of India.

1. Southwest Monsoon winds or winds bringing rainfall to most parts of India.
2. Northeast monsoon winds.
3. Kargil or place recording lowest temperature in India.
4. Cherrapunji and Mawsynram.
5. Coromandel coast or the coast receiving rainfall from North East monsoon winds.
6. Jaisalmer or place recording lowest rainfall in India.
7. Rain shadow region of Deccan plateau.
8. Region of low rainfall.
9. Heavy rainfall region along the western coast.

Answer:

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 8 Tourism and History Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 8 Tourism and History

Question 1.
(A) Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the statement.
(1) Thomas Cook established a travel agency selling ……………………….. .
(a) handicrafts
(b) toys
(c) food items
(d) tourist tickets
Answer:
(d) tourist tickets

(2) Bhilar is known as the ‘Village of ……………………….. .
(a) books
(b) plants
(c) mangoes
(d) forts
Answer:
(a) Books

(B) Identify and write the wrong pair in the following set.
(1) Matheran – Hill Station
(2) Tadoba – Rock-cut Caves
(3) Kolhapur – Pilgrim Centre
(4) Ajanta – World Heritage
Answer:
(2) Wrong Pair: Tadoba – Rock-cut Caves

Question 2.
Explain the following statements with reasons.
(1) The number of people travelling back and forth from India has increased considerably.
Answer:

• It has become easier to travel because of the easy availability of a number of options like railway, marine and air services.
• Marine has linked the coastal regions. Aviation has brought the entire world closer.
• The economic liberalisation policy of the Indian government has made the travel more easy.
• People travel for studies, relaxation, sightseeing and professional assignments (meetings, etc.), also for shooting films. Therefore, there has been a considerable increase in the number of people travelling back and forth from India.

(2) It is important to take a few primary precautions in order to preserve the historical heritage sites.
Answer:
India has rich natural and cultural heritage. In order to preserve the historical sites following precautionary measures should be taken.

• Avoid vandalising or defacing the heritage monuments and sites.
• To refrain from activities like writing on the wall or carving on the trees.
• Ancient monuments should not be painted in garish colours.
• Lack of good amenities in the precints of the heritage sites causes filthiness. Proper amenities should be provided.
• Heritage monuments like forts and other monuments are testimonies of our glorious past and they serve as guide for future generations.

Therefore, they should be preserved..

Question 3.
Write short notes :
(1) Tradition of Travelling
Answer:

• The tradition of traveffing from one corner to another is not new.
• It existed in India since ancient times.
• In stone age, man was constantly on the move in search of food but that was just wandering not travelling.
• India has got a rich tradition of travelling.
• People go for local fairs, temple fairs, festivals and pilgrimage which comes under cultural tourism.
• People travelled long distance for education and trade.
• Many students visited Nalanda, Takshshila universities in the past.
• As travelling is a natural instinct in man, the tradition of travelling for various reasons is prevalent since ancient times.

(2) Marco Polo
Answer:

• Marco Polo was born in a business family in the Italian city of Venice in 1254 CE.
• He was the first European traveller to reach China taking the silk route.
• His travelogue introduced Asia, especially China to Europe.
• He wrote about the rich flora and fauna, social life, information on culture and trade system in Asia.
• His writings initiated trade between Europe and Asia.

(3) Agro-tourism
Answer:
Visit to agricultural centres and agricultural universities comes under agro-tourism.

1. In recent times lot of research is conducted in the agricultural field. Many new agricultural universities and research centres are formed in India.
2. Projects are undertaken to inform farmers about suitable soil for their crops, organic manures, earthworm compost, etc. Sikkim state is the first organic state of India.
3. Though it receives less rainfall, Israel has made a lot of development in agricultural sector. To obtain information on novel techniques in farming and on projects started, students and city people travel to places.
4. As urban population has very little exposure to rural life and agriculture, agro-tourism is developing rapidly.

Question 4.
Answer the following questions in detail.
(1) What are the crucial issues in the development of tourism?
Answer:
In modern times, tourism is not limited to being a job-oriented profession but it also contributes to the nation’s development.

• Safety of the tourists and secure transport facilities should be given utmost preference.
• Availability of good accommodation and amenities of reasonably good standard should be made available.
• Good washroom facilities oq, the travel routes and at tourists sites should be provided.
• Pamphlets, guides, maps should be made available to the tourists, preferably in their own language.
• It would be helpful if taxi drivers are trained to converse in more than one languages.
• They can also be trained as tourist guides.
• Attention should be given towards the needs of specially challenged people.

(2) In what way tourism becomes a major source of their livelihood?
Answer:
In the following ways development takes place at local level because of tourism:

•  Local markets are developed in the vicinity of a tourist site.
• There is considerable increase in purchase and sales of goods liked by tourists.
• Production and sale of ethnic handicraft goods increase eventually leading to the development of these industries.
• Economic well-being of the skilled craftsmen.
• Increase in demand of locally processed food, hotel services, accommodation and in shops leads to development of these services.
• Local transport, travel agents, guides are in demand. Hence more and more employment opportunities are generated.

(3) What would you do to develop the surroundings of your village /town to help the growth of tourism?
Answer:
It is important to have an understanding of our surroundings. For that some ground work is essential.

1. Historical monuments and temples should be conserved and preserved. Boards having information on them should be put up around the city. We need to pay attention towards cleanliness.
2. Beaches should be clean as clean beaches always attract tourists.
3. Tourists are interested to see projects like earthworm composts, zero waste and working of solar power projects. If such projects are installed they become centre of major tourist attraction.
4. Similarly, tourists are interested to see local art, culture, cottage and handicraft industry. They are enthusiastic to buy locally made handicrafts as souvenirs. I feel if there is economical, geographical, cultural and educational development in our surroundings it will definitely boost tourism.

Question 5.
Complete the following Concept chart:

Answer:

Question 6.
Give elaborate answers to the following.
(1) What are the professional fields associated with tourism?
Answer:
The following fields are related to tourism:

• Hotels, lodging and boarding services.
• Shops selling food items and catering services, etc.
• A reviväl or boost to Handicraft and Cottage industiy resulting in economic well-being of the skilled craftsmen.
• Demand for industries affiliated to hotel industry like Dairy industry.
• Agro industry which supplies vegetables, fruits, fish and meat increases.
• Transport services which are required by tourists such as bus, autorickshaw and taxi, increase in numbers.
• Travel agents, photographers, guides, etc. and other professions related to tourism get a boost.

(2) Describe any three types of tourism.
Answer:
Tourism has been classified into many types, three important types of them are:
(1) Historical Tourism:

• Tourism and history are inseparable.
• The number of people visiting historical places are increasing day by day.
• Tours are arranged to see forts, battlefields which narrate stories of valour of our ancestors and monuments made by them.
• Tourists visit memorials of freedom fighters, forts built by Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj, palaces built by kings.
• Important places related to the Indian war of independence in 1857, and ashrams of Mahatma Gandhi and Vinoba Bhave.

Thus, this type of historical tourism is popular all around the world.

(2) Geographic Tourism:
Sea beaches, mountain ranges, valleys, snow-capped peaks, pristine jungles, sanctuaries, lakes formed because of meteor impact, waterfalls, form wealth of a nation. People enjoy nature and feel a natural attraction towards it. People around the world visit 8 such places out of curiosity or for leisure.

(3) International Tourism:

• International tourism is on the rise in modern times because of availability of transport facility.
• International tourism is on the rise because people travel for various reasons like international literary conferences, world summits, meetings, business deals, site seeing and visit to religious places.
• International seminars and conferences are held.
• Film festivals are arranged. Such events promote international tourism.

Project
Explain the need to preserve the heritage sites. What measures are required to achieve it? Discuss.

Question 7.
Complete the sentences by choosing the correct option:
(a) The Chinese monk …………………….. travelled in India in 630 C.E.
(a) Hiuen Tsang
(b) Yuan Shwcmg
(c) Fa-Hien
(d) Ho Chi Minh
Answer:
(b) Yuan Shwang

(b) The number of people travelling back and forth from India has increased considerably because of …………………….. .
(a) India’s first war of Independence
(b) India’s independence
(c) Economic liberalisation
(d) Good railway services
Answer:
(c) Economic liberalisation

(c) …………………….. used to arrange hiking tours in Maharashtra to explore the sights closely linked to Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj.
(a) N.S. Incim dar
(b) Ranjit Desai
(c) Vishnubhcrt Godse
(d) Gopal Neelkanth Dandekar
Answer:
(d) Gopal Neelkanth Dandekar.

(d) In order to provide good’ amenities on the pilgrim routes like Chardham Yatras and Bara Jyotirlings …………………….. has spent from her personal funds.
(a) Queen Lakshmibcri
(b) Ahilyabai Holkar
(c) Nanasaheb Peshwa
(d) Vshunbhat Godse
Answer:
(b) Ahilyabai Holkar

(e) A visit to …………………….. at Nighoj in Maharashtra is geographic tourism.
(a) palace
(b) fort
(c) ranjankhalage
(d) temple
Answer:
(c) ranjankhalage

(f) …………………….. has conducted experiments of advanced technology in agriculture.
(a) Egypt
(b) Jordan
(c) Italy
(d) Israel
Answer:
(d) Israel

(g) Travelling to attend events like Maharashtra Kesari is known as ……………………. .
(a) Geographic Tourism
(b) Health Tourism
(c) Agro Tourism
(d) Sports Tourism
Answer:
(d) Sports Tourism

(h) …………………….. successfully circumnavigated Europe.
(a) Marco Polo
(b) Thomas Cook
(c) Benjamin of Tudela
(d) Gerardus Mercator
Answer:
(b) Thomas Cook.

Question 8.
Identify the wrong pair in the following, and write it:
(1)

(1) Matheran	Hill Station
(2) Tadoba	Rock-cut Caves
(3) Kolhapur	Pilgrim Centre
(4) Ajanta	World Heritage

Answer:
Wrong Pair: Tadoba – Rock-cut Caves

(2)

(1) First Cartographer who made world map	Thomas Cook
(2) First European discoverer	Benjamin of Tudela
(3) Italian traveller who introduced China to Europe	Marco Polo
(4) Traveller who travelled extensively in Islamic world	Ibn Batuta

Answer:
Wrong Pair: First Cartographer who made world map – Thomas Cook

(3)

Place	Popular for
(1)  Lonar (2)  Jayakwadi (3)  Gharapuri (4)  Jantar Mantar	Lake Hill Station Rock-cut Caves Observatory

Answer:
Wrong Pair Jayakwadi – Hill Station

(4)

(1) Gharapuri (Elephanta)	Cave
(2) Pandharpur	Pilgrim centre
(3) Sagareshwar	Dam
(4) Panchgani	Hill station

Answer:
Wrong Pair: Sagareshwar – Dam

(5)

(1) Chikhaldara	Hill station
(2) Tuljapur	Pilgrim centre
(3) Sagareshwar	Sanctuary
(4) Tadoba	Rock-cut Caves

Answer:
Wrong Pair: Tadoba – Rock-cut Caves

Question 9.
Do as directed:
(1)

Answer:

(2)

Answer:

(3)

Answer:

Question 10.
Explain the concept:
(1) Tourism:
Answer:

1. Visiting places in distant regions with a specific purpose is known as Tourism.
2. Tourism can also be defined as going for local fairs, festivals, pilgrimage, entertainment, leisure, historical or places of natural beauty. Man has a natural instinct to travel.
3. Travelling is an old tradition which has undergone changes with time. In modern times, tourism has changed in its nature and form.
4. Tourism expands from the local to the international level. As tourism develops it opens the doors of development for a country.

(2) Religious Tourism:
Answer:

1. When people travel individually or in groups on a pilgrimage, it is known as Religious Tourism. Religious seminars, pilgrimages, religious festivals and travel on occasions to bathe in holy rivers come under religious tourism.
2. Gautam Buddha and Buddhist monks travelled to preach Buddhism and give discourses on Dhama. In the same way, Shankarachaya had travelled to spread Hinduism. St. Francis Xavier along with his followers travelled all over India to preach Christianity.
3. People in Maharashtra walk on foot to reach Pandharpur, Shirdi and many holy places to pay their obeisance.
4. Guru Nanak, Saint Namdev, Samarth Ramdas, as well as Yuan Shwang who came from China in 630 CE to study Buddhism in India, travelled extensively in India.

(3) Heritage Walk:
Answer:

1. Heritage walk . involves physical walking in the area-and observing the historical sites. People go for heritage walks to see historical palaces, forts and old temples.
2. The first hand experience we get is inspirational in forming an emotional connect and a long lasting impression. .
3. Many enthusiastic organisations held such heritage walks in city of Ahmadabad, Mumbai and Pune to enable the people to get glimpses of history.

(4) Cultural tourism:
Answer:

• India has rich tradition of folk arts. Festivals are arranged to promote such art forms.
• Travelling to see such festivals comes under Cultural tourism.
• Visiting historical places to get a glimpse of local culture is also cultural tourism.
• It also involves visiting reputed educational institutions and understand their traditions as well as travelling to see festivals and celebrations in different parts of the country.
• Travelling to participate in various music- dance festivals as audience is also part of cultural tourism.

Question 11.
Write short notes:
(a) Benjamin of Tudela:
Answer:

• Benjamin of Tudela is known to be the first traveller in the world. He was born in Spain.
• He travelled through Asia, Europe and Africa in between 1159-1173 C.E.
• He visited France, Germany, Italy, Greece, Syria, Arabia, Egypt, Iraq and Persia. He even visited India and China.
• He noted down his experiences and observations about people and their living style in his diaries.
• He made accurate observations about the social life in the medieval period.

Hence, his accounts are authentic and are studied by scholars studying the medieval period.

(b) Ibn Batuta:
Answer:

1. Ibn Batuta was born on 25th February, 1304 in present Morocco. He was a great 14th century traveller who travelled for 30 years. His travel accounts enabled people an insight into the Islamic world.
2. Having made’ the resolution of not taking the same route again, he travelled to South and East Africa, South and East Europe, Middle and South east Asia in the Indian subcontinent.
3. His writings are helpful for those who study medieval history and social life.
4. In his book Batuta said,’ “Travelling – it leaves you speechless, then turns you into storyteller.”

(c) Gerardus Mercator:
Answer:

• Gerardus Mercator of 16th century was the first Dutch cartographer.
• He was the first one to make a world map and globe of the earth. He made large and small maps which could be hung on a wall.
• Mercator used the word Atlas’ for the first time. He made scientific and astronomical instruments.
• His maps gave momentum to navigation around the world.

Question 12.
Explain the following statements with reasons:

(a) Maza Pravas is an important source of history.
Answer:

1. Vishnubhat Godse in his travelogue wrote about his journey to Ayodhya and back to Maharashtra.
2. He published a book, called ‘Maza Pravas’ in which he gave an eye witness account of the events which unfolded during the Indian War of Independence in 1857.
3. He gave full detailed descriptions about various incident during that period, especially on the life of the Queen of Jhansi Lakshmibai.
4. His writings give us an idea about the nature of the Marathi language in the 18th century.
   Therefore, it is considered as an important source of history.

(4) Tourism can provide a source of livelihood.
Answer:

1. Tourists visit religious, historical and places of natural beauty. Job opportunities develop to meet the requirements of the tourists.
2. Guides are required to provide information about the place. Photographers take photos of the tourists wearing local costumes. Suppliers of such dresses are required.
3. Horse carts, cabs and other means of transport are required Which gives scope for transport business. Tourists buy local handicrafts. Hence the local handicraft and cottage industry gets promoted.
4. Hotel industry gets boosted. In short, the markets near the tourist centre develop. So, tourism can be a source of livelihood for local people.

Question 13.
Answer the following questions in 20 – 25 words:

(a) Write about the work of Thomas Cook.
Answer:

• Thomas Cook started group tours on commercial basis in the latter half of the 19th century.
• He took 600 people from Leicester to Loughborough by railway.
• Later, he successfully organised a round trip of Europe.
• He opened a travel agency and sold tourists tickets. He organised affordable tours and easy travel.

Thus, his ventures opened the doors for the development of modem tourism.

(b) What are the benefits of religious tourism?
Answer:
The following are the benefits of religious tourism:

• People staying in different parts of the world come together.
• They develop ties as they share the sgme* faith and also feeling of unity develops.
• Religious places get importance and many social welfare projects are undertaken.
• As these places develop, the local business develops leading to improvement in the standard of living of the local people.

(c) Write information on the tourists places in Maharashtra.
Answer:

Caves	Ajanta and Ellora caves, Verul, Bhaje, Kanheri caves
Temples	Pandharpur, Shirdi, Jejuri, Shegaon, Tuljapur, Kolhapur, Nashik, Paithan, Dehu, Alandi, Haji Malang, Mount Mary’s Church.
Hill stations	Mahabaleshwar, Panchgani, Chikhaldara, Matheran, Lonavala, Khandala.
Dams	Koynanagar, Jayakwadi, Bhatghar, Chandoli, Panshet, Bhandara, Khadakwasla.
Sanctuaries	Dajipur Tadoba, Karnala.
Historical places	Raigad, Simhgad, Sindhudurg, Vijaydurg, Palace of Kolhapur, Janjeera, Memorials.

(d) What is Sports Tourism?
Answer:

1. Sports tourism developed in the 20th century. It involves travelling either to participate in a sporting event or to watch the event.
2. Various sports events are organised at local and state level for different inter school competitions. National level Sports Competitions are also held. International cricket, hockey and football tournaments are held at regular intervals.
3. Wimbledon, French Open, Australian Open and US Open lawn tennis tournaments are held. Every four years, Olympics and Asian Games are held in the country which is the host. Events like the Himalayan car rally at the national level and Maharashtra Kesari at the state level are held.
4. Travelling to participate in these events as players, coaches, umpires, referees, organisers or to attend them as spectators come under sports tourism.

Question 14.
Read the following passage and answer the following questions:
(a) Complete the graphical presentation:

Answer:

(b) What types of books are there in the Village of Books?
Answer:
In the Village of Books, we find books of old and new authors and saints, ranging from biographies, autobiographies, fiction, poetry literature by women, literature on sports and literature for kids. as Village of

(c) Why is Bhilar village known as Village of Books?
Answer:

• Each household in this village maintains a library of its own.
• Tourists enjoy reading these books.
• Maharashtra Government has kept these books in every household so that it becomes easy for the tourists to take and read.
• It is done with a view to accelerate the ‘Reading Culture’ movement to enjoy Marcrthi literature.

Hence, the village is known as ‘Village of Books’.

Question 15.
Give elaborate answers to the following:

(a) Explain the benefits of increasing tourism.
Answer:
Tourism not only benefits an individual but also a country.

• Tourism is an industry which has potential to generate maximum employment.
• New markets are created leading to the development of tourist sites.
• Urbanisation takes place giving rise to new colonies.
• The country earns foreign exchange.
• Handicraft and cottage industry gets a boost.
• Visiting different sites, meeting people speaking different languages and knowing different cultures increases tolerance and peace.
• We get information when we visit places of historical importance and natural beauty. It widens our perspective.
• When we visit historical places we come to know about the glorious past which gives us inspiration to build a bright future.
• It emphasises the need that we have to take care of our heritage.
• Tourism gives us a feeling of personal and collective fulfillment.

(b) Explain the purpose of tourism.
Answer:
Tourism has several purposes and inspiration behind it. They are as follows:

• To see historical monuments forts and cities discovered during excavations. To visit centres promoting ancient art and craft, museums.
• To visit different pilgrim centres, sea beaches, mountain ranges, valleys, snow-capped peaks, pristine jungles.
• To visit special plateaus like Kas plateau, museums, lakes formed because of meteoric impact and valleys of flowers.
• Places of natural beauty gives us enjoyment and experiences which connects us to nature.
• To visit different industrial sites.
• To see medicinal plants and avail of ayurvedic therapies.
• To visit places to see agricultural projects, visit to see agricultural research centres and making of compost pits.
• To travel to watch sports events which comes under sports tourism. To be. part of dance-music, festival or watch as audience, which is cultural tourism.
• People also visit places to attend film festivals, witness the making of movies, science seminars, international conferences, book exhibitions and literary events.

In short, the purpose of tourism differs from person to person. It is explored as per individual interest.

(c) What measures should be taken to conserve historical monuments?
Answer:
Historical monuments and ancient historical sources constitute our cultural heritage. The following measures should be taken to conserve them:

• Seepage of water in forts and in rock-cut caves should be stopped. Creepers which grow on forts should be uprooted.
• Damages due to humidity and heat should be stopped with proper measures.
• To take precautions to avoid deterioration of monuments near the sea because of salt.
• Hygiene should be maintained at tourist sites.
• One should be fined for writing names, carving or defacing the monument in ary manner.
• Government should take measures to avoid the monuments getting vandalised.
• Awareness should be created among the people about the need to preserve monuments.
• Along with government, people and private sectors should contribute to raise funds for the preservation of projects.

(d) Distinguish between Local tourism and International tourism.
Answer:

Local/Interstate Tourism	International Tourism
1. Travelling within our country is local tourism.	1. Crossing border and going overseas means international tourism.
2. There is no need to seek the government’s permission or paperwork.	2. Visa is required to travel to a foreign country. Visa is not granted unless we complete all paperwork. It is essential to keep documeñts with us.
3. Local tourism is hassle-free as the land is known to us.	3. Having no acquaintances with the people or land can create challenges.
4. No need for currency exchange	4. Currency exchange is required.
5. We can make changes in the itinerary to suit our convenience.	5. Fixed itinerary has to be followed. We cannot make any changes to it.
6. Language, mostly, is not an obstacle. We can communicate in our mother tongue or in the national language.	6. Language can be an obstacle. One should know the language of that country if one wants to interact with locals or at least be well versed in English.
7. We can extend our stay if we desire to.	7. Our stay in a foreign country cannot be extended. It has a fixed time duration as long as permission is granted.

(e) What facilities should be made available to the tourists?
Answer:
The following facilities should be provided to tourists:
Facilities for tourists:

• Safe and secured transport facilities, translators and guides.
• Ensure safety of the tourists.
• Good and clean hotels and eateries. Clean drinking water at various places of visit.
• Good washrooms on the travel routes and at tourists sites.
• Care should be taken that tourists do not endure physical or mental distress.
• Tourists should not be cheated when they make purchases.

(f) How would you behave with the tourists if you are the local person at a tourist site?
Answer:
Tourists visit any tourist site having faith in the local people:

• I will behave well with the tourists. I will extend my cooperation.
• I will inform them about the tourist places , known to me, which things they can buy and where.
• I will be careful that they face no problems.

(g) What kind of new occupations were introduced in the surroundings of your village/ town because of growing tourism?
Answer:
The following job opportunities were created in the surroundings of my town because of growing tourism:

• The number of tourist guides, porters increased.
• More services of autorickshaw, taxi, horse-to ride, horse carts, etc. were provided.
• New hotels and shops selling food items came up in vicinity.
• Juice and cold drink centres were started.
• Milk, vegetables and tea stalls were set up.
• New shops selling handicraft and local things opened.
• What kind of new occupations were introduced in the surroundings of your village/town because of growing tourism?
• What difference could be observed in the lifestyle of people in the surroundings of your village-town because of growing tourism?

(h) What difference can be observed in the lifestyle of people in the surroundings of your village-town because of growing tourism?
Answer:
Tourism improves standard of living of the people:

• Small towns transform into urban cities.
• Standard of living improves to great extent.
• Modern housing colonies come up in place of small houses.
• Different types of business as prosper.
• Artists get promoted which helps in sale of their artefacts.
• Number of two-wheelers and four-wheelers increase.
• I have observed these changes in the surroundings of my town.

Memory Map

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Question 1.
Choose the correct option from the bracket and explain the statement giving reasons :
(Oxidation, displacement, electrolysis, reduction, zinc, copper, double diplacement, decomposition)

a. To prevent rusting, a laver of ……… metal is applied on iron sheets.
Answer:
To prevent rusting, a layer of zinc metal is applied on iron sheets.
The rusting of iron is an oxidation process. Due to corrosion of an iron a deposit of reddish substance (Fe₂O₃.H₂O) is formed on it. This substance is called rust. To prevent corrosion, a layer of zinc metal (galvanisation) is applied on iron sheets.

b. The conversion or ferrous sulphate to ferric sulphate is …….. reaction.
Answer:
The conversion of ferrous sulphate to ferric sulphate is an oxidation reaction.
When ferric ion is formed. from ferrous ion, the positive charge is increased by one unit. while this happens the rerrous ion loses one electron. A process in which a metal or its ion loses one or more electrons is called an oxidation.
2FeSO₄ → Fe₂(SO₄)₃
Fe₂ + SO₄^2- → 2Fe³⁺ + SO₄^2-

c. When electric current is passed through acidulated water …….. of water takes place.
Answer:
when electric current is passed through acidulated water decomposition of water takes place. In this reaction. hydrogen and oxygen gas are formed.

This decomposition takes place with the help of an electric current, it is also called electrolytic decomposition.

d. Addition of an aqueous solution of ZnSO₄ to an aqueous solution of BaCl₂ is an example of ……… reaction.
Answer:
Addition of an aqueous solution of ZnSO₄ to an aqueous solution or BaCl₂ is an example or double displacement reaction.

Barium chloride reacts with zinc sulphate to form a white precipitate of barium sulphate. white precipitate is formed by exchange of ions Ba⁺⁺ and SO₄^— between the reactants.

Question 2.
a. What is the reaction called when oxidation and reduction take place simultaneously? Explain with one example.
Answer:
The reaction which involves simultaneous oxidation and reduction is called an oxidation-reduction or redox reaction.
In a redox reaction, one reactant gets oxidised while the other gets reduced during a reaction.
Redox reaction = Reduction + Oxidation

In redox reaction, the reductant is oxidized by the oxidant and the oxidant is reduced by the
reductant.
Example:CuO_(s) + H_2(g) → Cu_(s) + H₂O
In this reaction, oxygen is removed from copper oxide therefore it is a reduction of CuO, while hydrogen accepts oxygen to form water that means oxidation of hydrogen takes place. Thus oxidation and reduction reactions occur simultaneously.

Other examples of redox reactions:

b. How can the rate of the chemical reaction, namely, decomposition of hydrogen peroxide be increased?
Answer:
At room temperature, the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen takes place slowly. However, the same reaction occurs at a faster rate on adding manganese dioxide (MnO₂),
powder in it.

c. Explain the term reactant product giving examples.
Answer:

1. The substance which undergoes bond breaking while taking part in a chemical reaction is called reactant.
2. The substance formed as a result of a chemical reaction by formation of new bonds is called product.
3. Example: In a chemical reaction, the formation of carbon dioxide gas takes place by combustion of coal in air. In this reaction, coal (carbon) and oxygen (from air) are the reactants while carbon dioxide is the product.

d. Explain the types of reactions with reference to oxygen and hydrogen. Illustrate with examples.
Answer:
With reference to oxygen and hydrogen, there are two types of reaction

1. Oxidation reaction
2. Reduction reaction.

1. Oxidation reaction:
Examples:
(1) When carbon burns in air, it forms carbon dioxide. In this reaction carbon accepts oxygen, therefore, this is an oxidation reaction.
C_(s) + O_2(g) → CO_2(g)

(2) When sodium reacts with ethyl alcohol, sodium ethoxide and hydrogen gas is formed. In this reaction, hydrogen is removed from ethyl alcohol, therefore this is an oxidation reaction.

(3) Acidified potassium dichromate (K₂Cr₂O₇ / H₂SO₄) oxidises ethly alcohol to acetic acid.

2. Reduction reaction:
Examples:
(1) When hydrogen gas is passed over black copper oxide a reddish coloured layer of copper is
formed.
In this reaction an oxygen atom removed from CuO to form copper, hence, this is reduction.

(2) when hydrogen gas is passed over red hot coke, methane is obtained.
Here, hydrogen is added to coke (carbon). Hence, this is reduction.

e. Explain the similarity and difference in two events, namely adding NaOH to water and adding CaO to water.
Answer:
Similarity : Both NaOH and CaO, when dissolved separately in water, solid NaOH dissolves releasing heat, resulting in rise in temperature. This reaction is exothermic reaction. When solid CaO dissolves in water, Ca(OH)₂ is formed, large amount of heat is evolved. This reaction is also exothermic reaction. Both reactions are combination reactions and single product is obtained.
NaOH_(s) + H₂O → NaOH_(aq) + Heat
CaO_(s) + H₂O → Ca(OH)_2(aq) + Heat
Difference:

1. Aqueous solution of NaOH is considered as a strong alkali.
2. Aqueous solution of Ca(OH)₂ is considered as a weak alkali.

Question 3.
Explain the following terms with examples.
a. Endothermic reaction
Answer:
Endothermic reaction: The reaction in which heat is absorbed is called an endothermic
reaction.
when KNO_3(s) dissolves in water, there is absorption of heat during the reaction and the temperature of the solution falls.
KNO_2(s) + H₂O_(l) + Heat → KNO_3(aq)

b. Combination reaction
Answer:
When two or more reactants combine in a reaction to form a single product, it is called a combination reaction.
Examples:
1. The ammonia gas reacts with hydrogen chloride gas to form the salt in gaseous state, immediately it condenses at room temperature and gets transformed into the solid state.

2. Magnesium burns in air to form white powder of magnesium oxide as a single product.

3. Iron reacts with sulphur to form iron sulphide.

c. Balanced equation
Answer:
In a chemical reaction, the number of atoms of the elements in the reactants is same as the number or atoms of those elements in the product, such an equation is called a balanced equation.
Example: AgNO₃ + NaCl → AgCl + NaNO₃
In the above reaction, the number of atoms of the elements in the reactants is same as the number of atoms of elements in the products.

d. Displacement reaction
Answer:
The reaction in which the place of the ion of a less reactive element in a compound is taken by another more reactive element by the formation of its own ions is called displacement reaction.

When zinc granules are added to the blue coloured copper sulphate solution, the zinc ions formed from zinc atoms take the place of Cu²⁺ ions in CuSO₄, and copper atoms, formed from Cu²⁺ ions comes out i.e. the more reactive zinc displaces the less reactive Cu from copper sulphate.

4. Give scientific reason:
a. When the gas formed on heating lime stone is passed through freshly prepared lime water, the lime water turns milky.
Answer:
when lime stone is heated, calcium oxide and carbon dioxide are formed. This carbon dioxide gas is passed through freshly prepared lime water, insoluble calcium carbonate and water are formed. In this reaction, lime water turns milky.

b. It takes time for pieces of Shahabud tile to disappear in HCl, but its powder disappears rapidly.
Answer:
The rate of a reaction depends upon the size of the particles of the reactants taking part in the reaction. The smaller the size of the reactants particles, the more is their total surface area and the faster is the rate of reaction.

In the reaction of dil. HCl with pieces of Shahabad tile, CO₂ effervescence is formed amid the tile disappears slowly. On the other hand. CO₂ effervescence forms at faster rate with Shahabad tile powder and it disappears rapidly.

c. While preparing dilute sulphuric acid from concentrated sulphuric acid in the laboratory, the concentrated sulphuric acid is added slowly to water with constant stirring.
Answer:
(1) The preparation of dilute sulphuric acid falls in the category of extreme exothermic process.

(2) During the preparation of dilute sulphuric acid. large amount of water is taken in a glass container which is surrounded by ice. Cool it for twenty minutes, Now small quantity of conc. H₂SO₄ is added slowly with stirring. Therefore, only a small amount of heat is liberated at a time. In this way dilute sulphuric acid is prepared.

(3) On the other hand, in the process of dilution or conc. sulphuric acid with water, very large amount of heat is liberated. As a result, water gets evaported instantaneously, if it is poured in to conc. H₂SO₄ which may cause an accident.

d. It is recommended to use air tight container for storing oil for long time.
Answer:

1. If edible oil is allowed to stand for a long time, it undergoes air oxidation, it becomes rancid and its smell and taste changes.
2. Rancidity in the rood stuff cooked in oil or ghee is prevented by using antioxidants. The process of oxidation reaction of food stuff can also be slowed down by storing it in air tight container.

Question 5.
Observe the following picture a write down the chemical reaction with explanation.

Answer:
The rusting of iron is an oxidation process. The rust on iron does not form by a simple reaction between oxygen and iron surface. The rust is formed by an electrochemical reaction. Fe oxidises to Fe₂O₃. H₂O on one part of iron surface while oxygen gets reduced to H₂O on another part or surface, Different regions on the surface of iron become anode and cathode.
(1) Fe is oxidised to Fe²⁺ in the anode region.
Fe_(s) → Fe²⁺ _(aq) + 2e^–
(2) O₂ is reduced to form water in the cathode region.
O_2(g) + 4H⁺ _(aq) + 4e— → 2H₂O_(l)

When Fe²⁺ ions migrate from the anode region they react with water and futher get oxidised to form Fe³⁺ ions.
A reddish coloured hydrated oxide is formed from Fe³⁺ ions. It is called rust. It collects on the
surface.
2Fe³⁺ _(aq) + 4H₂O_(l) → Fe₂O₃. H₂O_(s) + 6H⁺ _(aq)…
Because of various components in the atmosphere, oxidation of metals takes place, consequently resulting in their damage. This is called ‘corrosion’. Iron rusts and a reddish coloured layer is formed on it. This is corrosion of iron.

Question 6.
Identify from the following reactions the reactants that undergo oxidation and reduction.
a. Fe + S → FeS
Answer:
Fe + S → FeS
In this reaction, Iron (Fe) undergoes oxidation
and sulphur. (S) undergoes reduction.

b. 2Ag₂O → 4Ag + O₂↑
Answer:
2Ag₂O → 4Ag + O₂↑
In this reaction, reduction of Ag₂O takes place.

c. 2Mg + O₂ → 2MgO
Answer:
2Mg + O₂ → 2MgO
In this reaction, oxidation of Mg takes place.

d. NiO + H₂ → Ni + H₂O
Answer:
NiO + H₂ → Ni + H₂O
In this reaction, reduction of NiO takes place and oxidation of H₂ takes place.

Question 7.
Balance the following equation stepwise.
a. H₂S₂O_7(l) + H₂O_(l) → H₂SO_4(l)
Answer:
Step 1: Rewrite the given equation as it is
H₂S₂O7_(l) + H₂O_(l) → H₂SO_4(l)
Step 2: write the number or atoms of each element in the unbalanced equation on both sides of equations.

Element	Number of atoms in reactant (left side)	Number of atoms in products (right side)
H	4	2
S	2	1
O	8	4

Step 3: To equalise the number of hydrogen atoms, sulphur atoms and oxygen atoms we use 2 as the coemficient or factor in the product.

Element	Number of atoms in reactant (left side)	Number of atoms in products (right side)
H	4	2 × 2
S	2	1 × 2
O	8	4 × 2
Total	14	14

Now the equation becomes H₂S₂O₇ + H₂O → 2H₂SO₄
Now, count the atoms of each element on both sides of the equation. The number of atoms on both sides are equal. Hence, the balanced equation is
H₂S₂O₇ + H₂O → 2H₂SO₄
Now indicate the physical states of the reactants and products.
H₂S₂O_7(l) + H₂O_(l) → 2H₂SO_4(l)

b. SO_2(g) + H₂S_(aq) → S_(s) + H₂O_(l)
Answer:
Step 1:
Rewrite the given equation as it is
SO_2(g) + H₂S_(aq) → S_(s) + H₂O_(l)

Step 2:
Write the number of atoms of each element in the unbalanced equation on both sides of equations.

Element	Number of atoms in reactants (left side)	Number of atoms in products (right side)
S	2	1
O	2	1
H	2	2

The number of hydrogen atoms on both sides of the equation is same, therefore, equalise the number of sulphur atoms and oxygen atoms.

Step 3: To balance the number of sulphur atoms:

Number of atoms of sulphur	In reactants		In products
	S2O	H2S	(S)
Initially	1	1	1
To balance	1	1	1 × 2

To equalise the number of sulphur atoms, we use 2 as the factor in the product, now the equation becomes
SO₂ + H₂S → 2S + H₂O

Step 4:
To equalise the number of oxygen atoms in the unbalanced equation.

Number of atoms of oxygen	In reactants (SO2)	In products H2O
Initially	2	1
To balance	2	1 × 2

To equalise the number of sulphur atoms, we use 2 as the factor in the product i.e. H₂O, now the unbalanced equation becomes
SO₂ + H₂S → 2S + 2H₂O

Step 5:
To equalise the number of hydrogen atoms in unbalanced equation:

Number of atoms of hydrogen	In reactants (H2S)	In products (H2O)
Initially	2	4
To balance	2 × 2	4

To equalise the number of hydrogen atoms we use 2 as the factor in the reactant i.e, H₂S, now the unbalanced equation become
SO₂ + 2H₂S → 2S + 2H₂O
Now, count the atoms of each element on both sides of the equation, there are less number of sulphur atoms in the product. Now equalise the sulphur atoms, the balanced equation becomes,
SO₂ + 2H₂S → 3S + 2H₂O
Now indicate the physical states of reactants and products.
SO_2(g) + 2H₂S_(aq) → 3S_(s) + 2H₂O_(l)

c. Ag_(s) + HCl_(l) → AgCl ↓ + H₂ ↑
Answer:
Step 1:
Rewrite the given equation as it is
Ag_(s) + HCl_(l) → AgCl ↓ + H₂ ↑

Step 2:
write the number of atoms or each element in the unbalanced equation on both sides of equations.

Element	Number of atoms in reactants (left side)	Number of atoms in products (right side)
Ag	1	1
H	1	2
Cl	1	1

The number of silver and chlorine atoms on both sides of the equation are same, therefore, equalise the number of hydrogen atoms.

Step 3:
To balance the number of hydrogen atoms.

Number of atoms of hydrogen	In reactants HCl	In products H2
Initially	1	2
To balance	1 × 2	2

To equalise the number of hydrogen atoms, we use 2 as the factor in the product HCl, now the unbalanced equation become
Ag_(s) + 2HCl → AgCl + H₂

Step 4:
To balance the number of chlorine atoms:

Number of atoms of chlorine	In reactants (2HCl)	In products (AgCl)
Initially	2	1
To balance	2	2 ×1

To equalise the number of chlorine atoms, we use 2 as the factor in the product AgCl. now the unbalanced equation becomes
Ag + 2HCl → 2AgCl + H₂
Now count the atoms of each element on both sides of the equation, there are less number of silver atoms in the reactant. Now equalise the silver atoms, the balanced equation becomes
2Ag + 2HCl → 2AgCl + H₂
Now indicate the physical states of the reactunts and products
2Ag_(s) + 2HCl_(l) → 2AgCl ↓ + H₂ ↑

d. H₂SO_4(aq) + NaOH_(aq) → Na₂SO_4(aq) + H₂O_(l)
Answer:
Step 1:
Rewrite the given equation as it is
H₂SO_4(aq) + NaOH_(aq) → Na₂SO_4(aq) + H₂O_(l)

Step 2:
write the number of atoms of each element in the unbalanced equation on both sides of the equation.

Element	Number of atoms in reactants	Number of atoms in products
Na	1	2
S	1	1
O	5	5
H	3	2

The number of oxygen atoms involved in different compounds on both sides (reactants and products) are equal. Therefore, balance the number of atoms of the second element, sodium.

Step 3:
To balance the number of sodium atoms:

Number of atoms of sodium	In reactants	In products
To begin with	1 (in NaOH)	2 (in Na2SO4)
To balance	1 × 2	2

To equalise the number of sodium atoms, we use 2 as the factor of NaOH in the reactants. Now, the partly balanced equation becomes as follows
H₂SO₄ + 2NaOH → Na₂SO₄ + H₂O

Step 4:
Now, balance the number of hydrogen atoms:

Number of atoms of hydrogen	In reactants	In products
To begin with	(in H2SO4) 2 (in NaOH)	2 (in H2O)
To balance	4	2 × 2

To equalise the number of hydrogen atoms, we use 2 as the factor or H₂O in the products. The equation then becomes
H₂SO₄ + 2NaOH → Na₂SO₄ + H₂O
Now, count the atoms of each element on both sides of the equation. The number of atoms on both sides are equal. Hence, the balanced equation is
H₂SO₄ + 2NaOH → Na₂SO₄ + 2H₂O
Now indicate the physical states of the reactants and the products.
H₂SO_4(aq) + 2NaOH_(aq) → Na₂SO_4(aq) + 2H₂O_(l)

Question 8.
Identify the endothermic and exothermic reaction.
a. HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H₂O + heat
Answer:
Exothermic reaction.

b. \(2 \mathrm{KClO}_{3}(\mathrm{s}) \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} 2 \mathrm{KCl}(\mathrm{s})+3 \mathrm{O}_{2} \uparrow\)
Answer:
Exothermic reaction.

c. CaO + H₂O → Ca(OH)₂ + heat
Answer:
Exothermic reaction.

d. \(\mathrm{CaCO}_{3}(\mathrm{s}) \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{CaO}(\mathrm{s})+\mathrm{CO}_{2} \uparrow\)
Answer:
Exothermic reaction.

Question 9.
Match the column in the following table:

Reactants	products	Type of chemical reaction
BaCl2(aq) + ZnSO4(aq)	H2CO3(aq)	Displacement
2 AgCl(s)	FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s)	Combination
CuSO4(aq) + Fe(s)	BaSO4↓ + ZnCl2(aq)	Decomposition
H2O(l) + CO2(g)	2Ag(s) + Cl2(g)	Double displacement

Answer:

Reactants	products	Type of chemical reaction
BaCl2(aq) + ZnSO4(aq)	BaSO4↓ + ZnCl2(aq)	Double displacement
2 AgCl(s)	2Ag(s) + Cl2(g)	Decomposition
CuSO4(aq) + Fe(s)	FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s)	Displacement
H2O(l) + CO2(g)	H2CO3(aq)	Combination

Project:
Do it your self:
1. Prepare aqueous solutions or various solid salts available in the laboratory. Observe what happens when aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide is added to these. Prepare a chart of double displacement reactions based on these observation.

2. Observe and note the physical and chemical changes experienced in various incidents in your day to day 1ife.

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No.16)

Question 1.
what are the types of molecules of elements and compounds?
Answer:
Elements are divided into three classes i.e. metals, nonmetals and metalloids. When two or more elements combine chemically in a fixed proportion by weight, a compound is formed. The properties of a compound are altogether different from those of the constitutional elements.

Question 2.
what is meant by valency of element?
Answer:
The number of electrons that an atom of an element gives away or takes up while forming an ionic bond, is called the valency or that element.

Question 3.
What is the requirement for writing molecular formulae of different compounds?
How are the molecular formulae of the compounds written?
Answer:
while writing the molecular formulae of different compounds, the symbol of the radicals and their valence should be known.
The number of the ions is written as subscript on the right of the symbol or the ion. By cross multiplication of valenceies chemical formula is obtained.

Find out (Text Book Page No. 44)
Question1.
How are the blackened silver utensils and patinated (greenish) brass utensils cleaned?
Answer:
The blackened silver utensils and patinated (greenish) brass utensils are cleaned using baking soda, vinegar and lemon mix.

Use your brain power! (Text Book Page No. 35)

Question 1.
write down the physical states of reactants and products in the reaction
SO₂ + 2H₂S → 3S + 2H₂O
Answer:
Reactants : SO_2(g), 2H₂S_(g)
Products : 3S_(s), 2H₂O_(l).

Question 2.
write down the physical states of reactants and products in the reaction
2Ag + 2HCl → 2AgCl + H₂
Answer:
Reactants: 2Ag_(s), 2HCl_(l)
Products: 2AgCl ↓, H₂ ↑

Question 3.
Identify the reactants and products of the following equation.

Answer:
Reactants: vegetable oil, H₂(g)
Product: Vanaspathi ghee

Use your brain power! (Text Book Page No. 42)

Question 1.
Which is the oxidant used for purification of drinking water?
Answer:
The chlorine based oxidants are used in the purification of drinking water.

Question 2.
Why is potassium permanganate used during cleaning water tanks?
Answer:
Potassium permanganate is an oxidising agent. It oxidises dissolved iron, manganese and hydrogen sulphide into solid particles that are filtered out of the water tank. It is used to control iron bacteria growth in tank.

Can you tell? (Text Book Page No. 43)

Question 1.
what is the type of this reaction, in which Vanaspathi ghee is formed from vegetable oil?
Answer:

In the preparation of vanaspathi ghee from vegetable oil hydrogen gas is used. This process is known as hydrogenation. This is reduction reaction.

Find out (Text Book page No. 33)

What are the other uses of silver nitrate in every day life?
Answer:
Silver nitrate is used in the voters-ink. It is used as reactant in the laboratory. Silver nitrate is used to prevent infection in wounds and skin burns.

Use your brain power! (Text Book Page No. 35)

Question 1.
N_2(g) + H_2(g) ⇌ NH_3(g)
Answer:
Step 1:
Rewrite the given equation as it is
N_2(g) + H_2(g) ⇌ NH_3(g)

Step 2:
Write the number of atoms of each element in the unbalanced equation on both sides of equations

Element	Number of atoms in reactants	Number of atoms in products
N	2	1
H	2	3

Step 3:
In the given equation. NH₃ is a compound and it contains hydrogen element. On the left hand side there are two H atoms and on the right side 3H atoms. Equalise H atoms on both sides.

Hydrogen atoms	In reactants	In products
Initially	2	3
To balance	3 × 2	2 × 3

To equalise the number of hydrogen atoms, we use 3 as the factor in the reactant and 2 as the factor in the products. Now the equation becomes
N₂ + 3H₂ → 2NH₃
Now, count the atoms of each element on both sides of the equation. The number of atoms on both sides are equal. Hence, the balanced equation is
N₂ + 3H₂ → 2NH₃
Now indicate the physical states of the reactants and products
N_2(g) + 3H_2(g) ⇌ 2NH_3(g)

Question 2.
Calcium chloride + Sulphuric acid → Calcium sulphate + Hydrogen chloride.
Answer:
Step 1:
Write the chemical equation from the given word equation.
CaCl₂ + H₂SO₄ → CaSO₄ + HCl

Step 2:
Write the number of atoms of each element in the unbalanced on both sides of equation.

Element	Number of atoms in reactants	Number of atoms in products
Ca	1	1
Cl	2	1
H	2	1
S	1	1
O	4	4

Step 3:
In the given equation H₂SO₄ is a compound and it contains hygrogen element. On the left hand side there are two hydrogen atoms and on the right side one hydrogen atom. Equalise H atoms on both sides.

Hydrogen atoms	In reactants (H2SO4)	In products (HCl)
Initially	2	1
To balance	2	2  × 1

To equalise the number of hydrogen atoms we use 2 as the factor in the product so that the number of H atoms on both sides are equal. Therefore, the equation becomes
CaCl₂ + H₂SO₄ → CaSO₄ + 2 HCl
Now, count the atoms of each element on both sides of the equation. The number of atoms on both sides are equal hence, the balanced equation is
CaCl₂ + H₂SO₄ → CaSO₄ + 2 HCl
Now, indicate the physical state of the reactants and products.
CaCl_2(s) + H₂SO_4(l) → CaSO_4(s) + HCl_(l)

Can you tell? (Text Book Page No. 39)

Take into account the time required for following processes. Classify them into two groups and give titles to the groups.
(1) Cooking gas starts burning on ignition.
(2) Iron article undergoes rusting.
(3) Erosion of rocks takes place to form soil.
(4) Alcohol is formed on mixing yeast in glucose solution under proper condition.
(5) Effervescence is formed on adding baking soda into a test tube containing dilute acid.
(6) A white precipitate is formed on adding dilute sulphuric acid to barium chloride solution.
Answer:
The above processes are classified into two groups (a) slow speed reactions (b) fast speed reactions.
Slow speed reactions: (2), (3) and (4).
Fast speed reactions: (1),(5) and (6).

Use your brain power! (Text Book Page No. 43)

Question 1.
Some more examples of redox reaction are as follows. Identify the reductants and oxidants from them.
(1) 2H₂S + SO₂ → 3S↓ + 2H₂O
(2) MnO₂ + 4HCl → MnCl₂ + 2H₂O + Cl₂↑
Answer:
Oxidants: SO₂, MnO₂
Reductants: H₂S, HCl

Question 2.
If oxidation means losing electrons, what is meant by reduction.
Answer:
Reduction means gaining one or more electrons.

Question 3.
Write the reaction of formation of Fe²⁺ by reduction Fe³⁺ by making use of the symbol (e^–).
Answer:
Fe³⁺ + e^– → Fe²⁺ (reduction)

Think about it (Text Book Page No. 43)

Question 1.
The luster of the surface of the aluminium utensils in the house is lost after a few days. Why does this happen?
Answer:
The aluminium utensils when kept in the house for a few days, oxidation of aluminium takes place, a thin laver aluminium oxide (Al₂O₃) is deposited on the surface. Hence, aluminium utensils lose their lustre in a few days.

Question 3.
How many products are formed in each of the above reactions?
Answer:
A single product is formed in each of the above reaction.

Use your brain power! (Text Book Page No. 39)

Question 1.
What is the difference in the process of dissolution and a chemical reaction.
Answer:
In the process of dissolution, new substance is not necessarily formed. Whereas in a chemical reaction a new substance is definitely formed.

Question 2.
Does a new substance form when a solute dissolves in a solvent?
Answer:
It is not necessary that a new substance is always formed.

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Organic waste is decomposed by micro-organism and as a result manure and……..are formed.
Answer:
Organic waste is decomposed by micro-organism and as a result manure and bio gas are formed.

Question 2.
……….is formed on mixing yeast in glucose solution under proper condition.
Answer:
Alcohol is formed on mixing yeast in glucose solution under proper condition.

Question 3.
The chemical reaction during which H_2(g) is lost is termed as………
Answer:
The chemical reaction during which H_2(g) s lost is termed as oxidation.

Question 4.
Corrosion can be prevented by using………
Answer:
Corrosion can be prevented by using antirust solution.

Question 5.
The chemical reactions in which heat is liberated are called………..reactions.
Answer:
The chemical reactions in which heat is liberated are called exothermic reactions.

Question 6.
The chemical formula of rust is………
Answer:
The chemical formula of rust is Fe₂O₃.H₂O.

Question 7.
A reaction in which heat is absorbed is called………reaction.
Answer:
A reaction in which heat is absorbed is called endothermic reaction.

Question 8.
The process of rusting or iron is………process.
Answer:
The process of rusting of iron is oxidation process.

Question 9.
when oil and fats are oxidised or even allowed to stand in air for a long time, they become ……….
Answer:
when oil and fats are oxidised or even allowed to stand in air for a long time, they become rancid.

Question 10.
……… are used to prevent oxidation of food.
Answer:
Antioxidants are used to prevent oxidation of food.

Question 11.
Carbon dioxide is passed through water. The reaction is a………reaction.
Answer:
Carbon dioxide is passed through water. The reaction is a combination reaction.

Question 12.
Calcium carbonate is heated. The reaction is a………..reaction.
Answer:
Calcium carbonate is heated. The reaction is a decomposition reaction.

Question 13.
Zinc strip is dipped in a CuSO₄ solution. The reaction is a……….reaction.
Answer:
Zinc strip is dipped in a CuSO₄ solution. The reaction is a displacement reaction.

Question 14.
Silver nitrate solution is added to NaCl solution. The reaction is a……….reaction.
Answer:
Silver nitrate solution is added to NaCl solution. The reaction is a double displacement reaction.

Question 15.
The slow process of decay or destruction of a metal due to effect of air, moisture and acids on it is known as……….
Answer:
The slow process of decay or destruction of a metal due to effect of air, moisture and acids on it is known as corrosion.

Rewrite the following statements by selecting the correct options:

Question 1.
The reaction of iron nail with copper sulphate solution is………reaction. (March 2019)
(a) double displacement
(b) displacement
(c) combination
(d) decomposition
Answer:
(b) displacement

Question 2.
Reddish brown deposit formed on iron nails kept in a solution of copper sulphate is
(a) Cu₂O
(b) Cu
(c) CuO
(d) CuS
Answer:
(b) Cu

Question 3.
The reaction CuSO_4(aq) + Zn_(s) → ZnSO_4(aq) + Cu_(s) is a……..reaction.
(a) displacement
(b) double displacement
(c) decomposition
(d) combination
Answer:
(a) displacement

Question 4.
………is a combination reaction.
(a) Cu + H₂SO₄ → CuSO₄ + H₂
(b) H₂ + Cl₂ → 2HCl
(c) \(2 \mathrm{HgO} \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} 2 \mathrm{Hg}+\mathrm{O}_{2}\)
(d) \(\mathrm{CaCO}_{3} \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{CaO}+\mathrm{CO}_{2}\)
Answer:
(b) H₂ + Cl₂ → 2HCl

Question 5.
………..a decomposition reaction.
(a) \(\mathrm{CaCO}_{3} \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{CaO}+\mathrm{CO}_{2}\)
(b) H₂O + CO₂ → H₂CO₃
(c) CaS + 2HCl → CaCl₂ + H₂S
(d) 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O
Answer:
(a) \(\mathrm{CaCO}_{3} \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{CaO}+\mathrm{CO}_{2}\)

Question 6.
In a chemical equation the……….are written on the left hand side.
(a) products
(b) reactants
(c) catalysts
(d) elements
Answer:
(b) reactants

Question 7.
The Δ sign written above the arrow indicates………..of the reaction.
(a) reactant
(b) product
(c) heat
(d) direction of the reaction
Answer:
(c) heat

Question 8.
The reaction KNO_3(S) + H₂O_(l) + Heat → KNO_3(aq) is a/an……….reaction.
(a) exothermic
(b) endothermic
(c) oxidation
(d) reduction
Answer:
(b) endothermic

Question 9.
The reaction NaOH_(S) + H₂O_(l) → NaOH_(aq) is a/an……..reaction.
(a) exothermic
(b) endothermic
(c) oxidation
(d) reduction
Answer:
(a) exothermic

Question 10.
A solution of Al₂(SO₄)₃ in water is……….
(a) blue
(b) pink
(c) green
(d) colourless
Answer:
(d) colourless

Question 11.
Carbon dioxide………..
(a) turns lime water milky
(b) is odourless
(c) is colourless
(d) All the three (a), (b) and (c) are correct
Answer:
(d) All the three (a), (b) and (c) are correct

Question 12.
……….is the correct set up to pass CO₂ through lime water.

Answer:
Correct set up D.

Question 13.
when……..is passed through fresh lime water, it turns milky.
(a) H₂
(b) CO
(c) CO₂
(d) SO₂
Answer:
(c) CO₂

Question 14.
Magnesium reacts with con. HCl to form………..salt.
(a) copper chloride
(b) ferrous chloride
(c) calcium chloride
(d) magnesium chloride
Answer:
(d) magnesium chloride

Question 15.
Zinc reacts with hydrochloric acid. The reaction is a reaction.
(a) combination
(b) decomposition
(c) displacement
(d) double decomposition
Answer:
(c) displacement

Question 16.
In a double displacement reaction,………… (Practice Activity Sheet – 1)
(a) ions remain at rest
(b) ions get liberated
(c) ions are exchanged
(d) ions are not created
Answer:
(c) ions are exchanged

State whether the following statements are True or False:

Question 1.
Rusting of iron is a fast reaction.
Answer:
False. (Rusting of iron is a slow reaction.)

Question 2.
Milk is set into curd is a chemical change.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
The reaction between salt and water is an example of exothermic reaction.
Answer:
False. (The reaction between salt and water is an example of endothermic reaction.)

Question 4.
The speed of a chemical reaction depends on the catalyst used in the chemical reaction.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
The simple form of representation of a chemical reaction in words is known as word reaction.
Answer:
True.

Question 6.
Nascent oxygen is always denoted by showing the symbol of oxygen.
Answer:
False. (Nascent oxygen is always denoted by showing symbol of oxygen [0] in square brackets.)

Question 7.
Antioxidants are used to prevent oxidation or food containing fats and oils.
Answer:
True.

Question 8.
When oils and fats are allowed to stand for a long time, they become rancid.
Answer:
True.

Question 9.
The chemical formula of rust is Fe₃O₄ .xH₂O.
Answer:
False. (The chemical formula or rust is Fe₂O₃ .xH₂O.)

Question 10.
Glucose combines with oxygen in our body and provides energy. The reaction is an endothermic reaction.
Answer:
False. (Glucose combines with oxygen in our body and provides energy. The reaction is an exothermic reaction.)

Question 11.
Chemical reactions in which reactants gain oxygen are reduction reactions.
Answer:
False. (Chemical reactions in which reactants gain oxygen are oxidation reactions.)

Question 12.
CuSO_4(aq) + Znl_(s) → ZnlSO_4(aq) + Cu_(s) is an example of decomposition reaction.
Answer:
False. (It is an example of displacement reaction.)

Question 13.
The chemical reactions in which heat is liberated are called endothermic reactions.
Answer:
False. (The chemical reactions in which heat is liberated are called exothermic reactions.)

Question 14.
The product or insoluble solid in chemical reaction is indicated by an arrow pointing upwards.
Answer:
False. (The product or insoluble solid in chemical reaction is indicated by an arrow ↑ pointing downwards.)

Question 15.
The rate of a reaction increases on increasing the temperature.
Answer:
True.

Question 16.
The digestion of food is a chemical decomposition process.
Answer:
True.

Question 17.
The reaction between sodium hydroxide and hydrochloric acid is a slow reaction.
Answer:
False (The reaction between sodium hydroxide and hydrochloric acid is a fast reaction.)

Question 18.
When calcium carbonate is heated, it decomposes into calcium oxide and oxygen gas.
Answer:
False (when calcium carbonate is heated. it decomposes into calcium oxide and carbon dioxide gas.

Question 19.
The rate of a chemical reaction changes in presence of catalyst.
Answer:
True.

Question 20.
Chlorines is an oxidant.
Answer:
True.

Taking into consideration the relationship in the first pair, complete the second pair. (OR) Complete the following:

Question 1.
2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O Combination reaction :: 2HgO → 2Hg + O₂ :……….
Answer:
Decomposition reaction

Question 2.
NH₃ + HCl → NH₄Cl : Combination reaction :: Fe + CuSO₄ → FeSO₄ + Cu :……..
Answer:
Displacement reaction

Question 3.
2C₂H₅OH + 2Na → 2C₂H₅ONa + H₂ : Oxidation :: CuO + H₂ → Cu + H₂O :……….
Answer:
Reduction

Question 4.
CuCl₂ + 2KI → CuI₂ + 2KCl : Double displacement :: Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂ :……….
Answer:
Displacement reaction

Question 5.

Answer:
Combination reaction

Question 6.
CuI₂ : Brown :: AgCl :……….
Answer:
White.

Match the column in the following table:

Question 1.

Reactants	products	Type of chemical reaction
Fe + S	NaCl + H2O	Oxidation
CuSO4 + Zn	2CuO	Neutralization
2Cu + O2	ZnSO4 + Cu	Displacement
HCl + NaOH	FeS	Combination

Answer:

Reactants	products	Type of chemical reaction
Fe + S	FeS	Combination
CuSO4 + Zn	ZnSO4 + Cu	Displacement
2Cu + O2	2CuO	Oxidation
HCl + NaOH	NaCl + H2O	Neutralization

Rewrite the second column so as to match the item from first column or Match the following:

Question 1.

Column I	Column II
1. Reduction	(a) Type of a chemical reaction
2. Oxidation	(b) Combination with hydrogen
3. Double displacement	(c) Losing hydrogen
4. Displacement	(d) Exchange of ions

Answer:
(1) Reduction – Combination with hydrogen
(2) Oxidation – Losing hydrogen
(3) Double displacement – Exchange of ions
(4) Displacement – Type of chemical reaction.

Question 2.

Column I	Column II
1. Oils and fats are allowed to stand in air for a long time	(a) Slow  reaction
2. NaOH dissolves in water	(b) Rancid
3. Zinc is added to CuSO4 solution	(c) Exothermic reaction
4. Rusting of water	(d) Colourless Solution

Answer:
(1) Oils and fats are allowed to stand in air for a long time – Rancid
(2) NaOH dissolves in water – Exothermic reaction
(3) Zinc is added to CuSO₂ solution – Colourless solution
(4) Rusting of iron – Slow reaction.

Question 3.

Answer:
(1) Combination reaction – 2Cu +O₄ → 2CuO
(2) Double displacement reaction – AgNO₃ + NaCl → AgCl ↓ + NaNO₃
(3) Decomposition reaction – \(\mathrm{C}_{12} \mathrm{H}_{22} \mathrm{O}_{11(\mathrm{s})} \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} 12 \mathrm{C}_{(\mathrm{s})}+11 \mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}_{(\mathrm{g})}\)
(4) Displacement reaction – Zn+ 2HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂ ↑

Classify each of the following reactions as combination, decomposition, displacement or double displacement reactions:

Answer:
Combination reaction

Answer:
Decomposition reaction

Answer:
Displacement reaction

Answer:
double displacement reaction

Answer:
Combination reaction

Answer:
double displacement reaction

Name the following:

Question 1.
The product formed in the thermal decomposition of sugar.
Answer:
Carbon is formed in the thermal decomposition of sugar.

Question 2.
The gas evolved when sorghum metal reacts with ethanol.
Answer:
Hydrogen (H₂) gas is evolved when sodium metal reacts with ethanol.

Question 3.
The precipitate formed when barium sulphide reacts with zinc sulphate.
Answer:
When barium sulphide reacts with zinc sulphide, a precipitate of barium sulphate is formed.
\(\mathrm{BaS}+\mathrm{ZnSO}_{4} \longrightarrow \underset{\text { precipitate }}{\mathrm{BaSO}_{4}}+\mathrm{ZnS}\)

Question 4.
The reducing agent used for the reduction of copper oxide.
Answer:
Hydrogen is used for the reduction of copper oxide.

Question 5.
The catalyst used to accelerate the rate of decomposition of hydrogen peroxide.
Answer:
Manganese dioxide (MnO₂) is used as a catalyst to accelerate the rate of decomposition of hydrogen peroxide.

Question 6.
which oxidising agent is used to oxidise ferrous sulphate.
Answer:
Potassium permanganate (KMnO₄) is used as an oxidising agent to oxidise ferrous sulphate.

Question 7.
The product formed in the oxidation of ethyl alcohol.
Answer:
Acetic acid is formed in the oxidation of ethyl alcohol.

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question 1.
what is meant by a chemical equation?
Answer:
The simple representation or a chemical reaction in a condensed form with the help of chemical formulae is called a chemical equation.

Question 2.
what is meant by a word equation?
Answer:
The simple form or representation or a chemical reaction in words is known as word equation.

Question 3.
what happens in a combination reaction?
Answer:
A single compound (product) is formed from two or more substances during a combination reaction.

Question 4.
what happens in a displacement reaction?
Answer:
In a displacement reaction. a more reactive element displaces another element, having less reactivity, from its compound.

Question 5.
what happens in a decomposition reaction?
Answer:
A single substance is broken down and two or more substances are formed during a decomposition reaction.

Question 6.
what happens in a double displacement reaction?
Answer:
A precipitate is formed by exchange of ions between the reactants during a double displacement reaction.

Question 7.
IdentIry the type of following reaction:
\(\mathrm{C}_{12} \mathrm{H}_{22} \mathrm{O}_{11} \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} 12 \mathrm{C}+11 \mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}\) (Practice Activity Sheet – 2)
Answer:
The above reaction is a decomposition reaction.

Question 8.
what happens in an endothermic reaction?
Answer:
In an endothermic reaction, the reactants absorb heat to form products.

Question 9.
State the use of antioxidants in food containing fats and oils.
Answer:
Antioxidants are used to prevent oxidation of food containing fats and oils.

Question 10.
What are edible oils?
Answer:
Edible oils are compounds of alcohols and organic acids (carboxylic acids). The compounds formed are known as esters of carboxylic acids.

Question 11.
Is rancidity a phenomenon of oxidation or reduction?
Answer:
Rancidity is a phenomenon of oxidation.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What do you understand by a physical change?
OR
Define physical change.
Answer:
The change in which only the physical state of a substance is changed; no new substance is formed. This change is temporary. During this change the composition of the substance does not change.

Question 2.
Explain giving two examples or physical change.
Answer:
(1) Conversion of ice into water is a physical change. On heating, ice melts into water. when the water is cooled, it freezes into ice. Thus, we get ice from water by a simple method and no new substance is formed. Hence, conversion of ice into water is a physical change.

(2) Magnetization of iron nail is a physical change. An iron nail magnetized by induction loses its magnetism as soon as it is detached from the magnet which induces magnetism in it. An iron nail magnetized by some other methods can also be demagnetized by simple means such as hammering or heating it. Thus, the magnetization of an iron nail can be easily reversed to get original nail. Hence, it is a physical change.

Question 3.
what do you understand by a chemical change?
OR
Define Chemical change.
Answer:
The change in which a substance or substances are converted into a new substance or substances, possessing properties altogether different from the original ones, is called a chemcial change. During this change, the original substance cannot be recovered by any simple means. This change is permanent.

Question 4.
Explain giving two examples of chemical change.
Answer:
(1) When carbon is burnt, carbon dioxide is formed. In this process carbon combines with oxygen, therefore carbon and oxygen are reactants, while curbon dioxide is a product. This change is permanent.
\(\mathrm{C}_{(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{O}_{2(\mathrm{g})} \stackrel{\text { Heat }}{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{CO}_{2(\mathrm{g})}\)

(2) When a magnesium wire is burnt in air, a white powder of magnesium oxide is formed. We cannot obtain magnesium from magnesium oxide by simple methods. Properties of magnesium oxide are altogether different from those of magnesium. A new substance MgO is formed in the reaction. Hence, this change is a chemical change.
\(\begin{array}{c}
2 \mathrm{Mg} \\
\text { Magnesium }
\end{array}+\mathrm{O}_{2} \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} \begin{array}{c}
2 \mathrm{MgO} \\
\text { Magnesium oxide }
\end{array}\)

Question 5.
What is meant by a chemical reaction?
Answer:
A process in which some substances undergo bond breaking and are transformed into new substances by formation of new bonds is called a chemical reaction.

Question 6.
What is the importance of a chemical equation?
Answer:

1. Reactants are converted into products.
2. Mass is conserved.
3. Atoms are conserved.
4. The properties and compositions of the products of a chemical reaction are different from those of its reactants.
5. Generally, energy is either absorbed or evolved.

Question 7.
What are the conventions used in writing a chemical equation?
Answer:
Conventions used in writing a chemical equation:
(1) The reactants are written on the left hand side (LHS), while the products are written on the right hand side (RHS).

(2) Whenever there are two or more reactants, a plus sign (+) is written between each two of them. Similarly, if there are two or more products, a plus sign is written between each two of them.

(3) Reactant side and product side are connected with an arrow (→) pointing from reactants to products. The arrow represents the direction of the reaction. Heat is to be given from outside to the reaction, it is indicated by the sign Δ written above the arrow.

(4) The conditions like temperature, pressure, catalyst, etc., are mentioned above the arrow (→) pointing towards the product side.

(5) The physical states of the reactants and products are also mentioned in a chemical equation. The notations g, l, s, and aq are written in brackets as a subscript along with the symbols / formulae of reactants and products. The symbols g, l, s, and aq stand for gaseous, 1iquid. solid and aqueous respectively.

If the product is gaseous, instead of (g) it can be indicated by an arrow ↑ pointing upwards. If the product formed is insoluble solid, then instead of (s) it can be indicated by an arrow ↓ pointing downwards.

(6) Special information or names of reactants/products are written below their formulae.

Write the balanced equations for the following reactions:

Question 1.
Ba(OH)₂ + HBr → BaBr₂ + H₂O
Answer:
Step 1:
Rewrite the given equation as it is
Ba(OH)₂ + HBr → BaBr₂ + H₂O

Step 2:
write the number of atoms of each element in the unbalanced equation on both sides of the equation.

Element	Number of atoms in reactants	Number of atoms in products
Ba	1	1
Br	1	2
O	2	1
H	3	2

Step 3:
To balance the number of oxygen atoms:

Number of atoms of oxygen	In reactants	In products
To begin with	2 [in Ba(OH)2]	1 (in H2O)
To balance	2	1 × 2

To equalise the number of oxygen atoms, we use 2 as the coefficient of H₂O in the product.
Now, the partly balanced equation become as follows
Ba(OH)₂ + HBr → BaBr₂ + 2H₂O

Step 4:
Now, balance the number of hydrogen atoms.
In the partly balanced equation:

Number of atoms of hydrogen	In reactants	In products
To begin with	2 [in Ba(OH)2] 1 (in HBr)	4 (in 2H2O)
To balance	1 × 2 + 2	4

To equalise the number of hydrogen atoms, we use 2 as the coefficient of HBr in the reactants. Now, the equation becomes
Ba(OH)₂ + 2HBr → BaBr₂ + 2H₂O
Now, count the atoms or each element on both sides of the equation. The number of atoms on both
sides are equal. Hence, the balanced equation is
Ba(OH)₂ + 2HBr → BaBr₂ +2H₂O
Now indicate the physical states of the reactants and products.
Ba(OH)_2(aq) + 2HBr_(aq) → BaBr_2(aq) +2H₂O_(l)

Question 2.
KCN + H₂SO₄ → K₂SO₄ + HCN
Answer:
Step 1:
Rewrite the given equation as it is
KCN + H₂SO₄ → K₂SO₄ + HCN

Step 2:
Write the number of atoms of each element or group in the unbalanced equation on both sides of the equation.

Element	Number of atoms in reactants	Number of atoms in products
K	1	2
CN (group)	1	1
O	4	4
H	2	1
S	1	1

The number of oxygen atoms involved in different compounds on both sides (reactants and products) are equal. Therefore, balance the number of atoms of the second element, potassium.

Step 3:
To balance K atoms:

Number of atoms of Potassium	In reactants	In products
To begin with	2 (KCN)	2 (in K2SO4)
To balance	1 × 2	2

To equalise the number of potassium atoms, we use 2 as the coefficient of KCN in the reactants.
Now, the partly balanced equation becomes
2KCN + H₂SO₄ → K₂SO₄ + 2HCN
Now, count the atoms of each element on both sides of the equation. The number of atoms on both sides are equal. Hence, the balanced equation is
2KCN + H₂SO₄ → KgSO₄ + 2HCN
Now indicate the physical states of the reactants and the products.
2KCN_(aq) + H₂SO_4(aq) → K₂SO_4(aq) + 2HCN_(g)

Question 3.
CH₄ + O₂ → 4CO₂ + H₂O
Answer:
Step 1:
Rewrite the given equation as it is
CH₄ + O₂ → 4CO₂ + H₂O

Step 2:
Write the number of atoms of each element in the unbalanced equation on both sides of the equation.

Element	Number of atoms in reactants	Number of atoms in products
C	1	1
O	2	3
H	4	2

Step 3:
To balance the number of oxygen atoms:

Number of atoms of oxygen	In reactants	In products
To begin with	2 (in O2)	1 (in H2O) 2 (in CO2)
To balance	2 × 2	1 × 2 + 2

To equalise the number of oxygen atoms, we use 2 as the coefficient of O₂ in the reactants and 2 as the coefficient of H₂O in the product.
Now, the partly balanced equation becomes
CH₄ + 2O₂ → CO₂ + 2H₂O
Now, count the atoms of each element on both sides of the equation. The number of atoms on both sides are equal. Hence, the balanced equation is,
CH₄ + 2O₂ → CO₂ + 2H₂O
Now, indicate the physical states of the reactants and the products.
CH_4(g) + 2O_2(g) → CO_2(g) + 2H₂O_(l)

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
what are the different types of chemical reaction?
Answer:
Types of chemical reaction

1. Combination reaction
2. Decomposition reaction
3. Displacement reaction
4. Double displacement reaction.

Question 2.
What is meant by a combination reaction?
OR
Define: combination reaction.
Answer:
When two or more reactants combine in a reaction to form a single product, it is called a combination reaction.

Question 3.
Give two examples of combination reaction.
Answer:
Examples of combination reaction :
(1) The ammonia gas reacts with hydrogen chloride gas to form the salt in gaseous state, immediately it condenses at room temperature and gets transformed into the solid state.

(2) Magnesium burns in air to form white powder of magnesium oxide as a single product.

(3) Iron reacts with sulphur to form iron sulphide.

Question 4.
What Is meant by a decomposition reaction?
Answer:
The chemical reaction in which two or more products are formed from a single reactant is called decomposition reaction.

Question 5.
what is meant by a thermal decomposition?
Answer:
The reaction in which a compound is decomposed by heating it to a high temperature is called thermal decomposition.

Question 6.
What is meant by a electrolytic decomposition?
Answer:
The reaction in which a compound is decomposed by passing an electric current through its solution or molten mass is called an electrolytic decomposition.

Question 7.
Give two examples of thermal decomposition.
Answer:
(1) At high temperature, calcium carbonate decomposes into calcium oxide and carbon dioxide.

(2) At high temperature sugar decomposes into black mass of carbon and water vapour.

Question 8.
Give an example of electrolytic decomposition.
Answer:
When an electric current is passed through acidified water, it is electrolysed giving hydrogen
and oxygen.

Question 9.
Study the following reaction and answer the questions asked.

(a) State the type of reaction.
(b) Define this reaction. (Practice Activity Sheet – 1)
Answer:
(a) The type of reaction is electrolytic decomposition reaction.
(b) The reaction in which a compound is decomposed by passing an electric current through its solution or molten mass is called an electrolytic decomposition.

Question 10.
what is meant by a displacement reaction?
Answer:
The reaction in which the place of the ion of a less reactive element in a compound is taken by another more reactive element by formation of its own ions, is called displacement reaction.

Question 11.
Give an example of displacement reaction.
Answer:
when zinc granules are added to the blue coloured copper sulphate solution, the zinc ions formed from zinc atoms take the place or Cu²⁺ ions in CuSO₄, and copper atoms, formed from Cu²⁺ ions comes out i.e. the more reactive zinc displaces the less reactive Cu from copper sulphate.

Question 12.
Observe the reaction and answer the following questions.
CuSO_4(aq) + Fe_(s) → FeSO_4(aq) + Cu_(s)
(a) Identify and write the type of chemical reaction.
(b) write the definition of above reaction. (Practice Activity Sheet – 3)
Answer:
(a) When iron powder is added to the blue coloured copper sulphate solution, the iron ions formed from iron atoms take the place or Cu²⁺ ions in CuSO₄, and copper atoms, formed from Cu²⁺ ions comes out i.e. the more reactive iron displaces the less reactive Cu from copper sulphate. Therefore this reaction is a displacement reaction.

(b) The reaction in which the place of the ion of a less reactive element in a compound is taken by another more reactive element by formation of its own ions, is called displacement reaction.

Question 13.
what is meant by a double displacement reaction?
Answer:
The reaction in which the ions in the reactants are exchanged to form a precipitate is called double displacement reaction.

Question 14.
Give two examples of double displacement reaction.
Answer:
(1) Solutions of sodium chloride and silver nitrate react with each other forming a precipitate of silver chloride and a solution of sodium nitrate.

White precipitate of AgCl is formed by exchange of ions Ag⁺ and Cl^– between the reactants.

(2) Barium suiphide reacts with zinc sulphate to form zinc sulphide and a white precipitate of barium sulphate.

white precipitate is formed by exchange of ions Ba⁺⁺ and SO₄^— between the reactants.

Question 15.
Write down what you understand from the following chemical reaction:
AgNO_3(aq) + NaCl_(aq) → AgCl ↓ + NaNO_3(aq)
Answer:
(i) The above reaction is a double displacement reaction.
(ii) AgNO₃ and NaCl are the reactants while AgCl and NaNO₃ are the products.
(iii) The reactants and the product NaNO₃ are in aqueous state. The product AgCl is formed in the form of precipitate.

Question 16.
Study the following chemical reaction and answer the questions given below:
AgNO_3(aq) + NaCl_(aq) → AgCl_(s)↓ + NaNO_3(aq)
(i) Identiry and write the type of chemical reaction.
(ii) write the definition of above type of chemical reaction.
(iii) Write the names of reactants and products of above reaction. (March 2019)
Answer:
(i) The type of chemical reaction: Double displacement reaction.
(ii) The reaction in which the ions in the reactants are exchanged to form a precipitate is called double displacement reaction.
(iii)

1. The above reaction is a double displacement reaction.
2. AgNO₃ and NaCl are the reactants while AgCl and NaNO₃ are the products.
3. The reactants and the product NaNO₃ are in aqueous state. The product AgCl is formed in the form of precipitate.

Question 17.
When sodium chromate solution is mixed with barium sulphate solution, a precipitate is formed.
(i) What is the colour of the precipitate formed?
(ii) Name the precipitate.
(iii) What is the type of chemical reaction?
Answer:
(i) The colour of the precipitate is yellow.
(ii) The yellow precipitate formed is barium chromate.
(iii) The type of chemical reaction is double displacement.

Question 18.
Explain the term Exothermic reaction.
Answer:
Exothermic reaction : The process in which heat is given out is called an exothermic reaction.
When NaOH_(s) dissolves in water, there is evolution of heat leading to a rise in temperature.
NOH_(s) + H₃O_(l) → NaOH_(aq) + Heat

Question 19.
State whether the following reactions are exothermic or endothermic:
(i) 3CaO. Al₂O_3(s) + 6H₂O_(l) → 3CaO. Al₂O₃. 6H₂O_(s) + Heat
Answer:
Exothermic reaction

(ii) 2CaSO₄. H₂O + 3H₂O → 2CaSO₄. 2H₂O + Heat
Answer:
Exothermic reaction

(iii) KNO_3(aq) + H₂O_(l) + Heat → KNO_3(aq)
Answer:
Endothermic reaction

(iv) NaOH_(s) + H₂O_(l) → NaOH_(aq) + Heat
Answer:
Exothermic reaction

(v) Transformation of ice into water.
Answer:
Endothermic reaction

(vi) Water turns into ice.
Answer:
Exothermic reaction

(vii) Cooking of food.
Answer:
Endothermic reaction

(viii) Burning candle.
Answer:
Exothermic reaction

Question 20.
What do you mean by slow speed reaction?
OR
Define: Slow speed reaction.
Answer:
The reaction which requires long time for completion i.e. occurs slowly is called slow speed reaction.

Question 21.
What do you mean by fast speed reaction?
OR
Define: Fast speed reaction.
Answer:
The reaction which is completed in short time i.e. occurs rapidly is called fast speed reaction.

Question 22.
Give two examples of slow speed reactions.
Answer:
(1) On heating potassium chlorate (KClO₃) it decomposes slowly into potassium chloride and oxygen gas.

This reaction requires long time for completion, therefore it is slow speed reaction.

(2) Rusting of iron is a slow speed reaction. In this reaction iron reacts with oxygen from air to form iron oxide.

Question 23.
Give two examples of fast speed reactions.
Answer:
(1) The reaction between sodium hydroxide (NaOH) and hydrochloric acid (HCl) is a neutralization reaction and it is fast speed reaction.
NaOH_2(aq) + HCl_(aq) → NaCl_(aq) + H₂O_(l)
This neutralizaton reaction is completed in short time, therefore it is fast speed reaction.

(2) Aqueous solution of sodium chloride reacts with silver nitrate solution to form white precipitate of silver chloride (NaCl) and sodium nitrate.
NaCl_(aq) + AgNO_3(aq) → NaNO_3(aq) + AgCl ↓
This reaction is completed in short time, therefore it is fast reaction.

Question 24.
Write a short note on slow speed and fast speed reactions.
Answer:
Slow speed reaction:
The reaction which requires long time for completion i.e. occurs slowly is called slow speed reaction.
Examples:
(1) On heating potassium chlorate (KClO₃) it decomposes slowly into potassium chloride and oxygen gas.

This reaction requires long time for completion, therefore it is slow speed reaction.

(2) Rusting of iron is a slow speed reaction. In this reaction iron reacts with oxygen from air to form iron oxide.

This reaction requires long time for completion.

Fast speed reaction:
The reaction which is completed in short time i.e., occurs rapidly is called fast speed reaction.
Examples:
(1) The reaction between sodium hydroxide (NaOH) and hydrochloric acid (HCl) is a neutralization reaction and it is fast speed reaction.
NaOH_(aq) + HCl_(aq) → NaCl_(aq) + H₂O_(l)
This neutralizaton reaction is completed in short time, therefore it is fast speed reaction.

(2) Aqueous solution of sodium chloride reacts with silver nitrate solution to form white precipitate of silver chloride (NaCl) and sodium nitrate.

This reaction is completed in short time, therefore it is fast reaction.

Question 25.
State the factors which affect the speed (or rate) of a reaction.
Answer:
The factors which affect the rate of a reaction are

1. Nature of the reactants.
2. Size of the particles of the reactants.
3. Concentration of the reactants.
4. Temperature of the reaction.
5. Catalyst.

Question 26.
How does the rate of reaction depend on the nature of the reactants? Illustrate with suitable example.
Answer:
(1) when the reactant combines with two or more other reactants then the rate of a chemical reaction depends on the nature of the reactants.

(2) Both Al and Zn reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid, H₂ gas is liberated and water soluble salts of these metals are formed. However, aluminium metal reacts faster with dil. HCl as compared to zinc metal.

(3) Al is more reactive than Zn. Therefore, the rate of reaction of Al with hydrochloric acid is higher than that of Zn. Hence, the nature of the reactant affect the rate of a reaction.

Question 27.
How does the rate of a reaction depend on the size of the particles of reactants?
Answer:
(1) In the reaction of dil. HCl and Shahabad tile, CO₂ effervescence is formed slowly. On the other hand, C₂ effervescence forms at faster speed with the powder of Shahabad tile.

(2) The above observation indicates that the rate of a reaction depends upon the size of the particles of the reactants taking part in the reaction. Smaller the size of the reactant particles taking part in a reaction faster will be the rate of reaètion.

Question 28.
How does the rate of a reaction depend upon the concentration of the reactants? Give suitable example.
Answer:
(1) A chemical reaction takes place due to collisions of the reactant molecules. Higher the concentrations of the reactants more will be the frequency of collisions and faster wifi be the rate of the reaction.

(2) In the reaction of dil. HCl and CaCO₃, CaCO₃ disappears slowly and CO₂ also liberates slowly. On the other hand the reaction with concentrated HCl takes place rapidly and CaCO₃ disappears fast.

(3) Concentrated acid reacts faster than dilute acid, that means the rate of a reaction is proportional to the concentration of reactants.

Slow reaction:
CaCO₃ + dli.2HCl → CaCl₂ + CO₂ + H₂O
Fast reaction:

Question 29.
How does the rate of a reaction depend upon the temperature of reactants? Give suitable example.
Answer:
(i) (1) When the temperature of the reactants is increased, the reactant molecules start moving with more velocity and their kinetic energy increases. As a result, the number collisions increases. Hence, the rate of chemical reaction increases.

(2) Lime stone on heating decomposes to give CO₂, which turns 1ime water milky. On the other hand, the lime water does not turn milky before heating the lime stone: because of the zero rate of reaction. The above observation indicates that the rate of a reaction increases on increasing the temperature.

(ii) Solid CaCO₃ does not decompose at room temperature when heated, it decomposes to give CaO and CO₂ that means the rise in temperature increases the rate of reaction. CaCO₃ room temperature No chemical reaction.

Question 30.
How does the rate if a reaction depend upon the catalyst? Give suitable example.
Answer:
(1) The substance in whose presence the rate of a chemical reaction changes, without causing any chemical change to it is called a catalyst.

(2) On heating potassium chlorate (KClO₃) decomposes into potassium chloride and oxygen slowly.
\(2 \mathrm{KClO}_{3} \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} 2 \mathrm{KCl}+3 \mathrm{O}_{2}\)
The rate of the above reaction neither increases by reducing the particle size nor by increasing the reaction temperature. However in the presence of manganese dioxide, KClO₃ decomposes at a comparatively lower temperature and oxygen is produced more briskly. No chemical change takes place in MnO₂ in this reaction. It acts as catalyst.

Question 31.
State the Importance of rate in a chemical reaction.
Answer:

1. The use of strong acid and strong base in a chemical reaction increases the rate of reaction.
2. In a chemical reaction, if the smaller size of the reactant particles, the concentrated solution, high temperature and use of catalyst increases the rate of chemical reaction.
3. The rate of chemical reaction is important with respect to environment.
4. If the rate of chemimal reaction is fast it is profitable for the chemical factories.
5. The ozone layer in the earth’s atmosphere protects the life of earth from the ultraviolet radiation of the sun. The process of depletion or maintenance of this layer depends upon the rate of production or destruction of ozone molecules.

Question 32.
Define Oxidation reaction.
Answer:
Oxidation: The chemical reaction in which a reactant combines with oxygen or loses hydrogen to form the product is called oxidation reaction.

Question 33.
Give examples of oxidation.
Answer:
(1) when carbon burns in air, it forms carbon dioxide. In this reaction carbon accepts oxygen, therefore, this is an oxidation reaction.
C_(s) + O_2(g) → CO_2(g)

(2) when sodium reacts with ethyl alcohol, sodium ethoxide and hydrogen gas is formed. In this reaction, hydrogen is removed from ethyl alcohol, therefore this is an oxidation reaction.

(3) Acidified potassium dichromate: (K₂Cr₂O₇/H₂SO₄) oxidises ethly alcohol to acetic acid.

Question 34.
What do you mean by oxidant? Explain with suitable example.
Answer:
The chemical substances which bring about an oxidation reaction by making oxygen available are called oxidants or oxidizing agents.

1. In the combustion of carbon, oxygen is an oxidant.
2. In the oxidation of ethly alcohol, potassium dichromate is used as oxidant.

Question 35.
Name the various oxidants. How nascent oxygen is liberated from these oxidants?
Answer:
K₂Cr₂O₇/H₂SO₄, KMnO₄/H₂SO₄ are the commonly used chemical oxidants. Hydrogen peroxide (H₂O₂) is used as a mild oxidant. Ozone (O₃) is also a chemical oxidant. Nascent oxygen is generated by chemical oxidants and it is used for the oxidation reaction.
O₃ → O₂ + [O].
H₂O₂ → H₂O + [O]
K₂Cr₂O₇ + 4H₂SO₄ → K₂SO₄ + Cr₂(SO₄)₃ + 4H₂O + 3[O]
2KMnO₄ + 3H₂SO₄ → K₂SO₄ + 2MnSO₄ + 3H₂O + 5[O]
Nascent oxygen is a state prior to the formation of the O₂ molecule. It is the reactive form of oxygen and is represented by the symbol as [O]

Question 36.
Acidified potassium permanganate (KMnO₄) is a chemical oxidant and explain, how acidified potassium permanganate oxidise ferrous sulphate (FeSO₄). Accordingly write a new definition of oxidation and reduction.
Answer:
Acidified KMnO4 oxidises ferrous sulphate (FeSO₄) to ferric sulphate Fe₂(SO₄)₃ and in addition to above K₂SO₄ and MnSO₄ by-products are formed.
2KMnO₄ + 10 FeSO₄ → 8H₂SO₄ → K₂SO₄ + 2MnSO₄ + 5Fe₂(SO₄)₃ + 8H₂O
2FeSO₄ → Fe₂(SO₄)₃
Ionic reaction :
2Fe₂ + 2SO₄²⁺ → 2Fe³⁺ + 3SO₂^2-
Net Ionic equation Fe²⁺ → Fe³⁺ + e^–
When ferric ion is formed from ferrous ion the positive change is increased by one unit. While this happens the rerrous ion loses one electron.

When metal or its ion loses electron, it is called an oxidation and gain of electron is called reduction.

Question 37.
Define reduction reaction.
Answer:
The chemical reaction in which a reactant gains hydrogen and loses oxygen to form the product is called the reduction reaction.

Question 38.
Give two examples of reduction.
Answer:
(1) When hydrogen gas is passed over black copper oxide a reddish coloured layer of copper is formed.
In this reaction an oxygen atom removed from CuO to form copper, hence, this is reduction.

(2) When hydrogen gas is passed over red hot coke, methane is obtained.
Here, hydrogen is added to coke (carbon). Hence, this is reduction.

Question 39.
What do you mean by reductant? Explain with suitable example.
Answer:
The chemical substances which bring about reduction by making hydrogen available are called reductant. In the preparation of methane from carbon, hydrogen is a reductant.

Question 40.
What are redox reactions? Identify the substances that are oxidised and the substances that are reduced in the following reactions:
(1) 2H₂S_2(g) + SO_2(g) → 3S_(s) + 2H₂O_(l)
(2) CuO_(s) + H_2(g) → CU_(s) + H₂O_(l)

Answer:
When oxidation and reduction take place simultaneously in a given chemical reaction, it is known as a redox reaction.
(1)

H₂S is oxidised and SO₂ is reduced.

(2)

CuO is reduced and H₂ is oxidised.

(3)

(1) Oxidation: H₂S, H₂O and HCl.
(2) Reduction: SO₂, CuO and MnO₂

Question 41.
Observe the following reaction and answer the questions given below:
BaSO₄ + 4C → BaS + 4CO
(1) what type of reaction is it? Justify.
(2) Give one more example.
Answer:
(1) This is a redox reaction. In this reaction the reduction of BaSO4 and oxidation of carbon take place simultaneously.

(2) Example
CuO+H₂ → Cu + H₂O
2H₂S + SO₂ → 3S + 2H₂O

Question 42.
What is corrosion?
Answer:
The slow process of decay or oxidation of metals due to various components of atmosphere is known as corrosion.
Iron rusts and a reddish coloured layer is collected on it. This is corrosion of iron.

Question 43.
How does rusting of iron occur?
Answer:
Iron when exposed to moist air forms a reddish layer of hydrated ferric oxide.

Question 44.
How can corrosion be prevented?
Answer:

1. Corrosion damages buildings, bridges, automobiles, ships, iron railings and other articles made of iron.
2. It can be prevented by using an anti-rust solution, coating the surface by a paint, processes like galvanising and electroplating with other metals.

Question 45.
What is corrosion? Do gold ornaments corrode? Justify.
Answer:
The slow process of decay or oxidation or metal due to the effect of air, moisture and acids on
it is known as corrosion.
(1) Gold is a noble metal. There is no effect or moist air or action of acid on it at any temperature.
(2) Pure gold is a very soft metal. it breaks and gets bent easily. Hence, in gold ornaments, gold is alloyed with other metals 1ike copper or silver in appropriate proportion to make it hard and resistant to corrosion. Hence gold ornaments do not get corroded.

Question 46.
Complete the process of iron rusting by filling the blanks. Suggest a way to prohibit the process.
The iron rust is formed due to reaction. Different regions on iron surface become anode and cathode.
Reaction on anode region:
Fe_(s) → Fe²⁺ _(aq) + 2e^–
Reaction on cathode region:
O_2(g) + 4H⁺ _(aq) +………→ 2H₂O_(l)
when Fe²⁺ ions migrate from anode region they react with……..to fomm Fe³⁺ ions.
A reddish coloured hytirated oxide is formed from……….ions. It is called rust.
2Fe³⁺ _(aq) + 4H₂O_(l) → +………+ 6H⁺ _(aq)
A way to prevent rusting………..
(Practice Activity Sheer – 2)
Answer:
The iron rust is formed due to electrochemical reaction. Different regions on iron surface become unode and cathode.
Reaction on anode region:
Fe_(s) → Fe²⁺ _(aq) + 2e^–
Reaction on cathode region:
O_2(g) + 4H⁺ _(aq) + 4e^– → 2H₂O_(l)
when Fe²⁺ ions migrate from anode region they react with water to form Fe³⁺ ions.
A reddish coloured hydrated oxide is formed from Fe³⁺ ions. It is called rust.
2Fe³⁺ (aq) + 4H₂O_(l) → + Fe₂O₃. H₂O_(s) + 6H⁺_(aq)
A way to prevent rusting by colouring with acrylic paints, Zn plating, galvanizing, anodizing, alloying, etc.

Question 17.
Deifne: Rancidity.
Answer:
When oil or fat or left over cooking oil for making food stuff undergoes oxidation ir stored for a long time and it is found to have foul odour called rancidity.

Distinguish between the following:

Question 1.
Combination reaction and Decomposition reaction.

Combination reaction	Decomposition reaction
1. In a combination re­action, two or more reactants take part in the chemical reaction.	1. In a decomposition reaction there is only one reactant in the chemical reaction.
1. In the combination reaction, only one product is formed.	2. In a decomposition reaction, two or more products are formed.

Question 2.
Oxidation and reduction
Answer:

Oxidation	Reduction
1. The chemical reaction in which reactants gain oxygen or lose hydrogen is called oxidation.	1. The chemical reaction in which reactants gain hydrogen or lose oxygen is called reduction.
2. A reducing agent undergoes oxidation.	2. An oxidising agent undergoes reduction.

Question 3.
Exothermic and Endothermic reaction.
Answer:

Exothermic reaction	Endothermic reaction
1. The reaction in which heat is evolved is called an exothermic reaction.	1. The reaction in which heat is absorbed is called an endothermic reaction.
2. The evolution of heat leads to a rise in the temperature of the solution.	2. The absorption of heat leads to a fall in the temperature of the solution.

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
Grills of doors and windows are always painted before they are used.
Answer:

• Grills of doors and windows are made from iron. Iron has a tendency to undergo corrosion.
• Paint does not allow air or moisture to come in contact with iron surface.
  Therefore, to prevent rusting of iron. grills of doors and windows are always painted before they are used.

Question 2.
Physical states of reactants and products are mentioned while writing a chemical equation.
Answer:
(1) while writing a chemical equation, gaseous, 1iquid and solid states are symbolised as (g), (l) and (s) respectively.

(2) This is done to make it more informative and to emphasise that those reactions occur in that manner only under those conditions. Hence, physical states of reactants and products are mentioned while writing a chemical equation.

Question 3.
Iron articles rust readily whereas steel which is also mainly made of iron does not undergo corrosion.
Answer:
(1) Iron articles rust readily as iron reacts with oxygen and moisture of air to convert into its hydroxide and oxide (Fe₂O₃. x H₂O), while steel is an alloy of iron, carbon and chromium.

(2) The properties of an alloy are different from the properties of its constituents. The added metals increase its resistance to corrosion. It is more durable and clean.

Question 4.
Concentrated hydrochloric acid reacts more vigorously with calcium carbonate than dilute hydrochloric acid.
Answer:

1. The rate of a reaction increases with the concentration of the reactant.
2. As concentrated hydrochloric acid contains more number of HCl molecules than those in an equal volume of dilute HCl, concentrated HCl reacts more vigorously with calcium carbonate.

Question 5.
Zinc powder reacts much faster with dil. H₂SO₄ than does granulated zinc of the Same mass.
Answer:
(1) In a reaction. the rate of the reaction depends upon the particle size of the solid reactant as the reaction takes place on the surface only. Smaller the particles are, the more will be their total surface area and faster will be the rate of the reaction.
(2) Hence, zinc powder reacts much faster with dil. H₂SO₄ than does granulated zinc.

Question 6.
When copper articles exposed to air for a long time, gets corroded.
Answer:
Copper oxidises to form black coloured laver of copper oxide. when copper oxide combines with carbon dioxide from air, copper loses its lustre due to formation of greenish layer of copper carbonate on its surface. Thus, copper articles exposed to air for a long time get corroded.

Question 7.
When silver vessels exposed to air turns blackish after sometime.
Answer:
On exposure to air, silver vessels turns blackish after sometime. This is because of the layer of silver sulphide (Ag₂S) formed by the reaction or silver with hydrogen suphide in air.

Explain the following reactions giving their balanced chemical equations:

Question 1.
Calcium carbonate (Lime stone) is heated.
Answer:
When calcium carbonate (Lime stone) is heated at high temperature it decomposes to form quicklime and carbon dioxide gas.

Question 2.
Copper reacts with dil. nitric acid.
Answer:
When copper reacts with dil. nitric acid, nitric oxide gas is formed.

Question 3.
Copper reacts with conc. nitric acid.
Answer:
When copper reacts with conc. nitric acid, reddish coloured poisonous nitrogen dioxide gas is formed.

Question 4.
Ammonia gas reacts with hydrogen chloride gas.
Answer:
When ammonia gas reacts with hydrogen chloride gas, it forms the salt ammonium chloride in gaseous state, but immediately it got transformed into the solid state.

Question 5.
Magnesium strip is burnt in air.
Answer:
When magnesium strip is burnt in air, a white powder of magnesium oxide is formed.

Question 6.
Calcium oxide is mixed with water.
Answer:
When calcium oxide (slaked lime) is mixed with water, calcium hydroxide is formed with evolution of large amount of heat.

Question 7.
Sugar is heated.
Answer:
When sugar is heated, it decomposes to form carbon (black substance).

Question 8.
Electric current is passed through acidulated water.
Answer:
When an electric current is passed through acidulated water, it decomposes into hydrogen and
oxygen gas.

Question 9.
Zinc powder is added to copper sulphate solution.
Answer:
When zinc powder is added to copper sulphate solution, more reactive zinc displaces less reactive copper from copper sulphate solution. The colourless zinc sulphate is formed with evolution of heat.

Question 10.
Iron powder is added to copper sulphate solution.
Answer:
When iron powder is added to copper sulphate solution, more reactive iron displaces less reactive copper from copper sulphate. The colourless ferrous sulphate solution is formed with evolution of heat.

Question 11.
Lead is added to copper sulphate solution.
Answer:
When lead is added to copper sulphate solution, more reactive lead displaces less reactive copper from copper sulphate. The colourless lead sulphate solution is formed with evolution of heat.

Question 12.
Potassium chromate solution is added to barium sulphate solution.
Answer:
When potassium chromate solution is added to barium sulphate solution, yellow precipitate of barium chromate is formed.

Question 13.
Calcium chloride solution is added to sodium carbonate solution.
Answer:
When calcium chloride solution is added to sodium carbonate solution, white precipitate of calcium carbonate is formed.

Question 14.
Sodium chloride solution is mixed with silver nitrate solution.
Answer:
When sodium chloride solution is mixed with silver nitrate solution, white precipitate or silver chloride is formed.

Question 15.
Dilute sulphuric acid is added to barium chloride solution.
Answer:
When dilute sulphuric acid is added to barium chloride solution, white precipitate of barium sulphate is rormed.

Question 16.
Calcium carbonate (Lime stone) is treated with dil. hydrochloric acid.
Answer:
When calcium carbonate (lime stone) is treated with dil. hydrochloric acid, carbon dioxide gas is formed.

Question 17.
Aluminium is treated with dil. hydrochloric acid.
Answer:
When aluminium is treated with dilute hydrochloric acid, hydrogen gas is liberated.

Question 18.
Magnesium is treated with hydrochloric acid.
Answer:
When magnesium is treated with hydrochloric acid, hydrogen gas is liberated.

Question 19.
Hydrogen peroxide is decomposed in the presence of manganese dioxide (MnO₂).
Answer:
When hvdrogen peroxide is decomposed in the presence of manganese dioxide (MnO₂), water and oxygen are formed.

Question 20.
Ethyl alcohol is treated with acidified potassium dlchromate.
Answer:
When ethly alcohol is treated with acidified potassium dichromate, acetic acid is formed. This is oxidation reaction.

Question 21.
Hydrogen gas is passed over black copper oxide.
Answer:
When hydrogen gas is passed over black copper oxide, a reddish coloured layer of copper is formed.