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Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 2 India’s Foreign Policy Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

India’s Foreign Policy Class 9 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Class 9 Political Science Chapter 2 India’s Foreign Policy Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Political Science Class 9 Chapter 2 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. Choose the right option and rewrite the sentence:

Question 1.
This was the main objective behind establishing the Indian Atomic Energy Commission ________.
(a) Enhance military capacity
(b) Conduct nuclear tests
(c) To stop the proliferation of nuclear weapons
(d) Production of atomic energy
Answer:
(a) Enhance military capacity

Question 2.
The following is now the objective of all the nations of the world _____.
(a) atomic development
(b) economic development
(c) nuclear test
(d) security system
Answer:
(b) economic development

Question 3.
The is an important aspect of India’s foreign policy _______.
(a) free economic policy
(b) interdependence
(c) non-alignment
(d) nuclear development
Answer:
(c) non-alignment

Question 4.
India coriducted nuclear tests in 1974 at ______.
(a) Sriharikota
(b) Thumba
(c) Pokharan
(d) Jaitapur
Answer:
(c) Pokharan

2. Explain with reasons whether the following statements are true or false:

Question 1.
Pandit Nehru contributed towards improving Sino-Indian relations.
Answer:
True.
Self-opinion based

• Pandit Nehru formulated Panchsheel which was a treatise of the five principles of peaceful coexistence to govern relations between India and China. The first formal codification in the form of a treaty was an agreement between China and India in 1954.
• Mutual non-interference in internal affairs, mutual non-aggression, equality of mutual benefit, mutual respect, and peaceful co-existence were the principles for seeking peace with China.
• Nehru backed China’s permanent membership in the United Nations Security Council.
• Though Nehru had a policy of improving Sino- Indian relations, China attacked India in 1962.

Question 2.
Atal Bihari Vajpayee took lead in improving relations with Pakistan.
Answer:
True.
Evaluative, self-opinion based

• In an effort to develop friendly relations, India and Pakistan have started a bus service called ‘Sada-e-Sarhad’ (Call of the border) between Delhi and Lahore when Atal Bihari Vajpayee was the Prime Minister. He also revived the train called Samjhauta Express (Friendship Express).
• Atal Bihari Vajpayee rendered help to the earthquake victims of Pakistan during the rule of Pervez Musharraf.
• In 1999, there was another war between India and Pakistan in the Kargil region over the Kashmir issue. India defeated Pakistan in this war as well.
• Atal Bihari Vajpayee tried to establish a dialogue with Pakistan but was not successful.

3. Explain the following concepts:

Question 1.
India’s Foreign Policy.
Answer:
(i) India got independence in 1947 and from then onwards India started shaping its Foreign Policy independently.
(ii) Article 51 among the Directive Principles of State Policy lay down the broad framework for Foreign Policy.
(iii) According to it, India should give priority to safeguard international peace and security, and resolve our international problems and disputes by peaceful means.
(iv) The objectives of our Foreign Policy should be to maintain friendly relations with other nations and respect international law.

Question 2.
National Interest
Answer:
(i) National interest implies the means through which the independence and sovereignty of our country can be safeguarded.

(ii) National interest also includes efforts to achieve our economic development and to take steps towards increasing our national power.

(iii) When decisions are taken after giving careful thought to what is beneficial and good for our country, we say that we are nurturing our national interest.

Question 3.
World Peace
Answer:
(i) World peace is an ideal state of freedom, peace, and happiness among and within all nations and people.
(ii) This idea of world non-violence provides a basis for peoples and nations to willingly co-operate.
(iii) Either voluntarily or by virtue of a system of governance, that prevents warfare.
(iv) India has been consistently supporting efforts for disarmament because it is India’s policy that there should be peace and security.

4. What is your opinion about the fact that world peace is threatened due to nuclear preparedness?
Answer:
Nuclear preparedness leads to an Arm’s Race. It increases the possibilities of wars.
(i) If a nuclear bomb exploded in a major city, the blast center would be hotter than the surface of the sun.
(ii) Survivors would have no electricity, no transportation, no phones, and hospitals would be overwhelmed if they were still standing
(iii) India is now a country that has nuclear weapons. We have accepted the role of a responsible nuclear power. India has been consistently supporting efforts for disarmament because it is India’s position that there should be peace and security in the world.

5. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
On what principles is India’s foreign policy based?
Answer:
(i) India got independence in 1947 and from then onwards we started shaping our foreign policy independently.

(ii) The Directive Principles of State Policy have laid down guidelines about how to shape Foreign Policy. Article 51 among the Directive Principles of State Policy lay down the broad framework for foreign policy.

(iii) According to it, India should give priority to safeguard international peace and security, and resolve our international problems and disputes by peaceful means.

(iv) The objectives of our foreign policy should be to maintain friendly relations with other nations and respect international law. India’s Foreign Policy till now has been developed in this framework.

Question 2.
Who has contributed to improving Sino- Indian relations?
Answer:
(i) Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee contributed a great deal to improving Sino-Indian relations.
(ii) The President, the Prime Minister, the Foreign Minister, the Defence Minister, the Finance Minister, and the Home Minister have a role in deciding foreign policy.
(iii) The persons holding these positions try to maintain the continuity in Foreign Policy and to improve upon it.

Question .3
Write the objectives of India’s Foreign Policy.
Answer:
Objectives of India’s Foreign Policy are as follows:

• While maintaining friendly relations with neighboring countries, ensure that the defense and security of India are not affected.
• Not to compromise about the geographical boundaries of the nation.
• Protect the unity and integrity of the country.
• Protect the interests of India’s citizens living in other countries. This responsibility is fulfilled by the Indian embassies there.
• To establish economic and commercial relations with other countries for achieving the economic development of India.

6. Prepare the following concept map:

Question 1.

Answer:

Class 9 Political Science Chapter 2 India’s Foreign Policy Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the sentence:

Question 1.
Prime Minister ______ shaped India’s Foreign Policy during the early period.
(a) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(c) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(d) Rajiv Gandhi
Answer:
(a) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 2.
Foreign policy is framed to establish economic and _____ relations with other countries for achieving economic development of India,
(a) Social
(b) Commercial
(c) Economic
(d) All of above
Answer:
(b) Commercial

Question 3.
The period from independence to ____ can be considered as the first stage.
(a) 1984
(b) 1990
(c) 1992
(d) 2011
Answer:
(b) 1990

Question 4.
Peace and ______ became the fundamental principles of Non-Aligned Policy.
(a) justice
(b) freedom
(c) relations
(d) power
Answer:
(b) freedom

Question 5.
The first Chairman of the Indian Atomic Energy Commission was ______.
(a) Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
(b) Dr. A.P.J.Abdul Kalam
(c) Dr. Homi Bhabha.
(d) Dr. Manmohan Singh.
Answer:
(c) Dr. Homi Bhabha.

Question 6.
After ________, India reduced the government controls over the economy and adopted the free-market policy.
(a) 1992
(b) 1991
(c) 1984
(d) 1957
Answer:
(b) 1991

Question 7.
In the decade after 1990, our relations with the South Asian countries like ______, Thailand, Vietnam, etc. became stronger.
(a) China
(b) Japan
(c) Indonesia
(d) Singapore
Answer:
(d) Singapore

State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons:

Question 1.
Foreign Policy is always dynamic.
Answer:
True.

• Foreign Policy is drawn up to foster the national interest of defence and economic development.
• National interest is considered to be the goal and foreign policy is considered to be the means to achieve it.
• Goals of nations change with changes in conditions and time.
• Accordingly, national interest also changes.
• These changes are reflected in foreign policy. Therefore, foreign policy is always dynamic.

Question 2.
India has not signed NNPT or CTBT.
Answer:
True.

• Nuclear weapons are extremely destructive.
• Hence, it is necessary to, make consistent efforts so that they are never used. Two treaties have been made to stop the spread of nuclear weapons.

1. Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NNPT)
2. Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (CTBT).

• The conditions of both these treaties are of benefit to big nuclear powers and they put unfair restrictions on developing countries, hence India has not signed either of these treaties.

Explain the concept:

Question 1.
Objectives of India’s Foreign Policy.
Answer:
(i) While maintaining friendly relations with neighboring countries, ensure that the defense and security of India are not affected.
(ii) Protecting the unity and integrity of the country.
(iii) Protecting the interests of India’s citizens living in other countries. This responsibility is fulfilled by the Indian embassies there.
(iv) To establish economic and commercial relations with other countries for achieving economic development.

Question 2.
Role of Economy in Foreign Policy.
Answer:
(i) Foreign policy is shaped by the need to establish economic relations with other countries, import-export, participation in world trade, all aimed at strengthening the economy of the country.
(ii) In today’s world, the issues of economic security are as important as national security.
(iii) A country is recognized to be powerful in proportion to the economic security it enjoys.
(iv) Countries having a strong economy are less dependent on others, and they can have an independent foreign policy as well.

Question 3.
National leadership
Answer:
(i) The President, the Prime Minister, the Foreign Minister, the Defence Minister, the Finance Minister and the Home Minister have a role in deciding foreign policy.
(ii) The persons holding these positions try to maintain continuity in foreign policy and to improve upon it.
(iii) For example, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru contributed the policy of non-alignment to India’s foreign policy.
(iv) Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee contributed a great deal to improving Sino-Indian relations.

Question 4.
Write about Article 51 of the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
(i) India got independence in 1947, and from then onwards we started shaping our foreign policy independently.
(ii) The Directive Principles of State Policy have laid down guidelines about how to shape foreign policy.
(iii) Article 51 among the Directive Principles of State Policy lay down the broad framework for foreign policy. According to it, India should give priority to safeguard international peace and security, and resolve our international problems and disputes by peaceful means.
(iv) The objectives of our foreign policy should be to maintain friendly relations with other nations and respect international law.

Do as directed:

Complete the list:

Question 1.
Complete the list by writing the contribution made by the following leaders. For example, Lai Bahadur Shastri: Tashkent Agreement
(i) Indira Gandhi: ____
(ii) Rajiv Gandhi : ____
(iii) Atal Bihari Vajpayee : _______
Answer:
(i) Indira Gandhi: Pokhran Nuclear Test.
(ii) Rajiv Gandhi: Science and Technology
(iii) Atal Bihari Vajpayee: Sino-Indian Relations

Question 2.
Name the Prime Minister who followed these policies?
(i) _____ : Look East
(ii) ______ : Efforts to increase Foreign Direct Investment
Answer:
(i) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru: Look East
(ii) P. V. Narasimha Rao: Efforts to increase Foreign Direct Investment

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
Name the three things that influenced India’s foreign policy in the early phase.
Answer:
(i) Three things that influenced India’s foreign policy in this period.
(ii) We made an effort to understand all international events and developments independently, without any pressure from any power. Peace has always been a central feature of India’s foreign policy.
(iii) The threats from China and Pakistan were also taken into account.
(iv) One more feature of India’s foreign policy at this time was the insistence on self-reliance.

Question 2.
Flow did India promote the concept at regional development in the beginning?
Answer:
(i) In the beginning, India decided to improve relations with countries in Asia.

(ii) Efforts were taken to cooperate with Asian countries in order to achieve development and to keep our independence intact.

(iii) This concept of regional development later expanded to include Africa, as well.

(iv) But some Asian-African countries participated in the military pacts led either by America or the Soviet Union.

(v) This stopped the process of regional development. After this, countries of Asia and Africa, which did not participate in these military pacts supported the concept of non-alignment.

(vi) Peace and freedom became the fundamental principles of non-aligned policy.

Question 3.
Describe India’s relations with foreign nations post-1970.
Answer:
(i) In the decade of the 1970s, there came about some stability in India’s Foreign Policy.

(ii) India had risen as a powerful regional power in South Asia.

(iii) By conducting nuclear tests in 1974, India had also proved its nuclear capability.

(iv) From 1980, however, some changes began to take place. In order to increase cooperation among South Asian countries, South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) was established.

(v) India initiated a dialogue to improve relations with China. India also started interaction with America for cooperation in the field of security.

Question 4.
Name the three factors that influenced India’s foreign policy in the early phase.
Answer:
Three factors that influenced India’s foreign policy in the early period are:

1. We made an effort to understand all international events and developments independently, without any pressure from any power. Peace has always been a central feature of India’s foreign policy.
2. The threats from China and Pakistan were also taken into account.
3. One more feature of India’s foreign policy at this time was the insistence on self-reliance.

Question 5.
Write about Pandit Nehru’s contribution to India’s foreign policy in the early phase.
Answer:
Prime Minister Pandit Nehru shaped India’s foreign policy in the early period. He opposed colonialism through India’s foreign policy. He took an internationalist position and gave priority to global peace and security.

Question 6.
Describe the conflicts India had to face in its early phase of foreign policy.
Answer:
In the early period, India had to face conflict with neighbouring countries. Wars happened between India and Pakistan over the Kashmir question in 1947-48 and 1965. In the third war, which happened in 1971, Pakistan broke apart and independent Bangladesh was created.

Question 7.
Describe the important changes that took place in India’s foreign policy from the 1980s.
Answer:
From 1980, some important changes began to take place. In order to increase cooperation among South Asian countries, the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) was established. India initiated a dialogue to improve relations with China. India also started interaction with America for cooperation in the field of security.

Question 8.
What is India’s role in regional development?
Answer:
(i) In the beginning, India decided to improve relations with countries in Asia.

(ii) Efforts were taken to cooperate with Asian countries in order to achieve development and to keep our independence intact.

(iii) This concept of regional development later expanded to include Africa as well.

(iv) But some Asian-African countries participated in the military pacts led either by America or the Soviet Union. This stopped the process of regional development.

(v) After this, countries of Asia and Africa, which did not participate in these military pacts supported the concept of Non-alignment.

Question 9.
Write about the Political system as a factor influencing India’s small Foreign Policy.
Answer:
(i) In a democratic political system, the nation’s Parliament plays a major role in evolving Foreign Policy.

(ii) When different aspects come up for discussion in Parliament, the opposition parties try to regulate the Foreign Policy by raising questions about the same.

(iii) Federal political systems have to take into account the inclinations of the constituent states while shaping Foreign Policy because the affairs in neighbouring nations affect constituent states.

(iv) For example, events in Sri Lanka may affect Tamil Nadu, and those in Bangladesh may affect West Bengal and the North-East Indian States.

Question 10.
Write about the administrative factors of India’s Foreign Policy.
Answer:
(i) Ministry of External Affairs, Foreign Secretary, embassies in different countries, Diplomatic officers, etc. are the administrative factors involved in creating Foreign Policy.

(ii) Even though the final decisions about Foreign Policy are taken by the Prime Minister and the Minister for External Affairs, the administrative machinery helps to arrive at that decision.

(iii) The administrative officers collect information needed to shape the foreign policy, analyze it and give appropriate advice based on it.

(iv) The National Security Advisor also completes this task.

Question 11.
Write a note on the first stage of India’s Foreign Policy 1947-1990.
Answer:
(i) India adopted the policy of non-alignment in the context of the cold war. As a result, priority was given to maintaining friendly relations with all nations and to taking the help required for development from different countries. Due to the policy of non-alignment, India could get aid from both the superpowers.

(ii) There was a lot of stress on improving/ strengthening India’s defence. The technology required for this was imported. Soviet Union, France, and Germany helped India in this matter.

(iii) In this period, India had to face some challenges. These included the conflict with Pakistan, the creation of Bangladesh, and the conflict with China.

(iv) India proved its nuclear capability by conducting nuclear tests in 1974.

Question 12.
Write a note on Geographical Location.
Answer:
(i) In the globe or map of the world. We see the geographical location of any nation of the world.

(ii) Some countries are far away from other countries, while there are several neighbouring countries around some countries. Some nations have a long coastline, while some have plenty of mineral wealth.

(iii) In sum, the size, population, topography, coastline, availability of natural resources, all these factors need to be considered while deciding the foreign policy of any country.

Question 13.
Describe the factors included in National interest in any country.
Answer:
The following factors are included in the national interest of any country.

• Defence, i.e. the protection of our country’s independence, sovereignty, and integrity is the highest national interest.
• Economic development is also an important national interest.
• An economically weak nation will not be able to maintain its independence.
• Hence, economic development is understood to be an important national interest, next only to defense.

Question 14.
Consider the developments of India’s Foreign Policy from 1991 till date.
Answer:
(i) India’s Foreign Policy became more comprehensive and dynamic in the second stage.

(ii) In the post-cold war period, the priority no longer remained on political and military relations.

(iii) Several other dimensions like the economy, trade, education, and technology got included in foreign policy.

(iv) After 1991, India reduced the government controls over the economy and adopted the free-market policy.

(v) In the decade after 1990, our relations with South Asian countries like Singapore, Thailand, Vietnam, etc. became stronger.

(vi) Our trade exchange with Israel, Japan, China, and European Union increased.

(vii) India began to participate in organizations at the international and regional levels more than before.

(viii) For example, G-20 and BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa).

(ix) Our relations with America strengthened.

(x) India’s nuclear policy is an important part of India’s foreign policy. India undertook the nuclear energy program immediately after independence. India built nuclear weapons and conducted nuclear tests in 1998. India is now a country that has nuclear weapons.

Question 15.
State the importance of foreign policy.
Answer:
(i) Interdependence being a key feature in the international system each country has to decide the nations with which it should be friendly, in which bloc it should participate or what position it should take in international relations.

(ii) Such decisions should be made thoughtfully.

(iii) The theoretical framework in which such decisions are taken is called Foreign Policy.

(iv) Every sovereign and independent country decides its own Foreign Policy.

(v) Hence in the discipline of international politics, which studies international relations between nations, Foreign Policy has an important place.

9th Std Political Science Questions And Answers:

• Post World War Political Developments Class 9 Political Science Questions And Answers
• India’s Foreign Policy Class 9 Political Science Questions And Answers
• India’s Defence System Class 9 Political Science Questions And Answers
• The United Nations Class 9 Political Science Questions And Answers
• India and Other Countries Class 9 Political Science Questions And Answers
• International Problems Class 9 Political Science Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Interior of the Earth Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Interior of the Earth Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Interior of the Earth Class 8 Questions And Answers Chapter 2 Maharashtra Board

Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Interior of the Earth Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Tick [✓] the correct options in the box:

Question A.
There are two layers in the crust.
(a) Inner and outer crust [ ]
(b) Continental and oceanic crust [ ]
(c) Surface and oceanic crust [ ]
(d) Mantle and core [ ]
Answer:
(b) Continental and oceanic crust [✓]

Question B.
Which element is found in both mantle and crust?
(a) Silica [ ]
(b) Magnesium [ ]
(c) Aluminium [ ]
(d) Iron [ ]
Answer:
(b) Magnesium [✓]

Question C.
Which of these minerals are found in the core of the earth?
(a) Iron – magnesium [ ]
(b) Magnesium – nickel [ ]
(c) Aluminium – iron [ ]
(d) Iron – nickel [ ]
Answer:
(d) Iron – nickel [✓]

Question D.
The inner core is in which state?
(a) Gaseous [ ]
(b) Solid [ ]
(c) Liquid [ ]
(d) Semi-solid [ ]
Answer:
(a) Gaseous [✓]

Question E.
The outer core is made up of
(a) Iron [ ]
(b) Gold [ ]
(c) Hydrogen [ ]
(d) Oxygen [ ]
Answer:
(a) Iron [✓]

Question F.
The layer of the earth on which we live…
(a) Mantle [ ]
(b) Core [ ]
(c) Crust [ ]
(d) Continental crust [ ]
Answer:
(d) Continental crust [✓]

2. Tell whether right or wrong. Correct the wrong statement

Question A.
The density of various materials is not the same in the interior of the earth.
Answer:
Correct.

Question B.
The core of the earth’s interior is made up of hard rocks.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: The core of the earth’s interior is made up of elements, viz. iron and nickel.

Question C.
Secondary waves cannot pass through outer core.
Answer:
Correct.

Question D.
Continental crust is made up of silica and magnesium.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: Continental crust is made up of silica and aluminum.

3. Answer the following

Question A.
What are the two parts of the crust? What is the basis of classification?
Answer:

1. Continental crust and the Oceanic crust are the two parts of the crust.
2. The crust is classified on the basis of whether it lies below the land or the ocean.
3. The part of the crust lying below the continent is known as the continental crust.
4. The part of the crust lying below the ocean is known as the oceanic crust.

Question B.
Why is the upper layer of the mantle known as the asthenosphere?
Answer:

1. The upper layer of the mantle is in liquid state.
2. The rocks in the upper 100 to 200 km of the mantle melt due to the heat and magma is created. Magma chambers are found in this layer of the earth.
3. Due to the heat and pressure, the energy waves are created in mantle. These energy waves move in vertical direction and magma comes out on the surface of the earth by volcanic eruptions.
4. These endogenitic movements continuously occur in the upper layer of the mantle. Therefore, the upper layer of the mantle is known as the asthenosphere.

Question C.
Magnetosphere of the earth is a result of rotation. Explain.
Answer:
1. The average temperature of the outer core of the earth is around 5000° C. The average temperature of the inner core of the earth is around 6000° C. This difference between the temperature results in formation of vertical currents.

2. The rotation of the earth gives eddy (circular) motion to these currents.

3. Electric currents develop in these spiral eddies of liquid iron leading to generation of the magnetic field of the earth. This magnetic field is called magnetosphere. In this way, the magnetosphere is formed due to the rotation of the earth.

4 Draw neat diagrams. label them and explain.

Question A.
The interior of the earth
Answer:

Explanation:

1. Inner Core: It is the center and the hottest layer of the Earth. The inner core is solid and made up of iron and nickel.
2. Outer Core: The outer core of the Earth is similar to a very hot ball of metals. It is composed of metals such as iron and nickel. The outer core surrounds the inner core.
3. Mantle: Mantle is the widest section of the Earth. Mantle is mainly made up of semi-molten rock known as magma. The rock is hard in the upper part of the mantle, but lower down the rock is softer and begins to melt. The mantle consists of very hot and dense rock.
4. Crust: The crust is the outer layer where we live. It’s a solid rock layer divided into two types: Continental crust covers the land and Oceanic crust covers water.

Question B.
Magnetic pole and equator
Answer:

5. Give geographical reasons:

Question A.
There are discontinuities in the interior of the earth.
Answer:
1. There is a difference between the elements, temperatures and the pressure found in the three parts of the interior of the earth, viz, crust, mantle and core.

2. In the interiors of the earth, the transitional areas are found between (a) continental crust and oceanic crust (b) crust and mantle (c) upper mantle and lower mantle (d) mantle and core and (e) outer core and inner core. Therefore, there are discontinuities in the interior of the earth.

Question B.
There is correlation between the density of metals and their location in the interior of the earth.
Answer:
1. The rocks found in the crust have predominance of the compounds of silicon, aluminium, magnesium, etc. These compounds are lighter in weight. Therefore, they are found in the upper layer of the interior of the earth.

2. The elements like iron, nickel are found in the core of the earth. These elements are heavier in weight. Thus, metals with low density are found in upper level in the interior of the earth and the metals with high density are found in the lower level in the interior of the earth. Thus, there is correlation between the density of metals and their location in the interior of the earth.

Question C.
Mantle is the centre of earthquake and volcanic eruptions.
Answer:
1. The rocks in the upper 100 to 200 km of the mantle melt due to the heat and the magma is created.
2. Magma chambers are found in this layer of the earth.

3. Due to the heat and pressure, the energy waves are created in mantle. These energy waves move in vertical direction and magma comes out on the surface of the earth by volcanic eruptions. Thus, mantle is the centre of earthquake and volcanic eruptions.

Question D.
The thickness of the crust below the continents is more as compared to oceans.
Answer:
1. The density of the crust below the continents is 2.65 to 2.90 gm/cm³ The density of the crust below the oceans is 2.90 to 3.3 gm/cm³

2. As the density of the crust below the continents is comparatively low, it keeps floating on the mantle. It does not subduct into mantle. As its effect, the thickness of the crust below the continents is found to be high.

3. As the density of the crust below the ocean is comparatively high, it subducts into mantle leading to its low thickness. Thus, the thickness of the crust below the continents is more as compared to oceans.

Question E.
Earth is protected because of the magnetosphere.
Answer:

1. The ozone layer protects the earth from ultraviolet radiation.
2. The earth’s magnetosphere serves to deflect most of the solar wind, whose charged particles would otherwise strip away the ozone layer. In this way, the earth is protected because of the magnetosphere.

Know this too:

1. The average density of the earth is 5.5 gm/cm³.
2. The rocks in the upper 100 to 200 km of. the mantle melt due to heat.
3. The mixture of molten rocks, volatiles, etc. found beneath the surface of the earth is called magma.
4. The mixture of molten rocks, volatiles, etc. erupted from volcano or fissure on the surface of the earth is called lava.

Activity:

Question 1.
Prepare a model of the earth’s interior.
Answer:

1. The density of the earth goes on increasing from its surface to the centre.
2. The average density of the crust of the earth is approximately 2.98 gm/cm³.
3. The average density of the mantle of the earth is approximately 5.7gm/cm³.
4. The average density of the outer core of the earth is approximately 9.8 gm/cm³.
5. The density of the inner core at the centre of the earth is approximately 13 gm/cm³.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Interior of the Earth Additional Important Questions and Answers

Tick [✓] the correct options in the box:

Question A.
Which seismic waves can travel through liquid medium?
(a) Primary waves [ ]
(b) Secondary waves [ ]
(c) Surface waves [ ]
(d) Oceanic waves [ ]
Answer:
(a) Primary waves [✓]

Question B.
Which of the following layers of the earth has the highest density?
(a) Crust [ ]
(b) Mantle [ ]
(c) Outer core [ ]
(d) Inner core [ ]
Answer:
(d) Inner core [✓]

Question C.
Which of the following waves can travel through all the layers of the interior of the earth?
(a) Primary [ ]
(b) Secondary [ ]
(c) Tertiary [ ]
(d) Surface [ ]
Answer:
(a) Primary [✓]

Question D.
Which of the following layers of the interior of the earth is in solid form and cool?
(a) Crust [ ]
(b) Mantle [ ]
(C) Outer core [ ]
(d) Inner core [ ]
Answer:
(a) Crust [✓]

Examine the statements and incorrect ones :

Question A.
As we move deeper the surface, temperature keeps decreasing.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: As we move deeper the surface, temperature keeps increasing.

Question B.
Magma chambers are found in lower mantle.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: Magma chambers are found in upper mantle.

Question C.
The discontinuity is found between the crust, mantle and core.
Answer:
Correct.

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question A.
In which of the layers of the interior of the earth is magma formed?
Answer:
Magma is formed in the mantle (upper mantle) of the earth.

Question B.
What are the two parts of the core?
Answer:
Outer core and inner core are the two parts of the core.

Match the columns and complete the chain :

Question A.

‘A’ Column (The layer of the interior of the earth)	‘B’ Column (Density)	‘C’ Column (Elements found)
1. Sial	(i) 13.3 gm/cm3	(a) Silica and Magnesium
2. Sima	(ii) 2.65 to 2.90 gm/cm3	(b) Nickel and Iron
3. Inner core	(iii) 2.90 to 3.3 gm/cm3	(c) Silica and Aluminium

Answer:

‘A’ Column (The layer of the interior of the earth)	‘B’ Column (Density)	‘C’ Column (Elements found)
1. Sial	(ii) 2.65 to 2.90 gm/cm3	(c) Silica and Aluminium
2. Sima	(iii) 2.90 to 3.3 gm/cm3	(a) Silica and Magnesium
3. Inner core	(i) 13.3 gm/cm3	(b) Nickel and Iron

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question A.
Describe the changes that take place in the temperatures from the surface of the earth to its centre.
Answer:

1. The process of cooling of the earth started from the surface. The temperature goes on increasing from the surface towards the core.
2. The surface of the earth is cool and solid.
3. The centre of the earth is extremely hot. The temperature at the centre of the earth is around 5500° to 6000° C.

Question B.
Describe the changes that take place in the density of the earth from its surface to the centre.
Answer:

1. The density of the earth goes on increasing from its surface to the centre.
2. The average density of the crust of the earth is approximately 2.98 gm/cm³.
3. The average density of the mantle of the earth is approximately 5.7gm/cm³.
4. The average density of the outer core of the earth is approximately 9.8 gm/cm³.
5. The density of the inner core at the centre of the earth is approximately 13 gm/cm³.

Question C.
Write in brief about the travelling of various types of earthquake waves through the layers of interior of the earth.
Answer:

1. The primary earthquake waves travel through the mantle as well as the core of the earth.
2. While travelling through the core of the earth, the direction of the primary earthquake waves gets altered.
3. While travelling through the core, the speed of the primary earthquake waves decreases.
4. The secondary earthquake waves can travel only through the mantle of the earth. These waves get absorbed in the core of the earth. Thus, these waves cannot travel through the core of the earth.

Write short notes on the following:

Question A.
The crust.
Answer:
1. The uppermost layer of the interior of the earth is called the crust. Continental crust and the oceanic crust are the two parts of the crust.

2.The thickness of the continental crust is approximately 16 km to 45 km. On the other hand, the thickness of the oceanic crust is approximately 7 km to 10 km

3. The density of the continental crust is approximately 2.65 to 2.90 gm/cm. On the other hand, the density of the oceanic crust is approximately 2.65 to 2.90 gm/cm³.

4. Silica and aluminium are the main elements found in the continental crust. Therefore, it is also called Sial. On the other hand, Silica and Magnesium are the main elements found in the oceanic crust. Therefore, it is also called Sima.

Question B.
The mantle.
Answer:
1. The mantle is located below the crust of the earth. The mantle is divided into the upper mantle and the lower mantle.

2. The thickness of the mantle is approximately 2870 km. The average density of mantle is approximately 4.5 gm/cm³.

3. The rocks in the upper 100 to 200 km of the mantle melt due to the heat and magma is created. Magma chambers are found in this layer of the earth. Due to the heat and pressure, the energy waves are created in mantle. These energy waves move in vertical direction and magma comes out on the surface of the earth by volcanic eruptions.

4. These endogenitic movements continuously occur in the upper layer of the mantle. Therefore, the upper layer of the mantle is known as the asthenosphere.

5. The average thickness of mantle is approximately 2870 km. Its average density is approximately 4.5 gm/cm³. The temperature at the depth of 2400 to 2900 km is around 2200° to 2500° C. The density of the lower mantle is approximately 5.7 gm / cm³.

Question B.
The outer core.
Answer:
1. The outer core is located below the lower mantle.
2. It is located at the depth from 2900 km to 5100 km from the surface of the earth.
3. The average temperature of the outer core of the earth is around 5000° C. The density of the outer core of the earth is approximately 9.8 gm/cm.

4. The secondary earthquake waves cannot travel from the core of the earth. Therefore, it is inferred that the outer core of the earth must be in liquid or semi-liquid form. The primary earthquake waves can travel from the outer core of the earth.
5. The vertical currents originate in the outer core of the earth.

Question C.
The inner core.
Answer:

1. The inner core is located below the upper core.
2. It is located at the depth from 5150 km to 6371 km from the surface of the earth.
3. The average temperature of the inner core of the earth is around 6000° C. The density of the inner core of the earth is approximately 13.3 gm/cm³.
4. The elements, viz. Iron (Ferrous) and Nickel (Ni) are mainly found in the inner core of the earth. Therefore, it is also called Nife.
5. The temperature at the centre of the earth is almost equivalent to the surface temperature of the sun.

Give geographical reasons for the following:

Question A.
The secondary waves of earthquake cannot travel through the core of the earth.
Answer:

1. The secondary waves of earthquake can travel only through the solid state of the interior of the earth.
2. The outer core of the centre of the earth is in liquid state. Therefore, the secondary waves of earthquake cannot travel through the core of the earth.

Question B.
The inner core is called Nife.
Answer:

1. The inner core predominantly comprises iron and nickel.
2. The word Nife is derived from the word Nickel (Ni) and Iron (Ferrous) (Fe). Therefore, the inner core is called (Ni + Fe) Nife.

Question C.
The upper layer of the crust is called Sial.
Answer:

1. The rocks in the upper layer of the crust have predominance of the compounds of silicon and aluminium.
2. The word Sial is derived from the word Silica (Si) and Aluminium (Al). Therefore, the upper layer of the crust is called (Si + Al) Sial.

Question D.
The lower layer of the crust is called Sima.
Answer:

1. The rocks in the lower layer of the crust have predominance of the compounds of silicon and magnesium.
2. The word Sima is derived from the word Silica (Si) and Magnesium. (Ma). Therefore, the lower layer of the crust is called (Si + Ma) Sima.

Study the following map/ figure /graph and answer the following questions : 

Question A.
At what depth does the curve of the secondary waves seem to have ended in figure (A)?
Answer:
The curve of the secondary waves seems to have ended around the depth of 2900 km in figure (A).

Question B.
What is the velocity of the secondary waves around the boundary of the outer core shown in figure (A)?
Answer:
The velocity of the secondary waves is 6 to 8 km/sec around the boundary of the outer core shown in figure (A).

Question C.
What conclusion can be drawn on the basis of the curve of the secondary waves stopping around the depth of 2900 km?
Answer:
On the basis of the curve of the secondary waves stopping around the depth of2900 km, it can be concluded that secondary waves do not enter the core.

Question D.
What is the velocity of the primary waves at the time of entering the outer core shown in figure (A)?
Answer:
The velocity of the primary waves at the time of entering the outer core shown in figure (A) is 8 km/sec.

Question E.
What conclusions can be drawn about the intensity of the gravitational force shown in Figure (B)?
Answer:
The following conclusions can be drawn about the intensity of the gravitational force shown in Figure (B):

1. Gravitational force increases at certain depth from the surface of the earth and then it reduces according to the depth.
2. At the centre of the earth, the gravitational force is zero.

Thought-Provoking Question:

Think about it:

Question 1.
Imagine about the earth’s interior and- write 10-12 sentences on it.
Answer:

1. The interior of the earth will be very hot.
2. Huge sized rocks will be present I in the upper layers of the interior of the earth.
3. Due to extreme heat and pressure, the rocks must be melting in the interior of the earth.
4. Due to the melting of the rocks, magma will be created in the interior of the earth.
5. Due to endogenous movements in the interior of the earth, volcanic eruptions will occur on the surface of the earth.
6. The primary earthquake waves will be travelling through the mantle and the core of the earth.
7. The secondary earthquake waves will be travelling only through the mantle of the earth.
8. The temperature in the interior of the earth will get increased with the depth.
9. The highest temperature will be found at the centre of the earth.
10. The elements like silica, aluminium, magnesium, iron and nickel will be found in the various layers of the interior of the earth.

Open-Ended Question:

Question A.
What precautions can be taken to reduce the damage caused by earthquakes?
Answer:
The following precautions can be taken to reduce the damage caused by earthquakes:

1. Taking cover under a desk or a table or sturdy piece of furniture to protect oneself.
2. Finding clear spot away from buildings, trees and power lines. Dropping to the ground and staying there until the shaking stops.
3. Switching off the power supply, gas in-home/office, etc.
4. Helping the victims at the earliest.

8th Std Geography Questions And Answers:

• Local Time and Standard Time Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Interior of the Earth Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Humidity and Clouds Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Structure of Ocean Floor Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Ocean Currents Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Land Use Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Population Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Industries Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Map Scale Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Field Visit Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 1 Post World War Political Developments Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Post World War Political Developments Class 9 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Class 9 Political Science Chapter 1 Post World War Political Developments Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Political Science Class 9 Chapter 1 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1A. Choose the right option and rewrite the sentence:

Question 1.
A system of independent and sovereign states ___.
(a) Political system
(b) International system
(c) Social system
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) International system

Question 2.
The main responsibility of the United Nations ____.
(a) to avoid war
(b) independence of colonies
(c) improving the economics of different nations
(d) disarmament
Answer:
(a) to avoid war

Question 3.
The Cold War ended with the event, _____.
(a) Establishment of the United Nations
(b) Disintegration of the Soviet Union
(c) Creation of Military Organisations
(d) Cuban Missile Crisis
Answer:
(b) Disintegration of the Soviet Union

2. Explain with reasons whether the following statements are true or false:

Question 1.
The League of Nations was established after the First World War.
Answer:
True.

• At the end of the First World War, all the nations felt that such a war should not happen again and some measures need to be taken to achieve that end.
• An international organisation called the League of Nations was established out of this thinking.
• It became an important platform to solve international disputes and carry out negotiations.
• The main responsibility of the League of Nations was understood to be to avoid war.

Question 2.
The world became unipolar due to the Cold War.
Answer:
False.

• During the Cold War, most countries of the world joined either of the two super power blocs (USA or USSR).
• Such a division of the nations of the world in two groups is bipolarisation.

Question 3.
The policies of Mikhail Gorbachev gave an impetus to democratisation.
Answer:
True.

• The Soviet Union adopted the policy of opening up the economy. The state loosened up its control of the economy.
• The then President of the Soviet Union Mikhail Gorbachev implemented the policies of Perestroika (Restructuring) and Glasnost (Openness).
• Due to these policies, the control over the media reduced.
• Important changes took place in political and economic spheres, i.e. these spheres, were restructured. This gave impetus to democracy.

3. Explain the following concepts:

Question 1.
Cold War
Answer:
(i) America and the Soviet Union, who were allies in the Second World War became competitors, as soon as the war was over.

(ii) The cooperation between them gave way to rivalry. This rivalry occupied a period of 40-45 years of international politics

(iii) There was no open war between these two countries; but there was such tension in their relations, that it seemed that a war would erupt any time.

(iv) The concept of Cold War is used to describe the condition where there is no actual war, but there are such tensions in the circumstances, that they may be responsible to cause war.

(v) In this period, America was already a super power, but the Soviet Union also tried to become a super power by making nuclear weapons and by increasing its military might.

(vi) The struggle for power, arms race, differences in ideologies, attitude of checkmating each other by strategies and counter-strategies gave rise to the Cold War.

Question 2.
Non-Aligned Movement
Answer:
(i) In the period of the Cold War, while the world was becoming bipolar, there were some countries which did not want to join the super power rivalry. Such nations decided to stay out of the cold war rivalry. Their policy is known as non-alignment.

(ii) The Asian and African countries, which became independent after the Second World War supported the idea of non-alignment.

(iii) This movement started from 1961 under the leadership of India’s Prime Minister Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, President of Yugoslavia Marshall Tito, President of Egypt Gamal Abdal Nasser, President of Indonesia Dr. Sukarno and Prime Minister of Ghana Dr. Kwame Nkrumah.

(iv) The non-aligned Movement has opposed colonialism, imperialism and racism. It has encouraged the resolution of international disputes by peaceful means.

(v) India led this movement under the guidance of Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru. India continued to actively support the movement afterwards as well.

(vi) Even after the end of the Cold War, the importance of the movement has not reduced. The non-aligned movement is based on eternal principles of humanism, global peace and equality.

(vii) It has inspired the less developed countries to come together. It has encouraged the resolution of international disputes by peaceful means.

(viii) While taking a firm stand on disarmament, fostering human rights, the non-aligned movement put forth the problems of poor, undeveloped countries firmly. This movement made a demand of a New International Economic Order (NIEO).

Question 3.
Interdependence
Answer:
(i) All the countries of the world are dependent on each other for one reason or the other. However big, prosperous or developed a nation may be, it can never be self-sufficient to fulfill all its needs.

(ii) Even big nations have to depend upon other big and small nations. Thus, interdependence is an important feature of the international system, i.e. today’s global system.

Question 4.
Bipolarisation
Answer:
During the Cold War, most countries of the world joined either of the two super power blocks. Such a division of the nations of the world in two groups is bipolarisation.

Question 5.
Globalization
Answer:
(i) After the end of the Cold War, trade and economic relations between countries became more open. As it has been mentioned before, capital, labour, markets and information began circulating globally.

(ii) The give and take of ideas among people all over the world grew.

(iii) Due to the revolution in information technology, different events and developments began to be known everywhere.

(iv) The boundaries between nations did not remain as sacrosanct as they were before. All these processes are together called globalisation.

(v) Just as globalisation has brought us benefits, it has also caused losses. For example, as the economies of different countries got linked with each other, trade increased, economic unification grew, plenty of products became available in the markets; but (at the same time) the gap between the poor and rich nations did not reduce.

4. Give your opinion on the following topics:

Question 1.
What measures should the League of Nations have taken to avoid the Second World War?
Answer:
(i) League of Nations should have organised a military wing with the help of member nations to keep a check over the aggressors like Germany and Japan.

(ii) League should have reconsidered implementation of harsh term of treaties imposed on the losers to avoid the revengeful policies of dictators like Adolf Hitler.

Question 2.
Non-Alignment was necessary during the Cold War.
Answer:
(i) Yes. This was important to keep newly independent countries of Asia and Africa away from the super power rivalry.

(ii) Since these countries did not officially show allegiance to any super power, they freed themselves from the dominance of USA and USSR and could independently frame their foreign policies.

(iii) This further promoted peace and co-operation.

Question 3.
Human welfare was neglected due to the Cold War.
Answer:
(i) Yes, due to military alliances the world was gripped in the fear of a possible Third World War, which would have annihilated the entire human race.

(ii) Moreover the Arms Race diverted the resources and harnessed science for destruction rather than human welfare.

Question 4.
Which countries can emerge as super powers, in competition with America in present times?
Answer:
India and China could be future super powers.

5. Write brief answers:

Question 1.
Compare the First World War and the Second World War with the help of the following points.

Points	First World War	Second World War
(1) Period
(2) Involved nations
(3) Impacts (Political and Economic)
(4) International Organisations established after the War

Answer:

Points	First World War	Second World War
(1) Period	1914-1918	1939 -1945
(2) Involved nations	Allied Powers – Britain, France, Russia, Italy, America Central Powers – Germany, Austria, Hungary, Ottoman Empire, Bulgaria	Allied Powers – Britain, France, Australia, Canada, New Zealand, India, Soviet Union, China, America Axis powers – Germany, Japan, Italy
(3) Impacts (Political and Economic)	(i) Earlier empires in Europe collapsed and new nations came into being.	(i) Beginning of Cold War
	(ii) Independence movements in European colonies changed hegemony of European Nations.	(ii) Destruction of public property on larger scale due to use of nuclear weapons
	(iii) League of nations was established.
	(iv) Autocratic regime came up in Germany, Spain, Italy and other countries.
	(v) Destruction of public property.
(4) International Organisations established after the War	League of Nations	United Nations Organisation

Question 2.
What were the factors responsible for the end of Cold War?
Answer:
The factors responsible for the end of Cold War are:

(i) The Soviet Union adopted the policy of opening up the economy. The State loosened up its control of the economy.

(ii) The then President of the Soviet Union Mikhail Gorbachev implemented the policies of Perestroika (Restructuring) and Glasnost (Openness). Due to these policies, the control over the media reduced.

(iii) As the East European countries under the influence of the Soviet Union adopted the capitalist and democratic paths, the Soviet Union disintegrated and several new nations were created out of it.

Question 3.
What major changes occurred in global politics after the end of the Cold War?
Answer:
(i) Major changes took place in world politics after the end of the Cold War. For example, America remained the only super power in world politics.

(ii) A conducive atmosphere prevailed for the growth in trade and economic relations between and among nations.

(iii) As all nations of the world decided to give priority to trade relations, the idea of giving ‘aid’ to other nations fell behind.

(iv) The United Nations now had to take more concrete steps to maintain global peace and security.

(v) Environmental protection, fostering of human rights, gender equality and management of natural calamities now acquired a global dimension.

Class 9 Political Science Chapter 1 Post World War Political Developments Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the sentence:

Question 1.
President of Soviet Union who implemented ‘Perestroika’ and ‘Glasnost’ ______.
(a) Nikita Khrushchev
(b) Mikhail Gorbachev
(c) General Molotov
(d) Vladimir Lenin
Answer:
(b) Mikhail Gorbachev

Question 2.
Military organisation formed under dominance of USA ______.
(a) North Atlantic Treaty Organisation
(b) Warsaw Pact
(c) New International Economic Order
(d) Non-Aligned Movement
Answer:
(a) North Atlantic Treaty Organisation

Question 3.
Division of world into two power blocs is called ______.
(a) Globalisation
(b) Nuclear Escalation
(c) Bipolarisation
(d) Internationalism
Answer:
(c) Bipolarisation

Question 4.
Among the following ________ is not an Axis Power.
(a) Germany
(b) Italy
(c) Belgium
(d) Japan
Answer:
(c) Belgium

Question 5.
______ is an important event of the Cold War.
(a) Fashoda Incident
(b) Cuban Missile Crisis
(c) Wall Street Crash
(d) Red Menace
Answer:
(b) Cuban Missile Crisis

Question 6.
Non-aligned movement is opposed to ____.
(a) Racism
(b) Capitalism
(c) McCarthyism
(d) Nepotism
Answer:
(a) Racism

Question 7.
Non-aligned movement demanded establishment of _______.
(a) Association of South East Asian Nations
(b) League of Nations
(c) New International Economic Order (NIEO)
(d) European Union (EU)
Answer:
(c) New International Economic Order (NIEO)

Question 8.
The policy of Perestroika means restructuring and Glasnost means ______.
(a) strictness
(b) oneness
(c) massiveness
(d) openness
Answer:
(d) openness

State whether the following statements are True or False, with reasons:

Question 1.
A system of Independent States is called International System.
Answer:
True.

• Our social life and well being is dependent on others and mutual co-operation has a very important place in it.
• The same is true about society, and it applies to different nations as well. There are many independent nations in the world, like India.
• Some exchange and interaction goes on among these nations on a regular basis. These independent states also enter into treaties with each other.
• A system of all these independent, sovereign states that emerges is called an International System.

Question 2.
Interdependence is not an important feature of the International System.
Answer:
False.

• All the countries of the world are dependent on each other for one reason or the other. However big, prosperous or developed a nation may be, it can never be self-sufficient to fulfill all its needs.
• Even big nations have to depend upon each other and on smaller nations. Thus, interdependence is an important feature of the international system, i.e. today’s global system.

Question 3.
The Second World War proved to be far more destructive than the First World War.
Answer:
True.

• The Second World War was fought between 1939 and 1945. It proved to be far more destructive than the First World War.
• Not only was it more widespread compared to the First World War, but far more advanced technology was employed in this war.
• Countries which took part in the Second World War once again faced a situation of economic crisis.

Question 4.
Efforts towards arms control and disarmament happened during the Cold War.
Answer:
True.

• The Super Powers started producing arms on a large scale to outsmart each other.
• There started a rivalry to make more and more destructive weapons and to acquire the technology required for the same.
• But soon, both the Super Powers realised that the arms race may endanger international peace.
• Hence, efforts towards arms control and disarmament also happened during this period.

Question 5.
Non-alignment was an important movement during the Cold War.
Answer:
True.

• In the period of the Cold War, while the world was becoming bipolar, there were some countries which did not want to join the super power rivalry.
• Such nations decided to stay out of the cold war rivalry. Their policy is known as Non-alignment.
• Non-alignment was an important movement during the Cold War.
• The Asian and African countries, which became independent after the Second World War supported the idea of non-alignment.

Explain the concept:

Question 1
Military Organisation
Answer:
(i) During the Cold War, power struggle between USSR and USA created need for nations who will support their ideologies.

(ii) Thus, organisations were created for helping nations militarily and thus dragging them into either of the super power blocs for their hegemony.

(iii) The respective super powers took up the responsibility of the security of the countries joining the military organisations led by them.

(iv) NATO (North Atlantic Treaty Organisation) was a military organisation under the dominance of America, while the Warsaw Pact was a military organisation, under the command of the Soviet Union.

Do as directed/instructed:

Complete the charts.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
What were the effects of World War I?
Answer:
(i) The First World War was fought between 1914 and 1918. The war caused a tremendous loss of life and property. The countries which joined the war suffered tremendous economic losses.

(ii) Even the countries which did not join the war were impacted by the war. The economies of the victorious as well as the losing countries collapsed.

(iii) Earlier empires in Europe collapsed and new nations came into being.

(iv) Independence movements in European colonies changed hegemony of European Nations.

(v) League of Nations was established.

(vi) Autocratic regime came up in Germany Spain, Italy and other countries.

Question 2.
Describe America’s role in the Second World War.
Answer:
(i) America played a major role in the Second World War. It had manufactured nuclear weapons.

(ii) In order to end the war, it dropped two nuclear weapons on two cities of Japan – Hiroshima and Nagasaki on 6th and 9th August 1945 respectively.

Question 3.
What gave rise to the Cold War?
Answer:
(i) America was already a super power, but the Soviet Union also tried to become one, by making nuclear weapons and by increasing its military might.

(ii) The struggle for power, arms race, differences in ideologies, attitude of checkmating each other by strategies and counter-strategies gave rise to the Cold War.

Question 4.
Describe extreme differences among USA and USSR.
Answer:
(i) The U.S.A was a democratic State, advocating capitalism, while the Soviet Union advocated socialism and a one party authoritarian system.
(ii) Both the super powers wanted to expand their own dominance in the world.
(iii) America wanted to spread capitalism, while the Soviet Union wanted to spread socialism.

Question 5.
What is meant by Non-Aligned Movement and who were its founding fathers?
Answer:
(i) The Asian and African countries, which became independent after the Second World War supported the idea of non-alignment.

(ii) This movement started from 1961 under the leadership of India’s Prime Minister Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, President of Yugoslavia Marshall Tito, President of Egypt Gamal Abdal Nasser, President of Indonesia Dr. Sukarno and Prime Minister of Ghana Dr. Kwame Nkrumah.

Question 6.
Evaluate the Non-Aligned Movement.
Answer:
(i) The Non-Aligned Movement has opposed colonialism, imperialism and racism.
(ii) It has encouraged the resolution of international disputes by peaceful means.
(iii) The Non-Aligned movement is based on eternal principles of humanism, global peace and equality.
(iv) It has inspired the less developed countries to come together.
(v) While taking a firm stand on disarmament, fostering human rights, the Non-Aligned movement put forth the problems of poor, undeveloped countries firmly.
(vi) This movement made a demand of a New International Economic Order (NIEO).

9th Std Political Science Questions And Answers:

• Post World War Political Developments Class 9 Political Science Questions And Answers
• India’s Foreign Policy Class 9 Political Science Questions And Answers
• India’s Defence System Class 9 Political Science Questions And Answers
• The United Nations Class 9 Political Science Questions And Answers
• India and Other Countries Class 9 Political Science Questions And Answers
• International Problems Class 9 Political Science Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 2 India: Events After 1960 Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

India: Events After 1960 Class 9 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Class 9 History Chapter 2 India: Events After 1960 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

History Class 9 Chapter 2 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. A. Choose the correct option from the given option and rewrite the statements:
Question 1.
The Prime Minister of India who took an initiative in resolving the question of the Tamil minority in Sri Lanka was
(a) Rajiv Gandhi
(b) Indira Gandhi
(c) H. D. Deve Gowda
(d) P. V. Narasimha Rao
Answer:
(a) Rajiv Gandhi

Question 2.
is the father of the Green Revolution in India.
(a) Dr. Verghese Kurien
(b) Homi Bhabha
(c) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan
(d) Dr. Norman Borlaug
Answer:
(c) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan

B. Identify and write the wrong pair in the following sets:

Question 1.
(1) Indira Gandhi – Emergency
(2) Rajiv Gandhi – Developments of Science and Technology
(3) P. V. Narasimha Rao – Economic improvements
(4) Chandrashekhar – Mandal Commission
Answer:
Chandrashekhar – Mandal Commission

Question 2A.
Based on the information in the chapter, prepare a chronological chart of Prime Ministers and their tenure.
Answer:

1. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru -1947 to 1964
2. Lai Bahadur Shastri -1964 to 1966
3. Indira Gandhi -1966 to 1977
4. Morarji Desai -1977 to 1979
5. Charan Singh -1979 to 1980
6. Indira Gandhi -1980 to 1984
7. Rajiv Gandhi -1984 to 1989
8. Vishwanath Pratap Singh – 1989 to 1990
9. Chandra Shekhar -1990 to 1991
10. P. V. Narasimha Rao -1991 to 1996
11. Atal Bihari Vajpayee -1996
12. H.D. Deve Gowda -1996 to 1997
13. Inder Kumar Gujral -1997 to 1998
14. Atal Bihari Vajpayee – 1998 to 2004

2B. Write Short Notes on:

Question 1.
Globalisation
Answer:
(i) Globalisation brought about many changes in different fields like economy, politics, science and technology, society and culture.
(ii) India has emerged as an important country on the global scene in different spheres.
(iii) India is an important member of international organisations like G-20 and ‘BRICS’ (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa).
(iv) India has experienced an important revolution in the field of telecommunication technology.
(v) Mobile phones, internet and the communication facilities based on satellite have spread all across the country.
(vi) It has resulted in a total transformation in the lifestyle of Indians and especially the youth.
(vii) These changes are visible from their dietary habits, clothing, language and beliefs.

Question 2.
White Revolution
Answer:
(i) White Revolution is a major event of India’s efforts towards self-reliance.
(ii) The experiment in co-operative dairy movement by Dr. Verghese Kurien led to the increase of milk production in India.
(iii) This is called as ‘White Revolution’.

3A. Give reasons:

Question 1.
The Morarji Desai government lasted for a short while.
Answer:
(i) On the backdrop of the emergency, many opposition parties came together and formed a party called the Janata Party.
(ii) The Congress party led by Indira Gandhi was roundly defeated by this newly formed ‘Janata Party’.
(iii) Morarji Desai became the Prime Minister, but under his leadership the Janata Party government couldn’t last long due to its internal differences.
(iv) Hence, the Morarji Desai government lasted for a short while.

Question 2.
The army had to be sent into the Golden Temple in Amritsar.
Answer:
(i) The Sikhs in Punjab demanded an independent state of Khalistan and began a movement which went on to become violent and destructive.
(ii) Pakistan had lent its support to this movement.
(iii) Some terrorists had allegedly taken shelter inside the Golden Temple at Amritsar, a holy shrine of the Sikhs in 1984.
(iv) Hence, the Indian army was sent into the Golden Temple in Amritsar to evict the terrorists who had taken shelter there.

Question 3.
The National Planning Commission was set up in India.
Answer:
(i) India wanted to acquire modernity and self-reliance by establishing industries.
(ii) India wanted to establish an economy based on social justice through planning.
(iii) For this, the National Planning Commission was established. This would coordinate development through the policy of Five Year Plans.

B. Answer the following questions in 25 to 30 words.

Question 1.
How was 1991 a year of important changes in the history of the world and of India?
Answer:
(i) The year 1991 is held to be very important in the history of the world as well as India.
(ii) The Soviet Union disintegrated into several different small countries and the Cold War came to an end.
(iii) During this period, the Ram Janmabhumi and Babri Mosque issue at Ayodhya came to the forefront.
(iv) In India, the Government under the leadership of Prime Minister P. V. Narasimha Rao initiated many changes in the Indian economy.
(v) These economic reforms are called as economic liberalisation. The Indian economy flourished as a result of the implementation of this policy.
(vi) Skilled Indian professionals helped reform the Indian economy. The field of information technology opened several avenues of employment in the country.
(vii) The changes after 1991 are also described as ‘globalisation’.

Question 2.
What are the characteristics of the Indian economy?
Answer:
(i) Right from independence, the modernisation of economy, economic self-sufficiency and social justice have been the characteristics of Indian economy.
(ii) India wanted to acquire modernity and self-reliance by establishing industries.
(iii) It wanted to establish an economy based on social justice through planning.
(iv) For this, the National Planning Commission was established that would coordinate development through the policy of Five Year Plans.

4. With the help of the information in the chapter, complete the list of the challenges before India and the strengths of India.
Question 1.

The Challenges In Front of India	Strengths
For Example: India-Pakistan war	Unity in diversity
…………………………..	……………………..
…………………………….	Nuclear preparedness
Separatism	……………………………..

Answer:

The Challenges In Front of India	Strengths
India-Pakistan war	Unity in diversity
Cross – Border Terrorism	Membership in G20 and BRICS
Corruption	Nuclear preparedness
Separatism	Establishment of National Planning Commission

Class 9 History Chapter 2 India: Events After 1960 Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given option and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
The war between India and China took place in the year ________.
(a) 1952
(b) 1962
(c) 1972
(d) 1982
Answer:
(b) 1962

Question 2.
The Indo – China war was fought in the region of the _______ line.
(a)
MacMahon
(b) Kashmir
(c) St Lawrence
(d) Me Kinley
Answer:
MacMahon

Question 3.
Jawaharlal Nehru passed away in _________.
(a) 1944
(b) 1974
(c) 1984
(d) 1964
Answer:
(d) 1964

Question 4.
After Jawaharlal Nehru _______ became Prime Minister of India.
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Rajiv Gandhi
(c) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(d) Morarji Desai
Answer:
(c) Lal Bahadur Shastri

Question 5.
India and Pakistan went to war over the ________ issue in 1965.
(a) Kashmir
(b) Goa
(c) Hyderabad
(d) Kerala
Answer:
(a) Kashmir

Question 6.
The ______ mediated between the conflicting countries of India and Pakistan.
(a) Soviet Union
(b) USA
(c) Japan
(d) China
Answer:
(a) Soviet Union
(a) Soviet Union

Question 7.
_____ gave the slogan ‘Jai Jawan Jai Kisan’.
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Lai Bahadur Shastri
(c) Morarji Desai
(d) Rajiv Gandhi
Answer:
(b) Lai Bahadur Shastri

Question 8.
Lai Bahadur Shastri breathed his last at ______in 1966.
(a) Gorakhpur
(b) Kuala Lumpur
(c) Tashkent
(d) Varanasi
Answer:
(c) Tashkent

Question 9.
A Freedom Movement was led by Sheikh Mujibur Rahman and his organisation, ______.
(a) Mukti Bahini
(b) Bangla Bahini
(c) Aamar Sonar Bangla
(d) East Bengal Front
Answer:
(a) Mukti Bahini

Question 10.
The 1971 war between India and Pakistan led to the creation of an independent country called _______.
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Sikkim
(d) Telangana
Answer:
(a) Bangladesh

Question 11.
India successfully carried out an underground test of an atomic device at ______ in Rajasthan.
(a) Dispur
(b) Mannapattam
(c) Sriharikota
(d) Pokhran
Answer:
(d) Pokhran

Question 12.
The ______ High Court gave the verdict in 1974 that Indira Gandhi the then Prime Minister had misused the government machinery during her election campaign.
(a) Allahabad
(b) Bombay
(c) Delhi
(d) Panaji
Answer:
(a) Allahabad

Question 13.
The situation set against Indira Gandhi became more complicated due to the movement led by _________.
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji
(b) Jayprakash Narayan
(c) G. D. Agarkar
(d) Ramanand Tirth
Answer:
(b) Jayprakash Narayan

Question 14.
The period of National Emergency lasted from _______ and after that general elections were conducted.
(a) 1922-24
(b) 1984-87
(c) 1975 – 77
(d) 1987-99
Answer:
(c) 1975 – 77

Question 15.
On the backdrop of the emergency, many opposition parties came together and formed a party called the _______.
(a) Republican Party
(b) Congress Party
(c) Janata Party
(d) Samaj Party
Answer:
(c) Janata Party

Question 16.
________ became Prime Minister on behalf of the Janata Party.
(a) Morarji Desai
(b) Indira Gandhi
(c) Rajiv Gandhi
(d) Lai Bahadur Shastri
Answer:
(a) Morarji Desai

Question 17.
The Sikhs in Punjab demanded an independent state of ______.
(a) Khalistan
(b) Pakistan
(c) Kazakhstan
(d) Baluchistan
Answer:
(a) Khalistan

Question 18.
______ had lent its support to the Khalistan movement.
(a) China
(b) Pakistan
(c) England
(d) Baluchistan
Answer:
(b) Pakistan

Question 19.
An organisation called ________ carried on a major movement in north-east India.
(a) United Liberation Front of Assam
(b) United Communist Group
(c) United India Front
(d) United Assam Federation
Answer:
(a) United Liberation Front of Assam

Question 20.
______ laid the foundation of Indian atomic power programme.
(a) Satish Dhawan
(b) Homi Bhabha
(c) A.P.J. Kalam
(d) Vikram Sarabhai
Answer:
(b) Homi Bhabha

Question 21.
______, a terrorist organisation assassinated Rajiv Gandhi.
(a) LTTE
(b) ASEAN
(c) LTEN
(d) LTTA
Answer:
(a) LTTE

Question 22.
India wanted to acquire modernity and self-reliance by establishing _______.
(a) Nuclear reactor
(b) Industries
(c) Electricity grids
(d) Telephonic infrastructure
Answer:
(b) Industries

Question 23.
The _______ government started economic reforms from 1991.
(a) Moraq’i Desai
(b) Indira Gandhi
(c) Narasimha Rao
(d) Lai Bahadur Shastri
Answer:
(c) Narasimha Rao

Question 24.
In 1999, ________ came to power under the flag of Bharatiya Janata Party.
(a) United Progressive Alliance
(b) League of Indian Politics
(c) India’s Administrative Assemblage
(d) National Democratic Alliance
Answer:
(d) National Democratic Alliance

Question 25.
________ is known as the father of the White Revolution.
(a) Dr. Verghese Kurien
(b) Dr. Dayaram Sahni
(c) Dr. Homi Bhabha
(d) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan
Answer:
(a) Dr. Verghese Kurien

Question 26.
In 1975, the first satellite, ________ was launched by India.
(a) Sputnik 1
(b) Apollo 1
(c) Aryabhatta
(d) Agni
Answer:
(c) Aryabhatta

Question 27.
The _________ Commission was set up in 1953 to make recommendations, so as to improve condition of the lower castes.
(a) Ganesh Agarkar
(b) Appasaheb Mayekar
(c) Tarabai Shinde
(d) Kakasaheb Kalelkar
Answer:
(d) Kakasaheb Kalelkar

Write Short Notes on:

Question 1.
Atomic Energy and Space Research.
Answer:
(i) Dr. Homi Bhabha laid the foundation of the Indian atomic power programme.
(ii) India insisted on using atomic energy for peaceful purposes like generation of electricity, pharmaceuticals and defence.
(iii) India has achieved considerable success in space technology as well. In 1975, the first satellite ‘Aryabhatta’ was launched.
(iv) Today, India has a successful space programme and many satellites have been launched under this programme. India has also made considerable advancement in the telecom sector.

Explain the statements with reason:

Question 1.
Globalisation brought about many changes in different fields.
Answer:
(i) India has emerged as an important country on the global scene in different spheres.
(ii) India is an important member of international organisations like G-20 and ‘BRICS’ (Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa).
(iii) India has experienced an important revolution in the field of telecommunication technology.
(iv) Mobile phones, internet and the communication facilities based on satellite have spread all across the country.
(v) In the political field, India has demonstrated to the world how a stable democracy can function successfully.
(vi) All this has resulted in a total transformation in the lifestyle of Indians, especially the youth. These changes are visible from their dietary habits, clothing, language and beliefs.

Question 2.
There were several major changes in the social field in India for upliftment of women.
Answer:
(i) To promote the all-round development of women and children many constructive steps were taken.
(ii) A separate ‘Department of Women and. Child Development’ was created in 1985 under the Ministry of Human Resource Development.
(iii) Some laws were made to ensure social justice to women and to help the implementation of various schemes in this direction.
(iv) They include the Prohibition of Dowry Act, Equal Remuneration Act. As per the 73rd and 74th Constitution Amendments, seats are reserved for women in the local self¬government bodies.

Read the passage and answer the questions.

As a part of India’s policy to use atomic energy for peaceful purposes, India successfully carried out an underground test of an atomic device at Pokharan in Rajasthan in 1974. In 1975, the people of Sikkim voted for joining the Indian republic and Sikkim became a full-fledged State in the Indian federation. During this decade, the political situation in India grew unstable. The Allahabad High Court gave the verdict in 1974 that Indira Gandhi; the then Prime Minister had misused the government machinery during her election campaign. It led to nationwide strikes and protest. During this period, the situation became more complicated due to the movement led by Jayprakash Narayan. The situation of law and order in the country worsened and the government declared a state of National Emergency on the basis of the constitutional provisions relating to Emergency. During this turbulent period, the fundamental rights of Indian citizens were suspended. Due to the emergency, the Indian administration became disciplined, but the human rights were restricted. The period of national emergency lasted from 1975 to 1977 and after that general elections were conducted. On the backdrop of the emergency, many opposition parties came together and formed a party called the Janata Party. The Congress party led by Indira Gandhi was roundly defeated by this newly formed ‘Janata Party’. Morarji Desai became the Prime Minister, but under his leadership the Janata Party government couldn’t last long due to internal differences. Charan Singh succeeded him, but even his government was a short-lived one. Elections were conducted once again in 1980 and the Congress party under the leadership of Indira Gandhi came to power again.

Question 1.
Enlist incidents that culminated in Indira Gandhi’s rise to power post the verdict of Allahabad High Court.
Answer:
Following incidents paved the way of Indira Gandhi back to power:

• Allahabad High Court verdict against Indira Gandhi
• Nation – wide strikes and protest led by Jai Prakash Narayan
• Imposition of National Emergency (1975-77) fundamental rights suspended
• Opposition parties came together to form Janata Party.
• Short lived governments of Morarji Desai and Charan Singh.
• Elections conducted in 1980 – Congress back to power.

Question 2.
Which state became a constituent state of India in 1975?
Answer:
Sikkim voted to join the Indian Republic and it became a full – fledged state of Indian Republic in 1975.

Question 3.
Why do you think India conducted a nuclear test in Pokhran in 1974?
Answer:
India conducted Nuclear tests for two reasons:
(i) to keep Pakistan’s aggression under check post 1971 war.
(ii) To initiate peaceful and constructive use of atomic energy.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
What were the contributions of Lai Bahadur Shastri?
Answer:
(i) Lai Bahadur Shastri succeeded Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru and became the next Prime Minister of India.
(ii) During his tenure, India and Pakistan went to war over the Kashmir issue in 1965.
(iii) The Soviet Union tried to mediate between the two countries.
(iv) Lai Bahadur Shastri gave the slogan ‘Jai Jawan Jai Kisan’ with which he highlighted the importance of Indian soldiers and Indian farmers.
(v) Lai Bahadur Shastri breathed his last at Tashkent in 1966.

Question 2.
Write a note on Rajiv Gandhi.
Answer:
(i) Right after Indira Gandhi’s assassination in 1984, Rajiv Gandhi became the Prime Minister of India.
(ii) He tried to make several reforms in the field of Indian economy and that of science and technology.
(iii) He took the lead in solving the issues of the Tamil minority in Sri Lanka. He promoted the idea of a united Sri Lanka with internal autonomy to the Tamil community, but his efforts in this regard proved to be in vain.
(iv) He faced a lot of criticism in the context of corruption that took place during a defence equipment deal, especially the purchase of long-range canons from a foreign company called Bofors.
(v) Political corruption became a crucial issue in the general elections that followed and the Congress party was defeated.
(vi) In 1991, during the election campaign, the terrorist organisation in Sri Lanka, Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam (LTTE), assassinated Rajiv Gandhi.

Question 3.
Write a note on Atal Bihari Vajpayee.
Answer:
(i) In 1999 the ‘National Democratic Alliance’ came to power under the flag of Bharatiya Janata Party and Atal Bihari Vajpayee became India’s Prime Minister (1998-2004).
(ii) Atal Bihari Vajpayee tried to establish a dialogue with Pakistan but was not successful.
(iii) India conducted a number of nuclear tests in 1998 and declared herself as an atomic power.
(iv) In 1999, there was another war between India and Pakistan in Kargil region over the Kashmir issue
(v) India defeated Pakistan in this war as well.

Question 4.
What is economic liberalisation? What are its benefits?
Answer:
(i) The Narasimha Rao Government started economic reforms from 1991. These economic reforms are known as economic liberalisation.
(ii) The Indian economy flourished as a result of the implementation of this policy.
(iii) The foreign investment in India increased. Skilled Indian professionals helped reform the Indian economy.
(iv) The field of information technology opened several avenues of employment in the country.
(v) The changes after 1991 are also described as ‘globalisation’.

Question 5.
What do you mean by
(i) Green Revolution and
(ii) White revolution?
Answer:
(i) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan is known as the father of the Green Revolution in 1965. He implemented new scientific agricultural techniques and increased the production of foodgrains.
(ii) The experiment in co-operative dairy movement by Dr. Verghese Kurien led to increase of milk production in India. This is called as ‘White Revolution’.

Question 6.
What is the progress of India in the fields of atomic energy and space research?
Answer:
(i) India had also made a lot of progress in the fields of atomic energy and space research.
(ii) Dr. Homi Bhabha laid the foundation of the Indian atomic power programme.
(iii) India insisted on using atomic energy for peaceful purposes like generation of electricity, pharmaceuticals and defence.
(iv) India has achieved considerable success in space technology as well. In 1975, the first satellite ‘Aryabhatta’ was launched.
(v) Today, India has a successful space programme and many satellites have been launched under this programme.
(vi) India has also made considerable advancement in the telecom sector.

Question 7.
Describe the changes in India due to globalisation.
Answer:
(i) Globalisation brought about many changes in different fields like economy, politics, science and technology and society and culture.
(ii) India has emerged as an important country on the global scene in different spheres. India is an important member of international organisations like G-20 and ‘BRICS’ (Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa).
(iii) India has experienced an important revolution in the field of telecommunication technology. Mobile phones, internet and the communication facilities based on satellite have spread all across the country.
(iv) In the political field, India has demonstrated to the world how a stable democracy can function successfully.
(v) All this has resulted in a total transformation in the lifestyle of Indians and especially the
youth. These changes are visible from their dietary habits, clothing, language and beliefs.

Question 8.
How was an independent country of Bangladesh created?
Answer:
(i) Indira Gandhi became the Prime Minister of India in 1966.
(ii) During her tenure, Pakistan’s oppressive I policies in East Pakistan resulted in a big movement there. This movement was led by Sheikh Mujibur Rahman and his organisation, ‘Mukti Bahini.’
(iii) This crisis in East Pakistan affected India as well, because millions of refugees came to India.
(iv) The 1971 war between India and Pakistan led to the creation of an independent country called Bangladesh.

Question 9.
What policies were made to uplift the deprived sections of the society?
Answer:
(i) The ‘Kakasaheb Kalelkar Commission’ was set up in 1953 to make recommendations so as to improve their condition.
(ii) In 1978, a Commission was constituted under the chairmanship of B. P. Mandal to study the issue of the backward classes.
(iii) The policy of reservation was adopted in order to strengthen the representation of backward sections in various services and institutions.
(iv) The Government passed the Prevention of Atrocities Act in 1989 to enable those belonging to the Scheduled Castes and Tribes to live with dignity and respect, free from fear, violence and oppression of the upper classes.

Question 10.
Identify the picture and give relevant information.

Indira Gandhi became the Prime Minister of India in the year 1966.
Indira Gandhi’s strong leadership was prominent in the war between India and Pakistan in 1971.
The first atomic test at Pokharan was carried out under her leadership.
The Allahabad High Court gave the verdict in 1974, that Indira Gandhi had misused the government machinery during her election campaign.
She declared a’state of National Emergency in 1975.

9th Std History Questions And Answers:

• Sources of History Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• India: Events After 1960 Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• India’s Internal Challenges Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Economic Development Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Education Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Empowerment of Women and Other Weaker Sections Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Science and Technology Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Industry and Trade Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Changing Life 1 Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Changing Life 2 Class 9 History Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 6 Empowerment of Women and Other Weaker Sections Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Empowerment of Women and Other Weaker Sections Class 9 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Class 9 History Chapter 6 Empowerment of Women and Other Weaker Sections Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

History Class 9 Chapter 6 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. Complete the statements by choosing the proper option:

Question 1.
In 1992, a movement against drinking alcohol was started in _________.
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Gujarat
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Uttarakhand
Answer:
(c) Andhra Pradesh

Question 2.
In 1975, the government of India formed the Committee on the status of women under chairmanship of ______.
(a) Dr Phulrenu Guha
(b) Uma Bharati
(c) Vasundhara Raje
(d) Pramila Dandavate
Answer:
(a) Dr Phulrenu Guha

2.B Identify the wrong pair and rewrite the corrected one:

Question 1.
(i) Saudamini Rao – Stree-Mukti Andolan Samiti
(ii) Vidya Bal – Nari Samata Manch
(iii) Pramila Dandavate – Mahila Dakshata Samiti
(iv) Jyoti Mhapsekar – Committee on the Status of Women
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Jyoti Mhapsekar – Committee on the Status of Women

3. Make a concept chart:

Question 1.
Laws related to women:
Answer:

4. Explain the concepts:

Question 1.
Alimony
Answer:
(i) A fixed amount paid to a married woman for her upkeep by the husband who has divorced her, is called alimony.
(ii) The law enacted in 1952, recognizes women’s right to alimony and their share in the father’s property. Her right to Sreedharan was recognized.

Question 2.
Minority
Answer:
(i) In any society, a group of people of a particular religion, language or race who are few in number are termed as a minority.
(ii) As there are various religions, sects, and languages in our country, we see great cultural diversity. There is variation in cultural traditions, too.

5. Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
The evolution of the women’s liberation movement.
Answer:
(i) The United Nations had declared 1975 as the International Women’s Year.

(ii) In 1975, the government of India constituted the Committee on the Status of Women and appointed Dr Phulrenu Guha as its Chairman.

(iii) A comprehensive survey was conducted on several issues such as the social position of women, their status, the consequences of the constitutional provisions made for women as also education of women and its percentage, their progress due to education, difficulties faced by working women, the position of women with respect to work /livelihood, their wages , the female-male ratio, birth and mortality rate and the role of women.

(iv) Taking into consideration this entire background, a State-wide conference for women was held in 1975 organised by the Stree-mukti Sangharsha Samiti. Women from all walks of life / regions participated in it.

(v) The Samiti published its manifesto in 1978. The policy of a struggle against discrimination on the basis of gender, caste and vama was adopted.

(vi) In 1977, groups like the Streemukti Andolan Samiti established by Soudamini Rao in Pune, Bayaja a fortnightly, as also Stree Uvach, Maitrin and Stree Anyayavirodhi Manch in Aurangabad, Mahila Dakshata Samiti in Kolhapur, Mahila Hakka in Nashik and Nari Prabodhan Manch in Latur were formed.

(vii) Anti-dowry protection committees were formed all over Maharashtra. A conference to protest against oppression of women was organised in Dhule city.

Question 2.
The Prohibition of Dowry (Amendment) Act was enacted in 1984.
Answer:
(i) Even after the enactment of the anti-dowry law, incidents like ‘Woman bums to death as sari pallu catches fire while cooking’ and ‘Woman slips into well while washing clothes, drowns and dies’ continued to be reported.
(ii) Investigations still revealed dowry to be the most frequent cause of such deaths.
(iii) The role of the police, the administration and judiciary were highlighted. This created greater awareness.
(iv) As a result, the Dowry Prohibition (Amendment) Act came into force in 1984.

Question 3.
The practice of untouchability was banned by law.
Answer:
(i) In the post-independence period, our Constitution adopted the values of freedom, equality, fraternity and social justice.
(ii) In accordance with this, the practice of untouchability was banned by law.
(iii) Untouchability was removed by the 17th paragraph of the Constitution and this class was included in the Scheduled Castes.

Question 4.
The Constitution gives cultural and educational rights to minorities.
Answer:
(i) In any society, a group of people of a particular religion, language or race who are few in number are termed a minority.

(ii) As there are various religions, sects and languages in our country, we see great cultural diversity. There is variation in cultural traditions, too.

(iii) In order to preserve their cultural traditions and develop their own language, the Constitution gives the citizens certain educational and cultural rights.

(iv) Minorities have the right to protect and conserve their language, culture and traditions.

(v) For this purpose they have the right to set up separate educational institutions.

6. Answer the following questions in 25 to 30 words:

Question 1.
Describe the Chipko movement.
Answer:
(i) The show of constructive woman power was seen during the Chipko movement in 1973.
(ii) Trees from the forests in the foothills of the Himalayas were to be cut down for commercial purposes.
(iii) Chandiprasad Bhat and Sunderlal Bahuguna had started a movement to prevent this.
(iv) Women followed the strategy of holding hands and encircling each tree.
(v) As their method consisted of protecting the tree by embracing it, the movement came to be known as the Chipko movement.
(vi) Women took part in it in large numbers. Women had a big role to play in the agricultural economy of this region.
(vii) Gaura Devi was the activist who created this awareness among the women with the help of Sudesha Devi and Bachani Devi.

Question 2.
Write a note on the Protection of Human Rights Act.
Answer:
(i) In 1993, the Protection of Human Rights Act law was enacted to prevent injustice to men and women.
(ii) The National Human Rights Commission was also formed for this purpose.
(iii) In some States, the State Human Rights Commission was also formed on the same lines.
(iv) This law which deals with collective oppression, the social conditions of divorced women, women and secure work places, played an effective role in mitigating injustices to women.

7. Answer the following question in detail:

Question 1.
Explain with examples how the united strength of women can bring about constructive changes in various fields.
Answer:
(i) Women, who have to face the brunt of scarcity of supplies and rising prices, gave a show of their strength as an organised entity in 1972.

(ii) Under the leadership of the socialist leader Mrinal Gore, women in Mumbai participated in a demonstration which came to be known as the laatne morcha (the rolling pin demonstration).

(iii) Commodities like oil, ghee, rava, maida, would become scarce just as Diwali was near at hand. Kerosene had become very expensive.

(iv) Women came together brandishing their rolling pins and took part in the demonstration.

(v) This movement met with success and the public got a glimpse of the united power of women.

(vi) Another show of constructive woman power was seen during the Chipko movement in 1973. Gaura Devi was the activist who created awareness among the women with the help of Sudesha Devi and Bachani Devi.

(vii) In 1992, three youths of Dubuganta village of Nellore district in Andhra Pradesh drowned in a lake, in a state of inebriation, and died.

(viii) At this instance, the women of the village came together and forced the closure of arrack shops.

(ix) The movement spread to the entire State and the government had to adopt a strict policy against the sale of alcohol.

(x) On 4th September 1987, Roop Kanwar, a married woman, committed sati. She did not do this of her own free will; she was coerced into doing so. Committing sati, glorifying the practice of sati were all illegal acts.

(xi) The women activists and journalists, Meena Menon, Geeta Seshu, Sujata Anandan, Anu Joseph and Kalpana Sharma investigated the case. In 1998, the government passed the Sati (Prevention) Act with very stringent provisions.

Class 9 History Chapter 6 Empowerment of Women and Other Weaker Sections Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
Under the leadership of the socialist leader ______ women in Mumbai participated in a demonstration which came to be known as the Laatne Morcha.
(a) GauraDevi
(b) Dr Phulrenu Guha
(c) Meena Menon
(d) Mrinal Gore
Answer:
(d) Mrinal Gore

Question 2.
Vinoba Bhave made use of women power in the _____.
(a) Bhoodan Movement
(b) Chipko Movement
(c) Laatne Morcha
(d) Anti-liquor movement
Answer:
(a) Bhoodan Movement

Question 3.
Women activists associated with the Chipko movement ________.
(a) Sucheta Kripalani, Nandini Satpathy and Jayalalitha
(b) Dr Phulrenu Guha, Uma Bharati and Vasundhara Raje
(c) Gaura Devi, Sudesha Devi and Bachani Devi
(d) Dr Phulrenu Guha, Meena Menon and Mrinal Gore
Answer:
(c) Gaura Devi, Sudesha Devi and Bachani Devi

Question 4.
The Chipko movement was started by ______.
(a) Chandiprasad Bhat and Sunderlal Bahuguna
(b) Sudesha Devi and Bachani Devi
(c) Vinoba Bhave and Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Meena Menon and Mrinal Gore
Answer:
(a) Chandiprasad Bhat and Sunderlal Bahuguna

Question 5.
The United Nations had declared as _____ the International Women’s Year.
(a) 1992
(b) 2000
(c) 1975
(d) 1988
Answer:
(c) 1975

Question 6.
A collection of songs called Streemuktichi Lalkari, a street play called Mulgi Jhaali Ho are written by ______.
(a) Vidya Bal
(b) Pramila Dandavate
(c) Sujata Anandan
(d) Jyoti Mhapsekar
Answer:
(d) Jyoti Mhapsekar

Question 7.
A State-wide conference for women was held in 1975 organised by the _______.
(a) Samajwadi Mahila Sabha.
(b) Stree-mukti Sangharsha Samiti.
(c) Nari Prabodhan Manch.
(d) Stree Anyayavirodhi Manch.
Answer:
(b) Stree-mukti Sangharsha Samiti.

Question 8.
Census is conducted in India every _______.
(a) 5 years
(b) 10 years
(c) 15 years
(d) 20 years
Answer:
(b) 10 years

Identify and write the wrong pair in the following sets:

Question 1.
(i) Vinoba Bhave – Bhoodan Movement
(ii) Chandiprasad Bhat and Sunderlal Bahuguna – Chipko movement
(iii) Dr Phulrenu Guha – Laatne Morcha
(iv) Shah Bano Begum – Right to alimony
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Dr Phulrenu Guha – Laatne Morcha

Question 2.
(i) Stree Anyayavirodhi Manch – Aurangabad
(ii) Mahila Dakshata Samiti – Pune
(iii) Mahila Hakka – Nashik
(iv) Nari Prabodhan Manch – Latur
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Mahila Dakshata Samiti – Pune

Question 3.
(i) Stree-mukti Andolan Samiti – Soudamini Rao
(ii) Mahila Dakshata Samiti – Phulrenu Guha
(iii) Milun Saryajani – Vidya Bal
(iv) Laatne Morcha – Mrinal Gore
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Mahila Dakshata Samiti – Phulrenu Guha

Question 4.
(i) Streemuktichi Lalkari – Collection of songs
(ii) Mulgi Jhaali Ho – Periodical
(iii) Bayaja – fortmighty
(iv) Sitama Katha – Story
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Mulgi Jhaali Ho – Periodical

Do as directed
Make a concept chart:

Question 1.
Roop Kanwar Sati Case.
Answer:

Question 2.
List at least five Women Chief Ministers in India:
Answer:

• Sucheta Kriplani (Uttar Pradesh)
• Nandini Satpathy (Odisha)
• Jayalalitha (Tamil Nadu)
• Mayawati (Uttar Pradesh)
• Vasundhara Raje (Rajasthan)
• Mamata Banerjee (West Bengal)
• Rabdi Devi (Bihar)
• Anandiben Patel (Gujarat)
• Sheila Dixit (Delhi)
• Mehbooba Mufti Sayeed (Jammu & Kashmir)
• Uma Bharati (Madhya Pradesh)
• Rajendra Kaur Bhattal (Punjab)
• Sushma Swaraj (Delhi)
• Shashikala Kakodkar (Goa)
• Sayeeda Anwar Taimur (Assam)
• Janaki Ramachandran (Tamil Nadu), are all women who have led their States as Chief Ministers.

Complete the following chart:

Question 1.

Women	Contribution
Dr. Phulrenu Guha	………………….
………………	Streemukti Andolan Samiti
Vidya Bal	………………..
………………..	Mahila Dakshata Samiti

Answer:

Women	Contribution
Dr. Phulrenu Guha	Chairman Committee on Status for Women
Soudamini Rao	Streemukti Andolan Samiti
Vidya Bal	Nari Samata Manch
Pramila Dandavate	Mahila Dakshata Samiti

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
International Women’s Day
Answer:
(i) A demonstration was held in New York on 8 March 1857.

(ii) It was the first demonstration by working women and its demands were for fewer working hours, proper remuneration, provision of creches, etc.

(iii) On 8 March 1909 women went on strike for the very same demands. That is why, this day was declared as the Women’s Struggle Day at the Women’s Socialist International, a conference held in Denmark.

(iv) The year 1975 was observed as the International Women’s Year and in 1977, 8 March was declared as International Women’s Day by a resolution passed in the General Assembly of the United Nations.

(v) The three aspects of this programme were peace, development and equality between men and women.

Question 2.
Family Courts
Answer:
(i) Family courts were established to resolve conflicts arising out of differences within marriage and domestic problems as well as issues such as alimony, single parenthood, separation, care of children and ownership which are all related to the family situation.
(ii) These family courts give priority to mutual understanding over witnesses and evidence and to counsellors over lawyers.
(iii) Emphasis is on resolving issues quickly but justly.

Question 3.
Reservation for Women
Answer:
(i) The 73rd and 74th amendments to the Constitution provide for reservation of one-third of the seats for women in Gram Panchayats, Panchayat Samitis, Zilla Parishads, municipalities and municipal corporations as well as for the posts of Sarpanch, Chairman and Mayor.
(ii) Maharashtra and 15 other states have reserved 50% seats for women.
(iii) This provision provides women the opportunity to participate in the business of the community.

Question 4.
Scheduled Tribes
Answer:
(i) The Scheduled Tribes or Adivasis who live in remote parts of the country face several difficulties.

(ii) As they have lived far away from the progress made in modem times, they are economically and socially backward.

(iii) Even though their conditions have seen some improvement in recent times, they do not have any means of livelihood other than agriculture and forest produce.

(iv) Modem farming implements have not yet reached them. Hence, their income from agriculture is very small. Besides, their fields are on hillsides and not fertile.

(v) They are malnourished due to insufficient and poor quality of diet.

(vi) Adivasis in remote areas find it difficult to get medical attention in time. For all these reasons, there is a need to give special protection to Adivasis.

(vii) In the Indian Constitution, Adivasis have been enumerated as Scheduled Tribes. They are given representation in law boards, education, government service, etc.

Question 5.
8th March was declared as International Women’s Day.
Answer:
(i) A demonstration was held in New York on 8 March, 1857. It was the first demonstration by working women and its demands were for fewer working hours, proper remuneration, provision of creches, etc.

(ii) On 8 March 1909 women went on strike for the very same demands. That is why, this day was declared as the Women’s Struggle Day at the Women’s Socialist International, a conference held in Denmark.

(iii) The year 1975 was observed as the International Women’s Year and in 1977, 8 March was declared as International Women’s Day by a resolution passed in the General Assembly of the United Nations.

Question 6.
The ‘Muslim Women’s Act’ (Protection of rights on divorce) was passed by Parliament.
Answer:
(i) A fixed amount paid to a married woman for her upkeep by the husband who has divorced her, is called alimony.

(ii) In the case of Mohammad Ahmed Khan vs Shah Bano Begum, the Supreme Court gave the verdict that Shah Bano Begum had the right to alimony.

(iii) However, religious organisations protested vociferously against the verdict.

(iv) As a result, the ‘Muslim Women’s Act’ (Protection of rights on divorce) was passed by Parliament.

Question 7.
In 1998, the government passed the Sati (Prevention) Act with very stringent provisions.
Answer:
(i) On 4th September 1987, Roop Kanwar, a married woman, committed sati. She did not do this of her own free will; she was coerced into doing so.

(ii) Committing Sati, glorifying the practice of Sati were all illegal acts.

(iii) The women activists and journalists, Meena Menon, Geeta Seshu, Sujata Anandan, Anu Joseph and Kalpana Sharma investigated the case.

(iv) So in 1998, the government passed the Sati (Prevention) Act with very stringent provisions.

Read the passage and answer the questions:

Passage I

International Women’s year: The United Nations ! had declared 1975 as the International Women’s Year. The three aspects of this programme were peace, development and equality between men and women. In 1975, the government of India constituted the Committee on the Status of Women and appointed Dr Phulrenu Guha as its Chairman. A comprehensive survey was conducted of several issues such as the social position of women, their status, the consequences of the constitutional provisions made for Women as also education of women and its percentage, their progress due to education, difficulties faced by working women, the position of women with respect to work/livelihood, their wages (relative to men’s wages), the female-male ratio, birth and mortality rates and the role of women.
Taking into consideration this entire background, State-wide conference for women was held in 1975 organised by the stree-mukti Sangharsha Samiti. Women from all walks of life/regions participated in it. The Samiti published its manifesto in 1978. The Samiti published its manifesto discrimination on the basis of gender, caste and vama was adopted.
This gave rise to a collection of songs called Streemuktichi Lalkari, a street play called Mulgi Jhali Ho by Jyoti Mhapsekar and a periodical called Prerak Lalkari which became their mouthpiece and other such programmes. In 1977, groups like the Streemukti Andolan Samiti established by Soudamini Rao in Pune, Bayaja a fortnightly, as also Stree Uvach, Maitrin and Stree Anyayavirodhi Manch in Aurangabad, Mahila Dakshata Samiti in Kolhapur, Mahila Hakka in Nashik and Nari Prabodhan Manch in Latur were formed. Anti-dowry protection committees were formed all over Maharashtra. A conference to protest against oppression of women was organised in Dhule City.

Question 1.
Prepare a time line of the highlights mentioned in the passages.
Ans:
Timeline of the Highlights of the passage

• 1975 – UN declared International Women’s Day Committee on the Status of women was appointed.
• 1975 – Stree Mukti Sangharsha Samiti was organised.
• 1978 – Stree Mukti Sangharsha Samiti published a Manifesto
• 1977 – Stree Mukti Andolan Samiti was established by Soudamini Rao.

Question 2.
State the issues on which a survey was conducted by the committee on the status of women.
Ans:
The Committee on Status of Women appointed under the chairmanship of Dr. Phulrenu Guha made a comprehensive survey over several issues:

• Social position of women and their status.
• Consequences of the constitutional provision made for women.
• Education of women and it’s a percentage.
• Their progress due to education.
• Difficulties faced by working women with respect to work, livelihood, and wages.
• Female – male ratio.
• Birth and mortality rates.
• Role of women.

Question 3.
Name any two women who according to you managed to break the norms of the Indian Society and came up as icons of woman power.
Ans:
(i) Mrinal Gore
(ii) Gaura Devi

Passage II

Vidya Bal’s periodicals, Nari Samata Manch, and Milun Saryajani, as also the work ofthe Samajwadi Mahila Sabha and the Krantikari Mahila Sanghatana were of great help in dealling with women’s issues. The Employment Guarantee Scheme in Maharashtra also helped to empower women. Pramila Dandavate established the Mahila Dakshata Samiti in Delhi in 1976. Branches of the Samiti came up in the States of Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and Punjab. The Communist Party established the Akhil Bharatiya Janavadi Mahila Sanghatana in 1980. Efforts were made to start branches of this Organisation in all parts of India. The Sanghatana started a struggle against issues like dowry, female foeticide, domestic abuse, Research on women’s issues was undertaken at various levels. Women’s Studies Centres were started at the first women’s university, Mumbai and at Tata Institute of Social Sciences, Mumbai, Savitribai Phule Pune University and Shivaji University, Kolhapur. These Centres played an important role in critical analysis and in developing a vision on women’s issues.

Question 1.
State the role of Pramila Dandavate and Vidhya Bal in women’s upliftment.
Answer:
(i) Pramila Dandavate established Mahila Dakshata Samiti in Delhi in 1976.
(ii) Vidya Bal published periodicals like ’Nari Samata Manch’ and ‘Milun Saryajani’.

Question 2.
Where are the women’s study centers located in Maharashtra?
Answer:
Women study centers are located at:

• Shrimati Nathibai Damodar Thakersey Women’s University – Mumbai.
• Tata Institute of Social Sciences – Mumbai.
• Savitribai Phule University – Pune
• Shivaji University – Kolhapur.

Question 3.
Do you think International Beauty Pageants can help in creating awareness about women’s issues? why?
Answer:
Yes, International Beauty Pageants can help in creating global awareness on women’s issues world wide.
The participants in these events come from different cultures and backgrounds, they speak on many subjects affecting women which is covered by international media. Concerns pertaining to women’s political rights have been brought to the notice of the world through these pageants.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
Explain, in detail, the Anti-liquor movement.
Answer:
(i) In 1992, in Andhra Pradesh, a movement was started against the drinking of alcohol. It received a good response in other States too.

(ii) When the head of the household dies an untimely death due to addiction to alcohol, the family faces a serious crisis which affects women the most.

(iii) Due to alcoholism, they have to deal with extreme sorrow and poverty. This movement got the support of the anti-arrack movement in Andhra Pradesh.

(iv) As a result of a government policy, arrack (a locally produced alcohol) dealers set up shop in every town and village.The poor labouring people began to get addicted to alcohol.

(v) At the same time, a literacy programme was being run in the villages of the State. The Sitama Katha (Sita’s story) was narrated as a part of this programme.

(vi) It was a story about Sita who creates awareness among the people of a village and gets alcohol to be banned from the village.

(vii) In 1992, three youths of Dubuganta village of Nellore district in Andhra Pradesh drowned in a lake, in a state of inebriation, and died.

(viii) At this instance, the women of the village came together and forced the closure of arrack shops.

(ix) The report of this news in the local newspapers had its effect on many other villages.

(x) The movement spread to the entire State and the government had to adopt a strict policy against the sale of alcohol.

Question 2.
Explain the term ‘Nomadic’ and ‘De-notified’ Tribes.
Answer:
(i) Castes and tribes that move from place to place for a livelihood, are included under Nomadic Tribes.
(ii) They live by rearing animals and engaging in some other occupations.
(iii) The British had declared some of them as criminal tribes.
(iv) In the Law of 1871 to curb crimes, some of the main groups were mentioned as criminal tribes and their occupations and movements were banned.
(v) This unjust law was repealed in the post¬independence period.
(vi) And the curbs on these tribes were lifted. They were included under De-notified Tribes.
(vii) Special efforts are made by the government for the purpose of their social and economic development.
(viii) These tribes have been given representation in educational institutions and the government sector.

Question 3.
What do you mean by Scheduled Castes?
Answer:
(i) In the post-independence period, our Constitution adopted the values of freedom, equality, fraternity and social justice.
(ii) In accordance with this, the practice of untouchability was banned by law.
(iii) Untouchability was removed by the 17th paragraph of the Constitution and this class was included in the Scheduled Castes.
(iv) In view of the educational and social backwardness of these castes, they were given reservations in education as well as jobs to facilitate their development.

Question 4.
Write a note on the manifestation of woman power.
Answer:
(i) Women, who have to face the brunt of scarcity of supplies and rising prices, gave a show of their strength as an organised entity in 1972.
(ii) Under the leadership of the socialist leader Mrinal Gore, women in Mumbai participated in a demonstration which came to be known as the laatne morcha (the rolling pin demonstration).
(iii) Commodities like oil, ghee, rava, maida, would become scarce just as Diwali was near at hand. Kerosene would become very expensive.
(iv) Women came together brandishing their rolling pins and took part in the demonstration.
(v) This movement met with success and the public got a glimpse of the united power of women.

Observe the pictures and write relevant information about them:

Question 1.

Answer:
(i) A show of constructive women power was seen during the Chipko Movement in 1973. The trees from the forests in the foothills of Himalayas were to be cut down for commercial purposes.
(ii) The important leaders of the Chipko Movement were: Chandiprasad Bhat, Sunderlal Bahuguna, Gaura Devi, Sudesha Devi and Bachani Devi.

Question 2.

Answer:
(i) In 1992, in Andhra Pradesh a movement was started against the drinking of alcohol.
(ii) In 1992, three youths of Dubuganta village of Nellore district in Andhra Pradesh drowned in lake, in a state of inebriation and died. At this instance, the women of the village came together and forced the closure of arrack shops.
(iii) Arrack is a locally produced alcohol. As a result of a government policy arrack dealers set up shop in every town and village.

Question 3.

Answer:
(i) In 1998, the govt passed the Sati (Prevention) Act with very stringent provisions.
(ii) On 4th Sept. 1987, Roop Kanwar a married woman, committed sati. She did not do this of her own free will, she was coerced into doing so.
The women activists and journalists, Meena Menon, Geeta Seshu, Sujata Anandan, Anu Joseph and Kalpana Sharma investigated the case.

Question 4.

Answer:
(i) The Dowry Prohibition Act of 1961 made both giving and taking of dowry a cognizable criminal offence.
(ii) Even after the enactment of the anti-dowry law investigations still revealed dowry to be the most frequent cause of deaths. This created greater awareness. Thus, Dowry Prohibition (Amendment) Act came into force in 1984.

9th Std History Questions And Answers:

• Sources of History Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• India: Events After 1960 Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• India’s Internal Challenges Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Economic Development Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Education Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Empowerment of Women and Other Weaker Sections Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Science and Technology Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Industry and Trade Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Changing Life 1 Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Changing Life 2 Class 9 History Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Structure of Ocean Floor Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 4 Structure of Ocean Floor Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Structure of Ocean Floor Class 8 Questions And Answers Chapter 4 Maharashtra Board

Class 8 Geography Chapter 4 Structure of Ocean Floor Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Choose the correct option:

Question a.
Like there are landforms on land, ocean floor also has submerged landforms because ………….
(i) there is land under water
(ii) there are volcanoes under water
(iii) land is continuous and there is water in deeper parts
(iv) though land is continuous, its level is not the same everywhere like that of water
Answer:
(iv) though land is continuous, its level is not the same everywhere like that of water

Question b.
Which part of the ocean floor is most useful to the man?
(i) Continental shelf
(ii) Continental slope
(iii) Abyssal plains
(iv) Marine deeps
Answer:
(i) Continental shelf

Question c.
Which one of the following option is related to marine deposits?
(i) Rivers, glaciers, continental shelf, remains of plants and animals
(ii) Volcanic ash, continental shelf, remains of plants and animals
(iii) Volcanic ash, lava, fine particles of soil
(iv) Volcanic ash, remains of plants and animals, abyssal plants
Answer:
(iii) Volcanic ash, lava, fine particles of soil

2. Question a.
Name the landforms shown in the following figure.
(Note: The answer is given directly.)

Answer:

Question b.
Which of these landforms are useful for deep sea research?
Answer:
Submarine plateau and marine trench are the landforms useful for deep sea research.

Question c.
Which of these are appropriate to be used for the protection of marine borders and naval base building?
Answer:
Continental shelf is appropriate to be used for the protection of marine borders and naval base building.

3. Give geographical reasons:

Question a.
The study of ocean floor is useful to man.
Answer:

1. Various minerals, rocks, fine I soil particles are found on the sea floor.
2. Remains of marine plants and animals are also found on the ocean floor.
3. To study the marine life, mineral wealth as well as the process of volcanic eruption, the study of ocean floor is useful to man. ‘

Question b.
The continental shelf is a paradise for fishing activity.
Answer:

1. Being a shallowest part of the ocean bed, sunlight reaches up to continental shelf easily.
2. As its effect, algae, plankton, etc. grows on a large scale on continental shelf.
3. Algae, plankton, etc. is food for fish. Therefore, fish are found on a large scale on continental shelf. Therefore, the continental shelf is paradise for fishing activity.

Question c.
Some marine islands are actually the peaks of sea mountains.
Answer:

1. The hundreds of kilometres wide and thousands of kilometres long hills found on the ocean bed are called submerged hills.
2. Peaks of some of the submerged hills come above the sea level.
3. These peaks are the visible land areas surrounded from all sides by water. These peaks are called islands. Thus, some marine islands are actually the peaks of sea mountains.

Question d.
The continental slope is considered to be the boundary of continents.
Answer:

1. Continental slope lies beyond the continental shelf.
2. The deep abyssal plain begins beyond the continental slope. Therefore, the continental slope is considered to be the boundary of continents.

Question e.
The disposal of waste materials in the oceans by man is harmful to the 1 environment.
Answer:

1. The disposal of waste materials in the oceans by man increases the pollution of sea water.
2. This disposed waste materials harm the life of marine animal life and marine plant. Thus, the disposal of waste materials in the oceans by man is harmful to the environment.

4. Observe the map on Pg 27 in ‘Give it a try’ and answer the following questions:

Question a.
Madagascar and Sri Lanka are related to which landform of the ocean floor?
Answer:
Madagascar and Sri Lanka are related to island of the ocean floor.

Question b.
Near which continent are these landforms located?
Answer:
Madagascar is located near the continent of Africa and Sri Lanka is located near the continent of Asia.

Question c.
Which islands in our country are examples of peaks of submerged mountains?
Answer:
Andaman and Nicobar islands in our country are examples of peaks of submerged mountains.

Activity:

Question a.
prepare a model of the ocean floor.
Answer:

1. While studying the ocean floor, we must keep in mind the age of the ocean bed. By studying the deposits on the ocean bed, it occurred to the scientists that the deposits at the ocean floor are not older than 200 million years.

2. The maximum age of the rocks on the continents is supposed to be 3200 million years. Then where have the deposits on the sea bed which are older than 200 million years gone? This made the scientists restless. Then they started the study of the rocks along with the deposits.

3. This made them realize that the rocks are also not older than 200 million years. It was inferred that the ocean floor is very young as compared to the earth’s surface. Now this is unanimously accepted. This research was then used in the study of the concept of plate tectonics.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 4 Structure of Ocean Floor Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct answer and complete the sentences:

Question a.
Continental slope has slope.
(a) flatter
(b) broader
(c) steeper
(d) lower
Answer:
(c) steeper

Question b.
The average depth of the oceans is around metres.
(a) 7300
(b) 3700
(c) 3900
(d) 3300
Answer:
(b) 3700

Examine the following statements and correct the incorrect ones:

Question a.
Abyssal plain lies beyond the continental shelf.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: Abyssal plain lies beyond the continental slope.

Question b.
Around 51 per cent of the surface of the earth is covered by water.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: Around 71 per cent of the surface of the earth is covered by water.

Question c.
Natural gas and mineral oil can be obtained from the continental shelf.
Answer:
Correct.

Question d.
For survey purpose in India, the height of sea level at Kanyakumari is considered to be zero.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: For survey purpose in India, the height of sea level at Chennai is considered to be zero.

Question e.
Active volcanoes are mostly seen in marine trenches.
Answer:
Correct.

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question a.
What is called continental shelf?
Answer:
The land near the coast and submerged under the sea is called continental shelf.

Question b.
What is called continental slope?
Answer:
The steeper slope of the sea bed beyond the extent of continental shelf is called continental slope.

Question c.
What is called abyssal plain?
Answer:
The flat part of the sea bed that lies
beyond the continental slope is called abyssal plain.

Question d.
What is called submerged hills?
Answer:
The hundreds of kilometres wide and thousands of kilometres long hills found on the ocean bed are called submerged hills.

Question e.
What is called marine islands?
Answer:
Peaks of some of the submerged hills that come above the sea level are called marine islands.

Question f.
What is called submarine plateau?
Answer:
The flat and extensive summit of marine island is called submarine plateau.

Question g.
What is called marine deep?
Answer:
The landforms on the ocean bed that are comparatively less extending and shallower ones are called marine deep.

Question h.
What is called marine trench?
Answer:
The landforms on the ocean bed that are comparatively more extending and deeper ones are called marine trench.

Match the columns and complete the chain:

Question a.

‘A’ Column	‘B’ Column	‘C’ Column
1. Andaman – Nicobar	(i) Submarine plateau	(a) Pacific Ocean
2. Chagos	(ii) Located on continental shelf	(b) Bay of Bengal
3. Mariana	(iii) Islands	(c) Arabian Sea
4. Mumbai High	(iv) Marine deep	(d) Indian Ocean

Answer:

‘A’ Column	‘B’ Column	‘C’ Column
1. Andaman – Nicobar	(iii) Islands	(b) Bay of Bengal
2. Chagos	(i) Submarine plateau	(d) Indian Ocean
3. Mariana	(iv) Marine deep	(a) Pacific Ocean
4. Mumbai High	(ii) Located on continental shelf	(c) Arabian Sea

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question a.
What is marine deposits?
Answer:

1. Marine deposit is a type of marine deposition.
2. The rivers and glaciers flowing from the continent bring pebbles, clay, soil, etc. with them when they meet sea or ocean.
3. These materials get deposited on the continental shelf. The deposits are known as marine deposits.
4. Due to pressure of sea water and deposition of layers over layers of sediments, sedimentary rocks are formed.
5. Marine life and the availability of minerals in the sea bed can be studied with the help of marine deposits.

Question b.
What is marine oozes?
Answer:

1. Marine oozes is a type of marine deposit.
2. Lava and ash erupting out of volcano, fine soil particles, remains of plants and animals, etc. get deposited on marine abyssal plains. Deposits of these materials on the abyssal plains are known as marine oozes.
3. Marine oozes are in the form of fine clay. The percentage of remains of plants and animals in marine oozes is up to 30 per cent.
4. Marine oozes are also useful to study marine life and the availability of minerals in the sea bed.

Question c.
Write in brief about the continental shelf.
Answer:
1. The land near the seacoast and submerged under the sea is called continental shelf. The depth of continental shelf is about 200 metres below the sea level.

2. Continental shelf is found to be narrow along the coasts of some continents and broad along the coasts of some other continents.

3. Being a shallowest part of the ocean bed, sunlight reaches up to continental shelf easily. As its effect, the food for fish like algae, plankton, etc. grows on a large scale on continental shelf. Therefore, continental shelf is useful for fishing occupation.

4. Various minerals, natural gas and mineral oil, etc. can also be obtained from mining the continental shelf. For example, Mumbai High located on the continental shelf of the Arabian Sea is a source from where the mineral oil and natural gas is obtained.

Question d.
Write in brief about the continental slope.
Answer:

1. The steep slope of the sea bed beyond the extent of continental shelf is called continental slope.
2. The depth of the continental slope is from 200 metres to 3600 metres below the sea level.
3. The continental slope is found to be comparatively narrower.
4. The lower boundary of the continental slope is considered as the boundary of I continent.

Question f.
Write in brief about the abyssal plains.
Answer:

1. The flat part of the sea bed that lies beyond the continental slope is called abyssal plains.
2. Various submerged landforms like
   submerged hills, submerged mountains, etc. are seen on abyssal plains.
3. Submarine plateaus are also found on the abyssal plains.

Question g.
Write in brief about mean sea level.
Answer:

1. The average of the highest high tide and the lowest low tide is considered to calculate the mean sea level.
2. This average is considered to be zero sea level.
3. The altitude of any place above the sea level is measured and expressed in positive value. (For example, Mount Everest is 8848 metres high.)
4. The depth of any place below the sea level is measured and expressed in negative value. (For example, Mariana Trench is 11034 metres below sea level.)

Study the following map/figure/graph and answer the following questions:

Can you tell?

Question a.
What parameters were used for classifying the landforms on the earth?
Answer:
Altitude and the shape of the land were the parameters used for classifying the landforms on the earth.

Question b.
What parameters were used for naming the landforms below water?
Answer:
Depth from the seafloor and the shape of the land were the parameters used for naming the landforms below water.

Give it a try.

Question a.
Name the submerged landforms shown in the diagram.
(Note: The answer is given directly.)

Answer:

Question b.
Identify the ocean shown in the map of the ocean floor.
Answer:
The ocean shown in the map of the ocean floor is Indian Ocean.

Question c.
Which region would be ideal for fishing and why?
Answer:
The region near Madagascar island would be ideal for fishing. Madagascar island has a shallow continental shelf. The warm stream and cold stream also meet near Madagascar island. Therefore, the region near Madagascar island would be ideal for fishing.

2. Name the landforms shown in the following figure and answer the following questions:
(Note: The answer is given directly.)

Question a.

Answer:

Thought-Provoking Questions

Think about it.

Question a.
If the classification of landforms on land can be done on the basis of altitude and size, then how can the landforms submerged underwater are classified?
Answer:
If the classification of landforms on land can be done on the basis of altitude and size, then the landforms submerged underwater are classified on the basis of the depth from the seafloor and the shape of the land there.

Use your brainpower!

Do this activity when you go to the seashore with your parents or teachers. Observe the materials which have come with the waves. Classify them as per the flowchart given below:

Question a.
Which of these are perishable items?
Answer:
Plants, conches and shells, aquatic animals of these are perishable items.

Question b.
Which are non-perishable?
Answer:
Chemicals, metals and plastic/glass are non-perishable.

Question c.
What will happen because of perishable items?
Answer:
Perishable items will not create pollution of seacoast and seawater on a large scale. The remains of perishable items will get deposited in the form of marine oozes on the ocean bed.

Question d.
What will happen because of non-perishable items?
Answer:
Non-perishable items will create pollution of seacoast and seawater on a large scale.

Question f.
Suggest measures to control deposition of non-perishable items on the coast.
Answer:
The following measures can be taken to control deposition of non-perishable items on the coast:

1. Plastic bags, plastic or glass containers must be prohibited on the seacoasts.
2. Strict action must be taken against offenders carrying the banned products on the seacoasts.
3. Hoardings explaining the importance of clean seacoasts must be displayed on all the seacoast.

Question g.
How will you run a campaign of environmental conservation to keep the coasts clean?
Answer:
We will run a campaign of environmental conservation to keep the coasts clean as follows:

1. We will display hoardings explaining the importance of clean seacoasts on the seacoasts.
2. We will arrange street plays, dramas, etc. highlighting the importance of clean seacoasts.
3. We will arrange special programmes during the festivals like Ganeshotsav, Diwali, Christmas, etc. to keep the seacoasts clean.

Open-Ended Questions:

Question a.
Suggest measures to control deposition of non-perishable items on the coast.
Answer:
The following measures can be taken to control deposition of non-perishable items on the coast:

1. Plastic bags, plastic or glass containers must be prohibited on the seacoasts.
2. Strict action must be taken against offenders carrying the banned products on the seacoasts.
3. Hoardings explaining the importance of clean seacoasts must be displayed on all the seacoasts.

Question b.
How will you run a campaign of environmental conservation to keep the coasts clean?
Answer:
We will run a campaign of environmental conservation to keep the coasts clean as follows:

1. We will display hoardings explaining the importance of clean seacoasts on the seacoasts.
2. We will arrange street plays, dramas, etc. highlighting the importance of clean seacoasts.
3. We will arrange special programmes during the festivals like Ganeshotsav, Diwali, Christmas, etc. to keep the seacoasts clean.

8th Std Geography Questions And Answers:

• Local Time and Standard Time Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Interior of the Earth Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Humidity and Clouds Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Structure of Ocean Floor Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Ocean Currents Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Land Use Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Population Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Industries Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Map Scale Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Field Visit Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 1 Sources of History Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Sources of History Class 9 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Class 9 History Chapter 1 Sources of History Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

History Class 9 Chapter 1 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. A Choose the right option and rewrite the sentence.

Class 9 History Chapter 1 Sources Of History Questions And Answers  Question 1.
The National Archives of India is situated at ______.
(a) Pune
(b) New Delhi
(c) Kolkata
(d) Hyderabad
Answer:
(b) New Delhi

Sources of History Class 9 History Chapter 1 Question 2.
The _______ is included among the Audio -Visual media.
(a) Newspaper
(b) Television
(c) All India Radio
(d) Periodicals
Answer:
(b) Television

Question 3.
______ is not included in physical sources.
(a) Coins
(b) Ornaments
(c) Buildings
(d) Proverbs
Answer:
(d) Proverbs

B. Identify the wrong pair and rewrite the corrected one:

Question 1.
(1) Jal Cooper – Philatelist
(2) Kusumagraj – Poet
(3) Anna Bhau Sathe – People’s bard
(4) Amar Shaikh – Art Collector
Answer:
Amar Shaikh – Art Collector

2. Write Short Notes:

Question 1.
Written Sources
Answer:
(i) Any historical document written by hand or typed or in printed form is called written sources.
(ii) The following are included in written sources: Newspapers, Periodicals, Diaries, Reference books, Correspondence, Document in the Archives, Government Gazettes, Postage Stamps, and Encyclopedias.

Question 2.
Press Trust of India (PTI)
Answer:
(i) After 1953, the Press Trust of India has been an important source of primary details of all important events and of articles on important subjects.

(ii) Press Trust of India has provided reports, photographs and articles on financial and scientific issues to newspapers. PTI has now started its online service.

(iii) During the 1990s, PTI started using the ‘satellite broadcast’ technology instead of teleprinters to send news all over the country.

(iv) This material is important for writing the history of modern India.

3. Give reasons:

Question 1.
The postal department tries to preserve the heritage and integrity of Indian culture through postage stamps.
Answer:
(i) Postage stamps reveal a lot to us about changing times due to the variety in the sizes of the stamps, the novelty in their subjects and colour schemes.

(ii) The Postal Department issues postage stamps on a wide variety of themes.

(iii) It issues stamps on political leaders, flowers, animals, birds, an event, or the silver, golden, diamond jubilees or centenary, bicentenary and tercentenary of different events.

(iv) It is therefore, a valuable repository of history.

(v) Thus the postal department tries to preserve the heritage and integrity of Indian culture through postage stamps.

Question 2.
Audio-visual media are an important source for writing the history of modem India.
Answer:
(i) Audio-visual means possessing sound and visual content; for example, films and television

(ii) We have channels like History channel and Discovery channel which telecast footage of historical events in multimedia.

(iii) With the help of satellites, live coverage of all political, social and cultural events is possible across the globe. This helps to create an accountable repository for future reference as well.

(iv) Video libraries possess a vast storage of historical information in audio-visual mode which becomes handy in writing the history of modem India.

Class 9 History Chapter 1 Sources of History Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
Information and Broadcasting Department published ______, an annual reference book.
(a) India 2000
(b) Incredible India
(c) Indian Horizon
(d) Aspiring India
Answer:
(a) India 2000

Question 2.
The place where historical documents are _______.
preserved is called
(a) Library
(b) Store Room
(c) Archives
(d) History Room
Answer:
(c) Archives

Question 3.
Newspapers are considered the _______ pillar of democracy.
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
Answer:
(d) Fourth

Question 4.
_____ has also produced various documentaries on prominent social leaders, on people who have made major contributions and about important locations in India.
(a) British Broadcasting Corporation (BBC)
(b) Reuters
(c) Indian News Review
(d) Bloomberg
Answer:
(c) Indian News Review

Question 5.
Aavahan is written on the backdrop of Sino- Indian war by the noted Marathi poet _____.
(a) Narayan Gupte
(b) Kusumagraj
(c) G.D. Madgulkar
(d) Namdeo Dhasal
Answer:
(b) Kusumagraj

Question 6.
Cooper edited _______.
(a) India’s Stamp Journal
(b) Indian Philatelic Magazine
(c) Stamp Synopsis
(d) The Journal of Philatelic Bureau
Answer:
(a) India’s Stamp Journal

Question 7.
After 1953, the ____ has been an important source of primary details of all important events.
(a) Union Trust of India
(b) Press Trust of India
(c) Information and Broadcasting Ministry
(d) Film and Television Institute of India
Answer:
(b) Press Trust of India

Question 8.
Duringthe 1990s, PTI started using ____ technology instead of Teleprinters.
(a) GPS Device
(b) Ultrasonic Gadget
(c) Radio Programming
(d) Satellite Broadcast
Answer:
(d) Satellite Broadcast

Question 9.
The Government of India started the Film and Television Institute of India at Pune in 1960 with the purpose of providing _______.
(a) Entertainment
(b) Public Education
(c) International updates
(d) Intra-societal information
Answer:
(b) Public Education

Question 10.
The Indian government issued the ______ stamp in 1977.
(a) Narsee Monjee
(b) Jal Cooper
(c) Birsa Munda
(d) Senapati Bapat
Answer:
(b) Jal Cooper

Question 11.
The Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Museum is at ________.
(a) Delhi
(b) Mumbai
(c) Kolkata
(d) Chennai
Answer:
(b) Mumbai

Question 12.
The ______ issues postage stamps on a wide variety of themes.
(a) Publications Division
(b) Postal Department
(c) Income Tax Department
(d) Revenue Department
Answer:
(b) Postal Department

Question 13.
______ prints the notes.
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) Union Bank of India
(c) Philatelic Bureau of India
(d) State Bank of India
Answer:
(a) Reserve Bank of India

Question 14.
Empire of India Philatelic Society was founded by ______.
(a) Pherozeshah Mehta
(b) Mahzarin Banaji
(c) Jal Cooper
(d) Dinshaw Patel
Answer:
(c) Jal Cooper

Question 15.
PTI has provided reports, photographs and articles on ___ issues to newspapers.
(a) Therapeutic
(b) Financial and scientific
(c) Demographic and Topographic
(d) Environmental
Answer:
(b) Financial and scientific

Identify and write the wrong pair in the following sets:

Question 1.
(1) Powada – Oral sources
(2) Documentaries – Audio Visual Sources
(3) Coins – Material Sources
(4) Owis – Archaeological Sources
Answer:
Owis – Archaeological Sources

Question 2.
(1) India 2000 – Annual Reference book
(2) Indian News Review – News reels and documentariess.
(3) FTII – Radio Programmes
(4) Reserve Bank of India – Printing notes
Answer:
FTII – Radio Programmes

Question 3.
(1) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Museum – Mumbai
(2) Reserve Bank Museum – Pune
(3) National Archives of India – Calcutta
(4) Film and Television Institute of India – Pune
Answer:
National Archives of India – Calcutta

Do as directed.
Complete the concept map:

Question 1.
Answer:

Question 2.
Answer:

Question 3.
Answer:

Question 4.
Answer:

Write short notes:

Question 1.
Coins
Answer:
(i) We can also understand history with the help of coins and the changes in the printing of currency notes.
(ii) The Reserve Bank of India prints the notes. It has its headquarters in Mumbai.
(iii) The coins from 1950 to those used at present, the metals used for making them, their different shapes, and the diversity of subjects on them together help us to understand the important contemporary issues in India; For example coins to convey the message of population control and coins communicating the importance of agriculture and of farmers.

Question 2.
Jal Cooper
Ans
(i) The Indian government issued the ‘Jal Cooper’ stamp in 1977. Jal Cooper was an internationally acclaimed philatelist, i.e. an expert on the subject of ‘postage stamps’.
(ii) Bom in a Parsi household in Mumbai, Cooper edited ‘India’s Stamp Journal’.
(iii) He was the founder of the first Philatelic Bureau in India, an office that collected stamps. He founded the ‘Empire of India Philatelic Society.
(iv) He went on to write many books on this subject. He gave a scientific bent to his hobby.
(v) He played a pivotal role in taking the study of Indian postage stamps to the international level.
(vi) Having started his career as a postage stamp collector, Cooper achieved the expertise of a philatelist at the international level.
(vii) The postage stamp on Jal Cooper is an important source to understand his significant contribution to this field.

Explain the statements with reason:

Question 1.
Museums reflect the unique heritage of a state.
Answer:
(i) All states of India have museums that depict the characteristics and display the cultural and social heritage of the state.
(ii) They enable us to understand history; For example, the Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Museum at Mumbai and the Reserve Bank Museum in Pune city.
(iii) Apart from the Government Museums, some private collectors also set up their own museums.
(iv) They are based on distinctive subjects; For example, coins, notes, lamps and nutcrackers in different shapes, cricket equipment, etc.

Read the passage and answer the questions.

The Indian government issued the ‘Jal Cooper’ stamp in 1977. Jal Cooper was an internationally acclaimed philatelist, i.e. an expert on the subject of ‘postage , stamps’. Bom in a Parsi household in Mumbai, Cooper edited ‘India’s Stamp Journal’. He was the founder of the first Philatelic Bureau in India, an , office that collected stamps. He founded the ‘Empire of India Philatelic Society’. He went on to write many , books on this subject. He gave a scientific bend to his , hobby. He played a pivotal role in taking the study of Indian postage stamps to the international level, , Having started his career as a postage stamp collector, Cooper achieved the expertise of a philatelist at the international level. The postage stamp on Jal Cooper , is an important source to understand his significant ,contribution to this field.

Question 1.
Other than Philatelies which other streams of vocation deal with sources of history?
Answer:
Other than Philatelies, other streams of vocation which deal with sources of history are: Numismatics, Museology and Archaeology.

Question 2.
Name the two institution founded by Jal Cooper.
Answer:
Two institutions founded by Jal Cooper are:

(i) The First Philatelic Bureau in India.
(ii) Empire of India Philatelic Society.

Question 3.
Why do you think the government of India issued a postage stamp in the name of Jal Cooper?
Answer:
Jal Cooper is accredited to raise Indian Philatelies to an international level. He nurtured his hobby with great expertise and became a renowned Postage Stamp Collector. To honour his contribution, the government of India issued a postage stamp in his name in 1977.

Answer the following questions in detail.

Question 1.
Which information among print media is considered authentic and trustworthy?
Answer:
Among the print media, the information contained in the annual issues of the Publications Division of the Government of India is authentic and trustworthy.
(ii) For example, the Information and Broadcasting Department published ‘INDIA 2000’, an annual reference book.
(iii) ‘ This reference book is created under ‘Research, Reference and Training Department’.

Question 2.
Which sources are included in material sources?
Answer:
The following sources are included in material sources:

• Coins
• Places of worship
• Things in daily use
• Royal seals
• Ornaments
• Museums
• Clothing
• Modern architecture.

Question 3.
Write in brief about museums in India.
Answer:
(i) All states of India have museums that depict the characteristics and display the cultural and social heritage of the state.
(ii) They enable us to understand history (e.g., the Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Museum at Mumbai, Reserve Bank Museum in Pune city).
(iii) Apart from the Government Museums, some private collectors also set up their own museums.
(iv) They are based on distinctive subjects; For example, coins, notes, lamps and nutcrackers in different shapes, cricket equipment, etc.

Question 4.
Write briefly about ‘Indian News Review’.
Answer:
(i) An institute called Indian News Review has produced various newsreels on important events in politics, social issues, art, sports and culture.
(ii) This department has also produced various documentaries on prominent social leaders, on people who have made major contributions for the country and about important locations in India.
(iii) These news releases and documentaries are useful for studying the history of modern India.

Question 5.
Oral Sources
Answer:
(i) These sources include folktales, folksongs, proverbs, ballads and owis (Marathi verses in the oral tradition).
(ii) Activists were inspired by the powadas of Lok shahir, Anna Bhau Sathe and Shahir Amar Sheikh during the Sanyukta Maharashtra Movement.

Question 6.
Identify the picture and give relevant information.

Answer:

• The person depicted in the picture is Jal Cooper, an internationally acclaimed philatelist from India.
• Cooper edited ‘India’s stamp Journal’. He was the founder of the First Philatelic Bureau in India, an office that collected stamps. He founded the ‘Empire of India Philatelic Society’.
• The Government of India issued the Jal Cooper Stamp in 1977.

9th Std History Questions And Answers:

• Sources of History Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• India: Events After 1960 Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• India’s Internal Challenges Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Economic Development Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Education Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Empowerment of Women and Other Weaker Sections Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Science and Technology Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Industry and Trade Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Changing Life 1 Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Changing Life 2 Class 9 History Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 6 International Problems Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

International Problems Class 9 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Class 9 Political Science Chapter 6 International Problems Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Political Science Class 9 Chapter 6 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. Choose the right option and rewrite the sentence:

Question 1.
Which among the following is an International problem?
(a) Border dispute between Maharashtra and Karnataka
(b) Kaveri water sharing question
(c) Problems of refugees
(d) Naxalism in Andhra Pradesh
Answer:
(c) Problems of refugees

Question 2.
Which among the following rights are not included in human rights?
(a) Right to work
(b) Right to information
(c) Children’s rights
(d) Equal pay for equal work
Answer:
(b) Right to information

Question 3.
Which among the following days is observed at an international level?
(a) Teachers’ Day
(b) Children’s Day
(c) Earth Day
(d) Flag Day
Answer:
(c) Earth Day

2. Explain with reasons whether the following statements are true or false:

Question 1.
It is necessary that all the nations should cooperate in order to find remedies of environmental degradation.
Answer:
True.

• The threat to the environment caused by pollution or by leakage of oil or gas does not remain restricted to one nation.
• Its effects are long term so it becomes necessary for nations to act with each other’s consent and cooperation in order to deal with these effects.

Question 2.
Sino-Indian relations are friendly.
Answer:
False.
The conflict between India and China is connected to two issues

• Border issue and
• Status of Tibet. India made several efforts to sort this border dispute by means of dialogue. But it has not met with much success.

3. Complete the following chart:

Question 1.
Human Rights

Answer:

Question 2.
Degradation of the Environment

Answer:

Question 3.
Terrorism

Answer:

4. Prepare the following concept map:

Question 1.

Answer:

5. Write your own opinion about :

Question 1.
Explain India’s position in establishing human rights.
Answer:
(i) The Preamble of the Indian Constitution contains the objectives of the Constitution.

(ii) It secures to its citizens: justice, social, economic and political; Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship; Equality of status and opportunity; and Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual and unity and integrity of the Nation.

(iii) Fundamental Rights are assured to all the citizens of India.

(iv) In order to make these objectives effective, Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy were incorporated in Part III and Part IV of our Constitution.

(v) The Supreme Court of India and the High Courts of all states issue Writs, such as:

• Habeas Corpus
• Mandamus
• Prohibition
• Certiorari
• Quo Warranto to protect human rights.

Question 2.
Narrate the effects of terrorism and suggest remedies to control it.
Answer:
(i) The 21st century terrorism is an organised system of violence and intimidation. There is a need to empathise, understand, cooperate and coordinate our efforts in dealing with terrorism at the national and international level.

(ii) Terrorism includes taking hostages; firing or bombing civilian localities that are undefended such as hospitals or schools, inhuman treatment to prisoners and destruction of property.

(iii) This leads to feeling of insecurity and helplessness among the people who are prone to terrorism. Their faith in social security and police protection is lowered and they may be psychologically affected.

(iv) Terrorism affects economic growth, political stability and social welfare of the people. It burdens our defence and police system as well. Hence the government cannot focus on its constructive programmes.

(v) Citizens should be alert about unattended luggage or bags at public places and be vigilant about suspicious men around them. They must immediately report to the authorities about the same.

(vi) The youth of the nation should volunteer in police and armed forces. The civilians must always cooperate with the police and government authorities to nab the terrorists.

Class 9 Political Science Chapter 6 International Problems Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
United Nations Conference on human environment was called at Stockholm from ________.
(a) 5th to 16th June, 1972
(b) 5th to 16th July, 1972
(c) 5th to 16th June, 1971
(d) 5th to 16th July 1971
Answer:
5th to 16th June, 1972

Question 2.
The United Nations General Assembly adopted the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR) in ______.
(a) 1948
(b) 1966
(c) 1964
(d) 1962
Answer:
1966

Question 3.
In 1997, the conference at Kyoto laid down the protocols for the developed countries for preventing climate change. For how many years did it come to be applied?
(a) 10 years
(b) 12 years
(c) 15 years
(d) 16 years
Answer:
15 years

Question 4.
How many Articles are there in the United Nations Declaration of Human Rights?
(a) 30
(b) 20
(c) 40
(d) 50
Answer:
30

Question 5.
When was the Declaration of the Rights of Child proclaimed?
(a) 30th November 1959
(b) 20th November 1959
(c) 20th December 1959
(d) 30th December 1959
Answer:
20th November 1959

Question 6.
When was the first Earth Day celebrated?
(a) 21st April, 1970
(b) 22nd April, 1970
(c) 23rd April, 1970
(d) 20th April, 1970
Answer:
22nd April, 1970

Question 7.
What led to the boycott of the regime in South Africa?
(a) Expatriation of Prisoners of War
(b) Racial Segregation
(c) Disobedience of the UN
(d) Asylum to international terrorists
Answer:
Racial Segregation

Question 8.
Which conference in 1997 laid down the protocols for developed countries for prevention of climatic changes?
(a) Conference at Copenhagen
(b) Conference at Amsterdam
(c) Conference at Kyoto
(d) Conference at Shimla
Answer:
Conference at Kyoto

Question 9.
Which institute/organisation is responsible for taking action against violation of human rights?
(a) Self Help Groups and NGOs
(b) Human Rights Commission
(c) Corporate bodies
(d) National Investigation Agency
Answer:
Human Rights Commission

State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons:

Question 1.
Human rights are necessary for living as a human being.
Answer:
True.
The concept of human rights has emerged from the concept of natural rights. Natural rights are those rights that we are endowed with because we are bom as human beings. In the same vein, human rights are those rights that are necessary for living as a human being.

Question 2.
The scope of human rights is limited.
Answer:
False.
The scope of human rights has in fact, broadened due to several issues of global nature like contagious diseases, the threat to environment, natural disasters, etc. Human rights today also include goals like protection of the environment and sustainable development.

Question 3.
Only internal security is threatened due to terrorist attacks.
Answer:
False.
The aim of a terrorist attack is not to endanger the geographical boundaries, but to challenge a regime in a country or refuse to acknowledge the existence of the State. This means that due to increasing terrorism, the internal security of a country is threatened in addition to its external security.

Question 4.
Once the refugees reach a safe place, they have new challenges.
Answer:
True.
Once the refugees reach a safe place, they need to find work, a place to live and other problems of a day to day nature. If the language and culture in the other nation are different, then adjusting to that poses difficulties. There is also no assurance that the people of a nation which gives shelter to the refugees will accept them.

Explain the concept:

Question 1.
Human Rights
Answer:
The concept of human rights has emerged from the concept of natural rights. Natural rights are those rights that we are endowed with because we are born as human beings. Human rights are those rights that are necessary for living as a human being and as a constituent of society.

Question 2.
Refugees
Answer:
People who have to leave their motherland against their wishes or are forced to go to other nations, seeking refuge or for security are called as refugees. People become refugees due to torture or persecution for belonging to a particular race or religion, due to war or a disaster, etc. In such situations people are forced to leave their own country and seek shelter in another country.

Question 3.
Terrorism
Answer:
Terrorism is spreading fear and terror in a society by using or threatening to use violence against common and innocent people for achieving political goals. Terrorism can be described as organised and planned violence.

Question 4.
Traditional War
Answer:
Traditional war is a conflict between two or more sovereign states. In such wars, the geographical boundaries between nations acquire importance, i.e. national security is connected with geographical boundaries.

Question 5.
Stockholm Conference 1972.
Answer:
(i) In order to discuss the immediate and long term problems related to the environment and to find solutions on them, a United Nations Conference on human environment was called at Stockholm from 5th to 16th June, 1972.

(ii) It was stressed that it is the responsibility of all nations to cooperate to overcome pollution.

(iii) The developing nations feel that the developed nations are more responsible for the decline of the environment and they should take the responsibility for stopping the decline.

(iv) Non-governmental organisations working in the field of environmental protection were also present and assumed a bigger role in the decision making process at international conferences regarding the environment.

(v) The issue of the protection of the common global wealth was raised.

(vi) A consensus emerged that it was the responsibility of all the nations to protect these resources.

(vii) It was after this conference that the United Nations created the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).

(viii) Many international treaties about environment were signed after this conference.

(ix) Several rules were made about the protection of environment. Environmental movements started on a large scale at national as well as at the international level.

Complete the following Chart/Concept Maps:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
Which difficulties are faced by people who are forced to leave their own country?
Answer:
(i) When people of any country are forced to leave their own country as refugees, they have to face many problems.

(ii) The most important problem is to decide where to go. They have questions like will that nation give us shelter.

(iii) Secondly, they have to also take along with them other members of their family. It involves a lot of physical and emotional stress.

(iv) Apart from this, there are problems caused by natural elements like heat, rain, storms, as well as shortages of food, sickness, an enemy in pursuit, etc. In this process, many people lose their lives.

Question 2.
What was the Stockholm Conference of 1972 about?
Answer:
In order to discuss the immediate and long-term problems related to the environment and to find solutions to them, a United Nations Conference on human-environment was called at Stockholm from 5th to 16th June 1972.

Question 3.
What are the new challenges faced by refugees on reaching a safe place?
Answer:
(i) Once the refugees reach a safe place, they have new challenges. They need to find work, a place to live and other problems of a day to day nature.

(ii) If the language and culture in the other nation are different, then adjusting to that poses difficulties. There is no assurance that the people in the nation which gives shelter to the refugees will accept them.

Question 4.
What did the Environmental Conference of Rio (1992) emphasise on?
Answer:
(i) In this conference, the idea of sustainable development was stressed upon.

(ii) Different treaties regarding bio-diversity, climate change due to greenhouse gases, protection of forests, etc. were signed.

Question 5.
State the highlights of the conference on climatic change at Paris (2015).
Answer:
(i) A conference on climate change was held at Paris in November 2015.

(ii) An appeal was made in this conference that all nations should make concerted efforts to stop climate change and global warming and that the developed countries should help the developing countries to acquire the technology to achieve these goals.

Question 6.
What measures have been taken so far to save the refugees?
Answer:
(i) In 1951, some provisions were made regarding the question of refugees at the international level. One such provision was that the refugees will not be forcefully sent back to their country against their wishes.

(ii) Similarly an office of the High Commissioner of the United Nations has been established to solve their problems.

Question 7.
Give some examples of refugees.
Answer:
(i) Before the Second World War, the Jews were tortured in Germany.

(ii) Their citizenships and properties were confiscated. Due to this, the Jews became refugees.

(iii) In 1971, the people in East Pakistan turned refugees and came to India seeking refuge due to political and religious persecution.

(iv) In the last few years due to the war-like situation in Iraq and Syria, a lot of people are leaving Syria as refugees. We can cite many such example of refugees.

Question 8.
Which problems are faced by the host nation that agrees to provide shelter to the refugees?
Answer:
(i) As the number of refugees increases, the strain on the economy of the host nation increases. A shortage of essential goods is created; there may be an increase in crime or even inflation.

(ii) The locals may lose their jobs; a problem of law and order may crop up. Many such problems may emerge.

(iii) Due to these problems, many nations are not ready to give shelter to refugees and to resettle them.

Question 9.
Which steps can be taken for preservation of human rights?
Answer:
(i) If all nations safeguarded and fostered human rights, exploitation and violence would reduce. All people would be able to achieve their own development safely and securely.

(ii) Human rights could be more effectively implemented if the environment is safeguarded and if terrorism is completely wiped out.

(iii) No group of people will have to become refugees. For this, all nations have to come together, cooperate with each other, take concrete action and bring about actual change.

Question 10.
Many nations are not ready to give shelter to refugees. Why?
Answer:
Many nations are not prepared to give shelter to refugees because:

• As the number of refugees increases, the strain on the economy of the host nation increases.
• A shortage of essential goods is created; there may be an increase in crime or even inflation.
• The locals may lose their jobs; a problem of law and order may crop up.
• Many such problems may emerge.

Question 11.
The problems relating to the environment are inherently of a global nature. How?
Answer:
(i) The threat to the environment caused by pollution or by leakage of oil or gas does not remain restricted to one nation.

(ii) The visible effects of the decline of environment are extinction of species of plants and animals, decrease in the fertility of soil, water shortage, fluctuation in the proportion of rainfall, global warming, drying up of rivers and lakes, pollution of rivers and seas, incidence of newer diseases, acid rain, thinning of the ozone layer, etc.

(iii) Even if some of the effects are restricted to particular nations, these problems reach global proportions due to their long term effects, while some problems are inherently of a global nature.

Question 12.
How is terrorist war different from traditional war?
Answer:
(i) Terrorist conflict is different from traditional war.

(ii) Traditional war is a conflict between two or more sovereign states.

(iii) In such wars, the geographical boundaries between nations acquire importance, i.e. national security is connected with geographical boundaries.

(iv) On the other hand, in the case of terrorism, terrorist groups can cause violence in any part of the world from anywhere in the world.

(v) The aim of a terrorist attack is not to endanger the geographical boundaries, but to challenge a regime in a country or refuse to acknowledge the existence of the state.

9th Std Political Science Questions And Answers:

• Post World War Political Developments Class 9 Political Science Questions And Answers
• India’s Foreign Policy Class 9 Political Science Questions And Answers
• India’s Defence System Class 9 Political Science Questions And Answers
• The United Nations Class 9 Political Science Questions And Answers
• India and Other Countries Class 9 Political Science Questions And Answers
• International Problems Class 9 Political Science Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 10 Changing Life 2 Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Changing Life 2 Class 9 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Class 9 History Chapter 10 Changing Life 2 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

History Class 9 Chapter 10 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. Choose the proper option and rewrite the completed sentences:

Question 1.
India won the cricket world cup under the captainship of ______.
(a) Sunil Gavaskar
(b) Kapil Dev
(c) Sayyad Kirmani
(d) Sandip Patil
Answer:
(b) Kapil Dev

Question 2.
The _____ language is gaining importance in India due to the process of globalisation.
(a) Punjabi
(b) French
(c) English
(d) Hindi
Answer:
(c) English

2. Complete the information in the following table:

Question 1.

(1)	Important languages in India	…………
(2)	Players who have won medals at the Olympic games	……………
(3)	Childrens’ movies that you have seen	……………
(4)	Names of channels telecasting various news bulletins	……………..

Answer:

(1)	Important languages in India	Marathi, Hindi, Gujarati
(2)	Players who have won medals at the Olympic games	Karnam Malleswari, Abhinav Bindra, P.V. Sindhu
(3)	Childrens’ movies that you have seen	The Lion King, Minions, Finding Nemo etc.
(4)	Names of channels telecasting various news bulletins	DD News, CNN, ABP News

3. Give reasons for the following statements:

Question 1.
Cricket began to be played all over India, to a greater or smaller extent.
Answer:
Cricket began to be played all over India, to a greater or smaller extent because:-

• In 1983, the Indian team won the World Cup for cricket, under the captainship of Kapil Dev. It was a historic victory.
• Cricket instantly won great popularity across the country.
• In the same year, Sunil Gavaskar broke the earlier record of maximum centuries in test cricket.
• In 1985, India won the ‘Benson and Hedges’ World Championship of cricket. As a result, cricket came to be played in all States to a lesser or greater extent, but at the cost of indigenous Indian games.

Question 2.
The economy of movies is changing.
Answer:
(i) Movies in foreign languages are now translated. Even during the screening of English movies, a short Hindi translation now appears on the screen as sub-titles.

(ii) Hindi movies now compete with ‘global’ movies as they have reached every nook and comer of the world. We see a reflection of politics, social events, industry and technology in the movies.

(iii) Movies which were 3-4 hours long are now of only one or one and a half hours. Moreover, the concept of one screen and one cinema hall has given way to multiplexes.

(iv) The days of a movie running for 100 weeks in one cinema hall are over. Now one movie runs in thousands of cinema halls in India and abroad simultaneously.

(v) This development has changed the economy of movies. Production of movies has attained the status of industry.

(vi) The industry now employs crores of people. The movie industry in regional languages is also thriving.
Therefore the economy of movies is changing.

4. Answer the following questions in 25-30 words:

Question 1.
Why is it necessary to keep alive the dialects of Indian languages?
Answer:
(i) Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannad, Kashmiri, Malayalam, Marathi, Odiya, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu, Konkani,
Manipuri, Nepali and Sindhi are the official languages in India.
(ii) These Indian languages also have dialects, but their number is now on the decline.
(iii) Timely steps should be taken to nurture them, otherwise we will lose an important part of our heritage.
(iv) Nevertheless, Hindi, which has reached everywhere through the medium of Hindi movies, has served to unite the country by language.

Question 2.
Elaborate upon the changing scope of newspapers.
Answer:
(i) During early post-independence period, the newspapers were expected to not only give the news of daily events, but also give impetus to industry and commerce by printing advertisements.

(ii) Earlier, newspapers were black and white. With the changing times, colour printing became common.

(iii) Earlier, newspapers were thought to be the mouthpieces of the taluka or district. Now they have to face tough competition from the State level newspaper chains. But on the whole, newspapers are now becoming more active.

(iv) Their scope has enlarged to include raising funds for drought affected and flood affected people, helping meritorious students from lower income groups to go for higher education and organizing or sponsoring cultural programmes. This is how newspapers have now become an inseparable part of our lives.

Question 3.
What changes have taken place in the medium of television?
Answer:
(i) Television came to India during the post-independence period. Earlier it was black and white. Now it is coloured. Earlier it was limited to some selected programmes and fixed time-slots.

(ii) Gradually its scope was enlarged to include educational programmes, news bulletins, detailed reporting of the tours of the President and the Prime Minister.

(iii) During the telelcast of Ramayana and Mahabharat, a majority of the people used to sit glued to the television set. These serials proved the popularity of this medium. Then in 1991, CNN channel showed to the entire world a live visual reporting of the Iraq war.

(iv) In 1998, STAR (Satellite Television Asia Region) a private media house entered India, and the uninteresting, monotonous and propagandist news telecasts of the early period underwent a sea change.

(v) The language, the technique of presentation, studios equipped with the latest technology and the use of OB (outdoor broadcasting) vans have expanded the scope of Indian T.V. channels still further, and brought in transparency and variety. Now, every nook and corner of the country is connected.

Class 9 History Chapter 10 Changing Life 2 Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
_____ won the national championship of billiards for teenagers at the age of 15.
(a) Milkha Singh
(b) Rafael Nadal
(c) Geet Sethi
(d) Prakash Padukone
Answer:
(c) Geet Sethi

Question 2.
In________ STAR (Satellite Television Asia Region) a private media house entered India.
(a) 1995
(b) 1996
(c) 1997
(d) 1998
Answer:
(d) 1998

Question 3.
In 1991, _______ showed to the entire world a live visual reporting of the Iraq War.
(a) CNN
(b) CNBC
(c) HBO
(d) NDTV
Answer:
(a) CNN

Question 4.
The Kohima Radio station had to make its broadcast in __________ languages which included English, Hindi and Naga dialects.
(a) 28
(b) 26
(c) 24
(d) 25
Answer:
(d) 25

Identify and write the wrong pair in the following sets:

Question 1.
(1) Karnam Malleshwari – Weight lifting
(ii) Sunil Gavaskar – Ace Indian Cricketer
(iii) CNN – Iraq War
(iv) Star Television – Sponsoring cultural programmes
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Star Television – Sponsoring cultural programmes

Question 2.
(i) Kapil Dev -1983 World Cup
(ii) Geet Sethi – Benson and Hedges
(iii) Karnam Malleshwari – First woman to win a medal at Olympics
(iv) Sunil Gavaskar – Maximum centuries in test cricket
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Geet Sethi – Benson and Hedges

Question 3.
(i) India won Cricket World Cup – 1983
(ii) Karnam Malleshwari won a medal at Olympics – 2000 ’
(iii) Live telecast of Iraq War -1991
(iv) Star T.V. entered India -1992
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Star T.V. entered India -1992

Do as directed:

Question 1.
Complete the following concept:

Answer:

Explain the statements with reason.

Question 1.
Hindi Movies have reached every nook and corner of the world.
Answer:
(i) In the field of entertainment, the place of Hindi movies is incomparable.
(ii) Now movies reflect contemporary themes. Film shooting locales have moved abroad.
(iii) So, viewers can now see many different places in foreign countries. Movies in foreign languages are now translated.
(iv) During the screening of English movies, a short Hindi translation now appears on the screen as sub-titles.
(v) Hindi movies now compete with ‘global’ movies as they have reached every nook and corner of the world.

Read the following passage and answer the questions:

Sports: During the pre-independence period, only a few selected games were known to people in general. Some sports persons changed this situation. This enhanced the status of both – the sports, and the sportspersons. For example, Geet Sethi achieved , global excellence in snooker, a variation of billiards. He won the national championship of billiards for teenagers at the age of 15. Later, he went on to win national and international championships. At the , global level, he won the amateur billiards competition thrice, and the professional one five times. His success made the game popular, and newspapers began to report news about billiards. Thus he made a new field available to rising sportspersons in India, It was in 1983, that the Indian team won the World , Cup for cricket, under the captainship of Kapil Dev. It was a historic victory. Cricket instantly won great , popularity across the country. In the same year, ‘Sunil Gavaskar broke the earlier record of maximum centuries in test cricket. In 1985, India won the ‘Benson and Hedges’ World Championship of cricket. As a , result, cricket came to be played in all States to a lesser or greater extent, but at the cost of indigenous Indian games. A few movies were also produced around the , theme of cricket. Live telecasts of the full five days or , one day of the matches also became available.
India had been participating in Asiad and Olympic of year 2000, Karnam Malleshwari won a medal for, weight-lifting. She was the first Indian woman to win , a medal at the Olympics. India’s representation began to rise in various Olympic games such as hockey, badminton, tennis, swimming, weightlifting and archery.

Question 1.
Which two cricket tournaments mentioned in the passage records a victory for India?
Answer:
World Cup 1983 and Benson and Hedges -1985 are the two tournaments mentioned in the passage that recorded victory for India.

Question 2.
Who was the first Indian woman to win a medal at the Olympics? Which sport did she represent?
Answer:
Karnam Malleshwari was the first Indian Women to win a medal for India at Olympic. She represented India in Women’s Weight Lifting.

Question 3.
Why do you think cricket has overshadowed other indigenous Indian Games?
Answer:
Cricket was introduced in India by the British. In the post independence period this game was mostly played by the elite. In times to come, cricket gained glamour and popularity across the nation gradually giving a setback to other indigenous games in India. Since cricketers received more professional coaching, funding and infrastructural facilities as compared to players of other games, it became inevitable that other games in India were overshadowed.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
Do you think English has threatened our indigenous languages? How?
Answer:
(i) Hindi, which has reached everywhere through the medium of Hindi movies, has served to unite the country by language.
(ii) However, English language has been gaining ground in India due to the process of globalisation which began after 1990.
(iii) English opens the doors to multiple job opportunities. Moreover, Indians are at the forefront in learning English.
(iv) However, it is necessary to ensure that this process does not endanger the very existence of regional languages.

Question 2.
Explain the contribution of Geet Sethi and Kamam Malleswari to the field of sports.
Answer:
(i) Geet Sethi:

• Geet Sethi achieved global excellence in snooker, a variation of billiards.
• He won the national championship of billiards for teenagers at the age of 15.
• Later, he went on to win national and international championships.
• At the global level, he won the amateur billiards competition thrice, and the professional one five times.
• His success made the game popular, and newspapers began to report news about billiards.

(ii) Karnam Malleswari: At the Olympics of the year 2000, Karnam Malleswari won a medal for weightlifting. She was the first Indian woman to win a medal at the Olympics.

9th Std History Questions And Answers:

• Sources of History Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• India: Events After 1960 Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• India’s Internal Challenges Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Economic Development Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Education Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Empowerment of Women and Other Weaker Sections Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Science and Technology Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Industry and Trade Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Changing Life 1 Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Changing Life 2 Class 9 History Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 3 India’s Defence System Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

India’s Defence System Class 9 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Class 9 Political Science Chapter 3 India’s Defence System Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Political Science Class 9 Chapter 3 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. Choose the right option and rewrite the sentence:

Question 1.
The ______ of India is the Commander-in-Chief of all the Defence forces.
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Defence Minister
(d) Governor
Answer:
(a) President

Question 2.
The ______ has the responsibility of protecting the coastline.
(a) Army
(b) Coast guard
(c) Border Security Force
(d) Rapid Action Force
Answer:
(b) Coast guard

Question 3.
The _______ has been established with the purpose of instilling among students the love of discipline and military training.
(a) Border Security Forces (BSF)
(b) Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF)
(c) National Cadet Corps (NCC)
(d) Rapid Action Force (RAF)
Answer:
(c) National Cadet Corps (NCC)

2. Explain with reasons whether the following statements are true or false:

Question 1.
It is necessary to end terrorism to ensure human security.
Answer:
True.

• The biggest challenge to human security is that of terrorism.
• Terrorism targets common, innocent people.
• It aims at creating terror or fear in their minds, so that they begin to feel insecure.
• Thus, in order to protect human security, it is necessary to put an end to terrorism.

Question 2.
Every nation creates a strong security system for itself.
Answer:
True.

• National Security is closely connected with geography because national security is more likely to be endangered by nations who are geographically closer.
• A nation must assess the threat to its geographical boundaries and the source of that threat.
• In order to keep this threat at bay, the nation has to increase its military might.
• The nation has to use modem technology to predict the threat, to build weapon systems and modernize and update the defence forces.

Question 3.
There are no issues of dispute between India and Pakistan.
Answer:
False.

• There are several disputes between India and Pakistan. For example, the Kashmir issue, disputes over river water sharing, the problem of infiltrations, dispute over the border, etc.
• India has continually tried to solve these issues through discussion and negotiations

3. Write short notes:

Question 1.
The functions of the Rapid Action Force
Answer:
The Rapid Action Force performs the task of bringing people’s lives to normalcy by moving in quickly in incidents of the threat to National Security such as bomb blasts or riots.

Question 2.
Human Security
Answer:
(i) In the Post – Cold War period, the concept of National Security changed and became broader. National Security is not just the security of the country but also of the people living in it, because security is ultimately for the people.

(ii) Hence; human security refers to human-centric thinking. In human security, it is expected that human beings should be protected from all sorts of dangers and they should be given the opportunities of education, health and development.

(iii) The concept of human security also includes the idea that a conducive environment should be created for everybody to live a respectable life by overcoming illiteracy, poverty, superstition, backwardness, etc. Human security necessitates the protection of the rights of minorities and weaker sections

Question 3.
Home Guards
Answer:
(i) This organisation was established in the pre-independence period. Citizens can join the Home Guards and assist in the defence of the country.

(ii) Any citizen, man or woman, between the age of 20 and 35 years can join the Home Guards.

(iii) This force has the following tasks: Maintain public security, supply of milk, water and other essential services during riots or strikes, to regulate traffic, to help people at the time of natural disasters like floods, earthquakes, etc.

4. Give your own opinion about:

Question 1.
Which of the forces related to India’s security would you like to join? Why?
Answer:
(i) If given a chance I would like to join the Indian Army.

(ii) India is surrounded by neighbours like Pakistan and China which have posed many threats to India’s territorial security through infiltration and cross-border terrorism.

(iii) The Arfny is thus the most challenging place to be, where service to protect the motherland would be valued the most.

(iv) The determination, discipline and patriotism which are intrinsic virtues of the Indian Army have always inspired me to do my bit for the nation.

(v) The training for physical fitness and the skills of various war operations can be best received through the Indian Army.

(vi) For these reasons I hold the Indian Army as the most sought after career and the ultimate destination of my life.

Question 2.
Give your views on the policy ‘Atoms for Peace’.
Answer:
(i) US nuclear policies had failed to prevent further nuclear proliferation, fuelled the arms race, suppressed the humanitarian benefits of civil nuclear technology and badly affected the development of the US nuclear industry.

(ii) In his “Atoms for Peace” speech of 1953, President Dwight D. Eisenhower captured the tensions and the ironies of the atomic age.

(iii) Eisenhower believed only nuclear preparedness offered protection; while nuclear weapons lead to war. Nuclear power offered progress and hope.

(iv) However, the motives behind Atoms for Peace extended beyond non-proliferation, arms control, and economic interests.

(v) Objective of the Eisenhower Administration was to set USA advantageously against USSR.

(vi) He envisaged to permit privatization and commercialization of fuel technologies, cooperation with foreign partners, and international nuclear commerce.

(vii) Ultimately, Atoms for Peace yielded billions of dollars in civil nuclear commerce for the US economy.

(viii) Atoms for Peace provided political cover for the biggest nuclear arms build-up in US history, and helped fuel the Cold War arms race.

5. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
What are the threats to National Security?
Answer:
(i) India’s security is not only threatened by outside powers, but also from within. It is not just the difference between external security and internal security that is important anymore.

(ii) Religion, regionalism, several rebellious movements based on ideology, race-ethnicity and economic inequality are creating instability. For example, the Naxalite movement is a threat to India’s internal security.

Question 2.
Write the functions of the Border Security Force.
Answer:
The Border Security Force performs tasks like:

• creating a sense of security in the minds of people living in areas near the border,
• preventing smuggling,
• patrolling the border, etc.

6. Do as directed:

Question 1.
Complete the table about security forces:

Name of the Security Forces	Functions	Chief	Name of the Present Chief
Army	………….	……….	………..
……….	………….	Admiral	………….
………….	Protection of India’s air space	…………….	…………..

Answer:

Name of the Security Forces	Functions	Chief	Name of the Present Chief
Army	Protection of geographical boundaries	General	Manoj Mukund Naravane
Navy	Protection of the coast line	Admiral	Karambir Singh
Air Force	Protection of India’s air space	Air Chief Marshall	Rakesh Kumar Sing Bhadavria

Question 2.

Answer:

Class 9 Political Science Chapter 3 India’s Defence System Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
The ______ forces are responsible for protection and security of important locations.
(a) Paramilitary Forces
(b) Research and Analysis Wing
(c) Central Bureau of Investigation
(d) Interpol
Answer:
(a) Paramilitary Forces

Question 2.
The Air Force is in charge of protecting India’s ______.
(a) Borders
(b) Coastline
(c) Airspace
(d) Mineral Resources
Answer:
(c) Airspace

Question 3.
The Indian Army is the world’s ____ largest army.
(a) Second
(b) Fifth
(c) Seventh
(d) Third
Answer:
(c) Seventh

Question 4.
The Chief of Navy is known as ________.
(a) Admiral
(b) General
(c) Marshall
(d) Brigadier
Answer:
(a) Admiral

Question 5.
The National Defence Academy is at ______.
(a) Pune
(b) Dehradun
(c) Mumbai
(d) Delhi
Answer:
(a) Pune

Question 6.
_______ are neither completely military forces nor completely civil forces.
(a) Border Security Forces
(b) Paramilitary Forces
(c) Coast Guards
(d) Home Guards
Answer:
(b) Paramilitary Forces

Question 7.
The biggest challenge to human security is that of ______.
(а) Pollution
(b) Terrorism
(c) Natural calamities
(d) Corruption
Answer:
(b) Terrorism

State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons:

Question 1.
Naxalite Movement is a threat to India’s internal security.
Answer:
True.

• India’s security is not only threatened by outside powers but also from within.
• It is not just the difference between external security and internal security that is important anymore.
• Example naxalite movement is a threat to internal security.

Question 2.
There are no training institutes in our country for military personnel.
Answer:
False.

• Many training institutes have been set up in our country.
• To train military personnel, so that they can perform their task.
• Example – National Defence Academy – Pune

Do as directed:

Question 1.
Complete the table about paramilitary forces.

Paramilitary Forces	Prime Functions
Rapid Action Force	……………
Border Security Force	……………
Coast Guards	……………..
Central Reserve Police Force	……………..
Home Guards	……………
National Cadet Corps	………….

Answer:

Paramilitary Forces	Prime Functions
Rapid Action Force	Bringing life to normalcy after contingencies like blasts and riots.
Border Security Force	Patrolling and securing borders.
Coast Guards	Protecting the Indian maritime borders and preventing smuggling along sea routes.
Central Reserve Police Force	Helps the administration in the states to maintain law and order.
Home Guards	Maintaining public security, essential supplies and services during natural disasters and regulating traffic.
National Cadet Corps	Instilling love of discipline and military training.

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
What kind of conflicts may arise among sovereign nations?
Answer:
(i) There are disputes among nations over boundaries or sometimes conflicts emerge among them over water sharing.

(ii) Some other reasons for conflict could be: not following the terms of international treaties, constantly competing against each other and the influx of refugees from neighbouring countries.

Question 2.
What does the Central Reserve Policy Force do?
Answer:
The Central Reserve Police Force helps the administration in various states to maintain law and order.

Question 3.
Describe the three major armed forces in India.
Answer:
(i) India’s security system includes the Army, the Navy and the Air Force, the three forces that defend the country.

(ii) The responsibility of protecting the geographical boundaries is on the Army, whereas the Navy protects the coastline.

(iii) The Air Force is in charge of protecting India’s air space.

(iv) The Ministry of Defence controls all the three forces.

(v) The Indian Army is very big. It is the world’s seventh-largest. Its Chief is known as the General.

(vi) The Chief of Navy is known as the Admiral, while the Chief of the Air Force is known as Air Chief Marshall. These three chiefs are appointed by the President.

Question 4.
Which measures have been taken to modernize India’s security system?
Answer:
(i) Many measures are taken so that all three defence forces in India’s security system are adequately modernized. For this, some research institutions have been set up.

(ii) Many training institutes have also been set up in our country to train the personnel of all ranks of our defence forces so that they can perform their task competently.

(iii) For example, the National Defence Academy (NDA) at Pune and the National Defence College (NDC) at Delhi, etc.

Question 5.
How do environmental issues threaten human security?
Answer:
(i) Pollution and other changes in the environment have threatened human life. Diseases like AIDS, Chikungunia, Swine flu and Ebola have presented a big challenge.

(ii) Protecting human beings from such diseases is also considered as a factor of human security.

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9th Std Political Science Questions And Answers:

• Post World War Political Developments Class 9 Political Science Questions And Answers
• India’s Foreign Policy Class 9 Political Science Questions And Answers
• India’s Defence System Class 9 Political Science Questions And Answers
• The United Nations Class 9 Political Science Questions And Answers
• India and Other Countries Class 9 Political Science Questions And Answers
• International Problems Class 9 Political Science Questions And Answers