Class 7

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 3 Features of the Constitution Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 7 Civics Chapter 3 Question Answer Features of the Constitution Maharashtra Board

Class 7 Civics Chapter 3 Features of the Constitution Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Features of the Constitution Class 7 Questions And Answers

1. Prepare a table to show the separation of powers in a Federal Government.

Answer:

Union List	State List	Concurrent List
Defence, foreign relations, war and peace, currency, international trade, etc.	Agriculture, law and order, local government, health, prison administration etc.	Employment, environment economic and social planning, personal law, education, etc.

2. Find one word for:

Question 1.
The Government at the centre which carries out the administration of the entire country.
Answer:
Union Government

Question 2.
The machinery with whom rests the responsibility of conducting elections in a free and fair atmosphere.
Answer:
Election Commission.

Question 3.
The third list of subjects for making laws
Answer:
The Concurrent List

3. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Why does the Government function at two levels in a Federation?
Answer:
(i) One of the important features of our Constitution is the Federal System.

(ii) In countries with large territories and huge populations, the Government is run by a Federal System.

(iii) Ruling a large territory from a single capital city is not only difficult but may also lead to the neglect of some far-flung areas.

(iv) People residing there cannot participate in the affairs of the Government. Therefore, the governments function at two levels in a § Federation.

Question 2.
What do you understand by Residuaiy Powers?
Answer:
(i) Our Constitution has given three lists on various subjects.

(ii) The first list is called Union List. It contains 97 subjects on which the Union Government makes laws.

(iii) The State List is for the State Governments to legislate upon. It contains 66 subjects.

(iv) Apart from these two lists, there is a Concurrent List which contains 47 subjects.

(v) Both governments can make laws on subjects included in this list. If a subject comes up that is not included in any of the lists, the Union Government is entitled to make laws on it. These powers are termed as ‘Residuary Powers’.

Question 3.
Why has the Constitution created an independent Judiciary in India?
Answer:
(i) The Judiciary of India is independent machinery according to the provisions of the Constitution.

(ii) It is separate from the Executive and Legislative bodies of the Indian Government.

(iii) The Supreme Court is the guardian of the Constitution which ensures that the Fundamental Rights of the citizens are not violated.

(iv) To carry out its duties without fear or favour or external pressure, the Judiciary in India is independent.

4. Hold a group discussion on the merits and demerits of an independent judicial system.
Answer:
Merits of an independent judicial system:

• The judicial system enables the courts to give impartial judgements.
• Judiciary does not act under any political pressure.
• As the judges are appointed by the President and not by the Government.

Demerits of an independent judicial system:

• As the judiciary is independent, it is out of the scope of the government’s control.
• The judiciary is not answerable to anyone if the process of dispensing justice is slow.

5. Find out about the Electronic Voting Machine (EVM) and discuss the advantages of conducting elections with EVM.
Answer:

• Difficult to tamper/cheat
• Cost-effective and economical
• Time-saving
• Calculation is faster
• Easy to use / carry / transport
• Data can be saved for later use.

Activity:

Establish an Election Commission in your class, decide upon the positions you would like to fill through elections. Then conduct elections under the guidance of this Commission.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 3 Features of the Constitution InText Questions and Answers

Do this:

Question 1.
Make a list of North-Eastern Indian States and name their capital cities.
Answer:

State	Capital
Arunachal Pradesh	Itanagar
Assam	Dispur
Meghalaya	Shillong
Manipur	Imphal
Mizoram	Aizwal
Nagaland	Kohima
Tripura	Agartala

Find out:

Question 1.
Find out about the Electronic Voting Machine (EVM) and discuss the advantages of conducting elections with EVM.
Answer:

• Difficult to tamper/cheat
• Cost effective and economical
• Time saving
• Calculation is faster
• Easy to use / carry / transport
• Data can be saved for later use.

Question 2.
How many amendments have been made in the Indian Constitution till date?
Answer:
As of September 2016, there have been 101 (latest of List Bill) amendments to the Constitution of India, since it was first enacted in 1950.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 3 Features of the Constitution Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
One of the important features of our Constitution is the _______ System. (Federal, Unitary, Republic)
Answer:
Federal

Question 2.
The Government functions at ________ levels in a Federation. (two, three, four)
Answer:
two

Question 3.
The Government that oversees the administration of the region that we live in is called _______.(Union Government, State Government, None of the above)
Answer:
State Government

Question 4.
The system of running the administration of a country cooperatively by the governments at two levels, making laws about different subjects is called __________. (Socialism, Communism, Federalism)
Answer:
Federalism

Question 5.
The ______ is for the Union Government to make laws. (State List, Union List, Concurrent List)
Answer:
Federalism

Question 6.
The _______ is for the State Government to legislate upon. (Union List, State List, Concurrent List)
Answer:
State List

Question 7.
The ______ List contains 47 subjects and both the Government can make laws on these subjects. (Concurrent List, Union List, State List)
Answer:
Concurrent List

Question 8.
If a subject comes up and it is not included in any of the Lists, the _______ is entitled to make laws. (State Government, Union Government, President)
Answer:
Union Government

Question 9.
In India, there are ____ State Governments and _______ Union Territories.(29, 7 ; 28, 8)
Answer:
29, 7

Question 10.
The ______ System of Government the Legislature has the highest decision making power. (Parliamentary, Autocratic, Communist)
Answer:
Parliamentary

Question 11.
The ______ who runs the administration emerge from the Lok Sabha and is / are answerable to the Lok Sabha for all its / their decisions.
(Opposition Ministers, Council of Ministers,President)
Answer:
Council of Ministers

Question 12.
Judges are appointed by the ______ (President, Government, Vice-President)
Answer:
President

Question 13.
The Indian Constitution has granted _________ to all Indians. (Single citizenship, Dual citizenship, None of these)
Answer:
Single citizenship

Question 14.
The ________ ensures free, fair and just atmosphere for the election. (President, Election Commission, Ruling Party)
Answer:
Election Commission.

Match the following:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) War and peace (2) Law and order (3) Economic and Social planning	(a)  State Government (b) Both Union and State Government (c) Union Government

Answer:
1 – c
2 – a
3 – b

State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons:

Question 1.
Defence is a subject on which the State Government makes laws.
Answer:
False:

• The Constitution has divided the subjects for making laws between the Union and the State Government.
• Defence is a subject on which Union Government makes laws.

Question 2.
The Union List contains 97 subjects and defence is one of the subjects included in it.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Chandigarh is controlled by the State Government.
Answer:
False: Chandigarh is one of the seven Union Territories of India. The Union Government controls the Union Territories.

Question 4.
In India, the Executive has the highest decision-making power.
Answer:
False: The Indian Constitution has provided for a Parliamentary System of Government. In such a system the Parliament, i.e. the Legislature has the highest decision-making power.

Name the following:

Question 1.
The system which is an important feature of our Constitution.
Answer:
Federalism

Question 2.
The Government that oversees the administration of the place we live.
Answer:
State Government

Question 3.
Number of subjects in the Union List on which the Union Government makes laws.
Answer:
97 Subjects

Question 4.
The list with 66 subjects which the State government legislates upon.
Answer:
The State List

Question 5.
The powers of the Union Government to make laws on a subject which comes up and is not mentioned in any list.
Answer:
Residuary Powers

Question 6.
Any two subjects with the Union Government.
Answer:
Defence, Currency

Question 7.
Subjects with the State Government
Answer:
Health, Prison

Question 8.
Subjects with both the governments.
Answer:
Employment, Education

Question 9.
2 Union Territories in India.
Answer:
Daman and Diu, New Delhi

Question 10.
Answerable to the Lok Sabha
Answer:
The Council of Ministers.

Question 11.
An example to show that the Indian Judiciary is independent.
Answer:
Appointment of Judges by the President

Question 12.
The type of citizenship granted to the citizens by the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
Single citizenship

Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
Write any one of the important features of our Constitution.
Answer:
Federal system is one of the important features of our Constitution.

Question 2.
In which countries are governments run by the Federal System?
Answer:
In countries with large territories and huge population, the Government is run by a Federal System.

Question 3.
What is the problem faced while ruling a large territory from a single capital?
Answer:
Ruling a large territory from a single capital city is not only difficult but may also lead to neglect of some far-flung areas.

Question 4.
Explain the term Union Government.
Answer:
The Government at the centre carries out tasks like defence of the entire country, foreign policy, establishing peace, etc. It is called ‘Union Government or ‘Federal Government’.

Question 5.
What do you mean by State Government?
Answer:
The Government that oversees the administration of the region that we live in is called State Government.

Question 6.
What is called ‘Federalism’?
Answer:
The system of running the administration of a country cooperatively by the Governments at two levels, making laws about different subjects is called ‘Federalism’.

Question 7.
Which are the three lists into which the Constitution has divided subjects for making Laws?
Answer:
The three lists into which the Constitution has divided subjects for making laws are State List, Union List and Concurrent List.

Question 8.
Which powers are termed as Residuary Powers?
Answer:
(a) If a subject comes up that is not included in any of the three Lists, the Union List, the State List or the Concurrent List, the Union Government is entitled to make laws on it
(b) These powers are termed as residuary powers.

Question 9.
Which are the seven Union territories in India?
Answer:
The seven Union Territories in India are New Delhi, Daman and Diu, Puducherry, Chandigarh, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep.

Question 10.
In the Parliamentary system of Government, who has the highest decision-making power?
Answer:
In the Parliamentary system of Government, the Parliament has the highest decision-making power.

Question 11.
What does the Indian Parliament include?
Answer:
The Indian Parliament includes the President, the Lbk Sabha or the House of the People and the Rajya Sabha or the Council of States.

Question 12.
Whom is the Council of Ministers answerable to, for all its decisions?
Answer:
The Council of Ministers is answerable to the Lok Sabha for all its decisions.

Question 13.
What have great significance in Parliamentary Democracy?
Answer:
In Parliamentary Democracy, the discussion and debates that take place in the Parliament have great significance.

Question 14.
Which disputes are referred to the Judiciary?
Answer:
The disputes that cannot be resolved mutually are referred to the Judiciary.

Question 15.
Which are the two provisions in the Constitution which ensures that the Judiciary remains more independent?
Answer:
The two provisions in the Constitution which ensures independence of Judiciary are that the judges are appointed by the President and not by the Government, and it is not easy to remove the Judges from their office.

Question 16.
Why is it necessary to amend the Constitution?
Answer:
There comes up a need to make changes or amendments in the provisions of the Constitution due to the changing circumstances.

Question 17.
What can frequent amendments in the Constitution lead to?
Answer:
Frequent amendments in the Constitution may lead to instability.

Question 18.
Write a short note on Parliamentary System of Government.
Answer:
(i) The Indian Constitution has provided for a Parliamentary System of Government.

(ii) In such a system, the Parliament, i.e. the Legislature has the highest decision-making power.

(iii) The Indian Parliament includes the President, the Lok Sabha or the House of the People and the Rajya Sabha or the Council of States.

(iv) The Council of Ministers that run the administration emerge from the Lok Sabha and is answerable to the Lok Sabha for all its decisions. In Parliamentary Democracy, the discussion and debates that take place in the Parliament have great significance.

7th Std Civics Questions And Answers:

• Introduction to Our Constitution Class 7 Civics Questions And Answers
• Preamble to the Constitution Class 7 Civics Questions And Answers
• Features of the Constitution Class 7 Civics Questions And Answers
• Fundamental Rights Part 1 Class 7 Civics Questions And Answers
• Fundamental Rights Part 2 Class 7 Civics Questions And Answers
• Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duties Class 7 Civics Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Agriculture Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 7 Geography Chapter 9 Question Answer Agriculture Maharashtra Board

Class 7 Geography Chapter 9 Agriculture Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Agriculture Class 7 Questions And Answers

1. Select the proper option for the following statements:

Question 1.
In which of the following type of farming
are the crops rotated?
(a) Intensive.
(c) Commercial.
(b) Plantation.
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(a) Intensive.

Question 2.
Agriculture requires the following:
(a) Only ploughing
(b) Use of animals, implements, machines and manpower.
(c) Use of only manpower.
(d) Just cultivate the crop.
Answer:
(b) Use of animals, implements, machines and manpower.

Question 3.
In India, agriculture has developed because…
(a) There are two seasons of agriculture in India.
(b) Majority of the people depend on agriculture.
(c) Traditional agriculture is practised in India.
(d) In India factors like climate, soils, water, etc. are conducive.
Answer:
(d) In India factors like climate, soils, water, etc. are conducive.

Question 4.
It is necessary that modern methods and technology be used in agriculture in India because…
(a) There are factories producing improved seeds.
(b) There are industries producing fertilizers
(c) Population is growing and there are agro-based industries.
(d) Modern means and machines are available.
Answer:
(c) Population is growing and there are agro-based industries.

2. Give short answers for the following questions:

Question 1.
Describe the importance of irrigation for agriculture.
Answer:
(i) Irrigation means the process of supplying of water through artificial means such as pipes, canals, sprinklers, etc.
(ii) Irrigation helps the farmers to be less dependent on rain water for the purpose of agriculture.
(iii) Since monsoons are uncertain & highly variable, farming cannot entirely depend upon rains
(iv) Hence irrigation is needed to grow assured crops & also to grow crops in the months after the monsoon season.

Question 2.
Distinguish between intensive farming & shifting cultivation.
Answer:

intensive farming	Shifting Cultivation
(i) Intensive farming is carried out in one and the same farm for years together. (ii) This type of farming is mostly seen in the developing regions. (iii) In this type of farming the cultivator and his family are totally dependent on farming. Farm production is sufficient only for the requirement of the family.	(i) In shifting Cultivation, every year a new area is chosen for cultivation. (ii) This type of cultivation is practised in the tropics in densely forested areas or hilly tracts. (iii) The production obtained from shifting cultivation is not sufficient to fulfill the food requirement. So people undertake hunting, fishing and gathering of bulbs and roots from forest.

Question 3.
Mention the major types of farming and give information about intensive farming and extensive grain farming?
Answer:
Broadly the following types of farming are identified

Intensive farming:

• Intensive farming is a type of traditional farming. It is carried out in one and the same farm for years together.
• Getting maximum production from a minimum area is the characteristic of Intensive farming.
• Due to large population or limited availability of land, per head holding is small.
• This type of farming is mostly seen in developing region.
• The cultivator and his family are totally dependent on farming. The farm production is sufficient only for the requirements of the cultivators family.
• As farm production is low hence the economic condition of the cultivator is also poor.

Extensive farming:

• Extensive grain farming is a type of commercial farming.
• Farm size is greater than 200 hectares.
• Due to large farm size and sparse population in the region, this type of farming is carried out with the help of machines like tractors and crushers.
• Helicopters or planes are used for spraying pesticides.
• Mono crop cultivation is the main characteristic.
• Crops like wheat, corn, barley, oats, soyabean are cultivated.
• Heavy capital investment is necessary. Since huge expenditures are needed for purchase of machinery, fertilisers, pesticides, godowns, transport cost, etc.
• Droughts, attack by pests, locusts, market fluctuation, etc. are the problems in extensive grain farming.
• This type of farming is carried out in the temperate grassland regions.

Question 4.
Describe the characteristics of plantation farming.
Answer:
(i) Plantation farming is a type of commercial farming.
(ii) Farm size is 40 hectares or above.
(iii) As plantation agriculture is practised in hilly tracts of tropical regions, use of machines are not possible hence local manpower is used.
(iv) This is a single crop cultivation practice.
(v) Only commercial crops like tea, rubber, coffee, coconut, cocoa, spices, etc. are planted.
(vi) This type of farming requires large scale capital investment.
(vii) Major issues faced are climate, manpower, deterioration of environment, economic and managerial problems.
(viii) Plantation farming is practised in India and other South Asian countries, Africa, South and Central America.

Question 5.
Which are the crops cultivated in your area? What are the geographical reasons for that?
Answer:
(i) I live in the konkan region of the state of Maharashtra
(ii) The main crops cultivated in our area are mangoes, rice, coconut, cashew, etc.
(iii) Konkan region has hot & humid climate, heavy rainfall which favours the growth of these crops.
(iv) This region has fertile laterite soil which is suitable for cultivation of fruits.

Question 6.
Why is the agriculture in India seasonal in nature? What are the difficulties for perennial agriculture?
Answer:
(i) Most of the agriculture in India is dependent on monsoon rainfall. 80% of the rainfall in India is received from south west monsoon winds from June to September.
(ii) Since monsoon in India is seasonal; agriculture in India is also seasonal in nature.
Difficulties for perennial agriculture
(i) Rainfall in India is highly irregular & uncertain. Also there is lack of irrigation facilities.
(ii) There is lack of capital investment, godowns, transportation, etc.
(iii) There is lack of awareness with respect to scientific methods of crop cultivation.

Activity:

Visit a farm where modern technology is used for agriculture. Collect information about it.

Use of ICT

Question 1.
Collect the pictures of improved seeds and means of irrigation from the internet.
Question 2.
Collect information regarding agricultural in Israel from the internet. and present it.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 9 Agriculture InText Questions and Answers

Can you tell?
Observe the picture and briefly describe the type of agriculture shown.

Question 1.

Answer:
(a) For the growth of fruits a large number of similar trees are grown in a vast area. Such land areas are called farms or orchards, for e.g. mango, coconut.
(b) In this type of farming modern as well as traditional methods are used.
(c) Use of irrigation, chemical fertilizers, green houses, etc. is being made for getting more profit.

Question 2.

Answer:
(a) One single crop is grown in a large area.
(b) The use of man power is less, whereas most of the farmwork is done with the help of machines like tractors, harvesters, threshers, etc.
(c) Heavy capital investment is necessary for this type of farming.

Question 3.

Answer:
(a) One single tree crop is grown on a large scale.
(b) Only commercial crops like tea, rubber, coffee, cocoa, coconut, spices, etc. are planted.
(c) It requires lot of capital investment due to the long duration of crops, use of scientific methods, exportable production, processing,

Question 4.

Answer:
(a) Crops are grown on small farm lands with the help of bovine (animal) and human resources.
(b) The profits earned are very low despite intensive care taken.
(c) The crops that are grown are used for home consumption and the excess, if any, is sold in the local market.

Observe the picture and answer:

Question 1.
What all do you see in the picture?
Answer:
A farmer’s house, a farmer keeps cows, hens, sheep, goats and cattle, a standing crop, a plough share, farmers wife grazing the cattle.

Question 2.
Why has the family kept goats and hens?
Answer:
Farmer gets milk from goats and eggs from the hens.

Question 3.
Which implements are seen in the picture?
Answer:
The spade and plough are seen in the picture

Question 4.
How are these implements used?
Answer:
Spade is a hand tool used to dig or loosen ground or break lumps in the soil. A plough is used for ploughing the fields. Ploughing turns organic matter into soil to increase decomposition and add nutrients from organic matter to the soil.

Question 5.
In which major occupation type will the activities shown here be included?
Answer:
The activities shown in the picture mostly fall under the occupation of agriculture.

Question 6.
What could be the main occupation of these people?
Answer:
The main occupation of these people could be cultivation of crops.

Question 7.
Who could be the owner of the house?
Answer:
The farmer himself could be the owner of the house.

Question 8.
Which products shown in the above picture do you use?
Answer:
Milk and dairy products, eggs are used in our day to day lives.

Give it a try:

Observe the pictures and answer the following questions.

Question 1.
What differences do you observe these pictures?
Answer:
In the pictures we can observe the changes in agricultural practices. It shows the transition from traditional to modern agriculture.
(a) Initially man cultivated crops using only manual labour. Later he started using various animals like bullocks to cultivate crops.
Today we use modern machines for various agricultural practices.

(b) Irrigation too has changed – from water allowed to flow freely in the field though pipes, man now uses modern methods like sprinkler & drip irrigation.

(c) Poultry farming is supplementary to cultivation of crops & is included in agriculture. Initially hens were reared in small numbers in open areas. But today hens are reared on a large scale. With use of modem techniques it leads to large scale production of eggs.

Question 2.
What changes have taken place in traditional agricultural practices?
Answer:
Traditionally agriculture was carried out using manual labour & bovine power. Today modem methods of agriculture include using machines tractors, harvests, fertilizers, insecticides, pesticides, etc. for better yield of crop.

Irrigation is used for ample water supply throughout the year to maximize crop production. Modern, scientific techniques & use of hybrid seed, leads to more productivity of land, (more crop production in limited land area)

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Which improper practices arising out of man’s greed are observed in agriculture.
Answer:
In order to produce the fruits and vegetables early and sell them quickly, man uses artificial chemical, which harms the soil & hampers the quality of production.

Question 2.
What means of irrigation are available in your area?
Answer:
(a) Drip and Sprinkler irrigation is used in many orchards across the konkan region of Maharashtra.
(b) Wells & tube wells are other methods used on large scale.

Question 3.
Have you observed the wastage of water in agriculture? If yes, describe it.
Answer:
There was a field in my native place. The farmer would water the field leaving the water pipe on the field. Lot of water would be wasted. But now the same farmer waters the field using sprinkler irrigation method. As a result there is no wastage of water, any more.

Question 4.
Which steps can easily be taken to avoid improper practices in agriculture?
Answer:
(a) System of Agricultural Produce Market committee should be established at taluka level and farmers should be encouraged to bring their produce and sell to the traders here

(b) As farm produce is perishable, there has to be a proper arrangement for its sale to avoid,wastage.

(c) Institutes like farmer’s organizations, consumer societies, etc. help and try to protect farmers from exploitation by agents, mediators and others.

(d) Farmers should not use artificial chemicals and pesticides.

Use your brainpower:

Question 1.
Why does extensive commercial farming need more capital?
Answer:
(a) Farm size is greater than 200 hectares.
(b) Due to large farm size and sparse population in the region, this type of farming is carried out with the help of machines like tractors and crushers.
(c) Pesticides are sprayed with the help of helicopters or planes.
(d) Since huge expenditures are needed for the purchase of machinery, fertilizers, pesticides, godowns, transport cost, etc. So extensive commercial farming needs more capital.

Question 2.
Why does plantation farming need skilled and experienced labour?
Answer:
(a) Farm size in plantation farming is 40 hectares or above.
(b) Plantation farming is practised in hilly tracts, so use of machines is not possible.
Hence, plantation farming needs skilled and experienced labour.

Question 3.
In what different ways is ground water obtained for agriculture?
Answer:
(a) Ground water is the water that is found underground.
(b) When it rains, about 20% of the rain water seeps into the ground, forming a water table.
(c) A well as deep as the water table is dug, in order for it to pump water to the fields for agriculture.
(d) Now days use of tube wells have become popular too

Class 7 Geography Chapter 9 Agriculture Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks choosing the correct options from the bracket:

Question 1.
Commercial dairy fanning is mainly undertaken for _________. (milk and fish, meat and milk, meat and poultry)
Answer:
meat and milk

Question 2.
Sheep rearing is carried out to obtain ________. (cotton, silk, wool)
Answer:
wool

Question 3.
In order to achieve the best growth of fish, ________ methods are employed. (pisciculture, scientific, electronic)
Answer:
scientific

Question 4.
Silk thread is obtained from the ______ of the silk moth. (cocoon, mulberry, skin)
Answer:
cocoon

Question 5.
Leaves of the ______ trees are the main food for the silk worms. (mulberry, pepal, coconut)
Answer:
mulberry

Question 6.
______ farming is a highly specialized type of farming of the modem era. (Intensive, Subsistence, Modern)
Answer:
Greenhouse

Question 7.
Intensive farming and shifting cultivation are the two types in ______ farming. (extensive, traditional, intensive)
Answer:
traditional

Question 8.
Shifting cultivation is a ________ type of cultivation, (primitive, extensive, intensive)
Answer:
primitive

Question 9.
Cultivation of flowers and fruits is a subtype of _______ gardening. (market, organic, plantation)
Answer:
market

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
_______ is a new field of tourism.
Answer:
Agrotourism

Question 2.
Most of the farmers are ________ weak and cannot market their product on their own.
Answer:
economically

Question 3.
As farm produce is ______ there has to be a proper arrangement for its sale.
Answer:
perishable

Question 4.
Some of the farm produce is directly used by industries as ______.
Answer:
raw material

Question 5.
_____ is a major exporter of fresh farm produce.
Answer:
Israel

Question 6.
International markets are now becoming easily available for farm produce due to _____.
Answer:
globalization

Question 7.
France and Italy are famous for ________.
Answer:
horticulture

Question 8.
____ is obtained from organic waste.
Answer:
Vermicompost

Select the proper option for the following statements:

Question 1.
Heavy capital investment is necessary for
(a) Subsistence farming
(b) Extensive grain farming
(c) Shifting cultivation
(d) Dairy farming
Answer:
(b) Extensive grain farming

Question 2.
Getting maximum production from a minimum area is the characteristic of
(a) Plantation farming
(b) Intensive farming
(c) Horticulture
(d) Extensive grain farming
Answer:
(b) Intensive farming

Complete the following sentence:

Question 1.
For our basic needs of food and clothing ______.
Answer:
we make use of plants and animals

Question 2.
In agricultural occupation, resources like _______.
Answer:
manpower, animals, implements, etc. are used

Question 3.
In the past primitive man had to wander in the forest to ______.
Answer:
sustain himself on the collected forest produce

Question 4.
Bees in order to collect honey, _______.
Answer:
hover around the plants that bear flowers

Question 5.
Silk thread is obtained from the _________.
Answer:
cocoon of the silk moth

Question 6.
Greenhouse farming facilitates _______.
Answer:
getting maximum product from the land

Question 7.
Greenhouse farming is ________.
Answer:
highly specialized type of farming of the modern era

Question 8.
Different types of agriculture has evolved due to _______.
Answer:
geographical and cultural diversity and technological differences in different regions

Question 9.
Intensive farming is carried out in ________.
Answer:
one and the same farm for years together

Question 10.
In shifting cultivation, ________.
Answer:
every year a new area is chosen for cultivation

Question 11.
The problems in extensive grain farming are ______.
Answer:
droughts, attacks by pests, locusts, etc. and also market fluctuation

Question 12.
Market gardening has developed mainly as a _______.
Answer:
result of urbanization and the ready markets available in urban centres

Question 13.
Cultivation of flowers and fruits is a ________.
Answer:
subtype of market gardening

Question 14.
As farm produce is perishable, _________.
Answer:
there has to be a proper arrangement for its sale

Question 15.
Most of the farmers are ______.
Answer:
economically weak and cannot market their production on their own.

Question 16.
By advertising on the internet, ______.
Answer:
the agricultural products get sold in local as well as international markets

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
What do we depend on for our basic needs of food and clothing?
Answer:
For our basic needs of food and clothing, we make use of plants and animals.

Question 2.
What is considered to be the main and the most important occupation in agriculture?
Answer:
In agriculture, cultivation of crops is considered to be the main and the most important occupation.

Question 3.
Why had the primitive man to wander in the forest in the past?
Answer:
Primitive man had to wander in the forest to sustain himself on the collected forest produce.

Question 4.
What is the core of animal husbandry?
Answer:
Rearing different animals and obtaining various products from them for subsistence is the core of animal husbandry.

Question 5.
On what do sheep and goats survive?
Answer:
Sheep and goats survive on short grass, shrubs and acacia, grown in remote hilly areas away from urban settlements.

Question 6.
What do we obtain from Beekeeping occupation?
Answer:
We obtain honey and wax from Beekeeping.

Question 7.
What is Pisciculture?
Answer:
Pisciculture is also called fish farming in which fish seeds are released in the pond to achieve the best growth of fish.

Question 8.
Name the fish reared in fish farms.
Answer:
Warn, Roha, Rawas, Kolambi are reared in fish farms.

Question 9.
What is used to weave soft silk cloth?
Answer:
Fine and strong silk thread obtained from the cocoon of the silk moth are used to weave soft silk cloth.

Question 10.
Which is the highly specialized type of farming of the modem era?
Answer:
Greenhouse farming is a highly specialized type of farming of the modem era.

Question 11.
Which are the two types in traditional farming?
Answer:
Intensive farming and shifting cultivation are the two types in traditional farming.

Question 12.
What is the characteristic of intensive farming?
Answer:
Getting maximum production from a minimum area of land is the characteristic of intensive farming.

Question 13.
Where is shifting cultivation practised?
Answer:
Shifting cultivation is practised in the tropics in densely forested areas or hilly tracts.

Question 14.
Name the two major types of farming covered under commercial farming.
Answer:
Extensive grain farming and plantation agriculture are the two major types of farming covered under commercial farming.

Question 15.
What are the problems in extensive grain farming?
Answer:
The problems in extensive grain farming are droughts, attack by pests, locusts, etc. and market fluctuations.

Question 16.
What are the major issues faced by the plantation farming?
Answer:
Climate, manpower, deterioration of environment, economic and managerial problems are the major issues faced by the plantation farming.

Question 17.
Where is plantation farming practised?
Answer:
Plantation farming is practised in India and other South Asian countries, Africa, South and Central America, etc.

Question 18.
What is a subtype of market gardening?
Answer:
Cultivation of flowers and fruits is a subtype of market gardening.

Question 19.
What are the major products of horticulture?
Answer:
Major products of horticulture are flowers like lily, gerbera, tulip, dahlia, chrysanthemum, marigold, etc.

Question 20.
Name some native and exotic fruits cultivated in fruit farming.
Answer:
Different native and exotic fruits like mangoes, custard apples, grapes, bananas, pomegranates, dragon fruits, cherries, oranges, strawberries, raspberries, etc.

Question 21.
What is organic farming?
Answer:
When farming is done using all vestal matter mixed in the soil, it is called organic farming.

Question 22.
Why do city dwellers visit the rural areas?
Answer:
City dwellers are curious about the farmers life and environment so they visit the rural areas to see the rural life, local customs and culture.

Question 23.
Why are some fruits and vegetables harmful to health?
Answer:
Some fruits and vegetables may have been produced using artificial chemicals, and pesticides for quicker production. Such fruits and vegetables are harmful to health.

Give geographical reasons:

Question 1.
The system of Agricultural Produce Market Committees is established at the Taluka level.
Answer:

• Most of the farmers are economically weak.
• These farmers cannot market their production on their own.
• At these places, farmers bring their produce and sell to the traders.
• Hence, the system of Agricultural produce market committee is established at taluka level.

Question 2.
Poultry occupation is generally located in big cities.
Answer:

• Running a poultry on commercial basis requires a lot of care.
• For this scientific methods are employed.
• Areas in big cities provide a ready market for this occupation.
• Hence poultry occupation is generally located in big cities.

Question 3.
Bee keeping is an important occupation with respect to agriculture.
Answer:

• Beekeeping occupation is undertaken to obtain honey and wax.
• In order to collect honey, bees hover around the plants that bear flowers.
• This promotes the process of pollination .
• Pollination helps the trees to bear large number of fruits and increase the yield of crops. Hence, Bee keeping is an important occupation with respect to agriculture.

Question 4.
Specific type of fish species are reared separately.
Answer:

• During fishing, different types of fish and other aquatic organisms get caught in the fishing nets.
• Separating them becomes a major task.
• All organisms do not fetch the same price. Due to the above factors specific type of fish species are reared separately.

Question 5.
The expenditure of planting mulberry trees every year is saved.
Answer:

• Leaves of mulberry trees are the main food for the silk worms.
• Once planted, the mulberry trees survive for a minimum period of 15 years.
• Hence, the expenditure of planting mulberry trees every year is saved.

Question 6.
Last few years, has seen the development of nurseries.
Answer:

• In the last few years, the area under floriculture cultivation of medicinal and aromatic plants and horticulture has increased.
• These plantations require a high standard of seedlings, cuttings, bulbs and seeds.
• Nurseries give good returns.
• This has led to the development of nurseries.

Question 7.
Heavy capital investment is necessary for extensive grain fanning.
Answer:

• Extensive grain farming Is carried out with the help of machines like tractors and crushers.
• Pesticides are sprayed with the help of helicopters or planes.
• Huge expenditures are needed for the purchase of machinery, fertilizers, pesticides, godowns, transport cost, etc.
• So heavy capital investment is necessary for extensive grain farming.

Question 8.
Market gardening is also known as truck farming.
Answer:

(i) Market gardening has developed as a result of urbanization and the ready markets available in urban centres.

(ii) Farmers cultivate vegetables and other items in the vicinity of urban centres to cater to the demands of city dwellers.

(iii) Market gardening is dependent on good transport network.

(iv) The quality and price of the product is determined by rapid transport. Hence, market gardening is also known as ‘truck farming’.

Question 9.
Agrotourism is financially beneficial for the farmer and his village.
Answer:

• Agrotourism is a new field in tourism.
• In the tropics, various types of agricultural products are cultivated.
• City dwellers are curious about the farmer’s life and environment.
• Many of the city dwellers visit the rural areas to see this. So, Agrotourism is financially beneficial for the farmer and his village.

Question 10.
In intensive farming the economic condition of the cultivator is poor.
Answer:

• Intensive farming is practised in areas of high population.
• Due to large population per head holding is small.
• Because of small land holding & traditional methods of cultivation farm production is sufficient only for the requirement of the family.
• As the farm production is low, the economic conditions of the cultivator is poor.

Question 11.
How do farmers grow their crops?
Answer:

• After deciding what to grow, farmers often till the land by loosening the soil.
• The soil is then mixed with fertilizers.
• Then they sow seeds or plant seedlings.
• When the crops are growing farmer must water the seed and kill crop pests.

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Greenhouse farming:
Answer:
(i) Greenhouse farming is a highly specialized type of farming of the modem era.

(ii) For erecting a greenhouse galvanized iron pipes and plastic sheets are used. It can have total control on natural factors like climate, heat, atmospheric moisture as well as soil moisture.

(iii) Its main aim is to control pest attack by controlling water, light & temperature.

(iv) Green house farming facilitates getting maximum product from land. It assists in getting maximum economic benefit

(e) Greenhouses are used on large scale for growing flowers like lily & gerbera to igive maximum returns.

Question 2.
Market gardening:
Answer:
(i) Market gardening is a type of cultivation developed mainly as a result of urbanization & ready markets available in urban centres.

(ii) Farmers cultivate vegetables & other items in the vicinity1 of urban centres to cater to the demands of city dwellers.

(iii) The landholding is small. Use of irrigation, organic & chemical fertilizers, low investment, use of manpower, demand of markets, use of science & technology are the characteristics of market gardening.

(iv) It is dependent on good transport network. The quality & price of the product is determined by rapid transport. Hence this type of farming is also called truck farming.

Question 3.
Organic farming:
Answer:

(i) The nutrient requirements of the crops is fulfilled by soil & therefore replenishment of used up nutrients is necessary.

(ii) Nutrients are also used abundantly to increase the yield. Organic fertilizers are prepared for this purpose

(iii) The litter should be decomposed in the ground. Grass like resbania or jute are also buried in the soil for making manures Cowdung & compost manures are used. Vermicompost is obtained from organic waste.

(iv) When farming is done using all the vestal matter mixed in the soil it is called organic farming

(v) The crop obtained from organic farming is high in quality.

Question 4.
Agrotourism:
Answer:

• Agrotourism is a new field in tourism.
• Vicinity – the area near or surrounding a particular place.
• In the tropics various types of agricultural products are cultivated. Hence there is greater scope for agrotourism.
• In agrarian countries the rural life, local customs & culture are utilized for agrotourism.
• City dwellers are curious about the farmers’ life & environment and many of them visit rural areas just to see this.
• Agrotourism is financially beneficial for the farmer & his village.

Question 5.
Importance of marketing system in India:
Answer:
The following points explain the importance of marketing systems in countries like India:

• Agriculture in India is scattered over vast areas.
• All farmers are not organized.
• Most of the farmers are economically weak & cannot market their production on their own.
• As farm produce is perishable, there has to be a proper arrangement for its sale.

Question 6.
Beekeeping.
Answer:

• Beekeeping is an important occupation with respect to agriculture
• It is undertaken to obtain honey & wax. In order to collect honey, bees hover around the plants that bear flowers.
• This promotes the process of pollination.
• As a result, the trees bear large number of fruits & the crop yields increase.

Question 7.
Pisciculture or Fish farming:
Answer:

• Farm ponds are dug out for the purpose of pisciculture. Water is stored in such ponds.
• Fish seeds are released in the ponds. For this seeds of fresh water species are used.
• In order to achieve the best growth of fish, scientific methods are employed.

Question 8.
Give comparative account of any two methods of irrigation
Answer:
Well irrigation, canal irrigation, drip & sprinkler irrigation, tank irrigation etc. are various methods of irrigation. Wells & canals have been used for irrigation since ancient times.

Well irrigation:-

• In this type of irrigation, a well is dug in the ground from which ground water is taken out for irrigation,
• The area required for digging wells is less,
• It is a cheap, dependable & popular method of irrigation in India.

Canal irrigation:-

• In this type of irrigation, dams are constructed on rivers & water of the river is stored in the reservoir,
• The stored water is then supplied to fields with the help of canals,
• Canal irrigation requires vast area for construction of dam as well as constructing network of canals,
• Canal irrigation is dependable but costly method of irrigation.

Question 9.
Sericulture:
Answer:

• Rearing of silkworm in order to obtain silk is sericulture.
• Leaves of the mulberry trees are the main food for these silk worms.
• Once planted the mulberry trees survive for a minimum period of 15 years.
• Silk thread is obtained from the cocoon of the silk. These threads are very fine & strong. They are used to weave silk cloth.

7th Std Geography Questions And Answers:

• How Seasons Occur Part 1 Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• The Sun, the Moon and the Earth Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Tides Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Air Pressure Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Winds Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Natural Regions Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Soils Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• How Seasons Occur Part 2 Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Agriculture Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Human Settlements Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Contour Maps and Landforms Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Part 1 Chapter 1 How Seasons Occur Part 1 Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 7 Geography Chapter 1 Question Answer How Seasons Occur Part 1 Maharashtra Board

Class 7 Geography Chapter 1 How Seasons Occur Part 1 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

How Seasons Occur Part 1 Class 7 Questions And Answers

1. Answer the following questions in one sentence:

Question 1.
How do day and nigbt occur on the earth?
Answer:
Day and night occur on the earth because of the earths rotation.

Question 2.
What term is used to describe the earth’s revolution around the sun?
Answer:
The term orbital motion is used to describe the earth’s revolution around the sun.

Question 3.
How long does the earth take to do so?
Answer:
The earth takes 365 days and 6 hours to complete one revolution.

Question 4.
In which hemispheres is our country located?
Answer:
Our country lies in the northeastern hemisphere.

Question 5.
Why don’t the sun’s rays fall perpendicularly at all places on the earth?
Answer:
The sun’s rays do not fall perpendicularly at all the places on the earth because the earth is not flat but spherical in shape.

2. Can you tell?

Records of the entries of sunrise and sunset for the month of June are given below. Answer the questions, that follow.

Date	Sunrise	Sunset	Day	Night	Source of Information
19th June	06.01	19:18	13 Hrs. 16 Min.	10 Hrs. 44 Min.	Time and date
20th June	06.02	19:18	13 Hrs. 16 Min.	10 Hrs. 44 Min.	Time and date
21st June	06.02	19:18	13 Hrs. 16 Min.	10 Hrs. 44 Min.	Time and date
22nd June	06.02	19:18	13 Hrs. 16 Min.	10 Hrs. 44 Min.	Time and date
23rd June	06.02	19:19	13 Hrs. 16 Min.	10 Hrs. 44 Min.	Time and date
24th June	06.02	19:19	13 Hrs. 16 Min.	10 Hrs. 44 Min.	Time and date
25th June	06.03	19:19	13 Hrs. 16 Min.	10 Hrs. 44 Min.	Time and date
26th June	06.03	19:19	13 Hrs. 16 Min.	10 Hrs. 44 Min.	Time and date
27th June	06.03	19:19	13 Hrs. 15 Min.	10 Hrs. 45 Min.	Time and date
28th June	06.04	19:19	13 Hrs. 15 Min.	10 Hrs. 45 Min.	Time and date

Question 1.
Refer to the table above and state which are the longest days?
Answer:
The longest days are from 19th June to 26th June.

Question 2.
What difference do you notice in the duration of the nights from 19th June to 28th June?
Answer:
The duration of the nights keeps on increasing day by day.

Question 3.
What is the reason behind it?
Answer:
The sun is now moving southwards.

Question 4.
How did you find out the duration of the night?
Answer:
The duration of the day is subtracted from 24 hours to get the duration of the night.

Question 5.
Which two dates have days and nights of the same duration?
Answer:
March 22 and September 23 have the same duration of days and nights.

Question 6.
With the help of the table, you saw how the duration of the day and the night changes. Do you think such a change occurs everywhere on the earth?
Answer:
Yes, duration of day and night changes everywhere on the earth.

Question 7.
Use the above format to record the duration of daytime from 19th to 28th of every month from September to December.
Answer:
Students should expected to attempt the activity & answer on their own.

3. Think about it:

Question 1.
If the position of the shadow on the wall moves towards the north, in which direction does the location of sunrise or sunset appear to shift?
Answer:
If the position of the shadow on the wall moves towards the north, the location of sunrise or sunset will shift southwards.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 1 How Seasons Occur Part 1 Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks choosing the correct options from the brackets:

Question 1.
The earth’s _______ has enabled us to measure time in terms of days. (revolution, rotation, orbital motion)
Answer:
rotation

Question 2.
The earth rotates from _________ (north to south, east to west, west to east)
Answer:
west to east

Question 3.
The Earth takes _______ hours to rotate around itself. (365,144, 24)
Answer:
24

Question 4.
India lies in the ____ hemisphere. (northeastern, northwestern, southeastern)
Answer:
northeastern

Question 5.
The ________of sunrise and the sunset on the horizon³ for the whole year keep on changing. (position, shadow, rotation)
Answer:
position

7th Std Geography Questions And Answers:

• How Seasons Occur Part 1 Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• The Sun, the Moon and the Earth Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Tides Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Air Pressure Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Winds Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Natural Regions Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Soils Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• How Seasons Occur Part 2 Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Agriculture Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Human Settlements Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Contour Maps and Landforms Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Part 1 Chapter Chapter 8 How Seasons Occur Part 2 Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 7 Geography Chapter 8 Question Answer How Seasons Occur Part 2 Maharashtra Board

Class 7 Geography Chapter 8 How Seasons Occur Part 2 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

How Seasons Occur Part 2 Class 7 Questions And Answers

1. Complete the statements using correct options:

How Seasons Occur Part 2 Class 7 Question 1.
The apparent movement of the sun means that ________.
(a) the sun revolves around the earth in a year.
(b) it appears that the sun moves to the north or south in a year.
(c) the earth keeps on changing its position.
Answer:
(b) it appears that the sun moves to the north or south in a year.

How Seasons Occur Part 2 Question 2.
If the axis of the earth were not tilted ________.
(a) the earth would not have rotated around , itself.
(b) the earth would have revolved around the sun with greater velocity.
(c) different parallels on the earth would have experienced the same climate throughout the year.
Answer:
(c) different parallels on the earth would have experienced the same climate throughout the year.

How Seasons Occur – Part 2 Class 7 Questions And Answers Question 3.
21sl June and 22nd December are solstice days, that is ________.
(a) the sun starts its southward journey from Tropic of Cancer on 21st June and Northward journey from Tropic of Capricon on 22nd December.
(b) the Dakshinayan of the sun takes place between 21st June and 22nd December.
(c) the Uttarayan of the earth takes place between 22nd December and 21st June.
Answer:
(a) the sun starts its southward journey from Tropic of Cancer on 21st June and Northward journey from Tropic of Capricon on 22nd December.

How Seasons Occur – Part 2 Class 7 Answers Question 4.
The revolution of the earth around the Sun and the tilt of the axis of the earth together are responsible for the ______.
(a) summer, rainy season, retreat of monsoon, winter.
(b) summer, winter and spring.
(c) summer and winter.
Answer:
(c) summer and winter.

2. Answer the following questions:

How Seasons Occur – Part 2 Questions And Answers Question 1.
What leads to the occurrence of seasons?
Answer:
(i) Seasons occur due to the revolution of the earth.
(ii) Seasons also occur due to the tilt of the earth’s axis of rotation.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 8 How Seasons Occur Part 2 Question 2.
What is the duration of the day on equinox?
Answer:
(i) The circle of illumination divides all the parallels from the north pole to the south pole equally.
(ii) Everywhere on the earth, the night time and day time are of equal duration. This condition is called equinox.
(iii) Thus, the duration of the day will be twelve hours on equinox.

How Seasons Occur – Part 1 Class 7 Questions And Answers Question 3.
Why is the effect of the seasons not experienced in the equatorial region?
Answer:
(i) Seasons have been decided on the basis of the duration of sunlight, equinoxes & solstices
(i) The equatorial region receives perpendicular sunray almost throughout the year.
(ii) Hence the climate of that region does not change at all in the year.
(iii) Hence the effect of the seasons is not experienced in the equatorial region.

How Seasons Occur – Part 1 Questions And Answers Question 4.
Why is the sun visible for more than 24 hours during Dakshinayan in the region between the Antarctic Circle and the South Pole?
Answer:
(i) Sunrays are never perpendicular on any of the parallels between Tropic of Cancer & the North pole or between Tropic of Capricorn & the South pole.
(ii) In the period from 23rd September to 21st March (Dakshinayan) the region between Antarctic circle and the south faces the sun. The whole of Antarctic Circle falls within the zone of illumination.
(iii) So the sun is visible in the sky for more than 24 hours.

Geography Class 7 How Seasons Occur – Part 2 Question 5.
Why are penguins not found at the North Pole?
Answer:
(i) The living world on the earth is affected by the cycle of seasons.
(ii) Penguins are native to south pole. Penguins have adapted to the natural conditions prevailing in the Antarctic regions of the south pole.
(iii) Besides predators like polar bears roam within the Arctic Circle. Hence penguins are found at the South pole & not at the North pole.

3. Rewrite the following statements after correcting them:

Question 1.
The earth’s velocity varies according to the period of revolution.
Answer:
The earth’s velocity varies due to the rotation of the earth.

Question 2.
If we observe from the northern hemisphere we see the apparent movement of the sun.
Answer:
We see the apparent movement of the sun from both the northern & southern hemispheres.

Question 3.
The dates of equinox change every year.
Answer:
The dates of equinox does not change every year. They vary by a day or so.

Question 4.
North Canada experiences summer from September to March.
Answer:
North Canada experience winter from September to March.

Question 5.
When it is summer in South Africa, Australia has winter.
Answer:
When it is summer in South Africa, Australia has summer.

Question 6.
Duration of daytime is less on the vernal and autumnal equinoxes.
Answer:
On the vernal (spring) equinox and autumnal equinox, day and night time are of the same duration.

4. Spot the error in the diagram given below:

Answer:
Spring Equinox – 21st March
Summer Solstice – 21st June
Winter Solstice – 22nd December

5. Draw a diagram showing the cycle of seasons in the southern hemisphere.
Answer:

ICT Question :

Question 1.
Using the internet sites or a calendar, find and note the duration of the day for specific dates between 22nd March and 23rd September. Calculate the duration of the nights too. Using this information draw a compound bar graph.
Question 2.
Draw a diagram of aphelion and perihelion positions of the earth on the computer.

Activity:

Using the internet, collect pictorial information of any four migratory birds/animals.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 8 How Seasons Occur Part 2 InText Questions and Answers

Can you tell:

Figure shows the position of the earth with its tilted axis on 21st June and 22nd December. It also shows its illuminated and dark positions. Observe the figure and answer the following.

Question 1.
In fig ‘A which pole is receiving sunlight?
Answer:
North Pole is receiving sunlight in Fig ‘A’

Question 2.
In fig ‘B’ which pole is not receiving sunlight?
Answer:
North Pole is not receiving sunlight in Fig. ‘B’

Question 3.
Which hemisphere has the longest daytime on 21st June?
Answer:
Northern hemisphere has the longest daytime on 21st June.

Question 4.
Which hemisphere will have the longest night on 22nd December?
Answer:
Northern hemisphere will have the largest night in 22nd December.

Question 5.
On which date will the Tropic of Cancer receive perpendicular sunrays?
Answer:
The Tropic of Cancer will receive perpendicular sunrays on 21st June.

Question 6.
Considering the position of the north pole, which season will prevail in the northern hemisphere from 22nd March to 23rd September?
Answer:
Summer season will prevail in the northern hemisphere from 22nd March to 23rd September.

Question 7.
The cricket matches in Australia are generally in summer, when does Australia have summer?
Answer:
Summer season prevails in Australia from 23rd September to 21st March.

Question 8.
In which period is the ‘midnight sun’ observable in Norway? Which season will there be at that time?
Answer:
Midnight sun is observable in Norway from 21st March to 23rd September. It will be summer in Norway that time.

Question 9.
At what time will the midnight sun be visible at the “Bharati Research Station” of India at Antarctica? What will be the season there at that time?
Answer:
The midnight sun will be visible at Bharati Research Station of India at Antarctica from 23rd September to 21st March. It will be summer season there.

Use your brain power:

Question 1.
The summer capital of Jammu & Kashmir is Srinagar while the winter capital is Jammu. What could be the reason?
Answer:
(i) Jammu is located in the southern part of the state of Jammu & Kashmir whereas Srinagar is located to its north.

(ii) Also Jammu is located at an altitude of 350m whereas Srinagar is located at an altitude of approximately 1500m.

(iii) So Jammu has higher temperature in summer as compared to Srinagar. As Srinagar has pleasant climate in summer, it acts as summer capital of the state.

(iv) As winters are not very cold in Jammu & it is early accessible, it acts as a winter capital of the state.

Question 2.
While India & England are located in the same hemisphere why are the cricket matches in these two countries arranged in different months?
Answer:
(i) As India is a tropical country summers temperature are very high. England on the other hand falls in the temperate zone which has mild summers. Hence, England is suitable for cricket matches in summer.

(ii) As England lies in the temperate zone it her very cold winters. India on the other hand has mild winters as it is a tropical country. Thus India is suitable for cricket matches in winters. Hence, although India & England are located in the same hemisphere, due to latitudinal differences, the cricket matches in these two countries are arranged in different months.

Question 3.
On 21st March and 23rd September, daytime and night time are same all over the earth. But why do some parts experience summer and some winter on the these days?
Answer:
(i) If the earth’s axis were not tilted, the same climatic conditions would have prevailed on each of the different parallels throughout the year.

(ii) The seasons would not have occurred. It is due to the tilt of the earth’s axis that some parts of the earth experience summer and some winter on these days.

Question 4.
Mention any two countries in the world where one needs woollen clothing in the month of May. Also mention their latitudinal positions.
Answer:
South Africa is on 23°S latitude.
Iceland is on 65°N latitude.

Question 5.
On equinox days, the two poles experience either sunrise or sunset. On which pole will it be sunrise on 21st March?
Answer:
Sunrise will be experienced on the North pole.

Think about it:

Question 1.
In which direction will the location of sunrise and sunset appear to move after 22nd of December?
Answer:
On 22nd December the sun reaches the southernmost position as seen from the earth. The sun seems to stand still at the Tropic of Capricon and then reverses its direction. The sun appears to move northwards after 22nd December.

Observe Fig of textbook page 47 carefully & answer:

Question 2.
positioned relative to the sun on the dates given in the figure?
Answer:
(i) The northern hemisphere is tilted towards the sun in the period between 21st March is 23rd September. Hence, northern hemisphere experiences summer season.

(ii) It is tilted away from the sun in the period between 23rd September to 21st March. Hence, northern hemisphere experiences winter season.

Question 3.
Which season will you experience in the northern hemisphere around 22nd December?
Answer:
We will experience Winter season in the northern hemisphere around 22nd December.

Question 4.
What would be the season in the northern hemisphere around 21st June?
Answer:
It will be Summer season in the northern hemisphere around 21st June.

Question 5.
If it is winter in the northern hemisphere which season will it be in opposite hemisphere?
Answer:
If it is winter in the northern hemisphere, the southern hemisphere will experience summer season.

Question 6.
At any given point of time why are the season in the northern and southern hemisphere different?
Answer:
(i) Regardless of the time of the year, the northern and southern hemisphere experience opposite seasons.

(ii) In the period from 21st March to 23rd September the northern hemisphere is exposed to more direct sunlight because this hemisphere faces the sun.

(iii) In the period from 23rd September to 21st March the southern hemisphere is exposed to more direct sunlight.

(iv) It is the tilt of the Earth that causes the difference in the seasons.

Question 7.
What effects do the seasons have on the biodiversity in India? Write briefly about it:
Answer:
(i) The living world on the earth is affected by the cycle of seasons.

(ii) Change in seasons cause immense biodiversity loss, affecting both individual species and their ecosystem that support economic growth and human well being.

(iii) Greater frequency and severity of heat waves and extreme weather is a threat to the survival of mankind and animals too.

(iv) Floral and animal activity variation depends on seasonal temperature variation with different species flowering at specific times before or after monsoon seasons.

(v) Any change in rainfall pattern poses a threat to agriculture.

Give it a try:

Question 1.
Regarding daytime & the cycle of season, what conditions would have prevailed at the following place, if the earth’s axis were not tilled? (Canada, Tasmania, Nigeria, West Indies, Peru, Borneo)
Answer:

• Effect on day & night time: If the earth’s axis were not titled the duration of day time & night time would have been equal throughout the year.
• Effect on seasons: There would be no seasonal change on the earth.
• Canada and Tasmania would experience winter throughout the year as they are located near the poles.
• West Indies, Peru, Nigeria, Borneo would experience summer throughout the year as they are located near the equator.

Can you tell:

Discuss the activity you have been carrying out since June (Refer ch. 1) make use of the observation tables for the months of June, September & December.

Question 1.
In which month the duration of the day was around 12 hours?
Answer:
The duration of the day was around 12 hours in the month of September.

Question 2.
What could be the reason behind it?
Answer:
The duration of day is 12 hours in the month of September because both the hemispheres of the earth are at equal distance from the sun & the equator receives perpendicular rays of the sun.

Question 3.
Bring out the differences between the duration of daytime in the months of June, September & December.
Answer:
The duration of day is around 13 hours in the month of June. It decreases to around 12 hours in the month of September. It is around 11 hours in the month of December.

Question 4.
What could be the reason for the change in the shadow of the stick?
Answer:
There is a change in the shadow of the stick because there is a change in position of the sunrise & sunset.

Question 5.
What did you observe about the position of the sun at the horizon at the time of sunrise & sunset?
Answer:
(i) After 21st June the position of the sun at the horizon at the time of sunrise & sunset shifted southwards.
(ii) After 22nd December the position of the sun at the horizon at the time of sunrise & sunset shifted north wards.

Question 6.
Which of the following factors could be related with the change in the position of the shadow of the stick & the difference in the duration of daytime?
(i) Rotation of the earth
(ii) Distance between the earth & the sun
(iii) Revolution of the earth.
(iv) The axis of the earth.
Answer:
(i) Revolution of the earth
(ii) The axis of the earth.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 8 How Seasons Occur Part 2 Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
The position of the sun at sunrise, appears to change on the ______ everyday.
Answer:
horizon

Question 2.
_______ occurs only with reference to the northern and the southern hemispheres.
Answer:
Seasons

Question 3.
The path of the revolution of the earth around the sun is ______.
Answer:
elliptical

Question 4.
As the earth revolves around the sun, its perpendicular rays fall on the _____ twice a year.
Answer:
equator

Question 5.
In the northern hemisphere prevails from 21st March to 21st June, while ______ prevails from 23rd September to 22nd December.
Answer:
spring, autumn

Question 6.
________ is the longest day and has the shortest night in the northern hemisphere.
Answer:
21st June

Question 7.
_____ marks the longest day and the shortest night in the southern hemisphere.
Answer:
22nd December

Question 8.
On the _____ the duration of day and night is the same throughout the year.
Answer:
equator

Question 9.
The occurrence of seasons one after the other leads to the ______.
Answer:
cycle of seasons

Question 10.
Agricultural seasons also depend on the local ________ conditions.
Answer:
climatic

Question 11.
Continuous, occurrence of rain in a specific period gives rise to additional _______ besides summer and winter.
Answer:
season

Question 12.
On _____ and ______ day time and night time are same all over the earth.
Answer:
21st March, 23rd September

Question 13.
The period in which the position of the rising sun keeps moving towards the south is called _______.
Answer:
Dakshinayan

Question 14.
The period in which the position of the rising sun keeps moving towards the north is called _______.
Answer:
Uttarayan

Question 15.
In the northern hemisphere 23rd September is called ____ equinox.
Answer:
Autumnal

Complete the following sentence:

Question 1.
The movement of the sun towards the north or south in a year is called ________.
Answer:
the apparent movement of the sun

Question 2.
Seasons occur only with reference to _______.
Answer:
the northern and the southern hemisphere

Question 3.
The diurnal apparent movement of the sun is related to _______.
Answer:
the rotation of the earth

Question 4.
The annual apparent movement of the sun is related to ______.
Answer:
the revolution of the earth and the tilt of earth’s axis

Question 5.
In the first week of July, the earth is at _______.
Answer:
the farthest point from the sun.

Question 6.
The circle of illumination1 divides ______.
Answer:
all the parallels from the north pole to the south pole equally.

Question 7.
In the northern hemisphere, spring prevails ______.
Answer:
from 21st March to 21st June.

Question 8.
In the northern hemisphere, autumn prevails ______.
Answer:
from 23rd September to 22nd December.

Question 9.
Only on 21st June and 22nd December, the sun rays become _____.
Answer:
perpendicular on the Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricon respectively

Question 10.
Seasons have been decided on the basis of _________.
Answer:
the duration of sunlight, equinoxes and solstices

Question 11.
The living world on the earth is affected by ________.
Answer:
the cycle of seasons.

Question 12.
Continuous occurrence of rain in a specific period gives rise to _____.
Answer:
an additional season besides summer and winter.

Complete the statements using the correct options:

Question 1.
In the course of one year, Arctic tern has to travel in search of food.
(a) around 50,000 km.
(b) around 70,000 km.
(c) around 90,000 km.
Answer:
(b) around 70,000 km.

Question 2.
Due to severe winter and lack of food, Siberian cranes from the cold northern regions visit India travelling around
(a) 8 to 10 thousand kilometers.
(b) 10 to 12 thousand kilometers.
(c) 12 to 14 thousand kilometers.
Answer:
(a) 8 to 10 thousand kilometers.

Question 3.
The two Poles experience either sunrise or sunset on
(a) Solstice days.
(b) Equinox days.
(c) Dakshinayan.
Answer:
(b) Equinox days.

Question 4.
The diurnal apparent movement of the sun is related to
(a) the revolution of the earth.
(b) rotation of the earth.
(c) tilt of the earth’s axis.
Answer:
(b) rotation of the earth

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
What is the apparent movement of the sun?
Answer:
The movement of the sun towards the north or south in a year is called the apparent movement of the sun.

Question 2.
What is Equinox?
Answer:
On 21st March and 23rd September, the north pole and the south pole are at the same distance from the earth due to which the daytime & night time are of equal duration every where on earth. This is called Equinox.

Question 3.
How have seasons been decided?
Answer:
Seasons have been decided on the basis of the duration of sunlight, equinoxes and solstices.

Question 4.
Name the four seasons of Europe and North America.
Answer:
The four seasons in Europe and North America are summer, autumn, winter and spring.

Question 5.
Which living creatures are found in the Antarctic region?
Answer:
Birds like penguins, fish like seal and animals like walruses are found in the Antarctic region.

Question 6.
Which animals are found in the polar region of the northern hemisphere?
Answer:
In the polar region of the northern hemisphere animals like reindeer, polar bears, Arctic foxes, etc are found.

Question 7.
What are the factors that influence the seasons?
Answer:
The changes in the atmosphere, vapour in the air, the wind and the precipitation influence the seasons.

Question 8.
What do you mean by Dakshinayan?
Answer:
The period in which (from 21st June to 22nd December) the position of the rising sun keeps on moving towards the south is called as Dakshinayan.

Question 9.
What is Uttarayan?
Answer:
The period in which (from 22nd December to 21st June) the position of the rising sun keeps on moving towards the north is called as Uttarayan.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What is called perihelion position of the earth?
Answer:

• As the earth moves in an ellipse, its distance from the sun does not remain the same.
•  It is at its minimum distance in the first week of January.
• This is called the perihelion position of the earth.

Question 2.
What is called aphelion position of the earth.
Answer:

• In the first week of July, the earth is at the farthest point from the sun.
• This is called the aphelion position.

Question 3.
What is called circle of illumination?
Answer:

• The illuminated and dark portions of all the parallels including the equator is called circle of illumination.
• It divides all the parallels from the north pole to the south pole equally.

Question 4.
What are Solstice days?
Answer:

• Solstice days are the days when the earth’s tilt towards the sun is at its maximum.
• On 21st June the northern hemisphere is tilted towards the sun and the Tropic of Cancer starts receiving perpendicular rays of the sun.
• On 22nd December the Southern hemisphere is tilted towards the sun & the Tropic of Capricorn starts receiving perpendicular rays of the sun.
• These two days are called solstice days.

Question 5.
Draw the diagram showing the Aphelion and perihelion position:
Answer:

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions

7th Std Geography Questions And Answers:

• How Seasons Occur Part 1 Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• The Sun, the Moon and the Earth Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Tides Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Air Pressure Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Winds Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Natural Regions Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Soils Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• How Seasons Occur Part 2 Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Agriculture Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Human Settlements Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Contour Maps and Landforms Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Air Pressure Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 7 Geography Chapter 4 Question Answer Air Pressure Maharashtra Board

Class 7 Geography Chapter 4 Air Pressure Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Air Pressure Class 7 Questions And Answers

1. Give reasons:

Question 1.
Air pressure decreases with increasing altitude.
Answer:

• The proportion of dust in the air, water vapour, heavy gases, etc. is higher in the air and closer to the surface of the earth.
• This proportion decreases with increasing altitude.
• As one moves higher and higher from the surface of the earth, the air becomes thinner and thinner.
• As a result, the air pressure decreases with increasing altitude.

Question 2.
Pressure belts oscillate.
Answer:

• The duration and the intensity of sunrays varies during particular periods of the year in both the hemispheres.
• So, the locations of the temperature zones and the pressure belts dependent on the sun’s heat also vary.
• This change is of the order of 5° to 7° towards the north in Uttarayan1 and 5° to 7° south in Dakshinayan2.
• In this way pressure belts oscillate.

2. Give short answers to the following questions.

Question 1.
What effect does temperature have on air pressure?
Answer:

• Temperature and air pressure are closely related. Wherever the temperature is high, the air pressure is low.
• As the temperature rises, the air gets heated, expands, and becomes lighter.
• This lighter air in the vicinity of the earth’s surface starts moving up towards the sky
• As a result, the air pressure in such areas decreases.

Question 2.
Why is the subpolar low pressure belt formed?
Answer:

• Due to earth’s curvature, the area between two parallels gets reduced as we move towards the poles.
• This results in lesser friction1 of the air with the earth’s surface.
• Air in this region is thrown out because of this reduced friction and also because of the earth’s rotational motion.
• This leads to the development of a low pressure belt in the sub polar region i.e. in area between 55° & 65° parallels in both the hemispheres.

3. Write notes on:

Question 1.
Mid-latitudinal high pressure belts.
Answer:

• The heated air from the equatorial region becomes lighter, starts ascending and after reaching higher altitudes, moves towards the polar region, i.e., towards the North and the South Pole.
• Due to low temperatures at the higher altitudes, the air cools down and becomes heavier.
• This heavier air descends down in both the hemispheres in the region between 25° to 35° parallels.
• This leads to the formation of high pressures, belts in these parallels of latitudes in both the hemispheres.
• This air is dry, hence the region does not get rainfall.
• Consequently, most of the hot deserts on the earth are found in these regions.

Question 2.
Horizontal distribution of air pressure.
Answer:

• The heat received from the sun is uneven in different regions.
• The distribution of temperature is uneven from the equator to the poles.
• This difference can lead to difference in air pressure.
• There are four air pressure belts formed on the earth surface.
• Equatorial low-pressure belt between 5°N and 5°S parallels as the temperature is high here.
• Mid latitudinal high-pressure belt between 25° and 35° parallels due to descending heavier air.
• Subpolar low-pressure belt formed between 55° and 65° parallels due to friction and rotation.
• Polar high-pressure belt formed between 80° and 90° parallels due to low temperatures.

4. Fill in the gaps with the appropriate option.

Question 1.
At higher altitudes air becomes ________. (thicker, thinner, hotter, more humid)
Answer:
thinner

Question 2.
Air pressure is expressed in _______ .(millibars, millimeters, milliliters, milligrams)
Answer:
millibars

Question 3.
On the earth, air pressure is _______.(uniform, uneven, high, low)
Answer:
uneven

Question 4.
The ______ pressure belt spreads between 5° North and 5° South parallel. (equatorial low, polar high, subpolar low, mid-latitudinal high)
Answer:
equatorial low

5. How does a high-pressure belt get formed near 30 ° parallel? Why does this region have hot deserts?
Answer:
(i) The heated air from the equatorial region becomes lighter, starts ascending and after reaching higher altitudes, moves towards the polar region, i.e., towards the North and the South Pole.

(ii) Due to low temperatures at the higher altitudes, the air cools down and becomes heavier. This heavier air descends down in both the hemispheres in the region between 25° to 35° parallels.

(iii) This leads to the formation of high pressures belts in these parallels of latitudes in both the hemispheres.

(iv) This air is dry, hence the region does not get rainfall. Consequently, most of the hot deserts on the earth are found in these regions.

6. Draw a neat diagram showing pressure belts. Label the diagram.
Answer:

Class 7 Geography Chapter 4 Air Pressure InText Questions and Answers

Formative Assessment
Can you tell?

Observe the diagram Fig. (a) and (b) carefully and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Which pressure belt is mainly found in the Tropics?
Answer:
Equatorial low pressure belt is mainly found in the tropics.

Question 2.
With which pressure belt are the polar winds associated? In which temperature zone are they observed?
Answer:
The polar winds are associated with polar high pressure belt and sub polar low pressure belt. It is observed in the frigid zone.

Question 3.
What could be the reason behind a low pressure belt in the Tropics?
Answer:
Low pressure belt is formed in the tropics because the temperature is high.

Question 4.
With which pressure belts are the winds in the Temperate zone associated?
Answer:
The winds in temperate zone are associated with mid latitudinal high pressure belt.

Question 5.
Write the latitudinal extent of the low pressure belts.
Answer:
The latitudinal extent of Equatorial low pressure belt is between 50°N & 50°S parallel & the latitudinal extent of the sub polar low pressure belt is between 55° & 65° parallel in both the hemispheres.

Observe the map given above and study the distribution of air pressure and answer the following

Question 1.
The nature of the isobars.
Answer:
The isobars are joining places of equal air pressure on the map.

Question 2.
High and low pressure belts and their latitudinal position.
Answer:
(i) The latitudinal position of high pressure belt is between 25° & 35° parallels and between 80° & 90° parallels in both the hemisphere
(ii) The latitudinal position of low pressure belt is between 0° & 5° parallels and between 55° & 65° parallels in both the hemispheres.

Question 3.
The direction of the isobars and the distance between successive isobars over the oceans and continents.
Answer:
(i) In the northern hemisphere most of the isobars are in southwest to north east direction over the continents. Also the distance between the isobars varies.

(ii) Closely spaced isobars indicate large pressure changes over a small area. Widely spaced isobars indicate gentle or gradual pressure change.

(iii) In the southern hemisphere, the isobars extend  in east-west direction. The distance between the isobars is fairly constant over the oceans & so the isobars are fairly parallel to each other.

Question 4.
Comparison of the isobars in the northern and the southern hemispheres.
Answer:
In the northern hemisphere the isobars are far spaced and uneven, whereas in the southern hemispheres it is closely spaced and parallel.

Use your brainpower !

Question 1.
If there is low pressure at the equator, what will be the condition of air pressure in the Arctic Zone?
Answer:
The Arctic zone will experience high pressure as the temperature is lower than 0°C.

Try this:

Question 1.

• Take a flying lantern.
• Tie an approximately 5m long thread to the flying lantern so that you can bring the lantern down whenever required.
• After carefully reading the instructions given on the package of the lantern open it and light the candle placed in it.
• After some time, bring the lantern down with the help of the thread and put off the candle.

Question 2.
Did the flying lantern start ascending immediately after the candle was lit?
Answer:
Yes

Question 2.
What would have happened to the flying lantern had the candle got extinguished after the lantern had gone up in the air?
Answer:
The lantern would have fallen back on the earth.

Give it a try: 

Question 1.
Study the temperative distribution map given in your std VI textbook and the pressure distribution map in this lesson to find the correlation between air temperature and air pressure.
Answer:

• The temperature deceases continuously from the equator to the poles but the air pressure varies alternately.
• In the equatorial region the average temperature is high. Hence, the air pressure is low.
• In the polar regions, the temperature is low & hence the air pressure is comparative high.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 4 Air Pressure Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks choosing the correct option from the bracket:

Question 1.
Pressure belts oscillates between ______ parallels. (5° to 7°, 10° to 20°, 80° and 90°, 25° to 30°)
Answer:
5° to 7°

Question 2.
The instrument used to measure air pressure is ______ .(barometer, thermometer, hygrometer, seismometer)
Answer:
barometer

Question 3.
In both the polar regions, the temperature is below ________ throughout the year. (5°C, 0°C, 7°C, 6°C)
Answer:
0°C

Question 4.
The line that joins the places of equal pressure on the map is called an _______. (isotherm, isohytes, millibars, isobar)
Answer:
isobar

Match the following:

Question 1.

A (Pressure Belt)	B (Parallels)
(1) Sub Polar low pressure (2) Mid latitudinal high pressure (3) Polar high pressure (4) Equatorial low pressure	(a) 25° to 35° (b) 5°N and 5°S (c) 55° to 65° (d) 80° to 90°

Answer:
1 – c
2 – a
3 – d
4 – b

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
The latitudinal extent of the temperate zones is much _____ while belts are narrower.
Answer:
Larger

Question 2.
The extent of air pressure belt is upto ______ parallel.
Answer:
10°

Question 3.
Pressure belts are formed between the _______ and the pole.
Answer:
Equator

Question 4.
The sun rays fall perpendicular between the ______and ________.
Answer:
Tropic of Cancer, Tropic of Capricorn

Question 5.
Due to the earths curvature, the area betweentwo parallels gets ______ as we move towards the poles.
Answer:
reduced

Question 6.
The air pressure at sea level is ______ millibars.
Answer:
1013.2

State whether the following statements are true or false:

Question 1.
Air pressure is uniform on all places on the earth’s surface.
Answer:
false

Question 2.
Whenever the temperature is high, the air pressure is also high.
Answer:
false

Question 3.
The heat received from the sun, is uneven in different regions.
Answer:
true

Question 4.
In both the polar regions, the temperature is low throughout the year.
Answer:
true

Question 5.
Air pressure is measured in units of millimetres.
Answer:
false

Answer the following questions in one to two sentence:

Question 1.
Which factors influence air pressure?
Answer:
The altitude of a region, temperature of the air and the amount of water vapour in the air are some factors influencing air pressure.

Question 2.
What is the extent of air pressure belt?
Answer:
The extent of air pressure belt is generally upto 10° parallel.

Question 3.
What is the latitudinal extent of temperate zone?
Answer:
The latitudinal extent of temperate zone is from 23°30’N to 66°30’N and 23° 30’S to 66° 30’S.

Question 4.
What is the temperature in the polar region?
Answer:
In both the polar regions, the temperature is below 0°C throughout the year.

Question 5.
Why do all things in and on the earth stay earth bound?
Answer:
All things in and on the earth stay bound due to the earth’s gravity.

Question 6.
Why are temperature zones created on the surface of the earth?
Answer:
The heat received from the sun is uneven in different regions. Hence the distribution of the temperature is uneven from the equator to the poles. As a result, temperature zones are created.

Question 7.
Most of the hot deserts on the earth are found in which region?
Answer:
Most of the hot deserts on the earth are found in the mid latitudinal high pressure belt ie; between 25° to 30° parallels in both hemispheres.

Give reasons:

Question 1.
Air pressure is maximum at sea level.
Answer:

• All things in and on the earth stay earthbound because of the earth’s gravity. This includes air which is in the gaseous form.
• Due to the earth’s gravity, air is pulled to the earth’s surface.
• Also as one moves higher & higher from the earth’s surface the air becomes thinner & thinner.
• Therefore, the air pressure is maximum at sea- level.

Question 2.
A low pressure belt is formed near the equator.
Answer:

• The sunrays can be perpendicular between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn.
• The temperature is higher in this region.
• Hence air in this region gets heated, expands and becomes lighter and moves towards the sky.
• As this process operates continuously, a low pressure belt gets formed in the central part of this region between the parallels 5° N and 5° S, near the equator.

Question 3.
High pressure belt is formed near the polar region.
Answer:

• In both the polar regions, the temperature is below 0° throughout the year.
• The air is cold.
• Hence, high pressure belt is formed in the polar region.

Question 4.
Low pressure belt is observed between 55° and 65° parallels in both the hemispheres.
Answer:

• Due to the earth’s curvature, the area between two parallels gets reduced as we move towards the poles. This results in lesser friction of the air with the earth’s surface.
• The air between 55° and 65° parallels is thrown out because of the reduced friction and also due to the earth’s rotation.
• Therefore, a low pressure belt is observed between 55° and 65° parallels in both the hemispheres.

Question 5.
Temperature and air pressure are closely related.
Answer:

• Wherever the temperature is high, the air pressure is low. As the temperature rises the air gets heated, expands, and become lighter.
• Thin, lighter air in the vicinity3 of the earth’s surface starts moving up towards the sky. As a result the air pressure in such area decreases.
• Hence, temperature and air pressure are closely related.

Question 6.
Most of the hot deserts on the earth are found in mid-latitudinal high pressure belts.
Answer:

• The air in mid-latitudinal high pressure belt (between 25° to 35° parallels in both hemisphere) is found to be dry.
• The amount of water vapour is very low & hence this region gets extremely scarce or no rainfall.
• Consequently, most of the hot deserts on the earth are found in mid latitudinal high pressure belts.

Give short answers to the following questions:

Question 1.
What are the effects of air pressure?
Answer:
Air pressure has the following effects.

• Origin of winds.
• Generation of storms
• Convectional type of rain.

Question 2.
What is the difference between the temperature zones and pressure belts?
Answer:
(i) The difference between the temperature zones & pressure belts is that the latitudinal extent of temperature zones is much larger while pressure belts are narrower.

(ii) For example, the Temperate zone extends from 23°30′ to 66°30′ in both hemisphere. Compared to this the pressure belt has limited extent which is generally upto 10° parallel.

(iii) Also the temperature zones are continuous & spread from the equator to the poles from Torrid to Frigid.

(iv) Pressure belts are not continuous & areas of high & low pressure are found in different regions from the equator to the poles.

Question 3.
How does a high pressure belt get formed near 30° parallel? Why does this region have hot deserts?
Answer:
(i) The heated air from the equatorial region becomes lighter, starts ascending and after reaching higher altitudes, moves towards the polar region, i.e., towards the North and the South Pole.

(ii) Due to low temperatures at the higher altitudes, the air cools down and becomes heavier. This heavier air descends down in both the hemispheres in the region between 25° to 35° parallels.

(iii) This leads to the formation of high pressures belts in these parallels of latitudes in both the hemispheres.

(iv) This air is dry, hence the region does not get rainfall. Consequently, most of the hot deserts on the earth are found in these regions.

Think about it:

Question 1.
What will be the effect on air pressure if the temperature drops? Why?
Answer:
If the temperature drops, the air pressure will increase as the air becomes heavy.

7th Std Geography Questions And Answers:

• How Seasons Occur Part 1 Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• The Sun, the Moon and the Earth Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Tides Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Air Pressure Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Winds Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Natural Regions Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Soils Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• How Seasons Occur Part 2 Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Agriculture Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Human Settlements Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Contour Maps and Landforms Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 1 Introduction to Our Constitution Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 7 Civics Chapter 1 Question Answer Introduction to Our Constitution Maharashtra Board

Class 7 Civics Chapter 1 Introduction to Our Constitution Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Introduction to Our Constitution Class 7 Questions And Answers

1. Explain the following concepts:

Question 1.
Provisions in the Constitution
Answer:
It is the basic or fundamental law that is stated directly in the Constitution. Therefore, the rules and provisions in the Constitution are the basic or fundamental law of the land. The government is bound to carry out the administration of the country as per the provisions of the Constitution.

Question 2.
Constitution Day
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly enacted the Constitution and adopted it on 26th November, 1949. Therefore, 26th November is observed as ‘Constitution Day’ in India.

2. Discuss:

Question 1.
A Constituent Assembly was established.
Answer:
(i) The process of the making of the Indian Constitution started in 1946.

(ii) The leaders of the freedom movement insisted that independent India will be governed not by the laws made by the British, but by laws made by Indians themselves.

(iii) A Committee was established to prepare the Constitution of Independent India and it came to be known as Constituent Assembly.

Question 2.
Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar is called the ‘Architect of the Indian Constitution’.
Answer:
(i) The draft of the Constitution was prepared by Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar and presented to the Constituent Assembly after an in-depth contemplation and study of the Constitution of different countries of the world.

(ii) It was discussed Article by Article. Many amendments were suggested by different members.

(iii) Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar would present the draft, answer the various questions raised on them and make changes in the draft as per the suggestions of the Constituent Assembly in order to make every provision of the Constitution flawless.

(iv) Due to his contribution towards the making of the Constitution, Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar is called the ‘Architect of the Indian Constitution’.

Question 3.
What is included in the administration of a country?
Answer:
(i) The Government has to make laws relating to several subjects such as defending the boundaries, protecting the people from external aggression, eradication of poverty, creating employment, education and health services, encouragement to commerce and industries, protection of the weaker sections, making policies for the progress of women, children and the tribal people, etc.

(ii) In short, governments in modem times have to take decisions related to different issues right from space research to public cleanliness. This is included in the administration of a country

3. Choose the right option:

Question 1.
The Constitution of this country is primarily unwritten
(a) America
(b) India
(c) England
(d) None of these
Answer:
England

Question 2.
Who was the President of the Constituent Assembly
(a) Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Durgabai Deshmukh
(d) B.B. Rai
Answer:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Question 3.
Who among these was not a member of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Moulana Azad I
(c) RajkumariAmritKaur
(d) Hansaben Mehta I
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi

Question 4.
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(c) Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar
(d) J.B. Kripalani
Answer:
Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar

4. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
On what subjects does the Government have to make laws?
Answer:
Government has to make laws relating to several subjects:

• Defending the boundaries.
• Protecting the people from external aggression.
• Eradication of poverty.
• Creating employment, education and health services, encouragement to commerce and industries.
• Protection of the weaker section, making policies for the progress of women, children and the tribal people.

Question 2.
Why do we celebrate 26th January as Republic Day?
Answer:

• Our country began to be governed according to the provisions of the Constitution from 26th January, 1950.
• The Indian Republic came into existence from this day.
• Therefore, 26th January is celebrated as Republic Day.

Question 3.
What are the advantages of running the government as per the provisions of the Constitution?
Answer:
There are several advantages of governing a country with the help of rules or provisions included in a Constitution:

(i) The Government has to function within a set of rules. This reduces the possibility of the misuse of the power and authority they have been given.

(ii) A Constitution includes the rights and freedom of the citizens. The Government cannot take away these rights. Therefore, people’s rights and freedoms are safeguarded.

(iii) Running a country as per the provisions of the Constitution is the same as establishing the rule of law, so there is no scope for the misuse of power or high-handed administration.

(iv) If a country is run as per the Constitution, the faith that the common people have in the government increases. They then become more keen on participating in the activities of the government. Democracy is strengthened due to the increased participation of the people.

(v) The Constitution presents some political ideals before the country. The nation is also bound to act in that direction. It creates an atmosphere conducive to attain world peace and security, and preservation of human rights.

(vi) Since the Constitution also includes the list of citizens’ duties, it fixes the responsibility of the citizens as well.

Activities

1. Several committees were established for the effective functioning of the Constituent Assembly. Find out more information about them and discuss the role of different committees.
2. Prepare a report on how you celebrated Constitution Day in your school.
3. Make a collection of the photos of the members of the Constituent Assembly.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 1 Introduction to Our Constitution InText Questions and Answers

In-text questions.

Question 1.
Do you wish to ask the questions that puzzled Sameer and Vandana?
Answer:
Yes, I wish to ask such questions.

Question 2.
Where can we find all the rules according to which the administration of the country is carried out?
Answer:
The rules according to which the administration of the country is carried out are found mentioned in a country’s constitution.

Question 3.
Who makes those rules?
Answer:
These rules are made by the Constituent Assembly which consist of the representatives of the states and provinces and the leaders of that country.

Question 4.
Is it binding on us to follow them?
Answer:
Yes. All the rules mentioned in the Constitution are binding on every citizen of the country.

Let’s find out:

Find out some information about the Constitution of any one country of your choice with the help of the following points.

Question 1.
Name of the country
Answer:
India

Question 2.
Year of the making of the Constitution:
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly enacted the Constitution and adopted it on 26th November 1949. However the country began to be actually governed according to the provisions of the Constitution only from 26th January 1950.

Question 3.
Two features of the Constitution:
Answer:
(a) The lengthiest Constitution in the world: The Indian Constitution is the lengthiest and the most detailed of all the written Constitutions of the world containing 449 articles in 25 parts, 12 schedules, 5 appendices and 101 Amendments.

(b) Parliamentary form of Government: The constitution of India establishes a parliamentary form of a government both at the Centre and the State. The essence of the parliamentary government is its responsibility to the Legislature. The President is the constitutional head of the State but the real executive power is vested in the council of ministers whose head is the Prime Minister.

Activity:

Question 1.
Several committees were established for the effective functioning of the constituent Assembly. Find out more information about them and discuss the role of different committees.
Answer:

1. Committee on the Rules of Procedure: Rajendra Prasad
2. Steering Committee : Rajendra Prasad
3. Finance and Staff Committee: Rajendra Prasad
4. Credential Committee: Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
5. House Committee: B. Pratibha Sitaramayya
6. Order of Business Committee: K.M. Munsi
7. Adhoc Committee on the National Flag: Rajendra Prasad
8. Committee on the Functions of the Constituent Assembly: G.V. Mavalankar
9. States Committee: Jawaharlal Nehru
10. Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas:Vallabhbhai Patel
11. Minorities Sub-Committee: H. C. Mookherjee
12. Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee: J. B. Kripalani
13. North-East Frontier Tribal Areas and Assam Excluded & Partially Excluded Areas Sub¬Committee: Gopinath Bardoloi
14. Excluded and Partially Excluded Areas (Other than those in Assam) Sub-Committee: A.V. Thakkar
15. Union Powers Committee: Jawaharlal Nehru
16. Union Constitution Committee: Jawaharlal Nehru
17. Drafting Committee: B.R. Ambedkar

Class 7 Civics Chapter 1 Introduction to Our Constitution Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
The administration of our village or city is carried out in accordance with _______. (will of the majority, rules, orders of the Collector)
Answer:
rules

Question 2.
The book in which all the provisions regarding the administration of the country are mentioned together in a systematic way is called a ______ . (Law book, Guide, Constitution)
Answer:
Constitution

Question 3.
Democracy is _____ due to increased participation of the people. (strengthened, maintained, weakened)
Answer:
strengthened

Question 4.
The process of the making of the Indian Constitution started in the year _____. (1952,1947,1946)
Answer:
1946

Question 5.
A committee which was established to prepare the Constitution of independent India was the _______ (Drafting Committee, StandingCommittee, Constituent Assembly)
Answer:
Constituent Assembly

Question 6.
There were a total of ______ members in the Constituent Assembly. (298, 299, 289)
Answer:
299

Question 7.
_____ was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee. (Durgabai Deshmukh, J.B. Kripalani, Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar)
Answer:
Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar

Question 8.
Dr Babasaheb Ambedkar is called the ______ of the Indian Constitution’. (Architect, Visionary, Inspiration)
Answer:
Architect

Question 11
_____is observed as ‘Constitution Day’. (26th November, 26th January, 15th August)
Answer:
26th November

Question 10.
26th January is celebrated as ______ Day. (Independence, Republic, Constitution)
Answer:
Republic

Question 11.
Our Constitution is a/an _________ document of the provision related to the administration of the country. (written, oral, inspirational)
Answer:
written

Match the following:

Question 1.

(1) 15th August	(a) Constitution Day
(2) 26th November	(b) Republic Day
(3) 26th January	(c) Independence Day
(4) 26th January 1950	(d) Country began to be governed according to the provisions of the Constitution

Answer:
1 – c
2 – a
3 – b
4 – d

Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
Why do we follow norms and rules?
Answer:
We follow norms and rules in order that the activities in the family, our school, our village or city are carried out smoothly.

Question 2.
How is the administration of our country carried out?
Answer:
The administration of our country is carried out through a system of rules.

Question 3.
Explain the term ‘Constitution’.
Answer:
The book in which all the provisions related to the administration of the country are mentioned together in a systemic way is called Constitution.

Question 4.
What are the basic or fundamental law of the land?
Answer:
The rules and provisions in the Constitution are the basic or fundamental law of the land.

Question 5.
How were decisions made in the Constituent Assembly?
Answer:
Decisions in the Constituent Assembly were made on the basis of debate and discussion.

Question 6.
What is governance?
Answer:
Government in modem times have to take decisions related to different issues right from space research to public cleanliness. This is governance.

Name the following:

Question 1.
Name the well-known members of the constituent assembly.
Answer:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad, Sarojini Naidu, J. B. Kriplani, Rajkumari Amrit Kaur, Durgabai Deshmukh, Hansaben Mehta and others.

Question 2.
The President of the Constituent Assembly.
Answer:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

Question 3.
The States in pre-independence period where the local princes carried out the administration.
Answer:
Princely states.

Give reasons:

Question 1.
We celebrate 26th January as Republic Day.
Answer:
(i) Our country began to be governed according to the provisions of the Constitution from 26th January, 1950.

(ii) The Indian Republic came into existence from this day. Therefore, 26th January is celebrated as Republic Day.

Question 2.
Nature of the Constitutions of different countries is different.
Answer:

• There are differences of history, social structures, culture, traditions, etc., between the countries.
• Similarly, their needs and objectives also might be different.
• Each country tries to create a Constitution that is not only suited to its needs and objectives, but also is in tune with its distinct nature.

Explain in detail:

Question 1.
If the government does not follow the Constitution while making laws, the Judiciary can declare those laws null and void or unconstitutional. Explain.
Answer:

• The Government is established by the representatives elected by the people.
• It is bound to carry out the administration of the country as per the provisions of the Constitution.
• The rules and provisions in the Constitution are the basic or fundamental law of the land.
• While making laws, the government is bound to follow the Constitution.
• If it does not do so, then the Judiciary can declare those laws null and void or unconstitutional.

Question 2.
How long did it take to write the Constitution?
OR
Why is it the lengthiest Constitution in the world?
Answer:
(i) It took 2 years, 11 months and 17 days to ! complete the writing of the Constitution.

(ii) There were 22 parts, 395 Articles and 8 Schedules in the original Constitution, thus making it the lengthiest Constitution in the world.

Question 3.
Write about the wide range of issues in the Constitution which were contributed by Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar.
Answer:
Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar’s contribution was in a wide range of issues like water conservation, foreign policy, national security, journalism, economics, social justice, etc.

Question 4.
We are proud of our Constitution.
Answer:
(i) Decisions in the Constituent Assembly were made on the basis of debate and discussion. A respect for opposing view points and the acceptance of the appropriate suggestions were a characteristic of the working of the Constituent Assembly.

(ii) It took 2 years, 11 months and 17 days to complete the writing of the Constitution.

(iii) There were 22 parts, 395 Articles and 8 schedules in the original Constitution

7th Std Civics Questions And Answers:

• Introduction to Our Constitution Class 7 Civics Questions And Answers
• Preamble to the Constitution Class 7 Civics Questions And Answers
• Features of the Constitution Class 7 Civics Questions And Answers
• Fundamental Rights Part 1 Class 7 Civics Questions And Answers
• Fundamental Rights Part 2 Class 7 Civics Questions And Answers
• Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duties Class 7 Civics Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 13 Life of the People in Maharashtra Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 7 History Chapter 13 Question Answer Life of the People in Maharashtra Maharashtra Board

Class 7 History Chapter 13 Life of the People in Maharashtra Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Life of the People in Maharashtra Class 7 Questions And Answers

1. Complete the chart.

Answer:

2. Which undesirable customs are prevalent in today’s society ? Suggest measures for their eradication.
Answer:
The bad traditions prevalent in the society are:

• No Education for girls.
• Female infanticide.
• Dowry.
• Animal sacrifice
• Superstitions.
• Bonded labour.

The ways to get rid of these bad traditions are:

• Special provisions for girl’s education.
• Awareness programme for women.
• Inculcating scientific attitude.
• Special law to protect the women and girl child.
• Thinking positive, parental guidance to think in a systematic way, to get science knowledge update to disperse the blind belief will eradicate superstition.

3. Make a detailed notes of the festivals and auspicious days in your area.
Answer:
(a) Diwali, Holi, Mahashivaratri, Eid, Raksha Bandhan, Navaratri, Krishna Janmashtami, Gurpurabh, Parsi new year, Onam are celebrated with great pomp and show in our area.

(b) Sanskasthi Chaturthi, Ekadashi, Akshaya Tritiya etc., are some of the auspicious days celebrated in our area.

4. Use the following points to compare life in the era of Shivaji Maharaj and today’s life.

S. No.	Point	At the time of Shivaji Maharaj	Today
(1)	Transactions	……………	…………
(2)	Houses	…………….	Permanent, Well-constructed cement-concrete multi-storeyed house.
(3)	Transportation	………….	Bus, Railway and Aeroplane.
(4)	Entertainment	……………	…………….

Answer:

S. No.	Point	At the time of Shivaji Maharaj	Today
(1)	Transactions	Barter system	Coins, Paper money, Plastic money, Currency – Rupee, Cashless transaction through banks.
(2)	Houses	Village Houses: Made with simple mud and bricks. Cities- Wadas with one or two storeys.	Permanent, Well-constructed cement-concrete multi-storeyed house.
(3)	Transportation	Bullock cart, Horseback, Boat	Bus, Railway and Aeroplane.
(4)	Entertainment	Tamasha, Ballads on Dap	Music, Drama, Dance, Watching Television, Play, movie, Opera etc.

Activity

Gather information about the capable women of our country and read it aloud in your class, e.g. information on P.V. Sindhu, Sakshi Malik.

Class 7 History Chapter 13 Life of the People in Maharashtra Textbook Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
The Patils were given some land as Inam for his job as a _____. (Patil, Jagir, Watans)
Answer:
Patil

Question 2.
For any major or minor events or for battles an ______ was checked. (Time, Muhurta, Place)
Answer:
Muhurta

Question 3.
The _______ festival was celebrated on a large scale during the Peshwa Era. (Ganesh, Diwali, Makar Sankranti)
Answer:
Ganesh

Question 4.
______ script was used for day to day affairs. (Marathi, Sanskrit, Modi)
Answer:
Modi

Question 5.
______ was very popular sport. (Wrestling, Mallakhamb, Martial arts)
Answer:
Martial arts

Question 6.
The Jain Mandir at Jamod in Vidarbha had paintings of Jin Charitra, ______ stories (mythological, various festivals, animals)
Answer:
Mythological

Question 7.
________ was popular as an entertainment programme during the Peshwa Era. (Stage show, Tamasha, Lavani)
Answer:
Tamasha

Question 8.
_______ was a well-known painter. (Mallamma Desai, Gopikabai, Gangaram Tambat)
Answer:
Gangaram Tambat

Question 9.
The letters were carried by _______and messengers. (Birds, Camel riders, Post)
Answer:
Camel riders

Question 10.
People used to believe in ______ a lot. (astrology, scientific vision, dreams)
Answer:
astrology

Match the following:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Festival	(a) Mankoji
(2) Sport	(b) Bail-Pola
(3) Sculpture	(c) Mallakhamb
(4) Ghat	(d) Ghrishneshwar Temple
(5) Painter	(e) Toke

Answer:
1 – b
2 – c
3 – d
4 – e
5 – a

Question 2.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) The Patils	(a) To manage the revenue
(2) The Kulkarni	(b) To protect the village
(3) Black Soil,	(c) Work in an office
(4) White-collared	(d) Farmers

Answer:
1 – b
2 – a
3 – d
4 – c

Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
What was the chief source of production at the village level during the Peshwa era?
Answer:
Agriculture and agriculture based businesses were die chief source of production at the village level.

Question 2.
When was Ganesh festival celebrated?
Answer:
Ganesh festival was celebrated every year Bhadrapad Chaturthi to Anant Chaturdashi.

Question 3.
Which festivals were celebrated during Diwali?
Answer:
During Diwali the Balipratipada and Bhau- beej days were celebrated on large scale.

Question 4.
What were organised during the Jatras days?
Answer:
Wrestling Match were Organised during the Jatras days.

Question 5.
Which Subjects were taught in Pathshalas and Madarasas?
Answer:
Writing, reading, accounting were taught in Pathshalas and Madarasas.

Question 6.
Which games were played during the Peshwa Era?
Answer:
Martial arts were very popular, Mallakhamb Dand, Wrestling, Lathi, Dandpatta, Bothati these games were played.

Question 7.
What was the religious policy of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj?
Answer:
(i) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj had a liberal religious policy.
(ii) He believed that everyone should follow his or her own religion but nobody should force his or her religion upon others.

Question 8.
What did the daily meal of the people consist of?
Answer:
The daily meal consisted of Bhakari, onion, chutney and gravy.

Question 9.
What did men and women use to wear during that period?
Answer:
(a) Men used to wear dhoti, kurta, angarakha, turban.
(b) Women use to wear sarees (nine-yard) and blouses.

Question 10.
What were used in Wada decoration?
Answer:
Artwork, decorative painting, firewood, sculptures, mirrors were used in wada decoration.

Name the following:

Question 1.
The land was given as inam to Patils do the job.
Answer:
Patilaki

Question 2.
Festival celebrated on large scale.
Answer:
The Ganesh festival.

Question 3.
Crops grown.
Answer:
Jowar, bajra, wheat, nachni, corn, rice etc.

Question 4.
Education was given in.
Answer:
Pathshalas and Madarasas.

Question 5.
Modes of transport.
Answer:
Ghat roads, the bridges on the river, boats.

Question 6.
Means of communication.
Answer:
Camel riders and Messengers.

Question 7.
Popular outdoor games.
Answer:
Hututu, Kho-kho and Atyapatya.

Question 8.
Learned women in the Peshwa Era.
Answer:
(a) Veermata Jijabai
(b) Maharani Yesubai
(c) Maharani Tarabai
(d) Umabai Dabhade.

Question 9.
Famous architect during that period.
Answer:
Hiroji Indulkar.

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
Discuss everyday living of the people in that Era.
Answer:
Most of the people were staying in the village. The villages were self sufficient.

(a) Crops grown: The farmers grown the crops like jowar, bajra, wheat, nachani, com, rice etc.

(b) Food: The farmers’ daily meal consisted of bhakari, onion, chutney and gravy. Rich people’s meal consisted of rice, dal-varan, chapatis, vegetables, salads and milk products.

(c) The transaction in rural area were based on barter system.

(d) Houses: The houses were simple and were made of soil and bricks.

(e) Clothing :
(i) Men wear – Dhoti, Kurta, Angarakha, Turban.
(ii) Women wear – Saree (nine yard) and blouse.

Question 2.
The life of women’s during Peshwa Period.
Answer:
(a) Their world were confined to the house of first their father and then their husband.

(b) Their education was neglected.

(c) Only a few exceptional women had achieved any progress in literacy, administration and battle skills.

(d) They include Veermata Jijabai, Maharani Yesubai, Maharani Tarabai, Umabai Dabhade, Gopikabai, Punyashlok Ahilyabai.

(e) Customs like child marriage, unequal marriage, widowhood, keshwapan, sati, polygamy had imposed harsh restrictions on the way women lived.

7th Std History Questions And Answers:

• Sources of History Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• India before the Times of Shivaji Maharaj Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• Religious Synthesis Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• Maharashtra before the Times of Shivaji Maharaj Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• The Foundation of the Swaraj Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• Conflict with the Mughals Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• The Administration of the Swaraj Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• An Ideal Ruler Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• The Maratha War of Independence Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• The Expansion of the Maratha Power Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• Marathas – The Protectors of the Nation Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• Progression of the Empire Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• Life of the People in Maharashtra Class 7 History Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 11 Marathas – The Protectors of the Nation Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 7 History Chapter 11 Question Answer Marathas – The Protectors of the Nation Maharashtra Board

Class 7 History Chapter 11 Marathas – The Protectors of the Nation Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Marathas – The Protectors of the Nation Class 7 Questions And Answers

1. Name them:

Question 1.
They came from Afghanistan.
Answer:
The Pathans

Question 2.
They settled at the foothills of the Himalayas.
Answer:
The Rohillas

Question 3.
The brother of Nanasaheb Peshwa.
Answer:
Raghunathrao

Question 4.
The chief of Jats at Mathura.
Answer:
Surajmaljat

Question 5.
Defeated the Nizam at Rakshasbhuvan near Paithan.
Answer:
Madhavrao

2.Write in brief about:

Question 1.
Raising the Maratha standard at Attack. Or Hoisting the Maratha standard at Attack.
Answer:

• Najib Khan, the Rohillas chief could not tolerate the Maratha supremacy.
• Najib Khan requested Abdali to invade India again. He captured Delhi.
• He returned to Afghanistan and collected huge wealth.
• Raghunathrao and Madhavrao Holkar marched to the North and captured Delhi.
• They defeated Abdali’s officers and captured Punjab.

Question 2.
Conflict with the Afghans.
Or
Battle with the Afghans.
Answer:

• In CE 1751, Ahmadshah Abdali conquered Punjab.
• Due to that, the Mughals were facing threat from Abdali.
• So they joined hands with the Marathas to protect Delhi.
• The Emperor signed a treaty with Marathas in 1752.
• As per the treaty, the Marathas agreed to protect the Mughal Empire.
• The Maratha army marched towards Delhi.
• As Abdali got this news, he returned to his native country (Afghanistan).
• Due to the Maratha power, the threat of Abdali got subsided.

Question 3.
The after effects of the battle of Panipat.
Answer:

• The Marathas were defeated.
• The whole generation of Marathas were killed.
• Many brave soldiers died on the battlefield.
• It caused a great harm to the reputation of Marathas in Northern India.

3. Arrange chronologically:

• The battle of Rakshasbhuvan
• The death of Tipu Sultan
• The death of Madhavrao Peshwa
• The battle of Panipat
• The battle of Buradi Ghat

Answer:

• The battle of Buradi Ghat
• The battle of Panipat
• The battle of Rakshasbhuvan
• The death of Madhavrao Peshwa
• The death of Tipu Sultan.

4. Find the names of people in the chapter :

Question 1.
N _ n _ _ _ _ _ _
Answer:
Nanasaheb

Question 2.
D _ _ _ _ _ _
Answer:
Dattaji

Question 3.
N _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
Answer:
Nizamshah

Activity:

Find more information about the battle of Panipat on the internet and make a presentation in your class.

Class 7 History Chapter 11 Marathas – The Protectors of the Nation Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate word from the options given below:

Question 1.
Ahmadshah Abdali was the Emperor of ______. (Mysore, Paithan, Afghanistan)
Answer:
Afghanistan

Question 2.
The chief of the Maratha artillery was ____. (Ibrahim khan, Hyder Ali, Najib Khan)
Answer:
Ibrahim khan

Question 3.
The Marathas defeated _________ in a battle at Motitalao near Srirangapattan. (Hyder Ali, Ibrahim Khan, Abdali)
Answer:
Hyder Ali

Question 4.
Safadarjung was the Nawab of ______.(Mysore, Paithan, Ayodhya)
Answer:
Ayodhya

Question 5.
_____ the ruler of Afghanistan conquered Punjab in 1751 CE. (Ahmadshah Abdali, Rohillas, Hyder Ali)
Answer:
Ahmadshah Abdali

Question 6.
Nanasaheb sent ________ to the North to crush Abdali. (Sadashivraobhau, Surajmal Jat, Vishwasrao)
Answer:
Sadashivraobhau

Question 7.
Hyder Ali usurped the throne of _____ (Mysore, Paithan, Ayodhya)
Answer:
Mysore

Question 8.
______was a Rohilla chief. (Ibrahimkhan, Najibkhan, Ahmadshah)
Answer:
Najibkhan

Question 9.
Madhavrao defeated the Nizam at ______ near Paithan. (Srirangapattan, Rakshasbhuvan, Buradi Ghat)
Rakshasbhuvan

Question 10.
After the death of Peshwa Nanasaheb, his son ________ succeeded him. (Bajirao II, Madhavrao, Vishwasrao)
Answer:
Madhavrao

Match the following:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) The Nawab of Ayodhya	(a) Raja Sawal Jaysingh.
(2) The Rohilla Chief	(b) Safadarjung
(3) The Chief of the Jats	(c) Najib Khan
(4) The chief of the Maratha artillery	(d)  Surajmal (e)  Ibrahim Khan Gardi

Answer:
1 – b
2 – c
3 – d
4 – e

Find the name of people in the chapter:

Question 1.
I _ _ _ h _ _ _ _ _ _
Answer:
Ibrahimkhan

Name them:

Question 1.
He met a heroic death in the battle.
Answer:
Dattaji

Question 2.
He became Peshwa after Bajirao.
Answer:
Nanasaheb

Question 3.
They do not help Marathas in the Battle of Panipat.
Answer:
Jats and Rajputs

Question 4.
The army of the Marathas attacked Abdali on 14th January, 1761.
Answer:
Battle of Panipat

Question 5.
The Sultan who took advantage of the defeat of the Marathas at Panipat and attacked the Maratha territory in Karnataka.
Answer:
Sultan Hyder Ali

Question 6.
The death of this capable Peshwa caused a great loss to Maratha Kingdom.
Answer:
Peshwa Madhavrao

Question 7.
Understood that only Marathas can rule over the chaos in North and wished that Marathas should rule the North.
Answer:
Abdali and his heirs

Answer the following in one sentence:

Question 1.
Why did the Peshwa send Dattaji Shinde and Janakoji Shinde to the North?
Answer:
The Peshwa sent Dattaji Shinde and Janakoji Shinde to crush the power of Najibkhan and to get a firm hold over the Punjab.

Question 2.
Why did the Nawab of Ayodhya invite the Marathas?
Answer:
The Nawab invited the Marathas to subdue the Rohillas.

Question 3.
Who helped the wounded Maratha soldiers in the Panipat battle?
Answer:
Surajmal Jat, Queen Kishori helped the wounded Maratha soldiers in the Panipat battle.

Question 4.
When did the third battle of Panipat start?
Answer:
The Marathas attacked Abdali on 14th January, 1761 and the third battle of Panipat started.

Question 5.
What conditions were laid in the treaty signed between the Emperor and the Marathas in April 1752?
Answer:
According to this treaty, the Marathas agreed to protect the Mughal Empire from enemies like the Rohillas, Jats, Rajputs and Afghans, etc. In return, the Marathas got cash and the rights to collect Chauthai from a few regions of North (Punjab, Multan, Rajputana, Sindh and Rohilkhand).

Question 6.
With whom did Nanasaheb campaign against Abdali?
Answer:
Jayappa Shinde, Madhavrao Holkar along with Nanasaheb campaigned against Abdali.

Question 7.
Why did Hyder Ali attack Marathas when they were defeated at Panipat and they had become weak?
Answer:
Hyder Ali thought that the Marathas were defeated at Panipat and they had become weak and so he attacked them.

Question 8.
In which battle did the Marathas defeat Hyder Ali?
Answer:
In the battle at Moti Talav, near Srirangapattan

Question 9.
From where did the Pathans migrate and settle?
Answer:
The Pathans had migrated from Afghanistan and they settled near Ayodhya at the foot of the Himalayas.

Question 10.
How did the history of Maratha describe Madhavrao?
Answer:
Madhavrao is described as an honest, hardworking, determined and a caring administrator for the common people.

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
The battle of Panipat.
Answer:

• Sadashivraobhau captured Delhi.
• The third battle of Panipat started.
• The Marathas attacked Abdali on 14th January, 1761.
• A bullet hit Vishwasrao and he fell dead.
• When Sadashivraobhau heard this, he attacked the enemy in madness, and disappeared from the battlefield.
• The Maratha soldiers lost courage.
• Abdali with the reserve contingent attacked the Marathas.
• The Marathas got defeated.

Complete the following family tree of Peshwa:

Question 1.

Answer:

1. Balaji alias Nanasaheb
2. Raghunathrao
3. Madhavrao (Peshwa)
4. Sawai Madhavrao (Peshwa)

Question 2.
Find the name of people in the lesson in following grid:
Answer:

7th Std History Questions And Answers:

• Sources of History Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• India before the Times of Shivaji Maharaj Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• Religious Synthesis Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• Maharashtra before the Times of Shivaji Maharaj Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• The Foundation of the Swaraj Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• Conflict with the Mughals Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• The Administration of the Swaraj Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• An Ideal Ruler Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• The Maratha War of Independence Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• The Expansion of the Maratha Power Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• Marathas – The Protectors of the Nation Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• Progression of the Empire Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• Life of the People in Maharashtra Class 7 History Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 10 The Expansion of the Maratha Power Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 7 History Chapter 10 Question Answer The Expansion of the Maratha Power Maharashtra Board

Class 7 History Chapter 10 The Expansion of the Maratha Power Question Answer Maharashtra Board

The Expansion of the Maratha Power Class 7 Questions And Answers

1. Write the meaning:

The Expansion Of The Maratha Power Question Answer  Question 1.
Chauthai.
Answer:
One fourth part of the revenue

The Expansion Of The Maratha Power Question 2.
Sardeshmukhi.
Answer:
One tenth part of the revenue

2. Write the answer in one word:

Class 7 History Chapter 10 The Expansion Of The Maratha Power Question 1.
Balaji was from this town in Konkan.
Answer:
Shrivardhan

The Expansion Of The Maratha Power Class 7 Question 2.
He ruled Bundelkhand.
Answer:
King Chhatrasal

10 The Expansion Of The Maratha Power Question 3.
Bajirao died at this place.
Answer:
Raverkhedi

The Expansion Of The Maratha Power Answer Question 4.
He defeated the Portuguese.
Answer:
Chimajiappa

3. Write about them in your own words:

10. The Expansion Of The Maratha Power Question 1.
KanhojiAngre
Answer:

• Kanhoji Angre was the chief of the Maratha Navy.
• He choose Maharani Tarabai’s side.
• He attacked areas which belong to Shahu Maharaj.
• Shahu Maharaj appointed Balaji as Peshwa.
• Balaji was sent against Kanhoji.
• Balaji diplomatically turned Kanhoji towards Shahu Maharaj’s side.

Question 2.
The Battle of Palkhed
Answer:

• Mughal Emperor Farukhsear appointed Nijam-ul-Mulk as the Subhedar of Deccan.
• The Emperor gave Marathas the right to collect chauthai, Sardeshmukhi from the Mughals.
• The Nizam was against it.
• Bajirao decided to attack the Nizam and he defeated Nizam at Palkhed near Aurangabad.

Question 3.
Balaji Vishwanath:
Answer:

• Balaji Vishwanath was a prominent Maratha Sardar.
• He hailed from Shrivardhan, a town in Konkan.
• He was industrious and experienced.
• He convinced many Sardars to join hands with Shahu Maharaj.
• Kanhoji Angre, the chief of the Maratha Navy was against Shahu Maharaj and sided with Maharani Tarabai.
• He was sent against Kanhoji.
• Balaji avoided the war and diplomatically turned Kanhoji towards Shahu Maharaj’s side.

Question 4.
Bajirao I
Answer:
(i) After the death of Balaji Vishwanath, Shahu Maharaj made Bajirao I Peshwa in CE1720.

(ii) He expanded the Maratha Empire during his tenure of 20 years.

(iii) Nizam, the Subhedar of Deccan did not allow the Marathas the right to collect chauthai and sardeshmukhi.

(iv) Bajirao attacked Nizam and defeated him at Palkhed near Aurangabad.

(v) Under the leadership of his brother Chimajiappa. Bajirao sent Malharrao Holkar,: Ranoji Shinde and Udaji Pawar to strengthen the position of the Marathas in Malwa.

(vi) Mughal Subhedar Mohammad Khan Bangush attacked on Bundelkhand. The king of Bundelkhand, Chhatrasal requested Bajirao to help him.

(vii) Bajirao defeated Bangush. The King Chhatrasal honoured Bajirao on large scale.

4. Give reasons:

Question 1.
Two separate Maratha States were formed.
Answer:
(i) There was a battle between Shahu Maharaj and Maharani Tarabai for the throne/gadi.

(ii) Shahu Maharaj won the battle and captured Satara.

(iii) He got himself crowned and Satara became the capital of the Maratha kingdom.

(iv) In 1710, Maharani Tarabai declared her minor son Shivaji II as Chhatrapati at Panhalgad. Since then, a separate state of Kolhapur apart from Satara state came into existence in the Maratha Empire.

Question 2.
Azamshah released Chattrapati Shahu Maharaj from his custody.
Answer:
(i) Azamshah thought that if he released Shahu Maharaj from his custody, then there will be a fight between Maharani Tarabai and Shahu Maharaj for the throne of Chhatrapati.

(ii) The Maratha power will become weak and therefore Azamshah released Chhatrapati Shahu Maharaj from his custody.

Question 3.
Delhi Darbar needed the help of the Marathas.
Answer:
(i) The Mughal Empire was threatened by the north-west Irani and Afgani attacks.

(ii) Local kings like Pathans, Rajputs, Jats and Rohilas also posed a threat for them.

(iii) The internal competition and tussle in die court also weakened the Mughal powers. Hence, Delhi Darbar needed the help Marathas.

Activity:

Get a biography of Maharani Tarabai and present an inspiring event in her life.

Class 7 History Chapter 10 The Expansion of the Maratha Power Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate word from the options given below:

Question 1.
Chhatrapati Shahu Maharaj had got himself crowned at _______.(Pune, Satara, Malwa)
Answer:
Satara

Question 2.
At the time of Aurangzeb’s death, Shahajada _______ was in the south. (Azamshah, Aurangzeb, Farukhsear)
Answer:
Azamshah

Question 3.
Maharani Tarabai declared her minor son as Chhatrapati _______ at Panhala. (Shivaji II, Savai, Madhavrao)
Answer:
Shivaji II

Question 4.
_______ became the Subhedar of the Deccan. (Nijam-ul-Mulk, Farukhsear, Madhavrao)
Answer:
Nijam-ul-Mulk

Question 5.
Bajirao sent his brother ________ to subdue the Portuguese. (Chimajiappa, Malharrao Holkar, Ranoji Shinde)
Answer:
Chimajiappa

Question 6.
Bajirao defeated _________ of Bundelkhand. (Bangush, Nadir Shah, Farukhsear)
Answer:
Bangush

Question 7.
When Kanhoji Angre attacked Shahu Maharaj, he sent ______ against Kanhoji Angre. (Balaji Vishwanath, Bajirao, Shahu Maharaj)
Answer:
Balaji Vishwanath

Question 8.
After the death of Balaji Vishwanath, Shahu Maharaj made ________ as the Peshwa. (Chimajiappa, Bajirao I, Udaji Pawar)
Answer:
Bajirao I

Question 9.
Iran’s Emperor ___________ attack on India. (Nadirshah, Abdulla (Hassan), Hussein Ali)
Answer:
Nadirshah

Question 10.
After the death of Aurangzeb ________ and ______ dominated the Mughal Court.(Abdulla (Hasan), Hussein Ali, Nijam-Ul-Mulk)
Answer:
Abdulla (Hasan) and Hussein Ali

Question 11.
After the death of Emperor Aurangzeb the fight for __________ started between his sons. (Delhi’s throne, Chauthai-Sardeshmukhi, Subhedar of Deccan)
Answer:
Delhi’s throne

Question 12.
Prince Shahu was in the custody of _________ (Maharani Tarabai, Azamshah, Bahadur Shah)
Answer:
Azamshah

Question 13.
_______ became the capital of Maratha kingdom. (Satara, Kolhapur, Pune)
Answer:
Satara

Question 14.
__________was the chief of the Maratha Navy. (Balaji, Vishwanath, Kanhoji Angre, Bajirao I)
Answer:
Kanhoji Angre

Question 15.
Bajirao took his last breath at _______ (Raverkhedi, Bhopal, Palkhed)
Answer:
Raverkhedi

Question 16.
________ established the Maratha domination in North India by his bravery.
(Chimajiappa, Bajirao, King Chhatrasal)
Answer:
Bajirao

Match the following:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Shahu Maharaj (2)Shivaji II (3) Nijam-ul-Mulk (4) Nadir Shah	(a)  Iran’s Emperor (b)  Satara (c) Panhalgad (d)  Subhedar of Deccan

Answer:
1 – b
2 – c
3 – a
4 – d

Question 2.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) King Chhatrasal (2)The Battle of Bhopal (3) Chauthai (4) Sardeshmukhi	(a)     One fourth part of the income (b)     Bundelkhand (c)     Bajirao (d)     One tenth part of the income.

Answer:
1 – b
2 – d
3 – a
4 – c

Explain the meanings of:

Question 1.
Subhedar.
Answer:
Historical rank in the army

Question 2.
Sanad.
Answer:
Authority

Write the answer in one word:

Question 1.
These places were under Portuguese rule.
Answer:
Vasai and Thane

Question 2.
The Emperor of Iran who invaded India.
Answer:
Nadir Shah

Question 3.
He was the chief of the Maratha Navy.
Answer:
KanhojiAngre

Question 4.
He was a great warrior.
Answer:
Bajirao

Question 5.
He was the first Peshwa.
Answer:
Balaji Vishwanath

Question 6.
The second Peshwa.
Answer:
Bajirao

Question 7.
Aurangzeb’s son.
Answer:
Shahajada Azamshah

Question 8.
Tarabai proclaimed her younger son as.
Answer:
Chhatrapati Shivaji II

Answer the following in one sentences:

Question 1.
Who was in the custody of Azamshah?
Answer:
Prince Shahu was in the custody of Azamshah.

Question 2.
What was the new political policy of Marathas?
Answer:
The new political policy of the Marathas was to protect and expand their own Empire instead of fighting with Mughal powers.

Question 3.
What had weakened the Mughal powers?
Answer:
The threat from local kings, internal competition and tussle in the court weakened the Mughal powers.

Question 4.
Who was Kanhoji Angre?
Answer:
Kanhoji Angre was the Chief of the Maratha Navy.

Question 5.
With whose help did Balaji receive the authority to recover Chauthai and Sardeshmukhi?
Answer:
With the help of Sayyid brothers, Abdulla (Hassan) and Hussein Ali, Balaji received the authority to recover Chauthai and Sardeshmukhi.

Question 6.
Whom did Bajirao send to Malwa to strengthen the position of the Marathas?
Answer:
Bajirao sent Malharrao Holkar, Ranoji Shinde and Udaji Pawar under the leadership of his x brother Chimajiappa to Malwa to strengthen the position of Marathas.

Question 7.
Whose help did King Chhatrasal seek to protect his kingdom Bundelkhand.
Answer:
The King Chhatrasal requested Bajirao to protect his kingdom Bundelkhand.

Question 8.
Which parts from Konkan coastal area were under Portuguese rule?
Answer:
Vasai and Thane from Konkan coastal area were under Portuguese rule.

Question 9.
Whom did Bajirao send to defeat Portuguese? ‘
Answer:
Bajirao sent his brother Chimajiappa to defeat the Portuguese.

Question 10.
What rights did Balaji get from the Mughal Emperor?
Answer:
Balaji got from the Mughal Emperor the sanads to collect Chauthai and Sardeshmukhi

Question 11.
Why did Chhatrasal ask Balaji for help?
Answer:
Mohammad Khan Bangush, the Mughal Subhedar of Allahabad attacked Bundelkhand and defeated Chhatrasal. So, Chhatrasal asked Balaji for help.

Question 12.
Where did Bajirao defeat the Nizam?
Answer:
Bajirao defeated the Nizam at Palkhed near Aurangabad.

Question 13.
What were the great qualities of Bajirao?
Answer:
Bajirao was a great warrior, a powerful ruler who established the Maratha dominance in North.

Write notes on the following:

Question 1.
The Battle of Bhopal
Answer:

• The emperor became restless due to Bajirao’s attack.
• He called the Nizam to protect Delhi.
• The Nizam attacked Bajirao with his large army.
• Bajirao defeated him at Bhopal.
• The Nizam agreed to secure the sanad of Malwa subhedari to Marathas from the Badshah.

Give explanations for the following:

Question 1.
Portuguese.
Answer:

• Vasai and Thane from Konkan coastal area were under Portuguese rule.
• Portuguese rulers used to exploit people.

Question 2.
King Chhatrasal requested Bajirao for help.
Answer:

• King Chhatrasal established his own kingdom in Bundelkhand.
• Mughal Subhedar Mohammad Khari Bangush attacked Bundelkhand and defeated king Chhatrasal.
• Hence, King Chhatrasal requested Bajirao for help.

Question 3.
Shahu Maharaj knew the integrities of the Mughals.
Answer:

• The early part of Shahu Maharaj’s life was spent in Mughal camps.
• He has seen Mughal politics from close quarters.
• He was aware of the strong and weak points of the Mughal empire very well.
• He also knew some influential people in Mughal Darbar.
• All these factors helped him in the changing circumstances to decide the new direction for Maratha politics.

Answer the following in short:

Question 1.
How did Balaji Vishwanath turned Kanhoji towards the side of Shahu Maharaj?
Answer:

• Kanhoji Angre was the chief of the Maratha Navy.
• He chose Maharani Tarabai’s side.
• He attacked areas which belonged to Shahu Maharaj.
• Shahu Maharaj sent Balaji Vishwanath against Kanhoji.
• Balaji avoided the war and won Kanhoji towards the side of Shahu Maharaj.

Question 2.
Why did Bajirao decide to attack Delhi?
Answer:

• The Marathas established their supremacy in Malwa and Bundelkhand.
• Bajirao demanded Malwa Subhedari from the Badshah (Emperor).
• The Emperor rejected his demand Hence Bajirao decided to attack Delhi.

7th Std History Questions And Answers:

• Sources of History Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• India before the Times of Shivaji Maharaj Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• Religious Synthesis Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• Maharashtra before the Times of Shivaji Maharaj Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• The Foundation of the Swaraj Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• Conflict with the Mughals Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• The Administration of the Swaraj Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• An Ideal Ruler Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• The Maratha War of Independence Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• The Expansion of the Maratha Power Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• Marathas – The Protectors of the Nation Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• Progression of the Empire Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• Life of the People in Maharashtra Class 7 History Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 9 The Maratha War of Independence Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 7 History Chapter 9 Question Answer The Maratha War of Independence Maharashtra Board

Class 7 History Chapter 9 The Maratha War of Independence Question Answer Maharashtra Board

The Maratha War of Independence Class 7 Questions And Answers

1. Choose the correct option:

The Maratha War Of Independence Class 7 Question 1.
Aurangzeb was annoyed by his bravery.
(a) Shahajada Akbar
(b) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj
(c) Chhatrapati Rajaram Maharaj
Answer:
(b) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj

The Maratha War Of Independence Question Answer Question 2.
These decamped with the golden pinnacle from the Emperor’s tent.
(a) Santaji and Dhanaji
(b) Santaji Ghorpade and Vithoji Chavan
(c) Khando Ballal and Rupaji Bhosale
Answer:
(b) Santaji Ghorpade and Vithoji Chavan

Std 7 History Chapter 9 The Maratha War Of Independence Question 3.
He fought very bravely in the Goa battle.
(a) Yesaji Kank
(b) Nemaji Shinde
(c) Pralhad Niraji
Answer:
(a) Yesaji Kank

2. Find in the text in the lesson and write answers:

Class 7 History Chapter 9 The Maratha War Of Independence Question 1.
Why did Sambhaji Maharaj return halfway from the Janjira campaign? ‘
Answer:
(a) Sambhaji Maharaj started a campaign against the Siddi of Janjira in 1682 CE.
(b) The Marathas laid siege to Siddi’s Dandarajpuri and battered the fort of Janjira with the artillery.
(c) But on the other hand, the Mughal army invaded Swaraj. Hence Sambhaji Maharaj returned halfway from the Janjira campaign to protect/defend his kingdom.

9 The Maratha War Of Independence Question 2.
Why did Sambhaji Maharaj decide to teach a lesson to the Portuguese?
Answer:
The Portuguese of Goa joined hands with the Emperor against Sambhaji Maharaj so ) the Maharaj decided to teach a lesson to the Portuguese.

The Maratha War Of Independence Question 3.
While going to Jinji, Rajaram Maharaj left the responsibility of protecting Swaraj to whom?
Answer:
While going to Jinji, Rajaram Maharaj had assigned the duty to protect Swaraj to Ramchandrapant, Amatya, Shankaraji, Narayan Sachiv, Santaji Ghorpade and Dhanaji Jadhav.

9 The Maratha War Of Independence Class 7 Question 4.
Devdatta has described Maharani Tarabai’s Valour in which words?
Answer:
Devdatta has described Maharani Tarabai’s valour in his Marathi poem:

3. Give reasons:

Question 1.
Aurangzeb turned his aim towards Adilshahi and Qutubshahi Kingdom.
Answer:
(a) Aurangzeb was not able to succeed his campaign against the Marathas.
(b) Therefore he suspended the campaign and turned his aim towards Adilshahi and Kutubshahi states.

Question 2.
After the death of Sambhaji Maharaj, the Marathas intensified their war with the Mughals.
Answer:
(a) Sambhaji Maharaj was brutally put to death by Aurangzeb.
(b) The Marathas took inspiration from his sacrifice and intensified their fight against the Mughals.

Question 3.
It was decided that the Raigad fort should be fought under the leadership of Maharani Yesubai.
Answer:
(a) Zulfikarkhan put Raigad under siege.
(b) Rajaram Maharaj and his wife Maharani Tarabai, Sambhaji Maharaj’s wife, Maharani Yesubai and his son Shahu were in Raigad.
(c) It was very risky for all members of the royal family to stay at one place.
(d) It was decided that Rajaram should escape from Raigad and the fight to defend Raigad would continue under the leadership of Maharani Yesubai.

Activity:

Show Goa, Bijapur, Golconda, Jinji, Ahmadabad and Ahmednagar on a map of India.

Class 7 History Chapter 9 The Maratha War of Independence Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
Akbar sought shelter with –
(a) Sambhaji Maharaj
(b) Mukarrab Khan
(c) Rajaram Maharaj
Answer:
Sambhaji Maharaj

Question 2.
Aurangzeb died in 1707 at –
(a) Kolhapur
(b) Janjira
(c) Ahmadnagar
Answer:
Ahmadnagar

Arrange the events chronologically:

• Aurangzeb died at Ahmadnagar.
• Sambhaji Maharaj was put to death.
• Rajaram Maharaj escaped from Raigad fort.
• Aurangzeb descended to the South.
• Maharani Yesubai and Shahu put under arrest.

Answer:

• Aurangzeb descended to the South.
• Sambhaji Maharaj was put to death.
• Rajaram Maharaj escaped from Raigad fort.
• Maharani Yesubai and Shahu put under arrest.
• Aurangzeb died at Ahmadnagar.

Write the meaning of:

Question 1.
Artillery
Answer:
The army unit that uses big guns with big barrels.

Question 2.
Killedar / Kiledar
Answer:
In charge of the fort.

Question 3.
Guerilla tactics
Answer:
The use of surprise raids hit and run by the army and repetitive attacks on the enemy.

Find from the text and write the answers:

Question 1.
Who took away the golden pinnacle from the Emperor’s own tent?
Answer:
(a) Santaji Ghorpade
(b) Vithoji Chavan

Question 2.
Name the faithful Sardars of Raj aram Maharaj who joined him in the Jinji campaign.
Answer:
(a) Pralhad Niraji
(b) Khando Ballal
(c) Rupaji Bhosale.

Question 3.
What was Tarabai’s warfare method called?
Answer:
Tarabai’s warfare method was called ‘Safe deposit locker system’.

Question 4.
How did Aurangzeb entice many Maratha Sardars on his side?
Answer:
Aurangzeb enticed many Maratha Sardars on his side by giving them watans and jagirs.

Question 5.
Why was it decided that Rajaram Maharaj should escape from Raigad and go to Jinji?
Answer:
(a) The Jinji fort was far off in the south and was invincible.
(b) It was not an easy task for the Mughals to capture this fort.
Hence Rajaram escaped from Raigad and went to Jinji.

Question 6.
How does Khafikhan describe Maharani Tarabai?
Answer:
Khafikhan described Maharani Tarabai in the following words “She is intelligent and wise. She became very famous for her management of army and administration even during the rule of her husband”.

Question 7.
When was the sign of the tilting of the balance to the other end seen?
Answer:
It was when trusted Sardars like Krishnaji Sawant, Khanderao Dabhada, Dhanaji Jadhav and Nemaji Shinde started the battles on various fronts against the Mughals outside Maharashtra which gave a sign of the tilting of the balance to the other end.

Find out and write:

Question 1.
They were in the forefront to invade Mughal territories.
Answer:
Santaji and Dhanaji

Question 2.
He died in March 1700.
Answer:
Rajaram Maharaj

Question 3.
He rebelled against his father and sought shelter with Sambhaji Maharaj.
Answer:
Prince Akbar

Question 4.
The Incharge of the Kolhapur province.
Answer:
Mukarrabkhan

Question 5.
The Great Maratha soldier of whom the Mughal soldiers were scared of.
Answer:
Dhanaji

Question 6.
The Historian Riyasatkar G.S. Sardesai described Rajaram Maharaj as.
Answer:
‘Sthirbuddhi’ (Level Headed)

Give reasons:

Question 1.
Sambhaji Maharaj had to abandon the Janjira campaign and turn back.
Answer:

• Sambhaji Maharaj started a campaign against Siddi in 1682 CE.
• His army laid a siege to Dandarajpuri fort and battered the fort of Janjira with the artillery.
• But at the same time, the Mughal army invaded Swaraj.
• Sambhaji Maharaj had to abandon the Janjira campaign and turn back.

Question 2.
Noted historian Riyasatkar G.S. Sardesai has described Rajaram Maharaj by using the adjective ‘Sthirbuddhi’. (Level Headed)
Answer:

• Rajaram Maharaj was thoughtful and kind- hearted.
• He brought together all the capable people in the Maratha empire.
• He united them and thus created a new enthusiasm amongst them.
• After the death of Sambhaji Maharaj, he fought against Aurangzeb for 11 years with great courage and tenacity.
• Rajaram Maharaj’s greatest achievement is that he protected Swaraj in those extremely difficult times.

Question 3.
The Eighteenth century is known as the Maratha Century.
Answer:

• After the death of Aurangzeb, not only did the Marathas filled the vacuum in the political arena, but also lead the political affairs.
• They ruled over Delhi’s throne and almost all parts of Hindustan and also protected it.
• Due to sequence of events, the 18th century is known as the ‘Maratha Century’.

Complete the following flow chart:

The lineage of the Bhosale family.

Answer:

7th Std History Questions And Answers:

• Sources of History Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• India before the Times of Shivaji Maharaj Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• Religious Synthesis Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• Maharashtra before the Times of Shivaji Maharaj Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• The Foundation of the Swaraj Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• Conflict with the Mughals Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• The Administration of the Swaraj Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• An Ideal Ruler Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• The Maratha War of Independence Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• The Expansion of the Maratha Power Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• Marathas – The Protectors of the Nation Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• Progression of the Empire Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• Life of the People in Maharashtra Class 7 History Questions And Answers