Class 7

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Soils Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 7 Geography Chapter 7 Question Answer Soils Maharashtra Board

Class 7 Geography Chapter 7 Soils Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Soils Class 7 Questions And Answers

1. Complete the following table.

Factor/Process	Role in the formation of soil
(1) Parent rock	…………….
(2) Regional climate	……………
(3) Organic material	…………..
(4) Micro­organisms	……………..

Answer:

Factor/Process	Role in the formation of soil
(1) Parent rock	The rock gets weathered depending on the hardness of the rock and the climate of the region. It turns into powdery material which further turns into soil.
(2) Regional climate	When the rock is exposed to a different climates, the same type of rock gives rise to different types of soil.
(3) Organic material	The organic material gets mixed into weathered powdery material and turn it into soil.
(4) Micro­organisms	Microorganisms help in decomposing the dead remains of organic materials and get mixed into the soil to form humus.

2. Why do the following occur?

Question 1.
To the west of Sahyadris, laterite soils are formed from the basalt rock.
Answer:

• Laterite soils are formed in regions of heavy rainfall.
• The climate of western Sahyadris is hot & humid.
• This leads to leaching of basalt rocks due to which there is formation of laterite soils.

Question 2.
Humus content in the soil increases.
Answer:

• Microorganisms and certain other organism help in decomposing the dead remains of organic materials.
• The biotic material thus produced is called humus.
• If organic manures, vermicompost compost are used regularly, the humus content in the soil increases.

Question 3.
Soil formation process is faster in the equatorial climate.
Answer:

• In the region of high rainfall and higher temperature the process of soil formation is faster.
• Equatorial climatic region have high temperature and receive high rainfall.
• Thus soil formation process is faster in the equatorial region.

Question 4.
The salinity of the soil increases.
Answer:

• Due to excessive irrigation, the salts from the soil are drawn upwards.
• This increases the salinity of the soil.

Question 5.
Rice is the staple diet of the people from Konkan.
Answer:

• Hot & humid climate, heavy rainfall & fertile alluvial soil are favourable for rice cultivation.
• This soil has good water holding capacity. Since these conditions are found in the konkan region, rice is grown on a large scale here.
• So rice is the staple diet of the people from Konkan.

3. Give information on:

Question 1.
Measures of soil conservation
Answer:
The following are the measures of soil conservation:

(i) Afforestation / Planting trees: Planting trees can control the velocity of wind. This helps reducing erosion by wind. The plant roots hold the soil and also reduces the erosion of soil.

(ii) Continuous contour trenches: Construction of continuous contour trenches at different height checks the velocity of water running along the slopes & hence reduces soil erosion. The water arrested in these trenches percolates into the ground.

(iii) Implementation of watershed Development program: The Government of Maharashtra has implemented the watershed development programme under which constructing embankment along slopes in rural areas, introducing CCTs along steep slopes etc. are undertaken. This led to the success of the scheme ‘Arrest water, let it percolate’. This has resulted in raising the ground water levels & reducing the erosion of soil.

(iv) Implementation of Jalayukt Shivar: Under the scheme of Jalayukt Shivar, works like construction of farm bunds, arresting waters of small streams, connecting the streams etc. are being carried out on a large scale.

Question 2.
Organic Manures.
Answer:
(i) Organic manures in farming, helps to maintain the pH balance.
(ii) It also increases the proportion of humus, and retain the fertility of soil.

Question 3.
Place where you will get the information about the suitability of a soil for a particular crop.
Answer:
(i) The information about the suitability of a soil can be obtained from Department of Agriculture of Government of Maharashtra, Natural Resource conservation services, soil testing laboratories in various states and at many agricultural universities.

(ii) The type of soil, soil fertility, pH status of the soil, etc. are determined in soil testing.

(iii) Based on the testing, an analysis of the soil is done & information about the suitability of a soil for a particular crop is provided.

Question 4.
Importance of soils for plant growth.
Answer:
(i) Soil is important for plant as it hold roots that provide support for plants and stores nutrient for the growth of plants.
(ii) Fertile soils favour plant growth.

4. Complete the following table with reference to soil.

Action	Effect	Result (W.R.T. fertility)
Construction of embankments.
	Wind speed decreased.
Farm land is kept fallow for some period.	Helps to maintain the pH balance and increase the proportion of humus.	Increases the fertility of soil.
Regular use of organic manures, vermicompost and compost.
	Check the velocity of water running along the slopes.
Litter is burnt in the farm.
Decomposed vegetal litters, roots of plants and remains of animals.
	Salt content in the soil increases.
	Leads to the lowering of humus content in the soil.

Answer:

Action	Effect	Result (W.R.T. fertility)
Construction of embankments.	Protects soil from being washed away.	Protects fertility of soil.
Planting trees.	Wind speed decreased.	Protects fertility of soil
Farm land is kept fallow for some period.	Helps to maintain the pH balance and increase the proportion of humus.	Increases the fertility of soil.
Regular use of organic manures, vermicompost[1] and compost.	Humus content increased.	Increases the fertility of soil.
Trenches are dug across a slope.	Check the velocity of water running along the slopes.	Protects fertility of soil
Litter is burnt in the farm.	Decreases the amount of organic material in soil.	Decreases the fertility of soil.
Decomposed vegetal litters, roots of plants and remains of animals.	Proves favourable for micro organism.	Increases the fertility of soil.
Excessive Irrigation	Salt content in the soil increases.	Decreases the fertility of soil
Chemical fertilizers used excessively.	Leads to the lowering of humus content in the soil.	Decreases the fertility of soil

Activity:

1. Visit a soil testing centre/laboratory and note the work that is carried out in the centre.
2. Prepare compost at home or in your housing society.
3. Visit a place where ‘Arrest water, let it percolate’ is being implemented. Collect information about it and make a note of it.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 7 Soils InText Questions and Answers

Think about it:

Question 1.
Rohit and Prateeksha noted that their field had yielded a bumper crop. But they also noted that a part of their field had a stunted growth of plants. What investigation will you suggest to them?
Answer:
I would suggest that they should check whether organic manures, are used evenly on all the parts of the field. Also, they should check whether that part of the field is getting adequate supply of water or not.

Question 2.
Why do equatorial regions have fertile soils?
Answer:
The sun rays are perpendicular in equatorial
regions so the climate is very hot and humid. This region also receives very heavy rainfall. As the process of soil formation is faster in these regions, equatorial regions have fertile soil. Also vegetal litter roots of plants, remains of animals, etc.; get decomposed adding to soil fertility.

Question 3.
Why is the vegetation sparse in deserts?
Answer:
A desert is a barren area of land where a little precipitation occurs and consequently living conditions for plant and animal life are very hostile. It is an area where the soils are not fertile & hence vegetation is scanty.

Try this:

• Take three flower pots of the same size.
• Keep one pot empty. Fill the second pot. With water after closing the hole at the bottom and fill the third pot with soil.
• Put a few seeds in all of them. (You may use aserio, peas, gram, fenugreek, wheat, green gram, coriander seeds, etc.)
• Keep all the three pots in the sun. and water the empty pot and the soil-filled pot for 4-5 days. Observe and answer the following.

Question 1.
What happened to the seeds put in the empty pot and pot filled with water?
Answer:
Seeds in the empty pot and the pot filled with water did not germinate and did not show any sign of growth.

Question 2.
What happened to the seeds put in the pot (c) filled with soil?
Answer:
Seeds germinated and we could see some small twigs branching out.

Question 3.
What do you learn from this?
Answer:
We learn that plants need sunlight, water and soil to grow.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 7 Soils Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
_____ rock in a region is an important factor in soil. (Parent, Basalt, Granite)
Answer:
Parent

Question 2.
The process of weathering depends on the _____ of the region. (climate, weather, soil)
Answer:
climate

Question 3.
The _____ rock of the Deccan Plateau in Maharashtra turns into black soil after weathering. (granite, basalt, parent)
Answer:
basalt

Question 4.
______ soils along the river beds give higher yields. (Infertile, Fertile, Coarse)
Answer:
Fertile

Question 5.
The _____ material comes from the decomposition of the remains of the plants and animals in that region. (biotic1, abiotic, pH)
Answer:
biotic1

Question 6.
______ is a complete ecosystem.(Soil, Humus, weathered rocks)
Answer:
Soil

Question 7.
Food crops like jowar and bajra are produced in the _____ soils of Maharashtra Plateau. (regur, coarse, laterite)
Answer:
regur

Question 8.
The local agriculture produce determines the _______ diet of the people. (staple, supplementary, secondary)
Answer:
staple

Question 9.
The proportion of humus is negligible in _____ soil. (coarse, black, laterite)
Answer:
coarse

Question 10.
Planting trees can also control the _____ of the wind. (velocity, direction, temperature)
Answer:
velocity

Question 11.
Rocks like granite or gneiss in South India give rise to ____ soil. (black, red, regur)
Answer:
red

Question 12.
In the humid climate of western Sahyadris the leaching of basalt rocks leads to formation of ___ soil. (black, lateritic, red)
Answer:
lateritic

Question 13.
The excessive spraying of chemicals and use of chemical fertilizers lead to ______; (soil degradation soil fertility, soil powder)
Answer:
soil degradation

Complete the following sentences:

Question 1.
The biotic material comes from _____.
Answer:
the decomposition of the remains of the plants and animals in that region

Question 2
Microorganisms ajnd certain other organisms help decompose the dead remains of ______.
Answer:
organic materials

Question 3.
Production of compost needs sufficient period of time and ______.
Answer:
elements like organic waste, water, heat, etc.

Question 4.
In the region of high rainfall and higher temperatures, _____.
Answer:
the process of soil formation is faster

Question 5.
In regions of low temperatures and low rainfall the _____.
Answer:
soil formation takes more time

Question 6.
High use of chemical fertilizers, insecticides _____.
Answer:
leads to the degradation of soils

Question 7.
In the areas where the soil is not fertile, _______.
Answer:
egetation is scanty

Question 8.
When man realized that sowing of seeds in the soil leads to the growth of plants and yields crops, ______.
Answer:
he started using soil as a resource

Question 9.
Excessive irrigation draws the salts from the soil upwards and ______.
Answer:
makes the soil saline and then unproductive

Question 10.
Keeping the farmland fallow for some period and cultivating different crops alternatively is important ________.
Answer:
to help retain the fertility of soils.

Give one word for the following:

Question 1.
Soil formed due to weathering of basalt rock.
Answer:
Black soil

Question 2
Soil formed due to the leaching of the basalt rock.
Answer:
Lateritic soil

Question 3.
Biotic material mixed into the soils.
Answer:
Humus

Question 4.
The excessive spraying of chemicals and use of chemical fertilizers.
Answer:
Soil degradation

Question 5.
The govt, scheme, work like construction of farm bunds, arresting waters of small streams, etc.
Answer:
Jalayukt Shivar.

Who am I?

Question 1.
I am a very important rock factor in soil formation.
Answer:
Parent rock

Question 2
I form due to weathering of basalt rock. Jowar and Bajra mostly grow on this soil.
Answer:
Regur soil / Black soil

Question 3.
I am found in the hilltops of the western part of the Deccan plateau.
Answer:
Coarse soil

Question 4.
I am black in colour and have less organic components.
Answer:
Regur or Black soil

Question 5.
I am orange in colour and mostly found in the coastal belt of Konkan.
Laterite soil

Question 6.
I am found at the mouth of the river in the western coastal strip.
Answer:
Alluvial soil of the coastal strip

Question 7.
I am mainly found in areas of extreme rainfall but not very useful for agriculture.
Answer:
Yellow brown soil

Question 8.
I am a method of soil conservation which controls the velocity of wind.
Answer:
Afforestation / planting trees

Match the columns:

Question 1.

Column I	Column II
(1) Coarse soil	(a) Alluvium deposition
(2) Regur soil	(b) Eastern part of Bhandara
(3) Laterite soil	(c) Ajanta, Balaghat, Mahaden hills
(4) Alluvial soil	(d) Coastal belt of konkan
(5) Yellow-brown soil	(e) Weathering of basalt rock

Answer:
1 – c
2 – e
3 – d
4 – a
5 – b

Answer the following questions in short:

Question 1.
What do you mean by ‘Soil’?
Answer:
(i) The uppermost layer of the earth’s crust is called ‘Soil’.
(ii) It contains the organic as well as mineral matter necessary for the growth of plants.

Question 2
What are the factors necessary for the soil formation?
Answer:
Soil is formed by:

• Weathering of the parent rock material.
• Climatic conditions of the region.
• The decomposition of plant remains.
• Animal manures and dead animals.
• Very long period of time.

Question 3.
What is leaching ?
Answer:
(i) Leaching is a process is which the salts & other soluble material are washed out of the rock through percolation of water.
(ii) This process is dominant in the areas of high rainfall & humid climate.

Question 4.
What is Humus?
Answer:
(i) The decaying of organic material such as dead leaves, stems, root of the plant, vegetal litters, decomposed remains of animals get mixed into the soil.
(ii) This results in the formation of “Humus” thus retaining the fertility of soil.
(iii) If the proportion of humus in the soil is greater, the soil becomes fertile.

Question 5.
What leads to the degradation of soils?
Answer:
(i) For getting higher production, different types of chemical fertilizers, insecticides are used profusely.
(ii) This leads to the degradation of soils.

Question 6.
What led to record agricultural production?
Ans,
(i) To get richer harvests man made efforts to increase the fertility of soils.
(ii) In the process, use of different fertilizers became a practice which led to record agricultural production.

Question 7.
What is soil erosion?
Answer:
(i) When a layer of soil (top layer of soil) get removed due to wind or water it is called soil erosion.
(ii) Running water, climate and diversity in physiography are the reasons of soil erosion.

Question 8.
What helps to maintain the pH balance of the soil?
Answer:
(i) Organic manures, vermicompost, compost are used regularly.
(ii) It helps in maintaining the pH balance and retaining the fertility of the soil.

Why do the following occur:

Question 1.
Rice is the staple diet of the people from Konkan.
Answer:
(i) Hot & humid climate, heavy rainfall & fertile alluvial soil are favourable for rice cultivation.
(ii) This soil has good water holding capacity. Since these conditions are found in the konkan region, rice is grown on a large scale here.
(iii) So rice is the staple diet of the people from Konkan.

Question 2.
Soil Erosion.
(i) A layer of soil gets removed due to wind or water.
(ii) Running water, climate and diversity in physiography are the reasons of soil erosion.

Question 3.
Soil degradation.
Answer:
(i) To obtain a higher agricultural yield, chemical fertilizers, insecticides, weedicides, etc. are used.
(ii) The excessive spraying of chemicals and use of chemical fertilizers leads to soil degradation.

Give geographical reasons:

Question 1.
Planting trees is necessary to conserve the soil.
Answer:
(i) A layer of soil gets removed due to wind or water which leads to soil erosion.
(ii) Planting trees controls the velocity of the wind, thus reducing the erosion of soil by wind.
(iii) The roots of the plants hold the soil which also prevents soil erosion.

Question 2
Continuous contour trenches are constructed along the slopes.
Answer:
(i) Construction of continuous contour trenches (CCTs) at different heights checks the velocity of water running along the slopes.
(ii) This reduces soil erosion.

Question 3.
It is advisable to use organic manures, vermicompost and compost regularly.
Answer:
(i) Use of organic manures, vermicompost, compost helps maintain the pH balance.
(ii) It also increases the proportion of humus thus retaining the fertility of soil.
(iii) Hence, it is advisable to use organic manures, vermicompost & compost regularly.

Question 4.
There emerged competition among the people to discover fertile lands and settle there.
Answer:
(i) Man started producing greater amount of food crops for the growing population.
(ii) He realized that crop production and prosperity in agriculture depends on the fertility of soil and the optimum availability of water.
Hence, there emerged competition among the people to discover fertile lands & settle there.

Question 5.
There was a rise of Indus civilization.
Answer:
(i) When man realized that the fertile soils along the river beds give higher yields.
(ii) He settled in the valleys and started living there in groups.
(iii) This led to the rise of Indus civilization.

Question 6.
Countries like Saudi Arabia, Qatar, Oman, etc., fulfil their requirements by importing food from other countries.
Answer:
(i) In countries like Saudi Arabia, Qatar, Oman etc. the soils are not arable so there is need to fulfil their food requirement.
(ii) Hence, countries like Saudi Arabia, Qatar, Oman import food from other countries.

Question 7.
Lets find the names of the soils we have learnt and which regions they are found?
Answer:

Soils	Answers	Regions
(1) RUGER	Regur	(a) Western part of Deccan Plateau and eastern part of Vidarbha.
(2) LUILALVA	Alluvial	(b) Panvel, Uran Coast, Dharamtar creek.
(3) OARCSE	Coarse	(c) Ajanta, Balaghat and Mahadeo hills.
(4) AEILTRITE	Laterite	(d) Coastal belt of Konkan, West of Sahyadris and East of Vidarbha.

Make Friends with maps!
Observe the map given below and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Which soil occupies most of the areas in Maharashtra?
Answer:
Black (Regur) soil occupies most of the areas in Maharashtra.

Question 2
In which areas are laterite soils found?
Answer:
Laterite soil is found in Raigad, Ratnagiri,Sindhudurg and some parts of Gadchiroli and Nashik.

Question 3.
Which soil is found in parts of the Sahyadri ranges?
Answer:
Yellow Brown soil is found in parts of the Sahyadri ranges.

Question 4.
In which region is alluvial soil found?
Answer:
Alluvial soil is found in Mumbai Suburban District, Mumbai city district some parts of Thane & Palghar district.

Question 5.
Which soil is found in the river valleys of Maharashtra?
Answer:
Fertile Alluvial Soil is found in the river valleys of Maharashtra.

7th Std Geography Questions And Answers:

• How Seasons Occur Part 1 Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• The Sun, the Moon and the Earth Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Tides Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Air Pressure Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Winds Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Natural Regions Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Soils Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• How Seasons Occur Part 2 Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Agriculture Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Human Settlements Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Contour Maps and Landforms Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Tides Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 7 Geography Chapter 3 Question Answer Tides Maharashtra Board

Class 7 Geography Chapter 3 Tides Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Tides Class 7 Questions And Answers

1. Prepare a chain by matching the following:

Question 1.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’	Group ‘C’
(1) Waves	(a) 8th phase of the moon (Quarter)	(i) Objects get thrown towards the outer side.
(2) Centrifugal force	(b) Newmoon day	(ii) Highest high tide occurs on this day.
(3) Gravitational force	(c) Rotation of the earth	(iii) These are also generated due to earthquakes and volcanoes.
(4) Spring Tide	(d) The moon, the sun and the earth	(iv) The forces of the sun and the moon operate in different directions.
(5) Neap tide	(e) Wind	(v) Operates in the direction towards the centre of the earth.

Answer:

1 – e – iii
2 – c – i
3 – d – v
4 – b – ii
5 – a – iv

2. Give geographical reasons:

Question 1.
Tides are influenced more by the moon than the sun.
Answer:

• The gravitational pull of the moon and the sun as well as that of the earth is one of the factor responsible for occurrence of tides.
• But compared to the sun, the moon is closer to the earth.
• Due to this the gravitational force of the moon becomes more effective than that of the sun.
• Therefore, tides are influenced more by the moon than the sun.

Question 2.
At some places along the coast, the low lying areas turn into lagoons or marshy lands.
Answer:
(i) Generally the areas along the sea coast are low lying and get flooded easily by the sea water during high tide.

(ii) This leads to accumulation of sea water over a long period of time leading to formation of swamps & marshes.

(iii) The tides help in maintaining the mangroves and the coastal biodiversity here.

(iv) Certain areas near the sea coast being low lying & waters being shallow also lead to sediment deposition by sea waves leading to formation of lagoons.

(v) In this way, at some places along the coast, the low lying areas turn into lagoons or marshy lands.

Question 3.
Place located on the opposite meridian experiencing high or low tide will also experience high or low tide respectively.
Answer:
(i) The gravitational force of moon, the sun & the earth and the centrifugal force generated due to the rotation of the earth are two major factors responsible for the occurrence of tides.

(ii) When a place (meridian) faces the moon the gravitational force of the moon exceeds the centrifugal force of the earth leading to high tide here as the water is pulled towards the moon.

(iii) At the same time the place on the earth located at the opposite meridian to the place experiencing high tide, the centrifugal force of the earth exceeds the gravitational force of the moon. Thus, the water is pulled in the direction away from the moon leading to high tide.

(iv) The water required for the high tide moves in from places that are at right angles to those having high tides causing a low tide at those places.

(v) Thus, place located on the opposite meridian to the place experiencing high or low tide will also experience high or low tide respectively.

3. Answer in brief:

Question 1.
If there is high tide at 7 am, find the timings of the next high and low tides on the same day at a given place.
Answer:

• There is high tide & low tide twice a day i.e. in 24 hours.
• One cycle of high tide & low tide is completed after every 12 hours & 25 minutes.
• If there is a high tide at 7 am, the next low tide will be at 1.12 pm (after 6 hrs & 12 min.) & the next high tide will be at 7.25 pm (after 12 hrs & 25 min.)

Question 2.
If at Mumbai (73° E meridian), there is high tide at 1.00 pm on Thursday, then on which other meridian will there be a high tide too? State with reasons.
Answer:
The other meridian which will experience high tide will be 107°W (180°-73°) because it is exactly 180° opposite from 73°E.

Question 3.
Explain the reasons for the generation of waves.
Answer:

• The main reason of wave generation is the force of the wind i.e. water appears to be moving.
• But at times waves get generated due to earthquake or volcanic eruptions occurring below the floor of the sea.
• Large or small waves are formed continuously at the surface of the sea.
• Generation of waves is a natural and regular phenomenon.

4. In what way will the following depend on the tides:

Question 1.
Swimming:
Answer:
A lack of an understanding of the timings of high and low tides may cause accidents to swimmers entering the sea.

Question 2.
Steering a ship:
Answer:
Ships can move up to the ports during high tide.

Question 3.
Fishing:
Answer:
With the high tide, fish moves into the creeks and this helps the fishing activity.

Question 4.
Salt Pans:
Answer:
During high tide, seawater can be stored in salt pans from which salt can be obtained.

Question 5.
Going to coastal areas for trips:
Answer:
Plan for going to trips after full moon or new moon day. Also one must have details about the timings of the tides for better enjoyment.

5. Observe figure of neap tide and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Which phase of the moon does it show?
Answer:
The diagram shows the phase of the quarter moon.

Question 2.
What are the relative positions of the moon, the sun and the earth?
Answer:
The moon, the earth and the sun make an angle of 90° (right angle)

Question 3.
What effect will it have on the tides?
Answer:
It will lead to neap tide. Due to such conditions during high tide the water level will rise less than usual while during low tide water level will fall less than usual.

6. Differentiate between:

Question 1.
High tide and low tide:
Answer:

High tide	Low Tide
(i) The rise in the level of sea water is caused by the combined effect of centrifugal and gravitational force of the moon and the sun.	(i) The fall in the level of sea water is caused by the combined effect of centrifugal and gravitational force of the moon and the sun.
(ii) At the time of high tide, sea water is very close to the coast.	(ii) At the time of low tide, sea water is far away from the coast.

Question 2.
Spring tide and neap tide.
Answer:

Spring tide	Neap Tide
(i) It occurs on the new moon day and the full moon day.	(i) It occurs on the the first and the third quarter days.
(ii) The gravitational pull of the moon and the sun as well as that of the earth are in a straight line and act in the same direction.	(i) The gravitational pull of the moon and the sun are at right angle.
(iii) Spring tides are a little higher than the average high tides and a little lower than the average low tides.	(iii) Neap tides are a little lower than the average high tides and little higher than the average low tides.

7. Describe the positive and negative effects of tides:
Answer:
The positive effects of tides are as follows:

• The tides clear the waste and hence the coasts become clean.
• Ports do not get filled with sediments .
• Ships can move up to the ports during high tide.
• During high tide, sea water can be stored in salt pans from which salt can be obtained.
• The tidal force can be used to generate electricity.
• With the high tide, fish move into the creeks and this helps fishing activity.
• The tides help in maintaining the mangroves and the coastal biodiversity.

The negative effects of tides are as follows:

• A lack of an understanding of the timings of high and low tides may cause accidents to swimmers entering the sea.

Activities:

1. Visit the nearest sea coast. From a higher location, observe the waves approaching the coast. See if the approaching waves change their direction. With the help of your teacher find the answer to why this change occurs.
2. Collect information from the internet about how electricity is generated from waves. Find places where such electricity is being generated.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 3 Tides InText Questions and Answers

Differentiate between:

Question 1.
Centrifugal force and Gravitational
Answer:

Centrifugal force	Gravitational force
(i) Due to rotation, the earth gets a type of power of force. This force works away from the centre. It is called centrifugal force. (ii) Centrifugal force works away from the centre. (iii) Due to centrifugal force an object on the earth would be thrown into the space.	(i) Gravitational force is working towards the centre of the earth. This force is many times greater than the centrifugal force. (ii) Gravitational force works towards the centre. (iii) Due to gravitational force an object on the surface of the earth remains at the place where it exists.

Write short notes:

Question 1.
Spring tide
Answer:
(i) On new moon & full moon days, the gravitational pull of the sun and the moon act in the same direction due to which the total pull increases.

(ii) Hence, the tide on these days is much higher than the average high tide.

(iii) This is known as spring tide.

Question 2.
Neap tide
Answer:
(i) While revolving around the earth, the moon makes a right angle with respect to the earth and the sun, twice a month.

(ii) This position occurs on the first and third quarter of each month. On both these days the forces of both the sun & the moon operate at right angles on the earth.

(iii) At the places where the sun causes high tide, the gravitational pull of the moon which is at right angles also acts on the water.

(iv) Due to such conditions the water level rise is less than usual at the time of high tide. Similarly, fall in water level is less than usual at the time of low tide.

(v) Such tides are called neap tides.

Question 3.
Waves
Answer:

• The sea water gets pushed by the wind and ripples are generated on the water surface. These are called waves.
• The sea water moves up & down or slightly forward & backward due to the waves.
• The waves bring the energy contained in them to the coast.
• Large & small waves are formed continuously at the surface of the sea.
• Generation of waves is a natural & regularly occurring phenomenon.

Question 4.
Struture of the waves
Answer:
(i) The sea water gets pushed up & down because of the wind. The raised up portion of the wave is called crest & the depressed one is called trough.

(ii) The vertical distance between a crest and the following trough is called the amplitude of the wave whereas the distance between two successive crests or troughs is called wave length.

(iii) The wave length, its amplitude & its velocity depend on the velocity of the wind.

Formative Assessment:
Observe the activity on pages 9, 10 of the textbook & discuss the result of the activities and answer the question given below:

Question 1.
In which direction will the piece of chalk fall? (fig. 1)
Answer:
The chalk will fall to the right.

Question 2.
Where did the water in the glass show a bulge? (fig. 2)
Answer:
At the sides of the glass.

Question 3.
What effect did the movement have on the things attached to the keyring? (fig. 3)
Answer:
The things attached to the keyring will move round.

Question 4.
What happened to the water in the container and the mixer? (fig. 1)
Answer:
The water will swirl round forming a bulge at the sides and a depression in the centre.

Question 5.
Which forces could be operating in activities listed above?
Answer:
In the first activity (fig. 1) gravitational force acted and in the fig. 2, fig. 3 centrifugal force.

Question 6.
In the following activities, which force is greater, centrifugal or gravitational?
Answer:
The centrifugal force was greater than the gravitational force.

Can you tell?
Answer the following of questions with the help of figure

Question 1.
How do the tides occur?
Answer:
Tides occur due to the relative positions of the moon, the sun, and the earth.

Question 2.
Which force is applied when the moon is closer to the earth?
Answer:
Gravitational force becomes more effective than that of the sun when the moon is closer to the earth.

Question 3.
If it is high tide those having high tide at 0° and 180° meridian then at which meridians will low tide occur?
Answer:
The meridians that are at right angle to those having high tide will experience low tide at the same time ie. at 90°E & 90°W.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 3 Tides Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks choosing the correct options from the brackets:

Question 1.
Due to rotation, the force that works away from the centre of the earth is the ______force. (gravitational, rotational, centrifugal)
Answer:
centrifugal

Question 2.
Neap tide occurs on the days of the ______ and _______ quarter of each month. (first, second, third)
Answer:
first, third

Question 3.
The tidal range in open seas is ______ cms. (20, 30, 40)
Answer:
30

Question 4.
The highest tidal range in the world is observed at _______.(Bay of Fundy, Bay of Biscay, Bay of Bengal)
Answer:
Bay of Fundy

Question 5.
The main reason for wave generation is ______ (wind, gravitational force, centrifugal force)
Answer:
wind

Question 6.
The raised up portion of a wave is called a _______ .(trough, wave length, crest)
Answer:
crest

Question 7.
The depressed portion of a wave is called a ______. (trough, wave length, crest)
Answer:
trough

Question 8.
The vertical distance between a crest and a trough is called the _____.(wave length, amplitude, tide)
Answer:
amplitude

Question 9.
The distance between a crest or trough is called _____ (amplitude, wave length, tide)
Answer:
wave length

Question 10.
Tall sea waves caused by earthquakes below the floor of the sea are called _____.(cyclones, tsunamis, eruption)
Answer:
tsunamis

Match the following:

Question 1.

‘A’	‘B’
(1)  Bay of Fundy (2)  Gulf of Khambhat (3)  Open Seas (4)  Peninsular India	(a)  1100 cm (b)  100 -150 cm (c)  1600 cm (d)  30 cm

Answer:
1 – c
2- a
3 – d
4 – b

Fill in the blanks:
Question 1.
High and low tides are _______ phenomena.
Answer:
Natural

Question 2.
_________ are movements of sea water occurring daily and regularly.
Answer:
Tides

Question 3.
Any object on the surface of the earth remains at the place due to the ______ force.
Answer:
Gravitational

Question 4.
The meridians that are at right angles to those having high, tide will experience tide _______.
Answer:
Low

Question 5.
On the days of the first and the third quarter, the high tide is at its _____.
Answer:
Minimum

Question 6.
On new moon and full moon days, the gravitational pull of the sun and the moon acting the ______ direction.
Answer:
Same

Question 7.
At every ______ a cycle of high tide and low tide gets completed.
Answer:
12 hrs & 25 min

Name the following:

Question 1.
Movement of sea water.
Answer:
Tides.

Question 2.
Two forces directly related with tides.
Answer:
Gravitational and Centrifugal forces.

Question 3.
Two types of tide.
Answer:
Spring tide and Neap tide.

Question 4.
The difference in the water level of the high tide and low tide.
Answer:
Tidal range.

Question 5.
The region with highest tidal range in India.
Answer:
The Gulf of Khambhat.

Question 6.
Tall waves caused by earthquakes in the shallow waters near the coast, which are very destructive.
Answer:
Tsunami.

Question 7.
Place where tsunami waves were generated in 2004.
Answer:
Sumatra islands of Indonesia.

Question 8.
Type of tide occuring on full moon day.
Answer:
Spring tide.

Question 9.
Type of tide occuring when sun and the moon are at right angles to each other.
Answer:
Neap tide.

Question 10.
Distance between two successive crests or troughs.
Answer:
Wavelength.

Define the following:

Question 1.
Tide:
Answer:
The alternate rising and falling of the sea water after a specific period is called tide.

Question 2.
Centrifugal force:
Answer:
Due to the earth’s rotation, the earth gets a type of power or force. This force works away from the centre. It is called the centrifugal force.

Question 3.
Tidal range:
Answer:
The difference in the water level of the high tide and low tide is called tidal range.

Question 4.
Waves:
Answer:
The sea water gets pushed by the wind and so ripples are generated on the water surface. These are called waves.

Question 5.
Amplitude of the wave:
Answer:
The vertical distance between a crest and the following trough is called the amplitude of the wave.

Question 6.
Wave length:
Answer:
The wave length is the distance between two successive crests or troughs.

Write whether the following statements are true or false:

Question 1.
The gravitational force is many times greater than the centrifugal force.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Spring tides are lower than average high tides.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Centrifugal force is generated due to the revolution of the earth.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
When there is high tide at 0° meridian, the 180° meridian also experiences high tide.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Tides occur due to the relative positions of the moon, the sun and the earth.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
The tides clean the waste and hence the coastal areas become clean.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
The tides worsen the maintaining of mangroves and the coastal biodiversity.
Answer:
False

Question 8.
Generation of waves is a natural and regularly occurring phenomenon.
Answer:
True

Give geographical reasons:

Question 1
Any object on the surface of the earth remains at the place where it exists.
Answer:

• Due to the earths rotation, it gets a type of power or force
• The force acting in the centre is centrifugal force.
• Due to this force any object on the earth would be thrown into the space.
• But the gravitational force is working towards the centre of the earth at the same time.
• This force is greater than the centrifugal force.
• Hence, any object on the surface of earth remains at the place where it exists.

Question 2.
On new moon and full moon days the tides are higher than average.
Answer:

• On new moon and full moon days, the gravitational pull of the sun and the moon act in the same direction.
• Due to this, the total pull increases.
• Hence, the tide on these days is much higher than the average high tide.

Question 3.
Neap tides are a little lower than average high tides.
Answer:

• While revolving around the earth, the moon makes a right angle with respect to the earth and the sun.
• This position occurs on the first and the third quarter of each month.
• On both these days, the forces of both the sun and the moon operate at right angles on the earth.
• The attraction of the sun and the moon are not complementary but at right angles to each other.
• Due to this, the water level rise is less than usual at the time of high tide

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
Which factors are responsible for the occurrence of tides?
Answer:
The following factors are responsible for the occurrence of tides.

• The gravitational pull of the moon and the sun as well as that of the earth.
• Revolution of the earth around the sun and the indirect revolution of the moon around the sun.
• Centrifugal force generated due to the rotation of the earth.

Draw a neat labelled diagram of:

Question 1.
The structure of a wave:
Answer:

Question 2.
Springtide:
Answer:

Question 3.
Neap tide:
Answer:

Question 4.
Occurrence of tides:
Answer:

Observe the following pictures and answer the following questions given below and discuss:


Question 1.
Do the above photographs show the same place or different places?
Answer:
Both the photographs show the same place.

Question 2.
Observe and note the spread of water seen in both the photographs.
Answer:
The level of water is higher in the first picture and lower in the second.

Question 3.
What is this natural event called?
Answer:
This natural event is called tide.

Try this:

Take a wide open large dish.
Keep the dish on a table or a flat surface.
Fill water in the dish up to the rim,(we have to generate waves in the dish).

Question 1.
Is it possible to generate waves without touching or shoving the dish? Try doing so.
Answer:
By blowing air with your mouth on the water surface of the dish.

Question 2.
In what different ways can you generate waves in the dish?
Answer:

• By dropping an object in the dish.
• By blowing air on the water surface.
• By strong fan breeze.

7th Std Geography Questions And Answers:

• How Seasons Occur Part 1 Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• The Sun, the Moon and the Earth Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Tides Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Air Pressure Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Winds Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Natural Regions Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Soils Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• How Seasons Occur Part 2 Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Agriculture Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Human Settlements Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Contour Maps and Landforms Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 6 Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duties Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 7 Civics Chapter 6 Question Answer Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duties Maharashtra Board

Class 7 Civics Chapter 6 Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duties Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duties Class 7 Questions And Answers

1. List the restrictions on the powers of the Government.

Answer:
Restrictions upon the powers of the Government are listed below:

• State should not discriminate between and among citizens on the basis of caste, religion, race, language or gender.
• State shall not deny anybody equality before the law and equal protection of the laws.
• No person shall be deprived of his life.
• State shall not impose any religious taxes.

2. Say ‘Yes’ or ‘No’.

Question 1.
The jobs advertised in the newspaper are for men and women both.
Answer:
Yes

Question 2.
Men and women doing the same work in a factory get different wages.
Answer:
No

Question 3.
Government implements various schemes for the improvement of public health.
Answer:
Yes

Question 4.
State shall protect all monuments of historic interest and national importance.
Answer:
Yes

3. Tell why:

Question 1.
The State shall protect all monuments of historic interest and national importance.
Answer:

• It is one of important Directive Principles of State policy.
• Monuments are a part of India’s rich cultural heritage. A rich source to learn history, it is our collective responsibility to protect them.

Question 2.
A pension scheme is implemented for old people.
Answer:

• The pension scheme is the State’s way of offering public assistance to citizens who have retired from work.
• This ensures that the retired person can lead a comfortable life.
• Hence a pension scheme is implemented for old people.

Question 3.
Free and compulsory education has been made available to children in the age group 6 to 14.
Answer:

• No child should be deprived of education. So it is made available.
• Right to Liberty now also includes Right to Education and all children are entitled to get education as a Fundamental right.

4. Say right or wrong. Correct and write the wrong ones:

Question 1.
Not to let the National Flag fall down on the ground.
Answer:
Right: It is our Fundamental Duty to respect the National Flag.

Question 2.
To stand in attention while the National Anthem is playing.
Answer:
Right: It is our Fundamental Duty to respect our National Anthem.

Question 3.
To carve or paint our names on the walls of a historic place like a fort.
Answer:
Wrong: It is our Fundamental Duty to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.

Question 4.
To give lesser wages to women than to men for the same work.
Answer:
Wrong: Fundamental Rights put restrictions on the power of the government and one of the restriction states that the state should not discriminate between and among citizens on the basis of gender amongst other things.

Question 5.
To keep public places clean.
Answer:
Right: It is our Fundamental Duty to safeguard public property.

5. Write about the following:

Question 1.
The Directive Principles of the Constitution enumerated in the textbook.
Answer:
(i) The State should secure adequate means of livelihood to all citizens without any gender discrimination.

(ii) The State should secure equal pay for equal work for both men and women.

(iii) The State should secure the improvement of public health.

(iv) The State shall endeavour to protect and improve the environment and safeguard the forests and wild-life of the country.

(v) The State shall protect all monuments of historic interest and national importance.

(vi) The State shall promote with special care the educational and economic interests of the weaker sections of the people, especially the Scheduled Castes and Tribes.

(vii) The State shall offer public assistance to citizens in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness, etc.

(viii) The State shall secure a uniform civil code applicable to the entire country.

Question 2.
The provision of a Uniform Civil Code for citizens in the Directive Principles of the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
(i) The provision of a Uniform Civil Code for citizens in mentioned in the Constitution.

(ii) It aims to replace personal laws based on the customs and scriptures of the different religious communities living in India with a common set of laws, which is uniform to all the citizens of India.

Question 3.
Why is it said that the Directive Principles and Fundamental Rights are two sides of the same coin?
Answer:

(i) Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Rights are two sides of the same coin.

(ii) Due to Fundamental Rights, citizens get the most needed liberty, while Directive Principles of State Policy creates an atmosphere conducive to the growth of democracy.

6. What are the ways in which citizens can conserve the environment ? Write with examples.
Answer:
There are various ways in which citizens can conserve the environment:

(i) Citizens can support the endeavour of the State to protect and improve the environment and safeguard the forests and wild-life of the country.

(ii) Citizens should collectively take responsible actions to protect and improve the natural environment we are a part of.

(iii) Citizens should put to an end cruelty towards animals and have compassion for living creatures.

Activities

• Education is our right. Form groups and discuss our duties in this respect.
• The State shall protect all monuments of historic interest and national importance. This is one of the Directive Principles. Find out the efforts made by the State about the conservation and protection of forts and make a chart.
• Gather information about the schemes implemented by the Government for children’s health.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 6 Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duties Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
Due to citizens get the most needed liberty. (Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles of State Policy, Fundamental Duties)
Answer:
Fundamental Rights

Question 2.
In order that the Indian citizens become conscious of their responsibilities ______ were included in the Constitution.
(Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties, Directive Principles of State Policy)
Answer:
Fundamental Duties

Question 3.
We should perform all the tasks that we have undertaken honestly always striving for ______. (excellence, progress, prosperity)
Answer:
excellence

Question 4.
Fundamental Rights restricts the power of the government to impose any ________. (laws, restrictions, religious taxes)
Answer:
religious taxes

Question 5.
Every citizen of India who is a parent or guardian should provide opportunities of education to his or her child or ward between the age of six and _______years. (eighteen, fourteen, seventeen)
Answer:
fourteen

Say ‘Yes’ or ‘No’:

Question 1.
The state should secure the improvement of public health.
Answer:
Yes

Question 2.
Public assistance is provided to citizens in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness etc.
Answer:
Yes

Name the following:

Question 1.
Put restriction on the power of the government.
Answer:
Fundamental Rights

Question 2.
Direction or guidelines in the Constitution about how to achieve the goals expressed in the Preamble of the Constitution.
Answer:
Directive Principles of the State Policy

Question 3.
Any two challenges faced by India after independence.
Answer:
Establishing order, carrying out smooth administration.

Question 4.
Any one directive which ensures that there is no gender discrimination.
Answer:
State should secure equal pay for equal work for both men and women.

Question 5.
It is our Fundamental Duty to respect these two national symbols.
Answer:
National Flag, National Anthem.

Question 6.
Any one practice we are expected to renounce according to the Fundamental Duties listed in our Constitution.
Answer:
Practices derogatory to the dignity of women.

Question 7.
It is our Fundamental Duty to develop these values.
Answer:
Scientific temper, Humanism, Spirit of inquiry and reform.

Say right or wrong with reason. Correct the write down the corrections:

Question 1.
To sacrifice our life for the sake of our motherland.
Answer:
Right: It is our Fundamental Duty .to defend the country, and to render national service when called upon to do so.

Question 2.
The State protects all monuments of historic interest and national importance.
Answer:
Right: It is one of the important Directive Principles of the State Policy.

Answer in one or two sentence:

Question 1.
Which restrictions on the power of the government by the Fundamental Rights ensure that no discrimination is practised by the State?
Answer:
Fundamental Rights restrains the State from discriminating between and among citizens on the basis of caste, religion, race, language or gender.

Question 2.
When India got independence, why was it necessary to draw up new policies?
Answer:
When India got independence the task of nation building had to be undertaken and for this new policies had to be drawn up.

Question 3.
What is included in the Directive Principles of the State Policy with respect to environment?
Answer:
It is included in the Directive Principles of the State Policy that the State shall endeavour to protect and improve the environment and safeguard the forest and wild-life of the country.

Question 4.
What is stated in the Directive Principles of State Policy with respect to weaker sections of the Society?
Answer:
It is stated in the Directive Principles of the State Policy that State shall promote with special care the educational and economic interest of the weaker sections of the people, especially the Scheduled Castes and Tribes.

Question 5.
What is the State expected to secure as per the Directive Principles of State Policy which is applicable to the entire country?
Answer:
The State is expected to secure a Uniform Civil Code applicable to the entire country according to the Directive Principles of State policy.

Question 6.
What can we do if a Directive is not implemented by the Government.
Answer:
If a Directive is not implemented by the Government, we can put pressure on the Government in various ways to make a policy in order to meet the goals.

Question 7.
When will the benefits of the various schemes of the Government not reach all the people?
Answer:
The benefits of the various schemes of the government cannot reach all the people if they do not fulfil their Fundamental Duties.

Question 8.
Why were the Fundamental Duties included in the Constitution?
Answer:
Fundamental Duties were included in the Constitution so that the Indian citizens become conscious of their responsibilities.

Question 9.
Why is it mentioned in our Fundamental Duties that we should strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity?
Answer:
It is mentioned in our Fundamental Duties that we should strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation can constantly rise to higher levels of endeavour and achievement.

Answer the following in brief:

Question 1.
What are the ways in which citizens can conserve the environment?
Answer:
There are various ways in which citizens can conserve the environment:

• Citizens can support the endeavour of the State to protect and improve the environment and safeguard the forests and wild-life of the country.
• Citizens should collectively take responsible actions to protect and improve the natural environment we are a part of.
• Citizens should put to an end cruelty towards animals and have compassion for living creatures.

Question 2.
State any five Fundamental Duties of the Indian citizens.
Answer:
Fundamental Duties of the Indian citizens are as follows:

• To abide by the Constitution and respect the National Anthem.
• To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom.
• To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
• To defend the country, and to render national service when called upon to do so.
• To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood transcending diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.

Give reason:

Question 1.
The State shall protect all monuments of historic interest and national importance.
Answer:

• It is one of important Directive Principles of State policy.
• Monuments are a part of India’s rich cultural heritage. A rich source to learn history, it is our collective responsibility to protect them.

Question 2.
A pension scheme is implemented for old people.
Answer:

• The pension scheme is the State’s way of offering public assistance to citizens who have retired from work.
• This ensures that the retired person can lead a comfortable life.
  Hence a pension scheme is implemented for old people.

Question 3.
Free and compulsory education has been made available to children in the age group 6 to 14.
Answer:

• No child should be deprived of education. So it is made available.
• Right to Liberty now also includes Right to Education and all children are entitled to get education as a Fundamental right.

Give your own response:

Question 1.
What else do you think the Government should do for students? Make a list of your demands. How would you convince others that your demands are just?
Answer:
The list of our demands are:

• Emphasis on skill training in school.
• Choice of a wide variety of subjects based on one’s interest.
• Compulsory training in a particular Sport.
• Making a foreign language compulsory in the curriculum.
• Better facilities in schools.
• Programme of mid-day meals should be implemented in all the schools in the rural areas.
• Inspection of schools from time to time to check the quality of education imparted.
• I will convince others through dialogues and discussion and go by the will of the majority.

Question 2.
Which improvements will be possible with the following facilities offered by the Government?
Answer:

• Public toilets: Maintenance from time to time and continuous water supply.
• Clean water supply: Ensuring that water treatment to remove contaminants is done before it reaches homes and other places for consumption.
• Vaccination of children:
• Create awareness among parents about different vaccinations through different media of communication.
• Organise vaccination drives from time to time.

Can you tell?

Question 1.
There is a directive to ensure ‘equal pay for equal work’.
Which principles and ideals of the Constitution will be realised with this directive? Why does it happen that inspite of doing the same work, women are paid less than men?
Answer:
(i) Right to Equality and the assurance that State shall not discriminate among citizens will be realised with this objective.

(ii) Due to lack of awareness of rights and no strict implementation of law, we witness gender discrimination at work.

Observe the Picture and answer the questions given below:

Which of the Fundamental Duties are not being followed in the situations above?

Question 1.
A boy scribbling on a historical structure.
Answer:
The duty to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.

Question 2.
Hanging lemon, chillies
Answer:
The duty to develop the scientific temper, humanism and spirit of inquiry and reform.

Question 3.
Damaging a public bus
Answer:
The duty to safeguard public property and to abjure violence.

Question 4.
A woman emptying a garbage can on the street.
Answer:
The duty to protect and improve the natural environment.

What do you think?

Question 1.
Girls and boys between the ages 6 and 14 have got the Right to Education. All the girls and boys in this age group should be in school. Yet many girls and boys are not able to go to school because of many reasons. They have to work to help their parents earn a living for the family. Do you think that it is unfair to such children to insist that they go to school?
Answer:
No I don’t think it is unfair to such children to insist that they go to school.

(i) Practising child labour is a form of exploitation and we have the Right against Exploitation which extends constitutional protection to children.

(ii) Similarly it is the Fundamental Duty of every citizen who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities of education to his or her child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years.

Question 2.
Which improvements will be possible with the following facilities offered by the Government?
Answer:
(i) Public toilets :

• Public toilets will eradicate open defecation and will improve the overall public health
• As the availability of toilets at close proximity to highway will ensure that people do not face inconvenience while traveling.

(ii) Clean water supply:

• Water is our basic need hence providing clean water is very important
• It will prevent the spread of water borne diseases like cholera, jaundice, etc.

(iii) Vaccination of children:

• Vaccination will improve the health of infants
• Vaccination will reduce the occurrence of diseases like polio in infants

7th Std Civics Questions And Answers:

• Introduction to Our Constitution Class 7 Civics Questions And Answers
• Preamble to the Constitution Class 7 Civics Questions And Answers
• Features of the Constitution Class 7 Civics Questions And Answers
• Fundamental Rights Part 1 Class 7 Civics Questions And Answers
• Fundamental Rights Part 2 Class 7 Civics Questions And Answers
• Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duties Class 7 Civics Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Contour Maps and Landforms Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 7 Geography Chapter 11 Question Answer Contour Maps and Landforms Maharashtra Board

Class 7 Geography Chapter 11 Contour Maps and Landforms Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Contour Maps and Landforms Class 7 Questions And Answers

1. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
How can the distribution of the height and landform in a region be shown?
Answer:
(i) While studying different landforms on the surface of the earth, one has to consider various facets of landforms like altitude, relief, slope, direction of slope and the drainage.
(ii) For this maps prepared using mathematical survey methods are used.
(iii) These maps help us to understand the above characteristics of the landforms.

Question 2.
To whom are contour maps useful?
Answer:
(i) Contour maps are useful to mountaineers, trekkers, soldiers, defence officers.
(ii) The nature of the ground and its shape can be estimated .
(iii) Defence officers use contour maps for strategic planning.
(iv) It is possible to identify suitable site for any project from the contour map of the region.

Question 3.
What do you understand by observing contour lines?
Answer:
(i) Contour lines are isolines of height.
(ii) These are drawn by joining the places of equal altitude.
(iii) These help in identification of land forms and their altitude from sea level.
(iv) These lines also help us to understand the nature and direction of the slope.

Question 4.
How will a contour map be useful to a fanner?
Answer:
(i) It is helpful selecting the type of farming to be practiced plantation farming in hilly regions, intensive farming in low lying region.
(ii) In order to reduce the erosion of soil, trenches are dug out in the direction perpendicular to the slope of the land.
(iii) Trees are planted along such trenches. When the farmer digs out such trenches, he will be careful in maintaining the level.

2. Fill the blanks with appropriate words:

Question 1.
If the contour lines are closer to each other, the slope is ______.
Answer:
steep

Question 2.
The contour lines on the map represent ______.
Answer:
places of same altitude

Question 3.
The slope can be understood from the distance between the ______.
Answer:
contour lines

Question 4.
If the distance between two contour lines is more then the ______ is gentle.
Answer:
slope

3. Identify the landforms in the following map:

Class 7 Geography Chapter 11 Contour Maps and Landforms InText Questions and Answers

A model of the relief in an area is shown in fig. Observe it carefully and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Which landforms do you seen in the model?
Answer:
Mountains & river valleys are seen in the model.

Question 2.
Which colours have been used on them?
Answer:
Yellow & blue colours have been used in the model.

Model of the Earth’s surface:

Question 1.
What all you seen in the map?
Answer:
We can see many contour lines on the map showing a hilly region. We can see the altitude of the hill ranges as well as its slope.

Question 2.
What is the general direction of the ranges shown in the map?
Answer:
The general direction of the ranges shown in the map is east-west

Question 3.
Towards which direction is the flat land located in the map?
Answer:
The flat land is located towards the east.

Question 4.
What are the maximum and minimum values of the lines in the map?
Answer:
The maximum value of the lines in the map is 800 & minimum value is 600.

Question 5.
What do these values indicate?
Answer:
These lines indicate the altitude of the region from the sea level.

Question 6.
Do you find any similarities in the map and the model in fig. (a)? What are those?
Answer:
The model in figure (a) & the contour line map in figure (b) are of the same region. The values of latitudes & longitudes are same on both the maps.

Question 7.
Which figure give us more information and what is that information?
Answer:
Fig. (b) Contour line map gives more information. It gives us information about the altitude of the landforms slope of the land forms with latitudes & longitudes

Question 8.
Is there any similarity between this map and the sketch map of the potato hill?
Answer:
Yes, similar to the sketch map of the potato hill,
the contour line map too is a 3D figure (Model of earth’s surface) which has been converted into a 2D map. The Contour line map is depicting contour line intervals.

Consider you have gone for mountaineering. You have to conquer a peak on the hill “A”. A map of this hill is given below. Studying the contour lines in the map, find the side from which you will reach the peak safely and easily. Mark your path on the map with a pencil.

Answer:
I will climb from eastwards to reach the peak safely as the slope eastwards is gentle and not steep. Lesser distance between the contour lines, indicates steep slope. The distance between the lines is greater eastwards, which shows the slope is more gentle on that side.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 11 Contour Maps and Landforms Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Contour lines join places with the same on a map.
Answer:
altitude

Question 2.
Generally, contour lines do not _______ each other.
Answer:
cross.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
How are contour maps helpful to us?
Answer:
(i) Contour maps help us to understand various facets of landforms, like altitude, relief, slope, direction of slope and the drainage.
(ii) These maps are of immense use to mountaineers, trekkers, soldiers, defence officers, etc.
(iii) These maps prove to be of great use in planning of a region.

Question 2.
Contour lines generally do not cross each other. Give reason.
Answer:
(i) Contour lines join places with the same altitude on a map.
(ii) Therefore they generally do not cross each other.

Observe the model and the map given below and answer the following questions:

A 3D model is given in fig. (a) The northern part of the model shows the basin of the rivers Mula-Mutha. To its south is the Katraj. Diveghat range extending from the west to the east. Beyond that some portion of Karha basin is seen.

Question 1.
In which direction does fort Purandar lie?
Answer:
Fort Purandar lies in the south direction.

Question 2.
What is the direction of flow of the river Karha?
Answer:
River Karha flows from west to east.

Question 3.
In which parts are the hill ranges not observed?
Answer:
The hill ranges are not observed in the eastern parts.

Question 4.
Which part of the model is not seen in the map? Why?
Answer:
The Karha river & the direction of its flow, the contour height and the slope of the land are part of map & not seen in the model.

Question 5.
In which direction does the altitude of Katraj- Diveghat range decrease?
Answer:
The altitude of katraj-Diveghat range decreases from west to east.

Question 6.
In which direction are higher hill ranges located?
Answer:
Higher hill ranges are located in the southern direction.

Use your brain!

When one sees a landform on a contour map, what is the observer’s position with respect to landform? For example, a hill is shown with the help of contours on a map. From where do you think you are looking at it?
Answer:
Aerial view. From somewhere above, may be from an aeroplane or helicopter.

7th Std Geography Questions And Answers:

• How Seasons Occur Part 1 Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• The Sun, the Moon and the Earth Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Tides Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Air Pressure Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Winds Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Natural Regions Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Soils Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• How Seasons Occur Part 2 Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Agriculture Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Human Settlements Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Contour Maps and Landforms Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Natural Regions Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 7 Geography Chapter 6 Question Answer Natural Regions Maharashtra Board

Class 7 Geography Chapter 6 Natural Regions Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Natural Regions Class 7 Questions And Answers

1. Read the following statements carefully. Correct the wrong ones and write them down:

Natural Regions Class 7 Geography Question 1.
Due to its mild and warm climate, people from the West European region are not energetic.
Answer:
False – Due to its mild and warm climate people from the West European region are industrious and energetic.

Std 7 Geography Chapter 6 Natural Regions Question 2.
The prairie region is called the wheat basket of the world.
Answer:
True.

Natural Regions Class 7 Questions And Answers Question 3.
The trees in the Mediterranean region have oily leaves and the bark is quite thick. There is a high rate of transpiration.
Answer:
False – The trees in the hot desert region have oily leaves and the bark is quite thick. There is high rate of transpiration.

Natural Regions Class 7 Question 4.
The camel is an important animal of the hot desert region as it can survive without water and is useful for transport.
Answer:
True.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 6 Natural Regions Question 5.
Carnivorous animals like tigers and lions are found in large numbers in the equatorial regions.
Answer:
False – Carnivorous animals like tigers and lions are found in large numbers in the grassland region (Sudan).

2. Give geographical reasons:

6 Natural Regions Question 1.
People in monsoon region are mainly engaged in agriculture.
Answer:
(i) The monsoon region is located in tropical & subtropical belt between 10° & 30°N & parallels which receives almost perpendicular rays of the sun for most part of the year.

(ii) The summers temperature are hot with between 27° & 32°C & the winters are mild with temperatures between 15° to 24°C.

(iii) This region receives rainfall during specific season from the south west monsoon winds and the rainfall varies between 250 to 2500 mm.

(iv) Thus as the climatic conditions are such that they favour growth of variety of crops.

(v) Thus, people in the monsoon region are engaged in agriculture.

Natural Regions Std 7 Question 2.
Trees in equatorial forests grow tall.
Answer:
(i) The equatorial forest are found in regions between 50°N & 50°S of the equator. This region receives perpendicular rays of the sun throughout the year.

(ii) The climate of the equatorial region is hot & it receives rainfall throughout the year. Annual rainfall in this region is between 2500 & 3000 mm.

(iii) Hence, dense evergreen forests are found here. Due to dense vegetation sunlight does not reach the ground & the trees compete for sunlight.

(iv) Thus, trees in equatorial forests grow tall.

Question 3.
Vegetation is short-lived in the Tundra region.
Answer:
(i) Tundra region is located between 65°N to 90°N parallels due to which the climate here is very cold.
(ii) The mean summer temperatures is between 20°C to 30°C.
(iii) Very cold climate of winter does not support growth of vegetation but short grass, small shrubs, flowers, lichen, moss etc. grow during short summer period here
(iv) Thus, vegetation is short-lived in the Tundra region.

3. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What is the latitudinal extent of the Taiga . region?
Answer:
Taiga region extends from 55° to 65° N latitudes from Alaska to the Atlantic coast & in parts of Eurasia.

Question 2.
Name any three herbivorous animals from the Sudan region. What has nature endowed them with for self-protection?
Answer:

• Sudan region has zebras, elephant and giraffe.
• Nature has gifted them with speedy legs.
• The skin of the animals here have colourful spots or stripes/bands.

Question 3.
What are the characteristics of the Monsoon region?
Answer:
The characteristics of the Monsoon region are as follows:

• The summer temperature is between 27° and 32°C & the winter temperature is 15° to 24°C.
• Rainfall varies between 250 to 2500 mm. This region gets rain in specific seasons from the SW Monsoon.
• Rainfall here is highly variable and distribution is quite uneven.
• Semi-evergreen and deciduous forests are found in this region. Vegetation depends on the distribution of rainfall.
• Agriculture is the main occupation of the people here.
• Large number of small hamlets are found. There is considerable difference in the diet & costumes of the people in the monsoon region.
• Population here is mostly engaged in primary occupation

4. Show the following items on an outline map of the world. Prepare the index:

• Colorado Desert
• British Columbia
• Downs Grassland
• Inhabited part of Greenland
• Mediterranean Sea
• Congo basin
• Llanos and Campos

Answer:

Activity:

Using the Internet, check the information given in this lesson. Collect pictures of the flora and fauna and the human life of the various natural regions. Make a collage by pasting these pictures on the world map.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 6 Natural Regions InText Questions and Answers

Can you tell:

Observe the picture given on Pg. no. 30 of Geography textbook and answer the following question given below.

Page no: 31

Question 1.
Why are the house types shown in the pictures not seen in our surrounding?
Answer:
All the house types shown in the pictures are not seen in our surroundings because house types differ from place to place. They are built taking into consideration rainfall, temperature and raw material available for building houses.

Question 2.
Which are the regions where such types of houses are found?
Answer:
In cities, we find buildings and bungalows built of concrete material. An igloo is found in the Tundra or Taiga region. Huts are found in grassland or forested areas.

Question 3.
Would you like to stay in a house built of ice? Why don’t we build such houses?
Answer:
Yes, I would like to stay in an ice house. We can’t build it here because the temperature is high which will melt the ice and we don’t have snowfall in Maharashtra.

Question 4.
What brings about difference in people’s clothing?
Answer:
There is difference in people’s clothing because firstly it depends upon the climate of the place. Secondly it depends upon the culture & tradition as well as the raw material available or textile industries that are set up a particular region.

Question 5.
Where do you think Khubz, insects and ants also form a part of the diet of the people?
Answer:
Human beings eat whatever is edible & does not harm their digestive system.
Previously Khubz, insects & ants were consumed mainly by tribal people or people living in underdeveloped countries, but today it is consumed by people for protein, or for tradition or even as exploratory cuisine.

Question 6.
Can the animals from polar region like polar bears and penguins be kept in the tropical zoos?
Answer:
No, polar bear and penguins survive only in colder regions. They cannot bear the tropical heat and may die. Therefore, they are not kept in tropical zoos.

Question 7.
Are all the plants shown in the pictures found in our surroundings? If not, where do you think they can be found?
Answer:
TB pg 30 – The tree shown in 1 st picture is found in the coastal area. The tree in the 2nd picture is found in the equatorial region. The plant in the 3rd picture is found in the hot desert region.
TB pg 31 – The tree in the 1st picture is found in grassland regions.
The tree in 2nd picture is found in the monsoon region
The tree in the 3rd picture is found in the Taiga region.

Think about it:

Question 1.
Why are animals like lions not found in Equatorial forests?
Answer:
(i) Equatorial regions have hot & humid climate & it rains throughout the year. So, dense multilayered evergreen forests are found here.

(ii) As the sunlight does not reach the ground the trees compete to get sunlight & hence trees grow very tall.

(iii) Mainly animals which can survive in swampy & marshy environment of forests are arboreal animals found in equatorial forests.
Hence animals like lions are not found in equatorial forests.

Question 2.
Why are the hot deserts mainly located along the western side of the continents?
Answer:
The planetary winds shed their moisture in the eastern parts of the continents and become dry by the time they reach the western margins. Therefore, hot deserts are mainly located along the western side of the continents.

Question 3.
Why are people in the hot deserts engaged mostly in animal rearing?
Answer:
Hot deserts have very scanty rains and high temperature which does not favour agriculture, therefore people in the hot deserts are mostly engaged in animal rearing.

Question 4.
Why do people in hot deserts live a nomadic life?
Answer:
People in hot deserts rear animals for a living. Therefore they move from place to place in search of water and fodder for their animals.

Question 5.
Why are carnivorous animals found in the grasslands?
Answer:
In the grassland region there are a large number of herbivorous animals. Therefore carnivorous animals are found in large numbers.

Make friends with maps!

Observe the map and answer the following questions

Question 1.
Which natural regions are found in India?
Answer:
Monsoon region is the natural region found in India.

Question 2.
Which continent comprises a major portion of the hot desert type of region?
Answer:
Continent of Africa comprises a major portion of hot desert type region.

Question 3.
Which continent has the highest diversity in terms of natural regions?
Answer:
Continent of Asia has the highest diversity in terms of natural region.

Question 4.
Why are there fewer natural regions in the southern hemisphere than those in the northern hemisphere?
Answer:
Because the land in the southern hemisphere is less and have only in two temperature zones.

Question 5.
Which natural region occupies the largest area in the world.
Answer:
Taiga region occupies the largest area in the world.

Question 6.
Where else do we find conditions similar to the continent of Antarctica?
Answer:
Greenland has conditions similar to continent of Antarctica.

Question 7.
Throughout which natural regions does the Prime Meridian pass?
Answer:
The Prime Meridian passes through Hot deserts, Mediterranean type of climate, Taiga, West European type region.

Observe the table of natural region on Pg. 33 of textbook, then answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Which natural region consists of short-lived vegetation?
Answer:
Tundra region consists of short-lived vegetation.

Question 2.
In which natural region will you find the kraals?
Answer:
We will find the kraals in Sudan type grassland region.

Question 3.
Which region has winter rains?
Answer:
The Mediterranean region has winter rains.

Question 4.
In which natural regions are gorillas and chimpanzees found?
Answer:
Gorillas and Chimpanzees are found in the Equatorial region.

Question 5.
In which natural region is the land surface in the forests devoid of vegetation?
Answer:
Hot deserts region is devoid of vegetation.

Question 6. Which regions favour dairy farming?
Answer:
Grassland (Prairie and Steppes) favour dairy farming.

Question 7.
Which region is favourable for fruit production?
Answer:
Mediterranean region is favourable for fruit production.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 6 Natural Regions Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks choosing the correct option from the bracket:

Question 1.
The ______ people live in the Steppes grassland and they live a nomadic life. (Zulu, Pygmies, Kirgiz)
Answer:
Zulu

Question 2.
Monsoon region gets rains from the ____ winds. (NE monsoon, SW monsoon, SE monsoon)
Answer:
SW monsoon

Question 3.
_____ cause cyclonic rain in the West European region. (Westerlies, Easterlies, Polar)
Answer:
Westerlies

Question 4.
Sailors and explorers are mainly found in the ______ region. (Mediterranean, Monsoon, West European)
Answer:
Mediterranean

Question 5.
The _______ type of forest is found in the Equatorial region.(Coniferous, Evergreen, Deciduous)
Answer:
Evergreen

Question 6.
The ________ region receives rainfall in winter. (Mediterranean, Equatorial, Taiga)
Answer:
Mediterranean

Question 7.
Seat of Greek and Roman civilization is found in the ______ region. (Taiga, Hot desert, Mediterranean)
Answer:
Mediterranean

Question 8.
In Monsoon region, ______ is the main occupation of the people. (agriculture, animal husbandary, secondary)
Answer:
agriculture

Match the pair correctly:

Question 1.

Region	Latitudinal extent
(1) Tundra region	(a) 5° to 20° N and S
(2) Taiga region	(b) 20° to 30° N and S
(3) Grassland (Steppes and Prairies	(c) 30° to 55° N and S
(4) Hot Desert	(d) 55° to 65° N and S
(5) Grassland (Sudan type)	(e) 65° to 90° N and S

Answer:
1 – e
2 – d
3 – c
4 – b
5 – a

Do the following tasks:
Question 1.
Write the important occupation of the region in the following table:
Answer:

Question 2.
Find the location of the following regions from the world map and write down in the table given below:
Answer:

Regions	Location
(1) Tundra region	(a) Greenland, N. Canada, N. Europe, North Asia.
(2) Taiga region	(b) Alaska to the Atlantic coast, Parts of Eurasia.
(3) Grasslands (Steppes and Prairies)	(c) Steppes (Eurasia), Velds (South Africa), Pampas (S. America), Prairies (N. America), Down (Australia), etc.
(4) Hot Desert region	(d) In the western parts of continents, Sahara (N. Africa), Colorado (N.America), Atacama (S.America), Kalahari (S. Africa), Thar (Asia), etc.
(5) Grasslands (Sudan type)	(e) Savanna (Africa), Queensland (Australia), the Parkland (Africa), Llanos and Campos (S.America) and other grasslands.
(6) Equatorial region	(f) Malaysia, Indonesia, Singapore, Guinea, Cango basin, Amazon basin.
(7) Monsoon region	(g) Indian subcontinent, Philippines, West Indies, N. Australia, E. Africa, E. America etc.
(8) Mediterranean region	(h) Portugal, Spain, Algeria, Turkey, California, Central Chile, SW and NE Australia, etc.
(9) West European region	(i) Norway, Denmark, Ireland, British Colombia, South Chile, New Zealand, etc.

Who am I. (Type of region):

Question 1.
I am found in Indonesia and Guinea
Answer:
Equatorial Region

Question 2.
I am found as Llanos and Campos
Answer:
Grasslands (Sudan type)

Question 3.
I am found in the Colorado and the Atacama
Answer:
Hot Desert region

Question 4.
I am found in South America and North America
Answer:
Grassland (steppes and prairies)

Question 5.
I am found from the Alaska to the Atlantic coast
Answer:
Taiga region

Question 6.
I am found in Greenland and North Canada
Answer:
Tundra region

Question 7.
I am found in California.
Answer:
Mediterranean region.

Name the following:

Question 1.
Any two animals of Tundra region
Answer: Reindeer, Polar bears.

Question 2.
Any 2 types of trees of the Taiga region.
Answer:
Spruce, Pine.

Question 3.
A tribe found in the Steppes and Prairies grassland who are no more nomadic.
Answer:
Kirghiz

Question 4.
Any two tribes found in Sudan type grassland region.
Answer:
Zulu, Hausa

Question 5.
Any three hot deserts
Answer:
Sahara (N. Africa), Thar (Asia), Colorado (N. America)

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
What is the mean winter temperature in the Tundra region?
Answer:
The mean winter temperature in the tundra region is approximately -20° to -30°C.

Question 2.
How are the summers and winters in Sudan region?
Answer:
In the Sudan region, summers are hot and humid where as winters are warm and dry.

Question 3.
What are the annual rainfall in the Equatorial region?
Answer:
The annual rainfall in the equatorial region is between 2500 and 3000 mm.

Question 4.
Which animal is commonly found in the hot deserts? Why?
Answer:
Camels are commonly found in the hot deserts. as they can survive for days without water.

Question 5.
What are the characteristics of plants in the hot desert region?
Answer:
Their vegetation is in the form of thorny bushes with hardly any leaves; also the leaves are narrow, oily & the plants have a thick bark.

Question 6.
What type of forest are found in the Taiga region?
Answer:
Mainly coniferous forests are found in the Taiga region.

Give Geographical reasons for:

Question  1.
In hot desert region, animals like camels survive for days without water.
Answer:
(i) In Hot desert region mean summer temperature is 30° to 45°C.
(ii) The heat is tremendous & the rainfall is very low.
(iii) Camels have adapted themselves to such extreme conditions. When there is food & water a camel can eat & drink large amounts & store it as fat in the hump. Hence in hot desert region, animals like camels survive for days without water.

Question 2.
The Mediterranean region is known for its rainfall in winters.
Answer:
(i) The Mediterranean region lies between 30°and 40° parallels in both the hemispheres on the western side of continents.
(ii) Therefore, the Mediterranean region comes under the influence of westerlies.
(iii) Hence, it receives rainfall in winter.

Question 3.
Taiga region, lumbering is the main occupation.
Answer:
(i) The Taiga region has a cool climate. The summer temperature ranges between 15° to 20°C & the winter temperature falls below 0°C.
(ii) Hence, mainly coniferous forests are found here.
(iii) The wood of the trees here is light & soft.
(iv) Hence, lumbering is the main occupation in the Taiga region.

Question 4.
As one travels from the equator to the poles the spectrum of biodiversity narrows down.
Answer:
(i) In Equatorial region the occupation is based on forest produce, for eg. gathering of gum, rubber, etc.

(ii) Whereas towards the poles, the availability of natural resources adversely affects the human occupations.

(iii) The availability of sunlight and water keep on changing from equator to the polar region therefore as one travels from the equator to the poles, the spectrum of biodiversity narrows down.

Question 5.
There are variations in the biodiversity in different parts of the world.
Answer:
(i) Difference in landforms, climate and soil greatly influence the flora, fauna and human life.
(ii) Therefore it give rise to variations in the biodiversity in different parts of the world.

Question 6.
Equatorial region has a number of diseases.
Answer:
Equatorial region has a number of diseases because of the hot and humid climate which ,decomposes and causes vegetal litter.

Answer the following questions in short:

Question 1.
Describe coniferous trees in the Taiga region.
Answer:

• Coniferous trees have light and soft wood
• Leaves are narrow and pointed.
• Branches are leaning towards the ground.

Question 2.
Describe the vegetation in the Mediterranean region.
Answer:

• Grass is found in low rainfall regions whereas coniferous forests are found in mountainous region.
• Trees have thick barks and thick, small and oily leaves.

Question 3.
What types of forests are found in the Monsoon region?
Answer:
In the Monsoon region, semi-evergreen and deciduous forest are found.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
What are the characteristics of the West European Region?
Answer:
The characteristics of the West European Region are as follows

• Mean Summer temperature is around 20°C, mean winter temperature is around 5°C.
• Mean rainfall is between 500 and 2500 mm.
• The rainfall is mostly in the form of cyclones associated with westerlies.
• It rains throughout the year.
• Climate is mild.
• Green grass is seen all the year round.
• Trees shed their leaves in winter.
• Coniferous trees and short-grasses grow here.

Question 2.
What are the characteristics of the Mediterranean region?
Answer:
The characteristics of the Mediterranean region are as follows :

• Dry summers and rainfall in winter and mean summer temperature from 21 °C to 27°C.
• Winter temperature between 10°C and 14°C.
• Mean annual rainfall is 500 to 1000 mm.
• It rains in winter.
• Thick small oily leaves.

Arrange the name of the region given in the semicircular globe depending on the parallels they lie:

Question 1.

Answer:

• Tundra region – Between 65° to 90° parallels.
• Taiga region – Between 55° and 65°N parallels.
• Prairie grassland – Between 30° and 55° N and S parallels.
• Hot Desert region – Between 20° and 30° N and S parallels.
• Sudan grassland – Between 5° to 20° N & S parallels.
• Equatorial region – Between 5° N to 20° S of the equator.

7th Std Geography Questions And Answers:

• How Seasons Occur Part 1 Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• The Sun, the Moon and the Earth Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Tides Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Air Pressure Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Winds Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Natural Regions Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Soils Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• How Seasons Occur Part 2 Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Agriculture Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Human Settlements Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Contour Maps and Landforms Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 5 Fundamental Rights Part 2 Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 7 Civics Chapter 5 Question Answer Fundamental Rights Part 2 Maharashtra Board

Class 7 Civics Chapter 5 Fundamental Rights Part 2 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Fundamental Rights Part 2 Class 7 Questions And Answers

1. Write about the following:

Question 1.
The Constitution prevents the imposition of religious taxes.
Answer:

• State cannot impose religious taxes that might be used to encourage a particular religion. That is, our Constitution forbids religious taxes.
• This is done in order to broaden the scope of religious freedom.

Question 2.
What is meant by Right to Constitutional Remedies?
Answer:

• In case of encroachment of Fundamental Rights, the Indian citizens have the right to get judicial remedies is also a fundamental right.
• This is called the Right to Constitutional Remedies.
• This means providing legal remedies in case people’s rights get violated.
• So, it becomes a Constitutional duty of the courts to protect the rights of the people.

2. Find one appropriate word:

Question 1.
Protection from illegal arrest and detention.
Answer:
Habeas Corpus

Question 2.
To restrain a person from acting in an office to which he is not entitled.
Answer:
Quo Warranto

Question 3.
The order of the Supreme Court or the High Court commanding the government to perform an action that is its duty to perform.
Answer:
Mandamus

Question 4.
The order preventing a Subordinate Court from exceeding its jurisdiction.
Answer:
Prohibition.

3. State the reason why we are free to practise the following:

Question 1.
All Indian citizens can celebrate all festivals joyfully, because
Answer:

• In India, we have a great diversity of festivals. Our Constitution has given the different communities the right to preserve their cultural uniqueness.
• This is guaranteed by our Constitution by giving the citizens the Right to Freedom of Religion.
• So we are free to celebrate all festivals joyfully.

Question 2.
We can make efforts towards the preservation and propagation of our language, its script and literature, because…
Answer:

• Cultural and Educational Rights in our Constitution gives the communities the right to preserve their cultural uniqueness.
• So we are free to make efforts towards preservation and propagation our language, its script and literature

4. Fill in the blanks with appropriate words:

Question 1.
We can approach the ______ in case of infringement of our rights (Court, Police, Government)
Answer:
Court

Question 2.
________ education cannot be made compulsory in educational institutions that get aid from the state. (Political, Religious, Racial)
Answer:
Religious

Class 7 Civics Chapter 5 Fundamental Rights Part 2 Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
_____ right provides freedom to establish institutions for religious reasons. (Right to Religion, Cultural and Educational Rights, Right to Constitutional remedies)
Answer:
Right to Religion

Question 2.
_____ is the right which gives people freedom to preserve their own language, script and literature. (Right to Freedom of Religion, Right to Equality, Cultural and Educational Rights)
Answer:
Cultural and Educational Rights

Question 3.
Sometimes the rights that are guaranteed to us by the Constitution may get encroached upon and we are not able to exercise our rights and this is called _______.(violation of our rights, infringement of our rights, deprivation of our rights)
Answer:
infringement of our rights

Question 4.
The writ which ensures protection from unlawful arrest and detention is ________. (Mandamus, Certiorari, Habeas Corpus)
Answer:
Habeas Corpus

Question 5.
The writ which prevents a subordinate court from exceeding its jurisdiction is _____. (Prohibition, Quo Warranto, Certiorari)
Answer:
Prohibition

Question 6.
The writ which restrains a person from acting in an office to which he is not entitled is ________. (Prohibition, Quo Warranto, Mandamus)
Answer:
Quo Warranto

Question 7.
The writ which orders removal of a lawsuit from a subordinate court to superior court is ______. (Habeas corpus, Mandamus, Certiorari)
Answer:
Certiorari

Question 8.
There are ______, protection available for judicial rights. (judicial, religious, educational)
Answer:
judicial

Question 9.
There are _______ official languages in Indian Constitution. (22, 28, 24)
Answer:
22

Question 10.
While considering fundamental rights, we also need to remember our _______. (duties, belief, self-interest)
Answer:
duties

Answer in one or two sentence:

Question 1.
In which educational institutions is it not allowed to make religious education compulsory?
Answer:
Religious education cannot be made compulsory in educational institutions that receives aid from the state.

Question 2.
In which aspects of social life of our country do we witness diversity?
Answer:
We can see that there is a great diversity of festivals, food and ways of life in the social life of our country.

Question 3.
Write any one right given to the different communities to preserve their cultural uniqueness.
Answer:
The communities can establish institutions for the development of their language.

Question 4.
Which Fundamental Right ensures that there is no encroachment on our Fundamental Rights?
Answer:
The Right to Constitutional Remedies is the Fundamental Right which ensures that there is no encroachment on our Fundamental Rights.

Question 5.
What is called an infringement of our rights?
Answer:
Sometimes the rights that are guaranteed to us by the Constitution may get encroached upon and we are not able to exercise our rights. This is called an infringement of our rights.

Question 6.
What does protection of Fundamental Rights by the courts ensure?
Answer:
Protection of Fundamental Rights by courts ensure that the citizens are able to exercise their Fundamental Rights and that they can fulfil their roles as alert, responsible and active citizens.

State the reason why we are free to practice the following:

Question 1.
We can move to court if there is encroachment of Fundamental Rights because….
Answer:
(i) In case of encroachment of Fundamental Rights, the Indian citizens have the right to get judicial remedies.

(ii) The Right to Constitutional Remedies is a Fundamental Right. So we can move the court if there is an encroachment on Fundamental Rights.

Write about the following:

Question 1.
what is each Indian free to practise?
Answer:
According to Right to Freedom of Religion, each Indian citizen is free to practise any religion and to establish institutions for religious reasons.

Question 2.
What right has our Constitution given to different communities?
Answer:

• One of our Fundamental Rights is Cultural and Educational Rights.
• Our Constitution has given the different communities the rights to preserve their cultural uniqueness.

Question 3.
What does the court do if there is infringement of our rights?
Answer:
The court considers our complaint, investigates it and in case it is convinced that rights have indeed been infringed upon and injustice has been done to the aggrieved individual, the court gives an appropriate verdict.

Question 4.
Give some instances which illustrate the infringement of rights:
Answer:
Some instances of infringement of rights are:

• Arresting an individual without reason.
• Preventing a person from leaving a village or a town without giving a valid reason.
• Refusing food, water or medicines to jail inmates.

Let’s us discuss:

Question 1.
How many official languages are listed in the Constitution?
Answer:
Currently there are 22 scheduled languages in India.

Question 2.
Which institutions have been established by the Maharashtra State Government for the further development of the Marathi language?
Answer:
Some institutions established by Maharashtra State Government for the further development of Marathi language are:

• Akhil Bharatiya Marathi Nathya Parishad.
• Maharashtra Sahitya Parishad – Pune.
• Rajya Marathi Vikas Sanstha.
• Akhil Bharatiya Marathi Sahitya Mahamandal.

Question 3.
Is the reaction of this Government official right or wrong?
An officer tells a woman who presents all the documents for getting the benefits of a scheme i for destitutes, “You don’t look like a destitute” and refuses her the benefits of the scheme. In this instance, do you think the woman’s right has been infringed? Where should she go to get redressal?
Answer:

• The reaction of this government official is incorrect since the woman has presented all the documents pertaining to the scheme.
• This is encroachment of her Fundamental Rights.
• She should move to court and lodge a complaint and seek constitutional remedy for infringement of her rights.

Find out and discuss:

Question 1.
How many official languages are listed in the Constitution?
Answer:
The Eight schedules of the Constitution consists,of the following 22 languages:

1. Assamese
2. Bengali
3. Gujarati
4. Hindi
5. Kannada
6. Kashmiri
7. Konkani
8. Malayalam
9. Manipuri
10. Marathi
11. Nepali
12. Oriya
13. Punjabi
14. Sanskrit
15. Sindhi
16. Tamil
17. Telugu
18. Urdu
19. Bodo
20. Santhali
21. Maithili
22. Dogri.

Question 2.
Do you think that all the work of the government and the courts should be done in Marathi in Maharashtra? What should be done to do so?
Answer:
Yes, I do think that all the work of the government and courts should be done in Marathi in Maharashtra since Marathi is the official language of Maharashtra To achieve this

• Marathi, as well as non-Marathi speakers working in the government organizations and courts, should be given formal training in Marathi.
• Workshops can be conducted to train people for conversing and corresponding in Marathi.
• What should be done at the school – level

Question 3.
for the development of your language and culture?
Answer:

• Schools should encourage reading of books written in the respective language.
• School should make students acquainted with different fors of literature.
• School should establish a language club.

7th Std Civics Questions And Answers:

• Introduction to Our Constitution Class 7 Civics Questions And Answers
• Preamble to the Constitution Class 7 Civics Questions And Answers
• Features of the Constitution Class 7 Civics Questions And Answers
• Fundamental Rights Part 1 Class 7 Civics Questions And Answers
• Fundamental Rights Part 2 Class 7 Civics Questions And Answers
• Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duties Class 7 Civics Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 The Sun, the Moon and the Earth Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 7 Geography Chapter 2 Question Answer The Sun, the Moon and the Earth Maharashtra Board

Class 7 Geography Chapter 2 The Sun, the Moon and the Earth Question Answer Maharashtra Board

The Sun, the Moon and the Earth Class 7 Questions And Answers

1. Correct the wrong statements. Write down the corrected ones.

Question 1.
The moon revolves around the sun.
Answer:
Wrong – The moon revolves around the earth.

Question 2.
On a full moon day, the moon, the sun and the earth are positioned in this sequence.
Answer:
Wrong – On a full moon day, the sun, the earth and the moon are positioned in this sequence.

Question 3.
The revolutionary orbits of the earth and the moon are in the same plane.
Answer:
Wrong – The revolutionary orbits of the earth and the moon are not in the same plane. The moon’s revolutionary orbit makes an angle of about 5° with that the earth.

Question 4.
In one revolution of the moon, its orbit intersects the earth’s orbit only once.
Answer:
Wrong – In one revolution of the moon, its orbit intersects the earth’s orbit twice.

Question 5.
It is alright to observe a solar eclipse without protecting the eyes.
Answer:
Wrong – It is necessary to view the sun disc through dark glasses or through special goggles made for that purpose, otherwise the intense light of the sun can be harmful to the naked eye.

Question 6.
An annular solar eclipse occurs when the moon is in the perigee position.
Answer:
Wrong – An annular solar eclipse occurs when the moon is in the apogee position.

2. Select the correct option.

Question 1.
Solar eclipse

Answer:
(b)

Question 2.
The shape of sun disc at the time of annular solar eclipse.

Answer:
(a)

Question 3.
Apogee position of the moon.

Answer:
(c)

3. Complete the following table.

Details	Lunar Eclipse	Solar Eclipse
Phase of the moon	…………	…………….
Sequence	Moon-Earth- Sun	………….
Type of Eclipse	………….	…………..
Maximum duration of total eclipse	107 minutes	…………….

Answer:

Details	Lunar Eclipse	Solar Eclipse
Phase of the moon	Full Moon Day	New Moon Day
Sequence	Moon-Earth-Sun	Moon-Earth-Sun
Type of Eclipse	Total and Partial	Total, Partial, Annular
Maximum duration of total eclipse	107 minutes	440 Seconds

4. Draw and label the diagrams.

Question 1.
Total and partial solar eclipse:
Answer:

Question 2.
Total and partial lunar eclipse:
Answer:

5. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Why do the sun, the moon and the earth not lie in one and the same line on every full moon and new moon day?
Answer:
(i) The orbital path of the earth and that of moon are not in the same plane.
(i) The moon’s revolutionary orbit makes an angle of about 5° with that of the earth.
(iii) On each new moon day, the lines joining the earth and the sun and the moon make an angle of 0° whereas on each full moon day, this angle is 180°.
(iv) So, the sun, the earth and the moon may not be in one straight line in the same plane on every new moon or full moon day.

Question 2.
When a total solar eclipse occurs why is the partial eclipse also seen from the earth?
Answer:
(i) On a new moon day if the sun, the moon & the earth fall in one line & are in the same plane, the shadow of the moon falls on the earth
(ii) This shadow is of two types – the central portion of the shadow is darker & the periphery is light.
(iii) In the area where the dark shadow falls, the sun becomes completely invisible. Such an area experiences a total solar eclipse.
(iv) However during the same period, at the places where the shadow is lighter, the sun disc appears partially covered. Such an area experience partial solar eclipse. Thus when a total solar eclipse occurs a partial eclipse is also seen from the earth.

Question 3.
Suggest measures that can be taken to eradicate the superstitions related to the eclipses.
Answer:
The following measures can be taken to eradicate superstition related to eclipses:

• Use of media to create awareness.
• Parental guidance to help think logically.
• Teachers guidance to help students develop a scientific outlook.
• Campaigns, public meetings and lectures especially in rural areas to eradicate superstitions.

Question 4.
What precautions should we take while observing a solar eclipse?
Answer:
The precautions to be taken while observing a solar eclipse are:

• We should not observe a solar eclipse with naked eyes as the intense light of the sun can harm them.
• We must use dark glasses or goggles that are specially designed for viewing the solar eclipse.

Question 5.
What types of Solar eclipses will occur in perigee conditions?
Answer:
Total and Partial solar eclipse will occur in perigee condition.
(1) Total solar eclipse :

• On a new moon day, the sun, the moon the earth are in a straight line & the shadow of the moon falls on the earth
• The area of dark shadow falls on the earth, the sun becomes completely invisible. This condition is known as total solar eclipse.

(2) Partial solar eclipse:

• However during the same period at places where the shadow is lighter, the sun disc appears partially covered,
• This condition is described as partial solar eclipse.

Activities:

1. Collect paper cuttings about eclipses and paste them in a notebook.
2. Write a note on an eclipse that you have seen.
3. Using the internet, ‘Panchanga’ and calendar collect information about the eclipses that are likely to occur this year.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 2 The Sun, the Moon and the Earth InText Questions and Answers

Use your brain power:

Question 1.
On the day of solar eclipse, in which part of the earth will it not be seen?
Answer:
Solar eclipse will not be seen where there is night.

Question 2.
Can we see total and annular solar eclipses on the same occasion?
Answer:
No, total and annular solar eclipses cannot be seen on the same occasion.

Question 3.
Why is an annular lunar eclipse not seen?
Answer:
An annular lunar eclipse cannot be seen because:

• The size of the earth is bigger than that of the moon.
• As compared to the sun, the moon is close to the earth.
• Therefore, it is not possible that a dark shadow of the earth is cast in space & does not reach the moon.

Question 4.
Which eclipses will you see from the moon?
Answer:
Solar eclipses can be seen from the moon.

Question 5.
Why are solar eclipses caused by the other planets not seen from the earth?
Answer:
(i) A Solar eclipse occurs when the moon comes in between the sun & the earth & all of them are in the same plane & fall in one line on a new moon day.
(ii) Similarly, when Venus & Mercury come in between the earth & the sun, they make a small speck against the surface of the sun as they are too far away.
(iii) The other planets have orbits outside the earth’s & cannot fall in line between the earth & the sun.
(iv) Hence, the solar eclipse caused by other planets are not seen from the earth.

Think about it:

Question 1.
Figure shows positions of the moon as seen from the space and as seen from the earth. How will you identify which are which?

Answer:
Half of the moon’s portion is illuminated by the sun, and the other half remains dark. However, only some part of this illuminated portion of the moon can be seen from the earth. The position of the moon from the Earth is as follows:

• New moon
• Waxing crescent
• 1st Quarter
• Waxing Gibbous
• Full moon
• Waning Gibbous
• Last quarter
• Waning crescent

Question 2.
Like sunlight and moonlight, is there anything called the earth light? If yes, where do you think it is found?
Answer:
Yes, Earthlight is the partial illumination of the dark portion of the moon’s surface by light reflected from the earth’s airglow.

Question 3.
When solar eclipses do not occur on a new moon day, does it mean that the moon does not have any shadow at all?
Answer:
The moon casts a shadow on every new moon day, but solar eclipse occurs only when the moon’s shadow falls on the earth.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 2 The Sun, the Moon and the Earth Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks choosing the correct options from the brackets:

Question 1.
The shape of the moon’s orbit is _________. (round, elliptical, square)
Answer:
elliptical

Question 2.
The moon has _____ and ______ motions. (axial, orbital, elliptical)
Answer:
axial, orbital

Question 3.
When the moon is closest to the earth it is said to be in ________. (apogee, perigee, orbit)
Answer:
perigee

Question 4.
When the moon is farthest to the earth it is said to be in ______. (apogee, perigee, arial)
(round, elliptical, square)
Answer:
apogee

Question 5.
Solar Eclipse occurs on the _______ day. (full moon, new moon, quarter moon)
Answer:
new moon

Question 6.
Lunar Eclipse occurs on the ______ day. (full moon, new moon, quarter)
Answer:
full moon

Question 7.
_______ solar eclipse is a rare phenomenon. (Total, Partial, Annular)
Answer:
Annular

Question 8.
When the shadow of the moon on the central portion of the earth is darker while the periphery is lighter it is known as a _______ solar eclipse.
(partial, total, lunar)
Answer:
total

Question 9.
When the shadow of the moon on the central portion of the earth is lighter and the sun disc appears to be partially covered, it is known _________ solar eclipse.
(total, partial, solar)
Answer:
partial

Question 10.
The moon is ________ when the earth, the moon and the sun make an angle of 90°. (full, semicircular, crescent)
Answer:
semicircular

Question 11.
Occultation occurs with reference to the _____. (sun, moon, earth)
Answer:
moon

Question 12.
Transit is associated with the _______ .(sun, moon, earth)
Answer:
sun

Question 13.
During the period of _______ eclipse, a large number of birds and animals get confused. (solar, lunar, annular)
Answer:
solar

Correct the wrong statements. Write down the correct ones:

Question 1.
When the moon is closest to the earth it is said to be in apogee and when it is the farthest, the position is called perigee.
Answer:
Wrong – When the moon is closest to the earth it is said to be in perigee and when it is the farthest, the position is called apogee.

Question 2.
The moon wanes from the new moon day to the full moon day and waxes from the full moon to the new moon day.
Answer:
Wrong – The moon waxes from the new moon day to the full moon day and wanes from the full moon to the new moon day.

Select the correct options:

Question 1.

Answer:
(c)

Question 2.

Answer:
(c)

Complete the following table:

Question 1.

Details	Numerical facts
1. Perigee distance	……….
2. Apogee distance	……….
3. Angular distance between the moon’s and the earth’s orbit	………..
4. Maximum duration of a total solar eclipse	……….
5. Maximum duration of a total lunar eclipse	…………
6. Number of solar eclipse (types)	………….
7. Number of lunar eclipse (types)	……………

Answer:

Details	Numerical facts
1. Perigee distance	3,56,000 km
2. Apogee distance	4,07,000 km
3. Angular distance between the moon’s and the earth’s orbit	5°
4. Maximum duration of a total solar eclipse	7 minutes 20 seconds
5. Maximum duration of a total lunar eclipse	107 minutes
6. Number of solar eclipse (types)	3
7. Number of lunar eclipse (types)	2

Name the following:
Question 1.
Motions of the moon.
Answer:
Axial and orbital motion.

Question 2.
Types of solar eclipse.
Answer:
Total solar eclipse, Partial solar eclipse, Annular solar eclipse.

Question 3.
Types of lunar eclipse.
Answer:
Total lunar eclipse and Partial lunar eclipse.

Question 4.
Eclipse that confuses animals and birds.
Answer:
Solar eclipse.

Question 5.
An example of occultation.
Answer:
Total solar eclipse.

Question 6.
The event of the occurrence of solar eclipse or lunar eclipse.
Answer:
Astronomical event.

Define the following:

Question 1.
Perigee:
Answer:
When the moon is the closest to the earth in its orbit, it is perigee.

Question 2.
Apogee:
Answer:
When the moon is at the farthest from the earth in its orbit, it is apogee.

Question 3.
Occultation:
Answer:
The moon revolves around the earth. While doing so, it obscures1 a star or a planet and that celestial2 body appears to hide behind the moon. This is called occultation.

Question 4.
Transit:
Answer:
If an inner planet like Mercury or Venus comes in between the line of the earth and the sun, a transit occurs. At that time a small dot appears to move across the sun’s disc.

Question 5.
Phases of the moon:
Answer:
The illuminated portion of the moon disc observed from the earth that keeps on changing every day within a lunar month are called the phases of the moon.

Question 6.
Solar Eclipse:
Answer:
If the moon comes between the earth and the sun in a straight line on new moon day, the shadow of the moon falls on the earth and the sun becomes totally or partially invisible in the shadow zone. This phenomenon is called the solar eclipse.

Question 7.
Lunar Eclipse:
Answer:
On a full moon day, the . moon’s path of revolution passes through the thick shadow of the earth and the moon becomes totally or partially invisible. This phenomenon is called lunar eclipse.

Question 8.
Annular Solar eclipse
Answer:
Sometimes when the moon is in apogee position, a deep shadow of the moon is cast in space & does not reach the earth. From a very small region of the earth, only an illuminated edge of the sun disc is seen in the form of a ring. This is called annular solar eclipse.

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
What is the period of waxing moon?
Answer:
The period of waxing moon is the fortnight from new moon to full moon in which the illuminated part of the moon from the earth keeps on increasing (waxing)

Question 2.
What is the period of waning moon?
Answer:
The period of waning moon is the fortnight from full moon to new moon in which the illuminated part of the moon seen from the earth keeps on decreasing (waning)

Question 3.
Why can we see the phases of the moon from the earth?
Answer:
We can see the phases of the moon from the earth due to the sunlight reflected from the moon.

Question 4.
When does the moon appear semi-circular in shape in the sky?
Answer:
On the first and the third quarter days, the moon, the earth & the sun make an angle of 90° due to which we see half the portion of the illuminated moon in a semi-circular shape in the sky.

Question 5.
What types of solar eclipses occur in perigee position?
Answer:
Total & Partial Solar eclipses occur in perigee position.

Question 6.
When does a lunar eclipse occur?
Answer:
A lunar eclipse occurs when the moon enters the shadow of the earth while revolving around it.

Give geographical reasons for the following statements:

Question 1.
We constantly see only one and the same side of the moon.
Answer:

• The time, the moon takes to make one revolution around the earth and one rotation around itself is the same.
• As the axial and the orbital motions of the moon are almost of the same duration, only one, the same side of the moon faces the earth.
• Therefore, we constantly see only one and the same side of the moon.

Question 2.
The distance between the moon and the earth keeps on changing.
Answer:

• The moon’s orbit of the revolution is elliptical to that of the earth.
• Hence the distance of the moon from the earth is not the same everywhere along its orbit while revolving.
• When it is the closest to the earth it is said to be in perigee and when it is at the farthest, the position is called apogee.

Question 3.
Eclipses do not occur on each new moon or full moon day.
Answer:

• The orbital path of the earth and that of the moon are not in the same plane.
• The moon’s revolutionary orbit makes an angle of about 5° with that of the earth.
• So, the sun, the earth and the moon may not be in one straight line in the same plane on every new moon or full moon day.
• Hence, eclipses do not occur on each new moon or full moon day.

Question 4.
The Annular solar eclipse is rarely seen.
Answer:
The Annular solar eclipse is rarely seen because

• The moon is in apogee position.
• The deep shadow of the moon is cast in space and does not reach the earth.
• From a very small region of the earth, only an illuminated edge of the sun disc is seen in the form of a ring.

Question 5.
Birds and animals are confused during the solar eclipse.
Answer:
Birds and animals are confused during the solar eclipse because –

• Untimely darkness sets in.
• The event does not suit their biological clock.
• Their response to the event is also unusual.

Question 6.
On the first and third quarter days, the moon appears semicircular in shape.
Answer:

• On the first and third quarter days, the moon, the earth and the sun make an angle of 90°
• At these positions, we see half the portion of an illuminated moon.
• Hence, in the sky, the moon appears semi-circular in shape.

Answer the following:

Question 1.
What precautions should we take while observing a solar eclipse?
Answer:
The precautions to be taken while observing a solar eclipse are:

• We should not observe a solar eclipse with naked eyes as the intense light of the sun can harm them.
• We must use dark glasses or goggles that are specially designed for viewing the solar eclipse.

Question 2.
What types of Solar eclipses will occur in perigee condition?
Answer:
Total and Partial solar eclipse will occur in perigee condition.
(i) Total solar eclipse :

• On a new moon day, the sun, the moon the earth are in a straight line & the shadow of the moon falls on the earth
• The area of dark shadow falls on the earth, the sun becomes completely invisible. This condition is known as total solar eclipse.

(ii) Partial solar eclipse:

• However during the same period at places where the shadow is lighter, the sun disc appears partially covered,
• This condition is described as partial solar eclipse.

Question 3.
How are lunar eclipses formed?
Answer:
(i) A lunar eclipse occurs when the moon enters the shadow of the earth while revolving around it.
(ii) On a full moon day if the sun, the earth & the moon, are in a straight line, the orbital path of the moon passes through the dark shadow of the earth.
(iii) If the moon is totally hidden within the shadow, a total lunar eclipse is seen & if only a part of the moon is in the shadow, a partial lunar eclipse is seen.

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Characteristics of solar eclipse.
Answer:

• A solar eclipse occurs on a new moon day, but not on every new moon day.
• If and only if, the sun, the moon and the earth are in the same plane and fall in one line, the solar eclipses occur.
• The maximum duration of a total solar eclipse is 7 minutes and 20 seconds Question 40 seconds).

Question 2.
Characteristics of lunar eclipse.
Answer:

• A lunar eclipse occurs on a full moon day, but not on every full moon day.
• A lunar eclipse occurs if and only if the sun, the moon and the earth are in the same plane and fall in one line.
• The maximum duration of a total lunar eclipse is 107 minutes.

Question 3.
Occupation.
Answer:

• This is a typical event occurring in space.
• The moon revolves around the earth, while doing so, it obscures a star or a planet and that celestial body appears to hide behind the moon. This is called occultation.

Question 4.
What is a Transit?
Answer:

• If an inner planet like a Mercury or Venus comes in between the line of the earth and the sun, a transit occurs.
• At that time, a small dot appears to move across the sun’s disc.
• Transit is a type of solar eclipse.

Distinguish between the following:

Question 1.
Solar eclipse and Lunar eclipse :
Answer:

Solar eclipse	Lunar eclipse
(i) A solar eclipse occurs on a new moon day. (ii) If and only if the sun, the moon and the earth are in the same plane and fall in one line, the solar eclipse occurs. (iii) The maximum duration of total solar eclipse is 7 minutes and 20 seconds (440 seconds).	(i) A lunar eclipse occurs on a full moon day. (ii) A lunar eclipse occurs if and only if the sun, the earth and the moon are in the same plane and fall in one line. (iii) The maximum duration of a total lunar eclipse is 107 minutes.

Question 2.
Total Solar eclipse and Annular Solar eclipse.
Answer:

Total Solar eclipse	Annular Solar eclipse
(i) When the moon is between the sun and the earth all the three celestial objects are on the same plane and fall in one line.	(i) moon is in apogee position. This means it is farthest from the earth.
(ii) The central portion of the shadow of the moon is darker and the periphery is light.	(ii) A deep shadow of the moon is cast in space and does not reach the earth.
(iii) In the area of dark shadow on the earth, the sun becomes completely invisible. This condition is known as total solar eclipse	(iii) From a very small region of the earth, only an illuminated edge of the sun as a disc is seen in the form of a ring. This is called an annular eclipse.

Draw and label the diagrams:

Question 1.
Moon’s Positions:
Answer:

Question 2.
Angle between the planes of orbit.
Answer:

Question 3.
Consider the relative positions of the sun, the moon, and the earth on the new moon day and both the quarters. What will be the angle between the lines joining the earth and the moon as well as the earth and the sun? How many times will this angle be formed in a month?
Answer:
The angle between the lines joining the earth and the moon as well as the earth and the sun is 90°. This angle will be formed twice a month.

7th Std Geography Questions And Answers:

• How Seasons Occur Part 1 Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• The Sun, the Moon and the Earth Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Tides Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Air Pressure Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Winds Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Natural Regions Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Soils Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• How Seasons Occur Part 2 Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Agriculture Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Human Settlements Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Contour Maps and Landforms Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 4 Fundamental Rights Part 1 Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 7 Civics Chapter 4 Question Answer Fundamental Rights Part 1 Maharashtra Board

Class 7 Civics Chapter 4 Fundamental Rights Part 1 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Fundamental Rights Part 1 Class 7 Questions And Answers

1. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
What do you understand by ‘Fundamental Rights’?
Answer:
(i) Demanding one’s rights is insisting on creating an atmosphere conducive to the development of the self as well as the entire society.

(ii) The Indian Constitution has guaranteed equal rights to all citizens in order to create this conducive atmosphere.

(iii) These rights are Fundamental Rights.

Question 2.
Name the awards that are conferred by the Government upon people for their distinguished contribution in different fields.
Answer:
Padmashree, Padmabhushan, Padmavibhushan.

Question 3.
Why is it prohibited to employ children under 14 years of age in hazardous places?
Answer:
(i) Employing children under 14 years of age in hazardous places can be dangerous. Children may be grievously injured and they may even lose their life.

(ii) To prevent the exploitation of children and ban oppression of any kind, it is prohibited to employ children under 14 years of age in hazardous places.

Question 4.
Why has the Constitution given equal rights to all citizens?
Answer:
(i) We get rights at birth. Every newborn baby has a right to live.

(ii) The entire society and government takes efforts to ensure that the baby is in the best of health.

(iii) Only when all individuals get protection from injustice, exploitation, discrimination and deprivation, will they be able to develop their skills and qualities.

(iv) Demanding one’s rights is insisting on creating an atmosphere conducive to the development of the self as well as the entire society.

(v) The Indian Constitution has guaranteed equal rights to all citizens in order to create this conducive atmosphere.

2. Prepare a picture strip on the right to liberty
Answer:

3. Correct and rewrite the following sentences:

Question 1.
No one gets rights at birth.
Answer:
We get rights at birth.

Question 2.
Government can deprive you of a job by discriminating on the basis of religion, sex, place of birth while giving government jobs.
Answer:
According to the Right to Equality mentioned in our Constitution the State cannot discriminate against any citizen on grounds of religion, sex, place of birth or other grounds

4. Complete the following graphical description.

Answer:

Activities:

• Collect news clippings about certain important rights like the right to information, right to education, etc.
• If you find small children working on construction sites in your neighbourhood, talk to them and their parents about their problems and present the problems in your class.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 4 Fundamental Rights Part 1 InText Questions and Answers

Do this:

Following are the actions of A, B and C. Which kind of freedom do you connect them with?

Question 1.
‘A’ established ‘Adivasi Co-operation Forum’ to solve the problems of the tribal people.
Answer:
Freedom to Assemble Peacefully.

Question 2.
‘B’ decided to move his father’s bakery production from Goa to Maharashtra.
Answer:
Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India.

Question 3.
‘C’ found some lacunae in the new tax policy of the Government. He wrote an artide about it and sent it to a newspaper for publication.
Answer:
Freedom of Speech and Expression.

Let’s discuss:

Question 1.

• Children are not employed here.
• Workers are paid daily here.

You see such boards in shops and hotels. In what way are they related to the Fundamental rights in the Constitution?
Answer:
They ensure that the Right against Exploitation mentioned in the Constitution is honoured and the right is not denied to the workers and children.

Question 2.
You must be aware of children’s rights. Can you name two important rights of children?
Answer:
(a) Right to Protection:

• Right to be protected from all sorts of violence.
• Right to be protected from physicaL and sexual abuse.
• Right to be protected from dangerous drugs.

(b) Right to Development

• Right to education
• Right to learn
• Right to relax and play
• Right to all forms of development – emotional, mental and physical.

Question 3.
Can rights be taken away?
Answer:
No, the rights cannot be taken away by anyone.

Question 4.
If rights are taken away, who should we contact for redressal?
Answer:
If rights are taken away one may appeal in the courts to seek justice for the same.

Question 5.
If the pet animals could speak, what rights do you think they would ask from you?
Answer:

• The right to roam around freely, wherever and whenever they wish.
• Right to expression
• Right to eat whatever they want whenever they want.

Question 6.
What are the advantages of equality before law and equal protection of the law?
Answer:

• There is no discrimination among citizens as superior – inferior, as men-women or while extending any protections like protection from arrest without a warrant.
• There is no discrimination among the citizens on the basis of religion, caste, race, sex, place of birth or residence.
• The inhuman practice of untouchability has been abolished in order to establish equality in the Indian society.
• Titles like Raja, Maharaja, Raobahadur etc. have also been abolished.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 4 Fundamental Rights Part 1 Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
The ______ has guaranteed equal rights to all citizens in order to create a conducive atmosphere.(Indian judiciary, Indian Government, Indian Constitution)
Answer:
Indian Constitution

Question 2.
We have protection from arrest without _______. (prior intimation, proof, warrant)
Answer:
warrant

Question 3.
________ gives a guarantee of all the liberties necessary from the point of view of an individual. (Right to Equality, Right to Liberty Right against Exploitation)
Answer:
Right to Liberty

Question 4.
______ implies getting a guarantee to live and availability of a conducive environment for living. (Right against Exploitation, Right to
Liberty, Right to Life)
Answer:
Right to Life

Question 5.
All children between 6 and ______ years of age are entitled to get education as a Fundamental Right. (11,10,14)
Answer:
14

Question 6.
It is prohibited to employ children under _______ years of age in hazardous places. (10,14,16)
Answer:
16

Match the following:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Right to Equality	(a) liberties necessary from the point of view of individuals
(2) Right to Liberty	(b) bans all types of oppression.
(3) Right against	(c) No discrimination
Exploitation	amongst citizens.

Answer:
1 – c
2 – a
3 – b

Name the following:

Question 1.
The equal rights guaranteed to all citizens by the Indian Constitution in order to create a conducive atmosphere for the development of the self and the entire society.
Answer:
Fundamental Rights.

Question 2.
According to this right, the State cannot discriminate among citizens as superior- interior or men-women and cannot give different treatment or privileges to anybody.
Answer:
Right to Equality.

Question 3.
The State cannot discriminate against any citizen on these grounds for government employment.
Answer:
Religion, caste, race, sex, descent or place of birth or religion.

Question 4.
This inhuman practice that was prevalent in our country has been abolished by law.
Answer:
Untouchability.

Question 5.
These titles have been abolished as it creates artificial hierarchy among people.
Answer:
Raja, Maharaja, Raobahadur.

Question 6.
Any two freedoms we enjoy as Indian citizens.
Answer:
Freedom of Speech and Expression, Freedom to Assemble Peacefully.

Question 7.
The new right included in the Right to Liberty.
Answer:
Right to Education.

Question 8.
Children between this age group are entitled to get education as a Fundamental Right.
Answer:
6-14 years.

Question 9.
Two places where children cannot be made to work.
Answer:
Factories, Mines.

Question 10.
It implies getting a guarantee to live and availability of a conducive environment for living.
Answer:
Right to Life.

Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
When will individual be able to develop their skills and qualities?
Answer:
Only when all individuals get protection from injustice, exploitation, discrimination and deprivation, will the individuals be able to j develop their skills and qualities.

Question 2.
What does demanding one’s rights imply?
Answer:
Demanding one’s rights is insisting on creating an atmosphere conducive to the development of the self as well as the entire society.

Question 3.
What does the Right to Education ensure?
Answer: Right to Education ensures that no child between the age of 6 and 14 will be deprived of education.

Question 4.
Which are the different forms of exploitation which are prevented through Right against Exploitation?
Answer:
Bonded labour or forcing somebody to work against his wish, treating somebody like a slave, denying them legitimate compensation, making them do excessive or strenuous work, starving them or ill-treating them are different forms of exploitation which are prevented through Right against Exploitation

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Right to Equality
Answer:
According to the Right to Equality, the State cannot discriminate among citizens as superior-inferior or a men-women and cannot give different treatment or privileges to anybody. The same law applies equally to all. Many laws give protection. For example, we have protection from arrest without warrant. The State cannot discriminate even while extending such protection.

Question 2.
Right to Liberty
Answer:
This is a very important right given by the Constitution. It gives a guarantee of all the liberties necessary from the point of view of the individual. As Indian citizens, we have the right to:

• Freedom of speech and expression.
• Freedom to assemble peacefully.
• Freedom to form associations or unions.
• Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India.
• Freedom to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India.
• Freedom to practise any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.

Question 3.
Right against Exploitation
Answer:
(i) The right against exploitation implies the right to prevent exploitation.

(ii) While the Constitution has banned all types of oppressions through the right against exploitation, it has made a special provision to prevent the exploitation of children.

(iii) Accordingly, it is prohibited to employ children under 14 years of age in hazardous places.

(iv) Children cannot be employed or made to work in factories and mines.

(v) Exploitation includes bonded labour or forcing somebody to work against his wish, treating somebody like a slave, denying them legitimate compensation, making them do excessive or strenuous work, starving them or ill-treating them.

(vi) Generally women, children, the weaker sections of society and powerless people are exploited.

(vii) This right enables us to stand up against any kind of exploitation.

Correct and rewrite the following sentences:

Question 1.
No one gets rights at birth.
Answer:
We get rights at birth.

Question 2.
The government can deprive you of a job by discriminating on the basis of religion, sex, place of birth while giving government jobs.
Answer:
According to the Right to Equality mentioned in our Constitution the State cannot discriminate against any citizen on grounds of religion, sex, place of birth or other grounds.

Question 3.
People can have titles like Raja, Maharaja, Raobahadur etc.
Answer:
The Constitution has abolished titles like Raja,, Maharaja, Raobahadur etc., that create aq artificial hierarchy among people.

7th Std Civics Questions And Answers:

• Introduction to Our Constitution Class 7 Civics Questions And Answers
• Preamble to the Constitution Class 7 Civics Questions And Answers
• Features of the Constitution Class 7 Civics Questions And Answers
• Fundamental Rights Part 1 Class 7 Civics Questions And Answers
• Fundamental Rights Part 2 Class 7 Civics Questions And Answers
• Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duties Class 7 Civics Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Chapter 10 Human Settlements Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 7 Geography Chapter 10 Question Answer Human Settlements Maharashtra Board

Class 7 Geography Chapter 10 Human Settlements Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Human Settlements Class 7 Questions And Answers

1. Answer in short:

Human Settlements Std 7 Question 1.
Explain the various types of human settlements.
Answer:
(a) Scattered settlements:

• In scattered settlements, houses are few and far from each other.
• They are found in the areas of high relief, dense forests, grasslands, hot deserts and extensive agricultural lands.

(b) Nucleated settlements:

• These settlements are close to water sources like brooks, rivulets, rivers, lakes, reservoirs, etc.
• Fertile plains, transport hubs, mining centres and commercial centres often lead to the development of this type of settlement.

(c) Linear settlements:

• Linear settlements are seen along roads, railways, rivers sea coasts and in foothill regions.
• They are narrow in shape and spread along a straight line.

Human Settlements Std 7 Chapter 10 Question 2.
Difference between nucleated and scattered settlements.
Answer:

Nucleated Settlements	Scattered Settlements
(i) Houses are close together. (ii) These settlements are close to water sources. They are self dependent due to fertile plains, transport hubs, mining centres, defense, health, education and social factors. (iii) People from different castes, religions, races and ideologies live together in these settlements and hence they have a better social life.	(i) Houses are far away from each other. (ii) They depend on centrally located villages for their day to day requirements. Facilities and services in these settlements are not adequate. (iii) These settlements have limited population, so they do not have much social life.

7th Maharashtra Board Geography Solutions Question 3.
Explain in natural factors affecting the location of human settlements
Answer:
(a) The natural factors like physiography, land / soils, climate, water supply, river banks, etc. affect the location of human settlements.

(b) Low population & few houses are found in regions of high relief forests, grasslands, hot deserts, etc. whereas high population & nucleated settlements are found in region of fertile plains.

(c) Regions having adequate supply of water has high population & nucleated settlements. Water is essential for occupation of agriculture. Hence early civilizations developed near sources of water like rivers, lakes, reservoirs etc.

(d) In region of extreme climate scattered settlements are found due to difficult living condition whereas in region of favourable climate, nucleated or linear settlements are found.

Human Settlement Class 10 Question 4.
Explain how human settlements have evolved.
Answer:

• Human settlements have evolved in accordance with the natural conditions.
• Using the resources from his surroundings, man constructed houses and started living in them.
• Rural settlement is the first step towards a stable life in human history.
• Urban settlements have evolved through the expansion and growth of rural settlements.
• There are large scale correlations between rural and urban settlements
• Modernization, science and technology lead to transformation in both types of settlements.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 10 Question 5.
Difference between a hamlet & a village
Answer:

Hamlet		Village
Size of population is small in a hamlet	(i)	Size of population is comparatively large in a village.
Most of people living in a hamlet are engaged a particular occupation which is dependent on locally available natural resource.	(ii)	People in a village are engaged in different occupations like agriculture, fishery, etc.
A hamlet is scattered settlement	(iii)	A village is majorly a nucleated settlement.

2. Identify the types of human settlements from the follwing statements:

Chapter 10 Human Settlements Notes Question 1.
Their money and time is saved by living on the farm.
Answer:
Scattered settlements.

Chapter 10 Human Settlements Question 2.
There is a lot of social life in this settlement.
Answer:
Nucleated settlements.

Human Settlement Class 7 Question 3.
Shops are located on both the sides of the road.
Answer:
Linear settlements.

Class 7th Geography Chapter 10 Question 4.
This settlement is found at the foothills of mountains or along the coast.
Answer:
Linear settlements.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Question 5.
Each house is located away from the other.
Answer:
Scattered settlement.

Grade 7 Geography Textbook Answers Question 6.
This settlement is good from security point of view.
Answer:
Nucleated settlements.

Question 7.
Having houses away from each other is good for health.
Answer:
Scattered settlements.

Question 8.
The houses are too close to each other.
Answer:
Nucleated settlement.

3. Study the diagram and identify the types of settlements:

Question 1.
Settlement ‘A’ has 5-6 houses and the place does not have other facilities.
Answer:
Scattered settlement.

Question 2.
‘B’ has a high school, a big market and a small theatre.
Answer:
Nucleated settlement.

Question 3.
‘C’ has houses, farmers, many shops and small industries.
Answer:
Linear settlement.

Question 4.
‘D’ has a natural harbour. Many industries have been established here.
Answer:
Linear settlement.

Question 5.
‘C’ is a settlement that has developed along the road side. Give two reasons of its location here.
Answer:
The reasons for settlement ‘C’ developing along the roadside are:

• It has direct & easy access to the main road which helps in easy movement of people & agricultural & industrial goods as houses, farms & small industries are found here.
• It is located at the foothill close to the main river.

ICT Activity :

With the help of the internet, find the image of your village/city. On that basis, write about the type and characteristics of your settlement.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 10 Human Settlements InText Questions and Answers

Try this

Look at the following picture. Find suitable location for human settlement and show them in picture:

Question 1.
Why were the settlements shown at specific places? Why should they be located there? Why can’t they be located in other places?
Answer:
(i) Settlement A is located at a place which has direct access to main road as well as railway line which will help in easy movement of passenger as well as goods transport.
(ii) Settlement ‘B’ is located on plain land. Its location near a water body will be beneficial for agricultural purpose.
(iii) A large portion of the area shown in the picture is a region of uneven topography which is not favourable for human settlement

Can you tell?

Observe the pictures given in figures (a, b, c, d). Think and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What all can you see in the picture?
Answer:
(a) Rural: settlement small houses made of mud are seen with river flowing and farmland.
(b) City: Monorail, sky scrapers and lot of traffic with vehicles moving.
(c) Tribal hamlet: with sparse1 population.
(d) Town: Vehicles moving, vendors, shops and small houses.

Question 2.
What are the familiar features?
Answer:
All pictures show some type of human settlements.

Question 3.
Which picture shows sparse settlements?
Answer:
Tribal Hamlet shows sparse population.

Question 4.
Which picture shows agriculture?
Answer:
Rural settlement shows agriculture.

Question 5.
Which picture shows dense settlements?
Answer:
City shows dense settlement.

Question 6.
Which picture shows high rise building?
Answer:
City shows high rise building.

Question 7.
From the following, assign a suitable names for each of the pictures: Rural settlement, Tribal hamlet, Town, City.
Answer:
(a) Rural settlements
(b) City
(c) Tribal Hamlet
(d) Town.

Question 8.
Arrange the picture according to the level of development in the settlements?
Answer:
Tribal Hamlets, Rural Settlements, Towns, Cities.

Observe the Fig. and discuss the following questions:

Question 1.
What is the difference between the human settlement at ‘A’ and ‘B’ ?
Answer:
A is Nucleated settlement & ’B’ is a Linear settlement

Question 2.
What is the difference between the settlement at B’ and C ?
Answer:
B is Linear settlement & ‘C’ is a type of tribal hamlet.

Question 3.
Where do you find less than 2 houses?
Answer:
‘C’ is tribal hamlet having less than 2 houses.

Question 4.
In what type of settlement do you live?
Answer:
I stay in ‘A’ type of settlement. (Students may answer as per their settlement type)

Think about it: 

Question 1.
Think about the possible processes that take place during the growth and development of settlements. Make a list of such processes.
Answer:
(i) Human settlements rise in places with favourable geographic conditions – such a availability of water, conducive climate, fertile land, etc.

(ii) In such settlements the occupations are majorly based on natural resources. These are called rural settlements.

(iii) With the passage of time, other associated occupations in these settlements grow & people of surrounding areas migrate & settle there, this leading to increase in the population of such settlements.

(iv) The proportion of people engaged in primary occupation declines & the importance of secondary & tertiary occupations increases
leading to transformation of rural settlements into urban settlements.

(v) Over a period of time when the population & the necessary amenities increase on a large scale, the urban areas grow into metropolitan cities.

Give it a try: 

Question 1.
Name the metropolitan cities of India.
Answer:
Mumbai, Chennai, Delhi, Kolkata, Hyderabad, Bangalore, Pune, Ahmedabad, etc. are some of the metropolitian cities of India.

Question 2.
Identify the type of settlement where you live.
Answer:
Students are expected to answer this questions on their own.

Question 3.
Observe the photographs given below. Identify the type of settlements shown here and write about them.

Answer:
Fig. 1 is Urban settlement: Houses, schools shops are close to each other. Densely populated.
Fig. 2 is Linear settlement: Houses are built along the Mera Sakharkevda road in three to four rows.
Fig. 3 is a Scattered settlements: Houses are far from each other, sparse population, very little transport.
In Fig. 4 Linear settlements can be seen along the roads whereas scattered settlements also seen

Make friends with maps:

Observe Fig. and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Name some of the settlements shown in the map.
Answer:
Amalipada, Achalva, Sadadkua, Dumda, Pukhram, Rani Amba, Kumkua, Chapawadi, are some settlements shown in the map.

Question 2.
Which of the settlements in the map are in a scattered form?
Answer:
Pukhran, Achalva, Chapawadi and Sadadkua have scattered settlements.

Question 3.
How are the houses in the settlements along the roads arranged?
Answer:
Houses are arranged in a line on both sides of the roads. They are linear settlement.

Question 4.
In which settlements are the houses close together? What could be the reason behind this density?
Answer:
The houses in Sangarh are close together.
Reasons:

• Proximity to river
• Amenities like water pipeline, hospital, post office
• Easy access to transport routes like roads & railways which helps in easy movement of passengers & goods.

Question 5.
Can you now classify the settlements on the basis of these pattern?
Answer:

• Dunda, Sodadkua, Pukhran, etc. have scattered settlements
• Rani Amba is a linear settlement
• Songarh is a nucleated settlement.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 10 Human Settlements Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Human settlements flourished at places with favorable ________ conditions.
Answer:
geographic

Question 2.
In the early settlements, the occupation of the people were dependent on the locally available ________ resources.
Answer:
natural

Question 3.
People along the sea coast are engaged in _______.
Answer:
fishing

Question 4.
Settlements have provided man with _______.
Answer:
stability

Question 5.
In ______ settlements, houses are few and far from each other.
Answer:
scattered²

Question 6.
Increase in the population of rural settlements is the beginning of _________.
Answer:
urbanization

Question 7.
____ settlements are seen along roads, railways, rivers, sea coasts and foot hill regions, etc.
Answer:
Linear

Question 8.
In the deserts of Rajasthan we find _______ settlements.
Answer:
nucleated

Question 9.
_______ is the first step towards a stable life in human history.
Answer:
Rural settlement

Question 10.
Life in urban settlement is more _____.
Answer:
dynamic

Question 11.
_______ settlements have limited population as in small hamlets.
Answer:
Scattered

Complete the following sentence:

Question 1.
Human settlement flourished at places with favourable geographical conditions such as ______.
Answer:
availability of water, a conducive climate, fertile land, etc.

Question 2.
When rural area converts into urban area, the importance of secondary and tertiary occupations increases and _______.
Answer:
the proportion of people engaged in primary occupations decline

Question 3.
If the population and the necessary amenities increase on a large scale ______.
Answer:
the urban areas grow into metropolitan cities.

Question 4.
Patterns of human settlements evolve in _______.
Answer:
accordance with the natural conditions

Question 5.
Increase in population of rural settlements is ______.
Answer:
is the beginning of urbanization

Question 6.
The day to day food requirement of the urban population is _______.
Answer:
fulfilled by rural settlements

Question 7.
In the deserts of Rajasthan we find _______.
Answer:
nucleated settlements near assured sources of water

Question 8.
Linear settlements are seen along _______.
Answer:
roads, railways, rivers, sea coasts and in foothill regions

Question 9.
There are large scale correlations _______.
Answer:
between rural and urban settlements

Question 10.
Urban settlements have evolved through _______.
Answer:
the expansion² and growth of rural settlements

Match the column:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Limited population	(a) Linear settlements
(2) Tribal people	(b) Nucleated settlements
(3) Have better social life	(c) Scattered settlements
(4) On National or State highways	(d) Hamlets

Answer:
1 – c
2 – d
3 – b
4 – a

Identify the types of human settlements from the following statements:

Question 1.
These settlements are closer to nature, they are free from pollution.
Answer:
Scattered settlements.

Question 2.
Settlements found along the coastal tracts, major rivers and national or state highways.
Answer:
Linear settlements.

Question 3.
These settlements are found in fertile plains, transport hubs and mining centres, commercial centres.
Answer:
Nucleated settlements.

Question 4.
These settlements have limited population and inadequate facilities.
Answer:
Scattered settlements.

Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
Where do human settlements flourish?
Answer:
Human settlements flourish at places with favourable geographic conditions – such as availability of water, a conducive climate, fertile land, etc.

Question 2.
What did forest dwellers or tribal people use for their livelihood?
Answer:
Forest dwellers or tribal people used forest produce for their livelihood.

Question 3.
Where do the farmer & his family live?
Answer:
They live in a house built in or near the fields.

Question 4.
Which settlements are called rural settlements?
Answer:
The settlements where the original occupation of the majority of the people are based on natural resources are called rural settlements.

Question 5.
Wnen do the urban areas grow into metropolitan cities?
Answer:
When the population and the necessary amenities increase on a large scale, the urban areas grow into metropolitan cities.

Question 6.
Where do we find scattered settlements?
Answer:
Scattered settlements are found in the areas of high relief, dense forests, grasslands, hot deserts and extensive agricultural lands.

Question 7.
Where do we find nucleated settlements?
Answer:
Nucleated settlements are generally close to water sources like brooks, rivulets, rivers, lakes reservoirs, etc.

Question 8.
Where do we see Linear settlements?
Answer:
Linear settlements are seen along roads, railways, rivers, sea coasts, in foothill regions, etc.

Question 9.
What makes a city a metropolis?
Answer:
A metropolis is a large city or urban area, which is a significant economic, political and cultural center for a country or region and an important hub for regional or international connections, commerce and communications.

Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
Where do human settlements flourish?
Answer:
Human settlements flourish at places with favourable geographic conditions – such as availability of water, a conducive climate, fertile land, etc.

Question 2.
What did forest dwellers or tribal people use for their livelihood?
Answer:
Forest dwellers or tribal people used forest produce for their livelihood.

Question 3.
Where do the farmer & his family live?
Answer:
They live in a house built in or near the fields.

Question 4.
Which settlements are called rural settlements?
Answer:
The settlements where the original occupation of the majority of the people are based on natural resources are called rural settlements.

Question 5.
When do the urban areas grow into metropolitan cities?
Answer:
When the population and the necessary amenities increase on a large scale, the urban areas grow into metropolitan cities.

Question 6.
Where do we find scattered settlements?
Answer:
Scattered settlements are found in the areas of high relief, dense forests, grasslands, hot deserts and extensive agricultural lands.

Question 7.
Where do we find nucleated settlements?
Answer:
Nucleated settlements are generally close to water sources like brooks, rivulets, rivers, lakes reservoirs, etc.

Question 8.
Where do we see Linear settlements?
Answer:
Linear settlements are seen along roads, railways, rivers, sea coasts, in foothill regions, etc.

Question 9.
What makes a city a metropolis?
Answer:
A metropolis is a large city or urban area, which is a significant economic, political and cultural center for a country or region and an important hub for regional or international connections, commerce and communications.

Answer in short:

Question 1.
Distinguish between Scattered Settlements & Linear Settlements.
Answer:

Scattered Settlements	Linear Settlements
(i) In scattered settlements houses are far away from each other. (ii) There settlements have limited population as in small hamlets. (iii) These settlements are found in the areas of high relief, dense forest, grasslands, hot deserts and extensive agricultural land	(i) In Linear settlements houses are spread along a straight line. (ii) These settlements have comparatively more population. (iii) These settlements grow along the coastal tracts, major rivers, national or state highways, railways in the foothill regions, etc.

Question 2.
Describe Linear Settlements.
Answer:

• Linear settlements are seen along roads, railways, rivers, sea coast and in foothill regions, etc.
• Houses in these settlements are along a straight line, in a row.
• As the settlement grows in the course of time, multiple lines emerge.
• Besides houses, some shops can also be seen.
• Such settlements are found along the coastal tracts, major rivers and national of state highways in our country.

Question 3.
What leads to transformation of rural settlement into urban settlement?
Answer:
(i) The settlements where the original occupations of the majority of the people are based on natural resources are called rural settlements. Agriculture, fishery, etc. are some of these occupation

(ii) With the passage of time other associated occupations also develop gradually in these rural settlement.

(iii) As a result people from surrounding areas migrate & settle there leading to an increase in rural population.

(iv) Houses are built & different facilities are developed for the growing population.

(v) Importance of secondary & tertiary occupations increases & the proportion of primary occupations declines.

This process leads to the transformation of rural settlement into urban settlements

Question 4.
Describe man’s future plans in terms of settlements.
Answer:

• Man started using resources from the surroundings.
• Man constructed houses and started living in them.
• They have even built sky-scrapers.
• In future, man is thinking of constructing colonies on other planets and their satellites too.

7th Std Geography Questions And Answers:

• How Seasons Occur Part 1 Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• The Sun, the Moon and the Earth Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Tides Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Air Pressure Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Winds Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Natural Regions Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Soils Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• How Seasons Occur Part 2 Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Agriculture Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Human Settlements Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Contour Maps and Landforms Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Winds Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 7 Geography Chapter 5 Question Answer Winds Maharashtra Board

Class 7 Geography Chapter 5 Winds Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Winds Class 7 Questions And Answers

1. Rewrite the following statements after choosing the correct option:

Question 1.
When the air expands, it ______.
(a) becomes solid,
(b) becomes thinner,
(c) gets lost.
(d) becomes humid.
Answer:
(b) becomes thinner,

Question 2.
From high air pressure regions, winds ______.
(a) blow to regions of still higher pressure.
(b) blow towards regions of cooler air.
(c) blow towards regions of low air pressure.
(d) remains still.
Answer:
(c) blow towards regions of low air pressure.

Question 3.
In the northern hemisphere, winds blowing towards the equator due to the _____.
rotation of the earth.
(a) turn to the south
(b) turn to the east,
(c) turn to the west
(d) turn to the north.
Answer:
(c) turn to the west

Question 4.
The direction of seasonal winds blowing over the Indian subcontinent during winter is from the _____.
(a) south-east to north-west.
(b) south-west towards north-east.
(c) north-east to south-west.
(d) north-west to south-east.
Answer:
(c) north-east to south-west.

Question 5.
The Roaring Forties in the southern hemisphere ______.
(a) blow towards the equator.
(b) blow in the areas around 40°S parallel.
(c) blow from the subpolar region of low pressure.
Answer:
(b) blow in the areas around 40°S parallel.

2. Identify the type of winds from the description given below:

Question 1.
These winds from the south-west bring rains to Indian subcontinent. During June to September, India gets rains. After this period these winds retreat.
Answer:
South West Monsoon Winds.

Question 2.
These winds blowing from the north pole region towards 60°N parallel cause cold wave conditions in extensive areas covering North America, Europe and Russia
Answer:
Polar Winds.

Question 3.
Hilltops get heated quickly during the day. The air in this part becomes hot, light and starts ascending. Hence, a low pressure area forms in this region. At the same time the air at the foothills become cooler and also experiences high pressure. Air in that area blows towards low pressure.
Answer:
Valley Winds.

3. Given below are the values of air pressure in millibars. Using the same, draw diagrams to show a cyclone and an anticyclone:

Question 1.
990, 994, 996,1000
Answer:

Question 2.
1030,1020,1010,1000
Answer:

4. State one reason why:

Question 1.
A belt of calm exists near the equator.
Answer:
(i) A belt of calm exists near the equator because there is not much difference in the temperature and air pressure.
(ii) So winds do not blow in this region.

Question 2.
The winds coming from the north-west in the southern hemisphere have greater velocities than the winds coming from the south-west in the northern hemisphere.
Answer:
(i) In the southern hemisphere the obstacle caused by the relief of the land surface is almost absent.
(ii) Therefore the winds coming from the north – west in the southern hemisphere have greater velocity than the winds coming from the south-west in the northern hemisphere.

Question 3.
The monsoon winds in the summer come from the sea but the retreating monsoon winds come from land.
Answer:
(i) Monsoon winds are generated due to the uneven heating of land and water in the different seasons.

(ii) During summers, land heats up quickly as compared to water & an area of low pressure is created on the land whereas an area of high pressure is created on the water.

(iii) But during winters low pressure is created on the water and an area of high pressure is created on land as it cools down quickly as compared to the water.

(iv) As winds blow from high pressure areas to low pressure areas, it blows from sea to land in summers & from land to sea in winters.
Thus the monsoon winds in summer come from sea but the retreating monsoon winds come from land.

5. Complete the flow chart:

Answer:

6. Answer in short:

Question 1.
Why is the air pressure high in polar areas in both the hemispheres?
Answer:

• In both the polar areas the temperature here is below 0°C.
• Hence the air is cold & heavy.
• Hence the air pressure is high in the polar areas in both the hemispheres.

Question 2.
What effect does the rotation of the earth have on the wind?
Answer:

• The direction of the winds is influenced by the rotation of the earth.
• In the northern hemisphere, winds get deflected towards the right of their original direction, whereas in the southern hemisphere they get deflected toward the left of their original direction.

Question 3.
Why do the cyclonic winds blow in a circular manner?
Answer:
(i) Cyclones are created when a low pressure area is surrounded by high pressure areas. In these conditions, winds start blowing towards the low pressure area from the surrounding high pressure areas.

(ii) But due to the rotation of the earth in the northern hemisphere the winds deflected towards the right of their original direction whereas in the southern hemisphere they get deflected towards the left of their original direction which causes the cyclone winds to blow in a circular manner.

Question 4.
State the reasons that lead to the formation of cyclones and describe the effects of cyclones.
Answer:
(i) Cyclonic conditions are created when a low pressure area is surrounded by high pressure areas.
(ii) In these conditions, winds start blowing towards the low pressure area from the surrounding high pressure areas.
(iii) The effects of cyclone are as follows.

• The sky is cloudy
• Winds blow with a very high velocity
• It rains heavily
• It may cause loss of life and property in coastal regions.

Activity:

Using the internet, obtain information, photos and maps of the recent cyclone that arrived at India’s eastern coast.
Write the social and economic effects of that cyclone.

ICT Question:

Use the mobile app ‘Windyty’ and try to know the direction of winds and pressure areas in the world.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 5 Winds InText Questions and Answers

Formative Assessment
Can you tell?

Observe the diagrams given below. Answer the questions related to sea and land breeze


Question 1.
Why do the breezes blow from the sea to the land during the day?
Answer:
During the day as land gets heated up faster than water, an area of low pressure is created on land whereas there is a region of comparatively higher pressure on the sea. As a result the breezes blow from the sea to the land during the day.

Question 2.
When do the winds blow from the d to the sea?
Answer:
The winds blow from land to the sea during the night.

Question 3.
Describe the winds shown in fig. (a).
Answer:
It is sea breeze.

Question 4.
Compare fig.(a) and (b) with reference fo temperature conditions, air pressure and
winds.
Answer:
In figure (a) the temperature is higher on land & the pressure is low so winds blow from sea to land. In figure (b) the temperature is low on the land & the pressure is high. Winds blow from land to sea.

Question 5.
Which winds are called sea breezes and which are called land breezes? Why?
Answer:
Winds in (a) are sea breeze because they blow from the sea and (b) are land breeze because they blow from the land.

Question 6.
In which part of India are land and sea breezes experienced?
Answer:
In India, it is experienced near the coastal areas.

Question 7.
Do you experience sea and land breezes in your area?
Answer:
The answer may vary.

Give it a try.

Write the changed directions of the wind in the table below:

Question 1.

Pressure Belts	Northern Hemisphere	Southern Hemisphere
Mid Latitudes	………..	…………..
	…………	…………..
Poles	………………..	…………….

Answer:

Pressure Belts	Northern Hemisphere	Southern Hemisphere
Mid Latitudes	(1) Easterlies blow from northeast to south west	Easterlies blow from south east to northwest
	(2) Westerlies blow from southwest to northeast	Westerlies blow from northwest to southeast
Poles	Polar winds blow from northeast to south west	Polar winds blow from southeast to northwest

Try this:

Question 1.
Observe the pictures given below and describe the valley breeze considering the elevation of land, the heating and cooling properties of land and water, the air pressure, etc.

Answer:
Characteristics of Valley Breeze:

• Valleys are cooler compared to mountain tops during the day.
• Mountains are comparatively warmer.
• Air pressure is greater in the valley.
• Winds blow from valley to the mountain tops.
• Hot and light air from the mountains descend downwards and cool air from valleys ascend upwards.
• Valley breeze are set after the sun rises.

Question 2.
Read the following information carefully and draw a diagram for the mountain breeze accordingly.
Characteristics of the Mountain breeze:

• Mountains cool down quickly at night.
• The valley zone is comparatively warmer.
• Air pressure is greater on the mountains.
• Winds blow from the mountain towards the valley.
• The hot and light air from the valley is pushed upwards and the cool air rushes down into the valley.
• Mountain winds set in after sunset.

Answer:

Try this:

• Fold a piece of paper into two same sized rolls.
• Keep both the paper rolls on one side of a table
• You & your friend should select one roll each.

Question 1.
Without touching the roll of the paper on the table, what can be done to move the paper rolls to the other end of the table?
Answer:
To move the paper rolls to the other end of the table without touching a person can

• Blow the air from his mouth towards the roll of paper
• Use a newspaper a book or a hand fan
• Tilt the table towards the other end.

Question 2.
See who moves the paper roll first to the other end of the table:
Answer:
The object which blows the air with maximum force, moves the paper roll first to the other end of the table.

Question 3.
What could be the reason of the delay in making the rolls reach to the other end of the table?
Answer:
There will be a delay in making the rolls reach the other end of the table if the air is blown with lesser force.

Question 4.
What can we do to move the rolls to the other end of the table with a greater speed?
Answer:
We mostly use the technique/object which will blow air with maximum force to move the rolls to the other end of the table with a greater speed.

Question 5.
Can a bottle filled with water be moved to the other end of the table in this manner? Can we use the same method that you tried for moving paper rolls?
Answer:
A bottle filled with water cannot be moved to the other end of the table in this manner. We cannot use the same methods that we tried for moving paper rolls to move a bottle filled with water as it is heavier in weight, (we can if we tilt the table which was an option.)

Class 7 Geography Chapter 5 Winds Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks choosing the correct option from the bracket:

Question 1.
Air moves from high pressure to low pressure areas in a ______ manner. (vertical, horizontal, parallel)
Answer:
horizontal.

Question 2.
Winds velocity is measured in the units of ________. (knots, metres, seconds)
Answer:
knots.

Question 3.
Wind which cover a large portion of the earth are called _____ wind. (local, polar, planetary)
Answer:
planetary.

Question 4.
Winds blowing between mid latitudinal high pressure belt and the equator are called ______. (westerlies, easterlies, polar)
Answer:
easterlies.

Question 5.
Winds blowing between mid latitudinal high pressure belt and the sub polar low pressure belt are called _______. (easterlies, westerlies, polar)
Answer:
westerlies.

Question 6.
Winds that blow for a short duration of time, over a limited area are called ______. wind. (polar, local, easterlies)
Answer:
local.

Question 7.
Mountain winds blow during ______ .(morning, night, midday)
Answer:
night.

Question 8.
Winds that blow at night in coastal areas are called ________ breeze, (sea, land, valley)
Answer:
land.

Question 9.
Cyclones occurring in the western part of the Pacific ocean are called ______.(hurricane, typhoons)
Answer:
typhoons.

Question 10.
Hot winds blowing in the Thar Desert are called the _______ (simoons, loo, chinook)
Answer:
loo.

Rewrite the following statements after choosing the correct option:

Question 1.
During an anticyclone the sky ______.
(a) is dark.
(b) is cloudy.
(c) is clear.
(d) is white.
Answer:
(c) is clear.

Question 2.
Winds blowing from the polar high pressure to sub polar low pressure belt
(a) blow from west to east.
(b) blow from east to west.
(c) blow from south to north.
(d) blow from north to south.
Answer:
(b) blow from east to west.

Question 3.
The minimum velocity of cyclonic storms is ________.
(a) 50 km per hour
(b) 60 km per hour
(c) 70 km per hour
(d) 80 km per hour.
Answer:
(b) 60 km per hour

Question 4.
Winds which originate in specific regions and blow over a limited area are called _____.
(a) local winds.
(b) seasonal winds
(c) monsoon winds
(d) planetary winds
Answer:
(a) local winds.

Find out the odd man out and give reason for your answer:

Question 1.
Polar winds, Local winds, Easterlies, Westerlies
Answer:
Local winds – Others are names of planetary winds.

Question 2.
Landbreeze, Valley winds, Westerlies, Mountain winds.
Answer:
Westerlies – Others are names of local winds.

Question 3.
Mistral, Bora, Pampero, Foehn
Answer:
Foehn – Others are cold and dry winds.

Question 4.
Loo, Foehn, Mistral, Simoon
Answer:
Mistral – Others are hot and dry winds.

Question 5.
Mistral, Bora, Chinook, Foehn
Answer:
Chinook – Others originate in the Alps Mountain.

Question 6.
Southeast Asia, West Europe, East Africa, North Australia.
Answer:
West Europe – Others receive monsoon rains.

Question 7.
India, Japan, China, Phillippines.
Answer:
India – Others experience typhoons.

Question 8.
Furious Fifties, Screaming Seventies, Screeching Sixties,, Roaring Forties.
Answer:
Screaming Seventies – Others are names of winds in the southern hemisphere.

Place a tick mark (✓) against the correct option:

Question 1.
Towards which direction do the southern hemisphere winds get deflected? .
(a) Towards the left.
(b) Towards the right.
(c) Towards the centre.
Answer:
(a) Towards the left.

Question 2.
What are the winds blowing between polar high pressure belt and subpolar low pressure belt called?
(a) Monsoon winds
(b) Polar winds
(c) Westerlies winds
Answer:
(a) Monsoon winds

Question 3.
Hot and destructive winds blowing in the Sahara
(a) Chinook
(b) Simoom
(c) Loo
Answer:
(b) Simoom

Question 4.
Cold winds around the Mediterranean.
(a) Foehn
(b) Pampero
(c) Mistral
Answer:
(b) Pampero

Question 5.
How is cyclonic condition created?
(a) Low pressure area is surrounded by high pressure.
(b) A high pressure area is surrounded by low pressure.
(c) A low pressure area is surrounded by mid pressure.
Answer:
(c) A low pressure area is surrounded by mid pressure.

Identify the type of winds from the description given below:

Question 1.
In coastal areas, land cools down faster as compared to the sea, the air blows from land to sea.
Answer:
Land Breeze.

Question 2.
In the Indian subcontinent, dry winds blow from the Indian Subcontinent towards the equator.
Answer:
North-East monsoon winds.

Question 3.
The winds blowing over the earth’s surface throughout the year and covering a large portion of the earth.
Answer:
Planetary winds.

Question 4.
The winds that blow for a short duration of time, originate in specific regions & blow over a limited area.
Answer:
Local winds.

Match the pairs correctly:

Question 1.

Name of the Wind	Nature of the Wind
(1) Loo	(a) Hot and dry
(2) Simoom	(b) Cold and dry
(3) Chinook	(c) Hot, dry and destructive
(4) Mistral	(d) Warm and dry

Answer:
1 – a
2 – c
3 – d
4 – b

Define the following terms:

Question 1.
Roaring Forties:
Answer:
Beyond 40°S winds blow with tremendous velocity. These winds are called the Roaring Forties.

Question 2.
Furious Fifties:
Answer:
Around 50°S winds are stormy hence they are called the Furious Fifties.

Question 3.
Screeching Sixties:
Answer:
The stormy winds around 60°S make tremendous noise and hence they are called the Screeching Sixties.

Question 4.
Local Winds:
Answer:
The winds that blow for a short duration of time, originate in specific region and blow over a limited area are called Local Winds.

Question 5.
Doldrums:
Answer:
The region up to 5° North and 5° South of the equator remains calm for most of the year and winds do not blow in this region. It is called the equatorial calm zone or Doldrums.

Question 6.
Horse Latitudes:
Answer:
In the area near the Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn, that is between 25° and 35° north and south, there exist a high pressure belt, which is a calm belt. This belt is called as the Horse latitudes.

Question 7.
Typhoons:
Answer:
Storms arising in the months between June and October in the western part of the Pacific Ocean which blow with high velocity winds and heavy rains causing destruction are called Typhoons.

Question 8.
Hurricanes:
Answer:
The cyclones in the Caribbean sea which are destructive in nature are called Hurricanes.

Observe the pictures given below of Seasonal winds and write its characteristics:

Question 1.

Answer:
Characteristics of the Seasonal winds (Monsoon):

• Monsoon winds are generated due to the uneven heating of land and water in the different seasons.
• During summer, monsoon winds blow from the sea to the land and in winter they blow from the land to the sea.
• Southern Asia, East Africa, North Australia are the regions where the pronounced effects of these winds are felt.
• The influence of monsoon winds is seen in the summer and winter seasons in the Indian subcontinent.

change in direction of wind:

Draw a neat labelled diagram:

Question 1.
Planetary winds and pressure belts on the earth
Answer:

Distinguish between the following:

Question 1.
Easterlies and Westerlies:
Answer:

Easterlies	Westerlies
(i) Easterlies blow from mid latitudinal high pressure belt to equatorial low pressure belt in both the hemispheres	(i) Westerlies blow from mid latitudinal high pressure belt to subpolar low pressure belt in both the hemispheres
(ii) In the northern hemisphere, they blow from the northeast to the southwest.	(ii) In the northern hemisphere, they blow from the southwest to the northeast.
(iii) In the southern hemisphere, they blow from the southeast to the northwest.	(iii) In the southern hemisphere, they blow from northwest to the southeast.

Question 2.
Valley breeze and Mountain breeze:
Answer:

Valley Breeze	Mountain Breeze
(i) Valley breeze blow during the day.	(i) Mountain breeze blow during the night.
(ii) Winds blow from the valley to the mountain.	(ii) Winds blow from the mountain to the valley.
(iii) Valley breeze blows because of the high pressure area created iin the valley.	(iii) Mountain Breeze blows because of the high pressure area created on the mountains.

Question 3.
Cyclones and Anticyclones:
Answer:

Cyclones	Anticyclones
(i) Cyclonic conditions are created when a low pressure area is surrounded by high pressure areas.	(i) Anticyclonic conditions are created when a high pressure area is surrounded by low pressure areas.
(ii) The cyclonic winds move in an anticlockwise direction in the northern hemisphere and clockwise direction in the southern hemisphere.	(ii) The anticyclonic winds move in a clockwise direction in the northern hemisphere and anticlockwise direction in the southern hemisphere.
(iii) The sky is cloudy.	(iii) The skies are clear.
(iv) The velocity of wind is very high and cause rain.	(iv) The velocity of wind is less and weather is pleasant.

State one reason why:

Question 1.
Planetary winds change their original direction.
Answer:
The rotation from the west to east causes the change in the original direction of the planetary winds.

Question 2.
The air pressure in land and water is different
Answer:
(a) The land is made up of dense matter. Land is stable and opaque. As a result, heat is transferred at a greater speed and in a higher proportion. Hence, land gets heated quickly.

(b) The density of water is comparatively less. Water is transparent and unstable. Hence, water does not get heated quickly.

(c) As a result, the air pressure in land and water areas is different.

Question 3.
The Indian subcontinent experiences monsoon and retreating monsoon seasons.
Answer:
(a) Monsoon winds are generated due to uneven heating of land & water in different seasons. During summers, monsoon winds blow from sea to land & in winter they blow from land to the sea.

(b) The influence of monsoon winds is seen in summer season in the Indian subcontinent due to high temperature & low pressure in Thar desert region & Punjab plains.

(c) As these winds blow from sea to land the Indian subcontinent experiences monsoon (rainy) season.

(d) During winters, due to high pressure & low temperature in the Indian subcontinent & comparatively low pressure & high temperature in the Indian ocean winds blow from land to sea.

(e) This is the retreating monsoon season in the Indian subcontinent.
Thus the Indian subcontinent experiences monsoon & retreating monsoon season.

Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Give detailed information about the types of planetary winds.
Answer:
The following are the types of Planetary winds:
(i) Easterlies:

• In both the hemispheres, the winds that blow from the high pressure area between 25° & 35° parallels, to the equatorial low pressure belt (between 5°N & 5°S parallel) are called Easterlies.
• In the northern hemisphere they blow from northeast to southwest whereas in the southern hemisphere they blow from southeast to the northwest.

(ii) Westerlies:

• In both the hemispheres, winds that blow from the mid-latitudinal high pressure belt to sub polar low pressure belt situated near 60° parallel are called westerlies.
• In the northern hemisphere, these winds blow from the southwest to the northeast & in the southern hemisphere, they blow from the northwest to the southeast.

(iii) Polar winds:

• In both the hemispheres, winds blowing from the polar high pressure belt to the sub polar low pressure belt (55° to 65°) are called polar winds.
• Generally they blow from east to west.

Question 2.
Write in detail about cyclonic storms.
Answer:
(i) Cyclones occurring in the western part of the Pacific ocean along the coasts of Japan, China, Philippines, etc. are known as ‘Typhoons’.
(ii) These storms arise in the months between June & October.
(iii) Due to high velocity winds & heavy rains, these prove to be destructive.
(iv) The cyclones in the Caribbean Sea are known as ‘hurricanes’. These are also destructive in nature.
(v) During these storms, the minimum velocity of the wind is 60 km per hour.
(vi) Cyclones also originate in the temperate zone but they are not so powerful & hence are not destructive.

Question 3.
What are anticyclones?
Answer:
(i) Under specific atmospheric conditions, the air pressure in a particular region increases & the pressure in the surrounding areas remain low.

(ii) In this situation, winds blow from the centre towards the surrounding areas in a circular manner.

(iii) In the northern hemisphere, these winds blow in a clockwise direction whereas in the southern hemisphere they blow in an anticlockwise direction.

(iv) During anticyclone, the skies are clear, winds blow with lesser velocities and the weather is pleasant.

Can you tell?

Observe the picture given below and answer the following questions.:

Question 1.
Which are the winds in the northern hemisphere that blow from the mid latitudinal high pressure belt to the equatorial low pressure belt?
Answer:
Easterlies blow from mid latitudinal high pressure belt to equatorial low pressure belt in the northern hemisphere

Question 2.
What is the direction of the Westerlies in the southern hemisphere?
Answer:
Westerlies blow from north west to south east in the southern hemisphere

Question 3.
Which planetary winds blow from the mid-latitudinal high pressure belts to the subpolar low pressure belts in the northern hemisphere?
Answer:
The Westerlies blow from mid latitudinal high pressure belts to subpolar low pressure belts in the northern hemisphere

Question 4.
Why is the direction of polar winds not the same in both the hemispheres?
Answer:
The rotation of the earth causes the change in the direction of winds in both the hemisphere. So polar winds blow from northeast to south west in the northern hemisphere & from south east to north-west in the southern hemisphere.

Question 5.
Name the winds that blow in the southern hemisphere.
Answer:
Easterlies, Westerlies and Polar Winds blow in the southern hemisphere.

Question 6.
In which direction do the Easterlies blow in the Northern and Southern hemisphere?
Answer:
Easterlies blow from northeast to southeast in northern hemisphere & from southeast to northwest in the southern hemisphere.

7th Std Geography Questions And Answers:

• How Seasons Occur Part 1 Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• The Sun, the Moon and the Earth Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Tides Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Air Pressure Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Winds Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Natural Regions Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Soils Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• How Seasons Occur Part 2 Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Agriculture Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Human Settlements Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Contour Maps and Landforms Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers