Class 8

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Structure of Ocean Floor Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Structure of Ocean Floor

Class 8 Geography Chapter 4 Structure of Ocean Floor Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Choose the correct option:

Question a.
Like there are landforms on land, ocean floor also has submerged landforms because ………….
(i) there is land under water
(ii) there are volcanoes under water
(iii) land is continuous and there is water in deeper parts
(iv) though land is continuous, its level is not the same everywhere like that of water
Answer:
(iv) though land is continuous, its level is not the same everywhere like that of water

Question b.
Which part of the ocean floor is most useful to the man?
(i) Continental shelf
(ii) Continental slope
(iii) Abyssal plains
(iv) Marine deeps
Answer:
(i) Continental shelf

Question c.
Which one of the following option is related to marine deposits?
(i) Rivers, glaciers, continental shelf, remains of plants and animals
(ii) Volcanic ash, continental shelf, remains of plants and animals
(iii) Volcanic ash, lava, fine particles of soil
(iv) Volcanic ash, remains of plants and animals, abyssal plants
Answer:
(iii) Volcanic ash, lava, fine particles of soil

2. Question a.
Name the landforms shown in the following figure.
(Note: The answer is given directly.)

Answer:

Question b.
Which of these landforms are useful for deep sea research?
Answer:
Submarine plateau and marine trench are the landforms useful for deep sea research.

Question c.
Which of these are appropriate to be used for the protection of marine borders and naval base building?
Answer:
Continental shelf is appropriate to be used for the protection of marine borders and naval base building.

3. Give geographical reasons:

Question a.
The study of ocean floor is useful to man.
Answer:

1. Various minerals, rocks, fine I soil particles are found on the sea floor.
2. Remains of marine plants and animals are also found on the ocean floor.
3. To study the marine life, mineral wealth as well as the process of volcanic eruption, the study of ocean floor is useful to man. ‘

Question b.
The continental shelf is a paradise for fishing activity.
Answer:

1. Being a shallowest part of the ocean bed, sunlight reaches up to continental shelf easily.
2. As its effect, algae, plankton, etc. grows on a large scale on continental shelf.
3. Algae, plankton, etc. is food for fish. Therefore, fish are found on a large scale on continental shelf. Therefore, the continental shelf is paradise for fishing activity.

Question c.
Some marine islands are actually the peaks of sea mountains.
Answer:

1. The hundreds of kilometres wide and thousands of kilometres long hills found on the ocean bed are called submerged hills.
2. Peaks of some of the submerged hills come above the sea level.
3. These peaks are the visible land areas surrounded from all sides by water. These peaks are called islands. Thus, some marine islands are actually the peaks of sea mountains.

Question d.
The continental slope is considered to be the boundary of continents.
Answer:

1. Continental slope lies beyond the continental shelf.
2. The deep abyssal plain begins beyond the continental slope. Therefore, the continental slope is considered to be the boundary of continents.

Question e.
The disposal of waste materials in the oceans by man is harmful to the 1 environment.
Answer:

1. The disposal of waste materials in the oceans by man increases the pollution of sea water.
2. This disposed waste materials harm the life of marine animal life and marine plant. Thus, the disposal of waste materials in the oceans by man is harmful to the environment.

4. Observe the map on Pg 27 in ‘Give it a try’ and answer the following questions:

Question a.
Madagascar and Sri Lanka are related to which landform of the ocean floor?
Answer:
Madagascar and Sri Lanka are related to island of the ocean floor.

Question b.
Near which continent are these landforms located?
Answer:
Madagascar is located near the continent of Africa and Sri Lanka is located near the continent of Asia.

Question c.
Which islands in our country are examples of peaks of submerged mountains?
Answer:
Andaman and Nicobar islands in our country are examples of peaks of submerged mountains.

Activity:

Question a.
prepare a model of the ocean floor.
Answer:

1. While studying the ocean floor, we must keep in mind the age of the ocean bed. By studying the deposits on the ocean bed, it occurred to the scientists that the deposits at the ocean floor are not older than 200 million years.

2. The maximum age of the rocks on the continents is supposed to be 3200 million years. Then where have the deposits on the sea bed which are older than 200 million years gone? This made the scientists restless. Then they started the study of the rocks along with the deposits.

3. This made them realize that the rocks are also not older than 200 million years. It was inferred that the ocean floor is very young as compared to the earth’s surface. Now this is unanimously accepted. This research was then used in the study of the concept of plate tectonics.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 4 Structure of Ocean Floor Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct answer and complete the sentences:

Question a.
Continental slope has slope.
(a) flatter
(b) broader
(c) steeper
(d) lower
Answer:
(c) steeper

Question b.
The average depth of the oceans is around metres.
(a) 7300
(b) 3700
(c) 3900
(d) 3300
Answer:
(b) 3700

Examine the following statements and correct the incorrect ones:

Question a.
Abyssal plain lies beyond the continental shelf.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: Abyssal plain lies beyond the continental slope.

Question b.
Around 51 per cent of the surface of the earth is covered by water.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: Around 71 per cent of the surface of the earth is covered by water.

Question c.
Natural gas and mineral oil can be obtained from the continental shelf.
Answer:
Correct.

Question d.
For survey purpose in India, the height of sea level at Kanyakumari is considered to be zero.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: For survey purpose in India, the height of sea level at Chennai is considered to be zero.

Question e.
Active volcanoes are mostly seen in marine trenches.
Answer:
Correct.

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question a.
What is called continental shelf?
Answer:
The land near the coast and submerged under the sea is called continental shelf.

Question b.
What is called continental slope?
Answer:
The steeper slope of the sea bed beyond the extent of continental shelf is called continental slope.

Question c.
What is called abyssal plain?
Answer:
The flat part of the sea bed that lies
beyond the continental slope is called abyssal plain.

Question d.
What is called submerged hills?
Answer:
The hundreds of kilometres wide and thousands of kilometres long hills found on the ocean bed are called submerged hills.

Question e.
What is called marine islands?
Answer:
Peaks of some of the submerged hills that come above the sea level are called marine islands.

Question f.
What is called submarine plateau?
Answer:
The flat and extensive summit of marine island is called submarine plateau.

Question g.
What is called marine deep?
Answer:
The landforms on the ocean bed that are comparatively less extending and shallower ones are called marine deep.

Question h.
What is called marine trench?
Answer:
The landforms on the ocean bed that are comparatively more extending and deeper ones are called marine trench.

Match the columns and complete the chain:

Question a.

‘A’ Column	‘B’ Column	‘C’ Column
1. Andaman – Nicobar	(i) Submarine plateau	(a) Pacific Ocean
2. Chagos	(ii) Located on continental shelf	(b) Bay of Bengal
3. Mariana	(iii) Islands	(c) Arabian Sea
4. Mumbai High	(iv) Marine deep	(d) Indian Ocean

Answer:

‘A’ Column	‘B’ Column	‘C’ Column
1. Andaman – Nicobar	(iii) Islands	(b) Bay of Bengal
2. Chagos	(i) Submarine plateau	(d) Indian Ocean
3. Mariana	(iv) Marine deep	(a) Pacific Ocean
4. Mumbai High	(ii) Located on continental shelf	(c) Arabian Sea

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question a.
What is marine deposits?
Answer:

1. Marine deposit is a type of marine deposition.
2. The rivers and glaciers flowing from the continent bring pebbles, clay, soil, etc. with them when they meet sea or ocean.
3. These materials get deposited on the continental shelf. The deposits are known as marine deposits.
4. Due to pressure of sea water and deposition of layers over layers of sediments, sedimentary rocks are formed.
5. Marine life and the availability of minerals in the sea bed can be studied with the help of marine deposits.

Question b.
What is marine oozes?
Answer:

1. Marine oozes is a type of marine deposit.
2. Lava and ash erupting out of volcano, fine soil particles, remains of plants and animals, etc. get deposited on marine abyssal plains. Deposits of these materials on the abyssal plains are known as marine oozes.
3. Marine oozes are in the form of fine clay. The percentage of remains of plants and animals in marine oozes is up to 30 per cent.
4. Marine oozes are also useful to study marine life and the availability of minerals in the sea bed.

Question c.
Write in brief about the continental shelf.
Answer:
1. The land near the seacoast and submerged under the sea is called continental shelf. The depth of continental shelf is about 200 metres below the sea level.

2. Continental shelf is found to be narrow along the coasts of some continents and broad along the coasts of some other continents.

3. Being a shallowest part of the ocean bed, sunlight reaches up to continental shelf easily. As its effect, the food for fish like algae, plankton, etc. grows on a large scale on continental shelf. Therefore, continental shelf is useful for fishing occupation.

4. Various minerals, natural gas and mineral oil, etc. can also be obtained from mining the continental shelf. For example, Mumbai High located on the continental shelf of the Arabian Sea is a source from where the mineral oil and natural gas is obtained.

Question d.
Write in brief about the continental slope.
Answer:

1. The steep slope of the sea bed beyond the extent of continental shelf is called continental slope.
2. The depth of the continental slope is from 200 metres to 3600 metres below the sea level.
3. The continental slope is found to be comparatively narrower.
4. The lower boundary of the continental slope is considered as the boundary of I continent.

Question f.
Write in brief about the abyssal plains.
Answer:

1. The flat part of the sea bed that lies beyond the continental slope is called abyssal plains.
2. Various submerged landforms like
   submerged hills, submerged mountains, etc. are seen on abyssal plains.
3. Submarine plateaus are also found on the abyssal plains.

Question g.
Write in brief about mean sea level.
Answer:

1. The average of the highest high tide and the lowest low tide is considered to calculate the mean sea level.
2. This average is considered to be zero sea level.
3. The altitude of any place above the sea level is measured and expressed in positive value. (For example, Mount Everest is 8848 metres high.)
4. The depth of any place below the sea level is measured and expressed in negative value. (For example, Mariana Trench is 11034 metres below sea level.)

Study the following map/figure/graph and answer the following questions:

Can you tell?

Question a.
What parameters were used for classifying the landforms on the earth?
Answer:
Altitude and the shape of the land were the parameters used for classifying the landforms on the earth.

Question b.
What parameters were used for naming the landforms below water?
Answer:
Depth from the seafloor and the shape of the land were the parameters used for naming the landforms below water.

Give it a try.

Question a.
Name the submerged landforms shown in the diagram.
(Note: The answer is given directly.)

Answer:

Question b.
Identify the ocean shown in the map of the ocean floor.
Answer:
The ocean shown in the map of the ocean floor is Indian Ocean.

Question c.
Which region would be ideal for fishing and why?
Answer:
The region near Madagascar island would be ideal for fishing. Madagascar island has a shallow continental shelf. The warm stream and cold stream also meet near Madagascar island. Therefore, the region near Madagascar island would be ideal for fishing.

2. Name the landforms shown in the following figure and answer the following questions:
(Note: The answer is given directly.)

Question a.

Answer:

Thought-Provoking Questions

Think about it.

Question a.
If the classification of landforms on land can be done on the basis of altitude and size, then how can the landforms submerged underwater are classified?
Answer:
If the classification of landforms on land can be done on the basis of altitude and size, then the landforms submerged underwater are classified on the basis of the depth from the seafloor and the shape of the land there.

Use your brainpower!

Do this activity when you go to the seashore with your parents or teachers. Observe the materials which have come with the waves. Classify them as per the flowchart given below:

Question a.
Which of these are perishable items?
Answer:
Plants, conches and shells, aquatic animals of these are perishable items.

Question b.
Which are non-perishable?
Answer:
Chemicals, metals and plastic/glass are non-perishable.

Question c.
What will happen because of perishable items?
Answer:
Perishable items will not create pollution of seacoast and seawater on a large scale. The remains of perishable items will get deposited in the form of marine oozes on the ocean bed.

Question d.
What will happen because of non-perishable items?
Answer:
Non-perishable items will create pollution of seacoast and seawater on a large scale.

Question f.
Suggest measures to control deposition of non-perishable items on the coast.
Answer:
The following measures can be taken to control deposition of non-perishable items on the coast:

1. Plastic bags, plastic or glass containers must be prohibited on the seacoasts.
2. Strict action must be taken against offenders carrying the banned products on the seacoasts.
3. Hoardings explaining the importance of clean seacoasts must be displayed on all the seacoast.

Question g.
How will you run a campaign of environmental conservation to keep the coasts clean?
Answer:
We will run a campaign of environmental conservation to keep the coasts clean as follows:

1. We will display hoardings explaining the importance of clean seacoasts on the seacoasts.
2. We will arrange street plays, dramas, etc. highlighting the importance of clean seacoasts.
3. We will arrange special programmes during the festivals like Ganeshotsav, Diwali, Christmas, etc. to keep the seacoasts clean.

Open-Ended Questions:

Question a.
Suggest measures to control deposition of non-perishable items on the coast.
Answer:
The following measures can be taken to control deposition of non-perishable items on the coast:

1. Plastic bags, plastic or glass containers must be prohibited on the seacoasts.
2. Strict action must be taken against offenders carrying the banned products on the seacoasts.
3. Hoardings explaining the importance of clean seacoasts must be displayed on all the seacoasts.

Question b.
How will you run a campaign of environmental conservation to keep the coasts clean?
Answer:
We will run a campaign of environmental conservation to keep the coasts clean as follows:

1. We will display hoardings explaining the importance of clean seacoasts on the seacoasts.
2. We will arrange street plays, dramas, etc. highlighting the importance of clean seacoasts.
3. We will arrange special programmes during the festivals like Ganeshotsav, Diwali, Christmas, etc. to keep the seacoasts clean.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 Local Time and Standard Time Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 Local Time and Standard Time

Class 8 Geography Chapter 1 Local Time and Standard Time Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Complete the sentence by selecting the correct option:

Question a.
The earth requires 24 hours for one rotation. In one hour, ……………. .
(a) 5 longitudes will face the sun
(b) 10 longitudes will face the sun
(c) 15 longitudes will face the sun
(d) 20 longitudes will face the sun
Answer:
(c) 15 longitudes will face the sun

Question b.
To calculate the difference between the local times of any two places on the earth, …………. .
(a) the noon time at both the places should be known
(b) the difference in degrees of their longitudes should be known
(c) the difference in standard times of both the places should be known
(d) changes need to be made according to International Date Line.
Answer:
(b) the difference in degrees of their longitudes should be known

Question c.
The difference between the local time of any two consecutive longitudes is …………… .
(a) 15 minutes
(b) 04 minutes
(c) 30 minutes
(d) 60 minutes
Answer:
(b) 04 minutes

2. Give geographical reasons for the following:

Question a.
The local time is decided by the noontime.
Answer:
1. When at a particular place, the sun reaches the maximum height in the sky it is assumed that almost half of the daytime is over and this time is considered 12 noon.

2. The time of a particular place as decided by the overhead position of the sun in the sky is considered as the local time of that place.

3. During the rotation of the earth, when a particular longitude comes exactly in front of the sun, it is considered as noontime (12 noon) on that longitude. This noontime is considered as local time of that longitude.

In this way, the local time is decided by the noontime.

Question b.
The local time at Greenwich is considered to be the International Standard Time.
Answer:

1. The International Standard Time has been decided according to 0° longitude.
2. 0° longitude passes through Greenwich, England.
3. For an international coordination, it is essential to bring compatibility between the standard times of various countries in the world.

For this purpose, the local time at Greenwich is considered to be the International Standard Time.

Question c.
The standard time of India has been decided by the local time at 82°30′ E longitude.
Answer:

1. With respect to the longitudinal extent, 82°30’E longitude passes through the middle of India.
2. The difference between the local time at 82°30’E longitude and the local time at the extreme east and west longitude passing through India is not more than one hour.

Therefore, the standard time of India has been decided by the local time at 82°30’E longitude.

Question d.
Canada has 6 different standard times.
Answer:

1. The longitudinal extent of Canada is between 52°37′ W and 141° W.
2. Thus, the difference between the extreme east and west longitude passing through Canada is of 88 degrees.
3. The difference between the local time at extreme east and west longitude passing through Canada is of 352 minutes i.e. 5 hours and 52 minutes.

Therefore, it is not practically helpful to consider single standard time in Canada. Therefore, for synchronizing the routine activities in the country, Canada has 6 different standard times.

3. Answer in brief:

Question a.
If it is 12 noon at 60° E longitude, then explain what would be the time at 30° W longitude.
Answer:
1. The difference between 60° E longitude and 30° W longitude will be of 90 degrees. (The difference of 60 degrees between 0° and 60° E + the difference of 30 degrees between 0° and 30° W = 90 degrees.)

2. Difference in local time = 90 × 4
= 360 minutes.
= 360 minutes ÷ 60 minutes = 6 hours.
3. Longitudes lying to the east of any longitude are ahead of the time of that longitude while those lying to the west are behind.
4. Therefore, if it is 12 noon at 60° E longitude, then it would be 6 a.m. at 30° W longitude, (behind by 6 hours)

Question b.
How is the standard time of a place determined?
Answer:
1. The local time at the longitude passing through the middle of a country/ place is generally considered as a standard time of that country/place.

2. If the difference between the local time at the extreme east and west longitude passing through a country is less than one or two hours, one standard time is considered for a country. Thus, there exists only one standard time in a country having comparatively less longitudinal (east-west) extent.

3. If the difference between the local time at the extreme east and west longitude passing through a country is more than one or two hours, more than one standard time zones are considered for a country. Thus, there exists more than one standard time zones in a country having comparatively more longitudinal (east-west) extent.

Question c.
A football match being played at Sao Paulo, Brazil started in India at 6 a.m. IST. Explain what would be the local time at Sao Paulo?
Answer:
1. Statement: For any longitude lying to the west of particular longitude, the local time decreases by 4 minutes for every longitude. (Sao Paulo is located to the west of India)

2. The difference between the longitudes of Sao Paulo and India = 127°30’.

3. Difference in local time = 127.5 × 4
= 510 minutes.
= 510 minutes ÷ 60 minutes
= 8 hours 30 minutes.

4. Thus, if it is 6 a.m. at India, it would be 9.30 p.m. of the previous day at Sao Paulo. Therefore, if a football match being played at Sao Paulo, Brazil started in India at 6 a.m. 1ST, the local time at Sao Paulo would be 9.30 p.m. of previous day.

4. Complete the following table:

If it is 10 pm on 21st June at Prime Meridian, write the dates and time at A, B and C in the following table:
(Note: The answer is given directly.)

Question 1.

Answer:

5. Write the situation of place A shown in these diagrams in the boxes below them:

Question 1.
Write the situation of place A shown in these diagrams in the boxes below them
(i) Sunrise
(ii) Midnight
(iii) Noon
(iv) Sunset

Answer:

Let’s recall: 

Question 1.
Why does the duration of day and night keep changing?
Answer:
The duration of day and night keeps changing as the earth is tilted at an angle of 23.5 degrees.

Question 2.
How many longitudes can be drawn on a world map keeping an interval of 1° each?
Answer:
360 longitudes can be drawn on a world map keeping an interval of 10 each.

Question 3.
The apparent movement of the sun from east to west is a result of what?
Answer:
The apparent movement of the sun from east to west is a result of the rotation of the earth from west to east.

Question 4.
What is the direction of the rotation of the earth?
Answer:
The direction of the rotation of the earth is from west to east.

Question 5.
While the earth rotates, how many longitudes face the sun daily?
Answer:
While the earth rotates, 360 longitudes face the sun dally.

Question 6.
At which longitude does the date change?
Answer:
The date changes at 1800 longitude.

Question 7.
How was the time measured in olden days?
Answer:
In olden days, the time was measured with the help of the natural events of sunrise and sunset and the instruments like Ghatikapaatra, sand timer, etc.

Question 8.
In present tunes, what are the instruments used for time measurement?
Answer:
In present times, the instruments like watches, calendars, etc. are used for time measurement.

Activity:

Question 1.
Look for the actual granny’s clock in Shri Acharya Atre’s poem: “Aajiche Ghadyal” (Granny’s clock). Look for this poem on the internet or in reference book.

Question 2.
Find out the velocity of the earth’s rotation in km/hour.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 1 Local Time and Standard Time Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by selecting the correct option:

Question a.
There are …………. time zones in the world.
(a) 360
(b) 24
(c) 100
(d) 365
Answer:
(b) 24

Question b.
Indian Standard Time is …………..
(a) ahead of Greenwich Mean Time by 5 hours 30 minutes
(b) ahead of Greenwich Mean Time by 3 hours 50 minutes
(c) behind Greenwich Mean Time by 5 hours 30 minutes
(d) behind Greenwich Mean Time by 3 hours 50 minutes
Answer:
(a) ahead of Greenwich Mean Time by 5 hours 30 minutes

Examine the following statements and correct the incorrect ones:

Question 1.
Mumbai is located at 73° E longitude.
Answer:
Correct.

Question 2.
In India, three standard times exist.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: In India, one standard time exists.

Question 3.
If the difference between two longitudes is of 20 degrees, the difference in their local times will be of four hours.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: If the difference between two longitudes is of 20 degrees, the difference in their local times will be of 1 hour and 20 minutes.

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question 1.
Think about it.
Question a.
What is the maximum number of local times that can there be in the world?
Answer:
The maximum number of local times that can be there in the world is 360.

Question b.
How many longitudes pass the sun in one hour?
Answer:
15 longitudes pass the sun in one hour.

Question 2.
How much time does the earth take to complete one rotation?
Answer:
The earth takes nearly 24 hours to complete one rotation.

Question 3.
What is meant by the local time of a place?
Answer:
When the sun is directly overhead at a particular place, it is considered as noon at that place and that time is considered as a local time of that place.

Solve the following:

1. Try this:

Question A.
Mashad, a town in Iran, is located on the 60° E longitude. When it is 12 noon at Greenwich, calculate the local time of Mashad town.
Answer:
1. Statement: As we move towards the east of the Prime Meridian, the local time increases by four minutes for every longitude. (Mashad is located to the east of Greenwich.)

2. The difference between the longitudes of Greenwich and Mashad = 60°.

3. Difference in local time
= 60 × 4
= 240 minutes.
= 240 minutes ÷ 60 minutes
= 4 hours. ‘

4. Therefore, when it is noon at Greenwich, it would be 4 p.m. at Mashad. (Ahead of Greenwich Mean Time by 4 hours.)

Question B.
Manaus city in Brazil is located on 60° W longitude. What would be the local time at Manaus when it is 12 noon at Greenwich?
Answer:
1. Statement: As we move towards the west of the Prime Meridian, the local time decrease by four minutes for every longitude. (Manaus is located to the west of Greenwich.)

2. The difference between the longitudes of Greenwich and Manaus = 60°.

3. Difference in local time = 60 × 4
= 240 minutes.
= 240 minutes ÷ 60 minutes
= 4 hours.

4. Therefore, when it is noon at Greenwich, it would be 8 a.m. at Manaus. (Behind Greenwich Mean Time by 4 hours.)

2. Can you tell?

Question A.
Mumbai is located at 73° E longitude. Kolkata is located at 88° E longitude. Find the difference between the longitudes of these two cities.
Answer:
Mumbai is located at 73° E longitude. Kolkata is located at 88° E longitude. Therefore, the difference between the longitudes of these two cities would be of (88 – 73 = 15) 15°.

Question B.
If the local time at Mumbai is 3 p.m. then what would be the local time at Kolkata?
Answer:
1. Statement: For any longitude lying to the east of particular longitude, the local time increases by 4 minutes for every longitude.

2. The difference between the longitudes of Mumbai and Kolkata = 15°.

3. Difference in local time = 15 × 4
= 60 minutes.
= 60 minutes -r- 60 minutes = 1 hour.

4. Kolkata is located to the east of Mumbai. Therefore, if it is 3 p.m. at Mumbai, then it would be 4 p.m. at Kolkata. (ahead by 1 hour)

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question a.
Give brief information about the Indian Standard Time.
Answer:
1. The Indian Standard Time (IST) is calculated on the basis of 82°30’E longitude, passing through Mirzapur, near Allahabad in Uttar Pradesh.

2. With respect to longitudinal extent, 82°30′ E longitude passes through the middle of India.

3. When the sun is directly overhead on this longitude, it is considered that it is 12 noon at every place in India. Thus, the local time at 82°30’E longitude is considered as the Standard time of India.

4. The difference between the local time at 82°30′ E longitude and the local time at the extreme east and west longitude passing through India is not more than one hour.

Question b.
Give brief information about Universal Standard Time.
Answer:
1. As the standard time is essential for synchronizing routine activities in a country with comparatively more j longitudinal extent, the universal standard i time is essential for an international coordinating between the countries in the world.

2. For this purpose, the local time at Greenwich (Greenwich Mean Time) in England is considered to be the International/Universal Standard Time (UST).

3. With reference to GMT, the differences in standard times of various countries in the world are calculated.

4. The Indian Standard Time is ahead of GMT by 5 hours and 30 minutes. For example, if it is 12 noon at Greenwich, then it would be 5.30 p.m. in India.

Give geographical reasons for the following:

Question a.
In the countries with larger area, it is convenient to use one standard time instead of more than one local times.
Answer:
1. In the countries with larger area, much difference between the local times at extreme east and west longitude passing through the countries is found.

2. In such countries, if more than one local times are followed, it could lead to lots of confusion and chaos.

3. For example, if more than one local times are followed, it will become difficult to synchronize the timetable of railways, airways, etc. Therefore, in countries with comparatively larger area, it is convenient to use one standard time instead of more than one local times.

Study the following map/ figure/graph and answer the following questions:

1. Can you tell?
Study the figure 1.3 given on page 4 of the textbook and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Between which longitudes does the region experience daytime?
Answer:
The region shown between 90° W and 90° E in the figure experiences daytime.

Question 2.
Which longitudes experience noon and the midnight respectively?
Answer:
0° longitude and 180° longitude experience noon and the midnight respectively.

Question 3.
Edward from New Orleans is on which longitude?
Answer:
Edward from New Orleans is on 90° W longitude.

Question 4.
What is the time at Accra city?
Answer:
It is 12 noon at Accra city.

Question 5.
At the same time, what is Sharad from Patna and Yakaito from Japan doing? What time is it in these cities?
Answer:
At the same time, Sharad is returning home from school and Yakaito from Japan is preparing for the night’s sleep. At the same time, it is 5.30 p.m. at Patna and 9.20 p.m. at Japan.

Question 6.
Select any one longitude. Calculate the local time of the longitudes lying 1° to the west and east of this longitude.
Answer:

1. The selected longitude: 60° E. The local time of the selected longitude is 4 p.m.
2. The local time of the longitude lying 1° to the west of the selected longitude (59° E) will be 3.56 p.m.
3. The local time of the longitude lying 1° to the east of the selected longitude (61° E) will be 4.04 p.m.

2. Can you tell?

Study the figure 1.4 given on page 6 of the textbook and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Considering the longitudinal extent of India, how many longitudes with a difference of 1° can be drawn on a map?
Answer:
Considering the longitudinal extent of India, 29 longitudes with a difference of 1° can be drawn on a map.

Question 2.
By how many minutes do two consecutive longitudes differ?
Answer:
Two consecutive longitudes differ by 4 minutes.

Question 3.
What is the value of degrees of longitude at Mirzapur?
Answer:
The value of longitude at Mirzapur is 82°30′.

Question 4.
If it is 8 a.m. at 82°30′ E, what would be the time in their clocks at the following places: Jammu, Madurai, Jaisalmer, Guwahati.
Answer:
If it is 8 a.m. at 82°30′ E, it would be 8 a.m. in their clocks at Jammu, Madurai, Jaisalmer, Guwahati.
(Note: In India, the time at 82°30′ E is considered as standard time of India and therefore the same time will be considered everywhere in India.)

Question 5.
Though the distance between them is more why doesn’t the standard time differ in these places?
Answer:
In India, the time at 82°30′ E is considered as standard time of India and therefore the same time will be considered everywhere in India. Therefore, though the distance between them is more, the standard time doesn’t differ in these places.

Thought-Provoking Questions:

1. Think about it.

Question 1.
At the poles, sunrise occurs on one equinox and sunsets on the next equinox. If you happen to be at any of the poles during this time, then what would be the route of the sun in the daytime?
Answer:
At the poles, sun rises on one equinox and sets on the next equinox. If we happen to be at any of the poles during this time, then the following would be the route of the sun in the daytime:
(A) North Pole:
1. The sun will rise at the North Pole approximately on March 21.

2. Approximately, from March 21 to June 21, the sun will rise higher in the sky with each advancing day. It will reach the maximum height approximately on June 21. Approximately, from June 21 to September 21, the sun will start sinking towards the horizon in the sky with each advancing day.

3. The sun will set at the North Pole approximately on September 21.

(B) South Pole:
1. The sun will rise at the South Pole approximately on September 21.

2. Approximately, from September 21 to December 21, the sun will rise higher in the sky with each advancing day. It will reach the maximum height approximately on December 21.

3. Approximately, from December 21 to March 21, the sun will start sinking towards the horizon in the sky with each advancing day.

4. The sun will set at the South Pole approximately on March 21.

Question 2.
On which day, would the sun appear at the highest point in the sky?
Answer:

1. On the North Pole, approximately on June 21, the sun would appear at the highest point in the sky.
2. On the South Pole, approximately on December 21, the sun would appear at the highest point in the sky.

2. Use your brainpower:

Question 1.
Tick ✓ the time in the boxes which you can tell without using clock.
(Note: The answer is given directly.)

Answer:

3. Give it a try.

Question 1.
If it is 8 a.m. in India, what is the time in Greenwich?
Answer:
If it is 8 a.m. in India, it would be 2.30 a.m. in Greenwich.

Question 2.
When it is 2 p.m. in India, in which countries would it be 2 p.m. exactly?
Answer:
When it is 2 p.m. in India, it would be 2 p.m. exactly in Sri Lanka.

Question 3.
When it is 9 a.m. in India, what would be the time at 82°30′ W longitude?
Answer:
When it is 9 a.m. in India, it would be 10 p.m. of the previous day at 82°30′ W longitude.

Question 4.
What would be the time at Prime Meridian when a new day starts at 180° longitude?
Answer:
It would be 12 noon at Prime Meridian when a new day starts at 180° longitude.

4. Think about it.

Question 1.
In which of the following countries, does only one standard time exist? (Mexico, Sri Lanka, New Zealand, China)
Answer:
From the given countries, only one time exists in Sri Lanka, New Zealand and China.

Question 2.
Why does a country having a large latitudinal extent have only one standard time?
Answer:
The places lying on the same longitude have the same local time. Therefore, a country having a large latitudinal extent have only one standard time.

Question 3.
Which discrepancies will emerge if more than one local times, instead of one standard time are followed in a country with huge longitudinal extent?
Answer:
The following discrepancies will emerge if more than one local times, instead of one standard time are followed in a country with huge longitudinal extent:

1. It will become difficult to synchronize the timetable of rail transportation, air transportation, etc. in a country.
2. It will become difficult to synchronize the timings of schools, colleges, banks, libraries, etc. in a country.
3. We will always have to adjust the time in watch as we move from one place to another in a country.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Civics Solutions Chapter 6 Bureaucracy Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Civics Solutions Chapter 6 Bureaucracy

Class 8 Civics Chapter 6 Bureaucracy Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Identify if the following statements are correct or wrong and rewrite the wrong statements in their correct form:

Question 1.
In a Parliamentary democracy, representatives elected by the people and ministers bear the administrative responsibility.
Answer:
Correct.

Question 2.
Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) recruits candidates for civil services in Maharashtra.
Answer:
Wrong – Maharashtra Public Service Commission recruits candidates for civil services in Maharashtra.

2. Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
Reservation policy is followed even in Civil Services.
Answer:

1. A part of the society comprising of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, Women, Other Backward Castes and specially-abled is termed as the weaker section of the society.
2. It was essential to empower these weaker sections.
3. They were left out of civil services due to social inequality.
4. In order to establish social justice and provide opportunities to weaker sections of the society, reservation policy is followed even in civil services.

Question 2.
It is necessary for civil servants to be politically neutral.
Answer:

1. In Parliamentary democracy, in India, a new government comes in power after every five years. But the bureaucracy is permanent, i.e. they remain same.
2. Bureaucracy is expected to implement the policies and decisions of the earlier government with same efficiency and commitment.
3. Civil servants are expected to keep away from taking a political stand and remain neutral while discharging their duties.
4.  If civil servants work according to their political views it will lead to chaos. Hence, they should be politically neutral.

3. Answer the following questions in 25 to 30 words:

Question 1.
Explain the role of the ministers and civil servants in the efficient administration of the department.
Answer:

1. The efficiency of a particular department depends upon the inter-relationship between the Minister and his Secretary and Deputy secretary.
2. The decisions taken by the Ministers are based on the necessary information provided by the bureaucracy.
3. The bureaucracy, i.e. civil servants have complete information about the financial provisions for a particular scheme or plan and also about the history of successes and failures of policies.
4. Hence, if the Ministers develop mutual trust and transparency with the civil servants, it will help in the efficient administration of the department.

Question 2.
Explain how the bureaucracy provides stability to the political system.
Answer:

1. Bureaucracy does the work of implementing decisions taken by the ministers.
2. Several important reforms introduced during the post-independent period have been effectively implemented by the bureaucracy.
3. It consistently provides services like water supply, public cleanliness, transport, electricity, etc. to the people and brings stability in their day-to-day life.
4. It acts as an instrument of social transformation and democratisation. In this way, it gives stability to the political system.

4. Complete the concept picture.

Question 1.

Answer:

5. Discuss characteristics of bureaucracy.

Question 1.
Bureaucracy:
Answer:

1. It is the administrative system that works under the Union Executive.
2. As this administrative system includes civil servants i.e. bureaucrats, it is called Bureaucracy.
3. It has the responsibility of actual implementation of government’s policies.
4. Though the ministers control the bureaucracy, they are dependent on the bureaucracy for information and efficient functioning.

Question 2.
Armed Forces and Civil Services:
Answer:

1. Defending the country from external aggression and internal threats and ensuring security of the country is carried out by the Armed Forces.
2. Services provided to the citizens for making their daily lives comfortable and enabling them to develop themselves and the society are called Civil Services.
3. The administrative system developed to provide services to citizens are called Civil Services.
4. The armed forces help the civil services for internal security.

Meaning of the Headlines given In the box:

1. In the box, a few posts like District Collector, Municipal Commissioner, flnance Secretary, and Divisional Commissioner are mentioned.
2. They are civil servants in the government’s administrative system, working for the welfare of the people.

Project:

Question 1.
Prepare a questionnaire and interview a civil servant in your locality

Class 8 Civics Chapter 6 Bureaucracy Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct options and complete the statements:

Question 1.
…………….. is permanent in nature.
(a) Election Commission
(b) Bureaucracy
(c) President
(d) Prime Ministers
Answer:
(b) Bureaucracy

Question 2.
The bureaucracy is politically ……………….. .
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) biased
(d) neutral
Answer:
(d) neutral

Question 3.
The Parliament holds the ……….. responsible for malpractices.
(a) bureaucracy
(b) Prime Minister
(c) minister
(d) President
Answer:
(c) minister

Question 4.
The ………….. has established autonomous institutions like the Public Service Commissions for selecting efficient civil servants.
(a) Constitution
(b) Council of Ministers
(c) Parliament
(d) President
Answer:
(a) Constitution

Question 5.
The ‘Indian Foreign Service’ is included under ……………
(a) All India Services
(b) Union or Central Services
(c) State Civil Services
(d) Armed Forces
Answer:
(b) Union or Central Services

Identify if the following statements are correct or wrong and rewrite the wrong statements in their correct form:

Question 1.
Bureaucracy is an important instrument of social transformation.
Answer:
Correct.

Question 2.
Civil servants are not aware of the history of successes and failures of policies.
Answer:
Wrong – Civil servants are aware of the history of successes and failures of policies.

Question 3.
Civil servants are never publicly criticised.
Answer:
Correct.

Complete the following concept maps:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
Coordination between the Civil Servants and Ministers help in efficient functioning of the government.
Answer:

1. In Parliamentary democracy, the Executive is responsible for the efficient governance of the country.
2. The decisions relating to the concerned department are made by the minister-in-charge, but necessary information to make such decisions is given by the civil servants.
3. The ministers are dependent on the civil servants for many reasons.

Hence, coordination and mutual trust between the civil servants and ministers help in efficient functioning of the government.

Question 2.
The Bureaucracy is not held directly responsible for any success or failure of policy.
Answer:

1. It is the Minister who is responsible for the efficient and smooth functioning of his department.
2. Though providing necessary information and giving advice is the function of the bureaucracy, it is not accountable for any inefficiency.
3. The Parliament holds the Minister responsible for inefficiency and malpractices.
4. In such case, the Minister bears the responsibility and protects the bureaucracy.

Thus, the anonymity of bureaucracy is preserved, which means they are not held directly responsible for any success or failure of policy. ‘

Question 3.
Bureaucracy is considered as an important instrument of social transformation.
Answer:

1. Many laws are enacted by the government for empowerment of women, protection of children and marginalised sections of the society.
2. Social change is brought through the implementation of such policies.
3. These laws are successfully implemented by the bureaucracy.

Hence, Bureaucracy is considered as an important instrument of social transformation.

Answer the following questions in 25 to 30 words:

Question 1.
Explain the characteristics of Bureaucracy.
Answer:

1. Bureaucracy is the administrative system which actually implements the government’s policies.
2. Though the government changes, bureaucracy remains constant. Thus, it is permanent in nature.
3. It has to remain politically neutral and discharge its duties.
4. Its anonymity is maintained, i.e. it is not held directly responsible for any success or failure of policies and it is never publicly criticized.

Thus, the structure of Bureaucracy in India is extensive and complex.

Question 2.
Explain the significance of Indian bureaucracy.
Answer:

1. The Indian bureaucracy implements the policies made by the government for the welfare of the people effectively.
2. It provides several essential services to the people consistently and brings stability in their day to day life.
3. It provides stability to the political system.
4. It acts as an important instrument of social transformation and democratization of society.

Question 3.
Explain the role of bureaucracy in the democratisation of society.
Answer:

1. Equality and social justice are important values of democracy.
2. Bureaucracy has helped in bringing marginalised sections of society into the mainstream by implementing the reservation policy effectively.
3. Their participation has been increased in the process of decision¬making.
4. Democratisation of society not only requires progressive laws and policies but also effective participation of bureaucracy in implementing it.

Thus, bureaucracy plays an important role in the democratisation of society.

Question 4.
Why have autonomous institutions like Public Service Commissions been established?
Answer:
The Constitution of India has established autonomous institutions like Public Service Commissions for following reasons:

1. To select civil servants.
2. To conduct competitive exams for selecting candidates on the criteria of merit and efficiency.
3. To decide other aspect to like the nature of the exam, syllabus, eligibility, etc.
4. To select efficient and deserving candidates through interviews and recommend them to the government for appointment.

Open-Ended Question:

Question 1.
Express your views on ‘ideal bureaucracy’.
Answer:
Bureaucracy includes civil servants and all the employees working in various government offices. In India, bureaucracy is criticised most of the times and is seldom praised.
According to me, an ideal bureaucracy should function as follows:

1. The bureaucracy should advise and force the ministers to adopt policies of public welfare.
2. It should give full cooperation to the ministers for implementing policies effectively.
3. It should adopt the principle of equality and an unbiased approach while implementing the policies so that maximum people are benefitted.
4. It should make the people aware of different beneficial policies.
5. It should strictly keep away from ill- practices like corruption, unnecessary delay, cheating and frauds, etc.
6. It should aim at establishing social justice by extending maximum benefits to weaker sections.
7. It should function as an effective medium for development of the country, social transformation and democratisation of society.

(B) Oral Examination:

Answer the following questions orally:

Question 1.
Who is the Chief Civil Servant of your district?

Question 2.
Name any two schemes/plans implemented by the government officers for your village/city.

Question 3.
How do armed forces help the civil servants?

Question 4.
Who is the Chief Civil Servant of a taluka/tehsil?

Formative Evaluation:

Oral Work:

1. Interview:
Prepare a questionnaire and interview a civil servant in your locality.

2. Group discussion:
Conduct a group discussion in your class on the topic ‘Role of bureaucracy in the development of city/village.’

Project:

Question 1.
Collect information about the working of bureaucracy at taluka/tehsil level.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Interior of the Earth Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Interior of the Earth

Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Interior of the Earth Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Tick [✓] the correct options in the box:

Question A.
There are two layers in the crust.
(a) Inner and outer crust [ ]
(b) Continental and oceanic crust [ ]
(c) Surface and oceanic crust [ ]
(d) Mantle and core [ ]
Answer:
(b) Continental and oceanic crust [✓]

Question B.
Which element is found in both mantle and crust?
(a) Silica [ ]
(b) Magnesium [ ]
(c) Aluminium [ ]
(d) Iron [ ]
Answer:
(b) Magnesium [✓]

Question C.
Which of these minerals are found in the core of the earth?
(a) Iron – magnesium [ ]
(b) Magnesium – nickel [ ]
(c) Aluminium – iron [ ]
(d) Iron – nickel [ ]
Answer:
(d) Iron – nickel [✓]

Question D.
The inner core is in which state?
(a) Gaseous [ ]
(b) Solid [ ]
(c) Liquid [ ]
(d) Semi-solid [ ]
Answer:
(a) Gaseous [✓]

Question E.
The outer core is made up of
(a) Iron [ ]
(b) Gold [ ]
(c) Hydrogen [ ]
(d) Oxygen [ ]
Answer:
(a) Iron [✓]

Question F.
The layer of the earth on which we live…
(a) Mantle [ ]
(b) Core [ ]
(c) Crust [ ]
(d) Continental crust [ ]
Answer:
(d) Continental crust [✓]

2. Tell whether right or wrong. Correct the wrong statement

Question A.
The density of various materials is not the same in the interior of the earth.
Answer:
Correct.

Question B.
The core of the earth’s interior is made up of hard rocks.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: The core of the earth’s interior is made up of elements, viz. iron and nickel.

Question C.
Secondary waves cannot pass through outer core.
Answer:
Correct.

Question D.
Continental crust is made up of silica and magnesium.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: Continental crust is made up of silica and aluminum.

3. Answer the following

Question A.
What are the two parts of the crust? What is the basis of classification?
Answer:

1. Continental crust and the Oceanic crust are the two parts of the crust.
2. The crust is classified on the basis of whether it lies below the land or the ocean.
3. The part of the crust lying below the continent is known as the continental crust.
4. The part of the crust lying below the ocean is known as the oceanic crust.

Question B.
Why is the upper layer of the mantle known as the asthenosphere?
Answer:

1. The upper layer of the mantle is in liquid state.
2. The rocks in the upper 100 to 200 km of the mantle melt due to the heat and magma is created. Magma chambers are found in this layer of the earth.
3. Due to the heat and pressure, the energy waves are created in mantle. These energy waves move in vertical direction and magma comes out on the surface of the earth by volcanic eruptions.
4. These endogenitic movements continuously occur in the upper layer of the mantle. Therefore, the upper layer of the mantle is known as the asthenosphere.

Question C.
Magnetosphere of the earth is a result of rotation. Explain.
Answer:
1. The average temperature of the outer core of the earth is around 5000° C. The average temperature of the inner core of the earth is around 6000° C. This difference between the temperature results in formation of vertical currents.

2. The rotation of the earth gives eddy (circular) motion to these currents.

3. Electric currents develop in these spiral eddies of liquid iron leading to generation of the magnetic field of the earth. This magnetic field is called magnetosphere. In this way, the magnetosphere is formed due to the rotation of the earth.

4 Draw neat diagrams. label them and explain.

Question A.
The interior of the earth
Answer:

Explanation:

1. Inner Core: It is the center and the hottest layer of the Earth. The inner core is solid and made up of iron and nickel.
2. Outer Core: The outer core of the Earth is similar to a very hot ball of metals. It is composed of metals such as iron and nickel. The outer core surrounds the inner core.
3. Mantle: Mantle is the widest section of the Earth. Mantle is mainly made up of semi-molten rock known as magma. The rock is hard in the upper part of the mantle, but lower down the rock is softer and begins to melt. The mantle consists of very hot and dense rock.
4. Crust: The crust is the outer layer where we live. It’s a solid rock layer divided into two types: Continental crust covers the land and Oceanic crust covers water.

Question B.
Magnetic pole and equator
Answer:

5. Give geographical reasons:

Question A.
There are discontinuities in the interior of the earth.
Answer:
1. There is a difference between the elements, temperatures and the pressure found in the three parts of the interior of the earth, viz, crust, mantle and core.

2. In the interiors of the earth, the transitional areas are found between (a) continental crust and oceanic crust (b) crust and mantle (c) upper mantle and lower mantle (d) mantle and core and (e) outer core and inner core. Therefore, there are discontinuities in the interior of the earth.

Question B.
There is correlation between the density of metals and their location in the interior of the earth.
Answer:
1. The rocks found in the crust have predominance of the compounds of silicon, aluminium, magnesium, etc. These compounds are lighter in weight. Therefore, they are found in the upper layer of the interior of the earth.

2. The elements like iron, nickel are found in the core of the earth. These elements are heavier in weight. Thus, metals with low density are found in upper level in the interior of the earth and the metals with high density are found in the lower level in the interior of the earth. Thus, there is correlation between the density of metals and their location in the interior of the earth.

Question C.
Mantle is the centre of earthquake and volcanic eruptions.
Answer:
1. The rocks in the upper 100 to 200 km of the mantle melt due to the heat and the magma is created.
2. Magma chambers are found in this layer of the earth.

3. Due to the heat and pressure, the energy waves are created in mantle. These energy waves move in vertical direction and magma comes out on the surface of the earth by volcanic eruptions. Thus, mantle is the centre of earthquake and volcanic eruptions.

Question D.
The thickness of the crust below the continents is more as compared to oceans.
Answer:
1. The density of the crust below the continents is 2.65 to 2.90 gm/cm³ The density of the crust below the oceans is 2.90 to 3.3 gm/cm³

2. As the density of the crust below the continents is comparatively low, it keeps floating on the mantle. It does not subduct into mantle. As its effect, the thickness of the crust below the continents is found to be high.

3. As the density of the crust below the ocean is comparatively high, it subducts into mantle leading to its low thickness. Thus, the thickness of the crust below the continents is more as compared to oceans.

Question E.
Earth is protected because of the magnetosphere.
Answer:

1. The ozone layer protects the earth from ultraviolet radiation.
2. The earth’s magnetosphere serves to deflect most of the solar wind, whose charged particles would otherwise strip away the ozone layer. In this way, the earth is protected because of the magnetosphere.

Know this too:

1. The average density of the earth is 5.5 gm/cm³.
2. The rocks in the upper 100 to 200 km of. the mantle melt due to heat.
3. The mixture of molten rocks, volatiles, etc. found beneath the surface of the earth is called magma.
4. The mixture of molten rocks, volatiles, etc. erupted from volcano or fissure on the surface of the earth is called lava.

Activity:

Question 1.
Prepare a model of the earth’s interior.
Answer:

1. The density of the earth goes on increasing from its surface to the centre.
2. The average density of the crust of the earth is approximately 2.98 gm/cm³.
3. The average density of the mantle of the earth is approximately 5.7gm/cm³.
4. The average density of the outer core of the earth is approximately 9.8 gm/cm³.
5. The density of the inner core at the centre of the earth is approximately 13 gm/cm³.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Interior of the Earth Additional Important Questions and Answers

Tick [✓] the correct options in the box:

Question A.
Which seismic waves can travel through liquid medium?
(a) Primary waves [ ]
(b) Secondary waves [ ]
(c) Surface waves [ ]
(d) Oceanic waves [ ]
Answer:
(a) Primary waves [✓]

Question B.
Which of the following layers of the earth has the highest density?
(a) Crust [ ]
(b) Mantle [ ]
(c) Outer core [ ]
(d) Inner core [ ]
Answer:
(d) Inner core [✓]

Question C.
Which of the following waves can travel through all the layers of the interior of the earth?
(a) Primary [ ]
(b) Secondary [ ]
(c) Tertiary [ ]
(d) Surface [ ]
Answer:
(a) Primary [✓]

Question D.
Which of the following layers of the interior of the earth is in solid form and cool?
(a) Crust [ ]
(b) Mantle [ ]
(C) Outer core [ ]
(d) Inner core [ ]
Answer:
(a) Crust [✓]

Examine the statements and incorrect ones :

Question A.
As we move deeper the surface, temperature keeps decreasing.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: As we move deeper the surface, temperature keeps increasing.

Question B.
Magma chambers are found in lower mantle.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: Magma chambers are found in upper mantle.

Question C.
The discontinuity is found between the crust, mantle and core.
Answer:
Correct.

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question A.
In which of the layers of the interior of the earth is magma formed?
Answer:
Magma is formed in the mantle (upper mantle) of the earth.

Question B.
What are the two parts of the core?
Answer:
Outer core and inner core are the two parts of the core.

Match the columns and complete the chain :

Question A.

‘A’ Column (The layer of the interior of the earth)	‘B’ Column (Density)	‘C’ Column (Elements found)
1. Sial	(i) 13.3 gm/cm3	(a) Silica and Magnesium
2. Sima	(ii) 2.65 to 2.90 gm/cm3	(b) Nickel and Iron
3. Inner core	(iii) 2.90 to 3.3 gm/cm3	(c) Silica and Aluminium

Answer:

‘A’ Column (The layer of the interior of the earth)	‘B’ Column (Density)	‘C’ Column (Elements found)
1. Sial	(ii) 2.65 to 2.90 gm/cm3	(c) Silica and Aluminium
2. Sima	(iii) 2.90 to 3.3 gm/cm3	(a) Silica and Magnesium
3. Inner core	(i) 13.3 gm/cm3	(b) Nickel and Iron

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question A.
Describe the changes that take place in the temperatures from the surface of the earth to its centre.
Answer:

1. The process of cooling of the earth started from the surface. The temperature goes on increasing from the surface towards the core.
2. The surface of the earth is cool and solid.
3. The centre of the earth is extremely hot. The temperature at the centre of the earth is around 5500° to 6000° C.

Question B.
Describe the changes that take place in the density of the earth from its surface to the centre.
Answer:

1. The density of the earth goes on increasing from its surface to the centre.
2. The average density of the crust of the earth is approximately 2.98 gm/cm³.
3. The average density of the mantle of the earth is approximately 5.7gm/cm³.
4. The average density of the outer core of the earth is approximately 9.8 gm/cm³.
5. The density of the inner core at the centre of the earth is approximately 13 gm/cm³.

Question C.
Write in brief about the travelling of various types of earthquake waves through the layers of interior of the earth.
Answer:

1. The primary earthquake waves travel through the mantle as well as the core of the earth.
2. While travelling through the core of the earth, the direction of the primary earthquake waves gets altered.
3. While travelling through the core, the speed of the primary earthquake waves decreases.
4. The secondary earthquake waves can travel only through the mantle of the earth. These waves get absorbed in the core of the earth. Thus, these waves cannot travel through the core of the earth.

Write short notes on the following:

Question A.
The crust.
Answer:
1. The uppermost layer of the interior of the earth is called the crust. Continental crust and the oceanic crust are the two parts of the crust.

2.The thickness of the continental crust is approximately 16 km to 45 km. On the other hand, the thickness of the oceanic crust is approximately 7 km to 10 km

3. The density of the continental crust is approximately 2.65 to 2.90 gm/cm. On the other hand, the density of the oceanic crust is approximately 2.65 to 2.90 gm/cm³.

4. Silica and aluminium are the main elements found in the continental crust. Therefore, it is also called Sial. On the other hand, Silica and Magnesium are the main elements found in the oceanic crust. Therefore, it is also called Sima.

Question B.
The mantle.
Answer:
1. The mantle is located below the crust of the earth. The mantle is divided into the upper mantle and the lower mantle.

2. The thickness of the mantle is approximately 2870 km. The average density of mantle is approximately 4.5 gm/cm³.

3. The rocks in the upper 100 to 200 km of the mantle melt due to the heat and magma is created. Magma chambers are found in this layer of the earth. Due to the heat and pressure, the energy waves are created in mantle. These energy waves move in vertical direction and magma comes out on the surface of the earth by volcanic eruptions.

4. These endogenitic movements continuously occur in the upper layer of the mantle. Therefore, the upper layer of the mantle is known as the asthenosphere.

5. The average thickness of mantle is approximately 2870 km. Its average density is approximately 4.5 gm/cm³. The temperature at the depth of 2400 to 2900 km is around 2200° to 2500° C. The density of the lower mantle is approximately 5.7 gm / cm³.

Question B.
The outer core.
Answer:
1. The outer core is located below the lower mantle.
2. It is located at the depth from 2900 km to 5100 km from the surface of the earth.
3. The average temperature of the outer core of the earth is around 5000° C. The density of the outer core of the earth is approximately 9.8 gm/cm.

4. The secondary earthquake waves cannot travel from the core of the earth. Therefore, it is inferred that the outer core of the earth must be in liquid or semi-liquid form. The primary earthquake waves can travel from the outer core of the earth.
5. The vertical currents originate in the outer core of the earth.

Question C.
The inner core.
Answer:

1. The inner core is located below the upper core.
2. It is located at the depth from 5150 km to 6371 km from the surface of the earth.
3. The average temperature of the inner core of the earth is around 6000° C. The density of the inner core of the earth is approximately 13.3 gm/cm³.
4. The elements, viz. Iron (Ferrous) and Nickel (Ni) are mainly found in the inner core of the earth. Therefore, it is also called Nife.
5. The temperature at the centre of the earth is almost equivalent to the surface temperature of the sun.

Give geographical reasons for the following:

Question A.
The secondary waves of earthquake cannot travel through the core of the earth.
Answer:

1. The secondary waves of earthquake can travel only through the solid state of the interior of the earth.
2. The outer core of the centre of the earth is in liquid state. Therefore, the secondary waves of earthquake cannot travel through the core of the earth.

Question B.
The inner core is called Nife.
Answer:

1. The inner core predominantly comprises iron and nickel.
2. The word Nife is derived from the word Nickel (Ni) and Iron (Ferrous) (Fe). Therefore, the inner core is called (Ni + Fe) Nife.

Question C.
The upper layer of the crust is called Sial.
Answer:

1. The rocks in the upper layer of the crust have predominance of the compounds of silicon and aluminium.
2. The word Sial is derived from the word Silica (Si) and Aluminium (Al). Therefore, the upper layer of the crust is called (Si + Al) Sial.

Question D.
The lower layer of the crust is called Sima.
Answer:

1. The rocks in the lower layer of the crust have predominance of the compounds of silicon and magnesium.
2. The word Sima is derived from the word Silica (Si) and Magnesium. (Ma). Therefore, the lower layer of the crust is called (Si + Ma) Sima.

Study the following map/ figure /graph and answer the following questions : 

Question A.
At what depth does the curve of the secondary waves seem to have ended in figure (A)?
Answer:
The curve of the secondary waves seems to have ended around the depth of 2900 km in figure (A).

Question B.
What is the velocity of the secondary waves around the boundary of the outer core shown in figure (A)?
Answer:
The velocity of the secondary waves is 6 to 8 km/sec around the boundary of the outer core shown in figure (A).

Question C.
What conclusion can be drawn on the basis of the curve of the secondary waves stopping around the depth of 2900 km?
Answer:
On the basis of the curve of the secondary waves stopping around the depth of2900 km, it can be concluded that secondary waves do not enter the core.

Question D.
What is the velocity of the primary waves at the time of entering the outer core shown in figure (A)?
Answer:
The velocity of the primary waves at the time of entering the outer core shown in figure (A) is 8 km/sec.

Question E.
What conclusions can be drawn about the intensity of the gravitational force shown in Figure (B)?
Answer:
The following conclusions can be drawn about the intensity of the gravitational force shown in Figure (B):

1. Gravitational force increases at certain depth from the surface of the earth and then it reduces according to the depth.
2. At the centre of the earth, the gravitational force is zero.

Thought-Provoking Question:

Think about it:

Question 1.
Imagine about the earth’s interior and- write 10-12 sentences on it.
Answer:

1. The interior of the earth will be very hot.
2. Huge sized rocks will be present I in the upper layers of the interior of the earth.
3. Due to extreme heat and pressure, the rocks must be melting in the interior of the earth.
4. Due to the melting of the rocks, magma will be created in the interior of the earth.
5. Due to endogenous movements in the interior of the earth, volcanic eruptions will occur on the surface of the earth.
6. The primary earthquake waves will be travelling through the mantle and the core of the earth.
7. The secondary earthquake waves will be travelling only through the mantle of the earth.
8. The temperature in the interior of the earth will get increased with the depth.
9. The highest temperature will be found at the centre of the earth.
10. The elements like silica, aluminium, magnesium, iron and nickel will be found in the various layers of the interior of the earth.

Open-Ended Question:

Question A.
What precautions can be taken to reduce the damage caused by earthquakes?
Answer:
The following precautions can be taken to reduce the damage caused by earthquakes:

1. Taking cover under a desk or a table or sturdy piece of furniture to protect oneself.
2. Finding clear spot away from buildings, trees and power lines. Dropping to the ground and staying there until the shaking stops.
3. Switching off the power supply, gas in-home/office, etc.
4. Helping the victims at the earliest.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Civics Solutions Chapter 2 The Indian Parliament Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Civics Solutions Chapter 2 The Indian Parliament

Class 8 Civics Chapter 2 The Indian Parliament System Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct option.

Question 1.
Candidates to the Lok Sabha are elected through ……….. .
(a) Territorial constituencies
(b) Religious constituencies
(c) Local bodies
(d) Proportional Representation System
Answer:
(a) Territorial constituencies

Question 2.
The ………….. of India is the ex-officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
(a) President
(b) Vice-President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Chief Justice
Answer:
(b) Vice-President

2. Find and write. 

Question 1.
Members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha are known as ……………….. .
Answer:
Members of Parliament (MPs)

Question 2.
The responsibility of making laws is with the ……………… .
Answer:
Parliament

3. Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
Rajya Sabha is a permanent House.
Answer:

1. The tenure of the members of Rajya Sabha does not get over at the same time.
2. 1/3rd of the total membership of Rajya Sabha retire after every two years and equal number of new members get elected.
3. Because the limited members of Rajys Sabha retire step by step, it can function continuously.
   Since Rajya Sabha is never dissolved completely it is called a permanent House.

Question 2.
Lok Sabha is known as the first House.
Answer:

1. Lok Sabha is the lower and the first House of the Parliament of India.
2. Lok Sabha is the House of Representatives directly elected by the people. Hence, Lok Sabha is known as the first House.

4. Answer the following in 25 to 30 words:

Question 1.
How are members of the Lok Sabha elected?
Answer:

1. As per the Constitution, there can be a maximum of 552 members in Lok Sabha.
2. General elections to Lok Sabha are held after every five years and members are directly elected by the people.
3. To ensure equal representation to all sections of the community, some seats are reserved for members belonging to Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
4. In case there are no representation from the Anglo-Indian community, the President can appoint two members from this community to the Lok Sabha.
5. Thus, Lok Sabha is the representative body of the citizens of India.

Question 2.
Explain the functions of the Speaker of Lok Sabha.
Answer:
The functions of the Speaker of Lok Sabha are :

1. To conduct the business of the House in an unbiased manner.
2. To take care of the rights and privileges of the members of Lok Sabha.
3. To interpret the rules of daily functioning of the House and work accordingly.
4. To maintain the decorum and dignity of the House.

5. Explain the step involved in the lawmaking process.

Question 1.
Parliament :
Answer:

1. The Legislature at the national level is called the Parliament.
2. It consists of the President and two houses, i.e., the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
3. Though the President is an inseparable part of the Parliament, he/she cannot participate in the discussions in either of the Houses of the Parliament.
4. The Constitution of India has created the Parliament.

Question 2.
Amendment to the Constitution :
Answer:

1. According to the changing times, certain necessary changes have to be made in some laws. The process of making such changes is called Amendment.
2. Only the Parliament has the right to make such amendments to the Constitution.
3. The Constitution amendment bill is considered to be an important bill.
4. The Parliament discusses why the amendment is required and decides whether to accept it or not.

Question 3.
Members of Parliament :
Answer:

1. The members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha are known as Members of Parliament (MPs).
2. The members of Lok Sabha are directly elected by the people.
3. The members of Rajya Sabha are elected from the constituent States and Union Territories.
4. MPs try to resolve the queries and complaints of their constituencies by raising questions in the Parliament.
5. MPs also participate in the process of formulation of laws.
6. The Government allocates funds to MPs to carry out development activities in their constituencies.

Question 4.
Bill of Law:
Answer:

1. At the initial stage of lawmaking process, a rough draft of the law is prepared.
2. This rough draft or outline is known as ‘draft proposal of the law’ or ‘bill of law’.
3. The Bill clearly mentions the objectives and the details of the proposed law.
4. Every bill has to undergo three readings in both the Houses, and then it is put to vote.

Can you find out?

For the purpose of elections, the State is divided into territorial constituencies. The constituent States in India get seats on the basis of their population. For e.g.

• Maharashtra – 48 seats
• Gujarat – 26 seats
• Madhya Pradesh – 29 seats
• Goa – 02 seats
• Uttar Pradesh – 80 seats

Understand It:
(The gist of the conversation held between Mazy, Radhika, Ran veer and others.)

1. Any Indian citizen who has completed 18 years of age is only eligible to vote.
2. An Indian citizens who has completed 25 years of age can contest for Lok Sabha election.
3. A citizen of India can contest for election from any constituency of any State.
4. Citizens of other countries cannot contest for elections of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
5. Just as there are set criteria for qualifying for election, there are set criteria for disqualification as well.

Rights regarding passing of Bills:

1. Though Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha have same set of rights, Lok Sabha has certain rights which are not available for Rajya Sabha.
2. Bills related to finance (Money Bills) and such other bills are first introduced and passed in Lok Sabha.
3. Rajya Sabha has limited powers with respect to money bills.
4. Rajya Sabha can pass a resolution on the subject in the State List.

Can you tell?

Certain laws which become out-of-date (obsolete) are abolished. Can you give examples of such obsolete laws? For example, Privy purses.

Know this too:

1. Every year, on 1 February the Union Finance Minister presents the national budget to the Lok Sabha. Previously, it was presented on 28 February.
2. The State Legislatures also follow the same procedure of law making as in the Parliament.
3. The bill passed can become a law only after it is signed by the President at the Union level and by the Governor at the State level.

Project:

The President nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha. Collect information on what are the criteria for their selection.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 2 The Indian Parliament Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct option:

Question 1.
…………….. is the upper House of the Parliament.
(a) Legislative Assembly
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Rajya Sabha
(d) Legislative Council
Answer:
(c) Rajya Sabha

Question 2.
The …………… of India has created the Parliament of India.
(a) Legislature
(b) Executive
(c) Constitution
(d) British Law
Answer:
(c) Constitution

Question 3.
1/3rd members of total membership of Rajya Sabha, who have completed their tenure of six years, retire after every ……………….. years.
(a) two
(b) four
(c) five
(d) six
Answer:
(a) two

Question 4.
If ……………….. feels that the Parliament should make a law of the subject in the state list, it can pass a resolution to that effect.
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Executive
(d) President
Answer:
(b) Rajya Sabha

Question 5.
Every year in the month of February, the ………….. presents the national budget to the Lok Sabha.
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Finance Minister
(d) Speaker
Answer:
(c) Finance Minister

Question 6.
The President appoints ……………….. distinguished personalities to the Rajya Sabha.
(a) two
(b) eight
(c) fifteen
(d) twelve
Answer:
(d) twelve

Find and write:

Question 1.
……………. represent the Lok Sabha.
Answer:
The Speaker

Question 2.
The bill passed by the State legislature becomes a law after it is signed by the ………….. .
Answer:
Governor

Question 3.
The House that gives representation to 29 States and 7 Union Territories is ………………. .
Answer:
Rajya Sabha

Complete the following Concept maps:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
The Chairman of Rajya Sabha :
Answer:

1. The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
2. He exercises a control over the functioning of Rajya Sabha.
3. Maintaining discipline in the House is the function of the Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
4. He also has the responsibility of facilitating discussions in the House by giving members a chance to speak, etc.

Question 2.
Speaker of Lok Sabha :
Answer:

1. The speaker is elected in the very first meeting after the election of Lok Sabha.
2. The members of Lok Sabha elect one member among them as the Speaker.
3. Lok Sabha functions under the guidance and control of the Speaker.
4. It is the responsibility of the speaker to conduct the business of the House in an unbiased manner.
5. The Speaker has to maintain decorum and dignity of the House.
6. Moreover, he has to interpret the rules and work accordingly.

Question 3.
Control over Council of Ministers :
Answer:

1. Council of Ministers are drawn from the Parliament and hence Parliament exercises control over them.
2. The members of Parliament exercise this control through multiple ways.
3. It is the responsibility of the Parliament to see that the Council of Ministers does not disregard the Parliament.
4. In case the Lok Sabha passes a no-confidence motion against the Council of Ministers, it has to resign.

Answer the following in 25 to 30 words :

Question 1.
Write about Lok Sabha elections.
Answer:

1. Since Lok Sabha is a House of people’s representatives, elections are held after every five years.
2. Elections to Lok Sabha which are held every five years are known as General elections.
3. When Lok Sabha is dissolved before the completion of five years and elections are held, such elections are called mid- term elections.
4. When a member resigns or dies suddenly, election held for such a seat is called by-election.

Question 2.
Explain the composition of Rajya Sabha.
Answer:
The composition of Rajya Sabha is as follows :

1. The total membership of Rajya Sabha is 250 members.
2. Amongst them, 238 members are elected from the constituent states and Union Territories.
3. Remaining twelve members, who are distinguished personalities from the fields of literature, arts, science, sports and social work, are appointed by the President.
4. The members of Rajya Sabha are elected through the system of proportional representation.

Question 3.
Explain the functions of the Parliament.
Answer:
In order to achieve welfare of the people and the objectives of the 8 Constitution, the Parliament has to perform 8 following functions :

1. To formulate new laws and to repeal the outdated laws.
2. To make necessary changes in the existing laws.
3. To amend the Constitution wherever necessary.
4. To keep control over Council of Ministers.

Question 4.
Mention the ways of amending the Constitution.
Answer:
The Constitution can be amended in following ways :

1. Few provisions in the Indian Constitution can be amended by simple majority.
2. Some provisions require special (2/3rd) majority of the Parliament.
3. Few other provisions can be amended by special majority plus consent from more than half of the constituent states.

Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
Though Lok Sabha is the Lower House, it is more powerful than Rajya Sabha.
Answer:

1. Since members of Lok Sabha are directly elected by the people, it represents the people of the nation in the true sense.
2. Money bills related to financial matters are presented in Lok Sabha. Rajya Sabha has very limited powers with respect to Money Bills.
3. Since the total membership of Lok Sabha is more than Rajya Sabha, it always gets an upper hand when decisions are taken in the joint meeting of both the Houses.
4. Only Lok Sabha can pass a no-confidence motion against the Council of Ministers.

Hence, though Lok Sabha is the lower House, it is more powerful than Rajya Sabha.

Answer the following questions in details:

Question 1.
Explain the steps involved in the law-making process.
Answer:
The Bill undergoes following process in order to be converted into a Law (Act).
1. First reading :

• The minister of the concerned department/ministry or member of the Parliament presents the bill in the House.
• The objectives and the structure of the Bill are mentioned.

2. Second reading :

• The positive and negative points of the bill are discussed.
• The defects and faults in the bill are stressed.
• After removing the defects and the faults, the bill is put to vote.

3. Committee Stage :

• Sometimes, if required, the Bill is sent to the committee of the House.
• The Bill is discussed in the Committee in details.
• The Committee report consisting of instructions and recommendations is sent to the House.
• The Bill is discussed clause by clause and then voting is taken.

4. Third reading :

• The Bill is once again discussed in the House.
• Voting is taken for approving the Bill.

5. Approval of the other House :

• The Bill has to undergo the same procedure even in the other House.
• The Bill is approved by majority.

6. Assent by the President :

• After getting an approval from both the Houses, the Bill is further sent for assent by the President.
• After the final assent and signature of the President, the Bill is converted into Law.

Question 2.
Distinguish between Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha on the basis of following points:
1. Number of members
2. Age limit
3. Election
4. Tenure
Answer:

Points	Lok Sabha	Rajya Sabha
1. Number of members	Maximum 552 members	Total 250 members.
2. Age limit	25 years	30 years
3. Election	Directly elected by the people	238 members elected from the constituent states and Union Territories. 12 members appointed by the President.
4. Tenure	5 years	Permanent House. Tenure of every member is 6 years.

Question 3.
Why, according to you, the Constitution must have granted the President, the right to appoint twelve members to the Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
1. The President appoints twelve members to the Rajya Sabha. These members are usually experienced and distinguished personalities from the fields of literature, arts, science, sports and social service.

2. Such personalities are very active and totally devoted to their respective fields. Hence, they have no time for contesting the elections.

3. They keep themselves away from election procedures like campaigning, conducting meetings, etc. So their election to the Parliament is not possible.

4. But, to derive benefit from their profound knowledge and experience for making of laws, their presence in the Parliament is essential.
Therefore, I feel that the Constitution has granted the President, the right to appoint twelve members to the Rajya Sabha.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Civics Solutions Chapter 1 Introduction to the Parliamentary System Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Civics Solutions Chapter 1 Introduction to the Parliamentary System

Class 8 Civics Chapter 1 Introduction to the Parliamentary System Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Choose the correct option and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
Parliamentary System of government developed in ……………. .
(a) England
(b) France
(c) United States of America
(d) Nepal
Answer:
(a) England

Question 2.
In the Presidential System, ……….. is the executive head.
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Lok Sabha Speaker
(c) President
(d) Governor
Answer:
(c) President

2. Complete the information in the following table.

Question 1.

Answer:

Sr. No.	Name of the institution	Functions
1.	Legislature	To make laws
2.	Executive	To implement laws, frame policies
3.	Judiciary	To provide justice

3. Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
India adopted the Parliamentary System of government.
Answer:

1. The Parliamentary System of government developed primarily in England.
2. The British ruled over India for about 150 years. During this period, they ruled in accordance with this system.
3. So, Indians were familiar with this system of government.
4. The Constituent Assembly also adopted this system after a thorough discussion.
5. Hence, the framers of the Constitution made a few changes to suit the Indian situation, and adopted the Parliamentary System.

Question 2.
Discussions and deliberations are important in a Parliamentary System of government.
Answer:

1. In a Parliamentary System of government, decisions are taken after discussions and deliberations.
2. Members of the opposition party also participate in the discussions.
3. They may support the government or point out shortcomings in the government policies.
4. Laws are framed after detailed discussions on questions of public welfare. This does not happen in autocratic rule.
5. Hence, to protect the welfare and freedom of common people, discussions and deliberations are important.

4. Answer the following in 25 to 30 words:

Question 1.
What is a Responsible Government?
Answer:

1. The government system in which the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers is responsible to the Legislature for all their actions and policies, is called a Responsible Government.
2. In this system, the Council of Ministers has to take the Legislature into confidence during governance.
3. Every decision taken by any ministry/ department is considered as the decision of the government.
4. The decisions or policies of every ministry is the collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers.
5. Thus, the principle of collective responsibility adopted by the Council of Ministers makes it a responsible government.

Question 2.
Enumerate the characteristics of the Presidential System of government.
Answer:
The following are the characteristics of the Presidential System of government:

1. The President is directly elected by the people.
2. The President has lot of powers including power to implement laws.
3. The President is not dependent on the support of the Legislature.
4. The Legislature and the Executive are not dependent on each other, but still they have mutual control over each other.

5. Why is the role of opposition parties important? Write your opinion.

Question 1.
Why is the role of opposition parties important? Write your opinion.
Answer:
The role of opposition parties is important in Parliamentary as well as Presidential System of government.

1. The opposition parties participate in the discussions and point out the shortcomings in the policies of the government.
2. The opposition parties control the Executive through their arguments based on deep study of the topics discussed in the Parliament.
3. The Executive cannot behave in an irresponsible manner due to the pressure of the opposition parties.
4. The alertness of the opposition parties help in avoiding wrong practices like corruption, ignoring public welfare, passing faulty laws, etc.

Have you thought of this?

1. What is a parliamentary system of government?
2. In India we have Prime Minister but why is there no Prime Minister in the United States of America?
3. What is the difference between a Parliamentary and a Presidential system of government?

Project:

Watch the live telecast proceedings of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha on the national channel Doordarshan and write your observations.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 1 Introduction to the Parliamentary Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
The interrelationship between the Legislature, Executive and Judiciary is decided by the …….
(a) Government
(b) Presidential System
(c) Constitution
(d) Parliament
Answer:
(c) Constitution

Question 2.
The English Constitution is an …….. Constitution where governance is based on conventions.
(a) changeable
(b) unchangeable
(c) unwritten
(d) written.
Answer:
(c) unwritten

Question 3.
Sometimes, when no party gets a clear majority, ……… government is formed.
(a) Presidential
(b) coalition
(c) Military
(d) communist
Answer:
(b) coalition

State whether the following statements are True or False. Correct the False statement and rewrite:

Question 1.
Parliamentary System of government is considered as a contribution of United States of America.
Answer:
False.
Correct: Parliamentary System of government is a contribution of England.

Question 2.
In the Parliamentary System, the Legislature of the Central Government is known as the ‘Parliament’.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Members of the opposition party also take part in the discussion of the questions related to public welfare.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
In the Parliamentary System, the President is directly elected by the people.
Answer:
False.
Correct: In the Presidential System, the President is directly elected by the people.

Find and write:

Complete the concept map:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Write short notes:

Question 1.
Characteristics of Parliamentary System of India:
Answer:
The following are the characteristics of Parliamentary System adopted by India:

1. The Parliament of India is composed of the President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
2. Fixed number of members of the Parliament are directly elected by the people.
3. All political parties contest elections, which are held at regular intervals.
4. The party having majority in Lok Sabha or a coalition government comes into power.
5. The leader of the majority party becomes the Prime Minister and he selects candidates to form the Council of Ministers.
6. The Executive has to perform the responsibility of its individual minister¬ship as well as the responsibility of the Legislature, for all their actions and policies.

Question 2.
Responsibilities of the Executive in India:
Answer:
The Executive in India has to fulfill following responsibilities:

1. Implementing the laws passed by the Parliament.
2. Framing policies for governing the nation.
3. Functioning as the members of the Legislature.
4. Striving to develop the nation through decisions related to the welfare of the people.

Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
No-confidence motion is an effective tool of keeping a check over the Executive.
Answer:

1. In the Parliamentary System, the Executive is dependent upon the confidence of the Legislature in them.
2. If the Legislature feels that the Executive does not work in accordance to its wishes, it can pass a no-confidence motion against the Executive.
3. If the Legislature passes the no-confidence motion with a majority, then the Executive has to resign.
4. The Constitution has provided this tool to prevent the Executive from misusing its powers.
   Hence, no-confidence motion is an effective tool of keeping a check over the Executive.

Question 2.
The Parliament is of great importance in the Parliamentary System of government.
Answer:

1. In the Parliamentary System of government the members of the Legislature are directly elected by the people.
2. Since the elected members represent the people of the nation in the Parliament, they express and carry the hopes and wishes of the people.
3. The Parliament decides the policies for the welfare of the people.
4. If the Parliament feels that the Executive does not work in accordance to its wishes, it can remove the Executive from power by passing a no-confidence motion against it.

Since, the Parliament reflects the wishes and opinions of the people of the nation, it is of great importance.

Have you thought of this?

Question 1.
What is a Parliamentary System of government?
Answer:

1. The Parliamentary System of government is the one where representatives are directly elected by the people.
2. They are the members of the Legislature, which is also known as the Parliament.
3. In this system, elections are held after fixed period.
4. The party which gets the majority forms the government.
5. In this system, the Executive is dependent on the confidence of the Legislature.

Question 2.
In India we have Prime Minister but why is there no Prime Minister in the United States of America?
Answer:

1. In the Parliamentary System of government, the Prime Minister is the head of the Executive, i.e. the Council of Ministers.
2. In the Presidential System of government, the President is the head of the Executive. ‘
3. Since India has adopted the Parliamentary system, we have the post of the Prime Minister.
4. Since United States of America has adopted Presidential System, they have the post of the President.
5. The post of the Prime Minister does not exist in Presidential System of government.

Question 3.
What is the difference between a Parliamentary and a Presidential System of government?
Answer:
Difference between the Parliamentary and Presidential System of government is as follows:

Parliamentary System	Presidential System
1. President is the Constitutional Head.	President is the Executive Head.
2. Prime Minister and Council of Ministers have more powers.	President has more powers.
3. Council of Ministers is formed by the elected members of Parliament.	President is directly elected by the people.
4. Parliament can remove the Prime Minister by passing a no-confidence motion.	President can be removed only by impeachment.
5. Members of the Executive are also the members of the Legislature.	Legislature and Executive are not dependent on each other.

Question 4.
Why is the role of opposition parties important? Write your opinion.
Answer:
The role of opposition parties is important in Parliamentary as well as Presidential System of government.

1. The opposition parties participate in the discussions and point out the shortcomings in the policies of the government.
2. The opposition parties control the Executive through their arguments based on deep study of the topics discussed in the Parliament.
3. The Executive cannot behave in an irresponsible manner due to the pressure of the opposition parties.
4. The alertness of the opposition parties help in avoiding wrong practices like corruption, ignoring public welfare, passing faulty laws, etc.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Civics Solutions Chapter 5 The State Government Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Civics Solutions Chapter 5 The State Government

Class 8 Civics Chapter 5 The State Government Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Choose the correct option and complete the statements:

Question 1.
The winter session of Maharashtra Legislature takes place at ……………… .
(a) Mumbai
(b) Nagpur
(c) Pune
(d) Aurangabad
Answer:
(b) Nagpur

Question 2.
The ……………. appoints the Governor.
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Prime Minister
(c) President
(d) Chief Justice
Answer:
(c) President

Question 3.
The right to summon the state legislature lies with the …………… .
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Governor
(c) President
(d) Speaker
Answer:
(b) Governor

2. Complete the table:

Question 1.

Answer:

3. Write short notes on:

Question 1.
The Governor:
Answer:

1. The Governor is the titular/ nominal head of the state.
2. The government of the state is run in the name of the Governor.
3. He is appointed by the President and holds the office during the pleasure of the President.
4. He appoints the Chief Minister and the Council of Ministers.
5. As the head of the state, he enjoys certain important Legislative and Executive powers.
6. He has a right to summon the session of the state legislature.
7. In case the need arises, he can issue ordinance to make the law.

Question 2.
Functions of the Chief Minister:
Answer:
The functions of the Chief Minister, as an Executive head of the state, are as follows:

1. To form an able Council of Ministers giving maximum representation to various regions and social groups.
2. To distribute portfolios considering the political experience, administrative skills, public awareness, leadership, etc. of the ministers.
3. To develop proper cooperation and coordination between Departments, resolve their conflicts and make them work effectively.
4. To lead the state, frame proper policies and implement them effectively, intervene in issues of the state and solve them for the comfort of the people.

4. Answer the following in brief:

Question 1.
Enumerate the functions of the Speaker of the Vidhan Sabha (Legislative Assembly).
Answer:
The Speaker is elected by the members of Vidhan Sabha. His functions are as follows:

1. To prepare the order of daily proceedings in the House.
2. To carry out the proceedings of the House in a disciplined manner.
3. To suspend the members for misbehaviour or misconduct.
4. To control and guide the proceedings of the House during sessions.

Question 2.
Why did the Constitution adopt a federal system for India?
Answer:

1. India is a country having large geographic expanse.
2. It has a multicultural population.
3. There is a great diversity in language, religion, ways of life and regional characteristics.
4. It would not have been possible to govern such a huge country from a centralised place. Hence, the Constitution adopted a federal system of India.

Question 3.
What are the considerations of the Chief Minister while allocation of portfolios?
OR
Formation of Council of Ministers is a challenging task for the Chief Minister.
Answer:
After the formation of the Council of Ministers, the Chief Minister has to distribute portfolios among the ministers. He has to consider following aspects:

1. Some portfolios are of prime importance while others are of secondary importance. He has to select appropriate people for each portfolio.
2. He has to consider the experience i and the efficiency of the ministers he has selected.
3. The political experience and administrative skills of the concerned ministers is also taken into consideration by him.
4. Other factors like the awareness of public issues, effective leadership, etc. are also considered by him.
5. If the government is in a coalition, he has to distribute portfolios appropriately among the constituent parties in the alliance.

Do you know?

1. At present, India has 29 Constituent States and 7 Union Territories.
2. All Constituent States have Legislative Assemblies.
3. Out of the 7 Union Territories, only Delhi and Puducherry have Legislative Assemblies (Vidhan Sabha).
4. Jammu and Kashmir, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana and Andhra Pradesh have Bicameral Legislatures (both the Houses).

Project:

Visit official website of the Maharashtra Government and collect information of various ministers and the working of their respective departments.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 5 The State Government Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option and complete the statements:

Question 1.
The Indian Union has totally …………….. constituent states.
(a) 22
(b) 25
(c) 29
(d) 32
Answer:
(c) 29

Question 2.
In India, only ……………… states have Bicameral legislatures.
(a) three
(b) five
(c) six
(d) seven
Answer:
(d) seven

Question 3.
Maharashtra’s legislature conducts minimum ………………. sessions in a year.
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) five
Answer:
(b) three

Question 4.
Distinguished personalities from various fields are nominated by the ……………. to the Vidhan Parishad.
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Speaker
(c) Governor
(d) Chairman
Answer:
(c) Governor

Question 5.
When the legislature is not in session and need arises to make law, the Governor can issue ……………….. .
(a) a Bill
(b) a Proposal
(c) an Ordinance
(d) an Order
Answer:
(c) an Ordinance

State whether the following statements are True or False. Correct the False statements and rewrite:

Question 1.
States in India have been formed on the basis of population.
Answer:
False. States in India have been formed on the basis of language.

Question 2.
In exceptional circumstances, elections to Vidhan Sabha can be held before the completion of 5 years.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Absence of cooperation and coordination between Departments can affect the working of the government.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
The people look at the Governor as a ‘Problem Solver’.
Answer:
False. The people look at the Chief Minister as a ‘Problem Solver’.

Question 5.
Every constituent state has a Vidhan Parishad.
Answer:
False. Every constituent state has a Vidhan Sabha.

Find and write:

Question 1.
The State having a government machinery different than other states
Answer:
Jammu and Kashmir

Question 2.
The Vidhan Bhavan of Maharashtrais located in:
Answer:
Mumbai

Question 3.
The member of Vidhan Sabha are called:
Answer:
MLA

Question 4.
Major challenges faced by Maharashtra:
Answer:
Terrorism and Naxalite movements

Question 5.
The place where the winter session of Maharashtra’s legislature is conducted:
Answer:
Nagpur.

Complete the following concept maps:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Explain the following concepts:

Question 1.
Session:
Answer:

1. A session is a meeting where members of both the Houses meet.
2. Maharashtra’s legislature conducts minimum three sessions in a year.
3. The budget session and monsoon session of Maharashtra is held in Mumbai while the winter session is held at Nagpur.
4. The Governor has the right to summon and conclude the session.
5. During the session, new laws are passed, existing laws are amended and out-dated laws are repealed.
6. The sessions are conducted under the leadership and guidance of the Speaker and the Chairman.

Question 2.
Council of Ministers:
Answer:

1. The Council of Ministers consists of the Chief Minister and other ministers.
2. The leader of the majority party in Legislative Assembly is appointed as the Chief Minister by the Governor.
3. The Governor also appoints the other ministers chosen by the Chief Minister to form Council of Ministers.
4. Framing appropriate laws, working for the welfare of the people, governing the state efficiently are some of the functions of the Council of Ministers.
5. The Chief Minister along with his Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly.

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Powers of the Governor:
Answer:
The Governor enjoys certain important Legislative and Executive powers as the head of the state.

1. The Bills passed by Vidhan Sabha and Vidhan Parishad are converted into laws only after receiving his assent.
2. He has the right to summon the session of the state legislature and to conclude it.
3. He can issue an ordinance to make law, on important subject if required, when the Legislature is not in session.
4. He appoints the Chief Minister and the other Council of Ministers.

Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
The Governor is the titular/nominal head of the state.
Answer:

1. The Constitution has granted Executive powers to the Governor as the head of the state.
2. The government of the state is run in the name of the Governor.
3. But in reality, the administration is carried out by the Chief Minister. Hence, the Governor is the titular/ nominal head of the state.

Question 2.
Vidhan Parishad (Legislative Council) is a permanent House.
Answer:

1. All members of the Vidhan Parishad (MLCs) do not retire at the same time.
2. A specific number (1/3rd) of the members retire every 2 years.
3. These vacant seats are filled again by conducting fresh elections for those seats.
4. The tenure of each member is 6 years.
5. Since the Vidhan Parishad is never fully dissolved, it is a permanent House.

Question 3.
India has 29 constituent states, but 31 Vidhan Sabha.
Answer:

1. According to the Constitution, every constituent state must have a Vidhan Sabha (Legislative Assembly).
2. India has 29 constituent states and each state has its Vidhan Sabha.
3. Out of the 7 Union Territories in India, Delhi and Puducherry have Vidhan Sabha. Hence, India has 29 constituent states, but 31 Vidhan Sabha.

Question 4.
The Chief Minister’s post is most important in the state.
Answer:

1. The Chief Minister can select his Council of Ministers according to his choice.
2. He can ask any of his ministers to resign.
3. Framing policies of public welfare and developing the state in a progressive manner entirely depends upon the Chief Minister.
4. The Chief Minister leads the state and people look at him as a problem solver.
5. His intervention in solving the problems of the state comforts the people.

Hence, all these executive powers makes the Chief Minister’s post most important in the State.

Answer the following in brief:

Question 1.
Mention the eligibility conditions for contesting Vidhan Sabha elections.
Answer:
Following are the eligibility conditions for candidates contesting for Vidhan Sabha elections:

1. He/She should be a citizen of India.
2. He/She should have completed 25 years of age.
3. He/She should be a resident of Maharashtra.

Question 2.
Do you consider Maharashtra to be progressive state?
Answer:

1. Industrial development has taken place in Maharashtra on a large scale. It has many industries based on modern technology.
2. Maharashtra’s literacy rate is higher than many other states.
3. It has a rich tradition of saints and social reformers who have nurtured progressive thinking among people.
4. Maharashtra is leading in many fields like education, health, agriculture, sports, tourism, etc.
5. Maharashtra has been a land of Movements. Many important movements like the Labour movement, Farmer’s movement have been initiated here.
6. Similarly, many progressive laws have been passed in Maharashtra.
7. Maharashtra is facing many challenges like terrorism, poverty, crime, Naxalite movements, etc. Even then, I feel that Maharashtra is a progressive state.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 14 Formation of State of Maharashtra Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 14 Formation of State of Maharashtra

Class 8 History Chapter 14 Formation of State of Maharashtra Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options:

Question 1.
The State of …………….. was formed on 1 May, 1960.
(a) Goa
(b) Karnataka
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Maharashtra
Answer:
(d) Maharashtra

Question 2.
…………….. put forth the proposal of Samyukta Maharashtra with Mumbai in the Mumbai Municipal Corporation.
(a) G. T. Madkholkar
(b) Acharya Atre
(c) D. V. Potdar
(d) Shankarrao Dev
Answer:
(b) Acharya Atre

Question 3.
…………….. accepted the responsibility as first Chief Minister of Maharashtra.
(a) Yashwantrao Chavan
(b) Pruthviraj Chavan
(c) Shankarrao Chavan
(d) Vilasrao Deshmukh
Answer:
(a) Yashwantrao Chavan

2. Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti came to be established.
Answer:

1. The demand for a state of Marathi speaking people of all regions was put forth in the Nagpur Pact in 1953.
2. There was no positive response from the Central Government for formation of Samyukta Maharashtra with Mumbai.
3. The agitation was made severe through strikes, demonstrations, rallies, etc. which were organised from time to time.
4. As the issue of the demand of Marathi speaking people started becoming complicated, discontent spread throughout the state.
5. A meeting was held under the leadership of Keshavrao Jedhe on 6 February, 1956 at Tilak Smarak Mandir in Pune and the Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti was formed.

Question 2.
The role of newspapers was important in Samyukta Maharashtra Movement.
Answer:

1. The role of newspapers was equally important in Samyukta Maharashtra Movement. They worked to awaken the people.
2. Navyug, Prabhat, Navakal, Sakai, Prabodhan, Kesari are newspapers which played important role.
3. The ‘Maratha’ newspaper by Acharya Atre had a significant role in Samyukta Maharashtra movement.
4. Balasaheb Thackeray took pen name ‘Mavla’ and drew caricatures in ‘Navyug’.
5. Lokshahir Annabhau Sathe, Shahir Amar Sheikh and Shahir D. N. Gavankar aroused public awakening on a large scale through their writings.

3. Write short notes:

Question 1.
Samyukta Maharashtra Parishad:
Answer:

1. On 12 May 1946, a resolution was passed regarding Samyukta Maharashtra in the Sahitya Sammelan at Belgaon.
2. On this background, Maharashtra Ekikaran Parishad was convened under the leadership of Shankarrao Dev at Mumbai on 28 July.
3. A resolution was passed that all Marathi speaking regions should be united in one state.
4. It should include the regions of Mumbai, Central provinces Marathwada and Gomantak.

Question 2.
Contribution of Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti:
Answer:
Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti f contributed in the following way to form Samyukta Maharashtra.
1. Samyukta Maharashtra movement spread throughout the state and reached in rural areas.
2. Common people also joined the movement spontaneously.
3. When it was clear that Mumbai will not be included in Maharashtra, Samiti held demonstrations to protest and arouse public agitation.
4. The grand success of Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti in Lok Sabha, Vidhan Sabha and Mumbai Municipal Corporation in 1957 made it clear that the voters were in favour of Samyukta Maharashtra.
5. The agitations led by Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti during the visit of Prime Minister Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru made the approach of Central Government favourable in the formation of Maharashtra state.

4. Complete the following diagram.

Question 1.

Answer:

Do you Know?

Contribution of Marathi newspapers and Shahirs: In this movement the role of newspapers was important. Prabodhan, Kesari, Sakal, Navakal, Navyug, Prabhat many such newspapers worked for awakening of the people. Acharya Atre started the ‘Maratha’ newspaper which played an important role in Samyukta Maharashtra Movement.

Balasaheb Thackeray took up the pen name ‘Mavia’ and drew caricatures to make the movement comprehensive. Lokshahir Annabhau Sathe, Shahir Amar Sheikh and Shahir D.N.Gavankar through their writings aroused public awakening on a large scale.

Project:

Collect information about the personalities who greatly contributed to the formation of Maharashtra and prepare a project based on it with the help of your teachers.

Class 8 History Chapter 14 Formation of State of Maharashtra Additional Important Questions and Answers

Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options:

Question 1.
………………… organised rallies to protest against the report of JVP Committee.
(a) Sane Guruji
(b) P. K. Atre
(c) Senapati Bapat
(d) Prabodhankar Thackeray
Answer:
(c) Senapati Bapat

Question 2.
…………….. established Dar Commission for forming linguistic province.
(a) Morarji Desai
(b) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) Yashwantrao Chavan
Answer:
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Question 3.
According to 1953 Pact, Assembly session would be held once in a year at …………….
(a) Pune
(b) Mumbai
(c) Nagpur
(d) Aurangabad
Answer:
(c) Nagpur

Question 4.
Police used lathi charge and tear …………….. gas on the March led by
(a) Bhai Madhavrao Bagal
(b) Comrade Shripad Amrut Dange
(c) S.M. Joshi
(d) Senapati Bapat
Answer:
(d) Senapati Bapat

Question 5.
Acharya Atre started the newspaper …………….. which played an important role in Samyukta Maharashtra Movement.
(a) Navyug
(b) Prabodhan
(c) Maratha
(d) Navakal
Answer:
(c) Maratha

Name the following:

Question 1.
Demanded reconstruction of a state based on language in 1915.
Answer:
Lokmanya Tilak

Question 2.
Commission which advocated bilingual Mumbai.
Answer:
‘Commission for Reconstruction of States’

Question 3.
Samiti established at Tilak Smarak Mandir, Pune.
Answer:
Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti

Question 4.
The Act passed by the Parliament in April 1960.
Answer:
Mumbai Reorganisation Act.

Answer the following questions in one sentence:

Question 1.
What was the appeal made by Shankarrao Dev in the meeting held on Kamgar Maidan?
Answer:
Shankarrao Dev appealed to the people in the following words, “We will oppose the separation of Mumbai from Maharashtra up to our last breath.”

Question 2.
What was the suggestion given by the Commission for Reconstruction of States?
Answer:
The Commission for Reconstruction of States suggested creation of bilingual Mumbai State.

Question 3.
What was the resolution proposed by S. M. Joshi on 7 November, 1955 at the meeting of labourers?
Answer:
At the meeting of the labourers on 7 November, 1955 S. M. Joshi proposed a resolution that Samyukta Maharashtra should be created with Mumbai and Vidarbha.

Question 4.
Where was the memorial of 106 martyrs erected? What is it called?
Answer:
The memorial of 106 martyrs was erected in Mumbai near Flora Fountain. It is called ‘Flutatma Smarak.’

Question 5.
Who played an important role in establishing Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti?
Answer:
Acharya P K. Atre, Madhu Dandavate, Prabodhankar Keshav Thackeray, Y. K. Souni played important role in establishing Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti.

Question 6.
Name the lokshahirs who aroused awakening among people during Samyukta Maharashtra Movement.
Answer:
Lokshahirs Annabhau Sathe, Shahir Amar Sheikh and Shahir D. N. Gavankar aroused public awakening among the people during Samyukta Maharashtra Movement.

Do as Directed:

Complete the following diagram:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Complete the table:

Question 1.

Foundation year	Name of the Commission/Samiti	Name of the President
1. 28 July	……………………………………….	Shankarrao Dev
2. …………………………	Dar Commission	Justice S. R. Dar
3. 29 December, 1943	………………………………………..	Justice Fazal Ali
4. 6 February, 1956	Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti	…………………………….

Answer:

Foundation year	Name of the Commission/Samiti	Name of the President
1. 28 July	Maharashtra Ekikaran Parishad	Shankarrao Dev
2. 17 June, 1947	Dar Commission	Justice S. R. Dar
3. 29 December, 1943	Commission for Reconstruction of States	Justice Fazal Ali
4. 6 February, 1956	Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti	Comrade Shripad Amrut Dange

Write short notes:

Question 1.
Dar Commission:
Answer:

1. The President of Constituent Assembly, Dr. Rajendra Prasad established the Dar Commission on 17 June, 1947.
2. The Commission started the work under the leadership of Justice S. K. Dar to form states on linguistic basis.
3. On 10 December, 1948, the report of Dar Commission was published but the issue remained unsolved.

Question 2.
Commission for Reconstruction of States:
Answer:

1. Indian Government appointed a ‘Commission for Reconstruction of States’ on 29 December, 1953.
2. It was formed under the Chairmanship of Justice Fazal Ali.
3. In the proposal presented by the commission on 10 October, 1955, a creation of bilingual Mumbai State was advocated.

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
What started the demand for an independent state of Marathi speaking people?
Answer:

1. The demand for an independent Marathi speaking state started before independence.
2. N. C. Kelkar presented the idea that the entire Marathi speaking population should be under one dominion.
3. In 1915, Lokmanya Tilak demanded the reconstruction of a state based on language.
4. An important resolution regarding Samyukta Maharashtra was passed in the Sahitya Sammelan at Belgaon. It began the movement to form Independent state of Marathi speaking people.

Question 2.
Write information on the workers meeting held on 7 November, 1955.
Answer:

1. The struggle of Marathi speaking people for formation of Maharashtra with Mumbai had started.
2. On 7 November, 1955 a meeting of labourers was held.
3. Labour Organisation or Communists, Praja Socialists, Socialists, Peasants and Workers Party, Janasangh, etc. participated in the meeting.
4. Comrade Shripad Amrut Dange was the President of this meeting.
5. S. M. Joshi proposed a resolution to create a Samyukta Maharashtra with Mumbai and Vidarbha.

Question 3.
What were the provisions in the Nagpur Pact?
Answer:
The following provisions were made in the Nagpur Pact:

1. Samyukta Maharashtra should be formed including Western Maharashtra 8 and Vidarbha along with Marathwada.
2. Assurance was given regarding equitable financial provisions for development.
3. Ample finance will be provided for technical and vocational education.
4. Government services will be provided in accordance with the population in the region.
5. Once in a year an Assembly session will be held at Nagpur.

Question 4.
What happened on the day a grand march was taken to Vidhan Sabha?
Answer:

1. For the formation of Samyukta Maharashtra, a grand march was taken to the Vidhan Sabha led by Senapati Bapat.
2. The government declared a ban.
3. The police started lathi charge and used tear gas on the protestors who broke the ban.
4. On the same evening, Comrade Shripad Dange guided a mob of fifty thousand on Kamgar Maidan.
5. To give impetus to the Samyukta Maharashtra Movement, it was further decided to hold one day strike on 21 November, 1955.

Question 5.
Which events took place in the final stages of establishment of Maharashtra state?
Answer:
The following events took place in the final stages of establishment of Maharashtra state:

1. Due to agitation of Samyukta Maharashtra Movement, central government gave consent to the formation of two linguistic states.
2. The Congress President, Indira Gandhi also supported the Samyukta Maharashtra Movement.
3. In April 1960, the Parliament passed the Mumbai Reorganisation Act.
4. According to this act, Maharashtra State was formed on 1st May, 1960.
5. Pandit Nehru on the occasion of Labour Day made a formal announcement of the formation of Maharashtra State at a special ceremony at Raj Bhavan.
6. Yashwantrao Chavan accepted the responsibility of first Chief Minister of Maharashtra.

Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
Severe response was seen 9, throughout Maharashtra against JVP Committee report.
Answer:

1. The Congress appointed a three ministers committee on 29 December, 1948 to study the conditions of creating linguistic provinces.
2. The report suggested that Congress accepted the concept of linguistic state in principle but the time was not proper for it.
3. Due to this, severe response of the people was seen throughout Maharashtra against JVP Committee report.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
How did the Central Government favour Maharashtra’s movement under the leadership of Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti?
Answer:

1. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru was going to unveil statue of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj mounted on a horse on Pratapgad on 30 November, 1957.
2. Under the leadership of Bhai Madhavrao Bagal, Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti held huge demonstrations.
3. Leaders like S. M. Joshi, N. G. Gore, Jayantrao Tilak, R K. Atre participated in the protest at Pasarni Ghat and Poladpur.
4. Pandit Nehru became aware of sentiments of the Marathi speaking people.
5. The Congress President Indira Gandhi supported the Samyukta Maharashtra Movement.
6. Finally, the Central government gave consent for formation of two states-Gujarat and Maharashtra from former Mumbai (Bombay) state

Question 2.
Observe the given picture and identify. Write about his contribution in Samyukta Maharashtra.

Answer:

1. This picture is of Acharya R K. Atre. He made important contribution to Samyukta Maharashtra Movement.
2. He played important role in formation of Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti.
3. He presented and supported the pro- united Maharashtra Movement through his newspaper ‘Maratha’.
4. He was in the forefront of the demonstrations at Pasarni Ghat and Poladpur during the visit of Prime Minister Pandit Nehru at Pratapgad.

Question 3.
What are the advantages and disadvantages of linguistic reorganisation of states?
Answer:
Advantages:

1. The feeling of unity is very strong among the people speaking common language.
2. It guarantees social security.
3. It facilitates communication between people.
4. It helps in achieving linguistic and cultural unity.

Disadvantages:

1. Linguistic reorganisation may narrow perspective of the people.
2. Excessive pride in one’s language creates hatred towards other language.
3. Learning other languages and enjoying the literature never takes places.
4. It creates hurdles in social and cultural development.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Civics Solutions Chapter 4 The Indian Judicial System Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Civics Solutions Chapter 4 The Indian Judicial System

Class 8 Civics Chapter 4 The Indian Judicial System Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Choose the correct option and complete the statements:

Question 1.
Laws are made by …………………. .
(a) Legislature
(b) Council of Ministers
(c) Judiciary
(d) Executive
Answer:
(a) Legislature

Question 2.
The Chief Justice of Supreme Court is appointed by the …………………… .
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Home Minister
(d) Law Minister
Answer:
(b) President

2. Explain the concepts:

Question 1.
Judicial Review:
Answer:

1. The Constitution is the fundamental law of the nation and to protect it is the prime responsibility of the Supreme Court.
2. The Parliament cannot pass any law that violates the Constitution.
3. Every act or policy made by the Executive should be consistent with the Constitution.
4. If any law passed by the Legislature or any act of the Executive violates any provision of the Constitution, the said law or act is declared illegal.
5. So, it is struck down by the Supreme Court.
6. This power of the Supreme Court is known as Judicial Review.

Question 2.
Public Interest Litigation (PIL):
Answer:

1. Public Interest Litigation (PIL) refers to litigations filed on issues of public importance and issues related to the welfare of the people.
2. It can be filed by individual citizens, social organisation or Non-Governmental Organisations (NGOs) on behalf of all the people.
3. Issues related to rehabilitation of people who have lost their homes/lands, protection of environment, protection of the weaker sections of society, etc. have been effectively handled through PIL.
4. PILs are effective tool which require minimum expenditure and get immediate justice.

3. Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Civil Law:
Answer:

1. It is one of the two main branches of law.
2. It deals with conflicts which affect or interfere with the rights of an individual.
3. Conflicts regarding land and property, rent agreement, divorce, etc. are included under Civil law.
4. After filing a petition in the relevant court, the court gives a decision.

Question 2.
Criminal Law:
Answer:

1. Serious crimes are dealt under Criminal law.
2. Crimes like theft, robbery, dowry, murder, etc. are included under Criminal law.
3. In these cases, the first step is to file a ‘First Information Report’ (FIR) with the police, who investigate the matter and file a petition in the court.
4. If the charges are proved, there are provisions for severe punishment.

4. Answer in brief:

Question 1.
Why are laws necessary in society?
Answer:

1. Differences in opinions, thoughts, perspectives, different cultures of people give rise to conflicts. These conflicts can be resolved impartially by the Judiciary.
2. Social justice and equality in society can be established with the help of law.
3. It also helps to bring weaker sections of the society, women, children differently-abled and transgenders into the mainstream of the society.
4. Law helps the common man to get the benefits of values of freedom, equality and democracy.
5. Law helps to protect the rights of the people.
6. It prevents emergence of repressive and authoritarian groups and individuals.
   Hence, laws are necessary in society.

Question 2.
Enumerate the functions of the Supreme Court.
Answer:
The functions of the Supreme Court are as follows:

1. As a federal court, it has the responsibility to settle disputes between the centre and the states; and states on one side and states on the other.
2. It gives orders to relevant authorities to protect the fundamental rights of the people.
3. It has the power to review decrees and orders of the lower courts and also review its own decisions.
4. It provides necessary advice to the President if he/she asks for advice to understand the legal aspects in matters of public importance.

Question 3.
Which are the provisions that preserve the independence of the judiciary?
Answer:
The Constitution has made following provisions to preserve the independence of the judiciary:

1. To avoid any political pressure, judges are appointed by the President.
2. Judges enjoy the security of tenure. They cannot be removed from the post for trivial reasons or for political motives.
3. The salaries of the judges are drawn from the Consolidated Fund of India. No discussion regarding this takes place in the Parliament.
4. Personal criticism cannot be made on judges for their acts and decisions. It is considered as contempt of court and is a punishable offence.
5. The Parliament cannot discuss the decisions of the judges.

5. Complete the table:

Question 1.

Answer:

See this example:

1. The court had asked the candidates contesting in elections to declare their property and income details and educational qualifications through or affidavit.
2. The idea behind this was to ensure that the voters will vote on the basis of accurate information about the candidates.
3. This is an attempt to make our election process more transparent.
4. It is mandatory for the contesting candidates to declare whether there are any charges filed against them,
and the nature of the charges whether civil or criminal also has to be declared.

Do it:

High Courts having jurisdiction over more than one state:

1. Mumbai High Court: Maharashtra, Goa and Union Territories of Diu Daman and Dadra-Nagar Haveli.
2. Guwahati High Court: Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Mizoram and Nagaland.
3. Kerala High Court: Kerala and Union Territory of Lakshadweep islands.
4. Kolkata High Court: West Bengal and Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar islands.
5. Chandigarh High Court: Punjab and Haryana.

Project:

Question 1.
Organise a Moot Court’ in your school, prepare and ask questions related to Public Interest Litigations in this Moot Court.

Question 2.
Visit the nearest police station and understand the procedure of filing a First Information Report (FIR) with the help of your teacher.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 4 The Indian Judicial System Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option and complete the statements:

Question 1.
When the common man benefits from the values of freedom, equality and justice, it leads to the widening and deepening of ……………… .
(a) values
(b) democracy
(c) Judiciary
(d) Law
Answer:
(b) democracy

Question 2.
…………. helps to protect the rights of people.
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Judiciary
(d) Social Organisation
Answer:
(c) Judiciary

Question 3.
The …………. is the fundamental law of the nation.
(a) Parliament
(b) Judiciary
(c) Constitution
(d) President’s order
Answer:
(c) Constitution

Question 4.
If any law passed by the Legislature or any act of the Executive violates any provision of the Constitution, the said law or act can be declared illegal by the ………….
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Speaker
(c) President
(d) Supreme Court
Answer:
(d) Supreme Court

Question 5.
The …………. has the power to establish a High Court in every state of India.
(a) Supreme Court
(b) Parliament
(c) President
(d) Prime Minister
Answer:
(b) Parliament

Question 6.
Currently, there are ……………. High Courts in India.
(a) 20
(b) 29
(c) 24
(d) 22
Answer:
(c) 24

Find and write:

Question 1.
Nature of Judiciary in India:
Answer:
Integrated System

Question 2.
In the criminal cases, the first step is to file:
Answer:
First Information Report (FIR)

Question 3.
The District judges are appointed by
Answer:
The Governor

Question 4.
The High Court judges are appointed by:
Answer:
The President.

Complete the following concept map:

Question 1.

Answer:

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Judicial Activism:
Answer:

1. The courts settle the disputes whenever they are approached for that purpose.
2. But, in the recent times, this image of the courts has undergone a change.
3. They have become increasingly active.
4. The courts are now trying to fulfill the constitutional goals of justice and equality.
5. The courts have tried to provide legal protection to the marginalised sections of society, women, tribal, workers, farmers and children.
6. Public Interest Litigations related to issues like victimisation of women, malnourishment among children, etc. have played an important role in boosting Judicial Activism

Question 2.
High Court:
Answer:

1. The Indian Constitution confers the Parliament with the power to establish a High Court in each constituent state in the Union.
2. Normally, each state has a High Court. But, in certain cases where the population and area of the states is less, one High Court has jurisdiction over more than one state.
3. For example, the Bombay High Court’s jurisdiction covers the states of Maharashtra and Goa, and the Union Territories of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu.
4. Currently, there are 24 High Courts in India.

Question 3.
Supreme Court of India:
Answer:

1. Judiciary in India is an integrated system where Supreme Court is at the apex position.
2. The Chief Justice of India (CJI) is the head of the Supreme Court of India.
3. By convention, the seniormost judge of the Supreme Court is appointed as the Chief Justice.
4. The President appoints the Chief Justice of India and other judges of the Supreme Court.
5. The Supreme Court of India is located at New Delhi.

Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
Judiciary in India is an integrated system.
Answer:

1. India is a Union of States. The Centre and the Constituent States have a separate Legislature and Executive.
2. But there is one judicial system for the whole of India.
3. The Supreme Court is the apex court under which there are High Courts.
4. The High Courts control the district courts and below them are the lower courts. Hence, this structure makes Judiciary in India an integrated system.

Question 2.
The Constitution has made provision for independence of Judiciary.
Answer:
1. The Constitution wants Judiciary to work freely, without any kind of pressure.
2. The independence of the judiciary is maintained so as to enable the judges to fearlessly carry out the function of giving justice.
For this purpose, the Constitution has made provisions for independence of Judiciary.

Question 3.
The Indian judiciary has made a significant contribution in the development of the country.
Answer:

1. The Indian judiciary has always given importance to social values while protecting the Constitution.
2. It has exposed wrong practices like superstitions, discrimination, injustice to weaker sections, etc. and forced the legislature to pass laws against them.
3. It has protected individual freedom, the federal system and the Constitution of India.
4. Common people have a lot of respect and trust in the judicial system.

Thus, the Indian judiciary has made a significant contribution in the development of the country.

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
What are the eligibility criteria for appointment of Supreme Court judges?
Answer:
The eligibility criteria laid down by the Constitution for appointment of Supreme Court judges are as follows:

1. He/She must be a citizen of India.
2. He/She must be a legal expert.
3. He/She must have served as a High Court judge or as an experienced advocate in the High Court.

Question 2.
Mention the functions of the High Court.
Answer:
The functions of the High Court are as follows:

1. To supervise over the District and other lower courts in its jurisdiction.
2. To maintain control over the functioning of the lower courts.
3. To give orders to protect the fundamental rights of the citizens.
4. To give advice to the governor while appointing judges in the district courts.

Question 3.
Should the Supreme Court have the power of Judicial Review?
Answer:
The Supreme Court must have the power of Judicial Review for following reasons:

1. Protecting the Constitution is the most important responsibility of the Supreme Court.
2. Many a times, laws violating the Constitution are passed under public pressure or for gaining popularity.
3. The Executive may pass laws or frame policies violating the Constitution.
4. Laws violating the fundamental rights of the citizens may be passed which may prove to be harmful for democracy.
5. The power of Judicial Review helps in curbing all anti-constitutional practices and protects and strengthens democracy.
6. It also helps in keeping the Executive under control.

Question 4.
Why does the President seek the advice of the Supreme Court on any issue of public importance? Can you tell?
Answer:

1. Decisions taken on issues of public importance have long-lasting effect on the lives of the people.
2. Such decisions should also be according to the Rule of Law which treats everyone equally.
3. Care has to be taken that such decisions should not violate the Constitution.
4. Since the President is not a legal expert, he has to seek advice of the Supreme Court on any issues of public importance.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Civics Solutions Chapter 3 The Union Executive Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Civics Solutions Chapter 3 The Union Executive

Class 8 Civics Chapter 3 The Union Executive Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Choose the correct option and rewrite the statement:

Question 1.
In India, the executive power is vested in the ………………. .
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Speaker
Answer:
(a) President

Question 2.
The tenure of the President is of ………… years.
(a) three
(b) four
(c) five
Answer:
(c) five

Question 3.
The Council of Ministers is led by the ………………. .
(a) Party Chief
(b) Prime Minister
(c) President
Answer:
(b) Prime Minister

2. Find and write:

Question 1.
The President, the Prime Minister, the Council of Ministers are called the ……………. .
Answer:
Executive

Question 2.
During the Parliamentary session, the period around 12 noon is known as ……………… .
Answer:
Zero hour

3. write the following concepts in your own words:

Question 1.
Impeachment procedure:
Answer:

1. The responsibility of protecting the Constitution is shouldered by the President.
2. But, if any act of the President violates the Constitution, the Parliament has the authority to remove him.
3. This process known as process of Impeachment.

The procedure for impeachment is as follows:

1. Anyone House can lay the charge of violation of the Constitution.
2. The investigation of the charge is carried out by the other House.
3. If the resolution is passed by special (2/3rd) majority of both the Houses, the President can be removed from his post.

Question 2.
No-confidence motion:
Answer:

1. In the Parliamentary system of government, the Legislature tries to keep control over the Executive.
2. The Executive stays in power till it enjoys the support of the majority in Lok Sabha.
3. The members of the Lok Sabha can move a No-confidence motion by simply expressing “We do not have confidence in the government”.
4. If the motion is passed with majority support, the Council of Ministers (the Executive) has to resign.
5. Thus, this is the most effective way to keep a check on the Council of Ministers.

Question 3.
Jumbo Ministry:
Answer:

1. A huge Council of Ministers with more than necessary ministers is referred to as Jumbo Ministry.
2. There was a trend to keep large Council of Ministers in our country.
3. Later, a constitutional amendment was made to limit the size of the Council of Ministers.
4. As per this amendment, the number of ministers in the Council should not be more than 15% of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.

4. Answer in brief:

Question 1.
Enumerate the functions of the Council of Ministers.
Answer:
The functions of the Council of Ministers are as follows:
1. The Council of Ministers takes initiative in the process of Law-making by drafting the bills/proposals.
2. It introduces and discusses the bills/ proposals in the House.
3. It introduces bills on various subjects like education, agriculture, industry, health, foreign relations, etc. in the Parliament, conducts discussions on them and tries to get them approved by the Parliament.
4. It also takes the responsibility of implementing the policies approved by the Parliament.

Question 2.
How does the Parliament keep a check on the Executive?
Answer:
The Parliament keeps a check on the Executive in the following ways:
1. The bills/proposals presented by the Council of Ministers are discussed in the Parliament.
2. These discussions and debates help the members to scrutinize the bills/ proposals and point out the shortcomings and help in a creation of healthy laws.
3. During Parliamentary sessions, the proceedings of the House begins with questions asked by the members of the House. The concerned Ministers are expected to give satisfactory answers to these questions.
4. During the Parliamentary sessions, the period around 12 noon is called as ‘Zero House’. During this period, any question of public importance can be raised and discussed.
5. The Parliament can pass a No-confidence motion on the Executive. If the motion is passed with majority support, then it has to resign.

5. Complete the concept picture. 

Question 1.

Answer:

Do it:

Find out the text of the oath taken by the President. Understand its meaning with the help of your teachers.

Do you know:

Jumbo Ministry:

1. Earlier, there was a trend to keep large Council of Ministers.
2. Such huge Councils were known as jumbo Ministry’.
3. Later, a constitutional amendment was made to limit the size of the Council of Ministers.
4. As per this amendment, the number of ministers in the council should not be more than 15% of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.

Can you tell?

What should the members of the Parliament do to participate effectively in debates and discussions?

Understand it :
(The gist of the conversation between Rama and Vidya.)

1. The President is the nominal head and the Prime Minister is the executive head.
2. The Prime Minister meets the President regularly and informs him about the conduct of administration.
3. The President has the right to seek information about new laws and policies framed by the Parliament. from the Prime Minister.

Project:

Question 1.
If you become the Prime Minister what works will you prioritise? Create a priority-wise list and present it in class.

Question 2.
Collect pictures and information of India’s Presidents since independence.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 3 The Union Executive Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option and rewrite the statement:

Question 1.
The ………………. bears the responsibility of protecting the Constitution and ensuring that the government runs as per the Constitution.
(a) Speaker
(b) President
(c) Vice-President
Answer:
(b) President

Question 2.
The President can be removed if the impeachment resolution is passed by ………………. majority in both the Houses of Parliament.
(a) 1/3rd
(b) 2/3rd
(c) 3/4th
Answer:
(b) 2/3rd

Question 3.
The ………………. is the Commander-in-Chief of the armed forces.
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Vice-President
(c) President
(d) Brigadier
Answer:
(c) President

Question 4.
In case a minister is not a member of the Parliament, he/she has to get elected to the Parliament within ………………. months.
(a) three
(b) six
(c) nine
(d) two
Answer:
(b) six

Question 5.
As per the amendment, the number of minister’s in the council should not be more than ………………. % of the total number of members in Lok Sabha.
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 15
(d) 25
Answer:
(c) 15

Question 6.
The Council of Ministers stays in power till it enjoys the support of majority in ………………. .
(a) Legislative Assembly
(b) Legislative Council
(c) Rajya Sabha
(d) Lok Sabha
Answer:
(d) Lok Sabha

Question 7.
In the absence of the President, ………………. carries out his functions.
(a) Vice-President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Chief Election Commissioner
Answer:
(a) Vice-President

Find and write:

Question 1.
The group of Parliamentarians and members of the state legislatures who elect the President ……………… .
Answer:
Electoral college

Question 2.
One who has the right to declare emergency in case of crisis …………… .
Answer:
President

Complete the concept map:

Question 1.

Answer:

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Vice-President:
Answer:

1. The Vice-President is elected by members of both the Houses.
2. The person contesting the election for the post of Vice-President should be a citizen of India and should have completed 35 years of age.
3. He is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha and exercises control over the functioning of Rajya Sabha.
4. In the absence of the President, his functions are carried out by the Vice President.

Question 2.
President:
Answer:

1. The President is the Constitutional Head of India.
2. He is elected by the directly elected representatives of the Central and State legislatures.
3. The person elected to the post of the President has to take an oath while accepting the post.
4. According to the oath, the President bears the responsibility of protecting the Constitution and ensuring that the government runs as per the Constitution.
5. The President governs in accordance with the advice given by the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers.
6. He has Legislative, Executive, Judicial, Defence and Emergency powers.

Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
The President is the nominal and constitutional Head of India.
Answer:

1. The Constitution has vested all executive powers in the President.
2. The government carries out its functions in the name of the President.
3. However, in reality, the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers run the government.

Hence, the President is the nominal and Constitutional Head of India.

Question 2.
The Council of Ministers has to take the Parliament into confidence while framing policies.
Answer:

1. The Council of Ministers has to decide specific policies on subject like education, agriculture, industry, health, foreign affairs, etc.
2. The Ministers of respective departments have to lay their policy plans in the House and discuss them thoroughly.
3. The policies cannot be implemented without the approval of the Parliament.
4. Also, the Council of Ministers can stay in power till it enjoys the support of the Parliament.
5. Hence, it has to take the Parliament into confidence while framing policies.

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
How is the President elected?
Answer:

1. The President is not directly elected by the people of India.
2. The common people do not vote in the election of the President.
3. He is elected by the Electoral College.
4. The Electoral College includes all members/elected representatives of Parliament and the members of the State Legislatures.

Question 2.
How is the Council of Ministers formed?
Answer:

1. The party which attains majority in the Lok Sabha election, nominates its leader as the Prime Minister.
2. The Prime Minister is given an oath by the President.
3. The Prime Minister then, chooses his trustworthy and efficient colleagues from within the party to form the Council of Ministers.
4. He gives priority to his colleagues considering their administrative experience, governance skills, efficiency and technical expertise.
5. The President administers oath to all the Council of Ministers. In this way, the Council of Ministers is formed.

Question 3.
State the qualifications necessary for contesting the Presidential election.
Answer:

1. The person contesting the Presidential election should be a citizen of India.
2. He should be 35 years of age.
3. He should also fulfill other conditions mentioned by the Constitution.

Question 4.
Mention the functions of the Prime Minister.
Answer:
The functions of the Prime Minister are as follows:

1. To form the Council of Ministers, selecting trustworthy, experienced and efficient people.
2. To allocate portfolios and chair all the meetings of the Council of Ministers.
3. To lead the Council of Ministers, maintain coordination among various departments, facilitate cooperation among departments and supervise to bring about efficiency and efficacy.
4. To raise the image of the country at international level.
5. To support the people during disasters.

Question 5.
What should the MPs do to enable them to participate effectively in Lok Sabha discussions?
Answer:
For effective participation in Lok Sabha, the MPs have to practise following things:

1. They should come prepared to the Lok Sabha with deep study of the problems of their constituencies and effective solutions to the same.
2. They should thoroughly understand the functioning of the Parliament and express people’s problems in a precise manner, without wasting other’s time.
3. They should be able to criticise the shortcomings and defects in bills/policies effectively.
4. They should be well-versed with the various effective tools, granted by the Constitution, for keeping a check on the Council of Ministers.
5. They should strictly keep away from unparliamentary practices like creating chaos, shouting slogans, tearing papers, being physically aggressive or fighting, etc. as such practices are not helpful in any manner.