Important Questions

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 Electromagnetic Waves and Communication System Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Physics Important Questions Chapter 13 Electromagnetic Waves and Communication System

Question 1.
Describe Gauss’ law of electrostatics in brief.
Answer:
i. Gauss’ law of electrostatics states that electric flux through any closed surface S is equal to the total electric charge Q_in enclosed by the surface divided by so.
\(\int \vec{E} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{dS}}=\frac{\mathrm{Q}_{\text {in }}}{\varepsilon_{0}}\)
where, \(\vec{E}\) is the electric field and e0 is the permittivity of vacuum. The integral is over a closed surface S.

ii. Gauss’ law describes the relation between an electric charge and electric field it produces.

Question 2.
Describe Gauss’ law of magnetism in brief.
Answer:
i. Gauss’ law for magnetism states that magnetic monopoles which are thought to be magnetic charges equivalent to the electric charges, do not exist. Magnetic poles always occur in pairs.

ii. This means, magnetic flux through a closed surface is always zero, i.e., the magnetic field lines are continuous closed curves, having neither beginning nor end.
\(\int \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{dS}}\) = 0
where, B is the magnetic field. The integral is over a closed surface S.

Question 3.
Describe Faraday’s law along with Lenz’s law.
Answer:
i. Faraday’s law states that, time varying magnetic field induces an electromotive force (emf) and an electric field.

ii. Whereas, Lenz’s law states that, the direction of the induced emf is such that the change is opposed.

iii. According to Faraday’s law with Lenz’s law,
\(\int \overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{d} l}=-\frac{\mathrm{d} \phi_{\mathrm{m}}}{\mathrm{dt}}\)
where, ø_m is the magnetic flux and the integral is over a closed loop.

Question 4.
What does Ampere’s law describe?
Answer:
Ampere’s law describes the relation between the induced magnetic field associated with a loop and the current flowing through the loop.

Question 5.
Describe Ampere-Maxwell law in brief.
Answer:
According to Ampere-Maxwell law, magnetic field is generated by moving charges and also by varying electric fields.
\(\int \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{d} l}=\mu_{0} \mathrm{I}+\varepsilon_{0} \mu_{0} \frac{\mathrm{d} \phi_{\mathrm{E}}}{\mathrm{dt}}\)
where, p0 and e0 are the permeability and permittivity of vacuum respectively and the integral is over a closed loop, I is the current flowing through the loop, E is the electric flux linked with the circuit.

Question 6.
What are Maxwell’s equations for charges and currents in vacuum?
Answer:
\(\int \vec{E} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{dS}}=\frac{\mathrm{Q}_{\text {in }}}{\varepsilon_{0}}\)
\(\int \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{dS}}\) = 0
\(\int \overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{d} l}=-\frac{\mathrm{d} \phi_{\mathrm{m}}}{\mathrm{dt}}\)
\(\int \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{d} l}=\mu_{0} \mathrm{I}+\varepsilon_{0} \mu_{0} \frac{\mathrm{d} \phi_{\mathrm{E}}}{\mathrm{dt}}\)

Question 7.
Explain the origin of displacement current?
Answer:

1. Maxwell pointed a major flaw in the Ampere’s law for time dependant fields.
2. He noticed that the magnetic field can be generated not only by electric current but also by changing electric field.
3. Therefore, he added one more term to the equation describing Ampere’s law. This term is called the displacement current.

Question 8.
In the following table, every entry on the left column can match with any number of entries on the right side. Pick up all those and write respectively against (i), (ii), and (iii).

Name of the Physicist	Work
i. H. Hertz	a. Existence of EM waves
ii. J. Maxwell	b. Properties of EM waves
iii. G. Marconi	c. Wireless communication
	d. Displacement current

Answer:
(i – a, b), (ii – d), (iii – c)

Question 9.
Varying electric and magnetic fields regenerate each other. Explain.
Answer:

1. According to Maxwell’s theory, accelerated charges radiate EM waves.
2. Consider a charge oscillating with some frequency. This produces an oscillating electric field in space, which produces an oscillating magnetic field which in turn is a source of oscillating electric field.
3. Thus, varying electric and magnetic fields regenerate each other.

Question 10.
Draw a neat diagram representing electromagnetic wave propagating along Z-axis.
Answer:

Question 11.
How can energy be transported in the form of EM waves?
Answer:

1. Maxwell proposed that an oscillating electric charge radiates energy in the form of EM wave.
2. EM waves are periodic changes in electric and magnetic fields, which propagate through space.
3. Thus, energy can be transported in the form of EM waves.

Question 12.
State the main characteristics of EM waves.
Answer:
i. The electric and magnetic fields, \(\vec{E}\) and \(\vec{B}\) are always perpendicular to each other and also to the direction of propagation of the EM wave. Thus, the EM waves are transverse waves.

ii. The cross product (\(\vec{E}\) × \(\vec{B}\)) gives the direction in which the EM wave travels. (\(\vec{E}\) × \(\vec{B}\)) also gives the energy carried by EM wave.

iii. The \(\vec{E}\) and \(\vec{B}\) fields vary sinusoidally and are in phase.

iv. EM waves are produced by accelerated electric charges.

v. EM waves can travel through free space as well as through solids, liquids and gases.

vi. In free space, EM waves travel with velocity c, equal to that of light in free space.
c = \(\frac {1}{\sqrt{µ_0ε_0}}\) = 3 × 10⁸ m/s,
where µ₀ is permeability and ε₀ is permittivity of free space.

vii. In a given material medium, the velocity (v_m) of EM waves is given by v_m = \(\frac {1}{\sqrt{µε}}\)
where µ is the permeability and ε is the permittivity of the given medium.

viii. The EM waves obey the principle of superposition.

ix. The ratio of the amplitudes of electric and magnetic fields is constant at any point and is equal to the velocity of the EM wave.
\( \left|\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}_{0}\right|=\mathrm{c}\left|\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}_{0}\right| \text { or } \frac{\left|\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}_{0}\right|}{\left|\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}_{0}}\right|}=\mathrm{c}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{\mu_{0} \varepsilon_{0}}}\)
where, |\(\vec{E_0}\)| and |\(\vec{B_0}\)| are the amplitudes of \(\vec{E}\) and \(\vec{B}\) respectively.

x. As the electric field vector (\(\vec{E_0}\)) is more prominent than the magnetic field vector (\(\vec{B_0}\)), it is responsible for optical effects due to EM waves. For this reason, electric vector is called light vector.

xi. The intensity of a wave is proportional to the square of its amplitude and is given by the equations
\(\mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{E}}=\frac{1}{2} \varepsilon_{0} \mathrm{E}_{0}^{2}, \mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{B}}=\frac{1}{2} \frac{\mathrm{B}_{0}^{2}}{\mu_{0}}\)

xii. The energy of EM waves is distributed equally between the electric and magnetic fields. I_E = I_B.

Question 13.
Give reason: Electric vector is called light vector.
Answer:
As the electric field vector (\(\vec{E_0}\)) is more prominent than the magnetic field vector (\(\vec{B_0}\)), it is responsible for optical effects due to EM waves. For this reason, electric vector is called light vector.

Question 14.
Explain the equations describing an EM wave.
Answer:
i. In an EM wave, the magnetic field and electric field both vary sinusoidally with x.

ii. For a wave travelling along X-axis having \(\vec{E}\) along Y-axis and \(\vec{B}\) along the Z-axis,
E_y = E₀ sin (kx – ωt)
B_z = B₀ sin (kx – ωt)
where, E₀ is the amplitude of the electric field (E_y) and B₀ is the amplitude of the magnetic field (B_z).

iii. The propagation constant is given by k = \(\frac {2π}{λ}\) and λ is the wavelength of the wave. The angular frequency of oscillations is given by ω = 2πv, v being the frequency of the wave.
Hence, E_y = E₀ sin (\(\frac {2πx}{λ}\) – 2πvt)
B_z = B₀ sin (\(\frac {2πx}{λ}\) – 2πvt)

iv. Both the electric and magnetic fields attain their maximum or minimum values at the same time and at the same point in space, i.e., \(\vec{E}\) and \(\vec{B}\) oscillate in phase with the same frequency.

Question 15.
A radio wave of frequency of 1.0 × 10⁷ Hz propagates with speed 3 × 10⁸ m/s. Calculate its wavelength.
Answer:
Given: v= 1.0 × 10⁷ Hz, c = 3 × 10⁸ m/s
To find: Wavelength (λ)
Formula: vλ
Calculation: From formula,
λ = \(\frac {c}{v}\) = \(\frac {3×10^8}{1.0×10^7}\) = 30 m

Question 16.
A radio can tune in to any station in the 7.5 MHz to 12 MHz band. What is the corresponding wavelength band?
Answer:
Given: V₁ = 7.5 MHz = 7.5 × 10⁶ Hz,
V₁ = 12 MHz = 12 × 10⁶ Hz.
To find: Wavelength band
Formula: λ = \(\frac {c}{v}\)
Calculation: From formula,
V₁ = \(\frac {3×10^8}{7.5×10^6}\) = 40 m
V₁ = \(\frac {3×10^8}{12×10^6}\) = 25 m
∴ Wavelength band = 40 m to 25 m

Question 17.
Calculate the ratio of the intensities of the two waves, if amplitude of first beam of light is 1.5 times the amplitude of second beam of light.
Answer:
a₁ = 1.5 a₂
To find: \(\frac {I_1}{I-2}\)
Formula: I ∝ a²
Calculation: From formula,
\(\frac{I_{1}}{I_{2}}=\left(\frac{a_{1}}{a_{2}}\right)^{2}=\left(\frac{1.5 a_{2}}{a_{2}}\right)^{2}\) = (1.5)² = 2.25

Question 18.
A beam of red light has an amplitude 2.5 times the amplitude of second beam of the same colour. Calculate the ratio of the intensities of the two waves.
Answer:
a₁ = 2.5 a₂
To find: \(\frac {I_1}{I-2}\)
Formula: I ∝ a²
Calculation: From formula,
\(\frac{I_{1}}{I_{2}}=\left(\frac{a_{1}}{a_{2}}\right)^{2}=\left(\frac{2.5 a_{2}}{a_{2}}\right)^{2}\) = (2.5)² = 6.25

Question 19.
Calculate the velocity of EM waves in vacuum.
Answer:
Given: ε₀ = 8.85 × 10^-12 C²/Nm²
µ₀ = 4π × 10^-7 Tm/A
To find: Velocity of EM waves (c)
Formula: c = \(\frac {1}{\sqrt{µ_0ε_0}}\)
Calculation: From formula,

………… (Taking square roots using log table)
= 0.2998 × 10⁹ ≈ 3 × 10⁸ m/s

Question 20.
In free space, an EM wave of frequency 28 MHz travels along the X-direction. The amplitude of the electric field is E = 9.6 V/m and its direction is along the Y-axis. What is amplitude and direction of magnetic field B?
Answer:
Given: v = 28 MHz, E = 9.6 V/m,
c = 3 × 10⁸ m/s
To find:
i. Amplitude of magnetic field (B)
ii. Direction of B
Formula:
|B| = \(\frac {|E|}{c}\)
Calculation: From formula,
|B| = \(\frac {9.6}{3×10^8}\) = 3.2 × 10^-8 T
Since that E is along Y-direction and the wave propagates along X-axis. The magnetic induction, B should be in a direction perpendicular to both X and Y axes, i.e., along the Z-direction.

Question 21.
An EM wave of frequency 50 MHz travels in vacuum along the positive X-axis and \(\vec{E}\) at a particular point, x and at a particular instant of time t is 9.6 j V/m. Find the magnitude and direction of \(\vec{B}\) at this point x and at instant of time t.
Answer:
Given: \(\vec{E}\) = 9.6 j V/m
i. e., Electric field E is directed along +Y axis Magnitude of \(\vec{B}\).
|B| = \(\frac {|E|}{c}\) = \(\frac {9.6}{3×10^8}\) = 3.2 × 10^-8 T
As the wave propagates along +X axis and E is along +Y axis, direction of B will be along +Z-axis i.e. B = 3.2 × 10^-8 \(\hat{k}\)T.

Question 22.
A plane electromagnetic wave travels in vacuum along Z-direction. What can you say about the directions of its electric and magnetic field vectors? If the frequency of the wave is 30 MHz, what is its wavelength?
Answer:
Since the electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature, the electric and magnetic field vectors are mutually perpendicular to each other as well as perpendicular to the direction of propagation of wave.
As the wave is travelling along Z-direction,

\(\vec{E}\) and \(\vec{B}\) are in XY plane.
For v = 30 MHz = 30 × 10⁶ Hz
Wavelength, λ = \(\frac {c}{v}\) = \(\frac {3×10^8}{30×10^6}\) = 10 m

Question 23.
For an EM wave propagating along X direction, the magnetic field oscillates along the Z-direction at a frequency of 3 × 10¹⁰ Hz and has amplitude of 10^-9 T.
i. What is the wavelength of the wave?
ii. Write the expression representing the corresponding electric field.
Answer:
Given: v = 3 × 10¹⁰ Hz, B = 10^-9 T
i. For wavelength of the wave:
λ = \(\frac{\mathrm{c}}{\mathrm{v}}=\frac{3 \times 10^{8}}{3 \times 10^{10}}\) = 10^-2 m

ii. Since B acts along Z-axis, E acts along Y-axis. Expression representing the oscillating electric field is
E_y = E₀ sin (kx – ωt)
E_y = E₀ sin [(\(\frac {2π}{λ}\))x – (2πv)t]
E_y = E₀ sin 2π [\(\frac {x}{λ}\) – vt]
E_y = E₀ sin 2π [\(\frac {x}{10^{-2}}\) – 3 × 10¹⁰ t]
E_y = E₀ sin 2π [100x – 3 × 10¹⁰ t] V/m

Question 24.
The magnetic field of an EM wave travelling along X-axis is
\(\vec{B}\) = \(\hat{k}\) [4 × 10^-4 sin (ωt – kx)]. Here B is in tesla, t is in second and x is in m. Calculate the peak value of electric force acting on a particle of charge 5 µC travelling with a velocity of 5 × 10⁵ m/s along the Y-axis.
Answer:
Expression for EM wave travelling along
X-axis, \(\vec{B}\) = \(\hat{k}\) [4 × 10^-4 sin (ωt – kx)]
Here, B₀ = 4 × 10^-4
Given: q = 5 µC = 5 × 10^-6 C
v = 5 × 10⁵ m/s along Y-axis
∴ E₀ = cB₀ = 3 × 10⁸ × 4 × 10^-4
= 12 × 10⁴ N/C
Maximum electric force = qE₀
= 5 × 10^-6 × 12 × 10⁴
= 0.6 N

Question 25.
The amplitude of the magnetic field part of harmonic electromagnetic wave in vaccum is B₀ = 510 nT. What is the amplitude of the electric field part of the wave?
Answer:
Given: B₀ = 510 nT = 510 × 10^-9 T
To find: Amplitude of electric field (E₀)
Formula: E₀ = B₀C
Calculation: From formula,
E₀ = 510 × 10^-9 × 3 × 10⁸
= 153V/m

Question 26.
Suppose that the electric field amplitude of an electromagnetic wave is E₀ = 120 N/C and that its frequency is v = 50.0 MHz. (i) Determine, B₀, ω, k, and λ. (ii) Find expressions for \(\vec{E}\) and \(\vec{B}\).
Solution:
For E₀ = 120 N/C, v = 50 MHz = 50 × 10⁶ Hz
i. λ = \(\frac {c}{v}\) = \(\frac {3×10^8}{50×10^6}\) = 6 m
B₀ = \(\frac {E_0}{v}\) = \(\frac {120}{3×10^8}\) = 4 × 10^-7 T = 400 nT
k = \(\frac {2π}{λ}\) = \(\frac {2π}{6}\) = 1.0472 rad/m
ω = 2πv = 2π × 50 × 10⁶
= 3.14 × 10⁸ rad/s.

ii. Assuming motion of em wave along X-axis, expression for electric field vector may lie along Y-axis,
∴ \(\vec{E}\) = E₀ sin (kx – ωt)
= 120 sin (1.0472 × – 3.14 × 10⁸ t) \(\hat{j}\) N/C
Also, magnetic field vector will lie along Z-axis, expression for magnetic field vector,
∴ \(\vec{E}\) = B₀ sin (kx – ωt)
= 4 × 10^-7 sin (1.0472 × – 3.14 × 10⁸ t) \(\hat{k}\) T.

Question 27.
What is electromagnetic spectrum?
Answer:
The orderly distribution (sequential arrangement) of EM waves according to their wavelengths (or frequencies) in the form of distinct groups having different properties is called the EM spectrum.

Question 28.
State various units used for frequency of electromagnetic waves.
Answer:

1. SI unit of frequency of electromagnetic waves is hertz (Hz).
2. Higher frequencies are represented by kHz, MHz, GHz etc.
   [Note: 1 kHz = 10³ Hz, 1 MHz =10⁶ Hz. 1 GHz = 10⁹ Hz]

Question 29.
State different units used for wavelength of electromagnetic waves.
Answer:

1. The SI unit of wavelength of electromagnetic waves is metre (m).
2. Small wavelengths are represented by micrometre (µm), angstrom (Å), nanometre (nm) etc.
   [Note:l A = 10^-10 m = 10^-8 cm, 1 µm = 10^-6 m, 1 nm = 10^-9 m.]

Question 30.
How are radio waves produced? State their properties and uses.
Answer:
Production:

1. Radio waves are produced by accelerated motion of charges in a conducting wire. The frequency of waves produced by the circuit depends upon the magnitudes of the inductance and the capacitance.
2. Thus, by choosing suitable values of the inductance and the capacitance, radio waves of desired frequency can be produced.

Properties:

1. They have very long wavelengths ranging from a few centimetres to a few hundreds of kilometres.
2. The frequency range of AM band is 530 kHz to 1710 kHz. Frequency of the waves used for TV-transmission range from 54 MHz to 890 MHz, while those for FM radio band range from 88 MHz to 108 MHz.

Uses:

1. Radio waves are used for wireless communication purpose.
2. They are used for radio broadcasting and transmission of TV signals.
3. Cellular phones use radio waves to transmit voice communication in the ultra high frequency (UHF) band.

Question 31.
How are microwaves produced? State their properties and uses.
Answer:
Production:

1. Microwaves are produced by oscillator electric circuits containing a capacitor and an inductor.
2. They can be produced by special vacuum tubes.

Properties:

1. They heat certain substances on which they are incident.
2. They can be detected by crystal detectors.

Uses:

1. Used for the transmission of TV signals.
2. Used for long distance telephone communication.
3. Microwave ovens are used for cooking.
4. Used in radar systems for the location of distant objects like ships, aeroplanes etc,
5. They are used in the study of atomic and molecular structure.

Question 32.
How are infrared waves produced? State their properties and uses.
Answer:
Production:

1. All hot bodies are sources of infrared rays. About 60% of the solar radiations are infrared in nature.
2. Thermocouples, thermopile and bolometers are used to detect infrared rays.

Properties:

1. When infrared rays are incident on any object, the object gets heated.
2. These rays are strongly absorbed by glass.
3. They can penetrate through thick columns of fog, mist and cloud cover.

Uses:

1. Used in remote sensing.
2. Used in diagnosis of superficial tumours and varicose veins.
3. Used to cure infantile paralysis and to treat sprains, dislocations and fractures.
4. They are used in solar water heaters and solar cookers.
5. Special infrared photographs of the body called thermograms, can reveal diseased organs because these parts radiate less heat than the healthy organs.
6. Infrared binoculars and thermal imaging cameras are used in military applications for night vision.
7. Used to keep green house warm.
8. Used in remote controls of TV, VCR, etc.

Question 33.
Write short note on visible light.
Answer:

1. It is the most familiar form of EM waves.
2. These waves are detected by human eye. Therefore this wavelength range is called the visible light.
3. The visible light is emitted due to atomic excitations.
4. Visible light emitted or reflected from objects around us provides us information about those objects and hence about the surroundings.
5. Different wavelengths give rise to different colours as shown in the table given below.
   

   Colour	Wavelength
   Violet	380-450 nm
   Blue	450-495 nm
   Green	495-570 nm
   Yellow	570-590 nm
   Orange	590-620 nm
   Red	620-750 nm

Question 34.
How are ultraviolet rays produced? State their properties and uses.
Answer:
Production:

1. Ultraviolet rays can be produced by the mercury vapour lamp, electric spark and carbon arc lamp.
2. They can also be obtained by striking electrical discharge in hydrogen and xenon gas tubes.
3. The Sun is the most important natural source of ultraviolet rays, most of which are absorbed by the ozone layer in the Earth’s atmosphere.

Properties:

1. They produce fluorescence in certain materials, such as ‘phosphors’.
2. They cause photoelectric effect.
3. They cannot pass through glass but pass through quartz, fluorite, rock salt etc.
4. They possess the property of synthesizing vitamin D, when skin is exposed to them.

Uses:

1. Ultraviolet rays destroy germs and bacteria and hence they are used for sterilizing surgical instruments and for purification of water.
2. Used in burglar alarms and security systems.
3. Used to distinguish real and fake gems.
4. Used in analysis of chemical compounds.
5. Used to detect forgery.

Question 35.
How are X-rays produced? State their properties and uses.
Answer:
Production:

1. German physicist W. C. Rontgen discovered X-rays while studying cathode rays. Hence, X-rays are also called Rontgen rays.
2. Cathode ray is a stream of electrons emitted by the cathode in a vacuum tube.
3. X-rays are produced when cathode rays are suddenly stopped by an obstacle.

Properties:

1. They are high energy EM waves.
2. They are not deflected by electric and magnetic fields.
3. X-rays ionize the gases through which they pass.
4. They have high penetrating power.
5. Their over dose can kill living plant and animal tissues and hence are harmful.

Uses:

1. Useful in the study of the structure of crystals.
2. X-ray photographs are useful to detect bone fracture. X-rays have many other medical uses such as CT scan.
3. X-rays are used to detect flaws or cracks in metals.
4. These are used for detection of explosives, opium etc.

Question 36.
X-rays are used in medicine and industry. Explain.
Answer:
X-rays have many practical applications in medicine and industry. Because X-ray photons are of such high energy, they can penetrate several centimetres of solid matter and can be used to visualize the interiors of materials that are opaque to ordinary light.

Question 37.
How are Gamma rays produced? State their properties and uses.
Answer:
Production:
Gamma rays are emitted from the nuclei of some radioactive elements such as uranium, radium etc.

Properties:

1. They are highest energy (energy range keV – GeV) EM waves.
2. They are highly penetrating.
3. They have a small ionising power.
4. They kill living cells.

Uses:

1. Used as insecticide and disinfectant for wheat and flour.
2. Used for food preservation.
3. Used in radiotherapy for the treatment of cancer and tumour.
4. They are used to produce nuclear reactions.

Question 38.
Identify the name and part of electromagnetic spectrum and arrange these wavelengths in ascending order of magnitude:
Electromagnetic waves with wavelength
i. λ₁ are used by a FM radio station for broad casting.
ii. λ₂ are used to detect bone fracture.
iii. λ₃ are absorbed by the ozone layer of atmosphere.
iv. λ₄ are used to treat muscular strain.
Answer:
i. λ₁ belongs to radiowaves.
ii. λ₂ belongs to X-rays.
iii. λ₃ belongs to ultraviolet rays.
iv. λ₄ belongs to infrared radiations.
Ascending order of magnitude of wavelengths:
λ₃ < λ₃ < λ₄ < λ₁

Question 39.
Explain how different types of waves emitted by stars and galaxies are observed?
Answer:
i. Stars and galaxies emit different types of waves. Radio waves and visible light can pass through the Earth’s atmosphere and reach the ground without getting absorbed significantly. Thus, the radio telescopes and optical telescopes can be placed on the ground.

ii. All other type of waves get absorbed by the atmospheric gases and dust particles. Hence, the y-ray, X-ray, ultraviolet, infrared, and microwave telescopes are kept aboard artificial satellites and are operated remotely from the Earth.

iii. Even though the visible radiation reaches the surface of the Earth, its intensity decreases to some extent due to absorption and scattering by atmospheric gases and dust particles. Optical telescopes are therefore located at higher altitudes.

Question 40.
In communication using radiowaves, how are EM waves propagated?
Answer:
In communication using radio waves, an antenna in the transmitter radiates the EM waves, which travel through space and reach the receiving antenna at the other end.

Question 41.
Draw a schematic structure of earth’s atmosphere describing different atmospheric layers.
Answer:

Question 42.
Draw a diagram showing different types of EM waves.
Answer:

Question 43.
Explain ground wave propagation.
Answer:

1. When a radio wave from a transmitting antenna propagates near surface of the Earth so as to reach the receiving antenna, the wave propagation is called ground wave or surface wave propagation.
2. In this mode, radio waves travel close to the surface of the Earth and move along its curved surface from transmitter to receiver.
3. The radio waves induce currents in the ground and lose their energy by absorption. Therefore, the signal cannot be transmitted over large distances.
4. Radio waves having frequency less than 2 MHz (in the medium frequency band) are transmitted by ground wave propagation.
5. This is suitable for local broadcasting only. For TV or FM signals (very high frequency), ground wave propagation cannot be used.

Question 44.
Explain space wave propagation.
Answer:
i. When the radio waves from the transmitting antenna reach the receiving antenna either directly along a straight line (line of sight) or after reflection from the ground or satellite or after reflection from troposphere, the wave propagation is called space wave propagation.

ii. The radio waves reflected from troposphere are called tropospheric waves.

iii. Radio waves with frequency greater than 30 MHz can pass through the ionosphere (60 km – 1000 km) after suffering a small deviation. Hence, these waves cannot be transmitted by space wave propagation except by using a satellite.

iv. Also, for TV signals which have high frequency, transmission over long distance is not possible by means of space wave propagation.

Question 45.
Explain the concept of range of the signal.
Answer:
i. The maximum distance over which a signal can reach is called its range.

ii. For larger TV coverage, the height of the transmitting antenna should be as large as possible. This is the reason why the transmitting and receiving antennas are mounted on top of high rise buildings.

iii. Range is the straight line distance from the point of transmission (the top of the antenna) to the point on Earth where the wave will hit while travelling along a straight line.

iv. Let the height of the transmitting antenna (AA’) situated at A be h. B represents the point on the surface of the Earth at which the space wave hits the Earth.

v. The triangle OA’B is a right angled triangle. From ∆OA’ B,
(OA’)² = A’B² + OB²
(R + h)² = d² + R²
or R² + h² + 2Rh = d² + R² As
h << R, neglecting h²
d ≈ \(\sqrt{2Rh}\)

vi. The range can be increased by mounting the receiver at a height h’ say at a point C on the surface of the Earth. The range increases to d + d’ where d’ is 2Rh’. Thus
Total range = d + d’ = \(\sqrt{2Rh}\) + \(\sqrt{2Rh’}\)

Question 46.
Explain sky wave propagation.
Answer:

1. When radio waves from a transmitting antenna reach the receiving antenna after reflection in the ionosphere, the wave propagation is called sky wave propagation.
2. The sky waves include waves of frequency between 3 MHz and 30 MHz.
3. These waves can suffer multiple reflections between the ionosphere and the Earth. Therefore, they can be transmitted over large distances.

Question 47.
What is critical frequency?
Answer:
Critical frequency is the maximum value of the frequency of radio wave which can be reflected back to the Earth from the ionosphere when the waves are directed normally to ionosphere.

Question 48.
What is skip distance (zone)?
Answer:
Skip distance is the shortest distance from a transmitter measured along the surface of the Earth at which a sky wave of fixed frequency (if greater than critical frequency) will be returned to the Earth so that no sky waves can be received within the skip distance.

Question 49.
A radar has a power of 10 kW and is operating at a frequency of 20 GHz. It is located on the top of a hill of height 500 m. Calculate the maximum distance upto which it can detect object located on the surface of the Earth.
(Radius of Earth = 6.4 × 10⁶ m)
Answer:
Given: h = 500 m, R = 6.4 × 10⁶ m
To find: Maximum distance or range (d)
Formula: d = \(\sqrt{2Rh}\)
Calculation: From formula,
d = \(\sqrt{2Rh}\) = \(\sqrt{2×64×10^6×500}\)
= 8 × 10⁴
= 80 km

Question 50.
If the height of a TV transmitting antenna is 128 m, how much square area can be covered by the transmitted signal if the receiving antenna is at the ground level? (Radius of the Earth = 6400 km)
Answer:
Given: h = 128 m, R = 6400 km – 6400 × 10³ m
To find: Area covered (A)
Formulae: i. d = \(\sqrt{2Rh}\) ii. A = πd²
Calculation:
From formula (i),

= 4.048 × 10⁴
= 40.48 km
From formula (ii).
Area covered = 3.142 × (40.48)²
= antilog [log 3.142 + 2log 40.48]
= antilog [0.4972 + 2(1.6073)]
= antilog [3.7118]
= 5.150 × 10³
= 5150 km²

Question 51.
The height of a transmitting antenna is 68 m and the receiving antenna is at the top of a tower of height 34 m. Calculate the maximum distance between them for satisfactory transmission in line of sight mode. (Radius of Earth = 6400 km)
Answer:
Given: h_t = 68 m, h_r = 34 m,
R = 6400 km = 6.4 × 10⁶ m
To find: Maximum distance or range (d)
Formula: d = \(\sqrt{2Rh}\)
Calculation:
From formula,

= 2.086 × 10⁴
= 20.86 km
d = d_t + d_r = 29.51 + 20.86 = 50.37 km

Question 52.
Explain block diagram of communication system.
Answer:
i. There are three basic (essential) elements of every communication system:

1. Transmitter
2. Communication channel
3. Receiver

ii. In a communication system, the transmitter is located at one place and the receiver at another place.

iii. The communication channel is a passage through which signals transfer in between a transmitter and a receiver.

iv. This channel may be in the form of wires or cables, or may also be wireless, depending on the types of communication system.

Question 53.
What are the two different modes of communication?
Answer:
i. There are two basic modes of communication:
a. point to point communication
b. broadcast communication

ii. In point to point communication mode, communication takes place over a link between a single transmitter and a receiver e.g. telephony.

iii. In the broadcast mode, there are large number of receivers corresponding to the single transmitter e.g., Radio and Television transmission.

Question 54.
Explain the following terms:
i. Signal
ii. Analog signal
iii. Digital signal
iv. Transmitter
v. Transducer
vi. Receiver
vii. Attenuation
viii. Amplification
ix. Range
x. Repeater
Answer:
i. Signal: The information converted into electrical form that is suitable for transmission is called a signal. In a radio station, music and speech are converted into electrical form by a microphone for transmission into space. This electrical form of sound is the signal. A signal can be analog or digital.

ii. Analog signal: A continuously varying signal (voltage or current) is called an analog signal. Since a wave is a fundamental analog signal, sound and picture signals in TV are analog in nature.

iii. Digital signal: A signal (voltage or current) that can have only two discrete values is called a digital signal. For example, a square wave is a digital signal. It has two values viz, +5 V and 0 V.

iv. Transmitter: A transmitter converts the signal produced by a source of information into a form suitable for transmission through a channel and subsequent reception.

v. Transducer: A device that converts one form of energy into another form of energy is called a transducer. For example, a microphone converts sound energy into electrical energy. Therefore, a microphone is a transducer. Similarly, a loudspeaker is a transducer which converts electrical energy into sound energy.

vi. Receiver: The receiver receives the message signal at the channel output, reconstructs it in recognizable form of the original message for delivering it to the user of information.

vii. Attenuation: The loss of strength of the signal while propagating through the channel is known as attenuation. It occurs because the channel distorts, reflects and refracts the signals as it passes through it.

viii. Amplification: Amplification is the process of raising the strength of a signal, using an electronic circuit called amplifier.

ix. Range: The maximum (largest) distance between a source and a destination up to which the signal can be received with sufficient strength is termed as range.

x. Repeater: It is a combination of a transmitter and a receiver. The receiver receives the signal from the transmitter, amplifies it and transmits it to the next repeater. Repeaters are used to increase the range of a communication system.

Question 55.
Explain the role of modulation.
Answer:

1. Low frequency signals cannot be transmitted over large distances. Because of this, a high frequency wave, called a carrier wave, is used.
2. Some characteristic (e.g. amplitude, frequency or phase) of this wave is changed in accordance with the amplitude of the signal. This process is known as modulation.
3. Modulation also helps avoid mixing up of signals from different transmitters as different carrier wave frequencies can be allotted to different transmitters.
4. Without the use of these waves, the audio signals, if transmitted directly by different transmitters, would have got mixed up.

Question 56.
Explain the different types of modulation.
Answer:

1. Modulation can be done by modifying the amplitude (amplitude modulation), frequency (frequency modulation), and phase (phase modulation) of the carrier wave in proportion to the intensity of the signal wave keeping the other two properties same.
2. The carrier wave is a high frequency wave while the signal is a low frequency wave.
3. Waveform (a) in the figure shows a carrier wave and waveform (b) shows the signal.
4. Amplitude modulation, frequency modulation and phase modulation of carrier waves are shown in waveforms (c), (d) and (e) respectively.
   

Question 57.
State advantages and disadvantages of amplitude modulation.
Answer:
Advantages:

1. It is simple to implement.
2. It has large range.
3. It is cheaper.

Disadvantages:

1. It is not very efficient as far as power usage is concerned.
2. It is prone to noise.
3. The reproduced signal may not exactly match the original signal.

In spite of this, these are used for commercial broadcasting in the long, medium and short wave bands.

Question 58.
State uses and limitations of frequency modulation.
Answer:

1. Frequency modulation (FM) is more complex as compared to amplitude modulation and, therefore is more difficult to implement.
2. However, its main advantage is that it reproduces the original signal closely and is less susceptible to noise.
3. This modulation is used for high quality broadcast transmission.

Question 59.
State benefits of phase modulation.
Answer:

1. Phase modulation (PM) is easier than frequency modulation.
2. It is used in determining the velocity of a moving target which cannot be done using frequency modulation.

Question 60.
Given below are some famous numbers associated with electromagnetic radiations in different contexts in physics. State the part of the electromagnetic spectrum to which each belongs.
i. 21 cm (wavelength emitted by atomic hydrogen in interstellar space).
ii. 1057 MHz (frequency of radiation arising from two close energy levels in hydrogen known as Lamb Shift).
iii. 5890 A – 5896 A [double lines of sodium]
Answer:
i. Radio waves (short wavelength or high frequency end)
ii. Radio waves (short wavelength or high frequency end)
iii. Visible region (yellow light)

Question 61.
Vidhya and Vijay were studying the effect of certain radiations on flower plants. Vidhya exposed her plants to UV rays and Vijay exposed his plants to infrared rays. After few days, Vidhya’s plants got damaged and Vijay’s plants had beautiful bloom. Why did this happen?
Answer:
Frequency of UV rays is greater than infrared rays, hence UV rays are much more energetic than infrared rays. Plants cannot tolerate the exposure of high energy rays. As a result, Vidhya’s plants got damaged and Vijay’s plants had a beautiful bloom.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which of the following type of radiations are radiated by an oscillating electric charge?
(A) Electric
(B) Magnetic
(C) Thermoelectric
(D) Electromagnetic
Answer:
(D) Electromagnetic

Question 2.
If \(\vec{E}\) and \(\vec{B}\) are the electric and magnetic field vectors of e.m. waves, then the direction of propagation of e.m. direction of wave is along the
(A) \(\vec{E}\)
(B) \(\vec{B}\)
(C) \(\vec{E}\) × \(\vec{B}\)
(D) \(\vec{E}\) • \(\vec{B}\)
Answer:
(C) \(\vec{E}\) × \(\vec{B}\)

Question 3.
The unit of expression µ₀o ε₀ is
(A) m / s
(B) m² / s²
(C) s² / m²
(D) s / m
Answer:
(C) s² / m²

Question 4.
According to Maxwell’s equation the velocity of light in any medium is expressed as
(A) \(\frac {1}{\sqrt{µ_0ε_0}}\)
(B) \(\frac {22}{\sqrt{µε}}\)
(C) \(\sqrt{\frac {µ}{ε}}\)
(D) \(\sqrt{\frac {µ_0}{ε}}\)
Answer:
(B) \(\frac {22}{\sqrt{µε}}\)

Question 5.
The electromagnetic waves do not transport.
(A) energy
(B) charge
(C) momentum
(D) pressure
Answer:
(B) charge

Question 6.
In an electromagnetic wave, the direction of the magnetic induction \(\vec{B}\) is
(A) parallel to the electric field \(\vec{E}\).
(B) perpendicular to the electric field \(\vec{E}\).
(C) antiparallel to the pointing vector \(\vec{S}\).
(D) random.
Answer:
(B) perpendicular to the electric field \(\vec{E}\).

Question 7.
Which of the following electromagnetic waves have the longest wavelength?
(A) heat waves
(B) light waves
(C) radio waves
(D) microwaves.
Answer:
(C) radio waves

Question 8.
Radio waves do not penetrate in the band of
(A) ionosphere
(B) mesosphere
(C) troposphere
(D) stratosphere
Answer:
(A) ionosphere

Question 9.
Which of the following electromagnetic wave has least wavelength?
(A) Gamma rays
(B) X- rays
(C) Radio waves
(D) microwaves
Answer:
(A) Gamma rays

Question 10.
If E is an electric field and \(\vec{B}\) is the magnetic induction, then the energy flow per unit area per unit time in an electromagnetic field is given by
(A) \(\frac {1}{µ_0}\) \(\vec{E}\) × \(\vec{B}\)
(B) \(\vec{E}\).\(\vec{B}\)
(C) E² + B²
(D) \(\frac {E}{B}\)
Answer:
(A) \(\frac {1}{µ_0}\) \(\vec{E}\) × \(\vec{B}\)

Question 11.
Out of the X-rays, microwaves, ultra-violet rays, the shortest frequency wave is ……………
(A) X-rays
(B) microwaves
(C) ultra-violet rays
(D) γ-rays
Answer:
(B) microwaves

Question 12.
The part of electromagnetic spectrum used in operating radar is ……………
(A) y-rays
(B) visible rays
(C) infra-red rays
(D) microwaves
Answer:
(D) microwaves

Question 13.
The correct sequence of descending order of wavelength values of the given radiation source is …………..
(A) radio waves, microwaves, infra-red, γ- rays
(B) γ-rays, infra-red, radio waves, microwaves
(C) Infra-red, radio waves, microwaves, γ- rays
(D) microwaves, γ-rays, infra-red, radio waves
Answer:
(A) radio waves, microwaves, infra-red, γ- rays

Question 14.
The nuclei of atoms of radioactive elements produce ……………
(A) X-rays
(B) γ-rays
(C) microwaves
(D) ultra-violet rays
Answer:
(B) γ-rays

Question 15.
The electronic transition in atom produces
(A) ultra violet light
(B) visible light
(C) infra-red rays
(D) microwaves
Answer:
(B) visible light

Question 16.
When radio waves from transmitting antenna reach the receiving antenna directly or after reflection in the ionosphere, the wave propagation is called ………………
(A) ground wave propagation
(B) space wave propagation
(C) sky wave propagation
(D) satellite propagation
Answer:
(C) sky wave propagation

Question 17.
Basic components of a transmitter are ……………..
(A) message signal generator and antenna
(B) modulator and antenna
(C) signal generator and modulator
(D) message signal generator, modulator and antenna
Answer:
(D) message signal generator, modulator and antenna

Question 18.
The process of changing some characteristics of a carrier wave in accordance with the incoming signal is called …………..
(A) amplification
(B) modulation
(C) rectification
(D) demodulation
Answer:
(B) modulation

Question 19.
The process of superimposing a low frequency signal on a high frequency wave is …………….
(A) detection
(B) mixing
(C) modulation
(D) attenuation
Answer:
(C) modulation

Question 20.
A device that converts one form of energy into another form is termed as ……………
(A) transducer
(B) transmitter
(C) amplifier
(D) receiver
Answer:
(A) transducer

Question 21.
A microphone which converts sound into electrical signal is an example of .
(A) a thermistor
(B) a rectifier
(C) a modulator
(D) an electrical transducer
Answer:
(D) an electrical transducer

Question 22.
The process of regaining of information from carries wave at the receiver is called
(A) modulation
(B) transmission
(C) propagation
(D) demodulation
Answer:
(D) demodulation

Question 23.
Range of communication can be increased by
(A) increasing the heights of transmitting and receiving antennas.
(B) decreasing the heights of transmitting and receiving antennas.
(C) increasing height of transmitting antenna and decreasing the height of receiving antenna.
(D) increasing height of receiving antenna only.
Answer:
(A) increasing the heights of transmitting and receiving antennas.

Question 24
Ionosphere mainly consists of
(A) positive ions and electrons
(B) water vapour and smoke
(C) ozone layer
(D) dust particles
Answer:
(A) positive ions and electrons

Question 25.
The reflected waves from the ionosphere are
(A) ground waves.
(B) sky waves.
(C) space waves.
(D) very high frequency waves.
Answer:
(B) sky waves.

Question 26.
Communication is the process of
(A) keeping in touch.
(B) exchanging information.
(C) broadcasting.
(D) entertainment.
Answer:
(B) exchanging information.

Question 27.
The message fed to the transmitter are generally
(A) radio signals
(B) audio signals
(C) both (A) and (B)
(D) optical signals
Answer:
(B) audio signals

Question 28.
Line of sight propagation is also called as ……………. propagation.
(A) sky wave
(B) ground wave
(C) sound wave
(D) space wave
Answer:
(D) space wave

Question 29.
The ozone layer in the atmosphere absorbs
(A) only the radio waves.
(B) only the visible light.
(C) only the y rays.
(D) X-rays and ultraviolet rays.
Answer:
(D) X-rays and ultraviolet rays.

Question 30.
Modem communication systems consist of
(A) electronic systems
(B) electrical system
(C) optical system
(D) all of these
Answer:
(D) all of these

Question 31.
What determines the absorption of radio waves by the atmosphere?
(A) Frequency .
(B) Polarisation
(C) Interference
(D) Distance of receiver
Answer:
(A) Frequency .

Question 32.
The portion of the atmosphere closest to the earth’s surface is ……………
(A) troposphere
(B) stratosphere
(C) mesosphere
(D) ionosphere
Answer:
(A) troposphere

Question 33.
An antenna behaves as resonant circuit only when its length is ………………
(A) λ/2
(B) λ/4
(C) λ
(D) n λ/2
Answer:
(D) n λ/2

Question 34.
Space wave travels through …………………
(A) ionosphere
(B) mesosphere
(C) troposphere
(D) stratosphere
Answer:
(C) troposphere

Question 35.
Transmission lines start radiating
(A) at low frequencies
(B) at high frequencies.
(C) at both high and low frequencies.
(D) none of the above.
Answer:
(B) at high frequencies.

Question 36.
If ‘h_t‘ and ‘h_r’ are height of transmitting and receiving antennae and ‘R’ is radius of the earth, the range of space wave is
(A) \(\sqrt {2R}\) (h_t + h_r)
(B) 2R \(\sqrt {(h_t + h_r)}\)
(C) \(\sqrt {2R(h_t + h_r)}\)
(D) \(\sqrt {2R}\) (√h_t + √h_r)
Answer:
(D) \(\sqrt {2R}\) (√h_t + √h_r)

Question 37.
In a communication system, noise is most likely to affect the signal ………..
(A) at the transmitter
(B) in the transmission medium
(C) in the information source
(D) at the destination
Answer:
(B) in the transmission medium

Question 38.
The power radiated by linear antenna of length 7’ is proportional to (A = wavelength)
(A) \(\frac {λ}{l}\)
(B) (\(\frac {λ}{l}\))²
(C) \(\frac {l}{λ}\)
(D) (\(\frac {l}{λ}\))²
Answer:
(D) (\(\frac {l}{λ}\))²

Question 39.
For efficient radiation and reception of signal with wavelength λ, the transmitting antennas would have length comparable to ……………….
(A) λ of frequency used
(B) λ/2 of frequency used
(C) λ/3 of frequency used
(D) λ/4 of frequency used
Answer:
(A) λ of frequency used

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Chemical Equilibrium Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 12 Chemical Equilibrium

Question 1.
Explain irreversible reaction.
Answer:
Irreversible reaction:
i. Reactions which occur only in one direction, namely, from reactant to products are called irreversible reactions.
ii. They proceed in only a single direction until one of the reactants is exhausted.
iii. The direction in which an irreversible reaction occurs is indicated by an arrow (→) pointing towards the products in the chemical equation.
e.g. a. \(\mathrm{C}_{(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{O}_{2(\mathrm{~g})} \stackrel{\text { Burn }}{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{CO}_{2(\mathrm{~g})}\)
b. \(2 \mathrm{KClO}_{3(\mathrm{~s})} \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} 2 \mathrm{KCl}_{(\mathrm{s})}+3 \mathrm{O}_{2(\mathrm{~g})}\)

Question 2.
What is a closed system?
Answer:
A system in which there is no exchange of matter with the surroundings is called a closed system.

Question 3.
What is an open system?
Answer:
A system in which exchange of both matter and heat occurs with the surroundings is called an open system.

Question 4.
Why was calcium oxide used in theatre lighting?
Answer:
Calcium oxide (CaO) on strong heating glows with a bright white light. Hence, CaO was used in theatre lighting, which gave rise to the phrase ‘in the limelight’.

Question 5.
Explain liquid-vapour equilibrium with an example.
Answer:
Liquid-vapour equilibrium:
i. Consider reversible physical process of evaporation of liquid water into water vapour in a closed vessel. Initially, there is practically no water vapour in the vessel.

ii. When the liquid evaporates in the closed container, the liquid molecules escape from the liquid surface into vapour phase building up vapour pressure. They also condense back into liquid state because the container is closed.

iii. In the beginning the rate of evaporation is high and the rate of condensation is low. But with time, as more and more vapour is formed, the rate of evaporation goes down and the rate of condensation increases. Eventually the two rates become equal. This gives rise to a constant vapour pressure. This state is known as an ‘equilibrium state’.
In this state, the rate of evaporation is equal to the rate of condensation.
It may be represented as: H₂O_(l) ⇌ H₂O_(Vapour)

iv. At equilibrium, the pressure exerted by the gaseous water molecules at a given temperature remains constant, known as the equilibrium vapour pressure of water (or saturated vapour pressure of water or aqueous tension). The saturated vapour pressure increases with increase of temperature.

[Note: The saturated vapour pressure of water at 100 °C is 1 atm (1.013 bar). Hence, water boils at 100 °C when pressure is 1 atm.]

Question 6.
What is meant by the term ‘normal boiling point’ of a liquid?
Answer:
For any pure liquid at 1 atm pressure, the temperature at which its saturated vapour pressure equals to atmospheric pressure is called the normal boiling point of that liquid.
e.g. The boiling point of ethyl alcohol is 78 °C i.e., the saturated vapour pressure of ethyl alcohol at 78 °C is 1 atm (1.013 bar).

Question 7.
Give an example of solid-liquid equilibrium.
Answer:
A mixture of ice and water in a perfectly insulated thermos flask at 273 K is an example of solid-liquid equilibrium.
H₂O_(s) ⇌ H₂O_(l)

Question 8.
Identify the type of equilibrium in the following physical processes:
i. Camphor_(s) ⇌ Camphor_(g)
ii. Ammonium chloride_(s) ⇌ Ammonium chloride_(g)
iii. Carbon dioxide gas ⇌ Dry ice
iv. Water ⇌ Ice
Answer:
i. Solid – vapour equilibrium
ii. Solid – vapour equilibrium Solid
iii. Solid – vapour equilibrium
iv. Solid – liquid equilibrium

Question 9.
Name two substances that undergoes sublimation.
Answer:
Camphor, ammonium chloride.

Question 10.
Write a short note on chemical equilibrium.
Answer:
Chemical equilibrium:

• If a reaction takes place in a closed system so that the products and reactants cannot escape, we often find that reaction does not give a 100% yield of products. Instead some reactants remain after the concentrations stop changing.
• When there is no further change in concentration of reactant and product, the chemical reaction has attained equilibrium, with the rates of forward and reverse reactions being equal.
• Chemical equilibrium at a given temperature is characterized by constancy of measurable properties such as pressure, concentration, density, etc.
• Chemical equilibrium can be approached from either side of the chemical reaction.

Question 11.
Explain the law of mass action and give its mathematical representation.
Answer:
Statement: The law of mass action states that the rate of a chemical reaction at each instant is proportional to the product of concentrations of all the reactants.
Explanation: A rate equation can be written for a reaction by applying the law of mass action as follows: Consider a reaction, A + B → C
Here A and B are the reactants and C is the product. The concentrations of chemical species are expressed in mol L^-1 and denoted by putting the formula in square brackets. On applying the law of mass action to this
reaction, a proportionality expression can be written as: Rate ∝ [A] [B]
This proportionality expression is transformed into an equation by introducing a proportionality constant, k, as follows:
Rate = k [A] [B]
This equation is called the rate equation and the proportionality constant, k, is called the rate constant of the reaction.

Question 12.
Write the rate equation for the following reactions:
i. C + O₂ → CO₂
ii. 2KClO₃ → 2KCl + 3O₂
Answer:
The rate equation is written by applying the law of mass action.
i. The reactants are C and O₂
Rate ∝ [C] [O₂]
∴ Rate = k [C] [O₂]
ii. The reactant is KClO₃ and its 2 molecules appear in the balanced equation.
∴ Rate ∝ [KClO₃]²
∴ Rate = k [KClO₃]²

Question 13.
Derive the expression of equilibrium constant, K_C for the reaction:
A + B ⇌ C + D
Answer:
Consider a hypothetical reversible reaction A + B ⇌ C + D.
Two reactions, namely, forward and reverse reactions occur simultaneously in a reversible chemical reaction. The rate equations for the forward and reverse reactions are:
Rate_forward ∝ [A][B]
∴ Rate_forward = k_f [A] [B] …… (1)
∴ Rate_reverse ∝ [C] [D]
∴ Rate_reverse = k_r [C] [D] …. (2)
At equilibrium, the rates of forward and reverse reactions are equal. Thus,
Rate_forward = Rate_reverse
∴ k_f [A] [B] = k_r [C] [D]
∴ \(\frac{\mathrm{k}_{\mathrm{f}}}{\mathrm{k}_{\mathrm{r}}}=\mathrm{K}_{\mathrm{C}}=\frac{[\mathrm{C}][\mathrm{D}]}{[\mathrm{A}][\mathrm{B}]}\) …….. (3)
K_C is called the equilibrium constant.

Question 14.
Show that the equilibrium constant of the reverse chemical reaction (K_C) is the reciprocal of the equilibrium constant (K_C).
Answer:
Consider a reversible chemical reaction:
aA + bB ⇌ cC + dD
The equilibrium constant, K_C = \(\frac{[C]^{c}[D]^{d}}{[A]^{a}[B]^{b}}\)
Consider the reverse reaction:
cC + dD ⇌ aA + bB.
The equilibrium constant, K_C is:
K_C = \(\frac{[\mathrm{A}]^{a}[\mathrm{~B}]^{\mathrm{b}}}{[\mathrm{C}]^{\mathrm{c}}[\mathrm{D}]^{\mathrm{d}}}=\frac{1}{\mathrm{~K}_{\mathrm{C}}}\)
Thus, equilibrium constant of the reverse chemical reaction (K_C) is the reciprocal of the equilibrium constant K_C.

Question 15.
Write equilibrium constant expressions for both forward and reverse reaction for the synthesis of ammonia by the Haber process.
Answer:
Synthesis of ammonia by Haber process:
N_2(g) + 3H_2(g) ⇌ 2NH_3(g)

Question 16.
How are the equilibrium constants of the following pair of equilibrium reactions related?

Answer:

ii. K_C = \(\frac{\left[\mathrm{CO}_{2}\right]\left[\mathrm{N}_{2}\right]}{[\mathrm{CO}]\left[\mathrm{N}_{2} \mathrm{O}\right]}\)

Question 17.
Write KP expression for the reaction:
aA_(g) + bB_(g) ⇌ cC_(g) + dD_(g)
Answer:
For the given reaction,
K_P = \(\frac{\left(P_{c}\right)^{c}\left(P_{D}\right)^{d}}{\left(P_{A}\right)^{a}\left(P_{B}\right)^{b}}\)

Question 18.
N_2(g) + 3H_2(g) ⇌ 2NH_3(g)
Write expressions for K_P and substitute expressions for P_N2, P_H2 and P_NH3 using ideal gas equation.
Answer:
For the given reaction, K_P = \(\frac{\left(P_{N H_{3}}\right)^{2}}{\left(P_{N_{2}}\right)\left(P_{H_{2}}\right)^{3}}\)

[Note: The above question is modified to apply appropriate textual context, i. e., to indicate that students need to use ideal gas equation to derive expressions for P_N2, P_H2 and P_NH3]

Question 19.
For a chemical equilibrium reaction
H_2(g) + I_2(g) ⇌ 2HI_(g),
write an expression for K_P (and relate it to K_C).
Answer:

Question 20.
Write the relationship between K_C and K_P for the following equilibria:

Answer:

Question 21.
Write the expressions for K_C and K_P and the relationship between them for the equilibrium reaction,
2A_(g) + B_(g) ⇌ 3C_(g) + 2D_(g)
Answer:

Question 22.
Explain in short homogeneous equilibrium and heterogeneous equilibrium.
Answer:
i. In a homogeneous equilibrium, the reactants and products are in the same phase.
e.g. Dissociation of HI:
2HI_(g) ⇌ H_2(g) + I_2(g)
ii. In a heterogeneous equilibrium, the reactants and products exist in different phases, e.g. Formation of NH₄Cl:
NH_3(g) + HCl_(g) ⇌ NH₄Cl_(s)

Question 23.
The unit of K_C is different for different reactions. Explain this statement with suitable examples.
Answer:
Unit of equilibrium constant:
i. The unit of equilibrium constant depends upon the expression of K_C which is different for different equilibria. Therefore, the unit of K_C is also different for different reactions.
ii. Consider the following equilibrium reaction:

iii. Consider the following equilibrium reaction:

Question 24.
Write the equilibrium constant expression for the decomposition of baking soda. Deduce the unit of K_C from the above expression.
Answer:

[Note: Considering gaseous reactants and products, in this reaction, Δn = 2 – 0 = 2
∴ Units of K_C = (mol dm^-3)^Δn
= (mol dm^-3)²
= mol² dm^-6
Thus, the units of the above reaction is mol² dm^-6.]

Question 25.
What are the characteristics of equilibrium constant?
Answer:
Characteristics of equilibrium constant:

• The value of equilibrium constant is independent of initial concentrations of either the reactants or products.
• Equilibrium constant is temperature dependent. Hence, K_C and K_P change with change in temperature.
• Equilibrium constant has a characteristic value for a particular reversible reaction represented by a balanced equation at a given temperature.
• Higher value of K_C or K_P means more concentration of products is formed and the equilibrium point is more towards right hand side and vice versa.

Question 26.
Explain how equilibrium constant helps in predicting the direction of the reaction.
Answer:
Prediction of the direction of the reaction:
i. For the reaction, aA + bB ⇌ cC + dD,
The equilibrium constant (K_C) is given as:
K_C = \(\frac{[C]^{c}[D]^{d}}{[A]^{a}[B]^{b}}\)
where, all the concentrations are equilibrium concentrations.
ii. When the reaction is not necessarily at equilibrium, the concentration ratio is called Q_C i.e.,
Q_C = \(\frac{[C]^{c}[D]^{d}}{[A]^{a}[B]^{b}}\)
iii. By comparing Q_C with K_C for a reaction under given conditions, we can decide whether the forward or the reverse reaction should occur to establish the equilibrium.
a. Q_C < K_C: The reaction will proceed from left to right, in forward direction, generating more product to attain the equilibrium.
b. Q_C > K_C: The reaction will proceed from right to left, removing product to attain the equilibrium.
c. Q_C = K_C: The reaction is at equilibrium and no net reaction occurs.

[Note: The prediction of the direction of the reaction on the basis of Q_C and K_C values makes no comment on the time required for attaining the equilibrium.]

Question 27.
Explain how K_C can be used to know the extent of the reaction?
Answer:
Extent of the reaction: The equilibrium constant expression indicates that the magnitude of K_C is:
i. directly proportional to the concentrations of the products.
ii. inversely proportional to the concentrations of the reactants.
a. Value of K_C is very high (K_C > 10³):
At equilibrium, there is a high proportion of products compared to reactants.
Forward reaction is favoured.
Reaction is in favour of products and nearly goes to completion.

b. Value of K_C is very low (K_C < 10^-3):
At equilibrium, only a small fraction of the reactants is converted into products.
Reverse reaction is favoured.
Reaction hardly proceeds towards the products.

c. Value of K_C is in the range of 10^-3 to 10³:
Appreciable concentrations of both reactants and products are present at equilibrium.

Question 28.
For the following reactions, write K_C expressions and predict direction of the reactions based on the magnitude of their equilibrium constants.
i. 2H_2(g) + O_2(g) ⇌ 2H2O_(g), K_C = 2.4 × 10⁴⁷ at 500 K
ii. 2H₂O_(g) ⇌ 2H_2(g) + O_2(g), K_C = 4.2 × 10^-48 at 500 K
Answer:
i. a. K_C expression:
K_C = \(\frac{\left[\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}_{(\mathrm{g})}\right]^{2}}{\left[\left[\mathrm{H}_{2(\mathrm{~g})}\right]\right]^{2}\left[\mathrm{O}_{2(\mathrm{~g})}\right]}\)
b. For the reaction, K_C = 2.4 × 10⁴⁷ at 500 K
If the value of K_C >>> 10³, forward reaction is favoured.
Hence, the given reaction will proceed in the forward direction and will nearly go to completion.

ii. a. K_C expression:
K_C = \(\frac{\left[\mathrm{H}_{2(\mathrm{~g})}\right]^{2}\left[\mathrm{O}_{2(\mathrm{~g})}\right]}{\left[\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}_{(\mathrm{g})}\right]^{2}}\)
b. For the reaction, K_C = 4.2 × 10^-48 at 500 K
If the value of K_C <<< 10^-3, reverse reaction is favoured.
Hence, the given reaction will proceed in the backward direction and will nearly go to completion.

Question 29.
Describe how equilibrium constant can be used to calculate the composition of an equilibrium mixture.
Answer:
An equilibrium constant can be used to calculate the composition of an equilibrium mixture.
Consider an equilibrium reaction, A_(aq) + B_(aq) ⇌ C_(aq) + D_(aq)
The equilibrium constant is 4.0 at a certain temperature.
Let the initial amount of A and B be 2.0 mol in ‘V’ litres. Let x mol be the equilibrium amount of C.
Hence, we can construct a table as shown below:

The expression for equilibrium constant can be written as:

Substituting the value of equilibrium concentration, we get

Therefore, equilibrium concentrations are 0.67 mol of A, 0.67 mol of B, 1.33 mol of C and 1.33 mol of D in V litres.

Question 30.
Explain the link between chemical equilibrium and chemical kinetics:
Answer:
Equilibrium constant (K_C) is related to rate or velocity constants of forward reaction (k_f) and reverse reaction (k_r) as:
K_C = \(\frac{\mathrm{k}_{\mathrm{f}}}{\mathrm{k}_{\mathrm{r}}}\)
This equation can be used to determine the composition of the reaction mixture

[Note: The equilibrium refers to the relative amounts of reactants and products and thus a shift in equilibrium in a particular direction will imply the reaction in that direction will be favoured.]

Question 31.
Equal concentrations of hydrogen and iodine are mixed together in a closed container at 700 K and allowed to come to equilibrium. If the concentration of HI at equilibrium is 0.85 mol dm^-3, what are the equilibrium concentrations of H₂ and I₂ if K_C = 54 at this temperature?
Solution:
Given: [HI_(g)] = 0.85 mol dm^-3
K_C = 54 at 700 K
Equilibrium concentrations of H₂ and I₂
Formula: K_C = \(\frac{[\mathrm{C}]^{\mathrm{c}}[\mathrm{D}]^{\mathrm{d}}}{[\mathrm{A}]^{\mathrm{a}}[\mathrm{B}]^{\mathrm{b}}}\)
Balanced chemical reaction: 2HI_(g)

Equilibrium concentration of I_2(g) = Equilibrium concentration of H_2(g)

Ans: Equilibrium concentrations of H₂ and I₂ are equal to 0.12 mol dm^-3.

Question 32.
Calculate Kc at 500 K for the reaction,
2HI_(g) ⇌ H_2(g) + I_2(g) if the equilibrium concentrations are [HI] = 0.5 M, [H₂] = 0.08 M and [I₂] = 0.062 M.
Solution:
Given: T = 500 K,
At equilibrium, [HI] = 0.5 M, [H₂] = 0.08 M, [I₂] = 0.062 M.
To find: Equilibrium constant K_C
Formula: K_C = \(\frac{[C]^{c}[D]^{d}}{[A]^{a}[B]^{b}}\)
Calculation: The above equilibrium reaction is given as 2HI_(g) ⇌ H_2(g) + I_2(g)
The expression of K_C is

Ans: K_C at 500 K for the given reaction is 0.0198.

Question 33.
Calculate K_C and K_P for the reaction at 295 K, N₂O₄ ⇌ 2NO_2(g) if the equilibrium concentrations are [N₂O₄] = 0.75 M and [NO₂] = 0.062 M, R = 0.08206 L atm K^-1 mol^-1.
Solution:
Given: R = 0.08206 L atm K^-1 mol^-1, T = 295 K
At equilibrium , [N₂O₄] = 0.75 M, [NO₂] = 0.062 M
To find: Equilibrium constants, K_P and K_C
Formulae: i. K_C = \(\frac{[\mathrm{C}]^{\mathrm{c}}[\mathrm{D}]^{\mathrm{d}}}{[\mathrm{A}]^{\mathrm{a}}[\mathrm{B}]^{\mathrm{b}}}\)
ii. K_P = K_C (RT)^Δn
Calculation : The equilibrium reaction is given as N₂O_4(g) ⇌ 2NO_2(g)
The expression of K_C is

K_P is related to K_C by expression: K_P = K_C (RT)^Δn
where, Δn = numbers of moles of gaseous products – number of moles of gaseous reactants
= 2 – 1 = 1
∴ K_P = K_C(RT)¹
∴ K_P = 5.13 × 10^-3 × 0.08206 × 295
∴ K_P= 123.9 × 10^-3 = 0.124
Ans: K_C and K_P for the reaction at 295 K are 5.13 × 10^-3 and 0.124 respectively.

Question 34.
The equilibrium constant K_C for the reaction of hydrogen with iodine is 54.0 at 700 K.

K_C = 54.0 at 700 K
If k_f is the rate constant for the formation of HI and k_r is the rate constant for the decomposition of HI, deduce whether k_r is larger or smaller than k_r.
ii. If the value of k_r at 700 K is 1.16 × 10^-3, what is the value of k_f ?
Solution:
Given: i. K_C = 54.0 at 700 K
ii. k_r = 1.16 × 10^-3 at 700 K
To find: i. Whether k_f is larger or smaller than k_r.
ii. Value of k_f.

Question 35.
Given the equilibrium reaction, H₂O_(g) + CH_4(g) ⇌ CO_(g) + 3H_2(g)
Using Le Chatelier’s principle, predict how concentration of CO will change when the equilibrium is disturbed by
i. adding CH₄
ii. adding H₂
iii. removing H₂O
iv. removing H₂
Answer:
i. Adding CH₄: Adding CH₄ will favour the forward reaction and the yield of CO and H₂ will increase.
ii. Adding H₂: Adding H₂ will favour the reverse reaction and the yield of CO and H₂ will decrease.
iii. Removing H₂O: Removing H₂O will favour the reverse reaction and the yield of CO and H₂ will decrease.
iv. Removing H₂: Removing H₂ will favour the forward reaction and the yield of CO and H₂ will increase.

Question 36.
By using Le Chatelier’s principle, explain the effect of change in pressure (due to volume change) on the composition of equilibrium mixture.
Answer:
Change in pressure:
i. The change in pressure has no effect on the concentrations of solids and liquids. However, it appreciably affects the concentrations of gases.
From the ideal gas equation, PV = nRT or P = \(\frac{\mathrm{n}}{\mathrm{V}}\)RT
∴ P ∝ \(\frac{\mathrm{n}}{\mathrm{V}}\)
where, the ratio n/V is an expression for the concentration of the gas in mol dm^-3.
ii. According to Le Chatelier’s principle at constant temperature, when pressure is increased, the equilibrium will shift in a direction in which the number of molecules decreases and when the pressure is decreased the equilibrium will shift in a direction in which the number of molecules increases.

[Note: For a reaction in which decrease in volume takes place, the reaction will be favoured by increasing pressure and for a reaction in which increase in volume takes place, the reaction will be favoured with lowering pressure, temperature being constant.]

Question 37.
An equilibrium mixture of dinitrogen tetroxide (colourless gas) and nitrogen dioxide (brown gas) is set up in a sealed flask at a particular temperature. Observe the effect of change of pressure on the gaseous equilibrium and complete the following table:

Answer:

Question 38.
By using Le Chatelier’s principle, explain the effect of change in pressure for the following equilibrium:
H_2(g) + I_2(g) ⇌ 2HI_(g)
Answer:
As there is the same number of molecules of gas on both sides, change of pressure has no effect on the equilibrium.

Question 39.
Explain the effect of change in pressure due to volume change of the following equilibria:
i. 2NO_(g) + Cl_2(g) ⇌ 2NOCl_(g)
ii. 2NO_(g) ⇌ N_2(g) + O_2(g)
Answer:
i. 2NO_(g) + Cl_2(g) ⇌ 2NOCl_(g)
In the forward reaction, the number of molecules decreases (3 to 2) and in the reverse reaction the number of molecules increases (2 to 3).
a. Effect of increase in pressure: According to Le Chatelier’s principle, when pressure is increased the forward reaction is favoured as the number of molecules decreases. Thus, when the pressure of the equilibrium system is increased at constant temperature by reducing the volume, the yield of NOCl increases.
b. Effect of decrease in pressure: When the pressure is decreased the equilibrium will shift from right to left. Therefore, the yield of NOCl will decrease.

ii. 2NO_(g) ⇌ N_2(g) + O_2(g)
As both reactants and products have equal numbers of moles (or molecules), there is no effect of change in pressure (due to volume change) on the composition of the equilibrium mixture.

Question 40.
Explain the effect of change in temperature on the value of K_C.
Answer:

• The value of equilibrium constant is unaffected if temperature remains constant.
• However, a change in temperature alters the value of equilibrium constant.
• In a reversible reaction, one of the reactions is exothermic (heat is released) and the other is endothermic (heat is absorbed).
• The value of equilibrium constant for an exothermic reaction decreases with increase in the temperature and that of endothermic reaction increases with the increase in temperature.

Question 41.
Explain the effect of change in temperature on the following equilibria:
CO_(g) + 2H_2(g) ⇌ CH₃OH_(g) ; ΔH = – 90 kJ
Answer:
i. The forward reaction is exothermic and reverse reaction is endothermic. According to Le Chatelier’s principle, when the temperature of the equilibrium mixture increases, the equilibrium shifts from right to left in endothermic direction. Therefore, the yield of CH₃OH decreases at high temperature.

ii. When the temperature decreases, the forward exothermic reaction is favoured. Therefore, the yield of CH₃OH increases at low temperature.
Thus, the decomposition of CH₃OH into CO and H₂ is favoured with increase in temperature, whereas formation of CH₃OH is favoured with decrease in temperature.

Question 42.
By using Le Chatelier’s principle, explain the effect of addition of a catalyst on the composition of equilibrium mixture.
Answer:

• When a catalyst is added to the equilibrium mixture, the rates of forward and reverse reactions increases to the same extent. Hence, the position of equilibrium remains unaffected.
• A catalyst does not change the composition of equilibrium mixture. The equilibrium concentrations of reactants and products remain same and catalyst does not shift the equilibrium in favour of either reactants or products.
• The value of equilibrium constant is also not affected by the presence of a catalyst.

[Note: A catalyst does not appear in the balanced chemical equation and in the equilibrium constant expression.]

Question 43.
Consider an esterification reaction:

What will happen if H+ ions are added to the reaction mixture?
Answer:
H⁺ ions act as catalyst in the esterification reaction. Hence, the addition of H⁺ ions reduces the time for the completion of reaction.

Question 44.
Complete the following table that shows the shifts in the equilibrium position for the reaction:
N₂O_4(g) + Heat ⇌ 2NO_2(g)

Answer:

Question 45.
Summarize effects of following four factors on the position of equilibrium and value of K_C:
i. Concentration
ii. Pressure
iii. Temperature
iv. Catalyst
Answer:

Effect of	Position of equilibrium	Value of KC
Concentration	Changes	No change
Pressure	Changes if reaction involves change in number of gas molecules	No change
Temperature	Change	Change
Catalyst	No change	No change

Question 46.
State TRUE or FALSE. Correct the false statement.
i. The value of equilibrium constant depends on temperature.
ii. If Q_C < K_CC, the reaction will proceed from right to left consuming more product to attain equilibrium.
iii. Any change in the pressure of a gaseous reaction mixture at equilibrium, changes the value of K_C.
iv. In a reversible reaction, the reverse reaction has an energy change that is equal and opposite to that of the forward reaction.
Answer:
i. True
ii. False
If Q_C > K_C the reaction will proceed from right to left consuming more product to attain equilibrium.
iii. False
Any change in the pressure of a gaseous reaction mixture at equilibrium, does not change the value of K_C.
iv. True

Question 47.
Draw the flowchart showing the manufacture of NH₃ by Haber process.
Answer:

Question 48.
Explain in short: The Haber process.
Answer:
Haber process:

• The Haber process is the process of synthesis of ammonia gas by reacting together hydrogen gas and nitrogen gas in a particular stoichiometric ratio by volumes and at selected optimum temperature and pressure.
• The chemical reaction is: \(\mathrm{N}_{2(\mathrm{~g})}+3 \mathrm{H}_{2(\mathrm{~g})} \stackrel{\text { Catalyst }}{\rightleftharpoons} 2 \mathrm{NH}_{3(\mathrm{~g})}+\text { Heat }\)
  The reaction proceeds with a decrease in number of moles (Δn = -2) and the forward reaction is exothermic.
• Iron (containing a small quantity of molybdenum) is used as catalyst.
• The optimum temperature is about 773 K and the optimum pressure is about 250 atm.

Question 49.
Consider the reaction P_(g) + Q_(g) ⇌ PQ_(g). Diagram ‘X’ represents the reaction at equilibrium.

i. If each molecule (sphere) represents a partial pressure of 1 atm, calculate the value of K_P.
ii. Predict the change in equilibrium, when the volume is increased by 50 percentage.
Answer:
i. For the given equilibrium mixture:

Chemical species	P	Q	PQ
Partial pressure	4	6	7

K_P = \(\frac{\mathrm{p}_{\mathrm{PQ}}}{\mathrm{p}_{\mathrm{p}} \times \mathrm{p}_{\mathrm{Q}}}=\frac{7}{4 \times 6}\) = 0.29
ii. Increasing the volume will shift the equilibrium position to the side with higher number of gaseous moles. In the given reaction, the equilibrium will shift to the left (toward reactant) resulting in an increase in the concentration of P and Q accompanied by a corresponding decrease in concentration of PQ.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following is expression of K_C for
2NH_3(g) ⇌ N_2(g) + 3H_2(g)?

Answer:
(A) \(\frac{\left[\mathrm{N}_{2}\right]\left[\mathrm{H}_{2}\right]^{3}}{\left[\mathrm{NH}_{3}\right]^{2}}\)

2. For the system 3A + 2B ⇌ C, the expression for equilibrium constant is …………..

Answer:
(D) \(\frac{[\mathrm{C}]}{[\mathrm{A}]^{3}[\mathrm{~B}]^{2}}\)

3. For the reaction C_(s) + CO_2(g) ⇌ 2CO_(g) the partial pressure of CO₂ and CO are 4 and 8 atm, respectively, then K_P for the reaction is ……………
(A) 16 atm
(B) 2 atm
(C) 5 atm
(D) 4 atm
Answer:
(A) 16 atm

4. The equilibrium constant value for the reaction:
2H_2(g) + O_2(g) ⇌ 2H₂O_(g) is 2.4 × 10⁴⁷ at 500 K. What is the value of equilibrium constant for the reaction:
2H₂O_(g) ⇌ 2H_2(g) + O_2(g) ?
(A) 0.41 × 10^-46
(B) 0.41 × 10⁴⁷
(C) 0.41 × 10^-48
(D) 0.41 × 10^-47
Answer:
(D) 0.41 × 10^-47

5. For the reaction CO_(g) + Cl_2(g) ⇌ COCl_2(g), K_P/K_C is equal to ……………
(A) \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{RT}}\)
(B) RT
(C) \(\sqrt{\mathrm{RT}}\)
(D) 1.0
Answer:
(A) \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{RT}}\)

6. For which of the following reaction, K_P = K_C?
(A) PCl_5(g) ⇌ PCl_3(g) + Cl_2(g)
(B) N_2(g) + 3H_2(g) ⇌ 2NH_3(g)
(C) H_2(g) + I_2(g) ⇌ 2HI_(g)
(D) 2NO_2(g) ⇌ N₂O_4(g)
Answer:
(C) H_2(g) + I_2(g) ⇌ 2HI_(g)

7. For the equilibrium reaction
2NO_2(g) ⇌ N₂O_4(g) + 60.0 kJ, the increase in temperature ……………..
(A) favours the formation of N₂O₄
(B) favours the decomposition of N₂O₄
(C) does not affect the equilibrium
(D) stops the reaction
Answer:
(B) favours the decomposition of N₂O₄

8. The following reaction occurs in the blast furnace where iron ore is reduced to iron metal:
3Fe₂O_3(s) + 3CO_(g) ⇌ 2Fe_(l) + 3CO_2(g)
Using the Le Chatelier’s principle, predict which one of the following will NOT disturb the equilibrium?
(A) Removal of CO
(B) Removal of CO₂
(C) Addition of CO₂
(D) Addition of Fe₂O₃
Answer:
(D) Addition of Fe₂O₃

9. The reaction A + B ⇌ C + D + heat, has reached equilibrium. The reaction may be made to proceed forward by
(A) adding more C
(B) adding more D
(C) decreasing the temperature
(D) increasing the temperature
Answer:
(C) decreasing the temperature

10. Identify the CORRECT statement.
(A) Catalyst lowers activation energy for the forward and reverse reactions by exactly the same amount.
(B) The value of equilibrium constant decreases in presence of a catalyst.
(C) Catalyst affect the position of the equilibrium.
(D) Catalyst changes the equilibrium composition of a reaction mixture.
Answer:
(A) Catalyst lowers activation energy for the forward and reverse reactions by exactly the same amount.

11. The equilibrium constant for the reaction:
N_2(g) + O_2(g) ⇌ 2NO_(g) is 4 × 10^-4 at 2000 K. In presence of a catalyst, the equilibrium is attained ten times faster. Therefore, the equilibrium constant in presence of catalyst of 2000 K is …………..
(A) 40 × 10^-4
(B) 4 × 10^-2
(C) 4 × 10^-3
(D) 4 × 10^-4
Answer:
(D) 4 × 10^-4

12. The rate of formation of NH₃ can be increased by using catalyst …………….
(A) Fe + Co
(B) Mo + Fr
(C) Fe + Mo
(D) Fe + Mg
Answer:
(C) Fe + Mo

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Magnetism Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Magnetism

Question 1.
What are some commonly known facts about magnetism?
Answer:
Some commonly known facts about magnetism:

1. Every magnet regardless of its size and shape has two poles called north pole and south pole.
2. Isolated magnetic monopoles do not exist. If a magnet is broken into two or more pieces then each piece behaves like an independent magnet with some what weaker magnetic field.
3. Like magnetic poles repel each other, whereas unlike poles attract each other.
4. When a bar magnet/ magnetic needle is suspended freely or is pivoted, it aligns itself in geographically north-south direction.

Question 2.
What are some properties of magnetic lines of force?
Answer:

1. Magnetic lines of force originate from the north pole and end at the south pole.
2. The magnetic lines of force of a magnet or a solenoid form closed loops. This is in contrast to the case of an electric dipole, where the electric lines of force originate from the positive charge and end on the negative charge.
3. The direction of the net magnetic field \(\vec{B}\) at a point is given by the tangent to the magnetic line of force at that point.
4. The number of lines of force crossing per unit area decides the magnitude of magnetic field \(\vec{B}\).
5. The magnetic lines of force do not intersect. This is because had they intersected, the direction of magnetic field would not be unique at that point.

Question 3.
What is magnetic flux? What is unit of magnetic flux in SI system?
Answer:

1. The number of lines of force per unit area is called magnetic flux (ø).
2. SI unit of magnetic flux (ø) is weber (Wb).

Question 4.
How do we determine strength of magnetic field at a given point due to a magnet? Write down units of magnetic field in SI and CGS system and their interconversion.
Answer:
i. Density of lines of force i.e., the number of lines of force per unit area around a particular point determines the strength of the magnetic field at that point.

ii. The magnitude of magnetic field strength B at a point in a magnetic field is given by,
Magnetic Field = \(\frac {magnetic flux}{area}\)
i.e., B = \(\frac {ø}{A}\)

iii. SI unit of magnetic field (B) is expressed as weber/m² or Tesla.

iv. 1 Tesla = 10⁴ Gauss

Question 5.
What is the unit of magnetic intensity?
Answer:
SI unit: weber/m² or Tesla.

Question 6.
Explain the pole strength and magnetic dipole moment of a bar magnet.
Answer:
i. The bar magnet said to have pole strength +q_m and -q_m near the north and south poles respectively.

ii. As bar magnet has two poles with equal and opposite pole strength, it is called as a magnetic dipole.

iii. The two poles are separated by a distance equal to 2l.

iv. The product of pole strength and the magnetic length is called as magnetic dipole moment.
∴ \(\vec{m}\) = q_m (2\(\vec{l}\))
where, 2\(\vec{l}\) is a vector from south pole to north pole.

Question 7.
State the SI units of pole strength and magnetic dipole moment.
Answer:

1. SI unit of pole strength (q_m) is Am.
2. SI unit of magnetic dipole moment (m) is Am².

Question 8.
Draw neat labelled diagram for a bar magnet.
Answer:

Question 9.
Define and explain the following terms in case of a bar magnet:
i. Axis
ii. Equator
iii. Magnetic length
Answer:
i. Axis: It is the line passing through both the poles of a bar magnet. There is only one axis for a given bar magnet.

ii. Equator:

• A line passing through the centre of a magnet and perpendicular to its axis is called magnetic equator.
• The plane containing all equators is called the equatorial plane.
• The locus of points, on the equatorial plane, which are equidistant from the centre of the magnet is called the equatorial circle.
• The popularly known ‘equator’ of the planet is actually an ‘equatorial circle’. Such a circle with any diameter is an equator.

iii. Magnetic length (2l)
It is the distance between the two poles of a magnet.
Magnetic length (2l) = \(\frac {5}{6}\) × Geometric length.

Question 10.
State the expression for magnetic induction at a point due to a very short bar magnet along its axis.
Answer:
For very short bar magnet, the magnetic induction at point on the axis is given as,
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}_{\mathrm{axis}}=\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \frac{2 \overrightarrow{\mathrm{m}}}{\mathrm{r}^{3}}\)

Question 11.
State the expression for the magnetic induction at any point along the equator of a very short bar magnet.
Answer:
For very short bar magnet, the magnetic induction at point on the equator is given as,
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}_{\text {equator }}=-\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \frac{\overrightarrow{\mathrm{m}}}{\mathrm{r}^{3}}\)

Question 12.
Show that the magnitude of magnetic induction at a point on the axis of a short bar magnet is twice the magnitude of magnetic induction at a point on the equator at the same distance.
Answer:
i. Magnitude of magnetic induction at a point along the axis of a short magnet is given by,
\(\mathrm{B}_{\mathrm{axis}}=\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \frac{2 \mathrm{~m}}{\mathrm{r}^{3}}\) ………….. (1)

ii. Magnitude of magnetic induction at a point on equatorial line is given by
\(\mathrm{B}_{\text {equator }}=\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \frac{\mathrm{m}}{\mathrm{r}^{3}}\) …………… (2)

iii. Dividing equation (1) by (2), we get,
\(\frac{\mathrm{B}_{\mathrm{axis}}}{\mathrm{B}_{\mathrm{eq}}}=\frac{\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \frac{2 \mathrm{~m}}{\mathrm{r}^{3}}}{\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \frac{\mathrm{m}}{\mathrm{r}^{3}}}\)
∴ \(\frac{B_{\text {axis }}}{B_{e q}}\) = 2
∴ B_axis = 2B_eq

Question 13.
Derive an expression for the magnetic field due to a bar magnet at an arbitrary point.
Answer:
i. Consider a bar magnet of magnetic moment \(\vec{m}\) with centre at O as shown in figure and let P be any point in its magnetic field.

ii. Magnetic moment \(\vec{m}\) is resolved into components along \(\vec{r}\) and perpendicular to \(\vec{r}\).

iii. For the component m cos θ along \(\vec{r}\), the point P is an axial point.

iv. For the component m sinθ perpendicular to \(\vec{r}\), the point P is an equatorial point at the same distance \(\vec{r}\).

v. For a point on the axis, B_a = \(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \frac{2 m}{\mathrm{r}^{3}}\)
Here
B_a = \(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \frac{2 m \cos \theta}{r^{3}}\) ………….. (1)
directed along m cosθ.

vi. For point on equator,
B_a = \(\frac{\mu_{o}}{4 \pi} \frac{m \sin \theta}{r^{3}}\) …………. (2)
directed opposite to m sin θ

vii. Thus, the magnitude of the resultant magnetic field B, at point P is given by

viii. Let a be the angle made by the direction of \(\vec{B}\) with \(\vec{r}\). Then, by using equation (1) and equation (2),
tan α = \(\frac {B_{eq}}{B_a}\) = \(\frac {1}{2}\) (tan θ)
The angle between directions of \(\vec{B}\) and \(\vec{m}\) is then (θ + a).

Question 14.
A bar magnet of magnetic moment 5.0 Am² has the poles 20 cm apart. Calculate the pole strength.
Solution:
Given: m = 5.0 Am², 2l = 20 cm = 0.20 m
To find: Pole strength (q_m)
Formula: q_m = \(\frac {m}{2l}\)
Calculation:
From formula.
q_m = \(\frac {5.0}{0.20}\) = 25 Am

Question 15.
A bar magnet has magnetic moment 3.6 Am² and pole strength 10.8 Am. Determine its magnetic length and geometric length.
Answer:
Given: m = 3.6 Am², q_m = 10.8 Am
To find:
i. Magnetic length
ii. Geometric length
Formulae:
i. Magnetic length = \(\frac {m}{q_m}\)
ii. Geometric length = \(\frac {6}{5}\) × magnetic length.
Calculation: From formula (i),
Magnetic length = \(\frac {3.6}{10.8}\) = 0.33 m
From formula (ii),
Geometric length = \(\frac {6}{5}\) × 0.33
= 0.396 m ≈ 0.4 m

Question 16.
A short magnetic dipole has magnetic moment 0.5 A m². Calculate its magnetic field at a distance of 20 cm from the centre of magnetic dipole on (i) the axis (ii) the equatorial line (Given µ₀ = 4π × 10^-7 SI units)
Answer:
Given: m = 0.5 Am², r = 20 cm = 20 × 10^-2 m
To Find: i. Magnetic field on the axial point (B_a)
ii. Magnetic field on the equatorial point (B_eq)
Formulae:
i. B_a = \(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \frac{2 m}{r^{3}}\)
ii. B_a = 2B_eq
Calculation: From formula (i),
B_a = 10^-7 × \(\frac{2 \times 0.5}{(0.2)^{3}}\)
= \(\frac{10^{-7}}{8 \times 10^{-3}}\)
= 0.125 × 10^-4
∴ B_a = 1.25 × 10^-5 Wb/m²
From formula (ii),
B_eq = \(\frac {B_a}{2}\) = \(\frac {1.25×10^{-5}}{2}\)
= 0.625 × 10^-5 Wb/m²

Question 17.
A short bar magnet has a magnetic moment of 0.48 JT^-1. Give the direction and magnitude of the magnetic field produced by the magnet at a distance of 10 cm from the centre of the magnet on (i) the axis (ii) the equatorial lines (normal bisector) of the magnet.
Answer:
Given: m = 0.48 JT^-1, r = 10 cm = 0.1 m
To find:
i. Magnetic induction along axis (B_a)
ii. Magnetic induction along equator (B_eq)
Formulae:
i. B_a = \(\frac {µ_0}{4π}\) \(\frac {2m}{r^3}\)
ii. B_a = 2 B_eq
Calculation: From formula (i),
B_a = 10^-7 × \(\frac {2×0.48}{10^{-3}}\)
∴ B_a = 0.96 × 10^-4 T along S-N direction
From formula (ii),
B_eq = \(\frac {0.96×106{-4}}{2}\)
∴ B_eq = 0.48 × 10^-4 T along N-S direction

Question 18.
Define the following magnetic parameters.
i. Magnetic axis
ii. Magnetic equator
iii. Magnetic Meridian
Answer:
i. Magnetic axis: The Earth is considered to be a huge magnetic dipole. The straight line joining the two poles is called the magnetic axis.

ii. Magnetic equator: A great circle in the plane perpendicular to magnetic axis is magnetic equatorial circle.

iii. Magnetic Meridian: A plane perpendicular to surface of the Earth (Vertical plane) and passing through the magnetic axis is magnetic meridian. Direction of resultant magnetic field of the Earth is always along or parallel to magnetic meridian.

Question 19.
Draw neat labelled diagram representing the Earth as a magnet.
Answer:

Question 20.
Define magnetic declination.
Answer:
Angle between the geographic and the magnetic meridian at a place is called magnetic declination (α).

Question 21.
Draw a neat labelled diagram showing the magnetic declination at a place.
Answer:

Question 22.
Draw a neat labelled diagram for angle of dip.
Answer:

Write a short note on Earth’s magnetic field. Mention the extreme values of magnetic field at magnetic poles and magnetic equator.
Ans:
i. Magnetic force experienced per unit pole strength is magnetic field \(\vec{B}\) at that place.

ii. This field can be resolved in components along the horizontal (\(\vec{B}_H\)) and along vertical (\(\vec{B}_v\)).

iii. The two components are related with the angle of dip (ø) as, B_H = B cos ø, B_v = B sin ø
\(\frac {B_v}{B_H}\) = tan ø
B² = B\(_v^2\) + B\(_H^2\)
∴ B = \( \sqrt{\mathrm{B}_{\mathrm{V}}^{2}+\mathrm{B}_{\mathrm{H}}^{2}}\)

iv. At the magnetic North pole: \(\vec{B}\) = \(\vec{B}\)_v, directed upward, \(\vec{B}\)_H = 0 and ø = 90°.

v. At the magnetic south pole: \(\vec{B}\) = \(\vec{B}\)_v, directed downward, \(\vec{B}\)_H = 0 and ø = 270°.

vi. Anywhere on the magnetic equator (magnetic great circle): B = B_H along South to North, \(\vec{B}\)_v = 0 and ø = 0

Question 23.
What are magnetic maps?
Answer:
Magnetic elements of the Earth (B_H, α and ø) vary from place to place and also with time. The maps providing these values at different locations are called magnetic maps.

Question 24.
Define following terms in case of magnetic maps:
i. Isomagnetic charts
ii. Isodynamic lines
iii. Isogonic lines
iv. Aclinic lines
Answer:
i. Isomagnetic charts: Magnetic maps drawn by joining places with the same value of a particular element are called isomagnetic charts.
ii. Isodynamic lines: Lines joining the places of equal horizontal components (B_H) on magnetic maps are known as isodynamic lines.
iii. Isogonic lines: Lines joining the places of equal declination (α) on magnetic maps are called isogonic lines.
iv. Aclinic lines: Lines joining the places of equal inclination or dip (ø) on magnetic maps are called aclinic lines.

Question 25.
Magnetic equator and geographical equator of the earth are same. Is this true or false?
Answer:
False. Magnetic equator and geographical equator of the earth are not same. By definition, they are different. Magnetic declination is the angle between magnetic equator and geographical equator of the earth.

Question 26.
Earth’s magnetic field at the equator is approximately 4 × 10^-5 T. Calculate Earth’s dipole moment. (Radius of Earth = 6.4 × 10⁶ m, µ₀ = 4π × 10^-7 SI units)
Answer:
Consider earth’s magnetic field as due to a bar magnet at the centre of earth, held along the polar axis of earth.
∴ B_eq = \(\frac {µ_0}{4π}\) \(\frac {m}{r^3}\) ……….. (where, R = radius of earth)
∴ m = \(\frac{\mathrm{B}_{\mathrm{eq}} \times \mathrm{R}^{3}}{\mu_{0} / 4 \pi}\) = \(\frac{4 \times 10^{-5} \times\left(6.4 \times 10^{6}\right)^{3}}{10^{-7}}\)
= 4 × (6.4)³ × 10²⁰
= 1048 × 10²⁰
∴ M = 1.048 × 10²³ Am²

Question 27.
At a given place on the Earth, a bar magnet of magnetic moment \(\vec{m}\) is kept horizontal in the East-West direction. P and Q are the two neutral points due to magnetic field of this magnet and \(\vec{B}\)_H is the horizontal component of the Earth’s magnetic field.
i. Calculate the angles between position vectors of P and Q with the direction of \(\vec{m}\).
ii. Points P and Q are 1 m from the centre of the bar magnet and B_H = 3.5 × 10^-5 T. Calculate magnetic dipole moment of the bar magnet.
Neutral point is that point where the resultant magnetic field is zero.
Answer:
i. The direction of magnetic field \(\vec{B}\) due to the bar magnet is opposite to \(\vec{B}\)_H at the neutral points P and Q such that (θ + α) = 90° at P and (θ + α) = 270° at Question
∴ tan α = \(\frac {1}{2}\) tan θ
∴ tan θ = 2 tan α
= 2 tan (90 – θ) and 2 tan (270 – θ)
∴ tan θ = ± 2 cot θ
∴ tan²θ = 2 …….. (1)
∴ tanθ = ±√2
∴ θ = tan^-1 (±√2)
∴ θ = 54°44′ and 180° – 54° 44° = 125°16′

ii. For magnetic dipole moment of the bar magnet:
From equation (2), tan² θ = 2
∴ sec² θ = 1 + tan² θ = 1 + 2 = 3
∴ cos² θ = \(\frac {1}{3}\)
r = 1 m and B = B_H = 3.5 × 10^-5 T ……. (Given)
we have,

Question 28.
A bar magnet is cut into two equal parts vertically and half part of bar magnet is kept on the other such that opposite poles align each other. Calculate the magnetic moment of the combination, if m is the magnetic moment of the original magnet.
Answer:
When bar magnet is cut into two equal parts, then magnetic moment of each part becomes half of the original directed from S to N pole.
∴ Magnetic moment of the combination = \(\frac {m}{2}\) – \(\frac {m}{2}\) = 0
∴ The net magnetic moment of the combination is zero.

Question 29.
Answer the following questions regarding earth’s magnetism:
i. Which direction would a compass needlepoint to, if located right on the geomagnetic north or south pole?
ii. Geologists claim that besides the main magnetic N-S poles, there are several local poles on the earth’s surface oriented in different directions. How is such a thing possible at all?
Answer:
i. At the poles, earth’s magnetic field is exactly vertical. As the compass needle is free to rotate in a horizontal plane only, it may point out in any direction.
ii. The earth’s magnetic field is only approximately a dipole field. Hence the local N-S poles may lie oriented in different directions. This is possible due to deposits of magnetised minerals in the earth’s crust.

Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
The ratio of magnetic induction along the axis to magnetic induction along the equator of a magnet is
(A) 1 : 1
(B) 1 : 2
(C) 2 : 1
(D) 4 : 1
Answer:
(C) 2 : 1

Question 2.
Magnetic field lines
(A) do not intersect each other.
(B) intersect each other at 45°.
(C) intersect each other at 90°.
(D) intersect each other at 60°.
Answer:
(A) do not intersect each other.

Question 3.
The points A and B are situated perpendicular to the axis of 2 cm long bar magnet at large distances x and 3 x from the centre on opposite sides. The ratio of magnetic fields at A and B will be approximately equal to
(A) 27 : 1
(B) 1 : 27
(C) 9 : 1
(D) 1 : 9
Answer:
(A) 27 : 1

Question 4.
A compass needle is placed at the magnetic pole. It
(A) points N – S.
(B) points E – W.
(C) becomes vertical.
(D) may stay in any direction.
Answer:
(D) may stay in any direction.

Question 5.
Magnetic lines of force originate from …………… pole and end at …………….. pole outside the magnet.
(A) north, north
(B) north, south
(C) south, north
(D) south, south
Answer:
(B) north, south

Question 6.
Two isolated point poles of strength 30 A-m and 60 A-m are placed at a distance of 0.3 m. The force of repulsion between them is
(A) 2 × 10^-3 N
(B) 2 × 10^-4 N
(C) 2 × 10⁵ N
(D) 2 × 10^-5 N
Answer:
(A) 2 × 10^-3 N

Question 7.
The magnetic dipole moment has dimensions of
(A) current × length.
(B) charge × time × length.
(C) current × area.
(D) \(\frac {current}{area}\)
Answer:
(C) current × area.

Question 8.
A large magnet is broken into two pieces so that their lengths are in the ratio 2:1. The pole strengths of the two pieces will have the ratio
(A) 2 : 1
(B) 1 :2
(C) 4 : 1
(D) 1 : 1
Answer:
(A) 2 : 1

Question 9.
The magnetic induction B and the force F on a pole of strength m are related by
(A) B = m F
(B) F = nIABm
(C) F = m B
(D) F = \(\frac {m}{B}\)
Answer:
(C) F = m B

Question 10.
A magnetic dipole has magnetic length 10 cm and pole strength 100 Am. Its magnetic dipole moment is ………………. Am².
(A) 1000
(B) 500
(C) 10
(D) 5
Answer:
(C) 10

Question 11.
The geometric length of a bar magnet having half magnetic length 5 cm is …………… cm.
(A) 12
(B) 10
(C) 6
(D) 4.2
Answer:
(A) 12

Question 12.
The angle of dip at the equator is
(A) 90°
(B) 45°
(C) 30°
(D) 0°
Answer:
(D) 0°

Question 13.
The angle of dip at the magnetic poles of the earth is
(A) 90°
(B) 45°
(C) 30°
(D) 0°
Answer:
(A) 90°

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Adsorption and Colloids Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 11 Adsorption and Colloids

Question 1.
Explain the phenomenon of adsorption with the help of examples.
Answer:
Consider the following two examples:

• Example 1: When a metal spoon is dipped in milk and taken out, it is observed that a film of milk particles covers the spoon surface.
• Example 2: If a cold water bottle is taken out from the refrigerator and kept on a table for a while, water vapour is seen to condense on the outer surface of the bottle, forming droplets or a film.
• In the above examples, the milk particles or the water molecules from the air get adsorbed on the surface of the spoon and the bottle, respectively.
• Similarly, surfaces of many objects around us are exposed to the atmosphere. Water molecules as well as other gas molecules such as N₂, O₂, from the air form an invisible multimolecular film on these objects.
  This is known as the phenomenon of adsorption.

Question 2.
Why does adsorption occur?
Answer:

• The adsorption phenomenon is caused by dispersion forces (also known as London dispersion forces or van der Waals forces) which are short range and additive. Adsorption force is the sum of all interactions between all the atoms.
• The pulling interactions cause the surface of a liquid to tighten like an elastic film.
• A measure of the elastic force at the surface of a liquid is called surface tension.
• There is a tendency to have minimum surface tension, i.e., decrease of free energy, which leads to adsorption.

Question 3.
Define surface tension.
Answer:
A measure of the elastic force at the surface of a liquid is called surface tension.
OR
Surface tension is the amount of energy required to stretch or increase the surface of a liquid by a unit area.

Question 4.
Define the following terms.
i. Adsorbent
ii. Adsorbate
Answer:
i. Adsorbent: The material or substance present in the bulk, on the surface of which adsorption takes place is called adsorbent.
ii. Adsorbate: The substance getting adsorbed on the adsorbent is called as adsorbate.

Question 5.
Give some examples of adsorption.
Answer:
Following are some examples of adsorption:

• Adsorption of gases like hydrogen and oxygen by finely divided metals, namely, platinum, palladium, copper, nickel, etc.
• Adsorption of gases like nitrogen and carbon dioxide by activated charcoal.
• Removal of colouring matter like an organic dye, for example, methylene blue. When charcoal is added to methylene blue solution and shaken, it becomes colourless after some time as dye molecules accumulate on the surface of charcoal.

Question 6.
What is desorption?
Answer:
The process of removal of an adsorbed substance from a surface on which it was adsorbed is called desorption.

Question 7.
Define sorption.
Answer:
When both adsorption and absorption occur simultaneously, it is known as sorption.
e.g. When a chalk is dipped in ink, the ink molecules are adsorbed at the surface of the chalk while the solvent of the ink goes deeper into the chalk due to absorption.

Question 8.
What is physisorption? State its characteristics.
Answer:
When the adsorbent such as gas molecules are accumulated at the surface of a solid on account of weak van der Waals forces, the adsorption is termed as physical adsorption or physisorption.

Characteristics:

• The van der Waals forces involved in physical adsorption are similar to forces causing condensation of gas into liquid. Thus, heat is released in physisorption.
• The heat released during physisorption is of the same order of magnitude as heat of condensation.
• Due to weak nature of van der Waals forces, physisorption is weak in nature.
• The adsorbed gas forms several layers of molecules at high pressures.
• The extent of adsorption is large at low temperatures.
• The equilibrium is attained rapidly.
• Physisorption is readily reversed by lowering of pressure of gas or by raising temperature.

Question 9.
Define chemisorption, Write its main features.
Answer:
When the gas molecules accumulate at the surface of a solid or adsorbate by means of chemical bonds (covalent or ionic), the adsorption is termed as chemical adsorption or chemisorption.
Features of chemical adsorption:

• Chemisorption is specific in nature.
• Chemisorption involving the gas-solid as the adsorbate and adsorbent is usually exothermic i.e., heat is released during this process (Exception: The adsorption of hydrogen on glass is endothermic).
• The heat evolved in chemisorption per mole of adsorbate is nearly the same order of magnitude as that accompanying chemical bonding.
• Chemisorption involves a large energy of activation and hence, it is also referred as activated adsorption.
• Chemisorption increases with increase in temperature in the beginning, as a greater number of molecules can have activation energy. But after certain temperature chemisorption decreases with increase in temperature as the chemical bonds break.
• Sometimes at low’ temperature, physisorption occurs which passes into chemisorption as the temperature is raised.
• Chemisorption is dependent on surface area of the adsorbent.

[Note: Chemisorption was first investigated in 1916 by American Chemist, Irving Langmuir (1881-1957).]

Question 10.
Why is chemisorption also known as activated adsorption?
Answer:
Chemisorption involves a large energy of activation and hence, it is also referred as activated adsorption.

Question 11.
Give reason: Adsorption of hydrogen on glass is an endothermic process.
Answer:
Adsorption of hydrogen on glass is an endothermic process because heat is absorbed during the process due to dissociation of hydrogen.

Question 12.
Explain graphically the effect of the following factors on the adsorption of gases by solids.
i. Temperature of the adsorbent surface
ii. Pressure of the gas (adsorbate)
Answer:
i. Temperature of the adsorbent surface:

• Adsorption is an exothermic process.
• According to Te Chatelier’s principle, it is favoured at low temperature.
• Therefore, the amount of gas adsorbed is inversely proportional to the temperature.
• The graph given below shows plots of volume of N? adsorbed per unit mass of adsorbent against the pressure of a gas at different temperatures.
• As temperature increases from 193 K to 273 K at a constant pressure ‘P’, the amount of gas adsorbed decreases.

ii. Pressure of the gas:

• At any temperature, the extent of gas adsorbed increases with an increase in pressure.
• The extent of adsorption is directly proportional to pressure of the gas.
• At high pressures extent of adsorption becomes independent of the pressure. The surface of adsorbent is then almost fully covered by adsorbed gaseous molecules.

Question 13.
What are the applications of adsorption?
Answer:
Following are the various applications of adsorption:
i. Catalysis (Heterogeneous catalysis):

• The solid catalysts are used in many industrial manufacturing processes.
• For example, iron is used as a catalyst in manufacturing of ammonia, platinum in manufacturing of sulphuric acid, H₂SO₄ (by contact process) while finely divided nickel is employed as a catalyst in hydrogenation of oils.

ii. Gas masks:

• It is a device which consists of activated charcoal or mixture of adsorbents.
• It is used for breathing in coal mines to avoid inhaling of the poisonous gases.

iii. Control of humidity: Silica and alumina gels are good adsorbents of moisture.

iv. Production of high vacuum:

• Lowering of temperature at a given pressure, increases the rate of adsorption of gases on charcoal powder. By using this principle, high vacuum can be attained by adsorption.
• A vessel evacuated by vacuum pump is connected to another vessel containing coconut charcoal cooled by liquid air. The charcoal adsorbs the remaining traces of air or moisture to create a high vacuum.

v. Adsorption indicators: The adsorption is used to detect the end point of precipitation titrations. Dyes such as eosin, fluorescein are used as indicators.
e.g.
a. A solution of sodium chloride containing a small amount of fluorescein is titrated against silver nitrate solution.

b. When chloride ions are over, fluorescein is adsorbed on white silver chloride precipitate and hence, red colour is developed.
c. Thus, colour changes from pale yellow to reddish pink at the end point.

vi. Separation of inert gases:

• In a mixture of noble gases, different gases adsorb to different extent.
• Due to selective adsorption principle, gases can be separated on coconut charcoal.

vii. Froth floatation process:

• A low-grade sulphide ore is concentrated by separating it from silica and other earthy matter using pine oil as frothing agent.
• Hydrophobic pine oil preferentially adsorbs sulphide ore which is taken up in the froth.

viii. Chromatographic analysis:

• It is based on selective adsorption of ions from solution using powdered adsorbents such as silica or alumina gel.
• It has several industrial and analytical applications. Other applications include surface area determination, purification of water, etc.

Question 14.
Explain how high vacuum can be obtained by adsorption.
Answer:

• Lowering of temperature at a given pressure, increases the rate of adsorption of gases on charcoal powder. By using this principle, high vacuum can be attained by adsorption.
• A vessel evacuated by vacuum pump is connected to another vessel containing coconut charcoal cooled by liquid air. The charcoal adsorbs the remaining traces of air or moisture to create a high vacuum.

Question 15.
State whether TRUE or FALSE. Correct if false.
i. The rate of adsorption of gases on charcoal powder decreases on lowering of temperature at a given pressure.
ii. Noble gases can be separated from their mixture using the principle of selective adsorption as they adsorb to different extent.
iii. Pine oil is used as frothing agent in froth floatation process.
Answer:
i. False
The rate of adsorption of gases on charcoal powder increases on lowering of temperature at a given pressure.
ii. True
iii. True

Question 16.
Match the following.

	Column A		Column B
i.	Iron	a.	Hydrogenation of oils
ii.	Nickel	b.	Production of sulphuric acid
iii.	Platinum	c.	Synthesis of ammonia

Answer:
i – c,
ii – a,
iii – b

Question 17.
What is a catalyst?
Answer:
A catalyst is a substance which when added to a reacting system, increases the rate of a reaction without itself undergoing any permanent chemical change.

Question 18.
Explain the importance of catalysts in chemical industries.
Answer:

• A large number of the chemicals manufactured in industries make use of catalysts to obtain specific products.
• The use of catalyst lowers the reaction temperature as well as energy costs significantly.
  Due to these advantages, catalysts are of great importance in chemical industry.

Question 19.
Name two types of catalysis.
Answer:

1. Homogeneous catalysis
2. Heterogeneous catalysis

Question 20.
Define homogeneous catalysis and give any two examples.
Answer:
When the reactants and the catalyst are in the same phase, it is said to be homogeneous catalysis.
e.g.
i. Iodide ion (I^–) is used as homogeneous catalyst in decomposition of aqueous hydrogen peroxide because both I^– and H₂O₂ are present in the same aqueous phase.
ii. Hydrolysis of sugar is catalysed by H⁺ ions furnished by sulphuric acid.

All reactants and catalyst are in same solution phase.
[Note: Enzyme catalysis is also an important type of homogeneous catalysis.]

Question 21.
Justify: Lead chamber process is an example of homogeneous catalysis.
Answer:
i. In the lead chamber process, sulphur dioxide is oxidized to sulphur trioxide with dioxygen (O₂) in the presence of nitric oxide as catalyst.

ii. Since all the reactants as well as the catalyst is present in gaseous state. i.e., in same phase, it is a homogeneous catalysis reaction.
Hence, lead chamber process is an example of homogeneous catalysis.

Question 22.
Describe heterogeneous catalysis with the help of one example.
Answer:
i. When the reactants and catalyst are in different phase, it is said to be heterogeneous catalysis.
ii. The heterogeneous catalyst is generally a solid and the reactants may either be gases or liquids.
iii. When the solid catalyst is added to the reaction mixture, it does not dissolve in the reacting system and the reaction occurs on the surface of the solid catalyst.
e.g. Dinitrogen (N₂) and dihydrogen (H₂) combine to form ammonia in Haber process in the presence of finely divided iron along with K₂O and Al₂O₃.

b. In the above reaction, Al₂O₃ and K₂O are promoters of the Fe catalyst. Al₂O₃ is added to prevent the fusion of Fe particles. K₂O causes chemisorption of nitrogen atoms. Molybdenum is also used as promoter.
c. Since the reactants are present in gaseous phase while the catalyst used is in solid phase, it represents heterogeneous catalysis.

Question 23.

i. State whether the given reaction is an example of heterogeneous or homogeneous catalysis.
ii. What is the role of Fe, K₂O and Al₂O₃ in this reaction?
Answer:
i. This reaction is an example of heterogeneous catalysis.
ii. Fe is used as a catalyst while K₂O and Al₂O₃ are promoters of the Fe catalyst. Al₂O₃ is used to prevent the fusion of Fe particles while K₂O causes chemisorption of nitrogen atoms.

Question 24.
Describe hydrogenation reaction of vegetable oils.
Answer:
i. Hydrogenation reaction of vegetable oils used in food industry to produce solid fats. The reaction is as follows:

ii. The reaction is catalysed by finely divided metals like Ni, Pd or Pt.
iii. Vegetable oil contains one or more carbon-carbon double bonds (C = C) in its structure.
iv. On hydrogenation, a solid product (which contains only carbon-carbon single bonds) is formed. It is called Vanaspati ghee.
v. The hydrogenation reaction of vegetable oils is an example of heterogeneous catalysis as the reactant and the catalyst are not present in the same phase.

Question 25.
i. Explain the role of catalytic converters in automobile exhaust.
ii. Why do automobiles with catalytic converter require unleaded petrol?
Answer:
i. a. An important application of heterogeneous catalysts is in automobile catalytic converters.
b. In automobile exhaust, large number of air pollutants such as carbon monoxide, nitric oxide, etc. are present.
c. The catalytic converter transforms these air pollutants into carbon dioxide, water, nitrogen and oxygen.
ii. The catalyst used in the catalytic converter gets poisoned by the adsorption of lead (Pb) present in the petrol. Hence, the automobiles with catalytic converter requires unleaded petrol.

Question 26.
What are inhibitors? Explain with an example.
Answer:
Inhibitors are substances that decreases the rate of chemical reactions.
e.g. Chloroform forms poisonous substance, carbonyl chloride, by air oxidation.

When 2% ethanol is added to chloroform, the formation of COCl₂ is suppressed because ethanol acts as an inhibitor and retards the above reaction.
[Note: Chloroform was earlier used as an anaesthetic.]

Question 27.
Write decomposition reaction of hydrogen peroxide. Suggest how this decomposition can be prevented.
Answer:
i. Hydrogen peroxide decomposes as,

ii. The reaction can be inhibited by addition of dilute acid or glycerol as they act as inhibitors.

Question 28.
Explain why 2% ethanol is added to chloroform?
Answer:
Inhibitors are substances that decreases the rate of chemical reactions.
e.g. Chloroform forms poisonous substance, carbonyl chloride, by air oxidation.

When 2% ethanol is added to chloroform, the formation of COCl₂ is suppressed because ethanol acts as an inhibitor and retards the above reaction.
[Note: Chloroform was earlier used as an anaesthetic.]

Question 29.
Describe the steps involved in heterogeneous catalysis by solid catalyst.
OR
Explain the mechanism involved in catalytic action of a heterogeneous catalyst.
Answer:
The catalytic action of a heterogeneous catalyst occurs on the surface of a catalyst.
The mechanism involves the following five steps.
i. Diffusion of reactants towards the surface of the catalyst.
ii. Adsorption of reactant molecules on the surface of the catalyst.
iii. Occurrence of chemical reaction on the catalyst surface and formation of an intermediate.
iv. Formation of the products.
v. Desorption of reaction products from the catalyst surface. Products leave the catalyst surface in the following steps.
Steps involved in desorption of reaction products:
Diffusion → Adsorption → Intermediate formation → Product formation → Desorption
vi. Fresh reactant molecules can replace the products to start the cycle again as in first step.
vii. This is why catalyst remains unchanged in mass and chemical composition at the end of the reaction.

Question 30.
Write a short note on catalytic activity.
Answer:

• The catalytic activity of a catalyst depends on the strength of chemisorption.
• If large number of reactant molecules (gas or liquid) are strongly adsorbed on the surface of solid catalyst, the catalyst is said to be active.
• However, the adsorption of reactant molecules on the surface, that is, the bond formed between adsorbate and adsorbent surface should not be very strong so that they are not immobilized.
• d-block metals such as Fe, V and Cr tend to be strongly active towards O₂, C₂H₂, C₂H₄, CO, H₂, CO₂, N₂, etc.
• Mn and Cu are unable to adsorb N₂ and CO₂.
• The metals Mg and Li adsorb O₂ selectively.

Question 31.
Explain catalytic selectivity with suitable examples.
Answer:
i. Some solid catalysts are selective in their action.
ii. The same gaseous reactants produce different products when different catalysts are used.
e.g.
a. The gaseous ethylene and O₂ react to produce different products with different catalysts.

b. The gaseous carbon monoxide and H₂ produce different products by using different catalysts.

Question 32.
i. What are zeolites?
ii. Zeolites are shape selective catalysts. Explain.
iii. What is the use of a zeolite catalyst ZSM-5 in petroleum industry?
Answer:
i. a. Zeolites are aluminosilicates with three-dimensional network of silicates.
b. Some silicon atoms in this network are replaced by aluminium atoms giving Al – O – Si framework which results in microporous structure.

ii. a. The reactions in zeolites are dependent on the size and shape of reactant or products, b. It also depends on the pores and cavities of zeolites.
b. Therefore, zeolites are shape selective catalysts.

iii. In petroleum industry, zeolite catalyst ZSM-5 converts alcohols directly to gasoline (petrol) by dehydration which gives a mixture of hydrocarbons.

Question 33.
State the importance of colloids in day-to-day life.
Answer:

• Colloid chemistry is the chemistry of everyday life.
• A number of substances we use in our day-to-day life are colloids. For example, milk, butter, jelly, whipped cream, mayonnaise.
• Knowledge of colloid chemistry is essential for understanding about many useful materials like cement, bricks, pottery, porcelain, glass, enamels, oils, lacquers, rubber, celluloid and other plastics, leather, paper, textiles, filaments, crayons, inks, road construction material, etc.
• In many daily processes like cooking, washing, dyeing, painting, ore floatation, water purification, sewage disposal, smoke prevention, photography, pharmacy, use of colloids is important.

Question 34.
What are colloids? Explain.
Answer:
i. Colloids are heterogeneous mixtures.
ii. The component of colloid present in the largest proportion is called dispersion medium and the other components are called dispersed phase.
iii. The particles of the dispersed phase are larger than the size of a molecule and smaller than the particles which we can see with naked eye.
e.g.

• Observe the formation of solution of salt and water. Salt dissolves completely in water and forms homogeneous system.
• On the other hand, ground coffee or tea leaves with milk form suspension.
• Between the two extremes of solution and suspension exists a large group of systems called colloidal dispersions or simply colloids.

Question 35.
State the differences between colloids and solutions.
Answer:
Colloids:

1. Colloids contain particles of dispersed phase with diameters in the range of 2 to 500 nm.
2. They are translucent to light.
3. e.g. Milk, fog, etc.

Solutions:

1. Solutions contain solute particles with diameters in the range of 0.1 to 2 nm.
2. They are transparent or may be coloured.
3. e.g. NaCl solution

Question 36.
Explain: Natural phenomena of colloids observed in daily life.
Answer:
Following are some examples of colloids observed in daily life.
i. Blue colour of the sky: The sky appears blue to us because minute dust particles along with minute water droplets dispersed in air scatter blue light which reaches our eyes.
ii. Blood: It is a colloidal dispersion of plasma proteins and antibodies in water arid at the same time blood is also a suspension of blood cells and platelets in water.
iii. Soils: Fertile soils are colloidal in nature where humus acts as a protective colloid. Soil adsorbs moisture and nourishing materials due to its colloidal nature.
iv. Fog, mist and rain:

• Mist is caused by small droplets of water dispersed in air.
• Fog is formed whenever there is temperature difference between ground and air.
• A large portion of air containing dust particles gets cooled below its dew point, the moisture from the air condenses on the surface of these particles which form fine droplets, which are colloidal particles and float in the air as fog or mist.

Question 37.
State different ways to classify colloids.
Answer:
Colloids can be classified in three different ways:

• Physical states of dispersed phase and dispersion medium
• Interaction or affinity of phases
• Molecular size

Question 38.
Name the types of colloids based on the physical states of dispersed phase and dispersion medium. Give two examples of each.
Answer:
There are eight types of colloids based on the physical states of dispersed phase and dispersion medium as given below.

Sr. No.	Type of Colloids	Examples
i.	Solid sol (solid dispersed in solid)	Coloured glasses, gemstones
ii.	Sols and gels (solid in liquid)	Gelatin, muddy water
iii.	Aerosol (solid in gas)	Smoke, dust
iv.	Gel (liquid in solid)	Cheese, jellies
v.	Emulsion (liquid in liquid)	Milk, hair cream
vi.	Aerosol (liquid in gas)	Fog, mist
vii.	Solid sol (gas in solid)	Foam rubber, plaster
viii.	Foam (gas in liquid)	Froth, soap lather

Question 39.
Complete the following chart.

Answer:

[Note: Students can write any one example of the given type of colloids.]

Note: Types of colloids based on the physical states of dispersed phase and dispersion medium.

Question 40.
Describe classification of colloids based on the interaction or affinity of phases.
Answer:
On the basis of interaction or affinity of phases, a colloidal solution is classified as lyophilic and lyophobic.
i. Lyophilic colloids:

• A colloidal solution in which the particles of dispersed phase have a great affinity for the dispersion medium are lyophilic colloids.
• If the lyophilic sol is evaporated, the dispersed phase separates. However, if it is remixed with the medium, the sol. can be formed again and hence, such sols are called reversible sols.
• They are stable and difficult to coagulate.

ii. Lyophobic colloids:

• Colloidal solution in which the particles of the dispersed phase have no affinity for the dispersion
  medium are called lyophobic colloids.
• The common examples are Ag, Au, hydroxides like Al(OH)₃, Fe(OH)₃, metal sulphides.
• Once precipitated or coagulated they have little tendency or no tendency to revert back to colloidal state.

[Note: Lyo means liquid and philic means loving whereas phobic means fearing and hence liquid hating. If water is the dispersion medium, the terms hydrophilic and hydrophobic are used.]

Question 41.
Give reason: Lyophilic sols are called reversible sols.
Answer:

• When lyophilic sol is evaporated, the dispersed phase separates.
• However, if the dispersed phase is remixed with the medium, the sol can be formed again.

Hence, lyophilic sols are called reversible sols.

Question 42.
How are colloids classified based on their molecular size?
Answer:
Colloids are classified into three types based on their molecular size as described below.
i. Multimolecular colloids:

• In multimolecular colloids, the individual particles consist of an aggregate of atoms or small molecules with size less than 10³ pm.
  e.g. Gold sol consists of particles of various sizes having several gold atoms.
• Colloidal solution in which particles are held together with van der Waals force of attraction is called multimolecular colloid.
  e.g. S₈ sulphur molecules

ii. Macromolecular colloids: In this type of colloids, the molecules of the dispersed phase are sufficiently large in size (macro) to be of colloidal dimensions.
e.g. Starch, cellulose, proteins, polythene, nylon, plastics.

iii. Associated colloids or micelles:

• The substances behave as normal electrolytes at low concentration and associated in higher concentration forming a colloidal solution.
• The associated particles are called micelles, e.g. Soaps and detergents

Question 43.
How can be colloids prepared by chemical methods?
Answer:
i. Colloidal dispersions can be prepared by chemical reactions leading to formation of molecules by double decomposition, oxidation, reduction or hydrolysis.
ii. Molecules formed in these reactions are water-insoluble and thus, they aggregate leading to the formation of colloids.
e.g.

Question 44.
Describe the process involved in peptization?
Answer:

• During peptization a precipitate is converted into colloidal sol by shaking with dispersion medium in the presence of a small amount of an electrolyte. The electrolyte used is known as peptizing agent.
• During the process, the precipitate adsorbs one of the ions of the electrolyte on its surface and as a result, positive or negative charge is developed on the precipitate which finally breaks up into small particles of colloidal size.

[Note: This method is generally applied to convert a freshly prepared precipitate into a colloidal sol.]

Question 45.
Why is it necessary to purify colloidal solutions?
Answer:

• Colloidal solution generally contains excessive amount of electrolytes and some other soluble impurities.
• A small quantity of an electrolyte is necessary for the stability of colloidal solution, however, a large quantity of electrolyte may result in coagulation.
• It is also necessary to reduce soluble impurities.

Hence, it is necessary to purify colloidal solutions.

Question 46.
i. What is purification of colloidal solution?
ii. How can a colloidal solution be purified using the method of dialysis?
Answer:
i. The process used for reducing the amount of impurities to a requisite minimum is known as purification of colloidal solution.

ii. a. Dialysis is a process of removing a dissolved substance from a colloidal solution by diffusion through a suitable membrane.
b. Purification of colloidal solution can be carried out using dialysis by the following method.

• The apparatus used is dialyser.
• A bag of suitable membrane containing the colloidal solution is suspended in a vessel through which fresh water is continuously flowing.
• The molecules and ions diffuse through membrane into the outer water and pure colloidal solution is left behind.

Question 47.
What are the general properties exhibited by colloidal dispersions?
Answer:
General properties exhibited by colloidal dispersions:

• Colloidal system is heterogeneous and consists of two phases, dispersed phase and dispersion medium.
• The dispersed phase particles pass slowly through parchment paper or animal membrane, but readily pass through ordinary filter paper.
• Colloidal particles are usually not detectable by powerful microscope.

Question 48.
Discuss the factors that influence the colour of colloidal solutions.
Answer:

• Colour of colloidal solution depends on the wavelength of light scattered by dispersed particles.
• The colour of colloidal dispersion also changes with the manner in which the observer receives the light.
  e.g. Mixture of a few drops of milk and large amount of water appears blue when viewed by the scattered light and red when viewed by transmitted light.
• It also depends on size of colloidal particles.
  e.g. Finest gold sol is red in colour whereas with increase in size it appears purple.

Question 49.
Give three examples each:
i. Positively charged sols
ii. Negatively charged sols
Answer:
i. Positively charged sols: Al₂O₃. xH₂O, haemoglobin, TiO₂ sol
ii. Negatively charged sols: Au sols, Congo red sol, clay

Note: Some common sols with the nature of charge on the particles are listed in the table below.

Positively charged sols	Negatively charged sols
Hydrated metallic oxides: Al2O3.xH2O, CrO3.xH2O, Fe2O3.xH2O.	Metals: Cu, Ag. Au sols Metallic sulphides: As2S3, Sb2S3, CdS
Basic dye stuff, methylene blue sols	Acid dye stuff, eosin, Congo red sol
Haemoglobin (blood)	Sols of starch, gum
Oxides: TiO2 sol	Gelatin, clay, gum sols

Question 50.
Explain the term electroosmosis.
Answer:

• Movement of dispersed particles can be prevented by suitable means such as use of membrane.
• On doing so, it is observed that the dispersion medium begins to move in an electric field. This is known as electroosmosis.

Question 51.
What is coagulation?
Answer:
The precipitation of colloids by removal of charge associated with colloidal particles is called coagulation.

Question 52.
How can we bring about precipitation of lyophobic colloids?
Answer:

• The charge on the colloidal particles is due to the preferential adsorption of ions on their surface.
• Hence, lyophobic colloids can be precipitated out by removing the charge on the colloidal particles (dispersed phase).

Question 53.
Discuss various methods that are used to bring about coagulation of lyophobic sols.
Answer:
Coagulation of the lyophobic sols can be carried out in the following ways.

• By electrophoresis: The colloidal particles move towards oppositely charged electrodes, get discharged and precipitate.
• By mixing two oppositely charged sols: Oppositely charged sols when mixed in almost equal proportions neutralize their charges and get precipitated.
  e. g. Mixing of hydrated ferric oxide (positive sol) and arsenious sulphide (negative sol) brings them in the precipitated forms. This type of coagulation is called mutual coagulation.
• By boiling: When a sol is boiled, the adsorbed layer is disturbed as a result of increased collisions with molecules in the dispersion medium. This reduces charge on the particles and subsequently particles settle down as a precipitate.
• By persistent dialysis: On prolonged dialysis, traces of the electrolyte present in the sol are removed almost completely. The colloids then become unstable and finally precipitate.
• By addition of electrolytes: When excess of an electrolyte is added, the colloidal particles are precipitated.

Question 54.
Write Hardy-Schulze rule.
Answer:
Generally, greater the valency of the flocculating ion added, greater is its power to cause precipitation. This is known as Hardy-Schulze rule.

Question 55.
Differentiate between oil in water and water in oil emulsions.
Answer:
Oil in water:

1. Oil is the dispersed phase and water is the dispersion medium.
2. If water is added, it will be miscible with the emulsion.
3. Addition of small amount of an electrolyte makes the emulsion conducting.
4. Continuous phase is water.
5. Basic metal sulphates, water soluble alkali metal soaps are used as emulsifiers.

Water in oil:

1. Water is the dispersed phase and oil is the dispersion medium.
2. If oil is added, it will be miscible with the emulsion.
3. Addition of small amount of an electrolyte has no effect on conducting power.
4. Continuous phase is oil.
5. Water insoluble soaps such as those of Zn, Al, Fe, alkaline earth metals are used as emulsifiers.

Question 56.
What are the properties of emulsion?
Answer:
Properties of emulsion:

• Emulsion can be diluted with any amount of the dispersion medium. On the other hand, the dispersed liquid when mixed forms a separate layer.
• The droplets in emulsions are often negatively charged and can be precipitated by electrolytes.
• Emulsions show Brownian movement and Tyndall effect.
• The two liquids in emulsions can be separated by heating, freezing, centrifuging, etc.

Question 57.
Give applications of colloids.
Answer:
Applications of colloids:
i. Electrical precipitation of smoke:

• Smoke is a colloidal solution of solid particles of carbon, arsenic compound, dust, etc. in the air.
• When smoke is allowed to pass through chamber containing charged plates, smoke particles lose their charge and get precipitated. The particles then settle down on the floor of the chamber.
• The precipitator used is called Cottrell precipitator.

ii. Purification of drinking water:

• Water obtained from natural sources contains colloidal impurities.
• By addition of alum to such water, colloidal impurities get coagulated and settle down. This makes water potable.

iii. Medicines:

• Usually medicines are colloidal in nature.
• Colloidal medicines are more effective owing to large surface area to volume ratio of a colloidal particle and easy assimilation.
  e.g. Argyrol is a silver sol used as an eye lotion. Milk of magnesia, an emulsion is used in stomach disorders.

iv. Rubber industry: Rubber is obtained by coagulation of latex.
v. Cleansing action of soaps and detergents.
vi. Photographic plates, films, and industrial products like paints, inks, synthetic plastics, rubber, graphite lubricants, cement, etc. are colloids.

Question 58.
Match column A with column B.

	Column A		Column B
i.	Tyndall effect	i.	Kinetic property
ii.	Electrophoresis	ii.	Argyrol
iii.	Silver sol	iii.	Optical property
iv.	Brownian motion	iv.	Coagulation

Answer:
i – c,
ii – d,
iii – b,
iv – a

Question 59.
In drinking water treatment, often alum is added for the complete removal of suspended impurities. On complete dissolution, alum produces positive charge which neutralizes the charge on the suspended particles and thus, impurities are easily removed.
i. Name and define the process involved due to which charge on particles get neutralized.
ii. What is the role of alum in the above mentioned process?
Answer:
i. a. Charge on particles get neutralized due to coagulation.
b. The precipitation of colloids by removal of charge associated with colloidal particles is called coagulation.
ii. Alum acts as a reagent that helps in coagulation of the suspended particles by the removal of the charge associated with these particles.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following is responsible for adsorption phenomenon?
(A) Hydrogen bonding
(R) Dipole-dipole forces
(C) Ion-dipole forces
(D) Dispersion forces
Answer:
(D) Dispersion forces

2. A substance which adsorbs another substance on its surface is called ……………..
(A) adsorbate
(B) absorbate
(C) adsorbent
(D) absorbent
Answer:
(C) adsorbent

3. During adsorption, the molecules of the substance which gets adsorbed are termed as
(A) adsorbent
(B) adsorbate
(C) absorbent
(D) absorbate
Answer:
(B) adsorbate

4. in adsorption of acetic acid on charcoal, acetic acid is ……………
(A) adsorhate
(B) adsorbent
(C) absorbent
(D) absorbate
Answer:
(A) adsorhate

5. The process of removal of an adsorbed substance from the surface is known as
(A) sorption
(B) oxidation
(C) reduction
(D) desorption
Answer:
(D) desorption

6. ………….. is the process in which adsorbate molecules are held on the surface of the adsorbent by weak van der Waals forces.
(A) Chemisorption
(B) Absorption
(C) Physisorption
(D) Biosorption
Answer:
(C) Physisorption

7. Which of the following is an example of physical adsorption?
(A) Adsorption of acetic acid in solution by charcoal
(B) Adsorption of O₂ on tungsten
(C) Adsorption of N₂ on Fe
(D) Adsorption of H₂ on Ni
Answer:
(A) Adsorption of acetic acid in solution by charcoal

8. Chemisorption is a slow process because …………….
(A) it forms multimolecular layer
(B) it is reversible
(C) it takes place at normal temperature
(D) it requires high activation energy
Answer:
(D) it requires high activation energy

9. The number of layer(s) formed on adsorbent in chemical adsorption is …………….
(A) one
(B) two
(C) three
(D) many
Answer:
(A) one

10. Which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding chemical adsorption?
(A) It is highly specific in nature.
(B) It is relatively strong.
(C) It involves the formation of monolayer of adsorbed particles.
(D) All of these.
Answer:
(D) All of these.

11. Which of the following is adsorbed to maximum extent on charcoal?
(A) H₂
(B) N₂
(C) Cl₂
(D) O₂
Answer:
(C) Cl₂

12. The relation between the amount of substance adsorbed by an adsorbent and the equilibrium pressure or …………. at any constant temperature is called adsorption isotherm.
(A) surface area
(B) volume
(C) circumference
(D) concentration
Answer:
(D) concentration

13. For equilibrium pressure (P), the mass of gas adsorbed (x) and mass of adsorbent (m) may be expressed as Freundlich adsorption isotherm as ……………

Answer:
(B) \(\frac{\mathrm{x}}{\mathrm{m}}=\mathrm{kP}^{\frac{1}{\mathrm{n}}}\)

14. When log x/m is plotted against log P, the intercept obtained …………..
(A) on Y axis is equal to log K
(B) on Y axis is equal to K
(C) on X axis is equal to log K
(D) on X axis is equal to K
Answer:
(A) on Y axis is equal to log K

15. The adsorption isotherm tends to saturate at ………….. pressure.
(A) low
(B) moderate
(C) all of these
(D) high
Answer:
(D) high

16. In Haber process for manufacture of NH₃, the catalyst used is ……………
(A) iron
(B) copper
(C) vanadium pentoxide
(D) nickel
Answer:
(A) iron

17. A substance that decreases the rate of a chemical reaction is called ……………
(A) inhibitor
(B) prohibitor
(C) promoter
(D) reactor
Answer:
(A) inhibitor

18. Whether a given mixture forms a true solution or a colloidal dispersion depends on the …………….
(A) charge of solute particles
(B) size of solvent particles
(C) size of solute particles
(D) charge of solvent particles
Answer:
(C) size of solute particles

19. An aerosol is a dispersion of a ……………
(A) gas in a solid
(B) liquid in a gas
(C) solid in a gas
(D) both (B) and (C)
Answer:
(D) both (B) and (C)

20. The dispersed phase in Pumice stone is ……………
(A) solid
(B) liquid
(C) gas
(D) none of these
Answer:
(C) gas

21. Colloidal solution in which the dispersed phase has little affinity for the dispersion medium is called ………………
(A) lyophobic colloids
(B) lyophilic colloids
(C) hydrophilic colloids
(D) emulsions
Answer:
(A) lyophobic colloids

22. Which of the following is NOT an example of macromolecular colloid?
(A) Starch
(B) Proteins
(C) S₈ molecules
(D) Nylon
Answer:
(C) S₈ molecules

23. Tyndall effect is useful ……………….
(A) to identify colloidal dispersions
(B) to count number of particles in colloidal dispersion.
(C) to determine the size of the colloidal particles
(D) all of these
Answer:
(D) all of these

24. Brownian movement is a ……………… type of property of the colloidal sol.
(A) electrical
(B) optical
(C) kinetic
(D) colligative
Answer:
(C) kinetic

25. The migration of colloidal particles under the influence of an electric field is called …………….
(A) catalysis
(B) Brownian movement
(C) electrophoresis
(D) Tyndall effect
Answer:
(C) electrophoresis

26. The capacity of an ion to coagulate a colloidal solution depends on ……………….
(A) its shape
(B) its valency
(C) the sign of charge
(D) both (B) and (C)
Answer:
(D) both (B) and (C)

27. ……………… is an example of water in oil type of emulsion.
(A) Milk
(B) Cod liver oil
(C) Vanishing cream
(D) Paint
Answer:
(B) Cod liver oil

28. Which of the following has highest precipitation power to precipitate negative sol?
(A) Al³⁺
(B) Mg²⁺
(C) Na⁺
(D) K⁺
Answer:
(A) Al³⁺

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 States of Matter Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 10 States of Matter

Question 1.
What are the three distinct physical forms of a substance?
Answer:
The three distinct physical forms of a substance are solid, liquid and gas.

Question 2.
What are the different forms (physical states) in which water exists?
Answer:
Water exists in the three different forms solid ice, liquid water and gaseous vapours.

Question 3.
Give the differences between the three states of matter.
OR
State the properties of three states of matter.
Answer:

Question 4.
With suitable diagram, explain how three states of matter are interconvertible by exchange of heat.
Answer:

• On heating, solid changes to liquid, which on further heating changes to gas.
• On cooling, gas condenses to liquid, which on further cooling change to solid.

Question 5.
What are intermolecular forces? Explain the role of these forces in different states of matter.
Answer:

• Intermolecular forces are the attractive forces as well as repulsive forces present between the neighbouring molecules.
• The attractive force decreases with the increase in distance between the molecules.
• The intermolecular forces are strong in solids, less strong in liquids and very weak in gases. Thus, the three physical states of matter can be determined as per the strength of intermolecular forces.
• The physical properties of matter such as melting point, boiling point, vapor pressure, viscosity, evaporation, surface tension and solubility can be studied with respect to the strength of attractive intermolecular forces between the molecules.
• During the melting process, intermolecular forces are partially overcome, whereas they are overcome completely during the vapourization process.

Question 6.
Name the different types of intermolecular forces.
Answer:
The types of intermolecular forces are as follows:

1. Dipole-dipole interactions
2. Ion-dipole interactions
3. Dipole-induced dipole interactions
4. Hydrogen bonding
5. London dispersion forces

Question 7.
Write a short note on dipole moment.
Answer:
Dipole moment:
i. Dipole moment (µ) is the product of the magnitude of the charge (Q) and the distance between the centres of positive and negative charge (r).
ii. It is designated by a Greek letter (µ) (mu) and its unit is Debye (D).
iii. Dipole moment is a vector quantity and is depicted by a small arrow with tail in the positive centre and head pointing towards the negative centre.
iv. For example, HCl is a polar molecule.

The crossed arrow above the structure represents an electron density shift. Thus, polar molecules have permanent dipole moments.

Question 8.
Explain dipole-dipole interactions.
Answer:
Dipole-dipole interactions:
i. When a polar molecule encounters another polar molecule, the positive end of one molecule is attracted to the negative end of another polar molecule. Interaction between such molecules is termed as dipole-dipole interaction.
ii. These forces are generally weak, with energies of the order of 3-4 kJ mol^-1 and are significant only when molecules are in close contact, i.e., in a solid or a liquid state.
iii. For example, C₄H₉Cl, (butyl chloride), CH₃ – O – CH₃ (dimethyl ether), ICl (iodine chloride, B.P. 27 °C), are dipolar liquids.
iv. The molecular orientations due to dipole-dipole interaction in ICl liquid is shown in the following figure:

v. More polar the substance, greater the strength of its dipole-dipole interactions.

Question 9.
Explain the effect of dipole moment on boiling point with an example.
Answer:
Higher the dipole moment, stronger are the intermolecular forces. Thus, higher is the boiling point.
e.g. Dipole moment of dimethyl ether (CH₃ – O – CH₃) is 1.3 D while that of ethane (CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₃) is 0.1 D. Since, dipole moment of dimethyl ether is higher than that of ethane, the boiling point of dimethyl ether is higher than that of ethane.
Note: Dipole moments and boiling points of some compounds:

Question 10.
Explain ion-dipole interactions.
Answer:
Ion-dipole interactions:
i. An ion-dipole force is the result of electrostatic interactions between an ion (cation or anion) and the partial charges on a polar molecule.
ii. The strength of this interaction depends on the charge and size of an ion. It also depends on the magnitude of dipole moment and size of the molecule.
iii. Ion-dipole forces are particularly important in aqueous solutions of ionic substances. When an ionic compound is dissolved in water, the ions get separated and surrounded by water molecules. This process is called hydration of ions.
iv. For example, Na⁺ ion (cation) – H₂O interaction is shown in the following figure:

v. The charge density on Na+ is more concentrated than the charge density on Cl^– because Na⁺ is smaller in size than Cl^–. This makes the interaction between (Na⁺) and negative end of the polar H₂O molecule stronger than the corresponding interaction between (Cl^–) and positive end of the polar H₂O molecule.
vi. More the charge on cation, stronger is the ion-dipole interaction. For example, Mg²⁺ ion has higher charge and smaller ionic radius (78 pm) than Na⁺ ion (98 pm), hence Mg²⁺ ion is surrounded (hydrated) more strongly with water molecules and exerts strong ion-dipole interaction.
Thus, the strength of interaction increases with increase in charge on cation and with decrease in ionic size or radius.
Therefore, ion-dipole forces increase in the order: Na⁺ < Mg²⁺ < Al³⁺.

Question 11.
Write a short note on dipole-induced dipole interactions.
Answer:
Dipole-induced dipole interactions:
i. When polar molecules (like H₂O, NH₃) and nonpolar molecules (like benzene) approach each other, the polar molecules induce dipole in the nonpolar molecules. Hence, ‘Temporary dipoles’ are formed by shifting of electron clouds in nonpolar molecules.
ii. For example, ammonia (NH₃) is polar and has permanent dipole moment while Benzene (C₆H₆) is nonpolar and has zero dipole moment. The force of attraction developed between the polar and nonpolar molecules is of the type dipole-induced dipole interaction. This is shown in the following figure:

Question 12.
Explain briefly London dispersion forces.
Answer:
London dispersion forces:

• In nonpolar molecules and inert gases, only dispersion forces exist.
• Dispersion forces are also called as London forces or van der Waals forces.
• It is the weakest intermolecular force that develops due to interaction between two nonpolar molecules.
• In general, all atoms and molecules experience London dispersion forces, which result from the motion of electrons.
• At any given instant of time, the electron distribution in an atom may be asymmetrical, giving the atom a short-lived dipole moment. This momentary dipole on one atom can affect the electron distribution in the neighbouring atoms and induce momentary dipoles in them. As a result, weak attractive force develops.
• For example, substances composed of molecules such as O₂, CO₂, N₂, halogens, methane gas, helium and other noble gases show van der Waals force of attraction.
• The strength of London forces increases with increase in molecular size, molecular mass and number of electrons present in an atom or molecule.

Question 13.
Give reason: Benzene has zero dipole moment and has no dipole-dipole forces yet it exists in liquid state.
Answer:

• Benzene (C₆H₆) is nonpolar molecule and has zero dipole moment.
• In benzene, only London forces exist due to momentary dipoles.
• The strength of London forces increases with increase in molecular size, molecular mass and number of electrons present in an atom or molecule.
• Hence, due to the presence of London forces, benzene exists in liquid state.

Question 14.
Explain the term polarizability.
Answer:
Polarizability:

• When two nonpolar molecules approach each other, attractive and repulsive forces between their electrons and the nuclei will lead to distortions in the size of electron cloud, a property referred to as polarizability.
• Polarizability is a measure of how easily an electron cloud of an atom is distorted by an applied electric field.
• It is the property of atom.
• The ability to form momentary dipoles, that means, the ability of the molecule to become polar by redistributing its electrons is known as polarizability of the atom or molecule.

Question 15.
Describe how London dispersion forces affect the boiling points of isomeric compounds like n-pentane and neopentane.
Answer:

• More the spread out of shapes, higher the dispersion forces present between the molecules.
• London dispersion forces are stronger in a long chain of atoms where molecules are not compact.
• For example, n-Pentane boils at 309.4 K, whereas neopentane boils at 282.7 K.
• Both the substances have the same molecular formula, C₅H₁₂, but n-pentane is longer and somewhat spread out, whereas neopentane is more spherical and compact.

Question 16.
Write a short note on hydrogen bonding.
Answer:
Hydrogen bonding:

• The electrostatic force of attraction between positively polarised hydrogen atom of one molecule and a highly electronegative atom (which may be negatively charged) of other molecule is called as hydrogen bond.
• Strong electronegative atoms that form hydrogen bonds are nitrogen, oxygen and fluorine.
• A hydrogen bond is a special type of dipole-dipole attraction.
• Hydrogen bonds are generally stronger than usual dipole-dipole and dispersion forces, and weaker than true covalent or ionic bonds.
• Hydrogen bond is denoted by (….) dotted line.
  e.g. Water (H₂O) and ammonia (NH₃) show hydrogen bonding.

Question 17.
Explain intramolecular and intermolecular hydrogen bond with suitable examples.
Answer:
i. Hydrogen bond which occurs within one single molecule represents intramolecular hydrogen bond.
e.g. H-bonding in ethylene glycol:

ii. A hydrogen bond present between two like or unlike molecules represents intermolecular hydrogen bond.
e.g. H-bonding in H-F:

Question 18.
How does hydrogen bonding influence boiling points of compounds?
Answer:

• Due to the presence of hydrogen bonding in the compounds, more energy is required to break the bonds.
• Therefore, boiling point is more in case of liquid molecules containing hydrogen bond.
• Hydrogen bonds can be quite strong with energies up to 40 kJ/mol.
• The boiling point generally increases with increase in molecular mass, but the hydrides of nitrogen (NH3), oxygen (H₂O) and fluorine (HF) have abnormally high boiling points due to the presence of hydrogen bonding between the molecules.

[Note: Due to presence of H-bond, viscosity’ of liquid increases. Hydrogen bonds play vital role in determining structure and properties of proteins and nucleic acids present in all living organisms.]

Question 19.
Observe the following figure and answer the questions:

i. What do the dotted lines represent?
ii. A water molecule can form how many H-bonds?
iii. Is this an example of intramolecular H-bonding?
Answer:
i. The dotted lines represent hydrogen bonds.
ii. A water molecule can form four H-bonds.
iii. No, it is an example of intermolecular H-bonding.

Question 20.
Explain the relation between intermolecular forces and thermal energy.
Answer:

• Thermal energy is the measure of kinetic energy of the particles of matter that arises due to movement of particles.
• It is directly proportional to the temperature; that means, thermal energy increases with increase in temperature and vice versa.
• Three states of matter are the consequence of a balance between the intermolecular forces of attraction and the thermal energy of the molecules.
• If the intermolecular forces are very weak, molecules do not come together to make liquid or solid unless thermal energy is decreased by lowering the temperature.
• When a substance is to be converted from its gaseous state to solid state, its thermal energy (or temperature) has to be reduced. At this stage, the intermolecular forces become more important than thermal energy of the particles.

Note: Comparison of intermolecular forces:

Question 21.
State true or false. Correct the false statement.
i. London dispersion force is the weakest intermolecular force that develops due to interaction between two nonpolar molecules.
ii. More the charge on cation, stronger is the ion-dipole interaction.
iii. A hydrogen bond is a special type of dipole-induced dipole attraction.
iv. Thermal energy is directly proportional to the temperature.
Answer:
i. True
ii. True
iii. False,
A hydrogen bond is a special type of dipole-dipole attraction.
iv. True

Question 22.
Name the major intermolecular forces between:
i. Cl₂ and CBr₄
ii. SiH₄ molecules
iii.He atoms in liquid He
iv. HCl molecules in liquid HCl
v. He and a polar molecule
vi. Water molecules
Answer:
i. London dispersion forces
ii. London dispersion forces
iii. London dispersion forces
iv. Dipole-dipole interactions
v. Dipole-induced dipole
vi. Hydrogen bonding

Question 23.
Why is the chemistry of atmospheric gases an important subject of study?
Answer:
The chemistry of atmospheric gases is an important subject of study as it involves air pollution. O₂ in air is essential for survival of aerobic life.

Question 24.
What are the measurable properties of gases?
OR
Explain the following measurable properties of gases in detail: Mass, volume, pressure, temperature and diffusion.
Answer:
Measurable properties of gases are as follows:
i. Mass:

• The mass (m) of a gas sample is measure of the quantity of matter it contains.
• It can be measured experimentally.
• The SI unit of mass is kilogram (kg).
  1 kg = 10³ g.
• The mass of a gas is related to the number of moles (n) by the expression:
  n = \(\frac{\text { mass in grams }}{\text { molar mass in grams }}=\frac{\mathrm{m}}{\mathrm{M}}\)

ii. Volume:

• Volume (V) of a sample of gas is the amount of space it occupies.
• It is expressed in terms of different units like Litres (L), millilitres (mL), cubic centimetre (cm³), cubic metre (m³) or decimetre cube (dm³).
• The SI Unit of volume is cubic metre (m³).
• Most commonly used unit to measure the volume of the gas is decimetre cube or litre.

iii. Pressure:

• Pressure (P) is defined as force per unit area.
  Pressure = \(\frac{\text { Force }}{\text { Area }}=\frac{\mathrm{f}}{\mathrm{a}}\)
• Pressure of gas is measured with ‘manometer’ and atmospheric pressure is measured by ‘barometer’.
• The SI unit of pressure is pascal (Pa) or Newton per metre square (N m^-2).

iv. Temperature:

• It is the property of an object that determines direction in which energy will flow when that object is in contact with another object.
• In scientific measurements, temperature (T) is measured either on the Celsius scale (°C) or the Kelvin scale (K).
• The SI unit of temperature of a gas is Kelvin (K).
• The Celsius and Kelvin scales are related by the expression: T(K) = t °C + 273.15

v. Density: Density (d) of a substance is the mass per unit volume.
d = \(\frac{\mathrm{m}}{\mathrm{V}}\)
∴ The SI unit of density is kg m^-3.
In the case of gases, relative density is measured with respect to hydrogen gas and is called vapour density.
∴ Vapour density = \(\frac{\text { Molar mass }}{2}\)

vi. Diffusion:
a. Diffusion is the process of mixing two or more gases to form a homogeneous mixture.
b. The volume of gas diffused per unit time is the rate of diffusion of that gas.

c. SI Unit for rate of diffusion is dm³ s^-1 or cm³ s^-1.

Question 25.
Convert:
i. 3.5 atm to mm Hg
ii. 1520 torr to atm
iii. 5 m³ to dm³
iv. 580 °c to Kelvin
Answer:
I. 3.5 atm to mm Hg:
1 atm = 760 mm Hg
∴ 3.5 atm = 3.5 × 760
= 2660 mm Hg

ii. 1520 torr to aim:
1 atm = 760 torr
∴ 1 torr = \(\frac {1}{760}\) atrn
∴ 1520 torr = \(\frac {1520}{760}\) = atm

iii. 5 m³ to dm³:
1 m³ = 10³ dm³
∴ 5m³ = 5 × dm³ = 5000 dm³

iv. 580 °C to Kelvin:
T(K) = t °C + 273.15
∴ T(K)= (580 °C) + 273.15 = 853.15 K

Question 26.
Name four measurable properties that are essential to study behaviour of gases.
Answer:

• Pressure
• Volume
• Temperature
• Number of moles

Question 27.
Explain Boyle’s law with the help of a diagram.
Answer:
Boyle’s law (Pressure-Volume relationship):
i. Statement: For a fixed mass (number of moles ‘n’) of a gas at constant temperature, the pressure (P) of the gas is inversely proportional to the volume (V) of the gas.
ii. Explanation:
The mathematical expression of Boyle’s law is:
P ∝ \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{~V}}\) (at constant T and n) k₁
∴ P = \(\frac{\mathrm{k}_{1}}{\mathrm{~V}}\) (where, k₁ is the proportionality constant)
On rearranging the above equation,
∴ PV = k₁ = constant
This implies that at constant temperature, product of pressure and volume of the fixed amount of a gas is constant.
Thus, when a fixed amount of a gas at constant temperature (T) occupying volume V₁ initially at pressure (P₁) undergoes expansion or compression, volume of the gas changes to V₂ and pressure to P₂.
According to Boyle’s law,
P₁V₁ = P₂V₂ = constant

iii. Schematic illustration of Boyle’s law:

Question 28.
Give the different graphical representations of Boyle’s law.
Answer:
i. Graph of pressure (P) versus volume (V) of a gas at constant temperature:
If the pressure (P) is plotted against volume (V) at constant temperature, a curve is obtained.

As the pressure increases, the volume decreases exponentially. The product of pressure and volume is always constant (PV = k). For a given mass of a gas, the value of k varies only with temperature.
[Note: Each curve is an isotherm as it is plotted at constant temperature, (iso = constant, therm = temperature).]

ii. Graph of PV versus pressure (P) of a gas constant temperature:
If the product of pressure and volume (PV) is plotted against pressure (P), a straight line is obtained parallel to x-axis (pressure axis).

iii. Graph of pressure (P) of a gas versus reciprocal of volume (1/V) at constant temperature:
If the pressure (P) of the gas is plotted against (1/V), a straight line is obtained passing through the origin.

[Note: At high pressure, deviation from Boyle’s law is observed in the behaviour of gases.]

Question 29.
Derive the relationship between density and pressure.
Answer:
Relationship between density and pressure:
With increase in pressure, gas molecules get closer and the density (d) of the gas increases. Hence, at constant temperature, pressure is directly proportional to the density of a fixed mass of gas.
From Boyle’s law,
PV = k₁ …….(1)
∴ V = \(\frac{\mathrm{k}_{1}}{\mathrm{P}}\)
But, d = \(\frac{\mathrm{m}}{\mathrm{V}}\)
On substituting, V from equation (2),
d = \(\frac{\mathrm{m}}{\mathrm{K}_{1}}\) × P
∴ d = k P …….(3)
where k = New constant
∴ d ∝ P
Above equation shows that at constant temperature, the pressure is directly proportional to the density of a fixed mass of the gas.

Question 30.
Write a short note on absolute temperature scale.
Answer:
Absolute temperature scale:

• Absolute temperature scale is related to Celsius temperature scale by the equation:
  T K = t °C + 273.15
• This also called thermodynamic scale of temperature.
• The units of this absolute temperature scale is called (K) in the honour of Lord Kelvin who determined the accurate value of absolute zero as -273.15 °C in the year 1854.

Question 31.
Explain Charles’ law with the help of a diagram.
Answer:
Charles’ law (Temperature-Volume relationship):
i. Statement: At constant pressure, the volume of a fixed mass of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature in Kelvin.

ii. Explanation:
For an increase of every degree of temperature, volume of the gas increases by \(\frac{1}{273.15}\) of its original value at 0 °C. This is expressed mathematically as follows:
V_t = V₀ + \(\frac{t}{273.15} V_{0}\) ………….(1)
Where V_t and V₀ are the volumes of the given mass of gas at the temperatures t °C and 0 °C. Rearranging the Eq. (1) gives

The equation (3) on rearrangement takes the following form:
\(\frac{\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{t}}}{\mathrm{T}_{\mathrm{t}}}=\frac{\mathrm{V}_{0}}{\mathrm{~T}_{0}}\)
From this, a general equation can be written as follows:
\(\frac{\mathrm{V}_{1}}{\mathrm{~T}_{1}}=\frac{\mathrm{V}_{2}}{\mathrm{~T}_{2}}\) …………(4)
\(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{T}}\) = K₂ = constant (at constant P and n)
∴ V = k₂T OR V ∝ T ……(5)
The equation (4) is the mathematical expression of Charles’ law.

iii. Schematic illustration of Charles’ law:

This shows that at constant pressure, gases expand on heating and contract on cooling.

Question 32.
Give the different graphical representation of Charles’ law.
Answer:
Graph of volume versus temperature at constant pressure:

• According to Charles’ law, the graph of volume of a gas (at given constant pressure, say P₁) versus its temperature in Celsius, is a straight line with a positive slope.
• On extending the line to zero volume, the line intercepts the temperature axis at -273.15 °C.
• At any other value of pressure, say P₂, a different straight line for the volume temperature plot is obtained, but we get the same zero-volume temperature intercept at -273.15 °C.
• The straight line of the volume versus temperature graph at constant pressure is called isobar.

[Note: Zero volume for a gas sample is a hypothetical state. In practice, all the gases get liquified at a temperature higher than -273.15 °C. This temperature is the lowest temperature that can be imagined but practically cannot be attained. It is the absolute zero temperature on the Kelvin scale (0 K).]

Question 33.
Write the statement for Gay-Lussac’s law.
Answer:
Statement for Gay-Lussac’s law:
At constant volume, pressure (P) of a fixed amount of a gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature (T).

Question 34.
Give the mathematical expression for Gay-Lussac’s law.
Answer:
Gay-Lussac’s law (Pressure-Temperature relationship):
i. Statement: At constant volume, pressure (P) of a fixed amount of a gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature (T).
ii. Explanation:
Gay-Lussac’s law can be mathematically expressed as:
P ∝ T
∴ P = k₃T
∴ \(\frac{\mathrm{P}}{\mathrm{T}}\) = Constant (at constant V and n)
Thus, according to Gay-Lussac’s law,
\(\frac{\mathrm{P}_{1}}{\mathrm{~T}_{1}}=\frac{\mathrm{P}_{2}}{\mathrm{~T}_{2}}\) = constant

Question 35.
Give the graphical representation of Gay-Lussac’s law.
Answer:
Graph of pressure versus temperature of a gas at constant volume:
When a graph is plotted between pressure (P) in atm and temperature (T) in kelvin, a straight line is obtained It is known as isochore.

Question 36.
Define the following terms:
i. Isotherm
ii. Isobar
iii. Isochore
Answer:
i. A graph of pressure (P) versus volume (V) at a constant temperature is known as isotherm.
ii. A graph of volume (V) versus absolute temperature (T) at a constant pressure is known as isobar.
iii. A graph of pressure (P) versus absolute temperature (T) at a constant volume is known as isochore.

Question 37.
State and explain Avogadro law.
Answer:
Avogadro law (Volume-Amount relationship):
i. Statement: Equal volumes of all gases at the same temperature and pressure contain equal number of molecules.
ii. Explanation:
V is directly proportional to n (number of moles) at constant ‘P’ and ‘T’.
V ∝ n
V = k₄ × n (where, k₄ is proportionality constant)
∴ \(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{n}}\) = constant (at constant T and P)
Note: Representation of Avogadro law

Question 38.
What is molar volume?
Answer:
The volume occupied by one mole of an ideal gas at STP is 22.414 L. This volume is known as molar volume.

Question 39.
Derive the relation between density of a gas and its molar mass.
Answer:
Relation between density of a gas and its molar mass:
According to Avogadro’s law, V ∝ n
Now, n = \(\frac{\mathrm{m}}{\mathrm{M}}\) (where, m is the mass of the gas and M is the molar mass of the gas)
∴ V ∝ \(\frac{\mathrm{m}}{\mathrm{M}}\)
M ∝ \(\frac{\mathrm{m}}{\mathrm{V}}\)
But, \(\frac{\mathrm{m}}{\mathrm{V}}\) = d (where, d is the density of the gas)
∴ d ∝ M
Thus, density of a gas is directly proportional to its molar mass.

Question 40.
The volume occupied by a given mass of a gas at 298 K is 25 mL at 1 atmosphere pressure.
Calculate the volume of the gas if pressure is increased to 1.25 atmosphere at constant temperature.
Solution:
Given: P₁ = Initial pressure = 1 atm, V₁ = Initial volume = 25 mL
P₂ = Final pressure = 1.25 atm
To find: V₂ = Final volume of the gas
Formula: P₁V₁ = P₂V₂ (at constant n and T)
Calculation: According to Boyle’s law, P₁V₁ = P₂V₂
Substituting the values of P₁, V₁ and P₂ in the above expression, we get
V₂ = \(\frac{P_{1} V_{1}}{P_{2}}=\frac{1 \times 25}{1.25}\) = 20 mL
Ans: The volume occupied by the gas is 20 mL.

Question 41.
The volume of a given mass of a gas is 0.6 dm3 at a pressure of 2 atm. Calculate the volume of the gas if its pressure is increased to 2.4 at the same temperature.
Solution:
Given: P₁ = Initial pressure = 2 atm
V₁ = Initial volume of given mass of the gas = 0.6 dm³
P₂ = Final pressure = 2.4 atm
To find: V₂ = Final volume of the gas
Formula: P₁V₁ = P₂V₂ (at constant n and T)
Calculation: According to Boyle’s law,
P₁V₁ = P₂V₂ (at constant n and T)
V₂ = \(\frac{\mathrm{P}_{1} \mathrm{~V}_{1}}{\mathrm{P}_{2}}=\frac{2 \times 0.6}{2.4}=0.5 \mathrm{dm}^{3}\)
Ans: The volume of the given gas is 0.5 dm³.

Question 42.
What will be the minimum pressure required to compress 500 dm³ of air at 5 bar to 200 dm³ at 25 °C.
Solution:
Given: P₁ = Initial pressure = 5 bar
V₁ = Initial volume = 500 dm³; V₂ = Final volume = 200 dm³
To find: P₂ = Final pressure
Formula: P₁V₁ = P₂V₂ (at constant n and T)
Calculation: According to Boyle’s law,
P₁V₁ = P₂V₂ (at constant n and T)
∴ P₂ = \(\frac{\mathrm{P}_{1} \mathrm{~V}_{1}}{\mathrm{~V}_{2}}=\frac{5 \times 500}{200}\) = 12.5 bar
Ans: The minimum pressure required to compress 500 dm³ of air at 5 bar to 200 dm³ at 25 °C is 12.5 bar.

Question 43.
A balloon has certain volume at sea level. At what pressure (in kPa) will its volume be increased by 40% if the temperature is kept constant?
Solution:
Given: P₁ = Initial pressure = 101.325 kPa (∵ The pressure at sea level = 101.325 kPa)
V₁ = Initial volume at sea level = 100 dm³ (assumption)
V₂ = Final volume = (100 + 40) = 140 dm³
To find: P₂ = Final pressure
Formula: P₁V₁ = P₂V₂ (at constant n and T)
Calculation: According to Boyle’s law,
P₁V₁ = P₂V₂ (at constant n and T)
P₂ = \(\frac{P_{1} V_{1}}{V_{2}}\)
∴ P₂ = \(\frac{101.325 \times 100}{140}\) = 72.375 kPa
Ans: The pressure at which volume of the given balloon will be increased by 40% at a given temperature is 72.375 kPa.

Question 44.
At 300 K, a certain mass of a gas occupies 1 × 10^-4 dm³ volume. Calculate its volume at 450 K and at the same pressure.
Solution:
Given: T₁ = Initial temperature = 300 K, V₁ = Initial volume = 1 × 10^-4 dm³,
T₂ = Final temperature = 450 K
To find: V₂ = Final volume
Formula: \(\frac{V_{1}}{T_{1}}=\frac{V_{2}}{T_{2}}\) (at constant n and P)
Calculation: According to Charles’ law, at constant pressure.

Ans: The volume of given gas becomes 1.5 × 10^-4 dm³ at the temperature of 450 K and same pressure.

Question 45.
A certain mass of a gas occupies a volume of 0.2 dm³ at the temperature, x K. Calculate the volume of the gas if its absolute temperature is doubled at same pressure.
Solution:
Given: V₁ = Initial volume = 0.2 dm³, T₁ = Initial temperature = x K
T₂ = Final temperature = 2 × x = 2x K
To find: V₂ = Final volume of the gas
\(\frac{V_{1}}{T_{1}}=\frac{V_{2}}{T_{2}}\) (at constant n and P)
Calculation: According to Charles’ law,

Ans: The volume of given gas becomes 0.4 dm³ when the temperature is doubled.

Question 46.
The volume of a given mass of a gas at 0 °C is 0.2 dm³. Calculate its volume at 100 °C, if the pressure remains the same.
Solution:
Given: V₁ = Initial volume = 0.2 dm³, T₁ = Initial temperature = 0 °C = 273.15 K,
T₂ = Final temperature = 100 °C = 100 + 273.15 K = 373.15 K
To find: V₂ = Volume at 100 °C
Formula: \(\frac{V_{1}}{T_{1}}=\frac{V_{2}}{T_{2}}\) (at constant n and P)
Calculation: According to Charles’ law,

Ans: The volume of gas at 100 °C is 0.273 dm³.

Question 47.
A glass container is sealed with a gas at 0.8 atm pressure and at 25 °C. The glass container sustains a pressure of 2 atm. Calculate the temperature to which the gas can be heated before bursting the container.
Solution:
Given: P₁ = Initial pressure = 0.8 atm, P₂ = Final pressure = 2 atm
T₁ = Initial temperature = 25 °C = 25 + 273.15 K = 298.15 K
To find: T₂= Final temperature

Ans: The temperature to which the gas can be heated before bursting the container is 472 °C.

Question 48.
An 8.0 L of sample at 0 °C and 5.6 atm of pressure contains 2.0 moles of a gas. If more 1.0 mole of gas at the same temperature and pressure is added, calculate the final volume.
Solution:
Given: V₁ = Initial volume = 8.0 L
n₁ = Initial mol = 2.0 mol
n₂ = Final mol = (2.0 + 1.0) = 0.3 mol
To find: V₂ = Final volume

Ans: The final volume is 12 L.

Question 49.
What is an ideal gas equation?
Answer:
Ideal gas equation is obtained by combining three gas laws, namely, Boyle’s law, Charles’ law and Avogadro law. Mathematically, it is given as:
PV = nRT
where,
P = Pressure of gas, V = Volume of gas, n = number of moles of gas,
R = Gas constant, T = Absolute temperature of gas

Question 50.
Derive the ideal gas equation.
Answer:
According to Boyle’s law,
V ∝ \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{P}}\) (at constant T and n) ………..(1)
According to Charles’ law,
V ∝ T (at constant P and n) …….(2)
According to Avogadro’s law,
V ∝ n (at constant P and T) …….(3)
Combining relations (1), (2) and (3), we get
V ∝ \(\frac{\mathrm{nT}}{\mathrm{P}}\)
Converting this proportionality into an equation by introducing a constant of proportionality (‘R’ known as gas constant), we get
∴ V = \(\frac{\mathrm{nRT}}{\mathrm{P}}\)
On rearranging the above equation, we get
PV = nRT
where,
P = Pressure of gas,
V = Volume of gas,
n = number of moles of gas,
R = Gas constant,
T = Absolute temperature of gas.
This is the ideal gas equation or equation of state.
[Note: In the ideal gas equation, R is called gas constant or universal gas constant, whose value is same for all the gases. In this equation, if three variables are known, fourth can be calculated. The equation describes the state of an ideal gas. Hence, it is also called as equation of state.]

Question 51.
Deduce values of gas constant ‘R’ in different units.
Answer:
i. R in SI Unit (in Joules): Value of R can be calculated by using the SI units of P, V and T. Pressure P is measured in N m^-2 or Pa, volume V in meter cube (m³) and temperature T in Kelvin (K).

ii. R in litre atmosphere: If pressure (P) is expressed in atmosphere (atm) and volume in litre (L) or decimeter cube (dm³) and Temperature in kelvin (K), (that is, old STP conditions), then value of R is,
R = \(\frac{1 \mathrm{~atm} \times 22.414 \mathrm{~L}}{1 \mathrm{~mol} \times 273.15 \mathrm{~K}}\)
∴ R = 0.0821 L atm K^-1 mol^-1
OR
R = 0.0821 dm³ atm K^-1 mol^-1

iii. R in calories: We know, 1 calorie = 4.184 Joules
∴ R= \(\frac{8.314}{4.184}\) = 1.987 ≅ 2 cal K^-1 mol^-1

Question 52.
Derive the following expression:
M = \(\frac{\text { mRT }}{\text { PV }}\)
Answer:
According to ideal gas equation,
PV = nRT
n = \(\frac{\mathrm{PV}}{\mathrm{RT}}\)
Now, for a known mass ‘m’ of gas having molar mass ‘M’, number of moles ‘n’ is given as:
n = \(\frac{\mathrm{m}}{\mathrm{M}}\)
Therefore, \(\frac{m}{M}=\frac{P V}{R T}\)
On rearranging the equation, we get
M = \(\frac{\text { mRT }}{\text { PV }}\)

Question 53.
Derive the expression for combined gas law.
Answer:
The ideal gas equation is written as
PV = nRT …….(1)
On rearranging equation (1), we get,

The ideal gas equation used in this form is called combined gas law.

Question 54.
Derive the relation between density, molar mass and pressure.
Answer:
Relation between density, molar mass and pressure:
According to ideal gas equation,
PV = nRT …..(1)
On rearranging equation (1), we get
\(\frac{\mathrm{n}}{\mathrm{V}}=\frac{\mathrm{P}}{\mathrm{RT}}\) ……….(2)
Now, n = \(\frac{\mathrm{m}}{\mathrm{M}}\)
On substituting the value of n, equation (2) becomes
\(\frac{\mathrm{m}}{\mathrm{MV}}=\frac{\mathrm{P}}{\mathrm{RT}}\)
\(\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{M}}=\frac{\mathrm{P}}{\mathrm{RT}}\) ……….(3)
where d = \(\frac{\mathrm{m}}{\mathrm{V}}\) = density of the gas
On rearranging the equation, we get
M = \(\frac{\mathrm{dRT}}{\mathrm{P}}\) ……(4)
This equation can be used to calculate molar mass of a gas in terms of its density.

Question 55.
State Boyle’s law in terms of density.
Answer:
Boyle’s law in terms of density is stated as ‘At constant temperature, pressure of a given mass of gas is directly proportional to its density’.

Question 56.
Derive the expression that relates partial pressure with mole fraction of a gas.
Answer:
The partial pressures of individual gases can be written in terms of ideal gas equation as follows:


Thus, partial pressure of a gas is obtained by multiplying the total pressure of mixture by mole fraction of that gas.

Question 57.
What is water vapour?
Answer:
The ‘gas’ above the surface of liquid water is described as water vapour.

Question 58.
Write a short note on aqueous tension.
Answer:
Aqueous tension:
i. When the liquid water is placed into a container and air above is pumped away and the container is sealed, then the liquid water evaporates and only water vapour remains in the above space. After sealing, the vapour pressure increases initially, then slows down as some water molecules condense back to form liquid water. After a few minutes, the vapour pressure reaches a maximum value, which is called the saturated vapour pressure. The pressure exerted by saturated water vapour is called aqueous tension (P_aq).
ii. Aqueous tension increases with increase in temperature.

Question 59.
Explain how pressure of a dry gas can be calculated using aqueous tension.
Answer:
i. When a gas is collected over water in a closed container, it gets mixed with the saturated water vapour in that space. Therefore, the measured pressure corresponds to the pressure of the mixture of that gas and the saturated water vapour in that space.
ii. Pressure of pure and dry gas can be calculated by using the aqueous tension. It is obtained by subtracting the aqueous tension from the total pressure of the moist gas.
∴ P_{Dry gas} = P_Total – P_aq
i.e., P_{Dry gas} = P_Total – Aqueous Tension
Note: Aqueous tension of water (vapour pressure) as a function of temperature.

Question 60.
A sample of N₂ gas was placed in a flexible 9.0 L container at 300 K at a pressure of 1.5 atm. The gas was compressed to a volume of 3.0 L and heat was added until the temperature reached 600 K. What is the new pressure inside the container?
Solution:
Given: V₁ = Initial volume = 9.0 L, V₂ = Final volume = 3.0 L,
P₁ = Initial pressure = 1.5 atm
T₁ = Initial temperature = 300 K, T₂ = Final temperature = 600 K
To find: P₂ = Final pressure
Formula: \(\frac{\mathrm{P}_{1} \mathrm{~V}_{1}}{\mathrm{~T}_{1}}=\frac{\mathrm{P}_{2} \mathrm{~V}_{2}}{\mathrm{~T}_{2}}\)
Calculation: According to combined gas law,

Ans: The new pressure inside the container is 9 atm.

Question 61.
A gas at 772 mm Hg and at 35 °C occupies a volume of 6.851 L. Calculate its volume at STP.
Solution:
Given: V₁ = Initial volume = 6.851 L
P₁ = Initial pressure = 772 mm Hg, P₂ = Final pressure = 760 mm Hg
T₁ = Initial temperature = 35 °C = 35 + 273.15 K = 308.15 K
T₂ = Final temperature = 273.15 K
To find: V₂ = Final volume
Formula: \(\frac{\mathrm{P}_{1} \mathrm{~V}_{1}}{\mathrm{~T}_{1}}=\frac{\mathrm{P}_{2} \mathrm{~V}_{2}}{\mathrm{~T}_{2}}\)
Calculation: According to combined gas law,

Ans: The volume of gas at STP is 6.169 L.

Question 62.
Find the temperature in °C at which volume and pressure of 1 mol of nitrogen gas becomes 10 dm³ and 2.46 atmosphere respectively.
Solution.
P = 2.46 atm, V = 10 dm³, n = 1 mol, R = 0.0821 dm³-atm K^-1 mol^-1
To find: Temperature (T)
Formula: PV = nRT
According to ideal gas equation,
PV = nRT
∴ T = \(\frac{\mathrm{PV}}{\mathrm{nR}}=\frac{2.46 \times 10}{1 \times 0.0821}\)
T = 299.63 K
Temp, in °C = 299.63 – 273.15 = 26.48 °C
Ans: The temperature of the nitrogen gas under the given conditions is 26.48 °C.

Question 63.
Calculate the temperature of 5.0 mol of a gas occupying 5 dm³ at 3.32 bar.
(R = 0.083 bar dm³ K^-1 mol^-1)
Solution:
Given: n = number of moles = 5.0 mol, V = volume = 5 dm³
P = pressure = 3.32 bar, R = 0.083 bar dm³ K^-1 mol^-1
To find: Temperature (T)
Formula: PV = nRT
Calculation: According to ideal gas equation,
PV = nRT
∴ T = \(\frac{\mathrm{PV}}{\mathrm{nR}}=\frac{3.32 \times 5}{5.0 \times 0.083}\) = 40 K
Ans: The temperature of the gas is 40 K.

Question 64.
Calculate the number of moles of hydrogen gas present in a 0.5 dm³ sample of hydrogen gas at a pressure of 101.325 kPa at 27 °C.
Solution:
Given: V = 0.5 dm³ = 0.5 × 10^-3 m³, P = 101.325 kPa = 101.325 × 10³ Pa = 101.325 × 10³ Nm^-2
T = 27 °C = 27 + 273.15 K = 300.15 K, R = 8.314 J K^-1 mol^-1
To find: n = number of moles of gas
Formula: PV = nRT
Calculation: According to ideal gas equation,

Ans: The number of moles of hydrogen gas present in the given volume is 0.020 moles.

Question 65.
A mixture of 28 g N₂, 8 g He and 40 g Ne has 20 bar pressure. What is the partial pressure of each of these gases?
Solution:
Given: m_N2 = 28 g, m_He = 8 g, m_Ne = 40 g,
P_Total = 20 bar
To find: Partial pressure of each gas
Formula: P₁ = x₁ × P_Total
Calculation: Determine the number of moles (n) of each gas using the formula: n = \(\frac{\mathrm{m}}{\mathrm{M}}\)
Determine the mole fraction of each gas using the formula:

Ans: The partial pressure of nitrogen, helium and neon are 4 bar, 8 bar and 8 bar respectively.

Question 66.
What is an ideal gas?
Answer:
Ideal gas:

• The gases which obey’ ideal gas equation over a complete range of temperature and pressure are called ideal gases.
• For an ideal gas, the ratio of PV/RT = 1.
• In an ideal gas, there are no interactive forces between the molecules and the molecular volume is negligibly small compared to the volume occupied by the gas. The gas particles are considered as point particles.

Question 67.
What are real gases?
Answer:
Real gases:

• Gases, which do not obey ideal gas equation under all the conditions of temperature and pressure are called real gases.
• For real gases, the ratio of PV/RT will be either greater than 1 or less than 1.
• Real gases show deviation from ideal gas behaviour at higher pressures and lower temperatures.
• The intermolecular attractive forces are not negligible in real gases.
• In real gases, the actual volume of the molecules cannot be neglected as compared to the total volume of the container.

Question 68.
Explain the reason for deviations of gases from ideal behaviour.
Answer:
A deviation from the ideal behaviour is observed at high pressure and low temperature. It is due to two reasons.

• The intermolecular attractive forces are not negligible in real gases. These do not allow the molecules to collide the container wall with full impact. This results in decrease in the pressure.
• At high pressure, the molecules are very close to each other. The short range repulsive forces start operating and the molecules behave as small but hard spherical particles. The volume of the molecule is not negligible.
  Therefore, very less volume is available for molecular motion.
• At very low temperature, the molecular motion becomes slow and the molecules are attracted to each other due to the attractive force. Hence, the behaviour of the real gas deviates from the ideal gas behaviour.
• Deviation with respect to pressure can be studied by plotting pressure (P) vs volume (V) curve at a given temperature.
• From the graph, it is clear that at very high pressure, the measured volume is more than theoretically calculated volume assuming ideal behaviour. However, at low pressure, measured and theoretically calculated volumes approach each other.

Question 69.
What is compressibility factor (Z)?
Answer:
Compressibility factor (Z):
i. It is defined as the ratio of product PV and nRT.
Z = \(\frac{\mathrm{PV}}{\mathrm{nRT}}\)
ii. Deviation from ideal behaviour is measured in terms of compressibility factor.
iii. For ideal gases, Z = 1 under all conditions of temperature and pressure. Therefore, the graph of Z versus P will be a straight line parallel to pressure axis.
iv. For gases that deviate from ideal behaviour, value of Z deviates from unity.
Note: Variation of compressibility factor for some gases

Question 70.
Show that the compressibility factor can be represented as Z = \(\frac{V_{\text {real }}}{V_{\text {ideal }}}\)
Answer:
For real gas,

Thus, the compressibility factor (Z) is the ratio of actual molar volume of a gas to its molar volume if it behaved ideally, at that temperature and pressure.

Question 71.
Explain: Liquefaction of CO₂ with the help of pressure vs volume isotherm.
Answer:
Most gases behave like ideal gases at high temperature. For example, the PV curve of CO₂ gas at 50 °C is like the ideal Boyle’s law curve. As the temperature is lowered, the PV curve shows a deviation from the ideal Boyle’s law curve. At a particular value of low temperature, the gas gets liquified at certain increased value of pressure. For example, CO₂ gas liquifies at 38.98 °C and 73 atmosphere pressure. This is the highest temperature at which liquid CO₂ can exist. Above this temperature, liquid CO₂ cannot form even if very high pressure is applied. Other gases also show similar behaviour.

Question 72.
Define: Critical temperature, critical volume and critical pressure.
Answer:
i. The temperature above which a substance cannot be liquified by increasing pressure is called its critical temperature (T_c).
ii. The molar volume at critical temperature is called the critical volume (V_c).
iii. The pressure at the critical temperature is called the critical pressure (P_c).

Note: Critical constants for common gases

i. N₂ and O₂, have T_c values much below 0 °C and their P_c values are high. Consequently, liquefaction of O₂ and N₂ (and air) requires compression and cooling.
ii. The T_c value of CO₂ nearly equals the room temperature; however, its P_c value is very high. Therefore, CO₂ exists as gas under ordinary condition.

Question 73.
Water has T_c = 647.1 K and P_c = 220.6 bar. What do these values imply about the state of water under ordinary conditions?
Answer:
The T_c and P_c values of water are very high compared to the room temperature and common atmospheric pressure. As a result, water exists in liquid state under ordinary condition of temperature and pressure.

Question 74.
Gases possess characteristic critical temperature which depends upon the magnitude of intermolecular forces between the gas particles. Critical temperatures of ammonia and carbon dioxide are 405.5 K and 304.10 K respectively. Which of these gases will liquefy first when you start cooling from 500 K to their critical temperature?
Answer:
When cooling of ammonia and carbon dioxide gas is started from 500 K, then ammonia reaches its critical temperature first (i.e., 405.5 K.) and hence, it is also the first to get liquefied.
When the cooling is continued further, carbon dioxide gas is liquefied as it reaches its critical temperature (i.e., 304.10 K).

Question 75.
CO₂ has T_c = 38.98 °C and P_c = 73 atm. How many phases of CO₂ coexist at
i. 50 °C and 73 atm
ii. 20 °C and 50 atm.
Answer:
i. 50 °C and 73 atm represent a condition for CO₂ above its T_c. Therefore, under this condition CO₂ exists only as single phase.
ii. 20° C and 50 atm represent a condition for CO₂ below its T_c. Therefore, under this condition two phases of CO₂, namely, liquid and gas can coexist.

Question 76.
In which of the following cases, water will have the highest and the lowest boiling point?
i. Water is boiled in an open vessel.
ii. Water is boiled in a pressure cooker.
iii. Water is boiled in an evacuated vessel.
Answer:
Higher the pressure to which a liquid is exposed, higher will be its boiling point. The pressure to which water is exposed is maximum in the pressure cooker and minimum in the evacuated vessel. Therefore, boiling point of water is highest in a pressure cooker and lowest in an evacuated vessel.

Question 77.
Define: Liquid state
Answer:
Liquid state is the intermediate state between solid state and gaseous state.

Question 78.
Give reason: Liquid possesses properties such as fluidity, definite volume and ability to take shape of the bottom of the container in which it is placed.
Answer:
Molecules of liquid are held together by moderately strong intermolecular forces and can move about within the boundary of the liquid. As a result, liquid possesses properties such as fluidity, definite volume and ability to take shape of the bottom of the container in which it is placed.

Question 79.
Name some measurable properties of liquid.
Answer:

• Density
• Boiling point
• Freezing point
• Vapour pressure
• Surface tension
• Viscosity.

Question 80.
What are the factors affecting vapour pressure?
Answer:
Factors affecting vapour pressure:

• Nature of liquid: Liquids having relatively weak intermolecular forces possess high vapour pressure. Such liquids are called volatile liquids.
  e. g. Petrol evaporates quickly than motor oil. Hence, petrol has higher vapour pressure than motor oil.
• Temperature: When the liquid is gradually heated, its temperature rises and its vapour pressure increases.

Question 81.
Explain how temperature affects surface tension.
Answer:
Surface tension is a temperature dependent property. When attractive forces are large, surface tension is large. Surface tension decreases as the temperature increases. With increase in temperature, kinetic energy of molecules increases. So, intermolecular forces of attraction decrease, and thereby surface tension decreases.

Question 82.
Mention some applications of surface tension.
Answer:
Applications of surface tension:

• Cleaning action of soap and detergent is due to the lowering of interfacial tension between water and oily substances. Due to lower surface tension, the soap solution penetrates into the fibre, surrounds the oily substance and washes it away.
• Efficacy of toothpastes, mouthwashes and nasal drops is partly due to presence of substances having lower surface tension. This increases the efficiency of their penetrating action.

Question 83.
Give reason: Liquid droplets acquire spherical shape.
Answer:
For a given volume of a liquid, spherical shape always imparts minimum surface area thereby reducing the surface tension. Hence, liquid droplets acquire spherical shape.

Question 84.
Define: Coefficient of viscosity
Answer:
Coefficient of viscosity is defined as the degree to which a fluid resists flow under an applied force, measured by the tangential frictional force per unit area per unit velocity gradient when the flow is laminar.

Question 85.
Describe various factors affecting viscosity of a liquid.
Answer:
Factors affecting viscosity of a liquid:
i. Temperature: Viscosity is a temperature dependent property.
Viscosity ∝ \(\frac{1}{\text { Temperature }}\)
ii. Nature of liquid: Viscosity also depends on molecular size and shape. Larger molecules have more viscosity and spherical molecules offer the least resistance to flow and therefore are less viscous. Greater the viscosity, slower is the liquid flow.

Question 86.
Describe three daily life instances where viscosity plays an important role.
Answer:

• Lubricating oils are viscous liquids. Gradation of lubricating oils is done on the basis of viscosity. A good quality lubricating oil does not change its viscosity with increase or decrease in temperature.
• Increase blood viscosity than the normal value is taken as an indication of cardiovascular disease.
• Glass panes of old buildings are found to become thicker with time near the bottom. This indicates that glass is not a solid but a supercooled viscous liquid.

Question 87.
For an experiment, a scientist fills different gases in four flasks as shown below:

i. What is the ratio of the number of molecules of the gases in flask A to flask B?
ii. Calculate the pressure exerted by nitrogen gas in flask B if the temperature is doubled.
iii. If the scientist transfers the gas in flask D to another flask of 2.5 L at 1 atm pressure, what will be the temperature of the gas in the new flask?
Answer:
i. 1:1
ii. P ∝ T (when V and n are constants)
∴ If temperature is doubled, pressure also doubles.
∴ P = 2 atm
iii. \(\frac{\mathrm{V}_{1}}{\mathrm{~T}_{1}}=\frac{\mathrm{V}_{2}}{\mathrm{~T}_{2}}\) (when P and n are constants)
∴ \(\frac{1}{298}=\frac{2.5}{T_{2}}\)
∴ T₂ = 745 K

Question 88.
A balloon containing 0.6 mol of helium gas has a volume of 1.5 L.
i. Assuming that the temperature and pressure remains constant, what happens to the volume of the balloon if an additional 0.6 mol of helium is added?
ii. Assuming that the temperature and pressure remains constant, what happens to the volume of the balloon if 0.3 mol of helium is removed?
Answer:
i. The volume of the balloon increases.
ii. The volume of the balloon decreases.

Question 89.
In an experiment conducted to study the diffusion of gases using same experimental conditions, following data were recorded.
Gas A: 50 cm³ of gas A takes 7 minutes to diffuse from one container to the adjacent container.
Gas B: 50 cm³ of gas B takes 10 minutes to diffuse from one container to the adjacent container.
i. What is the rate of diffusion of gas A?
ii. What is the rate of diffusion of gas B?
iii. Which gas has higher molecular mass?
Answer:
i. Volume of gas A diffused = 50 cm³
Time required for diffusion = 7 minutes = 7 × 60 seconds

∴ The rate of diffusion of gas A is 0.12 cm³ s^-1.
ii. The rate of diffusion of gas B is 0.083 cm³ s^-1.
iii. Gas B has higher molecular mass.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following is CORRECT for both gases and liquids?
(A) Indefinite volume
(B) Definite shape
(C) Indefinite shape
(D) Definite volume
Answer:
(D) Definite volume

2. The composition of …………. in air is about 78% by volume.
(A) CO₂
(B) O₂
(C) N₂
(D) Ar
Answer:
(C) N₂

3. Which of the following expression at constant pressure represents Charles’s law?
(A) V ∝ \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{~T}}\)
(B) V ∝ \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{~T}^{2}}\)
(C) V ∝ T
(D) V ∝ d
Answer:
(C) V ∝ T

4. The pressure of 2 mole of ideal gas at 546 K having volume 44.8 L is …………….
(A) 2 atm
(B) 3 atm
(C) 7 atm
(D) 1 atm 10²³
Answer:
(A) 2 atm

5. At 300 K, the density of a certain gaseous molecule at 2 bar is double to that of dinitrogen at 4 bar. The molar mass of gaseous molecule is …………….
(A) 28 g mol^-1
(B) 56 g mol^-1
(C) 112 g mol^-1
(D) 224 g mol^-1
Answer:
(C) 112 g mol^-1

6. As the temperature increases, average kinetic energy of molecules increases. What would be the effect of increase of temperature on pressure provided the volume is constant?
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remains same
(D) Becomes half
Answer:
(A) Increases

7. Assuming ideal gas behaviour, the ratio of density of ammonia to that of hydrogen chloride at same temperature and pressure is ………….. (Atomic wt. of Cl = 35.5 u)
(A) 1.46
(B) 0.46
(C) 1.64
(D) 0.64
Answer:
(B) 0.46

8. The number of moles of H₂ in 0.224 L of hydrogen gas at STP (273 K, 1 atm) assuming ideal gas behaviour is …………..
(A) 1
(B) 0.1
(C) 0.01
(D) 0.001
Answer:
(C) 0.01

9. The volume occupied by 11.5 g of carbon dioxide at STP is approximately equal to:
(A) 5.9 L
(B) 22.5 L
(C) 86 L
(D) 259 L
Answer:
(A) 5.9 L

10. Which of the following is CORRECT regarding a fixed amount of ideal gas?
(A) Doubling the temperature, doubles the volume, provided the pressure remains the same.
(B) Doubling the temperature, halves the volume, provided the pressure remains the same.
(C) Doubling the pressure, doubles the volume, provided the temperature remains the same.
(D) Doubling the volume, doubles the pressure, provided the temperature remains the same.
Answer:
(A) Doubling the temperature, doubles the volume, provided the pressure remains the same.

11. When one mole of an ideal gas is heated from 300 K to 360 K at constant pressure of 1 atm, its volume …………….
(A) increases from V to 6.0V
(B) increases from V to 3.6V
(C) increases from V to 1.2V
(D) increases from V to 1.6V
Answer:
(C) increases from V to 1.2V

12. The partial pressure of a gas is obtained by multiplying the total pressure of mixture by …………… of that gas.
(A) molar mass
(B) moles
(C) mass
(D) mole fraction
Answer:
(D) mole fraction

13. The highest temperature at which liquid CO₂ can exist is ……………..
(A) 18.98 °C
(B) 38.98 °C
(C) 50.0 °C
(D) 73.9 °C
Answer:
(B) 38.98 °C

14. The SI unit of surface tension is ……………..
(A) Pascal
(B) N s m^-2
(C) km^-2 s
(D) N m^-1
Answer:
(D) N m^-1

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Elements of Group 13, 14 and 15 Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Elements of Group 13, 14 and 15

Question 1.
What are p-block elements?
Answer:

• Elements in which the differentiating electron (the last filling electron) enters the outermost p orbital are p-block elements.
• Since maximum six electrons can be accommodated in p-subshell i.e., three p-orbitals, the p-block contains six groups numbered from 13 to 18 in the modem periodic table.
• The p-block elements show greater variation in the properties than s-block elements.

Question 2.
Write the names of the elements present in groups 13, 14 and 15.
Answer:

Group	Name of family	Name of the elements
13	Boron family	Boron (5B), aluminium (13Al), gallium (31Ga), indium (49In), thallium (81Tl)
14	Carbon family	Carbon (6C), silicon (14Si), germanium (32Ge), tin (50Sn), lead (82Pb)
15	Nitrogen family	Nitrogen (7N), phosphorus (15P), arsenic (33AS), antimony (51Sb), bismuth (83Bi)

Question 3.
i. Write the general outer electronic configuration of the elements of group 13, group 14 and group 15.
ii. By how many electrons do their outer electronic configurations differ from their nearest inert gas?
Answer:
i.

Group	General outer electronic configuration
13	ns2 np1
14	ns2 np2
15	ns2 np3

ii. The outer electronic configurations of the elements group 13, group 14 and group 15 differ from their nearest inert gas by 5, 4 and 3 electrons, respectively.

Question 4.
In which form do the elements of groups 13,14 and 15 occur in nature?
Answer:

• The elements of groups 13, 14 and 15 do not occur in free monoatomic state and are found as compounds with other elements.
• They also occur in the form of polyatomic molecules (such as N₂, P₄, C₆₀) or polyatomic covalent arrays (such as graphite, diamond).

Question 5.
Write condensed electronic configurations of the following elements.
₁₃Al, ₄₉In, ₁₄Si, ₅₀Sn, ₁₅P, ₃₃As
Answer:
Condensed electronic configurations of
i. ₁₃Al: [Ne]3s² 3p¹
ii. ₄₉In: [Kr]4d¹⁰5s²5p¹
iii. ₁₄Si: [Ne]3s²3p²
iv. ₅₀Sn: [Kr]4d¹⁰5s²5p²
v. ₁₅P: [Ne]3s²3p³
vi. ₃₃As: [Ar]3d¹⁰4s²4p³

Note: Condensed electronic configurations of elements of groups 13, 14 and 15 are given in the table below.

Question 6.
Name the following.
i. A metalloid present in group 13.
ii. A group 13 element which is the third most abundant element in the earth’s crust.
Answer:
i. Boron
ii. Aluminium

Question 7.
Why boron is classified as a metalloid?
Answer:
Boron is glossy and hard solid like metals but a poor conductor of electricity like nonmetals. Since it exhibits properties of both metals and nonmetals, boron is classified as a metalloid.

Question 8.
Describe the variation in the electronegativity of group 13 elements.
Answer:

• In group 13, on moving down the group, the electronegativity decreases from B to Al.
• However, there is a marginal increase in the electronegativity from Al to Tl.
• This trend is a result of the irregularities observed in atomic size of elements.

Question 9.
Atomic numbers of the group 13 elements are in the order B < Al < Ga < In < Tl. Arrange these elements in increasing order of ionic radii of M³⁺.
Answer:

• The given elements are in an increasing order of their atomic number.
• The general outer electronic configuration of group 13 elements is ns²np¹.
• M³⁺ ion is formed by the removal of three electrons from the outermost shell ‘n’.
• In the M³⁺ ions, the ‘n-1’ shell becomes the outermost shell. Size of the ‘n-1’ shell increases down the group.

Therefore, the ionic radii of M³⁺ ion increases down the group in the following order:
B³⁺ < Al³⁺ < Ga³⁺ < In³⁺ < Tl³⁺

Question 10.
Why the atomic radius of Gallium is less than that of aluminium?
Answer:

• Atomic radius of the elements increases down the group due to addition of new shells.
• Electronic configuration of Al is [Ne]3s²3p¹ while that of Ga is [Ar]3d¹⁰4s²4p¹.
• As Al does not have d-electrons, it offers an exception to this trend.
• As we go from Al down to Ga the nuclear charge increases by 18 units. Out of the 18 electrons added, 10 electrons are in the inner 3d subshell of Ga. These d-electrons offer poor shielding effect.
• Therefore, the effect of attraction due to increased nuclear charge is experienced prominently by the outer electrons of Ga and thus, its atomic radius becomes smaller than that of Al.

Hence, the atomic radius of gallium is less than that of aluminium.

Question 11.
The values of the first ionization enthalpy of Al, Si and P are 577, 786 and 1012 kJ mol^-1 respectively. Explain the observed trend.
Answer:

• The trend shows increasing first ionization enthalpy from Al to Si to P.
• Al, Si and P belong to the third period in the periodic table and hence, they have same valence shell.
• As we move across a period from left to right, the nuclear charge increases. Due to this, electrons in the valence shell are held more tightly by the nucleus as we go from Al to Si to P.
• Therefore, more energy is required to remove an electron from its outermost shell.

Hence, the value of first ionization enthalpy increases from Al to Si to P.

Note: Atomic and physical properties of group 13 elements.

Question 12.
Name metal(s), nonmetal(s) and metalloid(s) of group 14.
Answer:
i. Metal: Tin, lead
ii. Nonmetal: Carbon
iii. Metalloid: Silicon, germanium

Question 13.
Explain the variation in the following properties of the group 14 elements,
i. Atomic radii
ii. Ionization enthalpy
iii. Electronegativity
Answer:
i. Atomic radii (Covalent radii):

• In the periodic table as we move down the group 14 from C to Pb, the atomic radii increases due to the addition of new shell at each succeeding element.
• However, the increase is comparatively less after silicon due to poor shielding by inner d- and f-electrons in the atoms.

ii. Ionization enthalpy:

• Due to increased effective nuclear charge, group 14 elements have higher value of ionization enthalpy than corresponding group 13 elements.
• In the periodic table, as we move down the group 14 from C to Sn, the ionization enthalpy decreases.
• From Si to Sn, the ionization enthalpy decreases slightly.
• However, from Sn to Pb, the ionization enthalpy increases slightly. It is due to the poor shielding effect of intervening d and f orbitals and increase in the size of the atoms.

iii. Electronegativity:

• Due to small atomic size, group 14 elements are slightly more electronegative than the corresponding group 13 elements.
• As we move down the group 14 from C to Si in the periodic table, the electronegativity decreases.
• The electronegativity values for elements from Si to Pb are almost the same.
• Among group 14 elements, carbon is the most electronegative with electronegativity of 2.5.

Question 14.
Explain why there is a phenomenal decrease in ionization enthalpy from carbon to silicon.
Answer:

• Carbon is the first element of group 14 and thus, it has the smallest atomic size.
• The ionization enthalpy of carbon (1086 kJ mol^-1) is very high due to its small atomic size (77 pm) and high electronegativity (2.5).
• However, the ionization enthalpy of silicon (786 kJ mol^-1) decreases phenomenally due to the increase in its atomic size (118 pm) and low electronegativity (1.8).

Note: Atomic and physical properties of group 14 elements.

Question 15.
Which type of elements are present in group 15? Mention their physical state.
Answer:

• Group 15 includes all the three traditional types of elements i.e., metals, nonmetals and metalloids.
• Nitrogen is a gas whereas the remaining group 15 elements are solids.
• The gaseous nitrogen and brittle phosphorus are nonmetals.
• Arsenic and antimony are metalloids while bismuth is moderately reactive metal.

Question 16.
Explain the trends in physical properties of group 15 elements.
i. Atomic and ionic radii
ii. Ionization enthalpy
iii. Electronegativity
Answer:
i. Atomic and ionic radii:

• Atomic size increases down the group with increasing atomic number.
• The effective nuclear charge in case of group 15 elements is larger than that of group 14 elements. Due to the increased effective nuclear charge, electrons are strongly attracted by the nucleus. Thus, the atomic and ionic radii of group 15 elements are smaller than the atomic and ionic radii of the corresponding group 14 elements.
• On moving down the group, number of shells increases which leads to increased shielding effect and as a result atomic radii and ionic radii increases.

ii. Ionization enthalpy:

• Due to extra stability of half-filled p-orbitals and relatively smaller size of group 15 elements, ionization enthalpy of group 15 elements is much greater than that of the group 14 elements in the corresponding periods.
• On moving down the group, increase in atomic size and screening effect overcome the effective nuclear charge and thus, ionization enthalpy decreases.

iii. Electronegativity:

• Due to smaller size and greater effective nuclear charge of atoms, group 15 elements have higher electronegativity values than group 14 elements.
• On moving down the group, electronegativity values decreases due to increase in the size of the atoms and shielding effect.
• Nitrogen is the most electronegative element among group 15 elements. However, there is not much of a difference between the electronegativity values of other elements of group 15.

Note: Atomic and physical properties of group 15 elements.

Question 17.
Write a note on the oxidation state of p-block elements with respect to groups 13, 14 and 15 elements.
Answer:

• Oxidation state is the primary chemical property of all elements.
• The highest oxidation state exhibited by the p-block elements is equal to the total number of valence electrons i.e., the sum of s- and p-electrons present in the valence shell. This is sometimes called the group oxidation state.
• In boron, carbon and nitrogen families, the group oxidation state is the most stable oxidation state for the lighter elements.
• Besides, the elements of groups 13, 14 and 15 exhibit other oxidation states which are lower than the group oxidation state by two units.
• The lower oxidation states become increasingly stable as we move down to heavier elements in the groups.

Note: Group oxidation states and common oxidation states with examples for groups 13, 14 and 15.

Question 18.
What are general oxidation states of group 13 elements? Explain.
Answer:

• The general oxidation states of group 13 are +1 and +3.
• The group 13 elements have the outermost electronic configuration ns² np¹.
• If only np¹ electron takes part in bonding, the oxidation state is +1 and if all the three electrons i.e., ns² np¹ take part in bonding, the oxidation state is +3. Hence, the expected oxidation states are +1 and +3.

Question 19.
Give reason: The increased stability of the oxidation state is lowered by 2 units than the group oxidation state in heavier p-block elements.
Answer:

• The increased stability of the oxidation state lowered by 2 units than the group oxidation state in heavier p-block elements is due to inert pair effect.
• In these elements, the two s-electrons are involved less readily in chemical reactions.
• This is because, in heavier p-block elements, the s-electrons of valence shell experience poor shielding than valence p-electrons due to ten inner d-electrons.

Hence, the increased stability of the oxidation state is lowered by 2 units than the group oxidation state in heavier p-block elements.

Question 20.
Why Tl¹⁺ ion is more stable than Tl³⁺?
Answer:

• Tl is a heavy element which belongs to group 13 of the p-block.
• The common oxidation state for this group is +3.
• In p-block, the lower oxidation state is more stable for heavier elements due to inert pair effect.

Hence, Tl¹⁺ ion is more stable than Tl³⁺ ion.

Question 21.
How can you explain the higher stability of BCl₃ as compared to TlCl₃?
Answer:

• Boron is a light element in group 13 and has outermost electronic configuration 2s² 2p¹ whereas thallium is a heavy element in group 13 and has outermost electronic configuration 6s² 6p¹.
• Because of its small ionic radius, boron forms stable compounds in +3 oxidation state.
• Thallium has a large atomic size and due to the inert pair effect forms more stable compounds with lower oxidation state +1 than compounds with +3 oxidation state.

Therefore, BCl₃ has higher stability than TlCl₃.

Question 22.
State the oxidation state for the following:
i. The group oxidation state of group 14 elements.
ii. The stable oxidation state for lead.
iii. Oxidation state of carbon in CH₄.
Answer:
i. +4
ii. +2
iii. -4

Question 23.
GeCl4 is more stable than GeCl₂ while PbCl₂ is more stable than PbCl₄. Explain.
Answer:

• Elements Ge and Pb belong to 4th and 6th period in the group 14.
• The group oxidation state of group 14 elements is +4.
• However, the stability of other oxidation state which is lower by 2 units i.e., +2, increases down the group due to inert pair effect.
• Therefore, the stability of the oxidation state +4 is more in Ge than in Pb while the stability of the oxidation state +2 is more in Pb than in Ge.

Hence, GeCl₄ is more stable than GeCl₂ while PbCl₂ is more stable than PbCl₄.

Question 24.
Name the elements of group 14 which are generally occur in +2 oxidation state.
Answer:
The elements of group 14 that are generally occur in +2 oxidation state are tin (Sn) and lead (Pb).

Question 25.
Discuss the nature of bonding in compounds of group 13, 14 and 15 elements.
Answer:

• The lighter elements in groups 13, 14 and 15 have small atomic radii and high ionization enthalpy values. They form covalent bonds with other atoms by overlapping of valence shell orbitals.
• As we move down the group, the value of ionization enthalpy decreases. The atomic radius increases since the valence shell orbitals are more diffused.
• The heavier elements in these groups tend to form ionic bonds. The first member of these groups belongs to second period and do not have d orbitals and hence, B, C and N cannot expand their octet.
• The subsequent elements in the group possess vacant d orbital in their valence shell, which can expand their octet forming a variety of compounds.

Question 26.
Explain the reactivity of groups 13, 14 and 15 elements towards air.
Answer:
i. Group 13 elements:
a. On heating with air or oxygen, group 13 elements form oxide of the type E₂O₃.
\(4 \mathrm{E}_{(\mathrm{s})}+3 \mathrm{O}_{2(\mathrm{~g})} \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} 2 \mathrm{E}_{2} \mathrm{O}_{3(\mathrm{~s})}\) (where, E = B, Al, Ga, In, Tl)

b. At high temperature, group 13 elements also react with nitrogen present in the air to form corresponding nitrides.
\(2 \mathrm{E}_{(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{N}_{2(\mathrm{~g})} \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} 2 \mathrm{EN}_{(\mathrm{s})}\) (where, E = B, Al, Ga, In, Tl)

ii. Group 14 elements: The elements of group 14 on heating in air or oxygen form oxide of the type EO and EO₂ in accordance with the stable oxidation state and availability of oxygen.

iii. Group 15 elements: The elements of group 15 on heating in air or oxygen forms two types of oxide i.e., E₂O₃ and E₂O₅.

Due to increase in metallic character down the groups 13, 14 and 15, the nature of their oxides gradually varies from acidic through amphoteric to basic.
[Note: The temperature required for the reaction of nitrogen with oxygen is very high. This is produced by striking an electric arc.]

Question 27.
Classify the following oxides into acidic, basic or amphoteric.
B₂O₃, Ga₂O₃, Tl₂O₃, In₂O₃, Al₂O₃
Answer:

Acidic oxide	B2O3
Basic oxides	In2O3, Tl2O3
Amphoteric oxides	Al2O3, Ga2O3

Question 28.
Match the following.

	Column A		Column B
i.	N2O5	a.	Amphoteric
ii.	Bi2O3	b.	Acidic
iii.	Sb2O3	c.	Basic

Answer:
i – b,
ii – c,
iii – a

Note: Nature of stable oxides of groups 13, 14 and 15 elements

Question 29.
State TRUE or FALSE. Correct the false statement.
i. Sb is more stable in +3 oxidation state.
ii. Oxides of the type E₂O₅ are formed by group 15 elements.
iii. As₄O₆ is an acidic oxide.
Answer:
i. True
ii. True
iii. False
As₄O₆ is an amphoteric oxide.

Question 30.
What happens when the elements of groups 13, 14 and 15 react with water?
Answer:
i. Most of the elements of groups 13, 14 and 15 are unaffected by water.
ii. Aluminium reacts with water on heating and forms hydroxide while tin reacts with steam to form oxide.

iii. Lead is unaffected by water due to the formation of a protective film of oxide.

Question 31.
Why is phosphorus stored under water?
Answer:
Phosphorus is highly reactive and hence, it is stored under water to prevent its reaction with air as it catches fire on being exposed to air.

Question 32.
Explain the reactivity of group 13 elements towards halogens.
Answer:
i. All the elements of group 13 react directly with halogens to form trihalides (EX3).
2E_(S) + 3X_2(g) → 2EX_3(s) (where, E = B, Al, Ga, In and X = F, Cl, Br, I)
ii. Thallium is an exception as it forms monohalides (TlX).

Question 33.
Describe the reactivity of group 14 elements with halogens.
Answer:

• All the elements of group 14 (except carbon) react directly with halogens to form tetrahalides (EX₄).
• The heavy elements Ge and Pb form dihalides as well.
• Stability of dihalides increases down the group due to inert pair effect.
• The ionic character of halides also increases steadily down the group.

Question 34.
Discuss the reactivity of group 15 elements with halogens.
Answer:

• Elements of the group 15 reacts with halogens to form two series of halides i.e., trihalides (EX₃) and pentahalides (EX₅).
• The pentahalides possess more covalent character due to availability of vacant d orbitals of the valence shell for bonding.
• Nitrogen being second period element, does not have d orbitals in its valence shell, and therefore, does not form pentahalides.
• Trihalides of the group 15 elements are predominantly covalent except BiF₃. The only stable trihalide of nitrogen is NF₃.

Question 35.
Nitrogen does not form pentahalides. Give reason.
Answer:

• The electronic configuration of 7N is 1s² 2s² 2p³. It has 3 unpaired electrons which can form 3 covalent bonds, thus forming NX₃ molecule.
• Valence shell of nitrogen (n = 2) contains only s and p orbitals.
• Thus, due to the absence of d orbitals in the valence shell, nitrogen cannot expand its octet, therefore, it cannot form compounds like NCl₅ and NF₅.

Hence, nitrogen does not form pentahalides.

Question 36.
Nitrogen does not form NCl₅ or NF₅ but phosphorus can. Explain.
Answer:

• The electronic configuration of 7N is 1s2 2s2 2p3 while that of 15P is 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p³.
• As phosphorus contains d orbitals, it can expand its octet to form MX₃ as well MX₅ compounds.
• However, due to absence of d orbitals, nitrogen cannot form MX₃ or MX₅.

Hence, Nitrogen does not form NCl₅ or NF₅ but phosphoms can form compounds like PCl₅ or PF₅.

Question 37.
Define catenation.
Answer:
The property of self-linking of atoms of an element by covalent bonds to form chains and rings is called catenation.

Question 38.
Explain catenation of group 14 elements.
Answer:
i. The property of self-linking of atoms of an element by covalent bonds to form chains and rings is called catenation.
ii. The strength of the element-element bond determines the tendency of an element to form a chain.
iii. Among the elements of group 14, the bond strength is maximum for C-C bond (348 kJ mol^-1). Hence, carbon has maximum tendency for catenation.

Bond	Bond strength (Bond enthalpy kJ mol-1)
C-C	348
Si-Si	297
Ge-Ge	260
Sn-Sn	240

iv. From the values of bond enthalpy, it can be concluded that the tendency to form chains is maximum for carbon and much lesser for silicon. Germanium has still lesser tendency and tin has hardly any tendency for catenation. Lead does not show catenation.
Therefore, the order of catenation of group 14 elements is C >> Si > Ge = Sn.

Question 39.
State TRUE or FALSE. Correct the false statement.
i. Among the group 14 elements, Ge does not show the property of catenation.
Answer:
i. False
Among the group 14 elements, Pb (lead) does not shows the property of catenation.

Question 40.
Define allotropy.
Answer:
When a solid element exists in different crystalline forms with different physical properties such as colour, density, melting point, etc. the phenomenon is called allotropy.

Question 41.
i. What are allotropes?
ii. Name various allotropes of carbon.
Answer:
i. When a solid element exists in different crystalline forms with different physical properties such as colour, density, melting point, etc. the phenomenon is called allotropy and the individual crystalline forms are called allotropes.
ii. Diamond, graphite, fiillerenes, graphene and carbon nanotubes are various allotropes of carbon.

Question 42.
Explain the structure of diamond.
Answer:
Structure of diamond:

• In diamond, each carbon atom undergoes sp3 hybridization and is linked to four other carbon atoms in tetrahedral manner.
• The C – C bond length is 154 pm.
• The tetrahedra are linked together forming a three-dimensional network structure involving strong C-C single bonds which makes diamond the hardest natural substance.

Question 43.
Write physical properties of diamond. Also, state its uses.
Answer:
i. Physical properties

• Diamond is the hardest natural substance.
• It has abnormally high melting point (3930 °C).
• It is a bad conductor of electricity.

ii. Uses: Diamond is used

• for cutting glass and in drilling tools.
• for making dies for drawing thin wire from metal.
• for making jewellery.

Question 44.
Describe the structure of graphite.
Answer:

• Graphite is composed of layers of two-dimensional sheets of carbon atoms.
• Each sheet is made up of hexagonal net of sp² carbons bonded to three neighbours forming three bonds.
• The fourth electron in the unhybrid p-orbital of each carbon is shared by all carbon atoms resulting in a π bond. These it electrons are delocalized over the whole layer.
• The C – C bond length in graphite is 141.5 pm.
• The individual layers are held by weak van der Waals forces and separated by 335 pm.
• Graphite is soft and slippery and is thermodynamically most stable allotrope of carbon.

Question 45.
Diamond is very hard whereas graphite is soft. Explain.
Answer:

• Diamond has three-dimensional network of sp³ hybridized carbon atoms joined by extended covalent bonds which are difficult to break. Therefore, diamond is hard.
• Graphite has two-dimensional sheet like structure, like layers of hexagonal rings formed from sp² hybridized carbon atoms. These layers are held by weak van der Waals forces, which can be broken easily. Therefore, graphite is soft and slippery.

Hence, diamond is very hard whereas graphite is soft.

Question 46.
i. What are fullerenes?
ii. How are they prepared?
Answer:
i. Fullerenes are allotropes of carbon in which carbon molecules are linked by a definite numbers of carbon atoms, for example as in C₆₀.
ii. Fullerenes are produced when an electric arc is struck between the graphite electrodes in an inert atmosphere of argon or helium. The soot formed contains significant amount of C₆₀ fullerene and smaller amounts of other fullerenes C₃₂, C₅₀, C₇₀ and C₈₄.

Question 47.
Discuss the structure and properties of fullerene (C6o).
Answer:

• C₆₀ has a shape like soccer ball and called Buckminsterfullerene or bucky ball.
• It contains 20 hexagonal and 12 pentagonal fused rings of carbon.
• The C₆₀ fullerene structure exhibit separations between the neighbouring carbons as 143.5 pm and 138.3 pm.
• Fullerenes are covalent and soluble in organic solvents.
• Fullerene C₆₀ reacts with group 1 metals forming solids such as K₃C₆₀.
• The compound K₃C₆₀ behaves as a superconductor below 18 K, which means that its carries electric current with zero resistance.

Question 48.
Explain the structure of carbon nanotubes.
Answer:

• Carbon nanotubes are cylindrical in shape consisting of rolled-up graphite sheet.
• Nanotubes can be single-walled (SWNTs) with a diameter of less than 1 nm or multi-walled (MWNTs) with diameter reaching more than 100 nm.
• Their lengths range from several micrometres to millimetres.

Question 49.
Describe the properties of carbon nanotubes.
Answer:

• Carbon nanotubes are robust. They can be bent, and when released, they will spring back to the original shape.
• Carbon nanotubes have high electrical or heat conductivities and highest strength-to-weight ratio for any known material to date.
• The researchers of NASA are combining carbon nanotubes with other materials into composites that can be used to build lightweight spacecraft.

Question 50.
What is graphene?
Answer:

• Isolated layer of graphite is called graphene.
• Graphene sheet is a two dimensional solid.
• It has unique electronic properties.

Question 51.
Explain the structure of various allotropes of phosphorus.
Answer:
Phosphorus is found in different allotropic forms. White and red phosphorus are important allotropes of phosphorus.
i. White (yellow) phosphorus:

1. White (yellow) phosphorus consists of discrete tetrahedral P₄ molecules.
2. The P – P – P bond angle is 60°.
3. White phosphorus is less stable and hence more reactive, because of angular strain in the P₄ molecule.

ii. Red phosphorus:

• Red phosphorus consists of chains of P₄ linked together by covalent bonds.
• Thus, it is polymeric in nature.

Question 52.
Enlist properties of
i. white phosphorus.
ii. red phosphorus.
Answer:
i. Properties of white phosphorus:

• It is translucent white waxy solid.
• It glows in the dark (chemiluminescence).
• It is insoluble in water but dissolves in boiling NaOH solution.
• It is poisonous.

ii. Properties of red phosphorus:

• It is stable and less reactive.
• It is odourless and possess iron grey lustre.
• It does not glow in the dark.
• It is insoluble in water.
• It is nonpoisonous.

Question 53.
How is red phosphorus prepared?
Answer:
Red phosphorus is prepared by heating white phosphorus at 573 K in an inert atmosphere.

Question 54.
State whether the following statement is TRUE or FALSE. Correct if false.
i. Covalent molecules have irregular shape described with the help of bond lengths and bond angles.
ii. It is difficult to understand the reactivity of covalent inorganic compounds from their structures.
iii. Inorganic molecules are often represented by molecular formulae indicating their elemental composition.
Answer:
i. False
Covalent molecules have definite shape described with the help of bond lengths and bond angles.
ii. False
The reactivity of covalent inorganic compounds is better understood from their structures.
iii. True

Question 55.
Describe structure of the following molecules.
i. Boron trichloride
ii. Aluminium chloride
iii. Orthoboric acid
Answer:
i. Structure of boron trichloride (BCl₃) molecule:

• Boron trichloride (BCl₃) is a covalent compound.
• In BCl₃ molecule, boron atom is sp² hybridized having one vacant unhybridized p orbital.
• B in BCl₃ has incomplete octet.
• BCl₃ is a nonpolar trigonal planar molecule.
• Each Cl – B – Cl bond angle is 120°.

ii. Structure of aluminium chloride (AlCl₃) molecule:

• Aluminium atom in aluminium chloride is sp² hybridized, with one vacant unhybrid p-orbital.
• Aluminium chloride exists as the dimer (Al₂Cl₆) formed by overlap of vacant 3d orbital of Al with a lone pair of electrons of Cl.

iii. Structure of orthoboric or boric acid (H₃BO₃) molecule:

• Orthoboric acid has central boron atom bound to three -OH groups.
• The solid orthoboric acid has layered crystal structure in which trigonal planar B(OH)₃ units are joined together by hydrogen bonds.

Question 56.
Which are the different crystalline forms of silica?
Answer:
Quartz, cristobalite and tridymite are the different crystalline forms of silica.
[Note: These crystalline forms are inter-convertible at a suitable temperature.]

Question 57.
Explain the structure of silicon dioxide.
Answer:

• Silicon dioxide (SiO₂), is also known as silica.
• It is a covalent three-dimensional network solid.
• In SiO₂, each silicon atom is covalently bound in tetrahedral manner to four oxygen atoms.
• The crystal contains eight membered rings having alternate silicon and oxygen atoms.

Question 58.
Discuss the nature and structure of the following compounds.
i. Nitric acid
ii. Phosphoric acid
Answer:
i. Nitric acid:

• Nitric acid (HNO₃) is a strong, oxidizing mineral acid.
• The central nitrogen atom is sp² hybridized.
• HNO₃ exhibits resonance phenomenon.
• Figure (a) represents resonating structures of HNO₃ while figure (b) represents resonance hybrid of HNO₃.

ii. Phosphoric acid (Orthophosphoric acid):

• Phosphorus forms number of oxyacids. Orthophosphoric acid (H₃PO₄) is a strong nontoxic mineral acid.
• It contains three ionizable acidic hydrogens.
• The central phosphorus atom is tetrahedral.

Question 59.
Give the molecular formula of crystalline borax.
Answer:
The crystalline borax has formula Na₂B₄O₇.10H₂O or Na₂[B₄O₅(OH)₄].8H₂O.

Question 60.
How is borax obtained from its mineral colemanite?
Answer:
Borax is obtained from its mineral colemanite by boiling it with a solution of sodium carbonate.

Question 61.
Why is the aqueous solution of borax alkaline?
Answer:
On hydrolysis, borax forms a strong base (NaOH) and a weak acid (H₃BO₃). The presence of the strong base makes borax solution alkaline.

Question 62.
What happens when borax is heated strongly?
Answer:
Borax is a white crystalline solid. On heating, borax loses water molecules and swells up. On further heating, it melts and forms a transparent liquid, which solidifies into a glass like material known as borax bead.

Question 63.
Explain borax bead test.
Answer:
i. Borax bead test is used to detect coloured transition metal ions.
ii. On heating, borax loses water molecules and swells up. On further heating, it melts and forms a transparent liquid, which solidifies into a glass like material known as borax bead.

iii. The borax bead consists of sodium metaborate and boric anhydride, which reacts with metals salts to form coloured bead.
e.g. When borax is heated in a Bunsen burner flame with CoO on a loop of platinum wire, a blue coloured Co(BO₂)₂ bead is formed.

Question 64.
Write the uses of borax.
Answer:
Borax is used

• to manufacture optical and hard borosilicate glasses.
• as a flux for soldering and welding.
• as a mild antiseptic in the preparation of medical soaps.
• in qualitative analysis for borax bead test.
• as a brightener in washing powder.

Question 65.
How are silicones prepared? Write their properties.
Answer:
i. Preparation of silicones:
a. Alkyl or aryl substituted silicon chlorides having general formula R_nSiCl_(4-n) (R = alkyl or aryl group) are used as the starting materials for manufacture of silicones.
b. When methyl chloride reacts with silicon in the presence of copper catalyst at a temperature 573 K, various types of methyl substituted chlorosilane of formula MeSiCl₃, Me₂SiCl₂, Me₃SiCl with small amounts of Me₄Si are formed.

c. Hydrolysis of dimethyldichlorosilane, (CH₃)₂SiCl₂ followed by condensation polymerisation yields straight chain silicone polymers.

d. The chain length of polymer can be controlled by adding (CH₃)₃SiCl at the end.

ii. Properties:

• Silicones are water repellent.
• They have high thermal stability.
• They are good electrical insulators.
• They are resistant to oxidation and chemicals.

Question 66.
Explain the preparation of ammonia from nitrogeneous organic matter.
Answer:
Ammonia is formed by the decomposition of nitrogeneous organic matter such as urea. It is therefore, present naturally in small quantities in air and soil.

Question 67.
Describe laboratory method for preparation of ammonia.
Answer:
Ammonia is prepared on laboratory scale by decomposition of the ammonium salts with calcium hydroxide or caustic soda.

Question 68.
How is ammonia manufactured by Haber process?
Answer:

• On the large scale, ammonia is prepared by direct combination of dinitrogen and dihydrogen by Haber process.
• In this process, dinitrogen reacts with dihydrogen under high pressure of 200 × 10⁵ Pa (200 atm) and temperature around 700 K to produce ammonia.
  N_2(g) + 2H_2(g) ⇌ 2NH_3(g); Δ_fH° = -46.1 kJ mol^-1
• Iron oxide with trace amounts of K₂O and Al₂O₃ is used as catalyst in Haber process.
• High pressure favours the formation of ammonia as equilibrium is attained rapidly under these conditions.

Question 69.
State the physical properties of ammonia.
Answer:

• Ammonia is a colourless gas with pungent odour.
• It has freezing point of 198.4 K and boiling point of 239.7 K.
• It is highly soluble in water.

Question 70.
What is liquor ammonia?
Answer:
The concentrated aqueous solution of ammonia (NH₃) is called liquor ammonia.

Question 71.
Give reason: Ammonia has higher melting and boiling points.
Answer:

• In solid and liquid state, NH₃ molecules get associated together through hydrogen bonding.
• As a result, extra amount of energy is required to break such intermolecular hydrogen bonds. Hence, ammonia has higher melting and boiling points.

Question 72.
Why is ammonia basic in aqueous solution?
Answer:
i. As ammonia is highly soluble in water, it readily forms OH^– ions in its aqueous solution.
\(\mathrm{NH}_{3(\mathrm{~g})}+\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}_{(l)} \rightleftharpoons \mathrm{NH}_{4(\mathrm{aq})}^{+}+\mathrm{OH}_{(a q)}^{-}\)
ii. Thus, due to the formation of OH^– ions, aqueous solution of ammonia is basic in nature.

Question 73.
How does the aqueous solution of ammonia react with the following salt solutions?
i. ZnSO₄
ii. FeCl₃
Answer:
Aqueous solution of ammonia precipitates out as hydroxides (or hydrated oxides) of metals solutions.

Question 74.
Write applications of ammonia.
Answer:
Ammonia is used in

• manufacture of fertilizers such as urea, diammonium phosphate, ammonium nitrate, ammonium sulphate etc.
• manufacture of some inorganic compounds like nitric acid.
• refrigerant (liq. ammonia).
• laboratory reagent in qualitative and quantitative analysis (aq. solution of ammonia).

Question 75.
Give reactions involved in the formation of Nessler’s reagent.
Answer:

Question 76.
How does ammonia react with Nessler’s reagent?
Answer:
Ammonia react with Nessler’s reagent (an alkaline solution of K₂HgI₄) to form a brown precipitate (Millon’s base).

Question 77.
Complete and write the balanced chemical equations for:
i. Ca₂B₆O₁₁ + Na₂CO₃ →
ii. CoO + B₂O₃ →
iii. AgCl + NH₃ →
iv. ZnSO₄ + 2NH₄OH →
v. a. 2KI + HgCl₂ →
b. 2KI + HgI₂ →
Answer:

Question 78.
Naina was preparing a compound in the laboratory. She added compound ‘A’ to (CaOH)₂ solution. As a result of this, a compound ‘B’ was obtained which had a pungent smell. On adding Nessler’s reagent to the compound ‘B’, a brown precipitate of compound ‘C’ was obtained.
Write the chemical reactions involved and identify ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’.
Answer:
i. When ammonium chloride is mixed with (CaOH)₂ solution, ammonia is formed which has a pungent odour.

ii. Ammonia react with Nessler’ s reagent (an alkaline solution of K₂Hgl₄) to form a brown precipitate (Millon’ s base).

Multiple Choice Questions

1. The electronic configuration of boron family is ……………
(A) ns² np²
(B) ns² np⁵
(C) ns² np⁶
(D) ns² np¹
Answer:
(D) ns² np¹

2. ………… has noble gas core plus 14 f-electrons and 10 d-electrons.
(A) Gallium
(B) Indium
(C) Thallium
(D) Boron
Answer:
(C) Thallium

3. The group 15 element having inner electronic configuration as of argon is …………..
(A) Phosphorus (Z = 15)
(B) Antimony (Z = 51)
(C) Arsenic (Z = 33)
(D) Nitrogen (Z = 7)
Answer:
(C) Arsenic (Z = 33)

4. Which of the following is NOT a metalloid?
(A) B
(B) Sn
(C) Ge
(D) Sb
Answer:
(B) Sn

5. Among the group 13 elements, melting point is highest for …………..
(A) B
(B) Al
(C) Ga
(D) In
Answer:
(A) B

6. On moving down the group 14, the ionization enthalpy
(A) increases slightly from Si to Sn and decreases slightly from Sn to Pb
(B) increases throughout uniformly from Si to Pb
(C) decreases throughout uniformly from Si to Pb
(D) decreases slightly from Si to Sn and increases slightly from Sn to Pb
Answer:
(D) decreases slightly from Si to Sn and increases slightly from Sn to Pb

7. ………… is the most electronegative element of group 14.
(A) Carbon
(B) Silicon
(C) Germanium
(D) Tin
Answer:
(A) Carbon

8. The stability of +3 oxidation state in aqueous solution is in order ……………
(A) Al > Ga > In > Tl
(B) Tl > In > Ga > Al
(C) Al > Tl > Ga > In
(D) Tl > Al > Ga > In
Answer:
(A) Al > Ga > In > Tl

9. Group oxidation state of group 15 elements is ……………
(A) +4
(B) +1
(C) +3
(D) +5
Answer:
(D) +5

10. …………. cannot expand its octet due to absence of d orbital in its valence shell.
(A) Ga
(B) C
(C) As
(D) Ge
Answer:
(B) C

11. Which one of the following statements about boron and aluminium is INCORRECT?
(A) Both exhibit oxidation state of +3.
(B) Both form oxides of the formula M₂O₃.
(C) Both form trihalides, MX₃.
(D) Both form amphoteric oxides.
Answer:
(D) Both form amphoteric oxides.

12. Which of the following is basic oxide?
(A) Bi₂O₃
(B) CO₂
(C) B₂O₃
(D) SiO₂
Answer:
(A) Bi₂O₃

13. The reaction of Al with H₂O produces ……………
(A) Al₂O₃
(B) AlH₃
(C) Al(OH)₃
(D) Al₂H₆
Answer:
(C) Al(OH)₃

14. Which of the following is a stable halide of nitrogen?
(A) NF₃
(B) NCl₅
(C) NF₅
(D) NBr₅
Answer:
(A) NF₃

15. Catenation is the ability of …………..
(A) atoms to form strong bonds with similar atoms
(B) elements to form giant molecules
(C) an element to form multiple bonds
(D) an element to form long chains of identical atoms
Answer:
(D) an element to form long chains of identical atoms

16. Among the group 13 elements, the property of allotropy is shown by ………………
(A) indium
(B) aluminium
(C) thallium
(D) boron
Answer:
(D) boron

17. Thermodynamically stable allotrope of carbon is …………..
(A) diamond
(B) graphite
(C) buckyball
(D) all of these
Answer:
(B) graphite

18. White phosphorus contains discrete …………… molecules.
(A) P₅
(B) P₄
(C) P₆
(D) P₅₂
Answer:
(B) P₄

19. In white phosphorus, the P-P-P bond angle is ……………
(A) 60°
(B) 90°
(C) 109.5
(D) 120°
Answer:
(A) 60°

20. 3c-2e bonds are present in ………………
(A) NH₃
(B) B₂H₆
(C) H₃BO₃
(D) SiCl₄
Answer:
(B) B₂H₆

21. Which of the following is borax?
(A) Na₂B₄O₇.4H₂O
(B) Na₂B₄O₇.10H₂O
(C) H₃BO₃
(D) NaBO₂
Answer:
(B) Na₂B₄O₇.10H₂O

22. In Borax bead test, the coloured ions give characteristic coloured beads due to formation of …………….
(A) metal borates
(B) metal metaborates
(C) metal phosphates
(D) metal tetraborates
Answer:
(B) metal metaborates

23. The catalyst used in Haber process contains …………..
(A) nickel
(B) palladium
(C) iron
(D) platinum
Answer:
(C) iron

24. Which of the following is used as refrigerant?
(A) Nessler’s reagent
(B) Liq. ammonia
(C) Borax
(D) Diborane
Answer:
(B) Liq. ammonia

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 Elements of Group 1 and 2 Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 Elements of Group 1 and 2

Question 1.
Why is hydrogen studied separately even though it appears at the top of group 1?
Answer:
Even though hydrogen appears at the top of the group 1 containing alkali metals, it is studied separately because many of its properties differ from that of the alkali metals.

Question 2.
Give reason: Hydrogen (H₂) molecule is also referred to as dihydrogen.
Answer:

• The nucleus of a hydrogen atom consists of one positively charged proton i.e., nuclear charge of +1 and one extranuclear electron.
• As this electron is in direct influence of nuclear attraction, hydrogen has a little tendency to lose this electron.
• However, it can easily pair with the other electron forming a covalent bond.
• Therefore, it exists in diatomic form as H₂ molecule and hence, it is also referred to as dihydrogen.

Question 3.
Why does hydrogen occur in a diatomic form rather than in monoatomic form under normal
conditions?
Answer:

• Hydrogen atom has only one electron in its valence shell having electronic configuration 1s¹.
• It can acquire stable configuration of helium by sharing this electron with another hydrogen atom.
• Therefore, it shares its single electron with electron of the other H-atom to achieve stable inert gas configuration of He.
• Thus, hydrogen readily forms diatomic molecule and exists as H₂ rather than in monoatomic form.

Question 4.
Write a note on occurrence of hydrogen.
Answer:

• In the free state hydrogen exists as dihydrogen gas.
• Hydrogen is most abundant element in the universe and constitutes 70% of the total mass of the universe.
• Hydrogen is also the principal element in the solar system.
• On the earth, hydrogen is the tenth most abundant element on mass basis and the third most abundant element on atom basis.

Question 5.
State whether the following statements are TRUE or FALSE. Correct the false statement.
1. Electronic configuration of hydrogen is 1s¹.
ii. H⁺ ion formed by loss of the electron from hydrogen atom exists freely.
iii. H⁺ is nothing but a proton.
iv. Metastable metallic hydrogen was discovered at Harvard university, USA, in January 2017.
Answer:
i. True
ii. False
Hydrogen atom does not exist freely and is always associated with other molecules i.e., H₃O⁺.
iii. True
iv. True

Question 6.
Explain the laboratory methods for preparation of dihydrogen.
Answer:
Laboratory methods for preparation of dihydrogen:
i. By action of dilute HCl on zinc granules: Zinc granules on reaction with dilute hydrochloric acid (HCl) liberates hydrogen gas.

ii. By action of aqueous NaOH on zinc: Zinc on reaction with aqueous sodium hydroxide (NaOH) forms soluble sodium zincate and liberates hydrogen gas.

Question 7.
Describe the industrial method of preparation of dihydrogen by electrolysis of pure water.
Answer:
i. Pure water is a poor conductor of electricity. Therefore, a dilute aqueous solution of acid or alkali is used to prepare dihydrogen by electrolysis.
ii. For example, electrolysis of dilute aqueous solution of sulphuric acid yields two volumes of hydrogen at cathode and one volume of oxygen at anode.

Question 8.
How is pure dihydrogen (> 99.5% purity) gas obtained from barium hydroxide?
Answer:
Electrolysis of warm aqueous solution of barium hydroxide using nickel electrodes yields pure dihydrogen (> 99.5% purity).

Question 9.
Explain the terms:
i. Syngas
ii. Water-gas shift reaction.
Answer:
i. Syngas:

• Syngas is the mixture of CO and H₂. It is also called ‘water-gas’.
• It is used for the synthesis of CH₃OH and many hydrocarbons, hence, the name syngas or ‘synthesis gas’.
• Production of syngas is also the first stage of gasification of coal.

ii. Water-gas shift reaction:
The carbon monoxide in the water-gas is transformed into carbon dioxide by reacting with steam in presence of iron chromate as catalyst.

This reaction is called water-gas shift reaction.

Question 10.
Complete the following chemical reactions:

Answer:

Question 11.
Enlist physical properties of dihydrogen.
Answer:
Physical properties of dihydrogen:

• Dihydrogen is a colourless, tasteless and odourless gas.
• It bums with a pale blue flame.
• It is a nonpolar and water-insoluble gas.
• It is lighter than air.

Question 12.
What is the action of dihydrogen on the following?
i. Metals
ii. Dioxygen
Answer:
i. Action of dihydrogen on metals:
a. Dihydrogen combines with all the reactive metals including alkali metals, calcium, strontium and barium at high temperature to form metal hydrides.
b. For example: Dihydrogen combines with metallic sodium at high temperature to yield sodium hydride.

ii. Action of dihydrogen on dioxygen: Dihydrogen reacts with dioxygen in the presence of catalyst or by heating to form water. This reaction is highly exothermic.

Question 13.
Explain the effect of high bond dissociation energy of H-H bond on chemical reactivity of dihydrogen?
Answer:

• The bond dissociation energy of H-H bond is very high i.e, 436 kJ mol^-1. and thus, it does not react easily under normal conditions.
• However, at high temperature or in the presence of catalysts, hydrogen combines with many metals and non-metals to form corresponding hydrides and halides respectively.

Question 14.
What happens when dihydrogen reacts with halogens?
Answer:
i. Dihydrogen reacts with halogens (X₂) to give the corresponding hydrogen halides (HX).

ii. Dihydrogen reacts with fluorine to form hydrogen fluoride even at very low temperature (-250°C) in dark.

iii. However, the reaction with iodine requires a catalyst as the vigour of reaction of dihydrogen decreases with increasing atomic number of halogen.

Question 15.
Explain the reducing nature of hydrogen with chemical reactions.
Answer:
Dihydrogen reduces oxides and ions of some metals that are less reactive than iron, to the corresponding number of halogen metals at moderate temperature.
e.g.
i. CuO_(s) + H_2(g) → Cu_(s) + H₂O_(l)
ii. Fe₃O_4(s) + 4H_2(g) → 3Fe_(s) + 4H₂O_(s)
iii. Pd²⁺_(aq) + H_2(g) → Pd_(s) + 2H⁺_(aq)

Question 16.
What is hydrogenation?
Answer:
Hydrogenation is the reaction in which hydrogen gas reacts with unsaturated organic compounds in the presence of a catalyst to form hydrogenated (saturated) compounds.

Question 17.
How does dihydrogen react with various organic compounds to give useful, commercially important products?
Answer:
i. Hydrogenation of unsaturated organic compounds:
e.g. Hydrogenation of unsaturated organic compounds such as vegetable oil using nickel catalyst gives saturated organic compounds such as solid edible fats like vanaspati ghee.

ii. Hydroformylation of olefins and subsequent reduction of aldehyde to form alcohol:

Question 18.
Explain hydroformylation reaction of olefins using a suitable example.
Answer:
Hydroformylation of olefins gives aldehydes which on further reduction gives alcohols.
e.g. i. Hydroformylation of propene gives butyraldehyde.

ii. Butyraldehyde further undergoes reduction to give n-butyl alcohol.

Question 19.
What are the uses of dihydrogen?
Answer:
Dihydrogen is used in

• the production of ammonia.
• the formation of vanaspati ghee by catalytic hydrogenation of oils.
• rocket fuel (mixture of liquid hydrogen and liquid oxygen).
• the preparation of important organic compounds like methanol in bulk quantity.
  \(2 \mathrm{H}_{2(\mathrm{~g})}+\mathrm{CO}_{(\mathrm{g})} \stackrel{\text { Cobaltcatalyst }}{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{CH}_{3} \mathrm{OH}_{(l)}\)
• the preparation of hydrogen chloride (HCl) and metal hydrides.

Question 20.
Justify the placement of hydrogen in the group of alkali metals with the help of reaction with halogens.
Answer:
i. Hydrogen on reaction with halogens (X₂) give compounds with general formula HX.
e.g. H₂ + Cl₂ → 2HCl
ii. Similarly, alkali metals (M) on reaction with halogens (X₂) give compounds with general formula MX.
e.g. 2Na + Cl₂ → 2NaCl
iii. Thus, H₂ and alkali metals are monovalent elements and more electropositive than halogens. This similarity justifies the position of hydrogen in the group 1.

Question 21.
What do you mean by s-block elements? Where are they placed in the modern periodic table?
Answer:

• Elements of group 1 and group 2 in which the last electron enters into ‘ns’ subshell are s-block elements.
• The s-block elements are placed on the extreme left in the modem periodic table.

Question 22.
Name elements of group 1 and group 2.
Answer:

• Group 1 of the periodic table consists of the elements: hydrogen, lithium, sodium, potassium, rubidium, caesium and francium.
• Group 2 of the periodic table consists of elements: beryllium, magnesium, calcium, strontium, barium and radium.

Question 23.
What are alkali metals?
Answer:
The elements of group 1 except hydrogen are collectively called alkali metals.

Question 24.
What are alkaline earth metals?
Answer:
The elements of group 2 are collectively called alkaline earth metals because they occur as minerals in rocks.

Question 25.
Write a note on occurrence of group 1 and group 2 elements:
Answer:
i. Group 1 (alkali metals):

• Two elements of group 1 i.e., sodium and potassium are the sixth and seventh most abundant elements present in the earth’s crust.
• However, francium does not occur appreciably in nature because it is radioactive and has short half-life period.

ii. Group 2 (alkaline earth metals):

• The elements magnesium and calcium are found abundantly in earth’s crust.
• Radium is radioactive and is not easy to find.

Question 26.
Give reasons: s-block elements are never found in free state in nature.
Answer:

• s-Block elements contain group 1 and group 2 elements.
• The general outer electronic configuration of the group 1 elements is ns¹ and that of the group 2 elements is ns².
• The loosely held s-electrons in the valence shell of these elements can be easily removed to form metal ions.
• As a result, they are highly reactive in nature and always found in combined state.

Hence, s-block elements are never found in free state in nature.

Note: Electronic configurations of group 1 elements

Note: Electronic configurations of group 2 elements

Question 27.
Describe the physical properties of alkali and alkaline earth metals.
Answer:

• All the alkali and alkaline earth metals are silvery white in appearance.
• Due to their large atomic size they have low density.
• Both alkali and alkaline earth metals are soft, however, alkaline earth metals are harder than the alkali metals.
• Alkali metals are the most electropositive elements while alkaline earth metals are comparatively less electropositive than alkali metals.

Question 28.
Explain why do the group 1 and group 2 elements form diamagnetic and colourless compounds.
Answer:

• Unipositive ions of all the elements of group 1 have inert gas configuration and hence, they have no unpaired electron.
• Similarly, group 2 elements can lose their two valence shell electrons and form divalent ions that have inert gas configuration with no unpaired electrons.

Hence, due to the absence of unpaired electrons, compounds formed by group 1 and group 2 elements are diamagnetic and colourless.

Question 29.
Why do the properties of lithium and beryllium differ from the rest of the group 1 and group 2 elements?
Answer:
The properties of lithium and beryllium differ from the rest of the group 1 and group 2 elements due to their extremely small size and comparatively high electronegativity.

Question 30.
Complete the following table.

Group 1 elements	Group 2 elements
……………….	Alkaline earth metals
Outer electronic configuration: ……………….	Outer electronic configuration: ns2
Monovalent positive ions	……………….

Answer:

Group 1 elements	Group 2 elements
Alkali metals	Alkaline earth metals
Outer electronic configuration: ns1	Outer electronic configuration: ns2
Monovalent positive ions	Divalent positive ions

Question 31.
State the trends in the following properties of group 1 and group 2 elements down a group.
i. Atomic radii
ii. Ionic radii
iii. Ionization enthalpy
iv. Electronegativity
v. Standard reduction potential
Answer:

Sr. no.	Property	Down a group
i.	Atomic radii	Increases
ii.	Ionic radii	Increases
iii.	Ionization enthalpy	Decreases
iv.	Electronegativity	Decreases
V.	Standard reduction potential	Decreases

Question 32.
Give reasons: Potassium superoxide is used in breathing equipment used for mountaineers and in submarines and space.
Answer:
i. Potassium superoxide has ability to absorb carbon dioxide and give out oxygen at the same time.

ii. Due to this property of KO₂, it is used in breathing equipment used for mountaineers and in submarines and space.

Question 33.
What is the oxidation state of:
i. Na in Na₂O₂?
ii. K in KO₂?
Answer:
i. Oxidation state of Na in sodium peroxide (Na₂O₂):
Let x be the oxidation state of Na in Na₂O₂.
The net charge on peroxide ion \(\left(\mathrm{O}_{2}^{2-}\right)\) is -2.
Since any compound is electrically neutral, it has an overall charge as zero.
∴ 2x + (-2) = 0
∴ x = + 1
∴ Oxidation state of Na in Na₂O₂ is +1.

ii. Oxidation state of K in potassium dioxide/potassium superoxide (KO₂):
Let x be the oxidation state of K in KO₂
The net charge on superoxide ion \(\left(\mathrm{O}_{2}^{-}\right)\) is -1.
Since any compound is electrically neutral, it has an overall charge as zero.
∴ x + (-1) = 0
x = + 1
∴ Oxidation state of K in KO₂ is + 1.
[Note: Oxidation state of alkali metal is always +1.]

Question 34.
Magnesium strip slowly tarnishes on keeping in air but metallic calcium is readily attacked by air. Explain.
Answer:

• The reactivity of group 2 metals increases with increasing atomic radius and lowering of ionization enthalpy
  down the groups.
• Thus, calcium has lower ionization enthalpy. Therefore, calcium is more reactive than magnesium.
• Hence, Mg reacts slowly with air forming a thin film of oxide resulting into tarnishing, whereas Ca reacts readily at room temperature with oxygen and nitrogen in the air.

Question 35.
What happens when alkali metals react with hydrogen and halogens?
Answer:
i. Reaction with hydrogen: Alkali metals react with hydrogen at high temperature to form the Corresponding metal hydrides.

ii. Reaction with halogens: All the alkali metals react vigorously with halogens to produce their ionic halide salts.

[Note: As we move down the group, the reactivity of alkali metals towards hydrogen and halogens decreases in the following order: Li > Na > K > Rb > Cs.]

Question 36.
NaCl is an ionic compound but LiCl has some covalent character, explain.
Answer:

• Li⁺ ion has very small size and therefore, the charge density on Li⁺ is high.
• Due to this, it has high tendency to distort the electron cloud around the negatively charged chloride ion (Cl^–) which is larger in size.
• This results in partial covalent character of the LiCl bond.
• Na⁺ ion cannot distort the electron cloud of Cl^– due to the bigger size of Na⁺ compared to Li⁺.

Hence, NaCl is an ionic compound but LiCl has some covalent character.

Question 37.
Why is lithium iodide most covalent in nature among alkali halides?
Answer:

• Among the alkali metal ions, Li⁺ ion is the smallest cation while among halides, anion I^– has the largest size.
• Thus, electron cloud around I^– ion is easily distorted by Li⁺ ion leading to polarisation of anion and covalency.
• Also, the difference in electronegativities of Li and I is small.

Hence, lithium iodide is most covalent in nature among alkali halides.

Question 38.
Explain the reactivity of alkaline earth metals towards:
i. Water
ii. Hydrogen
iii. Halogens
Answer:
i. Reaction with water:
a. The elements of group 2 (alkaline earth metals) react with water to form metal hydroxide and evolve hydrogen gas.

b. Be does not react with water at all, Mg reacts with boiling water while Ca, Sr, Ba react vigorously even with cold water.

ii. Reaction with hydrogen: All alkaline earth metals except beryllium (Be), when heated with hydrogen form MH₂ type hydrides.

iii. Reaction with halogens: All the alkaline earth metals combine with halogens at high temperature to form their corresponding halides.

[Note: As we move down the group, the chemical reactivity of alkaline earth metals increases in the order Mg < Ca < Sr < Ba.]

Question 39.
Complete the following chemical equations.

Answer:

Question 40.
Describe the reducing nature of group 1 and group 2 elements.
Answer:
The reducing power of an element is measured in terms of standard electrode potential (E0) corresponding to the following transformation i.e, tendency to lose electron.
\(\mathrm{M}_{(\mathrm{s})} \longrightarrow \mathrm{M}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{+}+\mathrm{e}^{-}\)
i. Reducing nature of group 1 elements:

• All the alkali metals have high negative values of E⁰ which indicates that they have strong reducing nature and hence, they can be used as strong reducing agents.
• Lithium is the most powerful and sodium is the least powerful reducing agent in the group.

ii. Reducing nature of group 2 elements:

• All the alkaline earth metals have high negative values of stanard reduction potential (E⁰) and are strong reducing agents.
• However, reducing power of alkaline earth metals is less than that of alkali metals.

Question 41.
Explain the nature of the solution formed by group 1 and group 2 metals in liquid ammonia.
Answer:
i. The alkali metals are soluble in liquid ammonia and thus, they dissolve in it giving deep blue solutions which are conducting in nature.
M + (x + y)NH₃ → [M(NH₃)_x]⁺ + [e(NH₃)_y]^–
ii. The blue colour of the solution is due to the ammoniated electron.
iii. These solutions are paramagnetic and on standing slowly liberate hydrogen resulting in the formation of amide.
\(\mathrm{M}_{(\mathrm{am})}^{+}+\mathrm{e}^{-}+\mathrm{NH}_{3(l)} \longrightarrow \mathrm{MNH}_{2(\mathrm{am})}+\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{H}_{2(\mathrm{~g})}\)
(where ‘am’ denotes solution in ammonia.)
iv. As a result, the blue colour of the solution changes to bronze and the solution becomes diamagnetic.
v. Similarly, the alkaline earth metals are also soluble in liquid ammonia which give deep blue-black coloured solutions.
M + (x + 2y) NH₃ → [M(NH₃)_x]²⁺ + 2[e(NH₃)_y]^–

Question 42.
Explain: Diagonal relationship in group 1 and group 2.
Answer:

• Elements belonging to the same group are expected to exhibit similarity and gradation in their properties.
• However, first alkali metal, lithium, and the first alkaline earth metal, beryllium, do not fulfil this expectation.
• Thus, lithium shows many differences when compared with the remaining alkali metals and shows similarity with magnesium, the second alkaline earth metal.
• Similarly, beryllium shows many differences with remaining alkaline earth metals and shows similarity with aluminium, the second element of the next main group i.e., group 13.
• The relative placement of these elements with similar properties in the periodic table is across a diagonal and thus, it is called diagonal relationship.

Question 43.
Explain diagonal relationship between lithium and magnesium with respect to:
i. Property of chlorides
ii. Thermal decomposition of their carbonates
Answer:
Both lithium and magnesium show similarities in various physical and chemical properties as follows:
i. Property of chlorides: Chlorides of lithium (LiCl) and magnesium (MgCl₂) are deliquescent as group 2 elements form deliquescent chlorides. These chlorides form corresponding hydrates (LiCl.2H₂O and MgCl₂.8H₂O) on crystallization from their aqueous solutions.

ii. Thermal decomposition of carbonates: Heating of lithium carbonate and magnesium carbonate results in their easy decomposition to form corresponding oxides and carbon dioxide (CO₂).

Question 44.
Mention the properties of lithium that differ from rest of the alkali group metals.
Answer:

• Reaction with nitrogen: Only lithium from alkali group metals reacts with nitrogen present in the air on heating, while rest of the members do not react with nitrogen.
• Thermal decomposition of carbonates: Alkali metal carbonates show no reaction on heating, while lithium carbonate decomposes on heating to form the corresponding oxide and liberate carbon dioxide gas.
• Property of chlorides: Lithium (LiCl) is deliquescent and forms corresponding hydrate (LiCl.2H₂O). Other alkali chlorides are not deliquescent and do not form hydrates.

Question 45.
Write a note on the diagonal relationship between Be and Al.
OR
What are the similarities between beryllium and aluminium?
Answer:
i. Beryllium is placed in the group 2 and period 2 of the modem periodic table. It resembles aluminium which is placed in group 13 and period 3.

ii. Due to nearly same charge to radius ratio of their ions, beryllium (\(\frac {2}{31}\) = 0.065) and aluminium (\(\frac {3}{53.55}\) = 0.056) exhibit diagonal relationship.
iii. Due to diagonal relationship, Be and Al show following similarities in their properties:
a. Nature of bonding: Both Be and Al have tendency to form covalent chlorides.

b. Lewis acids: BeCl₂ and AlCl₃ act as Lewis acids.
c. Solubility in organic solvents: BeCl₂ and AlCl₃ are soluble in organic solvents.
d. Nature of oxide: Both Be and Al form amphoteric oxides.

Question 46.
Explain the amphoteric nature of aluminium oxide with the help of reactions.
Answer:
Al₂O₃ (magnesium oxide) reacts with both acid (HCl) as well as base (NaOH) to form the corresponding products and therefore, it is amphoteric in nature.

Question 47.
Beryllium shows many differences with other alkaline earth metals. Discuss these differences with respect to chlorides and oxides.
Answer:
1. Properties of chlorides: Beryllium chloride is covalent whereas chlorides formed by other alkaline earth metals are ionic in nature. Beryllium chloride is a strong Lewis acid whereas chlorides formed by other alkaline earth metals are not Lewis acids. Beryllium chloride is soluble in organic solvents whereas chlorides formed by other alkaline earth metals are insoluble in organic solvents.

2. Properties of oxide: Beryllium oxide is amphoteric whereas oxides formed by other alkaline earth metals are basic in nature.

Question 48.
Complete the following chemical equations.

Answer:

Question 49.
Write the uses of
i. alkali metals
ii. alkaline earth metals
Answer:
i. Uses of alkali metals:

• Lithium metal is used in long-life batteries used in digital watches, calculators and computers.
• Liquid sodium is used for heat transfer in nuclear power stations.
• Potassium chloride is used as a fertilizer.
• Potassium is used in manufacturing potassium superoxide (KO₂) for oxygen generation. It is good absorbent of carbon dioxide.
• Caesium is used in photoelectric cells.

ii. Uses of alkaline earth metals:

• Beryllium is used as a moderator in nuclear reactors.
• Alloy of magnesium and aluminium is widely used as structural material and in aircrafts.
• Calcium ions are important ingredient in biological system, essential for healthy growth of bones and teeth.
• Barium sulphate is used in medicine as barium meal for intestinal X-ray.
• Radium is used in radiotherapy for cancer treatment.

Question 50.
State the importance of sodium and potassium in biological system.
Answer:

• Sodium ion is present as the largest supply in all extracellular fluids. These fluids provide medium for transporting nutrients to the cells.
• The concentration of sodium ion in extracellular fluid regulates the flow of water across the membrane.
• Sodium ions participate in the transmission of nerve signals.
• Potassium ions are the most abundant ions within the cells. They are required for maximum efficiency in the synthesis of proteins and also in oxidation of glucose.

Question 51.
How are the following ions of group 2 elements biologically important?
i. Mg²⁺
ii. Ca²⁺
Answer:
i. Magnesium ion (Mg²⁺)

• Mg²⁺ ions are important part of chlorophyll in green plants.
• They play an important role in the breakage of glucose and fat molecules, synthesis of proteins with enzymes and regulation of cholesterol level.

ii. Calcium ion (Ca²⁺)

• Ca²⁺ ions are important for bones and teeth in the form of apatite [Ca₃(PO₄)₂].
• They play an important role in blood clotting.
• Ca²⁺ ions are required for contraction and stretching of muscles.
• They are also required to maintain the regular beating of heart.

Question 52.
Explain Solvay process for manufacture of sodium carbonate.
Answer:
Sodium carbonate (Na₂CO₃) is commercially prepared by Solvay process. Preparation of sodium carbonate by Solvay process involves two stages.
i. In the first stage of Solvay process, carbon dioxide gas is bubbled through a concentrated solution of NaCl which is saturated with NH₃. This results in the formation of ammonium bicarbonate. Crystals of sodium bicarbonate separate as a result of the following reactions.


ii. Ammonium bicarbonate and sodium chloride undergoes double decomposition reaction to form sodium bicarbonate. As sodium bicarbonate has low solubility, it precipitates out in the form of crystals.
iii. In the second stage, the separated crystals of sodium bicarbonate are heated to obtain sodium carbonate (Na₂CO₃).

iv. NH₄Cl obtained in this process is treated with slaked lime, Ca(OH)₂, to recover NH₃ while CaCl₂ is obtained as a byproduct.

Question 53.
How is ammonia recovered in Solvay process? Name the important by-product obtained in the step?
Answer:
i. Ammonium chloride (NH₄Cl) is obtained during the Solvay process which is used for the preparation of Na₂CO₃. When NH₄Cl is treated with slaked lime, Ca(OH)₂, ammonia is recovered.

ii. Calcium chloride is obtained as an important by-product in this reaction.

Question 54.
Why potassium carbonate cannot be obtained by Solvay process?
Answer:
Potassium hydrogen carbonate (KHCO₃) is highly water soluble and cannot be precipitated out by reacting with potassium choride (KCl) and hence, potassium carbonate (K₂CO₃) cannot be obtained by Solvay process.

Question 55.
What is the action of heat on crystalline sodium carbonate (washing soda)?
Answer:
i. On heating washing soda (decahydrate of sodium carbonate) up to 373 K, it loses water molecules to form corresponding monohydrate.

ii. On heating above 373 K, monohydrate further loses water and changes into white anhydrous powder called soda ash.

Question 56.
Give reason: Aqueous solution of sodium carbonate is alkaline in nature.
Answer:
i. Sodium carbonate is hydrolysed by water as shown in the reaction given below.

ii. One of the products formed as a result of hydrolysis is NaOH which is a strong base.
Hence, aqueous solution of sodium carbonate is alkaline in nature due to formation of strong base (NaOH).

Question 57.
What are the uses of sodium carbonate?
Answer:
Uses of sodium carbonate:

• Due to its alkaline properties, sodium carbonate has an emulsifying effect on grease and dirt and hence, it is used as a cleaning material.
• It is used to make hard water soft as it precipitates out the soluble calcium and magnesium salts in hard water as carbonates.
  For example: Ca(HCO₃)_2(aq) + Na₂CO_3(aq) → CaCO_3(s) + 2NaHCO_3(aq)
• It is used for commercial production of soap and caustic soda.
• Sodium carbonate is used as an important laboratory reagent.

Question 58.
Describe the preparation of sodium hydroxide by Castner-Kellner process.
OR
Explain the electrolysis method for preparation of sodium hydroxide.
Answer:
i. Sodium hydroxide (caustic soda) is commercially obtained by the electrolysis of aqueous sodium chloride solution (brine) in Castner-Kellner cell (mercury cathode cell).
ii. In Castner-Kellner cell, mercury is used as cathode, carbon rod as anode and brine solution is used as electrolyte which is subjected to electrolysis.

iii. During electrolysis, the following reactions take place:
a. At cathode: Sodium ions get reduced to metallic sodium, which combines with mercury to form sodium amalgam (Na-Hg).
\(\mathrm{Na}^{+}+\mathrm{e}^{-} \stackrel{\mathrm{Hg}}{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{Na} \text {-amalgam }\)
b. At anode: Chloride ions are oxidized and thus, chlorine gas is evolved.
\(\mathrm{Cl}^{-} \longrightarrow \frac{1}{2} \mathrm{Cl}_{2}+\mathrm{e}^{-}\)

iv. Sodium amalgam is then treated with water to obtain sodium hydroxide and hydrogen gas.

Question 59.
Enlist the physical properties of sodium hydroxide.
Answer:
Physical properties of sodium hydroxide:

• Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) is a white deliquescent solid.
• It has a melting point of 591 K.
• It is highly water soluble and gives a strongly alkaline solution.
• The surface of sodium hydroxide solution absorbs atmospheric CO₂ to form Na₂CO₃.

Question 60.
Explain how sodium hydroxide is commercially important.
Answer:
Commercial uses of sodium hydroxide:

• Sodium hydroxide is used in purification of bauxite (the aluminium ore).
• It is used in commercial production of soap, paper, artificial silk and many chemicals.
• It is used for mercerising cotton fabrics.
• It is used in petroleum refining.
• It is also used as an important laboratory reagent.

Question 61.
Calcium carbonate occurs naturally in which forms?
Answer:
Calcium carbonate (CaCO₃) occur naturally in the form of chalk, limestone and marble.

Question 62.
Describe the various methods used for preparation of calcium carbonate.
Answer:
i. a. Calcium carbonate is prepared by passing carbon dioxide through solution of calcium hydroxide (slaked lime). This results in the formation of water insoluble solid calcium carbonate.

b. However, excess carbon dioxide transforms the precipitate of CaCO₃ into water-soluble calcium bicarbonate and therefore, it has to be avoided.

ii. Calcium carbonate can also be prepared by adding solution of calcium chloride to a solution of sodium carbonate. This results in the formation of calcium carbonate as precipitate.

Question 63.
Why controlled addition of CO₂ is essential during preparation of calcium carbonate from slaked lime?
Answer:
When excess of CO₂ is present, it leads to the formation of water-soluble calcium bicarbonate.

Hence, while preparing calcium carbonate from slaked lime, controlled addition of CO₂ is essential.

Question 64.
Mention some physical properties of calcium carbonate.
Answer:

• Calcium carbonate is soft, light, white powder.
• It is practically insoluble in water.

Question 65.
What happens when:
i. calcium carbonate is thermally decomposed?
ii. calcium carbonate reacts with dilute mineral acids?
Answer:
i. When calcium carbonate is heated to 1200 K, it decomposes into calcium oxide along with evolution of carbon dioxide gas.

ii. Calcium carbonate reacts with dilute mineral acids such as HCl and H₂SO₄ to give the corresponding calcium salt and liberate carbon dioxide gas.

Question 66.
Give the important uses of calcium carbonate.
Answer:

• Calcium carbonate in the form of marble is used as building material.
• It is used in the manufacture of quicklime (CaO) which is the major ingredient of cement.
• A mixture of CaCO₃ and MgCO₃ is used as flux in the extraction of metals from their ores.
• It is required for the manufacture of high-quality paper.
• It is an important ingredient in toothpaste, chewing gum, dietary supplements of calcium and filler in cosmetics.

Question 67.
Match the pairs.

	Column A		Column B
i.	Castner-Kellner cell	a.	Na2CO
ii.	Slaked lime	b.	CaCO3
iii.	Solvay process	c.	NaOH
iv.	Limestone	d.	Ca(OH)2

Ans:
i – c,
ii – d,
iii – a,
iv – b

Question 68.
How is hydrogen peroxide prepared by the action of cold dilute H₂SO₄ on
i. Hydrated barium peroxide?
ii. sodium peroxide (Merck process)?
Answer:
Preparation of hydrogen peroxide by the action of cold dilute H₂SO₄ on
i. hydrated barium peroxide: When hydrated barium peroxide is treated with ice-cold dilute sulphuric acid, the precipitate of barium sulphate is obtained. This precipitate is then filtered off to get hydrogen peroxide solution.

ii. Sodium peroxide (Merck process): When small quantity of sodium peroxide is added to ice-cold solution of dilute sulphuric acid with stirring, it gives hydrogen peroxide.

Question 69.
Explain how hydrogen peroxide can be obtained by electrolysis method.
Answer:
i. H₂O₂ can be manufactured by electrolysis of 50% H₂SO₄. In this method, 50% solution of H₂SO₄ is subjected to an electrolytic oxidation to form peroxydisuiphuric acid at anode.

ii. On hydrolysis, peroxy sulphuric yields hydrogen peroxide.

iii. This method can be used for the laboratory preparation of D₂O₂.

Question 70.
Describe the industrial method for preparation of hydrogen peroxide.
OR
How is hydrogen peroxide obtained from 2-ethylanthraquinol?
Answer:
i. Industrially hydrogen peroxide is prepared by air-oxidation of 2-ethylanthraquinol.

ii. 2-Ethylanthraquinone is reduced back to 2-ethylanthraquinol by catalytic hydrogenation.

Question 71.
What are the physical properties of hydrogen peroxide?
Answer:

• Pure H₂O₂ is a very pale blue coloured liquid.
• Its boiling point is 272.4 K.
• H₂O₂ is miscible in water and forms a hydrate (H₂O₂. H₂O).

Question 72.
How is strength of H₂O₂ solution expressed?
Answer:

• Strength of aqueous solution of H₂O₂ is expressed in ‘volume’ units i.e., volume strength.
• The commercially marketed 30% (by mass) solution of H₂O₂ has volume strength of 100 volume.
• It means that 1 mL of 30% solution of H₂O₂ will give 100 mL oxygen at STP.

Thus, Volume strength refers to the volume of oxygen (O₂) in litres at STP obtained by decomposition of 1 litre of the sample.

Question 73.
Write reactions depicting oxidising and reducing action of hydrogen peroxide in acidic medium.
Answer:
H₂O₂ acts as a mild oxidising as well as reducing agent.
i. Oxidising action of H₂O₂ in acidic medium.
\(2 \mathrm{Fe}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{2+}+2 \mathrm{H}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{+}+\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}_{2(\mathrm{aq})} \longrightarrow 2 \mathrm{Fe}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{3+}+2 \mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}_{(l)}\)

ii. Reducing action of H₂O₂ in acidic medium.
\(2 \mathrm{MnO}_{4}^{-}+6 \mathrm{H}^{+}+5 \mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}_{2} \rightarrow 2 \mathrm{Mn}^{2+}+8 \mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}+5 \mathrm{O}_{2}\)

Question 74.
Enlist uses of hydrogen peroxide.
Answer:

• Hydrogen peroxide is used as mouthwash, germicide and mild antiseptic.
• It is used as a preservative for milk and wine.
• It is used as a bleaching agent for soft materials, due to its mild oxidising property.
• Due to its reducing property, is used as an antichlor to remove excess chlorine from fabrics which have been bleached by chlorine.
• Nowadays it is used in environmental chemistry for pollution control and restoration of aerobic condition of sewage water.

Question 75.
Describe preparation and properties of lithium aluminium hydride (LAH).
Answer:
i. Preparation: Lithium hydride when treated with aluminium chloride, gives lithium aluminium hydride, (LiAlH₄).

ii. Properties:

• Lithium aluminium hydride is a colourless solid.
• It reacts violently with water and even with atmospheric moisture.

Question 76.
How is lithium aluminium hydride (LAH) useful in organic synthesis?
Answer:
i. LAH is a source of hydride (H^–) and therefore, it is used as a reducing agent in organic synthesis.
For example:

ii. It is useful in the preparation of PH₃ (phosphine).
4PCl₃ + 3LiAlH₄ → 4PH₂ + AlCl₃ + LiCl

Question 77.
Complete the following reactions by mentioning the reagent/reaction conditions under which these reactions are carried out.

Answer:

Question 78.
Calculate % (by mass) of a H₂O₂ solution which is 45.4 volume.
Answer:
Given: 45.4 volume H₂O₂ solution
To find: % (by mass) of H₂O₂
Formula: Percentage (%) by mass = \(\frac{\text { Mass of solute }}{\text { Mass of solution }} \times 100\)
calculation: 45.4 volume H₂O₂ solution means 1 L of this solution will liberate 45.4 L of O₂ at STP.
Hydrogen peroxide (H₂O₂) decomposes as:

Ans: % (by mass) of H₂O₂ in 45.4 volume H₂O₂ solution is 13.6%.

Question 79.
Calculate the strength (g/L) of 20 volume solution of hydrogen peroxide.
Solution:
Given: 20 volume H₂O₂ solution
To find: Strength of H₂O₂ (g/L)
Formula: 20 volume H₂O₂ solution means that 1 L of this solution will liberate 20 L of oxygen at S.T.P. Let us calculate the amount of H₂O₂ (in grams) which gives 20 L of oxygen at S.T.P. This amount will be present in 1 L of 20 volume solution of H₂O₂.
Hydrogen peroxide (H₂O₂) decomposes as:

22.7 L of O₂ at S.T.P. is produced from H₂O₂ = 68 g
20 L of O₂ at S.T.P. is produced from H₂O₂ = \(\frac {68}{22.7}\) × 20 = 59.912g = 59.912 g/litre
Ans: Strength of H₂O₂ in 20 volume H₂O₂ solution is 59.912 g/L.

Question 80.
Calculate the volume strength of a 5% solution of hydrogen peroxide.
Solution:
Given: 5% solution of H₂O₂
To find: Volume strength of H₂O₂ solution
Calculation: 100 mL of solution contains 5 g of H₂O₂
1000 mL of solution will contain \(\frac {5}{100}\) × 1000 = 50 g of H₂O₂

68 g of H₂O₂ will give O₂ at S.T.P. = 22.7 L
50 g of H₂O₂ is present in 1000 mL of H₂O₂ or 1 L of H₂O₂
50 g of H₂O₂ will give O₂ at S.T.P. = \(\frac {22.7}{68}\) × 50 = 16.691 L
∴ 1 L of H₂O₂ gives O₂ at S.T.P. = 16.691 L
∴ Strength of H₂O₂ = 16.691 volume
Ans: The given 5% H₂O₂ solution is equivalent to 16.691 volume solution of hydrogen peroxide.

Question 81.
Naina is a school going kid. Every morning her mother makes her drink a glass of milk. When she asked her mother that why she has to drink a glass of milk daily, her mother told her that it is beneficial in maintaining healthy bones and teeth. Regular consumption of milk is recommended because it is a rich source of calcium.
i. In which form is calcium important for bones and teeth?
ii. Calcium belongs to which family in the modern periodic table?
iii. Write its electronic configuration.
iv. Calcium contain how many valence electrons?
v. Give any two-biological importance of calcium.
Answer:
i. Calcium is important for bones and teeth in the form of apatite [Ca(PO₄)₂].
ii. It belongs to the family of alkaline earth metals in the modem periodic table.
iii. Electronic configuration of 20Ca is 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 4s².
iv. Calcium contains two valence electrons as it has two electrons in its outermost shell (4s).

v. Calcium ion (Ca²⁺)

• Ca²⁺ ions are important for bones and teeth in the fonn of apatite [Ca₃(PO₄)₂].
• They play an important role in blood clotting.
• Ca²⁺ ions are required for contraction and stretching of muscles.
• They are also required to maintain the regular beating of heart.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Of all the elements present in the periodic table, ………… has the simplest atomic structure.
(A) lithium
(B) beryllium
(C) hydrogen
(D) helium
Answer:
(C) hydrogen

2. Electronic configuration of hydrogen is similar to that of ……………
(A) transition elements
(B) inert gases
(C) alkaline earth metals
(D) alkali metals
Answer:
(D) alkali metals

3. Isotopes are atoms of the same element having different ………….. number.
(A) neutron
(B) proton
(C) electron
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Answer:
(A) neutron

4. Tritium, \(\left({ }_{1}^{3} \mathrm{H}\right)\) ……………
(A) is an isotope of hydrogen
(B) contains one electron, one proton and two neutrons
(C) is a beta particle emitter
(D) all of these
Answer:
(D) all of these

5. In the electrolysis of acidified water using, ………….. is liberated at the anode.
(A) dihydrogen
(B) sulphate ions
(C) oxygen
(D) chloride ions
Answer:
(C) oxygen

6. Water gas is a mixture of ………….
(A) CO + H₂
(B) CO₂ + H₂
(C) O₂ + H₂
(D) CO + O₂
Answer:
(A) CO + H₂

7. During production of dihydrogen by water-gas shift reaction, which of the following is present as an impurity?
(A) Carbon monoxide
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Calcium carbonate
(D) Calcium oxide
Answer:
(B) Carbon dioxide

8. Solution is used to remove carbon dioxide present in the mixture along with dihydrogen.
(A) Sodium hydroxide
(B) Hydrochloric acid
(C) Magnesium chloride
(D) Sodium arsenite
Answer:
(D) Sodium arsenite

9. The reaction between dihydrogen and …………… is highly exothermic.
(A) halogens
(B) dioxygen
(C) dinitrogen
(D) metals
Answer:
(B) dioxygen

10. The elements of group 1 and group 2 belong to which block of the modem periodic table?
(A) d-block
(B) s-block
(C) p-block
(D) f-block
Answer:
(B) s-block

11. Which of the following is NOT an alkaline earth metal?
(A) Beryllium
(B) Barium
(C) Calcium
(D) Caesium
Answer:
(D) Caesium

12. The common oxidation state for alkali metals is …………….
(A) +2
(B) +1
(C) +3
(D) +4
Answer:
(B) +1

13. All alkaline earth metals have ………….. valence electrons in the outermost orbit.
(A) one
(B) two
(C) three
(D) four
Answer:
(B) two

14. Electronic configuration of potassium with respect to nearest noble gases is …………..
(A) [He]2s¹
(B) [Ne]3s¹
(C) [Ar]4s¹
(D) [Kr]5s¹
Answer:
(C) [Ar]4s¹

15. Which of the following is radioactive alkali metal?
(A) Rubidium
(B) Caesium
(C) Francium
(D) Beryllium
Answer:
(C) Francium

16. Which of the following element is rarest amongst s-block elements?
(A) Strontium
(B) Barium
(C) Radium
(D) Calcium
Answer:
(C) Radium

17. Which of the following is FALSE?
(A) Alkali metals readily loose electron to form monovalent M⁺ ions.
(B) In a group, from Li to Cs, atomic and ionic radii increase with atomic number.
(C) The monovalent ions of alkali metals are larger in size than the parent atoms.
(D) Ionization enthalpies decrease down the group from Li to Cs.
Answer:
(C) The monovalent ions of alkali metals are larger in size than the parent atoms.

18. The first ionization enthalpies of alkaline earth metals are …………. than those of the corresponding alkali metals.
(A) higher
(B) lower
(C) same
(D) none of these
Answer:
(A) higher

19. Which of the following alkaline earth metal does NOT react with water?
(A) Sr
(B) Mg
(C) Ca
(D) Be
Answer:
(D) Be

20. Oxides and hydroxides of alkaline earth metals except beryllium are ………….. in nature.
(A) acidic
(B) basic
(C) amphoteric
(D) neutral
Answer:
(B) basic

21. ………… is an excellent absorbent of carbon dioxide.
(A) KO₂
(B) KCl
(C) KOH
(D) KHCO₃
Answer:
(A) KO₂

22. Lithium shows diagonal relationship with ……………
(A) beryllium
(B) magnesium
(C) calcium
(D) boron
Answer:
(B) magnesium

23. The diagonal relationship between Li and Mg is due to the similarity in ……………
(A) ionic sizes
(B) electronegativity value
(C) polarizing power
(D) all of the above
Answer:
(D) all of the above

24. The alkali metal that reacts with nitrogen directly to form nitride is ……………
(A) Li
(B) Na
(C) K
(D) Rb
Answer:
(A) Li

25. In the Solvay process, the chief products are ……………
(A) CaCO₃ and Ca(HCO₃)₂
(B) Na₂CO₃ and NaHCO₃
(C) Na₂SO₄ and NaHSO₄
(D) CaCl₂ and Ca(NO₃)₂
Answer:
(B) Na₂CO₃ and NaHCO₃

26. In Castner-Kellner process for preparation of sodium hydroxide, ………….. is subjected to electrolysis.
(A) NaCl
(B) NaOH
(C) Na₂O
(D) Na2CO₃
Answer:
(A) NaCl

27. Which of the following method of preparation of H₂O₂ is known as Merck’s method?
(A) BaO₂.8H₂O(s) + H₂SO₄(aq) → BaSO₄(s) + H₂O₂(aq) + 8H₂O(l)
(B) Na₂O₂ + H₂SO₄ → Na₂SO₄ + H₂O₂
(C) BaO₂ + H₂O + CO₂ → BaCO₃↓ + H₂O₂
(D) 3BaO₂ + 2H₃PO₄ → Ba₃(PO₄)₂↓ + 3H₂O₂
Answer:
(B) Na₂O₂ + H₂SO₄ → Na₂SO₄ + H₂O₂

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 7 Modern Periodic Table Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 7 Modern Periodic Table

Question 1.
Mention features of Mendeleev’s periodic table.
Answer:
Features of Mendeleev’s periodic table:

• In Mendeleev’s periodic table, all 63 elements were arranged in an increasing order of their atomic masses. The serial or ordinal number of an element in the increasing order of atomic mass was referred to as its atomic number.
• Mendeleev’s periodic table consisted of vertical groups and horizontal series (now called periods).
• Elements belonging to the same group showed similar properties.
• Properties of elements in a series/period showed gradual variation from left to right.

Question 2.
Why was Mendeleev’s periodic table readily accepted by scientific community?
Answer:
Mendeleev’s periodic table was readily accepted by scientific community due to the following advantages:
i. Mendeleev had left some gaps corresponding to certain atomic numbers in the periodic table so as to maintain periodicity of the properties. When the elements corresponding to these atomic numbers were discovered, they fitted well into the gaps with their properties as predicted by Mendeleev’s periodic law.

ii. Mendeleev did not predicted presence of inert gases, however, they were discovered in later years. It was possible to accommodate inert gases in Mendeleev’s periodic table by creating an additional group without disturbing the position of other elements in his periodic table.

Question 3.
Give reason: Mendeleev’s periodic law was modified into modern periodic law.
Answer:

• Henry Moseley in 1913, studied X-ray spectra of large number of elements.
• He observed that the frequency of X-ray emitted from an element is related to atomic number (Z) of an element and not its atomic mass.
• Therefore, the atomic number, Z, was considered as more fundamental property of the atom than the atomic mass.
• As a result, Mendeleev’s periodic law was modified.

Question 4.
Define atomic number.
Answer:
Atomic number (Z) is the total number protons present in the atom of an element.

Question 5.
State the modern periodic law.
Answer:
Modern periodic law: “The physical and chemical properties of elements are a periodic function of their atomic numbers”.

Question 6.
Periods and groups present in the modern periodic table are numbered based on whose recommendation ?
Answer:
Numbering of the periods and groups in the modem periodic table is based on the recommendation provided by the International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry (IUPAC).

Question 7.
Write a note on: Structure of the modern periodic table.
Answer:
Structure of the modern periodic table:
i. The modem periodic table also known as the Tong form of periodic table’ has number of boxes formed by the intersection of horizontal rows and vertical columns.
ii. The horizontal rows are called periods and the vertical columns are called groups.
iii. There are seven periods numbered from 1 to 7 and eighteen groups numbered from 1 to 18.
iv. There are total 118 boxes in the modem periodic table which are filled with 118 elements discovered till now including manmade elements.
v. The modem periodic table is divided into four blocks i.e., s-block, p-block, d-block and f-block.

• Two groups on the extreme left of the modem periodic table form the s-block.
• Six groups on the extreme right constitute the p-block.
• Ten groups in the centre form the d-block
• Two series at the bottom of the modem periodic table constitute the f-block. It contains fourteen elements in each series.

Question 8.
State the relationship between the modern periodic table and electronic configuration in periods.
Answer:

• The modem periodic table is based on the atomic numbers of the elements. When elements are arranged in an increasing order of atomic number (Z), periodicity is observed in their electronic configurations which reflects in the characteristic structure of the modem periodic table.
• The location of elements in the modem periodic table is correlated to quantum numbers of the last filled orbital.
• Along a period, the atomic number increases by one and one electron is added to the outermost shell which forms neutral atom of the next element.
• The period number is same as the principal quantum number ‘n’ of the valence shell of the elements.
• A period begins with filling of a particular shell and ends when the valence shell attains complete octet configuration (or duplet, in case of the first period).
• The next period begins with addition of electron to the next shell of higher energy compared to the previous period. e. g. First shell of the elements gets filled along the first period while second shell starts filling in the second period and addition of electrons continues till second shell (valence shell) attains stable electronic configuration.

Question 9.
Give reason: First period in the modern periodic table contains only two elements.
Answer:

• Elements present in the first period i.e., H and He contain only one shell which is also their valence shell and can accommodate maximum two electrons.
• As first shell can accommodate only two electrons, first period ends at He which has a complete duplet. Hence, first period in the modem periodic table contains only two elements.

Question 10.
Write names and electronic configurations of elements of first period in the modern periodic table. Identify which of them has the stable complete electronic configuration.
Answer:

• Hydrogen (H) : 1s², Helium (He) : 2s²
• Since helium has a complete duplet i.e., two electrons in its valence shell, it has the stable complete electronic configuration.

Question 11.
Explain how does the filling of electrons takes place in the modern periodic table across:
i. Second period
ii. Third period
Answer:
i. Filling of electrons in the second period:

• In the second period, electrons are filled in the second shell i.e., n = 2.
• This shell can accommodate a maximum of eight electrons and gets filled as the atomic number increases along the second period.
• The second period begins with Li (Z = 3): 1s² 2s¹ and ends up with Ne (Z = 10): 1s² 2s² 2p⁶.
• Neon has complete octet with 8 electrons in its valence shell. Therefore, the second period contains eight elements.

ii. Filling of electrons in the third period:

• The third period corresponds to the filling of the third shell i.e. n = 3.
• The third period also contains eight elements.
• It begins with the filling of electrons in the first element Na (Z = 11) : [Ne] 3s¹ and ends with the last element Ar (Z = 18) = [Ne] 3s² 3p⁶.
• The condensed electronic configurations for the elements of third period is [Ne] 3s^1-2 3p^1-6.

Question 12.
There are 18 elements in the fourth period of the modern periodic table. Explain.
Answer:

• The fourth period corresponds to the filling of fourth shell, n = 4.
• Therefore, it begins with filling of 4s subshell. The first two elements of the fourth period are K (Z = 19) : [Ar] 4s¹ and Ca (Z = 20) : [Ar] 4s².
• According to the aufbau principle, the next higher energy subshell is 3d, which can accommodate up to 10 electrons. Thus, filling of the 3d subshell results in the next 10 elements of the fourth period i.e., from Sc (Z = 21) : [Ar] 4s²3d¹ to Zn (Z = 30): [Ar] 4s²3d¹⁰.
• After filling of 3d subshell, the electrons enter the 4p subshell which can accommodate maximum 6 electrons. Hence, filling of 4p subshell results in the next 6 elements i.e., from Ga (Z = 31): [Ar] 4s²3d¹⁰ 4p¹ to Kr (Z = 36): [Ar] 4s² 3d¹⁰ 4p6.
• Thus, the elements in fourth period are: 2 elements (with 4s subshell), 10 elements (with 3d subshell) and 6 elements (with 4p subshell).
• Hence, there are 18 elements in the fourth period of the modem periodic table.

Question 13.
Why does the fifth period of the modern periodic table contain 18 electrons?
Answer:
The fifth period accommodates 18 elements as a result of successive filling of electrons in the 5s, 4d and 5p subshells.

Question 14.
What is the general trend followed while filling of electrons across a period in the modern periodic table.
Answer:

• A period begins by filling of one electron to the ‘s’ subshell of a new shell and ends when an element corresponding to the same shell attains complete octet (or duplet).
• Between these two ‘s’ and ‘p’ subshell of the valence shell, the inner subshells ‘d’ and ‘f’ are filled successively following the aufbau principle.

Question 15.
What is the subshell in which the last electron of the first element in the 6th period enters?
Answer:
The 6^th period begins by filling the last electron in the shell with n = 6. The lowest energy subshell of any shell is ‘s’. Therefore, the last electron of the first element in the 6th period enters the subshell ‘6s’.

Question 16.
How many elements are present in the 6th period? Explain.
Answer:

• The 6^th period begins by filling the last electron in the subshell ‘6s’ and ends by completing the subshell ‘6p’. Therefore, the sixth period has the subshells filled in increasing order of energy as 6s < 4f < 5d < 6p.
• The electron capacities of these subshells are 2, 14, 10 and 6, respectively. Therefore, the total number of elements in the 6^th period is 2 + 14 + 10 + 6 = 32.

Question 17.
How does electronic configuration vary down a group in the modern periodic table?
Answer:

• As we move from top to bottom in a group, a new shell gets added successively in the atom of an element. Therefore, the last electron enters in a new shell down the group.
• Hence, the general outer electronic configuration of the elements in a group remains the same. This holds true for groups 1, 2 and 3 elements.
• In the groups 13 to 18 the appropriate inner ‘d’ and ‘f’ subshells are completely filled and the general outer electronic configuration is the same down the groups 13 to 18.
• However, in the groups 4 to 12, the ‘d’ and ‘f subshells are introduced at a later stage (4th period for ‘d’ and 6th period for ‘f’) down the group. As a result, variation in the general outer configuration is introduced only at the

Note: General outer electronic configuration in groups 1 to 3 and 13 to 18.

Question 18.
On what basis is the modern periodic table divided into four blocks?
Answer:
The modem periodic table is divided into four blocks based on the subshell in which the last electron enters.

Question 19.
Why elements of group 1 and group 2 are known as s-block elements?
Answer:

• The subshell in which the last electron enters decides the block to which an element belongs.
• In group 1 and group 2 elements, the last electron is filled in the s subshell.

Therefore, the elements of group 1 and group 2 are known as s-block elements.

Question 20.
Elements belonging to which groups constitute the p-block and why?
Answer:

• Elements belonging to groups 13, 14, 15, 16, 17 and 18 constitute the p-block.
• The last electron in the p-block elements is filled in p subshell.
• As p subshell contains three degenerate p orbitals, it can accommodate up to 6 electrons.
• Therefore, the p-block elements belonging to six groups i.e., groups 13, 14, 15, 16, 17 and 18 in which last electron enters in p subshell constitute the p-block.

Question 21.
Give reason: Helium which is the first element of group 18 is placed in the p-block even though its last electron enters in s subshell.
Answer:

• Electronic configuration of helium is 1s² which indicates that it has a stable electronic configuration i.e., a complete duplet.
• The p-block ends with group 18 which is a family of inert gases having stable electronic configuration (complete octet except helium).
• Therefore, helium is placed with group 18 elements in p-block due to its stable electronic configuration even though its last electron enters in s subshell.

Question 22.
State the general outer electronic configuration of s-block and p-block elements.
Answer:
The general outer electronic configuration of s-block elements is ns^1-2.
The general electronic configuration for the p-block elements is ns²np^1-6.

Question 23.
There are total 10 groups in the d-block of the modern periodic table. Explain.
Answer:

• The d-block in the modem periodic table is formed as a result of filling the last electron in d orbital.
• As there are five orbitals in a d subshell, 10 electrons can successively be accommodated.

Hence, there are total 10 groups in the d-block of the modem periodic table i.e., group 3 to 12.

Question 24.
The last electron enters a (n-1)d orbital only after the ns subshell is completely filled. Explain.
Answer:
A d subshell is present in the shells with n ≥ 3 and according to the (n+1) rule, the energy of ns orbital is less than that of the (n-1)d orbital. As a result, the last electron enters a (n-1)d orbital only after the ns subshell is completely filled.

Question 25.
Chromium exhibit 4s¹ 3d⁵ electronic configuration instead of 4s² 3d⁴. Explain.
Answer:

• Completely filled or half-filled subshells are highly stable.
• In 4s¹ 3d⁵ configuration, both s and d subshells are half-filled.
• Thus, due to the extra stability associated with half-filled subshells, chromium exhibits 4s¹ 3d⁵ electronic configuration instead of 4s² 3d⁴.

Question 26.
What is the general outer electronic configuration of d-block and f-block elements?
Answer:
The general outer electronic configuration of the d-block elements is ns^0-2 (n-1)d^1-10 while the general outer electronic configuration of the f-block elements is ns² (n-1)d^0-1 (n-2)f^1-14.

Question 27.
Expected outer electronic configuration of europium (Eu) is 6s² 4f⁶ 5d¹. However, it exhibits different than expected outer electronic configuration.
i. Write the observed outer electronic configuration of Eu.
ii. What is the reason for this variation in electronic configuration?
Answer:
i. Observed outer electronic configuration of europium (Eu) is 6s² 4f⁷ 5d⁰.
ii. In the observed electronic configuration of Eu, 4f subshell is half-filled which is a highly stable configuration. Therefore, observed electronic configuration of Eu varies than expected.

Question 28.
Name the two series that constitute f-block.
Answer:
The f-block constitutes two series of 14 elements called the lanthanide and the actinide series which are placed one below the other.

Question 29.
State whether the following statements are true or false. Correct if false.
i. Position of the elements in the modern periodic table is related to the quantum number of their last filled orbital.
ii. Group number is same as the principal quantum number ‘n’ of the valence shell of the elements.
Answer:
i. True
ii. False
Period number is same as the principal quantum number ‘n’ of the valence shell of the elements.

Question 30.
Name the following.
i. Shortest period in the modern periodic table.
ii. Block which is placed separately at the bottom of the modern periodic table.
Answer:
i. First period
ii. f-Block

Question 31.
How can a period, group and block of the element be determined?
Answer:
The group, period and the block of the element can be determined on the basis of its electronic configuration.
i. Period: The principal quantum number of the valence shell corresponds to the period of the element.
e. g. The principal quantum number (n) of the valence shell (3s¹) of Na (1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s¹) is 3. This corresponds to third period.

ii. Block: The subshell in which the last electron enters, corresponds to the block of the elements (with exception being He).
e. g. The subshell 3d (in which the last electron enters) for Sc (1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 3d¹ 4s²) corresponds to d block.

iii. Group: The group of the element is determined on the basis of number of electrons present in the outermost or penultimate [next to outermost, i.e. (n-1)] shell:

• For s-block elements, group number = number of valence electrons.
• For p-block elements, group number = 18 – number of electrons required to complete octet.
• For d-block elements, group number = 2 + number of (n-1)d electrons.

Question 32.
Outer electronic configurations of a few elements are given below. Explain them and identify the period, group and block in the periodic table to which they belong.
₂He: 1s², ₅₄Xe: 5s²5p⁶, ₁₆S: 3s²3p⁴, ₇₉Au: 6s¹5d¹⁰
Answer:
i. ₂He: 1s²
Here, n = 1. Therefore, ₂He belongs to the 1^st period.
The shell n = 1 has only one subshell, namely 1s. The outer electronic configuration 1s² of ‘He’ corresponds to the maximum capacity of 1s, the complete duplet. Therefore, He is placed at the end of the 1^st period in the group 18 of inert gases. So, ‘He’ belongs to p-block.

ii. ₅₄Xe: 5s²5p⁶
Here, n = 5. Therefore, ₅₄Xe belongs to the 5^th period.
The outer electronic configuration. 5s²5p⁶ corresponds to complete octet. Therefore, ₅₄Xe is placed in group 18 and belongs to p-block.

iii. ₁₆S: 3s²3p⁴
Here, n = 3. Therefore, ₁₆S belongs to the 3^rd period. The 3p subshell in ‘S’ is partially filled and short of completion of octet by two electrons. Therefore, ‘S’ belongs to (18 – 2) = 16^th group and p-block.

iv. ₇₉AU: 6s¹5d¹⁰
Here n = 6. Therefore, ‘Au’ belongs to the 6^th period.
The sixth period begins with filling of electron into 6s and then into 5d orbital.
The outer configuration of ‘Au’: 6s¹ 5d¹⁰ implies that (1 + 10) = 11 electrons are filled in the outer orbitals to give ‘Au’. Therefore ‘Au’ belongs to the group 11.
As the last electron has entered ‘d’ orbital ‘Au’ belongs to the d-block.

Question 33.
Predict the block, periods and groups to which the following elements belong.
i. Mg (Z = 12)
ii. V (Z = 23)
iii. Sb (Z = 51)
iv. Rn (Z = 86)
v. Na (Z = 11)
vi. Cl (Z = 17)
Answer:
i. Mg (Z = 12): Atomic number of Mg is 12. Electronic configuration is 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s².
Block: Since the last electron enters s subshell (3 s), Mg belongs to s-block.
Period: n = 3. Therefore, it is present in the third period.
Group: For s-block element, group number = number of valence electrons = 2. Hence, it belongs to group 2.

ii. V (Z = 23): Atomic number of V is 23. Electronic configuration is 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 3d³ 4s².
Block: Since the last electron enters d subshell (3d), V belongs to d-block.
Period: n = 4. Therefore, it is present in the fourth period.
Group: For d-block elements, group number = 2 + number of (n – 1)
d electrons = 2 + 3 = 5. Hence, it belongs to group 5.

iii. Sb (Z = 51): Atomic number of Sb is 51.
Electronic configuration is 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 3d¹⁰ 4s² 4p⁶ 4d¹⁰ 5s² 5p³.
Block: Since the last electron enters p subshell (5p), Sb belongs to p-block.
Period: n = 5. Therefore, it is present in the fifth period.
Group: For p block elements, group number = 18 – number of electrons required to complete octet
= 18 – 3 = 15. Hence it belongs to group 15.

iv. Rn (Z = 86): Atomic number of Rn is 86.
Electronic configuration is 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 4s² 3d¹⁰ 4p⁶ 4d¹⁰ 4f¹⁴ 5s² 5p⁶ 5d¹⁰ 6s² 6p⁶.
Block: Since the last electron enters p subshell (6p), Rn belongs to p-block.
Period: n = 6. Therefore, it is present in the sixth period.
Group: For p block elements, group number = 18 – number of electrons required to complete octet
= 18 – 0 = 18. Hence, it belongs to group 18.

v. Na (Z = 11): Atomic number of Na is 11. Electronic configuration is 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s¹.
Block: Since the last electron enters s subshell (3s), Na belongs to s-block.
Period: n = 3. Therefore, it is present in the third period.
Group: For s-block element, number of the group = number of valence electrons = 1. Hence, it belongs to group 1.

vi. Cl (Z = 17): Atomic number of Cl is 17. Electronic configuration is 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁵.
Block: Since the last electron enters p subshell (3p), Cl belongs to p-block.
Period: n = 3. Therefore, it is present in the third period.
Group: For p block elements, group number = 18 – number of electrons required to complete octet
= 18 – 1 = 17. Hence, it belongs to group 17.

Question 34.
State the characteristics of s-block elements.
Answer:

• The s-block contains the elements of group 1 (alkali metals) and group 2 (alkaline earth metals).
• They occur in nature only in combined state as they are reactive elements.
• Except Li and Be, compounds formed by all other s-block elements are predominantly ionic in nature.
• This is because they have only one or two valence electrons which they can lose readily forming M⁺ or M²⁺ ions.
• Since they can lose electrons easily, they have low ionization enthalpies, which decreases down the group resulting in increased reactivity.

Question 35.
What are main group elements?
Answer:
The p-block elements together with s-block elements are called main group elements or representative elements.

Question 36.
Give reason: Group 18 elements do not participate in chemical reactions readily.
Answer:

• Group 18 is the last group of p-block and include noble or inert gases.
• They have closed valence shells (complete duplet in the case of ‘He’ and complete octet in the case of the other noble gases).
• Therefore, they show very low chemical reactivity and thus, do not participate in chemical reactions readily.

Question 37.
Why nonmetals present in group 17 and 16 in the modern periodic table are highly reactive?
Answer:

• Nonmetals present in group 17 (halogen family) and group 16 (chalcogens) have highly negative electron gain enthalpies.
• As a result, they readily accept one or two electrons and form anions (X^– or X^2-) that have complete octet.
• Therefore, nonmetals present in group 17 and 16 are highly reactive.

Question 38.
Explain the composition of the p-block in the modern periodic table.
Answer:

• The p-block contains elements of groups 13 to 18.
• It contains all the three types of elements i.e., metals, nonmetals and metalloids.
• In the p-block, metals and nonmetals are separated from each other by a zig-zag line. The metals are present on the left and the nonmetals are present on the right side while the metalloids are present along the zig-zag line.

Question 39.
State whether the following statements are true or false. Correct if false.
i. Nonmetallic character increases from left to right across a period.
ii. Nonmetallic character increases down a group.
Answer:
i. True
ii. False
Nonmetallic character decreases down a group.

Question 40.
Differentiate between s-block and p-block elements.
Answer:
s-Block elements:

• s-Block contains group 1 and group 2 elements.
• It contains only metals.
• The last electron in the s-block elements enters in s orbital.
• General outer electronic configuration of s-block elements is ns^1-2.
• e.g. Na, K, Ca, Mg, etc.

p-Block elements:

• p-Block contains elements from groups 13 to 18.
• It contains metals, nonmetals as well as metalloids.
• The last electron in the p-block elements enters in p orbital.
• General outer electronic configuration of p-block elements is ns² np^1-6.
• e.g. C, N, O, F, etc.

Question 41.
Write a note on the characteristics of the d-block elements.
Answer:

• The d-block contains elements of the groups 3 to 12 which are all metals. They are also known as transition elements or transition metals.
• They form a bridge between chemically reactive s-block elements and less reactive elements of groups 13 and 14.
• Most of the d-block elements possess partially filled inner d orbitals. As a result, the d-block elements have properties such as variable oxidation state, paramagnetism, ability to form coloured ions. They can be used as catalysts.
• Zn, Cd, and Hg with configuration ns² (n-1)d¹⁰, (completely filled s and d subshells) do not show characteristic properties of transition metals as they are stable.

Question 42.
Explain in brief about the f-block elements.
Answer:

• The elements present in f-block are all metals and are placed in the two rows called lanthanide series (₅₈Ce to ₇₁Lu) and actinide series (₉₀Th to ₁₀₃Lr).
• The lanthanides are also known as rare earth elements while the actinide elements beyond ₉₂U are called transuranium elements.
• All the transuranium elements are manmade and radioactive.
• The last electron of the elements of these series is filled in the (n-2)f subshell, and therefore, these are called inner transition elements.
• These elements have very similar properties within each series.

Question 43.
What is lanthanide and actinide series?
Answer:
i. Lanthanide series: The fourteen elements after lanthanum (Z = 57) i.e., from cerium (Z = 58) to lutetium (Z = 71) are named after their preceding member (₅₇La) present in the third group and 6^th period and are called lanthanides. They are kept in separate series called lanthanide series at the bottom of the modem periodic table.

ii. Actinide series: The fourteen elements after actinium i.e., from thorium (Z = 90) to lawrencium (Z = 103) are named after ₈₉Ac present in third period and 7^th group. They are kept in separate series called actinide series at the bottom of the modem periodic table.

Question 44.
Differentiate between d-block and f-block elements.
Answer:
d-Block elements:

• d-Block contains elements from group 3 to group 12.
• It is present in the middle of the modern periodic table.
• They are also known as transition elements.
• The last electron in the d-block elements enters in d orbital.
• General outer electronic configuration of d-block elements is ns^0-2 (n-1)d^1-10 .
• e.g. Cu, Zn, Cr, Ti, V, etc.

f-Block elements:

• f-Block contains elements of lanthanide and actinide series.
• f-block elements are present below the modern periodic table as two separate rows.
• They are also known as inner transition elements.
• The last electron in the f-block elements enters in f orbital.
• General outer electronic configuration of f-block elements is ns² (n-1) d^0-1 (n-2) f¹¹⁴.
• e.g. Ce, Pr, Nd Th, U, Np, etc.

Question 45.
Chlorides of two metals are common laboratory chemicals and both are colourless. One of the metals reacts vigorously with water while the other reacts slowly. Place the two metals in the appropriate block in the periodic table. Justify your answer.
Answer:
i. Metals are present in all the four blocks of the periodic table.
ii. Salts of metals in the f-block and p-block (except AlCl₃) are not common laboratory chemicals. Therefore, the choice is between s- and d-block.
iii. From the given properties their placement is done as shown below:

• s-block: Metal that reacts vigorously with water.
• d-block: Metal that reacts slowly with water.

iv. The colourless nature of the less reactive metal in the d-block implies that the inner d subshell is completely filled.

Question 46.
What are periodic properties?
Answer:

• The elements in the modem periodic table (long form of periodic table) are arranged in such a way that on moving across a period or down the group, several properties of elements vary in regular fashion. These properties are called periodic properties.
• Atomic and ionic radii, ionization enthalpy, electron gain enthalpy, electronegativity, valency and oxidation states are several properties of elements that show periodic variations.

Question 47.
What leads to the phenomena called effective nuclear charge and screening effect in an atom?
Answer:

• The periodic trends are explained in the terms of two fundamental factors, namely, attraction of extranuclear electrons towards the nucleus and repulsion between electrons belonging to the same atom.
• These attractive and repulsive forces operate simultaneously in an atom.
• This results in two interrelated phenomena called effective nuclear charge and screening effect in an atom.

Question 48.
Explain the concept of effective nuclear charge in detail.
Answer:
i. In a multi-electron atom, the positively charged nucleus attracts the negatively charged electrons around it, and there is mutual repulsion between the negatively charged extranuclear electrons.
ii. The repulsion by inner shell electrons results in pushing the outer shell electrons further away from the nucleus. Thus, the outer shell electrons are held less tightly by the nucleus.
iii. As a result, the attraction of the nucleus for an outer electron is partially cancelled and hence, an outer shell electron does not experience the actual positive charge present on the nucleus. This effect of the inner electrons on the outer electrons is called screening effect or shielding effect.
iv. The net nuclear charge actually experienced by an electron is called the effective nuclear charge (Z_eff).
The effective nuclear charge is lower than the actual nuclear charge (Z).
v. Effective nuclear charge (Z_eff) = Z – electron shielding
= Z – σ
Here σ (sigma) is called shielding constant or screening constant and the value of σ depends upon type of the orbital that the electron occupies.

Question 49.
Define:
i. Effective nuclear charge (Z_eff)
ii. Screening effect (or shielding effect)
Answer:
i. Effective nuclear charge (Z_eff): In multi-electron atom, the net nuclear charge actually experienced by an electron is called the effective nuclear charge (Z_eff).
ii. Screening effect (or shielding effect): In multi-electron atom, the effect of the inner electrons on the outer electrons is called screening effect or shielding effect of the inner/core electrons.

Question 50.
Explain the variations in effective nuclear charge
i. Across a period
ii. Down a group
Answer:
i. Across a period:

• As we move across a period, atomic number increases by one and thus, actual nuclear charge (Z) increases by +1 at a time.
• However, the valence shell remains the same and the newly added electron gets accommodated in the same shell. There is no addition of electrons to the core i.e., inner shells. Thus, shielding due to core electrons remains the same even though the actual nuclear charge increases.
• As a result, the effective nuclear charge (Z_eff) goes on increasing across a period.

ii. Down a group:

• As we move down a group, a new larger valence shell is added. As a result, there is an additional shell in the core.
• The shielding effect of the increased number of core electrons outweighs the effect of the increased nuclear charge. Thus, the effective nuclear charge experienced by the outer electrons decreases largely down a group.
• Hence, the effective nuclear charge (Z_eff) decreases down a group.

Question 51.
Define atomic radius.
Answer:
Atomic radius is one half of the internuclear distance between two adjacent atoms of a metal or two single bonded atoms of a nonmetal.

Question 52.
What is meant by covalent radius of the atom? Explain with suitable examples.
Answer:

• In the case of nonmetals (except noble gases), the atoms of an element are bonded to each other by covalent bonds.
• Bond length of a single bond is taken as sum of radii of the two single bonded atoms. This is called covalent radius of the atom.
• For example: Bond length of C-C bond in diamond is 154 pm. Therefore, atomic radius of carbon is estimated to be 77 pm which is half of bond length (\(\frac {1}{2}\) × 154 = 77).

Question 53.
How is atomic radius of a nonmetallic element estimated?
Answer:

• The atomic size of a nonmetallic element is estimated from the distance between the two atoms bound together by a single covalent bond. From this, the covalent radius of the element is estimated.
• The internuclear distance in a diatomic molecule of an element is its covalent bond length. Half the covalent bond length gives the covalent radius.
• Bond length of Cl-Cl bond in Cl₂ is measured as 198 pm. Therefore, the atomic radius of Cl is estimated to be 99 pm.

Question 54.
Define metallic radius.
Answer:
One half of the distance between the centres of nucleus of the two adjacent atoms of a metallic crystal is called as a metallic radius.

Question 55.
How is metallic radius determined in the case of metals? Give suitable example.
Answer:

• In the case of metals, distance between the adjacent atoms in metallic sample is measured. One half of this distance is taken as the metallic radius.
• For example: In beryllium, distance between the adjacent Be atoms is measured. One half of this distance is taken as the metallic radius of a Be atom.
• Distance between two adjacent Be atoms is 224 pm. Therefore, metallic radius of a Be atom is 112 pm.

Note: Atomic radii of some elements are given in the table below.

Question 56.
How is a cation and an anion formed?
Answer:
A cation (or positively charged ion) is formed by the removal of one or more electrons from the atom of an element whereas an anion (or negatively charged ion) is formed when the atom of an element gains one or more electrons.

Question 57.
Give reasons: Radius of a cation is smaller and that of an anion is larger as compared to that of their parent atoms.
Answer:

• A cation is formed by the loss of one or more electrons, therefore, it contains fewer electrons that the parent atom but has the same nuclear charge.
• As a result, the shielding effect is less and effective nuclear charge is larger within a cation. Thus, radius of a cation is smaller than the parent atom.
• However, an anion is formed by the gain of one or more electrons and therefore, it contains a greater number of electrons than the parent atom.
• Due to these additional electrons, anion experiences increased electronic repulsion and decreased effective nuclear charge. As a result, an anion has larger radius than its parent atom.

Hence, radius of a cation is smaller and that of an anion are larger as compared to that of their parent atoms.

Question 58.
Define: Isoelectronic species
Answer:
The atoms or ions which have the same number of electrons are called isoelectronic species.

Question 59.
Explain with example why the radii of isoelectronic species vary.
Answer:
i. The radii of isoelectronic species vary according to actual nuclear charge. Larger nuclear charge exerts greater attraction on the electrons and thus, the radius of that isoelectronic species becomes smaller.
ii. For example, F^– and Na⁺ both have 10 electrons but the nuclear charge on F^– is +9 which is smaller than that of Na⁺ which has the nuclear charge +11.
Hence, F has larger ionic radii (133 pm) than Na⁺ (98 pm).

Question 60.
What is the trend observed in the ionic size of the following isoelectronic species? Explain.
i. Na⁺, Mg²⁺, Al³⁺ and Si⁴⁺
ii. O^2-, F^–, Na⁺ and Mg²⁺
Answer:
i. Na⁺, Mg²⁺, Al³⁺ and Si⁴⁺

a. Among the given ions, the nuclear charge varies but the number of electrons remains the same and therefore, these are isoelectronic species.
b. The radii of isoelectronic species vary according to actual nuclear charge. Larger nuclear charge exerts greater attraction on the electrons and thus, the radius of that isoelectronic species becomes smaller.
c. The nuclear charge increases in the order Na⁺ < Mg²⁺ < Al³⁺ < Si⁴⁺ and thus, the ionic size decreases in the order Na⁺ > Mg²⁺ > Al³⁺ > Si⁴⁺.

ii. O^2-, F^–, Na⁺ and Mg²⁺

a. Among the given ions, the nuclear charge varies but the number of electrons remains the same and therefore, these are isoelectronic species.
b. The radii of isoelectronic species vary according to actual nuclear charge. Larger nuclear charge exerts greater attraction on the electrons and thus, the radius of that isoelectronic species becomes smaller.
c. The nuclear charge increases in the order O^2- < F^– < Na⁺ < Mg²⁺ and thus, the ionic size decreases in the order O^2- > F^– > Na⁺ > Mg²⁺.

Question 61.
Identify the species having larger radius from the following pairs:
i. Na and Na⁺
ii. Na⁺ and Mg²⁺
Answer:
i. The nuclear charge is the same in Na and Na⁺. But Na⁺ has a smaller number of electrons and a smaller number of occupied shells (two shells in Na⁺, while three shells in Na). Therefore, radius of Na is larger.
ii. Na⁺ and Mg²⁺ are isoelectronic species. Mg²⁺ has a larger nuclear charge than that of Na⁺. Therefore, Na⁺ has larger radius.

Question 62.
Which of the following species will have the largest and the smallest size? Why?
Mg, Mg²⁺, Al, Al³⁺
Answer:

• Atomic radius decreases across the period. Hence, the atomic radius of Mg is larger than that of Al.
• Parent atoms have larger radius than their corresponding cations. Hence, the radius of Mg is larger than that of Mg²⁺ and the radius of Al is larger than that of Al³⁺.
• Mg²⁺ and Al³⁺ are isoelectronic. Among isoelectronic species, the one with larger nuclear charge will have smaller radius. Al³⁺ (Z = 13) has a larger nuclear charge than that of Mg²⁺ (Z = 12). Hence, the ionic radius of Al³⁺ is smaller than Mg²⁺.
• Therefore, the decreasing order of radius is Mg > Al > Mg²⁺ > Al³⁺.

Hence, species with the largest size is Mg and with the smallest size is Al³⁺.

Question 63.
Identify the element with more negative value of electron gain enthalpy from the following pairs. Justify.
i. Cl and Br
ii. F and O
Answer:
i. Cl and Br belong to the same group of halogens with Br having higher atomic number than CL As the atomic number increases down the group, the effective nuclear charge decreases. The increased shielding effect of core electrons can be noticed. The electron has to be added to a farther shell, which releases less energy and thus, electron gain enthalpy becomes less negative down the group. Therefore, Cl has more negative electron gain enthalpy than Br.

ii. F and O belong to the same second period with F having higher atomic number than O. As the atomic number increases across a period, atomic radius decreases, effective nuclear charge increases and electron can be added more easily. Therefore, more energy is released with gain of an electron as we move towards right in a period. Therefore, F has more negative electron gain enthalpy than O.

Question 64.
Explain the importance of electronegativity.
Answer:

• When two atoms of different elements form a covalent bond, the electron pair is shared unequally.
• Electronegativity represents attractive force exerted by the nucleus on shared electrons. Electron sharing between covalently bonded atoms takes place using the valence electron.
• It depends upon the effective nuclear charge experienced by electron involved in formation of the covalent bond.
• Electronegativity predicts the nature of the bond, or, how strong is the force of attraction that holds two atoms together.

Question 65.
Explain the trend in electronegativity
i. across a period
ii. down a group
Answer:
i. Across a period:
a. As we move across a period from left to right in the periodic table, the effective nuclear charge increases steadily.
b. Hence, due to the increase in effective nuclear charge, the tendency to attract shared electron pair in a covalent bond increases i.e., electronegativity increases from left to right across a period.
e. g. Li < Be < B < C < N < O <F.

ii. Down a group:
a. As we move down the group from top to bottom in the periodic table, the size of the valence shell goes on increasing.
b. However, the effective nuclear charge decreases as the shielding effect of the core electrons increases due to the increase in the size of the atoms.
c. Thus, the tendency to attract shared electron pair in a covalent bond decreases, decreasing the electronegativity down the group.
e.g. F > Cl > Br > I > At.

Question 66.
Explain the terms:
i. Valency of an element
ii. Oxidation state (or oxidation number)
iii. Chemical reactivity
Answer:
i. Valency of an element:

• Valency of an element indicates the number of chemical bonds that the atom can form giving a molecule.
• The most fundamental chemical property of an element is its combining power. This property is numerically expressed in terms of valency or valence.
• Valence does not have any sign associated with it.
• Valency of the main group elements is usually equal to the number of valence electrons (outer electrons) and/or equal to difference between 8 and the number of valence electrons.

ii. Oxidation state (or oxidation number):

• The oxidation state or oxidation number is a frequently used term related to valence.
• Oxidation number has a sign, + or – which is decided by the electronegativities of atoms that are bonded.

iii. Chemical reactivity:

• Chemical reactivity is related to the ease with which an element loses or gains the electrons.
• Chemical properties of elements depend on their electronic configuration.

Question 67.
What is the trend observed in the valency of main group elements?
Answer:
i. Valency of the main group elements is usually equal to the number of valence electrons (outer electrons) or it is equal to the difference between 8 and the number of valence electrons.
i.e., (8 – number of valence electrons).
ii. The valency remains the same down the group and shows a gradual variation across the period as atomic number increases from left to right.

Note: Periodic trends in valency of main group elements.

Question 68.
Give any two distinguishing points between metals and nonmetals.
Answer:
Metals:

1. Generally, metals exhibit good electrical conductivity.
2. They can form compounds by loss of valence electrons.

Nonmetals:

1. Generally, nonmetals exhibit poor electrical conductivity.
2. Nonmetals can form compounds by gain of valence electrons in valence shell.

Question 69.
Explain the variation of the following property of elements down a group and across a period.
i. Metallic character
ii. Nonmetallic character
Answer:
The variation observed in the metallic and nonmetallic character of elements can be explained in the terms of ionization enthalpy and electron gain enthalpy.
i. Metallic character:

• The ionization enthalpy decreases down the group. Thus, the tendency to lose valence electrons increases down the group and the metallic character increases down a group.
• However, the ionization enthalpy increases across the period and as a result metallic character decreases across a period.

ii. Nonmetallic character:

• Electron gain enthalpy becomes less negative as we move down the group and hence, nonmetallic character decreases down the group.
• However, electron gain enthalpy becomes more and more negative across the period and thus, nonmetallic character increases across the period.

Question 70.
Justify the position of most reactive and least reactive elements in the modern periodic table.
Answer:

• Chemical reactivity of elements depends on the ease with which it attains electronic configuration of the nearest inert gas by gaining or losing electrons.
• The elements preceding an inert gas react by gaining electrons in the outermost shell, whereas the elements which follow an inert gas in the periodic table react by loss of valence electrons. Thus, the chemical reactivity is decided by the electron gain enthalpy and ionization enthalpy values, which in turn, are decided by effective nuclear charge and finally by the atomic size.
• The ionization enthalpy is the smallest for the element on the extreme left in a period, whereas the electron gain enthalpy is the most negative for the second last element on the extreme right, (preceding to the inert gas which is the last element of a period).
• Thus, the most reactive elements lie on the extreme left and the extreme right (excluding inert gases) of the periodic table.

Question 71.
How can we predict chemical reactivity of elements based on their oxide formation reactions and the nature of oxides formed?
Answer:

• The chemical reactivity can be illustrated by comparing the reaction of elements with oxygen to form oxides and the nature of the oxides.
• Alkali metals present on the extreme left of the modem periodic table are highly reactive and thus, they react vigorously with oxygen to form oxides such as Na₂O which reacts with water to form strong bases like NaOH.
• The reactive elements on the right i.e., halogens react with oxygen to form oxides such as Cl₂O₇ which on reaction with water form strong acids like HClO₄.
• The oxides of the elements in the centre of the main group elements are either amphoteric (Al₂O₃) neutral (CO, NO) or weakly acidic (CO₂).

Question 72.
Write the chemical equations for reaction, if any, of (i) Na₂O and (ii) Al₂O₃ with HCl and NaOH both. Correlate this with the position of Na and Al in the periodic table, and infer whether the oxides are basic, acidic or amphoteric.
Answer:
i. Na₂O + 2HCl → 2NaCl + H₂O
Na₂O + NaOH → No reaction
As Na₂O reacts with an acid to form salt and water it is a basic oxide. This is because Na is a reactive metal lying on the extreme left of the periodic table.

ii. Al₂O₃ + 6HCl → 2AlCl₃ + 3H₂O
Al₂O₃ + 2NaOH → 2NaAlO₂ + H₂O
As Al₂O₃ reacts with an acid as well as base to form a salt and water. It is an amphoteric oxide. Al is a moderately reactive element lying in the centre of main group elements in the periodic table.

Question 73.
Comment on the chemical reactivity of d-block and f-block elements.
Answer:

• d-block (transition) elements and f-block (inner transition) elements exhibit very small change in atomic radii.
• Therefore, the transition and inner transition elements belonging to the individual series have similar chemical properties.
• Their ionization enthalpies are intermediate between those of s-block and p-block elements. Thus, d-block and f-block elements generally show moderate reactivity.

Question 74.
Ge, S and Br belong to the groups 14, 16 and 17, respectively. Predict the empirical formulae of the compounds those can be formed by (i) Ge and S, (ii) Ge and Br.
Answer:
From the group number we understand that the general outer electronic configuration and number of valence electrons and valencies of the three elements are:

i. S is more electronegative than Ge. Therefore, the empirical formula of the compound formed by these two elements is predicted by the method of cross multiplication of the valencies:

ii. Br is more electronegative than Ge. The empirical formula of the compound formed by these two elements is predicted by the method of cross multiplication of valencies:

[Note: More electronegative element is written on right hand side in cross multiplication method.]

Question 75.
The first ionization enthalpies of 5 elements of second period are given below:

Element	1st IE values (kJ mol-1)
I	520
II	1681
III	1086
IV	2080
V	899

Based on the above data, answer the following questions:
i. Identify the element having highest atomic number.
ii. If element I is lithium, how will you explain its low value of first ionization enthalpy?
iii. Explain why ionization enthalpies are always positive.
Answer:
i. Element IV. The first ionization enthalpy increases with increase in atomic number along a period. Hence, the element IV having highest IE will have highest atomic number among the given elements.
ii. Alkali metals have only one electron in their valence shell which can be easily lost resulting in the stable noble gas configuration. Therefore, lithium shows low value of first ionization enthalpy.
iii. Energy is always required to remove electrons from an atom. Hence, ionization enthalpies have positive value.

Question 76.
From the elements Mg, Ar, Cl, Sr, P and S, choose one that fits each of the below given descriptions:
i. An element having two valence electrons.
ii. An element having properties similar to that of O.
iii. A noble gas.
iv. An alkaline earth metal,
v. An element having electronic configuration 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p³.
Answer:
i. Magnesium (Mg)
ii. Sulphur (S)
iii. Argon (Ar)
iv. Strontium (Sr)
v. Phosphorus (P)

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Mendeleev’s periodic table had …………… elements.
(A) 75
(B) 83
(C) 63
(D) 118
Answer:
(C) 63

2. The serial or ordinal number of an element in Mendeleev’s periodic table was recognized as ………….
(A) neutron number
(B) valency
(C) principal quantum number
(D) proton number
Answer:
(D) proton number

3. Mendeleev predicted the existence of …………..
(A) aluminium
(B) silicon
(C) tellurium
(D) germanium
Answer:
(D) germanium

4. According to Mendeleev’s periodic law, the physical and chemical properties of elements are the periodic function of their …………..
(A) atomic weights
(B) atomic numbers
(C) molecular formulas
(D) molecular weights
Answer:
(A) atomic weights

5. Moseley showed that the fundamental property of an element is ……………
(A) atomic number
(B) atomic mass
(C) both A and B
(D) none of these
Answer:
(A) atomic number

6. According to periodic law of elements, the variation in properties of elements is related to their ……………
(A) densities
(B) atomic masses
(C) atomic sizes
(D) atomic numbers
Answer:
(D) atomic numbers

7. At present, how many elements are known?
(A) 118
(B) 110
(C) 114
(D) 120
Answer:
(A) 118

8. The long form of the periodic table consists of how many periods?
(A) 5
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) 7
Answer:
(D) 7

9. According to quantum mechanical model of the atom, the properties of elements can be correlated to their …………….
(A) atomic number
(B) atomic mass
(C) valency
(D) electronic configuration
Answer:
(D) electronic configuration

10. The fourth, fifth and sixth periods are long periods and contain ……………
(A) 18, 18 and 36
(B) 18, 28 and 32
(C) 18, 15 and 31
(D) 18, 18 and 32
Answer:
(D) 18, 18 and 32

11. f-block elements are also known as ……………
(A) transition elements
(B) inert gas elements
(C) normal elements
(D) inner transition elements
Answer:
(D) inner transition elements

12. Which of the following forms a bridge between reactive s-block elements and less reactive group 13 and 14 elements?
(A) Inert gases
(B) Transition metals
(C) Halogens
(D) Inner transition metals
Answer:
(B) Transition metals

13. ………… elements are known as chalcogens.
(A) Group 17
(B) Group 18
(C) Group 16
(D) Group 1
Answer:
(C) Group 16

14. The name ‘rare earth elements’ is used for …………..
(A) lanthanides only
(B) actinides only
(C) both lanthanides and actinides
(D) alkaline earth metals
Answer:
(C) both lanthanides and actinides

15. Atomic number of V is 23 and its electronic configuration is …………….
(A) 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3p⁶ 3d³ 4s²
(B) 1s² 2s² 2d³ 3p⁶ 2p⁶ 4s²
(C) 2s² 1s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3d³ 4s²
(D) 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 3d³ 4s²
Answer:
(D) 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 3d³ 4s²

16. Aluminium belongs to …………. elements.
(A) s-block
(B) p-block
(C) d-block
(D) f-block
Answer:
(B) p-block

17. In P^3-, S^2- and Cl^– ions, the increasing order of size is ………….
(A) Cl^– < S^2- < P^3-
(B) P^3- < S^2- < Cl^–
(C) S^2- < Cl^– < P^3-
(D) S^2- < P^3- < Cl^–
Answer:
(A) Cl- < S^2- < P^3-

18. The CORRECT order of radii is ……………
(A) N < Be < B
(B) F^–< O^2- <N^3-
(C) Na < Li < K
(D) Fe³⁺ < Fe²⁺ < Fe⁴⁺
Answer:
(B) F^– < O^2- <N^3-

19. Which of the following species will have the largest size Mg, Mg²⁺, Fe, Fe³⁺?
(A) Mg
(B) Mg²⁺
(C) Fe
(D) Fe³⁺
Answer:
(C) Fe

20. Which one of the following is CORRECT order of the size?
(A) I > I^– >I⁺
(B) I > I⁺ > I^–
(C) I⁺ > I^– > I
(D) I^– > I > I⁺
Answer:
(D) I^– > I > I⁺

21. The CORRECT order of increasing radii of the elements Na, Si, Al and P is ……………
(A) Si < Al < P < Na
(B) Al < Si < P < Na
(C) P < Si < Al < Na
(D) Al < P < Si < Na
Answer:
(C) P < Si < Al < Na

22. The metallic and nonmetallic properties of elements can be judged by their ……………
(A) electron gain enthalpy
(B) ionization enthalpy
(C) electronegativity
(D) valence
Answer:
(C) electronegativity

23. Which element has the most negative electron gain enthalpy?
(A) Sulphur
(B) Fluorine
(C) Chlorine
(D) Hydrogen
Answer:
(C) Chlorine

24. Which of the properties remain unchanged on descending a group in the periodic table?
(A) Atomic size
(B) Density
(C) Valency electrons
(D) Metallic character
Answer:
(C) Valency electrons