Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Physics Textbook Solutions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves

1. Choose the correct option.

i) When an air column in a pipe closed at one end vibrates such that three nodes are formed in it, the frequency of its
vibrations are…….times the fundamental frequency.
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
Answer:
(D) 5

ii) If two open organ pipes of length 50 cm and 51 cm sounded together to produce 7 beats per second, the speed of sound is.
(A) 307 m/s
(B) 327m/s
(C) 350m/s
(D) 357m/s
Answer:
(D) 357m/s

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves

iii) The tension in a piano wire is increased by 25%. Its frequency becomes ….. times the original frequency.
(A) 0.8
(B) 1.12
(C) 1.25
(D) 1.56
Answer:
(B) 1.12

iv) Which of the following equations represents a wave travelling along the y-axis?
(A) x = A sin(ky – ωt)
(B) y = A sin(kx – ωt)
(C) y = A sin(ky) cos(ωt)
(D) y = A cos(ky)sin(ωt)
Answer:
(A) x = A sin(ky – ωt)

v) A standing wave is produced on a string fixed at one end with the other end free. The length of the string
(A) must be an odd integral multiple of λ/4.
(B) must be an odd integral multiple of λ/2.
(C) must be an odd integral multiple of λ.
(D) must be an even integral multiple ofλ.
Answer:
(A) must be an odd integral multiple of λ/4.

2. Answer in brief.

i) A wave is represented by an equation y = A sin (Bx + Ct). Given that the constants A, B, and C are positive, can you tell in which direction the wave is moving?
Answer:
The wave is travelling along the negative x-direction.

ii) A string is fixed at the two ends and is vibrating in its fundamental mode. It is known that the two ends will be at rest. Apart from these, is there any position on the string which can be touched so as not to disturb the motion of the string? What will be the answer to this question if the string is vibrating in its first and second overtones?
Answer:
Nodes are the points where the vibrating string can be touched without disturbing its motion.
When the string vibrates in its fundamental mode, the string vibrates in one loop. There are no nodes formed between the fixed ends. Hence, there is no point on the string which can be touched without disturbing its motion.

When the string vibrates in its first overtone (second harmonic), there are two loops of the stationary wave on the string. Apart from the two nodes at the two ends, there is now a third node at its centre. Hence, the string can be touched at its centre without disturbing the stationary wave pattern.

When the string vibrates in its second overtone (third harmonic), there are three loops of the stationary wave on the string. So, apart from the two end nodes, there are two additional nodes in between, at distances one-third of the string length from each end. Thus, now the string can be touched at these two nodes.

iii) What are harmonics and overtones?
Answer:
A stationary wave is set up in a bounded medium in which the boundary could be a rigid support (i.e., a fixed end, as for instance a string stretched between two rigid supports) or a free end (as for instance an air column in a cylindrical tube with one or both ends open). The boundary conditions limit the possible stationary waves and only a discrete set of frequencies is allowed.

The lowest allowed frequency, n1, is called the fundamental frequency of vibration. Integral multiples of the fundamental frequency are called the harmonics, the fundamental frequency being the fundamental or 2n1, the third harmonic is 3n1, and so on.

The higher allowed frequencies are called the overtones. Above the fundamental, the first allowed frequency is called the first overtone, the next higher frequency is the second overtone, and ‘so on. The relation between overtones and allowed harmonics depends on the system under consideration.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves

iv) For a stationary wave set up in a string having both ends fixed, what is the ratio of the fundamental frequency to the
second harmonic?
Answer:
The fundamental is the first harmonic. Therefore, the ratio of the fundamental frequency (n) to the second harmonic (n1) is 1 : 2.

v) The amplitude of a wave is represented by y = 0.2 sin 4π[\(\frac{t}{0.08}\) – \(\frac{x}{0.8}\)] in SI units. Find
(a) wavelength,
(b) frequency and
(c) amplitude of the wave. [(a) 0.4 m (b) 25 Hz (c) 0.2 m]
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves 10
y = 0.2 sin 2π[\(\frac{t}{0.04}\) – \(\frac{x}{0.4}\)]
Let us compare above equation with the equation of a simple harmonic progressive wave:
y = A sin 2π[\(\frac{t}{T}\) – \(\frac{x}{\lambda}\)] = 0.2 sin 2π[\(\frac{t}{0.04}\) – \(\frac{x}{0.4}\)]
Comparing the quantities on both sides, we get,
A = 0.2 m, T = 0.04 s, λ = 0.4 m
∴ (a) Wavelength (λ) = 0.4 m
(b) Frequency (n) = \(\frac{1}{T}\) = \(\frac{1}{0.04}\) = 25 Hz
(c) Amplitude (A) = 0.2 m

Question 3.
State the characteristics of progressive waves.
Answer:
Characteristics of a progressive wave :

  1. Energy is transmitted from particle to particle without the physical transfer of matter.
  2. The particles of the medium vibrate periodically about their equilibrium positions.
  3. In the absence of dissipative forces, every particle vibrates with the same amplitude and frequency, but differs in phase from its adjacent particles. Every particle lags behind in its state of motion compared to the one before it.
  4. A wave motion is doubly periodic, i.e., it is periodic in time and periodic in space.
  5. The velocity of propagation through a medium depends upon the properties of the medium.
  6. Progressive waves are of two types : transverse and longitudinal. In a transverse mechanical wave, the individual particles of the medium vibrate perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave. The progressively changing phase of the successive particles results in the formation of alternate crests and troughs that are periodic in space and time. In an em wave, the electric and magnetic fields oscillate in mutually perpendicular directions, perpendicular to the direction of propagation.
    In a longitudinal mechanical wave, the individual particles of the medium vibrate along the line of propagation of the wave. The progressively changing phase of the successive particles results in the formation of typical alternate regions of compressions and rarefactions that are periodic in space and time. Periodic compressions and rarefactions result in periodic pressure and density variations in the medium. There are no longitudinal em wave.
  7. A transverse wave can propagate only through solids, but not through liquids and gases while a longitudinal wave can propagate through any material medium.

Question 4.
State the characteristics of stationary waves.
Answer:
Characteristics of stationary waves :

  1. Stationary waves are produced by the interference of two identical progressive waves travelling in opposite directions, under certain conditions.
  2. The overall appearance of a standing wave is of alternate intensity maximum (displacement antinode) and minimum (displacement node).
  3. The distance between adjacent nodes (or antinodes) is λ/2.
  4. The distance between successive node and antinode is λ/4.
  5. There is no progressive change of phase from particle to particle. All the particles in one loop, between two adjacent nodes, vibrate in the same phase, while the particles in adjacent loops are in opposite phase.
  6. A stationary wave does not propagate in any direction and hence does not transport energy through the medium.
  7. In a region where a stationary wave is formed, the particles of the medium (except at the nodes) perform SHM of the same period, but the amplitudes of the vibrations vary periodically in space from particle to particle.

[Note : Since the nodes are points where the particles are always at rest, energy cannot be transmitted across a node. The energy of the particles within a loop remains localized, but alternates twice between kinetic and potential energy during each complete vibration. When all the particles are in the mean position, the energy is entirely kinetic. When they are in their extreme positions, the energy is entirely potential.]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves

Question 5.
Derive an expression for equation of stationary wave on a stretched string.
Answer:
When two progressive waves having the same amplitude, wavelength and speed propagate in opposite directions through the same region of a medium, their superposition under certain conditions creates a stationary interference pattern called a stationary wave.

Consider two simple harmonic progressive waves, of the same amplitude A, wavelength A and frequency n = ω/2π, travelling on a string stretched along the x-axis in opposite directions. They may be represented by
y1 = A sin (ωt – kx) (along the + x-axis) and … (1)
y2 = A sin (ωt + kx) (along the – x-axis) …. (2)
where k = 2π/λ is the propagation constant.

By the superposition principle, the resultant displacement of the particle of the medium at the point at which the two waves arrive simultaneously is the algebraic sum
y = y1 + y2 = A [sin (ωt – kx) + sin (ωt + kx)]
Using the trigonometrical identity,
sin C + sin D = 2 sin \(\left(\frac{C+D}{2}\right)\) cos \(\left(\frac{C-D}{2}\right)\),
y = 2A sin ωt cos (- kx)
= 2A sin ωt cos kx [∵ cos(- kx) = cos(kx)]
= 2A cos kx sin ωt … (3)
∴ y = R sin ωt, … (4)
where R = 2A cos kx. … (5)
Equation (4) is the equation of a stationary wave.

Question 6.
Find the amplitude of the resultant wave produced due to interference of two waves given as y1 = A1 sin ωt y2 = A2 sin (ωt + φ)
Answer:
The amplitude of the resultant wave produced due to the interference of the two waves is
A = \(\sqrt{A_{1}^{2}+2 A_{1} A_{2} \cos \varphi+A_{2}^{2}}\).

Question 7.
State the laws of vibrating strings and explain how they can be verified using a sonometer.
Answer:
The fundamental is the first harmonic. Therefore, the ratio of the fundamental frequency (n) to the second harmonic (n1) is 1 : 2.

Here, L = 3\(\frac{\lambda}{2}\)
∴ Wavelength, λ = \(\frac{2 L}{3}\) = \(\frac{2 \times 30}{3}\) = 20 cm.

Question 8.
Show that only odd harmonics are present in the vibrations of air column in a pipe closed at one end.
Answer:
Consider a narrow cylindrical pipe of length l closed at one end. When sound waves are sent down the air column in a cylindrical pipe closed at one end, they are reflected at the closed end with a phase reversal and at the open end without phase reversal. Interference between the incident and reflected waves under appropriate conditions sets up stationary waves in the air column.

The stationary waves in the air column in this case are subject to two boundary conditions that there must be a node at the closed end and an antinode at the open end.

Taking into account the end correction e at the open end, the resonating length of the air column is L = l + e.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves 20

Let v be the speed of sound in air. In the simplest mode of vibration, there is a node at the closed end and an antinode at the open end. The distance between a node and a consecutive anti-node is \(\frac{\lambda}{4}\), where λ is the wavelength of sound. The corresponding wavelength λ and frequency n are
λ = 4L and n = \(\frac{v}{\lambda}\) = \(\frac{v}{4 L}\) = \(\frac{v}{4(l+e)}\) …… (1)
This gives the fundamental frequency of vibration and the mode of vibration is called the fundamental mode or first harmonic.

In the next higher mode of vibration, the first overtone, two nodes and two antinodes are formed. The corresponding wavelength λ1 and frequency n1 are
λ1 = \(\frac{4 L}{3}\) and n1 = \(\frac{v}{\lambda_{1}}\) = \(\frac{3 v}{4 L}\) = \(\frac{3 v}{4(l+e)}\) = 3n … (2)
Therefore, the frequency in the first overtone is three times the fundamental frequency, i.e., the first overtone is the third harmonic.

In the second overtone, three nodes and three antinodes are formed. The corresponding wavelength λ2 and frequency n2 are
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves 30
which is the fifth harmonic.
Therefore, in general, the frequency of the pth overtone (p = 1, 2, 3, ,..) is
np = (2p + 1)n … (4)
i.e., the pth overtone is the (2p + 1)th harmonic.

Equations (1), (2) and (3) show that allowed frequencies in an air column in a pipe closed at one end are n, 3n, 5n, …. That is, only odd harmonics are present as overtones.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves

Question 9.
Prove that all harmonics are present in the vibrations of the air column in a pipe open at both ends.
Answer:
Consider a cylindrical pipe of length l open at both the ends. When sound waves are sent down the air column in a cylindrical open pipe, they are reflected at the open ends without a change of phase. Interference between the incident and reflected waves under appropriate conditions sets up stationary waves in the air column.

The stationary waves in the air column in this case are subject to the two boundary conditions that there must be an antinode at each open end.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves 35
Taking into account the end correction e at each of the open ends, the resonating length of the air column is L = l + 2e.

Let v be the speed of sound in air. In the simplest mode of vibration, the fundamental mode or first harmonic, there is a node midway between the two antinodes at the open ends. The distance between two consecutive antinodes is λ/2, where λ is the wavelength of sound. The corresponding wavelength λ and the fundamental frequency n are
λ = 2L and n = \(\frac{v}{\lambda}\) = \(\frac{v}{2 L}\) = \(\frac{v}{2(l+2 e)}\) …. (1)

In the next higher mode, the first overtone, there are two nodes and three antinodes. The corresponding wavelength λ1 and frequency n1
λ1 = L and n1 = \(\frac{v}{\lambda_{1}}\) = \(\frac{v}{L}\) = \(\frac{v}{(l+2 e)}\) = 2n …. (2)
i.e., twice the fundamental. Therefore, the first overtone is the second harmonic.

In the second overtone, there are three nodes and four antinodes. The corresponding wavelength λ2 and frequency n2 are
λ2 = \(\frac{2 L}{3}\) and n2 = \(\frac{v}{\lambda_{2}}\) = \(\frac{3v}{2L}\) = \(\frac{3 v}{2(l+2 e)}\) = 3n …. (3)
or thrice the fundamental. Therefore, the second overtone is the third harmonic.

Therefore, in general, the frequency of the pth overtone (p = 1, 2, 3, …) is
np = (p + 1)n … (4)
i.e., the pth overtone is the (p + 1)th harmonic.
Equations (1), (2) and (3) show that allowed frequencies in an air column in a pipe open at both ends are n, 2n, 3n, …. That is, all the harmonics are present as overtones.

Question 10.
A wave of frequency 500 Hz is travelling with a speed of 350 m/s.
(a) What is the phase difference between two displacements at a certain point at times 1.0 ms apart?
(b) what will be the smallest distance between two points which are 45º out of phase at an instant of time?
[Ans : π, 8.75 cm ]
Answer:
Data : n = 500 Hz, v = 350 m/s
D = n × λ
∴ λ = \(\frac{350}{500}\) = 0.7 m
(a) in t = 1.0 ms = 0.001 s, the path difference is the distance covered v × t = 350 × 0.001 = 0.35 m
∴ Phase difference = \(\frac{2 \pi}{\lambda}\) × Path difference
= \(\frac{2 \pi}{0.7}\) × 0.35 = π rad

(b) Phase difference = 45° = \(\frac{\pi}{4}\) rad
∴ Path difference = \(\frac{\lambda}{2 \pi}\) × Phase difference
= \(\frac{0.7}{2 \pi}\) × \(\frac{\pi}{4}\) = 0.0875 m

Question 11.
A sound wave in a certain fluid medium is reflected at an obstacle to form a standing wave. The distance between two successive nodes is 3.75 cm. If the velocity of sound is 1500 m/s, find the frequency. [Ans : 20 kHz]
Answer:
Data : Distance between two successive nodes =
\(\frac{\lambda}{2}\) = 3.75 × 10-2 m, v = 1500 m/s
∴ λ = 7.5 × 10-2m
v = n × λ
∴ n = \(\frac{1500}{7.5 \times 10^{-2}}\) = 20 kHz

Question 12.
Two sources of sound are separated by a distance 4 m. They both emit sound with the same amplitude and frequency (330 Hz), but they are 180º out of phase. At what points between the two sources, will the sound intensity be maximum? (Take velocity of sound to be 330 m/s) [Ans: ± 0.25, ± 0.75, ± 1.25 and ± 1.75 m from the point at the center]
Answer:
∴ λ = \(\frac{v}{n}\) = \(\frac{330}{330}\) = 1 m
Directly at the cenre of two sources of sound, path difference is zero. But since the waves are 180° out of phase, two maxima on either sides should be at a distance of \(\frac{\lambda}{4}\) from the point at the centre. Other
maxima will be located each \(\frac{\lambda}{2}\) further along.
Thus, the sound intensity will be maximum at ± 0.25, ± 0.75, ± 1.25, ± 1.75 m from the point at the centre.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves

Question 13.
Two sound waves travel at a speed of 330 m/s. If their frequencies are also identical and are equal to 540 Hz, what will be the phase difference between the waves at points 3.5 m from one source and 3 m from the other if the sources are in phase? [Ans : 1.636 π]
Answer:
Data : v = 330 m/s, n1 = n2 = 540 Hz
v = n × λ
∴ λ = \(\frac{330}{540}\) = 0.61 m
Here, the path difference = 3.5 – 3 m = 0.5 m
Phase difference = \(\frac{2 \pi}{\lambda}\) × Path difference
= \(\frac{2 \pi}{0.61}\) × 0.5 = 1.64π rad

Question 14.
Two wires of the same material and same cross-section are stretched on a sonometer. One wire is loaded with 1.5 kg and another is loaded with 6 kg. The vibrating length of first wire is 60 cm and its fundamental frequency of vibration is the same as that of the second wire. Calculate vibrating length of the other wire. [Ans: 1.2 m]
Answer:
Data : m1 = m2 = m, L1 = 60 cm = 0.6 m, T1 = 1.5 kg = 14.7 N, T2 = 6 kg = 58.8 N
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves 39
The vibrating length of the second wire is 1.2 m.

Question 15.
A pipe closed at one end can produce overtones at frequencies 640 Hz, 896 Hz and 1152 Hz. Calculate the fundamental
frequency. [Ans: 128 Hz]
Answer:
The difference between the given frequencies of the overtones is 256 Hz. This implies that they are consecutive overtones. Let nC be the fundamental frequency of the closed pipe and nq, nq-1, nq-1 = the frequencies of the qth, (q + 1)th and (q + 2)th consecutive overtones, where q is an integer.

Data : nq = 640 Hz, nq-1 = 896 Hz, nq+2 = 1152 Hz
Since only odd harmonics are present as overtones, nq = (2q +1) nC
and nq+1 = [2(q + 1) + 1] nC = (2q + 3) nC
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves 40
∴ 14q + 7 = 10q + 15 ∴ 4q = 8 ∴ q = 2
Therefore, the three given frequencies correspond to the second, third and fourth overtones, i.e., the fifth, seventh and ninth harmonics, respectively.
∴ 5nC = 640 ∴ bC = 128Hz

Question 16.
A standing wave is produced in a tube open at both ends. The fundamental frequency is 300 Hz. What is the length
of tube in the fundamental mode? (speed of the sound = 340 m s-1). [Ans: 0.5666 m]
Answer:
Data : For the tube open at both the ends, n = 300 Hz and v = 340 m / s Igonoring end correction, the fundamental frequency of the tube is
n = \(\frac{v}{2 L}\) ∴ L = \(\frac{v}{2 n}\) = \(\frac{340}{2 \times 300}\) = 0.566m
The length of the tube open at both the ends is 0.5667 m.

Question 17.
Find the fundamental, first overtone and second overtone frequencies of a pipe, open at both the ends, of length 25 cm if the speed of sound in air is 330 m/s. [Ans: 660 Hz, 1320 Hz, 1980 Hz]
Answer:
Data : Open pipe, ∠25 cm = 0.25 m, v = 330 m / s
The fundamental frequency of an open pipe ignoring end correction,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves 55
Since all harmonics are present as overtones, the first overtone is, n1 = 2n0 = 2 × 660 = 1320 Hz
The second overtone is n2 = 3n = 3 × 660 = 1980 Hz

Question 18.
A pipe open at both the ends has a fundamental frequency of 600 Hz. The first overtone of a pipe closed at one end has the same frequency as the first overtone of the open pipe. How long are the two pipes? (Take velocity of sound to be 330 m/s) [Ans : 27.5 cm, 20.625 cm]
Answer:
Data : Open pipe, no = 600 Hz, nC, 1 = no, 1 (first overtones)
For an open pipe, the fundamental frequency,
no = \(\frac{v}{2 L_{O}}\)
∴ The length of the open pipe is
L0 = \(\frac{v}{2 n_{O}}\) = \(\frac{330}{2 \times 600}\) = 0.275 m
For the open pipe, the frequency of the first overtone is
2n0 = 2 × 600 = 1200 Hz
For the pipe closed at one end, the frequency of the first overtone is \(\frac{3 v}{L_{O}}\).
By the data, \(\frac{3 v}{4 L}\) = 1200
∴ LC = \(\frac{3 \times 330}{4 \times 1200}\) = 0.206 m
The length of the pipe open at both ends is 27.5 cm

Question 19.
A string 1m long is fixed at one end. Transverse vibrations of frequency 15 Hz are imposed at the free end. Due to this, a stationary wave with four complete loops, is produced on the string. Find the speed of the progressive wave which produces the stationary wave.[Hint: Remember that the free end is an antinode.] [Ans: 6.67 m s-1]
Answer:
Data : L = 1 m, n = 15 Hz.
The string is fixed only at one end. Hence, an antinode will be formed at the free end. Thus, with four and half loops on the string, the length of the string is
L = \(\frac{\lambda}{4}\) + 4\(\left(\frac{\lambda}{2}\right)\) = \(\frac{9}{4}\)λ
∴ λ = \(\frac{4 L}{9}\) = \(\frac{4}{9}\) × 1 = \(\frac{4}{9}\) m
v = nλ
∴ Speed of the progressive wave
v = 15 × \(\frac{4}{9}\) = \(\frac{60}{9}\) =6.667m/s

Question 20.
A violin string vibrates with fundamental frequency of 440Hz. What are the frequencies of first and second overtones? [Ans: 880 Hz, 1320 Hz]
Answer:
Data: n =440Hz
The first overtone, n1 = 2n =2 × 400 = 880 Hz
The second overtone, n1 = 3n = 3 × 400 = 1320 Hz

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves

Question 21.
A set of 8 tuning forks is arranged in a series of increasing order of frequencies. Each fork gives 4 beats per second with the next one and the frequency of last for k is twice that of the first. Calculate the frequencies of the first and the last for k. [Ans: 28 Hz, 56 Hz]
Answer:
Data : n8 = 2n1, beat frequency = 4 Hz
The set of tuning fork is arranged in the increasing order of their frequencies.
∴ n2 = n1 + 4
n3 = n2 + 4 = n1 + 2 × 4
n4 = n3 + 4 = n1 + 3 × 4
∴ n8 = n7 + 4 = n1 + 7 × 4 = n1 + 28
Since n8 = 2n1,
2n1 = n1 + 28
∴ The frequency of the first fork, n1 = 28 Hz
∴ The frequency of the last fork,
n8 = n1 + 28 = 28 + 28 = 56 Hz

Question 22.
A sonometer wire is stretched by tension of 40 N. It vibrates in unison with a tuning fork of frequency 384 Hz. How
many numbers of beats get produced in two seconds if the tension in the wire is decreased by 1.24 N? [Ans: 12 beats]
Answer:
Data : T1 =40N, n1 = 384 Hz, T2 = 40 – 1.24 = 38.76 N
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves 60
∴ The number of beats produced in two seconds = 2 × 6 = 12

Question 23.
A sonometer wire of length 0.5 m is stretched by a weight of 5 kg. The fundamental frequency of vibration is 100 Hz. Calculate linear density of wire. [Ans: 4.9 × 10-3 kg/m]
Answer:
Data : L = 0.5 m, T = 5 kg = 5 × 9.8 = 49 N, n = 100 Hz
n = \(\frac{1}{2 L} \sqrt{\frac{T}{m}}\)
∴ Linear density, m = \(\frac{T}{4 L^{2} n^{2}}\)
= \(\frac{49}{4(0.5)^{2}(100)^{2}}\)
= 4.9 × 10-3 kg/m

Question 24.
The string of a guitar is 80 cm long and has a fundamental frequency of 112 Hz. If a guitarist wishes to produce a frequency
of 160 Hz, where should the person press the string? [Ans : 56 cm from one end]
Answer:
Data : L1 = 80 cm n1 = 112 Hz, n2 = 160 Hz
According to the law of length, n1L1 = n2L2.
∴ The vibrating length to produce the fundamental frequency of 160 Hz,
L2 = \(\frac{n_{1} L_{1}}{n_{2}}\) = \(\frac{112(80)}{160}\) = 56 cm

12th Physics Digest Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves Intext Questions and Answers

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 132)

Question 1.
What is the minimum distance between any two particles of a medium which always have the same speed when a sinusoidal wave travels through the medium ?
Answer:
When a sinusoidal wave travels through a medium the minimum distance between any two particles of the medium which always have the same speed is \(\frac{\lambda}{2}\).
Such particles are opposite in phase, i.e., their instantaneous velocities are opposite in direction.
[Note : The minimum distance between any two particles which have the same velocity is λ]

Do you know? (Textbook Page No. 140)

Question 1.
What happens if a simple pendulum is pulled aside and released ?
Answer:
If a simple pendulum is pulled aside and released, it oscillates freely about its equilibrium position at its natural frequency which is inversely proportional to the square root of its length and directly proportional to the square root of the acceleration of gravity at the place. These oscillations, called as free oscillations, are periodic and tautochronous if the displacement of its bob is small and the dissipative forces can be ignored.

Question 2.
What happens when a guitar string is plucked ?
Answer:
When a guitar string is plucked, two wave pulses of the same amplitude, frequency and phase move out from that point towards the fixed ends of the string where they get reflected. For certain ratios of wavelength to length of the string, these reflected pulses moving towards each other will meet in phase to form standing waves on the string. The vibrations of the string cause the air molecules to oscillate, forming sound waves that radiate away from the string. The frequency of the sound waves is equal to the frequency of the vibrating string. In general, the wavelengths of the sound waves and the waves on the string are different because their speeds in the two mediums are not the same.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 6 Superposition of Waves

Question 3.
Have you noticed vibrations in a drill machine or in a washing machine ? How do they differ from vibrations in the above two cases ?
Answer:
Vibrations in the body of a drill machine or that of a washing machine are forced vibrations induced by the vibrations of the motors of these machines. On the other hand, the oscillations of a simple pendulum or a guitar string are free oscillations, produced when they are disturbed from their equilibrium position and released.

Question 4.
A vibrating tuning fork of certain frequency is held in contact with a tabletop and its vibrations are noticed and then another vibrating tuning fork of different frequency is held on the tabletop. Are the vibrations produced in the tabletop the same for both the tuning forks ? Why ?
Answer:
No. Because the tuning forks have different frequencies, the forced vibrations in the tabletop differ both in frequency and amplitude. The tuning fork whose frequency is closer to a natural frequency of the tabletop induces forced vibrations of a larger amplitude.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 5 Oscillations

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Physics Textbook Solutions Chapter 5 Oscillations Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 5 Oscillations

1. Choose the correct option.

i) A particle performs linear S.H.M. starting from the mean position. Its amplitude is A and its time period is T. At the instance when its speed is half the maximum speed, its displacement x is
(A) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)A
(B) \(\frac{2}{\sqrt{3}}\)
(C) A/2
(D) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
Answer:
(A) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)A

ii) A body of mass 1 kg is performing linear S.H.M. Its displacement x (cm) at t (second) is given by x = 6 sin (100t + π/4). Maximum kinetic energy of the body is
(A) 36 J
(B) 9 J
(C) 27 J
(D) 18 J
Answer:
(D) 18 J

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 5 Oscillations

iii) The length of the second’s pendulum on the surface of the earth is nearly 1 m. Its length on the surface of the moon should be [Given: acceleration due to gravity (g) on the moon is 1/6 th of that on the earth’s surface]
(A) \(\frac{1}{6}\) m
(B) 6 m
(C) \(\frac{1}{36}\) m
(D) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{6}}\) m.
Answer:
(A) \(\frac{1}{6}\) m

iv) Two identical springs of constant k are connected, first in series and then in parallel. A metal block of mass m is suspended from their combination. The ratio of their frequencies of vertical oscillations will be in a ratio
(A) 1:4
(B) 1:2
(C) 2:1
(D) 4:1
Answer:
(B) 1:2

v) The graph shows the variation of displacement of a particle performing S.H.M. with time t. Which of the following statements is correct from the graph?
(A) The acceleration is maximum at time T.
(B) The force is maximum at time 3T/4.
(C) The velocity is zero at time T/2.
(D) The kinetic energy is equal to total energy at time T/4.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 5 Oscillations 1
Answer:
(B) The force is maximum at time 3T/4.

2. Answer in brief.

i) Define linear simple harmonic motion.
Answer:
Definition: Linear simple harmonic motion (SHM) is defined as the linear periodic motion of a body, in which the force (or acceleration) is always directed towards the mean position and its magnitude is proportional to the displacement from the mean position.
OR
A particle is said to execute linear SHM if the particle undergoes oscillations about a point of stable equilibrium, subject to a linear restoring force always directed towards that point and whose magnitude is proportional to the magnitude of the displacement of the particle from that point.
Examples: The vibrations of the tines (prongs) of a tuning fork, the oscillations of the needle of a sewing machine.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 5 Oscillations

ii) Using the differential equation of linear S.H.M, obtain the expression for
(a) velocity in S.H.M.,
(b) acceleration in S.H.M.
Answer:
The general expression for the displacement of a particle in SHM at time t is x = A sin (ωt + α) … (1)
where A is the amplitude, ω is a constant in a particular case and α is the initial phase.
The velocity of the particle is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 5 Oscillations 10
Equation (2) gives the velocity as a function of x.
The acceleration of the particle is
a = \(\frac{d v}{d t}\) = \(\frac{d}{d t}\) [Aω cos (ωt + α) J at at
∴ a = – ω2 A sin (ωt + α)
But from Eq. (1), A sin (ωt + α) = x
∴ a = -ω2x … (3)
Equation (3) gives the acceleration as a function of x. The minus sign shows that the direction of the acceleration is opposite to that of the displacement.

iii) Obtain the expression for the period of a simple pendulum performing S.H.M.
Answer:
An ideal simple pendulum is defined as a heavy point mass suspended from a rigid support by a weightless, inextensible and twistless string, and set oscillating under gravity through a small angle in a vertical plane.

In practice, a small but heavy sphere, called the bob, is used. The distance from the point of suspension to the centre of gravity of the bob is called the length of the pendulum.

Consider a simple pendulum of length L1 – suspended from a rigid support O. When displaced from its initial position of rest through a small angle θ in a vertical plane and released, it performs oscillations between two extremes, B and C, as shown in below figure. At B, the forces on the bob are its weight \(m \vec{g}\) and the tension \(\overrightarrow{F_{1}}\) in the string. Resolve \(m \vec{g}\) into two components : mg cos θ in the direction opposite to that of the tension and mg sin θ perpendicular to the string.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 5 Oscillations 20
mg cos θ balanced by the tension in the string. mg sin θ restores the bob to the equilibrium position.
Restoring force, F = – mg sin θ
If θ is small and expressed in radian,
sin θ \(\approx\) θ = \(\frac{\text { arc }}{\text { radius }}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{AB}}{\mathrm{OB}}\) = \(\frac{x}{L}\)
∴ F = – mgθ = -mg\(\frac{x}{L}\) …. (1)
Since m, g and L are constant,
F ∝ (-x) …. (2)

Thus, the net force on the bob is in the direction opposite to that of displacement x of the bob from its mean position as indicated by the minus sign, and the magnitude of the force is proportional to the magnitude of the displacement. Hence, it follows that the motion of a simple pendulum is linear SHM.
Acceleration, a = \(\frac{F}{m}\) = –\(\frac{g}{L}\)x … (3)
Therefore, acceleration per unit displacement
= |\(\frac{a}{x}\)| = \(\frac{g}{L}\) ….. (4)
Period of SHM,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 5 Oscillations 25
This gives the expression for the period of a simple pendulum.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 5 Oscillations

iv) State the laws of simple pendulum.
Answer:
The period of a simple pendulum at a given place is
T = 2π\(\sqrt{\frac{L}{g}}\)
where L is the length of the simple pendulum and g is the acceleration due to gravity at that place. From the above expression, the laws of simple pendulum are as follows :

(1) Law of length : The period of a simple pendulum at a given place (g constant) is directly proportional to the square root of its length.
∴ T ∝\(\sqrt{L}\)
(2) Law of acceleration due to gravity : The period of a simple pendulum of a given length (L constant) is inversely proportional to the square root of the acceleration due to gravity.
∴ T ∝ \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{g}}\)
(3) Law of mass : The period of a simple pendulum does not depend on the mass or material of the bob of the pendulum.
(4) Law of isochronism : The period of a simple pendulum does not depend on the amplitude of oscillations, provided that the amplitude is small.

v) Prove that under certain conditions a magnet vibrating in uniform magnetic field performs angular S.H.M.
Answer:
Consider a bar magnet of magnetic moment μ, suspended horizontally by a light twistless fibre in a region where the horizontal component of the Earth’s magnetic field is Bh. The bar magnet is free to rotate in a horizontal plane. It comes to rest in approximately the North-South direction, along Bh. If it is rotated in the horizontal plane by a small
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 5 Oscillations 30
displacement θ from its rest position (θ = 0), the suspension fibre is twisted. When the magnet is released, it oscillates about the rest position in angular or torsional oscillation.

The bar magnet experiences a torque \(\tau\) due to the field Bh. Which tends to restore it to its original orientation parallel to Bh. For small θ, this restoring torque is
\(\tau\) = – μBh sin θ = – μBhμ …. (1)

where the minus sign indicates that the torque is opposite in direction to the angular displacement θ. Equation (1) shows that the torque (and hence the angular acceleration) is directly proportional in magnitude of the angular displacement but opposite in direction. Hence, for small angular displacement, the oscillations of the bar magnet in a uniform magnetic field is simple harmonic.

Question 3.
Obtain the expression for the period of a magnet vibrating in a uniform magnetic field and performing S.H.M.
Answer:
Definition : Angular SHM is defined as the oscillatory motion of a body in which the restoring torque responsible for angular acceleration is directly proportional to the angular displacement and its direction is opposite to that of angular displacement.
The differential equation of angular SHM is
I\(\frac{d^{2} \theta}{d t^{2}}\) + cθ = 0 ….. (1)
where I = moment of inertia of the oscillating body, \(\frac{d^{2} \theta}{d t^{2}}\) = angular acceleration of the body when its angular displacement is θ, and c = torsion constant of the suspension wire,
∴ \(\frac{d^{2} \theta}{d t^{2}}\) + \(\frac{c}{I}\)θ = 0
Let \(\frac{c}{I}\) = ω2, a constant. Therefore, the angular frequency, ω = \(\sqrt{c / I}\) and the angular acceleration,
a = \(\frac{d^{2} \theta}{d t^{2}}\) = -ω2θ … (2)
The minus sign shows that the α and θ have opposite directions. The period T of angular SHM is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 5 Oscillations 80
This is the expression for the period in terms of torque constant. Also, from Eq. (2),
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 5 Oscillations 81

Question 4.
Show that a linear S.H.M. is the projection of a U.C.M. along any of its diameter.
Answer:
Consider a particle which moves anticlockwise around a circular path of radius A with a constant angular speed ω. Let the path lie in the x-y plane with the centre at the origin O. The instantaneous position P of the particle is called the reference point and the circle in which the particle moves as the reference circle.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 5 Oscillations 35
The perpendicular projection of P onto the y-axis is Q. Then, as the particle travels around the circle, Q moves to-and-fro along the y-axis. Line OP makes an angle α with the x-axis at t = 0. At time t, this angle becomes θ = ωt + α.
The projection Q of the reference point is described by the y-coordinate,
y = OQ = OP sin ∠OPQ, Since ∠OPQ = ωt + α, y = A sin(ωt + α)
which is the equation of a linear SHM of amplitude A. The angular frequency w of a linear SHM can thus be understood as the angular velocity of the reference particle.

The tangential velocity of the reference particle is v = ωA. Its y-component at time t is vy = ωA sin (90° – θ) = ωA cos θ
∴ vy = ωA cos (ωt + α)
The centripetal acceleration of the reference particle is ar = ω2A, so that its y-component at time t is ax = ar sin ∠OPQ
∴ ax = – ω2A sin (ωt + α)

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 5 Oscillations

Question 5.
Draw graphs of displacement, velocity and acceleration against phase angle, for a particle performing linear S.H.M. from (a) the mean position
(b) the positive extreme position. Deduce your conclusions from the graph.
Answer:
Consider a particle performing SHM, with amplitude A and period T = 2π/ω starting from the mean position towards the positive extreme position where ω is the angular frequency. Its displacement from the mean position (x), velocity (v) and acceleration (a) at any instant are
x = A sin ωt = A sin\(\left(\frac{2 \pi}{T} t\right)\) (∵ω = \(\frac{2 \pi}{T}\))
v = \(\frac{d x}{d t}\) = ωA cos ωt = ωA cos\(\left(\frac{2 \pi}{T} t\right)\)
a = \(\frac{d v}{d t}\) = -ω2 A sin ωt = – ω2A sin\(\left(\frac{2 \pi}{T} t\right)\) as the initial phase α = 0.
Using these expressions, the values of x, v and a at the end of every quarter of a period, starting from t = 0, are tabulated below.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 5 Oscillations 38
Using the values in the table we can plot graphs of displacement, velocity and acceleration with time.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 5 Oscillations 39
Conclusions :

  1. The displacement, velocity and acceleration of a particle performing linear SHM are periodic (harmonic) functions of time. For a particle starting at the mean position, the x-t and a-t graphs are sine curves. The v-t graph is a cosine curve.
  2. There is a phase difference of \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) radians between x and v, and between v and a.
  3. There is a phase difference of π radians between x and a.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 5 Oscillations 40

Consider a particle performing linear SHM with amplitude A and period T = 2π/ω, starting from the positive extreme position, where ω is the angular frequency. Its displacement from the mean position (x), velocity (y) and acceleration (a) at any instant (t) are
x = A cos ωt = A cos \(\left(\frac{2 \pi}{T} t\right)\) (∵ω = \(\frac{2 \pi}{T}\))
v = -ωA sin ωt = – ωA sin \(\left(\frac{2 \pi}{T} t\right)\)
a = -ω2A cos ωt = -ω2A cos \(\left(\frac{2 \pi}{T} t\right)\)
Using these expressions, the values of x, y and a at the end of every quarter of a period, starting from t = 0, are tabulated below.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 5 Oscillations 41
Using these values, we can plot graphs showing the variation of displacement, velocity and acceleration with time.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 5 Oscillations 42
Conclusions :

  1. The displacement, velocity and acceleration of a particle performing linear SHM are periodic (harmonic) functions of time. For a particle starting from an extreme position, the x-t and a-t graphs are cosine curves; the v-t graph is a sine curve.
  2. There is a phase difference of \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) radians between x and v, and between v and a.
  3. There is a phase difference of n radians between x and a.

Explanations :
(1) v-t graph : It is a sine curve, i.e., the velocity is a periodic (harmonic) function of time which repeats after a phase of 2π rad. There is a phase difference of π/2 rad between a and v.
v is minimum (equal to zero) at the extreme positions (i.e., at x = ± A) and v is maximum ( = ± ωA) at the mean position (x = 0).

(2) a-t graph : It is a cosine curve, i.e., the acceleration is a periodic (harmonic) function of time which repeats after a phase of 2π rad. There is a phase difference of π rad between v and a. a is minimum (equal to zero) at the mean position (x = 0) and a is maximum ( = \(\mp\)ω2A) at the extreme positions (x = ±A).
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 5 Oscillations 43

Question 6.
Deduce the expressions for the kinetic energy and potential energy of a particle executing S.H.M. Hence obtain the expression for total energy of a particle performing S.H.M and show that the total energy is conserved. State the factors on which total energy depends.
Answer:
Consider a particle of mass m performing linear SHM with amplitude A. The restoring force acting r on the particle is F = – kx, where k is the force constant and x is the displacement of the particle from its mean position.
(1) Kinetic energy : At distance x from the mean position, the velocity is
v = ω\(\sqrt{A^{2}-x^{2}}\)
where ω = \(\sqrt{k / m} .\) The kinetic energy (KE) of the particle is
KE = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mω2 (A2 – x2)
= \(\frac{1}{2}\)k(A2 – x2) … (1)
If the phase of the particle at an instant t is θ = ωt + α, where α is initial phase, its velocity at that instant is
v = ωA cos (ωt + α)
and its KE at that instant is
KE = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mv2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2A2 cos2(ωt + α) ….. (2)
Therefore, the KE varies with time as cos2 θ.

(2) Potential energy : The potential energy of a particle in linear SHM is defined as the work done by an external agent, against the restoring force, in taking the particle from its mean position to a given point in the path, keeping the particle in equilibirum.

Suppose the particle in below figure is displaced from P1 to P2, through an infinitesimal distance dx against the restoring force F as shown.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 5 Oscillations 45
The corresponding work done by the external agent will be dW = ( – F)dx = kx dx. This work done is stored in the form of potential energy. The potential energy (PE) of the particle when its displacement from the mean position is x can be found by integrating the above expression from 0 to x.
∴ PE = \(\int\)dW = \(\int_{0}^{x}\) kx dx = \(\frac{1}{2}\) kx2 … (3)
The displacement of the particle at an instant t being
x = A sin (wt + α)
its PE at that instant is
PE = \(\frac{1}{2}\)kx2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\)kA2 sin2(ωt + α) … (4)
Therefore, the PE varies with time as sin2θ.

(3) Total energy : The total energy of the particle is equal to the sum of its potential energy and kinetic energy.
From Eqs. (1) and (2), total energy is E = PE + KE
= \(\frac{1}{2}\)kx2 + \(\frac{1}{2}\)k(A2 – x2)
= \(\frac{1}{2}\)kx2 + \(\frac{1}{2}\)kA2 – \(\frac{1}{2}\)kx2
∴ E = \(\frac{1}{2}\)kA2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2A2 … (5)
As m is constant, ω and A are constants of the motion, the total energy of the particle remains constant (or its conserved).

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 5 Oscillations

Question 7.
Deduce the expression for period of simple pendulum. Hence state the factors on which its period depends.
Answer:
An ideal simple pendulum is defined as a heavy point mass suspended from a rigid support by a weightless, inextensible and twistless string, and set oscillating under gravity through a small angle in a vertical plane.

In practice, a small but heavy sphere, called the bob, is used. The distance from the point of suspension to the centre of gravity of the bob is called the length of the pendulum.

Consider a simple pendulum of length L1 – suspended from a rigid support O. When displaced from its initial position of rest through a small angle θ in a vertical plane and released, it performs oscillations between two extremes, B and C, as shown in below figure. At B, the forces on the bob are its weight \(m \vec{g}\) and the tension \(\overrightarrow{F_{1}}\) in the string. Resolve \(m \vec{g}\) into two components : mg cos θ in the direction opposite to that of the tension and mg sin θ perpendicular to the string.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 5 Oscillations 20
mg cos θ balanced by the tension in the string. mg sin θ restores the bob to the equilibrium position.
Restoring force, F = – mg sin θ
If θ is small and expressed in radian,
sin θ \(\approx\) θ = \(\frac{\text { arc }}{\text { radius }}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{AB}}{\mathrm{OB}}\) = \(\frac{x}{L}\)
∴ F = – mgθ = -mg\(\frac{x}{L}\) …. (1)
Since m, g and L are constant,
F ∝ (-x) …. (2)

Thus, the net force on the bob is in the direction opposite to that of displacement x of the bob from its mean position as indicated by the minus sign, and the magnitude of the force is proportional to the magnitude of the displacement. Hence, it follows that the motion of a simple pendulum is linear SHM.
Acceleration, a = \(\frac{F}{m}\) = –\(\frac{g}{L}\)x … (3)
Therefore, acceleration per unit displacement
= |\(\frac{a}{x}\)| = \(\frac{g}{L}\) ….. (4)
Period of SHM,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 5 Oscillations 25
This gives the expression for the period of a simple pendulum.

The period of a simple pendulum at a given place is
T = 2π\(\sqrt{\frac{L}{g}}\)
where L is the length of the simple pendulum and g is the acceleration due to gravity at that place. From the above expression, the laws of simple pendulum are as follows :

(1) Law of length : The period of a simple pendulum at a given place (g constant) is directly proportional to the square root of its length.
∴ T ∝\(\sqrt{L}\)
(2) Law of acceleration due to gravity : The period of a simple pendulum of a given length (L constant) is inversely proportional to the square root of the acceleration due to gravity.
∴ T ∝ \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{g}}\)

Question 8.
At what distance from the mean position is the speed of a particle performing S.H.M. half its maximum speed. Given path length of S.H.M. = 10 cm. [Ans: 4.33 cm]
Answer:
Data : v = \(\frac{1}{2}\)vmax, 2A = 10 cm
∴ A = 5 cm
v = ω\(\sqrt{A^{2}-x^{2}}\) and vmax = ωA
Since v = \(\frac{1}{2}\)vmax,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 5 Oscillations 50
This gives the required displacement.

Question 9.
In SI units, the differential equation of an S.H.M. is \(\frac{d^{2} x}{d t^{2}}\) = -36x. Find its frequency and period. Find its frequency and period.
[Ans: 0.9548 Hz, 1.047 s]
Answer:
\(\frac{d^{2} x}{d t^{2}}\) = -36x
Comparing this equation with the general equation,
\(\frac{d^{2} x}{d t^{2}}\) = -ω2x
We get, ω2 = 36 ∴ ω = 6 rad/s
ω = 2πf
∴ The frequency, f = \(\frac{\omega}{2 \pi}\) = \(\frac{6}{2(3.142)}\) = \(\frac{6}{6.284}\) = 0.9548 Hz
and the period, T = \(\frac{1}{f}\) = \(\frac{1}{0.9548}\) = 1.047 s

Question 10.
A needle of a sewing machine moves along a path of amplitude 4 cm with frequency 5 Hz. Find its acceleration \(\frac{1}{30}\)s after it has crossed the mean position. [Ans: 34.2 m/s2]
Answer:
Data : A = 4 cm = 4 × 10-2 m, f = 5Hz, t = \(\frac{1}{30}\)s
ω = 2πf = 2π (5) = 10π rad/s
Therefore, the magnitude of the acceleration,
|a| = ω2x = ω2A sin ωt
= (10π)2 (4 × 102)
= 10π2 sin \(\frac{\pi}{3}\) = 10 (9.872)(0.866) = 34.20 m/s2

Question 11.
Potential energy of a particle performing linear S.H.M is 0.1 π2 x2 joule. If mass of the particle is 20 g, find the frequency of S.H.M. [Ans: 1.581 Hz]
Answer:
Data : PE = 0.1 π2 x2 J, m = 20 g = 2 × 10-2 kg
PE = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2x2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\)m (4π2f2)x2
∴ \(\frac{1}{2}\)m(4π2f2)x2 = 0.1 π2 x2
∴ 2mf2 = 0.1 ∴ f2 = \(\frac{1}{20\left(2 \times 10^{-2}\right)}\) = 2.5
∴ The frequency of SHM is f = \(\sqrt{2.5}\) = 1.581 Hz

Question 12.
The total energy of a body of mass 2 kg performing S.H.M. is 40 J. Find its speed while crossing the centre of the path. [Ans: 6.324 cm/s]
Answer:
Data : m = 2 kg, E = 40 J
The speed of the body while crossing the centre of the path (mean position) is vmax and the total energy is entirely kinetic energy.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 5 Oscillations 60

Question 13.
A simple pendulum performs S.H.M of period 4 seconds. How much time after crossing the mean position, will the displacement of the bob be one third of its amplitude. [Ans: 0.2163 s]
Answer:
Data : T = 4 s, x = A/3
The displacement of a particle starting into SHM from the mean position is x = A sin ωt = A sin \(\frac{2 \pi}{T}\) t
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 5 Oscillations 61
∴ the displacement of the bob will be one-third of its amplitude 0.2163 s after crossing the mean position.

Question 14.
A simple pendulum of length 100 cm performs S.H.M. Find the restoring force acting on its bob of mass 50 g when the displacement from the mean position is 3 cm. [Ans: 1.48 × 10-2 N]
Answer:
Data : L = 100 cm, m = 50 g = 5 × 10-2 kg, x = 3 cm, g = 9.8 m/s2
Restoring force, F = mg sin θ = mgθ
= (5 × 10-2)(9.8)\(\left(\frac{3}{100}\right)\)
= 1.47 × 10-2 N

Question 15.
Find the change in length of a second’s pendulum, if the acceleration due to gravity at the place changes from 9.75
m/s2 to 9.80 m/s2. [Ans: Decreases by 5.07 mm]
Answer:
Data : g1 = 9.75 m/s2, g2 = 9.8 m/s2
Length of a seconds pendulum, L = \(\frac{g}{\pi^{2}}\)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 5 Oscillations 62
∴ The length of the seconds pendulum must be increased from 0.9876 m to 0.9927 m, i.e., by 0.0051 m.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 5 Oscillations

Question 16.
At what distance from the mean position is the kinetic energy of a particle performing S.H.M. of amplitude 8 cm, three times its potential energy? [Ans: 4 cm]
Answer:
Data : A = 8 cm, KE = 3 PE
KE = \(\frac{1}{2}\) (A2 – x2) and PE = \(\frac{1}{2}\)kx2
Given, KE = 3PE.
∴ \(\frac{1}{2}\)k(A2 – x2) = 3\(\left(\frac{1}{2} k x^{2}\right)\)
∴ A2 – x2 = 3x2 ∴ 4x2 = A2
∴ the required displacement is
x = ±\(\frac{A}{2}\) = ±\(\frac{8}{2}\) = ± 4 cm

Question 17.
A particle performing linear S.H.M. of period 2π seconds about the mean position O is observed to have a speed of \(b \sqrt{3}\) m/s, when at a distance b (metre) from O. If the particle is moving away from O at that instant, find the
time required by the particle, to travel a further distance b. [Ans: π/3 s]
Answer:
Data : T = 2πs, v = b\(\sqrt{3}\) m/s at x = b
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 5 Oscillations 63
∴ Assuming the particle starts from the mean position, its displacement is given by
x = A sin ωt = 2b sin t
If the particle is at x = b at t = t1,
b = 2b sint1 ∴ t1 = sin-1 \(\frac{1}{2}\) = \(\frac{\pi}{6}\)s
Also, with period T = 2πs, on travelling a further distance b the particle will reach the positive extremity at time t2 = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)s.
∴ The time taken to travel a further distance b from x = b is t2 – t1 = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) – \(\frac{\pi}{6}\) = \(\frac{\pi}{3}\)s.

Question 18.
The period of oscillation of a body of mass m1 suspended from a light spring is T. When a body of mass m2 is tied to the first body and the system is made to oscillate, the period is 2T. Compare the masses m1 and m2 [Ans: 1/3]
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 5 Oscillations 64
This gives the required ratio of the masses.

Question 19.
The displacement of an oscillating particle is given by x = asinωt + bcosωt where a, b and ω are constants. Prove that the particle performs a linear S.H.M. with amplitude A = \(\sqrt{a^{2}+b^{2}}\)
Answer:
x = asinωt + bcosωt
Let a = A cos φ and b = A sin φ, so that
A2 = a2 + b2 and tan φ = \(\frac{b}{a}\)
∴ x = A cos φ sin ωt + A sin φ cos ωt
∴ x = A sin (ωt + φ)
which is the equation of a linear SHM with amplitude A = \(\sqrt{a^{2}+b^{2}}\) and phase constant φ = tan-1 \(\frac{b}{a}\), as required.

Question 20.
Two parallel S.H.M.s represented by x1 = 5sin (4πt + \(\frac{\pi}{3}\)) cm and x2 = 3sin(4πt + π/4) cm are superposed on a particle. Determine the amplitude and epoch of the resultant S.H.M. [Ans: 7.936 cm, 54° 23′]
Answer:
Data: x1 = 5 sin (4πt + \(\frac{\pi}{3}\)) = A1 sin(ωt + α),
x2 = 3 sin (4πt + \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)) = A2 sin(ωt + β)
∴ A1 = 5 cm, A2 = 3 cm, α = \(\frac{\pi}{3}\) rad, β = \(\frac{\pi}{4}\) rad
(i) Resultant amplitude,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 5 Oscillations 65

(ii) Epoch of the resultant SHM,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 5 Oscillations 66

Question 21.
A 20 cm wide thin circular disc of mass 200 g is suspended to a rigid support from a thin metallic string. By holding the rim of the disc, the string is twisted through 60° and released. It now performs angular oscillations of period 1 second. Calculate the maximum restoring torque generated in the string under undamped conditions. (π3 ≈ 31)
[Ans: 0.04133 N m]
Answer:
Data: R = 10cm = 0.1 m, M = 0.2 kg, θm = 60° = \(\frac{\pi}{3}\) rad, T = 1 s, π3 ≈ 31
The Ml of the disc about the rotation axis (perperdicular through its centre) is
I = \(\frac{1}{2}\)MR2 = (0.2)(0.1)2 = 10-3 kg.m2
The period of torsional oscillation, T = 2π\(\sqrt{\frac{I}{c}}\)
∴ The torsion constant, c = 4πr2\(\frac{I}{T^{2}}\)
The magnitude of the maximum restoring torque,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 5 Oscillations 67

Question 22.
Find the number of oscillations performed per minute by a magnet is vibrating in the plane of a uniform field of 1.6 × 10-5 Wb/m2. The magnet has moment of inertia 3 × 10-6 kgm2 and magnetic moment 3 A m2. [Ans:38.19 osc/min.]
Answer:
Data : B = 1.6 × 10-5 T, I = 3 × 10-6kg/m2,
µ = 3 A.m2
The period of oscillation, T = 2π \(\sqrt{\frac{I}{\mu B_{\mathrm{h}}}}\)
∴ The frequency of oscillation is
f = \(\frac{1}{2 \pi}\)\(\sqrt{\frac{\mu B}{I}}\)
∴ The number of oscillations per minute
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 5 Oscillations 68
= 38.19 per minute

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 5 Oscillations

Question 23.
A wooden block of mass m is kept on a piston that can perform vertical vibrations of adjustable frequency and amplitude. During vibrations, we don’t want the block to leave the contact with the piston. How much maximum frequency is possible if the amplitude of vibrations is restricted to 25 cm? In this case, how much is the energy per unit mass of the block? (g ≈ π2 ≈ 10 m s-2)
[Ans: nmax = 1/s, E/m = 1.25 J/kg]
Answer:
Data : A = 0.25 m, g = π2 = 10 m/s2
During vertical oscillations, the acceleration is maximum at the turning points at the top and bottom. The block will just lose contact with the piston when its apparent weight is zero at the top, i. e., when its acceleration is amax = g, downwards.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 5 Oscillations 69
This gives the required frequency of the piston.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 5 Oscillations 70

12th Physics Digest Chapter 5 Oscillations of Waves Intext Questions and Answers

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 112)

Question 1.
Why is the term angular frequency (ω) used here for a linear motion?
Answer:
A linear SHM is the projection of a UCM on the diameter of the circle. The angular speed co of a particle moving along this reference circle is called the angular frequency of the particle executing linear SHM.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 114)

Question 1.
State at which point during an oscillation the oscillator has zero velocity but positive acceleration?
Answer:
At the left extreme, i.e., x = – A, so that a = – ω2x = – ω2(- A) = ω2A = amax

Question 2.
During which part of the simple harmonic motion velocity is positive but the displacement is negative, and vice versa?
Answer:
Velocity v is positive (to the right) while displacement x is negative when the particle in SHM is moving from the left extreme towards the mean position. Velocity v is negative (to the left) while displacement x is positive when the particle in SHM is moving from the right extreme towards the mean position.

Can you tell? (Textbook page 76)

Question 1.
To start a pendulum swinging, usually you pull it slightly to one side and release it. What kind of energy is transferred to the mass in doing this?
Answer:
On pulling the bob of a simple pendulum slightly to one side, it is raised to a slightly higher position. Thus, it gains gravitational potential energy.

Question 2.
Describe the energy changes that occur when the mass is released.
Answer:
When released, the bob oscillates in SHM in a vertical plane and the energy oscillates back and forth between kinetic and potential, going completely from one form of energy to the other as the pendulum oscillates. In the case of undamped SHM, the motion starts with all of the energy as gravitational potential energy. As the object starts to move, the gravitational potential energy is converted into kinetic energy, becoming entirely kinetic energy at the equilibrium position. The velocity becomes zero at the other extreme as the kinetic energy is completely converted back into gravitational potential energy,
and this cycle then repeats.

Question 3.
Is/are there any other way/ways to start the oscillations of a pendulum? Which energy is supplied in this case/cases?
Answer:
The bob can be given a kinetic energy at its equilibrium position or at any other position of its path. In the first case, the motion starts with all of the energy as kinetic energy. In the second case, the motion starts with partly gravitational potential energy and partly kinetic energy.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 109)

Question 1.
Is the motion of a leaf of a tree blowing in the wind periodic ?
Answer:
The leaf of a tree blowing in the wind oscillates, but the motion is not periodic. Also, its displacement from the equilibrium position is not a regular function of time.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Thermodynamics

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Physics Textbook Solutions Chapter 4 Thermodynamics Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Thermodynamics

1. Choose the correct option.

i) A gas in a closed container is heated with 10J of energy, causing the lid of the container to rise 2m with 3N of force. What is the total change in the internal energy of the system?
(A) 10J
(B) 4J
(C) -10J
(D) – 4J
Answer:
(B) 4J

ii) Which of the following is an example of the first law of thermodynamics?
(A) The specific heat of an object explains how easily it changes temperatures.
(B) While melting, an ice cube remains at the same temperature.
(C) When a refrigerator is unplugged, everything inside of it returns to room temperature after some time.
(D) After falling down the hill, a ball’s kinetic energy plus heat energy equals the initial potential energy.
Answer:
(B) While melting, an ice cube remains at the same temperature. [Here, ∆u = 0, W = Q]
(C) When a refrigerator is unplugged, everything inside of it returns to room temperature after some time.
(D) After falling down the hill, a ball’s kinetic energy plus heat energy equals the initial potential energy.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Thermodynamics

iii) Efficiency of a Carnot engine is large when
(A) TH is large
(B) TC is low
(C) TH – TC is large
(D) TH – TC is small
Answer:
(A) TH is large
(B) TC is low
(C) TH – TC is large
[η = \(\frac{T_{\mathrm{H}}-T_{\mathrm{c}}}{T_{\mathrm{H}}}\) = 1 – \(\frac{T_{\mathrm{c}}}{T_{\mathrm{H}}}\)]

iv) The second law of thermodynamics deals with transfer of:
(A) work done
(B) energy
(C) momentum
(D) mass
Answer:
(B) energy

v) During refrigeration cycle, heat is rejected by the refrigerant in the :
(A) condenser
(B) cold chamber
(C) evaporator
(D) hot chamber
Answer:
closed tube[See the textbook]

2. Answer in brief.

i) A gas contained in a cylinder surrounded by a thick layer of insulating material is quickly compressed.
(a) Has there been a transfer of heat?
(b) Has work been done?
Answer:
(a) There is no transfer of heat.
(b) The work is done on the gas.

ii) Give an example of some familiar process in which no heat is added to or removed form a system, but the temperature of the system changes.
Answer:
Hot water in a container cools after sometime. Its temperature goes on decreasing with time and after sometime it attains room temperature.
[Note : Here, we do not provide heat to the water or remove heat from the water. The water cools on exchange of heat with the surroundings. Recall the portion covered in chapter 3.]

iii) Give an example of some familiar process in which heat is added to an object, without changing its temperature.
Answer:

  1. Melting of ice
  2. Boiling of water.

iv) What sets the limits on efficiency of a heat engine?
Answer:
The temperature of the cold reservoir sets the limit on the efficiency of a heat engine.
[Notes : (1) η = 1 – \(\frac{T_{\mathrm{C}}}{T_{\mathrm{H}}}\)
This formula shows that for maximum efficiency, TC should be as low as possible and TH should be as high as possible.
(2) For a Carnot engine, efficiency
η = 1 – \(\frac{T_{\mathrm{C}}}{T_{\mathrm{H}}}\).η → 1 TC → 0.]

v) Why should a Carnot cycle have two isothermal two adiabatic processes?
Answer:
With two isothermal and two adiabatic processes, all reversible, the efficiency of the Carnot engine depends only on the temperatures of the hot and cold reservoirs.
[Note : This is not so in the Otto cycle and Diesel cycle.]

3. Answer the following questions.

i) A mixture of hydrogen and oxygen is enclosed in a rigid insulting cylinder. It is ignited by a spark. The temperature and the pressure both increase considerably. Assume that the energy supplied by the spark is negligible, what conclusions may be drawn by application of the first law of thermodynamics?
Answer:
The internal energy of a system is the sum of potential energy and kinetic energy of all the constituents of the system. In the example stated above, conversion of potential energy into kinetic energy is responsible for a considerable rise in pressure and temperature of the mixture of hydrogen and oxygen ignited by the spark.

ii) A resistor held in running water carries electric current. Treat the resistor as the system
(a) Does heat flow into the resistor?
(b) Is there a flow of heat into the water?
(c) Is any work done?
(d) Assuming the state of resistance to remain unchanged, apply the first law of thermodynamics to this process.
Answer:
(a) Heat is generated into the resistor due to the passage of electric current. In the usual notation, heat generated = I2Rt.
(b) Yes. Water receives heat from the resistor.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Thermodynamics 10
Here, I = current through the resistor, R = resistance of the resistor, t = time for which the current is passed through the resistor, M = mass of the water, S = specific heat of water, T = rise in the temperature of water, P = pressure against which the work is done by the water, ∆u= increase in the volume of the water.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Thermodynamics

iii) A mixture of fuel and oxygen is burned in a constant-volume chamber surrounded by a water bath. It was noticed that the temperature of water is increased during the process. Treating the mixture of fuel and oxygen as the system,
(a) Has heat been transferred ?
(b) Has work been done?
(c) What is the sign of ∆u ?
Answer:
(a) Heat has been transferred from the chamber to the water bath.
(b) No work is done by the system (the mixture of fuel and oxygen) as there is no change in its volume.
(c) There is increase in the temperature of water. Therefore, ∆u is positive for water.
For the system (the mixture of fuel and oxygen), ∆u is negative.

iv) Draw a p-V diagram and explain the concept of positive and negative work. Give one example each.
Answer:
Consider some quantity of an ideal gas enclosed in a cylinder fitted with a movable, massless and frictionless piston.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Thermodynamics 11
Suppose the gas is allowed to expand by moving the piston outward extremely slowly. There is decrease in pressure of the gas as the volume of the gas increases. Below figure shows the corresponding P-V diagram.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Thermodynamics 12
In this case, the work done by the gas on its surroundings,
W = \(\int_{V_{\mathrm{i}}}^{V_{\mathrm{f}}} P d V\) (= area under the curve) is positive as the volume of the gas has increased from Vi to Vf.
Let us now suppose that starting from the same
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Thermodynamics 13
initial condition, the piston is moved inward extremely slowly so that the gas is compressed. There is increase in pressure of the gas as the volume of the gas decreases. Figure shows the corresponding P-V diagram.
In this case, the work done by the gas on its surroundings, W = \(\int_{V_{\mathrm{i}}}^{V_{\mathrm{f}}} P d V\) (= area under the curve) is negative as the volume of the gas has decreased from Vi to Vf.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Thermodynamics 15

v) A solar cooker and a pressure cooker both are used to cook food. Treating them as thermodynamic systems, discuss the similarities and differences between them.
Answer:
Similarities :

  1. Heat is added to the system.
  2. There is increase in the internal energy of the system.
  3. Work is done by the system on its environment.

Differences : In a solar cooker, heat is supplied in the form of solar radiation. The rate of supply of heat is relatively low.

In a pressure cooker, usually LPG is used (burned) to provide heat. The rate of supply of heat v is relatively high.

As a result, it takes very long time for cooking when a solar cooker is used. With a pressure cooker, it does not take very long time for cooking.
[Note : A solar cooker can be used only when enough solar radiation is available.]

Question 4.
A gas contained in a cylinder fitted with a frictionless piston expands against a constant external pressure of 1 atm from a volume of 5 litres to a volume of 10 litres. In doing so it absorbs 400 J of thermal energy from its surroundings. Determine the change in internal energy of system. [Ans: -106.5 J]
Answer:
Data : P = 1 atm = 1.013 × 105 Pa, V1 = 5 litres = 5 × 10-3 m3 V2 = 10 litres = 10 × 10-3 m3, Q = 400J.
The work done by the system (gas in this case) on its surroundings,
W = P(V2 – V1)
= (1.013 × 105 Pa) (10 × 10-3 m3 – 5 × 10-3 m3)
= 1.013 (5 × 102)J = 5.065 × 102J
The change in the internal energy of the system, ∆u = Q – W = 400J – 506.5J = -106.5J
The minus sign shows that there is a decrease in the internal energy of the system.

Question 5.
A system releases 130 kJ of heat while 109 kJ of work is done on the system. Calculate the change in internal energy.
[Ans: ∆U = 21 kJ]
Answer:
Data : Q = -130kj, W= – 109kJ
∆u = Q – W = – 130kJ – ( – 109kJ)
= (-130 + 104) kJ = – 26 kj.
This is the change (decrease) in the internal energy.

Question 6.
Efficiency of a Carnot cycle is 75%. If temperature of the hot reservoir is 727ºC, calculate the temperature of the cold reservoir. [Ans: 23ºC]
Data : η = 75% = 0.75, TH = (273 + 727) K = 1000 K
η = 1 – \(\frac{T_{\mathrm{C}}}{T_{\mathrm{H}}}\) ∴ \(\frac{T_{\mathrm{C}}}{T_{\mathrm{H}}}\) = 1 – η
∴ TC = TC(1 – η) = 1000 K (1 – 0.75)
= 250K = (250 – 273)°C
= -23 °C
This is the temperature of the cold reservoir.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Thermodynamics

Question 7.
A Carnot refrigerator operates between 250K and 300K. Calculate its coefficient of performance. [Ans: 5]
Answer:
Data : TC = 250 K, TH = 300 K
K = \(\frac{T_{\mathrm{C}}}{T_{\mathrm{H}}-T_{\mathrm{C}}}\) = \(\frac{250 \mathrm{~K}}{300 \mathrm{~K}-250 \mathrm{~K}}\) = \(\frac{250}{50}\) = 5
This is the coefficient of performance of the refrigerator.

Question 8.
An ideal gas is taken through an isothermal process. If it does 2000 J of work on its environment, how much heat is added to it? [Ans: 2000J]
Answer:
Data : W = 2000 J, isothermal process
In this case, the change in the internal energy of the gas, ∆u, is zero as the gas is taken through an isothermal process.
Hence, the heat added to it,
Q = ∆ u + W = 0 + W = 200J

Question 9.
An ideal monatomic gas is adiabatically compressed so that its final temperature is twice its initial temperature. What is the ratio of the final pressure to its initial pressure? [Ans: 5.656]
Answer:
Data : Tf = 2Ti, monatomic gas ∴ γ = 5/3
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Thermodynamics 16
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Thermodynamics 17
This is the ratio of the final pressure (Pf) to the initial pressure (Pi).

Question 10.
A hypothetical thermodynamic cycle is shown in the figure. Calculate the work done in 25 cycles.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Thermodynamics 18
[Ans: 7.855 × 104 J]
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Thermodynamics 19
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Thermodynamics 20
25 cycles
The work done in one cycle, \(\oint\)PdV
= πab = (3.142) (2 × 10-3 m3) (5 × 105 Pa)
= 3.142 × 103J
Hence, the work done in 25 cycles
= (25) (3.142 × 103 J) = 7.855 × 104J

Question 11.
The figure shows the V-T diagram for one cycle of a hypothetical heat engine which uses the ideal gas. Draw the p-V diagram and P-V diagram of the system. [Ans: (a)]
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Thermodynamics 21
[Ans: (b)]
Answer:
(a) P-V diagram (Schematic)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Thermodynamics 22
ab: isobaric process,
bc : isothermal process,
cd : isobaric process,
da : isothermal process
\(\frac{P_{\mathrm{a}} V_{\mathrm{a}}}{T_{\mathrm{a}}}\) = \(\frac{P_{\mathrm{b}} V_{\mathrm{b}}}{T_{\mathrm{b}}}\) = \(\frac{P_{\mathrm{c}} V_{\mathrm{c}}}{T_{\mathrm{c}}}\) = \(\frac{P_{\mathrm{d}} V_{\mathrm{d}}}{T_{\mathrm{d}}}\) = nR

(b) P—T diagram (Schematic)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Thermodynamics 23

Question 12.
A system is taken to its final state from initial state in hypothetical paths as shown figure. Calculate the work done in each case.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Thermodynamics 24
[Ans: AB = 2.4 × 106 J, CD = -8 × 105 J, BC and DA zero, because constant volume change]
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Thermodynamics 25
Data: PA = PB = 6 × 105 Pa, PC = PD = 2 × 105 Pa VA = VD = 2 L, VB = VC6 L, 1 L = 10-3m3
(i) The work done along the path A → B (isobaric process), WAB = PA (VB – VA) = (6 × 105 Pa)(6 – 2)(10-3 m3) = 2.4 × 103 J
(ii) WBC = zero as the process is isochoric (V = constant).
(iii) The work done along the path C → D (isobaric process), WCD = PC (VD – VC)
= (2 × 105 Pa) (2 – 6) (10-3m3) = -8 × 102J
(iv) WDA = zero as V = constant.

12th Physics Digest Chapter 4 Thermodynamics Intext Questions and Answers

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 76)

Question 1.
Why is it that different objects kept on a table at room temperature do not exchange heat with the table ?
Answer:
The objects do exchange heat with the table but there is no net transfer of energy (heat) as the objects and the table are at the same temperature.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 77)

Question 1.
Why is it necessary to make a physical contact between a thermocouple and the object for measuring its temperature ?
Answer:
For heat transfer to develop thermoemf.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 81)

Question 1.
Can you explain the thermodynamics involved in cooking food using a pressure cooker ?
Answer:
Basically, heat is supplied by the burning fuel causing increase in the internal energy of the food (system), and the system does some work on its surroundings. In the absence of any data about the components of food and their thermal and chemical properties, we cannot evaluate changes in internal energy and work done.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Thermodynamics

Use your brain power (Textbook Page No. 85)

Question 1.
Verify that the area under the P-V curve has dimensions of work.
Answer:
Area under the P-V curve is \(\int_{V_{\mathrm{i}}}^{V_{\mathrm{f}}} P d V\), where P is the pressure and V is the volume.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Thermodynamics 80

Use your brain power (Textbook Page No. 91)

Question 1.
Show that the isothermal work may also be expressed as W = nRT ln\(\left(\frac{\boldsymbol{P}_{\mathrm{i}}}{\boldsymbol{P}_{\mathrm{f}}}\right)\),
Answer:
In the usual notation,
W = nRT In \(\frac{V_{\mathrm{f}}}{V_{\mathrm{i}}}\) and Pi Vi = Pf Vf = nRT in an isothermal process
∴ \(\frac{V_{\mathrm{f}}}{V_{\mathrm{i}}}\) = \(\frac{P_{\mathrm{i}}}{P_{\mathrm{f}}}\) and W = nRT ln \(\frac{P_{\mathrm{i}}}{P_{\mathrm{f}}}\)

Use your brain power (Textbook Page No. 94)

Question 1.
Why is the P-V curve for an adiabatic process steeper than that for an isothermal process ?
Answer:
Adiabatic process : PVγ = constant
∴ VγdP + γPVγ-1 dV = 0
∴ \(\frac{d P}{d V}\) = – \(\frac{\gamma P}{V}\)
Isothermal process : PV = constant
∴ pdV + VdP = 0 ∴ \(\frac{d P}{d V}\) = \(\frac{P}{-V}\)
Now, γ > 1
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Thermodynamics 30
∴ \(\frac{d P}{d V}\) is the slope of the P – V curve.
∴The P – V curve for an adiabatic process is steeper than that for an isothermal process.

Question 2.
Explain formation of clouds at high altitude.
Answer:
As the temperature of the earth increases due to absorption of solar radiation, water from rivers, lakes, oceans, etc. evaporates and rises to high altitude. Water vapour forms clouds as water molecules come together under appropriate conditions. Clouds are condensed water vapour and are of various type, names as cumulus clouds, nimbostratus clouds, stratus clouds and high-flying cirrus clouds.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 95)

Question 1.
How would you interpret Eq. 4.21 (Q = W) for a cyclic process ?
Answer:
It means ∆ u = 0 for a cyclic process as the system returns to its initial state.

Question 2.
An engine works at 5000 rpm, and it performs 1000 J of work in one cycle. If the engine runs for 10 min, how much total work is done by the engine ?
Answer:
The total work done by the engine = (1000 J/cycle) (5000 cycles/min) (10 min) = 5 × 107 J.

Do you know? (Textbook Page No. 101)

Question 1.
The capacity of an air conditioner is expressed in a tonne. Do you know why?
Answer:
Before refrigerators and AC were invented, cooling was done by using blocks of ice. When cooling machines were invented, their capacity was expressed in terms of the equivalent amount of ice melted in a day (24 hours). The same term is used even today.
(Note : 1 tonne = 1000 kg = 2204.6 pounds, 1 ton (British) = 2240 pounds = 1016.046909 kg, 1 ton (US) = 2000 pounds = 907.184 kg.]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Thermodynamics

Use your brainpower (Textbook Page No. 105)

Question 1.
Suggest a practical way to increase the efficiency of a heat engine.
Answer:
The efficiency of a heat engine can be increased by choosing the hot reservoir at very high temperature and cold reservoir at very low temperature.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Physics Textbook Solutions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation

1. Choose the correct option.

i) In an ideal gas, the molecules possess
(A) only kinetic energy
(B) both kinetic energy and potential energy
(C) only potential energy
(D) neither kinetic energy nor potential energy
Answer:
(A) only kinetic energy

ii) The mean free path λ of molecules is given by
(A) \(\sqrt{\frac{2}{\pi n d^{2}}}\)
(B) \(\frac{1}{\pi n d^{2}}\)
(C) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2} \pi n d^{2}}\)
(D) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2 \pi n d^{1}}}\)
where n is the number of molecules per unit volume and d is the diameter of the molecules.
Answer:
(C) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2} \pi n d^{2}}\)

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation

iii) If pressure of an ideal gas is decreased by 10% isothermally, then its volume will
(A) decrease by 9%
(B) increase by 9%
(C) decrease by 10%
(D) increase by 11.11%
Answer:
(D) increase by 11.11% [Use the formula P1V1 = P2V2. It gives \(\frac{V_{2}}{V_{1}}\) = \(\frac{1}{0.9}\) = 1.111 ∴ \(\frac{V_{2}-V_{1}}{V_{1}}\) = 0.1111, i.e., 11.11%

iv) If a = 0.72 and r = 0.24, then the value of tr is
(A) 0.02
(B) 0.04
(C) 0.4
(D) 0.2
Answer:
(B) 0.04

v) The ratio of emissive power of a perfect blackbody at 1327°C and 527°C is
(A) 4 : 1
(B) 16 : 1
(C) 2 : 1
(D) 8 : 1
Answer:
(B) 16 : 1

2. Answer in brief.

i) What will happen to the mean square speed of the molecules of a gas if the temperature of the gas increases?
Answer:
If the temperature of a gas increases, the mean square speed of the molecules of the gas will increase in the same proportion.
[Note: \(\overline{v^{2}}\) = \(\frac{3 n R T}{N m}\) ∴ \(\overline{v^{2}}\) ∝ T for a fixed mass of gas.]

ii) On what factors do the degrees of freedom depend?
Answer:
The degrees of freedom depend upon
(i) the number of atoms forming a molecule
(ii) the structure of the molecule
(iii) the temperature of the gas.

iii) Write ideal gas equation for a mass of 7 g of nitrogen gas.
Answer:
In the usual notation, PV = nRT.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 10
Therefore, the corresponding ideal gas equation is
PV = \(\frac{1}{4}\)RT.

iv) What is an ideal gas ? Does an ideal gas exist in practice ?.
Answer:
An ideal or perfect gas is a gas which obeys the gas laws (Boyle’s law, Charles’ law and Gay-Lussac’s law) at all pressures and temperatures. An ideal gas cannot be liquefied by application of pressure or lowering the temperature.

A molecule of an ideal gas is an ideal particle having only mass and velocity. Its structure and size are ignored. Also, intermolecular forces are zero except during collisions

v) Define athermanous substances and diathermanous substances.
Answer:

  1. A substance which is largely opaque to thermal radiations, i.e., a substance which does not transmit heat radiations incident on it, is known as an athermanous substance.
  2. A substance through which heat radiations can pass is known as a diathermanous substance.

Question 3.
When a gas is heated its temperature increases. Explain this phenomenon based on kinetic theory of gases.
Answer:
Molecules of a gas are in a state of continuous random motion. They possess kinetic energy. When a gas is heated, there is increase in the average kinetic energy per molecule of the gas. Hence, its temperature increases (the average kinetic energy per molecule being proportional to the absolute temperature of the gas).

Question 4.
Explain, on the basis of kinetic theory, how the pressure of gas changes if its volume is reduced at constant temperature.
Answer:
The average kinetic energy per molecule of a gas is constant at constant temperature. When the volume of a gas is reduced at constant temperature, the number of collisions of gas molecules per unit time with the walls of the container increases. This increases the momentum transferred per unit time per unit area, i.e., the force exerted by the gas on the walls. Hence, the pressure of the gas increases.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation

Question 5.
Mention the conditions under which a real gas obeys ideal gas equation.
Answer:
A real gas obeys ideal gas equation when temperature is vey high and pressure is very low.
[ Note : Under these conditions, the density of a gas is very low. Hence, the molecules, on an average, are far away from each other. The intermolecular forces are then not of much consequence. ]

Question 6.
State the law of equipartition of energy and hence calculate molar specific heat of mono-and di-atomic gases at constant volume and constant pressure.
Answer:
Law of equipartition of energy : For a gas in thermal equilibrium at absolute temperature T, the average energy for a molecule, associated with each quadratic term (each degree of freedom), is \(\frac{1}{2}\)kBT,
where kB is the Boltzmann constant. OR

The energy of the molecules of a gas, in thermal equilibrium at a thermodynamic temperature T and containing large number of molecules, is equally divided among their available degrees of freedom, with the energy per molecule for each degree of freedom equal to \(\frac{1}{2}\)kBT, where kB is the Boltzmann constant.
(a) Monatomic gas : For a monatomic gas, each atom has only three degrees of freedom as there can be only translational motion. Hence, the average energy per atom is \(\frac{3}{2}\)kBT. The total internal energy per mole of the gas is E = \(\frac{3}{2}\)NAkBT, where NA is the Avogadro
number.
Therefore, the molar specific heat of the gas at constant volume is
CV = \(\frac{d E}{d T}\) = \(\frac{3}{2}\)NAkB = \(\frac{3}{2}\)R,
where R is the universal gas constant.
Now, by Mayer’s relation, Cp — Cv = R, where Cp is the specific heat of the gas at constant pressure.
∴ CP = CV + R = \(\frac{3}{2}\)R + R = \(\frac{5}{2}\)R

(b) Diatomic gas : Treating the molecules of a diatomic gas as rigid rotators, each molecule has three translational degrees of freedom and two rotational degrees of freedom. Hence, the average energy per molecule is
3(\(\frac{1}{2}\)kBT) + 2(\(\frac{1}{2}\)kBT) = \(\frac{5}{2}\)kBT
The total internal energy per mole of the gas is
E = \(\frac{5}{2}\)NAkBT.
∴ CV = \(\frac{d E}{d T}\) = \(\frac{5}{2}\)NAkB = \(\frac{5}{2}\)R and
CP = CV + R = \(\frac{5}{2}\)R + R = \(\frac{7}{2}\)R
A soft or non-rigid diatomic molecule has, in addition, one frequency of vibration which contributes two quadratic terms to the energy.
Hence, the energy per molecule of a soft diatomic molecule is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 15
Therefore, the energy per mole of a soft diatomic molecule is
E = \(\frac{7}{2}\)kBT × NA = \(\frac{7}{2}\) RT
In this case, CV = \(\frac{d E}{d T}\) = \(\frac{7}{2}\)R and
CP = CV + R = \(\frac{7}{2}\)R + R = \(\frac{9}{2}\)R
[Note : For a monatomic gas, adiabatic constant,
γ = \(\frac{C_{p}}{C_{V}}\) = \(\frac{5}{3}\). For a diatomic gas, γ =\(\frac{7}{5}\) or \(\frac{9}{7}\).]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation

Question 7.
What is a perfect blackbody ? How can it be realized in practice?
Answer:
A perfect blackbody or simply a blackbody is defined as a body which absorbs all the radiant energy incident on it.

Fery designed a spherical blackbody which consists of a hollow double-walled, metallic sphere provided with a tiny hole or aperture on one side, in below figure. The inside wall of the sphere is blackened with lampblack while the outside is silver-plated. The space between the two walls is evacuated to minimize heat loss by conduction and convection.

Any radiation entering the sphere through the aperture suffers multiple reflections where about 97% of it is absorbed at each incidence by the coating of lampblack. The radiation is almost completely absorbed after a number of internal reflections. A conical projection on the inside wall opposite the hole minimizes probability of incident radiation escaping out.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 30

When the sphere is placed in a bath of suitable fused salts, so as to maintain it at the desired temperature, the hole serves as a source of black-body radiation. The intensity and the nature of the radiation depend only on the temperature of the walls.

A blackbody, by definition, has coefficient of absorption equal to 1. Hence, its coefficient of reflection and coefficient of transmission are both zero.

The radiation from a blackbody, called blackbody radiation, covers the entire range of the electromagnetic spectrum. Hence, a blackbody is called a full radiator.

Question 8.
State (i) Stefan-Boltmann law and
(ii) Wein’s displacement law.
Answer:
(i) The Stefan-Boltzmann law : The rate of emission of radiant energy per unit area or the power radiated per unit area of a perfect blackbody is directly proportional to the fourth power of its absolute temperature. OR
The quantity of radiant energy emitted by a perfect blackbody per unit time per unit surface area of the body is directly proportional to the fourth power of its absolute temperature.

(ii) Wien’s displacement law : The wavelength for which the emissive power of a blackbody is maximum, is inversely proportional to the absolute temperature of the blackbody.
OR
For a blackbody at an absolute temperature T, the product of T and the wavelength λm corresponding to the maximum radiation of energy is a constant.
λmT = b, a constant.
[Notes: (1) The law stated above was stated by Wilhelm Wien (1864-1928) German Physicist. (2) The value of the constant b in Wien’s displacement law is 2.898 × 10-3 m.K.]

Question 9.
Explain spectral distribution of blackbody radiation.
Answer:
Blackbody radiation is the electromagnetic radiation emitted by a blackbody by virtue of its temperature. It extends over the whole range of wavelengths of electromagnetic waves. The distribution of energy over this entire range as a function of wavelength or frequency is known as the spectral distribution of blackbody radiation or blackbody radiation spectrum.

If Rλ is the emissive power of a blackbody in the wavelength range λ and λ + dλ, the energy it emits per unit area per unit time in this wavelength range depends on its absolute temperature T, the wavelength λ and the size of the interval dλ.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 31

Question 10.
State and prove Kirchoff’s law of heat radiation.
Answer:
Kirchhoff’s law of heat radiation : At a given temperature, the ratio of the emissive power to the coefficient of absorption of a body is equal to the emissive power of a perfect blackbody at the same temperature for all wavelengths.
OR
For a body emitting and absorbing thermal radiation in thermal equilibrium, the emissivity is equal to its absorptivity.

Theoretical proof: Consider the following thought experiment: An ordinary body A and a perfect black body B are enclosed in an athermanous enclosure as shown in below figure.

According to Prevost’s theory of heat exchanges, there will be a continuous exchange of radiant energy between each body and its surroundings. Hence, the two bodies, after some time, will attain the same temperature as that of the enclosure.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 32

Let a and e be the coefficients of absorption and emission respectively, of body A. Let R and Rb be the emissive powers of bodies A and B, respectively. ;

Suppose that Q is the quantity of radiant energy incident on each body per unit time per unit surface area of the body.

Body A will absorb the quantity aQ per unit time per unit surface area and radiate the quantity R per unit time per unit surface area. Since there is no change in its temperature, we must have,
aQ = R … (1)
As body B is a perfect blackbody, it will absorb the quantity Q per unit time per unit surface area and radiate the quantity Rb per unit time per unit surface area.

Since there is no change in its temperature, we must have,
Q = Rb ….. (2)
From Eqs. (1) and (2), we get,
a = \(\frac{R}{Q}\) = \(\frac{R}{R_{\mathrm{b}}}\) ….. (3)
From Eq. (3), we get, \(\frac{R}{a}\) = Rb OR

By definition of coefficient of emission,
\(\frac{R}{R_{\mathrm{b}}}\) …(4)
From Eqs. (3) and (4), we get, a = e.
Hence, the proof of Kirchhoff ‘s law of radiation.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation

Question 11.
Calculate the ratio of mean square speeds of molecules of a gas at 30 K and 120 K. [Ans: 1:4]
Answer:
Data : T1 = 30 K, T2 = 120 K
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 38
This is the required ratio.

Question 12.
Two vessels A and B are filled with same gas where volume, temperature and pressure in vessel A is twice the volume, temperature and pressure in vessel B. Calculate the ratio of number of molecules of gas in vessel A to that in vessel B.
[Ans: 2:1]
Answer:
Data : VA = 2VB, TA = 2TB, PA = 2PB PV = NkBT
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 39
This is the required ratio.

Question 13.
A gas in a cylinder is at pressure P. If the masses of all the molecules are made one third of their original value and their speeds are doubled, then find the resultant pressure. [Ans: 4/3 P]
Answer:
Data : m2 = m1/3, vrms 2 = 2vrms 1 as the speeds of all molecules are doubled
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 40
This is the resultant pressure.

Question 14.
Show that rms velocity of an oxygen molecule is \(\sqrt{2}\) times that of a sulfur dioxide molecule at S.T.P.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 41

Question 15.
At what temperature will oxygen molecules have same rms speed as helium molecules at S.T.P.? (Molecular masses of oxygen and helium are 32 and 4 respectively)
[Ans: 2184 K]
Answer:
Data : T2 = 273 K, M01 (oxygen) = 32 × 10-3 kg/mol, M02 (hydrogen) = 4 × 10– 3 kg/mol
The rms speed of oxygen molecules, v1 = \(\sqrt{\frac{3 R T_{1}}{M_{01}}}\) and that of helium molecules, v2 = \(\sqrt{\frac{3 R T_{2}}{M_{02}}}\)
When v1 = v2,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 42

Question 16.
Compare the rms speed of hydrogen molecules at 127 ºC with rms speed of oxygen molecules at 27 ºC given that molecular masses of hydrogen and oxygen are 2 and 32 respectively. [Ans: 8: 3]
Answer:
Data : M01 (hydrogen) = 2 g/mol,
M02 (oxygen) = 32 g/mol,
T1 (hydrogen) = 273 + 127 = 400 K,
T2 (oxygen) = 273 + 27 = 300 K
The rms speed, vrms = \(\sqrt{\frac{3 R T}{M_{0}}}\),
where M0 denotes the molar mass
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 43

Question 17.
Find kinetic energy of 5000 cc of a gas at S.T.P. given standard pressure is 1.013 × 105 N/m2.
[Ans: 7.598 × 102 J]
Answer:
Data : P = 1.013 × 105 N/m2, V = 5 litres
= 5 × 10-3 m3
E = \(\frac{3}{2}\)PV
= \(\frac{3}{2}\)(1.013 × 105 N/m2) (5 × 10-3 m3)
= 7.5 × 1.013 × 102 J = 7.597 × 102 J
This is the required energy.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation

Question 18.
Calculate the average molecular kinetic energy
(i) per kmol
(ii) per kg
(iii) per molecule of oxygen at 127 ºC, given that molecular weight of oxygen is 32, R is 8.31 J mol-1 K-1 and Avogadro’s number NA is 6.02 × 1023 molecules mol-1.
[Ans: 4.986 × 106J, 1.558 × 102J 8.282 × 10-21 J]
Answer:
Data : T = 273 +127 = 400 K, molecular weight = 32 ∴ molar mass = 32 kg/kmol, R = 8.31 Jmol-1 K-1, NA = 6.02 × 1023 molecules mol-1

(i) The average molecular kinetic energy per kmol of oxygen = the average kinetic energy per mol of oxygen × 1000
= \(\frac{3}{2}\)RT × 1000 = \(\frac{3}{2}\) (8.31) (400) (103)\(\frac{\mathrm{J}}{\mathrm{kmol}}\)
= (600)(8.31)(103) = 4.986 × 106 J/kmol

(ii) The average molecular kinetic energy per kg of
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 51

(iii) The average molecular kinetic energy per molecule of oxygen
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 52

Question 19.
Calculate the energy radiated in one minute by a blackbody of surface area 100 cm2 when it is maintained at 227ºC. (Take Stefen’s constant σ = 5.67 × 10-8J m-2s-1K-4)
[Ans: 2126.25 J]
Answer:
Data : t = one minute = 60 s, A = 100 cm2
= 100 × 10-4 m2 = 10-2 m2, T = 273 + 227 = 500 K,
σ = 5.67 × 10-8 W/m2.K4
The energy radiated, Q = σAT4t
= (5.67 × 10-8)(10-2)(500)4(60) J
= (5.67)(625)(60)(10-2)J = 2126 J

Question 20.
Energy is emitted from a hole in an electric furnace at the rate of 20 W, when the temperature of the furnace is 727 ºC. What is the area of the hole? (Take Stefan’s constant σ to be 5.7 × 10-8 J s-1 m-2 K-4) [Ans: 3.509 × 10-4m2]
Answer:
Data : \(\frac{Q}{t}\) = 20 W, T = 273 + 727 = 1000 K
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 55

Question 21.
The emissive power of a sphere of area 0.02 m2 is 0.5 kcal s-1 m-2. What is the
amount of heat radiated by the spherical surface in 20 second? [Ans: 0.2 kcal]
Answer:
Data : R = 0.5 kcal s-1m-2, A = 0.02 m2, t = 20 s Q = RAt = (0.5) (0.02) (20) = 0.2 kcal
This is the required quantity.

Question 22.
Compare the rates of emission of heat by a blackbody maintained at 727ºC and at 227ºC, if the black bodies are surrounded
by an enclosure (black) at 27ºC. What would be the ratio of their rates of loss of heat ?
[Ans: 18.23:1]
Answer:
Data : T1 = 273 + 727 = 1000 K, T2 = 273 + 227 = 500 K, T0 = 273 + 27 = 300 K.
(i) The rate of emission of heat, \(\frac{d Q}{d t}\) = σAT4.
We assume that the surface area A is the same for the two bodies.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 60
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 61

Question 23.
Earth’s mean temperature can be assumed to be 280 K. How will the curve of blackbody radiation look like for this temperature? Find out λmax. In which part of the electromagnetic spectrum, does this value lie? (Take Wien’s constant b = 2.897 × 10-3 m K) [Ans: 1.035 × 10-5m, infrared region]
Answer:
Data : T = 280 K, Wien’s constant b = 2.897 × 10-3 m.K
λmaxT = b
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 62
This value lies in the infrared region of the electromagnetic spectrum.
The nature of the curve of blackbody radiation will be the same as shown in above, but the maximum will occur at 1.035 × 10-5 m.

Question 24.
A small-blackened solid copper sphere of radius 2.5 cm is placed in an evacuated chamber. The temperature of the chamber is maintained at 100 ºC. At what rate energy must be supplied to the copper sphere to maintain its temperature at 110 ºC? (Take Stefan’s constant σ to be 5.670 × 10-8 J s-1 m-2 K-4 , π = 3.1416 and treat the sphere as a blackbody.)
[Ans: 0.9624 W]
Answer:
Data : r = 2.5 cm = 2.5 × 10-2 m, T0 = 273 + 100 = 373 K, T = 273 + 110 = 383 K,
σ = 5.67 × 10-8 J s-1 m-2 k-4
The rate at which energy must be supplied
σA(T4 — T04) = σ 4πr2(T4 – T04)
= (5.67 × 10-8) (4) (3.142) (2.5 × 10-2)2 (3834 – 3734)
= (5.67) (4) (3.142) (6.25) (3.834 – 3.734) × 10-4
= 0.9624W

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation

Question 25.
Find the temperature of a blackbody if its spectrum has a peak at (a) λmax = 700 nm (visible), (b) λmax = 3 cm (microwave region) and (c) λmax = 3 m (short radio waves) (Take Wien’s constant b = 2.897 × 10-3 m K). [Ans: (a) 4138 K, (b) 0.09657 K, (c) 0.9657 × 10-3 K]
Answer:
Data:(a) λmax = 700nm=700 × 10-9m,
(b) λmax = 3cm = 3 × 10-2 m, (c) λmax = 3 m, b = 2.897 × 10-3 m.K
λmaxT = b
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 70

12th Physics Digest Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation Intext Questions and Answers

Remember This (Textbook Page No. 60)

Question 1.
Distribution of speeds of molecules of a gas.
Answer:
Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution of molecular speeds is a relation that describes the distribution of speeds among the molecules of a gas at a given temperature.

The root-mean-square speed vrms gives us a general idea of molecular speeds in a gas at a given temperature. However, not all molecules have the same speed. At any instant, some molecules move slowly and some very rapidly. In classical physics, molecular speeds may be considered to cover the range from 0 to ∞. The molecules constantly collide with each other and with the walls of the container and their speeds change on collisions. Also the number of molecules under consideration is very large statistically. Hence, there is an equilibrium distribution of speeds.

If dNv represents the number of molecules with speeds between v and v + dv, dNv remains fairly constant at equilibrium. We consider a gas of total N molecules. Let r\vdv be the probability that a molecule has its speed between v and v + dv. Then, dNv = Nηvdv
so that the fraction, i.e., the relative number of molecules with speeds between v and v + dv is dNv/N = ηvdv
Below figure shows the graph of ηv against v. The area of the strip with height ηv and width dv gives the fraction dNv/N.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation 75

Remember This (Textbook Page No. 64)

Question 1.
If a hot body and a cold body are kept in vacuum, separated from each other, can they exchange heat ? If yes, which mode of transfer of heat causes change in their temperatures ? If not, give reasons.
Answer:
Yes. Radiation.

Remember This (Textbook Page No. 66)

Question 1.
Can a perfect blackbody be realized in practice ?
Answer:
For almost all practical purposes, Fery’s blackbody is very close to a perfect blackbody.

Question 2.
Are good absorbers also good emitters ?
Answer:
Yes.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation

Use your brain power (Textbook Page No. 68)

Question 1.
Why are the bottom of cooking utensils blackened and tops polished ?
Answer:
The bottoms of cooking utensils are blackened to increase the rate of absorption of radiant energy and tops are polished to increase the reflection of radiation.

Question 2.
A car is left in sunlight with all its windows closed on a hot day. After some time it is observed that the inside of the car is warmer than the outside air. Why?
Answer:
The air inside the car is trapped and hence is a bad conductor of heat.

Question 3.
If surfaces of all bodies are continuously emitting radiant energy, why do they not cool down to 0 K?
Answer:
Bodies absorb radiant energy from their surroundings.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 71)

Question 1.
λmax the wavelength corresponding to maximum intensity for the Sun is in the blue-green region of the visible spectrum. Why does the Sun then appear yellow to us?
Answer:
The colour that we perceive depends upon a number of factors such as absorption and scattering by the atmosphere (which in turn depends upon the composition of air) and the spectral response of the human eye. The colour maybe yellow/orange/ red/white.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 2 Mechanical Properties of Fluids

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Physics Textbook Solutions Chapter 2 Mechanical Properties of Fluids Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 2 Mechanical Properties of Fluids

1) Multiple Choice Questions

i) A hydraulic lift is designed to lift heavy objects of a maximum mass of 2000 kg. The area of cross-section of piston carrying
the load is 2.25 × 10-2 m2. What is the maximum pressure the piston would have to bear?
(A) 0.8711 × 106 N/m2
(B) 0.5862 × 107 N/m2
(C) 0.4869 × 105 N/m2
(D) 0.3271 × 104 N/m2
Answer:
(A) 0.8711 × 106 N/m2

ii) Two capillary tubes of radii 0.3 cm and 0.6 cm are dipped in the same liquid. The ratio of heights through which the liquid will rise in the tubes is
(A) 1:2
(B) 2:1
(C) 1:4
(D) 4:1
Answer:
(B) 2:1

iii) The energy stored in a soap bubble of diameter 6 cm and T = 0.04 N/m is nearly
(A) 0.9 × 10-3 J
(B) 0.4 × 10-3 J
(C) 0.7 × 10-3 J
(D) 0.5 × 10-3 J
Answer:
(A) 0.9 × 10-3 J

iv) Two hail stones with radii in the ratio of 1:4 fall from a great height through the atmosphere. Then the ratio of their terminal velocities is
(A) 1:2
(B) 1:12
(C) 1:16
(D) 1:8
Answer:
(C) 1:16

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 2 Mechanical Properties of Fluids

v) In Bernoulli’s theorem, which of the following is conserved?
(A) linear momentum
(B) angular momentum
(C) mass
(D) energy
Answer:
(D) energy

2) Answer in brief.

i) Why is the surface tension of paints and lubricating oils kept low?
Answer:
For better wettability (surface coverage), the surface tension and angle of contact of paints and lubricating oils must below.

ii) How much amount of work is done in forming a soap bubble of radius r?
Answer:
Let T be the surface tension of a soap solution. The initial surface area of soap bubble = 0
The final surface area of soap bubble = 2 × 4πr2
∴ The increase in surface area = 2 × 4πr2-
The work done in blowing the soap bubble is W = surface tension × increase in surface area = T × 2 × 4πr2 = 8πr2T

iii) What is the basis of the Bernoulli’s principle?
Answer:
Conservation of energy.

iv) Why is a low density liquid used as a manometric liquid in a physics laboratory?
Answer:
An open tube manometer measures the gauge pressure, p — p0 = hpg, where p0 is the pressure being measured, p0 is the atmospheric pressure, h is the difference in height between the manometric liquid of density p in the two arms. For a given pressure p, the product hp is constant. That is, p should be small for h to be large. Therefore, for noticeably large h, laboratory manometer uses a low density liquid.

v) What is an incompressible fluid?
Answer:
An incompressible fluid is one which does not undergo change in volume for a large range of pressures. Thus, its density has a constant value throughout the fluid. In most cases, all liquids are incompressible.

Question 3.
Why two or more mercury drops form a single drop when brought in contact with each other?
Answer:
A spherical shape has the minimum surface area- to-volume ratio of all geometric forms. When two drops of a liquid are brought in contact, the cohesive forces between their molecules coalesces the drops into a single larger drop. This is because, the volume of the liquid remaining the same, the surface area of the resulting single drop is less than the combined surface area of the smaller drops. The resulting decrease in surface energy is released into the environment as heat.

Proof : Let n droplets each of radius r coalesce to form a single drop of radius R. As the volume of the liquid remains constant, volume of the drop = volume of n droplets
∴ \(\frac{4}{3}\)πR3 = n × \(\frac{4}{3}\)πr3
∴ R3 = nr3 ∴ R = \(\sqrt[3]{n}\)r
Surface area of n droplets = n × πR2
Surface area of the drop = 4πR2 = n2/3 × πR2
∴ The change in the surface area = surface area of drop – surface area of n droplets
= πR2(n2/3 – n)
Since the bracketed term is negative, there is a decrease in surface area and a decrease in surface energy.

Question 4.
Why does velocity increase when water flowing in broader pipe enters a narrow pipe?
Answer:
When a tube narrows, the same volume occupies a greater length, as schematically shown in below figure. A1 is the cross section of the broader pipe and that of narrower pipe is A2. By the equation of continuity, V2 = (A1/A2)V1
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 2 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 1
Since A1/A2 > v2 > v1. For the same volume to pass points 1 and 2 in a given time, the speed must be greater at point 2.
The process is exactly reversible. If the fluid flows in the opposite direction, its speed decreases when the tube widens.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 2 Mechanical Properties of Fluids

Question 5.
Why does the speed of a liquid increase and its pressure decrease when a liquid passes through constriction in a horizontal pipe?
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 2 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 11
Consider a horizontal constricted tube.
Let A1 and A2 be the cross-sectional areas at points 1 and 2, respectively. Let v1 and v2 be the corresponding flow speeds, ρ is the density of the fluid in the pipeline. By the equation of continuity,
v1A1 = v2A2 …… (1)
∴ \(\frac{v_{2}}{v_{1}}\) = \(\frac{A_{1}}{A_{2}}\) > 1 (∵ A1 > A2)
Therefore, the speed of the liquid increases as it passes through the constriction. Since the meter is assumed to be horizontal, from Bernoulli’s equation we get,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 2 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 12
Again, since A1 > A2, the bracketed term is positive so that p1 > p2. Thus, as the fluid passes through the constriction or throat, the higher speed results in lower pressure at the throat.

Question 6.
Derive an expression of excess pressure inside a liquid drop.
Answer:
Consider a small spherical liquid drop with a radius R. It has a convex surface, so that the pressure p on the concave side (inside the liquid) is greater than the pressure p0 on the convex side (outside the liquid). The surface area of the drop is
A = 4πR2 … (1)
Imagine an increase in radius by an infinitesimal amount dR from the equilibrium value R. Then, the differential increase in surface area would be dA = 8πR ∙ dR …(2)
The increase in surface energy would be equal to the work required to increase the surface area :
dW = T∙dA = 8πTRdR …..(3)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 2 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 55
We assume that dR is so small that the pressure inside remains the same, equal to p. All parts of the surface of the drop experience an outward force per unit area equal to ρ — ρ0. Therefore, the work done by this outward pressure-developed force against the surface tension force during the increase in radius dR is
dW = (excess pressure × surface area) ∙ dR
= (ρ – ρ0) × 4πnR2 ∙ dR …..(4)
From Eqs. (3) and (4),
(ρ — ρ0) × 4πR2 ∙ dR = 8πTRdR
∴ ρ – ρ0 = \(\frac{2 T}{R}\) …… (5)
which is called Laplace’s law for a spherical membrane (or Young-Laplace equation in spherical form).
[Notes : (1) The above method is called the principle of virtual work. (2) Equation (5) also applies to a gas bubble within a liquid, and the excess pressure in this case is also called the gauge pressure. An air or gas bubble within a liquid is technically called a cavity because it has only one gas-liquid interface. A bubble, on the other hand, such as a soap bubble, has two gas-liquid interfaces.]

Question 7.
Obtain an expression for conservation of mass starting from the equation of continuity.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 2 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 20
Consider a fluid in steady or streamline flow, that is its density is constant. The velocity of the fluid within a flow tube, while everywhere parallel to the tube, may change its magnitude. Suppose the velocity is \(\vec{v}_{1}\), at point P and \(\vec{v}_{2}\) at point. Q. If A1 and A2 are the cross-sectional areas of the tube at these two points, the volume flux across A1, \(\frac{d}{d t}\)(V2) = A1v1 and that across A2, \(\frac{d}{d t}\)(V2) = A2v2
By the equation of continuity of flow for a fluid, A1v1 = A2V2
i.e., \(\frac{d}{d t}\)(V1) = \(\frac{d}{d t}\)(V2)
If ρ1 and ρ1 are the densities of the fluid at P and Q, respectively, the mass flux across A1, \(\frac{d}{d t}\)(m1) = \(\frac{d}{d t}\)(ρ1 v1) = A1ρ1v1
and that across A2, \(\frac{d}{d t}\)(m2) = \(\frac{d}{d t}\)(ρ2V2) = A2ρ2v2
Since no fluid can enter or leave through the boundary of the tube, the conservation of mass requires the mass fluxes to be equal, i.e.,
\(\frac{d}{d t}\)(m1) = \(\frac{d}{d t}\)(m2)
i.e., A1ρ1v1 = A2ρ2v2
i. e., Apv = constant
which is the required expression.

Question 8.
Explain the capillary action.
Answer:
(1) When a capillary tube is partially immersed in a wetting liquid, there is capillary rise and the liquid meniscus inside the tube is concave, as shown in below figure.

Consider four points A, B, C, D, of which point A is just above the concave meniscus inside the capillary and point B is just below it. Points C and D are just above and below the free liquid surface outside.

Let PA, PB, PC and PD be the pressures at points A, B, C and D, respectively.
Now, PA = PC = atmospheric pressure
The pressure is the same on both sides of the free surface of a liquid, so that
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 2 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 26
The pressure on the concave side of a meniscus is always greater than that on the convex side, so that
PA > PB
∴ PD > PB (∵ PA = PD)

The excess pressure outside presses the liquid up the capillary until the pressures at B and D (at the same horizontal level) equalize, i.e., PB becomes equal to PD. Thus, there is a capillary rise.

(2) For a non-wetting liquid, there is capillary depression and the liquid meniscus in the capillary tube is convex, as shown in above figure.

Consider again four points A, B, C and D when the meniscus in the capillary tube is at the same level as the free surface of the liquid. Points A and B are just above and below the convex meniscus. Points C and D are just above and below the free liquid surface outside.

The pressure at B (PB) is greater than that at A (PA). The pressure at A is the atmospheric pressure H and at D, PD \(\simeq\) H = PA. Hence, the hydrostatic pressure at the same levels at B and D are not equal, PB > PD. Hence, the liquid flows from B to D and the level of the liquid in the capillary falls. This continues till the pressure at B’ is the same as that D’, that is till the pressures at the same level are equal.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 2 Mechanical Properties of Fluids

Question 9.
Derive an expression for capillary rise for a liquid having a concave meniscus.
Answer:
Consider a capillary tube of radius r partially immersed into a wetting liquid of density p. Let the capillary rise be h and θ be the angle of contact at the edge of contact of the concave meniscus and glass. If R is the radius of curvature of the meniscus then from the figure, r = R cos θ.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 2 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 29
Surface tension T is the tangential force per unit length acting along the contact line. It is directed into the liquid making an angle θ with the capillary wall. We ignore the small volume of the liquid in the meniscus. The gauge pressure within the liquid at a depth h, i.e., at the level of the free liquid surface open to the atmosphere, is
ρ – ρo = ρgh …. (1)
By Laplace’s law for a spherical membrane, this gauge pressure is
ρ – ρo = \(\frac{2 T}{R}\) ….. (2)
∴ hρg = \(\frac{2 T}{R}\) = \(\frac{2 T \cos \theta}{r}\)
∴ h = \(\frac{2 T \cos \theta}{r \rho g}\) …. (3)
Thus, narrower the capillary tube, the greater is the capillary rise.
From Eq. (3),
T = \(\frac{h \rho r g}{2 T \cos \theta}\) … (4)
Equations (3) and (4) are also valid for capillary depression h of a non-wetting liquid. In this case, the meniscus is convex and θ is obtuse. Then, cos θ is negative but so is h, indicating a fall or depression of the liquid in the capillary. T is positive in both cases.
[Note : The capillary rise h is called Jurin height, after James Jurin who studied the effect in 1718. For capillary rise, Eq. (3) is also called the ascent formula.]

Question 10.
Find the pressure 200 m below the surface of the ocean if pressure on the free surface of liquid is one atmosphere. (Density of sea water = 1060 kg/m3) [Ans. 21.789 × 105 N/m2]
Answer:
Data : h = 200 m, p = 1060 kg/m3,
p0 = 1.013 × 105 Pa, g = 9.8 m/s2
Absolute pressure,
p = p0 + hρg
= (1.013 × 103) + (200)(1060)(9.8)
= (1.013 × 105) + (20.776 × 105)
= 21.789 × 105 = 2.1789 MPa

Question 11.
In a hydraulic lift, the input piston had surface area 30 cm2 and the output piston has surface area of 1500 cm2. If a force of 25 N is applied to the input piston, calculate weight on output piston. [Ans. 1250 N]
Answer:
Data : A1 = 30 cm2 = 3 × 10-3 m2,
A2 = 1500 cm2 = 0.15 m2, F1 = 25 N
By Pascal’s law,
\(\frac{F_{1}}{A_{1}}\) = \(\frac{F_{2}}{A_{2}}\)
∴ The force on the output piston,
F2 = F1\(\frac{A_{2}}{A_{1}}\) = (25)\(\frac{0.15}{3 \times 10^{-3}}\) = 25 × 50 = 1250 N

Question 12.
Calculate the viscous force acting on a rain drop of diameter 1 mm, falling with a uniform velocity 2 m/s through air. The coefficient of viscosity of air is 1.8 × 10-5 Ns/m2.
[Ans. 3.393 × 10-7 N]
Answer:
Data : d = 1 mm, v0 = 2 m / s,
η = 1.8 × 10-5 N.s/m2
r = \(\frac{d}{2}\) = 0.5 mm = 5 × 10-4 m
By Stokes’ law, the viscous force on the raindrop is f = 6πηrv0
= 6 × 3.142 (1.8 × 10-5 N.s/m2 × 5 × 10-4 m)(2 m/s)
= 3.394 × 10-7 N

Question 13.
A horizontal force of 1 N is required to move a metal plate of area 10-2 m2 with a velocity of 2 × 10-2 m/s, when it rests on a layer of oil 1.5 × 10-3 m thick. Find the coefficient of viscosity of oil. [Ans. 7.5 Ns/m2]
Answer:
Data : F = 1 N, A = 10-2m2, v0 = 2 × 10-2 y = 1.5 × 10-3 m
Velocity gradient, \(\frac{d v}{d y}\) = \(\frac{2 \times 10^{-2}}{1.5 \times 10^{-3}}\) = \(\frac{40}{3}\)s-1
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 2 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 30

Question 14.
With what terminal velocity will an air bubble 0.4 mm in diameter rise in a liquid of viscosity 0.1 Ns/m2 and specific gravity 0.9? Density of air is 1.29 kg/m3. [Ans. – 0.782 × 10-3 m/s, The negative sign indicates that the bubble rises up]
Answer:
Data : d = 0.4 mm, η = 0.1 Pa.s, ρL = 0.9 × 103 kg/m3 = 900 kg/m3, ρair = 1.29 kg/m3, g = 9.8 m/s2.
Since the density of air is less than that of oil, the air bubble will rise up through the liquid. Hence, the viscous force is downward. At terminal velocity, this downward viscous force is equal in magnitude to the net upward force.
Viscous force = buoyant force – gravitational force
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 2 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 31

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 2 Mechanical Properties of Fluids

Question 15.
The speed of water is 2m/s through a pipe of internal diameter 10 cm. What should be the internal diameter of nozzle of the pipe if the speed of water at nozzle is 4 m/s?
[Ans. 7.07 × 10-2m]
Answer:
Data : d1 = 10 cm = 0.1 m, v1 = 2 m/s, v2 = 4 m/s
By the equation of continuity, the ratio of the speed is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 2 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 32

Question 16.
With what velocity does water flow out of an orifice in a tank with gauge pressure 4 × 105 N/m2 before the flow starts? Density of water = 1000 kg/m3. [Ans. 28.28 m/s]
Answer:
Data : ρ — ρ0 = 4 × 105 Pa, ρ = 103 kg/m3
If the orifice is at a depth h from the water surface in a tank, the gauge pressure there is
ρ – ρ0 = hρg … (1)
By Toricelli’s law of efflux, the velocity of efflux,
v = \(\sqrt{2 g h}\) …(2)
Substituting for h from Eq. (1),
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 2 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 33

Question 17.
The pressure of water inside the closed pipe is 3 × 105 N/m2. This pressure reduces to 2 × 105 N/m2 on opening the value of the pipe. Calculate the speed of water flowing through the pipe. (Density of water = 1000 kg/m3). [Ans. 14.14 m/s]
Answer:
Data : p1 = 3 × 105 Pa, v1 = 0, p2 = 2 × 105 Pa, ρ = 103 kg/m3
Assuming the potential head to be zero, i.e., the pipe to be horizontal, the Bernoulli equation is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 2 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 34

Question 18.
Calculate the rise of water inside a clean glass capillary tube of radius 0.1 mm, when immersed in water of surface tension 7 × 10-2 N/m. The angle of contact between water and glass is zero, density of water = 1000 kg/m3, g = 9.8 m/s2.
[Ans. 0.1429 m]
Answer:
Data : r = 0.1 mm = 1 × 10-4m, θ = 0°,
T = 7 × 10-2 N/m, r = 103 kg/m3, g = 9.8 m/s2
cos θ = cos 0° = 1
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 2 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 35
= 0.143 m

Question 19.
An air bubble of radius 0.2 mm is situated just below the water surface. Calculate the gauge pressure. Surface tension of water = 7.2 × 10-2 N/m.
[Ans. 720 N/m2]
Answer:
Data : R = 2 × 10-4m, T = 7.2 × 10-2N/m, p = 103 kg/m3
The gauge pressure inside the bubble = \(\frac{2 T}{R}\)
= \(\frac{2\left(7.2 \times 10^{-2}\right)}{2 \times 10^{-4}}\) = 7.2 × 102 = 720 Pa

Question 20.
Twenty seven droplets of water, each of radius 0.1 mm coalesce into a single drop. Find the change in surface energy. Surface tension of water is 0.072 N/m. [Ans. 1.628 × 10-7 J = 1.628 erg]
Answer:
Data : r = 1 mm = 1 × 10-3 m, T = 0.472 J/m2
Let R be the radius of the single drop formed due to the coalescence of 8 droplets of mercury.
Volume of 8 droplets = volume of the single drop as the volume of the liquid remains constant.
∴ 8 × \(\frac{4}{3}\)πr3 = \(\frac{4}{3}\)πR3
∴ 8r3 = R3
∴ 2r = R
Surface area of 8 droplets = 8 × 4πr2
Surface area of single drop = 4πR2
∴ Decrease in surface area = 8 × 4πr2 – 4πR2
= 4π(8r2 – R2)
= 4π[8r2 – (2r)2]
= 4π × 4r2
∴ The energy released = surface tension × decrease in surface area = T × 4π × 4r2
= 0.472 × 4 × 3.142 × 4 × (1 × 10-3)2
= 2.373 × 10-5 J
The decrease in surface energy = 0.072 × 4 × 3.142 × 18 × (1 × 10-4)2
= 1.628 × 10-7 J

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 2 Mechanical Properties of Fluids

Question 21.
A drop of mercury of radius 0.2 cm is broken into 8 identical droplets. Find the work done if the surface tension of mercury is 435.5 dyne/cm. [Ans. 2.189 × 10-5J]
Answer:
Let R be the radius of the drop and r be the radius of each droplet.
Data : R = 0.2 cm, n = 8, T = 435.5 dyn/cm
As the volume of the liquid remains constant, volume of n droplets = volume of the drop
∴ n × \(\frac{4}{3}\)πr3 = \(\frac{4}{3}\)πR3
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 2 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 50
Surface area of the drop = 4πR2
Surface area of n droplets = n × 4πR2
∴ The increase in the surface area = surface area of n droplets-surface area of drop
= 4π(nr2 – R2) = 4π(8 × \(\frac{R^{2}}{4}\) – R2)
= 4π(2 — 1)R2 = 4πR2
∴ The work done
= surface tension × increase in surface area
= T × 4πR2 = 435.5 × 4 × 3.142 × (0.2)2
= 2.19 × 102 ergs = 2.19 × 10-5 J

Question 22.
How much work is required to form a bubble of 2 cm radius from the soap solution having surface tension 0.07 N/m.
[Ans. 0.7038 × 10-3 J]
Answer:
Data : r = 4 cm = 4 × 10-2 m, T = 25 × 10-3 N/m
Initial surface area of soap bubble = 0
Final surface area of soap bubble = 2 × 4πr2
∴ Increase in surface area = 2 × 4πr2
The work done
= surface tension × increase in surface area
= T × 2 × 4πr2
= 25 × 10-3 × 2 × 4 × 3.142 × (4 × 10-2)2
= 1.005 × 10-3 J
The work done = 0.07 × 8 × 3.142 × (2 × 10-2)2
= 7.038 × 10-4 J

Question 23.
A rectangular wire frame of size 2 cm × 2 cm, is dipped in a soap solution and taken out. A soap film is formed, if the size of the film is changed to 3 cm × 3 cm, calculate the work done in the process. The surface tension of soap film is 3 × 10-2 N/m. [Ans. 3 × 10-5 J]
Answer:
Data : A1 = 2 × 2 cm2 = 4 × 10-4 m2,
A2 = 3 × 3 cm2 =9 × 10-4 m2, T = 3 × 10-2 N/m
As the film has two surfaces, the work done is W = 2T(A2 – A1)
= 2(3 × 10-2)(9 × 10-4 × 10-4)
= 3.0 × 10-5 J = 30 µJ

12th Physics Digest Chapter 2 Mechanical Properties of Fluids Intext Questions and Answers

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 27)

Question 1.
Why does a knife have a sharp edge or a needle has a sharp tip ?
Answer:
For a given force, the pressure over which the force is exerted depends inversely on the area of contact; smaller the area, greater the pressure. For instance, a force applied to an area of 1 mm2 applies a pressure that is 100 times as great as the same force applied to an area of 1 cm2. The edge of a knife or the tip of a needle has a small area of contact. That is why a sharp needle is able to puncture the skin when a small force is exerted, but applying the same force with a finger does not.

Use your brain power

Question 1.
A student of mass 50 kg is standing on both feet. Estimate the pressure exerted by the student on the Earth. Assume reasonable value to any quantity you need; justify your assumption. You may use g = 10 m/s2, By what factor will it change if the student lies on back ?
Answer:
Assume area of each foot = area of a 6 cm × 25 cm rectangle.
∴ Area of both feet = 0.03 m2
∴ The pressure due to the student’s weight
= \(\frac{m g}{A}\) = \(\frac{50 \times 10}{0.03}\) = 16.7 kPa

According to the most widely used Du Bois formula for body surface area (BSA), the student’s BSA = 1.5 m2, so that the area of his back is less than half his BSA, i.e., < 0.75 m2. When the student lies on his back, his area of contact is much smaller than this. So, estimating the area of contact to be 0.3 m2, i.e., 10 times more than the area of his feet, the pressure will be less by a factor of 10 or more, [Du Bois formula : BSA = 0.2025 × W0.425 × H0.725, where W is weight in kilogram and H is height in metre.]

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 30)

Question 1.
The figures show three containers filled with the same oil. How will the pressures at the reference compare ?
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 2 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 85
Answer:
Filled to the same level, the pressure is the same at the bottom of each vessel.

Use Your Brain Power (Textbook Page 35)

Question 1.
Prove that equivalent SI unit of surface tension is J/m2.
Answer:
The SI unit of surface tension =
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 2 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 86

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 2 Mechanical Properties of Fluids

Try This (Textbook Page No. 36)

Question 1.
Take a ring of about 5 cm in diameter. Tie a thread slightly loose at two diametrically opposite points on the ring. Dip the ring into a soap solution and take it out. Break the film on any one side of the thread. Discuss what happens.
Answer:
On taking the ring out, there is a soap film stretched over the ring, in which the thread moves about quite freely. Now, if the film is punctured with a pin on one side-side A in below figure-then immediately the thread is pulled taut by the film on the other side as far as it can go. The thread is now part of a perfect circle, because the surface tension on the side F of the film acts everywhere perpendicular to the thread, and minimizes the surface area of the film to as small as possible.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 2 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 87

Can You Tell ? (Textbook Page No. 38)

Question 1.
How does a waterproofing agent work ?
Answer:
Wettability of a surface, and thus its propensity for penetration of water, depends upon the affinity between the water and the surface. A liquid wets a surface when its contact angle with the surface is acute. A waterproofing coating has angle of contact obtuse and thus makes the surface hydrophobic.

Brain Teaser (Textbook Page No. 41)

Question 1.
Can you suggest any method to measure the surface tension of a soap solution? Will this method have any commercial application?
Answer:
There are more than 40 methods for determining equilibrium surface tension at the liquid-fluid and solid-fluid boundaries. Measuring the capillary rise (see Unit 2.4.7) is the laboratory method to determine surface tension.

Among the various techniques, equilibrium surface tension is most frequently measured with force tensiometers or optical (or the drop profile analysis) tensiometers in customized measurement setups.
[See https: / / www.biolinscientific.com /measurements /surface-tension]

Question 2.
What happens to surface tension under different gravity (e.g., aboard the International Space Station or on the lunar surface)?
Answer:
Surface tension does not depend on gravity.
[Note : The behaviour of liquids on board an orbiting spacecraft is mainly driven by surface tension phenomena. These make predicting their behaviour more difficult than under normal gravity conditions (i.e., on the Earth’s surface). New challenges appear when handling liquids on board a spacecraft, which are not usually present in terrestrial environments. The reason is that under the weightlessness (or almost weightlessness) conditions in an orbiting spacecraft, the different inertial forces acting on the bulk of the liquid are almost zero, causing the surface tension forces to be the dominant ones.

In this ‘micro-gravity’ environment, the surface tension forms liquid drops into spheres to minimize surface area, causes liquid columns in a capillary rise up to its rim (without over flowing). Also, when a liquid drop impacts on a dry smooth surface on the Earth, a splash can be observed as the drop disintegrates into thousands of droplets. But no splash is observed as the drop hits dry smooth surface on the Moon. The difference is the atmosphere. As the Moon has no atmosphere, and therefore no gas surrounding a falling drop, the drop on the Moon does not splash.
(See http://mafija.fmf.uni-Ij.si/]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 2 Mechanical Properties of Fluids

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 45)

Question 1.
What would happen if two streamlines intersect?
Answer:
The velocity of a fluid molecule is always tangential to the streamline. If two streamlines intersect, the velocity at that point will not be constant or unique.

Activity

Question 1.
Identify some examples of streamline flow and turbulent flow in everyday life. How would you explain them ? When would you prefer a streamline flow?
Answer:
Smoke rising from an incense stick inside a wind-less room, air flow around a car or aeroplane in motion are some examples of streamline flow, Fish, dolphins, and even massive whales are streamlined in shape to reduce drag. Migratory birds species that fly long distances often have particular features such as long necks, and flocks of birds fly in the shape of a spearhead as that forms a streamlined pattern.

Turbulence results in wasted energy. Cars and aeroplanes are painstakingly streamlined to reduce fluid friction, and thus the fuel consumption. (See ‘Disadvantages of turbulence’ in the following box.) Turbulence is commonly seen in washing machines and kitchen mixers. Turbulence in these devices is desirable because it causes mixing. (Also see ‘Advantages of turbulence’ in the following box.) Recent developments in high-speed videography and computational tools for modelling is rapidly advancing our understanding of the aerodynamics of bird and insect flights which fascinate both physicists and biologists.

Use your Brain power (Textbook Page No. 46)

Question 1.
The CGS unit of viscosity is the poise. Find the relation between the poise and the SI unit of viscosity.
Answer:
By Newton’s law of viscosity,
\(\frac{F}{A}\) = η\(\frac{d v}{d y}\)
where \(\frac{F}{A}\) is the viscous drag per unit area, \(\frac{d v}{d y}\) is the velocity gradient and η is the coefficient of viscosity of the fluid. Rewriting the above equation as
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 2 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 99
SI unit : the pascal second (abbreviated Pa.s), 1 Pa.s = 1 N.m-2.s
CGS unit: dyne.cm-2.s, called the poise [symbol P, named after Jean Louis Marie Poiseuille (1799 -1869), French physician].
[Note : Thè most commonly used submultiples are the millipascalsecond (mPa.s) and the centipoise (cP). 1 mPa.s = 1 cP.]

Use your Brain power (Textbook Page No. 49)

Question 1.
A water pipe with a diameter of 5.0 cm is connected to another pipe of diameter 2.5 cm. How would the speeds of the water flow compare ?
Answer:
Water is an incompressible fluid (almost). Then, by the equation of continuity, the ratio of the speeds, is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 2 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 100

Do you know? (Textbook Page No. 50)

Question 1.
How does an aeroplane take off?
Answer:
A Venturi meter is a horizontal constricted tube that is used to measure the flow speed through a pipeline. The constricted part of the tube is called the throat. Although a Venturi meter can be used for a gas, they are most commonly used for liquids. As the fluid passes through the throat, the higher speed results in lower pressure at point 2 than at point 1. This pressure difference is measured from the difference in height h of the liquid levels in the U-tube manometer containing a liquid of density ρm. The following treatment is limited to an incompressible fluid.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 2 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 101
Let A1 and A2 be the cross-sectional areas at points 1 and 2, respectively. Let v1 and v2 be the corresponding flow speeds. ρ is the density of the fluid in the pipeline. By the equation of continuity,
v1A1 = v2A2 … (1)
Since the meter is assumed to be horizontal, from Bernoufli’s equation we get,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 2 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 102
The pressure difference is equal to ρmgh, where h is the differences in liquid levels in the manometer.
Then,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 2 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 103
Equation (3) gives the flow speed of an incompressible fluid in the pipeline. The flow rates of practical interest are the mass and volume flow rates through the meter.
Volume flow rate =A1v1 and mass flow rate = density × volume flow
rate = ρA1v1
[Note When a Venturi meter is used in a liquid pipeline, the pressure difference is measured from the difference in height h of the levels of the same liquid in the two vertical tubes, as shown in the figure. Then, the pressure difference is equal to ρgh.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 2 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 104
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 2 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 105
The flow meter is named after Giovanni Battista Venturi (1746—1822), Italian physicist.]

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 2 Mechanical Properties of Fluids

Question 2.
Why do racer cars and birds have typical shape ?
Answer:
The streamline shape of cars and birds reduce drag.

Question 3.
Have you experienced a sideways jerk while driving a two wheeler when a heavy vehicle overtakes you ?
Answer:
Suppose a truck passes a two-wheeler or car on a highway. Air passing between the vehicles flows in a narrower channel and must increase its speed according to Bernoulli’s principle causing the pressure between them to drop. Due to greater pressure on the outside, the two-wheeler or car veers towards the truck.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 2 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 120
When two ships sail parallel side-by-side within a distance considerably less than their lengths, since ships are widest toward their middle, water moves faster in the narrow gap between them. As water velocity increases, the pressure in between the ships decreases due to the Bernoulli effect and draws the ships together. Several ships have collided and suffered damage in the early twentieth century. Ships performing At-sea refueling or cargo transfers performed by ships is very risky for the same reason.

Question 4.
Why does dust get deposited only on one side of the blades of a fan ?
Answer:
Blades of a ceiling/table fan have uniform thickness (unlike that of an aerofoil) but are angled (cambered) at 8° to 12° (optimally, 10°) from their plane. When they are set rotating, this camber causes the streamlines above/behind a fan blade to detach away from the surface of the blade creating a very low pressure on that side. The lower/front streamlines however follow the blade surface. Dust particles stick to a blade when it is at rest as well as when in motion both by intermolecular force of adhesion and due to static charges. However, they are not dislodged from the top/behind surface because of complete detachment of the streamlines.

The lower/front surface retains some of the dust because during motion, a thin layer of air remains stationary relative to the blade.

Question 5.
Why helmets have specific shape?
Answer:
Air drag plays a large role in slowing bike riders (especially, bicycle) down. Hence, a helmet is aerodynamically shaped so that it does not cause too much drag.

Use your Brainpower (Textbook Page No. 52)

Question 1.
Does Bernoulli’s equation change when the fluid is at rest? How?
Answer:
Bernoulli’s principle is for fluids in motion. Hence, it is pointless to apply it to a fluid at rest. Nevertheless, for a fluid is at rest, the Bernoulli equation gives the pressure difference due to a liquid column.

For a static fluid, v1 = v2 = 0. Bernoulli’s equation in that case is p1 + ρgh1 = ρ2 + ρgh2

Further, taking h2 as the reference height of zero, i.e., by setting h2 = 0, we get p2 = p1 + ρgh1

This equation tells us that in static fluids, pressure increases with depth. As we go from point 1 to point 2 in the fluid, the depth increases by h1 and consequently, p2 is greater than p1 by an amount ρgh1.

In the case, p1 = p0, the atmospheric pressure at the top of the fluid, we get the familiar gauge pressure at a depth h1 = ρgh1. Thus, Bernoulli’s equation confirms the fact that the pressure change due to the weight of a fluid column of length h is ρgh.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Rotational Dynamics

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Physics Textbook Solutions Chapter 1 Rotational Dynamics Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Rotational Dynamics

1. Choose the correct option.

i) When seen from below, the blades of a ceiling fan are seen to be revolving anticlockwise and their speed is decreasing. Select the correct statement about the directions of its angular velocity and angular acceleration.
(A) Angular velocity upwards, angular acceleration downwards.
(B) Angular velocity downwards, angular acceleration upwards.
(C) Both, angular velocity and angular acceleration, upwards.
(D) Both, angular velocity and angular acceleration, downwards.
Answer:
(A) Angular velocity upwards, angular acceleration downwards.

ii) A particle of mass 1 kg, tied to a 1.2 m long string is whirled to perform the vertical circular motion, under gravity. The minimum speed of a particle is 5 m/s. Consider the following statements.
P) Maximum speed must be 5 5 m/s.
Q) Difference between maximum and minimum tensions along the string is 60 N. Select the correct option.
(A) Only statement P is correct.
(B) Only statement Q is correct.
(C) Both the statements are correct.
(D) Both the statements are incorrect.
Answer:
(C) Both the statements are correct.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Rotational Dynamics

iii) Select the correct statement about the formula (expression) of the moment of inertia (M.I.) in terms of mass M of the object and some of its distance parameter/s, such as R, L, etc.
(A) Different objects must have different expressions for their M.I.
(B) When rotating about their central axis, a hollow right circular cone and a disc have the same expression for the M.I.
(C) Expression for the M.I. for a parallelepiped rotating about the transverse axis passing through its centre includes its depth.
(D) Expression for M.I. of a rod and that of a plane sheet is the same about a transverse axis.
Answer:
(B) When rotating about their central axis, a hollow right circular cone and a disc have the same expression for the M.I.

iv) In a certain unit, the radius of gyration of a uniform disc about its central and transverse axis is \(\sqrt{2.5}\). Its radius of gyration about a tangent in its plane (in the same unit) must be
(A) \(\sqrt{5}\)
(B) 2.5
(C) 2\(\sqrt{2.5}\)
(D) \(\sqrt{12.5}\)
Answer:
(B) 2.5

v) Consider following cases:
(P) A planet revolving in an elliptical orbit.
(Q) A planet revolving in a circular orbit.
Principle of conservation of angular momentum comes in force in which of these?
(A) Only for (P)
(B) Only for (Q)
(C) For both, (P) and (Q)
(D) Neither for (P), nor for (Q)
Answer:
(C) For both, (P) and (Q)

X) A thin walled hollow cylinder is rolling down an incline, without slipping. At any instant, the ratio ”Rotational K.E.:
Translational K.E.: Total K.E.” is
(A) 1:1:2
(B) 1:2:3
(C) 1:1:1
(D) 2:1:3
Answer:
(D) 2:1:3

2. Answer in brief.

i) Why are curved roads banked?
Answer:
A car while taking a turn performs circular motion. If the road is level (or horizontal road), the necessary centripetal force is the force of static friction between the car tyres and the road surface. The friction depends upon the nature of the surfaces in contact and the presence of oil and water on the road. If the friction is inadequate, a speeding car may skid off the road. Since the friction changes with circumstances, it cannot be relied upon to provide the necessary centripetal force. Moreover, friction results in fast wear and tear of the tyres.

To avoid the risk of skidding as well as to reduce the wear and tear of the car tyres, the road surface at a bend is tilted inward, i.e., the outer side of the road is raised above its inner side. This is called banking of road. On a banked road, the resultant of the normal reaction and the gravitational force can act as the necessary centripetal force. Thus, every car can be safely driven on such a banked curve at certain optimum speed, without depending on friction. Hence, a road should be properly banked at a bend.

The angle of banking is the angle of inclination of the surface of a banked road at a bend with the horizontal.

ii) Do we need a banked road for a two wheeler? Explain.
Answer:
When a two-wheeler takes a turn along an unbanked road, the force of friction provides the centripetal force. The two-wheeler leans inward to counteract a torque that tends to topple it outward. Firstly, friction cannot be relied upon to provide the necessary centripetal force on all road conditions. Secondly, the friction results in wear and tear of the tyres. On a banked road at a turn, any vehicle can negotiate the turn without depending on friction and without straining the tyres.

iii) On what factors does the frequency of a conical pendulum depend? Is it independent of some factors?
Answer:
The frequency of a conical pendulum, of string length L and semivertical angle θ, is
n = \(\frac{1}{2 \pi} \sqrt{\frac{g}{L \cos \theta}}\)
where g is the acceleration due to gravity at the place.
From the above expression, we can see that

  1. n ∝ \(\sqrt{g}\)
  2. n ∝ \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{L}}\)
  3. n ∝ \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\cos \theta}}\)
    (if θ increases, cos θ decreases and n increases)
  4. The frequency is independent of the mass of the bob.

iv) Why is it useful to define radius of gyration?
Answer:
Definition : The radius of gyration of a body rotating about an axis is defined as the distance between the axis of rotation and the point at which the entire mass of the body can be supposed to be concentrated so as to give the same moment of inertia as that of the body about the given axis.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Rotational Dynamics 65
The moment of inertia (MI) of a body about a given rotation axis depends upon

  1. the mass of the body and
  2. the distribution of mass about the axis of rotation. These two factors can be separated by expressing the MI as the product of the mass (M) and the square of a particular distance (k) from the axis of rotation. This distance is called the radius of gyration and is defined as given above. Thus,
    Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Rotational Dynamics 66

Physical significance : The radius of gyration is less if I is less, i.e., if the mass is distributed close to the axis; and it is more if I is more, i.e., if the mass is distributed away from the axis. Thus, it gives the idea about the distribution of mass about the axis of rotation.

v) A uniform disc and a hollow right circular cone have the same formula for their M.I., when rotating about their central axes. Why is it so?
Answer:
The radius of gyration of a thin ring of radius Rr about its transverse symmetry axis is
Kr = \(\sqrt{I_{\mathrm{CM}} / M_{\mathrm{r}}}\) = \(\sqrt{R_{\mathrm{r}}^{2}}\) = Rr
The radius of gyration of a thin disc of radius Rd about its transverse symmetry axis is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Rotational Dynamics 70

Question 3.
While driving along an unbanked circular road, a two-wheeler rider has to lean with the vertical. Why is it so? With what angle the rider has to lean? Derive the relevant expression. Why such a leaning is not necessary for a four wheeler?
Answer:
When a bicyclist takes a turn along an unbanked road, the force of friction \(\vec{f}_{\mathrm{s}}\) provides the centripetal force; the normal reaction of the road \(\vec{N}\) is vertically up. If the bicyclist does not lean inward, there will be an unbalanced outward torque about the centre of gravity, fs.h, due to the friction force that will topple the bicyclist outward. The bicyclist must lean inward to counteract this torque (and not to generate a centripetal force) such that the opposite inward torque of the couple formed by \(\vec{N}\) and the weight \(\vec{g}\), mg.a = fs.h1
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Rotational Dynamics 1

Since the force of friction provides the centripetal force,
fs = \(\frac{m v^{2}}{r}\)
If the cyclist leans from the vertical by an angle 9, the angle between \(\vec{N}\) and \(\vec{F}\) in above figure.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Rotational Dynamics 2
Hence, the cyclist must lean by an angle
θ = tan-1\(\left(\frac{v^{2}}{g r}\right)\)

When a car takes a turn along a level road, apart from the risk of skidding off outward, it also has a tendency to roll outward due to an outward torque about the centre of gravity due to the friction force. But a car is an extended object with four wheels. So, when the inner wheels just get lifted above the ground, it can be counterbalanced by a restoring torque of the couple formed by the normal reaction (on the outer wheels) and the weight.

Question 4.
Using the energy conservation, derive the expressions for the minimum speeds at different locations along a vertical circular motion controlled by gravity. Is zero speed possible at the uppermost point? Under what condition/s? Also prove that the difference between the extreme tensions (or normal forces) depends only upon the weight of the object.
Answer:
In a non uniform vertical circular motion, e.g., those of a small body attached to a string or the loop-the-loop manoeuvers of an aircraft or motorcycle or skateboard, the body must have some minimum speed to reach the top and complete the circle. In this case, the motion is controlled only by gravity and zero speed at the top is not possible.

However, in a controlled vertical circular motion, e.g., those of a small body attached to a rod or the giant wheel (Ferris wheel) ride, the body or the passenger seat can have zero speed at the top, i.e., the motion can be brought to a stop.

Question 5.
Discuss the necessity of radius of gyration. Define it. On what factors does it depend and it does not depend? Can you locate some similarity between the centre of mass and radius of gyration? What can you infer if a uniform ring and a uniform disc have the same radius of gyration?
Answer:
Definition : The radius of gyration of a body rotating about an axis is defined as the distance between the axis of rotation and the point at which the entire mass of the body can be supposed to be concentrated so as to give the same moment of inertia as that of the body about the given axis.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Rotational Dynamics 10
The moment of inertia (MI) of a body about a given rotation axis depends upon

  1. the mass of the body and
  2. the distribution of mass about the axis of rotation. These two factors can be separated by expressing the MI as the product of the mass (M) and the square of a particular distance (k) from the axis of rotation. This distance is called the radius of gyration and is defined as given above. Thus,

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Rotational Dynamics 11

Physical significance : The radius of gyration is less if I is less, i.e., if the mass is distributed close to the axis; and it is more if I is more, i.e., if the mass is distributed away from the axis. Thus, it gives the idea about the distribution of mass about the axis of rotation.

The centre of mass (CM) coordinates locates a point where if the entire mass M of a system of particles or that of a rigid body can be thought to be concentrated such that the acceleration of this point mass obeys Newton’s second law of motion, viz.,
\(\vec{F}_{\mathrm{net}}\) = M\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{a}}_{\mathrm{CM}}\), where \(\vec{F}_{\mathrm{net}}\) is the sum of all the external forces acting on the body or on the individual particles of the system of particles.

Similarly, radius of gyration locates a point from the axis of rotation where the entire mass M can be thought to be concentrated such that the angular acceleration of that point mass about the axis of rotation obeys the relation, \(\vec{\tau}_{\mathrm{net}}\) = M\(\vec{\alpha}\), where \(\vec{\tau}_{\text {net }}\) is the sum of all the external torques acting on the body or on the individual particles of the system of particles.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Rotational Dynamics

Question 6.
State the conditions under which the theorems of parallel axes and perpendicular axes are applicable. State the respective mathematical expressions.
Answer:
The theorem of parallel axis is applicable to any body of arbitrary shape. The moment of inertia (MI) of the body about an axis through the centre mass should be known, say, ICM. Then, the theorem can be used to find the MI, I, of the body about an axis parallel to the above axis. If the distance between the two axes is h,
I = ICM + Mh2 …(1)
The theorem of perpendicular axes is applicable to a plane lamina only. The moment of inertia Iz of a plane lamina about an axis-the z axis- perpendicular to its plane is equal to the sum of its moments of inertia Ix and Iy about two mutually perpendicular axes x and y in its plane and through the point of intersection of the perpendicular axis and the lamina.
Iz = Ix + Iy …. (2)

Question 7.
Derive an expression that relates angular momentum with the angular velocity of a rigid body.
Answer:
Consider a rigid body rotating with a constant angular velocity \(\vec{\omega}\) about an axis through the point O and perpendicular to the plane of the figure. All the particles of the body perform uniform circular motion about the axis of rotation with the same angular velocity \(\vec{\omega}\). Suppose that the body consists of N particles of masses m1, m2, …, mn, situated at perpendicular distances r1, r2, …, rN, respectively from the axis of rotation.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Rotational Dynamics 15
The particle of mass m1 revolves along a circle of radius r1, with a linear velocity of magnitude v1 = r1ω. The magnitude of the linear momentum of the particle is
p1 = m1v1 = m1r1ω
The angular momentum of the particle about the axis of rotation is by definition,
\(\vec{L}_{1}\) = \(\vec{r}_{1}\) × \(\vec{p}_{1}\)
∴ L1 = r1p1 sin θ
where θ is the smaller of the two angles between \(\vec{r}_{1}\) and \(\vec{p}_{1} \text { . }\)
In this case, θ = 90° ∴ sin θ = 1
∴ L1 = r1p1 = r1m1r1ω = m1r12ω
Similarly L2 = m2r22ω, L3 = m3r32ω, etc.
The angular momentum of the body about the given axis is
L = L1 + L2 + … + LN
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Rotational Dynamics 20
where I = \(\sum_{i=1}^{N} m_{i} r_{i}^{2}\) = moment of inertia of the body about the given axis.
In vector form, \(\vec{L}\) = \(I \vec{\omega}\)
Thus, angular momentum = moment of inertia × angular velocity.
[Note : Angular momentum is a vector quantity. It has the same direction as \(\vec{\omega}\).]

Question 8.
Obtain an expression relating the torque with angular acceleration for a rigid body.
Answer:
A torque acting on a body produces angular acceleration. Consider a rigid body rotating about an axis passing through the point O and perpendicular to the plane of the figure. Suppose that a torque \(\vec{\tau}\) on
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Rotational Dynamics 25
the body produces uniform angular acceleration \(\vec{\alpha}\) along the axis of rotation.
The body can be considered as made up of N particles with masses m1, m2, …, mN situated at perpendicular distances r1, r2, …, rN respectively from the axis of rotation, \(\vec{\alpha}\) is the same for all the particles as the body is rigid. Let \(\vec{F}_{1}\), \(\vec{F}_{2}\), …, \(\vec{F}_{N}\) be the external forces on the particles.
The torque \(\vec{\tau}_{1}\), on the particle of mass m1, is
\(\vec{\tau}_{1}\) = \(\vec{r}_{1}\) × \(\vec{F}_{1}\)
∴ τ1 = r1F1 sin θ
where θ is the smaller of the two angles between \(\vec{r}_{1}\) and \(\vec{F}_{1} .\)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Rotational Dynamics 26
where
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Rotational Dynamics 27
is the moment of inertia of the body about the axis of rotation.
In vector form, \(\vec{\tau}\) = I\(\vec{\alpha}\)
This gives the required relation.
Angular acceleration \(\vec{\alpha}\) has the same direction as the torque \(\vec{\tau}\) and both of them are axial vectors along the rotation axis.

Question 9.
State and explain the principle of conservation of angular momentum. Use a suitable illustration. Do we use it in our daily life? When?
Answer:
Law (or principle) of conservation of angular momentum : The angular momentum of a body is conserved if the resultant external torque on the body is zero.
Explanation : This law (or principle) is used by a figure skater or a ballerina to increase their speed of rotation for a spin by reducing the body’s moment of inertia. A diver too uses it during a somersault for the same reason.

(1) Ice dance :
Twizzle and spin are elements of the sport of figure skating. In a twizzle a skater turns several revolutions while travelling on the ice. In a dance spin, the skater rotates on the ice skate and centred on a single point on the ice. The torque due to friction between the ice skate and the ice is small. Consequently, the angular momentum of a figure skater remains nearly constant.

For a twizzle of smaller radius, a figure skater draws her limbs close to her body to reduce moment of inertia and increase frequency of rotation. For larger rounds, she stretches out her limbs to increase moment of inertia which reduces the angular and linear speeds.

A figure skater usually starts a dance spin in a crouch, rotating on one skate with the other leg and both arms extended. She rotates relatively slowly because her moment of inertia is large. She then slowly stands up, pulling the extended leg and arms to her body. As she does so, her moment of inertia about the axis of rotation decreases considerably,and thereby her angular velocity substantially increases to conserve angular momentum.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Rotational Dynamics 35

(2) Diving :
Take-off from a springboard or diving platform determines the diver’s trajectory and the magnitude of angular momentum. A diver must generate angular momentum at take-off by moving the position of the arms and by a slight hollowing of the back. This allows the diver to change angular speeds for twists and somersaults in flight by controlling her/his moment of inertia. A compact tucked shape of the body lowers the moment of inertia for rotation of smaller radius and increased angular speed. The opening of the body for the vertical entry into water does not stop the rotation, but merely slows it down. The angular momentum remains constant throughout the flight.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Rotational Dynamics

Question 10.
Discuss the interlink between translational, rotational and total kinetic energies of a rigid object that rolls without slipping.
Answer:
Consider a symmetric rigid body, like a sphere or a wheel or a disc, rolling on a plane surface with friction along a straight path. Its centre of mass (CM) moves in a straight line and, if the frictional force on the body is large enough, the body rolls without slipping. Thus, the rolling motion of the body can be treated as translation of the CM and rotation about an axis through the CM. Hence, the kinetic energy of a rolling body is
E = Etran + Erot ……. (1)

where Etran and Erot are the kinetic energies associated with translation of the CM and rotation about an axis through the CM, respectively.

Let M and R be the mass and radius of the body. Let ω, k and i be the angular speed, radius of gyration and moment of inertia for rotation about an axis through its centre, and v be the translational speed of the centre of mass.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Rotational Dynamics 36

Question 11.
A rigid object is rolling down an inclined plane. Derive expressions for the acceleration along the track and the speed after falling through a certain vertical distance.
Answer:
Consider a circularly symmetric rigid body, like a sphere or a wheel or a disc, rolling with friction down a plane inclined at an angle 9 to the horizontal. If the frictional force on the body is large enough, the body rolls without slipping.
Let M and R be the mass and radius of the body. Let I be the moment of inertia of the body for rotation about an axis through its centre. Let the body start from rest at the top of the incline at a
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Rotational Dynamics 37
height h. Let v be the translational speed of the centre of mass at the bottom of the incline. Then, its kinetic energy at the bottom of the incline is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Rotational Dynamics 38
Let a be the acceleration of the centre of mass of the body along the inclined plane. Since the body starts from rest,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Rotational Dynamics 39
Starting from rest, if t is the time taken to travel the distance L,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Rotational Dynamics 40
[Note : For rolling without slipping, the contact point of the rigid body is instantaneously at rest relative to the surface of the inclined plane. Hence, the force of friction is static rather than kinetic, and does no work on the body. Thus, the force of static friction causes no decrease in the mechanical energy of the body and we can use the principle of conservation of energy.]

Question 12.
Somehow, an ant is stuck to the rim of a bicycle wheel of diameter 1 m. While the bicycle is on a central stand, the wheel
is set into rotation and it attains the frequency of 2 rev/s in 10 seconds, with uniform angular acceleration. Calculate
(i) Number of revolutions completed by the ant in these 10 seconds.
(ii) Time taken by it for first complete revolution and the last complete revolution.
[Ans:10 rev., tfirst = \(\sqrt{10}\)s, tlast = 0.5132s]
Answer:
Data : r = 0.5 m, ω0 = 0, ω = 2 rps, t = 10 s

(i) Angular acceleration (α) being constant, the average angular speed,
ωav = \(\frac{\omega_{\mathrm{o}}+\omega}{2}\) = \(\frac{0+2}{2}\) = 1 rps
∴ The angular displacement of the wheel in time t,
θ = ωav ∙ t = 1 × 10 = 10 revolutions

(ii)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Rotational Dynamics 41
The time for the last, i.e., the 10th, revolution is t1 – t2 = 10 – 9.486 = 0.514 s

Question 13.
Coefficient of static friction between a coin and a gramophone disc is 0.5. Radius of the disc is 8 cm. Initially the
centre of the coin is 2 cm away from the centre of the disc. At what minimum frequency will it start slipping from there? By what factor will the answer change if the coin is almost at the rim?
(use g = π2 m/s2)
[Ans: 2.5 rev/s, n2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\)n1]
Answer:
Data : µs = 0.5, r1 = π cm = π × 10-2 m, r2 = 8 cm = 8 × 10-2 m, g = π2 m/s2
To revolve with the disc without slipping, the necessary centripetal force must be less than or equal to the limiting force of static friction.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Rotational Dynamics 43
The coin will start slipping when the frequency is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Rotational Dynamics 44
The minimum frequency in the second case will be \(\sqrt{\frac{\pi}{8}}\) times that in the first case.
[ Note The answers given in the textbook are for r1 = 2 cm.]

Question 14.
Part of a racing track is to be designed for a radius of curvature of 72 m. We are not recommending the vehicles to drive faster than 216 kmph. With what angle should the road be tilted? At what height will its outer edge be, with respect to the inner edge if the track is 10 m wide?
[Ans: θ = tan-1 (5) = 78.69°, h = 9.8 m]
Answer:
Data : r = 72 m, v0 = 216 km/h, = 216 × \(\frac{5}{18}\)
= 60 m/s, w = 10 m, g = 10 m/s2
tan θ = \(\frac{v_{\mathrm{o}}^{2}}{r g}\) = \(\frac{(60)^{2}}{72 \times 10}\) = \(\frac{3600}{720}\) = 5
∴ θ = tan-1 5 = 78°4′
This is the required angle of banking.
sin θ = \(\frac{h}{w}\)
∴ h = w sin θ = (10) sin 78°4′ = 10 × 0.9805
= 9.805 m
This gives the height of the outer edge of the track relative to the inner edge.

Question 15.
The road in the example 14 above is constructed as per the requirements. The coefficient of static friction between the tyres of a vehicle on this road is 0.8, will there be any lower speed limit? By how much can the upper speed limit exceed in this case?
[Ans: vmin ≅ 88 kmph, no upper limit as the road is banked for θ > 45°]
Answer:
Data : r = 72 m, θ = 78 °4′, µs = 0.8, g = 10 m/s2 tan θ = tan 78°4′ = 5
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Rotational Dynamics 45
= 24.588 m/s = 88.52 km/h
This will be the lower limit or minimum speed on this track.
Since the track is heavily banked, θ > 45 °, there is no upper limit or maximum speed on this track.

Question 16.
During a stunt, a cyclist (considered to be a particle) is undertaking horizontal circles inside a cylindrical well of radius 6.05 m. If the necessary friction coefficient is 0.5, how much minimum speed should the stunt artist maintain? Mass of the artist is 50 kg. If she/he increases the speed by 20%, how much will the force of friction be?
[Ans: vmin = 11 m/s, fs = mg = 500 N]
Answer:
Data : r = 6.05 m, µs = 0.5, g = 10 m/s2, m = 50 kg, ∆v = 20%
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Rotational Dynamics 72
This is the required minimum speed. So long as the cyclist is not sliding, at every instant, the force of static friction is fs = mg = (50)(10) = 500 N

Question 17.
A pendulum consisting of a massless string of length 20 cm and a tiny bob of mass 100 g is set up as a conical pendulum. Its bob now performs 75 rpm. Calculate kinetic energy and increase in the gravitational potential energy of the bob. (Use π 2 = 10 )
[Ans: cos θ = 0.8, K.E. = 0.45 J, ∆(P E.) = 0.04 J]
Answer:
Data : L = 0.2 m, m = 0.1 kg, n = \(\frac{75}{60}\) = \(\frac{5}{4}\) rps,
g = 10 m/s2, π2 = 10,
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Rotational Dynamics 50
The increase in gravitational PE,
∆PE = mg(L – h)
= (0.1) (10) (0.2 – 0.16)
= 0.04 J

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Rotational Dynamics

Question 18.
A motorcyclist (as a particle) is undergoing vertical circles inside a sphere of death. The speed of the motorcycle varies between 6 m/s and 10 m/s. Calculate diameter of the sphere of death. What are the minimum values are possible for these two speeds?
[Ans: Diameter = 3.2 m, (v1)min = 4 m/s, (v2)min = 4 \(\sqrt{5}\)/m s ]
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Rotational Dynamics 51
= 1.6 m
The diameter of the sphere of death = 3.2 m.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Rotational Dynamics 52
The required minimum values of the speeds are 4 m/s and 4\(\sqrt{5}\) m/s.

Question 19.
A metallic ring of mass 1 kg has moment of inertia 1 kg m2 when rotating about one of its diameters. It is molten and remoulded into a thin uniform disc of the same radius. How much will its moment of inertia be, when rotated about its own axis.
[Ans: 1 kg m2]
Answer:
The MI of the thin ring about its diameter,
Iring = \(\frac{1}{2}\)MR2 = 1 kg.m2
Since the ring is melted and recast into a thin disc of same radius R, the mass of the disc equals the mass of the ring = M.
The MI of the thin disc about its own axis (i.e., transverse symmetry axis) is
Idisc = \(\frac{1}{2}\)MR2 = Iring
∴ Idisc = 1 kg.m2

Question 20.
A big dumb-bell is prepared by using a uniform rod of mass 60 g and length 20 cm. Two identical solid thermocol spheres of mass 25 g and radius 10 cm each are at the two ends of the rod. Calculate moment of inertia of the dumbbell when rotated about an axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to the length.
[Ans: 24000 g cm-2]
Answer:
Data : Msph = 50 g, Rsph = 10 cm, Mrod = 60 g, Lrod = 20 cm
The MI of a solid sphere about its diameter is
Isph,CM = \(\frac{2}{5}\)MsphRsph
The distance of the rotation axis (transverse symmetry axis of the dumbbell) from the centre of sphere, h = 30 cm.
The MI of a solid sphere about the rotation axis, Isph = Isph, CM + Msphh2
For the rod, the rotation axis is its transverse symmetry axis through CM.
The MI of a rod about this axis,
Irod = \(\frac{1}{12}\) MrodL2rod
Since there are two solid spheres, the MI of the dumbbell about the rotation axis is
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Rotational Dynamics 55

Question 21.
A flywheel used to prepare earthenware pots is set into rotation at 100 rpm. It is in the form of a disc of mass 10 kg and
radius 0.4 m. A lump of clay (to be taken equivalent to a particle) of mass 1.6 kg falls on it and adheres to it at a certain
distance x from the centre. Calculate x if the wheel now rotates at 80 rpm.
[Ans: x = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{8}}\)m = 0.35 m]
Answer:
Data : f1 = 60 rpm = 60/60 rot/s = 1 rot/s,
f2 = 30 rpm = 30/60 rot/s = \(\frac{1}{2}\) rot/s, ∆E = — 100 J

(i)
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Rotational Dynamics 56
This gives the MI of the flywheel about the given axis.

(ii) Angular momentum, L = Iω = I(2πf) = 2πIf
The change in angular momentum, ∆L
= L2 – L1 = 2πI(f2 – f1)
= 2 × 3.142 × 6.753(\(\frac{1}{2}\) – 1)
= -3.142 × 6.753 = -21.22 kg.m2/s

Question 22.
Starting from rest, an object rolls down along an incline that rises by 3 units in every 5 units (along it). The object gains a speed of \(\sqrt{10}\) m/s as it travels a distance of \(\frac{5}{3}\)m along the incline. What can be the possible shape/s of the object?
[Ans: \(\frac{K^{2}}{R^{2}}\) = 1. Thus, a ring or a hollow cylinder]
Answer:
Data : sin θ = \(\frac{3}{5}\), u = 0, v = \(\sqrt{10}\) m/s, L = \(\frac{5}{3}\)m, g = 10 m/s2
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Rotational Dynamics 60
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Rotational Dynamics 61
Therefore, the body rolling down is either a ring or a cylindrical shell.

12th Physics Digest Chapter 1 Rotational Dynamics Intext Questions and Answers

Activity (Textbook Page No. 3)

Question 1.
Attach a body of suitable mass to a spring balance so that it stretches by about half its capacity. Now whirl the spring balance so that the body performs a horizontal circular motion. You will notice that the balance now reads more for the same body. Can you explain this ?
Answer:
Due to outward centrifugal force.

Use your brain power (Textbook Page No. 4)

Question 1.
Obtain the condition for not toppling (rollover) for a four-wheeler. On what factors does it depend and how?
Answer:
Consider a car of mass m taking a turn of radius r along a level road. As seen from an inertial frame of reference, the forces acting on the car are :

  1. the lateral limiting force of static friction \(\overrightarrow{f_{\mathrm{s}}}\) on the wheels-acting along the axis of the wheels and towards the centre of the circular path- which provides the necessary centripetal force,
  2. the weight \(m \vec{g}\) acting vertically downwards at the centre of gravity (C.G.)
  3. the normal reaction \(\vec{N}\) of the road on the wheels, acting vertically upwards effectively at the C.G. Since maximum centripetal force = limiting force of static friction,
    mar = \(\frac{m v^{2}}{r}\) = fs…. (1)

In a simplified rigid-body vehicle model, we consider only two parameters-the height h of the C.G. above the ground and the average distance b between the left and right wheels called the track width.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Rotational Dynamics 201
The friction force \(\overrightarrow{f_{s}}\) on the wheels produces a torque \(\tau_{\mathrm{t}}\) that tends to overturn/rollover the car about the outer wheel. Rotation about the front-to-back axis is called roll.
\(\tau_{\mathrm{t}}\) = fs.h = \(\left(\frac{m v^{2}}{r}\right)\)h … (2)

When the inner wheel just gets lifted above the ground, the normal reaction \(\vec{N}\) of the road acts on the outer wheels but the weight continues to act at the C.G. Then, the couple formed by the normal reaction and the weight produces a opposite torque \(\tau_{\mathrm{r}}\) which tends to restore the car back on all four wheels
\(\tau_{\mathrm{r}}\) = mg.\(\frac{b}{2}\) …. (3)
The car does not topple as long as the restoring torque \(\tau_{\mathrm{r}}\) counterbalances the toppling torque \(\tau_{\mathrm{t}}\). Thus, to avoid the risk of rollover, the maximum speed that the car can have is given by
\(\left(\frac{m v^{2}}{r}\right)\)h = mg.\(\frac{b}{2}\) ∴ vmax = \(\sqrt{\frac{r b g}{2 h}}\) … (4)

Thus, vehicle tends to roll when the radial acceleration reaches a point where inner wheels of the four-wheeler are lifted off of the ground and the vehicle is rotated outward. A rollover occurs when the gravitational force \(m \vec{g}\) passes through the pivot point of the outer wheels, i.e., the C.G. is above the line of contact of the outer wheels. Equation (3) shows that this maximum speed is high for a car with larger track width and lower centre of gravity.

There will be rollover (before skidding) if \(\tau_{t}\) ≥ \(\tau_{\mathrm{r}}\), that is if
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Rotational Dynamics 202
The vehicle parameter ratio, \(\frac{b}{2 h}\), is called the static stability factor (SSF). Thus, the risk of a rollover is low if SSF ≤ µs. A vehicle will most likely skid out rather than roll if µs is too low, as on a wet or icy road.

Question 2.
Think about the normal reactions. Where are those and how much are those?
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Rotational Dynamics 203
In a simplified vehicle model, we assume the normal reactions to act equally on all the four wheels, i.e., mg/4 on each wheel. However, the C.G. is not at the geometric centre of a vehicle and the wheelbase (i.e., the distance L between its front and rear wheels) affects the weight distribution of the vehicle. When a vehicle is not accelerating, the normal reactions on each pair of front and rear wheels are, respectively,
Nf = \(\frac{d_{\mathrm{r}}}{L}\)mg and Nr = \(\frac{d_{\mathrm{f}}}{L}\) mg
where dr and df are the distances of the rear and front axles from the C.G. [When a vehicle accelerates, additional torque acts on the axles and the normal reactions on the wheels change. So, as is common experience, a car pitches back (i.e., rear sinks and front rises) when it accelerates, and a car pitches ahead (i.e., front noses down). Rotation about the lateral axis is called pitch.]

Question 3.
What is the recommendations on loading a vehicle for not toppling easily?
Answer:
Overloading (or improper load distribution) or any load placed on the roof raises a vehicle’s centre of gravity, and increases the vehicle’s likelihood of rolling over. A roof rack should be fitted by considering weight limits.

Road accidents involving rollovers show that vehicles with higher h (such as SUVs, pickup vans and trucks) topple more easily than cars. Untripped rollovers normally occur when a top-heavy vehicle attempts to perform a panic manoeuver that it physically cannot handle.

Question 4.
If a vehicle topples while turning, which wheels leave the contact with the road? Why?
Answer:
Inner wheels.
Consider a car of mass m taking a turn of radius r along a level road. As seen from an inertial frame of reference, the forces acting on the car are :

  1. the lateral limiting force of static friction \(\overrightarrow{f_{\mathrm{s}}}\) on the wheels-acting along the axis of the wheels and towards the centre of the circular path- which provides the necessary centripetal force,
  2. the weight \(m \vec{g}\) acting vertically downwards at the centre of gravity (C.G.)
  3. the normal reaction \(\vec{N}\) of the road on the wheels, acting vertically upwards effectively at the C.G. Since maximum centripetal force = limiting force of static friction,
    mar = \(\frac{m v^{2}}{r}\) = fs…. (1)

In a simplified rigid-body vehicle model, we consider only two parameters-the height h of the C.G. above the ground and the average distance b between the left and right wheels called the track width.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Rotational Dynamics 201
The friction force \(\overrightarrow{f_{s}}\) on the wheels produces a torque \(\tau_{\mathrm{t}}\) that tends to overturn/rollover the car about the outer wheel. Rotation about the front-to-back axis is called roll.
\(\tau_{\mathrm{t}}\) = fs.h = \(\left(\frac{m v^{2}}{r}\right)\)h … (2)

When the inner wheel just gets lifted above the ground, the normal reaction \(\vec{N}\) of the road acts on the outer wheels but the weight continues to act at the C.G. Then, the couple formed by the normal reaction and the weight produces a opposite torque \(\tau_{\mathrm{r}}\) which tends to restore the car back on all four wheels
\(\tau_{\mathrm{r}}\) = mg.\(\frac{b}{2}\) …. (3)
The car does not topple as long as the restoring torque \(\tau_{\mathrm{r}}\) counterbalances the toppling torque \(\tau_{\mathrm{t}}\). Thus, to avoid the risk of rollover, the maximum speed that the car can have is given by
\(\left(\frac{m v^{2}}{r}\right)\)h = mg.\(\frac{b}{2}\) ∴ vmax = \(\sqrt{\frac{r b g}{2 h}}\) … (4)

Thus, vehicle tends to roll when the radial acceleration reaches a point where inner wheels of the four-wheeler are lifted off of the ground and the vehicle is rotated outward. A rollover occurs when the gravitational force \(m \vec{g}\) passes through the pivot point of the outer wheels, i.e., the C.G. is above the line of contact of the outer wheels. Equation (3) shows that this maximum speed is high for a car with larger track width and lower centre of gravity.

Question 5.
How does [tendency to] toppling affect the tyres?
Answer:
While turning, shear stress acts on the tyre-road contact area. Due to this, the treads and side wall of a tyre deform. Apart from less control, this contributes to increased and uneven wear of the shoulder of the tyres.

Each wheel is placed under a small inward angle (called camber) in the vertical plane. Under severe lateral acceleration, when the car rolls, the camber angle ensures the complete contact area is in contact with the road and the wheels are now in vertical position. This improves the cornering behavior of the car. Improperly inflated and worn tyres can be especially dangerous because they inhibit the ability to maintain vehicle control. Worn tires may cause the vehicle to slide
sideways on wet or slippery pavement, sliding the vehicle off the road and increasing its risk of rolling over.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Rotational Dynamics

Question 6.
What is the recommendation for this?
Answer:
Because of uneven wear of the tyre shoulders, tyres should be rotated every 10000 km-12000 km. To avoid skidding, rollover and tyre-wear, the force of friction should not be relied upon to provide the necessary centripetal force during cornering. Instead, the road surface at a bend should be banked, i.e., tilted inward.

A car while taking a turn performs circular motion. If the road is level (or horizontal road), the necessary centripetal force is the force of static friction between the car tyres and the road surface. The friction depends upon the nature of the surfaces in contact and the presence of oil and water on the road. If the friction is inadequate, a speeding car may skid off the road. Since the friction changes with circumstances, it cannot be relied upon to provide the necessary centripetal force. Moreover, friction results in fast wear and tear of the tyres.

To avoid the risk of skidding as well as to reduce the wear and tear of the car tyres, the road surface at a bend is tilted inward, i.e., the outer side of the road is raised above its inner side. This is called banking of road. On a banked road, the resultant of the normal reaction and the gravitational force can act as the necessary centripetal force. Thus, every car can be safely driven on such a banked curve at certain optimum speed, without depending on friction. Hence, a road should be properly banked at a bend.

The angle of banking is the angle of inclination of the surface of a banked road at a bend with the horizontal.

When a two-wheeler takes a turn along an unbanked road, the force of friction provides the centripetal force. The two-wheeler leans inward to counteract a torque that tends to topple it outward. Firstly, friction cannot be relied upon to provide the necessary centripetal force on all road conditions. Secondly, the friction results in wear and tear of the tyres. On a banked road at a turn, any vehicle can negotiate the turn without depending on friction and without straining the tyres.

Question 7.
Determine the angle to be made with the vertical by a two-wheeler while turning on a horizontal track?
Answer:

When a bicyclist takes a turn along an unbanked road, the force of friction \(\vec{f}_{\mathrm{s}}\) provides the centripetal force; the normal reaction of the road \(\vec{N}\) is vertically up. If the bicyclist does not lean inward, there will be an unbalanced outward torque about the centre of gravity, fs.h, due to the friction force that will topple the bicyclist outward. The bicyclist must lean inward to counteract this torque (and not to generate a centripetal force) such that the opposite inward torque of the couple formed by \(\vec{N}\) and the weight \(\vec{g}\), mg.a = fs.h1
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Rotational Dynamics 1

Since the force of friction provides the centripetal force,
fs = \(\frac{m v^{2}}{r}\)
If the cyclist leans from the vertical by an angle 9, the angle between \(\vec{N}\) and \(\vec{F}\) in above figure.
Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Rotational Dynamics 2
Hence, the cyclist must lean by an angle
θ = tan-1\(\left(\frac{v^{2}}{g r}\right)\)

When a car takes a turn along a level road, apart from the risk of skidding off outward, it also has a tendency to roll outward due to an outward torque about the centre of gravity due to the friction force. But a car is an extended object with four wheels. So, when the inner wheels just get lifted above the ground, it can be counterbalanced by a restoring torque of the couple formed by the normal reaction (on the outer wheels) and the weight.

Question 8.
We have mentioned about ‘static friction’ between road and tyres. Why is it static friction? What about kinetic friction between road and tyres?
Answer:
When a car takes a turn on a level road, the point of contact of the wheel with the surface is instantaneously stationary if there is no slipping. Hence, the lateral force on the car is the limiting force of static friction between the tyres and road. Lateral forces allow the car to turn. As long as the wheels are rolling, there is lateral force of static friction and longitudinal force of rolling friction. Longtitudinal forces, which act in the direction of motion of the car body (or in the exact opposite direction), control the acceleration or deceleration of the car and therefore the speed of the car. These are the wheel force, rolling friction, braking force and air drag. If the car skids, the friction force is kinetic friction; more importantly, the direction of the friction force then changes abruptly from lateral to that opposite the velocity of skidding and not towards the centre of the curve, so that the car cannot continue in its curved path.

Question 9.
What do you do if your vehicle is trapped on a slippery or sandy road? What is the physics involved?
Answer:
Driving on a country road should be attempted only with a four-wheel drive. However, if you do get stuck in deep sand or mud, avoid unnecessary panic and temptation to drive your way out of the mud or sand because excessive spinning of your tyres will most likely just dig you into a deeper hole. Momentum is the key to getting unstuck from sand or mud. One method is the rocking method-rocking your car backwards and forwards to gain momentum. Your best option is usually to gain traction and momentum by wedging a car mat (or sticks, leaves, gravel or rocks) in front and under your drive wheels. Once you start moving, keep the momentum going until you are on more solid terrain.

Use your brain power (Textbook Page No. 6)

Question 1.
As a civil engineer, you are to construct a curved road in a ghat. In order to calculate the banking angle 0, you need to decide the speed limit. How will you decide the values of speed and radius of curvature at the bend ?
Answer:
For Indian roads, Indian Road Congress (IRC), [IRC-73-1980, Table 2, p.4], specifies the design speed depending on the classification of roads (such as national and state highways, district roads and village roads) and terrain. It is the basic design parameter which determines further geometric design features. For the radius of curvature at a bend, IRC [ibid., Table 16, p.24] specifies the absolute minimum values based on the minimum design speed. However, on new roads, curves should be designed to have the largest practicable radius, generally more than the minimum values specified, to allow for ‘sight distance’ and ‘driver comfort’. To consider the motorist driving within the innermost travel lane, the radius used to design horizontal curves should be measured to the inside edge of the innermost travel lane, particularly for wide road-ways with sharp horizontal curvature.

A civil engineer refers to banking as superelevation e;e = tan θ. IRC fixes emax = 0.07 for a non-urban road and the coefficient of lateral static friction, µ = 0.15, the friction between the vehicle tyres and the road being incredibly variable. Ignoring the product eµ, from Eq. (6)
e + µ = \(\frac{v^{2}}{g r}\) (where both v and r are in SI units)
= \(\frac{V^{2}}{127 r}\)(where V is in km / h and r is in metre) …. (1)
The sequence of design usually goes like this :

  1. Knowing the design speed V and radius r, calculate the superelevation for 75% of design speed ignormg friction : e = \(\frac{(0.75 \mathrm{~V})^{2}}{127 r}\) = \(\frac{V^{2}}{225 r}\)
  2. If e < 0.07, consider this calculated value of e in subsequent calculations. If e > 0.07, then take e = emax = 0.07.
  3. Use Eq. (1) above to check the value of µ for emax = 0.07 at the full value of the design speed V : µ = \(\frac{V^{2}}{127 r}\) – 0.07
    If µ < 0.15, then e = 0.07 is safe. Otherwise, calculate the allowable speed Va as in step 4.
  4. \(\frac{V_{\mathrm{a}}^{2}}{127 r}\) = e + p = 0.07 + 0.15
    If Va > V, then the design speed V is adequate.
    If Va < V, then speed is limited to Va with appropriate warning sign.

Use your brain power (Textbook Page No. 7)

Question 1.
If friction is zero, can a vehicle move on the road? Why are we not considering the friction in deriving the expression for the banking angle?
Answer:
Friction is necessary for any form of locomotion. Without friction, a vehicle cannot move. The banking angle for a road at a bend is calculated for optimum speed at which every vehicle can negotiate the bend without depending on friction to provide the necessary lateral centripetal force.

Question 2.
What about the kinetic friction between the road and the lyres?
Answer:
When a car takes a turn on a level road, the point of contact of the wheel with the surface is instantaneously stationary if there is no slipping. Hence, the lateral force on the car is the limiting force of static friction between the tyres and road. Lateral forces allow the car to turn. As long as the wheels are rolling, there is lateral force of static friction and longitudinal force of rolling friction. Longtitudinal forces, which act in the direction of motion of the car body (or in the exact opposite direction), control the acceleration or deceleration of the car and therefore the speed of the car. These are the wheel force, rolling friction, braking force and air drag. If the car skids, the friction force is kinetic friction; more importantly, the direction of the friction force then changes abruptly from lateral to that opposite the velocity of skidding and not towards the centre of the curve, so that the car cannot continue in its curved path.

Use your brain power (Textbook Page No. 12)

Question 1.
What is expected to happen if one travels fast over a speed breaker? Why?
Answer:
The maximum speed with which a car can travel over a road surface, which is in the form of a convex arc of radius r, is \(\sqrt{r g}\) where g is the acceleration due to gravity. For a speed breaker, r is very small (of the order of 1 m). Hence, one must slow down considerably while going over a speed breaker. Otherwise, the car will lose contact with the road and land with a thud.

Question 2.
How does the normal force on a concave suspension bridge change when a vehicle is travelling on it with a constant speed ?
Answer:
At the lowest point, N-mg provides the centripetal force. Therefore, N-mg = \(\frac{m v^{2}}{r}\), so that N = m(g + \(\frac{v^{2}}{r}\)).
Therefore, N increases with increasing v.

Maharashtra Board Class 12 Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Rotational Dynamics

Use your brain power (Textbook Page No. 15)

Question 1.
For the point P in above, we had to extend OC to Q to meet the perpendicular PQ. What will happen to the expression for I if the point P lies on OC?
Answer:
There will be no change in the expression for the MI (I) about the parallel axis through O.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 8 Memory

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 8 Memory Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Psychology Important Questions Chapter 8 Memory

1A. Complete the following statements.

Question 1.
__________ is the retention of information over time for the purpose of future action.
(A) Learning
(B) Memory
(C) Attention
Answer:
(B) Memory

Question 2.
__________ plays an important role in storage of memory.
(A) Hippocampus
(B) Amygdala
(C) Nervous system
Answer:
(A) Hippocampus

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 8 Memory

Question 3.
The term __________ memory was coined by Miller, Galanter, and Pribram around 1960.
(A) sensory
(B) working
(C) long-term
Answer:
(B) working

Question 4.
Visuo-spatial sketch pad (VSSP) is a/an __________ system.
(A) passive
(B) active
(C) non-functional
Answer:
(A) passive

Question 5.
Autobiographical memory is a type of __________ memory.
(A) implicit
(B) procedural
(C) declarative
Answer:
(C) declarative

Question 6.
In __________ recall, the material is recalled in the exact order in which it was presented.
(A) serial
(B) free
(C) definite
Answer:
(A) serial

Question 7.
__________ is one of the major ways of measuring memory.
(A) Rote learning
(B) Perception
(C) Relearning
Answer:
(C) Relearning

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 8 Memory

Question 8.
__________ is the evidence for the organisation of long-term memory.
(A) Serial recall
(B) Tip of the tongue phenomenon
(C) Recognition
Answer:
(B) Tip of the tongue phenomenon

Question 9.
The pioneer of experiments on forgetting was __________
(A) Murdock
(B) Hermann Ebbinghaus
(C) Baddeley
Answer:
(B) Hermann Ebbinghaus

Question 10.
__________ interference means backward interference.
(A) Retroactive
(B) Proactive
(C) Passive
Answer:
(A) Retroactive

Question 11.
__________ is a Greek word meaning ‘of memory or related to memory.’
(A) Mnemonic
(B) Syllable
(C) LTM
Answer:
(A) Mnemonic

Question 12.
The final stage in POWER method is __________
(A) evaluate
(B) rethink
(C) relearn
Answer:
(B) rethink

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 8 Memory

1B. Match the following pairs.

Question 1.

A B
i. LTM a. Conscious
ii. Explicit memory b. Less than one second
iii. Sensory memory c. Life-time memory
iv. Procedural memory d. Autobiographical events
e. Unconscious

Answer:

A B
i. LTM c. Life-time memory
ii. Explicit memory a. Conscious
iii. Sensory memory b. Less than one second
iv. Procedural memory e. Unconscious

1C. State whether the following statements are true or false. If false, correct them. If true, explain why.

Question 1.
There are four basic processes of memory.
Answer:
False
Reason: There are three basic processes of memory, viz. encoding/acquisition, storage, and retrieval.

Question 2.
Short-term memory is known by many other terms.
Answer:
True
Explanation: Short-term or working memory was formerly known as ‘short term store’. It is also known as primary memory, immediate memory, operant memory, and provisional memory.

Question 3.
Baddeley called LTM the working bench of memory.
Answer:
False
Reason: Baddeley called STM the working bench of memory because STM is the most important stage of memory which is used most of the time for problem-solving.

Question 4.
Very often forgetting is due to unconscious processes like repression.
Answer:
True
Explanation: We subconsciously push unwanted thoughts and memories into our unconsciousness. It is one of the causes of forgetting.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 8 Memory

Question 5.
In recognition, a person has to retrieve information from LTM with no cues.
Answer:
False
Reason: In recognition, a person has to point out or recognize previously learned material that is presented to him in a different context.

Question 6.
There are five levels of motivated forgetting.
Answer:
False
Reason: There are two levels of motivated forgetting, viz. Repression and Thought suppression.

Question 7.
The Method of Loci provides information about how context can affect memory.
Answer:
False
Reason: ‘The encoding specificity of memory’ provides information about how context can affect memory.

Question 8.
There are many techniques for improving memory.
Answer:
True
Explanation: Some of the techniques of improving memory are keyword method, encoding specificity, method of loci, mnemonic devices, practice, and rehearsal, minimizing interference, and POWER method.

1D. Identify the odd item from the following.

Question 1.
Episodic memory, Semantic memory, Autobiographical memory, Implicit memory
Answer:
Implicit memory

2A. Explain the following concepts

Question 1.
Memory
Answer:
According to Tulving, ‘Memory is the means by which we draw on our past experiences in order to use that information in the present. Memory is the term given to the structure and processes involved in the storage and subsequent retrieval of information.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 8 Memory

Question 2.
Central executive
Answer:
The central executive is a supervisor responsible for the coordination of the subsystems and the selection of reasoning and storage strategies in the working memory model given by Baddeley.

Question 3.
Episodic buffer
Answer:
The episodic buffer holds information that is not covered by all other slave systems in the working memory model given by Baddeley. It is a link between working memory and long-term memory.

Question 4.
Autobiographical memory
Answer:
Autobiographical memory refers to episodes recollected from an individual’s own life. It is a type of declarative memory.

Question 5.
Flashbulb memory
Answer:
Flashbulb memory is a highly detailed and exceptionally clear ‘snapshot’ of mostly a traumatic moment. It is a type of autobiographical memory. Flashbulb memories illustrate that exceptional memories are easily retrieved.

Question 6.
Relearning
Answer:
Relearning measures retention by measuring how much faster one learns a previously learned material after an interval of time, i.e. the same material is learned by the same subject based on the same learning criterion at two different occasions separated by time interval.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 8 Memory

Question 7.
Forgetting
Answer:
Forgetting is the inability to remember the things which we want to remember at that moment. In other words, it is the failure to retrieve the material from our long-term memory which we have already stored.

2B. Compare and contrast.

Question 1.
Primacy effect and Recency effect
Answer:

  • The primacy effect occurs when the subject is able to recall items that are presented at the starting point of the list while the recency effect occurs when the subject is able to recall the items which are presented at the end. Free recall is effective in studying both these effects.
  • Both primary and recency effect was witnessed in Murdock’s experiment where subjects could prominently recall the first few and last few words from the list.
  • The primacy effect is the tendency to remember the first piece of information that we encounter in a better manner than the information presented later on. Conversely, the recency effect is the tendency to remember the most recent information in a better way.

Question 2.
Retroactive interference and Proactive interference
Answer:

  • Retroactive interference is the partial or complete forgetfulness of the previously learned material due to new memories that get mixed up with the older ones. On the other hand, proactive interference is the partial or complete forgetfulness of newly learned material due to the old material.
  • e.g. You studied Psychology yesterday and you studied Sociology today. If you forget Psychology due to the study of Sociology, it is due to retroactive interference while if you forget Sociology due to the study of Psychology, it is due to proactive interference.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 8 Memory 2B Q2

3. Answer the following questions in around 35-40 words each.

Question 1.
State the types of human memory.
Answer:
The following flow chart explains types of human memory:
Maharashtra Board Class 11 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 8 Memory 3 Q1

Question 2.
Explain the stages of memory.
Answer:

  • Environmental stimulus is received with the help of sense organs (sensory information store). This is where the memory is stored.
  • When we pay attention to the sensations, they are transferred to STM.
  • If information is rehearsed or appears frequently, then it is transferred to the LTM.
    Maharashtra Board Class 11 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 8 Memory 3 Q2
  • After encountering any problem, we bring the information from LTM to STM so that it’s available for solving the problem.

Question 3.
What do you mean by magical number 7?
Answer:

  • The magical number 7+/-2 provides evidence for a limited capacity of the STM.
  • Most adults can store between five and nine items in the STM.
  • This idea was put forward by George Miller in 1956 and hence called 7 as a magical number.

Question 4.
What is the Phonological Loop (PL)?
Answer:

  • The Phonological loop is responsible for verbal information.
  • It has two subsystems as follows:
    • The phonological/acoustic store is a passive component of the phonological loop. It holds on verbal information. If not rehearsed, this information is forgotten.
    • The articulatory loop involves rehearsing and refreshing the information, just like our inner voice.

Question 5.
Explain Murdock’s experiment.
Answer:

  • Murdock performed experiments to check the recall.
  • He asked his subjects to learn a list of words. Later, their recall was tested by a free recall method.
  • Murdock found that the subjects could recall the first few (primacy effect) and the last few (recency effect) words prominently. But they got confused with the words in the middle part (serial position effect).

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 8 Memory

4. Short Notes.

Question 1.
visuospatial Sketch Pad (VSSP)
Answer:

  • VSSP handles visual and spatial information. It is responsible for storing speech-based information.
  • It has two components, viz. Phonological memory store and Articulatory Subvocal Rehearsal.
  • Phonological memory stores can hold traces of acoustic or speech-based information.
  • Articulatory Subvocal Rehearsal maintains material in short-term store. Prevention of articulatory rehearsal leads to rapid forgetting.

Question 2.
Recall
Answer:

  • The recall is the retrieval of information from LTM with few or no cues. Recall can be in the written form or it can be oral.
  • The recall involves remembering a fact, event, or object that is not currently physically present and requires the direct uncovering of information from memory.
  • The recall is of two types, viz. free recall and serial recall.
  • Free recall is a recollection of the items in the list without their serial order, e.g. we may listen to a lecture and later recall few important points irrespective of the order in which they were presented.
  • In serial recall, the material is recalled in the exact order in which it was presented, e.g. when you solve a mathematical problem, you are doing steps one after the other; so, it is serial recall.
  • The recall is greatly affected by emotions and motivation at the time of learning and retrieval.
  • Also, memory for the free recall is always better than if the subjects are asked to recall in a serial order.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 8 Memory

Question 3.
Hermann Ebbinghaus’s experiment
Answer:

  • The pioneer of experiments on forgetting was Hermann Ebbinghaus.
  • He created several lists of nonsense syllables and learned them. A nonsense syllable is a set of three alphabets where two on both the sides are consonants and the middle one is a vowel, e.g. NOM, GEX.
  • He checked his own recall at various periods of time.
  • He found out that he forgot 40% of whatever he had learned in the first 20 minutes.
  • After one hour, he forgot 60% while after nine hours he forgot a total of 70% of what he had learned.
  • After one day, he could recall only around 30% of the material he learned. After that, his recall was steady for a long period of time.
  • This experiment proved that we forget most of the things we learn in a short span.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 8 Memory 4 Q3

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 7 Nervous System

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 7 Nervous System Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Psychology Important Questions Chapter 7 Nervous System

1A. Complete the following statements with appropriate options.

Question 1.
__________ of the neuron absorbs the food and keeps the cell alive.
(A) Nucleus
(B) Axon
(C) Cell body
Answer:
(A) Nucleus

Question 2.
__________ plays a role mainly in cognition, reward, learning and memory.
(A) Acetylcholine
(B) Dopamine
(C) Serotonin
Answer:
(C) Serotonin

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 7 Nervous System

Question 3.
The brain plays an important role in __________ mental processes like thinking, reasoning, and emotions.
(A) higher-order
(B) lower order
(C) neutral
Answer:
(A) higher-order

Question 4.
Cerebellum consists of __________ parts.
(A) two
(B) three
(C) four
Answer:
(A) two

Question 5.
__________ is a vital centre of the brain.
(A) Medulla oblongata
(B) Pons
(C) Forebrain
Answer:
(A) Medulla oblongata

Question 6.
__________ is a bridge between forebrain and hindbrain.
(A) Pons
(B) Midbrain
(C) Cerebrum
Answer:
(B) Midbrain

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 7 Nervous System

Question 7.
Cerebrum is the __________ part of the brain.
(A) largest
(B) smallest
(C) insignificant
Answer:
(A) largest

Question 8.
Each hemisphere of the brain is divided into __________ lobes.
(A) four
(B) six
(C) two
Answer:
(A) four

Question 9.
__________ is called as relay station of the brain.
(A) Hippocampus
(B) Thalamus
(C) Amygdala
Answer:
(B) Thalamus

Question 10.
__________ is called as the pleasure centre of our body.
(A) Hypothalamus
(B) Occipital lobe
(C) Spinal cord
Answer:
(A) Hypothalamus

Question 11.
A protein in the brain called __________ is related to Alzheimer’s disease.
(A) beta-amyloid plaque
(B) thyroxin
(C) gonad
Answer:
(A) beta-amyloid plaque

Question 12.
The spinal cord is connected to the periphery through __________ pairs of spinal nerves.
(A) 25
(B) 13
(C) 31
Answer:
(C) 31

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 7 Nervous System

Question 13.
The chemical substances secreted by endocrine glands are called __________
(A) hormones
(B) neurons
(C) axons
Answer:
(A) hormones

Question 14.
Hyposecretion of thyroxin leads to cretinism among __________
(A) old people
(B) children
(C) adults
Answer:
(B) children

Question 15.
In the case of __________, a person loses his weight and experiences irritated mood, sleeplessness as well as sweaty palms.
(A) Myxedema
(B) Acromegaly
(C) Grave’s disease
Answer:
(C) Grave’s disease

Question 16.
__________ is secreted by the pancreas.
(A) Glycogen
(B) Cortisone
(C) Progesterone
Answers:
(A) Glycogen

1B. Match the following pairs.

Question 1.

A B
i. Spinal cord a. PNS
ii. Autonomic Nervous system b. Telodendria
iii. Terminal Button c. Cerebrum
iv. Reticular Formation d. CNS
e. The Alarm clock of the body

Answer:

A B
i. Spinal cord d. CNS
ii. Autonomic Nervous system a. PNS
iii. Terminal Button b. Telodendria
iv. Reticular Formation e. The alarm clock of the body

1C. State whether the following statements are true or false.

Question 1.
The human nervous system is amongst all living creatures.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
The autonomic nervous system internal activity of the human body.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Dendrite is a gap between two neurons.
Answer:
False

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 7 Nervous System

Question 4.
Glutamate is the chief inhibitory neurotransmitter.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
The brain consists of five major parts.
Answer:
False

Question 6.
The brain stem is divided into medulla oblongata and pons.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
Medulla oblongata receives messages from higher centers of the brain.
Answer:
True

Question 8.
The reticular activation system is a bridge between two hemispheres.
Answer:
False

Question 9.
Midbrain consists of the superior and inferior colliculus.
Answer:
True

Question 10.
Two hemispheres of the brain are connected by a bundle of fibers called the corpus callosum.
Answer:
True

Question 11.
If a person’s left side of the body is paralyzed, neurons from the left side of his body stop functioning.
Answer:
False

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 7 Nervous System

Question 12.
The temporal lobe is in the cortex, just above the ears.
Answer:
True

Question 13.
People who exercise regularly have a higher risk of developing Alzheimer’s disease.
Answer:
False

Question 14.
The human brain consumes 40% of the body’s total energy.
Answer:
False

Question 15.
The spinal cord extends from neck to waist.
Answer:
True

Question 16.
Exocrine glands are also called ductless glands.
Answer:
False

Question 17.
In myxedema, a person becomes very huge, lacks motivation, and complains about weakness.
Answer:
True

Question 18.
The adrenal gland is also known as the sex gland.
Answer:
False

1D. Identify which hormones with hyposecretion or hypersecretion would lead to the following conditions.

Question 1.
Grave’s disease
Answer:
Hypersecretion – Thyroxin

2A. Explain the following concepts.

Question 1.
Nervous system
Answer:
The nervous system is the complex network of neurons that carry signals from brain to body and body to brain. Our nervous system consists of two major parts, viz, the central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 7 Nervous System

Question 2.
Cerebral cortex
Answer:
The cerebral cortex is the grey coloured outside cover of the cerebrum. It controls higher-order mental processes such as attention, perception, learning, and memory.

Question 3.
Reflex action
Answer:
Reflex action is an involuntary and nearly instantaneous movement in response to stimulus, e.g. salivation, sneezing, knee jerk, blinking of eyes. These are quick and simple patterns of behaviour without the involvement of the brain.

Question 4.
Glands
Answer:
Glands are specialized groups of cells or organs that secrete chemical substances. There are many glands. All glands fall into two categories, viz. endocrine and exocrine.

3. Answer the following questions in 35-40 words.

Question 1.
Explain the classification of the somatic nervous system.
Answer:

  • The somatic nervous system is divided into sensory and motor systems of the body.
  • It consists of sensory nerves (afferent nerves) and motor nerves (efferent nerves). Sensory nerves send messages from the body to the brain and motor nerves send messages from the brain to the body.

Question 2.
Why do we get different reactions to every situation?
Answer:

  • When a neural message passes from end buttons to the dendrite of another neuron, it has to cross the chemical gap between two neurons (synapse).
  • As neurons are not directly connected to each other, we don’t have fixed reactions to every situation.

Question 3.
State any two functions of the brain.
Answer:

  • The brain helps to adapt to the environment and tries to analyze, store and synthesize the information it receives.
  • The brain plays a crucial role in every aspect of our lives like decision making, emotional experience, and social interactions.

Question 4.
Why are we supposed to wear helmets while riding a bike?
Answer:

  • If someone meets with an accident while riding a bike, the person falls back on his head.
  • Most of the time, his Medulla oblongata is damaged which will lead to instant death.
  • Hence, we are supposed to wear helmets while riding a bike.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 7 Nervous System

Question 5.
Explain the impact of hypersecretion of any four hormones.
Answer:

  • Parathyroxin: An individual experiences a feeling of nausea, vomiting sensation. He also feels sleepy and relaxed.
  • Cortin or cortisone: An individual experiences increased sexual drive. Females start looking like males.
  • Adrenalin and noradrenaline: An individual experiences increased heartbeat, blood pressure, and breathing rate.
  • Androgen and testosterone: An individual shows a tendency towards sexual behaviour. He feels very energetic and engages in aggressive behaviour.

Question 6.
Explain the impact of the hyposecretion of any three hormones.
Answer:

  • Parathyroxin: An individual lacks motivation and energy. He experiences weakness, muscle cramps, and spasms.
  • Cortin or cortisone: An individual feels very lazy, lacks sexual drive, and experiences loss of hunger and weight.
  • Androgen and testosterone: Males do not have a desire for sex and their voice remains childlike.

4. Write short notes.

Question 1.
Nervous system
Answer:

  • The nervous system is the complex network of neurons that carry signals from brain to body and body to brain.
  • The human nervous system is the most complicated yet highly developed among all living creatures.
  • Our nervous system consists of two major parts, viz, the central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system.
  • The central nervous system consists of the brain and spinal cord while the peripheral nervous system consists of the somatic and autonomic nervous systems.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 7 Nervous System 4 Q1

Question 2.
Brain and nutrition
Answer:

  • Nutrition plays an important role in brain functioning. Nutritional deficiency may lead to neurological problems.
  • Despite representing only 2% of the body’s total mass, the human brain consumes 20% of the body’s total energy due. to the increased metabolic needs of human beings.
  • Nutrition plays a crucial role during developing years so to optimize the functions of the brain. It is also essential during old age to avoid the degeneration of cells.
  • Nutrition enhances brain functioning. It prevents as well as helps in treating neurological disorders.
  • As evolution took place, human life became more complicated and demanding. As a result, the need for nutrition by the brain kept on increasing.
  • Today human brain is exposed to a high level of stress which results in oxidation, Any food which is high in antioxidants (almonds, dark chocolate, onions, berries, mangoes, seafood) helps to control the ill effects of oxidation.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 7 Nervous System

Question 3.
Spinal Cord
Answer:

  • The spinal cord is an important part of the central nervous system. It extends from neck to waist.
  • Its main function is to send information from the brain to the body and from to the body to the brain.
  • It controls reflex actions like salivation, knee jerk, blinking of eyes.
  • The spinal cord is connected to the periphery through 31 pairs of spinal nerves.
  • Each spinal nerve is joined to the spinal cord through two routes: the dorsal and ventral routes.
  • If dorsal routes are injured, we will not have sensations while if ventral routes are injured, we will not be able to move our body and control reflex actions.

5. Answer in 150-200 words.

Question 1.
Write a note on neurons.
Answer:

  • Neurons are specialized networks of cells that transmit messages from the brain to the body and from the body to the brain. They are the basic units of the nervous system.
  • A neuron consists of dendrites, axon, cell body, and terminal button or telocentric.
  • The cell body is the body of neurons. The nucleus of the neuron absorbs the food and keeps the cell alive.
  • The neural message comes in through the dendrites. These are branch-like structures.
  • The neural message goes out from the axon of the neuron.
  • At the end of the axon, there are end buttons. It is a bulb-like structure containing chemicals known as neurotransmitters.
  • Neurotransmitters are chemical messengers. The neural message jumps across the synapse in order to reach the dendrite of another neuron.
  • When the neural message is passing through, it excites or inhibits the neurotransmitter in it. This chemical reaction decides our reaction to various situations in life.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 7 Nervous System

Question 2.
Explain any five pillars of better brain functioning.
Answer:

  • Physical and mental exercise: Exercise improves blood flow and memory. It also stimulates chemical changes in the brain that improve learning, mood, and thinking.
  • Tackling medical problems: Hypertension, diabetes, obesity, depression, head trauma, higher cholesterol, and smoking increase the risk of dementia. One can control and reduce this risk by going for regular health check-ups and taking medication if required.
  • Sleep and relaxation: Sleep energizes the brain, improves mood and immune system by clearing wastage and toxins from the body. Practicing meditation and managing stress will help to control the age-related decline in brain health.
  • Mental fitness: It improves the brain’s functioning and promotes new brain cell growth. This helps to decrease the chances of developing dementia. A person can keep his brain stimulated by solving puzzles, watching stimulating movies, or learning something new.
  • Social interaction: It is good for brain health to spend time with others, participate in stimulating conversation, and stay connected with family and friends. Studies have shown that those who interact more show less decline in their memory.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 6 Stress

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 6 Stress Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Psychology Important Questions Chapter 6 Stress

1A. Complete the following statements.

Question 1.
_____________ stress is referred to as a physical or psychological reaction that may lead to illness.
(A) Medical
(B) Emotional
(C) Psychological
Answer:
(A) Medical

Question 2.
_____________ is the base of four Kleshas.
(A) Avidya
(B) Dvesha
(C) Abhinivesha
Answer:
(A) Avidya

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 6 Stress

Question 3.
In Sanskrit, mental health is explained as _____________
(A) swasthya
(B) avidya
(C) arogya
Answer:
(A) swasthya

Question 4.
According to the _____________ prefix, ‘EU’ means good.
(A) Greek
(B) Latin
(C) Italian
Answer:
(A) Greek

Question 5.
_____________ is known as good stress.
(A) Hypo stress
(B) Distress
(C) Eustress
Answer:
(C) Eustress

Question 6.
_____________ increases the heart rate, elevates blood pressure and boosts energy supplies.
(A) Adrenaline
(B) Dopamine
(C) Cortisol
Answer:
(A) Adrenaline

Question 7.
Hans Selye’s General Adaptation Syndrome Model consists of _____________ stages.
(A) four
(B) five
(C) three
Answer:
(C) three

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 6 Stress

Question 8.
Conflict is a _____________ word which means ‘striking two things at the same time’.
(A) Latin
(B) Greek
(C) French
Answer:
(A) Latin

Question 9.
Lewin talked about _____________
(A) valance
(B) psychoanalysis
(C) conflicts
Answer:
(A) valance

Question 10.
In _____________ focused coping strategy, stress is reduced by resolving the conflict through work on the task at hand.
(A) emotion
(B) problem
(C) thought
Answer:
(B) problem

Question 11.
At times, a lack of capacity to achieve the goal urges individuals to readjust their goals. This is known as _____________
(A) withdrawal
(B) compromise
(C) attack
Answer:
(B) compromise

Question 12.
_____________ theory of Psychoanalysis is the base of defence mechanisms.
(A) Freud’s
(B) Selye’s
(C) Webster’s
Answer:
(A) Freud’s

Question 13.
_____________ operates on two energies.
(A) Ego
(B) ID
(C) Superego
Answer:
(B) ID

Question 14.
_____________ is an indirect way to deal with stress.
(A) Psychoanalysis
(B) Problem-focused coping
(C) Defence mechanism
Answer:
(C) Defence mechanism

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 6 Stress

Question 15.
In _____________, the material can be recalled up to a certain extent.
(A) suppression
(B) repression
(C) sublimation
Answer:
(A) suppression

1B. Match the following pairs.

Question 1.

A B
i. Avidya a. Ego
ii. Asmita b. Repulsion
iii. Raga c. Ignorance
iv. Dvesha d. Lust for life
v. Abhinivesha e. Attraction

Answer:

A B
i. Avidya c. Ignorance
ii. Asmita a. Ego
iii. Raga e. Attraction
iv. Dvesha b. Repulsion
v. Abhinivesha d. Lust for life

1C. State whether the following statements are true or false. If false, correct them. If true, explain why?

Question 1.
Different people deal with stress in different ways.
Answer:
True
Explanation: Different people deal with stress in different ways depending upon their genetic predisposition and environmental conditions.

Question 2.
Dopamine and oxytocin hormones are associated with negative feelings.
Answer:
False
Reason: Dopamine and oxytocin hormones are associated with positive feelings.

Question 3.
Depression is an example of chronic distress.
Answer:
True
Explanation: Depression is an example of chronic distress as it causes constant changes in moods for a long period of time. A depressed person experiences recurrent negative stress.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 6 Stress

Question 4.
Hans Selye asserted that stress is always harmful.
Answer:
False
Reason: Hans Selye asserted that the stress of creative and successful work is beneficial whereas that of failure and humiliation is harmful.

Question 5.
External stressors result in peace of mind.
Answer:
False
Reason: External stressors result in frustration, anger, and disappointment.

Question 6.
The value of the goal differs from person to person.
Answer:
True
Explanation: The value of the goal is subjective. A goal may be attractive or unattractive based on whether an individual wants to achieve it or avoid it.

Question 7.
In avoidance-avoidance conflict, an individual is repelled by both goals.
Answer:
True
Explanation: Avoidance-Avoidance conflict involves two unattractive goals with negative values.

1D. Identify the odd item from the following.

Question 1.
Avidya, Arogya, Asmita, Abhinivesha
Answer:
Arogya

Question 2.
Fatigue, Burn out, Depression, Irritability, Anxiety
Answer:
Irritability

Question 3.
Noise, crowding, Strict parents, Weak economic condition, Hunger
Answer:
Hunger

1E. Identify the conflict of motive that is experienced by the person in the following situation.

Question 1.
Ajit likes two cars but he has enough money to buy only one of them.
Answer:
Approach – Approach conflict

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 6 Stress

Question 2.
Nishant must do his mathematics homework which he dislikes or get a beating from his parents.
Answer:
Avoidance – Avoidance conflict

Question 3.
Sartaj has to choose between two girls for marriage. One is good-looking but boring. The other one is fun but short.
Answer:
Double Approach – Avoidance conflict

Question 4.
Ami would love to buy a new house but it will create a burden on the family’s financial budget.
Answer:
Approach – Avoidance conflict

Question 5.
Shreya has to decide between two appealing destinations for her vacation.
Answer:
Approach – Approach conflict

Question 6.
Rita either has to be late for work or break traffic rules by driving during the red light.
Answer:
Avoidance – Avoidance conflict

Question 7.
Nisha has a choice between two jobs. One is far away but pays well. The other one is close to her house but has no room for advancement.
Answer:
Double Approach – Avoidance conflict

1F. Identify the defense mechanism used in each of the following examples.

Question 1.
Alisha, who was sexually abused as a child, cannot remember the abuse at all.
Answer:
Repression

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 6 Stress

Question 2.
Ritesh dresses and acts like Spiderman, his favourite superhero.
Answer:
Identification

Question 3.
Suresh hates his neighbour but believes that his neighbour hates him.
Answer:
Projection

Question 4.
Rajesh, who is very aggressive, becomes a football player.
Answer:
Sublimation

Question 5.
Sanjana gets reprimanded by her boss and goes home and fights with her husband.
Answer:
Displacement

Question 6.
Sanket who is cut off from a sports team fantasizes about winning the Olympics.
Answer:
Daydreaming

Question 7.
Shruti is attracted to her sister’s husband but denies this and believes that her sister’s husband is attracted to her.
Answer:
Projection

Question 8.
After being rejected by a prestigious university, Harshil explains that he is glad because he would be happier at a smaller, less competitive college.
Answer:
Rationalization

Question 9.
Neha really admires Priya, the most popular girl in school and tries to copy her behaviour and dressing style.
Answer:
Identification

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 6 Stress

Question 10.
Three years after being hospitalized, Sonali can remember only vague details about the event.
Answer:
Repression

Question 11.
Angered by her neighbour’s hateful comment, Ekta spanks her daughter for accidentally spilling milk.
Answer:
Displacement

2A. Explain the following concepts.

Question 1.
Stress
Answer:
The word stress is derived from the Latin word ‘stringi’ which means ‘to be drawn tight’. Stress refers to the discomfort experienced by an individual in demanding situations. It arises when an individual is able to mobilize lesser resources than the situation demands.

Question 2.
Leisure
Answer:
Leisure is quality time spent away from work, domestic duties, studies, after a heavily exhausting period. It has relaxing and recreational qualities. We have choice and freedom in our leisure time.

Question 3.
Cortisol
Answer:
Cortisol is the primary stress hormone. It increases sugar (glucose) in the bloodstream, enhancing the brain’s use of glucose and increases the availability of substances that repair tissues.

Question 4.
Stressors
Answer:
Stressors are environmental conditions, external stimuli, or events that cause stress to an organism. There are two types of stressors, viz. internal stressors and external stressors.

Question 5.
Frustration
Answer:
Frustration is a common emotional response related to anger and disappointment. When an individual is highly motivated to achieve something and when his goal-directed behaviour is blocked by an obstacle, it results in frustration.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 6 Stress

Question 6.
Id
Answer:
Id is the most primitive storehouse of our biological energy. Id has psychic energy. It operates on the pleasure principle and demands immediate gratification of desires.

Question 7.
Defense mechanisms
Answer:
Defense mechanisms are an indirect way to combat stress. These are the unconscious strategies used to protect the ego from shattering due to unacceptable and harsh reality. It is a stop-gap arrangement that provides some time for the person to come to terms with reality. It is a face-saving device.

2B. Compare and contrast with examples.

Question 1.
Acute distress and Chronic distress
Answer:

  • Acute distress is an intense, short-term negative stress while chronic distress is a long-lasting, recurrent negative distress.
  • Acute distress occurs when there is a sudden change in routine or when we experience panic or threat, e.g. traffic jam, accident. Chronic distress is the worst type of stress-causing constant changes in routine for a long period of time. e.g. illness of a family member, death of a spouse.

3. Answer the following questions in around 35-40 words each.

Question 1.
What are the effects of hypo stress?
Answer:
Hypo stress is an insufficient amount of stress which is caused when a person has nothing to do at all. Its effects are as follows:

  • It leads to boredom.
  • It causes feelings of restlessness.
  • People become demotivated and unenthusiastic.

Question 2.
What are the ill effects of distress?
Answer:
Distress is a negative type of stress. Its ill effects are as follows:

  • Our body is flooded with emergency response hormones such as adrenaline and cortisol.
  • It can cause physical conditions like headaches, digestive issues, and sleep disturbances.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 6 Stress

Question 3.
Identify the possible reactions to Approach-Avoidance conflict.
Answer:
The three possible reactions to Approach-Avoidance conflict are:

  • One may give importance to the positive value.
  • One may be very cautious about the negative value.
  • One may leave the goal altogether to avoid the situation.

Question 4.
Explain the impact of excessive use of defense mechanisms.
Answer:

  • Excessive use of defense mechanisms leads to a habit of escaping from reality and indulgence in falsehood about one’s own self.
  • However, reality chases, and sooner or later one has to face it.
  • At such a point, the ego is no longer protected and it may lead to symptoms of mental disorders.

4. Write short notes in 35-40 words each.

Question 1.
Anxiety
Answer:

  • Anxiety is a state where a person may feel that something is wrong and will experience symptoms like palpitation, rapid heart rate, sweaty palms, and dry throat.
  • Two types of anxiety in Freud’s theory are:
    • Neurotic anxiety: Here, id and ego are in conflict with each other
    • Moral anxiety: Here, the superego and ego are in conflict with each other

For your understanding

  • Neurotic anxiety comes from the unconscious fear that the basic impulses of the id will take control of the person, leading to eventual punishment from expressing the id’s desires.
  • Moral anxiety comes from the superego. It appears in the form of fear of violating moral codes or values, leading to feelings of guilt and shame.

Question 2.
Defense mechanisms
Answer:

  • Defense mechanisms are an indirect way to combat stress.
  • They are unconscious strategies used to protect the ego from breaking due to unacceptable/harsh reality. It functions as a shock absorber.
  • It should be used moderately as its excessive use leads to a habit of escaping from reality.
  • Some commonly used defense mechanisms are projection, displacement, and daydreaming.

6. Answer the following questions in 150-200 words each.

Question 1.
Elaborate on the General Adaptation Syndrome model proposed by Hans Selye.
Answer:

  • Hans Selye, the father of stress research, introduced the General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS) model in 1936 showing the effects of stress on the human body.
  • He asserted that stress is a major cause of disease since chronic distress causes long term chemical changes.
  • The GAS model may be defined as the manifestation of stress in the whole body. It consists of three stages:

a. Alarm stage: It is the first reaction to stress. The organism recognizes that there is a danger and prepares to deal with the threat by a ‘fight or flight response. This natural reaction provides energy to the body to deal with stressful situations.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 6 Stress

b. Resistance stage: After the initial shock, the body begins to repair itself. In this phase, it remains on high alert for a while. If one overcomes the stress, the body continues to repair itself until the hormone level, heart rate, and blood pressure come to normal. Signs of this stage include irritability, frustration, poor concentration.

c. Exhaustion stage: If stress is not resolved in the resistance stage, a person enters the exhaustion stage. Here, the body’s ability to cope up becomes less. The individual may collapse quickly and the body’s immune system, as well as the ability to resist stress, diminishes. Signs of the exhaustion stage include fatigue, burnout, depression, and anxiety.
Maharashtra Board Class 11 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 6 Stress 6 Q1

Question 2.
Explain aspects of Freud’s psychoanalysis theory.
Answer:
According to Freud’s theory of psychoanalysis, our personality is controlled by three aspects. They are:

  • Id: It operates on the pleasure principle and demands immediate gratification of desires. It operates on primary process thinking where logical rules are not applied. It operates on two energies: Libido (sexual energy) and Thanatos (destructive energy).
  • Ego: It operates on the reality principle and has better problem-solving abilities as compared to Id. Ego indulges in secondary process thinking and it knows how and when to satisfy desires.
  • Superego: It internalizes the moral values of society (do’s and don’ts) and also includes the ‘rights’ and ‘wrongs’ we unknowingly learn from our role models. It helps us to control impulses coming from the Id and makes our behaviour less selfish and more virtuous. According to this theory, our reactions to situations depend upon the interaction of these three systems.

Question 3.
Explain the different types of defense mechanisms.
Answer:
Some of the defense mechanisms described by Dr. Sigmund Freud are as follows:

  • Repression: It is an unconscious mechanism employed by the ego to keep disturbing or threatening thoughts outside our conscious awareness. These are the thoughts that would result in feelings of guilt from the superego.
  • Displacement: It is the redirection of an impulse onto a less powerful target. A person cannot retaliate against the actual source of anger and so, redirects his anger on a less threatening object.
  • Projection: It involves the individual attributing his own thoughts, feelings, and motives to another person.
  • Sublimation: It is one of the most adaptive defense mechanisms as it can transform negative anxiety into positive energy. A person uses sublimation to redirect his motivation into more acceptable and productive tasks.
  • Identification: Flere, by adopting another person’s mannerisms, language, patterns, etc., a person tries to imitate his character traits and starts behaving like another person.
  • Daydreaming: When life appears to be distressing, people often use fantasy as a way of escaping reality. This is called daydreaming.
  • Rationalization: It occurs when a person attempts to explain or create excuses for his failure. In doing so, an individual is able to avoid accepting the true cause or reason for his failure.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 6 Stress

Some other important defense mechanisms are:

  • Denial: It is an outright refusal to admit or recognize that something has occurred or is currently occurring. e.g. alcoholics often deny that their behaviour is problematic.
  • Compensation: It means people overachieve in one area to compensate for failures in another. e.g. a student who fails in studies may compensate by becoming a champion in athletics.
  • Intellectualization: It works to reduce anxiety by thinking about events in a cold and clinical way. e.g. a person diagnosed with a terminal illness might focus on learning everything about the disease in order to avoid distress and remain distant from the reality of the situation.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 5 Healthy Me – Normal Me

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 5 Healthy Me – Normal Me Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Psychology Important Questions Chapter 5 Healthy Me – Normal Me

1A. Complete the following statements.

Question 1.
A ‘well-adjusted individual’ would indicate a __________ person.
(A) normal
(B) thoughtful
(C) healthy
(D) obedient
Answer:
(A) normal

Question 2.
Getting betrayed but not allowing it to hurt you for long time shows __________
(A) realistic perception of the world
(B) openness to new experiences
(C) high intellectual ability
(D) high self-esteem
Answer:
(A) realistic perception of the world

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 5 Healthy Me – Normal Me

Question 3.
__________ intelligence is the ability to understand one’s own and others’ emotions.
(A) Emotional
(B) Social
(C) Cultural
(D) Intellectual
Answer:
(A) Emotional

Question 4.
There are __________ components of EI.
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
Answer:
(C) 5

Question 5.
__________ is your attitude towards yourself.
(A) Self-esteem
(B) Humanistic perspective
(C) Self-awareness
(D) Emotional intelligence
Answer:
(A) Self-esteem

Question 6.
A scale to measure self-esteem was developed by __________
(A) John Mayer
(B) Peter Salovey
(C) Morris Rosenberg
(D) Daniel Goleman
Answer:
(C) Morris Rosenberg

Question 7.
Sometimes traumatic effects continue for a longer period and a person can get __________
(A) burn out
(B) churn out
(C) fag out
(D) dire out
Answer:
(A) burn out

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 5 Healthy Me – Normal Me

Question 8.
Pinky is 32 years old and still needs her mother to make her hair plaits every day. This is __________ behaviour.
(A) abnormal
(B) normal
(C) well-adjusted
(D) healthy
Answer:
(A) abnormal

Question 9.
Having poor energy levels and thus not being able to perform expected responsibilities on any given day is a sign of __________
(A) low self-esteem
(B) impaired functioning
(C) low confidence
(D) poor emotional intelligence
Answer:
(B) impaired functioning

Question 10.
Childhood memories are linked to __________ perspective.
(A) evolutionary
(B) psychoanalytic
(C) biological
(D) cognitive
Answer:
(B) psychoanalytic

1B. State whether the following statements are true or false and justify your answer with reason.

Question 1.
Today EQ is considered equally important as IQ.
Answer:
True
Explanation: Emotional intelligence is as important as intellectual abilities since it enables a person to live a balanced and happy life.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 5 Healthy Me – Normal Me

Question 2.
Being respectful, trusting, and supporting others are components of self-esteem.
Answer:
False
Reason: All these are components of maintaining a healthy relationship with others.

Question 3.
Adolescents face many challenges.
Answer:
True
Explanation: Adolescents face many challenges such as gender identity issues, sexual orientation issues, bullying, etc.

Question 4.
Morris Rosenberg developed the EI model.
Answer:
False
Reason: John D. Mayer co-developed the model of emotional intelligence with Peter Salovey.

1C. Identify the odd item from the following.

Question 1.
Respect, Fairness, Trust, Threatening behaviour
Answer:
Threatening behaviour

Question 2.
Identity crisis, Bullying, Inferiority complex, Genetic problems
Answer:
Genetic problems

1D. Complete the following table.

Question 1.

1. Michel Beldoch _________________
2. _______________ Self-control
3. Empathy _________________
4. Self-esteem _________________
5. _______________ Diathesis
6. Androgynous _________________
7. _______________ 10th October

Answer:

1. Michel Beldoch Term ‘Emotional Intelligence’
2. Self-regulation Self-control
3. Empathy Putting yourself in other’s shoes
4. Self-esteem Sense of self-worth
5. Predisposition to disorder Diathesis
6. Androgynous Display of masculine and feminine traits
7. World Mental Health Day 10th October

2A. Explain the following concepts.

Question 1.
Emotional intelligence
Answer:
Emotional intelligence is the ability to perceive one’s own and other’s emotions, to discriminate among them, and to use that information to guide one’s thinking and action. It includes the ability to control emotions and handle crucial situations in an appropriate way. Individuals with high emotional intelligence are well-adjusted individuals.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 5 Healthy Me – Normal Me

Question 2.
Self-regulation
Answer:
Self-regulation refers to controlling the expression of emotions. It is the ability to express oneself appropriately at the right place and the right time. Emotionally intelligent and well-adjusted individuals are able to control their emotions.

Question 3.
Social skill
Answer:
Social skill is the ability to interact well with others. Some important social skills are active listening, verbal communication skills, nonverbal communication skills, leadership, and persuasiveness. Being helpful, respecting other’s opinions, accepting criticism, being positive, etc. also demonstrate good social skills. These skills enable a person to develop healthy relations with others.

Question 4.
Self-esteem
Answer:
Self-esteem refers to the sense of self-worth and personal value. According to Rosenberg, it is your attitude towards yourself. Well-adjusted individuals have high self-esteem.

Question 5.
Cognitive Psychology
Answer:
Cognitive Psychology is an area of psychology that focuses on mental processes such as memory, thinking, problem-solving, language, and decision-making.

Question 6.
Gender identity
Answer:
Gender identity is a perception of one’s own gender which may or may not be corresponding to their birth sex.

3. Write short notes in 50-60 words each.

Question 1.
Components of emotional intelligence
Answer:

  • Self-awareness: The ability to be aware of own emotions, wants, motivations, actions, strengths, and weaknesses.
  • Self-regulation: Ability to control emotions and restrain inappropriate actions.
  • Self-motivation: Ability to push oneself towards a goal that one has set, without any external reward or punishment.
  • Social skills: Ability to comfortably and co-operatively interact and communicate with others.
  • Empathy: Ability to put oneself in other’s shoes and understand their pain, loss, grief, or distress.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 5 Healthy Me – Normal Me

Question 2.
Diathesis model
Answer:

  • The diathesis model explains that those who are already genetically predisposed towards a particular disorder, are more likely to show abnormal behaviour if exposed to environmental stress.
  • The disorder is a result of both biological factors (nature) and life experiences (nurture).
  • Stressful environmental experiences could be childhood abuse, family conflict, divorce, or death.
  • The model states that the stronger the diathesis, the lesser is the less stress required to trigger abnormal behaviour.
  • Hence, a similar situation leads to different reactions by different people.

Question 3.
Biopsychosocial model
Answer:

  • According to this model, abnormal behaviour results from biological, psychological, and socio-cultural factors.
  • Biological factors include age, genetics, physical health.
  • Psychological factors include mental and emotional health, beliefs, and expectations.
  • Sociocultural factors include interpersonal relations and socioeconomic factors.
  • If a person who has a biological predisposition towards abnormality, gets to live in a protective and nurturing environment, there are fewer chances of developing abnormal behaviour.
  • Conversely, if he is placed in an environment detrimental to his mental and social well-being, he will show abnormal behaviour.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Psychology Important Questions Chapter 5 Healthy Me – Normal Me

4. Answer the following questions in 150-200 words.

Question 1.
Explain the needs of adolescents.
Answer:
The ten needs of adolescents can be explained as follows:

  • I need to understand myself and be myself (self-awareness and independence)
  • I need to have fun, enjoy life, and fill my mind and time with good things, (enjoyment and constructive use of resources)
  • I need to know that I am important I am called to be a hero, (power and self-esteem)
  • I need to love and be loved just as I am. (need to feel wanted)
  • I need to have friends and be a friend, (sense of belonging)
  • I need to be a part of something with my friends, (sense of belonging)
  • I need to have positive role models for my life, (having someone to look up to)
  • I need to understand the meaning of my sexuality. (understanding sexual orientation)
  • I need to understand the world around me. (awareness of world)
  • I need to have a new relationship with Almighty: deep, real, captivating, and foundation of truth. (strong relation with almighty).