Important Questions

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Commerce Book Keeping & Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 8 Company Accounts – Issue of Shares Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Commerce BK Important Questions Chapter 8 Company Accounts – Issue of Shares

1. Objective Questions:

A. Select the appropriate answer from the alternative given below and rewrite the sentence.

Question 1.
Nominal value of shares allotted to the public is called ____________ capital.
(a) authorised
(b) reserve
(c) paid-up
(d) subscribed
Answer:
(d) subscribed

Question 2.
Paid-up value of all shares allotted is called ____________ capital.
(a) uncalled
(b) issued
(c) subscribed
(d) nominal
Answer:
(c) subscribed

Question 3.
If the articles are silent regarding interest on Calls-in-Arrears, the minimum rate of interest to be charged is ____________
(a) 5% p.a.
(b) 6% p.a.
(c) 8% p.a.
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) 5% p.a.

Question 4.
If the articles are silent regarding interest on Calls-in-Advance, the minimum rate of interest to be charged is ____________ p.a.
(a) 5%
(b) 6%
(c) 8%
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) 6%

Question 5.
____________ is deducted from the share capital to know paid-up value of shares.
(a) Calls-in-Advance
(b) Calls-in-Arrears
(c) Forfeited Shares
(d) Discount on Issue
Answer:
(b) Calls-in-Arrears

Question 6.
The excess price received over the par value of shares should be ____________ to Securities Premium A/c.
(a) debited
(b) credited
(c) adjusted
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) credited

Question 7.
The capital with which a company is registered is called ____________
(a) Issued Capital
(b) Subscribed Capital
(c) Authorised Capital
(d) Called-up Capital
Answer:
(c) Authorised Capital

Question 8.
If a share of ₹ 100 is issued at ₹ 90, it is said to be issued ____________
(a) at par
(b) at a discount
(c) at a premium
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) at a discount

Question 9.
If a share of ₹ 100 is issued at ₹ 100, it is said to be issued ____________
(a) at par
(b) at premium
(c) at discount
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) at par

Question 10.
If a share of ₹ 100 is issued at ₹ 110, it is said to be issued ____________
(a) at par
(b) at a premium
(c) at a discount
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) at a premium

B. Give one word/term/phrase for each of the following statements.

Question 1.
The capital is not disclosed in the Balance Sheet.
Answer:
Reserve capital

Question 2.
Preference share on which arrears of dividend accumulate.
Answer:
Cumulative preference shares

Question 3.
A preference share having the right of conversion into equity.
Answer:
Convertible preference shares

Question 4.
The account to which excess amount on Share Forfeited A/c is transferred.
Answer:
Capital Reserve Account

Question 5.
The maximum amount beyond which a company is not allowed to raise its share capital.
Answer:
Authorised/Nominal capital

Question 6.
Deduction made from share capital to find out paid-up capital.
Answer:
Calls-in-Arrears

Question 7.
The capital on which dividend is paid.
Answer:
Paid-up share capital

Question 8.
Shares having voting rights.
Answer:
Equity shares

Question 9.
Part of the authorised capital is offered by the company to the public to subscribe for.
Answer:
Issued capital

Question 10.
Part of the uncalled capital is called up at the time of winding up of the company.
Answer:
Reserve capital

Question 11.
Shares that do not preference shares.
Answer:
Equity shares

Question 12.
Shares enjoy preferential rights in the matter of payment of dividends and repayment of capital.
Answer:
Preference shares

Question 13.
The direct sale of shares by a company to a limited number of sophisticated investors.
Answer:
Private placement of shares

Question 14.
A demand made by the company after allotment of shares to pay the remaining amount of shares.
Answer:
Call on share

C. State true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
In private placement, shares are issued to the public through the prospectus.
Answer:
This statement is False.
‘Private placement’ means a direct private offering of the company’s securities by a company to a selected group of sophisticated investors. In private placement, shares are not issued to the public through the prospectus.

Question 2.
In public issues whole amount of share, capital is called at once.
Answer:
This statement is False.
In public issues whole amount of share, capital is not called at once but called in several installments such as application money, allotment money and calls money by following SEBI guidelines.

Question 3.
Shares are always issued at par.
Answer:
This statement is False.
Depends on the company’s position in the market, the company can issue shares at par or at a premium, or a discount.

Question 4.
Share forfeited balance is transferred to Capital Reserve Account.
Answer:
This statement is True.
Share forfeited balance is a profit earned by the company at the time of issuing shares, which is not recurring in nature. It is also known as capital profit. Therefore it is to be transferred to Capital Reserve Account.

Question 5.
Shares are issued for cash only.
Answer:
This statement is False.
The company issues shares for cash and also for consideration other than cash. Shares are issued by the company to the vendor for the purchase of land, machinery, etc. In such cases, money is not paid, but shares are issued by the company for value received.

Question 6.
Preference shares can be redeemed after a certain period of time.
Answer:
This statement is True.
When a provision of Articles of Association permits, Preference shares can be redeemed after a certain period of time with other preferential rights like a preference for the payment of dividend at a predetermined fixed rate and for repayment of capital.

Question 7.
Authorised capital of a company is always equal to its issued capital.
Answer:
This statement is False.
Authorized capital means the maximum limit up to which a company is authorised to raise share capital while issued capital means capital that is issued or offered for subscription to the public. Issued capital is a part of authorised capital. So, authorised capital and issued capital can’t be equal for a company.

D. State whether you agree or disagree with the following statements.

Question 1.
Equity shareholders enjoy preferential rights.
Answer:
Disagree

Question 2.
An equity share is a guarantee of a fixed rate of dividend.
Answer:
Disagree

Question 3.
The private placement method saves time and cost.
Answer:
Agree

Question 4.
Shares can be issued at par or at a discount or a premium.
Answer:
Agree

Question 5.
A public company forfeits shares on nonpayment of the final call only.
Answer:
Disagree

Question 6.
Forfeited shares are reissued at par.
Answer:
Disagree

Question 7.
Calls-in-Arrears are also called unpaid calls.
Answer:
Agree

Question 8.
The balance of the Calls-in-Advance account is shown in the Balance Sheet under the head ‘Share Capital’.
Answer:
Agree

Question 9.
Sweat shares can be issued for consideration other than cash.
Answer:
Agree

Question 10.
Equity shares are issued to the public through the prospectus.
Answer:
Agree

E. Answer in one sentence only.

Question 1.
What is Owned Capital?
Answer:
The capital collected through the issue of shares is known as Owned Capital.

Question 2.
State the types of shares.
Answer:
There are two types of shares viz.

• Equity or Ordinary Shares
• Preference Shares

Question 3.
What is Subscribed Capital?
Answer:
Subscribed Capital is a part of the issued capital which the company has actually received by way of application from the public and also allotted by the company.

Question 4.
What is Under Subscription?
Answer:
When a company received applications for shares less than those actually offered or issued to the public, the issue is said to be undersubscribed.

Question 5.
State the meaning of issued capital.
Answer:
The part of the portion of authorised capital which is issued or offered for subscription to the public is called issued capital.

Question 6.
Define Share.
Answer:
The owned capital of a company when divided into a large number of parts having equal face value, each such part is called a ‘Share’.

Question 7.
What is Equity Share?
Answer:
An equity share is one that has no special preferential right to dividend or repayment of capital.

Question 8.
Write the meaning of Equity Share Capital.
Answer:
The capital raised by the company through the issue of equity shares is called equity share capital.

Question 9.
What is meant by Convertible Preference Share?
Answer:
Preference share which can be converted into equity share after a certain period is called Convertible Preference Share.

Question 10.
Which preference shares are called Cumulative Preference Shares?
Answer:
Preference shares in which unpaid dividend in a year gets accumulated and added in the dividend of the next year are called Cumulative Preference Shares.

Question 11.
What is Allotment qf Shares?
Answer:
Allotment of shares means after considering the demand of the applicants, accepting application forms up to certain fixed numbers as per the resolution passed in the meeting of the board of directors.

Question 12.
What is meant by a Discount on the Issue of Shares?
Answer:
When shareholders are supposed to pay a price lower than the face value of the shares, then the shares are said to be issued at discount.

Question 13.
Give the full form of SEBI.
Answer:
The full form of SEBI is the Securities Exchange Board of India.

Question 14.
Define Calls-in-Advance.
Answer:
Calls-in-Advance is that amount paid by the shareholders in excess of the call amount due from them. .

Question 15.
Define Securities Premium Account.
Answer:
In case of issue of shares at a premium, a separate account into which premium amount is deposited is called ‘Securities Premium Account’.

Question 16.
When are shares said to be issued at par?
Answer:
Shares are said to be issued at par when the company issues shares at their face value.

F. Complete the following sentences.

Question 1.
The portion of Subscribed capital which has not yet been called-up is ____________
Answer:
Uncalled capital

Question 2.
The capital which is not disclosed in the Balance Sheet is known as ____________
Answer:
Reserve capital

Question 3.
____________ shares have voting right.
Answer:
Equity

Question 4.
The liability of shareholder of public limited company is ____________
Answer:
limited

Question 5.
____________ shares are issued to public through prospectus.
Answer:
Equity

Question 6.
In public issue whole amount of share capital is called in ____________
Answer:
instalments

Question 7.
A public company ____________ share on non-payment of call money.
Answer:
forfeits

Question 8.
Share forfeited balance is transferred to ____________ Account.
Answer:
Capital Reserve

Question 9.
Preference shares can be ____________ after certain period of time.
Answer:
redeemed

Question 10.
____________ shares have a right to participate in decision making process.
Answer:
Equity

Solved Problems

Question 1.
Kandla Co. Ltd. made an issue of 80,000 equity shares of ₹ 20 each payable as follows:
Application: ₹ 5 per share
Allotment: ₹ 10 per share
First Call: ₹ 3 per share
Second and Final Call: ₹ 2 per share
The company received applications for 90,000 shares of which applications for 10,000 shares were rejected and money refunded. All the shareholders paid up to the second call except Sachin, the allottee of 4,000 Shares, who failed to pay a final call.
Pass Journal Entries for the above transaction in the books of Kandla Co. Ltd.
Solution:
Journal Entries in the books of KANDLA CO. LTD.

Question 2.
Vraj Ltd. issued 20,000 equity shares of ₹ 20 each, payable as follows:
On Application: ₹ 4
On Allotment: ₹ 6
On First Call: ₹ 6
On Second Call: ₹ 4
The company received applications for 25,000 equity shares. Allotment of shares was made on a pro-rata basis. Share allotment and calls were made and as also received except Raja holding 500 shares failed to pay both the calls. His shares were forfeited after the second call.
Record the above transactions in the books of Vraj Ltd.
Solution:
Journal Entries in the books of VRAJ LIMITED

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Biology Important Questions Chapter 7 Plant Growth and Mineral Nutrition Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Biology Important Questions Chapter 7 Plant Growth and Mineral Nutrition

Multiple choice questions

Question 1.
For the following, which is the aspect of growth? Example – Increase in length, size and number of cells.
(a) Quantitative
(b) Qualitative
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Three dimensional
Answer:
(a) Quantitative

Question 2.
In vascular plants, growth takes place due to ………………..
(a) conducting tissues
(b) embryo
(c) meristems
(d) stem cell
Answer:
(c) meristems

Question 3.
What is growth?
(a) Temporary, irreversible increase in an organism.
(b) Permanent, reversible increase in an organism.
(c) Permanent, irreversible decrease in an organism.
(d) Permanent, irreversible increase in an organism.
Answer:
(d) Permanent, irreversible, increase in an organism

Question 4.
Based on location, plants have these three types of meristems.
(a) Basal, Intercalary and Lateral
(b) Apical, Basal and Lateral
(c) Apical, Interfascicular and Lateral
(d) Apical, Intercalary, Lateral
Answer:
(d) Apical, Intercalary, Lateral

Question 5.
Meristem cells are ………………..
(a) thin walled, vacuolated with prominent nucleus
(b) thick walled, non-vacuolated without nucleus
(c) thin walled, non-vacuolated with prominent nucleus
(d) thick walled, vacuolated with prominent nucleus
Answer:
(c) thin walled, non-vacuolated with prominent nucleus

Question 6.
Select correct sequence of phases of growth.
(a) Phase of formation, phase of elongation, phase of maturation
(b) Phase of cell division, phase of enlargement, phase of elongation
(c) Phase of formation, phase of maturation, phase of elongation
(d) Phase of enlargement, phase of cell division, phase of maturation
Answer:
(a) Phase of formation, phase of elongation, phase of maturation

Question 7.
In which phase of growth, growth rate is at accelerated pace?
(a) Lag phase
(b) Log phase
(c) Steady phase
(d) Stationary phase
Answer:
(b) Log phase

Question 8.
Water is essential for growth because it is necessary ………………..
(a) for turgidity
(b) as nutrient
(c) as raw material
(d) for gravity
Answer:
(a) for turgidity

Question 9.
Which equipment is suitable for measuring linear growth of shoot?
(a) Horizontal microscope
(b) Spectroscope
(c) Crescograph
(d) Auxanometer
Answer:
(d) Auxanometer

Question 10.
Which is correct expression of absolute growth rate (AGR)?
(a) AGR = \(\frac { dn }{ dt }\)
(b) AGR = \(\frac { dt }{ dn}\)
(c) AGR = \(\frac { RGR }{ n }\)
(d) AGR = \(\frac { n }{ RGR }\)
Answer:
(a) AGR = \(\frac { dn }{ dt }\)

Question 11.
Arithmetic growth in plants shows ……………….. graph.
(a) Sigmoid
(b) J-shaped
(c) linear
(d) elliptical
Answer:
(c) linear

Question 12.
What is grand period of growth?
(a) The total time required for all phases to occur
(b) The total time required for exponential phase
(c) The total time required for Lag and Log phase together
(d) The toted time required for stationary phase
Answer:
(a) The total time required for all phases to occur

Question 13.
Which tissue is formed by process of de-differentiation?
(a) Intrafascicular cambium
(b) Secondary phloem
(c) Interfascicular cambium
(d) Secondary xylem
Answer:
(c) Interfascicular cambium

Question 14.
The example of environmental plasticity- heterophylly observed is ………………..
(a) Cotton
(b) Coriander
(c) Larkspur
(d) Buttercup
Answer:
(d) Buttercup

Question 15.
Synthesis of IAA takes place from amino acid ………………..
(a) Methionine
(b) Tryptophan
(c) Valine
(d) Aspartic acid
Answer:
(b) Tryptophan

Question 16.
Find the odd one out.
(a) IAA
(b) 2, 4-D
(c) NAA
(d) IBA
Answer:
(a) IAA

Question 17.
The selective herbicide is ………………..
(a) IBA
(b) GA₃
(c) 2, 4 D
(d) NAA
Answer:
(c) 2, 4 D

Question 18.
This hormone promotes rooting in artificial method of cutting ………………..
(a) Gibberellin
(b) Auxin
(c) Cytokinin
(d) Dormin
Answer:
(b) Auxin

Question 19.
Chemically the peculiar structure of gibberellins is ……………….. ring.
la) pyrole ring
(b) purine ring
(c) gibbeane ring
(d) pyrimidine
Answer:
(c) gibbeane ring

Question 20.
First natural cytokinin was obtained from ……………….. by Letham.
(a) Maize grains
(b) Coconut milk
(c) Rice seedling
(d) Tomato
Answer:
(a) Maize grains

Question 21.
A low ratio of cytokinin to auxin induces ……………….. in plants.
(a) rooting
(b) shooting
(c) bud formation
(d) flowering
Answer:
(a) rooting

Question 22.
Apical dominance : Auxin : : Fruit ripening : ?
(a) Gibberellin
(b) Cytokinin
(c) Ethylene
(d) Abscissic acid
Answer:
(c) Ethylene

Question 23.
Which hormone is known as stress hormone ?
(a) Auxin
(b) Gibberellin
(c) Ethylene
(d) Abscissic acid
Answer:
(d) Abscissic acid

Question 24.
Abscissic acid is synthesised from ………………..
(a) Methionine
(b) Malic acid
(c) Mevalonic acid
(d) Mucin
Answer:
(c) Mevalonic acid

Question 25.
Photoperiodic response is because of pigment ………………..
(a) Cytochrome
(b) Phytochrome
(c) Anthocyanin
(d) Phycobilin
Answer:
(b) Phytochrome

Question 26.
The favourable temperature for vernalization is ………………..
(a) 1 to 6 °C
(b) 11 to 16 °C
(c) 10 to 16 °C
(d) – 1 to 1 °C
Answer:
(a) 1 to 6 °C

Question 27.
Identify the group of non-mineral elements needed by plants.
(a) PO₄, CO₃, SO₄
(b) C, H, O
(c) N, P K
(d) C, H, N
Answer:
(b) C, H, O

Question 28.
The deficiency symptoms of these minerals are visible in young leaves ………………..
(a) Ca, CO
(b) S, P
(c) Ca, S
(d) Zn, Mg
Answer:
(c) Ca, S

Question 29.
The symptom chlorosis is observed as ………………..
(a) yellowing of leaf
(b) premature leaf fall
(c) malformation of leaf
(d) localized death of tissue
Answer:
(a) yellowing of leaf

Question 30.
…………….. is constituent of chlorophyll.
(a) Mn
(b) Mg
(c) Mo
(d) Fe
Answer:
(b) Mg

Question 31.
This is essential for O₂ evolution in photosynthesis and for proper solute concentration
(a) Ca
(b) Cu
(c) Cl
(d) Co
Answer:
(c) Cl

Question 32.
For active absorption of mineral uptake, energy is supplied by ………………..
(a) respiration
(b) chemosynthesis
(c) photosynthesis
(d) transpiration
Answer:
(a) respiration

Question 33.
Cyanobacteria fix nitrogen in specialised cells called ………………..
(a) Velamen
(b) Haustoria
(c) Heteocysts
(d) Hormogonia
Answer:
(c) Heteocysts

Question 34.
In root nodule, symbiotic nitrogen fixer organism is ………………..
(a) Rhizopus
(b) Pseudomonas
(c) Rhizobium
(d) Nitrosomonas
Answer:
(c) Rhizobium

Question 35.
In plant body, amides are transported through ………………..
(a) sieve tubes
(b) xylem vessels
(c) phloem parenchyma
(d) plasmodesmata
Answer:
(b) xylem vessels

Question 36.
Building blocks of proteins are ………………..
(a) amides
(b) amino acids
(c) carboxylic acid
(d) nitrates
Answer:
(b) amino acids

Question 37.
Flowering plants Aster, Dahlia and Chrysanthemum are ………………..
(a) SDP
(b) LDP
(c) DNP
(d) SDP or LDP
Answer:
(a) SDP

Question 38.
Experimental material of Garner and Allard for discovery of photoperiodism was ………………..
(a) Cucumber and Tomato
(b) Dahlia and Aster
(c) Soybean and Tobacco
(d) Cabbage and Spinach
Answer:
(c) Soybean and Tobacco

Question 39.
Which of the following is used for the production of long seedless grapes ?
(a) Auxin
(b) Cytokinin
(c) Ethylene
(d) Gibberellin
Answer:
(d) Gibberellin

Question 40.
In vernalization, the cold stimulus is perceived by ………………..
(a) axillary bud
(b) floral bud
(c) leaves
(d) apical bud (shoot apex)
Answer:
(d) apical bud (shoot apex)

Question 41.
Xanthium is ………………..
(a) SDP
(b) LDP
(c) DNP
(d) not a flowering plant
Answer:
(a) SDP

Question 42.
Growth starts slowly during the ………………..
(a) lag phase
(b) exponential phase
(c) maturation phase
(d) stationary phase
Answer:
(a) lag phase

Question 43.
Cytokinins induce the formation of ………………..
(a) shoot apex
(b) intrafascicular cambium
(c) cork cambium
(d) interfascicular cambium
Answer:
(d) interfascicular cambium

Question 44.
Bakane disease in rice is associated with the discovery of ………………..
(a) cytokinins
(b) gibberellins
(c) auxins
(d) ethylene
Answer:
(b) gibberellins

Question 45.
ABA is also known as ………………..
(a) antitoxin
(b) antivirulent
(c) antioxidant
(d) antigibber ellin
Answer:
(d) antigibberellin

Question 46.
Gibberellins were first discovered from ………………..
(a) bacteria
(b) fungi
(c) algae
(d) gymnosperms
Answer:
(b) fungi

Question 47.
Which of the following is trace element?
(a) Mg
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Sulphur
(d) Mn
Answer:
(d) Mn

Question 48.
Which of the following is a macronutrient?
(a) Ca
(b) Mn
(c) Zn
(d) Mo
Answer:
(a) Ca

Question 49.
Nitrogen is an important constituent of ………………..
(a) carbohydrates
(b) sugars
(c) proteins
(d) polyphosphates
Answer:
(c) proteins

Question 50.
Deficiency of phosphorus causes ………………..
(a) stunted growth
(b) inward rolling of leaf margin
(c) brittle cell walls
(d) necrotic spots
Answer:
(a) stunted growth

Question 51.
Which of the following is not an essential element for plant?
(a) Sulphur
(b) Boron
(c) Iron
(d) Cadmium
Answer:
(d) Cadmium

Question 52.
…………….. is a constituent of middle lamella.
(a) Mg
(b) K
(c) Ca
(d) P
Answer:
(c) Ca

Match the columns

Question 1.

Column A (Phase of growth)	Column B (Condition)
(1) Lag phase	(a) Growth rate faster
(2) Log phase	(b) Growth rate steady state
(3) Stationary phase	(c) Growth rate slow

Answer:

Column A (Phase of growth)	Column B (Condition)
(1) Lag phase	(c) Growth rate slow
(2) Log phase	(a) Growth rate faster
(3) Stationary phase	(b) Growth rate steady state

Question 2.

Answer:
(1) -(c) Arithmetic growth
(2) – (a) Rate of growth against time
(3) -(b) Geometric growth curve

Question 3.

Column A	Column B
(1) Use of measuring scale	(a) Record of primary growth
(2) Crescograph	(b) Increase in height of plant
(3) Auxanometer	(c) Measure growth in field
(4) Horizontal microscope	(d) Measurement of linear growth of shoot

Answer:

Column A	Column B
(1) Use of measuring scale	(b) Increase in height of plant
(2) Crescograph	(a) Record of primary growth
(3) Auxanometer	(d) Measurement of linear growth of shoot
(4) Horizontal microscope	(c) Measure growth in field

Question 4.

Column A	Column B
(1) Auxin	(a) Bolting in rosette plants
(2) Cytokinin	(b) Stimulate flowering in SDP
(3) Gibberellins	(c) Promotion of growth of lateral buds
(4) Abscissic acid	(d) Apical dominance

Answer:

Column A	Column B
(1) Auxin	(d) Apical dominance
(2) Cytokinin	(c) Promotion of growth of lateral buds
(3) Gibberellins	(a) Bolting in rosette plants
(4) Abscissic acid	(b) Stimulate flowering in SDP

Question 5.

Column A	Column B (Symptoms observed)
(1) Deficiency of Cu	(a) Malformed leaves
(2) Deficiency of Bo	(b) Leaves with yellow edges
(3) Deficiency of Zn	(c) Brown heart disease
(4) Deficiency of K	(d) Die back of shoot

Answer:

Column A	Column B (Symptoms observed)
(1) Deficiency of Cu	(d) Die back of shoot
(2) Deficiency of Bo	(c) Brown heart disease
(3) Deficiency of Zn	(a) Malformed leaves
(4) Deficiency of K	(b) Leaves with yellow edges

Question 6.

Column A	Column B (Organisms)
1. Symbiotic nitrogen fixation	a. Nitrobacter
2. Denitrification	b. Cyanobacteria
3. Free living nitrogen fixers	c. Rhizobium
4. Nitrification	d. Paracoccus

Answer:

Column A	Column B (Organisms)
1. Symbiotic nitrogen fixation	c. Rhizobium
2. Denitrification	d. Paracoccus
3. Free living nitrogen fixers	b. Cyanobacteria
4. Nitrification	a. Nitrobacter

Classify the following to form Column B as per the category given in Column A.

Question 1.
Classify the given plant growth regulators as per their specific control of event in plant life cycle in Column A and complete Column B.
(IAA, GA, Cytokinin, Abscissic acid)

Column A	Column B
(1) Shedding of leaves	————-
(2) Induce flowering in LDP	————
(3) Apical dominance	————-
(4) Induce RNA synthesis	————-

Answer:

Column A	Column B
(1) Shedding of leaves	Abscissic acid
(2) Induce flowering in LDP	GA
(3) Apical dominance	IAA
(4) Induce RNA synthesis	Cytokinin

Question 2.
Classify the given specific effects of different types of auxins in Column A and complete Column B with the examples.
(IAA, NAA, 2, 4-D, IBA, 2, 4, 5-T)

Column A	Column B
(1) Selective synthetic herbicide	————-
(2) Seedless fruits	————
(3) Flowering in pineapple	————-
(4) Synthetic auxin	————-
(5) Agent orange	————

Answer:

Column A	Column B
(1) Selective synthetic herbicide	2, 4-D
(2) Seedless fruits	IAA
(3) Flowering in pineapple	NAA
(4) Synthetic auxin	IBA
(5) Agent orange	2, 4, 5 – T

Question 3.
Classify the given plant hormones as their specific effect observed in plants in Column A and complete Column B.
(ABA, GA, Ethylene, Kinetin)

Column A	Column B
(1) Bolting of rosette plants	————-
(2) Epinasty	————
(3) Closure of stomata	————-
(4) Proliferation of callus	————-

Answer:

Column A	Column B
(1) Bolting of rosette plants	GA
(2) Epinasty	Ethylene
(3) Closure of stomata	ABA
(4) Proliferation of callus	Kinetin

Question 4.
Classify the given disease to their cause given in Column B.
(Ethylene, GA, Deficiency of BO, Deficiency of Cu)

Column A	Column B
(1) Brown heart disease	————-
(2) Bakane disease of Rice	————
(3) Die back of shoot	————-
(4) Degreening of Banana	————-

Answer:

Column A	Column B
(1) Brown heart disease	Deficiency of BO
(2) Bakane disease of Rice	GA
(3) Die back of shoot	Deficiency of Cu
(4) Degreening of Banana	Ethylene

Question 5.
Classify the given organisms related to Nitrogen cycle in Column B.
[Nitrobacter, Rhizobium, Pseudomonas, Nitrosococcus)

Column A	Column B
(1) Symbiont in root nodule	————-
(2) Conversion of nitrite to nitrate	————
(3) Denitrification process	————-
(4) Conversion of ammonia to nitrite	————-

Answer:

Column A	Column B
(1) Symbiont in root nodule	Rhizobium
(2) Conversion of nitrite to nitrate	Nitrobacter
(3) Denitrification process	Pseudomonas
(4) Conversion of ammonia to nitrite	Nitrosococcus

Very short answer questions

Question 1.
Enlist the types of meristems that we observe in plants.
Answer:
In plants, there are apical, intercalary and lateral meristems.

Question 2.
Give characteristic features of meristematic cells.
Answer:
Meristematic cells are thin walled, non- vacuolated with prominent nuclei having granular cytoplasm and are capable of cell division.

Question 3.
What is the role of oxygen in growth?
Answer:
Oxygen is required for respiration of cells and release of energy for the process of growth.

Question 4.
What is the role of water for growth?
Answer:
Water maintains turgidity of the cell and is chief component of protoplasm as well as it is a medium for various biochemical reactions.

Question 5.
Mention the mathematical formula for rate of absolute growth.
Answer:
Absolute Growth Rate = AGR = \(\frac { dn }{ dt }\) where dn is cell number and dt is time interval.

Question 6.
What is exponential phase of growth curve?
Answer:
In exponential phase or log phase, growth rate is faster. It accelerates and reaches its maximum.

Question 7.
Is there any relation between phases of growth and regions of growth curve?
Answer:
Yes, there is relation between the two as initially growth is slow, which accelerates and ultimately it slows down and becomes steady which is observed in growth curve.

Question 8.
Which plant organ does show both arithmetic and geometric growth?
Answer:
Embryo that develops from zygote inside the seed shows initially the growth which is geometric and later on arithmetic.

Question 9.
Describe the example of plasticity related to internal stimuli.
Answer:
In plants like cotton, coriander and larkspur heterophylly is observed where leaves in juvenile stage and adult stage show different forms.

Question 10.
What is the role of growth hormones in plants?
Answer:
Growth hormones inhibit, promote or modify the growth in plants.

Question 11.
What is the peculiarity of growth hormones ?
Answer:
Growth hormones are needed in very small amount to evoke the response and they act at a site away from their place of production.

Question 12.
Which is the first hormone to be discovered in plants?
Answer:
Auxin IAA i.e. Indole acetic acid is the first hormone to be discovered in plants.

Question 13.
Give the full form of 2, 4 – D.
Answer:
It is synthetic auxin 2, 4-dichlorophenoxy acetic acid.

Question 14.
What is the effect of NAA and 2, 4-D foliar spray?
Answer:
Foliar spray of synthetic hormones induce flowering in plants litchi and pineapple and prevent premature fruit drop in apples, pear and oranges.

Question 15.
How cytokinins control apical dominance ?
Answer:
Cytokinins promote growth of lateral buds by cell division and thus control apical dominance.

Question 16.
What was the discovery of Richmond and Lang?
Answer:
Richmond and Lang discovered that cytokinins delay the process of ageing and senescence, abscission in plant organs.

Question 17.
What is ‘epinasty’?
Answer:
It is an effect of ethylene where it causes drooping of leaves and flowers.

Question 18.
Why is auxin called a growth regulator?
Answer:
Auxin is synthesized at meristematic region of plants and it controls cell enlargement, cell elongation and stimulates growth of stem and root, apical dominance. Hence it is growth promoting hormone.

Question 19.
What is effect of gibberellin application on apple?
Answer:
Gibberellin causes parthenocarpy in apple.

Question 20.
How can we overcome apical dominance?
Answer:
By application of cytokinin we can overcome apical dominance effect.

Question 21.
Which is standard bioassay method for auxins?
Answer:
Avena curvature test/Avena coleoptile test is a standard bioassay method for auxins.

Question 22.
ABA is called as stress hormone why?
Answer:
Answer: ABA induces dormancy in seeds by inhibiting growth. Thus plants can tide over adverse environmental conditions. Hence it is called as stress hormone.

Question 23.
What was the plant material for study of photoperiodism by Garner and Allard?
Answer:
The flowering response of Soybean and Maryland mammoth variety of tobacco was studied by Garner and Allard.

Question 24.
What is photomorphogenesis?
Answer:
Control of morphogenesis by light and phytochrome pigment is called photomorphogenesis.

Question 25.
What is critical concentration of minerals ?
Answer:
The concentration of the essential elements below which plant growth is retarded is termed as critical concentration.

Question 26.
What is a role of Sulphur in plants?
Answer:
Sulphur is constituent of amino acids, proteins, vitamins (mainly thaimine, biotin CoA) and Ferredoxin.

Question 27.
What is a role of nitrogen in plants?
Answer:
Nitrogen is constituent of amino acids, proteins, nucleic acid, vitamins, hormones, coenzymes, ATP and chlorophyll molecule.

Question 28.
Which is the process by which mainly we get nitrogen in human tissues?
Answer:
Industrial nitrogen fixation by Haber – Bosch Nitrate process is responsible for nitrogen found in human tissues.

Question 29.
Give equation of Haber – Bosch process.
Answer:

Question 30.
What is nitrogen assimilation?
Answer:
Nitrogen present in the soil as nitrates, nitrites and ammonia is absorbed by plants and converted into nitrogenous organic compounds is nitrogen assimilation.

Give definitions of the following

Question 1.
Growth
Answer:
Growth can be defined as permanent, irreversible increase in the bulk of an organism with change in form.

Question 2.
Efficiency index
Answer:
The increased growth per unit time is called efficiency index.

Question 3.
Absolute growth rate (AGR)
Answer:
The measurement and comparison of total growth per unit time is called absolute growth rate.

Question 4.
Relative growth rate (RGR)
Answer:
The growth of a particular system per unit time expressed on a common basis or alternately it is the ratio of growth in the given time per initial growth.

Question 5.
Differentiation
Answer:
A permanent change in structure and function of cells that leads to their maturation is called differentiation.

Question 6.
Redifferentiation
Answer:
When cells produced from de-differentiation lose their capacity to divide and mature for specific function it is known as re-differentiation.

Question 7.
Development
Answer:
The progressive changes in shape, form and degree of complexity which includes growth, maturation and morphogenesis is referred as development.

Question 8.
Growth Hormone or Growth regulators
Answer:
The internal factors that influence growth by inhibiting, promoting or modifying it are called growth hormones or regulators.

Question 9.
Apical dominance
Answer:
In higher plants growing apical bud inhibits the growth of lateral buds. This is known as apical dominance.

Question 10.
Critical photoperiod
Answer:
That length of photoperiod above or below which the plant shows flowering is critical photoperiod.

Question 11.
Photomorphogenesis
Answer:
The control of morphogenesis of plants by light and phytochrome is photomorphogenesis.

Question 12.
Symptom or hunger sign
Answer:
Any visible deviation from the normal structure and function of the plant is called symptom or hunger sign.

Question 13.
Active absorption of minerals
Answer:
Uptake of mineral ions against concentration gradient, with expenditure of energy (ATP) is called active absorption.

Question 14.
Nitrogen fixation
Answer:
Free nitrogen of air N₂ is converted to nitrogenous salts so that it is made available to plants is called nitrogen fixation.

Question 15.
Nitrification
Answer:
Soil microbes, mainly : chemoautotrophs convert ammonia into j nitrate, the form of nitrogen which can be used by plants, this process is nitrification.

Question 16.
Amidation
Answer:
Ammonia may be absorbed by amino acids to produce amides. This process is called amidation.

Name the following

Question 1.
Instrument developed by Indian physiologist to measure growth.
Answer:
Crescograph developed by Sir J.C. Bose.

Question 2.
Instrument to measure linear growth of shoot.
Answer:
Auxanometer.

Question 3.
Type of growth curve for geometric growth.
Answer:
J-shaped or exponential growth curve.

Question 4.
The process by which cork cambium is formed.
Answer:
Dedifferentiation.

Question 5.
Ability of plant to form different kinds of structures.
Answer:
Plasticity.

Question 6.
Condition where plant exhibits different types of leaves on same plant.
Answer:
Heterophylly.

Question 7.
Growth promoter hormones.
Answer:
Auxins, gibberellins and cytokinins.

Question 8.
Growth inhibitors of plants.
Answer:
Ethylene and abscissic acid.

Question 9.
First hormone that is discovered in plant and its precursor.
Answer:
Amino acid tryptophan is precursor of Indole acetic acid (IAA).

Question 10.
A synthetic hormone that acts as selective herbicide.
Answer:
2, 4 – D (dichlorophenoxy acetic acid).

Question 11.
A plant hormone discovered from fungus.
Answer:
Gibberellic acid (GA).

Question 12.
A plant hormone also present in fish (Herring) sperm DNA.
Answer:
Kinetin (cytokinin).

Question 13.
A plant hormone also present in urine of person suffering from Pellagra.
Answer:
Auxin.

Question 14.
Most widely used source of ethylene for fruit ripening.
Answer:
Ethephon – 2 chloroethyl phosphoric acid.

Question 15.
A precursor from which GA and ABA are synthesized.
Answer:
Mevalonic acid.

Question 16.
Plant antitranspirant.
Answer:
Abscissic acid.

Question 17.
Chemical stimulant of low temperature effect on flowering of plants.
Answer:
Vernalin.

Question 18.
Methods of synthesis of amino acids.
Answer:
Reductive animation and Transamination.

Question 19.
Common amides present in plants.
Answer:
Asparagine and Glutamine.

Question 20.
Nitrogen fixing prokaryotic organisms.
Answer:
Diazotrophs or Nitrogen fixers.

Question 21.
Special structures of cyanobacteria where N₂ fixation occurs.
Answer:
Heterocysts.

Question 22.
A synthetic cytokinin hormone.
Answer:
6 – benzyl adenine.

Give Functions/Significance/Importance of the following

Question 1.
Meristems
Answer:
In plants meristems are situated at specific regions where growth takes place by constant and continuous addition of new cells. Meristems have capacity to divide (Mitotic divisions).

Question 2.
Synthetic auxin 2, 4-D
Answer:
It is selective herbicide which kills dicot weeds and foliar spray of 2, 4-D induces flowering in litchi and pineapple, prevents premature fruit drop in apples, pear, oranges.

Question 3.
Coconut milk
Answer:
Coconut milk contains natural cytokinin substance kinetin which is used as nutritional supplement for callus tissue culture where proliferation is noticed due to promotion of cell division.

Question 4.
Ethylene/Ethephon
Answer:
It is used for fruit ripening and as it causes degreening effect by increasing activity of chlorophyllase enzyme for banana and citrus fruits.

Question 5.
Abscissic acid/ABA
Answer:
It is natural growth inhibiting substance in plants and it acts as plant anti Iranspirant causing closure of stomata. It is stress hormone that induces plant to bear the adverse environmental conditions like drought.

Question 6.
Phytochrome
Answer:
It is a proteinaceous pigment present in leaves which perceives stimulus of light for flowering. As it is interconvertible in two forms, it promotes flowering in SDP and inhibits flowering in LDE.

Question 7.
Vernalization
Answer:
It is response of flowering to low temperature treatment which helps in cultivation of crops in regions where they do not occur naturally and also crops can be produced earlier.

Question 8.
Nitrogen cycle
Answer:
Nitrogen is essential macronutrient for plant growth, it is constituent of amino acids, proteins, nucleic acids, vitamins, hormones, ATP coenzymes, chlorophyll molecule. It is limiting nutrient for plant productivity and agricultural ecosystem. Through food chain it moves to consumers, i.e. animals and decomposers.

Distinguish between the following

Question 1.
Phase of cell division and Phase of cell enlargement
Answer:

Phase of cell division	Phase of cell enlargement
1. In this phase cells of meristems divide by mitotic division.	1. In this phase newly formed cells become vacuolated and turgid, osmotically active.
2. Rate of growth at slow pace.	2. Rate of growth at accelerated pace.
3. This is described as lag phase.	3. This is described as log phase.
4. There is no synthesis of any new material.	4. Synthesis of new wall materials and other materials takes place.

Question 2.
Long day plants and Short day plants
Answer:

Long day plants	Short day plants
1. Plants that flower only when they are exposed to light period longer than their critical photoperiod are called long day plants (LDP).	1. Plants that flower only when they are exposed to light period shorter than the critical photoperiod are called short day plants (SDP).
2. The plants usually flower in summer.	2. The plants usually flower in winter or late summer.
3. These plants require short night period for flowering. Hence, they are also known as short night plants.	3. These plants require long night period for flowering. Hence, they are also known as long night plants.
4. Plants such as Pea, Radish, Sugar, Beet, Cabbage, Spinach, Wheat, poppy are LDP	4. Plants such as Dahlia, Aster, Tobacco, Chrysanthemum, Soybean (Glycine max) Cocklebur (Xanthium) are SDP

Question 3.
Passive absorption of Minerals and Active absorption of minerals
Answer:

Passive absorption of minerals	Active absorption of minerals
1. The movement of mineral ions into root cells due to diffusion, without expenditure of energy is called passive absorption.	1. The uptake of mineral ions by root cells that requires expenditure of ATP energy is known as active absorption.
2. The movement is according to concentration gradient.	2. The movement of mineral ions is against concentration gradient.
3. It takes place by direct ion exchange, diffusion, indirect ion exchange – mass flow and Donnan equilibrium.	3. It takes place by mineral ion accumulation in root hair and carrier concept.

Given reasons

Question 1.
Water is essential for growth in plants.
Answer:

1. Meristematic cells divide and form new cells.
2. Absorption of water is necessary for maintaining turgidity in the newly formed cells.
3. Turgidity results in enlargement of cells in phase of cell elongation.
4. Water is essential component of protoplasm of cells.
5. biochemical reactions. Therefore it is essential for growth in plants.

Question 2.
2, 4-D is used as herbicide.
Answer:

1. 2, 4-D is a synthetic auxin which kills dicot weeds.
2. Our most of the food crops are cereals, i.e. monocot plants.
3. Weeds are unwanted plants which otherwise lower the productivity hence to kill them. Selective herbicide is used.

Question 3.
In morphogenesis of plants cytokinin auxin ratio is important.
Answer:

1. Auxins and cytokinins are growth promoting substances which stimulate cell division and cell enlargement.
2. A high cytokinin promotes shooting in plants.
3. A low ratio of cytokinin to auxin induces root development.
4. A high ratio of cytokinin to auxin induces growth of buds and shoot development.
5. Thus cytokinin and auxin ratio and their interactions control morphogenesis in plants.

Question 4.
ABA is described as an antitranspirant.
Answer:

1. ABA is a growth inhibiting hormone.
2. ABA is responsible for causing efflux of K⁺ ions from guard cells of stomata.
3. As a result of this, osmotic changes occur and guard cells become flaccid resulting in closure of stomata.
4. Transpiration mainly occurs through open stomata and due to closure the activity is checked. Hence it is described as antitranspirant.

Question 5.
Some deficiency symptoms of mineral are visible in young leaves while some appear in older leaves.
Answer:

1. When mineral element is present below a certain critical concentration it is said to be deficient.
2. Symptoms are indicated in the form of certain morphological changes on the mobility of element.
3. These symptoms depend on the mobility of element inside the plant body.
4. When the element is relatively immobile like S, Ca then the symptoms appear first in young leaves.
5. When the elements are actively mobilised inside plant body, they are transported to young tissues then the symptoms are visible in older, i.e. senescent leaves e.g. N, Mg, K.

Question 6.
In Donnan equilibrium of passive absorption of minerals concentration of cations increases inside the cell.
Answer:

1. Minerals exist in soil in the form of charged particles.
2. Certain negatively charged (anions) get accumulated on the inner side of cell membrane after their entry inside cell.
3. These anions cannot diffuse out through semipermeable cell membrane.
4. Thus additional mobile cautions are needed inside the cell to balance these fixed anions.
5. Hence, the concentration of cations increases inside the cell.

Question 7.
A sudden drop in active absorption of minerals is noticed if roots are deprived of oxygen supply.
Answer:

1. Absorption of mineral ions from soil against concentration gradient is known as active absorption.
2. It requires energy (ATP) for absorption by absorbing root cell.
3. The source of energy is respiration of cells for supply of ATE
4. When the roots are deprived of oxygen, their respiration process is affected and thus energy is not supplied in required amount. Hence, a sudden drop in absorption of minerals is noticed.

Question 8.
Nitrogen is a limiting nutrient in the agricultural system.
Answer:

1. Nitrogen is a major nutrient for plant growth.
2. Proper carbon/nitrogen ratio in soil is necessary for plant growth.
3. It is component of proteins in the form of amino acids.
4. Proteins are synthesised from photosynthetic products sugars.
5. Nitrogen exists in atmosphere but it is inert, non-reactive.
6. Plants need nitrogen in a reactive form usually nitrate in soil.
7. This supply need to be maintained through biological and physical nitrogen fixation.
8. Otherwise productivity is affected hence it is limiting nutrient in the agricultural ecosystem.

Question 9.
Cucumber and sunflower are regarded as photoneutral plants.
Answer:

1. In cucumber and sunflower, the flower is not controlled by light period.
2. Both these plants flower in all light periods.
3. Cucumber and sunflower, therefore, are regarded as photoneutral plants.

Write short notes on the following

Question 1.
Meristems
Answer:

1. In vascular plants, growth is indeterminate and occurs at specific regions where meristems are located.
2. Meristems are of three types based on their location – apical, intercalary and lateral.
3. Meristems are thin walled cells with prominent nucleus with granular cytoplasm, non-vacuolated.
4. Mitotic divisions take place in meristematic cells.

Question 2.
Phase of cell formation
Answer:

1. Formative phase is the first phase of growth.
2. During this phase, the meristematic cells undergo mitosis to form new cells.
3. During formative phase, the rate of growth is slow.
4. The phase of cell formation is also called lag phase.
5. This phase is also known as phases of cell division.

Question 3.
Development
Answer:

1. Development is progressive changes taking place in shape, form and degree of complexity in an organism.
2. In plants, it includes all the changes taking place in sequence from seed germination to senescence or death of plant.
3. Development is an orderly process.
4. It includes growth, morphogenesis, maturation and senescence.

Question 4.
Plasticity
Answer:

1. Plasticity is the capacity of plant being molded or formed.
2. It is ability of plant to develop different kinds of structures in response to environmental factors or stimuli.
3. Different kinds of structures can be developed in plants due to internal stimuli in different phases, i.e. juvenile and adult.
4. Heterophylly is shown in plant in different phases or in different environmental conditions.
5. In coriander and cotton plants, two different kinds of leaves are observed in young (juvenile) and mature (adult) plant.
6. In buttercup, two different kinds of leaves are observed in terrestrial (on land) and aquatic (in water) habitat.

Question 5.
Phytohormones/Plant Growth Regulators
Answer:

1. Phytohormones or plant growth regulators are internal factor that influence growth.
2. They inhibit, promote or modify the plant growth.
3. Plant hormones are organic substances produced naturally in plants and required in small amount.
4. Their place of production and site of the activity are different.
5. Auxins, gibberellins, cytokinins are growth promoters and ethylene, abscissic acid are growth inhibitors.

Question 6.
Phytochrome
Answer:

1. These are proteinaceous pigments present
2. Phytochrome exists in two interconvertible forms. P_r and P_fr.
3. Phytochromes are located in cell membranes of chlorophyllous cells.
4. When P_fr absorbs red light it is converted to P_r.
5. P_fr is accumulated in plants during daytime and inhibits flowering in SDP but initiates flowering in LDP

Question 7.
Venralization
Answer:

1. Effect of temperature on flowering of plants is known as vernalization.
2. For inducing early flowering pretreatment of seeds or seedlings is done at 1 to 6 °C for about a months duration.
3. Shoot apical meristem is believed to be site of vernalization stimulus.
4. Vernalization stimulus is in a form of chemical named vernalin.
5. Vernalization is effective in ereals (wheat) and crucifers.

Question 8.
Apical dominance
Answer:

1. The presence of apical bud inhibits the growth of lateral buds. This phenomenon in which the apical (terminal) bud is active and lateral buds remain inactive is called apical dominance.
2. It is believed that apical dominance is controlled by an auxin which is synthesized in the apical bud.
3. From the apical bud, the auxin migrates to the lateral buds and inhibits their growth.
4. When apical bud is removed, the lateral buds grow and form branches.
5. For producing more branches therefore, the apical buds are removed.
6. Cytokinins reverse apical dominance effect by promoting growth of lateral buds by cell division.

Question 9.
Toxicity of micronutrients or mineral toxicity
Answer:

1. Micronutrients are required in minute quantities by plants.
2. Their moderate decrease causes deficiency symptoms while their moderate increase causes toxicity.
3. The reduction in dry weight of a tissue by 10% by any mineral is known as toxicity.
4. It is not easy to identify toxicity symptoms.
5. Most of the time, the excess of an element inhibits the uptake of another element resulting in causing the deficiency symptom of that element.
6. Manganese inhibits calcium translocation towards apex of stem and exhibits symptoms of chlorosis with grey spots appearing on leaves.
7. This is because manganese competes with iron and magnesium for uptake.
8. Therefore what we see as symptoms of manganese toxicity, may be the deficiency symptoms of Fe, Mg and Ca.

Question 10.
Day neutral plants (DNP)
Answer:

1. Day neutral plants are those in which flowering is not affected by the duration of the light period.
2. Day neutral plants flower in all photoperiods.
3. Day neutral plants are also known as photoneutral or intermediate plants.
4. Plants such as cucumber, shoe-flower, sunflower, tomato, maize, balsam, etc. are day neutral plants.

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is de-differentiation?
Answer:

1. The differentiated cells which are formed may again gain the capacity to divide as per need.
2. Permanent cells (mature cells) undergo de-differentiation and become meristematic.
3. This acquired feature of living permanent cells is known as de-differentiation.
4. e.g. Formation of interfascicular cambium and cork cambium from parenchyma cells of medullary rays and outer cortical cells respectively.

Question 2.
Discuss about natural Auxin.
Answer:

1. F.W. Went named the growth promoting substance as Auxin.
2. Auxin was also isolated from urine of patient of pellagra.
3. Indole 3 acetic acid was first hormone discovered in plants.
4. IAA is most common and natural hormone synthesized at growing tips and responsible for cell elongation.
5. It is synthesized from tryptophan and shows polar transport – Basipetal transport.

Question 3.
Discuss about discovery of Gibberellins.
Answer:

1. Gibberellins are growth promoting hormones and were isolated form fungus Gibberella Jujikuroi by Kurasawa.
2. Rice plants when infected with this fungus show stem elongation i.e. Bakane disease.
3. Yabuta and Sumuki isolated gibberellins in crystalline form, from fungal culture and named it gibberellins.
4. Gibberellins are synthesized from mevalonic acid at young leaves, seeds, root and stem tips and show non-polar transport.

Question 4.
Discuss about discovery of cytokinin.
Answer:

1. Cytokinins are growth promoting hormones that stimulate cell division.
2. Skoog and Miller discovered first cytokinin when they were investigating nutritional requirements of tobacco callus culture.
3. It was observed that the callus proliferated when there was addition of coconut milk as supplement.
4. The degraded sample of herring (fish) sperm DNA also showed similar growth of tobacco callus. They named the substance as kinetin.

Question 5.
Discuss about discovery of abscissic acid.
Answer:

1. Abscissic acid (ABA) is a natural growth inhibiting hormone.
2. It was observed by Carns and Addicott that shedding of cotton balls occur due to chemical substance abscission I and II.
3. From the buds of Acer, Wareing isolated substance that causes bud dormancy and named it as dormin.
4. These two chemical substances were identical and now known as abscissic acid.
5. ABA is synthesized in leaves, fruits and seeds from mevalonic acid.

Question 6.
What is day neutral plant (DNP)? Give any two examples.
Answer:

1. The plants which do not require specific duration of light period or dark period flowering are day neutral plants (DNP).
2. They flower throughout the year, as they do not need specific photoperiod.
3. The flowering in these plants is independent of photoperiod.
4. Examples – cucumber, tomato, cotton, sunflower, maize and balsam.

Question 7.
Discuss about discovery of phytochromes.
Answer:

1. Phytochromes are proteinaceous pigments present in cell membrane of green cells.
2. Phytochromes receive photoperiodic stimulus and induce flowering in plants in response to light duration.
3. Hendrick and Borthwick observed that in SD plants flowering is inhibited if dark period is interrupted by flash of red light (660 nm).
4. If flash of far red light (730 nm) is given then again flowering is observed in SD plants.
5. Pigment system of plant receives photoperiodic stimulus and these pigments exist in two interconvertible forms P^fr and P^r

Question 8.
What is mineral nutrition of plants?
Answer:

1. Plants require inorganic materials for the synthesis of food.
2. These elements are obtained by plants in the form of minerals mainly form soil.
3. Chemical analysis of plant ash reveals that about 40 different minerals are needed by plants which are taken from surroundings, (air, soil and water)
4. These minerals are absorbed in dissolved form, i.e. ionic form through root system mainly root hairs.
5. Some minerals are required in large amounts (major) while some are needed only in traces or small amounts (minor).

Question 9.
What are symptoms of mineral deficiency in plants?
Answer:
Any visible deviation from the normal structure and function of plants due to lack or unavailability of particular element below its critical concentration is deficiency symptom of that mineral element.

The common symptoms observed in plants are as follows:

1. Stunting : Retarded growth and thus stem appears short and condensed.
2. Chlorosis : This is loss or lack of chlorophyll that result in yellowing of leaf.
3. Necrosis : It is localized death of tissue. Mottling : This is appearance of green or non-green patches or spots on leaves. Abscission : This is premature fall of leaves, buds, fruits and flowers.

Question 10.
Enlist the role of following minerals and the symptoms caused due to their deficiency : (a) Calcium (b) Boron and (c) Chlorine.
Answer:
(a) Calcium:
Role : Involved in selective permeability of cell membranes, activator of certain enzymes, required as calcium pectate in middle lamella of cell wall at root and stem apex (for cell division).
Deficiency symptom : stunted growth.

(b) Boron:
Role : Required for uptake and utilization of Calcium (Ca²⁺), pollen germination, cell differentiation, carbohydrate translocation. Deficiency symptom : Brown heart disease

(c) Chlorine:
Role : Na⁺ and K⁺ help to determine solute concentration and anion – cation balance in cells, necessary for oxygen evolution in photosynthesis.
Deficiency symptom : Poor growth of plant.

Question 11.
What is Donnan Equilibrium?
Answer:

1. Donnan equilibrium is a process of passive absorption of minerals in plants which is without any expenditure of energy.
2. It is assumed that certain anions after their entry by diffusion into the cell get fixed on inner side of cell membrane.
3. Additional mobile cations are needed to balance this fixed anions as they cannot diffuse outside.
4. Concentration of cations thus increases due to accumulation.
5. This passive absorption of anions or cations from exterior against their concentration gradients so as to neutralize the effect of cations or anion is known as Donnan equilibrium.

Question 12.
Explain physical nitrogen fixation.
Answer:

1. Conversion of free nitrogen of air into nitrogenous compounds that are made available to plants for uptake is known as : nitrogen fixation.
2. Physical nitrogen fixation occurs in step- : wise manner and it takes place in atmosphere j and soil.
3. Under the influence of electric discharge, lightning and thunder, atmospheric nitrogen combines with oxygen to form nitric oxide.
4. Nitric oxide is then oxidized to nitrogen peroxide in presence of oxygen.
5. Nitrogen peroxide combines with rainwater to form nitrous and nitric acid which come on ground as acid rains.
6. On ground, alkali radicals (mainly of Ca, K) react with nitric acid to produce nitrites and nitrates which are absorbable forms for plants.

Question 13.
Give equations of physical nitrogen fixation.
Answer:
(1) Physical nitrogen fixation occurs in stepwise manner in atmosphere and on land (soil)

Question 14.
Give the equations of amino acid synthesis.
Answer:
1. Macromolecule proteins are made up of building blocks of amino acids.
2. Amino acids are synthesized by two methods – Reductive animation and transamination.
3. Reductive amination – Ammonia reacts with alpha keto glutaric acid to form glutamic acid.

4. Transamination – Amino group of one amino acid is transferred to other carboxylic acid at keto position.

Question 15.
Explain lag phase, log phase and steady phase of growth.
Answer:
1. In plants, growth curve is always sigmoid, i.e. S-shaped. This is because growth starts slowly during formative phase, becomes rapid during elongation phase and finally slows down to a steady state during the maturation phase.

2. The standard growth curve shows three phases, viz. lag phase, log phase and stationary phase.
(i) Lag phase or initial growth phase : This is the initial phase of growth. During this phase of growth, the rate of growth is slow. It corresponds to formative phase of growth where new cells are formed due to cell division.

(ii) Log phase or exponential phase : This is the second phase of growth. During this phase, the growth is rapid and maximum. It corresponds to the phase of cell elongation.

(iii) Stationary phase or steady phase : The stationary phase is the third and last phase of growth. In this phase, growth slows down and becomes steady. The cells undergo differentiation during stationary phase.

Chart based or Table based questions

Question 1.
Complete the chart of plasticity.

Answer:

Question 2.
Complete the flow chart of development.

Answer:

Question 3.
Complete the table of growth hormones.

Answer:

Question 4.
Complete the table of mineral nutrition of plants.

Answer:

Diagram based questions

Question 1.
Draw diagram of photoperiodic response of SDP and LDP.
Answer:

Question 2.
With the help of diagram show arithmetic growth and geometric growth.
Answer:

Question 3.
Draw the sigmoid growth curve.
Answer:

Question 4.
Observe the diagram and answer the questions related to it.

1. From which cells newly formed cells are added? How?
2. How is rate of growth in zone of cell elongation?
3. What is peculiarity of zone of differentiation? How is rate of growth in this region?

Answer:

1. Meristematlc cells add new cells by mitotic division.
2. Rate of growth is at accelerated pace.
3. The rate of growth is at steady state and cells become specialised to perform specific function become mature.

Question 5.
Observe the adjacent graph indicating growth. What is correct labelling of A, B and C respectively?

Answer:
A. Stationary Phase
B. Exponential Phase
C. Lag Phase

Question 6.

(1) Observe the above graph indicating increase in height of plants. Which type of growth indicates this pattern of graph?
(2) Give its mathematical expression.
Answer:
(1) Arithmetic growth

(2) Lt = Lo + rt where
Lt = Length at time t,
Lo = Length at time zero r = growth rate,
t = time of growth

Question 7.
Observe the figure given below of two different leaves ‘A’ and ‘B’ Which leaf shows much higher relative growth rate ?

Answer:
Relative Growth Rate (RGR) = Growth per unit time as % of intial size.
RGR = \(\frac { Growth per unit time }{ intial size }\) × 100
Leaf A = 10 – 5 = 5, \(\frac { 5 }{ 5 }\) × 100 = 100%
Leaf B = 55 – 50 = 5, \(\frac { 5 }{ 50 }\) × 100 = 10%
Hence fig. A shows more relative growth.

Question 8.
Observe the diagrams A and ‘B’ showing growth in two leaves. Which diagram shows more relative growth?

Answer:
Relative Growth Rate (RGR)
= Growth per unit time as % of intial size.
RGR = \(\frac { Growth per unit time }{ intial size }\) × 100
Leaf A = 20 – 10 = 10, \(\frac { 10 }{ 10 }\) × 100 = 100%
Leaf B = 60 – 50 = 10, \(\frac { 10 }{ 50 }\) × 100 = 20%
Hence Diagram A shows more relative growth.

Question 9.
Identify the type of growth curves observed in plants.

Answer:
Constant linear growth curve for the arithmetic growth.
Exponential (J shaped) growth curve for the geometric growth.
Sigmoid growth curve related to distinct phases of growth.

Question 10.
Fill in the blanks in the given nitrogen cycle.

Answer:

Long answer questions

Question 1.
What is hydroponics? How is it useful in identifying the role of nutrients?
Answer:

1. Growing plants in aqueous (soilless) medium is known as hydroponics. [Greek word hudor = water and ponos = work]
2. It is technique of growing plants by supplying all necessary nutrients in the water supply given to plant.
3. A nutrient medium is prepared by dissolving necessary salts of micronutrients and macronutricnts In desired quantity and roots of plants are suspended in this liquid with appropriate support.
4. Hydroponics is of great use in studying the deficiency symptoms of different mineral nutrients.
5. The plants uptake mineral nutrients in the form of dissolved ions with the help of root hairs from the surrounding medium or nutrient solution supplied.
6. While preparing the required nutrient medium particular nutrient can be totally avoided and then the effect of lack of that nntr’cnt can be studied in variation of plant growth.
7. Any visible change noticed from normal structure and function of the plant is the symptom or hunger sign considered.
8. For e.g. Yellowing of leaf is observed due to loss of chlorophyll pigments or Chlorosis is noticed if Magnesium is lacking as it is a structural component of chlorophyll pigment.

Question 2.
Explain the active absorption of minerals.
Answer:

1. Plants absorb minerals from the soil with their root system.
2. Minerals are absorbed from the soil in the form of charged particles, positively charged cations and negatively charged anions.
3. The absorption of minerals against the concentration gradient which requires expenditure of metabolic energy is called active absorption.
4. The ATP energy derived from respiration in root cells is utilized for active absorption.
5. Ions get accumulated in the root hair against the concentration gradient.
6. These ions pass into cortical cells and finally reach xylem of roots.
7. Along with the water these minerals are carried to other parts of plant.

Question 3.
What is growth? What are its characteristics ?
Answer:
Growth : Growth is a “vital process which brings about an irreversible increase in an organism or its part with respect to its size, weight, form and volume.”

Characteristics of growth:

1. Growth is a permanent increase in size, weight, shape, volume and dry weight of a plant.
2. The change occurring due to growth is permanent and irreversible.
3. Growth is an intrinsic process caused due to internal activities.
4. Growth occurs by cell division and cell elongation followed by cell maturation which lead to the formation of different types of tissues.
5. Growth in plants is mostly localized, i.e. restricted to some regions of plants possessing meristematic tissues or meris terns.
6. Growth has a qualitative aspect where development takes place in an orderly manner and differentiation leads to higher and more complex state.

Question 4.
Describe the phases of growth.
Answer:
There are three phases of growth, viz, formation phase, elongation phase and maturation phase.
(1) Formative phase (Phase of cell division) : This is the first phase of growth. In this phase, the meristematic cells undergo mitosis to produce new cells. Owing to the formation of new cells, there occurs a slight increase in the size of the organ.

(2) Elongation phase (Phase of cell enlargement) : This is the second phase of growth. In this phase, the new cells that are formed, undergo enlargement as a result of which the size and volume of the cells increase. Enlargement of cells occur mostly in linear direction as a result of which the elongation of the root and stem takes place. The enlargement of cells causes a considerable increase in size and weight of an organ and a plant as a whole.

(3) Maturation phase (Phase of cell maturation and differentiation) : Maturation phase is the third and last phase of growth. In this phase, the elongated cells undergo maturation and differentiation to form various types of plant tissues like parenchyma, sclerenchyma, xylem and phloem.

Question 5.
Explain the various conditions of growth that are essential.
Answer:

1. For a proper growth of plant various environmental and physiological conditions are necessary.
2. Carbon/Nitrogen ratio in soil is having effect on growth as both carbon and nitrogen are structural elements in carbohydrates, proteins and other biomolecules.
3. Water is essential component of protoplasm and required for turgidity of cells during cell enlargement phase. It is a medium in which various biochemical reactions ocfcur.
4. Nutrients are necessary for proper growth. Macronutrients and micronutrients have their specific role.
5. Temperature of 25 – 35 °C is optimum for growth.
6. Light is essential for seed germination and photosynthesis.
7. Oxygen is necessary for respiration and supply of energy.
8. Gravitational force decides direction of growth for root system and shoot system.
9. Growth hormones are organic compounds that are involved in various physiological aspects and control of growth.

Question 6.
What are plant growth regulators? Give the characteristics of plant growth regulators.
Answer:
Plant growth regulators : Plant growth regulators or phytohormones or plant hormones as they are also called are organic compounds synthesised by the plants which promote, inhibit or control the growth and other physiological processes.

Characteristics of plant growth regulators:

1. Plant growth regulators are organic compounds other than nutrients.
2. They are synthesised at the apices of root, stem and leaves from where they are transported to other parts of plants where they produce their effects.
3. They are required in minute quantities.
4. A single plant growth regulator can control or regulate the various aspects of growth.

Question 7.
Enlist the five main types of growth regulators and state the role of abscissic acid in plants.
Answer:
Five main types of growth regulators:

1. Auxins
2. Gibberellins
3. Cytokinins
4. Ethylene and
5. Abscissic acid.

Role of abscissic acid (ABA) in plants:

1. Abscissic acid influences abscission and dormancy.
2. ABA accelerates senescence of leaves, flowers and fruits.
3. It is a stress hormone as it is produced during drought and other unfavourable climatic conditions.
4. ABA induces dormancy in seeds, buds and tubers.
5. It acts as growth inhibitor as it retards growth.
6. ABA plays an important role in closing of stomata to check transpiration.
7. It inhibits and delays cell division and suppresses cambial activity by inhibiting mitosis in vascular cambium.
8. ABA inhibits flowering in LDP and stimulates flowering in short day plants (SDP).

Question 8.
Write an account of auxins as growth regulators.
Answer:

1. Auxins are plant growth regulators produced naturally by plants.
2. They are weak organic acids capable of promoting cell elongation during the growth of stem and root.
3. Auxins are synthesized in shoot and root apices besides young leaf primordia.
4. Auxins may be natural or synthetic.
5. Naturally occurring auxins are indole-3- acetic acid (IAA) and its derivatives.
6. NAA, 2, 4-D and 2,4, 5-T are synthetic auxins.
7. Auxins in higher concentration promote the growth of stem.
8. Auxins play an important role in initiation and promotion of cell division.
9. Auxins help in the formation of adventitious roots from cuttings when applied in lower concentration.
10. Auxins play an important role in apical dominance.
11. Auxin prevents abscission by preventing the action of hydrolytic enzymes in abscission layer.
12. Auxins are used to produce parthenocarpic fruits in plants like orange, apple, tomato and grapes.

Question 9.
Give an account of physiological effects and application of auxin with examples.
Answer:

1. Auxins are growth promoting substances synthesized at meristematic regions of plants.
2. The primary effect of auxin is cell enlargement and it stimulates growth of stem and root.
3. Apical dominance – The phenomenon where growing apical bud inhibits the growth of lateral bud is apical dominance which is controlled by auxin synthesized at apical bud.
4. Owing to activity of inducing multiplication of cells it is used in plant tissue culture to produce callus.
5. Auxin stimulates formation of lateral and adventitious roots hence used for rooting propagation of cuttings.
6. 2, 4-D is a synthetic herbicide which kills dicot weeds.
7. Induced parthenocarpy in fruits-oranges, banana, grapes, lemons is by application of auxin.
8. Foliar spray of NAA and 2, 4-D induces flowering in litchi and pineapple.
9. Premature fruit drop of apples, pear and oranges is prevented.
10. Auxins break seed dormancy and promote germination.
11. Auxins promote early differentiation of xylem and phloem, cell elongation, increase rate of respiration, prevent formation of abscission layer.

Question 10.
Explain the application of gibberellins.
Answer:

1. Gibberellins are growth promoting hormone and it is present in root tips, stem tips and seeds.
2. Gibberellins break dormancy of bud, dormancy of seed.
3. They promote seed germination in cereals by activating or synthesising enzyme amylase to produce sugar.
4. Gibberellins induce elongation of the cells in stem hence increase in internode length is noticed.
5. In rosette plants like cabbage it causes ‘bolting’ that is increase in internode length before flowering.
6. Gibberellins are more effective in inducing parthenocarpy than auxins in plants like tomato, apple and pear.
7. It is also used to increase fruit size and length of bunches in grapes.
8. By its application genetically dwarf plants can be converted to phenotypically tall e.g. Maize.
9. It overcomes requirement of vernalization, delays senescence and prevents abscission.
10. Application of gibberellins causes production of male flowers on female plants.

Question 11.
Describe about the physiological effects and applications of cytokinin.
Answer:

1. Cytokinins are growth promoting hormone that promotes cell division. Kinetin, zeatin are examples of cytokinin.
2. They promote cell division as well as cell enlargement.
3. High cytokinin promotes shoot development.
4. Growth of lateral buds is promoted by cytokinins. Thus it controls apical dominance.
5. Process of ageing and senescence, abscission of plant organs is delayed by their application.
6. It promotes formation of interfascicular cambium.
7. It has a role in breaking seed dormancy and promotes seed germination.
8. Cytokinins induce RNA synthesis.
9. Cytokinin and auxin ratio and their interactions control morphogenesis and cell differentiation.

Question 12.
Discuss about physiological effects and applications of ethylene.
Answer:

1. Ethylene is a gaseous growth inhibitor hormone.
2. It promotes ripening of fruits like bananas, apples and mangoes. The commercial application of ethephon is done.
3. It initiates growth of lateral roots.
4. Dormancy of buds and seeds is broken by its application.
5. It accelerates formation of abscission layer and thus abscission of leaves, flowers and fruits is observed.
6. Ethylene is responsible for checking growth of lateral buds thus causes apical dominance and retards flowering.
7. Process of senescence of plant organs is enhanced.
8. Epinasty, i.e. drooping of leaves and flowers results due to its application in some plants.
9. It increases activity of chlorophyllase enzyme causing degreening effect in banana and Citrus fruits.

Question 13.
Discuss about experiment of Hendricks and Borthwick for discovery of phytochromes.
Answer:

1. Phytochrome pigments receive photoperiodic stimulus and control flowering in plants.
2. Hendricks and Borthwick observed that in SDP flowering is inhibited if continuous dark period is interrupted even by a short duration or flash of red light of wavelength 660 nm.
3. If this interruption is again exposed to flash of far red light of wavelength 730 nm, then these plants flower.
4. From this they concluded that some pigment system in plant receives the photoperiodic stimulus.
5. These pigment proteins are called phytochromes and it exists in two interconvertible forms – P_r and P_fr.
6. These pigments are located in cell membranes of green cells.
7. P_fr is biologically active form and during daytime it gets accumulated in the plant.

Question 14.
Give schematic representation of nitrogen cycle and enlist important steps of this cycle.
Answer:

1. Atmospheric nitrogen is a source of nitrogen cycle.
2. The important steps of the cycle are Nitrogen fixation, Nitrification, Ammonification, Nitrogen assimilation by plants. Amino acid synthesis and amidation, Denitrification and sedimentation.
3. Amino acid are building blocks of proteins. Amides are amino acid with two amino groups.
4. Schematic representation of Nitrogen
   

Question 15.
What is nitrogen cycle? Describe it briefly.
Answer:

1. The cyclic movement of nitrogen between the atmosphere, biosphere and geosphere in different forms is called nitrogen cycle.
2. Nitrogen cycle is one of the most important biogeochemical cycles.
3. The nitrogen cycle involves many processes such as cycling of nitrogen through the biosphere, atmosphere and geosphere, nitrogen fixation, nitrogen uptake, formation of biomass, ammonification, nitrification and denitrification, etc.
4. Bacteria such as Nitrosomonas, Nitrosococcus and Nitrobacter are the nitrifying bacteria which play an important role in nitrification.
5. Denitrification is carried out by the bacteria Pseudomonas denitrifficans. From this it is obvious that bacteria play a major role in nitrogen cycle.
6. Nitrogen fixation occurs by physical, industrial and biological methods. Prokaryotic organism play an important role in biological nitrogen fixation.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Commerce Book Keeping & Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership (Admission of Partner) Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Commerce BK Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership (Admission of Partner)

1. Objetive type questions.

A. Select appropriate alternatives from those given below and rewrite the sentences.

Question 1.
If an asset is depreciated, Revalutation Account is ______________
(a) debited
(b) credited
(c) debited and credited
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) debited

Question 2.
______________ Account is debited when unrecorded liability is brought into business.
(a) Liability
(b) Revaluation
(c) Capital
(d) Current
Answer:
(b) Revaluation

Question 3.
The proportion in which old partners make a sacrifice is called ______________ Ratio.
(a) Capital
(b) Gaining
(c) Sacrifice
(d) New
Answer:
(c) Sacrifice

Question 4.
The ______________ Ratio is useful for making adjustment for goodwill among the old partners.
(a) New
(b) Sacrifice
(c) Old
(d) Profit and Loss
Answer:
(b) Sacrifice

Question 5.
Krishna and Balram, who are equal partners, admit Arjun into a partnership for 1/4th share, their new profit sharing ratio will be ______________
(a) 3 : 3 : 1
(b) equal
(c) 3 : 3 : 2
(d) 2 : 2 : 1
Answer:
(c) 3 : 3 : 2

Question 6.
In case of admission of a partner, the profit or loss on revaluation of assets and liabilities is shared by ______________ partners.
(a) all
(b) old
(c) new
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) old

Question 7.
When the reserve funds is distributed to old partners, the ______________ Account is debited.
(a) Capital
(b) Current
(c) Reserve Fund
(d) Profit and Loss
Answer:
(c) Reserve Fund

Question 8.
Goodwill brought in by a new partner is shared by the old partners in their ______________ Ratio.
(a) New
(b) Gain
(c) Sacrifice
(d) Balance of 1
Answer:
(c) Sacrifice

Question 9.
______________ Ratio is a ratio surrendered by old partners in favour of a new partner.
(a) Sacrifice
(b) Gain
(c) New
(d) Old
Answer:
(a) Sacrifice

Question 10.
When goodwill is written off, partners’ capital accounts are ______________
(a) credited
(b) debited
(c) increase
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) debited

Question 11.
X and Y are equal partners, admit Z into the partnership. If Z’s share is 1/5th, the new profit sharing ratio of the partners will be ______________
(a) 3 : 2 : 1
(b) 4 : 2 : 1
(c) 3 : 3 : 2
(d) 2 : 2 : 1
Answer:
(d) 2 : 2 : 1

Question 12.
A and B who are equal partners admit C into the partnership for 1/7th share. The new profit sharing ratio of the partners will be ______________
(a) 3 : 3 : 2
(b) 3 : 3 : 1
(c) 1 : 2 : 3
(d) 4 : 2 : 1
Answer:
(b) 3 : 3 : 1

Question 13.
If prepaid expenses are to be recorded in the books of account, they should be shown on the ______________ side of Revaluation A/c.
(a) debit
(b) credit
(c) liabilities
(d) assets
Answer:
(b) credit

Question 14.
If an asset is appreciated, Revaluation Account is ______________
(a) debited
(b) credited
(c) depreciated
(d) neutralised
Answer:
(b) credited

B. Write a word/phrase/term which can substitute each of the following statements.

Question 1.
The account shows the change in the values of assets.
Answer:
Revaluation Account or Profit and Loss Adjustment Account

Question 2.
The credit balance of the Revaluation Account.
Answer:
Profit on Revaluation Account

Question 3.
Excess of actual capital over proportionate capital.
Answer:
Surplus Capital

Question 4.
Name of an intangible asset having a value.
Answer:
Goodwill

Question 5.
The account is debited when the new partner brings cash for his share of goodwill.
Answer:
Cash/Bank Account

Question 6.
The account is credited when goodwill is withdrawn by old partners.
Answer:
Cash/Bank Account

Question 7.
Profit and Loss Account appearing on the Asset side of a balance sheet.
Answer:
Undistributed Loss

Question 8.
The account is opened to record the gains and losses on revaluation.
Answer:
Profit and Loss Adjustment Account

Question 9.
Change in the relationship between the partners.
Answer:
Reconstitution of a Partnership

Question 10.
An account is credited when a new partner brings cash for his share of goodwill.
Answer:
Goodwill A/c

Question 11.
A fund created by the partnership firm out of profit as a precautionary measure.
Answer:
General Reserve/Reserve Fund

Question 12.
The ratio in which the old partners share the amount brought in by the new partner towards goodwill.
Answer:
Sacrifice Ratio

Question 13.
The ratio in which the Goodwill A/c may be written off after admission of a partner.
Answer:
New Profit and Loss Ratio

Question 14.
An account was opened for the Revaluation of Assets and Liabilities.
Answer:
Profit and Loss Adjustment A/c or Revaluation A/c

Question 15.
Debit balance of Revaluation Account.
Answer:
Loss on revaluation of assets and liabilities

Question 16.
An amount by which the actual capital of a partner exceeds his Proportionate capital.
Answer:
Surplus capital/Excess capital

Question 17.
An amount by which the proportionate capital of a partner exceeds his actual capital.
Answer:
Deficit or Deficiency in capital

C. State True or False with reasons.

Question 1.
The credit balance of the Revaluation Account means a loss on revaluation of assets and liabilities.
Answer:
This statement is False.
The credit balance of the Revaluation Account means profit on revaluation of assets and liabilities. Revaluation A/c is nominal A/c. On the credit side of this A/c, all incomes and gains are recorded. The credit balance means the credit amount is more than the debt amount. Hence, the credit balance of the Revaluation Account is profit on the revaluation of assets and liabilities.

Question 2.
If the Goodwill Account is raised up, Goodwill Account is debited.
Answer:
This statement is True.
As per the rules of Accountancy when the value of an asset increases or raises, its account is debited in the books of account. Goodwill is an Asset.

Question 3.
On admission of a partner, the amount of goodwill brought in cash is credited to Goodwill Account.
Answer:
This statement is True.
When newly admitted partner brought cash for goodwill, Cash/Bank Account is debited as it comes in and Goodwill Account is credited and afterward, Goodwill Account will be debited when benefits of Goodwill are transferred to old partners’ Capital Accounts.

Question 4.
The new partner is entitled to receive a share in the general reserve of the existing partnership firm.
Answer:
This statement is False.
General reserve is the amount kept aside from the part and current profit earned by the business for future business development purposes. Hence on this amount, the new partner has no right. Therefore new partner is not entitled to receive a share in general reserve.

Question 5.
On admission of a partner, the profit or loss on revaluation is distributed among the old partners.
Answer:
This statement is True.
At the time of admission of a new partner, existing assets and liabilities of the business are to be revalued and whatever the profit or loss is there it is to be distributed among old partners only.

Question 6.
The goodwill brought in by a new partner is shared by the old partner.
Answer:
This statement is True.
The reputation of business measured in terms of money is known as goodwill and on this, old partners have right so when goodwill is brought in by a new partner in the business, it is shared by the old partner.

Question 7.
The new ratio minus the old ratio is equal to the gain ratio.
Answer:
This statement is True.
At the time of Retirement or Death of a partner, existing partners may have some gain, which is found out by the Gain ratio = New ratio – Old ratio.

Question 8.
When a partner takes away any asset from the business, his account will be debited.
Answer:
This statement is True.
When a partner takes away any asset from the business, Asset Account will be credited and the Partner’s Account will be debited as it decreases the partner’s capital.

Question 9.
Average profit means profit that is earned over and above the normal profit.
Answer:
This statement is False.
When a firm earns extra profit over and above the normal profit because of the reputation of the firm then it is known as a super profit and not average profit.

D. Answer in one sentence.

Question 1.
What is meant by the admission of a partner?
Answer:
A process in which a new person is taken into the partnership firm as a partner is called admission of a partner.

Question 2.
In what proportion is general reserve distributed among the old partners?
Answer:
On admission of a new partner, the amount of general reserve is distributed among the old partners in their old profit sharing ratio.

Question 3.
How is the sacrifice ratio calculated?
Answer:
The sacrifice ratio is calculated by deducting the new ratio of the partner from his old ratio.
Formula:
Sacrifice ratio = Old ratio – New ratio.

Question 4.
What does credit balance on Profit and Loss Adjustment A/c or Revaluation A/c show?
Answer:
A credit balance on Profit and Loss Adjustment A/c or Revaluation A/c shows a profit on revaluation of assets and liabilities.

Question 5.
In which ratio do the old partners share the profit or loss made on revaluation of assets and liabilities of the firm?
Answer:
The profit or loss made on revaluation of assets and liabilities of the firm is shared by old partners in their old profit sharing ratio.

Question 6.
What is General Reserve or Reserve Fund?
Answer:
A fund created by keeping aside a part of profit every year to provide timely finance for unforeseen contingencies like fire, flood, earthquake, change in Government policy, etc. is called General Reserve or Reserve Fund.

Question 7.
Who shares the amount of general reserve on the admission of a new partner?
Answer:
On admission of a new partner, the amount of general reserve is shared by old partners only.

Question 8.
On what single factor does the valuation of goodwill primarily depend?
Answer:
The most important factor of the valuation of goodwill is the profit earning capacity of the firm.

Solved Problems

Question 1.
The Balance Sheet of Anal and Arvind who shared the profits in the ratio of 2 : 1 is as under:
Balance Sheet as of 31st March 2019

On 1st April 2019 Zalak was admitted as 1/4th partner on the following terms:
1. She brings equipment of ₹ 40,000 as her capital.
2. Firm’s goodwill is valued at ₹ 72,000 and Zalak agreed to bring her share in the firm’s goodwill by cheque.
3. R.D.D. should be maintained at 7.5% on debtors.
4. Increase the value of livestock by ₹ 1,300 and write off loose tools by 20%.
5. Outstanding rent paid ₹ 4,520 in full settlement.
Pass necessary journal entries to record the above scheme of admission.
Solution:
Journal entries in the books of partnership firm

Working Notes:
1. To find out Profit or Loss made on revaluation of assets and liabilities, Profit and Loss Adjustment A/c is prepared:

2. Discount earned on payment of outstanding Rent = 5,000 – 4,520 = ₹ 800.
It is credited to Profit and Loss-Adjustment A/c.

3. Increase in RDD = New RDD – Old RDD
= 7.5% on 24,000 – 1,000.
= 1,800 – 1,000
= ₹ 800.
It is debited to Profit and Loss-Adjustment A/c

Question 2.
Mahesh and Kamlesh are partners in a business sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2 : 1 respectively. Their Balance Sheet as of 31st March 2019 is as follows:
Balance Sheet as of 31st March 2019

They admitted Kiran on 1st April 2019 as a partner on the following terms:
1. Kiran will bring ₹ 60,000 as his capital for 1/4th share in future profit and ₹ 24,000 as goodwill which will be withdrawn by old partners.
2. Stock and Machinery are to be depreciated by 10%.
3. R.D.D. is to be maintained at 5% on debtors.
4. Building is to be appreciated by 20% and Furniture is revalued at ₹ 20,000.
Prepare Profit and Loss Adjustment Account, Partners’ Capital Accounts, and Balance Sheet of the new firm.
Solution:
In the books of partnership firm

Balance Sheet as of 1st April 2019

Working Notes:

Question 3.
Akash and Aman are partners in firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio 3 : 2. Their Balance Sheet as of 31st March 2019 was as follows:
Balance Sheet as of 31st March 2019

They agreed to admit Raj in their partnership on 1st April 2019, on the following terms:
1. Raj should bring ₹ 2,250, as his share of goodwill in the firm and ₹ 3,000 as his capital.
2. Reserve for doubtful debts is to be provided @ 5% on debtors.
3. Land and building are to be depreciated at 10% p.a.
4. Plant and Machinery is to be depreciated @ 5% and stock is to be depreciated @ 10% p.a.
5. The new profit sharing, the ratio will be 2 : 1 : 1.
Prepare:
(a) Revaluation Account
(b) Partners’ Capital Accounts
(c) New Balance Sheet of the firm.
Solution:
In the books of Partnership Firm


Balance Sheet as of 1st April 2019

Working Notes:
1. Calculation of sacrifice ratio of old partners:
Old ratio: Akash = \(\frac{3}{5}\) and Aman = \(\frac{2}{5}\)
New ratio: Akash = \(\frac{2}{4}\) and Aman = \(\frac{1}{4}\)
Sacrifice ratio = Old ratio – New ratio
Akash’s sacrifice ratio = \(\frac{3}{5}-\frac{2}{4}=\frac{12-10}{20}=\frac{2}{20}\)
Aman’s sacrifice ratio = \(\frac{2}{5}-\frac{1}{4}=\frac{8-5}{20}=\frac{3}{20}\)
Sacrifice ratio of Akash and Aman = \(\frac{2}{20}\) : \(\frac{3}{30}\) i.e. 2 : 3.
Benefits of Goodwill of ₹ 2,250 distributed and transferred to Akash’s Capital A/c and Aman’s Capital A/c in their sacrifice ratio (which is 2 : 3).
Goodwill credited to Akash’s Capital = 2,250 × \(\frac{2}{3+2}\) = ₹ 900
and Aman’s Capital = 2,250 × \(\frac{3}{5}\) = ₹ 1,350.

2. Debit balance of Revaluation of ₹ 17,955 indicates Loss on revaluation.
Division of Revaluation Loss:
Akash = 17,955 × \(\frac{3}{3+2}\) = ₹ 10,773
and Aman = 17,955 × \(\frac{2}{5}\) = ₹ 7,182.

3. Balance in Cash A/c at the end = 13,800 + 3,000 + 2,250 = ₹ 19,050.
It is shown on the Assets side of the Balance sheet.

4. R.D.D. = 5 % on value of Debtors = \(\frac{5}{100}\) × 94,500 = ₹ 4,725.
Amount of R.D.D. is first debited to Revaluation A/c and then deducted from the value of Debtors on the Assets side of Balance Sheet.

5. Division of General Reserve:
Akash = \(\frac{3}{5}\) × 15,000 = ₹ 9,000
and Aman = \(\frac{2}{5}\) × 15,000 = ₹ 6,000.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Biology Important Questions Chapter 5 Cell Structure and Organization Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Biology Important Questions Chapter 5 Cell Structure and Organization

Question 1.
Define cell.
Answer:
Cell is defined as a structural and functional unit of life of all living organisms capable of independent existence and can perform all functions of life.

Question 2.
Write information about the instrument which is used for observing smaller organisms or cells.
Answer:

1. To observe cells or organisms of smaller size we use a microscope.
2. Larger cells can be seen through simple microscope but to observe smaller cells we require compound microscope.
3. Simple microscope can magnify image 50 to 100 times but a compound microscope can do so 1000 times or more.
4. In the microscope a beam of light is used to make things visible hence it is light microscope.
5. To observe interior of cell we need electron microscope which can magnify image 500000 times.

Question 3.
Write the shapes of the cells that can be observed.
Answer:
There is no typical shape of a cell. Cells may be spherical, rectangular, flattened, polygonal, oval, triangular, conical, columnar, etc.

Question 4.
1. Smallest cell
2. Longest cell in animals
3. Largest cell
Answer:
1. Mycoplasma (0.3 µm)
2. Nerve cell
3. Ostrich egg

Question 5.
Explain the term totipotency.
Answer:

1. Totipotency (totus – entire, potential – power) is the capacity or the potential of living nucleated cell, to differentiate into any other type of cell and thus, can form a complete new organism.
2. A cell is totipotent as it has the entire genetic information of the organism stored in its nucleus.
3. Embryonic animal cells are totipotent and are termed as stem cells.
4. Stem cells are used in curing many diseases. Therefore, they have great potential for medical applications.

Question 6.
Who proposed the cell theory?
Answer:
Schwann and Schleiden proposed the cell theory.

Question 7.
Give the postulates of modern cell theory.
Answer:
Postulates of modern cell theory:

1. All living organisms are made up of cells.
2. Cell is the basic structural and functional unit of life.
3. All cells arise from pre-existing cells. (Rudolf Virchow 1858 – “Omnis cellula-e-cellula”).
4. Total activities of cells are responsible for activity of an organism.
5. Cells show transformation of energy.
6. Cells contain nucleic acids; DNA and RNA in the nucleus and cytoplasm.

Question 8.
State the two general categories on which living organisms are grouped.
Answer:
Living organisms are grouped into two main categories the Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes.

Question 9.
State the general characteristics of prokaryotic cell.
Answer:
General characteristics of prokaryotic cell:
1. Prokaryotic cells are primitive type of cells.
2. It does not have membrane bound cell organelles (like endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, mitochondria, etc.) and well-defined nucleus (nuclear membrane is absent).
3. Genetic material is in the form of nucleoid.

4. Cell envelope:
a. Prokaryotic cell has chemically complex protective cell envelope having glycocalyx, cell wall and plasma membrane.
b. In some bacteria, glycocalyx occurs in the form of a slime layer (loose sheath). Other bacteria may have a thick and tough covering called capsule. It helps in protection of bacterial cell.

5. Cell wall:
The Gram-positive bacteria show presence of peptidoglycan layer in the cell wall and Gram-negative bacteria show presence of murein in the cell wall. It gives mechanical strength to the cell.
[Note: In Gram-negative bacteria, cell wall is made up of two layers; inner layer of Murein or peptidoglycan and outer layer of Lipopolysaccharides.]

6. Cell membrane:
a. It is the innermost covering of the cell envelope, chemically composed of lipids and proteins.
b. It helps in intercellular communication.
c. Cell membrane shows infoldings called mesosomes which help in cell wall formation, cellular respiration and DNA replication.
d. The cyanobacteria show longer extensions called as chromatophores which carry photosynthetic pigments.

7. In motile bacteria either cilia or flagella are found. Both are driven by rotatory movement produced by basal body (which works as motor) of flagellum. Other parts of flagellum are filament and hook.

8. Some other surface projections are the tubular pili (which help in inter-cellular communication) and fimbriae (for clinging to support).

9. Ribosomes:
Bacterial cell cytoplasm contains dense particles called ribosomes which help in protein synthesis. Ribosomes are 70S type (composed of a larger sub-unit 50S and + smaller sub-unit 30S).

Question 10.
What is the difference between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacterial cells? Name the technique used for differentiating such bacterial cells.
Answer:
The Gram-positive bacteria show presence of peptidoglycan layer in the cell wall and Gram-negative bacteria show presence of murein in the cell wall. The technique used for differentiating bacterial cells is Gram staining.
[Note: Murein is similar to peptidoglycan in structure and function. It is present in the cell walls of archaebacteria.

Question 11.
Write the constituents of prokaryotic cytoplasm.
Answer:
1. Cytoplasm of prokaryotes is a pool of all necessary materials like water, enzymes, elements, amino acids, etc.
2. Some inclusion bodies in form of organic (cyanophycean starch and glycogen) and inorganic granules (phosphate and sulphur) are also found.

Question 12.
Fill in the blanks.

1. Genetic material in bacterium is a single chromosome made up of circular and coiled _______.
2. The bacterial chromosome remains attached to _________.
3. The _________ model of replication is observed in bacterial cells.
4. _________ present in the bacterial cells are known as extrachromosomal self-replicating DNA.

Answer:

1. DNA
2. Mesosomes
3. Theta
4. Plasmids

Question 13.
What are eukaryotic cells?
Answer:
1. Eukaryotic cells are the cells possessing well-defined nucleus and membrane bound organelles (like mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum, ribosomes, Golgi complex etc.).
2. Eukaryotes include protists, plants, animals and fungi.

Question 14.
Write a note on cell wall in Eukaryotic cells.
Answer:

• The rigid, protective and supportive covering, outside the cell membrane is called cell wall. It is present in plant cells, fungi and some protists.
• Algae show presence of cellulose, galactans, mannans and minerals like calcium carbonate in cell wall.
• In other plants, it is made up of hemicelluloses, pectin, lipids and protein.
• Microfibrils of plant cell wall show presence of cellulose which is responsible for rigidity.
• Some of the depositions of cell wall are silica (grass stem), cutin (epidermal walls of land plants), suberin (endodermal cells of root), wax, lignin.
• Function:
  • Provides support, rigidity and shape to the cell.
  • Protects the protoplasm against mechanical injury and infections.

Question 15.
Explain the structure of plant cell wall.
Answer:
In plants, cell wall shows middle lamella, primary wall and secondary wall

1. Middle lamella:
It is thin and present between two adjacent r cells. It is the first structure formed from cell plate during cytokinesis. It is mainly made up of pectin, calcium and magnesium pectate. Softening of ripe fruit is due to solubilization of pectin.
2. Primary wall:
In young plant cell, it is capable of growth. It is laid inside to middle lamella.
It is the only wall seen in meristematic tissue, mesophyll, pith, etc.
3. Secondary wall:
It is present inner to primary wall. Once the growth of primary wall stops, secondary wall is laid. At some places thickening is absent which leads to formation of pits.

Question 16.
Draw a well labelled diagram of a plant cell.
Answer:

Question 17.
Give an account of eukaryotic plasma membrane.
Answer:
Eukaryotic plasma membrane/ Cell membrane/ Biomembrane:

1. It is thin, quasi-fluid structure present both extracellularly and intracellularly.
2. Extracellularly, it is present around protoplast and intracellularly, it is present around most of the cell organelles in eukaryotic cell. It separates cell organelles from cytosol.
3. Thickness of bio-membrane is about 75A.
4. Cell membrane appears trilaminar (made up of three layers) when observed under electron microscope. It shows presence of lipids (mostly phospholipids) arranged in bilayer.
5. Lipids possess one hydrophilic polar head and two hydrophobic non-polar tails. Therefore, phospholipids are amphipathic.
6. Lipid molecules are arranged in two layers (bilayer) in such a way that their tails are sandwiched in between heads. Due to this, tails never come in direct contact with aqueous surrounding.
7. Cell membrane also shows presence of proteins and carbohydrates.
8. Ratio of proteins and lipids varies in different cells. For example, in human beings, RBCs show approximately 52% protein and 40% lipids.

Question 18.
Explain the structure of plasma membrane on the basis of Fluid mosaic model.
Answer:
Fluid mosaic model:

1. Fluid mosaic model was proposed by Singer and Nicholson (1972).
2. This model states that plasma membrane is made up of phospholipid bilayer and proteins.
3. Proteins are embedded in the lipid membrane like icebergs in the sea of lipids.
4. Phospholipid bilayer is fluid in nature.
5. Quasi-fluid nature of lipid enables lateral movement of proteins. This ability to move within the membrane is measured as fluidity.
6. Based on organization of membrane proteins they are of two types, as:

a. The intrinsic proteins occur at different depths of bilayer i.e. they are tightly bound to the phospholipid bilayer and are embedded in it. They span the entire thickness of the membrane. Therefore, they are known as transmembrane proteins. They form channels for passage of water.
b. The extrinsic or peripheral proteins are found on two surfaces of the membrane i.e. are loosely held to the phospholipid layer and can be easily removed.

Question 19.
Draw neat and labelled diagram of structure of plasma membrane proposed by Singer and Nicolson.
Answer:
Fluid mosaic model:

1. Fluid mosaic model was proposed by Singer and Nicholson (1972).
2. This model states that plasma membrane is made up of phospholipid bilayer and proteins.
3. Proteins are embedded in the lipid membrane like icebergs in the sea of lipids.
4. Phospholipid bilayer is fluid in nature.
5. Quasi-fluid nature of lipid enables lateral movement of proteins. This ability to move within the membrane is measured as fluidity.
6. Based on organization of membrane proteins they are of two types, as:

a. The intrinsic proteins occur at different depths of bilayer i.e. they are tightly bound to the phospholipid bilayer and are embedded in it. They span the entire thickness of the membrane. Therefore, they are known as transmembrane proteins. They form channels for passage of water.
b. The extrinsic or peripheral proteins are found on two surfaces of the membrane i.e. are loosely held to the phospholipid layer and can be easily removed.

Question 20.
Give the functions of plasma membrane.
Answer:
1. The significant function of plasma membrane is transport of molecules across it. Plasma membrane is selectively permeable.

2. Passive transport:
a. Many molecules move across the membrane without spending energy.
b. Some molecules move by simple diffusion along the concentration gradient i.e. from higher to lower concentration.
c. Neutral molecules may move across the membrane by the process of simple diffusion.
d. Water may also move by osmosis.

3. Active transport:
a. Few ions or molecules are transported against concentration gradient i.e. from lower to higher concentration.
b. This requires energy, hence ATP is utilized. As such a transport is an energy dependent process in which ATP is utilized, it is called Active transport e.g. Na⁺ /K⁺ pump.
c. Polar molecules cannot pass through non-polar lipid bilayer. Therefore, they require carrier proteins to facilitate their transport across the membrane.

Question 21.
Write a note on cytoplasm in Eukaryotic cell.
Answer:
Cytoplasm in Eukaryotic cell:

1. The cell contains ground substance called cytoplasmic matrix or cytosol.
2. This colloidal jelly like material shows streaming movements called cyclosis.
3. The cytoplasm contains water as major component along with organic and inorganic molecules like sugars, amino acids, vitamins, enzymes, nucleotides, minerals and waste products.
4. It also contains various membrane-bound cell organelles like endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, mitochondria, plastids, nucleus, microbodies and cytoskeletal elements like microtubules.
5. Cytoplasm acts as a source of raw materials as well as seat for various metabolic activities taking place in the cell.
6. It helps in distribution and exchange of materials between various cell organelles.

Question 22.
Explain the endomembrane system of the cell.
Answer:

1. Cell organelles are compartments in the cell that carry out specific functions.
2. Some of these organelles coordinate with each other and complete the specific function of the cell.
3. Nuclear membrane, endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, lysosomes and various types of vesicles and vacuoles form such a group and are together considered as endomembrane system of the cell.

Question 23.
Why mitochondria and chloroplasts are not considered as a part of endomembrane system?
Answer:
1. Organelles having distinct functions are not included in endomembrane system.
2. Mitochondria or chloroplast carry out specific type of energy conversions in the cell. Therefore, mitochondria and chloroplasts are not considered as a part of endomembrane system.

Question 24.
Describe the structure of Endoplasmic Reticulum.
Answer:

1. Endoplasmic reticulum is a network present within the cytosol.
2. It is present in all a cells except ova and mature red blood corpuscles.
3. Under the electron microscope, it appears like network of membranous tubules and sacs called cisternae.
4. This network of ER divides the cytoplasm in two parts viz. one within the lumen of ER called laminal cytoplasm and non-laminal cytoplasm that lies outside ER.
5. Membrane of ER is continuous with nuclear envelope at one end and extends till cell membrane. It thus acts as intracellular supporting framework and helps in maintaining position of various cell organelles in the cytoplasm.
6. Depending upon the presence or absence of ribosomes, endoplasmic reticulum is called rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) or smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) respectively.

Question 25.
Label the diagram
Answer:

1. Endoplasmic reticulum is a network present within the cytosol.
2. It is present in all a cells except ova and mature red blood corpuscles.
3. Under the electron microscope, it appears like network of membranous tubules and sacs called cisternae.
4. This network of ER divides the cytoplasm in two parts viz. one within the lumen of ER called laminal cytoplasm and non-laminal cytoplasm that lies outside ER.
5. embrane of ER is continuous with nuclear envelope at one end and extends till cell membrane. It thus acts as intracellular supporting framework and helps in maintaining position of various cell organelles in the cytoplasm.
6. Depending upon the presence or absence of ribosomes, endoplasmic reticulum is called rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) or smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) respectively.

Question 26.
Explain the structure, location and functions of Golgi complex.
Answer:
Golgi complex or Golgi apparatus or Golgi body act as a assembly, manufacturing cum packaging and transport unit of cell.
1. Structure of Golgi complex:
a. Golgi complex consists of stacks of membranous sacs called cistemae.
b. Diameter of cistemae varies from 0.5 to 1pm.
c. A Golgi complex may have few to several cistemae depending on its function.
d. The thickness and molecular composition of membranes at one end of the stack of a Golgi sac differ from those at the other end.
e. The Golgi sacs show specific orientation in the cell.
f. Each cistema has a forming or ‘cis’ face (cis: on the same side) and maturing or ‘trans’ face (trAnswer:the opposite side).
g. Transport vesicles that pinch off from transitional ER merge with cis face of Golgi cistema and add its contents into the lumen.

2. Location of Golgi complex:
Golgi bodies are usually located near endoplasmic reticulum.

3. Functions of Golgi complex:
a. Golgi body carries out two types of functions, modification of secretions of ER and production of its own secretions.
b. Cistemae contain specific enzymes for specific functions.
c. Refining (modification) of product takes place in a sequential manner.
d. For example, certain sugar component is added or removed from glycolipids and glycoproteins that are brought from ER, thus forming a variety of products.
e. Golgi bodies also manufacture their own products. Golgi bodies in many plant cells produce non-cellulose polysaccharides like pectin.
f. Manufactured or modified, all products of Golgi complex leave cistemae from trans face as transport vesicles.

Question 27.
How transport vesicles identify their target cell or cell membrane?
Answer:
While transport vesicles are leaving from the trans face of the Golgi, certain markers get impregnated on their membrane. These markers help them to identify their specific target cell or cell organelle.

Question 28.
Label the diagrams and write down the details of concept in your words.
Answer:
Golgi complex or Golgi apparatus or Golgi body act as a assembly, manufacturing cum packaging and transport unit of cell.
1. Structure of Golgi complex:
a. Golgi complex consists of stacks of membranous sacs called cistemae.
b. Diameter of cistemae varies from 0.5 to 1pm.
c. A Golgi complex may have few to several cistemae depending on its function.
d. The thickness and molecular composition of membranes at one end of the stack of a Golgi sac differ from those at the other end.
e. The Golgi sacs show specific orientation in the cell.
f. Each cistema has a forming or ‘cis’ face (cis: on the same side) and maturing or ‘trans’ face (trAnswer:the opposite side).
g. Transport vesicles that pinch off from transitional ER merge with cis face of Golgi cistema and add its contents into the lumen.

2. Location of Golgi complex:
Golgi bodies are usually located near endoplasmic reticulum.

3. Functions of Golgi complex:
a. Golgi body carries out two types of functions, modification of secretions of ER and production of its own secretions.
b. Cistemae contain specific enzymes for specific functions.
c. Refining (modification) of product takes place in a sequential manner.
d. For example, certain sugar component is added or removed from glycolipids and glycoproteins that are brought from ER, thus forming a variety of products.
e. Golgi bodies also manufacture their own products. Golgi bodies in many plant cells produce non-cellulose polysaccharides like pectin.
f. Manufactured or modified, all products of Golgi complex leave cistemae from trans face as transport vesicles.

Question 29.
Write a note on lysosomes and make a list of lysosomal enzymes.
Answer:
Lysosomes:

1. Lysosomes are considered as dismantling and restructuring units of a cell.
2. These are membrane bound vesicles containing hydrolytic enzymes. The enzymes in lysosomes are used by most eukaryotic cells to digest (hydrolyse) macromolecules.
3. The lysosomal enzymes show optimal activity in acidic pH.
4. Lysosomes arise from Golgi associated endoplasmic reticulum.
5. Lysosomes are polymorphic in nature and are classified as primary lysosomes, secondary or hybrid lysosomes, residual body and autophagic vesicle.
6. The list of lysosomal enzymes includes:
   All types of hydrolases viz, amylases, proteases and lipases.

Question 30.
“Lysosomes are polymorphic in nature.” Justify the statement.
Answer:

1. Lysosomes are classified as, Primary lysosomes; which are nothing but membrane bound vesicles in which enzymes are in inactive state.
2. Secondary lysosomes or hybrid lysosomes, which are formed by fusion of lysosome with endocytic vesicle containing materials to be digested, represented as heterophagic vesicle. This is larger in size than primary lysosome.
3. When organic molecules or membrane bound old cell organelle to be recycled fuses with primary lysosome, autophagic vesicles are formed.
4. Residual body is the vesicle containing undigested remains left over in the heterophagic vesicle after releasing the products of digestion in the cytosol. Hence, lysosomes are polymorphic in nature.

Question 31.
“Lysosomes are called suicide bags of the cells”. Why?
Answer:

1. Lysosomes which bring about digestion of cell’s own organic material like a damaged cell organelle are called autophagic vesicle (suicide bags).
2. An autophagic vesicle essentially consists of lysosome fused with membrane bound old cell organelle or organic molecules to be recycled.
3. Thus, lysosomes are capable of destructing all kinds of material in the cell. Therefore, can digest its own cell organelles due to presence of lysosome. Hence, lysosomes are also called as suicide bags.

Question 32.
Write a note on vacuoles.
Answer:
The organelle which helps in maintaining turgidity of the cell and a proper internal balance of cellular contents is known as vacuole.

1. The vacuoles are bound by semipermeable membrane, called tonoplast membrane. This membrane helps in maintaining the composition of vacuolar fluid (cell sap), different from that of the cytosol.
2. Composition of cell sap differs in different types of cells.
3. In vacuoles along with excretory products other compounds are stored that are harmful or unpalatable to herbivores, thereby protecting the plants.
4. Attractive colours of the petals are due to storage of such pigments in vacuoles.
5. Generally, there are two or three permanent vacuoles in a plant cell.
6. In some large plant cells, a single large vacuole occupies the central part of the cell. It is called central vacuole. In such cells, vacuole can occupy about 90% of the total volume of the cell.
7. The cell sap of central vacuole is a store house of various ions and thus is hypertonic to cytosol.
8. Small vacuoles in seeds of certain plants store organic materials like proteins.
9. In animal cells, they are few in number and smaller in size.
10. Intake of food or foreign particle by phagocytosis involves formation of food vacuole.

Question 33.
What is the function of contractile vacuole in Paramoecium?
Answer:
Contractile vacuole performs excretion and osmoregulation in fresh water unicellular forms like Paramoecium.

Question 34.
What are microbodies? Mention their types and functions.
Answer:
Microbodies are minute membrane bound sacs found in both plant and animal cells. Microbodies contain various types of enzymes based on which they are classified into following types:
1. Sphaerosomes:
a. These are found mainly in cells involved in synthesis and storage of fats. For e. g. endosperm of oil seeds.
b. The membrane of sphaerosome is half unit membrane i.e. this membrane has only one phospholipid layer.

2. Peroxisomes:
a. Peroxisomes contain enzymes that remove hydrogen atoms from substrate and produce toxic hydrogen peroxide by utilisation of oxygen.
b. At the same time peroxisome also contains enzymes that convert toxic H₂0₂ to water. Conversion of toxic substances like alcohol takes place in liver cells by peroxisomes.

Question 35.
Draw a neat and labelled diagram and explain the functions of glyoxysomes.
Answer:

Glyoxysomes are membrane bound organelles containing enzymes that convert fatty acids to sugar. They are observed in cells of germinating seeds where the cells utilize sugar (formed by conversion of stored fatty acids) till it starts photosynthesising on its own.

Question 36.
Describe the structure of mitochondria.
Answer:
Mitochondrion is known as the power house of the cell. It plays significant role in aerobic respiration. Mitochondria are absent in prokaryotic cells and red blood corpuscles (RBCs).

The structure of mitochondrion:

1. Shape of the mitochondria may be oval or spherical or like spiral strip.
2. It is a double membrane bound organelle.
3. Outer membrane is permeable to various metabolites due to presence of a protein-Porin or Parson’s particles.
4. Inner membrane is selectively permeable to few substances only.
5. Both membranes are separated by intermembrane space.
6. Inner membrane shows several finger like or plate like folds called as cristae which bears numerous particles oxysomes and cytochromes / electron carriers.
7. Inner membrane encloses a cavity called inner chamber, containing a fluid-matrix.
8. Matrix contains few coils of circular DNA, RNA, 70S types of ribosomes, lipids and various enzymes of Krebs’ cycle and other pathways.

Question 37.
Label the diagram and write down the details of concept in your words.

Answer:
Mitochondrion is known as the power house of the cell. It plays significant role in aerobic respiration. Mitochondria are absent in prokaryotic cells and red blood corpuscles (RBCs).

The structure of mitochondrion:

1. Shape of the mitochondria may be oval or spherical or like spiral strip.
2. It is a double membrane bound organelle.
3. Outer membrane is permeable to various metabolites due to presence of a protein-Porin or Parson’s particles.
4. Inner membrane is selectively permeable to few substances only.
5. Both membranes are separated by intermembrane space.
6. Inner membrane shows several finger like or plate like folds called as cristae which bears numerous particles oxysomes and cytochromes / electron carriers.
7. Inner membrane encloses a cavity called inner chamber, containing a fluid-matrix.
8. Matrix contains few coils of circular DNA, RNA, 70S types of ribosomes, lipids and various enzymes of Krebs’ cycle and other pathways.

Question 38.
Identify and label the following structure. Write a note on it.

Answer:
1. The given structure is of Oxysome/ F₁ Particle.
2. A: Head (F₁)
B: Pedicel
C: Foot (Base / F₀)
3. Structure of Oxysome:
a. Inner membrane of mitochondria bears numerous particles called as Oxysomes (F₁ – F_o / Fernandez – Moran Elementary particles / Mitochondrial particles).
b. Each particle consists of head, stalk (Pedicel) and base.
c. Head (F₁) / lollipop head faces towards matrix and foot (F0) is embedded in inner membrane.
d. Head acts as an enzyme ATP synthase and foot (base) as proton channel. Oxysomes are involved in proton pumping and ATP synthesis.

Question 39.
What are plastids?
Answer:
Plastids are double membraned organelles containing DNA, RNA and 70S ribosomes.

Question 40.
Draw a labelled diagram of the organelle which plays a significant role in synthesis of starch in plants. Write a note on its structure.
Answer:
Chloroplast plays a significant role in synthesis of starch in plants.
Structure of chloroplast:

1. In plants, chloroplast is found mainly in mesophyll of leaf.
2. Chloroplast is lens shaped but it can also be oval, spherical, discoid or ribbon like.
3. A cell may contain single large chloroplast as in Chlamydomonas or there can be 20 to 40 chloroplasts per cell as seen in mesophyll cells.
4. Chloroplasts contain green pigment called chlorophyll along with other enzymes that help in production of sugar by photosynthesis.
5. Inner membrane of double membraned chloroplast is comparatively less permeable.
6. Inside the cavity of inner membrane, there is another set of membranous sacs called thylakoids.
7. Thylakoids are arranged in the form of stacks called grana (singular: granum).
8. The grana are connected to each other by means of membranous tubules called stroma lamellae.
9. Space outside thylakoids is filled with stroma.
10. The stroma and the space inside thylakoids contain various enzymes essential for photosynthesis.
11. Stroma of chloroplast contains DNA and ribosomes (70S).

Question 41.
Insulin is the protein hormone synthesized by pancreatic cells. Name the component that performs the role of protein factory and draw their labelled structure as seen in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
Answer:
Ribosomes are the protein factories that synthesize proteins using genetic information.

Question 42.
Give the detailed information on ribosomes found in eukaryotic cell.
Answer:

1. Ribosomes are protein factories of cell and were first observed as dense particles in electron micrograph of a cell by scientist Palade in 1953.
2. Ribosomes lack membranous covering around them and are made up of Ribosomal RNA and proteins.
3. In a eukaryotic cell, ribosomes are present in mitochondria, plastids (in plant cells) and in cytosol.
4. Ribosomes are either found attached to outer surface of Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum and nuclear membrane or freely suspended in cytoplasm.
5. Both are of 80S type. Each ribosome is made up of two subunits- a large (60S) and a small (40S) subunit.
6. Bound ribosomes generally produce proteins that are transported outside the cell after processing in ER and Golgi body. e.g. Bound ribosomes of acinar cells of pancreas produce pancreatic digestive enzymes.
7. Free ribosomes come together and form chains called polyribosomes for protein synthesis.
8. Free ribosomes generally produce enzymatic proteins that are used up in cytoplasm, like enzymes required for breakdown of sugar.
9. Both types of ribosomes (bound and free) can interchange position and function.
10. Number of ribosomes is high in cells actively engaged in protein synthesis.

Question 43.
What is Svedberg unit?
Answer:
The particle size of ribosomes is measured in terms of Svedberg unit (S). It is a measure of sedimentation rate of a particle in ultracentrifuge. It is thus a measure of density and size of a particle. 1S = 10^-13 sec.

Question 44.
Describe the structure of nucleus.
Answer:
Nucleus is known as the master cell organelle as it regulates various metabolic activities through synthesis of various proteins and enzymes.
The nucleus in eukaryotic cell is made up of nuclear envelope, nucleoplasm, nucleolus and chromatin network.
1. Nuclear envelope:
a. Nuclear envelope is a double layered delimiting membrane of nucleus.
b. Two membranes are separated from each other by perinuclear space (10 to 50nm).
c. Outer membrane is connected with endoplasmic reticulum at places and harbours ribosomes on it.
d. The inner membrane is lined by nuclear lamina- a network of protein fibres that helps in maintaining shape of the nucleus.
e. The two membranes along with perinuclear space help in separating nucleoplasm from cytoplasm. However, nuclear membrane is not continuous.
f. There are small openings called nucleopores on the nuclear membrane.
g. The nucleopores are guarded by pore complexes which regulate flow of substances from nucleus to cytoplasm and in reverse direction.

2. Nucleoplasm or karyolymph:
a. The nucleoplasm or karyolymph contains various substances like nucleic acids, protein molecules, minerals and salts.
b. It contains chromatin network and nucleolus.

3. Nucleolus:
a. Nucleolus is made up of rRNA and ribosomal proteins and it is known as the site of ribosome biogenesis.
b. The rRNA and ribosomal proteins are transported to cytoplasm and are assembled together to form ribosomes.
c. Depending on synthetic activity of a cell, there are one or more nucleoli present in the nucleoplasm. For e.g. cells of oocyte contain large nucleolus whereas sperm cells contain small inconspicuous one.
d. Nucleolus appear as dense spherical body present near chromatin network.

Question 45.
Write the functions of the controlling unit of the cell.
Answer:
Nucleus is known as the controlling unit of the cell.
Functions of the nucleus:
1. The nucleus contains entire genetic information; hence play important role in heredity and variation.
2. It is the site for synthesis of DNA, RNA and ribosomes.
3. It plays important role in protein synthesis.

Question 46.
Write a note on chromatin material.
Answer:

1. Nucleus contains genetic information in the form of chromosomes which are DNA molecules associated with proteins.
2. In a non-dividing cell, the chromosomes appear as thread like network and cannot be identified individually. This network is called chromatin material.
3. The chromatin material contains DNA, histone and non-histone proteins and RNA.
4. In some regions of chromatin, DNA is more and is genetically active called euchromatin.
5. Some regions that contain more of proteins and less DNA and are genetically inert, are called
   heterochromatin.

[Note: Heterochromatin is a region in chromatin that is highly compacted during interphase and is generally not accessible for transcription of genes.]

Question 47.
What is the significance of having constant chromosome number in a species?
Answer:
Constant chromosome number in a species is important in phylogenetic studies.

Question 48.
Explain the cytoskeletal system of a cell.
Answer:

1. The cytoskeleton is a supportive structure built from microtubules, intermediate filaments, and
   microfilaments.
2. Microtubules are made up of protein- tubulin.
3. Microfilaments are made up of actin.
4. Intermediate filaments are composed of fibrous proteins.

Question 49.
Compete the following concept map representing the functions of cytoskeleton.
Answer:

Question 50.
Explain in detail the structures of components that help in locomotion of unicellular organisms.
Answer:

1. Cilium or flagellum helps in locomotion of unicellular organisms.
2. They consist of basal body, basal plate and shaft.
3. Basal body is placed in outer part of cytoplasm. It is derived from centriole. It has nine peripheral triplets of fibrils.
4. Shaft is exposed part of cilia or flagella. It consists of two parts- sheath and axoneme.
5. Sheath is covering membrane of cilium or flagellum.
6. Core called axoneme possesses 11 fibrils (microtubules) running parallel to long axis.
7. It shows 9 peripheral doublet microtubules and two single central microtubules (9+2).
8. The central tubules are enclosed by central sheath.
9. This sheath is connected to one of the tubules of peripheral doublets by a radial spoke.
10. Central tubules are connected to each other by bridges.
11. The peripheral doublet microtubules are connected to each other through linkers or inter-doublet bridge.

Question 51.
Draw a labelled diagram of the structure of cilia.
Answer:
Cilia act as oars causing movement of cell.

Question 52.
Spindle apparatus is formed during cell division. Write the information on the components of cell which help in formation of this.
Answer:

1. Centrioles and centrosomes play significant role in formation of spindle apparatus during cell division.
2. Centrosome is usually found near the nucleus of an animal cell.
3. It contains a pair of cylindrical structures called centrioles.
4. The cylinder (centriole) are perpendicular to each other and are surrounded by amorphous substance called pericentriolar material.
5. Each cylinder of centriole is made up of nine sets of triplet microtubules made up of tubulin.
6. Evenly spaced triplets are connected to each other by means of non-tubulin proteins.
7. At the proximal end of centriole, there is a set of tubules called hub.
8. The peripheral triplets are connected to hub by means of radial spokes. Due to this proximal end of centriole looks like a cartwheel.
9. Centriole forms basal body of cilia and flagella.

Question 53.
Draw a labelled diagram of the structure of centriole.
Answer:

Question 54.
Match the column I with column II.

Column I	Column II
1. Mitochondria	(a) Synthesis of protein
2. Nucleus	(b) Photosynthesis
3. Chloroplast	(c) Respiration
4. Ribosomes	(d) Nucleoplasm

Answer:

Column I	Column II
1. Mitochondria	(c) Respiration
2. Nucleus	(d) Nucleoplasm
3. Chloroplast	(b) Photosynthesis
4. Ribosomes	(a) Synthesis of protein

Question 55.
Distinguish between Plant cell and Animal cell.
Answer:

Plant cell	Animal cell
(a) Cell wall is present.	Cell wall is absent.
(b) Plastids present.	Plastids absent.
(c) Chloroplast present.	Chloroplast absent.
(d) Centrioles are present only in lower plant forms.	Centrioles are present in all animal cells.
(e) Lysosomes absent.	Lysosomes present in all animal cells.
(f) Two or three large and permanent vacuoles.	Small and temporary vacuoles are present.
(g) Carbohydrates stored as starch.	Carbohydrates stored as glycogen.

Question 56.
Label the A, B, C, and D in above diagram and write the functions of organelles A and B.
Answer:
1. A: Mitochondria B: Endoplasmic Reticulum
C: Golgi complex D: Amyloplast
2. Functions of Mitochondria: Mitochondrion is known as the power house of the cell. It plays significant role in aerobic respiration. Mitochondria are absent in prokaryotic cells and red blood corpuscles (RBCs).
3. Functions of Endoplasmic Reticulum: Refer Q.33.

Question 57.
Draw a labelled diagram of an animal cell.
Answer:

Question 58.
Classify the following organelles / cellular components on the basis of presence or absence in prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
(Ribosomes, Nucleus, Plasma membrane, Mitochondria, mRNA, Endoplasmic Reticulum, Golgi complex, Centrioles, Nucleoid)
Answer:

Prokaryotic cell	Ribosomes, Plasma membrane, mRNA, Nucleoid
Eukaryotic cell	Ribosomes, Plasma membrane, mRNA, Nucleus, Mitochondria, Endoplasmic Reticulum, Golgi complex, Centrioles

Question 59.
Apply Your Knowledge

Question 1.
After learning organization of cell, to test one of the postulates of cell theory, Ananya requested her teacher to guide and allow her to perform a small experiment. The aim of the experiment Avas to form new cells in the laboratory using isolated cellular organelles from other cells. Though Ananya did not succeed to form new cells, teacher-guided and motivated her explaining why experiment performed by them failed.
1. Which postulate Ananya was willing to test and why new cells failed to form from the isolated organelles from other cells?
2. From the above mentioned data could you guess which type of cells they were trying to form whether eukaryote or prokaryote?
Answer:
1. The postulate Ananya was willing to test was, ‘all cells arise from pre-existing cells’. According to this postulate, to form new cells, pre-existing cells are must; therefore, cellular organelles did not form new cells.
2. The cells which Ananya and her teacher were trying to form were eukaryotic cells, as cellular organelles are present in eukaryotes.

Question 2.
A mix bacterial culture was given to different teams of students and was asked to write their observation regarding the shapes of bacterial cells they observed under microscope. Students discussed the characteristics among their respective teams and mentioned major types of shapes they observed.
1. Which types of bacterial shapes were observed by the students?
2. Mention why they were named in a specific manner with respect to their shapes?
Answer:
1. The bacterial shapes observed by the students are cocci, bacilli, vibrios, spirilla.
2. Under microscope, cocci appear spherical shape, bacilli appear rod shape, vibrios appear comma shape and spirilla appear twisted, therefore they are named accordingly.

Question 60.
Quick Review:

Question 61.
Exercise

Question 1.
Define cell.
Answer:
The first microscope was made by two Dutch spectacle makers Hans and Zacharias Janssen.
[Note: The Dutch scientist Anton van Leeuwenhoek made microscopes capable of magnifying single-celled organisms in a drop of pond water.]

Question 2.
Write a note on microscope.
Answer:
Cell is defined as a structural and functional unit of life of all living organisms capable of independent existence and can perform all functions of life.

Question 3.
Write a short note on totipotency.
Answer:

1. Totipotency (totus – entire, potential – power) is the capacity or the potential of living nucleated cell, to differentiate into any other type of cell and thus, can form a complete new organism.
2. A cell is totipotent as it has the entire genetic information of the organism stored in its nucleus.
3. Embryonic animal cells are totipotent and are termed as stem cells.
4. Stem cells are used in curing many diseases. Therefore, they have great potential for medical applications.

Question 4.
What are the characteristics of cells in which genetic material is known as nucleoid?
Answer:
General characteristics of prokaryotic cell:
1. Prokaryotic cells are primitive type of cells.
2. It does not have membrane bound cell organelles (like endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, mitochondria, etc.) and well-defined nucleus (nuclear membrane is absent).
3. Genetic material is in the form of nucleoid.

4. Cell envelope:
a. Prokaryotic cell has chemically complex protective cell envelope having glycocalyx, cell wall and plasma membrane.
b. In some bacteria, glycocalyx occurs in the form of a slime layer (loose sheath). Other bacteria may have a thick and tough covering called capsule. It helps in protection of bacterial cell.

5. Cell wall:
The Gram-positive bacteria show presence of peptidoglycan layer in the cell wall and Gram-negative bacteria show presence of murein in the cell wall. It gives mechanical strength to the cell.
[Note: In Gram-negative bacteria, cell wall is made up of two layers; inner layer of Murein or peptidoglycan and outer layer of Lipopolysaccharides.]

6. Cell membrane:
a. It is the innermost covering of the cell envelope, chemically composed of lipids and proteins.
b. It helps in intercellular communication.
c. Cell membrane shows infoldings called mesosomes which help in cell wall formation, cellular respiration and DNA replication.
d. The cyanobacteria show longer extensions called as chromatophores which carry photosynthetic pigments.

7. In motile bacteria either cilia or flagella are found. Both are driven by rotatory movement produced by basal body (which works as motor) of flagellum. Other parts of flagellum are filament and hook.

8. Some other surface projections are the tubular pili (which help in inter-cellular communication) and fimbriae (for clinging to support).

9. Ribosomes:
Bacterial cell cytoplasm contains dense particles called ribosomes which help in protein synthesis. Ribosomes are 70S type (composed of a larger sub-unit 50S and + smaller sub-unit 30S).

Question 5.
Which technique is used to differentiate between Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria?
Answer:
The Gram-positive bacteria show presence of peptidoglycan layer in the cell wall and Gram-negative bacteria show presence of murein in the cell wall. The technique used for differentiating bacterial cells is Gram staining.
[Note: Murein is similar to peptidoglycan in structure and function. It is present in the cell walls of archaebacteria.

Question 6.
What are mesosomes?
Answer:
Cytoplasm does not show streaming movement. Cytoplasm shows streaming movement.

Question 7.
What are the functions of pili and fimbriae?
Answer:
Respiratory enzymes are present on the infoldings of the plasma membrane called mesosomes. Respiratory enzymes are present within mitochondria.
e-g- Cyanobacteria (Blue green algae) and bacteria. Algae, fungi, plants and animals.

Question 8.
Enlist the organelles present in eukaryotic cells.
Answer:
It also contains various membrane bound cell organelles like endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, mitochondria, plastids, nucleus, microbodies and cytoskeletal elements like microtubules.

Question 9.
Who proposed the fluid-mosaic model?
Answer:
Fluid mosaic model was proposed by Singer and Nicholson (1972).

Question 10.
What are nuclear membrane?
Answer:
Nucleus is known as the master cell organelle as it regulates various metabolic activities through synthesis of various proteins and enzymes.
The nucleus in eukaryotic cell is made up of nuclear envelope, nucleoplasm, nucleolus and chromatin network.
1. Nuclear envelope:
a. Nuclear envelope is a double layered delimiting membrane of nucleus.
b. Two membranes are separated from each other by perinuclear space (10 to 50nm).
c. Outer membrane is connected with endoplasmic reticulum at places and harbours ribosomes on it.
d. The inner membrane is lined by nuclear lamina- a network of protein fibres that helps in maintaining shape of the nucleus.
e. The two membranes along with perinuclear space help in separating nucleoplasm from cytoplasm. However, nuclear membrane is not continuous.
f. There are small openings called nucleopores on the nuclear membrane.
g. The nucleopores are guarded by pore complexes which regulate flow of substances from nucleus to cytoplasm and in reverse direction.

Question 11.
Name two types of chromatin.
Answer:
1. In some regions of chromatin, DNA is more and is genetically active called euchromatin.
2. Some regions that contain more of proteins and less DNA and are genetically inert, are called heterochromatin.

Question 12.
What are lysosomes commonly known as?
Answer:
1. Lysosomes which bring about digestion of cell’s own organic material like a damaged cell organelle are called autophagic vesicle (suicide bags).
2. An autophagic vesicle essentially consists of lysosome fused with membrane bound old cell organelle or organic molecules to be recycled.
3. Thus, lysosomes are capable of destructing all kinds of material in the cell. Therefore, can digest its own cell organelles due to presence of lysosome. Hence, lysosomes are also called as suicide bags.

Question 13.
What are ribosomes?
Answer:
Ribosomes are the protein factories that synthesize proteins using genetic information.

Question 14.
What are glyoxysomes? Where do they occur?
Answer:
Glyoxysomes are membrane bound organelles containing enzymes that convert fatty acids to sugar. They are observed in cells of germinating seeds where the cells utilize sugar (formed by conversion of stored fatty acids) till it starts photosynthesising on its own.

Question 15.
Sketch and label the fluid mosaic model of cell membrane.
Answer:
Fluid mosaic model:

1. Fluid mosaic model was proposed by Singer and Nicholson (1972).
2. This model states that plasma membrane is made up of phospholipid bilayer and proteins.
3. Proteins are embedded in the lipid membrane like icebergs in the sea of lipids.
4. Phospholipid bilayer is fluid in nature.
5. Quasi-fluid nature of lipid enables lateral movement of proteins. This ability to move within the membrane is measured as fluidity.
6. Based on organization of membrane proteins they are of two types, as:

a. The intrinsic proteins occur at different depths of bilayer i.e. they are tightly bound to the phospholipid bilayer and are embedded in it. They span the entire thickness of the membrane. Therefore, they are known as transmembrane proteins. They form channels for passage of water.
b. The extrinsic or peripheral proteins are found on two surfaces of the membrane i.e. are loosely held to the phospholipid layer and can be easily removed.

Question 16.
State the functions of Endoplasmic reticulum.
Answer:
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER):
1. Depending on cell type, it helps in synthesis of lipids for e.g. Steroid secreting cells of cortical region of adrenal gland, testes and ovaries.
2. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum plays a role in detoxification in the liver and storage of calcium ions (muscle cells).

Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER):

1. Rough ER is primarily involved in protein synthesis. For e.g. Pancreatic cells synthesize the protein insulin in the ER.
2. These proteins are secreted by ribosomes attached to rough ER and are called secretory proteins. These proteins get wrapped in membrane that buds off from transitional region of ER. Such membrane bound proteins depart from ER as transport vesicles.
3. Rough ER is also involved in formation of membrane for the cell. The ER membrane grows in place by addition of membrane proteins and phospholipids to its own membrane. Portions of this expanded membrane are transferred to other components of endomembrane system.

Question 17.
Write short note on lysosomes.
Answer:
Lysosomes:

1. Lysosomes are considered as dismantling and restructuring units of a cell.
2. These are membrane bound vesicles containing hydrolytic enzymes. The enzymes in lysosomes are used by most eukaryotic cells to digest (hydrolyse) macromolecules.
3. The lysosomal enzymes show optimal activity in acidic pH.
4. Lysosomes arise from Golgi associated endoplasmic reticulum.
5. Lysosomes are polymorphic in nature and are classified as primary lysosomes, secondary or hybrid lysosomes, residual body and autophagic vesicle.
6. The list of lysosomal enzymes includes:
   All types of hydrolases viz, amylases, proteases and lipases.

Question 18.
Lysosomes are known as suicide bags of the cell. Give reason.
Answer:

1. Lysosomes which bring about digestion of cell’s own organic material like a damaged cell organelle are called autophagic vesicle (suicide bags).
2. An autophagic vesicle essentially consists of lysosome fused with membrane-bound old cell organelle or organic molecules to be recycled.
3. Thus, lysosomes are capable of destructing all kinds of material in the cell. Therefore, can digest its own cell organelles due to presence of lysosome. Hence, lysosomes are also called as suicide bags.

Question 19.
Describe the structure of plant cell wall.
Answer:
In plants, cell wall shows middle lamella, primary wall and secondary wall

1. Middle lamella:
   It is thin and present between two adjacent r cells. It is the first structure formed from cell plate during cytokinesis. It is mainly made up of pectin, calcium and magnesium pectate. Softening of ripe fruit is due to solubilization of pectin.
2. Primary wall:
   In young plant cell, it is capable of growth. It is laid inside to middle lamella.
   It is the only wall seen in meristematic tissue, mesophyll, pith, etc.
3. Secondary wall:
   It is present inner to primary wall. Once the growth of primary wall stops, secondary wall is laid. At some places thickening is absent which leads to formation of pits.

Question 20.
Describe the cell wall of eukaryotic cells and state their function.
Answer:

1. The rigid, protective and supportive covering, outside the cell membrane is called cell wall. It is present in plant cells, fungi and some protists.
2. Algae show presence of cellulose, galactans, mannans and minerals like calcium carbonate in cell wall.
3. In other plants, it is made up of hemicelluloses, pectin, lipids and protein.
4. Microfibrils of plant cell wall show presence of cellulose which is responsible for rigidity.
5. Some of the depositions of cell wall are silica (grass stem), cutin (epidermal walls of land plants), suberin (endodermal cells of root), wax, lignin.
6. Function:
   1. Provides support, rigidity and shape to the cell.
   2. Protects the protoplasm against mechanical injury and infections.

Question 21.
1. Draw neat and labelled diagram of ultrastructure of mitochondria,
2. Explain the structure of mitochondria.
Answer:
Mitochondrion is known as the power house of the cell. It plays significant role in aerobic respiration. Mitochondria are absent in prokaryotic cells and red blood corpuscles (RBCs).

The structure of mitochondrion:

1. Shape of the mitochondria may be oval or spherical or like spiral strip.
2. It is a double membrane bound organelle.
3. Outer membrane is permeable to various metabolites due to presence of a protein-Porin or Parson’s particles.
4. Inner membrane is selectively permeable to few substances only.
5. Both membranes are separated by intermembrane space.
6. Inner membrane shows several finger like or plate like folds called as cristae which bears numerous particles oxysomes and cytochromes / electron carriers.
7. Inner membrane encloses a cavity called inner chamber, containing a fluid-matrix.
8. Matrix contains few coils of circular DNA, RNA, 70S types of ribosomes, lipids and various enzymes of Krebs’ cycle and other pathways.

Question 22.
1. Draw neat and labelled diagram of structure of plasma membrane proposed by Singer and Nicholson,
2. Write any two functions of plasma membrane.
Answer:
1. Fluid mosaic model:

1. Fluid mosaic model was proposed by Singer and Nicholson (1972).
2. This model states that plasma membrane is made up of phospholipid bilayer and proteins.
3. Proteins are embedded in the lipid membrane like icebergs in the sea of lipids.
4. Phospholipid bilayer is fluid in nature.
5. Quasi-fluid nature of lipid enables lateral movement of proteins. This ability to move within the membrane is measured as fluidity.
vi. Based on organization of membrane proteins they are of two types, as:
a. The intrinsic proteins occur at different depths of bilayer i.e. they are tightly bound to the phospholipid bilayer and are embedded in it. They span the entire thickness of the membrane. Therefore, they are known as transmembrane proteins. They form channels for passage of water.
b. The extrinsic or peripheral proteins are found on two surfaces of the membrane i.e. are loosely held to the phospholipid layer and can be easily removed.

(ii)

1. The significant function of plasma membrane is transport of molecules across it. Plasma membrane is selectively permeable.

2. Passive transport:
a. Many molecules move across the membrane without spending energy.
b. Some molecules move by simple diffusion along the concentration gradient i.e. from higher to lower concentration.
c. Neutral molecules may move across the membrane by the process of simple diffusion.
d. Water may also move by osmosis.

3. Active transport:
a. Few ions or molecules are transported against concentration gradient i.e. from lower to higher concentration.
b. This requires energy, hence ATP is utilized. As such a transport is an energy dependent process in which ATP is utilized, it is called Active transport e.g. Na⁺ /K⁺ pump.
c. Polar molecules cannot pass through non-polar lipid bilayer. Therefore, they require carrier proteins to facilitate their transport across the membrane.

Question 23.
1. Draw neat and labelled diagram of nucleus,
2. Write a short note on nuclear envelope.
Answer:
Nucleus is known as the master cell organelle as it regulates various metabolic activities through synthesis of various proteins and enzymes.
The nucleus in eukaryotic cell is made up of nuclear envelope, nucleoplasm, nucleolus and chromatin network.
1. Nuclear envelope:
a. Nuclear envelope is a double layered delimiting membrane of nucleus.
b. Two membranes are separated from each other by perinuclear space (10 to 50nm).
c. Outer membrane is connected with endoplasmic reticulum at places and harbours ribosomes on it.
d. The inner membrane is lined by nuclear lamina- a network of protein fibres that helps in maintaining shape of the nucleus.
e. The two membranes along with perinuclear space help in separating nucleoplasm from cytoplasm. However, nuclear membrane is not continuous.
f. There are small openings called nucleopores on the nuclear membrane.
g. The nucleopores are guarded by pore complexes which regulate flow of substances from nucleus to cytoplasm and in reverse direction.

2. Nucleoplasm or karyolymph:
a. The nucleoplasm or karyolymph contains various substances like nucleic acids, protein molecules, minerals and salts.
b. It contains chromatin network and nucleolus.

3. Nucleolus:
a. Nucleolus is made up of rRNA and ribosomal proteins and it is known as the site of ribosome biogenesis.
b. The rRNA and ribosomal proteins are transported to cytoplasm and are assembled together to form ribosomes.
c. Depending on synthetic activity of a cell, there are one or more nucleoli present in the nucleoplasm. For e.g. cells of oocyte contain large nucleolus whereas sperm cells contain small inconspicuous one.
d. Nucleolus appear as dense spherical body present near chromatin network.

Question 24.
Which components of a cell help in formation of spindle apparatus formed during cell division?
Answer:
Centrioles and centrosomes play significant role in formation of spindle apparatus during cell division.

Question 25.
Write a note on control unit of a cell.
Answer:
a. Nucleus contains the genetic material of an organism.
b. This genetic material is present in the form of Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) which is responsible for synthesis of various proteins and enzymes.
c. These proteins and enzymes in turn regulate metabolic activities of the cells.
Therefore, nucleus is considered as control unit of a cell.

Question 26.
What are the various types of plastids? ii. Describe the chemical composition and functions of eukaryotic cell wall.
Answer:
(i)

1. Plastids are classified according to the pigments present in it. Three main types of plastids are – leucoplasts, chromoplasts and chloroplasts.
2. Leucoplasts do not contain any photosynthetic pigments they are of various shapes and sizes. These are meant for storage of nutrients:
a. Amyloplasts store starch. b. Elaioplasts store oils. c. Aleuroplasts store proteins.
3. Chromoplasts contain pigments like carotene and xanthophyll etc.
a. They impart yellow, orange or red colour to flowers and fruits.
b. These plastids are found in the coloured parts of flowers and fruits.
iv. Chloroplasts are plastids containing green pigment chlorophyll along with other enzymes that help in production of sugar by photosynthesis. They are present in plants, algae and few protists like Euglena.

(ii)

1. The rigid, protective and supportive covering, outside the cell membrane is called cell wall. It is present in plant cells, fungi and some protists.
2. Algae show presence of cellulose, galactans, mannans and minerals like calcium carbonate in cell wall.
3. In other plants, it is made up of hemicelluloses, pectin, lipids and protein.
4. Microfibrils of plant cell wall show presence of cellulose which is responsible for rigidity.
5. Some of the depositions of cell wall are silica (grass stem), cutin (epidermal walls of land plants), suberin (endodermal cells of root), wax, lignin.
6. Function:
   Provides support, rigidity and shape to the cell.
   Protects the protoplasm against mechanical injury and infections.

Question 27.
1. Explain the structure of ribosomes in detail.
2. What are sphaerosomes?
3. What is totipotency?
Answer:
(i) Ribosomes are the protein factories that synthesize proteins using genetic information.

1. Ribosomes are protein factories of cell and were first observed as dense particles in electron micrograph of a cell by scientist Palade in 1953.
2. Ribosomes lack membranous covering around them and are made up of Ribosomal RNA and proteins.
3. In a eukaryotic cell, ribosomes are present in mitochondria, plastids (in plant cells) and in cytosol.
4. Ribosomes are either found attached to outer surface of Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum and nuclear membrane or freely suspended in cytoplasm.
5. Both are of 80S type. Each ribosome is made up of two subunits- a large (60S) and a small (40S) subunit.
6. Bound ribosomes generally produce proteins that are transported outside the cell after processing in ER and Golgi body. e.g. Bound ribosomes of acinar cells of pancreas produce pancreatic digestive enzymes.
7. Free ribosomes come together and form chains called polyribosomes for protein synthesis.
8. Free ribosomes generally produce enzymatic proteins that are used up in cytoplasm, like enzymes required for breakdown of sugar.
9. Both types of ribosomes (bound and free) can interchange position and function.
10. Number of ribosomes is high in cells actively engaged in protein synthesis.

(ii) Sphaerosomes:
a. These are found mainly in cells involved in synthesis and storage of fats. For e. g. endosperm of oil seeds.
b. The membrane of sphaerosome is half unit membrane i.e. this membrane has only one phospholipid layer.

(iii) 1. Totipotency (totus – entire, potential – power) is the capacity or the potential of living nucleated cell, to differentiate into any other type of cell and thus, can form a complete new organism.
2. A cell is totipotent as it has the entire genetic information of the organism stored in its nucleus.
3. Embryonic animal cells are totipotent and are termed as stem cells.
4. Stem cells are used in curing many diseases. Therefore, they have great potential for medical applications.

Question 28.
1. Give any two functions of each of the following:
a. Golgi complex
b. Lysosomes
2. What are the major differences between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells? Write any two points.
3. Explain the structure of cilia and flagella.
Answer:
1. a. Functions of Golgi complex:
a. Golgi body carries out two types of functions, modification of secretions of ER and production of its own secretions.
b. Cistemae contain specific enzymes for specific functions.
c. Refining (modification) of product takes place in a sequential manner.
d. For example, certain sugar component is added or removed from glycolipids and glycoproteins that are brought from ER, thus forming a variety of products.
e. Golgi bodies also manufacture their own products. Golgi bodies in many plant cells produce non-cellulose polysaccharides like pectin.
f. Manufactured or modified, all products of Golgi complex leave cistemae from trans face as transport vesicles.
b. i. Lysosomes which bring about digestion of cell’s own organic material like a damaged cell organelle are called autophagic vesicle (suicide bags).
2. An autophagic vesicle essentially consists of lysosome fused with membrane bound old cell organelle or organic molecules to be recycled.
3. Thus, lysosomes are capable of destructing all kinds of material in the cell. Therefore, can digest its own cell organelles due to presence of lysosome. Hence, lysosomes are also called as suicide bags.

(ii)

1. Cilium or flagellum helps in locomotion of unicellular organisms.
2. They consist of basal body, basal plate and shaft.
3. Basal body is placed in outer part of cytoplasm. It is derived from centriole. It has nine peripheral triplets of fibrils.
4. Shaft is exposed part of cilia or flagella. It consists of two parts- sheath and axoneme.
5. Sheath is covering membrane of cilium or flagellum.
6. Core called axoneme possesses 11 fibrils (microtubules) running parallel to long axis.
7. It shows 9 peripheral doublet microtubules and two single central microtubules (9+2).
8. The central tubules are enclosed by central sheath.
9. This sheath is connected to one of the tubules of peripheral doublets by a radial spoke.
10. Central tubules are connected to each other by bridges.
11. The peripheral doublet microtubules are connected to each other through linkers or inter-doublet bridge.
    Cilia act as oars causing movement of cell.

Question 29.
Write a note on glycoprotein molecules found on membranes of RBC.
Answer:
Glycoproteins are protein molecules modified within the Golgi complex by having a short sugar chain (polysaccharide) attached to them.
The polysaccharide part of glycoproteins located on the surfaces of red blood cells acts as the antigen responsible for determining the blood group of an individual.
Different polysaccharide part of glycoproteins act as different type of antigens that determine the blood groups.
Four types of blood groups A, B, AB, and O are recognized on the basis of presence or absence of these antigens.

Question 30.
Describe in detail the structure of nucleus.
Answer:
Nucleus is known as the master cell organelle as it regulates various metabolic activities through synthesis of various proteins and enzymes.
The nucleus in eukaryotic cell is made up of nuclear envelope, nucleoplasm, nucleolus and chromatin network.
1. Nuclear envelope:
a. Nuclear envelope is a double layered delimiting membrane of nucleus.
b. Two membranes are separated from each other by perinuclear space (10 to 50nm).
c. Outer membrane is connected with endoplasmic reticulum at places and harbours ribosomes on it.
d. The inner membrane is lined by nuclear lamina- a network of protein fibres that helps in maintaining shape of the nucleus.
e. The two membranes along with perinuclear space help in separating nucleoplasm from cytoplasm. However, nuclear membrane is not continuous.
f. There are small openings called nucleopores on the nuclear membrane.
g. The nucleopores are guarded by pore complexes which regulate flow of substances from nucleus to cytoplasm and in reverse direction.

2. Nucleoplasm or karyolymph:
a. The nucleoplasm or karyolymph contains various substances like nucleic acids, protein molecules, minerals and salts.
b. It contains chromatin network and nucleolus.

3. Nucleolus:
a. Nucleolus is made up of rRNA and ribosomal proteins and it is known as the site of ribosome biogenesis.
b. The rRNA and ribosomal proteins are transported to cytoplasm and are assembled together to form ribosomes.
c. Depending on synthetic activity of a cell, there are one or more nucleoli present in the nucleoplasm. For e.g. cells of oocyte contain large nucleolus whereas sperm cells contain small inconspicuous one.
d. Nucleolus appear as dense spherical body present near chromatin network.

Question 31.
Observe the diagram given below and answer the questions based on it.
1. Identify the structure labelled as ‘A’.
2. Mention the two types of the given cell organelle.
3. Which type of ribosomes would be seen on the membrane of the given structure.
Answer:
1. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER):

1. Depending on cell type, it helps in synthesis of lipids for e.g. Steroid secreting cells of cortical region of adrenal gland, testes and ovaries.
2. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum plays a role in detoxification in the liver and storage of calcium ions (muscle cells).

Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER):
1. Rough ER is primarily involved in protein synthesis. For e.g. Pancreatic cells synthesize the protein insulin in the ER.
2. These proteins are secreted by ribosomes attached to rough ER and are called secretory proteins. These proteins get wrapped in membrane that buds off from transitional region of ER. Such membrane bound proteins depart from ER as transport vesicles.
3. Rough ER is also involved in formation of membrane for the cell. The ER membrane grows in place by addition of membrane proteins and phospholipids to its own membrane. Portions of this expanded membrane are transferred to other components of endomembrane system.

3. Both are of 80S type. Each ribosome is made up of two subunits- a large (60S) and a small (40S) subunit.

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
Which of the following is the smallest cell?
(A) Red Blood Cell
(B) Plant cell
(C) Mycoplasma
(D) Euglena
Answer:
(C) Mycoplasma

Question 2.
From the following identify the CORRECT range of size of the bacteria.
(A) 0.3 pm to 1 mm
(B) 1 pm to 1mm
(C) 1 nm to 1 pm
(D) 3 pm to 5 pm
[Note: Prokaryotic cells generally range between 1 to 10 pm in size.]
Answer:
(D) 3 pm to 5 pm

Question 3.
Identify the CORRECT statements.
1. Nerve cells are the longest cells.
2. The concept ‘Omnis cellula-e-cellulla’ was explained by Rudolf Virchow.
3. The cell theory was proposed by Nicolson and Singer.
(A) Statements i and ii are correct.
(B) Statements ii and iii are correct.
(C) Statements i and iii are correct.
(D) Statements i, ii and iii are correct.
Answer:
(A) Statements i and ii are correct.

Question 4.
New cells generate from
(A) bacterial fermentation
(B) regeneration of old cells
(C) pre-existing cells
(D) abiotic materials
Answer:
(C) pre-existing cells

Question 5.
Mesosonle is produced by the infoldings of
(A) mitochondria
(B) chloroplast
(C) golgi complex
(D) plasma membrane
Answer:
(D) plasma membrane

Question 6.
The ribosomes present in prokaryotic cells is of type.
(A) 30S
(B) 80S
(C) 70S
(D) 50S
Answer:
(C) 70S

Question 7.
Complete the analogy.
F-plasmid: Reproduction :: R-plasmid: ________
(A) Respiration
(B) Resistance against antibiotics
(C) Packaging and transportation
(D) Apposition
Answer:
(B) Resistance against antibiotics

Question 8.
A rigid, supportive and protective outer covering of plasma membrane of fungi is called
(A) cell wall
(B) lamella
(C) plasmodesmata
(D) cell membrane
Answer:
(A) cell wall

Question 9.
The cytoplasmic connections from cell to cell are known as
(A) middle lamella
(B) plasmodesmata
(C) cell membrane system
(D) endoplasmic reticulum
Answer:
(B) plasmodesmata

Question 10.
Due to presence of ________, endoplasmic reticulum is termed as rough endoplasmic reticulum.
(A) cistemae
(B) RNA
(C) ribosomes
(D) tubules
Answer:
(C) ribosomes

Question 11.
Golgi body is absent in
(A) Prokaryotes
(B) Mature mammalian RBC
(C) Akaryotes
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Question 12.
Lysosomes are not helpful in
(A) Osteogenesis
(B) Cellular digestion
(C) Metamorphosis
(D) Lipogenesis
Answer:
(D) Lipogenesis

Question 13.
Identify the INCORRECT statements from the following.
1. Lysosomal enzymes do not digest their own membrane proteins.
2. Accidental release of lysosomal enzymes in limited amount does not harm the cell because pH of cytosol is near neutral.
3. Any insufficiency in secretion of lysosomal enzymes leads to disorders e.g. in genetic disorder- Klinefelter syndrome.
iv. Due to insufficiency of protease brain gets impaired resulting from accumulation of fats.
(A) Statements i and ii are incorrect.
(B) Statements i, ii and iii are incorrect.
(C) Statements iii and iv are incorrect.
(D) Statements i, ii and iv are incorrect.
Answer:
(C) Statements iii and iv are incorrect.

Question 14.
Tonoplast is a differentially permeable membrane surrounding the
(A) cytoplasm
(B) vacuole
(C) nucleus
(D) mitochondria
Answer:
(B) vacuole

Question 15.
Which organelle is surrounded by two membranes?
(A) Ribosomes
(B) Peroxisomes
(C) Vacuoles
(D) Mitochondria
Answer:
(D) Mitochondria

Question 16.
F₁ particles are present in
(A) plasmids
(B) mitochondria
(C) chloroplast
(D) ribosomes
Answer:
(B) mitochondria

Question 17.
_______ are green plastids containing green pigment chlorophyll.
(A) Chloroplasts
(B) Leucoplast
(C) Chromoplasts
(D) Xanthophyll
Answer:
(A) Chloroplasts

Question 18.
Select the INCORRECT statement about ribosome.
(A) Each ribosome consists of two sub- units-large and small subunit.
(B) Ribosomes are double membrane bound cell organelles.
(C) Ribosomes are made up of ribosomal RNA and protein.
(D) Ribosomes are involved in protein synthesis.
Answer:
(B) Ribosomes are double membrane bound cell organelles.

Question 19.
The space between the two nuclear membranes is known as
(A) peritonial space
(B) periplasmic space
(C) perinuclear space
(D) none of the above
Answer:
(C) perinuclear space

Question 20.
In eukaryotic cells, the chromosomes are located in
(A) nucleus
(B) nucleolus
(C) golgi complex
(D) lysosomes
Answer:
(A) nucleus

Question 21.
What is the normal chromosome number in humans?
(A) 23
(B) 46
(C) 48
(D) 16
Answer:
(B) 46

Question 22.
During which stage of cell division chromosomes become distinct and can be clearly identified?
(A) Interphase
(B) Prophase
(C) Pachytene
(D) Metaphase
Answer:
(D) Metaphase

Question 23.
Microtubules are made up of protein.
(A) tubulin
(B) fibrion
(C) collagen
(D) myosin
Answer:
(A) tubulin

Competitive Corner:

Question 1.
Match the column I with column II.

Column I	Column II
(a) Golgi apparatus	(i) Synthesis of protein
(b) Lysosomes	(ii) Trap waste and excretory products
(c) Vacuoles	(iii) Formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids
(d) Ribosomes	(iv) Digesting  biomolecules

Choose the right match from options given below:
(A) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
(B) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(C) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(D) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
Answer:
(B) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i

Question 2.
The concept of “Omnis cellula – e- cellula” regarding cell division was first proposed by:
(A) Schleiden
(B) Aristotle
(C) Rudolf Virchow
(D) Theodore Schwann
Answer:
(C) Rudolf Virchow

Question 3.
The Golgi complex participates in
(A) respiration in bacteria
(B) formation of secretory vesicles
(C) fatty acid breakdown
(D) activation of amino acid
Answer:
(B) formation of secretory vesicles

Question 4.
Which of the following is true for nucleolus?
(A) It takes part in spindle formation.
(B) It is a membrane-bound structure.
(C) Larger nucleoli are present in dividing cells.
(D) It is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis.
Hint: Large nucleoli are found in cells that are actively engaged in protein synthesis. Nucleolus is non-membranous structure.
Answer:
(D) It is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis.

Question 5.
Given below are cell organelles and their functions. Select the INCORRECT match.
(A) Lysosome – Phagocytosis
(B) Centriole – Spindle formation
(C) Sphaerosomes – Storage and synthesis of fats
(D) Leucoplast – Photosynthesis
Hint: Leucoplasts store food material.
Answer:
(D) Leucoplast – Photosynthesis

Question 6.
Which of the following cell organelles is responsible for extracting energy from carbohydrates to form ATP?
(A) Lysosome
(B) Ribosome
(C) Chloroplast
(D) Mitochondria
Hint: Glucose (carbohydrate) on complete oxidation from ATP during respiration. The ATP synthesis during carbohydrate oxidation takes place in the Mitochondria (site of aerobic respiration). Mitochondria produce cellular energy in the form of ATP.
Answer:
(D) Mitochondria

Question 7.
Which of the following components provides sticky character to the bacterial cell?
(A) Cell wall
(B) Nuclear membrane
(C) Plasma membrane
(D) Glycocalyx
Hint: In some bacteria, glycocalyx is rich in glycoproteins and could be a loose sheath called as slime layer. This slime layer or glycocalyx imparts sticky character to bacterial cell wall or bacteria.
Answer:
(D) Glycocalyx

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Commerce Book Keeping & Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 5 Reconstitution of Partnership (Death of Partner) Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Commerce BK Important Questions Chapter 5 Reconstitution of Partnership (Death of Partner)

1. Objective questions:

A. Select the most appropriate answer from the alternative given below and rewrite the sentences.

Question 1.
Share of loss of a deceased partner till the date of death is _____________
(a) debited to Profit and Loss-Adjustment A/c
(b) credited to Profit and Loss-Adjustment A/c
(c) debited to Profit and Loss Suspense A/c
(d) credited to Profit and Loss Suspense A/c
Answer:
(d) credited to Profit and Loss Suspense A/c

Question 2.
Gain ratio is calculated on _____________
(a) admission of a partner
(b) retirement of a partner
(c) death of a partner
(d) retirement or death of a partner
Answer:
(d) retirement or death of a partner

Question 3.
Share of profit of a deceased partner till the date of death is _____________
(a) debited to Profit and Loss-Adjustment A/c
(b) credited to Profit and Loss-Adjustment A/c
(c) debited to Profit and Loss Suspense A/c
(d) credited to Profit and Loss Suspense A/c
Answer:
(c) debited to Profit and Loss Suspense A/c

Question 4.
An amount received from the Insurance Company against the joint-life policy is _____________
(a) debited to the deceased partner
(b) credited to the deceased partner
(c) credited to Continuing Partners Capital A/c
(d) credited to All Partners’ Capital A/c’s in their profit sharing ratio
Answer:
(d) credited to All Partners’ Capital A/c’s in their profit sharing ratio

Question 5.
M, N, and S are partners in a firm having joint life policy of ₹ 10,00,000 on which premium has been paid by the firm. M dies and his legal representatives want the whole amount of the policy whereas N and S want to distribute the amount among all the partners.
(a) M’s representatives are correct
(b) N and S are correct
(c) All are wrong
(d) Insurance company will decide
Answer:
(b) N and S are correct

Question 6.
X, Y, and Z share profit as 1/2, 3/10, and 1/5 and Z have expired, the new profit ratio of X and Y will be _____________ respectively.
(a) 5 : 8
(b) 5 : 3
(c) 2 : 1
(d) 5 : 2
Answer:
(b) 5 : 3

Question 7.
The interest on drawings of a deceased partner is credited to _____________
(a) Profit and Loss-Adjustment A/c
(b) Revaluation A/c
(c) Capital A/c
(d) Profit and Loss Suspense A/c
Answer:
(d) Profit and Loss Suspense A/c

Question 8.
In the case of death of a partner, a _____________ is opened for revaluation of the assets and liabilities.
(a) Profit and Loss-Adjustment A/c
(b) Profit and Loss A/c
(c) Profit and Loss Suspense A/c
(d) Executor’s Loan A/c
Answer:
(a) Profit and Loss-Adjustment A/c

Question 9.
A balance on the Deceased Partner’s Executor’s Loan Account is shown in the new Balance Sheet on _____________ side.
(a) assets
(b) credit
(c) liabilities
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) liabilities

B. Write a word, term, phrase, which can substitute each of the following statements.

Question 1.
The account shows the revaluation of assets and liabilities.
Answer:
Revaluation A/c or Profit and Loss Adjustment A/c

Question 2.
Excess of proportionate capital over actual capital.
Answer:
Deficit

Question 3.
The account to which deceased partners’ capital balance is transferred.
Answer:
Deceased Partner’s Executor’s Loan Account

Question 4.
A person is entitled to receive the amount due to a deceased partner.
Answer:
Legal Heir/Executor/Legal Representative of a deceased partner

Question 5.
The account where the deceased partner’s share in the accrued profit from the date of the last Balance Sheet to the date of his death is adjusted.
Answer:
Profit and Loss Suspense A/c

C. State whether the following statements are True or False with reasons.

Question 1.
The death of a partner is like a compulsory retirement.
Answer:
This statement is True.
After the death of a partner, the business is not able to get any kind of services from the deceased partner and he ceases to be a partner of a firm on natural ground. Hence, we can say that the death of a partner is like a compulsory retirement.

Question 2.
The total amount due to the deceased partner is paid in cash to the executor immediately after his death.
Answer:
This statement is False.
Depending on the availability of sufficient cash or bank balance the total amount due to the deceased partner is paid. However, it is not at all necessary to make immediate payment to the legal heir or representative of the deceased partner.

Question 3.
On the death of a partner, his share in the goodwill is divided equally among continuing partners.
Answer:
This statement is False.
On the death of a partner, his share in the goodwill is divided into the old profit ratio of continuing partners.

Question 4.
The deceased partner’s share in profit up to the date of his death will be debited to his Capital A/c.
Answer:
This statement is False.
The deceased partner’s share in profit up to the date of his death will be credited to his Capital A/c as he is entitled to receive it.

Question 5.
For a decrease in the value of assets, Revolution Account is debited.
Answer:
This statement is True.
A decrease in the value of assets means a loss to the business and in that case, Asset Account will be credited and Revaluation Account will be debited.

Question 6.
An amount due to the deceased partner appears in the Balance Sheet.
Answer:
This statement is False.
An amount due to the deceased partner is transferred to his Executor’s Account and the balance if remains in Executor’s Loan Account then appears in the Balance Sheet.

D. Fill in the blanks and rewrite the following sentence.

Question 1.
An amount due to a deceased partner is transferred to _____________ A/c.
Answer:
Executor’s Loan

Question 2.
Death of a partner is like a _____________ retirement.
Answer:
compulsory

Question 3.
Usually assets and liabilities of the firm are revalued on the _____________ of a partner.
Answer:
death

Question 4.
For increase in the value of assets, Revaluation Account is _____________
Answer:
credited

Question 5.
A partner who died is known as _____________
Answer:
deceased partner

Question 6.
A person who represent a deceased partner is known as _____________
Answer:
Legal Heir or Executor.

E. Answer in one sentence only.

Question 1.
How is the gain ratio calculated?
Answer:
The gain ratio is calculated by using the formula:
Gain Ratio = New Ratio – Old Ratio.

Question 2.
When is the gain ratio required to be calculated?
Answer:
The gain ratio is usually calculated at the time of retirement or death of a partner.

Question 3.
How would you treat general reserve on the death of a partner?
Answer:
On the death of a partner, balance in general reserve is transferred to all Partners’ Capital Accounts or Current Accounts in their old profit sharing ratio.

Question 4.
How is the amount due to a deceased partner calculated?
Answer:
The amount due to a deceased partner is calculated by adding his share in general reserve, past accumulated profit, goodwill, profit on revaluation of assets and liabilities, interest on capital, salary payable, etc. in the opening balance of capital and by deducting the share in the past accumulated loss, revaluation loss, drawings and interest on drawings from his capital balance.

Question 5.
How is an amount due to the deceased partner settled?
Answer:
The amount finally due to the deceased partner is settled by transferring the same amount to his Legal Heir or Representative’s Loan Account and the same is paid to the legal heir or representative or executor after completing all legal formalities.

Question 6.
How is the share of the deceased partner in accrued profit calculated?
Answer:
The share of the deceased partner in accrued profit is calculated on the assumed basis of average profit of the past few years and credited to the Deceased Partner’s Capital Account.

Question 7.
How is a debit balance of Profit and Loss Account dealt with on the death of a partner?
Answer:
On the death of a partner, a debit balance of the Profit and Loss Account is adjusted and transferred to all Partners’ Capital/Current Accounts in their old profit sharing ratio.

Solved Problem

Question 1.
The following is the Balance Sheet of Shikha, Divit, and Naman, who were partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2 : 2 : 1.
Balance Sheet as of 31st March 2020

Naman died on 1st July 2020 and the following adjustments were made in the books of the firm:
1. All debtors were considered as good and the Reserve for Doubtful Debts was no longer necessary.
2. A contingent liability for compensation of ₹ 1,800 was to be provided.
3. Investments worth ₹ 40,000 were taken over by the executor of Naman and the remaining investments were sold for ₹ 30,000.
4. Stock was revalued at ₹ 30,000.
5. The goodwill of the firm was valued at ₹ 20,000 and was to be shown in the books.
6. The deceased partner’s share in profit up to the date of his death was to be calculated on the basis of the preceding year’s profit which was ₹ 16,000.
Prepare the Profit and Loss Adjustment Account, Capital Accounts of Partners, and the Balance Sheet of the new firm after the death of Naman.
Solution:
In the books of Partnership Firm


Balance Sheet as of 1st July 2020

Working Notes:
1. Goodwill valued at ₹ 20,000 is debited to Goodwill A/c and credited to all Partners’ Capital A/cs in their profit sharing ratio. Show balance in the Goodwill A/c then transfers to the Assets side of the Balance Sheet.

2. The deceased partner’s (Naman) share in profit up to the date of his death = (Preceding year’s profit) × (Proportionate profit) × Naman’s share in profit
= 16,000 × \(\frac{3}{12} \times \frac{1}{5}\)
= ₹ 800.

3. A provision for contingent liability for compensation ₹ 1,800 is debited to Profit and Loss-Adjustment A/c and then shown at the Liabilities side of the Balance Sheet.

4. The following ledger accounts are prepared to ascertain their closing balances:

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Commerce Book Keeping & Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 4 Reconstitution of Partnership (Retirement of Partner) Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Commerce BK Important Questions Chapter 4 Reconstitution of Partnership (Retirement of Partner)

A. Select the most appropriate alternatives from those given below and rewrite the sentence.

Question 1.
A, B and C are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 2. If B retires then new ratio will be _____________
(a) 5 : 2
(b) 5 : 3
(c) 3 : 2
(d) 1 : 1
Answer:
(a) 5 : 2

Question 2.
When goodwill is raised at its full value and it is written off _____________ Account is to be credited.
(a) Cash
(b) Goodwill
(c) All Partners’ Capital
(d) Loan
Answer:
(b) Goodwill

Question 3.
Increase in the value of assets should be _____________ to Profit and Loss Adjsutment Account.
(a) debited
(b) credited
(c) added
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) credited

Question 4.
If the goodwill is raised to the extent of retiring partner’s share _____________ account is to be debited.
(a) cash
(b) goodwill
(c) partner’s Capital
(d) retiring Partners Capital
Answer:
(b) goodwill

Question 5.
A, B and C are partners, sharing profits and losses in the ratio of \(\frac{1}{2}\), \(\frac{1}{3}\) and \(\frac{1}{6}\) respectively, if B retires, the new ratio will be _____________
(a) 4 : 1
(b) 3 : 1
(c) 3 : 2
(d) 2 : 1
Answer:
(b) 3 : 1

Question 6.
On retirement of a partner the balance on his Current Account is transferred to his _____________ Account.
(a) Drawings
(b) Capital
(c) Wife’s Loan
(d) Son’s
Answer:
(b) Capital

Question 7.
_____________ Ratio is a ratio which continuing partners are benefited on retirement of a partner
(a) New
(b) Sacrifice
(c) Gain
(d) Old
Answer:
(c) Gain

Question 8.
If Goodwill Account is raised only to the extent of retiring partner’s share, _____________ A/c is credited.
(a) Cash
(b) Goodwill
(c) All Partners’ Capital
(d) Retiring Partner’s Capital
Answer:
(d) Retiring Partner’s Capital

Question 9.
In the case of retirement of a partner, _____________ Account is opened for revaluation of the assets and liabilities.
(a) Revaluation
(b) Profit and Loss
(c) Current
(d) Trading
Answer:
(a) Revaluation

Question 10.
In the case of retirement of a partner, balance on Revaluation Account is transferred to _____________ Accounts.
(a) Retiring Partner’s Capital
(b) All Partners’ Capital
(c) New Partner’s Capital
(d) Continuing Partners’ Capital
Answer:
(b) All Partners’ Capital

Question 11.
Debit balance on Profit and Loss Suspense Account is shown in the new Balance Sheet on _____________ side.
(a) Assets
(b) Liabilities
(c) Debit
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Assets

B. Write the word, term, phrase, which can substitute each of the following statements.

Question 1.
The account shows the revaluation of assets and liabilities.
Answer:
Revaluation Account or Profit and Loss Adjustment Account

Question 2.
Excess of actual capital over proportionate capital.
Answer:
Surplus Capital

Question 3.
Process in which a partner leaves the firm permanently on account of old age continued sickness or loss of interest in the firm.
Answer:
Retirement of a Partner

Question 4.
The ratio in which the continuing partners share the profit ratio given up by the retiring partner.
OR
The ratio in which goodwill is credited to the retiring partners is adjusted by the continuing partners.
Answer:
Gain Ratio
OR
Benefit Ratio

Question 5.
An account to which the amount due to a partner on his retirement is transferred.
Answer:
Retiring Partner’s Loan A/c

C. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
Amount due to a retiring partner if not paid, appears as his loan in the books of the firm.
Answer:
This statement is True.
If in Cash/Bank account, the firm has sufficient balance then the amount due to a retiring partner is paid by firm immediately. If due to insufficient fund amount due to a retiring partner is not paid and it appears as his loan in the books of the firm.

Question 2.
A revaluation Account is also called Realisation Account.
Answer:
This statement is False.
The changes in the values of assets or liabilities on revaluation are recorded in the Revaluation Account. At the time of dissolution of the firm, when Assets or liabilities are disposed off and whatever amounts are paid or received by the firm are recorded in the Realisation Account. So Revaluation Account and Realisation Account are not the same.

Question 3.
Profit on Revaluation Account is transferred to Continuing Partner’s Capital Account only.
Answer:
This statement is False.
Profit on revaluation of assets and liabilities is to be shared by all the partners, including retiring partners. This is because changes in the value of assets and liabilities take place due to the hard work of all the partners, including retiring partners.

Question 4.
On the retirement of a partner, the partnership deed is not changed.
Answer:
This statement is False.
On the retirement of a partner, profit and loss ratio, capital ratio, etc. may get changed. So the partnership deed is supposed to be changed.

Question 5.
A retiring partner is not entitled to share in the goodwill of the firm.
Answer:
This statement is False.
A retiring partner is entitled to get a share in the goodwill of the firm up to the date of retirement as it is his legal right.

Question 6.
If goodwill is written off, Goodwill A/c is credited in the books of the firm.
Answer:
This statement is True.
When goodwill of the firm is written off then there is no question of any balance in the Goodwill Account therefore Goodwill A/c is credited in the books of the firm.

Question 7.
Balance of Retiring Partner’s Capital Account is transferred to his Legal Heir’s Account.
Answer:
This statement is False.
If the financial position of the firm allows, the balance of the Retiring Partner’s Capital Account is given immediately to the retiring partner, otherwise, it will be transferred to Retiring Partner’s Loan Account.

Question 8.
The Capital A/c of the retiring partner always shows a debit balance.
Answer:
This statement is False.
The Capital A/c of the retiring partner may show debit or credit balance depends upon the amount withdrawn by a retiring partner.

Question 9.
Retirement of a partner leads to the dissolution of the firm unless otherwise agreed upon.
Answer:
This statement is True.
At the time of retirement of a partner, continuing partners don’t want to continue the business activities of the firm, then only it leads to the dissolution of the firm.

D. Fill in the blanks and rewrite the following sentences:

Question 1.
On retirement of a partner, partnership deed is _____________ changed.
Answer:
not

Question 2.
A retiring partner is _____________ to get his share in general reserve/accumulated profit.
Answer:
entitled

Question 3.
A _____________ balance of Revaluation Account means loss on revaluation.
Answer:
debit

Question 4.
Goodwill A/c is _____________ in the books of the firm when goodwill is written off.
Answer:
credited

Question 5.
Revaluation of Assets and Liabilities is recorded in _____________ Account.
Answer:
Revaluation

Question 6.
The amount due to a partner on his retirement is transferred to _____________ Account.
Answer:
Partner’s Capital

Question 7.
An amount payable to the retiring partner is paid off at a time is known as _____________ Method.
Answer:
Lumpsum

Question 8.
Excess of actual capital over proportional capital is known as _____________
Answer:
Surplus

Question 9.
Credit balance of Revaluation Account means _____________ on revaluation.
Answer:
Profit

Question 10.
The credit balance on the Profit and Loss Suspense Account is shown in the Balance Sheet on _____________ side.
Answer:
Liabilities

E. Answer in one sentence.

Question 1.
Who is a retiring partner?
Answer:
A partner who leaves the firm or severs his connection or relationship with other partners on account of old age or continued ill health or loss of interest in the firm or similar other reasons is called a retiring partner.

Question 2.
How would you treat general reserve on the retirement of a partner?
Answer:
General reserve appearing on the liabilities side of the Balance Sheet may be credited to all the partners’ Capital Accounts in their old profit sharing ratio or only the share of retiring partner is credited to his Capital Account, depending on the provisions made in the partnership deed.

Question 3.
When is the gain ratio calculated?
Answer:
The gain ratio is calculated when a firm raises goodwill to the extent of retiring partner’s share and then intends to write off the goodwill so raised.

Question 4.
To which account, increase in the value of assets credited at the time of retirement of a partner?
Answer:
An increase in the values of assets is credited to Profit and Loss-Adjustment A/c or Revaluation A/c at the time of retirement of a partner.

Question 5.
How would you adjust the retiring partner’s share of goodwill without opening Goodwill A/c?
Answer:
Adjustment of retiring partner’s share of goodwill without opening Goodwill Account is done by debiting continuing Partners’ Capital/Current Accounts in their gain ratio and crediting Retiring Partners’ Capital/Current Account with that amount.

Question 6.
To which account is the outstanding amount due to the retiring partner transferred?
Answer:
The outstanding amount due to the retiring partner is transferred to the retiring partner’s Loan Account.

Solved Problems

Question 1.
A, B, and C are partners of a firm sharing profit and loss in the 3 : 3 : 2 ratio. Their firm’s Balance Sheet as of 31st March, 2020 is as under:
Balance Sheet as of 31st March 2020

On 1st April 2020, C retired from the firm on the following terms:
1. Outstanding amount of retiring partner C be transferred to his loan account.
2. Write off ₹ 2,500 as bad debts.
3. ₹ 500 is now not payable to creditors.
4. Assets are revalued as under:
Furniture ₹ 30,000, Machinery ₹ 40,000, Equipments ₹ 21,000.
Pass necessary journal entries in the books of a firm.
Solution:
Journal Entries in the books of Partnership firm

Working Note:

Question 2.
Mukta, Yukta and Sukta were partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5 : 2 : 3. Their Balance Sheet was as follows:
Balance Sheet as of 31st March 2020

Yukta retired on that date on the following terms:
1. Machinery is to be depreciated by 10% and Furniture by 20%.
2. Stock is to be appreciated by 10% and Building by 20%.
3. R.D.D. is no longer necessary.
4. Provision is to be made for ₹ 4,000 being compensation to workers.
5. The goodwill of the firm is to be valued at ₹ 20,000 and Yukta’s share in it should be raised.
6. Both the remaining partners decided to write off the goodwill.
7. Amount payable to Yukta is to be kept as her Loan.
Prepare:
1. Profit and Loss Adjustment Account
2. Partners’ Capital Accounts
3. New Balance Sheet.
Solution:
In the books of partnership firm

Balance Sheet as of 1st April 2020

Working Notes:
1. Yukta’s share in firm’s Goodwill = \(\frac {2}{10}\) × 20,000 = ₹ 4,000.
Goodwill to the extent of ₹ 4,000 is credited to Yukta’s A/c and then debited to Mukta’s Capital A/c andSukta’s Capital A/c in their gain ratio which is equal to the new ratio i.e. 5 : 3.
Hence, Goodwill debited to Mukta’s Capital A/c = \(\frac {5}{8}\) × 4,000 = ₹ 2,500 and Sukta’s A/c = \(\frac {3}{8}\) × 4,000 = ₹ 1,500.

2. Provision for compensation to workers ₹ 4,000 is first debited to Profit and Loss-Adjustment A/c (as new liability is created) and then it is shown on the Liabilities side of the new Balance Sheet.

3. The cancelled R.D.D. ₹ 1,000 is credited to Profit and Loss-Adjustment A/c and Debtors to the extent of ₹ 18,000 are shown on the Assets side of the Balance Sheet.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th OCM Important Questions Chapter 8 Marketing Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Commerce OCM Important Questions Chapter 8 Marketing

Select the correct options and rewrite the sentence

Question 1.
In …………….. there are few sellers selling homogeneous products or differentiated products in the market.
(a) Monopoly
(b) Duopoly
(c) Oligopoly
Answer:
(c) Oligopoly

Question 2.
The process of classification of products according to similar characteristics and/or quality is known as ………………
(a) Standardisation
(b) Grading
(c) Branding
Answer:
(b) Grading

Question 3.
The market which uses Information Technology for buying and selling of product or service is known as ………………….
(a) Exchange concept of market
(b) Digital concept of market
(c) Place concept of market
Answer:
(b) Digital concept of market

Question 4.
The market for semi-processed or semifinished goods is called ……………………
(a) Primary Market
(b) Secondary Market
(c) Terminal Market
Answer:
(b) Secondary Market

Question 5.
……………….. helps to avoid breakage, damage, and destruction of the product.
(a) Packaging
(b) Grading
(c) Branding
Answer:
(a) Packaging

Question 6.
……………… gives a special identity to the product.
(a) Grading
(b) Packaging
(c) Branding
Answer:
(c) Branding

Match the pairs

Question 1.

Group A	Group B
(A) Regulated Market	1. Market of consumer goods
(B) Capital Market	2. Monopoly
(C) Tool of Marketing	3. Provides employment
(D) Marketing Mix	4. Stock Exchange
(E) Promotion	5. Market not controlled by regulation
	6. Provides quality products
	7. 4 Ps
	8. Packaging and labelling
	9. Process of informing customers about producer
	10. Borrowing and lending long term capital

Answer:

Group A	Group B
(A) Regulated Market	4. Stock Exchange
(B) Capital Market	10. Borrowing and lending long term capital
(C) Tool of Marketing	8. Packaging and labelling
(D) Marketing Mix	7. 4 Ps
(E) Promotion	9. Process of informing customers about producer

Question 2.

Group A	Group B
(A) Customer Support Service	(1) Creates good design of product
(B) Label	(2) To identity Need/ Want of Consumers
(C) Product Development	(3) Provides Information
(D) Marketing Research	(4) After Sales Services
(E) Trademark	(5) Movement of finished goods
	(6) Storage of goods
	(7) Registered Brands
	(8) King of Market
	(9) Distribution Channel
	(10) Decreases Distribution cost

Answer:

Group A	Group B
(A) Customer Support Service	(4) After Sales Services
(B) Label	(3) Provides Information
(C) Product Development	(1) Creates good design of product
(D) Marketing Research	(2) To identity Need/ Want of Consumers
(E) Trademark	(7) Registered Brands

Give one word/phrase/term for the following statements

Question 1.
The market for the commodities which are sold within geographical limits of a region.
Answer:
Local Market

Question 2.
The market for agricultural and forest products.
Answer:
Primary Market

Question 3.
Where there is single seller or producer who controls the market.
Answer:
Monopoly

Question 4.
Market situation where there is single buyer of a commodity or service.
Answer:
Monopsony

Question 5.
Market where lEirge number of buyers and sellers buy and sell their homogeneous products.
Answer:
Perfect Market.

Question 6.
The process of identifying the needs Emd wants of consumers in the market.
Answer:
Marketing Research

Question 7.
The tool of market that helps to publicise the product to the consumer.
Answer:
Promotion

Question 8.
Putting the right product at the right time, at the right place, at the right price.
Answer:
MEirketing Mix

Question 9.
Slip attached to the product which provides all the information regEirding product and its producer.
Answer:
Labelling

Question 10.
Function of determining standards and ensuring uniformity in the product.
Answer:
Standardisation

Question 11.
The market for the commodities which are sold within country.
Answer:
National Market

Question 12.
The market for commodities which are produced in one country and sold in other countries.
Answer:
International Market

Question 13.
A type of market which has very short time existence.
Answer:
Very Short Period s Market

Question 14.
A market in which the activities of buying and selling is undertaken in large quantities at cheaper rate.
Answer:
Wholesale Market

Question 15.
A market where goods are sold to ultimate consumers.
Answer:
Terminal Market.

State whether following the statements are True or False

Question 1.
Monopsony refers to a market situation where there is a single seller of a commodity or service.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Product development is one time process.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Marketing follows customer oriented approach.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Commodity Exchanges, Stock Exchanges, Foreign ExchEmges are examples of unregulated or raw market.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Effective utilisation of channel of distribution can help in reducing the cost price of product.
Answer:
True.

Find the odd one

Question 1.
Local market, International market, Terminal j market, National market
Answer:
Terminal market

Question 2.
Very short period market, Perfect market, Short period market, Long period market
Answer:
Perfect market

Question 3.
Monopoly, Monopsony, Oligopoly, Imperfect market
Answer:
Imperfect market.

Complete the sentences

Question 1.
…………….. is a part and parcel of modern day’s life.
Answer:
Marketing

Question 2.
…………….. is the king of the market.
Answer:
Customer

Question 3.
Market which uses Information Technology for buying and selling of goods or services is called ………………..
Answer:
Digital market

Question 4.
Market for goods, materials, consumer and industrial goods is called ………………….
Answer:
Commodity market

Question 5.
………………. market refers to the markets regulated by statutory provisions of the country.
Answer:
Regulated

Question 6.
In …………………. there are two sellers, selling either a homogenous product or differentiated products.
Answer:
Duopoly

Question 7.
…………………. involves collecting raw materials from different sources and bringing them at one place for production.
Answer:
Assembling.

Correct the underlined word and rewrite the sentence

Question 1.
Transportation creates time utility.
Answer:
Perfect market refers to a market situation which is characterised by large number of buyers and sellers who buy and sell their homogeneous products.

Question 2.
Imperfect market refers to a market situation which is characterised by large number of buyers and sellers who buy and sell their homogeneous products.
Answer:
Warehousing creates time utility.

Question 3.
Producer is the king of the market.
Answer:
Consumer is the king of the market.

Question 4.
Retail market refers to the market of bulk purchase and sale of goods.
Answer:
Wholesale market refers to the market of bulk purchase- and sale of goods.

Question 5.
Determining the right price is the result of product development.
Answer:
Determining the right price is the result of marketing research.

Arrange in proper order

Question 1.
Terminal market, Primary market, Secondary market.
Answer:
Primary market, Secondary market, Terminal market.

Distinguish between

Question 1.
Marketing and Selling
Answer:

	Taiga Region	Tundra Region
1. Meaning	Marketing refers to a process in which needs are identified or created, products offered and delivered to the consumers.	Selling refers to a process of processing orders from customers and delivering the products to them.
2. Concept	As compared to selling, marketing is a wider concept. It comprises selling and other functions.	As compared to marketing, selling is a narrower concept. It is part and parcel of the marketing concept.
3. Essential	Fulfilling the needs and satisfaction of the consumers is the essence of the marketing concept.	Transfer of title and possession of the products from one person to another is the essence of selling.
4. Orientation	Marketing is consumer-oriented. It stresses more on consumers and the maximization of their satisfaction.	Selling is product-oriented. It stresses more on the product and its efficiency.
5. Views	Marketing views (looks at) the customers as they are the center of all activities of marketing.	Selling views (looks at) the customers as the last link in the activities of selling.
6. Activity	Marketing is an indirect activity.	Selling is a direct activity.

 

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th OCM Important Questions Chapter 7 Consumer Protection Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Commerce OCM Important Questions Chapter 7 Consumer Protection

Select the correct options and rewrite the sentence

Question 1.
Any person who does not agree with the decision of the State Commission can appeal to the ……………….
(a) Supreme Court
(b) High Court
(c) National Commission
Answer:
(c) National Commission

Question 2.
Right to ………………… restricts monopolistic tendencies in the market.
(a) Information
(b) Choose
(c) Safety
Answer:
(b) Choose

Question 3.
………………. is referred to as ‘People’s Court.’
(a) Lok Adalat
(b) Public Interest Litigation
(c) Consumer Welfare Fund
Answer:
(a) Lok Adalat

Question 4.
State Consumer Dispute Redressal Commission is popularly known as ……………….
(a) National Commission
(b) State Commission
(c) District Forum
Answer:
(b) State Commission

Question 5.
……………… is the President of State Commission.
(a) District Court Judge
(b) Supreme Court Judge
(c) High Court Judge
Answer:
(c) High Court Judge

Question 6.
……………… is celebrated as ‘National Consumer Day’.
(a) 15th March
(b) 24th December
(c) 26th January
Answer:
(b) 24th December

Question 7.
National Commission entertains complaints where the values of goods or services paid as consideration exceeds Rs ………………..
(a) 50 lakh
(b) 1 crore
(c) 10 crore
Answer:
(c) 10 crore

Match the pairs

Question 1.

Group A	Group B
(A) District Judge	(1) 2019
(B) Right to Redressal	(2) Duty of seller
(C) Consumer Protection Act	(3) President of District Commission
(D) Creating Consumer Awareness	(4) Supreme Court
(E) Lok Adalat	(5) Seek legal remedy in the court
	(6) Use of media
	(7) Settlement of disputes by mutual compromise
	(8) 2010
	(9) President of National Commission
	(10) Selecting best quality product

Answer:

Group A	Group B
(A) District Judge	(3) President of District Commission
(B) Right to Redressal	(5) Seek legal remedy in the court
(C) Consumer Protection Act	(1) 2019
(D) Creating Consumer Awareness	(6) Use of media
(E) Lok Adalat	(7) Settlement of disputes by mutual compromise

Give one word/phrase/term for the following statement

Question 1.
The right of a consumer which allows him to express his views.
Answer:
Right to be Heard

Question 2.
The right of a consumer which creates an awareness in him about his rights.
Answer:
Right to Consumer Education

Question 3.
Non-profit and non-political independent groups working for a definite cause.
Answer:
Non-Government Organisations (NGOs)

Question 4.
The right which demands that inferior quality goods or defective products are not brought in the market at all.
Answer:
Right to Safety

Question 5.
The court established by Government to settle consumer disputes by mutual compromise.
Answer:
Lok Adalat/People’s Court.

State whether the following statements are True or False

Question 1.
The Consumer Protection Act was passed in the interest of the sellers.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Order issued by District Forum on a complaint is final.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
24th December is observed as International Consumer Rights Day every year.
Answer:
False.

Find the odd one

Question 1.
Right to Safety, Right to Travel, Right to Information, Right to Choose.
Answer:
Right to Travel

Question 2.
Right to be Heard, Right to Represent, Right to Redress, Right to Adult Education.
Answer:
Right to Adult Education.

Complete the sentences

Question 1.
The primary objective of consumer movement is to protect ………………. rights.
Answer:
consumers

Question 2.
An appeal against the order of State Commission may be made to the National Commission within ………………. days.
Answer:
30

Question 3.
A District Commission shall be established by ………………..
Answer:
State Government.

Select the correct option and complete the following table

(High Court Judge, Four, Consumer Organisations, does not exceeds Rs one crore, 2019, created by the Department of Consumer Affairs, 15th March, Lok Adalat, Public Interest Litigation, 24th December)

Group A	Group B
1 Janahit Yachika	—————-
2. Consumer Welfare Fund	——————-

Answer:

Group A	Group B
1 Janahit Yachika	Public Interest Litigation
2. Consumer Welfare Fund	Created by the department of consumer Affairs.

Justify the following statements

Question 1.
Order issued by the District Commission on a complaint is final.
Answer:
(1) The main objective of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 is expeditious and inexpensive settlement of consumer disputes. In order to achieve this objective, the Act provides the three tier quasi-judicial consumer disputes redressal machinery at district, state and national level.

(2) A consumer redressal agency established by the state government in each district to give relief or settle the disputes of consumers who complain against manufacturers or traders is called a ‘District Commission’. It consists of a president and two other members to be appointed by the state government.

(3) The District Commission has a jurisdiction over a particular district. As per amendments made to the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, it has the jurisdiction to entertain complaints where the value of goods or services, including compensation, if any, does not exceed Rs one crore.

(4) The justice or order given by the District Commission is binding on both parties. However, if any person is not satisfied with the order of the District Commission he can appeal against such order to the State Commission within 45 days of the order. Thus, an order issued by the District Commission on a complaint is not final.

Question 2.
Lok Adalat can rightly be described as ‘People’s Court’.
Answer:
(1) Lok Adalat, i.e. People’s Court is established by the government to settle the disputes by compromise. It is a mock court held by the State authority, District authority, Supreme Court Legal Service Committee, High Court Legal Service Committee or Taluka Legal Service Committee.

(2) Lok Adalat accepts the cases pending in regular courts to settle them by compromise. For this, both the parties to the case should agree to transfer the case to Lok Adalat from the regular court. Even on the application of one of the parties, the court transfers the case to Lok Adalat, if the court feels that there are chances for a compromise.

(3) In Lok Adalat, if a matter cannot be settled through a compromise, then it is returned to regular court. The order passed or the resolution of disputes by Lok Adalat is given statutory recognition.

(4) Lok Adalat is one of the several ways to resolve the consumers’ problems or grievances. Some organisations such as Railways, MSEDCL, MSRTC, Telephone Exchanges, Insurance Companies in the public sector regularly hold Lok Adalat to resolve consumers’ problems through compromise.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th OCM Important Questions Chapter 6 Social Responsibilities of Business Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Commerce OCM Important Questions Chapter 6 Social Responsibilities of Business

Select the correct options and rewrite the sentence

Question 1.
The business organization should not create profit.
(a) reasonable
(b) secret
(c) maximum
Answer:
(b) secret

Question 2.
Business organisation should avoid the creation of ……………….
(a) trade unions
(b) consumers’ cell
(c) monopoly
Answer:
(c) monopoly

Question 3.
Business organisation is a part of ……………….
(a) industry
(b) government
(c) society
Answer:
(c) society

Question 4.
To maintain industrial peace is the responsibility of organisation towards ……………….
(a) customers
(b) employees
(c) society
Answer:
(b) employees

Question 5.
Ultimate goal of business must be satisfaction of …………………
(a) shareholders
(b) consumers
(c) owners
Answer:
(b) consumers

Question 6.
Location of industries should be in ……………….. zones.
(a) residential
(b) industrial
(c) commercial
Answer:
(b) industrial

Question 7.
To maintain safety of investment is responsibility of business towards …………………
(a) community
(b) investors
(c) employees
Answer:
(b) investors

Question 8.
In modern business environment, …………….. provides more opportunities and challenges.
(a) privatisation
(b) globalisation
(c) specialisation
Answer:
(b) globalisation

Match the pairs

Question 1.

Group A	Group B
(A) Responsibility to owners	(1) Negotiations with management
(B) Anti-social activity	(2) Pollution control
(C) Business ethics	(3) Good working condition
(D) Responsibility towards community	(4) Branch of philosophy
(E) Trade union	(5) Earning foreign exchange
	(6) Creating goodwill
	(7) To help small scale industry
	(8) Confidentiality
	(9) Provide often sales services
	(10) Smuggling

Answer:

Group A	Group B
(A) Responsibility to owners	(6) Creating goodwill
(B) Anti-social activity	(10) Smuggling
(C) Business ethics	(8) Confidentiality
(D) Responsibility towards community	(2) Pollution control
(E) Trade union	(1) Negotiations with management

Give one word/phrase/term for the following statement

Question 1.
Code of conduct followed by the business to regulate their behaviour.
Answer:
Business Ethics

Question 2.
Latest trend towards quality control.
Answer:
International Standard Organisation (ISO).

Question 3.
Process of integration of national economy with world economy.
Answer:
Globalisation

Question 4.
An association of employees who have come together to improve their wages, conditions of employment by means of collective bargaining.
Answer:
Trade Union

Question 5.
Responsibility of business organisation, towards environment, towards sustainable development including health and well-being of society.
Answer:
Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR)

Question 6.
Indian philosopher who had promoted concept of social responsibility in ancient times.
Answer:
Chanakya

Question 7.
Running efficient business is the responsibility of business towards this group.
Answer:
Owners.

State whether following statement are true or false

Question 1.
Business ethics are applicable to all business organisations.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Every business organisation should undertake Research and Development.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Business ethics can be considered as a tool for social development.
Answer:
False.

Question 4.
A business unit is a part of society.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Business should not disclose their records to investors.
Answer:
False

Question 6.
Providing career opportunities to employees is the responsibility of business.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
Management should avoid worker’s participation while making decisions.
Answer:
False

Question 8.
Business organisation is not liable to control pollution.
Answer:
False

Question 9.
Ethics is a branch of politics.
Answer:
False

Question 10.
Business organisation can use natural resources as they want.
Answer:
False

Question 11.
Business organisation can participate in solving complex social problems.
Answer:
True

Complete the sentences

Question 1.
Business ethics is a branch of ……………..
Answer:
Social science

Question 2.
……………… should be printed on every product.
Answer:
Maximum Retail Price

Question 3.
Business and society are ……………….
Answer:
interdependent

Question 4.
The ……………….. protects the rights of employees.
Answer:
trade union

Question 5.
All companies shall spend, in every financial year, at least ……………… of the average net profits of the company.
Answer:
2%.

Answer in one sentence

Question 1.
In ancient times who preached and promoted ethical principles while doing business ?
Answer:
Philosophers like Chanakya from India and pre-Christian era philosophers in West, preached and promoted ethical principles while doing business.

Question 2.
Which points are to be considered by the business regarding investment by the investors ?
Answer:

1. Fair returns on investment,
2. Safety of investment,
3. Steady appreciation of business are the points to be considered by the business regarding investment made by investors.

Question 3.
Why is it necessary for the business to provide job security to their employees ?
Answer:
Security of job provides mental peace and employees can work with full dedication and concentration which will raise their morale and ; loyalty towards the organisation.

Question 4.
What should be banned by management to protect the interest of employees ?
Answer:
Management and Trade Union should agree to ban strikes and lockouts to protect the interest of both the parties.

Question 5.
What are 4 R’s in waste prevention techniques?
Answer:
Waste prevention techniques are commonly summarized in 4 ‘R’s:

1. Reduction in waste
2. Reuse of waste if practicable
3. Recycle of waste which cannot be reduced or reused.
4. Recover materials or energy from waste, if it cannot be reduced, reused or recycled.

Question 6.
Which companies has to comply with provisions related to CSR under Section 135 of Indian Companies Act 2013 ?
Answer:
Under Section 135 of India Companies Act 2013, the companies having net worth of 1500 Cr or more or turnover of 1000 Cr or more or net profit of 15 Cr or more during any financial year shall be required to comply with provision related to CSR.

Question 7.
How much amount companies are required to spend in pursuance of their CSR policy ?
Answer:
All companies shall spend, in every financial year, at least 2% of the average net profits of the company made during the three immediately preceding financial years, in pursuance of its CSR Policy.

Question 8.
What are penalties for Non-compliance of CSR activities ?
Answer:
Penalties for non-complying the duty of CSR would attract a fine of not less than Rs 50,000 which may extend to Rs 25,00,000 and every officer of the company in default shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to 3 years; or with fine which shall not be less than Rs 50,000 which may extend to Rs 5,00,000 or with both.

Attempt the following

Question 1.
Explain the responsibilities of business organisations towards owners.
Answer:
The responsibilities of business organisations towards the owners are explained as follows:
(1) Reasonable profit : The business organisations must earn adequate (reasonable) profit for further growth and expansion. It brings financial stability.

(2) Exploring business opportunities : Opportunity refers to the scope available to the business enterprise to grow, expand and diversify the business. Businessmen should be watchful to find and explore such opportunities. They should take advantage of and exploit every possible opportunity. It is very essential for success of the business.

(3) Optimum use of capital : The business organisations are expected to use available capital more carefully and efficiently. Business risk should be carefully and properly considered. Management should take extra care for the safety of the capital.

(4) Minimise wastage : Management should provide due attention throughout the business to avoid or minimise the wastage of time, money, manpower and other resources. This in turn facilitates business enterprise to maximise its profitability.

(5) Efficient business : Business organisations are expected to make use of available resources up to their optimum level. Efficient use of resources ultimately increases efficiency, productivity and profitability.

(6) Fair practices on stock exchange : The business organisations should avoid all sorts of unfair practices on stock exchange such as insider trading, providing wrong and secret information about the affairs of the company, etc. Artificial increase or decrease in share prices put the common investors to loss.

(7) Expansion and diversification : The business unit must always develop, expand and diversify its business to strengthen and consolidate its position. It should always undertake research and development activities to face competition more successfully.

(8) Periodic information : It is obligatory for a business organisation to provide complete and accurate information in respect to financial position. It should disclose information through reports, circulars, etc.

(9) Effective use of owners’ funds : The company is expected to use the shareholders’ i.e. owners’ funds in the most profitable manner. It helps the organisation to give short term and long term returns in proper time.

(10) Creating goodwill : In order to get respect and trust in the (share) market, the management is expected to develop and maintain good public image of its company.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th OCM Important Questions Chapter 5 Emerging Modes of Business Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Commerce OCM Important Questions Chapter 5 Emerging Modes of Business

Select the correct options and rewrite the sentence

Question 1.
Wedding Planning is an example of ……………….
(a) corporate organization
(b) outsourcing
(c) buying and selling of goods
Answer:
(b) outsourcing

Question 2.
……………… is the trading aspect of e-business where it connects buyers and sellers on the internet.
(a) Outsourcing
(b) e-commerce
(c) e-mail
Answer:
(b) e-commerce

Question 3.
An electronic facility of transferring funds through the internet is ………………. transfer.
(a) cash
(b) net banking
(c) credit
Answer:
(b) net banking

Question 4.
Credit or Debit Cards are popularly known as ………………. ‘Money’.
(a) Paper
(b) Plastic
(c) Polymer
Answer:
(b) Plastic

Question 5.
In e-business payments have to be made ……………….
(a) in cash
(b) credit
(c) online
Answer:
(c) online

Question 6.
The transactions under ………………. are between one business firm and other business firm.
(a) C2C
(b) B2C
(c) B2B
Answer:
(c) B2B

Match the pairs

Question 1.

Group A	Group B
(A) Outsourcing	(1) Consumer to consumer
(B) B2A	(2) Exist everywhere
(C) KPO	(3) First step
(D) C2A	(4) Business to Consumer
(E) LPO	(5) Electronic business
	(6) BPO
	(7) RTO
	(8) Efficient business
	(9) Exist only in cyberspace
	(10) Last step

Answer:

Group A	Group B
(A) Outsourcing	(8) Efficient business
(B) B2A	(5) Electronic business
(C) KPO	(6) BPO
(D) C2A	(1) Consumer to consumer
(E) LPO	(7) RTO

Give one word/phrase/term for the following statement

Question 1.
Name the term which is used by even common man effectively while collecting the needed s information quickly.
Answer:
Internet

Question 2.
Name the electronic facility of transferring funds through the internet.
Answer:
Net banking transfer

Question 3.
The form of electronic currency that exists only in cyberspace.
Answer:
Digital cash

Question 4.
The outsourcing of peripheral activities of the organisation to an external organisation to minimise cost.
Answer:
Business Process Outsourcing (BPO)

Question 5.
The trading aspect of e-business that connects buyers and sellers on the internet.
Answer:
e-commerce.

State whether following statement are true or false

Question 1.
Credit cards are used for online payment.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
In online transactions ‘Account’ is password protected.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Online transactions are done without the help of internet.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
BPO enables optimum utilisation of scarce resources.
Answer:
True

Find the odd one

Question 1.
C2B, B2A, A2U, C2A.
Answer:
A2U

Question 2.
Off shore, Seashore, On shore, Near shore
Answer:
Seashore.

Complete the sentences

Question 1.
Use of Internet has considerably reduced the dependence on
Answer:
Paper work

Question 2.
includes more knowledge based and specialised work.
Answer:
KPO

Question 3.
The concept of e-business was coined in 90s by
Answer:
IBM.

Correct the underlined word and rewrite the sentence:

Question 1.
BPO is more complex than KPO.
Answer:
less

Question 2.
Traditional business lacks personal touch.
Answer:
e-business

Question 3.
E-commerce is superset of E-business.
Answer:
subset

Question 4.
E-business is narrower concept than s e-commerce.
Answer:
broader

Question 5.
E-commerce is more appropriate in B2B transaction.
Answer:
B2C.

Distinguish between

Question 1.
BPO and LPO
Answer:

	BPO	LPO
1. Meaning	BPO implies the outsourcing of non-primary peripheral activities of the organisation to an external organisation to decrease cost and increase efficiency of parent organisation.	LPO is a type of KPO that renders legal services ranging from drafting legal documents, performing legal research to offering legal advice for certain money consideration.
2. Degree of complexity	BPO is comparatively less complex.	LPO is relatively more complex.
3. Requirement	BPO requires process expertise.	LPO requires legal (law) expertise.
4. Talent required in employees	BPO requires personnel having good communication having legal (law) knowledge.	LPO requires professionally qualified personnel skills.
5. Focus	BPO focus on low level process.	LPO focus on high level process.
6. Outcome	BPO gives a company the ability to get access to skilled and trained manpower at low rate.	LPO allows organisations to access high level talent and niche expertise that does not exist within the firm.

Question 2.
KPO and LPO
Answer:

	KPO	LPO
1. Meaning	KPO is a form of outsourcing in which knowledge related and information related work are outsourced to third party service providers to help in value addition and to get cost benefits.	LPO is a type of KPO that renders legal services ranging from drafting legal documents, performing legal research to offering legal advice for certain money consideration.
2. Requirement	KPO requires knowledge expertise.	LPO requires legal (law) expertise.
3. Talent required in employees	KPO requires professionally qualified personnel having technical knowledge.	LPO requires professionally qualified personnel having legal (law) knowledge.
4. Nature	KPO is a subset of BPO which involves outsource of core functions of the parent company.	LPO is a type of KPO that is specific to legal services.
5. Sources of services	Business organisations mostly hire services from skilled employees supplied by KPO service providers.	In-house, legal department mostly hire services from law firms situated in foreign country to minimise cost.
6. Problems	Lack of communication due to legal, language and cultural barriers may create complications	LPO gets affected adversely by geographical hurdles between law firm and client organisation.