Class 9

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 2 India: Events After 1960 Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

India: Events After 1960 Class 9 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Class 9 History Chapter 2 India: Events After 1960 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

History Class 9 Chapter 2 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. A. Choose the correct option from the given option and rewrite the statements:
Question 1.
The Prime Minister of India who took an initiative in resolving the question of the Tamil minority in Sri Lanka was
(a) Rajiv Gandhi
(b) Indira Gandhi
(c) H. D. Deve Gowda
(d) P. V. Narasimha Rao
Answer:
(a) Rajiv Gandhi

Question 2.
is the father of the Green Revolution in India.
(a) Dr. Verghese Kurien
(b) Homi Bhabha
(c) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan
(d) Dr. Norman Borlaug
Answer:
(c) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan

B. Identify and write the wrong pair in the following sets:

Question 1.
(1) Indira Gandhi – Emergency
(2) Rajiv Gandhi – Developments of Science and Technology
(3) P. V. Narasimha Rao – Economic improvements
(4) Chandrashekhar – Mandal Commission
Answer:
Chandrashekhar – Mandal Commission

Question 2A.
Based on the information in the chapter, prepare a chronological chart of Prime Ministers and their tenure.
Answer:

1. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru -1947 to 1964
2. Lai Bahadur Shastri -1964 to 1966
3. Indira Gandhi -1966 to 1977
4. Morarji Desai -1977 to 1979
5. Charan Singh -1979 to 1980
6. Indira Gandhi -1980 to 1984
7. Rajiv Gandhi -1984 to 1989
8. Vishwanath Pratap Singh – 1989 to 1990
9. Chandra Shekhar -1990 to 1991
10. P. V. Narasimha Rao -1991 to 1996
11. Atal Bihari Vajpayee -1996
12. H.D. Deve Gowda -1996 to 1997
13. Inder Kumar Gujral -1997 to 1998
14. Atal Bihari Vajpayee – 1998 to 2004

2B. Write Short Notes on:

Question 1.
Globalisation
Answer:
(i) Globalisation brought about many changes in different fields like economy, politics, science and technology, society and culture.
(ii) India has emerged as an important country on the global scene in different spheres.
(iii) India is an important member of international organisations like G-20 and ‘BRICS’ (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa).
(iv) India has experienced an important revolution in the field of telecommunication technology.
(v) Mobile phones, internet and the communication facilities based on satellite have spread all across the country.
(vi) It has resulted in a total transformation in the lifestyle of Indians and especially the youth.
(vii) These changes are visible from their dietary habits, clothing, language and beliefs.

Question 2.
White Revolution
Answer:
(i) White Revolution is a major event of India’s efforts towards self-reliance.
(ii) The experiment in co-operative dairy movement by Dr. Verghese Kurien led to the increase of milk production in India.
(iii) This is called as ‘White Revolution’.

3A. Give reasons:

Question 1.
The Morarji Desai government lasted for a short while.
Answer:
(i) On the backdrop of the emergency, many opposition parties came together and formed a party called the Janata Party.
(ii) The Congress party led by Indira Gandhi was roundly defeated by this newly formed ‘Janata Party’.
(iii) Morarji Desai became the Prime Minister, but under his leadership the Janata Party government couldn’t last long due to its internal differences.
(iv) Hence, the Morarji Desai government lasted for a short while.

Question 2.
The army had to be sent into the Golden Temple in Amritsar.
Answer:
(i) The Sikhs in Punjab demanded an independent state of Khalistan and began a movement which went on to become violent and destructive.
(ii) Pakistan had lent its support to this movement.
(iii) Some terrorists had allegedly taken shelter inside the Golden Temple at Amritsar, a holy shrine of the Sikhs in 1984.
(iv) Hence, the Indian army was sent into the Golden Temple in Amritsar to evict the terrorists who had taken shelter there.

Question 3.
The National Planning Commission was set up in India.
Answer:
(i) India wanted to acquire modernity and self-reliance by establishing industries.
(ii) India wanted to establish an economy based on social justice through planning.
(iii) For this, the National Planning Commission was established. This would coordinate development through the policy of Five Year Plans.

B. Answer the following questions in 25 to 30 words.

Question 1.
How was 1991 a year of important changes in the history of the world and of India?
Answer:
(i) The year 1991 is held to be very important in the history of the world as well as India.
(ii) The Soviet Union disintegrated into several different small countries and the Cold War came to an end.
(iii) During this period, the Ram Janmabhumi and Babri Mosque issue at Ayodhya came to the forefront.
(iv) In India, the Government under the leadership of Prime Minister P. V. Narasimha Rao initiated many changes in the Indian economy.
(v) These economic reforms are called as economic liberalisation. The Indian economy flourished as a result of the implementation of this policy.
(vi) Skilled Indian professionals helped reform the Indian economy. The field of information technology opened several avenues of employment in the country.
(vii) The changes after 1991 are also described as ‘globalisation’.

Question 2.
What are the characteristics of the Indian economy?
Answer:
(i) Right from independence, the modernisation of economy, economic self-sufficiency and social justice have been the characteristics of Indian economy.
(ii) India wanted to acquire modernity and self-reliance by establishing industries.
(iii) It wanted to establish an economy based on social justice through planning.
(iv) For this, the National Planning Commission was established that would coordinate development through the policy of Five Year Plans.

4. With the help of the information in the chapter, complete the list of the challenges before India and the strengths of India.
Question 1.

The Challenges In Front of India	Strengths
For Example: India-Pakistan war	Unity in diversity
…………………………..	……………………..
…………………………….	Nuclear preparedness
Separatism	……………………………..

Answer:

The Challenges In Front of India	Strengths
India-Pakistan war	Unity in diversity
Cross – Border Terrorism	Membership in G20 and BRICS
Corruption	Nuclear preparedness
Separatism	Establishment of National Planning Commission

Class 9 History Chapter 2 India: Events After 1960 Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given option and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
The war between India and China took place in the year ________.
(a) 1952
(b) 1962
(c) 1972
(d) 1982
Answer:
(b) 1962

Question 2.
The Indo – China war was fought in the region of the _______ line.
(a)
MacMahon
(b) Kashmir
(c) St Lawrence
(d) Me Kinley
Answer:
MacMahon

Question 3.
Jawaharlal Nehru passed away in _________.
(a) 1944
(b) 1974
(c) 1984
(d) 1964
Answer:
(d) 1964

Question 4.
After Jawaharlal Nehru _______ became Prime Minister of India.
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Rajiv Gandhi
(c) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(d) Morarji Desai
Answer:
(c) Lal Bahadur Shastri

Question 5.
India and Pakistan went to war over the ________ issue in 1965.
(a) Kashmir
(b) Goa
(c) Hyderabad
(d) Kerala
Answer:
(a) Kashmir

Question 6.
The ______ mediated between the conflicting countries of India and Pakistan.
(a) Soviet Union
(b) USA
(c) Japan
(d) China
Answer:
(a) Soviet Union
(a) Soviet Union

Question 7.
_____ gave the slogan ‘Jai Jawan Jai Kisan’.
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Lai Bahadur Shastri
(c) Morarji Desai
(d) Rajiv Gandhi
Answer:
(b) Lai Bahadur Shastri

Question 8.
Lai Bahadur Shastri breathed his last at ______in 1966.
(a) Gorakhpur
(b) Kuala Lumpur
(c) Tashkent
(d) Varanasi
Answer:
(c) Tashkent

Question 9.
A Freedom Movement was led by Sheikh Mujibur Rahman and his organisation, ______.
(a) Mukti Bahini
(b) Bangla Bahini
(c) Aamar Sonar Bangla
(d) East Bengal Front
Answer:
(a) Mukti Bahini

Question 10.
The 1971 war between India and Pakistan led to the creation of an independent country called _______.
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Sikkim
(d) Telangana
Answer:
(a) Bangladesh

Question 11.
India successfully carried out an underground test of an atomic device at ______ in Rajasthan.
(a) Dispur
(b) Mannapattam
(c) Sriharikota
(d) Pokhran
Answer:
(d) Pokhran

Question 12.
The ______ High Court gave the verdict in 1974 that Indira Gandhi the then Prime Minister had misused the government machinery during her election campaign.
(a) Allahabad
(b) Bombay
(c) Delhi
(d) Panaji
Answer:
(a) Allahabad

Question 13.
The situation set against Indira Gandhi became more complicated due to the movement led by _________.
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji
(b) Jayprakash Narayan
(c) G. D. Agarkar
(d) Ramanand Tirth
Answer:
(b) Jayprakash Narayan

Question 14.
The period of National Emergency lasted from _______ and after that general elections were conducted.
(a) 1922-24
(b) 1984-87
(c) 1975 – 77
(d) 1987-99
Answer:
(c) 1975 – 77

Question 15.
On the backdrop of the emergency, many opposition parties came together and formed a party called the _______.
(a) Republican Party
(b) Congress Party
(c) Janata Party
(d) Samaj Party
Answer:
(c) Janata Party

Question 16.
________ became Prime Minister on behalf of the Janata Party.
(a) Morarji Desai
(b) Indira Gandhi
(c) Rajiv Gandhi
(d) Lai Bahadur Shastri
Answer:
(a) Morarji Desai

Question 17.
The Sikhs in Punjab demanded an independent state of ______.
(a) Khalistan
(b) Pakistan
(c) Kazakhstan
(d) Baluchistan
Answer:
(a) Khalistan

Question 18.
______ had lent its support to the Khalistan movement.
(a) China
(b) Pakistan
(c) England
(d) Baluchistan
Answer:
(b) Pakistan

Question 19.
An organisation called ________ carried on a major movement in north-east India.
(a) United Liberation Front of Assam
(b) United Communist Group
(c) United India Front
(d) United Assam Federation
Answer:
(a) United Liberation Front of Assam

Question 20.
______ laid the foundation of Indian atomic power programme.
(a) Satish Dhawan
(b) Homi Bhabha
(c) A.P.J. Kalam
(d) Vikram Sarabhai
Answer:
(b) Homi Bhabha

Question 21.
______, a terrorist organisation assassinated Rajiv Gandhi.
(a) LTTE
(b) ASEAN
(c) LTEN
(d) LTTA
Answer:
(a) LTTE

Question 22.
India wanted to acquire modernity and self-reliance by establishing _______.
(a) Nuclear reactor
(b) Industries
(c) Electricity grids
(d) Telephonic infrastructure
Answer:
(b) Industries

Question 23.
The _______ government started economic reforms from 1991.
(a) Moraq’i Desai
(b) Indira Gandhi
(c) Narasimha Rao
(d) Lai Bahadur Shastri
Answer:
(c) Narasimha Rao

Question 24.
In 1999, ________ came to power under the flag of Bharatiya Janata Party.
(a) United Progressive Alliance
(b) League of Indian Politics
(c) India’s Administrative Assemblage
(d) National Democratic Alliance
Answer:
(d) National Democratic Alliance

Question 25.
________ is known as the father of the White Revolution.
(a) Dr. Verghese Kurien
(b) Dr. Dayaram Sahni
(c) Dr. Homi Bhabha
(d) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan
Answer:
(a) Dr. Verghese Kurien

Question 26.
In 1975, the first satellite, ________ was launched by India.
(a) Sputnik 1
(b) Apollo 1
(c) Aryabhatta
(d) Agni
Answer:
(c) Aryabhatta

Question 27.
The _________ Commission was set up in 1953 to make recommendations, so as to improve condition of the lower castes.
(a) Ganesh Agarkar
(b) Appasaheb Mayekar
(c) Tarabai Shinde
(d) Kakasaheb Kalelkar
Answer:
(d) Kakasaheb Kalelkar

Write Short Notes on:

Question 1.
Atomic Energy and Space Research.
Answer:
(i) Dr. Homi Bhabha laid the foundation of the Indian atomic power programme.
(ii) India insisted on using atomic energy for peaceful purposes like generation of electricity, pharmaceuticals and defence.
(iii) India has achieved considerable success in space technology as well. In 1975, the first satellite ‘Aryabhatta’ was launched.
(iv) Today, India has a successful space programme and many satellites have been launched under this programme. India has also made considerable advancement in the telecom sector.

Explain the statements with reason:

Question 1.
Globalisation brought about many changes in different fields.
Answer:
(i) India has emerged as an important country on the global scene in different spheres.
(ii) India is an important member of international organisations like G-20 and ‘BRICS’ (Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa).
(iii) India has experienced an important revolution in the field of telecommunication technology.
(iv) Mobile phones, internet and the communication facilities based on satellite have spread all across the country.
(v) In the political field, India has demonstrated to the world how a stable democracy can function successfully.
(vi) All this has resulted in a total transformation in the lifestyle of Indians, especially the youth. These changes are visible from their dietary habits, clothing, language and beliefs.

Question 2.
There were several major changes in the social field in India for upliftment of women.
Answer:
(i) To promote the all-round development of women and children many constructive steps were taken.
(ii) A separate ‘Department of Women and. Child Development’ was created in 1985 under the Ministry of Human Resource Development.
(iii) Some laws were made to ensure social justice to women and to help the implementation of various schemes in this direction.
(iv) They include the Prohibition of Dowry Act, Equal Remuneration Act. As per the 73rd and 74th Constitution Amendments, seats are reserved for women in the local self¬government bodies.

Read the passage and answer the questions.

As a part of India’s policy to use atomic energy for peaceful purposes, India successfully carried out an underground test of an atomic device at Pokharan in Rajasthan in 1974. In 1975, the people of Sikkim voted for joining the Indian republic and Sikkim became a full-fledged State in the Indian federation. During this decade, the political situation in India grew unstable. The Allahabad High Court gave the verdict in 1974 that Indira Gandhi; the then Prime Minister had misused the government machinery during her election campaign. It led to nationwide strikes and protest. During this period, the situation became more complicated due to the movement led by Jayprakash Narayan. The situation of law and order in the country worsened and the government declared a state of National Emergency on the basis of the constitutional provisions relating to Emergency. During this turbulent period, the fundamental rights of Indian citizens were suspended. Due to the emergency, the Indian administration became disciplined, but the human rights were restricted. The period of national emergency lasted from 1975 to 1977 and after that general elections were conducted. On the backdrop of the emergency, many opposition parties came together and formed a party called the Janata Party. The Congress party led by Indira Gandhi was roundly defeated by this newly formed ‘Janata Party’. Morarji Desai became the Prime Minister, but under his leadership the Janata Party government couldn’t last long due to internal differences. Charan Singh succeeded him, but even his government was a short-lived one. Elections were conducted once again in 1980 and the Congress party under the leadership of Indira Gandhi came to power again.

Question 1.
Enlist incidents that culminated in Indira Gandhi’s rise to power post the verdict of Allahabad High Court.
Answer:
Following incidents paved the way of Indira Gandhi back to power:

• Allahabad High Court verdict against Indira Gandhi
• Nation – wide strikes and protest led by Jai Prakash Narayan
• Imposition of National Emergency (1975-77) fundamental rights suspended
• Opposition parties came together to form Janata Party.
• Short lived governments of Morarji Desai and Charan Singh.
• Elections conducted in 1980 – Congress back to power.

Question 2.
Which state became a constituent state of India in 1975?
Answer:
Sikkim voted to join the Indian Republic and it became a full – fledged state of Indian Republic in 1975.

Question 3.
Why do you think India conducted a nuclear test in Pokhran in 1974?
Answer:
India conducted Nuclear tests for two reasons:
(i) to keep Pakistan’s aggression under check post 1971 war.
(ii) To initiate peaceful and constructive use of atomic energy.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
What were the contributions of Lai Bahadur Shastri?
Answer:
(i) Lai Bahadur Shastri succeeded Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru and became the next Prime Minister of India.
(ii) During his tenure, India and Pakistan went to war over the Kashmir issue in 1965.
(iii) The Soviet Union tried to mediate between the two countries.
(iv) Lai Bahadur Shastri gave the slogan ‘Jai Jawan Jai Kisan’ with which he highlighted the importance of Indian soldiers and Indian farmers.
(v) Lai Bahadur Shastri breathed his last at Tashkent in 1966.

Question 2.
Write a note on Rajiv Gandhi.
Answer:
(i) Right after Indira Gandhi’s assassination in 1984, Rajiv Gandhi became the Prime Minister of India.
(ii) He tried to make several reforms in the field of Indian economy and that of science and technology.
(iii) He took the lead in solving the issues of the Tamil minority in Sri Lanka. He promoted the idea of a united Sri Lanka with internal autonomy to the Tamil community, but his efforts in this regard proved to be in vain.
(iv) He faced a lot of criticism in the context of corruption that took place during a defence equipment deal, especially the purchase of long-range canons from a foreign company called Bofors.
(v) Political corruption became a crucial issue in the general elections that followed and the Congress party was defeated.
(vi) In 1991, during the election campaign, the terrorist organisation in Sri Lanka, Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam (LTTE), assassinated Rajiv Gandhi.

Question 3.
Write a note on Atal Bihari Vajpayee.
Answer:
(i) In 1999 the ‘National Democratic Alliance’ came to power under the flag of Bharatiya Janata Party and Atal Bihari Vajpayee became India’s Prime Minister (1998-2004).
(ii) Atal Bihari Vajpayee tried to establish a dialogue with Pakistan but was not successful.
(iii) India conducted a number of nuclear tests in 1998 and declared herself as an atomic power.
(iv) In 1999, there was another war between India and Pakistan in Kargil region over the Kashmir issue
(v) India defeated Pakistan in this war as well.

Question 4.
What is economic liberalisation? What are its benefits?
Answer:
(i) The Narasimha Rao Government started economic reforms from 1991. These economic reforms are known as economic liberalisation.
(ii) The Indian economy flourished as a result of the implementation of this policy.
(iii) The foreign investment in India increased. Skilled Indian professionals helped reform the Indian economy.
(iv) The field of information technology opened several avenues of employment in the country.
(v) The changes after 1991 are also described as ‘globalisation’.

Question 5.
What do you mean by
(i) Green Revolution and
(ii) White revolution?
Answer:
(i) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan is known as the father of the Green Revolution in 1965. He implemented new scientific agricultural techniques and increased the production of foodgrains.
(ii) The experiment in co-operative dairy movement by Dr. Verghese Kurien led to increase of milk production in India. This is called as ‘White Revolution’.

Question 6.
What is the progress of India in the fields of atomic energy and space research?
Answer:
(i) India had also made a lot of progress in the fields of atomic energy and space research.
(ii) Dr. Homi Bhabha laid the foundation of the Indian atomic power programme.
(iii) India insisted on using atomic energy for peaceful purposes like generation of electricity, pharmaceuticals and defence.
(iv) India has achieved considerable success in space technology as well. In 1975, the first satellite ‘Aryabhatta’ was launched.
(v) Today, India has a successful space programme and many satellites have been launched under this programme.
(vi) India has also made considerable advancement in the telecom sector.

Question 7.
Describe the changes in India due to globalisation.
Answer:
(i) Globalisation brought about many changes in different fields like economy, politics, science and technology and society and culture.
(ii) India has emerged as an important country on the global scene in different spheres. India is an important member of international organisations like G-20 and ‘BRICS’ (Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa).
(iii) India has experienced an important revolution in the field of telecommunication technology. Mobile phones, internet and the communication facilities based on satellite have spread all across the country.
(iv) In the political field, India has demonstrated to the world how a stable democracy can function successfully.
(v) All this has resulted in a total transformation in the lifestyle of Indians and especially the
youth. These changes are visible from their dietary habits, clothing, language and beliefs.

Question 8.
How was an independent country of Bangladesh created?
Answer:
(i) Indira Gandhi became the Prime Minister of India in 1966.
(ii) During her tenure, Pakistan’s oppressive I policies in East Pakistan resulted in a big movement there. This movement was led by Sheikh Mujibur Rahman and his organisation, ‘Mukti Bahini.’
(iii) This crisis in East Pakistan affected India as well, because millions of refugees came to India.
(iv) The 1971 war between India and Pakistan led to the creation of an independent country called Bangladesh.

Question 9.
What policies were made to uplift the deprived sections of the society?
Answer:
(i) The ‘Kakasaheb Kalelkar Commission’ was set up in 1953 to make recommendations so as to improve their condition.
(ii) In 1978, a Commission was constituted under the chairmanship of B. P. Mandal to study the issue of the backward classes.
(iii) The policy of reservation was adopted in order to strengthen the representation of backward sections in various services and institutions.
(iv) The Government passed the Prevention of Atrocities Act in 1989 to enable those belonging to the Scheduled Castes and Tribes to live with dignity and respect, free from fear, violence and oppression of the upper classes.

Question 10.
Identify the picture and give relevant information.

Indira Gandhi became the Prime Minister of India in the year 1966.
Indira Gandhi’s strong leadership was prominent in the war between India and Pakistan in 1971.
The first atomic test at Pokharan was carried out under her leadership.
The Allahabad High Court gave the verdict in 1974, that Indira Gandhi had misused the government machinery during her election campaign.
She declared a’state of National Emergency in 1975.

9th Std History Questions And Answers:

• Sources of History Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• India: Events After 1960 Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• India’s Internal Challenges Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Economic Development Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Education Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Empowerment of Women and Other Weaker Sections Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Science and Technology Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Industry and Trade Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Changing Life 1 Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Changing Life 2 Class 9 History Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 6 Empowerment of Women and Other Weaker Sections Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Empowerment of Women and Other Weaker Sections Class 9 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Class 9 History Chapter 6 Empowerment of Women and Other Weaker Sections Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

History Class 9 Chapter 6 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. Complete the statements by choosing the proper option:

Question 1.
In 1992, a movement against drinking alcohol was started in _________.
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Gujarat
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Uttarakhand
Answer:
(c) Andhra Pradesh

Question 2.
In 1975, the government of India formed the Committee on the status of women under chairmanship of ______.
(a) Dr Phulrenu Guha
(b) Uma Bharati
(c) Vasundhara Raje
(d) Pramila Dandavate
Answer:
(a) Dr Phulrenu Guha

2.B Identify the wrong pair and rewrite the corrected one:

Question 1.
(i) Saudamini Rao – Stree-Mukti Andolan Samiti
(ii) Vidya Bal – Nari Samata Manch
(iii) Pramila Dandavate – Mahila Dakshata Samiti
(iv) Jyoti Mhapsekar – Committee on the Status of Women
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Jyoti Mhapsekar – Committee on the Status of Women

3. Make a concept chart:

Question 1.
Laws related to women:
Answer:

4. Explain the concepts:

Question 1.
Alimony
Answer:
(i) A fixed amount paid to a married woman for her upkeep by the husband who has divorced her, is called alimony.
(ii) The law enacted in 1952, recognizes women’s right to alimony and their share in the father’s property. Her right to Sreedharan was recognized.

Question 2.
Minority
Answer:
(i) In any society, a group of people of a particular religion, language or race who are few in number are termed as a minority.
(ii) As there are various religions, sects, and languages in our country, we see great cultural diversity. There is variation in cultural traditions, too.

5. Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
The evolution of the women’s liberation movement.
Answer:
(i) The United Nations had declared 1975 as the International Women’s Year.

(ii) In 1975, the government of India constituted the Committee on the Status of Women and appointed Dr Phulrenu Guha as its Chairman.

(iii) A comprehensive survey was conducted on several issues such as the social position of women, their status, the consequences of the constitutional provisions made for women as also education of women and its percentage, their progress due to education, difficulties faced by working women, the position of women with respect to work /livelihood, their wages , the female-male ratio, birth and mortality rate and the role of women.

(iv) Taking into consideration this entire background, a State-wide conference for women was held in 1975 organised by the Stree-mukti Sangharsha Samiti. Women from all walks of life / regions participated in it.

(v) The Samiti published its manifesto in 1978. The policy of a struggle against discrimination on the basis of gender, caste and vama was adopted.

(vi) In 1977, groups like the Streemukti Andolan Samiti established by Soudamini Rao in Pune, Bayaja a fortnightly, as also Stree Uvach, Maitrin and Stree Anyayavirodhi Manch in Aurangabad, Mahila Dakshata Samiti in Kolhapur, Mahila Hakka in Nashik and Nari Prabodhan Manch in Latur were formed.

(vii) Anti-dowry protection committees were formed all over Maharashtra. A conference to protest against oppression of women was organised in Dhule city.

Question 2.
The Prohibition of Dowry (Amendment) Act was enacted in 1984.
Answer:
(i) Even after the enactment of the anti-dowry law, incidents like ‘Woman bums to death as sari pallu catches fire while cooking’ and ‘Woman slips into well while washing clothes, drowns and dies’ continued to be reported.
(ii) Investigations still revealed dowry to be the most frequent cause of such deaths.
(iii) The role of the police, the administration and judiciary were highlighted. This created greater awareness.
(iv) As a result, the Dowry Prohibition (Amendment) Act came into force in 1984.

Question 3.
The practice of untouchability was banned by law.
Answer:
(i) In the post-independence period, our Constitution adopted the values of freedom, equality, fraternity and social justice.
(ii) In accordance with this, the practice of untouchability was banned by law.
(iii) Untouchability was removed by the 17th paragraph of the Constitution and this class was included in the Scheduled Castes.

Question 4.
The Constitution gives cultural and educational rights to minorities.
Answer:
(i) In any society, a group of people of a particular religion, language or race who are few in number are termed a minority.

(ii) As there are various religions, sects and languages in our country, we see great cultural diversity. There is variation in cultural traditions, too.

(iii) In order to preserve their cultural traditions and develop their own language, the Constitution gives the citizens certain educational and cultural rights.

(iv) Minorities have the right to protect and conserve their language, culture and traditions.

(v) For this purpose they have the right to set up separate educational institutions.

6. Answer the following questions in 25 to 30 words:

Question 1.
Describe the Chipko movement.
Answer:
(i) The show of constructive woman power was seen during the Chipko movement in 1973.
(ii) Trees from the forests in the foothills of the Himalayas were to be cut down for commercial purposes.
(iii) Chandiprasad Bhat and Sunderlal Bahuguna had started a movement to prevent this.
(iv) Women followed the strategy of holding hands and encircling each tree.
(v) As their method consisted of protecting the tree by embracing it, the movement came to be known as the Chipko movement.
(vi) Women took part in it in large numbers. Women had a big role to play in the agricultural economy of this region.
(vii) Gaura Devi was the activist who created this awareness among the women with the help of Sudesha Devi and Bachani Devi.

Question 2.
Write a note on the Protection of Human Rights Act.
Answer:
(i) In 1993, the Protection of Human Rights Act law was enacted to prevent injustice to men and women.
(ii) The National Human Rights Commission was also formed for this purpose.
(iii) In some States, the State Human Rights Commission was also formed on the same lines.
(iv) This law which deals with collective oppression, the social conditions of divorced women, women and secure work places, played an effective role in mitigating injustices to women.

7. Answer the following question in detail:

Question 1.
Explain with examples how the united strength of women can bring about constructive changes in various fields.
Answer:
(i) Women, who have to face the brunt of scarcity of supplies and rising prices, gave a show of their strength as an organised entity in 1972.

(ii) Under the leadership of the socialist leader Mrinal Gore, women in Mumbai participated in a demonstration which came to be known as the laatne morcha (the rolling pin demonstration).

(iii) Commodities like oil, ghee, rava, maida, would become scarce just as Diwali was near at hand. Kerosene had become very expensive.

(iv) Women came together brandishing their rolling pins and took part in the demonstration.

(v) This movement met with success and the public got a glimpse of the united power of women.

(vi) Another show of constructive woman power was seen during the Chipko movement in 1973. Gaura Devi was the activist who created awareness among the women with the help of Sudesha Devi and Bachani Devi.

(vii) In 1992, three youths of Dubuganta village of Nellore district in Andhra Pradesh drowned in a lake, in a state of inebriation, and died.

(viii) At this instance, the women of the village came together and forced the closure of arrack shops.

(ix) The movement spread to the entire State and the government had to adopt a strict policy against the sale of alcohol.

(x) On 4th September 1987, Roop Kanwar, a married woman, committed sati. She did not do this of her own free will; she was coerced into doing so. Committing sati, glorifying the practice of sati were all illegal acts.

(xi) The women activists and journalists, Meena Menon, Geeta Seshu, Sujata Anandan, Anu Joseph and Kalpana Sharma investigated the case. In 1998, the government passed the Sati (Prevention) Act with very stringent provisions.

Class 9 History Chapter 6 Empowerment of Women and Other Weaker Sections Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
Under the leadership of the socialist leader ______ women in Mumbai participated in a demonstration which came to be known as the Laatne Morcha.
(a) GauraDevi
(b) Dr Phulrenu Guha
(c) Meena Menon
(d) Mrinal Gore
Answer:
(d) Mrinal Gore

Question 2.
Vinoba Bhave made use of women power in the _____.
(a) Bhoodan Movement
(b) Chipko Movement
(c) Laatne Morcha
(d) Anti-liquor movement
Answer:
(a) Bhoodan Movement

Question 3.
Women activists associated with the Chipko movement ________.
(a) Sucheta Kripalani, Nandini Satpathy and Jayalalitha
(b) Dr Phulrenu Guha, Uma Bharati and Vasundhara Raje
(c) Gaura Devi, Sudesha Devi and Bachani Devi
(d) Dr Phulrenu Guha, Meena Menon and Mrinal Gore
Answer:
(c) Gaura Devi, Sudesha Devi and Bachani Devi

Question 4.
The Chipko movement was started by ______.
(a) Chandiprasad Bhat and Sunderlal Bahuguna
(b) Sudesha Devi and Bachani Devi
(c) Vinoba Bhave and Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Meena Menon and Mrinal Gore
Answer:
(a) Chandiprasad Bhat and Sunderlal Bahuguna

Question 5.
The United Nations had declared as _____ the International Women’s Year.
(a) 1992
(b) 2000
(c) 1975
(d) 1988
Answer:
(c) 1975

Question 6.
A collection of songs called Streemuktichi Lalkari, a street play called Mulgi Jhaali Ho are written by ______.
(a) Vidya Bal
(b) Pramila Dandavate
(c) Sujata Anandan
(d) Jyoti Mhapsekar
Answer:
(d) Jyoti Mhapsekar

Question 7.
A State-wide conference for women was held in 1975 organised by the _______.
(a) Samajwadi Mahila Sabha.
(b) Stree-mukti Sangharsha Samiti.
(c) Nari Prabodhan Manch.
(d) Stree Anyayavirodhi Manch.
Answer:
(b) Stree-mukti Sangharsha Samiti.

Question 8.
Census is conducted in India every _______.
(a) 5 years
(b) 10 years
(c) 15 years
(d) 20 years
Answer:
(b) 10 years

Identify and write the wrong pair in the following sets:

Question 1.
(i) Vinoba Bhave – Bhoodan Movement
(ii) Chandiprasad Bhat and Sunderlal Bahuguna – Chipko movement
(iii) Dr Phulrenu Guha – Laatne Morcha
(iv) Shah Bano Begum – Right to alimony
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Dr Phulrenu Guha – Laatne Morcha

Question 2.
(i) Stree Anyayavirodhi Manch – Aurangabad
(ii) Mahila Dakshata Samiti – Pune
(iii) Mahila Hakka – Nashik
(iv) Nari Prabodhan Manch – Latur
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Mahila Dakshata Samiti – Pune

Question 3.
(i) Stree-mukti Andolan Samiti – Soudamini Rao
(ii) Mahila Dakshata Samiti – Phulrenu Guha
(iii) Milun Saryajani – Vidya Bal
(iv) Laatne Morcha – Mrinal Gore
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Mahila Dakshata Samiti – Phulrenu Guha

Question 4.
(i) Streemuktichi Lalkari – Collection of songs
(ii) Mulgi Jhaali Ho – Periodical
(iii) Bayaja – fortmighty
(iv) Sitama Katha – Story
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Mulgi Jhaali Ho – Periodical

Do as directed
Make a concept chart:

Question 1.
Roop Kanwar Sati Case.
Answer:

Question 2.
List at least five Women Chief Ministers in India:
Answer:

• Sucheta Kriplani (Uttar Pradesh)
• Nandini Satpathy (Odisha)
• Jayalalitha (Tamil Nadu)
• Mayawati (Uttar Pradesh)
• Vasundhara Raje (Rajasthan)
• Mamata Banerjee (West Bengal)
• Rabdi Devi (Bihar)
• Anandiben Patel (Gujarat)
• Sheila Dixit (Delhi)
• Mehbooba Mufti Sayeed (Jammu & Kashmir)
• Uma Bharati (Madhya Pradesh)
• Rajendra Kaur Bhattal (Punjab)
• Sushma Swaraj (Delhi)
• Shashikala Kakodkar (Goa)
• Sayeeda Anwar Taimur (Assam)
• Janaki Ramachandran (Tamil Nadu), are all women who have led their States as Chief Ministers.

Complete the following chart:

Question 1.

Women	Contribution
Dr. Phulrenu Guha	………………….
………………	Streemukti Andolan Samiti
Vidya Bal	………………..
………………..	Mahila Dakshata Samiti

Answer:

Women	Contribution
Dr. Phulrenu Guha	Chairman Committee on Status for Women
Soudamini Rao	Streemukti Andolan Samiti
Vidya Bal	Nari Samata Manch
Pramila Dandavate	Mahila Dakshata Samiti

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
International Women’s Day
Answer:
(i) A demonstration was held in New York on 8 March 1857.

(ii) It was the first demonstration by working women and its demands were for fewer working hours, proper remuneration, provision of creches, etc.

(iii) On 8 March 1909 women went on strike for the very same demands. That is why, this day was declared as the Women’s Struggle Day at the Women’s Socialist International, a conference held in Denmark.

(iv) The year 1975 was observed as the International Women’s Year and in 1977, 8 March was declared as International Women’s Day by a resolution passed in the General Assembly of the United Nations.

(v) The three aspects of this programme were peace, development and equality between men and women.

Question 2.
Family Courts
Answer:
(i) Family courts were established to resolve conflicts arising out of differences within marriage and domestic problems as well as issues such as alimony, single parenthood, separation, care of children and ownership which are all related to the family situation.
(ii) These family courts give priority to mutual understanding over witnesses and evidence and to counsellors over lawyers.
(iii) Emphasis is on resolving issues quickly but justly.

Question 3.
Reservation for Women
Answer:
(i) The 73rd and 74th amendments to the Constitution provide for reservation of one-third of the seats for women in Gram Panchayats, Panchayat Samitis, Zilla Parishads, municipalities and municipal corporations as well as for the posts of Sarpanch, Chairman and Mayor.
(ii) Maharashtra and 15 other states have reserved 50% seats for women.
(iii) This provision provides women the opportunity to participate in the business of the community.

Question 4.
Scheduled Tribes
Answer:
(i) The Scheduled Tribes or Adivasis who live in remote parts of the country face several difficulties.

(ii) As they have lived far away from the progress made in modem times, they are economically and socially backward.

(iii) Even though their conditions have seen some improvement in recent times, they do not have any means of livelihood other than agriculture and forest produce.

(iv) Modem farming implements have not yet reached them. Hence, their income from agriculture is very small. Besides, their fields are on hillsides and not fertile.

(v) They are malnourished due to insufficient and poor quality of diet.

(vi) Adivasis in remote areas find it difficult to get medical attention in time. For all these reasons, there is a need to give special protection to Adivasis.

(vii) In the Indian Constitution, Adivasis have been enumerated as Scheduled Tribes. They are given representation in law boards, education, government service, etc.

Question 5.
8th March was declared as International Women’s Day.
Answer:
(i) A demonstration was held in New York on 8 March, 1857. It was the first demonstration by working women and its demands were for fewer working hours, proper remuneration, provision of creches, etc.

(ii) On 8 March 1909 women went on strike for the very same demands. That is why, this day was declared as the Women’s Struggle Day at the Women’s Socialist International, a conference held in Denmark.

(iii) The year 1975 was observed as the International Women’s Year and in 1977, 8 March was declared as International Women’s Day by a resolution passed in the General Assembly of the United Nations.

Question 6.
The ‘Muslim Women’s Act’ (Protection of rights on divorce) was passed by Parliament.
Answer:
(i) A fixed amount paid to a married woman for her upkeep by the husband who has divorced her, is called alimony.

(ii) In the case of Mohammad Ahmed Khan vs Shah Bano Begum, the Supreme Court gave the verdict that Shah Bano Begum had the right to alimony.

(iii) However, religious organisations protested vociferously against the verdict.

(iv) As a result, the ‘Muslim Women’s Act’ (Protection of rights on divorce) was passed by Parliament.

Question 7.
In 1998, the government passed the Sati (Prevention) Act with very stringent provisions.
Answer:
(i) On 4th September 1987, Roop Kanwar, a married woman, committed sati. She did not do this of her own free will; she was coerced into doing so.

(ii) Committing Sati, glorifying the practice of Sati were all illegal acts.

(iii) The women activists and journalists, Meena Menon, Geeta Seshu, Sujata Anandan, Anu Joseph and Kalpana Sharma investigated the case.

(iv) So in 1998, the government passed the Sati (Prevention) Act with very stringent provisions.

Read the passage and answer the questions:

Passage I

International Women’s year: The United Nations ! had declared 1975 as the International Women’s Year. The three aspects of this programme were peace, development and equality between men and women. In 1975, the government of India constituted the Committee on the Status of Women and appointed Dr Phulrenu Guha as its Chairman. A comprehensive survey was conducted of several issues such as the social position of women, their status, the consequences of the constitutional provisions made for Women as also education of women and its percentage, their progress due to education, difficulties faced by working women, the position of women with respect to work/livelihood, their wages (relative to men’s wages), the female-male ratio, birth and mortality rates and the role of women.
Taking into consideration this entire background, State-wide conference for women was held in 1975 organised by the stree-mukti Sangharsha Samiti. Women from all walks of life/regions participated in it. The Samiti published its manifesto in 1978. The Samiti published its manifesto discrimination on the basis of gender, caste and vama was adopted.
This gave rise to a collection of songs called Streemuktichi Lalkari, a street play called Mulgi Jhali Ho by Jyoti Mhapsekar and a periodical called Prerak Lalkari which became their mouthpiece and other such programmes. In 1977, groups like the Streemukti Andolan Samiti established by Soudamini Rao in Pune, Bayaja a fortnightly, as also Stree Uvach, Maitrin and Stree Anyayavirodhi Manch in Aurangabad, Mahila Dakshata Samiti in Kolhapur, Mahila Hakka in Nashik and Nari Prabodhan Manch in Latur were formed. Anti-dowry protection committees were formed all over Maharashtra. A conference to protest against oppression of women was organised in Dhule City.

Question 1.
Prepare a time line of the highlights mentioned in the passages.
Ans:
Timeline of the Highlights of the passage

• 1975 – UN declared International Women’s Day Committee on the Status of women was appointed.
• 1975 – Stree Mukti Sangharsha Samiti was organised.
• 1978 – Stree Mukti Sangharsha Samiti published a Manifesto
• 1977 – Stree Mukti Andolan Samiti was established by Soudamini Rao.

Question 2.
State the issues on which a survey was conducted by the committee on the status of women.
Ans:
The Committee on Status of Women appointed under the chairmanship of Dr. Phulrenu Guha made a comprehensive survey over several issues:

• Social position of women and their status.
• Consequences of the constitutional provision made for women.
• Education of women and it’s a percentage.
• Their progress due to education.
• Difficulties faced by working women with respect to work, livelihood, and wages.
• Female – male ratio.
• Birth and mortality rates.
• Role of women.

Question 3.
Name any two women who according to you managed to break the norms of the Indian Society and came up as icons of woman power.
Ans:
(i) Mrinal Gore
(ii) Gaura Devi

Passage II

Vidya Bal’s periodicals, Nari Samata Manch, and Milun Saryajani, as also the work ofthe Samajwadi Mahila Sabha and the Krantikari Mahila Sanghatana were of great help in dealling with women’s issues. The Employment Guarantee Scheme in Maharashtra also helped to empower women. Pramila Dandavate established the Mahila Dakshata Samiti in Delhi in 1976. Branches of the Samiti came up in the States of Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and Punjab. The Communist Party established the Akhil Bharatiya Janavadi Mahila Sanghatana in 1980. Efforts were made to start branches of this Organisation in all parts of India. The Sanghatana started a struggle against issues like dowry, female foeticide, domestic abuse, Research on women’s issues was undertaken at various levels. Women’s Studies Centres were started at the first women’s university, Mumbai and at Tata Institute of Social Sciences, Mumbai, Savitribai Phule Pune University and Shivaji University, Kolhapur. These Centres played an important role in critical analysis and in developing a vision on women’s issues.

Question 1.
State the role of Pramila Dandavate and Vidhya Bal in women’s upliftment.
Answer:
(i) Pramila Dandavate established Mahila Dakshata Samiti in Delhi in 1976.
(ii) Vidya Bal published periodicals like ’Nari Samata Manch’ and ‘Milun Saryajani’.

Question 2.
Where are the women’s study centers located in Maharashtra?
Answer:
Women study centers are located at:

• Shrimati Nathibai Damodar Thakersey Women’s University – Mumbai.
• Tata Institute of Social Sciences – Mumbai.
• Savitribai Phule University – Pune
• Shivaji University – Kolhapur.

Question 3.
Do you think International Beauty Pageants can help in creating awareness about women’s issues? why?
Answer:
Yes, International Beauty Pageants can help in creating global awareness on women’s issues world wide.
The participants in these events come from different cultures and backgrounds, they speak on many subjects affecting women which is covered by international media. Concerns pertaining to women’s political rights have been brought to the notice of the world through these pageants.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
Explain, in detail, the Anti-liquor movement.
Answer:
(i) In 1992, in Andhra Pradesh, a movement was started against the drinking of alcohol. It received a good response in other States too.

(ii) When the head of the household dies an untimely death due to addiction to alcohol, the family faces a serious crisis which affects women the most.

(iii) Due to alcoholism, they have to deal with extreme sorrow and poverty. This movement got the support of the anti-arrack movement in Andhra Pradesh.

(iv) As a result of a government policy, arrack (a locally produced alcohol) dealers set up shop in every town and village.The poor labouring people began to get addicted to alcohol.

(v) At the same time, a literacy programme was being run in the villages of the State. The Sitama Katha (Sita’s story) was narrated as a part of this programme.

(vi) It was a story about Sita who creates awareness among the people of a village and gets alcohol to be banned from the village.

(vii) In 1992, three youths of Dubuganta village of Nellore district in Andhra Pradesh drowned in a lake, in a state of inebriation, and died.

(viii) At this instance, the women of the village came together and forced the closure of arrack shops.

(ix) The report of this news in the local newspapers had its effect on many other villages.

(x) The movement spread to the entire State and the government had to adopt a strict policy against the sale of alcohol.

Question 2.
Explain the term ‘Nomadic’ and ‘De-notified’ Tribes.
Answer:
(i) Castes and tribes that move from place to place for a livelihood, are included under Nomadic Tribes.
(ii) They live by rearing animals and engaging in some other occupations.
(iii) The British had declared some of them as criminal tribes.
(iv) In the Law of 1871 to curb crimes, some of the main groups were mentioned as criminal tribes and their occupations and movements were banned.
(v) This unjust law was repealed in the post¬independence period.
(vi) And the curbs on these tribes were lifted. They were included under De-notified Tribes.
(vii) Special efforts are made by the government for the purpose of their social and economic development.
(viii) These tribes have been given representation in educational institutions and the government sector.

Question 3.
What do you mean by Scheduled Castes?
Answer:
(i) In the post-independence period, our Constitution adopted the values of freedom, equality, fraternity and social justice.
(ii) In accordance with this, the practice of untouchability was banned by law.
(iii) Untouchability was removed by the 17th paragraph of the Constitution and this class was included in the Scheduled Castes.
(iv) In view of the educational and social backwardness of these castes, they were given reservations in education as well as jobs to facilitate their development.

Question 4.
Write a note on the manifestation of woman power.
Answer:
(i) Women, who have to face the brunt of scarcity of supplies and rising prices, gave a show of their strength as an organised entity in 1972.
(ii) Under the leadership of the socialist leader Mrinal Gore, women in Mumbai participated in a demonstration which came to be known as the laatne morcha (the rolling pin demonstration).
(iii) Commodities like oil, ghee, rava, maida, would become scarce just as Diwali was near at hand. Kerosene would become very expensive.
(iv) Women came together brandishing their rolling pins and took part in the demonstration.
(v) This movement met with success and the public got a glimpse of the united power of women.

Observe the pictures and write relevant information about them:

Question 1.

Answer:
(i) A show of constructive women power was seen during the Chipko Movement in 1973. The trees from the forests in the foothills of Himalayas were to be cut down for commercial purposes.
(ii) The important leaders of the Chipko Movement were: Chandiprasad Bhat, Sunderlal Bahuguna, Gaura Devi, Sudesha Devi and Bachani Devi.

Question 2.

Answer:
(i) In 1992, in Andhra Pradesh a movement was started against the drinking of alcohol.
(ii) In 1992, three youths of Dubuganta village of Nellore district in Andhra Pradesh drowned in lake, in a state of inebriation and died. At this instance, the women of the village came together and forced the closure of arrack shops.
(iii) Arrack is a locally produced alcohol. As a result of a government policy arrack dealers set up shop in every town and village.

Question 3.

Answer:
(i) In 1998, the govt passed the Sati (Prevention) Act with very stringent provisions.
(ii) On 4th Sept. 1987, Roop Kanwar a married woman, committed sati. She did not do this of her own free will, she was coerced into doing so.
The women activists and journalists, Meena Menon, Geeta Seshu, Sujata Anandan, Anu Joseph and Kalpana Sharma investigated the case.

Question 4.

Answer:
(i) The Dowry Prohibition Act of 1961 made both giving and taking of dowry a cognizable criminal offence.
(ii) Even after the enactment of the anti-dowry law investigations still revealed dowry to be the most frequent cause of deaths. This created greater awareness. Thus, Dowry Prohibition (Amendment) Act came into force in 1984.

9th Std History Questions And Answers:

• Sources of History Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• India: Events After 1960 Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• India’s Internal Challenges Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Economic Development Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Education Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Empowerment of Women and Other Weaker Sections Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Science and Technology Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Industry and Trade Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Changing Life 1 Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Changing Life 2 Class 9 History Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 1 Sources of History Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Sources of History Class 9 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Class 9 History Chapter 1 Sources of History Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

History Class 9 Chapter 1 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. A Choose the right option and rewrite the sentence.

Class 9 History Chapter 1 Sources Of History Questions And Answers  Question 1.
The National Archives of India is situated at ______.
(a) Pune
(b) New Delhi
(c) Kolkata
(d) Hyderabad
Answer:
(b) New Delhi

Sources of History Class 9 History Chapter 1 Question 2.
The _______ is included among the Audio -Visual media.
(a) Newspaper
(b) Television
(c) All India Radio
(d) Periodicals
Answer:
(b) Television

Question 3.
______ is not included in physical sources.
(a) Coins
(b) Ornaments
(c) Buildings
(d) Proverbs
Answer:
(d) Proverbs

B. Identify the wrong pair and rewrite the corrected one:

Question 1.
(1) Jal Cooper – Philatelist
(2) Kusumagraj – Poet
(3) Anna Bhau Sathe – People’s bard
(4) Amar Shaikh – Art Collector
Answer:
Amar Shaikh – Art Collector

2. Write Short Notes:

Question 1.
Written Sources
Answer:
(i) Any historical document written by hand or typed or in printed form is called written sources.
(ii) The following are included in written sources: Newspapers, Periodicals, Diaries, Reference books, Correspondence, Document in the Archives, Government Gazettes, Postage Stamps, and Encyclopedias.

Question 2.
Press Trust of India (PTI)
Answer:
(i) After 1953, the Press Trust of India has been an important source of primary details of all important events and of articles on important subjects.

(ii) Press Trust of India has provided reports, photographs and articles on financial and scientific issues to newspapers. PTI has now started its online service.

(iii) During the 1990s, PTI started using the ‘satellite broadcast’ technology instead of teleprinters to send news all over the country.

(iv) This material is important for writing the history of modern India.

3. Give reasons:

Question 1.
The postal department tries to preserve the heritage and integrity of Indian culture through postage stamps.
Answer:
(i) Postage stamps reveal a lot to us about changing times due to the variety in the sizes of the stamps, the novelty in their subjects and colour schemes.

(ii) The Postal Department issues postage stamps on a wide variety of themes.

(iii) It issues stamps on political leaders, flowers, animals, birds, an event, or the silver, golden, diamond jubilees or centenary, bicentenary and tercentenary of different events.

(iv) It is therefore, a valuable repository of history.

(v) Thus the postal department tries to preserve the heritage and integrity of Indian culture through postage stamps.

Question 2.
Audio-visual media are an important source for writing the history of modem India.
Answer:
(i) Audio-visual means possessing sound and visual content; for example, films and television

(ii) We have channels like History channel and Discovery channel which telecast footage of historical events in multimedia.

(iii) With the help of satellites, live coverage of all political, social and cultural events is possible across the globe. This helps to create an accountable repository for future reference as well.

(iv) Video libraries possess a vast storage of historical information in audio-visual mode which becomes handy in writing the history of modem India.

Class 9 History Chapter 1 Sources of History Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
Information and Broadcasting Department published ______, an annual reference book.
(a) India 2000
(b) Incredible India
(c) Indian Horizon
(d) Aspiring India
Answer:
(a) India 2000

Question 2.
The place where historical documents are _______.
preserved is called
(a) Library
(b) Store Room
(c) Archives
(d) History Room
Answer:
(c) Archives

Question 3.
Newspapers are considered the _______ pillar of democracy.
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
Answer:
(d) Fourth

Question 4.
_____ has also produced various documentaries on prominent social leaders, on people who have made major contributions and about important locations in India.
(a) British Broadcasting Corporation (BBC)
(b) Reuters
(c) Indian News Review
(d) Bloomberg
Answer:
(c) Indian News Review

Question 5.
Aavahan is written on the backdrop of Sino- Indian war by the noted Marathi poet _____.
(a) Narayan Gupte
(b) Kusumagraj
(c) G.D. Madgulkar
(d) Namdeo Dhasal
Answer:
(b) Kusumagraj

Question 6.
Cooper edited _______.
(a) India’s Stamp Journal
(b) Indian Philatelic Magazine
(c) Stamp Synopsis
(d) The Journal of Philatelic Bureau
Answer:
(a) India’s Stamp Journal

Question 7.
After 1953, the ____ has been an important source of primary details of all important events.
(a) Union Trust of India
(b) Press Trust of India
(c) Information and Broadcasting Ministry
(d) Film and Television Institute of India
Answer:
(b) Press Trust of India

Question 8.
Duringthe 1990s, PTI started using ____ technology instead of Teleprinters.
(a) GPS Device
(b) Ultrasonic Gadget
(c) Radio Programming
(d) Satellite Broadcast
Answer:
(d) Satellite Broadcast

Question 9.
The Government of India started the Film and Television Institute of India at Pune in 1960 with the purpose of providing _______.
(a) Entertainment
(b) Public Education
(c) International updates
(d) Intra-societal information
Answer:
(b) Public Education

Question 10.
The Indian government issued the ______ stamp in 1977.
(a) Narsee Monjee
(b) Jal Cooper
(c) Birsa Munda
(d) Senapati Bapat
Answer:
(b) Jal Cooper

Question 11.
The Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Museum is at ________.
(a) Delhi
(b) Mumbai
(c) Kolkata
(d) Chennai
Answer:
(b) Mumbai

Question 12.
The ______ issues postage stamps on a wide variety of themes.
(a) Publications Division
(b) Postal Department
(c) Income Tax Department
(d) Revenue Department
Answer:
(b) Postal Department

Question 13.
______ prints the notes.
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) Union Bank of India
(c) Philatelic Bureau of India
(d) State Bank of India
Answer:
(a) Reserve Bank of India

Question 14.
Empire of India Philatelic Society was founded by ______.
(a) Pherozeshah Mehta
(b) Mahzarin Banaji
(c) Jal Cooper
(d) Dinshaw Patel
Answer:
(c) Jal Cooper

Question 15.
PTI has provided reports, photographs and articles on ___ issues to newspapers.
(a) Therapeutic
(b) Financial and scientific
(c) Demographic and Topographic
(d) Environmental
Answer:
(b) Financial and scientific

Identify and write the wrong pair in the following sets:

Question 1.
(1) Powada – Oral sources
(2) Documentaries – Audio Visual Sources
(3) Coins – Material Sources
(4) Owis – Archaeological Sources
Answer:
Owis – Archaeological Sources

Question 2.
(1) India 2000 – Annual Reference book
(2) Indian News Review – News reels and documentariess.
(3) FTII – Radio Programmes
(4) Reserve Bank of India – Printing notes
Answer:
FTII – Radio Programmes

Question 3.
(1) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Museum – Mumbai
(2) Reserve Bank Museum – Pune
(3) National Archives of India – Calcutta
(4) Film and Television Institute of India – Pune
Answer:
National Archives of India – Calcutta

Do as directed.
Complete the concept map:

Question 1.
Answer:

Question 2.
Answer:

Question 3.
Answer:

Question 4.
Answer:

Write short notes:

Question 1.
Coins
Answer:
(i) We can also understand history with the help of coins and the changes in the printing of currency notes.
(ii) The Reserve Bank of India prints the notes. It has its headquarters in Mumbai.
(iii) The coins from 1950 to those used at present, the metals used for making them, their different shapes, and the diversity of subjects on them together help us to understand the important contemporary issues in India; For example coins to convey the message of population control and coins communicating the importance of agriculture and of farmers.

Question 2.
Jal Cooper
Ans
(i) The Indian government issued the ‘Jal Cooper’ stamp in 1977. Jal Cooper was an internationally acclaimed philatelist, i.e. an expert on the subject of ‘postage stamps’.
(ii) Bom in a Parsi household in Mumbai, Cooper edited ‘India’s Stamp Journal’.
(iii) He was the founder of the first Philatelic Bureau in India, an office that collected stamps. He founded the ‘Empire of India Philatelic Society.
(iv) He went on to write many books on this subject. He gave a scientific bent to his hobby.
(v) He played a pivotal role in taking the study of Indian postage stamps to the international level.
(vi) Having started his career as a postage stamp collector, Cooper achieved the expertise of a philatelist at the international level.
(vii) The postage stamp on Jal Cooper is an important source to understand his significant contribution to this field.

Explain the statements with reason:

Question 1.
Museums reflect the unique heritage of a state.
Answer:
(i) All states of India have museums that depict the characteristics and display the cultural and social heritage of the state.
(ii) They enable us to understand history; For example, the Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Museum at Mumbai and the Reserve Bank Museum in Pune city.
(iii) Apart from the Government Museums, some private collectors also set up their own museums.
(iv) They are based on distinctive subjects; For example, coins, notes, lamps and nutcrackers in different shapes, cricket equipment, etc.

Read the passage and answer the questions.

The Indian government issued the ‘Jal Cooper’ stamp in 1977. Jal Cooper was an internationally acclaimed philatelist, i.e. an expert on the subject of ‘postage , stamps’. Bom in a Parsi household in Mumbai, Cooper edited ‘India’s Stamp Journal’. He was the founder of the first Philatelic Bureau in India, an , office that collected stamps. He founded the ‘Empire of India Philatelic Society’. He went on to write many , books on this subject. He gave a scientific bend to his , hobby. He played a pivotal role in taking the study of Indian postage stamps to the international level, , Having started his career as a postage stamp collector, Cooper achieved the expertise of a philatelist at the international level. The postage stamp on Jal Cooper , is an important source to understand his significant ,contribution to this field.

Question 1.
Other than Philatelies which other streams of vocation deal with sources of history?
Answer:
Other than Philatelies, other streams of vocation which deal with sources of history are: Numismatics, Museology and Archaeology.

Question 2.
Name the two institution founded by Jal Cooper.
Answer:
Two institutions founded by Jal Cooper are:

(i) The First Philatelic Bureau in India.
(ii) Empire of India Philatelic Society.

Question 3.
Why do you think the government of India issued a postage stamp in the name of Jal Cooper?
Answer:
Jal Cooper is accredited to raise Indian Philatelies to an international level. He nurtured his hobby with great expertise and became a renowned Postage Stamp Collector. To honour his contribution, the government of India issued a postage stamp in his name in 1977.

Answer the following questions in detail.

Question 1.
Which information among print media is considered authentic and trustworthy?
Answer:
Among the print media, the information contained in the annual issues of the Publications Division of the Government of India is authentic and trustworthy.
(ii) For example, the Information and Broadcasting Department published ‘INDIA 2000’, an annual reference book.
(iii) ‘ This reference book is created under ‘Research, Reference and Training Department’.

Question 2.
Which sources are included in material sources?
Answer:
The following sources are included in material sources:

• Coins
• Places of worship
• Things in daily use
• Royal seals
• Ornaments
• Museums
• Clothing
• Modern architecture.

Question 3.
Write in brief about museums in India.
Answer:
(i) All states of India have museums that depict the characteristics and display the cultural and social heritage of the state.
(ii) They enable us to understand history (e.g., the Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Museum at Mumbai, Reserve Bank Museum in Pune city).
(iii) Apart from the Government Museums, some private collectors also set up their own museums.
(iv) They are based on distinctive subjects; For example, coins, notes, lamps and nutcrackers in different shapes, cricket equipment, etc.

Question 4.
Write briefly about ‘Indian News Review’.
Answer:
(i) An institute called Indian News Review has produced various newsreels on important events in politics, social issues, art, sports and culture.
(ii) This department has also produced various documentaries on prominent social leaders, on people who have made major contributions for the country and about important locations in India.
(iii) These news releases and documentaries are useful for studying the history of modern India.

Question 5.
Oral Sources
Answer:
(i) These sources include folktales, folksongs, proverbs, ballads and owis (Marathi verses in the oral tradition).
(ii) Activists were inspired by the powadas of Lok shahir, Anna Bhau Sathe and Shahir Amar Sheikh during the Sanyukta Maharashtra Movement.

Question 6.
Identify the picture and give relevant information.

Answer:

• The person depicted in the picture is Jal Cooper, an internationally acclaimed philatelist from India.
• Cooper edited ‘India’s stamp Journal’. He was the founder of the First Philatelic Bureau in India, an office that collected stamps. He founded the ‘Empire of India Philatelic Society’.
• The Government of India issued the Jal Cooper Stamp in 1977.

9th Std History Questions And Answers:

• Sources of History Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• India: Events After 1960 Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• India’s Internal Challenges Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Economic Development Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Education Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Empowerment of Women and Other Weaker Sections Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Science and Technology Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Industry and Trade Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Changing Life 1 Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Changing Life 2 Class 9 History Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 6 International Problems Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

International Problems Class 9 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Class 9 Political Science Chapter 6 International Problems Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Political Science Class 9 Chapter 6 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. Choose the right option and rewrite the sentence:

Question 1.
Which among the following is an International problem?
(a) Border dispute between Maharashtra and Karnataka
(b) Kaveri water sharing question
(c) Problems of refugees
(d) Naxalism in Andhra Pradesh
Answer:
(c) Problems of refugees

Question 2.
Which among the following rights are not included in human rights?
(a) Right to work
(b) Right to information
(c) Children’s rights
(d) Equal pay for equal work
Answer:
(b) Right to information

Question 3.
Which among the following days is observed at an international level?
(a) Teachers’ Day
(b) Children’s Day
(c) Earth Day
(d) Flag Day
Answer:
(c) Earth Day

2. Explain with reasons whether the following statements are true or false:

Question 1.
It is necessary that all the nations should cooperate in order to find remedies of environmental degradation.
Answer:
True.

• The threat to the environment caused by pollution or by leakage of oil or gas does not remain restricted to one nation.
• Its effects are long term so it becomes necessary for nations to act with each other’s consent and cooperation in order to deal with these effects.

Question 2.
Sino-Indian relations are friendly.
Answer:
False.
The conflict between India and China is connected to two issues

• Border issue and
• Status of Tibet. India made several efforts to sort this border dispute by means of dialogue. But it has not met with much success.

3. Complete the following chart:

Question 1.
Human Rights

Answer:

Question 2.
Degradation of the Environment

Answer:

Question 3.
Terrorism

Answer:

4. Prepare the following concept map:

Question 1.

Answer:

5. Write your own opinion about :

Question 1.
Explain India’s position in establishing human rights.
Answer:
(i) The Preamble of the Indian Constitution contains the objectives of the Constitution.

(ii) It secures to its citizens: justice, social, economic and political; Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship; Equality of status and opportunity; and Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual and unity and integrity of the Nation.

(iii) Fundamental Rights are assured to all the citizens of India.

(iv) In order to make these objectives effective, Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy were incorporated in Part III and Part IV of our Constitution.

(v) The Supreme Court of India and the High Courts of all states issue Writs, such as:

• Habeas Corpus
• Mandamus
• Prohibition
• Certiorari
• Quo Warranto to protect human rights.

Question 2.
Narrate the effects of terrorism and suggest remedies to control it.
Answer:
(i) The 21st century terrorism is an organised system of violence and intimidation. There is a need to empathise, understand, cooperate and coordinate our efforts in dealing with terrorism at the national and international level.

(ii) Terrorism includes taking hostages; firing or bombing civilian localities that are undefended such as hospitals or schools, inhuman treatment to prisoners and destruction of property.

(iii) This leads to feeling of insecurity and helplessness among the people who are prone to terrorism. Their faith in social security and police protection is lowered and they may be psychologically affected.

(iv) Terrorism affects economic growth, political stability and social welfare of the people. It burdens our defence and police system as well. Hence the government cannot focus on its constructive programmes.

(v) Citizens should be alert about unattended luggage or bags at public places and be vigilant about suspicious men around them. They must immediately report to the authorities about the same.

(vi) The youth of the nation should volunteer in police and armed forces. The civilians must always cooperate with the police and government authorities to nab the terrorists.

Class 9 Political Science Chapter 6 International Problems Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
United Nations Conference on human environment was called at Stockholm from ________.
(a) 5th to 16th June, 1972
(b) 5th to 16th July, 1972
(c) 5th to 16th June, 1971
(d) 5th to 16th July 1971
Answer:
5th to 16th June, 1972

Question 2.
The United Nations General Assembly adopted the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR) in ______.
(a) 1948
(b) 1966
(c) 1964
(d) 1962
Answer:
1966

Question 3.
In 1997, the conference at Kyoto laid down the protocols for the developed countries for preventing climate change. For how many years did it come to be applied?
(a) 10 years
(b) 12 years
(c) 15 years
(d) 16 years
Answer:
15 years

Question 4.
How many Articles are there in the United Nations Declaration of Human Rights?
(a) 30
(b) 20
(c) 40
(d) 50
Answer:
30

Question 5.
When was the Declaration of the Rights of Child proclaimed?
(a) 30th November 1959
(b) 20th November 1959
(c) 20th December 1959
(d) 30th December 1959
Answer:
20th November 1959

Question 6.
When was the first Earth Day celebrated?
(a) 21st April, 1970
(b) 22nd April, 1970
(c) 23rd April, 1970
(d) 20th April, 1970
Answer:
22nd April, 1970

Question 7.
What led to the boycott of the regime in South Africa?
(a) Expatriation of Prisoners of War
(b) Racial Segregation
(c) Disobedience of the UN
(d) Asylum to international terrorists
Answer:
Racial Segregation

Question 8.
Which conference in 1997 laid down the protocols for developed countries for prevention of climatic changes?
(a) Conference at Copenhagen
(b) Conference at Amsterdam
(c) Conference at Kyoto
(d) Conference at Shimla
Answer:
Conference at Kyoto

Question 9.
Which institute/organisation is responsible for taking action against violation of human rights?
(a) Self Help Groups and NGOs
(b) Human Rights Commission
(c) Corporate bodies
(d) National Investigation Agency
Answer:
Human Rights Commission

State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons:

Question 1.
Human rights are necessary for living as a human being.
Answer:
True.
The concept of human rights has emerged from the concept of natural rights. Natural rights are those rights that we are endowed with because we are bom as human beings. In the same vein, human rights are those rights that are necessary for living as a human being.

Question 2.
The scope of human rights is limited.
Answer:
False.
The scope of human rights has in fact, broadened due to several issues of global nature like contagious diseases, the threat to environment, natural disasters, etc. Human rights today also include goals like protection of the environment and sustainable development.

Question 3.
Only internal security is threatened due to terrorist attacks.
Answer:
False.
The aim of a terrorist attack is not to endanger the geographical boundaries, but to challenge a regime in a country or refuse to acknowledge the existence of the State. This means that due to increasing terrorism, the internal security of a country is threatened in addition to its external security.

Question 4.
Once the refugees reach a safe place, they have new challenges.
Answer:
True.
Once the refugees reach a safe place, they need to find work, a place to live and other problems of a day to day nature. If the language and culture in the other nation are different, then adjusting to that poses difficulties. There is also no assurance that the people of a nation which gives shelter to the refugees will accept them.

Explain the concept:

Question 1.
Human Rights
Answer:
The concept of human rights has emerged from the concept of natural rights. Natural rights are those rights that we are endowed with because we are born as human beings. Human rights are those rights that are necessary for living as a human being and as a constituent of society.

Question 2.
Refugees
Answer:
People who have to leave their motherland against their wishes or are forced to go to other nations, seeking refuge or for security are called as refugees. People become refugees due to torture or persecution for belonging to a particular race or religion, due to war or a disaster, etc. In such situations people are forced to leave their own country and seek shelter in another country.

Question 3.
Terrorism
Answer:
Terrorism is spreading fear and terror in a society by using or threatening to use violence against common and innocent people for achieving political goals. Terrorism can be described as organised and planned violence.

Question 4.
Traditional War
Answer:
Traditional war is a conflict between two or more sovereign states. In such wars, the geographical boundaries between nations acquire importance, i.e. national security is connected with geographical boundaries.

Question 5.
Stockholm Conference 1972.
Answer:
(i) In order to discuss the immediate and long term problems related to the environment and to find solutions on them, a United Nations Conference on human environment was called at Stockholm from 5th to 16th June, 1972.

(ii) It was stressed that it is the responsibility of all nations to cooperate to overcome pollution.

(iii) The developing nations feel that the developed nations are more responsible for the decline of the environment and they should take the responsibility for stopping the decline.

(iv) Non-governmental organisations working in the field of environmental protection were also present and assumed a bigger role in the decision making process at international conferences regarding the environment.

(v) The issue of the protection of the common global wealth was raised.

(vi) A consensus emerged that it was the responsibility of all the nations to protect these resources.

(vii) It was after this conference that the United Nations created the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).

(viii) Many international treaties about environment were signed after this conference.

(ix) Several rules were made about the protection of environment. Environmental movements started on a large scale at national as well as at the international level.

Complete the following Chart/Concept Maps:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
Which difficulties are faced by people who are forced to leave their own country?
Answer:
(i) When people of any country are forced to leave their own country as refugees, they have to face many problems.

(ii) The most important problem is to decide where to go. They have questions like will that nation give us shelter.

(iii) Secondly, they have to also take along with them other members of their family. It involves a lot of physical and emotional stress.

(iv) Apart from this, there are problems caused by natural elements like heat, rain, storms, as well as shortages of food, sickness, an enemy in pursuit, etc. In this process, many people lose their lives.

Question 2.
What was the Stockholm Conference of 1972 about?
Answer:
In order to discuss the immediate and long-term problems related to the environment and to find solutions to them, a United Nations Conference on human-environment was called at Stockholm from 5th to 16th June 1972.

Question 3.
What are the new challenges faced by refugees on reaching a safe place?
Answer:
(i) Once the refugees reach a safe place, they have new challenges. They need to find work, a place to live and other problems of a day to day nature.

(ii) If the language and culture in the other nation are different, then adjusting to that poses difficulties. There is no assurance that the people in the nation which gives shelter to the refugees will accept them.

Question 4.
What did the Environmental Conference of Rio (1992) emphasise on?
Answer:
(i) In this conference, the idea of sustainable development was stressed upon.

(ii) Different treaties regarding bio-diversity, climate change due to greenhouse gases, protection of forests, etc. were signed.

Question 5.
State the highlights of the conference on climatic change at Paris (2015).
Answer:
(i) A conference on climate change was held at Paris in November 2015.

(ii) An appeal was made in this conference that all nations should make concerted efforts to stop climate change and global warming and that the developed countries should help the developing countries to acquire the technology to achieve these goals.

Question 6.
What measures have been taken so far to save the refugees?
Answer:
(i) In 1951, some provisions were made regarding the question of refugees at the international level. One such provision was that the refugees will not be forcefully sent back to their country against their wishes.

(ii) Similarly an office of the High Commissioner of the United Nations has been established to solve their problems.

Question 7.
Give some examples of refugees.
Answer:
(i) Before the Second World War, the Jews were tortured in Germany.

(ii) Their citizenships and properties were confiscated. Due to this, the Jews became refugees.

(iii) In 1971, the people in East Pakistan turned refugees and came to India seeking refuge due to political and religious persecution.

(iv) In the last few years due to the war-like situation in Iraq and Syria, a lot of people are leaving Syria as refugees. We can cite many such example of refugees.

Question 8.
Which problems are faced by the host nation that agrees to provide shelter to the refugees?
Answer:
(i) As the number of refugees increases, the strain on the economy of the host nation increases. A shortage of essential goods is created; there may be an increase in crime or even inflation.

(ii) The locals may lose their jobs; a problem of law and order may crop up. Many such problems may emerge.

(iii) Due to these problems, many nations are not ready to give shelter to refugees and to resettle them.

Question 9.
Which steps can be taken for preservation of human rights?
Answer:
(i) If all nations safeguarded and fostered human rights, exploitation and violence would reduce. All people would be able to achieve their own development safely and securely.

(ii) Human rights could be more effectively implemented if the environment is safeguarded and if terrorism is completely wiped out.

(iii) No group of people will have to become refugees. For this, all nations have to come together, cooperate with each other, take concrete action and bring about actual change.

Question 10.
Many nations are not ready to give shelter to refugees. Why?
Answer:
Many nations are not prepared to give shelter to refugees because:

• As the number of refugees increases, the strain on the economy of the host nation increases.
• A shortage of essential goods is created; there may be an increase in crime or even inflation.
• The locals may lose their jobs; a problem of law and order may crop up.
• Many such problems may emerge.

Question 11.
The problems relating to the environment are inherently of a global nature. How?
Answer:
(i) The threat to the environment caused by pollution or by leakage of oil or gas does not remain restricted to one nation.

(ii) The visible effects of the decline of environment are extinction of species of plants and animals, decrease in the fertility of soil, water shortage, fluctuation in the proportion of rainfall, global warming, drying up of rivers and lakes, pollution of rivers and seas, incidence of newer diseases, acid rain, thinning of the ozone layer, etc.

(iii) Even if some of the effects are restricted to particular nations, these problems reach global proportions due to their long term effects, while some problems are inherently of a global nature.

Question 12.
How is terrorist war different from traditional war?
Answer:
(i) Terrorist conflict is different from traditional war.

(ii) Traditional war is a conflict between two or more sovereign states.

(iii) In such wars, the geographical boundaries between nations acquire importance, i.e. national security is connected with geographical boundaries.

(iv) On the other hand, in the case of terrorism, terrorist groups can cause violence in any part of the world from anywhere in the world.

(v) The aim of a terrorist attack is not to endanger the geographical boundaries, but to challenge a regime in a country or refuse to acknowledge the existence of the state.

9th Std Political Science Questions And Answers:

• Post World War Political Developments Class 9 Political Science Questions And Answers
• India’s Foreign Policy Class 9 Political Science Questions And Answers
• India’s Defence System Class 9 Political Science Questions And Answers
• The United Nations Class 9 Political Science Questions And Answers
• India and Other Countries Class 9 Political Science Questions And Answers
• International Problems Class 9 Political Science Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 10 Changing Life 2 Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Changing Life 2 Class 9 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Class 9 History Chapter 10 Changing Life 2 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

History Class 9 Chapter 10 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. Choose the proper option and rewrite the completed sentences:

Question 1.
India won the cricket world cup under the captainship of ______.
(a) Sunil Gavaskar
(b) Kapil Dev
(c) Sayyad Kirmani
(d) Sandip Patil
Answer:
(b) Kapil Dev

Question 2.
The _____ language is gaining importance in India due to the process of globalisation.
(a) Punjabi
(b) French
(c) English
(d) Hindi
Answer:
(c) English

2. Complete the information in the following table:

Question 1.

(1)	Important languages in India	…………
(2)	Players who have won medals at the Olympic games	……………
(3)	Childrens’ movies that you have seen	……………
(4)	Names of channels telecasting various news bulletins	……………..

Answer:

(1)	Important languages in India	Marathi, Hindi, Gujarati
(2)	Players who have won medals at the Olympic games	Karnam Malleswari, Abhinav Bindra, P.V. Sindhu
(3)	Childrens’ movies that you have seen	The Lion King, Minions, Finding Nemo etc.
(4)	Names of channels telecasting various news bulletins	DD News, CNN, ABP News

3. Give reasons for the following statements:

Question 1.
Cricket began to be played all over India, to a greater or smaller extent.
Answer:
Cricket began to be played all over India, to a greater or smaller extent because:-

• In 1983, the Indian team won the World Cup for cricket, under the captainship of Kapil Dev. It was a historic victory.
• Cricket instantly won great popularity across the country.
• In the same year, Sunil Gavaskar broke the earlier record of maximum centuries in test cricket.
• In 1985, India won the ‘Benson and Hedges’ World Championship of cricket. As a result, cricket came to be played in all States to a lesser or greater extent, but at the cost of indigenous Indian games.

Question 2.
The economy of movies is changing.
Answer:
(i) Movies in foreign languages are now translated. Even during the screening of English movies, a short Hindi translation now appears on the screen as sub-titles.

(ii) Hindi movies now compete with ‘global’ movies as they have reached every nook and comer of the world. We see a reflection of politics, social events, industry and technology in the movies.

(iii) Movies which were 3-4 hours long are now of only one or one and a half hours. Moreover, the concept of one screen and one cinema hall has given way to multiplexes.

(iv) The days of a movie running for 100 weeks in one cinema hall are over. Now one movie runs in thousands of cinema halls in India and abroad simultaneously.

(v) This development has changed the economy of movies. Production of movies has attained the status of industry.

(vi) The industry now employs crores of people. The movie industry in regional languages is also thriving.
Therefore the economy of movies is changing.

4. Answer the following questions in 25-30 words:

Question 1.
Why is it necessary to keep alive the dialects of Indian languages?
Answer:
(i) Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannad, Kashmiri, Malayalam, Marathi, Odiya, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu, Konkani,
Manipuri, Nepali and Sindhi are the official languages in India.
(ii) These Indian languages also have dialects, but their number is now on the decline.
(iii) Timely steps should be taken to nurture them, otherwise we will lose an important part of our heritage.
(iv) Nevertheless, Hindi, which has reached everywhere through the medium of Hindi movies, has served to unite the country by language.

Question 2.
Elaborate upon the changing scope of newspapers.
Answer:
(i) During early post-independence period, the newspapers were expected to not only give the news of daily events, but also give impetus to industry and commerce by printing advertisements.

(ii) Earlier, newspapers were black and white. With the changing times, colour printing became common.

(iii) Earlier, newspapers were thought to be the mouthpieces of the taluka or district. Now they have to face tough competition from the State level newspaper chains. But on the whole, newspapers are now becoming more active.

(iv) Their scope has enlarged to include raising funds for drought affected and flood affected people, helping meritorious students from lower income groups to go for higher education and organizing or sponsoring cultural programmes. This is how newspapers have now become an inseparable part of our lives.

Question 3.
What changes have taken place in the medium of television?
Answer:
(i) Television came to India during the post-independence period. Earlier it was black and white. Now it is coloured. Earlier it was limited to some selected programmes and fixed time-slots.

(ii) Gradually its scope was enlarged to include educational programmes, news bulletins, detailed reporting of the tours of the President and the Prime Minister.

(iii) During the telelcast of Ramayana and Mahabharat, a majority of the people used to sit glued to the television set. These serials proved the popularity of this medium. Then in 1991, CNN channel showed to the entire world a live visual reporting of the Iraq war.

(iv) In 1998, STAR (Satellite Television Asia Region) a private media house entered India, and the uninteresting, monotonous and propagandist news telecasts of the early period underwent a sea change.

(v) The language, the technique of presentation, studios equipped with the latest technology and the use of OB (outdoor broadcasting) vans have expanded the scope of Indian T.V. channels still further, and brought in transparency and variety. Now, every nook and corner of the country is connected.

Class 9 History Chapter 10 Changing Life 2 Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
_____ won the national championship of billiards for teenagers at the age of 15.
(a) Milkha Singh
(b) Rafael Nadal
(c) Geet Sethi
(d) Prakash Padukone
Answer:
(c) Geet Sethi

Question 2.
In________ STAR (Satellite Television Asia Region) a private media house entered India.
(a) 1995
(b) 1996
(c) 1997
(d) 1998
Answer:
(d) 1998

Question 3.
In 1991, _______ showed to the entire world a live visual reporting of the Iraq War.
(a) CNN
(b) CNBC
(c) HBO
(d) NDTV
Answer:
(a) CNN

Question 4.
The Kohima Radio station had to make its broadcast in __________ languages which included English, Hindi and Naga dialects.
(a) 28
(b) 26
(c) 24
(d) 25
Answer:
(d) 25

Identify and write the wrong pair in the following sets:

Question 1.
(1) Karnam Malleshwari – Weight lifting
(ii) Sunil Gavaskar – Ace Indian Cricketer
(iii) CNN – Iraq War
(iv) Star Television – Sponsoring cultural programmes
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Star Television – Sponsoring cultural programmes

Question 2.
(i) Kapil Dev -1983 World Cup
(ii) Geet Sethi – Benson and Hedges
(iii) Karnam Malleshwari – First woman to win a medal at Olympics
(iv) Sunil Gavaskar – Maximum centuries in test cricket
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Geet Sethi – Benson and Hedges

Question 3.
(i) India won Cricket World Cup – 1983
(ii) Karnam Malleshwari won a medal at Olympics – 2000 ’
(iii) Live telecast of Iraq War -1991
(iv) Star T.V. entered India -1992
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Star T.V. entered India -1992

Do as directed:

Question 1.
Complete the following concept:

Answer:

Explain the statements with reason.

Question 1.
Hindi Movies have reached every nook and corner of the world.
Answer:
(i) In the field of entertainment, the place of Hindi movies is incomparable.
(ii) Now movies reflect contemporary themes. Film shooting locales have moved abroad.
(iii) So, viewers can now see many different places in foreign countries. Movies in foreign languages are now translated.
(iv) During the screening of English movies, a short Hindi translation now appears on the screen as sub-titles.
(v) Hindi movies now compete with ‘global’ movies as they have reached every nook and corner of the world.

Read the following passage and answer the questions:

Sports: During the pre-independence period, only a few selected games were known to people in general. Some sports persons changed this situation. This enhanced the status of both – the sports, and the sportspersons. For example, Geet Sethi achieved , global excellence in snooker, a variation of billiards. He won the national championship of billiards for teenagers at the age of 15. Later, he went on to win national and international championships. At the , global level, he won the amateur billiards competition thrice, and the professional one five times. His success made the game popular, and newspapers began to report news about billiards. Thus he made a new field available to rising sportspersons in India, It was in 1983, that the Indian team won the World , Cup for cricket, under the captainship of Kapil Dev. It was a historic victory. Cricket instantly won great , popularity across the country. In the same year, ‘Sunil Gavaskar broke the earlier record of maximum centuries in test cricket. In 1985, India won the ‘Benson and Hedges’ World Championship of cricket. As a , result, cricket came to be played in all States to a lesser or greater extent, but at the cost of indigenous Indian games. A few movies were also produced around the , theme of cricket. Live telecasts of the full five days or , one day of the matches also became available.
India had been participating in Asiad and Olympic of year 2000, Karnam Malleshwari won a medal for, weight-lifting. She was the first Indian woman to win , a medal at the Olympics. India’s representation began to rise in various Olympic games such as hockey, badminton, tennis, swimming, weightlifting and archery.

Question 1.
Which two cricket tournaments mentioned in the passage records a victory for India?
Answer:
World Cup 1983 and Benson and Hedges -1985 are the two tournaments mentioned in the passage that recorded victory for India.

Question 2.
Who was the first Indian woman to win a medal at the Olympics? Which sport did she represent?
Answer:
Karnam Malleshwari was the first Indian Women to win a medal for India at Olympic. She represented India in Women’s Weight Lifting.

Question 3.
Why do you think cricket has overshadowed other indigenous Indian Games?
Answer:
Cricket was introduced in India by the British. In the post independence period this game was mostly played by the elite. In times to come, cricket gained glamour and popularity across the nation gradually giving a setback to other indigenous games in India. Since cricketers received more professional coaching, funding and infrastructural facilities as compared to players of other games, it became inevitable that other games in India were overshadowed.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
Do you think English has threatened our indigenous languages? How?
Answer:
(i) Hindi, which has reached everywhere through the medium of Hindi movies, has served to unite the country by language.
(ii) However, English language has been gaining ground in India due to the process of globalisation which began after 1990.
(iii) English opens the doors to multiple job opportunities. Moreover, Indians are at the forefront in learning English.
(iv) However, it is necessary to ensure that this process does not endanger the very existence of regional languages.

Question 2.
Explain the contribution of Geet Sethi and Kamam Malleswari to the field of sports.
Answer:
(i) Geet Sethi:

• Geet Sethi achieved global excellence in snooker, a variation of billiards.
• He won the national championship of billiards for teenagers at the age of 15.
• Later, he went on to win national and international championships.
• At the global level, he won the amateur billiards competition thrice, and the professional one five times.
• His success made the game popular, and newspapers began to report news about billiards.

(ii) Karnam Malleswari: At the Olympics of the year 2000, Karnam Malleswari won a medal for weightlifting. She was the first Indian woman to win a medal at the Olympics.

9th Std History Questions And Answers:

• Sources of History Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• India: Events After 1960 Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• India’s Internal Challenges Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Economic Development Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Education Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Empowerment of Women and Other Weaker Sections Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Science and Technology Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Industry and Trade Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Changing Life 1 Class 9 History Questions And Answers
• Changing Life 2 Class 9 History Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 3 India’s Defence System Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

India’s Defence System Class 9 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Class 9 Political Science Chapter 3 India’s Defence System Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Political Science Class 9 Chapter 3 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. Choose the right option and rewrite the sentence:

Question 1.
The ______ of India is the Commander-in-Chief of all the Defence forces.
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Defence Minister
(d) Governor
Answer:
(a) President

Question 2.
The ______ has the responsibility of protecting the coastline.
(a) Army
(b) Coast guard
(c) Border Security Force
(d) Rapid Action Force
Answer:
(b) Coast guard

Question 3.
The _______ has been established with the purpose of instilling among students the love of discipline and military training.
(a) Border Security Forces (BSF)
(b) Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF)
(c) National Cadet Corps (NCC)
(d) Rapid Action Force (RAF)
Answer:
(c) National Cadet Corps (NCC)

2. Explain with reasons whether the following statements are true or false:

Question 1.
It is necessary to end terrorism to ensure human security.
Answer:
True.

• The biggest challenge to human security is that of terrorism.
• Terrorism targets common, innocent people.
• It aims at creating terror or fear in their minds, so that they begin to feel insecure.
• Thus, in order to protect human security, it is necessary to put an end to terrorism.

Question 2.
Every nation creates a strong security system for itself.
Answer:
True.

• National Security is closely connected with geography because national security is more likely to be endangered by nations who are geographically closer.
• A nation must assess the threat to its geographical boundaries and the source of that threat.
• In order to keep this threat at bay, the nation has to increase its military might.
• The nation has to use modem technology to predict the threat, to build weapon systems and modernize and update the defence forces.

Question 3.
There are no issues of dispute between India and Pakistan.
Answer:
False.

• There are several disputes between India and Pakistan. For example, the Kashmir issue, disputes over river water sharing, the problem of infiltrations, dispute over the border, etc.
• India has continually tried to solve these issues through discussion and negotiations

3. Write short notes:

Question 1.
The functions of the Rapid Action Force
Answer:
The Rapid Action Force performs the task of bringing people’s lives to normalcy by moving in quickly in incidents of the threat to National Security such as bomb blasts or riots.

Question 2.
Human Security
Answer:
(i) In the Post – Cold War period, the concept of National Security changed and became broader. National Security is not just the security of the country but also of the people living in it, because security is ultimately for the people.

(ii) Hence; human security refers to human-centric thinking. In human security, it is expected that human beings should be protected from all sorts of dangers and they should be given the opportunities of education, health and development.

(iii) The concept of human security also includes the idea that a conducive environment should be created for everybody to live a respectable life by overcoming illiteracy, poverty, superstition, backwardness, etc. Human security necessitates the protection of the rights of minorities and weaker sections

Question 3.
Home Guards
Answer:
(i) This organisation was established in the pre-independence period. Citizens can join the Home Guards and assist in the defence of the country.

(ii) Any citizen, man or woman, between the age of 20 and 35 years can join the Home Guards.

(iii) This force has the following tasks: Maintain public security, supply of milk, water and other essential services during riots or strikes, to regulate traffic, to help people at the time of natural disasters like floods, earthquakes, etc.

4. Give your own opinion about:

Question 1.
Which of the forces related to India’s security would you like to join? Why?
Answer:
(i) If given a chance I would like to join the Indian Army.

(ii) India is surrounded by neighbours like Pakistan and China which have posed many threats to India’s territorial security through infiltration and cross-border terrorism.

(iii) The Arfny is thus the most challenging place to be, where service to protect the motherland would be valued the most.

(iv) The determination, discipline and patriotism which are intrinsic virtues of the Indian Army have always inspired me to do my bit for the nation.

(v) The training for physical fitness and the skills of various war operations can be best received through the Indian Army.

(vi) For these reasons I hold the Indian Army as the most sought after career and the ultimate destination of my life.

Question 2.
Give your views on the policy ‘Atoms for Peace’.
Answer:
(i) US nuclear policies had failed to prevent further nuclear proliferation, fuelled the arms race, suppressed the humanitarian benefits of civil nuclear technology and badly affected the development of the US nuclear industry.

(ii) In his “Atoms for Peace” speech of 1953, President Dwight D. Eisenhower captured the tensions and the ironies of the atomic age.

(iii) Eisenhower believed only nuclear preparedness offered protection; while nuclear weapons lead to war. Nuclear power offered progress and hope.

(iv) However, the motives behind Atoms for Peace extended beyond non-proliferation, arms control, and economic interests.

(v) Objective of the Eisenhower Administration was to set USA advantageously against USSR.

(vi) He envisaged to permit privatization and commercialization of fuel technologies, cooperation with foreign partners, and international nuclear commerce.

(vii) Ultimately, Atoms for Peace yielded billions of dollars in civil nuclear commerce for the US economy.

(viii) Atoms for Peace provided political cover for the biggest nuclear arms build-up in US history, and helped fuel the Cold War arms race.

5. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
What are the threats to National Security?
Answer:
(i) India’s security is not only threatened by outside powers, but also from within. It is not just the difference between external security and internal security that is important anymore.

(ii) Religion, regionalism, several rebellious movements based on ideology, race-ethnicity and economic inequality are creating instability. For example, the Naxalite movement is a threat to India’s internal security.

Question 2.
Write the functions of the Border Security Force.
Answer:
The Border Security Force performs tasks like:

• creating a sense of security in the minds of people living in areas near the border,
• preventing smuggling,
• patrolling the border, etc.

6. Do as directed:

Question 1.
Complete the table about security forces:

Name of the Security Forces	Functions	Chief	Name of the Present Chief
Army	………….	……….	………..
……….	………….	Admiral	………….
………….	Protection of India’s air space	…………….	…………..

Answer:

Name of the Security Forces	Functions	Chief	Name of the Present Chief
Army	Protection of geographical boundaries	General	Manoj Mukund Naravane
Navy	Protection of the coast line	Admiral	Karambir Singh
Air Force	Protection of India’s air space	Air Chief Marshall	Rakesh Kumar Sing Bhadavria

Question 2.

Answer:

Class 9 Political Science Chapter 3 India’s Defence System Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
The ______ forces are responsible for protection and security of important locations.
(a) Paramilitary Forces
(b) Research and Analysis Wing
(c) Central Bureau of Investigation
(d) Interpol
Answer:
(a) Paramilitary Forces

Question 2.
The Air Force is in charge of protecting India’s ______.
(a) Borders
(b) Coastline
(c) Airspace
(d) Mineral Resources
Answer:
(c) Airspace

Question 3.
The Indian Army is the world’s ____ largest army.
(a) Second
(b) Fifth
(c) Seventh
(d) Third
Answer:
(c) Seventh

Question 4.
The Chief of Navy is known as ________.
(a) Admiral
(b) General
(c) Marshall
(d) Brigadier
Answer:
(a) Admiral

Question 5.
The National Defence Academy is at ______.
(a) Pune
(b) Dehradun
(c) Mumbai
(d) Delhi
Answer:
(a) Pune

Question 6.
_______ are neither completely military forces nor completely civil forces.
(a) Border Security Forces
(b) Paramilitary Forces
(c) Coast Guards
(d) Home Guards
Answer:
(b) Paramilitary Forces

Question 7.
The biggest challenge to human security is that of ______.
(а) Pollution
(b) Terrorism
(c) Natural calamities
(d) Corruption
Answer:
(b) Terrorism

State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons:

Question 1.
Naxalite Movement is a threat to India’s internal security.
Answer:
True.

• India’s security is not only threatened by outside powers but also from within.
• It is not just the difference between external security and internal security that is important anymore.
• Example naxalite movement is a threat to internal security.

Question 2.
There are no training institutes in our country for military personnel.
Answer:
False.

• Many training institutes have been set up in our country.
• To train military personnel, so that they can perform their task.
• Example – National Defence Academy – Pune

Do as directed:

Question 1.
Complete the table about paramilitary forces.

Paramilitary Forces	Prime Functions
Rapid Action Force	……………
Border Security Force	……………
Coast Guards	……………..
Central Reserve Police Force	……………..
Home Guards	……………
National Cadet Corps	………….

Answer:

Paramilitary Forces	Prime Functions
Rapid Action Force	Bringing life to normalcy after contingencies like blasts and riots.
Border Security Force	Patrolling and securing borders.
Coast Guards	Protecting the Indian maritime borders and preventing smuggling along sea routes.
Central Reserve Police Force	Helps the administration in the states to maintain law and order.
Home Guards	Maintaining public security, essential supplies and services during natural disasters and regulating traffic.
National Cadet Corps	Instilling love of discipline and military training.

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
What kind of conflicts may arise among sovereign nations?
Answer:
(i) There are disputes among nations over boundaries or sometimes conflicts emerge among them over water sharing.

(ii) Some other reasons for conflict could be: not following the terms of international treaties, constantly competing against each other and the influx of refugees from neighbouring countries.

Question 2.
What does the Central Reserve Policy Force do?
Answer:
The Central Reserve Police Force helps the administration in various states to maintain law and order.

Question 3.
Describe the three major armed forces in India.
Answer:
(i) India’s security system includes the Army, the Navy and the Air Force, the three forces that defend the country.

(ii) The responsibility of protecting the geographical boundaries is on the Army, whereas the Navy protects the coastline.

(iii) The Air Force is in charge of protecting India’s air space.

(iv) The Ministry of Defence controls all the three forces.

(v) The Indian Army is very big. It is the world’s seventh-largest. Its Chief is known as the General.

(vi) The Chief of Navy is known as the Admiral, while the Chief of the Air Force is known as Air Chief Marshall. These three chiefs are appointed by the President.

Question 4.
Which measures have been taken to modernize India’s security system?
Answer:
(i) Many measures are taken so that all three defence forces in India’s security system are adequately modernized. For this, some research institutions have been set up.

(ii) Many training institutes have also been set up in our country to train the personnel of all ranks of our defence forces so that they can perform their task competently.

(iii) For example, the National Defence Academy (NDA) at Pune and the National Defence College (NDC) at Delhi, etc.

Question 5.
How do environmental issues threaten human security?
Answer:
(i) Pollution and other changes in the environment have threatened human life. Diseases like AIDS, Chikungunia, Swine flu and Ebola have presented a big challenge.

(ii) Protecting human beings from such diseases is also considered as a factor of human security.

Must Read:

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9th Std Political Science Questions And Answers:

• Post World War Political Developments Class 9 Political Science Questions And Answers
• India’s Foreign Policy Class 9 Political Science Questions And Answers
• India’s Defence System Class 9 Political Science Questions And Answers
• The United Nations Class 9 Political Science Questions And Answers
• India and Other Countries Class 9 Political Science Questions And Answers
• International Problems Class 9 Political Science Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Transport and Communication Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Transport and Communication Class 9 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Class 9 Geography Chapter 11 Transport and Communication Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Geography Class 9 Chapter 11 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. Differentiate between:

(A) Railways and roadways
Answer:

Basis	Railways	Roadways
(1) Carrying Capacity	Carrying capacity is more	Carrying capacity is limited
(2) Distance	Suitable for long distances	Suitable for short distance
(3) Door to door service	Railway does not provide door to door service.	Roadways provide door to door service.
(4) Traffic	There is no problem of traffic jam on railways.	There is a problem of traffic jam on roadways.
(5) Pollution	Railways do not create a problem of air pollution.	Roadways create a problem of air pollution.

(B) Transportation and communication
Answer:

Basis	Transportation	Communication
(1) Meaning	Transportation is the movement of humans, animals and goods from one location to another.	Communication is the exchange of information, ideas and messages by speaking, writing or some other medium.
(2) Means	It is done through railways, roadways, waterways, airways and pipelines.	It is done through telephones, mobiles, video-conferencing, email and post etc.
(3) Threats	The threats like a traffic jams, accidents, noise pollution, air pollution are associated with transportation.	The threats like technical issues, cyber crimes, etc. are associated with the communication.

(C) Conventional and modern means of communication.
Answer:

Basis	Conventional means of Communication	Modem means of Communication
(1) Meaning	The means of communication – used since olden times – conventional means of communication.	The means of communication – used in modern times – modern means of communication.
(2) Examples	Letter, newspapers, radio, television.	Mobile phone, internet, etc.
(3) Interaction	May not facilitate the direct interaction between – sender and receivers of information.	Facilitates the direct interaction between – sender and the receivers of information.

2. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
‘Newspapers are used for communication’. Explain the statement.
Answer:

• The news related to economic events, politics, social issues, culture, education, etc. are published in newspapers.
• Newspapers arecheap means of communication. Through newspapers information gets spread to masses at a time.
• Newspapers are published in various languages.
• In this way, newspapers are used for communication.

Thus, newspapers are used for communication.

Question 2.
Explain how T.V. is a cheap means of communication.
Answer:

• Various programs, serials, etc. related to entertainment, social issues, culture, education, politics, economic events, sports, weather conditions, etc. are broadcasted on television.
• Through television the information is exchanged to masses at a time with high speed.
• Television can broadcast both audio and video for communication. In this way, television is a cheap means of communication.

Thus, TV is a cheap means of communication.

Question 3.
What types of communications can be done through mobiles?
Answer:

• Calling and SMS (Short message system) facilitates easy one-to-one communication, using mobiles anywhere and at any time.
• Video conferencing and applications like ‘Whatsapp’ allow one to communicate with many people simultaneously.
• Various functions like, money transfer, payment of bills, purchase of goods and services and online trading can be done using smart phones’ various apps like BHIM, SBI anywhere, etc.
• Internet and social media can also be accessed through mobile phones.

3. Name them on the basis of the given information:

Question 1.
Five cities with airways services in Maharashtra
Answer:
Mumbai, Pune, Nagpur, Kolhapur, Aurangabad, Nashik and Nanded.

Question 2.
Services available in post offices
Answer:

• Financial Services: Saving schemes, insurance services and mutual fund.
• Mail services: Speed post, postcard, parcel and courier.

Question 3.
National Highways near your area
Answer:

• Mumbai- Goa Highway (NH 66)
• Mumbai- Bangaluru highway (NH 04)
• Mumbai- Agra Highway (NH 08)
  Note: Answer may vary.

Question 4.
Ports along the coast of Maharashtra
Answer:

• Malvan
• Venture
• Vasai
• Dahanu
• Gharapuri

4. Identify the relation and match the columns making a chain

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’	Group ‘C’
(1) Postal services	Roadways	Speed post
(2) Shivneri	World network of connected computers	Exchange of information
(3) Internet	Conventional means of communication	Comfortable journey
(4) RoRo transport	Railways	Energy, time and labour saving

Answer:

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’	Group ‘C’
(1) Postal services	Conventional means of communication	Speed post.
(2) Shivneri	Roadways	Comfortable journey.
(3) Internet	World network of connected computers	Exchange of information.
(4) RoRo transport	Railways	Energy, time and labour saving.

5. Read the following maps and answer the questions:

Question 1.
In which region do you find a dense network of transport routes in the map?
Answer:
The central part of the district has dense network of transport routes.

Question 2.
How is the physiography of the region with dense network?
Answer:
The central part of the district has lower and medium elevation as compared to the Western part.

Question 3.
Which region has a sparse network of transport routes?
Answer:
The transport network is sparse in the Eastern part of the district.

Question 4.
How is the physiography of this region?
Answer:
The region with sparse network of transport . routes is comparatively of lower and medium elevations.

Question 5.
Look for the region lacking transport routes.
Answer:
The Western region lacks transport routes.

Question 6.
What kind of obstruction can you find there?
Answer:
Sahyadri Mountains and Shivsagar reservoir of Koyna dam are the obstructions found here.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 11 Transport and Communication Intext Questions and Answers

Let’s Recall

Complete the following table:

Transport	Means of	Used for
Route	Transport
Roadways	Rickshaw	Passengers
Roadways	Trucks
	Metro
Waterways
	Helicopter
Airways
	Submarine
Waterways		Freight
	Mules
Railways
Pipelines

Answer:

Transport	Means of Transport	Used for
Roadways	Rickshaw	Passengers
Roadways	Trucks	Goods
Railways	Metro	Passengers
Waterways	Cruise/Boats	Passengers
Airways	Helicopter	Passengers
Airways	Aeroplane	Passengers
Waterways	Submarine	Defence & Research
Waterways	Cargo-ship	Freight / Goods
Roadways	Mules	Goods
Railways	Cargo goods train	Goods
Pipelines	Pipes	Oil, Water and Gas

Can you tell?

We have given some specific conditions. In this context, tell with reasons which means of transport route will you take?

Question 1.
You have to reach Bhopal from Nagpur due to some emergency.
Answer:
Airways : As it is the fastest mode of transport.

Question 2.
You have to reach Kanyakumari carrying the message of cleanliness. There is no time limit for it.
Answer:
Roadways : Since roadways connect even the remotest places the message can reach to all persons.

Question 3.
Send the Alphonso mangoes from Konkan to Arab countries.
Answer:
Airways – Since mango is a perishable commodity, the fastest mode of transportation is used. ,

Question 4.
Indrayani variety of rice has to be exported from Pune to Cape Town of South Africa at low expenditure.
Answer:
In such conditions, we will choose waterways as a route and ship as a means of transport. Because rice is comparatively durable agricultural good in the given situation it has to be transported at low cost.

Question 5.
Large-scale production of vegetables in Nandurbar has taken place but is not fetching a good price. The Nagpur-Surat National Highway and the Surat-Bhusawal Railway line passes through the district.
Answer:
In a given situation, we will choose roadways and railways as a route and truck and goods’ ways/train respectively as a means of transport. Because the highway and railway line that pass through the district, connects the important towns and cities from the district.

Question 6.
You have to go to Singapore from your village/ town. You have 10 days to do the same.
Answer:
Roadway and Airways: I will first reach the nearest airport of a city by road and then take an Airway. It is the fastest mode of transport.

Can you tell?

Question 1.
Make a list of various means of communication you are aware of.
Answer:
Letters, radio, television, telephones, mobile phones, newspaper, internet, satellites etc. are the various means of communication.

Question 2.
How many of these do you actually use? Make a box around them.
Answer:

Question 3.
For what do you use them ?
Answer:
We use these means of communication to exchange important information, ideas, opinions etc. with friends, parents, relatives and teachers.

Question 4.
Who uses the remaining means ?
Answer:
The remaining means are used by parents, other relatives, businessmen from locality and government agencies.

Can you do it?

Observe the image and the instructions given on page 87 of the textbook and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Which are the dates mentioned in the image?
Answer:
The dates mentioned are 15/5/2017 and 19/5/2017

Question 2.
What does the information in the image tell?
Answer:
The image informs that the person’s email account has been hacked. He cannot access his important files as they have been encrypted and to recover his files, he will have to pay a certain amount to the hacker.

Question 3.
What is the price asked for recovering the files and in what currency?
Answer:
The price asked for recovering the files is 300 US dollars in bitcoins.

Question 4.
What is the type of crime here?
Answer:
This is a cyber crime.

Give it a try
Think about the transport issues you come across during your journeys. Write the innovative changes you would suggest in the transport routes or means in your copy.

Question 1.
Congested city roads and Pollution
Answer:
Electric cars which are smaller and smarter.

Question 2.
Time-consuming travel
Answer:
Dedicated bus corridors, carpooling, more number of Expressways.

Give it a try

Question 1.
Look for the other uses of artificial satellites? Try to understand how they are related to your daily life?
Answer:
(a) The other uses of artificial satellites are as follows:

• Studying about other planets.
• Live broadcasting of a program/event from any region of the earth.
• Studying the resources on the earth’s surface.
• Regional planning.
• Planning defense strategies.
• Forecasting weather etc.

(b) The artificial satellites are directly or indirectly related to personal, social, educational, economic, cultural, political aspects in everyone’s daily life. For eg. through artificial satellites, one can enjoy a live program like award functions/cricket match, etc. on television.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 11 Transport and Communication Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the statement choosing the correct option from the bracket:

Question 1.
The price of the goods can be kept low if the transportation is ………….. .
(a) feasible
(b) expensive
(c) costly
(d) affordable
Answer:
(d) affordable

Question 2.
…………… growth gets a boost due to transportation.
(a) Physical
(b) Culture
(c) Economic
(d) Political
Answer:
(c) Economic

Question 3.
Freight transport through …………… is costlier than railways.
(a) trucks
(b) horses
(c) bullock-cart
(d) yak
Answer:
(a) trucks

Question 4.
The western part of Satara district is occupied by the …………… of its off shoots.
(a) Vindhyas
(b) Satpudas
(c) Sahyadris
(d) Aravallis
Answer:
(c) Sahyadris

Question 5.
The use of RORO (Roll on Roll off) services started in …………… railways in India.
(a) Goa
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Konkan
(d) Pune
Answer:
(c) Konkan

Question 6.
In the modem age, man-made …………… are an important and effective means of communication.
(a) planets
(b) asteroids
(c) satellites
(d) rockets
Answer:
(c) satellites

Question 7.
Satellite images obtained by …………… facilitate study of resources on Earth’s surface and help in regional planning.
(a) GPS
(b) radio
(c) remote sensing1
(d) drones
Answer:
(c) remote sensing

Question 8.
Communication is not just limited to talking on telephones or sending messages but …………… is also available now.
(a) tele-calling
(b) STD-Calling
(c) video-calling
(d) Local-calling
Answer:
(c) Video-calling

Question 9.
There is a correlation between transport routes and the …………… of region.
(a) soil type
(b) rainfall
(c) climate
(d) physiography2
Answer:
(d) physiography

Question 10.
Transport facilities can develop well in …………… region.
(a) mountainous
(b) plain
(c) forest
(d) plateau
Answer:
(b) plain

Question 11.
Shiv sagar reservoir of the …………… dam is located in the Satara district.
(a) Ram Krishna
(b) Bhakra-Nagal
(c) Koyna
(d) Tehri
Answer:
(c) Koyna

Question 12.
The …………… part of Satara district has a dense transport network.
(a) Western
(b) Central
(c) Eastern
(d) Southern
Answer:
(b) central.

Write answers in one sentence

Question 1.
What is transportation?
Answer:
The movement of goods and people from one place to another is called transportation.

Question 2.
Which are the different kinds of transport routes?
Answer:
Roadways, railways, waterways, airways and pipelines are the different kinds of transport routes.*

Question 3.
For what reasons does a region become devoid of any transport route?
Answer:
Due to mountains, valleys, rivers, reservoirs

1. remote sensing – obtaining information regarding any place or an object without actually establishing direct contact with it is called remote sensing.
2. physiography – nature and slope of land and undulating1 topography2 a region becomes devoid of any transport route.

Question 4.
Why does a dense network of transportation develop in some regions?
Answer:
A dense network of transportation develops in some regions due to lower and medium elevation, plains, flat and regular topography, etc.

Question 5.
What does Ro-Ro transport stand for?
Answer:
Ro-Ro transport is Roll-on, Roll-off transport.

Question 6.
Why was the Ro-Ro transport introduced?
Answer:
Freight transport by trucks is costlier than railways, so as a solution the Ro-Ro transport has been introduced.

Question 7.
What are Cyber Crimes?
Answer:
Crimes like website/email hacking, theft of information, economic frauds, wars, terrorism, etc. that are committed by using computers and internet are called ‘cyber crimes’.

Question 8.
How are BHIM app, SBI anywhere app useful?
Answer:
BHIM App, SBI Anywhere app, helps us to pay various bills, sell, buy and carry out various transactions through mobile phones.

Question 9.
Where was Ro-Ro service introduced for the first time in India?
Answer:
Ro-Ro service, was introduced for the first time in India by the Konkan Railway.

Give Reasons:

Question 1.
The development of transportation is an indicator of the development of that region.
Answer:

• With development of transportation there is an increase in the movement of freight and passengers of that region.
• Development of transportation develops industries and markets.
• Per capita Income (PCI) and Gross Domestic product (GDP) increases leading to economic growth.
• So it is said that development of transportation is an indicator of the development of that region.

Question 2.
Green Corridor saves many lives.
Answer:

1. Green Corridor is a route cleared of all traffic obstacles, so that a dead person’s (donor’s) organs can be speedily transported to the receiver
2. It is called ‘green’ corridor because the traffic lights are turned green for the speedy movement of the vehicle carrying the organ.
3. Thus, Green Corridor saves many lives.

Question 3.
Ro-Ro Transport helps to reduce cost of transport.
Answer:

• In Ro-Ro (Roll-on, Roll-off) transport, the trucks loaded with goods are transported to desired railway stations through a goods train.
• From there the trucks take the goods ahead to the desired locations.
• Ro-Ro transport helps to reduce the cost of transport as railways are used for the part of the distance.
• Ro-Ro transport also reduces cost of fuel and pollution caused by trucks.

Answer in details:

Question 1.
Give the Importance of transportation.
Answer:
Transportation is a basic infrastructure.
The development of transportation infrastructure is an indicator of the development of the particular region or a country.

The importance of transportation can be explained with the help of the following points :

• Extending trade and network.
• Rapid industrialisation.
• Availability of employment opportunities.
• Regional connectivity.
• Utility of the site.
• Overcoming scarcity (deficit).
• Decreasing regional imbalance1.
• Tourism development.

Question 2.
Give the Importance of a communication system.
Answer:

• Communication or exchange of information is an important process in today’s era. Communication is basic infrastructure.
• Man-made satellites are an important and effective means of communication.
• The exchange of messages through mobiles, watching progammes on television, getting updates of climatic condition etc. is possible simultaneously through man-made satellites.
• Satellite images obtained by remote sensing facilitate study of resources on earth’s surface and helps in regional planning.
• Many apps which can be used on mobile phones have been developed for the same.
• For e.g. BHIM app, SBI anywhere, etc. By using these communicational facilities, we can pay various bills, sell and buy goods and services and carry other such transactions.
• Nowadays, communication is not just limited to talking on telephone or sending messages but also video calling is available now.

Explain:

Question 1.
Factors to be kept in mind while selecting the route way and the means of transport.
Answer:
The following factors should be kept in mind while selecting the route way and means of transport:

• Distance
• Duration
• Cost
• Time
• Products
• Climate
• Market
• Routes and means
• Physiography

Question 2.
Importance of Transportation.
Answer:

1. The development of transportation infrastructure is an indicator of the development of the country or that region.
2. The reforms in the transport sector enhance the dynamicity of freight and passengers in a region.
3. Industries and markets develop. Economic growth gets a boost. Per Capita Income (PCI) and Gross Domestic Product (GDP) increases too.
4. Transportation leads to –
   • Extending trade and network
   • Rapid industrialisation
   • Availability of employment opportunities
   • Regional connectivity
   • Utility of the site
   • Overcoming scarcity (weakness)
   • The decrease in regional imbalance
   • Tourism development

Question 3.
Importance of man-made satellites.
Answer:

• In the modern age, man-made satellites are an important and effective means of communication.
• The exchange of messages through mobiles, watching programmes on TV and getting updated information regarding climatic conditions is possible simultaneously through man-made satellites.
• Satellite images obtained by remote sensing facilitate study of resources on earth’s surface and help in regional planning.

Thus, man-made satellites are important.

Question 4.
Green Corridor.
Answer:

• It happens that sometimes a dead person has donated his organs.
• In such cases, such organs need to be transported from the donor’s location to the receiver urgently.
• For this organ transfer, all types of routes are cleared of all obstacles. This is called Green Corridor.
• Consequently, this kind of rapid transport corridor can save the receiver’s life.

Question 5.
Threats associated with means of communication.
Answer:

• Besides facilities, means of communication have a few threats associated with them.
• Many crimes are happening through the internet like website/email hacking, fraud, theft, attack, wars and terrorism. Possibilities of threats like theft of information, economic frauds, attacking important websites etc. arise.
• Therefore, one should take precautions while using social networks.
• One should not reveal personal information before ensuring safety.
• One should not put any sensitive information or personal information on social networking sites, blogs, etc.

9th Std Geography Questions And Answers:

• Distributional Maps Class 9 Geography Questions And Answers
• Endogenetic Movements Class 9 Geography Questions And Answers
• Exogenetic Movements Part 1 Class 9 Geography Questions And Answers
• Exogenetic Movements Part 2 Class 9 Geography Questions And Answers
• Precipitation Class 9 Geography Questions And Answers
• Properties of Sea Water Class 9 Geography Questions And Answers
• International Date Line Class 9 Geography Questions And Answers
• Introduction to Economics Class 9 Geography Questions And Answers
• Trade Class 9 Geography Questions And Answers
• Urbanisation Human Class 9 Geography Questions And Answers
• Transport and Communication Class 9 Geography Questions And Answers
• Tourism Class 9 Geography Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Trade Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Trade Class 9 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Class 9 Geography Chapter 9 Trade Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Geography Class 9 Chapter 9 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. Classify the trade taking place between the following regions:

(1) Maharashtra and Punjab
(2) India and Japan
(3) Lasalgaon and Pune
(4) China and Canada
(5) India and European Union
Answer:
(1) Internal trade
(2) International trade
(3) Internal trade
(4) International trade
(5) International trade

2. Write the correct word- Import or Export for the following :

(1) India buys crude oil from the Middle-East Asian countries.
(2) Wheat is sent to Asian countries from Canada.
(3) Japan sends machine parts to APEC countries.
Answer:
(1) Import
(2) Export
(3) Export

3. Correct and rewrite the wrong statements:

(A) India is a self-sufficient country.
Answer:
India is not a self-sufficient country as it depends on other countries for crude oil, machinery, etc.

(B) The place where there is excess production does not have demand for those products.
Answer:
The place where there is excess production more creates ‘supply’ for those products.

(C) International trade processes are easier than local trade.
Answer:
International trade processes are relatively more difficult than local trade.

4. Identify and write the type of trade:

(A) Srushti brought sugar from the grocery shop.
Answer:
Retail Trade.

(B) The traders from Surat bought cotton from the farmers of Maharashtra.
Answer:
Wholesale Trade.

(C) Sameer has exported pomegranates from his farms to Australia.
Answer:
International Trade.

(D) Sadabhau bought 10 sacks of wheat and 5 sacks of rice from Market Yard for selling in his own shop.
Answer:
Wholesale Trade.

5. Write answers in short:

(A) Create a flowchart showing the types of trade
Answer:
Trade refers to buying and selling for fulfilling each other’s needs.
Trade is divided into two categories:

• On the basis of the quantity of goods.
• On the basis of the extent of trade region.
  

(B) Explain the difference in types of balances of trade.
Answer:
The difference between the import and export values of a country in a specific period is called balance of trade.
The different types of balance of trade are:

• Unfavourable Balance of Trade: When the value of imports is more than the value of exports, it is called ‘Unfavourable Balance of Trade.’
  
• Favourable Balance of Trade: When the value of exports is more than the value of imports, it is called ‘Favourable Balance of Trade.’
• Balanced Balance of Trade: When the value of exports and imports is almost the same, it is called ‘Balanced Balance of Trade.’
  

(C) State the objectives of WTO.
Answer:
WTO stands for World Trade Organisation. The main objectives of WTO are:

• To provide platform for negotiations in international trade.
• To handle the differences related to trade.
• To monitor the trade policies of member states.
• To provide a technological assistance and training to developing countries.

(D) What is the difference between the OPEC and APEC in terms of their functions?
Answer:

OPEC	APEC
(i) OPEC stands for Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries.	APEC stands for Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC).
(ii) OPEC is the organisation of oil-producing and exporting countries.	APEC is the regional organisation of the countries in the Asia Pacific region.
(iii) It keeps control over the international trade of crude oil.	It promotes free trade and economic cooperation among the member countries.
(iv) It keeps control on the rates of crude oil production among member states.	It promotes regional and technical cooperation among members.

(E) Write the functions of the important trade organisations in Asia.
Answer:
Important trade organisations in Asia are:
Association of South East Asian Nations (ASEAN)

• To expand social and cultural harmony along with economic growth in South East Asia.
• To promote regional peace.
• To promote tax waivers for trade growth in member states.

Asia Pacific Economic Co-operation (APEC)

• To promote free trade and economic co¬operation in the Asia-Pacific Ocean region.
• To promote regional and technical co-operation among members.

(F) What is the importance of marketing from farmers ‘point of view’?
Answer:
Marketing involves price of a commodity, its sales promotion, its advertising and its proper distribution.

• In the traditional marketing system, the farmers used to sell their products in the local market at whatever price available. This is because the fruits and vegetables are perishable, so the farmers used to incur losses,
• However, the modem farmers have acquired skills in marketing. They are aware of the trends in the market.
• They produce food grains and fruits as per the international standards.
• They undertake grading and packaging of their products. The presentation of any product has become indispensable now.
• They advertise the quality of their product and keep the same for sale, along with samples, in the mall.
• These commercial-minded farmers contact the supermarkets and exporters through the internet.
• As a result, their products are sold at a higher price in the malls. They also fetch a good price from exports.
• Thus marketing is as important as the cultivation of crops. By following modem marketing techniques, the income of the farmers can increase and that can improve their standard of living.

6. In the following table, export-import of some countries in the year 2014-15 is given in million U.S. dollars. Make a compound bar graph of the given statistical information. Read the bar diagram carefully and comment upon the balance of payments of the respective countries.

Country	Export	Import
China	2143	1960
India	272	380
Brazil	190	241
USA	1510	2380

Answer:

• China has a balance of trade.
• India, USA and Brazil have an unfavourable balance of trade.
• The volume of international trade of China and the USA is maximum.
• International trade of India and Brazil is insignificant.
• International trade is dominated by China and the USA.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 9 Trade Intext Questions and Answers

Make friends with maps!

Find out the names of the member-states of the following organisation with the help of internet. Show these member nations on the outline map given in the figure using different colour for each organisation.
(1) OPEC member – countries
(2) SAARC member – countries
Answer:

(1) OPEC member- countries
Republic of Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, Venezuela, Qatar, Libya, The United Arab Emirates, Algeria, Nigeria, Ecuador, Gabon, Angola, Equatorial Guinea (2017).

(2) SAARC countries
Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Maldives, Pakistan, Sri Lanka.

Can you tell?

With a lot of hard work Dhondiba used to grow best varieties of vegetables and other agricultural commodities. But his products could not fetch a good price. His college-going son, saw this situation and he first packed the commodities nicely after cleaning them neatly. Then he contacted the supermarket in the town. Looking at the quality of his product, they advertised the farm product and kept it for sale in the mall. Today, Dhondiba’s commodities are being sold for higher prices than before.

Question 1.
Why did Dhondiba’s commodities start getting higher prices?
Answer:
For any commodity to be accepted in the market and fetch a better price, it should have an appropriate presentation. The price of the commodity is determined by its quality, its grading and how it is presented before the customer. Dhondiba’s son who was educated, realized this and took the necessary actions in time which helped Dhondiba to fetch better price.

Question 2.
What did Dhondiba’s son do for that?
Answer:
Dhondiba’s college-going son realised that the agricultural commodities sold by his father lacked proper presentation and marketing. So he adopted modem marketing practices like cleaned the commodities well and packed them nicely. He then got in touch with the supermarket in the town. The supermarket was impressed with the quality of Dhondiba’s products, they advertised the farm product and kept it for sale in the mall. Dhondiba’s commodities were in great demand and sold at higher prices than before.

Question 3.
What measures would you suggest to the farmers near you so that then commodities can fetch a good price?
Answer:
Some of the measures that we can suggest to the farmers so that then commodities can fetch a better price are:

• Clean their vegetables, fruits well.
• Grade the commodities.
• Pack them nicely.
• Advertise their farm products.
• Sell it in the market.

Give it a try.

Obtain information regarding the bilateral trade between India and Japan for any financial year and the value of the export and import of major goods. Write two paragraphs on it.
Answer:
India’s Trade with Japan (April 2016-Jan 2017)

Exports	₹ 20,000 Cr
Imports	₹ 55,000 Cr
Trade Balance	₹ 35,000 Cr

This shows that India has an Unfavourable Balance of Trade with Japan, in which the value of Imports is more than the value of Exports.

India’s major exports to Japan
Petroleum products, Iron ore, Fish Meat (including lobsters, crabs, shrimps etc) Motor parts, Insecticides, Fungicides, Turbo-jets, Gas turbines etc.

India’s major imports from Japan
Iron and Steel Products, Transport Equipments, Plastic, Machinery items like Drilling Platforms, Floating Cranes, Printing machinery etc.

Think about it.

Question 1.
What will happen if there is only one currency used in the whole world?
Answer:
The European Union is an example, which has one common currency ‘Euro’.
Advantages of having one common currency. If the whole world has one common currency, international trade will become much easier and move will increase international trade also. Disadvantages of having one common currency.

If all the countries adopt one common currency, there will be one uniform policy. No country will be able to have their own monetary and fiscal policy.

Find out.

You get products from other places. Similarly, find out where the special products/items made in your village/city are sent?
Answer:
I live in Mumbai.
Special products exported from Mumbai and where they are sent:
Cotton textiles – China, USA
Commercial vehicles – Mexico, South Africa

Try this.

(I) Obtain the following information.

Question 1.
Make a list of commodities which you use daily.
Answer:
Toothpaste, powder, tea, hair oil, biscuits, food grains.

Question 2.
Who uses these commodities?
Answer:
We as consumers use these commodities.

Question 3.
Write the sources of supplies of these commodities.
Answer:
Producers are the source of supplies.

Question 4.
From where do you buy these commodities?
Answer:
Retail Shop.

Question 5.
What do you call the act of buying and selling?
Answer:
Trade.

Question 6.
What does the shopkeeper take in lieu of the commodity?
Answer:
The shopkeeper takes money (currency) in lieu of the commodity.

(II) A list of few goods you regularly use at home, is given here. Write the names of the product, the producer company’s name and the source of information in front of it.

Goods that Name of the you use	Name of the company	Source of information
Colgate Toothpaste	Palmolive	T.V. advertisement
Coffee Nescafe	Nestle	T.V. advertisement
Bathing Soap Lux	Unilever	T.V. advertisement
Hair Oil Parachute	Marica India	T.V. advertisement
Biscuits Parle G	Parle Products	T.V. advertisement

 Choice may vary from consumer to consumer.

(F) Use your brain power! (Textbook Page no. 70) Suppose you are a trader and you want to sell your product in other states of the country and also in other parts of the world

Question 1.
Which of these is an easier way of doing trade?
Answer:
To sell the product in other states of the country, domestic or internal trade is easier. To sell the product in other parts of the world, international trade, i.e. export trade is done

Question 2.
Which trade can bring some limitations?
Answer:
International trade.

Question 3.
Look for reasons behind them
Answer:
Factors like economy of the country, government policis, markets, laws, judicial system, currency, language and political relation between the two trading countries can bring limitations in international trade.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 9 Trade Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the statements choosing a colored option from the bracket:

Question 1.
…………………. refers to buying and selling goods and services to fulfill each other’s needs.
(a) Trade
(b) Business
(c) Labelling
(d) Branding
Answer:
(a) Trade

Question 2.
When there is buying and selling of goods it is called ………………….. trade.
(a) invisible
(b) visible
(c) impossible
(d) possible
Answer:
(b) visible

Question 3.
Buying and selling in large quantities is called ………………….. trade.
(a) wholesale
(b) retail
(c) invisible
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) wholesale

Question 4.
………………….. trade refers to buying and selling in small quantities.
(a) Invisible
(b) Retail
(c) Wholesale
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Retail

Question 5.
………………….. trade means buying goods and services from another country
(a) Export
(b) Retail
(c) Wholesale
(d) Import
Answer:
(d) Import

Question 6.
When the value of imports is more than the value of exports it is called ………………….. balance of trade.
(a) favourable
(b) unfavorable
(c) balanced
(d) possible
Answer:
(b) unfavorable

Question 7.
………………….. was formed to control the international trade of crude oil.
(a) OPEC
(b) APEC
(c) ASEAN
(d) WTO
Answer:
(a) OPEC

Question 8.
BRICS stands for …………………. .
(a) Brazil, Russia, Indonesia, China and Sudan
(b) Belgium, Rome, India, China and South Africa
(c) Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa
Answer:
(b) Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa

Question 9.
………………….. was formed to establish an integrated market2 in member nations in Europe.
(a) EU
(b) ASEAN
(c) BRICS
(d) OPEC
Answer:
(a) EU

Question 10.
………………….. trade means the exchange of goods and services of one country with other countries.
(a) Retail
(b) Wholesale
(c) International
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) International

Match the following:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) WTO	(a) Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa.
(2) BRICS	(b) World Trade Organisation.
(3) Favourable balance of trade	(c) Value of exports is more than value of imports.

Answer:
(1 – b),
(2 – a),
(3 – c)

Question 2.

International organisations	Headquarters
(1) EU (2) WTO (3) SAARC	(a)  Kathmandu (Nepal) (b) Jakarta (Indonesia) (c)  Geneva (Switzerland) (d)  Brussels (Belgium)

Answer:
(1 – d),
(2 – c),
(3 – a)

Question 3.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) OPEC	(a) Expanding social and cultural harmony in South East Asia.
(2) APEC	(b) Controlling international trade of crude oil.
(3) ASEAN	(c) Free trade in Asia- Pacific Ocean region.
	(d) When value of imports is more than the value of exports.

Answer:
(1 – b),
(2 – c),
(3 -a)

Write answers in one sentence each:

Question 1.
What do you mean by trade?
Answer:
Trade refers to buying and selling of goods and services to fulfil each other’s needs.

Question 2.
What is visible trade3?
Answer:
When there is buying and selling of goods it is known as visible trade.

Question 3.
What is invisible trade4?
Answer:
When there is exchange of services, it is known as invisible trade.

Question 4.
Who conducts wholesale trade?
Answer:
Wholesale trade is conducted by wholesalers.

Question 5.
What do you mean by domestic trade?
Answer:
Domestic or internal trade is the trade that takes place within the geographical boundaries of one country. For eg. Trade between Maharashtra and Gujarat.

Question 6.
What is international trade?
Answer:
International trade means buying and selling of goods and services between two or more countries. For example, trade between USA and India.

Question 7.
What do you mean by import trade?
Answer:
Import trade means buying goods and services from another country. For eg. India imports crude oil from Kuwait.

Question 8.
What is export trade?
Answer:
When country sells its goods and services to another country, it is called export trade. For eg. India exports rice to USA.

Question 9.
What is balance of trade?
Answer:
The difference between the import and export values of a country in a specific period is called balance of trade.

Question 10.
What do you mean by unfavourable balance of trade?
Answer:
When the value of imports is more than the value of exports it is called unfavourable balance of trade.

Question 11.
What is favourable balance of trade?
Answer:
When the value of exports is more than the value of imports it is called favourable balance of trade.

Question 12.
What is balanced balance of trade?
Answer:
When the value of exports and imports is almost same, it is called balanced balance of trade.

Question 13.
What is WTO?
Answer:
WTO stands for World Trade Organisation.

Question 14.
What does EU stand for?
Answer:
EU stands for European Union which comprises of 28 European countries.

Question 15.
What does OPEC stand for?
Answer:
OPEC stands for Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries.

Question 16.
Give extended form of.
(i) SAARC
(ii) ASEAN
(iii) APEC
(iv) BRICS
Answer:
(i) SAARC – South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation.
(ii) ASEAN – Association of South-East Asian Nations.
(iii) APEC – Asia-Pacific Economic Co-operation.
(iv) BRICS – Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa.

Some economic organisations of the world

Give Reason

Question 1.
Some international economic organisations were set up
Answer:
Some international economic organisations were set up:

• To smoothen the process of trade between countries of different economic status.
• To facilitate the growth of international trade.

Question 2.
The Consumer Protection Act been enacted
Answer:

1. The Consumer Protection Act has been enacted to protect the consumers from fraudulent traders supplying sub-standard products.
2. Many advertisements make exaggerated statements to cheat the consumers and these advertisements use incorrect information.
3. The Consumer Protection Act empowers consumers with their rights and duties. Consumers have right to complain and seek redressal.

Explain the following:

Question 1.
What do you mean by wholesale trade?
Answer:

• In wholesale trade, the traders buy goods on a large scale from industrialists, farmers, etc. For eg. the orchard owners of mangoes or oranges sell their entire production to wholesale traders.
• The wholesalers in turn sell these commodities to the retail traders.

Question 2.
What is retail trade?
Answer:

• The process of buying in small quantities from wholesalers and selling in small quantities to the consumers is called retail trade.
• For eg. the shopkeepers selling food grains, vegetable vendors in markets.

Question 3.
What is marketing?
Answer:

• An invisible flow develops when a product goes from producer1 to consumer.
• The commercial functions involved in this flow are collectively called marketing.

Answer in brief :

Question 1.
Explain the importance of trade.
Answer:
The importance of trade are:

• Trade is an important economic activity.
• The economic life of people is dependent on each other.
• No region or country is self-sufficient.
• Trade between two regions is necessary to fulfill the needs of the people.
• As each region has different geographical conditions, each region produces specific commodities.

Question 2.
What is barter trade?
Answer:

• In ancient and medieval periods, trade was done through barter system.
• Barter trade means exchange of commodities for commodities without using money, is a medium.
• For eg. grains in exchange of work done or salt exchanged for oil.
• But it created the problem of estimating the price of a commodity correctly. As a result, currency started being used.

Question 3.
Mention the functions of the European Union.
Answer:
The main functions of the European Union are:

• Establishing an integrated market in member nations amongst Europe.
• Free flow of goods, services and capital in Europe.
• Custom duties have been cancelled on exchange of goods within members.
• Common ‘Euro’ currency for the member countries.

Question 4.
Which factors influence trade?
Answer:
The factors which influence trade are:

• Factors like the economy of the country, government policies, markets, laws, judicial systems, currency, language, etc. influence trade.
• Political relations between two countries also influence trade between them.

9th Std Geography Questions And Answers:

• Distributional Maps Class 9 Geography Questions And Answers
• Endogenetic Movements Class 9 Geography Questions And Answers
• Exogenetic Movements Part 1 Class 9 Geography Questions And Answers
• Exogenetic Movements Part 2 Class 9 Geography Questions And Answers
• Precipitation Class 9 Geography Questions And Answers
• Properties of Sea Water Class 9 Geography Questions And Answers
• International Date Line Class 9 Geography Questions And Answers
• Introduction to Economics Class 9 Geography Questions And Answers
• Trade Class 9 Geography Questions And Answers
• Urbanisation Human Class 9 Geography Questions And Answers
• Transport and Communication Class 9 Geography Questions And Answers
• Tourism Class 9 Geography Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 Distributional Maps Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Distributional Maps Class 9 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Class 9 Geography Chapter 1 Distributional Maps Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Geography Class 9 Chapter 1 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. Give reasons why the following sentences are right or wrong:

Geography Class 9 Chapter 1 Distributional Maps Question 1.
The main aim of distributional maps is to show location.
Answer:
Wrong The main aim of distributional maps is to show the distribution of variables like temperature, rainfall, population, etc.

• Distribution maps are type of thematic maps.
• These maps are prepared with special themes like the distribution of various variables in a particular region.
• They make use of different methods to show the distribution of variables like temperature, rainfall, population, etc.

Thus, the main aim of distributional maps is to show the distribution of variables in a particular region.

Distributional Maps Class 9 Question 2.
In choropleth maps, only one value is assigned to the sub-administrative unit.
Answer:
Right

1. In choropleth maps, the data regarding various geographical variables is shown by shading or using tints of various colours.
2. After gathering the data for a selected variable, five to seven classes are made considering the smallest and the largest values.
3. Each class is assigned a tint of the same colour or black-and-white patterns.
4. A particular value shown by a predecided tint of colour can represent only a particular region or group of region.

Thus, in choropleth maps, only one value is assigned to sub administrative unit.

Distributional Maps Questions And Answers Question 3.
In choropleth maps, colours/tints do not change according to the values of the variables.
Answer:
Wrong.
In choropleth maps, colours/tints change according to the values of variables.

• In choropleth maps, the smallest and the largest values are taken into consideration and after that 5-7 classes are made.
• Each class is assigned a unique tint of the same colour or black and white pattern.
• In other words, each class is used to show the distribution of a particular variable in sub- administrative unit.

Distributional Map Question 4.
Choropleth maps are used to show altitudes.
Answer:
Wrong.
Isopleth maps and not the choropleth maps are used to show altitude.

• When the distribution of a variable is continuous like the altitude, the isopleth method map is used.
• Isopleth maps use lines joining the locations having equal values and hence are useful to show the change in altitude in the region.
• When the distribution of a variable is discontinuous, the choropleth method map is used to show its distribution, eg. distribution of population, domestic animals, etc.

Question 5.
Isopleth maps are used to show population distribution.
Answer:
Wrong.
Dot method maps or choropleth method maps are used to show population distribution

• Distribution of a population is discontinuous.
• Isopleth method maps are used to show the distribution of variables which are continuous. For eg. altitude, temperature etc.
• Thus, isopleth method maps are not used to show population distribution.

Question 6.
In dot method, every dot should have an appropriate scale.
Answer:
Right.
The size of the dot is decided as per the value of a variable that is freely scattered across the region.

Question 7.
Isopleth maps are not made using isolines.
Answer:
Wrong.
Isopleth maps are made using isolines.

• Isolines are lines joining places of same values of a given variable in a map.
• Since, isopleth maps are also prepared in the same method, we can say that they are made using isolines.

Question 8.
Distribution of various geographical elements can be shown using dot method.
Answer:
Wrong.
Distribution of various geographical elements cannot be shown using dot method.

• Distribution of geographical elements which are freely scattered across a region can be shown using a dot method.
• Distribution of variables like population, minerals, cattles etc., are freely scattered hence can be shown on a dot method map.
• Whereas the distribution of variables like rainfall, altitude, temperature etc. which are continuous, cannot be shown using a dot method map.

2. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
Explain the use and types of distributional maps.
Answer:
(a) Use of distributional maps: The distributional maps are useful for explaining the patterns of distribution of a particular geographical variable.
(b) The types of distributional maps : The following are the types of distributional maps.

1. Dot Method: The distributional map based on statistical data, made by this method, make use of dots of a pre-decided size to show the distribution of a particular variable, e.g. Dot method map is used to show the population of a region, distribution of cattle etc.
2. Choropleth Method: The distributional map made by this method makes use of shades or tints of various colours, to show the distribution of a particular variable, e.g. Choropleth method map is used to show population density, types of forest cover, uses of land.
3. Isopleth Method: The distributional map made by this method makes use of lines joining locations or places having same or equal values of a particular variable, e.g. Isopleth method map is used to show altitude, temperature, rainfall.

Question 2.
Differentiate between choropleth and isopleths methods.
Answer:

Choropleth Method	Isopleth Method
(1) In Choropleth method maps, the distribution of various variables are shown by shading or using tints of the same colour.	(1) In Isopleth method maps, the distribution of various variables are shown with the help of isolines.
(2) When the distribution of a variable is not continuous, the choropleth method is used.	(2) When the distribution of a variable is continuous, the isopleth method is used.
(3) Choropleth method is used to show population density, cattle distribution etc.	(3) Isopleth method are used to show altitude, temperature, rainfall of a region etc.

Question 3.
Explain with reasons the method which is best suited to show the distribution of population in a region.
Answer:

• The dot method of making a distributional map is best suited to show the distribution of the population in a region.
• The dots used in this method, are given a particular value which is determined by selecting a proper scale considering the spread of the values of the variables in the given region.
• This method is best suited to show the distribution of the variables which are freely scattered as in the case of population distribution.

3. Which method will you use for the following information?

Question 1.
Talukawise wheat production in the district
Answer:
Dot method

Question 2.
Distribution of the altitude of the land in the district.
Answer:
Isopleth method

Question 3.
Distribution of domestic animals in the State
Answer:
Dot method

Question 4.
The distribution of population density in India
Answer:
Choropleth method

Question 5.
Temperature distribution in Maharashtra State.
Answer:
Isopleth method

4. Study the population distribution map of Kolhapur district and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Which method has been used to show the distribution of population in the district?
Answer:
The dot method has been used to show the distribution of population in the district.

Question 2.
Explain the direction wise distribution of the population from dense to sparse.
Answer:
The distribution of the population is dense in the Eastern part of the district, whereas the western part of the district has low density of population.

Question 3.
What is the population shown by the largest circle? Which place is that?
Answer:
The population shown by the largest circle is nearly 20 lakhs. That place is Kolhapur city (Karvir Taluka)

Question 4.
Which Taluka has the least population?
Answer:
Gaganbavada Taluka has the least population.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 1 Distributional Maps Intext Questions and Answers

Make friends with maps!
Read the map given below and answer the Questions:

Question 1.
What is the population of the Amravati town?
Answer:
The population of the Amravati town is nearly 5 lakhs.

Question 2.
Name the place having population of 1 lakh on the map.
Answer:
Achalpur has a population of 1 lakh

Question 3.
Which part of the map shows sparse distribution of population?
Answer:
The northwestern part of the map shows sparse distribution of population

Read the map given below and answer the Questions:

Question 1.
Name the talukas having population density between 301 and 400 persons per sq km.
Answer:
Anjangao Surji has population density between 301 and 400 persons per sq km

Question 2.
What is the density of the Amravati taluka?
Answer:
Amravati taluka has the population density of more than 400 persons per sq km

Question 3.
Name the talukas having population density less than 300 persons per sq km.
Answer:
Dharini, Chikaldhara, Daryapur, Chandur Bazar, Morshi, Varud, Tivsa, Dhamangaon Railway, Nandgaon Khandeshwar and Bhatkuli have population density less than 300 persons per sq km.

Question 4.
Which taluka has a population density of less than 100 persons per sq km?
Answer:
Chikaldhara has population density of less than 100 persons per sq km.

Question 5.
Which Talukas have a population density of more than 400 persons per sq km?
Answer:
Amravati and Achalpur have the population density of more than 400 persons per sq km.

Read the map given below and answer the Questions:

Question 1.
In which part of the district is the rainfall more?
Answer:
Rainfall is more in the Northern part of the district.

Question 2.
In which direction is the rainfall decreasing?
Answer:
Rainfall is decreasing towards the west

Question 3.
What is the lowest value of the rainfall in the district?
Answer:
The lowest value of the rainfall in the district is less than 800 mm.

Question 4.
What is the highest value of the rainfall in the district?
Answer:
The highest value of the rainfall in the district is more than 1300 mm.

Question 5.
What is the amount of rainfall in the central part of the district?
Answer:
The amount of rainfall in the central part of the district is 900 mm.

Read the map given below and answer the Questions:

Question 1.
In which direction is the density of population decreasing?
Answer:
The density of population is decreasing towards the North and South direction.

Question 2.
Name the talukas with a population density less than 200.
Answer:
Shahuwadi, Gaganbavada, Ajra and Chandgad have a population density of less than 200.

Question 3.
Name the talukas having population density between 200 and 400.
Answer:
Radhanagri and Gargoti have population density between 200 and 400.

Question 4.
Name the talukas with a population density more than 400.
Answer:
Kolhapur, Panhala, Hatkanangale, Shirol, Gadhinglaj and Kagal have population density more than 400.

Question 5.
In which direction are the talukas having a higher density of population located in the district?
Answer:
The Eastern part of Kolhapur has a higher density of population.

Question 6
Which method has been used in the making of this map?
Answer:
Choropleth method is used in making this map.

Read the map given below and answer the Questions:

Question 1.
In which direction is the rainfall more in the district?
Answer:
The rainfall is more in the Western part of the district.

Question 2.
In which direction is the rainfall decreasing?
Answer:
The rainfall is decreasing towards the East.

Question 3.
Which class shows low rainfall category in the district?
Answer:
O to 600 mm class shows low rainfall category in the district.

Question 4.
Which class shows high rainfall category in the district?
Answer:
More than 2400 (2400 to 3000 mm) class shows high rainfall category in the district.

Question 5.
Which method has been used in making this map?
Answer:
The Isopleth method has been used in making this map

Study the population distribution map of Kolhapur district and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
A field visit is an important study method in Geography.
Answer:
Right.

• Geographical concepts and elements can be directly experienced through field-visits.
• Field-visits are extremely useful for understanding the correlation between human beings and the environment.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 1 Distributional Maps Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the statements choosing the correct option:

Question 1.
The main aim of distributional maps is to show the location of the place and of variables.
(a) population
(b) statistics
(c) consumption
(d) distribution
Answer:
(d) distribution

Question 2.
Distributional maps are of types.
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) five
Answer:
(b) three

Question 3.
To draw distributional maps, we need data.
(a) statistical
(b) population
(c) colourful
(d) distance
Answer:
(a) statistical

Question 4.
The distribution of population is shown by method.
(a) dot
(b) choropleth
(c) isopleth
(d) isolines
Answer:
(a) dot

Question 5.
In maps, the data regarding various geographical variables are shown by shading or tints of various colours.
(a) dot
(b) choropleth,
(c) isopleth
(d) thematic
Answer:
(b) choropleth

Question 6.
When the distribution of a variable is discontinuous the map is used.
(a) isopleth
(b) physical
(c) choropleth
(d) dot
Answer:
(c) choropleth

Question 7.
In method, lines showing equal values are used.
(a) choropleth
(b) isopleth
(c) dot
(d) planar
Answer:
(b) isopleth

Question 8.
When the distribution of a variable is the isopleth method is used.
(a) continuous
(b) discontinuous
(c) sparse
(d) disjoint
Answer:
(a) continuous

Question 9.
While showing population distribution, urban population is shown by
(a) circles
(b) dots
(c) squares
(d) lines
Answer:
(a) circles

Question 10.
is an important study method in Geography.
(a) Maps
(b) Field visit
(c) Picnic
(d) farm visit
Answer:
(b) Field visit

Match the column.

Question 1.

Group A	Group B
(1) Dot method	(a) distribution of temperature
(2) Choropleth method	(b) distribution of cotton crop
(3) Isopleth method	(c) density of population

Answer:
(1 – b),
(2 – c),
(3 – a)

Question 2.

Group A	Group A
(1) Dot method (2) Choropleth method (3) Isopleth method	(a) variables are freely scattered (b) distribution of the variable is continuous (c) distribution of the variable is shown in sub administrative unit

Answer:
(1 – a),
(2 – c),
(3 – b)

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
What are distributional maps?
Answer:
Maps that show the distribution of various geographical variables are called ‘distributional maps’.

Question 2.
What are thematic maps?
Ans,
Maps that are prepared with special themes are called ‘thematic maps’.

Question 3.
What is a dot-method map?
Answer:
A dot method map is a map type, that shows the distribution of a variable using dot symbols.

Question 4.
What is a choropleth method map?
Answer:
A choropleth method map is a map type, in which the distribution of a variable is shown by shades or tint of various colours.

Question 5.
When do we use the isopleth method for showing the distribution of a variable on a map?
Answer:
We use the isopleth method for showing the distribution of a variable on a map, when the distribution of the variable is continuous.

Question 6.
What is an isopleth method map?
Answer:
An isopleth method map, is a map type, that shows distribution of a variable with the help of lines showing equal values.

Question 7.
What is point related data?
Answer:
The statistical data of particular variables with respect to various places is called ‘point-related data’.

Question 8.
Which elements are generally studied in a geographical field visit?
Answer:
The various elements which can be studied during geographical field visits include physical landforms, river banks, dams, coastal areas, tourism sites, offices or museums related to geographical elements, villages, forest areas etc.

Question 9.
Mention the list of things to be carried while going on a geographical field visit?
Answer:
The various things which one should carry to a geographical field visit include notebook, specimen Questionnaire, pen pencil, scale, tape, compass, bag for collecting samples, maps, camera, etc.

Question 10.
What is field report?
Answer:
The report written on the basis of the information obtained from a field visit is known as field report.

Which method will you use for the following information:

Question 1.
The distribution of rainfall in the district of Nandurbar.
Answer:
Isopleth Method

Question 2.
Cotton crop distribution in Maharashtra.
Answer:
Dot method

Question 3.
Draw a map using the Dot Method:
Answer:

Explain:

Question 1.
Choropleth method
Answer:

1. In the choropleth method various geographical variables are shown by shades or tints of various colours.
2. While making choropleth maps, the data used for different variables is obtained through various processes such as measurement, surveying and so on.
3. In this method, only one value is given to one sub – administrative unit in a region
4. The smallest and the largest values of the given data of the variables are taken into consideration and after that 5-7 classes are made.
5. Each class is assigned a tint of the same colour or black-and-white patterns. The shades or the patterns become darker with the increasing values of the given variable.

Question 2.
Preparations for field visit
Answer:

• Before going for a field-visit, decide the place and the purpose of the visit.
• The elements which will be observed in field visit should be decided.
• For a field visit, you should carry a notebook, specimen Questionnaire
• , pen, pencil, scale, tape, compass, a bag for collecting samples, maps, camera and any other item needed.

Question 3.
Selection of the study area
Answer:

1. Geographical field-visit is organised for study of various elements, for example physical 1 landforms, river banks, dams, coastal areas, tourism sites, offices or museums related to ! geographical elements, villages or forest areas.
2. Elements should be selected after studying : the local conditions and necessary permission letters should be obtained.

Question 4.
Report writing
Answer:

1. A field-report should be written on the basis of information obtained after the visit is complete.
2. Students should add photographs wherever necessary.
3. The following points should be used to make a field report:
   • Introduction
   • Location map and Route Map
   • Physiography¹
   • Climate
   • Population
   • Environmental problems and measures
   • Land utilisation
   • Conclusions

9th Std Geography Questions And Answers:

• Distributional Maps Class 9 Geography Questions And Answers
• Endogenetic Movements Class 9 Geography Questions And Answers
• Exogenetic Movements Part 1 Class 9 Geography Questions And Answers
• Exogenetic Movements Part 2 Class 9 Geography Questions And Answers
• Precipitation Class 9 Geography Questions And Answers
• Properties of Sea Water Class 9 Geography Questions And Answers
• International Date Line Class 9 Geography Questions And Answers
• Introduction to Economics Class 9 Geography Questions And Answers
• Trade Class 9 Geography Questions And Answers
• Urbanisation Human Class 9 Geography Questions And Answers
• Transport and Communication Class 9 Geography Questions And Answers
• Tourism Class 9 Geography Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Precipitation Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Precipitation Class 9 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Class 9 Geography Chapter 5 Precipitation Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Geography Class 9 Chapter 5 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. Identify the precipitation type with the help of the description given:

(a) It is the main source of the water that you use. Sometimes it is torrential and sometimes continuous. Most of the agriculture in India is dependent on it.
(b) It seems as if water droplets are floating in the atmosphere. In London, one cannot see the Sun till the afternoon during winters because of this phenomenon.
(c) It never precipitates like this in equatorial areas. Precipitation in the solid form sometimes causes damage to the crops.
(d) A white cotton-like layer spreads on the earth’s surface. Because of this form of precipitation, the State of Jammu and Kashmir has to change its capital in winters. In Maharashtra, it does not precipitate like this.
Answer:
(a) rainfall
(b) fog
(c) hail
(d) snow

2. Look at the following pictures and identify the correct rainfall type.

Answer:
Convectional rainfall

Answer:
Orographic rainfall

Answer:
Cyclonic rainfall

3. Look at the figures above and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
In fig B, on which side of the mountain is it raining more?
Answer:
The windward side is receiving more rainfall.

Question 2.
Shade the rain shadow region in fig B and name it.
Answer:
Students to show the leeward side in the picture.

Question 3.
What is the difference between A and C?
Answer:
In figure 5.4 i.e. convectional rainfall the hot air rises upwards and then the air cools and begins to condense and due to continuous condensation rainfall occurs. Here rainfall is accompanied by lightning and thunder.

In figure 5.6 , i.e. cyclonic rainfall, air from surrounding regions comes towards the centre of the cyclone and starts moving upwards. As it rises, the temperature of the air reduces, condensation occurs and rainfall takes place.

Question 4.
Stormy winds and floods are associated with which rainfall type?
Answer:
Stormy winds and floods are associated with Cyclonic rainfall.

Question 5.
What type of rainfall occurs in Singapore?
Answer:
Cyclonic rainfall occurs in Singapore.

4. Identify the odd man out:

Question 1.
Orographic rainfall, acid rain, cyclonic rainfall, convectional rainfall
Answer:
Acid rain

Question 2.
Snowfall, rainfall, hailstones, dew
Answer:
Dew

Question 3.
Thermometer, rain gauge, anemometer, measuring jar
Answer:
Measuring jar

5. Answer in brief:

Question 1.
In what ways does precipitation occur on the earth?
Answer:
Precipitation means water falls in the solid or liquid state from the clouds to the earth surface. Snow, hailstorms, rainfall are the major forms of precipitation.

(i) Snow:
Answer:

• When the temperature in the atmosphere falls below the freezing point the water vapour directly turns into snowflakes. This is called sublimation.
• Hence the vapour in the form of gas transform into solid snow. Precipitation in the form of solid particles is known as snowfall.
• As snow is in the solid form. It does not run like water and layers of the snow get deposited on the top of the others and when the snow melts the region gets fresh water.

(ii) Hail:

• When there is lot of heat on the earth’s surface, the upward air flow blows at a greater speed. Because of this upward flow, the temperature of air reduces and the condensation of the water vapour takes place, and dark clouds are formed.
• Because of the upward movement of the air, these water droplets go at higher altitude and solidify forming hailstones.
• As the hailstones are heavy, they fall toward the earth’s surface because of gravity. The crops may get destroyed and loss of life and property may occur.
• Hailstones occurs in summer in India, Africa and in some parts of south east Asia.

(iii) Rainfall:

• We get water generally in the form of rainfall. The temperature of the air with water vapour reduces when it goes higher and condensation of the vapour occurs.
• Clouds formed with the condensed water droplets and dust particles accumulate.
• As these water droplets increase in the size, they cannot float in the air anymore because of their weight. They come down as rainfall
• The different types of rainfall are: Convectional rainfall, Orographic rainfall and Cyclonic rainfall.

(iv) Fog, dew and frost:

• When the condensation or solidification of the water vapour in the atmosphere occurs near the earth’s surface, it leads to the formation of fog, dew and frost.

Question 2.
Comment on the rainfall occurring in the rain shadow area.
Answer:

• The winds coming from lakes or seas are moisture-laden and they are obstructed by the high mountain ranges coming in their way
• They start going upwards along the slope of the moutains. The temperature of these winds drop and condensation occurs and rainfall takes place.
• This rainfall takes place because of the obstruction of the mountains which results in the condensation of water vapour.
• The windward side of the mountain gets more rain; the amount of vapour in the air reduces after crossing the mountain and the moisture-holding capacity of the air increases.
• The leeward side of the mountain gets lesser rainfall as compared to windward side.
• Thus, the leeward side area is identified as rain shadow area as it recieves meagre rainfall.

Question 3.
Which type of rainfall occurs in most of the world? Why?
Answer:

• Orographic rainfall occurs in most parts of the world.
• Convectional rainfall is regional in nature.
• There is a certainty in the convectional rainfall occurring in the equatorial areas.
• Comparatively, the orographic and cyclonic rainfall is less certain.
• And therefore, such areas are prone to very heavy rainfall, floods or droughts frequently.

Question 4.
If condensation occurs closer to the earth’s surface, what types of forms become visible?
Answer:
If condensation and solidification of the water vapour in the atmosphere closer to the earth surface are visible, they are in the form of fog, dew or frost.

(i) Fog:

• The temperature of the layers of the air near the surface of the earth reduces. As the temperature reduces, water vapour condenses.
• In this process the water vapour turns into microscopic water particles and float in the air.
• When the density of these droplets in the air increases it leads to the formation of fog

(ii) Dew:

• When moisture-laden air near the earth surface comes in contact with very cold objects condensation of water vapour takes place.
• They turn into very small water droplets and stick to the surface of cold objects, e.g. eg: leaves and this is called dew.

(iii) Frost:

• When the temperature of the air reaches less then 0 degree Celcius the water droplet stuck to the surface of the cold objects and freezes.
• This frozen water droplet is called as frost.

Question 5.
What precautions should be taken while measuring rainfall?
Answer:

• Rainfall is an important source of water on planet earth and rainfall is formed because of changes in the temperature of the air with water vapour.
• The instrument that is used to measure rainfall is called rain gauge.
• The funnel i.e. used for measuring rain has a specific diameter and the rain falling in this funnel is collected in bottle fitted in the gauge.
• The collected water is then measured with the help of measuring jar. In the areas of heavy rainfall, the reading of the rain with rain gauge should be taken every three hours. The measuring jar reads rain in millimetres
• The gauge has to be kept on open ground on 30cm high flat-mount.
• So that the rain water is collected without any obstruction.

6. Distinguish between

Question 1.
Dew and frost
Answer:

	Dew		Frost
(i)	When moisture-laden air near the earth’s surface comes into contact with very cold objects, condensation of vapour takes place into small water droplets called dew.	(i)	If the temperature of the air is less then CPC, the water droplets stuck to the surface of cold objects, freezes forming frost.
(ii)	Water vapour condenses and forms droplets of water.	(ii)	Water droplets stuck to cold surface turns to frozen water droplets.
(iii)	Dew sticks to the cold object but does not freeze.	(iii)	It sticks to the cold object and freeze.

Question 2.
Snow and hail
Answer:

	Snow		Hail
(i)	Precipitation in the form of solid particles of snow is known as snow fall.	(i)	Precipitation in the form of frozen water droplets falling rapidly to the ground is know as hail.
(ii)	The fall of temperature in the atmosphere below the freezing point causes snow fall	(ii)	Extreme heat on the surface of the earth initiates the process of hail formation.
(iii)	Heavy accumulation of snow can collapse the transportation and communication system of the area.	(iii)	It destroys crops and causes loss of life an

Class 9 Geography Chapter 5 Precipitation Intext Questions and Answers

Can you tell?

Question 1.
The blade of grass look like this in winter mornings. From where does the water on the blades of grass come?

Answer:

1. The blade of grass looks like this in winter mornings because of dew. These are small water droplets.
2. The dew is formed in winter because moisture-laden air near the earth surface comes in contact with cold objects due to which condensation of vapour takes place, turning into small water droplets.

Question 2.
Snow is found everywhere in the winters in Kashmir.
Answer:
Snow is found everywhere in winters of Kashmir because Kashmir is located at a higher altitude where the temperature falls below freezing point. Hence water vapour directly turn into snowflakes leading to snowfall.

Question 3.
Why isn’t snow found in our surroundings?
Answer:
Because we have a moderate temperature and we are closer to the sea, snow is not found in our surroundings.

Question 4.
Generally, it rains between June and September in our region.
Answer:
We get rainfall between June and September, in our region when the moisture-laden south-west monsoon winds are obstructed by the Western Ghats leading to orographic rainfall.

Question 5.
How do the rain droplets form?
Answer:
Clouds form when condensed water droplets and dust particles accumulate forming large rain droplets.

Question 6.
In London, there is a fog like this till the afternoon in the winters.
Answer:
In London there is fog till the afternoon in winters because London is far away from equator and it has temperate oceanic climate and they have cool summers.

Question 7.
We do not have fog until afternoons in summers.
Answer:
We do not have fog until afternoons in summer because we are near to equator and we have tropical climate and hot summers.

Question 8.
Sometimes hailstones destroy the standing crops in the field.
Answer:
Hailstones are solid and heavy in nature and they hit the earth due to gravity and this is the reason they destroy the crops in the field.

Question 9.
Why don’t we get hailstones frequently?
Answer:
For the formation of hailstones the following 2 conditions are required:

• Intense heating which results in upwards air flow.
• The decrease in air temperature at higher layers of the atmosphere.
• As India is a tropical country, we do not find cooler air at higher levels because of the intense heating of land.

Think about it.

Question 1.
We use a raincoat or umbrella to protect ourselves from rainfall. What will you use to protect yourself from severe hailstorms?
Answer:
If a person is outside without any coverage, he needs to seek shelter immediately, making sure to protect his head from hailstones.

Question 2.
Because of the conventional processes, convectional rainfall occurs in the afternoon in equational areas. But why doesn’t it rain in afternoons in the oceanic areas of the equatorial belt?
Answer:
One of the necessary conditions of convectional rainfall is intense heating of surface which causes air to expand and rise. Since land heats up faster than water, it rains only on the land in the equatorial regions and not in the oceanic areas.

Question 3.
Why are the areas of high rainfall situated in tropical areas?
Answer:

• Tropical areas receive direct rays of the Sun almost throughout the year. Hence the rate of evaporation1 is high here.
• The tropical region receives convectional rainfall throughout the year and also orographic rainfall is experienced here.
• Thus areas of high rainfall are situated in the tropical area.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 5 Precipitation Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the statements choosing the correct option from the bracket:

Question 1.
……………. part of the earth’s surface is full of water.
(a) 30.7%
(b) 4.09%
(c) 60.5%
(d) 70.8%
Answer:
(d) 70.8%

Question 2.
When the temperature in the atmosphere falls below the freezing point and the water vapour directly turns into snowflakes, the process is called as ……………..
(a) sublimation²
(b) frostbite³
(c) carbonation
(d) convection
Answer:
(a) sublimation

Question 3.
In areas located at higher altitudes and high latitudes, where the temperatures are below 0°C get precipitation in the form of ………….
(a) dew
(b) rain
(c) snow
(d) hail
Answer:
(c) snow

Question 4.
Because of ………………. crops may get destroyed and loss of life and property may occur.
(a) dew
(b) rain
(c) snow
(d) hail
Answer:
(d) hail

Question 5.
Hails do not occur in ……………… areas.
(a) temperate
(b) equatorial
(c) landlocked
(d) mountainous
Answer:
(b) equatorial

Question 6.
In equatorial areas, …………. type of rainfall occurs almost daily in the afternoons.
(a) frontal
(b) convectional
(c) cyclonic
(d) orographic
Answer:
(b) convectional

Question 7.
…………… rainfall occurs because of obstruction from high mountain ranges.
(a) Frontal
(b) Convectional
(c) Cyclonic
(d) Orographic
Answer:
(d) orographic

Question 8.
Cyclonic rainfall occurs more in …………… zones.
(a) temperate
(b) equatorial
(c) torrid
(d) polar
Answer:
(a) temperate

Question 9.
…………… rainfall occurs in most of the parts in the world.
(a) Frontal
(b) Convectional
(c) Orographic
(d) Cyclonic
Answer:
(c) orographic

Question 10.
Snowfall can also be measured with the help of ……………
(a) hygrometer
(b) rain gauge
(c) barometer
(d) anemometer
Answer:
(b) rain gauge

Question 11.
A layer of ice is equivalent to 10mm of rainfall.
(a) 10mm
(b) 50mm
(c) 100mm
(c) 120mm
Answer:
(c) 120mm

Question 12.
When moisture-laden air near the earth’s surface comes in contact of very cold objects and form water droplets which stick to the surface of the cold objects is formed.
(a) dew
(b) frost
(c) hail
(d) fog
Answer:
(a) dew

Question 13.
If the temperature of the air reaches less than 0°C, the water droplets stuck to the surfaces of cold objects freeze and form
(a) dew
(b) frost
(c) hail
(d) fog
Answer:
(b) frost

Question 14.
If precipitation does not take place, then conditions of arise.
(a) floods
(b) hail
(c) snowstorm
(d) drought
Answer:
(d) drought

Question 15.
Visibility reduces because of
(a) floods
(b) drought
(c) fog
(d) dew
Answer:
(c) fog

Match the column:

Question 1.

Column A	Column B
(1) Snowflakes	(a) upward air flow
(2) Hailstones	(b) sublimation
(3) Dew	(c) microscopic water particles floating in the air
(4) Fog	(d) condensation4 on cold objects

Answer:
(1 – b),
(2 – a),
(3 – d),
(4 – c)

Question 2.

Column A	Column B
(1) Orographic rainfall (2) Convectional Rainfall (3) Cyclonic Rainfall	(a) Daily in equatorial areas (b) More in temperate zones (c) Mountain barrier

Answer:
(1 – c),
(2 – a),
(3 – b)

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
What percentage of the earth’s surface is covered with water?
Answer:
70.8% of the earth’s surface is covered with water.

Question 2.
Why do we see different forms of condensation?
Answer:
Different forms of condensation are seen due to changes in atmospheric conditions.

Question 3.
What is precipitation?
Answer:
When water falls in the solid or liquid state from the clouds to the ground, it is called as precipitation.

Question 4.
Name the major forms of precipitation.
Answer:
Snow, hailstones and rainfall are the major forms of precipitation.

Question 5.
Explain the process of sublimation.
Answer:
When the temperature in the atmosphere falls below the freezing point, water vapour directly turns into snowflakes this process is called sublimation.

Question 6.
In India, hails occur in which season?
Answer:
Hails occur in summer reason in India.

Question 7.
Why don’t hails occur in cold zones?
Answer:
Hails do not occur in cold zones because of lack of upward flow.

Question 8.
Why don’t hails occur in equatorial areas?
Answer:
Hails do not occur in equatorial areas because of the heat in the atmosphere.

Question 9.
Which type of rainfall occurs because of obstruction of mountain?
Answer:
Orographic rainfall occurs because of obstruction of mountains.

Question 10.
Convectional rainfall is mainly experienced in which region?
Answer:
Convectional rainfall is mainly experienced in equatorial region.

Question 11.
What is a Cyclone?
Answer:
Cyclone is a specific air formation when the pressure at an area is less than the surrounding regions.

Question 12.
What is acid rain?
Answer:
Precipitation of water with dissolved acids is called acid rain.

Study the rainfall map of the world given below and answer the following question:

Question 1.
Which region experiences more rainfall?
Answer:
The tropical region experiences more rainfall.

Question 2.
What is the reason for low rainfall in the Central Peninsular India?
Answer:
The Central Peninsular India falls on the leeward side of the Western Ghats and hence a rain shadow region is formed here.

Question 3.
Why does the eastern part of Central African continent gets less rainfall than the western part despite its location close to the equator?
Answer:

• Eastern part of the African Continent is a rain shadow region of westerly monsoon winds whereas the western part lies on the windward side and gets more rain.
• The eastern part of Africa also comes under the influence of the North east trade winds but still receive less rains as they are dry winds originating from the land.

Question 4.
Why does the amount of high rainfall in the western part of the European continent reduce in the eastern part?
Answer:
There are many mountain ranges in the western part of Europe. These obstruct the rain-bearing clouds coming from the west and therefore the amount of rainfall received is high in the west and it reduces towards the east.

Question 5.
Why is rainfall more only in the eastern coast of Australia?
Answer:
The eastern part of Australia is a mountainous region. The winds blowing from the Pacific Ocean are obstructed by these mountains resulting in orographic rainfall towards the east and the formation of a rain shadow zone towards the west.

Observe the horizontal profile of Maharashtra in the following figure and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What type of rainfall occurs in Maharashtra?
Answer:
Orographic rainfall occurs in Maharashtra.

Question 2.
Where will the rain shadow area lie in Maharashtra?
Answer:
The rain shadow area lies to the Leeward side of Sahyadri hills (Maharashtra plateau).

Question 3.
Think about the figure and estimate the rainfall of your district.
Answer:
The answer may vary.

Give reasons:

Question 1.
Crops may get destroyed due to hailstones.
Answer:

• As hailstones are heavy they fall towards the earth’s surface, but because of the frequent upward flow of air, they are repeatedly taken upwards.
• Here, a new layer of snow encapsulates the hail. This happens quite a few times.
• Hence, concentric layers are formed while the hail grows in size.
• These big heavy hailstones fall rapidly to the ground because of gravity. This type of precipitation is called as hail.
• Hence due to hail, crops may get destroyed.

Question 2.
There is a difference between ice and snow.
Answer:

• In areas located at higher altitudes and high- latitudes, where the temperatures are below 0°C get precipitation in the form of snow.
• Snow is friable and opaque. This snow accumulates in the form of layers on top of each other.
• Because of the pressure from the upper layers, the lower layers of the snow become homogeneous, massive and transparent.
• Massive transparent snow formed in such a way is called ice.

Thus, there is a difference between ice and snow.

Question 3.
In equatorial areas, convectional rainfall occurs almost daily in the afternoons.
Answer:

• In equatorial areas, the surface gets heated because of the sun’s heat and the air near it also gets heated.
• As it gets heated, it spreads and becomes lighter and moves upwards. It cools down when it goes upward. The moisture-holding capacity of cold air is less.
• Consequently, condensation of the water vapour occurs and rainfall occurs in equatorial areas.
• Thus in equatorial areas, convectional rainfall occurs almost daily in the afternoons.

Question 4.
A rain shadow area is formed on the leeward side of the Western Ghats.
Answer:

• Winds coming from Arabian sea are moisture-laden. They are obstructed by the Western Ghats coming in their way.
• According to the slope of the Western Ghats, the moisture-laden winds start going upwards.
• The temperature of these winds drop and condensation occurs and rainfall takes place. Thus, because of the obstruction of the Western Ghats, orographic rainfall occurs.
• The windward side of the mountains gets more rain; amount of vapour in the air reduces after crossing the mountain and the water vapour carrying capacity of the air increases.
• The leeward side of the mountain gets lesser rainfall and hence a rain-shadow area is formed here.

Question 5.
Snowfall is not experienced in Maharashtra.
Answer:

• Solid snow particles are formed in regions where the temperature falls below the freezing point leading to the process of sublimation.
• In the sublimation process, the water vapour directly turns into snowflakes.
• In Maharashtra, during winters the temperature never falls below the freezing point.
• Hence snowflakes are never formed in the atmosphere.
• Thus snowfall is not experienced in Maharashtra.

Question 6.
Hailstones do not occur frequently.
Answer:

• Strong vertical movements of air with very high difference in temperature are an ideal condition for the formation of hailstones.
• Presence of moisture is also necessary in the air.
• Such conditions do not exist frequently.
• Hence hailstones are not experienced frequently.

Question 7.
Dew and frost occur on a large scale in winters.
Answer:

• During winters when moisture-laden air near the earth’s surface comes in contact very cold objects, condensation of the vapour takes place.
• They turn into very small water droplets. These water droplets get stick to the surface of the cold objects. This is called dew.
• If the temperature of the air is less than 0°C, the water droplets stuck to the surfaces of cold objects freeze.
• This frozen water droplet is called frost.
• Thus dew and frost occur on a large scale in winters.

Draw diagram of Rain Gauge:
Answer:

Question 6.
Explain the effects of precipitation.
Answer:

• The main source of potable water available on the earth is precipitation.
• As extreme rainfall is destructive so is the absence of rainfall.
• Floods may occur because of heavy rainfall and causes loss to life and property.
• If precipitation does not take place then conditions of drought arise. It causes a shortage of food and food may have to be imported and farmers’ conditions becomes grave.
• The economy of an agrarian1 country like India is dependent on agriculture. The agriculture in India to a large extent is dependent on monsoons. Hence rainfall in India is important to the whole country.
• A good rainfall at the right time increases crop production while untimely rain can damage the crope.
• Acid rains which is a combination of harmful gases and rainwater is harmful to the living organisms as well as non-living objects.

Explain:

Question 1.
Snowfall
Answer:

• When the temperature in the atmosphere falls below the freezing point, the water vapour directly turns into snowflakes. This is called sublimation.
• Here, the vapour in the form of gas transforms into solid snow.
• Precipitation in the form of solid particles is known as snowfall.
• In high latitudinal and temperate regions, snowfall occurs at the mean sea level while in tropical areas, snowfall occurs at places located higher than the snowline altitude.

Question 2.
Formation of hailstones.
Answer:

• When there is a lot of heat on the earth’s surface, the upward air flow blows at a great speed.
• Because of this upward flow, the temperature of the air reduces and the condensation of the water vapour takes place.
• Dark clouds are formed. Because of the upward movement of air, these water droplets go at a higher altitude.
• Here, solidification of these droplets occur and hailstones are formed.

Question 3.
Cyclonic rainfall
Answer:

• Cyclone is the specific air formation when the pressure at an area is less than the surrounding regions.
• Air from the surrounding region comes toward the center of the cyclone and starts moving upwards.
• As it rises, the temperature of the air reduces, condensation occurs and rainfall takes place.
• It rains in areas over which the cyclone passes. Cyclonic rainfall occurs more in temperate zones and its area is also quite extensive.
• Comparatively, cyclonic rainfall occurring in tropical regions is limited in extent and is stormy in nature.

Question 4.
Rain Gauge.
Answer:

• The instrument that is used to measure rainfall is called rain gauge.
• The funnel that is used for measuring rain has a specific diameter. The rain falling in this funnel is collected in a bottle fitted in the gauge.
• The collected water is then measured with the help of measuring jar. The measuring jar reads in millimetres.
• In areas of heavy rainfall, the reading of the rain is taken every three hours.
• The gauge is kept on open ground on a 30cm flat-mount. Hence, the rainwater is collected without any obstruction.

Question 5
Fog, dew and frost
Answer:
(i) Fog:

• The temperature of the layers of the air near the surface of the earth reduces. As temperature reduces, water vapour condenses.
• In this process, vapour turns into microscopic water particles and float in the air.
• When the density of these droplets in the air increases, fog occurs.

(ii) Dew:

• When moisture-laden air near the earth’s surface comes in contact with very cold objects, condensation of the vapour takes place. They turn into very small water droplets.
• These water droplets get stick to the surface of the cold objects. This is called dew.

(iii) Frost:

• If the temperature of the air reaches less than 0°C, the water droplets stuck to the surfaces of cold objects and freeze.
• This frozen water droplet is called frost.

Question 6.
Acid Rain
Answer:

• Because of air pollution in industrial areas, various gases get mixed in the air.
• Different adds are created when the water vapour in the air reacts chemically with these gases. For example, nitric add, sulphuric add, etc.
• Acids dissolved in rainwater fall with the rain j during precipitation. Such a type of rain which has acids dissolved in it is called acid rain.
• Such type of rainfall is harmful to the living organisms and the non-living objects.

Question 7.
Convectional Rainfall
Answer:

1. In equatorial areas, the surface gets heated because of the sun’s heat and the air near it also gets heated. As it gets heated, it spreads and becomes lighter and moves upwards.
2. It cools down when it goes upward & as the j moisture-holding capacity of cold air is less, condensation and rainfall occurs.
3. This type of rainfall is called as Convectional! Rainfall.
4. In equatorial areas, such a type of rainfall occurs almost daily in the afternoons. Rainfall is accompanied by lightning and thunder.
5. The Congo basin of the Africa and the Amazon basin in the South America experience convectional rainfall.
6. Such a rainfall has a very limited area on the earth.

Question 8.
Orographic rainfall
Answer:

• Winds coming from lakes or seas are moisture-laden. They are obstructed by the high mountain ranges coming in their way.
• They start going upwards along the slope of the mountains.
• The temperature of these winds drop and condensation occurs and rainfall takes place. Thus because of the obstruction of the mountains, this type of rainfall occurs.
• The windward side of the mountains gets; more rain; the amount of vapour in the air reduces after crossing the mountain and the moisture-holding capacity of the air increases.
• The leeward side of the mountain gets lesser rainfall and hence this area is identified as rain- shadow area.

9th Std Geography Questions And Answers:

• Distributional Maps Class 9 Geography Questions And Answers
• Endogenetic Movements Class 9 Geography Questions And Answers
• Exogenetic Movements Part 1 Class 9 Geography Questions And Answers
• Exogenetic Movements Part 2 Class 9 Geography Questions And Answers
• Precipitation Class 9 Geography Questions And Answers
• Properties of Sea Water Class 9 Geography Questions And Answers
• International Date Line Class 9 Geography Questions And Answers
• Introduction to Economics Class 9 Geography Questions And Answers
• Trade Class 9 Geography Questions And Answers
• Urbanisation Human Class 9 Geography Questions And Answers
• Transport and Communication Class 9 Geography Questions And Answers
• Tourism Class 9 Geography Questions And Answers