Class 6

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Science Solutions Chapter 6 Substances in Daily Use Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Science Solutions Chapter 6 Substances in Daily Use

Class 6 Science Chapter 6 Substances in Daily Use Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the blanks using proper works:

Question a.
Rubber made by vulcanization is a …………… material.
Answer:
hard

Question b.
Man-made materials are made by …………… natural materials.
Answer:
processing

Question c.
…………… thread was developed simultaneously in New York and London.
Answer:
Nylon

Question d.
Rayon is also known as …………… .
Answer:
synthetic silk

2. Answer the following questions. 

Question a.
Why did the need for man-made materials arise?
Answer:
The need for man-made materials arose due to the following reasons:

1. To meet the needs of an increasing population.
2. Human nature to try to make life more comfortable.
3. They can be made available in plenty at a low cost.
4. The reserve of natural substances is decreasing.

c

Question b.
Which are the natural materials obtained from plants and animals?
Answer:
Leather, jute, wool, cotton, silk are the natural substances obtained from plants and animals.

Question c.
What is vulcanization?
Answer:

1. Vulcanization is the process in which rubber is heated with sulphur for three to four hours.
2. Sulphur is mixed to give hardness to rubber.
3. The proportion of sulphur depends on the purpose for which the rubber is to be used.

Question d.
Which natural materials are used to obtain fibres?
Answer:
Cotton, wood pulp and various hydrocarbons obtained from mineral oils are used to obtain fibres.

3. What are we used for?

Question a.
What are we used for?
Answer:

1. Soil: It supports plant life and hence indirectly supports all living things. It is used for making clay pot, utensils, bricks etc.
2. Wood: It is used in paper industry. It is also used to make furniture.
3. Nylon: It is used to manufacture clothes, fishing nets, ropes, etc.
4. Paper. It is used in our textbooks, note books, currency notes, etc.
5. Rubber: It is used in the manufacture of erasers, tyres, rubber toys, rubber bands, etc.

4. How is paper manufactured? Write in your own words.

Question a.
How is paper manufactured? Write in your own words.
Answer:
Coniferous trees like pine trees are used to make paper.

1. The bark of the logs of these trees is first removed and the wood is broken into small pieces.
2. The mixture of these pieces with some chemicals is kept soaked for a long time to form pulp.
3. On completion of chemical process, fibrous substances from wood pulp are separated and some dyes are added.
4. The pulp is then passed through rollers, dried to form paper and finally wound on reels.

5. Give scientific reasons.

Question a.
We must use cotton clothes during summer.
Answer:

1. During summer we sweat more due to high temperature.
2. Cotton clothes absorb sweat.
3. Synthetic clothes are water repellent. They do not absorb sweat and we feel uncomfortable. Hence we must use cotton clothes in summer.

Question b.
We must observe economy in the use of materials.
Answer:

1. Due to excessive use of natural substances by human beings to fulfil their needs; they are getting depleted at a faster rate.
2. At the same time, it takes a very long time for these substances to get naturally formed again.
3. Hence, we must observe economy in the use of materials so that they are available for the future generation also.

Question c.
Saving paper is the need of the hour.
Answer:

1. Saving paper means saving trees as wood is used as the raw material to manufacture paper.
2. Trees are natural habitat for many Living things.
3. Trees help in increasing rainfall and water availability. Hence, saving paper helps in saving trees which in turn maintains balance in nature.

Question d.
Man-made materials have more demand.
Answer:

1. Man-made substances are waterproof, lightweight and easy for transportation.
   Substances in Daily Use
2. They are easier to use and can be made available in plenty at a low cost.
   Hence, there is more demand for man-made materials.

Question e.
Humus is a natural material.
Answer:

1. Humus is obtained from plant and animal wastes.
2. Micro-organisms act on these wastes and convert them into humus.
3. Hence, humus is a natural material.

6. Find out.

Question 1.
How is lac obtained from nature?
Answer:

1. Lac is a resinous substance secreted from the glands present in the skin of female lac insect.
2. Lac insects live on the Palash trees. In India lac is mainly produced in the states of Rajasthan and Bihar.

Question 2.
How are pearls obtained?
Answer:

1. Pearls are formed when a foreign particle such as a grain of sand or a small particle of rock accidentally enters the space between the mantle and shell of an oyster’s body.
2. Oysters cannot reject the particle, and as a defence mechanism its produces a shining coating called nacre on the particle layer by layer.
3. As the shiny layers get added, a pearl is formed.
4. Cultured pearls are artificially formed by inserting a bead in oyster shell and allowed to coat it with nacre over several years.

Activity:

Question 1.
Visit a rubber, paper or textile industry in your area and collect information about it.

Question 2.
Collect various samples of paper and note their uses.

Question 3.
Use blank pages from old note-books and make a new one.

Class 6 Science Chapter 6 Substances in Daily Use Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks using proper works.

Question 1.
Natural rubber is obtained from …………… of trees.
Answer:
latex

Question 2.
Changes where the original constituent substances cannot be obtained again from the new substances are called …………… changes.
Answer:
irreversible

Question 3.
A paper factory in Maharashtra is situated at …………… .
Answer:
Ballarpur

Question 4.
Glass can be made from …………… and …………… .
Answer:
sand, calcium

Question 5.
Botanical name of rubber plant is …………… .
Answer:
Hevea brasiliensis

Question 6.
…………… obtained from mineral oils are used to make polymer chains.
Answer:
Hydrocarbons

Question 7.
The maximum production of rubber in India is in …………… .
Answer:
Kerala

Question 8.
…………… invented the process of vulcanisation.
Answer:
Charles Goodyear

Match the columns:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Jute	a. Animal origin
2. Air	b. Plant origin
3. Leather	c. Man-made
4. Cement	d. Abiotic

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Jute	b. Plant origin
2. Air	d. Abiotic
3. Leather	a. Animal origin
4. Cement	c. Man-made

State whether the following statements are ‘true’ or ‘false’.

Question 1.
We can find plastic in nature.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Soap is a man-made substance.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
We should reuse available resources.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Nylon clothes are good summer wear.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Glass is a man-made substance.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
In irreversible changes original substances can be obtained again.
Answer:
False

Question 7.
Rayon is made up of cotton and wood pulp.
Answer:
True

Give two examples of each of the following:

Question 1.
Natural fibres
Answer:
cotton, silk

Question 2.
Synthetic fibres
Answer:
terylene, rayon

Question 3.
Biotic natural substances
Answer:
wool, jute

Question 4.
Abiotic natural substances
Answer:
air, water

Question 5.
Man-made substances.
Answer:
paper, glass

Classify the following substances in the table given below.
(iron, wood, brick, paper, terylene, stone, jute, air, silk, utensils, plastic, rayon, water, wool, dacron, lac, nylon, pearl)
Answer:

Natural Substances	Man-made Substances               Natural Fibres		Synthetic Fibres
iron, wood, stone, water, lac, pearl	brick, paper, utensils, plastic	jute, silk, wool	terylene, rayon, dacron, nylon

Define:

Question 1.
Natural substances.
Answer:
Substances available in nature are called natural substances.

Question 2.
Man-made substances.
Answer:
Man-made substances are new substances produced by processing naturally available resources.

Question 3.
Biotic substances.
Answer:
Natural substances obtained from living things are called biotic substances.

Question 4.
Abiotic substances.
Answer:
Natural substances that are not obtained from living things are called abiotic substances.

Question 5.
Plant-originated substance.
Answer:
A substance obtained from a plant is called a plant-originated substance.

Question 6.
Animal-originated substance.
Answer:
A substances obtained from an animal is called an animal-originated substance.

Question 7.
Hydrocarbons.
Answer:
Substances obtained from mineral oil are called hydrocarbons.

Answer the following in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
Why was Rayon named so?
Answer:
The threads of Rayon have shine and strength. They appeared to be shining bright like the sun’s rays. Hence, they were named ‘Rayon.

Question 2.
How are TV sets, refrigerators, etc. packed? Why?
Answer:
To pack TV sets, refrigerators, etc. big cartons and thermocol are used. These man-made substances are water resistant, light weight and easy for transportation.

Question 3.
Give the properties and uses of nylon.
Answer:
Nylon threads have a shine and are strong, transparent and water resistant. They are used to manufacture clothes, fishing nets, ropes, etc.

Question 4.
What is latex?
Answer:
Latex is a milky white natural substance produced in the stems of rubber trees.

Question 5.
Name the basic material used to obtain paper.
Answer:
Wood is the basic material used in the manufacture of paper.

Question 6.
What kind of paper is used for currency notes manufacturing?
Answer:
Flax fibre is used in the manufacture of currency notes.

Question 7.
Where was the process of making paper invented?
Answer:
The process of making paper was invented in China.

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
What are the advantages of synthetic fibre?
Answer:
Advantages of synthetic fibre are:

1. These fibres can be manufactured on a large scale.
2. They cost less.
3. They are strong and durable.
4. They can be used for a long time.
5. They are water repellent. They dyy easily.
6. They are light weight and comfortable to wear.
7. Clothes made from these threads are wrinkle free and scratch free.

Question 2.
Give the shortcomings of synthetic fibre.
Answer:

1. They are water repellent. Hence, they do not absorb sweat from the skin.
2. Continuous use of these clothes keeps the skin moist which may cause skin diseases.
3. Synthetic clothes are uncomfortable to wear especially in summer.
4. They catch fire easily.
5. If they catch fire, they stick to the skin and cause skin injuries.
6. These fibres are not decomposed by micro-organisms.

Question 3.
Write a short note on natural rubber.
Answer:

1. Rubber is a natural substance obtained by collecting the latex of certain trees.
2. The botanical name of this tree is ‘Hevea brasiliensis’
3. In India, the maximum production of rubber is in Kerala.

Question 4.
What are dacron, terylene and terene?
Answer:

1. Dacron, terelyne and terene are synthetic fibres prepared from hydrocarbons.
2. Various hydrocarbons obtained from mineral oil are used to make polymer chains.
3. A solution of such polymer is pressed through a strainer with fine holes.
4. The fibre formed after cooling are long and unbroken threads.
5. These threads have been named as dacron, terylene and terene.

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
Natural substances are depleting.
Answer:

1. Due to increase in population there is an increase in demand. To meet this demand, natural substances are used to a greater extent.
2. Due to human nature to make his life more comfortable, he learnt to use natural resources and also began to process them to make new substances. Hence natural substances are depleting at an alarming rate.

Can you tell?

Question 1.
Difference between leather, jute, wool, cotton and soil, water, metals.
Answer:

1. Leather, jute, wool are biotic natural substances.
2. Soil, water, metals are abiotic natural substances.

Question 2.
How are leather and wool different from jute and cotton?
Answer:
Leather and wool are obtained from animals while jute and cotton are obtained from plants.

Question 3.
Do you find plastic, nylon, brass or cement in nature?
Answer:
No, they are all man-made materials.

Question 4.
Can red chillies become green chillies again?
Answer:
No, the change from green chillies to red chillies is irreversible.

Question 5.
From which substances in nature can we get threads or fibre?
Answer:
Cotton plant, jute, silkworm.

Question 6.
What are clothes made from?
Answer:
Clothes are made from yarn obtained from fibre.

Classify the following substances according to their uses:
sand, soap, wool, window glass, bamboo, cotton, bricks, silk, leafy vegetables, cement, fruits, water, sugar.
Answer:

• For construction: Sand, window glass, bamboo, bricks, cement.
• As food: Leafy vegetables, fruits, water, sugar.
• At home: Soap for cleaning.
• For clothes: Wool, cotton, silk.

Make a list of objects, each of which can be made from several substances.
Answer:

Objects	Substances
Table	Wood, glass, plastic.
Toys	Wood, plastic, clay.
Utensils	Aluminium, wood, glass, ceramic, plastic.

Use your brain power!

Question 1.
Complete the table below, showing how substance of daily use are classified.

Answer:

1. Natural
2. Biotic
3. Cement
4. Animal Origin
5. Cotton

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Science Solutions Chapter 5 Substances in the Surroundings – Their States and Properties Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Science Solutions Chapter 5 Substances in the Surroundings – Their States and Properties

Class 6 Science Chapter 5 Substances in the Surroundings – Their States and Properties Textbook Questions and Answers

1. In the paragraph below write ‘solid’, ‘liquid’ or ‘gas’ in each of the blank (brackets) depending on the substance referred to just before.

Question a.
On a bright sunny day, Riya and Gargi are playing with a ball (…..) in the park. Gargi feels thirsty. So, Riya brings tender coconut water (…..) for her. At the same time, a strong breeze (…..) starts blowing and it also begins to rain (…..). They run back into the house (…..), change their clothes (…..) and then their mother gives them a cup (…..) of hot milk (…..) to drink.
Answer:
solid, liquid, gas, liquid, solid, solid, solid, liquid.

2. Discuss.

Question a.
Riya pours some water from her bottle into another bottle. Does it change the shape of the water?
Answer:
Yes, the shape of water changes as water is in liquid state. Liquids do not have a shape of its own. They take the shape of the container.

Question b.
Halima picks up a small stone from the ground and puts it in the water in a dish. Does the shape of the stone change?
Answer:
No, the shape of the stone does not change. Stone is a solid, hence retains its shape.

3. Write the properties of these substances.
(water, glass, chalk, iron ball, sugar, salt, flour, coal, soil, pen, ink, soap)

Question a.
Write the properties of these substances.
(water, glass, chalk, iron ball, sugar, salt, flour, coal, soil, pen, ink, soap)
Answer:
Properties of substances:

Substance	State	Properties
1. Water	Liquid	Fluidity, density, solubility, transparency, thermal conductivity.
2. Glass	Solid	Brittleness, hardness, density, transparency.
3. Chalk	Solid	Brittleness, density.
4. Iron ball	Solid	Hardness, density, malleability, ductility, electrical ductility, conductivity, thermal conductivity, luster, sonority.
5. Sugar	Solid	Brittleness, density, solubility.
6. Salt	Solid	Brittleness, density, solubility.
7. Flour	Solid	Density, solubility.
8. Coal	Solid	Brittleness, density, thermal conductivity.
9. Soil	Solid	Brittleness, density.
10. Pen	Solid	Hardness, density.
11. Ink	Liquid	Fluidity, density, solubility.
12. Soap	Solid	Brittleness, hardness, density, solubility.

4. What is sublimation? Write the names of everyday substances that sublimate.

Question a.
What is sublimation? Write the names of everyday substances that sublimate.
Answer:

1. The change of a solid substance directly into a gas or vapour without first changing into liquid is called sublimation.
2. Substances that sublimate: Camphor, napthalene balls, ammonium chloride, iodine.

5. What is made from? Why? 
a. A sickle to cut sugarcane.
b. The sheets used for roofing.
c. A screwdriver
d. A pair of tongs.
e. Electric cables.
f. Ornaments.
g. Pots and pans.

Question a.
A sickle to cut sugarcane.
Answer:
A sickle is made of iron. An iron sickle is hard and malleable. When sharpened it will be able to cut the hard sugarcane.

Question b.
The sheets used for roofing:
Answer:

1. The sheets used for roofing are made of plastic, aluminium.
2. Plastic is hard, hence, protects against weather conditions.
3. Plastic is transparent, hence, sunlight can pass through it.
4. Aluminium is hard, light weight and durable, hence, protects against all weather conditions.
5. Malleable hence formed into thin sheets.

Question c.
A screwdriver:
Answer:

1. A screwdriver is made up of iron, steel, aluminium.
2. A screwdriver possesses property of hardness hence, it easily pierces a screw in piece of wood, wall, metals etc.

Question d.
A pair of tongs:
Answer:

1. A pair of tongs are made up of iron, steel aluminium etc. Tongs are used to lift hot, boiling utensils or vessels.
2. Tongs are hard, ductile and malleable.
3. Hence, have strong grip to hold utensils.
4. Rubbers fitted on the ends will protect from thermal conduction, from bums.

Question e.
Electric cables:
Answer:

1. Electric cables are metal wires (thin) wound in plastic.
2. Metal wires possess the property of hardness, ductility, electrical conductivity.
3. Plastic /rubber covering possesses the property of hardness, elasticity and are bad conductors of heat and electricity.

Question f.
Ornaments:
Answer:

1. They are made up of metals like gold and silver.
2. They possess the property of hardness, ductility, malleability, lustre.

Question g.
Pots and pans: Answer:

1. They are used to cook food, hence metals like aluminium, steel are used.
2. They possess the property of hardness, ductility, malleability, thermal conductivity, electrical conductivity, (microwave ovens)

6. What will happen if ….? And why?

Question a.
Nails are made of plastic
Answer:
If nails are made of plastic, they will not be able to pierce through other substances on being pushed or forced by a hammer. Plastic lacks the property of hardness.

Question b.
A bell is made of wood.
Answer:

1. If a bell is made of wood it will never make a ringing sound. A wooden bell does not have the property of being sonorous.
2. Sonority is the property of metals to produce a ringing sound.

Question c.
Rubber is not fitted on a pair of tongs.
Answer:

1. Rubber is a bad conductor of heat and electricity. It will not allow heat to pass to the hands/handle of the tongs, thus protecting us.
2. Pair of tongs are made up of metals which conduct heat and electricity. They have file property of thermal conduction and electrical conduction.
3. If rubber is not fitted on a pair of tongs, we will not be able to lift hot objects with it.

Question d.
A knife is made of wood.
Answer:
Wood does not have the property of malleability. Therefore, the edge of wooden knife will be blunt. Hence, we will not be able to cut anything with it.

Question e.
An axe is made of rubber.
Answer:

1. If an axe is made of rubber, it will not be used to cut wood or tree.
2. Rubber does not have the property of hardness that is required to push through to cut it.

7. Who am I?

Question a.
I’m found in a thermometer, I measure your temperature.
Answer:
Mercury

Question b.
I make things hot or cold.
Answer:
Heat

Question c.
I have no shape whatsoever!
Answer:
Liquid, gases

Question d.
I dissolve in water, but not in kerosene.
Answer:
Salt

8. Why does this happen? 

Question a.
Coconut oil thickens in winter.
Answer:
Coconut oil is in liquid state. In winter the surrounding temperature / atmospheric temperature starts decreasing. Coconut oil starts cooling or losing heat, it changes to solid state.
Thus coconut oil thickens in winter.

Question b.
Kerosene left open in a dish disappears.
Answer:
When kerosene is left open in a dish, it is exposed to surrounding temperature. As the temperature is more, kerosene starts continuously evaporating and finally disappears.

Question c.
The fragrance of incense sticks lighted in one corner of a room spreads to the other corner.
Answer:
The fragrance of incense sticks is given out in the form of scented vapours. As vapours are in gaseous state, the gas molecules spread out in the room. The molecules of gas move very fast and there are no forces to stop them from going apart. Therefore the fragrance of incense sticks lighted in one corner of room spreads to the other corner.

Question d.
What you see in the picture.

Answer:
The mass of plastic ball is less than an apple. This difference is because of their densities. Since an apple has greater density, it will sink to the bottom on other hand the plastic ball has lesser density, it will float over water surface.

Activity: 

Question 1.
Find out how the big statues of wax are made.

Question 2.
Visit a jeweller’s shop and find out how ornaments are made.

Class 6 Science Chapter 5 Substances in the Surroundings – Their States and Properties Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
The state of a substance changes if it is …………… or …………… .
Answer:
heated, cooled

Question 2.
Every substance in our surroundings is found in either the ……………, …………… or gaseous state.
Answer:
solid, liquid

Question 3.
On …………… heat, the substance changes from solid to liquid and liquid to gas.
Answer:
gaining

Question 4.
When the substance cools, or …………… heat, it changes from gaseous to liquid and liquid to solid state.
Answer:
loses

Question 5.
A …………… amount of heat must be gained or lost before the state of a substance can change.
Answer:
specific

Question 6.
When a substance gets heat, it becomes …………… and then …………… .
Answer:
warm, hot

Question 7.
If the substance is very hot, we could get …………… .
Answer:
scalded

Question 8.
A thermometer is used to measure …………… .
Answer:
temperature

Question 9.
…………… is the unit of measuring temperature.
Answer:
Degree Celsius (°C)

Question 10.
Nowadays, …………… thermometers are frequently used.
Answer:
digital

Question 11.
Solids have a shape of its …………… .
Answer:
own

Question 12.
Solids have a …………… volume.
Answer:
definite

Question 13.
Liquids take the shape of the …………… .
Answer:
container

Question 14.
Liquids have a …………… volume.
Answer:
specific

Question 15.
Air occupies all the available …………… .
Answer:
space

Question 16.
Evaporation occurs from the …………… of the water.
Answer:
surface

Question 17.
At sea-level, pure water boils at …………… .
Answer:
100°C

Question 18.
Condensation of steam takes place at …………… .
Answer:
100°C

Question 19.
The temperature of a substance can fall below …………… .
Answer:
0°C

Question 20.
Ice melts at …………… .
Answer:
0°C

Question 21.
Each substance has a specific boiling point which is also its …………… point.
Answer:
condensation

Question 22.
Each substance has a specific melting point which is the same as its …………… point.
Answer:
freezing

Question 23.
Candles are made by melting …………… wax.
Answer:
paraffin

Question 24.
Solid carbon-dioxide is …………… .
Answer:
dry ice

Question 25.
Liquid …………… is used in animal husbandry.
Answer:
nitrogen

Question 26.
Sand is melted to make …………… .
Answer:
glass

Question 27.
Iron is melted to make …………… .
Answer:
tools

Question 28.
Substances can be identified by studying their …………… .
Answer:
properties

Question 29.
Substances that break into small particles are said to be …………… .
Answer:
brittle

Question 30.
The …………… of any liquid is determined by how easily it flows.
Answer:
fluidity

Question 31.
Between substances of the same volume, the ones with greater density are …………… than those of lesser density.
Answer:
heavier

Question 32.
The property of a substance of getting …………… is called its solubility.
Answer:
dissolved

Question 33.
Minerals from the earth’s crust are …………… to obtain metals.
Answer:
processed

Question 34.
Metals can be converted into …………… by hammering.
Answer:
sheets

Question 35.
Metals can be stretched and drawn into …………… .
Answer:
wires

Question 36.
All metals are …………… of electricity to a greater or lesser extent.
Answer:
conductors

Question 37.
Every metal has a …………… colour by which it can be identified.
Answer:
specific

Question 38.
Metals produce …………… sound.
Answer:
ringing

Question 39.
Metals form a …………… group of substances.
Answer:
separate

Question 40.
Heat is the cause of the change of the state of …………… .
Answer:
substances

Match the columns:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Boiling water	a. > 35° C
2. Body temperature	b. 0° C
3. Freezing water	c. < 5° C
4. Air (summer afternoon)	d. < 15° C
5. Inside a fridge	e. < -18° C
6. Air (winter night)	f. 100° C
7. Inside the freezer	g. 37°C

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Boiling water	f. 100° C
2. Body temperature	g. 37°C
3. Freezing water	b. 0° C
4. Air (summer afternoon)	a. > 35° C
5. Inside a fridge	c. < 5° C
6. Air (winter night)	d. < 15° C
7. Inside the freezer	e. < -18° C

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
What is change of state of substances?
Answer:
When a substance changes from one state to another, the process is called change of state of the substance.

Question 2.
When does state of substance change?
Answer:
State of substance changes when it is heated or cooled.

Question 3.
In which state do substances exist in our surroundings?
Answer:
The substances exist in solid, liquid and gaseous form in our surroundings.

Question 4.
What happens when a substance gains heat?
Answer:
When a substance gains heat, it changes its state i.e. from solid to liquid and liquid to gas.

Question 5.
What happens when a substance loses heat?
Answer:
When a substance loses heat, it changes its state from gaseous to liquid and liquid to solid state.

Question 6.
How do we tell how hot or cold a substance is?
Answer:
The temperature on the thermometer will tell us how hot or cold a substance is.

Question 7.
What is the unit of measuring temperature.
Answer:
Degrees Celsius (°C) is the unit of measuring temperature.

Question 8.
What is the boiling point of water?
Answer:
The boiling point of water is 100° C.

Question 9.
What is condensation?
Answer:
When vapour cools, it is converted into liquid again. This process is condensation.

Question 10.
At what temperature condensation of steam takes place?
Answer:
Condensation of steam takes place at 100° C.

Question 11.
What is the freezing point of water?
Answer:
0° C is the freezing point of water.

Question 12.
What is the temperature of air in the freezer of a refrigerator?
Answer:
-18° C is the temperature of air in the freezer of a refrigerator.

Question 13.
At what temperature ice melts?
Answer:
Ice melts at 0° C.

Question 14.
How are candles made?
Answer:
Candles are made by melting paraffin wax.

Question 15.
What is the use of solid carbon-dioxide?
Answer:
Solid carbon-dioxide (dry ice) is used to make ice cream and to keep it frozen.

Question 16.
What is the use of liquid nitrogen?
Answer:
Liquid nitrogen is used in animal husbandry.

Question 17.
What is sublimation?
Answer:
The change of a solid substance directly into gas or vapour without changing into a liquid is called sublimation.

Question 18.
Define brittleness / What is brittleness?
Answer:
Some substances break into small pieces or particles. Such substances are said to be brittle. This property of substances is called brittleness.

Question 19.
Define hardness / What is hardness?
Answer:
The hardness of a substance is determined by how much resistance it offers to the substances being pushed through it.

Question 20.
Define elasticity / What is elasticity?
Answer:
Some substances change their shape when a force is applied on them but return to their original shape and size when the force is removed. This property is called elasticity.

Question 21.
Define fluidity / What is fluidity?
Answer:
Liquids flow downward on a sloping surface. This property is called fluidity.

Question 22.
How is fluidity of any liquid determined?
Answer:
Fluidity of any liquid is determined by how easily it flows.

Question 23.
Define density / What is density?
Answer:
The mass of different substances having the same volume can be different. This difference is because of the difference in their densities. Between substances of the same volume, the ones with greater density are heavier than those of lesser density.

Question 24.
Define solubility / What is solubility?
Answer:
The property of a substance of getting dissolved is called its solubility.

Question 25.
Define transparency / What is transparency?
Answer:
When we can look through a substance and see things on the other side, then that substance is said to be transparent. This property of the substances is called transparency.

Question 26.
List some transparent substances.
Answer:
Glass, air, clean water and some types of plastic are transparent substances.

Question 27.
What are metals?
Answer:
Metals are substances like copper, gold, iron, aluminium. They are found in the form of minerals deep inside the earth. Minerals from the earth’s crust are processed to obtain metals.

Question 28.
Define malleability. / What is malleability?
Answer:
Metals can be converted into sheets by hammering. This property of metals is called malleability.

Question 29.
Define ductility. / What is ductility?
Answer:
Metals can be stretched and drawn into thin wires. This property of metals is called ductility

Question 30.
Name some ductile metals.
Answer:
Metals like silver, gold, platinum can be drawn into fine wires.

Question 31.
Define electrical conductivity. / What is electrical conduction?
Answer:
Electricity flows through metals. All metals are conductors of electricity to a greater or lesser extent.

Question 32.
Define thermal conductivity. / What is thermal conductivity?
Answer:
Metals allow heat to flow through them. This property is called thermal conductivity

Question 33.
What is lustre?
Answer:
The typical shine or characteristic colour by which metal can be identified is called lustre.

Question 34.
What is sonority of metals? / Define sonority.
Answer;
Metals produce a ringing sound. This property is called the sonority of metals.

Give scientific reasons for following:

Question 1.
Metals are used to make musical instruments.
Answer:
Metals possess the property of being sonorous, i.e. produce a ringing sound. Hence, they are used to make musical instruments.

Question 2.
Ornaments are made up of metals.
Answer:
Metals have the property of being malleable, ductile, lustrous. Hence, ornaments are made up of metals.

Question 3.
Why should we not put our hand or finger in the water to judge the hotness of water?
Answer:
We should never put our hand or finger in the water to judge how hot it is because that is not an accurate measure. Besides if the substance is very hot, we could get scalded.

Can you tell?

Question 1.
Why are electric boards fitted on the wall made of plastic or wood?
Answer:
Plastic or wood are bad conductors of heat and electricity. Electric boards are made up of plastic or wood. So that while touching we will not get electric shock.

Question 2.
The handle of cooker is made of plastic. Why?
Answer:
Cooker is made of metal. When food is cooked in it, it gets heated and the whole of its body becomes hot due to thermal conductivity. Hence with the plastic handle we can easily lift the hot cooker as plastic is a bad conductor of heat.

Question 3.
Use your brain power!
On opening a box of camphor, its smell spreads all around. Why does this happen?
Answer:

1. Camphor is a sublimate substance.
2. When a box of camphor is opened it changes its state from solid to gas or vapour state.
3. This change takes due to the process of sublimation where camphor absorbs heat from surrounding to change from solid to gaseous state.
4. Camphor particles in gaseous state start spreading all around.
5. Hence on opening a box of camphor its smell spreads all around.

Question 4.
Identify the objects shown in fig. 5.14. From which substances are they made? What are these substances called as a group?
Answer:
In fig 5.14, the metallic bars are shown, these bars are made up of shiny solid. These substances are called metals.

Question 5.
Name the solid, liquid and gaseous states of water.
Answer:

• Solid- Ice
• Liquid – water
• Gas – water vapour.

Question 6.
Read this list of substances:
spirit, camphor, petrol, ghee, coconut oil, naphthalene balls, ammonium chloride (navsagar).

Question a.
Which one freezes in winter?
Answer:
Coconut oil, ghee.

Question b.
Which liquids have you seen change into a vapour?
Answer:
Spirit, petrol.

Question c.
Which solid directly changes into gaseous state?
Answer:
Camphor, naphthalene balls, ammonium chloride.

Question 7.
The chart given below shows the boiling point and freezing point of some substances. State whether these substances are solid, liquid or gaseous at room temperature.

Substance	Freezing Point	Boiling Point
Candle	60 °C	350 °C
Plastic	> 250 °C	954 °C
Iron	1535 °C	2862 °C

Answer:
Candle, plastic and iron are in solid state at room temperature.

Distinguish between solids, liquids and gases.
Answer:

Solids	Liquid                                                  Gases
e.g.: A piece of iron	e.g.: Water, spirit, oil	e.g.: Air
Has a shape of its own, Retains shape, no matter how it is kept.	Does not have a shape of its own. Takes the shape of the container.	Does not have a shape of its own. Occupies all the available space.
Has a definite volume. Solids like sugar, sand when poured on a flat surface, form a heap.	It has a specific volume. Occupies definite portion of a container. Spreads on a flat surface on pouring. Flows downwards along a slope. Takes the shape of the surface.	Does not have a definite volume. On changing the pressure on a gas in a closed container, its volume also changes.

Distinguish between Boiling and Melting.
Answer:

Boiling	Melting
1. When heat is supplied to liquids, they boil.	1. When heat is supplied to solids, they melt.
2. Boiling leads liquids to vapour/gaseous state.	2. Melting leads solids to liquid state.
3. The temparature at which liquid starts boiling continuously is called boiling point.	3. The temperature at which solid turns to liquid completely is called melting point.

Answer the following briefly:

Question 1.
List properties of solids
Answer:

1. Solids have its own shape i.e. Retains shape, no matter how it is kept.
2. Solids have definite volume.
3. e.g. Sand when poured on a flat surface form a heap.

Question 2.
List properties of liquids.
Answer:

1. Liquid does not have a shape of its own. Takes the shape of the container.
2. A liquid has a specific volume i.e. occupies definite portion of a container.
3. Liquids: e.g. water, milk, kerosene.

Question 3.
List properties of gases.
Answer:

1. Gases does not have a shape of its own.
2. Occupies all the available space.
3. Does not have a definite volume.
4. e.g. Air.

Question 4.
Explain with example how liquids take the shape of the surface.
Answer:
Liquids have a specific volume. They occupy definite portion of a container. Liquids spreads on a flat surface on pouring. Liquids flow downwards along a slope.

Question 5.
Explain Ebullition.
Answer:

1. As the water gets heated, its temperature increases and it evaporates at a faster and faster rate.
2. When water kept on a stove attains a particular temperature or level of heat, then evaporation takes place in all parts of the body of water.
3. Then we see water bubbles rising at a faster and faster rate to the surface and steam mixing in the air.
4. This is called boiling of water or Ebullition.

Question 6.
Explain: Boiling point and condensation point of water are one and the same.
Answer:
Water boils at 100°C. i.e. boiling point of water is 100°C. Condensation of steam also takes place at 100° C. Thus boiling point and condensation point of water are one and the same.

Question 7.
Explain freezing point of water.
Answer:

1. Water kept in a fridge or on ice becomes cooler and cooler i.e. its temperature falls.
2. At a certain temperature water does not cool further but starts freezing and forms ice.
3. The temperature at which this happens is called the freezing point of water. (0° C)

Question 8.
Explain: Freezing point and melting point of water are same.
Answer:

1. The temperature at which water does not get any cooler but starts freezing and forming ice is 0° C.
2. When ice gets heat, it starts melting or changes into liquid state at 0° C.
3. Thus, freezing point and melting point of water are one and the same.

Question 9.
List various uses of changes in physical state.
Answer:

1. Candles are made by melting paraffin wax.
2. Solid carbon-dioxide (dry ice) is used to make ice-cream and to keep it frozen.
3. Liquid nitrogen is used in animal husbandry.
4. Sand (silica) is melted to make glass.
5. Metals like gold and silver are melted to make ornaments.
6. Iron is melted to make tools.

Question 10.
List the properties of substances:
Answer:
The properties of substances are

1. Brittleness
2. Hardness
3. Elasticity
4. Fluidity
5. Density
6. Solubility
7. Transparency

Question 11.
List properties of metals:
Answer:
The properties of metals are

1. Malleability
2. Ductility
3. Electrical conductivity
4. Thermal conductivity
5. Lustre
6. Sonority

Question 12.
How can we change the volume of a gas?
Answer:
On changing the pressure on a gas in a closed container we can change its volume.

Can you tell?

Question 1.
Does water change into vapour the moment we place the vessel on a stove? Does water kept in fridge change at once into ice?
Answer:
No, it doesn’t. Water slowly changes from one state to another.

Question 2.
How do we tell how hot or cold a substance is?
Answer:
A thermometer is used to measure the temperature of the subatance which tell us hot or cold it is.

Question 3.
How will you identify the following

Question i.
A glass: Is it made of plastic, steel or glass?
Answer:
Glass is made of glass as it is transparent.

Question ii.
A rod: Iron or aluminium.
Answer:
A rod is made of iron as it is heavy.

Question iii.
A door: Wooden or glass?
Answer:
A door is wooden as it is opaque.

Question iv.
A white powder: Salt or chalk powder?
Answer:
If powder dissloves in water it is salt and if it does not dissolves in water it is chalk.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Science Solutions Chapter 3 Diversity in Living Things and their Classification Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Science Solutions Chapter 3 Diversity in Living Things and their Classification

Class 6 Science Chapter 3 Diversity in Living Things and their Classification Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Match the pairs.

diversity in living things and their classification class 6 exercise Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Amphibians	a. A monkey
2. Vertebrates	b. A snake
3. With scales	c. A frog

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Amphibians	c. A frog
2. Vertebrates	a. A monkey
3. With scales	b. A snake

2. Who is the odd one out?

Question a.
Fungus, mushroom, chrysanthemum, spirogyra
Answer:
Chrysanthemum (only flowering plants)
or
Spirogyra (only aquatic plant)

Question b.
Mango, banyan, palm, chickpea
Answer:
Chickpea (shrub, others are not)
or
Palm (tall tree without any branches, others have branches)

Question c.
Grape, orange, lemon, hibiscus
Answer:
Grape (only creeper, others are not)
or
Hibiscus (flower, others are fruits)

Question d.
Sunflower, banyan, jowar, bajra
Answer:
Banyan (perinnial, others are not)

Question e.
Guava, radish, carrot, beetroot
Answer:
Gauva (fruit, others are roots)

Question f.
Deer, fish, man, worms
Answer:
Worms (invertebrate, others are not)
or
Fish (aquatic animal, others are terristrial animals

3. What is the difference?

Question a.
Flowering plant and Non-flowering plant
Answer:

Flowering plant	Non-flowering plant
1. Plants that bear flowers are called flowering plants.	1. Plants that do not bear flowers are called non­flowering plants.
2. They have roots, stems and leaves.	2. They may not have roots, stems or leaves.
e.g. Rose, sunflower, lotus	e.g. Pine, fern, algae

Question b.
A Tree and a Shrub
Answer:

Tree	Shrub
1. They have branches at some height above the ground.	1. They give out branches close to the ground.
2. They grow very tall compared to shrubs.	2. They grow upto 2 to 3 metres in height.
3. They have strong and hard stems.	3. They have thick hard stems.
e.g. Mango tree, banyan tree	e.g. Hibiscus, oleander

Question c.
Vertebrates and Invertebrates
Answer:

Vertebrates	Invertebrates
1. They have vertebral column.	1. They do not have vertebral column.
2. The brain is well developed.	2. The brain if present may not be developed.
e.g. Human, dog, fishes etc.	e.g. earthworm, insects etc.

4. True or false?

Question a.
The snail is an aquatic animal.
Answer:
False

Question b.
Amphibians can live in air and in water.
Answer:
False

Question c.
The function of the brain is well developed in vertebrate.
Answer:
True

Question d.
The amoeba is a multicellular animal.
Answer:
False

5. Write two names of each. 

Question a.
A flowering plant
Answer:
Rose, hibiscus

Question b.
A non-flowering plant
Answer:
Fern, algae

Question c.
A tree
Answer:
Mango, banyan

Question d.
A shrub
Answer:
Oleander, hibiscus

Question e.
A creeper
Answer:
Pumpkin, watermelon

Question f.
An annual plant
Answer:
Jowar, sunflower

Question g.
A biennial plant
Answer:
Carrot, beetroot

Question h.
A perennial plant
Answer:
Mango, gulmohar

6. Write answers to the following. 

Question a.
What are the parts of a plant?
Answer:
The parts of a plant are: root, stem, leaves, flowers, fruit and seed.

Question b.
What are the functions of root?
Answer:
The functions of root are:

1. The root hold the soil firmly and anchor the plant.
2. They absorb water, salt and minerals from the soil and transport it to stem.
3. Some roots store food. e.g. Carrot, radish.

Question c.
Why is it necessary to classify living things?
Answer:

1. There is a great diversity in living things- both plants and animals on the earth.
2. In order to identify them and to study their characteristics, systematic classification is necessary.

Question d.
What are the criteria used to classify living things?
Answer:
Following are the criteria used to classify living things:
a. Plants:

• Mode of nutrition.
• Similarities and differences in structure.
• Presence of flowers or not.
• Period of life cycles.
• Habitat.

b. Animals:

• Cell structure.
• Presence of vertebral column.
• Method of reproduction.
• Habitat.

Question e.
Tell some characteristics of creepers.
Answer:
The characteristics of creepers are:

1. The stem of a creeper is very flexible, soft and green and need support to climb.
2. Some climbers spread on the ground, e.g. Pumpkin
3. Some have aerial roots, e.g. Money plant
4. Some climbers develop tendrils, e.g. Cucumber

Question f.
Explain the characteristics of herbs with examples.
Answer:

1. Herbs grow 1 to 1.5 m tall.
2. Their stem is green and quite flexible.
3. They may live for a few months or upto two years, e.g. Tulsi, oregano, etc.

Question g.
How is the body of animals protected?
Answer:
Body of animals are protected by special covering such as skins, feathers, scales, hair fur, etc.

Question h.
On the basis of which criteria will you classify plants and animals?
Answer:

7. Draw figures. 

Question a.
Draw the figure of a plant to show the parts, namely, the root, stem and leaves in it.
Answer:

Activity:

Question 1.
Visit a plant nursery and classify the plants there.

Question 2.
Visit a zoo and obtain information about the diversity in animals.

Question 3.
Write an essay on diversity in plants.

Question 4.
Collect seeds of various plants during summer and throw them in open spaces (fallow land, moorland, hill, etc.) during the rainy season.

Class 6 Science Chapter 3 Diversity in Living Things and their Classification Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Plants that can prepare their own food are called ………….. plants.
Answer:
autotrophic

Question 2.
Pitcher plants are ………….. .
Answer:
insectivorous

Question 3.
The ………….. is an important means of reproduction.
Answer:
flower

Question 4.
Animals that lay eggs are ………….. animals.
Answer:
oviparous

Question 5.
Animals that can live on land as well as water are called ………….. .
Answer:
amphibians

Choose the correct alternative:

Question 1.
The ………….. is a perennial.
(a) beetroot
(b) gulmohar
(c) grass
Answer:
(b) gulmohar

Question 2.
The sunflower is a / an ………….. plant.
(a) annual
(b) biennial
(c) perennial
Answer:
(a) annual

Question 3.
Cactus is a ………….. plant.
(a) land
(b) water
(c) desert
Answer:
(c) desert

Question 4.
The …………….. is a unicellular animal.
(a) cockroach
(b) snail
(c) paramoecium
Answer:
(c) paramoecium

Question 5.
Hen is a …………….. animal.
(a) oviparous
(b) viviparous
(c) none of above
Answer:
(b) oviparous

Question 6.
Earthworm is a / an ……………. animal.
(a) vertebrate
(b) invertebrate
(c) unicellular
Answer:
(b) invertebrate

True or False:

Question 1.
The pods of beans and peas are actually fruits.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Fungus is heterotrophic.
Answer:
True

Write two names of each.

Question 1.
An invertebrate animal
Answer:
Earthworm, cockroach

Question 2.
An oviparous animal.
Answer:
Hen, sparrow

Distinguish between:

Question 1.
Autotrophic plant and Heterotrophic plant
Answer:

Autotrophic plant	Heterotrophic plant
1. They can produce their own food.	1. They cannot produce their own food. They depend on other things for their food.
2. They are green in colour.	2. They are non­green in colour.
e.g. Periwinkle, pomegranate etc.	e.g. Dodder, loranthus etc

Classify as directed.

Question 1.
Into annual, biennial, perennial
Sunflower, carrot, bajra, mango, jowar, oleander, beetroot, coconut
Answer:

Annual	Biennial	Perennial
Sunflower	Carrot	Mango
bajra	beetroot	oleander
jowar		coconut

Question 2.
Into vertebrates and invertebrates
Fish, cat, earthworm, snail, hen, cockroach
Answer:

Vertebrates	Invertebrates
Fish	Earthworm
cat	snail
hen	cockroach

Define. 

Class 6 Science Chapter 3 Diversity In Living Things and Their Classification Question 1.
Unicellular animal
Answer:
Animals which have a single cell body performing all functions, are called unicellular animals, e.g. Amoeba

Diversity In Living Things And Their Classification Exercise Question 2.
Multicellular animals
Answer:
Animals which have many cells in their body, are called multicellular animals, e.g. Cat

Diversity In Living Things and Their Classification Question 3.
Vertebrates
Answer:
Animals with vertebral column are called vertebrates, e.g. Man

Question 4.
Invertebrate animals
Answer:
Animals without vertebrate column are called invertebrate animals, e.g. Earthworm

Question 5.
Oviparous animals
Answer:
Animals which lay eggs and hatch them are called oviparous animals, e.g. Hen

Question 6.
Viviparous animals
Answer:
Animals which give birth to their young ones are called viviparous animals, e.g. Dog

Answer the following:

Question 1.
Give the functions of:
Answer:
a. Stem:
1. The stem gives support to the other parts of the plant.
2. The stem carries out the function of production, conduction and storage of the food.
3. In some cases it stores food.
b. Leaves: They play an important role in the production of food.
c. Flowers: The flowers are reproductive organ of plant.
d. Fruits: Fruits have seeds which give rise to new plant.
e. Seeds: From the seeds arise new plants.

Answer the following in short.

Question 1.
What type of plants are toolstools and mushrooms?
Answer:
Toolstools and mushrooms are heterotrophs.

Question 2.
What type of plant is a fig?
Answer:
Fig is a tree.

Question 3.
Do ferns, algae and money plant bear flowers?
Answer:
Ferns, algae and money plants do not bear flowers. They are non-flowering plants.

Question 4.
Which is the largest flower and where is it found?
Answer:
Rafflesia Arnoldi is the world’s largest flower. It is found in Indonesia.

Question 5.
Where does pomegranate grow?
Answer:
Pomegranate is a shrub which grows on land in soil.

Question 6.
Where do bulrushes and railroad creepers grow?
Answer:
Bulrushes is a water plant and railroad creepers grow along the ground.

Question 7.
Where does lotus grow?
Answer:
Lotus grows in water.

Question 8.
Where does the dodder plant grow?
Answer:
Dodder is a parasitic plant and grows on other plants.

Question 9.
Why does water hyacinth float?
Answer:
The stem of water hyacinth is filled with air and its leaves are specially modified, which helps it to float in water.

Question 10.
Why is the stem of a cactus plant fleshy?
Answer:
Cactus is a desert plant. As there is a shortage of water, cactus stores water in its stem and hence, stem of cactus is fleshy.

Question 11.
Which spheres of the earth do living things exist?
Answer:
Living things exists in all three spheres of earth, i.e. Atmosphere, lithosphere and hydrosphere.

Question 12.
Are the plants and animals that you have seen all alike?
Answer:
No. They are all of different types.

Question 13.
What are the similarities between a mango, a banyan and a tamarind tree?
Answer:
They are tall, big and perennial plants.

Question 14.
What are the similarities between the hibiscus, oleander and lantana plants?
Answer:
They are shorter and smaller than trees.

Question 15.
What are the similarities between fenugreek and periwinkle plants?
Answer:
They are smaller and shorter than trees and shrubs.

Question 16.
Have you seen vines like the pumpkin, the railroad creeper, kavali, watermelon or the grapvine? How do they grow?
Answer:
They have very soft, green and flexible stem. They grow with the help of a support.

Question 17.
For how many years do crops like bajra, wheat, corn, radish, marigold live?
Answer:
They live for about one year.

Question 18.
To which part of plants are butterflies and insects attracted?
Answer:
Butterflies and insects are attracted towards the flower of the plants.

Question 19.
What is the chain of bones in the centre of our back called?
Answer:
A vertibral column.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Science Solutions Chapter 7 Nutrition and Diet Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Science Solutions Chapter 7 Nutrition and Diet

Class 6 Science Chapter 7 Nutrition and Diet Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the blanks:

Question a.
The process of intake of food and utilizing it for all life processes is called ……………. .
Answer:
nutrition

Question b.
All the substances in our food which are useful for various body processes are called ………… .
Answer:
nutrients

Question c.
Carbohydrates and …………. provide …………… to our body.
Answer:
fats, energy

Question d.
In a balanced diet, all the nutrients are present in the ……………. proportion.
Answer:
right

Question e.
In the food pyramid, cereals are given the maximum space because they fulfill our …………… requirement.
Answer:
energy

Question f.
Intake of more food than necessary causes ………….. .
Answer:
overnutrition

2. Spot the following in the table of vitamins and minerals.

Question a.
The nutrient present in citrous fruits.
Answer:
Vitamin C

Question b.
Vitamins/minerals present in milk.
Answer:
Vitamin A, Vitamin B, Vitamin D, calcium, phosphorus.

Question c.
Causes and symptoms of night blindness, scurvy, rickets, beriberi.
Answer:

Diseases	Causes	Symptoms
1. Night blindness	Deficiency of Vitamin A	Inability to see in dim light
2. Scurvy	Deficiency of Vitamin C	Bleeding of gums
3. Rickets	Deficiency of Vitamin D	Softening of bones
4. Beri-beri	Deficiency of Vitamin B1	Nerve disorder, muscle weakness

Question d.
Foods required to prevent the above diseases.
Answer:

Diseases	*Causes	‘Symptoms	Food for prevention
1. Night blindness	Deficiency of Vitamin A	Inability to see in dim light	Carrots, milk, dark green vegetables.
2. Scurvy	Deficiency of Vitamin C	Bleeding of gums	Amla, kiwi, oranges and citrus fruits.
3. Rickets	Deficiency of Vitamin D	Softening of bones	Exposure to sunlight, milk, fish, egg, butter.
4. Beri-beri	Deficiency of Vitamin B1	Nerve disorder, muscle weakness	Milk, fish, meat, cereals, nuts, pulses

Question e.
Causes of anaemia.
Answer:
Deficiency of Vitamin B₁₂, iron.

Question f.
Essential mineral for healthy bones and teeth.
Answer:
Calcium, phosphorus.

Question g.
Sensory organ affected due to the deficiency of Vitamin A.
Answer:
Eyes, skin.

3. Choose the correct alternative. 

Question a.
Pulses are a very good source of ……………. .
(1) carbohydrates
(2) proteins
(3) fats
(4) minerals
Answer:
(2) proteins

Question b.
…………. provide maximum energy to our body.
(1) Cereals
(2) Leafy Vegetables
(3) Water
(4) Amla
Answer:
(1) Cereals

Question c.
Goitre is caused by the deficiency of ……….. .
(1) iron
(2) calcium
(3) iodine
(4) potassium
Answer:
(3) iodine

Question d.
……….. is a type of junk food.
(1) Orange
(2) Milk
(3) Bhakri
(4) Chocolate
Answer:
(4) Chocolate

4. Use the food pyramid to select food items of your choice for three days.
Conditions:
1. The diet for all three days should be balanced.
2. There should be variety in the items chosen for the three days.
Answer:

Day 1:
Cereal like cornflakes and milk, apple, roti, sabzi and dal.

Day 2:
Bread and butter with milk, rice/ roti and chicken, curd, any one type of fruit, salad.

Day 3:
Poha, green vegetable and dal with rice or roti, raita, one fruit, vegetable sandwich.

Activity:

Question 1.
Obtain information on simple methods of spotting the adulteration in foodstuffs and try them out.

Class 6 Science Chapter 7 Nutrition and Diet Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct alternative:

Question 1.
Vitamin ……………. and vitamin …………….. dissolve easily in water.
(a) A, B
(b) B, C
(c) B, D
(d) B, E
Answer:
(b) B, C

Question 2.
……………. carries oxygen to all parts of the body.
(a) Calcium
(b) Iron
(c) Iodine
(d) Sodium?
Answer:
(b) Iron

Question 3.
Deficiency of vitamin ……………. causes excessive bleeding after an injury.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) K
(d) D
Answer:
(c) K

Question 4.
In accordance with the food pyramid, the proportion of ……………. should be least in our diet.
(a) cereals
(b) fruits
(c) milk
(d) oil
Answer:
(d) oil

Question 5.
……………. is a rich source of vitamin C.
(a) Carrot
(b) Amla
(c) Meat
(d) Milk
Answer:
(b) Amla

Question 6.
Children of growing age need to get approximately ……………. to ……………. calories from the food they eat.
(a) 1500-2000
(b) 3150-4150
(c) 2000-2500
(d) All of them
Answer:
(c) 2000-2500

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
All food that we consume during the day is together called our ………. .
Answer:
diet

Question 2.
………….. convert milk into yogurt.
Answer:
Probiotics.

Match the columns:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Carbohydrates	a. resistance to diseases
2. Proteins	b. energy
3. Fibre	c. growth
4. Vitamins	d. excretion

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Carbohydrates	b. energy
2. Proteins	c. growth
3. Fibre	d. excretion
4. Vitamins	a. resistance to diseases

Question 2.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Iron	a. Goitre
2. Calcium and phosphorous	b. Anaemia
3. Iodine	c. Inefficiency of muscles
4. Sodium and potassium	d. Weak bones

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Iron	b. Anaemia
2. Calcium and phosphorous	d. Weak bones
3. Iodine	a. Goitre
4. Sodium and potassium	c. Inefficiency of muscles

Question 3.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Vitamin A	a. Scurvy
2. Vitamin C	b. Excessive bleeding
3. Vitamin D	c. Skin disorders
4. Vitamin E	d. Nightblindness
5. Vitamin K	e. Rickets

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Vitamin A	d. Nightblindness
2. Vitamin C	a. Scurvy
3. Vitamin D	e. Rickets
4. Vitamin E	c. Skin disorders
5. Vitamin K	b. Excessive bleeding

Pick out the odd one:

Question 1.
Chocolate, chapatti, banana, milk
Answer:
Chocolate

Question 2.
Rice, chapatti, carrot, dal.
Answer:
Carrot

Question 3.
Scurvy, Rickets, Beriberi, Goitre.
Answer:
Goitre

Question 4.
Vitamin A, Vitamin C, Vitamin D, Vitamin E
Answer:
Vitamin C

Answer the following:

Question 1.
Why do living things need food and water?
Answer:
Living things take food and water and use them for:

1. Obtaining energy
2. Growth of the body
3. Carrying out day to day functions of the body.
4. Fighting against diseases

Question 2.
Name the main nutrients in our food.
Answer:
There are six main nutrients in our food. They are:

1. Carbohydrates
2. Fats
3. Proteins
4. Fibres
5. Vitamins
6. minerals

Question 3.
How do we get energy from the food?
Answer:

1. We get energy in the form of heat from the food we eat.
2. Heat is measured in kilocalories (calories).
3. Hence, the energy in food items is also measured in kilocalories (calories).

Question 4.
Vitamin C rich food should be eaten raw. Why?
Answer:

1. Vitamin C is very sensitive to heat and light.
2. It is destroyed easily during cooking. Hence, Vitamin C rich food should be eaten raw.

Question 5.
What is balanced diet? Give its significance.
Answer:
A diet containing adequate quantities of all nutrients is called as balanced diet. Significance of a balanced diet are:

1. An increased capacity to work.
2. Good physical and mental health.
3. Increased capacity to fight/resist diseases.
4. Helps in proper growth of the body.

Question 6.
What is obesity? How to avoid obesity?
Answer:

• Obesity is the state of being overweight.
• Junk food eaten frequently causes obesity.
• Obesity is not good for health.

To avoid obesity:

1. Have a balanced diet.
2. Eat whole grains, fruits and vegetables with their skins.
3. Increase use of bicycles.
4. Play more outdoor games.
5. Do not eat if you are not hungry.
6. Do not watch T.V while eating.
7. Avoid precooked, packaged food.
8. Exercise regularly.

Write short notes.

Question 1.
Vitamins:
Answer:
1. Vitamins are vital substances required by our body in small quantities. They help to improve the body’s resistance to diseases. Their deficiency can lead to various diseases, e.g.: deficiency of Vitamin A causes night blindness and that of Vitamin D causes rickets. The sources of vitamins are vegetables, fruits, milk, fish, meat etc.
2. There are two kinds of vitamins – water soluble vitamins and water insoluble vitamins.
3. Vitamin B and Vitamin C are water soluble vitamins because they dissolve easily in water. They are thrown out of the body through the water in sweat and urine. Hence, a regular supply of these vitamins is essential. B₁₇B₂, B₃, B₆, B₉, and Bp are the types of vitamin B.
4. Vitamins A, D, E and K are insoluble in water but are fat soluble vitamins. They get stored in the body.

Question 2.
Probiotics:
Answer:

1. The useful microorganisms which convert milk into yoghurt are present in yoghurt and buttermilk are called probiotics.
2. Lakhs of such useful microorganisms are present in our intestine.
3. They are essential for our health.
4. Hence, to maintain them in our body we should include food rich in probiotics in our daily diet.

Question 3.
Junk food:
Answer:

1. Foods which gives us energy but do not supply the necessary nutrients are called junk food.
2. Foods like chocolate, pizzas, burgers, noodles, fried foods like pakodas are junk food.
3. These foods contain refined flour, sugar and oil in large proportion.
4. If we consume these foods frequently, our body experiences shortage of proteins, vitamins and minerals.
5. This may lead to malnutrition and obesity.

Question 4.
Adulteration of food:
Answer:
To earn more profits, cheaper substances of low quality called adulterants, are mixed with the foodstuffs. The mixing adulterants to foodstuffs is called adulteration of food. Adulterants may be poisonous or harmful and such food is impure and unfit for consumption.
Some of the adulterants added to foodstuffs are given below:

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
Deficiency of vitamin B and C are common in our body.
Answer:

1. Vitamin B and vitamin C are water soluble vitamins.
2. They are thrown out of the body through the water in sweat and urine.
3. Hence, a regular supply of these vitamins is essential.
4. If we don’t intake food rich in these vitamins, deficiency occurs.

Question 2.
Exposure to sunlight is essential.
Answer:

1. On exposure to sunlight our body synthesizes Vitamin D from substances in milk, fish, eggs and butter.
2. Its deficiency causes softening of bones (Rickets).
3. Vitamin D helps in absorbing calcium and phosphorous for healthy bones and teeth.
4. Hence, exposure to sunlight is essential.

Complete the tables given below:

1.

Nutrients	Source	Function
1. Carbohydrates	Rice, chapatti	Provide energy
2. Fats	Oil, butter	Provide energy
3. Proteins	Sprouts, meat, eggs	Growth, repairing wear and tear of the body.
4. Vitamins	Vegetables, fruits	Improve body’s resistance to diseases
5. Fibre	Sprouts, vegetable, fruits	Help in excretion

2.

Mineral	Source	Function
1. Iron	Spinach, raisins	Carrying oxygen to all parts of the body
2. Calcium, phosphorous	Milk, milk products, meat	Strengthen bones and teeth
3. Iodine	Raisins, fish, sea fish	Controls growth, speeds up chemical reactions in the body.
4. Sodium and potassium	Salt, leafy vegetables, fruits, pulses	Maintain the body’s water balance and functioning of the muscles and nervous system.

3.

Vitamins	Source	Function
1. A	Carrot, milk, vegetables	Protects eyes, helps to keep skin, bones and teeth healthy.
2. B1	Milk, fish, cereals	Helps in proper function of nerves and heart.
3. B9	Deep green vegetables, papaya, kiwi	Growth of the body
4. B12	Meat, milk products	Formation of red blood cells
5. C	Amla, citrus fruits, green leafy vegetables	Protects body tissues
6. D	On exposure to sunlight, Vitamin D is made in our body	Formation of collagen – a protein essential for gums, teeth, bones and skin
7. E	Green  leafy vegetables, vegetable oil	Metabolism, reproduction
8. F	Green  leafy vegetables, sprouted pulses, yellow of egg	Helps in clotting of blood

Using the food items given below, prepare a balanced diet pyramid.
[Chapatti, banana, carrot, butter, Nan, egg, bread, cheese, dal, spinach, milk]
Answer:

Can you recall?

Question 1.
Which are the various groups of foodstuff? Which main constituents of food do we get?
Answer :
The various groups of foodstuffs are:

1. Milk and milk products, meat, fish, eggs.
2. Cereals and pulses
3. Vegetables and fruits.
4. Fatty substances oil, butter and ghee.

There are six main nutrients in our food: carbohydrates, fats, proteins, fibres, vitamins and minerals.

Nutrients	Foodstuffs
1. Carbohydrates	Cereals and pulses
2. Protein	Milk product, meat, fish, eggs
3. Fats	Butter, oil, ghee
4. Fibres	fruits and vegetables

Question 2.
What trouble do we have to face if we do not get enough fibre from our daily diet?
Answer:
Fibres help in excretion of food, if we do not get enough fibre we will face indigestion and stomach-ache.

Question 3.
What care must be taken to make sure that fibre is not lost or removed from the food we get?
Answer:
We must not over-cook the foodstuff containing fibres. Fruits should be eaten raw.

Maharashtra Board Class 6 Civics Solutions Chapter 5 District Administration

Class 6 Civics Chapter 5 District Administration Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
Who heads the District Administration?
Answer:
The District Collector heads the District Administration.

Question 2.
What is the responsibility of the Tahsildar?
Answer:
As a judicial officer he gives judgements to resolve conflicts at the local level, he also has the responsibility of maintaining peace and order in Taluka.

Question 3.
Which court is at the apex of the judiciary?
Answer:
The Supreme Court of India is at the apex of the judiciary.

Question 4.
Which disaster can we be forewarned about?
Answer:
We can be forewarned about floods and storms.

2. Match the following:

Question 1.

Group A	Group B
(a) District Collector	(1) Taluka Magistrate
(b) District court	(2) Maintaining law and order
(c) Tahsildar	(3) Resolving disputers
Disaster management	(4) Scientific and organized manner

Answer:
a – 2
b – 3
c – 1
d – 4

3. Discuss the following issues:

Question 1.
Disaster Management
Answer:

(a) Sometimes, we may have to face a calamity. It could be a natural disaster like floods, fire, a cloudburst, cyclone, earthquake, landslide or problems like riots, bomb blasts, breaking of a dam, epidemics, etc.

(b) These disasters lead to loss of human lives and displacement of people beside tremendous financial losses.

(c) Therefore, the issues of rehabilitation becomes important.

(d) Disaster management is a process which enables one to face a disaster in a scientific and organized manner. The entire machinery of a district is involved in the process.

Question 2.
Functions of the District Collector.
Answer:
(a) The District Collector is the head of the district administration.

(b) He has to perform many functions from collecting agricultural tax to maintaining law and order in the district. To ensure smooth conduct of elections and disaster management.

4. Which of the following positions would you like to be in, and why?

Question 1.
District Collector, Chief of the District Police, Judge.
Answer:
I would like to be the chief of the District Police. Joining the Police Department is my childhood dream. I would like to maintain law and order in the society and provide people a sense of security. I have the qualities of patriotism and determination which are vital to join the police service. I will work for my fitness too and serve my country with total commitment.

Activities:

1. Visit the police station nearest to you and obtain information about the work that is done there.
2. Make a chart of the different disasters showing what precautions are to be taken and important phone numbers. Display the chart in your class.
3. Send New Year greetings to the District Collector, Chief of the District Police and the District Judge.

Class 6 Civics Chapter 5 District Administration Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks by choosing the correct option from the brackets:

Question 1.
The _______ is a part of the rural local government system.
(a) District Collector
(b) District Police
(c) Zilla Parishad
Answer:
Zilla Parishad

Question 2.
District Collector is appointed by the _______ government.
(a) Central
(b) State
(c) Union
Answer:
State

Question 3.
The ______ has the responsibility of maintaining peace and order in the taluka.
(a) District Collector
(b) Tahsildar
(c) Police Inspector
Answer:
Tahsildar

Question 4.
The Constitution of India has established an _______ judiciary.
(a) independent
(b) dependent
(c) system
Answer:
independent

Question 5.
______ is the process which enables one to face a disaster in a scientific and organised manner.
(a) Event management
(b) Disaster management
(c) Management
Answer:
Disaster management.

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
Name the lower courts in the Indian judiciary.
Answer:
District courts, Taluka courts, Revenue courts.

Question 2.
What are the effects of disasters?
Answer:
Disasters leads to loss of lives and displacement of people besides tremendous financial losses.

Question 3.
Explain the term: Disaster management.
Answer:
Disaster management is a process which enables one to face a disaster in a scientific and organised manner.

Which of the following positions would you like to be in, and why?

Question 1.
District Collector, Chief of the District Police, Judge.
Answer:
I would like to be the chief of the District Police. Joining the Police Department is my childhood dream. I would like to maintain law and order in the society and provide people a sense of security. I have the qualities of patriotism and determination which are vital to join the police service. I will work for my fitness too and serve my country with total commitment.

Question 2.
Complete the tree diagram and write a short note on the District Court.
Answer:

• The court at the district level is known as the District court.
• The district court has a Chief District Judge and some other judges.
• Their main function is to hear the various cases in the district and deliver the final judgement.
• One can appeal against the judgement of the Taluka Court in the District Court.

Question 3.
Complete the table to enlist different functions of the District Collector.

Answer:
District Collector

Agriculture	Law and Order	Election Officer	Disaster Management
To collect agricultural tax.	Establish peace in the district.	To ensure smooth conduct of elections.	To take quick decisions during time of disaster and prevent or minimise the damage.
To implement laws relating to agriculture.	To maintain social harmony.	To take necessary decisions related to the electoral process.	To give orders to the disaster management units/cells.
To provide relief in case of drought and scarcity of fodder.	To restrict unlawful assembly, impose curfew if required.	To update the voters’ lists	To rehabiliate/those affected by a disaster.

Complete the analogy:

Question 1.
Superintendent of Police : District :: Police Commissioner : ________.
Answer:
City

Question 2.
______ : natural :: Bomb blast : man made calamity
Answer:
Floods

Question 3.
Civil Judge : Civil cases :: Magistrate 2nd grade : ______.
Answer:
Criminal cases

Name the following:

Question 1.
The rural local government system of which the Zilla Parishad is a part:
Answer:
Panchayati Raj system.

Question 2.
It appoints Head of the district administration:
Answer:
State Government.

Question 3.
Any one function of the courts at the district level:
Answer:
Resloving disputes.

Question 4.
The court below the Supreme Court of India:
Answer:
High Court.

State whether the following statements are True or False with reasons:

Question 1.
In Maharashtra the sole responsibility of the administration of the district is on Zilla Parishad:
Answer:
False.
In Maharashtra, the administration of the district is shared by both the Zilla Parishad and District Collector. The Union Goverment and State Government both participate in the administration.

Question 2.
The Court at the district level play an important role in resolving conflicts.
Answer:
True.
The Courts at the district level have to perform the function of resolving disputes, delivering judgements and ensuring that conflicts are resolved at the earliest.
So the courts at the district level play an important role in resolving conflicts.

Question 3.
There is a hierarchy in the Indian Judiciary
Answer:
True.
The Constitution of India has established an independent judiciary. At the apex of the system is the Supreme Court of India. Below this are the High Court, and below them, the lower courts. These include District Courts, Taluka Courts and Revenue Courts.

Maharashtra Board Class 6 Civics Solutions Chapter 4 Urban Local Government Bodies

Class 6 Civics Chapter 4 Urban Local Government Bodies Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Choose the right option and fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
The first city in India to have a Municipal
Corporation is
(a) Delhi
(b) Mumbai
(c) Agra
Answer:
Mumbai

Question 2.
The body that looks after the administration of places that are in the process of becoming cities:
(a) Municipal Council
(b) Municipal Corporation
(c) Nagar Panchayat
Answer:
Municipal Council

Question 3.
The office bearer who supervises the work of the Municipal Council is the
(a) Chief Officer
(b) Executive Officer
(c) Commissioner
Answer:
Executive officer

2. Answer in brief:

Question 1.
What problems do people face in cities?
Answer:
There are several problems in cities: Shortage of housing, insufficient space, traffic congestion, problem of waste disposal, increase in crime and a large proportion of slum population.

Question 2.
Name the various committees of the Municipal Corporation.
Answer:
Education committee, Health committee, Transport committee, Standing committee, Ward committee, Women and Child Welfare committee, etc.

3. Make a chart giving information about the urban local government bodies according to the points given below.

Points	Nagar Panchayat	Municipal Council	Municipal Corporation
(1) Office Bearers and Officers
(2) Number of Members

Answer:

Points	Nagar Panchayat	Municipal Council	Municipal Corporation
(1) Office Bearers and Officers	President and Vice President Chairman Executive officer Councillors	President Vice president Corporators Executive officer	Mayor Deputy Mayor Corporators Municipal Commissioner
(2) Number of Members	10 elected ward members, 3 nominated members	Determined so as to be in proportion to the population of the city	Determined so as to be in proportion to the population of the city

4. Can you tell?

Question 1.
Which are essential functions of the Municipal Council.
Answer:
The essential functions of Municipal Council are:

• Lighting of public streets.
• Providing drinking water.
• Maintaining public hygiene.
• Sewage disposal.
• Registration of birth/death/marriage, etc.

Question 2.
Where does the Nagar Panchayat function?
Answer:
Nagar Panchayat functions in those areas which are neither fully rural nor fully urban.

5. Make different lists of places in your district according to whether they have a Nagar Panchayat, Municipal Council or a Municipal Corporation.

Activities:

• Make your own health awareness slogans to help prevent the spread of infectious diseases, and display them in your classroom.
• Visit the Municipal Corporation nearest to you and find out which new schemes have been taken up.
• Discuss in class what you could do to contribute to them.

Class 6 Civics Chapter 4 Urban Local Government Bodies InText Questions and Answers

What would you do?

Question 1.
When you hand over your household waste to the waste pickers.
Answer:

• I will ensure that I separate organic and inorganic waste.
• I will ensure that if there is anything which can be reused and recycled then it is sent to the recycling centre.
• E-waste if any, will be collected and sent to the e-waste processing centre.

Question 2.
The road is waterlogged as the water pipe has broken.
Answer:

• I will immediately inform the public works department.
• I will ensure that quick steps are taken to avoid the waste of the precious resource.

Question 3.
You notice that unclean, impure water is being used for pani puns.
Answer:

• I will immediately inform the food safety and sanitation department about the same.
• I will ensure that strict action is taken against the vendor.

Question 4.
Many people are throwing plastic bags from the bridge into the river.
Answer:

• I will inform the Municipal Commissioner about the same.
• I will request him to create awamess about the need to take steps to control pollution of water bodies.
• I will also request him to develop environment consciousness amongst the people about the hazards of using plastics and its disposal in water bodies.

Question 5.
The Municipal Councils’ programme to clean the slum areas has been published in the newspaper, but you think that one of the planned actions is improper.
Answer:
I will write a letter to the editor and express my views about the same. I will explain why the action may not have the desired effect and suggest an alternative measure.

Why did the Corporation do it?

Question 1.
The corporation has refused permission for any construction work that would require the cutting down of trees.
Answer:
The corporation wants to ensure that the environment is conserved and preserved and that the environmental balance is not disturbed in the name of progress.

Question 2.
It has implemented many programmes to control the spread of diseases like dengue, swine flu, etc.
Answer:
To take steps towards creating a healthy society and contain the spread of epidemics.

Question 3.
Modernised the Fire Brigade.
Answer:
To be armed with state of art technology in case of emergency caused due to fire.

Question 4.
Inspected the weighing scales in the vegetable market.
Answer:
To ensure that people are not cheated by vendors and that they get the right quantity of vegetables for the money paid.

What did you feel on reading this?

Question 1.
The Metro will soon run in your city.
Answer:
The Urban local government bodies in the city are working towards infrastructural development of the city.

Question 2.
Permission has been given for the construction of a 24 storey building.
Answer:
It is important to take permission from the Municipal authorities before construction of building.

Question 3.
Gardens and Leisure Centres will be established in every ward.
Answer:
The urban local government bodies ensure that proper facilities are provided to the people for rest, recreation and general well being.

Question 4.
Action will be taken against those who use purified water to water the gardens or to wash their cars.
Answer:
The local gemment bodies take steps to ensure that water, a scarce resource, is not wasted.

Question 5.
It has bee made compulsory to dispose of wet garbage within one’s locality.
Answer:
Waste management is given priority by the local government bodies.

Question 6.
Old age homes will be constructed for the benefit of senior citizens.
Answer:
The local government bodies take steps to ensure that all citizens including senior citizens experience safety and security. They want to ensure that the senior citizens lead a life of dignity.

Students Activity:

Question 1.
Find out:
In how many cities of Maharashtra State is the administration carried out through Corporations?
In which year was the Municipal Corporation of your city established?

Question 2.
Try this:
Form an Education Committee for your class. The committee should have an equal number of boys and girls as representatives. They should discuss the following issues and prepare a report.
(a) Facilities in the classroom.
(b) A proposal for setting up a small library for the class.
(c) Oraganising a sports competition.

Question 3.
Do this:
Find out the hospital run by the Municipal Council or Corporation in your area. What facilities are offered to the patients there? What is a person required to do if she/he wants to take treatment there?

Question 4.
Make different lists of places in your district according to whether they have a Nagar Panchayat, Municipal Council or a Municipal Corporation.

Class 6 Civics Chapter 4 Urban Local Government Bodies Additional Important Questions and Answers

Name the following:

Question 1.
The Urban local Government bodies:
Answer:

Nagar Panchayat.
Municipal Council.
The Municipal Corporation.

Question 2.
The Nagar Panchayat elects these members from amongst themselves:
Answer:

President.
Vice-president.

Question 3.
The chairman of all the meetings of Municipal Council:
Answer:
President.

Question 4.
In the absence of the President, he looks after the work of the Municipal Council:
Answer:
Vice-president.

Question 5.
The elected members of Municipal Corporation:
Answer:
Corporators.

Question 6.
Any two committees of the Municipal Corporation:
Answer:
Health committee, Transport committee.

Question 7.
He prepares the annual budget of the Municipal Corporation:
Answer:
The Municipal Commissioner.

State whether the following statements are True or False giving reasons:

Question 1.
There is a Nagar Panchayat in every city.
Answer:
False.
There is a Nagar Panchayat in those areas which are neither fully rural nor fully urban.

Question 2.
Lighting public streets is the discretionary function of the Municipal Council.
Answer:
False.

• There are some functions that are binding on the Council which are known as obligatory functions.
• Lighting public street is one such obligatory function.

Question 3.
The total number of members in a Municipal Corporation is determined so as to be in proportion to those who contest elections
Answer:
False.
The total number of members in a Municipal Corporation is determined so as to be in proportion to the population of the city.

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
Name the sources of revenue of the Municipal Council.
Answer:
Property tax, education tax, water tax, grants from State Government, tax on markets, etc.

Question 2.
All local government bodies have to carry out some essential functions. What, according to you, are the essential functions of a Nagar Panchayat?
Answer:

• Providing essential facilities and other services to the citizens.
• Implementing sanitation programmes.
• Providing infrastructure facilities like roads.
• Providing educational facilities.
• Water supply.
• Ensure that a drainage system is in place.
• Maintain records of births and deaths.

Do you know?

Question 1.
For every Municipal council, there is a Chief Officer. He implements the decisions taken by the Municipal Council. There are several officers who assist him.
Would you like to become such an officer? If you become a Health Officer, what functions would you perform?
Answer:
Yes I would like to become an officer in the Municipal Council.
If I become a Health officer my functions would be:

• Ensure that community health is maintained through health check-ups, Vaccination drives ,etc.
• Take step to control epidemics.
• Create awareness amongst the citizens regarding health and sanitation.
• Supervise the working of the health centre.
• Training of the professionals working towards community health.

Question 2.
Appeal from Municipal Council:
Calling all citizens – to take the following measures to stop breeding of mosquitoes and curb the spread of dengue:

1. Do not stock old tyres, cocount shells, empty cans or boxes on your terrace or around your house.
2. In case of persistent fever go to a doctor without delay.
3. Keep your surroundings clean.

In response to the above, what would you do in your house and in the surroundings?
Answer:
I will ensure that I keep my surroundings clean. If there is any waste water accumulation, I will inform the authorities and request them to take necessary steps. I will pay special attention to waste disposal. I will also put into practice the maxim: ‘Reduce, Reuse, Recycle…. Restore’ for a clean and healthy environment.

Maharashtra Board Class 6 Civics Solutions Chapter 3 Rural Local Government Bodies

Class 6 Civics Chapter 3 Rural Local Government Bodies Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Put a tick (✓) in the right box:

Question 1.
The ______ looks after the local adiministration of the village.
(a) Gram Panchayat
(b) Panchayat Samiti
(c) Zilla Parishad
Answer:
(a) Gram Panchayat

Question 2.
It is binding to hold at least ______ meetings of the Gram Sabha in each financial year.
(a) four
(b) five
(c) six
Answer:
(c) six

Question 3.
At present, there are _______ districts in Maharashtra.
(a) 34
(b) 35
(c) 36
Answer:
(c) 36

2. Make a list of the functions of the Panchayat Samiti.
Answer:

• Building roads, gutters, wells and borewells.
• Organising vaccination drives.
• Providing clean drinking water.
• Maintaining cleanliness of roads and arrange for the disposal of waste.
• Helping the farmers improve agriculture and livestock.
• Provide primary education.
• Promote handicrafts and cottage industries.
• Provide financial aid to the weaker sections

3. What is your opinion?

Question 1.
The Gram Panchayat levies various taxes.
Answer:

• The Gram Panchayat looks after the administration of the village.
• It carries out the functions relating to water supply, electricity, registration of births, deaths and marriages.
• To carry out these functions money is required and taxes are one of the sources of income of Gram Panchayat.

Question 2.
The number of Zilla Parishads is less than the total number of districts in Maharashtra.
Answer:

• Every district has a Zilla Parishad. At present, the state of Maharashtra has 36 districts but only 34 Zilla Parishads.
• The reason is that Mumbai city district and Mumbai Suburban District do not have a rural population.
• Therefore, they do not have Zilla Parishads.

4. Complete the Table:

My Taluka, My Panchayat Samiti :
Name of the Taluka: ______.
The name of the chairman of the Panchayat Samiti: ____.
The name of the Deputy Chairman of the Panchayat Samiti: _____.
The name of the Block Development Officer: ______.
The name of the Block Education Officer: _______.

5. Write a brief note on:

Question 1.
The Sarpanch:
Answer:

• The elections to a Gram Panchayat are held every five years.
• The elected members elect a Sarpanch and Deputy Sarpanch from amongst themselves.
• The meetings of the Gram Panchayat are held under the chairmanship of the Sarpanch.
• It is his responibility to implement the development schemes of the village.
• The members of the Gram Panchayat can bring a motion of no confidence against Sarpanch who is not carrying out his responsibilities properly.
• In the absence of the Sarpanch, the Deputy Sarpanch looks after the work of a Gram Panchayat.

Question 2.
The Chief Executive Officer:
Answer:

• The decisions taken by the Zilla Parishad are implemented by the Chief Executive Officer of the Zilla Parishad.
• He is appointed by the State Government.

Project:

• Organize a mock Gram Sabha and enact the roles of the Sarpanch, members of the Gram Panchayat,voters, Gram Sevak.
• Make a chart depicting the possible structure of a Balsansad and display it in the class.
• Obtain information about the schemes run by the Zilla Parishad in your area or near your city.

Class 6 Civics Chapter 3 Rural Local Government Bodies Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks by appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
If the population of a village is less than ______ then two or more such villages come under one Gram Panchayat, this is then called a ‘Group Gram Panchayat’.
(a) 750
(b) 500
(c) 600
Answer:
500

Question 2.
The state of Maharashtra has _____ Zilla Parishads.
(a) 34
(b) 35
(c) 36
Answer:
(a) 34

Question 3.
Elections of the Zilla Parishad are held every _______ years.
(a) six
(b) five
(c) three
Answer:
(b) five

Question 4.
The chief executive officer of the Zilla Parishad is appointed by the ______.
(a) State Government
(b) Central Government
(c) Elected member of Zilla Parishad from among themselves
Answer:
(a) State Government

Name the following:

Question 1.
The local government bodies at the rural level :
Answer:

1. The Gram Panchayat.
2. The Panchayat Samiti.
3. The Zilla Parishad.

Question 2.
He implements the development schemes of the village :
Answer:
Sarpanch.

Question 3.
In the absence of the Sarpanch the office bearer who looks after the work of the Gram Panchayat :
Answer:
Deputy Sarpanch.

Question 4.
The secretary of the Gram Panchayat :
Answer:
The Gram Sevak.

Question 5.
The assembly of all the voters of the village or rural area :
Answer:
Gram Sabha.

Question 6.
Minimum number of meetings which must be held in each financial year:
Answer:
Six.

Question 7.
Any two issues raised by women before the meeting of the Gram Sabha :
Answer:

1. Employment
2. Health

Question 8.
Any two sources of the revenue of the Gram Panchayat :
Answer:

1. Water tax
2. Pilgrimage tax

Question 9.
The link between the Zilla Parishad and Gram panchayat:
Answer:
Panchayat Samiti.

Question 10.
The office bearer who has the responsibility of calling the meetings and conducting business of the meetings of the Panchayat Samiti:
Answer:
The chairman.

Question 11.
Any two sources of income of the Panchayat Samiti :
Answer:

1. Money from district fund.
2. Grants from the State Government.

Question 12.
Local self government at the district level :
Answer:
Zilla Parishad.

Question 13.
He implements the decisions taken by the Zilla Parishad :
Answer:
Chief excutive officer.

Make a list of the functions of the:

Question 1.
Gram Panchayat.
Answer:

1. The Gram Panchayat looks after the administration of the village.
2. The Gram Panchayat carries out the functions relating to water supply, electricity, registration of births, deaths and marriages.

Question 2.
Gram Sevak.
Answer:

1. Looks after the day-to-day functioning of the Gram Panchayat.
2. Explains its development scheme to the residents of the village.

Question 4.
Zilla Parishad provides the following facilities.
Answer:
Education facilities, health facilities, water supply facilities, making provision of seeds, supply of electricity, tree plantation drives in the village.

Question 5.
President of the Zilla Parishad
Answer:

1. He presides over the meetings of the Zilla Parishad.
2. He exercise control over business conducted during the meetings.
3. He control the financial transactions of the Zilla Parishad.

What is your opinion?

Question 1.
Local self government bodies at the rural level have an important role to play.
Answer:

1. Local self government bodies play an important role in providing good governance to the rural areas.
2. People too get an opportunity to take part in the decision making.
3. It is also a training ground for democracy.

What would you do?

Where would you tell Dinesh and Naina to go for the following things?

Question 1.
To get their younger sibling vaccinated :
Answer:
Primary Health centre.

Question 2.
To accompany their father to get the 7/12 extract:
Answer:
Reveue department.

Question 3.
To learn about the use of a new manure :
Answer:
Agriculture department.

Question 4.
To complain against contaminated water supply :
Answer:
Sanitation department.

Question 5.
To get a birth certificate :
Answer:
Health Department.

Question 6.
To get the income / caste certificate :
Answer:
Revenue Department.

Write a brief note on:

Question 1.
Women’s participation in the Gram Sabha:
Answer:
A meeting of the women of a village is held before the meeting of the Gram Sabha. Here, women feel free to discuss a variety of issues. During the Gram Sabha, they speak with greater concern about issues such as drinking water, prohibition, employment, fuel, health etc. They also suggest measures for bringing about necessary changes.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 History Solutions Chapter 11 Ancient India and the World Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra Board Class 6 History Solutions Chapter 11 Ancient India and the World

Class 6 History Chapter 11 Ancient India and the World Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Name the following:

Question 1.
Places where articles made in Rome were found.
Answer:
Kolhapur and Arikamedu in Tamil Nadu.

Question 2.
A new style of art emerged during the Kushana period in India.
Answer:
Gandhara style of art.

Question 3.
The language of the books Mahavansa and Deepvansa.
Answer:
Pali language.

Question 4.
A country to which Buddhism had spread in the ancient period.
Answer:
Sri Lanka.

2. Think and expand/elaborate:

Question 1.
Indian culture had an impact on southeast Asia.
Answer:

• Indian culture had a deep impact on the art and cultural life of southeast Asia.
• Dance-dramas based on stories from Ramayana and Mahabharata are popular in Indonesia even today.
• In later years, temples of Lord Shiva and Vishnu were also built there.

Question 2.
The spread of Buddhism in China became easier.
Answer:

• In the first century CE, the Ming emperor of China invited the Buddhist bhikkhus Dharmarakshaka and Kashyapmatanga to China.
• The Bhikkhus translated many Indian Buddhist texts into Chinese language.
• This made the spread of Buddhism in China easier.

3. What would you do if you are encouraged in your favourite hobby ?
Answer:
If someone encouraged me, it will make me very happy and boost my self-confidence. Thus I will further expand my horizon by gaining more knowledge and enhancing my hobby.

4. Describe a picture:

A picture of the Gandhara style sculpture on a stupa in Hadda, Afghanistan is given in this chapter. Observe it and write about it.

5. Find out more about:

Question 1.
The Gandhara style of art.
Answer:
Under the influence of the Greek art of sculpture, a new form of art emerged in India during the Kushana period. It is called Gandhara school of art. In the Gandhara, art school images of Gautam Buddha were mainly carved in Gandhara.

Question 2.
The Silk Route.
Answer:
Chinese silk was in great demand in India. Merchants in ancient India supplied Chinese silk to western countries. The land route by which the silk trade was carried on was called the silk route. Some ancient places in India were connected to this route. The Chinese Buddhist Bhikkhus also came to India through this silk route.

6. Mark the countries of Southeast Asia mentioned in the chapter on an outline map.

Activity:

Obtain information about a form of art of your choice and present it in your class.

Class 6 History Chapter 11 Ancient India and the World Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the correct option:

Question 1.
People of the Harappan civilisation had developed trade relations with the countries of the ______.
(a) north
(b) west
(c) south
Answer:
(b) west

Question 2.
________ had spread to Afghanistan and to many countries of Central Asia.
(a) Zoroastrianism
(b) Jainism
(c) Buddhism
Answer:
(c) Buddhism

Question 3.
The writings of the Greek historians introduced India to the ______ world.
(a) western
(b) eastern
(c) central
Answer:
(a) western

Question 4.
Under the influence of the Greek art of sculpture, a new form of art emerged in India during the ____ period.
(a) Gupta
(b) Kushana
(c) Vakataka
Answer:
(b) Kushana

Question 5.
In the Gandhara art school images of _______ were mainly carved.
(a) Gautam Buddha
(b) Vardhaman Mahavir
(c) Guru Nanak
Answer:
(a) Gautam Buddha

Question 6.
The early coins that were minted in India were also like _________ coins.
(a) Sri lanka
(b) Chinese
(c) Greek
Answer:
(c) Greek

Question 7.
The excavations at Arikamedu in Tamil Nadu have also brought to light many articles made in ______.
(a) Afghanistan
(b) Rome
(c) China
Answer:
(b) Rome

Question 8.
______was an important port in Egypt.
(a) Funan
(b) Kolhapur
(c) Alexandria
Answer:
(c) Alexandria

Question 9.
Beside Indian goods, the _______ also conveyed Indian philosophy and science to Europe.
(a) Chinese
(b) Arabs
(c) Greeks
Answer:
(b) Arabs

Question 10.
The concept of ‘__________ ‘ is one of India’s major contributions to the world.
(a) zero
(b) one
(c) mathematics
Answer:
(a) zero

Question 11.
Sanghamitra carried a branch of the _________ tree to Sri Lanka.
(a) Banyan
(b) Bodhi
(c) Pipal
Answer:
(b) Bodhi

Question 12.
There was a great demand in India for Sri Lankan _________ and other precious stones.
(a) diamonds
(b) rubies
(c) pearls
Answer:
(c) pearls

Question 13.
The wall paintings in Sigiriya caves bear a resemblance to the paintings in the _______ caves.
(a) Ellora
(b) Ajanta
(c) Nashik
Answer:
(b) Ajanta

Question 14.
Right from the ancient times, India and __________ had established trade and cultural relations.
(a) China
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Rome
Answer:
(a) China

Question 15.
Emperor Harshavardhan had even sent an ambassador to the _______ court.
(a) Greek
(c) Roman
(c) Chinese
Answer:
(c) Chinese

Question 16.
Chinese _______ was known as .’Chinanshuka’ and was in great demand in India.
(a) pearls
(b) diamond
(c) silk
Answer:
(c) silk

Question 17.
Merchants in ancient India supplied Chinese silk to _______ countries.
(a) eastern
(b) western
(c) northern
Answer:
(b) western

Question 18.
The land route by which the silk trade was carried on, was called the ________.
(a) Silk Route
(b) Trade Route
(c) Horse Route
Answer:
(a) Silk Route

Question 19.
The Chinese Buddhist bhikkhus Fa-hien and Yuan Chwang also came to ______ through this silk route.
(a) Nepal
(b) Rome
(c) India
Answer:
(c) India

Question 20.
The bhikkhus translated many Buddhist texts into the _____ language.
(a) Chinese
(b) Japanese
(c) Prakrit
Answer:
(a) Chinese

Question 21.
People of Funan knew ______ language.
(a) Marathi
(b) Chinese
(c) Sanskrit
Answer:
(c) Sanskrit

Question 22.
Indian culture had a deep impact on the art and cultural life of ________ Asia.
(a) Southeast
(b) Southwest
(c) Northeast
Answer:
(a) Southeast

Question 23.
Dance-dramas based on stories from the two Indian epics are popular in ______ even today.
(a) China
(b) Indonesia
(c) Japan
Answer:
(b) Indonesia

Question 24.
In the later years, ______ of Lord Shiva and Vishnu were also built.
(a) caves
(b) muttas
(c) temples
Answer:
(c) temples

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
What has India exchanged with the outside world?
Answer:
Having developed trade relations, India began economic and cultural exchange with the outside world.

Question 2.
Who introduced India to the western world?
Answer:
The writings of the Greek historians introduced India to the western world.

Question 3.
Besides Indian goods, what did the Arabs convey to Europe?
Answer:
Besides Indian goods, the Arabs also conveyed Indian philosophy and science to Europe.

Question 4.
Who were sent to Sri Lanka to spread Buddhism?
Answer:
King Ashoka sent his son Mahendra and daughter Sanghamitra to Sri Lanka to spread Buddhism.

Question 5.
Who introduced the Bodhi tree to Sri Lanka?
Answer:
Sanghamitra carried a branch of the Bodhi tree to Sri Lanka.

Question 6.
What is similar between the caves at Ajanta and Sigiriya?
Answer:
The wall paintings at Sigiriya bear resemblance to the paintings in the Ajanta caves.

Question 7.
What provides information about the dose relations between India and Sri Lanka?
Answer:
The Sri Lankan Buddhist works ‘Dipavamsa’ and ‘Mahavamsa’ provide information about the close relations between India and Sri Lanka.

Question 8.
Who sent an ambassador to the Chinese court?
Answer:
Emperor Harshavardhan sent an ambassador to the Chinese court.

Question 9.
What gave an impetus to the spread of Buddhism in China?
Answer:
The Bhikkhus translated many Indian Buddhist texts into Chinese Language. This gave an impetus to spread of Buddhism in China.

Question 10.
In the later years, which temples were built in South-Asian countries?
Answer:
the later years, temples of Lord Shiva and Vishnu were built in south-asian countries.

Elaborate:

Question 1.
Alexandria was an important port in Egypt?
Answer:
The Arab merchants carried Indian goods up to Alexandria. From there, they were sent to the countries in Europe. Besides Indian goods, the Arabs also conveyed Indian philosophy and science to Europe. The concept of ‘zero’ is one of India’s major contribution’ to the world . It was the Arabs who introduced this Indian concept to Europe.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 History Solutions Chapter 10 Ancient India: Cultural Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra Board Class 6 History Solutions Chapter 10 Ancient India: Cultural

Class 6 History Chapter 10 Ancient India: Cultural Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
Make a list of ancient Indian universities.
Answer:
The ancient Indian universities are Takshashila, Vamasi, Valabhi, Nalanda, Vikramshila and Kanchi.

Question 2.
Make a list of the Indian goods that were in demand in foreign countries.
Answer:
Indian goods like fine textiles, ivory, precious stones, spices, beautifully made earthen ; pottery were in great demand in foreign countries.

2. Name the following:

Question 1.
Epics and poetic composition of ancient India.
Answer:
Epics Silappadhikaram and Manimekhalai and Arsha epics Ramayana and Mahabharata and Paumchariya a poetic work are composition of ancient India.

3. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
The epic Ramayana was composed by rishi
(a) Vyas
(b) Valmiki
(c) Munni
Answer:
(b) Valmiki

Question 2.
The science of Indian medicine is called
(a) Ayurveda
(b) Homeopathy
(c) Alopathy
Answer:
(a) Ayurveda

Question 3.
Thousands of students could live at the University.
(a) Kanchi
(b) Takshashila
(c) Nalanda
Answer:
(c) Nalanda

4. Answer in brief:

Question 1.
Explain what is meant by ‘Tipitaka’.
Answer:
Tipitaka is a Buddhist religious text written in Pali. It contains three categories of texts.

• Sutta Pitaka
• Vinay Pitaka
• Abhidhamma Pitaka

Question 2.
What is the message of the Bhagwad Gita?
Answer:

• The Bhagwad Gita tells us that each one of us should do our duty without expecting rewards.
• It also says that the path of devotion to God is open to all.

Question 3.
What aspects does Ayurveda take into account?
Answer:
Ayurveda is a very old traditional Indian medical science. Ayurveda not only seeks to understand the symptoms, diagnosis and treatment of an illness but also takes into account the prevention of the illness.

Question 4.
What is meant by Sangham Literature?
Answer:
Sangham means a gathering of learned men. The literature that is compiled in such gathering is known as Sangham literature.

5. Discuss:

Question 1.
Art and architecture of the Mauryan and Gupta period.
Answer:

• Indian architecture reached its peak during the Mauryan and the Gupta periods.
• The stone pillar erected by Emperor Ashoka at various places are excellent examples of Indian sculpture.
• The stupa at Sanchi and cave sculptures at Karla, Nashik, Ajanta, Ellora, etc. show that the same tradition advanced even further.

6. What would you do ?

Question 1.
How would you obtain information about Ayurvedic medicine and use it in your day to day life?
Answer:
I will try to get information about Ayurveda from different literature that is available either in bookstores or on internet. I will try to deal with minor ailments like cough, cold, acidity, aches and pains in day to day life through ayurvedic stores. I will try to improve my health in order to prevent ailments by taking ayurvedic medicines to improve my immunity.

Question 2.
On a trip to a historical site, your friend in writes his name on the structure.
Answer:
When on a trip to a historical site, I see my friend write his name on the structure, I will gently tell him the importance of historical monuments and also how the ancient Indians must have built it with lots of effort, without modern technology and equipment. Thus invoking respect for the ancient fellow Indians is my friend. Also telling him how proud we Indians should be of their art and talents.

7. Observe the picture of the stupa at Sanchi and obtain more information about it.

Answer:
Sanchi is an outstanding specimen of Buddhist art and architecture. The Sanchi stupa is one of the best preserved early stupa in central India. The Sanchi stupa is surrounded by a railing with four carved gateways facing in all four directions. An interesting characteristic about Sanchi stupa is that Lord Buddha has been symbolically represented by footsteps, wheels, thrones, etc. rather than by his own image. The Sanchi stupa is one of the most wonderful structures of ancient India.

Activity:

• Obtain information from the elders in your family, about some special buildings in your neighbourhood.
• Visit some historical buildings, memorials in your neighbourhood and write a note about the history you learn from the visits there.

Class 6 History Chapter 10 Ancient India: Cultural Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the correct option:

Question 1.
______ means a gathering of learned men.
(a) Pitaka
(b) Sangham
(c) Shreni
Answer:
(b) Sangham

Question 2.
The Agamgranthas are a collection of the teachings of ________.
(a) Guru Nanak
(b) Gautam Buddha
(c) Vardhaman Mahavir
Answer:
(c) Vardhaman Mahavir

Question 3.
Vimalsuri has told the story of ____ in Paumchariya a poetic work in Prakrit.
(a) Rama
(b) Harishchandra
(c) Buddha
Answer:
(a) Rama

Question 4.
Tipitaka is written in ______.
(a) English
(b) Pali
(c) Hindi
Answer:
(b) Pali

Question 5.
_______ women composed gathas about their own experience.
(a) Illiterate
(b) Housewives
(c) Learned
Answer:
(c) Learned

Question 6.
The Bhagwad Gita, which is a sacred text of the Hindu, is a part of the ______.
(a) Ramayana
(b) Arthashastras
(c) Mahabharata
Answer:
(c) Mahabharata

Question 7.
Adi Shankaracharya lived during the ______ century CE.
(a) seventh
(b) eighth
(c) ninth
Answer:
(b) eighth

Question 8.
Kautilya wrote the ______.
(a) Arthashastra
(b) Raghuvansha
(c) Brahmasutras
Answer:
(a) Arthashastra

Question 9.
Patanjali wrote _______.
(a) Kumarsambhava
(b) Upanishads
(c) Mahabhashya
Answer:
(c) Mahabhashya

Question 10.
‘Ramayana’ and ‘Mahabharata’ are the two _______ epics of ancient India.
(a) Arsha
(b) Modern
(c) Classical
Answer:
(a) Arsha

Question 11.
Arsha means _______ by rishis or sages.
(a) sung
(b) reported
(c) composed
Answer:
(c) composed

Question 12.
The main character of Ramayana is ________.
(a) Shri Ram
(b) rishis
(c) Kautilya
Answer:
(a) Shri Ram

Question 12.
Mahabharata has been composed by the sage ______.
(a) Kautilya
(b) Vyas
(c) Adi
Answer:
(b) Vyas

Question 14.
India has an ancient tradition of telling a ____ through songs, music and dance.
(a) story
(b) moral
(c) fairytale
Answer:
(a) story

Question 15.
_______ composed by Pandit Vishnusharma is an excellent example of narrative literature.
(a) Champak
(b) Chandamama
(c) Panchatantra
Answer:
(c) Panchatantra

Question 16.
________ was carried out by sea as well as land routes.
(a) Trade
(b) Travel
(c) Study
Answer:
(a) Trade

Question 17.
The concept of stitching clothes was introduced in India during the ______ period.
(a) Vakataka
(b) Kushana
(c) Satavahana
Answer:
(b) Kushana

Question 18.
Jeevaka was a well known ______ at the court of king Bimbisara.
(a) clown
(b) minister
(c) vaidya
Answer:
(c) vaidya

Question 19.
_______ were the first to use the numerals 1 to 9 and zero.
(a) Chinese
(b) Nepalese
(c) Indians
Answer:
(c) Indians

Question 20.
The scientist Aryabhatta wrote the book Aryabhatiya which included many formulae for ______ operations.
(a) mathematical
(b) scientific
(c) medical
Answer:
(a) mathematical

Question 21.
Aryabhatta was also an ________.
a) scientist
(b) astronomer
(c) astrologer
Answer:
(b) astronomer

Question 22.
________ was an important city on the ancient indian trade route.
(a) Nalanda
(b) Vikramshila
(c) Takshashila
Answer:
(c) Takshashila

Question 23.
Emperor Harshavardhan made generous donations to ________University.
(a) Nalanda
(b) Vikramshila
(c) Takshashila
Answer:
(a) Nalanda

Question 24.
Vikramshila University was established by king _______ in the eighth century CE.
(a) Harshavardhan
(b) Dharmapal
(c) Ashoka
Answer:
(b) Dharmapal

Question 25.
During the Pallava dynasty, ________ in Tamil Nadu emerged as an important centre of education.
(a) Nalanda
(b) Valabhi
(c) Kanchi
Answer:
(c) Kanchi

Question 26.
The stone pillars erected by Emperor Ashoka at various places are excellent examples of Indian ________.
(a) sculpture
(b) drawing
(c) photography
Answer:
(a) sculpture

Question 27.
_______ architecture developed during the in South India.
(a) Pillar
(b) Temple
(c) Statue
Answer:
(b) Temple

Question 28.
The art of making ______ images of deities emerged during the period of the Pallavas.
(a) copper
(c) gold
(c) bronze
Answer:
(c) bronze

Question 29.
The ______ pillar at Mehrauli near Delhi is evidence of the advanced knowledge of metallurgy of the ancient Indians.
(a) iron
(b) gold
(c) bronze
Answer:
(a) iron

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
In which languages was the ancient Indian literature written?
Answer:
Ancient Indian literature was written in Sanskrit, Ardhamagadhi, Pali and Tamil languages.

Question 2.
What variety was included in the ancient Indian literature?
Answer:
Ancient Indian literature included varieties like religious literature, treatises on grammar, epics, plays, stories, etc.

Question 3.
What does ‘Sangham’ mean?
Answer:
Sangham means a gathering of learned men.

Question 4.
Name two prominent Sangham epics.
Answer:
The two prominent epics are ‘Silappadhikarm’ and Manimekhalai’.

Question 5.
What do we learn from the Sangham literature?
Answer:
From the Sangham literature we learn about the political and social life in south India during the period.

Question 6.
Name the three important religious texts.
Answer:
The important religious texts are Agamgranth, Tipitaka and Bhagwad Gita.

Question 7.
In which languages are the Jain Agamgranth written?
Answer:
The Jain Agamgranthas are written in the Prakrit languages of Ardhamagadhi, Shaurseni and Maharashtri.

Question 8.
What does Agamgranthas contain?
Answer:
Agamgranthas are a collection of the teachings of Vardhaman Mahavir.

Question 9.
Give the literary work of Haribhadrasuri.
Answer:
Haribhadrasuri’s literary work Samaraichchakaha is well known.

Question 10.
What does Sutta Pitaka contain?
Answer:
Sutta Pitaka includes texts of Gautam Buddha’s teachings or sermons.

Question 11.
What instructions are given in Vinay Pitaka?
Answer:
The Vinay Pitaka gives the rules of behaviour which bhikkhus and bhikkhunis in the Bauddha Sangha should follow in their day- to-day lives.

Question 12.
Which is the sacred text of the Hindus?
Answer:
The Bhagvad Gita is the sacred text of the Hindus.

Question 13.
Who wrote the Arthashastra?
Answer:
Kautilya wrote the Arthashastra.

Question 14.
What is Ashtadhyayi?
Answer:
Ashtadhyayi is a treatise in grammar written by the grammarian Panini.

Question 15.
Name the two Arsha of ancient India.
Answer:
Ramayana and Mahabharata are the two ‘Arsha’ epics of ancient India.

Question 16.
What does ‘Arsha’ mean?
Answer:
Arsha means composed by rishis or sages.

Question 17.
Who wrote the Ramayana?
Answer:
Rishi Valmiki composed the Ramayana.

Question 18.
Who wrote the Mahabharata?
Answer:
The Mahabharata has been composed by sage Vyas.

Question 19.
Which literature is an excellent example of narrative literature?
Answer:
Panchatantra composed by Pandit Vishnusharma is an excellent example of narrative literature.

Question 20.
What are shrenis?
Answer:
Organisations of traders and artisans are called shrenis.

Question 21.
When was the concept of stitching clothes introduced in India?
Answer:
The concept of stitching clothes was introduced in India during the Kushana period.

Question 22.
What does Charaka Samhita contain?
Answer:
The Charaka Samhita contains detailed information about clinical diagnosis and pharmacy.

Question 23.
Explain the concept of decimal system.
Answer:
Indians invented the concept of decimal system in which the value of a digit changes according to its place ekam, daham, (units, terms, etc).

Question 24.
Name some of the students who attended the Takshashila University.
Answer:
A famous vaidya, Jeevaka, Chandragupta Maurya, the grammarian Panini and vaidya Charaka are some of the students of the Takshashila University.

Question 25.
Which Chinese scholar visited the Takshashila University?
Answer:
The famous Chinese Bauddha bhikkhu, Fa-hien visited the Takshashila University.

Question 26.
Name the Chinese Bhikkhus that visited Valabhi.
Answer:
Yuan Chwang and Itsing, the Chinese Bauddha Bhikkhus visited Valabhi.

Question 27.
Which emperor made generous donation to Nalanda University?
Answer:
Emperor Harshavardhan made generous donation to Nalanda University.

Question 28.
How could one get admission at the Nalanda University?
Answer:
Students seeking admission to the university had to appear for an examination at the entrance gate.

Question 29.
Who established the Vikramshila University?
Answer:
Vikramshila University was established by a king named Dharmapal in the eighth century

Question 30.
When did Kanchi emerge as an important centre of education?
Answer:
During the reign of the Pallava dynasty, Kanchi in Tamil Nadu emerged as an important centre of education.

Question 31.
How do we know that Indian sculpture was excellent?
Answer:
The stone pillars erected by Emperor Ashoka at various places are excellent examples of Indian sculptures.

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
What is a classical period in history?
Answer:
Sometimes there is such a period in the history of language, literature and art and that its glory remains undiminished even later on such a period is said to be classical.

Question 2.
Explain ‘Theatre’.
Answer:
India has an ancient tradition of telling a story through songs, music and dance. When these arts are presented with supporting dialogues they are known as ‘theatre’.

Question 3.
Give the importance of surgeon Sushruta’s treatise.
Answer:

(a) The famous surgeon Sushruta has discussed the diagnosis of different ailments and their remedies in his treatiste the ‘Sushruta Samhita’.

(b) The importance of this text is that it discusses the different causes leading to injuries, fractures, their types and the various types of surgeries required for them.

Answer the following:

Question 1.
Takshashila University
Answer:
(a) Takshashila was an important city on the ancient Indian trade route.

(b) Gautama Buddha and a famous vaidya, had studied at Takshashila University.

(c) Chandragupta Maurya the founder of the Mauryan Empire was educated at this university.

(d) The Greek historians who accompanied Alexander have also given a description of if the university. They have stated that such a university did not exist anywhere in Greece.

(e) The famous Chinese Bauddha bhikkhu, Fa- Hien who came to India around 400 CE also visited the Takshashila University. The university provided education in various subjects such as Vedic literature, Buddhist philiosophy, economics, logic, etc.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 History Solutions Chapter 9 Ancient Kingdoms of the South Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra Board Class 6 History Solutions Chapter 9 Ancient Kingdoms of the South

Class 6 History Chapter 9 Ancient Kingdoms of the South Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Can you tell ?

Question 1.
Whose name did the Satavahana kings write before their own?
Answer:
Jhe Satavahana kings were known to follow the custom of writing their mother’s name before their own.

Question 2.
The ancient name of Kolhapur.
Answer:
The ancient name of Kolhapur was ‘Kuntal’.

2. Complete the table by reading the map in the lesson:

Pallava	Kanchi
	Aihole, Badami, Pattdakal
Satavahana

Answer:

Pallava	Kanchi
Chalukya	Aihole, Badami, Pattdakal
Satavahana	Ajanta, Ellora, Nashik, Bhokardan

3. Tabulate the following names as dynasties and their capitals:
Satavahana, Pandya, Chalukya,Vakataka, Pallava, Madurai, Pratishthan, Kanchipuram, Vatapi
Answer:

Dynasty                                                                     Capital
Satavahana	Pratishthan
Chalukya	Vatapi
Vakataka	Vatsagulm
Pallava	Kanchipuram
Pandya	Madurai

4. Observe any three picture in the lesson and write in your own words what you learn from them:
Answer:
The Kailas Temple:

The Kailas temple at Ellora in Maharashtra was carved out during the reign of Krishna Raja I. This temple is the largest rock-cut monolithic ancient Hindu temple. This temple gets its name Kailas as it symbolizes mount Kailas, the home of Lord Shiva.

A Satavahana coin:

Indian trade was at its zenith during the Satavahana period. Indian goods were exported to western countries and even as far as Rome. Trade took place by sea and this fact is known through coins which have the image of a ship carved on it.

The Ratha or chariot temples:

The rathas or shrines shaped as temple chariot are hewn from the granite rock. They are a perfect example of monilithic rock-cut architecture of the Pallava dynasty. These group monuments at Mahabalipuram has been classified as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

5. Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
Name the ancient dynasties of Southern India.
Answer:
The Cher, Pandya and Chola dynasty were the ancient dynasties of Southern India.

Question 2.
After the decline of the Mauryan Empire which local kings became independent?
Answer:
After the decline of the Mauryan Empire, the local kings in Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka became independent.

6. Anwer in brief:

Question 1.
Write about the achievements of Mahendra Varman.
Answer:

• Mahendra Varman was an able Pallava ruler.
• He expanded the Pallava kingdom.
• He was also a playwright.

Question 2.
What is meant by Tri-samudra-toya-peet- vahnah?
Answer:
Tri-samudra-toya-peet-vahnah means ‘one whose houses have drunk the water of three seas’. It simply means to describe the one whose kingdom is so vast that it extends to the three seas, i.e. Arabian sea, the Bay of Bengal and the Indian Ocean.

Question 3.
What goods were exported from the Muziris port?
Answer:
Goods like spices, pearls, precious stones were exported from the Muziris port.

Activity:

Make a collection of the pictures in the chapter and display them in the school exhibition

Class 6 History Chapter 9 Ancient Kingdoms of the South Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the correct option:

Question 1.
Muziris is mentioned as an important port on the coast of _______.
(a) Kerala
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Chennai
Answer:
(a) Kerala

Question 2.
Muziris port was in the ______ Kingdom and was a major centre for export.
(a) Chola
(b) Pandya
(c) Cher
Answer:
(c) Cher

Question 3.
The Pandya kingdom was a part of today’s ______.
(a) Karnataka
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Maharashtra
Answer:
(b) Tamil Nadu

Question 4.
The capital of the Pandya kingdom was ______.
(a) Kodaikanal
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Madurai
Answer:
(c) Madurai

Question 5.
After the decline of the Mauryan Empire, the local kings in Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh Karnataka also became _____.
(a) independent
(b) dependent
(c) republic
Answer:
(a) independent

Question 6.
Pratishthan or the present day Paithan in ______ was the capital of Satvahana Dynasty.
(a) Delhi
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Andhra Pradesh
Answer:
(b) Maharashtra

Question 7.
King Simuk was the founder of the _______ dynasty.
(a) Satavahana
(b) Vakataka
(c) Chalukya
Answer:
(a) Satavahana

Question 8.
The inscription in the _______ caves near Junnar in Pune district bear the names of the important persons of this dynasty.
(a) Kanheri
(b) Kolhapur
(c) Naneghat
Answer:
(c) Naneghat

Question 9.
Of the ________ Kings, Gautamiputra Satakarni is particularly well known.
(a) Chalukya
(b) Satavahana
(c) Vakataka
Answer:
(a) Chalukya

Question 10.
Satakarni defeated the _________ king Nahpana.
(a) Shaka
(b) Cher
(c) Paithan
Answer:
(a) Shaka

Question 11.
The famous poetic work Gatha-Saptashati in Maharashtri, was ________ by the Satavahana king Hala.
(a) composed
(b) edited
(c) sung
Answer:
(a) composed

Question 12.
Indian trade ________ greatly during the Satavahana period.
(a) decreased
(b) increased
(c) receded
Answer:
(b) increased

Question 13.
Paithan, Ter, Bhokardan, Kolhapur were recognised as important centres of ________.
(a) music
(b) culture
(c) trade
Answer:
(c) trade

Question 14.
Indian goods were exported as far away as ________.
(a) America
(b) Rome
(c) Sri Lanka
Answer:
(b) Rome

Question 15.
The cave sculptures at Ajanta, Nashik, Karla, Bhaje, Kanheri, Junnar in Maharashtra were carved during the ______ period.
(a) Satavahana
(b) Vakataka
(c) Cher
Answer:
(a) Satavahana

Question 16.
The power of the Satavahanas began to _______ by the third century CE.
(a) strengthen
(b) weaken
(c) flourish
Answer:
(b) weaken

Question 17.
Among the dynasties that emerged after the Satavahana period was the Vakataka, a _______ dynasty.
(a) powerful
(b) varied
(c) dynamic
Answer:
(a) powerful

Question 18.
The Vakataka dynasty was founded by _____.
(a) King Pravarsen
(b) King Pulakeshi
(c) King Vindhyashakti
Answer:
(c) King Vindhyashakti

Question 19.
King Vindhyashakti was ______ by Pravarsen I.
(a) succeeded
(b) finalised
(c) demoralised
Answer:
(a) succeeded

Question 20.
Chandragupta II had married his daughter Prabhavati to _________, the Vakataka king.
(a) Dantidurg
(b) Setubandh
(c) Rudrasen II
Answer:
(c) Rudrasen II

Question 21.
Varahdev, a minister of the Vakataka king Harishen, was a follower of _______.
(a) Judaism
(b) Buddhism
(c) Elinduism
Answer:
(b) Buddhism

Question 22.
Kalidasa’s ______ also belongs to the Vakataka period.
(a) Meghadoot
(b) Setubandh
(c) Saptashati
Answer:
(a) Meghadoot

Question 23.
The Chalukya dynasty in _____ was a powerful one.
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) Karnataka
(c) Nepal
Answer:
(b) Karnataka

Question 24.
Pulakeshi I established the rule of the Chalukya Ancient Kingdoms of the South dynasty in the _______ century CE.
(a) fourth
(b) fifth
(c) sixth
Answer:
(c) sixth

Question 25.
The famous temples at Badami, Aihole and Pattadakal were built during the _______ period,
(a) Vakataka
(b) Satavahana
(c) Chalukya
Answer:
(c) Chalukya

Question 26.
The Pallavas were also powerful dynasty in ______ India.
(a) South
(b) North
(c) East
Answer:
(a) South

Question 27.
_______ in Tamil Nadu was the capital of the Pallava dynasty.
(a) Mahabalipuram
(b) Kanchipuram
(c) Ellora
Answer:
(b) Kanchipuram

Question 28.
Mahendra Varman was an able _______ ruler.
(a) Chalukya
(b) Pallava
(c) Vakataka
Answer:
(b) Pallava

Question 29.
The famous ‘ratha’ temples of ________ were sculpted during the reign of Mahendra Varman.
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Kaniyakumari
(c) Mahabalipuram
Answer:
(c) Mahabalipuram

Question 30.
The Pallavas had a powerful and well equipped ______.
(a) army
(b) navy
(c) airforce
Answer:
(b) navy

Question 31.
The Rashtrakuta dynasty was first established in ______ by king Dantidurg.
(a) Mahabalipuram
(b) Nepal
(c) Maharashtra
Answer:
(c) Maharashtra

Question 32.
Krishna Raja I had the famous Kailas temple carved at _______.
(a) Ellora
(b) Ajanta
(c) Kanheri
Answer:
(a) Ellora

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
Name the ancient dynasties of Southern India.
Answer:
The Cher, Pandya and Chola dynasty were the ancient dynasties of Southern India.

Question 2.
Which ancient port is mentioned as an important port?
Answer:
‘Muziris, is mentioned as an important port on the coast of Kerala.

Question 3.
What was the capital of the Paridya kingdom?
Answer:
The capital of the Pandya kingdom was Madurai.

Question 4.
What was the capital of the Satavahana dynasty?
Answer:
Pratishthan or the preseht day Paithan in Maharashtra was the capital of the Satavahana dynasty.

Question 5.
Who was the founder of the Satavahana dynasty?
Answer:
iCing Simuk was the founder of the Satavahana dynasty.

Question 6.
Which custom did the Satavahana kings follow?
Answer:
The Satavahana kings were known to follow the custom of writing their mother’s name before their own.

Question 7.
Name a popular Satavahana king.
Answer:
Gautamiputra Satakarni was a very well known Satavahana king.

Question 8.
What title was given to Gautamiputra Satakarni?
Answer:
Gautamiputra Satakarni was awarded the title Tri-samudra-toya-peet-vahan’.

Question 9.
Give the extent of the Satavahana empire.
Answer:
The Satavahana empire extended from the river Narmada in the north to the Tunga- bhadra river in the south.

Question 10.
Name the trade centres of the Satavahana period.
Answer:
Paithan, Ter, Bhokardan, Kolhapur were recognised as important trade centres of the Satavahana period.

Question 11.
Which caves were sculpted during the Satavahana period?
Answer:
The Caves at Ajanta, Nashik, Karla, Bhaje, Kanheri, Junnar in Maharashtra were carved during the Satavahana period.

Question 12.
Which dynasty emerged after the Satavahan dynasty?
Answer:
The Vakataka dynasty emerged after the Satavahana dynasty.

Question 13.
Who founded the Vakataka dynasty?
Answer:
The Vakataka dynasty was founded by king Vindhyashakti.

Question 14.
What did the Vakataka king, Pravarsen II compose?
Answer:
The Vakataka king Pravarsen II composed ‘Setubandh’ in Maharashtra.

Question 15.
What was the name of Kalidasa’s literature?
Answer:
Kalidasa’s literature was ‘Meghdoot’.

Question 16.
Which powerful dynasty was from Karnataka?
Answer:
The Chalukya dynasty was a powerful dynasty from Karnataka.

Question 17.
Name the capital of the Chalukya dynasty.
Answer:
Badami or Vatapi was the capital of the Chalukya dynasty.

Question 18.
Name the temples built during the Chalukya period.
Answer:
The famous temples at Badami, Aihole and Pattadakal were built during the Chalukya period.

Question 19.
Which powerful dynasty existed in South India?
Answer:
The Pallavas were a powerful dynasty in South India.

Question 20.
Name the capital of the Pallava Kingdom.
Answer:
Kanchipuram in Tamil Nadu was the capital of the Pallava kingdom.

Question 21.
What is characteristic of the ‘ratha’ temples?
Answer:
The ‘ratha’ temples of Mahabalipuram are characteristic to have been sculpted from a single rock.

Question 22.
Write Yuan Chwang’s opinion about the Pallava kings.
Answer:
Yuan Chwang visited Kanchi and recorded that people of all religions received tolerant and just treatment under the rule of the Pallava kings.

Question 23.
Who was the founder of the Rashtrakuta Dynasty?
Answer:
King Dantidurg was the founder of the Rashtrakuta Dynasty.

Question 24.
Who sculpted the Kailas temple at Ellora?
Answer:
Krishna Raja I had the famous Kailas temple carved at Ellora.

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
Describe the work of literature by king Hala.
Answer:
The Satavahana king Hala composed the famous poetic work Gatha-Saptashati in Maharashtrin a Prakrit language.
This work provides information about the life of the people during the Satavahana period.