Class 8

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Industries Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Industries

Class 8 Geography Chapter 8 Industries Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Mark ✓ in the box next to the right alternative:
(Note: The answers are given directly.)

Question A.
Which factors among those mentioned below does not directly impact industrial development?
(i) Water [ ]
(ii) Electricity [ ]
(iii) Labour [ ]
(iv) Air [ ]
Answer:
(iv) Air [✓]

Question B.
Which of the following is a small industry?
(i) Machine parts industry [ ]
(ii) Book binding industry [ ]
(iii) Silk industry [ ]
(iv) Sugar industry [ ]
Answer:
(ii) Book binding industry [✓]

Question C.
Which of the following cities is not an IT centre?
(i) Old Delhi [ ]
(ii) New Delhi [ ]
(iii) Noida [ ]
(iv) Bangaluru [ ]
Answer:
(i) Old Delhi [✓]

Question D.
An amount of 2% of the profits have to be utilized for which purpose by industries?
(i) Income tax [ ]
(ii) Corporate social responsibility [ ]
(iii) Goods and service tax [ ]
(iv) Sales tax [ ]
Answer:
(ii) Corporate social responsibility [✓]

2. State whether the following statements are true or false. Correct the incorrect Statements.

Question a.
Small and medium industries of a country are harmful to heavy industries.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct sentence: Small and medium industries of a country are supportive to heavy industries.

Question b.
The level of industrialization is an indicator of the economic development of a country.
Answer:
Correct.

Question c.
The aim of the industrial development corporations is to decentralize industrialization.
Answer:
Correct.

Question d.
Corporate social responsibility is compulsory for every industries.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct sentence: Corporate social responsibility is not compulsory for every industries.

3. Answer the following questions in three to four lines.

Question a.
What are the facilities provided by the government to industrial estates?
Answer:
The following are the facilities provided by the government to industrial estates:

1. Government gives concessional rates to the estates for electricity, water and taxes.
2. Estates are also provided piece of land at concessional rates by the government.

Question b.
Write in your words how industrial development impacts national development.
Answer:

1. Industrial development generates employment opportunities.
2. Due to increased employment level, people get jobs and per capita income increases. This further increases the standard of living of people.
3. Industrial development increases the value of the Gross National Product.
4. Industrial development increases the production of various goods. By exporting the surplus goods, country can earn foreign exchange. In this way, industrial development positively impacts national development.

Question c.
Give your opinion in short on the usefulness of corporate social responsibility.
Answer:
1. Corporate social responsibility is responsibility shown by the industrialists by working for the betterment of the society and for conserving environment.

2. Industries making annual profit of more than 5 crores are expected to spend 2% of their profits on some of the following acts:

• Providing educational or health facilities
• Establishing centres for mentally or physically challenged, widows, other needy people
• Developing a particular village or region
• Establishing environmental development centres, etc.

3. Corporate social responsibility increases the welfare of people and so proves beneficial to the society.

Question d.
Mention three features of small industries.
Answer:
Three features of small industries ! are as follows:

1. Small industries require comparatively less amount of inputs like capital, machinery and manpower.
2. Small industries require comparatively less premise for its day-to-day operations.
3. Generally, the goods produced in small industries have local/regional markets.

4. Write detailed answers to the following questions.

Question a.
Explain the factors affecting industrial development.
Answer:
The factors affecting industrial development are as follows:
1. Scientific and technological advancement, quantity and quality of labour, speedy transportation facilities, ready markets, availability of raw materials, government policies, political stability, etc. are factors that influence the industrial development of a nation.

2. For example, dense forest areas, mountainous areas, desert regions have extreme physiographical features. Transport facilities are found to be limited in such regions. Therefore, industrial development is found to be limited in such regions.

3. For example, agriculture is developed on a large scale in the fertile plains and the regions of moderate rainfall. Agriculture provides raw materials to many industries. Therefore, industrial development is found to be high in such regions.

Question b.
State the advantages of the Maharashtra Industrial Development Corporation.
Answer:
The advantages of the Maharashtra Industrial Development Corporation are as follows:

1. The state government of Maharashtra established Maharashtra Industrial Development Corporation (MIDC) on 1st August, 1962.
2. Through MIDC, government has set  up industries in all districts of Maharashtra. MIDC supports the industrial growth and decentralization of industries.
3. Government gives concessional rates to the estates/industries for electricity, water and taxes. Estates/industries are also provided piece of land at concessional rates by the government.
4. MIDC has been playing an important role in generating employment opportunities in all the 36 districts of Maharashtra.
5. MIDC has been playing an important indirect role in increasing the per capita income and standards of living of people in Maharashtra.

Question c.
Explain the importance of I.T. industry.
Answer:
1. Information technology industry includes various components like searching for technical information, obtaining information, analyzing information, compiling information, graphic presentation of information and providing information.

2. Information technology industry provides various types of information through internet on computers, mobiles and other devices. This industry provides information at comparatively less cost, time and efforts.

3. The obtained information can be used for personal, economic, social, cultural, etc. development. India has made rapid progress in this industry.

Question d.
Considering India’s population, the development of industries is a good solution to the problem of unemployment. Explain.
Answer:
1. According to Census, 2011, the population of India was nearly 121 crores.

2. In India, majority of people are engaged in agriculture. In India, agriculture is seasonal in nature. Therefore, the unemployment rate is found to be high in India. Therefore, it is essential to develop industries in India.

3. By developing small industries, unemployed people will get employment opportunities. Small industries will help in providing jobs to less skilled, less educated people.

4. By developing medium and large industries in rural areas, the process of urbanisation can be boosted in villages. It will also restrict migration of people from villages to towns and cities. The employment level in a nation can be raised by developing industries. Thus, considering India’s population, the development of industries is a good solution to the problem of unemployment.

5. Prepare a flow chart for the following statements:

Question a.
The journey of clothes we use from the farm to ourselves.
Answer:

Question b.
Essential factors for the location of any one industry.
Answer:

6. Highlight the differences.

Question a.
Medium industries and heavy industries.
Answer:

Question b.
Agro-based industries and Information technology industries.
Answer:

Projects:

Collect information about any one project undertaken in your village/city under the Corporate Social Responsibility and present it in the class.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 8 Industries Additional Important Questions and Answers

Mark ✓ in the box next to the right alternative:

Question A.
Which of the following is a medium industry?
(i) Sugar industry [ ]
(ii) Textile industry [ ]
(iii) Cement industry [ ]
(iv) Food processing industry [ ]
Answer:
(iv) Food processing industry [✓]

Examine the following statements and correct the incorrect ones:

Question a.
Localization of sugar industry is found near Jamshedpur.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct sentence: Localization of iron and steel industry is found near Jamshedpur.

Question b.
India is predominantly manufacturing country.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct sentence: India is predominant¬ly agrarian country. ,

Question c.
Poverty decreases the speed of industrial growth.
Answer:
Correct.

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question a.
What is manufacturing?
Answer:
The process of converting raw materials into finished goods is called manufacturing. ‘

Question b.
What is called factory?
Answer:
A place where raw materials are converted into finished goods is called a factory.

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question a.
Mention three features of large industries.
Answer:
Three features of large industries ; are as follows:

1. Large industries require huge amount of inputs like capital, machinery and manpower.
2. Large industries require huge premise for its day-to-day operations.
3. The goods produced in large industries have wide markets.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question a.
Give information about agro-based industries in India.
Answer:
1. India is predominantly agrarian country. Agriculture is the main occupation of majority of people in India.

2. In India, food crops, cash crops, fruits, flowers, vegetables, etc. are cultivated on a large scale. The agricultural produce provides raw material to many industries in India. For example, sugar cane is raw material for sugar industry. Thus many industries in India are agro-based industries. RIES 83

3. The industries processing agricultural products like fruit processing industries, food processing industries, dairy industries, etc. have also flourished in India.

5. Agro based industries play an important role in rural economy by generating employment opportunities in rural areas.

Highlight differences/Distinguish between the following:

Question a.
Small industries and Medium industries.
Answer:

Study the following map/figure/graph and answer the following questions:

Can you tell? 

Study the Figure and answer the following questions :

Question a.
Name the industry at Jamshedpur.
Answer:
The name of the industry at Jamshedpur is Iron and steel industry.

Question b.
Which raw material is required for this industry?
Answer:
Raw material required for this industry is iron, manganese, limestone, coal, etc.

Question c.
From which areas is this raw material obtained?
Answer:
This raw material is obtained from the areas of Jamshedpur, Kulaisila, Gurumahisani, Jgharia, etc.

Question d.
Why is coal used in this industry?
Answer:
Coal is used in this industry as fuel to heat iron to a certain temperature.

Question e.
State with reasons if it would be feasible to set up an iron and steel industry in your district.
Answer:
It would not be feasible to set up an iron and steel industry in our district as there are no reserves of iron ore, manganese, limestone, etc. found in our district.
(Note : Students, here it is assumed that you stay in Thane district. Write answer to j the above question as per the district in which you live.)

Give it a try.

Observe the picture and answer the following questions:

Question a.
In what context is this logo?
Answer:
This logo is about ‘Make in India’ programme.

Question b.
What will be the benefit of this programme?
Answer:
This programme will boost the production of various industries located all over India.

Question c.
What is correlation between this programme and employment?
Answer:
This programme will generate employment opportunities on a large scale.

Question d.
Which are the Navratna industries in India?
Answer:
The Navratna industries in India are as follows :

1. Gas Authority of India
2. Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited
3. Coal India Limited
4. Indian Oil Corporation Limite
5. National Thermal Power Corporation
6. Oil and Natural Gas Corporation, etc.

Question e.
Why do you think they have been accorded this status of Navratna?
Answer:
Navratna industries have been accorded the status of Navratna to function effectively to fulfill various needs of public.

Show the following details on the outline map of India with index:

Give it a try. (Textbook page 58)

Question a.
Important information technology centres are called IT hubs. Find out with the help of the internet in which cities such hubs have developed and mark them on an outline map of India.
Answer:
Important information technology centres known as IT hubs:

1. Bangaluru
2. Hyderabad
3. Chennai
4. Mumba
5. New Delhi
6. Pune
7. Kolkata
8. Ahmadabad.

Thought-Provoking Questions:

Let’s recall.

1. In Figure, the sequence of two industrial processes has been given. Arrange the pictures in proper sequence and write the sequential number in the boxes given below and answer the following questions:

Questions:

Question a.
Name the two industries.
Answer:
The two industries are:

1. Sugar industry
2. Textile industry.

Question b.
Name the raw material and the finished product of both these industries.
Answer:
The raw material and finished product in sugar industry are sugarcane and sugar respectively. Similarly the raw material and finished product in textile industry are cotton and cloth.

Question c.
How is the raw material converted into the finished product?
Answer:
The raw material is converted into the finished product by processing the raw material at various level.

Question d.
Why is it necessary to convert the raw material into finished goods?
Answer:
The raw material in its original form, cannot satisfy human wants directly. Therefore it is necessary to convert the raw material into finished goods.

2. Study the following figure showing the factors affecting the location of an industry. Taking into account the factors shown in the figure, note in different colours the favourable factors required for (1) Iron and steel (2) Textiles and (3) Sugar industry and answer the following questions:

Questions:

Question a.
For each industry, prepare a list of necessary factors.
Answer:
A list of necessary factors for each industry:

1. Iron and steel industry: Iron ore, manganese, coal, water, etc.
2. Textile industry: Cotton, transportation services, water, electricity, etc.
3. Sugar industry: Sugar cane, water, electricity, etc.

Question b.
For each industry give an explanation for the location suggested by you.
Answer:
1. Iron and steel industry: The raw material of iron and steel industry is bulky in nature. The transportation of this raw material is not feasible. Therefore, the location of iron and steel industry is suggested near mineral field.

2. Textile industry: The raw material of textile industry is cotton. Cotton is light in weight. Therefore, it can be transported easily. Therefore, the location of textile industry is suggested near highway and at a place where labours are available.

3. Sugar industry: The raw material of sugar industry is sugar cane. This raw material is comparatively less durable. Therefore, its transport at a distant location is difficult. Therefore, the location of sugar industry is suggested near the cultivation area.

Question c.
In a similar manner for which other industries can you decide a suitable location?
Answer:
In a similar manner, a suitable location can be decided for the industries like fruit processing industry, cement industry, etc.

Give it a try. 

Study the factors given below and state which industries could develop in these regions:

Question a.
Excellent transport facilities, skilled labours, uninterrupted supply of electricity,
Answer:
Textile industries, vehicle manufacturing industries, fertilizer manufacturing industries, etc. could develop in the regions of excellent transport facilities, skilled labours, uninterrupted supply of electricity.

Question b.
Limestone deposits, cheap labour, uninterrupted supply of water and electricity, increasing urbanisation,
Answer:
Mining industries could develop in the regions of limestone deposits, cheap labour, uninterrupted supply of water and electricity, increasing urbanisation.

Question c.
Fruit orchards, labour, excellent transportation facilities, unlimited water supply, uninterrupted electricity and ready market.
Answer:
Fruit processing industries could develop in the regions of fruit orchards, labour, excellent transportation facilities, unlimited water supply, uninterrupted electricity and ready market.

Use your brainpower! 

Question a.
Identify the industries shown in the pictures given on page 54 of the textbook and state their suitable locations.
Answer:
A. The industries shown in the pictures given on page 54 of the textbook are as follows:

1. Information technology industry
2. Fish canning industry
3. Milk industry.

B. The suitable locations for these industries are as follows:

1. Information technology industry: A place connected with transportation facilities
2. Fish canning industry: A place near coastal region
3. Milk industry: A place near the cattle rearing is practised.

Think about it. 

Examine pictures (A), (B) and (C) given on page 54 of the textbook and answer the following questions:

Question a.
Name the industry shown in picture (A).
Answer:
The name of the industry shown in picture (A) is Papad making industry.

Question b.
What is the difference between the industries shown in pictures (A) and (B)?
Answer:
(A) Industry requires comparatively less amount of capital, manpower, machinery and space. On the other hand, (B) industry requires comparatively more amount of capital, manpower, machinery and space.

Question c.
What is distinctive about the industry in picture (C)?
Answer:
The industry in picture (C) requires capital, manpower, machinery and space on a very large scale.

Question d.
Identify the industry shown in each picture.
Answer:
The industries shown are as follows:

1. Industry shown in picture (A) is Small industry
2. Industry shown in picture (B) is Medium industry
3. Industry shown in picture (C) is Large industry

Question d.
Name some more similar industries.
Answer:

1. Small industries: Cane products and handicraft industry, earthen pot making industry, etc.
2. Medium industry: Fruit processing industry, jaggery making industry, etc.
3. Large industry: Sugar manufacturing industry, fertilizer manufacturing industry, Automobile manufacturing industry, etc.

Give it a try. 

Question a.
Complete the following list with reference to industries:
(Note: The answer is given directly.)

Answer:

Industry	Type	Raw material
1. Manufacture of iron rods	Large industry	Iron, water, electricity, etc.
2. Manufacture of candle	Small industry	Wax, water, mould, etc.
3. Furniture manufacture	Medium industry	Wood, saw, polish, etc.
4. Paper manufacture	Medium industry	Pulp, water, colour, etc.
5. Manufacture of medicines	Large industry	Medicinal chemicals, water, etc.
6. Sugar manufacture	Large industry	Sugar cane, water, electricity, etc.
7. Jaggery manufacture	Medium industry	Sugar cane, water, etc.
8. Agarbatti manufacturing	Small industry	Bamboo sticks, incense powder, etc.
9. Manufacture of cotton cloth	Large industry	Cotton, water, colour, etc.
10. Manufacture of railway engines	Large industry	Iron, steel, glass, etc.
11. Papad making	Small industry	Pulse tour, salt, water, etc.

Can you tell? 

Question a.
Study the factors given in Figure 8.7 given on page 56 of the textbook and classify them as per their advantages and disadvantages in relation to industry:
Answer:
1. Advantages in relation to industry: Employment, Development of agriculture, Population, Stable prices of commodities, Skilled manpower, Improvement in the standard of living, Supply of labour, the Market, More land under irrigation, Development of transport facilities, Communication, Cultural development, Literacy, Boost to urbanization, Ample water, Uninterrupted power supply.

2. Disadvantages in relation to industry: Depletion of forest land, Pollution, Increasing land prices, Slums, Number of migrants, poverty.

Think about it.

Question a.
Talk about the interrelationship between human resource and industry.
Answer:

1. The optimum level and high quality of human resource increases the industrial growth.
2. Shortage and low quality of human resource decreases the industrial growth.

Use your brainpower!

Question a.
Which type of industries can stem the flow of people towards urban areas?
Answer:
Large industries can stem the flow of people towards urban areas.

Question b.
Where is it necessary to establish these industries?
Answer:
It is necessary to establish these industries in rural areas.

Think about it. 

Question
If you become an industrialist, which of the following would you do?:

1. Only make profits
2. Start a second industry from the earlier one as a supplementary industry
3. Will spend some amount for the society after the deduction of tax
4. Provide help for the creation of new industrialist.

Answer:
If become industrialist, will do the following:

1. Start a second industry from the earlier one as a supplementary industry
2. Will spend some amount for the society after the deduction of tax
3. Provide help for the creation of new industrialist.

Open-Ended Question:

Use your brainpower! 

Question 1.
Which industries could be profitably set up in your surrounding area/locality?
Answer:
As fruits like mangoes, jackfruits, cashew nuts are largely grown, the fruit processing industries could be profitably set up in our surrounding area/locality.
(Note: Students here it is assumed that you live in Sindhudurg district of Maharashtra.
Write answer to the above question as per the district in which you live.)

 

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Land Use Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Land Use

Class 8 Geography Chapter 6 Land Use Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Examine the following statements and correct the incorrect ones:

Question A.
Mining Is not type of land use.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: Mining is a type of land use.

Question B.
There are factories in the Central Business District.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: There are many shops, banks and offices in the Central Business District.

Question C.
In urban areas, the largest area is used for residential purposes.
Answer:
Correct.

Question D.
The village attendant issues the 7/12 extract.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: The village talathi issues the 7/12 extract.

Question E.
In rural areas, residential areas occupy large tracts.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: In rural areas, residential areas occupy small tracts.

Question F.
Extract 7 indicates Record of Rights.
Answer:
Correct.

Question G.
Extract 12 indicates change in ownership.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: Extract 12 indicates tracts under cultivation.

2. Give geographical reasons.

Question A.
Land use for public facility is extremely important in urban areas.
Answer:

1. Government provides various services to fulfill the needs of citizens. The land used for fulfilling these needs is known as public utility/ facility area.
2. The lands used for post offices, police stations, public grounds, public schools, public hospitals, etc. are included public facility land use.
3. Land use for public facility increases the’ social welfare. Therefore, land use for public facility is extremely important in urban areas.

Question B.
The record of ownership of non- agricultural land is same as that of agricultural land.
Answer:
1. The record of agricultural land is maintained in the form of 7/12 extract. Similarly the record of ownership of non-agricultural land is maintained in the form of property card.

2. Like 7/12 extract, property card provides details of ownership of land, city survey number, plot number, amount of tax, area of property assessed, right to access, etc. Thus, the record of ownership of non-agricultural land is same as that of agricultural land.

Question C.
A region can be classified as developed or developing on the basis of land use.
Answer:

1. The land used in a particular region for agriculture, grazing, etc. indicates that the region is underdeveloped or developing.
2. The land used in a particular region for commercial purposes, transportation, recreation, etc. indicates that the region is developed. In this way, a region can be classified as developed or developing on the basis of land use.

3. Write answers:

Question A.
Why is agriculture important in rural land use?
Answer:

1. In India, agriculture is the main occupation of most of people in rural areas.
2. In India, farming occupation is very important as it satisfies the need of food grain and provides raw material to industries.
3. The maximum land in rural areas is used for carrying out agricultural activities. Therefore, agriculture is important in rural land use.

Question B.
State the factors affecting land use.
Answer:
(a) The factors affecting rural land use :

1. The factors like climatic conditions, fertility of soil, altitude and slope of land, irrigational facilities, natural resources, government policies, etc. affect rural land use.
2. For example, the land with gentle slope is not used for residential purpose, but is used for step farming.

(b) The factors affecting urban land use :

1. The factors like location of land, natural resources, housing development policies of government, transportation routes, industrialisation, trade and commerce, entertainment facilities, government policies, etc. affect urban land use.

2. For example, the land site near the railway station, market, etc. is mostly used for commercial purposes.

Question C.
Clarify the differences between rural and urban land use.
Answer:
The differences between rural and urban land use are as follows :

1. Land in rural areas is used for limited purposes. On the other hand, land in urban areas is used for many purposes.
2. The pattern of rural land use is comparatively simple. On the other hand, the pattern of urban land use is comparatively complex.
3. Use of land for cultivation is the major form of rural land use. On the other hand, use of land for commercial activities and residence are the major forms of urban land use.

Question D.
Differentiate between 7/12 extract and property card.
Answer:
The differences between 7/12 extract and property card are as follows :

1. 7/12 extract is issued by public revenue department of the government. On the other hand, property card is issued by city survey office of government.
2. 7/12 extract is the land record of ownership and history of ownership of the land in rural areas. Property card is the land record of ownership and history of ownership of the land in urban areas.

Activity:

Question A.
Obtain information about a town close to your village based on the following points and make a presentation in class.
(site, condition. development, land use pattern work)
a. Classify your settlement as rural or urban
b. Note the changes in land use from Central Business District outwards to the periphery in your settlement after consulting elders. Prepare a land use pattern.

Question B.
Study the 7/12 extract or the Property Card in your house and write a note.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 6 Land Use Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct answer:

Question a.
Recreational land use is use of land for …………………
(A) garden
(B) farming
(C) industry
(D) rail route
Answer:
(A) garden

Question b.
Which of the following is a planned city in India?
(A) Seoul
(B) Zurich
(C) Chandigarh
(D) Brasilia
Answer:
(C) Chandigarh

Question c.
Of which city are Bandra, Bhandup, etc. suburbs?
(A) Pune
(B) Nagpur
(C) Nashik
(D) Mumbai
Answer:
(D) Mumbai

Examine the following statements and correct the incorrect ones:

Question A.
Government policies affect the land use.
Answer:
Correct.

Question B.
The areas of mixed land use are found in cities.
Answer:
Correct.

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question A.
What is meant by land use?
Answer:
Land use is the way or purpose for which land in a particular region is used.

Question B.
What is called fallow land?
Answer:
The agricultural land which is temporarily not in use is called fallow land.

Question C.
What is called forest land?
Answer:
The land which is reserved for forest area is called forest land.

Question D.
Which products are obtained from forest areas?
Answer:
The products like firewood, flowers, fruits, gum, grass, honey, etc. are obtained from forest areas.

Question E.
What is called grassland?
Answer:
The land owned by Village Panchayat or the government and which is used for grazing is called grassland.

Question F.
What is meant by commercial land use?
Answer:
Commercial land use is the use of land in urban areas for commercial purpose.

Question G.
What is meant by mixed land use?
Answer:
Mixed land use is the use of land in urban areas for more than one purpose at a time.

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question A.
How does the pattern of land use get developed?
Answer:

1. The pattern of land use gets developed through the continuous interactions between man and geographical factors.
2. The interaction between the factors like availability of land, quality of land, human needs, etc. leads to the development of specific pattern of land use.
3. For example, mineral rich land is used for carrying out mining activity.
4. For example, fertile piece of land is used for carrying out farming activity, etc.

Question B.
Write in brief about residential land use in rural areas.
Answer:

1. The density of population is found to be low in rural areas.
2. As population in rural areas is comparatively limited, the residential land use in rural areas is found to be limited.
3. In rural areas, the land close to the areas of main occupations is used for settlements.
4. For example, farmers’ residences are found near farms, fishermen’s settlements are found near coastal areas, etc.

Question C.
Write in brief about features of trAnswer:itional areas.
Answer:
The following are the features of transitional areas:

1. The intermediate areas between rural settlements and urban settlements are known as transitional areas.
2. The blend of rural and urban land use and culture is found in transitional areas.
3. Over time, trAnswer:itional areas are converted into urban areas and they are called suburbs.
4. For example, Bandra, Bhandup, etc. are the suburbs of Mumbai city.

Question D.
Write in brief about property card.
Answer:
The brief information of property card is as follows:

1. Property card is the land record of ownership and history of ownership of the land in urban areas.
2.  It is a land record of non-agricultural land.
3. Property card is issued by city survey office of government.
4. Property cards provide details of city survey number, plot number, amount of tax, area of property assessed, right to access, etc.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question A.
Give information about arable land use and fallow land use in rural areas.
Answer:
The information about arable land : use and fallow land use in rural areas is as follows :
(a) Arable land use :

1. The use of land for cultivation is called arable land use.
2. In India, in 2011, nearly 57 per cent of land was under arable land use.
3. Generally, arable land is owned I individually.
4. The arable land can be classified on the basis of ownership of the land and types of agriculture.

(b) Fallow land use:

1. The agricultural land which is temporarily not in use is called fallow land.
2. Fallow land use is a form of rural land use.
3. To increase the fertility of soil, farmers do not use a part of agricultural land for few seasons.

Question B.
Give information about grassland use and forest land use in rural areas.
Answer:
The information about grassland use and forest land use in rural areas is as follows:
(a) Grassland land use:

1. The land owned by village panchayat or the government and which is used for grazing purpose is called grassland.
2. It is also called pastureland.
3. Mostly, grassland is owned by entire village. Very limited individual ownership of grassland is found.

(b) Forest land use:

1. The land kept reserved for forest area is called forest land.
2. Large trees, bushes, creepers and grass are found in forest land.
3. The forest products like firewood, fruits, flowers, gum, grass, honey, etc. are obtained from forest land.

Question C.
Give information about commercial land use and residential land use in urban areas.
Answer:
The information about commercial land use and residential land use in urban areas is as follows:
(a) Commercial land use:

1. The use of urban land for commercial use is called commercial land use.
2. Many shops, banks and offices are found in commercial land areas.
3. The concept of Central Business District (CBD) has emerged from commercial land use.
4. For example, Fort area or BKC (Bandra Kurla Complex) in Mumbai are the areas of commercial land use.

(b) Residential land use:

1. The use of urban land for residential purpose is called residential land use.
2. Houses and residential buildings are found in residential land areas.
3. The density of population is found to be high in urban areas. As its effect, the percentage of residential land use in urban areas is increasing day by day.

Question D.
Give information about trAnswer:port land use and public utility area in urban areas.
Answer:
The information about transport land use and Public utility area in urban areas is as follows:
(a) TrAnswer:port land use:

1. The use of urban land for providing transportation facilities is called transport land use.
2. The land used for roadways, railways, petrol pumps, vehicle repairing centres, etc. is included in transport land use.

(b) Public utility area:

1. Government provides various services to fulfill the needs of citizens. The land used for fulfilling these needs is known as public utility area.
2. Post offices, police stations, public grounds, public schools, public hospitals, etc. are included in public utility area.

Question E.
Give information about recreational land use and mixed land use in urban areas.
Answer:
The information about recreational land use and mixed land use in urban areas is as follows:
(a) Recreational land use:

1. Recreational land use is a use of urban land for fulfilling the needs of entertainment of people.
2. Public parks, swimming pools, theatres, etc. are included in recreational land use.

(b) Mixed land use:

1. Mixed land use is a use of urban land for fulfilling more than one wants at a time.
2. For example, area used for residential and entertainment purposes.

Question F.
Write about the features of planned cities.
Answer:
The features of planned cities are as follows:
(a) Need:

1. After industrial revolution, unplanned urbanisation occurred on a large scale all over the world.
2. Due to unplanned urbanisation, cities began to develop in a very haphazard manner.
3. People started migrating to cities in search of employment opportunities.

(b) Nature: City which is developed as per the pre-determined and planned layout of land use is called planned city.

(c) Singapore, Seoul from South Korea, Zurich from Switzerland, Washington D.C. from U.S.A., Brasilia from Brazil, Chandigarh, Bhubaneshwar from India are the examples of planned cities.

Question G.
Give information about 7/12 extract.
Answer:
The information about 7/12 extract is as follows:

1. 7/12 is an extract published and given by public revenue department of the government.
2. 7/12 extract gives detailed information of a particular registered land.
3. The register of the revenue department keeps a record of details of ownership rights of family, status of debt and loans, transfer of ownership, areas under different crops etc. related to registered land.
4. Village form no. 7 and Village form no. 12 are combined and 7/12 extract is prepared.
5. These village forms are available with the talathi of every village.
6. The accurate reading of 7/12 extract gives exact idea about ownership of land, tax levied on land, status of loan taken, etc.

Study the following map/figure/graph and answer the following questions:

Can you tell?

Study the Figure and answer the following questions:

Question A.
In which country is the land under forests more?
Answer:
The land under forests is more in Japan.

Question B.
In which country is the land under agriculture more?
Answer:
The land under agriculture is more in India.

Question C.
Considering the two questions above, how will you relate the physiography and climate of India and Japan with their respective land uses?
Answer:
Due to plains and monsoon climatic conditions, the population in India is more. Therefore, agricultural land use is prominent in India. Due to mountainous region and more proportion of precipitation, the forest land use is prominent in Japan.

Question D.
Correlate their land use and development.
Answer:
The land use in India shows comparatively low development. On the other hand, land use in Japan shows comparatively high development.

Question E.
Which land use is found in Japan?
Answer:
The land use like agricultural land use, forest land use, grassland land use, other land use, etc. are found in Japan.

Question F.
Considering the land use in both the countries, make a list of factors affecting land use.
Answer:
Considering the land use in both the countries, lists of factors affecting land use are as follows:
(a) Factors affecting land use in India:

1. Fertility of soil
2. Climatic conditions
3. Natural resources
4. Slope of land, etc.

(b) Factors affecting land use in Japan:

1. Technical advancement
2. Availability of resources
3. Government policies, etc.

Can you tell?

Study the Figure and answer the following questions:

Question A.
What kind of land use is shown in Figure 6.2 and 6.3?
Answer:
Land use shown in Figure 6.2 is agricultural land use and land use shown in Figure 6.3 is non-agricultural land use.

Question B.
Can you tell in which area the property is located?
Answer:
The property shown in Figure 6.2 is located in rural areas and the property shown in Figure 6.3 is located in urban areas.

Can you tell?

Study the Figure and answer the following questions:

Question A.
Which are the land uses of 1990-91 that show decline in 2010-11? What could be reasons for this?
Answer:
Total agricultural land use and other non-agricultural land use of 1990-91 show decline in 2010-11. Increased urbanisation could be reason for this.

Question B.
Which type of land use is the maximum? What would be the impact of this on India’s environment?
Answer:
Agricultural land use is the maximum. It indicates that India is an agrarian country and its environment is comparatively more natural.

Question C.
Can a decline in the area under agriculture equated with food shortage?
Answer:
A decline in the area under agriculture cannot be equated with food shortage. With modern technology, the maximum agricultural food production can be undertaken in limited areas.

Can you tell?

Study the figure and answer the following questions:

Question A.
What is the percentage of land suitable for cultivation?
Answer:
The percentage of land suitable for cultivation is 56.8.

Question B.
What is the percentage of barren land?
Answer:
The percentage of barren land is 8.3.

Question C.
What is the percentage of land under forest in Maharashtra?
Answer:
The percentage of land under forest in Maharashtra is 16.9.

Question D.
What is the percentage of non- agricultural land in Maharashtra?
Answer:
The percentage of non-agricultural land in Maharashtra is 10.2.

Give it a try.

Study the Figure. It shows the satellite images of Mondha Village (Taluka – Hingna, District – Nagpur).

Question A.
Find out the changes in land use pattern over time and write a note.
Answer:

1. The satellite image of Mondha Village in Hingna taluka in Nagpur district shows that agricultural land use in the village has declined from 2010 to 2017.
2. The satellite image of Mondha Village in Hingna taluka in Nagpur district shows that residential land use in the village has increased from 2010 to 2017.
3. Urbanisation, increasing population, etc. factors must be responsible for changes in land use pattern over time in Mondha Village.

Thought Provoking Question:

Think about it.

Question A.
If land is left fallow, or is not in use, then can it be termed as a kind of land use?
Answer:
1. The agricultural land which is temporarily not in use is called fallow land.
2. Fallow land use is a form of rural land use.
3. To increase the fertility of soil, farmers do not use a part of agricultural land for few seasons. After one or two seasons fallow land is again utilized for cultivation. Therefore, if land is left fallow, or is not in use, then it can be termed as a kind of land use.

Open-Ended Question:

Question A.
Write the advantages of planned cities in your own words.
Answer:
The advantages of planned cities are as follows:

1. There will not be a problem of traffic jam in planned cities.
2. The level of pollution will be the minimum in the planned cities.
3. The planned cities will be clean and they will maintain environmental balance.
4. The quality of human life will be superior in planned cities.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Population Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Population

Class 8 Geography Chapter 7 Population Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Complete the following sentences:

Question A.
If the birth rate is greater than the death rate then the population …………. .
(i) decreases
(ii) increases
(iii) remains constant
(iv) becomes surplus
Answer:
(ii) increases

Question B.
People of …………… age group are included in the productive population.
(i) 0 to 14
(ii) 14 to 60
(iii) 15 to 60
(iv) 16 to 59
Answer:
(iv) 16 to 59

Question C.
The spread of modern technology in society is mostly dependent on …………….. .
(i) sex ratio
(ii) birth rate
(iii) literacy
(iv) migration
Answer:
(iv) migration

2. Examine the following statements and correct the incorrect ones:

Question a.
The population density of a region can be understood from its area.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct sentence: The population density of a region can be understood from its area and the total volume of population living in it.

Question b.
The quality of population is determined on the basis of literacy.
Answer:
Correct.

Question c.
There is an adverse impact on manpower in the regions of out migration.
Answer:
Correct.

Question d.
Greater economic prosperity indicates the development of region.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct sentence: Greater economic prosperity as well as higher standards of living, higher quality of life, availability of opportunities, freedom, etc, indicate the development of region.

Question e.
Developing countries have an HDl of 1.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct sentence: Developing countries have and HDI of 0.50 to 0.60.

3. Answer in brief.

Question a.
What are the aspects considered in the structure of population?
Answer:
The following are the aspects considered in the structure of the population:

1. Sex ratio/structure: Sex ratio/structure is a structure that considers the sub division of population on the basis of gender.
2. Age structure: Age structure is a structure that considers the sub division of population as per age groups.
3. Occupational structure: Occupational structure is a structure that considers sub division of population on the basis of dependency and workability.
4. Rural – urban structure: Rural – Urban structure is a structure that considers sub division of population on the basis of area of residence.
5. Literacy structure: Literacy structure is a structure that considers sub division of population on the basis of capability of reading and writing.

Question b.
Prepare a list of advantageous and disadvantageous factors, affecting population distribution.
Answer:
A list of advantageous factors affecting population distribution is as follows:

1. Availability of sufficient sunlight, clean air and water.
2. Region with low altitude
3. Moderate rainfall and temperature
4. Fertile soil
5. Deposits of minerals
6. Industrialisation
7. Urbanisation
8. Availability of transportation facilities
9. Availability of market
10. Political stability
11. International peace
12. Favourable government policies
13. Favourable social customs and traditions.

A list of disadvantageous factors affecting population distribution is as follows:

1. Shortage of sufficient sunlight, clean air and water.
2. Region with high altitude
3. Extremely less or more rainfall and temperature
4. Infertile soil
5. Scarcity of minerals
6. Low industrialisation
7. Lack of urbanisation
8. Non-availability of transportation facilities
9. Non-availability of market
10. Political instability
11. International disputes
12. Unfavourable government policies
13. Evil social customs and traditions.

Question c.
What are the problems in areas of high population densities?
Answer:
The ratio of the population of a country to its area is population density. While discussing population distribution, density of population is also considered. The density is calculated, as per the formula given below.
Density of population = Population of a region/Area of a region.

The problems in areas of high population densities are as follows:
1. Pollution – Pollution is one of the major reasons which people face due to high population density. Due to an increase in land degradation by making houses and flats, land pollution will be caused, water will be contaminated by a huge number of people, resulting in water pollution and huge number of vehicles will cause air pollution.

2. Overcrowded – The areas with high population density become overcrowded, which bring chaos and lack of peace in the society.
3. Lack of open space – High population density makes it difficult to get a free open space.

Question d.
What arc the problems in area of low population densities?
Answer:
The development of a country depends upon its size of population. A lower population is somehow manageable and resources can be distributed equally. But, sometimes the low population leads to lower demands of goods and services and lower tax revenues for the government to provide goods and services.

4. Give geographical reasons:

Question a.
Population is an important resource.
Answer:

1. The economic and cultural development of any country depends upon the volume and the quality of population.
2. If a country has a high volume and less quality of population, it has slow economic growth and development.
3. If a country has optimum population with high quality of population, it has fast economic growth and development. Thus, population is an important resource.

Question b.
Productive population is an important group.
Answer:

1. People belonging to age group of 16 to 59 age are considered as productive. Therefore this population is called productive population.
2. People below 16 years of age and above 60 years of age are considered as dependent or non-working population.
3. Productive population/people are involved in services or businesses. Therefore they play very important role in economic
4. If country has more proportion of productive population and youth, it develops rapidly. Thus, productive population is an important group.

Question c.
The study of age structure is important.
Answer:

1. The study of age structure helps to know the percentage of children, adolescents, youth, middle aged, and old aged in population.

2. The study of age structure helps to know the proportion of productive people (Working people between 16 years to 59 years of age) and unproductive people (Non working people below 16 years of age and above 60 years of age).

3. The study of age structure helps government in planning various economic, social, educational, medical, etc. schemes for the overall development of country.

4. The study of age structure helps to know the speed of economic growth. Thus, the study of age structure is important.

Question d.
Literacy is directly related to development.
Answer:

1. The country with high literacy rate, develops rapidly in economic, social and cultural aspects.
2. The country with low literacy rate, faces many obstacles in its economic, social and cultural growth and development.
3. Literacy rate is related to quality of life, the opportunities available and freedom. Thus, literacy is directly related to development.

Question e.
The real progress of a country is understood with the help of the Human Development Index.
Answer:
1. Human Development Index is calculated by taking into account the values of economic, health and education parameters.

2. Thus, Human Development Index is calculated on the basis of Gross National Product, life expectancy and literacy rate.

3. Human Development Index indicates the standard of living, economic and social welfare, quality of life, opportunities available and freedom. Therefore, the real progress of a country is understood with the help of the Human Development Index.

5. Write notes.

Question a.
Sex ratio.
Answer:
1. The number of females per thousand males is called sex ratio.

2. The sex ratio is calculated with the help of the following formula :

3. If the number of females per thousand males is less, the sex ratio is considered to be low. On the other hand, if the number of females per thousand males is more, the sex ratio is considered to be high.

4. According to Census 2011, the sex ratio was highest (1084) in the state of Kerala. According to Census 2011, the sex ratio was 929 in the state of Maharashtra.

5. Out-migration of males leads to high sex ratio in a region from where males have out-migrated. Less female birth rate leads to low sex ratio.

Question b.
Age structure.
Answer:

1. Sub division of population as per age groups is known as age structure.
2. Age structure is helpful in knowing the proportion of children, adolescents, young, middle aged and old people in population.
3. It is also helpful in knowing proportion of active population (Population between the ages 16 and 59) and dependent population (Population below 16 years of age and above 60 years of age).
4. Age structure is helpful to the government in framing various policies.

Question c.
Literacy.
Answer:
1. Population above the age of seven can be sub divided on the basis of capability of reading and writing.

2. People above the age of seven and are unable to read and write are considered illiterate. On the other hand, people above the age of seven and are able to read and write are considered literate.

3. High literacy rate is an indicator of social and economic development of society. On the other hand, high illiteracy rate leads to slow economic, social and cultural development of society.

4. Literacy rate is related to quality of life, the opportunities available and freedom. Thus, it is directly related to development.

Activity:

Question a.
Survey 5 families in your neighbourhood on the basis of the following points and make a presentation.
(a) Sex
(b) Age groups
(c) Education
(d) Occupation

Class 8 Geography Chapter 7 Population Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the correct word and complete the sentences:

Question A.
……………… state of India has the highest sex ratio.
(i) Maharashtra
(i) Kerala
(c) Punjab
(d) Haryana
Answer:
(b) Kerala

Question B.
………………. district of Maharashtra has low density of population.
(a) Mumbai City
(b) Mumbai Suburb
(c) Thane
(d) Osmanabad
Answer:
(d) Osmanabad

Examine the following statements and correct the incorrect ones:

Question a.
The state of Maharashtra has a balanced population.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct sentence: The state of Maharashtra has imbalanced population.

Question b.
The areas with plenty of natural resources normally have more volume of population.
Answer:
Correct.

Question c.
The region with more proportion of youth in population has a rapid speed of development.
Answer:
Correct.

Question d.
Most of people in rural areas are engaged in tertiary activities.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct sentence: Most of people in rural areas are engaged in primary activities.

Question e.
Human Development Index is published by World Health Organisation.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct sentence: Human Development Index is published by United National Development Programme.

Question f.
Density of population is found to be more in the state of Goa.
Answer:
Correct.

Question g.
The state of Rajasthan is densely populated.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct sentence: The state of Rajasthan is sparsely populated.

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question a.
What is birth rate?
Answer:
Birth rate is the number of live births per one thousand people in a year.

Question b.
What is death rate?
Answer:
Death rate is the number of deaths per one thousand people in a year.

Question c.
What is life expectancy?
Answer:
Life expectancy is the expected average life span of an individual at the time j of his/her birth.

Question d.
What is meant by in-migration?
Answer:
Migration of people in a particular region from outside regions is known as in-migration.

Question e.
What is meant by out-migration?
Answer:
Migration of people from a particular region to outside regions is known as out-migration.

Question f.
What is meant by sex ratio?
Answer:
The total number of females per thousand males is known as sex ratio.

Question g.
In which types of occupations are people in urban areas involved?
Answer:
People in urban areas are involved in secondary and tertiary occupations.

Question h.
Who put forth the concept of Human Development Index?
Answer:
Mahbub Ul Haq and Amartya Sen put forth the concept of Human Development Index.

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question a.
Explain the various types of migration.
Answer:
The various types of migration are as follows:

1. In-migration: In-migration is migration of people in a particular region from outside regions.
2. Out-migration: Out-migration is migration of people from a particular region to outside regions.
3. Short term mfgration: Short term migration is migration of people on a i temporary basis. For example, migration due to tourism or natural disaster or education is a short term migration.
4. Long term migration: Long term migration is migration of people on a permanent basis. For example, migration due to transfer of service or marriage or war j and partition is a long term migration.

Question b.
Explain the effects of migration.
Answer:
The effects of migration are as follows:

1. Out-migration leads to fall in population of a region from where people have migrated outside. This in turn leads to shortage of manpower in a region from where out-migration has occurred.

2. In-migration leads to increase in population of a region in which people from outside regions have migrated. This in turn, puts a pressure on public amenities and infrastructure of a region in which people have migrated.

3. Migration leads to redistribution of population.
4. Migration also leads to a change in the structure of population in a particular region.

Give geographical reasons:

Question a.
The density of population is found to be high in Mumbai City and Mumbai Suburb district.
Answer:

1. Mumbai is economic capital of India.
2. In Mumbai City and Mumbai Suburb district, industrialisation and urbanisation has taken place on a large scale.
3. Transportation, educational, medical, etc. facilities are available on a large scale in these districts.
4. Many employment opportunities are also available in these districts.

Due to all these favourable factors, many people from other districts of Maharashtra as well as from other states of India have migrated to Mumbai on a permanent basis. Therefore, the density of population is found to be high in Mumbai City and Mumbai Suburb district.

Study the following map/figure/graph and answer the following questions:

Study the Figure is given and answer the following questions:

Question a.
Which state has the highest sex\ratio?
Answer:
Kerala state has the highest sex j ratio.

Question b.
Which state has the lowest sex J ratio?
Answer:
Haryana state has the lowest sex ratio.

Question c.
What changes should take place in Maharashtra, to bring about a balanced > sex ratio and how much change is i necessary?
Answer:
The following changes should take place in Maharashtra to bring about a balanced sex ratio:

1. Sex ratio must get increased by having total control over female infanticide and launching various government schemes for women empowerment, etc.
2. The sex ratio must get increased by 71 i.e. the number of females per thousand males must get increased from 929 to 1000.

Try this: 

Question a.
Prepare bar graphs on the basis of the table given below and write a note. (Discuss in group about the issue of literacy in the country.)?

Answer:
(A) Bar graph:

(B) Note:

1. From the above bar diagram it can be seen that the literacy rate is found to be high in developed countries, moderate in developing countries and low in underdeveloped countries.
2. In 2010, the literacy rate was 72.1°/e in India.
3. In 2010, the literacy rate was 98.1% in Argentina and it was 38.1% in Afghanistan.
4. Literacy rate is directly or indirectly related to quality of life, opportunities available and the freedom.

Can you tell? 

Study Figure is given and answer the following questions:

Question a.
Which are the most densely populated districts?
Answer:
The most densely populated districts are:

1. Mumbai City
2. Mumbai Suburb
3. Thane
4. Pune
5. Kolha5ur, etc.

Question b.
Name the sparsely populated districts with a density of less than 100 per sq. km.
Answer:
The sparsely populated districts with a density of less than 100 sq. km:

1. Gadchiroli
2. Beed
3. Osmanabad, etc.

Question c.
Name two districts with moderate population.
Answer:
District with moderate population:

1. Nashik
2. Nagpur.

Question d.
What is the density of the dark shaded regions?
Answer:
The density of the dark shaded regions is greater than 1000 person per sq. km.

Question e.
Why is the density of population less in Gadchiroli?
Answer:
The density of population is less in Gadchiroli due to dense forests.

Question f.
Have a discussion in the class on the effect of physiography, climate, area under forest, industries, etc. on the density of population.
Answer:
1. Physiography: The density of population is found to be high in plain areas. On the other hand, the density of population is found to be low in mountainous regions.

2. Climate: The density of population is found to be high in the areas with moderate temperature and moderate rainfall. On the other hand, the density of population is found to be low in the areas of extremely low or high temperature and extremely high or low rainfall.

3. Area under forest: The density of population is found to be high in the area where forest cover is limited. On the other hand, the density of population is found to be low in the area under dense forests.

4. Industries: The density of population is found to be high in industrially developed region. The density of population is found to be low in industrially backward: region.

Thought-Provoking Questions:

Can you tell? 

Study the table is given and answer the following questions:

Question a.
Which city has greater number of newly born children?
Answer:
‘B’ City has greater number of newly born children.

Question b.
Which city records greater number of deaths?
Answer:
‘B’ City records greater number of deaths.

Question c.
Looking at the figures of in-migration and out-migration which city has received more migrants?
Answer:
Looking at the figures of in-migration and out-migration, ‘A’ City has received more migrants. .

Question d.
Calculate the population of both the cities in 2017.
Answer:
The population of ‘A’ City in 2017 is 121, 500 and of ‘B’ City in 2017 is 120, 550.

Question e.
After considering all the points, which city has recorded more growth of population in one year?
Answer:
After considering all the points, ‘A’ City has recorded more growth of population in one year. .

Question f.
The total number of births are given. What would be this figure per thousand population? What is the term for this?
Answer:
The total number of births are given. This figure would be 20 per thousand. The term for this is ‘Birth rate’.

Question g.
What would be the number of deaths per thousand population? What is the term used for this?
Answer:
The number of deaths per thousand would be 25. The term used for this is ‘Death rate’.

Complete the following table:
(Note: The answer is given directly.)

Question a.

Answer:

State	Population (2011)	Area (Sq. Km)	Density
1. Uttar Pradesh	19,98,12,341	2,40,926	829.35
2. Maharashtra	11,23,74,333	3,07,713	356.19
3. Tamil Nadu	7,26,26,809	1,30,058	558.41
4. Rajasthan	68,54,837	3,42,239	20.02
5. Manipur	27,21,756	22,327	121.90
6. Goa	14,58,545	3,702	393.98

Think about it:

Question a.
Even though area wise Rajasthan is a large state, the population is less. Which geographical factors may be responsible for this?
Answer:
The amount of rainfall is comparatively less in the state of Rajasthan. The Thar desert is located in the western part of the state of Rajasthan. Therefore, even though area wise Rajasthan is a large state, the population is less.

Can you tell? 

Question a.
Classify Male, Adolescent, Illiterate, Children, Unemployed, Infants, Literate, Rural, Working population, Urban, Female, Old, Young, Dependent population and Adult into the following categories:

1. Sex
2. Age
3. Rural
4. Urban
5. Literacy
6. Productive population.

Answer:

1. Sex: Male, Female
2. Age: Adolescent, Children, Infants, Old, Young, Adult
3. Rural: Rural
4. Urban: Urban
5. Literacy: Illiterate, Literate
6. Productive population: Unemployed, Working population, Dependent population.

Can you tell? 

Study the figure and answer the following questions:

Question a.
What do you think are the reasons for the changing land use pattern of Mondha village?
Answer:
Urbanisation and rise in population are the reasons for the changing land use pattern of Mondha village.

Question b.
What kind of changes have taken place?
Answer:
In Mondha village, the agricultural land use has decreased and the non-agricultural land use (i.e. commercial land use, residential land use) has increased.

Question c.
Due to this change in land use, do you think there has been a change in population? If yes, what is the change and why?
Answer:
Due to this change in land use, there has been a change in population. The population of Mondha has increased due to the in-migration.

Can you tell?

Study the table showing percentage of immigrant population of various countries given on page 46 and answer the following questions:

Question a.
Which countries have less than 10% migrant population?
Answer:
Afghanistan, Brazil, Bangladesh, India and Great Britain have less than 10% migrant population.

Question b.
Which are the countries with a migrant population of between 10% and 20%?
Answer:
Germany and U.S.A. are the countries with a migrant population of between 10%
and 20%.

Question c.
Which are the countries with a migrant population of more than 20%
Answer:
Kuwait, Hong Kong, Oman and Saudi Arabia are the countries with a migrant population of more than 20%.

Question d.
Find the reasons behind the migrant population of more than 20%.
Answer:
The reasons behind the migrant population of more than 20% are:

1. Huge stock of mineral oil and other natural resources
2. Availability of employment opportunities
3. Great demand for labour in these countries.

Question c.
Draw pie diagrams for any two countries.
Answer:
1. Kuwait: A pie diagram showing percentage of immigrant population for Kuwait is as follows:

2. Oman: A pie diagram showing percentage of immigrant population for Oman is as follows:

Question d.
Have a discussion on migration and development.
Answer:
1. Out-migration leads to a shortage of manpower/labour supply. This in turn adversely affects the development of the region from where out-migration has occurred.
2. In-migration leads to increase in population of a region in which in-migration has occurred. This too, adversely affects the development of the respective region.
3. The migration up to certain extent increases the mobility of labourer and it boosts the development of a particular region.

Use your brainpower: 

Question a.
In India, 0.52 % of the population are migrants. What is the actual number of people who have migrated to India?
Answer:
According to Census 2011, the population of India was nearly 121 crore. In India, 0. 52 % of the population are migrants. Thus, according to Census 2011, the actual number of people who have migrated to India is nearly 629,200.

Try this:

Question a.
Write a note on the Human Development Index. (HDI) of various countries on the basis of the following table:
HDI Rank wise Country Value of HDI Level of Development

Answer:

1. Norway ranks first in the world with respect to Human Development Index (HDI). The value of HDI for Norway is 0.949.
2. The countries like Japan, United Kingdom, Denmark, Switzerland, Germany and Australia have the value of Human Development Index (HDI) more than 0.900. These countries show very high level of development.
3. The countries like Sri Lanka, Brazil and China have the value of Human Development Index (HDI) between 0.700 and 0.800. These countries show high level of development.
4. The countries like India, Bhutan and Pakistan have the value of Human Development Index (HDI) between 0.500 and 0.600. These countries show medium level of development.
5.  The countries like Niger and Central African Republic have value of Human Development Index (HDI) between 0.300 and 0.400. These countries show less development.
6. From the above table it can be seen that Human Development Index (HDI) is an indicator of development.
7. Higher value (around 1) of Human Development Index indicates high level of development and lower value (around 0) of Human Development Index indicates low level of development.

Use your brain power:

Question a.
Discuss and write the advantages and disadvantages of low population or high population with reference to the following factors:
(Note: The answer is given directly.)

Answer:

Headings	Low population	High population
Per capita land availability	Per capita land availability is comparatively more.	Per capita land availability is comparatively less.
Foodgrains	Food grains are available in plenty.	There is shortage of food grains.
Resources	Resources are available in plenty.	There is strain on resources.
Per capita income	Per capita income is comparatively high.	Per capita income is comparatively low.
Basic amenities and facilities	Basic amenities and facilities are available in sufficient quantity.	There is strain on basic amenities and facilities.
Percentage of unproductive consumers	Percentage of unproductive consumers is comparatively low.	Percentage of unproductive consumers is comparatively high.
Planning	Planning is comparatively more effective.	Planning is comparatively less effective.
Employment	More employment opportunities are available.	Less employment opportunities are available.
Urbanisation	The rate of urbanisation may be comparatively low.	The rate of urbanisation may be comparatively high.
Health	The quality of health may be comparatively high.	The quality of health may be comparatively low.
Higher education	The number of highly qualified people may be comparatively more.	The number of highly qualified people may be comparatively low.
Social environment	Social environment may be comparatively supportive and favourable.	Social environment may be comparatively adverse and unfavourable.

Give it a try:

Question a.
Since the past two centuries, the size of family is decreasing. But inspite of this the population of the country is increasing. Find out why is this happening.
Answer:
1. Since the past two centuries, the death rate in India has reduced to a great extent. On the other hand, since the past two centuries, the birth rate in India has reduced negligibly. Therefore, since the past two centuries, the size of family is decreasing. But in spite of this the population of country is increasing.

Use your brain power:

Question a.
As per the population Census of 2011, the population of India is 121 crores. For domestic use, the per capita requirement per day is 50 litres of water. Taking this into account, what would be the total amount of water requirement in India for domestic purpose only.
Answer:

1. As per the Population Census of 2011, the population of India is. 121 crores?
2. For domestic use, the per capita requirement per day is 50 litres of water.
3. Taking this into account, the total amount of water requirement in India for domestic purpose only, will be nearly 6050 crores litre.

Open-Ended Questions:

Question a.
What are the problems in areas of high population distribution?
Answer:
The following are the problems in areas of high population distribution:

1. Increased level of water, air, sound and soil pollution.
2. Traffic jam
3. Shortage of residential areas
4. Increased criminal tendencies, etc.

Question b.
What are the problems in areas of low population densities?
Answer:
The following are the problems in areas of low population densities:

1. Shortage of labour supply
2. Low levels of demand for various goods and services
3. Under utilization of resources, etc.

Give it a try:

Question a.
How do imbalanced sex ratios affect the society?
Answer:
Imbalanced sex ratios affect the society as follows:

1. Increased problems in society, workplace, etc.
2. Increased crimes against women.

Question b.
What measures can be taken to strike a balance in the sex ratio?
Answer:
The following measures can be taken to strike a balance in the sex ratio:

1. Increasing literacy rate of females.
2. Increasing employment opportunities for women.
3. Eradicating evil social customs.
4. Launching government schemes of women empowerment.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Humidity and Clouds Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Humidity and Clouds

Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Humidity and Clouds Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Match the column and complete the chain: 

‘A’ Column	‘B’ Column	‘C’ Column
1. Cirrus	i. Vertical extent in the sky	a. Roaring clouds
2. Cumulonimbus	ii. Higher altitude	b. Floating clouds
3. Nimbostratus	iii. Medium altitude	c. Continuous rainfall
4. Alto-cumulus	iv Low altitude	d. Snowflake clouds

Answer:

‘A’ Column	‘B’ Column	‘C’ Column
1. Cirrus	ii. Higher altitude	d. Snowflake clouds
2. Cumulonimbus	i. Vertical extent in the sky	a. Roaring clouds
3. Nimbostratus	iv Low altitude	c. Continuous rainfall
4. Alto-cumulus	iii. Medium altitude	b. Floating clouds

2. Choose the correct word from the brackets and complete the sentences:
(Options: Cumulonimbus, relative humidity, absolute humidity, condensation, vapor-holding capacity)

Question a.
The ………….. of the air is dependent on the temperature of the air.
Answer:
vapour-holding capacity

Question b.
The amount of vapour in 1 cu.m, of air shows the ………….
Answer:
absolute humidity

Question c.
As …………. is less in the desert areas, the air is dry there.
Answer:
relative humidity

Question d.
……………. type of clouds are indicators of the storm.
Answer:
Cumulonimbus

Question e.
In a free environment, the ………….. of the vapour present in the atmosphere takes place around the dust particles.
Answer:
condensation

3. Differentiate between: 

Question a.
Humidity and clouds:
Answer:

Question b.
Relative humidity and Absolute humidity
Answer:

Question c.
Cumulus clouds and Cumulonimbus clouds
Answer:

4. Answer the following questions:

Question a.
Why is the air in a region dry?
Answer:
Due to the low amount of the moisture in the air, the air in a region is I dry.

Question b.
How is humidity measured?
Answer:
1. The amount of water vapour in 1 cu.m, of air is called the absolute humidity.

2. Absolute humidity is measured with the help the following formula:
Absolute humidity
= \(\frac{\text { Mass of water vapour }}{\text { Volume of air }}\)

3. The amount of water vapour present in air expressed as a percentage of the amount needed for saturation at the same temperature is called relative humidity.

4. Relative humidity is measured with the help of the following formula: Relative humidity (%)

Question c.
What are the prerequisites for condensation?
Answer:
High relative humidity and dew point temperature of the air are the j prerequisites for condensation.

Question d.
What is a cloud? Write its types.
Answer:
A. Meaning:
A visible mass of fine particles of ice and water accumulated around the dust particles in the air at high altitude is called a cloud.

B. Types:
The following are the types of clouds:

1. High clouds: Clouds at an altitude of 7000 m to 14000 m are considered as high clouds. Cirrus, Cirro-Stratus and CirroCumulus are high clouds.
2. Medium clouds: Clouds at an altitude of 2000 m to 7000 m are considered as medium clouds. Alto-Stratus and Alto Cumulus are medium clouds.
3. Low clouds: Clouds at an altitude of less than 2000m are considered as low clouds. Strato-Cumulus, Stratus, Nimbostratus, Cumulus and Cumulonimbus are low clouds

Question e.
Which type of clouds give rain?
Answer:
Nimbostratus and cumulonimbus type of clouds give rain.

Question f.
On what does the percentage of relative humidity depend?
Answer:
The percentage of relative humidity depends on the absolute humidity and vapour-holding capacity of the air at a given temperature.

5. Give geographical reasons:

Question a.
Clouds float in the sky.
Answer:

1. The condensed water or fine particles of snow accumulate around dust particles at high altitudes leading to formation of clouds.
2. The condensed water or fine particles in the clouds are almost weightless. Therefore, clouds float in the sky.

Question b.
The proportion of relative humidity changes according to altitude.
Answer:
1. The temperature is found to be comparatively high in the areas at sea level. Due to high temperature, moisture-holding capacity of air near sea level is found to be high. Therefore, the humidity of the air at sea level is comparatively high.

2. The temperature is found to be comparatively low in the areas at high altitude. Due to low temperature, moisture-holding capacity of air at high altitudes is found to below. Therefore, the humidity of the air at high altitude is comparatively low. In this way, the proportion of relative humidity changes according to the altitude.

Question c.
Air becomes saturated.
Answer:

1. At certain temperature, the moisture-holding capacity of air gets fulfilled and it becomes equal to the proportion of the moisture present in it.
2. At this state, no more moisture can be absorbed by the air. Thus, air becomes saturated.

Question d.
Cumulus clouds change into cumulonimbus clouds.
Answer:

1. Cumulus clouds are found between 500 m to 6000 m altitude. They are mostly formed due to the vertical flow of the air.
2. Sometimes, the vertical expanse of the cumulus clouds increases and it leads to formation of huge mountain-like cumulonimbus clouds. Thus, cumulus clouds change into cumulonimbus clouds.

6. Solve the following:

Question a.

When the temperature of the air is 30° C, its vapour-holding capacity is 30.37 gms/cu.m., If absolute humidity is 18 gms/cu.m., then what will be the relative humidity?
Answer:
Relative humidity (%)

Question b.
What would be the absolute humidity of air if 1 cu.m, air contains 4.08 gms of vapour at 0° C temperature.
Answer:
Absolute humidity

7. Collect the weather related information from newspapers for the month of July. Relate the difference in the maximum and minimum temperatures with humidity.

Activity:

Question a.
Make a table showing the types of clouds. Use various photographs.
Answer:

Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Humidity and Clouds Additional Important Questions and Answers

Examine the following statements and correct the incorrect ones:

Question a.
Cumulonimbus clouds are the indicators of the pleasant atmosphere.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: Cumulonimbus clouds are the indicators of the thunderstorm.

Question b.
The relative humidity is found to be high in desert region.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: The relative
humidity is found to be less in desert region.

Question c.
The high temperature of the air leads to rapid evaporation.
Answer:
Correct.

Question d.
When the humidity in the air is 0 gm/cu.m. at any temperature, the air is said to be humid.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: When the humidity in the air is o gm/cu.m. at any temperature, the air Is said to be dry.

Question e.
Cirrostratus appears like a bed sheet with wrinkles.
Answer:
Correct.

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question a.
What is evaporation?
Answer:
The process of converting water into steam or water vapour is called evaporation.

Question b.
What is meant by the moisture-holding capacity of air?
Answer:
The capacity of air to hold moisture at a given temperature, is called the moisture-holding capacity of air.

Question c.
What is meant by the saturation of the air?
Answer:
The condition of air at a certain temperature, in which the moisture-holding capacity of air becomes equal to the I proportion of moisture present in it, is called saturation of the air.

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question a.
Write in brief about the features of high clouds.
Answer:
Clouds at an altitude of 7000 m to 14000 m are considered as high clouds. High clouds are mainly made up of ice particles. Cirrus, Cirro-Stratus and Cirro-Cumulus are high clouds. The following are the features of high clouds :

1. Cirrus: Cirrus are wispy.
2. Cirro-Stratus: Cirro-Stratus look like bed sheet with wrinkles. A halo is generally seen around these clouds.
3. Cirro-Cumulus clouds: Cirro- Cumulus look like groups of small waves.

Question b.
Write in brief about the features of medium clouds.
Answer:
Clouds at an altitude of 2000 m to 7000 m are considered as medium clouds. Alto-Stratus and Alto-Cumulus are medium clouds. The following are the features of medium clouds :

1. Alto-Stratus : Alto-Stratus are comparatively thin. The sun is visible through these clouds as if seen through a milky glass.
2. Alto-Cumulus : Alto-Cumulus are in the form of layers. They have wave-like structure. They are white in colour and have a grey shade.

Question c.
Write in brief about the features of Strato-Cumulus, Stratus and Nimbostratus.
Answer:
The features of Strato-Cumulus, Stratus and Nimbostratus are as follows :

1. Strato-Cumulus: Strato-Cumulus have layers. These clouds are mostly seen in round clusters. They are white to earthy in colour.
2. Stratus: Stratus are found in layers. They have uniform base. They are ash coloured.
3. Nimbostratus: Nimbostratus have thick layers. They are greyish in colour. They cause continuous rainfall. They are also responsible for snowfall.

Question d.
Write in brief about the features of Cumulus and Cumulonimbus.
Answer:
The features of Cumulus and Cumulonimbus are as follows :
1. Cumulus : Cumulus are found between 500 m to 6000 m altitude. They are mostly formed due to the vertical flow of the air. They have huge size and dome-like shape. They are grey in colour. They indicate pleasant atmosphere. With an increase in the vertical expanse, these clouds turn into cumulonimbus clouds and bring rain.

2. Cumulonimbus : Cumulonimbus appear like huge mountain. They are dense and dark in colour. They have anvil-like shape at the top. They are the indicators of thunder, lightning and storm. They bring rain with storm. Sometimes they also bring hailstones. The raindrops of these clouds are found to be larger in size.

Give geographical reasons for the following:

Question a.
The absolute humidity of air in coastal region is higher than humidity of air in inland areas.
Answer:
1. The rate of evaporation is found to be high in the coastal region. As its effect, the amount of moisture in air in coastal region is found to be high. This results in high absolute humidity of air in coastal region.

2. On the other hand, the rate of evaporation is found to be low in the inland areas. As its effect, the amount of moisture in air in inland regions is found to be low. This results in low absolute humidity of air in inland areas. Thus, the absolute humidity of air in coastal region is higher than humidity of air in inland areas.

Question b.
The absolute humidity of air in equatorial region is higher than humidity of air in polar region.
Answer:
1. Equatorial region receives perpendicular sunrays throughout the year leading to high temperature. High temperature increases the rate of evaporation and this further leads to high absolute humidity of air in equatorial region.

2. Polar regions receive extremely slanted sunrays throughout the year leading to very low temperature. Very low temperature decreases the rate of evaporation and this further leads to very low absolute humidity of air in polar region. Thus, the absolute humidity of air in equatorial region is higher than humidity of air in polar region.

Question c.
Damp air is found in the coastal regions.
Answer:

1. The rate of evaporation is found to be high in the coastal region. As its effect, the amount of moisture in air in coastal region is found to be high.
2. The absolute humidity of the air near coastal region is found to be high. Therefore, damp air is found in the coastal regions.

Question d.
Dry air is found in the inland regions.
Answer:

1. The rate of evaporation is found to be low in inland region. As its effect, the amount of moisture in air in inland region is found to be low.
2. The absolute humidity of the air in inland region is found to be low. Therefore, dry air is found in inland regions.

Differentiate between the following :

Question a.
Densification and Sublimation :
Answer:

Study the following map/figure /graph and answer the following questions:

1. Study the figure 3.7 given on page 20 of the textbook and answer the following questions :

Question a.
What is the maximum diameter of the raindrop?
Answer:
The maximum diameter of the raindrop is 5 mm.

Question b.
Around what does the condensation of the water vapour in the air occur?
Answer:
The condensation of the water vapour in the air occurs around the minute particles of dust or salt in the air.

2. Study the Figure 3.9 given on page 22 of the textbook and answer the following questions :

Question a.
Which type of charge is found at the upper end of the cumulonimbus clouds?
Answer:
Positive charge is found at the upper end of the cumulonimbus clouds.

Question b.
Which type of charge is found at the low end of the cumulonimbus clouds?
Answer:
Negative charge is found at the low end of the cumulonimbus clouds.

Question c.
Which type of charge is found on the land below the cumulonimbus clouds?
Answer:
Positive charge is found on the land below the cumulonimbus clouds.

Use your brainpower!

Find where the symbols given below are used while showing the weather of a place. Write their meanings in the boxes given below:
(Note: The answer is given directly.)

Question a

Answer:

Thought-Provoking Questions:

Think about it.

Question a.
During winters, when you exhale on the glass of your mirror, what happens. If you do this in summer why doesn’t it happen?
Answer:
1. During winters, the moisture-holding capacity of air is low due to low temperature. Therefore during winters, when we exhale on the glass of mirror, the condensation of water vapour present in the exhaled air takes place. As its effect very thin water drops are found on the glass of mirror.

2. During summer, the moisture-holding capacity of air is high due to high temperature. Therefore during summer, when we exhale on the glass of mirror, the water vapour present in the exhaled air gets absorbed in air. Therefore, no water drops are found on the glass of mirror.

Give it a try.

The vapour-holding capacity of 1 cu.m, of air in various temperature is given in the following table.

Calculate the difference in the capacities by observing the following table :
(Note: The answer is given directly.)

Question a.

Answer:

Temperature of the air (°C)	Vapour-holding (gm/cu.m3 (gm/cu.m3)capacity	Difference in the capacities (gm/cu.m3)
-5	3.26	—
0	4.85	1.59
5	6.80	1.95
10	9.40	2.60
15	12.83	3.43
20	17.30	4.47
30	30.37	13.07
40	51.12	20.75

Use your brain power!

Question a.
In which season is humidity generally more?
Answer:
Humidity is generally more in monsoon.

Question b.
How does the humidity affect the human body?
Answer:
The rate of respiration and sweating increases due to humidity.

Question c.
Observe how humidity affects the food materials at our home and write about the same.
Answer:
Due to humidity, fungus flourish on food materials at our home and it gets spoiled.

Question d.
Is there any relationship between formation of fungus and humidity?
Answer:
There is a direct relationship between formation of fungus and humidity. Humidity supports the growth of fungus.

Question e.
How is the early or late drying up of clothes related to humidity?
Answer:
As the moisture-holding capacity is found to be high in low humidity air, it leads to early drying up of clothes. As the moisture-holding capacity is found to be low in high humidity air, it leads to late drying up of clothes.

Think about it.

Question a.
What will happen if the temperature of saturated air at 20° C drops to 10° C abruptly?
Answer:

1. If the temperature of saturated air at 20° C drops to 10° C abruptly, the relative humidity of the air will increase abruptly.
2. Rise in the relative humidity will lead to condensation or sublimation of water vapour in the air. This in turn, will lead to precipitation or snowfall.

Open-Ended Question:

Question a.
Explain the effect of humidity on human life.
Answer:

1. High humidity increases the rate of sweating and respiration. This adversely affects the daily functioning.
2. Low humidity with pleasant atmosphere, have favourable effects on the daily routine.
3. High humidity leads to late drying up of clothes and early spoiling of food materials.
4. Low humidity leads to early drying up of clothes and late spoiling of food materials.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Ocean Currents Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Ocean Currents

Class 8 Geography Chapter 5 Ocean Currents Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Choose the correct option:

Question a.
In which ocean does the Labrador current flow?
(a) Pacific
(b) South Atlantic
(c) North Atlantic
(d) Indian
Answer:
(c) North Atlantic

Question b.
Which current out of the following flows in the Indian Ocean?
(a) East Australian current
(b) Peru current
(c) South Polar current
(d) Somali current
Answer:
(d) Somali current

Question c.
Which factor out of the following does not affect the region along the coast?
(a) Precipitation
(b) Temperature
(c) Land breeze
(d) Salinity
Answer:
(c) Land breeze

Question d.
Which of the following occurs in the area where the cold and warm currents meet?
(a) High temperature
(b) Snow
(c) Low temperature
(d) Thick fog
Answer:
(d) Thick fog

Question e.
Which of these following currents flow from the northern polar regiorTup to Antarctica?
(a) Warm ocean currents
(b) Surface ocean currents
(c) Cold ocean currents
(d) Deep ocean currents
Answer:
(d) Deep ocean currents

2. Examine the given statements and correct the wrong ones:

Question a.
Ocean currents give specific direction and velocity to the water.
Answer:
Correct.

Question b.
The deep ocean currents flow with high velocity.
Answer:
Correct.

Question c.
Generally, surface ocean currents are formed in the equatorial regions.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: Generally, surface ocean currents are formed in the equatorial region as well as polar region.

Question d.
Ocean currents hold great importance for human life.
Answer:
Correct.

Question e.
The movement of icebergs is not dangerous for water transport.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: The movement of icebergs is dangerous for water transport.

Question f.
Water becomes warm near Brazil due to ocean currents. On the other hand, it becomes cold near African coast.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: Water becomes warm near Brazil due to ocean currents. Similarly, it also becomes warm near African coast.

3. Explain the effect of-

Question a.
Warm ocean currents on climate.
Answer:

1. The amount of precipitation increases in the coastal region along with which the warm ocean currents flow.
2. Similarly, the temperature increases in the coastal region along with which the warm ocean currents flow.

Question b.
Cold ocean currents on the movement of icebergs.
Answer:

1. Due to cold ocean currents, icebergs are moved away from the polar regions.
2. These icebergs come along the marine routes and prove hazardous to the ships.

Question c.
The shape of the coastline on ocean currents.
Answer:

1. The extended parts of coastline acts as an obstacle for ocean currents.
2. The extended parts of coastline alters the direction and velocity of ocean currents.

Question d.
Meeting of warm and cold ocean currents.
Answer:

1. Dense fog is found in the meeting point of warm and cold ocean currents. Algae, plankton, etc. fish food grow on a large scale in these areas.
2. Fish come in these areas on a large scale and breed. Therefore, extensive fishing grounds are found in the areas where warm and cold ocean currents meet.

Question e.
The transportation capacity of ocean currents.
Answer:

1. The transportation capacity of ocean currents alters the amount of precipitation and temperature in the coastal regions along with which they flow.
2. The transportation capacity of ocean currents leads to transfer of warm water to the bottom from the surface and cold water to the surface from the bottom.

Question f.
Deep ocean currents.
Answer:

1. Deep ocean currents leads to transfer of warm water to the bottom from the surface and cold water to the surface from the bottom.
2. Deep ocean currents thus leads to redistribution of sea water.

4. Look at the map of ocean currents and answer the following:

Question a.
How does the Humboldt current affect the climate of the South America?
Answer:
Humboldt current is a cold ocean current and so it decreases the amount of precipitation and temperature on the western coastal region of the South America.

Question b.
In which oceans are counter equatorial currents not observed and why?
Answer:
Counter equatorial currents are not observed in Arctic Ocean and Southern Ocean. These oceans are located near the polar regions. Therefore, the effects of trade winds is found to be less in these oceans Therefore, counter equatorial currents are not observed in these oceans.

Question c.
Which currents are absent in the northern part of the Indian Ocean and why?
Answer:
Cold currents are absent in the northern part of the Indian Ocean. The northern part of Indian Ocean is included in the temperate zone. So cold currents are absent in the northern part of the Indian Ocean.

Question d.
In which regions do the cold and warm ocean currents meet?
Answer:
The cold and warm ocean currents S meet in the following regions:

1. North Atlantic Ocean (cold Labrador current and warm Gulf stream current)
2. North Pacific Ocean (cold Oyashio current and warm ! Kurishio current)
3. South Atlantic Ocean ! (cold Falkland current and warm Brazil current)
4. South Pacific Ocean (cold South Polar current and warm East Australian current)
5. Indian Ocean (cold South Polar i current and Agulhas Current)

5. Answer the following questions:

Question a.
What are the reasons responsible for the formation of deep ocean currents?
Answer:

1. The temperature varies in various parts of ocean.
2. Similarly, the density of water in various parts of ocean is also found to be different.
3. The difference in the temperature and density of seawater leads to its circulation and the deep ocean currents are formed. This circulation is known as thermohaline circulation.

Thus, the difference in temperature and density of water in various parts of ocean are the reasons responsible for the formation of deep ocean currents.

Question b.
What is the reason behind the dynamics of the ocean water?
Answer:
Planetary winds is the reason behind the dynamics of the ocean water.

Question c.
How do winds give direction to the ocean currents?
Answer:
Winds give clockwise direction to the ocean currents in the northern hemisphere and anti-clockwise direction to the ocean currents in the southern hemisphere.

Question d.
Why do the ports in the eastern coast of Canada freeze in winter?
Answer:

1. Labrador cold current flows along the eastern coast of Canada.
2. Due to Labrador cold current, the temperature of sea water near the eastern coast of Canada decreases.
3. Due to fall in temperature, the sea water along the eastern coast of Canada start freezing. As its effect, the ports in the eastern coast of Canada freeze in winter.

Activity:

Question a.
Look for more funny and interesting information related to ocean currents.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 5 Ocean Currents Additional Important Questions and Answers

Examine the following statements and correct the incorrect ones:

Question a.
Labrador is a warm ocean current.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: Labrador is a cold ocean current.

Question b.
Surface ocean currents flow with high velocity.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: Surface ocean currents flow with slow velocity.

Question c.
Even though the velocity of ocean currents is less, the water carried by them is immense.
Answer:
Correct.

Question d.
The ocean currents flow near the lower boundary of the continental shelf.
Answer:
Correct.

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question a.
What are the main types of ocean currents?
Answer:
Cold ocean currents and warm ocean currents are the main types of ocean currents.

Question b.
In which region are the warm ocean currents formed?
Answer:
The warm ocean currents are formed in the equatorial region.

Question c.
In which regions are the cold ocean currents formed?
Answer:
The cold ocean currents are formed in the polar regions.

Question d.
Which factors are responsible for the formation of ocean currents?
Answer:
Difference in temperature of seawater, difference in density of seawater and planetary winds are the factors responsible for the formation of ocean currents.

Question e.
Which factors are responsible for the direction of flow and velocity of ocean currents?
Answer:
Rotation of the earth and continental structure are the factors responsible for the direction of flow and velocity of ocean currents.

Question f.
In which unit is the discharge of water in the oceans measured?
Answer:
The discharge of water in the oceans is measured in the Sverdrup unit.

Question g.
What is meant by 1 Sverdrup discharge?
Answer:
1 Sverdrup discharge means 1 million cu.m./second discharge of ocean water.

Question h.
Which two ocean currents meet near Newfoundland Island?
Answer:
Gulf warm ocean current and Labrador cold ocean current meet near Newfoundland Island.

Match the columns and complete the chain:

Question a.

‘A’ Column	‘B’ Column	‘C’ Column
1. California Current	i. South Atlantic Ocean	a. Near the eastern coast of the continent of North America
2. Hamboldt Current	ii. North Pacific Ocean	b. Near the eastern coast of the continent of South America
3. Brazil Current	iii. North Atlantic Ocean	c. Near the western coast of the continent of South America
4. Gulf Current	iv. South Pacific Ocean	d. Near the western coast of the continent of North America

Answer:

‘A’ Column	‘B’ Column	‘C’ Column
1. California Current	ii. North Pacific Ocean	d. Near the western coast of the continent of North America
2. Hamboldt Current	iv. South Pacific Ocean	c. Near the western coast of the continent of South America
3. Brazil Current	i. South Atlantic Ocean	b. Near the eastern coast of the continent of South America
4. Gulf Current	iii. North Atlantic Ocean	a. Near the eastern coast of the continent of North America

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question a.
Write in brief about warm ocean currents.
Answer:
1. Ocean currents that move water away from the Equator to the poles are called warm ocean currents.
2. Warm ocean currents are formed in the equatorial region and they flow towards the poles.

3. The warm currents increase the temperature and precipitation in the coastal areas along with which they flow. For example, the warm ocean currents flowing along with the coastal areas of Western Europe, Southern Alaska and Japan increases the temperature in the coastal areas along with which they flow. As its effect, the ports in the coastal areas of Western Europe, Southern Alaska and Japan do not freeze in winter.

4. Gulf stream, Agulhas, Somali, etc. are some of the warm ocean currents.

Question b.
Write in brief about cold ocean currents.
Answer:
1. Ocean currents that move water away from the poles to the Equator are called cold ocean currents.
2. Cold ocean currents are formed in the polar region and they flow towards the equatorial region.

3. The cold currents decrease the temperature and precipitation in the coastal areas along with which they flow. For example, the cold ocean currents flowing along with the coastal areas of Peru, Chile, and southeastern Africa, decreases the amount of precipitation in the coastal areas along with which they flow. As its effect, arid desert areas are formed in Peru, Chile, and southwestern Africa.

4. Falkland, Labrador, Canary, Oyashio, Benguela, etc. are some of the cold ocean currents.

Question c.
Write in brief about conveyor belt.
Answer:

1. Due to deep ocean currents, the warm water goes down and the cold water comes to the surface of the earth.
2. Thus, deep ocean currents redistribute the ocean water.
3. This redistribution of ocean water takes around 500 years to complete.
4. This redistribution (movement) of sea water is known as conveyor belt.

Question d.
Write in brief about relation between ocean currents and fishing.
Answer:

1. Algae, plankton, etc. fish food grow on a large scale in the areas where warm ocean current and cold ocean current meet.
2. Fish come in these areas on a large scale and breed. Therefore, extensive fishing
   grounds are found in the meeting point of warm and cold ocean currents.
3. For example, Grand Bank in Atlantic Ocean near the coastal region of North America, Dogger Bank near the continent of Europe, etc.

Explain the effect of the following:

Question a.
Cold ocean currents on climate.
Answer:

1. The amount of precipitation decreases in the coastal region along with which the cold ocean currents flow.
2. Similarly, the temperature decreases in the coastal region along with which the cold ocean currents flow.

Give geographical reasons:

Question a.
Fog is found near Newfoundland island.
Answer:

1. Fog is found at the meeting point of warm and cold ocean currents.
2. Warm Gulf Stream ocean current and cold Labrador ocean current meet near Newfoundland island. Therefore, fog is found near Newfoundland island.

Question b.
Ocean transport is carried out along with ocean currents.
Answer:

1. Ocean transport carried out along with ocean currents increases the speed of ocean transport and so saves the time.
2. Ocean transport carried out along with ocean currents decreases the cost of fuel. Therefore, ocean transport is carried out along with ocean currents.

Question c.
Extensive fishing ground is found near Newfoundland island.
Answer:

1. Warm Gulf Stream ocean current and cold Labrador ocean current meet near Newfoundland island.
2. Algae, plankton, etc. fish food grow on a large scale in the meeting point of warm Gulf Stream ocean current and cold Labrador ocean current.
3. Fish come in this area on a large scale and breed. Therefore, extensive fishing ground is found near Newfoundland island.

Differentiate between the following:

Question a.
Cold ocean current and Warm ocean current:
Answer:

Question b.
Surface ocean current and Deep ocean current:
Answer:

Study the following map/figure /graph and answer the following questions:

Make friends with maps!

Study the Figure and answer the following questions:

Question a.
What are the major types of ocean currents?
Answer:
Warm ocean currents and cold ocean currents are the major types of ocean currents.

Question b.
What do you call the currents flowing from the equator to the poles?
Answer:
The currents flowing from the equator to the poles are called warm currents.

Question c.
What do you call the currents flowing from the poles to the equator?
Answer:
The currents flowing from the poles to the equator are called cold currents.

Question d.
When the currents are moving in a circular manner, what difference is visible in their direction in Northern and Southern Hemisphere respectively?
Answer:
When the currents are moving in a circular manner, they will move in clockwise in Northern Hemisphere and anti-clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere.

Question e.
What might happen at the places where these two currents meet?
Answer:
Dense fog will get formed at the places where these two currents meet.

Question f.
When two different types of currents meet along the coast then what type of human settlements and occupations are seen?
Answer:
When two different types of currents meet along the coast then dense human settlements and fishing occupation are seen there.

Make friends with maps!

Question a.
Where did a container full of toys fall on 10th January, 1992?
Answer:
A container full of toys fell near the Hawaii Island on 10th January, 1992.

Question b.
Where did some of the toys reach on 16th November, 1992?
Answer:
Some of the toys reached the coast of Alaska on 16th November, 1992.

Question c.
Where did some of the toys reach by the year 2000?
Answer:
Some of the toys crossed the Bering Strait and reached the Arctic Ocean by the year 2000.

Question d.
Where did some of the toys reach by the year 2003?
Answer:
Some of the toys reached the eastern coast of America by the year 2003.

Question e.
Where did some of the toys reach by the year 2007?
Answer:
Some of the toys reached the western coast of continent of Europe by the year 2007.

Question f.
Why did the toys travel in this way?
Answer:
The toys travelled in this way due to surface ocean currents and mostly due to deep ocean currents.

Thought Provoking Question:

Question a.
What will be the effect of Westerlies on the ocean currents?
Answer:

1. Due to the influence of the Westerlies, the ocean currents will flow from west to east in the mid-latitudes.
2. Due to the influence of Westerlies, the ocean currents will flow from east to west in equatorial region. This in turn, will lead to a circular pattern of sea currents.

Open-Ended Question:

Question a.
With which points will you explain the effects of ocean currents?
Answer:
The effects of ocean currents can be explained with the help of the following points:

1. Temperature: Ocean currents brings change in the temperature of the coastal areas along with which they flow. For example, the warm ocean current flowing along the coastal areas of Japan increases the temperature in the coastal areas.

2. Precipitation: Ocean currents brings change in amount of precipitation in the coastal areas along with which they flow. For example, the cold ocean current flowing along the coastal areas of Chile decreases the precipitation in the coastal areas leading to formation of desert areas.

3. Occupation: Ocean currents also supports the growth of fishing occupation. The extensive fishing grounds redeveloped the meeting point of warm and cold ocean currents. For example, Grand Bank near the continent of North America.

4. Transportation: Sea transport carried out along with ocean currents increases the speed and reduces the cost of fuel.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Structure of Ocean Floor Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Structure of Ocean Floor

Class 8 Geography Chapter 4 Structure of Ocean Floor Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Choose the correct option:

Question a.
Like there are landforms on land, ocean floor also has submerged landforms because ………….
(i) there is land under water
(ii) there are volcanoes under water
(iii) land is continuous and there is water in deeper parts
(iv) though land is continuous, its level is not the same everywhere like that of water
Answer:
(iv) though land is continuous, its level is not the same everywhere like that of water

Question b.
Which part of the ocean floor is most useful to the man?
(i) Continental shelf
(ii) Continental slope
(iii) Abyssal plains
(iv) Marine deeps
Answer:
(i) Continental shelf

Question c.
Which one of the following option is related to marine deposits?
(i) Rivers, glaciers, continental shelf, remains of plants and animals
(ii) Volcanic ash, continental shelf, remains of plants and animals
(iii) Volcanic ash, lava, fine particles of soil
(iv) Volcanic ash, remains of plants and animals, abyssal plants
Answer:
(iii) Volcanic ash, lava, fine particles of soil

2. Question a.
Name the landforms shown in the following figure.
(Note: The answer is given directly.)

Answer:

Question b.
Which of these landforms are useful for deep sea research?
Answer:
Submarine plateau and marine trench are the landforms useful for deep sea research.

Question c.
Which of these are appropriate to be used for the protection of marine borders and naval base building?
Answer:
Continental shelf is appropriate to be used for the protection of marine borders and naval base building.

3. Give geographical reasons:

Question a.
The study of ocean floor is useful to man.
Answer:

1. Various minerals, rocks, fine I soil particles are found on the sea floor.
2. Remains of marine plants and animals are also found on the ocean floor.
3. To study the marine life, mineral wealth as well as the process of volcanic eruption, the study of ocean floor is useful to man. ‘

Question b.
The continental shelf is a paradise for fishing activity.
Answer:

1. Being a shallowest part of the ocean bed, sunlight reaches up to continental shelf easily.
2. As its effect, algae, plankton, etc. grows on a large scale on continental shelf.
3. Algae, plankton, etc. is food for fish. Therefore, fish are found on a large scale on continental shelf. Therefore, the continental shelf is paradise for fishing activity.

Question c.
Some marine islands are actually the peaks of sea mountains.
Answer:

1. The hundreds of kilometres wide and thousands of kilometres long hills found on the ocean bed are called submerged hills.
2. Peaks of some of the submerged hills come above the sea level.
3. These peaks are the visible land areas surrounded from all sides by water. These peaks are called islands. Thus, some marine islands are actually the peaks of sea mountains.

Question d.
The continental slope is considered to be the boundary of continents.
Answer:

1. Continental slope lies beyond the continental shelf.
2. The deep abyssal plain begins beyond the continental slope. Therefore, the continental slope is considered to be the boundary of continents.

Question e.
The disposal of waste materials in the oceans by man is harmful to the 1 environment.
Answer:

1. The disposal of waste materials in the oceans by man increases the pollution of sea water.
2. This disposed waste materials harm the life of marine animal life and marine plant. Thus, the disposal of waste materials in the oceans by man is harmful to the environment.

4. Observe the map on Pg 27 in ‘Give it a try’ and answer the following questions:

Question a.
Madagascar and Sri Lanka are related to which landform of the ocean floor?
Answer:
Madagascar and Sri Lanka are related to island of the ocean floor.

Question b.
Near which continent are these landforms located?
Answer:
Madagascar is located near the continent of Africa and Sri Lanka is located near the continent of Asia.

Question c.
Which islands in our country are examples of peaks of submerged mountains?
Answer:
Andaman and Nicobar islands in our country are examples of peaks of submerged mountains.

Activity:

Question a.
prepare a model of the ocean floor.
Answer:

1. While studying the ocean floor, we must keep in mind the age of the ocean bed. By studying the deposits on the ocean bed, it occurred to the scientists that the deposits at the ocean floor are not older than 200 million years.

2. The maximum age of the rocks on the continents is supposed to be 3200 million years. Then where have the deposits on the sea bed which are older than 200 million years gone? This made the scientists restless. Then they started the study of the rocks along with the deposits.

3. This made them realize that the rocks are also not older than 200 million years. It was inferred that the ocean floor is very young as compared to the earth’s surface. Now this is unanimously accepted. This research was then used in the study of the concept of plate tectonics.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 4 Structure of Ocean Floor Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct answer and complete the sentences:

Question a.
Continental slope has slope.
(a) flatter
(b) broader
(c) steeper
(d) lower
Answer:
(c) steeper

Question b.
The average depth of the oceans is around metres.
(a) 7300
(b) 3700
(c) 3900
(d) 3300
Answer:
(b) 3700

Examine the following statements and correct the incorrect ones:

Question a.
Abyssal plain lies beyond the continental shelf.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: Abyssal plain lies beyond the continental slope.

Question b.
Around 51 per cent of the surface of the earth is covered by water.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: Around 71 per cent of the surface of the earth is covered by water.

Question c.
Natural gas and mineral oil can be obtained from the continental shelf.
Answer:
Correct.

Question d.
For survey purpose in India, the height of sea level at Kanyakumari is considered to be zero.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: For survey purpose in India, the height of sea level at Chennai is considered to be zero.

Question e.
Active volcanoes are mostly seen in marine trenches.
Answer:
Correct.

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question a.
What is called continental shelf?
Answer:
The land near the coast and submerged under the sea is called continental shelf.

Question b.
What is called continental slope?
Answer:
The steeper slope of the sea bed beyond the extent of continental shelf is called continental slope.

Question c.
What is called abyssal plain?
Answer:
The flat part of the sea bed that lies
beyond the continental slope is called abyssal plain.

Question d.
What is called submerged hills?
Answer:
The hundreds of kilometres wide and thousands of kilometres long hills found on the ocean bed are called submerged hills.

Question e.
What is called marine islands?
Answer:
Peaks of some of the submerged hills that come above the sea level are called marine islands.

Question f.
What is called submarine plateau?
Answer:
The flat and extensive summit of marine island is called submarine plateau.

Question g.
What is called marine deep?
Answer:
The landforms on the ocean bed that are comparatively less extending and shallower ones are called marine deep.

Question h.
What is called marine trench?
Answer:
The landforms on the ocean bed that are comparatively more extending and deeper ones are called marine trench.

Match the columns and complete the chain:

Question a.

‘A’ Column	‘B’ Column	‘C’ Column
1. Andaman – Nicobar	(i) Submarine plateau	(a) Pacific Ocean
2. Chagos	(ii) Located on continental shelf	(b) Bay of Bengal
3. Mariana	(iii) Islands	(c) Arabian Sea
4. Mumbai High	(iv) Marine deep	(d) Indian Ocean

Answer:

‘A’ Column	‘B’ Column	‘C’ Column
1. Andaman – Nicobar	(iii) Islands	(b) Bay of Bengal
2. Chagos	(i) Submarine plateau	(d) Indian Ocean
3. Mariana	(iv) Marine deep	(a) Pacific Ocean
4. Mumbai High	(ii) Located on continental shelf	(c) Arabian Sea

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question a.
What is marine deposits?
Answer:

1. Marine deposit is a type of marine deposition.
2. The rivers and glaciers flowing from the continent bring pebbles, clay, soil, etc. with them when they meet sea or ocean.
3. These materials get deposited on the continental shelf. The deposits are known as marine deposits.
4. Due to pressure of sea water and deposition of layers over layers of sediments, sedimentary rocks are formed.
5. Marine life and the availability of minerals in the sea bed can be studied with the help of marine deposits.

Question b.
What is marine oozes?
Answer:

1. Marine oozes is a type of marine deposit.
2. Lava and ash erupting out of volcano, fine soil particles, remains of plants and animals, etc. get deposited on marine abyssal plains. Deposits of these materials on the abyssal plains are known as marine oozes.
3. Marine oozes are in the form of fine clay. The percentage of remains of plants and animals in marine oozes is up to 30 per cent.
4. Marine oozes are also useful to study marine life and the availability of minerals in the sea bed.

Question c.
Write in brief about the continental shelf.
Answer:
1. The land near the seacoast and submerged under the sea is called continental shelf. The depth of continental shelf is about 200 metres below the sea level.

2. Continental shelf is found to be narrow along the coasts of some continents and broad along the coasts of some other continents.

3. Being a shallowest part of the ocean bed, sunlight reaches up to continental shelf easily. As its effect, the food for fish like algae, plankton, etc. grows on a large scale on continental shelf. Therefore, continental shelf is useful for fishing occupation.

4. Various minerals, natural gas and mineral oil, etc. can also be obtained from mining the continental shelf. For example, Mumbai High located on the continental shelf of the Arabian Sea is a source from where the mineral oil and natural gas is obtained.

Question d.
Write in brief about the continental slope.
Answer:

1. The steep slope of the sea bed beyond the extent of continental shelf is called continental slope.
2. The depth of the continental slope is from 200 metres to 3600 metres below the sea level.
3. The continental slope is found to be comparatively narrower.
4. The lower boundary of the continental slope is considered as the boundary of I continent.

Question f.
Write in brief about the abyssal plains.
Answer:

1. The flat part of the sea bed that lies beyond the continental slope is called abyssal plains.
2. Various submerged landforms like
   submerged hills, submerged mountains, etc. are seen on abyssal plains.
3. Submarine plateaus are also found on the abyssal plains.

Question g.
Write in brief about mean sea level.
Answer:

1. The average of the highest high tide and the lowest low tide is considered to calculate the mean sea level.
2. This average is considered to be zero sea level.
3. The altitude of any place above the sea level is measured and expressed in positive value. (For example, Mount Everest is 8848 metres high.)
4. The depth of any place below the sea level is measured and expressed in negative value. (For example, Mariana Trench is 11034 metres below sea level.)

Study the following map/figure/graph and answer the following questions:

Can you tell?

Question a.
What parameters were used for classifying the landforms on the earth?
Answer:
Altitude and the shape of the land were the parameters used for classifying the landforms on the earth.

Question b.
What parameters were used for naming the landforms below water?
Answer:
Depth from the seafloor and the shape of the land were the parameters used for naming the landforms below water.

Give it a try.

Question a.
Name the submerged landforms shown in the diagram.
(Note: The answer is given directly.)

Answer:

Question b.
Identify the ocean shown in the map of the ocean floor.
Answer:
The ocean shown in the map of the ocean floor is Indian Ocean.

Question c.
Which region would be ideal for fishing and why?
Answer:
The region near Madagascar island would be ideal for fishing. Madagascar island has a shallow continental shelf. The warm stream and cold stream also meet near Madagascar island. Therefore, the region near Madagascar island would be ideal for fishing.

2. Name the landforms shown in the following figure and answer the following questions:
(Note: The answer is given directly.)

Question a.

Answer:

Thought-Provoking Questions

Think about it.

Question a.
If the classification of landforms on land can be done on the basis of altitude and size, then how can the landforms submerged underwater are classified?
Answer:
If the classification of landforms on land can be done on the basis of altitude and size, then the landforms submerged underwater are classified on the basis of the depth from the seafloor and the shape of the land there.

Use your brainpower!

Do this activity when you go to the seashore with your parents or teachers. Observe the materials which have come with the waves. Classify them as per the flowchart given below:

Question a.
Which of these are perishable items?
Answer:
Plants, conches and shells, aquatic animals of these are perishable items.

Question b.
Which are non-perishable?
Answer:
Chemicals, metals and plastic/glass are non-perishable.

Question c.
What will happen because of perishable items?
Answer:
Perishable items will not create pollution of seacoast and seawater on a large scale. The remains of perishable items will get deposited in the form of marine oozes on the ocean bed.

Question d.
What will happen because of non-perishable items?
Answer:
Non-perishable items will create pollution of seacoast and seawater on a large scale.

Question f.
Suggest measures to control deposition of non-perishable items on the coast.
Answer:
The following measures can be taken to control deposition of non-perishable items on the coast:

1. Plastic bags, plastic or glass containers must be prohibited on the seacoasts.
2. Strict action must be taken against offenders carrying the banned products on the seacoasts.
3. Hoardings explaining the importance of clean seacoasts must be displayed on all the seacoast.

Question g.
How will you run a campaign of environmental conservation to keep the coasts clean?
Answer:
We will run a campaign of environmental conservation to keep the coasts clean as follows:

1. We will display hoardings explaining the importance of clean seacoasts on the seacoasts.
2. We will arrange street plays, dramas, etc. highlighting the importance of clean seacoasts.
3. We will arrange special programmes during the festivals like Ganeshotsav, Diwali, Christmas, etc. to keep the seacoasts clean.

Open-Ended Questions:

Question a.
Suggest measures to control deposition of non-perishable items on the coast.
Answer:
The following measures can be taken to control deposition of non-perishable items on the coast:

1. Plastic bags, plastic or glass containers must be prohibited on the seacoasts.
2. Strict action must be taken against offenders carrying the banned products on the seacoasts.
3. Hoardings explaining the importance of clean seacoasts must be displayed on all the seacoasts.

Question b.
How will you run a campaign of environmental conservation to keep the coasts clean?
Answer:
We will run a campaign of environmental conservation to keep the coasts clean as follows:

1. We will display hoardings explaining the importance of clean seacoasts on the seacoasts.
2. We will arrange street plays, dramas, etc. highlighting the importance of clean seacoasts.
3. We will arrange special programmes during the festivals like Ganeshotsav, Diwali, Christmas, etc. to keep the seacoasts clean.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 Local Time and Standard Time Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 Local Time and Standard Time

Class 8 Geography Chapter 1 Local Time and Standard Time Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Complete the sentence by selecting the correct option:

Question a.
The earth requires 24 hours for one rotation. In one hour, ……………. .
(a) 5 longitudes will face the sun
(b) 10 longitudes will face the sun
(c) 15 longitudes will face the sun
(d) 20 longitudes will face the sun
Answer:
(c) 15 longitudes will face the sun

Question b.
To calculate the difference between the local times of any two places on the earth, …………. .
(a) the noon time at both the places should be known
(b) the difference in degrees of their longitudes should be known
(c) the difference in standard times of both the places should be known
(d) changes need to be made according to International Date Line.
Answer:
(b) the difference in degrees of their longitudes should be known

Question c.
The difference between the local time of any two consecutive longitudes is …………… .
(a) 15 minutes
(b) 04 minutes
(c) 30 minutes
(d) 60 minutes
Answer:
(b) 04 minutes

2. Give geographical reasons for the following:

Question a.
The local time is decided by the noontime.
Answer:
1. When at a particular place, the sun reaches the maximum height in the sky it is assumed that almost half of the daytime is over and this time is considered 12 noon.

2. The time of a particular place as decided by the overhead position of the sun in the sky is considered as the local time of that place.

3. During the rotation of the earth, when a particular longitude comes exactly in front of the sun, it is considered as noontime (12 noon) on that longitude. This noontime is considered as local time of that longitude.

In this way, the local time is decided by the noontime.

Question b.
The local time at Greenwich is considered to be the International Standard Time.
Answer:

1. The International Standard Time has been decided according to 0° longitude.
2. 0° longitude passes through Greenwich, England.
3. For an international coordination, it is essential to bring compatibility between the standard times of various countries in the world.

For this purpose, the local time at Greenwich is considered to be the International Standard Time.

Question c.
The standard time of India has been decided by the local time at 82°30′ E longitude.
Answer:

1. With respect to the longitudinal extent, 82°30’E longitude passes through the middle of India.
2. The difference between the local time at 82°30’E longitude and the local time at the extreme east and west longitude passing through India is not more than one hour.

Therefore, the standard time of India has been decided by the local time at 82°30’E longitude.

Question d.
Canada has 6 different standard times.
Answer:

1. The longitudinal extent of Canada is between 52°37′ W and 141° W.
2. Thus, the difference between the extreme east and west longitude passing through Canada is of 88 degrees.
3. The difference between the local time at extreme east and west longitude passing through Canada is of 352 minutes i.e. 5 hours and 52 minutes.

Therefore, it is not practically helpful to consider single standard time in Canada. Therefore, for synchronizing the routine activities in the country, Canada has 6 different standard times.

3. Answer in brief:

Question a.
If it is 12 noon at 60° E longitude, then explain what would be the time at 30° W longitude.
Answer:
1. The difference between 60° E longitude and 30° W longitude will be of 90 degrees. (The difference of 60 degrees between 0° and 60° E + the difference of 30 degrees between 0° and 30° W = 90 degrees.)

2. Difference in local time = 90 × 4
= 360 minutes.
= 360 minutes ÷ 60 minutes = 6 hours.
3. Longitudes lying to the east of any longitude are ahead of the time of that longitude while those lying to the west are behind.
4. Therefore, if it is 12 noon at 60° E longitude, then it would be 6 a.m. at 30° W longitude, (behind by 6 hours)

Question b.
How is the standard time of a place determined?
Answer:
1. The local time at the longitude passing through the middle of a country/ place is generally considered as a standard time of that country/place.

2. If the difference between the local time at the extreme east and west longitude passing through a country is less than one or two hours, one standard time is considered for a country. Thus, there exists only one standard time in a country having comparatively less longitudinal (east-west) extent.

3. If the difference between the local time at the extreme east and west longitude passing through a country is more than one or two hours, more than one standard time zones are considered for a country. Thus, there exists more than one standard time zones in a country having comparatively more longitudinal (east-west) extent.

Question c.
A football match being played at Sao Paulo, Brazil started in India at 6 a.m. IST. Explain what would be the local time at Sao Paulo?
Answer:
1. Statement: For any longitude lying to the west of particular longitude, the local time decreases by 4 minutes for every longitude. (Sao Paulo is located to the west of India)

2. The difference between the longitudes of Sao Paulo and India = 127°30’.

3. Difference in local time = 127.5 × 4
= 510 minutes.
= 510 minutes ÷ 60 minutes
= 8 hours 30 minutes.

4. Thus, if it is 6 a.m. at India, it would be 9.30 p.m. of the previous day at Sao Paulo. Therefore, if a football match being played at Sao Paulo, Brazil started in India at 6 a.m. 1ST, the local time at Sao Paulo would be 9.30 p.m. of previous day.

4. Complete the following table:

If it is 10 pm on 21st June at Prime Meridian, write the dates and time at A, B and C in the following table:
(Note: The answer is given directly.)

Question 1.

Answer:

5. Write the situation of place A shown in these diagrams in the boxes below them:

Question 1.
Write the situation of place A shown in these diagrams in the boxes below them
(i) Sunrise
(ii) Midnight
(iii) Noon
(iv) Sunset

Answer:

Let’s recall: 

Question 1.
Why does the duration of day and night keep changing?
Answer:
The duration of day and night keeps changing as the earth is tilted at an angle of 23.5 degrees.

Question 2.
How many longitudes can be drawn on a world map keeping an interval of 1° each?
Answer:
360 longitudes can be drawn on a world map keeping an interval of 10 each.

Question 3.
The apparent movement of the sun from east to west is a result of what?
Answer:
The apparent movement of the sun from east to west is a result of the rotation of the earth from west to east.

Question 4.
What is the direction of the rotation of the earth?
Answer:
The direction of the rotation of the earth is from west to east.

Question 5.
While the earth rotates, how many longitudes face the sun daily?
Answer:
While the earth rotates, 360 longitudes face the sun dally.

Question 6.
At which longitude does the date change?
Answer:
The date changes at 1800 longitude.

Question 7.
How was the time measured in olden days?
Answer:
In olden days, the time was measured with the help of the natural events of sunrise and sunset and the instruments like Ghatikapaatra, sand timer, etc.

Question 8.
In present tunes, what are the instruments used for time measurement?
Answer:
In present times, the instruments like watches, calendars, etc. are used for time measurement.

Activity:

Question 1.
Look for the actual granny’s clock in Shri Acharya Atre’s poem: “Aajiche Ghadyal” (Granny’s clock). Look for this poem on the internet or in reference book.

Question 2.
Find out the velocity of the earth’s rotation in km/hour.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 1 Local Time and Standard Time Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by selecting the correct option:

Question a.
There are …………. time zones in the world.
(a) 360
(b) 24
(c) 100
(d) 365
Answer:
(b) 24

Question b.
Indian Standard Time is …………..
(a) ahead of Greenwich Mean Time by 5 hours 30 minutes
(b) ahead of Greenwich Mean Time by 3 hours 50 minutes
(c) behind Greenwich Mean Time by 5 hours 30 minutes
(d) behind Greenwich Mean Time by 3 hours 50 minutes
Answer:
(a) ahead of Greenwich Mean Time by 5 hours 30 minutes

Examine the following statements and correct the incorrect ones:

Question 1.
Mumbai is located at 73° E longitude.
Answer:
Correct.

Question 2.
In India, three standard times exist.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: In India, one standard time exists.

Question 3.
If the difference between two longitudes is of 20 degrees, the difference in their local times will be of four hours.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: If the difference between two longitudes is of 20 degrees, the difference in their local times will be of 1 hour and 20 minutes.

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question 1.
Think about it.
Question a.
What is the maximum number of local times that can there be in the world?
Answer:
The maximum number of local times that can be there in the world is 360.

Question b.
How many longitudes pass the sun in one hour?
Answer:
15 longitudes pass the sun in one hour.

Question 2.
How much time does the earth take to complete one rotation?
Answer:
The earth takes nearly 24 hours to complete one rotation.

Question 3.
What is meant by the local time of a place?
Answer:
When the sun is directly overhead at a particular place, it is considered as noon at that place and that time is considered as a local time of that place.

Solve the following:

1. Try this:

Question A.
Mashad, a town in Iran, is located on the 60° E longitude. When it is 12 noon at Greenwich, calculate the local time of Mashad town.
Answer:
1. Statement: As we move towards the east of the Prime Meridian, the local time increases by four minutes for every longitude. (Mashad is located to the east of Greenwich.)

2. The difference between the longitudes of Greenwich and Mashad = 60°.

3. Difference in local time
= 60 × 4
= 240 minutes.
= 240 minutes ÷ 60 minutes
= 4 hours. ‘

4. Therefore, when it is noon at Greenwich, it would be 4 p.m. at Mashad. (Ahead of Greenwich Mean Time by 4 hours.)

Question B.
Manaus city in Brazil is located on 60° W longitude. What would be the local time at Manaus when it is 12 noon at Greenwich?
Answer:
1. Statement: As we move towards the west of the Prime Meridian, the local time decrease by four minutes for every longitude. (Manaus is located to the west of Greenwich.)

2. The difference between the longitudes of Greenwich and Manaus = 60°.

3. Difference in local time = 60 × 4
= 240 minutes.
= 240 minutes ÷ 60 minutes
= 4 hours.

4. Therefore, when it is noon at Greenwich, it would be 8 a.m. at Manaus. (Behind Greenwich Mean Time by 4 hours.)

2. Can you tell?

Question A.
Mumbai is located at 73° E longitude. Kolkata is located at 88° E longitude. Find the difference between the longitudes of these two cities.
Answer:
Mumbai is located at 73° E longitude. Kolkata is located at 88° E longitude. Therefore, the difference between the longitudes of these two cities would be of (88 – 73 = 15) 15°.

Question B.
If the local time at Mumbai is 3 p.m. then what would be the local time at Kolkata?
Answer:
1. Statement: For any longitude lying to the east of particular longitude, the local time increases by 4 minutes for every longitude.

2. The difference between the longitudes of Mumbai and Kolkata = 15°.

3. Difference in local time = 15 × 4
= 60 minutes.
= 60 minutes -r- 60 minutes = 1 hour.

4. Kolkata is located to the east of Mumbai. Therefore, if it is 3 p.m. at Mumbai, then it would be 4 p.m. at Kolkata. (ahead by 1 hour)

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question a.
Give brief information about the Indian Standard Time.
Answer:
1. The Indian Standard Time (IST) is calculated on the basis of 82°30’E longitude, passing through Mirzapur, near Allahabad in Uttar Pradesh.

2. With respect to longitudinal extent, 82°30′ E longitude passes through the middle of India.

3. When the sun is directly overhead on this longitude, it is considered that it is 12 noon at every place in India. Thus, the local time at 82°30’E longitude is considered as the Standard time of India.

4. The difference between the local time at 82°30′ E longitude and the local time at the extreme east and west longitude passing through India is not more than one hour.

Question b.
Give brief information about Universal Standard Time.
Answer:
1. As the standard time is essential for synchronizing routine activities in a country with comparatively more j longitudinal extent, the universal standard i time is essential for an international coordinating between the countries in the world.

2. For this purpose, the local time at Greenwich (Greenwich Mean Time) in England is considered to be the International/Universal Standard Time (UST).

3. With reference to GMT, the differences in standard times of various countries in the world are calculated.

4. The Indian Standard Time is ahead of GMT by 5 hours and 30 minutes. For example, if it is 12 noon at Greenwich, then it would be 5.30 p.m. in India.

Give geographical reasons for the following:

Question a.
In the countries with larger area, it is convenient to use one standard time instead of more than one local times.
Answer:
1. In the countries with larger area, much difference between the local times at extreme east and west longitude passing through the countries is found.

2. In such countries, if more than one local times are followed, it could lead to lots of confusion and chaos.

3. For example, if more than one local times are followed, it will become difficult to synchronize the timetable of railways, airways, etc. Therefore, in countries with comparatively larger area, it is convenient to use one standard time instead of more than one local times.

Study the following map/ figure/graph and answer the following questions:

1. Can you tell?
Study the figure 1.3 given on page 4 of the textbook and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Between which longitudes does the region experience daytime?
Answer:
The region shown between 90° W and 90° E in the figure experiences daytime.

Question 2.
Which longitudes experience noon and the midnight respectively?
Answer:
0° longitude and 180° longitude experience noon and the midnight respectively.

Question 3.
Edward from New Orleans is on which longitude?
Answer:
Edward from New Orleans is on 90° W longitude.

Question 4.
What is the time at Accra city?
Answer:
It is 12 noon at Accra city.

Question 5.
At the same time, what is Sharad from Patna and Yakaito from Japan doing? What time is it in these cities?
Answer:
At the same time, Sharad is returning home from school and Yakaito from Japan is preparing for the night’s sleep. At the same time, it is 5.30 p.m. at Patna and 9.20 p.m. at Japan.

Question 6.
Select any one longitude. Calculate the local time of the longitudes lying 1° to the west and east of this longitude.
Answer:

1. The selected longitude: 60° E. The local time of the selected longitude is 4 p.m.
2. The local time of the longitude lying 1° to the west of the selected longitude (59° E) will be 3.56 p.m.
3. The local time of the longitude lying 1° to the east of the selected longitude (61° E) will be 4.04 p.m.

2. Can you tell?

Study the figure 1.4 given on page 6 of the textbook and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Considering the longitudinal extent of India, how many longitudes with a difference of 1° can be drawn on a map?
Answer:
Considering the longitudinal extent of India, 29 longitudes with a difference of 1° can be drawn on a map.

Question 2.
By how many minutes do two consecutive longitudes differ?
Answer:
Two consecutive longitudes differ by 4 minutes.

Question 3.
What is the value of degrees of longitude at Mirzapur?
Answer:
The value of longitude at Mirzapur is 82°30′.

Question 4.
If it is 8 a.m. at 82°30′ E, what would be the time in their clocks at the following places: Jammu, Madurai, Jaisalmer, Guwahati.
Answer:
If it is 8 a.m. at 82°30′ E, it would be 8 a.m. in their clocks at Jammu, Madurai, Jaisalmer, Guwahati.
(Note: In India, the time at 82°30′ E is considered as standard time of India and therefore the same time will be considered everywhere in India.)

Question 5.
Though the distance between them is more why doesn’t the standard time differ in these places?
Answer:
In India, the time at 82°30′ E is considered as standard time of India and therefore the same time will be considered everywhere in India. Therefore, though the distance between them is more, the standard time doesn’t differ in these places.

Thought-Provoking Questions:

1. Think about it.

Question 1.
At the poles, sunrise occurs on one equinox and sunsets on the next equinox. If you happen to be at any of the poles during this time, then what would be the route of the sun in the daytime?
Answer:
At the poles, sun rises on one equinox and sets on the next equinox. If we happen to be at any of the poles during this time, then the following would be the route of the sun in the daytime:
(A) North Pole:
1. The sun will rise at the North Pole approximately on March 21.

2. Approximately, from March 21 to June 21, the sun will rise higher in the sky with each advancing day. It will reach the maximum height approximately on June 21. Approximately, from June 21 to September 21, the sun will start sinking towards the horizon in the sky with each advancing day.

3. The sun will set at the North Pole approximately on September 21.

(B) South Pole:
1. The sun will rise at the South Pole approximately on September 21.

2. Approximately, from September 21 to December 21, the sun will rise higher in the sky with each advancing day. It will reach the maximum height approximately on December 21.

3. Approximately, from December 21 to March 21, the sun will start sinking towards the horizon in the sky with each advancing day.

4. The sun will set at the South Pole approximately on March 21.

Question 2.
On which day, would the sun appear at the highest point in the sky?
Answer:

1. On the North Pole, approximately on June 21, the sun would appear at the highest point in the sky.
2. On the South Pole, approximately on December 21, the sun would appear at the highest point in the sky.

2. Use your brainpower:

Question 1.
Tick ✓ the time in the boxes which you can tell without using clock.
(Note: The answer is given directly.)

Answer:

3. Give it a try.

Question 1.
If it is 8 a.m. in India, what is the time in Greenwich?
Answer:
If it is 8 a.m. in India, it would be 2.30 a.m. in Greenwich.

Question 2.
When it is 2 p.m. in India, in which countries would it be 2 p.m. exactly?
Answer:
When it is 2 p.m. in India, it would be 2 p.m. exactly in Sri Lanka.

Question 3.
When it is 9 a.m. in India, what would be the time at 82°30′ W longitude?
Answer:
When it is 9 a.m. in India, it would be 10 p.m. of the previous day at 82°30′ W longitude.

Question 4.
What would be the time at Prime Meridian when a new day starts at 180° longitude?
Answer:
It would be 12 noon at Prime Meridian when a new day starts at 180° longitude.

4. Think about it.

Question 1.
In which of the following countries, does only one standard time exist? (Mexico, Sri Lanka, New Zealand, China)
Answer:
From the given countries, only one time exists in Sri Lanka, New Zealand and China.

Question 2.
Why does a country having a large latitudinal extent have only one standard time?
Answer:
The places lying on the same longitude have the same local time. Therefore, a country having a large latitudinal extent have only one standard time.

Question 3.
Which discrepancies will emerge if more than one local times, instead of one standard time are followed in a country with huge longitudinal extent?
Answer:
The following discrepancies will emerge if more than one local times, instead of one standard time are followed in a country with huge longitudinal extent:

1. It will become difficult to synchronize the timetable of rail transportation, air transportation, etc. in a country.
2. It will become difficult to synchronize the timings of schools, colleges, banks, libraries, etc. in a country.
3. We will always have to adjust the time in watch as we move from one place to another in a country.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Civics Solutions Chapter 6 Bureaucracy Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Civics Solutions Chapter 6 Bureaucracy

Class 8 Civics Chapter 6 Bureaucracy Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Identify if the following statements are correct or wrong and rewrite the wrong statements in their correct form:

Question 1.
In a Parliamentary democracy, representatives elected by the people and ministers bear the administrative responsibility.
Answer:
Correct.

Question 2.
Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) recruits candidates for civil services in Maharashtra.
Answer:
Wrong – Maharashtra Public Service Commission recruits candidates for civil services in Maharashtra.

2. Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
Reservation policy is followed even in Civil Services.
Answer:

1. A part of the society comprising of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, Women, Other Backward Castes and specially-abled is termed as the weaker section of the society.
2. It was essential to empower these weaker sections.
3. They were left out of civil services due to social inequality.
4. In order to establish social justice and provide opportunities to weaker sections of the society, reservation policy is followed even in civil services.

Question 2.
It is necessary for civil servants to be politically neutral.
Answer:

1. In Parliamentary democracy, in India, a new government comes in power after every five years. But the bureaucracy is permanent, i.e. they remain same.
2. Bureaucracy is expected to implement the policies and decisions of the earlier government with same efficiency and commitment.
3. Civil servants are expected to keep away from taking a political stand and remain neutral while discharging their duties.
4.  If civil servants work according to their political views it will lead to chaos. Hence, they should be politically neutral.

3. Answer the following questions in 25 to 30 words:

Question 1.
Explain the role of the ministers and civil servants in the efficient administration of the department.
Answer:

1. The efficiency of a particular department depends upon the inter-relationship between the Minister and his Secretary and Deputy secretary.
2. The decisions taken by the Ministers are based on the necessary information provided by the bureaucracy.
3. The bureaucracy, i.e. civil servants have complete information about the financial provisions for a particular scheme or plan and also about the history of successes and failures of policies.
4. Hence, if the Ministers develop mutual trust and transparency with the civil servants, it will help in the efficient administration of the department.

Question 2.
Explain how the bureaucracy provides stability to the political system.
Answer:

1. Bureaucracy does the work of implementing decisions taken by the ministers.
2. Several important reforms introduced during the post-independent period have been effectively implemented by the bureaucracy.
3. It consistently provides services like water supply, public cleanliness, transport, electricity, etc. to the people and brings stability in their day-to-day life.
4. It acts as an instrument of social transformation and democratisation. In this way, it gives stability to the political system.

4. Complete the concept picture.

Question 1.

Answer:

5. Discuss characteristics of bureaucracy.

Question 1.
Bureaucracy:
Answer:

1. It is the administrative system that works under the Union Executive.
2. As this administrative system includes civil servants i.e. bureaucrats, it is called Bureaucracy.
3. It has the responsibility of actual implementation of government’s policies.
4. Though the ministers control the bureaucracy, they are dependent on the bureaucracy for information and efficient functioning.

Question 2.
Armed Forces and Civil Services:
Answer:

1. Defending the country from external aggression and internal threats and ensuring security of the country is carried out by the Armed Forces.
2. Services provided to the citizens for making their daily lives comfortable and enabling them to develop themselves and the society are called Civil Services.
3. The administrative system developed to provide services to citizens are called Civil Services.
4. The armed forces help the civil services for internal security.

Meaning of the Headlines given In the box:

1. In the box, a few posts like District Collector, Municipal Commissioner, flnance Secretary, and Divisional Commissioner are mentioned.
2. They are civil servants in the government’s administrative system, working for the welfare of the people.

Project:

Question 1.
Prepare a questionnaire and interview a civil servant in your locality

Class 8 Civics Chapter 6 Bureaucracy Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct options and complete the statements:

Question 1.
…………….. is permanent in nature.
(a) Election Commission
(b) Bureaucracy
(c) President
(d) Prime Ministers
Answer:
(b) Bureaucracy

Question 2.
The bureaucracy is politically ……………….. .
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) biased
(d) neutral
Answer:
(d) neutral

Question 3.
The Parliament holds the ……….. responsible for malpractices.
(a) bureaucracy
(b) Prime Minister
(c) minister
(d) President
Answer:
(c) minister

Question 4.
The ………….. has established autonomous institutions like the Public Service Commissions for selecting efficient civil servants.
(a) Constitution
(b) Council of Ministers
(c) Parliament
(d) President
Answer:
(a) Constitution

Question 5.
The ‘Indian Foreign Service’ is included under ……………
(a) All India Services
(b) Union or Central Services
(c) State Civil Services
(d) Armed Forces
Answer:
(b) Union or Central Services

Identify if the following statements are correct or wrong and rewrite the wrong statements in their correct form:

Question 1.
Bureaucracy is an important instrument of social transformation.
Answer:
Correct.

Question 2.
Civil servants are not aware of the history of successes and failures of policies.
Answer:
Wrong – Civil servants are aware of the history of successes and failures of policies.

Question 3.
Civil servants are never publicly criticised.
Answer:
Correct.

Complete the following concept maps:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
Coordination between the Civil Servants and Ministers help in efficient functioning of the government.
Answer:

1. In Parliamentary democracy, the Executive is responsible for the efficient governance of the country.
2. The decisions relating to the concerned department are made by the minister-in-charge, but necessary information to make such decisions is given by the civil servants.
3. The ministers are dependent on the civil servants for many reasons.

Hence, coordination and mutual trust between the civil servants and ministers help in efficient functioning of the government.

Question 2.
The Bureaucracy is not held directly responsible for any success or failure of policy.
Answer:

1. It is the Minister who is responsible for the efficient and smooth functioning of his department.
2. Though providing necessary information and giving advice is the function of the bureaucracy, it is not accountable for any inefficiency.
3. The Parliament holds the Minister responsible for inefficiency and malpractices.
4. In such case, the Minister bears the responsibility and protects the bureaucracy.

Thus, the anonymity of bureaucracy is preserved, which means they are not held directly responsible for any success or failure of policy. ‘

Question 3.
Bureaucracy is considered as an important instrument of social transformation.
Answer:

1. Many laws are enacted by the government for empowerment of women, protection of children and marginalised sections of the society.
2. Social change is brought through the implementation of such policies.
3. These laws are successfully implemented by the bureaucracy.

Hence, Bureaucracy is considered as an important instrument of social transformation.

Answer the following questions in 25 to 30 words:

Question 1.
Explain the characteristics of Bureaucracy.
Answer:

1. Bureaucracy is the administrative system which actually implements the government’s policies.
2. Though the government changes, bureaucracy remains constant. Thus, it is permanent in nature.
3. It has to remain politically neutral and discharge its duties.
4. Its anonymity is maintained, i.e. it is not held directly responsible for any success or failure of policies and it is never publicly criticized.

Thus, the structure of Bureaucracy in India is extensive and complex.

Question 2.
Explain the significance of Indian bureaucracy.
Answer:

1. The Indian bureaucracy implements the policies made by the government for the welfare of the people effectively.
2. It provides several essential services to the people consistently and brings stability in their day to day life.
3. It provides stability to the political system.
4. It acts as an important instrument of social transformation and democratization of society.

Question 3.
Explain the role of bureaucracy in the democratisation of society.
Answer:

1. Equality and social justice are important values of democracy.
2. Bureaucracy has helped in bringing marginalised sections of society into the mainstream by implementing the reservation policy effectively.
3. Their participation has been increased in the process of decision¬making.
4. Democratisation of society not only requires progressive laws and policies but also effective participation of bureaucracy in implementing it.

Thus, bureaucracy plays an important role in the democratisation of society.

Question 4.
Why have autonomous institutions like Public Service Commissions been established?
Answer:
The Constitution of India has established autonomous institutions like Public Service Commissions for following reasons:

1. To select civil servants.
2. To conduct competitive exams for selecting candidates on the criteria of merit and efficiency.
3. To decide other aspect to like the nature of the exam, syllabus, eligibility, etc.
4. To select efficient and deserving candidates through interviews and recommend them to the government for appointment.

Open-Ended Question:

Question 1.
Express your views on ‘ideal bureaucracy’.
Answer:
Bureaucracy includes civil servants and all the employees working in various government offices. In India, bureaucracy is criticised most of the times and is seldom praised.
According to me, an ideal bureaucracy should function as follows:

1. The bureaucracy should advise and force the ministers to adopt policies of public welfare.
2. It should give full cooperation to the ministers for implementing policies effectively.
3. It should adopt the principle of equality and an unbiased approach while implementing the policies so that maximum people are benefitted.
4. It should make the people aware of different beneficial policies.
5. It should strictly keep away from ill- practices like corruption, unnecessary delay, cheating and frauds, etc.
6. It should aim at establishing social justice by extending maximum benefits to weaker sections.
7. It should function as an effective medium for development of the country, social transformation and democratisation of society.

(B) Oral Examination:

Answer the following questions orally:

Question 1.
Who is the Chief Civil Servant of your district?

Question 2.
Name any two schemes/plans implemented by the government officers for your village/city.

Question 3.
How do armed forces help the civil servants?

Question 4.
Who is the Chief Civil Servant of a taluka/tehsil?

Formative Evaluation:

Oral Work:

1. Interview:
Prepare a questionnaire and interview a civil servant in your locality.

2. Group discussion:
Conduct a group discussion in your class on the topic ‘Role of bureaucracy in the development of city/village.’

Project:

Question 1.
Collect information about the working of bureaucracy at taluka/tehsil level.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Interior of the Earth Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Interior of the Earth

Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Interior of the Earth Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Tick [✓] the correct options in the box:

Question A.
There are two layers in the crust.
(a) Inner and outer crust [ ]
(b) Continental and oceanic crust [ ]
(c) Surface and oceanic crust [ ]
(d) Mantle and core [ ]
Answer:
(b) Continental and oceanic crust [✓]

Question B.
Which element is found in both mantle and crust?
(a) Silica [ ]
(b) Magnesium [ ]
(c) Aluminium [ ]
(d) Iron [ ]
Answer:
(b) Magnesium [✓]

Question C.
Which of these minerals are found in the core of the earth?
(a) Iron – magnesium [ ]
(b) Magnesium – nickel [ ]
(c) Aluminium – iron [ ]
(d) Iron – nickel [ ]
Answer:
(d) Iron – nickel [✓]

Question D.
The inner core is in which state?
(a) Gaseous [ ]
(b) Solid [ ]
(c) Liquid [ ]
(d) Semi-solid [ ]
Answer:
(a) Gaseous [✓]

Question E.
The outer core is made up of
(a) Iron [ ]
(b) Gold [ ]
(c) Hydrogen [ ]
(d) Oxygen [ ]
Answer:
(a) Iron [✓]

Question F.
The layer of the earth on which we live…
(a) Mantle [ ]
(b) Core [ ]
(c) Crust [ ]
(d) Continental crust [ ]
Answer:
(d) Continental crust [✓]

2. Tell whether right or wrong. Correct the wrong statement

Question A.
The density of various materials is not the same in the interior of the earth.
Answer:
Correct.

Question B.
The core of the earth’s interior is made up of hard rocks.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: The core of the earth’s interior is made up of elements, viz. iron and nickel.

Question C.
Secondary waves cannot pass through outer core.
Answer:
Correct.

Question D.
Continental crust is made up of silica and magnesium.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: Continental crust is made up of silica and aluminum.

3. Answer the following

Question A.
What are the two parts of the crust? What is the basis of classification?
Answer:

1. Continental crust and the Oceanic crust are the two parts of the crust.
2. The crust is classified on the basis of whether it lies below the land or the ocean.
3. The part of the crust lying below the continent is known as the continental crust.
4. The part of the crust lying below the ocean is known as the oceanic crust.

Question B.
Why is the upper layer of the mantle known as the asthenosphere?
Answer:

1. The upper layer of the mantle is in liquid state.
2. The rocks in the upper 100 to 200 km of the mantle melt due to the heat and magma is created. Magma chambers are found in this layer of the earth.
3. Due to the heat and pressure, the energy waves are created in mantle. These energy waves move in vertical direction and magma comes out on the surface of the earth by volcanic eruptions.
4. These endogenitic movements continuously occur in the upper layer of the mantle. Therefore, the upper layer of the mantle is known as the asthenosphere.

Question C.
Magnetosphere of the earth is a result of rotation. Explain.
Answer:
1. The average temperature of the outer core of the earth is around 5000° C. The average temperature of the inner core of the earth is around 6000° C. This difference between the temperature results in formation of vertical currents.

2. The rotation of the earth gives eddy (circular) motion to these currents.

3. Electric currents develop in these spiral eddies of liquid iron leading to generation of the magnetic field of the earth. This magnetic field is called magnetosphere. In this way, the magnetosphere is formed due to the rotation of the earth.

4 Draw neat diagrams. label them and explain.

Question A.
The interior of the earth
Answer:

Explanation:

1. Inner Core: It is the center and the hottest layer of the Earth. The inner core is solid and made up of iron and nickel.
2. Outer Core: The outer core of the Earth is similar to a very hot ball of metals. It is composed of metals such as iron and nickel. The outer core surrounds the inner core.
3. Mantle: Mantle is the widest section of the Earth. Mantle is mainly made up of semi-molten rock known as magma. The rock is hard in the upper part of the mantle, but lower down the rock is softer and begins to melt. The mantle consists of very hot and dense rock.
4. Crust: The crust is the outer layer where we live. It’s a solid rock layer divided into two types: Continental crust covers the land and Oceanic crust covers water.

Question B.
Magnetic pole and equator
Answer:

5. Give geographical reasons:

Question A.
There are discontinuities in the interior of the earth.
Answer:
1. There is a difference between the elements, temperatures and the pressure found in the three parts of the interior of the earth, viz, crust, mantle and core.

2. In the interiors of the earth, the transitional areas are found between (a) continental crust and oceanic crust (b) crust and mantle (c) upper mantle and lower mantle (d) mantle and core and (e) outer core and inner core. Therefore, there are discontinuities in the interior of the earth.

Question B.
There is correlation between the density of metals and their location in the interior of the earth.
Answer:
1. The rocks found in the crust have predominance of the compounds of silicon, aluminium, magnesium, etc. These compounds are lighter in weight. Therefore, they are found in the upper layer of the interior of the earth.

2. The elements like iron, nickel are found in the core of the earth. These elements are heavier in weight. Thus, metals with low density are found in upper level in the interior of the earth and the metals with high density are found in the lower level in the interior of the earth. Thus, there is correlation between the density of metals and their location in the interior of the earth.

Question C.
Mantle is the centre of earthquake and volcanic eruptions.
Answer:
1. The rocks in the upper 100 to 200 km of the mantle melt due to the heat and the magma is created.
2. Magma chambers are found in this layer of the earth.

3. Due to the heat and pressure, the energy waves are created in mantle. These energy waves move in vertical direction and magma comes out on the surface of the earth by volcanic eruptions. Thus, mantle is the centre of earthquake and volcanic eruptions.

Question D.
The thickness of the crust below the continents is more as compared to oceans.
Answer:
1. The density of the crust below the continents is 2.65 to 2.90 gm/cm³ The density of the crust below the oceans is 2.90 to 3.3 gm/cm³

2. As the density of the crust below the continents is comparatively low, it keeps floating on the mantle. It does not subduct into mantle. As its effect, the thickness of the crust below the continents is found to be high.

3. As the density of the crust below the ocean is comparatively high, it subducts into mantle leading to its low thickness. Thus, the thickness of the crust below the continents is more as compared to oceans.

Question E.
Earth is protected because of the magnetosphere.
Answer:

1. The ozone layer protects the earth from ultraviolet radiation.
2. The earth’s magnetosphere serves to deflect most of the solar wind, whose charged particles would otherwise strip away the ozone layer. In this way, the earth is protected because of the magnetosphere.

Know this too:

1. The average density of the earth is 5.5 gm/cm³.
2. The rocks in the upper 100 to 200 km of. the mantle melt due to heat.
3. The mixture of molten rocks, volatiles, etc. found beneath the surface of the earth is called magma.
4. The mixture of molten rocks, volatiles, etc. erupted from volcano or fissure on the surface of the earth is called lava.

Activity:

Question 1.
Prepare a model of the earth’s interior.
Answer:

1. The density of the earth goes on increasing from its surface to the centre.
2. The average density of the crust of the earth is approximately 2.98 gm/cm³.
3. The average density of the mantle of the earth is approximately 5.7gm/cm³.
4. The average density of the outer core of the earth is approximately 9.8 gm/cm³.
5. The density of the inner core at the centre of the earth is approximately 13 gm/cm³.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Interior of the Earth Additional Important Questions and Answers

Tick [✓] the correct options in the box:

Question A.
Which seismic waves can travel through liquid medium?
(a) Primary waves [ ]
(b) Secondary waves [ ]
(c) Surface waves [ ]
(d) Oceanic waves [ ]
Answer:
(a) Primary waves [✓]

Question B.
Which of the following layers of the earth has the highest density?
(a) Crust [ ]
(b) Mantle [ ]
(c) Outer core [ ]
(d) Inner core [ ]
Answer:
(d) Inner core [✓]

Question C.
Which of the following waves can travel through all the layers of the interior of the earth?
(a) Primary [ ]
(b) Secondary [ ]
(c) Tertiary [ ]
(d) Surface [ ]
Answer:
(a) Primary [✓]

Question D.
Which of the following layers of the interior of the earth is in solid form and cool?
(a) Crust [ ]
(b) Mantle [ ]
(C) Outer core [ ]
(d) Inner core [ ]
Answer:
(a) Crust [✓]

Examine the statements and incorrect ones :

Question A.
As we move deeper the surface, temperature keeps decreasing.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: As we move deeper the surface, temperature keeps increasing.

Question B.
Magma chambers are found in lower mantle.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: Magma chambers are found in upper mantle.

Question C.
The discontinuity is found between the crust, mantle and core.
Answer:
Correct.

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question A.
In which of the layers of the interior of the earth is magma formed?
Answer:
Magma is formed in the mantle (upper mantle) of the earth.

Question B.
What are the two parts of the core?
Answer:
Outer core and inner core are the two parts of the core.

Match the columns and complete the chain :

Question A.

‘A’ Column (The layer of the interior of the earth)	‘B’ Column (Density)	‘C’ Column (Elements found)
1. Sial	(i) 13.3 gm/cm3	(a) Silica and Magnesium
2. Sima	(ii) 2.65 to 2.90 gm/cm3	(b) Nickel and Iron
3. Inner core	(iii) 2.90 to 3.3 gm/cm3	(c) Silica and Aluminium

Answer:

‘A’ Column (The layer of the interior of the earth)	‘B’ Column (Density)	‘C’ Column (Elements found)
1. Sial	(ii) 2.65 to 2.90 gm/cm3	(c) Silica and Aluminium
2. Sima	(iii) 2.90 to 3.3 gm/cm3	(a) Silica and Magnesium
3. Inner core	(i) 13.3 gm/cm3	(b) Nickel and Iron

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question A.
Describe the changes that take place in the temperatures from the surface of the earth to its centre.
Answer:

1. The process of cooling of the earth started from the surface. The temperature goes on increasing from the surface towards the core.
2. The surface of the earth is cool and solid.
3. The centre of the earth is extremely hot. The temperature at the centre of the earth is around 5500° to 6000° C.

Question B.
Describe the changes that take place in the density of the earth from its surface to the centre.
Answer:

1. The density of the earth goes on increasing from its surface to the centre.
2. The average density of the crust of the earth is approximately 2.98 gm/cm³.
3. The average density of the mantle of the earth is approximately 5.7gm/cm³.
4. The average density of the outer core of the earth is approximately 9.8 gm/cm³.
5. The density of the inner core at the centre of the earth is approximately 13 gm/cm³.

Question C.
Write in brief about the travelling of various types of earthquake waves through the layers of interior of the earth.
Answer:

1. The primary earthquake waves travel through the mantle as well as the core of the earth.
2. While travelling through the core of the earth, the direction of the primary earthquake waves gets altered.
3. While travelling through the core, the speed of the primary earthquake waves decreases.
4. The secondary earthquake waves can travel only through the mantle of the earth. These waves get absorbed in the core of the earth. Thus, these waves cannot travel through the core of the earth.

Write short notes on the following:

Question A.
The crust.
Answer:
1. The uppermost layer of the interior of the earth is called the crust. Continental crust and the oceanic crust are the two parts of the crust.

2.The thickness of the continental crust is approximately 16 km to 45 km. On the other hand, the thickness of the oceanic crust is approximately 7 km to 10 km

3. The density of the continental crust is approximately 2.65 to 2.90 gm/cm. On the other hand, the density of the oceanic crust is approximately 2.65 to 2.90 gm/cm³.

4. Silica and aluminium are the main elements found in the continental crust. Therefore, it is also called Sial. On the other hand, Silica and Magnesium are the main elements found in the oceanic crust. Therefore, it is also called Sima.

Question B.
The mantle.
Answer:
1. The mantle is located below the crust of the earth. The mantle is divided into the upper mantle and the lower mantle.

2. The thickness of the mantle is approximately 2870 km. The average density of mantle is approximately 4.5 gm/cm³.

3. The rocks in the upper 100 to 200 km of the mantle melt due to the heat and magma is created. Magma chambers are found in this layer of the earth. Due to the heat and pressure, the energy waves are created in mantle. These energy waves move in vertical direction and magma comes out on the surface of the earth by volcanic eruptions.

4. These endogenitic movements continuously occur in the upper layer of the mantle. Therefore, the upper layer of the mantle is known as the asthenosphere.

5. The average thickness of mantle is approximately 2870 km. Its average density is approximately 4.5 gm/cm³. The temperature at the depth of 2400 to 2900 km is around 2200° to 2500° C. The density of the lower mantle is approximately 5.7 gm / cm³.

Question B.
The outer core.
Answer:
1. The outer core is located below the lower mantle.
2. It is located at the depth from 2900 km to 5100 km from the surface of the earth.
3. The average temperature of the outer core of the earth is around 5000° C. The density of the outer core of the earth is approximately 9.8 gm/cm.

4. The secondary earthquake waves cannot travel from the core of the earth. Therefore, it is inferred that the outer core of the earth must be in liquid or semi-liquid form. The primary earthquake waves can travel from the outer core of the earth.
5. The vertical currents originate in the outer core of the earth.

Question C.
The inner core.
Answer:

1. The inner core is located below the upper core.
2. It is located at the depth from 5150 km to 6371 km from the surface of the earth.
3. The average temperature of the inner core of the earth is around 6000° C. The density of the inner core of the earth is approximately 13.3 gm/cm³.
4. The elements, viz. Iron (Ferrous) and Nickel (Ni) are mainly found in the inner core of the earth. Therefore, it is also called Nife.
5. The temperature at the centre of the earth is almost equivalent to the surface temperature of the sun.

Give geographical reasons for the following:

Question A.
The secondary waves of earthquake cannot travel through the core of the earth.
Answer:

1. The secondary waves of earthquake can travel only through the solid state of the interior of the earth.
2. The outer core of the centre of the earth is in liquid state. Therefore, the secondary waves of earthquake cannot travel through the core of the earth.

Question B.
The inner core is called Nife.
Answer:

1. The inner core predominantly comprises iron and nickel.
2. The word Nife is derived from the word Nickel (Ni) and Iron (Ferrous) (Fe). Therefore, the inner core is called (Ni + Fe) Nife.

Question C.
The upper layer of the crust is called Sial.
Answer:

1. The rocks in the upper layer of the crust have predominance of the compounds of silicon and aluminium.
2. The word Sial is derived from the word Silica (Si) and Aluminium (Al). Therefore, the upper layer of the crust is called (Si + Al) Sial.

Question D.
The lower layer of the crust is called Sima.
Answer:

1. The rocks in the lower layer of the crust have predominance of the compounds of silicon and magnesium.
2. The word Sima is derived from the word Silica (Si) and Magnesium. (Ma). Therefore, the lower layer of the crust is called (Si + Ma) Sima.

Study the following map/ figure /graph and answer the following questions : 

Question A.
At what depth does the curve of the secondary waves seem to have ended in figure (A)?
Answer:
The curve of the secondary waves seems to have ended around the depth of 2900 km in figure (A).

Question B.
What is the velocity of the secondary waves around the boundary of the outer core shown in figure (A)?
Answer:
The velocity of the secondary waves is 6 to 8 km/sec around the boundary of the outer core shown in figure (A).

Question C.
What conclusion can be drawn on the basis of the curve of the secondary waves stopping around the depth of 2900 km?
Answer:
On the basis of the curve of the secondary waves stopping around the depth of2900 km, it can be concluded that secondary waves do not enter the core.

Question D.
What is the velocity of the primary waves at the time of entering the outer core shown in figure (A)?
Answer:
The velocity of the primary waves at the time of entering the outer core shown in figure (A) is 8 km/sec.

Question E.
What conclusions can be drawn about the intensity of the gravitational force shown in Figure (B)?
Answer:
The following conclusions can be drawn about the intensity of the gravitational force shown in Figure (B):

1. Gravitational force increases at certain depth from the surface of the earth and then it reduces according to the depth.
2. At the centre of the earth, the gravitational force is zero.

Thought-Provoking Question:

Think about it:

Question 1.
Imagine about the earth’s interior and- write 10-12 sentences on it.
Answer:

1. The interior of the earth will be very hot.
2. Huge sized rocks will be present I in the upper layers of the interior of the earth.
3. Due to extreme heat and pressure, the rocks must be melting in the interior of the earth.
4. Due to the melting of the rocks, magma will be created in the interior of the earth.
5. Due to endogenous movements in the interior of the earth, volcanic eruptions will occur on the surface of the earth.
6. The primary earthquake waves will be travelling through the mantle and the core of the earth.
7. The secondary earthquake waves will be travelling only through the mantle of the earth.
8. The temperature in the interior of the earth will get increased with the depth.
9. The highest temperature will be found at the centre of the earth.
10. The elements like silica, aluminium, magnesium, iron and nickel will be found in the various layers of the interior of the earth.

Open-Ended Question:

Question A.
What precautions can be taken to reduce the damage caused by earthquakes?
Answer:
The following precautions can be taken to reduce the damage caused by earthquakes:

1. Taking cover under a desk or a table or sturdy piece of furniture to protect oneself.
2. Finding clear spot away from buildings, trees and power lines. Dropping to the ground and staying there until the shaking stops.
3. Switching off the power supply, gas in-home/office, etc.
4. Helping the victims at the earliest.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Civics Solutions Chapter 2 The Indian Parliament Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Civics Solutions Chapter 2 The Indian Parliament

Class 8 Civics Chapter 2 The Indian Parliament System Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct option.

Question 1.
Candidates to the Lok Sabha are elected through ……….. .
(a) Territorial constituencies
(b) Religious constituencies
(c) Local bodies
(d) Proportional Representation System
Answer:
(a) Territorial constituencies

Question 2.
The ………….. of India is the ex-officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
(a) President
(b) Vice-President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Chief Justice
Answer:
(b) Vice-President

2. Find and write. 

Question 1.
Members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha are known as ……………….. .
Answer:
Members of Parliament (MPs)

Question 2.
The responsibility of making laws is with the ……………… .
Answer:
Parliament

3. Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
Rajya Sabha is a permanent House.
Answer:

1. The tenure of the members of Rajya Sabha does not get over at the same time.
2. 1/3rd of the total membership of Rajya Sabha retire after every two years and equal number of new members get elected.
3. Because the limited members of Rajys Sabha retire step by step, it can function continuously.
   Since Rajya Sabha is never dissolved completely it is called a permanent House.

Question 2.
Lok Sabha is known as the first House.
Answer:

1. Lok Sabha is the lower and the first House of the Parliament of India.
2. Lok Sabha is the House of Representatives directly elected by the people. Hence, Lok Sabha is known as the first House.

4. Answer the following in 25 to 30 words:

Question 1.
How are members of the Lok Sabha elected?
Answer:

1. As per the Constitution, there can be a maximum of 552 members in Lok Sabha.
2. General elections to Lok Sabha are held after every five years and members are directly elected by the people.
3. To ensure equal representation to all sections of the community, some seats are reserved for members belonging to Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
4. In case there are no representation from the Anglo-Indian community, the President can appoint two members from this community to the Lok Sabha.
5. Thus, Lok Sabha is the representative body of the citizens of India.

Question 2.
Explain the functions of the Speaker of Lok Sabha.
Answer:
The functions of the Speaker of Lok Sabha are :

1. To conduct the business of the House in an unbiased manner.
2. To take care of the rights and privileges of the members of Lok Sabha.
3. To interpret the rules of daily functioning of the House and work accordingly.
4. To maintain the decorum and dignity of the House.

5. Explain the step involved in the lawmaking process.

Question 1.
Parliament :
Answer:

1. The Legislature at the national level is called the Parliament.
2. It consists of the President and two houses, i.e., the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
3. Though the President is an inseparable part of the Parliament, he/she cannot participate in the discussions in either of the Houses of the Parliament.
4. The Constitution of India has created the Parliament.

Question 2.
Amendment to the Constitution :
Answer:

1. According to the changing times, certain necessary changes have to be made in some laws. The process of making such changes is called Amendment.
2. Only the Parliament has the right to make such amendments to the Constitution.
3. The Constitution amendment bill is considered to be an important bill.
4. The Parliament discusses why the amendment is required and decides whether to accept it or not.

Question 3.
Members of Parliament :
Answer:

1. The members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha are known as Members of Parliament (MPs).
2. The members of Lok Sabha are directly elected by the people.
3. The members of Rajya Sabha are elected from the constituent States and Union Territories.
4. MPs try to resolve the queries and complaints of their constituencies by raising questions in the Parliament.
5. MPs also participate in the process of formulation of laws.
6. The Government allocates funds to MPs to carry out development activities in their constituencies.

Question 4.
Bill of Law:
Answer:

1. At the initial stage of lawmaking process, a rough draft of the law is prepared.
2. This rough draft or outline is known as ‘draft proposal of the law’ or ‘bill of law’.
3. The Bill clearly mentions the objectives and the details of the proposed law.
4. Every bill has to undergo three readings in both the Houses, and then it is put to vote.

Can you find out?

For the purpose of elections, the State is divided into territorial constituencies. The constituent States in India get seats on the basis of their population. For e.g.

• Maharashtra – 48 seats
• Gujarat – 26 seats
• Madhya Pradesh – 29 seats
• Goa – 02 seats
• Uttar Pradesh – 80 seats

Understand It:
(The gist of the conversation held between Mazy, Radhika, Ran veer and others.)

1. Any Indian citizen who has completed 18 years of age is only eligible to vote.
2. An Indian citizens who has completed 25 years of age can contest for Lok Sabha election.
3. A citizen of India can contest for election from any constituency of any State.
4. Citizens of other countries cannot contest for elections of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
5. Just as there are set criteria for qualifying for election, there are set criteria for disqualification as well.

Rights regarding passing of Bills:

1. Though Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha have same set of rights, Lok Sabha has certain rights which are not available for Rajya Sabha.
2. Bills related to finance (Money Bills) and such other bills are first introduced and passed in Lok Sabha.
3. Rajya Sabha has limited powers with respect to money bills.
4. Rajya Sabha can pass a resolution on the subject in the State List.

Can you tell?

Certain laws which become out-of-date (obsolete) are abolished. Can you give examples of such obsolete laws? For example, Privy purses.

Know this too:

1. Every year, on 1 February the Union Finance Minister presents the national budget to the Lok Sabha. Previously, it was presented on 28 February.
2. The State Legislatures also follow the same procedure of law making as in the Parliament.
3. The bill passed can become a law only after it is signed by the President at the Union level and by the Governor at the State level.

Project:

The President nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha. Collect information on what are the criteria for their selection.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 2 The Indian Parliament Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct option:

Question 1.
…………….. is the upper House of the Parliament.
(a) Legislative Assembly
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Rajya Sabha
(d) Legislative Council
Answer:
(c) Rajya Sabha

Question 2.
The …………… of India has created the Parliament of India.
(a) Legislature
(b) Executive
(c) Constitution
(d) British Law
Answer:
(c) Constitution

Question 3.
1/3rd members of total membership of Rajya Sabha, who have completed their tenure of six years, retire after every ……………….. years.
(a) two
(b) four
(c) five
(d) six
Answer:
(a) two

Question 4.
If ……………….. feels that the Parliament should make a law of the subject in the state list, it can pass a resolution to that effect.
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Executive
(d) President
Answer:
(b) Rajya Sabha

Question 5.
Every year in the month of February, the ………….. presents the national budget to the Lok Sabha.
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Finance Minister
(d) Speaker
Answer:
(c) Finance Minister

Question 6.
The President appoints ……………….. distinguished personalities to the Rajya Sabha.
(a) two
(b) eight
(c) fifteen
(d) twelve
Answer:
(d) twelve

Find and write:

Question 1.
……………. represent the Lok Sabha.
Answer:
The Speaker

Question 2.
The bill passed by the State legislature becomes a law after it is signed by the ………….. .
Answer:
Governor

Question 3.
The House that gives representation to 29 States and 7 Union Territories is ………………. .
Answer:
Rajya Sabha

Complete the following Concept maps:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
The Chairman of Rajya Sabha :
Answer:

1. The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
2. He exercises a control over the functioning of Rajya Sabha.
3. Maintaining discipline in the House is the function of the Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
4. He also has the responsibility of facilitating discussions in the House by giving members a chance to speak, etc.

Question 2.
Speaker of Lok Sabha :
Answer:

1. The speaker is elected in the very first meeting after the election of Lok Sabha.
2. The members of Lok Sabha elect one member among them as the Speaker.
3. Lok Sabha functions under the guidance and control of the Speaker.
4. It is the responsibility of the speaker to conduct the business of the House in an unbiased manner.
5. The Speaker has to maintain decorum and dignity of the House.
6. Moreover, he has to interpret the rules and work accordingly.

Question 3.
Control over Council of Ministers :
Answer:

1. Council of Ministers are drawn from the Parliament and hence Parliament exercises control over them.
2. The members of Parliament exercise this control through multiple ways.
3. It is the responsibility of the Parliament to see that the Council of Ministers does not disregard the Parliament.
4. In case the Lok Sabha passes a no-confidence motion against the Council of Ministers, it has to resign.

Answer the following in 25 to 30 words :

Question 1.
Write about Lok Sabha elections.
Answer:

1. Since Lok Sabha is a House of people’s representatives, elections are held after every five years.
2. Elections to Lok Sabha which are held every five years are known as General elections.
3. When Lok Sabha is dissolved before the completion of five years and elections are held, such elections are called mid- term elections.
4. When a member resigns or dies suddenly, election held for such a seat is called by-election.

Question 2.
Explain the composition of Rajya Sabha.
Answer:
The composition of Rajya Sabha is as follows :

1. The total membership of Rajya Sabha is 250 members.
2. Amongst them, 238 members are elected from the constituent states and Union Territories.
3. Remaining twelve members, who are distinguished personalities from the fields of literature, arts, science, sports and social work, are appointed by the President.
4. The members of Rajya Sabha are elected through the system of proportional representation.

Question 3.
Explain the functions of the Parliament.
Answer:
In order to achieve welfare of the people and the objectives of the 8 Constitution, the Parliament has to perform 8 following functions :

1. To formulate new laws and to repeal the outdated laws.
2. To make necessary changes in the existing laws.
3. To amend the Constitution wherever necessary.
4. To keep control over Council of Ministers.

Question 4.
Mention the ways of amending the Constitution.
Answer:
The Constitution can be amended in following ways :

1. Few provisions in the Indian Constitution can be amended by simple majority.
2. Some provisions require special (2/3rd) majority of the Parliament.
3. Few other provisions can be amended by special majority plus consent from more than half of the constituent states.

Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
Though Lok Sabha is the Lower House, it is more powerful than Rajya Sabha.
Answer:

1. Since members of Lok Sabha are directly elected by the people, it represents the people of the nation in the true sense.
2. Money bills related to financial matters are presented in Lok Sabha. Rajya Sabha has very limited powers with respect to Money Bills.
3. Since the total membership of Lok Sabha is more than Rajya Sabha, it always gets an upper hand when decisions are taken in the joint meeting of both the Houses.
4. Only Lok Sabha can pass a no-confidence motion against the Council of Ministers.

Hence, though Lok Sabha is the lower House, it is more powerful than Rajya Sabha.

Answer the following questions in details:

Question 1.
Explain the steps involved in the law-making process.
Answer:
The Bill undergoes following process in order to be converted into a Law (Act).
1. First reading :

• The minister of the concerned department/ministry or member of the Parliament presents the bill in the House.
• The objectives and the structure of the Bill are mentioned.

2. Second reading :

• The positive and negative points of the bill are discussed.
• The defects and faults in the bill are stressed.
• After removing the defects and the faults, the bill is put to vote.

3. Committee Stage :

• Sometimes, if required, the Bill is sent to the committee of the House.
• The Bill is discussed in the Committee in details.
• The Committee report consisting of instructions and recommendations is sent to the House.
• The Bill is discussed clause by clause and then voting is taken.

4. Third reading :

• The Bill is once again discussed in the House.
• Voting is taken for approving the Bill.

5. Approval of the other House :

• The Bill has to undergo the same procedure even in the other House.
• The Bill is approved by majority.

6. Assent by the President :

• After getting an approval from both the Houses, the Bill is further sent for assent by the President.
• After the final assent and signature of the President, the Bill is converted into Law.

Question 2.
Distinguish between Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha on the basis of following points:
1. Number of members
2. Age limit
3. Election
4. Tenure
Answer:

Points	Lok Sabha	Rajya Sabha
1. Number of members	Maximum 552 members	Total 250 members.
2. Age limit	25 years	30 years
3. Election	Directly elected by the people	238 members elected from the constituent states and Union Territories. 12 members appointed by the President.
4. Tenure	5 years	Permanent House. Tenure of every member is 6 years.

Question 3.
Why, according to you, the Constitution must have granted the President, the right to appoint twelve members to the Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
1. The President appoints twelve members to the Rajya Sabha. These members are usually experienced and distinguished personalities from the fields of literature, arts, science, sports and social service.

2. Such personalities are very active and totally devoted to their respective fields. Hence, they have no time for contesting the elections.

3. They keep themselves away from election procedures like campaigning, conducting meetings, etc. So their election to the Parliament is not possible.

4. But, to derive benefit from their profound knowledge and experience for making of laws, their presence in the Parliament is essential.
Therefore, I feel that the Constitution has granted the President, the right to appoint twelve members to the Rajya Sabha.