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Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 4 Cognitive Processes Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Psychology Important Questions Chapter 4 Cognitive Processes

Choose the correct option and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
Stimuli that are near to each other are perceived as a unit, this refers to the law of……………
(a) proximity
(b) continuity
(c) similarity
Answer:
(a) proximity

Question 2.
The learning process by forming associations or connections is called ………………
(a) assimilation
(b) classical conditioning
(c) operant conditioning
Answer:
(b) classical conditioning

Question 3.
…………… is the mental manipulation of information.
(a) Creativity
(b) Learning
(c) Thinking
Answer:
(c) Thinking

Match the pairs.

Question 1.

Group A	Group B
1. Albert Bandura	(a) Learning by assimilation and accommodation
2. B.F. Skinner	(b) Learning by classical conditioning
3. Max Wertheimer	(c) Learning by observation
4. Edward Tolman	(d) Learning by operant conditioning
5. Jean Piaget	(e) Learning by use of cognitive processes
	(f) Laws of perception grouping

Answer:

Group A	Group B
1. Albert Bandura	(c) Learning by observation
2. B.F. Skinner	(d) Learning by operant conditioning
3. Max Wertheimer	(f) Laws of perception grouping
4. Edward Tolman	(e) Learning by use of cognitive processes
5. Jean Piaget	(a) Learning by assimilation and accommodation

State whether the following statements are true or false.

Question 1.
Size and intensity of the stimulus influences attention.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
It is very easy to divide our attention to two tasks simultaneously.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Awareness of the stimuli around us is called perception.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Top-down processing is influenced by the context in which the information occurs.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
The tendency to fill in gaps in an incomplete stimulus so as to perceive it as a meaningful figure refers to the law of closure.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
All changes in behaviour can be attributed to learning.
Answer:
False

Answer the following in one sentence each.

Question 1.
What are cognitive process?
Answer:
Cognitive processes are those processes by which we become aware of and understand the world around us such as sensation, attention, perception, learning, memory, thinking, reasoning, problem solving, etc.

Question 2.
What is attention?
Answer:
Attention is the mental process of bringing few stimuli into the centre of awareness out of the many stimuli present.

Question 3.
What is fluctuation of attention?
Answer:
Our attention shifts from the original stimulus to another stimulus for a fraction of time and then comes back to the original stimulus.

Question 4.
What is perception?
Answer:
Perception is defined as the process of assigning meaning to information received about the environment based on the past experiences.

Question 5.
What is the perceptual law of similarity?
Answer:
Stimuli that are similar to each other are perceived together compared to stimuli that are distinct from each other.

Question 6.
What is thinking?
Answer:
Thinking is the mental activity that uses various cognitive elements and processes that involves the manipulation of information.

Question 7.
Explain the meaning of schema.
Answer:
Schema is an internal representation that organizes knowledge about related concepts and relationships among them.

Question 8.
What is learning?
Answer:
Learning is a relatively permanent change in behaviour that occurs due to experience or practice.

Question 9.
According to B.F. Skinner, how does learning take place?
Answer:
According to B. F. Skinner, learning takes place to gain positive consequences or to avoid negative consequences.

Question 10.
What is Jean Piaget’s view about the learning process?
Answer:
Jean Piaget explains that we learn by forming and refining our concepts on the basis of similarities and differences between the new and existing information.

Explain the concepts in 25 – 30 words each.

Question 1.
Attention
Answer:
Attention is the selective process by which we focus on only a few stimuli from among the various stimuli that are present in our environment. According to Norman Munn, “Attention is the mental process of bringing few stimuli into the centre of awareness out of the many stimuli present”. Attention is influenced by objective factors such as intensity, size, movement, repetition of the stimuli as well as subjective factors like interest, mind-set, experiences of the individual.

Question 2.
Distraction of attention
Answer:
Distraction of attention refers to the drifting of attention from a specific stimulus to another stimulus. This is due to external factors such as intensity, novelty, movement, colour, repetition, etc., of stimuli or internal factors like physical state, lack of interest, mental set of the individual.

Question 3.
Learning
Answer:
Learning is defined as “a relatively permanent change in behaviour that occurs due to experience or practice”. The characteristics of learning are:

1. It involves some relatively permanent change in behaviour.
2. The change in behaviour is due to experience or practice.
3. Change in behaviour may be in knowledge or in skill or in muscular movements.
4. Learning is an inferred process. The main processes by which learning occurs is by Classical Conditioning,
5. Operant Conditioning, Observation, Cognitive processes, etc.

Question 4.
Learning by cognitive processes
Answer:
Learning is a relatively permanent change in behaviour as a result of past experience or practice. According to Edward Tolman, learning may take place using cognitive processes like problem solving, reasoning, concept formation, etc. and not only due to the forming of connections (classical conditioning) or due to consequences of behaviour (operant conditioning).

Answer the following questions in 35 – 40 words each.

Question 1.
What does ‘span of attention’ refer to?
Answer:
Attention is the mental process of bringing few stimuli into the centre of awareness out of the many stimuli present.
It is the total number of stimuli that we can become clearly aware of in a single glance. Span of attention refers to the total number of stimuli that we can become clearly aware of in a single . glance. Span of attention is limited i.e., it is about 7 to 8 items only. Factors like age, intelligence, motivation, practice, etc., of the person affect the span of attention.

Question 2.
Explain division of attention.
Answer:
Attention is the mental process of bringing few stimuli into the centre of awareness out of the many stimuli present.
It is not possible to divide attention to two tasks simultaneously. We can perform two tasks at the same time only if both of them are too simple or mechanical. If we try to pay attention to two tasks at the same time it may result in decreased efficiency and more confusion. Example: if a person has to read a passage from a book and thread a needle simultaneously, it wouldn’t be possible.

Answer the following question 80 – 100 words each.

Question 1.
Types of perceptual processing.
Points:
(i) Top-down processing
(ii) Bottom-up processing
Answer:
Perception is defined as the process of assigning meaning to information received about the environment based on the past experiences.
The two types of processing and Top-down processing and Bottom-up processing.

(i) Top-down processing – If we pay attention to each of our senses all the time, our senses would be overwhelmed. Therefore, many times, our brain uses the context in which it appears or existing knowledge about it while perceiving a particular stimulus. This process is called as top-down processing. When we utilize top-down processing, our ability to understand information is influenced by cognition and context.

Our brain applies what it knows or expects to perceive to understand the stimulus. Top-down processing happens when we work from the general to the specific. It helps us to quickly make sense of the environment. However, perceptual set (our fixed way of viewing stimuli based on past experience/expectations) can hinder our ability to be creative/open-minded.

(ii) Bottom-up processing – Many times our perceptual experience is based entirely on the sensory stimuli and is not influenced by the context in which it appears. In such situations, we take in energy from the environment and convert it to neural signals (sensation) and then try to interpret it (perception). This process is called as bottom-up processing. Bottom-up processing is a process that starts with an incoming stimulus and works upwards until a representation of the object is formed in our brain. Our perceptual experience is based entirely on the sensory stimuli that we piece together. It is only data based i.e., takes place as it happens and requires no previous knowledge or learning.

For e.g.,
13 may be viewed as letter B or the number 13.
This is bottom-up processing-

1. 11, 12, 13, 14 – It is perceived as 13 in the number sequence.
2. ‘I enjoyed the film A13CD’. It is perceived as letter B.

Question 2.
Explain the processes of learning.
Points:
(i) learning by classical conditioning
(ii) learning by operant conditioning
(iii) learning by observation
(iv) learning by assimilation and accommodation
Answer:
Learning is defined as a relatively permanent change in behaviour that occurs due to past experience or practice.
The characteristics of learning are:

1. It involves some relatively permanent change in behaviour,
2. The change in behaviour is due to experience or practice,
3. Change in behaviour may be in knowledge, e.g. learning a new formula, or in skill, e.g. learning to ride a cycle, or in muscular movements.
4. Learning is an inferred process.

The processes of learning are:
(i) Learning by classical conditioning – Classical conditioning was first explained by Ivan Pavlov. It is learning by forming associations and by stimulus substitution. In daily life, we learn many things this way. Example: a child is given an injection by the doctor and begins to cry in pain. He soon makes the connection between ‘doctor’, ‘injection’ and ‘pain’ and begins crying as soon as he is taken to a doctor. Many of our fears, phobias and superstitions are learnt by classical conditioning.

(ii) Learning by operant conditioning – Learning by operant conditioning was first explained by B. F. Skinner. He said that learning takes place to gain positive consequences or to avoid negative consequences. Example: in Skinner’s experiment a rat was put in a special box that had a lever. When the rat pressed the lever, it received a food pellet. Gradually it learnt to press the lever to receive the pellet of food. In daily life, we tend to learn some behaviour either because we are rewarded for it or because we are not punished for it.

(iii) Learning by observation – According to Albert Bandura, we learn by observation and imitation of the of behaviour of others, etc. Both desirable behaviour and for e.g., empathy, and undesirable behaviour for e.g., bullying, can be learned this way. This occurs, in respect to skills, for e.g., eating with a fork/spoon as well as in our thinking, decision making, etc.

(iv) Learning by assimilation and accommodation – Jean Piaget explains that we learn by forming and refining our concepts on the basis of similarities and differences between new and existing information. Example: A child forms a concept of cow by extracting some characteristics of the cow. When the child encounters a buffalo he/she notices the differences between cow and buffalo and forms a new concept of buffalo.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 3 Personality Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Psychology Important Questions Chapter 3 Personality

Choose the correct option and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
………………… are outgoing, friendly, and talkative individuals.
(a) Introverts
(b) Extroverts
(c) Ambiverts
Answer:
(b) Extroverts

Question 2.
In the ……………. interview, the direction of the interview is predetermined.
(a) structured
(b) unstructured
(c) projective
Answer:
(a) structured

Question 3.
Rorschach’s Ink-Blots are a …………… test of personality.
(a) self-report
(b) situational
(c) projective
Answer:
(c) projective

Question 4.
……………….. is a self-report technique of personality assessment.
(a) TAT
(b) MBTI
(c) WAIS
Answer:
(b) MBTI

Question 5.
Projective techniques are based on the ………………… perspective.
(a) Behavioural
(b) Psychoanalytic
(c) Trait
Answer:
(b) Psychoanalytic

Match the Pair

Question 1.

Group A	Group B
1. S.R. Hathaway	(a) TAT
2. Hermann Rorschach	(b) Trait theory of personality
3. Morgan and Murray	(c) Type perspective of personality
4. McCrae and Costa	(d) MMPI
5. Gordon Allport	(e) Humanistic perspective of personality
6. Carl Jung	(f) Ink-blot test
	(g) Five factor model

Answer:

Group A	Group B
1. S.R. Hathaway	(d) MMPI
2. Hermann Rorschach	(f) Ink-blot test
3. Morgan and Murray	(a) TAT
4. McCrae and Costa	(g) Five factor model
5. Gordon Allport	(b) Trait theory of personality
6. Carl Jung	(c) Type perspective of personality

State whether the following statements are true or false.

Question 1.
Mass media plays a major role in personality development.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
A person who is high on conscientiousness will be hardworking, punctual and responsible.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Peer group influence on personality is always positive.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
According to the social cognitive perspective, observational learning plays an important role in personality development.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Cardinal traits are the building blocks of personality.
Answer:
False

Question 6.
Individuals who are high on openness to experience tend to be sensitive and sometimes nonconforming.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
Sentence Completion Test is a self-report technique.
Answer:
False

Answer the following in one sentence each.

Question 1.
What is a trait?
Answer:
A trait is a relatively enduring and consistent way of thinking, feeling and acting.

Question 2.
Name the two types of interviews.
Answer:
The two types of interviews are Structured interview and Unstructured interview.

Question 3.
According to Allport, what are the categories of traits ?
Answer:
According to Allport, the three categories of traits are Cardinal traits, Central trails and Secondary traits.

Question 4.
Who developed the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)?
Answer:
C.D. Morgan and Henry Murray developed the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT).

Question 5.
What was the early interpretation of personality?
Answer:
Personality was earlier interpreted as “projected behaviour” of an individual.

Question 6.
How do endocrine glands affect our personality?
Answer:
Over secretion or under secretion of hormones produced by the endocrine glands can adversely affect our personality.

Question 7.
What are some undesirable effects of excessive dependence on mass media by any person?
Answer:
Excessive dependence on mass media may lead to egocentrism, poor academic performance, sleep disturbances, etc.

Question 8.
What is the assumption of the type perspective of personality?
Answer:
The assumption of the type perspective of personality is that every individual has an unique personality type based on his/her physique, temperament and mental characteristics.

Question 9.
What does ambiverts refer to?
Answer:
In real life, most individuals tend to exhibit a blend of traits of introverts and extroverts, i.e., ambiverts.

Question 10.
Why do secondary traits play a minor role in personality?
Answer:
Secondary traits play a minor role in personality as they appear only in specific situations or under specific circumstances.

Question 11.
What does conscientiousness refer to?
Answer:
Conscientiousness concerns the way in which people control, regulate and direct their impulses.

Question 12.
What does neuroticism refer to?
Answer:
Neuroticism refers to a tendency to experience negative emotions such as anger, anxiety or depression more intensely and for longer periods than most people.

Define / Explain the concepts in 25 – 30 words each.

Question 1.
Introverts
Answer:
Carl Jung classified individuals into introverts and extroverts, based on the characteristics exhibited by them. Characteristics of introverts are:

1. Introverts tend to look within themselves for stimulation
2. they are shy, reserved, avoid social interactions
3. they choose careers and hobbies that do not involve much social contact
4. they may be sensitive to criticism.

Question 2.
Extroverts
Answer:
Carl Jung classified individuals into introverts and extroverts, based on the characteristics exhibited by them. Characteristics of extroverts are:

1. Extroverts depend on external stimulation and evaluate themselves based on impressions of others
2. they tend to be outgoing, cheerful, optimistic
3. they choose careers and hobbies that bring them in contact with others.
4. they tend to be enthusiastic, and full of energy.

Question 3.
Cardinal trait
Answer:
A trait is a relatively enduring and consistent way of thinking, feeling and acting. It is some distinctive characteristic of the person that leads him/her to behave in more or less consistent ways across situations and over a period of time. According to Gordon Allport, the categories of traits are Cardinal traits, Central traits and Secondary traits.

Cardinal trait is a single trait that dominates the individual’s personality. Every action of the person can be traced to the influence of this trait, for e.g., in case of Gandhiji honesty was the cardinal trait, in case of Napoleon, the cardinal trait was ambition.

Question 4.
Neuroticism
Answer:
Five factor model of personality is based on the trait perspective. It was proposed by Robert McCrae and Paul Costa. The five broad trait factors are-

1. Openness to Experience
2. Conscientiousness
3. Extroversion
4. Agreeableness
5. Neuroticism.

Neuroticism refers to a tendency to experience negative emotions such as anger, anxiety or depression more intensely and for longer periods than experienced by other people. Those who score high on neuroticism tend to be irritable, fearful, emotionally unstable and interpret ordinary situations as threatening and hopeless. Individuals who score low on neuroticism tend to be more emotionally stable and less likely to be frustrated or experience loneliness, guilt and anger.

Question 5.
Self-report inventories
Answer:
Personality can be assessed using techniques such as Self Report Measures (Inventories), Behavioural Analysis Techniques and Projective Techniques. In self-report inventories such as Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) 16 Personality Factor Questionaire (16 PFQ), etc., the individual provides information of his/ her personality by responding to statements/questions on the inventory. Responses are scored in quantitative terms and interpreted on the basis of norms that are developed for the test.

Answer the following questions in 35 – 40 words each.

Question 1.
How does the peer group influence personality of an individual?
Answer:
Peer groups refers to individuals of the same age group, e.g., classmates or sharing the same interests, e.g., members of a sports club. Influence of the peer group is most noticed in adolescence since it serves as a reference group. The influence of peer group on the person may be positive such as developing healthy gender attitudes, skills of communication, etc., or it may be negative e.g., developing aggressive tendencies, prejudices, etc.

Question 2.
Explain openness to experience as a factor in personality.
Answer:
According to the Five Factor Model proposed by Robert McCrae and Paul Costa, the five broad trait factors are:

1. Openness to Experience
2. Conscientiousness
3. Extroversion
4. Agreeableness
5. Neuroticism

People who are open to experience are intellectually curious imaginative, appreciative of art, sensitive to beauty. They sometimes tend to think and act in nonconforming, adventurous ways. Those with low openness to experience tend to be cautious, pragmatic, consistent and some times may be dogmatic.

Question 3.
Explain the psychoanalytic perspective of personality.
Answer:
The word personality is derived from the Latin word ‘persona’. According to Gordon Allport, “Personality is the dynamic organization within-the individual of those psychophysical systems that determines his unique adjustments to the environment.” The main perspectives of studying personality are Psychoanalytic, Humanistic, Social Cognitive, Trait perspective, etc.

The Psychoanalytic perspective explains that early childhood experiences and the unconscious mind play a role in personality development. Sigmund Freud is the main proponent of the psychoanalytic perspective.

Question 4.
Elaborate on central traits
Answer:
A trait is a relatively enduring and consistent way of thinking, feeling and acting. It is some distinctive characteristic of the person that leads him/her to behave in more or less consistent ways across situations and over a period of time. According to Gordon Allport, the categories of traits are Cardinal traits, Central traits and Secondary traits.

Central traits are a ‘core’ or ‘basic’ characteristics that form the building blocks of personality. There are about 5-10 traits such as sensitivity, sociability, diligence, etc., that can best describe an individual’s personality.

Write short notes on the following in 50 – 60 words each.

Question 1.
Carl Jung’s Theory of Personality.
Answer:
The word personality is derived from the Latin word ‘persona’ which was used to refer to masks worn by actors during a stage performance, Thus, the meaning of personality was interpreted as ‘projected behaviour’ of an individual.

According to Gordon Allport, “Personality is the dynamic organization within the individual of those psychophysical systems that determines his unique adjustments to the environment.” Carl Jung classified individuals into introverts and extroverts, based on the characteristics exhibited by them.
(a) The characteristics of introverts are:

1. they tend to look within themselves for stimulation
2. they are shy, reserved, avoid social interactions
3. they choose careers and hobbies that do not involve much social contact
4. they may be sensitive to criticism.

(b) The characteristics of extroverts are:

1. they depend on external stimulation and evaluate themselves based on impressions of others
2. they tend to be outgoing, cheerful, optimistic
3. they choose careers and hobbies that bring them in contact with others.
4. they tend to be enthusiastic, and full of energy.

In real life, most individuals tend to exhibit a blend of traits of introverts and extroverts i.e. ambiverts.

Question 2.
Interview as an assessment tool of personality.
Answer:
The word personality is derived from the Latin word ‘persona’ which was used to refer to masks worn by actors during a stage performance, Thus, the meaning of personality was interpreted as ‘projected behaviour’ of an individual.

According to Gordon Allport, “Personality is the dynamic organization within the individual of those psychophysical systems that determines his unique adjustments to the environment.” Personality can be assessed using techniques such as Self Report Measures (Inventories), Behavioural Analysis Techniques and Projective Techniques. Behavioural Analysis techniques include Interview and Observation.

Interview – It is a process in which the interviewer collects information about the personality of an interviewee by asking him/her specific questions. The main types of interview, depending on the purpose of assessment are – structured interview and unstructured interview.

(i) Structured interview – The number, type and sequence of questions to be asked in the interview are pre-determined. The answers expected are also specific. This type of interview is used where exact quantification is required, for e.g., industrial psychologists use structured interviews to select employees for a job.

(ii) Unstructured interview – The type and sequence of questions to be asked by the interviewer are not pre-determined. Detailed answers can be given and scoring is often subjective. It is employed by clinical psychologists, counsellors, etc.

Question 3.
Projective techniques.
Answer:
Projective techniques emerged from the psychoanalytic perspective. The individual responds freely to relatively unstructured or ambiguous stimuli/material. It is assumed that individuals project their own personality onto these stimuli, often revealing personal conflicts, hidden urges, coping styles, etc. Projective techniques cannot be scored in an objective manner. They use various materials like ink-blots, ambiguous pictures, incomplete sentences, word associations, etc. Main projective techniques include Rorschach’s The Ink-Blot Test, Tests, Thematic Apperception Test (TAT), Sentence Completion Test, etc.

Question 4.
Rorschach’s Ink-Blots
Answer:
Projective Techniques are a method of personality assessment. Projective techniques emerged from the psychoanalytic perspective. The individual responds freely to relatively unstructured . or ambiguous stimuli/material. It is assumed that individuals project their own personality onto these stimuli, often revealing personal conflicts, coping styles, etc. Projective techniques cannot be scored in an objective manner. They use various materials like ink-blots, ambiguous pictures, incomplete sentences, word associations, etc.

This test was developed by Hermann Rorschach in 1921. It uses ten irregular-ink-blots (five in black and white, five in colour.) standing against a white background. Each ink-blot is shown in a fixed number of ways and the subjects are asked to describe what they see in each card. The subjects are allowed to hold the card in any position they want, whether it’s upside down or sideways. Analysis of this test requires trained and skilful examiner.

Answer the following questions with given points in 80 – 100 words each.

Question 1.
Elaborate on the various projective techniques.
Points:
(i) Rorschach’s Ink-Blots
(ii) Thematic Apperception Test
(iii) Sentence Completion Test
Answer:
The word personality is derived from the Latin word ‘persona’ which was used to refer to masks worn by actors during a stage performance, Thus, the meaning of personality was interpreted as ‘projected behaviour’ of an individual.

According to Gordon Allport, “Personality is the dynamic organization within the individual of those psychophysical systems that determines his unique adjustments to the environment.”

The main assessment methods of personality are Self Report Inventories, Behavioural Analysis techniques and Projective Techniques. Projective techniques emerged from the psychoanalytic perspective. The individual responds freely to relatively unstructured or ambiguous stimuli/material. It is assumed that individuals project their own personality onto these stimuli, often revealing personal conflicts, coping styles, etc. Projective techniques cannot be scored in an objective manner. They use various materials like ink-blots, ambiguous pictures, incomplete sentences, word dissociations, etc. Main projective techniques include Rorschach’s Ink-Blot Tests, Thematic Apperception Test (TAT), Sentence Completion test, etc.

(i) Rorschach’s Ink-Blot Test:
This test was developed by Hermann Rorschach in 1921. It uses ten irregular-inkblots (five in black and white, five in colour.) standing against a white background. Each inkblot is shown in a fixed number of ways and the subjects are asked to describe what they see in each card. The subjects are allowed to hold the card in any position they want, whether it’s upside down or sideways. Analysis of this test requires trained and skilful examiner.

(ii) Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) :
The TAT was developed by Morgan and Murray in 1935. It requires the individual to look at the picture and to interpret it by telling a story. The individual is invited to say what led up to the scene in the picture, why such events occurred, what is currently happening and what the consequences will be?

(iii) Sentence-completion test:
Sentence completion test (SCT) is a type of projective technique used to assess personality. The individual is given a series of incomplete sentences and is asked to complete them in his/her own words, for e.g., My mother …………., My greatest fear is ………….. It is assumed that the
endings provided by the person will reflect their motivation, urges, internal conflicts etc.

Answer the following questions in 150 – 200 words each.

Question 1.
Define personality. Explain the factors that affect personality.
Answer:
The word personality is derived from the Latin word ‘persona’ which was used to refer to masks worn by actors during a stage performance, Thus, the meaning of personality was interpreted as ‘projected behaviour’ of an individual.

According to Norman Munn, “Personality is a unique combination of individual’s physical structure, needs, interests, abilities and aptitudes.” According to Gordon Allport, “Personality is the dynamic organization within the individual of those psychophysical systems that determines his unique adjustments to the environment.” Personality is shaped by biological factors like heredity and endocrine glands and by psychosocial factors like family, peer groups, school and culture.

(i) Heredity – It implies the genetic inheritance of an individual. Heredity affects the physical characteristics, for e.g., height, physique, etc. It also influences the self-concept which in turn influences personality.

(ii) Endocrine glands – Personality is shaped by endocrine glands like pituitary, thyroid, adrenals, pancreas, gonads, etc. Over secretion or under secretion of hormones produced by these glands can adversely affect our personality, for e.g., over secretion of growth hormone by the pituitary gland leads to gigantism (very tall).

(iii) F amily – As the first agency of socialization, the fqmily exerts a strong influence on personality. Aspects of family such as family structure, atmosphere, and relationships, family interactions and childrearing practices influence personality, for e.g., if parents show rejection or over protection, etc., towards the child, it leads to low self-esteem and has adverse effects on the personality.

(iv) Peer group – It refers to individuals of the same age group, e.g., classmates or sharing the same interests, e.g., members of a sports club. Influence of the peer group is most noticed in adolescence since it serves as a reference group. The influence of peer group on the person may be positive such as developing healthy gender attitudes, skills of communication, etc., or it may be negative e.g., developing aggressive tendencies, prejudices, etc.

(v) School – Various aspects of school such as teaching-learning process, academic and co-curricular facilities, role of the teachers, school location, management and discipline, etc., influence the child’s personality, for e.g., teachers who are well qualified, creative, build a rapport which the students, tend to motivate students and help to develop a good personality.

(vi) Mass media – It includes print media e.g., newspapers; audio-visual media e.g., T.V. and new media e.g., internet. Media is a source of information, education, entertainment and even socialization. It has a considerable effect on our value system, behaviour patterns and personality. However, excessive dependence on media may lead to egocentrism, poor academic performance, difficult in concentration, sleep disturbance, etc.

(vii) Cultural factors – Culture refers to the customs, values and social behaviour of a particular society. Every culture has its own set of beliefs, norms, expectations, etc., which influence the thoughts, feelings and behaviour of its members.

Question 2.
Discuss the various methods of personality measurement.
Answer:
The word personality is derived from the Latin word ‘persona’ which was used to refer to masks worn by actors during a stage performance, Thus, the meaning of personality was interpreted as ‘projected behaviour’ of an individual.

According to Gordon Allport, “Personality is the dynamic organization within the individual of those psychophysical systems that determines his unique adjustments to the environment.” According to Norman Munn, “Personality is a unique combination of individual’s physical structure, needs, interests, abilities and aptitudes

The main methods to assess personality include Behavioural Analysis techniques, Projective techniques and Self-Report Measures (Personality inventories).

(i) Behavioural Analysis
Behavioural Analysis techniques such as Interview and Observation can provide information about an individual’s personality in a variety of situations.
(a) Interview – It is a process in which the interviewer collects information about the personality of an interviewee by asking him/her specific questions. The main types of interview depending on the purpose of assessment are: structured interview and unstructured interview

1. Structured interview – The number, type and sequence of questions to be asked are pre-determined. The answers expected are also specific. This type of interview is used where exact quantification is required, for e.g., industrial psychologists use structured interviews to select employees for a job.

2. Unstructured interview – The type and sequence of questions to be asked by the interviewer are not pre-determined. Detailed answers can be given and scoring is often subjective. It is employed by clinical psychologists, counsellors, etc.

(b) Observation – The types of observation include Naturalistic observation, Laboratory observation, Participant observation, Non-participant observation, etc. This method is useful only when there is a trained observer, clear objectives and adequate guidelines for observations.

(ii) Self-Report Techniques (Inventories)
The individual provides information about his/her personality by responding to statements/ questions on the inventory, for e.g., Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI), Cattell’s 16 Personality Factor Questionnaire, etc. Responses are scored in quantitative terms and interpreted on the basis of norms that are developed for the test.

(a) Rorschach’s Ink-Blot Test: This test was developed by Hermann Rorschach in 1921. It uses ten irregular-inkblots (five in black and white, five in colour.) standing against a white background. Each inkblot is shown in a fixed number of ways and the subjects are asked to describe what they see in each card. The subjects are allowed to hold the card in any position they want, whether it’s upside down or sideways. Analysis of this test requires trained and skilful examiner.

(b) Thematic Apperception Test (TAT): The TAT was developed by Morgan and Murray in 1935. It requires the individual to look at the picture and to interpret it by telling a story. The individual is invited to say what led up to the scene in the picture, why such events occurred, what is currently happening and what the consequences will be?

(c) Sentence-completion test: Sentence completion test (SCT) is a type of projective technique used to assess personality. The individual is given a series of incomplete sentences and is asked to complete them in his/her own words, for e.g., My mother …………., My greatest fear is ………. It is assumed that the endings provided by the person will reflect their motivation, urges, internal conflicts etc.

(iii) Projective Techniques
Projective techniques emerged from the psychoanalytic perspective. The individual responds freely to relatively unstructured or ambiguous stimuli/material. It is assumed that individuals project their own personality onto these stimuli, often revealing urges/desires, personal conflicts, coping styles, etc. Projective techniques cannot be scored in an objective manner. They use various materials like ink-blots, ambiguous pictures, incomplete sentences, word , dissociations, etc.

Main projective techniques include Rorschach’s Ink-Blot Tests, Thematic Apperception Test (TAT), Sentence Completion Test, etc.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Political Science Important Questions Chapter 1 The World Since 1991 Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Political Science Important Questions Chapter 1 The World Since 1991

Complete the following statements by selecting the appropriate option.

Question 1.
The world order was dominated by the in the early part of the post-cold war area.
(a) UK
(b) Soviet Union
(c) USA
(d) EU
Answer:
(c) USA

Question 2.
The term ‘New World Order’ was first used by
(a) Woodrow Wilson
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Joseph Nye
(d) George H. Bush
Answer:
(d) George H. Bush

Question 3.
In 1993, the World Conference on Human Rights was held in
(a) Vienna
(b) Belgrade
(c) Paris
(d) New York
Answer:
(a) Vienna

Question 4.
Market reforms were introduced in People’s Republic of China in the mid 1970s under leadership of
(a) Mao-Tse-Tung
(b) Deng Xiaoping
(c) Jinping
(d) Chou-en-Lai
Answer:
(b) Deng Xiaoping

Question 5.
Shenzhen Area is related to the region.
(a) Asia
(b) South Asia
(c) European Union
(d) South America
Answer:
(c) European Union

Question 6.
In 2007, became a member of SAARC.
(a) China
(b) Maldives
(c) India
(d) Afghanistan
Answer:
(d) Afghanistan

Question 7.
…………………. acts as a bridge between South Asia and South East Asia.
(a) BIMSTEC
(b) BRICS
(c) ASEAN
(d) SAARC
Answer:
(a) BIMSTEC

Identify the incorrect pair in every set and correct it.

Question 1.
(a) Kosovo – Serbia
(b) Catalonia – France
(c) Chechnya – Russia
Answer:
(b) Catalonia – Spain

Question 2.
(a) Nepal – SAARC
(b) Myanmar – BIMSTEC
(c) SCO – Afghanistan
Answer:
(c) SAARC – Afghanistan

Complete the following sentences by selecting the appropriate reason.

Question 1.
There were revolutions in East European States because ………………….
(a) they desired more freedom and economic wellbeing
(b) they were now aligned to the USA.
(c) of the rise of multipolarity.
Answer:
(a) they desired more freedom and economic wellbeing

Question 2.
Schengen Visa in significant because ………………….
(a) it is a kind of trade bloc.
(b) it allows individuals to travel freely in 26 Schengen area countries.
(c) it allows all European Union States free trade and travel.
Answer:
(b) it allows individuals to travel freely in 26 Schengen area countries.

State the appropriate concept for the given statements.

Question 1.
When a State gets other countries to act in ways contrary to their preferences, using coercion.
Answer:
Hard power

Question 2.
The use of violence or threat of violence with an intention to create panic in society.
Answer:
Terrorism

Question 3.
The military campaign launched by then US President, George W. Bush in response to the 9/11 terrorist attacks.
Answer:
War on Terror

Question 4.
The agreement which resulted in abolition of internal borders between five European nations in 1985.
Answer:
Schengen Agreement

Question 5.
The executive-bureaucratic arm of the EU.
Answer:
European Commission

Question 6.
This forum acts as a platform for discussion between developed and developing nations.
Answer:
G-20

Question 7.
Group of nations make special agreements regarding their economic relationships.
Answer:
Trade Bloc.

Find the odd word.

(1) Croatia, Montenegro, Serbia, Latvia
(2) Belgium, France, Spain, Germany.
(3) China, Russia, Tajikistan, Ukraine.
(4) Cambodia, Thailand, Nepal, India.
Answer:
(1) Latvia (was not created due to disintegration of Yugoslavia)
(2) Spain (not a signatory to Schengen Agreement in 1985)
(3) Ukraine (not a member of SCO)
(4) Cambodia (not a member of BIMSTEC)

Expand the following abbreviations.

BIMSTEC
SAARC
SAFTA
NATO
UNTAC
ASEAN
EEC
ECSC
Answer:
BIMSTEC – The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation.
SAARC – South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation.
SAFTA – South Asian Association Free Trade Area.
NATO – North Atlantic Treaty Organisation.
UNTAC – United Nations Transitional Authority in Cambodia.
ASEAN – Association of South East Asian Nations.
EEC – European Economic Community.
ECSC – European Coal and Steel Community.

Complete the concept maps.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Observe the maps in the textbook and answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Name any four countries in the Schengen area.
Answer:
Sweden, Denmark, Germany, Belgium, France.
Question 2.
Name any two non-European Union countries within Schengen area.
Answer:
Norway, Romania, Bulgaria, Croatia.

Question 3.
Name any two countries who are EU members but not Schengen member.
Answer:
Belarus, Ukraine Serbia

Question 1.
Write two neighbouring countries of Iraq.
Answer:
Syria, Jordan, Iran, Kuwait.

Question 2.
Write two African nations bordered by the Red Sea
Answer:
Sudan, Eritrea

Question 3.
Write two countries bordered by the Gulf of Aden.
Answer:
Yemen, Somalia, Djbouti.

Question 4.
Write two ‘seas’ bordering Turkey.
Answer:
Black Sea, Mediterranean Sea.

State whether the following statements are true or false with reason.

Question 1.
‘New World Order’ described by US President George H. Bush was the first expression of the unipolar world order.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. During the Gulf war (Iraq invasion of Kuwait), the USA led a multinational force to free Kuwait from Iraqi control. Countries of the NATO, Arab States, as well as Israel, China, Soviet Union, etc., supported the US in this action.
2. Eventually, the meaning of the term ‘New World Order’ came to imply US dominance in matters of security at the global level i.e. unipolarity.

Question 2.
Terrorism in the world today is different from traditional forms of terrorism.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. Traditional forms of terrorist activity included hijackings, bombings, assassinations of political leaders, etc. This mainly targeted institutions of the government and was associated with separatist movements or struggles for the rights of some specific people e.g., I.R.A.
2. Modern day terrorism is motivated by an abstract ideology towards abstract goals and the operations are global in nature e.g., 9/11 attacks in the USA were carried out by Osama Bin Laden led Al-Qaeda based in Afghanistan.

Question 3.
There has been a shift from unipolar to multipolar world order in recent times.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. In the post Cold War era, due to it’s military, technological and economic might, the USA was the only superpower.
2. However, in recent times, the dominant position of USA has been directly or indirectly challenged by factors such as
   (a) European Union, (b) military resurgence of Russia (c) rise of Asia through the presence of China, Japan and India in the global world order, (d) new regional organisations like BRICS, BIMSTEC, etc.

Explain the correlation between the following.

Question 1.
Rise of China and Russia and Multipolarity
Answer:
After the end of the Cold War, USA emerged as the only super power due to it’s technological and military superiority and the use of‘Soft Power’. However, this dominant position of the USA has been challenged in recent times by China and Russia.

China’s rise to global prominence began in the mid 1970s due to market reforms introduced by Deng Xiaoping. China aims to create a sphere of influence in Central and East Asian regions through ambitious projects like One Belt One Road and China Pakistan Economic Corridor. China is also building up it’s naval and air power in order to back up it’s claims in the South China Sea.

Russia has emerged as an energy superpower due to its progress in oil and gas production and military assertiveness. It continues to influence Central and Eastern Europe. Both China and Russia are founding members of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation. Thus, China and Russia have also become significant centres of power, challenging US dominance.

Question 2.
UN Peacekeeping – Conflict zones.
Answer:
One of the main tasks of the UN Peacekeeping is to prevent conflicts from escalating or recurring, to maintain peace and to protect human rights of the affected people. The UN thus intervened in Cambodia, Somalia, Yugoslavia, Afghanistan, Syria, etc.

The United Nations does not have its own army. But in order to maintain international peaee and security, member States of the United Nations, have created a peacekeeping force out of their own military resources. This force known as UN Peacekeeping Force. The Peacekeepers are sent to conflict-prone or war zones, based upon UN Security Council recommendations, often when ceasefires are established.

Answer the following

Question 1.
Elaborate on ‘Self determination based on ethnic identity’ that arose after the end of the cold war.
Answer:
In 1991, the Soviet Union disintegrated leading to the creation of many new States. The revolutions in the East European countries also led to many new countries being formed. All this was against communist regimes, as the people within these regions desired freedom and economic progress. Ethnic identity of various people in the region became stronger, leading to the demand for creation of new States based on ethnic identity. Some examples of this trend are-

1. Yugoslavia split into Croatia, Serbia, Bosnia, Slovenia, etc.
2. Czechoslovakia split into Czech Republic and Slovakia in 1993.
3. Former Soviet Union disintegrated into fifteen States such as Russia, Armenia, Belarus, Ukraine, Estonia, etc.

Creation of new States based on ethnic nationalism was also seen in other parts of the world for e.g.

1. East Timor (became independent from Indonesia).
2. Eretria (became independent from Ethiopia).
3. South Sudan (became independent from Sudan).
4. Chechnya (wants independence from Russia).

Question 2.
Describe how USA became the only superpower after the end of the cold war.
Answer:
In 1991, the Soviet Union disintegrated and the Cold War ended. This led to the end of an international order dominated by the two superpowers i.e., USA and Soviet Union. Bipolarity gave rise to unipolarity. During the invasion of Kuwait by Iraq, the USA took the initiative and led a multinational force to free Kuwait. The US President, George H. Bush used the term ‘New World Order’ to describe the existing global situation. The US initiative was supported by China, Israel, Arab States, Soviet Union and countries of the NATO. Soviet Union was facing internal problems so not much opposition was possible against the USA. Thus, the term ‘New World Order’ implied American dominance and it’s leadership in matters of security was accepted at the global level. This was the first expression of the unipolar world order.

Answer the following question in detail with help of given points.

Question 1.
Discuss the European Union with help of given points.
(a) History
(b) European Commission
(c) European Parliament
(d) European Council
(e) European Court of Justice
Answer:
(a) History – The European Coal and Steel Community (ECSC) and European Economic Community (EEC) were created to foster economic interdependence. On 7th February 1992, the Maastricht Treaty was signed to create the European Union. This led to expansion of spheres of cooperation to include internal affairs, judicial matters, foreign policy, etc. The Euro (€) is the official currency of 19 out of 28 countries of the EU. These nations are collectively called ‘Eurozone’.

(b) European Commission – The Commission is the executive bureaucratic arm of the EU. It is mainly responsible for drawing up proposals for new European legislation,and it implements the policy decisions of the European Parliament and the Council of the EU.

(c) European Parliament – The European Parliament is composed of 751 Members, who are directly elected every five years. It is a body entrusted with legislative, supervisory, and budgetary responsibilities.

(d) European Council – The structure of the European Council consists of the Presidents or Prime Ministers of each member State, accompanied by their foreign ministers, and a full¬time President of the European Council. The European Council meets four times a year and provides strategic leadership for the EU.

(e) European Court of Justice (ECJ) – The ECJ interprets, and adjudicates on, EU law and treaties. As EU law has primacy over the national law of EU member States.

Question 2.
Elaborate on developments in the post-cold war period.
(a) Rise of new States
(b) Emergence of unipolarity
(c) Humanitarian intervention
(d) Terrorism
(e) Multipolarity and Regionalism
Answer:
The disintegration of the Soviet Union ended the era of the Cold War as well as the East-West division of the world. Developments in the post-Cold War period can be analyzed through five dimensions.
(a) Rise of new States – The East European revolution of 1989, led to assertion of ethnic nationalism based on the right to self determination. It was an expression of the middle class for freedom and economic well being as well as for autonomy and eventually for independence. Many new States were created based on ethnic identity for e.g., Yugoslavia split into States like Croatia, Serbia, Bosnia-Herzegovina, etc. Similarly, 15 new States were created after the collapse of the Soviet Union.

(b) Emergence of unipolarity – In 1990, Iraq invaded Kuwait. The USA led a multinational force to free Kuwait from Iraqi control. The US President, George H. Bush had described this victory as ‘New World Order’ as the multinational support to the USA came from NATO, Israel, Soviet Union, China and many Arab countries. After the collapse of the Soviet Union in 1991, the world became unipolar and the New World Order implied US dominance and leadership in matters of global security. They had political and economic dimensions. The US employed “Soft Power” method i.e., without use of coercion or military force but through socio-cultural and economic influence.

(c) Humanitarian intervention – There have been many instances of ethnic conflicts and bloodshed in the creation of new States particularly in Bosnia, East Timor, Somalia, Cambodia, etc. The UN Peacekeeping Force has intervened in a number of conflict situations to bring about peaceful resolution of the conflict as well as to maintain peace and protect human rights. Humanitarian intervention refers to an increasing awareness about the significance of human rights and the need for their protection.

(d) Terrorism – Terrorism is defined as the use of violence, or the threat to use violence with an intention to create panic in society, in the pursuit of political/religious/ideological goals. Terrorist groups indulge in hijackings, bombings, etc., and are usually associated with separatist movements. Modern day terrorist operations are global in nature. Some instances of terrorist attacks post 1991, include Al-Qaeda attacks on 11th September 2001 in Washington D.C, Bali (2002), Mumbai (2008), etc.

(e) Multipolarity and Regionalism – In the post cold war era, the USA emerged as the only superpower. However, in recent times, the dominant position of the USA has been challenged due to the rise of Asian nations like China, Japan and India creation of the European Union; military resurgence of Russia and growing importance of regional organisations like SAARC, etc.

Regionalism refers to creation of regional organisations based on geographical proximity or on common ideological, political, economic concerns in areas like communication, health, energy, education, etc. In the 1960s organisations like ASEAN focused on economic issues.

Question 3.
Describe the following regional organisations in the post cold war era.
(a) European Union
(b) SAARC
(c) BIMSTEC
(d) Shanghai Cooperation Organisation
(e) G-20
Answer:
(a) EuropeanUnion-The European CoalandSteel Community (ECSC) and European Economic Community (EEC) were created to foster economic interdependence. On 7thFebruary 1992, the Maastricht Treaty was signed to create the European Union. This led to expansion of spheres of cooperation to include internal affairs, judicial matters, foreign policy, etc. The Euro (€) is the official currency of 19 out of 28 countries of the EU. These nations are collectively called Eurozone.

The Schengen Agreement (1985) was signed by France, Germany, Belgium, Netherlands and Luxembourg. Today 22 countries are part of the Schengen Area which is an area without internal borders. The EU functions on four key institutions viz. European Commission, European Parliament, European council and European court of Justice. The UK formally ended it’s membership of the EU on 31st January 2020.

(b) SAARC – It was formed in 1985 at Dhaka with seven members viz. Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka. In 2006, SAFTA was activated. Afghanistan joined SAARC in 2007. There are also nine observers such as EU, China, UK, USA, etc.

(c) BIMSTEC – The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation was established in 1997. It comprises of five countries from South Asia viz. Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Sri Lanka and two countries from South-East Asia viz. Myanmar, Thailand. BIMSTEC aims to facilitate collaboration and rapid economic development among countries lying in adjacent areas of the Bay of Bengal.

(d) Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) – It was founded in 2001 in Shanghai by the leaders of China, Russia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan. In 2016, India and Pakistan joined the SCO. The focus of SCO is to bring about peace, stability and cooperation in the Eurasian region.

(e) G-20 – This forum was created in 1999 with the aim to discuss policies relating to financial stability. It includes developed countries like USA, UK, France, Germany the EU as well as developing countries like Argentina, Brazil, India.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 2 Intelligence Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Psychology Important Questions Chapter 2 Intelligence

Choose the correct option and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
Self-driving cars function on ………………… intelligence.
(a) artificial
(b) general
(c) alternate
Answer:
(a) artificial

Question 2.
…………………. revised the Binet-Simon Intelligence Scales in 1916.
(a) Terman
(b) Spearman
(c) Stern
Answer:
(a) Terman

Question 3.
Raj is generally impatient, apathetic and restless. He exhibits ……………… emotional intelligence.
(a) high
(b) satisfactory
(c) low
Answer:
(c) low

Question 4.
Army Alpha is a ……………….. test of intelligences.
(a) verbal-individual
(b) verbal-group
(c) performance-group
Answer:
(b) verbal-group

Question 5.
Toxic behaviour indicates a low level of ……………….. intelligence.
(a) social
(b) cognitive
(c) artificial
Answer:
(a) social

Question 6.
If MA is greater than CA then the child has ………………. intelligence.
(a) average
(b) below average
(c) above average
Answer:
(c) above average

Question 7.
According to ……………….., intelligence is composed of seven primary mental abilities.
(a) Thorndike
(b) Gardner
(c) Thurstone
Answer:
(c) Thurstone

Match the pairs.

Group A	Group B
(1) Alfred Binet	(a) concept of IQ
(2) Lewis Terman	(b) concept of emotional intelligence
(3) William Stern	(c) concept of multiple intelligence
(4) Mayer and Salovey	(d) concept of Mental Age
(5) Howard Gardner	(e) Two Factor Theory of intelligence
(6) Charles Spearman	(f) Stanford-Binet Scale

Answer:

Group A	Group B
(1) Alfred Binet	(d) concept of Mental Age
(2) Lewis Terman	(f) Stanford-Binet Scale
(3) William Stern	(a) concept of IQ
(4) Mayer and Salovey	(b) concept of emotional intelligence
(5) Howard Gardner	(c) concept of multiple intelligence
(6) Charles Spearman	(e) Two Factor Theory of intelligence

State whether the following statements are true or false.

Question 1.
Paper pencil tests are non-verbal tests of intelligence.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
According to the modern notion of intelligence, distinct types of intelligences exist.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
If MA = CA, then the individual has average intelligence.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Performance tests are more efficient to measure higher mental abilities.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Verbal tests are culture free tests.
Answer:
False

Question 6.
Artificial Intelligence can take decisions independently.
Answer:
False

Answer the following in one sentence each.

Question 1.
What type of tests is Army Beta test?
Answer:
Army Beta test is a group non-verbal test.

Question 2.
What was the classical notion of intelligence?
Answer:
The classical notion of intelligence explains it as an unitary ability and only the functions of intelligence may take different forms.

Question 3.
Which two tests were developed in 1917 for recruitment of soldiers?
Answer:
Army Alpha test and Army Beta test were the two tests developed in 1917 for recruitment of soldiers during First World War.

Question 4.
What is meant by Social Intelligence?
Answer:
According to Karl Albrecht, “Social intelligence is the ability to get along well with others and to get them to cooperate with oneself’.

Question 5.
What are the two factors of intelligence according to Charles Spearman?
Answer:
According to Charles Spearman the factors of intelligence are General factor and Specific factor.

Question 6.
What are the two types of intelligence according to Cattell and Horn?
Answer:
According to Cattell and Horn the two types of intelligence are Fluid intelligence and Crystallized intelligence.

Explain the concepts in 25 – 30 words each.

Question 1.
Intelligence
Answer:
Intelligence is the highest attribute of human beings. Different psychologists have defined intelligence differently. Lewis Terman explains intelligence as, “An ability to think on an abstract level.” David Wechsler defines intelligence as, ‘The aggregate or global capacity of an individual to act purposefully, to think rationally and to deal effectively with his environment.”
The two main perspectives on intelligence are-

1. Intelligence as a single, general ability
2. Intelligence as a set of multiple abilities

Question 2.
Multiple Intelligences
Answer:
The modern view of intelligence as explained by psychologists like Charles Spearman (Two Factor Theory), E. L. Thorndike, Louis Thurstone (7 Primary Mental Abilities) Howard Gardner, etc. states that multiple abilities are involved in intelligence. They believe that distinct types of intelligences exist. Howard Gardner in his theory of multiple intelligence asserted that there are nine independent types of intelligence that grow and develop differently in different people, depending upon the individual’s heredity characteristics or environmental experiences for e.g., linguistic intelligence, musical intelligence, etc.
These nine types of intelligences are-

1. Linguistic intelligence,
2. Logical-mathematical intelligence
3. Spatial intelligence
4. Musical intelligence
5. Bodily-kinesthetic intelligence
6. Interpersonal intelligence
7. Intra-personal intelligence
8. Naturalistic intelligence and
9. Existential intelligence.

Answer the following questions in 35 – 40 words each.

Question 1.
What is the application of tests of intelligences.
Answer:
Intelligence tests are of great significance today.

1. Effective Schooling – On the basis of intelligence test scores, teachers can classify students into intellectual categories and devise special instructional programmes suited to their mental development.
2. Aids Mental Health Personnel – Intelligence tests are helpful to Mental Health personnel such as psychologists etc., for diagnosis purposes and therapy.
3. Effective Parenting – Parents can provide appropriate educational facilities to their children based on their IQ scores.
4. Career Counselling – Scores obtained on intelligence tests help the student to select the right educational options/ courses.
5. Vocational Counselling – Individuals can choose a suitable career and achieve job satisfaction when they make a realistic choice a vocation based on IQ scores.

Question 2.
Write the characteristics of people with high emotional intelligence.
Answer:
The term emotional intelligence was used for the first time by John Mayer and Peter Salovey. It is defined as ‘the ability to perceive and monitor one’s own and others emotions, to discriminate among them and to use this information to guide one’s thinking and actions.’ Persons with high emotional intelligence have the following characteristics:

1. They tend to be patient and emotionally stable.
2. They tend to be satisfied, enthusiastic and happy.
3. They tend to show independence and optimism.
4. They exhibit the ability to understand and regulate emotions of themselves and others.

Question 3.
Write the applications of Artificial Intelligence.
Answer:
The term Artificial intelligence was suggested by John McCarthy. Artificial intelligence is an innovation created by human intelligence. It refers to enabling software programmes and computer systems to perform tasks that normally require human intelligence.

Today, Artificial Intelligence is used on a large scale to perform various daily routine tasks as well as to solve various critical problems. For example, it is used for:

1. Speech recognition
2. Natural language processing
3. Spam filtering from emails
4. Medical diagnosing
5. Detecting frauds in economic transactions
6. Weather forecasting, etc.

Question 4.
Explain E.L. Thorndike’s view about intelligence.
Answer:
Intelligence is the highest attribute of human beings. Different psychologists have defined intelligence differently.
Lewis Terman explains intelligence as, “an ability to think on an abstract level.”
David Wechsler defines intelligence as, “the aggregate or global capacity of an individual to act purposefully, to think rationally and to deal effectively with his environment.”
E. L. Thorndike put forth three independent abilities that can be called intelligence.

1. Abstract intelligence – It refers to the ability to engage in verbal and symbolic thinking.
2. Social intelligence – It refers to the ability to communicate with people, understand and perform social relations.
3. Concrete (mechanical) intelligence – It refers to the ability to effectively control one’s body and to manipulate objects.

Question 5.
Explain Cattell and Horn’s theory of intelligence.
Answer:
Intelligence is the highest attribute of human beings. Different psychologists have defined intelligence differently.
Lewis Terman explains intelligence as, “an ability to think on an abstract level.”
David Wechsler defines intelligence as, “the aggregate or global capacity of an individual to act purposefully, to think rationally and to deal effectively with his environment.”
Raymond Cattell with his student John Horn proposed a theory of intelligence explaining two types of intelligence viz.

1. Fluid intelligence is dependent on neurological development and it is relatively free from the influences of learning and experiences.
2. Crystallized intelligence is not dependent on one’s neurological development and it is a function of one’s educational attainment, acquired experiences and stock of knowledge.

Write short notes on the following in 50 – 60 words.

Question 1.
Howard Gardner’s theory of Multiple Intelligences.
Answer:
Intelligence is the highest attribute of human beings. Different psychologists have defined intelligence differently.
David Wechsler defines intelligence as, ‘the aggregate or global capacity of an individual to act purposefully, to think rationally and to deal effectively with his environment.’
The two main perspectives on intelligence are-
(i) Intelligence as a single, general ability – The classical notion of intelligence explains it as an unitary ability and only the functions of intelligence may take different forms. Psychologists like Alfred Binet, David Wechsler, William Stern and Lewis Terman believed that intelligence is a single index of cognitive abilities.

(ii) Intelligence as a set of multiple abilities – The modern view of intelligence as explained by psychologists like Charles Spearman, E.L. Thorndike, Howard Gardner, etc., states that multiple abilities are involved in intelligence.

Howard Gardner in his theory of multiple intelligence asserted that there are nine independent types of intelligence that grow and develop differently in different people, depending upon the individuals heredity characteristics or environmental experiences. These nine types of intelligences are-

1. Linguistic intelligence
2. Logical-mathematical intelligence
3. Spatial intelligence
4. Musical intelligence
5. Bodily-kinesthetic intelligence
6. Interpersonal intelligence and
7. Intra-personal intelligence
8. Naturalistic intelligence and
9. Existential intelligence

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 1 Psychology: A Scientific Discipline Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Psychology Important Questions Chapter 1 Psychology: A Scientific Discipline

Choose the correct option and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
……………………. was the school of thought in psychology that focused on the power of free will towards self-actualization.
(a) Humanistic Psychology
(b) Behaviourism
(c) Structuralism
Answer:
(a) Humanistic Psychology

Question 2.
………………….. method is the most objective and scientific method used in Psychology.
(a) Correlation
(b) Experimental
(c) Survey
Answer:
(b) Experimental

Question 3.
A pre-determined set of respondents on whom the survey is conducted is called the ……………..
(a) variable
(b) coefficient
(c) sample
Answer:
(c) sample

Question 4.
………………… is the qualitative research method extensively used by clinical psychologists.
(a) Observation
(b) Survey Method
(c) Case study method
Answer:
(c) Case study method

Question 5.
Correlation between Urbanization and Pollution will be ………………
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) zero
Answer:
(a) positive

Question 6.
The value of negative correlation is …………………..
(a) 0.00 to-0.50
(b)-1.00 to 0.00
(c) 0.00 to-1.00
Answer:
(c) 0.00 to-1.00

Question 7.
Reactions of commuters stuck in heavy traffic can be best studied using the ………………. method.
(a) experimental
(b) case study
(c) observation
Answer:
(c) observation

Question 8.
An experiment is conducted to study the effect of practice on memory. In this, the Independent Variable (I.V)
(a) practice
(b) experiment
(c) memory
Answer:
(a) practice

Question 9.
The method of Introspection was advocated by ……………….
(a) William James
(b) Sigmund Freud
(c) Wilhelm Wundt
Answer:
(c) Wilhelm Wundt

Match the pair

Question 1.

Group ‘P’	Group ‘Q’
Rational Emotive Behavioural Therapy	(a) Jean Piaget
Psychoanalysis	(b) Ivan Pavlov
Humanistic Psychology	(c) Albert Ellis
Case Study Method	(d) Sigmund Freud
	(e) Carl Rogers

Answer:

Group ‘P’	Group ‘Q’
Rational Emotive Behavioural Therapy	(c) Albert Ellis
Psychoanalysis	(d) Sigmund Freud
Humanistic Psychology	(e) Carl Rogers
Case Study Method	(a) Jean Piaget

State whether the following statements are true or false.

Question 1.
Functionalism focused on the study of human consciousness.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
A sample is a tentative supposition which attempts to explain some facts.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Experiments in psychology cannot be repeated.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
The Dependent Variable is manipulated by the experimenter.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Rational individuals are more likely to be tolerant and show flexibility.
Answer:
True

Answer the following in one sentence each.

Question 1.
What is meant by Dependent Variable?
Answer:
Dependent Variable is the change in behaviour that occurs in the participants as a result of the Independent Variable introduced by the experimenter.

Question 2.
Write the tools employed in the survey method.
Answer:
Survey method employs tools like questionnaires, check lists, interview, inventories and rating scales.

Question 3.
Write the types of correlation.
Answer:
There are three types of correlation, i.e., positive correlation, negative correlation and zero correlation.

Question 4.
What is the focus of Humanistic Psychology?
Answer:
According to Rogers, the focus of Humanistic Psychology is the power of free will, self-determination and self-actualization.

Question 5.
What sources does case study rely on?
Answer:
Case study provides descriptive information about the person from sources such as family, peers, neighbours, teachers, academic records, health records and results of psychological tests.

Question 6.
What does rationality mean?
Answer:
According to Stanovich, “Rationality involves adaptive reasoning, good judgment and good decision making.”

Question 7.
Which two schools of thought in Psychology were replaced by Cognitivism during the 1950’s and 1960’s?
Answer:
Psychoanalysis and Behaviourism were the two schools of thought in psychology replaced by Cognitivism during the 1950’s and 1960’s.

Write short notes on the following in 50 – 60 words each.

Question 1.
Elaborate the key features of a science.
Answer:
The word science is derived from the Latin word ‘Scientia’ which means ‘Knowledge’. Science is the pursuit and application of knowledge and understanding of the natural and social world, following a systematic methodology based on evidence.
The key features of a science are:

1. Empirical evidence – It refers to acquiring information through direct observation or experiments. Scientific knowledge is based on verifiable evidence.
2. Objectivity – This refers to the ability to observe and accept facts as they exist, setting aside all sources of expectations, values, prejudices, etc.
3. Scientific causality – Science aims to establish cause-effect between the variables under consideration, i.e., the effect of the Independent Variable on the Dependent Variable.
4. Systematic exploration – Science adopts a sequential procedure for studying various phenomena. It includes scientific steps like formulating a hypothesis, collection of facts, scientific generalization, etc.
5. Replication – Scientific knowledge can be replicated under the same circumstances as the original experiment. This ensures reliability of results towards establishing a scientific theory.
6. Predictability – Science involves describing and explaining phenomena as well as to make predictions accordingly.

Question 2.
Explain the correlation method.
Answer:
A correlation refers to a statistical tool used to measure the relationship between two or more variables. If the change in one variable is accompanied by a change in the other variable, this interdependence is called correlation. It is measured by correlation coefficient which extends between -1.00 to +1.00. Direction of correlation can be positive or negative.
The types of correlation are:

1. Positive – Both variables move in the same direction i.e., both increase or both decrease. It extends 0.00 to +1.00 for e.g., identical twins reared together showed IQ correlation of +.88.
2. Negative – Variables move in the opposite direction i.e., increase in one variable is associated with a decrease in the other variable. The value of negative correlation is 0.00 to -1.00 for e.g., high level of job satisfaction and low level of absenteeism.
3. Zero – Any change in one variable brings about no significant change in the other variable. Value of coefficient is 0 for e.g., height and intelligence.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Political Science Important Questions Chapter 6 India and the World Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Political Science Important Questions Chapter 6 India and the World

Complete the following statements by selecting the appropriate option.

Question 1.
The core of nonalignment was
(a) Independent understanding of world affairs
(b) Participation in cold war
(c) Democratic socialism as policy
(d) Policy of regionalism
Answer:
(a) Independent understanding of world affairs

Question 2.
Farakka Agreement about sharing of river waters is between India and
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Pakistan
(c) China
(d) Nepal
Answer:
(a) Bangladesh

Question 3.
The vision for India Ocean Rim Association (IORA) originated in 1995 during the visit of to India.
(a) Nelson Mandela
(b) Yasser Arafat
(c) Pervez- Musharraf
(d) President Jayewardene
Answer:
(a) Nelson Mandela

Question 4.
The main building at NDA, Pune is named to reflect cooperation between India and
(a) Indonesia
(b) Russia
(c) Sudan
(d) Nepal
Answer:
(c) Sudan

Question 5.
Objective of India Foreign Policy is incorporated in DPSP as Article
(a) 44
(b) 356
(c) 370
(d) 51
Answer:
(d) 51

Question 6.
The First Summit meeting of NAM in 1961 was held at
(a) Bandung
(b) Belgrade
(c) Dhaka
(d) Jakarta
Answer:
(b) Belgrade

Question 7.
After India’s nuclear test in 1998, took the lead in imposing sanctions on India.
(a) USA
(b) France
(c) China
(d) Russia
Answer:
(a) USA

Question 8.
In 2008, India signed a Civil Nuclear Cooperation Agreement with
(a) Russia
(b) France
(c) USA
(d) Canada
Answer:
(c) USA

Question 9.
In 1971, India signed a Friendship Treaty with
(a) USA
(b) Soviet Union
(c) China
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(b) Soviet Union

Question 10.
The war in 1962 was between India and
(a) China
(b) Pakistan
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Bangladesh
Answer:
(a) China

Question 11.
In the late 1990s, Foreign Minister Primakov mooted the idea of a Trilateral Summit between Russia, India and
(a) USA
(b) Pakistan
(c) China
(d) Vietnam
Answer:
(c) China

Question 12.
Status of Kashmir has been a cause of tension between India and
(a) Bangladesh
(b) China
(c) Afghanistan
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(d) Pakistan

Question 13.
In 1972, Shimla Agreement was signed between India and
(a) USA
(b) Russia
(c) Pakistan
(d) China
Answer:
(c) Pakistan

Question 14.
In 1975, the Himalayan Kingdom of opted to integrate with India.
(a) Nepal
(b) NEFA
(c) Sikkim
(d) Bhutan
Answer:
(c) Sikkim

Identify the incorrect pair in every set and correct it.

Question 1.
(a) Myanmar – Aung San Suu Kyi
(b) Bangladesh – Mujibur Rahman
(c) Pakistan – Jayewardene
Answer:
(b) ANZUS – Australia, New Zealand, USA

Question 2.
(a) Lahore Agreement (1999) – Pakistan
(b) Friendship Treaty (1971) – Bangladesh
(c) Nuclear Cooperation Agreement (2008) – USA
Answer:
(b) Friendship Treaty (1971) – Soviet Union

Complete the following sentences by selecting the appropriate reason.

Question 1.
Relations with West Asian countries are important for India because ……………..
(a) they work as a counter against Pakistan.
(b) they are important trade partners.
(c) they are important dialogue partners in SAARC.
Answer:
(a) they work as a counter against Pakistan.

Question 2.
Jawaharlal Nehru is called ‘architect of India’s foreign policy’ because ……………….
(a) he was the first Foreign Minister of India.
(b) his speech in September 1946 spelt out core features of India’s foreign policy.
(c) he was instrumental in signing of treaties with China.
Answer:
(b) his speech in September 1946 spelt out core features of India’s foreign policy.

Question 3.
Relations between India and China have been strained due to …………………
(i) border disputes such as Aksai Chin.
(ii) China’s support to Pakistan.
(iii) India has given political asylum to the Dalai Lama.
(a) none of the above.
(b) only (i) and (ii)
(c) all of the above.
Answer:
(c) all of the above.

Question 4.
The Sagarmala project is aimed at ………………….
(a) countering piracy and securing trade routes.
(b) promoting port-led development in India.
(c) promoting exclusive economic zone in the India Ocean.
Answer:
(b) promoting port-led development in India.

State the appropriate concept for the given statements.

Question 1.
2008, India-US Agreement.
Answer:
Civil Nuclear Cooperation Agreement

Question 2.
Rebel, militant Tamil group in Sri Lanka.
Answer:
LTTE

Question 3.
Policy due to which India began significant relations with South-East Asian nations.
Answer:
Look East, Act East

Question 4.
It was created in March 1997 to promote balanced and sustained development in India Ocean region.
Answer:
Indian Ocean Rim Association.

Find the odd word.

Question 1.
Sukhoi fighter aircraft, Brahmos missiles, Sakhalin-1 oil fields, BIMSTEC.
Answer:
BIMSTEC (not included in Indo-Russia relations)

Question 2.
NEFA, Nepal, Tibet, BRI.
Answer:
Nepal (not an issue in China-India relations)

Question 3.
PLO, ARF, SCO, SAARC.
Answer:
P. L. O (India is not associated)

Question 4.
Nepal, Sikkim, Myanmar, Bhutan.
Answer:
Myanmar (not a Himalayan kingdom)

Expand the following abbreviations.

(1) SEATO
(2) IAEA
(3) NEFA
(4) LTTE
(5) PLO
(6) ARF
(7) IORA
(8) ONGC
(9) LAC
(10) AFRICA Fund
Answer:
(1) SEATO – South East Asia Treaty Organisation
(2) IAEA – International Atomic Energy Agency
(3) NEFA – North East Frontier Agency
(4) LTTE – Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam
(5) PLO – Palestine Liberation Organisation
(6) ARF – ASEAN Regional Forum
(7) IORA – The Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation
(8) ONGC – Oil and Natural Gas Commission
(9) LAC – Line of Actual Control
(10) AFRICA Fund – The Action for Resisting Invasion, Colonialism and Apartheid Fund

Complete the concept maps.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Observe the maps in textbook and answer the following questions.

1.

Question 1.
Name the three water bodies bordering India.
Answer:
Bay of Bengal, Indian Ocean, Arabian Sea.

Question 2.
Name three countries bordering India to the North.
Answer:
China, Nepal, Bhutan.

Question 3.
Name three countries bordering Afghanistan.
Answer:
Pakistan, Iran, Uzbekistan, Turkmenistan

Question 4.
Name three countries lying in the Indian Ocean.
Answer:
Sri Lanka, Indonesia, Maldives

2.

Question 1.
Name three countries around South China Sea.
Answer:
Philippines, Vietnam, China, Taiwan.

Question 2.
Name three African countries bordered by Indian Ocean.
Answer:
Somalia, Mozambique, Tanzania.

Question 3.
Name two West Asian countries bordered by water on the east.
Answer:
Yemen, Oman bordered by waterbody on the east.

State whether the following statements are true or false with reason.

Question 1.
In the past two decades Indo-US relations have improved considerably.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. During the Cold War and even immediately after that, Indo-US relations were strained mainly due to India’s nonaligned policy and US support to Pakistan.
2. However, India supported US war on terrorism and later the signing of India-US Civil Nuclear Cooperation Agreement (2008) led to bettering of ties between USA and India. US regards India as a major trade and defence partner.

Question 2.
International situation has played a significant role in determining India’s Foreign Policy.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. Factors like geography, history, economy, political leadership have impacted India’s foreign policy. During the Cold War, superpower politics impacted India’s policy.
2. There were many significant changes in India’s foreign policy when the Cold War ended.
3. India’s relations with world powers like USA and with its own neighbours like China and Pakistan have influenced its foreign policy.

Question 3.
Indian foreign policy has undergone a change post 1990s
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. During the Cold War era, Indian foreign policy had evolved around three pillars viz. nonalignment in international relations, preservation of autonomy in domestic affairs and solidarity among developing nations.
2. After 1991, Indian economy opened under economic liberalisation. India developed relations with different nations based on realistic understanding of national interest. Thus, India emerged as a significant economic and technological power post 1990s.

Explain the correlation between the following.

Question 1.
Political leadership – India’s foreign policy.
Answer:
The principles of India’s foreign policy include respect for the sovereignty and territorial integrity of all nations, belief in peaceful coexistence and peaceful resolution of international disputes. One of the main factors influencing foreign policy is the political leadership of the country. India’s first Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru’s speech spelt out the core feature of India’s foreign policy i.e., friendly relations with England, USA and Soviet Union.

He was a co-founder of the Non- Aligned Movement and opted not to be a part of any military alliance. Prime Ministers who have played an important role in India’s foreign policy include Lai Bahadur Shastri (Indo-Pak war 1965 and Tashkent Agreement) Indira Gandhi (Indo-Pak war, 1971 and Shimla Agreement) Rajiv Gandhi (peacekeeping force to Sri Lanka, 1987), Atal Bihari Vajpayee, Dr. Manmohan Singh and Narendra Modi.

Express your opinion of the following.

Question 1.
India-US relations.
Answer:
During the Cold War, relations between India and US were strained due to several reasons

1. India kept out of US led military alliances like CENTO, etc., and co-founded Non-Aligned Movement.
2. India’s criticism of US intervention in Vietnam.
3. US position on the Kashmir issue and constant support to Pakistan.

Even after end of the Cold War, Indo-US relations did not immediately improve. The US brought pressure on the new State of Russia to stop supply of space technology to India. After India carried out its second nuclear testing in 1998 at Pokhran, the US not only imposed economic sanctions on India but also pressurized other nations like Canada, Japan, etc. to impose sanctions as well. However, towards the end of the last century Indo-US ties have improved due to the following reasons-
1. Anti-terrorism stance – India supported President George W. Bush’s “war on terrorism” similarly, after the 2001, terrorist attack on Indian Parliament by Pakistan supported terrorist groups, US demanded that Pakistan should stop sponsoring cross-border terrorism.

2. Partnership apd Agreements – The US regards India as a major partner in the Indo- Pacific region. India regards the USA as a major source of investment and partner in trade and defence as well as in multilateral fora like India-US-Japan forum. In 2008, the India-US Civil Nuclear Cooperation Agreement was signed by which India became the only country outside NPT that has nuclear capabilities.

Answer the following questions in 80 to 100 words.

Question 1.
Elaborate on India’s “Look East, Act East” policy.
Answer:
After independence, Jawaharlal Nehru attempted to weave unity among countries of Asia. One of the major partners in this effort was Indonesia. During the Cold War period, India’s relations with most of the South-East Asian nations was nominal. In 1991, India under Prime Minister P. V. Narsimha Rao propounded the “Look East” Policy as an effort to cultivate extensive economic and strategic relations with the South-East Asian countries and bolster it’s standing as a regional power. Subsequent Prime Ministers such as Atal Bihari Vajpayee and Dr. Manmohan Singh also pursued this policy.

In 2014, under Prime Minister Narendra Modi a more outcome-based policy of Act East was announced to focus more on relations with ASEAN and other East Asian countries especially Vietnam and Japan. India has particularly good relations with Singapore which is a major investor in India. Relations with Thailand, Malaysia, Indonesia have also improved. India has a Free Trade Agreement with the ASEAN and is a partner in ASEAN Regional Forum (ARF) a regional security group. India has promoted regional cooperation groups like BIMSTEC.

Question 2.
Describe India-Pakistan relations.
Answer:
1. There have been tensions and military standoffs between India and Pakistan since 1947 for e.g., Conflict of 1947-48, Kargil conflict (1999) as well as two-wars (1965, 1971). The main problem areas between India and Pakistan is over the Kashmir issue. India has accused Pakistan of sponsoring cross border terrorism in Indian territory.

2. China-Pakistan Economic Corridor is a route for Chinese investments in Pakistan. China has extended support to Pakistan on the Kashmir issue while Pakistan recognizes China’s claims to Aksaichin.

3. Disputes over sharing of the Indus river waters and Baglihar Dam issue. Efforts have been made to improve bilateral relations between India and Pakistan such as the Shimla Agreement (1972) signed between Prime Minister Indira Gandhi and President Z. A. Bhutto. In 1999, Prime Ministers of India and Pakistan signed three agreements. Both countries have launched several mutual confidence building measures such as the Delhi-Lahore bus service, hotlines between Prime Ministers of India and Pakistan, etc.

Answer the following question with reference to the given points.

Question 1.
Elaborate on India’s relations with
(a) USA
(b) Russia / Soviet Union
(c) China
Answer:
India has played an active role in international relations even before independence for e.g., as a signatory at the San Francisco Conference that gave shape to the United Nations Charter.
The primary objectives of India’s Foreign Policy are:

1. Maintenance of international peace and security.
2. Protection of the sovereignty and integrity of the country.
3. Maintaining good relations with neighbouring countries and with regional groups such as ASEAN.
4. Greater integration with the world economy in order to sustain a high growth rate.

(a) USA – During the Cold War, relations between India and US were strained due to a number of reasons:

1. India kept out of US led military alliances like CENTO, etc., and co-founded Non- Aligned Movement.
2. India’s criticism of US intervention in Vietnam.
3. US position on the Kashmir issue and constant support to Pakistan.

Even after end of the Cold War, Indo-US relations did not immediately improve. The US brought pressure on the new State of Russia to stop supply of space technology to India. After India carried out its second nuclear testing in 1998 at Pokhran, the US not only imposed economic sanctions on India but also pressurized other nations like Canada, Japan, etc. to impose sanctions as well.

(b) Russia / Soviet Union – During the Cold War era, Soviet Union provided aid to India in the form of technology, weapons and low-interest credit to India’s heavy industry projects in the public sector. Indo-Soviet Friendship Treaty (1971) is considered a milestone in their bilateral relations. After the disintegration of the Soviet Union, Russia agreed to provide reactors for India’s Kudankulam nuclear power plant and for joint ventures to produce Sukhoi fighter aircraft and Brahmos missiles. Both India and Russia have major Stakes in Russia oil fields such as Sakhalin-1 highlighting the importance of energy security.

(c) China – In 1949, the Communist revolution took place in China. India was among the first nations to recognize the People’s Republic of China. In 1954, India and China signed the Panchsheel Agreement and India also recognised Chinese Suzerainty on Tibet. The main hindrances in Sino-Indian relations are-

1. 1962 Indo-China war and 2017 Dokhlam skirmish.
2. Border disputes in AksaiChin and NEFA region.
3. China has been critical of India offering political asylum to the Dalai Lama.
4. Chinese support to Pakistan.
5. India’s apprehensions about China’s Belt and Road Initiative.

On the positive side India-China relationship has improved

1. Agreement on maintenance of peace and tranquility along the LOC.
2. China has become among the largest trading partners of India.
3. India and China are part of BRICS and SCO.
4. In the late 1990s, Russia mooted the idea of a Trilateral Summit of Russia, China, India which was a recognition of India’s status as a major regional power.

Question 2.
Elaborate on India’s relations with
(a) Pakistan
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Sri Lanka
Answer:
India has played an active role in international relations even before independence for e.g., as a signatory at the San Francisco Conference that gave shape to the United Nations Charter. The primary objectives of India’s Foreign Policy are:

1. Maintenance of international peace and security.
2. Protection of the sovereignty and integrity of the country.
3. Maintaining good relations with neighbouring countries and with regional groups such as ASEAN.
4. Greater integration with the world economy to sustain a high growth rate.

(a) Pakistan-
1. There have been tensions and military standoffs between India and Pakistan since 1947 for e.g., Conflict of 1947-48, Kargil conflict (1999) as well as two wars (1965, 1971). The main problem areas between India and Pakistan is over the Kashmir issue. India has accused Pakistan of sponsoring cross border terrorism in Indian territory.

2. China-Pakistan Economic Corridor is a route for Chinese investments in Pakistan. China has extended support to Pakistan on the Kashmir issue while Pakistan recognizes China’s claims to Aksai Chin.

3. Disputes over sharing of the Indus river waters and Baglihar Dam issue.

Efforts have been made to improve bilateral relations between India and Pakistan such as the Shimla Agreement (1972) signed between Prime Minister Indira Gandhi and President Z. A. Bhutto. In 1999, Prime Ministers of India and Pakistan signed three agreements. Both countries have launched several mutual confidence building measures such as the Delhi-Lahore bus service, Samjhauta Express, hotlines between Prime Ministers of India and Pakistan, etc.

(b) Bangladesh – India played a major role in securing independence for Bangladesh in 1971. Major issues in Indo-Bangladesh relations were about distribution of waters of Teesta river, land and maritime boundaries, Chakma refugees, etc. Cross border terrorism is a concern for both countries.

(c) Sri Lanka – India is the only neighbour of Sri Lanka, separated by the Palk Strait. They share deep racial and cultural links. For most of Tamils in Sri Lanka (earlier Ceylon) their ancestors were from India. Ties between the two countries have been tested by the Civil War in Sri Lanka and Indian intervention during the war (1983-2009). It was caused by insurgency against the government by the Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam (LTTE) which aimed to create an independent Tamil State in the north and east of Sri Lanka.

The LTTE was formed in 1976 under leadership of V. Prabhakaran as Tamils began to feel alienated in Sri Lanka due to Sinhala being made official language and Tamil migrant plantation workers being disenfranchised. Indian Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi deployed the Indian Peace Keeping Force (IPKF) under Operation Pawan to disarm different militant groups in Sri Lanka. The Indo-Sri Lanka Accord (1987) was signed to provide a political solution to Sri Lanka’s conflict.

Today, India is Sri Lanka’s largest trading partner. Both India and Sri Lanka are members of SAARC and BIMSTEC. Sri Lanka’s leaning towards China e.g., Hamabantota port being built in Sri Lanka by China is a major concern for India.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Geography Important Questions Chapter 3 Human Settlements and Land Use Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Geography Important Questions Chapter 3 Human Settlements and Land Use

Choose the correct option by identifying the correct correlation in the sentences.

Question 1.
In dry region is crucial for the development of settlements.
(a) climate
(b) water
(c) soil
(d) drainage
Answer:
(b) water

Question 2.
Sometimes factor is responsible to the fragmentation of settlement.
(a) social
(b) physical
(c) political
(d) religion
Answer:
(a) social

Question 3.
………………… settlement develops along a road.
(a) Rectangular
(b) Linear
(c) Radial
(d) Circular
Answer:
(b) Linear

Question 4.
……………… settlement is found at the confluence point of the river.
(a) Triangular
(b) Radial
(c) Linear
(d) Rectangular
Answer:
(a) Triangular

Question 5.
………………. settlement grows around a central object.
(a) Circular
(b) Radial
(c) Linear
(d) Rectangular
Answer:
(b) Radial

Question 6.
With the development of settlement and increase in size of population ………………. pattern develops.
(a) radial
(b) rectangular
(c) circular
(d) patternless
Answer:
(d) patternless

Identify the correct correlation.

Question 1.
A – Houses are built along the source of water.
R – In dry regions water is a crucial factor.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
A – Land cover can be determined by analysing the satellite imagery.
R – Land use cannot be determined from satellite imagery alone.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Identify the incorrect factor.

Question 1.
Cantonment towns in India.
(a) Khadki
(b) Agra
(c) Dehu road
(d) Kolhapur
Answer:
(d) Kolhapur

Question 2.
Religious towns in India.
(a) Kolhapur
(b) Varanasi
(c) Nashik
(d) Pune
Answer:
(d) Pune

Question 3.
Mining towns in India.
(a) Chandrapur
(b) Singrauli
(c) Hutar
(d) Belgaum
Answer:
(d) Belgaum

Question 4.
Suburbs of Mumbai.
(a) Sion
(b) Dombivali
(c) Kalyan
(d) Virar
Answer:
(a) Sion

Question 5.
On the basis of spacing between the house’s settlement are divided.
(a) Compact
(b) fragmented
(c) dispersal
(d) linear
Answer:
(d) linear

Question 6.
Tourism towns in India.
(a) Shimla
(b) Udaipur
(c) Manali
(d) Mumbai
Answer:
(d) Mumbai

Question 7.
Industrial towns in India.
(a) Jamshedpur
(b) Chinchwad
(c) Khopoli
(d) Mahabaleshwar
Answer:
(d) Mahabaleshwar

Complete the Chain

Question 1.

A	B	C
(1) Linear pattern	(1) Around central object	(1) Houses are closely spaced
(2) Triangular pattern	(2) Along the road	(2) Straight line
(3) Circular pattern	(3) Around lake	(3) Three sides growth
(4) Radial pattern	(4) Confluence of river	(4) Around centre

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Linear pattern	(1) Along the road	(1) Straight line
(2) Triangular pattern	(2) Confluence of river	(2) Three sides growth
(3) Circular pattern	(3) Around lake	(3) Houses are closely spaced
(4) Radial pattern	(4) Around central object	(4) Around the centre

Question 2.

A	B	C
(1) Permanent pasture	(1) Land left fallow for more than 5 years	(1) Privately owned
(2) Area under miscellaneous tree crops	(2) Owned by village Panchayat	(2) It can be brought under cultivation
(3) Current fallow	(3) Orchards and fruit trees	(3) Common property resource
(4) Culturable waste-land	(4) Land left without cultivation for one or less than one agricultural year	(4) Cultural practice adopted for giving the land rest

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Permanent pasture	(1) Owned by village Panchayat	(1) Common property resource
(2) Area under miscellaneous tree crops	(2) Orchards and fruit trees	(2) Privately owned
(3) Current fallow	(3) Land left without cultivation for one or less than one agricultural year	(3) Cultural practice adopted for giving the land rest
(4) Culturable waste-land	(4) Land left fallow for more than 5 years	(4) It can be brought under cultivation

Write short notes on.

Question 1.
Size and types of settlements.
Answer:

• Settlements vary in size and type. The size of settlement varies from hamlet to metropolitan town.
• A small settlement could be sparsely spaced and large size settlement could be closely spaced.
• On the basis of spacing between the houses, settlements can be divided into four types such as compact/clustered/nucleated /dispersed settlements, semi clustered or fragmented settlements and isolated settlements etc.
• Economic character and social structure of settlement varies with the size of settlement.
• Settlements can also be divided into two types on the basis of their function namely rural settlements and urban settlements.
• Due to large population in urban areas, urban settlements are compact and larger in size.
• Rural settlements are semi-clustered or fragmented and smaller in size.
• In urban settlements there are various functions such as industrial, commercial, administrative, educational, religious, cantonment, tourism etc., therefore urban settlements are multifunctional.
• Some cities are known by their functional importance. For example, Allahabad is known as a religious centre, Jaipur is known as a tourist centre.
• Secondary and tertiary activities are more developed in urban settlements. ,
• In rural settlements primary activities are more developed compared to secondary and tertiary activities.
• In rural settlements agriculture is the main function and other activities related to agriculture such as livestock rearing, tree crops growing, lumbering, fishing are developed.

Differentiate between.

Question 1.
Linear Settlement and Triangular Settlement
Answer:

Linear Settlement	Triangular Settlement
(i) Settlements which develop along Roads, railway lines, canals or rivers.	(i) Settlements which develop at the meeting point of two rivers or roads.
(ii) They grow in straight line or take shape of the road or river.	(ii) They grow in all three sides depending upon physical or social reasons.
(iii) For example, settlement along Mumbai- Pune Highway.	(iii) Settlement of Karad town along the meeting point of Krishna and Koyna river.

Answer the following questions in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the land use in rural areas.
Answer:
1. In rural areas land use is mainly for agriculture and related activities. The Land Records Department has done classification of land use in rural areas as follows:
Net sown area: The land which is used to grow various crops is net sown area. This is main land used in rural areas for agriculture.

Area under tree crops and groves : This land is used to grow fruit crops and orchards.

Area under permanent pastures : This land is covered with grass permanently and it is used for grazing.

2. This land is mostly owned by government or village panchayat.
Current fallow : This is a cultivable land but it is kept empty that is without cultivation for twelve months or less than that.

3. Due to continuous cropping on same patch of land, the land loses its fertility, therefore to regain the fertility of the soil, rest is given to land. During this period land regains the fertility naturally.

Fallow other than current fallow : This land is kept fallow for more than one year but less than five years to regain fertility naturally. Land becomes culturable wasteland, if it is kept fallow for more than five years.

Culturable wasteland : If land is kept fallow for more than five years, it is called culturable wasteland. This land can be used again for cultivation after reclamation practices.

Barren land or wasteland : The land which is not useful for cultivation is called barren land and therefore it is wasteland. For example, hilly area, desert land, marshy land, ravines etc.

Non-agricultural land : The land used for residential purpose, for construction of canals, dams, roads, agro-based industries, fruit processing industries etc., comes under this category. Land under forest: In rural areas some lands are under forest.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 8 Positive Psychology Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Psychology Important Questions Chapter 8 Positive Psychology

Choose the correct option and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
Life …………….. indicates a life full of stress and anxiety.
(a) below zero
(b) at zero
(c) above zero
Answer:
(a) below zero

Question 2.
………………. refers to the ability to handle adverse situations effectively.
(a) Coping
(b) Competence
(c) Confidence
Answer:
(b) Competence

Question 3.
……………….. helps us to focus on the ‘Here and Now’ effectively.
(a) Mindfulness
(b) Mindlessness
(c) Optimism
Answer:
(a) Mindfulness

Question 4.
………………. is the key to most successful relationships.
(a) Resilience
(b) Mindfulness
(c) Empathy
Answer:
(c) Empathy

Match the pairs.

Question 1.

Group A	Group B
(1) Seligman	(a) Broaden and Build theory
(2) Fredrickson	(b) empathy
(3) Masten	(c) mindfulness
(4) Baron-Cohen	(d) resilience
	(e) optimism

Answer:

Group A	Group B
(1) Seligman	(e) optimism
(2) Fredrickson	(a) Broaden and Build theory
(3) Masten	(d) resilience
(4) Baron-Cohen	(b) empathy

State whether the following statements are true or false.

Question 1.
Negative events easily attract our attention compared to positive ones.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Positive psychology focuses on life at and below zero.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
A positive frame of mind effectively builds our social and psychological resources.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
There are subjective differences in the experience of happiness.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
We must always choose very easy goals so we can feel happiness.
Answer:
False

Question 6.
Most pessimists perceive difficulties as challenges/ opportunities.
Answer:
False

Question 7.
Empathy and sympathy are synonymous.
Answer:

Question 8.
Brain damage can diminish a person’s ability to empathize.
Answer:
True

Answer the following in one sentence each.

Question 1.
What does positive psychology focus on?
Answer:
Positive psychology focuses on building of character strengths such as courage, happiness and perseverance rather than on anxiety, conflict and avoidance.

Question 2.
What does ‘life below zero’ indicate?
Answer:
‘Life below zero’ indicates a life that is full of problems, stress, diseases, etc.

Question 3.
How does an optimist view challenges and difficulties?
Answer:
Optimists have a positive approach towards challenges and difficulties and hence view them as opportunities to progress and become strong.

Question 4.
What does mindlessness mean?
Answer:
Mindlessness means performing a task with less concentration and awareness mainly because we are absorbed in our own thoughts, worries, etc.

Question 5.
What is psychological resilience?
Answer:
Psychological resilience refers to developing coping strategies that enable one to adapt to uncertainty, challenges and adversity and to move on without prolonged negative consequences.

Explain the concepts in 25 – 30 words each.

Question 1.
Broaden and Build theory.
Answer:
The ‘Broaden and Build theory of positive emotions’ by Barbara Fredrickson explains that when we experience positive emotions, we have more positive thoughts and also indulge in positive behaviours. Experiencing a positive emotion leads to broadening the number of actions that we can think of performing. This will increase and strengthen our psychological and social resources to lead a fulfilling life.

Question 2.
Life above zero.
Answer:
Traditional psychology focused on life at and below zero. Zero is the line that divides illness from health. Hence, life below zero indicates a life that is full of problems, stress, diseases, etc. Positive psychology emphasizes the study of life above zero. Life above zero covers a large area of positive aspects of behaviour such as mindfulness, resilience, happiness, hope, trust and empathy.

Question 3.
Mindfulness meditation
Answer:
Mindfulness means a moment-by-moment awareness of our bodily sensations, thoughts and feelings. In Buddhist philosophy, mindfulness practice is a form of meditation. Mindfulness meditation helps in developing a non-reactive state of mind which is the foundation of a peaceful mind. This helps to reduce anxiety, frustration, etc., and enhances mental well-being.

Answer the following questions in 35 – 40 words each.

Question 1.
Why is positive psychology considered significant today?
Answer:
Positive psychology is a newly emerging branch of psychology. Martin Seligman officially introduced Positive Psychology as a subfield of psychology. It is the science of happiness, human strength and growth.

Negative events tend to be intense and hence easily attract our attention, e.g., outburst of anger by a person will be quickly noticed. Positive psychology believes that a person can prevent and overcome many psychological problems by adopting a positive approach. Therefore, today, positive psychology is important. Positive psychology is concerned with the “good life” and the factors that contribute the most to a fulfilling, happy life. It can help increase self esteem, improve relationships and greater chances of success.

Question 2.
What are the characteristics of optimists?
Answer:
Optimism is a mental attitude that includes feelings of hopefulness. It is a belief that the future will be positive and favourable and that negative events are merely setbacks that are temporary and can be overcome.
The characteristics of optimists are-

1. they try to choose the best options available
2. they tend to be high on self confidence
3. they face difficulties positively as they view them as a challenge for a person to become strong
4. they are hopeful about the future and do not generalize present failure to future events.

Question 3.
How can empathy be nurtured?
Answer:
Empathy is the capacity to understand and feel what another person is experiencing from within their frame of reference i.e. capacity to place oneself in another’s position. According to Simon Baron-Cohen there are three components of emotions viz. cognitive empathy emotional reactivity and social skills.

Empathy builds a sense of security and trust. It is closely related to emotional intelligence and is a key to successful relationships. Empathy can be nurtured by employing methods like-

1. increase social interactions
2. connecting through similarities
3. understanding one’s own feelings
4. challenge your self
5. cultivate a sense of curiosity
6. widen the social contact circle.

Write short notes on the following in 50 – 60 words each.

Question 1.
Components of empathy
Answer:
Empathy is the capacity to understand and feel what another person is experiencing from within their frame of reference, i.e., capacity to place oneself in another’s position.
According to Simon Baron-Cohen, there are three components of empathy viz. cognitive empathy emotional reactivity and social skills.

1. Cognitive empathy – This is called perspective taking, i.e., knowing how the other thinks and feels. Cognitive empathy responds to a problem using brainpower.
2. Emotional reactivity – We feel the emotions as intensely as the other person. It involves connecting intimately with another person to form a strong bonds.
3. Social skills – It involves being moved to help the person using our emotional person to form a strong bonds.

Answer the following questions in 80 – 100 words each.

Question 1.
Types of resilience
Points:
(i) Physical resilience
(ii) Psychological resilience
(iii) Emotional resilience
(iv) Community resilience
Answer:
According to the American Psychological Association, resilience is the process of adapting well in the face of adversity, trauma, tragedy, threats or significant sources of stress such as family, health, etc. It is the act of ‘bouncing back’ inspite of barriers or set backs.
There are three ways in which people face adverse situations viz.

1. consider oneself as a ‘victim’ and hence indulge in self pity or anger
2. get overwhelmed by negative emotions like fear, anxiety, etc., which makes them vulnerable to physiological and psychological collapse
3. become upset about the disruption and experience a sense of loss, pain, grief, etc.

However, they understand that setbacks are a part of life. Hence, they work through these feelings in ways that foster strength and growth. Sometimes, they may emerge stronger than they were prior to the setback. Such persons are called Resilient individuals. The four types of resilience are-
(i) Physical resilience – It is the body’s ability to adapt to challenges, maintain stamina, and quickly recover when faced with illness, injury or other physical demands.

(ii) Psychological resilience – It is developing coping strategies that enable one to adapt to uncertainty, challenges and adversity and to move on without prolonged negative consequence. The person can remain calm and focused during stressful situations.

(iii) Emotional resilience – It refers to the ability to manage one’s emotions by adequately using one’s resources to cope with adversity and stress. It is the ability to understand what one is feeling and why?

(iv) Community resilience – It is the ability of groups of people to respond to and recover from adverse situations such as natural disasters, epidemics, war, economic hardships and other challenges to their community. This is mainly due to strong connections or bonds that community members have with each other.

Question 2.
Empathy
Points:
(i) Meaning
(ii) Components
(iii) Nurturing empathy
Answer:
(i) Meaning – Empathy is the capacity to understand and feel what another person is experiencing from within their frame of reference, i.e., capacity to place oneself in another’s position. Empathy builds a sense of security and trust. It is closely related to emotional intelligence. It supports social corrections required for communication and shared activities. Empathy is considered the key to successful relationships. Research indicates that there is a neurological foundation of empathy. A broad range of brain areas spanning the sensory motor area, insula and cingulate cortex together form a neural network for empathy processing.

(ii) Components-

• Cognitive empathy – This is called perspective taking, i.e., knowing how the other thinks and feels. Cognitive empathy responds to a problem using brainpower.
• Emotional reactivity – We feel the emotions as intensely as the other person. It involves connecting intimately with another person to form a strong bonds.
• Social skills – It involves being moved to help the person using our emotional intelligence. One should not become overwhelmed by sadness or trying to ‘fix’ things.

(iii) Nurturing empathy-
A world with empathetic persons will be nurturing and supportive. The methods to nurture empathy are-

• Increase social interactions – Especially with people who need help in order to understand their perspectives and motives.
• Connecting through similarities with others, e.g., those having same hobbies/ work/ goals, etc.
• Understanding what you are feeling – Those who are able to accurately judge their own motives, can empathize better.
• Challenge yourself – Tasks that are challenging lead to the person struggling to achieve a goal. This lead to humility which enables empathy.
• Cultivate a sense of curiosity – This leads to open-mindedness and a better understanding of those around us.
• Widen our social circle – Contact with people of different races, cultures, viewpoints helps to increase empathy towards them at a neurological level.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 7 First Aid in Mental Health Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Psychology Important Questions Chapter 7 First Aid in Mental Health

Choose the correct option and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
According to the NIMHANS study (2014-2016) about …………………. of the population suffers from common mental disorders.
(a) 10%
(b) 13%
(c) 25%
Answer:
(a) 10%

Question 2.
The Indian city that obtained an International license in 2017 to carry out the standard MHFA programme across India is ………………
(a) New Delhi
(b) Bengaluru
(c) Chennai
Answer:
(c) Chennai

Question 3.
If early signs of mental illness are recognized, it can assist the individual to get help. This is known as …………………
(a) diagnosis
(b) early intervention
(c) rehabilitation
Answer:
(b) early intervention

Question 4.
Imbalance of certain in the brain may be a factor in anxiety.
(a) neurotransmitters
(b) fluids
(c) organs
Answer:
(a) neurotransmitters

Match the pairs.

Question 1.

Group A	Group B
(1) Anthony Jorm	(a) technology related mental health issues
(2) Traumatic events	(b) depression
(3) SHUT clinic in NIMHANS	(c) co-founder of MHFA programme
(4) Red flag in internet usage	(d) social phobia
(5) Feeling of worthlessness	(e) anxiety
	(f) craving and compulsion

Answer:

Group A	Group B
(1) Anthony Jorm	(c) co-founder of MHFA programme
(2) Traumatic events	(e) anxiety
(3) SHUT clinic in NIMHANS	(a) technology related mental health issues
(4) Red flag in internet usage	(f) craving and compulsion
(5) Feeling of worthlessness	(b) depression

State whether the following statements are true or false.

Question 1.
There is a stigma attached to mental illness.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Mental illness is caused due to supernatural forces.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Mental illness usually does not develop ‘out of the blue’.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Relapse prevention is important in Mental Health First Aid.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Any anxiety experienced by a person is a cause for concern.
Answer:
False

Question 6.
DSM-5 considers behaviour addictions as a mental disorder.
Answer:
False

Answer the following in one sentence each.

Question 1.
What is the assumption of First Aid in Mental Health?
Answer:
The assumption of First Aid in Mental Health is the concept of ‘prevention is better than cure’.

Question 2.
What are some non-medical explanations for mental illness?
Answer:
Some non-medical explanations for mental illness are based on myths and superstitions that such behaviour is due to evil spirits and black magic.

Question 3.
Who developed the Mental Health First Aid (MHFA) programme?
Answer:
Betty Kitchener and Antony Jorm originally developed the Mental Health First Aid (MHFA) programme.

Question 4.
What is the objective of MHFA?
Answer:
MHFA is an internationally recognized training programme whose objective is to teach people how to identify the signs and symptoms of mental health problems and to provide assistance on a first aid basis.

Question 5.
What is the rationale of SHUT clinics by NIMHANS?
Answer:
NIMHANS (Bengaluru) has begun the Service for Healthy Use of Technology (SHUT) to deal exclusively with mental health issues that are technology related.

Answer the following questions in 35 – 40 words each.

Question 1.
What are the main hurdles to receiving treatment in case of mental illness?
Answer:
The main hurdles in receiving treatment for poor mental health are-

1. Lack of knowledge and awareness.
2. Stigma attached to mental illness due to which treatment is discontinued.
3. High cost of treatment.
4. Reliance on non-medical explanations for mental illness, for e.g., evil spirits.
5. Shortage of trained mental health professionals.
6. Slow improvement in the behaviour due to which treatment is discontinued.

Question 2.
What are the self help strategies in Mental Health First Aid?
Answer:
Self help strategies are tasks that help to increase our resources to deal with stress and to maintain mental health. MHFA is an internationally recognized training programme whose objective is to teach people how to identify the signs and symptoms of mental health problems and to provide assistance on a first aid basis.

1. Physical activity and exercise like playing a sport, jogging, yoga, etc.
2. Cultivate a hobby or engage in an enjoyable activity.
3. Sleep hygiene, i.e., 7 to 8 hours of sleep with a proper routine.
4. Reduce digital involvement, i.e., disconnect everyday for some time from gadgets.
5. Build social support and spend time with friends / family.

Question 3.
Enumerate behavioural changes noticed in persons suffering from depression.
Answer:
Individuals who experience depression, commonly have a negative thinking style and feel worthless and helpless. A number of changes are noticed in their behaviour such as-

1. Complaining of feeling tired or sleepy all the time
2. avoiding family and friends and spending much time alone
3. remaining sad and forgetful
4. bunking class or performing poorly in exams and having difficulty in concentrating.

Question 4.
What are the ‘red flags’ that indicate over dependence on the internet?
Answer:
Signs that help to identify individuals who show deviance or distress and require help in mental health are called red flags.
The ‘red flags’ that indicate over dependence on internet are-

1. Feelings of euphoria while using the internet.
2. Physical symptoms like headache, dry eyes, etc.
3. Inability to keep to schedules and boredom with routine tasks.
4. Poor personal hygiene and nutrition to remain online.

Write short notes in 50 – 60 words each.

Question 1.
First Aid in Mental Health.
Answer:
Mental Health First Aid (MHFA) is an internationally recognized training programme designed to teach people how to identify the signs and symptoms of mental health problems and to provide assistance on a first aid basis. MHFA was originally developed by Betty Kitchener and Anthony Jorm.

First Aid in Mental Health is a concept based on the idea of ‘prevention is better than cure’. It teaches one how to identify understand and respond to signs of mental illness as well as substance use disorders. Through role playing and simulations, MHFA demonstrates how to assess a mental health crisis, select interventions, provide initial help and connect the person to self-help resources, social support or professional aid if needed.

If the early signs of mental illness are recognized, it can help in the following ways.

1. Diagnosis – timely diagnosis at the onset of mental illness helps to prevent it from developing into a more severe form.
2. Intervention – early intervention helps to get professional help.
3. Relapse prevention – it prevent reoccurrence of symptom of the mental illness.

Question 2.
Self help strategies in Mental Health First Aid.
Answer:
Mental Health First Aid (MHFA) programme was developed by Betty Kitchener and Anthony Jorm. It is designed to identify the signs and symptoms of mental health and to provide assistance on a first aid basis.
Self help strategies are not luxuries but rather essential things that can be incorporated in your life.

1. Sleep hygiene – Ensuring that you get 7 to 8 hours of sleep every night. You should try to maintain the same schedule, that is go to sleep every night at the same time and wake up at the same time every day. This will help set a routine and improve your well-being
2. Reduce screen time and digital involvement – You should disconnect everyday for some time from your gadgets. Try to set a time limit for the number of hours you will surf the internet each day.
3. Physical activity – Try to add some physical activity in your day to day schedule. This can be playing a sport or just going for a walk every day.
4. Engage in activity that you enjoy doing, cultivate hobbies – This can be any activity like reading a book or listening to your favourite song.
5. Build and maintain Social Support – Meeting and spending time with your friends and family. Participating in social gatherings.

Question 3.
5-4-3-2-1 relaxation technique.
Answer:
There are certain times when you feel tense or anxious. One strategy that we can use to help us calm down is the 5-4-3-2-1 technique. This is a simple technique that you can use whenever you are feeling overwhelmed by the situation and need to relax. First take a few deep breaths and then follow the below instructions.

1. Think of 5 things that you can see around you. For example, a pen, book etc.
2. Think of 4 things that you can touch around you. For example, your hair, the ground under your feet etc
3. Think of 3 things that you can hear around you. For example, the sound of traffic, sound of people who are talking around you etc.
4. Think of 2 things that you can smell around you. For example, the scent of soap from your hands, the fragrance of your deodorant etc
5. Think of 1 thing that you can taste. For example the taste of the last meal that you had etc. Performing this exercise will help you focus on the present and stop worrying.

Question 4.
Behavioural changes in persons suffering from anxiety.
Answer:
Anxiety refers to a condition in which the person feels worried/tense and uneasy for a long time for no obvious reasons. Symptoms of anxiety include nervousness, restlessness, feelings of danger, etc.
Individuals who are anxious may-

1. Not want to go to college or work.
2. Complain repeatedly of various physiological problems.
3. Get irritated while interacting with their friends or family.
4. Spend lot of time worrying about how they look.
5. Be extremely quiet in the class or at work and get scared of asking questions to the teachers or colleagues.
6. Sometimes ask the same questions repeatedly.
7. They visibly show the physical symptoms of anxiety like sweating or excessive body movements.

Question 5.
Four C’s to identify excessive internet usage.
Answer:
Excessive internet usage is characterised by extensive, problematic addiction to the use of computer and internet. It signifies poorly controlled preoccupations or behaviour regarding such usage. Excessive internet usage leads to personal distress and social impairment.
The four C’s to identify excessive internet usage are as follows-

1. Craving – Do you have an intense desire to use the internet?
2. Control – Do you have an inability to control your self using the internet?
3. Compulsion – Do you find it difficult to stop using the internet? Even though you know you should not spend so much time on it?
4. Consequence – Have you ever experienced any physical or psychological ill effects as a result of excessive use of the internet?

If you answer a ‘yes’ for at least three of the C’s, it can be a matter of concern.

Question 6.
Over-dependence on internet.
Answer:
The amount of time as well as reason for using the internet may become a matter of concern for e.g., online gambling, gaming, etc. The person may socialise more online with friends than real life socialising. Spending excess time online may cause the person to neglect family, relationships, work etc. Virtual world enables games/gambling almost continuously.

This leads to the person neglecting personal hygiene, real life relationships and become withdrawn and irresponsible. The person may feel guilty or defensive about internet use. He/she may panic in the absence of internet service. A growing dependence on internet refers to an inability to stop and down down.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 6 Psychological Disorders Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Psychology Important Questions Chapter 6 Psychological Disorders

Choose the correct option and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
A persistent but disproportionate and irrational fear of a specific object or situation is called ……………….
(a) anxiety
(b) mania
(c) phobia
Answer:
(c) phobia

Question 2.
A cluster of symptoms is called as ……………….
(a) therapy
(b) maladjustment
(c) syndrome
Answer:
(c) syndrome

Question 3.
Bipolar disorder is also called ……………… disorder.
(a) manic-depressive
(b) schizophrenia
(c) PTSD
Answer:
(a) manic-depressive

Question 4.
The DSM-5 comprises of …………….. broad categories of mental disorders along with subcategories.
(a) 19
(b) 11
(c) 22
Answer:
(c) 22

Question 5.
Ashok experiences feelings of unhappiness but has no apparent mental illness. According to Illness Wellness Continuum Model, he will be in Quadrant ……………..
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 6.
Mr. X tries to stop his drug usage. He experiences tremors, muscle pains, etc. This indicates, ……………. symptoms.
(a) withdrawal
(b) recovery
(c) negative
Answer:
(a) withdrawal

State whether the following statements are true or false.

Question 1.
Illness and absence of illness are distinct categories.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Individual distress and impairment are criteria for psychological disorders.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Imbalance in neurotransmitters may cause bipolar disorders.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Extremely traumatic events may lead to the onset of Acute Stress Disorder.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Most schizophrenics suffer from delusions and hallucinations.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
Generally, negative symptoms of schizophrenia improve much with proper treatment.
Answer:
False

Question 7.
The same therapy can be applied with equal success to all persons who exhibit similar symptoms.
Answer:
False

Answer the following in one sentence each.

Question 1.
What is the literal meaning of word ‘schizophrenia’.
Answer:
The word ‘schizophrenia’ is derived from the Greek words ‘schizein’ (to split) and ‘phren’ (mind). Thus, the literal meaning of the word ‘schizophrenia’ is split mind.

Question 2.
What is meant by delusion?
Answer:
Delusion refers to false belief held by the individual which cannot be shaken off in spite of clear evidence that is contrary to it.

Question 3.
What are the two states of bipolar disorder?
Answer:
The two states of bipolar disorder are mania state and depression state.

Question 4.
When is the person diagnosed with PTSD?
Answer:
The person is said to be diagnosed with PTSD when the symptoms of Acute Stress Disorder (ASD) continue for more than one month with the same intensity.

Question 5.
What are addictive disorders?
Answer:
Addictive disorders refer to the physical and psychological inability to stop consuming some substance or indulging in some activity although it is harmful.

Question 6.
What is psychotherapy?
Answer:
Psychotherapy refers to the systematic attempt by a mental health professional to assist a person to overcome some psychological disorders.

Question 7.
What is the suggestible stage of PTSD?
Answer:
Suggestible stage of PTSD refers to a person who may seek guidance from others and may either accept these suggestions unquestioningly or may get extra sensitive.

Explain the following concepts.

Question 1.
Delusions
Answer:
Delusions is a false belief that is strongly held by an individual in spite of the presence of contrary evidence, Delusions are a symptom of mental disorders. Commonly noticed delusions are delusion of grandeur, delusions of persecution, delusion of influence or control, delusion of reference, etc.

Answer the following questions Briefly.

Question 1.
Explain Acute Stress Disorder.
Answer:
If a person (aged 6 years and above) has experienced extremely stressful situations like death of a loved one, serious disease or injury, sexual abuse, natural disasters, etc., then he/she may experience ASD.
The symptoms of ASD include-

1. emotional numbness and instability
2. nightmares and sleep disturbances
3. insomnia, lack of concentration, irritability and guilt feelings
4. depression

Question 2.
What are the red flags in identifying psychological disorders?
Answer:
Signs that help to identify individuals who require expert (professional) help in mental health are called ‘red flags’.
Symptoms, if present, in any person should satisfy three requirements-

1. it should be present for a considerably long period of time
2. symptom has become more severe than before
3. it has created problems in the person’s life.

Question 3.
What is Generalized Anxiety Disorder?
Answer:
Anxiety refers to a condition in which a person feels uneasy for a long time for no obvious reasons. The main anxiety disorders include Generalized Anxiety Disorder, Phobia, Panic attacks etc.

In Generalized Anxiety Disorder the person frequently experiences anxiety more intensely so that it starts interfering with the ability to perform daily tasks. Symptoms include irritability, headaches, insomnia, dizziness, breathlessness, etc.

Write short notes on the following.

Question 1.
Identification and treatment of psychological disorders.
Answer:
Signs that help to identify individuals who require expert (professional) help in mental health are called ‘red flags’. Symptoms, if present, in any person should satisfy three requirements

1. it should be present for a considerably long period of time
2. symptom has become more severe than before
3. it has created problems in the person’s life.

The signals indicating a need for professional help are:

1. inability to concentrate or to sleep well.
2. severe confusion and memory loss.
3. intense and uncontrollable negative feelings.
4. self-neglect or even self-harm.
5. loss of interest in friends/ family/ activities.
6. odd statement or strange use of words.

Treatment strategies range form pharmacotherapy (administering drugs) to psychotherapy such as Rational Emotive Behaviour Therapy, Interpersonal Therapy, Group/Family Therapy, etc. Mental health professionals are qualified to decide the plan of treatment.

Answer the following questions in 150 – 200 words.

Question 1.
Discuss the red flags indicating the need for psychological help.
Answer:
Signs that help to identify individuals who require expert (professional) help in mental health are called ‘red flags’.
Symptoms, if present, in any person should satisfy three requirements

1. it should be present for a considerably long period of time
2. symptom has become more severe than before
3. it has created problems in the person’s life.

Signals indicating need for professional help-

1. Inability to concentrate
2. Inability to sleep well
3. Various physical complaints
4. Uncontrollable and frequent bad thoughts
5. Too intense uncontrollable negative feelings (fear, anger, sadness, worry, etc.)
6. Severe confusion
7. Memory loss
8. Loss of interest in activities and friends
9. Odd or irrational statements or strange use of words or way of speaking
10. Self-harm
11. Signs of self-neglect