Prasanna

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th OCM Important Questions Chapter 3 Small Scale Industry and Business Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Commerce OCM Important Questions Chapter 3 Small Scale Industry and Business

Select the Correct option and rewrite the sentence

Question 1.
Small Scale Industries play an important role in ……………. countries.
(a) developed
(b) developing
(c) advanced
Answer:
(b) developing

Question 2.
Traditionally a small scale industries are those using power with less than ……………… employees.
(a) 20
(b) 30
(c) 50
Answer:
(c) 50

Question 3.
……………….. is second largest industry which creates huge employment.
(a) SSI
(b) Reliance Ltd.
(c) Indian Railways
Answer:
(a) SSI

Question 4.
……………….. of people from rural to urban is reduced by small scale industries.
(a) Immigrations
(b) Migrations
(c) Re-migrations
Answer:
(b) Migrations

Question 5.
Small Scale Industries are ……………….. in operation.
(a) rigid
(b) flexible
(c) static
Answer:
(b) flexible

Question 6.
Small Scale Industries uses ……………….. technology.
(a) outdated
(b) advanced
(c) future
Answer:
(a) outdated

Question 7.
………………. resources are used by SSI.
(a) Foreign
(b) City
(c) Domestic
Answer:
(c) Domestic

Match the pairs

Question 1.

Group A	Group B
(a) Small Manufacturing Sector	(1) Investment more than Rs 2 crores but does not exceed Rs 5 crores
(b) Modern Small Scale Industries	(2) SSI
(c) Large Employment	(3) Capital problem
(d) High absenteeism	(4) Investment does not exceed Rs 25 lakhs
(e) Medium Services Sector	(5) Electric Appliances
	(6) Labour problem
	(7) Investment does not exceed Rs 10 lakhs
	(8) Sericulture
	(9) L&T

Answer:

Group A	Group B
(a) Small Manufacturing Sector	(4) Investment does not exceed Rs 25 lakhs
(b) Modern Small Scale Industries	(5) Electric Appliances
(c) Large Employment	(2) SSI
(d) High absenteeism	(6) Labour problem
(e) Medium Services Sector	(1) Investment more than Rs 2 crores but does not exceed Rs 5 crores

Give one word/phrase/term

Question 1.
Tiruppur a city located in state of Tamil Nadu is famous for which export.
Answer:
Textile export

Question 2.
Industries which requires low gestation period.
Answer:
Small Scale Industries

Question 3.
Part of rural industry based on agricultural products.
Answer:
Agro based industries

Question 4.
Moving of people from one place to another in search of job.
Answer:
Migration

Question 5.
Regular interruption of electricity.
Answer:
Load shedding

Question 6.
Life blood of the enterprise.
Answer:
Finance

Question 7.
Assessment of a project.
Answer:
Project Appraisal

Question 8.
Procedure of recruitment, training and placement.
Answer:
Staffing.

State True or False

Question 1.
Small Scale Industries increases import of raw materials from foreign countries.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Tiruppur contribute to export textiles and earn valuable foreign exchange for India.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Japan became major economic power because of many small entrepreneurs after second world war.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Nearly 60% of the industrial exports are contributed by SSI.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Small Scale Industries lead to inequalities of income, wealth and power.
Answer:
False

Question 6.
Small Scale Industries are more flexible.
Answer:
True

Find the odd one

Question 1.
Manufacturing Sector, Services Sector, Construction Sector
Answer:
Construction Sector

Question 2.
Does not exceed ?10 lakhs, Does not exceed Rs 25 lakhs, Does not exceed Rs 2 crores.
Answer:
Does not exceed Rs 25 lakhs

Question 3.
Job opportunities, Regional Balance, Increases Migration
Answer:
Increases Migration

Question 4.
Labour Problem, Marketing problem, Problem of transport, Domestic problem
Answer:
Domestic problem

Question 5.
Selection of product, Selection of place, Selection of House
Answer:
Selection of House.

Complete the sentences

Question 1.
Problem of is reduced or minimized by SSI.
Answer:
migration

Question 2.
Gestation period is low for industries.
Answer:
Small Scale

Question 3.
means the assessment of a project.
Answer:
Project appraisal

Question 4.
SSI provides raw material, semi finished goods to
Answer:
Large Scale

Question 5.
place from Tamil Nadu export textiles.
Answer:
Tiruppur

Question 6.
method of production is used by SSI.
Answer:
Old and outdated.

Select the correct option

(Modern Small Scale Industries, Challenges before Small Scale Industries, Traditional Small Scale Industries, Importance of Small Scale Industries)

Group A	Group B
(1) Hand loom, Handicraft, Coir, Sericulture	——————-
(2) —————–	Bicycles parts, sewing machines, Blades, Razor, Electric Appliances, Spare parts
(3) Job opportunities, Regional balance, Reduce migration, Maximum use of Natural Resources	——————-
(4) ————–	Load-shedding, voltage fluctuation.

Answer:

Group A	Group B
(1) Hand loom, Handicraft, Coir, Sericulture	Traditional Small Scale Industries
(2) Modern Small Scale Industries	Bicycles parts, sewing machines, Blades, Razor, Electric Appliances, Spare parts
(3) Job opportunities, Regional balance, Reduce migration, Maximum use of Natural Resources	Importance of Small Scale Industries
(4) Challenges before Small Scale Industries	Load-shedding, voltage fluctuation.

Answer in one sentences

Question 1.
What are the challenges before Small Scale industries?
Answer:
Old and outdated technology, finance, marketing, load shedding, voltage fluctuation, sickness, etc. are the challenges before Small Scale Industries.

Question 2.
What are the sectors of business classification as per SSI?
Answer:
There are two sectors of business as per SSI i.e.

1. Manufacturing sector
2. Services sector.

Question 3.
What is the classification of Small Scale Industries?
Answer:
Small Scale Industries are classified into two i.e. Traditional Small Scale Industries and Modern Small Scale Industries.

Correct the underlined word and rewrite the following sentences.

Question 1.
SSI is first largest industry which creates huge employment.
Answer:
SSI is second largest industry which creates huge employment.

Question 2.
Migration of people from rural to urban can be increase due to SSI.
Answer:
Migration of people from rural to urban can be reduced due to SSI.

Question 3.
Many Small Scale Industries provide finished goods to large scale industries.
Answer:
Many Small Scale Industries provide semi finished goods to large scale industries.

Question 4.
India is facing labour scarcity problem.
Answer:
India is facing labour problem.

Question 5.
Nearly 60% of industrial exports are contributed by SSI.
Answer:
Nearly 40% of industrial exports are contributed by SSI.

Study the following case/situation and express your opinion.

1. Mr. Rahim is keenly interested in starting Small Scale business. But he is worried about the challenges before Small Scale business. Guide him about the solutions to face these challenges.

Question 1.
Guidelines to start a small scale business:
Answer:
1. Method of Production : It is said that small scale industries use old methods of production Mr. Rahim can improve the method of production by using new technology. He can purchase the new technology at affordable rate and give training to the workers so that they can improve the skills and in turn increase the production.

2. Finance : Rahim can get information about various schemes given by government to raise finance. He can also compare the rate of interest of various financial institutes and take loan at a lower rate of interest.

3. Raw Material : Rahim can start business in area near by to the availability of raw material so that he can save the cost of transportation of raw material. If the cost of raw material decreases he will not have to compromise on the quantity and quality of raw material.

4. Labour Problem : Rahim can give training to the workers so that they can increase the productivity. Skilled workers can work more efficiently. Rahim should also provide with job security so that workers do not leave the job and experienced workers can increase productivity.

5. Marketing Problem : Rahim should have thorough study of need of the customer in the market. He should have all market updates so that he can make changes according to the requirement of customers. He can do market survey with use of latest technology i.e. Internet and WhatsApp. He can make use of these technology for advertising of his product also.

6. Transportation : As stated in point no. (c) Rahim can start business in area nearby to the availability of raw material so that he can save the cost of transportation of raw material. He can also keep the cost of the product less and then add the cost of transportation afterwards so that cost of his product will look less.

7. Sickness : Rahim will have to take care of the credit system which he is going to follow. It is advisable that he sells the goods on cash basis and not on credit basis. If he gives it on credit he should be good at follow up. While purchasing raw material he can take it on credit basis so that he gets adequate working capital to use. If he gets sufficient working capital he can produce goods on time and the industry will not become sick.

8. Globalisation : Rahim is to be aware about the various competitive products and other similar products which are there in the market. He will have to be updated with the latest things and latest prices and make changes in his small unit regularly as and when required.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Geography Important Questions Chapter 7 Region and Regional Development Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Geography Important Questions Chapter 7 Region and Regional Development

Choose the correct option by identifying the correct correlation in the sentences.

Question 1.
Formal region …………….
(a) USA
(b) TV signal areas
(c) Wireless
(d) Wi-Fi hotspot
Answer:
(a) USA

Question 2.
Functional region …………….
(a) Rice producing area
(b) Desert area
(c) Iron and steel producing areas
(d) Wireless
Answer:
(d) Wireless

Question 3.
In rural areas much of the land is used for …………….
(a) housing
(b) agriculture
(c) market
(d) transport
Answer:
(b) agriculture

Question 4.
Important indicator of development is …………….
(a) Per capita income
(b) Out migration
(c) Slow growth of population
(d) Dependency ratio
Answer:
(a) Per capita income

Question 5.
Functional region is …………….
(a) Canada
(b) Africa
(c) Europe
(d) Pune metropolitan region
Answer:
(d) Pune metropolitan region

Question 6.
Formal region …………….
(a) Mumbai Metropolitan region
(b) Delhi Metropolitan region
(c) West Bengal
(d) Nagpur Metropolitan region
Answer:
(c) West Bengal

Identify the correct correlation.

A : Assertion, R : Reasoning
Question 1.
A – A functional region may be heterogeneous in nature.
R – It may involve more than one type of physical or political region.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
A – Cities can be considered as a functional region.
R – Buses move people from the suburb to the city central area.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.

Question 3.
A – There are many indicators of development like quality and quantity of population, education, poverty, etc.
R – But only one indictor can decide the development of region.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation A.
Answer:
(a) Only A is correct.

Question 4.
A – Population and development are closely interrelated.
R – Population influences development and in turn, is influenced by development.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.

Identify the incorrect factor.

Question 1.
In urban areas much of the land is used for
(a) Housing
(b) Commercial
(c) Mining
(d) Industries
Answer:
(c) Mining

Question 2.
Factors responsible for regional development
(a) Physical factors
(b) Economic factors
(c) Environment factors
(d) Push and pull factors
Answer:
(d) Push and pull factors

Question 3.
Factors responsible for imbalanced development
(a) Accessibility
(b) Altitude
(c) Migration
(d) Relief
Answer:
(c) Migration

Question 4.
A region may not be well developed if
(a) Landlocked
(c) Lack of natural harbour
(b) High mountain ranges
(d) Favourable climate
Answer:
(d) Favourable climate

Question 5.
Functional region
(a) Wi-Fi hotspots
(b) TV signal area
(c) Assam
(d) Wireless
Answer:
(c) Assam

Question 6.
Formal regions
(a) West Bengal
(b) Rice producing area
(c) A city
(d) Africa
Answer:
(c) A city

Complete the Chain

Question 1.

A	B	C
(1) Amazon	(1) River	(1) Physical
(2) Khandesh	(2) Administrative	(2) Political
(3) Bengali speaking	(3) Language	(3) Linguistics

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Amazon	(1) Language	(1) Linguistics
(2) Khandesh	(2) River	(2) Physical
(3) Bengali speaking	(3) Administrative	(3) Political

Question 2.

A	B	C
(1) Ganga Basin	(1) Island	(1) Tourism
(2) Japan	(2) Beautiful scenery	(2) Agriculture and industries
(3) Indonesia	(3) Fertile soil	(3) Trade and import resources

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Ganga Basin	(1) Fertile soil	(1) Agriculture and industries
(2) Japan	(2) Island	(2) Trade and import resources
(3) Indonesia	(3) Beautiful scenery	(3) Tourism

Question 3.

A	B	C
(1) Later stage of Demographic Transition Theory	(1) Higher population	(1) Higher amount of capital resources consumed
(2) Population pyramid	(2) Pull factor	(2) Lower per capita income
(3) Migration	(3) Low growth of population	(3) Greater development less spent on population
(4) Indicator of economic development	(4) High dependency ratio	(4) Good employment opportunities

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Later stage of Demographic Transition Theory	(1) Low growth of population	(1) Greater development less spent on population
(2) Population pyramid	(2) High dependency ratio	(2) Higher amount of capital resources consumed
(3) Migration	(3) Pull factor	(3) Good employment opportunities
(4) Indicator of economic development	(4) Higher population	(4) Lower per capita income

Give geographical reasons.

Question 1.
Population and development are closely interrelated.
Answer:

• The economic development in any country/region depends upon the quantity and quality of its people.
• Higher the numbers of people lower the per capita income, which indicates low development in the country/region.
• Lesser number of people in the country/region lead to shortage of skilled labour and limited development. Higher number of populations is good for the development of the country/region.
• The quality of people includes age structure, sex ratio, occupational structure, literacy rate, etc. If these aspects of the population are favourable, then there is development in the country/ region.
• Age group of people in the country also affects the development. If there are more people in the working age group then there is more economic development.
• Migration also affects the economic development of the region/country. If people migrate to any region it indicates employment opportunities and economic development.
• However, too much migration may create pressure of population on available resources and labour thus, adversely affecting the development of the country/region.

Write short notes on.

Question 1.
Causes of regional imbalances in India.
Answer:
India faces imbalanced regional development due to uncertainty in the development of states or districts.

The main factors affecting regional development of any region are physical factors like climate, soil, location, relief, geology of the country, forest, etc.

Some regions have favourable relief, climate, fertile soil or favourable geographical location or ample natural resources. Such regions develop faster. For example, the northern plains of India are well developed due to plain relief, fertile soil and moderate climate. Coastal cities like Mumbai, Chennai are well developed due to development of ports and harbours.

Some regions have unfavourable relief or climate. Therefore, development is limited. For example, the north-eastern states of India have less development due to hilly relief, heavy rainfall, frequent flooding and inaccessibility.

The human factors like market demand, transportation, power supply, banking and insurance facilities, communication facilities, technological development, skilled labour, etc., contributes to the development of a region. For example, due to unfavourable human factors, the Himalayan region is less developed. Thus, there is regional imbalance in India.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Geography Important Questions Chapter 5 Secondary Economic Activities Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Geography Important Questions Chapter 5 Secondary Economic Activities

Choose the correct option by identifying the correct correlation in the sentences.

Question 1.
Secondary activities include
(a) Processing
(b) Commercial farming
(c) Horticulture
(d) Mining
Answer:
(a) Processing

Question 2.
Economic factor deciding location of industry
(a) Labour
(b) Transport
(c) Market
(d) Agglomeration
Answer:
(c) Market

Question 3.
Industry in which semi-skilled labour is essential
(a) Food processing
(b) Electronic
(c) Construction
(d) Chemical
Answer:
(c) Construction

Question 4.
Industry having split location
(a) Food processing
(b) Automobile
(c) Iron and steel
(d) Jute textile
Answer:
(b) Automobile

Question 5.
In India, which of the following industries have portal location?
(a) Iron and steel
(b) Oil refineries
(c) Food processing
(d) Dairy
Answer:
(b) Oil refineries

Identify the correct correlation.

Question 1.
A – Cottage industry is the most basic industry.
R – Some of the products of this industry have great demand abroad.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
A – Public sector industries are owned by the state.
R – Marketing of goods is through private agencies.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(a) Only A is correct.

Question 3.
A – Tata Iron and Steel Industry is the basic industry.
R – Finished product of this industry is the raw material in many industries.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.

Identify the incorrect factor.

Question 1.
Physical factors of location of industries,
(a) Climate
(b) Market
(c) Water
(d) Physiography
Answer:
(b) Market

Question 2.
Physical factors of location of industries,
(a) Transport
(b) Labour
(c) Land
(d) Capital
Answer:
(d) Capital

Question 3.
Physical factors of location of industries,
(a) Land
(b) Labour
(c) SEZs
(d) Water
Answer:
(c) SEZs

Question 4.
Industrial regions in the United States of America.
(a) New England
(b) England
(c) New York
(d) Mid-Atlantic
Answer:
(b) England

Question 5.
Industrial regions in Japan.
(a) Tokyo
(b) Kobe
(c) Kimberly
(d) Kawasaki
Answer:
(c) Kimberly

Question 6.
Industrial regions in Africa.
(a) Congo
(b) Ghana
(c) Angela
(d) Zambia
Answer:
(c) Angela

Question 7.
Important industries in New Zealand.
(a) Meat products
(b) Dairy products
(c) Canned fruits
(d) Oil refining
Answer:
(d) Oil refining

Question 8.
Agro-based industries
(a) Cotton textile
(b) Sugar
(c) Food processing
(d) Steel industry
Answer:
(d) Steel industry

Question 9.
Proposed economic corridors
(a) DMIC
(b) ADKIC
(c) BMC
(d) BMIC
Answer:
(c) BMC

Complete the Chain

Question 1.

A	B	C
(1) Co-operative sector	(1) Owned by private individual	(1) ONGC
(2) MNCs	(2) Only one state	(2) AMUL
(3) Private sector	(3) More than one country	(3) BHEL
(4) Public sector	(4) Group of people set up	(4) TISCO

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Co-operative sector	(1) Group of people set up	(1) AMUL
(2) MNCs	(2) More than one country	(2) ONGC
(3) Private sector	(3) Owned by private individual	(3) TISCO
(4) Public sector	(4) Only one state	(4) BHEL

Question 2.

A	B	C
(1) Household industry	(1) Material produced by industry used as raw material by other industries	(1) Iron and Steel industry
(2) Heavy industry	(2) Goods produced for direct consumption	(2) Electronic industry
(3) Light industry	(3) Manufacture parts and components	(3) Iron sheets
(4) Ancillary industry	(4) Use local raw material	(4) Potters

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Household industry	(1) Use local raw material	(1) Potters
(2) Heavy industry	(2) Material produced by industry used as raw material by other industries	(2) Iron and Steel industry
(3) Light industry	(3) Goods produced for direct consumption	(3) Electronic industry
(4) Ancillary industry	(4) Manufacture parts and components	(4) Iron sheets

Complete the following as per instructions.

Question 1.
Arrange the industrial regions of USA from North to South.
New York, Mid-Atlantic, New England, Eastern Texas.
Answer:
New England, New York, Mid-Atlantic, Eastern Texas.

Question 2.
Arrange the industrial regions of Australia from East to West.
Adelaide, Melbourne, Sydney, Perth
Answer:
Sydney, Melbourne, Adelaide, Perth.

Question 3.
Arrange the industrial regions of Japan from North to South. Tokyo, Osaka, Yokohama, Nagoya.
Answer:
Tokyo, Yokohama, Nagoya, Osaka.

Give geographical reasons.

Question 1.
What factors are responsible for non-development of industries in Central Australia?
Answer:

• Central part of Australia is covered by the Great Australian desert.
• Since it is a desert, physical factors like climate, water, raw materials, labour and transport facilities are not suitable for the development of industries.
• Because of these adverse physical conditions, the density of population is extremely low and therefore there are limited markets. Also, due to these unfavourable economic factors also industries are not developed in central Australia.

Differentiate between.

Question 1.
Public Sector Industries and Private Sector Industries.
Answer:

Public Sector Industries	Private Sector Industries
(i) Public sector industries are owned by the state.	(i) Private sector industries are owned by a private individual or in partnership.
(ii) Government investment and marketing of goods.	(ii) Individuals or partners make investment and profit or loss is shared equally.
(iii) Bharat Heavy Electrical Limited (BHEL) is a public sector industry.	(iii) Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO) is a private sector industry.

Question 2.
Large scale industries and Cottage or Household industries
Answer:

Large scale industries	Cottage or Household industries
(i) These industries require huge amount of capital for machinery and infrastructure.	(i) These industries need limited capital, since machinery and infrastructure.
(ii) Goods are produced to sell in the regional or national market.	(ii) Goods are produced for the sale in the local market.
(iii) For example, cotton textile industry or iron and steel industry.	(iii) For example, weavers, blacksmith, sculpture, carpenter etc.
(iv) These industries require skilled labour since all products are handmade.	(iv) These industries require machinery than skilled labour.

Answer the following Questions by using given map.

1. Name the industrial region of India.
2. Name the industrial region of north China.
3. Name the industrial region of Russia
4. Name the industrial region on North-East part of USA.
5. Name the industrial region on South-Western coast of Australia.
6. Name the industrial region of South Japan.
7. Name the industrial region of South America.
8. Name the industrial region of South China.
9. Name the industrial region of Europe.

Answer:

1. The industrial region of India is Chota Nagpur region.
2. The industrial region of North China is East coast industrial region (Beijing).
3. The industrial region of Russia is Moscow-Tula region.
4. The industrial region of North-East part of USA is New England industrial region.
5. The industrial region on South-Western coast of Australia is Perth industrial region.
6. The industrial region of South Japan is Osaka-Kobe-Kyoto industrial region.
7. The industrial region of South America is South-East Brazil industrial region.
8. The industrial region of South China is Lower Yangtze industrial region.
9. The industrial region of Europe is Great Britain industrial region.

Write short notes on.

Question 1.
Classification of industries based on the source of raw material.
Answer:
Based on the source of raw material, industries are classified as follows:
Agro-based industries : The industries which use agricultural produce as raw material and process them into finished products are called agro-based industries. For example, fruit processing industries which produce jam, jelly, sherbet, fruit canning, etc., locate near fruit growing areas.

Mineral-based industries : These industries use minerals as raw material and after processing produce finished products. For example, petrochemical industries use mineral oil as raw material and produce petrol, diesel, lubricants, kerosene, paraffin wax etc.

Forest-based industries : These industries use forest products such as wood, tendu leaves, rubber, turpentine, grass, etc., as raw material and after processing produce finished products. For example, paper industries use wood and make paper, rubber industries use natural rubber to make rubber products, scented oil is made from various grass varieties.

Marine-based industries : These industries use marine resource as raw material and after processing produce finished products. For example, fish canning, fish oil making industries use fish as raw material. Other marine-based industries are industries producing decorative articles/ purses, by using sea shells as raw material or decorative articles of corals.

Pastoral-based industries: These industries use animal product such as milk, meat or body parts of animals such as bones, horns, wool, skin etc. For example, dairy industries use milk, woollen textile mills use wool, or leather industries use skin of animals as raw material.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Geography Important Questions Chapter 8 Geography: Nature and Scope Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Geography Important Questions Chapter 8 Geography: Nature and Scope

Choose the correct option by identifying the correct correlation in the sentences.

Question 1.
………………. is not included in atmosphere.
(a) Weather
(b) Climate
(c) Precipitation
(d) River
Answer:
(d) River

Question 2.
……………….. is not included in hydrosphere.
(a) Mountain
(b) Ocean
(c) Sea
(d) Lake
Answer:
(a) Mountain

Question 3.
……………….. is not included in lithosphere.
(a) Relief
(b) Drainage
(c) Weather
(d) Slope
Answer:
(c) Weather

Question 4.
…………………. is not included in Human Geography.
(a) GIS
(b) Social Geography
(c) Behavioural Geography
(d) Economic Geography
Answer:
(a) GIS

Question 5.
……………… is not included in Human Geography.
(a) Historical Geography
(b) Statistics
(c) Political Geography
(d) Population Geography
Answer:
(b) Statistics

Question 6.
…………………. is not included in geographical techniques.
(a) Statistics
(b) Cartography
(c) Remote sensing
(d) GIS
Answer:
(a) Statistics

Question 7.
………………… is not included in biosphere.
(a) Food chain
(b) Ecosystem
(c) Macro-organisms
(d) Lakes
Answer:
(d) Lakes

Identify the correct correlation.

A : Assertion, R : Reasoning
Question 1.
A – The Earth is dynamic in nature.
R – The geographical phenomena are not static but dynamic.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation A.

Question 2.
A – Geography is dynamic in nature.
R – Geography is a study of space and time.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.

Question 3.
A – Skills of geographers have enriched the subject as newer branches of geography.
R – Skills acquired by geographers enable them to make observations and describe various elements on the earth.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.

Question 4.
A – Geography is an integrating and inter disciplinary discipline.
R – Many branches of geography have developed from mainstreams of disciplines.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.

Identify the incorrect factor.

Question 1.
The main branches of geography are
(a) Physical geography
(b) Economic geography
(c) Pedology
(d) Human geography
Answer:
(c) Pedology

Question 2.
The main branches of Physical geography are
(a) Geomorphology
(b) Climatology
(c) Biogeography
(d) Remote sensing
Answer:
(d) Remote sensing

Question 3.
The cartographic techniques include
(a) Geology
(b) GPS
(c) Cartography
(d) GIS
Answer:
(a) Geology

Question 4.
The subjects related to Human geography are
(a) History
(b) Social geography
(c) Political science
(d) Psychology
Answer:
(b) Social geography

Question 5.
The subjects related to Human geography are
(a) Demography
(b) Sociology
(c) Historical geography
(d) Economics
Answer:
(c) Historical geography

Question 6.
The branches of Human geography are
(a) Economics
(b) Population geography
(c) Behavioural geography
(d) Historical geography
Answer:
(a) Economics

Question 7.
The cartographic techniques include
(a) Computer science
(b) Cartography
(c) Quantification methods in geography
(d) GIS
Answer:
(a) Computer science

Question 8.
The branches of Human geography are
(a) Political geography
(b) Social geography
(c) Psychology
(d) Economic geography
Answer:
(c) Psychology

Question 9.
The subjects related to Physical geography are
(a) Biogeography
(b) Geology
(c) Meteorology
(d) Biology
Answer:
(a) Biogeography

Complete the Chain

Question 1.

A	B	C
(1) Physical Geography	(1) Computer science	(1) GIS
(2) Human Geography	(2) Pedology	(2) Geography of Soils
(3) Geomorphology	(3) Psychology	(3) Behavioural Geography

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Physical Geography	(1) Pedology	(1) Geography of Soils
(2) Human Geography	(2) Psychology	(2) Behavioural Geography
(3) Geomorphology	(3) Computer science	(3) GIS

Question 2.

A	B	C
(1) Geographic Techniques	(1) Geology	(1) Population Geography
(2) Human Geography	(2) Engineering	(2) Geomorphology
(3) Physical Geography	(3) Demography	(3) Remote Sensing

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Geographic Techniques	(1) Engineering	(1) Remote Sensing
(2) Human Geography	(2) Demography	(2) Population Geography
(3) Physical Geography	(3) Geology	(3) Geomorphology

Question 3.

A	B	C
(1) Human Geography	(1) Meteorology	(1) Political Geography
(2) Physical Geography	(2) Geodesy	(2) Cartography
(3) Geographic Techniques	(3) Political Science	(3) Climatology

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Human Geography	(1) Political Science	(1) Political Geography
(2) Physical Geography	(2) Meteorology	(2) Climatology
(3) Geographic Techniques	(3) Geodesy	(3) Cartography

Give geographical reasons.

Question 1.
Geography offers vast scope for career.
Answer:

• Due to the dynamic nature of geography, various advanced statistical techniques and computer programs are used to study and explain the geographical phenomenon.
• Presently, because of global warming, natural disasters occur in various areas of the world. However, different techniques are being used to study the intensity of disasters or provide warnings before a disaster. Hence, disaster management is now a new field for career.
• Geographers have a wide scope to work as climate analyst, water conservation, water and air pollution monitoring, environmental conservation, environmental education/awareness, etc., because of the increasing air and water pollution and environmental degradation.
• Maps are essential in geography. Nowadays, maps are not made manually but with the help of GIS software. Thus, there is a wide scope for career in cartography.
• Population study of a country goes on continuously; therefore, many job opportunities as surveyor, census officer or data collector.
• Research is also going on in various branches for geography; therefore, there are career opportunities as researcher or research analyst.
• There are also career opportunities in book writing, teaching, journalism, freelancing preparing maps and diagrams for textbooks, data scientist, tour guide, report writing, urban planner, travel blogger, data scientists, etc.
  Thus, geography offers vast scope for career.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Geography Important Questions Chapter 6 Tertiary Economic Activities Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Geography Important Questions Chapter 6 Tertiary Economic Activities

Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
Canadian Pacific Railway connects
(a) Halifax – New York
(b) Vancouver – Boston
(c) Halifax- New Orleans
(d) Vancouver – Halifax
Answer:
(d) Vancouver – Halifax

Question 2.
Panama Canal connects
(a) Atlantic – Pacific
(b) Atlantic – Indian Ocean
(c) Bay of Bengal – Arabian sea
(d) Mediterranean Sea – Red sea
Answer:
(a) Atlantic – Pacific

Question 3.
Trans-Siberian Railway line connects
(a) Moscow – Novosibirsk
(b) Vancouver – Boston
(c) Moscow – Khabarovsk
(d) Moscow – Vladivostok
Answer:
(d) Moscow – Vladivostok

Question 4.
Suez Canal connects
(a) Atlantic – Pacific
(b) Atlantic – Indian Ocean
(c) Bay of Bengal – Arabian sea
(d) Mediterranean Sea – Red sea
Answer:
(d) Mediterranean Sea – Red sea

Identify the correct correlation.

A : Assertion, R : Reasoning
Question 1.
A – Some products are processed in secondary activities.
R – Some products received from primary activities cannot be consumed directly.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
A – In international trade of grapes, air transport is used.
R – Grapes are perishable goods.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.

Question 3.
A – In Africa and South America, construction of roads and railways of long distance is difficult.
R – Generally, it is easier to build roads and railways where relief is not rugged.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 4.
A – Densely populated countries have to worry about feeding their own populations.
R – The country with less population will depend less on trade because of less human resources engaged in production.
(a) Only A is correct.
(d) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Identify the incorrect factor.

Question 1.
Important stations of Trans-Siberian railway
(a) Vladivostok
(b) Moscow
(c) Hamburg
(d) Novosibirsk
Answer:
(c) Hamburg

Question 2.
Important stations on Canadian Pacific railway
(a) Halifax
(b) Boston
(c) Montreal
(d) Vancouver
Answer:
(b) Boston

Question 3.
Important ports on Mumbai-Tokyo waterway
(a) Mumbai
(b) Colombo
(c) Perth
(d) Tokyo
Answer:
(c) Perth

Question 4.
Important airports on Mumbai-Washington air route
(a) Istanbul
(b) London
(c) Halifax
(d) Washington
Answer:
(c) Halifax

Question 5.
Parts of the world known for their specific art and craft
(a) Kashmiri shawl
(b) Indian textile
(c) Iranian carpets
(d) Batik print of Indonesia
Answer:
(b) Indian textile

Question 6.
Transportation facilities are well developed in
(a) North America
(b) Africa
(c) Asia
(d) Europe
Answer:
(b) Africa

Question 7.
Important quinary activities are-
(a) Government officials
(b) Scientists
(c) Judges
(d) Statisticians
Answer:
(d) Statisticians

Question 8.
Important quaternary activities are-
(a) Financial planner
(b) Tax consultant
(c) Judges
(d) Software developers
Answer:
(c) Judges

Question 9.
The factors which affect tertiary activities are-
(a) Soil
(b) Climate
(c) Relief
(d) Location
Answer:
(a) Soil

Complete the Chain

Question 1.

A	B	C
(1) Climate	(1) Soil	(1) Import food
(2) Natural Resources	(2) High density	(2) Woollen products
(3) Population	(3) Dry farming	(3) Agriculture
(4) Culture	(4) Snow covered area	(4) Kashmiri shawl
(5) Israel	(5) Art and craft	(5) Export services for agriculture

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Climate	(1) Snow covered area	(1) Woollen products
(2) Natural Resources	(2) Soil	(2) Agriculture
(3) Population	(3) High density	(3) Import food
(4) Culture	(4) Art and craft	(4) Kashmiri shawl
(5) Israel	(5) Dry farming	(5) Export services for agriculture

Question 2.

A	B	C
(1) Climate	(1) Skills	(1) Information technology
(2) Population	(2) Tropical	(2) Tea, Coffee export
(3) Culture	(3) Poor soil	(3) Export oil
(4) Gulf countries	(4) Art and craft	(4) Chinese porcelain

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Climate	(1) Tropical	(1) Tea, Coffee export
(2) Population	(2) Skills	(2) Information technology
(3) Culture	(3) Art and craft	(3) Chinese porcelain
(4) Gulf countries	(4) Poor soil	(4) Export oil

Give geographical reasons.

Question 1.
The population of the country also affects trade.
Answer:
The quality and quantity of population in the country have direct effect on the trade.
Densely populated countries have a lot of local demand. So, there is hardly any surplus for export trade.
The thinly populated countries have limited local demand. Therefore, they have a lot of surplus for trade.

The quality of population also affects trade. More resourceful, enthusiastic and skilled people in the country, more innovative production and trade in the country.

In many countries, skills of a person is preserved from generation to generation. Hence, they are specialised in certain products. Therefore, they develop trade of such goods. For example, carpets in Iran, woollen goods of Jammu and Kashmir, Chinese porcelain, etc.

The standard of living also affects trade. In some countries population is less but due to high standard of living, there is more demand for expensive goods. So, import trade is developed there.

Answer the following questions by any given map.

1. Write the name of transcontinental railway line in Russia.
2. Write the name of transcontinental railway line in Canada.
3. Write the name of canal which connects Red Sea with Mediterranean Sea or Asia with Europe.
4. Write the name of canal which connects Pacific Ocean with Atlantic Ocean.
5. Write the name of the important international airport of North India.
6. Name the international airport of UK.
7. Which means of transport are shown in the map?

Answer:

1. The transcontinental railway line in Russia is the Trans-Siberian railway line.
2. The transcontinental railway line in Canada is the Canadian-Pacific railway line.
3. The canal which connects Red Sea with Mediterranean Sea or Asia with Europe is the Suez canal.
4. The canal which connects Pacific Ocean with Atlantic Ocean is the Panama canal.
5. The important international airport of North India is in Delhi.
6. The important international airport of the UK is in London.
7. The means of transport shown in the map are transcontinental railway lines and airways.

Write short notes on.

Question 1.
Climate and trade.
Answer:
Climate has a direct effect on agriculture of the country. Due to favourable climate there is specialisation of certain crops in some areas. For example, due to hot and humid climate there is specialisation of rice crops in Southeast Asian countries. So, they have developed trade of rice in the world.

The quality of grass depends upon climate. In cool climates, soft and juicy grass grows, so such area has developed pastoral activities and trade of animal products. For example, Australia and New Zealand have become some of the leading exporters of butter, cheese, condensed milk powder, mutton, etc.

Climate also affects the growth and type of forest in the country. Due to a cool climate in Canada, Russia, Scandinavian countries, the coniferous forest grows which provides softwood; it has great demand in the world market. Therefore, Canada, Norway, Sweden, Finland, Russia are leading exporters of wood.

In some countries, there is a specialization of certain goods due to specific climates. For example, in snow-covered areas there is more production of woolen goods; therefore, there is more export trade of woolen goods from the Jammu and Kashmir states of India.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Geography Important Questions Chapter 4 Primary Economic Activities Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Geography Important Questions Chapter 4 Primary Economic Activities

Identify the correct correlation.

A: Assertion R : Reasoning
Question 1.
A – Collection of forest products is not done on large scale in the equatorial forest region.
R – Humid and unhealthy climate of the equatorial region.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
A – Commercial lumbering is not done in equatorial rainforest.
R – Trees in equatorial rain forest have hardwood.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 3.
A – Lumbering is mostly practiced in coniferous forest region.
R – Coniferous forest are not very dense.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(a) Only A is correct.

Question 4.
A – Fishing on the coastal areas of Japan is well developed.
R – Presence of cold and warm ocean water currents.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 5.
A – Animal husbandry has developed on a commercial basis in North America and Australia.
R – In North and South America animal husbandry is carried out with the help of advanced technology on a commercial basis.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Identify the incorrect factor

Question 1.
Commercial fishing is carried along the following coastlines.
(a) North-East Atlantic coastline
(b) North-West Atlantic coastline
(c) Eastern coastline of Africa
(d) North-West coastline of Pacific Ocean
Answer:
(c) Eastern coastline of Africa

Question 2.
Agriculture is developed in the following continents.
(a) Antarctica
(b) Asia
(c) Europe
(d) North America
Answer:
(a) Antarctica

Question 3.
Animal husbandry is developed on a commercial basis in the following continents.
(a) North America
(b) Australia
(c) Asia
(d) South America
Answer:
(c) Asia

Question 4.
The following physical factors are important for agriculture.
(a) Climate
(b) Transport
(c) Soil
(d) Relief
Answer:
(b) Transport

Question 5.
The following economic factors are essential for agriculture.
(a) Transport
(b) Storage facilities
(c) Climate
(d) Capital
Answer:
(c) Climate

On an outline map of the world, show the following with appropriate symbols and prepare-an index.

Question 1.
(a) Horticultural area in Europe
(b) Plantation agriculture area in Asia
(c) Extensive commercial agriculture area in USA and Russia
(d) North-East Atlantic fishing
(e) Countries leading in commercial lumbering in Europe,
(f) Mining areas in Africa
Answer:

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Political Science Important Questions Chapter 5 Contemporary India: Good Governance Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Political Science Important Questions Chapter 5 Contemporary India: Good Governance

Complete the following statements by selecting the appropriate option.

Question 1.
The concept of ‘citizens charter’ is part of
(a) POSDCORB
(b) development administration
(c) good governance
(d) NGO activity
Answer:
(c) good governance

Question 2.
The good governance model looks at inter-linkages between the government and
(a) civil society
(b) political parties
(c) public administration
(d) human rights
Answer:
(a) civil society

Question 3.
The culture of ‘secrecy’ in administration has been challenged by the good governance value of
(a) effectiveness
(b) transparency
(c) accountability
(d) equity
Answer:
(b) transparency

Question 4.
The Consumer Protection Act was passed in the year
(a) 1986
(b) 1990
(c) 2000
(d) 2012
Answer:
(a) 1986

Identify the incorrect pair in every set and correct it.

Question 1.
(a) Lokayuktas – States
(b) Fundamental duties – good governance
(c) E-governance – Digitisation of records
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy – good governance
Answer:
(b) Fundamental duties – good governance

Complete the following sentences by selecting the appropriate reason.

Question 1.
Governance is a broader view of public administration because ………………
(a) it includes not only formal institutions of government but also informal institutions.
(b) it is based on e-governance.
(c) it was introduced after the second ARC.
Answer:
(a) it includes not only formal institutions of government but also informal institutions.

State the appropriate concept for the given statements.

Question 1.
Wide range of organisations such as labour unions, NGO’s etc.
Answer:
Civil Society

Question 2.
Institution created in India in 2013 to inquire into allegations of corruption against officials at union level.
Answer:
Lokpal

Question 3.
Governance facilitated by I.C.T.
Answer:
e-governance

Question 4.
Act of 2005 that enables citizens to seek important public information from the government.
Answer:
Right to Information Act

Find the odd word.

Question 1.
Religious groups, Bur6aucracy, Professional groups, NGO’s.
Answer:
Bureaucracy (not included in civil society / non-state actors)

Question 2.
Buddhists, Christians, Hindus, Jains.
Answer:
Hindus (not included in religious minorities in India)

Question 3.
Secrecy, Efficiency, Responsiveness, Inclusiveness.
Answer:
Secrecy (not a core value of good governance)

Question 4.
Policy framework, Funding framework, Institutional framework, Redressal and grievances framework
Answer:
Redressal and grievances framework (not a pillar of e-governance)

Complete the concept maps

Question 1.

Answer:

State whether the following statements are true or false with reason.

Question 1.
Good governance approach is a break from the traditional model of public administration.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. Good governance approach aims to improve the performance of public institutions by making administration citizen-centered and not merely rule-bound.
2. It aims to replace traditional administration that was archaic and riddled with red tapism and corruption with participative, responsive, equitable and transparent administration.

Question 2.
E-governance has brought administration closer to people.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. E-governance refers to good governance which is facilitated using Information and Communications Technology (ICT) This helps in the instantaneous transmission, processing, storage and retrieval of data.
2. The objective of the National e-governance Plan of Government of India is to bring public service closer home to citizens. This can be done by building a countrywide infrastructure and large scale digitisation of records to enable easy, reliable access over the Internet for e.g., passport application can be done online.

Question 3.
Right to Information is the key to strengthening participatory democracy.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. Right to Information Act, 2005 has enabled citizens to seek important public information from the government and helps to usher in people-centered governance.
2. R.T.I is a basic necessity of good governance as it helps to bring transparency in government organisations and makes them function in an efficient, responsive manner.

Explain the correlation between the following.

Question 1.
Good Governance – Traditional model of administration.
Answer:
The concept of development administration brought in changes in the traditional role of administration. Governance refers to the cooperative effort of government as well as non¬government bodies in public administration. Since the traditional approach of public administration was archaic, riddled with red tapism and corruption it would not satisfy the requirements of the citizens. The good governance model is based on core values of efficient, effective, responsible, responsive, transparent and accountable public administration.

Question 2.
Citizen participation – Good governance.
Answer:
In development administration, not only the government but also citizens and NGO’s play a vital role. The term ‘governance’ is used to describe this cooperative effort of the government and non¬governmental bodies in public administration.
The Good Governance approach aims at the following-

1. to reform the traditional, huge-sized public administration which was riddled with red tape and corruption
2. to replace the archaic systems with responsible, participative and equitable systems
3. to look at interlinkages between government and civil society
4. to make the administration citizen-centered and not rule bound.

Citizen participation refers to the following aspects-

1. the development process is a ‘bottom-up’ approach in which citizens are not recipients but participants in this process
2. citizens have a right in making decisions pertaining to themselves
3. there are modalities by which citizens can take control of resources and influence decision making
4. it contributes to a responsive, participative democracy.

Question 3.
Good Governance – Right to Information. (RTI)
Answer:
In development administration, not only the government but also citizens and NGO’s play a vital role. The term ‘governance’ is used to describe this cooperative effort of the government and non¬governmental bodies in public administration.
The Good Governance approach aims at the following-

1. to reform the traditional, huge-sized public administration which was riddled with red tape and corruption.
2. to replace the archaic systems with responsible, participative and equitable systems.
3. to look at interlinkages between government and civil society.
4. to make the administration citizen-centered and not rule bound.

The R. T. I became operative w.e.f. 12th October 2005. The main objectives of the R.T.I is for citizens to secure access to information under control of public authorities so as to increase citizens awareness and ability to exercise their other rights. It is a basic necessity of good governance which enables citizens to seek important public information from the government i.e., about public policies and actions Transparency in government institutions makes them function more objectively and enables citizens to participate effectively in the governance process.

R.T.I. is an implied fundamental right under the constitution i.e., a part of Article 19 (1) (a) as well as of Article 21. It grants access to information held by a public authority so as to promote openness, transparency and accountability in administration. According to the UN Commission on Human Rights, “Good governance creates an enabling environment conducive to the enjoyment of human rights and prompts growth and sustainable development”. Thus R.T.I. helps in good governance.

Express your opinion of the following.

Question 1.
The National Commission for Minorities (NCM) is an important institutional mechanism towards good governance.
Answer:
I agree with this statement.
The NCM was set up by the Union Government under National Commission for Minorities Act (1992). It monitors the working of safeguards for religious minorities (i.e. Muslim, Christian, Sikh, Buddhist, Zoroastrian (Parsis) and Jain). It looks into specific complaints regarding deprivation of rights of the minorities and takes up such matters with the appropriate authorities. The NCM enables that benefits of good governance must be available to all sections of society, especially to minorities.

Answer the following question in 80 to 100 words.

Question 1.
Elaborate on e-Governance.
Answer:
In the last few decades, governance has become more complex and varied. Citizens expectations from the government have also increased. Information and Communications Technology (ICT) is used in governance. This is called ‘e-governance’. It helps in-

1. instant transmission and processing information and efficient storing and retrieval of data.
2. increasing the reach of government both geographically and demographically.
3. speeding up decision making and increasing transparency and accountability of government processes. E-governance in India has evolved from computerisation of departments to initiatives which are citizen centric and service oriented.

The Government of Maharashtra has identified six priority pillars to use e-governance so as to become proactive and responsive to its citizens’ needs.
Pillar – 1: Establishment of Policy/Legal Frameworks: Legal Framework has to be updated regularly with changing times and technologies.
Pillar – 2: Develop Strong Capacity Building Framework: Capacity Building of employees is necessary.
Pillar – 3: Facilitate abundant Funding: Ensure mechanisms for provision of adequate and timely funds.
Pillar – 4: Institutional Framework: Develop administrative structures that are capable of envisioning and guiding the e-Governance programs.
Pillar 5 – Build Core e-Governance Common Infrastructure: Develop the core e-Governance infrastructure like Data Centre, Common Service Centres and State Wide Area Network etc.
Pillar 6 – Develop Common Statewide Projects: Develop applications like e-Tendering, e-Office, SMS gateway, payment gateway etc. that are common to majority of State departments to ensure coordination.

Question 2.
Discuss the initiatives for good governance in India.
Answer:
After independence, India adopted a socialist model of development aimed at achieving a Welfare State. The Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances looks after administrative reforms in India. It’s objectives are-

1. to promote administrative reforms in government policies and processes.
2. to promote citizen-centric governance.
3. to conduct innovations in e-governance.

The Second Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) was set up in 2005 to prepare a blueprint for revamping the public administration system in India. It looked at the following issues.

1. To make public administration accountable, transparent, efficient, responsive and result- oriented.
2. Citizen centric, participative administration.

There have been a large number of reform measures which have sought to bring administration closer to the people. Broadly these initiatives include :

1. Enacting laws giving certain rights to people.
2. Setting up of new institutional mechanisms to redress citizens’ grievances.
3. Improving accessibility to citizens by setting up units closer to people.
4. Simplifying procedures to reduce bureaucratic delays.
5. Using technology to improve internal efficiency.
6. Reducing regulatory control.
7. Holding public contact programmes etc.

Question 3.
Find out examples of the reforms that have been initiated for each of the measures stated below.
Answer:

1. Enacting laws giving rights to people – Reform initiated – Right to Information (2005).
2. Setting up of new institutional mechanisms to redress citizens’ grievances – Reform initiated: Creating commissions like NHRC, NCW, NCM, etc.
3. Improving accessibility to citizens by setting up units closer to people – Reform initiated: Building a countrywide infrastructure reaching down to the remotes areas.
4. Simplifying procedures to reduce bureaucratic delays – Reform initiated: Formulation of Citizen’s Charters to specify service standards.
5. Using technology to improve internal efficiency – Reform initiated: e-governance i.e., use of Information and Communications Technology (I.C.T) to enable easy access over the internet.
6. Improving discipline within the organisation – Reform initiated: Establishing body of Lokpal for the Union and Lokayukta for States.

Answer the following question with reference to the given points.

Question 1.
Discuss in detail the following specific programmes aimed at bringing good governance in India.
(a) Lokpal and Lokayukta
(b) Right to Information
(c) E-Governance
(d) Citizen’s Charters
Answer:
After independence, India adopted a socialist model of development aimed at achieving a Welfare State. The Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances looks after administrative reforms in India. It’s objectives are-

1. to promote administrative reforms in government policies and processes.
2. to promote citizen-centric governance.
3. to conduct innovations in e-governance.

The Second Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) was set up in 2005 to prepare a blueprint for revamping the public administration system in India. It looked at the following issues.

1. to make public administration accountable, transparent, efficient, responsive and result-oriented.
2. citizen centric, participative administration.

(a) Lokpal and Lokayukta – The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act (2013) provides for the establishment of Lokpal (central government) and Lokayuktas (States) to inquire into allegations of corruption against public officials in a commitment to responsive, clean governance. The Maharashtra Lokayukta Institution came into being in 1972.

(b) Right to Information – It is a basic necessity of good governance which enables citizens to seek important public information from the government i.e., about public policies and actions. Transparency in government institutions makes them function more objectively and enables citizens to participate effectively in the governance process.

(c) E-Governance In the last few decades, governance has become more complex and varied. Citizens expectations from the government have also increased. Information and Communications Technology (ICT) is used in governance. This is called ‘e-governance’. It helps in-

1. instant transmission and processing information and efficient storing and retrieval of data.
2. increasing the reach of government both geographically and demographically.
3. speeding up decision making and increasing transparency and accountability of government processes. E-governance in India has evolved from computerisation of departments to initiatives which are citizen centric and service oriented.

(d) Citizen’s Charters – The exercise to formulate citizen’s charters began in 1996. Each organisation must spell out the services it has to perform and the standards / norms for these services. If these standards are not met then that agency can be held accountable.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Geography Important Questions Chapter 1 Population Part 1 Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Geography Important Questions Chapter 1 Population Part 1

Choose the correct option by identifying the correct correlation in the sentences.

Question 1.
…………… continent has the least population.
(a) Europe
(b) North America
(c) Australia
(d) Africa
Answer:
(c) Australia

Question 2.
………………. continent has the largest population.
(a) Europe
(b) North America
(c) Asia
(d) Africa
Answer:
(c) Asia

Question 3.
…………………. continent has the largest land mass in the world.
(a) North America
(b) South America
(c) Asia
(d) Australia
Answer:
(c) Asia

Question 4.
……………… continent has the smallest land mass in the world.
(a) Australia
(b) Europe
(c) North America
(d) Africa
Answer:
(a) Australia

Question 5.
…………………. continent has the most landmass as well as most of the population.
(a) North America
(b) Asia
(c) Africa
(d) Australia
Answer:
(b) Asia

Question 6.
…………….. continent has the least landmass and also least population.
(a) South America
(b) North America
(c) Australia
(d) Europe
Answer:
(c) Australia

Question 7.
…………………. country has the largest population in the world.
(a) India
(b) China
(c) USA
(d) Australia
Answer:
(b) China

Question 8.
……………….. country has the second largest population in the world.
(a) China
(b) USA
(c) India
(d) Brazil
Answer:
(c) India

Question 9.
The crude birth rate per thousand in India is ………………..
(a) 46
(b) 12
(c) 12
(d) 18
Answer:
(d) 18

Question 10.
The crude death rate per thousand in India ………………..
(a) 9
(b) 11
(c) 7
(d) 8
Answer:
(c) 7

Complete the chain.

Question 1.

A	B	C
(1) Asia	(1) 28.50% of the world landmass	(1) 18.09% of the world population
(2) Europe	(2) 5.90% of the world landmass	(2) 0.55% of the world population
(3) Australia	(3) 6.80% of the world landmass	(3) 4.75% of the world population
(4) North and South America	(4) 29.20% of the world landmass	(4) 59.65% of the world population

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Asia	(1) 29.20% of the world landmass	(1) 59.65% of the world population
(2) Europe	(2) 6.80% of the world landmass	(2) 4.75% of the world population
(3) Australia	(3) 5.90% of the world landmass	(3) 0.55% of the world population
(4) North and South America	(4) 28.50% of the world landmass	(4) 18.09% of the world population

Question 2.

A	B	C
(1) India	(1) 171 lakh sq. km	(1) 1073 persons per sq. km
(2) USA	(2) 105 lakh sq. km	(2) 411 persons per sq. km
(3) Bangladesh	(3) 95.3 lakh sq. km	(3) 34 persons per sq. km
(4) Russia	(4) 321 lakh sq. km	(4) 8.5 persons per sq. km

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) India	(1) 32.9 lakh sq. km	(1) 411 persons per sq. km
(2) USA	(2) 95.3 lakh sq. km	(2) 34 persons per sq. km
(3) Bangladesh	(3) 1.5 lakh sq. km	(3) 1073 persons per sq. km
(4) Russia	(4) 171 lakh sq. km	(4) 8.5 persons per sq. km

Question 3.

A	B	C
(1) Mountains	(1) Siberia	(1) High density of population
(2) Climate	(2) Odd physical conditions	(2) Government promote to shift people
(3) Mining	(3) Mediterranean	(3) Equable climate
(4) Government	(4) Dehradun	(4) High cost minerals attract people

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Mountains	(1) Dehradun	(1) High density of population
(2) Climate	(2) Mediterranean	(2) Equable climate
(3) Mining	(3) Odd physical conditions	(3) High cost minerals attract people
(4) Government	(4) Siberia	(4) Government promote to shift people

Question 4.

A	B	C
(1) Stage 1	(1) Birth rate is not less than death rate but it is almost the same	(1) China
(2) Stage 2	(2) Birth rates and death rates are also decreasing	(2) USA
(3) Stage 3	(3) Birth rate and death rates are high, population growth is stable	(3) No country in this category
(4) Stage 4	(4) Reduction in death rates and birth rates are constant	(4) Population explosion

Answer:

A	B	C
(1) Stage 1	(1) Birth rate and death rates are high, population growth is stable	(1) No country in this category
(2) Stage 2	(2) Reduction in death rates and birth rates are constant	(2) Population explosion
(3) Stage 3	(3) Birth rates and death rates are also decreasing	(3) China
(4) Stage 4	(4) Birth rate is not less than death rate but it are almost the same	(4) USA

Identify the incorrect factor.

Question 1.
Continents which have least population.
(a) South America
(b) Asia
(c) Australia
(d) Africa
Answer:
(b) Asia

Question 2.
Continents which have large population.
(a) Europe
(b) North America
(c) Asia
(d) Africa
Answer:
(d) Africa

Question 3.
Physical factors affecting population distribution.
(a) Relief
(b) Climate
(c) Soil
(d) Transportation
Answer:
(d) Transportation

Question 4.
Human factors affecting population distribution.
(a) Agriculture
(b) Availability of water
(c) Urbanisation
(d) Transportation
Answer:
(b) Availability of water

Question 5.
Sparsely populated regions in the world.
(a) Snow covered regions
(b) Hot deserts
(c) Coastal regions
(d) Mountainous and hilly regions
Answer:
(c) Coastal regions

Question 6.
Densely populated regions of the world.
(a) Hot deserts
(b) Coastal plains
(c) Flat plains
(d) Flood plains
Answer:
(a) Hot deserts

Question 7.
Countries which have large population in the world.
(a) India
(b) China
(c) USA
(d) Australia
Answer:
(d) Australia

Question 8.
Countries which have low population in the world.
(a) China
(b) Australia
(c) Brazil
(d) Rumania
Answer:
(a) China

Question 9.
Countries which have crude birth rate more than 10 in the year 2017.
(a) Sweden
(b) China
(c) USA
(d) Greece
Answer:
(d) Greece

Question 10.
Countries which have crude death rate less than 10 in the year 2017.
(a) Sweden
(b) Greece
(c) India
(d) China
Answer:
(b) Greece

Complete the following as per instructions.

Question 1.
Arrange the following continents on the basis of area in percentage in ascending order. Antarctica, Europe, North America, Asia, Australia
Answer:
Australia, Europe, Antarctica, North America, Asia

Question 2.
Arrange the following continents on the basis of area in the percentage in descending order.
Australia, Asia, North America, Antarctica, Europe
Answer:
Asia, North America, Antarctica, Europe, Australia

Question 3.
Arrange the following continents on the basis of population in percentage in descending order.
North America, South America, Africa, Asia, Australia, Antarctica
Answer:
Asia, Africa, North America, South America, Australia, Antarctica

Question 4.
Arrange the following continents on the basis of population in percentage in ascending order.
Australia, Antarctica, Asia, Africa, North America, South America
Answer:
Antarctica, Australia, South America, North America, Africa, Asia.

Question 5.
Arrange the following countries on the basis of population in crores in descending order.
India, Pakistan, USA, Russia, China
Answer:
China, India, USA, Pakistan, Russia

Question 6.
Arrange the following countries on the basis of population in crores in ascending order.
Russia, China, Mexico, India, Brazil
Answer:
Mexico, Russia, Brazil, India, China

Question 7.
Arrange the following countries in descending order on the basis of birth rate in the year 2017.
USA, Greece, China, India, Niger
Answer:
Niger, India, China, USA, Greece

Question 8.
Arrange the following countries in ascending order on the basis of birth rate in the year 2017.
USA, Greece, China, India, Niger
Answer:
Greece, USA, China, India, Niger

Question 9.
Arrange the following countries in descending order on the basis of death rate in the year 2017.
China, India Greece, USA, Sweden
Answer:
Greece, Sweden, USA, India, China

Question 10.
Arrange the following countries in ascending order on the basis of death rate in the year 2017.
China, India, Greece, USA, Sweden
Answer:
China, India, USA, Sweden, Greece

Write short notes on.

Question 1.
Impact of climate on distribution of population.
Answer:

• Climate is the most important factor of all the factors influencing the distribution of population.
• Areas of extreme climate like too hot, too cold, too humid, too dry and region of very heavy rainfall are not comfortable for inhabitation of people. Such areas are sparsely populated.
• For example, polar regions where Eskimo and Lapps live are sparsely populated due to extreme cold climate. Sahara Desert is sparsely populated due to extreme hot climate.
• On the other hand, areas with equable climate, that is climate with not much seasonal variation attract people. People feel comfortable to stay in these areas.
• For example, coastal areas have dense population because of equable climate and wide scope for the development of agriculture, industries and trade.

Question 2.
Impact of transportation on distribution of population.
Answer:
1. Availability of transport facilities is also an important human factor which affect the distribution of population in

2. Roads and railways are two important means of transportation. They increase accessibility to the region and provide facilities for the movement of people goods. Thus, developing trade and generating employment opportunities. Hence, population in such areas increases.

3. For example, density of roads and railways is very high in Uttar Pradesh and therefore it is one of the most densely populated state of India.

4. In some areas due to growth of sea transport, development of port cities and trade takes place. There is also an increase in the transport facilities connecting to the surrounding areas. Therefore, population in coastal areas increases. For example, port cities on eastern and western coastal of India are densely populated.

5. On the other hand, due to lack of transport facilities areas become inaccessible, movement of goods and people become costly and require more time and hence such areas are thinly populated.

Question 3.
Impact of mining on distribution of population.
Answer:

• Minerals are important raw materials in the development of industries.
• Therefore, industries develop where good quality minerals are available. Mining and industries generate employment for large number of people and hence skilled and semi¬skilled labourers attract to such regions and mining areas become densely populated.
• For example, Richest mineralised zone of India – Chota Nagpur region, Ruhr region of Germany (due to coal and iron mines) are densely populated.
• In some country’s valuable minerals like gold, silver, copper are mined. In such areas in spite of adverse climate and relief minerals are extracted. Also, the region around the mines are densely populated.
• For example, gold producing areas in Africa, mineral oil mines in the deserts of south-west Asia.

Question 4.
Stage 5 of Demographic Transition Theory.
Answer:

• Stage 5 in Demographic Transition Theory is the last stage.
• In this stage the birth rate is very low and death rate is high. Therefore, the growth of population is slow or negative growth of population is seen.
• Due to large number of old people the death rate is high and due to a smaller number of young people birth rate is low.
• Tertiary activities are more developed and they contribute more to the economy.
• The standard of living of people is high, economic condition of the country is good.
• In this stage government provides high quality educational and medical facilities.
• Overall people are happy due to healthy environment and comfortable life.
• For example, Norway, Sweden, Finland are in this stage.

Question 5.
Population characteristics in Stage 1 and Stage 2 in Demographic Transition theory
Answer:

Stage 1	Stage 2
(i) Both birth rates and death rates are high.	(i) Birth rates are constant and death rates are declining.
(ii) Population growth is stable.	(ii) Population grows rapidly.
(iii) Low sanitation, high occurrence of contagious diseases.	(iii) Efforts are made to control and combat diseases.
(iv) Due to lack of medical facilities and malnutrition mortality rate is high.	(iv) Reduction in mortality rate.
(v) People depend on agriculture and other primary activities.	(v) Secondary activities and transport developed
(vi) No country falls in this category.	(vi) Most of the developing countries fall in this category.

Question 6.
Population composition and Population structure
Answer:

Population composition	Population structure
(i) Population composition covers all the characteristics of population that can be measured.	(i) Composition of population gives idea about the structure of population.
(ii) On the basis of composition, we can classify and understand it’s characteristics.	(ii) Population structure gives idea about dependency ratio and its impact on economy of the country.
(iii) Examples of population composition are age structure, sex ratio, literacy rate, occupational structure etc.	(iii) For example, age composition gives idea about percentage of young, adult and old age population.

Question 7.
Population characteristics in Stage 4 and Stage 5 in Demographic Transition Theory.
Answer:

Stage 4	Stage 5
(i) Improvement in the economic status of the citizens.	(i) High economic status of the citizens of the country.
(ii) Secondary and tertiary occupations have higher share than primary occupations.	(ii) Tertiary occupation contribute most towards the economy.
(iii) Population growth is almost minimal.	(iii) Population may reduce because of lower birth rate than death rate.
(iv) USA is passing through this stage.	(iv) Sweden and Finland population are in this stage.

Question 8.
Early expanding stage and Late expanding stage
Answer:

Early expanding stage	Late expanding stage
(i) Birth rates continue to remain constant.	(i) Death rates continue to decrease. Birth rates are also decreasing.
(ii) Population grows rapidly.	(ii) Rate of growth of population reduces.
(iii) Agricultural and industrial production increases.	(iii) Rise in technological growth and expansion of secondary and tertiary activities.
(iv) For e.g., Uganda, Congo, Bangladesh, Niger etc.	(iv) For e.g., China.

Answer the following questions in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the human factors affecting distribution of population.
Answer:
Important human factors affecting distribution of population are
(i) Agriculture
(ii) Mining
(iii) Transportation
(iv) Urbanisation
(v) Government policy

(i) Agriculture

• Due to use of fertilizers and irrigation facilities, agricultural production increases and it supports large number of people.
• The method of cultivation, crops grown, types of agriculture and specialisation in particular crop are the other factors that affects the distribution of population.

(ii) Mining

• Minerals are the important raw materials for the development of industries.
• Industries develop in mineral rich areas and generate employment for skilled and unskilled labour. People are attracted in such areas and thus density of population increases.
• For example, richest mineralised zone of India – Chota Nagpur region in India is densely populated.

(iii) Transportation

• Regions having well developed network of transportation facilities are densely populated.
• Transportation network increases accessibility and helps to develop industries and generate employment and increases density of population.
• On the other hand, the areas where transport facilities are not developed, movement of goods and people become difficult and time consuming and therefore density of population is less.

(iv) Urbanisation

• Due to the development of industries, there is growth of towns and cities.
• In cities transportation, trade and other tertiary activities develop on large scale to fulfil the needs of increasing population.
• People are attracted to city areas due to better employment opportunities, educational and medical facilities, development of means of transport and communication and thus population goes on increasing. For e.g. Mumbai, London, Tokyo, New York.

(v) Government policy

• There is direct effect of government policies on density and distribution of population.
• Sometimes the government encourages people to settle in certain areas to reduce the pressure of population in certain cities. The government provides incentives to attract people.
• For example, to reduce overcrowding in Mumbai city, government provided land, water, and power at concessional rate in New Mumbai area.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Political Science Important Questions Chapter 4 Contemporary India: Challenges to Peace, Stability and National Integration Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Political Science Important Questions Chapter 4 Contemporary India: Challenges to Peace, Stability and National Integration

Complete the following statements by selecting the appropriate option.

Question 1.
‘Unity in diversity is one of the important Indian values associated with
(a) Panchayati Raj
(b) National integration
(c) Concept of a nation
(d) Concept of ‘melting pot’
Answer:
(b) National integration

Question 2.
Charu Majumdar is associated with the
(a) JKLF
(b) Naxal movement
(c) Hizb-ul-Mujahideen
(d) Assam Oil Blockage
Answer:
(b) Naxal movement

Question 3.
States in India were reorganised in 1956 on the basis of
(a) language
(b) religion
(c) region
(d) caste
Answer:
(a) language

Question 4.
In 1947-48, India had a conflict with
(a) Jammu and Kashmir
(b) England
(c) Pakistan
(d) China
Answer:
(c) Pakistan

Question 5.
In 1980, an oil blockade agitation was in to focus on the demand for economic development.
(a) Jharkhand
(b) Nagaland
(c) Kashmir
(d) Assam
Answer:
(d) Assam

Question 6.
………………. signed the Instrument of Accession with India in 1947.
(a) Maharaja Hari Singh
(b) Amanullah Khan
(c) Kanu Sanyal
(d) Hafiz Saeed
Answer:
(a) Maharaja Hari Singh

Identify the incorrect pair in every set and correct it.

Question 1.
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru – Discovery of India
(b) Struggle for rights of Tamil – LTTE
(c) National Integration Council – Article 370
Answer:
(c) ‘Special status’ for State of Jammu and Kashmir – Article 370

Complete the following sentences by selecting the appropriate reason.

Question 1.
In 1962, the N. I. C was created in India to ……………….
(a) review all matters pertaining to national integration.
(b) oversee the integration of Princely States into India.
(c) deal with insurgency in North-East India.
Answer:
(a) review all matters pertaining to national integration.

Question 2.
The freedom movement played an important role in national integration because …………….
(a) it provided a platform to express democratic views.
(b) it brought Indians together in a common framework of political identity and loyalty.
(c) it provided nationalistic symbols like the National Flag and common citizenship.
Answer:
(b) it brought Indians together in a common framework of political identity and loyalty.

Question 3.
India can be described as the ‘Salad bowl’ identity because ………………….
(a) it recognizes every culture, religion, etc., of a pluralistic society and it’s importance in national integration.
(b) it stresses on a system of assimilation towards a homogeneous society.
(c) it recognizes the right to self-determination of diverse groups in the country.
Answer:
(a) it recognizes every culture, religion, etc., of a pluralistic society and it’s importance in national integration.

State the appropriate concept for the given statements.

Question 1.
A sense of political identity.
Answer:
Nationalism

Question 2.
Concept used to describe American society based on a process of assimilation.
Answer:
Melting pot

Question 3.
The concept that argues that all aspects of diversity should be maintained in a pluralistic society.
Answer:
Salad bowl

Question 4.
Secessionist movement in the Punjab in 1980s.
Answer:
Khalistani movement

Question 5.
A militant movement that originated in the communist ideology
Answer:
Naxalism or Left Wing Extremism

Find the odd word.

Question 1.
CPI (M-L), PWG, MCCI, NIC.
Answer:
NIC (not a Naxal organisation)

Question 2.
Lashkar-e-Taiba, JKLF, IRA, Jaish-e-Mohammed.
Answer:
IRA (not a terrorist group operating in India)

Question 3.
Kerala, Jharkhand, Telangana, Chhattisgarh.
Answer:
Kerala (not affected by Naxalism)

Observe the maps in the textbook and answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Which two union territories have been created due to the bifurcation of the State of Jammu and Kashmir (2019)?
Answer:

1. Jammu and Kashmir
2. Ladakh

Question 2.
Name two Indian States that border Jammu and Kashmir.
Answer:

1. Punjab
2. Himachal Pradesh

Question 3.
Name two districts in the Union Territory of Ladakh.
Answer:

1. Kargil
2. Leh

Question 4.
Name two district in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.
Answer:

1. Udhampur
2. Kupwara

Question 5.
Name two countries that were neighbours of the erstwhile State of Jammu and Kashmir.
Answer:

1. China
2. Pakistan

State whether the following statements are true or false with reason.

Question 1.
Cross Border terrorism in Jammu and Kashmir is a major threat to nation building in India.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. There are many terrorist outfits operating out of Pakistan Occupied Kashmir (POK) or Pakistan such as LET, Hizbul. This has led to frequent terrorist violence in the region since the last two and half decades.
2. Terrorists indulge in acts like bombings, assassinations, etc. They try to radicalise people through ‘fake news’ and vested social groups as well as to encourage local insurgent groups. Terrorists have even indoctrinated children to hate the country and indulge in criminal acts like stone throwing and arson.

Question 2.
Left-Wing Extremism has spread over many States in India.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. Left-Wing Extremism or Naxalism has it’s ideological foundations in communism and the writings of Charu Majumdar. It’s main purpose is to show existing government structures and process as being ineffective.
2. Maoist operations are primarily in rural underdeveloped areas with support base among landless and dalits across the Red Corridor i.e., States like Bihar, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, etc.

Question 3.
The Khalistan movement occurred in the State of Kashmir
Answer:
This statement is False.

1. The Khalistan movement occurred in the State of Punjab as a separatist movement for an independent homeland for Sikhs i.e., The Khalistan or the Land of the Khalsa.
2. The Jammu and Kashmir region has been subjected to terrorism due to local militant outfits as well as cross border terrorism.

Question 4.
Modern day terrorism is State-centric.
Answer:
This statement is False.

1. Modern day terrorism is not State-centric but is a global abstract fight for religious or ideological goals e.g., 2001 attacks by the A1 Qaeda in USA.
2. Traditional form of terrorism was State-centric i.e., a specific section of people fighting for their rights against the State e.g., LTTE in Sri Lanka.

Explain the correlation between the following.

Question 1.
Insurgency in North East India and Neglect of the region
Answer:
North-East India comprises of eight States which are ethnically and culturally very diverse. Many of these States share boundaries with other countries like China, Nepal, Bhutan, Myanmar, Bangladesh. Many of these States are not well connected with mainland India. Some regions of the states in North-East India are not well developed. Ensuring industrial and economic development has been a major issue. Various insurgent groups have created havoc in States like Nagaland, Mizoram, Tripura, etc., In Assam, the ‘anti-foreigner’ movement was about it’s resources being diverted elsewhere, leading to lack of development.

Express your opinion of the following.

Question 1.
Naxal operations are primarily prevalent in underdeveloped areas of the country.
Answer:
Naxalism is a movement based on Maoist ideology that began in 1967 at Naxalbari (West Bengal) as a protest against the feudal order and oppression by the landlords. Naxalites target existing infrastructure and aim to show government programmes as ineffective. Naxalites find support amongst landless agricultural labour, tribals and dalits. They are based in inaccessible, underdeveloped areas of India which lack communication facilities, are heavily forested or have difficult terrain where the security forces find it difficult to operate.

Question 2.
National unity is not homogeneity.
Answer:
National unity refers to solidarity among citizens of a country. It advocates a ‘community of communities’ with respect to diversity, shared values and experiences. It is ethnic, religious, linguistic acceptance towards peace and stability. National unity is a major step towards social peace i.e., it is essential in maintaining a stable, functional and harmonious society. National unity in India reflects the ‘salad bowl’ concept i.e., it is not an assimilation of diverse groups but the maintenance of distinctive beliefs in a plural society.

Question 3.
India went into an economic transformation in the 1990s.
Answer:
After independence, India adopted a socialistic pattern of society with mixed economy and Five Year Plans. However, keeping in view, socio-political changes in the world such as the collapse of the Soviet Union, India went into an economic transformation in the 1990s. It opted for economic liberalisation to tackle the problem of economic stagnation. This led to economic recovery of the country.

Question 4.
The National Integration Council (N. I. C) plays an important role in nation building.
Answer:
In 1961, the first National Integration Conference was held to find ways to combat evils like casteism, communalism, regionalism, etc. Based on it’s recommendations, National Integration Council was set up in 1962, to review all matters pertaining to national integration. It dedicates itself to achieving values like equality, justice, fraternity, secularism and unity in diversity.

Answer the following question in 80 to 100 words.

Question 1.
Trace the changes that have taken place in Article 370.
Answer:
Article 370 gave special status to Jammu and Kashmir (J & IQ conferring it with the authority to have a separate constitution, separate State flag and autonomy over it’s internal administration. The article was drafted in Part XXI of the Indian constitution : Temporary, Transitional and special provisions. Along with Article 35A, this article defined that residents of Jammu and Kashmir had separate laws related to citizenship, ownership of property, etc. The Constituent Assembly of Jammu and Kashmir was empowered to recommend articles of the India constitution that should be applied to the State and a subsequent. Presidential Order (1954) was issued.

On 5th August 2019, the Government of India revoked the special status granted to Jammu and Kashmir under Art. 370. President Ramnath Kovind issued an order nullifying all provisions of autonomy granted to the State. Both houses of Parliament passed the Reorganisation of Jammu and Kashmir bill. As of now the following changes are apparent;

1. People of the State have access to all government schemes like Reservations, RTE, RTI, etc.
2. The State was bifurcated into the Union Territories of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh.

Answer the following question with reference to the given point in 150 to 200 words.

Question 1.
Challenges to nation building in India.
(a) Terrorism
(b) Communalism
(c) Left Wing Extremism
Answer:
Nation building means constructing a national identity which aims at uniting the people within a country so that it remains politically stable. It is closely related to the concept of national integration. It demands a democratic government and participative civil society. Nation building in India faces several challenges such as casteism, regionalism, communalism, insurgency, extremism and terrorism.

(a) Terrorism – It is the actual use or threat to use violence with an intention to disrupt life and create panic. It is called ‘asymmetric’ or ‘indirect’ warfare. It may take the form of assassination of political figures, hijackings, bombings and attacks on civilians etc. Earlier, terrorism was State-centric e.g., LTTE in Sri Lanka. However, modern day terrorism aims for abstract ideological or religious goals at the global level e.g., Taliban, Boko Haram. India has been the target of numerous terrorist attacks e.g., bomb blasts in Mumbai (1993, 2006) and LET attack on 26th November 2008 in Mumbai, attack on Parliament (2001), attacks on security forces at Uri (2016) and Pulwama (2019).

(b) Communalism refers to excessive pride in and attachment to one’s own religion/sect that leads to religious orthodoxy or fundamentalism and promotes intolerance and hatred of other religious groups. In India, roots of communalism can be traced to-

1. British policy of ‘Divide and Rule’.
2. Hindu and Muslim revivalist movements.
3. Rise of communal, fundamentalist parties and other vested interests that aim to radicalise members of their communities.
4. Politics of appeasement by various political parties.
5. psychological factors – history of communal violence has led to lack of trust between Hindus and Muslims.
6. Role of media and ‘fake news’ which may indulge in sensationalism aimed to incite communal hatred.

Some of the prominent cases of communal violence in India are:

1. 1947-49 there was mass bloodshed in the wake of the Partition of India.
2. 1969 Ahmedabad riots.
3. 1983 in Assam against Muslim immigrants from Bangladesh.
4. 1984 Anti-Sikh riots broke out after the assassination of Mrs. Indira Gandhi especially in Delhi.
5. 1992-93 saw the worst riots post independence following demolition of the Babri Masjid especially in Mumbai, Surat, etc.
6. 2002 Gujarat riots especially in Godhra.
7. 2013 Muzaffarnagar riots in UP.

(c) Left Wing Extremism – Left Wing Extremism (also called Maoist movement or Naxalism) has major support base among landless labourers, dalits and tribals who experience a sense of oppression, injustice and neglect. The first attempt to promote a peasant struggle was the Telangana Movement (1946-51). The Naxal movement originated in 1967 in Naxalbari (West Bengal) led by Kanu Sanyal and writings of Charu Majumdar.

Since 1980s the movement has taken a militant turn. In 2004 CPI (M-L), People’s War Group (PWG) and Maoist Communist Centre of India merged to form CPI (Maoist) which aims to overthrow the government, Naxal activities aim to and destroy public property and attack police and officials. The Red Corridor of Naxal activities extends across States like Bihar, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, etc.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Political Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Key Concepts and Issues Since 1991: Globalisation Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Political Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Key Concepts and Issues Since 1991: Globalisation

Complete the following statements by selecting the appropriate option.

Question 1.
Some of the important changes that occurred in the economic sphere in the age of globalization are
(a) Free flow of finance capital
(b) Creation of GATT
(c) Rise of Transnational Companies
(d) Focus on intellectual property rights
Answer:
(c) Rise of Transnational Companies

Question 2.
The term ‘socialist market economy’ is used to describe the system in
(a) India
(b) China
(c) France
(d) United States
Answer:
(b) China

Question 3.
Activities like farming, fishing, etc., are included in the ……….. sector.
(a) primary
(b) secondary
(c) service
(d) tertiary
Answer:
(d) tertiary

Question 4.
The Indus Waters Treaty is signed between India and
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Nepal
(c) China
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(d) Pakistan

Question 5.
At Kundankulam there is opposition to building of the
(a) airport
(b) special economic Zone
(c) nuclear power plant
(d) oil refinery
Answer:
(c) nuclear power plant

Complete the following sentences by selecting the appropriate reason.

Question 1.
Investment in the infrastructure sector is more important than that in the consumer sector because ………………….
(a) there is greater extent of profit in it.
(b) real development will take place only when infrastructure is prevalent.
(c) foreign investments are mostly in the consumer sector.
Answer:
(b) real development will take place only when infrastructure is prevalent.

Question 2.
Prior to the 1990s, foreign investments in India were rare because ………………
(a) government regulations made investments difficult.
(b) cold war was in progress.
(c) India was self reliant and did not need any investments.
Answer:
(a) government regulations made investments difficult..

Question 3.
TRIPs by WTO is a significant treaty because ………………
(a) it has replaced the GATT.
(b) it has extended the multilateral trading systems to services.
(c) it sets down minimum standards for most forms of intellectual property regulation.
Answer:
(c) it sets down minimum standards for most forms of intellectual property regulation.

Question 4.
During the Cold War, India had a mixed economy as ………………….
(a) it was nonaligned.
(b) both public sector and private sector played an important role.
(c) it had adopted the economic pattern of Soviet Union.
Answer:
(b) both public sector and private sector played an important role.

State the appropriate concept for the given statements.

Question 1.
Changes that occurred in the post cold war era due to advanced interconnectedness and technology.
Answer:
Globalisation

Question 2.
A category of property that refers to intangible creations of human intellect such as patents.
Answer:
Intellectual property

Find the odd word.

Question 1.
Wipro, Dabur, Burger King, ONGC.
Answer:
Burger King (not an Indian MNC)

Question 2.
Manufacturing, Farming, Mining, Fishing
Answer:
Manufacturing (not from primary sector)

Question 3.
Copyrights, Insurance, Trademarks, Patents.
Answer:
Insurance (not intellectual property)

Question 4.
Green Peace, Amnesty International, Red Cross, Taliban.
Answer:
Taliban (terrorist outfit)

Expand the following abbreviations.

Question 1.
WTO
NGO
GATT
TRIPs
Answer:
WTO – World Trade Organisation
NGO – Non-Governmental Organisation
GATT – General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade
TRIPs – Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights

State whether the following statements are true or false with reason.

Question 1.
Position of the State is being challenged externally as well as internally.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. Some analysts argue that in the age of globalisation, the State has become less important. It’s sovereignty is being challenged from both, outside and within.
2. External challenges come from rise of regional organisations, international laws, growing humanitarian concerns, etc. Internal challenges come from growth of ethnic nationalism, relevance of non State actors and a decline of national consensus.

Question 2.
Countries should have the right to interpret human rights according to their situation.
Answer:
This statement is True.

1. In the age of globalisation, protection and promotion of human rights is very significant. The western approach to human rights focuses on civil and political rights while developing countries maintain that economic development must precede full enjoyment of individual rights.
2. Countries have to interpret human rights in accordance to their history, culture, economic and political needs.

Question 3.
In a globalised world, the State has become irrelevant.
Answer:
This statement is False.

1. Many analysts explain that the role of the State is slowly reducing in the economic as well as political sphere. Some of the State’s powers may have reduced due to international treaty obligations but the State’s authority remains the same.
2. The State still remains the key actor in the domestic as well as international sphere. The State remains relevant inspite of the emergence of global civil society and increasing levels of cross border trade and investment.

Question 4.
All countries in the world follow almost the same type of economic system today.
Answer:
This statement is False.

1. Today, in a globalised world, there appears to be only one dominant ideological and economic , system i.e. ‘Market Economy.’ However, the nature of the market economy is determined by the ideology of that country.
2. The USA has a ‘capitalist market’ economy which combines capitalist system with market economics. In most West European nations, the political system is a ‘welfare State’, so they adhere to welfare market economies. China has a socialist market economy and Indian system is described as economic liberalism.

Explain the correlation between the following.

Question 1.
Transnational Corporations – Globalisation
Answer:
Transnational Corporations are a type of Multi National Companies e.g., General Electric, Walmart, Nike etc. It is a borderless entity as it does not consider any particular country as it’s homebase. Globalisation has led to many private sector companies expanding their area of operations in foreign lands. Due to globalisation traditional companies can now spread out their operations in many countries to sustain high levels of responsiveness to the local markets. Transnational Corporations (TNCs) try to make decisions from a global perspective rather than from one centralised base. Actions taken by TNC’s can help in better relationships between nations as well as in the spread of resources.

Express your opinion of the following.

Question 1.
Multi National Companies are both beneficial as well as disadvantageous to developing nations.
Answer:
Multi National Companies (MNC’s) refer to organizations that own or control production of goods or services in at least two or more countries other than it’s home country e.g., Amazon, Coca-Cola Company, eBay, Honda, etc.

The advantages of MNC’s are they improve local infrastructure, provide local employment, diversify local economies, encourage innovation and better standards of production. They provide an inflow of capital and help to utilise the developing nation’s resources.

Disadvantages of MNC’s in developing countries are that natural resources may be overexploited, environment may be damaged, local laws may be ignored, MNC’s import skilled labour and so may not really lead to better employment but may put local outfits out -of business.

Question 2.
The Arab spring in Egypt is sometimes called the ‘Facebook revolution’ in Egypt.
Answer:
The Arab Spring refers to a series of anti-government protests and uprisings that spread across much of the Arab world in the early 2010s. It began in Tunisia and spread to Libya, Egypt, Yemen, Syria and to a smaller extent to Iraq, Lebanon, Sudan, Morocco, etc. It’s main goals were regime change, economic progress and human rights. In Egypt, it began on 25th January 2011 when millions of protestors all over Egypt protested against President Hosni Mubarak’s regime. This was in response to a ‘Day of Revolution’ organized on Facebook on 25th January. It lasted till 11th February 2020.

Answer the following question in 80 to 100 words.

Question 1.
Discuss the political issues in the context of globalisation.
Answer:
Globalisation refers to the rapid spread of goods and services, technology and information, ideas and culture, trade and interactions across the world. It is the connection of different parts of the world resulting in the expansion of international cultural, informational, economic and political activities. In the early 1990s, the term globalisation was used to include economic, political, socio¬cultural, technological and ideological changes that occurred in the world in the post cold war era. The world has become more interconnected due to advances in technology and communication. Events in one part of the world have an impact on other parts of the world. Changes have taken place economically and culturally.

The political issues in the context of globalisation are-
1. Importance of Democracy – Disintegration of the Soviet Union and the revolutions in East European countries was an expression of end of communism and a move towards democratic systems. Today, concepts like ‘Participatory State’, ‘Good governance’, etc., have become important. A participatory State indicates that all sections of society participate in policy making and in the democratic process. Good governance focuses on the role of civil society in the functioning of an accountable, responsible and responsive government.

2. Position of the State – Under globalisation, sovereignty of the State which is closely linked to it’s jurisdiction appears to be challenged internally and externally. Internal challenges include activism of nonstate actors, rise of divisive factors, decline of national consensus, etc while external challenges include rise of regional economic organisations, growing humanitarian concerns, etc.

3. Nonstate actors – Today, not only States but also non-state actors like NGO’s play a significant role in international affairs and in promoting humanitarian issues.

4. Human Rights – Protection and promotion of human rights is an important issue in the age of globalisation. Countries interpret human rights in accordance with their history, culture, economy and polity, Many nations including India lay stress on social justice before full enjoyment of civil and political rights.
It is often argued that the role and importance of the State is slowly reducing, However, the State is still pivot in domestic and international spheres.

Question 2.
Discuss the economic issues in the context of globalisation.
Answer:
Globalisation refers to the rapid spread of goods and services, technology and information, ideas and culture, trade and interactions across the world. It is the connection of different parts of the world resulting in the expansion of international cultural, informational, economic and political activities. In the early 1990s, the term globalisation was used to include economic, political, socio-cultural, technological and ideological changes that occurred in the world in the post cold war era. The world has become more interconnected due to advances in technology and communication. Events in one part of the world have an impact on other parts of the world. Changes have taken place economically and culturally.

The economic issues in the context of globalisation are-
1. Free flow of finance and capital – Investments provide finance and help to build industries. Indian companies both private for e.g., Tatas and government e.g., ONGC have invested in many countries in Asia, Africa and Europe. Foreign companies have also invested in India in sectors like power plants, infrastructure projects, consumer food chains, etc. This free flow of capital is both ways i.e., India to foreign countries and vice-versa. Foreign investment especially in the infrastructure sector is essential.

2. Change in the concept of trade

• WTO – It was established in 1995 to replace GATT. The WTO is the only agency that oversees the rules of international trade, settles trade disputes and organises trade negotiations and agreements.
• The scope of the term ‘trade’ has widened to include not only traditional commodities like fruits, grains, minerals, oil, etc., but also services like banking, insurance and intellectual property like trademarks.
• Use of container cargo ships to carry huge amount of goods all over the world.

3. Rise of Transnational companies for e.g., Nestle, Unilever, etc., operate in India. Even Indian multinational companies like Wipro, Bajaj, etc are doing well. This affects the economy as follows-

• Labour market – MNC’s recruit skilled and semi-skilled employees for eg Indian labour is employed in West Asia, Europe, USA, etc in industrial and service sectors.
• Small shops and industries – Those stores which are efficient, continue to thrive while some industries either sell out to MNC’s or shut down.
• Agricultural sector- Many MNC’s have introduced new technology and opened up direct markets for Indian agricultural products for eg India exports spices, fish, etc. to many nations.

Answer the following question with reference to the given point in 150 to 200 words.

Question 1.
Discuss the following issues in the context of globalisation.
(a) Economic issues
(b) Ideological issues
(c) Socio-cultural issues
(d) Technological issues
Answer:
Globalisation refers to the rapid spread of goods and services, technology and information, ideas and culture, trade and interactions across the world. It is the connection of different parts of the world resulting in the expansion of international cultural, informational, economic and political activities. In the early 1990s, the term globalisation was used to include economic, political, socio¬cultural, technological and ideological changes that occurred in the world in the post cold war era. The world has become more interconnected due to advances in technology and communication. Events in one part of the world have an impact on other parts of the world. Changes have taken place economically and culturally.
(a) Economic Issues
Some economic changes that have occurred due to globalisation.
1. Free flow of finance and capital – Investments provide finance and help to build industries. Indian companies both private for e.g., Tatas and government e.g., ONGC have invested in many countries in Asia, Africa and Europe. Foreign companies have also invested in India in sectors like power plants, infrastructure projects, consumer food chains, etc. This free flow of capital is both ways i.e., India to foreign countries and vice- versa. Foreign investment especially in the infrastructure sector is essential.

2. Change in the concept of trade

• WTO – It was established in 1995 to replace GATT. The WTO is the only agency that oversees the rules of international trade settles trade disputes and organises trade negotiations and agreements
• The scope of the term ‘trade’ has widened to include not only traditional commodities like fruits, grains, minerals, oil, etc., but also services like banking, insurance and intellectual property like trademarks.
• Use of container cargo ships to carry huge amount of goods all over the world.

3. Rise of Transnational companies for e.g., Nestle, Unilever, etc., are operate in India. Even Indian multinational companies like Wipro, Bajaj, etc., are doing well. This affects the economy as follows-

• Labour market – MNC’s recruit skilled and semi-skilled employees for e.g., Indian labour is employed in West Asia, Europe, USA, etc., in industrial and service sectors.
• Small shops and industries – Those stores which are efficient, continue to thrive while some industries either sell out to MNC’s or shut down.
• Agricultural Sector – Many MNC’s have introduced new technology and opened up direct markets for Indian agricultural products for e.g., India exports spices, fish, etc., to many nations.

(b) Ideological Issues – During the Cold War, East European nations, Soviet Union and China followed socialist ideology where the public sector was important. USA and West European countries were capitalist and so the private sector was important. India followed Democratic Socialism and a ‘Mixed Economy’ where both public and private sector coexisted in the economic system.

Today, there is only one dominant ideological and economic system i.e., Market Economy. However, the nature of the market economy is determined by the ideology of that country for e.g., USA has ‘capitalist market economy’, many west European countries have ‘Welfare market economy’, China has ‘socialist market economy’. The Indian system is based on ‘economic liberalism’.

(c) Social and Cultural Issues – Today a ‘global cosmopolitan culture’ has emerged i.e movement of people across the world and public awareness of global issues. This is noticed in matters like values e.g., secularism, clothing, food choices, ways of celebrating festivals, etc. There is international awareness of India’s rich cultural and historical heritage. Similarly, westernisation and urbanisation have influenced Indian society eg breakup of the traditional joint family and rise of individualism and materialism in the country.

(d) Technological issues – Rapid advances in global communication such as Internet, satellite communication etc brought in revolutionary changes in our lives. The internet has provided search engines like ‘Google’ to find out information and has enabled social networking through micro media like Instagram, Skype, etc. All these technologies are transnational and may be positively inclined e.g., NGO’s working for humanitarian issues or negatively inclined such as terrorist organisations.