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Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 6 Empowerment of Women and Other Weaker Sections Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Empowerment of Women and Other Weaker Sections Class 9 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Class 9 History Chapter 6 Empowerment of Women and Other Weaker Sections Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

History Class 9 Chapter 6 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. Complete the statements by choosing the proper option:

Question 1.
In 1992, a movement against drinking alcohol was started in _________.
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Gujarat
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Uttarakhand
Answer:
(c) Andhra Pradesh

Question 2.
In 1975, the government of India formed the Committee on the status of women under chairmanship of ______.
(a) Dr Phulrenu Guha
(b) Uma Bharati
(c) Vasundhara Raje
(d) Pramila Dandavate
Answer:
(a) Dr Phulrenu Guha

2.B Identify the wrong pair and rewrite the corrected one:

Question 1.
(i) Saudamini Rao – Stree-Mukti Andolan Samiti
(ii) Vidya Bal – Nari Samata Manch
(iii) Pramila Dandavate – Mahila Dakshata Samiti
(iv) Jyoti Mhapsekar – Committee on the Status of Women
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Jyoti Mhapsekar – Committee on the Status of Women

3. Make a concept chart:

Question 1.
Laws related to women:
Answer:

4. Explain the concepts:

Question 1.
Alimony
Answer:
(i) A fixed amount paid to a married woman for her upkeep by the husband who has divorced her, is called alimony.
(ii) The law enacted in 1952, recognizes women’s right to alimony and their share in the father’s property. Her right to Sreedharan was recognized.

Question 2.
Minority
Answer:
(i) In any society, a group of people of a particular religion, language or race who are few in number are termed as a minority.
(ii) As there are various religions, sects, and languages in our country, we see great cultural diversity. There is variation in cultural traditions, too.

5. Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
The evolution of the women’s liberation movement.
Answer:
(i) The United Nations had declared 1975 as the International Women’s Year.

(ii) In 1975, the government of India constituted the Committee on the Status of Women and appointed Dr Phulrenu Guha as its Chairman.

(iii) A comprehensive survey was conducted on several issues such as the social position of women, their status, the consequences of the constitutional provisions made for women as also education of women and its percentage, their progress due to education, difficulties faced by working women, the position of women with respect to work /livelihood, their wages , the female-male ratio, birth and mortality rate and the role of women.

(iv) Taking into consideration this entire background, a State-wide conference for women was held in 1975 organised by the Stree-mukti Sangharsha Samiti. Women from all walks of life / regions participated in it.

(v) The Samiti published its manifesto in 1978. The policy of a struggle against discrimination on the basis of gender, caste and vama was adopted.

(vi) In 1977, groups like the Streemukti Andolan Samiti established by Soudamini Rao in Pune, Bayaja a fortnightly, as also Stree Uvach, Maitrin and Stree Anyayavirodhi Manch in Aurangabad, Mahila Dakshata Samiti in Kolhapur, Mahila Hakka in Nashik and Nari Prabodhan Manch in Latur were formed.

(vii) Anti-dowry protection committees were formed all over Maharashtra. A conference to protest against oppression of women was organised in Dhule city.

Question 2.
The Prohibition of Dowry (Amendment) Act was enacted in 1984.
Answer:
(i) Even after the enactment of the anti-dowry law, incidents like ‘Woman bums to death as sari pallu catches fire while cooking’ and ‘Woman slips into well while washing clothes, drowns and dies’ continued to be reported.
(ii) Investigations still revealed dowry to be the most frequent cause of such deaths.
(iii) The role of the police, the administration and judiciary were highlighted. This created greater awareness.
(iv) As a result, the Dowry Prohibition (Amendment) Act came into force in 1984.

Question 3.
The practice of untouchability was banned by law.
Answer:
(i) In the post-independence period, our Constitution adopted the values of freedom, equality, fraternity and social justice.
(ii) In accordance with this, the practice of untouchability was banned by law.
(iii) Untouchability was removed by the 17th paragraph of the Constitution and this class was included in the Scheduled Castes.

Question 4.
The Constitution gives cultural and educational rights to minorities.
Answer:
(i) In any society, a group of people of a particular religion, language or race who are few in number are termed a minority.

(ii) As there are various religions, sects and languages in our country, we see great cultural diversity. There is variation in cultural traditions, too.

(iii) In order to preserve their cultural traditions and develop their own language, the Constitution gives the citizens certain educational and cultural rights.

(iv) Minorities have the right to protect and conserve their language, culture and traditions.

(v) For this purpose they have the right to set up separate educational institutions.

6. Answer the following questions in 25 to 30 words:

Question 1.
Describe the Chipko movement.
Answer:
(i) The show of constructive woman power was seen during the Chipko movement in 1973.
(ii) Trees from the forests in the foothills of the Himalayas were to be cut down for commercial purposes.
(iii) Chandiprasad Bhat and Sunderlal Bahuguna had started a movement to prevent this.
(iv) Women followed the strategy of holding hands and encircling each tree.
(v) As their method consisted of protecting the tree by embracing it, the movement came to be known as the Chipko movement.
(vi) Women took part in it in large numbers. Women had a big role to play in the agricultural economy of this region.
(vii) Gaura Devi was the activist who created this awareness among the women with the help of Sudesha Devi and Bachani Devi.

Question 2.
Write a note on the Protection of Human Rights Act.
Answer:
(i) In 1993, the Protection of Human Rights Act law was enacted to prevent injustice to men and women.
(ii) The National Human Rights Commission was also formed for this purpose.
(iii) In some States, the State Human Rights Commission was also formed on the same lines.
(iv) This law which deals with collective oppression, the social conditions of divorced women, women and secure work places, played an effective role in mitigating injustices to women.

7. Answer the following question in detail:

Question 1.
Explain with examples how the united strength of women can bring about constructive changes in various fields.
Answer:
(i) Women, who have to face the brunt of scarcity of supplies and rising prices, gave a show of their strength as an organised entity in 1972.

(ii) Under the leadership of the socialist leader Mrinal Gore, women in Mumbai participated in a demonstration which came to be known as the laatne morcha (the rolling pin demonstration).

(iii) Commodities like oil, ghee, rava, maida, would become scarce just as Diwali was near at hand. Kerosene had become very expensive.

(iv) Women came together brandishing their rolling pins and took part in the demonstration.

(v) This movement met with success and the public got a glimpse of the united power of women.

(vi) Another show of constructive woman power was seen during the Chipko movement in 1973. Gaura Devi was the activist who created awareness among the women with the help of Sudesha Devi and Bachani Devi.

(vii) In 1992, three youths of Dubuganta village of Nellore district in Andhra Pradesh drowned in a lake, in a state of inebriation, and died.

(viii) At this instance, the women of the village came together and forced the closure of arrack shops.

(ix) The movement spread to the entire State and the government had to adopt a strict policy against the sale of alcohol.

(x) On 4th September 1987, Roop Kanwar, a married woman, committed sati. She did not do this of her own free will; she was coerced into doing so. Committing sati, glorifying the practice of sati were all illegal acts.

(xi) The women activists and journalists, Meena Menon, Geeta Seshu, Sujata Anandan, Anu Joseph and Kalpana Sharma investigated the case. In 1998, the government passed the Sati (Prevention) Act with very stringent provisions.

Class 9 History Chapter 6 Empowerment of Women and Other Weaker Sections Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
Under the leadership of the socialist leader ______ women in Mumbai participated in a demonstration which came to be known as the Laatne Morcha.
(a) GauraDevi
(b) Dr Phulrenu Guha
(c) Meena Menon
(d) Mrinal Gore
Answer:
(d) Mrinal Gore

Question 2.
Vinoba Bhave made use of women power in the _____.
(a) Bhoodan Movement
(b) Chipko Movement
(c) Laatne Morcha
(d) Anti-liquor movement
Answer:
(a) Bhoodan Movement

Question 3.
Women activists associated with the Chipko movement ________.
(a) Sucheta Kripalani, Nandini Satpathy and Jayalalitha
(b) Dr Phulrenu Guha, Uma Bharati and Vasundhara Raje
(c) Gaura Devi, Sudesha Devi and Bachani Devi
(d) Dr Phulrenu Guha, Meena Menon and Mrinal Gore
Answer:
(c) Gaura Devi, Sudesha Devi and Bachani Devi

Question 4.
The Chipko movement was started by ______.
(a) Chandiprasad Bhat and Sunderlal Bahuguna
(b) Sudesha Devi and Bachani Devi
(c) Vinoba Bhave and Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Meena Menon and Mrinal Gore
Answer:
(a) Chandiprasad Bhat and Sunderlal Bahuguna

Question 5.
The United Nations had declared as _____ the International Women’s Year.
(a) 1992
(b) 2000
(c) 1975
(d) 1988
Answer:
(c) 1975

Question 6.
A collection of songs called Streemuktichi Lalkari, a street play called Mulgi Jhaali Ho are written by ______.
(a) Vidya Bal
(b) Pramila Dandavate
(c) Sujata Anandan
(d) Jyoti Mhapsekar
Answer:
(d) Jyoti Mhapsekar

Question 7.
A State-wide conference for women was held in 1975 organised by the _______.
(a) Samajwadi Mahila Sabha.
(b) Stree-mukti Sangharsha Samiti.
(c) Nari Prabodhan Manch.
(d) Stree Anyayavirodhi Manch.
Answer:
(b) Stree-mukti Sangharsha Samiti.

Question 8.
Census is conducted in India every _______.
(a) 5 years
(b) 10 years
(c) 15 years
(d) 20 years
Answer:
(b) 10 years

Identify and write the wrong pair in the following sets:

Question 1.
(i) Vinoba Bhave – Bhoodan Movement
(ii) Chandiprasad Bhat and Sunderlal Bahuguna – Chipko movement
(iii) Dr Phulrenu Guha – Laatne Morcha
(iv) Shah Bano Begum – Right to alimony
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Dr Phulrenu Guha – Laatne Morcha

Question 2.
(i) Stree Anyayavirodhi Manch – Aurangabad
(ii) Mahila Dakshata Samiti – Pune
(iii) Mahila Hakka – Nashik
(iv) Nari Prabodhan Manch – Latur
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Mahila Dakshata Samiti – Pune

Question 3.
(i) Stree-mukti Andolan Samiti – Soudamini Rao
(ii) Mahila Dakshata Samiti – Phulrenu Guha
(iii) Milun Saryajani – Vidya Bal
(iv) Laatne Morcha – Mrinal Gore
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Mahila Dakshata Samiti – Phulrenu Guha

Question 4.
(i) Streemuktichi Lalkari – Collection of songs
(ii) Mulgi Jhaali Ho – Periodical
(iii) Bayaja – fortmighty
(iv) Sitama Katha – Story
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Mulgi Jhaali Ho – Periodical

Do as directed
Make a concept chart:

Question 1.
Roop Kanwar Sati Case.
Answer:

Question 2.
List at least five Women Chief Ministers in India:
Answer:

• Sucheta Kriplani (Uttar Pradesh)
• Nandini Satpathy (Odisha)
• Jayalalitha (Tamil Nadu)
• Mayawati (Uttar Pradesh)
• Vasundhara Raje (Rajasthan)
• Mamata Banerjee (West Bengal)
• Rabdi Devi (Bihar)
• Anandiben Patel (Gujarat)
• Sheila Dixit (Delhi)
• Mehbooba Mufti Sayeed (Jammu & Kashmir)
• Uma Bharati (Madhya Pradesh)
• Rajendra Kaur Bhattal (Punjab)
• Sushma Swaraj (Delhi)
• Shashikala Kakodkar (Goa)
• Sayeeda Anwar Taimur (Assam)
• Janaki Ramachandran (Tamil Nadu), are all women who have led their States as Chief Ministers.

Complete the following chart:

Question 1.

Answer:

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
International Women’s Day
Answer:
(i) A demonstration was held in New York on 8 March 1857.

(ii) It was the first demonstration by working women and its demands were for fewer working hours, proper remuneration, provision of creches, etc.

(iii) On 8 March 1909 women went on strike for the very same demands. That is why, this day was declared as the Women’s Struggle Day at the Women’s Socialist International, a conference held in Denmark.

(iv) The year 1975 was observed as the International Women’s Year and in 1977, 8 March was declared as International Women’s Day by a resolution passed in the General Assembly of the United Nations.

(v) The three aspects of this programme were peace, development and equality between men and women.

Question 2.
Family Courts
Answer:
(i) Family courts were established to resolve conflicts arising out of differences within marriage and domestic problems as well as issues such as alimony, single parenthood, separation, care of children and ownership which are all related to the family situation.
(ii) These family courts give priority to mutual understanding over witnesses and evidence and to counsellors over lawyers.
(iii) Emphasis is on resolving issues quickly but justly.

Question 3.
Reservation for Women
Answer:
(i) The 73rd and 74th amendments to the Constitution provide for reservation of one-third of the seats for women in Gram Panchayats, Panchayat Samitis, Zilla Parishads, municipalities and municipal corporations as well as for the posts of Sarpanch, Chairman and Mayor.
(ii) Maharashtra and 15 other states have reserved 50% seats for women.
(iii) This provision provides women the opportunity to participate in the business of the community.

Question 4.
Scheduled Tribes
Answer:
(i) The Scheduled Tribes or Adivasis who live in remote parts of the country face several difficulties.

(ii) As they have lived far away from the progress made in modem times, they are economically and socially backward.

(iii) Even though their conditions have seen some improvement in recent times, they do not have any means of livelihood other than agriculture and forest produce.

(iv) Modem farming implements have not yet reached them. Hence, their income from agriculture is very small. Besides, their fields are on hillsides and not fertile.

(v) They are malnourished due to insufficient and poor quality of diet.

(vi) Adivasis in remote areas find it difficult to get medical attention in time. For all these reasons, there is a need to give special protection to Adivasis.

(vii) In the Indian Constitution, Adivasis have been enumerated as Scheduled Tribes. They are given representation in law boards, education, government service, etc.

Question 5.
8th March was declared as International Women’s Day.
Answer:
(i) A demonstration was held in New York on 8 March, 1857. It was the first demonstration by working women and its demands were for fewer working hours, proper remuneration, provision of creches, etc.

(ii) On 8 March 1909 women went on strike for the very same demands. That is why, this day was declared as the Women’s Struggle Day at the Women’s Socialist International, a conference held in Denmark.

(iii) The year 1975 was observed as the International Women’s Year and in 1977, 8 March was declared as International Women’s Day by a resolution passed in the General Assembly of the United Nations.

Question 6.
The ‘Muslim Women’s Act’ (Protection of rights on divorce) was passed by Parliament.
Answer:
(i) A fixed amount paid to a married woman for her upkeep by the husband who has divorced her, is called alimony.

(ii) In the case of Mohammad Ahmed Khan vs Shah Bano Begum, the Supreme Court gave the verdict that Shah Bano Begum had the right to alimony.

(iii) However, religious organisations protested vociferously against the verdict.

(iv) As a result, the ‘Muslim Women’s Act’ (Protection of rights on divorce) was passed by Parliament.

Question 7.
In 1998, the government passed the Sati (Prevention) Act with very stringent provisions.
Answer:
(i) On 4th September 1987, Roop Kanwar, a married woman, committed sati. She did not do this of her own free will; she was coerced into doing so.

(ii) Committing Sati, glorifying the practice of Sati were all illegal acts.

(iii) The women activists and journalists, Meena Menon, Geeta Seshu, Sujata Anandan, Anu Joseph and Kalpana Sharma investigated the case.

(iv) So in 1998, the government passed the Sati (Prevention) Act with very stringent provisions.

Read the passage and answer the questions:

Passage I

International Women’s year: The United Nations ! had declared 1975 as the International Women’s Year. The three aspects of this programme were peace, development and equality between men and women. In 1975, the government of India constituted the Committee on the Status of Women and appointed Dr Phulrenu Guha as its Chairman. A comprehensive survey was conducted of several issues such as the social position of women, their status, the consequences of the constitutional provisions made for Women as also education of women and its percentage, their progress due to education, difficulties faced by working women, the position of women with respect to work/livelihood, their wages (relative to men’s wages), the female-male ratio, birth and mortality rates and the role of women.
Taking into consideration this entire background, State-wide conference for women was held in 1975 organised by the stree-mukti Sangharsha Samiti. Women from all walks of life/regions participated in it. The Samiti published its manifesto in 1978. The Samiti published its manifesto discrimination on the basis of gender, caste and vama was adopted.
This gave rise to a collection of songs called Streemuktichi Lalkari, a street play called Mulgi Jhali Ho by Jyoti Mhapsekar and a periodical called Prerak Lalkari which became their mouthpiece and other such programmes. In 1977, groups like the Streemukti Andolan Samiti established by Soudamini Rao in Pune, Bayaja a fortnightly, as also Stree Uvach, Maitrin and Stree Anyayavirodhi Manch in Aurangabad, Mahila Dakshata Samiti in Kolhapur, Mahila Hakka in Nashik and Nari Prabodhan Manch in Latur were formed. Anti-dowry protection committees were formed all over Maharashtra. A conference to protest against oppression of women was organised in Dhule City.

Question 1.
Prepare a time line of the highlights mentioned in the passages.
Ans:
Timeline of the Highlights of the passage

• 1975 – UN declared International Women’s Day Committee on the Status of women was appointed.
• 1975 – Stree Mukti Sangharsha Samiti was organised.
• 1978 – Stree Mukti Sangharsha Samiti published a Manifesto
• 1977 – Stree Mukti Andolan Samiti was established by Soudamini Rao.

Question 2.
State the issues on which a survey was conducted by the committee on the status of women.
Ans:
The Committee on Status of Women appointed under the chairmanship of Dr. Phulrenu Guha made a comprehensive survey over several issues:

• Social position of women and their status.
• Consequences of the constitutional provision made for women.
• Education of women and it’s a percentage.
• Their progress due to education.
• Difficulties faced by working women with respect to work, livelihood, and wages.
• Female – male ratio.
• Birth and mortality rates.
• Role of women.

Question 3.
Name any two women who according to you managed to break the norms of the Indian Society and came up as icons of woman power.
Ans:
(i) Mrinal Gore
(ii) Gaura Devi

Passage II

Vidya Bal’s periodicals, Nari Samata Manch, and Milun Saryajani, as also the work ofthe Samajwadi Mahila Sabha and the Krantikari Mahila Sanghatana were of great help in dealling with women’s issues. The Employment Guarantee Scheme in Maharashtra also helped to empower women. Pramila Dandavate established the Mahila Dakshata Samiti in Delhi in 1976. Branches of the Samiti came up in the States of Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and Punjab. The Communist Party established the Akhil Bharatiya Janavadi Mahila Sanghatana in 1980. Efforts were made to start branches of this Organisation in all parts of India. The Sanghatana started a struggle against issues like dowry, female foeticide, domestic abuse, Research on women’s issues was undertaken at various levels. Women’s Studies Centres were started at the first women’s university, Mumbai and at Tata Institute of Social Sciences, Mumbai, Savitribai Phule Pune University and Shivaji University, Kolhapur. These Centres played an important role in critical analysis and in developing a vision on women’s issues.

Question 1.
State the role of Pramila Dandavate and Vidhya Bal in women’s upliftment.
Answer:
(i) Pramila Dandavate established Mahila Dakshata Samiti in Delhi in 1976.
(ii) Vidya Bal published periodicals like ’Nari Samata Manch’ and ‘Milun Saryajani’.

Question 2.
Where are the women’s study centers located in Maharashtra?
Answer:
Women study centers are located at:

• Shrimati Nathibai Damodar Thakersey Women’s University – Mumbai.
• Tata Institute of Social Sciences – Mumbai.
• Savitribai Phule University – Pune
• Shivaji University – Kolhapur.

Question 3.
Do you think International Beauty Pageants can help in creating awareness about women’s issues? why?
Answer:
Yes, International Beauty Pageants can help in creating global awareness on women’s issues world wide.
The participants in these events come from different cultures and backgrounds, they speak on many subjects affecting women which is covered by international media. Concerns pertaining to women’s political rights have been brought to the notice of the world through these pageants.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
Explain, in detail, the Anti-liquor movement.
Answer:
(i) In 1992, in Andhra Pradesh, a movement was started against the drinking of alcohol. It received a good response in other States too.

(ii) When the head of the household dies an untimely death due to addiction to alcohol, the family faces a serious crisis which affects women the most.

(iii) Due to alcoholism, they have to deal with extreme sorrow and poverty. This movement got the support of the anti-arrack movement in Andhra Pradesh.

(iv) As a result of a government policy, arrack (a locally produced alcohol) dealers set up shop in every town and village.The poor labouring people began to get addicted to alcohol.

(v) At the same time, a literacy programme was being run in the villages of the State. The Sitama Katha (Sita’s story) was narrated as a part of this programme.

(vi) It was a story about Sita who creates awareness among the people of a village and gets alcohol to be banned from the village.

(vii) In 1992, three youths of Dubuganta village of Nellore district in Andhra Pradesh drowned in a lake, in a state of inebriation, and died.

(viii) At this instance, the women of the village came together and forced the closure of arrack shops.

(ix) The report of this news in the local newspapers had its effect on many other villages.

(x) The movement spread to the entire State and the government had to adopt a strict policy against the sale of alcohol.

Question 2.
Explain the term ‘Nomadic’ and ‘De-notified’ Tribes.
Answer:
(i) Castes and tribes that move from place to place for a livelihood, are included under Nomadic Tribes.
(ii) They live by rearing animals and engaging in some other occupations.
(iii) The British had declared some of them as criminal tribes.
(iv) In the Law of 1871 to curb crimes, some of the main groups were mentioned as criminal tribes and their occupations and movements were banned.
(v) This unjust law was repealed in the post¬independence period.
(vi) And the curbs on these tribes were lifted. They were included under De-notified Tribes.
(vii) Special efforts are made by the government for the purpose of their social and economic development.
(viii) These tribes have been given representation in educational institutions and the government sector.

Question 3.
What do you mean by Scheduled Castes?
Answer:
(i) In the post-independence period, our Constitution adopted the values of freedom, equality, fraternity and social justice.
(ii) In accordance with this, the practice of untouchability was banned by law.
(iii) Untouchability was removed by the 17th paragraph of the Constitution and this class was included in the Scheduled Castes.
(iv) In view of the educational and social backwardness of these castes, they were given reservations in education as well as jobs to facilitate their development.

Question 4.
Write a note on the manifestation of woman power.
Answer:
(i) Women, who have to face the brunt of scarcity of supplies and rising prices, gave a show of their strength as an organised entity in 1972.
(ii) Under the leadership of the socialist leader Mrinal Gore, women in Mumbai participated in a demonstration which came to be known as the laatne morcha (the rolling pin demonstration).
(iii) Commodities like oil, ghee, rava, maida, would become scarce just as Diwali was near at hand. Kerosene would become very expensive.
(iv) Women came together brandishing their rolling pins and took part in the demonstration.
(v) This movement met with success and the public got a glimpse of the united power of women.

Observe the pictures and write relevant information about them:

Question 1.

Answer:
(i) A show of constructive women power was seen during the Chipko Movement in 1973. The trees from the forests in the foothills of Himalayas were to be cut down for commercial purposes.
(ii) The important leaders of the Chipko Movement were: Chandiprasad Bhat, Sunderlal Bahuguna, Gaura Devi, Sudesha Devi and Bachani Devi.

Question 2.

Answer:
(i) In 1992, in Andhra Pradesh a movement was started against the drinking of alcohol.
(ii) In 1992, three youths of Dubuganta village of Nellore district in Andhra Pradesh drowned in lake, in a state of inebriation and died. At this instance, the women of the village came together and forced the closure of arrack shops.
(iii) Arrack is a locally produced alcohol. As a result of a government policy arrack dealers set up shop in every town and village.

Question 3.

Answer:
(i) In 1998, the govt passed the Sati (Prevention) Act with very stringent provisions.
(ii) On 4th Sept. 1987, Roop Kanwar a married woman, committed sati. She did not do this of her own free will, she was coerced into doing so.
The women activists and journalists, Meena Menon, Geeta Seshu, Sujata Anandan, Anu Joseph and Kalpana Sharma investigated the case.

Question 4.

Answer:
(i) The Dowry Prohibition Act of 1961 made both giving and taking of dowry a cognizable criminal offence.
(ii) Even after the enactment of the anti-dowry law investigations still revealed dowry to be the most frequent cause of deaths. This created greater awareness. Thus, Dowry Prohibition (Amendment) Act came into force in 1984.

9th Std History Questions And Answers:

• Sources of History Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• India: Events After 1960 Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• India’s Internal Challenges Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Economic Development Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Education Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Empowerment of Women and Other Weaker Sections Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Science and Technology Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Industry and Trade Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Changing Life 1 Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Changing Life 2 Class 9 History Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Structure of Ocean Floor Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 4 Structure of Ocean Floor Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Structure of Ocean Floor Class 8 Questions And Answers Chapter 4 Maharashtra Board

Class 8 Geography Chapter 4 Structure of Ocean Floor Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Choose the correct option:

Question a.
Like there are landforms on land, ocean floor also has submerged landforms because ………….
(i) there is land under water
(ii) there are volcanoes under water
(iii) land is continuous and there is water in deeper parts
(iv) though land is continuous, its level is not the same everywhere like that of water
Answer:
(iv) though land is continuous, its level is not the same everywhere like that of water

Question b.
Which part of the ocean floor is most useful to the man?
(i) Continental shelf
(ii) Continental slope
(iii) Abyssal plains
(iv) Marine deeps
Answer:
(i) Continental shelf

Question c.
Which one of the following option is related to marine deposits?
(i) Rivers, glaciers, continental shelf, remains of plants and animals
(ii) Volcanic ash, continental shelf, remains of plants and animals
(iii) Volcanic ash, lava, fine particles of soil
(iv) Volcanic ash, remains of plants and animals, abyssal plants
Answer:
(iii) Volcanic ash, lava, fine particles of soil

2. Question a.
Name the landforms shown in the following figure.
(Note: The answer is given directly.)

Answer:

Question b.
Which of these landforms are useful for deep sea research?
Answer:
Submarine plateau and marine trench are the landforms useful for deep sea research.

Question c.
Which of these are appropriate to be used for the protection of marine borders and naval base building?
Answer:
Continental shelf is appropriate to be used for the protection of marine borders and naval base building.

3. Give geographical reasons:

Question a.
The study of ocean floor is useful to man.
Answer:

1. Various minerals, rocks, fine I soil particles are found on the sea floor.
2. Remains of marine plants and animals are also found on the ocean floor.
3. To study the marine life, mineral wealth as well as the process of volcanic eruption, the study of ocean floor is useful to man. ‘

Question b.
The continental shelf is a paradise for fishing activity.
Answer:

1. Being a shallowest part of the ocean bed, sunlight reaches up to continental shelf easily.
2. As its effect, algae, plankton, etc. grows on a large scale on continental shelf.
3. Algae, plankton, etc. is food for fish. Therefore, fish are found on a large scale on continental shelf. Therefore, the continental shelf is paradise for fishing activity.

Question c.
Some marine islands are actually the peaks of sea mountains.
Answer:

1. The hundreds of kilometres wide and thousands of kilometres long hills found on the ocean bed are called submerged hills.
2. Peaks of some of the submerged hills come above the sea level.
3. These peaks are the visible land areas surrounded from all sides by water. These peaks are called islands. Thus, some marine islands are actually the peaks of sea mountains.

Question d.
The continental slope is considered to be the boundary of continents.
Answer:

1. Continental slope lies beyond the continental shelf.
2. The deep abyssal plain begins beyond the continental slope. Therefore, the continental slope is considered to be the boundary of continents.

Question e.
The disposal of waste materials in the oceans by man is harmful to the 1 environment.
Answer:

1. The disposal of waste materials in the oceans by man increases the pollution of sea water.
2. This disposed waste materials harm the life of marine animal life and marine plant. Thus, the disposal of waste materials in the oceans by man is harmful to the environment.

4. Observe the map on Pg 27 in ‘Give it a try’ and answer the following questions:

Question a.
Madagascar and Sri Lanka are related to which landform of the ocean floor?
Answer:
Madagascar and Sri Lanka are related to island of the ocean floor.

Question b.
Near which continent are these landforms located?
Answer:
Madagascar is located near the continent of Africa and Sri Lanka is located near the continent of Asia.

Question c.
Which islands in our country are examples of peaks of submerged mountains?
Answer:
Andaman and Nicobar islands in our country are examples of peaks of submerged mountains.

Activity:

Question a.
prepare a model of the ocean floor.
Answer:

1. While studying the ocean floor, we must keep in mind the age of the ocean bed. By studying the deposits on the ocean bed, it occurred to the scientists that the deposits at the ocean floor are not older than 200 million years.

2. The maximum age of the rocks on the continents is supposed to be 3200 million years. Then where have the deposits on the sea bed which are older than 200 million years gone? This made the scientists restless. Then they started the study of the rocks along with the deposits.

3. This made them realize that the rocks are also not older than 200 million years. It was inferred that the ocean floor is very young as compared to the earth’s surface. Now this is unanimously accepted. This research was then used in the study of the concept of plate tectonics.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 4 Structure of Ocean Floor Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct answer and complete the sentences:

Question a.
Continental slope has slope.
(a) flatter
(b) broader
(c) steeper
(d) lower
Answer:
(c) steeper

Question b.
The average depth of the oceans is around metres.
(a) 7300
(b) 3700
(c) 3900
(d) 3300
Answer:
(b) 3700

Examine the following statements and correct the incorrect ones:

Question a.
Abyssal plain lies beyond the continental shelf.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: Abyssal plain lies beyond the continental slope.

Question b.
Around 51 per cent of the surface of the earth is covered by water.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: Around 71 per cent of the surface of the earth is covered by water.

Question c.
Natural gas and mineral oil can be obtained from the continental shelf.
Answer:
Correct.

Question d.
For survey purpose in India, the height of sea level at Kanyakumari is considered to be zero.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: For survey purpose in India, the height of sea level at Chennai is considered to be zero.

Question e.
Active volcanoes are mostly seen in marine trenches.
Answer:
Correct.

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question a.
What is called continental shelf?
Answer:
The land near the coast and submerged under the sea is called continental shelf.

Question b.
What is called continental slope?
Answer:
The steeper slope of the sea bed beyond the extent of continental shelf is called continental slope.

Question c.
What is called abyssal plain?
Answer:
The flat part of the sea bed that lies
beyond the continental slope is called abyssal plain.

Question d.
What is called submerged hills?
Answer:
The hundreds of kilometres wide and thousands of kilometres long hills found on the ocean bed are called submerged hills.

Question e.
What is called marine islands?
Answer:
Peaks of some of the submerged hills that come above the sea level are called marine islands.

Question f.
What is called submarine plateau?
Answer:
The flat and extensive summit of marine island is called submarine plateau.

Question g.
What is called marine deep?
Answer:
The landforms on the ocean bed that are comparatively less extending and shallower ones are called marine deep.

Question h.
What is called marine trench?
Answer:
The landforms on the ocean bed that are comparatively more extending and deeper ones are called marine trench.

Match the columns and complete the chain:

Question a.

Answer:

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question a.
What is marine deposits?
Answer:

1. Marine deposit is a type of marine deposition.
2. The rivers and glaciers flowing from the continent bring pebbles, clay, soil, etc. with them when they meet sea or ocean.
3. These materials get deposited on the continental shelf. The deposits are known as marine deposits.
4. Due to pressure of sea water and deposition of layers over layers of sediments, sedimentary rocks are formed.
5. Marine life and the availability of minerals in the sea bed can be studied with the help of marine deposits.

Question b.
What is marine oozes?
Answer:

1. Marine oozes is a type of marine deposit.
2. Lava and ash erupting out of volcano, fine soil particles, remains of plants and animals, etc. get deposited on marine abyssal plains. Deposits of these materials on the abyssal plains are known as marine oozes.
3. Marine oozes are in the form of fine clay. The percentage of remains of plants and animals in marine oozes is up to 30 per cent.
4. Marine oozes are also useful to study marine life and the availability of minerals in the sea bed.

Question c.
Write in brief about the continental shelf.
Answer:
1. The land near the seacoast and submerged under the sea is called continental shelf. The depth of continental shelf is about 200 metres below the sea level.

2. Continental shelf is found to be narrow along the coasts of some continents and broad along the coasts of some other continents.

3. Being a shallowest part of the ocean bed, sunlight reaches up to continental shelf easily. As its effect, the food for fish like algae, plankton, etc. grows on a large scale on continental shelf. Therefore, continental shelf is useful for fishing occupation.

4. Various minerals, natural gas and mineral oil, etc. can also be obtained from mining the continental shelf. For example, Mumbai High located on the continental shelf of the Arabian Sea is a source from where the mineral oil and natural gas is obtained.

Question d.
Write in brief about the continental slope.
Answer:

1. The steep slope of the sea bed beyond the extent of continental shelf is called continental slope.
2. The depth of the continental slope is from 200 metres to 3600 metres below the sea level.
3. The continental slope is found to be comparatively narrower.
4. The lower boundary of the continental slope is considered as the boundary of I continent.

Question f.
Write in brief about the abyssal plains.
Answer:

1. The flat part of the sea bed that lies beyond the continental slope is called abyssal plains.
2. Various submerged landforms like
   submerged hills, submerged mountains, etc. are seen on abyssal plains.
3. Submarine plateaus are also found on the abyssal plains.

Question g.
Write in brief about mean sea level.
Answer:

1. The average of the highest high tide and the lowest low tide is considered to calculate the mean sea level.
2. This average is considered to be zero sea level.
3. The altitude of any place above the sea level is measured and expressed in positive value. (For example, Mount Everest is 8848 metres high.)
4. The depth of any place below the sea level is measured and expressed in negative value. (For example, Mariana Trench is 11034 metres below sea level.)

Study the following map/figure/graph and answer the following questions:

Can you tell?

Question a.
What parameters were used for classifying the landforms on the earth?
Answer:
Altitude and the shape of the land were the parameters used for classifying the landforms on the earth.

Question b.
What parameters were used for naming the landforms below water?
Answer:
Depth from the seafloor and the shape of the land were the parameters used for naming the landforms below water.

Give it a try.

Question a.
Name the submerged landforms shown in the diagram.
(Note: The answer is given directly.)

Answer:

Question b.
Identify the ocean shown in the map of the ocean floor.
Answer:
The ocean shown in the map of the ocean floor is Indian Ocean.

Question c.
Which region would be ideal for fishing and why?
Answer:
The region near Madagascar island would be ideal for fishing. Madagascar island has a shallow continental shelf. The warm stream and cold stream also meet near Madagascar island. Therefore, the region near Madagascar island would be ideal for fishing.

2. Name the landforms shown in the following figure and answer the following questions:
(Note: The answer is given directly.)

Question a.

Answer:

Thought-Provoking Questions

Think about it.

Question a.
If the classification of landforms on land can be done on the basis of altitude and size, then how can the landforms submerged underwater are classified?
Answer:
If the classification of landforms on land can be done on the basis of altitude and size, then the landforms submerged underwater are classified on the basis of the depth from the seafloor and the shape of the land there.

Use your brainpower!

Do this activity when you go to the seashore with your parents or teachers. Observe the materials which have come with the waves. Classify them as per the flowchart given below:

Question a.
Which of these are perishable items?
Answer:
Plants, conches and shells, aquatic animals of these are perishable items.

Question b.
Which are non-perishable?
Answer:
Chemicals, metals and plastic/glass are non-perishable.

Question c.
What will happen because of perishable items?
Answer:
Perishable items will not create pollution of seacoast and seawater on a large scale. The remains of perishable items will get deposited in the form of marine oozes on the ocean bed.

Question d.
What will happen because of non-perishable items?
Answer:
Non-perishable items will create pollution of seacoast and seawater on a large scale.

Question f.
Suggest measures to control deposition of non-perishable items on the coast.
Answer:
The following measures can be taken to control deposition of non-perishable items on the coast:

1. Plastic bags, plastic or glass containers must be prohibited on the seacoasts.
2. Strict action must be taken against offenders carrying the banned products on the seacoasts.
3. Hoardings explaining the importance of clean seacoasts must be displayed on all the seacoast.

Question g.
How will you run a campaign of environmental conservation to keep the coasts clean?
Answer:
We will run a campaign of environmental conservation to keep the coasts clean as follows:

1. We will display hoardings explaining the importance of clean seacoasts on the seacoasts.
2. We will arrange street plays, dramas, etc. highlighting the importance of clean seacoasts.
3. We will arrange special programmes during the festivals like Ganeshotsav, Diwali, Christmas, etc. to keep the seacoasts clean.

Open-Ended Questions:

Question a.
Suggest measures to control deposition of non-perishable items on the coast.
Answer:
The following measures can be taken to control deposition of non-perishable items on the coast:

1. Plastic bags, plastic or glass containers must be prohibited on the seacoasts.
2. Strict action must be taken against offenders carrying the banned products on the seacoasts.
3. Hoardings explaining the importance of clean seacoasts must be displayed on all the seacoasts.

Question b.
How will you run a campaign of environmental conservation to keep the coasts clean?
Answer:
We will run a campaign of environmental conservation to keep the coasts clean as follows:

1. We will display hoardings explaining the importance of clean seacoasts on the seacoasts.
2. We will arrange street plays, dramas, etc. highlighting the importance of clean seacoasts.
3. We will arrange special programmes during the festivals like Ganeshotsav, Diwali, Christmas, etc. to keep the seacoasts clean.

8th Std Geography Questions And Answers:

• Local Time and Standard Time Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Interior of the Earth Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Humidity and Clouds Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Structure of Ocean Floor Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Ocean Currents Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Land Use Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Population Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Industries Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Map Scale Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Field Visit Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 1 Sources of History Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Sources of History Class 9 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Class 9 History Chapter 1 Sources of History Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

History Class 9 Chapter 1 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. A Choose the right option and rewrite the sentence.

Class 9 History Chapter 1 Sources Of History Questions And Answers  Question 1.
The National Archives of India is situated at ______.
(a) Pune
(b) New Delhi
(c) Kolkata
(d) Hyderabad
Answer:
(b) New Delhi

Sources of History Class 9 History Chapter 1 Question 2.
The _______ is included among the Audio -Visual media.
(a) Newspaper
(b) Television
(c) All India Radio
(d) Periodicals
Answer:
(b) Television

Question 3.
______ is not included in physical sources.
(a) Coins
(b) Ornaments
(c) Buildings
(d) Proverbs
Answer:
(d) Proverbs

B. Identify the wrong pair and rewrite the corrected one:

Question 1.
(1) Jal Cooper – Philatelist
(2) Kusumagraj – Poet
(3) Anna Bhau Sathe – People’s bard
(4) Amar Shaikh – Art Collector
Answer:
Amar Shaikh – Art Collector

2. Write Short Notes:

Question 1.
Written Sources
Answer:
(i) Any historical document written by hand or typed or in printed form is called written sources.
(ii) The following are included in written sources: Newspapers, Periodicals, Diaries, Reference books, Correspondence, Document in the Archives, Government Gazettes, Postage Stamps, and Encyclopedias.

Question 2.
Press Trust of India (PTI)
Answer:
(i) After 1953, the Press Trust of India has been an important source of primary details of all important events and of articles on important subjects.

(ii) Press Trust of India has provided reports, photographs and articles on financial and scientific issues to newspapers. PTI has now started its online service.

(iii) During the 1990s, PTI started using the ‘satellite broadcast’ technology instead of teleprinters to send news all over the country.

(iv) This material is important for writing the history of modern India.

3. Give reasons:

Question 1.
The postal department tries to preserve the heritage and integrity of Indian culture through postage stamps.
Answer:
(i) Postage stamps reveal a lot to us about changing times due to the variety in the sizes of the stamps, the novelty in their subjects and colour schemes.

(ii) The Postal Department issues postage stamps on a wide variety of themes.

(iii) It issues stamps on political leaders, flowers, animals, birds, an event, or the silver, golden, diamond jubilees or centenary, bicentenary and tercentenary of different events.

(iv) It is therefore, a valuable repository of history.

(v) Thus the postal department tries to preserve the heritage and integrity of Indian culture through postage stamps.

Question 2.
Audio-visual media are an important source for writing the history of modem India.
Answer:
(i) Audio-visual means possessing sound and visual content; for example, films and television

(ii) We have channels like History channel and Discovery channel which telecast footage of historical events in multimedia.

(iii) With the help of satellites, live coverage of all political, social and cultural events is possible across the globe. This helps to create an accountable repository for future reference as well.

(iv) Video libraries possess a vast storage of historical information in audio-visual mode which becomes handy in writing the history of modem India.

Class 9 History Chapter 1 Sources of History Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
Information and Broadcasting Department published ______, an annual reference book.
(a) India 2000
(b) Incredible India
(c) Indian Horizon
(d) Aspiring India
Answer:
(a) India 2000

Question 2.
The place where historical documents are _______.
preserved is called
(a) Library
(b) Store Room
(c) Archives
(d) History Room
Answer:
(c) Archives

Question 3.
Newspapers are considered the _______ pillar of democracy.
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
Answer:
(d) Fourth

Question 4.
_____ has also produced various documentaries on prominent social leaders, on people who have made major contributions and about important locations in India.
(a) British Broadcasting Corporation (BBC)
(b) Reuters
(c) Indian News Review
(d) Bloomberg
Answer:
(c) Indian News Review

Question 5.
Aavahan is written on the backdrop of Sino- Indian war by the noted Marathi poet _____.
(a) Narayan Gupte
(b) Kusumagraj
(c) G.D. Madgulkar
(d) Namdeo Dhasal
Answer:
(b) Kusumagraj

Question 6.
Cooper edited _______.
(a) India’s Stamp Journal
(b) Indian Philatelic Magazine
(c) Stamp Synopsis
(d) The Journal of Philatelic Bureau
Answer:
(a) India’s Stamp Journal

Question 7.
After 1953, the ____ has been an important source of primary details of all important events.
(a) Union Trust of India
(b) Press Trust of India
(c) Information and Broadcasting Ministry
(d) Film and Television Institute of India
Answer:
(b) Press Trust of India

Question 8.
Duringthe 1990s, PTI started using ____ technology instead of Teleprinters.
(a) GPS Device
(b) Ultrasonic Gadget
(c) Radio Programming
(d) Satellite Broadcast
Answer:
(d) Satellite Broadcast

Question 9.
The Government of India started the Film and Television Institute of India at Pune in 1960 with the purpose of providing _______.
(a) Entertainment
(b) Public Education
(c) International updates
(d) Intra-societal information
Answer:
(b) Public Education

Question 10.
The Indian government issued the ______ stamp in 1977.
(a) Narsee Monjee
(b) Jal Cooper
(c) Birsa Munda
(d) Senapati Bapat
Answer:
(b) Jal Cooper

Question 11.
The Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Museum is at ________.
(a) Delhi
(b) Mumbai
(c) Kolkata
(d) Chennai
Answer:
(b) Mumbai

Question 12.
The ______ issues postage stamps on a wide variety of themes.
(a) Publications Division
(b) Postal Department
(c) Income Tax Department
(d) Revenue Department
Answer:
(b) Postal Department

Question 13.
______ prints the notes.
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) Union Bank of India
(c) Philatelic Bureau of India
(d) State Bank of India
Answer:
(a) Reserve Bank of India

Question 14.
Empire of India Philatelic Society was founded by ______.
(a) Pherozeshah Mehta
(b) Mahzarin Banaji
(c) Jal Cooper
(d) Dinshaw Patel
Answer:
(c) Jal Cooper

Question 15.
PTI has provided reports, photographs and articles on ___ issues to newspapers.
(a) Therapeutic
(b) Financial and scientific
(c) Demographic and Topographic
(d) Environmental
Answer:
(b) Financial and scientific

Identify and write the wrong pair in the following sets:

Question 1.
(1) Powada – Oral sources
(2) Documentaries – Audio Visual Sources
(3) Coins – Material Sources
(4) Owis – Archaeological Sources
Answer:
Owis – Archaeological Sources

Question 2.
(1) India 2000 – Annual Reference book
(2) Indian News Review – News reels and documentariess.
(3) FTII – Radio Programmes
(4) Reserve Bank of India – Printing notes
Answer:
FTII – Radio Programmes

Question 3.
(1) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Museum – Mumbai
(2) Reserve Bank Museum – Pune
(3) National Archives of India – Calcutta
(4) Film and Television Institute of India – Pune
Answer:
National Archives of India – Calcutta

Do as directed.
Complete the concept map:

Question 1.
Answer:

Question 2.
Answer:

Question 3.
Answer:

Question 4.
Answer:

Write short notes:

Question 1.
Coins
Answer:
(i) We can also understand history with the help of coins and the changes in the printing of currency notes.
(ii) The Reserve Bank of India prints the notes. It has its headquarters in Mumbai.
(iii) The coins from 1950 to those used at present, the metals used for making them, their different shapes, and the diversity of subjects on them together help us to understand the important contemporary issues in India; For example coins to convey the message of population control and coins communicating the importance of agriculture and of farmers.

Question 2.
Jal Cooper
Ans
(i) The Indian government issued the ‘Jal Cooper’ stamp in 1977. Jal Cooper was an internationally acclaimed philatelist, i.e. an expert on the subject of ‘postage stamps’.
(ii) Bom in a Parsi household in Mumbai, Cooper edited ‘India’s Stamp Journal’.
(iii) He was the founder of the first Philatelic Bureau in India, an office that collected stamps. He founded the ‘Empire of India Philatelic Society.
(iv) He went on to write many books on this subject. He gave a scientific bent to his hobby.
(v) He played a pivotal role in taking the study of Indian postage stamps to the international level.
(vi) Having started his career as a postage stamp collector, Cooper achieved the expertise of a philatelist at the international level.
(vii) The postage stamp on Jal Cooper is an important source to understand his significant contribution to this field.

Explain the statements with reason:

Question 1.
Museums reflect the unique heritage of a state.
Answer:
(i) All states of India have museums that depict the characteristics and display the cultural and social heritage of the state.
(ii) They enable us to understand history; For example, the Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Museum at Mumbai and the Reserve Bank Museum in Pune city.
(iii) Apart from the Government Museums, some private collectors also set up their own museums.
(iv) They are based on distinctive subjects; For example, coins, notes, lamps and nutcrackers in different shapes, cricket equipment, etc.

Read the passage and answer the questions.

The Indian government issued the ‘Jal Cooper’ stamp in 1977. Jal Cooper was an internationally acclaimed philatelist, i.e. an expert on the subject of ‘postage , stamps’. Bom in a Parsi household in Mumbai, Cooper edited ‘India’s Stamp Journal’. He was the founder of the first Philatelic Bureau in India, an , office that collected stamps. He founded the ‘Empire of India Philatelic Society’. He went on to write many , books on this subject. He gave a scientific bend to his , hobby. He played a pivotal role in taking the study of Indian postage stamps to the international level, , Having started his career as a postage stamp collector, Cooper achieved the expertise of a philatelist at the international level. The postage stamp on Jal Cooper , is an important source to understand his significant ,contribution to this field.

Question 1.
Other than Philatelies which other streams of vocation deal with sources of history?
Answer:
Other than Philatelies, other streams of vocation which deal with sources of history are: Numismatics, Museology and Archaeology.

Question 2.
Name the two institution founded by Jal Cooper.
Answer:
Two institutions founded by Jal Cooper are:

(i) The First Philatelic Bureau in India.
(ii) Empire of India Philatelic Society.

Question 3.
Why do you think the government of India issued a postage stamp in the name of Jal Cooper?
Answer:
Jal Cooper is accredited to raise Indian Philatelies to an international level. He nurtured his hobby with great expertise and became a renowned Postage Stamp Collector. To honour his contribution, the government of India issued a postage stamp in his name in 1977.

Answer the following questions in detail.

Question 1.
Which information among print media is considered authentic and trustworthy?
Answer:
Among the print media, the information contained in the annual issues of the Publications Division of the Government of India is authentic and trustworthy.
(ii) For example, the Information and Broadcasting Department published ‘INDIA 2000’, an annual reference book.
(iii) ‘ This reference book is created under ‘Research, Reference and Training Department’.

Question 2.
Which sources are included in material sources?
Answer:
The following sources are included in material sources:

• Coins
• Places of worship
• Things in daily use
• Royal seals
• Ornaments
• Museums
• Clothing
• Modern architecture.

Question 3.
Write in brief about museums in India.
Answer:
(i) All states of India have museums that depict the characteristics and display the cultural and social heritage of the state.
(ii) They enable us to understand history (e.g., the Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Museum at Mumbai, Reserve Bank Museum in Pune city).
(iii) Apart from the Government Museums, some private collectors also set up their own museums.
(iv) They are based on distinctive subjects; For example, coins, notes, lamps and nutcrackers in different shapes, cricket equipment, etc.

Question 4.
Write briefly about ‘Indian News Review’.
Answer:
(i) An institute called Indian News Review has produced various newsreels on important events in politics, social issues, art, sports and culture.
(ii) This department has also produced various documentaries on prominent social leaders, on people who have made major contributions for the country and about important locations in India.
(iii) These news releases and documentaries are useful for studying the history of modern India.

Question 5.
Oral Sources
Answer:
(i) These sources include folktales, folksongs, proverbs, ballads and owis (Marathi verses in the oral tradition).
(ii) Activists were inspired by the powadas of Lok shahir, Anna Bhau Sathe and Shahir Amar Sheikh during the Sanyukta Maharashtra Movement.

Question 6.
Identify the picture and give relevant information.

Answer:

• The person depicted in the picture is Jal Cooper, an internationally acclaimed philatelist from India.
• Cooper edited ‘India’s stamp Journal’. He was the founder of the First Philatelic Bureau in India, an office that collected stamps. He founded the ‘Empire of India Philatelic Society’.
• The Government of India issued the Jal Cooper Stamp in 1977.

9th Std History Questions And Answers:

• Sources of History Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• India: Events After 1960 Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• India’s Internal Challenges Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Economic Development Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Education Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Empowerment of Women and Other Weaker Sections Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Science and Technology Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Industry and Trade Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Changing Life 1 Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Changing Life 2 Class 9 History Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 6 International Problems Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

International Problems Class 9 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Class 9 Political Science Chapter 6 International Problems Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Political Science Class 9 Chapter 6 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. Choose the right option and rewrite the sentence:

Question 1.
Which among the following is an International problem?
(a) Border dispute between Maharashtra and Karnataka
(b) Kaveri water sharing question
(c) Problems of refugees
(d) Naxalism in Andhra Pradesh
Answer:
(c) Problems of refugees

Question 2.
Which among the following rights are not included in human rights?
(a) Right to work
(b) Right to information
(c) Children’s rights
(d) Equal pay for equal work
Answer:
(b) Right to information

Question 3.
Which among the following days is observed at an international level?
(a) Teachers’ Day
(b) Children’s Day
(c) Earth Day
(d) Flag Day
Answer:
(c) Earth Day

2. Explain with reasons whether the following statements are true or false:

Question 1.
It is necessary that all the nations should cooperate in order to find remedies of environmental degradation.
Answer:
True.

• The threat to the environment caused by pollution or by leakage of oil or gas does not remain restricted to one nation.
• Its effects are long term so it becomes necessary for nations to act with each other’s consent and cooperation in order to deal with these effects.

Question 2.
Sino-Indian relations are friendly.
Answer:
False.
The conflict between India and China is connected to two issues

• Border issue and
• Status of Tibet. India made several efforts to sort this border dispute by means of dialogue. But it has not met with much success.

3. Complete the following chart:

Question 1.
Human Rights

Answer:

Question 2.
Degradation of the Environment

Answer:

Question 3.
Terrorism

Answer:

4. Prepare the following concept map:

Question 1.

Answer:

5. Write your own opinion about :

Question 1.
Explain India’s position in establishing human rights.
Answer:
(i) The Preamble of the Indian Constitution contains the objectives of the Constitution.

(ii) It secures to its citizens: justice, social, economic and political; Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship; Equality of status and opportunity; and Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual and unity and integrity of the Nation.

(iii) Fundamental Rights are assured to all the citizens of India.

(iv) In order to make these objectives effective, Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy were incorporated in Part III and Part IV of our Constitution.

(v) The Supreme Court of India and the High Courts of all states issue Writs, such as:

• Habeas Corpus
• Mandamus
• Prohibition
• Certiorari
• Quo Warranto to protect human rights.

Question 2.
Narrate the effects of terrorism and suggest remedies to control it.
Answer:
(i) The 21st century terrorism is an organised system of violence and intimidation. There is a need to empathise, understand, cooperate and coordinate our efforts in dealing with terrorism at the national and international level.

(ii) Terrorism includes taking hostages; firing or bombing civilian localities that are undefended such as hospitals or schools, inhuman treatment to prisoners and destruction of property.

(iii) This leads to feeling of insecurity and helplessness among the people who are prone to terrorism. Their faith in social security and police protection is lowered and they may be psychologically affected.

(iv) Terrorism affects economic growth, political stability and social welfare of the people. It burdens our defence and police system as well. Hence the government cannot focus on its constructive programmes.

(v) Citizens should be alert about unattended luggage or bags at public places and be vigilant about suspicious men around them. They must immediately report to the authorities about the same.

(vi) The youth of the nation should volunteer in police and armed forces. The civilians must always cooperate with the police and government authorities to nab the terrorists.

Class 9 Political Science Chapter 6 International Problems Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
United Nations Conference on human environment was called at Stockholm from ________.
(a) 5th to 16th June, 1972
(b) 5th to 16th July, 1972
(c) 5th to 16th June, 1971
(d) 5th to 16th July 1971
Answer:
5th to 16th June, 1972

Question 2.
The United Nations General Assembly adopted the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR) in ______.
(a) 1948
(b) 1966
(c) 1964
(d) 1962
Answer:
1966

Question 3.
In 1997, the conference at Kyoto laid down the protocols for the developed countries for preventing climate change. For how many years did it come to be applied?
(a) 10 years
(b) 12 years
(c) 15 years
(d) 16 years
Answer:
15 years

Question 4.
How many Articles are there in the United Nations Declaration of Human Rights?
(a) 30
(b) 20
(c) 40
(d) 50
Answer:
30

Question 5.
When was the Declaration of the Rights of Child proclaimed?
(a) 30th November 1959
(b) 20th November 1959
(c) 20th December 1959
(d) 30th December 1959
Answer:
20th November 1959

Question 6.
When was the first Earth Day celebrated?
(a) 21st April, 1970
(b) 22nd April, 1970
(c) 23rd April, 1970
(d) 20th April, 1970
Answer:
22nd April, 1970

Question 7.
What led to the boycott of the regime in South Africa?
(a) Expatriation of Prisoners of War
(b) Racial Segregation
(c) Disobedience of the UN
(d) Asylum to international terrorists
Answer:
Racial Segregation

Question 8.
Which conference in 1997 laid down the protocols for developed countries for prevention of climatic changes?
(a) Conference at Copenhagen
(b) Conference at Amsterdam
(c) Conference at Kyoto
(d) Conference at Shimla
Answer:
Conference at Kyoto

Question 9.
Which institute/organisation is responsible for taking action against violation of human rights?
(a) Self Help Groups and NGOs
(b) Human Rights Commission
(c) Corporate bodies
(d) National Investigation Agency
Answer:
Human Rights Commission

State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons:

Question 1.
Human rights are necessary for living as a human being.
Answer:
True.
The concept of human rights has emerged from the concept of natural rights. Natural rights are those rights that we are endowed with because we are bom as human beings. In the same vein, human rights are those rights that are necessary for living as a human being.

Question 2.
The scope of human rights is limited.
Answer:
False.
The scope of human rights has in fact, broadened due to several issues of global nature like contagious diseases, the threat to environment, natural disasters, etc. Human rights today also include goals like protection of the environment and sustainable development.

Question 3.
Only internal security is threatened due to terrorist attacks.
Answer:
False.
The aim of a terrorist attack is not to endanger the geographical boundaries, but to challenge a regime in a country or refuse to acknowledge the existence of the State. This means that due to increasing terrorism, the internal security of a country is threatened in addition to its external security.

Question 4.
Once the refugees reach a safe place, they have new challenges.
Answer:
True.
Once the refugees reach a safe place, they need to find work, a place to live and other problems of a day to day nature. If the language and culture in the other nation are different, then adjusting to that poses difficulties. There is also no assurance that the people of a nation which gives shelter to the refugees will accept them.

Explain the concept:

Question 1.
Human Rights
Answer:
The concept of human rights has emerged from the concept of natural rights. Natural rights are those rights that we are endowed with because we are born as human beings. Human rights are those rights that are necessary for living as a human being and as a constituent of society.

Question 2.
Refugees
Answer:
People who have to leave their motherland against their wishes or are forced to go to other nations, seeking refuge or for security are called as refugees. People become refugees due to torture or persecution for belonging to a particular race or religion, due to war or a disaster, etc. In such situations people are forced to leave their own country and seek shelter in another country.

Question 3.
Terrorism
Answer:
Terrorism is spreading fear and terror in a society by using or threatening to use violence against common and innocent people for achieving political goals. Terrorism can be described as organised and planned violence.

Question 4.
Traditional War
Answer:
Traditional war is a conflict between two or more sovereign states. In such wars, the geographical boundaries between nations acquire importance, i.e. national security is connected with geographical boundaries.

Question 5.
Stockholm Conference 1972.
Answer:
(i) In order to discuss the immediate and long term problems related to the environment and to find solutions on them, a United Nations Conference on human environment was called at Stockholm from 5th to 16th June, 1972.

(ii) It was stressed that it is the responsibility of all nations to cooperate to overcome pollution.

(iii) The developing nations feel that the developed nations are more responsible for the decline of the environment and they should take the responsibility for stopping the decline.

(iv) Non-governmental organisations working in the field of environmental protection were also present and assumed a bigger role in the decision making process at international conferences regarding the environment.

(v) The issue of the protection of the common global wealth was raised.

(vi) A consensus emerged that it was the responsibility of all the nations to protect these resources.

(vii) It was after this conference that the United Nations created the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).

(viii) Many international treaties about environment were signed after this conference.

(ix) Several rules were made about the protection of environment. Environmental movements started on a large scale at national as well as at the international level.

Complete the following Chart/Concept Maps:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
Which difficulties are faced by people who are forced to leave their own country?
Answer:
(i) When people of any country are forced to leave their own country as refugees, they have to face many problems.

(ii) The most important problem is to decide where to go. They have questions like will that nation give us shelter.

(iii) Secondly, they have to also take along with them other members of their family. It involves a lot of physical and emotional stress.

(iv) Apart from this, there are problems caused by natural elements like heat, rain, storms, as well as shortages of food, sickness, an enemy in pursuit, etc. In this process, many people lose their lives.

Question 2.
What was the Stockholm Conference of 1972 about?
Answer:
In order to discuss the immediate and long-term problems related to the environment and to find solutions to them, a United Nations Conference on human-environment was called at Stockholm from 5th to 16th June 1972.

Question 3.
What are the new challenges faced by refugees on reaching a safe place?
Answer:
(i) Once the refugees reach a safe place, they have new challenges. They need to find work, a place to live and other problems of a day to day nature.

(ii) If the language and culture in the other nation are different, then adjusting to that poses difficulties. There is no assurance that the people in the nation which gives shelter to the refugees will accept them.

Question 4.
What did the Environmental Conference of Rio (1992) emphasise on?
Answer:
(i) In this conference, the idea of sustainable development was stressed upon.

(ii) Different treaties regarding bio-diversity, climate change due to greenhouse gases, protection of forests, etc. were signed.

Question 5.
State the highlights of the conference on climatic change at Paris (2015).
Answer:
(i) A conference on climate change was held at Paris in November 2015.

(ii) An appeal was made in this conference that all nations should make concerted efforts to stop climate change and global warming and that the developed countries should help the developing countries to acquire the technology to achieve these goals.

Question 6.
What measures have been taken so far to save the refugees?
Answer:
(i) In 1951, some provisions were made regarding the question of refugees at the international level. One such provision was that the refugees will not be forcefully sent back to their country against their wishes.

(ii) Similarly an office of the High Commissioner of the United Nations has been established to solve their problems.

Question 7.
Give some examples of refugees.
Answer:
(i) Before the Second World War, the Jews were tortured in Germany.

(ii) Their citizenships and properties were confiscated. Due to this, the Jews became refugees.

(iii) In 1971, the people in East Pakistan turned refugees and came to India seeking refuge due to political and religious persecution.

(iv) In the last few years due to the war-like situation in Iraq and Syria, a lot of people are leaving Syria as refugees. We can cite many such example of refugees.

Question 8.
Which problems are faced by the host nation that agrees to provide shelter to the refugees?
Answer:
(i) As the number of refugees increases, the strain on the economy of the host nation increases. A shortage of essential goods is created; there may be an increase in crime or even inflation.

(ii) The locals may lose their jobs; a problem of law and order may crop up. Many such problems may emerge.

(iii) Due to these problems, many nations are not ready to give shelter to refugees and to resettle them.

Question 9.
Which steps can be taken for preservation of human rights?
Answer:
(i) If all nations safeguarded and fostered human rights, exploitation and violence would reduce. All people would be able to achieve their own development safely and securely.

(ii) Human rights could be more effectively implemented if the environment is safeguarded and if terrorism is completely wiped out.

(iii) No group of people will have to become refugees. For this, all nations have to come together, cooperate with each other, take concrete action and bring about actual change.

Question 10.
Many nations are not ready to give shelter to refugees. Why?
Answer:
Many nations are not prepared to give shelter to refugees because:

• As the number of refugees increases, the strain on the economy of the host nation increases.
• A shortage of essential goods is created; there may be an increase in crime or even inflation.
• The locals may lose their jobs; a problem of law and order may crop up.
• Many such problems may emerge.

Question 11.
The problems relating to the environment are inherently of a global nature. How?
Answer:
(i) The threat to the environment caused by pollution or by leakage of oil or gas does not remain restricted to one nation.

(ii) The visible effects of the decline of environment are extinction of species of plants and animals, decrease in the fertility of soil, water shortage, fluctuation in the proportion of rainfall, global warming, drying up of rivers and lakes, pollution of rivers and seas, incidence of newer diseases, acid rain, thinning of the ozone layer, etc.

(iii) Even if some of the effects are restricted to particular nations, these problems reach global proportions due to their long term effects, while some problems are inherently of a global nature.

Question 12.
How is terrorist war different from traditional war?
Answer:
(i) Terrorist conflict is different from traditional war.

(ii) Traditional war is a conflict between two or more sovereign states.

(iii) In such wars, the geographical boundaries between nations acquire importance, i.e. national security is connected with geographical boundaries.

(iv) On the other hand, in the case of terrorism, terrorist groups can cause violence in any part of the world from anywhere in the world.

(v) The aim of a terrorist attack is not to endanger the geographical boundaries, but to challenge a regime in a country or refuse to acknowledge the existence of the state.

9th Std Political Science Questions And Answers:

• Post World War Political Developments Class 9 Political Science Questions And Answers
• India’s Foreign Policy Class 9 Political Science Questions And Answers
• India’s Defence System Class 9 Political Science Questions And Answers
• The United Nations Class 9 Political Science Questions And Answers
• India and Other Countries Class 9 Political Science Questions And Answers
• International Problems Class 9 Political Science Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 10 Changing Life 2 Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Changing Life 2 Class 9 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Class 9 History Chapter 10 Changing Life 2 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

History Class 9 Chapter 10 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. Choose the proper option and rewrite the completed sentences:

Question 1.
India won the cricket world cup under the captainship of ______.
(a) Sunil Gavaskar
(b) Kapil Dev
(c) Sayyad Kirmani
(d) Sandip Patil
Answer:
(b) Kapil Dev

Question 2.
The _____ language is gaining importance in India due to the process of globalisation.
(a) Punjabi
(b) French
(c) English
(d) Hindi
Answer:
(c) English

2. Complete the information in the following table:

Question 1.

Answer:

3. Give reasons for the following statements:

Question 1.
Cricket began to be played all over India, to a greater or smaller extent.
Answer:
Cricket began to be played all over India, to a greater or smaller extent because:-

• In 1983, the Indian team won the World Cup for cricket, under the captainship of Kapil Dev. It was a historic victory.
• Cricket instantly won great popularity across the country.
• In the same year, Sunil Gavaskar broke the earlier record of maximum centuries in test cricket.
• In 1985, India won the ‘Benson and Hedges’ World Championship of cricket. As a result, cricket came to be played in all States to a lesser or greater extent, but at the cost of indigenous Indian games.

Question 2.
The economy of movies is changing.
Answer:
(i) Movies in foreign languages are now translated. Even during the screening of English movies, a short Hindi translation now appears on the screen as sub-titles.

(ii) Hindi movies now compete with ‘global’ movies as they have reached every nook and comer of the world. We see a reflection of politics, social events, industry and technology in the movies.

(iii) Movies which were 3-4 hours long are now of only one or one and a half hours. Moreover, the concept of one screen and one cinema hall has given way to multiplexes.

(iv) The days of a movie running for 100 weeks in one cinema hall are over. Now one movie runs in thousands of cinema halls in India and abroad simultaneously.

(v) This development has changed the economy of movies. Production of movies has attained the status of industry.

(vi) The industry now employs crores of people. The movie industry in regional languages is also thriving.
Therefore the economy of movies is changing.

4. Answer the following questions in 25-30 words:

Question 1.
Why is it necessary to keep alive the dialects of Indian languages?
Answer:
(i) Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannad, Kashmiri, Malayalam, Marathi, Odiya, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu, Konkani,
Manipuri, Nepali and Sindhi are the official languages in India.
(ii) These Indian languages also have dialects, but their number is now on the decline.
(iii) Timely steps should be taken to nurture them, otherwise we will lose an important part of our heritage.
(iv) Nevertheless, Hindi, which has reached everywhere through the medium of Hindi movies, has served to unite the country by language.

Question 2.
Elaborate upon the changing scope of newspapers.
Answer:
(i) During early post-independence period, the newspapers were expected to not only give the news of daily events, but also give impetus to industry and commerce by printing advertisements.

(ii) Earlier, newspapers were black and white. With the changing times, colour printing became common.

(iii) Earlier, newspapers were thought to be the mouthpieces of the taluka or district. Now they have to face tough competition from the State level newspaper chains. But on the whole, newspapers are now becoming more active.

(iv) Their scope has enlarged to include raising funds for drought affected and flood affected people, helping meritorious students from lower income groups to go for higher education and organizing or sponsoring cultural programmes. This is how newspapers have now become an inseparable part of our lives.

Question 3.
What changes have taken place in the medium of television?
Answer:
(i) Television came to India during the post-independence period. Earlier it was black and white. Now it is coloured. Earlier it was limited to some selected programmes and fixed time-slots.

(ii) Gradually its scope was enlarged to include educational programmes, news bulletins, detailed reporting of the tours of the President and the Prime Minister.

(iii) During the telelcast of Ramayana and Mahabharat, a majority of the people used to sit glued to the television set. These serials proved the popularity of this medium. Then in 1991, CNN channel showed to the entire world a live visual reporting of the Iraq war.

(iv) In 1998, STAR (Satellite Television Asia Region) a private media house entered India, and the uninteresting, monotonous and propagandist news telecasts of the early period underwent a sea change.

(v) The language, the technique of presentation, studios equipped with the latest technology and the use of OB (outdoor broadcasting) vans have expanded the scope of Indian T.V. channels still further, and brought in transparency and variety. Now, every nook and corner of the country is connected.

Class 9 History Chapter 10 Changing Life 2 Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
_____ won the national championship of billiards for teenagers at the age of 15.
(a) Milkha Singh
(b) Rafael Nadal
(c) Geet Sethi
(d) Prakash Padukone
Answer:
(c) Geet Sethi

Question 2.
In________ STAR (Satellite Television Asia Region) a private media house entered India.
(a) 1995
(b) 1996
(c) 1997
(d) 1998
Answer:
(d) 1998

Question 3.
In 1991, _______ showed to the entire world a live visual reporting of the Iraq War.
(a) CNN
(b) CNBC
(c) HBO
(d) NDTV
Answer:
(a) CNN

Question 4.
The Kohima Radio station had to make its broadcast in __________ languages which included English, Hindi and Naga dialects.
(a) 28
(b) 26
(c) 24
(d) 25
Answer:
(d) 25

Identify and write the wrong pair in the following sets:

Question 1.
(1) Karnam Malleshwari – Weight lifting
(ii) Sunil Gavaskar – Ace Indian Cricketer
(iii) CNN – Iraq War
(iv) Star Television – Sponsoring cultural programmes
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Star Television – Sponsoring cultural programmes

Question 2.
(i) Kapil Dev -1983 World Cup
(ii) Geet Sethi – Benson and Hedges
(iii) Karnam Malleshwari – First woman to win a medal at Olympics
(iv) Sunil Gavaskar – Maximum centuries in test cricket
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Geet Sethi – Benson and Hedges

Question 3.
(i) India won Cricket World Cup – 1983
(ii) Karnam Malleshwari won a medal at Olympics – 2000 ’
(iii) Live telecast of Iraq War -1991
(iv) Star T.V. entered India -1992
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Star T.V. entered India -1992

Do as directed:

Question 1.
Complete the following concept:

Answer:

Explain the statements with reason.

Question 1.
Hindi Movies have reached every nook and corner of the world.
Answer:
(i) In the field of entertainment, the place of Hindi movies is incomparable.
(ii) Now movies reflect contemporary themes. Film shooting locales have moved abroad.
(iii) So, viewers can now see many different places in foreign countries. Movies in foreign languages are now translated.
(iv) During the screening of English movies, a short Hindi translation now appears on the screen as sub-titles.
(v) Hindi movies now compete with ‘global’ movies as they have reached every nook and corner of the world.

Read the following passage and answer the questions:

Sports: During the pre-independence period, only a few selected games were known to people in general. Some sports persons changed this situation. This enhanced the status of both – the sports, and the sportspersons. For example, Geet Sethi achieved , global excellence in snooker, a variation of billiards. He won the national championship of billiards for teenagers at the age of 15. Later, he went on to win national and international championships. At the , global level, he won the amateur billiards competition thrice, and the professional one five times. His success made the game popular, and newspapers began to report news about billiards. Thus he made a new field available to rising sportspersons in India, It was in 1983, that the Indian team won the World , Cup for cricket, under the captainship of Kapil Dev. It was a historic victory. Cricket instantly won great , popularity across the country. In the same year, ‘Sunil Gavaskar broke the earlier record of maximum centuries in test cricket. In 1985, India won the ‘Benson and Hedges’ World Championship of cricket. As a , result, cricket came to be played in all States to a lesser or greater extent, but at the cost of indigenous Indian games. A few movies were also produced around the , theme of cricket. Live telecasts of the full five days or , one day of the matches also became available.
India had been participating in Asiad and Olympic of year 2000, Karnam Malleshwari won a medal for, weight-lifting. She was the first Indian woman to win , a medal at the Olympics. India’s representation began to rise in various Olympic games such as hockey, badminton, tennis, swimming, weightlifting and archery.

Question 1.
Which two cricket tournaments mentioned in the passage records a victory for India?
Answer:
World Cup 1983 and Benson and Hedges -1985 are the two tournaments mentioned in the passage that recorded victory for India.

Question 2.
Who was the first Indian woman to win a medal at the Olympics? Which sport did she represent?
Answer:
Karnam Malleshwari was the first Indian Women to win a medal for India at Olympic. She represented India in Women’s Weight Lifting.

Question 3.
Why do you think cricket has overshadowed other indigenous Indian Games?
Answer:
Cricket was introduced in India by the British. In the post independence period this game was mostly played by the elite. In times to come, cricket gained glamour and popularity across the nation gradually giving a setback to other indigenous games in India. Since cricketers received more professional coaching, funding and infrastructural facilities as compared to players of other games, it became inevitable that other games in India were overshadowed.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
Do you think English has threatened our indigenous languages? How?
Answer:
(i) Hindi, which has reached everywhere through the medium of Hindi movies, has served to unite the country by language.
(ii) However, English language has been gaining ground in India due to the process of globalisation which began after 1990.
(iii) English opens the doors to multiple job opportunities. Moreover, Indians are at the forefront in learning English.
(iv) However, it is necessary to ensure that this process does not endanger the very existence of regional languages.

Question 2.
Explain the contribution of Geet Sethi and Kamam Malleswari to the field of sports.
Answer:
(i) Geet Sethi:

• Geet Sethi achieved global excellence in snooker, a variation of billiards.
• He won the national championship of billiards for teenagers at the age of 15.
• Later, he went on to win national and international championships.
• At the global level, he won the amateur billiards competition thrice, and the professional one five times.
• His success made the game popular, and newspapers began to report news about billiards.

(ii) Karnam Malleswari: At the Olympics of the year 2000, Karnam Malleswari won a medal for weightlifting. She was the first Indian woman to win a medal at the Olympics.

9th Std History Questions And Answers:

• Sources of History Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• India: Events After 1960 Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• India’s Internal Challenges Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Economic Development Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Education Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Empowerment of Women and Other Weaker Sections Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Science and Technology Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Industry and Trade Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Changing Life 1 Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Changing Life 2 Class 9 History Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 3 India’s Defence System Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

India’s Defence System Class 9 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Class 9 Political Science Chapter 3 India’s Defence System Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Political Science Class 9 Chapter 3 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. Choose the right option and rewrite the sentence:

Question 1.
The ______ of India is the Commander-in-Chief of all the Defence forces.
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Defence Minister
(d) Governor
Answer:
(a) President

Question 2.
The ______ has the responsibility of protecting the coastline.
(a) Army
(b) Coast guard
(c) Border Security Force
(d) Rapid Action Force
Answer:
(b) Coast guard

Question 3.
The _______ has been established with the purpose of instilling among students the love of discipline and military training.
(a) Border Security Forces (BSF)
(b) Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF)
(c) National Cadet Corps (NCC)
(d) Rapid Action Force (RAF)
Answer:
(c) National Cadet Corps (NCC)

2. Explain with reasons whether the following statements are true or false:

Question 1.
It is necessary to end terrorism to ensure human security.
Answer:
True.

• The biggest challenge to human security is that of terrorism.
• Terrorism targets common, innocent people.
• It aims at creating terror or fear in their minds, so that they begin to feel insecure.
• Thus, in order to protect human security, it is necessary to put an end to terrorism.

Question 2.
Every nation creates a strong security system for itself.
Answer:
True.

• National Security is closely connected with geography because national security is more likely to be endangered by nations who are geographically closer.
• A nation must assess the threat to its geographical boundaries and the source of that threat.
• In order to keep this threat at bay, the nation has to increase its military might.
• The nation has to use modem technology to predict the threat, to build weapon systems and modernize and update the defence forces.

Question 3.
There are no issues of dispute between India and Pakistan.
Answer:
False.

• There are several disputes between India and Pakistan. For example, the Kashmir issue, disputes over river water sharing, the problem of infiltrations, dispute over the border, etc.
• India has continually tried to solve these issues through discussion and negotiations

3. Write short notes:

Question 1.
The functions of the Rapid Action Force
Answer:
The Rapid Action Force performs the task of bringing people’s lives to normalcy by moving in quickly in incidents of the threat to National Security such as bomb blasts or riots.

Question 2.
Human Security
Answer:
(i) In the Post – Cold War period, the concept of National Security changed and became broader. National Security is not just the security of the country but also of the people living in it, because security is ultimately for the people.

(ii) Hence; human security refers to human-centric thinking. In human security, it is expected that human beings should be protected from all sorts of dangers and they should be given the opportunities of education, health and development.

(iii) The concept of human security also includes the idea that a conducive environment should be created for everybody to live a respectable life by overcoming illiteracy, poverty, superstition, backwardness, etc. Human security necessitates the protection of the rights of minorities and weaker sections

Question 3.
Home Guards
Answer:
(i) This organisation was established in the pre-independence period. Citizens can join the Home Guards and assist in the defence of the country.

(ii) Any citizen, man or woman, between the age of 20 and 35 years can join the Home Guards.

(iii) This force has the following tasks: Maintain public security, supply of milk, water and other essential services during riots or strikes, to regulate traffic, to help people at the time of natural disasters like floods, earthquakes, etc.

4. Give your own opinion about:

Question 1.
Which of the forces related to India’s security would you like to join? Why?
Answer:
(i) If given a chance I would like to join the Indian Army.

(ii) India is surrounded by neighbours like Pakistan and China which have posed many threats to India’s territorial security through infiltration and cross-border terrorism.

(iii) The Arfny is thus the most challenging place to be, where service to protect the motherland would be valued the most.

(iv) The determination, discipline and patriotism which are intrinsic virtues of the Indian Army have always inspired me to do my bit for the nation.

(v) The training for physical fitness and the skills of various war operations can be best received through the Indian Army.

(vi) For these reasons I hold the Indian Army as the most sought after career and the ultimate destination of my life.

Question 2.
Give your views on the policy ‘Atoms for Peace’.
Answer:
(i) US nuclear policies had failed to prevent further nuclear proliferation, fuelled the arms race, suppressed the humanitarian benefits of civil nuclear technology and badly affected the development of the US nuclear industry.

(ii) In his “Atoms for Peace” speech of 1953, President Dwight D. Eisenhower captured the tensions and the ironies of the atomic age.

(iii) Eisenhower believed only nuclear preparedness offered protection; while nuclear weapons lead to war. Nuclear power offered progress and hope.

(iv) However, the motives behind Atoms for Peace extended beyond non-proliferation, arms control, and economic interests.

(v) Objective of the Eisenhower Administration was to set USA advantageously against USSR.

(vi) He envisaged to permit privatization and commercialization of fuel technologies, cooperation with foreign partners, and international nuclear commerce.

(vii) Ultimately, Atoms for Peace yielded billions of dollars in civil nuclear commerce for the US economy.

(viii) Atoms for Peace provided political cover for the biggest nuclear arms build-up in US history, and helped fuel the Cold War arms race.

5. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
What are the threats to National Security?
Answer:
(i) India’s security is not only threatened by outside powers, but also from within. It is not just the difference between external security and internal security that is important anymore.

(ii) Religion, regionalism, several rebellious movements based on ideology, race-ethnicity and economic inequality are creating instability. For example, the Naxalite movement is a threat to India’s internal security.

Question 2.
Write the functions of the Border Security Force.
Answer:
The Border Security Force performs tasks like:

• creating a sense of security in the minds of people living in areas near the border,
• preventing smuggling,
• patrolling the border, etc.

6. Do as directed:

Question 1.
Complete the table about security forces:

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Class 9 Political Science Chapter 3 India’s Defence System Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
The ______ forces are responsible for protection and security of important locations.
(a) Paramilitary Forces
(b) Research and Analysis Wing
(c) Central Bureau of Investigation
(d) Interpol
Answer:
(a) Paramilitary Forces

Question 2.
The Air Force is in charge of protecting India’s ______.
(a) Borders
(b) Coastline
(c) Airspace
(d) Mineral Resources
Answer:
(c) Airspace

Question 3.
The Indian Army is the world’s ____ largest army.
(a) Second
(b) Fifth
(c) Seventh
(d) Third
Answer:
(c) Seventh

Question 4.
The Chief of Navy is known as ________.
(a) Admiral
(b) General
(c) Marshall
(d) Brigadier
Answer:
(a) Admiral

Question 5.
The National Defence Academy is at ______.
(a) Pune
(b) Dehradun
(c) Mumbai
(d) Delhi
Answer:
(a) Pune

Question 6.
_______ are neither completely military forces nor completely civil forces.
(a) Border Security Forces
(b) Paramilitary Forces
(c) Coast Guards
(d) Home Guards
Answer:
(b) Paramilitary Forces

Question 7.
The biggest challenge to human security is that of ______.
(а) Pollution
(b) Terrorism
(c) Natural calamities
(d) Corruption
Answer:
(b) Terrorism

State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons:

Question 1.
Naxalite Movement is a threat to India’s internal security.
Answer:
True.

• India’s security is not only threatened by outside powers but also from within.
• It is not just the difference between external security and internal security that is important anymore.
• Example naxalite movement is a threat to internal security.

Question 2.
There are no training institutes in our country for military personnel.
Answer:
False.

• Many training institutes have been set up in our country.
• To train military personnel, so that they can perform their task.
• Example – National Defence Academy – Pune

Do as directed:

Question 1.
Complete the table about paramilitary forces.

Answer:

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
What kind of conflicts may arise among sovereign nations?
Answer:
(i) There are disputes among nations over boundaries or sometimes conflicts emerge among them over water sharing.

(ii) Some other reasons for conflict could be: not following the terms of international treaties, constantly competing against each other and the influx of refugees from neighbouring countries.

Question 2.
What does the Central Reserve Policy Force do?
Answer:
The Central Reserve Police Force helps the administration in various states to maintain law and order.

Question 3.
Describe the three major armed forces in India.
Answer:
(i) India’s security system includes the Army, the Navy and the Air Force, the three forces that defend the country.

(ii) The responsibility of protecting the geographical boundaries is on the Army, whereas the Navy protects the coastline.

(iii) The Air Force is in charge of protecting India’s air space.

(iv) The Ministry of Defence controls all the three forces.

(v) The Indian Army is very big. It is the world’s seventh-largest. Its Chief is known as the General.

(vi) The Chief of Navy is known as the Admiral, while the Chief of the Air Force is known as Air Chief Marshall. These three chiefs are appointed by the President.

Question 4.
Which measures have been taken to modernize India’s security system?
Answer:
(i) Many measures are taken so that all three defence forces in India’s security system are adequately modernized. For this, some research institutions have been set up.

(ii) Many training institutes have also been set up in our country to train the personnel of all ranks of our defence forces so that they can perform their task competently.

(iii) For example, the National Defence Academy (NDA) at Pune and the National Defence College (NDC) at Delhi, etc.

Question 5.
How do environmental issues threaten human security?
Answer:
(i) Pollution and other changes in the environment have threatened human life. Diseases like AIDS, Chikungunia, Swine flu and Ebola have presented a big challenge.

(ii) Protecting human beings from such diseases is also considered as a factor of human security.

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9th Std Political Science Questions And Answers:

• Post World War Political Developments Class 9 Political Science Questions And Answers
• India’s Foreign Policy Class 9 Political Science Questions And Answers
• India’s Defence System Class 9 Political Science Questions And Answers
• The United Nations Class 9 Political Science Questions And Answers
• India and Other Countries Class 9 Political Science Questions And Answers
• International Problems Class 9 Political Science Questions And Answers