Class 10 – Page 12 – Maharashtra Board Solutions

Cell Biology and Biotechnology Class 10 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

January 6, 2025January 5, 2025 by Bhagya

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 8 Cell Biology and Biotechnology Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 10 Science Part 2 Chapter 8 Cell Biology and Biotechnology Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Class 10 Science Part 2 Chapter 8 Cell Biology and Biotechnology Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks and complete the statements.
a. Methods like artificial insemination and embryo transplant are mainly used for ………..
(a) animal husbandry
(b) wild life
(c) pet animals
(d) for infertile women
Answer:
(a) animal husbandry

b. ……….. is the revolutionary event in biotechnology after cloning.
(a) Human genome project
(b) DNA discovery
(c) Stem cell research
(d) All the above
Answer:
(c) Stem cell research

c. The disease related with the synthesis of insulin is …………..
(a) cancer
(b) arthritis
(c) cardiac problems
(d) diabetes
Answer:
(d) diabetes

d. Government of India has encouraged the ……….. for improving the productivity by launching NKM-16.
(a) aquaculture
(b) poultry
(c) piggery
(d) apiculture
Answer:
(a) aquaculture

Question 2.
Match the pairs.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Interferon	(a) Diabetes
(2) Factor VIII *	(b) Dwarfness
(3) Somatostatin	(c) Viral infection
(4) Interleukin	(d) Cancer
	(e) Haemophilia

[Note: In examination match the column question will have 2 components in Column A’ with 4 alternatives in Column B’.]
Answer:
(1) Interferon – Viral infection
(2) Factor VIII – Haemophilia
(3) Somatostatin – Dwarfness
(4) Interleukin – Cancer
[Note: Factor VIII* is an important protein factor and it should not be just factor as given in the textbook.]

Question 3.
Rewrite the following wrong statements after corrections:
a. Changes in genes of the cells are brought about in non-genetic technique.
Answer:
Non-genetic biotechnology involves use of either cell or tissue.

b. Gene from Bacillus thuringiensis is introduced into soyabean.
Answer:
Gene from Bacillus thuringiensis is introduced with gene of cotton.

Question 4.
Write short notes.
a. Biotechnology: Professional uses. (Commercial uses)
Answer:
(1) Biotechnology can be used in the following professional fields, viz. crop biotechnology, animal husbandry, human health, etc.

(2) In crop biotechnology, improvement in the yield and variety of agricultural field is done. The hybrid seeds, genetically modified crops, herbicide tolerant plants are some of the areas in which lot of biotechnological research is being done. By such research, high yielding and disease resistant varieties and varieties which can tolerate stresses such as alkalinity, weeds, cold and drought etc. are produced. BT cotton, BT Brinjal and golden rice are some GMO plants which have become popular in India.

Due to herbicide tolerant plants, the weeds are now selectively destroyed. By using biofertilizers, the use of chemical fertilizers is reduced. Use of bacteria such as Rhizobium, Azotobacter, Nostoc, Anaixiena and plants like Azolla the nitrogen fixation and phosphate solubilization abilities of the plants are improved.

(3) Animal husbandry is now using the methods of artificial insemination and embryo transfer by which the breeds of cattle are improved.

(4) To improve and to manage the human health, diagnosis ahd treatment of diseases have to be focussed. Diagnosis of diabetes, heart diseases and infectious diseases such as AIDS and dengue can be done rapidly due to biotechnology.

(5) The treatment and prevention of diseases need hormones, interferons, antibiotics and different vaccine which are now manufactured through biotechnology. Gene therapy is also used to treat hereditary disorders.

(6) Industrial products and clean technology to combat environmental pollution uses biotechnology practices.

(7) DNA fingerprinting has revolutionized the profession of forensic science.

b. Importance of medicinal plants.
Answer:

In Ayurveda practices, the natural remedies were used. Since India had great biodiversity and traditional knowledge of herbal medicinal uses, therefore, people depended on such medicinal plants.
In olden days, such herbs were collected by roaming in the jungles.
Such important medicinal herbs are now cultivated with care.
In entire world people have understood the importance of holy basil (tulsi), Adulsa, Jyesthmadh, etc.
In some of the allopathy medicines too, the plant extracts are used.
Medicines made from harmful chemicals have side effects and are not safe to be used unless there is medical supervision. Therefore, world-wide herbal remedies are gaining more popularity.

Question 5.
Answer the following questions in your own words.
a. Which products produced through biotechnology do you use in your daily life?
Answer:

The simplest use of biotechnology that we practice at home is making curd and buttermilk.
The primary type of biotechnology is used in the process of fermentation while making food stuffs, like bread, idli-dosa, dhokla, etc.
Nowadays, different types of cheese, paneer, yoghurt, energy drinks, etc. are produced with the help of biotechnology. We are consuming these in our daily life.
Seedless grapes, papaya, and watermelons are available in the market these days.
Violet cabbage, yellow capsicum and exotic vegetables used for salad are also biotechnology products.
The vaccines, antibiotics and the injections of human insulin are in regular use in many house-holds.

b. Which precautions will you take during spraying of pesticides?
Answer:

Pesticides are toxic chemicals. By using them indiscriminately, they contaminate the water, soil and also crops.
The D.D.T., chloropyriphos and malathion are very dangerous. They spread through the food chain causing biomagnification.
Therefore, we shall not use such insecticides and pesticides. We shall use organic pesticides. Excessive use will be avoided.
At the time of spraying, nose, eyes and skin will be covered and protected.
Care will be taken not to allow children or domestic animals to come in, contact with a pesticide.

c. Why some of the organs in human body are most valuable?
Answer:

The body can be in best health,if all the vital organs of the body are also in the best condition.
Brain, kidney, heart, liver, etc. are some such vital organs which are most essential for proper metabolism and functioning of the body. The sense organs of the body are also of utmost importance, especially eyes.
One cannot survive if any of these vital organs are not functioning properly. Some of the organs like brain will never regenerate too.
Some of the organs can be brought back to functionality by performing surgeries. However, any problem with these vital organs make life miserable, therefore, they are said to be valuable.

d. Explain the importance of fruit processing in human life?
Answer:
(1) Fruits are perishable food stuff. They are spoilt soon if not consumed immediately. Hence for storage and usage for a long term, their preservation is absolutely essential.
(2) For year-long use of the fruits they are dried, salted, packed in air tight containers, used for preparing jams and jellies or condensed into pulps or syrups. Beverages, pickles, sauce, and various other products made from the fruits are largely used by us.
(3) The preserved products also fetch financial benefits.
(4) In national and international markets, Indian fruits like mangoes are in great demand. We can get foreign currency through exports of fruits and fruit products. The local horticulturists get good benefit from their orchards.
(5) Processed fruit products also give vitamins and minerals that help in maintaining good health. Thus fruit processing is important for human life.

e. Explain the meaning of vaccination.
Answer:

Vaccination is the administering of vaccine. Vaccine is the ‘antigen’, given to a person or even to animals for acquiring immunity against particular pathogens or diseases.
In olden days, vaccipes were prepared with the help of completely or partially killed pathogens. But this method causes some inconvenience. Some persons were allergic to such raw vaccines or they contracted the same disease through such vaccines.
Hence in recent times the vaccines are produced by using biotechnology. These vaccines are artificial which are synthesised in the laboratories.
The antigen is produced with the help of gene of the pathogen. Such vaccine becomes safe for administering.
These antigenic proteins are injected to people to make their immune systems strong. This process of vaccination is absolutely safe. The vaccines are more thermostable and active for a long period of time.

Question 6.
Complete the following chart.

Answer:

Question 7.
Write the correct answer in blank boxes.

Answer:

Question 8.
Identify and complete the following correlations:
a. Insulin : Diabetes : : Interleukin : …………….
Answer:
Insulin : Diabetes : : Interleukin : Cancer

b. Interferon : ………. : : Erythropoietin : Anaemia.
Answer:
Interferon : Viral infection : : Erythropoietin : Anaemia.

c. ……….. : Dwarfness : : Factor VIII : Haemophilia.
Answer:
Somatostatin : Dwarfness : : Factor VIII : Haemophilia.

d. White revolution : Dairy : : Blue revolution : ………
Answer:
White revolution : Dairy : : Blue revolution : Fishery

Question 9.
Write a comparative note on usefulness and harmfulness of biotechnology.
(OR)
“Biotechnology is not only beneficial but it has some harmful effects too”. Express your opinion about this statement.
Answer:
(1) Biotechnology has proved to be useful in the field of agriculture, medicine, clean technology and industrial products.
(2) Due to various biotechnological experiments, the food production is increased substantially. The milk and milk products are now freely available. People no longer die of hunger due to abundant food supply.
(3) The sophisticated vaccines have stopped the spread of epidemics.
(4) The diseases like diabetes can be controlled due to human insulin injections that can be manufactured by biotechnology.
(5) The problems of pollution control, solid waste management and fuels are partially tackled by biotechnological alternatives.
(6) Though all such positive aspects are there, the biotechnology also poses some problems. The genetic changes are breaking the principles of nature. By inserting human genes in bacteria or virus, the products that are needed only for humans are produced.
(7) Human cloning is also a debatable issue. It will cause social and ethical problems. The new generations formed by cloning will have mothers but no fathers. If man tries to manipulate the genomes of other living organisms, it will cause disturbances in the natural balance. The long ternT effects of all such genetic manipulations can be disastrous. Thus, according to some views, biotechnology can be dangerous too.

Projects: (Do it your self)

Project 1.
Visit the organic manuring projects nearby your place and collect more information.

Project 2.
What will you do to increase public awareness about organ donation in your area?

Project 3.
Collect information about ‘green corridor’. Make a news-collection about it.

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 88)

Question 1.
What is cell?
Answer:
The structural and functional unit of the body is called a cell.

Question 2.
What is tissue? What are the functions of tissue?
Answer:
Tissue is a group of cells that performs a similar and definite function. E.g. The muscular tissues in the body perform contraction and extensions thereby helping in locomotion. The conducting tissues of the plants like xylem and phloem transport the water and food respectively.

Question 3.
Which technique in relation to tissues have you studied in earlier classes?
Answer:
The technique of tissue culture and genetic engineering has been studied last year. Tissue culture is ‘Ex vivo growth of cells or tissues in an aseptic and nutrient-rich medium’. Genetic engineering and its use has also been studied under, ‘Introduction to biotechnology’.

Question 4.
Which are the various processes in tissue culture?
Answer:
Various step-wise processes are done while performing the-tissue culture. These processes are primary treatment, reproduction/cell division/multiplication, shooting or rooting, primary hardening, secondary hardening, etc.

Observe: (Text Book Page No. 88)

Question 1.
Assign names in the figure given below. Explain the various stages those are kept blank:

Answer:

Tissue Culture: Tissue culture is the technique in which ‘ex vivo growth of cells or tissues in an aseptic and nutrient-rich medium’ is done. While performing experiments of tissue culture, a liquid, solid or gel-like ” medium prepared from agar, is used. Such medium supplies nutrients and energy necessary for tissue culture technique. Different processes are to be done while performing tissue culture, viz. primary treatment, reproduction or multiplication, shooting and rooting, primary hardening, secondary hardening, etc. From the source plant, required tissues are taken out and all the processes are carried in an aseptic medium in laboratory.

(Use your brain power. (Text Book Page No. 89)

Question 1.
Just like the grafting in plants, is the organ transplantation possible in humans?
Answer:
The grafting as done in case of plants, cannot be done in human beings. But the transplantation of certain organs can be done. Liver, kidney, heart, eyes, etc. can be transplanted. But for these transplantations the donor and the recipient should match with each other in respect of their bloodr groups, age, disease condition, etc. In future, the stem cell research can bring about certain changes in the field of transplantations.

(Text Book Page No. 94)

Question 1.
What will happen if the transgenic potatoes are cooked before consumption?
Answer:
Some types of transgenic potatotes that contain edible vaccine against Hepatitis can be cooked. The cooking does not destroy the antigen incorporated into these transgenic potatoes. But according to some scientists, transgenic potatoes with enterotoxin vaccine, if cooked shows denaturation of vaccine.

Choose the correct alternative and write its alphabet against the sub-question number:

Question 1.
The property of stem cells is called ………….
(a) diversity
(b) equality
(c) differentiation
(d) pluripotency
Answer:
(d) pluripotency

Question 2.
Cell ……….. starts from 14^th day of conception.
(a) development
(b) specialization
(c) growth
(d) differentiation
Answer:
(d) differentiation

Question 3.
Availability of ………… is an important requirement in organ transplantation.
(a) doctor
(b) clinic
(c) donor
(d) ambulance
Answer:
(c) donor

Question 4.
The toxin which is lethal for ……….. was produced in leaves and bolls of BT cotton.
(a) bollworm
(b) locust
(c) birds
(d) frogs
Answer:
(a) bollworm

Question 5.
Transgenic raw potatoes generate the immunity against ………… disease.
(a) plague
(b) cholera
(c) leprosy
(d) TB
Answer:
(b) cholera

Rewrite the following wrong statements after corrections:

Question 1.
High-class varieties of crops have been developed through the technique of transplantation.
Answer:
High-class varieties of crops have been developed through the technique of tissue-culture.

Question 2.
Earlier, insulin was being collected from, the pancreas of pigs.
Answer:
Earlier, insulin was being collected from the- pancreas of horses.

Question 3.
Malaria arises due to genetic changes in hepatocytes.
Answer:
Phenylketonuria (PKT) arises due to genetic changes in hepatocytes.

Question 4.
The E.coli bacteria are useful for cleaning the hydrocarbon and oil pollutants from soil and water.
Answer:
The Pseudomonas bacteria are useful for cleaning the hydrocarbon and oil pollutants from soil and water.

Question 5.
Various essential elements like N, P, K are removed and hence become unavailable to the crops due to earthworms and fungi.
Answer:
Various essential elements like N, P, K become available to crops due to earthworms and fungi.

Question 6.
We do not have any tradition that cures the diseases with the help of natural resources.
Answer:
We have a great tradition of ayurveda that cures the diseases with the help of natural resources.

Match the pairs:

Question 1.

Scientist	Contribution
(1) Dr. Anand Mohan Chakravarti	(a) Wheat production in America
(2) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan	(b) White revolution
	(c) Green revolution in India
	(d) Cleaning the oil spill

Answer:
(1) Dr. Anand Mohan Chakravarti – Cleaning the oil spill
(2) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan – Green revolution in India

Question 2.

Organism	Substance that is absorbed
(1) Pseudomonas	(a) Uranium and arsenic
(2) Pteris vitata	(b) Selenium
	(c) Arsenic
	(d) Hydrocarbons

Answer:
(1) Pseudomonas – Hydrocarbons
(2) Pteris vitata – Arsenic

Find the odd man out:

Question 1.
Green revolution, Industrial revolution, White revolution, Blue revolution
Answer:
Industrial revolution. (All others are concerned with food.)

Question 2.
DDT, malathion, chloropyriphos, Humus
Answer:
Humus. (All others are insecticides.)

Question 3.
Sodium, Aluminium, Potassium, Phosphorus
Answer:
Aluminium. (All others are essential elements for plant growth.)

Question 4.
Diabetes, Anaemia, Leukaemia, Thalassemia
Answer:
Diabetes. (All other diseases involve reduction in the number of blood cells.)

Question 5.
Drying, Salting, Cooking, Soaking with sugar
Answer:
Cooking. (All others are food preservative methods.)

Identify and complete the following correlations:

Question 1.
White revolution : Increase in dairy production : : Green revolution : ………. (March 2019)
Answer:
White revolution : Increase in dairy production : : Green revolution : Increase in agricultural production or crop yield

Question 2.
Nostoc, Anabaena : Biofertilizers : : Alfalfa : ………..
Answer:
Nostoc, Anabaena : Biofertilizers : : Alfalfa : Phytoremediation.

Give definition/Give meanings:

Question 1.
Stem cell or what are stem cells?
Answer:
The special cells having pluripotency and ability to divide and differentiate into new cells are called stem cells. They are present in multicellular living beings.

Question 2.
Biotechnology.
Answer:
Technology that brings about artificial genetic changes and hybridization in organisms for human welfare is called biotechnology.

Question 3.
Genetically modified crops.
Answer:
Crops having desired characters are developed by integrating foreign gene with their genome, such crops have modified genome and are known as genetically modified crops.

Question 4.
Golden rice.
Answer:
Biotechnologically developed variety of rice in which gene synthesizing the vitamin A (Beta carotene) has been incorporated and which contains 23 times more amount of beta carotene than that of the normal variety is called golden rice. It was developed in 2005.

Question 5.
Vaccine.
Answer:
The ‘antigen’ containing material given to a person or animal to acquire either permanent or temporary immunity against a specific pathogen or disease is called a vaccine.

Question 6.
Cloning.
Answer:
Production of replica of any cell or organ or entire organism through biotechnological process is called cloning.

Question 7.
DNA fingerprint.
Answer:
The nucleotide sequence present on the DNA of each person is unique just like the fingerprint, thus for establishing the identity of any person DNA can be analysed, this technique is known as DNA fingerprinting.

Question 8.
Green revolution.
Answer:
All the methods applied for harvesting maximum yield from minimum land are collectively referred to as green revolution.

Question 9.
White revolution.
Answer:
Achieving the self-sufficiency in dairy business, by performing various experiments for quality control, bringing about newer dairy products and their preservation and thus raising economic standards is called white revolution.

Question 10.
Blue revolution.
Answer:
The aquaculture practices to increase the yield of edible aquatic organisms is called blue revolution.

Name the following:

Question 1.
Research institutes involved with cell science.
Answer:

National Centre of Cell Science, Pune
Instem, Bengaluru.

Question 2.
Sources of stem cells.
Answer:

Umbilical cord
Embryonic cells
Redbone marrow
Adipose connective tissue and blood of adult human being.

Question 3.
Types of Stem cells.
Answer:

Embryonic stem cells
Adult stem cells.

Question 4.
Organs that can be donated.
Answer:
Eyes, heart, pancreas, liver, kidneys, skin, J bones, lungs.

Question 5.
Organisms used as biofertilizers.
Answer:
Rhizobium, Azotobacter, Nostoc, Anabaena, Azolla.

Question 6.
Two main methods used in animal husbandry.
Answer:

Artificial insemination
Embryo transfer.

Question 7.
Two important aspects of human health management.
Answer:

Diagnosis
Treatment of diseases.

Question 8.
Place where DNA fingerprinting research is done in India.
Answer:
Centre of DNA fingerprinting and Diagnostics, Hyderabad.

Question 9.
One benefit of biotechnology to the agriculture.
Answer:
Expenses on the pesticides are reduced.

scientific reasons:

Question 1.
Nowadays, safer vaccines are being produced.
Answer:

Before the advent of biotechnology, the vaccines were made from inactive or dead pathogens of that disease.
But now the vaccine is made artificially using biotechnological processes.
Such vaccines produced some disease symptoms in some cases.
The antigen of the disease is researched upon and its genetic code is found out.
A similar antigen is made in the laboratories which is used as a vaccine.
Such vaccines are more thermostable and remain active for longer duration. Therefore, the vaccines are now safer.

Question 2.
Awareness about organ donation after death is increasing.
Answer:

Due to accidents or illness, some of the vital organs may get damaged and may not work to fullest capacity.
In such cases, if organ transplantation is done, it will be very helpful for that needy patient.
The dead person’s organs can be used for organ transplantation and a life can be saved.
Many government and social organizations are spreading awareness about such donations. Therefore, gradually the awareness about organ transplantation is increasing.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Write two uses of biotechnology related to human health. (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Answer:

Biotechnology is used to manufacture vaccines for controlling diseases.
Different hormones such as insulin, somatotropin and somatostatin can be prepared in laboratories by using new biotechnological processes. The clotting factors are also manufactured through such techniques.

Question 2.
Answer the following questions:
(a) What is biotechnology?
(b) Explain any two commercial applications of it. (March 2019)
Answer:
(a) Biotechnology: Technology that brings about artificial genetic changes and hybridization in organisms for human welfare is called biotechnology.

(b)

The treatment and prevention of diseases need hormones, interferons, antibiotics and different vaccine which are now manufactured through biotechnology. Gene therapy is also used to treat hereditary disorders.
Industrial products and clean technology to combat environmental pollution uses biotechnology practices.
DNA fingerprinting has revolutionized the profession of forensic science.

Question 3.
What is mainly included under biotechnology?
Answer:
Biotechnology includes the following main areas:

Abilities of microbes are used in producing yoghurt from milk and making alcohol from molasses.
Production of antibiotics and vaccines, etc. is carried out by with the help of specific cells using their productivity.
Bio-molecules like DNA and proteins are used for human welfare.
By performing gene manipulation, plants, animals and products of desired quality are produced. Genetically modified bacteria are used to produce human hormones such as Human Growth Hormone and insulin.
Tissue culture is a non-genetic technique which is used for production of new cells or tissues. Hybrid seeds are also produced in a similar way.

Question 4.
What are edible vaccines?
Answer:

Edible vaccines are those which are given as a food by incorporating them into the food-stuff.
Such edible vaccines are produced through biotechnology.
Transgenic potatoes are produced with the help of biotechnology which contain vaccine that act against bacteria like Vibrio cholera, Escherichiatoli.
If raw potatoes are consumed, then the immunity is generated in the body of a person. However, eating only raw potatoes generates the immunity against cholera and the disease caused due to E. coli.

Question 5.
What is DNA fingerprinting? Explain it in brief. Where is this technique used? Give any two examples. (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Answer:

As the fingerprints are unique for every individual, similarly the nucleotide sequence in the DNA molecule is also unique.
By knowing this sequence, one can find out the identity of any person. Such technique to establish the identity of a person by taking into consideration the nucleotide sequence is called DNA fingerprinting.
Its main use is in forensic sciences to confirm the identity of the criminal.
Similarly, identity of parents in case of disputed parentage for any child can be understood by taking DNA fingerprints of both the parents and a child.

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Uses of stem cells.
Answer:
Stem cells are used for following purposes:

In regenerative therapy stem cells are used.
In case of diseased conditions like diabetes, myocardial infarction, Alzheimer’s disease, Parkinson’s disease, etc., stem cells can be used to replace the damaged or functionless cells.
In conditions such as anaemia, thalassaemia, leukaemia, etc. there is always the need of newer blood cells. Here, stem cells can be used to restore the number of blood cells.
In techniques of organ transplantation stem cells can be used and they can help in the transplantation of new organs such as kidney and liver The defective organs can be replaced by those that are produced with the help of stem cells and transplanted.

Question 2.
Cloning.
Answer:

Cloning is the modern technique in which there is production of replica of any cell or organ or entire organism is done.
There are two types of cloning, viz. (i) Reproductive cloning and (ii) Therapeutic cloning.
Reproductive cloning: In reproductive cloning, a clone is produced by fusion of a nucleus of diploid somatic cell with the enucleated ovum of anybody. In the process, the sperm or male gamete is not needed.
Therapeutic cloning: This technique is largely used for treatment purpose. Stem cells are derived from the cell formed in laboratory by the union of somatic cell nucleus with the enucleated egg cell.
This technique is used for therapy of various diseases.
Gene cloning can also be done to form millions of copies of same gene. Such genes are used for gene therapy and other purposes.
Due to cloning technique, the inheritance of hereditary diseases can be controlled, continuation of generations can be achieved and certain characteristic genes can be enhanced.
However, for human cloning, there is world-wide opposition due to ethical reasons.

Question 3.
Dolly.
Answer:

Dolly was the first mammalian cloned sheep.
Dolly was born on 5th July 1996 in Scotland by the process of cloning.
The Finn Dorset sheep was chosen and her diploid nucleus from the udder cell was introduced into the ovum whose haploid nucleus was removed. This enucleated ovum was of Scottish sheep.
The egg was then introduced into uterus of another Scottish sheep and it grew into Dolly.
Dolly resembled exactly like Finn Dorset sheep whose diploid nucleus was used. None of the characters of Scottish sheep were seen in Dolly.
In this way, Dolly had three mothers but no father.
Dolly gave birth to many young ones. She died on 14th February 2003 due to cancer of the lungs.

Question 4.
Green revolution.
Answer:

In agriculture, different methods used to harvest maximum yield from minimum land, these methods are collectively called green revolution.
Dr. M.S. Swaminathan is called father of Green Revolution in India while Dr. Norman Borlaug has done the similar efforts in the U.S.
Before the Green Revolution in India, there was always the dearth of the food grains. The overflowing Indian population was badly affected due to poor quality and quantity of food.
But due to the Green Revolution in India, attention was focussed on the agricultural research.
Improvised dwarf varieties of wheat and rice, proper use of fertilizers and pesticides and water management were the proper methods that increased production of food grains.
This created abundance of the grains for Indian population.

Question 5.
White revolution.
Answer:

Few years back, there was scarcity of milk in various parts of India. At some places, milk and milk products were abundant but they did not reach all the consumers.
Dr. Verghese Kurien ^ho was then the founder director of Anand Milk Union Limited (AMUL) started thecooperative movement in the direction to produce “operation flood”, i.e. abundance of milk everywhere.
The use of biotechnology was also done to increase the milk production.
Dr. Kurien’s efforts have reached all-time high status as India is now self-sufficient in dairy business.
This is popularly known as White Revolution. Different experiments were performed for quality control, newer dairy products were thought off and preservation methods were improved.
This created White Revolution. AMUL from Anand has now reached international standards.

Question 6.
Blue Revolution.
Answer:

Utilization of aquaculture practices for obtaining edible and commercial aquatic organisms is called blue revolution.
In East Asian countries where water bodies and fish population is abundant, the aquaculture was started.
On similar lines, in India, the aquaculture of different fresh water and marine organisms is being done with the help of fishery scientists.
Government of India has vowed to increase the aquaculture production by encouraging the people for aquaculture by launching the program ‘Nil- Kranti Mission-2016’ (NKM-16).
Pisciculutre is culturing of fish, mariculture is culture of marine organisms such as prawns/shrimps and lobsters. Sea weeds, oysters, clams are also cultured.
For carrying out aquaculture, 50% to 100% subsidies are offered by the Government.
Fresh water fishes like rohu, catla and other edible varieties like shrimp and lobsters are being cultured on a large scale which can bring about Blue Revolution.

Complete the paragraph by choosing the appropriate words given in the bracket:

Question 1.
(degenerated, red bone marrow, adipose connective tissue, blastocyst, umbilical cord, Differentiation)
………… of stem cells form can form various tissues, in the body. Stem cells are present in the ………….. by which the foetus is joined to the uterus of the mother. Stem cells are also present in the ……….. stage of embryonic development. Stem cells are present in ……….. and ………… of adult human beings. It has become possible to produce different types of tissues and the ……… part of any organ with the help of these stem cells.
Answer:
Differentiation of stem cells form can form various tissues in the body. Stem cells are present in the umbilical cord by which the foetus is joined to the uterus of the mother. Stem cells are also present in the blastocyst stage of embryonic development. Stem cells are present in red bone marrow and adipose connective tissue of adult human beings. It has become possible to produce different types of tissues and the degenerated part of any organ with the help of these stem cells.

Paragraph-based questions :

1. Green corridor refers to a special road route that enables harvested organs meant for transplants to reach the destined hospital. A 45-year-old woman, a victim of a railway accident, was declared brain dead, her husband and children agreed to donate her kidneys, liver and heart. One of her kidneys was transplanted to a patient in MGM Hospital and the second kidney helped a patient in Jaslok hospital. Her liver helped the transplant of a patient in Wockhardt Hospital. And her heart was sent to Fortis to the patient on a super urgent priority list, transported via a green corridor covering 18km in less than 16 minutes. This was possible due to Green corridor.
Questions and Answers :

Question 1.
What is Green corridor?
Answer:
Green corridor is a special road route that enables harvested organs meant for transplants to reach the destined hospital

Question 2.
Which organs of brain-dead lady were transplanted?
Answer:
Two kidneys, liver and heart of the brain- dead lady were transplanted.

Question 3.
How many lives were saved from organs of one lady?
Answer:
Four patients lives were saved due to organ donation of one lady.

Question 4.
How was distance of 18km covered in 16 minutes? Why?
Answer:
The distance was covered because the concept of Green corridor was applied. The heart was sent from one hospital to another, where the recipient was kept ready. The quick transportation is necessary to keep heart in living condition.

Question 5.
Who takes the decision to donate the organs?
Answer:
The close relatives of deceased person take the decision to donate the organs.

2. Read the following extract and answer the questions that follow: (March 2019)
A liberal view behind the concept of organ and body donation is that after death our body should be useful to other needful persons so that their miserable life would become comfortable. Awareness about these concepts is. increasing in our country and people are voluntarily donating their bodies.

Life of many people can be saved by organ and body donation. Blinds can regain their vision. Life of many people can be rendered comfortable by donation of organs like liver, kidneys, heart, heart valves, skin, etc. Similarly, body can be made available for research in medical studies. Many government and social organizations are working towards increasing the awareness about body donation.
Questions and Answers :

Question 1.
What is the liberal view behind the organ and body donation?
Answer:
By body donation, research in medical studies is possible. The needy persons can get vital organs which can save their lives.

Question 2.
Name any four organs that can be donated.
Answer:
Liver, Kidneys, heart, eyes, skin, etc. can be donated.

Complete the following table:

Question 1.

Plant/Microbes	Functions
(1) Pteris vitata	______________________________
(2) Pseudomonas	______________________________
(3) ______________________________	Absorption of uranium and arsenic
(4) ______________________________	Absorption of radiations of nuclear waste

Answer:

Plant/Microbes	Functions
(1) Pteris vitata	Absorbs arsenic from soil.
(2) Pseudomonas	Separates hydrocarbon and oil from water and soil
(3) Sunflower	Absorption of uranium and arsenic
(4) Deinococcus radiodurans	Absorption of radiations of nuclear waste

Diagram/chart based questions:

Question 1.

(A) Which process is shown in the above figure? *
Answer:
The figure shows process to make transgenic

(B) Describe in brief the steps I, II, III and IV.
Answer:

Question 2.
Draw well labelled diagram of Stem cell therapy.
Answer:

Question 3.
Label the following diagram :
(i) Stem cells and organ transplantation,
Answer:

(ii) Organs that can be donated:
Answer:

Question 4.
(i) Which therapy is shown in the Fig. 8.5?

(ii) Which will be possible benefits of this therapy in organ transplantation ?
Answer:
(i) The figure 8.5 shows the ‘regenerative therapy’ using stem cells. Also called stem cell therapy.
(ii) With the help of above therapy organs like liver, kidney from stem cells can be redeveloped to replace the failed ones.

Activity based questions:

Question 1.
Bring a packet of ‘Balghuti’ from ayurveda shop. Learn the information about each component in it. Collect information about various other medicines and prepare the chart as shown below. (Try this: Textbook page no. 99)
Answer:

Question 2.
Give five examples of each of the fruiting and flowering plants developed through tissue culture and mention their benefits. (Make a list and discuss: Textbook page no. 93)
Answer:
I. Fruiting trees: Banana, Chikoo (Sapota), Tomato, Fig, Pineapple.

II. Flowering trees: Orchids, Roses, Chrysanthemum, Gerbera, Begonia, Carnation, Lili. Benefits of such plants may be varied. Mostly fruits developed are made seedless and tastier.

III. Benefits of plants produced through technique of tissue culture:

Techniques of tissue culture can produce more copies of same plant with better characters. ’ The plant grower likes to have bigger and more fruits from fruit trees. On the flowering trees, colourful flowers with good fragrance are favoured.
Plants which do not depend on particular climate and local seasonal changes are produced by tissue culture methods. This helps to rise the yield in an area which otherwise may not produce a specific crop.
For tissue culture, saplings and seedlings are made available throughout the year through laboratory. The limitations of getting natural seeds are not there thus planting can be done throughout the year.
Tissue culture techniques create the plants of uniform size, shape and yield. Since they are exactly alike, it becomes beneficial.
In lesser time period, the crops reach maturity.
The crops are pest and disease resistant.
Tissue culture techniques are cost effective and easy to carry out.

Question 3.
Which new species of the rice have been developed in India? (Collect Information: Textbook page no. 97)
Answer:

Species in 2015-16: High zinc species (DRR Dhan 45), Pusa 1592, Punjab basmati 3, Pusa 1609, Telangana Sona.
Species in 2014: CR Dhan 205, CR Dhan 306, CRR, 451.

Question 4.
Discuss about stem cells and organ transplantation in the class with the help of figures given on textbook page no. 90. (Observe: Textbook page no. 90)
Answer:

Organ transplantation:
Various organs in the human body either become less efficient or completely functionless due to various reasons like aging, accidents, infections, disorders, etc. Life of such person becomes difficult or even fatality may occur under such conditions. However, if a person gets the necessary organ under such conditions, its life can be saved.

Availability of donor is an important requirement in organ transplantation. Each person has a pair of kidneys. As the process of excretion can occur with the help of single kidney, person can donate another one. Similarly, skin from certain parts of the body can also be donated.

Various factors like blood group, diseases, disorders, age, etc. of the donor and recipient need to be paid attention during transplantation.

However, other organs cannot be donated during life time. Organs like liver, heart, eyes can be donated after death only. This has lead to the emergence of concepts like posthumous (after death) donation of body and organs.

Organ and Body Donation: human bodies are disposed off after death as per traditional customs. However due to progress in science, it has been realized that many organs remain functional for certain period even after death occurs under specific conditions. Concepts like organ donation and body donation have emerged recently after realization that such organs can be used to save the life of other needful persons. A liberal view behind the concept of organ and body donation is that after death, our body should be useful to other needful persons so that their miserable life would become comfortable. Awareness about these concepts is increasing in our country and people are voluntarily donating their bodies.

Life of many people can be saved by organ and body donation. Blinds can regain the vision. Life of many people can be rendered comfortable by donation of organs like liver, kidneys, heart, heart valves, skin. etc. Similarly, body can be made available for research in medical studies. Many government and social organizations are working towards increasing the awareness about body donation.

Question 5.
Which fruits processing industries you observe in your surrounding? What is their effect? (Make a list and discuss: Textbook page no. 99)
Answer:

Fruit Processing:
we are daily using various products prepared from fruits. All are consuming the products like chocolates, juices, jams and jellies. All these products can be produced by processing on fruits. Fruits are perishable agro-produce. It needs the processing in such a way that it can be used throughout the year. Fruit processing includes various methods ranging from storage in cold storage to drying, salting, air tight pucking, preparing murabba, evaporating, etc.

Projects: (Do it your self)

Project 1.
Collect information about various hybrid varieties of animals. What are their benefits? Make a presentation of various pictures and videos. (Use of ICT: Textbook page no. 93)

Project 2.
Visit the websites: http://www.who.int/transplantation/organ/en/ and www.organindia.org / approaching-the- transplant/and collect more information about ‘brain dead’, organ donation and body donation (Internet is my friend: Textbook page no. 90)

Project 3.
Collect more information about the Human Genome Project, one of the important projects in the world.
(Internet is my friend: Textbook page no. 95)

Project 4.
Collect the information and make the chart about the work of various state and national-level institutes related with biotechnology. (Internet is my friend: Textbook page no. 97)

10th Std Science Part 2 Questions And Answers:

Effects of Electric Current Class 10 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

January 6, 2025January 5, 2025 by Bhagya

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 4 Effects of Electric Current Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 10 Science Part 1 Chapter 4 Effects of Electric Current Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Class 10 Science Part 1 Chapter 4 Effects of Electric Current Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Class 10 Science 1 Chapter 4 Effects Of Electric Current Exercise Question 1.
Tell the odd one out. Give proper explanation.
a. Fuse wire, bud conductor, rubber gloves, generator.
Answer:
Generator. It converts mechanical energy into electric energy, the remaining three do not.

b. Voltmeter, Ammeter, gulvanometer, thermometer.
Answer:
Thermometer. It measures temperature, the remaining three measure electrical quantities.

c. Loud speaker, microphone, electric motor, magnet.
Answer:
Magnet. It exerts a force on a magnetic material, the remaining three convert one form of energy into another.

4 Effects Of Electric Current Exercise Question 2.
Explain the construction and working of the following. Draw a neat diagram and label it.
a. Electric motor
Answer:
Figure shows the construction of an electric motor. Here, a rectangular loop ABCD of copper wire with resistive coating is placed between the north pole and south pole or a strong magnet, such as a horseshoe magnet, such that the branches AB and CD are perpendicular to the direction of the magnetic field. The ends of the loop are connected to the two halves, X and Y, of split rings X and Y have resistive coating on their inner surfaces and are tightly fitted on the axle. The outer conducting surfaces of X and Y are in contact with two stationary carbon brushes, E and F, respectively.

Working:
1. When the circuit is completed with a plug key or switch, the current flows in the direction E → A → B → C → D → F. As the magnetic field is directed from the north pole to the south pole, the force on AB is downward and that on CD is upward by Fleming’s left hand rule. Hence, AB moves downward and CD upward. These forces are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction. Therefore, as observed from the side AD, the loop ABCD and the axle start rotating in anticlockwise direction.

2. After half a rotation, X and Y come in contact with brushes F and E respectively and the current flows in the direction EDCBAF. Hence the force on CD is downward and that on AB is upward. Therefore, the loop and the axle continue to rotate in the anticlockwise direction.

3. After every half rotation, the current in the loop is reversed and the loop and the axle continue to rotate in anti clockwise direction. When the current is switched off, the loop stops rotating after some time.

b. Electric Generator (AC)
Answer:
Figure shows the construction of an AC electric generator. Here, a coil ABCD of copper wire is kept between the pole pieces (N and S) of a strong magnet. The ends of the coil are connected to the conducting rings R₁ and R₂ via carbon brushes B₁ and B₂. The rings are fixed to the axle and there is a resistive coating in between the rings and the axle. The stationary brushes are connected to a galvanometer used to show the direction of the current in the circuit.

Working:
When the axle is rotated with a machine from outside, the coil ABCD starts rotating. Suppose the coil rotates in clockwise direction, as observed from the side AD. Then as the branch AB moves upward, the branch CD moves downward. By Fleming’s right hand rule, the induced current flows in the direction A → B → C → D and in the external circuit, it flows from B2 to B, through the galvanometer. The induced current is proportional to the number of turns of the copper wire in the coil.

After half a rotation, AB and CD interchange their places. Hence, the induced current flows in the direction D → C → B → A. As AB is always in contact with B₁ and CD is in contact with B₂, the current in the external circuit flows from B₁ to B₂ through the galvanometer. Thus, the direction of the current is the external circuit is opposite to that in the previous half rotation. The process goes on repeating and alternating current is generated.

4 Effects Of Electric Current Question 3.
Electromagnetic induction means
a. Charging of an electric conductor.
b. Production of magnetic field due to a current flowing through a coil.
c. Generation of a current in a coil due to relative motion between the coil and the magnet.
d. Motion of the coil around the axle in an electric motor.
Answer:
c. Generation of a current in a coil due to relative motion between the coil and the magnet.

Electric Current Question 4.
4. Explain the difference: AC generator and DC generator.
Answer:
AC generator:

In an AC generator, the rings used are not split.
The direction of the current produced reverses after equal intervals of time.

DC generator:

In a DC generator, split rings are used.
The current produced flows in the same direction all the time.

Question 5.
Which device is used to produce electricity? Describe with a neat diagram.
(1) Electric motor
(2) Galvanometer
(3) Electric generator (DC)
(4) Voltmeter
Answer:
Electric generator (DC).

Figure shows the construction of a DC generator.
Working: The axle is rotated with a machine from outside. When the armature coil of the generator rotates in the magnetic field, electric potential difference is produced in the coil due to electromagnetic induction. This produces a current as shown by the glowing of the bulb or by a galvanometer. The direction of the current depends on the sense of rotation of the coil.

In a DC generator, one brush is always in contact with the arm of the coil moving up while the other brush is in contact with the arm of the coil moving down in the magnetic field. Hence, the flow of the current in the circuit is always in the same direction and the current flows so long as the coil continues to rotate in the magnetic field.

[Note In the case of a DC generator, the current is in the same direction during both the halves of the rotation of the coil. The magnitude of the current does vary periodically with time. In this respect, it differs from the current supplied by an electric cell.]

Question 6.
How does the short circuit form? What is its effect?
Answer:
If a bare live wire (phase wire) and a bare neutral wire touch each other (come in direct contact) or come very close to each other, the resistance of the circuit becomes very small and hence huge (very high) electric current flows through it. This condition is called a short circuit or short circuiting.

In this case, a large amount of heat is produced and the temperature of the components involved becomes very high. Hence, the circuit catches fire.

Question 7.
Give scientific reasons:
a. Tungsten is used to make a solenoid type coil in an electric bulb.
Answer:
1. The intensity of light emitted by the filament of a bulb depends on the temperature of the filament. It increases with the temperature.

2. The melting point of the material used to make the filament of a bulb should be very high so that the filament can be heated to a high temperature by passing a current through it, without melting it. This enables us to obtain more light. The melting point of tungsten is very high.

Hence, tungsten is used to make a solenoid type coil (filament) in an electric bulb.

b. In the electric equipment producing heat e.g. iron, electric heater, boiler, toaster, etc. an alloy such as Nichrome is used, not pure metals.
Answer:
1. The working of heating devices such as a toaster and an electric iron is based on the heating effect of electric current, i.e., conversion of electric energy into heat by passage of electric current through a metallic conductor.

2. An alloy, such as Nichrome, has high resistivity and it can be heated to a high temperature without oxidation, in contrast to pure metals. Therefore, the coils in heating devices such as a toaster and an electric iron are made of an alloy, such as Nichrome, rather than a pure metal.

c. For electric power transmission, copper or aluminium wire is used.
Answer:
1. Copper and aluminium are good conductors of electricity.

2. Copper, and aluminium have very low resistivity. Hence, when an electric current flows through a wire of copper or aluminium, heat produced is comparatively low. Therefore, for electric power transmission, copper or aluminium wire is used.

d. In practice the unit kWh is used for the measurement of electric energy, rather than the joule.
Answer:
(1) If an electric device rated 230 V, 5 A is operated for one hour, electric energy used
= VIt = 230 V × 5 A × 3600 s = 4140000 joules.

(2) If this energy is expressed in kW.h, it will be \(\frac{4140000}{3.6 \times 10^{6}}\) kW·h = 1.15 kW·h (more convenient). 3.6 × 10⁶
Hence, in practice the unit kW·h is used for the measurement of electric energy, rather than the joule.

Question 8.
Which of the statements given below correctly describes the magnetic field near a long, straight current-carrying conductor?
(1) The magnetic lines of force are in a plane, perpendicular to the conductor in the form of straight lines.
(2) The magnetic lines of force are parallel to the conductor on all the sides of conductor.
(3) The magnetic lines of force are perpendicular to the conductor going radially outward.
(4) The magnetic lines of force are in concentric circles with the wire as the center, in a plane perpendicular to the conductor.
Answer:
The magnetic lines of force are in concentric circles with the wire as the centre, in a plane perpendicular to the conductor.

Question 9.
What is a solenoid? Compare the magnetic field produced by a solenoid with the magnetic field of a bar magnet. Draw neat figures and name various components.
Answer:
When a copper wire with a resistive coating is wound in a chain of loops (like a spring), it is called a solenoid.

Magnetic lines of force (magnetic field lines) due to a current carrying solenoid.
B: Battery, K: Plug key, I: Current, N: North pole, S: South pole

The magnetic field lines (magnetic lines of force) due to a current-carrying solenoid are similar to those of a bar magnet. One face of the coil acts as the south pole and the other face as the north pole.

[Note: A current-carrying coil, like a magnet, can be used to magnetise the rod of a given material such as carbon steel or chromium steel. With a strong megnetic field, permanent magnetism can be produced in these materials.]

Question 10.
Name the following diagrams and explain the concept behind them.

Answer:
(a) Fleming’s right hand rule:
Answer:
Stretch the thumb, the index finger and the middle finger of the right hand in such a way that they are perpendicular to each other. In this position, the thumb indicates the direction of the motion of the conductor, the index finger the direction of the magnetic field, and the middle finger shows the direction of the induced current.

[Note The induced current is maximum when the direction of motion of the conductor is at right angles to the magnetic field. ]

(b) Fleming’s left hand rule: The left hand thumb, index finger, and the middle finger are stretched so as to be perpendicular to each other. If the index finger is in the direction of the magnetic field, and the middle finger points in the direction of the current, then the direction of the thumb in the direction of the force on the conductor.

[Note: A magnetic field exerts a force on a current-carrying conductor. Electric current is the time rate of flow of electric charge. Thus, a magnetic field exerts a force on a moving charge. This property is used to accelerate charged particles such as protons, deuterons and alpha particles, as well as electrons, to very high energies. A machine used for this purpose is called a charged particle accelerator. It may be linear or circular in design and very big in size. Such high energy particles are used to study the structure of matter. ]

Question 11.
Identify the figures and explain their use.

Answer:
(a) Fuse:
A fuse protects electrical circuits and appliances by stopping the flow of electric current when it exceeds a specified value. For this, it is connected in series with the appliance (or circuit) to be protected. A fuse is a piece of wire made of an alloy of low melting point (e.g. an alloy of lead and tin). If a current larger than the specified value flows through the fuse, its temperature increases enough to melt it. Hence, the circuit breaks and the appliance is protected from damage.

[Note : The fuse wire is usually enclosed in a cartridge of an insulator such as glass or porcelain provided with metal caps. The current rating (such as 1 A, 2 A) may be printed on the cartridge. ]

(b) Miniature circuit breaker:
These days miniature circuit breaker (MCB) switches are used in homes. When the current in the circuit suddenly increases this switch opens and current stops. Different types of MCBs are in use. For the entire house, however the usual fuse wire is used.

(c) Figure shows the construction of a DC generator.

Here, an ammeter is shown instead of a bulb.
Working: The axle is rotated with a machine from outside. When the armature coil of the generator rotates in the magnetic field, electric potential difference is produced in the coil due to electromagnetic induction. This produces a current as shown by the glowing of the bulb or by a galvanometer. The direction of the current depends on the sense of rotation of the coil.

Question 12.
Solve the following examples.
a. Heat energy is being produced in a resistance in a circuit at the rate of 100 W. The current of 3 A is flowing in the circuit. What must be the value of the resistance?
Solution:
Data: P = 100 W, I = 3 A, R = ?, P = I²R
∴ Resistance, R = \(\frac{P}{I^{2}}=\frac{100 \mathrm{W}}{(3 \mathrm{A})^{2}}=\frac{100}{9} \Omega\) = 11.11 Ω

b. Two tungsten bulbs of wattage 100 W and 60 W power work on 220 V potential difference. If they are connected in parallel, how much current will flow in the main conductor?
Solution:
Data : P₁ = 100 W, P₂ = 60 W, V = 220 V,
I = ?, ∴ I = \(\frac{P}{V}\)
P = VI
∴ I₁ = \(\frac{P_{1}}{V}\) and I₂ = \(\frac{P_{2}}{V}\)
Current in the main conductor, I = I₁ + I₂ (parallel connection)

c. Who will spend more electrical energy? 500 W TV set in 30 mins, or 600 W heater in 20 mins?
Solution:
Data : P₁ = 500 W, t₁ = 30 min = \(\frac{30}{60}\) h
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) h, P₂ = 600 W, t₂ = 20 min = \(\frac{20}{60}\) h = \(\frac{1}{3}\) h
Electrical energy used = Pt
TV set : P₁t₁ = 500 W × \(\frac{1}{2}\) h = 250 W·h
Heater : P₂t₂ = 600 W × \(\frac{1}{3}\) h = 200 W·h
Thus, the TV set will spend more electrical energy than the heater.

d. An electric iron of 1100 W is operated for 2 hours daily. What will be the electrical consumption expenses for that in the month of April? (The electric company charges ₹ 5 per unit of energy.)
Solution:
Data: P = 1100 W, t = 2 × 30 = 60 h,
₹ 5 per unit of energy, expenses = ?

∴ Electrical consumption expenses = 66 units × ₹ 5 per unit = ₹ 330.

Project:
Do it your self.
Project 1.
Under the guidance of your teachers, make a ‘free-energy generator’.

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 47)

Question 1.
How do we decide that a given material is a good conductor of electricity or is an insulator?
Answer:
A material which has very low electrical resistance is called a good conductor of electricity. Examples: silver, copper, aluminium.
A material which has extremely high electrical resistance is called an insulator of electricity. Examples: rubber, wood, glass.

Question 2.
Iron is a conductor of electricity, but when we pick up a piece of iron resting on the ground, why don’t we get electric shock?
Answer:
When we pick up a piece of iron resting on the ground, we don’t get electric shock because that piece does not carry any electric current at that time.

Use your brain power! (Text Book Page No. 48)

Question 1.
If in the circuit, the resistor is replaced by a motor, in which form will the energy given by the cell get transformed into?
Answer:
The energy given by the cell will get transformed into the kinetic energy of the copper coil in the motor.

Use your brain power! (Text Book Page No. 60)

Question 1.
Draw the diagram of a DC generator. Then explain as to how the DC current is obtained.
Answer:
Figure shows the construction of a DC generator.

Working:
The axle is rotated with a machine from outside. When the armature coil of the generator rotates in the magnetic field, electric potential difference is produced in the coil due to electromagnetic induction. This produces a current as shown by the glowing of the bulb or by a galvanometer. The direction of the current depends on the sense of rotation of the coil.

Fill in the blanks and rewrite the completed statements:

Question 1.
Electric power = V2/…….
Answer:
Electric power = \(\frac{V^{2}}{R}\)

Question 2.
……….= 1 joule/1 second.
Answer:
1 watt = 1 joule /1 second.

Question 3.
1 kW.h =………J.
Answer:
1 kW.h = 3.6 x 10⁶ J.

Question 4.
According to Joule’s law, quantity of heat (H) produced by an electric current =……….
Answer:
According to Joule’s law, quantity of heat (H) produced by an electric current = I²Rt or VIt or \(\frac{V^{2}}{R}\)t

Question 5.
Magnetic effect of electric current was dicovered by………..
Answer:
Magnetic effect of electric current was dicovered by Hans Christian Oersted.

Question 6.
………..is expressed in oersted.
Answer:
Intensity of magnetic field is expressed in oersted.

Question 7.
Electromagnetic induction was discovered by………..
Answer:
Electromagnetic induction was discovered by Michael Faraday and independently by Joseph Henry.

Question 8.
A galvanometer is used for………
Answer:
A galvanometer is used for detecting the presence of current in a circuit, as well as for some electrical measurements.

Question 9.
In India, the frequency of alternating current is……….
Answer:
In India, the frequency of alternating current is 50 Hz or 50 cycles per second.

Question 10.
Electric motor converts electric energy into………energy.
Answer:
Electric motor converts electric energy into mechanical energy.

Question 11.
Electric generator converts………..energy into electric energy.
Answer:
Electric generator converts mechanical energy into electric energy.

Rewrite the following statements by selecting the correct options:

Question 1.
The device used for producing a current is called……….
(a) a voltmeter
(b) an ammeter
(c) a galvanometer
(d) a generator
Answer:
(d) a generator

Question 2.
At the time of short circuit, the current in the circuit………
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains the same
(d) increases in steps
Answer:
(a) increases

Question 3.
The direction of the magnetic field around a straight conductor carrying current is given by……
(a) the right hand thumb rule
(b) Fleming’s left hand rule
(c) Fleming’s right hand rule
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) the right hand thumb rule

Question 4.
The resistance of a wire is 100 Ω. If it carries a current of 1A for 10 seconds, the heat produced will be……….
(a) 1000 J
(b) 10 J
(c) 0.1 J
(d) 10000 J
Answer:
(a) 1000 J

Question 5.
If 220 V potential difference is applied across an electric bulb, a current of 0.45 A flows in the bulb. What must be the power of the bulb? (Practice Activity Sheet – 1)
(a) 99 W
(b) 70 W
(c) 45 W
(d) 22 W
Answer:
(a) 99 W

Question 6.
Electromagnetic induction means
(a) charging of an electric conductor.
(b) production of magnetic field due to a current flowing through a coil.
(c) generation of a current in a coil due to relative motion between the coil and the magnet.
(d) motion of the coil around the axle in an electric motor.
Answer:
(c) generation of a current in a coil due to relative motion between the coil and the magnet.

Question 7.
Write the correct option by observing the figures. (Practice Activity Sheet – 2)

(a) Magnetic field in A is stronger.
(b) Magnetic field in B is stronger.
(c) Magnetic fields in A and B are same.
(d) Magnetic fields in A and B are weaker.
Answer:
(b) Magnetic field in B is stronger.
[Explanation : The resistance in circuit B is less (parallel combination) than that in A. Hence, the current in B is more than that in A. Therefore, the magnetic field in B is stronger than that in A.]

Question 8.
Observe the following diagram and choose the correct alternative: (March 2019)

(a) The intensity of magnetic field in A is larger than in B.
(b) The intensity of magnetic field in B is less than in A.
(c) The intensity of magnetic field in A and B is same.
(d) The intensity of magnetic field in A is less than in B.
Answer:
(d) The intensity of magnetic field in A is less than in B.

State whether the following statements are true or false. (If a statement is false, correct it and rewrite it.) :

Question 1.
Electric power = I²R.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Magnetic poles exist in pairs.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Electromagnetism was discovered by Oersted.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
Magnetic field increases as we go away from a magnet.
Answer:
False. (Magnetic field decreases as we go away from a magnet.)

Question 5.
Magnetic lines of force cross each other.
Answer:
False. (Magnetic lines of force do not cross each other.)

Question 6.
Electric generator is used to generate current.
Answer:
True.

Question 7.
An electric motor converts mechanical energy into electric energy.
Answer:
False. (An electric motor converts electric energy into mechanical energy.)

Question 8.
In India, the frequency of AC is 50 Hz.
Answer:
True.

Question 9.
The electricity meter in the domestic electric circuit measures electrical energy consumption in kilowatt·hours.
Answer:
True.

Question 10.
Electric generator converts mechanical energy into electric energy.
Answer:
True.

Question 11.
Split rings are used in a DC generator and in an electric motor.
Answer:
True.

Question 12.
Electromagnetic induction was discovered by Coulomb.
Answer:
False. (Electromagnetic induction was discovered by Faraday and independently by Henry.)

Question 13.
Faraday found that electricity could produce rotational motion.
Answer:
True.

Tell the odd one out. Give proper explanation:

Quesrtion 1.
Find the odd one out and justify it.
Fuse wire, M.C.B., rubber gloves, generator. (Practice Activity Sheet – 3)
Answer:
Generator. It converts mechanical energy into electric energy. All others are related to safety measures to avoid mishap due to electricity.

Match the columns:

Column I	Column II
1. The right hand thumb rule	a. The direction of the force on a current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field.
2. Fleming’s right hand rule	b. The direction of the magnetic field around a straight conductor carrying a current.
3. Fleming’s left hand rule	c. The direction of induced current in a conductor.

Answer:
(1) The right hand thumb rule – The direction of the magnetic field around a straight conductor carrying a current.
(2) Fleming’s right hand rule – The direction of induced current in a conductor.
(3) Fleming’s left hand rule – The direction of the force on a current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field.

Name the following:

Question 1.
The negatively charged particle considered as a free particle moving in a metallic conductor.
Answer:
Electron.

Question 2.
The quantity expressed in ampere.
Answer:
Electric current.

Question 3.
The quantity expressed in ohm.
Answer:
Electric resistance.

Question 4.
The quantity expressed in volt.
Answer:
Electric potential.

Question 5.
The quantity expressed in joule.
Answer:
Work (and energy).

Question 6.
The quantity expressed in watt.
Answer:
Power.

Question 7.
The quantity expressed in kilowatt-hour.
Answer:
Electric energy.

Question 8.
A component used to control the current.
Answer:
Resistor.

Question 9.
An instrument used to measure electric current.
Answer:
Ammeter

Question 10.
An instrument used to measure electric potential difference.
Answer:
Voltmeter.

Question 11.
The ratio of the work done to the quantity of charge transferred.
Answer:
Electric potential difference.

Question 12.
An alloy of Ni, Cr, Mn and Fe.
Answer:
Nichrome.

Question 13.
The SI unit of resistance.
Answer:
The ohm.

Question 14.
A metal used to make the filament of an electric bulb.
Answer:
Tungsten.

Question 15.
An alloy used to prepare a coil of high resistance for use in electric appliances such as an electric heater.
Answer:
Nichrome.

Question 16.
Constituents of the alloy used to make a fuse wire.
Answer:
Lead and tin.

Question 17.
The unit same as the watt·second.
Answer:
The joule.

Question 18.
A unit for intensity of magnetic field.
Answer:
The oersted.

Question 19.
The scientist in whose honour the SI unit of power is named.
Answer:
James Watt

Question 20.
A device that converts electric energy into mechanical energy.
Answer:
Electric motor.

Question 21.
A device that converts mechanical energy into electric energy.
Answer:
Electric generator.

Answer the following questions in one sentence each :

Question 1.
What is the production of magnetism by an electric current called?
Answer:
The production of magnetism by an electric current is called electromagnetism.

Question 2.
Is magnetic field a scalar or a vector?
Answer:
Magnetic field is a vector.

Question 3.
In India, what is the time interval in which AC changes direction?
Answer:
In India, AC changes direction every \(\frac{1}{100}\) s.

Question 4.
What is the periodic time of AC in India?
Answer:
In India, the periodic time of AC \(\frac{1}{50}\) is

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Define electric power.
Answer:
Electric power is the electric work done per unit time.
OR
Electric power is the rate at which electric energy is used.

Question 2.
State the formula for electric power. Hence, obtain its SI unit.
Answer:
Electric power (P) =

The SI unit of work is the joule and that of time is the second. Hence, the SI unit of power is the joule per second. It is given the special name: the watt (W). One watt equals one joule per second.
W = VIt = I²Rt = \(\frac{V^{2}}{R}\) t
∴ P = W/t = VI = I²R = V²/R.
Here, V is the potential difference applied across an electrical appliance, R is the resistance of the appliance and I is the current through the appliance.

[ Note The SI unit of power, the watt, is named in honour of James Watt (1736-1819), British instrument maker and engineer. ]

Question 3.
What is the commercial unit of electric energy? Obtain the relation between this unit and the SI unit of energy.
Answer:
The commercial unit of electric energy is the kilowatt·hour (kW·h) and the SI unit of energy is the joule (J).
1 kW·h = 10³ \(\frac{J}{s}\) × 3600 s s
= 3.6 × 10⁶ J
[Note: The kilowatt-hour is often called simply the unit. (See the energy bill, i.e., the electricity bill.)]

Question 4.
What is one kilowatt.hour?
Answer:
One kilowatt-hour is the electric energy used in one hour by an electrical appliance of power one kilowatt. It is equal to 3.6 × 10⁶ J.

Question 5.
What is heating effect of electric current? What is its origin?
Answer:
The production of heat in a resistance due to the electric current flowing through it when it is connected in an electrical circuit, is called the heating effect of electric current.

When a potential difference is applied across a metallic conductor, free electrons in the conductor move from the end at the lower potential to the end at the higher potential giving rise to electric current. These electrons collide with the atoms and positive ions and transfer some kinetic energy to them. This energy is converted into heat. Hence, the temperature of the conductor begins to rise i.e., the conductor becomes hot. This is the origin of the heating effect of electric current.

Question 6.
Statement 1: Electric current (flow of electrons) creates heat in a resistor.
Statement 2: Heat in the resistor is created according to the law of energy conservation.
Explain Statement 1 with the help of Statement 2. (Practice Activity Sheet – 2)
Answer:
(1) When electrons flow through a resistor (during flow of electric current) electrons possess kinetic energy.
(2) During the flow of electrons there is a decrease in the kinetic energy of the electrons due to collisions with atoms, ions and molecules.
(3) According to the law of conservation of energy, this decrease in the kinetic energy of the electrons gets converted into heat.

Question 7.
State Joule’s law about heating effect of electric current.
Answer:
Joule’s law about heating effect of electric current: The quantity of heat produced in a conductor when a current flows through it is directly proportional to (1) the square of the current (2) the resistance of the conductor (3) the time for which the current flows.

Question 8.
Obtain the mathematical expression for the heat generated in a metallic conductor by electric current (Joule’s law).
Answer:
If V is the potential difference applied across a metallic conductor of resistance R, the current through the conductor, given by Ohm’s law, is
I = V/R ……(1)
The charge passing through the conductor in time t when the current I flows in the conductor is
Q = It…….(2)
The work done in this process is W = VQ …..(3)
From Eqs. (1), (2) and (3), we have,
W = (IR) (It) = I²Rt = VIt
= \(V\left(\frac{V}{R}\right) t=\frac{V^{2}}{R} t\)
This work is converted into heat.
When I is expressed in ampere, R in ohm, t in second and V in volt, W is expressed in joule. In that case,
W = I²Rt = VIt = \(\frac{V^{2}}{R}\) t (in joule)
Usually heat energy (H) is expressed in calorie. Using the relation 4.18 J = 1 cal, we have

This is the required equation.

Question 9.
Two dissimilar bulbs are connected in series. Which bulb will be brighter? (Hint: Consider the resistance of each bulb.)
Answer:
The bulb of higher resistance will be brighter, assuming that the filaments of the two bulbs have the same length and the same area of cross section, but are made of metals with different resistivities.

[Explanation Heat produced (H) in time t = I²Rt , where I is the current through a conductor and R is the resistance of the conductor. In a series combination, the current through each conductor is the same. ∴ H ∝ R for a given t. Hence, the bulb with higher R will become more hot and hence emit more light energy per second. Here it is assumed that the filaments of the two bulbs have the same length and the same area of cross section, but are made of metals with different resistivities.]

Question 10.
Name any six domestic appliances whose working is based on the heating effect of electric current.
(OR)
State applications of heating effect of electric current.
Answer:
Domestic appliances whose working is based on the heating effect of electric current:

Electric heater
Electric iron
Electric oven
Electric toaster
Electric kettle
Electric geyser
Fuse.

Some other applications of heating effect of electric current:

Electric bulb
Electric furnace
In industry for soldering, welding, cutting, drilling
In surgery for cutting tissues with a finely heated platinum wire.

Question 11.
Explain the application of heating effect of electric current in an electric bulb.
Answer:
In an electric bulb, there is a filament of metal such as tungsten having high melting point. When an electric current is passed through the filament, it becomes hot and emits light. The bulbs are usually filled with chemically inactive gases such as nitrogen and argon to prevent oxidation of the filament and hence prolong their life.

Question 12.
Why is tungsten used to make solenoid type coil in an electric bulb? (Practice Activity Sheet – 3)
Answer:
Tungsten is used to make solenoid type coil in an electric bulb for the following reasons:

Tungsten has high resistance and high melting point (nearly 3422° C).
Using current, it can be heated to high temperature so that it emits more light.

Question 13.
Explain the application of heating effect of electric current in an electric iron.
Answer:
In an electric iron, a coil of high resistance is held between mica sheets and placed inside a heavy metal block provided with a handle made of an insulator such as plastic. When an electric current is passed through the coil, it becomes hot. Mica is a good conductor of heat. Hence, heat produced in the coil is transferred to the metal block which can then be used for ironing clothes.
Mica is a bad conductor of electricity. Hence, there is no electrical contact between the coil and the metal block. Therefore, the person using the iron does not get an electric shock even if he or she happens to touch it by chance.

Question 14.
Take any electricity bill of your home. In the bill there is one table which shows the units consumed by you for the last eleven months. Find the average consumption of electricity in your home for each season (i.e., summer, winter and rainy season). Are they the same? Why?
Answer:
The units consumed, on an average, in a home are different for each season.
The energy requirement depends very much on the temperature of the surroundings. For example, a refrigerator, electric fans, an air conditioner, etc. are used more in summer than in winter or rainy season. On the contrary, an electric heater, geyser, etc., are used more in winter than in summer. Hence, there is variation in the average consumption of electricity from season to season.

Question 15.
Name the types of wires or cables used in the electric power supply provided by the State Electricity Board for houses and factories.
Answer:
The wires or cables used in the electric power supply provided by the State Electricity Board are of three types:

phase wire (or live wire, the wire that carries an electric current)
Neutral wire
The earth wire.

Question 16.
In a domestic electric supply in India, what is the potential difference between the live wire and the neutral wire?
Answer:
In a domestic electric supply in India, the potential difference between the live wire and the neutral wire is 220 V.
[Note: AC is used in domestic electric supply.]

Question 17.
Name the type of wire to which the main fuse is connected.
Answer:
The main fuse is connected to the live wire (phase wire).

Question 18.
What does the electricity meter measure?
Answer:
The electricity meter measures electric energy consumption. It is expressed in ‘units’, where 1 unit means 1 kilowatt·hour ( = 3.6 × 10⁶ joules).

Question 19.
Is the electric potential difference across each appliance (in a domestic electric circuit) the same?
Answer:
Yes, the electric potential difference across each appliance (in a domestic electric circuit) is the same.

Question 20.
Name the types of wire across which an electric appliance is connected.
Answer:
An electric appliance is connected across the live wire (phase wire) and the neutral wire.

Question 21.
Electrical appliances are connected in parallel. What are the advantages of this arrangement?
Answer:
In the parallel arrangement of electric appliances, the applied potential difference is the same in each case. Further, even if one of the appliances does not work or is removed for repairing, the other appliances can still be used.

Question 22.
In a domestic electric supply, if two bulbs are connected in series instead of parallel, what will happen if the filament of one of the bulbs breaks?
Answer:
In a domestic electric supply, if two bulbs are connected in series instead of parallel, if the filament of one of the bulbs breaks, there will be no current through the other bulb as well even if the circuit is switched on. Hence the good bulb will also not glow.

Question 23.
What is overloading? When does it occur? What does it cause? How can overloading be avoided?
Answer:
A flow of large amount of current in a circuit, beyond the permissible value of current, is called overloading.

It occurs when many electrical appliances of high power rating, such as a geyser, a heater, an oven, a motor, etc., are switched on simultaneously. This causes fire.

Overloading can be avoided by not connecting many electrical appliances of high power rating in the same circuit.

Question 24.
Explain the application of heating effect of electric current in a fuse.
Answer:
A fuse protects electrical circuits and appliances by stopping the flow of electric current when it exceeds a specified value. For this, it is connected in series with the appliance (or circuit) to be protected. A fuse is a piece of wire made of an alloy of low melting point (e.g. an alloy of lead and tin). If a current larger than the specified value flows through the fuse, its temperature increases enough to melt it. Hence, the circuit breaks and the appliance is protected from damage.

[Note: The fuse wire is usually enclosed in a cartridge of an insulator such as glass or porcelain provided with metal caps. The current rating (such as 1 A, 2 A) may be printed on the cartridge. ]

Question 25.
State the conclusions that can be drawn from Oersted’s experiment. (For reference, see the experiment described on page 51 of the textbook.)
Answer:
Conclusions that can be drawn from Oersted’s experiment:
1. An electric current produces a magnetic field around it. The moving charge in the conducting wire is a source of magnetic field.

2. The direction of the magnetic field produced by the current is the direction in which the north pole of the magnetic needle is deflected. Hence, from the experimental observations we can conclude that at any point near the current-carrying conductor, the magnetic field is perpendicular to (i) the length of the conductor and (ii) the line joining the conductor and the given point.

Question 26.
What is the effect on the magnetic needle in Oersted’s experiment, when (1) a current is passed through the wire (2) the current through the wire is increased (3) the current through the wire is stopped (4) the current through the wire is reversed (5) the distance between the magnetic needle and the wire is increased, keeping the current through the wire constant?
Answer:
In Oersted’s experiment, when there is no current in the wire, the magnetic needle is at rest along the north-south direction.
(1) When a current is passed through the wire, the needle is deflected.
(2) When the current through the wire is increased, the deflection of the needle increases.
(3) When the current through the wire is stopped, the needle comes to rest in its original position along the north-south direction.
(4) When the current through the wire is reversed, the needle is deflected in the direction opposite to that in the first case.
(5) When the distance between the magnetic needle and the wire is increased, keeping the current through the wire constant, the deflection of the needle becomes less.

Question 27.
State the factors on which the magnitude of the magnetic field due to a current-carrying conductor depends and how it depends.
Answer:
The magnetic field at a point due to a current-carrying conductor depends on the current through the conductor and the distance of the point from the conductor.

The magnitude of the magnetic field produced at a given point is directly proportional to the magnitude of the current passing through the conductor.
The magnitude of the magnetic field produced by a given current in the conductor decreases as the distance from the conductor increases.

[Note If the direction of the current is reversed, the direction of the magnetic field is also reversed.]

Question 28.
State the right hand thumb rule.
Answer:
Imagine that you have held a current-carrying straight conductor in your right hand in such a way that your thumb points in the direction of the current. Then turn your fingers around the conductor. The direction of the fingers in the direction of the magnetic lines of force produced by the current.

Question 29.
With a neat labelled diagram, describe the pattern of magnetic lines of force due to a current through a circular loop. Also explain how the magnetic field depends on the number of turns (n) in the loop.
Answer:
The pattern of magnetic lines of force due to a current through a circular loop is shown in Figure

(I: Current, R: Resistance, A: Ammeter)
1. It is seen that every point of the loop forms a centre of a large number of concentric magnetic lines of force forming a series. The circles are small near the wire and become large as we move away from the wire. At the centre of the loop, the arcs of these circles appear as straight lines because of very large radius of the circle.

2. The magnetic field produced by a current-carrying wire at a given point is directly proportional to the current through the wire. If the loop has n turns, the field produced is n times that produced by a single turn (assuming that all the turns have practically the same radius and are in the same plane). The reason is the current in each turn has the same direction and the field due to each turn contributes equally to the total field.

Question 30.
Write Fleming’s left hand rule.
Answer:
Fleming’s left hand rule: The left hand thumb, index finger, and the middle finger are stretched so as to be perpendicular to each other. If the index finger is in the direction of the magnetic field, and the middle finger points in the direction of the current, then the direction of the thumb in the direction of the force on the conductor.

[Note: A magnetic field exerts a force on a current-carrying conductor. Electric current is the time rate of flow of electric charge. Thus, a magnetic field exerts a force on a moving charge. This property is used to accelerate charged particles such as protons, deuterons and alpha particles, as well as electrons, to very high energies. A machine used for this purpose is called a charged particle accelerator. It may be linear or circular in design and very big in size. Such high energy particles are used to study the structure of matter. ]

Question 31.
What is electric motor?
Answer:
A device that converts electric energy into mechanical energy is called an electric motor.

Question 32.
State the principle on which the working of an electric motor is based.
Answer:
An electric motor works on the principle that a current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field experiences a force. In this case, the forces acting on different parts of the coil of the motor produce the rotational motion of the coil.

Question 33.
State the uses/applications of an electric motor.
Answer:
Uses/applications of an electric motor:

In domestic appliances such as a mixer, a blender, a refrigerator and washing machine.
In an electric fan, a hair dryer, a record player, a tape recorder and a blower.
In an electric car, a rolling mill, an electric crane, an electric lift, a pump, a computer and an electric train.

Question 34.
(i) Which principle is explained in this figure?

(ii) Which rule is used to find out the direction of force in this principle?
(iii) In which machine is this principle used? Draw a diagram showing the working of that machine. (Practice Activity Sheet – 2)
Answer:
(i) A force is exerted on a current-carrying conductor in the presence of a magnetic field.
(ii) Fleming’s left hand rule is used.
(iii) Electric motor.
Scientifically and technically correct figure.

Question 35.
Observe the following diagram and answer the questions. (Practice Activity Sheet – 1)
(a) Construction of which equipment does the following diagram show?

(b) On which principle does this equipment work?
(c) According to which law does the coil ABCD rotate?
(d) Write the law in your own words.
(e) Where is this equipment used?
Answer:
(a) Given diagram shows the construction of an electric motor.

(b) An electric motor works on the principle that a current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field experiences a force. In this case, the forces acting on different parts of the coil of the motor produce the rotational motion of the coil.

(d) Fleming’s left hand rule: The left hand thumb, index finger, and the middle finger are stretched so as to be perpendicular to each other. If the index finger is in the direction of the magnetic field, and the middle finger points in the direction of the current, then the direction of the thumb in the direction of the force on the conductor.

(e) Uses / applications of an electric motor: (1) In domestic appliances such as a mixer, a blender, a refrigerator and washing machine. (2) In an electric fan, a hair dryer, a record player, a tape recorder and a blower. (3) In an electric car, a rolling mill, an electric crane, an electric lift, a pump, a computer and an electric train.

Question 36.
Study the following principle and answer the questions. (Practice Activity Sheet – 4)
A force is excreted on a current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field. The direction of this force depends on both the direction of the current and the direction of the magnetic field. This force is maximum when the direction of the current is perpendicular to the direction of the magnetic field.
(a) By which law can we determine the direction of the force excreted on the current-carrying conductor?
(b) In which electrical equipment is this principle used?
(c) Draw a diagram representing the construction of this equipment.
(d) Write the working of this equipment in brief.
Answer:
(a) Fleming’s left hand rule.
(b) Electric motor,
(c)

(d) Working:
1. When the circuit is completed with a plug key or switch, the current flows in the direction E → A → B → C → D → F. As the magnetic field is directed from the north pole to the south pole, the force on AB is downward and that on CD is upward by Fleming’s left hand rule. Hence, AB moves downward and CD upward. These forces are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction. Therefore, as observed from the side AD, the loop ABCD and the axle start rotating in anticlockwise direction.

3. After every half rotation, the current in the loop is reversed and the loop and the axle continue to rotate in anticlockwise direction.
When the current is switched off, the loop stops rotating after some time.

Question 37.
What is a galvanometer used for? Explain in brief the working of a galvanometer.
Answer:
Galvanometer is a sensitive device used to detect the presence of current in a circuit as well as to determine the direction of the current in the circuit.

With suitable modification, it can be used to measure charge, current and voltage. Its working is based on the same principle as that of an electric motor. Here, a coil is pivoted (or suspended) between the pole pieces of a magnet and a pointer is connected to the coil. As the coil rotates when a current is passed through it, the pointer also rotates. The rotation of the coil and hence the deflection of the coil is proportional to the current. The pointer deflects on both sides of the Central zero mark depending on’ the direction of the current.

Question 38.
Take a coil AB having 10-15 turns. Connect the two ends of the coil to the galvanometer as shown in Figure. Take a strong bar magnet. (1) Move the north pole of the magnet towards the end B of the coil.

Observe the deflection of the pointer in the galvanometer. Note the direction of the deflection (i.e. right or left). (2) Now repeat this with the south pole of the magnet towards the end B of the coil. Again observe the deflection. Note its direction. (3) What will happen if instead of the magnet, the coil is moved? (4) If both the coil and the magnet are kept stationary, do you observe any deflection? (5) Compare the direction of the deflection when the north pole of the magnet is moved towards the end B of the coil with that when the end B of the coil is moved away from the north pole of the magnet. (6) What conclusions do you draw from the observations?
Answer:
Observations:
The two deflections, in parts (1) and (2) of the experiment, are in the opposite directions.

(3) If instead of the magnet, the coil is moved towards the stationary magnet, the deflection of the pointer in the galvanometer is observed in one direction, while if the coil is moved away from the magnet, the deflection is observed in the opposite direction. The effect of moving the north pole of the magnet towards the coil and the effect of moving the coil towards the north pole of the magnet are the same.

(4) If both the coil and the magnet are kept stationary, no deflection is observed.

(5) The two deflections are in opposite directions.

(6) Whenever there is relative motion of the coil and the magnet, electric potential difference is induced in the circuit which gives rise to, i.e., induces, an electric current in the circuit causing the deflection of the pointer in the galvanometer. The direction of the current and hence that of the deflection of the pointer in the galvanometer depends on which pole of the magnet faces the coil as well as the direction of relative motion.

[Note: If the velocity of the magnet is increased, the induced current increases, and hence the deflection of the pointer in the galvanometer increases.]

Question 39.
Take two coils of about 50 turns. Insert them over a nonconducting cylindrical roll as shown in Figure.

(A thick paper roll can be used.) Connect coil 1 to a battery with a plug key K. Connect coil 2 to a galvanometer G. (1) Plug the key and observe the deflection in the galvanometer. (2) Unplug the key and again observe the deflection.
Note your observations. What conclusions do you draw from these observations?
Answer:
Observations :
1. When the key is plugged, the galvanometer shows a momentary deflection. When the current in coil 1 becomes steady, the galvanometer shows zero deflection, i.e., its pointer returns to the zero mark at the centre of the scale.

2. When the key is unplugged, the galvanometer shows a momentary deflection in the opposite direction relative to that in part (1) of the experiment. When the current in coil 1 becomes zero as the circuit is broken on unplugging the key, the galvanometer shows zero deflection, i.e., its pointer returns to the zero mark at the centre of the scale.

Conclusions:
As the current in coil 1 changes, the magnetic field associated with the current changes. This induces an electric potential difference in coil 2 which gives rise to an electric current and hence the deflection of the galvanometer. The direction of the induced current and hence that of the deflection of the pointer in the galvanometer depends on whether the current through coil 1 increases or decreases with time.

When there is a steady current in coil 1, there is no change in the associated magnetic field and hence no production of induced potential difference in coil 2. In that case there is no current in coil 2 and hence the galvanometer shows zero deflection.

[Note : Coil 1 is called the primary coil while coil 2 is called the secondary coil. This is because when the current through coil 1 is changed, induced current appears in coil 2.]

Question 40.
What is electromagnetic induction? Who discovered it?
Answer:
The process by which a changing magnetic field in a conductor induces a current in another conductor is called electromagnetic induction. A current can be induced in a conductor either by moving it in a magnetic field or by changing the magnetic field around the conductor. Electromagnetic induction was discovered by Michael Faraday in 1831 and independently by Joseph Henry in 1830.

[Note Michael Faraday (1792-1867), British chemist and physicist, discovered the laws of electrolysis, electromagnetic induction, and a magneto-optical effect now known as the Faraday effect. His discoveries also include benzene and the liquefaction of chlorine. Joseph Henry (1797-1878), US physicist, in addition to the dicovery of electromagnetic induction, invented and constructed the first practical electric motor.]

Question 41.
State Faraday’s law of induction.
Answer:
Whenever the number of magnetic lines of force passing through a coil changes, a current is induced in the coil.

Question 42.
State Fleming’s right hand rule.
Answer:
Stretch the thumb, the index finger and the middle finger of the right hand in such a way that they are perpendicular to each other. In this position, the thumb indicates the direction of the motion of the conductor, the index finger the direction of the magnetic field, and the middle finger shows the direction of the induced current.

[Note The induced current is maximum when the direction of motion of the conductor is at right angles to the magnetic field. ]

Question 43.
Observe the following figure. If the current in the coil A is changed, will some current be induced in the coil B? Explain.

Answer:
If the current in the coil A is changed, there will be some current induced in the coil B.

Explanation:
When the current in the coil A is changed, the magnetic field associated with the current changes. This induces potential difference in the coil B. This gives rise to (i.e., induces) a current in the coil B. The greater the rate at which the current in the coil A is changed with respect to time, the greater is the current induced in the coil B as can be seen from the deflection of the pointer in the galvanometer. This phenomenon is known as electromagnetic induction.

Question 44.
What is a direct current (DC)?
Answer:
A nonoscillatory current that flows only in one direction is called a direct current (DC). It can change in magnitude, but its direction remains the same. [Fig. 4.26 (a) and (b)]

[Note: A direct current is obtained with an electric cell or a DC generator.]

Question 45.
What is an alternating current (AC)?
Answer:
A current that changes in magnitude and direction after equal intervals of time is called an alternating current (AC) (Fig. 4.27).

Electric current changes sinusoidally with time. Electric current and potential difference are shown by the symbol ~.
[Note: An alternating current is obtained with an AC generator.]

Question 45.
What is the value of frequency of AC in India?
Answer:
In India, the value of frequency of AC is 50 hertz.

Question 46.
What is the periodic time of AC in India?
Answer:
In India, the periodic time of AC is 0.02 s (=\(\frac{1}{50}\)s)

Question 47.
State one advantage of AC over DC.
Answer:
One advantage of AC over DC is that electric power can be transmitted over long distances without much loss of energy.

Question 48.
Name two appliances/devices in which a direct current is used.
Answer:
A direct current is used in a portable electric torch and radio.
[Note A Direct current is also in an electric bell, a wall clock, to prepare an electromagnet, for electrolysis, etc. ]

Question 49.
Name two appliances/devices in which an alternating current is used.
(OR)
State any two uses of an AC generator.
Answer:
An alternating current is used in an electric heater and a refrigerator.
[Note Alternating current is also used in an electric iron, a washing machine, an electric mixer, a food processor, an air-conditioner, an electric fan, etc.]

Question 50.
What is (1) an electric generator (2) an AC generator (3) a DC generator?
Answer:
(1) A device which converts mechanical energy into electric energy is called an electric generator.
(2) A generator which converts mechanical energy into electric energy in the form of an alternating current (AC) is called an AC generator.
(3) A generator which converts mechanical energy into electric energy in the form of a direct current (DC) is called a DC generator.

Question 51.
State the principle on which the working of an electric generator is based.
Answer:
The working of an electric generator is based on the principle of electromagnetic induction. When the coil of an electric generator rotates in a magnetic field, a current is induced in the coil. This induced current then flows in the circuit connected to the coil.
[Note An external agency is needed to rotate the coil of an electric generator.]

Question 52.
Show graphically variation of AC with time. Explain the nature of the graph.
Answer:

In this case, the frequency of the alternating current (AC) produced is 50 Hz. The coil completes 50 rotations every second. The time for one rotation of the coil is \(\frac{1}{50}\) second. It is called the periodic time or simply the period of AC. Positive current means the current flows in one direction and negative current means the current flows in the opposite direction in the external circuit. Here, the maximum value of AC is 5 A.

Question 53.
Observe the figure and answer the following questions.

(a) Identify the machine shown in the figure.
(b) Write a use of this machine.
(c) How transformation of energy takes place in this machine. (Practice Activity Sheet – 3)
Answer:
(a) The instrument shown in the figure is generator.
(b) This machine is used to generate electricity.
(c) The generator generates electricity through following transformation:
Mechanical Energy → Electrical Energy

Question 54.
Observe the following figure. Which bulb will fuse? (Practice Activity Sheet – 4)

Answer:
Bulb A.

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
In an electric iron, the coil of high resistance is kept between mica sheets.
Answer:
(1) Mica is a bad conductor of electricity and good conductor of heat.
(2) In an electric iron, the coil of high resistance is kept between mica sheets so that there is no electrical contact between the coil and the heavy metal block of the iron though there is heat transfer. This protects the user from getting an electric shock.

Question 2.
The material used for fuse has low melting point.
OR
A fuse should be made of a material of low melting point.
Answer:
1. A fuse is used to protect a circuit and the appliances connected in the circuit by stopping the flow of an excessive electric current. For this, a fuse is connected in series in the circuit.

2. When the current in the circuit passes through the fuse, its temperature increases. When the current exceeds the specified value, the fuse must melt to break the circuit. For this, the material used for a fuse has low melting point.

Distinguish between the following:

Question 1.
Direct current and Alternating current.
Answer:
Direct current:

Direct current flows only in one direction.
It cannot be used for large scale of electricity for household purpose.

Alternating current:

Alternating current reverses its direction periodically with time.
It is used in household electrical appliances such as an electric heater, an electric iron, a refrigerator, etc.

Question 2.
Electric motor and Electric generator.
Answer:
Electric motor:

A battery is used in an electric motor to pass a current through the coil.
In this case, a current-carrying coil is set in rotation due to the magnetic field.
Split rings are used in an electric motor.
In this case, electric energy is converted into mechanical energy.

Electric generator:

A battery is not used in an electric generator.
In this case, a potential difference and hence a current is produced when the coil is set into rotation in the magnetic field by an external agent.
Rings used in an AC generator are not split.
In this case, mechanical energy is converted into electric energy.

Solve the following examples/numerical problems:

Question 1.
An electric bulb is connected to a source of 250 volts. The current passing through it is 0.27 A. What is the power of the bulb?
Solution:
Data: V = 250 V, I = 0.27 A, P = ?
P = VI
= 250 V × 0.27 A
= 67.5 W
The power of the bulb = 67.5 W.

Question 2.
If a bulb of 60 W is connected across a source of 220 V, find the current drawn by it.
Solution:
Data: P = 60 W, V = 220 V, I = ?
P = VI

The current drawn by the bulb
= \(\frac{3}{11}\) A = 0.2727 A

Question 3.
A bulb of 40 W is connected across a source of 220 V. Find the resistance of the bulb.
Solution:
Data: P = 40 W, V = 220 V, R = ?

= 40 × 110 Ω = 1210 Ω
The resistance of the bulb = 1210 Ω

Question 4.
If the current passing through a bulb is 0.2 A and the power of the bulb is 20 W, find the voltage applied across the bulb.
Solution:
Data: I = 0.2 A, P = 20 W, V = ?
P = VI
∴ V = \(\frac{P}{I}=\frac{20 \mathrm{W}}{0.2 \mathrm{A}}\)
= 100 V
The voltage across the bulb = 100 V.

Question 5.
Two tungsten bulbs of power 50 W and 60 W work on 220 V potential difference. If they are connected in parallel, how much current will flow in the main conductor? (March 2019)
Solution:
Data: P₁ = 50 W, P₂ = 60 W, V = 220 V, I = ?

Current in the main conductor,
I = I₁ + I₂ ……….(parallel combination)

= 0.5 A

Question 6.
An electric iron rated 750 W is operated for 2 hours/day. How much energy is consumed by the electric iron for 30 days?
Solution:
Data: P = 750 W, t = 2\(\frac{\text { hours }}{\text { day }}\) for 30 days
The energy consumed = Pt = 750 × 2 × 30
= 1500 × 30
= 45000 W·h
= 45 kW·h
The energy consumed by the electric iron for 30 days = 45 kW·h.

Question 7.
If a TV of rating 100 W operates for 6 hours per day, find the number of units consumed in a leap year.
Solution:
Data: P = 100 W, t = 6\(\frac{\text { hours }}{\text { day }}\) × 366 days
= 2196 hours
1 unit = 1 kW·h = 1000 W·h

219.6 units are consumed in a leap year.

Question 8.
An electric appliance of rating 300 W is used 5 hours per day in the month of March. Find the number of units consumed.
Solution:
Data: P = 300 W, t = 5\(\frac{\text { hour }}{\text { day }}\) × 31 days
= 155 hours, 1 unit = 1 kW·h = 1000 W.h

= 46.5 units
46.5 units are consumed in the month of March.

Question 9.
A washing machine rated 300 W operates one hour/day. If the cost of a unit is ₹ 3.00, find the cost of the energy to operate the washing machine for the month of March.
Solution:
Data: P = 300 W, ₹ 3.00 per unit,
t = 1 \(\frac{\text { hour }}{\text { day }}\) × 31 days = 31 hours, 1 unit = 1 kW·h
= 1000 W·h, cost of the energy = ?

Cost = 9.3 units × ₹ 3.00 per unit = ₹ 27.9.
The cost of the energy to operate the washing machine for the month of March = ₹ 27.9.

Question 10.
Find the heat produced in joule if a current of 0.1 A is passed through a coil of resistance 50 Ω for two minutes. Keeping other conditions the same if the length of the wire is reduced to the original length (by cutting 4 the wire), what will be the heat produced?
Solution:
Data: I = 0.1 A, R = 50 Ω, t = 2 minutes = 2 × 60 s = 120 s, H = ?
H = I²Rt = (0.1A)² × 50 Ω × 120 s
= 0.01 × 50 × 120 J = 60 J
Heat produced = 60 joules.
In the second case, the resistance of the wire will be \(\frac{50 \Omega}{4}\)
Hence, the heat produced = \(\frac{60 \mathrm{J}}{4}\) = 15 J.

Question 11.
Calculate the heat produced in calorie when a current of 0.1 A is passed through a wire of resistance 41.8 Ω for 10 minutes.
Solution:
Data: I = 0.1 A, R = 41.8 Ω, t = 10minutes
= 10 × 60 s = 600 s, H = ?

Heat produced = 60 calories.

Question 12.
A potential difference of 250 volts is applied across a resistance of 1000 Ω in an electric iron. Find (1) the current (2) the heat produced in joule in 12 seconds.
Keeping other conditions the same, if the length of the wire in the iron is reduced to half the original length (by cutting the wire), what will be the current and heat produced?
Solution:
Data: V = 250 V, R = 1000 Ω, t = 12 s,
I = ? H = ?
(1) V = IR
∴ I = \(\frac{V}{R}=\frac{250 \mathrm{V}}{1000 \Omega}\) = 0.25 A
The current through the resistance = 0.25 A.
(2) H = I²RT
= (0.25 A)² × 1000 Ω × 12 s
= (\(\frac{1}{4}\) × 1000) × (\(\frac{1}{4}\) × 12) J
= 250 × 3J = 750 J
H = VIt = 250 V × 0.25 A × 12s = 250 × 3J = 750 J
The heat energy produced in the resistance in 12 seconds = 750 joules.

On cutting the wire, the resistance of the wire will become half the initial resistance. Hence, the current will become double the initial current as I = V/R and V is the same in both the cases. Therefore, the current in the wire will be 0.25 A × 2 = 0.5 A. (Hence, the heat produced will be VIt = 250 V × 0.5 A × 12 s = 250 × 6 J = 1500 J.)

Question 13.
A potential difference of 100 V is applied across a resistor of resistance 50 Ω for 6 minutes and 58 seconds. Find the heat produced in (i) joule (ii) calorie.
Solution:
Data: V = 100 V, R = 50 Ω, t = 6 minutes and 58 seconds = (6 × 60 + 58) s = (360 + 58)
= 418 s, H = ?

Heat generated = 83600 joules.

Heat produced = 2 × 10⁴ calories.

Numerical Problems For Practice:

Question 1.
When the voltage applied across a bulb is 200 V, the current passing through the bulb is 0.1 A. Find the power of the bulb.
Answer:
20 W

Question 2.
A bulb of 100 W is connected across a source of 200 V. Find the current drawn by it.
Answer:
0.5 A

Question 3.
A bulb of 60 W is connected across a source of 240 V. Find the resistance of the bulb.
Answer:
960 Ω

Question 4.
If the current passing through a bulb is 0.15 A and the power of the bulb is 30 W, find the voltage applied across the bulb.
Answer:
200 V

Question 5.
An electric appliance of rating 800 W is used 4 hours per day in the month of December. Find the number of units consumed.
Answer:
99.2 units

Question 6.
An electric appliance rated 400 W is used 5 hours per day in the month of June. If the cost of a unit is ₹ 3.00, find the energy bill for June.
Answer:
₹ 180

Question 7.
An electric bulb rated 60 W is used 10 hours per day for 20 days. If the cost of a unit is ₹ 3.00, find the energy bill.
Answer:
₹ 36

Question 8.
Two electric bulbs rated 60 W and 40 W respectively are used 5 hours per day for 20 days. If the cost of a unit is ₹ 4.00, find the cost of the energy used.
Answer:
₹ 40

Question 9.
Find the heat produced in joule if a current of 0.1 A is passed through a coil of resistance 25 Ω for one minute.
Answer:
15 J

Question 10.
Calculate the heat produced in calorie when a current of 0.1 A is passed through a wire of resistance 41.8 Ω for 5 minutes.
Answer:
30 calories

Question 11.
Calculate the heat produced in calorie when a current of 0.2 A is passed through a wire of resistance 41.8 Ω for 10 minutes.
Answer:
240 calories

Question 12.
Find the heat produced in calorie when a current of 0.2 A is passed through a wire of resistance 20.9 Ω for 10 minutes.
Answer:
120 calories

Question 13.
A potential difference of 100 V is applied across a wire of resistance 50 Ω for one minute. Find the heat produced in joule.
Answer:
1.2 × 10⁴ joules

Question 14.
A potential difference of 100 V is applied across a wire for two minutes. If the current through the wire is 0.1 A, find the heat produced in joule.
Answer:
1200 joules

Question 15.
A potential difference of 100 V is applied across a wire for 6 minutes and 58 seconds.
If the current through the wire is 0.1 A, find the heat produced in calorie.
Answer:
1000 calories

10th Std Science Part 1 Questions And Answers:

Metallurgy Class 10 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

January 6, 2025January 5, 2025 by Bhagya

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 8 Metallurgy Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 10 Science Part 1 Chapter 8 Metallurgy Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Class 10 Science Part 1 Chapter 8 Metallurgy Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Question 1.
a. Alloy of sodium with mercury.
Answer:
Silver amalgam.

b.Molecular formula of common ore of aluminium.
Answer:
Al₂O₃.nH₂O

c. The oxide that forms salt and water by reacting with both acid and base.
Answer:
Aluminium oxide (Al₂O₃).

d. device used for grinding an ore.
Answer:
The device used for grinding an ore is grinding mill.

e. The nonmetal having electrical conductivity.
Answer:
Graphite having electrical conductivity.

f. The reagent that dissolves noble metals.
Answer:
Aqua regia is the reagent that dissolves noble metals like gold and platinum.

Question 2.
Make pairs of substances and their properties.

Column I	Column II
Substance	Property
(1) Potassium bromide	(a) Combustible
(2) Gold	(b) Soluble in water
(3) Sulphur	(c) No chemical reaction
(4) Neon	(d) High ductility
	(e) Magnetic ingredient

Answer:
(1) Potassium bromide – Soluble in water
(2) Gold – High ductility
(3) Sulphur – Combustible
(4) Neon – No chemical reaction

Question 3.
Identify the pairs of metals and their ores from the following.

Column I (ores)	Column II (metals)
(1) Bauxite	(a) Mercury
(2) Cassiterite	(b) Aluminium
(3) Cinnabar	(c) Tin
	(d) Copper

Answer:
(1) Bauxite – Aluminium
(2) Cassiterite – Tin
(3) Cinnabar – Mercury

Question 4.
Explain the terms.
a. Metallurgy
Answer:
Metallurgy: The process used for extraction of metals in their pure form from their ores, then metals are further purified by different methods of purification. All the process is called metallurgy.

b. Ores.
Answer:
Ores: The minerals from which metals are extracted profitably and conveniently are called ores.
Examples: Bauxite (Al₂O₃.H₂O), Cinnabar (HgS).

c. Minerals.
Answer:
Minerals: The naturally occurring compounds of metals along with other impurities are known as minerals.
Examples: Rocks are composed of mixtures of minerals. Talc and granite are minerals.

d. Gangue.
Answer:
Gangue: Ores contain metal compounds with some of the impurities like soil, sand, rocky material, etc. These impurities are called gangue.

Question 5.
Write scientific reasons.
a. Lemon or tamarind is used for cleaning copper vessels turned greenish.
Answer:

Copper undergoes oxidation in air to form black copper oxide. Copper oxide reacts slowly with carbon dioxide in air and gains a green coat. This green substance is copper carbonate.
Lemon and tamarind contain acid. The acid dissolves the green coating of basic copper carbonate present on the surface of a tarnished copper utensil and makes it shiny again.

b. Generally the ionic compounds have high melting points.
Answer:

The ionic compounds exist in solid state and are hard due to strong electrostatic force of attraction between oppositely charged ions.
The intermolecular force of attraction is high in ionic compounds and large energy is required to overcome it. Therefore, ionic compounds have high melting points.

c. Sodium is always kept in kerosene.
(OR)
Why is sodium stored in kerosene?
Answer:

Sodium reacts so vigorously with atmospheric oxygen that it catches fire if kept in the open.
It does not react with kerosene and sinks in it. Hence, to protect sodium and to prevent accidental fires it is always kept in kerosene.

d. Pine oil is used in the froth floatation process.
Answer:

In the concentration of an ore by froth floatation process, the ore is mixed with water and pine oil. When air is bubbled through the mixture a froth is formed.
The mineral particles in the ore are preferentially wetted by the oil and float on the top in the froth.
The gangue particles are wetted by water and settle down. Thus the mineral can be separated from the gangue and the ore is concentrated.

e. Anodes need to be replaced from time to time during the electrolysis of alumina.
Answer:

During electrolysis of alumina, the oxygen liberated at the carbon anode reacts with graphite rods (carbon anode) and forms carbon dioxide.
As the anodes get oxidised during electrolysis of alumina, they are continuously eroded. Hence, it is necessary to replace anodes from time to time.

Question 6.
When a copper coin is dipped in silver nitrate solution, a glitter appears on the coin after some time. Why does this happen? Write the chemical equation.
Answer:
When a copper coin is dipped in a silver nitrate solution, more reactive copper displaces silver from silver nitrate solution. The silver so liberated deposits on the copper coin. As a result, a shiny coat of silver is formed on the coin.
Cu_(s) + 2AgNO_3(aq) → Cu(NO₃)_2(aq) + 2Ag_(s)

Question 7.
The electronic configuration of metal ‘A’ is 2, 8, 1 and that of metal ‘B’ is 2, 8, 2. Which of the two metals is more reactive? Identify these metals. Write their reaction with dilute hydrochloric acid. (Practice Activity Sheet – 1)
Answer:
If the number of electrons in the outermost orbit is less, then the metal is more reactive. Metal A contains one electron in the outermost shell, while metal B contains two electrons. Hence, metal A is more reactive than metal B.

Metal A is sodium and metal B is magnesium. Reactions of Na and Mg with dil. HCl are,

Question 8.
Draw a neat labelled diagram.
a. Magnetic separation method.
Answer:

b. Forth floatation.
Answer:

c. Electrolytic reduction of alumina.
Answer:

d. Hydraulic separation method.
Answer:

Question 9.
Write chemical equation for the following events.
a. Aluminium came in contact with air.
Answer:
When aluminium is exposed to air, it develops a thin oxide layer of aluminium.

b. Iron filings are dropped in aqueous solution of copper sulphate.
Answer:
When iron filings are dropped in copper sulphate solution, more reactive iron displaces copper from copper sulphate solution. The iron filings get coated with reddish brown copper metal and the blue colour of copper sulphate fades gradually and ferrous sulphate is formed.

c. A reaction was brought about between ferric oxide and aluminium.
Answer:
The reaction between ferric oxide and iron produces aluminium oxide and iron. It is a thermite reaction and is highly exothermic.
It produces a large amount of heat, which is released to melt oxygen and aluminium. This reaction is used in welding of machineries. It is also used in warfare to make grenades.

The chemical reaction for the above is as follows:
3Fe₃O₂ + 4Al → 2Al₂O₃ + 6Fe

d. Electrolysis of alumina is done.
Answer:
During electrolysis of alumina, aluminium is deposited at the cathode. Molten aluminium being heavier than the electrolyte, is collected at the bottom of the tank. Oxygen gas is liberated at the anode.
Anode reaction: 2O^–^– → O₂ + 4e^– (Oxidation)
Cathode reaction: Al³⁺ + 3e^– → Al_(l) (Reduction)

e. Zinc oxide is dissolved in dilute hydrochloric acid.
Answer:
Zinc oxide is dissolved in dilute hydrochloric acid, zinc chloride and water are formed.

Question 10.
Complete the following statement using every given options.
During the extraction of aluminium
a. Ingredients and gangue in bauxite.
b. Use of leuching during the concentration of ore.
c. Chemical reaction of transformation of bauxite into alumina by Hall’s process.
d. Heating the aluminium ore with concentrated caustic soda.
Answer:
c. Chemical reaction of transformation of bauxite into alumina by Hall’s process.

Question 11.
Divide the metals Cu, Zn, Ca, Mg, Fe, Na, Li into three groups, namely, reactive metals, moderately reactive metals and less reactive metals.
Answer:
Reactive metals: Na, Li, Ca
Moderately reactive metals: Zn, Fe, Mg,
Less reactive metals: Cu

Project: (Do it your self)

Collect metal vessels and various metal articles. Write detailed informciton. write the steps in the procedure that can be done in the laboratory for giving glitter to these. Seek guidance from your teacher.

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 93)

Question 1.
what are the physical properties of metals and nonmetals?
Answer:
Properties of metals:

Solid state (Exception: Mercury and gallium)
Typical lustre
Malleability and ductility
Hardness (Exception: Lithium, sodium and potassium)
Good conductors of heat and electricity
High melting and boiling points (On the other hand, the melting and boiling points of the metals sodium, potassium, mercury and galium are very low.)
Sonorous and produce sound on striking a hard surface.

Properties or nonmetals:

Gaseous or solid state (Exception: Bromine in liquid state)
Lack of any typical lustre (Exception: Iodine and Diamond)
Brittleness in the solid state (Exception: Diamond is the hardest natural substance)
Bad conductors of heat and electricity (Exception: Graphite) (Diamond is good conductor of heat)
Low melting and boiling points.

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 102)

Question 1.
What is the electronic definition of oxidation and reduction?
Answer:
When a metal loses çlectrons the process is called an oxidation while when a nonmetal gains electrons, it is called a reduction,
Na → Na⁺ + e^– (oxidation)
Cl^– + e^– → Cl (reduction)

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 106)

Question 1.
What is meant by corrosion?
Answer:
Corrosion is degradation of a material due toreaction with its environment.

Question 2.
Have you observed the following things?
(1) Old iron bars in the builthngs.
Answer:
When old iron bars in the buildings are exposed to moist air for a long time, they acquire a coating of browm nlaky substance called rust. (Fe₂O₃.H₂O)

(2) Copper vessels not cleaned for a long time.
Answer:
If copper vessels are not cleaned for a long time, they react with moist carbon dioxide in the air, lose their shine and gain a green coat of copper carbonate. (CuCO3)

Question 3.
Silver ornaments or idols exposed to air for a long time.
Answer:
When silver ornaments or idols are kept exposed to air for a long time, silver reacts with sulphur in the air to form a coating of black silver sulphide. (Ag₂S)

Question 4.
Old vehicles fit to be thrown away.
Answer:
The metallic parts of the body of old cars are corroded, eaten up and sometimes become perforated. The old cars also lose the original colour due to formation of flakes of rust.

Use your brain power! (Text Book Page No. 98)

Question 1.
In the reaction between chlorine and HBr a transformation or HBr into Br₂ takes place. Can this transformation be called oxidation? What Is the oxidant that brings about this oxidation?
Answer:
The conversion of HBr to Br₂ is an oxidation process. In the above reaction, Cl₂ in the oxidant.

Can you tell? (Text Book Page No. 104)

Question 1.
what are the moderately reactive metals?
Answer:
In the middle of the reactivity series, metals such as iron. zinc, lead, copper are moderately reactive.

Question 2.
In which form to the moderately reactive metals occur in nature?
Answer:
The moderately reactive metals which occur in nature are in the form of their sulphide salts or carbonate salts.

Think about it (Text Book Page No. 106)

Question 1.
Why do silver articles turn blackish while copper vessels turn greenish on keeping in air for long time?
Answer:

Silver articles turn blackish on exposure to air for a long time. This is because of silver sulphide (Ag₂S) laver formed on the silver articles by the reaction of silver with hydrogen sulphide.
Carbon dioxide in moist air reacts with copper vessel. Copper loses its lustre due to formation of greenish layer of copper carbonate (CuCO₃) on its surface.

Question 2.
Why do pure gold and platinum always glitter?
Answer:
Gold and platinum are noble metals as they do not react with moisture, O₂ and CO₂ from air also acids and alkalis, therefore, pure gold and platinum always glitter.

Use your brain power! (Text Book Page No. 103)

Question 1.
Write the electrode reaction for electrolysis of molten magnesium chloride and calcium chloride.
Answer:
(1) Magnesium chloride (MgCl₂):
MgCl₂ → Mg²⁺ + 2Cl^–
At the cathode: Mg²⁺ + 2e^– → Mg
At the anode: 2Cl^– → Cl₂ + 2e^–

(2) Calcium chloride (CaCl2):
At the cathode: Ca²⁺ + 2e^– → Ca
At the anode: 2Cl^– → Cl₂ + 2e^–

Can you tell? (Text Book Page No. 106)

Question 1.
Which measures would you suggest to stop the corrosion of metallic articles or not allow the corrosion to start?
Answer:
Various types of methods are used to protect metals from corrosion. Almost in all the methods, special attention is paid so that iron does not rust. It is possible to lower the rate of the process of rusting of iron. Corrosion of metals can be stopped by detaching the air from metals.

Some methods are as follows :

To fix a layer of some substance on the metal surface so that the contact of the metal with moisture and oxygen in the air is prevented and no reaction would occur between them.
To prevent corrosion of metals by applying a layer of paint, oil, grease or varnish on their surface. For example, corrosion of iron can be prevented by this method.

Question 2.
What is done so to prevent rusting of iron windows and iron doors of your house?
Answer:
To prevent rusting of iron windows and iron doors in the house, they are painted so that they do not rust.

Question 3.
What is done so to prevent rusting or iron windows and iron doors of your house?
Answer:
To prevent rusting of iron windows and iron doors in the house, they are painted so that they do not rust.

Use your brain power! (Text Book Page No. 107)

Question 1.
Can we permanently prevent the rusting of an iron article by applying a layer of paint on its surface?
Answer:
The method of painting is alright for some time. We cannot protect the articles permanently from rusting by painting them.

Question 2.
Why do new iron sheets appear shiny?
Answer:
The new iron sheets appear shiny because a layer of non-corrosionable metal is fixed on the surface of corrosionable metal.

Collect information. (Text Book Page No. 108)

Question 1.
What are the various alloys used in daily life? Where are those used?
Answer:

Various alloys	Uses
1. Bronze	It is used to prepare: Coins, utensils, medals, statues
2. Brass	Pipes, condenser tubes, utensils worshipping God.
3. Stainless steel	Utensils, tools, dairy equipment, boilers.
4. Steel	Construction of bridges and buildings, cutting tools, blades.
5. Tungsten steel	High speed cutting tools
6. Amalgam	Silver amalgam used by dentists
7. Duralumin	Bodies of aircraft, buses, kitchenwares
8. Aluminium bronze	Pigment in ink and paint
9. German silver	Electrical heaters, resistors
10. Gun metal	Guns, boiler fittings
11. Magnelium	Beams of scientific balances, aircraft parts.
12. Gold with copper or nickel or silver or platinum	Jewellery

Question 2.
What are the properties that the alloy used for minting coins should have?
Answer:
The alloy used for minting coins should have excellent wear resistance and anti-corrosion properties.

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
……………has the highest melting point.
Answer:
Tungsten has the highest melting point.

Question 2.
Mercury and…………are two metals in the liquid state at room temperature.
Answer:
Mercury and galium are two metals in the liquid state at room temperature.

Question 3.
…………is the hardest natural substance.
Answer:
Diamond is the hardest natural substance.

Question 4.
The naturally occurring compounds of metals along with other impurities are known as………….
Answer:
The naturally occurring compounds of metals along with other impurities are known as minerals.

Question 5.
The minerals from which metals are extracted profitably and conveniently are called…………..
Answer:
The minerals from which metals are extracted profitably and conveniently are called ores.

Question 6.
An ore contains some of the impurities like soil, sand, etc. These impurities are called…………
Answer:
An ore contains some of the impurities like soil, sand, etc. These impurities are called gangue.

Question 7.
The process of extraction of a metal from its ore is called……….
Answer:
The process of extraction of a metal from its ore is called metallurgy.

Question 8.
Bauxite is a common ore of………..
Answer:
Bauxite is a common ore of aluminium.

Question 9.
…………. process is used for the purification of bauxite.
Answer:
Bayer’s process is used for the purification of bauxite.

Question 10.
During the electrolysis of alumina, ………..is liberated at the anode.
Answer:
During the electrolysis of alumina, oxygen is liberated at the anode.

Question 11.
The reaction of iron oxide with aluminium is known as…………..reaction.
Answer:
The reaction of iron oxide with aluminium is known as thermit reaction.

Question 12.
The process of coating a thin layer of zinc on iron is known as…………
Answer:
The process of coating a thin layer of zinc on iron is known as galvanising.

Question 13.
The metal that produces a sound on striking a hard surface is said to be………….
Answer:
The metal that produces a sound on striking a hard surface is said to be sonorous.

Question 14.
The process in which carbonate ores are changed into oxides by heating strongly in limited air is known as …………….
Answer:
The process in which carbonate ores are changed into oxides by heating strongly in limited air is known as calcination.

Question 15.
…………compounds are insoluble in solvents like kerosene and petrol.
Answer:
Ionic compounds are insoluble in solvents like kerosene and petrol.

Question 16.
…………… is used to obtain pure metals from impure metals.
Answer:
Electrolys is method is used to obtain pure metals from impure metals.

Question 17.
Corrosion can be prevented-by putting a layer of…………metal on corrosionable metal.
Answer:
Corrosion can be prevented by putting a layer of non-corrosionable metal on corrosionable metal.

Rewrite the following statements by selecting the correct options:

Question 1.
………… is a metal.
(a) Mg
(b) S
(c) P
(d) Br
Answer:
Mg is a metal.

Question 2.
………. is a nonmetal.
(a) Au
(b) Hg
(c) Br
(d) Cu
Answer:
Br is a nonmetal.

Question 3.
………… is a metalloid.
(a) Aluminium
(b) Antimony
(c) Zinc
(d) Mercury
Answer:
Antimony is a metalloid.

Question 4.
Metalloids have properties of ………..
(a) metals
(b) nonmetals
(c) both metals and nonmetals
(d) neither metals nor nonmetals
Answer:
Metalloids have properties of both metals and nonmetals.

Question 5.
…………. is a good conductor of electricity.
(a) Bromine
(b) Iodine
(c) Graphite
(d) Sulphur
Answer:
Graphite is a good conductor of electricity.

Question 6.
………. is a metal which is in liquid form at ordinary temperature and pressure.
(a) Magnesium
(b) Sodium
(c) Scandium
(d) Mercury
Answer:
Mercury is a metal which is in liquid form at ordinary temperature and pressure.

Question 7.
………. is an amphoteric oxide.
(a) Na₂O
(b) MgO
(c) ZnO
(d) SO₂
Answer:
ZnO is an amphoteric oxide.

Question 8.
……….. is an acidic oxide.
(a) Na₂O
(b) CO₂
(c) FeO₃
(d) H₂O
Answer:
CO₂ is an acidic oxide.

Question 9.
………. is a basic oxide.
(a) CO₂
(b) K₂O
(C) SO₂
(d) Al₂O₃
Answer:
K₂O is a basic oxide.

Question 10.
………… is an ore of aluminium.
(a) Cryolite
(b) Bauxite
(c) Haematite
(d) Aluminium carbonate
Answer:
Bauxite is an ore of aluminium.

Question 11.
Bronze is an alloy of ………..
(a) copper and tin
(b) copper and zinc
(c) copper and iron
(d) iron and nickel
Answer:
Bronze is an alloy of copper and tin.

Question 12.
An alloy prepared from iron, nickel and chromium is known as …………
(a) brass
(b) bronze
(c) stainless steel
(d) amalgam
Answer:
An alloy prepared from iron, nickel and chromium is known as stainless steel.

Question 13.
…………. is an allotropic form of a nonmetal which conducts electricity.
(a) Sulphur
(b) Graphite
(c) Chlorine
(d) Iodine
Answer:
Graphite is an allotropic form of a nonmetal which conducts electricity.

Question 14.
………….. has an oxide which is soluble in sodium hydroxide.
(a) Calcium
(b) Magnesium
(c) Iron
(d) Zinc.
Answer:
Zinc has an oxide which is soluble in sodium hydroxide.

Question 15.
………… prevents the rusting of iron.
(a) Copper
(b) Zinc
(c) Aluminium
(d) Silver
Answer:
Zinc prevents the rusting of iron.

Question 16.
………….. is obtained by the reduction of its oxide by carbon.
(a) Zinc
(b) Aluminium
(c) Sodium
(d) Potassium
Answer:
Zinc is obtained by the reduction of its oxide by carbon.

Question 17.
………….. is used as an anode during the electrolytic reduction of bauxite.
(a) Sulphur
(b) Graphite
(c) Platinum
(d) Aluminium
Answer:
Graphite is used as an anode during the electrolytic reduction of bauxite.

Question 18.
Silver gets corroded due to ………… in air.
(a) oxygen
(b) hydrogen sulphide
(c) carbon dioxide
(d) nitrogen
Answer:
Silver gets corroded due to hydrogen sulphide in air.

Question 19.
…………. is the hardest substance and has the highest melting and boiling points.
(a) Iodine
(b) Sulphur
(c) Diamond
(d) Phosphorus
Answer:
Diamond is the hardest substance and has the highest melting and boiling points.

Question 20.
Jewellery articles are gold plated ………….
(a) to prevent corrosion
(b) to prevent rusting of the base metal
(c) to make articles attractive
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 21.
To show that zinc is more reactive than copper, the correct procedure is to ………..
(a) prepare copper sulphate solution and dip a zinc strip in it
(b) prepare zinc sulphate solution and dip a copper strip in it
(c) heat together zinc and copper strips
(d) add dil. nitric acid to both the strips
Answer:
To show that zinc is more reactive than copper, the correct procedure is to prepare copper sulphate solution and dip a zinc strip in it.

Question 22.
Iron is ………
(a) more reactive than zinc
(b) more reactive than aluminuium
(c) less reactive than copper
(d) less reactive than aluminium
Answer:
Iron is less reactive than aluminium.

Question 23.
A solution of Al₂(SO₄)₃ in water is …………
(a) blue
(b) pink
(c) green
(d) colourless
Answer:
A solution of Al₂(SO₄)₃ in water is colourless.

Question 24.
A solution of ………… in water is blue in colour.
(a) CuSO₄
(b) FeSO₄
(c) ZnSO₄
(d) Al₂(SO₄)₃
Answer:
A solution of CuSO₄ in water is blue in colour.

Question 25.
A solution of …………. n water is green in colour.
(a) CuSO₄
(b) FeSO₄
(c) ZnSO₄
(d) Al₂(SO₄)₃
Answer:
A solution of FeSO₄ in water is green in colour.

Question 26.
What would be the correct order if Zn, Fe, Al and Cu are arranged in increasing order of reactivity?
(a) Cu, Fe, Zn, Al
(b) Al, Cu, Fe, Zn
(c) Zn, Al, Cu, Fe
(d) Fe, Zn, Al, Cu (Practice Activity Sheet – 2)
Answer:
(a) Cu, Fe, Zn, Al

Question 27.
During the extraction of aluminium ……….
(a) Ingredients and gangue in bauxite
(b) Use of leaching during the concentration of ore
(c) Chemical reaction of transformation of bauxite into alumina by Hall’s process.
(d) Heating the aluminium ore with concentrated caustic soda.
Answer:
During the extraction of aluminium Chemical reaction of transformation of bauxite into alumina by Hall’s process.

Question 28.
A solution of CuSO₄ in water is ………… in colour.
(a) pink
(b) blue
(c) colourless
(d) green
Answer:
A solution of CuSO₄ in water is blue in colour.

Question 29.
Which of the following process is to be carried out to avoid the formation of greenish layer on brass vessels due to corrosion?
(a) Plating
(b) Anodization
(c) Tinning
(d) Alloying (Practice Activity Sheet – 3)
Answer:
(c) Tinning

State whether the following statements are True or False (If a statement is false, correct it and rewrite it.):

Question 1.
Metals are known as sonar metals.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Diamond is the softest natural substance.
Answer:
False. (Diamond is the hardest natural substance.)

Question 3.
Electrolysis method is used to obtain pure metals from impure metals.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
Iodine and diamond are lustrous substances.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
Aqua Regia is a mixture of conc. HCl and conc. HNO₃ in the ratio of 1:3.
Answer:
False. (Aqua Regia is a mixture of conc. HCl and conc. HNO₃ in the ratio of 3:1.)

Question 6.
Corrosion of metals can be stopped by detaching the air from metals.
Answer:
True.

Question 7.
Due to corrosion a greenish layer forms on the surface of copper or brass vessel.
Answer:
True.

Question 8.
Ionic compounds are soluble in kerosene.
Answer:
False. (Ionic compounds are soluble in water and insoluble in kerosene.)

Question 9.
Ionic compounds in the solid state conduct electricity.
Answer:
False. (Ionic compounds in the solid state do not conduct electricity.)

Question 10.
Mercury, silver and gold are very reactive metals.
Answer:
False. (Mercury, silver and gold are least reactive metals.)

Question 11.
In electroplating a metal is coated with another metal using electrolysis.
Answer:
True.

Question 12.
In anodising method. the copper or aluminium article is used as anode.
Answer:
True.

Question 13.
Silver plated spoon, gold plated ornaments are the examples of alloying.
Answer:
False. (Silver plated spoon, gold plated ornaments are the examples of electroplating)

Question 14.
silver amalgam is mainly used by dentists.
Answer:
True.

Question 15.
Aluminium oxide is an acidic oxide.
Answer:
False. (Aluminium oxide is an amphoteric oxide.)

Question 16.
copper reacts with moist carbon form copper carbonate.
Answer:
True.

Question 17.
Corrosion is degradation of a reaction with its environment.
Answer:
True.

Find the correlation in the given pair and rewrite the answer:

Question 1.
Brass : Copper and Zinc :: Bronze :………….
Answer:
Brass : Copper and Zinc :: Bronze : Copper and tin

Question 2.
Tinning : Tin :: Galvanizing :…………….
Answer:
Tinning : Tin :: Galvanizing : Zinc

Question 3.
Pressure cooker : Anodizing :: Silver plated spoons :…………..
Answer:
Pressure cooker : Anodizing :: Silver plated spoons : Electro-plating

Question 4.
The sulphides ores are strongly heated in air : Roasting :: The carbonates ores are strongly heated in a limited supply of air :………….
Answer:
The sulphides ores are strongly heated in air : Roasting :: The carbonates ores are strongly heated in a limited supply of air : Calcination.

Question 5.
Sulphide ores : Froth floatation method : Cassiterite ore :………..
Answer:
Sulphide ores : Froth floatation method : Cassiterite ore : Magnetic separation method.

Find the odd one out:

Question 1.
Sodium, Potassium, Silver, Sulphur
Answer:
Sulphur. (All except sulphur, others are metals.)

Question 2.
Boron, Chlorine, Bromine, Fluorine
Answer:
Boron. (All except boron, others are nonmetals.)

Question 3.
Copper, Iron, Mercury, Brass
Answer:
Brass. (All except brass, others are metals.)

Question 4.
Brass, Bronze, Phosphorus, Stainless steel
Answer:
Phosphorus. (All except phosphorus, others are alloys.)

Question 5.
Magnesium chloride, Sodium chloride, Water, Zinc chloride
Answer:
Water. (All except water, others are ionic compounds.)

Question 6.
Tinning, Anodization, Alloying, Froth floatation (March 2019)
Answer:
Froth floatation. (All except froth floatation, others are processes of coating a thin layer of metal on the surface of other metals.)

Match the following:

Question 1.

Column I	Column II
(1) ZnS	(a) Cuprous sulphide
(2) HgS	(b) Bauxite
(3) Cu₂S	(c) Zinc blend
(4) Al₂O₃.H₂O	(d) Cinnabar
	(e) Cryolite

Answer:
(1) ZnS – Zinc blend
(2) HgS – Cinnabar
(3) Cu₄S – Cuprous sulphide
(4) Al₂O₃.H₂O – Bauxite.

Question 2.

Column I	Column II
(1) Copper and zinc	(a) Stainless steel
(2) Copper and tin	(b) Zinc amalgam
(3) Iron, nickel and chromium	(c) Bronze
(4) Mercury and zinc	(d) Brass
	(e) Steel

Answer:
(1) Copper and zinc – Brass
(2) Copper and tin – Bronze
(3) Iron, nickel and chromium – Stainless steel
(4) Mercury and zinc – Zinc amalgam.

Question 3.

Column I	Column II
(1) Galvanising	(a) Pressure cooker
(2) Tinning	(b) Silver plated spoons
(3) Electroplating	(c) Coating of tin on copper
(4) Anodizing	(d) Coating of Zn on iron

Answer:
(1) Galvanising – Coating of Zn on iron
(2) Tinning – Coating of tin on copper
(3) Electroplating – Silver plated spoons
(4) Anodizing – Pressure cooker.

Translate the following statements into chemical equations and then balance them:

Question 1.
steam is passed over aluminium.
Answer:

Question 2.
Extraction of copper from its sulphide ore.
Answer:

Question 3.
Thermit reaction.
Answer:

Question 4.
Magnesium reacts with hot water.
Answer:

Question 5.
what happens when aluminium oxide dissolves in aqueous sodium hydroxide?
Answer:

Question 6.
Zinc reacts with sulphuric acid.
Answer:

Question 7.
Iron reacts with sulphuric acid.
Answer:

Name the following:

Question 1.
A metal which forms an amphoteric oxide.
Answer:
Aluminium forms an amphoteric oxide.

Question 2.
An alloy of copper and zinc.
Answer:
An alloy of copper and zinc is termed as brass.

Question 3.
A compound which is added to lower the fusion temperature.
Answer:
Cryolite (AlF₃, 3NaF) and fluorspar (CaF₂) are added to lower the fusion temperature.

Question 4.
A metal which does not react with cold water but reacts with steam.
Answer:
Aluminium does not react With cold water but reacts with Steam.

Question 5.
A common ore of aluminium.
Answer:
Bauxite (Al₂O₃.H₂O) is a common ore of aluminium.

Question 6.
A metal which is in liquid state at ordinary temperature.
Answer:
Mercury is in liquid state at ordinary temperature.

Question 7.
Two metals which are malleable.
Answer:
Iron and aluminium are malleable metals.

Question 8.
Two metals which are ductile.
Answer:
Gold and silver are ductile metals.

Question 9.
Two metals which are good conductors of heat.
Answer:
Silver and copper are good conductors of heat.

Question 10.
Two metals which are good conductors of electricity.
Answer:
Copper and aluminium are good conductors of electricity.

Question 11.
Two metals which are used for making cooking vessels.
Answer:
Copper and aluminium are used in making cooking vessels.

Question 12.
Two metals having low melting points.
Answer:
Sodium and potassium have low melting points.

Question 13.
Two highly reactive metals.
Answer:
Sodium and potassium are highly reactive metals.

Question 14.
A nonmetal which is in liquid state at room temperature.
Answer:
Bromine is in liquid state at room temperature.

Question 15.
Two ionic compounds.
Answer:
Sodium chloride (NaCl) and magnesium chloride (MgCl₂) are ionic compounds.

Question 16.
The process of heating the sulphide ore to a high temperature in the excess of air.
Answer:
In roasting, sulphide ore is heated to a high temperature in the excess of air.

Question 17.
The process of heating the carbonate ore to a high temperature in limited air.
Answer:
In calcination, carbonated ore is heated to a high temperature in limited air.

Question 18.
The compound formed by the reaction between aluminium oxide and sodium hydroxide.
Answer:
Sodium aluminate is formed by the reaction between aluminium oxide and sodium hydroxide.

Question 19.
Two metals which are found in the free state in nature.
Answer:
Gold (Au) and silver (Ag) are found in the free state in nature.

Question 20.
A metal which has the highest melting point.
Answer:
Tungsten has the highest melting point.

Question 21.
Two nonmetals which are lustrous.
Answer:
Iodine and diamond are lustrous in nature.

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question 1.
State the property of the metals due to which they can be drawn into wires.
Answer:
The property of the metal due to which they can be drawn into wires is called ductility.

Question 2.
State the property of the metals due to which they can be beaten into thin sheets.
Answer:
The property of the metals due to which they can be beaten into thin sheets is called malleability.

Question 3.
Which is the hardest substance?
Answer:
Diamond which is a form of carbon is the hardest substance.

Question 4.
What material is used to coat electrical wires?
Answer:
PVC (Polyvinyl chloride) is used to coat electrical wires.

Question 5.
State two metals which can be cut easily with a knife.
Answer:
Sodium and potassium are soft metals and can be cut easily with a knife.

Question 6.
Which of the following metals react with cold water?
Sodium, iron, copper, potassium.
Answer:
Sodium and potassium metals react with cold water.

Question 7.
Which of the following metals do not react with cold water or hot water?
Sodium, potassium, aluminium, iron.
Answer:
Aluminium and iron do not react with cold water or hot water.

Question 8.
State two metals which displace hydrogen from dilute acids and two metals which do not do so.
Answer:
Metals which displace hydrogen from dilute acids are: Magnesium and zinc.
Metals which do not displace hydrogen from dilute acids are: Copper and silver.

Question 9.
Arrange the following metals in the increasing order of their activity:
Copper, Silver, Aluminium, Iron. (Practice Activity Sheet – 1)
Answer:
The arrangement of metals in the increasing order of their activity:
Silver < Copper < Iron < Aluminium

Question 10.
Write the chemical equation for the reaction of hot iron with steam.
Answer:

Question 11.
Complete the following reactions:
(1) Zn_(s) + H₂O_(g) → _____________

Answer:
(1) Zn_(s) + H₂O_(g) → ZnO_(s) + H₂_(g)

Question 12.
Complete the following reactions:

Answer:

Question 13.
3MnO₂ + 4Al → 3Mn + 2Al₂O₃ + heat.
Identify the substances undergone oxidation and reduction reactions.
Answer:
MnO₂ is reduced to Mn.
Al is oxidised to Al₂O₃

Question 14.
State the impurities present in the bauxite ore.
Answer:
The main impurities present in the bauxite ore are silica (SiO₂) and iron oxide (Fe₂O₃).

Question 15.
Write the formula of (i) bauxite (ii) cryolite.
Answer:
The formula of bauxite is Al₂O_3·H₂O and that of cryolite is (Na₃AlF₆).

Question 16.
What is galvanization?
Answer:
The process of coating a thin layer of zinc on iron or steel is called galvanization.

Question 17.
Name the reaction in which aluminium is used as a reducing agent.
Answer:
The thermite reaction in which iron oxide is reduced by aluminium. Aluminium is used as a reducing agent in the thermit reaction.

Question 18.
What are the constituents of bronze?
Answer:
Copper and tin are the constituents of bronze.

Question 19.
State the term used to express the purity of gold.
Answer:
The purity of gold is expressed in carat.

Question 20.
What is meant by amalgam?
Answer:
The amalgam is an alloy in which one of the metals is mercury.

Question 21.
What is meant by electroplating?
Answer:
A process in which a less reactive metal is coated on a more reactive metal by electrolysis is called electroplating.

Question 22.
Why are metals called electropositive elements?
Answer:
Metals are reactive. They lose electrons and become positively charged ions. Therefore, metals are called electropositive elements.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Distinguish between the physical properties of metals and nonmetals with respect to the following points:
(1) Physical state (2) Lustre (3) Ductility and malleability (4) Conduction of heat and electricity (5) Hardness (6) Melting and boiling points.
Answer:
(1) Physical state: Under ordinary conditions, metals are generally solids. Exceptions: mercury and gallium are liquids. Under ordinary conditions, nonmetals may be solids or gases. Exception: bromine is in liquid state.

(2) Lustre: Metals usually have a high lustre (called metallic lustre). They can be polished to give a highly reflective surface. With the exceptions of gold and copper, metals usually have silvery grey colour. Nonmetals lack lustre, exceptions: graphite and iodine. Some nonmetals are colourless and others possess a variety of colours.

(3) Ductility and malleability: Metals are ductile and malleable. Nonmetals are not ductile and mallfeable.

(4) Conduction of heat and electricity: Metals are good conductors of heat and electricity. Nonmetals are bad conductors of heat and electricity. Exception: Graphite is a good conductor of electricity.

(5) Hardness: Metals are usually hard, but not brittle, exceptions: sodium, potassium, lead, zinc. Nonmetals are brittle in the solid state, exception: diamond.

(6) Melting and boiling points: The melting and boiling points of metals are high, exceptions: sodium, potassium, mercury, gallium. The melting and boiling points of nonmetals are low, exceptions: carbon, silicon.

Question 2.
Write any three physical properties of nonmetals.
Answer:

Nonmetals may be solid or gaseous.
Nonmetals lack lustre. They are not ductile and malleable.
The melting and boiling points of nonmetals are low.
Nonmetals are bad conductors of heat and electricity.

Question 3.
Metals are good conductors of heat. Explain why.
Answer:
(1) The electrons in the outermost shells of atoms of a metal are free to move throughout the metal.
(2) When a metal is heated, these electrons start moving with higher velocity and conduct heat. Hence, metals are good conductors of heat.

Question 4.
Metals are good conductors of electricity. Explain why.
Answer:
(1) The electrons in the outermost shells of atoms of a metal are free to move throughout the metal.
(2) When a potential difference is applied between the ends of a metal wire, the net movement of the electrons in a particular direction, from a point at lower potential to a point at higher potential, constitutes an electric current. Hence, metals are good conductors of electricity.

Question 5.
A metal can be drawn into a wire. Explain why.
Answer:

The property due to which a substance can be drawn into a thin wire without cracking or breaking is called ductility.
Metals are ductile. Thus, a metal can be drawn into a wire.

Question 6.
A metal can be hammered into a thin sheet. Explain why.
Answer:

The property due to which a substance can be hammered (or rolled) into a thin sheet without cracking is called malleability.
Metals are malleable. Thus, a metal can be hammered to form a thin sheet.

Question 7.
How do metals react with oxygen?
Answer:
Metals combine with oxygen on heating in air and metal oxides are formed.
Metal + Oxygen → Metal oxide

Question 8.
How does a metal react with water?
Answer:
Sodium and potassium react vigorously with water to evolve hydrogen. Calcium reacts with water slowly and less vigorously to evolve hydrogen and the metal floats on water. Magnesium reacts with hot water to evolve hydrogen. Aluminium, iron and zinc do not react with cold or hot water but they react with steam to evolve their oxides and hydrogen.
2Na_(s) + 2H₂O_(l) → 2NaOH_(aq) + H_2(g) + heat energy
2K_(s) + 2H₂O_(l) → 2KOH_(aq) + H_2(g) + heat energy
2Ca_(s) + 2H₂O_(l) → 2Ca(OH)_2(aq) + H_2(g)
Mg_(s) + 2H₂O_(hot) → Mg(OH)_2(aq) + H_2(g)
2Al_(s) + 3H₂O _steam → Al₂O₃_(s) + 3H_2(g)
3Fe_(s) + 4H₂O _steam → Fe₃O₄ + 4H_2(g)
Zn_(s) + H₂O _steam → ZnO_(s) + H_2(g)

Question 9.
(9) How does a metal react with an acid?
Answer:
Reaction of metals with acids: Metals react with dilute hydrochloric acid or dilute sulphuric acid to form metal chloride or metal sulphate and hydrogen gas. The rate of evolution of H2 is maximum in case of magnesium. The reactivity decreases in the order
Mg > Al > Zn > Fe.
Mg_(s) + 2HCl_(aq) → MgCl₂_(s) + H_2(g)
2Al_(s) + 6HCl_(aq) → 2AlCl_3(aq) + 3H_2(g)
Zn_(s) + 2HCl_(aq) → ZnCl_2(aq) + H_2(g)
Fe_(s) + 2HCl_(aq) → FeCl_2(aq) + H_2(g)
Fe_(s) + H₂SO_4(aq) → FeSO₄ + H_2(g)
Zn_(s) + H₂SO_4(aq) → ZnSO₄ + H_2(g)
Mg_(s) + H₂SO_4(aq) → MgSO_4(aq) + H_2(g)

Question 10.
How does a metal react with nitric acid?
Answer:
Metals react with nitric acid to form nitrate salts. Depending on the concentration of nitric acid, various oxides of nitrogen (NO, NO₂) are formed.

Question 11.
Arrange the following metals in the decreasing order of chemical reactivity:
Cu, Mg, Fe, Ca, Zn, Na.
Answer:
The reactivity of metal decreases in the following order:
Na > Mg > Ca > Zn > Fe > Cu.

Question 12.
What is meant by aqua regia?
Answer:
Aqua regia is a highly corrosive and fuming liquid. It is a freshly prepared mixture of conc. HCl and conc. HNO₃ in the ratio of 3:1. Most of the substances dissolve in it. Aqua regia is a reagent which dissolves gold and platinum.

Question 13.
How does a metal react with salts of other metals?
Answer:
The reaction of metals with solutions of salts of other metals is the displacement reaction. If a metal A displaces other metal B from the solution of its salt, it means that the metal A is more reactive than the metal B.
Metal A + Salt solution of metal B → Salt solution of metal A + metal B

In this reaction Fe has displaced Cu from CuSO₄. It means Fe is more reactive than Cu.

Question 14.
Explain the reactivity series of the metals.
Answer:
The arrangement of metals in decreasing order of their reactivity in the form of a series is called the reactivity or activity series of the metals.
The most reactive metal is placed at the top of the list and least reactive metal is placed at the bottom of the list.

On the basis of reactivity, we can classify metals into the following categories:

High reactivity metals
Moderately reactive metals
Less reactive metals.

1. Extraction of High reactivity metals: The metals which are placed at the top of the reactivity series are very reactive. They are never found in nature as free elements, e.g., sodium, potassium, calcium and aluminium. These metals are obtained by electrolytic reduction.

2. Extraction of Moderately reactive metals: The metals in the middle of reactivity series such as iron, zinc, lead, copper are moderately reactive. These elements are present as sulphides or carbonates in nature. Generally metals are obtained from their oxide as compared to their sulphides and carbonates.

3. Extraction of Less reactive metals: The metals which are placed at the bottom of the reactivity series are least reactive. They occur in free state, e.g. gold, silver and copper. Copper and silver are also found in the combined state as sulphide and oxide ores. These metals are obtained from their ores by just heating the ores in air.

Question 15.
Atomic number of metal “A” is 11, while atomic number of metal “B” is 20. Which of them will be more reactive? Write the chemical reaction of dilute HCl with metal “A”. (Practice Activity Sheet – 2)
Answer:
Metal ‘A’ is more reactive than metal ‘B’.
Atomic number of metal ‘A’ is 11, hence it is Na.
2Na + 2HCl → 2NaCl_(aq) + H_2(g)

Question 16.
How does a metal react with a nonmetal?
Answer:
By oxidation of a metal, cations are formed, on the other hand by reduction of a nonmetal, anions are formed. The ionic compound is formed due to the metal losing electrons while the nonmetal accepts the electrons. The ionic compound of sodium chloride is formed as sodium loses one electron while chlorine accepts one electron.

Similarly Mg and K form ionic compounds MgCl₂ and KCl.

Question 17.
How do nonmetals react with oxygen?
Answer:
Nonmetals combine with oxygen to form acidic oxides. In some cases, neutral oxides are formed.

Question 18.
How do nonmetals react with water?
Answer:
Nonmetals do not react with water, (exception : halogen). Chlorine dissolves in water giving hypochlorous acid.

Question 19.
How do nonmetals react with dilute acids?
Answer:
Nonmetals do not react with dilute acid, (exception: halogen). Chlorine reacts with dil. hydrobromic acid to form bromine and HCl.

Question 20.
How do nonmetals react with hydrogen?
Answer:
Nonmetals react with hydrogen under certain conditions (such as proper temperature, pressure, catalyst, etc.)

Question 21.
What is meant by an ionic compound?
Answer:
The compound formed from two units, namely cation and anion is called an ionic compound.

Question 22.
What is meant by an ionic bond?
Answer:
The cation and anion being oppositely charged, there is an electrostatic force of attraction between them, this force of attraction between cation and anion is called the ionic bond.

Question 23.
State the general properties of ionic compounds.
Answer:

Ionic compounds are solids and hard due to strong electrostatic force of attraction between oppositely charged ions.
They are generally brittle. When pressure is applied they break into pieces.
They have high melting and boiling points, due to intermolecular force of attraction is high in ionic compounds.
They are soluble in water and insoluble in solvents such as kerosene and petrol.
Ionic compounds cannot conduct electricity when in solid state, they are electrically neutral. They conduct electricity in the molten state and also in an aqueous solution.

Question 24.
Explain the following terms:
1. Concentration of ores
2. Roasting
3. Calcination
4. Refining
Answer:
1. Concentration of ores: The process of separating gangue from the other ores is called concentration of ores.
2. Roasting: The process of heating an ore to a high temperature in excess of air and converting it into its oxide is called roasting.
Examples: ZnS (zinc blend), PbS (Galena)

3. Calcination: The process of heating an ore in a limited supply of air and converting it into its oxide is called calcination.
Example: Zinc carbonate (ZnCO₃)
ZnCO₃ → ZnO + CO₂↑
4. Refining: The metal obtained by chemical reduction contains impurities. The process of electrolysis method is used to obtain pure metals from impure metals is known as refining.

Question 25.
State two methods of concentration of ores in which the heavy particles of ores can be separated from the light gangue particles by the gravitational method.
Answer:

Wilfley table method
Hydraulic separation method are two methods of concentration of ores in which the heavy particles of ores can be separated from the light, gangue particles by the gravitational method.

Question 26.
What are the different methods used for removing gangue from ores?
(OR)
Write the five methods of concentration of ores.
Answer:

Wilfley table method
Hydraulic separation method
Magnetic separation method
Froth floatation method
Leaching method.

Question 27.
Write short notes on: (1) Wilfley table method (2) Hydraulic separation method (3) Magnetic separation method (4) Froth floatation method (5) Leaching method.
Answer:
(1) Wilfley table method : (Separation based on gravitation) This method of separation uses the Wilfley table, it is made by fixing narrow and thin wooden wedges/blocks on inclined surface with low slope. The table is kept continuously vibrating.

Lumps of the ore is made powdered ore by using ball mill. This powdered ore is poured on the table and a stream of water is simultaneously released from the upper side. This result in the lighter gangue particles getting carried away along with the flowing water, while the heavier particles in which proportion of minerals is more and proportion of gangue particles is less, are blocked by the wooden wedges and is collected through the slits between them.

(2) Hydraulic separation method: The hydraulic separation method is based on the working of a mill. This is a tapering vessel similar to that used in a grinding mill. It opens in a tank like a container that is tapering on the lower side. The tank has an outlet for water on the upper side and a water inlet on the lower side.

Finely ground ore is added to the tank. A fast stream of water is released in the tank from the lower side. The lighter gangue particles flow out along with the water stream from the outlet on the upper side of the tank and are collected separately, simultaneously the heavy particles of the ore are collected at the bottom from the lower side of the tank. This method is based on the law of gravitation, wherein particles of the same size are separated by their weight with the help of water.

(3) Magnetic separation method: Electro-magnetic machine is used in this method. The main parts of this machine are two types of iron rollers and the conveyor belt continuously moving around them. One of the rollers is nonmagnetic while the other is electromagnetic. The conveyor belt moving around the rollers is made up of leather or brass (nonmagnetic). The powdered ore is poured at that end of the conveyor belt which is on the side of the nonmagnetic roller. Two collector vessels are placed below the magnetic roller.

The particles of the nonmagnetic part in the ore are not attracted towards the magnetic roller. Therefore, they are carried out further along the belt and fall in the collector vessel which is away from the magnetic roller. Simultaneously the particles of the magnetic ingredients of the ore stick to the magnetic roller and therefore fall in the collector vessel near the belt.

In this way the magnetic and nonmagnetic particles in the ore are separated because of their magnetic nature. For example, cassiterite is a tin ore. It contains mainly the nonmagnetic ingredient stannic oxide (SnO₂) and the magnetic ingredient ferrous tungstate (FeWO₄). These are separated by the electromagnetic method.

(4) Froth floatation method: The froth floatation method is based on the two opposite properties, hydrophilic and hydrophobic, of the particles. The metal sulphides particles get wet mainly with oil due to their hydrophobic property. The gangue particles get wet with water due to the hydrophilic property.

In this method the finely ground mineral is put into a big tank containing a lot of water. The finely powdered ore and vegetable oil such as pine oil, eucalyptus oil are mixed with water for formation of froth. The pressurised air is blown through the mixture. There is an agitator rotating around its axis in the centre of the floatation tank. The agitator is used as per the requirement. Bubbles are formed due to the blown air.

A foam is formed from oil, water and air bubbles together, due to the agitating. This foam rises to the surface of the water and floats. Hence this method is called froth floatation. Sulphide minerals float with the foam on water as they get and can be removed. The gangue particles are wetted by water, settles down at the bottom. This method is used for concentration of zinc blend (ZnS) and copper pyrite (CuFeS₂).

(5) Leaching: Leaching is the first step in the extraction of the metals like aluminium, gold and silver from their ores. In this method the ore is soaked in a particular solution for long time. The ore dissolves in that solution due to specific chemical reaction. The gangue, however, does not react and therefore does not dissolve in that solution. It can be separated easily.

For example, concentration of bauxite, the aluminium ore, is done by leaching method. Bauxite is soaked in aqueous NaOH or aqueous Na₂CO₃ which dissolves the main ingredient alumina in it. This means that bauxite is leached by sodium hydroxide.

Question 28.
Draw a neat labelled diagram of the arrangement of the equipment used in (1) Wilfley table method (2) Hydraulic separation method.
Answer:
1. Wilfley table method:

2. Hydraulic separation method:

Question 29.
Complete the following flow chart and answer the questions below:

(i) In which method pine oil is used?
(ii) Explain that method of concentration in brief. (Practice Activity Sheet – 2)
Answer:

(i) Pine oil is used in froth floatation method.

(ii) The finely powdered ore and vegetable oil such as pine oil, eucalyptus oil are mixed with water for formation of froth. The pressurised air is blown through the mixture. The agitator is used as per the requirement. Bubbles are formed due to the blown air. A foam is formed from oil, water and air bubbles together, due to the agitating. This foam rises to the surface of the water and floats. Hence this method is called froth floatation. Sulphide minerals float with the foam on water as they get and can be removed. The gangue particles are wetted by water, settles down at the bottom. This method is used for concentration of zinc blend (ZnS) and copper pyrite (CuFeS₂).

Question 30.
A tapping vessel opens in a tank like container that is tapering on the lower side. The tank has an outlet for water on the upper side and a water inlet on the lower side. Finely ground ore is released in the tank. A forceful jet of water is introduced in the tank from lower side and gangue particles and pure ore are separated by this method.
(i) The above description is of which gravitation separation method?
(ii) Draw labelled diagram of this method. (March 2019)
Answer:
(i) Hydraulic separation method.
(ii)

Question 31.
How are sodium, magnesium and potassium obtained from their molten chloride salts?
Answer:
The metals sodium, calcium and magnesium are obtained by electrolysis of their molten chloride salts. In this process metal is deposited on the cathode while chlorine gas is liberated at the anode.

Question 32.
Name the main ore of aluminium.
Answer:
Bauxite (Al₂O₃·H₂O) is the main ore of aluminium.

Question 33.
What is bauxite? What are the main impurities found in this ore?
Answer:
Bauxite (Al₂O₃·H₂O) is hydrated aluminium oxide. It contains 30% to 70% Al₂O₃. The main impurities present in it are iron oxide (Fe₂O₃) and sand (SiO₂).

Question 34.
From which ore is aluminium extracted? What are the stages in its extraction (give only names)?
Answer:
Aluminium is extracted from bauxite (Al₂O₃·nH₂O). Stages id the extraction: (i) Concentration of ore, i.e., conversion of bauxite into alumina, (ii) Electrolytic reduction of alumina.

Question 35.
Describe Bayer’s process for concentration of bauxite.
Answer:
(1) Bayer’s process is used to obtain pure aluminium oxide from bauxite.
(2) Bauxite is then concentrated by chemical separation. Bauxite contains impurities like iron oxide (Fe₂O₃) and silica (SiO₂).
(3) Bauxite ore is powdered and heated with sodium hydroxide under high pressure for 2 to 8 hours at 140 °C in the digester. The aluminium oxide being amphoteric in nature present in bauxite reacts with sodium hydroxide to form water soluble sodium aluminate. This means that bauxite leached by sodium hydroxide. Silica reacts with sodium hydroxide to form soluble sodium silicate. The basic iron oxide (Fe₂O₃) in the gangue remains unaffected. It is separated by filtration.

(4) The filtrate containing sodium aluminate and sodium silicate is stirred with water and then cooling to 50° C. It is hydrolysed to give precipitate of aluminium hydroxide.

(5) Aluminium hydroxide is then filtered, washed with water, dried and then calcinated by heating at 1000 °C to get pure aluminium oxide.

Question 36.
Describe Hall’s process for concentration of bauxite.
Answer:
In Hall’s process the ore is powdered and then it is leached by heating with aqueous sodium carbonate in the digester to form water soluble sodium aluminate. Then the insoluble impurities are filtered opt. The filtrate is warmed and neutralised by passing carbon dioxide gas through it. This result in precipitation of aluminium hydroxide.

The precipitate of Al(OH)₃ obtained in this processes is filtered, washed, dried and then calcinated by heating at 1000 °C to obtain alumina.

Question 37.
Describe the process of preparation of aluminium by the electrolysis of alumina.
(OR)
Draw and label the diagram of electrolysis of alumina and explain the electrolytic reduction of alumina.
Answer:
Electrolytic reduction of alumina:
(1) The electrolytic cell consists of a rectangular steel tank lined from inside with graphite.

(2) The carbon lining (graphite) acts as a cathode. The anode consists of graphite rods suspended in the molten electrolyte.
(3) Alumina has very high melting point ( > 2000 °C). The electrolysis of alumina is carried out at a low temperature by dissolving it in molten cryolite (Na₃AlF₆). The solution of alumina in cryolite and small amount of fluorspar (CaF₂) is added in the mixture to lower its melting point up to 1000 °C.
(4) On passing an electric current, alumina is electrolysed.
(5) Molten aluminium is collected at the cathode, while oxygen gas is evolved at the anode.
The electrode reactions are shown below:
Al₂O₃ → 2Al³⁺ + 3O^2-
Anode reaction: 2O^2- → O_2(g) + 4e^–
Cathode reaction: Al³⁺ + 3e^– → Al
The molten aluminium is heavier than the electrolyte. Therefore, it sinks to the bottom of the electrolyte and is removed from time to time. About 99% pure aluminium is obtained by this process. The oxygen gas liberated reacts with carbon anode and forms carbon dioxide. As the anode gets oxidised during the electrolysis of alumina, it has to be replaced from time to time.

Question 38.
In the extraction of aluminium:
(i) Name the process of concentration of bauxite.
Answer:
The process of concentration of bauxite is known as Bayer’s process.

(ii) Write the cathode reaction in electrolytic reduction of alumina.
Answer:
At the cathode: Al³⁺ + 3e^– → Al.

(iii) Write the function and formula of cryolite in the extraction of aluminium.
Answer:
Cryolite is added to the molten mixture of alumina to reduce the melting point to about 1000 °C.
The formula of cryolite is (Na₃AlF₆) or AlF₃, 3NaF.

(iv) write an equation for the action of heat on aluminium hydroxide.
Answer:

(v) Draw the diagram of extraction of aluminium.
Answer:

(vi) Write the anode reaction in electrolytic reduction of alumina.
Answer:
Al₂O₃ → 2Al³⁺ + 3O^2-
At Anode: 2O^2- → O_2(g) + 4e^–

(vii) Write the cathode reaction in electrolytic reduction of alumina.
Answer:
Al₂O₃ → 2Al³⁺ + 3O^2-
Cathode: Al³⁺ + 3e^– → Al(l)

Question 39.
What happens when aluminium ore is heated with caustic soda? Write the balanced chemical equation for the same.
Answer:
When aluminium ore is heated with caustic soda solution under high pressure for 2 to 8 hours and at 140 °C to 150 °C, aluminium oxide from aluminium ore, being amphoteric in nature, dissolves in caustic soda solution to form sodium aluminate.

Question 40.
How is zinc extracted from its ore zinc sulphide or zinc carbonate?
Answer:
The crude zinc sulphide ore is heated strongly in excess of air. Zinc sulphide is converted into zinc oxide. This process is known as roasting.

(OR)
The crude zinc carbonate ore is heated strongly in limited supply of air. Zinc carbonate is converted into zinc oxide. This process is known as calcination.

The zinc oxide is reduced to zinc by using a reducing agent such as carbon.

Question 41.
How is copper extracted from its sulphide ore?
Answer:
Copper is found as cuprous sulphide (Cu₂S) in nature. When Cu₂S is heated in air, copper is obtained.

Question 42.
How is mercury extracted from cinnabar?
(OR)
Extraction of mercury from its ore cinnabar and write the corresponding chemical reaction.
Answer:
Cinnabar is an ore of mercury. When cinnabar is heated (roasted), it is converted into mercuric oxide (HgO). Mercuric oxide is then reduced to mercury on further heating.

Question 43.
Show the steps involved in the extraction of moderately reactive metals from their sulphide ores.
Answer:
Moderately reactive elements are present as sulphides or carbonates in nature.

Question 44.
In the reactivity series of metals, some metals are misplaced. Rearrange these metals in the decreasing order of their reactivity.

Answer:

Question 45.
Complete the table, if a metal reacts with the reagent then mark ✓ and if not then ✗.

Metal	Ferrous sulphate	Silver nitrate	Copper sulphate	Zinc sulphate
Cu
Al

Answer:

Metal	Ferrous sulphate	Silver nitrate	Copper sulphate	Zinc sulphate
Cu	✗	✓	✗	✗
Al	✓	✓	✓	✓

Question 46.
Explain the term corrosion with a suitable example.
(OR)
What is corrosion ?
Answer:
The process in which a metal is destroyed gradually by the action of air, moisture or a chemical (like an acid) on its surface is called corrosion.
(OR)
Corrosion is degradation of a material due to reaction with its environment.
The major problem of corrosion occurs with iron, as it is used as a structural material in construction, bridges, shipbuilding.
Iron gets covered by reddish brown flakes when exposed to atmosphere. This is an example of corrosion.

Question 47.
Explain the different methods to prevent corrosion of metals.
Answer:
(1) Corrosion of a metal can be prevented if the contact between metal and air is cut off.
(2) Corrosion of a metal is prevented by coating with something which does not allow moisture and oxygen to react with it.
(3) A layer of oil or paint or grease is applied on the surface of a metal to prevent corrosion. The rusting or corrosion of iron can be prevented by this method.
(4) Corrosion is also prevented by coating a corrosive metal with a noncorrosive metal. Galvanising, tinning, electroplating, anodising and alloying are the different methods in which a metal is coated with a noncorrosive metal to prevent corrosion.

Question 48.
Write three methods of preventing rusting of iron.
Answer:

The rusting of iron can be prevented by painting, oiling, greasing or varnishing its surface.
Galvanisation is another method of protecting iron from rusting by coating iron with a thin layer of zinc.
Corrosion of iron is prevented by coating iron with noncorrosive substance like carbon. This process is termed as alloying.

Question 49.
What is meant by an alloy? Give two examples with chemical composition.
Answer:
The homogeneous mixture formed by mixing a metal with other metals or nonmetals in certain proportion is called an alloy.
Examples:
1. Bronze: Bronze is an alloy formed from 90% copper and 10% tin. Bronze statues stay well in sun and rain.
2. Stainless steel: Stainless steel alloy is made from 74% iron, 18% chromium and 8% carbon. This alloy does not get stained with air or water and does not rust.

Write short notes on the following:

Question 1.
Galvanizing.
Answer:
(1) The process of coating a thin layer of zinc on iron or steel is called galvanization.
(2) In this method corrosion of zinc occurs first because zinc is more electropositive than iron. After a few years zinc layer goes away and the iron layer gets exposed and starts rusting.
(3) In galvanization an iron object is dipped into molten zinc. A thin layer of zinc is formed all over the iron object. Examples: Shiny iron nails, pin, iron pipes.

Question 2.
Tinning.
Answer:
The process of coating a thin layer of tin (molten tin) on copper or brass is called tinning. Cooking vessels made of copper and brass get a greenish coating due to corrosion. The greenish substance is copper carbonate and it is poisonous. If buttermilk or curry is placed in such a vessel it gets spoiled. Therefore, these vessels are coated with tin to prevent corrosion.

Question 3.
Electroplating.
Answer:

The process in which a less reactive metal is coated on a more reactive metal by electrolysis is called electroplating.
Examples: Silver-plated spoon, gold-plated jewellery.
(1) Which process will you study with the help of above material and solutions.
Answer:
With the help of above material and solutions, electroplating process is studied.

(2) Define the process.
Answer:
The process in which less reactive metal is coated on a more reactive metals by electrolysis is called electroplating.

(3) Write the anode and cathode reactions.
Answer:
At anode: Ag → Ag⁺ + e^–
At cathode: Ag⁺ + e^– → Ag

Question 4.
Anodizing.
(OR)
Identify the process shown in the above diagram and explain it in brief. (Practice Activity Sheet – 3)

Answer:
The anodizing technique is an application of electrolysis. In this method copper or aluminium article is used as anode and it is coated with a strong film of their oxides by means of electrolysis. This oxide layer is strong and uniform all over the surface. This thin film protects the metals from corrosion. The protection can be further increased by making the oxide layer thicker during the anodization.
Examples: Kitchen articles such as ; anodized pressure cooker and anodized pan.

Question 5.
Alloying.
Answer:
A homogenous mixture of two or more metals or a metal and a nonmetal in a definite proportion is called an alloy. The physical properties of an alloy are different from those of its constituents. Alloys are corrosion resistant. Alloy decreases the intensity of corrosion of metals.

Examples: Brass is made from copper and zinc, 90 % Copper and 10 % tin are used to make an alloy called bronze, Stainless steel is made from 74% iron, 8 % carbon and 18 % chromium.

Distinguish between: (Two points of distinction)

Question 1.
Metals and Nonmetals.
Answer:
Metals:

Metals have a lustre.
They are generally good conductors of heat and electricity.
They are generally solids at room temperature.
Exception: Mercury and gallium are liquids.
Metals form basic oxides.

Nonmetals:

Nonmetals have no lustre.
Exception: Iodine and Diamond.
They are bad conductors of heat and electricity.
Exception: Graphite.
They are generally gases and solids at room temperature.
Exception: Bromine is a liquid.
Nonmetals form acidic or neutral oxides.

Question 2.
Roasting and Calcination.
Answer:
Roasting:

In this process, the ore is heated strongly in the presence of air.
In this process, sulphide ore is converted into metal oxide.
During this process SO₂ is given out.

Calcination:

In this process, the ore is heated strongly in the limited supply of air.
In this process, carbonate ore is converted into metal oxide.
During this process CO₂ is given out.

Give scientific reasons for the following:

Question 1.
Calcium floats on water during the reaction with water.
Answer:

Calcium reacts with water less vigorously hence the heat evolved is not sufficient for hydrogen to catch fire.
Instead, calcium floats on water because the bubbles of hydrogen gas formed stick to the surface of the metal.

Question 2.
Common salt has high melting and boiling points.
Answer:

Common salt is an ionic compound. Common salt is solid and hard due to strong electrostatic attraction between oppositely charged Na+ and Cl- ions.
A large amount of energy is required to break the strong intermolecular attraction (strong ionic bond). Hence, common salt has high melting and boiling points.

Question 3.
Metals are good conductors, while non-metals are poor conductors of electricity.
Answer:

The electrons in the outermost orbit of atoms of a metal are free to move throughout the metal.
When a potential difference is applied between the ends of a metal wire, the movement of the electrons constitutes an electric current. Hence, metals are good conductors of electricity.
Nonmetals involve covalent bonding and do not have free electrons like metals. Hence, nonmetals are poor conductors of electricity.

Question 4.
Sodium is more reactive than aluminium.
Answer:

If the number of electrons in the outermost orbit of an atom of a metal is less, the metal is more reactive.
Sodium has electronic configuration (2, 8, 1) and aluminium has electronic configuration (2, 8, 3). The number of electrons in the outermost orbit of sodium and aluminium atoms are 1 and 3, respectively. Hence, sodium is more reactive than aluminium.

Question 5.
When zinc granules are added to copper sulphate solution, the blue coloured solution turns colourless.
Answer:

Zinc is more reactive than copper.
When zinc granules are added to copper sulphate solution, they displace copper from the copper sulphate solution to form zinc sulphate solution. As zinc sulphate is colourless, the blue coloured solution of copper sulphate disappears.

Question 6.
When an iron nail is dipped into a copper solution, a shiny coat of copper is formed on the nail.
Answer:

Iron is more reactive than copper.
When an iron nail is dipped into copper sulphate solution, iron displaces copper from the copper sulphate solution. The copper so liberated deposits on the iron nail. As a result, a shiny coat of copper is formed on the nail.

Question 7.
Cryolite (Na3AlF6) and fluorspar (CaF₂) are added to the electrolytic mixture containing pure alumina.
Answer:
(1) Alumina has very high melting point ( > 2000 °C). Cryolite (Na₃AlF₆) and fluorspar (CaF₂) lower the fusion temperature of the mixture containing alumina from 2000 ° C to 1000 ° C, thereby saving electrical energy.
(2) They increase the conductivity and the mobility of the fused mixture. Hence, cryolite and fluorspar are added to the electrolytic mixture containing pure alumina.

Question 8.
Air is bubbled through the mixture in Froth floatation process.
Answer:
(1) In the froth floatation process, in a tank water, ore and an oil are mixed. When air is bubbled through the mixture the oil forms froth.
(2) The mineral particles are wetted by the oil and float on the surface.
(3) The gangue particles are wetted by water and settle down. Hence, the ore can be concentrated. Hence, air is bubbled through the mixture in froth floatation process.

Question 9.
Silver amalgam is used for filling dental cavities.
Answer:
(1) Silver is a soft metal and wears off on constant usage particularly due to abrasion. Silver amalgam is an alloy of silver with mercury.
(2) It is a hard substance. It is nontoxic. Besides these properties it is a lustrous shining substance. It melts at a comparatively low temperature and can therefore conveniently fill in the cavities. Hence, silver amalgam is used for filling dental cavities.

Explain the following reactions with the help of balanced equations:

Question 1.
Out of sodium and sulphur which is a metal? Explain its reaction with oxygen. (March 2019)
Answer:
Sodium is a metal. Sodium reacts with oxygen in air at room temperature to form sodium oxide.

Question 2.
Magnesium burns in air.
Answer:
When magnesium bums in air, it combines with oxygen, emitting intense light and heat to form magnesium oxide.

Question 3.
Copper reacts with air.
Answer:
Copper tarnishes in moist air and forms black coloured oxide when strongly heated.

Question 4.
Sodium reacts with water.
Answer:
When sodium reacts with water, it evolves hydrogen which immediately catches fire producing a lot of heat.

Question 5.
Calcium reacts with water.
Answer:
Calcium reacts with water less vigorously to form hydrogen gas and calcium hydroxide. In this reaction, the heat evolved is not sufficient for hydrogen to catch fire.

Question 6.
Steam is passed over aluminium.
Answer:
When steam is passed over aluminium, hydrogen gas and aluminium oxide are formed.

Question 7.
Steam is passed over iron.
Answer:
When steam is passed over iron, iron (III) oxide and hydrogen gas are formed.

Question 8.
Magnesium reacts with dil. hydrochloric acid.
Answer:
When magnesium reacts with dil. hydrochloric acid, magnesium chloride is formed and hydrogen gas is evolved.

Question 9.
Aluminium is treated with dil. hydrochloric acid.
Answer:
When aluminium is treated with dil. hydrochloric acid, aluminium chloride and hydrogen gas are formed.

Question 10.
Zinc reacts with dil. hydrochloric acid.
Answer:
When zinc reacts with dil. hydrochloric acid, zinc chloride and hydrogen gas are formed.

Question 11.
Iron is treated with dil. hydrochloric acid.
Answer:
When iron reacts with dil. hydrochloric acid, ferrous chloride and hydrogen gas is formed.

Question 12.
Copper is reacted with cone, nitric acid.
Answer:
When copper is reacted with cone, nitric acid, copper nitrate and reddish brown nitrogen dioxide are formed.

Question 13.
Copper is reacted with dil. nitric acid.
Answer:
When copper is reacted with dil. nitric acid, copper nitrate and nitric oxide are formed.

Question 14.
Sodium metal is reacted chlorine gas.
Answer:
When sodium metal is reacted with chlorine, sodium chloride an ionic compound is formed.

Question 15.
Sulphur burns in air.
Answer:
When sulphur burns in air, it combines with oxygen to form acidic sulphur dioxide.

Question 16.
Chlorine dissolves in water.
Answer:
When chlorine dissolves in water, hypochlorous acid is formed.

Question 17.
Chlorine is treated with hydrobromic acid.
Answer:
When chlorine is treated with hydrobromic acid, chlorine displaces bromine from hydrobromic acid.
Cl_2(g) + 2HBr_(aq) → 2HCl_(aq) + Br_2(aq)

Question 18.
Hydrogen gas is passed over boiling sulphur.
Answer:
When hydrogen gas is passed over boiling sulphur, sulphur combines with hydrogen to form hydrogen sulphide which has rotten egg smell.

Question 19.
Sodium aluminate is treated with water.
Answer:
When sodium aluminate is treated with water, it is hydrolysed to give a precipitate of aluminium hydroxide.

Question 20.
Dry aluminium hydroxide is ignited at 1000 °C.
Answer:
When dry aluminium hydroxide is ignited at 1000 °C, alumina (Al₂O₃) formed.

Question 21.
Zinc sulphide is heated strongly in excess of air.
Answer:
When zinc sulphide is heated strongly in excess of air, it forms zinc oxide and sulphur dioxide gas.

Question 22.
Zinc carbonate is heated strongly in a limited supply of air.
Answer:
When zinc carbonate is heated strongly in a limited supply of air, it gives zinc oxide and carbon dioxide.

Question 23.
Zinc oxide is treated with carbon.
Answer:
When zinc oxide is treated with carbon, it is reduced to zinc. In this reaction, carbon acts as reducing agent.

Question 24.
Manganese dioxide is heated with aluminium.
Answer:
When manganese dioxide is heated with aluminium, manganese dioxide is reduced to manganese and large amount of heat is evolved.

Question 25.
Cinnabar is heated in air.
Answer:
When cinnabar is heated in air, it forms mercuric oxide and sulphur dioxide.

Question 26.
Cuprous sulphide is heated in air.
Answer:
When cuprous sulphide is heated in air, cuprous oxide is formed. Cuprous oxide is reduced to copper in the presence of ore.

Project: (Do it your self)

Project 1.
Which metals are used in day to day life? What are its uses?

Project 2.
Which nonmetals are used in day to day life? What are its uses?

10th Std Science Part 1 Questions And Answers:

Life Processes in Living Organisms Part – 2 Class 10 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

January 6, 2025January 5, 2025 by Bhagya

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 3 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part – 2 Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 10 Science Part 2 Chapter 3 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part – 2 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Class 10 Science Part 2 Chapter 3 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part – 2 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Question 1.
Complete the following chart.

Asexual reproduction	Sexual reproduction
1. Reproduction that occurs with the help of somatic cells is called asexual reproduction.	1. __________________________________________ ____________________________________________
2. __________________________________________ ____________________________________________	2. Male and female parent are necessary for sexual reproduction.
3. This reproduction occurs with the help of mitosis only.	3. __________________________________________ ____________________________________________
4. __________________________________________ ____________________________________________	4. New individual formed by this method is genetically different from parents.
5. Asexual reproduction occurs in different individuals by various methods like binary fission, multiple fission, budding, fragmentation, regeneration, vegetative propagation, spore production, etc.	5. __________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________

Answer:

Asexual reproduction	Sexual reproduction
1. Reproduction that occurs with the help of somatic cells is called asexual reproduction.	1. Reproduction that occurs due to fertilization of gametes is called sexual reproduction.
2. For asexual reproduction only one parent is necessary.	2. Male and female parents are necessary for sexual reproduction.
3. This reproduction occurs with the help of mitosis only.	3. This reproduction occurs with the help of both mitosis and meiosis.
4. New individual formed by this method is genetically identical with parents.	4. New individual formed by this method is genetically different from parents.
5. Asexual reproduction occurs in different individuals by various methods like binary fission, multiple fission, budding, fragmentation, regeneration, vegetative propagation, spore production, etc.	5. Sexual reproduction occurs in two steps: First formation of haploid gametes by meiosis and then fertilization of these haploid gametes to form diploid zygote. There are no subtypes in the sexual reproduction.

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks.
a. In humans, sperm production occurs in the organ …………
(a) prostate gland
(b) testis
(c) ovaries
(d) Cowper’s gland
Answer:
(b) testis

b. In humans, …………. chromosome is responsible for maleness.
(a) X
(b) Y
(c) Z
(d) O
Answer:
(b) Y

c. In male and female reproductive system of human, …………. gland is same.
Answer:
There is no similar gland in male and female reproductive system. There may be some homologies but there is no similarity.

d. Implantation of embryo occurs in …………
(a) ovaries
(b) fallopian duct
(c) uterus
(d) vagina
Answer:
(c) uterus

e. …………type of reproduction occurs without fusion of gametes.
(a) Asexual
(b) sexual
(c) Fertilization
(d) Gamete formation
Answer:
(a) Asexual

f. Body breaks up into several fragments and each fragment begins to live as a new individual.
This is ………. type of reproduction.
(a) regeneration
(b) fragmentation
(c) binary fission
(d) budding
Answer:
(b) fragmentation

g. Pollen grains are formed by division in locules of anthers.
(a) meiosis
(b) mitosis
(c) amitosis
(d) binary
Answer:
(a) meiosis

Question 3.
Complete the paragraph with the help of words given in the bracket:
(Luteinizing hormone, endometrium of uterus, follicle stimulating hormone, estrogen, progesterone, corpus luteum)
Growth of follicles present in the ovary occurs under the effect of ………….. This follicle secretes estrogen. Ovarian follicle along with oocyte grows/regenerates under the effect of estrogen. Under the effect of ………….., fully grown up follicle bursts, ovulation occurs and …………….. is formed from remaining part of follicle. It secretes ……………. and ………. Under the effect of these hormones, glands of ……….. are activated and it becomes ready for implantation.
Answer:
Growth of follicles present in the ovary occurs under the effect of follicle stimulating hormone. This follicle secretes estrogen. Ovarian follicle along with oocyte grows/regenerates under the effect of estrogen. Under the effect of Luteinizing hormone, fully grown up follicle bursts, ovulation occurs and corpus luteum is formed from remaining part of follicle. It secretes estrogen and progesterone. Under the effect of these hormones, glands of endometrium of uterus are activated and it becomes ready for implantation.

Question 4.
Answer the following questions short.
a. Explain with examples types of asexual reproduction in unicellular organism.
Answer:

There are different methods of asexual reproduction in different unicellular animals.
(1) Binary fission: The process in which the parent cell divides to form two similar daughter cells
is binary fission. It takes place either by mitosis or amitosis. When there are favourable conditions and abundant food supply then the organisms undergo binary fission. Prokaryotes, Protists and eukaryotic 5 cell-organelle like mitochondria and chloroplasts perform binary fission.

Based on axis of fission there are three subtypes of binary fission.
(a) Simple binary fission: The plane of division is not definite, it can be in any direction due to lack of specific shape as in Amoeba.
(b) Transverse binary fission: The plane of J division is transverse, as in Paramoecium.
(c) Longitudinal binary fission: The plane of division is in length-wise direction as in Euglena.

(2) Multiple fission:

During unfavourable conditions when there is lack of food, multiple fission is shown by amoeba. Amoeba forms protective covering and becomes encysted. Inside the cyst, amoeba undergoes repeated nuclear division. This is followed by cytoplasmic divisions. Many amoebulae are formed which remain dormant inside the cyst. When favourable conditions reappear, they come out by breaking the cyst.

(3) Budding in yeast:

Yeast is unicellular fungus that performs budding. The parent cell produces two daughter nuclei by mitotic division. This results in a small bulgingbud on the surface of parent cell. One daughter nucleus enters the bud. It then grows and upon becoming big it separates from the parent cell to have independent life as new yeast cell.

b. Explain the concept of IVF.
Answer:
(1) IVF means In Vitro Fertilization (IVF)
(2) This is the technique in the modern medical field where childless couples can be blessed by their own child.
(3) IVF technique is used for childless couples who are faced with problems such as less sperm count, obstacles in oviduct, etc.
(4) The IVF technique is done by removing the oocyte from the mother and artificially fertilizing by the sperms collected from father. This fertilization is done in a test-tube. Thus it is also called test tube baby. The embryo formed is implanted in uterus of real mother or a surrogate mother at appropriate time.

c. Which precautions will you follow to maintain the reproductive health?
Answer:
About reproductive health one should have scientific and authentic information. The cleanliness of body is very essential but keeping the mind clean is also important to maintain good reproductive health. One should be careful about sexual relationships. These things should not be experimented in young age. Mistakes committed like these can change the sexual health forever. The cleanliness and hygiene during menstruation, the cleanliness of genitals and other private parts are the aspects of personal hygiene. When living in a society, one should always be away from cross-infections of venereal type.

d. What is menstrual cycle? Describe it in brief.
Answer:

Menstrual cycle is the events of cyclic changes that takes place with the interval of 28 to 30 days in mature woman.
Hormones from pituitary, FSH (Follicle Stimulating Hormone) and LH (Luteinizing Hormone) and hormones from ovary, estrogen and progesterone control the menstrual cycle.
Due to influence of FSH, the ovarian follicle grows along with the oocyte that is present in it.
This growing follicle produces estrogen.
Under the influence of estrogen, the uterine inner layer called endometrium grows or regenerates. In the meantime the development of follicle is completed.
LH from pituitary stimulates the bursting of ovarian follicle and releases the mature oocyte out of the follicle and the ovarian wall. This process is called ovulation.
The empty ovarian follicle after the ovulation becomes corpus luteum. Corpus luteum produces hormone progesterone.
Under the influence of progesterone, the glands from uterine endometrium start secreting. The oocyte if fertilized is implanted over this endometrium.
If oocyte is not fertilized, the corpus luteum becomes a degenerate body called corpus albicans. The corpus albicans cannot secrete estrogen and progesterone.
Due to lack of these hormones, the endometrial layer of the uterus collapses. The tissue debris, along with unfertilized egg is given out through the vagina as menstrual flow. This results in bleeding for about 5 days.
If woman is not pregnant, then this menstrual cycle keeps on repeating with regularity.

Question 5.
In case of sexual reproduction, newborn show similarities about characters. Explain this statement with suitable examples.
Answer:
(1) Sexual reproduction occurs due to two different gametes. One male gamete is from father while the other female gamete is from mother.
(2) Both the gametes are produced by meiosis.
(3) When the gametes unite it is called process of fertilization which produces diploid zygote.
(4) Due to the chromosomes of parents, their DNA pass to the next generation through such fertilization. Therefore, the characters of newborn show similarities with parents.

Question 6.
Sketch the labelled diagrams.
a. Human male reproductive system.
Answer:

b. Human female reproductive system.
Answer:

c. Flower with its reproductive organs.
Answer:

d. Menstrual cycle.
Answer:

Question 7.
Give the names.
a. Hormones related with male reproductive system.
Answer:
Follicle stimulating hormone and ICSH or Luteinizing hormone secreted by pituitary gland, testosterone secreted by testis.

b. Hormones secreted by ovary of female reproductive system.
Answer:
Estrogen and progesterone.

c. Types of twins.
Answer:
Monozygotic twins, Siamese twins and Dizygotic twins.

d. Any two sexual diseases.
Answer:
Gonorrhea and Syphilis.

e. Methods of family planning.
Answer:
Copper T, condoms, oral contraceptive pills.

Question 8.
Gender of child is determined by the male? partner of couple. Explain with reasons whether this statement is true or false.
(OR)
“A couple shall have a male child or female child totally depends upon husband”. Prove truthfulness of this statement with scientific reason.
Answer:

Sex determination in Human being
(1) The statement Gender of child is determined by the male partner of couple is true.
(2) It is clearly seen from the diagram that there are two types of sperms produced by males. One sperm has a X chromosome while the other has a Y chromosome, apart from autosomes. The mother on the other hand has all X bearing oocytes. Thus the sperm that fertilizes the oocyte decides the sex of the child.
(3) If X bearing sperm fertilizes the oocyte, daughter is born and when Y bearing sperm fertilizes the oocyte, son is born.
(4) Thus father or male partner is responsible for the determination of the sex.

Question 9.
Explain asexual reproduction in plants.
Answer:

Vegetative propagation is the method of asexual reproduction in plants.
It takes place with the help of vegetative parts like root, stem, leaf and bud.
Potato, suran (Amorphophallus) and other tubes propagate with the help of ‘eyes’ which are buds. These eyes are present on the stem tubers.
In case of plants like sugarcane and grasses, buds present on nodes perform vegetative propagation.
Plants like Bryophyllum performs vegetative propagation with the help of buds present on leaf margin.

Question 10.
Modern techniques like surrogate mother, sperm bank and IVF technique will help the human beings. Justify this statement.
OR
Despite various diagnostic tests, a couple could not have a child. In this situation, which remedies will you suggest? (July 2019)
Answer:
(1) Some couples want a child but they are not able to bear one due to various problems either in mother or in father. In such cases modern techniques such as IVF, surrogacy and sperm bank are useful in conceiving a child.

(2) These methods are as follows:
(i) Surrogacy: In woman if there is problem regarding the implantation of embryo in uterus, then help of another women is taken. This women is called surrogate mother.

Oocyte from real mother is taken out and fertilized with sperms collected from her husband. These gametes are fertilized outside in a test-tube and then the fertilized zygote is implanted in the surrogate mother.

(ii) In Vitro Fertilization (IVF) is done when there are problems like less sperm count or obstacles in oviduct. In IVF, fertilization is done in the test-tube. The embryo formed is implanted in uterus of woman for further growth.

(iii) Sperm bank: If man has problems with the sperm production, then the sperms are collected from the sperm bank. Sperm bank is the place where the donor’s donate the sperms and such sperms are kept stored. The donor’s identity is kept secret and he should also be physically and medically fit person.

Question 11.
Explain sexual reproduction in plants.
(OR)
Explain double fertilization in plants.
Answer:

Plants reproduce sexually with the help of flowers.
Androecium and gynoecium are male and female parts of the flowers respectively.
In the carpel, the ovule undergoes meiosis and forms embryo sac.
A haploid egg cell and two haploid polar nuclei are present in each embryo sac.
The pollen grains from the anther reach the stigma of flower by the process of pollination. They germinate here on the stigma.
As a result of germination, long pollen tube and two male gametes are formed.
The pollen tube travels through the style of flower and the male gametes present in the pollen tube are transferred till the embryo sac in ovary. Upon reaching there, tip of the pollen tube bursts releasing two male gametes in embryo sac.
One male gamete unites with the egg cell and forms zygote. While other male gamete unites with two polar nuclei forming the endosperm.
Because there are two nuclei participating in this process, therefore it is called double fertilization.
After fertilization ovule develops into seed and ovary forms a fruit. When the seed again gets favourable conditions, it can produce a new plant.

Activities: (Do it your self)

Question 1.
Collect the official data about present and a decade old population of various Asian countries and plot a graph of that data. With the help of it, draw your conclusions about demographic changes.

Question 2.
With the help of your teacher, compose and present a road show to increase the awareness about prenatal gender detection and gender bias.

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 22)

Question 1.
Which are the important life processes in living organisms?
Answer:
The important life processes in living organisms are respiration, circulation, nutrition, excretion, sensation and response through nervous system.

Question 2.
Which life processes are essential for production of energy required by body?
Answer:
The oxidation of nutrients that are absorbed in body is done because of oxygen supplied to cells by respiratory and circulatory system. This helps in liberation of energy. Thus respiration, circulation and nutrition are the life processes that are essential for production of energy required by body.

Question 3.
Which are main types of cell division? What are the differences?
Answer:
The main types of cell division are mitosis and meiosis. In mitosis, the chromosome number remains the same. 2 daughter cells are obtained from one cell. In meiosis, the chromosome number is reduced to half. From one cell, four daughter cells are obtained.

Question 4.
What is the role of chromosomes in cell division?
Answer:
Due to chromosomes, the DNA from parental cells enter into daughter cells. The hereditary, characters are transmitted to next generation by cell division.

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 22)

Question 1.
What do we mean by maintenance of species?
Answer:
Maintenance of species means a species undertakes successful reproduction and produces individuals of its own kind. This keeps the species existing on the earth.

Question 2.
Whether the new organism is genetically exactly similar to earlier one that has produced it?
Answer:
No. The new organism produced from the old one is not genetically exactly similar to the parents. In meiotic cell division there is crossing over in the homologous chromosomes. This produces genetic recombination. Thus the new organism is different from the earlier one. However, if the reproduction is of asexual type, then the young one is exactly similar to the parents.

Question 3.
Who determines whether the two organisms of a species will be exactly similar or not?
Answer:
The type of reproduction, whether it is asexual or sexual, the type of crossing over, the extent of genetic recombination, etc. determine the similarity among the parent organisms and their, offspring. Based on this genetic recombination the two organisms of a species do not show exact similarity. However, in case of monozygotic twins there is exact similarity. In asexual reproduction to there is similarity.

Question 4.
What is the relationship between the cell division and formation of new organism of same species by earlier existing organism?
Answer:
In the process of reproduction, there is division of chromosomes. Due to cell division, the gametes are formed. The union of gametes produce new offspring. In sexual reproduction, all these processes take place due to cell division. In asexual reproduction too there is cell division. Growth of new organism also occurs due to cell division.

Let’s Think: (Text Book Page No. 26)

Question 1.
What would have been happened if the male and female gametes had been diploid?
Answer:
Diploid (2n) gametes if united, they will form 4n, i.e. tetraploid variety. Such zygote will show severe abnormality. The chromosome number will not be maintained.

Question 2.
What would have been happened if any of the cells in nature had not been divided by meiosis?
Answer:
If meiosis does not happen the gametes produced will be diploid. This will create abnormality.

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 28)

Question 1.
Which different hormones control the functions of human reproductive system through chemical coordination?
Answer:
Pituitary gland secretes FSH and LH. LH is known as ICSH in males, as its function in the male body is different. From the gonads of male and female, hormones are secreted which are essential for male and female reproductive functions respectively. These hormones are testosterone secreted from testis in males and estrogen and progesterone secreted from the ovaries in females. Testosterone is essential for masculinity as well as for sperm production while female hormones are essential for changes in the female body leading to motherhood.

Question 2.
Which hormones are responsible for changes in human body occurring during onset of sexual maturity?
Answer:
Testosterone in male body and estrogen in female body are responsible for maturity onset changes in human body.

Question 3.
Why has the Government of India enacted the law to fix the minimum age of marriage as 18 in girls and 21 in boys?
Answer:
The full growth of female body is not completed till the age of 18. Till 18 years of age the physical and emotional maturity is not attained. Therefore, she is not suitable for marriage, sexual relationship and pregnancy. Similarly, boy attains complete growth only the age of 21. Therefore, to keep individuals and their progeny safe and healthy the Government of India enacted the law to fix the minimum age of marriage as 18 in girls and 21 in boys.

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 31)

Question 1.
Which hormone is released from pituitary of mother once the foetal development is completed?
Answer:
The hormone oxytocin is released from the posterior pituitary of mother once the foetal development is completed.

Question 2.
Under the effect of that hormone, which organ of the female reproductive system starts to contract and thereby birth process (parturition) is facilitated?
Answer:
Due to oxytocin, uterus contracts involuntarily and the baby is expelled out. Thus initiation of birth process is possible due to contractions of uterus.

Use your brain power. (Text Book Page No. 24)

Question 1.
Does the parent cell exist after asexual reproduction-fission?
Answer:
In fission, the parent cell divides into two. This nucleus and cytoplasm, both are divided. Thus, parent cell does not exist any longer, it is converted into new cells.

Choose the correct alternative and write that alphabet against the sub-question number:

Question 1.
Pranav and Pritee are twins in your class. They belong to ……….. twins type.
(a) monozygotic
(b) dizyotic
(c) siamese
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) dizyotic

Question 2.
Longitudinal binary fission is seen in …………..
(a) Paramoecium
(b) Euglena
(c) Amoeba
(d) Spirogyra
Answer:
(b) Euglena

Question 3.
Yeast cell performs asexual reproduction by ……………..
(a) fragmentation
(b) budding
(c) binary fission
(d) regeneration
Answer:
(b) budding

Question 4.
Carrot and raddish undergoes …………. with the help of their roots.
(a) vegetative propagation
(b) fragmentation
(c) budding
(d) regeneration
Answer:
(a) vegetative propagation

Question 5.
Androecium and gynoecium are ……….. whorl of the flower.
(a) accessory
(b) essential
(c) external
(d) internal
Answer:
(b) essential

Question 6.
Flowers without stalk are called ……….. flowers.
(a) stalkless
(b) sessile
(c) incomplete
(d) complete
Answer:
(b) sessile

Question 7.
………….. on the inner surface of fallopian ducts (oviducts) push the egg towards uterus.
(a) Cilia
(b) Tentacles
(c) Flagella
(d) Fibres
Answer:
(a) Cilia

Question 8.
Pregnant mother supplies nourishment to her foetus through …………..
(a) breasts
(b) uterus
(c) placenta
(d) ovaries
Answer:
(c) placenta

Question 9.
The length of a sperm is about …………. micrometers.
(a) 400
(b) 5
(c) 60
(d) 600 (July ’19)
Answer:
(c) 60

Question 10.
Vegetative propagation is performed with the help of ……….. in sweet potato.
(a) root
(b) stem
(c) leaf
(d) flower
Answer:
(a) root

Question 11.
Which of the following is not a unisexual flower?
(a) Coconut
(b) Papaya
(c) Gulmohar
(d) Maize
Answer:
(c) Gulmohar

Write whether the following statements are true or false, with the suitable reason:

Question 1.
Absence of genetic recombination is an advantage whereas fast process is drawback of asexual reproductive method.
Answer:
False. (Absence of genetic recombination is a drawback whereas fast process is advantage of asexual reproductive method.)

Question 2.
Prokaryotes show fission which occurs either by mitosis or amitosis.
Answer:
True. (Prokaryotes show fission by both the methods, i.e. mitosis and amitosis.)

Question 3.
During favourable conditions multiple fission is performed by amoeba.
Answer:
False. (During unfavourable conditions multiple fission is performed by amoeba.)

Question 4.
Any encysted Amoeba or any other protist is called ‘Cyst’.
Answer:
True. (Cyst is the tough capsule like structure which keeps the protists dormant inside it. This helps the organisms to tide over unfavourable conditions.)

Question 5.
If the body of Sycon breaks up accidentally into only large and few fragments, then only each fragment develops into new Sycon.
Answer:
False. (If the body of Sycon breaks up accidentally into many fragments, each fragment develops into new Sycon. Because the capacity to regenerate is very strong in poriferan Sycon, even a small piece of parent Sycon can give rise to entire new individual.)

Question 6.
Pollen tube reaches the zygote via style.
Answer:
False. (Pollen tube reaches the embryo sac via style. Later, double fertilization takes place and the zygote and endosperm are formed.)

Question 7.
There is glucose sugar in the semen.
Answer:
False. (There is fructose sugar in the semen. Glucose is not present in semen.)

Question 8.
Out of 2 – 4 million ova, approximately only 400 oocytes are released up to the age of menopause.
Answer:
True. (During the reproductive span of the woman, from menarche to menopause only one oocyte per one month is released in the span of 30 to 35 years.)

Question 9.
If the oocyte is fertilized, secretion of estrogen and progesterone stops completely.
Answer:
False. (If the oocyte is not fertilized, there is no need of corpus luteum which secretes progesterone. In absence of conception, the progesterone is not needed, thus corpus luteum degenerates and forms corpus albicans.)

Question 10.
During menstruation there is need of rest along with special personal hygiene.
Answer:
True. (During phase of menstruation there is pain and bleeding in woman. Her body is also susceptible for infections. There is weakness and hence she needs rest along with special personal hygiene.)

Find the odd one out:

Question 1.
Circulation, Excretion, Sensation, Reproduction.
Answer:
Reproduction. (All others are processes necessary for survival of the individual.)

Question 2.
Budding in hydra, Regeneration, Binary fission, Fragmentation
Answer:
Binary fission. (All others are processes of asexual reproduction in multicellular organisms.)

Question 3.
Carrot, Radish, Potato, Sweet potato.
Answer:
Potato. (All others are edible roots.)

Question 4.
Vas eferens, vas deferens, prostate gland, epididymis.
Answer:
Prostate gland. (All others are duct systems in male reproductive system.)

Question 5.
Prostate gland, Bartholin’s gland, Cowper’s gland, Epididymis.
Answer:
Bartholin’s glands. (All others are parts of male reproductive system.)

Question 6.
Stigma, style, pollen, ovary.
Answer:
Pollen. (All others are parts of gynoecium.)

Identify the correlation between the first two words and suggest the suitable words in the fourth place:

Question 1.
Amoeba : Fission : : Hydra : ………….
Answer:
Amoeba : Fission : : Hydra : Budding

Question 2.
Transverse binary fission : Paramoecium : : Longitudinal binary fission : ………… (July ‘19)
Answer:
Transverse binary fission : Paramoecium : : Longitudinal binary fission : Euglena

Question 3.
Calyx : Sepals : : Corolla : ………….
Answer:
Calyx : Sepals : : Corolla : Petals

Question 4.
Accessory whorls : Calyx and corolla : : Essential whorls : ………..
Answer:
Accessory whorls : Calyx and corolla : : Essential whorls : Androecium and gynoeciuin

Question 5.
Bisexual flower : Hibiscus : : Unisexual flower : ………….
Answer:
Bisexual flower : Hibiscus : : Unisexual flower : Papaya

Question 6.
FSH : Development of qocyte : : LH : ………….
Answer:
FSH : Development of qocyte : : LH : Ovulation

Define the following/Give meanings of the following:

Question 1.
Budding in yeast.
Answer:
Budding in yeast: Budding is the asexual reproductive process in which a! small bulge or bud appears on the surface of parent cell as seen in unicellular yeast.

Question 2.
Budding in hydra.
Answer:
Budding in hydra: Budding in hydra is asexual reproductive process in which an outgrowth is formed by repeated divisions of regenerative cells of body wall called bud.

Question 3.
Regeneration.
Answer:
Regeneration: Regeneration is the asexual reproduction in Planaria in which the body is broken up into two parts and resulting each part regenerates remaining part of the body.

Question 4.
Fragmentation.
Answer:
Fragmentation: Fragmentation is the asexual type of reproduction in which the body of parent organism breaks up into many fragments. Each fragment can start living independently.

Question 5.
Vegetative propagation.
Answer:
Vegetative propagation: Vegetative propagation is a type of asexual reproduction in plants that takes place with the help of vegetative parts like root, stem, leaf and bud.

Question 6.
Fertilization.
Answer:
Fertilization: The process by which two haploid gametes unite to form a diploid zygote is called fertilization.

Question 7.
Pedicel.
Answer:
Pedicel: The stalk of the flower which is for the support is called pedicel.

Question 8.
Pollination.
Answer:
Pollination: Transfer of pollen grains from anther to the stigma is called pollination.

Question 9.
Self-Pollination.
Answer:
Self-Pollination: Pollination involving only one flower or two flowers borne on same plant is called self-pollination.

Question 10.
Cross-Pollination.
Answer:
Cross-Pollination: Pollination involving two flowers borne on two plants of same species is cross-pollination.

Question 11.
Endosperm.
Answer:
Endosperm: Endosperm is the nourishing substance formed by the union of second male gamete with two polar nuclei at the time of fertilization in plants.

Question 12.
Embryo sac.
Answer:
Embryo sac: There are many ovules in the ovary, the structure formed in each of the ovule by meiosis is called embryo sac.

Question 13.
Menopause.
Answer:
Menopause: Stoppage of functioning of female reproductive system due to lack of synthesis of hormones due to advancing age is called menopause.

Question 14.
Placenta.
Answer:
Placenta: An organ developed in the uterus of the pregnant mother, through which the embryo is given nourishment is called placenta.

Question 15.
Menstrual cycle.
Answer:
Menstrual cycle: The repetitive changes at the interval of every 28-30 days in female reproductive system that take place after puberty, form menstrual cycle.

Question 16.
Corpus luteum.
Answer:
Corpus luteum: Corpus luteum is the secondary structure that is formed from empty ovarian follicle after ovulation. This corpus luteum produces progesterone and thereby maintains pregnancy.

Question 17.
Corpus albicans.
Answer:
Corpus albicans: Corpus albicans is the degenerate body which is formed from corpus luteum, if the ovum is not fertilized.

Question 18.
Ovulation.
Answer:
Ovulation: Bursting of mature ovarian follicle under the influence of hormones to release the oocyte is called ovulation.

Question 19.
IVF.
Answer:
IVF: In Vitro Fertilization is the technique in which fertilization is brought about outside the female body but in the test-tube and the embryo is implanted in uterus of woman.

Question 20.
Sperm bank.
Answer:
Sperm bank: Sperm bank is the place where semen donated by the desired men is collected after their thorough physical and medical check-up and stored at sub-zero temperatures in sterile conditions.

Name the following/Give the names:

Question 1.
Different glands associated with male reproductive system.
Answer:
Seminal vesicles, Prostate gland, Cowper’s or bulbourethral glands.

Question 2.
Agents of pollination.
Answer:
Biotic: Insects, birds, few animals.
Abiotic: Water and wind.

Question 3.
Components of semen.
Answer:
Secretion of prostate gland seminal vesicles and Cowper’s glands along with sperms.

Question 4.
Two accessory whorls in flower.
Answer:
Calyx and corolla.

Question 5.
Two essential whorls in flower.
Answer:
Androecium and gynoecium.

Question 6.
The modern techniques in reproduction.
Answer:
In Vitro Fertilization, Surrogate mother, Sperm bank.

Question 7.
Symptoms of gonorrhea.
Answer:
Painful and burning sensation during urination, oozing of pus through penis and vagina, inflammation of urinary tract, anus, throat, eyes, etc.

Question 8.
Symptoms of syphilis.
Answer:
Occurrence of chancre (patches) on various parts of body including genitals, rash, fever, inflammation of joints, alopecia, etc.

Write the functions of the following organs:

Question 1.
Sporangium.
Answer:
Storing the spores and releasing them by bursting.

Question 2.
Calyx.
Answer:
Protection of inner whorls of the flower.

Question 3.
Corolla.
Answer:
Attracting insects for pollination. Protecting inner whorls.

Question 4.
Androecium.
Answer:
Production of pollen grains, the male gametes of flower.

Question 5.
Gynoecium.
Answer:
Production of female gametes of flower. Participating in production of fruits.

Question 6.
Endosperm.
Answer:
Nourishment of the growing embryo.

Question 7.
Testis.
Answer:
Production of sperms and male hormone-testosterone.

Question 8.
Scrotum.
Answer:
Protection and temperature control of testis.

Question 9.
Seminal vesicles.
Answer:
Secretion of seminal fluid which forms major portion of semen. Nourishment of sperms.

Question 10.
Penis.
Answer:
Transferring of sperms to vagina at the time of intercourse. Release of urine at the time of urination.

Question 11.
Ovary.
Answer:
Production of oocytes and female hormones – estrogen and progesterone.

Question 12.
Uterus.
Answer:
Growth and development of foetus during pregnancy. Helping in parturition (childbirth) by contractions.

Question 13.
Fallopian tubes/ducts.
Answer:
Transporting the released oocyte after ovulation to the uterus. Providing space for fertilization of oocyte by sperm. Conception is possible only when sperm and oocyte meet in the fallopian tube.

Question 14.
Vagina.
Answer:
Passage for copulation/intercourse. Birth canal. Passage for menstrual flow.

Question 15.
Placenta.
Answer:
Supplying nourishment to the growing foetus.

Distinguish between:

Question 1.
Binary fission and Multiple fission.
Answer:
Binary fission:

Two new individuals are formed from one old individual at one time.
The division of nucleus and cytoplasm takes place initially.
The axis of division can be transverse, longitudinal or any one axis as it is in simple binary fission.
Formation of protective cyst does not take place.
Binary fission can be done during favourable period.

Multiple fission:

Many new individuals are formed from one old individual at one time.
Only nucleus divides initially followed by division of cytoplasm.
There is no exact axis for the fission.
Protective covering is formed around dividing amoebulae which is called cyst.
Multiple fission takes place only at the time of unfavourable period.

Question 2.
Human male and Human female reproduction system.
Answer:
Human male reproductive system:

Testis are essential organs which are located outside the abdomen in the scrotal sacs.
There is common urethra through which urine and semen, are passed out.
Reproductive system of male continues to work even in old age.
Sperms or male gametes are produced by meiosis in the testis.
Sperms are produced in millions at one time.
Three accessory glands are associated with the male reproductive system.
Testis secrete testosterone which is essential male hormone.

Human female reproductive system:

Ovaries are essential organs which are located along with all other organs inside the lower abdomen.
Urethra and vagina are two separate openings that open to outside.
Reproductive system works only till menopause.
Oocytes or ova are produced by meiosis in the ovaries.
Only single oocyte is produced per month.
Only one gland is associated with female reproductive system.
Ovaries produce estrogen and progesterone which are essential female hormones.

Question 3.
Monozygotic twins and Dizygotic twins.
Answer:
Monozygotic twins:

Two children developing from only one zygote are called monozygotic twins.
Monozygotic twins develop from same oocyte.
Gender of both the twins is same.
The monozygotic twins are genetically exactly alike.

Dizygotic twins:

Two children developing from two different zygotes are called dizygotic twins.
Dizygotic twins develop from two different oocytes.
Gender of both the twins can be same or can be different.
The dizygotic twins are genetically not exactly alike.

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
Individual developed by sexual reproduction always carry recombined genes of both the parents.
Answer:

In sexual reproduction, the haploid male and female gametes are united to form diploid zygote.
The zygote thus carries chromosomes of both parents which are transferred via male and female gametes.
While producing gametes, there is meiosis in which genetic recombination takes place.
Therefore, the individual developed by sexual reproduction always carry recombined genes of both the parents.

Question 2.
Flower is the structural unit of sexual reproduction in plant.
Answer:

Flower produces male and female gametes.
For this purpose there are essential whorls of androecium and gynoecium.
The double fertilization also takes place in flower.
Therefore, flower is called the structural unit of sexual reproduction in plants.

Question 3.
Fertilization in plants is called double fertilization.
Answer:

After pollination the pollen grains drop on the sticky stigma of the flower.
They germinate here producing two male gametes and a long pollen tube.
The male gametes travel through the pollen tube till they reach the embryo sac.
Here the male gametes are released by bursting the pollen tube. One male gamete unites with the egg cell to form zygote while the second male gamete unites with two polar nuclei forming endosperm.
In this way because two nuclei participate in the fertilization process, therefore it is called double fertilization.

Question 4.
By the age of 45 – 50 women gets menopause.
Answer:

By the age of 45-50, the secretion of hormones which control the functioning of the reproductive system is reduced gradually and then it stops.
This causes end of menstrual cycle. This results into menopause.

Question 5.
Older mothers have greater chance of conceiving abnormal children.
Answer:

In older women the menopausal age approaches.
The oocytes, released from ovaries during this phase are not normal.
Their meiotic cell division is abnormal and thus oocyte becomes abnormal too.
If such abnormal oocytes are fertilized, the baby is born with many genetic problems, e.g. Down’s syndrome or Turner’s syndrome.

Question 6.
Indians should follow family planning for controlling the population.
Answer:

There is severe population explosion in India. It has almost reached to 121 crores.
This results into unemployment, decreasing per capita income and increasing loan, stress on natural resources, etc.
Only by controlling population, the quality of life can be restored.
Therefore, Indians should follow family planning for controlling the population.

Answer the following questions in short:

Question 1.
How does reproduction take place in fungus Mucor?
Answer:

Mucor reproduces asexually by spore formation.
It has filamentous body that possess sporangia.
When the spores are formed, the sporangia burst. The spores are released which settle down at suitable Places.
They germinate in moist and warm place forming a new fungal colony.

Question 2.
What is the type of asexual reproduction shown in the diagram below? (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Answer:

Type of asexual reproduction shown in the diagram above is fragmentation in Spirogyra.

Question 3.
Describe the structure of a flower.

Answer:
(1) The structural unit of sexual reproduction in plants is flower. There are total four floral whorls. Of these, two are accessory floral whorls while two are essential floral whorls.
(2) Calyx and corolla are accessory whorls. They are protective in nature.
(3) Members of calyx are known as sepals. They are usually green in colour. They protect the inner whorls.
(4) The members of corolla are called petals. They can be of different colours.
(5) Androecium and gynoecium are essential whorls as they participate in sexual reproduction.
(6) The male whorl androecium is made up of stamens. Each stamen has a filament with anther located at the upper end. In the anther there are four locules. Inside the locules the meiosis takes place forming pollen grains. During suitable time, the pollen grains are released from anther lobes.
(7) Gynoecium is made up of carpels, either in separate form or are united. Each carpel is formed of ovary at the basal end hollow ‘style’ and the stigma at the tip of style. There are one or many ovules inside the ovary.
(8) In bisexual flowers both androecium and gynoecium are located in the same flower, e.g. Hibiscus.
(9) In unisexual flowers, androecium is present in male flowers and gynoecium is present in the female flowers, e.g. Papaya.

Question 4.
Describe the human male reproductive system.
Answer:

In human male reproductive system, the reproductive organs are as follows:

Testes, different types of duct systems and glands.
Testes are in pair. Each testis lies in the scrotum which lies outside to abdominal cavity.
Testes -consist of numerous seminiferous tubules. The germinal epithelium of seminiferous tubules form sperms by undergoing meiosis.
These sperm cells are immature.
They are pushed gradually through various duct systems till the penis.
This path is as follows:
Rete testis → vas efferentia → epididymis → vasa deferentia → Ejaculatory duct → urethra
As the sperms are travelling, they gradually become mature. They are made capable to perform process of fertilization.
Seminal vesicles (in pairs), Single prostate gland and a pair of Cowper’s glands secrete their secretions. These secretions and the sperms together form semen.
This semen is deposited in the vagina with help of penis.

Question 5.
Describe the human female reproductive system.
Answer:

All the organs of the human female reproductive system are located inside the lower abdomen.
There are pair of ovaries, pair of fallopian ducts and a single median uterus.
The uterus opens out by vagina. In vaginal walls there are Bartholin’s glands.
The urethra in female body is separate and not a common passage as in male body.
The free end of fallopian duct is funnel-like having an opening in the centre. The oocyte released from the ovary due to ovulation is picked up by this funnel.
The other end of fallopian duct opens into uterus. There are cilia on inner surface of oviduct. With the help of the cilia the oocyte is pushed to the uterus through the fallopian duct.
The fertilization of oocyte can take place only in the middle’part of the fallopian duct.
The lower end of uterus opens into vagina. The contractions of uterus help in the process of parturition.
Vagina is the birth canal as well as copulatory passage. It is also a passage for menstrual flow.

Question 6.
What problems cause infertility in couple?
Answer:

In woman if there are problems like irregularity in menstrual cycle, difficulties in oocyte production or implantation in uterus, obstacles in the oviduct, etc.
In man if there are no sperms in the semen, slow movement of sperms, or anomalies in the sperms then he becomes sterile.
But now with the help of advanced medical techniques these problems can be overcome and a childless couple can be parents.

Question 7.
Answer the following questions: (July 2019)
(a) In our country, there seems to be lack of awareness regarding reproductive health. Why?
(b) Write the symptoms of disease gonorrhea.
(c) What precautions will you take to maintain reproductive health?
Answer:
(a) There is lack of awareness about reproductive health among majority of people of our country. This is due to social customs, traditions, illiteracy, social taboo and shyness.

(b) Symptoms of gonorrhea are as follows:

Painful burning during urination.
Oozing of pus through penis or vagina.
Inflammation of urinary tract, anus, throat, eyes, etc.

(c) Precautions to maintain reproductive health are cleanliness and personal hygiene. Guarding against any sexual infections.

Question 8.
If a piece of bread is kept in a container in moist place for 2-3 days, (1) What will you see? (2) Write scientific name and a character of the organism you may observe.
Answer:
(1) If a piece of bread is kept in moist container we can see growth of fungus on it.
(2) Fungi belonging to species Mucor is seen. It has filamentous body and sporangia. Sporangia burst open to spread spores. It has saprophytic mode of nutrition as it devoid of chlorophyll.

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Multiple fission.
Answer:

During unfavourable conditions when there is lack of food. multiple fission is shown by amoeba. Amoeba forms protective covering and becomes encysted. Inside the cyst, amoeba undergoes repeated nuclear division. This is followed by cytoplasmic divisions. Many amoebulae are formed which remain dormant inside the cyst. When favourable conditions reappear, they come out by breaking the cyst.

Question 2.
Regeneration.
Answer:

In developed animals like wall lizard the process of regeneration is used to restore the lost parts like tail or limbs. As the reproductive system is one of the fullfledged system in the body, the process of regeneration cannot be called type of reproduction.

But some primitive organisms such as Plarfaria use this method for procreation. Planaria breaks up its body into two parts. Each part has the ability to develop the lost part by process of regeneration. This forms two new Planaria.

Question 3.
Seed germination.
Answer:

Seed germination is the process in which the seed develops into a new plantlet. In the plants, after fertilization the ovule develops into seed and ovary turns into fruit. Seeds fallen on the ground due to bursting of the fruits start germinating. Only under favourable conditions in the soil, this germination takes place. The zygote present inside the seed uses food stored in endosperm of seed and hence develops further to produce a new plantlet.

Question 4.
Budding in hydra.
Answer:

In multicellular organisms asexual reproduction by budding is shown by hydra. In fully grown Hydra, at specific part of its body there is development of bud.

This development is only during favourable period. The bud is an outgrowth developed due to repeated divisions of regenerative cells of body wall. It grows up gradually to form a small hydra. Parent hydra’s dermal layers and digestive cavity are in continuity with those of the budding hydra. It receives all the nutrition from parent hydra.When the budding hydra grows sufficiently, it detaches from parent hydra. Then it leads an independent life.

Question 5.
Fragmantation.
Answer:

Fragmentation is one of the type of asexual reproduction in multicellular organisms. During fragmentation, the body of parent organism breaks up into many fragments. All the resulting fragments start to develop as an independent new organism. In alga Spirogyra, and sponge like Sycon asexual reproduction takes place by fragmentation. Spirogyra grow up very fast and break up into many small fragments when there are favourable conditions. Each newly formed fragment lives independently as a new Spirogyra. Similarly the body of Sycon if accidentally broken into many fragments, develops into new Sycon from each old fragment.

Question 6.
Monozygotic twins.
Answer:
The twins developed from a single embryo are called monozygotic twins. If within 8 days of zygote formation i.e. in early embryonic development cells of that embryo divide into two groups. Each one develop as two separate embryos forming two monozygotic twins. Monozygotic twins are genetically exactly similar to each other. The gender of the twins is also same.

The Siamese twins develop from monozygotic twins, if the embryonic cells are divided into two groups 8 days after the zygote formation. These are conjoined twins where some parts of body are joined to each other. Also some organs are common in Siamese twins.

Read the paragraph and answer the questions given below:

Reproduction is the process by which the living species continues its existence. Lower organisms carry out asexual reproduction while higher plants and animals always show sexual reproduction. Plants reproduce asexually by methods such as fragmentation, vegetative propagation, budding, spore formation. For sexual reproduction they form gametes. In animal kingdom, budding, fission of different types and parthenogenesis are some of the methods that do not require both the sexes. Though regeneration also forms new individual, it is not considered to be a reproductive process because, basically it is a repair process. The ability to regenerate is lost in higher phyla. In human beings | it is restricted only to wound healing. Sexual reproduction is also undergoing lots of experimentation such as cloning which may make females capable of producing their own baby without intervention of any male.

Questions and Answers:

Question 1.
How do living species continue their existence?
Answer:
Through the process of reproduction, living species continue their existence.

Question 2.
Which are asexual methods of reproduction in kingdom Animalia?
Answer:
Fission, budding and parthenogenesis are the asexual methods of reproduction in Kingdom Animalia.

Question 3.
Why is regeneration not true method of reproduction?
Answer:
Regeneration is the repair process than a reproductive process. It is not done with the intention of producing offspring, but is for healing or repairing the lost part.

Question 4.
What are methods of reproduction in plants?
Answer:
Plants reproduce by asexual as well as sexual methods. Asexual reproduction is by fragmentation, vegetative propagation, budding, spore formation, while by formation of gametes, sexual reproduction is done.

Question 5.
What is the modern method of reproduction aimed at in higher organisms?
Answer:
Cloning is the modern method of reproduction by which production of young one can be aimed at.

Diagram-based Questions:

Question 1.
Observe the figure 3.18 and answer the questions below: (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)

(a) What does the figure 3.18 indicate?
Answer:
The figure indicates the menstrual cycle in human female.

(b) Which human organs are involved in this process?
Answer:
The ovary and uterus are primarily involved in this process. But the pituitary gland also controls this cycle.

(c) Which hormones take part in this process?
Answer:
Following hormones regulate this menstrual cycle.
Pituitary hormones: Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) and Luteinizing Hormone (LH).
Ovarian hormones: Estrogen and progesterone.

(d) What is the periodicity for these changes?
Answer:
The menstrual cycle shows repetitive changes every 28 to 30 days.

(e) The body of woman undergoing this process is impure, she should remain away from other people. What is your opinion about this statement? Give justification for your opinion.
Answer:
A menstruating woman is not at all with impure body. It is a natural process in which the endometrium of the uterus is sloughed off and repaired.

She should get enough rest and nutrition during this period. It is painful period in which there is a possibility of infections. Therefore, she should take ! hygienic care and rest till the bleeding persists. But blind faith and superstition to keep her away from others should not be followed.

Question 2.
Observe the diagram (Fig. 3.19) of menstrual cycle and answer the following questions:

(1) What is the period of menstruation?
Answer:
1 to 5 days is the period of menstruation.

(2) On which day does ovulation occur during menstrual cycle?
Answer:
Ovulation occurs on 14th or 15th day.

(3) During which period is corpus luteum active during menstrual cycle? Which hormones are secreted by corpus luteum ?
Answer:
Corpus luteum is active till the 28th day of menstrual cycle. During this time if there is no union of sperm and ovum, then corpus luteum degenerates. Corpus luteum secretes estrogen and progesterone.

(4) In menstrual cycle which reproductive organs undergo changes?
Answer:
Ovary and uterus undergo changes during menstrual cycle.

(5) Which period is said to be period of regeneration of endometrium?
Answer:
In menstrual cycle, days 5 to 14 are period of regeneration of endometrium.

(6) Which period is said to be period of secretions of glands in endometrium?
Answer:
Period of secretions of glands in endometrium is 15 to 28 days.

Question 3.
Observe the following picture and describe the type of reproduction shown in.

Answer:
In developed animals like wall lizard the process of regeneration is used to restore the lost parts like tail or limbs. As the reproductive system is one of the fullfledged system in the body. the process of regeneration cannot be called type of reproduction.

But some primitive organisms such as Planaria use this method for procreation. Planaria breaks up its body into two parts. Each part has the ability to develop the lost part by process of regeneration. This forms two new Planaria.

Question 4.
Answer the following questions: (March 2019)
(a) “Gender of child is determined by the male partner of couple.” Draw a diagram explaining the above statement.
Answer:

(b) Prepare a slogan for campaign against female foeticide.
Answer:

Save the girl child.
Daughters give lot of joy, it is not only the boy.

(c) In the following figure, explain how new fungal colonies of mucor are formed:

Answer:
Mucor is a fungus having filamentous body. The filaments bear sporangia. Mature sporangia burst and release spores. Spores germinate to form new hyphae upon getting favourable moist and warm place.

(d) Identify and state the type of reproduction represented in the above figure.
Ans. The spore formation is asexual type of reproduction seen in Mucor.

Question 5.
Write the type of asexual reproduction shown in the figure.

Answer:
The figure shows budding in yeast. Budding is the type of asexual reproduction.

Experiments:
(Try this: Text Book Pages 23 and 24)

(1) Observation of Paramoecia.
(2) Observation of yeast.
(3) Study of Hibiscus.
[For detailed information on practicals, refer to Vikas Science and Technology Experiment Book: Standard X]

Projects:

Project 1.
Use of ICT. (Textbook page no. 27)
Make an video album of pollination and show it in the class.

Project 2.
Internet is my friend. (Textbook page no. 33)
You may have read that sometimes a woman may deliver more than two offspring at a time. Collect more information from internet about reasons for such incidences.

Project 3.
Get information. (Textbook page no. 34)
Visit a public health centre nearby your place and collect the information through an interview of health officer about meaning and various methods of family planning.

10th Std Science Part 2 Questions And Answers:

Towards Green Energy Class 10 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

January 6, 2025January 5, 2025 by Bhagya

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 5 Towards Green Energy Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 10 Science Part 2 Chapter 5 Towards Green Energy Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Class 10 Science Part 2 Chapter 5 Towards Green Energy Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Question 1.
Remake the table taking into account relation between entries in three columns.

I	II	III
Coal	Potential energy	Wind electricity plant
Uranium	Kinetic energy	Hydroelectric plant
Water reservoir	Nuclear energy	Thermal plant
Wind	Thermal energy	Nuclear power plant

Answer:

I	II	III
Coal	Thermal energy	Thermal plant
Uranium	Nuclear energy	Nuclear power plant
Water reservoir	Potential energy	Hydroelectric plant
Wind	Kinetic energy	Wind electricity plant

Question 2.
Which fuel is used in thermal power plant? what are the problems associated with this type of power generation?
Answer:
(1) The fuel used in the thermal power plant is coal. Coal contains chemical energy. Upon burning it releases heat energy. This heat is used for generation of electricity in the thermal power plants.

(2) Problems associated with power 8enerations by thermal power plant:
(a) Air pollution: Due to burning of coal, there is emission of carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide, sulphur dioxide and nitrogen dioxide gases. These are harmful and toxic to health.
(b) Soot particles emitted during combustion can cause severe respiratory problems such as asthma.

Question 3.
Other than thermnl power plant. which power plants use thermal energy for power generation? In what different ways is the thermal energy obtained?
Answer:
(1) The power plant based on natural gas and the nuclear power plants also used thermal energy for the power generation. Apart from these, solar energy is also used to produce heat and thereby create the power.
(2) In nuclear power plant, the energy is released by carrying out fission of nuclei of atoms like Uranium or Plutonium. This energy is used to generate the steam of high temperature and high pressure. The steam rotates the turbine. The kinetic energy in steam drives the turbine and turbine in turn drives the generator.
(3) The combustion of natural gas produces gas, which is used to run the turbine. This gas is under high pressure and high temperature. This is used to produce thermal energy.
(4) In solar thermal power plant, thermal energy is generated with the help of solar radiation. For this reflectors and absorbers are used for concentrating solar radiation and converting it into thermal energy.

Question 4.
Which type/types of power generation involve maximum number of steps of energy conversion? In which power generation is the number minimum?
Answer:
The steps of energy conversion are maximum in the thermal power generation. They are minimum in wind energy generation.

Question 5.

a. Maximum energy generation in India is done using …………… energy.
Answer:
Maximum energy generation in India is done using thermal energy.

b. ………. energy is a renewable source of energy.
Answer:
wind energy is a renewable source of energy.

c.Solar energy can be called ……. energy.
Answer:
Solar energy can be called clean energy.

d. ……. energy of wind is used in wind mills.
Answer:
kinetic energy of wind is used in wind mills.

e. ………. energy of water in darns is used for generation of electricity.
Answer:
Potential energy of water in darns is used for generation of electricity.

Question 6.
Explain the difference.
a. Conventional and Non-conventional Sources of energy.
Answer:
Conventional Sources of energy:

Conventional sources of energy are largely polluting, they release lot of carbon through its emissions.
Conventional sources of energy are not eco¬friendly.
The fuels produced from the conventional sources of energy are comparatively costlier.
Conventional energy power plants require less area and its management cost is also less.
Conventional source of energy are non-renewable.
Conventional sources of energy are in the form of limited reserves. After few years they will be completely over. e.g. Fossil fuels, coal, crude oil, diesel, petrol, natural gas, etc.

Non-conventional Sources of energy:

Non-conventional sources of energy are not polluting, They do not release carbon or other toxic gases.
Non-conventional sources of energy are eco-friendly.
The energy obtained from the non-conventional sources of energy are comparatively cheaper.
Non-conventional energy power plants require more area and its management cost is also more.
Non-conventional source of energy are renewable.
Non-conventional energy sources qre in abundance on the earth. They are persistent and sustainable. Thus they will not get over. e.g. Solar energy, wind energy, etc.

b. Thermal electricity generation and Solar thermal electricity generation.
Answer:
Thermal electricity generation:

After burning the coal, the heat that is produced is used in the generation of thermal electricity.
For producing heat, the coal is burnt in the boilers.
The combustion of coal produces heat. This heat converts water into steam, which is under very high temperature and pressure. By its force the turbines move. The turbines in turn are connected to generator which rotates and produces energy.
Thermal energy is polluting and not eco-friendly.
The fuel here is coal, its reserves are limited.

Solar thermal electricity generation:

Solar radiations are used in solar thermal electricity production.
For production of heat, many reflectors are used which reflect the radiations of the sun into the absorbent.
Sun’s heat convert the water into steam that rotates the turbine. The turbines then rotate the generators. This generates the electricity.
Solar energy is not polluting, it is eco-friendly.
The solar radiations are in abundance and are sustainable and persistent.

Question 7.
What is meant by green energy? Which energy sources can be called green energy sources and why? Give examples.
Answer:
(1) Green energy means eco-friendly form of energy which does not cause environmental problems and are non-exhaustible, perpetual and sustainable.
(2) These sources of energy do not produce toxic gases or other pollutants, therefore they are safe.
(3) Examples of green energy: (i) Hydroelectric energy (ii) Wind energy (iii) Solar energy (iv) Energy obtained biofuels.

Question 8.
Explain the following sentences.
a. Energy obtained from fossil fuels is not green energy.
Answer:
Fossil fuels like petrol, diesel or natural gas when burnt, emit toxic gases and soot particles. Thus, fossil fuels cause air pollution. Burning of fossil fuels cause increased levels of carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide and nitrogen dioxide. The increased carbon dioxide emission results in global warming. Nitrogen oxide results later in acid-rain. Soot particles generated through burning of fuels cause respiratory problems iike asthma.

Moreover, the fossil fuels are non-renewable and exhaustible fuels. They have to be explored from the
deeper layers of the earth causing lots of environmental problems. Green energy is sustainable, renewable and abundant. It never creates any environmental problems and is non-polluting. Thus, energy obtained from fossil fuels is not at all a green energy.

b. Saving energy is the need of the hour.
Answer:
In modern civilization, continuous energy supply is needed for the technology and development. The energy has become a basic need for man. Most of the energy used in India is obtained from thermal power plant. For this energy generation, various fuels are used. The coal and fossil fuels are limited. Due to over-exploitation, these reserves are getting fast depleted. Use of fossil fuels is also resulting in pollution and climate change.

Nuclear energy can be very hazardous. Lot of research is being done in the field of green energy, but the tremendous human population always is in need of more energy. Therefore, each and every person should save the energy, as saving energy is the need of the hour.

Question 9.
Answer the following questions.
a. How can we get the required amount of energy by connecting solar panels?
Answer:

The photovoltaic solar cells can be connected in a series or in parallel to make a solar panel.
When solar cells are connected in a series, the potential difference of individual cells are added in the combination, however the currents from individual cells are not added.
When solar cells are connected in parallel, the currents of the individual cells are added in the combination, but the potential differences from individual cells are not added.
Through such connections the required potential difference and current can be obtained.
Many such solar panels are connected in series and in parallel to generate required current and potential difference.
When many solar panels connected in series they form a solar string. Many solar strings connected in parallel make a solar array. In such manner we can get the required amount of energy by connecting solar panels.

b. What are the advantages and limitations of solar energy?
Answer:
I. Advantages:

While generating the power through solar radiations, no fuel is burnt.
Solar energy generation thus does not create any type of pollution. The technology can be completely utilized in regions with abundant sunlight.
Solar energy is eco-friendly, green energy.

II. Limitations:

Sunlight is available only during day time. Thus solar cells can generate power only during day.
In rainy season and in cloudy conditions, solar power generation suffers.
The power present in the solar cells is DC while most of the domestic equipments work on AC.

Question 10.
Explain with diagram step-by-step energy conversion in
a. Thermal power plant.
Answer:

In thermal power plant the turbines are rotated using steam. Here the coal is burnt. The heat energy liberated from this burning is used to heat the water in the boiler. This water produces steam of very high temperature and pressure. The kinetic energy in the steam rotates the turbines. The rotation of turbines produces its own mechanical kinetic energy.

The generators connected to turbines produce electrical energy. The steam is condensed in a condenser and converted back into water. In this way in thermal power plant, thermal energy to kinetic energy, kinetic energy into mechanical energy and mechanical energy to electrical energy, are the conversions that take place.

b. Nuclear power plant.
Answer:

In nuclear power plant, the energy is releasdd by fission of nuclei of atbms like Uranium or Plutonium. This energy is used to generate the steam or high temperature ind high pressure. The kinetic energy in the steam rotates the turbine. The turbine in turn drives the generator to produce electricity.

c. Solar thermal power plant.
Answer:

Solar radiation is used to produce thermal energy. For this purpose, many reflectors are used which concentrate the solar radiation on absorbers. The heat energy created due to solar radiations is used to make steam. The steam possesses kinetic energy. This kinetic energy drives turbine and generator. The electrical energy is thus created from this kinetic energy.

d. Hydroelectric power plant:
Answer:

In hydroelectric plant the water stored in the reservoir is used as a source or potential energy. This water is made to fall at a great speed and hence there is production of kinetic energy in flowing water. This fast flowing water ralling down from the reservoir is brought to the turbine at the lower levels. The kinetic energy of the flowing water in turn drives the turbine, The turbine then drives the generator and electrical energy is produced.

Question 11.
Give scientific reasons:
a. The construction of turbine is different for different types of power plants.
Answer:

Generators work on the principles of electromagnetic induction.
For this the generator must be rotated.
For this purpose, there is a turbine for each generator.
This rotation needs energy. The turbines are different according to the type of energy source that is used for its rotation.
Therefore, the construction of turbine is different for each power plant.

b. It is absolutely necessary to control the fission reaction in nuclear power plants.
Answer:

Nuclear fission reaction is a type of chain reaction.
In nuclear power plants these reactions are closely controlled.
If these reactions are not managed properly, there can be more production of neutrons in an uncontrolled way.
Each released neutron further causes fission of 3 Uranium (U-235) atoms, such uncontrolled reactions can cause hazardous accidents, hence ft is absolutely necessary to control the fission reaction in nuclear power plants.

c. Hydroelectric energy, solar energy and wind energy are called renewable energies. (July ’19, Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Answer:

Hydroelectric energy, solar energy and wind energy is obtained respectively from flowing water, solar radiations and flowing wind.
These sources, i.e. water reservoirs, sun and the wind are inexhaustible and sustainable. They will not be finished.
On the contrary, the conventional energy sources such as coal and fossil fuels have limited reserves.
They cannot be renewed and may get exhausted in future. Hydroelectric energy, solar energy and wind energy can be replenished and hence they are called renewable.

d. It is possible to produce energy from mW to MW using solar photovoltaic cells.
Answer:

Solar panels can be constructed by connecting solar photovoltaic cells in either series or in parallels.
The combinations are done in such a way that it can give the desired potential difference and the current.
Solar strings are then made by joining solar panels in a series.
When solar strings are joined in parallel; they form solar array.
Therefore, by proper combinations, it becomes possible to produce energy from mW to MW using solar photovoltaic cells.

Question 12.
Draw a Schematic diagram of Solar thermal electric energy generation.
Answer:

Question 13.
Give your opinion about whether hydroelectric plants are environment-friendly or not?
Answer:

Hydroelectric plants are advantageous in some respect while in some aspects it does create problems.
Hydroelectric power generation does not need burning of fuels. Therefore, there is no problem regarding combustion of fuels and release of toxic pollutants.
Electricity can be obtained as and when required if there is enough water in the reservoir.
Water is replenished every time when there is sufficient rainfall.
All the above facts give an impression that hydroelectric power generation is eco-friendly but it is not.
Many villages and settlements are submerged when a dam and reservoir is constructed. The displaced people are given re-settlement, but it causes lot of emotional trauma to people.
Biodiversity is affected as forest lands is submerged. The river flow is obstructed by the dam which affects the aquatic organisms residing in such water.
Due to excessive pressure of water on land, it is said that the region gets prone to earthquakes.

Question 14.
Draw a neat labelled diagrams.
a. Energy transformation in solar thermal electric energy generation.
Answer:

b. One solar panel produces a potential difference of 18 V and current of 3A. Describe how you can obtain a potential difference of 72 Volts and current of 9 A with a solar array using solar panels. You can use sign of a battery for a solar panel.
Answer:
Given Potential difference is 18 V and current is 3A. The requirement is potential difference of 72 V and current is 9A Voltage remains the same if connected in parallel and gets added it they are connected in series. Current remains the same if connected in series but adds if connected in parallel.

Question 15.
Write a short note on Electrical energy generation and environment.
Answer:
The energy obtained through the fossil fuels as well as nuclear energy can cause degradation of the environment. If such energy sources are used, they can cause harm to the environment.

(1) The burning of fossil fuels cause air pollution. The incomplete combustion of fossil fuels cause release of carbon monoxide. Some more toxic gases and soot particles cause various respiratory diseases. The carbon dioxide produced is creating global warming and climate change. The nitrogen dioxide released through burning is responsible for acid rains.

(2) Fossil fuels are limited. They are getting fast depleted. It has taken millions of years for the fossil fuels to form. The exploration of such fuels also cause environmental degradation and marine pollution too.

(3) In production of nuclear energy, there is a great risk of accidents. The safe disposal of nuclear waste is also a problem.

(4) Hydroelectric power from water reservoirs, wind power from wind, solar energy from sun and electricity from biofuels are eco-friendly alternatives.

Projects: (Do it your self)

Project 1.
Gather information about solar light, solar water heating system and solar cooker.

Project2.
Gather information about a power plant near your locality by visiting the plant.

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 47)

Question 1.
What is Energy?
Answer:
The capacity to do work is called energy.

Question 2.
What are different types of Energy?
Answer:
Potential energy and kinetic energy are the two types of energy.

Question 3.
What are different forms of Energy?
Answer:
Heat, light, electric energy, solar energy, chemical energy, nuclear energy, mechanical energy, etc. are different forms of energy.

Use your brain power! (Text Book Page No. 54)

Question 1.
The schematic of hydroelectric plant is shown in Figure 5.17 on text book page no. 54. Water from about middle of the total height of the dam is taken to the turbine, as shown by point B in the diagram.

(i) With reference to point B, potential energy of how much water reservoir in the dam will be converted into kinetic energy?
Answer:
When the sluice gate at point B is opened, the water from reservoir will start flowing. The potential energy of the stored water will become kinetic energy of the quantity of water that is let out through the sluice gates.

(ii) What will be the effect on electricity generation, if the channel taking water to turbine starts at point A?
Answer:
If the channel taking water to turbine starts at point A, then the water will flow with a greater speed. Since point A is at hSight, water will acquire speed. This will result into more efficient rotation of the blades of turbine. The electricity generation will thus become more efficient.

(iii) What will be the effect on electricity generation, if the channel taking water to turbine starts at point C?
Answer:
If the channel taking water to turbine starts at point C, it will affect the electricity generation adversely. Point C is on the lower height as compared to the channel that carries water to the turbine. The flow of the water thus will be affected resulting into improper rotation of blades of turbine. This will certainly affect the electricity generation.

Choose the correct alternative and write its alphabet against the sub-question number:

Question 1.
Large ……….. are used in commercial power generation plants.
(a) machines
(b) generators
(c) turbines
(d) pannels
Answer:
(b) generators

Question 2.
The principle of electromagnetic ……….. was invented by Michael Faraday.
(a) induction
(b) attraction
(c) repulsion
(d) expulsion
Answer:
(a) induction

Question 3.
………… is used to rotate the magnet in the generator.
(a) fan
(b) Generator
(c) Turbine
(d) Panels
Answer:
(c) Turbine

Question 4.
In thermal power plants, the ………… energy in the coal is converted into electrical energy through several steps.
(a) physical
(b) biological
(c) kinetic
(d) chemical
Answer:
(d) chemical

Question 5.
At ………. in Andhra Pradesh power plant based on natural gas has been installed.
(a) Hyderabad
(b) Vishakhapatnam
(c) Samaralkota
(d) Kakinada
Answer:
(c) Samaralkota

Question 6.
Burning of coal may cause serious health problems related to ……….. system.
(a) digestive
(b) respiratory
(c) nervous
(d) excretory
Answer:
(b) respiratory

Question 7.
Incomplete combustion of fuels leads to formation of ……….
(a) carbon dioxide
(b) carbon monoxide
(c) carbon tetrachloride
(d) All the above
Answer:
(b) carbon monoxide

Question 8.
Solar cells are made of a special type of material called semiconductor such as ………..
(a) silicon
(b) uranium
(c) borosilicate
(d) hydrogen
Answer:
(a) silicon

Question 9.
……….. of the following is eco-friendly energy resource. (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
(a) Coal
(b) Hydroelectric power
(c) Fossil fuel
(d) Atomic energy
Answer:
(b) Hydroelectric power

Question 10.
Which is the most abundant and renewable energy?
(a) Thermal power
(b) Solar energy
(c) Fossil fuels
(d) Atomic power
Answer:
(b) Solar energy

Question 11.
What are the two technologies for harnessing solar energy?
(a) Solar photovoltaics and solar thermal
(b) Solar cooker and solar lamp
(c) Heat capturing and Heat conversation
(d) Active and passive technologies
Answer:
(a) Solar photovoltaics and solar thermal

Question 12.
Which of the following is used in solar cooker to harvest the solar energy?
(a) Solar panels
(b) Silicon cell
(c) Mirrors
(d) Glass lid
Answer:
(c) Mirrors

Question 13.
Which of the following is not the source of green energy?
(a) Wind
(b) Natural gas
(c) Sunlight
(d) Fossil fuel
Answer:
(d) Fossil fuel

Question 14.
The solar lamp uses the energy.
(a) Heat
(b) Wind
(c) Light
(d) Sound
Answer:
(c) Light

State whether the following statements are true or false with proper explanation:

Question 1.
In thermal power plants, the turbines work on solar energy.
Answer:
False. (In thermal power plant, the turbines work on steam. The turbines working on solar energy are not used.)

Question 2.
How to dispose the nuclear waste safely is a big challenge before the scientists.
Answer:
True. (Nuclear waste disposal is the greatest problem. It produces highly toxic effects in any ecosystem. Therefore, disposing such radioactive substances becomes a major challenge.)

Question 3.
The efficiency of power generation using coal plant is higher than that of power generation plant based on natural gas.
Answer:
False. (The efficiency of power generation using natural gas plant is higher than that of power generation plant based on coal.)

Question 4.
Energy obtained from nuclear fission is eco-friendly.
Answer:
False. (Energy obtained from nuclear fission is not eco-friendly, because if accidents happen it leads to hazardous accidents.)

Question 5.
In hydroelectric power plant, the kinetic energy in water stored in dam is converted into potential energy of water.
Answer:
False. (In hydroelectric power plant, the potential energy in water stored in dam is converted into kinetic energy of water. The forceful downpour of flowing water causes this kinetic energy.)

Question 6.
The turbine is connected to electric generator, therefore the magnet rotates and electric energy is thus produced.
Answer:
True. (The rotating wheels of turbine cause mechanical energy. This energy helps to produce electrical energy.)

Question 7.
Use of energy is unavoidable in our daily life, but we must use it carefully and only in the required amount.
Answer:
True. (The energy Supply for everyday use results into lot of pollution. This causes harmful effects in the surrounding environment. Therefore, energy should be used in minimal amount and with great care.)

Question 8.
The machine which converts the potential energy of wind to electrical energy is called wind-turbine.
Answer:
False. (When wind blows, the kinetic energy is present in it. This kinetic energy is converted into electricity. The flowing wind never has a potential energy.)

Question 9.
The potential difference available from a solar cell is independent of its area.
Answer:
True. (The potential difference available from a solar cell is independent of its area. However, it is dependent on the way in which solar cells are connected.)

Question 10.
The power available from the solar cells is AC.
Answer:
False. (The power available from solar cells is always DC while the domestic appliances that we use work on AC.)

Match the columns:

Question 1.

Column I	Column II
(1) Polluting energy	(a) Soot particles
(2) Eco-friendly energy	(b) Thermal energy
	(c) Nuclear energy
	(d) Wind energy

Answer:
(1) Polluting energy – Thermal energy
(2) Eco-friendly energy – Wind energy

Question 2.

Column I	Column II
(1) Pollutants	(a) Soot particles
(2) Hazard to ecosystem	(b) Thermal energy
	(c) Nuclear energy
	(d) Wind energy

Answer:
(1) Pollutants – Soot particles
(2) Hazard to ecosystem – Nuclear energy

Question 3.

Type of energy	Problem
(1) Nuclear energy	(a) Rehabilitation of displaced people
(2) Natural gas	(b) Rainy season and darkness
	(c) Limited reserves
	(d) Disposal of wastes

Answer:
(1) Nuclear energy – Disposal of wastes
(2) Natural gas – Limited reserves

Question 4.

Type of energy	Problem
(1) Solar energy	(a) Rehabilitation of displaced people
(2) Hydroelectric energy	(b) Rainy season and darkness
	(c) Limited reserves
	(d) Disposal of wastes

Answer:
(1) Solar energy – Rainy season and darkness
(2) Hydroelectric energy – Rehabilitation of displaced people

Find the odd one out:

Question 1.
Kudankulam, Tarapur, Ravatabhata, Anjanvel
Answer:
Anjanvel. (All others are places having nuclear power plants.)

Question 2.
Samaralkota, Kudankulam, Bavanaa, Kondapalli
Answer:
Kudankulam. (All others are places having power plants based on natural gas.)

Question 3.
Tehari, Koyana, Srishailam, Tarapur
Answer:
Tarapur. (All others are places having hydroelectric projects.)

Question 4.
Edible oil, crude oil, LPG, CNG
Answer:
Edible oil. (All others are fossil fuels.)

Question 5.
Hydroelectric energy, Solar energy, Nuclear energy, Wind energy
Answer:
Nuclear energy. (All others are eco-friendly green energy types.)

Explain with diagram step-by-step energy conversion in:

Question 1.
Power plant based on natural gas.
Answer:

In a power plant based on natural gas, there are three main sections of the plant. There is combustion chamber with compressor in which the steam under pressure is introduced. The natural gas burns in the presence of air in this combustion chamber. This results in a production of a gas which is at very high temperature and pressure. This generated gas from the chamber runs the turbine. The kinetic energy of the turbine drives the generator. The generator produces electrical energy.

Question 2.
Power plant based on wind energy.
Answer:

Wind energy is used for moving turbines. The wind with specific speed is used to rotate the large fins of wind turbine. The kinetic energy in these fins is transferred to generator which then produces electrical energy.

Explain the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
What are the advantages of hydroelectric power generation? (March 2019)
Answer:

Hydroelectric energy does not cause pollution.
Generation of hydroelectric energy does not involve burning of fossil fuel.
If sufficient water storage is available then electricity generation can be done as per requirement.
Rainwater can replenish the water storage and power generation can thus be done uninterrupted.

Question 2.
How is nuclear fission reaction carried out in nuclear power plants?
Answer:

In nuclear power plants neutrons are bombarded on atom of Uranium – 235.
This causes conversion of Uranium – 235 into its isotope U – 236.
U-236 is very unstable and thus forms atoms of Barium and Krypton by nuclear fission. This forms 3 neutrons and 200 MeV energy.
In a similar way three more Uranium – 235 atoms are subjected to nuclear fission which then releases energy.
The neutrons released are again used for further nuclear fission reactions. In this way nuclear fission reactions are carried out in controlled manner in nuclear power plants.

Question 3.
Draw schematic of power plant based on natural gas and answer the following questions: (July 2019)
(a) At which place natural gas power plant is situated in Maharashtra?
(b) How is pollution reduced in natural gas based power plant?
(c) Give two examples of eco-friendly electricity process.
Answer:
(a) Natural gas power plant is situated at Anjanvel in Maharashtra.
(b) Natural gas does not contain sulfur. Burning of such natural gas does not produce pollution.
(c) Solar energy and wind energy are two examples of eco-friendly energy.

Complete the paragraph by choosing the appropriate words given in the brackets:

Question 1.
(marginal, array, cell, panel, string, current, power station, potential difference).
Many solar panels are connected in series and in parallel to generate required ………… and ……… Solar …………. is the basic unit in solar electric plant. Many solar cells come together to form a solar …………… Many solar panels connected in series form a solar ………., and many solar strings connected in parallel form a solar …………. As we can obtain as much electrical power as needed, they are used in applications which need ……….. power (e.g. calculators that run on solar energy) to ……….. of MW capacity.
Answer:
Many solar panels are connected in series and in parallel to generate required current and potential difference. Solar cell is the basic unit in solar electric plant. Many solar cells come together to form a solar panel. Many solar panels connected in series form a solar string, and many solar strings connected in parallel form a solar array. As we can obtain as much electrical power as needed, they are used in applications which need marginal power (e.g. calculators that run on solar energy) to power station of MW capacity.

Read the paragraph and answer the questions given below:

1. Renewable energy is, energy produced from sources that do not deplete or can be replenished within a human’s life time. The most common examples include wind, solar, geothermal, biorhass, and hydroelectric power. This is in contrast to non-renewable sources such as fossil fuels. Most renewable energy is derived directly or indirectly from the sun. Sunlight can be captured directly using solar technologies. The sun’s heat drives winds, whose energy is captured with turbines. Plants also rely on the sun to grow and their stored energy can be utilized for bioenergy. Not all renewable energy sources rely on the sun. For example, geothermal energy utilizes the Earth’s internal heat, tidal energy relies on the gravitational pull of the moon, and hydroelectric power relies on the flow of water.

Questions and Answers :
Question1.
What is renewable energy?
Answer:
Renewable energy is energy that is produced from sources which will not get exhausted within a human’s life time.

Question 2.
Give the examples of renewable energy.
Answer:
Wind, solar, geothermal, biomass and hydroelectric power are some examples of renewable energy.

Question 3.
Why will energy from fossil fuel be over soon?
Answer:
Fossil fuels are exhaustible in their amount. We have been using these extensively in the past 100 years and hence it may get over soon. It is a non-renewable resource.

Question 4.
Name the renewable sources of energy which are not dependent on sun. What are they dependent upon?
Answer:
Geothermal energy, tidal energy and hydroelectric power are renewable energy resources which are not dependent on sun. Geothermal energy utilizes the Earth’s internal heat, tidal energy relies on the gravitational pull of the moon, and hydropower relies on the flow of water.

Question 5.
Which type of energy do we mostly use in India?
Answer:
The most used energy resource is coal, i.e. fossil fuel based energy followed by hydroelectric energy.

2. Read the information given below and solve the questions based on it.
Electric energy is produced in various ways like hydroelectric, wind power, solar energy, bio-fuel, etc. These energy sources are inexhaustible, sustainable. Besides, it does not cause any environmental problem.

Questions and Answers:
Question 1.
Above information is about which type of energy?
Answer:
From the above information, we understand about green energy.

Question 2.
Whether the fossil fuel is an example of this energy?
Answer:
Fossil fuels are not green energy.

Question3.
Draw the flow chart of production of electric energy.
Answer:

Diagram based questions:

Question 1.
Observe the connections of cells shown in the following images.

(i) Which connection will give maximum potential difference?
Answer:
The solar cells shown in the diagram 5.19 (a) are connected in series. This gives maximum potential difference.

(ii) Give one advantage and one disadvantage of this energy.
Answer:
Advantage of Solar energy: Solar energy is eco-friendly which does not create pollution. It is boundless source.
Disadvantage of solar energy: Solar energy is available only when sun is in the sky. Therefore, it has to be stored in batteries.

Question 2.
Answer the following questions:
(a) Write the name of the device shown in the above diagram.
Answer:
Steam turbine is the device shown in the above diagram.

(b) Write briefly the work of this device.
Answer:
Turbine is a device with the blades. When the flow of liquid or gases is directed on the blades of the turbine, they rotate. The rotation produces kinetic energy. This turbine is then used to rotate the magnet in the electric generator. For this purpose, turbines are connected with the generators. The magnets rotate and produce electric energy by electromagnetic induction. The turbines working on steam are used in large commercial power generation plants.

Question 3.
Label the given diagram of Electromagnetic induction.
Answer:

Question 4.
Answer the questions with the help of picture.

(a) Which type of energy is produced?
(b) This power plant is based on which energy source.
(c) Is this power plant eco-friendly? How?
Answer:
(a) In the picture, it is shown that using wind energy electricity is produced.
(b) The power plant shown here is based on kinetic energy of wind which is converted to electric energy by utilizing kinetic energy from rotating turbines.
(c) This power plant is eco-friendly because it does not cause pollution. Wind energy is green energy which is non-exhaustible and perpetual.

Question 5.
Observe the figure and answer the questions given below.

Answer:
(a) Name the reaction.
Answer:
The reaction shown in nuclear fission or chain reaction.

(b) Where is this reaction used?
Answer:
This reaction is used in nuclear power plants where electricity is generated.

(OR)

Identify the process shown in figure and name it. (March 2019)
Answer:
The above figure shows nuclear fission chain reaction of Uranium – 236.

Question 6.
Observe the diagram and answer the questions : (March 2019)

(a) Which energy is generated from the power plant?
Answer:
The diagram shows electricity generated from natural gas.

(b) State its source.
Answer:
The energy is generated from natural gas.

(c) Which is more eco-friendly – Power generation from coal or Power generation from natural gas? Why?
Answer:
Power generation from natural gas is more eco-friendly. Natural gas does not contain sulfur and hence its burning does not cause major pollution by forming sulphur dioxide. The efficiency of power generation by natural gas is also high.

Question 7.
Write the names of apparatus that is used in thermal power plant.
Answer:

Question 8.
Label correctly the diagram of Nuclear power plant.
Answer:

Question 9.
Label correctly the diagram of power plant baded on natural gas.
Answer:

Question 10.
Label correctly the structures seen in Windmill.
Answer:

Question 11.
Sketch two ways in which solar cells can be connected. Also draw the diagrams to show the arrangement of solar cells to form solar? panel and solar array.
a. Solar cells in series.
Answer:

(b) Solar cells in parallel.
Answer:

(d) Solar array.
Answer:

Question 12.
Observe the figure given below and answer the given questions:

(a) Identify the type of energy generation process shown in this picture.
(b) Name any four equipments which use this type of energy. (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Answer:
(a) In this figure solar energy is converted into electrical energy. Solar energy is also called clean energy.
(b) Solar energy is used in following equipment:

Solar cooker
Solar heater
Calculator
Solar Photovoltaic cell.

Activity based questions.

Question 1.
Make a table: (Text Book Page No. 47)
Make a table based on forms of energy and corresponding devices.
Answer:

Forms of energy	Devices based on this type of energy
(1) Electric	Electric iron, Geyser, Heater, Oven, Refrigerator, Fans, Lights, Elevator.
(2) Mechanical	Sewing machine, Car, Bicycle, Different machines.
(3) Thermal	Chulha, Furnace, Steam engine
(4) Solar	Solar cooker, Solar heater.

Question 2.
Let’s Think: (Text Book Page No. 52)
Which electricity generation process is eco-friendly and which not?
Answer:
Electricity generated through solar energy and wind energy are truly eco-friendly. Though it is said that hydroelectricity is non-polluting and eco-friendly, it is not true. Hydroelectric project cause destruction of biodiversity and displacement of the local people. Thermal energy, nuclear energy and energy obtained through natural gas are not at all eco-friendly.

Question 3.
Find out: (Text Book Page No. 55)
What is lake tapping? Why it takes place?
Answer:
A lake tap involves excavating a tunnel at the bottom of the lake. Dynamites are planted therein and blasted carefully. The water flows with greater force through the tunnel after such blasting is done. This increased flow of water is then driven to the hydroelectric power generation plant for increased electricity production. This technique is done to establish waterways for hydropower, for making drinking water available, for irrigation water purposes and also for the landing of oil and gas pipes from offshore fields.

Question 4.
Get information: (Text Book Page No. 56)
Get information about major wind-power stations in India and their capacity. Make a table of their location, state and their power generation capacity in MW.
Answer:

Location	State	Power generation capacity in MW
Muppandal, Kanyakumari	Tamil Nadu	7,684.31
Dhule, Satara, Sangli, Dhalgaon	Maharashtra	4,664.08
Bhuj	Gujarat	4,227.31
Dangiri Wind Farm Jaisalmer Wind Park	Rajasthan	4,123.35
Jogmatti BSES	Karnataka	3,082.45
Bhopal at Nagda Hills near Dewas	Madhya Pradesh	2,288.60
Tirumala hills	Andhra Pradesh	1,866.35
	Telangana	98.70
Kanjikode in Palakkad	Kerala	43.50
	Others	4.30
	Total	28, 082.95

Question 5.
Find out: (Text Book Page No. 58)
Gather information about major solar photovoltaic power generating plants and their capacity in India.
Answer:
List of solar power stations:

Project:

Project 1.
Let’s Discuss: (Text Book Page No. 47)
Make a list of the work that we do in our day-to-day life using energy. Which forms of energy do we use to do this work? Discuss with your friends.

Project 2.
Compare: (Text Book Page No. 51)
Observe the schematic of thermal power plant and the nuclear power plant. Discuss what are the similarities and differences between the two.

Project 3.
Use of ICT: (Text Book Page No. 49)
Prepare a presentation about thermal power plant using computerized presentation, animation, video, pictures, etc. Send it to others and upload on YouTube.

Project 4.
Internet is my friend: (Text Book Page No. 51)
Complete the following table for some important nuclear power plants in India.

10th Std Science Part 2 Questions And Answers:

Introduction to Microbiology Class 10 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

January 6, 2025January 5, 2025 by Bhagya

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 7 Introduction to Microbiology Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 10 Science Part 2 Chapter 7 Introduction to Microbiology Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Class 10 Science Part 2 Chapter 7 Introduction to Microbiology Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Question 1.
Rewrite the following statements using correct of the options and explain the completed statements.
(gluconic acid, coagulation, amino acid, 4% acetic acid, clostridium, lactobacilli)

a. Process of ……. of milk proteins occurs due to lactic acid.
Answer:
Process of Coagulation of milk proteins occurs due to lactic acid.
Explanation: The lactobacilli are the bacteria carrying out fermentation of the milk. In this process, the lactose sugar in the milk is converted into lactic acid. This lactic acid causes coagulation of the proteins present in the milk.

b. Harmful bacteria like ………. in the intestine are destroyed due to probiotics.
Answer:
Harmful bacteria like Clostridium in the intestine are destroyed due to probiotics.
Explanation: In probiotics, there are lactobacilli which are useful. They control other bacteria present in the alimentary canal and also their metabolism. These bacteria thus stop the action of Clostridium which is a harmful bacteria.

c. Chemically, vinegar is …………
Answer:
Chemically, vinegar is 4% Acetic acid.
Explanation: Chemically vinegar is 4% acetic acid. It is a good preservative of the food and thus while using it as additive to the food, it is called vinegar.

d. Salts which can be used as supplement of calcium and iron are obtained from ……………. acid.
Answer:
Salts which can be used as supplement of calcium and iron are obtained from Gluconic acid.
Explanation: The microbe Aspergillus niger is used on the source material of glucose and corn steep liquor to produce amino acid called Gluconic acid. Gluconic acid is used for the production of minerals used as supplement for calcium and iron.

Question 2.
Match the pairs.

‘A’ group	‘B’ group
(1) Xylitol	(a) Pigment
(2) Citric acid	(b) To impart sweetness
(3) Lycopene	(c) Microbial restrictor
(4) Nycin	(d) Protein binding emulsifier
	(e) To impart acidity

[Note: In examination match the column question will ham 2 components in Column ‘A’ with 4 alternatives in Column ‘B’.]
Answer:
(1) Xylitol – To impart sweetness
(2) Citric acid – To impart acidity
(3) Lycopene – Pigment
(4) Nycin – Microbial restrictor.

Question 3.
Answer the following:
a. Which fuels can be obtained by microbial processes? Why is it necessary to increase the use of such fuels?
Answer:

Microbial anaerobic decomposition of urban agricultural and industrial waste forms the gaseous fuel in the form of methane gas.
Alcohol is another clean form of energy which is used in the form of ethanol. It is obtained by the fermentation of molasses by treating it with Saccharomyces-yeast.
By photoreduction of water with the help of bacteria, hydrogen gas is released in the process of bio-photolysis of water. This hydrogen gas is said to be the fuel of the future.
The conventional fuels are exhaustible. After few hundred years, they will be over completely. Moreover, these fossil fuels cause lot of air pollution due to emission of carbon dioxide. The fuels obtained by the microbial processes are not polluting. Therefore, it is necessary to increase the use of eco-friendly fuels.

b. How can the oil spills of rivers and oceans be cleaned?
Answer:

The oil spills in rivers or oceans are caused by crude oil or petroleum hydrocarbons.
This crude oil is highly toxic to the flora and fauna of the aquatic environment.
By using mechanical means the oil spill can be removed, but this is very difficult.
The biological way to remove this pollution is done by using culture of microbes like Pseudomonas spp. and Alcanovorax borkumensis.
They have the ability to destroy the pyridines and other chemicals present in the hydrocarbons.
These bacteria are called as hydrocarbono-clastic bacteria (HCB) which decompose the hydrocarbons and bring about the reaction of carbon with oxygen.
In the process CO₂ and water are formed. In this way the oil spills are cleaned, by releasing HCB at the place of oil spills.

c. How can the soil polluted by acid rain be made fertile again?
Answer:

The soil polluted by the acid rain is made fertile again by using bacteria.
Acidophillium spp. and Acidobacillus ferroxidens are the bacteria which have the capacity to use sulphuric acid as their energy source.
Since this sulphuric acid present in the acid rain, can be controlled by these bacteria.
In this way, bacteria can control the soil pollution occurring due to acid rain, making the soil fertile again.

d. Explain the importance of bio pesticides in organic farming.
Answer:

By using bio pesticides, soil pollution is minimized. Otherwise by using chemical pesticides and fertilizers there is large scale soil pollution.
When chemical pesticides are used in agriculture, there is contamination of soil by fluoroacetamide – like chemicals.
These are harmful to other plants, animals as well as for-human beings. They may cause skin diseases in humans.
By using bacterial and fungal toxins the pests and pathogens can be destroyed. Such toxins are directly incorporated in the plant materials.
E.g. Spinosad is a biopesticide produced as a by-product of fermentation.

e. What are the reasons for increasing the popularity of probiotic products?
Answer:

Probiotic substances are mostly milk products containing live bacteria. Such probiotics are very good for health.
The useful colonies of bacteria are produced in the alimentary canal of human beings due to the probiotics.
Probiotics decrease the population of harmful microbes like. Clostridium from our digestive tract.
The immunity is enhanced due to regular intake of probiotics in the diet.
The ill-effects of harmful substances formed during metabolic activities are reduced by the probiotics.
If someone takes the antibiotic treatment, then his or her useful intestinal bacterial flora becomes inactive or is eradicated. In such cases, probiotics restore the bacterial flora and make the person well again.

All these facts have made probiotics a popular choice for people.

f. How the bread and other products produced using baker’s yeast are nutritious?
Answer:

In order to make the bread the baker’s yeast – Saccharomyces cerevisiae is added to the flour for the fermentation process.
In commercial bakery, compressed yeast is used while in domestic settings dry, granular form of yeast is used.
The flour prepared by using commercial yeast contains various useful contents like carbohydrates, fats, proteins, various vitamins, and minerals.
The anaerobic fermentation also increases the nutritive content of the flour.
Due to this, bread and other products produced with the help of yeast become nutritive.

g. Which precautions are necessary for proper decomposition of domestic waste?
Answer:
The domestic waste should be properly segregated into biodegradable (wet waste) and non-biodegradable (dry waste). After segregation, these wastes should be stored separately into two different containers. The non-biodegradable substances should he either reused or sent for recycling. The biodegradable substances are decomposed naturally.

The decomposition process can be done at house-hold level too in a pot or a tank. This decomposition will yield a rich manure. The pot should be covered by a thin layer of soil and it should be kept in a dark but airy place.

The non-biodegradable things such as plastic articles, glass pieces, metal objects, unused 5 medicines, e-waste should never be thrown in wet wastes. The toxic substances and the insecticides if added to wet waste, will never allow the natural decomposition process. Therefore, only after taking proper precautions we can aim at proper decomposition of domestic wastes.

h. Why is it necessary to ban the use of plastic bags?
Answer:
Plastic is a non-biodegradable substance. It cannot be degraded back into its original constituents. It remains just like that for many hundreds of years. It causes solid waste pollution in any environment wherever it is thrown indiscriminately. If burnt, it releases very toxic gases. If dumped in landfills it obstructs the other decomposition processes.

If thrown in water bodies, it causes harm to aquatic life. Cattle graze on plastic unknowingly and are killed by it as it clogs inside their alimentary canal. The gutters and rain water drains get clogged due to plastic bags and this causes cities to submerge in water during heavy rains. Nowadays, the fishermen get more than half of plastic if they cast their net in the sea.

People use the plastic bags indiscriminately without any thought towards their environmental impact. There are better alternatives for plastic bags such as cloth bags which can be reused again and again. Therefore, it is absolutely necessary to ban the use of plastic bag.

Question 4.
Complete the following conceptual picture.

Answer:

Question 5.
Give scientific reasons.
a. Use of mutant strains has been increased in industrial microbiology.
Answer:

By using industrial microbiology, the commercial use of microbes is done.
In such experiments, various economic, social and environment related processes and products are included.
In this, fermentation processes are used to make bread, cheese, wines, enzymes, nutrients, etc.
Different types of antibiotics are also made by using processes of industrial microbiology.
In pollution control and solid waste management, the industrial microbiology becomes helpful.
In farming too biotechnology is used to produce BT crops.

b. Enzymes obtained by microbial process are mixed with detergents.
Answer:

When detergents are mixed with microbial enzymes, they start working more efficiently.
The cleaning process takes place at lesser temperatures.
Therefore, for better results, enzymes obtained by microbial process are mixed with detergents.

c. Microbial enzymes are used instead of chemical catalysts in chemical industry. (March 2019)
(OR)
Microbial enzymes are said to be eco-friendly.
Answer:

Microbial enzymes are active at low temperature, pH and pressure.
Due to this property, the energy is saved. The costlier erosion-proof instruments need not be used.
In enzymatic reactions, the unnecessary byproducts are not formed as the reactions are highly specific.
The expenses on purification of the product are minimized as no unnecessary products are formed.
The elimination and decomposition of waste material is avoided and enzymes can be reused again. Hence, microbial enzymes which are eco¬friendly are used in chemical industry.

Question 6.
Complete the following conceptual picture with respect to its uses. (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)

Answer:

Question 7.
Complete the following conceptual picture related to environmental management.

Answer:

Question 8.
Answer the following questions.
a. What is the role of microbes in compost production?
Answer:

Microbes can bring about natural decomposition of the organic compounds.
During the biodegradation, some bacteria andmfungi bring about such decomposition and release the inorganic constituents back into the nature.
Compost is formed in such a way by recycling process.

b. What are the benefits of mixing ethanol with petrol and diesel?
Answer:
When only diesel or petrol is used as fuel, there is increased air pollution. Morevoer, since these are non-renewable and exhaustible fuels, they will be finished in next some years. When petrol and diesel is mixed with ethanol, the proportion of CO₂, CO, and hydrocarbons which are emitted in the atmosphere becomes lesser.

The particulate pollutants which otherwise are emitted through combustion of petrol and diesel are not formed when fuels are mixed with ethanol. By adding ethanol to the fuels, the cost of expensive petrol or diesel also becomes less. The ethanol burns more efficiently hence ethanol is mixed with petrol and diesel.

c. Which plants are cultivated to obtain the fuel?
Answer:

The ethanol is obtained from wheat, maize, beet, sugarcane and molasses of sugarcane.
For biodiesel, the soybean, rapeseed, jatropa, mahua, flaxseed, mustard, sunflower, palm, jute and some types of algae are cultivated.

d. Which fuels are obtained from biomass?
Answer:
From biomass, the biogas and biodiesel are mainly obtained. The biogas is obtained from dung of cattle. The fermentation of cattle dung gives rise to methane. From methane, methanol is obtained. Ethanol is obtained from molasses of sugarcane and some other crops. In some countries, special crops are cultivated for the biodiesel.

e. How does the bread become spongy?
Answer:

When the dough for bread is prepared, the baker’s yeast – Saccharomyces cerevisiae is added to it.
This yeast carries out anaerobic fermentation.
This results in formation of CO₂ and ethanol.
The CO₂ formed tries to escape out of the flour and thus the dough rise. When such dough is baked, it produces spongy bread.

Project: (Do it your self)

Project 1.
Find the ways to implement the zero garbage system at domestic level.

Project 2.
Which are the microbes that destroy the chemical pesticides in soil?

Project 3.
Collect more information about reasons for avoiding the use of chemical pesticides.

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 77)

Question 1.
Which different microbes are useful to us?
Answer:
Many microbes are useful to us, such as bacteria which are used for making curds from milk, yeast used to ferment the batter of bread, bacteria used for making other milk products, bacteria and fungi used for making antibiotics. The bacteria are even used for pollution control.

Question 2.
Which different products can he produced with the help of Microbes?
Answer:
Milk products, cheese, cocoa, pickles made from vegetables, wine and other beverages, bread, probiotic substances and cattle feed are produced with the help of microbes.

Use your brain power. (Text Book Page No. 79)

Question 1.
In the earlier class, you had prepared the solution of dry yeast for observation of yeast. Which substance is prepared by its use on commercial basis?
Answer:
The commercial production of bread and other bakery products need yeast. In wine and beer making also solution of yeast is required.

(Use your brain power. (Text Book Page No. 81)

Question 1.
Food materials like cold drinks, ice creams, cakes, juices are available in various colours and flavours. Whether these colours and flavours are really derived from fruits?
Answer:
The eatables can be made directly from fruits or essence of fruits. But most of the food products purchased from markets use these colours and flavours which are derived from synthetic chemicals.

Let’s Think: (Text Book Page No. 83)

Question .1
Why is it asked to segregate wet and dry waste in each home?
Answer:
The wet waste decomposes on its own as most of the matter therein is biodegradable. This waste can be converted into manure by composting. The dry waste can be picked up by the bhangarwala or kabadiwala. This waste can be reused or recycled. Therefore, if dry and wet wastes are kept separately, the solid waste management becomes much easier.

On the contrary if everything is dumped indiscriminately, it adds to the total volume of the solid wastes. This becomes unmanageable. Therefore, to reduce the problems of solid waste management, the dry and wet waste segregation must be done at every point source. This also could fetch wealth from waste.

Question 2.
What is done with the segregated waste?
Answer:
In big cities, there is a mechanism to pick up the solid waste every day or even twice a day at some places. The segregated garbage is taken by the municipal garbage trucks at the land filling sites. Here it is buried deep in the ground. The dry waste that can be reused or recycled, is sold to the recycling units.

Question 3.
Which is most appropriate method of disposal of dry waste?
Answer:
Reuse and recycle is the most appropriate method of disposal of dry waste.

Choose the correct alternative and write its alphabet against the sub-question number:

Question 1.
Enzyme ……….. obtained from fungi is used to produce vegetarian cheese.
(a) lipase
(b) protease
(c) amylase
(d) trypsin
Answer:
(b) protease

Question 2.
Milk is subjected to ………… at the beginning to destroy unwanted microbes.
(a) pasteurization
(b) fermentation
(c) coagulation
(d) decomposition
Answer:
(a) pasteurization

Question 3.
………….. like compounds are formed due to lactobacilli that gives characteristic taste to the yoghurt.
(a) Lactose
(b) Caesin
(c) Acetyldehyde
(d) All the above
Answer:
(c) Acetyldehyde

Question 4.
Methane can be obtained by …………. decomposition of urban agricultural and industrial waste.
(a) aerobic
(b) anaerobic
(c) microbial anaerobic
(d) chemical
Answer:
(c) microbial anaerobic

Question 5.
……….. gas is considered to be the fuel of future.
(a) Hydrogen
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Methane
(d) Butane
Answer:
(a) Hydrogen

Question 6.
………. are mixed with waste materials at land-filling sites for quicker decomposition.
(a) Microbes
(b) Bioreactors
(c) Fungi
(d) Worms
Answer:
(b) Bioreactors

Question 7.
…………. bacteria decompose the xenobiotic chemicals present in sewage.
(a) Hydrocarbonoclastic
(b) Decomposing
(c) E.coli
(d) Phenol oxidizing
Answer:
(d) Phenol oxidizing

Question 8.
Microbes are used for ………… of environment polluted due to sewage.
(a) protection
(b) conservation.
(c) bioremediaiion
(d) decomposition
Answer:
(c) bioremediaiion

Question 9.
……….. is a powerful antibiotic against tuberculosis.
(a) Streptomycin
(b) Tetracycline
(c) Rifamycin
(d) Bacitracin
Answer:
(c) Rifamycin

Question 10.
Bacteria are used to clear the oil spills are called ………….. bacteria.
(a) phenol oxidizing
(b) electrolytic
(c) hydrocarbonoclastic
(d) decomposing
Answer:
(c) hydrocarbonoclastic

Question 11.
………… convert these salts of uranium into insoluble salts.
(a) Saccharomyces
(b) Thiobacillus
(c) Acidobacillus
(d) Geobacter
Answer:
(d) Geobacter

Question 12.
………….., a byproduct of fermentation is a biopesticide.
(a) Fluoroacetamide
(b) Vanillin
(c) Aspertame
(d) Spinosad
Answer:
(d) Spinosad

Question 13.
…………. beverage is obtained by fermentation of apple juice. (July ’19)
(a) Cider
(b) Wine
(c) Coffee
(d) Cocoa
Answer:
(a) Cider

Question 14.
Vinegar is the chemically ………… acid. (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
(a) Citric
(b) Gluconic
(c) Glutamic
(d) Acetic
Answer:
(d) Acetic

Question 15.
In which of the following industries microbial enzymes are not used?
(a) Glass industry
(b) Cheese industry
(c) Tanning industry
(d) Paper industry
Answer:
(a) Glass industry

Question 16.
Citric acid used in production of beverages, toffees, chocolates is obtained by fermentation of …….. by Aspergillus niger.
(a) grapes
(b) sugar molasses
(c) apple
(d) coffee nuts
Answer:
(b) sugar molasses

Match the pairs:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Vinegar	(a) Polylactic acid
(2) Xanthan gum	(b) Molasses
	(c) Icecreams and puddings
	(d) Acetic acid

Answer:
(1) Vinegar – Acetic acid
(2) Xanthan gum – Icecreams and puddings

Find the odd one out:

Question 1.
Lactobacillus acidophilus, Lactobacillus casei, Bifidobacterium bifidum, Streptococcus thermophilus
Answer:
Streptococcus thermophilus. (All others are bacteria producing probiotics.)

Question 2.
Lactobacillus lactis, Bifidobacterium bifidtim, Lactobacillus cremoris, Streptococcus thermophilus
Answer:
Bifidobacterium bifidum. (All others are bacteria used in cheese production.)

Question 3.
Dark chocolate, Miso soup, Wafers, Corn syrup
Answer:
Wafers. (All others are probiotic products.)

Question 4.
Vinegar, Soya sauce, Ketchup, Monosodium glutamate
Answer:
Ketchup. (All others are products prepared by microbial fermentation.)

Question 5.
Actinomycetes, Streptomyces, Nocardia, yeast
Answer:
Yeast. (All others have ability of decomposing rubber from garbage.)

Find the correlation:

Question 1.
Bread Baker’s yeast : : Soya sauce : ……….
Answer:
Bread Baker’s yeast : : Soya sauce : Aspergillus oryzae

Question 2.
Coffee : Caffea arabica : : Cocoa : …………
Answer:
Coffee : Coffea arabica : : Cocoa : Theobroma cacao

Question 3.
Oil slick : Alcanovorax : Rubber from garbage : …………
Answer:
Oil slick : Alcanovorax : Rubber from garbage : Actinomycetes

Question 4.
Conversion of metals into comounds : Thiobacilli : : Conversion of uranium salts …………
Answer:
Conversion of metals into comounds : Thiobacilli : : Conversion of uranium salts Geobacter.

Name the following:

Question 1.
Microbial enzymes.
Answer:
Oxidoreductases, transferases, hydrolases, lyases, isomerases, ligases.

Question 2.
Emulsifiers.
Answer:
Polysaccharides and glycolipids.

Question 3.
Microbe used in preparation of wine and cider.
Answer:
Saccharomyces cerevisiae.

Question 4.
Effective antibiotic against tuberculosis.
Answer:
Rifamycin.

Question 5.
Antibiotics.
Answer:
Penicillin, cephalosporins, monobactam, erythromycin, gentamycin, neomycin, streptomycin, tetracyclins, vancomycin.

Question 6.
Bacteria that use sulphuric acid as source of energy.
Answer:
Acidobacillus ferroxidens, Acidophillium spp.

Question 7.
Substance that makes biodegradable plastic.
Answer:
Polylactic acid.

Question 8.
Curd like food product made from sheep milk.
Answer:
Kefir.

Question 9.
Enzyme used to make vegetarian cheese.
Answer:
Protease.

Question 10.
Fungus used for making soya sauce.
Answer:
Aspergillus oryzae.

Complete the charts:

Question 1.

Fruit	Microbe used	Name of beverage
___________________________	___________________________	Coffee
Theobroma cacao	Candida, Hansenula, Pichia, Saccharomyces	___________________________
Grapes	___________________________	___________________________
Apple	Saccharomyces cerevisiae	___________________________

Answer:

Fruit	Microbe used	Name of beverage
Caffea arabica	Lactobacillus brevis	Coffee
Theobroma cacao	Candida, Hansenula, Pichia, Saccharomyces	Cocoa
Grapes	Saccharomyces cerevisiae	Wine
Apple	Saccharomyces cerevisiae	Cider

Question 2.

Source	Microbe	Amino acid	Use
Sugar and beet molasses, ammonia salt	___________________	___________________	Production of monosodium glutamate (Ajinomoto).
___________________	Aspergillus niger	___________________	Drinks, toffees, chocolate production.
Glucose, corn steep liquor	___________________	Gluconic acid	___________________
Molasses, corn steep liquor	Lactobacillus delbrueckii	___________________	___________________
___________________	Aspergillus itaconius	Itaconic acid	___________________

Answer:

Source	Microbe	Amino acid	Use
Sugar and beet molasses, ammonia salt	Brevibacterium, Corynobacterium	L-glutamic acid	Production of monosodium glutamate (Ajinomoto).
Sugar molasses, salt	Aspergillus niger	Citric acid	Drinks, toffees, chocolate production.
Glucose, corn steep liquor	Aspergillus niger	Gluconic acid	Production of minerals used as supplement for calcium and iron.
Molasses, corn steep liquor	Lactobacillus delbrueckii	Lactic acid	Source of nitrogen, production of vitamins.
Molasses, corn steep liquor	Aspergillus itaconius	Itaconic acid	Paper, textile, plastic industry, gum production

Question 3.

Source	Microbe	Amino acid
(1) Sugar molasses and salt	___________________	Citric acid
(2) ___________________	Lactobacillus delbrueckii	___________________
(3) Corn steep liquor	Aspergillus itaconius	___________________

Answer:

Source	Microbe	Amino acid
(1) Sugar molasses and salt	Aspergillus niger	Citric acid
(2) Molasses, corn steep liquor	Lactobacillus delbrueckii	Lactic acid
(3) Corn steep liquor	Aspergillus itaconius	Itaconic acid

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Which microbes are used in the baking industries? (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Answer:
Yeast i.e. Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used in the baking industries.

Question 2.
There is an oil layer on the water surface of river in your area. What will you do? (March 2019)
Answer:
If there is an oil layer on the water surface, we shall use hydrocarbonoclastic bacteria like Pseudomonas to clean up the oil spill.

Question 3.
(a) How are microbes used in sewage management?
(b) How is the sludge produced in this process utilized? (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Answer:
(a)

In cities, the sewage is sent to processing plant and is treated with microbes.
Microbes that carry out decomposition, are mixed with sewage. Such microbes are able to destroy, pathogens as well as decompose any compounds.
Some microbes bring about bioremediation of environment, that are used for treating sewage pollution.
Upon decomposition of the carbon compounds present in sewage, microbes release methane and CO₂.

(b) The sludge formed in this process, is used as fertilizer.

Question 4.
Answer the following questions:
(a) What is clean technology?
Answer:
Clean technology is the method to use microbes for controlling air, soil and water pollution. These microbes can degrade the manmade chemicals.

(b) Why is it essential to ban plastic bags?
Answer:
Plastic is a non-biodegradable substance. It cannot be degraded back into its original constituents. It remains just like that for many hundreds of years. It causes solid waste pollution in any environment wherever it is thrown indiscriminately. If burnt, it releases very toxic gases. If dumped in landfills it obstructs the other decomposition processes.

Write short notes on the following:

Question 1.
Production of Yoghurt.
Answer:

Yoghurt is one of the milk product produced from milk with the help of lactobacilli (inoculant).
In the industrial production of yoghurt, the milk is added with condensed milk powder. This increases the protein content of the milk. Then this milk is subjected to fermentation.
Milk is boiled and then it is cooled till it becomes lukewarm.
Then the bacterial strains of Streptococcus thermophiles and Lactobacillus delbrueckii are added to this lukewarm milk in 1:1 proportion.
The Streptococcus bacteria convert the milk into solution containing lactic acid. This makes the proteins to gel out. It makes the yoghurt dense.
The lactobacilli help in the formation of acetaldehyde like compounds giving a characteristic taste to the yoghurt.
For commercial reasons, various fruit juices are mixed with yoghurt to impart different flavours forming strawberry yoghurt, banana yoghurt, etc.
The pasteurization is carried out to increase the shelf life of yoghurt and improve its probiotic properties.

Question 2.
Production of cheese.
Answer:
Cheese is made from cow’s milk throughout the world. The steps in the process of cheese manufacture are as follows:

Chemical and microbiological testing of milk is done.
Three types of bacteria, viz. Lactobacillus lactis, Lactobacillus cremoris and Streptococcus thermophilus along with some colour is added to the milk.
It imparts sourness to the milk and it is converted into yoghurt like substance.
The water from this yoghurt, i.e. whey is not removed to make the yoghurt denser.
Enzyme, rennet or protease is added to the mixture to make it more denser.
Later cutting the solid yoghurt into pieces, washing, rubbing, salting, land mixing of essential microbes, pigments and flavours is done in suitable steps.
The pressed cheese is then cut in to pieces and stored for ripening.

Question 3.
Land-filling sites.
Answer:

In the land-filling sites the degradable wastes are transferred. Usually such sites are in urban areas.
The land-filling sites are away from the residential areas for the hygienic reasons. Here large pits arb dug in open spaces.
These pits are lined with plastic sheets. Therefore, the leaching of toxic and harmful materials is avoided to reduce the chance of soil pollution due to leachates.
Compressed waste is put in the pit and is covered with layers of soil, saw dust, leafy waste.
Specific biochemical substances are added for speedy decomposition.
Bioreactors which are mixtures of bacteria are mixed at some places.
Soil microbes and other top layers decompose the waste.
Soil slurry is used to seal the pits completely.
After a certain period, best quality compost is formed. Such land filling sites can be reused after removal of compost.

Complete the paragraph by choosing the appropriate words given in the brackets:

Question 1.
(Nocardia, Geobacter, Ideonella sakaiensis, Pseudomonas, Alcanovorax borkumensis, hydrocarbonoclastic, Acidophillium, streptomyces)
Bacteria like ………… spp. and ………. have the ability to destroy the pyridines and other chemicals. Hence, these bacteria are used to clear the oil spills. These are called ………. bacteria. It has been observed that species like Vibrio, …………… can decompose the PET. Similarly, species of fungi like ………… have ability of decomposing rubber from garbage. Sulphuric acid is source of energy for some species of bacteria like ………… Hence, these bacteria can control the soil pollution occurring due to acid rain. …………..convert the salts of uranium into insoluble salts.
Answer:
Bacteria like Pseudomonas spp. and Alcanovorax borkumensis have the ability to destroy the pyridines and other chemicals. Hence, these bacteria are used to clear the oil spills. These are called hydrocarbonoclastic bacteria. It has been observed that species like Vibrio, Ideonella sakaiensis can decompose the PET. Similarly, species of fungi like Nocardia have ability of decomposing rubber from garbage. Sulphuric acid is source of energy for some species of bacteria like Acidophillium. Hence, these bacteria can control the soil pollution occurring due to acid rain. Geobacter convert the salts of uranium into insoluble salts.

Read the paragraph and answer the questions given below:

Remediation is the process of removing dangerous or poisonous substances from the environment, or limiting the effect that they have on it. When any biological organism is used for remediation, it is called bioremediation. When plant species are used for the purpose of remediation, it is called phytoremediation. When any microbes are used then it is named as microbial remediation. The methods of such remediation have helped to clean the environment from toxic effluents, especially sewage and crude oil. Dr. Anand Chakraborty, a scientist of Indian origin, has worked on Pseudomonas aeruginosa which have reduced the crude oil films into carbon dioxide and water.

Questions and Answers:

Question 1.
What is the meaning of remediation?
Answer:
Remediation is the process by which dangerous or toxic substances are removed from the environment.

Question 2.
What is the difference between phytoremediation and microbial remediation?
Answer:
When any plant species are used for remediation process, then it is called phytoremediation, whereas when any microbe species used for remediation then it is called microbial remediation.

Question 3.
Which environmental pollutant is mainly removed through bioremediation processes?
Answer:
Toxicants released through sewage and crude oil are removed by bioremediation processes.

Question 4.
What is the role of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
Answer:
Pseudomonas aeruginosa helps in bioremediation by acting on film of crude oil and reduces it to carbon dioxide and water.

Question 5.
Why Dr. Anand Chakraborty’s work phenomenal?
Answer:
Dr. Anand Chakraborty discovered that Pseudomonas aeruginosa bacteria can act on oil film which is toxic and reduce it to nontoxic products. This helps in controlling the oil pollution of marine waters which otherwise is very difficult to control.

Diagram based questions:

Question 1.
Observe the diagram and answer the following questions:

(a) Name the following method of solid waste management.
Answer:
The above diagram shows modern landfill site. This method is used for solid waste management.

(b) What type of waste is used in this method?
Answer:
In this method only degradable waste matter collected in cities can be used. Such solid waste can undergo biodegradation and hence can be managed in an eco-friendly way.

(c) What kind of useful substances can be obtained from such methods?
Answer:
From such decomposition, organic fertilizers and manure formed through composting are obtained. Methane gas is also obtained which is used as fuel.

Question 2.
Observe the Figure 7.1 and answer the following questions: (March 2019)

(a) Identify the process shown in the figure.
Answer:
The figure shows modern land fill site where microbial biodegradation process is carried out.

(b) Explain the process in short.
Answer:
Land-filling sites:

In the land-filling sites the degradable wastes are transferred. Usually such sites are in urban areas.
The land-filling sites are away from the residential areas for the hygienic reasons. Here large pits arb dug in open spaces.
These pits are lined with plastic sheets. Therefore, the leaching of toxic and harmful materials is avoided to reduce the chance of soil pollution due to leachates.
Compressed waste is put in the pit and is covered with layers of soil, saw dust, leafy waste.
Specific biochemical substances are added for speedy decomposition.
Bioreactors which are mixtures of bacteria are mixed at some places.
Soil microbes and other top layers decompose the waste.
Soil slurry is used to seal the pits completely.
After a certain period, best quality compost is formed. Such land filling sites can be reused after removal of compost.

Activity based questions:

Question 1.
Collect Information Search : (Textbook page no. 84)
(i) Which materials should not be present in garbage for its proper microbial decomposition?
Answer:
If there are non-biodegradable materials in the garbage, they will not decompose. The plastic, glass, metals etc. will not undergo microbial decomposition, therefore, such items should not be- there in the garbage. The toxic matter, hazardous chemicals and e-waste should also be removed. If such materials are present in the garbage, the microbes will be killed and the entire process of decomposition will be suffered.

(ii) How the sewage generated in your house or apartment is disposed off ?
Answer:
The sewage generated in our house is carried by the drainage pipes to municipal sewage treatment plants. Here, primary, secondary and tertiary treatment is done on the sewage. The safe water is then released into the ocean.

Question 2.
Observe: (Textbook page no. 83)
Observe the garbage vans of gram panchayat and municipality. Nowadays, there is facility of decreasing the volume of garbage by compaction in those vans. Explain the advantages of this activity.
Answer:
When the garbage is compressed, its volume is reduced. The trips of the vans that pick up the garbage can be reduced due to such measures. The land filling sites can also accommodate more garbage if it is compacted.

Question 3.
Observe the figure and answer the following:

(i) Lack of management of which factor is shown in the picture?
Answer:
The above picture shows the lack of management of sewage resulting in waste water being dumped carelessly.

(ii) How can that factor be managed with the help of microbes?
Answer:
Microbes which can destroy the pathogens of cholera, typhoid, etc. are mixed with sewage. They release methane and CO₂ by decomposition of the carbon compounds present in sewage. Other microbes that decompose chemical compounds are also released. Phenol oxidizing bacteria decompose the xenobiotic chemicals present in sewage.

(iii) How are the oil spills in oceans cleared?
Answer:
Hydrocarbonoclastic bacteria like
Alcanivorax borkumensis and Pseudomonas are used to clear the oil spillage from ocean water. These bacteria decompose the hydrocarbons. They bring about the reaction of released carbon with oxygen to produced CO₂ and water.

Projects: (Do it your self)

Project 1.
Search: (Textbook page no. 81)
Read the ingredients and their proportion printed on bottles of cold drinks and juices and wrappers of ice creams. Find out the natural and artificial ingredients.

Project 2.
Internet is My Friend: (Textbook page no. 85)
Collect pictures of various useful microbes. Display chart of their information in the classroom.

Project 3.
Observe the figure given on Textbook page no. 82. Discuss about bio-fuel?

10th Std Science Part 2 Questions And Answers:

Social Health Class 10 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

January 6, 2025January 5, 2025 by Bhagya

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 9 Social Health Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 10 Science Part 2 Chapter 9 Social Health Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Class 10 Science Part 2 Chapter 9 Social Health Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks with appropriate word.
a. Laughter club is a remedy to drive away …………..
(a) stress
(b) addictions
(c) lethargy
(d) epidemics
Answer:
(a) stress

b. Alcohol consumption mainly affects …………. system.
(a) digestive
(b) respiratory
(c) nervous
(d) excretory
Answer:
(c) nervous

c. IT Act 2000 is to control the ……….
(a) housebreaking
(b) cybercrimes
(c) cheating
(d) pickpocketing
Answer:
(b) cybercrimes

Question 2.
Answer the following.
a. Which factors affect the social health?
Answer:
(1) In order to maintain the social health of any community there should be good amenities for the people. E.g. food, water, shelter, clothing, medicines and medical help, equal opportunities for education, cleanliness of the surroundings, transport facilities etc. should be properly provided.

(2) The social and political conditions of the surrounding should be such that there should not be any connections with world of criminals. The presence of such criminal ties can affect the social health to a great extent.

(3) The gardens, playgrounds, the empty plots for outdoor games, sports clubs, etc. are important criteria for overall development of the society. This results into personality development and make people happy and strong.

(4) Addictions, criminal tendencies, pervert behaviour and perverse thinking affects other people in the society and this reflects negatively on the social health.

(5) Having large number of friends and relatives, proper use of time when alone and when along the peer group, trust in others, respect and acceptance for others build stronger social health.

b. Which changes occur in persons continuously using the internet and mobile phones?
Answer:

When a person continuously remains in contact with mobile phones, many physical problems can arise.
Tiredness, headache, insomnia, forgetfulness, tinnitus, joint pains and problems in vision occur due to radiation emanating from the cell phones. For young children this is more disastrous as these radiations can penetrate through their bones.
By logging into the internet for a long time, persons become solitary. Such individuals are unable to establish harmonious relations with relatives and other people around.
They tend to become self-centred and selfish, They lose sensitivity towards others.
Such people never take any social responsibility and the social health is thus disturbed.

c. Which problems does the common man face due to incidences of cybercrime?
Answer:

The numbers of Aadhaar card, PAN card, credit or debit card are obtained by the cheaters. This is a cybercrime. The PIN number can be misused and the money can be withdrawn from the bank accounts. The looters withdraw cash from our accounts in this way.
People can be cheated during online shopping.
Fake account on Facebook is opened and false information is displayed on it. Through such accounts the girls are emotionally and financially exploited.
Electronic media are misused for sending derogatory and vulgar messages, obscene pictxfres and provocative statements.
Through the internet, hackers can send virus to crash someone’s computer or even mobile phones.
In all such different ways, common people can be victimized by cybercrime.

d. Explain the importance of good communication with others.
Answer:

Nowadays, there is fierce competition, insecurity and criminal tendencies in the society.
This kind of atmosphere is increasing mental and emotional stress.
If the stress remains buried in the mind, persons are depressed or frustrated. This causes, mental disorders if not treated in time. Depression can lead to addictions. The suicidal thoughts hover in the mind. If at that phase we can open our heart by good communication, many problems can be solved.
Help from counsellors can be taken to relieve the stress.
By good communication with parents or family members harmonious relations can be re-established.

Question 3.
Solve the following crossword.

1. Continuous consumption of alcoholic and tobacco materials.
Answer:
Addiction

2. This app may cause the cybercrimes
Answer:
Facebook

3. A remedy to resolve stress.
Answer:
Singing

4. Requirement for stress free life.
Answer:
Goodfood

5. Various factors affect ……….. health.
Answer:
Social

6. Art of preparing food items.
Answer:
Cooking.

Question 4.
What are the various ways to minimize mental stress?
Answer:
The ways of stress-bursting are as follows:
(1) Laughter club: People gather together and laugh collectively to reduce stress.

(2) Good communication: One should establish good communication with friends, siblings, cousins, teachers, parents or anybody in whom we can confide and express our feelings.

(3) Writing: By writing and noting the thoughts we feel relieved. We can confess and analyse about our mistakes through writing to reduce our stress.

(4) Hobbies: Collecting curios, photography, reading good literature, music, cooking, gardening, bird watching, keeping a pet, sculpturing, drawing, rangoli, dancing, etc. are such hobbies which are necessary for utilizing our spare time by creativity. Persuading hobby is the best way to be stress-free. Music in particular is said to change the negative thoughts, therefore, listening to music, learning the music and singing helps to fight stress. By admiring nature too, stress is relieved.

(5) Outdoor games and physical exercise: By participating in the sports, there are various benefits such as physical exercise, improving discipline, interaction with others and creating the tendency of unity, becoming more social and reduce stress.

Question 5.
Give three examples of each.
a. Hobbies to reduce stress.
Answer:

To listen to music
Bird watching and nature trails
Reading good books.

b. Diseases endangering the social health.
Answer:

AIDS
Tuberculosis
Leprosy.

c. Physical problems arising due to excessive use of mobile phones.
Answer:

Headache
Vision problems
Joint pains.

d. Activities under the jurisdiction of cybercrime laws.
Answer:

To do bank transactions by procuring PIN number of somebody.
Misuse of written material of someone or illegal sale of the same.
Hacking the information of government institutes and companies.

Question 6.
What will you do? Why?
a. You are spending more time in internet/mobile games, phone, etc.
Answer:
In life, the time once spent never returns back. We therefore must use our time for studies, exercise or outdoor games and some entertainment. In the free time, we must also help our parents in house hold work. But if we are spending hours together on surfing the net without any perfect aim or playing the computer or cell phone games it is total waste of time.

There are many inappropriate sites on the internet, which should not be watched. This causes stress. Continuous use of mobile phone and being hooked to the social media slowly becomes an addiction. If these bad habits are creeping in us, we must try to leave the habits by conscious change.

b. Child of your neighbour is addicted to tobacco chewing. (July 2019)
Answer:
The hazards of tobacco chewing will be explained to this child. Different photographs and videos showing the conditions of oral cancer will be shown to this child to persuade him, so that he can stay away from tobacco. This addiction has to be removed, so help of his parents will be taken. They will be told about the child’s habit and asked to help ? him free from his addiction.

c. Your sister has become incommunicative. She prefers to remain alone. (July 2019)
Answer:
The individual who prefers to be incommunicative has lots of thoughts in his/her mind. If this is the case with sister, she will be taken into confidence and the reason behind this lack of communication will be found out. Most often such persons have depression. So she will not be left alone. Her friends will be invited at home, so that she can converse with them. She should be motivated to mix with her favourite people. She should be encouraged to pursue her hobbies. She should be helped in selecting such work, If nothing changes her, then the help of counsellor should be taken.

d. You have to use free space around your home for good purpose.
Answer:
The free space around our home can be used to make a small garden. The garden-soil can be bought and spread in this free space. Small saplings can be planted here and nurtured for further growth. Nursery of saplings can also be started in this free space.

The space can also be used for outdoor games. The net for Badminton can be fixed and evening times can be spent in playing the game. Also care will be taken to keep the space clean and without any garbage.

e. Your Mend has developed the hobby of snapping selfies. (July 2019)
Answer:
The habit of continuously taking selfie is bad. It shows that the friend is constantly thinking of himself only. His self-centredness is to be removed by counselling him. The reason behind this behaviour should also be understood. He should be diverted and motivated to take some other tasks so that his habit can be lessened. Taking selfies is not a hobby. It is a bad habit if someone is repeatedly engaged in it.

f. Your brother studying in XII has developed the stress.
Answer:
The syllabus for class XII is vast. If the studies are not taken seriously from the beginning of the academic year, then the stress develops due to the fear of examination and result. Therefore, instead of being stressed, he should practise time management and study schedule. He should think of only one subject at a time. The atmosphere in the house should be maintained happy and tension-free. Everybody in the house should interact with him so that he gets a feeling that he is not alone. He should be convinced, “study is for you and you are not for study”.

Question 7.
What type of changes occur in a home having chronically ill old person? How will you help to maintain good atmosphere?
Answer:
If there is a chronically ill old person in the house, the entire atmosphere of the house changes. There is tension and grief in the house. Doctor’s visits to the house become routine. The ill person’s diet and medicines are strictly followed.

In such times, everybody in the family should contribute to the work of taking care of the patient. We can help in bringing medicines. We can sit beside the patient during night time. We should maintain pleasant atmosphere in the house. We should help the person who is burdened by the duties towards the sick patient by helping in whatever little ways that we can.

Project: (Do it your self)

Project 1.
Enlist various factors affecting the social health in your residential area. Decide the necessary changes to correct the situation and implement those changes.

Let’s Think: (Text Book Page No. 101)

Question 1.
Elders always instruct you to get out of the home to interact with relatives and others and play outdoor games but not to spend time continuously with television, phone and internet. Why the children of your age are instructed same in each home?
Answer:
When we interact with the relative, it becomes easier to mix with other strangers later. The personality moulds when we talk and interact with different people. We can exchange the thoughts. We learn to converse in a rightful way. When we go to playground and take part in outdoor games, we get health benefits. Sitting at home and spending productive time in just mobile or computer games, does not benefit in any way.

Most of the serials on the television are of no use for any kind of personality development, instead they push us in a virtual world. Except for few channels like National Geographic and Animal Kingdom, we do not get any knowledge by television viewing.

The elders in the house are experienced people. They understand ‘what is good’ and ‘what is to be avoided’. They are also genuinely concerned about bright future of the youngsters in the house. By giving instructions to the youngsters, they never get benefitted but it is our generation that gets proper guidance. These instructions should be followed for a perfect personality and bright future.

Think: (Text Book Page No. 103)

Question 1.
Whether the incidence shown in the following picture is rational? Express your opinion.

Answer:
In the picture is seen a woman asking the beggar to move away. The beggar looks dirty and sick. In one way, the picture looks proper as the beggar may be causing inconvenience to the people in that house. He is unhygienic and may spread the- infection. But from the humanitarian point of view, he may be needing help. He may be starving. He may be sick. In such a case, Jie should be given food and help.

However, if he is a drug addict the police should be called and person should be transferred immediately. From the picture, the exact condition of the man is not clearly understood and hence, the exact opinion about the rationality of the incidence cannot be made.

Observe: (Text Book Page No. 103)

Question 1.
Two caricatures presenting the situations of the year 1998 and 2017 about playing on playground are given below. Observe those caricatures. Express your opinion about arising of such different situations.

Answer:
In 1998, the technology was not so much advanced as it is today. In every house, there were no computers or laptops. Mobile phones were not popular then. The children used to play games which were outdoor and physical. They used to spend quality time on the playground. They always wanted to rush to the playground after their school hours. Therefore, mothers of that time had the task to get back their children from the playground.

By 2017, the situations and the social and technological change became enormous. The constant growth of the cities also experienced the rising construction. This too resulted in loss of playgrounds. After school time, children started spending their time in mobile and computer games. The parents also became financially well-off and started providing all the amenities to the children.

Due to the internet and the computer at home, the children got hooked to these electronic media. They started spending all the available time in virtual games, Facebook, what’s app and other social media. Thus mothers, of recent times had to force their children out of the house, at least for some time, so that they can play physical games.

Two caricatures presenting the situations of the year 1998 and 2017 about playing on playground show the tremendous social change that has undergone in our society.

Observe: (Text Book Page No. 104)

Question 1.
Observe the images below. Is it rational? Why?

Answer:
In the above three pictures three incidences are shown. In the first picture (Fig. 9.3), the boy who is taking his lunch is shown. He is busy with his mobile while having his food. In second picture (Fig. 9.4), a young man is taking selfie while standing in the busy road. He is not aware of the approaching car too. In the third picture (Fig. 9.5), some men are taking pictures of the accident that has recently happened. The person is injured and bleeding. But these men-are busy in photographing him.

All the three pictures are showing irrational and improper behaviour. We should respect the food while eating. We should eat in a disciplined way. Standing in the middle of the road and taking selfie is like inviting the mishap. Selfie taken in such circumstances usually results in an accident. In the last picture, the sensitivity and the humanity to save the victim is lacking. If the victim is immediately rushed to hospital, his life can be saved. Instead of helping the victim if people are engrossed in taking pictures, then it is absolutely wrong.

Choose the correct alternative and write its alphabet against the sub-question number:

Question 1.
Our ……… has been changed to some extent in the age of technology.
(a) lifestyle
(b) habit
(c) circumstance
(d) passion
Answer:
(a) lifestyle

Question 2.
………… influence is stronger in case of adolescents.
(a) Teacher’s
(b) Father’s
(c) Relative’s
(d) Peer group
Answer:
(d) Peer group

Question 3.
Tobacco containing substances has ……….. effect on mouth and lungs.
(a) acidic
(b) alkaline
(c) carcinogenic
(d) neutral
Answer:
(c) carcinogenic

Question 4.
Persons continuously using computers and the internet become …………..
(a) courageous
(b) timid
(c) solitary
(d) criminal
Answer:
(c) solitary

Question 5.
…………. has been newly launched in Police Department.
(a) Cybercrime unit
(b) Women protection unit
(c) Senior citizen care unit
(d) Forensic unit
Answer:
(a) Cybercrime unit

Question 6.
…………. helps to improve concentration in the studies.
(a) Eatables
(b) Meditation
(c) Hobbies
(d) Sports
Answer:
(b) Meditation

Question 7.
Hobbies like rearing pet animal helps to create a …………..
(a) positive mindset
(b) negative attitude
(c) wealth
(d) concentration
Answer:
(a) positive mindset

Find the odd one out:

Question 1.
Transport facilities, Social security, Counselling, Toilets.
Answer:
Counselling. (All others are factors affecting social health. Counselling is the positive measure for mental health.)

Question 2.
Aadhaar card, PAN card, Greeting card, Credit card.
Answer:
Greeting card. (All others are important cards of personal use.)

Question 3.
What’s app, Instagram, Facebook, Textbook.
Answer:
Textbook. (All others are social media.)

Question 4.
Tobacco, Laughter club, Alcoholism, Drug abuse.
Answer:
Laughter club. (All others are addictions.)

Find out the correlation:

Question 1.
Movement against tobacco : Tata trust : : Education of slum children : …………..
Answer:
Movement against tobacco : Tata trust : : Education of slum children : Salaam Mumbai Foundation

Question 2.
Addictive substances : Drugs : : Carcinogenic (Cancer causing) substances : ………..
Answer:
Addictive substances : Drugs : : Carcinogenic (Cancer causing) substances : Tobacco

Question 3.
Radiations from cell phones : Headache : : ………….. : Hindrance to the brain development.
Answer:
Radiations from cell phones : Headache : : Alcoholism : Hindrance to the brain development.

Select the two options in the ‘B’ group related to ‘A’ group:

Question 1.

‘A’ Group	‘B’ Group
(1) Salaam Mumbai Foundation	(a) Work against alcoholism
	(b) Freedom from tobacco
	(c) Laughter club
	(d) Help to improve student’s lifestyle

Answer:
(1) Salaam Mumbai Foundation – (b) Freedom from tobacco (d) Help to improve student’s lifestyle.

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
Nowadays school going children suffer from mental stress.
Answer:

These days children stay in nuclear families. Due to need for earning and also due to her career choices, mother of the house is also away for long period of time.
The grandparents or other elders are not in the home. This makes the children alone in the house.
At school and during studies, there is fierce competition. The modern technology like internet or mobile phones are luring the children away from their regular exercises or outdoor games.
The wrong kind of peer pressure introduces addictive substances at the young age.
There is insecurity in the outside world for the young children.

These facts create emotional burden on the young minds and thus they suffer from mental stress.

Question 2.
Girls are facing the problem of stress due to such gender inequality.
Answer:

In most of the households there are many bindings on girls and excessive freedom for boys.
Boys do not participate in the domestic duties whereas girls have compulsion for the same.
In society too, girls have to face the problems like teasing and molestation.
This creates insecurity among the minds of girls.
The social change has made women independent and equal but still the male dominated society and the gender inequality persists causing more stress for young girls.

Question 3.
Consuming liquor is always bad.
Answer:

When the liquor is produced from alcohol wrong processes can be carried out which makes the liquor highly toxic.
It may cost the life too. Due to alcohol in the liquor, there is directly effect on the nervous system and especially on the brain.
Other vital organs such as liver and kidneys are harmed due to alcohol.
The lifespan of person decreases due to alcoholism.
In students, the brain functioning is affected and the ability to memorize and think rationally is lost. The learning process becomes slow.
Due to all these effects, there is social, mental and familial problems in the society. Therefore, consuming liquor is always bad.

Question 4.
We need to keep the PIN number of the debit card secret.
Answer:

Debit card is used to withdraw our money from the bank account.
During withdrawal, we have to use our PIN number.
If this PIN number is known to anybody, he or she can withdraw all our money and loot us.
Therefore, to prevent such financial loss, we have to keep the PIN number of the debit card secret.

Question 5.
Importance of outdoor games is unparalleled.
Answer:

Outdoor games give good physical exercise. These games give many physical benefits.
It improves personal discipline, interaction with fellow players and created sense of unity.
Through play by driving away the loneliness, mental stress and depression is reduced.
The person becomes more social.
Therefore, it is said that the importance of outdoor games is unparalleled.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What is alcoholism? What are its effects?
Answer:

Alcoholism is the addiction to have alcohol in the form of different types of liquor. Liquor is produced from alcohol. Alcohol is in turn obtained by fermentation of different substances.
Consuming liquor becomes an addiction for a long-term. Due to alcohol, the efficiency of nervous system and especially the brain is affected.
Other vital organs such as kidneys and liver are adversely affected.
Lifespan of an alcoholic decreases due to constant drinking and malnourishment.
Especially in adolescent age if alcohol is consumed the brain functioning does not take place properly. The mental ability of memorization and learning becomes slow. There is lack of concentration in studies.
The alcoholic person lacks the rational thinking and hence faces with social, mental and familial problems along with physical illness.

Question 2.
How the excessive use of social media and technology is proving harmful?
Answer:
Excessive use of social media and modem technology is disturbing the social health. It is also affecting physical and mental health. Increase in cybercrime take place. People waste their time by watching useless and obscene material. Violence develops by watching few weird cartoon serials. Dependency on machine rises and persons lose self-reliance.

Question 3.
Explain the importance of exercise, yoga and meditation.
Answer:

Exercise, yoga and meditation are the ways to reduce mental and physical stress.
In yoga various asanas and pranayama are performed. It also includes good food and discipline of the body and mind.
Deep breathing, yogic sleep can help in the building up health.
Meditation helps in concentration and brings positivity to the mind. Especially, the students increase the concentration in the studies.

Write short notes on the following:

Question 1.
Cybercrimes.
Answer:

No personal information should be shared on the phone, especially the details of bank account, Aadhaar card, PAN card, credit card or debit card number, etc. Cheating persons by using this information is a greatest cybercrime.
If PIN of any debit or credit card is known to a stranger, he or she can make fraudulent transactions.
The PIN number and CVV number should be kept total secret. Otherwise, the bank transactions, are done using PIN without the knowledge of consumers.
In on-line purchases, many a times consumers are cheated. In this, the consumers are shown superior items on websites but actually the inferior ones are sold to them.
‘Hacking of information’ is done by some programmers in which the confidential information about government, institutes and companies is obtained from internet with the help of computer programs.
Fake Facebook accounts are opened and false information is displayed there. This is for harassing girls or financially exploiting others.
In internet piracy, written literature, software, photos, videos, music, etc. of other persons are misused or illegally used.

Misuse of electronic media sending derogatory messages, spreading vulgar pictures and provocative statements is also a cybercrime. Very rapid exchange of information through media like email, Facebook and Whatsapp takes place these days. But we have to take care about leaking of our own important information.

However, when our personal information and phone numbers are automatically spread and reached to fraudulent people, then they commit malpractices which can hinder the function or shut of the cell phones or computers. All these are cybercrimes which are also indicative of mental health.

Question 2.
Addiction.
Answer:
(1) In adolescent age group, there is tremendous pressure of peers. This peer-group influence can be at times wrong, if the friends are not good. Instead of following advice of parents, the adolescent girls and boys tend to listen to the wrong advices of their friends.
(2) Due to lack of parental supervision, children in their early age start using tobacco, cigarette, gutkha, alcoholic drinks, drugs, etc. This may be due to peer-pressure.
(3) The children fall into the trap of addictions either due to peer-group pressure or due to false
symbol of high standard living. Sometimes they try to imitate their elders.
(4) The addictive substances are hazardous, and they cause long term effects. Some are temporarily intoxicating substances obtained from the plants. While some of the chemical ingredients in them can permanently damage the human nervous system, muscular system, heart, etc. Some tobacco like substances Eire carcinogenic in action especially on the mouth and lungs.

Complete the paragraph by choosing the appropriate words given in the bracket:

Question 1.
(lungs, heart, carcinogenic, nervous, intoxicating, hazardous, addictions, peer-group)
The children fall into the trap of …………. either due to ……….. pressure or due to false symbol of high standard living. Sometimes they try to imitate their elders. The addictive substances are ………….., and they cause long term effects. Some are temporarily ………… substances obtained from the plants. While some of the chemical ingredients in them can permanently damage the human ……… system, muscular system, …………, etc. Some tobacco like substances are ………. in action especially on the mouth and ………….
Answer:
The children fall into the trap of addictions either due to peer-group pressure or due to false symbol of high standard living. Sometimes they try to imitate their elders. The addictive substances are hazardous, and they cause long term effects. Some are temporarily intoxicating substances obtained from the plants. While some of the chemical ingredients in them can permanently damage the human nervous system, muscular system, heart, etc. Some tobacco like substances are Carcinogenic in action especiailly on the mouth and lungs.

Paragraph based questions:

1. Read the paragraph and answer the questions given below:
Social health involves your ability to form satisfying interpersonal relationships with others.
It also relates to your ability to adapt comfortably to different social situations and act appropriately in a variety of settings. Spouses, co-workers and acquaintances can all have healthy relationships with one another. Each of these relationships should include strong communication skills, empathy for others and a sense of accountability. In contrast, traits like being withdrawn, vindictive or selfish can have a negative impact on your social health. Overall, stress can be one of the most significant threats to a healthy relationship. Stress should be managed through proven techniques such as regular physical activity, deep breathing and positive self-talk.

Questions and Answers:

Question 1.
How can you be socially healthy?
Answer:
If one has ability to form satisfying interpersonal relationships with others, he or she can be socially healthy. In all social situations and settings there should be appropriate behaviour.

Question 2.
Which qualities are needed for having good social contacts?
Answer:
Strong communication skills, empathy for others and sense of accountability are the qualities needed for having good social contacts.

Question 3.
Which traits have negative impacts on social health?
Answer:
Being withdrawn, vindictive or selfish, and stressed out personality has negative impacts on the social health.

Question 4.
What are the stress management techniques?
Answer:
Regular physical activity, deep breathing and positive self-talk can be the simple stress management techniques.

Question 5.
What is the significant threat to social health of an adolescent in your opinion?
Answer:
General stress, addictions, wrong peer pressure, too much screen time, lack of parental care are threats to social health of an adolescent.

Activity based questions:

Question 1.
Fill in the boxes with the help of the given clue: (March ’19)
Continuous consumption of alcohol and tobacco material …………

Answer:
ADDICTION

Question 2.
Observe the pictures and answer the questions. (March’19)
(a) Playing games on mobile while eating is right or wrong. Justify.

Answer:
The boy taking his lunch is shown in the adjoining picture. He is busy with his mobile while having his food. His nutrition may affect due to such behavior.

(b) What do you conclude from the following picture?

Answer:
Cigarette contains carcinogenic nicotine. It should never be smoked. Similarly, always stay away from addictions such as drugs, alcohol, gutkha, etc. The pictures give message for control of addictions.

(c) Observe the following picture and state what can be the outcome?

Answer:
In picture, a young man is taking selfie while standing in the busy road. He is not aware of the approaching car too. This may cause an accident.

Question 3.
Complete the following:
Concept-diagram using factors harming the social health and based on it, answer the following questions :
(i) Tobacco products can be included in which of those factors?
(ii) How the tobacco products are harming the social health?
Answer:
(Answers are given in bold.)

(i) Tobacco products are included under addiction.
(ii) Tobacco is carcinogenic product. By its consumption personal and social health is affected on a large scale. Spitting tobacco anywhere is also common practice among tobacco chewers. This too affects public hygiene and cleanliness.

Question 4.
(9) Observe the following figure and answer the given questions: (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)

(a) What does this picture given in the textbook indicate?
(b) Explain any two causes for this problem.
(c) Describe any two measures to eradicate this problem.
Answer:
(a) Given picture indicates that person is suffering from mental problem. He is under sever depression and frustration. Person may be using the drugs.

(b) Causes of this problems are as under:

Nuclear families and working parents.
Poverty, divided family and unemployment. Addiction is major cause of this problem.

By good communication with parents or family members harmonious relation can be re-established.
Help from counsellors can be helpful to minimize the problem.

Question 5.
(i) Which mental illness is shown in the picture 9.5?

(ii) Which social message would you like to give through it.
Answer:
(i) The picture (figure 9.5) shows ‘insensitivity’, which is a type of human nature.
(ii)

Instead of shooting the accident the victim should be given first aid.
Call on 100 and 108 and seek immediate help from police and ambulance.
Disperse the crowd and try to save life of victim by giving CPR.

Question 6.
Write, which is an inappropriate action in the picture 9.5? (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Answer:
The picture shows lack of sensitivity and responsibility.

Question 7.
Observe the figure and answer the questions given below.

(a) What do these figures indicate?
(b) Which gadgets can be misused for these?
(c) Give two examples of such events.
(d) Name the act amended by Government of Maharashtra to control such events.
(e) What care should be taken by a person to avoid such events?
Answer:
(a) The above figures indicate different types of cybercrime.

(b) The gadgets that are usually used for cybercrime are internet connected computers, cell phones, ATM machines, debit and credit cards, etc. Also using aadhar and PAN cards of others.

(c) (1) Bank transactions are done without the knowledge of the account holder by stealing necessary numbers or pass codes. (2) By opening the fake accounts of social media and deceiving girls, harming them psychologically by teasing them. (3) Deceiving customers by showing superior options on the internet and providing inferior ones when bought. In online shopping many may be cheated in this way.

(d) IT Act-2000 is the act enacted since 17th Oct. 2000 and amended in 2008 that has been imposed by Government of Maharashtra to control cybercrimes.

(e) To prevent cybercrimes, one has to keep vigil over bank transactions. Never reveal any details on the phone. The ATM pin number and PAN or AADHAR details should not be revealed to anyone. While at ATM machines, the pin number should be covered. Always log out from the internet after the work is over.

Projects:

Project 1.
Observe and Discuss: Observe the chart given on textbook page 101. Discuss about the relationship of various factors shown therein with the social health. (Textbook page no. 101)

Project 2.
Try This! (Textbook page no. 101) Classify your classmates into following groups depending upon the observation for a week.
1. Highly interactive.
2. Occasionally interactive.
3. Non-interactive
Make a list of the friends of each of the above three group members and also mention the group to which you belong.

Project 3.
Compare: (Textbook page no. 103) Distribute the 24 hours of your daily routine as per various duties you have observed. Make two categories as time spent on your health and time spent on other responsibilities and compare both the categories.

Project 4.
Internet is my friend: Visit the website www.cyberswachhtakendra.gov.in

10th Std Science Part 2 Questions And Answers:

Gravitation Class 10 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

January 6, 2025January 5, 2025 by Bhagya

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 1 Gravitation Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 10 Science Part 1 Chapter 1 Gravitation Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Class 10 Science Part 1 Chapter 1 Gravitation Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Gravitation Exercise Question 1.
Study the entries in the following table and rewrite them putting the connected items in a single row :

I	II	III
Mass	m/s²	Zero at the centre of the earth
Weight	kg	Measure of inertia
Acceleration due to gravity	N.m²/kg²	Same in the entire universe
Gravitational constant	N	Depends on height

Answer:

I	II	III
Mass	kg	Measure of inertia
Weight	N	Depends on height
Acceleration due to gravity	m/s²	Zero at the centre of the earth
Gravitational constant	N.m²/kg²	Same in the entire universe

Gravitation Class 10 Maharashtra Board Question 2.
Answer the following questions.
(a) What is the difference between mass and weight of an object? Will the mass and weight of an object on the earth be the same as their values on Mars? Why?
Answer:
The mass of an object is the amount of matter present in it. It is same everywhere in the Universe and is never zero. It is a scalar quantity and its SI unit is kg. The weight of an object is the force with which the earth (or any other planet/ moon/star) attracts it. It is directed towards the centre of the earth. The weight of an object is different at different places on the earth. It is zero at the earth’s centre. It is a vector quantity and its SI unit is the newton (N). The magnitude of weight = mg.

The mass of an object will be the same on the earth and Mars, but the weight will not be the same because the value of g on Mars is different from that on the earth.

(b) what are (i) free fall, (ii) acceleration due to gravity (iii) escape velocity (iv) centripetal force?
Answer:
(i) Free fall:
Whenever an object moves under the influence of the force of gravity alone, it is said to be falling freely.

(ii) Acceleration due to gravity:
The acceleration produced in a body due to the gravitational force of the earth is called the acceleration due to gravity.
[Note: On the earth’s surface, the value of the acceleration due to gravity is almost uniform. If a body falls from a low altitude, the value of the acceleration due to gravity is almost the same.]

(iii) Escape velocity:
When a body is thrown vertically upward from the surface of the earth, the minimum initial velocity of the body for which the body is able to overcome the downward pull by the earth and can escape the earth forever is called the escape velocity.

(iv) Centripetal force:
In uniform circular motion of a body, the force acting on the body is directed towards the centre of the circle. This force is called centripetal force.

(c) Write the three laws given by Kepler. How did they help Newton to arrive at the inverse square law of gravity?
Kepler’s first law :
The orbit of a planet is an ellipse with the Sun at one of the foci.

Figure 1.5 shows the elliptical orbit of a planet revolving around the Sun (S).

Kepler’s second law :
The line joining the planet and the Sun sweeps equal areas in equal intervals of time.
A → B, C → D and E → F are the displacements of the planet in equal intervals of time.
The straight lines AS, CS and ES sweep equal areas in equal intervals of time.
Area ASB = area CSD = area ESF.

Kepler’s third law :
The square of the period of revolution of a planet around the Sun is directly proportional to the cube of the mean distance of the planet from the Sun.
Thus, if r is the average distance of the planet from the Sun and T is its period of revolution, then,
T² ∝ r², i.e., \(\frac{T^{2}}{r^{3}}\) = constant = K

For simplicity, we shall assume the orbit to be a circle.

In Fig. 1.6,
S denotes the position of the Sun, P denotes the position of a planet at a given instant and r denotes the radius of the orbit (= the distance of the planet from the Sun). Here, the speed of the planet is uniform.

If m is the mass of the planet, the centripetal force exerted on the planet by the Sun (= gravitational force),

According to Kepler’s third law,

Thus, F ∝ \(\frac{1}{r^{2}}\) as \(\frac{4 \pi^{2} m}{K}\) is constant in a particular case.

(d) A stone thrown vertically upwards with initial velocity u reaches a height ‘h’ before coming down. Show that the time taken to go up is same as the time taken to come down.
Answer:

We have, v = u + at …..(1)
and s = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at² …..(2)
∴ s = (v – at) t + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at²
= vt – at² + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at²
∴ s = vt – \(\frac{1}{2}\) at² …..(3)
As the stone moves upward from A → B,
s = AB = h, t = t₁,
a = -g (retardation),
u = u and v = 0
∴ From Eq. (3), h = 0 – \(\frac{1}{2}\) (-g)t₁²
∴ h = \(\frac{1}{2}\)gt₁² …..(4)
As the stone moves downward from B → A,
t = t₂, u = 0, s = h and a = g
∴ from Eq. (2), h = \(\frac{1}{2}\) gt² …..(5)
From Eqs. (4) and (5), t₁² = t₂²
∴ t₁ = t₂ (∵ t₁ and t₂ are positive)

(e) If the value of g suddenly becomes twice its value, it will become two times more difficult to pull a heavy object along the floor. Why?
Answer:
To pull an object along the floor, it is necessary to do work against the force of friction between the object and the surface of the floor. This force of friction is proportional to the weight, mg, of the object. If the value of g becomes twice its value, the weight of the object and hence the force of friction will become double. Therefore, it will become two times more difficult to pull a heavy object along the floor.

10th Gravitation Chapter Exercise Question 3.
Explain why the value of g is zero at the centre of the earth.
The value of g changes while going deep inside the earth. It goes on decreasing as we go from the earth’s surface towards the earth’s centre.

We shall treat the earth as a sphere of uniform density. If we consider a particle of mass m at point P at a distance (R – d) from the earth’s centre, where R is the radius of the earth and d is the depth below the earth’s surface, the gravitational force on the particle due to the earth is

F = \(\frac{G m M^{\prime}}{(R-d)^{2}}\), where ‘M’ is the mass of the sphere of radius (R – d).

because the outer spherical shell is not effective (Fig. 1.10). In this case, the acceleration due to gravity is

where M is the mass of the earth. Thus, g decreases as d increases. It is less than that at the earth’s surface (\(\frac{G M}{R^{2}}\)) At the earth’s centre, d = R
∴ g = 0.

[Note : The formulae given in the answer are not given in the textbook. The formula density = \(\frac{\text { mass }}{\text { volume }}\) is used to find M’.]

Std 10 Science Chapter 1 Gravitation Question Answer Question 4.
Let the period of revolution of a planet at a distance R from a star be T. Prove that if it was at a distance of 2R from the star, its period of revolution will be \(\sqrt{8} T\).
Answer:
T= \(\frac{2 \pi}{\sqrt{G M}} \quad r^{3 / 2}\), where T = period of revolution of a planet around the Sun, M = mass of the Sun, G = gravitational constant and r = radius of the orbit assumed to be circular = distance of the planet from the Sun.
For r = R, T =T₁.

Class 10 Science 1 Chapter 1 Gravitation Question 5.
Solve the following examples.
(a) An object takes 5 s to reach the ground from a height of 5 m on a planet. What is the value of g on the planet?
Solution:
Data: u = 0 m/s, s = 5m, t = 5s, g = ?

(b) The radius of planet A is half the radius of planet B. If the mass of A is M_A, what must be the mass of B so that the value of g on B is half that of its value on A? (Practice Activity Sheet – 4)
Solution:
Data : R_A = R_B/2, gB = \(\frac{1}{2}\) g_A, M_B = ?

(c) The mass and weight of an object on the earth are 5 kg and 49 N respectively. What will be their values on the moon? Assume that the acceleration due to gravity on the moon is l/6th of that on the earth.
Solution:
Data: m = 5 kg, W = 49 N,
gM = \(\frac{g_{E}}{6}\),m (on the moon) = ?, W(on the moon) = ?
(i) The mass of the object on the moon = the mass of the object on the earth = 5 kg
(ii) W = mg

(weight of the object on the moon).

(d) An object thrown vertically upwards reaches a height of 500 m. what was its initial velocity? How long will the object take to come back to the earth? Assume g = 10 m/s²
Solution:
100 mn/s and 20 s

(e) A ball falls off a table and reaches the ground in 1 s. Assuming g = 10 m/s², calculate its speed on reaching the ground and the height of the table.
Solution:
Data: t = 1s, g = 10 m/s², u = 0 m/s,
s = ?, v = ?
(i) s = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\)gt²
= \(\frac{1}{2}\)gt² for u = 0 m/s
∴ s = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 10 m/s² × (1s)²
=5 m
∴ The height of the table = 5 m.

(ii) v = u +at = u + gt
= 0 m/s + 10 m/s² × 1 s
= 10m/s
∴ The velocity of the ball on reaching the ground = 10 m/s.

(f) The masses of the earth and moon are 6 × 10²⁴ kg and 7.4 × 10²² kg, respectively. The distance between them is 3.84 × 10⁵ km. Calculate the gravitational force of attraction between the two. Use G = 6.7 × 10^-11 N.m² kg^-2.
Solution:
Data : m₁ = 6 × 10²⁴ kg,
m₂ = 7.4 × 10²² kg,
r = 3.84 × 10⁵ km = 3.84 × 10⁸ m,
G = 6.7 × 10^-11 N.m² kg^-2, F = ?

This is (the magnitude of) the gravitational force between the earth and the moon.

(g) The mass of the earth is 6 × 10²⁴ kg. The distance between the earth and the Sun is 1.5 × 10¹¹ m. If the gravitational force between the two is 3.5 × 10²² N, what is the mass of the Sun? (Use G = 6.7 × 10^-11 N.m² kg^-2)
Solution:
Data : m₁ = 6 × 10²⁴ kg,
r = 1.5 × 10¹¹ m, F = 3.5 × 10²² N,
G = 6.7 × 10^-11 N.m²kg^-2, m₂ = ?

= 1.96 × 10³⁰ kg (mass of the sun)

Gravitation Class 10 Exercise Answers Project:
Take weights of five of your friends. Find out what their weights will be on the moon and the Mars.
Answer:
Help: The weight of a body
(i) On the earth. W₁ = mg₁
(ii) on the moon, W₂ = mg₂
(iii) on Mars, W₃ = mg₃
∴ W₂ = W₁ × \(\frac{g_{2}}{g_{1}}\) and W₃ = W₁ × \(\frac{g_{3}}{g_{1}}\)
Now, g₁ = 9.81 m/s², g₂ = 1.67 m/s² and g₃ = 3.72 m/s²
If W₁= 500 N,
W₂ = 500 × \(\frac{1.67}{9.81}\)N = 85.12N(approx.)
and W₃ = 500 × \(\frac{3.72}{9.81}\)N = 189.6 N (approx.)

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 1)

10th Class Science Part 1 Chapter 1 Gravitation Exercise Question 1.
What are the effects of a force acting on an object? (Note: a body ≡ an object)
Answer:

A force can set a body in motion. For example, if a ball at rest on the floor is pushed, it rolls on the floor.
A force can stop a moving body. For example, a moving bicycle can be brought to rest by application of brakes.
A force acting on a body can change the speed of the body. For example, when brakes are applied to a moving bicycle, its speed decreases due to the friction between the brake shoes and the rim of the tire.
A force can change the direction of motion of the body. For example, in a uniform circular motion of a body, the direction of motion of the body keeps on changing due to the applied force.
A force can change the speed as well as the direction of motion of the body. For example, when a ball bowled by a bowler is hit by a batsman, there occurs a*change in the speed as well as the direction of motion of the ball.
A force can change the shape and size of the body on which it acts. For example, when a rubber ball is pressed, it gets deformed and hence no longer remains spherical. Also, there can be a decrease in its volume.

1 Gravitation Exercise Question 2.
What types of forces are you familiar with?
Answer:
The gravitational force between the earth and the moon, the electromagnetic force between two charged particles in motion, the nuclear force between a proton and a neutron in the nucleus of an atom.

Gravitation 10th Class Exercise Question 3.
What do you know about the gravitational force?
Answer:
The gravitational force is a universal force, i.e., it acts between any two objects in the universe.

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 1)

Science Part 1 Gravitation Exercise Question 1.
What are Newton’s laws of motion?
Answer:
(1) Newton’s first law of motion: An object continues to remain at rest or in a state of uniform motion along a straight line unless an external unbalanced force acts on it.

(2) Newton’s second law of motion: The rate of change of momentum is proportional to the applied force and the change of momentum occurs in the direction of the force.

(3) Newton’s third law of motion: Every action force has an equal and opposite reaction force that acts simultaneously.
[Note: Equal in magnitude and opposite in direction.]

Use your brainpower! (Text Book Page No. 4)

10th Science Part 1 Gravitation Exercise Question 1.
If area ESF in figure 1.5 is equal to area ASB, what will you infer about EF?
Answer:
The time taken by the planet to move from E to F equals the time taken by the planet to move from A to B.

Use your brainpower (Text Book Page No. 7)

Gravitation Exercise 10th Class Question 1.
According to Newton’s law of gravitation, every object attracts every other object.
Thus, if the earth attracts an apple towards itself, the apple also attracts the earth towards itself with the same force. Why then does the apple fall towards the earth, but the earth does not move towards the apple?
Answer:
The earth and the apple move towards each other, but the magnitude of the displacement of the earth is negligible relative to that of the apple. Also the observer is located on the earth.
[Note: The mass of the earth is far greater than that of an apple. Hence, the magnitude of the acceleration of the earth is negligible relative to that of the apple.]

Gravitation Class 10 Question And Answer Question 2.
The gravitational force due to the earth also acts on the moon because of which it revolves around the earth. Similar situation exists for the artificial satellites orbiting the earth. The moon and the artificial satellites orbit the earth. The earth attracts them towards itself but unlike the falling apple, they do not fall on the earth, why?
Answer:
This is because of the velocity of the moon and the satellites along their orbits. If this velocity was not there, they would have fallen on the earth.

Think about it (Text Book Page No. 8)

Std 10 Science Chapter 1 Gravitation Exercise Question 1.
What would happen if there were no gravity?
Answer:
There would be no gravitational attraction between any two particles and hence no formation of the solar system, galaxy, etc.

Science 1 Gravitation Question 2.
What would happen if the value of G was twice as large?
Answer:
The gravitational force between any two particles would become double, also the value of g would become double.

Can you tell? (Text Book Page No. 8)

Gravitation Class 10 Exercise Question 1.
What would be the value of g on the surface of the earth if its mass was twice as large and its radius half of what it is now? (March 2019)
Answer:

∴ g₂ = 8g₁
Thus, the value of g on the surface of the earth would be eight times the present value.

Think about it (Text Book Page No. 9)

Std 10 Science Chapter 1 Gravitation Answers Question 1.
Will the direction of the gravitational force change as we go inside the earth?
Answer:
No.

Gravitation Class 11 Exercise Solutions State Board Question 2.
What will be the value of g at the centre of the earth?
Answer:
Zero.

Use your brain power! (Text Book Page No. 10)

10th Ssc Science Chapter 1 Gravitation Question 1.
Will your weight remain constant as you go above the surface of the earth?
Answer:
No. As we go above the surface of the earth, our weight will go on decreasing.

Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Gravitation Question 2.
Suppose you are standing on a tall ladder. If your distance from the centre of the earth is 2R, what will be your weight?
Answer:

= \(\frac{1}{4}\left(\frac{G M m}{R^{2}}\right)\)

Use your brain power! (Text Book Page No. 12)

Gravitation Class 11 Maharashtra Board Question 1.
According to Newton’s law of gravitation, the earth’s gravitational force is higher on an object of larger mass. Why doesn’t that object fall down with higher velocity as compared to an object with lower mass?
Answer:
F = ma and F = \(\frac{G M m}{r^{2}}\)
∴ Acceleration, a = \(\frac{G M}{r^{2}}\). This is independent of the mass (m) of the object. Hence, an object of larger mass and an object of lower mass fall down with the same velocity.

Use your brain power! (Text Book Page No. 6)

Question 1.
Assuming the acceleration in Example 2 above remains constant, how long will Mahendra take to move 1 cm towards Virat?
Answer:
Here, u = 0

= 1935 s = 32 minutes 15 seconds.

Fill in the blanks with appropriate words and write the completed sentences :

Question 1.
The ratio g(earth)/g(moon) is equal to……..
Answer:
The ratio g(earth)/g(moon) is equal to 6 (approximately)

Question 2.
The value of the acceleration due to gravity……..as we move from the equator to a pole.
Answer:
The value of the acceleration due to gravity increases as we move from the equator to a pole.

Question 3.
If the earth shrinks to half of its radius, its mass remaining the same, the weight of an object on the earth will become……..times.
Answer:
If the earth shrinks to half of its radius, its mass remaining the same, the weight of an object on the earth will become four times.

Question 4.
The SI unit of weight is the……..
Answer:
The SI unit of weight is the newton.

Question 5.
The CGS unit of weight is the……..
Answer:
The CGS unit of weight is the dyne

Question 6.
The weight of a body is ……..at the poles.
Answer:
The weight of a body is maximum at the poles.

Question 7.
Outside the earth, the weight of a body varies as……..
Answer:
Outside the earth, the weight of a body varies as 1/(R + h)²

Question 8.
Due to the …….. force, the earth attracts all objects towards it.
Answer:
Due to the gravitational force, the earth attracts all objects towards it. Gravitational

Question 9.
The acceleration due to gravity does not depend on the …….. of the body.
Answer:
The acceleration due to gravity does not depend on the mass of the body. Mass

Question 10.
According to Kepler’s first law, the orbit of a planet is …….. with the Sun at one of the……..
Answer:
According to Kepler’s first law, the orbit of a planet is an ellipse with the Sun at one of the foci

Question 11.
According to Kepler’s second law, the line joining the planet and the Sun …….. in equal intervals of time.
Answer:
According to Kepler’s second law, the line joining the planet and the Sun Sweeps equal areas in equal intervals of time.

Question 12.
According to Kepler’s third law T² ∝ rⁿ, where n = ……..
Answer:
According to Kepler’s third law T² ∝ rⁿ, where n = 3

Question 13.
For a freely falling object, we can write Newton’s second equation of motion as ……..
Answer:
For a freely falling object, we can write Newton’s second equation of motion as S = \(\frac{1}{2}\)gt²

Question 1.
(A) Write the proper answer in the square. (Practice Activity Sheet – 1)

If this F = x
Then F =
Answer:
F = \(\frac{x}{4}\)

(B) Write the proper answer in the square. (March 2019)

If F = \(\frac{G m_{1} m_{2}}{d^{2}}\),
then F =
Answer:
F = \(\frac{G m_{1} m_{2}}{9 d^{2}}\)

Choose the correct alternative and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
The gravitational force between two particles separated by a distance r varies as ……..
(a) \(\frac{1}{r}\)
(b) r
(c) r²
(d) \(\frac{1}{r^{2}}\)
Answer:
(d) \(\frac{1}{r^{2}}\)

Question 2.
In the usual notation, the acceleration due to gravity at a height h from the surface of the earth is ……..

Answer:
(c) g = \(\frac{G M}{(R+h)^{2}}\)

Question 3.
The SI unit of the universal constant of gravitation is ……..
(a) N.m²/kg²
(b) N.kg²/m²
(c) m/s²
(d) kg.m/s²
Answer:
(a) N.m²/kg²

Question 4.
The escape velocity of a body from the earth’s surface, v_sec = …….

Answer:
(c) \(\sqrt{\frac{2 G M}{R}}\)

Question 5.
How much will a person with 72 N weight on the earth, weigh on the moon? (Practice Activity Sheet-1)
(a) 12 N
(b) 36 N
(c) 21 N
(d) 63 N
Answer:
(a) 12 N

Question 6.
What will be the weight of a person on the earth, who weighs 9N on the moon? (Practice Activity Sheet – 2)
(a) 3 N
(b) 15 N
(c) 45 N
(d) 54 N
Answer:
(d) 54 N

State whether the following statements are True or False : (If a statement is false, correct it and rewrite it.)

Question 1.
If the separation between two particles is doubled, the gravitational force between the particles becomes half the initial force.
Answer:
False. (If the separation between two particles is doubled, the gravitational force between the particles becomes \(\frac{1}{4}\) times the initial force.)

Question 2.
The CGS unit of the universal constant or gravitation is the dyne cm²/gram²?
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
At the centre of the earth, the value of the acceleration due to gravity becomes zero.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
The weight of a body is minimum at the poles.
Answer:
False. (The weight of a body is maximum at the poles.)

Question 5.
Mass is a vector quantity.
Answer:
False. (Mass is a scalar quantity.)

Question 6.
weight is a vector quantity.
Answer:
True.

Question 7.
g has maximum value at the equator.
Answer:
False. (g has maximum value at the poles.)

Question 8.
Outside the earth, g varies as 1/(R + h)².
Answer:
True.

Question 9.
The value of G changes from place to place.
Answer:
False. (The value of G is the same throughout the universe.)

Question 10.
The value of g increases with altitude.
Answer:
False. (The value of g decreases with altitude.)

Question 11.
The escape velocity of a body does not depend on the mass of the body.
Answer:
True

Question 12.
The mass of a body is the amount of matter present in it.
Answer:
True

Match the following :

Answer:
(1) Escape velocity : \(\sqrt{\frac{2 G M}{R}}\)
(2) Gravitational acceleration : \(\frac{G M}{r^{2}}\) (r ≥ R)
(3) Gravitational potential energy : \(\frac{-G M m}{R+h}\)
(4) Gravitational force : \(\frac{G m_{1} m_{2}}{r^{2}}\)

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question 1.
State the SI and CGS units of G.
Answer:
The SI unit of G is N.m²/kg² and CGS unit is the dyne.cm²/g².

Question 2.
State any one characteristic of gravitational force.
Answer:
Gravitational force between two particles does not depend on the nature of the medium between them.

Question 3.
Name the force that keeps a satellite in the orbit around the earth.
Answer:
The gravitational force due to the earth keeps a satellite in the orbit around the earth.

Question 4.
Name the force due to which the earth revolves around the Sun.
Answer:
The earth revolves around the Sun due to the gravitational force of attraction exerted on it by the Sun.

Question 5.
What is the acceleration due to gravity at a height h ( = radius of the earth) from the surface of the earth? (g = 9.8 m/s²)
Answer:
The acceleration due to gravity at a height h ( = radius of the earth) from the surface of the earth is 2.45 m/s².

Question 6.
What is the relation between the SI unit of weight and the CGS unit of weight?
Answer:
The relation between the SI unit of weight (the newton) and the CGS unit of weight (the dyne) is 1 newton = 10⁵ dynes.

Question 7.
Write the formula for the centripetal force acting on a body performing circular motion.
Answer:
F = \(\frac{m v^{2}}{r}\)

Question 8.
Write the formula for the escape velocity of a body from the earth’s surface.
Answer:

Question 9.
What is the value of the acceleration due to gravity at the centre of the earth?
Answer:
Zero.

Question 10.
What are the factors on which the maximum height attained by a body thrown upwards depends?
Answer:
The initial velocity of the body, the acceleration due to gravity at that place, the buoyant force and frictional force due to air.

Some of the important terms in chapter Gravitation are given in the following box. Find them :

Answer:
(1) centripetal force
(2) escape velocity
(3) periodic time
(4) gravitational constant.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What is centripetal force?
(OR)
Define centripetal force.
Answer:
In uniform circular motion of a body, the force acting on the body is directed towards the centre of the circle. This force is called centripetal force.

Question 2.
Give one example of centripetal force.
Answer:
The moon revolves around the earth due to the gravitational force exerted on it by the earth. This force is directed towards the centre of the earth and is thus a centripetal force.

Question 3.
Name the source responsible for the motion of a planet around the Sun.
Answer:
A planet revolves around the Sun due to the gravitational force exerted on it by the Sun.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
In the following figure, an orbit of a planet around the Sun (S) has been shown. AB and CD are the distances covered by the planet in equal time. Lines AS ad CS sweep equal areas in equal intervals of time. Hence, areas ASB and CSD are equal. (Practice Activity Sheet-1)
(a) Which laws do we understand from the above description?
(b) Write the law regarding the area swept.
(c) Write the law T² ∝ r³ in your words.

Answer:
(a) From the given description we understand Kepler’s three laws.
(b) Kepler’s law of areas: The line joining the planet and the Sun sweeps equal areas in equal intervals of time.
(c) Kepler’s law of periods: The square of the period of revolution of a planet around the Sun is directly proportional to the cube of the mean distance of the planet from the Sun.

Question 2.
Identify the law shown in Fig. 1.7 and state the three respective laws. (Practice Activity Sheet – 3)

Answer:
(a) From the given description we understand Kepler’s three laws.
(b) Kepler’s law of areas: The line joining the planet and the Sun sweeps equal areas in equal intervals of time.
(c) Kepler’s law of periods: The square of the period of revolution or a planet around the Sun is directly proportional to the cube of the mean distance of the planet from the Sun.

Question 3.
Explain the term gravitational force. What is gravitation?
Answer:
There exists a force of attraction between any two particles of matter in the universe such that the force depends only on the masses of the particles and the separation between them. It is called the gravitational force and the mutual attraction is called gravitation.

Question 4.
State Newton’s universal law of gravitation. Express it in mathematical form.
Answer:
Newton’s universal law of gravitation :
Every object in the Universe attracts every other object with a definite force. This force is directly proportional to the product of the masses of the two objects and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.

Mathematical form: Consider two objects of masses m₁ and m₂. We assume that the objects are very small spheres of uniform density and the distance r between their centers is very large compared to the radii of the spheres (Fig. 1.8).

The magnitude (F) of the gravitational force of attraction between the objects is directly proportional to m₁m₂ and inversely proportional to r²
∴ F ∝ \(\frac{m_{1} m_{2}}{r^{2}}\)
∴ F = \(G\frac{m_{1} m_{2}}{r^{2}}\)
where G is the constant of proportionality, called the universal gravitational constant.
[Note: In the textbook, the word object/body is used.
Newton’s law of gravitation applies to particles.]

Question 5.
(i) Why is the constant of gravitation called a universal constant?
(ii) Newton’s law of gravitation is called the universal law of gravitation. Why?
Answer:
(i) The value of the constant of gravitation does not change with the nature, mass or the size of the material particles. It does not vary with the distance between the two particles. It is also independent of the nature of the medium between the two particles. Hence, it is called a universal constant.

(ii) As the law of gravitation given by Newton is applicable throughout the universe and to all particles, it is called universal law.

[ Note: The centre of mass of an object is the point inside or outside the object at which the total mass of the object can be assumed to be concentrated to study the effect of an applied force. The centre of mass of a spherical object having uniform density is at its geometrical centre. The centre of mass of an object having uniform density is at its centroid. If the two bodies are spherical and of uniform density, the gravitational force between them is always along the line joining the centres of the two bodies and the distance between the centres is taken to be r. When the bodies are not spherical or have irregular shape or have nonuniform density, the force is along the line joining their centres of mass and r is taken to be the distance between the two centres of mass.]

Question 6.
If the distance between two bodies is increased by a factor of 5, (i) by what factor will the gravitational force change if the masses are kept constant? (ii) by what factor will the mass of one of them have to be altered, keeping the other mass the same, to maintain the same gravitational force between the two bodies?
Answer:
If the distance between two bodies is increased by a factor of 5,
(i) the gravitational force between the bodies will decrease by a factor of 25 if the masses of the bodies are kept constant.
(ii) the mass of one of them will have to be increased by a factor of 25, keeping the mass of the other body the same, to maintain the same gravitational force between the two bodies.
[Note : Gravitational force F ∝ \(\frac{1}{r^{2}}\) and F ∝ m₁m₂.]

Question 7.
(i) Determine the SI unit of the universal constant of gravitation from the formula for the gravitational force between two particles. Hence, state the CGS unit of the constant of gravitation. (ii) Define G (universal gravitational constant).
Ans. (i) According to Newton’s law of gravitation, the gravitational force between two particles is
F = \(G\frac{m_{1} m_{2}}{r^{2}}\)
where m₁ and m₂ are the masses of the two particles, r is the distance between them and G is the universal constant of gravitation.
∴ G = \(\frac{F r^{2}}{m_{1} m_{2}}\)

The SI unit of force is the newton (N), that of distance is the metre (m) and that of mass is the kilogram (kg).
The SI unit of G is \(\frac{\mathrm{N} \cdot \mathrm{m}^{2}}{\mathrm{kg}^{2}}\).
The CGS unit of G is \(\frac{\text { dyne } \cdot \mathrm{cm}^{2}}{\mathrm{g}^{2}}\).

(ii) F = \(G\frac{m_{1} m_{2}}{r^{2}}\).
∴ G = \(\frac{F r^{2}}{m_{1} m_{2}}\)
If we take m₁ = m₂ = unit mass and r = unit distance, numerically, G = F, i.e., G (universal gravitational constant) represents the magnitude of the gravitational force of attraction between two unit masses, separated by a unit distance.

Question 8.
State the importance of Newton’s universal law of gravitation.
Answer:
The importance of Newton’s universal law of gravitation :
This law explains successfully, i.e., with great accuracy,

The force that binds the objects on the earth to the earth
The motion of the moon and artificial satellites around the earth
The motion of the planets, asteroids, comets, etc., around the Sun
The tides of the sea due to the moon and the Sun.

Question 9.
Compare the gravitational force on a body of mass 1 kg due to the earth with the force on the same body due to another body of mass 1 kg at a distance of 1 m from the first body. (Mass of the earth = 6 × 10²⁴ kg, radius of the earth = 6400 km)
Answer:
In the first case, m₁ = 1kg,
m2 = 6 × 10²⁴ kg and r = 6400 km = 6.4 × 10⁶ m
The gravitational force on the body.

= \(\frac{G \times 6 \times 10^{24} \mathrm{kg}^{2}}{(6.4)^{2} \times 10^{12} \mathrm{m}^{2}}\)
In second case, m₁ = 1 kg
m₂ = 1 kg and r = 1m
Gravitational force on the body,

Question 10.
Explain the term the earth’s gravitational force.
(OR)
Write a short note on the earth’s gravitational force.
Answer:
The earth attracts every object towards it because of the gravitational force. As the earth’s centre of mass is at its centre, the gravitational force exerted by the earth on an object is directed towards the earth’s centre. Hence, an object released from a point above the earth’s surface falls vertically downward towards the earth.

If an object is thrown vertically upward, its velocity goes on decreasing due to the earth’s gravitational force on the object. At one stage, the velocity of the body becomes zero and later the body falls back to the earth.

Question 11.
Take two balls of different masses, go to the top of a building, drop them simultaneously and observe what happens to the balls.
Answer:
The balls reach the ground almost at the same time.

Question 12.
Take two similar pages from your notebook. Crumple one paper and allow this and the other paper to fall on the ground simultaneously. What do you observe?
Answer:
The crumpled paper reaches the ground before the other one.

Question 13.
Take a feather and a paper. Allow them to fall to the ground simultaneously. Which will reach the ground earlier? Why?
Answer:
There is no unique answer. It depends on the feather and paper. Upthrust due to air and force due to friction with air play very important roles here. The acceleration of a body depends on the resultant of the earth’s gravitational force on the body and the upthrust and the force of friction due to air.

Question 14.
From Newton’s law of gravitation, derive the formula for the acceleration due to gravity.
Answer:
Suppose that a body of mass m is released from a distance r from the centre (O) of the earth (Fig. 1.9). Let M be the mass of the earth. According to Newton’s law of gravitation, the magnitude of the earth’s gravitational force acting on the body Is
F = G\(\frac{M m}{r^{2}}\)
where G is the universal constant of gravitation.

The acceleration produced by this force, force F

This is the formula for the acceleration due to gravity or the gravitational acceleration due to the earth. This acceleration is directed towards the earth’s centre.

If h denotes the altitude, r = R + h, where R is the radius of the earth.
∴ g = \(\frac{G M}{(R+h)^{2}}\)
For a body on the earth’s surface, h = 0 ∴ g = \(\frac{G M}{R^{2}}\)
[Note: When we consider the gravitational interaction between the earth and a body on the surface of the earth or at some height above the surface of the earth, for many practical purposes we can assume that the earth behaves as if its mass were concentrated at the earth’s centre. The proof is not expected here.]

Question 15.
Explain the factors affecting the value of g.
Answer:
The value of the acceleration due to gravity, g, changes from place to place on the earth. It also varies with the altitude and depth below the earth’s surface. The factors affecting the’ value of g are the shape of the earth, altitude and depth below the earth’s surface.

(1) The earth is not perfectly spherical. It is somewhat flat at the poles and bulging at the equator. At the surface of the earth, the value of g is maximum (9.832 m/s²) at the poles as the polar radius is minimum, while it is minimum (9.78 m/s²) at the equator as the equatorial radius is maximum.

(2) As the height (h) above the earth’s surface increases, the value of g decreases. It varies as \(\frac{1}{(R+h)^{2}}\), where R is radius of the earth.

(3) In the interior of the earth, on average, the value of g is less than that at the earth’s surface. As the depth below the earth’s surface increases, the value of g decreases and finally it becomes zero at the centre of the earth.

Question 16.
If g = GM/r², then where will the value^ of g be high, at Goa Beach or on the top of the Mount Everest? (Practice Activity Sheet – 3)
Answer:
The value of g will be high at Goa Beach.

Question 17.
Why does an object released from the hand, fall on the earth?
Answer:
When an object is held in the hand, the gravitational force acting on the object due to the earth is balanced by the person holding the object. When the object is released from the hand, it falls on the earth due to the earth’s gravitational force.

Question 18.
Does the value of g depend on the mass of the falling body? Why?
Answer:
The value of g does not depend on the mass of the falling body.
The reason is the gravitational force on a body due to the earth is directly proportional to the mass of the body and for a given force, the acceleration of a body is inversely proportional to the mass of the body.

Question 19.
Define mass. State its SI and CGS units.
Answer:
The mass of a body is the amount of matter present in it. Its SI unit is the kilogram (kg) and CGS unit is the gram (g).
[Note: Mass has only magnitude, not direction. Thus, it is a scalar quantity.]

Question 20.
Define weight. State its SI and CGS units.
Answer:
The weight of a body is defined as the force with which the earth attracts it. Its SI unit is the newton and CGS unit is the dyne.

[Note : In the usual notation, the magnitude of the weight of a body on the earth s surface is W = \(\frac{G m M}{R^{2}}\) = \(m\frac{G M}{R^{2}}\) = mg. Thus, W ∝ g. Hence, weight varies just like the acceleration due to gravity. It is maximum at the poles and minimum at the equator. It decreases with altitude (ft) and depth (d) below the earth’s surface. It becomes zero at the earth’s centre. At a height above the earth’s surface, W = \(\frac{G m M}{(R+h)^{2}}\) at a depth d below the earth’s surface, W = \(\frac{G m M(R-d)}{R^{3}}\). Weight has magnitude and direction (towards the earth’s centre). It is a vector quantity.]

Question 21.
As per the request of one of his friends from the equator, Rahul buys 100 grams of silver at the north pole. He hands it over to his friend at the equator. Will the friend agree with the weight of the silver bought? If not, why?
Answer:
The weight of a body is given by W = mg, where m is the mass of the body and g is the acceleration due to gravity, g varies from place to place. The value of g at the equator is less than that at the north pole (as well as the south pole). Hence, the weight of the silver bought at the north pole would be less when the silver is weighed at the equator. Therefore, Rahul’s friend will disagree about the weight of the silver.
[Note: The mass being independent of the value of g, Rahul’s friends will agree about the mass of the silver.]

Question 22.
What is the difference between mass and weight of an object? Will the mass and weight of an object on the earth be the same as their values on Mars? Why?
Answer:
The mass of an object is the amount of matter present in it. It is same everywhere in the Universe and is never zero. It is a scalar quantity and its SI unit is kg. The weight of an object is the force with which the earth (or any other planet/ moon/star) attracts it. It is directed towards the centre of the earth. The weight of an object is different at different places on the earth. It is zero at the earth’s centre. It is a vector quantity and its SI unit is the newton (N). The magnitude of weight = mg.

The mass of an object will be the same on the earth and Mars, but the weight will not be the same because the value of g on Mars is different from that on the earth.

Question 23.
Explain the term free fall and state the corresponding kinematical equations of motion in the usual notation.
Answer:
When a body falls in air, there are three forces acting on the body : (1) the gravitational force due to the earth, acting downward (2) the force of buoyancy (upthrust) due to air, acting upward I (3) the force due to friction with air (called air resistance), acting upward (being always in the direction opposite to that of the velocity of the body).

Under certain conditions, the force of buoyancy due to air and friction with air can be ignored compared to the gravitational force of the earth. In that case (near the earth’s surface) the body falls with almost uniform acceleration (g). Whenever a body moves under the influence of the force of gravity alone, it is said to be falling freely. Strictly speaking, this is true only if the body falls in vacuum.

The kinematical equations of motion, in the usual i notation, are
v = u + gt, s = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) gt² and v² = u² + 2gs.
If the initial velocity (u) of the body is zero,
v = gt, s = \(\frac{1}{2}\)gt² and v² = 2 gs.

Question 24.
During a free fall, will a heavier object accelerate more than a lighter one?
Answer:
No. The two objects will have the same acceleration.

Question 25.
If you had to calculate the mass of the earth, how would you do it?
Answer:
If the acceleration due to gravity (g), the constant of gravitation (G) and the radius of the earth (R) are known, the mass of the earth (M) can be calculated using the formula g = \(\frac{G M}{R^{2}}\)

Question 26.
What is gravitational potential energy?
(OR)
Define gravitational potential energy.
Write the formula for it.
Answer:
The energy stored in a body due to the gravitational force between the body and the earth is called the gravitational potential energy.

Gravitational potential energy of a body of mass m = \(-\frac{G M m}{R+h}\), where G = gravitational constant, M = mass of the earth, R = radius of the earth, h = height of the body from the surface of the earth.

[Note : As the body is bound to the earth due to the earth’s gravitational froce, the gravitational potential energy of the body is negative. If the body is given kinetic energy equal to \(\frac{G M m}{R+h}\) the body will overcome the earth’s gravitational force. It will then move to infinity and come to rest there.]

Question 27.
What is escape Velocity?
(OR)
Define escape velocity.
Answer:
When a body is thrown vertically upward from the surface of the earth, the minimum initial velocity of the body for which the body is able to overcome the downward pull by the earth and can escape the earth forever is called the escape velocity.

Question 28.
Explain the term escape velocity.
(OR)
Write a short note on escape velocity.
Answer:
In general, when a body is thrown vertically upward from the earth’s surface, its velocity goes on decreasing and after some time the body falls back to the ground. If its initial velocity is increased, the maximum height attained by it is more, but it does fall back to the ground. If the initial velocity is increased continuously, for a particular initial velocity, the body can overcome the earth’s gravitational force and move to infinity and come to rest there. This velocity is called the escape velocity.

Question 29.
Using the law of conservation of energy, obtain the expression for the escape velocity.
Answer:
Here, we shall not consider the effects of air. Suppose a body of mass m is thrown vertically upward from the surface of the earth. Let the initial velocity of the body be the escape velocity (v_sec).

When the body is on the earth’s surface, its total energy Ex = kinetic energy + potential energy = \(\frac{1}{2} m v^{2} \text { esc }\) + \(\left(-\frac{G m M}{R}\right)\) where G = universal gravitational constant, M = mass of the earth and R = radius of the earth.
Thus, E₁ = \(\frac{1}{2} m v_{\mathrm{esc}}^{2}-\frac{G m M}{R}\)
When the body moves to infinity and comes to rest there, its total energy,

According to the law of conservation of energy,
E₁ = E₂.

This is the required expression.

Question 30.
Express escape velocity in terms of g and R.
Answer:
Escape velocity, vesc = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 G M}{R}}\)
Now, g = \(\frac{G M}{R^{2}}\)
∴ GM = gR²

Question 31.
Express escape velocity in terms of G, R and ρ (the earth’s density)
Answer:

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
If a feather and a stone are released from the top of a building simultaneously, the stone reaches the ground earlier than the feather.
Answer:
(a) The motion of a body falling in air accelerated due to the earth’s gravitational force on the body. The force due to buoyancy of air acts on the body in the upward direction. As the body falls, the friction with air opposes its motion.

(b) This opposition due to air depends on the size, shape, density and velocity of the body. It Is greater for a feather than for a stone. Hence, the stone has greater downward acceleration than the feather. Therefore, the stone reaches the ground earlier than the feather though ‘they are released simultaneously from the same height.

Question 2.
The weight of a body is different on different planets.
Answer:
(1) The weight of a body of mass m on the surface of a planet of mass M and radius R is
W = \(\frac{G m M}{R^{2}}\) usuai notation).

(2) For a given body, its mass is constant. G is the universal constant of gravitation. Different planets have different masses and radii such that the ratio (M/R²) is not the same. Hence, the weight of a body is different on different planets.

Question 3.
With a specific initial velocity, we can jump higher on the moon than on the earth.
Answer:
The acceleration due to gravity on the moon is about \(\frac{1}{6}\) of that on the earth. Hence, with a specific initial velocity, we can jump higher on the moon than on the earth. This can be seen from the equation h = u²/2g.

Distinguish between the following:

Question 1.
mass and weight (2) universal gravitational constant and gravitational acceleration of the earth.
Answer:
(1) Mass:

The mass of a body is the amount of matter present in it.
It has magnitude, but not direction.
It does not change from place to place.
It can never be zero.
Its SI unit is the kilogram.

Weight:

The weight of a body is the force with which the earth attracts it.
It has both magnitude and direction.
It changes from place to place.
It is zero at the centre of the earth.
Its SI unit is the newton.

Question 2.
Universal gravitational constant:

The universal gravitational constant numerically equals the force of attraction masses separated by a unit distance.
Its value remains constant throughout the universe.
It has magnitude but not direction.
Its SI unit is N.m²/kg².

Gravitational acceleration of the earth:

The gravitational between two unit acceleration of the earth is the acceleration produced in a body due to the gravitational force of the earth.
Its value changes from place to place.
It has both magnitude and direction.
Its SI unit is m/s²

Solve the following examples/numerical problems:
(G 6.67 × 10^-11 N.m²/kg², g = 9.8 m/s²)

Question 1.
The time taken by the earth to complete one revolution around the Sun is 3.156 × 10⁷ s. The distance between the earth and the Sun is 1.5 × 10¹¹ m. Find the speed of revolution of the earth.
Solution:
Data : T = 3.156 × 107 s,
r = 1.5 × 10¹¹ m, v =?

= 2.987 × 10⁴ m/s = 29.87 km/s
This is the speed of revolution of the earth.

Question 2.
Assuming that the earth performs uniform circular motion around the Sun, flnd the centripetal acceleration of the earth. [Speed of the earth =3 × 10⁴ m/s, distance between the earth and the Sun = 1.5 × 10¹¹ m]
Solution:
Data: v = 3 × 10⁴ m/s, r=1.5 × 10¹¹ m
Centripetal force = \(\frac{m v^{2}}{r}\) = ma
∴ Centripetal acceleration of the earth,

= 6 × 10^-3 m/s²
It is directed towards the centre of the Sun.

Question 3.
What will be the gravitational force on 60 kg man on the Moon, Mars and Jupiter? Are they the same? Why?
M (Moon) = 7.36 × 10²² kg, R (Moon) = 1.74 × 10⁶m,
M (Mars) = 6.4 × 10²³ kg, R (Mars) = 3.395 × 10⁶ m,
M (Jupiter) = 1.9 × 10²⁷ kg.
R (Jupiter) = 7.15 × 10⁷ m,
G = 6.67 × 10^-11 N.m/kg²
Solution:
(1) Data : m₁ = 60 kg, m₂ = 7.36 × 10²² kg,
R = 1.74 × 10⁶ m, F = ?

= 97.29 N
On the moon’s surface, the gravitational force on the man due to the moon = 97.29 N.

(2) Data : m₁ = 60 kg, m₂ = 6.4 × 10²³ kg,
R = 3.395 × 10⁶m, F = ?

= 222.2 N
On the surface of Mars, the gravitational force on the man due to Mars = 222.2 N.

(3) Data : m₁ = 60 kg, m₂ = 1.9 × 10²⁷ kg,
R = 7.15 × 10⁷ m, F = ?

= 1487 N
On the surface of Jupiter, the gravitational force on the man due to Jupiter = 1487 N.

Thus, the forces on the man are not the same because the ratio (M/R²) is not the same in the case of the moon, Mars, and Jupiter.

Question 4.
Mahendra and Virat are sitting at a distance of 1 meter from each other. Their masses are 75 kg and 80 kg respectively. What is the gravitational force between them? G = 6.67 × 10^-11 N.m²/kg². (Practice Activity Sheet – 3)
Solution:
Given: r = 1 m,
m₁ = 75 kg,
m₂ = 80 kg
G = 6.67 × 10-11 N.m²/kg²

= 4.002 × 10^-7 N
The gravitational force between Mahendra and Virat is 4.002 × 10^-7 N.

Question 5.
Spheres A and B of uniform density have masses 1 kg and 100 kg respectively. Their centres are separated by 100 m. (i) Find the gravitational force between them, (ii) Find the gravitational force on A due to the earth, (iii) Suppose A and B are initially at rest and A can move freely towards B. What will be the velocity of A one second after it starts moving towards B? How will this velocity change with time? How much time will A take to move towards B by 1 cm? (iv) if A begins to fall, starting from rest, due to the earth’s downward pull, what will be its velocity after one second? How much time will it take to fall through 1cm?
[M_(earth) = 6 × 10²⁴ kg, R_(earth) = 6400 km]
Solution:Data: m₁ = 1 kg, m₂ = 100 kg, r = 100 m,
M =6 × 10²⁴ kg,
R = 64o0 km = 6400 × 10³ m,
t = 1 s, s = 1 cm = 1 × 10^-2 m,
G = 6.67 × 10^-11 N.m2/kg
F₁ =?, F₂ =?, v₁ =?, t₁ =?, v₂ =?, t₁ =?

This is far greater than F₁.
(iii) Ignoring variation of acceleration with distance,

This velocity is directed from A to B. As the separation between A and B decreases, the acceleration of A and hence the velocity of A will increase.

Ignoring variation of acceleration with distance,

Question 6.
Two spheres of uniform density have masses 10 kg and 40 kg. The distance between the centres of the spheres is 200 m. Find the gravitational force between them.
Solution:
Data: m₁ = 10 kg, m₂ = 40 kg,
r = 200 m, G = 6.67 × 10^-11 N.m²/kg², F = ?

The gravitational force between the two spheres = 6.67 × 10^-13 N.

Question 7.
Find the gravitational force between a man of mass 50 kg and a car of mass 1500 kg separated by 10 m.
Solution: Data : m₁ = 50 kg, m₂ = 1500 kg,
r = 10 m, G = 6.67 × 10^-11 N.m²/kg², F = ?

= 5.0025 × 10^-8 N
The gravitational force between the man and the car = 5.0025 × 10^-8 N.

Question 8.
Find the magnitude of the gravitational force between the Sun and the earth. (Mass of the Sun = 2 × 10²⁴ kg, mass of the earth=6 × 10²⁴ kg and the thstance between the centres of the Sun and the earth 1.5 × 10¹¹ m,
G = 6.67 × 10^-11 N.m²/kg²)
Solution:
Data: m₁ = 2 × 10³⁰ kg,
m₂ = 6 × 10²⁴ kg, r = 1.5 × 10¹¹ m,
G = 6.67 × 10^-11 N.m²/kg², F =?

∴ F = 3.557 × 10²² N
The magnitude of the gravitational force between the Sun and the earth = 3.557 × 10²² N.

Question 9.
Find the magnitude of the acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the earth. (M= 6 × 10²⁴ kg, R = 6400 km)
Solution:
Data: M = 6 × 10²⁴ kg,
R = 6400km = 6.4 × 10⁶m,
G = 6.67 × 10^-11 N.m²/kg², g =?
g = \(\frac{G M}{R^{2}}\)

The magnitude of the acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the earth = 9.77 m/s².

Question 10.
The mass of an imaginary planet is 3 times the mass of the earth. Its diameter is 25600 km arid the earth’s diameter is 12800 km. Find the acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the planet, [g (earth) = 9.8 m/s²]
Solution:
Data: \(\frac{M_{2}(\text { planet })}{M_{1}(\text { earth })}\) = 3
D₁ (earth) = 12800 km

g₁ (earth) = 9.5 m/s², g₂ (planet) = ?

The acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the planet = 7.35 m/s².

Question 11.
If the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth is 9.8 m/s², what will be the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of a planet whose mass and radius both are two times the corresponding quantities for the earth?
Solution:
Data: g_e = 9.8 m/s², M_p = 2M_e,
Rp = 2R_e, g_p = ?
Acceleration due to gravity, g = \(\frac{G M}{R^{2}}\)

acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the planet = 4.9 m/s².

Question 12.
A body is released from the top of a building of height 19.6 m. Find the velocity with which the body hits the ground.
Solution:
Data: h = 19.6 m, u = 0 m/s,
g = 9.8 m/s², s = 19.6 m, v = ?
v² = u² + 2 gs .
=2 gs …..(as u = 0 m/s)
= 2 × 9.8 m/s² × 19.6 m
= (19.6 m/s)²
∴ v = 19.6 m/s (downward velocity)
The velocity with which the body hits the i ground = 19.6 m/s (downward).

Question 13.
A stone on a bridge on a river falls into the river. If it takes 3 seconds to reach the surface of water, find (i) the velocity of the stone at the instant it touches the surface of water (ii) the height of the bridge from the surface of water.
Solution:
Data: u = 0 m/s, t = 3 s,
g = 9.8 m/s², v = ?, h = ?
(i) v = u + gt = 0 m/s + 9.8 m/s² × 3 s
= 29.4 m/s
The velocity of the stone at the instant it touches the surface of water = 29.4 m/s

(ii) s = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\)gt²
= 0 m/s × 3 s + \(\frac{1}{2}\) (9.8 m/s²) (3 s)²
= 4.9 × 9 m = 44.1 m
∴ The height of the bridge from the surface of water = 44.1 m.

Question 14.
A stone is dropped from rest from the top of a building 44.1 m high. It takes 3 s to reach the ground. Use this information to 1 calculate g.
Solution:
Data: u = 0 m/s, h = 44.1 m
∴ s = 44.1 m, t = 3 s, g =?

It is the acceleration due to gravity.
g = 9.8 m/s².

Question 15.
A metal ball of mass 5 kg falls from a height of 490 m. How much time will it take to reach the ground? (g = 9.8 m/s²) (March 2019)
Solution:
Data: s = 490 m, a = g = 9.8 m/s²,
u = 0 m/s, s = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\)at²
∴ 490 = 0 × t + \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 9.8 × t² = 4.9t²
∴ t² = \(\frac{490}{4.9}\)
∴ t = 10 s This is the required time.

Question 16.
If the weight of a body on the surface of the moon is 100 N, what is its mass? (g = 1.63 m/s²)
Solution:
Data: W= 100 N, g = 1.63 m/s², m = ?
∴ W = mg

∴ The mass of the body = 61.35 kg.

Question 17.
A 100 kg bag of wheat is placed on a plank of wood. What is the weight of the bag and what is the reaction force exerted by the plank?
Solution:
Data: m = 100 kg, g = 9.8 m/s²,
W = ?, reaction force = ?
Magnitude of the weight,
W = mg = 100 kg × 9.8 m/s² = 980 N
The weight of the bag = 980 N acting downward.
The reaction force exerted by the plank on the bag = 980 N acting upward.

Question 18.
Find the gravitational potential energy of a body of mass 10 kg when it is on the earth’s surface. [M(earth) = 6 × 1024 kg, it(earth) = 6.4 × 10⁶m, G = 6.67 × 10^-11 N. m²/kg²]
Solution:
Data: m = 10 kg, M = 6 × 10²⁴ kg,
R = 6.4 × 10⁶ m, G = 6.67 × 10^-11 N.m²/kg²
The gravitational potential energy of the body

Question 19.
If the body in Ex. (26) performs uniform circular motion around the earth at a height of 3600 km from the earth’s surface, what will be its gravitational potential energy?
Solution:
Here, h = 3600 km = 3.6 × 10⁶ m
∴ The gravitational potential energy of the body

Question 20.
A body of mass 20 kg is at rest on the earth’s surface, (i) Find its gravitational potential energy, (ii) Find the kinetic energy to be provided to the body to make it free from the gravitational influence of the earth. (g = 9.8 m/s², R = 6400 km)
Solution:
Data : m = 20 kg, g = 9.8 m/s²,
R = 6400 km = 6.4 × 10⁶ m
(i) The gravitational potential energy of the body =

= – 20 kg × 9.8 m/s² × 6.4 × 10⁶ m
= – 1.2544 × 10⁹ J.

(ii) To make the body free from the gravitational influence of the earth, it should be provided kinetic energy equal to 1.2544 × 10⁹ J.

Question 21.
If the body in Ex. (28) is moving at 100 m/s on-the earth’s surface, what will be its (i) kinetic energy (ii) total energy?
Solution:
Data : m = 20 kg, u = 100 m/s .
(i) The kinetic energy of the body
= \(\frac{1}{2}\)mv2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 20 kg × (100 m/s)² = 10⁵ J.

(ii) The total energy of the body = kinetic energy + potential energy = 10⁵ J + (- 1.2544 × 10⁹ J)
= (1 – 12544) × 10⁵ J = – 12543 × 10⁵ J
= – 1.2543 × 10⁹ J.

Question 22.
A satellite of mass 100 kg performs uniform circular motion around the earth at a height of 6400 km from the earth’s surface. Find its gravitational potential energy. [g = 9.8 m/s², R = 6400 km]
Solution:
Data: m = 100 kg, g = 9.8 m/s²,
R = 6400 km = 6.4 × 10⁶ m, h = 6.4 × 10⁶ m
The gravitational potential energy of the satellite

Question 23.
Find the escape velocity of a body from the earth. [M(earth) = 6 × 10²⁴ kg, R (earth) = 6.4 × 10⁶ m, G = 6.67 × 10^-11 N.m²/ kg²]
Solution:
Data: M = 6 × 10²⁴ kg, R = 6.4 × 10⁶ m,
G = 6.67 × 10^-11 N.m²/kg²
The escape velocity of a body from the earth,

Question 24.
Find the escape velocity of a body from the earth. [R (earth) = 6.4 × 10⁶ m, ρ(earth) = 5.52 × 10³ kg/m³, G = 6.67 × 10^-11 N.m²/kg²]
Solution:
Data: R = 6.4 × 10⁶ m, ρ = 5.52 × 10³ kg/ m³, G = 6.67 × 10^-11 N.m²/kg²
The escape velocity of a body from the earth

Question 25.
Calculate the escape velocity of a body from the moon. [g(moon) = 1.67 m/s², R(moon) = 1.74 × 10⁶ m]
Solution:
Data: g = 1.67 m/s², R = 1.74 × 10⁶ m
The escape velocity of a body from the moon,

Question 26.
The mass of (an imaginary) planet is four times that of the earth and its radius is double the rathus of the earth. The escape velocity of a body from the earth is 11.2 × 10³ mn/s. Find the escape velocity or a body from the planet.
Solution:
Data: M₂ = 4M₁, R₂ = 2R₁,

This is the escape velocity or a body from the planet.

Numerical Problems For Practice

[G = 6.67 × 1O^-11 N.m²/kg², mass or the earth =6 × 10²⁴ kg, radius or the earthe 6.4 × 10⁶ m]

Question 1.
A satellite of mass 1000 kg revolves around the earth in a circular path. If the distance between the satellite and the centre of the earth is 40000 km, find the gravitational force exerted on the satellite by the earth.
Answer:
250.1 N

Question 2.
The masses of two spheres are 10 kg and 20 kg respectively. If the distance between their centers is 100 m, find the magnitude of the gravitational force between them.
Answer:
1.334 × 10^-12 N)

Question 3.
A satellite revolves around the earth along a circular path. If the mass of the satellite is 1000 kg and its distance from the center of the earth is 20000 km, find the magnitude of the earth’s gravitational force acting on the satellite.
Answer:
1000.5

Question 4.
Find the acceleration due to gravity at a distance of 20000 km from the center of the earth.
Answer:
1.0 m/s²

Question 5.
What is the weight of a body of mass 100 kg at the south pole? (g = 9.832 m/s²)
Answer:
983.2 N (downward)

Question 6.
What is the weight of a body of mass 20 kg at the equator? (g = 9.78 m/s²)
Answer:
195.6 N (downward)

Question 7.
A body is released from the top of a tower of height 50 m. Find the velocity with which the body hits the ground, (g = 9.8 m/s²)
Answer:
31.3 m/s (downward)

Question 8.
A body is thrown vertically upward with a velocity of 9.8 m/s. Calculate the maximum height attained by the body. (g = 9.8 m/s²)
Answer:
4.9 m

Question 9.
A particle of mass 10^-6 kg performs uniform circular motion. Its period is 10 s and the radius of the circle is 2 m. Find (i) the speed of the particle (ii) the centripetal acceleration of the particle (iii) the centripetal force on the particle.
Answer:
(i) 1.257 m/s
(ii) 0.79 m/s²
(iii) 7.9 × 10^-7 N

Question 10.
Find the gravitational potential energy of a body of mass 200 kg on the earth’s surface. [M(earth) = 6 × 10²⁴kg, R(earth) = 6400 km]
Answer:
-1.251 × 10¹⁰J

Question 11.
Find the gravitational potential energy of a body of mass 10 kg when it is at a height of 6400 km from the earth’s surface. [Given: a mass of the earth and radius of the earth. See Ex. 10 above.]
Answer:
-3.127 × 10⁸ J

Question 12.
Find the escape velocity of a body from the moon.
[M(moon) = 7.36 × 10²² kg, R(moon) = 1.74 × 10⁶ m]
Answer:
2.375 km/s

Class 10 Questions And Answers

10th Std Science Part 1 Questions And Answers:

Life Processes in Living Organisms Part – 1 Class 10 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

January 6, 2025January 5, 2025 by Bhagya

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part – 1 Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 10 Science Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part – 1 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Class 10 Science Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part – 1 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks and explain the statements.
a. After complete oxidation of a glucose molecules, ……….. number of ATP molecules are formed.
Answer:
After complete oxidation of a glucose molecules, 38 number of ATP molecules are formed.

b. At the end of glycolysis, ……………… molecules are obtained.
Answer:
At the end of glycolysis, pyruvate molecules are obtained.

c. Genetic recombination occurs in ………… phase of prophuse of meiosis-I.
Answer:
Genetic recombination occurs in pachytene phase of prophase of meiosis-I.

d. All chromosomes are arranged parallel to equatorial plane of cell in …………. phase of mitosis.
Answer:
All chromosomes are arranged parallel to equutorial plane of cell in metaphase phase of mitosis.

e. For formation of plasma membrane, phospholipid molecules are necessary.
Answer:
For formation of plasma membrane, …………… molecules are necessary.

f. Our muscle cells perform ……………… type of respiration during exercise.
Answer:
Our muscle cells perform anaerobic type of respiration during exercise.

Question 2.
Write definitions.
a. Nutrition.
Answer:
Nutrition: The process of taking nutrients in the body and utilizing them by an organism is known as nutrition.

b. Nutrients.
Answer:
Nutrients: The substances like carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, vitamins, minerals etc. which are components of the food are called nutrients.

c. Proteins.
Answer:
Proteins: Protein is a macromolecule which is formed by many amino acids which are joined by peptide bonds.

d. Cellular respiration.
Answer:
Cellular respiration: Oxidation of glucose and other food components which takes place inside the cell in presence or absence of oxygen, is known as cellular respiration.

e. Aerobic respiration.
Answer:
Aerobic respiration: Cellular respiration taking place in presence of oxygen is known as aerobic respiration.

f. Glycolysis.
Answer:
Glycolysis: The process occurring in the cell where a molecule of glucose is oxidized in step by step process forming two molecules of each of pyruvic acid, ATP, NADH₂ and water, is called glycolysis.

Question 3.
Distinguish between
a. Glycolysis and TCA cycle
Answer:
Glycolysis:

The process of glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell.
In glycolysis, one molecule of glucose is oxidized step-by-step to produce two molecules each of pyruvic acid, ATP, NADH₂ and water.
Glycolysis can take place in both aerobic and anaerobic respiration.
The first step in cellular respiration is glycolysis where glucose is converted into pyruvate.
Two molecules of pyruvate are obtained in glycolysis.
Two molecules of ATP are used up in glycolysis.
Four molecules of ATP are produced in glycolysis.
CO2 is not produced during glycolysis.

TCA cycle:

TCA cycle takes place in mitochondria.
In TCA cycle, molecule of acetyl-co-A is completely oxidized and in the process CO₂, H₂O, NADH₂, FADH₂ and ATP is produced.
TCA cycle takes place only during aerobic respiration.
The second step in cellular respiration is TCA cycle.
Pyruvate is converted into CO₂ and H₂O during TCA cycle.
ATP molecules are not used up in TCA cycle.
Two molecules of ATP are produced in TCA cycle.
CO₂ is produced in TCA cycle.

b. Mitosis and meiosis.
Answer:
Mitosis:

In mitosis the chromosome number does not change. Diploid cells remain diploid, without change.
One cell gives rise to two daughter cells in mitosis.
Karyokinesis of mitosis has four stages, viz. prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase.
Prophase of mitosis is not lengthy.
Genetic recombination does not happen in mitosis as there is no crossing over.
Mitosis is essential for growth and development.
Mitosis takes place both in somatic cells and germinal cells.

meiosis:

In meiosis, the chromosome number is reduced to half. The diploid cells become haploid.
One cell gives rise to four daughter cells in meiosis.
Meiosis has two major stages, viz. meiosis-I and meiosis-II. Each is further subdivided into prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase.
Prophase of meiosis-I is very lengthy.
Genetic recombination takes place in homologous chromosomes as there is crossing over during prophase-I.
Meiosis is essential for formation of gametes in sexual reproduction.
Meiosis takes place in only germinal cells. It does not take place in somatic cells.

c. Aerobic and anaerobic respiration.
Answer:
Aerobic respiration:

Oxygen is required for aerobic respiration.
Aerobic respiration takes place in nucleus as well as in cytoplasm.
At the end of aerobic respiration CO₂ and H₂O is formed.
Energy is produced in large amount in aerobic respiration.
Glucose is completely oxidized in aerobic respiration.
38 molecules of ATP are formed during aerobic respiration.
Chemical reaction:
C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂ → 6H₂O + 6 CO₂ + 686 Kcal

Anaerobic respiration:

Oxygen is not required for anaerobic respiration.
Anaerobic respiration occurs only in the cytoplasm.
At the end of anaerobic respiration CO₂ and C₂H₅OH are formed.
Energy is produced in lesser amount in anaerobic respiration.
Glucose is incompletely oxidized in anaerobic respiration.
2 molecules of ATP are formed during anaerobic respiration.
Chemical reaction:
C₆H₁₂O₆ → 2 C₂H₅OH + 2 CO₂ + 50 Kcal

Question 4.
Give scientific reasons.
a. Oxygen is necessary for complete oxidation of glucose.
Answer:

When glucose is completely oxidized in aerobic cellular respiration, it produces 38 molecules of ATP.
In cellular respiration, three processes take place one after the other, these are glycolysis, Krebs cycle and electron transport chain reactions.
In absence of oxygen only glycolysis can occur but further two reactions will not take place.
If glycolysis occurs in absence of oxygen, it produces alcohol.
By anaerobic glycolysis only two molecules of ATP are produced.
This results in less energy supply to the body. Therefore, oxygen is necessary for complete oxidation of glucose.

b. Fibres are one of the important nutrients. (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Answer:

Fibres are indigestible substance.
They are thrown out along with other useless and undigested matter.
This aids in egestion. Some fibres also help in digestion of other substances.
Green leafy vegetables, fruits, cereals, etc. are considered as important in diet as they supply nutritious fibres.
Thus, fibres are considered as one of the important nutrients.

c. Cell division is one of the important properties of cells and organisms.
Answer:

Cell division is very essential for all the living organisms.
The growth and development is possible only due to cell division.
The emaciated body can be restored only through the cell division which adds new cells.
Offspring is produced only through the cell division that take place in parents.
In asexual reproduction, mitosis helps to give rise to new generation.
In sexual reproduction, meiosis helps to form haploid gametes.
All such functions show that cell division is one of the important properties of cells and organisms.

d. Sometimes, higher plants and animals too perform anaerobic respiration.
Answer:

When there is deficiency of oxygen in the surrounding, the aerobic respiration is not possible.
In such case, to survive, higher plants switch over to anaerobic respiration.
In some animal tissues in case of oxygen deficiency cells perform anaerobic respiration.

e. Krebs cycle is also known as citric acid cycle.
Answer:

Sir Hans Kreb proposed this cycle and hence it is called Krebs cycle.
These are series of cyclic chain reactions which begins with acetyl-coenzyme-A molecules which act with molecules of oxaloacetic acid.
The reactions are catalysed with the help of specific enzymes.
The first molecule formed in this reaction is called citric acid. Therefore, Krebs cycle is also called citric acid cycle.

Question 5.
Answer in detail.
a. Explain the glycolysis in detail.
Answer:

Carbohydrates are converted to glucose after the process of digestion is completed. The oxidation of glucose for releasing energy is called glycolysis which takes place in cytoplasm.
Glycolysis can occur in presence of oxygen or without oxygen too. The first type of glycolysis takes place in aerobic respiration and the second type is in anaerobic respiration.
In aerobic respiration, there is step-wise oxidation of glucose molecule forming two molecules each of pyruvic acid, ATP, NADH₂ and water.
Later the pyruvic acid formed in this process is converted into molecules of Acetyl-Coenzyme-A along with two molecules of NADH₂ and two molecules of CO₂.
During anaerobic respiration along with glycolysis there is fermentation too. This is incomplete oxidation of glucose and thus it results in formation of lesser energy.
The process of glycolysis was discovered by Gustav Embden, Otto Meyerhof, and Jacob Parnas. Therefore, in their honour, glycolysis is also called as Embden-Meyerhof-Parnas pathway (EMP pathway). For the discovery they had performed experiments on muscles.

b. With the help of suitable diagrams, explain the mitosis in detail.
Answer:
(1) There are two stages of mitosis. These are
(a) Karyokinesis or nuclear division and
(b) Cytokinesis or cytoplasmic division. Karyokinesis takes place in further four phases, viz prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase.

(a) Karyokinesis:
(i) Prophase: During prophase, condensation of chromosomes starts. The thin and thread like chromosomes start thickening. They are seen with their pair of sister chromatids. In animal cells the centrioles are seen to duplicate and move to opposite poles of the cell. Nuclear membrane and nucleolus disappear.

(ii) Metaphase: Chromosomes complete their condensation and each one is seen with its sister chromatids. The chromosomes are seen in equatorial plane of the cell. The spindle fibres are formed from polar region, where centrioles are present, and they attach themselves to the centromere of each chromosome. Nuclear membrane now disappears completely.

(iii) Anaphase: The centromeres of the chromosomes now divide forming two daughter chromosomes. The spindle fibres pull apart the chromosomes from equatorial region to the opposite poles. Chromosomes moving to the poles appear like bunch of bananas. One set of chromosomes reach each pole by the end of the anaphase.

(iv) Telophase: Telophase is reverse of events that occurred in prophase. The thickened chromosomes decondense. They again assume the thin and thread like appearance. Nuclear membrane and nucleolus appear again. The spindle fibres are completely lost. The cell looks as if it has two nuclei in one cytoplasm.

(b) Cytokinesis: In animal cells a notch develops in the middle of the cell. This notch goes on deepening down and later the cytoplasm divides into two. In plant cells, cell plate formation takes place and then cytokinesis takes place.

c. With the help of suitable diagrams, explain the five stages of prophase-I of meiosis.
Answer:

Prophase-I: Prophase – I of meiosis is much longer phase of the meiosis.
It is subdivided into 5 substages, namely leptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene, and diakinesis.
(1) Leptotene: Initially the chromosomes start condensation and they become compact during leptotene.

(2) Zygotene: In zygotene, homologous chromosomes start pairing. This pairing is called synapsis. The structure called synaptonemal complex develops to hold chromosomes in place during this pairing. Each chromosome’s chromatid arm divides and forms structure called bivalent or tetrad.

(3) Pachytene: During pachytene stage, crossing over of non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes takes place. Genetic recombination is produced due to such exchange. The homologous chromosomes still remain paired together at the sites of crossing over.

(4) Diplotene: During diplotene, synaptonemal complex dissolves and the homologous chromosomes of the bivalents separate except at the point of crossing over. Thus, it looks like X-shaped structures called the chiasmata.

(5) Diakinesis: The last phase of prophase is for termination of chiasmata. The spindle fibres originate, and the cross-over homologous chromosomes are now separated. The nucleQlus disappears, and the nuclear envelope breaks down.

d. How do all the life processes contribute to the growth and development of the body?
Answer:

Different systems work in co-ordination with each other in the body of the living organisms. In human body the homoeostasis is very advanced.
Digestive system, respiratory system, circulatory system, excretory system, nervous system and all the external and internal organs in the bodywork independently but in coordination with each other.
The digested and absorbed nutrients of the food are transported to various cells with the help of circulatory system due to pumping of the heart. Simultaneously, the oxygen absorbed in the blood by lungs is also transported to each cell by RBCs.
Mitochondria in every cell brings about oxidation of nutrients and produce energy required for all of these functions.
The control is exercised by the nervous system on all these actions. This keeps the organism alive and helps in growth and development of the same.

e. Explain the Krebs cycle with reaction.
Answer:

Krebs cycle was proposed by Sir Hans Kreb. This cycle is named after him. It is also called tricarboxylic acid cycle or citric acid cycle.
The acetyl-coenzyme-A molecules enter the mitochondria located in the cytoplasm.
They participate in the chemical reactions taking place in Krebs cycle.
In the cyclic chemical reactions, acetyl- coenzyme-A is completely oxidised
It yields molecules of CO₂, H₂O, NADH₂, FADH₂ and ATP upon complete oxidation.

Question 5.
How energy is formed from oxidation of carbohydrates, fats and proteins?
Correct the dagram below.

Answer:
(1) First of all the dietary carbohydrates are digested in the digestive system with the help of various enzymes and converted into glucose. Similarly, proteins are converted into amino acids and fats are broken down into fatty aid and glycerol (alcohol).

(2) Oxidation of carbohydrates takes place during cellular respiration. Glucose is oxidized by three steps during aerobic respiration, viz. glycolysis, tricarboxylic acid cycle or Krebs cycle and electron transfer chain.

(3) From one molecule of glucose two molecules of each pyruvic acid, ATP, NADH₂ and water are formed during glycolysis. Pyruvic acid which is formed in this process is converted into Acetyl-Coenzyme-A along with release of two molecules each of NADH₂ and CO₂.

(4) In the next step, i.e. in TCA cycle, molecules of Acetyl-Co-A enter the mitochondria and a cyclic chain of reactions take place. Acetyl part of Acetyl- Co-A is completely oxidized through this cyclical process. The molecules CO₂, H₂O, NADH₂, FADH₂ are released in this process.

(5) In third step, i.e. in ETC reaction, NADH₂ and FADH₂ formed during first two steps are used for obtaining ATP molecules. 3 molecules of ATP are obtained from each NADH₂ molecule and 2 molecules of ATP from each FADH₂.

(6) Thus, one molecule of glucose upon complete oxidation in presence of oxygen yields 38 molecules of ATP. This is how from carbohydrates, energy is obtained.

(7) If carbohydrates are insufficient in diet, then proteins or lipids are used for energy production. Fatty acids derived from fats and amino acids derived from proteins are converted into Acetyl- Co-A. Acetyl-Co-A once again can yield energy through TCA cycle.

Corrected diagram:

Project:
With the help of information collected from internet, prepare the slides of various stages of mitosis and observe under the compound microscope.

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 12)

Question 1.
How are the food stuffs and their nutrient contents useful for body?
Answer:
The food stuffs are digested and converted into soluble nutrients. These nutrients are carried by blood to every cell of the body. The oxygen inhaled at the time of respiration is also carried to every cell. In the body cells, this oxygen carries out oxidation of nutrients and thus energy is produced. The energy helps the body to carry out all its functions. The nutrients help in the growth and development of the body.

Question 2.
What is the importance of balanced diet for body?
Answer:
Balanced diet has carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins and minerals in the right proportion. Each nutrient carries a specific important function. In balanced diet all these nutrients are in right proportion. Since balanced diet is required for energy and nutrition, it is very important to maintain our health.

Question 3.
Which different functions are performed by muscles in body?
Answer:
There are three 4ypes of muscles in our body. The voluntary muscles bring about all the movements according to our will. Involuntary muscles bring about all vital activities of the body. The visceral organs are under the control of involuntary muscles. The cardiac muscles control the movements of heart. Carbohydrates and proteins are stored in muscles.

Question 4.
What is the importance of digestive juices in digestive system?
Answer:
Digestive juice contains different enzymes. Enzymes act as catalysts and bring about the chemical reactions at faster pace. The digestive juices of stomach make pH of digestive tract acidic while that of intestinal juice make it alkaline.

Question 5.
Which system is in action for removal of waste materials produced in human body?
Answer:
Excretory system helps in the removal of nitrogenous waste materials produced in the human body.

Question 6.
What is the role of circulatory system in energy production?
Answer:
Due to circulatory system, glucose from digestive system and oxygen from respiratory system is transported to every cell. Red blood cells carry the oxygen as the blood is pumped by the heart. In every cell with the help of oxygen, glucose molecules yield the energy by the process of oxidation.

Question 7.
How are the various processes occurring in the human body controlled? In how many ways?
Answer:
The nervous system and the endocrine system brings about control by nervous and chemical coordination in the body. Due to such coordination different functions of the body are carried out in sequential and controlled manner.

Use your barain power:

Question 1.
Many players are seen consuming some food stuffs during breaks of the game. Why may be the players consuming these food stuffs? (Text Book Page No. 12)
Answer:

Players require energy in greater amount.
They perspire heavily at the time of game or sport which results in the loss of water and electrolytes from their body.
This may affect their performance in sport. To prevent such unfavourable effect, they are given, juices or drinks.
This helps them to restore the balance of water and electrolytes in their body. It also gives enhanced energy required for the performance.

Question 2.
Many times, we experience dryness in mouth. (Text Book Page No. 17)
Answer:

In our body there is 65-70% water. This proportion is always maintained.
Sometimes we lose lots of water either through perspiration or due to unavailability of water for a long time. In such situations, we experience dryness in our mouth.
Dryness is a natural feeling which creates urge in us to drink water, thereby the proportion of water in the body is brought back to its normal levels.

Question 3.
Oral rehydration solution (Salt-sugar- water) is frequently given to persons experiencing loose motions. (Text Book Page No. 17)
Answer:

Loose motions cause lot of loss of water from the body.
This may result in dehydration. This can be lethal if ignored.
Especially in case of young children this is a very serious fatal problem.
Thus, to bring back the normal proportion of water and electrolytes, oral rehydration solution or ORS is given to the patient who suffers from loose motions.

Question 4.
We sweat during summer and heavy exercise. (Text Book Page No. 17)
Answer:

During summer, the environmental temperatures are high.
This causes rise in our body temperature. Exercising also cause rise in the temperature. But since we can regulate our body temperature to a constant level, the sweat, glands g6t automatically stimulated.
This induces perspiration.
The sweat evaporates and causes fall in the body temperature. Thus, for regulation of body temperature, we sweat during summer or even after heavy exercise.

Question 5.
What do you mean by diploid (2n) cell? (Text Book Page No. 20)
Answer:

The cells in which chromosome number is double are known as diploid cells.
Male and female gametes unite together in the process of fertilization. Their chromosomes mix together in the zygote, therefore, the chromosome number is always diploid.
E.g. Diploid chromosome no. in human beings is 46. We hate 46 chromosomes in each of our body cells.

Question 6.
What do you mean by haploid (n) cell? (Text Book Page No. 20)
Answer:

The cells with only one set of chromosomes is known as haploid cell.
At the time of sexual reproduction, there is meiosis. In meiosis chromosome number of the parental germ cells are reduced to half. Therefore, gametes are haploid.
The haploid chromosome number (n) in human beings is 23.
Sperm and ovum both are haploid carrying 23 chromosomes each.

Question 7.
What do you mean by homologous chromosomes? (Text Book Page No. 20)
Answer:

Every species has definite number of chromosome pairs in their diploid cells.
In every pair, the two chromosomes are alike in shape, type and genes located over them.
Such chromosomes are called homologous chromosomes.
E.g. In human diploid cell, pair of chromosome no. 1 shows chromosome no. 1 from mother and chromosome no. 1 from father. These two chromosomes are homologous to each other.

Question 8.
Whether the gametes are diploid or haploid? Why? (Text Book Page No. 20)
Answer:
The cells that give rise to gametes are diploid (2n). But by meiosis they give rise to gametes which are haploid (n). Two haploid gametes undergo fertilization and the zygote formed becomes once again diploid (2n).

Question 9.
How are the haploid cells formed? (Text Book Page No. 20)
Answer:
Diploid cells undergo meiosis, which is a reduction division. In this way haploid cells are formed.

Question 10.
What is the importance of haploid cells? (Text Book Page No. 20)
Answer:

The gametes that take part in the sexual reproduction should be haploid.
Otherwise the chromosome number will not be maintained at constancy. E.g. Parents have 2n = 46 chromosomes in their cells.
If meiosis does not take place in them, the gametes formed will also contain 46 chromosomes.
The resultant offspring will have 46 + 46 = 92 chromosomes.
Such skewed number will produce large scale abnormalities.
But due to meiosis, the gametes formed are haploid and thus the chromosome number is maintained constant for every species. Gametes are haploid cells, this is the most important fact.

Internet is my friend. (Text Book Page No. 17)

Collect information.
(a) What are symptoms of diseases like night blindness, rickets, beriberi, neuritis, pellagra, anaemia, scurvy?
Answer:

Disease	Symptoms
Night blindness	Near sightedness, or blurred vision when looking at faraway objects Cataracts, or clouding of the eye’s lens. Inability to see in dark. Sometimes blindness.
Rickets	Weak and soft bones Stunted growth In severe cases, skeletal deformities.
Beriberi	Decreased muscle function, particularly in the lower legs. Tingling or loss of feeling in the feet and hands. Pain Mental confusion, difficulty in speaking Vomiting Involuntary eye movement, paralysis.
Neuritis	Numbness in hands and feet Tingling sensation, sharp, jabbing, throbbing, freezing or burning pain. Extreme sensitivity to touch. Lack of coordination and falling.
Pellagra	Delusions or mental confusion. Diarrhoea and nausea Inflammed mucous membrane. Scaly skin sores.
Anaemia	Fatigue and loss of energy Unusually rapid heartbeat, particularly with exercise Shortness of breath and headache, particularly with exercise Difficulty in concentrating Dizziness, Pale skin Leg cramps, Insomnia
Scurvy	Anaemia, debility, exhaustion, Spontaneous bleeding Pain in the limbs, and especially the legs, swelling in some parts of the body Ulceration of the gums and loss of teeth.

(b) What do you mean by coenzymes?
Answer:
Co-enzyme is a non-protein compound that is necessary for the functioning of an enzyme. It is bound to the enzyme as a catalyst. This increases the rate of reaction. Co-enzymes always act along the enzymes. They cannot work independently. But the same molecule of coenzyme can be used again and again.

Many co-enzymes are vitamins or derived from vitamins. When vitamin intake is too low, then an organism also lacks the co-enzymes that catalyse reactions. Water-soluble vitamins, which include all B complex vitamins and vitamin C, lead to the production of co-enzymes. Two of the most important and widespread vitamin-derived coenzymes are Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide (NAD) and co-enzyme A.

FAD	Flavin Adenine Dinucleotide
FMN	Flavin Mono Nucleotide
NAD	Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide
NADP	Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide Phosphate

(d) How much quantity of each vitamin is required every day?
Answer:

Vitamin	Daily requirement
A	700 and 900 μ grams
B Complex	100 mg/day for adults.
C	75 mg
D	5 μg
E	10 mg
K	80 μg

Choose the correct alternative and write its alphabet against the sub-question number:

Question 1.
The process of glycolysis occurs in ……….
(a) cytoplasm
(b) mitochondria
(c) nucleus
(d) cell membrane
Answer:
The process of glycolysis occurs in cytoplasm.

Question 2.
ATP is called ………. of the cell.
(a) energy currency
(b) combustion fuel
(c) storage of glucose
(d) protein depot
Answer:
ATP is called protein depot of the cell.

Question 3.
Excess of carbohydrates are stored in liver and muscles in the form of ………….
(a) sugar
(b) glucose
(c) glycogen
(d) protein
Answer:
Excess of carbohydrates are stored in liver and muscles in the form of glycogen.

Question 4.
Chemically vitamin B₂ is ………….
(a) Riboflavin
(b) Nicotinamide
(c) Cyanacobalomine
(d) Pantothetic acid
Answer:
Chemically vitamin B₂ is Riboflavin

Question 5.
Somatic and stem cells undergo type of ………… division. (March 2019)
(a) meiosis
(b) mitosis
(c) budding
(d) cloning
Answer:
Somatic and stem cells undergo type of mitosis division.

Question 6.
We get ……….. energy from carbohydrates.
(a) 9 kcal/gm
(b) 9 cal/gm
(c) 4 cal/gm
(d) 4 kcal/gm
Answer:
We get 4 cal/gm energy from carbohydrates.

Question 7.
Which of the following vitamins is necessary for synthesis of NADH₂?
(a) Vitamin B₂
(b) Vitamin B₃
(c) Vitamin
(d) Vitamin K
Answer:
(b) Vitamin B₃

Write whether the following statements are true or false:

Question 1.
Glucose is oxidized step by step in the cells during the process of respiration at the body level.
Answer:
False. (Glucose is oxidized step by step in the cells during the process of cellular respiration.)

Question 2.
In aerobic respiration, glucose is oxidized in three steps.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Glycolysis is also called Embden-Meyerhof-Paarnas pathway.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Molecules of pyruvic acid formed in this glycolysis are converted into molecules of acetyl-co-enzyme A.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Excess of ATP molecules obtained from proteins are not stored in the body.
Answer:
False. (Excess of ammo acids obtained from proteins are not stored in the body.)

Question 6.
Proteins of animal origin are called ‘first class’ proteins.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
The disease related with the deficient synthesis of insulin is heart disease.
Answer:
False. (The disease related with the deficient synthesis of insulin is diabetes.)

Match the columns:

Protein	Part of the body (July 2019)
(1) Haemoglobin	(a) muscles
(2) Ossein	(b) skin
	(c) bones
	(d) blood

Answer:
(1) Haemoglobin – blood
(2) Ossein – bones.

Protein	Part of the body
(1) Keratin	(a) muscles
(2) Myosin	(b) skin
	(c) bones
	(d) blood

Answer:
(1) Keratin – skin
(2) Myosin – muscles.

Find the odd one out:

Question 1.
Progesterone, Estrogen, Testosterone, Insulin
Answer:
Insulin. (All the others are hormones produced with the help of fatty acids.)

Question 2.
Actin, Ossein, Myosin, Melanin
Answer:
Melanin. (All the others are proteins concerned with locomotion of the body.)

Question 3.
Lipids, Carbohydrates, Fatty acids, Proteins
Answer:
Fatty acids. (All the others are food constituents; fatty acid is soluble nutrient.)

Question 4.
Alcohol, Vinegar, Pyruvic acid, Lactic acid.
Answer:
Pyruvic acid. (All the others are chemical substances formed by the process of fermentation.)

Question 5.
Tricarboxylic acid cycle, Citric acid cycle, Krebs cycle, EMP pathway.
Answer:
EMP pathway. (All the other terms are synonymous to each other.)

Considering the relationship in the first pair, complete the second pair by using a word or group of words:

Question 1.
Process that occurs in the cytoplasm : Glycolysis :: Process that occurs in the mitochondria ………
Answer:
Krebs cycle

Question 2.
Skin : Keratin :: Blood : …………
Answer:
Haemoglobin

Question 3.
Energy obtained from protein : 4 kcal :: Energy obtained from fats / lipids : …………
Answer:
9 Kcal

Question 4.
Breakdown of glucose molecule : Glycolysis :: Formation of glucose from proteins : …………….
Answer:
Gluconeogenesis

Question 5.
Condensation of chromosomes : Prophase :: Formation of spindle fibres : …………
Answer:
Metaphase

Question 6.
Division of nucleus : Karyokinesis :: Division of cytoplasm :: ………..
Answer:
Cytokinesis.

Write definitions:

Question 1.
Gluconeogenesis.
Answer:
Gluconeogenesis: Formation of glucose through non-carbohydrate sources such a protein is called gluconeogenesis.

Question 2.
Fermentation.
Answer:
Fermentation: Conversion of pyruvic acid produced in the process of glycolysis into other organic acids or alcohol with the help of some enzymes is called fermentation.

Name the following:

Question 1.
Products formed after complete oxidation of acetyl part present in the molecule of acetyl-coenzyme-A.
Answer:
Molecules of CO₂, H₂O, NADH₂, FADH₂ and ATP.

Question 2.
Place where electron transfer chain reaction take place.
Answer:
Mitochondria present in the cytoplasm of the cell.

Question 3.
Two co-enzymes involved in cellular respiration.
Answer:
NAD → Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide and FAD Flavin Adenine Dinucleotide.

Question 4.
Scientist who discovered the TCA cycle.
Answer:
Sir Hans Krebs.

Question 5.
Steps of anaerobic respiration.
Answer:
Glycolysis and fermentation.

Question 6.
Most abundantly found protein nature.
Answer:
An enzyme RUBISCO present in plant chloroplasts.

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
We feel exhausted after exercising.
Answer:

When we undertake constant exercises, there may be shortage of oxygen for the cells.
Therefore, our muscles and other tissues perform anaerobic respiration in such condition.
In this process, lactic acid is formed.
Molecules of ATP produced in oxidation of food are also much less.
Thus, there is less energy in the body and accumulation of lactic acid too. All this brings about a feeling of exhaustion.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
Write the forms to which the following food materials are converted after digestion:
(a) Milk (b) Potato (c) Oil (d) Chapati.
Answer:
(a) Milk: Proteins (casein) are converted into amino acids. Lactose sugar is converted into glucose. Lipids are converted into fatty acids and glycerol.
(b) Potato: Carbohydrates (starch) are converted into glucose.
(c) Oil: Lipids are converted into fatty acids and glycerol.
(d) Chapati: Carbohydrates (starch) are converted into glucose.

Question 2.
On which two levels does respiration take place in living organisms?
Answer:

In organism respiration takes place at two levels, viz. Body level and Cellular level.
Respiration at body level: The exchange of respiratory gases such as oxygen and carbon dioxide between body and surrounding is called respiration at body level.
Cellular respiration: Oxidation of nutrients inside the cell with or without oxygen is called cellular respiration.

Question 3.
Answer the following questions: (July 2019)
(a) Write main types of vitamins.
Answer:
A, B, C, D, E and K are main types of vitamins.

(b) Name water soluble vitamins.
Answer:
Water soluble vitamins are B and C.

Question 4.
Answer the following questions:
(a) Why some living organisms have to perform anaerobic respiration?
Answer:
Some bacteria and lower organisms do not live in the presence of oxygen. In order to survive, they have to perform anaerobic respiration. Sometimes, muscle cells and erythrocytes also perform anaerobic respiration when there is lack of enough oxygen.

(b) Give two examples of such living organisms.
Answer:
Yeast and bacteria.

(c) What are the two steps of anaerobic respiration?
Answer:
Glycolysis and fermentation are the two steps of anaerobic respiration.

Question 5.
Which is the energy currency of the cell? Explain it in detail.
Answer:

ATP or Adenosine triphosphate is the ‘energy currency’ of the cell.
Chemical composition of ATP is as follows: it is a triphosphate molecule having adenosine ribonucleoside. The nitrogenous compound-adenine, pentose sugar-ribose and three phosphate groups are present in ATP.
In this energy-rich molecule the energy remains trapped in the bonds by which phosphate groups are attached to each other.
ATP molecules are stored in the cells. As per the need, energy is derived by breaking the phosphate bond of ATP.
During cellular respiration, the oxidation of glucose yields 38 molecules of ATP. Whenever required they are consumed to liberate energy.

Question 6.
How is energy obtained during starvation or hunger?
Answer:

Due to starvation or hunger, there is less supply of nutrients and energy to the body. In such condition, the stored carbohydrates in the body also deplete.
In such condition, fats and proteins present in the body are utilized.
Fats or lipids are converted into fatty acids and proteins are broken down to amino acids.
Fatty acids and amino acids both are converted to acetyl-coenzyme-A.
Acetyl-coenzyme-A can undergo series of cyclic reactions and oxidised to liberate energy in the form of ATP molecules.

Question 7.
Why glycolysis is also called EMP pathway?
Answer:
Process of glycolysis was discovered by Gustav Embden, Otto Meyerhof, and Jacob Pamas along with their colleagues. They performed experiments on muscles to understand glycolysis. Hence, in their honour, glycolysis is also edited Embden-Meyerhof-Parnas pathway or EMP pathway.

Question 8.
How are proteins obtained? What are the components of the proteins?
Answer:

Protein, is a macromolecule which is formed by amino acids.
When digestion of protein takes place, it forms different amino acids. These amino acids are transported to each cell by blood circulation.
By protein synthesis, these amino acids are again used to make different kinds of proteins which our body needs.
Animal proteins are said to be ‘first class proteins’ as they contain good quality amino acids.
4 Kcal/gm energy is obtained from the proteins.

Question 9.
Where and in which forms the amino acids formed after digestion of food are used in the body?
Answer:
(1) After digestion of proteins, amino acids are formed. These amino acids are used to synthesise proteins in different forms. e.g.

In blood-Haemoglobin and antibodies are formed.
In skin – Melanin and keratin are formed.
In bones – Ossein is formed.
In pancreas-Insulin and trypsin are synthesized.
Pituitary and all other glands produce hormones by utilising amino acids.
In muscles – Actin and myosin are formed.
In all the cells, plasma membrane is formed by proteins. All enzymes are also synthesised using the amino acids.

Question 10.
What are fatty acids? What are the different uses of fatty acids ?
Answer:
(1) The fatty acids are components of the lipids. When lipids are digested, it forms fatty acids and alcohol (glycerol).
(2) There are certain chemical bonds between fatty acids and alcohol.
(3) Fatty acids are very essential for the health.
(4) After digestion, fatty acids are absorbed into the blood and transported to the cells.
(5) Different types of cells produce their own substances from these fatty acids.
E.g. (a) Plasma membrane is produced from phospholipids.
(b) Hormones like testosterone, progesterone, estrogen, aldosterone are produced from fatty acids.
(c) The axonal coverings around the neurons are also made from fatty acids.

Give explanations for the following statements:

Question 1.
After complete oxidation of a glucose molecules, 38 number of ATP molecules are formed.
Answer:
I. Glycolysis: No. of ATP molecules formed = 4
No. of ATP molecules used = 2
II. Krebs cycle : No. of ATP molecules formed = 2
III. ETC Reaction :
NADH₂: 10 NAD₂ x 3 ATP = 30 ATP
FADH₂ : 2 FADH₂ x 2 ATP = 4 ATP
Total ATP molecules produced = (4+2+34)
= 40 ATP
ATP molecules used = 2 ATP
Therefore, total ATP molecules = 38 ATP

Question 2.
At the end of glycolysis, pyruvate molecules are obtained.
Answer:
The process of glycolysis takes place m the cytoplasm of the cell. One molecule of glucose is gradually oxidized step by step forming two molecules of each pyruvic acid, ATP, NADH₂ and water. Of these, pyruvate or pyruvic acid takes part in the further reactions.

Question 3.
Genetic recombination occurs in pachytene phase of prophase of meiosis-I.
Answer:
In prophase of meiosis I there are total 5 stages. Of these in pachytene the process of crossing over takes place between homologous chromosomes as chromosomes come near each other forming synapsis.

Question 4.
All chromosomes are arranged parallel to equatorial plane of cell in metaphase of mitosis.
Answer:
In mitosis, the metaphase is the stage when dividing chromosomes lie on the equatorial plane of the cell. They are later pulled by the spindle fibres to the opposite poles.

Question 5.
For formation of plasma membrane, phospholipid molecules are necessary.
Answer:
Upon the digestion of fats, fatty acids and glycerol are formed. The fatty acids can be converted into phospholipid which are essential molecules for development of plasma membrane.

Question 6.
Our muscle cells perform anaerobic type of respiration during exercise.
Answer:
When the proportion of oxygen is less, then the cells switch over to anaerobic respiration. When we are exercising there is increased demand of oxygen for muscle cells. If this is not fulfilled, they perform anaerobic respiration during exercise.

Question 7.
Excess of carbohydrates are stored in liver and muscles in the form of glycogen.
Answer:
The carbohydrates which are not used to produce energy cannot be stored in the body in the form of glucose. This glucose is therefore converted into complex compound called glycogen. Glycogen is stored in muscles and liver.

Complete the paragraph by choosing the appropriate words given in the brackets:

Question 1.
(gamete, crossing over, haploid, Meiosis-II, meiosis-I, diploid)
……….. is just like mitosis. In this stage, the two haploid daughter cells formed in ……… undergo division by separation of recombined sister chromatids and four ……….. daughter cells are formed. Process of …………… production and spore formation occurs by meiosis. In this type of cell division, four haploid (n) daughter cells are formed from one ……….. cell. During this cell division, ………… occurs between, the homologous chromosomes.
Answer:
Meiosis-II is just like mitosis. In this stage, the two haploid daughter cells formed in meiosis-I undergo division by separation of recombined sister chromatids and four haploid daughter cells are formed. Process of gamete production and spore formation occurs by meiosis. In this type of cell division, four haploid (n) daughter cells are formed from one diploid cell. During this cell division, crossing over occurs between the homologous chromosomes.

Question 2.
(external, inhalation, alveolar, breathing, respiration, exhalation)
Release of energy from the assimilated food is called …………. Inhalation and exhalation is called …….. When ……….. is done, air enters the lungs. The oxygen from this air enters the blood while carbon dioxide from the blood exits from the blood. Through exhalation, CO₂ is given out. This gaseous exchange occurs through ……….. membrane. This is called ………….. respiration. The RBCs carry oxygen to every cell.
Answer:
Release of energy from the assimilated food is called respiration. Inhalation and exhalation is called breathing. When inhalation is done, air enters the lungs. The oxygen from this air enters the blood while carbon dioxide from the blood exits from the blood. Through exhalation, CO₂ is given out. This gaseous exchange occurs through alveolar membrane. This is called external respiration. The RBCs carry oxygen to every cell.

Read the paragraph and answer the questions given below:

1. Dietary fibre — found mainly in fruits, vegetables, whole grains and legumes — is probably best known for its ability to prevent or relieve constipation. But foods containing fibre can provide other health benefits as well, such as helping to maintain a healthy weight and lowering your risk of diabetes, heart disease and some types of cancer. Dietary fibre, also known as roughage or bulk, includes the parts of plant foods your body can’t digest or absorb. Unlike other food components, such as fats, proteins or carbohydrates — which your body breaks down and absorbs — fibre isn’t digested by your body. Instead, it passes relatively intact through your stomach, small intestine and colon and out of your body.

Questions and Answers :

Question 1.
Which food items provide rich fibre content?
Answer:
Fruits, vegetables, whole grains and legumes give rich amount of dietary fibre.

Question 2.
Enlist the advantages of fibres in diet.
Answer:
Fibres help to relieve constipation and help in maintaining a healthy weight and lowering risk of diabetes, heart disease and some types of cancer.

Question 3.
Are fibres digested in the body?
Answer:
No, fibres are not digested in the body but are passed on without any alteration.

Question 4.
Which is the path through which fibres pass in the digestive tract?
Answer:
Fibres pass through stomach, small intestine and colon.

Question 5.
What is a roughage?
Answer:
Roughage is the fibre content of the food which consists of plant matter which cannot be digested by the human enzymes, hence form undigested bulk matter in the faeces.

2. The substances formed by specific chemical bond between fatty acids and alcohol are called lipids. Digestion of lipids consumed by us is nothing but their conversion into fatty acids and alcohol. Fatty acids are absorbed and distributed everywhere within the body. From those fatty acids, different cells produce various substances necessary to themselves. Ex. the molecules called phospholipids which are essential for producing plasma membrane are formed from fatty acids. Besides, fatty acids are used for producing hormones like progesterone, estrogen, testosterone, aldosterone, etc. and the covering around the axons of nerve cells. We get 9 Kcal of energy per gram of lipids. Excess of lipids are stored in adipose connective tissue in the body.

Questions and Answers:

Question 1.
Define lipids.
Answer:
Lipids are molecules formed of fatty acids and glycerol (alcohol) which have specific bonds between them.

Question 2.
What happens to fats that are eaten in excess?
Answer:
When excess of fats are eaten, they are stored in adipose connective tissue.

Question 3.
Which hormones regulating reproductive functions are produced from fatty acids?
Answer:
Progesterone, estrogen and testosterone are the reproductive hormones produced from fatty acids.

Question 4.
How is plasma membrane of the cells formed?
Answer:
The digested fats are absorbed in the form of fatty acids. These are converted back to phospholipids from which plasma membrane of cells is formed.

Question 5.
What happens to lipids when their digestion is completed? How much energy do they provide?
Answer:
After complete digestion of lipids they are converted to fatty acids and glycerol. 1 gm of lipid provides 9 kcal of energy.

Diagram based questions:

Question 1.
Draw a neat diagram of the structure of chromosome and label the parts:
(a) Centromere (b) p-arm (March 2019)
Answer:

Question 2.
Sketch and label the diagram to show ATP – the energy currency of the cell.
Answer:

Question 3.
Mitochondria and Krebs cycle:
Answer:

(a) Which co-enzymes are shown in the diagram?
Answer:
The co-enzymes NADH₂ and FADH₂ are shown in the above diagram.

(b) Which chemical reaction takes place in the mitochondria? Which molecules are produced in this reaction?
Answer:
The chemical reaction that takes place in the mitochondria is called Electronic Transport Chain reaction. The molecules of H₂O, carbon dioxide and energy in the form of ATP are produced in this reaction.

Question 4.
Observe the diagrams 2.8 and 2.9 given on the Textbook page no. 19 and answer the following questions.

(a) Which peculiarity do you observe in the figure of Metaphase-I of meiosis ?
Answer:
The chromosomes are seen lying on the equatorial plane in the metaphase-I of meiosis.

(b) What is the important difference between Telophase-I and Telophase-II of meiosis?
Answer:
In figure of Telophase-I the diploid chromosomes are seen in two daughter cells. In Telophase-II four daughter cells are seen with haploid chromosomes in them.

(c) Which figure shows phenomena of crossing over?
Answer:
The third figure of Prophase-I shows phenomena of crossing over.

Question 5.
Label the diagram below? Which phase of cell division is seen in the above diagram?
Answer:
The above figure shows Telophase-II of Meiosis-II.

Question 6.
Observe and label the diagram: (Text Book Page No. 13)
Answer:

Activity based questions:

Question 1.
Complete the following chart and state which process of energy production it represents: (March 2019)

Answer:
The chart shows process of energy production through aerobic respiration of carbohydrates, proteins and fats.
(Answers to the blanks in chart are given in bold.)

Project:

Project 1.
Use of ICT: (Text Book Page No. 20)
Collect videos and photographs of different life processes in living organisms. Prepare a presentation and present it on the occasion of science exhibition.

Project 2.
Books are my friend: (Text Book Page No. 20)
Read different Encyclopaedias of technical terms in biology and anatomy and other reference books.

10th Std Science Part 2 Questions And Answers:

Heredity and Evolution Class 10 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

January 6, 2025January 5, 2025 by Bhagya

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 1 Heredity and Evolution Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 10 Science Part 2 Chapter 1 Heredity and Evolution Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Class 10 Science Part 2 Chapter 1 Heredity and Evolution Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Question 1.
Complete the following diagram.

Answer:

Question 2.
Read the following statements and justify same in your own words with the help of suituble examples.
a. Human evolution began approximately 7 crore years ago.
Answer:

Approximately around 7 crore years back the ice age began on the earth. In such conditions, dinosaurs became extinct. The evolution and diversity of mammals started during this time. Due to change in climate the forest cover also declined rapidly.
Ancestors of monkey-like animals were Lemur like animals which evolved during this time period.
The tails of these monkey-like creatures started vanishing very gradually around 4 crore years ago.
The body and brain both increased in volume forming first ape like animals. The monkey like ancestors gave rise to two evolutionary links to apes and human like animals.
Later, the human evolution took place by changes in the brain volume, the ability to walk upright, excessive use of hand for manipulations.
This journey of human evolution began 7 crore years ago. But the true wise and intelligent man arose around 50,000 years ago.

b. Geographical and reproductive isolation of organisms gradually leads to speciation.
Answer:

Every species survives in specific geographical conditions. The requirements of food and habitat, is specific for each species. Their reproductive ability and period is also different.
Therefore, the individuals from one species cannot reproduce with individuals from other species.
When they are separated by a distance or geographical barriers they are said to be isolated geographically.
When they cannot reproduce with each other, they are said to be isolated reproductively.
The ancestor species of both these subspecies may be the same but due to isolation over a very long-time duration, there is genetic variation between the two. Therefore, the isolation leads to speciation.

c. Study of fossils is an important aspect of study of evolution.
Answer:
Answer:

Fossils offer palaeontological evidence for the evolutionary process.
Due to some natural calamities the organisms get buried during ancient times.
The impressions and remnants of such organisms remain preserved underground. The hot lava also traps some organisms or their impressions. All such formations form fossils.
Study of fossils help the researcher to understand the characteristics of the organisms that existed in the past.
Carbon dating method also helps in finding out exact age of the fossil. According to the structure of earth’s crust the fossils are obtained at specific depths.
The oldest ones are obtained at the depth while the relatively recent ones occupy the upper surface. Thus fossils of invertebrates were seen in very old Palaeozoic era. Later were seen fossils of Pisces, Amphibia and Reptilia. The Mesozoic era was dominated by reptiles while Coenozoic era showed presence of mammals.
In this way, study of fossils unfold the evolutionary secrets.

d. There is evidences of fatal Science among chordates.
[Please read the above question as: Among different chordates there are embryological evidences.]
Answer:

Very young embryos of fish, amphibians, reptiles, birds and mammals show quite similar structure in the early stages.
As the further growth takes place, they acquire different patterns.
The initial similarity between the vertebrate embryos is an evidence that during evolution, there was a common ancestor for all the vertebrate classes.
This is called embryological evidence for vertebrate evolution.

Question 3.
complete the statements by choosing correct options from bracket.
(Genes, Mutation, Translocation, Transcription, Gradual development, Appendix)
a. The causality behind the sudden changes was understood due to ………… principle of Hugo de Vries.
Answer:
Mutation

b. The proof for the fact that protein synthesis occurs through ……….. was given by George Beadle and Edward Tatum.
Answer:
Genes

c. Transfer of information from molecule of DNA to mRNA is called as …………… process.
Answer:
Transcription

d. Evolution means ………….
Answer:
Gradual development

e. Vestigial organ ……….. present in human body is proof of evolution.
Answer:
Appendix

Question 4.
Write short notes based upon the information known to you.
a. Lamarckism.
Answer:
(1) Lamarckism consists of two theories which were proposed by Jean Baptiste Lamarck. These are as follows: (a) Use and disuse of the organs (b) Inheritance of acquired characters.
(2) In theory of use and disuse of organs, Lamarck says : The characters of organs develop because specific activities that the organisms perform. If such organ is not used it gets degenerated. Thus the morphological changes take place due to activities or inactivity of a particular organism.
(3) To emphasise this theory, he quoted following examples. Due to constant extension of neck to eat foliage from the top of the trees, giraffe’s neck became long. Similarly blacksmith has strong arms due to constant work. Flightless ostrich and emu did not fly and hence their wings became useless. Aquatic birds like swan and duck made their feet suitable for swimming by living in water. Snake lost limbs as it tried burrowing mode.
(4) Such acquired characters are passed from one parental generation to the offspring. This is called inheritance of acquired characters.
(5) The theory of inheritance of acquired characters is not accepted as such transmission of acquired character does not take place. Only genetic characters are transmitted.

b. Darwin’s theory of natural selection.
Answer:

Charles Darwin proposed the theory of natural selection after making many observations on different specimens. He published a concept ‘Survival of the fittest’.
Darwin explains this concept as follows: All the organisms reproduce prolifically. Therefore, there is always a competition for food, mate, etc. Only adaptations for sustaining this struggle.
Natural selection plays important role by selecting only those organisms which are fit to live. Those that do not have better adaptations, perish. Selected sustaining organisms then perform reproduction and form new species in a very long period of time.
Darwin published his views in the book titled ‘Origin of Species’.

c. Embryology.
Answer:

Embryology is the study of developing embryos.
These embryos in their initial stages are very similar to each other.
These similarities decrease later in the development.
This similarity in initial stages indicate that these vertebrates have originated from a common ancestor.
In evolutionary science, comparative study of embryos of various vertebrates provide evidence for evolution.

d. Evolution.
Answer:

The sequential changes in the groups of living organisms that take place very gradually is called evolution.
Evolution is also described as the formation of new species due to natural selection.
The process of evolution takes millions of years for development and speciation of different organisms.
Changes in stars and planets in space and the changes in biosphere occurring on the Earth are all included under study of evolution.
Due to evolution organisms become fit, biodiversity is increased, and new species are created.
Different scientists have put forth theories to explain the process of evolution. Among these Charles Darwin’s theory of natural selection and speciation is accepted worldwide.

e. Connecting link.
Answer:
Some living organisms possess some characters in them which are the distinctive features of different groups or phyla. Such individuals connect these two groups by sharing the characters of both and hence they are known as connective links.

Examples: (1) Peripatus: Peripatus is the connecting link between Annelida and Arthropoda. It shows characters of both animal phyla. Like annelid worm, it shows segmented body, thin cuticle and parapodia. Like an arthropod, it shows open circulatory system and tracheal system for respiration.
(2) Duck Billed platypus: This is a connecting link between reptiles and mammals. Like reptiles it lays eggs but like mammals it has mammary glands and hairy skin.
(3) Lung fish: Lung fish is a connecting link between fishes and amphibians. Though a fish, it shows lungs for respiration as in amphibian animals.
(4) Connecting links indicate the direction and hierarchy of evolution.

Question 5.
Define heredity. Explain the mechanism of hereditary changes.
Answer:
(1) Heredity: Heredity is the process by which the biological characters from parental generation are transmitted to the next generation through genes.

(2) The mechanism of hereditary changes:

Mutation: Sudden change in the parental DNA can cause mutations. This results into changes in the hereditary characters.
At the time of meiosis, the crossing over takes place. This creates new recombination of the genetic information. Therefore, the haploid gametes produced carry changed hereditary characters.

Question 6.
Define vestigial organs. Write names of some vestigial organs in human body and write the names of those animals in whom same organs are functional.
Answer:

Vestigial organs are degenerated or underdeveloped organs of organisms which do not perform any function.
According to the principle of natural selection, such organs are on the verge of disappearance. But it takes many millions of years for its complete vanishing.
The vestigial organs in one animal may be of use but to other kind of the animal as they still perform regular functions.
Appendix is vestigial for humans, it does not perform any function but in ruminant animals it is concerned with digestion.
Ear muscles are vestigial for us but in monkeys and cattle they are functional.
Names of vestigial organs in human body-Appendix, tail-bone or coccyx, wisdom teeth and body hair.

Question 7.
Answer the following questions.
a. How are the hereditary changes responsible for evolution?
Answer:
Hereditary characters are transmitted from parental generation to the offspring. These characters are maintained through inheritance. But the genes which are beneficial for the organisms in helping them to adapt to the environment are transmitted to the next generations in a greater proportion. This happens due to natural selection.

The process of evolution happens at a very slow pace. The favourable genes are preserved in the species as they bring about better survival of the individuals. Such individual reproduces more efficiently and evolve. The individuals with unfavourable genes are not selected by nature and are thus removed from the population through natural death. The fuel for evolution is thus truly supplied by the hereditary changes.

b. Explain the process of formation of complex proteins.
Answer:
The proteins are synthesised in following steps, viz. transcription, translation and translocation. Protein synthesis takes place according to the sequence of nucleotides present on the DNA molecule with the help of RNA molecules. This is known as central dogma of protein synthesis.

1. Transcription: In the process of transcription, mRNA is produced as per the nucleotide sequence on the DNA. For this the two strands DNA are separated. Only one strand participates in the formation of mRNA. The sequence of nucleotides which is complementary to that of present on DNA is copied on mRNA. Instead of thymine present in DNA, uracil is added on the mRNA. Transcription takes place in nucleus but the mRNA leaves nucleus, carries the genetic code and enters the cytoplasm. This genetic code is always in triplet form arid hence is known as triplet codon. The code for each amino acid always consists of three nucleotides.

2. Translation: Each mRNA may carry thousands of codons. But each codon is specific for only one amino acid. The tRNA molecule brings the required amino acid as per the code present on mRNA. There is anticodon on each tRNA which is complementary to the codon on mRNA. This process is known as translation.

3. Translocation: In translocation, the ribosome keeps on moving from one end of mRNA molecule to other end by distance of one triplet codon. While this process is taking place, rRNA, helps in joining the amino acids together by peptide bonds. The peptide chains later come together to form complex protein molecules.

c. Explain the theory of evolution and mention the proof supporting it.
Answer:
1. Theory of evolution:

According to the theory of evolution, first living material was in the form of protoplasm which was formed in ocean.
Gradually, it gave rise to unicellular organisms. Changes took place in these unicellular organisms which made them evolve into larger and more complex organisms.
All evolutionary changes were very slow and gradual taking about 300 crore years to happen.
Different types of organisms were developed as the changes and development that occurred in living organisms wefts all round and multi-dimensional.
Hence, this overall process of evolution is called organizational and progressive.
Variety of plants and animals developed from the ancestors having different structural and functional organization during the process of evolution.

2. Proof here means evidences of evolution.
These evidences are as follows:

Morphological evidences
Anatomical evidences
Vestigial organs
Palaentological evidences
Connecting links
Embryological evidences.

d. Explain with suitable examples importance of anatomical evidences in evolution. (July 2019)
Answer:

There are similarities in the structure and anatomy of different animal groups. E.g. human hand, forelimb of bull, patagium of bat and flipper of whale are all similar in their internal anatomy. There is similarity in the bones and joints of all these specimens.
External morphology does not show any similarity. Use of each of the organ is also different in different animals. Structurally, they may not be related.
However, the similarities in the anatomy is an evidence that they may have a common ancestor.
In this way, the anatomical evidence throws light on the process of evolution.

e. Define fossil. Explain importance of fossils as proof of evolution.
Answer:

Fossils offer palaeontological evidence for the evolutionary process.
Due to some natural calamities the organisms get buried during ancient times.
The impressions and remnants of such organisms remain preserved underground. The hot lava also traps some organisms or their impressions. All such formations form fossils.
Study of fossils help the researcher to understand the characteristics of the organisms that existed in the.past.
Carbon dating method also helps in finding out exact age of the fossil. According to the structure of earth’s crust the fossils are obtained at specific depths.
The oldest ones are obtained at the depth while the relatively recent ones occupy the upper surface. Thus fossils of invertebrates were seen in very old Palaeozoic era. Later were seen fossils of Pisces, Amphibia and Reptilia. The Mesozoic era was dominated by reptiles while Coenozoic era showed presence of mammals.
In this way, study of fossils unfold the evolutionary secrets.

f. Write evolutionary history of modern man.
Answer:
(1) Ancestors of humans developed from animals which resembled lemur like animals.
(2) Around seven crore years ago, monkey-like animals evolved from some of these lemur like animals.
(3) Then after about 4 crore years ago, in Africa the tails of these monkey like creatures very gradually disappeared.
(4) Simultaneously, there was enlargement in their body and brain volume too. The hands also improved and were provided with opposable thumb. In this way, ape-like animals were evolved.
(5) These ape-like animals independently gave rise to two lines of evolution, one giving rise to apes like gibbon and orangutan in the South and North-East Asia and gorilla and chimpanzee which stayed in Africa around 2.5 crores of years ago.
(6) The other line of evolution gave rise to human like animals around 2 crore years ago.
(7) The climate became dry and this resulted into reduction of forest cover. This made arboreal apes to descend on the land and start terrestrial mode.
(8) Due to this, there were changes in the pefvic
girdle and vertebral column. The hands were also freed from locomotion and thus they became more manipulative.
(9) Later, journey of hominoid species started from around 2 crores years ago. The first record of human like animal is ‘Ramapithecus’ ape from East Africa.
(10) Ramapithecus → Australopithecus → Neanderthal man → Cro-Magnon are the important steps in human evolution.
(11) Neanderthal man was said to be the first wise man. The increasing growth of brain made man more and more intelligent and thinking animal.
(12) Later, more than biological evolution, it was cultural evolution, when man started agriculture, animal , rearing. There was development of civilizations, arts and science etc. About 200 years ago there were industrial inventions and thus man now rules the earth.

Project:

Project 1.
Make a presentation on human evolution using various computer softwares and arrange a group disscussion over it in the class room.

Project 2.
Read the book – ‘Pruthvivur Manus Uparcich’ written by Late Dr. Sureshchandra Nadkarni and note your opinion on evolution.

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 1)

Question 1.
Which component of the cellular nucleus of living organisms carries hereditary characters?
Answer:
The chromosomes made up of nucleic acids and proteins, present in the nucleus of the cell are the components that carry hereditary characters in living organisms.

Question 2.
What do we call the process of transfer of physical and mental characters from parents to the progeny?
Answer:
The process of transfer of physical and mental characters from parents to the progeny is called inheritance or heredity.

Question 3.
Which are the components of the DNA molecule?
Answer:
DNA molecule is made up of two helical strands consisting of deoxyribose sugar, phosphoric acid and pairs of nitrogenous bases. These three together is called a nucleotide.

Choose the correct alternative and write its alphabet against the sub-question number:

Question 1.
Darwin has published a book titled …………..
(a) Natural selection
(b) Mutation
(c) Fall of a sparrow
(d) Origin of species
Answer:
(d) Origin of species

Question 2.
The …………. man evolved about 50 thousand years ago.
(a) Cro Magnon
(b) Neanderthal
(c) Java man
(d) Ramapithecus
Answer:
(a) Cro Magnon

Question 3.
About 10 thousand years ago, ………….. started to practise agriculture.
(a) Gorilla
(b) wise man
(c) Ramapithecus
(d) Australopithecus
Answer:
(b) wise man

Question 4.
………………. can be considered as the first example of wise-man.
(a) Australopithecus
(b) Ramapithecus
(c) Cro Magnon
(d) Neanderthal man
Answer:
(d) Neanderthal man

Question 5.
………. is a connecting link between Annelida and Arthropoda. (March 2019)
(a) Duck-billed platypus
(b) Peripatus
(c) Lung fish
(d) Whale
Answer:
(b) Peripatus

Question 6.
………… years ago human brain was sufficiently evolved to call him wise man.
(a) 50,000
(b) 30,000
(c) 20,000
(d) 10,000
Answer:
(a) 50,000

Question 7.
The process by which the gene in the nucleotide suddenly changes its position is called ………. (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
(a) translation
(b) translocation
(c) mutation
(d) transcription
Answer:
(c) mutation

Question 8.
…………. is not the vestigial organ in the human body. (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
(a) appendix
(b) Coccyx
(c) Canine
(d) Wisdom teeth
Answer:
(c) Canine

Write whether the following statements are true or false with proper justification for your answer:

Question 1.
It takes thousands of years for a useful structure to disappear.
Answer:
False. (The useful structures of the body do not disappear. The functioning of the body is easier due to such organs. It takes thousands of years for a functionless organ to disappear.)

Question 2.
Dr. Har Govind Khorana was awarded Nobel prize for his invention and publication in the journal Radio carbon.
Answer:
False. (Willard Libby was awarded Nobel prize for his invention and publication in the journal Radio carbon.)

Question 3.
Mesozoic era was dominated by variety of mammals.
Answer:
False. (Mesozoic era dominated by variety of reptiles.)

Question 4.
It seems that invertebrates have been slowly originated from vertebrates.
Answer:
False. (Vertebrates have been slowly originated from invertebrates in course of evolution. The primitive type of organisms always give rise to complex life forms. The invertebrates from Palaeozoic era gradually gave rise to vertebrates.)

Question 5.
The decaying process of C-12 occurs continuously from the dead remains of living organisms.
Answer:
False. (The decaying process of C-14 occurs continuously from the dead remains of living organisms. C-12 is not radioactive and hence it does not show decaying process.)

Question 6.
The theory of natural selection which mentions ‘Survival of fittest’ is given by Lamarck.
Answer:
False. (The theory of natural selection which mentions ‘Survival of fittest’ is given by Darwin.)

Question 7.
Changes acquired during life time are transferred to next generation.
Answer:
False. (Changes acquired during life time are not heritable. They are not transferred to next generation. Only the genes are transferred to the next generation.)

Question 8.
Each species grows in specific geographical conditions and has specific food, habitat, reproductive ability and period.
Answer:
True. (Each species has specifically evolved characters due to evolution and speciation.)

Question 9.
Humans walking with upright posture were confined to Africa only during prehistoric period.
Answer:
False. (Humans walking upright existed in Africa and China, Indonesia of Asian continent too.)

Question 10.
Industrial society was established about 200 years ago.
Answer:
True. (After the development and specialization of human brain, he started indulging in science and technology. Before; this period the idea of industrialization was not existing.)

Match the columns:

Question 1.

Scientist	Discovery
(1) Johann Gregor Mendel	(a) Chromosomes of grasshopper
(2) Hugo de Vries	(b) DNA is genetic material
	(c) Pioneer of the modern genetics
	(d) Mutational theory

Answer:
(1) Johann Gregor Mendel – Pioneer of the modern genetics.
(2) Hugo de Vries – Mutational theory.

Question 2.

Scientist	Discovery
(1) Walter, Sutton	(a) Chromosomes of grasshopper
(2) Mclyn McCarthy	(b) DNA is genetic material
	(c) Pioneer of the modern genetics
	(d) Mutational theory

Answer:
(1) Walter, Sutton – Chromosomes of grasshopper.
(2) Mclyn McCarthy – DNA is genetic material.

Question 3.

Evidences of evolution	Examples
(1) Morphological evidences	(a) Duck billed Platypus and Peripatus
(2) Anatomical evidences	(b) Remnants and impressions
	(c) Human hand and fore limb of bull
	(d) Shape and venation of leaf

Answer:
(1) Morphological evidences – Shape and venation of leaf.
(2) Anatomical evidences – Human hand and fore limb of bull.

Question 4.

Evidences of evolution	Examples
(1) Palaeontological evidences	(a) Duck billed Platypus and Peripatus
(2) Connecting links	(b) Remnants and impressions
	(c) Coccyx and wisdom tooth
	(d) Human hand and fore limb of cat

Answer:
(1) Palaeontological evidences – Remnants and impressions.
(2) Connecting links – Duck billed Platypus and Peripatus.

Find the odd one out:

Question 1.
Transcription, Translation, Translocation, Mutation
Answer:
Mutation. (All others are stages of protein synthesis.)

Question 2.
Bones of the hands, structure of nostrils, position of eyes, structure of ear pinnae
Answer:
Bones of the hands. (All the others are morphological evidences.)

Question 3.
Venation, Shape of seeds, Leaf petiole, Leaf shape
Answer:
Shape of seeds. (All the others are morphological evidences in plants.)

Question 4.
Human hand, wing of cockroach, forelimb of bull, flipper of whale
Answer:
Wing of cockroach. (All others are anatomical evidences, they are homologous organs.)

Identify the correlation between the first two words and suggest the suitable words in the fourth place:

Question 1.
mRNA : Transcription :: tRNA :…………
Answer:
Translation

Question 2.
Peripatus : Connecting link :: Appendix :……….
Answer:
Vestigial organs

Question 3.
Open circulatory system : Arthropods :: Thin cuticle and parapodia :………..
Answer:
Annelida

Question 4.
Between Annelida and Arthropoda : Peripatus ::……….: Lungfish
Answer:
Pisces/Fish and Amphibia

Question 5.
Theory of natural selection : Charles Robert Darwin :: Theory of inheritance of acquired characters :…………
Answer:
Jean Baptiste Lamarck

Question 6.
Survival of fittest : Darwin :: Acquired characters :……….
Answer:
Lamark

Question 7.
Wisdom teeth : Vestigial organs :: Lungfish :………..
Answer:
Connecting link.

Define the following:

Question 1.
Heredity.
Answer:
The transfer of biological characters from one generation to another through genes is called heredity.

Question 2.
Transcription.
Answer:

Question 3.
Translation.
Answer:
The process of bringing tRNA possessing anticodon that is complementary to the codon on mRNA for protein synthesis is called translation.

Question 4.
Translocation.
Answer:
The process of movement of the ribosome from one end of mRNA to other end by the distance of one triplet codon is called translocation.

Question 5.
Mutation.
Answer:
Sudden and drastic change that occurs in the genetic material is called mutation.

Question 6.
Species.
Answer:
The group of organisms that cap produce fertile individuals through natural reproduction is called a species.

Name the following:

Question 1.
Three Scientists who proved that except viruses, all living organisms have DNA as genetic material.
Answer:
Oswald Avery, Mclyn McCarthy and Colin MacLeod.

Question 2.
Genetic disorder caused due to mutation:
Answer:
Sickle cell anaemia.

Question 3.
Fish that can breathe with help of lungs:
Answer:
Lung fish.

Question 4.
Vestigial organs in human beings:
Answer:
Appendix, tail-bone or coccyx, wisdom teeth and body hair.

Question 5.
Important stages in the journey of human evolution:
Answer:

Animals like Lemur
Egyptopithecus
Dryopithecus
Ramapithecus
Australopithecus
Skilled Human
Homo erectus i.e. Man with erect posture
Neanderthal man
Cro-Magnon man.

Distinguish between the following:

Question 1.
Transcription and Translation.
Answer:
Transcription:

In the process of transcription, the sequence of nucleotides present on the DNA molecule is copied
and carried to the cytoplasm by mRNA.
The process of transcription takes place in nucleus.
During transcription, RNA is produced from DNA.
Only mRNA takes part in transcription.

Translation:

In the process of translation, the specific amino acids are picked up according to the codons brought by mRNA.
The process of translation takes place in ribosomes located in cytoplasm.
During translation, proteins are produced with the help of RNA.
mRNA, tRNA and rRNA take part in translation.

Question 2.
Ape and Human.
Answer:
Ape:

Brain of the apes is smaller in size.
Ape cannot walk upright.
Ape is less intelligent as compared to human.
Apes are arboreal in their habitat and they spend more time on the trees.
The forelimbs of ape are longer than the hind limbs.

Human:

Brain of humans is larger in size.
Humans can walk upright.
Human is considered to be the most intelligent animal.
Humans are terrestrial in their habitat. They cannot stay on the trees.
The forelimbs of humans are shorter than the hind limbs.

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
Some of the characters of parents are seen in their offspring.
Answer:

The parental genes are transferred to their progeny through male and female gametes.
These genes carry hereditary characters.
Since they are transmitted from the parents to their offspring, one can see the parental characters in their offspring.

Question 2.
Darwin’s work on evolution has been a milestone.
Answer:
(1) Darwin has proposed two very important theories of evolution, viz. Theory of natural selection and Theory of origin of species.
(2) The evolution has taken place on the earth for last many crores of years.
(3) The exact nature and process of these evolutionary changes become clear after studying Darwinism. (4) The observations made by Darwin at that time are now tested according to the modern development in science and are found to be correct. Thus, his work is said to be a milestone.

Question 3.
Peripatus is said to be a connecting link between Annelida and Arthropoda.
Answer:

Peripatus shows segmented body, thin cuticle, and parapodia-like organs.
These characters are typical of Annelids.
Similarly, it also shows tracheal respiration and open circulatory system which is a characteristic feature of Arthropods.
Since Peripatus shares both these characters, it is said to be a connecting link between j Annelida and Arthropoda.

Question 4.
Vertebrates have been slowly originated from invertebrates.
Answer:

When the carbon dating method was used to assess the age of fossils, it was understood that invertebrates were present on the earth much before the vertebrates.
The fossils of invertebrates are present in lower layers of earth’s strata.
They were seen in Palaeozoic era of geological time period. Vertebrates dominated during Coenozoic era.
Their fossils are seen in the upper strata of the earth’s crust.
The structural complexity also increased in vertebrates. All these facts indicate that Vertebrates have slowly originated from invertebrates.

Question 5.
During human evolution the hands became available for use.
Answer:

During human evolution, the climate of earth started becoming dry.
This resulted in loss of forest cover.
The apes which were arboreal on the trees thus descended and started walking on land.
The lumbar bones underwent change and the apes started walking upright on the grasslands.
The vertebral column also underwent change. Due to upright posture the forelimbs were freed from locomotion.
The legs started bearing the weight of the body and the hands became available for use.

Read the following statements and justify the same in your own words with the help of suitable examples:

Question 1.
Geographical and reproductive isolation of organisms gradually leads to speciation.
Answer:

Every species survives in specific geographical conditions. The requirements of food and habitat, is specific for each species. Their reproductive ability and period is also different.
Therefore, the individuals from one species cannot reproduce with individuals from other species.
When they are separated by a distance or geographical barriers they are said to be isolated geographically.
When they cannot reproduce with each other, they are said to be isolated reproductively.
The ancestor species of both these subspecies may be the same but due to isolation over a very long-time duration, there is genetic variation between the two. Therefore, the isolation leads to speciation.

Question 2.
Study of fossils is an important aspect of study of evolution.
Answer:
(1) Fossils offer palaeontological evidence for the evolutionary process.
(2) Due to some natural calamities the organisms get buried during ancient times.
(3) The impressions and remnants of such organisms remain preserved underground. The hot lava also traps some organisms or their impressions. All such formations form fossils.
(4) Study of fossils help the researcher to understand the characteristics of the organisms that existed in the.past.
(5) Carbon dating method also helps in finding out exact age of the fossil. According to the structure of earth’s crust the fossils are obtained at specific depths.
(6) The oldest ones are obtained at the depth while the relatively recent ones occupy the upper surface. Thus fossils of invertebrates were seen in very old Palaeozoic era. Later were seen fossils of Pisces, Amphibia and Reptilia. The Mesozoic era was dominated by reptiles while Coenozoic era showed presence of mammals.
(7) In this way, study of fossils unfold the evolutionary secrets.

Question 3.
There is evidences of fatal Science among chordates.
[Please read the above question as: Among different chordates there are embryological evidences.]
Answer:

Very young embryos of fish, amphibians, reptiles, birds and mammals show quite similar structure in the early stages.
As the further growth takes place, they acquire different patterns.
The initial similarity between the vertebrate embryos is an evidence that during evolution, there was a common ancestor for all the vertebrate classes.
This is called embryological evidence for vertebrate evolution.

Question 4.
Human evolution began approximately 7 crore years ago.
Answer:

Approximately around 7 crore years back the ice age began on the earth. In such conditions, dinosaurs became extinct. The evolution and diversity of mammals started during this time. Due to change in climate the forest cover also declined rapidly.
Ancestors of monkey-like animals were Lemur like animals which evolved during this time period.
The tails of these monkey-like creatures started vanishing very gradually around 4 crore years ago.
The body and brain both increased in volume forming first ape like animals. The monkey like ancestors gave rise to two evolutionary links to apes and human like animals.
Later, the human evolution took place by changes in the brain volume, the ability to walk upright, excessive use of hand for manipulations.
This journey of human evolution began 7 crore years ago. But the true wise and intelligent man arose around 50,000 years ago.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Answer the following questions: (March 2019)
(a) What do you mean by central dogma?
Answer:
Information about protein synthesis is present in DNA. As per this information, proteins are produced by DNA through RNA molecules. This is called central dogma.

(b) What is transcription?
Answer:
The process of synthesis of mRNA as per the nucleotide sequence present in DNA is called transcription. The nucleotide sequence on mRNA is complimentary to that of the single DNA strand used in synthesis. Instead of thymine, mRNA possesses uracil.

(c) What is meant by triplet codon?
Answer:
The code for each amino acids always consists of three nucleotides which is known as triplet codon.

Question 2.
Which animal is called a connecting link between Reptiles and Mammals? (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Answer:
Duck billed platypus is called a connecting link between Reptiles and Mammals.

Question 3.
In which way is science of heredity useful these days?
Answer:
The science of heredity is useful in the following ways:

For diagnosis of hereditary disorders.
For treatment of hereditary disorders
For prevention of hereditary disorders
For production of hybrid varieties of animals and plants
For using microbes in the industrial processes.

Question 4.
What is meant by carbon dating method?
Answer:
(1) Carbon dating method is technique used for determining the age of fossils.
(2) After the death of the organisms, their consumption of carbon stops. But right from that moment the decaying process of C-14 occurs continuously.
(3) This results in change in the ratio between C-14 and C-12. C-12 is not radioactive as C-14.
(4) Thus the time passed since the death of a plant or animal is calculated by measuring the radioactivity of C-14 and ratio of C-14 to C-12 present in their body.
(5) The points noted during carbon dating are:

The period after the organism has been dead.
The activity of C-14 in the dead organism.
Ratio between C-14 and C-12.

Question 5.
Answer the following questions:
(a) Describe briefly the Darwin’s theory of natural selection.
Answer:
Charles Darwin (1809-1882) proposed the theory of natural selection.
Theory of natural selection: ‘The survival of fittest’, i.e., organisms which are fit for survival, evolve while those that are not, perish. The natural selection thus acts to produce new species.

(b) What were the objections raised against Darwinism?
Answer:
Objections raised against Darwinism:

There are other factors too for evolution and just not the Natural Selection.
Arrival of useful and useless modifications were not explained by Darwin, though he said about the survival of the fittest.
He has not given any explanation about slow changes and abrupt changes occurring during evolution.

(c) Which book was published by Darwin to explain this theory? (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Answer:
Charles Darwin wrote the book ‘Origin of Species’.

Question 6.
What were the objections raised against Darwinism?
Answer:
Some of the main objections raised against Darwinism are as follows:

There are other factors too for evolution and just not the Natural Selection.
Arrival of useful and useless modifications were not explained by Darwin, though he said about the survival of the fittest.
He has not given any explanation about slow changes and abrupt changes occurring during evolution.

Question 7.
Answer the following questions:
(a) Explain in brief-Lamarck’s principle of ‘use or disuse of organs’.
Answer:
The theory of use and disuse of organs says that the morphological characters of organism develop because of specific activities that the organisms perform. If some organ is not used it gets degenerated. If excessively, used, it develops. Thus, the morphological changes take place due to activities or non-working of a particular body parts in an organism.

(b) Give two examples.
Answer:
Due to constant extension of neck to eat foliage from the top of the trees, giraffe’s neck became long. Similarly, blacksmith has strong arms due to constant work. The flightless ostrich and emu did not fly and hence their wings became useless. Aquatic birds like swan and duck made their feet suitable for swimming by living in water. Snake lost limbs as it tried burrowing mode.

(c) What are acquired characters?
Answer:
Acquired characters are those characters which are obtained during the life time by any organism and passed on to next generations.

Write short notes:
(OR)
Write short notes based upon the information known to you:

Question 1.
Theory of evolution.
Answer:

According to the theory of evolution, first living material was in the form of protoplasm which was formed in ocean.
Gradually, it gave rise to unicellular organisms. Changes took place in these unicellular organisms which made them evolve into larger and more complex organisms.
All evolutionary changes were very slow and gradual taking about 300 crore years to happen.
Different types of organisms were developed as the changes and development that occurred in living organisms was all round and multi-dimensional.
Hence, this overall process of evolution is called organizational and progressive.
Variety of plants and animals developed from the ancestors having different structural and functional organization during the process of evolution.

By choosing appropriate words given in the bracket, complete the paragraph:

Question 1.
(translation, anticodon, tRNA, mRNA, amino acids, triplet codon, transcription, DNA)
The …….. formed in nucleus comes in cytoplasm. It brings in the coded message from DNA. The message contains the codes for amino acids. The code for each amino acid consists of three nucleotides. It is called as ‘………..’. Each mRNA is made up of thousands of triplet codons. As per the message on mRNA, ……… are supplied by the ………. For this purpose, tRNA has ‘…………’ having complementary sequence to the codon on mRNA. This is called ‘………..’.
Answer:
The mRNA formed in nucleus comes in cytoplasm. It brings in the coded message from DNA. The message contains the codes for amino acids. The code for each amino acid consists of three nucleotides. It is called as ‘triplet codon’. Each mRNA is made up of thousands of triplet codons. As per the message on mRNA, amino acids are supplied by the tRNA. For this purpose, tRNA has ‘anticodon’ having complementary sequence to the codon on mRNA. This is called ‘translation’.

Question 2.
(Cultural, agriculture, fire, brain, Cro-Magnon, Homo sapiens, Neanderthal)
Evolution of upright man continued in the direction of developing its ………. for the period of about 1 lakh years and meanwhile he discovered the ………. Brain of man, 50 thousand years ago had been sufficiently evolved to the extent that it could be considered as member of the species ………… Neanderthal man can be considered as the first example of wise-man. The ……….. man evolved about 50 thousand years ago and afterwards, this evolution had been faster than the earlier. About 10 thousand years ago, wise-man started to practise the ………. It started to rear the cattle-herds and established the cities. ………..development took place later.
Answer:
Evolution of upright man continued in the direction of developing its brain for the period of about 1 lakh years and meanwhile he discovered the fire. Brain of man 50 thousand years ago had been sufficiently evolved to the extent that it could be considered as member of the species Homo sapiens. Neanderthal man can be considered as the first example of wise-man. The Cro-Magnon man eyolved about 50 thousand years ago and afterwards, this evolution had been faster than the earlier. About 10 thousand years ago, wise-man started-to practise the agriculture. It started to rear the cattle-herds and established the cities. Cultural development took place later.

Read the paragraph and answer the questions given below:

With the help of RNA, the genes present in the form of DNA participate in the functioning of cell and thereby control the structure and functioning of the body. Information about protein synthesis is stored in the DNA and synthesis of appropriate proteins as per requirement is necessary for body. These proteins are synthesized by DNA through the RNA. This is called ‘Central Dogma’. mRNA is produced as per the sequence of nucleotides on DNA. Only one of the two strands of DNA is used in this process. The sequence of nucleotides in mRNA being produced is always complementary to the DNA strand used for synthesis. Besides, there is uracil in RNA instead of thymine of DNA. This process of RNA synthesis is called ‘transcription’.

Questions and Answers:

Question 1.
Which part of the cell control the structure and functioning of the body?
Answer:
Genes present in the form of DNA along with RNA control the structure and functioning of the body.

Question 2.
How is a specific protein synthesised in the cell?
Answer:
The information of protein synthesis is stored in the DNA which is utilised as per the requirement of the body. Later the proteins are synthesised by DNA through the RNA.

Question3.
What is the similarity between mRNA and DNA?
Answer:
The sequence of nucleotides on DNA is copied on mRNA. The nucleotide sequence on mRNA is thus complementary to DNA.

Question 4.
Give one difference between RNA and DNA.
Answer:
RNA has uracil instead of thymine which is present in DNA.

Question 5.
Define central dogma.
Answer:
Central dogma is the concept that proteins are synthesised by DNA through the RNA.

Diagram-based questions:

Question 1.
Observe the figure 1.3 of transcription given on page 9 in this chapter and answer the following questions:

(1) What is the sequence of nucleotides present on one strand of the DNA?
Answer:
A T G C A A T T

(2) According to the above sequence on DNA, what will be the transcribed sequence on the mRNA molecule?
Answer:
U A C G U U A A

(3) Which enzyme is taking part in the above process of transcription?
Answer:
RNA polymerase takes part in the process of transcription.

Question 2.
Observe the figure 1.5 of translation and translocation, given on page 9 this chapter and answer the following questions:

(1) Which is the initiation codon? Where is it present?
Answer:
AUG is the initiation codon, which is present on the mRNA.

(2) What are the types of RNA present inside the ribosome? Which triplet codon is present on it?
Answer:
There are two molecules of tRNA present inside the ribosome. The triplet codons present on them are UAC and AAG respectively.

(3) Which genetic code is present on mRNA that is leaving the nucleus? What must be the sequence on the DNA to have such code on mRNA?
Answer:
The mRNA that leaves the nucleus has genetic code: A U G U U C A A A
The genetic code on DNA therefore should be as follows: T A C A A G T T T

Question 3.
Observe the figure 1.6 given on page 10 from this chapter. Answer the following question based on your observations:

What is the significance of this figure from the viewpoint of evolution? Explain in brief.
Answer:
In the figure, the process of mutation is shown. The original nucleotide sequence of TGC is replaced by new mutated sequence GAT. The change in the nucleotide sequence will change the DNA.

This will result in the change in genes and then changing the hereditary characters. Due to such change in genes, the evolution proceeds. The mutation so formed can be minor or major. The greater the impact of the change, the evolution takes place rapidly. The mutation thereby produce recombinations leading to diversity.

Question 4.
Observe the picture and answer the following questions:

(1) Which evidence of evolution is shown in the picture?
Answer:
Embryological evidences of evolution are shown in this picture.

(2) What can be proven with this proof?
Answer:
The similarities in the initial embryonic stages of different vertebrates shows that there was a common origin of all of them. Thus embryological evidences prove that there was common vertebrate ancestor.

(3) Give one more example of evidence of evolution.
Answer:
Palaeontological evidences such as vestigial organs and connecting links are another examples of evolutionary evidences.

Question 5.
Which concept/theory do you remember after seeing this picture of Giraffes? Describe it in brief.

Answer:

The picture is based on the Lamarck’s principle of ‘use and disuse of organs’.
The morphological characters of organism develop because of specific activities that the organisms perform.
If some organ is not used it gets degenerated. If excessively used, it develops further.
Thus, the morphological changes take place due to activities or non-working of a particular body parts in an organism. Due to constant extension of neck to eat foliage from the top of the trees, giraffe’s neck became long.

Activity-based Questions:

Try this: (Text Book Page No. 4)

Observe the above images and note the similarities between given animal images and plant images.
Answer:
The above pictures of the animals show similarities such as structure of mouth, position of eyes, structure of nostrils and ear pinnae and body fur. In pictures of plants there are similarities in characters like leaf shape, leaf venation, leaf petiole, etc.
These above morphological evidences show that there may be a common ancestor for all of the species shown.

Observe and Discuss:

Question 1.
Observe the pictures given below. (Text Book Page No. 5)

Answer:
(1) Fossils offer palaeontological evidence for the evolutionary process.
(2) Due to some natural calamities the organisms get buried during ancient times.
(3) The impressions and remnants of such organisms remain preserved underground. The hot lava also traps some organisms or their impressions. All such formations form fossils.
(4) Study of fossils help the researcher to understand the characteristics of the organisms that existed in the.past.
(5) Carbon dating method also helps in finding out exact age of the fossil. According to the structure of earth’s crust the fossils are obtained at specific depths.
(6) The oldest ones are obtained at the depth while the relatively recent ones occupy the upper surface. Thus fossils of invertebrates were seen in very old Palaeozoic era. Later were seen fossils of Pisces, Amphibia and Reptilia. The Mesozoic era was dominated by reptiles while Coenozoic era showed presence of mammals.
(7) In this way, study of fossils unfold the evolutionary secrets.

Question 2.
Observe the pictures given and discuss the characters observed. (Text Book Page No. 6)

Answer:
Some living organisms possess some characters in them which are the distinctive features of different groups or phyla. Such individuals connect these two groups by sharing the characters of both and hence they are known as connective links.

Project: (Do it your self)

Project 1.
Internet is my friend: (Text Book Page No. 3)
Collect the information from the internet about Big-Bang theory related with the formation of stars and planets and present it in your class.

Project 2.
Use of ICT: (Text Book Page No. 4)
Collect the information of geological dating and present it in the classroom.

Project 3.
Use of ICT: (Text Book Page No. 5)
Find how the vestigial organs in certain animals are functional in others. Present the information in your class and send it to others.

Project 4.
Internet is my friend: (Text Book Page No. 8)
Collect the pictures and information of various species of monkeys from internet.

Class 10 Questions And Answers

10th Std Science Part 2 Questions And Answers: