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Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 8 Development Administration Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 8 Development Administration

1. State the appropriate concept for the given statement.

Question 1.
State that promotes the economic and social well-being of its citizens.
Answer:
Welfare State

Question 2.
Unnecessary delays in administrative work are called.
Answer:
Red Tape

2. Complete the concept maps.

Question 1.

Answer:

3. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
Change and growth-oriented approaches are called Development Administration.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• Development is a complex term that means improvement, growth, or progress. When public administration studies ‘government in action for development’ it becomes development administration.
• According to Edward Weidner, “The process of guiding an organization towards the achievement of progressive political, economic and social objectives that are authoritatively determined in one manner or the other” is development administration.

Question 2.
In post-independent India, the government deliberately invested in the public sector.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• Post-independence India was reeling from the effects of colonial exploitation in the form of poverty and underemployment.
• It needed to modernize the economy towards self-reliance. To establish a welfare state and bring about a socialist pattern of the economy, more emphasis was given to the public sector.

Question 3.
The 73rd amendment act gave constitutional status to municipalities.
Answer:
This statement is False.

• 73rd Amendment Act (1992) gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj institutions and is considered a landmark in grassroots democracy in India.
• 74th Amendment Act (1992) gave constitutional status to municipalities (urban areas).

4. Explain the co-relation between the following.

Question 1.
Planning Commission and NITI Aayog (Traditional public administration and development administration).
Answer:
Development is a complex term that means improvement, growth, or progress. When public administration studies ‘government in action for development’ it becomes development administration. According to Edward Weidner,” development administration is “the process of guiding an organisation toward the achievement of progressive political, economic and social objectives that are authoritatively determined in one manner or the other”.

An approach to have innovative planning towards growth is called development administration. The need for this was felt due to limitations in the traditional approach to public administration, which covered areas such as

• Organization of the government machinery
• management of different tasks like leadership, planning, etc
• personnel administration i.e., recruitment, training of personnel
• financial administration e.g., budget, audit, etc
• administrative law e.g., tribunals for dispute resolution.

The new approach to public administration and public policy focuses on socio-economic development, political modernization, and adaptation of new technologies in administration.

Development administration has two important aspects viz.

• Administration of development – setting development goals and achieving them through the medium of administration.
• Development of administration – the existing system has to be improved so as the achieve the goals.

5. Answer the following.

Question 1.
Discuss any 4 areas of study in traditional public administration.
Answer:
The main areas of study in traditional public administration include:

• Organization of government machinery.
• Management of different tasks like leadership, planning, etc.
• Personnel administration i.e., recruitment, training of personnel.
• Financial administration e.g., budget, audit, etc.
• Administrative law e.g., tribunals for dispute resolution.

Question 2.
Write in brief about NITI Aayog.
Answer:
NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India). After Independence, the Planning Commission was the apex planning body. India adopted Five Year Plans which identified short-term and long-term goals of development in areas such as agriculture, irrigation, industrialization, infrastructure, social security, etc. In 1991, the New Economic Policy focused on economic liberalization.

The Planning Commission has now been replaced by the NITI Aayog (established on 1st January 2015). The Prime Minister is the ex-officio chairman of NITI Aayog. Since India has moved from centralized planning to decentralized planning, this body proposes grassroots level planning from village and district levels to be harmonized with state-level planning and finally with national planning.

NITI Aayog has Governing Council comprising the Chief Ministers of all 29 states and of Delhi and Puducherry and Lt. Governors of Union Territories. As of 2019 Vice-Chairman is Rajiv Kumar and CEO is Amitabh Kant.

6. Express your opinion of the following.

Question 1.
Citizen participation is necessary in development administration.
Answer:
According to Edward Weidner, development administration is “The process of guiding an organisation toward the achievement of progressive political, economic and social objectives that are authoritatively determined in one manner or the other”.

An approach to have innovative planning towards growth is called Development Administration. The need for this was felt due to limitations in the traditional approach to public administration.

The new approach to public administration and public policy focuses on socio-economic development, political modernization, and adaptation of new technologies in administration.

Development Administration has two important aspects viz.

• Administration of development – setting development goals and achieving them through the medium of administration.
• Development of administration – the existing system has to be improved so as the achieve the goals.
• Citizen participation – Development being a process of social and economic change, it is important that people participate actively in it.

If the process of development is cut off from the grassroots then it eventually fails to materialize the objectives it has set. This necessitates peoples’ participation in the process of planning, implementation, and eventual evaluation.

In a diverse society like India people’s participation is necessary. In India, the needs, requirements, and choices of people may vary vastly according to region. The Indian government had introduced a Community Development Programme in 1952 followed by National Extension Service in 1953. The focus was to promote development in the rural and remote areas. The experience of these programmes helped the government to focus on rural India. The purpose of the participation of the rural and urban citizens was sought through the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 7 Public Administration Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 7 Public Administration

1A. Choose the correct alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
The backbone of any administrative system is _____________ (material resource, human resource, natural resource, geographic resource)
Answer:
human resource

Question 2.
Gullick and _____________ put forth the acronym POSDCORB. (Woodrow Wilson, Herbert Simon, Urwick, Dwight Waldo)
Answer:
Urwick

1B. Identify the incorrect pair in every set, correct it and rewrite.

Question 1.
(a) Kautilya – Arthashastra
(b) Aristotle – The Politics
(c) Machiavelli – Republic
Answer:
Machiavelli – The Prince or Plato – Republic

1C. State the appropriate concept for the given statements.

Question 1.
The systematic management of governmental affairs in 18th century Germany and Austria.
Answer:
Cameralism

Question 2.
Efforts of companies to integrate social and environmental concerns.
Answer:
Corporate Social Responsibility

2. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
The first step in administration is staffing.
Answer:
This statement is False.

• According to Gullick and Urwick, public administration should focus on aspects related to the executive branch of government.
• It is explained by the acronym POSDCORB. Thus, the first step in administration is Planning, followed by Organisation and then Staffing.

Question 2.
Public Administration as an academic discipline was born in India.
Answer:
This statement is False.

• Public Administration as an academic discipline originated in the USA and Woodrow Wilson was the first person to emphasize the need to study it.
• However, Kautilya’s ‘Arthashastra’ was a text on administration and political economy in ancient India.

3. Explain the co-relation between the following.

Question 1.
Narrow and Broad perspective of Public Administration (Private administration and Public administration).
Answer:
Private administration is concerned with achieving the goals of private business organizations. The similarities between private and public administration are that both aim to serve the people, have similar types of hierarchy and management systems, and rely on common skills, techniques, and procedures.

The differences between private and public administration relate to aspects like scope, motive, responsibility, weakness, and financial control. Private administration is business-like with a narrower scope, wealth creation as the motive, responsibility to the owners, fewer chances of red-tapism, and internal financial control.

Public administration is bureaucratic with a very wide scope and motive as public service, responsibility to the ministers, intrinsic weakness of red-tapism, and external financial controls.

Question 2.
National Administration and State Administration (Rural administration and Urban administration).
Answer:
At the local level, the administration is either urban or rural. Urban administration includes political and administrative dimensions. For cities, there are Municipal Corporations (with a population of 3 lakhs and more) headed by the Mayor, Municipal Councils (Nagar Palika), City Councils (Nagar Panchayats), and Cantonment Boards. There is also a Municipal Commissioner who performs administrative functions and a Collector who looks after revenue, law, and order, land records, etc.

Rural administration includes three tiers i.e., Zilla Parishad, Panchayat Samiti, and Gram Panchayat. Developmental administration includes Chief Executive Officer, Block Development Officer, and Gram Sevak. There is also the Collector and Tehsildar.

4. Answer the following.

Question 1.
Explain the functioning of the administration.
Answer:

(i) At the national level, the work of the Central Government is conducted by various ministries (departments). For example, there are ministries of Agriculture, Health, Home, Defence, etc. Each ministry (or department) is headed by a Minister. Below the Minister is the bureaucracy or the administrative machinery. Besides the ministries, there are such institutions as the Election Commission, Union Public Service Commission. NITI Aayog, etc. These also require administrators or a bureaucracy.

(ii) At the State level also, there are various ministries and commissions that do the work of the government. The ministries of the State are also headed by a Minister and staffed by the bureaucracy.

(iii) At the local level, the administration is of two types: urban and rural administration. At the district level_ the highest administrative officer is the collector. In large cities, the Municipal Commissioner is in charge of the Municipality or Municipal Corporation. In rural areas, at the level of the Tehsil, the Tehsildar looks after the administration.

(iv) There is a close link between political leadership and administrative machinery. At the national, state levels and local levels, the political leaders are closely linked to the administrative machinery.

(v) The recruitment for all administrative posts at all levels is done through competitive examinations conducted by the government. At the central government level, the UPSC and Staff Selection Commission are the bodies that conduct these examinations.

Question 2.
Explain the steps in public policymaking.
Answer:
Public Policy refers to the new approach to understanding aspects of government activities for public welfare ‘ that is beyond simple administrative activities for e.g., Ayushman Bharat which aims to provide universal access to good quality health care in India.

Public policy can be understood in three steps.

• Policy Choice: Elected representatives, bureaucrats, and others decide the on which concerns of citizens to deal with, various options available about how to deal with it, and the formulation of a programme are then decided for e.g., anti-malaria programme (its objectives and implementation).
• Policy Output: Actual implementation of the policy takes place and policy output is determined
• Policy Impact (evaluation stage): This involves assessment of the objectives to determine policy impact and any improvements if required.

5. Answer the following in detail with reference to the given points.

Question 1.
Define public administration and explain its scope with reference to the following points.
(a) narrow perspective
(b) wider perspective
Answer:
Public Administration is a sub-discipline of Political Science. It focuses on ‘government in action’ i.e., implementation of government decisions, policies, and programmes in fields of social security and welfare, law and order, transport and communication, health and sanitation, etc.

The executive branch of government consists of the Political Executive (council of ministers) and Permanent/ Non-political Executive or Bureaucracy. Public Administration as a subject studies the activity and process of the government. According to Waldo, ‘Public Administration is the art and science of management as applied to the affairs of the state’.

Public Administration broadly includes the following:

• Activities of all three branches of government, especially that of the executive branch.
• Non-political public bureaucracy operating in a political system.
• Management of public affairs and policy execution.
• Concerned with public welfare and hence provides service and regulatory functions to the people to attain a good life.

Scope of public Administration.
Public Administration can be studied as two categories.
(a) Narrow perspective – It focuses on aspects related only to the executive branch of government. Gullick and Urwick sum this view in the acronym POSDCORB to denote Planning, Organisation, Staffing, Directing, Coordinating, Reporting, Budgeting.

• Planning – working out in broad outline/ blueprint of what is to be done and methods to be adopted for it. e.g., NITI Aayog has adopted the approach of grassroots – national level.
• Organising – establishing the formal structure of authority through which work is delegated, defined, and coordinated e.g. All India services.
• Staffing – recruitment, training, and working conditions of personal e.g., in India this is through UPSC.
• Directing – making decisions and issuing instructions and orders as the administration is a continuous activity.
• Coordinating – interrelating the work of various selections and parts of the organization. eliminate overlapping of work or conflict over responsibility
• Reporting – reporting to superiors/higher authorities any information about ongoing/completed tasks. This ensures responsibility and accountability.
• Budgeting – refers to fiscal planning, control, and accounting.

(b) Broad perspective – This differs from the narrow, managerial view of public administration. It includes activities of all three branches of the government, their interrelationships. Specialized government functions such as defense, finance, health care, etc. as well as collaborations with private groups e.g., NGO’s in providing services to the community. This view is concerned with techniques of administration (POSDCORB) as well as with substantive matters of administration.

According to Woodrow Wilson, ‘Administration is the most obvious part of the government- it is a government inaction, the most visible, operative side of the government.’

Activity (Text Book Page No.63)

Question 1.
Look at the latest Annual Report of the Ministry of Home, Government of India. Make a list of the main activities of the ministry.
Answer:
The main activities of the Ministry of Home, GOI include the maintenance of internal security and domestic policy.
The departments included under this Ministry are-

• Intelligence Bureau (IB)
• Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF)
• Border Security Force (BSF)
• Central Industrial Security Force (CISF)
• Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP)
• National Security Guards (NSG)
• National Investigation Agency (NIA)
• Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB).

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Biomolecules Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Question 1.
What are biomolecules? Give examples of biomolecules.
Answer:
Biomolecules: The lifeless, complex organic molecules which combine in a specific manner to produce life or control biological reactions are called biomolecules.

Examples: Carbohydrates, lipids (fats and oils), nucleic acids, enzymes.

Question 2.
What is the importance of biomolecules?
Answer:
Biomolecules are organic molecules which combine in a particular fashion to give complex substances which help to sustain life and produce identical daughter cells and play an important role in the actions of an organism.

• Carbohydrates are the major constituents of food and source of energy.
• Proteins help in proper functioning of living beings. They are important constituents of skin, hair, muscles. Enzymes which catalyse chemical reactions that take place in cells are proteins.
• Lipids (fats and oils) function as the storehouses of energy.
• Nucleic acids, the ribonucleic acid (RNA), and deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) are responsible for genetic characteristics and synthesis of proteins.

Question 3.
What are carbohydrates?
OR
Define the term : Carbohydrates.
Answer:
Carbohydrates : Carbohydrates are optically active polyhydroxy aldehydes or polyhydroxy ketones, or the compounds which on hydrolysis produce polyhydroxy aldehydes or polyhydroxy ketones.

Examples : Glucose, sucrose, fructose.

Question 4.
What is monosaccharide?
Answer:
The basic unit of all carbohydrates which is a simple carbohydrate and cannot be hydrolysed further is known as monosaccharide. The monosaccharide is crystalline and soluble in water. E.g. Glucose, fructose, ribose.

Question 5.
Mention the names of monosaccharides or simple carbohydrates.
Answer:
Monosaccharides are (1) glucose (2) fructose (3) ribose.

Question 6.
State the basic unit of all carbohydrates.
Answer:
The basic unit of all carbohydrates which is a simple carbohydrate and cannot be hydrolysed further is known as monosaccharide.

Question 7.
How are carbohydrates classified?
OR
Classification of carbohydrates with examples.
Answer:
Carbohydrates are classified as monosaccharides oligosaccharides and polysaccharides.
(1) Monosaccharides : These carbohydrates cannot be further hydrolysed into smaller units. They are basic units of all carbohydrates, and are called monosaccharides.

Examples : Glucose, fructose, ribose

(2) Oligosaccharides : An oligosaccharide is a carbohydrate (sugar) which on hydrolysis gives two to ten monosaccharide units.
Depending on the number of monosaccharides produced on hydrolysis, oligosaccharides are further classified as :

Oligosaccharide is homogeneous. In this, each molecule of oligosaccharide contains the same number of monosaccharide units joined together in the same order as every other molecule of the same oligosaccharide.

(3) Polysaccharides : These are carbohydrates which on hydrolysis give a large number of monosaccharides.

Polysaccharides are tasteless, amorphous, insoluble in water. They are long chain, naturally αcurring polymers of carbohydrates.

Example : Cellulose, starch, glycogen.

Question 8.
Classify the following carbohydrates into Monosaccharide, Disaccharide, Oligosaccharide, Polysaccharide.
(1) Glucose
(2) Starch
(3) Sucrose
(4) Maltose
(5) Galactose
(6) Lactose
(7) Ribose.
Answer:

Carbohydrates	Class
(1) Glucose	Monosaccharide
(2) Starch	Polysaccharide
(3) Sucrose	Disaccharide
(4) Maltose	Disaccharide
(5) Galactose	Monosaccharide
(6) Lactose	Disaccharide
(7) Ribose	Monosaccharide

Question 9.
Classify the following carbohydrates.
(1) Cellulose,
(2) Maltose,
(3) Raffinose,
(4) Fructose.
Answer:

Carbohydrates	Class
(1)     Cellulose (2)     Maltose (3)     Raffinose (4)     Fructose	Polysaccharide Disaccharide Trisaccharide Monosaccharide

Question 10.
Classify the following into monosaccharides, oligosaccharides and polysaccharides.
(1) Starch
(2) Glucose
(3) Stachyose
(4) Maltose
(5) Raffinose
(6) Cellulose
(7) Sucrose
(8) Lactose.
Answer:

Monosaccharides	Glucose
Oligosaccharides	Stachyose, maltose, raffinose, sucrose, lactose
Polysaccharides	Starch, cellulose

Question 11.
Classify the following into monosaccharides and disaccharides.
Ribose, maltose, galactose, fructose and lactose (~2 mark each)
Answer:

Monosaccharides	Ribose, galactose, fructose
Disaccharides	Maltose, lactose

Question 12.
Give the preparation of glucose from sucrose or cane sugar.
OR
Describe the laboratory method of preparation of glucose.
Answer:
Preparation of glucose from sucrose (cane sugar) : Laboratory method.

Glucose is prepared in the laboratory by hydrolysis of sucrose by boiling it with dilute hydrαhloric acid or dilute sulphuric acid for about two hours. On hydrolysis, sucrose gives one molecule of glucose and one molecule of fructose.

Alcohol is added during cooling to separate glucose and fructose since, glucose is almost insoluble in alcohol, hence it crystallizes out first. Fructose remains in the solution as it is more soluble than glucose.

Crystals of glucose are separated out by filtration and purified by recrystallization.

Question 13.
Give the preparation of glucose from starch.
OR
How is glucose prepared on commercial scale?
Answer:
Commercially, on a large scale, glucose is prepared by hydrolysis of starch with dilute sulphuric acid. Starchy material is mixed with water and dilute sulphuric acid and heated at 393 K under 2 to 3-atm pressure. Starch is hydrolysed to give glucose.

Question 14.
Explain the structure of glucose.
Answer:
Molecular formula of glucose is C₆H₁₂O₆.

Glucose has an aldohexose structure. In other words, glucose molecule contains one aldehydic, that is, formyl group and the remaining five carbons carry one hydroxyl group (-OH) each. The six carbons in glucose form one straight chain.

Question 15.
Describe the action of following reagents on glucose :
(1) HI
(2) Hydroxyl amine (NH₂OH)
(3) Hydrogen cyanide
(4) Bromine water
(5) dil. Nitric acid
(6) Acetic anhydride.
Answer:
(1) Action of HI : Glucose on prolonged heating with HI gives n-hexane, indicates that all the six carbon atoms are linked in straight chain.

(2) Action of hydroxyl amine : Glucose reacts with hydroxyl amine in an aqueous solution to form glucose oxime. This indicates the presence of CHO group in glucose.

(3) Action of hydrogen cyanide : Glucose reacts with hydrogen cyanide to form glucose cyanohydrin.

(4) Action of bromine water : Glucose on oxidation with mild oxidising agent like bromine water gives gluconic acid, which shows that the carbonyl group in glucose is aldehyde group.

(5) Action of dll. nitric acid : Glucose on oxidation with dilute nitric acid forms dicarboxylic acid, saccharic acid. This indicates the presence of a primary alcoholic group (-CH₂OH) in glucose.

(6) Action of acetic anhydride : When glucose is heated with acetic anhydride in the presence of catalyst pyridine, glucose penta acetate is formed. It indicates that glucose is a stable compound and contains five hydroxyl groups.

Question 16.
Write Fischer projection formulae for
(1) Glucose
(2) Gluconic acid
(3) Saccharic acid.
Answer:
Fischer projection formulae of glucose, gluconic acid and saccharic acid :

Question 17.
Explain D and L configuration in sugars.
Answer:
The simplest carbohydrates glyceraldehyde is chosen as the standard, to assign D and L configuration to monosaccharides. Glyceraldehyde contains one asymmetric carbon atom and exist in two enantiomeric forms

The dextro entantiomer is represented as (+) glyceraldehyde and it is referred as D-configuration i.e., D-glyceraldehyde. The laevo enantiomer of glyceraldehyde is represented as ( -) glyceraldehyde and it corelated as L-configuration i.e., L-glyceraldehyde.

In Fischer projection formula, a monosaccharide is assigned D-configuration if the (- OH) hydroxyl group at the last chiral carbon and lies towards right hand side. On the other hand it is assigned L-configuration if the – OH group on the last chiral carbon atom and lies on the left hand side. In monosaccharides, the most oxidised carbon (i.e., -CHO) is at the top.

Examples :

Question 18.
Write Fischer projection formulae for (a) L-( + )-erythrose (b) L-( +) ribulose.
Answer:

Question 19.
Is the following sugar, D-sugar or L-sugar?

Answer:
The compound is L-sugar.
The compound is L-sugar.

Question 20.
Assign D/L configuration to the following monosaccharides.


Answer:

Question 21.
Explain ring structure of glucose.
Answer:

Glucose has two cyclic structures (II and III) which are in equilibrium with each other through the open chain structure (I) in aqueous solution.

The ring structure of glucose is formed by reaction between the formyl ( – CHO) group and the alcoholic (- OH) group at C – 5. Thus, the ring structure is called a hemiacetal. The two hemiacetal structures (II and III) differ only in the configuration of C – I (Fig.), the additional chiral centre resulting from ring closure. The two ring structures are called α- and β- anomers of glucose and C-l is called the anomeric carbon. The ring of the cyclic structure of glucose contains five carbons and one oxygen. Thus, it is a six membered ring. It is called pyranose structure, in analogy with the six membered heterαyclic compound pyran (IV). Hence glucose is also called glucopyranose.

Question 22.
Write the structures of α-D-( + )-glucopyranose and β-D-( +) glucopyranose.
Answer:

Question 23.
Explain Haworth formula of glycopyranose.
Answer:

In the Haworth formula the pyranose ring is considered to be in a perpendicular plane with respect to the plane of paper. The carbons and oxygen in the ring are in the places as they appear in figure. The lower side of the ring is called α-side and the upper side is the β-side. The α-anomer has its anomeric hydroxyl (- OH) group (at C-l) on the α-side, whereas the β-anomer has its anomeric hydroxyl (- OH) group (at C-l) on the β-side. The groups which appear on right side in the Fischer projection formula appear on α-side in the Haworth formula, and the groups which appear on left side in the fischer projection formula appear on a β-side in the Haworth formula.

Question 24.
Explain the structure of fructose.
Answer:
Fructose has molecular formula C₆H₁₂O₆. It contains ketonic functional group at carbon number 2 and six carbon atoms in straight chain. It belongs to D-series and is a laevo rotatory compound. It is written as D-( – )-fructose. Being an α-hydroxy keto compound fructose is a reducing sugar.

Question 25.
Draw mirror images of glucose and fructose.
Answer:
(1) Glucose

(2) Fructose

Question 26.
Write the two cyclic structures of α-D-( – )-fructofuranose and β-D-( – )-fructofuranose exist in equilibrium with open chain structure.
Answer:

Question 27.
Write the Haworth projection formulae for α -D-( -) – Fructofuranose and β – D – ( -) – Fructo- furanose.
Answer:

Question 28.
Explain the structure of sucrose.
Answer:
Sucrose is a hexasaccharide and has molecular formula C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁. The structure of shcrose contains glycosidic linkage between C – 1 of α-glucose and C – 2 of β-fructose. Since aldehyde and ketone groups of both monosaccharide units are involved in the formation of glycosidic bond, sucrose is a nonreducing sugar.

Sucrose is dextrorotatory, on hydrolysis with dilute acid or an enzyme invertase gives equimolar mixture of dextrorotatory glucose and laevorotatory fructose.

The solution is laevorotatory because laevo rotation of fructose (- 92.4°) is more than dextrorotation of glucose ( + 52.50), hence the sign of rotation is changed from (+) to (-) after hydrolysis, the product is called invert sugar.

Question 29.
Explain the structure of maltose.
Answer:
Maltose is another disaccharide obtained by partial hydrolysis of starch or made of two units of D-glucose. In maltose, C-l of one α-D-glucose is linked to C-4 of another α-D-glucose molecule by glycosidic linkage. The glucose ring which uses its hydroxyl group at C-1 is α – 1 → 4 glycosidic linkage. It is a reducing sugar because a free aldehyde group can be produced at C₁ of second glucose molecule. Maltose on hydrolysis with dilute acids gives glucose.

Question 30.
Draw a neat diagram for Haworth formula of maltose.

Question 31.
Explain the structure of lactose.
Answer:

Lactose (C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁) is a disaccharide. It is found in milk, therefore, it is also known as milk sugar. It is formed from two monosaccharide units, namely D – galactose and D – glucose. The glycosidic linkage is formed between C-l of β-D-galactose and C -4 of glucose. Therefore the linkage in lactose is called β – 1,4 – glycosidic linkage. The hemiacetal group at C-l of the glucose unit is not involved in glycosidic linkage but is free. Hence lactose is a reducing sugar. The above figure shows Haworth formula of lactose.

Question 32.
What are the hydrolysis products of (1) lactose (2) sucrose?
Answer:
(1) Lactose on hydrolysis in presence of an acid or enzyme lactase gives one molecule each of glucose and galactose

(2) Sucrose on hydrolysis in the presence of dii. acid or the enzyme invertase gives one molecule each of glucose and fructose.

Question 33.
Explain the structure of starch.
Answer:
Starch is found in cereal grains, roots, tubers, potatoes, etc. It is a polymer of α-D-glucose and consists of two components, amylose and amylopectin.

Amylose is water soluble component forms blue coloured complex with iodine. It constitutes about 20 % of starch. Amylose contains 200 to 1000 α-D-glucose units linked together by glycosidic linkage between C-l of one unit and C-4 of another unit. i.e. α-1, 4 glycosidic linkages.

Amylopectin is insoluble in water and constitutes about 80 % starch which forms blue-violet coloured complex with iodine. It is a branched chain polymer. In amylopectin, α-D-glucose molecules are linked together by glycosidic linkage between C₁ – of one unit and C-4 of another unit to form long chain and branching αcurs by glycosidic linkage between C-l and C6 glycosidic linkage.

Question 34.
What are polysaccharides?
Answer:
A large number of same or different monosaccharides are joined together by glycosidic linkages are called polysaccharides. They have general formula (C₆H₁₀O₅)_n.

Question 35.
Explain the structure of cellulose.
Answer:

Cellulose mainly αcurs in plants. Cell wall of plant cells is made up of cellulose. It is a long chain polymer. In cellulose, β-D-glucose units are linked by glycosidic linkage between C₁-of one unit of glucose and C₄ of another glucose unit. Thus cellulose contains 1 → 4β glycosidic linkages like those in cellobiose.

Question 36.
Explain the structure of glycogen.
Answer:
The glucose is stored in animal body in the form of glycogen. It is also known as animal starch because its structure is similar to amylopectin. Glycogen is highly branched. Whenever the body is required glucose, enzymes breaks the glycogen to glucose.

Question 37.
How is glycogen different from starch?
Answer:
Starch is the main storage molecules of plants whereas glycogen is the main storage molecule of animals. Starch is found in cereals, roots, tubers, etc. Glycogen is present in liver, muscles and brain.

Question 38.
What do you understand by the term glycosidic linkage?
Answer:
The linkage between two monosaccharide units through oxygen atom is called glycosidic linkage.

Question 39.
What is the basic structural difference between starch and cellulose?
Answer:
Starch is a polymer of a-glucose and consists of two components-amylose and amylopectin. In amylose α-D-D-( + )-glucose units held by C,-C4 glycosidic linkage and in amylopectin, α-D-glucose units held by C1-C4 glycosidic linkage whereas branching αcurs by C₁-C₆ glycosidic linkage. [Refer Question 35 (i) (ii) Fig.] Cellulose is a straight chain polysaccharide composed only of β-D-glucose units held by C₁-C₄ glycosidic linkage. (Refer Question 37 Fig.)

Question 40.
Define the term : Protein OR What are proteins?
Answer:
Chemically proteins are polyamides which are high molecular weight polymers of the monomer units i.e. α-amino acids. OR It can also be defined as Proteins are the biopolymers of a large number of a-amino acids and they are naturally occurring polymeric nitrogenous organic compounds containing 16% nitrogen and peptide linkages (-CO-NH-).

Question 41.
Write the common sources of protein.
Answer:
Common sources of proteins are milk, pulses, peanuts, eggs, fishes, cheese, cereals, etc. They are also the principal materials of muscle, nerves, tendons, skin, blood, enzymes, many hormones and antibiotics.

Question 42.
What are the products of hydrolysis of proteins?
Answer:
On hydrolysis, proteins give a mixture of α-anlino acids.

The α-carbon in α-amino acids ohtained by hydrolysis of proteins has ‘L’ configuration.

Question 43.
What are the a-amino acids?
Answer:
α-Amino acids are carboxylic acids having an amino (- NH₂) group bonded to the α-carbon, i.e. the carbon next to the carboxyl (- COOH) group.

α-amino acids are derivatives of carboxylic acids, obtained by replacing – H atom by amino group. They are bifunctional compounds containing acidic and basic – NH₂ groups.
Example : (where R is an alkyl group or aryl group).

The amino acids are colourless, crystalline, water soluble, high melting solids. These acids in their aqueous solutions behave like salts due to presence of both acidic, and basic. (- NH₂) groups in the same molecule.

Such a doubly charged ion is known as zwitter ion. Example :

Question 44.
What are the final products of hydrolysis of proteins?
Answer:
Proteins on hydrolysis with dilute solution of acids, alkalies or enzymes give a mixture of large number of a-amino acids as final products.

For example :

Question 45.
Write the classification of amino acids, giving examples.
Answer:
The amino acids are of three types : acidic, basic and neutral. The symbol ‘R’ in the structure of a-amino acids represents side chain and may contain additional functional groups.

(1) Acidic amino acids : If ‘R’ contains a carboxyl (- COOH) group the amino acid is acidic amino acid, i.e. If carboxyl groups are more in number than amino groups, then amino acids are acidic in nature.

Examples : Glutamic acid HOOC-CH₂-CH₂-; Aspartic acid HOO-CH₂–

(2) Basic amino acids : If ‘R’ contains an amino (1°, 2°, or 3°) group, it is called basic amino acid i.e. If amino groups are more in number than carboxyl groups then amino acids are basic in nature.

Examples : Arginine

(3) Neutral amino acids : The other amino acids having neutral or no functional group in ‘R’ are called neutral amino acids, i.e. The amino acids having equal number of amino and carboxyl groups are neutral amino acids.

Examples : Alanine CH₃-; Valine (CH₃)₂-CH

Question 46.
What are essential and non-essential amino acids? Give two examples of each.
Answer:
The amino acids, which cannot be synthesised in the body and are supplied through diet are called essential amino acids. Examples : Lysine H₂N-(CH₂)₄-; Valine (CH₃)₂CH- The amino acids which are synthesized in the body are called non-essential amino acids.

Examples : Glutamic acid HOO-CH₂-CH₂-; Serine HO-CH₂–

Question 47.
What is meant by Zwitter ion?
Answer:
An a-amino acid molecule contains both acidic carboxyl ( – COOH) group as well as basic amino (- NH₂) group. Proton transfer from acidic group to basic group of amino acid forms a salt, which is a dipolar ion called a zwitterion.

Question 48.
Draw zwitter ion of alanine and other two forms.
Answer:

Question 49.
What is a peptide bond (peptide linkage)?
OR
Define peptide bond.
Answer:
Proteins are the polymers of a-amino acids and they are connected to each other. The bond that connects a-amino acids to each other is called peptide bond (peptide linkage, – CONH -).

Question 50.
How is peptide linkage (dipeptide linkage) formed in proteins? How is tripeptide formed?
Answer:
Peptide linkage is formed by condensation of acidic group of one molecule of a-amino acid and basic -NH₂ group of other molecule of α-amino acid with elimination of water.

When one more molecule of amino acid combines with dipeptide, it forms tripeptide.

Thus, it forms tetra, penta and finally a polypeptide chain i.e. proteins. Hence, proteins are basically polypeptides.

Question 51.
Write the structures of all possible dipeptides which can be obtained from glycine and alanine.
Answer:
(1) Dipeptide from glycine :
Carboxylic group of glycine reacting with amino group another molecule of glycine to form dipeptide

(2) Dipeptide from alanine :
Carboxylic goup of alanine reaction with amino goup of another molecule of alamine to form dipeptide

(3) Dipeptide from glycine and alanine :
Carboxylic group of glycine reacting with amino group another molecule of alanine to form dipeptide

Question 52.
How are proteins classified on the basis of molecular shapes?
Answer:
On the basis of their molecular shapes proteins are classified as :
(1) Fibrous proteins : The proteins in which the polypeptide chains lie parallel (side by side) to form fibre-like structure, are called fibrous proteins. The polypeptide chains held together by hydrogen bonds. These proteins are insoluble in water.

The fibrous proteins are tough and insoluble in water, and dilute acids or bases.

Example : myαin (in muscles), keratin (in hair, nails, skin), fibroin (in silk), collagen (in tendons), etc.

(2) Globular proteins : The proteins have spherical shape. This shape results from coiling around of the polypeptide chain of protein, and have intramolecular hydrogen bonding are called globular proteins.

They are soluble in water and dilute acids or bases.

Example : Haemoglobin (in blood), albumin (in eggs), insulin (in pancreas), etc.

Question 53.
Distinguish between globular and fibrous proteins.
Answer:

Globular proteins	Fibrous proteins
(1) The chains of polypeptides of protein coil around to give a spherical shape. (2) Globular proteins are soluble in water. (3) They are sensitive to small changes of temperature and pH. (4) They possess biological activity.	(1) The proteins in which the polypeptide chains lie parallel to form fibre like structure. (2) Fibrous proteins are insoluble in water. (3) They are stable to moderate changes of temperature and pH. (4) They do not possess biological activity.

Question 54.
Draw a neat labelled diagram for the secondary structure of protein.
Answer:
Secondary structure of proteins : The three-dimensional arrangement of lαalized regions of a long polypeptide chain is called the secondary structure of protein. Hydrogen bonding between N-H proton of one amide linkage and C = O oxygen of another gives rise to the secondary structure. There are two different types of secondary structures i.e. α-helix and β-pleated sheet.

α-Helix : In a-helix structure, a polypeptide chain gets coiled by twisting into a right handed or clαkwise spiral known as a-helixn. The characteristic features of α-helical structure of protein are :

(1) Each turn of the helix has 3.6 amino acids.
(2) A C = O group of one amino acid is hydrogen bonded to N – H group of the fourth amino acid along the chain.
(3) Hydrogen bonds are parallel to the axis of helix while R groups extend outward from the helix core.
Myosin in muscle and a-keratin in hair are proteins with almost entire a-helical secondary structure.

β-Pleated sheet : In secondary structure, when two or more polypeptide chains (strands) line up side-by-side is called β-pleated sheets. The β-picate sheet structure of protein consists of extended strands of polypeptide chains held together by intermolecular hydrogen bonding. The characteristics of β-pleated sheet structure are :

• The C = O and N – H bonds lie in the planes of the sheet.
• Hydrogen bonding occurs between the N – H and C = O groups of nearby amino acid residues in the neighbouring chains.
• The R groups are oriented above and below the plane of the sheet.

The β-pleated sheet arrangement is favoured by amino acids with small R groups.

Question 55.
What is denaturation of proteins? How is denaturation brought about?
OR
What is the effect of denaturation on the structure of proteins?
Answer:
The prαess by which the molecular shape of protein changes without breaking the amide / peptide bonds that form the primary structure is called denaturation. OR Proteins gets easily precipitated. It is an irreversible change and the prαess is called denaturation of proteins.

Denaturation uncoils the protein and destroys the shape and thus loses their characteristic biological activity. Denaturation is brought about by heating the protein with alcohol, concentrated inorganic acids or by salts of heavy metals. During denaturation secondary and tertiary and quternary structures are destroyed but primary structure remains intact.

Example : Boiling of egg to coagulate egg white, conversion of milk to curd.

Question 56.
Define : Enzymes
Answer:
All biological reactions are catalysed by bio-catalyst in living organisms called enzymes.

Question 57.
What are enzymes? Explain with suitable example.
Answer:
All biological or bio-catalysts which catalyse the reactions in living organisms are called enzymes. Chemically all enzymes are proteins. They are required in very small quantities as they are catalyst also they reduce the activation energy for a particular reaction.

Example : Enzyme maltase converts maltose to glucose.

Question 58.
Explain the catalytic action of enzymes.

Answer:
Mechanism of enzyme catalysis : Action of an enzyme on a substrate is known as lock-and-key mechanism.

Accordingly, the enzyme has active site on its surface. A substrate molecule can attach to this active site only if it has the right size and shape. Once in the active site, the substrate is held in the correct orientation, enzymes provide functional group which will attack the substrate and forms the products of reaction. The products leave the active site and the enzyme is ready to act as catalyst again.

Question 59.
Give examples of industrial application of enzyme catalysis.
Answer:

• Glucose Isomerase (enzyme) is used in conversion of glucose to sweet-tasting fructose.
• New antibiotics are manufactured using penicillin acylase (enzyme).
• Laundry detergentts are manufactured using proteases (enzyme).
• Esters used in cosmetics are manufactured using genetically engineered enzyme.

Question 60.
Draw a neat diagram for enzyme catalysis.
Answer:

Question 61.
State the main functions of enzymes.
Answer:
Enzymes are biological catalyst and they are highly specific in nature. The two main functions are as follows :
(1) They lower the requirement of activation energy.
(2) They speed up the rate of reaction.
E.g. Enzyme maltase catalyses maltose to glucose.
\(\mathrm{C}_{12} \mathrm{H}_{22} \mathrm{O}_{11}+\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O} \stackrel{\text { Maltase }}{\longrightarrow} 2 \mathrm{C}_{6} \mathrm{H}_{12} \mathrm{O}_{6}\)

Question 62.
What are nucleic acids?
Answer:
Nucleic acids are unbranched polymers of repeating monomers i.e. nucleotides. In other words, nucleic acids have a polynucleotide structure which in turn consists of a base, a pentose sugar and phosphate moiety.

Nucleic acids are biomolecules which are found in the nuclei of all living cells in the form of nucleoproteins or chromosomes.

(Nucleoproteins = Proteins + Nucleic acid)
(prosthetic group)

Question 63.
State the types of nucleic acids.
Answer:
The types of nucleic acids are : Ribonucleic acid (RNA) and deoxy ribonucleic acid (DNA). DNA molecules contain several million nucleotides while RNA molecules contain a few thousand nucleotides.

Question 64.
Explain chemical composition of nucleic acids.
Answer:
Nucleic acids have a polynucleotide structure. Nucleic acids (RNA and DNA) consists of three components :
(1) monosaccharide (sugar)
(2) nitrogen containing base and
(3) phosphate group.

(1) Monosaccharides : Nucleotides of both RNA consist of five membered monosaccharide ring (furanose), called as simply sugar component.

In RNA, the sugar component of nucleotide units is D-ribose and in DNA 2-deoxy-D-ribose.
2 – deoxy means no – OH group at C₂ position.

(2) Nitrogen containing base : Total five nitrogen – containing bases are present in nucleic acids. Three bases with one ring (cytosine, uracil and thymine) are derived from the parent compound pyrimidine. Two bases with two rings (adenine and guanine) are derived from the parent compound purine. Each base in designated by a one-letter symbol. Uracil (U) αcurs only in RNA while thymine (T) ocurs only in DNA.

(3) Phosphate group : The sugar units are joined to phosphate through C₃ and C₅ hydroxyl groups.

Question 65.
What is meant by nucleosides?
OR
Write the structure of nucleoside. Give examples.
Answer:

A nucleoside contains two basic components of nucleic acids i.e. a pentose sugar and a nitrogenous base.

A nucleoside is formed when 1 -position of a pyrimidine (cytosine, thymine or uracil) or 9-position of guanine or adenine base is attached to C- l of sugar by β-linkage.

Examples: Formation of nucleoside:

Question 66.
What is meant by nucleotide?
OR
Write the structure of nucleotide. Give example.
Answer:

A nucleotide contains all three basic components of nucleic acids i.e., a pentose sugar, a phosphoric acid and a nitrogenous base. These are obtained by esterification of \(\mathrm{C}_{5}^{1}-\mathrm{OH}\) group of the pentose sugar by phosphoric acid. Nucleotides are joined together through phosphate ester linkage. Thus, nucleotides are monophosphates of nucleosides. Abridged names of some nucleotides are AMP, dAMP, UMP, dTMP and so on. Here, the first capital letter is derived from the corresponding base. MP stands for monophosphate. Small letter ‘d’ in the beginning indicates deoxyribose in the nucleotide.

Example :

 

Question 67.
Write the structure of nucleic acids.

Answer:
Nucleic acids, both DNA and RNA, are polymers of nucleotides, formed by joining the 3′ – OH group of one nucleotide with 5′ – phosphate of another nucleotide. Two ends of polynucleotide chain are distinct from each other. One end having free phosphate group of 5′ position is called 5′ end. The other end is 3′ end and has free OH – group at 3′ position.

Question 68.
Draw a schematic representation of polynucleotide structure of nucleic acids.
Answer:

Question 69.
Explain double helix.
OR
State the salient features of the Watson and Crick mode of DNA.
Answer:

The Salient features are :

1. DNA is made of two polynucleotide strands that wind into a right-handed double helix.
2. The two strands run in opposite directions: one from the Y end to the 3’ end, while the other from the 3’ end to the Y end.
3. Pcrpcndicular to the axis of the helix, the sugar – phosphate backbone lies on the outside of the helix and the bases lic on the inside.
4. The hydrogen bonding between the hases of the two DNA strands stabilizes the double helix. This gives rise to a ladder-like structure of DNA double helix.
5. Adenine always forms two hydrogen bonds with thymine and guanine forms three hydrogen bonds with cytosinc. Thus A – T arid C – G arc complementary hase pairs and the Two strands of the double helix arc complementary to each other.

Question 70.
Give scientific reasons :
1. In the preparation of glucose from sucrose, ethyl alcohol is added at the time of cooling.
Answer:
Hydrolysis of sucrose with dilute hydrαhloric acid gives glucose along with fructose.

Ethyl alcohol is added at the time of cooling in the preparation of glucose, to separate glucose from fructose. Glucose being insoluble in alcohol, crystallizes out first, while fructose being more soluble in alcohol, remains in the solution.

Question 71.
Answer in one sentence :

(1) How is glucose stored in the animal body?
Answer:
Glucose is stored in the form of glycogen in the animal body.

(2) Write other term used for carbohydrates.
Answer:
Carbohydrates are often termed as saccharides or sugars.

(3) How many moles of acetic anhydride will be required to form glucose penta acetate from 1 mole of glucose?
Answer:
10 moles of acetic anhydride.

(4) What are reducing sugars?
Answer:
Reducing sugars : Carbohydrates which reduce Fehling solution to red ppt of Cu₂0 or Tollen’s reagent to shining metallic silver are called reducing sugars. All monosaccharides and oligosaccharides except sucrose are reducing sugars.

(5) What are non-reducing sugars?
Answer:
Non-reducing sugars : Carbohydrates which do not reduce Fehling solution and Tollen’s reagent are called non-reducing sugars. E.g. sucrose.

(6) Give an example each of reducing and non-reducing sugars.
Answer:
Reducing sugars : Maltose or lactose
Non-reducing sugars : Sucrose.

(7) Name the linkage which joins two monosaccharide units through oxygen atom.
Answer:
The linkage which joins two monosaccharide units through oxygen atom is called glycosidic linkage.

(8) Name the sugar present in DNA.
Answer:
The sugar present in DNA is deoxyribose.

(9) A nucleotide from DNA containing thymine is hydrolysed. What are the products formed?
Answer:
When nucleotide from DNA containing thymine is hydrolysed, 2-deoxy-D-ribose, thymine and phosphoric acid is obtained.

(10) How is zwitterion formed?
Answer:
In aqueous solution, the carboxyl group loses a proton while the amino group accepts it, as a result, a dipolar or zwitter ion is formed.

(11) Name the amino acids which are synthesized in the body.
Answer:
The amino acids which are synthesized in the body are called non-essential amino acids. Examples : Glutamic acid, serine.

(12) Name the four bases present in DNA which of these is not present in RNA.
Answer:
Purines-adenine (A) and guanine (G); Pyrimidines-thymine (T) and cytosine (C), these four bases are present in DNA. Out of these, thymine (T) is not present in RNA.

(13) What are different types of RNA which are found in the cell?
Answer:
There are three different types of RNA found in the cell. (1) The messenger RNA which carries the message to the ribosome (2) Ribosomal RNA where synthesis of protein takes place (3) The transport RNA.

(14) State the functions of RNA and DNA.
Answer:
RNA and DNA are responsible for generic characteristics : DNA preserves the information and uses it by producing duplicate identical DNA molecules. RNA carries messages and transports them.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 72.
Select and write the most appropriate answer from the given alternatives for each subquestion :

1. Which of the following is not sugar?
(a) Sucrose
(b) Starch
(c) Fructose
(d) Glucose
Answer:
(b) Starch

2. Which of the following is the example of disaccharide?
(a) Glucose
(b) Raffinose
(c) Cellulose
(d) Sucrose
Answer:
(d) Sucrose

3. Fructose is
(a) aldopentose
(b) aldohexose
(c) ketopentose
(d) ketohexose
Answer:
(d) ketohexose

4. Oxidation product of glucose with bromine water is
(a) sorbitol
(b) gluconic acid
(c) glutamic acid
(d) saccharic acid
Answer:
(b) gluconic acid

5. The general formula of carbohydrates is
(a) C(H₂O)
(b) C_x(H₂O)_y
(c) C_x(H₂O)
(d) C_x(H₂O)_x
Answer:
(b) C_x(H₂O)_y

6. Monosaccharides containing aldehyde group are called
(a) aldoses
(b) ketoses
(c) polysaccharides
(d) disaccharides
Answer:
(a) aldoses

7. Which of the following sugars can be used to prepare glucose on a large scale?
(a) Cellulose
(b) Cane sugar
(c) Galactose
(d) Starch
Answer:
(d) Starch

8. Which of the following carbohydrates cannot undergo hydrolysis?
(a) Glucose
(b) Sucrose
(c) Cellulose
(d) Maltose
Answer:
(a) Glucose

9. Glucose differs from fructose in
(a) the functional group
(b) the number of chiral carbon atoms
(c) the number of carbon atoms
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) both (a) and (b)

10. The example of aldopentose is
(a) arabinose
(b) glucose
(c) fructose
(d) sucrose
Answer:
(a) arabinose

11. Dextrose, grape sugar and blood sugar αcurs in
(a) fructose
(b) glucose
(c) sucrose
(d) starch
Answer:
(b) glucose

12. The example of ketopentose is
(a) galactose
(b) ribose
(c) raffinose
(d) maltose
Answer:
(b) ribose

13. Cane sugar on hydrolysis gives
(a) glucose and maltose
(b) glucose and lactose
(c) glucose and fructose
(d) only glucose
Answer:
(c) glucose and fructose

14. On commerical scale, glucose is prepared from
(a) starch
(b) potato pulp
(c) sucrose
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) both (a) and (b)

15. The number of monosaccharide units formed on hydrolysis of glucose are
(a) zero
(b) one
(c) two
(d) three
Answer:
(a) zero

16. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about glucose?
(a) It is monosaccharide
(b) It is a polyhydroxy aldehyde
(c) It is polyhydroxy ketone
(d) It contains six carbon atoms
Answer:
(c) It is polyhydroxy ketone

17. Final hydrolysis product of simple protein is
(a) carboxylic acid
(b) α-amino acid
(c) mineral acid
(d) acetic acid
Answer:
(b) α-amino acid

18. Haemoglobin is the example of-
(a) simple protein
(b) derived protein
(c) fibrous protein
(d) conjugated protein
Answer:
(d) conjugated protein

19. Protein are also called
(a) polysaccharides
(b) polypeptides
(c) polyglycerides
(d) polyster
Answer:
(b) polypeptides

20. The simplest amino acid is
(a) glycine
(b) oxalic acid
(c) adipic acid
(d) caprolactam
Answer:
(a) glycine

21. Amino acids usually exist in the form of zwitter ion which consist of
(a) the basic group-NH₂ and the acidic group -COOH
(b) the acidic group -N⁺H₃ and the basic group COO^–
(c) the acidic group -COO⁺ and the acidic group NH^3-
(d) acidic or basic group
Answer:
(b) the acidic group -N⁺H₃ and the basic group COO-

22. The water insoluble protein is
(a) casein of milk
(b) albumin
(c) serum albumin
(d) keratin of hair
Answer:
(d) keratin of hair

23. The main structural feature of a protein molecule is the presence of
(a) an ester linkage
(b) an ether linkage
(c) a peptide linkage
(d) all of these
Answer:
(c) a peptide linkage

24. Milk sugar is
(a) sucrose
(b) lactose
(c) maltose
(d) glucose
Answer:
(b) lactose

25. The carbohydrates used for silvering of mirror is
(a) fructose
(b) starch
(c) glucose
(d) cellulose
Answer:
(c) glucose

26. Which one of the following is NOT produced by human body?
(a) DNA
(b) Hormones
(c) Enzymes
(d) Vitamins
Answer:
(c) Enzymes

27. A biological catalyst is essentially
(a) an amino acid
(b) an enzyme
(c) a nitrogen molecule
(d) a carbohydrate
Answer:
(d) a carbohydrate

28. Which one of the following is not a constituent of RNA?
(a) Ribose
(b) Uracil
(c) Thymine
(d) Phosphate
Answer:
(b) Uracil

29. DNA is a polymer of units of
(a) sugars
(b) ribose
(c) amino acids
(d) nucleotides
Answer:
(c) amino acids

30. Which one of the following molecules will form zwitter ion?
(a) CH₃COOH
(b) CH₃CH₂NH₂
(c) CCl₃NO₂
(d) NH₂CH₂COOH
Answer:
(d) NH₂CH₂COOH

31. In metabolic prαess the maximum energy is given by
(a) carbohydrates
(b) proteins
(c) vitamins
(d) fats
Answer:
(d) fats

32. DNA has a structure of helix was reported by
(a) Herman Fischer
(b) Fedrick Sauger
(c) Andreas Marggraf
(d) Watson and Crick
Answer:
(d) Watson and Crick

33. The secondary structure of a protein is determined by
(a) co-ordinate bond
(b) covalent bond
(c) ionic bond
(d) hydrogen bond
Answer:
(d) hydrogen bond

34. In maltose, glycosidic linkage is present between the two glucose units at positions
(a) 1, 2
(b) 1, 1
(c) 1, 3
(d) 1, 4
Answer:
(d) 1, 4

35. Which of the following amino acids is basic in nature?
(a) Valine
(b) Tyrosine
(c) Arginine
(d) Luecine
Answer:
(c) Arginine

36. Sucrose molecules consists of
(a) a glucofuranose and a fructopyranose
(b) a glucofuranose and a fructofuranose
(c) a glucopyranose and a fructopyranose
(d) a glucopyranose and a’ fructofuranose
Answer:
(d) a glucopyranose and a’ fructofuranose

37. Which one of the following statements is not correct about DNA molecule?
(a) It has double helix structure
(b) It serves as hereditary material
(c) The two DNA strands are exactly similar
(d) Its replication is called semi-conservative mode of replication
Answer:
(c) The two DNA strands are exactly similar

38. Glycine on heating forms


Answer:
(a)

39. Acidic amino acid is
(a) Glutamine
(b) Glutamic acid
(c) Tyrosine
(d) Lysine
Answer:
(b) Glutamic acid

40. Basic amino acid is
(a) Lysine
(b) Glycine
(c) Cystine
(d) Alanine
Answer:
(a) Lysine

41. Precipitation of protein is referred to as
(a) destruction of proteins
(b) separation of proteins
(c) denaturation of proteins
(d) fragmentation of proteins
Answer:
(c) denaturation of proteins

42. An amino acid containing sulphur is
(a) serine
(b) cysteine
(c) valine
(d) asparagine
Answer:
(b) cysteine

43. Rhamnose is a
(a) carbohydrate
(b) protein
(c) lipid
(d) vitamin
Answer:
(a) carbohydrate

44. Lactose on hydrolysis gives
(a) glucose + glucose
(b) glucose + fructose
(c) glucose + galactose
(d) fructose + galactose
Answer:
(c) glucose + galactose

45. Raffinose on hydrolysis gives
(a) glucose + glucose + galactose
(b) glucose + fructose + galactose
(c) glucose + galactose + galactose
(d) fructose + galactose + galactose
Answer:
(b) glucose + fructose + galactose

46. Naturally αcurring glucose is
(a) dextro rotatory
(b) laevo rotatory
(c) racemic mixture
(d) all of these
Answer:
(a) dextro rotatory

47. Amylopectin is
(a) soluble in water and constitutes about 80% of starch
(b) insoluble in water and constitutes about 80% of starch
(c) Soluble in alcohol and constitutes about 60% of starch
(d) in soluble in alcohol and constitutes about 60% of starch
Answer:
(b) insoluble in water and constitutes about 80% of starch

48. Insulin contains
(a) 51 amino acids
(b) 151 amino acids
(c) 15 amino acids
(d) 115 amino acids
Answer:
(a) 51 amino acids

49. Pyranose structure of glucose is
(a) an open chain structure of glucose
(b) a structure of reduction product of glucose
(c) a cyclic six-membered structure of glucose
(d) a four-membered cyclic form of glucose
Answer:
(c) a cyclic six-membered structure of glucose

50. The number of – OH groups present in ribulose is
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 4

51. Peptide linkage is

Answer:
(d)

52. Stachyose is an example of
(a) monosaccharides
(b) disaccharides
(c) trisaccharides
(d) tetrasaccharides
Answer:
(d) tetrasaccharides

53. How many moles of (CH₃CO)₂O will be required to form glucose pentaacetate form 2 moles of glucose?
(a) 2
(b) 5
(c) 10
(d) 2.5
Answer:
(c) 10

54. Which of the following NOT present in DNA?
(a) Adenine
(b) Guanine
(c) Thymine
(d) Uracil
Answer:
(d) Uracil

55. Maltose is a
(a) polysaccharide
(b) disaccharide
(c) trisaccharide
(d) monosaccharide
Answer:
(b) disaccharide

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 6 Role of the Judiciary Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 6 Role of the Judiciary

1A. Choose the correct alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
___________ is the first country to create independent judiciary. (India, United States, United Kingdom, Soviet Union)
Answer:
United States

Question 2.
The primary function of the judiciary is ___________ (making laws, executing laws, adjudication, make appointments)
Answer:
adjudication

1B. Identify the incorrect pair in every set, correct it and rewrite.

Question 1.
(a) Written Consitution – India
(b) Judicial Review – United Kingdom
(c) Independent Judiciary – United States
Answer:
(b) Judicial Review – USA

1C. State the appropriate concept for the given statement.

Question 1.
Petition regarding important public concerns.
Answer:
Public Interest Litigation (PIL)

Question 2.
The process of removal of judges.
Answer:
Impeachment

Question 3.
Cases can be heard for the first time only in certain courts.
Answer:
Original Jurisdiction

2. Complete the concept map.

Question 1.

Answer:

3. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
There is no need to approve the appointment of judges by the Senate in the United States.
Answer:
This statement is False.

• The Judges of the Supreme Court of America and the courts subordinate to it are appointed by the President of the USA.
• These appointments can be confirmed only after the Senate gives its approval.

Question 2.
In India judiciary is independent.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• Provisions for judicial independence are provided in the Indian Constitution.
• This includes provisions related to appointment, tenure, salary, and allowances, removal from office, etc., of judges so that the judiciary acts in a free and fair manner.

4. Explain the co-relation between the following.

Question 1.
Judiciary and Executive.
Answer:
The judiciary and executive are both organs of the government. The main function of the executive is the implementation of laws and policies while the functions of the judiciary include interpretation of law and adjudication. In India, judges are appointed by the President (nominal executive). Traditionally, these appointments were made after consulting with the existing government (ministry). However, to maintain judicial independence, the collegium of judges recommends names for appointment to the President.

There are many instances where the executive is a party to a dispute either as the plaintiff or as the defendant. Given the power of the Government, any legal dispute between it and one or more citizens is usually unequal. There is a possibility that the Government would use its powers to secure a favourable decision. This is where the independence of the Judiciary becomes important. An independent judiciary ensures that all those who appear before it is treated on an equal plane, and thus makes sure that decisions are in accordance with the law.

Question 2.
Supreme Court and High Court.
Answer:
India has a single integrated judicial system, with the Supreme Court at the apex and followed by the High Courts in the States. The Supreme Court controls all courts and tribunals in the territory of India. The High Court controls and supervises the functioning of the subordinate courts e.g., District Courts, in its territorial jurisdiction. The High Courts have Appellate jurisdiction, regarding decisions of the lower courts while Supreme Court can hear appeals in civil, criminal, and constitutional cases against decisions of the High Courts.

Supreme Court has original Jurisdiction such as in disputes about the election of the President or Vice¬President which are its exclusive jurisdiction. Both, Supreme Court and High Court have Writ Jurisdiction i.e., they can issue directives or writs such as Habeas Corpus in case of violation of a person’s fundamental rights. In case of appointment of judges of High Courts, the President also consults the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.

5. Express your opinion of the following.

Question 1.
Judiciary must have a leading role in the appointment of judges.
Answer:
One of the main ways to secure judicial independence relates to the appointment of the judges. A judiciary that works under government favour, fear, or pressure i.e., a ‘committed judiciary’ can never give impartial, fair decisions especially when the government is a party in any dispute. The judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts are appointed by the President of India who is expected to be politically neutral.

However, according to the 42nd Amendment Act, the President acts on the aid and advice of the Union Ministry, Hence, executive interference in judicial appointments is a real possibility. Since the 1990s, the Supreme Court ruled that the Judiciary must play a leading role in its judicial appointments.

The Supreme Court set up a Collegium consisting of the Chief Justice of India and the four senior-most judges of the court which would recommend names to the President for appointment to the Supreme Court and the High Courts. The Government’s role in this process has now been minimized.

Question 2.
Judicial activism is significant today.
Answer:
Judiciary in India has started taking a wider view of its functions. For instance, the courts have allowed individuals to file petitions on matters of important public concern. Such cases are known as Public Interest Litigation (PILs). There have been instances where the courts of their own accord, without anyone complaining or filing a petition, have taken note of matters of public concern (Suo moto). This wider view taken by the Judiciary of its functions has been termed as ‘Judicial Activism’.

In recent years, Judicial Activism has led to the courts examining the legality of the decision of the executive over a wide variety of issues including the ones referred to above. Moreover, in many instances, they have also either issued orders on what should be done over many issues or have directed the executive to take action about the same in a specified time period.

There has been much debate over Judicial Activism. Some feel that the judiciary was compelled to intervene because the executive was not discharging its functions properly, while others believe that the courts are exceeding their powers by looking into matters which fall within the jurisdiction of the executive or legislative.

6. Answer the following in detail with reference to the given points.

Question 1.
Explain the process of Judicial Review?
(a) Meaning
(b) Need
(c) When and where it started
(d) Indian context
Answer:
(a) Meaning: Judicial Review means the power of the Judiciary to examine if any law passed by the legislature or any executive policy or action is consistent with the Constitution or not, and if it is not then to declare it as unconstitutional and hence null and void.

(b) Need: It becomes necessary to have an institution that would examine whether the laws are consistent with the Constitution or not. That institution should also have the power to declare any law found inconsistent with the Constitution to be invalid and therefore not to be implemented. This would prevent the Legislature from making laws that violate the Constitution. In democracies with written Constitutions, this power is vested in the Judiciary. The Judiciary is not involved in any way in the law-making process. It is an independent body. Hence it has been assigned this power.

(c) When and where it started: The origins of the power of Judicial Review can be traced to a decision of the Supreme Court of the United States of America given in 1803 in a case known as the Marbury vs Madison case. This was for the first time that the American Supreme Court declared a law passed by the United States Congress to be invalid on the grounds that it was inconsistent with the Constitution of the United States. However, it must be noted that the American Constitution does not have an explicit provision that gives the Judiciary the power of Judicial Review. It is an implied power. To date, the American Supreme Court’s power of Judicial Review has been unchallenged. This is so because it is accepted that such a power is necessary to retain the supremacy of the Constitution.

(d) Indian Context: The Constitution of India does not explicitly provide the judiciary with the power of Judicial Review. However, like in the United States, these powers are implied. The Supreme Court of India has on many occasions declared laws passed by the Legislature as being inconsistent with the Constitution and therefore unconstitutional. In the Indian context, the real issue has been whether the amendments to the Constitution can be held unconstitutional. The issue was settled by the Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973). In its judgment, the Court stated that the Constitution of India had a ‘Basic Structure’. The Constitutional Amendments passed by the Parliament have to be consistent with this ‘Basic Structure’, and if they are found to be not, then the Supreme Court would declare them unconstitutional. The power to declare any Amendments as unconstitutional rests only with the Supreme Court.

Activity (Text Book Page No. 52)

Make a list of examples of Judicial Activism in India.
Answer:
Judicial Activism refers to the active role of the judiciary in upholding the rights of citizens and preserving constitutional provisions and the legal system of the country. The judiciary takes an active part wherever the legislature of executive fails to perform its duty, especially to dispense social justice.
Some areas of judicial activism include:

• Reforming the BCCI even though it is a private body.
• The Supreme Court insisting on a collegium of judges to suggest names for elevation as judges to the High/Supreme courts.
• Protection of the ecosystem and environmental jurisprudence.
• In regard to the Bhopal Gas Tragedy (1984).
• Conduct NEET exam all over the country.
• The right to privacy is a part of a fundamental right.
• Improving conditions of undertrials.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 5 Concept of Representation Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 5 Concept of Representation

1A. Choose the correct alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
Ancient Greece had ___________ (dictatorship, direct democracy, indirect democracy, monarchy)
Answer:
Direct democracy

Question 2.
The oldest representative assembly in the world is ___________ (House of Commons, House of Lords, Senate, House of Representative)
Answer:
House of Commons

1B. State the appropriate concept for the given statements.

Question 1.
The political system is where people elect representatives to govern themselves.
Answer:
Representative Democracy

1C. Find the odd word in the given set.

Question 1.
The Indian National Trade Union Congress, All India Kisan Sabha, National Students Union of India, Indian National Congress
Answer:
Indian National Congress (it is a political party)

2. Complete the concept maps.

Question 1.

Answer:

3. Explain the correlation between the following.

Question 1.
Governmental and Non-Governmental Organizations.
Answer:
Governmental organizations are public organizations that have a formalized structure. They are formed by election or nomination. They have legal status in terms of their jurisdiction. They are more concerned with political and administrative aspects.

However, such organizations due to their structure and scope may not be able to satisfy the concerns of different sections of the population or to represent various interests and causes. This leads to people who are devoted to the cause coming together as non-profit groups and further their cause. NGO’s work in the field of political and environmental awareness, the welfare of the elderly/women/children/disabled, etc., for e.g., Green Peace (environment), Help Age (senior citizens), CRY (children), AGNI (Political awareness), PFA (animals).

4. Express your opinion of the following.

Question 1.
Pressure groups are different from political parties.
Answer:
I agree with the statement.

• The political parties are part of the governmental system. They seek to influence government policy from the inside. A pressure group tries to influence the government from the outside. They do not stand for elections or aim to become members of the legislature/ government.
• Political parties have a broad agenda. They seek to represent the people for political, social, economic, cultural, and other concerns. Pressure groups usually have a narrow focus. They focus on specific issues or agitations for a specific cause e.g., the environment.

5. Answer the following in detail with reference to the given points.

Question 1.
What is meant by representation? Explain the various methods of representation?
(a) Meaning
(b) Electoral
(c) Non-electoral
(d) Non-official
Answer:
(a) Meaning: The concept of representation is important in any democracy.
Today, most countries have large territories and populations. Hence, direct democracy is not possible. The form of democracy today is indirect democracy or representative democracy. People elect representatives among themselves to govern the country for e.g., in India, Members of Parliament (MP’s), Members of State Legislative Assemblies/ Councils (MLA’s, MLC’s), of corporations, etc., are all our representatives.

(b) Electoral Method: Persons are directly or indirectly elected by the citizens to govern them as members of representative assemblies e.g., General elections to Lok Sabha, Assembly elections.

(c) Non-electoral Method: Representatives occupy their position through nomination or appointment for e.g., President of India appoints 12 Members to the Rajya Sabha.

(d) Non-official Method: Civil society represents the people through various pressure groups like trade unions, student groups, peasant organizations.

6. Suggest ways by which you can encourage people to vote in elections.
Answer:

• NGO’s such as AGNI have special programmes designed to encourage people to exercise their franchise.
• Street plays, flash mobs at railway stations, talks in colleges about the importance of voting.
• Voter enrollment drives to encourage youngsters to vote.
• Advertisements, especially involving celebrities as ‘ambassadors’ for the franchise.
• In some countries of the world, the franchise is compulsory.

Activity (Text Book Page No. 44)

Question 1.
Write the history of anyone national political party in India.
Answer:
Indian National Congress
Indian National Congress was founded on 28th December 1885 due to the efforts of A.O. Hume, to act as a platform for civil and political dialogue among educated Indians. The first session, held in Bombay with 72 delegates in attendance, elected W.C. Banerjee as its first President. Members were mainly from the Bombay and Madras Presidencies such as Dadabhai Naoroji, Dinshaw Wacha, Pherozshah Mehta, and others. During its early phase, the Congress was led by the Moderates.

The party first split at the Surat session (1907) into two groups i.e., Moderates and Extremists (led by Bal Gangadhar Tilak). The party began to endorse the policy of “Swaraj” (Self-rule) and “Swadeshi” (of our own country), After the death of Lokmanya Tilak, the leadership of the Congress passed into the hands of Mahatma Gandhi. His philosophy was based on the ideals of Satyagraha and Ahimsa. Various movements were organized by Gandhiji such as Non-Cooperation Movement (1920’s), Civil Disobedience (1930’s), and Quit India Movement (1942).

The INC has dominated most of India’s political landscape since Independence. The period 1947-1967 is described as the One-Party Dominant System (OPDS) of the INC. However, Congress dominance has declined. In the UPA government (2004 – 2014) the INC was one of the major parties. At present, it is the main opposition party (2019).

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 Constitutional Government Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 Constitutional Government

1A. Choose the correct alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
Unwritten Constitution exists in _____________ (United Kingdom, India .South Africa, United States)
Answer:
United Kingdom

Question 2.
In a parliamentary system there is a _____________ of legislative and executive powers. (separation, coordination, merger, centralisation)
Answer:
merger

Question 3.
The ten amendments to the American Constitution are collectively referred to as _____________ (Bills of Rights, Magna Carta, Basic Structure Doctrine, Fundamental Rights)
Answer:
Bill of Rights

1B. Identify the incorrect pair in every set, correct it and rewrite.

Question 1.
(a) Magna Carta – England
(b) Veto – United Kingdom
(c) Kesavananda Bharati Case – Basic structure doctrine
Answer:
(b) Veto – USA

1C. Find the odd word out in the given set.

Question 1.
England, Scotland, Wales, Republic of Ireland.
Answer:
The Republic of Ireland (not part of UK)

Question 2.
India, Australia, Canada, Argentina.
Answer:
Argentina (not a parliamentary system)

2. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
Indian Federation can be described as a ‘quasi-federation’.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• The Indian Constitution provides for dual set of governments i.e Union State governments. There is a distribution of powers on the basis of three lists viz. Union list, State list, and Concurrent list.
• However, India has a federal structure with a powerful central government. The constitution framers felt that a strong Union government was needed to ensure the balanced development of the country.

Question 2.
The parliamentary system exists in the United States.
Answer:
This statement is False.

• In a Parliamentary system, there is a merger of legislative and executive functioning. There are two executives, i.e., real and normal executives. This is noticed in India, United Kingdom, etc.
• the United States follows the Presidential system based on separation of government powers. Here, there is only one executive i.e., President who is directly elected by citizens.

3. Explain the co-relation between the following.

Question 1.
Legislature and Executive in a parliamentary system.
Answer:
In a parliamentary system, there is a fusion of legislative and executive functions. The real executive i.e. the Prime Minister and Council of Ministers is drawn from the Legislature. There are no separate elections for the post of Prime Minister and other Ministers. The Prime Minister and the Ministers play a dual role i.e., they are part of both Legislature and Executive. Thus, they also attend Parliamentary sessions.

The leader of the party or group which commands a majority in the legislature is invited by the nominal executive (President) to form the government and assume the post of Prime Minister. The Ministry stays in power only as long as it enjoys majority support in Parliament. The lower house of the Parliament in England (House of Commons) and in India (Lok Sabha) can pass a vote of no-confidence against the Ministry which means that the Prime Minister and his/her Council of Ministers must resign. This is due to parliamentary sovereignty. Thus, the executive is subordinate to and responsible to the Parliament (legislature).

Question 2.
President and Legislature in a presidential system.
Answer:
In a Presidential system, there is a separation of government powers and a system of checks and balances. The President i.e., head of the executive is directly elected by the citizens for a fixed tenure. He/she enjoys powers granted to the office by the constitution and must conduct his/her administration in accordance with laws passed by the legislature. Members of the executive are prohibited from being members of the legislature.

The legislature is also popularly elected. Its powers are not absolute since the President can exercise ‘Veto Power’ to reject a law passed by the legislature. Similarly, the legislature can also impeach the President if it is proved that the constitution has been violated by him/her. The President continues in office irrespective of whether he/she enjoys majority support in the legislature. However such lack of support may lead to a breakdown or impasse in government functioning.

4. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Explain constitutionalism and constitutional morality.
Answer:
Constitutionalism refers to the idea that there should be limitations on the powers of the government which may be specified in the constitution or may arise due to historical developments. The Magna Carta (Great Charter) (1215) and Bill of Rights (1689) in England were attempts to restrict the powers of the Monarchs. As the concept of separation of legislative, executive, judicial powers became popular, so also, the idea of restricting powers of the government as a whole emerged. The origins of constitutionalism can be traced to the Social Contract Theory propounded by John Locke. He believed that people should have the right to change the government if it committed any wrongdoings.

The first ten amendments to the American Constitution (collectively called the Bill of Rights) imposed restrictions on the government. The Indian Constitution also restricts government jurisdiction so that it doesn’t violate Fundamental Rights.
Any constitution is subject to amendments. Thus, it is possible that certain governments may use their amendment powers to remove restrictions, on their policies and actions.

In any democracy, Constitutionalism refers to restrictions on the power of the government and adherence to the spirit of the constitution. It refers to the values which form its foundations and the manner in which those who hold power are expected to behave. This can be described by the term ‘Constitutional Monarchy’.

5. Answer the following in detail with reference to the given points.

Question 1.
Explain Constitution and its three distinct interrelated components.
(i) What is a Constitution?
(ii) set of rules
(iii) set of rights
(iv) set of objectives and values
Answer:
(i) The constitution is the highest law of the country. It reflects the objectives of the state and the rights and aspirations of its citizens. It establishes the rule of law and sets limits on government authority. A constitution is a living document that indicates the way in which a country is governed. The primary function of the constitution is to lay out the basic structure of the government according to which the people are to be governed. A constitution has three distinct but interrelated components.

(ii) Set of Rules – A constitution is a set of rules that describes the structure, powers, and functions of the three organs of government to ensure that each organ functions without its jurisdiction. It lays down the limitations on what the government can do or cannot do.

(iii) Set of Rights – A constitution lists the rights of the citizens, means for the protection of these rights, and the duties of citizens. It also lists the means of protecting the rights e.g., in India, the judiciary is entrusted with protecting the rights. The rights guaranteed by the constitution are not unlimited i.e. they are subject to reasonable limitations.

(iv) Set of Objectives and Values – A constitution enumerates the values and objectives that it seeks to fulfill. For e.g., the Indian Constitution seeks to ensure the values of justice, liberty, and equality.

11th Political Science Digest Chapter 4 Constitutional Government Intext Questions and Answers

Find out! (Text Book Page No. 30)

How many times has the Indian Constitution been amended? What was the latest amendment?
Answer:
Amendments refer to changes in certain provisions of the constitution. In India, Article 368 deals with the amendment procedure. Till March 2019, the Indian Constitution has been amended 103 times. The 101st amendment (July 2017) introduced GST, the 102nd amendment gave constitutional status to National Commission for Backward Classes, and the 103rd amendment provided for a maximum of 10% reservation for economically weaker sections (EWS) by amending Articles 15,16. (Right to Equality)

Find out! (Text Book Page No.32)

Make a list of all Prime Ministers of India with their tenure.
Answer:

1. Jawaharlal Nehru (August 1947 – May 1964)
2. Gulzarilal Nanda – Acting Prime Minister (27 May 1964 – 9 June 1964, 11 January 1966 – 24 January 1966)
3. Lai Bahadur Shastri (June 1964 – January 1966)
4. Indira Gandhi (January 1966 – March 1977, January 1980 – October 1984)
5. Morarji Desai (March 1977 – July 1979)
6. Charan Singh (July 1979 – January 1980)
7. Rajiv Gandhi (October 1984 – December 1989)
8. V. P. Singh (December 1989 – November 1990)
9. Chandra Shekar (November 1990 – June 1991)
10. P. V. Narsimha Rao (June 1991 – May 1996)
11. A. B. Vajpayee (May 1996 – June 1996, March 1998 – May 2004)
12. H. D. Deve Gowda (June 1996 – April 1997)
13. I. K. Gujral (April 1997 – March 1998)
14. Dr. Manmohan Singh (May 2004 – May 2014)
15. Narendra Modi (May 2014 – till date)

Find out! (Text Book Page No. 34)

Name any four American Presidents who belonged to the Republican Party and for who belonged to the Democratic Party
Answer:

• Republican Party – Abraham Lincoln, Richard Nixon, Ronald Reagan, George H. W. Bush, George W. Bush.
• Democratic Party – F. D. Roosevelt, J. F. Kennedy, Bill Clinton, Barack Obama, Donald Trump.

Do this. (Text Book Page No. 35)

Look at the following subjects (Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution):

• Law and Order
• Atomic Energy
• Banking
• Agriculture
• Police
• Electricity
• Education
• Railways
• Public health
• Foreign affairs
• Forests.

Find out which of these subjects is in Union, state, or concurrent list.
Answer:

Union List	State List	Concurrent List
Atomic Energy	Police	Education
Foreign Affairs	Agriculture	Electricity
Banking	Law and order	Forest
Railways	Public Health

Activity (Text Book Page No. 36)

What are the rights mentioned in the Bill of Rights of the American Constitution?
Answer:
The Bill of Rights refers to the first ten amendments of the US constitution. Some of the rights include.

• First Amendment prohibits the making of any law impeding the free exercise of religion or restricting the freedom of speech or of the press or to assemble peacefully.
• The Second Amendment protects the individual right to keep arms.
• The Fifth Amendment protects against double jeopardy and self-incrimination.
• The sixth amendment establishes a number of rights of the defendant in a criminal trial such as speedy, public trial by an impartial jury, the assistance of counsel, etc.
• The Tenth amendment reinforces the principles of separation of powers and of federalism.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 3 Equality and Justice Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 3 Equality and Justice

1A. Choose the correct alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
The base of political equality is __________ (democracy, dictatorship, military rule, monarchy)
Answer:
democracy

Question 2.
John Rawls was an advocate of __________ justice. (distributive, political, economic, gender-based)
Answer:
distributive

1B. State the appropriate concept for the given statement.

Question 1.
The principle of equality states that each one should get an opportunity for the development of their individual personality.
Answer:
Equality of opportunity

Question 2.
Type of equality which says that every citizen has an equal right to participate in affairs of the State.
Answer:
Political equality

Question 3.
Absence of economic exploitation.
Answer:
Economic equality

1C. Complete the following sentence using appropriate reason.

Question 1.
In India, laws were made regarding the abolition of untouchability. Because
(a) untouchability is a political concept
(b) untouchability is a legal concept
(c) social inequality can be controlled by State legislation
Answer:
(c) social inequality can be controlled by State legislation

2. Complete the concept map/maps.

Question 1.

Answer:

3. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
Democracy denies equality.
Answer:
This statement is False.

• A democratic government is based on the pillars of liberty, equality, justice, and fraternity.
• Equality signifies equality of opportunity, political participation, and equal protection of the law which can be ensured only in a democracy.

Question 2.
Equality is a political goal.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• Equality signifies that all human beings have an equal worth irrespective of their race, religion, caste, etc. It, however, does not mean uniformity.
• In modern times, equality includes aspects like tolerance and empathy i.e., a moral and collective dimension. It is also the basis of liberty and justice and is thus considered a political goal.

Question 3.
Social democracy is the foundation of political democracy.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• Social democracy means that there is equality i.e., no distinction among individuals merely on basis of ethnicity, creed, gender, etc. It ensures the dignity of the individual.
• Political democracy is expressed in political rights such as the right to vote, to criticize the government, etc. In the absence of social democratic political democracy will be less worthwhile.

4. Explain the co-relation between the following.

Question 1.
Equality and justice.
Answer:
Equality refers to equal rights and opportunities for all persons irrespective of their race, creed, gender, etc. It means no person or group will be discriminated against socially, economically, or politically. Similarly, no person or group will have special privileges that are denied to the vast majority in society.

Justice refers to that state of affairs in which every individual gets exactly those burdens and benefits that are due to him. It refers to the absence of socio-economic, political, and legal injustices.

In the absence of equality, there will be a denial of justice and the progress of society will be hindered. Justice aims at the reconciliation of individual rights and larger social interests.

Question 2.
Legal Justice and Social Justice
Answer:
Legal justice is the application of the abstract concept of justice through the implementation of the law. Justice is a precondition to the law as, without it, the law may become an instrument of tyranny and suppression. Austin considers law as a means to suppress injustice as well as to establish justice. Legal justice signifies an independent and impartial judiciary that observes specific rules for judicial proceedings. Any accused should be charged keeping in mind his/her human rights.

Social justice is both reformative and distributive. It aims at a revision of the social order by doing away with socio-economic evils for e.g. to eradicate untouchability, there is Article 17 of the constitution as well as laws passed by Parliament.

Procedural justice demands equality before the law as well as correct interpretation and application of the law. Social justice is also reformative i.e., equitable distribution of goods and services so that underprivileged sections can get an adequate share in this distribution.

5. Express your opinion of the following.

Question 1.
Casteism is a barrier to social equality.
Answer:
The caste system is one of the basic features of Indian society. It implies divisions in society based merely on one’s birth into a particular section of society. There was a caste hierarchy in which the upper castes enjoyed privileges that were denied to the lower castes. Even, within the four main Chaturvaranas, hierarchies began to develop.

Casteism began to become a social evil, as it resulted in untouchability as well as the exploitation and segregation of lower castes. They were denied equal opportunities to have socio-economic and political rights. Casteism did not permit upward mobility in the caste hierarchy due to marriage or achievement. The intermingling of castes was prohibited. Lower castes were often discriminated against in educational, political, and employment facilities. In some cases, they were denied access to public places like water bodies, hospitals, etc.

Social equality means that there has to be no favouring of or discrimination against any person/group on irrelevant aspects like caste and creed. It means that the dignity and intrinsic worth of every person must be recognized. Thus, the rigid hierarchies and discrimination perpetuated by casteism hinder social equality.

6. Answer the following.

Question 1.
Explain the Indian concept of Justice.
Answer:
There exist different kinds of inequalities in India, such as those created through the caste system, through the patriarchal system, etc. Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar argued that justice would be achieved when the structure and values associated with these systems undergo a change. He also related the concept of justice to the concept of the distribution of resources. The Constitution of India ensures justice through both, procedural justice and social justice. This can be achieved through the educational and economic development of the backward classes.

Justice is implemented through the following policies:

• The policy of reservation.
• Granting of scholarships, grants, loans, health services, etc. for weaker sections of the society.
• Eradication of unjust social and economic practices which exploit the backward classes.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 2 Liberty and Rights Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 2 Liberty and Rights

1A. Choose the correct alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
The book, ‘On Liberty’ was written by ___________ (Robert Nozick, Thomas Hobbes, J. S. Mill, Isaiah Berlin)
Answer:
J. S. Mill

Question 2.
The concept of Swaraj was spelled out by ___________ (Mahatma Gandhi, Mahatma Phule, Dr. Ambedkar, Dr. Rajendra Prasad)
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi

1B. Complete the following sentence by using appropriate reason.

Question 1.
According to Jeremy Bentham, the State should not bring any obstruction, in liberty because –
(a) State does not give liberty.
(b) the individual knows how to protect his own interests.
(c) liberty is a hurdle-less situation.
Answer:
(b) the individual knows how to protect his own interests.

1C. State the appropriate concept for the given statement.

Question 1.
Fundamental right introduced in Constitution of India by 86th Amendment.
Answer:
Right to education

Question 2.
Rights-based on the conscience of the individual and the community.
Answer:
Moral rights

2. Complete the concept map.

Question 1.

Answer:

3. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
Legal rights are not universal.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• Legal rights include political and civil rights which are granted by the State to the people. Legal rights are codified in law.
• Different countries grant different rights to their people. Hence, unlike natural rights, legal rights are not universal.

4. Explain the co-relation between the following.

Question 1.
Concept of Liberty by Thomas Hobbes and John Locke (Positive liberty and Negative liberty).
Answer:
Positive liberty and Negative liberty are two aspects of liberty that have their origin in liberalism. Negative liberty emerged from classical and neoclassical liberalism and finds expression in the views of thinkers like Jeremy Bentham, John Stuart Mill, Robert Nozick, Friedrich Hayek, and Isaiah Berlin.

Negative liberty opposes all restraints on liberty i.e., the State should not interfere in the social, economic life of the individual. It opposes any coercion, interference, or force on part of the State. The base negative aspect of liberty is the freedom of thought. Bentham argues that every person knows how to protect their own interest and hence no obstruction should be brought by the State.

John Stuart Mill suggests that negative liberty should be rejected only if it adversely impacts society. Hayek described liberty as a hurdle-less situation while Nozick suggested that the individual should be free from social, economic, and State restrictions. Berlin explains that negative liberty is opposition to restraints on the choice of alternatives.

The positive aspect of liberty as advocated by Jean-Jacques Rousseau and Herbert Marcuse emerged from modern liberalism. It states that liberty affects equality and justice. The law guides the individual towards the enrichment of their personality. Rousseau advocated the idea of State control over the individual since the State is a sovereign power that represents the ‘General Will’. Similarly, Marcuse advocates State interference and collective control as essential in community life.
We can conclude in the two statements of Isaiah Berlin.

• The negative aspect of liberty – ‘I am a slave to no man’.
• The positive aspect of liberty – ‘I am my own master’.

Question 2.
Natural rights and Legal rights.
Answer:
According to Harold Laski, ‘Rights are those conditions of social life without which no man can seek, in general, to be himself at his best.

Rights may be classified as natural rights, moral rights or legal (civil-political) rights.
Natural Rights e.g., the right to life, are parts of human nature and reason. They are not dependent on the laws of any government or the customs of any culture. They are universal and inalienable. They are considered beyond the authority of any government or international body to dismiss. The idea of human rights is closely related to that of natural rights. In the United States Declaration of Independence, natural rights mentioned are ‘Life, Liberty, and pursuit of Happiness. Our natural rights as human beings include being treated justly regardless of race, religion, gender, region, etc.

John Locke and Thomas Hobbes strongly advocated natural rights. Natural rights are important because without them we would have no claim to freedom. Legal rights refer to rights according to law. These rights are granted by the State to the people and exist differently in different countries. They are justiciable and codified in law. Such rights are neither universal nor inalienable. Legal rights include civil rights and political rights.

5. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Explain Mahatma Gandhi’s idea of liberty
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi accepted the concept of Swaraj as liberty. He spelled this out in his work, ‘Hind Swaraj’. The term Swaraj implies a combination of two ideas: Self (Swa) and Rule (Raj). Thus Swaraj means Self-Rule. Gandhiji’s concept of Swaraj was comprehensive. He did not accept Swaraj only as freedom from British rule but also as freedom from western cultural domination. Swaraj would mean freedom from the trampling of humanitarian values. This concept gives more importance to self-governance, self-discipline, and human values.

Question 2.
Discuss the concept of Human Rights.
Answer:
Human Rights are those rights that we are entitled to simply because we are human beings. Henry Thoreau first described natural rights as human rights. These are basic rights of people anywhere in the world to be free from exploitation, injustice, and want, to lead a dignified existence, and to develop to the fullest extent. The U.N.O adopted the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (U.D.H.R) on 10th December 1948. These rights are dynamic i.e., they develop with changing times. U.D.H.R expresses belief in the liberty and equality of human beings and promotes the culture of peace and cooperation.

Human rights can be classified as

• Civil and Political rights – These are liberty-oriented rights like the right to freedom of thought, right to vote, etc
• Social, Cultural, and Economic rights – These include the right to social justice, the right to work, etc.
• Developmental rights – These are linked to the concept of fraternity e.g., the right to a healthy environment, right to information.

The implementation of human rights requires favorable political, socio-economic conditions in the state. In the absence of such, these rights may be violated or denied as happens in the case of women, children, displaced persons, minorities, etc.

Question 3.
Explain Isaiah Berlin’s concept of Liberty.
Answer:
Isaiah Berlin in his famous essay, ‘Two Concepts of Liberty’, discussed Negative and Positive Liberty. He believed that liberty is unrestrained. According to Isaiah Berlin, freedom of action is negative liberty. As per this principle, the opportunity to act is important while the action itself is secondary.

According to him, the impact of the action is not considered important and hence it is not measured. Therefore, this principle does not give importance to quality. For example, this concept does not make a qualitative difference between choosing one’s education, profession, or suffer deprivation. He would rather give importance to give an opportunity to do these actions than the outcome of the action itself.

Isaiah Berlin has mentioned the following features of negative liberty.

• Individuals should have complete freedom of choice. He should not have restraints on the choice of alternatives. Opposition to such restraints is a feature of negative liberty.
• Negative Liberty is based on Neoliberalism.

6. Answer the following in detail with reference to the given points.

Question 1.
Elaborate the concept of Rights –
(a) Meaning and Classification of Rights
(b) Legal Rights
(c) Human Rights
Answer:
(i) Meaning and Classification of Rights: Rights are those social conditions that are necessary for the development of our personality. Laski defines rights as ‘those conditions of social life without which no man can seek, in general, to be himself at his best.

• Natural Rights – These rights are universal in character e.g. the right to life and liberty.
• Moral Rights – These rights are based on the conscience of the person and the community e.g. respect for elders.
• Legal Rights – These rights are granted by the state and are codified in law. These rights are not universal. Legal rights may be:
  • Civil rights: related to the person and property of the individual’s right to liberty, equality, property.
  • Political rights: are available only to citizens in a democratic State and aim to encourage active political participation e.g. the right to vote, to contest elections.

(ii) Legal Rights: These rights refer to rights according to law. These rights are granted by the State to the people and exist differently in different countries. They are justiciable and codified in law. Such rights are neither universal nor inalienable. Legal rights include civil rights and political rights.

(iii) Human Rights: These rights are those rights that we are entitled to simply because we are human beings. Henry Thoreau first described natural rights as human rights. These are basic rights of people anywhere in the world to be free from exploitation, injustice, and want, to lead a dignified existence, and to develop to the fullest extent. The UNO adopted the Universal Declaration of Human Rights on 10th December 1948. These rights are dynamic i.e. they develop with changing times. UDHR expresses belief in the liberty and equality of human beings and promotes a culture of peace and cooperation.

Human rights can be classified as

• Civil and Political rights – These are liberty-oriented rights like the right to freedom of thought, right to vote, etc.
• Social, Cultural, and Economic rights – These include the right to social justice, the right to work, etc.
• Developmental rights – These are linked to the concept of fraternity e.g. right to a healthy environment, right to information.

The implementation of human rights requires favorable political, socio-economic conditions. In the absence of such, these rights may be violated or denied as in the case of women, children, displaced persons, minorities, etc.

Activity 1 (Text Book Page No. 17)

Make a list of Civil Rights in India.
Answer:
Civil rights in India include

• Right to life
• Right to personal freedom
• Right to Family life
• Right to freedom of religion
• Right to freedom of thought and expression including freedom of the press
• Right to freedom of movement association and assembly
• Right to Education
• Right to freedom of occupation and vocation
• Right to freedom from arbitrary arrest
• Right to justice.

Activity 2 (Text Book Page No. 15)

Discuss and make a note of examples of human rights violations.
Answer:
Human rights violations are noticed in many countries of the world.

• Violation of rights of women: In many countries exhibiting a patriarchal mindset, women are considered as having an inferior status. They become victims of social evils like dowry, female foeticide, F.G.M., and of crimes like sexual assaults, domestic violence, etc.
• Violation of rights of children: The world over and especially in poorer countries or in areas of conflict, violation of child rights occurs by physical neglect, abandonment, abuse, sexual crimes, child labour, etc.
• Violation of rights of underprivileged sections: Such persons face exploitation, deprivation, discrimination, and poverty. This section includes tribals, handicapped persons, ethnic/religious/linguistic minorities.
• Violation of rights of displaced persons: Displacement of persons may be due to hostile government, civil war, and conflicts, natural disasters, developmental projects, etc. Such persons are often unwanted everywhere e.g., Syrian refugees.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 1 The State Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 1 The State

1A. Choose the appropriate alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
The term Nation is derived from the Latin word ___________ (Nasci, Natio, Natalis, Nauto)
Answer:
Nasci

Question 2.
The origin of Liberal Nationalism is in the ___________ Revolution. (American, Russian, French, British)
Answer:
French

1B. Identify the incorrect pair in every set, correct it and rewrite.

Question 1.
(a) Aristotle – German Thinker
(b) Jean Bodin – French Thinker
(c) Woodrow Wilson – American Thinker
(d) Harold Laski – British Thinker
Answer:
(a) Aristotle – Greek Thinker

1C. State the appropriate concept for the given statements.

Question 1.
The force which holds the people to a sense of political loyalty to the country –
Answer:
Nationalism

Question 2.
The area of the State within which it has the authority to govern –
Answer:
Jurisdiction

2. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
Progressive Nationalism can create differences amongst people.
Answer:
This statement is False.

• Progressive nationalism is integral nationalism that can help people of a society to unite and to promote development towards the objective of national integration.
• Aggressive nationalism is destructive and can create differences amongst people.

Question 2.
Sovereignty means State has the freedom to take its own decision.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• Sovereignty refers to the supreme power of the state internally as well as externally.
• The State is free from external control and also legally sovereign with its own independent constitution.

Question 3.
Palestine is a State.
Answer:
This statement is False.

• The state has four essential elements i.e. population, territory, government, and sovereignty. Palestine does not have a sovereign government. Its territory is under Israeli jurisdiction.
• Hence, Palestine is a nation, not a State although more than 100 members of the UNO have given recognition to Palestine as a State.

Question 4.
Expansionist Nationalism is a type of Aggressive Nationalism.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• In the expansionist form of nationalism, countries become aggressive, imperialist, and colonialist, and create empires for national glory.
• This has been noticed in Nazi Germany Fascist Italy.

3. Express your opinion of the following.

Question 1.
India is a State.
Answer:
I agree with the above statement.
In Political Science, the term ‘State’ is used to describe a sovereign country. Anti-colonial nationalism led to the freedom struggle in India and subsequent independence from British Rule in 1947.

Any state has the following elements:

• Sovereignty: India achieved the status of a Sovereign Republic on 26th January 1950 when its constitution came into effect.
• Government: As a British colony, there was a government but it was not a sovereign government However, after political independence, a Sovereign, Parliamentary, Federal government was constituted in India.
• Territory: India is defined by its geographical boundaries. Its jurisdiction extends all over its compact territory, now comprising of 29 states and 7 union territories.
• Population: India has a vast population, exhibiting great diversity in terms of ethnicity/race, region and language, culture, religion, and so on. Thus, we can conclude that India is a nation-state.

4. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
What are the features of a Nation?
Answer:
The word ‘nation’ is derived from the Latin word ‘Nasci’ meaning ‘to be born’. Thus, the literal meaning of a nation is a people having a common race/ethnicity or cultural linkages. Earnest Barker defines a nation as a body of men, inhabiting a definite territory, who normally are drawn from different races but possess a common stock of thoughts and feelings acquired and transmitted during the course of common history.

A nation refers to a large group of people, united in common bonds of geography, race, history, religion, language, sharing common objectives.

Features of a Nation:

• Population: A nation must have a population that has a sense of ethnic, historical, and cultural oneness.
• Feeling of community: The emotional dimension of a nation is a perception held by the population of psychological oneness i.e., they are a community.
• Desire to be politically separate: A feeling of unity and of being a nation is a product of the urge for ‘self-determination’. This can lead to a demand for self-governance. This signifies that people who feel united should have the right to decide the type of government that they prefer.

Question 2.
What is Nationalism? Explain its types.
Answer:
Nationalism is a force that binds the people to a sense of integrity and loyalty to their country. It is a spirit of oneness or common consciousness that binds a community together. Nationalism is a sense of political identity and emotional attachment to one’s ‘homeland’.

The forms of Nationalism from a political perspective are:

• Liberal Nationalism: Its origins are in the ideals of the French Revolution. President Woodrow Wilson linked the concept of a nation to the right to self-determination and sovereignty.
• Conservative Nationalism: It views a nation as a closely linked society with great importance to patriotism and the concept of ‘motherland’.
• Expansionist Nationalism: It is aggressive nationalism, which leads to imperialism, conquest, and colonialism. It has been seen in European imperialism by countries like England, Italy, Spain, France, etc.
• Anticolonial Nationalism: It refers to liberation struggles for independence from colonial rule, e.g., Indonesian freedom struggle from Dutch colonial rule.

5. Answer the following question in detail with reference to the given points.

Question 1.
Explain the following elements of the State.
(a) Sovereignty
(b) Government
(c) Population
(d) Territory
Answer:
(a) Sovereignty: It signifies the supreme power of the State internally as well as externally. It means an independent nation with its own constitution.

(b) Government: This refers to the agency through which the will of the state is expressed. Modern governments have three organs viz. legislature, executive, and judiciary. Government must be independent. Institutions of the State are ‘public’ institutions and have the legitimacy to act on behalf of the State. These institutions are responsible for making and implementing laws to promote the general welfare of the people. There are various kinds of government based on their creation or style of function for e.g., democracy or dictatorship, republic or monarchy, presidential or parliamentary system, etc.

(c) Population: A State is an association of human beings. The progress of a State depends on the quality of the population. Some states viz. China, India, etc., have a large population while some States have a small population viz. Monaco, Belgium, etc. The population may be homogeneous e.g., Israel or diverse e.g. erstwhile USSR comprised of many nationalities like Russians, Ukrainians, Latvians, etc. Thus a ‘State’ may comprise of many ‘nations’.

(d) Territory: A State is recognized by its territory. This includes the land area within its boundaries, the airspace above the area, and surrounding territorial waters (up to 12 nautical miles). The area within which the State has the authority to govern is called its jurisdiction. Some states have a small territory e.g., Sri Lanka, Bhutan, Maldives, etc., while other States e.g., Brazil, Russia, India, and Australia have a large territory. Most States have compact territory e.g., India, while some states which exist as islands have scattered territory e.g., Indonesia.

Activity (Text Book Page No.8)

Identify the States with the smallest territory and largest territory on the world map.
Answer:
States having the largest territory: Russia, Canada, USA, China, Brazil, Australia, India, Argentina, Kazakhstan, Algeria, etc.
States with the smallest territory: Vatican City, Monaco, Nauru, San Marino, Maldives, Singapore, Mauritius, Fiji, etc.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 History Solutions Chapter 16 Swarajya to Empire (Maratha Period) Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 History Solutions Chapter 16 Swarajya to Empire (Maratha Period)

1A. Choose the correct alternative and complete sentences.

Question 1.
___________ is known as the Father of Indian Navy.
(a) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj
(b) Chhatrapati Sambhaji Maharaj
(c) Chhatrapati Rajaram Maharaj
(d) Chhatrapati Shahu Maharaj
Answer:
(a) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj

Question 2.
The Pathans from Afghanistan had settled in ___________ the province at the foothills of the Himalayas.
(a) Varanasi
(b) Mathura
(c) Ayodhya
(d) Delhi
Answer:
(c) Ayodhya

Question 3.
Chhatrapati Sambhaji Maharaj wrote the Sanskrit text ___________
(a) Nayikabhed
(b) Budhabhushan
(c) Nakhshikh
(d) Satasattka
Answer:
(b) Budhabhushan

1B. Find the incorrect pair from set B and write the correct ones.

Question 1.

Set ‘A’	Set ‘B’
(a) Naik-Nimbalkar Wada	Vathar
(b) Nana Phadanvis Wada	Menavali
(c) Kalaram Temple	Jejuri
(d) Mohiniraj Temple	Nevase

Answer:
(c) Kalaram Temple – Nashik

1C. Write the names.

Question 1.
He was the Chief of the intelligence network of Chh. Shivaji Maharaj
Answer:
Bahirji Naik

Question 2.
He assisted in the provincial affairs
Answer:
Subhedars/Deshadhikari

Question 3.
Leader of the Rohillas
Answer:
Najib Khan

2. Complete the concept map.

Question 1.

Answer:

3. Explain the statement with reasons.

Question 1.
Shahajiraje is known as the visionary of Swarajya.
Answer:

• Shahajiraje Bhosale was a prominent Sardar in the Nizamshahi kingdom. After the end of Nizamshahi’s rule, he accepted the rank of a Mansabdar in the Adilshahi court.
• Shahajiraje was valiant, courageous, wise, and well-versed in the science of statehood.
• He had successfully handled many Adilshahi expeditions in Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu.
• The provinces of Pune, Supe, Shirwal, Indapur, and Chakan were given to Shahajiraje as Jahangir.
• He personally aspired to establish Swarajya. He is regarded as the visionary of Swarajya.
• The concept of Swarajya was visualized by Shahajiraje and it was turned into reality by Chh. Shivaji Maharaj.
• Chh. Shivaji Maharaj laid the foundation of Swarajya from the Mawal region. Several factors like the topography of Maharashtra, valour of the local Mawalas, the administrative and military experience gained by the Maratha sardars while working with Nizamshahi, and Adilshahi and above all these the able leadership of Chh. Shivaji Maharaj could make it possible.

Question 2.
Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj built the naval force.
Answer:

• In the year 1657 C.E., after conquering Kalyan and Bhiwandi, the boundaries of Swarajya extended up to the coastline.
• The British and the French were involved in the Salt trade. Chh. Shivaji Maharaj wanted to establish control over the sea waters.
• Chh. Shivaji Maharaj was the only king in medieval India who attempted to build a navy.
• He realized to check the activities of foreign traders so having a Navy was important.
• It was necessary for his military strategy also. During the second sack of Surat, Chh. Shivaji Maharaj brought those ships to the coast of Surat and loaded the huge booty on them acquired from Surat.
• It is apparent that Chh. Shivaji Maharaj wanted to establish complete control over the land as well as on the sea.

Question 3.
Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj charged heavy duty on the salt imported from the Portuguese territory.
Answer:

• Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj was keen on protecting the local industries.
• He protected the salt industry in Konkan. At that time, traders imported salt from the Portuguese territory and sold it in Swarajya.
• That affected the local trade in the Konkan areas.
• Chh. Shivaji Maharaj charged heavy duty on the salt imported into Swarajya from the Portuguese territory.
• The intention was that the salt imported from the Portuguese territory would then cost more and as a result, its import would be discouraged and the sale of the local salt would increase.

4. Write short notes.

Question 1.
Maratha Art:
Answer:

• Developments of Maratha miniature paintings can be seen through illustrations on the manuscripts such as pothis, pattachitra, and patrikas. For example, the wooden stands of pothis have pictures of Ganapati, Riddhi-Siddhi, Gopalkrishna in dark red, green, and yellow colours.
• Miniature paintings include human portraits and themes like ragamalas, talamala, processions, etc.
• Murals are found on the fagade of the Wadas, as well on the walls of reception areas (Diwankhana) and bedrooms.
• The 18th-century murals have survived till today at places like Naik-Nimbalkar Wada at Vathar, Rangamahal at Chandwad, Mayureshwar Mandir at Morgaon, Shiva Temple of Pandeshwar, and Matha at Benawadi.
• The main theme of murals is mythological stories. They include scenes from Ramayana, Mahabharata, and Puranas.
• The subjects of contemporary social life were also reflected in the paintings. The royal court, royal meetings, processions were also included in them.

Question 2.
Maratha Architecture:
Answer:

• Chh. Shivaji Maharaj built forts, the tradition of which was prevalent in the Deccan for three centuries.
• The Kasaba temple in Pune and Vitthal temple in Vitthalwadi were reconstructed by Veermata Jijabai.
• During the Peshwa period, the Maratha kingdom regained its prosperity and all forms of art and architecture received patronage.
• The construction of temples began on a large scale during the later Peshwa.
• Period. These temples are of three types. Examples of temple architecture of this period are found at Saswad, Mahuli, Jejuri, etc.
• These are huge in size. The plan of these temples is in star design, the foundation of the temple was multi-layered and was named accordingly.
• The shikhara is made in bricks and stucco method.
• The Kalaram, Goraram, and Sundarnarayan temples at Nasik and Mahadev temple at Trimbakeshwar, Mohiniraj temple at Nevasa is similar to the temples in Malwa and Rajasthan.
• These temples are constructed in stone. These temples are embellished extensively with sculptures.
• The third type of temple can be found at Pune, Satara, Wai, etc.
• It included arches, a wooden hall, and a sanctum sanctorum(gabhara). The Shikhara slopes inwards at the top.
• The stone ‘Deepamala’ is a remarkable feature of these temples. The stone deepamalas at Jejuri were built by Shahajiraje.
• The Chhatris (Samadhis) at various places are noteworthy.

Activity

Collect information about capable women in the medieval period and present it in class. Arrange a discussion on it.
Answer:

• In Indian history, we find only a few women actively participating in public affairs.
• In the Muslim period, Razia Sultan was the only woman who conducted the affairs of the government for a short time.
• And in later times, Rani of Jhansi rose into prominence during the revolt of 1857.
• During the Maratha period, there were women like Jijabai and Maharani Tarabai who performed public duties in the absence of their husbands.